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Title 10: Energy</TITLE>
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<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 7, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="1" NODE="10:1" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 10—Energy--Volume 1</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Nuclear Regulatory Commission
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="10:1.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1—STATEMENT OF ORGANIZATION AND GENERAL INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 23, 25, 29, 161, 191 (42 U.S.C. 2033, 2035, 2039, 2201, 2241); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 203, 204, 205, 209 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5843, 5844, 5845, 5849); Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 552, 553); Reorganization Plan No. 1 of 1980, 5 U.S.C. Appendix (Reorganization Plans).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1 appear at 78 FR 34247, June 7, 2013.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1   Creation and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission was established by the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 (42 U.S.C. 5801 <I>et seq.</I>). This Act abolished the Atomic Energy Commission and, by section 201, transferred to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission all the licensing and related regulatory functions assigned to the Atomic Energy Commission by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 919 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>). These functions included those of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel. The Energy Reorganization Act became effective January 19, 1975 (E.O. 11834).
</P>
<P>(b) As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the five members of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or a quorum thereof sitting as a body, as provided by section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, the agency established by title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, comprising the members of the Commission and all offices, employees, and representatives authorized to act in any case or matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 29407, June 27, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.3   Sources of additional information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A statement of the NRC's organization, policies, procedures, assignments of responsibility, and delegations of authority is in the Nuclear Regulatory Commission Management Directives System and other NRC issuances, including local directives issued by Regional Offices. Letters and memoranda containing directives, delegations of authority and the like are also issued from time to time and may not yet be incorporated into the Management Directives System, parts of which are revised as necessary. Copies of the Management Directives System and other delegations of authority are available for public inspection and copying for a fee at the NRC Public Document Room, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738, and at each of NRC's Regional Offices. Information may also be obtained from the Office of Public Affairs or from Public Affairs Officers at the Regional Offices.
</P>
<P>(b) Commission meetings are open to the public, as provided by the Government in the Sunshine Act, unless they fall within an exemption to the Act's openness requirement and the Commission also has determined that the public interest requires that those particular meetings be closed. Information concerning Commission meetings may be obtained from the Office of the Secretary.


</P>
<P>(c) Information regarding the availability of NRC records under the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act of 1974 may be obtained from the Office of the Chief Information Officer. NRC's regulations are published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and codified in Title 10, Chapter 1, of the Code of Federal Regulations. They may be viewed electronically at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/cfr/.</I> Final opinions made in the adjudication of cases are published in “Nuclear Regulatory Commission Issuances,” and are available on a subscription basis from the National Technical Information Service, 5301 Shawnee Road, Alexandria, VA 22312.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 43419, Oct. 27, 1988; 53 FR 52993, Dec. 30, 1988; 54 FR 53313, Dec. 28, 1989; 57 FR 1639, Jan. 15, 1992; 63 FR 15740, Apr. 1, 1998; 64 FR 48947, Sept. 9, 1999; 67 FR 67097, Nov. 4, 2002; 70 FR 69421, Nov. 16, 2005; 79 FR 75737, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 45842, Aug. 3, 2015; 80 FR 74977, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.5   Location of principal offices and regional offices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The principal NRC offices are located in the Washington, DC, area. Facilities for the service of process and documents are maintained in the State of Maryland at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. The agency's official mailing address is U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The locations of NRC offices in the Washington, DC, area are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) One White Flint North Building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. 
</P>
<P>(2) Two White Flint North Building, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738.
</P>
<P>(3) Three White Flint North Building, 11601 Landsdown Street, North Bethesda, Maryland 20852.
</P>
<P>(b) The addresses of the NRC Regional Offices are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Region I, U.S. NRC, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415.</P>
<P>(2) Region II, USNRC, 245 Peachtree Center Avenue, NE., Suite 1200, Atlanta, GA 30303-1257.
</P>
<P>(3) Region III, USNRC, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352.
</P>
<P>(4) Region IV, US NRC, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67097, Nov. 4, 2002; 67 FR 70835, Nov. 27, 2002, as amended at 67 FR 77652, Dec. 19, 2002; 68 FR 75389, Dec. 31, 2003; 70 FR 69421, Nov. 16, 2005; 71 FR 15007, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 49148, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 5711, Jan. 31, 2008; 73 FR 30457, May 28, 2008; 75 FR 21980, Apr. 27, 2010; 76 FR 72084, Nov. 22, 2011; 77 FR 39903, July 6, 2012; 79 FR 75757, Dec. 19, 2014; 87 FR 20696, Apr. 8, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Headquarters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.11   The Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission, composed of five members, one of whom is designated by the President as Chairman, is established pursuant to section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. The Chairman is the principal executive officer of the Commission, and is responsible for the executive and administrative functions with respect to appointment and supervision of personnel, except as otherwise provided by the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and Reorganization Plan No. 1 of 1980 (45 FR 40561); distribution of business; use and expenditures of funds (except that the function of revising budget estimates and purposes is reserved to the Commission); and appointment, subject to approval of the Commission, of heads of major administrative units under the Commission. The Chairman is the official spokesman, as mandated by the Reorganization Plan No. 1 of 1980. The Chairman has ultimate authority for all NRC functions pertaining to an emergency involving an NRC Licensee. The Chairman's actions are governed by the general policies of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission is responsible for licensing and regulating nuclear facilities and materials and for conducting research in support of the licensing and regulatory process, as mandated by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and the Nuclear Nonproliferation Act of 1978; and in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, and other applicable statutes. These responsibilities include protecting public health and safety, protecting the environment, protecting and safeguarding nuclear materials and nuclear power plants in the interest of national security, and assuring conformity with antitrust laws. Agency functions are performed through standards setting and rulemaking; technical reviews and studies; conduct of public hearings; issuance of authorizations, permits, and licenses; inspection, investigation, and enforcement; evaluation of operating experience; and confirmatory research. The Commission is composed of five members, appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate.
</P>
<P>(c) The following staff units and officials report directly to the Commission: Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel, Office of the General Counsel, Office of the Secretary, Office of Commission Appellate Adjudication, Office of International Programs, and other committees and boards that are authorized or established specifically by the Act. The Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards and the Advisory Committee on Nuclear Waste also report directly to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) The Offices of Congressional Affairs and Public Affairs report directly to the Chairman.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 57 FR 1639, Jan. 15, 1992; 59 FR 63882, Dec. 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Inspector General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.12   Office of the Inspector General.</HEAD>
<FP>The Office of the Inspector General—
</FP>
<P>(a) Develops policies and standards that govern NRC's financial and management audit program;
</P>
<P>(b) Plans, directs, and executes the long-range, comprehensive audit program;
</P>
<P>(c) Conducts and reports on investigations and inquiries, as necessary, to ascertain and verify the facts with regard to the integrity of all NRC programs and operations;
</P>
<P>(d) Investigates possible irregularities or alleged misconduct of NRC employees and contractors;
</P>
<P>(e) Refers suspected or alleged criminal violations concerning NRC employees or contractors to the Department of Justice;
</P>
<P>(f) Reviews existing and proposed legislation and regulations for their impact on economy and efficiency in the administration of NRC's programs and operations;
</P>
<P>(g) Keeps the Commission and the Congress fully and currently informed, by means of semiannual and other reports, about fraud, abuse, and other serious deficiencies in NRC's programs and operations; and
</P>
<P>(h) Maintains liaison with audit and inspector general organizations and other law enforcement agencies in regard to all matters relating to the promotion of economy and efficiency and the detection of fraud and abuse in programs and operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53313, Dec. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Panels, Boards, and Committees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.13   Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) was established by section 29 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. Consisting of a maximum of 15 members, it reviews and reports on safety studies and applications for construction permits and facility operating licenses; advises the Commission with regard to hazards of proposed or existing reactor facilities and the adequacy of proposed reactor safety standards; upon request of the Department of Energy (DOE), reviews and advises with regard to the hazards of DOE nuclear activities and facilities; reviews any generic issues or other matters referred to it by the Commission for advice. The Committee, on its own initiative, may conduct reviews of specific generic matters or nuclear facility safety-related items. The ACRS conducts studies of reactor safety research and submits reports thereon to the U.S. Congress and the NRC as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.15   Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel.</HEAD>
<P>The Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel, established pursuant to section 191 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, conducts hearings for the Commission and such other regulatory functions as the Commission authorizes. The Panel is comprised of any number of Administrative Judges (full-time and part-time), who may be lawyers, physicists, engineers, and environmental scientists; and Administrative Law Judges, who hear antitrust, civil penalty, and other cases and serve as Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Chairmen. The Chief Administrative Judge develops and applies procedures governing the activities of Boards, Administrative Judges, and Administrative Law Judges and makes appropriate recommendations to the Commission concerning the rules governing the conduct of hearings. The Panel conducts all licensing and other hearings as directed by the Commission primarily through individual Atomic Safety and Licensing Boards composed of one or three Administrative Judges. Those boards are designated by either the Commission or the Chief Administrative Judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.18" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.18   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.19   Other committees, boards, and panels.</HEAD>
<P>Under section 161a. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the Commission may establish advisory bodies to make recommendations to it. Currently, four committees are in existence.
</P>
<P>(a) The Advisory Committee on Medical Uses of Isotopes (ACMUI) was established by the Atomic Energy Commission in July 1958. The ACMUI, composed of physicians and scientists, considers medical questions referred to it by the NRC staff and renders expert opinions regarding medical uses of radioisotopes. The ACMUI also advises the NRC staff, as requested, on matters of policy regarding licensing of medical uses of radioisotopes.
</P>
<P>(b) The Licensing Support Network Advisory Review Panel (LSNARP) was established by the Commission on October 3, 1989, pursuant to 10 CFR 2.1011(e) of the Commission's regulations. The LSNARP provides advice to the Commission on the design, development, and operation of the Licensing Support Network (LSN) an electronic information management system for use in the Commission's high-level radioactive waste (HLW) licensing proceeding. Membership consists of those interests that will be affected by the use of the LSN, and selected Federal agencies with expertise in large-scale electronic information systems. The individual representatives of these interests and agencies possess expertise in management information science and in managing records of the Commission's licensing process for the HLW repository.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 53314, Dec. 28, 1989; 68 FR 75389, Dec. 31, 2003; 79 FR 75737, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Commission Staff</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.10.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.23   Office of the General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of the General Counsel, established pursuant to section 25 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended—
</P>
<P>(a) Directs matters of law and legal policy, providing opinions, advice, and assistance to the agency with respect to all of its activities;
</P>
<P>(b) Reviews and prepares appropriate draft Commission decisions on public petitions seeking direct Commission action and rulemaking proceedings involving hearings, monitors cases pending before presiding officers and reviews draft Commission decisions on Atomic Safety and Licensing Board decisions and rulings;
</P>
<P>(c) Provides interpretation of laws, regulations, and other sources of authority;
</P>
<P>(d) Reviews the legal form and content of proposed official actions;
</P>
<P>(e) As requested, provides the agency with legal advice and opinions on acquisition matters, including agency procurement contracts; placement of work at Department of Energy national laboratories; interagency agreements to acquire supplies and services; and grants and cooperative agreements. Prepares or concurs in all other interagency agreements, delegations of authority, regulations; orders; licenses; and other legal documents and prepares legal interpretations thereof; 
</P>
<P>(f) Reviews and directs intellectual property (patent) work;
</P>
<P>(g) Represents and protects the interests of the NRC in legal matters and in court proceedings, and in relation to other government agencies, administrative bodies, committees of Congress, foreign governments, and members of the public; and
</P>
<P>(h) Represents the NRC staff as a party in NRC administrative hearings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 29407, June 27, 1991; 65 FR 59272, Oct. 4, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.24" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.10.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.24   Office of Commission Appellate Adjudication.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Commission Appellate Adjudication—
</P>
<P>(a) Monitors cases pending before presiding officers;
</P>
<P>(b) Provides the Commission with an analysis of any adjudicatory matter requiring a Commission decision (e.g., petitions for review, certified questions, stay requests) including available options;
</P>
<P>(c) Drafts any necessary decisions pursuant to the Commission's guidance after presentation of options; and
</P>
<P>(d) Consults with the Office of the General Counsel in identifying the options to be presented to the Commission and in drafting the final decision to be presented to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 29407, June 27, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.10.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.25   Office of the Secretary of the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of the Secretary of the Commission—
</P>
<P>(a) Provides general management services to support the Commission and to implement Commission decisions; and advises and assists the Commission and staff on the planning, scheduling, and conduct of Commission business including preparation of internal procedures;
</P>
<P>(b) Prepares the Commission's meeting agenda;
</P>
<P>(c) Manages the Commission Staff Paper and COMSECY systems;
</P>
<P>(d) Receives, processes, and controls Commission mail, communications, and correspondence;
</P>
<P>(e) Maintains the Commission's official records and acts as Freedom of Information administrative coordinator for Commission records;
</P>
<P>(f) Codifies Commission decisions in memoranda directing staff action and monitors compliance;
</P>
<P>(g) Receives, processes, and controls motions and pleadings filed with the Commission; issues and serves adjudicatory orders on behalf of the Commission; receives and distributes public comments in rulemaking proceedings; issues proposed and final rules on behalf of the Commission; maintains the official adjudicatory and rulemaking dockets of the Commission; and exercises responsibilities delegated to the Secretary in 10 CFR 2.303 and 2.346;
</P>
<P>(h) Administers the NRC Historical Program;
</P>
<P>(i) Integrates office automation initiatives into the Commission's administrative system;
</P>
<P>(j) Functions as the NRC Federal Advisory Committee Management Officer; and
</P>
<P>(k) Provides guidance and direction on the use of the NRC seal and flag.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 15741, Apr. 1, 1998; 69 FR 2233, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.10.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.26   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.10.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.27   Office of Congressional Affairs.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Congressional Affairs—
</P>
<P>(a) Advises the Chairman, the Commission, and NRC staff on all NRC relations with Congress and the views of Congress toward NRC policies, plans and activities;
</P>
<P>(b) Maintains liaison with Congressional committees and members of Congress on matters of interest to NRC;
</P>
<P>(c) Serves as primary contact point for all NRC communications with Congress;
</P>
<P>(d) Coordinates NRC internal activities with Congress;
</P>
<P>(e) Plans, develops, and manages NRC's legislative programs; and
</P>
<P>(f) Monitors legislative proposals, bills, and hearings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 1639, Jan. 15, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.28" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.10.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.28   Office of Public Affairs.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Public Affairs—
</P>
<P>(a) Develops policies, programs, and procedures for the Chairman's approval for informing the public of NRC activities;
</P>
<P>(b) Prepares, clears, and disseminates information to the public and the news media concerning NRC policies, programs, and activities;
</P>
<P>(c) Keeps NRC management informed on media coverage of activities of interest to the agency;
</P>
<P>(d) Plans, directs, and coordinates the activities of public information staffs located at Regional Offices;
</P>
<P>(e) Conducts a cooperative program with schools; and
</P>
<P>(f) Carries out assigned activities in the area of consumer affairs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 1639, Jan. 15, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.10.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.29   Office of International Programs.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of International Programs—
</P>
<P>(a) Advises the Chairman, the Commission, and NRC staff on international issues;
</P>
<P>(b) Recommends policies concerning nuclear exports and imports, international safeguards, international physical security, nonproliferation matters, and international cooperation and assistance in nuclear safety and radiation protection;
</P>
<P>(c) Plans, develops, and manages international nuclear safety information exchange programs and coordinates international research agreements;
</P>
<P>(d) Obtains, evaluates, and uses pertinent information from other NRC and U.S. Government offices in processing nuclear export and import license applications;
</P>
<P>(e) Establishes and maintains working relationships with individual countries and international nuclear organizations, as well as other involved U.S. Government agencies; and
</P>
<P>(f) Assures that all international activities carried out by the Commission and staff are well coordinated internally and Government-wide and are consistent with NRC and U.S. policies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 1639, Jan. 15, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.11" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Chief Financial Officer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.31   Office of the Chief Financial Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of the Chief Financial Officer—
</P>
<P>(a) Oversees all financial management activities relating to NRC's programs and operations and provides advice to the Chairman on financial management matters;
</P>
<P>(b) Develops and transmits the NRC's budget estimates to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and Congress;
</P>
<P>(c) Establishes financial management policy including accounting principles and standards for the agency and provides policy guidance to senior managers on the budget and all other financial management activities;
</P>
<P>(d) Provides an agencywide management control program for financial and program managers that establishes internal control processes and provides for timely corrective actions regarding material weaknesses that are disclosed to comply with the Federal Manager's Financial Integrity Act of 1982;
</P>
<P>(e) Develops and manages an agencywide planning, budgeting, and performance management process;
</P>
<P>(f) Develops and maintains an integrated agency accounting and financial management system, including an accounting system, and financial reporting and internal controls;
</P>
<P>(g) Directs, manages, and provides policy guidance and oversight of agency financial management personnel activities and operations;
</P>
<P>(h) Prepares and transmits an annual financial management report to the Chairman and the Director, Office of Management and Budget, including an audited financial statement;
</P>
<P>(i) Monitors the financial execution of NRC's budget in relation to actual expenditures, controls the use of NRC funds to ensure that they are expended in accordance with applicable laws and financial management principles, and prepares and submits to the Chairman timely cost and performance reports;
</P>
<P>(j) Establishes, maintains, and oversees the implementation of license fee polices and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(k) Reviews, on a periodic basis, fees and other charges imposed by NRC for services provided and makes recommendations for revising those charges, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 15741, Apr. 1, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.12" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Executive Director for Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.12.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.32   Office of the Executive Director for Operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Executive Director for Operations (EDO) reports for all matters to the Chairman, and is subject to the supervision and direction of the Chairman as provided in Reorganization Plan No. 1 of 1980.
</P>
<P>(b) The EDO supervises and coordinates policy development and operational activities in the following offices: The Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, the Office of Nuclear Regulatory Research, the Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, and the NRC Regional Offices; and the following staff offices: The Office of Enforcement, the Office of Administration, the Office of the Chief Information Officer, the Office of Investigations, the Office of Small Business and Civil Rights, the Office of the Chief Human Capital Officer, and other organizational units as shall be assigned by the Commission. The EDO is also responsible for implementing the Commission's policy directives pertaining to these offices.
</P>
<P>(c) The EDO exercises powers and functions delegated to the EDO under the Reorganization Plan No. 1 of 1980, this chapter, or otherwise by the Commission or Chairman, as appropriate. The EDO has the authority to perform any function that may be performed by an office director reporting to the EDO.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53314, Dec. 28, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 63882, Dec. 12, 1994. Redesignated and amended at 63 FR 15741, Apr. 1, 1998; 67 FR 3585, Jan. 25, 2002; 70 FR 69421, Nov. 16, 2005; 73 FR 5711, Jan. 31, 2008; 78 FR 34247, June 7, 2013; 79 FR 75737, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Staff Offices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.33   Office of Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Enforcement—
</P>
<P>(a) Develops policies and programs for enforcement of NRC requirements;
</P>
<P>(b) Manages major enforcement action;
</P>
<P>(c) Assesses the effectiveness and uniformity of Regional enforcement actions; and
</P>
<P>(d) Manages the NRC allegation program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69422, Nov. 16, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.34" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.34   Office of Administration.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Administration—
</P>
<P>(a) Develops and implements agencywide contracting policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(b) Develops policies and procedures and manages the operation and maintenance of NRC offices, facilities, and equipment;
</P>
<P>(c) Plans, develops, establishes, and administers policies, standards, and procedures for the overall NRC security program; and
</P>
<P>(d) Manages the NRC Management Directives Program and provides translation services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 15741, Apr. 1, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 69422, Nov. 16, 2005; 83 FR 30287, June 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.35   Office of the Chief Information Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of the Chief Information Officer—
</P>
<P>(a) Plans, directs, and oversees the NRC's information resources, including technology infrastructure and delivery of information management services, to meet the mission and goals of the agency;
</P>
<P>(b) Provides principal advice to the Chairman to ensure that information technology (IT) is acquired and information resources across the agency are managed in a manner consistent with Federal information resources management (IRM) laws and regulations;
</P>
<P>(c) Assists senior management in recognizing where information technology can add value while improving NRC operations and service delivery;
</P>
<P>(d) Directs the implementation of a sound and integrated IT architecture to achieve NRC's strategic and IRM goals;
</P>
<P>(e) Monitors and evaluates the performance of information technology and information management programs based on applicable performance measures and assesses the adequacy of IRM skills of the agency;
</P>
<P>(f) Provides guidance and oversight for the selection, control and evaluation of information technology investments;
</P>
<P>(g) Provides oversight and quality assurance for the design and operation of the Licensing Support Network (LSN) services and for the completeness and integrity of the LSN database, ensures that the LSN meets the requirements of 10 CFR part 2, subpart J, concerning the use of the LSN in the Commission's high-level waste licensing proceedings, and provides technical oversight of DOE in the design, development, and operation of the LSN; and
</P>
<P>(h) Plans, recommends, and oversees the NRC's Information Technology (IT) Security Program consistent with applicable laws, regulations, management initiatives, and policies;
</P>
<P>(i) Provides principal advice to the NRC on the infrastructure, as well as the programmatic and administrative aspects of cybersecurity;
</P>
<P>(j) Establishes NRC-wide cybersecurity guidelines;
</P>
<P>(k) Guides security process maturity, as well as formulating and overseeing the cybersecurity program budget; and
</P>
<P>(l) Ensures NRC-wide integration, direction, and coordination of IT security planning and performance within the framework of the NRC IT Security Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69422, Nov. 16, 2005, as amended at 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.36" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.36   Office of Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Investigations (OI)—
</P>
<P>(a) Conducts investigations of licensees, applicants, their contractors or vendors, including the investigation of all allegations of wrongdoing by other than NRC employees and contractors;
</P>
<P>(b) Maintains current awareness of inquiries and inspections by other NRC offices to identify the need for formal investigations;
</P>
<P>(c) Makes appropriate referrals to the Department of Justice;
</P>
<P>(d) Maintains liaison with other agencies and organizations to ensure the timely exchange of information of mutual interest; and
</P>
<P>(e) Issues subpoenas where necessary or appropriate for the conduct of investigations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53315, Dec. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.37   Office of Small Business and Civil Rights.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Small Business and Civil Rights—
</P>
<P>(a) Develops and implements an effective small and disadvantaged business program in accordance with the Small Business Act, as amended, and plans and implements NRC policies and programs relating to equal employment oppportunity and civil rights matters as required by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) and the Office of Personnel Management (OPM);
</P>
<P>(b) Ensures that appropriate consideration is given to Labor Surplus Area firms and Women Business Enterprises, and conducts an outreach program aimed at contractors desiring to do business with NRC;
</P>
<P>(c) Maintains liaison with other Government agencies and trade associations;
</P>
<P>(d) Coordinates efforts with the Director, Division of Contracts, and Directors of other affected offices;
</P>
<P>(e) Develops and recommends for approval by the Executive Director for Operations, NRC policy providing for equal employment opportunity in all aspects of Federal personnel practice;
</P>
<P>(f) Develops, monitors, and evaluates the agency's equal employment opportunity efforts and affirmative action programs to ensure compliance with NRC policy;
</P>
<P>(g) Serves as the principal contact with local and national public and private organizations to facilitate the NRC equal opportunity program; and
</P>
<P>(h) Coordinates all efforts pertaining to small and disadvantaged business utilization and equal employment opportunity with Office Directors and Regional Administrators.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 63882, Dec. 12, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.38" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.38   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.39   Office of the Chief Human Capital Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of the Chief Human Capital Officer—
</P>
<P>(a) Plans and implements NRC policies, programs, and services to provide for the effective organization, utilization, and development of the agency's human resources;
</P>
<P>(b) Provides labor relations and personnel policy guidance and supporting services to NRC managers and employees;
</P>
<P>(c) Provides training, benefits administration, and counseling services for NRC employees;
</P>
<P>(d) Collects, analyzes, and provides data on the characteristics, allocation, utilization, and retention of NRC's workforce;
</P>
<P>(e) Provides staffing advice and services to NRC managers and employees; and
</P>
<P>(f) Provides executive resources management and organizational and managerial development services to the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 15742, Apr. 1, 1998; 78 FR 34247, June 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1.40-1.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.13.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1.40-1.41   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Program Offices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.42" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.14.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.42   Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards (NMSS) is responsible for regulating activities that provide for the safe and secure production of nuclear fuel used in commercial nuclear reactors; the safe storage, transportation, and disposal of low-level and high-level radioactive waste and spent nuclear fuel; the transportation of radioactive materials regulated under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act); and all other medical, industrial, academic, and commercial uses of radioactive isotopes. The NMSS ensures safety and security by implementing a regulatory program involving activities including licensing, inspection, assessment of environmental impacts for all nuclear material facilities and activities, assessment of licensee performance, events analysis, enforcement, and identification and resolution of generic issues. The NMSS leads, manages, and facilitates rulemaking activities for new, advanced, and operating power reactors, as well as non-power utilization facilities; nuclear materials, including production of nuclear fuel used in commercial nuclear reactors, as well as storage, transportation, and disposal of high-level radioactive waste and spent nuclear fuel, and the transportation of radioactive materials regulated by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards—
</P>
<P>(1) Develops and implements NRC policy for the regulation of: Uranium recovery, conversion, and enrichment; fuel fabrication and development; transportation of nuclear materials, including certification of transport containers and reactor spent fuel storage; safe management and disposal of spent fuel and low-level and high-level radioactive waste; and medical, industrial, academic, and commercial uses of radioactive isotopes;
</P>
<P>(2) Has lead responsibility within NRC for domestic and international safeguards policy and regulation for fuel cycle facilities, including material control and accountability;
</P>
<P>(3) Plans and directs NRC's program of cooperation and liaison with States, local governments, interstate and Indian Tribe organizations; and coordinates liaison with other Federal agencies;
</P>
<P>(4) Participates in formulation of policies involving NRC/State cooperation and liaison;
</P>
<P>(5) Develops and directs administrative and contractual programs for coordinating and integrating Federal and State regulatory activities;
</P>
<P>(6) Maintains liaison between NRC and State, interstate, regional, Tribal, and quasi-governmental organizations on regulatory matters;
</P>
<P>(7) Promotes NRC visibility and performs general liaison with other Federal agencies, and keeps NRC management informed of significant developments at other Federal agencies that affect the NRC;
</P>
<P>(8) Monitors nuclear-related State legislative activities;
</P>
<P>(9) Directs regulatory activities of State Liaison and State Agreement Officers located in Regional Offices;
</P>
<P>(10) Participates in policy matters on State Public Utility Commissions (PUCs);
</P>
<P>(11) Administers the State Agreements program in a partnership arrangement with the States;
</P>
<P>(12) Develops staff policy and procedures and implements State Agreements program under the provisions of Section 274b of the Act;
</P>
<P>(13) Provides oversight of the program for reviews of Agreement State programs to determine their adequacy and compatibility as required by Section 274j of the Act and other periodic reviews that may be performed to maintain a current level of knowledge of the status of the Agreement State programs;
</P>
<P>(14) Provides training to the States as provided by Section 274i of the Act and also to NRC staff and staff of the U.S. Navy and U.S. Air Force;
</P>
<P>(15) Provides technical assistance to Agreement States;
</P>
<P>(16) Maintains an exchange of information with the States;
</P>
<P>(17) Conducts negotiations with States expressing an interest in seeking a Section 274b Agreement;
</P>
<P>(18) Supports, consistent with Commission directives, State efforts to improve regulatory control for radiation safety over radioactive materials not covered by the Act;
</P>
<P>(19) Serves as the NRC liaison to the Conference of Radiation Control Program Directors, Inc. (CRCPD) and coordinates NRC technical support of CRCPD committees;
</P>
<P>(20) Conducts high-level waste pre-licensing activities, consistent with direction in the Nuclear Waste Policy Act and the Energy Policy Act, to ensure appropriate standards and regulatory guidance are in place, and interacts with the applicant;
</P>
<P>(21) Is responsible for regulation and licensing of recycling technologies intended to reduce the amount of waste to be disposed through geologic disposal and to reduce proliferation concerns since the technologies do not produce separated plutonium;
</P>
<P>(22) Interacts with the Department of Energy and international experts, in order to develop an appropriate regulatory framework, in recycling during development, demonstration, and deployment of new advanced recycling technologies that recycle nuclear fuel in a manner that does not produce separated plutonium;
</P>
<P>(23) Creates and maintains the regulatory infrastructure to support the agency's role in licensing a reprocessing facility and a related fuel fabrication facility and vitrification and/or waste storage facility;
</P>
<P>(24) Prepares the NRC to perform its regulatory role for new, expanded, and modified commercial fuel cycle facilities that may include recycling, transmutation, and actinide burning. This includes regulatory processes such as licensing, inspection, assessment of license performance assessment, events analysis, and enforcement that will ensure that this technology can be safely and securely implemented commercially in the United States;
</P>
<P>(25) Develops, promulgates, and amends regulations generally associated with the materials regulated by NMSS and for all security-related regulations that will be applied to licensees and holders of certificates of compliance issued by NMSS;
</P>
<P>(26) Through a Center of Expertise, leads, manages and facilitates the following rulemaking activities:


</P>
<P>(i) Develops and implements policies and procedures for the review and publication of NRC rulemakings, and ensures compliance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act and the Congressional Review Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Supports all technical, financial, legal, and administrative rules, including the development of regulatory analyses and the orderly codification of the NRC's regulations in chapter I of this title; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Manages all aspects of the 10 CFR 2.802 Petition for Rulemaking process.
</P>
<P>(27) Supports safeguards activities including—
</P>
<P>(i) Developing overall agency policy;
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitoring and assessing the threat environment, including liaison with intelligence agencies, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Conducting licensing and review activities appropriate to deter and protect against threats of radiological sabotage and threats of theft or diversion of nuclear material at regulated facilities and during transport;
</P>
<P>(28) Regulates medical, industrial, academic, and commercial uses of radioactive isotopes;
</P>
<P>(29) Oversees safe management and disposal of low-level radioactive wastes;
</P>
<P>(30) Through a Center of Expertise, plans and directs program for financial assurance of NRC licensees including:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensuring licensee compliance with decommissioning funding assurance requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Preparing safety evaluations for power reactor and research and test reactors, applicants for new reactors, and for actions associated with license transfers and exemption requests in which financial qualifications and decommissioning funding assurance requirements for reactor licensees are assessed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring compliance with power reactor financial protection requirements in the form of insurance and indemnity coverage, and evaluation of foreign ownership, control, or domination concerns for potential new licensees; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensuring that materials and Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation licensees meet decommissioning funding assurance requirements.
</P>
<P>(v) Performing review and evaluation related to reactor facilities insurance, indemnity, and antitrust matters.
</P>
<P>(31) Manages the decommissioning of facilities and sites when their licensed functions are over; and
</P>
<P>(32) Identifies and takes action for activities under its responsibility, including consulting and coordinating with international, Federal, State, Tribal and local agencies, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(33) Through a Center of Expertise, supports public health, safety, and the environment through activities including:
</P>
<P>(i) Leading environmental reviews for the NRC's licensing actions as required by the National Environmental Policy Act, the Endangered Species Act, Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, National Marine Sanctuaries Act, and the National Historic Preservation Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Developing and issuing Environmental Impact Statements and Environmental Assessments, and coordinating these activities with other Federal, State, Tribal and local agencies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitoring licensee adherence to endangered and threatened species take limits and consulting with other Federal agencies on endangered and threatened species, critical habitats, essential fish habitats, and national marine sanctuary resources.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 75737, Dec. 19, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015; 83 FR 30287, June 28, 2018; 88 FR 57875, Aug. 24, 2023]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.14.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.43   Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation—
</P>
<P>(a) Develops, promulgates and implements regulations and develops and implements policies, programs, and procedures for all aspects of licensing, inspection, and safeguarding of—
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturing, production, and utilization facilities, except for those concerning fuel reprocessing plants and isotopic enrichment plants;
</P>
<P>(2) Receipt, possession, and ownership of source, byproduct, and special nuclear material used or produced at facilities licensed under 10 CFR parts 50, 52, 53, and 54;
</P>
<P>(3) Operators of such facilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Emergency preparedness at such facilities; and
</P>
<P>(5) Contractors and suppliers of such facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Identifies and takes action regarding conditions and licensee performance that may adversely affect public health and safety, the environment, or the safeguarding of nuclear reactor facilities;
</P>
<P>(c) Assesses and recommends or takes action regarding incidents or accidents;
</P>
<P>(d) Provides special assistance as required in matters involving reactor facilities exempt from licensing;
</P>
<P>(e) Provides guidance and implementation direction to Regional Offices on reactor licensing, inspection, and safeguards programs assigned to the Region, and appraises Regional program performance in terms of effectiveness and uniformity; and
</P>
<P>(f) Performs other functions required for implementation of the reactor licensing, inspection, and safeguard programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69422, Nov. 16, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 49470, Aug. 28, 2007; 88 FR 57876, Aug. 24, 2023; 91 FR 15765, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.44" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.14.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.44   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.14.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.45   Office of Nuclear Regulatory Research.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Nuclear Regulatory Research—
</P>
<P>(a) Plans, recommends, and implements programs of nuclear regulatory research, standards development, and resolution of generic safety issues for nuclear power plants and other facilities regulated by the NRC;
</P>
<P>(b) Coordinates research activities within and outside the agency including appointment of staff to committees and conferences; and
</P>
<P>(c) Coordinates NRC participation in international standards-related activities and national volunteer standards efforts, including appointment of staff to committees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 31602, Aug. 21, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 69544, Dec. 17, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.46" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.14.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.46   Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response—
</P>
<P>(a) Develops overall agency policy and provides management direction for evaluation and assessment of technical issues involving security at nuclear facilities, and is the agency safeguards and security interface with the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), the Department of Energy (DOE), other agencies; and the international activities related to the security of radioactive material and nuclear facilities;
</P>
<P>(b) Develops, in participation with domestic and international agencies, foreign policy guidance and provides international assistance in nuclear security and safeguards;
</P>
<P>(c) Develops emergency preparedness policies, regulations, programs, and guidelines for nuclear facilities; 
</P>
<P>(d) Provides technical expertise regarding emergency preparedness issues and interpretations; and
</P>
<P>(e) Develops and directs the NRC program for response to incidents, and is the agency emergency preparedness and incident response interface with the DHS, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) and other Federal agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69422, Nov. 16, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 28450, May 21, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.2.14.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.47   NRC Regional Offices.</HEAD>
<P>Each Regional Administrator executes established NRC policies and assigned programs relating to inspection, enforcement, licensing, State agreements, State liaison, and emergency response within Regional boundaries set out in § 1.5(b) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—NRC Seal and Flag</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.3.15.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.51   Description and custody of NRC seal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 201(a) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, has adopted an official seal. Its description is as follows: An American bald eagle (similar to that on the Great Seal of the United States of America) of brown and tan with claws and beak of yellow, behind a shield of red, white, and blue, clutching a cluster of thirteen arrows in its left claw and a green olive branch in its right claw, positioned on a field of white, with the words “United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission” in dark blue encircling the eagle. The eagle represents the United States of America and its interests.
</P>
<P>(b) The Official Seal of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission is illustrated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec02oc91.055.gif"/>
<P>(c) The Secretary of the Commission is responsible for custody of the impression seals and of replica (plaque) seals.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.3.15.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.53   Use of NRC seal or replicas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The use of the seal or replicas is restricted to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) NRC letterhead stationery;
</P>
<P>(2) NRC award certificates and medals;
</P>
<P>(3) Security credentials and employee identification cards;
</P>
<P>(4) NRC documents, including agreements with States, interagency or governmental agreements, foreign patent applications, certifications, special reports to the President and Congress and, at the discretion of the Secretary of the Commission, such other documents as the Secretary finds appropriate;
</P>
<P>(5) Plaques—the design of the seal may be incorporated in plaques for display at NRC facilities in locations such as auditoriums, presentation rooms, lobbies, offices of senior officials, on the fronts of buildings, and other places designated by the Secretary;
</P>
<P>(6) The NRC flag (which incorporates the design of the seal);
</P>
<P>(7) Official films prepared by or for the NRC, if deemed appropriate by the Director of Governmental and Public Affairs;
</P>
<P>(8) Official NRC publications that represent an achievement or mission of NRC as a whole, or that are cosponsored by NRC and other Government departments or agencies; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any other uses as the Secretary of the Commission finds appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who uses the official seal in a manner other than as permitted by this section shall be subject to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 1017, which provides penalties for the fraudulent or wrongful use of an official seal, and to other provisions of law as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.3.15.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.55   Establishment of official NRC flag.</HEAD>
<P>The official flag is based on the design of the NRC seal. It is 50 inches by 66 inches in size with a 38-inch diameter seal incorporated in the center of a dark blue field with a gold fringe.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.57" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.3.15.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.57   Use of NRC flag.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The use of the flag is restricted to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) On or in front of NRC installations;
</P>
<P>(2) At NRC ceremonies;
</P>
<P>(3) At conferences involving official NRC participation (including permanent display in NRC conference rooms);
</P>
<P>(4) At Governmental or public appearances of NRC executives;
</P>
<P>(5) In private offices of senior officials; or
</P>
<P>(6) As the Secretary of the Commission otherwise authorizes.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC flag must only be displayed together with the U.S. flag.
</P>
<FP>When they are both displayed on a speaker's platform, the U.S. flag must occupy the position of honor and be placed at the speaker's right as he or she faces the audience, and the NRC flag must be placed at the speaker's left.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.59" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.1.3.15.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.59   Report of violations.</HEAD>
<P>In order to ensure adherence to the authorized uses of the NRC seal and flag as provided in this subpart, a report of each suspected violation of this subpart, or any questionable use of the NRC seal or flag, should be submitted to the Secretary of the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2—AGENCY RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 29, 53, 62, 63, 81, 102, 103, 104, 105, 161, 181, 182, 183, 184, 186, 189, 191, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2039, 2073, 2092, 2093, 2111, 2132, 2133, 2134, 2135, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2236, 2239, 2241, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 114(f), 134, 135, 141 (42 U.S.C. 10134(f), 10154, 10155, 10161); Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 552, 553, 554, 557, 558); National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note. Section 2.205(j) also issued under Sec. 31001(s), Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321-373 (28 U.S.C. 2461 note).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>27 FR 377, Jan. 13, 1962, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 2 appear at 79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.0.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part governs the conduct of all proceedings, other than export and import licensing proceedings described in part 110, under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, for—
</P>
<P>(a) Granting, suspending, revoking, amending, or taking other action with respect to any license, construction permit, or application to transfer a license;
</P>
<P>(b) Issuing orders and demands for information to persons subject to the Commission's jurisdiction, including licensees and persons not licensed by the Commission;
</P>
<P>(c) Imposing civil penalties under Section 234 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(d) Rulemaking under the Act and the Administrative Procedure Act; and
</P>
<P>(e) Standard design approvals under part 52 or 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40684, Aug. 15, 1991, as amended at 72 FR 49470, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15765, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.0.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.2   Subparts.</HEAD>
<P>Each subpart other than subpart C of this part sets forth special rules applicable to the type of proceeding described in the first section of that subpart. Subpart C sets forth general rules applicable to all types of proceedings except rulemaking, and should be read in conjunction with the subpart governing a particular proceeding. Subpart I of this part sets forth special procedures to be followed in proceedings in order to safeguard and prevent disclosure of Restricted Data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2233, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.0.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.3   Resolution of conflict.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any conflict between a general rule in subpart C of this part and a special rule in another subpart or other part of this chapter applicable to a particular type of proceeding, the special rule governs.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specifically referenced, the procedures in this part do not apply to hearings in 10 CFR parts 4, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16, and subparts H and I of 10 CFR part 110.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2233, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.0.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part,
</P>
<P><I>ACRS</I> means the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards established by the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919).
</P>
<P><I>Adjudication</I> means the process for the formulation of an order for the final disposition of the whole or any part of any proceeding subject to this part, other than rule making.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Law Judge</I> means an individual appointed by the Commission pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105 to conduct proceedings subject to this part.


</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Commission of five members or a quorum thereof sitting as a body, as provided by section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1242), or any officer to whom has been delegated authority pursuant to section 161n of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Commission adjudicatory employee</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) The Commissioners and members of their personal staffs;
</P>
<P>(2) The employees of the Office of Commission Appellate Adjudication;
</P>
<P>(3) The members of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel and staff assistants to the Panel;
</P>
<P>(4) A presiding officer appointed under § 2.313, and staff assistants to a presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(5) Special assistants (as defined in § 2.322);
</P>
<P>(6) The General Counsel, the Solicitor, the Deputy General Counsel for Legislation, Rulemaking, and Agency Administration, and employees of the Office of the General Counsel under the supervision of the Solicitor;
</P>
<P>(7) The Secretary and employees of the Office of the Secretary; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any other Commission officer or employee who is appointed by the Commission, the Secretary, or the General Counsel to participate or advise in the Commission's consideration of an initial or final decision in a proceeding. Any other Commission officer or employee who, as permitted by § 2.348, participates or advises in the Commission's consideration of an initial or final decision in a proceeding must be appointed as a Commission adjudicatory employee under this paragraph and the parties to the proceeding must be given written notice of the appointment.
</P>
<P><I>Contested proceeding</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) A proceeding in which there is a controversy between the NRC staff and the applicant for a license or permit concerning the issuance of the license or permit or any of the terms or conditions thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) A proceeding in which the NRC is imposing a civil penalty or other enforcement action, and the subject of the civil penalty or enforcement action is an applicant for or holder of a license or permit, or is or was an applicant for or holder of a license or permit, or is or was an applicant for a standard design certification under part 52 or 53 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) A proceeding in which a petition for leave to intervene in opposition to an application for a license or permit has been granted or is pending before the Commission.








</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>) to the extent that the Department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the U.S. Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components and transferred to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104 (b), (c) and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151).
</P>
<P><I>Electric utility</I> means any entity that generates or distributes electricity and which recovers the costs of this electricity, either directly or indirectly through rates established by the entity itself or by a separate regulatory authority. Investor-owned utilities including generation or distribution subsidiaries, public utility districts, municipalities, rural electric cooperatives, and State and Federal agencies, including associations of any of the foregoing, are included within the meaning of “electric utility.”
</P>
<P><I>Electronic acknowledgment</I> means a communication transmitted electronically from the E-Filing system to the submitter confirming receipt of electronic filing and service.


</P>
<P><I>Electronic Hearing Docket</I> means the publicly available NRC information system that receives, stores, and provides online access via the NRC website to all publicly filed documents in NRC adjudications and to non-publicly filed documents for authorized participants pursuant to a protective order and that is available for use during a hearing to the extent circumstances, including the availability of internet access, permit.




</P>
<P><I>E-Filing System</I> means an electronic system that receives, stores, and distributes documents filed in proceedings for which an electronic hearing docket has been established.
</P>
<P><I>Ex parte communication</I> means an oral or written communication not on the public record with respect to which reasonable prior notice to all parties is not given.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means a production facility or a utilization facility as defined in §§ 50.2 and 53.020 of this chapter.






</P>
<P><I>Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC</I> means the document issued by the Commission that sets forth the transmission methods and formatting standards for filing and service under E-Filing. The document can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Identification and authentication</I> means the use of the NRC's electronic credentialing program to validate a participant's identity.






</P>
<P><I>Investigative or litigating function</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Personal participation in planning, conducting, or supervising an investigation; or
</P>
<P>(2) Personal participation in planning, developing, or presenting, or in supervising the planning, development or presentation of testimony, argument, or strategy in a proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a license, including an early site permit, construction permit, operating license, combined license, manufacturing license, or renewed license issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means a person who is authorized to conduct activities under a license.
</P>
<P><I>NRC personnel</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) NRC employees;
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of §§ 2.702 and 2.709 only, persons acting in the capacity of consultants to the Commission, regardless of the form of the contractual arrangements under which such persons act as consultants to the Commission; and
</P>
<P>(3) Members of advisory boards, committees, and panels of the NRC; members of boards designated by the Commission to preside at adjudicatory proceedings; and officers or employees of Government agencies, including military personnel, assigned to duty at the NRC.

 
</P>
<P><I>NRC records and documents</I> means any book, paper, map, photograph, brochure, punch card, magnetic tape, paper tape, sound recording, pamphlet, slide, motion picture, or other documentary material regardless of form or characteristics, made by, in the possession of, or under the control of the NRC pursuant to Federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business as evidence of NRC organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, operations, programs or other activities. “NRC records and documents” do not include objects or articles such as structures, furniture, tangible exhibits or models, or vehicles and equipment.
</P>
<P>NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> is the Internet uniform resource locator name for the Internet address of the Web site where NRC will ordinarily make available its public records for inspection.
</P>
<P><I>Optical Storage Media</I> means any physical computer component that meets E-Filing Guidance standards for storing, saving, and accessing electronic documents.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means an individual or organization (including a governmental entity) that has petitioned to intervene in a proceeding or requested a hearing but that has not yet been granted party status by an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board or other presiding officer. Participant also means a party to a proceeding and any interested State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe that seeks to participate in a proceeding under § 2.315(c). For the purpose of service of documents, the NRC staff is considered a participant even if not participating as a party.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means (1) any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, government agency other than the Commission or the Department, except that the Department shall be considered a person with respect to those facilities of the Department specified in section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244), any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Portable storage media</I> means a physical piece of hardware that can be added to and removed from a computing device or network for the purpose of transferring or storing electronic files. Examples include, but are not limited to, optical storage media such as CDs and DVDs as well as non-optical media such as solid-state drives and flash drives.








</P>
<P><I>Potential party</I> means any person who has requested, or who may intend to request, a hearing or petition to intervene in a hearing under 10 CFR part 2, other than hearings conducted under Subparts J and M of 10 CFR part 2.
</P>
<P><I>Presiding officer</I> means the Commission, an administrative law judge, an administrative judge, an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, or other person designated in accordance with the provisions of this part, presiding over the conduct of a hearing conducted under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Public Document Room</I> means the facility at the NRC at which agency public records will ordinarily be made available for inspection.


</P>
<P><I>Safeguards Information</I> means information not classified as National Security Information or Restricted Data which specifically identifies a licensee's or applicant's detailed control and accounting procedures for the physical protection of special nuclear material in quantities determined by the Commission through order or regulation to be significant to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; detailed security measures (including security plans, procedures, and equipment) for the physical protection of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material in quantities determined by the Commission through order or regulation to be significant to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; security measures for the physical protection and location of certain plant equipment vital to the safety of production or utilization facilities; and any other information within the scope of Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the unauthorized disclosure of which, as determined by the Commission through order or regulation, could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of sabotage or theft or diversion of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary to the Commission.
</P>
<P>Except as redefined in this section, words and phrases which are defined in the Act and in this chapter have the same meaning when used in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 377, Jan. 13, 1962]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 2.4, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.0.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains no information collection requirements and therefore is not subject to requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 43408, Aug. 22, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Procedure for Issuance, Amendment, Transfer, or Renewal of a License, and Standard Design Approval</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.100" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.100   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes the procedure for issuance of a license; amendment of a license at the request of the licensee; transfer and renewal of a license; and issuance of a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49470, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15765, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.101   Filing of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) An application for a permit, a license, a license transfer, a license amendment, a license renewal, or a standard design approval, shall be filed with the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as prescribed by the applicable provisions of this chapter. A prospective applicant may confer informally with the NRC staff before filing an application.
</P>
<P>(2) Each application for a license for a facility or for receipt of waste radioactive material from other persons for the purpose of commercial disposal by the waste disposal licensee will be assigned a docket number. However, to allow a determination as to whether an application for a limited work authorization, construction permit, operating license, early site permit, standard design approval, combined license, or manufacturing license for a production or utilization facility is complete and acceptable for docketing, it will be initially treated as a tendered application. A copy of the tendered application will be available for public inspection at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC PDR. Generally, the determination on acceptability for docketing will be made within a period of 30 days. However, in selected applications, the Commission may decide to determine acceptability based on the technical adequacy of the application as well as its completeness. In these cases, the Commission, under § 2.104(a), will direct that the notice of hearing be issued as soon as practicable after the application has been tendered, and the determination of acceptability will be made generally within a period of 60 days. For docketing and other requirements for applications under part 61 of this chapter, see paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, determines that a tendered application for a construction permit or operating license for a production or utilization facility, and/or any environmental report required pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter, or part thereof as provided in paragraphs (a)(5) or (a-1) of this section are complete and acceptable for docketing, a docket number will be assigned to the application or part thereof, and the applicant will be notified of the determination. With respect to the tendered application and/or environmental report or part thereof that is acceptable for docketing, the applicant will be requested to:
</P>
<P>(i) Submit to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, such additional copies as the regulations in part 50, subpart A of part 51, and part 53 of this chapter require;




</P>
<P>(ii) Serve a copy on the chief executive of the municipality in which the facility or site which is the subject of an early site permit is to be located or, if the facility or site which is the subject of an early site permit is not to be located within a municipality, on the chief executive of the county, and serve a notice of availability of the application or environmental report on the chief executives of the municipalities or counties which have been identified in the application or environmental report as the location of all or part of the alternative sites, containing as applicable, the docket number of the application; a brief description of the proposed site and facility; the location of the site and facility as primarily proposed and alternatively listed; the name, address, telephone number, and e-mail address (if available) of the applicant's representative who may be contacted for further information; notification that a draft environmental impact statement will be issued by the Commission and will be made available upon request to the Commission; and notification that if a request is received from the appropriate chief executive, the applicant will transmit a copy of the application and environmental report, and any changes to these documents which affect the alternative site location, to the executive who makes the request. In complying with the requirements of this paragraph, the applicant should not make public distribution of those parts of the application subject to § 2.390(d). The applicant shall submit to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, an affidavit that service of the notice of availability of the application or environmental report has been completed along with a list of names and addresses of those executives upon whom the notice was served; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Make direct distribution of additional copies to Federal, State, and local officials in accordance with the requirements of this chapter and written instructions furnished to the applicant by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate. Such written instructions will be furnished as soon as practicable after all or any part of the application, or environmental report, is tendered. The copies submitted to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, and distributed by the applicant shall be completely assembled documents, identified by docket number. Subsequently distributed amendments to applications, however, may include revised pages to previous submittals and, in such cases, the recipients will be responsible for inserting the revised pages.
</P>
<P>(4) The tendered application for a construction permit, operating license, early site permit, standard design approval, combined license, or manufacturing license will be formally docketed upon receipt by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, of the required additional copies. Distribution of the additional copies shall be deemed to be complete as of the time the copies are deposited in the mail or with a carrier prepaid for delivery to the designated addresses. The date of docketing shall be the date when the required copies are received by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate. Within 10 days after docketing, the applicant shall submit to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, an affidavit that distribution of the additional copies to Federal, State, and local officials has been completed in accordance with requirements of this chapter and written instructions furnished to the applicant by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate. Amendments to the application and environmental report shall be filed and distributed and an affidavit shall be furnished to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, in the same manner as for the initial application and environmental report. If it is determined that all or any part of the tendered application and/or environmental report is incomplete and therefore not acceptable for processing, the applicant will be informed of this determination, and the respects in which the document is deficient.
</P>
<P>(5) An applicant for a construction permit under part 50 or 53 of this chapter or a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter for a production or utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter, and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3); or § 50.22; or part 53, as applicable, of this chapter, or is a testing facility, may submit the information required of applicants by part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter in two parts. One part shall be accompanied by the information required by § 50.30(f), § 52.80(b), or § 53.1100(f) of this chapter, as applicable. The other part shall include any information required by § 50.34(a) and, if applicable, § 50.34a of this chapter; or §§ 52.79 and 52.80(a) of this chapter; or §§ 53.1109, 53.1306, 53.1309, and 53.1312 of this chapter; or §§ 53.1109, 53.1413, 53.1416, and 53.1419 of this chapter, as applicable. One part may precede or follow other parts by no longer than 6 months. If it is determined that either of the parts as described above is incomplete and not acceptable for processing, the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will inform the applicant of this determination and the respects in which the document is deficient. Such a determination of completeness will generally be made within a period of 30 days. Whichever part is filed first shall also include the fee required by § 50.30(e) or § 53.1100(e) and § 170.21 of this chapter and the information required by §§ 50.33, 50.34(a)(1), and 52.79(a)(1) of this chapter; or §§ 53.1109, 53.1309, and 53.1416 of this chapter, as applicable, and § 50.37 or § 53.1115, as applicable, of this chapter. The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will accept for docketing an application for a construction permit under part 50 or 53 of this chapter or a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter for a production or utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter, and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3), or § 50.22, or part 53, as applicable, of this chapter or is a testing facility where one part of the application as described above is complete and conforms to the requirements of part 50 of this chapter. The additional parts will be docketed upon a determination by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, that it is complete.






</P>
<P>(6)-(8) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) An applicant for a construction permit for a utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3), or § 50.22, or part 53 of this chapter, an applicant for or holder of an early site permit under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, or an applicant for a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, who seeks to conduct the activities authorized under § 50.10(d) or § 53.1130 of this chapter may submit a complete application under paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, which includes the information required by § 50.10(d) or § 53.1130 of this chapter. Alternatively, the applicant (other than an applicant for or holder of an early site permit) may submit its application in two parts:
</P>
<P>(i) Part one must include the information required by § 50.33(a) through (f) or §§ 53.1109(a) through (e) and 53.1306 of this chapter, and the information required by § 50.10(d)(2) and (3) or § 53.1130(a)(2) and (3) of this chapter, as applicable.


</P>
<P>(ii) Part two must include the remaining information required by the Commission's regulations in this chapter which was not submitted in part one, <I>provided, however,</I> that this information may be submitted in accordance with the applicable provisions of paragraph (a)(5) of this section, or, for a construction permit applicant, paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Part two of the application must be submitted no later than 18 months after submission of part one.
</P>
<P>(a-1) <I>Early consideration of site suitability issues.</I> An applicant for a construction permit under part 50 of this chapter or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter for a utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3) or § 50.22 of this chapter or is a testing facility, may request that the Commission conduct an early review and hearing and render an early partial decision in accordance with subpart F of this part on issues of site suitability within the purview of the applicable provisions of parts 50, 51, 52, and 100 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Construction permit.</I> The applicant for the construction permit may submit the information required of applicants by the provisions of this chapter in three parts:
</P>
<P>(i) Part one shall include or be accompanied by any information required by §§ 50.34(a)(1) and 50.30(f) of this chapter which relates to the issue(s) of site suitability for which an early review, hearing, and partial decision are sought, except that information with respect to operation of the facility at the projected initial power level need not be supplied, and shall include the information required by §§ 50.33(a) through (e) and 50.37 of this chapter. The information submitted shall also include:
</P>
<P>(A) Proposed findings on the issues of site suitability on which the applicant has requested review and a statement of the bases or the reasons for those findings,
</P>
<P>(B) A range of postulated facility design and operation parameters that is sufficient to enable the Commission to perform the requested review of site suitability issues under the applicable provisions of parts 50, 51, and 100, and
</P>
<P>(C) Information concerning the applicant's site selection process and long-range plans for ultimate development of the site required by § 2.603(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) Part two shall include or be accompanied by the remaining information required by §§ 50.30(f), 50.33, and 50.34(a)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Part three shall include the remaining information required by §§ 50.34a and (in the case of a nuclear power reactor) 50.34(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) The information required for part two or part three shall be submitted during the period the partial decision on part one is effective. Submittal of the information required for part three may precede by no more than 6 months or follow by no more than 6 months the submittal of the information required for part two.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combined license under part 52.</I> An applicant for a combined license under part 52 of this chapter may submit the information required of applicants by the provisions of this chapter in three parts:
</P>
<P>(i) Part one shall include or be accompanied by any information required by §§ 52.79(a)(1) and 50.30(f) of this chapter which relates to the issue(s) of site suitability for which an early review, hearing, and partial decision are sought, except that information with respect to operation of the facility at the projected initial power level need not be supplied, and shall include the information required by §§ 50.33(a) through (e) and 50.37 of this chapter. The information submitted shall also include:
</P>
<P>(A) Proposed findings on the issues of site suitability on which the applicant has requested review and a statement of the bases or the reasons for those findings;
</P>
<P>(B) A range of postulated facility design and operation parameters that is sufficient to enable the Commission to perform the requested review of site suitability issues under the applicable provisions of parts 50, 51, 52, and 100; and
</P>
<P>(C) Information concerning the applicant's site selection process and long-range plans for ultimate development of the site required by § 2.621(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) Part two shall include or be accompanied by the remaining information required by §§ 50.30(f), 50.33, and 52.79(a)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Part three shall include the remaining information required by §§ 52.79 and 52.80 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) The information required for part two or part three shall be submitted during the period the partial decision on part one is effective. Submittal of the information required for part three may precede by no more than 6 months or follow by no more than 6 months the submittal of the information required for part two.
</P>
<P>(b) After the application has been docketed, each applicant for a license for receipt of waste radioactive material from other persons for the purpose of commercial disposal by the waste disposal licensee, except applicants under part 61 of this chapter, which must comply with paragraph (f) of this section, shall serve a copy of the application and environmental report, as appropriate, on the chief executive of the municipality in which the activity is to be conducted or, if the activity is not to be conducted within a municipality on the chief executive of the county, and serve a notice of availability of the application or environmental report on the chief executives of the municipalities or counties which have been identified in the application or environmental report as the location of all or part of the alternative sites, containing the docket number of the application; a brief description of the proposed site and facility; the location of the site and facility as primarily proposed and alternatively listed; the name, address, telephone number, and email address (if available) of the applicant's representative who may be contacted for further information; notification that a draft environmental impact statement will be issued by the Commission and will be made available upon request to the Commission; and notification that if a request is received from the appropriate chief executive, the applicant will transmit a copy of the application and environmental report, and any changes to such documents which affect the alternative site location, to the executive who makes the request. In complying with the requirements of this paragraph the applicant should not make public distribution of those parts of the application subject to § 2.390(d). The applicant shall submit to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, an affidavit that service of the notice of availability of the application or environmental report has been completed along with a list of names and addresses of those executives upon whom the notice was served.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt and acceptance for docketing of the required portions of the application dealing with radiological health and safety and environmental matters, notice of receipt will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> including an appropriate notice of hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will give notice of the docketing of the public health and safety, common defense and security, and environmental parts of an application for a license for a facility or for receipt of waste radioactive material from other persons for the purpose of commercial disposal by the waste disposal licensee, except that for applications pursuant to part 61 of this chapter, paragraph (f) of this section applies to the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the facility is to be located or the activity is to be conducted and will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of docketing of the application, which states the purpose of the application and specifies the location at which the proposed activity would be conducted.




</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each application for construction authorization for a HLW repository at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, and each application for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, and any environmental impact statement required in connection therewith pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter shall be processed in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) To allow a determination as to whether the application is complete and acceptable for docketing, it will be initially treated as a tendered document, and a copy will be available for public inspection in the Commission's Public Document Room. Twenty copies shall be filed to enable this determination to be made.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards determines that the tendered document is complete and acceptable for docketing, a docket number will be assigned and the applicant will be notified of the determination. If it is determined that all or any part of the tendered document is incomplete and therefore not acceptable for processing, the applicant will be informed of this determination and the respects in which the document is deficient.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) If a tendered document is acceptable for docketing, the applicant will be requested to submit to the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards such additional copies of the application and environmental impact statement as the regulations in part 60 or 63 and subpart A of part 51 of this chapter require; serve a copy of such application and environmental impact statement on the chief executive of the municipality in which the geologic repository operations area is to be located, or if the geologic repository operations area is not to be located within a municipality, on the chief executive of the county (or to the Tribal organization, if it is to be located within an Indian reservation); and make direct distribution of additional copies to Federal, State, Indian Tribe, and local officials in accordance with the requirements of this chapter, and written instructions from the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. All such copies shall be completely assembled documents, identified by docket number. Subsequently distributed amendments to the application, however, may include revised pages to previous submittals and, in such cases, the recipients are responsible for inserting the revised pages.
</P>
<P>(6) The tendered document will be formally docketed upon receipt by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, of the required additional copies. The date of docketing shall be the date when the required copies are received by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. Within ten (10) days after docketing, the applicant shall submit to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, a written statement that distribution of the additional copies to Federal, State, Indian Tribe, and local officials has been completed in accordance with requirements of this chapter and written instructions furnished to the applicant by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. Distribution of the additional copies shall be deemed to be complete as of the time the copies are deposited in the mail or with a carrier prepaid for delivery to the designated addressees.
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to the application and supplements to the environmental impact statement shall be filed and distributed and a written statement shall be furnished to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, in the same manner as for the initial application and environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(8) The Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of docketing which identifies the State and location at which the proposed geologic repository operations area would be located and will give notice of docketing to the governor of that State. The notice of docketing will state that the Commission finds that a hearing is required in the public interest, prior to issuance of a construction authorization, and will recite the matters specified in § 2.104(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) Each application for a license to receive radioactive waste from other persons for disposal under part 61 of this chapter and the accompanying environmental report shall be processed in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) To allow a determination as to whether the application or environmental report is complete and acceptable for docketing, it will be initially treated as a tendered document, and a copy will be available for public inspection in the Commission's Public Document Room, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. One original and two copies shall be filed to enable this determination to be made.
</P>
<P>(i) Upon receipt of a tendered application, the Commission will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the filed application and will notify the governors, legislatures and other appropriate State, county, and municipal officials and Tribal governing bodies of the States and areas containing or potentially affected by the activities at the proposed site and the alternative sites. The Commission will inform these officials that the Commission staff will be available for consultation pursuant to § 61.71 of this chapter. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will note the opportunity for interested persons to submit views and comments on the tendered application for consideration by the Commission and applicant. The Commission will also notify the U.S. Bureau of Indian Affairs when Tribal governing bodies are notified.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission will also post a public notice in a newspaper or newspapers of general circulation in the affected States and areas summarizing information contained in the applicant's tendered application and noting the opportunity to submit views and comments.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, determines that the tendered document is complete and acceptable for docketing, a docket number will be assigned and the applicant will be notified of the determination. If it is determined that all or any part of the tendered document is incomplete and therefore not acceptable for processing, the applicant will be informed of this determination and the aspects in which the document is deficient.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) With respect to any tendered document that is acceptable for docketing, the applicant will be requested to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Submit to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, such additional copies as required by the regulations in part 61 and subpart A of part 51 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(B) Serve a copy on the chief executive of the municipality in which the waste is to be disposed of or, if the waste is not to be disposed of within a municipality, serve a copy on the chief executive of the county in which the waste is to be disposed of; 
</P>
<P>(C) Make direct distribution of additional copies to Federal, State, Indian Tribal, and local officials in accordance with the requirements of this chapter and written instructions from the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; and
</P>
<P>(D) Serve a notice of availability of the application and environmental report on the chief executives or governing bodies of the municipalities or counties which have been identified in the application and environmental report as the location of all or part of the alternative sites if copies are not distributed under paragraph (f)(2)(i)(C) of this section to the executives or bodies.
</P>
<P>(ii) All distributed copies shall be completely assembled documents identified by docket number. However, subsequently distributed amendments may include revised pages to previous submittals and, in these cases, the recipients will be responsible for inserting the revised pages. In complying with the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section the applicant may not make public distribution of those parts of the application subject to § 2.390(d).
</P>
<P>(3) The tendered document will be formally docketed upon receipt by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, of the required additional copies. Distribution of the additional copies shall be deemed to be complete as of the time the copies are deposited in the mail or with a carrier prepaid for delivery to the designated addressees. The date of docketing shall be the date when the required copies are received by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. Within ten (10) days after docketing, the applicant shall submit to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, a written statement that distribution of the additional copies to Federal, State, Indian Tribal, and local officials has been completed in accordance with requirements of this section and written instructions furnished to the applicant by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards.
</P>
<P>(4) Amendments to the application and environmental report shall be filed and distributed and a written statement shall be furnished to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, in the same manner as for the initial application and environmental report.
</P>
<P>(5) The Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of docketing which identifies the State and location of the proposed waste disposal facility and will give notice of docketing to the governor of that State and other officials listed in paragraph (f)(3) of this section and will, in a reasonable period thereafter, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice under § 2.105 offering an opportunity to request a hearing to the applicant and other potentially affected persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 15833, Apr. 15, 1976]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 2.101, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.102" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.102   Administrative review of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During review of an application by the NRC staff, an applicant may be required to supply additional information. The staff may request any one party to the proceeding to confer with the NRC staff informally. In the case of docketed application for a limited work authorization, construction permit, operating license, early site permit, standard design approval, combined license, or manufacturing license under this chapter, the NRC staff shall establish a schedule for its review of the application, specifying the key intermediate steps from the time of docketing until the completion of its review.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will refer the docketed application to the ACRS as required by law and in such additional cases as the Director or the Commission may determine to be appropriate. The ACRS will render to the Commission one or more reports as required by law or as requested by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will make each report of the ACRS a part of the record of the docketed application, and transmit copies to the appropriate State and local officials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 377, Jan. 13, 1962, as amended at 36 FR 13270, July 17, 1971; 37 FR 15130, July 28, 1972; 47 FR 9986, Mar. 9, 1982; 69 FR 2235, Jan. 14, 2004; 70 FR 61887, Oct. 27, 2005; 72 FR 49472, Aug. 28, 2007; 72 FR 57439, Oct. 9, 2007; 73 FR 5715, Jan. 31, 2008; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019; 88 FR 57876, Aug. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.103   Action on applications for byproduct, source, special nuclear material, facility and operator licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, finds that an application for a byproduct, source, special nuclear material, facility, or operator license complies with the requirements of the Act, the Energy Reorganization Act, and this chapter, the Director will issue a license. If the license is for a facility, or for receipt of waste radioactive material from other persons for the purpose of commercial disposal by the waste disposal licensee, or for a construction authorization for a HLW repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, or if it is to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will inform the State, Tribal and local officials specified in § 2.104(c) of the issuance of the license. For notice of issuance requirements for licenses issued under part 61 of this chapter, see § 2.106(d).
</P>
<P>(b) If the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, finds that an application does not comply with the requirements of the Act and this chapter the Director may issue a notice of proposed denial or a notice of denial of the application and inform the applicant in writing of:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of any deficiencies or the reason for the proposed denial or the denial, and
</P>
<P>(2) The right of the applicant to demand a hearing within twenty (20) days from the date of the notice or such longer period as may be specified in the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 10152, Sept. 17, 1963, as amended at 47 FR 57478, Dec. 27, 1982; 66 FR 55787, Nov. 2, 2001; 69 FR 2235, Jan. 14, 2004; 73 FR 5715, Jan. 31, 2008; 77 FR 46589, Aug. 3, 2012; 79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019; 88 FR 57876, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearing on Application—How Initiated</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.104" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.104   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of an application on which a hearing is required by the Act or this chapter, or in which the Commission finds that a hearing is required in the public interest, the Secretary will issue a notice of hearing to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice must be published at least 15 days, and in the case of an application concerning a limited work authorization, construction permit, early site permit, or combined license for a facility of the type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, as applicable, or a testing facility, at least 30 days, before the date set for hearing in the notice.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> In addition, in the case of an application for a limited work authorization, construction permit, early site permit, or combined license for a facility of the type described in § 50.22 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, as applicable, or a testing facility, the notice must be issued as soon as practicable after the NRC has docketed the application. If the Commission decides, under § 2.101(a)(2), to determine the acceptability of the application based on its technical adequacy as well as completeness, the notice must be issued as soon as practicable after the application has been tendered.


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> If the notice of hearing concerning an application for a limited work authorization, construction permit, early site permit, or combined license for a facility of the type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, as applicable, or a testing facility, does not specify the time and place of initial hearing, a subsequent notice will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> which will provide at least 30-day notice of the time and place of that hearing. After this notice is given, the presiding officer may reschedule the commencement of the initial hearing for a later date or reconvene a recessed hearing without again providing at least 30-day notice.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The notice of hearing must state:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) The authority under which the hearing is to be held;
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law to be considered;
</P>
<P>(4) The date by which requests for hearing or petitions to intervene must be filed;
</P>
<P>(5) The presiding officer designated for the hearing, or the procedure that the Commission will use to designate a presiding officer for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Secretary will transmit a notice of hearing on an application for a license for a production or utilization facility, including a limited work authorization, early site permit, combined license, but not for a manufacturing license, for a license for receipt of waste radioactive material from other persons for the purpose of commercial disposal by the waste disposal licensee, for a license under part 61 of this chapter, for a construction authorization for a high-level waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, and for a license under part 72 of this chapter to acquire, receive or possess spent fuel for the purpose of storage in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) to the governor or other appropriate official of the State and to the chief executive of the municipality in which the facility is to be located or the activity is to be conducted or, if the facility is not to be located or the activity conducted within a municipality, to the chief executive of the county (or to the Tribal organization, if it is to be located or conducted within an Indian reservation).
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary will transmit a notice of hearing on an application for a license under part 72 of this chapter to acquire, receive or possess spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste or radioactive material associated with high-level radioactive waste for the purpose of storage in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) to the same persons who received the notice of docketing under § 72.16(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49472, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 57439, Oct. 9, 2007; 91 FR 15766, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.105   Notice of proposed action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a hearing is not required by the Act or this chapter, and if the Commission has not found that a hearing is in the public interest, it will, before acting thereon, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> as applicable, or on the NRC's website, <I>https://www.nrc.gov,</I> or both, at the Commission's discretion, either a notice of intended operation under § 52.103(a) or § 53.1452(a) of this chapter, as applicable, and a proposed finding that inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria for a combined license under subpart C of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, have been or will be met, or a notice of proposed action with respect to an application for:




</P>
<P>(1) A license for a facility;
</P>
<P>(2) A license for receipt of waste radioactive material from other persons for the purpose of commercial disposal by the waste disposal licensee. All licenses issued under part 61 of this chapter shall be so noticed;
</P>
<P>(3) An amendment of a license specified in paragraph (a) (1) or (2) of this section and which involves a significant hazards consideration;
</P>
<P>(4) An amendment to an operating license, combined license, or manufacturing license for a facility licensed under § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, as applicable, or for a testing facility, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the Commission determines under § 50.58 or § 53.1515 of this chapter that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, though it will provide notice of opportunity for a hearing pursuant to this section, it may make the amendment immediately effective and grant a hearing thereafter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Commission determines under §§ 50.58 and 50.91 or § 53.1515 of this chapter, as applicable, that an emergency situation exists or that exigent circumstances exist and that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, it will provide notice of opportunity for a hearing pursuant to § 2.106 (if a hearing is requested, it will be held after issuance of the amendment);


</P>
<P>(5) A license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, or an amendment thereto, when the license or amendment would authorize actions which may significantly affect the health and safety of the public; 
</P>
<P>(6) An amendment to a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, when such an amendment would authorize actions which may significantly affect the health and safety of the public; 
</P>
<P>(7) A license under part 72 of this chapter to acquire, receive or possess spent fuel for the purpose of storage in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or to acquire, receive or possess spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste or radioactive material associated with high-level radioactive waste for the purpose of storage in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS);
</P>
<P>(8) An amendment to a license specified in paragraph (a)(7) of this section when such an amendment presents a genuine issue as to whether the health and safety of the public will be significantly affected; or
</P>
<P>(9) Any other license or amendment as to which the Commission determines that an opportunity for a public hearing should be afforded;
</P>
<P>(10) In the case of an application for an operating license for a facility of a type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter, or a testing facility, a notice of opportunity for hearing shall be issued as soon as practicable after the application has been docketed; or


</P>
<P>(11) In the case of an application for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area, a notice of opportunity for hearing, as required by this paragraph, shall be published prior to Commission action authorizing receipt of such wastes; this requirement is in addition to the procedures set out in §§ 2.101(f)(8) and 2.104 of this part, which provide for a hearing on the application prior to issuance of a construction authorization.
</P>
<P>(12) An amendment to an early site permit issued under subpart A of part 52, or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the early site permit does not provide authority to conduct the activities allowed under § 50.10(e)(1) or § 53.1130(b)(1) of this chapter, the amendment will involve no significant hazards consideration, and though the NRC will provide notice of opportunity for a hearing under this section, it may make the amendment immediately effective and grant a hearing thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the early site permit provides authority to conduct the activities allowed under § 50.10(e)(1) or § 53.1130(b)(1) of this chapter and the Commission determines under §§ 50.58 and 50.91 or § 53.1515 of this chapter that an emergency situation exists or that exigent circumstances exist and that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, it will provide notice of opportunity for a hearing under § 2.106 (if a hearing is requested, which will be held after issuance of the amendment).
</P>
<P>(13) A manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter.








</P>
<P>(b) A notice of proposed action published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> will set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of the action proposed;
</P>
<P>(2) The manner in which a copy of the safety analysis and of the ACRS report, if any, may be obtained or examined.
</P>
<P>(3) For a notice of intended operation under § 52.103(a) or § 53.1452(a) of this chapter, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The identification of the NRC action as making the finding required under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) The manner in which the licensee notifications under § 52.99(c) or § 53.1449(c) of this chapter which are required to be made available by § 52.99(e)(2) or § 53.1449(e)(2) of this chapter may be obtained and examined;


</P>
<P>(iii) The manner in which copies of the safety analysis may be obtained and examined; and


</P>
<P>(iv) Any conditions, limitations, or restrictions to be placed on the license in connection with the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter, and the expiration date or circumstances (if any) under which the conditions, limitations or restrictions will no longer apply.




</P>
<P>(c) If an application for a license is complete enough to permit all evaluations, other than completion inspection, necessary for the issuance of a construction permit and operating license, the notice of proposed issuance of a construction permit may provide that on completion of construction and inspection the operating license will be issued without further prior notice.
</P>
<P>(d) The notice of proposed action will provide that, within the time period provided under § 2.309(b):
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant may file a request for a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any person whose interest may be affected by the proceeding may file a request for a hearing or a petition for leave to intervene if a hearing has already been requested.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) If no request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene is filed within the time prescribed in the notice, the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, may take the proposed action, inform the appropriate State and local officials, and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of issuance of the license or other action.
</P>
<P>(2) If a request for a hearing or a petition for leave to intervene is filed within the time prescribed in the notice, the presiding officer who shall be an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board established by the Commission or by the Chief Administrative Judge of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel, will rule on the request and/or petition, and the Secretary or the presiding officer will issue a notice of hearing or an appropriate order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 377, Jan. 13, 1962]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 2.105, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.106" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.106   Notice of issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will inform the State and local officials specified in § 2.104(c) and publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing the issuance of:
</P>
<P>(1) A license or an amendment of a license for which a notice of proposed action has been previously published;
</P>
<P>(2) An amendment of a license for a facility of the type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter, as applicable, or a testing facility, whether or not a notice of proposed action has been previously published; and
</P>
<P>(3) The finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(b) The notice of issuance will set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a license or amendment:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the license or amendment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The manner in which copies of the safety analysis, if any, may be obtained and examined; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A finding that the application for the license or amendment complies with the requirements of the Act and this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter:






</P>
<P>(i) The manner in which copies of the safety analysis, if any, may be obtained and examined; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A finding that the prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses have been performed, the prescribed acceptance criteria have been met, and that the license complies with the requirements of the Act and this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards will also cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of, and will inform the State, local, and Tribal officials specified in § 2.104(c) of any action with respect to an application for construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area, a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, or an amendment to such license for which a notice of proposed action has been previously published.
</P>
<P>(d) The Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards will also cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of, and will inform the State and local officials or Tribal governing body specified in § 2.104(c) of any licensing action with respect to a license to receive radioactive waste from other persons for disposal under part 61 of this chapter or the amendment of such a license for which a notice of proposed action has been previously published.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 15131, July 28, 1972, as amended at 38 FR 9586, Apr. 18, 1973; 46 FR 13978, Feb. 25, 1981; 47 FR 57478, Dec. 27, 1982; 66 FR 55787, Nov. 2, 2001; 69 FR 2235, Jan. 14, 2004; 72 FR 49473, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 5716, Jan. 31, 2008; 77 FR 46590, Aug. 3, 2012; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019; 91 FR 15766, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.107" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.107   Withdrawal of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may permit an applicant to withdraw an application prior to the issuance of a notice of hearing on such terms and conditions as it may prescribe, or may, on receiving a request for withdrawal of an application, deny the application or dismiss it with prejudice. If the application is withdrawn prior to issuance of a notice of hearing, the Commission shall dismiss the proceeding. Withdrawal of an application after the issuance of a notice of hearing shall be on such terms as the presiding officer may prescribe. 
</P>
<P>(b) The withdrawal of an application does not authorize the removal of any document from the files of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the withdrawal of an application if notice of receipt of the application has been previously published.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 377, Jan. 13, 1962, as amended at 28 FR 10152, Sept. 17, 1963; 69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004; 73 FR 5716, Jan. 31, 2008; 77 FR 46590, Aug. 3, 2012; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.108" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.108   Denial of application for failure to supply information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, may deny an application if an applicant fails to respond to a request for additional information within thirty (30) days from the date of the request, or within such other time as may be specified.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of denial when notice of receipt of the application has previously been published, but notice of hearing has not yet been published. The notice of denial will provide that, within thirty (30) days after the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant may demand a hearing, and
</P>
<P>(2) Any person whose interest may be affected by the proceeding may file a petition for leave to intervene.
</P>
<P>(c) When both a notice of receipt of the application and a notice of hearing have been published, the presiding officer, upon a motion made by the staff under § 2.323, will rule whether an application should be denied by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 46590, Aug. 3, 2012, as amended at 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.109   Effect of timely renewal application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for the renewal of licenses identified in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section, if at least 30 days before the expiration of an existing license authorizing any activity of a continuing nature, the licensee files an application for a renewal or for a new license for the activity so authorized, the existing license will not be deemed to have expired until the application has been finally determined.




</P>
<P>(b) If the licensee of a nuclear power plant licensed under § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter files a sufficient application for renewal of either an operating license or a combined license at least 5 years before the expiration of the existing license, the existing license will not be deemed to have expired until the application has been finally determined.
</P>
<P>(c) If the holder of an early site permit licensed under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, as applicable, files a sufficient application for renewal under § 52.29 or § 53.1173 of this chapter, as applicable, at least 12 months before the expiration of the existing early site permit, the existing permit will not be deemed to have expired until the application has been finally determined.
</P>
<P>(d) If the licensee of a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter files a sufficient application for renewal under § 52.177 or § 53.1295 of this chapter at least 12 months before the expiration of the existing license, the existing license will not be deemed to have expired until the application has been finally determined.




</P>
<P>(e) If the licensee of an Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation (ISFSI) licensed under subpart C of part 72 of this chapter files a sufficient application for renewal under § 72.42 of this chapter at least 2 years before the expiration of the existing license, the existing license will not be deemed to have expired until the application has been finally determined.
</P>
<P>(f) If the licensee of a non-power production or utilization facility licensed under 10 CFR 50.22, or a testing facility, files a sufficient application for renewal at least 2 years before the expiration of the existing license, the existing license will not be deemed to have expired until the application has been finally determined.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49473, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 85 FR 70437, Nov. 5, 2020; 89 FR 106250, Dec. 30, 2024; 91 FR 15767, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.110" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.110   Filing and administrative action on submittals for standard design approval or early review of site suitability issues.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A submittal for a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter shall be subject to §§ 2.101(a) and 2.390 to the same extent as if it were an application for a permit or license.






</P>
<P>(2) Except as specifically provided otherwise by the provisions of appendix Q to parts 50 of this chapter, a submittal for early review of site suitability issues under appendix Q to parts 50 of this chapter shall be subject to §§ 2.101(a)(2) through (4) to the same extent as if it were an application for a permit or license.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon initiation of review by the NRC staff of a submittal for an early review of site suitability issues under appendix Q to part 50 of this chapter, or for a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of receipt of the submittal, inviting comments from interested persons within 60 days of publication or other time as may be specified, for consideration by the NRC staff and ACRS in their review.


</P>
<P>(c)(1) Upon completion of review by the NRC staff and the ACRS of a submittal for a standard design approval, the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a determination as to whether or not the design is acceptable, subject to terms and conditions as may be appropriate, and shall make available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> a report that analyzes the design.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon completion of review by the NRC staff and, if appropriate by the ACRS, of a submittal for early review of site suitability issues, the NRC staff shall prepare a staff site report which shall identify the location of the site, state the site suitability issues reviewed, explain the nature and scope of the review, state the conclusions of the staff regarding the issues reviewed and state the reasons for those conclusions. Upon issuance of an NRC staff site report, the NRC staff shall publish a notice of the availability of the report in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall make the report available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I> The NRC staff shall also send a copy of the report to the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the site is located, and to the chief executive of the municipality in which the site is located or, if the site is not located in a municipality, to the chief executive of the county.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49474, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 5716, Jan. 31, 2008; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019; 91 FR 15767, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.111" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.1.19.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.111   Prohibition of sex discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>No person shall on the grounds of sex be excluded from participation in, be denied a license, standard design approval, or petition for rulemaking (including a design certification), be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity carried on or receiving Federal assistance under the Act or the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49474, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedure for Imposing Requirements by Order, or for Modification, Suspension, or Revocation of a License, or for Imposing Civil Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.200" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.2.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.200   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart prescribes the procedures in cases initiated by the staff, or upon a request by any person, to impose requirements by order, or to modify, suspend, or revoke a license, or to take other action as may be proper, against any person subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission. However, with regard to the holder of a part 76 certificate of compliance or compliance plan, except for civil penalty procedures in this subpart, the applicable procedures are set forth in § 76.70 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart also prescribes the procedures in cases initiated by the staff to impose civil penalties pursuant to section 234 of the Act and section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 16896, Aug. 26, 1971, as amended at 42 FR 28893, June 6, 1977; 48 FR 44172, Sept. 28, 1983; 62 FR 6668, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.201" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.2.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.201   Notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to an alleged violation of any provision of the Act or this chapter or the conditions of a license or an order issued by the Commission, the Commission may serve on the licensee or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission a written notice of violation; a separate notice may be omitted if an order pursuant to § 2.202 or demand for information pursuant to § 2.204 is issued that otherwise identifies the apparent violation. The notice of violation will concisely state the alleged violation and may require that the licensee or other person submit, within 20 days of the date of the notice or other specified time, a written explanation or statement in reply if the Commission believes that the licensee has not already addressed all the issues contained in the notice of violation, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Corrective steps which have been taken by the licensee or other person and the results achieved;
</P>
<P>(2) Corrective steps which will be taken; and
</P>
<P>(3) The date when full compliance will be achieved.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice may require the licensee or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission to admit or deny the violation and to state the reasons for the violation, if admitted. It may provide that, if an adequate reply is not received within the time specified in the notice, the Commission may issue an order or a demand for information as to why the license should not be modified, suspended or revoked or why such other action as may be proper should not be taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40684, Aug. 15, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 43408, Aug. 22, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.202" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.2.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.202   Orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may institute a proceeding to modify, suspend, or revoke a license or to take such other action as may be proper by serving on the licensee or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission an order that will:
</P>
<P>(1) Allege the violations with which the licensee or other person subject to the Commission's jurisdiction is charged, or the potentially hazardous conditions or other facts deemed to be sufficient ground for the proposed action, and specify the action proposed;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide that the licensee or other person must file a written answer to the order under oath or affirmation within twenty (20) days of its date, or such other time as may be specified in the order;


</P>
<P>(3)(i) Inform the licensee or any other person to whom the order was issued of their right, within twenty (20) days of the date of the order, or within such other time as may be specified in the order, to demand a hearing on all or part of the order, except in a case where the licensee or other person to whom the order was issued has consented in writing to the order;
</P>
<P>(ii) State that a request for a hearing by any other person who may be adversely affected by the order must be made within twenty (20) days of the date of the order, or within such other time as may be specified in the order, and must meet the requirements of § 2.309;


</P>
<P>(4) Specify the issues for hearing; and
</P>
<P>(5) State the effective date of the order; if the Commission finds that the public health, safety, or interest so requires or that the violation or conduct causing the violation is willful, the order may provide, for stated reasons, that the proposed action be immediately effective pending further order.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee or other person to whom the Commission has issued an order under this section must respond to the order by filing a written answer under oath or affirmation. The answer shall specifically admit or deny each allegation or charge made in the order, and shall set forth the matters of fact and law on which the licensee or other person relies, and, if the order is not consented to, the reasons as to why the order should not have been issued. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the answer may demand a hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If the answer demands a hearing, the Commission will issue an order designating the time and place of hearing.
</P>
<P>(1) If the answer demands a hearing with respect to an immediately effective order, the hearing will be conducted expeditiously, giving due consideration to the rights of the parties.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The licensee or other person to whom the Commission has issued an immediately effective order in accordance with paragraph (a)(5) of this section, may, in addition to demanding a hearing, at the time the answer is filed or sooner, file a motion with the presiding officer to set aside the immediate effectiveness of the order on the ground that the order, including the need for immediate effectiveness, is not based on adequate evidence but on mere suspicion, unfounded allegations, or error. The motion must state with particularity the reasons why the order is not based on adequate evidence and must be accompanied by affidavits or other evidence relied on.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any party may file a motion with the presiding officer requesting that the presiding officer order live testimony. Any motion for live testimony must be made in conjunction with the motion to set aside the immediate effectiveness of the order or any party's response thereto. The presiding officer may, on its own motion, order live testimony. The presiding officer's basis for approving any motion for, or ordering on its own motion, live testimony shall be that taking live testimony would assist in its decision on the motion to set aside the immediate effectiveness of the order.
</P>
<P>(iii) The NRC staff shall respond in writing within 5 days of the receipt of either a motion to set aside the immediate effectiveness of the order or the presiding officer's order denying a motion for live testimony. In cases in which the presiding officer orders live testimony, the staff may present its response through live testimony rather than a written response.
</P>
<P>(iv) The presiding officer shall conduct any live testimony pursuant to its powers in § 2.319 of this part, except that no subpoenas, discovery, or referred rulings or certified questions to the Commission shall be permitted for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(v) The presiding officer may, on motion by the staff or any other party to the proceeding, where good cause exists, delay the hearing on the immediately effective order at any time for such periods as are consistent with the due process rights of the licensee or other person and other affected parties.
</P>
<P>(vi) The licensee or other person challenging the immediate effectiveness of an order bears the burden of going forward with evidence that the immediately effective order is not based on adequate evidence, but on mere suspicion, unfounded allegations, or error. The NRC staff bears the burden of persuading the presiding officer that adequate evidence supports the grounds for the immediately effective order and immediate effectiveness is warranted.
</P>
<P>(vii) The presiding officer shall issue a decision on the motion to set aside the immediate effectiveness of the order expeditiously. During the pendency of the motion to set aside the immediate effectiveness of the order or at any other time, the presiding officer may not stay the immediate effectiveness of the order, either on its own motion, or upon motion of the licensee or other person.
</P>
<P>(viii) The presiding officer shall uphold the immediate effectiveness of the order if it finds that there is adequate evidence to support immediate effectiveness. An order upholding immediate effectiveness will constitute the final agency action on immediate effectiveness. The presiding officer will promptly refer an order setting aside immediate effectiveness to the Commission and such order setting aside immediate effectiveness will not be effective pending further order of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) An answer may consent to the entry of an order in substantially the form proposed in the order with respect to all or some of the actions proposed in the order. The consent, in the answer or other written document, of the licensee or other person to whom the order has been issued to the entry of an order shall constitute a waiver by the licensee or other person of a hearing, findings of fact and conclusions of law, and of all right to seek Commission and judicial review or to contest the validity of the order in any forum as to those matters which have been consented to or agreed to or on which a hearing has not been requested. An order that has been consented to shall have the same force and effect as an order made after hearing by a presiding officer or the Commission, and shall be effective as provided in the order.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) If the order involves the modification of a part 50 or a part 53 license and is a backfit, the requirements of § 50.109 or § 53.1590 of this chapter, as applicable, shall be followed, unless the licensee has consented to the action required.
</P>
<P>(2) If the order involves the modification of combined license under subpart C of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, the requirements of § 52.98 or § 53.1443 of this chapter, as applicable, shall be followed unless the licensee has consented to the action required.
</P>
<P>(3) If the order involves a change to an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, the requirements of § 52.39 or § 53.1188 of this chapter, as applicable, must be followed, unless the applicant or licensee has consented to the action required.
</P>
<P>(4) If the order involves a change to a standard design certification rule referenced by that plant's application, the requirements, if any, in the referenced design certification rule with respect to changes must be followed, or, in the absence of these requirements, the requirements of § 52.63 or § 53.1263 of this chapter, as applicable, must be followed, unless the applicant or licensee has consented to follow the action required.
</P>
<P>(5) If the order involves a change to a standard design approval referenced by that plant's application, the requirements of § 52.145 or § 53.1221 of this chapter, as applicable, must be followed unless the applicant or licensee has consented to follow the action required.
</P>
<P>(6) If the order involves a modification of a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, the requirements of § 52.171 or § 53.1288 of this chapter, as applicable, must be followed, unless the applicant or licensee has consented to the action required.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40684, Aug. 15, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 20198, May 12, 1992; 72 FR 49474, Aug. 28, 2007; 80 FR 63419, Oct. 20, 2015; 85 FR 70438, Nov. 5, 2020; 91 FR 15767, Mar. 30, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.203" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.2.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.203   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.2.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.204   Demand for information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may issue to a licensee or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission a demand for information for the purpose of determining whether an order under § 2.202 should be issued, or whether other action should be taken, which demand will:
</P>
<P>(1) Allege the violations with which the licensee or other person is charged, or the potentially hazardous conditions or other facts deemed to be sufficient ground for issuing the demand; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide that the licensee must, or the other person may, file a written answer to the demand for information under oath or affirmation within twenty (20) days of its date, or such other time as may be specified in the demand for information.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee to whom the Commission has issued a demand for information under this section must respond to the demand by filing a written answer under oath or affirmation; any other person to whom the Commission has issued a demand for information may, in its discretion, respond to the demand by filing a written answer under oath or affirmation. The licensee's answer shall specifically admit or deny each allegation or charge made in the demand for information, and shall set forth the matters of fact and law on which the licensee relies. A person other than a licensee may answer as described above, or by setting forth its reasons why the demand should not have been issued and, if the requested information is not provided, the reasons why it is not provided.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon review of the answer filed pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or if no answer is filed, the Commission may institute a proceeding pursuant to 10 CFR 2.202 to take such action as may be proper.
</P>
<P>(d) An answer may consent to the entry of an order pursuant to § 2.202 in substantially the form proposed in the demand for information. Such consent shall constitute a waiver as provided in § 2.202(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40685, Aug. 15, 1991]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.205" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.2.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.205   Civil penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before instituting any proceeding to impose a civil penalty under section 234 of the Act, the Executive Director for Operations or the Executive Director's designee, as appropriate, shall serve a written notice of violation upon the person charged. This notice may be included in a notice issued pursuant to § 2.201 or § 76.70(d) of this chapter. The notice of violation shall specify the date or dates, facts, and the nature of the alleged act or omission with which the person is charged, and shall identify specifically the particular provision or provisions of the law, rule, regulation, license, permit, part 76 certificate of compliance or compliance plan, or cease and desist order involved in the alleged violation and must state the amount of each proposed penalty. The notice of violation shall also advise the person charged that the civil penalty may be paid in the amount specified therein, or the proposed imposition of the civil penalty may be protested in its entirety or in part, by a written answer, either denying the violation or showing extenuating circumstances. The notice of violation shall advise the person charged that upon failure to pay a civil penalty subsequently determined by the Commission, if any, unless compromised, remitted, or mitigated, be collected by civil action, pursuant to Section 234c of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Within twenty (20) days of the date of a notice of violation or other time specified in the notice, the person charged may either pay the penalty in the amount proposed or answer the notice of violation. The answer to the notice of violation shall state any facts, explanations, and arguments, denying the charges of violation, or demonstrating any extenuating circumstances, error in the notice of violation, or other reason why the penalty should not be imposed and may request remission or mitigation of the penalty.
</P>
<P>(c) If the person charged with violation fails to answer within the time specified in paragraph (b) of this section, an order may be issued imposing the civil penalty in the amount set forth in the notice of violation described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If the person charged with violation files an answer to the notice of violation, the Executive Director for Operations or the Executive Director's designee, upon consideration of the answer, will issue an order dismissing the proceeding or imposing, mitigating, or remitting the civil penalty. The person charged may, within twenty (20) days of the date of the order or other time specified in the order, request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) If the person charged with violation requests a hearing, the Commission will issue an order designating the time and place of hearing.
</P>
<P>(f) If a hearing is held, an order will be issued after the hearing by the presiding officer or the Commission dismissing the proceeding or imposing, mitigating, or remitting the civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(g) The Executive Director for Operations or the Executive Director's designee, as appropriate may compromise any civil penalty, subject to the provisions of § 2.203.
</P>
<P>(h) If the civil penalty is not compromised, or is not remitted by the Executive Director for Operations or the Executive Director's designee, as appropriate, the presiding officer, or the Commission, and if payment is not made within ten (10) days following either the service of the order described in paragraph (c) or (f) of this section, or the expiration of the time for requesting a hearing described in paragraph (d) of this section, the Executive Director for Operations or the Executive Director's designee, as appropriate, may refer the matter to the Attorney General for collection.




</P>
<P>(i) Except when payment is made after compromise or mitigation by the Department of Justice or as ordered by a court of the United States, following reference of the matter to the Attorney General for collection, payment of civil penalties imposed under section 234 of the Act are to be made payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, in U.S. funds. The payments are to be made by electronic fund transfer using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I> Federal agencies may also make payments by Intra-Governmental Payment and Collection (IPAC). All payments are to be made in accordance with the specific payment instructions provided with Notices of Violation that propose civil penalties and Orders Imposing Civil Monetary Penalties.




</P>
<P>(j) <I>Amount.</I> A civil monetary penalty imposed under Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or any other statute within the jurisdiction of the Commission that provides for the imposition of a civil penalty in an amount equal to the amount set forth in Section 234, may not exceed $372,240 for each violation. If any violation is a continuing one, each day of such violation shall constitute a separate violation for the purposes of computing the applicable civil penalty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 16896, Aug. 26, 1971, as amended at 52 FR 31608, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53315, Dec. 28, 1989; 61 FR 53555, Oct. 11, 1996; 62 FR 6668, Feb. 12, 1997; 63 FR 31850, June 10, 1998; 65 FR 59272, Oct. 4, 2000; 69 FR 62394, Oct. 26, 2004; 73 FR 54673, Sept. 23, 2008; 81 FR 43021, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 8135, Jan. 24, 2017; 83 FR 1517, Jan. 12, 2018; 84 FR 2435, Feb. 7, 2019; 85 FR 2283, Jan. 15, 2020; 85 FR 9661, Feb. 20, 2020; 86 FR 3747, Jan. 15, 2021; 87 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2190, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 2114, Jan. 12, 2024; 89 FR 51809, June 20, 2024; 90 FR 3614, Jan. 15, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.206" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.2.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.206   Requests for action under this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may file a request to institute a proceeding pursuant to § 2.202 to modify, suspend, or revoke a license, or for any other action as may be proper. Requests must be addressed to the Executive Director for Operations and must be filed either by hand delivery to the NRC's Offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; by mail or telegram addressed to the Executive Director for Operations, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; or by electronic submissions, for example, via facsimile, Electronic Information Exchange, e-mail, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The request must specify the action requested and set forth the facts that constitute the basis for the request. The Executive Director for Operations will refer the request to the Director of the NRC office with responsibility for the subject matter of the request for appropriate action in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Within a reasonable time after a request pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section has been received, the Director of the NRC office with responsibility for the subject matter of the request shall either institute the requested proceeding in accordance with this subpart or shall advise the person who made the request in writing that no proceeding will be instituted in whole or in part, with respect to the request, and the reasons for the decision.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Director's decisions under this section will be filed with the Office of the Secretary. Within twenty-five (25) days after the date of the Director's decision under this section that no proceeding will be instituted or other action taken in whole or in part, the Commission may on its own motion review that decision, in whole or in part, to determine if the Director has abused their discretion. This review power does not limit in any way either the Commission's supervisory power over delegated staff actions or the Commission's power to consult with the staff on a formal or informal basis regarding institution of proceedings under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No petition or other request for Commission review of a Director's decision under this section will be entertained by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary is authorized to extend the time for Commission review on its own motion of a Director's denial under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 12353, Apr. 5, 1974, as amended at 42 FR 36240, July 14, 1977; 45 FR 73466, Nov. 5, 1980; 52 FR 31608, Aug. 21, 1987; 53 FR 43419, Oct. 27, 1988; 64 FR 48948, Sept. 9, 1999; 68 FR 58799, Oct. 10, 2003; 69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004; 69 FR 41749, July 12, 2004; 74 FR 62679, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015; 88 FR 57876, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Rules of General Applicability: Hearing Requests, Petitions To Intervene, Availability of Documents, Selection of Specific Hearing Procedures, Presiding Officer Powers, and General Hearing Management for NRC Adjudicatory Hearings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.300" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.300   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this subpart apply to all contested adjudications conducted under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, and this part, and to uncontested proceedings or uncontested portions of proceedings involving applications for a license to construct and operate a uranium enrichment facility, unless specifically stated otherwise in this subpart. This subpart does not apply to the conduct of other uncontested proceedings or uncontested portions of proceedings.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 91 FR 20066, Apr. 15, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.301" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.301   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.302" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.302   Filing of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Documents filed in Commission adjudicatory proceedings subject to this part shall be electronically transmitted through the E-Filing system, unless the Commission or presiding officer grants an exemption permitting an alternative filing method or unless the filing falls within the scope of paragraph (h)(1) or (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon an order from the Commission or presiding officer permitting alternative filing methods, or as otherwise set forth in Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC, documents may be filed by:
</P>
<P>(1) First-class mail: Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff; 
</P>
<P>(2) Courier, express mail, and expedited delivery services: Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20852, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff; or
</P>
<P>(3) Email: <I>Hearing.Docket@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) All documents offered for filing must be accompanied by a certificate of service stating the names and addresses of the persons served as well as the manner and date of service.
</P>
<P>(d) Filing is considered complete:
</P>
<P>(1) By electronic transmission when the filer performs the last act that it must perform to transmit a document, in its entirety, electronically;
</P>
<P>(2) By first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail;
</P>
<P>(3) By courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service; or
</P>
<P>(4) If a filing must be submitted by two or more methods, such as a filing that must be transmitted electronically as well as physically delivered or mailed on portable storage media as described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the filing is complete when all methods of filing have been completed.
</P>
<P>(e) For filings by electronic transmission, the filer must make a good faith effort to successfully transmit the entire filing. Notwithstanding paragraph (d) of this section, a filing will not be considered complete if the filer knows or has reason to know that the entire filing has not been successfully transmitted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Identification and authentication.</I> (1) The NRC provides identification and authentication services that permit participants in the proceeding to access the E-Filing system to file documents, serve other participants, and retrieve documents electronically filed in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Any participant or participant representative that does not have an identification and authentication credential must request one from the NRC before that participant or representative intends to make its first electronic filing to the E-Filing system. A participant or representative may apply for an identification and authentication credential on the NRC website at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Filing method requirements.</I> (1) Unless otherwise provided by order, all filings must be made in an electronic format (<I>i.e.,</I> computer files) via the E-Filing system in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the filing, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on electronic formats that will meet these requirements may be found on the NRC website at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing contains electronic portions that may not be transmitted via the E-Filing system for reasons of security or electronic format (as defined in paragraph (g)(1)), the portions not containing those sections must be transmitted electronically via the E-Filing system. In addition, portable storage media containing the entire electronic filing must be physically delivered or mailed.
</P>
<P>(3) When an electronically formatted image or graphic of a physical object would not provide sufficient contextual value, the physical object may be physically delivered or mailed for inclusion in the adjudicatory record.
</P>
<P>(4) In the circumstances described in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, the submitter does not need to apply to the Commission or presiding officer for an exemption to deviate from the requirements in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electronic filing exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Exemption from electronic transmission via the E-Filing system.</I> Upon a finding of good cause, the Commission or presiding officer may grant an exemption from the electronic transmission requirements found in paragraph (g)(1) of this section to a participant who is filing electronic documents. The exempt participant is permitted to file and serve electronic documents by email or by physically delivering or mailing portable storage media containing the documents. A participant granted this exemption would still be required to meet the electronic formatting requirements in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exemption from electronic formatting and electronic transmission requirements.</I> Upon a finding of good cause, the Commission or presiding officer can exempt a participant from both the electronic formatting and electronic transmission requirements in paragraph (g) of this section. A participant granted such an exemption can file and serve paper documents either in person or by courier, express mail, some other expedited delivery service, or first-class mail, as ordered by the Commission or presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requesting an exemption.</I> A filer seeking an exemption under paragraph (h)(1) or (2) of this section must submit the exemption request with its first filing in the proceeding. In the request, a filer must show good cause as to why it cannot file electronically. The filer may not change its formats or delivery methods for filing until a ruling on the exemption request is issued. Exemption requests under paragraph (h)(1) or (2) of this section sought after the first filing in the proceeding will be granted only if the requestor shows that the interests of fairness so require.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49149, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 67832, Aug. 22, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.303" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.303   Docket.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall maintain a docket for each proceeding conducted under this part, commencing with either the initial notice of hearing, notice of proposed action, order, request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene, as appropriate. The Secretary shall maintain all files and records of proceedings, including transcripts and video recordings of testimony, exhibits, and all papers, correspondence, decisions and orders filed or issued. All documents, records, and exhibits filed in any proceeding must be filed with the Secretary as described in §§ 2.302 and 2.304.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.304" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.304   Formal requirements for documents; signatures; acceptance for filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Docket numbers and titles.</I> Each document filed in an adjudication to which a docket number has been assigned must contain a caption setting forth the docket number and the title of the proceeding and a description of the document (e.g., motion to quash subpoena).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Paper documents.</I> In addition to the requirements in this part, paper documents must be stapled or bound on the left side; typewritten, printed, or otherwise reproduced in permanent form on good unglazed paper of standard letterhead size; signed in ink by the participant, its authorized representative, or an attorney having authority with respect to it; and filed with an original and two conforming copies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Format.</I> Each page in a document must begin not less than one inch from the top, with side and bottom margins of not less than one inch. Text must be double-spaced, except that quotations may be single-spaced and indented. The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to original documents, or admissible copies, offered as exhibits, or to specifically prepared exhibits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signatures.</I> The original of each document must be signed by the participant or its authorized representative, or by an attorney having authority with respect to it. The document must state the capacity of the person signing; his or her address, phone number, and e-mail address; and the date of signature. The signature of a person signing a pleading or other similar document submitted by a participant is a representation that the document has been subscribed in the capacity specified with full authority, that he or she has read it and knows the contents, that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief the statements made in it are true, and that it is not interposed for delay. The signature of a person signing an affidavit or similar document, which should be submitted in accord with the form outlined in 28 U.S.C. 1746, is a representation that, under penalty of perjury, the document is true and correct to the best of that individual's knowledge and belief. If a document is not signed, or is signed with intent to defeat the purpose of this section, it may be struck.








</P>
<P>(1) An electronic document must be signed using a participant's or a participant representative's identification and authentication credential. Additional signatures can be added to the electronic document, including to any affidavits that accompany the document, by a typed-in designation that indicates the signer understands and acknowledges that he or she is assenting to the representations in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) When signing an electronic document using an identification and authentication credential, the signature page for the electronic document should contain a typed signature block that includes the phrase “Signed (electronically) by” typed onto the signature line; the name and the capacity of the person signing; the person's address, phone number, and email address; and the date of signature.
</P>
<P>(ii) If additional individuals need to sign an electronic document, including any affidavits that accompany the document, such individuals must sign by inserting a typed signature block in the electronic document that includes the phrase “Executed in Accord with 10 CFR 2.304(d)” or its equivalent typed on the signature line as well as the name and the capacity of the person signing; the person's address, phone number, and email address; and the date of signature to the extent any of these items are different from the information provided for the credentialed signer.










</P>
<P>(2) Paper documents must be signed in ink.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Designation for service.</I> The first document filed by any participant in a proceeding must designate the name and address of a person on whom service may be made. This document must also designate the e-mail address, if any, of the person on whom service may be made.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acceptance for filing.</I> Any document that fails to conform to the requirements of this section may be refused acceptance for filing by the Secretary or the presiding officer and may be returned with an indication of the reason for nonacceptance. Any document that is not accepted for filing will not be entered on the Commission's docket.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Pre-filed written testimony and exhibits.</I> In any instance in which a participant submits electronically through the E-Filing system written testimony or hearing exhibits in advance of a hearing, the written testimony of each individual witness or witness panel and each individual exhibit shall be submitted as an individual electronic file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49150, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 67833, Aug. 22, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.305" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.305   Service of documents, methods, proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of documents by the Commission.</I> Except for subpoenas, the Commission shall serve all orders, decisions, notices, and other documents to all participants, by the same delivery method those participants use to file and accept service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may be served.</I> Any document required to be served upon a participant shall be served upon that person or upon the representative designated by the participant or by law to receive service of documents. When a participant has appeared by attorney, service shall be made upon the attorney of record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of service accompanying a filing.</I> Service must be made electronically to the E-Filing system. In accordance with § 2.302(g)(2) or (3) or upon an order from the Commission or presiding officer permitting alternative filing methods under § 2.302(g)(4), service may be made by personal delivery, courier, expedited delivery service, or by first-class, express, certified or registered mail. As to each participant that cannot serve electronically, the Commission or presiding officer shall require service by the most expeditious means permitted under this paragraph that are available to the participant, unless the Commission or presiding officer finds that this requirement would impose undue burden or expense on the participant.
</P>
<P>(1) Unless otherwise provided in this section, a participant will serve documents on the other participants by the same method by which those participants filed.
</P>
<P>(2) A participant granted an exemption under § 2.302(h)(1) will serve the presiding officer and the participants in the proceeding that filed electronically by email or by physically delivering or mailing portable storage media containing the electronic document.








</P>
<P>(3) A participant granted an exemption under § 2.302(h)(2) will serve the presiding officer and the other participants in the proceeding by physically delivering or mailing a paper copy.
</P>
<P>(4) Each document served (as may be required by law, rule, or order of the presiding officer) upon a participant to the proceeding must be accompanied by a signed certificate of service.
</P>
<P>(i) If a document is served on participants through only the E-filing system, then the certificate of service must state that the document has been filed through the E-Filing system.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a document is served on participants by only a method other than the E-Filing system, then the certificate of service must state the name, address, and method and date of service for all participants served.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a document is served on some participants through the E-Filing system and other participants by another method of service, then the certificate of service must include a list of participants served through the E-filing system, and it must state the name, address, and method and date of service for all participants served by the other method of service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Method of service not accompanying a filing.</I> Service of demonstrative evidence, e.g., maps and other physical evidence, may be made by first-class mail in all cases, unless the presiding officer directs otherwise or the participant desires to serve by a faster method. In instances when service of a document, such as a discovery document under § 2.336, will not accompany a filing with the agency, the participant may use any reasonable method of service to which the recipient agrees.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Service on the Secretary.</I> (1) All motions, briefs, pleadings, and other documents must be served on the Secretary of the Commission by the same or equivalent method, such as by electronic transmission or first-class mail, that they are served upon the presiding officer, so that the Secretary will receive the filing at approximately the same time that it is received by the presiding officer to which the filing is directed.
</P>
<P>(2) When pleadings are personally delivered to a presiding officer conducting proceedings outside the Washington, DC area, service on the Secretary may be accomplished electronically to the E-Filing system, as well as by other service methods permitted by NRC regulations.




</P>
<P>(3) Service of demonstrative evidence (e.g., maps and other physical exhibits) on the Secretary of the Commission may be made by first-class mail in all cases, unless the presiding officer directs otherwise or the participant desires to serve by a faster method. All pre-filed testimony and exhibits shall be served on the Secretary of the Commission by the same or equivalent method that it is served upon the presiding officer to the proceedings, i.e., electronically to the E-Filing system, personal delivery or courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service.






</P>
<P>(4) The addresses for the Secretary are:
</P>
<P>(i) Internet: The E-Filing system at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) First-class mail: Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Courier, express mail, and expedited delivery services: Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Email: <I>Hearing.Docket@nrc.gov.</I>


</P>
<P>(f) <I>When service is complete.</I> Service upon a participant is complete:
</P>
<P>(1) By the E-Filing system, when filing electronically to the E-Filing system is considered complete under § 2.302(d).
</P>
<P>(2) By personal delivery, upon handing the document to the person, or leaving it at his or her office with that person's clerk or other person in charge or, if there is no one in charge, leaving it in a conspicuous place in the office, or if the office is closed or the person to be served has no office, leaving it at his or her usual place of residence with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing there;
</P>
<P>(3) By mail, upon deposit in the United States mail, properly stamped and addressed;
</P>
<P>(4) By expedited service, upon depositing the document with the provider of the expedited service; or
</P>
<P>(5) When service cannot be effected by a method provided by paragraphs (f)(1)-(4) of this section, by any other method authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(6) When two or more methods of service are required, service is considered complete when service by each method is complete under paragraphs (f)(1)-(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Service on the NRC staff.</I> (1) Service shall be made upon the NRC staff of all documents required to be filed with participants and the presiding officer in all proceedings, including those proceedings where the NRC staff informs the presiding officer of its determination not to participate as a party. Service upon the NRC staff shall be by the same or equivalent method as service upon the Office of the Secretary and the presiding officer, e.g., electronically, personal delivery or courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service. If no attorney representing the NRC Staff has filed a notice of appearance in the proceeding and service is not being made through the E-Filing System, service will be made using the following addresses, as applicable: by delivery to the Deputy General Counsel, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville MD 20852-0001; by mail addressed to the Deputy General Counsel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; by email to <I>RidsOgcMailCenter. Resource@nrc.gov; </I> or by facsimile to 301-415-3200.
</P>
<P>(2) If the NRC staff decides not to participate as a party in a proceeding, it shall, in its notification to the presiding officer and participants of its determination not to participate, designate a person and address for service of documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49150, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46590, Aug. 3, 2012; 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016; 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020; 89 FR 67833, Aug. 22, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.306" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.306   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time, the day of the act, event, or default after which the designated period of time begins to run is not included. The last day of the period so computed is included unless it is a Saturday or Sunday, a Federal legal holiday at the place where the action or event is to occur, or a day upon which, because of an emergency closure of the Federal government in Washington, DC, NRC Headquarters does not open for business, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, Federal legal holiday, or emergency closure.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever a participant has the right or is required to do some act within a prescribed period after the service of a notice or other document upon him or her, no additional time is added to the prescribed period except in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) If a notice or document is served upon a participant, by first-class mail only, three (3) calendar days will be added to the prescribed period for all the participants in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If a notice or document is served upon a participant, by express mail or other expedited service only, two (2) calendar days will be added to the prescribed period for all the participants in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) If a document is to be served by multiple service methods, such as partially electronic and entirely on portable storage media, the additional number of days is computed according to the service method used to deliver the entire document, excluding courtesy copies, to all of the other participants in the proceeding. The presiding officer may determine the calculation of additional days when a participant is not entitled to receive an entire filing served by multiple methods.
</P>
<P>(4) In mixed service proceedings when all participants are not using the same filing and service method, the number of days for service will be determined by the presiding officer based on considerations of fairness and efficiency.
</P>
<P>(c) To be considered timely, a document must be served:
</P>
<P>(1) By 5 p.m. Eastern Time for a document served in person or by expedited service; and
</P>
<P>(2) By 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time for a document served by the E-Filing system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49151, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 67834, Aug. 22, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.307" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.307   Extension and reduction of time limits; delegated authority to order use of procedures for access by potential parties to certain sensitive unclassified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided by law, the time fixed or the period of time prescribed for an act that is required or allowed to be done at or within a specified time, may be extended or shortened either by the Commission or the presiding officer for good cause, or by stipulation approved by the Commission or the presiding officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) If this part does not prescribe a time limit for an action to be taken in the proceeding, the Commission or the presiding officer may set a time limit for the action.
</P>
<P>(c) In circumstances where, in order to meet Commission requirements for intervention, potential parties may deem it necessary to obtain access to safeguards information (as defined in § 73.2 of this chapter) or to sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information, the Secretary is delegated authority to issue orders establishing procedures and timelines for submitting and resolving requests for this information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 10980, Feb. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.308" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.308   Treatment of requests for hearing or petitions for leave to intervene by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a request for hearing or a petition to intervene, the Secretary will forward the request or petition and/or proffered contentions and any answers and replies either to the Commission for a ruling on the request/petition and/or proffered contentions or to the Chief Administrative Judge of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel for the designation of a presiding officer under § 2.313(a) to rule on the matter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.309" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.309   Hearing requests, petitions to intervene, requirements for standing, and contentions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Any person whose interest may be affected by a proceeding and who desires to participate as a party must file a written request for hearing and a specification of the contentions which the person seeks to have litigated in the hearing. In a proceeding under § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter, as applicable, the Commission, acting as the presiding officer, will grant the request if it determines that the requestor has standing under the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section and has proposed at least one admissible contention that meets the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section. For all other proceedings, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the Commission, presiding officer, or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board designated to rule on the request for hearing and/or petition for leave to intervene, will grant the request/petition if it determines that the requestor/petitioner has standing under the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section and has proposed at least one admissible contention that meets the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section. In ruling on the request for hearing/petition to intervene submitted by petitioners seeking to intervene in the proceeding on the HLW repository, the Commission, the presiding officer, or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board shall also consider any failure of the petitioner to participate as a potential party in the pre-license application phase under subpart J of this part in addition to the factors in paragraph (d) of this section. If a request for hearing or petition to intervene is filed in response to any notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing, the applicant/licensee shall be deemed to be a party.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> Unless specified elsewhere in this chapter or otherwise provided by the Commission, the request or petition and the list of contentions must be filed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In proceedings for the direct or indirect transfer of control of an NRC license when the transfer requires prior approval of the NRC under the Commission's regulations, governing statute, or pursuant to a license condition, twenty (20) days from the date of publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(2) In proceedings for the initial authorization to construct a high-level radioactive waste geologic repository, and the initial licensee to receive and process high level radioactive waste at a geological repository operations area, thirty (30) days from the date of publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(3) In proceedings for which a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of agency action is published (other than a proceeding covered by paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section), not later than: 
</P>
<P>(i) The time specified in any notice of hearing or notice of proposed action or as provided by the presiding officer or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board designated to rule on the request and/or petition, which may not be less than sixty (60) days from the date of publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If no period is specified, sixty (60) days from the date of publication of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(4) In proceedings for which a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of agency action is not published, not later than the latest of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Sixty (60) days after publication of notice on the NRC Web site at 

<I>http://www.nrc.gov/public-involve/major-actions.html,</I> or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Sixty (60) days after the requestor receives actual notice of a pending application, but not more than sixty (60) days after agency action on the application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filings after the deadline; submission of hearing request, intervention petition, or motion for leave to file new or amended contentions</I>—(1) <I>Determination by presiding officer.</I> Hearing requests, intervention petitions, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions filed after the deadline in paragraph (b) of this section will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that a participant has demonstrated good cause by showing that:
</P>
<P>(i) The information upon which the filing is based was not previously available;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information upon which the filing is based is materially different from information previously available; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The filing has been submitted in a timely fashion based on the availability of the subsequent information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability of §§ 2.307 and 2.323.</I> (i) Section 2.307 applies to requests to change a filing deadline (requested before or after that deadline has passed) based on reasons not related to the substance of the filing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 2.323 does not apply to hearing requests, intervention petitions, or motions for leave to file new or amended contentions filed after the deadline in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>New petitioner.</I> A hearing request or intervention petition filed after the deadline in paragraph (b) of this section must include a specification of contentions if the petitioner seeks admission as a party, and must also demonstrate that the petitioner meets the applicable standing and contention admissibility requirements in paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Party or participant.</I> A new or amended contention filed by a party or participant to the proceeding must also meet the applicable contention admissibility requirements in paragraph (f) of this section. If the party or participant has already satisfied the requirements for standing under paragraph (d) of this section in the same proceeding in which the new or amended contentions are filed, it does not need to do so again.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standing.</I> (1) General requirements. A request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene must state:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address and telephone number of the requestor or petitioner;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nature of the requestor's/petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The nature and extent of the requestor's/petitioner's property, financial or other interest in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The possible effect of any decision or order that may be issued in the proceeding on the requestor's/petitioner's interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rulings.</I> In ruling on a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene, the Commission, the presiding officer, or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board designated to rule on such requests must determine, among other things, whether the petitioner has an interest affected by the proceeding considering the factors enumerated in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Standing in enforcement proceedings.</I> In enforcement proceedings, the licensee or other person against whom the action is taken shall have standing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Discretionary Intervention.</I> The presiding officer may consider a request for discretionary intervention when at least one requestor/petitioner has established standing and at least one admissible contention has been admitted so that a hearing will be held. A requestor/petitioner may request that his or her petition be granted as a matter of discretion in the event that the petitioner is determined to lack standing to intervene as a matter of right under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Accordingly, in addition to addressing the factors in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a petitioner who wishes to seek intervention as a matter of discretion in the event it is determined that standing as a matter of right is not demonstrated shall address the following factors in his/her initial petition, which the Commission, the presiding officer or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board will consider and balance:
</P>
<P>(1) Factors weighing in favor of allowing intervention—
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which the requestor's/petitioner's participation may reasonably be expected to assist in developing a sound record;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nature and extent of the requestor's/petitioner's property, financial or other interests in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The possible effect of any decision or order that may be issued in the proceeding on the requestor's/petitioner's interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Factors weighing against allowing intervention—
</P>
<P>(i) The availability of other means whereby the requestor's/petitioner's interest will be protected;
</P>
<P>(ii) The extent to which the requestor's/petitioner's interest will be represented by existing parties; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The extent to which the requestor's/petitioner's participation will inappropriately broaden the issues or delay the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contentions.</I> (1) A request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene must set forth with particularity the contentions sought to be raised. For each contention, the request or petition must:


</P>
<P>(i) Provide a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted, provided further, that the issue of law or fact to be raised in a request for hearing under § 52.103(b) or § 53.1452(b) of this chapter, as applicable, must be directed at demonstrating that one or more of the acceptance criteria in the combined license have not been, or will not be met, and that the specific operational consequences of nonconformance would be contrary to providing reasonable assurance of adequate protection of the public health and safety;


</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a brief explanation of the basis for the contention;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate that the issue raised in the contention is within the scope of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrate that the issue raised in the contention is material to the findings the NRC must make to support the action that is involved in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinions which support the requestor's/petitioner's position on the issue and on which the petitioner intends to rely at hearing, together with references to the specific sources and documents on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely to support its position on the issue;
</P>
<P>(vi) In a proceeding other than one under § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter provide sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant/licensee on a material issue of law or fact. This information must include references to specific portions of the application (including the applicant's environmental report and safety report) that the petitioner disputes and the supporting reasons for each dispute, or, if the petitioner believes that the application fails to contain information on a relevant matter as required by law, the identification of each failure and the supporting reasons for the petitioner's belief; and
</P>
<P>(vii) In a proceeding under § 52.103(b) or § 53.1452(b) of this chapter, as applicable, the information must be sufficient, and include supporting information showing, prima facie, that one or more of the acceptance criteria in the combined license have not been, or will not be met, and that the specific operational consequences of nonconformance would be contrary to providing reasonable assurance of adequate protection of the public health and safety. This information must include the specific portion of the report required by § 52.99(c) or § 53.1449(c) of this chapter, as applicable, which the requestor believes is inaccurate, incorrect, and/or incomplete (<I>i.e.,</I> fails to contain the necessary information required by § 52.99(c) or § 53.1449(c) of this chapter, as applicable). If the requestor identifies a specific portion of the report under § 52.99(c) or § 53.1449(c) of this chapter, as applicable, as incomplete and the requestor contends that the incomplete portion prevents the requestor from making the necessary <I>prima facie</I> showing, then the requestor must explain why this deficiency prevents the requestor from making the <I>prima facie</I> showing.














</P>
<P>(2) Contentions must be based on documents or other information available at the time the petition is to be filed, such as the application, supporting safety analysis report, environmental report or other supporting document filed by an applicant or licensee, or otherwise available to a petitioner. On issues arising under the National Environmental Policy Act, participants shall file contentions based on the applicant's environmental report. Participants may file new or amended environmental contentions after the deadline in paragraph (b) of this section (e.g., based on a draft or final NRC environmental impact statement, environmental assessment, or any supplements to these documents) if the contention complies with the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If two or more requestors/petitioners seek to co-sponsor a contention, the requestors/petitioners shall jointly designate a representative who shall have the authority to act for the requestors/petitioners with respect to that contention. If a requestor/petitioner seeks to adopt the contention of another sponsoring requestor/petitioner, the requestor/petitioner who seeks to adopt the contention must either agree that the sponsoring requestor/petitioner shall act as the representative with respect to that contention, or jointly designate with the sponsoring requestor/petitioner a representative who shall have the authority to act for the requestors/petitioners with respect to that contention.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Selection of hearing procedures.</I> A request for hearing and/or petition for leave to intervene may, except in a proceeding under § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter, as applicable, also address the selection of hearing procedures, taking into account the provisions of § 2.310. If a request/petition relies upon § 2.310(d), the request/petition must demonstrate, by reference to the contention and the bases provided and the specific procedures in subpart G of this part, that resolution of the contention necessitates resolution of material issues of fact which may be best determined through the use of the identified procedures.






</P>
<P>(h) <I>Requirements applicable to States, local governmental bodies, and Federally-recognized Indian Tribes seeking party status.</I> (1) If a State, local governmental body (county, municipality or other subdivision), or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe seeks to participate as a party in a proceeding, it must submit a request for hearing or a petition to intervene containing at least one admissible contention, and must designate a single representative for the hearing. If a request for hearing or petition to intervene is granted, the Commission, the presiding officer or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board ruling on the request will admit as a party to the proceeding a single designated representative of the State, a single designated representative for each local governmental body (county, municipality or other subdivision), and a single designated representative for each Federally-recognized Indian Tribe. Where a State's constitution provides that both the Governor and another State official or State governmental body may represent the interests of the State in a proceeding, the Governor and the other State official/government body will be considered separate participants.
</P>
<P>(2) If the proceeding pertains to a production or utilization facility (as defined in § 50.2 or § 53.020 of this chapter) located within the boundaries of the State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe seeking to participate as a party, no further demonstration of standing is required. If the production or utilization facility is not located within the boundaries of the State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe seeking to participate as a party, the State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe also must demonstrate standing.


</P>
<P>(3) In any proceeding on an application for a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, or an application for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, the Commission shall permit intervention by the State and local governmental body (county, municipality or other subdivision) in which such an area is located and by any affected Federally-recognized Indian Tribe as defined in parts 60 or 63 of this chapter if the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section are satisfied with respect to at least one contention. All other petitions for intervention in any such proceeding must be reviewed under the provisions of paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Answers to hearing requests, intervention petitions, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions filed after the deadline.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Commission, the presiding officer, or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board designated to rule on the request, petition, or motion—
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant/licensee, the NRC staff, and other parties to a proceeding may file an answer to a hearing request, intervention petition, or motion for leave to file amended or new contentions filed after the deadline in § 2.309(b) within 25 days after service of the request, petition, or motion. Answers should address, at a minimum, the factors set forth in paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section insofar as these sections apply to the filing that is the subject of the answer.
</P>
<P>(2) Except in a proceeding under § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter, as applicable, the participant who filed the hearing request, intervention petition, or motion for leave to file new or amended contentions after the deadline may file a reply to any answer. The reply must be filed within 7 days after service of that answer.








</P>
<P>(3) No other written answers or replies will be entertained.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Decision on request/petition.</I> (1) In all proceedings other than a proceeding under § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter, as applicable, the presiding officer shall issue a decision on each request for hearing or petition to intervene within 45 days of the conclusion of the initial pre-hearing conference or, if no pre-hearing conference is conducted, within 45 days after the filing of answers and replies under paragraph (i) of this section. With respect to a request to admit amended or new contentions, the presiding officer shall issue a decision on each such request within 45 days of the conclusion of any pre-hearing conference that may be conducted regarding the proposed amended or new contentions or, if no pre-hearing conference is conducted, within 45 days after the filing of answers and replies, if any. In the event the presiding officer cannot issue a decision within 45 days, the presiding officer shall issue a notice advising the Commission and the parties, and the notice shall include the expected date of when the decision will issue.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission, acting as the presiding officer, shall expeditiously grant or deny the request for hearing in a proceeding under § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter, as applicable. The Commission's decision may not be the subject of any appeal under § 2.311.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49474, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 44620, July 31, 2008; 77 FR 46591, Aug. 3, 2012; 91 FR 15767, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.310" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.310   Selection of hearing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Upon a determination that a request for hearing/petition to intervene should be granted and a hearing held, the Commission, the presiding officer, or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board designated to rule on the request/petition will determine and identify the specific hearing procedures to be used for the proceeding as follows—
</P>
<P>(a) Except as determined through the application of paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section, proceedings for the grant, renewal, licensee-initiated amendment, or termination of licenses or permits subject to parts 30, 32 through 36, 39, 40, 50, 52, 53, 54, 55, 61, 70, and 72 of this chapter may be conducted under the procedures of subpart L of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Proceedings on enforcement matters must be conducted under the procedures of subpart G of this part, unless all parties agree and jointly request that the proceedings be conducted under the procedures of subpart L or subpart N of this part, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Proceedings on the licensing of the construction and operation of a uranium enrichment facility must be conducted under the procedures of subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) In proceedings for the grant, renewal, licensee-initiated amendment, or termination of licenses or permits for nuclear power reactors, where the presiding officer by order finds that resolution of the contention or contested matter necessitates resolution of issues of material fact relating to the occurrence of a past activity, where the credibility of an eyewitness may reasonably be expected to be at issue, and/or issues of motive or intent of the party or eyewitness material to the resolution of the contested matter, the hearing for resolution of that contention or contested matter will be conducted under subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Proceedings on applications for a license or license amendment to expand the spent nuclear fuel storage capacity at the site of a civilian nuclear power plant must be conducted under the procedures of subpart L of this part, unless a party requests that the proceeding be conducted under the procedures of subpart K of this part, or if all parties agree and jointly request that the proceeding be conducted under the procedures of subpart N of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) Proceedings on an application for initial construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area noticed pursuant to §§ 2.101(f)(8) or 2.105(a)(5), and proceedings on an initial application for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area must be conducted under the procedures of subparts G and J of this part. Subsequent amendments to a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive geologic repository, and amendments to a license to receive and possess high level radioactive waste at a high level waste geologic repository may be conducted under the procedures of subpart L of this part, unless all parties agree and jointly request that the proceeding be conducted under the procedures of subpart N of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) Proceedings on an application for the direct or indirect transfer of control of an NRC license which transfer requires prior approval of the NRC under the Commission's regulations, governing statutes or pursuant to a license condition shall be conducted under the procedures of subpart M of this part, unless the Commission determines otherwise in a case-specific order.
</P>
<P>(h) Except as determined through the application of paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section, proceedings for the grant, renewal, licensee-initiated amendment, or termination of licenses or permits subject to parts 30, 32 through 36, 39, 40, 50, 52, 53, 54, 55, 61, 70, and 72 of this chapter, and proceedings on an application for the direct or indirect transfer of control of an NRC license may be conducted under the procedures of subpart N of this part if— 
</P>
<P>(1) The hearing itself is expected to take no more than two (2) days to complete; or
</P>
<P>(2) All parties to the proceeding agree that it should be conducted under the procedures of subpart N of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) In design certification rulemaking proceedings under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter, any informal hearing held under § 52.51 or § 53.1242 of this chapter, as applicable, must be conducted under the procedures of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(j) Proceedings on a Commission finding under § 52.103(c) and (g) or § 53.1452(c) and (g) of this chapter, as applicable, shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures designated by the Commission in each proceeding.








</P>
<P>(k) In proceedings where the Commission grants a petition filed under § 2.335(b), the Commission may, in its discretion, conduct a hearing under the procedures of subpart O of this part to assist the Commission in developing a record on the matters raised in the petition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49475, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15768, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.311" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.311   Interlocutory review of rulings on requests for hearings/petitions to intervene, selection of hearing procedures, and requests by potential parties for access to sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information and safeguards information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An order of the presiding officer, or if a presiding officer has not been designated, of the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, of another administrative judge, or of an administrative law judge with jurisdiction under § 2.318(a), may be appealed to the Commission with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) A request for hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) A petition to intervene; or
</P>
<P>(3) A request for access to sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI), including, but not limited to, proprietary, confidential commercial, and security-related information, and Safeguards Information (SGI). An appeal to the Commission may also be taken from an order of an officer designated to rule on information access issues.
</P>
<P>(b) These appeals must be made as specified by the provisions of this section, within 25 days after the service of the order. The appeal must be initiated by the filing of a notice of appeal and accompanying supporting brief. Any party who opposes the appeal may file a brief in opposition to the appeal within 25 days after service of the appeal. The supporting brief and any answer must conform to the requirements of § 2.341(c)(3). No other appeals from rulings on requests for hearing are allowed.
</P>
<P>(c) An order denying a petition to intervene, and/or request for hearing, or a request for access to the information described in paragraph (a) of this section, is appealable by the requestor/petitioner on the question as to whether the request and/or petition should have been granted.
</P>
<P>(d) An order granting a petition to intervene, and/or request for hearing, or granting a request for access to the information described in paragraph (a) of this section, is appealable by a party other than the requestor/petitioner on the question as to:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the request for hearing or petition to intervene should have been wholly denied; or
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the request for access to the information described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section should have been denied in whole or in part. However, such a question with respect to SGI may only be appealed by the NRC staff, and such a question with respect to SUNSI may be appealed only by the NRC staff or by a party whose interest independent of the proceeding would be harmed by the release of the information.
</P>
<P>(e) An order selecting a hearing procedure may be appealed by any party on the question as to whether the selection of the particular hearing procedures was in clear contravention of the criteria set forth in § 2.310. The appeal must be filed with the Commission no later than ten (10) days after issuance of the order selecting a hearing procedure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 12631, Mar. 10, 2008, as amended at 77 FR 46592, Aug. 3, 2012; 78 FR 34247, June 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.312" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.312   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In a proceeding in which the terms of a notice of hearing are not otherwise prescribed by this part, the order or notice of hearing will state:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of the hearing and its time and place, or a statement that the time and place will be fixed by subsequent order;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law asserted or to be considered; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement describing the specific hearing procedures or subpart that will be used for the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The time and place of hearing will be fixed with due regard for the convenience of the parties or their representatives, the nature of the proceeding and the public interest.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.313" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.313   Designation of presiding officer, disqualification, unavailability, and substitution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of presiding officer.</I> The Commission may provide in the notice of hearing that one or more members of the Commission, an administrative law judge, an administrative judge, an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, or a named officer who has been delegated final authority in the matter, shall be the presiding officer. The Commission alone shall designate the presiding officer in a hearing conducted under subpart O. If the Commission does not designate the presiding officer for a hearing under subparts G, J, K, L, M, or N of this part, then the Chief Administrative Judge shall issue an order designating:
</P>
<P>(1) An Atomic Safety and Licensing Board appointed under Section 191 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or an administrative law judge appointed by the Commission pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105, for a hearing conducted under subparts G, J, K, L, or N of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) An Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, an administrative law judge, or an administrative judge for a hearing conducted under subpart M of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disqualification.</I> (1) If a designated presiding officer or a designated member of an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board believes that they are disqualified to preside or to participate as a board member in the hearing, they shall withdraw by notice on the record and shall notify the Commission or the Chief Administrative Judge, as appropriate, of the withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(2) If a party believes that a presiding officer or a designated member of an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board should be disqualified, the party may move that the presiding officer or the Licensing Board member disqualify themselves. The motion must be supported by affidavits setting forth the alleged grounds for disqualification. If the presiding officer does not grant the motion or the Licensing Board member does not disqualify themselves, the motion must be referred to the Commission. The Commission will determine the sufficiency of the grounds alleged.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unavailability.</I> If a presiding officer or a designated member of an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board becomes unavailable during the course of a hearing, the Commission or the Chief Administrative Judge, as appropriate, will designate another presiding officer or Atomic Safety and Licensing Board member. If they become unavailable after the hearing has been concluded, then:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission may designate another presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(2) The Chief Administrative Judge or the Commission, as appropriate, may designate another Atomic Safety and Licensing Board member to participate in the decision;
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission may direct that the record be certified to it for decision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substitution.</I> If a presiding officer or a designated member of an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board is substituted for the one originally designated, any motion predicated upon the substitution must be made within five (5) days after the substitution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 85 FR 70438, Nov. 5, 2020; 88 FR 57876, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.314" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.314   Appearance and practice before the Commission in adjudicatory proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards of practice.</I> In the exercise of their functions under this subpart, the Commission, the Atomic Safety and Licensing Boards, Administrative Law Judges, and Administrative Judges function in a quasi-judicial capacity. Accordingly, parties and their representatives in proceedings subject to this subpart are expected to conduct themselves with honor, dignity, and decorum as they should before a court of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Representation.</I> A person may appear in an adjudication on his or her own behalf or by an attorney-at-law. A partnership, corporation, or unincorporated association may be represented by a duly authorized member or officer, or by an attorney-at-law. A party may be represented by an attorney-at-law if the attorney is in good standing and has been admitted to practice before any Court of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the highest court of any State, territory, or possession of the United States. Any person appearing in a representative capacity shall file with the Commission a written notice of appearance. The notice must state his or her name, address, telephone number, and facsimile number and email address, if any; the name and address of the person or entity on whose behalf he or she appears; and, in the case of an attorney-at-law, the basis of his or her eligibility as a representative or, in the case of another representative, the basis of his or her authority to act on behalf of the party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reprimand, censure or suspension from the proceeding.</I> (1) A presiding officer, or the Commission may, if necessary for the orderly conduct of a proceeding, reprimand, censure or suspend from participation in the particular proceeding pending before it any party or representative of a party who refuses to comply with its directions, or who is disorderly, disruptive, or engages in contemptuous conduct.
</P>
<P>(2) A reprimand, censure, or a suspension that is ordered to run for one day or less must state the grounds for the action in the record of the proceeding, and must advise the person disciplined of the right to appeal under paragraph (c)(3) of this section. A suspension that is ordered for a longer period must be in writing, state the grounds on which it is based, and advise the person suspended of the right to appeal and to request a stay under paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section. The suspension may be stayed for a reasonable time in order for an affected party to obtain other representation if this would be necessary to prevent injustice.
</P>
<P>(3) Anyone disciplined under this section may file an appeal with the Commission within 25 days after issuance of the order. The appeal must be in writing and state concisely, with supporting argument, why the appellant believes the order was erroneous, either as a matter of fact or law. The Commission shall consider each appeal on the merits, including appeals in cases in which the suspension period has already run. If necessary for a full and fair consideration of the facts, the Commission may conduct further evidentiary hearings, or may refer the matter to another presiding officer for development of a record. In the latter event, unless the Commission provides specific directions to the presiding officer, that officer shall determine the procedure to be followed and who shall present evidence, subject to applicable provisions of law. The hearing must begin as soon as possible. In the case of an attorney, if no appeal is taken of a suspension, or, if the suspension is upheld at the conclusion of the appeal, the presiding officer, or the Commission, as appropriate, shall notify the State bar(s) to which the attorney is admitted. The notification must include copies of the order of suspension, and, if an appeal was taken, briefs of the parties, and the decision of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(4) A suspension exceeding one (1) day is not effective for seventy-two (72) hours from the date the suspension order is issued. Within this time, a suspended individual may request a stay of the sanction from the appropriate reviewing tribunal pending appeal. No responses to the stay request from other parties will be entertained. If a timely stay request is filed, the suspension must be stayed until the reviewing tribunal rules on the motion. The stay request must be in writing and contain the information specified in § 2.342(b). The Commission shall rule on the stay request within ten (10) days after the filing of the motion. The Commission shall consider the factors specified in § 2.342(e)(1) and (e)(2) in determining whether to grant or deny a stay application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46592, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.315" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.315   Participation by a person not a party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person who is not a party (including persons who are affiliated with or represented by a party) may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance by making an oral or written statement of his or her position on the issues at any session of the hearing or any prehearing conference within the limits and on the conditions fixed by the presiding officer. However, that person may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. Such statements of position shall not be considered evidence in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will give notice of a hearing to any person who requests it before the issuance of the notice of hearing, and will furnish a copy of the notice of hearing to any person who requests it thereafter. If a communication bears more than one signature, the Commission will give the notice to the person first signing unless the communication clearly indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer will afford an interested State, local governmental body (county, municipality or other subdivision), and Federally-recognized Indian Tribe that has not been admitted as a party under § 2.309, a reasonable opportunity to participate in a hearing. The participation of any State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe shall be limited to unresolved issues and contentions, and issues and contentions that are raised after the State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe becomes a participant. Each State, local governmental body, and Federally-recognized Indian Tribe shall, in its request to participate in a hearing, designate a single representative for the hearing. The representative shall be permitted to introduce evidence, interrogate witnesses where cross examination by the parties is permitted, advise the Commission without requiring the representative to take a position with respect to the issue, file proposed findings in those proceedings where findings are permitted, and petition for review by the Commission under § 2.341 with respect to the admitted contentions. The representative shall identify those contentions on which they will participate in advance of any hearing held.
</P>
<P>(d) If a matter is taken up by the Commission under § 2.341 or <I>sua sponte,</I> a person who is not a party may, in the discretion of the Commission, be permitted to file a brief “<I>amicus curiae.</I>” Such a person shall submit the amicus brief together with a motion for leave to do so which identifies the interest of the person and states the reasons why a brief is desirable. Unless the Commission provides otherwise, the brief must be filed within the time allowed to the party whose position the brief will support. A motion of a person who is not a party to participate in oral argument before the Commission will be granted at the discretion of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46592, Aug. 3, 2012]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.316" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.316   Consolidation of parties.</HEAD>
<P>On motion or on its own initiative, the Commission or the presiding officer may order any parties in a proceeding who have substantially the same interest that may be affected by the proceeding and who raise substantially the same questions, to consolidate their presentation of evidence, cross-examination, briefs, proposed findings of fact, and conclusions of law and argument. However, it may not order any consolidation that would prejudice the rights of any party. A consolidation under this section may be for all purposes of the proceeding, all of the issues of the proceeding, or with respect to any one or more issues thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 57876, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.317" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.317   Separate hearings; consolidation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Separate hearings.</I> On motion by the parties or upon request of the presiding officer for good cause shown, or on its own initiative, the Commission may establish separate hearings in a proceeding if it is found that the action will be conducive to the proper dispatch of its business and to the ends of justice and will be conducted in accordance with the other provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consolidation of proceedings.</I> On motion and for good cause shown or on its own initiative, the Commission or the presiding officers of each affected proceeding may consolidate for hearing or for other purposes two or more proceedings, or may hold joint hearings with interested States and/or other Federal agencies on matters of concurrent jurisdiction, if it is found that the action will be conducive to the proper dispatch of its business and to the ends of justice and will be conducted in accordance with the other provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.318" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.318   Commencement and termination of jurisdiction of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the Commission orders otherwise, the jurisdiction of the presiding officer designated to conduct a hearing over the proceeding, including motions and procedural matters, commences when the proceeding commences. If a presiding officer has not been designated, the Chief Administrative Judge has jurisdiction or, if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge or administrative law judge has jurisdiction. A proceeding commences when a notice of hearing or a notice of proposed action under § 2.105 is issued. When a notice of hearing provides that the presiding officer is to be an administrative judge or an administrative law judge, the Chief Administrative Judge will designate by order the administrative judge or administrative law judge, as appropriate, who is to preside. The presiding officer's jurisdiction in each proceeding terminates when the period within which the Commission may direct that the record be certified to it for final decision expires, when the Commission renders a final decision, or when the presiding officer withdraws from the case upon considering himself or herself disqualified, whichever is earliest.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, may issue an order and take any otherwise proper administrative action with respect to a licensee who is a party to a pending proceeding. Any order related to the subject matter of the pending proceeding may be modified by the presiding officer as appropriate for the purpose of the proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 5716, Jan. 31, 2008; 77 FR 46592, Aug. 3, 2012; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.319" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.319   Power of the presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>A presiding officer has the duty to conduct a fair and impartial hearing according to law, to take appropriate action to control the prehearing and hearing process, to avoid delay and to maintain order. The presiding officer has all the powers necessary to those ends, including the powers to:
</P>
<P>(a) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(b) Issue subpoenas authorized by law, including subpoenas requested by a participant for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence upon the requestor's showing of general relevance and reasonable scope of the evidence sought;
</P>
<P>(c) Consolidate parties and proceedings in accordance with §§ 2.316 and 2.317 and/or direct that common interests be represented by a single spokesperson;
</P>
<P>(d) Rule on offers of proof and receive evidence. In proceedings under this part, strict rules of evidence do not apply to written submissions. However, the presiding officer may, on motion or on the presiding officer's own initiative, strike any portion of a written presentation or a response to a written question that is irrelevant, immaterial, unreliable, duplicative or cumulative.
</P>
<P>(e) Restrict irrelevant, immaterial, unreliable, duplicative or cumulative evidence and/or arguments;
</P>
<P>(f) Order depositions to be taken as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(g) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of participants;
</P>
<P>(h) Dispose of procedural requests or similar matters;
</P>
<P>(i) Examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(j) Hold conferences before or during the hearing for settlement, simplification of contentions, or any other proper purpose;
</P>
<P>(k) Set reasonable schedules for the conduct of the proceeding and take actions reasonably calculated to maintain overall schedules;
</P>
<P>(l) Refer rulings to the Commission under § 2.323(f)(1), or certify questions to the Commission for its determination, either in the presiding officer's discretion, or on petition of a party under § 2.323(f)(2), or on direction of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(m) Reopen a proceeding for the receipt of further evidence at any time before the initial decision;
</P>
<P>(n) Appoint special assistants from the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel under § 2.322;
</P>
<P>(o) Issue initial decisions as provided in this part;
</P>
<P>(p) Dispose of motions by written order or by oral ruling during the course of a hearing or prehearing conference. The presiding officer should ensure that parties not present for the oral ruling are notified promptly of the ruling;
</P>
<P>(q) Issue orders necessary to carry out the presiding officer's duties and responsibilities under this part; and
</P>
<P>(r) Establish a schedule for briefs and oral arguments to decide any admitted contentions that, as determined by the presiding officer, constitute pure issues of law.
</P>
<P>(s) Take any other action consistent with the Act, this chapter, and 5 U.S.C. 551-558.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46592, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.320" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.320   Default.</HEAD>
<P>If a party fails to file an answer or pleading within the time prescribed in this part or as specified in the notice of hearing or pleading, to appear at a hearing or prehearing conference, to comply with any prehearing order entered by the presiding officer, or to comply with any discovery order entered by the presiding officer, the Commission or the presiding officer may make any orders in regard to the failure that are just, including, among others, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Without further notice, find the facts as to the matters regarding which the order was made in accordance with the claim of the party obtaining the order, and enter the order as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(b) Proceed without further notice to take proof on the issues specified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.321" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.321   Atomic Safety and Licensing Boards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission or the Chief Administrative Judge may establish one or more Atomic Safety and Licensing Boards, each comprised of three members, one of whom will be qualified in the conduct of administrative proceedings and two of whom have such technical or other qualifications as the Commission or the Chief Administrative Judge determines to be appropriate to the issues to be decided. The members of an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board shall be designated from the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel established by the Commission. In proceedings for granting, suspending, revoking, or amending licenses or authorizations as the Commission may designate, the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board shall perform the adjudicatory functions that the Commission determines are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission or the Chief Administrative Judge may designate an alternate qualified in the conduct of administrative proceedings, or an alternate having technical or other qualifications, or both, for an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board established under paragraph (a) of this section. If a member of a board becomes unavailable, the Commission or the Chief Administrative Judge may constitute the alternate qualified in the conduct of administrative proceedings, or the alternate having technical or other qualifications, as appropriate, as a member of the board by notifying the alternate who will, as of the date of the notification, serve as a member of the board. If an alternate is unavailable or no alternates have been designated, and a member of a board becomes unavailable, the Commission or Chief Administrative Judge may appoint a member of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel who is qualified in the conduct of administrative proceedings or a member having technical or other qualifications, as appropriate, as a member of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board by notifying the appointee who will, as of the date of the notification, serve as a member of the board.
</P>
<P>(c) An Atomic Safety and Licensing Board has the duties and may exercise the powers of a presiding officer as granted by § 2.319 and otherwise in this part. Any time when a board is in existence but is not actually in session, any powers which could be exercised by a presiding officer or by the Chief Administrative Judge may be exercised with respect to the proceeding by the chairman of the board having jurisdiction over it. Two members of an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board constitute a quorum if one of those members is the member qualified in the conduct of administrative proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.322" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.322   Special assistants to the presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In consultation with the Chief Administrative Judge, the presiding officer may, at his or her discretion, appoint personnel from the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel established by the Commission to assist the presiding officer in taking evidence and preparing a suitable record for review. The appointment may occur at any appropriate time during the proceeding but must, at the time of the appointment, be subject to the notice and disqualification provisions as described in § 2.313. The special assistants may function as:
</P>
<P>(1) Technical interrogators in their individual fields of expertise. The interrogators shall study the written testimony and sit with the presiding officer to hear the presentation and, where permitted in the proceeding, the cross-examination by the parties of all witnesses on the issues of the interrogators' expertise. The interrogators shall take a leading role in examining the witnesses to ensure that the record is as complete as possible;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon consent of all the parties, special masters to hear evidentiary presentations by the parties on specific technical matters, and, upon completion of the presentation of evidence, to prepare a report that would become part of the record. Special masters may rule on evidentiary issues brought before them, in accordance with § 2.333. Appeals from special masters' rulings may be taken to the presiding officer in accordance with procedures established in the presiding officer's order appointing the special master. Special masters' reports are advisory only; the presiding officer retains final authority with respect to the issues heard by the special master;
</P>
<P>(3) Alternate Atomic Safety and Licensing Board members to sit with the presiding officer, to participate in the evidentiary sessions on the issue for which the alternate members were designated by examining witnesses, and to advise the presiding officer of their conclusions through an on-the-record report. This report is advisory only; the presiding officer retains final authority on the issue for which the alternate member was designated; or
</P>
<P>(4) Discovery master to rule on the matters specified in § 2.1018(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer may, as a matter of discretion, informally seek the assistance of members of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel to brief the presiding officer on the general technical background of subjects involving complex issues that the presiding officer might otherwise have difficulty in quickly grasping. These briefings take place before the hearing on the subject involved and supplement the reading and study undertaken by the presiding officer. They are not subject to the procedures described in § 2.313.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.323" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.323   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and general requirements</I>—(1) <I>Applicability to § 2.309(c).</I> Section 2.309 motions for new or amended contentions filed after the deadline in § 2.309(b) are not subject to the requirements of this section. For the purposes of this section the term “all motions” includes any motion <I>except</I> § 2.309 motions for new or amended contentions filed after the deadline.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presentation and disposition.</I> All motions must be addressed to the Commission or other designated presiding officer. All motions, other than motions for summary disposition, must be made no later than ten (10) days after the occurrence or circumstance from which the motion arises. All written motions must be filed with the Secretary and served on all parties to the proceeding.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and content.</I> Unless made orally on-the-record during a hearing, or the presiding officer directs otherwise, or under the provisions of subpart N of this part, a motion must be in writing, state with particularity the grounds and the relief sought, be accompanied by any affidavits or other evidence relied on, and, as appropriate, a proposed form of order. A motion must be rejected if it does not include a certification by the attorney or representative of the moving party that the movant has made a sincere effort to contact other parties in the proceeding and resolve the issue(s) raised in the motion, and that the movant's efforts to resolve the issue(s) have been unsuccessful.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answers to motions.</I> For all written motions, other than motions for summary disposition, within ten (10) days after service of the motion, or other period as determined by the Secretary, the Assistant Secretary, or the presiding officer, a party may file an answer in support of or in opposition to the motion, accompanied by affidavits or other evidence. The moving party has no right to reply, except as permitted by the Secretary, the Assistant Secretary, or the presiding officer. Permission may be granted only in compelling circumstances, such as where the moving party demonstrates that it could not reasonably have anticipated the arguments to which it seeks leave to reply.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accuracy in filing.</I> All parties are obligated, in their filings before the presiding officer and the Commission, to ensure that their arguments and assertions are supported by appropriate and accurate references to legal authority and factual basis, including, as appropriate, citations to the record. Failure to do so may result in appropriate sanctions, including striking a matter from the record or, in extreme circumstances, dismissal of the party.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Motions for reconsideration.</I> Motions for reconsideration may not be filed except upon leave of the presiding officer or the Commission, upon a showing of compelling circumstances, such as the existence of a clear and material error in a decision, which could not have reasonably been anticipated, that renders the decision invalid. A motion must be filed within ten (10) days of the action for which reconsideration is requested. The motion and any responses to the motion are limited to ten (10) pages.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Referral and certifications to the Commission.</I> (1) If, in the judgment of the presiding officer, the presiding officer's decision raises significant and novel legal or policy issues, or prompt decision by the Commission is necessary to materially advance the orderly disposition of the proceeding, then the presiding officer may promptly refer the ruling to the Commission. This standard also applies to matters certified to the Commission. The presiding officer shall notify the parties of the referral or certification either by announcement on-the-record or by written notice if the hearing is not in session.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may petition the presiding officer to certify a question to the Commission for early review. The presiding officer shall apply the criteria in § 2.341(f)(1) in determining whether to grant the petition for certification. No motion for reconsideration of the presiding officer's ruling on a petition for certification will be entertained.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of filing a motion, petition, or certification of question to the Commission.</I> Unless otherwise ordered, neither the filing of a motion, the filing of a petition for certification, nor the certification of a question to the Commission stays the proceeding or extends the time for the performance of any act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Motions to compel discovery.</I> Parties may file answers to motions to compel discovery in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. The presiding officer, in his or her discretion, may order that the answer be given orally during a telephone conference or other prehearing conference, rather than in writing. If responses are given over the telephone, the presiding officer shall issue a written order on the motion summarizing the views presented by the parties. This does not preclude the presiding officer from issuing a prior oral ruling on the matter effective at the time of the ruling, if the terms of the ruling are incorporated in the subsequent written order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46593, Aug. 3, 2012; 85 FR 70438, Nov. 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.324" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.324   Order of procedure.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer or the Commission will designate the order of procedure at a hearing. The proponent of an order will ordinarily open and close.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.325" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.325   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the presiding officer otherwise orders, the applicant or the proponent of an order has the burden of proof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.326" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.326   Motions to reopen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A motion to reopen a closed record to consider additional evidence will not be granted unless the following criteria are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The motion must be timely. However, an exceptionally grave issue may be considered in the discretion of the presiding officer even if untimely presented;
</P>
<P>(2) The motion must address a significant safety or environmental issue; and
</P>
<P>(3) The motion must demonstrate that a materially different result would be or would have been likely had the newly proffered evidence been considered initially.
</P>
<P>(b) The motion must be accompanied by affidavits that set forth the factual and/or technical bases for the movant's claim that the criteria of paragraph (a) of this section have been satisfied. Affidavits must be given by competent individuals with knowledge of the facts alleged, or by experts in the disciplines appropriate to the issues raised. Evidence contained in affidavits must meet the admissibility standards of this subpart. Each of the criteria must be separately addressed, with a specific explanation of why it has been met. When multiple allegations are involved, the movant must identify with particularity each issue it seeks to litigate and specify the factual and/or technical bases which it believes support the claim that this issue meets the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A motion predicated in whole or in part on the allegations of a confidential informant must identify to the presiding officer the source of the allegations and must request the issuance of an appropriate protective order.
</P>
<P>(d) A motion to reopen that relates to a contention not previously in controversy among the parties must also satisfy the § 2.309(c) requirements for new or amended contentions filed after the deadline in § 2.309(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46593, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.327" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.327   Official recording; transcript.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recording hearings.</I> A hearing will be recorded stenographically or by other means under the supervision of the presiding officer. If the hearing is recorded on videotape or some other video medium, before an official transcript is prepared under paragraph (b) of this section, that video recording will be considered to constitute the record of events at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official transcript.</I> For each hearing, a transcript will be prepared from the recording made in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section that will be the sole official transcript of the hearing. The transcript will be prepared by an official reporter who may be designated by the Commission or may be a regular employee of the Commission. Except as limited by section 181 of the Act or order of the Commission, the transcript will be available for inspection in the agency's public records system.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of copies.</I> Copies of transcripts prepared in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section are available to the parties and to the public from the official reporter on payment of the charges fixed therefor. If a hearing is recorded on videotape or other video medium, copies of the recording of each daily session of the hearing may be made available to the parties and to the public from the presiding officer upon payment of a charge specified by the Chief Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transcript corrections.</I> Corrections ordered or approved by the presiding officer must be included in the record through the issuance of an order by the presiding officer or the Secretary, as appropriate under the regulations in this part. The order shall reflect the corrections to the transcript through the use of a table, the issuance of a corrected or new transcript, or some other method selected by the presiding officer that will ensure a clear and concise description of the corrections.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 81 FR 47006, July 20, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.328" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.328   Hearings to be public.</HEAD>
<P>Except as may be requested under section 181 of the Act, all hearings will be public unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.329" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.329   Prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Necessity for prehearing conference; timing.</I> The Commission or the presiding officer may, and in the case of a proceeding on an application for a construction permit or an operating license for a facility of a type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter, or a testing facility, must direct the parties or their counsel to appear at a specified time and place for a conference or conferences before trial. A prehearing conference in a proceeding involving a construction permit or operating license for a facility of a type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter must be held within sixty (60) days after discovery has been completed or any other time specified by the Commission or the presiding officer.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objectives.</I> The following subjects may be discussed, as directed by the Commission or the presiding officer, at the prehearing conference:
</P>
<P>(1) Expediting the disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Establishing early and continuing control so that the proceeding will not be protracted because of lack of management;
</P>
<P>(3) Discouraging wasteful prehearing activities;
</P>
<P>(4) Improving the quality of the hearing through more thorough preparation, and;
</P>
<P>(5) Facilitating the settlement of the proceeding or any portions of it.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other matters for consideration.</I> As appropriate for the particular proceeding, a prehearing conference may be held to consider such matters as:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification, clarification, and specification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amending the pleadings;
</P>
<P>(3) Obtaining stipulations and admissions of fact and the contents and authenticity of documents to avoid unnecessary proof, and advance rulings from the presiding officer on the admissibility of evidence;
</P>
<P>(4) The appropriateness and timing of summary disposition motions under subparts G and L of this part, including appropriate limitations on the page length of motions and responses thereto;
</P>
<P>(5) The control and scheduling of discovery, including orders affecting disclosures and discovery under the discovery provisions in subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Identification of witnesses and documents, and the limitation of the number of expert witnesses, and other steps to expedite the presentation of evidence, including the establishment of reasonable limits on the time allowed for presenting direct and, where permitted, cross-examination evidence;
</P>
<P>(7) The disposition of pending motions;
</P>
<P>(8) Settlement and the use of special procedures to assist in resolving any issues in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(9) The need to adopt special procedures for managing potentially difficult or protracted proceedings that may involve particularly complex issues, including the establishment of separate hearings with respect to any particular issue in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(10) The setting of a hearing schedule, including any appropriate limitations on the scope and time permitted for cross-examination where cross-examination is permitted; and
</P>
<P>(11) Other matters that the Commission or presiding officer determines may aid in the just and orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reports.</I> Prehearing conferences may be reported stenographically or by other means.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prehearing conference order.</I> The presiding officer shall enter an order that recites the action taken at the conference, the amendments allowed to the pleadings and agreements by the parties, and the issues or matters in controversy to be determined in the proceeding. Any objections to the order must be filed by a party within five (5) days after service of the order. Parties may not file replies to the objections unless the presiding officer so directs. The filing of objections does not stay the decision unless the presiding officer so orders. The presiding officer may revise the order in the light of the objections presented and, as permitted by § 2.319(l), may certify for determination to the Commission any matter raised in the objections the presiding officer finds appropriate. The order controls the subsequent course of the proceeding unless modified for good cause.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 91 FR 15768, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.330" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.330   Stipulations.</HEAD>
<P>Apart from any stipulations made during or as a result of a prehearing conference, the parties may stipulate in writing at any stage of the proceeding or orally during the hearing, any relevant fact or the contents or authenticity of any document. These stipulations may be received in evidence. The parties may also stipulate as to the procedure to be followed in the proceeding. These stipulations may, on motion of all parties, be recognized by the presiding officer to govern the conduct of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.331" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.331   Oral argument before the presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>When, in the opinion of the presiding officer, time permits and the nature of the proceeding and the public interest warrant, the presiding officer may allow, and fix a time for, the presentation of oral argument. The presiding officer will impose appropriate limits of time on the argument. The transcript of the argument is part of the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.332" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.332   General case scheduling and management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling order.</I> The presiding officer shall, as soon as practicable after consulting with the parties by a scheduling conference, telephone, mail, or other suitable means, enter a scheduling order that establishes limits for the time to file motions, conclude discovery, commence the oral phase of the hearing (if applicable), and take other actions in the proceeding. The scheduling order may also include:
</P>
<P>(1) Modifications of the times for disclosures under §§ 2.336 and 2.704 and of the extent of discovery to be permitted;
</P>
<P>(2) The date or dates for prehearing conferences; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any other matters appropriate in the circumstances of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Model milestones.</I> In developing the scheduling order under paragraph (a) of this section, the presiding officer shall utilize the applicable model milestones in Appendix B to this part as a starting point. The presiding officer shall make appropriate modifications based upon all relevant information, including but not limited to, the number of contentions admitted, the complexity of the issues presented, relevant considerations which a party may bring to the attention of the presiding officer, the NRC staff's schedule for completion of its safety and environmental evaluations (paragraph (e) of this section), and the NRC's interest in providing a fair and expeditious resolution of the issues sought to be adjudicated by the parties in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Objectives of scheduling order.</I> The scheduling order must have as its objectives proper case management purposes such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Expediting the disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Establishing early and continuing control so that the proceeding will not be protracted because of lack of management;
</P>
<P>(3) Discouraging wasteful prehearing activities;
</P>
<P>(4) Improving the quality of the hearing through more thorough preparation; and
</P>
<P>(5) Facilitating the settlement of the proceeding or any portions thereof, including the use of Alternative Dispute Resolution, when and if the presiding officer, upon consultation with the parties, determines that these types of efforts should be pursued.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of NRC staff's schedule on scheduling order.</I> In establishing a schedule, the presiding officer shall take into consideration the NRC staff's projected schedule for completion of its safety and environmental evaluations to ensure that the hearing schedule does not adversely impact the staff's ability to complete its reviews in a timely manner. Hearings on safety issues may be commenced before publication of the NRC staff's safety evaluation upon a finding by the presiding officer that commencing the hearings at that time would expedite the proceeding. Where an environmental impact statement (EIS) is involved, hearings on environmental issues addressed in the EIS may not commence before the issuance of the final EIS. In addition, discovery against the NRC staff on safety or environmental issues, respectively, should be suspended until the staff has issued the SER or EIS, unless the presiding officer finds that the commencement of discovery against the NRC staff (as otherwise permitted by the provisions of this part) before the publication of the pertinent document will not adversely affect completion of the document and will expedite the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 20461, Apr. 20, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.333" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.333   Authority of the presiding officer to regulate procedure in a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>To prevent unnecessary delays or an unnecessarily large record, the presiding officer:
</P>
<P>(a) May limit the number of witnesses whose testimony may be cumulative;
</P>
<P>(b) May strike argumentative, repetitious, cumulative, unreliable, immaterial, or irrelevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(c) Shall require each party or participant who requests permission to conduct cross-examination to file a cross-examination plan for each witness or panel of witnesses the party or participant proposes to cross-examine;
</P>
<P>(d) Must ensure that each party or participant permitted to conduct cross-examination conducts its cross-examination in conformance with the party's or participant's cross-examination plan filed with the presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(e) May take necessary and proper measures to prevent argumentative, repetitious, or cumulative cross-examination; and
</P>
<P>(f) May impose such time limitations on arguments as the presiding officer determines appropriate, having regard for the volume of the evidence and the importance and complexity of the issues involved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.334" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.334   Implementing hearing schedule for proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the Commission directs otherwise in a particular proceeding, the presiding officer assigned to the proceeding shall, based on information and projections provided by the parties and the NRC staff, take appropriate action to maintain the hearing schedule established by the presiding officer in accordance with 10 CFR 2.332(a) of this part for the completion of the evidentiary record and, as appropriate, the issuance of its initial decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modification of hearing schedule.</I> A hearing schedule may not be modified except upon a finding of good cause by the presiding officer or the Commission. In making such a good cause determination, the presiding officer or the Commission should take into account the following factors, among other things:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the requesting party has exercised due diligence to adhere to the schedule;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the requested change is the result of unavoidable circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the other parties have agreed to the change and the overall effect of the change on the schedule of the case.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer shall provide written notification to the Commission any time during the course of the proceeding when it appears that there will be a delay of more than forty-five (45) days in meeting any of the dates for major activities in the hearing schedule established by the presiding officer under 10 CFR 2.332(a), or that the completion of the record or the issuance of the initial decision will be delayed more than sixty (60) days beyond the time specified in the hearing schedule established under 10 CFR 2.332(a). The notification must include an explanation of the reasons for the projected delay and a description of the actions, if any, that the presiding officer or the Board proposes to take to avoid or mitigate the delay.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 20461, Apr. 20, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.335" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.335   Consideration of Commission rules and regulations in adjudicatory proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, no rule or regulation of the Commission, or any provision thereof, concerning the licensing of production and utilization facilities, source material, special nuclear material, or byproduct material, is subject to attack by way of discovery, proof, argument, or other means in any adjudicatory proceeding subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A participant to an adjudicatory proceeding subject to this part may petition that the application of a specified Commission rule or regulation or any provision thereof, of the type described in paragraph (a) of this section, be waived or an exception be made for the particular proceeding. The sole ground for petition of waiver or exception is that special circumstances with respect to the subject matter of the particular proceeding are such that the application of the rule or regulation (or a provision of it) would not serve the purposes for which the rule or regulation was adopted. The petition must be accompanied by an affidavit that identifies the specific aspect or aspects of the subject matter of the proceeding as to which the application of the rule or regulation (or provision of it) would not serve the purposes for which the rule or regulation was adopted. The affidavit must state with particularity the special circumstances alleged to justify the waiver or exception requested. Any other participant may file a response by counter-affidavit or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) If, on the basis of the petition, affidavit, and any response permitted under paragraph (b) of this section, the presiding officer determines that the petitioning participant has not made a <I>prima facie</I> showing that the application of the specific Commission rule or regulation (or provision thereof) to a particular aspect or aspects of the subject matter of the proceeding would not serve the purposes for which the rule or regulation was adopted and that application of the rule or regulation should be waived or an exception granted, no evidence may be received on that matter and no discovery, cross examination, or argument directed to the matter will be permitted, and the presiding officer may not further consider the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) If, on the basis of the petition, affidavit and any response provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, the presiding officer determines that the <I>prima facie</I> showing required by paragraph (b) of this section has been made, the presiding officer shall, before ruling on the petition, certify the matter directly to the Commission (the matter will be certified to the Commission notwithstanding other provisions on certification in this part) for a determination in the matter of whether the application of the Commission rule or regulation or provision thereof to a particular aspect or aspects of the subject matter of the proceeding, in the context of this section, should be waived or an exception made. The Commission may, among other things, on the basis of the petition, affidavits, and any response, determine whether the application of the specified rule or regulation (or provision thereof) should be waived or an exception be made. The Commission may direct further proceedings as it considers appropriate to aid its determination.
</P>
<P>(e) Whether or not the procedure in paragraph (b) of this section is available, a participant to an initial or renewal licensing proceeding may file a petition for rulemaking under § 2.802.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46593, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.336" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.336   General discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for proceedings conducted under subparts G and J of this part or as otherwise ordered by the Commission, the presiding officer or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board assigned to the proceeding, all parties, other than the NRC staff, to any proceeding subject to this part shall, within thirty (30) days of the issuance of the order granting a request for hearing or petition to intervene and without further order or request from any party, disclose and provide:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and, if known, the address and telephone number of any person, including any expert, upon whose opinion the party bases its claims and contentions and may rely upon as a witness, and a copy of the analysis or other authority upon which that person bases his or her opinion;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A copy, or a description by category and location, of all documents and data compilations in the possession, custody, or control of the party that are relevant to the contentions, provided that if only a description is provided of a document or data compilation, a party shall have the right to request copies of that document and/or data compilation, and
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy (for which there is no claim of privilege or protected status), or a description by category and location, of all tangible things (e.g., books, publications and treatises) in the possession, custody or control of the party that are relevant to the contention.
</P>
<P>(iii) When any document, data compilation, or other tangible thing that must be disclosed is publicly available from another source, such as at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or the NRC Public Document Room, a sufficient disclosure would be the location, the title and a page reference to the relevant document, data compilation, or tangible thing.
</P>
<P>(3) A list of documents otherwise required to be disclosed for which a claim of privilege or protected status is being made, together with sufficient information for assessing the claim of privilege or protected status of the documents.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for proceedings conducted under subparts G and J of this part or as otherwise ordered by the Commission, the presiding officer, or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board assigned to the proceeding, the NRC staff must, within 30 days of the issuance of the order granting a request for hearing or petition to intervene and without further order or request from any party, disclose or provide to the extent available (but excluding those documents for which there is a claim of privilege or protected status):
</P>
<P>(1) The application (if applicable) and applicant or licensee requests that are relevant to the admitted contentions and are associated with the application or proposed action that is the subject of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) NRC correspondence with the applicant or licensee that is relevant to the admitted contentions and associated with the application or proposed action that is the subject of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) All documents (including documents that provide support for, or opposition to, the application or proposed action) that both support the NRC staff's review of the application or proposed action that is the subject of the proceeding and are relevant to the admitted contentions;
</P>
<P>(4) Any NRC staff documents that both represent the NRC staff's determination on the application or proposal that is the subject of the proceeding and are relevant to the admitted contentions; and
</P>
<P>(5) A list of all otherwise-discoverable documents for which a claim of privilege or protected status is being made, together with sufficient information for assessing the claim of privilege or protected status of the documents.
</P>
<P>(c) Each party and the NRC staff shall make its initial disclosures under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, based on the information and documentation then reasonably available to it. A party, including the NRC staff, is not excused from making the required disclosures because it has not fully completed its investigation of the case, it challenges the sufficiency of another entity's disclosures, or that another entity has not yet made its disclosures. All disclosures under this section must be accompanied by a certification (by sworn affidavit) that all relevant materials required by this section have been disclosed, and that the disclosures are accurate and complete as of the date of the certification.
</P>
<P>(d) The duty of disclosure under this section is continuing. Parties must update their disclosures every month after initial disclosures on a due date selected by the presiding officer in the order admitting contentions, unless the parties agree upon a different due date or frequency. The disclosure update shall be limited to documents subject to disclosure under this section and does not need to include documents that are developed, obtained, or discovered during the two weeks before the due date. Disclosure updates shall include any documents subject to disclosure that were not included in any previous disclosure update. The duty to update disclosures relevant to an admitted contention ends when the presiding officer issues a decision resolving the contention, or at such other time as may be specified by the presiding officer or the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The presiding officer may impose sanctions, including dismissal of specific contentions, dismissal of the adjudication, denial or dismissal of the application or proposed action, or the use of the discovery provisions in subpart G of this part against the offending party, for the offending party's continuing unexcused failure to make the disclosures required by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer may impose sanctions on a party that fails to provide any document or witness name required to be disclosed under this section, unless the party demonstrates good cause for its failure to make the disclosure required by this section. A sanction that may be imposed by the presiding officer is prohibiting the admission into evidence of documents or testimony of the witness proffered by the offending party in support of its case.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) In the event of a dispute over disclosure of documents and records including Safeguards Information referred to in Sections 147 and 181 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the presiding officer may issue an order requiring disclosure if—
</P>
<P>(i) The presiding officer finds that the individual seeking access to Safeguards Information to participate in an NRC adjudication has the requisite ”need to know”, as defined in 10 CFR 73.2;
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual has undergone an FBI criminal history records check, unless exempt under 10 CFR 73.22(b)(3) or 73.23(b)(3), as applicable, by submitting fingerprints to the NRC Office of Administration, Security Processing Unit, Mail Stop T-6E46, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, and otherwise following the procedures in 10 CFR 73.57(d) for submitting and processing fingerprints. However, before a final adverse determination by the NRC Office of Administration on an individual's criminal history records check is made, the individual shall be afforded the protections provided by 10 CFR 73.57; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The NRC Office of Administration has found, based upon a background check, that the individual is trustworthy and reliable, unless exempt under 10 CFR 73.22(b)(3) or 73.23(b)(3), as applicable. In addition to the protections provided by 10 CFR 73.57 for adverse determinations based on criminal history records checks, the Office of Administration must take the following actions before making a final adverse determination on an individual's background check for trustworthiness and reliability. The Office of Administration will:
</P>
<P>(A) For the purpose of assuring correct and complete information, provide to the individual any records, in addition to those required to be provided under 10 CFR 73.57(e)(1), that were considered in the trustworthiness and reliability determination;
</P>
<P>(B) Resolve any challenge by the individual to the completeness or accuracy of the records described in § 2.336(f)(1)(iii)(A). The individual may make this challenge by submitting information and/or an explanation to the Office of Administration. The challenge must be submitted within 10 days of the distribution of the records described in § 2.336(f)(1)(iii)(A), and the Office of Administration must promptly resolve any challenge.
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals seeking access to Safeguards Information to participate in an NRC adjudication for whom the NRC Office of Administration has made a final adverse determination on trustworthiness and reliability may submit a request to the Chief Administrative Judge for review of the adverse determination. Upon receiving such a request, the Chief Administrative Judge shall designate an officer other than the presiding officer of the proceeding to review the adverse determination. For purposes of review, the adverse determination must be in writing and set forth the grounds for the determination. The request for review shall be served on the NRC staff and may include additional information for review by the designated officer. The request must be filed within 15 days after receipt of the adverse determination by the person against whom the adverse determination has been made. Within 10 days of receipt of the request for review and any additional information, the NRC staff will file a response indicating whether the request and additional information has caused the NRC Office of Administration to reverse its adverse determination. The designated officer may reverse the Office of Administration's final adverse determination only if the officer finds, based on all the information submitted, that the adverse determination constitutes an abuse of discretion. The designated officer's decision must be rendered within 15 days after receipt of the staff filing indicating that the request for review and additional information has not changed the NRC Office of Administration's adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer may include in an order any protective terms and conditions (including affidavits of nondisclosure) as may be necessary and appropriate to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(3) When Safeguards Information protected from unauthorized disclosure under Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, is received and possessed by anyone other than the NRC staff, it must also be protected according to the requirements of § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer may also prescribe additional procedures to effectively safeguard and prevent disclosure of Safeguards Information to unauthorized persons with minimum impairment of the procedural rights which would be available if Safeguards Information were not involved.
</P>
<P>(5) In addition to any other sanction that may be imposed by the presiding officer for violation of an order issued pursuant to this paragraph, violation of a provision for the protection of Safeguards Information from unauthorized disclosure that is contained in an order may be subject to a civil penalty imposed under § 2.205.
</P>
<P>(6) For the purpose of imposing the criminal penalties contained in Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, a provision for the protection of Safeguards Information from unauthorized disclosure that is contained in an order issued pursuant to this paragraph is considered to be issued under Section 161b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(7) If a presiding officer has yet to be appointed, the authority to take the actions described in paragraphs (f)(1) to (f)(6) of this section resides in the officer with jurisdiction under § 2.318(a).
</P>
<P>(g) The disclosures required by this section constitute the sole discovery permitted for NRC proceedings under this part unless there is further provision for discovery under the specific subpart under which the hearing will be conducted or unless the Commission provides otherwise in a specific proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 63567, Oct. 24, 2008, 77 FR 46593, Aug. 3, 2012]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.337" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.337   Evidence at a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> Only relevant, material, and reliable evidence which is not unduly repetitious will be admitted. Immaterial or irrelevant parts of an admissible document will be segregated and excluded so far as is practicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections.</I> An objection to evidence must briefly state the grounds of objection. The transcript must include the objection, the grounds, and the ruling. Exception to an adverse ruling is preserved without notation on-the-record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offer of proof.</I> An offer of proof, made in connection with an objection to a ruling of the presiding officer excluding or rejecting proffered oral testimony, must consist of a statement of the substance of the proffered evidence. If the excluded evidence is in written form, a copy must be marked for identification. Rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, must be retained in the record.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exhibits.</I> Exhibits must be marked in accordance with any instructions provided by the presiding officer. Exhibits must be filed through the agency's E-Filing system, unless the presiding officer grants an exemption permitting an alternative filing method under § 2.302(h)(1) or (2) or unless the filing falls within the scope of § 2.302(g)(2) or (3) as not being subject to electronic transmission. When an exhibit is not filed through the E-Filing system, a duplicate is admissible to the same extent as the original unless a genuine question is raised about the original's authenticity or the circumstances make it unfair to admit the duplicate. Information that a party references through hyperlinks in an exhibit must be submitted by that party, in its entirety, either as part of the exhibit or as a separate exhibit, for that information to be included in the evidentiary record.




</P>
<P>(e) <I>Official record.</I> An official record of a government agency or entry in an official record may be evidenced by an official publication or by a copy attested by the officer having legal custody of the record and accompanied by a certificate of their custody.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) The Commission or the presiding officer may take official notice of any fact of which a court of the United States may take judicial notice or of any technical or scientific fact within the knowledge of the Commission as an expert body. Each fact officially noticed under this paragraph must be specified in the record with sufficient particularity to advise the parties of the matters which have been noticed or brought to the attention of the parties before final decision and each party adversely affected by the decision shall be given opportunity to controvert the fact.
</P>
<P>(2) If a decision is stated to rest in whole or in part on official notice of a fact which the parties have not had a prior opportunity to controvert, a party may controvert the fact by filing an appeal from an initial decision or a petition for reconsideration of a final decision. The appeal must clearly and concisely set forth the information relied upon to controvert the fact.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Proceedings involving applications</I>—(1) <I>Facility construction permits</I>. In a proceeding involving an application for construction permit for a production or utilization facility, the NRC staff shall offer into evidence any report submitted by the ACRS in the proceeding in compliance with section 182(b) of the Act, any safety evaluation prepared by the NRC staff, and any environmental impact statement prepared in the proceeding under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, or their designee.
</P>
<P>(2) Other applications where the NRC staff is a party. In a proceeding involving an application for other than a construction permit for a production or utilization facility, the NRC staff shall offer into evidence:
</P>
<P>(i) Any report submitted by the ACRS in the proceeding in compliance with section 182(b) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) At the discretion of the NRC staff, a safety evaluation prepared by the NRC staff and/or NRC staff testimony and evidence on the contention or contested matter prepared in advance of the completion of the safety evaluation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any NRC staff statement of position on the contention or contested matter provided to the presiding officer under § 2.1202(a); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any environmental impact statement or environmental assessment prepared in the proceeding under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, or their designee if there is any, but only if there are admitted contentions or contested matters with respect to the adequacy of the environmental impact statement or environmental assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) Other applications where the NRC staff is not a party. In a proceeding involving an application for other than a construction permit for a production or utilization facility, the NRC staff shall offer into evidence, and (with the exception of an ACRS report) provide one or more sponsoring witnesses, for:
</P>
<P>(i) Any report submitted by the ACRS in the proceeding in compliance with section 182(b) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) At the discretion of the NRC staff, a safety evaluation prepared by the NRC staff and/or NRC staff testimony and evidence on the contention or contested matter prepared in advance of the completion of the safety evaluation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any NRC staff statement of position on the contention or contested matter under § 2.1202(a); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any environmental impact statement or environmental assessment prepared in the proceeding under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, or their designee if there is any, but only if there are admitted contentions or contested matters with respect to the adequacy of the environmental impact statement or environmental assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 5716, Jan. 31, 2008; 77 FR 46594, Aug. 3, 2012; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019; 85 FR 70438, Nov. 5, 2020; 88 FR 57876, Aug. 24, 2023; 89 FR 67834, Aug. 22, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.338" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.338   Settlement of issues; alternative dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>The fair and reasonable settlement and resolution of issues proposed for litigation in proceedings subject to this part is encouraged. Parties are encouraged to employ various methods of alternate dispute resolution to address the issues without the need for litigation in proceedings subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Availability.</I> The parties shall have the opportunity to submit a proposed settlement of some or all issues to the Commission or presiding officer, as appropriate, or submit a request for alternative dispute resolution under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Settlement judge; alternative dispute resolution.</I> (1) The presiding officer, upon joint motion of the parties, may request the Chief Administrative Judge to appoint a Settlement Judge to conduct settlement negotiations or remit the proceeding to alternative dispute resolution as the Commission may provide or to which the parties may agree. The order appointing the Settlement Judge may confine the scope of settlement negotiations to specified issues. The order must direct the Settlement Judge to report to the Chief Administrative Judge at specified time periods.
</P>
<P>(2) If a Settlement Judge is appointed, the Settlement Judge shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Convene and preside over conferences and settlement negotiations between the parties and assess the practicalities of a potential settlement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Report to the Chief Administrative Judge describing the status of the settlement negotiations and recommending the termination or continuation of the settlement negotiations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not discuss the merits of the case with the Chief Administrative Judge or any other person, or appear as a witness in the case.
</P>
<P>(3) Settlement negotiations conducted by the Settlement Judge terminate upon the order of the Chief Administrative Judge issued after consultation with the Settlement Judge.
</P>
<P>(4) No decision concerning the appointment of a Settlement Judge or the termination of the settlement negotiation is subject to review by, appeal to, or rehearing by the presiding officer or the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of parties' attorneys or representatives.</I> The presiding officer (or Settlement Judge) may require that the attorney or other representative who is expected to try the case for each party be present and that the parties, or agents having full settlement authority, also be present or available by telephone.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Admissibility in subsequent hearing.</I> No evidence, statements, or conduct in settlement negotiations under this section will be admissible in any subsequent hearing, except by stipulation of the parties. Documents disclosed may not be used in litigation unless obtained through appropriate discovery or subpoena.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Imposition of additional requirements.</I> The presiding officer (or Settlement Judge) may impose on the parties and persons having an interest in the outcome of the adjudication additional requirements as the presiding officer (or Settlement Judge) finds necessary for the fair and efficient resolution of the case.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effects of ongoing settlement negotiations.</I> The conduct of settlement negotiations does not divest the presiding officer of jurisdiction and does not automatically stay the proceeding. A hearing must not be unduly delayed because of the conduct of settlement negotiations.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Form.</I> A settlement must be in the form of a proposed settlement agreement, a consent order, and a motion for its entry that includes the reasons why it should be accepted. It must be signed by the consenting parties or their authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Content of settlement agreement.</I> The proposed settlement agreement must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An admission of all jurisdictional facts;
</P>
<P>(2) An express waiver of further procedural steps before the presiding officer, of any right to challenge or contest the validity of the order entered into in accordance with the agreement, and of all rights to seek judicial review or otherwise to contest the validity of the consent order;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the order has the same force and effect as an order made after full hearing; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that matters identified in the agreement, required to be adjudicated have been resolved by the proposed settlement agreement and consent order.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Approval of settlement agreement.</I> Following issuance of a notice of hearing, a settlement must be approved by the presiding officer or the Commission as appropriate in order to be binding in the proceeding. The presiding officer or Commission may order the adjudication of the issues that the presiding officer or Commission finds is required in the public interest to dispose of the proceeding. In an enforcement proceeding under subpart B of this part, the presiding officer shall accord due weight to the position of the NRC staff when reviewing the settlement. If approved, the terms of the settlement or compromise must be embodied in a decision or order. Settlements approved by a presiding officer are subject to the Commission's review in accordance with § 2.341.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.339" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.339   Expedited decisionmaking procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer may determine a proceeding by an order after the conclusion of a hearing without issuing an initial decision, when:
</P>
<P>(1) All parties stipulate that the initial decision may be omitted and waive their rights to file a petition for review, to request oral argument, and to seek judicial review;
</P>
<P>(2) No unresolved substantial issue of fact, law, or discretion remains, and the record clearly warrants granting the relief requested; and
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer finds that dispensing with the issuance of the initial decision is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) An order entered under paragraph (a) of this section is subject to review by the Commission on its own motion within forty (40) days after its date.
</P>
<P>(c) An initial decision may be made effective immediately, subject to review by the Commission on its own motion within thirty (30) days after its date, except as otherwise provided in this chapter, when:
</P>
<P>(1) All parties stipulate that the initial decision may be made effective immediately and waive their rights to file a petition for review, to request oral argument, and to seek judicial review;
</P>
<P>(2) No unresolved substantial issue of fact, law, or discretion remains and the record clearly warrants granting the relief requested; and
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer finds that it is in the public interest to make the initial decision effective immediately.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of this section do not apply to an initial decision directing the issuance of a limited work authorization under § 50.10 or § 53.1130 of this chapter; an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter; a construction permit or construction authorization under part 50 or 53 of this chapter; a combined license under subpart C of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter; or a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49475, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15768, Mar. 30, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.340" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.340   Initial decision in certain contested proceedings; immediate effectiveness of initial decisions; issuance of authorizations, permits, and licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial decision—production or utilization facility operating license.</I> (1) Matters in controversy; presiding officer consideration of matters not put in controversy by parties. In any initial decision in a contested proceeding on an application for an operating license or renewed license (including an amendment to or renewal of an operating license or renewed license) for a production or utilization facility, the presiding officer shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law on the matters put into controversy by the parties and any matter designated by the Commission to be decided by the presiding officer. The presiding officer shall also make findings of fact and conclusions of law on any matter not put into controversy by the parties, but only to the extent that the presiding officer determines that a serious safety, environmental, or common defense and security matter exists, and the Commission approves of an examination of and decision on the matter upon its referral by the presiding officer under, inter alia, the provisions of §§ 2.323 and 2.341.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presiding officer initial decision and issuance of permit or license.</I> (i) In a contested proceeding for the initial issuance or renewal of a construction permit, operating license, or renewed license, or the amendment of an operating or renewed license where the NRC has not made a determination of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate, after making the requisite findings, shall issue, deny, or appropriately condition the permit or license in accordance with the presiding officer's initial decision once that decision becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a contested proceeding for the amendment of a construction permit, operating license, or renewed license where the NRC has made a determination of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate  (appropriate official), after making the requisite findings and complying with any applicable provisions of § 2.1202(a) or § 2.1403(a), may issue the amendment before the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective. Once the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective, the appropriate official shall take action with respect to that amendment in accordance with the initial decision. If the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective before the appropriate official issues the amendment, then the appropriate official, after making the requisite findings, shall issue, deny, or appropriately condition the amendment in accordance with the presiding officer's initial decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial decision—combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter</I>—(1) <I>Matters in controversy; presiding officer consideration of matters not put in controversy by parties.</I> In any initial decision in a contested proceeding on an application for a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter (including an amendment to or renewal of combined license), the presiding officer shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law on the matters put into controversy by the parties and any matter designated by the Commission to be decided by the presiding officer. The presiding officer shall also make findings of fact and conclusions of law on any matter not put into controversy by the parties, but only to the extent that the presiding officer determines that a serious safety, environmental, or common defense and security matter exists, and the Commission approves of an examination of and decision on the matter upon its referral by the presiding officer under, inter alia, the provisions of §§ 2.323 and 2.341.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presiding officer initial decision and issuance of permit or license.</I> (i) In a contested proceeding for the initial issuance or renewal of a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, or the amendment of a combined license where the NRC has not made a determination of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate after making the requisite findings, shall issue, deny, or appropriately condition the permit or license in accordance with the presiding officer's initial decision once that decision becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a contested proceeding for the amendment of a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter where the NRC has made a determination of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate (appropriate official), after making the requisite findings and complying with any applicable provisions of § 2.1202(a) or § 2.1403(a), may issue the amendment before the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective. Once the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective, the appropriate official shall take action with respect to that amendment in accordance with the initial decision. If the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective before the appropriate official issues the amendment, then the appropriate official, after making the requisite findings, shall issue, deny, or appropriately condition the amendment in accordance with the presiding officer's initial decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial decision on findings under § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter with respect to acceptance criteria in nuclear power reactor combined licenses.</I> In any initial decision under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter with respect to whether acceptance criteria have been or will be met, the presiding officer shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law on the matters put into controversy by the parties, and any matter designated by the Commission to be decided by the presiding officer. Matters not put into controversy by the parties but identified by the presiding officer as matters requiring further examination, shall be referred to the Commission for its determination; the Commission may, in its discretion, treat any of these referred matters as a request for action under § 2.206 and process the matter in accordance with § 52.103(f) or § 53.1452(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Initial decision—manufacturing license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter</I>—(1) <I>Matters in controversy; presiding officer consideration of matters not put in controversy by parties.</I> In any initial decision in a contested proceeding on an application for a manufacturing license under subpart C of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter (including an amendment to or renewal of a manufacturing license), the presiding officer shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law on the matters put into controversy by the parties and any matter designated by the Commission to be decided by the presiding officer. The presiding officer also shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law on any matter not put into controversy by the parties, but only to the extent that the presiding officer determines that a serious safety, environmental, or common defense and security matter exists, and the Commission approves of an examination of and decision on the matter upon its referral by the presiding officer under, inter alia, the provisions of §§ 2.323 and 2.341.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presiding officer initial decision and issuance of permit or license.</I> (i) In a contested proceeding for the initial issuance or renewal of a manufacturing license under subpart C of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, or the amendment of a manufacturing license, the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate, after making the requisite findings, shall issue, deny, or appropriately condition the permit or license in accordance with the presiding officer's initial decision once that decision becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a contested proceeding for the initial issuance or renewal of a manufacturing license under subpart C of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, or the amendment of a manufacturing license, the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate (appropriate official), may issue the license, permit, or license amendment in accordance with § 2.1202(a) or § 2.1403(a) before the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective. If, however, the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective before the license, permit, or license amendment is issued under § 2.1202 or § 2.1403, then the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate, shall issue, deny, or appropriately condition the license, permit, or license amendment in accordance with the presiding officer's initial decision.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Initial decision—other proceedings not involving production or utilization facilities</I>—(1) <I>Matters in controversy; presiding officer consideration of matters not put in controversy by parties.</I> In a proceeding not involving production or utilization facilities, the presiding officer shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law on the matters put into controversy by the parties to the proceeding, and on any matters designated by the Commission to be decided by the presiding officer. Matters not put into controversy by the parties, but identified by the presiding officer as requiring further examination, must be referred to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. Depending on the resolution of those matters, the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, after making the requisite findings, shall issue, deny, revoke or appropriately condition the license, or take other action as necessary or appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presiding officer initial decision and issuance of permit or license.</I> (i) In a contested proceeding under this paragraph (e), the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, shall issue, deny, or appropriately condition the permit, license, or license amendment in accordance with the presiding officer's initial decision once that decision becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a contested proceeding under this paragraph (e), the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, may issue the permit, license, or amendment in accordance with § 2.1202(a) or § 2.1403(a) before the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective. If, however, the presiding officer's initial decision becomes effective before the permit, license, or amendment is issued under § 2.1202 or § 2.1403, then the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate,shall issue, deny, or appropriately condition the permit, license, or amendment in accordance with the presiding officer's initial decision.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Immediate effectiveness of certain presiding officer decisions.</I> A presiding officer's initial decision directing the issuance or amendment of a limited work authorization under § 50.10 or § 53.1130 of this chapter; an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter; a construction permit or construction authorization under part 50 or 53 of this chapter; an operating license under part 50 or 53 of this chapter; a combined license under subpart C of part 52 or subpart H or part 53 of this chapter; a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter; a renewed license under part 53 or 54 of this chapter; or a license under part 72 of this chapter to store spent fuel in an independent spent fuel storage facility (ISFSI) or a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS); an initial decision directing issuance of a license under part 61 of this chapter; or an initial decision under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter that acceptance criteria in a combined license have been met, is immediately effective upon issuance unless the presiding officer finds that good cause has been shown by a party why the initial decision should not become immediately effective.




</P>
<P>(g)-(h) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Issuance of authorizations, permits, and licenses—production and utilization facilities.</I> The Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate, shall issue a limited work authorization under § 50.10 or § 53.1130 of this chapter; an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter; a construction permit or construction authorization under part 50 or 53 of this chapter; an operating license under part 50 or 53 of this chapter; a combined license under subpart C of part 52 or part 53 of this chapter; or a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or part 53 of this chapter within 10 days from the date of issuance of the initial decision:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Commission or the Director has made all findings necessary for issuance of the authorization, permit or license, not within the scope of the initial decision of the presiding officer; and
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the pendency of a petition for reconsideration under § 2.345, a petition for review under § 2.341, or a motion for stay under § 2.342, or the filing of a petition under § 2.206.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Issuance of finding on acceptance criteria under § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter.</I> The Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate, shall make the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter, that acceptance criteria in a combined license are met within 10 days from the date of the presiding officer's initial decision:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Commission or the Director is otherwise able to make the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter, that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met for those acceptance criteria not within the scope of the initial decision of the presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(2) If the presiding officer's initial decision—with respect to contentions that the prescribed acceptance criteria have not been met—finds that those acceptance criteria have been met, and the Commission or the Director thereafter is able to make the finding that those acceptance criteria are met;
</P>
<P>(3) If the presiding officer's initial decision—with respect to contentions that the prescribed acceptance criteria will not be met—finds that those acceptance criteria will be met, and the Commission or the Director thereafter is able to make the finding that those acceptance criteria are met; and
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding the pendency of a petition for reconsideration under § 2.345, a petition for review under § 2.341, or a motion for stay under § 2.342, or the filing of a petition under § 2.206.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Issuance of other licenses.</I> The Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, shall issue a license, including a license under part 72 of this chapter to store spent fuel in either an independent spent fuel storage facility (ISFSI) located away from a reactor site or at a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS), within 10 days from the date of issuance of the initial decision:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Commission or the Director has made all findings necessary for issuance of the license, not within the scope of the initial decision of the presiding officer; and
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the pendency of a petition for reconsideration under § 2.345, a petition for review under § 2.341, or a motion for stay under § 2.342, or the filing of a petition under § 2.206.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 46594, Aug. 3, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 51891, Aug. 28, 2012;79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019; 91 FR 15769, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.341" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.341   Review of decisions and actions of a presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Review of decisions and actions of a presiding officer are treated under this section; provided, however, that no party may request further Commission review of a Commission determination to allow a period of interim operation under § 52.103(c) or § 53.1452(c) of this chapter. This section does not apply to appeals under § 2.311 or to appeals in the high-level waste proceeding, which are governed by § 2.1015.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 120 days after the date of a decision or action by a presiding officer, or within 120 days after a petition for review of the decision or action has been served under paragraph (b) of this section, whichever is greater, the Commission may review the decision or action on its own motion, unless the Commission, in its discretion, extends the time for its review.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Within 25 days after service of a full or partial initial decision by a presiding officer, and within 25 days after service of any other decision or action by a presiding officer with respect to which a petition for review is authorized by this part, a party may file a petition for review with the Commission on the grounds specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. Unless otherwise authorized by law, a party to an NRC proceeding must file a petition for Commission review before seeking judicial review of an agency action.
</P>
<P>(2) A petition for review under this paragraph may not be longer thanthirty (30) pages, and must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A concise summary of the decision or action of which review is sought;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement (including record citation) where the matters of fact or law raised in the petition for review were previously raised before the presiding officer and, if they were not, why they could not have been raised;
</P>
<P>(iii) A concise statement why in the petitioner's view the decision or action is erroneous; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A concise statement why Commission review should be exercised.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other party to the proceeding may, within 25 days after service of a petition for review, file an answer supporting or opposing Commission review. This answer may not be longer than 25 pages and should concisely address the matters in paragraph (b)(2) of this section to the extent appropriate. The petitioning party may file a reply brief within 10 days of service of any answer. This reply brief may not be longer than 5 pages.
</P>
<P>(4) The petition for review may be granted in the discretion of the Commission, giving due weight to the existence of a substantial question with respect to the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(i) A finding of material fact is clearly erroneous or in conflict with a finding as to the same fact in a different proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ii) A necessary legal conclusion is without governing precedent or is a departure from or contrary to established law;
</P>
<P>(iii) A substantial and important question of law, policy, or discretion has been raised;
</P>
<P>(iv) The conduct of the proceeding involved a prejudicial procedural error; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other consideration which the Commission may deem to be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(5) A petition for review will not be granted to the extent that it relies on matters that could have been but were not raised before the presiding officer. A matter raised sua sponte by a presiding officer has been raised before the presiding officer for the purpose of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) A petition for review will not be granted as to issues raised before the presiding officer on a pending motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If within 120 days after the filing of a petition for review the Commission does not grant the petition, in whole or in part, the petition is deemed to be denied, unless the Commission, in its discretion, extends the time for its consideration of the petition and any answers to the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) If a petition for review is granted, the Commission may issue an order specifying the issues to be reviewed and designating the parties to the review proceeding. The Commission may, in its discretion, decide the matter on the basis of the petition for review or it may specify whether any briefs may be filed.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless the Commission orders otherwise, any briefs on review may not exceed 30 pages in length, exclusive of pages containing the table of contents, table of citations, and any addendum containing appropriate exhibits, statutes, or regulations. A brief in excess of 10 pages must contain a table of contents with page references and a table of cases (alphabetically arranged), cited statutes, regulations, and other authorities, with references to the pages of the brief where they are cited.
</P>
<P>(d) Petitions for reconsideration of Commission decisions granting or denying review in whole or in part will not be entertained. A petition for reconsideration of a Commission decision after review may be filed within ten (10) days, but is not necessary for exhaustion of administrative remedies. However, if a petition for reconsideration is filed, the Commission decision is not final until the petition is decided. Any petition for reconsideration will be evaluated against the standard in § 2.323(e).
</P>
<P>(e) Neither the filing nor the granting of a petition under this section stays the effect of the decision or action of the presiding officer, unless the Commission orders otherwise.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Interlocutory review.</I> (1) A ruling referred or question certified to the Commission under §§ 2.319(l) or 2.323(f) may be reviewed if the certification or referral raises significant and novel legal or policy issues, or resolution of the issues would materially advance the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may, in its discretion, grant interlocutory review at the request of a party despite the absence of a referral or certification by the presiding officer. A petition and answer to it must be filed within the times and in the form prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section and must be treated in accordance with the general provisions of this section. The petition for interlocutory review will be granted only if the party demonstrates that the issue for which the party seeks interlocutory review:
</P>
<P>(i) Threatens the party adversely affected by it with immediate and serious irreparable impact which, as a practical matter, could not be alleviated through a petition for review of the presiding officer's final decision; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Affects the basic structure of the proceeding in a pervasive or unusual manner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49476, Aug. 28, 2007; 77 FR 46596, Aug. 3, 2012; 89 FR 67834, Aug. 22, 2024; 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.342" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.342   Stays of decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within ten (10) days after service of a decision or action of a presiding officer, any party to the proceeding may file an application for a stay of the effectiveness of the decision or action pending filing of and a decision on a petition for review. This application may be filed with the Commission or the presiding officer, but not both at the same time.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a stay may be no longer than ten (10) pages, exclusive of affidavits, and must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise summary of the decision or action which is requested to be stayed;
</P>
<P>(2) A concise statement of the grounds for stay, with reference to the factors specified in paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that an application for a stay relies on facts subject to dispute, appropriate references to the record or affidavits by knowledgeable persons.
</P>
<P>(c) Service of an application for a stay on the other parties must be by the same method, e.g., electronic or facsimile transmission, mail, as the method for filing the application with the Commission or the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(d) Within ten (10) days after service of an application for a stay under this section, any party may file an answer supporting or opposing the granting of a stay. This answer may not be longer than ten (10) pages, exclusive of affidavits, and should concisely address the matters in paragraph (b) of this section to the extent appropriate. Further replies to answers will not be entertained. Filing of and service of an answer on the other parties must be by the same method, e.g., electronic or facsimile transmission, mail, as the method for filing the application for the stay.
</P>
<P>(e) In determining whether to grant or deny an application for a stay, the Commission or presiding officer will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the moving party has made a strong showing that it is likely to prevail on the merits;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the party will be irreparably injured unless a stay is granted;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the granting of a stay would harm other parties; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where the public interest lies.
</P>
<P>(f) In extraordinary cases, where prompt application is made under this section, the Commission or presiding officer may grant a temporary stay to preserve the status quo without waiting for filing of any answer. The application may be made orally provided the application is promptly confirmed by electronic or facsimile transmission message. Any party applying under this paragraph shall make all reasonable efforts to inform the other parties of the application, orally if made orally.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.343" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.343   Oral argument.</HEAD>
<P>In its discretion, the Commission may allow oral argument upon the request of a party made in a petition for review, brief on review, or upon its own initiative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.344" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.344   Final decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will ordinarily consider the whole record on review, but may limit the issues to be reviewed to those identified in an order taking review.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may adopt, modify, or set aside the findings, conclusions and order in the initial decision, and will state the basis of its action. The final decision will be in writing and will include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of findings and conclusions, with the basis for them on all material issues of fact, law or discretion presented;
</P>
<P>(2) All facts officially noticed;
</P>
<P>(3) The ruling on each material issue; and
</P>
<P>(4) The appropriate ruling, order, or denial of relief, with the effective date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.345" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.345   Petition for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Any petition for reconsideration of a final decision must be filed by a party within ten (10) days after the date of the decision.
</P>
<P>(2) Petitions for reconsideration of Commission decisions are subject to the requirements in § 2.341(d).
</P>
<P>(b) A petition for reconsideration must demonstrate a compelling circumstance, such as the existence of a clear and material error in a decision, which could not have been reasonably anticipated, which renders the decision invalid. The petition must state the relief sought. Within ten (10) days after a petition for reconsideration has been served, any other party may file an answer in opposition to or in support of the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither the filing nor the granting of the petition stays the decision unless the Commission orders otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.346" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.346   Authority of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>When briefs, motions or other documents are submitted to the Commission itself, as opposed to officers who have been delegated authority to act for the Commission, the Secretary or the Assistant Secretary is authorized to:
</P>
<P>(a) Prescribe procedures for the filing of briefs, motions, or other pleadings, when the schedules differ from those prescribed by the rules of this part or when the rules of this part do not prescribe a schedule;
</P>
<P>(b) Rule on motions for extensions of time;
</P>
<P>(c) Reject motions, briefs, pleadings, and other documents filed with the Commission later then the time prescribed by the Secretary or the Assistant Secretary or established by an order, rule or regulation of the Commission unless good cause is shown for the late filing;
</P>
<P>(d) Prescribe all procedural arrangements relating to any oral argument to be held before the Commission;
</P>
<P>(e) Extend the time for the Commission to rule on a petition for review under § 2.341;
</P>
<P>(f) Extend the time for the Commission to grant review on its own motion under § 2.341;
</P>
<P>(g) Direct pleadings improperly filed before the Commission to the appropriate presiding officer for action;
</P>
<P>(h) Deny a request for hearings, where the request fails to comply with the Commission's pleading requirements set forth in this part, and fails to set forth an arguable basis for further proceedings;
</P>
<P>(i) Refer to the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel or an Administrative Judge, as appropriate requests for hearing not falling under § 2.104, where the requestor is entitled to further proceedings; and
</P>
<P>(j) Take action on other minor matters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49152, Aug. 28, 2007; 77 FR 46597, Aug. 3, 2012; 78 FR 34247, June 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.347" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.347   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>In any proceeding under this subpart—
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Interested persons outside the agency may not make or knowingly cause to be made to any Commission adjudicatory employee, any ex parte communication relevant to the merits of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, <I>merits of the proceeding</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A disputed issue;
</P>
<P>(ii) A matter which a presiding officer seeks to be referred to the Commission under 10 CFR 2.340(a); and
</P>
<P>(iii) A matter for which the Commission has approved examination by the presiding officer under § 2.340(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Commission adjudicatory employees may not request or entertain from any interested person outside the agency or make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the agency, any <I>ex parte</I> communication relevant to the merits of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Any Commission adjudicatory employee who receives, makes, or knowingly causes to be made a communication prohibited by this section shall ensure that it, and any responses to the communication, are promptly served on the parties and placed in the public record of the proceeding. In the case of oral communications, a written summary must be served and placed in the public record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receipt of a communication knowingly made or knowingly caused to be made by a party in violation of this section, the Commission or other adjudicatory employee presiding in a proceeding may, to the extent consistent with the interests of justice and the policy of the underlying statutes, require the party to show cause why its claim or interest in the proceeding should not be dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of the violation.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The prohibitions of this section apply—
</P>
<P>(i) When a notice of hearing or other comparable order is issued in accordance with §§ 2.104(a), 2.105(e)(2), 2.202(c), 2.205(e), or 2.312; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the interested person or Commission adjudicatory employee responsible for the communication has knowledge that a notice of hearing or other comparable order will be issued in accordance with § 2.104(a), § 2.105(e)(2), § 2.202(c), 2.205(e), or § 2.312.
</P>
<P>(2) The prohibitions of this section cease to apply to <I>ex parte</I> communications relevant to the merits of a full or partial initial decision when, in accordance with § 2.341, the time has expired for Commission review of the decision.
</P>
<P>(f) The prohibitions in this section do not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for and the provision of status reports;
</P>
<P>(2) Communications specifically permitted by statute or regulation;
</P>
<P>(3) Communications made to or by Commission adjudicatory employees in the Office of the General Counsel regarding matters pending before a court or another agency; and
</P>
<P>(4) Communications regarding generic issues involving public health and safety or other statutory responsibilities of the agency (e.g., rulemakings, congressional hearings on legislation, budgetary planning) not associated with the resolution of any proceeding under this subpart pending before the NRC.
</P>
<P>(5) Communications, in contested proceedings and uncontested mandatory proceeding, regarding an undisputed issue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49476, Aug. 28, 2007; 77 FR 46597, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.348" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.348   Separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any proceeding under this part, any NRC officer or employee engaged in the performance of any investigative or litigating function in the proceeding or in a factually related proceeding with respect to a disputed issue in that proceeding, may not participate in or advise a Commission adjudicatory employee about the initial or final decision with respect to that disputed issue, except—
</P>
<P>(1) As witness or counsel in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Through a written communication served on all parties and made on-the-record of the proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(3) Through an oral communication made both with reasonable prior notice to all parties and with reasonable opportunity for all parties to respond.
</P>
<P>(b) The prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) Communications to or from any Commission adjudicatory employee regarding—
</P>
<P>(i) The status of a proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ii) Matters for which the communications are specifically permitted by statute or regulation;
</P>
<P>(iii) NRC participation in matters pending before a court or another agency; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Generic issues involving public health and safety or other statutory responsibilities of the NRC (e.g., rulemakings, congressional hearings on legislation, budgetary planning) not associated with the resolution of any proceeding under this subpart pending before the NRC.
</P>
<P>(2) Communications to or from Commissioners, members of their personal staffs, employees of the Office of Commission Appellate Adjudication, Commission adjudicatory employees in the Office of the General Counsel, and the Secretary and employees of the Office of the Secretary, regarding—


</P>
<P>(i) Initiation or direction of an investigation or initiation of an enforcement proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Supervision of NRC staff to ensure compliance with the general policies and procedures of the agency;
</P>
<P>(iii) NRC staff priorities and schedules or the allocation of agency resources; or
</P>
<P>(iv) General regulatory, scientific, or engineering principles that are useful for an understanding of the issues in a proceeding and are not contested in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) None of the communications permitted by paragraph (b)(2) (i) through (iii) of this section is to be associated by the Commission adjudicatory employee or the NRC officer or employee performing investigative or litigating functions with the resolution of any proceeding under this subpart pending before the NRC.
</P>
<P>(c) Any Commission adjudicatory employee who receives a communication prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section shall ensure that it, and any responses to the communication, are placed in the public record of the proceeding and served on the parties. In the case of oral communications, a written summary must be served and placed in the public record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The prohibitions in this section apply—
</P>
<P>(i) When a notice of hearing or other comparable order is issued in accordance with §§ 2.104(a), 2.105(e)(2), 2.202(c), 2.205(e), or 2.312; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever an NRC officer or employee who is or has reasonable cause to believe he or she will be engaged in the performance of an investigative or litigating function or a Commission adjudicatory employee has knowledge that a notice of hearing or other comparable order will be issued in accordance with §§ 2.104(a), 2.105(e)(2), 2.202(c), 2.205(e), or 2.312.
</P>
<P>(iii) A matter which a presiding officer seeks to be referred to the Commission under 10 CFR 2.340(a); and
</P>
<P>(iv) A matter for which the Commission has approved examination by the presiding officer under § 2.340(a).
</P>
<P>(2) The prohibitions of this section cease to apply to the disputed issues pertinent to a full or partial initial decision when the time has expired for Commission review of the decision in accordance with § 2.341.
</P>
<P>(3) Separation of functions does not apply to uncontested proceedings, or to an undisputed issue in contested initial licensing proceedings.
</P>
<P>(e) Communications to, from, and between Commission adjudicatory employees not prohibited by this section may not serve as a conduit for a communication that otherwise would be prohibited by this section or for an ex parte communication that otherwise would be prohibited by § 2.347.
</P>
<P>(f) If an initial or final decision is stated to rest in whole or in part on fact or opinion obtained as a result of a communication authorized by this section, the substance of the communication must be specified in the record of the proceeding and every party must be afforded an opportunity to controvert the fact or opinion. If the parties have not had an opportunity to controvert the fact or opinion before the decision is filed, a party may controvert the fact or opinion by filing a petition for review of an initial decision, or a petition for reconsideration of a final decision that clearly and concisely sets forth the information or argument relied on to show the contrary. If appropriate, a party may be afforded the opportunity for cross-examination or to present rebuttal evidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007; 77 FR 46597, Aug. 3, 2012; 85 FR 70438, Nov. 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.390" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.3.20.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.390   Public inspections, exemptions, requests for withholding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (b), (d), (e), and (f) of this section, final NRC records and documents, including but not limited to correspondence to and from the NRC regarding the issuance, denial, amendment, transfer, renewal, modification, suspension, revocation, or violation of a license, permit, order, or standard design approval, or regarding a rulemaking proceeding subject to this part shall not, in the absence of an NRC determination of a compelling reason for nondisclosure after a balancing of the interests of the person or agency urging nondisclosure and the public interest in disclosure, be exempt from disclosure and will be made available for inspection and copying at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I>, and/or at the NRC Public Document Room, except for matters that are:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Are in fact properly classified under that Executive order;
</P>
<P>(2) Related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(3) Specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552(b)), but only if that statute requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types or matters to be withheld.
</P>
<P>(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(5) Interagency or intra-agency memorandums or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the agency, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested;
</P>
<P>(6) Personnel and medical files and similar files, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(7) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records or information:
</P>
<P>(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(iii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority, or any private institution which furnished information on a confidential basis, and, in the case of a record or information compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, information furnished by a confidential source;
</P>
<P>(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual;
</P>
<P>(8) Contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or
</P>
<P>(9) Geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures in this section must be followed by anyone submitting a document to the NRC who seeks to have the document, or a portion of it, withheld from public disclosure because it contains trade secrets, privileged, or confidential commercial or financial information.
</P>
<P>(1) The submitter shall request withholding at the time the document is submitted and shall comply with the document marking and affidavit requirements set forth in this paragraph. The NRC has no obligation to review documents not so marked to determine whether they contain information eligible for withholding under paragraph (a) of this section. Any documents not so marked may be made available to the public at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I> or at the NRC Public Document Room.
</P>
<P>(i) The submitter shall ensure that the document containing information sought to be withheld is marked as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The first page of the document, and each successive page containing such information, must be marked so as to be readily visible, at the top, or by electronic watermark or other suitable marking on the body of the page, with language substantially similar to: “confidential information submitted under 10 CFR 2.390,” “withhold from public disclosure under 10 CFR 2.390,” or “proprietary,” to indicate that it contains information the submitter seeks to have withheld.
</P>
<P>(B) Each document or page, as appropriate, containing information sought to be withheld from public disclosure must indicate, adjacent to the information, or as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i)(A) of this section if the entire page is affected, the basis (<I>i.e.,</I> trade secret, personal privacy, etc.) for proposing that the information be withheld from public disclosure under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission may waive the affidavit requirements on request, or on its own initiative, in circumstances the Commission, in its discretion, deems appropriate. Otherwise, except for personal privacy information, which is not subject to the affidavit requirement, the request for withholding must be accompanied by an affidavit that—
</P>
<P>(A) Identifies the document or part sought to be withheld;
</P>
<P>(B) Identifies the official position of the person making the affidavit;
</P>
<P>(C) Declares the basis for proposing the information be withheld, encompassing considerations set forth in § 2.390(a);
</P>
<P>(D) Includes a specific statement of the harm that would result if the information sought to be withheld is disclosed to the public; and
</P>
<P>(E) Indicates the location(s) in the document of all information sought to be withheld.
</P>
<P>(iii) In addition, an affidavit accompanying a withholding request based on paragraph (a)(4) of this section must contain a full statement of the reason for claiming the information should be withheld from public disclosure. This statement must address with specificity the considerations listed in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. In the case of an affidavit submitted by a company, the affidavit shall be executed by an officer or upper-level management official who has been specifically delegated the function of reviewing the information sought to be withheld and authorized to apply for its withholding on behalf of the company. The affidavit shall be executed by the owner of the information, even though the information sought to be withheld is submitted to the Commission by another person. The application and affidavit shall be submitted at the time of filing the information sought to be withheld. The information sought to be withheld shall be incorporated, as far as possible, into a separate document. The affiant must designate with appropriate markings information submitted in the affidavit as a trade secret, or confidential or privileged commercial or financial information within the meaning of § 9.17(a)(4) of this chapter, and such information shall be subject to disclosure only in accordance with the provisions of § 9.19 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A person who submits commercial or financial information believed to be privileged or confidential or a trade secret shall be on notice that it is the policy of the Commission to achieve an effective balance between legitimate concerns for protection of competitive positions and the right of the public to be fully apprised as to the basis for and effects of licensing or rulemaking actions, and that it is within the discretion of the Commission to withhold such information from public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission shall determine whether information sought to be withheld from public disclosure under this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a trade secret or confidential or privileged commercial or financial information; and (ii) If so, should be withheld from public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(4) In making the determination required by paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the Commission will consider:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the information has been held in confidence by its owner;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the information is of a type customarily held in confidence by its owner and, except for voluntarily submitted information, whether there is a rational basis therefor;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the information was transmitted to and received by the Commission in confidence; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the information is available in public sources.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Commission determines, under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, that the record or document contains trade secrets or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, the Commission will then determine whether the right of the public to be fully apprised as to the bases for and effects of the proposed action outweighs the demonstrated concern for protection of a competitive position, and whether the information should be withheld from public disclosure under this paragraph. If the record or document for which withholding is sought is deemed by the Commission to be irrelevant or unnecessary to the performance of its functions, it will be returned to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(6) Withholding from public inspection does not affect the right, if any, of persons properly and directly concerned to inspect the document. Either before a decision of the Commission on the matter of whether the information should be made publicly available or after a decision has been made that the information should be withheld from public disclosure, the Commission may require information claimed to be a trade secret or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information to be subject to inspection under a protective agreement by contractor personnel or government officials other than NRC officials, by the presiding officer in a proceeding, and under protective order by the parties to a proceeding. <I>In camera</I> sessions of hearings may be held when the information sought to be withheld is produced or offered in evidence. If the Commission subsequently determines that the information should be disclosed, the information and the transcript of such <I>in camera</I> session will be made publicly available.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission either may grant or deny a request for withholding under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) If the request is granted, the Commission will notify the submitter of its determination to withhold the information from public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Commission denies a request for withholding under this section, it will provide the submitter with a statement of reasons for that determination. This decision will specify the date, which will be a reasonable time thereafter, when the document will be available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I> The document will not be returned to the submitter.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever a submitter desires to withdraw a document from Commission consideration, it may request return of the document, and the document will be returned unless the information—
</P>
<P>(i) Forms part of the basis of an official agency decision, including but not limited to, a rulemaking proceeding or licensing activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is contained in a document that was made available to or prepared for an NRC advisory committee;
</P>
<P>(iii) Was revealed, or relied upon, in an open Commission meeting held in accordance with 10 CFR part 9, subpart C;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has been requested in a Freedom of Information Act request; or
</P>
<P>(v) Has been obtained during the course of an investigation conducted by the NRC Office of Investigations.
</P>
<P>(d) The following information is considered commercial or financial information within the meaning of § 9.17(a)(4) of this chapter and is subject to disclosure only in accordance with the provisions of § 9.19 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(1) Correspondence and reports to or from the NRC which contain information or records concerning a licensee's or applicant's physical protection, classified matter protection, or material control and accounting program for special nuclear material not otherwise designated as Safeguards Information or classified as National Security Information or Restricted Data.
</P>
<P>(2) Information submitted in confidence to the Commission by a foreign source.
</P>
<P>(e) Submitting information to NRC for consideration in connection with NRC licensing or regulatory activities shall be deemed to constitute authority for the NRC to reproduce and distribute sufficient copies to carry out the Commission's official responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(f) The presiding officer, if any, or the Commission may, with reference to the NRC records and documents made available pursuant to this section, issue orders consistent with the provisions of this section and § 2.705(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2236, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49152, Aug. 28, 2007; 72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007; 75 FR 73937, Nov. 30, 2010; 81 FR 96346, Dec. 30, 2016; 90 FR 54227, Nov. 26, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Additional Procedures Applicable to Proceedings for the Issuance of Licenses To Construct and/or Operate Nuclear Power Plants of Identical Design at Multiple Sites</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.400" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.400   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes procedures applicable to licensing proceedings which involve the consideration in hearings of a number of applications, filed by one or more applicants pursuant to appendix N of part 50 or part 52 or § 53.1470 of this chapter, for licenses to construct and/or operate nuclear power reactors of identical design to be located at multiple sites.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.401" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.401   Notice of hearing on construction permit or combined license applications pursuant to appendix N of 10 CFR part 50, 52, or 53.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of applications under appendix N of part 50 or § 53.1470 of this chapter for construction permits for nuclear power reactors of the type described in § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter, or applications under appendix N of part 52 or § 53.1470 of this chapter for combined licenses, the Secretary will issue notices of hearing pursuant to § 2.104.








</P>
<P>(b) The notice of hearing will also state the time and place of the hearings on any separate phase of the proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.402" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.402   Separate hearings on separate issues; consolidation of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of applications under appendix N of part 50 or § 53.1470 of this chapter for construction permits for nuclear power reactors of a type described in § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter, or applications pursuant to appendix N of part 52 or § 53.1470 of this chapter for combined licenses, the Commission or the presiding officer may order separate hearings on particular phases of the proceeding, such as matters related to the acceptability of the design of the reactor in the context of the site parameters postulated for the design or environmental matters.






</P>
<P>(b) If a separate hearing is held on a particular phase of the proceeding, the Commission or presiding officers of each affected proceeding may, under 10 CFR 2.317, consolidate for hearing on that phase two or more proceedings to consider common issues relating to the applications involved in the proceedings, if it finds that this action will be conducive to the proper dispatch of its business and to the ends of justice. In specifying the place of this consolidated hearing, due regard will be given to the convenience and necessity of the parties, petitioners for leave to intervene, or the attorneys or representatives of such persons, and the public interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.403" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.403   Notice of proposed action on applications for operating licenses pursuant to appendix N to part 50 or § 53.1470.
.</HEAD>
<P>In the case of applications pursuant to appendix N to part 50 or § 53.1470 of this chapter for operating licenses for nuclear power reactors, if the Commission has not found that a hearing is in the public interest, the Commission or the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, as appropriate will, prior to acting thereon, cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> pursuant to § 2.105, a notice of proposed action with respect to each application as soon as practicable after the applications have been docketed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5717, Jan. 31, 2008, as amended at 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019; 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.404" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.404   Hearings on applications for operating licenses pursuant to appendix N to part 50 or § 53.1470.</HEAD>
<P>If a request for a hearing and/or petition for leave to intervene is filed within the time prescribed in the notice of proposed action on an application for an operating license pursuant to appendix N to part 50 or § 53.1470 of this chapter with respect to a specific reactor(s) at a specific site, and the Commission, the Chief Administrative Judge, or a presiding officer has issued a notice of hearing or other appropriate order, then the Commission, the Chief Administrative Judge, or the presiding officer may order separate hearings on particular phases of the proceeding and/or consolidate for hearing two or more proceedings in the manner described in § 2.402.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.405" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.405   Initial decisions in consolidated hearings.</HEAD>
<P>At the conclusion of a hearing held under this subpart, the presiding officer will render a partial initial decision on the common design. The partial initial decision on the common design may be appealed under § 2.341. If the proceedings have also been consolidated with respect to matters other than the common design under § 2.317(b), the presiding officer may issue a consolidated partial initial decision for those proceedings. No construction permit, full-power operating license, or combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter will be issued until an initial decision has been issued on all phases of the hearing and all issues under the Act and the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 appropriate to the proceeding have been resolved.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.406" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.406   Finality of decisions on separate issues.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart and appendix N to part 50 or part 52 or § 53.1470 of this chapter, no matter which has been reserved for consideration in one phase of the hearing shall be considered at another phase of the hearing except on the basis of significant new information that substantially affects the conclusion(s) reached at the other phase or other good cause.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49477, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.407" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.4.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.407   Applicability of other sections.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of subparts A, C, G, L, and N of this part relating to construction permits, operating licenses, and combined licenses apply, respectively, to construction permits, operating licenses, and combined licenses subject to this subpart, except as may be qualified by the provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Additional Procedures Applicable to Proceedings for the Issuance of Licenses To Manufacture Nuclear Power Reactors To Be Operated at Sites Not Identified in the License Application and Related Licensing Proceedings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 30252, Nov. 2, 1973, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.500" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.5.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.500   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes procedures applicable to licensing proceedings which involve the consideration in separate hearings of an application for a license to manufacture nuclear power reactors under subpart F of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.501" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.5.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.501   Notice of hearing on application under 10 CFR part 52 or 53 for a license to manufacture nuclear power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of an application under subpart F of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter for a license to manufacture nuclear power reactors of the type described in § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter to be operated at sites not identified in the license application, the Secretary will issue a notice of hearing to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least 30 days before the date set for hearing in the notice.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The notice shall be issued as soon as practicable after the application has been docketed. The notice will state:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The thirty-day (30) requirement of this paragraph (a) is not applicable to a notice of the time and place of hearing published by the presiding officer after notice of hearing described in this section has been published.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The time, place, and nature of the hearing and/or the prehearing conference;
</P>
<P>(2) The authority within which the hearing is to be held;
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law to be considered; and
</P>
<P>(4) The time within which answers to the notice shall be filed.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice of hearing shall comply with the requirements of § 2.104(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The place of hearing on an application for a manufacturing license will be Washington, DC, or such other location as the Commission deems appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 30252, Nov. 2, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 26279, July 18, 1974; 39 FR 33202, Sept. 16, 1974; 49 FR 9401, Mar. 12, 1984; 54 FR 15398, Apr. 18, 1989; 54 FR 52342, Dec. 21, 1989; 72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 2.502-2.504" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.5.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 2.502-2.504   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Additional Procedures Applicable to Early Partial Decisions on Site Suitability Issues in Connection With an Application for a Construction Permit or Combined License To Construct Certain Utilization Facilities; and Advance Issuance of Limited Work Authorizations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.600" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.600   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes procedures applicable to licensing proceedings which involve an early submittal of site suitability information in accordance with § 2.101(a-1), and a hearing and early partial decision on issues of site suitability, in connection with an application for a permit to construct a utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3) or § 50.22 of this chapter or is a testing facility. This subpart also prescribes procedures applicable to proceedings for a construction permit for a utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3) or § 50.22 of this chapter, or proceedings for a combined license under part 52 of this chapter, either of which includes a request to conduct the activities authorized under § 50.10(d) of part 50 of this chapter in advance of issuance of the construction permit or combined license, and submits an application in accordance with § 2.101(a)(9).
</P>
<P>(a) The procedures in §§ 2.601 through 2.609 apply to all applications under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures in §§ 2.611 through 2.619 apply to applications for a permit to construct a utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3) or § 50.22 of this chapter or is a testing facility.
</P>
<P>(c) The procedures in §§ 2.621 through 2.629 apply to applications for combined license under part 52 of this chapter for a nuclear power facility.
</P>
<P>(d) The procedures in §§ 2.641 through 2.649 apply to phased applications for construction permits or combined licenses which request limited work authorizations to be issued in advance of issuance of the construction permit or combined license (<I>i.e.</I>, a phased application).
</P>
<P>(e) This section and §§ 2.601 through 2.629 shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of these sections and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this paragraph (e) accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 57440, Oct. 9, 2007; 90 FR 55627, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.601" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.20.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.601   Applicability of other sections.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of subparts A, C, G, L, and N relating to applications for construction permits and combined licenses, and proceedings thereon apply, respectively, to such applications and proceedings in accordance with this subpart, except as specifically provided otherwise by the provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Early Partial Decisions on Site Suitability—Construction Permit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.602" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.20.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.602   Filing fees.</HEAD>
<P>Each application which contains a request for early review of site suitability issues under the procedures of this subpart shall be accompanied by any fee required by § 50.30(e) and part 170 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.603" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.20.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.603   Acceptance and docketing of application for early review of site suitability issues in a construction permit proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each part of an application for a construction permit submitted in accordance with § 2.101(a-1) of this part will be initially treated as a tendered application. If it is determined that any one of the parts as described in § 2.101(a-1) is incomplete and not acceptable for processing, the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will inform the applicant of this determination and the respects in which the document is deficient. Such a determination of completeness will generally be made within a period of 30 days.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will accept for docketing part one of an application for a construction permit for a utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3) or § 50.22 of this chapter, or is a testing facility where part one of the application as described in § 2.101(a-1) is complete. Part one of any application will not be considered complete unless it contains proposed findings as required by § 2.101(a-1)(1)(i) and unless it describes the applicant's site selection process, specifies the extent to which that process involves the consideration of alternative sites, explains the relationship between that process and the application for early review of site suitability issues, and briefly describes the applicant's long-range plans for ultimate development of the site. Upon assignment of a docket number, the procedures in § 2.101(a)(3) and (4) relating to formal docketing and the submission and distribution of additional copies of the application shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(2) Additional parts of the application will be docketed upon a determination by the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation that they are complete.
</P>
<P>(c) If part one of the application is docketed, the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and send to the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the site is located, a notice of docketing of the application which states the purpose of the application, states the location of the proposed site, states that a notice of hearing will be published, requests comments within 120 days or such other time as may be specified on the initiation or outcome of an early site review from Federal, State, and local agencies and interested persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.604" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.20.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.604   Notice of hearing on application for early review of site suitability issues in construction permit proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where an applicant for a construction permit requests an early review and hearing and an early partial decision on issues of site suitability pursuant to § 2.101(a-1), the provisions in the notice of hearing setting forth the matters of fact and law to be considered, as required by § 2.104, shall be modified so as to relate only to the site suitability issue or issues under review.
</P>
<P>(b) After docketing of part two of the application, as provided in §§ 2.101(a-1) and 2.603, a supplementary notice of hearing will be published under § 2.104 with respect to the remaining unresolved issues in the proceeding within the scope of § 2.104. This supplementary notice of hearing will provide that any person whose interest may be affected by the proceeding and who desires to participate as a party in the resolution of the remaining issues shall file a petition for leave to intervene pursuant to § 2.309 within the time prescribed in the notice. This supplementary notice will also provide appropriate opportunities for participation by a representative of an interested State under § 2.315(c) and for limited appearances under § 2.315(a).
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who was permitted to intervene as a party under the initial notice of hearing on site suitability issues and who was not dismissed or did not withdraw as a party may continue to participate as a party to the proceeding with respect to the remaining unresolved issues, provided that within the time prescribed for filing of petitions for leave to intervene in the supplementary notice of hearing, they file a notice of their intent to continue as a party, along with a supporting affidavit identifying the specific aspect or aspects of the subject matter of the proceeding as to which they wish to continue to participate as a party and setting forth with particularity the basis for their contentions with regard to each aspect or aspects. A party who files a non-timely notice of intent to continue as a party may be dismissed from the proceeding, absent a determination that the party has made a substantial showing of good cause for failure to file on time, and with particular reference to the factors specified in § 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iv) and (d). The notice will be ruled upon by the Commission or presiding officer designated to rule on petitions for leave to intervene.
</P>
<P>(d) To the maximum extent practicable, the membership of any atomic safety and licensing board designated to preside in the proceeding on the remaining unresolved issues pursuant to the supplemental notice of hearing will be the same as the membership designated to preside in the initial notice of hearing on site suitability issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 88 FR 57876, Aug. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.605" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.20.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.605   Additional considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will not conduct more than one review of site suitability issues with regard to a particular site prior to filing and review of part two of the application described in § 2.101(a-1) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission, upon its own initiative, or upon the motion of any party to the proceeding filed at least 60 days prior to the date of the commencement of the evidentiary hearing on site suitability issues, may decline to initiate an early hearing or render an early partial decision on any issue or issues of site suitability:
</P>
<P>(1) In cases where no partial decision on the relative merits of the proposed site and alternative sites under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter is requested, upon determination that there is a reasonable likelihood that further review would identify one or more preferable alternative sites and the partial decision on one or more site suitability issues would lead to an irreversible and irretrievable commitment of resources prior to the submittal of the remainder of the information required by § 50.30(f) of this chapter that would prejudice the later review and decision on such alternative sites; or
</P>
<P>(2) In cases where it appears that an early partial decision on any issue or issues of site suitability would not be in the public interest considering:
</P>
<P>(i) The degree of likelihood that any early findings on those issues would retain their validity in later reviews;
</P>
<P>(ii) The objections, if any, of cognizant State or local government agencies to the conduct of an early review on those issues; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The possible effect on the public interest and the parties of having an early, if not necessarily conclusive, resolution of those issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.606" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.20.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.606   Partial decision on site suitability issues in construction permit proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of §§ 2.331, 2.339, 2.340(b), 2.343, 2.712, and 2.713 apply to any partial initial decision rendered in accordance with this subpart. Section 2.340(c) does not apply to any partial initial decision rendered in accordance with this subpart. No construction permit or combined license may be issued without completion of the full review required by Section 102(2) of the NEPA, as amended, and subpart A of part 51 of this chapter. The authority of the Commission to review such a partial initial decision <I>sua sponte,</I> or to raise <I>sua sponte</I> an issue that has not been raised by the parties, will be exercised within the same time as in the case of a full decision relating to the issuance of a construction permit or combined license.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A partial decision on one or more site suitability issues pursuant to the applicable provisions of part 50, subpart A of part 51, and part 100 of this chapter issued in accordance with this subpart shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Clearly identify the site to which the partial decision applies; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Indicate to what extent additional information may be needed and additional review may be required to enable the Commission to determine in accordance with the provisions of the Act and the applicable provisions of the regulations in this chapter whether a construction permit for a facility to be located on the site identified in the partial decision should be issued or denied.
</P>
<P>(2) Following either the Commission (acting in the function of a presiding officer) issuance of a partial initial decision, or completion of Commission review of the partial initial decision of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, after hearing, on the site suitability issues, the partial decision shall remain in effect either for a period of 5 years or, where the applicant for the construction permit has made timely submittal of the information required to support the application as provided in § 2.101(a-1), until the proceeding for a permit to construct a facility on the site identified in the partial decision has been concluded, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> unless the Commission or Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, upon its own initiative or upon motion by a party to the proceeding, finds that there exists significant new information that substantially affects the earlier conclusions and reopens the hearing record on site suitability issues. Upon good cause shown, the Commission may extend the 5-year period during which a partial decision shall remain in effect for a reasonable period of time not to exceed 1 year.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The partial decision on site suitability issues shall be incorporated in the decision regarding issuance of the combined license to the extent that it serves as a basis for the decision on a specific site issue.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49479, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 57440, Oct. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Early Partial Decisions on Site Suitability—Combined License Under 10 CFR Part 52</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.621" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.21.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.621   Acceptance and docketing of application for early review of site suitability issues in a combined license proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each part of an application submitted in accordance with § 2.101(a-1) of this part will be initially treated as a tendered application. If it is determined that any one of the parts as described in § 2.101(a-1) is incomplete and not acceptable for processing, the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will inform the applicant of this determination and the respects in which the document is deficient. Such a determination of completeness will generally be made within a period of 30 days.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will accept for docketing an application for a combined license for a nuclear power facility where part one of the application as described in § 2.101(a-1) is complete. Part one of any application will not be considered complete unless it contains proposed findings as required by § 2.101(a-1)(1)(i) and unless it describes the applicant's site selection process, specifies the extent to which that process involves the consideration of alternative sites, explains the relationship between that process and the application for early review of site suitability issues, and briefly describes the applicant's long-range plans for ultimate development of the site. Upon assignment of a docket number, the procedures in § 2.101(a)(3) and (4) relating to formal docketing and the submission and distribution of additional copies of the application shall be followed.
</P>
<P>(2) Additional parts of the application will be docketed upon a determination by the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation that they are complete.
</P>
<P>(c) If part one of the application is docketed, the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and send to the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the site is located, a notice of docketing of the application which states the purpose of the application, states the location of the proposed site, states that a notice of hearing will be published, requests comments within 120 days or such other time as may be specified on the initiation or outcome of an early site review from Federal, State, and local agencies and interested persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 65643, Nov. 29, 2019]
</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.623" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.21.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.623   Notice of hearing on application for early review of site suitability issues in combined license proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where an applicant for a combined license under part 52 of this chapter requests an early review and hearing and an early partial decision on issues of site suitability pursuant to § 2.101(a-2), the provisions in the notice of hearing setting forth the matters of fact and law to be considered, as required by § 2.104, shall be modified so as to relate only to the site suitability issue or issues under review. The notice will provide appropriate opportunities for participation by a representative of an interested State under § 2.315(c) and for limited appearances under § 2.315(a), limited however, to the issues of site suitability for which early review has been requested by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) After docketing of part two of the application, as provided in §§ 2.101(a-1) and 2.603, a supplementary notice of hearing will be published under § 2.104 with respect to the remaining unresolved issues in the proceeding within the scope of § 2.104. This supplementary notice of hearing will provide that any person whose interest may be affected by the proceeding and who desires to participate as a party in the resolution of the remaining issues shall file a petition for leave to intervene pursuant to § 2.309 within the time prescribed in the notice. This supplementary notice will also provide appropriate opportunities for participation by a representative of an interested State under § 2.315(c) and for limited appearances under § 2.315(a).
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who was permitted to intervene as a party under the initial notice of hearing on site suitability issues and who was not dismissed or did not withdraw as a party may continue to participate as a party to the proceeding without having to demonstrate standing under § 2.309(d), <I>provided, however,</I> that within the time prescribed for filing of petitions for leave to intervene in the supplementary notice of hearing, the party files a notice of intent to continue as a party. The notice must include the information required by § 2.309(f). A party who files a non-timely notice of intent to continue as a party may be dismissed from the proceeding, absent a determination that the party has made a substantial showing of good cause for failure to file on time, and with particular reference to the factors specified in §§ 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iv) and 2.309(d). The notice will be ruled upon by the Commission or presiding officer designated to rule on petitions for leave to intervene.
</P>
<P>(d) To the maximum extent practicable, the presiding officer (as applicable, the membership of the licensing board) designated to preside in the proceeding on the remaining unresolved issues pursuant to the supplemental notice of hearing will be the same as the presiding officer (as applicable, the membership of the licensing board) designated to preside in the initial notice of hearing on site suitability issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.625" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.21.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.625   Additional considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will not conduct more than one review of site suitability issues with regard to a particular site prior to filing and review of part two of the application described in § 2.101(a-1) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission, upon its own initiative, or upon the motion of any party to the proceeding filed at least 60 days prior to the date of the commencement of the evidentiary hearing on site suitability issues, may decline to initiate an early hearing or render an early partial decision on any issue or issues of site suitability:
</P>
<P>(1) In cases where no partial decision on the relative merits of the proposed site and alternative sites under subpart A of part 51 is requested, upon determination that there is a reasonable likelihood that further review would identify one or more preferable alternative sites and the partial decision on one or more site suitability issues would lead to an irreversible and irretrievable commitment of resources prior to the submittal of the remainder of the information required by § 50.30(f) of this chapter that would prejudice the later review and decision on such alternative sites; or
</P>
<P>(2) In cases where it appears that an early partial decision on any issue or issues of site suitability would not be in the public interest considering:
</P>
<P>(i) The degree of likelihood that any early findings on those issues would retain their validity in later reviews;
</P>
<P>(ii) The objections, if any, of cognizant State or local government agencies to the conduct of an early review on those issues; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The possible effect on the public interest and the parties of having an early, if not necessarily conclusive, resolution of those issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.627" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.21.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.627   Partial decision on site suitability issues in combined license proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of §§ 2.331, 2.339, 2.340(b), 2.343, 2.712, and 2.713 shall apply to any partial initial decision rendered in accordance with this subpart. Section 2.340(c) shall not apply to any partial initial decision rendered in accordance with this subpart. A limited work authorization may not be issued under 10 CFR 50.10(e) and no construction permit may be issued without completion of the full review required by Section 102(2) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, and subpart A of part 51 of this chapter. The authority of the Commission to review such a partial initial decision sua sponte, or to raise sua sponte an issue that has not been raised by the parties, will be exercised within the same time period as in the case of a full decision relating to the issuance of a construction permit.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A partial decision on one or more site suitability issues pursuant to the applicable provisions of part 50, subpart A of part 51, and part 100 of this chapter issued in accordance with this subpart shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Clearly identify the site to which the partial decision applies; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Indicate to what extent additional information may be needed and additional review may be required to enable the Commission to determine in accordance with the provisions of the Act and the applicable provisions of the regulations in this chapter whether a construction permit for a facility to be located on the site identified in the partial decision should be issued or denied.
</P>
<P>(2) Following either the Commission (acting in the function of a presiding officer) issuance of a partial initial decision, or completion of Commission review of the partial initial decision of the presiding officer, after hearing, on the site suitability issues, the partial decision shall remain in effect either for a period of 5 years or, where the applicant for the combined license has made timely submittal of the information required to support the application as provided in § 2.101(a-2), until the proceeding for a combined license on the site identified in the partial decision has been concluded, unless the Commission or presiding officer, upon its own initiative or upon motion by a party to the proceeding, finds that there exists significant new information that substantially affects the earlier conclusions and reopens the hearing record on site suitability issues. Upon good cause shown, the Commission may extend the 5-year period during which a partial decision shall remain in effect for a reasonable period of time not to exceed 1 year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.629" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.21.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.629   Finality of partial decision on site suitability issues in a combined license proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The partial decision on site suitability issues in a combined license proceeding shall be incorporated in the decision regarding issuance of a combined license. Except as provided in 10 CFR 2.758, in making the findings required for issuance of a combined license, the Commission shall treat as resolved those matters resolved in connection with the issuance of the partial decision on site suitability issues. If the Commission reaches an adverse decision, the application shall be denied without prejudice for resubmission, provided, however, that in determining whether the resubmitted application is complete and acceptable for docketing under § 2.101(a)(3), the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation shall determine whether the resubmitted application addresses those matters identified as bases for denial of the original application.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding any provision in 10 CFR 50.109, while a partial decision on site suitability is in effect under § 2.627(b)(2), the Commission may not modify, rescind, or impose new requirements with respect to matters within the scope of the site suitability decision, whether on its own motion, or in response to a request or petition from any person, unless the Commission determines that a modification to the original decision is necessary either for compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time the partial decision was issued, or to assure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 63567, Nov. 18, 2019; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Phased Applications Involving Limited Work Authorizations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 57440, Oct. 9, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.641" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.22.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.641   Filing fees.</HEAD>
<P>Each application which contains a request for limited work authorization under the procedures of § 2.101(a)(9) and this subpart shall be accompanied by any fee required by § 50.30(e) and part 170 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.643" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.22.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.643   Acceptance and docketing of application for limited work authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each part of an application submitted in accordance with § 2.101(a)(9) will be initially treated as a tendered application. If it is determined that any one of the parts as described in § 2.101(a)(9) is incomplete and not acceptable for processing, the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will inform the applicant of this determination and the respects in which the document is deficient. A determination of completeness will generally be made within a period of 30 days.


</P>
<P>(b) The Director will accept for docketing part one of an application for a construction permit for a utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3) or § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter or an application for a combined license where part one of the application as described in § 2.101(a)(9) is complete. Part one will not be considered complete unless it contains the information required by § 50.10(d)(3) or § 53.1130(a)(3) of this chapter. Upon assignment of a docket number, the procedures in § 2.101(a)(3) and (4) relating to formal docketing and the submission and distribution of additional copies of the application must be followed.






</P>
<P>(c) If part one of the application is docketed, the Director will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and send to the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the site is located, a notice of docketing of the application which states the purpose of the application, states the location of the proposed site, states that a notice of hearing will be published, and requests comments on the limited work authorization from Federal, State, and local agencies and interested persons. The notice will state that comments must be submitted to the NRC within 60 days or such other time as may be specified in the notice.
</P>
<P>(d) Part two of the application will be docketed upon a determination by the Director that it is complete.
</P>
<P>(e) If part two of the application is docketed, the Director will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and sent to the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the site is located, a notice of docketing of part two of the application which states the purpose of the application, states that a notice of hearing will be published, and requests comments on the construction permit or combined license application, as applicable, from Federal, State, and local agencies and interested persons. The notice will state that comments must be submitted to the NRC within 60 days or such other time as may be specified in the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49478, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019; 91 FR 15770, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.645" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.22.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.645   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice of hearing on part one of the application must set forth the matters of fact and law to be considered, as required by § 2.104, which will be modified to state that the hearing will relate only to the matters related to §§ 50.33(a) through (f), 53.1109, and 53.1306(a) or § 53.1413 of this chapter, as applicable, and the limited work authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) After docketing of part two of the application, as provided in §§ 2.101(a)(9) and 2.643(d), a supplementary notice of hearing will be published under § 2.104 with respect to the remaining unresolved issues in the proceeding within the scope of § 2.104. The supplementary notice of hearing will provide that any person whose interest may be affected by the proceeding and who desires to participate as a party in the resolution of the remaining issues shall, file a petition for leave to intervene within the time prescribed in the notice. The petition to intervene must meet the applicable requirements in subpart C of this part, including § 2.309. This supplementary notice will also provide appropriate opportunities for participation by a representative of an interested State under § 2.315(c) and for limited appearances under § 2.315(a).
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who was permitted to intervene under the initial notice of hearing on the limited work authorization and who was not dismissed or did not withdraw as a party, may continue to participate as a party with respect to the remaining unresolved issues only if, within the time prescribed for filing of petitions for leave to intervene in the supplementary notice of hearing, that person files a petition for intervention which meets the applicable requirements in subpart C of this part, including § 2.309, <I>provided, however,</I> that the petition need not address § 2.309(d). However, a person who was granted discretionary intervention under § 2.309(e) must address in its petition the factors in § 2.309(e) as they apply to the supplementary hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) A party who files a non-timely petition for intervention under paragraph (b) of this section to continue as a party may be dismissed from the proceeding, absent a determination that the party has made a substantial showing of good cause for failure to file on time, and with particular reference to the factors specified in §§ 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iv) and 2.309(d). The notice will be ruled upon by the Commission or presiding officer designated to rule on petitions for leave to intervene.
</P>
<P>(e) To the maximum extent practicable, the membership of the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, or the individual presiding officer, as applicable, designated to preside in the proceeding on the remaining unresolved issues under the supplemental notice of hearing will be the same as the membership or individual designated to preside in the initial notice of hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 57440, Oct. 9, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.647" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.22.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.647   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.649" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.6.22.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.649   Partial decisions on limited work authorization.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of §§ 2.331, 2.339, 2.340(b), 2.343, 2.712, and 2.713 apply to any partial initial decision rendered in accordance with this subpart. Section 2.340(c) does not apply to any partial initial decision rendered in accordance with this subpart. A limited work authorization may not be issued under § 50.10(d) or § 53.1130(a) of this chapter without completion of the review for limited work authorizations required by subpart A of part 51 of this chapter. The authority of the Commission to review such a partial initial decision <I>sua sponte,</I> or to raise <I>sua sponte</I> an issue that has not been raised by the parties, will be exercised within the same time as in the case of a full decision relating to the issuance of a construction permit or combined license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 57440, Oct. 9, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Rules for Formal Adjudications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.700" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.700   Scope of subpart G.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this subpart apply to and supplement the provisions set forth in subpart C of this part with respect to enforcement proceedings initiated under subpart B of this part unless otherwise agreed to by the parties, proceedings conducted with respect to the initial licensing of a uranium enrichment facility, proceedings for the grant, renewal, licensee-initiated amendment, or termination of licenses or permits for nuclear power reactors, where the presiding officer by order finds that resolution of the contention necessitates resolution of: issues of material fact relating to the occurrence of a past event, where the credibility of an eyewitness may reasonably be expected to be at issue, and/or issues of motive or intent of the party or eyewitness material to the resolution of the contested matter, proceedings for initial applications for construction authorization for high-level radioactive waste repository noticed under §§ 2.101(f)(8) or 2.105(a)(5), proceedings for initial applications for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area, and any other proceeding as ordered by the Commission. If there is any conflict between the provisions of this subpart and those set forth in subpart C of this part, the provisions of this subpart control.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.701" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.701   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>Consistent with 5 U.S.C. 554(a)(4) of the Administrative Procedure Act, the Commission may provide alternative procedures in adjudications to the extent that there is involved the conduct of military or foreign affairs functions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.702" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.702   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On application by any party, the designated presiding officer or, if they are not available, the Chief Administrative Judge, or other designated officer will issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence. The officer to whom application is made may require a showing of general relevance of the testimony or evidence sought, and may withhold the subpoena if such a showing is not made. However, the officer may not determine the admissibility of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Every subpoena will bear the name of the Commission, the name and office of the issuing officer and the title of the hearing, and will command the person to whom it is directed to attend and give testimony or produce specified documents or other things at a designated time and place. The subpoena will also advise of the quashing procedure provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the service of a subpoena is acknowledged on its face by the witness or is served by an officer or employee of the Commission, it must be served by a person who is not a party to the hearing and is not less than eighteen (18) years of age. Service of a subpoena must be made by delivery of a copy of the subpoena to the person named in it and tendering that person the fees for one day's attendance and the mileage allowed by law. When the subpoena is issued on behalf of the Commission, fees and mileage need not be tendered and the subpoena may be served by registered mail.
</P>
<P>(d) Witnesses summoned by subpoena must be paid the fees and mileage paid to witnesses in the district courts of the United States by the party at whose instance they appear.
</P>
<P>(e) The person serving the subpoena shall make proof of service by filing the subpoena and affidavit or acknowledgment of service with the officer before whom the witness is required to testify or produce evidence or with the Secretary. Failure to make proof of service does not affect the validity of the service.
</P>
<P>(f) On motion made promptly, and in any event at or before the time specified in the subpoena for compliance by the person to whom the subpoena is directed, and on notice to the party at whose instance the subpoena was issued, the presiding officer or, if they are unavailable, the Commission may:
</P>
<P>(1) Quash or modify the subpoena if it is unreasonable or requires evidence not relevant to any matter in issue, or
</P>
<P>(2) Condition denial of the motion on just and reasonable terms.
</P>
<P>(g) On application and for good cause shown, the Commission will seek judicial enforcement of a subpoena issued to a party and which has not been quashed.
</P>
<P>(h) The provisions of paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section are not applicable to the attendance and testimony of the Commissioners or NRC personnel, or to the production of records or documents in their custody.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.703" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.703   Examination by experts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party may request the presiding officer to permit a qualified individual who has scientific or technical training or experience to participate on behalf of that party in the examination and cross-examination of expert witnesses. The presiding officer may permit the individual to participate on behalf of the party in the examination and cross-examination of expert witnesses, upon finding:
</P>
<P>(1) That cross-examination by that individual would serve the purpose of furthering the conduct of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) That the individual is qualified by scientific or technical training or experience to contribute to the development of an adequate decisional record in the proceeding by the conduct of such examination or cross-examination;
</P>
<P>(3) That the individual has read any written testimony on which they intend to examine or cross-examine and any documents to be used or referred to in the course of the examination or cross-examination; and
</P>
<P>(4) That the individual has prepared themselves to conduct a meaningful and expeditious examination or cross-examination, and has submitted a cross-examination plan in accordance with § 2.711(c).
</P>
<P>(b) Examination or cross-examination conducted under this section must be limited to areas within the expertise of the individual conducting the examination or cross-examination. The party on behalf of whom this examination or cross-examination is conducted and their attorney is responsible for the conduct of examination or cross-examination by such individuals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.704" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.704   Discovery-required disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial disclosures.</I> Except to the extent otherwise stipulated or directed by order of the presiding officer or the Commission, a party other than the NRC staff shall, without awaiting a discovery request, provide to other parties:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and, if known, the address and telephone number of each individual likely to have discoverable information relevant to disputed issues alleged with particularity in the pleadings, identifying the subjects of the information; and
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of, or a description by category and location of, all documents, data compilations, and tangible things in the possession, custody, or control of the party that are relevant to disputed issues alleged with particularity in the pleadings. When any document, data compilation, or other tangible thing that must be disclosed is publicly available from another source, such as at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or the NRC Public Document Room, a sufficient disclosure would be the location, the title and a page reference to the relevant document, data compilation, or tangible thing;
</P>
<P>(3) Unless otherwise stipulated by the parties or directed by order of the presiding officer, these disclosures must be made within 45 days after the issuance of a prehearing conference order following the initial prehearing conference specified in § 2.329. A party must make its initial disclosures based on the information then reasonably available to it. A party is not excused from making its disclosures because it has not fully completed its investigation of the case, because it challenges the sufficiency of another party's disclosures, or because another party has not made its disclosures. The duty of disclosure under this section is continuing. A disclosure update must be made every month after initial disclosures on a due date selected by the presiding officer, unless the parties agree upon a different due date or frequency. The disclosure update shall be limited to documents subject to disclosure under this section and does not need to include documents that are developed, obtained, or discovered during the two weeks before the due date. Disclosure updates shall include any documents subject to disclosure that were not included in any previous disclosure update. The duty to update disclosures relevant to a disputed issue ends when the presiding officer issues a decision resolving that disputed issue, or at such other time as may be specified by the presiding officer or the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of expert testimony.</I> (1) In addition to the disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section, a party other than the NRC staff shall disclose to other parties the identity of any person who may be used at trial to present evidence under § 2.711.
</P>
<P>(2) Except in proceedings with pre-filed written testimony, or as otherwise stipulated or directed by the presiding officer, this disclosure must be accompanied by a written report prepared and signed by the witness, containing: A complete statement of all opinions to be expressed and the basis and reasons therefor; the data or other information considered by the witness in forming the opinions; any exhibits to be used as a summary of or support for the opinions; the qualifications of the witness, including a list of all publications authored by the witness within the preceding ten years; and a listing of any other cases in which the witness has testified as an expert at trial or by deposition within the preceding four (4) years.
</P>
<P>(3) These disclosures must be made at the times and in the sequence directed by the presiding officer. In the absence of other directions from the presiding officer, or stipulation by the parties, the disclosures must be made at least ninety (90) days before the hearing commencement date or the date the matter is to be presented for hearing. If the evidence is intended solely to contradict or rebut evidence on the same subject matter identified by another party under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the disclosures must be made within thirty (30) days after the disclosure made by the other party. The parties shall supplement these disclosures when required under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pretrial disclosures.</I> (1) In addition to the disclosures required in the preceding paragraphs, a party other than the NRC staff shall provide to other parties the following information regarding the evidence that it may present at trial other than solely for impeachment purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and, if not previously provided, the address and telephone number of each witness, separately identifying those whom the party expects to present and those whom the party may call if the need arises;
</P>
<P>(ii) The designation of those witnesses whose testimony is expected to be presented by means of a deposition and, when available, a transcript of the pertinent portions of the deposition testimony; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An appropriate identification of each document or other exhibit, including summaries of other evidence, separately identifying those which the party expects to offer and those which the party may offer if the need arises.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer or the Commission, these disclosures must be made at least thirty (30) days before commencement of the hearing at which the issue is to be presented.
</P>
<P>(3) A party may object to the admissibility of documents identified under paragraph (c) of this section. A list of those objections must be served and filed within fourteen (14) days after service of the disclosures required by paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, unless a different time is specified by the presiding officer or the Commission. Objections not so disclosed, other than objections as to a document's admissibility under § 2.337(a), are waived unless excused by the presiding officer or Commission for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of disclosures; filing.</I> Unless otherwise directed by order of the presiding officer or the Commission, all disclosures under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section must be made in writing, signed, served, and promptly filed with the presiding officer or the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) Supplementation of responses. A party who has made a disclosure under this section is under a duty to supplement or correct the disclosure to include information thereafter acquired if ordered by the presiding officer or in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) When a party learns that in some material respect the information disclosed under paragraph (a) of this section is incomplete or incorrect, and if additional or corrective information has not otherwise been made known to the other parties during the discovery process or in writing, a party shall supplement its disclosures in accordance with the disclosure update schedule in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to testimony of an expert from whom a report is required under paragraph (b) of this section, the duty extends both to information contained in the report and to information provided through a deposition of the expert, and any additions or other changes to this information must be disclosed by the time the party's disclosures under § 2.704(c) are due.
</P>
<P>(f) Disclosure under this section of documents and records including Safeguards Information referred to in Sections 147 and 181 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, will be according to the provisions in § 2.705(c)(3) through (c)(8).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 63567, Oct. 24, 2008; 77 FR 46597, Aug. 3, 2012; 90 FR 54227, Nov. 26, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.705" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.705   Discovery-additional methods.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discovery methods.</I> Parties may obtain discovery by one or more of the following methods: depositions upon oral examination or written interrogatories (§ 2.706); interrogatories to parties (§ 2.706); production of documents or things or permission to enter upon land or other property, for inspection and other purposes (§ 2.707); and requests for admission (§ 2.708).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of discovery.</I> Unless otherwise limited by order of the presiding officer in accordance with this section, the scope of discovery is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In general.</I> Parties may obtain discovery regarding any matter, not privileged, that is relevant to the subject matter involved in the proceeding, whether it relates to the claim or defense of any other party, including the existence, description, nature, custody, condition, and location of any books, documents, or other tangible things and the identity and location of persons having knowledge of any discoverable matter. When any book, document, or other tangible thing sought is reasonably available from another source, such as at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or the NRC Public Document Room, sufficient response to an interrogatory on materials would be the location, the title and a page reference to the relevant book, document, or tangible thing. In a proceeding on an application for a construction permit or an operating license for a production or utilization facility, discovery begins only after the prehearing conference and relates only to those matters in controversy which have been identified by the Commission or the presiding officer in the prehearing order entered at the conclusion of that prehearing conference. In such a proceeding, discovery may not take place after the beginning of the prehearing conference held under § 2.329 except upon leave of the presiding officer upon good cause shown. It is not a ground for objection that the information sought will be inadmissible at the hearing if the information sought appears reasonably calculated to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Upon their own initiative after reasonable notice or in response to a motion filed under paragraph (c) of this section, the presiding officer may set limits on the number of depositions and interrogatories, and may also limit the length of depositions under § 2.706 and the number of requests under §§ 2.707 and 2.708. The presiding officer shall limit the frequency or extent of use of the discovery methods otherwise permitted under these rules if they determine that:
</P>
<P>(i) The discovery sought is unreasonably cumulative or duplicative, or is obtainable from some other source that is more convenient, less burdensome, or less expensive;
</P>
<P>(ii) The party seeking discovery has had ample opportunity by discovery in the proceeding to obtain the information sought; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The burden or expense of the proposed discovery outweighs its likely benefit, taking into account the needs of the proceeding, the parties' resources, the importance of the issue in the proceeding, and the importance of the proposed discovery in resolving the issues.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Trial preparation materials.</I> A party may obtain discovery of documents and tangible things otherwise discoverable under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and prepared in anticipation of or for the hearing by or for another party's representative (including their attorney, consultant, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or agent) only upon a showing that the party seeking discovery has substantial need of the materials in the preparation of this case and that the party is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials by other means. In ordering discovery of such materials when the required showing has been made, the presiding officer shall protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of an attorney for a party concerning the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Claims of privilege or protection of trial preparation materials.</I> When a party withholds information otherwise discoverable under these rules by claiming that it is privileged or subject to protection as trial preparation material, the party shall make the claim expressly and shall describe the nature of the documents, communications, or things not produced or disclosed in a manner that, without revealing information itself privileged or protected, will enable other parties to assess the applicability of the privilege or protection. Identification of these privileged materials must be made within the time provided for disclosure of the materials, unless otherwise extended by order of the presiding officer or the Commission.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Nature of interrogatories.</I> Interrogatories may seek to elicit factual information reasonably related to a party's position in the proceeding, including data used, assumptions made, and analyses performed by the party. Interrogatories may not be addressed to, or be construed to require:
</P>
<P>(i) Reasons for not using alternative data, assumptions, and analyses where the alternative data, assumptions, and analyses were not relied on in developing the party's position; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance of additional research or analytical work beyond that which is needed to support the party's position on any particular matter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protective order.</I> (1) Upon motion by a party or the person from whom discovery is sought, accompanied by a certification that the movant has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with other affected parties in an effort to resolve the dispute without action by the presiding officer, and for good cause shown, the presiding officer may make any order which justice requires to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense, including one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) That the discovery not be had;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place;
</P>
<P>(iii) That the discovery may be had only by a method of discovery other than that selected by the party seeking discovery;
</P>
<P>(iv) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters;
</P>
<P>(v) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(vi) That, subject to the provisions of §§ 2.709 and 2.390, a trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or
</P>
<P>(vii) That studies and evaluations not be prepared.
</P>
<P>(2) If the motion for a protective order is denied in whole or in part, the presiding officer may, on such terms and conditions as are just, order that any party or person provide or permit discovery.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of documents and records including Safeguards Information referred to in Sections 147 and 181 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the presiding officer may issue an order requiring disclosure if—
</P>
<P>(i) The presiding officer finds that the individual seeking access to Safeguards Information in order to participate in an NRC proceeding has the requisite “need to know,” as defined in 10 CFR 73.2;
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual has undergone an FBI criminal history records check, unless exempt under 10 CFR 73.22(b)(3) or 73.23(b)(3), as applicable, by submitting fingerprints to the NRC Office of Administration, Security Processing Unit, Mail Stop T-6E46, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, and otherwise following the procedures in 10 CFR 73.57(d) for submitting and processing fingerprints. However, before a final adverse determination by the NRC Office of Administration on an individual's criminal history records check is made, the individual shall be afforded the protections provided by 10 CFR 73.57; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The NRC Office of Administration has found, based upon a background check, that the individual is trustworthy and reliable, unless exempt under 10 CFR 73.22(b)(3) or 73.23(b)(3), as applicable. In addition to the protections provided by 10 CFR 73.57 for adverse determinations based on criminal history records checks, the Office of Administration must take the following actions before making a final adverse determination on an individual's background check for trustworthiness and reliability. The Office of Administration will:
</P>
<P>(A) For the purpose of assuring correct and complete information, provide to the individual any records, in addition to those required to be provided under 10 CFR 73.57(e)(1), that were considered in the trustworthiness and reliability determination;
</P>
<P>(B) Resolve any challenge by the individual to the completeness or accuracy of the records described in § 2.705(c)(3)(iii)(A). The individual may make this challenge by submitting information and/or an explanation to the Office of Administration. The challenge must be submitted within 10 days of the distribution of the records described in § 2.705(c)(3)(iii)(A), and the Office of Administration must promptly resolve any challenge.
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals seeking access to Safeguards Information to participate in an NRC adjudication for whom the NRC Office of Administration has made a final adverse determination on trustworthiness and reliability may submit a request to the Chief Administrative Judge for review of the adverse determination. Upon receiving such a request, the Chief Administrative Judge shall designate an officer other than the presiding officer of the proceeding to review the adverse determination. For purposes of review, the adverse determination must be in writing and set forth the grounds for the determination. The request for review shall be served on the NRC staff and may include additional information for review by the designated officer. The request must be filed within 15 days after receipt of the adverse determination by the person against whom the adverse determination has been made. Within 10 days of receipt of the request for review and any additional information, the NRC staff will file a response indicating whether the request and additional information has caused the NRC Office of Administration to reverse its adverse determination. The designated officer may reverse the Office of Administration's final adverse determination only if the officer finds, based on all the information submitted, that the adverse determination constitutes an abuse of discretion. The designated officer's decision must be rendered within 15 days after receipt of the staff filing indicating that the request for review and additional information has not changed the NRC Office of Administration's adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer may include in an order any protective terms and conditions (including affidavits of nondisclosure) as may be necessary and appropriate to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(5) When Safeguards Information protected from unauthorized disclosure under Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, is received and possessed by anyone other than the NRC staff, it must also be protected according to the requirements of § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(6) The presiding officer may also prescribe additional procedures to effectively safeguard and prevent disclosure of Safeguards Information to unauthorized persons with minimum impairment of the procedural rights which would be available if Safeguards Information were not involved.
</P>
<P>(7) In addition to any other sanction that may be imposed by the presiding officer for violation of an order issued pursuant to this paragraph, violation of a provision for the protection of Safeguards Information from unauthorized disclosure that is contained in an order may be subject to a civil penalty imposed under § 2.205.
</P>
<P>(8) For the purpose of imposing the criminal penalties contained in Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, a provision for the protection of Safeguards Information from unauthorized disclosure that is contained in an order issued pursuant to this paragraph is considered to be issued under Section 161b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sequence and timing of discovery.</I> Except when authorized under these rules or by order of the presiding officer, or agreement of the parties, a party may not seek discovery from any source before the parties have met and conferred as required by paragraph (f) of this section, nor may a party seek discovery after the time limit established in the proceeding for the conclusion of discovery. Unless the presiding officer upon motion, for the convenience of parties and witnesses and in the interests of justice, orders otherwise, methods of discovery may be used in any sequence and the fact that a party is conducting discovery, whether by deposition or otherwise, does not operate to delay any other party's discovery.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supplementation of responses.</I> A party who responded to a request for discovery with a response is under a duty to supplement or correct the response to include information thereafter acquired if ordered by the presiding officer or, with respect to a response to an interrogatory, request for production, or request for admission, within a reasonable time after a party learns that the response is in some material respect incomplete or incorrect, and if the additional or corrective information has not otherwise been made known to the other parties during the discovery process or in writing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Meeting of parties; planning for discovery.</I> Except when otherwise ordered, the parties shall, as soon as practicable and in any event no more than thirty (30) days after the issuance of a prehearing conference order following the initial prehearing conference specified in § 2.329, meet to discuss the nature and basis of their claims and defenses and the possibilities for a prompt settlement or resolution of the proceeding or any portion thereof, to make or arrange for the disclosures required by § 2.704, and to develop a proposed discovery plan.
</P>
<P>(1) The plan must indicate the parties' views and proposals concerning:
</P>
<P>(i) What changes should be made in the timing, form, or requirement for disclosures under § 2.704, including a statement as to when disclosures under § 2.704(a)(1) were made or will be made;
</P>
<P>(ii) The subjects on which discovery may be needed, when discovery should be completed, and whether discovery should be conducted in phases or be limited to or focused upon particular issues;
</P>
<P>(iii) What changes should be made in the limitations on discovery imposed under these rules, and what other limitations should be imposed; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other orders that should be entered by the presiding officer under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The attorneys of record and all unrepresented parties that have appeared in the proceeding are jointly responsible for arranging and being present or represented at the meeting, for attempting in good faith to agree on the proposed discovery plan, and for submitting to the presiding officer within ten (10) days after the meeting a written report outlining the plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Signing of disclosures, discovery requests, responses, and objections.</I> (1) Every disclosure made in accordance with § 2.704 must be signed by at least one attorney of record in the attorney's individual name, whose address must be stated. An unrepresented party shall sign the disclosure and state the party's address. The signature of the attorney or party constitutes a certification that to the best of the signer's knowledge, information, and belief, formed after a reasonable inquiry, the disclosure is complete and correct as of the time it is made.
</P>
<P>(2) Every discovery request, response, or objection made by a party represented by an attorney must be signed by at least one attorney of record in the attorney's individual name, whose address must be stated. An unrepresented party shall sign the request, response, or objection and state the party's address. The signature of the attorney or party constitutes a certification that to the best of the signer's knowledge, information, and belief, formed after a reasonable inquiry, the request, response, or objection is:
</P>
<P>(i) Consistent with these rules and warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not interposed for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not unreasonable or unduly burdensome or expensive, given the needs of the case, the discovery already had in the case, the amount in controversy, and the importance of the issues at stake in the litigation.
</P>
<P>(3) If a request, response, or objection is not signed, it must be stricken unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the party making the request, response, or objection, and a party shall not be obligated to take any action with respect to it until it is signed.
</P>
<P>(4) If a certification is made in violation of the rule without substantial justification, the presiding officer, upon motion or upon its own initiative, shall impose upon the person who made the certification, the party on whose behalf the disclosure, request, response, or objection is made, or both, an appropriate sanction, which may, in appropriate circumstances, include termination of that person's right to participate in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Motion to compel discovery.</I> (1) If a deponent or party upon whom a request for production of documents or answers to interrogatories is served fails to respond or objects to the request, or any part thereof, or fails to permit inspection as requested, the deposing party or the party submitting the request may move the presiding officer, within ten (10) days after the date of the response or after failure of a party to respond to the request, for an order compelling a response or inspection in accordance with the request. The motion must set forth the nature of the questions or the request, the response or objection of the party upon whom the request was served, and arguments in support of the motion. The motion must be accompanied by a certification that the movant has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with other affected parties in an effort to resolve the dispute without action by the presiding officer. Failure to answer or respond may not be excused on the ground that the discovery sought is objectionable unless the person or party failing to answer or respond has applied for a protective order pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph, an evasive or incomplete answer or response will be treated as a failure to answer or respond.
</P>
<P>(2) In ruling on a motion made under this section, the presiding officer may issue a protective order under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not preclude an independent request for issuance of a subpoena directed to a person not a party for production of documents and things. This section does not apply to requests for the testimony or interrogatories of the NRC staff under § 2.709(a), or the production of NRC documents under §§ 2.709(b) or § 2.390, except for paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 63568, Oct. 24, 2008; 77 FR 46597, Aug. 3, 2012; 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.706" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.706   Depositions upon oral examination and written interrogatories; interrogatories to parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Depositions upon oral examination and written interrogatories.</I> (1) Any party desiring to take the testimony of any party or other person by deposition on oral examination or written interrogatories shall, without leave of the Commission or the presiding officer, give reasonable notice in writing to every other party, to the person to be examined and to the presiding officer of the proposed time and place of taking the deposition; the name and address of each person to be examined, if known, or if the name is not known, a general description sufficient to identify them or the class or group to which they belong; the matters upon which each person will be examined and the name or descriptive title and address of the officer before whom the deposition is to be taken.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) Within the United States, a deposition may be taken before any officer authorized to administer oaths by the laws of the United States or of the place where the examination is held. Outside of the United States, a deposition may be taken before a secretary of an embassy or legation, a consul general, vice consul or consular agent of the United States, or a person authorized to administer oaths designated by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(4) Before any questioning, the deponent shall either be sworn or affirm the truthfulness of their answers. Examination and cross-examination must proceed as at a hearing. Each question propounded must be recorded and the answer taken down in the words of the witness. Objections on questions of evidence must be noted in short form without the arguments. The officer may not decide on the competency, materiality, or relevancy of evidence but must record the evidence subject to objection. Objections on questions of evidence not made before the officer will not be considered waived unless the ground of the objection is one which might have been obviated or removed if presented at that time.
</P>
<P>(5) When the testimony is fully transcribed, the deposition must be submitted to the deponent for examination and signature unless they are ill, cannot be found, or refuses to sign. The officer shall certify the deposition or, if the deposition is not signed by the deponent, shall certify the reasons for the failure to sign. The deposing party shall promptly transmit an electronic copy of the deposition to the Secretary of the Commission for entry into the electronic docket.
</P>
<P>(6) Where the deposition is to be taken on written interrogatories, the party taking the deposition shall serve a copy of the interrogatories, showing each interrogatory separately and consecutively numbered, on every other party with a notice stating the name and address of the person who is to answer them, and the name, description, title, and address of the officer before whom they are to be taken. Within ten (10) days after service, any other party may serve cross-interrogatories. The interrogatories, cross-interrogatories, and answers must be recorded and signed, and the deposition certified, returned, and filed as in the case of a deposition on oral examination.
</P>
<P>(7) A deposition will not become a part of the record in the hearing unless received in evidence. If only part of a deposition is offered in evidence by a party, any other party may introduce any other parts. A party does not make a person its own witness for any purpose by taking their deposition.
</P>
<P>(8) A deponent whose deposition is taken and the officer taking a deposition are entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in the district courts of the United States. The fees must be paid by the party at whose instance the deposition is taken.
</P>
<P>(9) The witness may be accompanied, represented, and advised by legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(10) The provisions of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(9) of this section are not applicable to NRC personnel. Testimony of NRC personnel by oral examination and written interrogatories addressed to NRC personnel are subject to the provisions of § 2.709.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interrogatories to parties.</I> (1) Any party may serve upon any other party (other than the NRC staff) written interrogatories to be answered in writing by the party served, or if the party served is a public or private corporation or a partnership or association, by any officer or agent, who shall furnish such information as is available to the party. A copy of the interrogatories, answers, and all related pleadings must be filed with the Secretary of the Commission, and must be served on the presiding officer and all parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Each interrogatory must be answered separately and fully in writing under oath or affirmation, unless it is objected to, in which event the reasons for objection must be stated in lieu of an answer. The answers must be signed by the person making them, and the objections by the attorney making them. The party upon whom the interrogatories were served shall serve a copy of the answers and objections upon all parties to the proceeding within fourteen (14) days after service of the interrogatories, or within such shorter or longer period as the presiding officer may allow. Answers may be used in the same manner as depositions (see § 2.706(a)(7)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 85 FR 70438, Nov. 5, 2020; 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.707" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.707   Production of documents and things; entry upon land for inspections and other purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for discovery.</I> Any party may serve on any other party a request to:
</P>
<P>(1) Produce and permit the party making the request, or a person acting on his or her behalf, to inspect and copy any designated documents, or to inspect and copy, test, or sample any tangible things which are within the scope of § 2.704 and which are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served; or
</P>
<P>(2) Permit entry upon designated land or other property in the possession or control of the party upon whom the request is served for the purpose of inspection and measuring, surveying, photographing, testing, or sampling the property or any designated object or operation on the property, within the scope of § 2.704.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> The request may be served on any party without leave of the Commission or the presiding officer. Except as otherwise provided in § 2.704, the request may be served after the proceeding is set for hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> The request must identify the items to be inspected either by individual item or by category, and describe each item and category with reasonable particularity. The request must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner of making the inspection and performing the related acts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Response.</I> The party upon whom the request is served shall serve on the party submitting the request a written response within thirty (30) days after the service of the request. The response must state, with respect to each item or category, that inspection and related activities will be permitted as requested, unless the request is objected to, in which case the reasons for objection must be stated. If objection is made to part of an item or category, the part must be specified.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NRC records and documents.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section do not apply to the production for inspection and copying or photographing of NRC records or documents. Production of NRC records or documents is subject to the provisions of §§ 2.709 and 2.390.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.708" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.708   Admissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Apart from any admissions made during or as a result of a prehearing conference, at any time after its answer has been filed, a party may file a written request for the admission of the genuineness and authenticity of any relevant document described in or attached to the request, or for the admission of the truth of any specified relevant matter of fact. A copy of the document for which an admission of genuineness and authenticity is requested must be delivered with the request unless a copy has already been furnished.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each requested admission is considered made unless, within a time designated by the presiding officer or the Commission, and not less than ten (10) days after service of the request or such further time as may be allowed on motion, the party to whom the request is directed serves on the requesting party either:
</P>
<P>(i) A sworn statement denying specifically the relevant matters of which an admission is requested or setting forth in detail the reasons why it can neither truthfully admit nor deny them; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Written objections on the ground that some or all of the matters involved are privileged or irrelevant or that the request is otherwise improper in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(2) Answers on matters to which such objections are made may be deferred until the objections are determined. If written objections are made to only a part of a request, the remainder of the request must be answered within the time designated.
</P>
<P>(c) Admissions obtained under the procedure in this section may be used in evidence to the same extent and subject to the same objections as other admissions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.709" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.709   Discovery against NRC staff.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In a proceeding in which the NRC staff is a party, the NRC staff will make available one or more witnesses, designated by the Executive Director for Operations or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations, for oral examination at the hearing or on deposition regarding any matter, not privileged, that is relevant to the issues in the proceeding. The attendance and testimony of the Commissioners and named NRC personnel at a hearing or on deposition may not be required by the presiding officer, by subpoena or otherwise. However, the presiding officer may, upon a showing of exceptional circumstances, such as a case in which a particular named NRC employee has direct personal knowledge of a material fact not known to the witnesses made available by the Executive Director for Operations or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations, require the attendance and testimony of named NRC personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may file with the presiding officer written interrogatories to be answered by NRC personnel with knowledge of the facts, as designated by the Executive Director for Operations, or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations. Upon a finding by the presiding officer that answers to the interrogatories are necessary to a proper decision in the proceeding and that answers to the interrogatories are not reasonably obtainable from any other source, the presiding officer may require that the NRC staff answer the interrogatories.
</P>
<P>(3) A deposition of a particular named NRC employee or answer to interrogatories by NRC personnel under paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section may not be required before the matters in controversy in the proceeding have been identified by order of the Commission or the presiding officer, or after the beginning of the prehearing conference held in accordance with § 2.329, except upon leave of the presiding officer for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions of § 2.704(c) and (e) apply to interrogatories served under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(5) Records or documents in the custody of the Commissioners and NRC personnel are available for inspection and copying or photographing under paragraph (b) of this section and § 2.390.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) The NRC staff shall, except to the extent otherwise stipulated or directed by order of the presiding officer or the Commission, provide to the other parties within 45 days after the issuance of a prehearing conference order following the initial prehearing conference specified in § 2.329 and without awaiting a discovery request:
</P>
<P>(A) Except for those documents, data compilations, or other tangible things for which there is a claim of privilege or protected status, all NRC staff documents, data compilations, or other tangible things in possession, custody, or control of the NRC staff that are relevant to disputed issues alleged with particularity in the pleadings, including any Office of Investigations report and supporting exhibits, and any Office of Enforcement documents, data compilations, or other tangible things regarding the order. When any document, data compilation, or other tangible thing that must be disclosed is publicly available from another source, such as the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> or the NRC Public Document Room, a sufficient disclosure would be the location, the title, and a page reference to the relevant document, data compilation, or tangible thing; and
</P>
<P>(B) A list of all documents, data compilations, or other tangible things otherwise responsive to paragraph (a)(6)(i)(A) of this section for which a claim of privilege or protected status is being made, together with sufficient information for assessing the claim of privilege or protected status of the documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) The duty of disclosure under this section is continuing. A disclosure update must be made every month after initial disclosures on a due date selected by the presiding officer, unless the parties agree upon a different due date or frequency. The disclosure update shall be limited to documents subject to disclosure under this section and does not need to include documents that are developed, obtained, or discovered during the two weeks before the due date. Disclosure updates shall include any documents subject to disclosure that were not included in any previous disclosure update. The duty to update disclosures relevant to a disputed issue ends when the presiding officer issues a decision resolving that dispute issue, or at such other time as may be specified by the presiding officer or the Commission.
</P>
<P>(7) When any document, data compilation, or other tangible thing that must be disclosed is publicly available from another source, such as at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or the NRC Public Document Room, a sufficient disclosure would identify the location (including the ADAMS accession number, when available), the title and a page reference to the relevant document, data compilation, or tangible thing.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for the production of an NRC record or document not available under § 2.390 by a party to an initial licensing proceeding may be served on the Executive Director for Operations or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations, without leave of the Commission or the presiding officer. The request must identify the records or documents requested, either by individual item or by category, describe each item or category with reasonable particularity, and state why that record or document is relevant to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Executive Director for Operations, or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations, objects to producing a requested record or document on the ground that it is not relevant or it is exempted from disclosure under § 2.390 and the disclosure is not necessary to a proper decision in the proceeding or the document or the information therein is reasonably obtainable from another source, the Executive Director for Operations, or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations, shall advise the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Executive Director for Operations, or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations, objects to producing a record or document, the requesting party may apply to the presiding officer, in writing, to compel production of that record or document. The application must set forth the relevancy of the record or document to the issues in the proceeding. The application will be processed as a motion in accordance with § 2.323 (a) through (d). The record or document covered by the application must be produced for the <I>in camera</I> inspection of the presiding officer, exclusively, if requested by the presiding officer and only to the extent necessary to determine:
</P>
<P>(1) The relevancy of that record or document;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the document is exempt from disclosure under § 2.390;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the disclosure is necessary to a proper decision in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the document or the information therein is reasonably obtainable from another source.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon a determination by the presiding officer that the requesting party has demonstrated the relevancy of the record or document and that its production is not exempt from disclosure under § 2.390 or that, if exempt, its disclosure is necessary to a proper decision in the proceeding, and the document or the information therein is not reasonably obtainable from another source, the presiding officer shall order the Executive Director for Operations, or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations, to produce the document.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) In the case of requested documents and records including Safeguards Information referred to in Sections 147 and 181 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended exempt from disclosure under § 2.390, the presiding officer may issue an order requiring disclosure to the Executive Director for Operations or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations, to produce the documents or records (or any other order issued ordering production of the document or records) if—
</P>
<P>(i) The presiding officer finds that the individual seeking access to Safeguards Information to participate in an NRC adjudication has the requisite “need to know,” as defined in 10 CFR 73.2;
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual has undergone an FBI criminal history records check, unless exempt under 10 CFR 73.22(b)(3) or 73.23(b)(3), as applicable, by submitting fingerprints to the NRC Office of Administration, Security Processing Unit, Mail Stop T-6E46, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, and otherwise following the procedures in 10 CFR 73.57(d) for submitting and processing fingerprints. However, before a final adverse determination by the NRC Office of Administration on an individual's criminal history records check is made, the individual shall be afforded the protections provided by 10 CFR 73.57; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The NRC Office of Administration has found, based upon a background check, that the individual is trustworthy and reliable, unless exempt under 10 CFR 73.22(b)(3) or 73.23(b)(3), as applicable. In addition to the protections provided by 10 CFR 73.57 for adverse determinations based on criminal history records checks, the Office of Administration must take the following actions before making a final adverse determination on an individual's background check for trustworthiness and reliability. The Office of Administration will:
</P>
<P>(A) For the purpose of assuring correct and complete information, provide to the individual any records, in addition to those required to be provided under 10 CFR 73.57(e)(1), that were considered in the trustworthiness and reliability determination;
</P>
<P>(B) Resolve any challenge by the individual to the completeness or accuracy of the records described in § 2.709(f)(1)(iii)(A). The individual may make this challenge by submitting information and/or an explanation to the Office of Administration. The challenge must be submitted within 10 days of the distribution of the records described in § 2.709(f)(1)(iii)(A), and the Office of Administration must promptly resolve any challenge.
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals seeking access to Safeguards Information to participate in an NRC adjudication for whom the NRC Office of Administration has made a final adverse determination on trustworthiness and reliability may submit a request to the Chief Administrative Judge for review of the adverse determination. Upon receiving such a request, the Chief Administrative Judge shall designate an officer other than the presiding officer of the proceeding to review the adverse determination. For purposes of review, the adverse determination must be in writing and set forth the grounds for the determination. The request for review shall be served on the NRC staff and may include additional information for review by the designated officer. The request must be filed within 15 days after receipt of the adverse determination by the person against whom the adverse determination has been made. Within 10 days of receipt of the request for review and any additional information, the NRC staff will file a response indicating whether the request and additional information has caused the NRC Office of Administration to reverse its adverse determination. The designated officer may reverse the Office of Administration's final adverse determination only if the officer finds, based on all the information submitted, that the adverse determination constitutes an abuse of discretion. The designated officer's decision must be rendered within 15 days after receipt of the staff filing indicating that the request for review and additional information has not changed the NRC Office of Administration's adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer may include in an order any protective terms and conditions (including affidavits of nondisclosure) as may be necessary and appropriate to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(3) When Safeguards Information protected from disclosure under Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, is received and possessed by anyone other than the NRC staff, it must also be protected according to the requirements of § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer may also prescribe additional procedures to effectively safeguard and prevent disclosure of Safeguards Information to unauthorized persons with minimum impairment of the procedural rights which would be available if Safeguards Information were not involved.
</P>
<P>(5) In addition to any other sanction that may be imposed by the presiding officer for violation of an order issued pursuant to this paragraph, violation of a provision for the protection of Safeguards Information from unauthorized disclosure that is contained in an order may be subject to a civil penalty imposed under § 2.205.
</P>
<P>(6) For the purpose of imposing the criminal penalties contained in Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, a provision for the protection of Safeguards Information from unauthorized disclosure that is contained in an order issued pursuant to this paragraph is considered to be issued under Section 161b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(g) A ruling by the presiding officer or the Commission for the production of a record or document will specify the time, place, and manner of production.
</P>
<P>(h) A request under this section may not be made or entertained before the matters in controversy have been identified by the Commission or the presiding officer, or after the beginning of the prehearing conference held under § 2.329 except upon leave of the presiding officer for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(i) The provisions of § 2.705 (c) and (e) apply to production of NRC records and documents under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 63568, Oct. 24, 2008; 77 FR 46597, Aug. 3, 2012]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.710" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.710   Motions for summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party to a proceeding may move, with or without supporting affidavits, for a decision by the presiding officer in that party's favor as to all or any part of the matters involved in the proceeding. Summary disposition motions must be filed no later than 20 days after the close of discovery. The moving party shall attach to the motion a short and concise statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends that there is no genuine issue to be heard. Any other party may serve an answer supporting or opposing the motion, with or without affidavits, within 20 days after service of the motion. The party shall attach to any answer opposing the motion a short and concise statement of the material facts as to which it is contended there exists a genuine issue to be heard. All material facts set forth in the statement required to be served by the moving party will be considered to be admitted unless controverted by the statement required to be served by the opposing party. The opposing party may, within 10 days after service, respond in writing to new facts and arguments presented in any statement filed in support of the motion. No further supporting statements or responses to the motion will be entertained.
</P>
<P>(b) Affidavits must set forth the facts that would be admissible in evidence, and must demonstrate affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated in the affidavit. The presiding officer may permit affidavits to be supplemented or opposed by depositions, answers to interrogatories or further affidavits. When a motion for summary decision is made and supported as provided in this section, a party opposing the motion may not rest upon the mere allegations or denials of its answer. The answer by affidavits or as otherwise provided in this section must set forth specific facts showing that there is a genuine issue of fact. If no answer is filed, the decision sought, if appropriate, must be rendered.
</P>
<P>(c) Should it appear from the affidavits of a party opposing the motion that it cannot, for reasons stated, present by affidavit facts essential to justify the party's opposition, the presiding officer may refuse the application for summary decision, order a continuance to permit affidavits to be obtained, or make an order as is appropriate. A determination to that effect must be made a matter of record.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The presiding officer need not consider a motion for summary disposition unless its resolution will serve to expedite the proceeding if the motion is granted. The presiding officer may dismiss summarily or hold in abeyance untimely motions filed shortly before the hearing commences or during the hearing if the other parties or the presiding officer would be required to divert substantial resources from the hearing in order to respond adequately to the motion and thereby extend the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer shall render the decision sought if the filings in the proceeding, depositions, answers to interrogatories, and admissions on file, together with the statements of the parties and the affidavits, if any, show that there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and that the moving party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law. However, in any proceeding involving a construction permit for a production or utilization facility, the procedure described in this section may be used only for the determination of specific subordinate issues and may not be used to determine the ultimate issue as to whether the permit shall be issued.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer shall issue an order no later than forty (40) days after any responses to the summary disposition motion are filed, indicating whether the motion is granted, or denied, and the bases therefore.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46598, Aug. 3, 2012; 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.711" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.711   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Every party to a proceeding has the right to present oral or documentary evidence and rebuttal evidence and to conduct, in accordance with an approved cross-examination plan that contains the information specified in paragraph (c) of this section, any cross-examination required for full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testimony.</I> The parties shall submit direct testimony of witnesses in written form, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer on the basis of objections presented. In any proceeding in which advance written testimony is to be used, each party shall serve copies of its proposed written testimony on every other party at least fifteen (15) days in advance of the session of the hearing at which its testimony is to be presented. The presiding officer may permit the introduction of written testimony not so served, either with the consent of all parties present or after they have had a reasonable opportunity to examine it. Written testimony must be offered and admitted in evidence as an exhibit or, in the discretion of the presiding officer, may be incorporated into the transcript of the record as if read.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cross-examination.</I> (1) The presiding officer shall require a party seeking an opportunity to cross-examine to request permission to do so in accordance with a schedule established by the presiding officer. A request to conduct cross-examination must be accompanied by a cross-examination plan containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the issue or issues on which cross-examination will be conducted;
</P>
<P>(ii) The objective to be achieved by cross-examination; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposed line of questions that may logically lead to achieving the objective of the cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(2) The cross-examination plan may be submitted only to the presiding officer and must be kept by the presiding officer in confidence until issuance of the initial decision on the issue being litigated. The presiding officer shall then provide each cross-examination plan to the Commission's Secretary for inclusion in the official record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-applicability to subpart B proceedings.</I> Paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section do not apply to proceedings initiated under subpart B of this part for modification, suspension, or revocation of a license or to proceedings for imposition of a civil penalty, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2256, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 85 FR 70438, Nov. 5, 2020; 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023; 89 FR 67834, Aug. 22, 2024; 90 FR 54227, Nov. 26, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.712" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.712   Proposed findings and conclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party to a proceeding may, or if directed by the presiding officer shall, file proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, briefs and a proposed form of order or decision within the time provided by this section, except as otherwise ordered by the presiding officer:
</P>
<P>(1) The party who has the burden of proof shall, within thirty (30) days after the record is closed, file proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law and briefs, and a proposed form of order or decision.
</P>
<P>(2) Other parties may file proposed findings, conclusions of law and briefs within forty (40) days after the record is closed.
</P>
<P>(3) A party who has the burden of proof may reply within five (5) days after filing of proposed findings and conclusions of law and briefs by other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Failure to file proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, or briefs when directed to do so may be considered a default, and an order or initial decision may be entered accordingly.
</P>
<P>(c) Proposed findings of fact must be clearly and concisely set forth in numbered paragraphs and must be confined to the material issues of fact presented on-the-record, with exact citations to the transcript of record and exhibits in support of each proposed finding. Proposed conclusions of law must be set forth in numbered paragraphs as to all material issues of law or discretion presented on-the-record. An intervenor's proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law must be confined to issues which that party placed in controversy or sought to place in controversy in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.713" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.7.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.713   Initial decision and its effect.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After hearing, the presiding officer will render an initial decision which will constitute the final action of the Commission forty (40) days after its date unless any party petitions for Commission review in accordance with § 2.341 or the Commission takes review sua sponte.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the public interest so requires, the Commission may direct that the presiding officer certify the record to it without an initial decision, and may:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare its own decision which will become final unless the Commission grants a petition for reconsideration under § 2.345; or
</P>
<P>(2) Omit an initial decision on a finding that due and timely execution of its functions imperatively and unavoidably so requires.
</P>
<P>(c) An initial decision will be in writing and will be based on the whole record and supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence. The initial decision will include:
</P>
<P>(1) Findings, conclusions, and rulings, with the reasons or basis for them, on all material issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on-the-record;
</P>
<P>(2) All facts officially noticed and relied on in making the decision;
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate ruling, order, or denial of relief with the effective date;
</P>
<P>(4) The time within which a petition for review of the decision may be filed, the time within which answers in support of or in opposition to a petition for review filed by another party may be filed and, in the case of an initial decision which may become final in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the date when it may become final.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Rulemaking</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.800" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.800   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart governs the issuance, amendment, and repeal of regulations in which participation by interested persons is prescribed under Section 553 of title 5 of the U.S. Code.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures in §§ 2.804 through 2.810 apply to all rulemakings.
</P>
<P>(c) The procedures in §§ 2.802 through 2.803 apply to all petitions for rulemaking except for initial applications for standard design certification rulemaking under subpart B of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, and subsequent petitions for amendment of an existing design certification rule filed by the original applicant for the design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(d) The procedures in §§ 2.811 through 2.819, as supplemented by the provisions of subpart B of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, apply to standard design certification rulemaking.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49481, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.801" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.801   Initiation of rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>Rulemaking may be initiated by the Commission at its own instance, on the recommendation of another agency of the United States, or on the petition of any other interested person, including an application for design certification under subpart B of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49482, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.802" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.802   Petition for rulemaking—requirements for filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing a petition for rulemaking.</I> Any person may petition the Commission to issue, amend, or rescind any regulation in 10 CFR chapter I. The petition for rulemaking should be addressed to the Secretary, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and sent by mail addressed to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by email to <I>Rulemaking. Comments@nrc.gov;</I> or by hand delivery to 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, between 7:30 a.m. and 4:15 p.m. (Eastern time) on Federal workdays.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consultation with the NRC.</I> A petitioner may consult with the NRC staff before and after filing a petition for rulemaking by contacting the Chief, Regulatory Analysis and Rulemaking Support Branch, Division of Rulemaking, Environmental, and Financial Support, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 1-800-368-5642.
</P>
<P>(1) In any consultation regarding the drafting or amendment of a petition for rulemaking, the assistance that the NRC staff may provide is limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Describing the process for filing, docketing, tracking, closing, amending, withdrawing, and resolving a petition for rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(ii) Clarifying an existing NRC regulation and the basis for the regulation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Assisting the petitioner to clarify a petition for rulemaking so that the Commission is able to understand the issues of concern to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(2) In any consultation regarding the drafting or amendment of a petition for rulemaking, in providing the assistance permitted in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the NRC staff will not draft or develop text or alternative approaches to address matters in the petition for rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(3) In any consultation regarding a petition for rulemaking, the NRC staff will not advise a petitioner on whether a petition should be amended or withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of petition.</I> (1) Each petition for rulemaking filed under this section must clearly and concisely:
</P>
<P>(i) Specify the name of the petitioner, a telephone number, a mailing address, and an email address (if available) that the NRC may use to communicate with the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the petitioner is an organization, provide additional identifying information (as applicable) including the petitioner's organizational or corporate status, the petitioner's State of incorporation, the petitioner's registered agent, and the name and authority of the individual who signed the petition on behalf of the organizational or corporate petitioner.
</P>
<P>(iii) Present the specific problems or issues that the petitioner believes should be addressed through rulemaking, including any specific circumstances in which the NRC's codified requirements are incorrect, incomplete, inadequate, or unnecessarily burdensome;
</P>
<P>(iv) Cite, enclose, or reference publicly-available technical, scientific, or other data or information supporting the petitioner's assertion of the problems or issues;
</P>
<P>(v) Present the petitioner's proposed solution to the problems or issues raised in the petition for rulemaking (<I>e.g.,</I> a proposed solution may include specific regulations or regulatory language to add to, amend in, or delete from 10 CFR chapter I);
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide an analysis, discussion, or argument that explains how the petitioner's proposed solution solves the problems or issues identified by the petitioner; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Cite, enclose, or reference any other publicly-available data or information supporting the petitioner's proposed solution; and
</P>
<P>(viii) If required by 10 CFR 51.68 of this chapter, submit a separate document entitled “Petitioner's Environmental Report,” which contains the information specified in 10 CFR 51.45.
</P>
<P>(2) To assist the NRC in its evaluation of the petition for rulemaking, the petitioner should clearly and concisely:
</P>
<P>(i) Explain why the proposed rulemaking solution is within the authority of the NRC to adopt; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Explain why rulemaking is the most favorable approach to address the problem or issue, as opposed to other NRC actions such as licensing, issuance of an order, or referral to another Federal or State agency.
</P>
<P>(3) If the petition is signed by multiple petitioners, the petition must designate a lead petitioner who is responsible for disseminating communications received from the NRC to co-petitioners.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for suspension of an adjudication involving licensing.</I> The petitioner may request the Commission to suspend all or any part of any licensing proceeding to which the petitioner is a participant pending disposition of the petition for rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Amendment; withdrawal.</I> If the petitioner wants to amend or withdraw a docketed petition for rulemaking, then the petitioner should include the docket number and the date that the original petition for rulemaking was submitted in a filing addressed to the Secretary, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and sent by mail addressed to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; or by email to <I>Rulemaking. Comments@nrc.gov</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 60526, Oct. 7, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 30287, June 28, 2018; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.803" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.803   Petition for rulemaking—NRC action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of receipt.</I> Following receipt of a petition for rulemaking, the NRC will acknowledge its receipt to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Docketing review.</I> (1) The NRC will evaluate the petition for rulemaking, including supporting data or information submitted under § 2.802(c), for sufficiency according to the review criteria in § 2.803(b).
</P>
<P>(2) If the NRC determines that the petition for rulemaking does not include the information set out in § 2.802(c), that the regulatory change sought by the petitioner is not within the legal authority of the NRC, or that the petition for rulemaking does not raise a potentially valid issue that warrants further consideration, then the NRC will notify the petitioner in writing and explain the deficiencies in the petition for rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner may resubmit the petition for rulemaking without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Docketing.</I> (1) The NRC will docket a petition for rulemaking and assign a docket number to the petition if the NRC determines the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The petition for rulemaking includes the information required by paragraph § 2.802(c),
</P>
<P>(ii) The regulatory change sought by the petitioner is within the NRC's legal authority, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The petition for rulemaking raises a potentially valid issue that warrants further consideration.
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the docketed petition for rulemaking will be posted in the NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) and on the Federal rulemaking Web site at: <I>http://www.regulations.gov</I>. The NRC will publish a notice of docketing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> informing the public that the NRC is reviewing the merits of the petition for rulemaking. The notice of docketing will include the docket number and explain how the public may track the status of the petition for rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NRC communication with petitioners.</I> If the petition is signed by multiple petitioners, any NRC obligation to inform a petitioner (as may be required under 10 CFR part 2, subpart H) is satisfied, with respect to all petitioners, when the NRC transmits the required notification to the lead petitioner.
</P>
<P>(e)-(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Public comment on a petition for rulemaking; hearings.</I> (1) At its discretion, the NRC may request public comment on a docketed petition for rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC will post all comment submissions at <I>http://www.regulations.gov</I> and enter the comment submissions into ADAMS, without removing identifying or contact information from comment submissions. Anyone requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC is responsible for informing those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submissions.
</P>
<P>(3) No adjudicatory or legislative hearing under the procedures of 10 CFR part 2 will be held on a petition for rulemaking unless the Commission determines to do so, at its discretion.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Determination on a petition for rulemaking; Closure of docket on a petition for rulemaking</I> (1)—<I>Determination.</I> Following docketing of a petition for rulemaking, the NRC's determination on the petition for rulemaking may be based upon, but is not limited to, the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(i) The merits of the petition;
</P>
<P>(ii) The immediacy of the safety, environmental, or security concern raised;
</P>
<P>(iii) The availability of NRC resources and the priority of the issues raised in relation to other NRC rulemaking issues;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the problems or issues are already under consideration by the NRC in other NRC processes;
</P>
<P>(v) The substance of any public comment received, if comment is requested; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The NRC's relevant past decisions and current policies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Petition for rulemaking docket closure.</I> After the NRC determines the appropriate regulatory action in response to the petition for rulemaking, the NRC will administratively close the docket for the petition. The NRC will publish a notice describing that action with any related Docket Identification number (Docket ID), as applicable, in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The NRC may make a determination on a petition for rulemaking and administratively close the docket for the petition for rulemaking by:
</P>
<P>(i) Deciding not to undertake a rulemaking to address the issue raised by the petition for rulemaking, and informing the petitioner in writing of the grounds for denial.
</P>
<P>(ii) Initiating a rulemaking action (<I>e.g.,</I> initiating a new rulemaking, addressing the petition for rulemaking in an ongoing rulemaking, addressing the petition for rulemaking in a planned rulemaking) that considers the issues raised by a petition for rulemaking, and informing the petitioner in writing of this decision and the associated Docket ID of the rulemaking action, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Petition for rulemaking resolution</I>—(1) <I>Petition for rulemaking resolution published in the Federal Register.</I> The NRC will publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice informing the public that it has concluded all planned regulatory action with respect to some or all of the issues presented in a petition for rulemaking. This may occur by adoption of a final rule related to the petition for rulemaking, denial by the NRC of the petition for rulemaking at any stage of the regulatory process, or the petitioner's withdrawal of the petition for rulemaking before the NRC has entered the rulemaking process. As applicable, the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will include a discussion of how the regulatory action addresses the issue raised by the petitioner, the NRC's grounds for denial of the petition for rulemaking, or information on the withdrawal. The notice will normally include the NRC's response to any public comment received (if comment is requested), unless the NRC has indicated that it will not be providing a formal written response to each comment received.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>NRC decision not to proceed with rulemaking after closure of a petition for rulemaking docket.</I> If the NRC closes a petition for rulemaking docket under paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section but subsequently decides not to carry out the planned rulemaking to publication of a final rule, the NRC will notify the petitioner in writing of this decision and publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> explaining the basis for its decision. The decision not to complete the rulemaking action will be documented as denial of the petition for rulemaking in the docket of the closed petition for rulemaking, in the Web sites, in the Government-wide <I>Unified Agenda of Federal Regulatory and Deregulatory Actions,</I> online in ADAMS, and at <I>http://www.regulations.gov</I> as described in paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Status of petitions for rulemaking and rulemakings.</I> (1) The NRC provides current information on rulemakings and petitions for rulemaking in the NRC Library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/about-nrc/regulatory/rulemaking.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC includes a summary of the NRC's planned and ongoing rulemakings in the Government-wide <I>Unified Agenda of Federal Regulatory and Deregulatory Actions</I> (the Unified Agenda), published semiannually. This Unified Agenda is available at <I>http://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaMain/</I>.
</P>
<P>(3) All docketed petitions, rulemakings, and public comments are posted online in ADAMS and at <I>http://www.regulations.gov</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 60526, Oct. 7, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.804" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.804   Notice of proposed rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraph (d) of this section, when the Commission proposes to adopt, amend, or repeal a regulation, it will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of proposed rulemaking, unless all persons subject to the notice are named and either are personally served or otherwise have actual notice in accordance with law.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice will include:
</P>
<P>(1) Either the terms or substance of the proposed rule, or a specification of the subjects and issues involved;
</P>
<P>(2) The manner and time within which interested members of the public may comment, and a statement that copies of comments may be examined will be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov;</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The authority under which the regulation is proposed;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the public hearing, if any;
</P>
<P>(5) If a hearing is to be held, designation of the presiding officer and any special directions for the conduct of the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such explanatory statement as the Commission may consider appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) The publication or service of notice will be made not less than fifteen (15) days prior to the time fixed for hearing, if any, unless the Commission for good cause stated in the notice provides otherwise.
</P>
<P>(d) The notice and comment provisions contained in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section will not be required to be applied—
</P>
<P>(1) To interpretative rules, general statements of policy, or rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice; or
</P>
<P>(2) When the Commission for good cause finds that notice and public comment are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, and are not required by statute. This finding, and the reasons therefor, will be incorporated into any rule issued without notice and comment for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission shall provide for a 30-day post-promulgation comment period for—
</P>
<P>(1) Any rule adopted without notice and comment under the good cause exception on paragraph (d)(2) of this section where the basis is that notice and comment is “impracticable” or “contrary to the public interest.”
</P>
<P>(2) Any interpretative rule, or general statement of policy adopted without notice and comment under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, except for those cases for which the Commission finds that such procedures would serve no public interest, or would be so burdensome as to outweigh any foreseeable gain.
</P>
<P>(f) For any post-promulgation comments received under paragraph (e) of this section, the Commission shall publish a statement in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> containing an evaluation of the significant comments and any revisions of the rule or policy statement made as a result of the comments and their evaluation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 377, Jan. 13, 1962, as amended at 50 FR 13010, Apr. 2, 1985; 64 FR 48949, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.805" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.805   Participation by interested persons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all rulemaking proceedings conducted under the provisions of § 2.804(a), the Commission will afford interested persons an opportunity to participate through the submission of statements, information, opinions, and arguments in the manner stated in the notice. The Commission may grant additional reasonable opportunity for the submission of comments.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may hold informal hearings at which interested persons may be heard, adopting procedures which in its judgment will best serve the purpose of the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 377, Jan. 13, 1962, as amended at 50 FR 13010, Apr. 2, 1985; 50 FR 15865, Apr. 22, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.806" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.806   Commission action.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will incorporate in the notice of adoption of a regulation a concise general statement of its basis and purpose, and will cause the notice and regulation to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or served upon affected persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.807" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.807   Effective date and sunsetting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice of adoption of a regulation will specify the effective date. Publication or service of the notice and regulation, other than one granting or recognizing exemptions or relieving from restrictions, will be made not less than thirty (30) days prior to the effective date unless the Commission directs otherwise on good cause found and published in the notice of rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(b) All regulations promulgated after January 8, 2026, under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, or the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 that are not required by statute or not part of a regulatory permitting regime authorized by statute, will include a conditional sunset date that will not be more than 5 years in the future from the effective date of the regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 55627, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.808" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.808   Authority of the Secretary to rule on procedural matters.</HEAD>
<P>When briefs, motions or other documents listed herein are submitted to the Commission itself, as opposed to officers who have been delegated authority to act for the Commission, the Secretary or the Assistant Secretary is authorized to:
</P>
<P>(a) Prescribe schedules for the filing of statements, information, briefs, motions, responses or other pleadings, where such schedules may differ from those elsewhere prescribed in these rules or where these rules do not prescribe a schedule;
</P>
<P>(b) Rule on motions for extensions of time;
</P>
<P>(c) Reject motions, briefs, pleadings, and other documents filed with the Commission later than the time prescribed by the Secretary or the Assistant Secretary or established by an order, rule, or regulation of the Commission unless good cause is shown for the late filing; and
</P>
<P>(d) Prescribe all procedural arrangements relating to any oral argument to be held before the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 24219, July 1, 1974, as amended at 72 FR 49152, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.809" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.809   Participation by the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In its advisory capacity to the Commission, the ACRS may recommend that the Commission initiate rulemaking in a particular area. The Commission will respond to such rulemaking recommendation in writing within 90 days, noting its intent to implement, study, or defer action on the recommendation. In the event the Commission decides not to accept or decides to defer action on the recommendation, it will give its reasons for doing so. Both the ACRS recommendation and the Commission's response will be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> following transmittal of the Commission's response to the ACRS.
</P>
<P>(b) When a rule involving nuclear safety matters within the purview of the ACRS is under development by the NRC Staff, the Staff will ensure that the ACRS is given an opportunity to provide advice at appropriate stages and to identify issues to be considered during rulemaking hearings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 22358, Apr. 17, 1981, as amended at 64 FR 48949, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.810" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.810   NRC size standards.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC shall use the size standards contained in this section to determine whether a licensee qualifies as a small entity in its regulatory programs.
</P>
<P>(a) A small business is a for-profit concern and is a—</P>
<P>(1) Concern that provides a service or a concern not engaged in manufacturing with average gross receipts of $8.0 million or less over its last 5 completed fiscal years; or
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturing concern with an average number of 500 or fewer employees based upon employment during each pay period for the preceding 12 calendar months.
</P>
<P>(b) A small organization is a not-for-profit organization which is independently owned and operated and has annual gross receipts of $8.0 million or less.


</P>
<P>(c) A small governmental jurisdiction is a government of a city, county, town, township, village, school district, or special district with a population of less than 50,000.
</P>
<P>(d) A small educational institution is one that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Supported by a qualifying small governmental jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(2) Not state or publicly supported and has 500 or fewer employees.
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of this section, the NRC shall use the Small Business Administration definition of receipts (13 CFR 121.104). A licensee who is a subsidiary of a large entity does not qualify as a small entity for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Whenever appropriate in the interest of administering statutes and regulations within its jurisdiction, it is the practice of the NRC to answer inquiries from small entities concerning information on and advice about compliance with the statutes and regulations that affect them. To help small entities obtain information quickly, the NRC has established a toll-free telephone number at 1-800-368-5642.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 18346, Apr. 11, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 26220, May 13, 1997; 72 FR 44953, Aug. 10, 2007; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008; 77 FR 39387, July 3, 2012; 79 FR 66601, Nov. 10, 2014; 87 FR 8946, Feb. 17, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.811" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.811   Filing of standard design certification application; required copies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Serving of applications.</I> The signed original of an application for a standard design certification, including all amendments to the applications, must be sent either by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by facsimile; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, between the hours of 7:30 a.m. and 4:15 p.m. eastern time; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, e-mail, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of application.</I> Each original of an application and an amendment of an application must meet the requirements in § 2.813.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capability to provide additional copies.</I> The applicant shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies of the general information and the safety analysis report, or part thereof or amendment thereto, for subsequent distribution in accordance with the written instructions of the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public hearing copy.</I> In any hearing conducted under subpart O of this part for a design certification rulemaking, the applicant must make a copy of the updated application available at the public hearing for the use of any other parties to the proceeding, and shall certify that the updated copies of the application contain the current contents of the application submitted in accordance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Pre-application consultation.</I> A prospective applicant for a standard design certification may consult with NRC staff before filing an application by writing to the Director, Division of New and Renewed Licenses, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, with respect to the subject matters listed in § 2.802(b)(1). A prospective applicant also may telephone the Regulatory Analysis and Rulemaking Support Branch, Division of Rulemaking, Environmental, and Financial Support, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, toll free on 1-800-368-5642 on these subject matters. In addition, a prospective applicant may confer informally with NRC staff before filing an application for a standard design certification, and the limitations on consultation in § 2.802(b)(2) do not apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49482, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 62679, Dec. 1, 2009; 77 FR 46598, Aug. 3, 2012; 80 FR 60527, Oct. 7, 2015; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.813" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.813   Written communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> All correspondence, reports, and other written communications from the applicant to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission concerning the regulations in this subpart, and parts 50, 52, 53, and 100 of this chapter must be sent either by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, between the hours of 7:30 a.m. and 4:15 p.m. eastern time; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, e-mail, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent. If a submission due date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the next Federal working day becomes the official due date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of communications.</I> All paper copies submitted to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section must be typewritten, printed or otherwise reproduced in permanent form on unglazed paper. Exceptions to these requirements imposed on paper submissions may be granted for the submission of micrographic, photographic, or similar forms.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regulation governing submission.</I> An applicant submitting correspondence, reports, and other written communications under the regulations of this chapter is requested but not required to cite whenever practical, in the upper right corner of the first page of the submission, the specific regulation or other basis requiring submission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49482, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 62679, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015; 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.815" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.815   Docketing and acceptance review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application for a standard design certification will be assigned a docket number. However, to allow a determination as to whether an application is complete and acceptable for docketing, it will be initially treated as a tendered application. A copy of the tendered application will be available for public inspection at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room. Generally, the determination on acceptability for docketing will be made within a period of 30 days. The Commission may decide to determine acceptability on the basis of the technical adequacy of the application as well as its completeness.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commission determines that a tendered application is complete and acceptable for docketing, a docket number will be assigned to the application or part thereof, and the applicant will be notified of the determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49482, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.817" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.817   Withdrawal of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may permit an applicant to withdraw an application for a standard design certification before the issuance of a notice of proposed rulemaking on such terms and conditions as the Commission may prescribe, or may, on receiving a request for withdrawal of an application, deny the application or dismiss it without prejudice. The NRC will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a document withdrawing the application, if the notice of receipt of the application, an advance notice of proposed rulemaking, or a notice of proposed rulemaking for the standard design certification has been previously published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If the notice of receipt, advance notice of proposed rulemaking or notice of proposed rulemaking was published on the NRC Web site, then the notice of action on the withdrawal will also be published on the NRC Web site.
</P>
<P>(b) The withdrawal of an application does not authorize the removal of any document from the files of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49482, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.819" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.8.23.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.819   Denial of application for failure to supply information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may deny an application for a standard design certification if an applicant fails to respond to a request for additional information within 30 days from the date of the request, or within such other time as may be specified.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commission denies an application because the applicant has failed to respond in a timely fashion to a request for additional information, the NRC will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of denial and will notify the applicant with a simple statement of the grounds of denial. If a notice of receipt of application, advance notice of proposed rulemaking, or notice of proposed rulemaking for a standard design certification was published on the NRC Web site, then the notice of action on the denial will also be published on the NRC Web site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49482, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Special Procedures Applicable to Adjudicatory Proceedings Involving Restricted Data and/or National Security Information</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 53329, Dec. 6, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.900" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.900   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart is issued pursuant to section 181 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, to provide such procedures in proceedings subject to this part as will effectively safeguard and prevent disclosure of Restricted Data and National Security Information to unauthorized persons, with minimum impairment of procedural rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.901" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.901   Scope of subpart I.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies, as applicable, to all proceedings under subparts G, J, K, L, M, and N of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2264, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.902" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.902   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America, which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interested party</I> means a party having an interest in the issue or issues to which particular Restricted Data or National Security Information is relevant. Normally the interest of a party in an issue may be determined by examination of the notice of hearing, the answers and replies.
</P>
<P>(c) The phrase <I>introduced into a proceeding</I> refers to the introduction or incorporation of testimony or documentary matter into any part of the official record of a proceeding subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>National Security Information</I> means information that has been classified pursuant to Executive Order 12356.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Party,</I> in the case of proceedings subject to this subpart includes a person admitted as a party under § 2.309 or an interested State admitted under § 2.315(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53329, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 47 FR 56314, Dec. 16, 1982; 69 FR 2264, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.903" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.903   Protection of restricted data and national security information.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart shall relieve any person from safeguarding Restricted Data or National Security Information in accordance with the applicable provisions of laws of the United States and rules, regulations or orders of any Government Agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.904" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.904   Classification assistance.</HEAD>
<P>On request of any party to a proceeding or of the presiding officer, the Commission will designate a representative to advise and assist the presiding officer and the parties with respect to security classification of information and the safeguards to be observed.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.905" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.905   Access to restricted data and national security information for parties; security clearances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Access to restricted data and national security information introduced into proceedings.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, restricted data or national security information introduced into a proceeding subject to this part will be made available to any interested party having the required security clearance; to counsel for an interested party provided the counsel has the required security clearance; and to such additional persons having the required security clearance as the Commission or the presiding officer determined are needed by such party for adequate preparation or presentation of the case. Where the interest of such party will not be prejudiced, the Commission or presiding officer may postpone action upon an application for access under this paragraph until after a notice of hearing, answers, and replies have been filed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access to Restricted Data or National Security Information not introduced into proceedings.</I> (1) On application showing that access to Restricted Data or National Security Information may be required for the preparation of a party's case, and except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the Commission or the presiding officer will issue an order granting access to such Restricted Data or National Security Information to the party upon obtaining the required security clearance, to counsel for the party upon their obtaining the required security clearance, and to such other individuals as may be needed by the party for the preparation and presentation of the case upon their obtaining the required clearance.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the interest of the party applying for access will not be prejudiced, the Commission or the presiding officer may postpone action on an application pursuant to this paragraph until after a notice of hearing, answers and replies have been filed.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will consider requests for appropriate security clearances in reasonable numbers pursuant to this section. A reasonable charge will be made by the Commission for costs of security clearance pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer may certify to the Commission for its consideration and determination any questions relating to access to Restricted Data or National Security Information arising under this section. Any party affected by a determination or order of the presiding officer under this section may appeal forthwith to the Commission from the determination or order. The filing by the staff of an appeal from an order of a presiding officer granting access to Restricted Data or National Security Information shall stay the order pending determination of the appeal by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application granting access to restricted data or national security information.</I> (1) An application under this section for orders granting access to restricted data or national security information not received from another Government agency will normally be acted upon by the presiding officer, or if a proceeding is not before a presiding officer, by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) An application under this section for orders granting access to restricted data or national security information where the information has been received by the Commission from another Government agency will be acted upon by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) To the extent practicable, an application for an order granting access under this section shall describe the subjects of Restricted Data or National Security Information to which access is desired and the level of classification (confidential, secret or other) of the information; the reasons why access to the information is requested; the names of individuals for whom clearances are requested; and the reasons why security clearances are being requested for those individuals.
</P>
<P>(g) On the conclusion of a proceeding, the Commission will terminate all orders issued in the proceeding for access to Restricted Data or National Security Information and all security clearances granted pursuant to them; and may issue such orders requiring the disposal of classified matter received pursuant to them or requiring the observance of other procedures to safeguard such classified matter as it deems necessary to protect Restricted Data or National Security Information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Refusal to grant access to restricted data or national security information.</I> (1) The Commission will not grant access to restricted data or national security information unless it determines that the granting of access will not be inimical to the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(2) Access to Restricted Data or National Security Information which has been received by the Commission from another Government agency will not be granted by the Commission if the originating agency determines in writing that access should not be granted. The Commission will consult the originating agency prior to granting access to such data or information received from another Government agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53329, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.906" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.906   Obligation of parties to avoid introduction of restricted data or national security information.</HEAD>
<P>It is the obligation of all parties in a proceeding subject to this part to avoid, where practicable, the introduction of Restricted Data or National Security Information into the proceeding. This obligation rests on each party whether or not all other parties have the required security clearance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.907" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.907   Notice of intent to introduce restricted data or national security information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, at the time of publication of a notice of hearing, it appears to the staff that it will be impracticable for it to avoid the introduction of Restricted Data or National Security Information into the proceeding, it will file a notice of intent to introduce Restricted Data or National Security Information.
</P>
<P>(b) If, at the time of filing of an answer to the notice of hearing it appears to the party filing that it will be impracticable for the party to avoid the introduction of Restricted Data or National Security Information into the proceeding, the party shall state in the answer a notice of intent to introduce Restricted Data or National Security Information into the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) If, at any later stage of a proceeding, it appears to any party that it will be impracticable to avoid the introduction of Restricted Data or National Security Information into the proceeding, the party shall give to the other parties prompt written notice of intent to introduce Restricted Data or National Security Information into the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) Restricted Data or National Security Information shall not be introduced into a proceeding after publication of a notice of hearing unless a notice of intent has been filed in accordance with § 2.908, except as permitted in the discretion of the presiding officer when it is clear that no party or the public interest will be prejudiced.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.908" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.908   Contents of notice of intent to introduce restricted data or other national security information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party who intends to introduce Restricted Data or other National Security Information shall file a notice of intent with the Secretary. The notice shall be unclassified and, to the extent consistent with classification requirements, shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The subject matter of the Restricted Data or other National Security Information which it is anticipated will be involved;
</P>
<P>(2) The highest level of classification of the information (confidential, secret, or other);
</P>
<P>(3) The stage of the proceeding at which the party anticipates a need to introduce the information; and
</P>
<P>(4) The relevance and materiality of the information to the issues on the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) In the discretion of the presiding officer, such notice, when required by § 2.907(c), may be given orally on the record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53329, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.909" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.909   Rearrangement or suspension of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>In any proceeding subject to this part where a party gives a notice of intent to introduce Restricted Data or other National Security Information, and the presiding officer determines that any other interested party does not have required security clearances, the presiding officer may in their discretion:
</P>
<P>(a) Rearrange the normal order of the proceeding in a manner which gives such interested parties an opportunity to obtain required security clearances with minimum delay in the conduct of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) Suspend the proceeding or any portion of it until all interested parties have had opportunity to obtain required security clearances. No proceeding shall be suspended for such reasons for more than 100 days except with the consent of all parties or on a determination by the presiding officer that further suspension of the proceeding would not be contrary to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) Take such other action as they determine to be in the best interest of all parties to the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53329, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.910" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.910   Unclassified statements required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever Restricted Data or other National Security Information is introduced into a proceeding, the party offering it shall submit to the presiding officer and to all parties to the proceeding an unclassified statement setting forth the information in the classified matter as accurately and completely as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with such procedures as may be agreed upon by the parties or prescribed by the presiding officer, and after notice to all parties and opportunity to be heard thereon, the presiding officer shall determine whether the unclassified statement or any portion of it, together with any appropriate modifications suggested by any party, may be substituted for the classified matter or any portion of it without prejudice to the interest of any party or to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) If the presiding officer determines that the unclassified statement, together with such unclassified modifications as they find are necessary or appropriate to protect the interest of other parties and the public interest, adequately sets forth information in the classified matter which is relevant and material to the issues in the proceeding, they shall direct that the classified matter be excluded from the record of the proceeding. The presiding officer's determination will be considered by the Commission as a part of the decision in the event of review.
</P>
<P>(d) If the presiding officer determines that an unclassified statement does not adequately present the information contained in the classified matter which is relevant and material to the issues in the proceeding, they shall include their reasons in their determination. This determination shall be included as part of the record and will be considered by the Commission in the event of review of the determination.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer may postpone all or part of the procedures established in this section until the reception of all other evidence has been completed. Service of the unclassified statement required in paragraph (a) of this section shall not be postponed if any party does not have access to Restricted Data or other National Security Information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53329, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.911" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.911   Admissibility of restricted data or other national security information.</HEAD>
<P>A presiding officer shall not receive any Restricted Data or other National Security Information in evidence unless:
</P>
<P>(a) The relevance and materiality of the Restricted Data or other National Security Information to the issues in the proceeding, and its competence, are clearly established; and
</P>
<P>(b) The exclusion of the Restricted Data or other National Security Information would prejudice the interests of a party or the public interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53329, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 86 FR 43401, Aug. 9, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.912" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.912   Weight to be attached to classified evidence.</HEAD>
<P>In considering the weight and effect of any Restricted Data or other National Security Information received in evidence to which an interested party has not had opportunity to receive access, the presiding officer and the Commission shall give to such evidence such weight as is appropriate under the circumstances, taking into consideration any lack of opportunity to rebut or impeach the evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.913" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.9.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.913   Review of Restricted Data or other National Security Information received in evidence.</HEAD>
<P>At the close of the reception of evidence, the presiding officer shall review the record and shall direct that any Restricted Data or other National Security Information be expunged from the record where such expunction would not prejudice the interests of a party or the public interest. Such directions by the presiding officer will be considered by the Commission in the event of review of the determinations of the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Procedures Applicable to Proceedings for the Issuance of Licenses for the Receipt of High-Level Radioactive Waste at a Geologic Repository</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1000" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1000   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The rules in this subpart, together with the rules in subparts C and G of this part, govern the procedure for an application for authorization to construct a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area noticed under § 2.101(f)(8) or § 2.105(a)(5), and for an application for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area. The procedures in this subpart take precedence over those in subpart C, except for the following provisions: §§ 2.303; 2.307; 2.309; 2.312; 2.313; 2.314; 2.315; 2.316; 2.317(a); 2.318; 2.319; 2.320; 2.321; 2.322; 2.323; 2.324; 2.325; 2.326; 2.327; 2.328; 2.330; 2.331; 2.333; 2.335; 2.337(a) through (f); 2.338; 2.339; 2.342; 2.343; 2.344; 2.345; 2.346; 2.348; and 2.390. The procedures in this subpart take precedence over those in subpart G, except for the following provisions: §§ 2.701, 2.702; 2.703; 2.708; 2.709; 2.710; 2.711(a) through (d); and 2.712.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 54227, Nov. 26, 2025]







]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1001" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1001   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Bibliographic header</I> means the minimum series of descriptive fields that a potential party, interested governmental participant, or party must submit with a document or other material. 
</P>
<P><I>Circulated draft</I> means a nonfinal document circulated for supervisory concurrence or signature in which the original author or others in the concurrence process have non-concurred. A “circulated draft” meeting the above criterion includes a draft of a document that eventually becomes a final document, and a draft of a document that does not become a final document due to either a decision not to finalize the document or the passage of a substantial period of time in which no action has been taken on the document.
</P>
<P><I>Complex document</I> means a document that consists (entirely or in part) of electronic files having substantial portions that are neither textual nor image in nature, and graphic or other Binary Large Objects that exceed 50 megabytes and cannot logically be divided. For example, specialized submissions may include runtime executable software, viewer or printer executables, dynamic link library (.dll) files, large data sets associated with an executable, and actual software code for analytical programs that a party may intend to introduce into the proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Document</I> means any written, printed, recorded, magnetic, graphic matter, or other documentary material, regardless of form or characteristic.
</P>
<P><I>Documentary material</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any information upon which a party, potential party, or interested governmental participant intends to rely and/or to cite in support of its position in the proceeding for a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to parts 60 or 63 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Any information that is known to, and in the possession of, or developed by the party that is relevant to, but does not support, that information or that party's position; and
</P>
<P>(3) All reports and studies, prepared by or on behalf of the potential party, interested governmental participant, or party, including all related “circulated drafts,” relevant to both the license application and the issues set forth in the Topical Guidelines in Regulatory Guide 3.69, regardless of whether they will be relied upon and/or cited by a party. The scope of documentary material shall be guided by the topical guidelines in the applicable NRC Regulatory Guide.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic docket</I> means the NRC information system that receives, distributes, stores, and retrieves the Commission's adjudicatory docket materials.
</P>
<P><I>Image</I> means a visual likeness of a document, presented on a paper copy, microform, or a bit-map on optical or magnetic media.
</P>
<P><I>Interested governmental participant</I> means any person admitted under § 2.315(c) of this part to the proceeding on an application for a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, and an application for a license to receive and possess high level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 and 63 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Large document</I> means a document that consists of electronic files that are larger than 50 megabytes.
</P>
<P><I>Licensing Support Network</I> means the combined system that makes documentary material available electronically to parties, potential parties, and interested governmental participants to a proceeding for a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area, and an application for a license to receive and possess high level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 and 63 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>LSN Administrator</I> means the person within the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission responsible for coordinating access to and the integrity of data available on the Licensing Support Network. The LSN Administrator shall not be in any organizational unit that either represents the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission staff as a party to the high-level waste repository licensing proceeding or is a part of the management chain reporting to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. For the purposes of this subpart, the organizational unit within the NRC selected to be the LSN Administrator shall not be considered to be a party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Marginalia</I> means handwritten, printed, or other types of notations added to a document excluding underlining and highlighting.
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> for the purpose of this subpart means the DOE, the NRC staff, the host State, any affected unit of local government as defined in Section 2 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended (42 U.S.C. 10101), any affected Indian Tribe as defined in section 2 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended (42 U.S.C. 10101), and a person admitted under § 2.309 to the proceeding on an application for construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, and an application for a license to receive and possess high level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 and 63 of this chapter; provided that a host State, affected unit of local government, or affected Indian Tribe files a list of contentions in accordance with the provisions of § 2.309.
</P>
<P><I>Personal record</I> means a document in the possession of an individual associated with a party, interested governmental participant, or potential party that was not required to be created or retained by the party, interested governmental participant, or potential party, and can be retained or discarded at the possessor's sole discretion, or documents of a personal nature that are not associated with any business of the party, interested governmental participant, or potential party.
</P>
<P><I>Potential party</I> means any person who, during the period before the issuance of the first pre-hearing conference order under § 2.1021(d), is given access to the Licensing Support Network and who consents to comply with the regulations set forth in subpart J of this part, including the authority of the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer designated pursuant to § 2.1010.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-license application electronic docket</I> means the NRC's electronic information system that receives, distributes, stores, and maintains NRC pre-license application docket materials during the pre-license application phase.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-license application phase</I> means the time period before a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter is docketed under § 2.101(f)(3), and the time period before a license application to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 is docketed under § 2.101(f)(3). 
</P>
<P><I>Pre-License Application Presiding Officer</I> means one or more members of the Commission, or an atomic safety and licensing board, or a named officer who has been delegated final authority in the pre-license application phase with jurisdiction specified at the time of designation.
</P>
<P><I>Preliminary draft</I> means any nonfinal document that is not a circulated draft.
</P>
<P><I>Presiding Officer</I> means one or more members of the Commission, or an atomic safety and licensing board, or a named officer who has been delegated final authority in the matter, designated in the notice of hearing to preside.
</P>
<P><I>Searchable full text</I> means the electronic indexed entry of a document that allows the identification of specific words or groups of words within a text file.
</P>
<P><I>Simple document</I> means a document that consists of electronic files that are 50 megabytes or less.
</P>
<P><I>Topical Guidelines</I> means the set of topics set forth in Regulatory Guide 3.69, Topical Guidelines for the Licensing Support System, which are intended to serve as guidance on the scope of “documentary material”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 7795, Feb. 26, 1991; 63 FR 71736, Dec. 30, 1998; 66 FR 29465, May 31, 2001; 66 FR 55788, Nov. 2, 2001; 69 FR 2264, Jan. 14, 2004; 69 FR 32848, June 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1002" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1002   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1003" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1003   Availability of material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the exclusions in § 2.1005 and paragraphs (b), (c), and (e) of this section, DOE shall make available, no later than six months in advance of submitting its license application for a geologic repository, the NRC shall make available no later than thirty days after the DOE certification of compliance under § 2.1009(b), and each other potential party, interested governmental participant or party shall make available no later than ninety days after the DOE certification of compliance under § 2.1009(b)—
</P>
<P>(1) An electronic file including bibliographic header for all documentary material (including circulated drafts but excluding preliminary drafts) generated by, or at the direction of, or acquired by, a potential party, interested governmental participant or party; provided, however, that an electronic file need not be provided for acquired documentary material that has already been made available by the potential party, interested governmental participant or party that originally created the documentary material. Concurrent with the production of the electronic files will be an authentication statement for posting on the LSN Web site that indicates where an authenticated image copy of the documents can be obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) In electronic image format, subject to the claims of privilege in § 2.1006, graphic-oriented documentary material that includes raw data, computer runs, computer programs and codes, field notes, laboratory notes, maps, diagrams and photographs, which have been printed, scripted, or hand written. Text embedded within these documents need not be separately entered in searchable full text. A bibliographic header must be provided for all graphic-oriented documentary material. Graphic-oriented documents may include—
</P>
<P>(i) Calibration procedures, logs, guidelines, data and discrepancies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Gauge, meter and computer settings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Probe locations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Logging intervals and rates;
</P>
<P>(v) Data logs in whatever form captured;
</P>
<P>(vi) Text data sheets;
</P>
<P>(vii) Equations and sampling rates;
</P>
<P>(viii) Sensor data and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ix) Data Descriptions;
</P>
<P>(x) Field and laboratory notebooks;
</P>
<P>(xi) Analog computer, meter or other device print-outs;
</P>
<P>(xii) Digital computer print-outs;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Photographs;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Graphs, plots, strip charts, sketches;
</P>
<P>(xv) Descriptive material related to the information identified in this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(3) In an electronic file, subject to the claims of privilege in § 2.1006, only a bibliographic header for each item of documentary material that is not suitable for image or searchable full text.
</P>
<P>(4) An electronic bibliographic header for each documentary material—
</P>
<P>(i) For which a claim of privilege is asserted;
</P>
<P>(ii) Which constitutes confidential financial or commercial information; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Which constitutes Safeguards Information under § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) Basic licensing documents generated by DOE, such as the Site Characterization Plan, the Environmental Impact Statement, and the license application, or by NRC, such as the Site Characterization Analysis, and the Safety Evaluation Report, shall be made available in electronic form by the respective agency that generated the document.
</P>
<P>(c) The participation of the host State in the pre-license application phase shall not affect the State's ability to exercise its disapproval rights under section 116(b)(2) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 10136(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) This subpart shall not affect any independent right of a potential party, interested governmental participant or party to receive information.
</P>
<P>(e) Each potential party, interested governmental participant or party shall continue to supplement its documentary material made available to other participants via the LSN with any additional material created after the time of its initial certification in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section until the discovery period in the proceeding has concluded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71737, Dec. 30, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 29465, May 31, 2001; 69 FR 2264, Jan. 14, 2004; 69 FR 32848, June 14, 2004; 73 FR 63569, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1004" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1004   Amendments and additions.</HEAD>
<P>Any document that has not been provided to other parties in electronic form must be identified in an electronic notice and made available for inspection and copying by the potential party, interested governmental participant, or party responsible for the submission of the document within five days after it has been requested unless some other time is approved by the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer or the Presiding Officer designated for the high-level waste proceeding. The time allowed under this paragraph will be stayed pending Officer action on a motion to extend the time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71737, Dec. 30, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1005" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1005   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>The following material is excluded from the requirement to provide electronic access, either pursuant to § 2.1003, or through derivative discovery pursuant to § 2.1019(i)—
</P>
<P>(a) Official notice materials;
</P>
<P>(b) Reference books and text books;
</P>
<P>(c) Material pertaining exclusively to administration, such as material related to budgets, financial management, personnel, office space, general distribution memoranda, or procurement, except for the scope of work on a procurement related to repository siting, construction, or operation, or to the transportation of spent nuclear fuel or high-level waste;
</P>
<P>(d) Press clippings and press releases;
</P>
<P>(e) Junk mail;
</P>
<P>(f) References cited in contractor reports that are readily available;
</P>
<P>(g) Classified material subject to subpart I of this part;
</P>
<P>(h) Readily available references, such as journal articles and proceedings, which may be subject to copyright.
</P>
<P>(i) Correspondence between a potential party, interested governmental participant, or party and the Congress of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71738, Dec. 30, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 32848, June 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1006" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1006   Privilege.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the requirements in § 2.1003(a)(4), the traditional discovery privileges recognized in NRC adjudicatory proceedings and the exceptions from disclosure in § 2.390 may be asserted by potential parties, interested States, local governmental bodies, Federally-recognized Indian Tribes, and parties. In addition to Federal agencies, the deliberative process privilege may also be asserted by States, local governmental bodies, and Federally-recognized Indian Tribes.
</P>
<P>(b) Any document for which a claim of privilege is asserted, but is denied in whole or in part by the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer or the Presiding Officer, must be provided in electronic form by the party, interested governmental participant, or potential party that asserted the claim to—
</P>
<P>(1) The other participants; or
</P>
<P>(2) To the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer or to the Presiding Officer, for entry into a Protective Order file, if the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer or the Presiding Officer so directs under §§ 2.1010(b) or 2.1018(c).
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding any availability of the deliberative process privilege under paragraph (a) of this section, circulated drafts not otherwise privileged shall be provided for electronic access pursuant to § 2.1003(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71738, Dec. 30, 1998; 64 FR 15920, Apr. 2, 1999, as amended at 69 FR 2265, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1007" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1007   Access.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A system to provide electronic access to the Licensing Support Network shall be provided at the headquarters of DOE, and at all DOE Local Public Document Rooms established in the vicinity of the likely candidate site for a geologic repository, beginning in the pre-license application phase.
</P>
<P>(2) A system to provide electronic access to the Licensing Support Network shall be provided at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room beginning in the pre-license application phase.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Public availability of paper and electronic copies of the records of NRC and DOE, as well as duplication fees, and fee waiver for those records, is governed by the regulations of the respective agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71738, Dec. 30, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 48949, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1008" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1008   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1009" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1009   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each potential party, interested governmental participant, or party shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Designate an official who will be responsible for administration of its responsibility to provide electronic files of documentary material ;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish procedures to implement the requirements in § 2.1003;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide training to its staff on the procedures for implementation of the responsibility to provide electronic files of documentary material;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that all documents carry the submitter's unique identification number;
</P>
<P>(5) Cooperate with the advisory review process established by the NRC under § 2.1011(d).
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible official designated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall certify to the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer that the procedures specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section have been implemented, and that to the best of his or her knowledge, the documentary material specified in § 2.1003 has been identified and made electronically available. The initial certification must be made at the time the participant is required to comply with § 2.1003. The responsible official for the DOE shall also update this certification at the time DOE submits the license application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71738, Dec. 30, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 29466, May 31, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1010" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1010   Pre-License Application Presiding Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Commission may designate one or more members of the Commission, or an atomic safety and licensing board, or a named officer who has been delegated final authority on the matter to serve as the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer to rule on disputes over the electronic availability of documents during the pre-license application phase, including disputes relating to privilege, and disputes relating to the implementation of the recommendations of the Advisory Review Panel established under § 2.1011(d).
</P>
<P>(2) The Pre-License Application Presiding Officer shall be designated at such time during the pre-license application phase as the Commission finds it appropriate, but in any event no later than fifteen days after the DOE certification of initial compliance under § 2.1009(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The Pre-License Application Presiding Officer shall rule on any claim of document withholding to determine—
</P>
<P>(1) Whether it is documentary material within the scope of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the material is excluded under § 2.1005;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the material is privileged or otherwise excepted from disclosure under § 2.1006;
</P>
<P>(4) If privileged, whether it is an absolute or qualified privilege;
</P>
<P>(5) If qualified, whether the document should be disclosed because it is necessary to a proper decision in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the material should be disclosed under a protective order containing such protective terms and conditions (including affidavits of nondisclosure) as may be necessary and appropriate to limit the disclosure to potential parties, interested governmental participants, and parties in the proceeding, or to their qualified witnesses and counsel.
</P>
<P>(i) The Pre-License Application Presiding Officer may issue an order requiring disclosure of Safeguards Information if—
</P>
<P>(A) The Pre-License Application Presiding Officer finds that the individual seeking access to Safeguards Information in order to participate in an NRC adjudication has the requisite “need to know,” as defined in 10 CFR 73.2;
</P>
<P>(B) The individual has undergone an FBI criminal history records check, unless exempt under 10 CFR 73.22(b)(3) or 73.23(b)(3), as applicable, by submitting fingerprints to the NRC Office of Administration, Security Processing Unit, Mail Stop T-6E46, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, and otherwise following the procedures in 10 CFR 73.57(d) for submitting and processing fingerprints. However, before a final adverse determination by the NRC Office of Administration on an individual's criminal history records check is made, the individual shall be afforded the protections provided by 10 CFR 73.57; and
</P>
<P>(C) The NRC Office of Administration has found, based upon a background check, that the individual is trustworthy and reliable, unless exempt under 10 CFR 73.22(b)(3) or 73.23(b)(3), as applicable. In addition to the protections provided by 10 CFR 73.57 for adverse determinations based on criminal history records checks, the Office of Administration must take the following actions before making a final adverse determination on an individual's background check for trustworthiness and reliability. The Office of Administration will:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For the purpose of assuring correct and complete information, provide to the individual any records, in addition to those required to be provided under 10 CFR 73.57(e)(1), that were considered in the trustworthiness and reliability determination;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Resolve any challenge by the individual to the completeness or accuracy of the records described in § 2.1010(b)(6)(i)(C)(1). The individual may make this challenge by submitting information and/or an explanation to the Office of Administration. The challenge must be submitted within 10 days of the distribution of the records described in § 2.1010(b)(6)(i)(C)(1), and the Office of Administration must promptly resolve any challenge.
</P>
<P>(D) Individuals seeking access to Safeguards Information to participate in an NRC adjudication for whom the NRC Office of Administration has made a final adverse determination on trustworthiness and reliability may submit a request to the Chief Administrative Judge for review of the adverse determination. Upon receiving such a request, the Chief Administrative Judge shall designate an officer other than the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer to review the adverse determination. For purposes of review, the adverse determination must be in writing and set forth the grounds for the determination. The request for review shall be served on the NRC staff and may include additional information for review by the designated officer. The request must be filed within 15 days after receipt of the adverse determination by the person against whom the adverse determination has been made. Within 10 days of receipt of the request for review and any additional information, the NRC staff will file a response indicating whether the request and additional information has caused the NRC Office of Administration to reverse its adverse determination. The designated officer may reverse the Office of Administration's final adverse determination only if the officer finds, based on all the information submitted, that the adverse determination constitutes an abuse of discretion. The designated officer's decision must be rendered within 15 days after receipt of the staff filing indicating that the request for review and additional information has not changed the NRC Office of Administration's adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Pre-License Application Presiding Officer may include in an order any protective terms and conditions (including affidavits of nondisclosure) as may be necessary and appropriate to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(iii) When Safeguards Information, protected from disclosure under Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, is received and possessed by a potential party, interested government participant, or party, other than the NRC staff, it shall also be protected according to the requirements of § 73.21 and the requirements of §§ 73.22 or 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Pre-License Application Presiding Officer may also prescribe such additional procedures as will effectively safeguard and prevent disclosure of Safeguards Information to unauthorized persons with minimum impairment of the procedural rights which would be available if Safeguards Information were not involved.
</P>
<P>(v) In addition to any other sanction that may be imposed by the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer for violation of a provision for the protection of Safeguards Information from unauthorized disclosure that is contained in an order, the entity in violation may be subject to a civil penalty imposed pursuant to § 2.205.
</P>
<P>(vi) For the purpose of imposing the criminal penalties contained in Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, a provision for the protection of Safeguards Information from unauthorized disclosure that is contained in an order issued pursuant to this paragraph is considered to be issued under Section 161b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon a final determination that the material is relevant, and not privileged, exempt from disclosure, or otherwise exempt from production under § 2.1005, the potential party, interested governmental participant, or party who asserted the claim of withholding must make the document available in accordance with the provisions of this subpart within five days.
</P>
<P>(d) The service of all pleadings and answers, orders, and decisions during the pre-license application phase shall be made according to the procedures specified in § 2.1013(c) and entered into the pre-license application electronic docket.
</P>
<P>(e) The Pre-License Application presiding officer possesses all the general powers specified in §§ 2.319 and 2.321(c).
</P>
<P>(f) The Commission, in designating the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer in accordance with paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section, shall specify the jurisdiction of the Officer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71738, Dec. 30, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 29466, May 31, 2001; 69 FR 2265, Jan. 14, 2004; 73 FR 63569, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1011" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1011   Management of electronic information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Electronic document production and the electronic docket are subject to the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The NRC, DOE, parties, and potential parties participating in accordance with the provision of this subpart shall be responsible for obtaining the computer system necessary to comply with the requirements for electronic document production and service.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC, DOE, parties, and potential parties participating in accordance with the provision of this subpart shall comply with the following standards in the design of the computer systems necessary to comply with the requirements for electronic document production and service:
</P>
<P>(i) The participants shall make textual (or, where non-text, image) versions of their documents available on a web accessible server which is able to be canvassed by web indexing software (<I>i.e.</I>, a “robot”, “spider”, “crawler”) and the participant system must make both data files and log files accessible to this software.
</P>
<P>(ii) The participants shall make bibliographic header data available in an HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) accessible, ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) and SQL (Structured Query Language)-compliant (ANSI IX3.135-1992/ISO 9075-1992) database management system (DBMS). Alternatively, the structured data containing the bibliographic header may be made available in a standard database readable (e.g., XML (Extensible Markup Language <I>http://www.w3.org/xml/</I>), comma delimited, or comma separated value (.csv)) file.
</P>
<P>(iii) Textual material must be formatted to comply with the ISO/IEC 8859-1 character set and be in one of the following acceptable formats: ASCII, native word processing (Word, WordPerfect), PDF Normal, or HTML.
</P>
<P>(iv) Image files must be formatted as TIFF CCITT G4 for bi-tonal images or PNG (Portable Network Graphics) per [<I>http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-png-multi.html</I>]) format for grey-scale or color images, or PDF (Portable Document Format—Image). TIFF, PDF, or PNG images will be stored at 300 dpi (dots per inch) or greater, grey scale images at 150 dpi or greater with eight bits of tonal depth, and color images at 150 dpi or greater with 24 bits of color depth. Images found on participant machines will be stored as single image-per-page to facilitate retrieval of no more than a single page, or alternatively, images may be stored in an image-per-document format if software is incorporated in the web server that allows image-per-page representation and delivery.
</P>
<P>(v) The participants shall programmatically link, preferably via hyperlink or some other automated process, the bibliographic header record with the text or image file it represents. Each participant's system must afford the LSN software enough information to allow a text or image file to be identified to the bibliographic data that describes it.
</P>
<P>(vi) To facilitate data exchange, participants shall adhere to hardware and software standards, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Network access must be HTTP/1.1 [<I>http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc2068.html</I>] over TCP (Transmission Control Protocol, [<I>http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc793.html</I>]) over IP (Internet Protocol, [<I>http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc791.html</I>]).
</P>
<P>(B) Associating server names with IP addresses must follow the DNS (Domain Name System), [<I>http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc1034.html</I>] and [<I>http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc1035.html</I>].
</P>
<P>(C) Web page construction must be HTML [<I>http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-html40/</I>]. 
</P>
<P>(D) Electronic mail (e-mail) exchange between e-mail servers must be SMTP (Simple Mail Transport Protocol, [<I>http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc821.html</I>]). 
</P>
<P>(E) Format of an electronic mail message must be per [<I>http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc822.html</I>] optionally extended by MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) per [<I>http://www.faqs.org/rfcs/rfc2045.html</I>]) to accommodate multipurpose e-mail.
</P>
<P>(c) The Licensing Support Network shall be coordinated by the LSN Administrator, who shall be designated before the start of the pre-license application phase. The LSN Administrator shall have the responsibility to—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify technical and policy issues related to implementation of the LSN for LSN Advisory Review Panel and Commission consideration;
</P>
<P>(2) Address the consensus advice of the LSN Advisory Review Panel under paragraph (e)(1) of this section that is consistent with the requirements of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify any problems experienced by participants regarding LSN availability, including the availability of individual participant's data, and provide a recommendation to resolve any such problems to the participant(s) and the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer relative to the resolution of any disputes regarding LSN availability, including disputes on the availability of an individual participant's data;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify any problems regarding the integrity of documentary material certified in accordance with § 2.1009(b) by the participants to be in the LSN, and provide a recommendation to resolve any such problems to the participant(s) and the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer relative to the resolution of any disputes regarding the integrity of documentary material;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide periodic reports to the Commission on the status of LSN functionality and operability.
</P>
<P>(6) Evaluate LSN participant compliance with the basic design standards in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and provide for individual variances from the design standards to accommodate changes in technology or problems identified during initial operability testing of the individual documentary collection websites or the “central LSN site”.
</P>
<P>(7) Issue guidance for LSN participants on how best to comply with the design standards in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary of the Commission shall reconstitute the LSS Advisory Review Panel as the LSN Advisory Review Panel, composed of the interests currently represented on the LSS Advisory Review Panel. The Secretary of the Commission shall have the authority to appoint additional representatives to the LSN Advisory Review Panel consistent with the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. app. I, giving particular consideration to potential parties, parties, and interested governmental participants who were not members of the NRC HLW Licensing Support System Advisory Review Panel.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The LSN Advisory Review Panel shall provide advice to—
</P>
<P>(i) NRC on the fundamental issues of the type of computer system necessary to access the Licensing Support Network effectively under paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary of the Commission on the operation and maintenance of the electronic docket established for the HLW geologic repository licensing proceeding under the Commission's Rules of Practice (10 CFR part 2).
</P>
<P>(iii) The LSN Administrator on solutions to improve the functioning of the LSN;
</P>
<P>(2) The responsibilities of the LSN Advisory Review Panel shall include advice on—
</P>
<P>(i) Format standards for providing electronic access to the documentary material certified by each participant to be made available in the LSN to the other parties, interested governmental participants, or potential parties;
</P>
<P>(ii) The procedures and standards for the electronic transmission of filings, orders, and decisions during both the pre-license application phase and the high-level waste licensing proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) Other duties as specified in this subpart or as directed by the Secretary of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71739, Dec. 30, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 29466, May 31, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1012" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1012   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Department of Energy fails to make its initial certification at least six months prior to tendering the application, upon receipt of the tendered application, notwithstanding the provisions of § 2.101(f)(3), the Director of the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards will not docket the application until at least six months have elapsed from the time of the certification. The Director may determine that the tendered application is not acceptable for docketing under this subpart if the application is not accompanied by an updated certification pursuant to § 2.1009(b), or if the Secretary of the Commission determines that the application is not submitted on optical storage media in a format consistent with NRC regulations and guidance, or for non-compliance with any other requirements identified in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A person, including a potential party given access to the Licensing Support Network under this subpart, may not be granted party status under § 2.309, or status as an interested governmental participant under § 2.315, if it cannot demonstrate substantial and timely compliance with the requirements of § 2.1003 at the time it requests participation in the HLW licensing proceeding under § 2.309 or § 2.315.
</P>
<P>(2) A person denied party status or interested governmental participant status under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may request party status or interested governmental participant status upon a showing of subsequent compliance with the requirements of § 2.1003. Admission of such a party or interested governmental participant under §§ 2.309 or 2.315, respectively, is conditioned on accepting the status of the proceeding at the time of admission.
</P>
<P>(c) The Presiding Officer shall not make a finding of substantial and timely compliance pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section for any person who is not in compliance with all applicable orders of the Pre-License Application Presiding Officer designated pursuant to § 2.1010.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 7796, Feb. 26, 1991; 63 FR 71739, Dec. 30, 1998; 66 FR 29466, May 31, 2001; 69 FR 2265, Jan. 14, 2004; 69 FR 32848, June 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1013" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1013   Use of the electronic docket during the proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) As specified in § 2.303, the Secretary of the Commission will maintain the official docket of the proceeding on the application for construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, and for applications for a license to receive and possess high level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this Chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of the Commission will establish an electronic docket to contain the official record materials of the high-level radioactive waste repository licensing proceeding in searchable full text, or, for material that is not suitable for entry in searchable full text, by header and image, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Absent good cause, all exhibits tendered during the hearing must have been made available to the parties in electronic form before the commencement of that portion of the hearing in which the exhibit will be offered. The electronic docket will contain a list of all exhibits, showing where in the transcript each was marked for identification and where it was received into evidence or rejected. For any hearing sessions recorded stenographically or by other means, transcripts will be entered into the electronic docket on a daily basis in order to afford next-day availability at the hearing. However, for any hearing sessions recorded on videotape or other video medium, if a copy of the video recording is made available to all parties on a daily basis that affords next-day availability at the hearing, a transcript of the session prepared from the video recording will be entered into the electronic docket within twenty-four (24) hours of the time the transcript is tendered to the electronic docket by the transcription service.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) All filings in the adjudicatory proceeding on the application for a high-level radioactive waste geologic repository under part 60 or 63 of this chapter shall be transmitted by the submitter to the Presiding Officer, parties, and Secretary of the Commission, according to the following requirements—
</P>
<P>(i) “Simple documents” must be transmitted electronically via EIE;
</P>
<P>(ii) “Large documents” must be transmitted electronically in multiple transmissions of 50 megabytes or less each via EIE;
</P>
<P>(iii) “Complex documents”:
</P>
<P>(A) Those portions that can be electronically submitted through the EIE, in 50 MB or less segments, must be transmitted electronically, along with a transmittal letter; and
</P>
<P>(B) Those portions that are not capable of being transmitted electronically must be submitted on optical storage media which must also include those portions of the document that had been or will be transmitted electronically.
</P>
<P>(iv) Electronic submissions must have the following resolution—
</P>
<P>(A) Electronic submissions of files created after January 1, 2004 must have 300 dots per inch (dpi) as the minimum resolution for bi-tonal, color, and grayscale, except in limited circumstances where submitters may need to use an image scanned before January 1, 2004, in a document created after January 1, 2004, or the scanning process for a large, one-page image may not successfully complete at the 300 dpi standard resolution.
</P>
<P>(B) Electronic submissions of files created before January 1, 2004, or electronic submissions created after January 1, 2004, which cannot meet the 300 dpi standard for color and grayscale, must meet the standard for documents placed on LSN participant Web sites in § 2.1011(b)(2)(iv) of this subpart, which is 150 dpi for color and grayscale documents and 300 dpi for bi-tonal documents.
</P>
<P>(v) Electronic submissions must be generated in the appropriate PDF output format by using:
</P>
<P>(A) PDF—Formatted Text and Graphics for textual documents converted from native applications;
</P>
<P>(B) PDF—Searchable Image (Exact) for textual documents converted from scanned documents; and
</P>
<P>(C) PDF—Image Only for graphic-, image-, and forms-oriented documents. In addition, Tagged Image File Format (TIFF) images and the results of spreadsheet applications must to be converted to PDF, except in those rare instances where PDF conversion is not practicable.
</P>
<P>(vi) Electronic submissions must not rely on hyperlinks to other documents or Web sites for completeness or access except for hyperlinks that link to material within the same PDF file. If the submittal contains hyperlinks to other documents or Web sites, then it must include a disclaimer to the effect that the hyperlinks may be inoperable or are not essential to the use of the filing. Information contained in hyperlinks to a Web site on the Internet or to another PDF file, that is necessary for the completeness of a filing, must be submitted in its entirety in the filing or as an attachment to the filing.
</P>
<P>(vii) All electronic submissions must be free of author-imposed security restrictions.
</P>
<P>(2) Filings required to be served shall be served upon either the parties and interested governmental participants, or their designated representatives. When a party or interested governmental participant has appeared by attorney, service must be made upon the attorney of record.
</P>
<P>(3) Service upon a party or interested governmental participant is completed when the sender receives electronic acknowledgment (“delivery receipt”) that the electronic submission has been placed in the recipient's electronic mailbox.
</P>
<P>(4) Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom served and the manner and date of service, shall be shown for each document filed, by—
</P>
<P>(i) Electronic acknowledgment (“delivery receipt”);
</P>
<P>(ii) The affidavit of the person making the service; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The certificate of counsel.
</P>
<P>(5) All Presiding Officer and Commission issuances and orders will be transmitted electronically to the parties and interested governmental participants.
</P>
<P>(d) Online access to the electronic docket, including a Protective Order File if authorized by a Presiding Officer, shall be provided to the Presiding Officer, the representatives of the parties and interested governmental participants, and the witnesses while testifying, for use during the hearing. Use of paper copy and other images will also be permitted at the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71739, Dec. 30, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 55788, Nov. 2, 2001; 69 FR 2265, Jan. 14, 2004; 69 FR 32849, June 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1015" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1015   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No appeals from any Pre-License Application Presiding Officer or Presiding Officer order or decision issued under this subpart are permitted, except as prescribed in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of appeal from a Pre-License Application presiding officer order issued under § 2.1010, a presiding officer prehearing conference order issued under § 2.1021, a presiding officer order granting or denying a motion for summary disposition issued in accordance with § 2.1025, or a presiding officer order granting or denying a petition to amend one or more contentions under § 2.309, must be filed with the Commission no later than ten (10) days after service of the order. A supporting brief must accompany the notice of appeal. Any other party, interested governmental participant, or potential party may file a brief in opposition to the appeal no later than ten (10) days after service of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) Appeals from a Presiding Officer initial decision or partial initial decision must be filed and briefed before the Commission in accordance with the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of appeal.</I> Within ten (10) days after service of an initial decision, any party may take an appeal to the Commission by filing a notice of appeal. The notice shall specify:
</P>
<P>(i) The party taking the appeal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The decision being appealed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing appellant's brief.</I> Each appellant shall file a brief supporting its position on appeal within thirty (30) days (40 days if Commission staff is the appellant) after the filing of notice required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Filing responsive brief.</I> Any party who is not an appellant may file a brief in support of or in opposition to the appeal within thirty (30) days after the period has expired for the filing and service of the brief of all appellants. Commission staff may file a responsive brief within forty (40) days after the period has expired for the filing and service of the briefs of all appellants. A responding party shall file a single responsive brief regardless of the number of appellants' briefs filed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Brief content.</I> A brief in excess of ten (10) pages must contain a table of contents, with page references, and a table of cases (alphabetically arranged), statutes, regulations, and other authorities cited, with references to the pages of the brief where they are cited.
</P>
<P>(i) An appellant's brief must clearly identify the errors of fact or law that are the subject of the appeal. An intervenor-appellant's brief must be confined to issues which the intervenor-appellant placed in controversy or sought to place in controversy in the proceeding. For each issue appealed, the precise portion of the record relied upon in support of the assertion of error must also be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each responsive brief must contain a reference to the precise portion of the record which supports each factual assertion made.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Brief length.</I> A party shall not file a brief in excess of seventy (70) pages in length, exclusive of pages containing the table of contents, table of citations and any addendum containing statutes, rules, regulations, etc. A party may request an increase of this page limit for good cause. Such a request shall be made by motion submitted at least seven (7) days before the date upon which the brief is due for filing and shall specify the enlargement requested.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Certificate of service.</I> All documents filed under this section must be accompanied by a certificate reflecting service upon all other parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Failure to comply.</I> A brief which in form or content is not in substantial compliance with the provisions of this section may be stricken, either on motion of a party or by the Commission on its own initiative.
</P>
<P>(d) When, in the judgment of a Pre-License Application presiding officer or presiding officer, prompt appellate review of an order not immediately appealable under paragraph (b) of this section is necessary to prevent detriment to the public interest or unusual delay or expense, the Pre-License Application presiding officer or presiding officer may refer the ruling promptly to the Commission, and shall provide notice of this referral to the parties, interested governmental participants, or potential parties. The parties, interested governmental participants, or potential parties may also request that the Pre-License Application presiding officer or presiding officer certify under § 2.319 rulings not immediately appealable under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Unless otherwise ordered, the filing of an appeal, petition for review, referral, or request for certification of a ruling shall not stay the proceeding or extend the time for the performance of any act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 7797, Feb. 26, 1991, as amended at 56 FR 29410, June 27, 1991; 69 FR 2265, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1017" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1017   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>In computing any period of time, the day of the act, event, or default after which the designated period of time begins to run is not included. The last day of the period so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday at the place where the action or event is to occur, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday, nor holiday. Whenever a party, potential party, or interested governmental participant, has the right or is required to do some act within a prescribed period after the service of a notice or other document upon it, one day shall be added to the prescribed period. If the electronic docket is unavailable for more than four access hours of any day that would be counted in the computation of time, that day will not be counted in the computation of time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 71740, Dec. 30, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1018" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1018   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Parties, potential parties, and interested governmental participants in the high-level waste licensing proceeding may obtain discovery by one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) Access to the documentary material made available pursuant to § 2.1003;
</P>
<P>(ii) Entry upon land for inspection, access to raw data, or other purposes pursuant to § 2.1020;
</P>
<P>(iii) Access to, or the production of, copies of documentary material for which bibliographic headers only have been submitted pursuant to § 2.1003(a);
</P>
<P>(iv) Depositions upon oral examination pursuant to § 2.1019;
</P>
<P>(v) Requests for admissions pursuant to § 2.708;
</P>
<P>(vi) Informal requests for information not made electronically available, such as the names of witnesses and the subjects they plan to address; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Interrogatories and depositions upon written questions, as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Interrogatories and depositions upon written questions may be authorized by order of the discovery master appointed under paragraph (g) of this section, or if no discovery master has been appointed, by order of the Presiding Officer, in the event that the parties are unable, after informal good faith efforts, to resolve a dispute in a timely fashion concerning the production of information.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Parties, potential parties, and interested governmental participants, pursuant to the methods set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, may obtain discovery regarding any matter, not privileged, which is relevant to the licensing of the likely candidate site for a geologic repository, whether it relates to the claim or defense of the person seeking discovery or to the claim or defense of any other person. Except for discovery pursuant to §§ 2.1018(a)(2) and 2.1019 of this subpart, all other discovery shall begin during the pre-license application phase. Discovery pursuant to §§ 2.1018(a)(2) and 2.1019 of this subpart shall begin after the issuance of the first pre-hearing conference order under § 2.1021 of this subpart, and shall be limited to the issues defined in that order or subsequent amendments to the order. It is not ground for objection that the information sought will be inadmissible at the hearing if the information sought appears reasonably calculated to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) A party, potential party, or interested governmental participant may obtain discovery of documentary material otherwise discoverable under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and prepared in anticipation of, or for the hearing by, or for another party's, potential party's, or interested governmental participant's representative (including its attorney, surety, indemnitor, insurer, or similar agent) only upon a showing that the party, potential party, or interested governmental participant seeking discovery has substantial need of the materials in the preparation of its case and that it is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials by other means. In ordering discovery of these materials when the required showing has been made, the Presiding Officer shall protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of an attorney or other representative of a party, potential party, or interested governmental participant concerning the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Upon motion by a party, potential party, interested governmental participant, or the person from whom discovery is sought, and for good cause shown, the presiding officer may make any order that justice requires to protect a party, potential party, interested governmental participant, or other person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden, delay, or expense, including one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) That the discovery not be had;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place;
</P>
<P>(iii) That the discovery may be had only by a method of discovery other than that selected by the party, potential party, or interested governmental participant seeking discovery;
</P>
<P>(iv) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters;
</P>
<P>(v) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(vi) That, subject to the provisions of § 2.390 of this part, a trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or
</P>
<P>(vii) That studies and evaluations not be prepared.
</P>
<P>(2) If the motion for a protective order is denied in whole or in part, the presiding officer may, on such terms and conditions as are just, order that any party, potential party, interested governmental participant or other person provide or permit discovery.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, and unless the Presiding Officer upon motion, for the convenience of parties, potential parties, interested governmental participants, and witnesses and in the interest of justice, orders otherwise, methods of discovery may be used in any sequence, and the fact that a party, potential party, or interested governmental participant is conducting discovery, whether by deposition or otherwise, shall not operate to delay any other party's, potential party's, or interested governmental participant's discovery.
</P>
<P>(e) A party, potential party, or interested governmental participant who has made available in electronic form all material relevant to any discovery request or who has responded to a request for discovery with a response that was complete when made is under no duty to supplement its response to include information thereafter acquired, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) To the extent that written interrogatories are authorized pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a party or interested governmental participant is under a duty to seasonably supplement its response to any question directly addressed to (i) the identity and location of persons having knowledge of discoverable matters, and (ii) the identity of each person expected to be called as an expert witness at the hearing, the subject matter on which the witness is expected to testify, and the substance of the witness' testimony.
</P>
<P>(2) A party, potential party, or interested governmental participant is under a duty seasonably to amend a prior response if it obtains information upon the basis of which (i) it knows that the response was incorrect when made, or (ii) it knows that the response though correct when made is no longer true and the circumstances are such that a failure to amend the response is in substance a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(3) A duty to supplement responses may be imposed by order of the Presiding Officer or agreement of the parties, potential parties, and interested governmental participants.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) If a deponent of a party, potential party, or interested governmental participant upon whom a request for discovery is served fails to respond or objects to the request, or any part thereof, the party, potential party, or interested governmental participant submitting the request or taking the deposition may move the Presiding Officer, within five days after the date of the response or after failure to respond to the request, for an order compelling a response in accordance with the request. The motion shall set forth the nature of the questions or the request, the response or objection of the party, potential party, interested governmental participant, or other person upon whom the request was served, and arguments in support of the motion. For purposes of this paragraph, an evasive or incomplete answer or response shall be treated as a failure to answer or respond. Failure to answer or respond shall not be excused on the ground that the discovery sought is objectionable unless the person, party, potential party, or interested governmental participant failing to answer or respond has applied for a protective order pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In ruling on a motion made pursuant to this section, the Presiding Officer may make such a protective order as it is authorized to make on a motion made pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) An independent request for issuance of a subpoena may be directed to a nonparty for production of documents. This section does not apply to requests for the testimony of the NRC regulatory staff under § 2.709.
</P>
<P>(g) The presiding officer, under § 2.322, may appoint a discovery master to resolve disputes between parties concerning informal requests for information as provided in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) Discovery under this section of documentary material including Safeguards Information referred to in Sections 147 and 181 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, will be according to the provisions in § 2.1010(b)(6)(i) through (b)(6)(vi).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 7797, Feb. 26, 1991; 63 FR 71740, Dec. 30, 1998; 69 FR 2266, Jan. 14, 2004; 73 FR 63570, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1019" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1019   Depositions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party or interested governmental participant desiring to take the testimony of any person by deposition on oral examination shall, without leave of the Commission or the Presiding Officer, give reasonable notice in writing to every other party and interested governmental participant, to the person to be examined, and to the Presiding Officer of the proposed time and place of taking the deposition; the name and address of each person to be examined, if known, or if the name is not known, a general description sufficient to identify him or her or the class or group to which he or she belongs, the matters upon which each person will be examined and the name or descriptive title and address of the officer before whom the deposition is to be taken.
</P>
<P>(b) Within the United States, a deposition may be taken before any officer authorized to administer oaths by the laws of the United States or of the place where the examination is held. Outside of the United States, a deposition may be taken before a secretary of an embassy or legation, a consul general, vice consul or consular agent of the United States, or a person authorized to administer oaths designated by the Commission. Depositions may be conducted by telephone or by video teleconference at the option of the party or interested governmental participant taking the deposition.
</P>
<P>(c) The deponent shall be sworn or shall affirm before any questions are put to him or her. Examination and cross-examination shall proceed as at a hearing. Each question propounded shall be recorded and the answer taken down in the words of the witness. Objections on questions of evidence shall be noted in short form without the arguments. The officer shall not decide on the competency, materiality, or relevancy of evidence but shall record the evidence subject to objection. Objections on questions of evidence not made before the officer shall not be deemed waived unless the ground of the objection is one which might have been obviated or removed if presented at that time.
</P>
<P>(d) When the testimony is fully transcribed, the deposition shall be submitted to the deponent for examination and signature unless the deponent is ill or cannot be found or refuses to sign. The officer shall certify the deposition or, if the deposition is not signed by the deponent, shall certify the reasons for the failure to sign, and shall promptly transmit an electronic copy of the deposition to the Secretary of the Commission for entry into the electronic docket.
</P>
<P>(e) Where the deposition is to be taken on written questions as authorized under § 2.1018(a)(2), the party or interested governmental participant taking the deposition shall electronically serve a copy of the questions, showing each question separately and consecutively numbered, on every other party and interested governmental participant with a notice stating the name and address of the person who is to answer them, and the name, description, title, and address of the officer before whom they are to be asked. Within ten days after service, any other party or interested governmental participant may serve cross-questions. The questions, cross-questions, and answers shall be recorded and signed, and the deposition certified, returned, and transmitted in electronic form to the Secretary of the Commission for entry into the electronic docket as in the case of a deposition on oral examination.
</P>
<P>(f) A deposition will not become a part of the evidentiary record in the hearing unless received in evidence. If only part of a deposition is offered in evidence by a party or interested governmental participant, any other party or interested governmental participant may introduce any other parts. A party or interested governmental participant shall not be deemed to make a person its own witness for any purpose by taking his or her deposition.
</P>
<P>(g) A deponent whose deposition is taken and the officer taking a deposition shall be entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in the district courts of the United States, to be paid by the party or interested governmental participant at whose instance the deposition is taken.
</P>
<P>(h) The deponent may be accompanied, represented, and advised by legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) After receiving written notice of the deposition under paragraph (a) or paragraph (e) of this section, and ten days before the scheduled date of the deposition, the deponent shall submit an electronic index of all documents in his or her possession, relevant to the subject matter of the deposition, including the categories of documents set forth in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, to all parties and interested governmental participants. The index shall identify those records which have already been made available electronically. All documents that are not identical to documents already made available electronically, whether by reason of subsequent modification or by the addition of notations, shall be treated as separate documents.
</P>
<P>(2) The following material is excluded from the initial requirements of § 2.1003 to be made available electronically, but is subject to derivative discovery under paragraph (i)(1) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) Personal records;
</P>
<P>(ii) Travel vouchers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Speeches;
</P>
<P>(iv) Preliminary drafts;
</P>
<P>(v) Marginalia.
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to paragraph (i)(6) of this section, any party or interested governmental participant may request from the deponent a paper copy of any or all of the documents on the index that have not already been provided electronically.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to paragraph (i)(6) of this section, the deponent shall bring a paper copy of all documents on the index that the deposing party or interested governmental participant requests that have not already been provided electronically to an oral deposition conducted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, or in the case of a deposition taken on written questions pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, shall submit such documents with the certified deposition.
</P>
<P>(5) Subject to paragraph (i)(6) of this section, a party or interested governmental participant may request that any or all documents on the index that have not already been provided electronically, and on which it intends to rely at hearing, be made electronically available by the deponent.
</P>
<P>(6) The deposing party or interested governmental participant shall assume the responsibility for the obligations set forth in paragraphs (i)(1), (i)(3), (i)(4), and (i)(5) of this section when deposing someone other than a party or interested governmental participant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 7797, Feb. 26, 1991; 63 FR 71740, Dec. 30, 1998; 69 FR 2266, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1020" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1020   Entry upon land for inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party, potential party, or interested governmental participant may serve on any other party, potential party, or interested governmental participant a request to permit entry upon designated land or other property in the possession or control of the party, potential party, or interested governmental participant upon whom the request is served for the purpose of access to raw data, inspection and measuring, surveying, photographing, testing, or sampling the property or any designated object or operation thereon, within the scope of § 2.1018 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The request may be served on any party, potential party, or interested governmental participant without leave of the Commission or the Presiding Officer.
</P>
<P>(c) The request shall describe with reasonable particularity the land or other property to be inspected either by individual item or by category. The request shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner of making the inspection and performing the related acts.
</P>
<P>(d) The party, potential party, or interested governmental participant upon whom the request is served shall serve on the party, potential party, or interested governmental participant submitting the request a written response within ten days after the service of the request. The response shall state, with respect to each item or category, that inspection and related activities will be permitted as requested, unless the request is objected to, in which case the reasons for objection shall be stated. If objection is made to part of an item or category, the part shall be specified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 7797, Feb. 26, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1021" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1021   First prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any proceeding involving an application for a construction authorization for a HLW repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, or an application for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, the Commission or the presiding officer will direct the parties, interested governmental participants and any petitioners for intervention, or their counsel, to appear at a specified time and place, within seventy days after the notice of hearing is published, or such other time as the Commission or the presiding officer may deem appropriate, for a conference to:
</P>
<P>(1) Permit identification of the key issues in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Take any steps necessary for further identification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(3) Consider all intervention petitions to allow the Presiding Officer to make such preliminary or final determination as to the parties and interested governmental participants, as may be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(4) Establish a schedule for further actions in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a discovery schedule for the proceeding taking into account the objective of meeting the three year time schedule specified in section 114(d) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 10134(d).
</P>
<P>(b) The Presiding Officer may order any further formal and informal conferences among the parties and interested governmental participants including teleconferences, to the extent that it considers that such a conference would expedite the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) A prehearing conference held pursuant to this section shall be stenographically reported.
</P>
<P>(d) The Presiding Officer shall enter an order which recites the action taken at the conference, the schedule for further actions in the proceeding, and any agreements by the parties, and which identifies the key issues in the proceeding, makes a preliminary or final determination as to the parties and interested governmental participants in the proceeding, and provides for the submission of status reports on discovery.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 7797, Feb. 26, 1991; 66 FR 55788, Nov. 2, 2001; 69 FR 2266, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1022" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1022   Second prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission or the presiding officer in a proceeding on either an application for construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, or an application for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, shall direct the parties, interested governmental participants, or their counsel to appear at a specified time and place not later than thirty days after the Safety Evaluation Report is issued by the NRC staff for a conference to consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Any amended contentions submitted, which must be reviewed under the criteria in § 2.309(c) of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Simplification, clarification, and specification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(3) The obtaining of stipulations and admissions of fact and of the contents and authenticity of documents to avoid unnecessary proof;
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of witnesses and the limitation of the number of expert witnesses, and other steps to expedite the presentation of evidence;
</P>
<P>(5) The setting of a hearing schedule;
</P>
<P>(6) Establishing a discovery schedule for the proceeding taking into account the objective of meeting the three year time schedule specified in section 114(d) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 10134(d); and
</P>
<P>(7) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) A prehearing conference held pursuant to this section shall be stenographically reported.
</P>
<P>(c) The Presiding Officer shall enter an order which recites the action taken at the conference and the agreements by the parties, limits the issues or defines the matters in controversy to be determined in the proceeding, sets a discovery schedule, and sets the hearing schedule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 7797, Feb. 26, 1991; 69 FR 2266, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1023" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1023   Immediate effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pending review and final decision by the Commission, an initial decision resolving all issues before the presiding officer in favor of issuance or amendment of either an authorization to construct a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geological repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, or a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter will be immediately effective upon issuance except:
</P>
<P>(1) As provided in any order issued in accordance with § 2.342 that stays the effectiveness of an initial decision; or
</P>
<P>(2) As otherwise provided by the Commission in special circumstances.


</P>
<P>(b) The Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, notwithstanding the filing or pendency of an appeal or a petition for review pursuant to § 2.1015 of this subpart, promptly shall issue a construction authorization or a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area, or amendments thereto, following an initial decision resolving all issues before the Presiding Officer in favor of the licensing action, upon making the appropriate licensing findings, except—
</P>
<P>(1) As provided in paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) As provided in any order issued in accordance with § 2.342 of this part that stays the effectiveness of an initial decision; or
</P>
<P>(3) As otherwise provided by the Commission in special circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Before the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards may issue a construction authorization or a license to receive and possess waste at a geologic repository operations area in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, the Commission, in the exercise of its supervisory authority over agency proceedings, shall undertake and complete a supervisory examination of those issues contested in the proceeding before the Presiding Officer to consider whether there is any significant basis for doubting that the facility will be constructed or operated with adequate protection of the public health and safety, and whether the Commission should take action to suspend or to otherwise condition the effectiveness of a Presiding Officer decision that resolves contested issues in a proceeding in favor of issuing a construction authorization or a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area. This supervisory examination is not part of the adjudicatory proceeding. The Commission shall notify the Director in writing when its supervisory examination conducted in accordance with this paragraph has been completed.
</P>
<P>(2) Before the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards issues a construction authorization or a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area, the Commission shall review those issues that have not been contested in the proceeding before the Presiding Officer but about which the Director must make appropriate findings prior to the issuance of such a license. The Director shall issue a construction authorization or a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area only after written notification from the Commission of its completion of its review under this paragraph and of its determination that it is appropriate for the Director to issue such a construction authorization or license. This Commission review of uncontested issues is not part of the adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) No suspension of the effectiveness of a Presiding Officer's initial decision or postponement of the Director's issuance of a construction authorization or license that results from a Commission supervisory examination of contested issues under paragraph (c)(1) of this section or a review of uncontested issues under paragraph (c)(2) of this section will be entered except in writing with a statement of the reasons. Such suspension or postponement will be limited to such period as is necessary for the Commission to resolve the matters at issue. If the supervisory examination results in a suspension of the effectiveness of the Presiding Officer's initial decision under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Commission will take review of the decision sua sponte and further proceedings relative to the contested matters at issue will be in accordance with procedures for participation by the DOE, the NRC staff, or other parties and interested governmental participants to the Presiding Officer proceeding established by the Commission in its written statement of reasons. If a postponement results from a review under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, comments on the uncontested matters at issue may be filed by the DOE within ten days of service of the Commission's written statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14944, Apr. 14, 1989, as amended at 56 FR 7797, Feb. 26, 1991; 66 FR 55789, Nov. 2, 2001; 69 FR 2266, Jan. 14, 2004; 79 FR 66601, Nov. 10, 2014; 86 FR 43401, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1025" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1025   Authority of the Presiding Officer to dispose of certain issues on the pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party may move, with or without supporting affidavits, for a decision by the Presiding Officer in that party's favor as to all or any part of the matters involved in the proceeding. The moving party shall annex to the motion a separate, short, and concise statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends that there is no genuine issue to be heard. Motions may be filed at any time. Any other party may file an answer supporting or opposing the motion, with or without affidavits, within twenty (20) days after service of the motion. The party shall annex to any answer opposing the motion a separate, short, and concise, statement of the material facts as to which it is contended there exists a genuine issue to be heard. All material facts set forth in the statement to be filed by the moving party will be deemed to be admitted unless controverted by the statement required to be filed by the opposing party. The opposing party may, within ten (10) days after service, respond in writing to new facts and arguments presented in any statement filed in support of the motion. No further supporting statements or responses thereto may be entertained. The Presiding Officer may dismiss summarily or hold in abeyance motions filed shortly before the hearing commences or during the hearing if the other parties or the Presiding Officer would be required to divert substantial resources from the hearing in order to respond adequately to the motion.
</P>
<P>(b) Affidavits must set forth those facts that would be admissible in evidence and show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated therein. The Presiding Officer may permit affidavits to be supplemented or opposed by further affidavits. When a motion for summary disposition is made and supported as provided in this section, a party opposing the motion may not rest upon the mere allegations or denials of its answer; its answer by affidavits or as otherwise provided in this section must set forth specific facts showing that there is a genuine issue of fact. If no such answer is filed, the decision sought, if appropriate, must be rendered.
</P>
<P>(c) The Presiding Officer shall render the decision sought if the filings in the proceeding show that there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and that the moving party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law. However, in any proceeding involving a construction authorization for a geologic repository operations area, the procedure described in this section may be used only for the determination of specific subordinate issues and may not be used to determine the ultimate issue as to whether the authorization must be issued.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 7798, Feb. 26, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1026" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1026   Schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the Presiding Officer shall adhere to the schedule set forth in appendix D of this part.


</P>
<P>(b)(1) Pursuant to § 2.307, the presiding officer may approve extensions of no more than fifteen (15) days beyond any required time set forth in this subpart for a filing by a party to the proceeding. Except in the case of exceptional and unforeseen circumstances, requests for extensions of more than fifteen (15) days must be filed no later than five (5) days in advance of the required time set forth in this subpart for a filing by a party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Extensions beyond 15 days must be referred to the Commission. If the Commission does not disapprove the extension within 10 days of receiving the request, the extension will be effective. If the Commission disapproves the extension, the date which was the subject of the extension request will be set for 5 days after the Commission's disapproval action.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Presiding Officer may delay the issuance of an order up to thirty days beyond the time set forth for the issuance in appendix D.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Presiding Officer anticipates that the issuance of an order will not occur until after the thirty day extension specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Presiding Officer shall notify the Commission at least ten days in advance of the scheduled date for the milestone and provide a justification for the delay.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 7798, Feb. 26, 1991, as amended at 69 FR 2266, Jan. 14, 2004; 86 FR 43401, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1027" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.10.23.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1027   Sua sponte.</HEAD>
<P>In any initial decision in a proceeding on an application for a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, or an application for a license to receive and possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 or 63 of this chapter, the Presiding Officer, other than the Commission, shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law on, and otherwise give consideration to, only those matters put into controversy by the parties and determined to be litigable issues in the proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2266, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Hybrid Hearing Procedures for Expansion of Spent Nuclear Fuel Storage Capacity at Civilian Nuclear Power Reactors</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 41670, Oct. 15, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart establish hybrid hearing procedures, as authorized by section 134 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (96 Stat. 2230), to be used at the request of any party in certain contested proceedings on applications for a license or license amendment to expand the spent nuclear fuel storage capacity at the site of a civilian nuclear power plant. These procedures are intended to encourage and expedite onsite expansion of spent nuclear fuel storage capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1103   Scope of subpart K.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this subpart, together with subpart C and applicable provisions of subparts G and L of this part, govern all adjudicatory proceedings on applications filed after January 7, 1983, for a license or license amendment under part 50 or 53 of this chapter, to expand the spent fuel storage capacity at the site of a civilian nuclear power plant, through the use of high density fuel storage racks, fuel rod compaction, the transshipment of spent nuclear fuel to another civilian nuclear power reactor within the same utility system, the construction of additional spent nuclear fuel pool capacity or dry storage capacity, or by other means. This subpart also applies to proceedings on applications for a license under part 72 of this chapter to store spent nuclear fuel in an independent spent fuel storage installation located at the site of a civilian nuclear power reactor. This subpart shall not apply to the first application for a license or license amendment to expand the spent fuel storage capacity at a particular site through the use of a new technology not previously approved by the Commission for use at any other nuclear power plant. This subpart shall not apply to proceedings on applications for transfer of a license issued under part 72 of this chapter. Subpart M of this part applies to license transfer proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2266, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Civilian nuclear power reactor</I> means a civilian nuclear power plant required to be licensed as a utilization facility under section 103 or 104(b) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Spent nuclear fuel</I> means fuel that has been withdrawn from a nuclear reactor following irradiation, the constituent elements of which have not been separated by reprocessing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1107" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1107   Notice of proposed action.</HEAD>
<P>In connection with each application filed after January 7, 1983, for a license or an amendment to a license to expand the spent nuclear fuel storage capacity at the site of a civilian nuclear power plant, for which the Commission has not found that a hearing is required in the public interest, for which an adjudicatory hearing has not yet been convened, and for which a notice of proposed action has not yet been published as of the effective date of this subpart, the Commission will, prior to acting thereon, cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of proposed action in accordance with § 2.105. The notice of proposed action will identify the availability of the hybrid hearing procedures in this subpart, specify that any party may invoke these procedures by filing a timely request for oral argument under § 2.1109, and provide that if a request for oral argument is granted, any hearing held on the application shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1109   Requests for oral argument.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In its request for hearing/petition to intervene filed in accordance with § 2.309 or in the applicant's or the NRC staff's response to a request for a hearing/petition to intervene, any party may invoke the hybrid hearing procedures in this Subpart by requesting an oral argument. If it is determined that a hearing will be held, the presiding officer shall grant a timely request for oral argument.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer may grant an untimely request for oral argument only upon a showing of good cause by the requesting party for failure to file on time and after providing the other parties an opportunity to respond to the untimely request.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer shall issue a written order ruling on any requests for oral argument. If the presiding officer grants a request for oral argument, the order shall include a schedule for discovery and subsequent oral argument with respect to the admitted contentions.
</P>
<P>(c) If no party to the proceeding requests oral argument, or if all untimely requests for oral argument are denied, the presiding officer shall conduct the proceeding in accordance with the subpart under which the proceeding was initially conducted as determined in accordance with § 2.310.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 41670, Oct. 15, 1985, as amended at 69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1113" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1113   Oral argument.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Twenty-five (25) days prior to the date set for oral argument, each party, including the NRC staff, shall submit to the presiding officer a detailed written summary of all the facts, data, and arguments which are known to the party at such time and on which the party proposes to rely at the oral argument either to support or to refute the existence of a genuine and substantial dispute of fact. Each party shall also submit all supporting facts and data in the form of sworn written testimony or other sworn written submission. Each party's written summary and supporting information shall be simultaneously served on all other parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) Ten (10) days prior to the date set for oral argument, each party, including the NRC staff, may submit to the presiding officer a reply limited to addressing whether the written summaries, facts, data, and arguments filed under paragraph (a) of this section support or refute the existence of a genuine and substantial dispute of fact. Each party's reply shall be simultaneously served on all other parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Only facts and data in the form of sworn written testimony or other sworn written submission may be relied on by the parties during oral argument, and the presiding officer shall consider those facts and data only if they are submitted in that form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 41670, Oct. 15, 1985, as amended at 69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1115" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1115   Designation of issues for adjudicatory hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After due consideration of the oral presentation and the written facts and data submitted by the parties and relied on at the oral argument, the presiding officer shall promptly by written order:
</P>
<P>(1) Designate any disputed issues of fact, together with any remaining issues of law, for resolution in an adjudicatory hearing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Dispose of any issues of law or fact not designated for resolution in an adjudicatory hearing.
</P>
<FP>With regard to each issue designated for resolution in an adjudicatory hearing, the presiding officer shall identify the specific facts that are in genuine and substantial dispute, the reason why the decision of the Commission is likely to depend on the resolution of that dispute, and the reason why an adjudicatory hearing is likely to resolve the dispute. With regard to issues not designated for resolution in an adjudicatory hearing, the presiding officer shall include a brief statement of the reasons for the disposition. If the presiding officer finds that there are no disputed issues of fact or law requiring resolution in an adjudicatory hearing, the presiding officer shall also dismiss the proceeding.
</FP>
<P>(b) No issue of law or fact shall be designated for resolution in an adjudicatory hearing unless the presiding officer determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a genuine and substantial dispute of fact which can only be resolved with sufficient accuracy by the introduction of evidence in an adjudicatory hearing; and
</P>
<P>(2) The decision of the Commission is likely to depend in whole or in part on the resolution of that dispute.
</P>
<P>(c) In making a determination under paragraph (b) of this section, the presiding officer shall not consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Any issue relating to the design, construction, or operation of any civilian nuclear power reactor already licensed to operate at the site, or any civilian nuclear power reactor for which a construction permit has been granted at the site, unless the presiding officer determines that any such issue substantially affects the design, construction, or operation of the facility or activity for which a license application, authorization, or amendment to expand the spent nuclear fuel storage capacity is being considered; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any siting or design issue fully considered and decided by the Commission in connection with the issuance of a construction permit or operating license for a civilian nuclear power reactor at that site, unless (i) such issue results from any revision of siting or design criteria by the Commission following such decision; and (ii) the presiding officer determines that such issue substantially affects the design, construction, or operation of the facility or activity for which a license application, authorization, or amendment to expand the spent nuclear fuel storage capacity is being considered.
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) of this section shall apply only with respect to licenses, authorizations, or amendments to licenses or authorizations applied for under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, before December 31, 2005.
</P>
<P>(e) Unless the presiding officer disposes of all issues and dismisses the proceeding, appeals from the presiding officer's order disposing of issues and designating one or more issues for resolution in an adjudicatory hearing are interlocutory and must await the end of the proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 41671, Oct. 15, 1985; 50 FR 45398, Oct. 31, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1117" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1117   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant bears the ultimate burden of proof (risk of non-persuasion) with respect to the contention in the proceeding. The proponent of the request for an adjudicatory hearing bears the burden of demonstrating under § 2.1115(b) that an adjudicatory hearing should be held.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1119" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.11.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1119   Applicability of other sections.</HEAD>
<P>In proceedings subject to this part, the provisions of subparts A, C, and L of this part are also applicable, except where inconsistent with the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Simplified Hearing Procedures for NRC Adjudications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1200" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1200   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this subpart, together with subpart C of this part, govern all adjudicatory proceedings conducted for the grant, renewal, licensee-initiated amendment, or termination of licenses or permits subject to parts 30, 32 through 36, 39, 40, 50, 52, 53, 54, 55, 61, 70, and 72 of this chapter, except as determined through the application of § 2.310(b) through (h).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 67834, Aug. 22, 2024, as amended at 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1201" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1201   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms contained in § 2.4 apply to this subpart unless a different definition is provided in this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1202" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1202   Authority and role of NRC staff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the pendency of any hearing under this subpart, consistent with the NRC staff's findings in its review of the application or matter which is the subject of the hearing and as authorized by law, the NRC staff is expected to promptly issue its approval or denial of the application, or take other appropriate action on the underlying regulatory matter for which a hearing was provided. When the NRC staff takes its action, it must notify the presiding officer and the parties to the proceeding of its action. That notice must include the NRC staff's explanation why the public health and safety is protected and why the action is in accord with the common defense and security despite the pendency of the contested matter before the presiding officer. The NRC staff's action on the matter is effective upon issuance by the staff, except in matters involving:
</P>
<P>(1) An application to construct and/or operate a production or utilization facility (including an application for a limited work authorization under 10 CFR 50.10 or 53.1130, or an application for a combined license under subpart C of 10 CFR part 52, or under subpart H of 10 CFR part 53;
</P>
<P>(2) An application for an early site permit under subpart A of 10 CFR part 52 or under subpart H of 10 CFR part 53;
</P>
<P>(3) An application for a manufacturing license under subpart F of 10 CFR part 52 or under subpart H of 10 CFR part 53;


</P>
<P>(4) An application for an amendment to a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area falling under either 10 CFR 60.32(c)(1) or 10 CFR part 63;
</P>
<P>(5) An application for the construction and operation of an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) located at a site other than a reactor site or a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) under 10 CFR part 72; and
</P>
<P>(6) Production or utilization facility licensing actions that involve significant hazards considerations as defined in 10 CFR 50.92 or 53.1520.


</P>
<P>(b)(1) The NRC staff is not required to be a party to a proceeding under this subpart, except where:
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeding involves an application denied by the NRC staff or an enforcement action proposed by the NRC staff; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The presiding officer determines that the resolution of any issue in the proceeding would be aided materially by the NRC staff's participation in the proceeding as a party and orders the staff to participate as a party for the identified issue. In the event that the presiding officer determines that the NRC staff's participation is necessary, the presiding officer shall issue an order identifying the issue(s) on which the staff is to participate as well as setting forth the basis for the determination that staff participation will materially aid in resolution of the issue(s).
</P>
<P>(2) Within fifteen (15) days of the issuance of the order granting requests for hearing/petitions to intervene and admitting contentions, the NRC staff shall notify the presiding officer and the parties whether it desires to participate as a party, and identify the contentions on which it wishes to participate as a party. If the NRC staff desires to be a party thereafter, the NRC staff shall notify the presiding officer and the parties, identify the contentions on which it wishes to participate as a party, and make the disclosures required by § 2.336(b)(3) through (5) unless accompanied by an affidavit explaining why the disclosures cannot be provided to the parties with the notice.
</P>
<P>(3) Once the NRC staff chooses to participate as a party, it shall have all the rights and responsibilities of a party with respect to the admitted contention/matter in controversy on which the staff chooses to participate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 49483, Aug. 28, 2007; 77 FR 46598, Aug. 3, 2012; 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023; 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1203" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1203   Hearing file; prohibition on discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Within thirty (30) days of the issuance of the order granting requests for hearing/petitions to intervene and admitting contentions, the NRC staff shall file in the docket, present to the presiding officer, and make available to the parties to the proceeding a hearing file.
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing file must be made available to the parties either by service of hard copies or by making the file available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The hearing file also must be made available for public inspection and copying at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room.
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing file consists of the application, if any, and any amendment to the application, and, when available, any NRC environmental impact statement or assessment and any NRC report related to the proposed action, as well as any correspondence between the applicant/licensee and the NRC that is relevant to the proposed action. Hearing file documents already available at the NRC Web site and/or the NRC Public Document Room when the hearing request/petition to intervene is granted may be incorporated into the hearing file at those locations by a reference indicating where at those locations the documents can be found. The presiding officer shall rule upon any issue regarding the appropriate materials for the hearing file.
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC staff has a continuing duty to keep the hearing file up to date with respect to the materials set forth in paragraph (b) of this section and to provide those materials as required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as otherwise permitted by subpart C of this part, a party may not seek discovery from any other party or the NRC or its personnel, whether by document production, deposition, interrogatories or otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1204   Motions and requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> In proceedings under this subpart, requirements for motions and requests and responses to them are as specified in § 2.323.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for cross-examination by the parties.</I> (1) In any oral hearing under this subpart, a party may file a motion with the presiding officer to permit cross-examination by the parties on particular admitted contentions or issues. The motion must be accompanied by a cross-examination plan containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the issue or issues on which cross-examination will be conducted;
</P>
<P>(ii) The objective to be achieved by cross-examination; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposed line of questions that may logically lead to achieving the objective of the cross-examination.
</P>
<P>(2) The cross-examination plan may be submitted only to the presiding officer and must be kept by the presiding officer in confidence until issuance of the initial decision on the issue being litigated. The presiding officer shall then provide each cross-examination plan to the Commission's Secretary for inclusion in the official record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer shall allow cross-examination by the parties only if the presiding officer determines that cross-examination by the parties is necessary to ensure the development of an adequate record for decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1205" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1205   Summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the presiding officer or the Commission directs otherwise, motions for summary disposition may be submitted to the presiding officer by any party no later than 45 days before the commencement of hearing. The motions must be in writing and must include a written explanation of the basis of the motion. The moving party must attach a short and concise statement of material facts for which the moving party contends that there is no genuine issue to be heard. Motions for summary disposition must be served on the parties and the Secretary at the same time that they are submitted to the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(b) Any other party may serve an answer supporting or opposing the motion within twenty (20) days after service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer shall issue a determination on each motion for summary disposition no later than fifteen (15) days before the date scheduled for commencement of hearing. In ruling on motions for summary disposition, the presiding officer shall apply the standards for summary disposition set forth in subpart G of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46598, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1206" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1206   Informal hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Hearings under this subpart will be oral hearings as described in § 2.1207, unless, within fifteen (15) days of the service of the order granting the request for hearing, the parties unanimously agree and file a joint motion requesting a hearing consisting of written submissions. A motion to hold a hearing consisting of written submissions will not be entertained unless there is unanimous consent of the parties.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1207" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1207   Process and schedule for submissions and presentations in an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise limited by this subpart or by the presiding officer, participants in an oral hearing may submit and sponsor in the hearings:
</P>
<P>(1) Initial written statements of position and written testimony with supporting affidavits on the admitted contentions. These materials must be filed on the dates set by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(2) Written responses and rebuttal testimony with supporting affidavits directed to the initial statements and testimony of other participants. These materials must be filed within twenty (20) days of the service of the materials submitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section unless the presiding officer directs otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Proposed questions for the presiding officer to consider for propounding to the persons sponsoring the testimony. Unless the presiding officer directs otherwise, these questions must be received by the presiding officer no later than twenty (20) days after the service of the materials submitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, unless that date is less than five (5) days before the scheduled commencement of the oral hearing, in which case the questions must be received by the presiding officer no later than five (5) days before the scheduled commencement of the hearing. Proposed questions need not be filed with any other party.
</P>
<P>(ii) Proposed questions directed to rebuttal testimony for the presiding officer to consider for propounding to persons sponsoring the testimony. Unless the presiding officer directs otherwise, these questions must be received by the presiding officer no later than seven (7) days after the service of the rebuttal testimony submitted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless that date is less than five (5) days before the scheduled commencement of the oral hearing, in which case the questions must be received by the presiding officer no later than five (5) days before the scheduled commencement of the hearing. Proposed questions directed to rebuttal need not be filed with any other party.
</P>
<P>(iii) Questions submitted under paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section may be propounded at the discretion of the presiding officer. All questions must be kept by the presiding officer in confidence until they are either propounded by the presiding officer, or until issuance of the initial decision on the issue being litigated. The presiding officer shall then provide all proposed questions to the Commission's Secretary for inclusion in the official record of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral hearing procedures.</I> (1) The oral hearing must be transcribed.
</P>
<P>(2) Written testimony will be received into evidence in exhibit form.
</P>
<P>(3) Participants may designate and present their own witnesses to the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(4) Testimony for the NRC staff will be presented only by persons designated by the Executive Director for Operations or their delegee for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(5) The presiding officer may accept written testimony from a person unable to appear at the hearing, and may request that person to respond in writing to questions.
</P>
<P>(6) Participants and witnesses will be questioned orally or in writing and only by the presiding officer or the presiding officer's designee (e.g., a Special Assistant appointed under § 2.322). The presiding officer will examine the participants and witnesses using questions prepared by the presiding officer or the presiding officer's designee, questions submitted by the participants at the discretion of the presiding officer, or a combination of both. Questions may be addressed to individuals or to panels of participants or witnesses. No party may submit proposed questions to the presiding officer at the hearing, except upon request by, and in the sole discretion of, the presiding officer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 88 FR 57877, Aug. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1208" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1208   Process and schedule for a hearing consisting of written presentations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise limited by this subpart or by the presiding officer, participants in a hearing consisting of written presentations may submit:
</P>
<P>(1) Initial written statements of position and written testimony with supporting affidavits on the admitted contentions. These materials must be filed on the dates set by the presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(2) Written responses, rebuttal testimony with supporting affidavits directed to the initial statements and testimony of witnesses and other participants, and proposed written questions for the presiding officer to consider for submission to the persons sponsoring testimony under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. These materials must be filed within twenty (20) days of the service of the materials submitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section unless the presiding officer directs otherwise;
</P>
<P>(3) Written questions on the written responses and rebuttal testimony submitted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, which the presiding officer may, in his or her discretion, require the persons offering the written responses and rebuttal testimony to provide responses. These questions must be filed within seven (7) days of service of the materials submitted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section unless the presiding officer directs otherwise; and
</P>
<P>(4) Written concluding statements of position on the contentions. These statements shall be filed within twenty (20) days of the service of written responses to the presiding officer's questions to the participants or, in the absence of questions from the presiding officer, within twenty (20) days of the service of the materials submitted under paragraph (a)(2) of this section unless the presiding officer directs otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer may formulate and submit written questions to the participants that he or she considers appropriate to develop an adequate record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1209" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1209   Findings of fact and conclusions of law.</HEAD>
<P>Each party shall file written post-hearing proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law on the contentions addressed in an oral hearing under § 2.1207 or a written hearing under § 2.1208 within 30 days of the close of the hearing or at such other time as the presiding officer directs. Proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law must conform to the format requirements in § 2.712(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 46598, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1210" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1210   Initial decision and its effect.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the Commission directs that the record be certified to it in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, the presiding officer shall render an initial decision after completion of an informal hearing under this subpart. That initial decision constitutes the final action of the Commission on the contested matter 120 days after the date of issuance, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Any party files a petition for Commission review in accordance with § 2.1212;
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission, in its discretion, determines that the presiding officer's initial decision is inconsistent with the staff's action as described in the notice required by § 2.1202(a) and that the inconsistency warrants Commission review, in which case the Commission will review the initial decision; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission takes review of the decision sua sponte.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may direct that the presiding officer certify the record to it without an initial decision and prepare a final decision if the Commission finds that due and timely execution of its functions warrants certification.
</P>
<P>(c) An initial decision must be in writing and must be based only upon information in the record or facts officially noticed. The record must include all information submitted in the proceeding with respect to which all parties have been given reasonable prior notice and an opportunity to comment as provided in §§ 2.1207 or 2.1208. The initial decision must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Findings, conclusions, and rulings, with the reasons or basis for them, on all material issues of fact or law admitted as part of the contentions in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate ruling, order, or grant or denial of relief with its effective date;
</P>
<P>(3) The action the NRC staff shall take upon transmittal of the decision to the NRC staff under paragraph (e) of this section, if the initial decision is inconsistent with the NRC staff action as described in the notice required by § 2.1202(a); and
</P>
<P>(4) The time within which a petition for Commission review may be filed, the time within which any answers to a petition for review may be filed, and the date when the decision becomes final in the absence of a petition for Commission review or Commission sua sponte review. 
</P>
<P>(d) Pending review and final decision by the Commission, an initial decision resolving all issues before the presiding officer is immediately effective upon issuance except as otherwise provided by this part (e.g., § 2.340) or by the Commission in special circumstances.
</P>
<P>(e) Once an initial decision becomes final, the Secretary shall transmit the decision to the NRC staff for action in accordance with the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46598, Aug. 3, 2012; 79 FR 66601, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1212" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1212   Petitions for Commission review of initial decisions.</HEAD>
<P>Parties may file petitions for review of an initial decision under this subpart in accordance with the procedures set out in § 2.341. Unless otherwise authorized by law, a party to an NRC proceeding must file a petition for Commission review before seeking judicial review of an agency action.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1213" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.12.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1213   Application for a stay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application for a stay of the effectiveness of the NRC staff's action on a matter involved in a hearing under this subpart must be filed with the presiding officer within seven (7) days of the issuance of the notice of the NRC staff's action under § 2.1202(a) and must be filed and considered in accordance with paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a stay of the NRC staff's action may not be longer than ten (10) pages, exclusive of affidavits, and must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise summary of the action which is requested to be stayed; and
</P>
<P>(2) A concise statement of the grounds for a stay, with reference to the factors specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Within ten (10) days after service of an application for a stay of the NRC staff's action under this section, any party and/or the NRC staff may file an answer supporting or opposing the granting of a stay. Answers may not be longer than ten (10) pages, exclusive of affidavits, and must concisely address the matters in paragraph (b) of this section as appropriate. Further replies to answers will not be entertained.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether to grant or deny an application for a stay of the NRC staff's action, the following will be considered:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the requestor will be irreparably injured unless a stay is granted;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the requestor has made a strong showing that it is likely to prevail on the merits;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the granting of a stay would harm other participants; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where the public interest lies.
</P>
<P>(e) Any application for a stay of the effectiveness of the presiding officer's initial decision or action under this subpart shall be filed with the Commission in accordance with § 2.342.
</P>
<P>(f) Stays are not available on matters limited to whether a no significant hazards consideration determination was proper in proceedings on power reactor license amendments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2267, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46598, Aug. 3, 2012; 89 FR 67834, Aug. 22, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Procedures for Hearings on License Transfer Applications</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1300" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1300   Scope of subpart M.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this subpart, together with the generally applicable intervention provisions in subpart C of this part, govern all adjudicatory proceedings on an application for the direct or indirect transfer of control of an NRC license when the transfer requires prior approval of the NRC under the Commission's regulations, governing statutes, or pursuant to a license condition. This subpart provides the only mechanism for requesting hearings on license transfer requests, unless contrary case specific orders are issued by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 46598, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1301" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1301   Public notice of receipt of a license transfer application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will notice the receipt of each application for direct or indirect transfer of a specific NRC license by placing a copy of the application at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will also publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of receipt of an application for approval of a license transfer involving 10 CFR parts 50, 52, and 53 licenses, major fuel cycle facility licenses issued under part 70, or part 72 licenses. This notice constitutes the notice required by § 2.105 with respect to all matters related to the application requiring NRC approval.
</P>
<P>(c) Periodic lists of applications received may be obtained upon request addressed to the NRC Public Document Room, US Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 48949, Sept. 9, 1999; 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1302" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1302   Notice of withdrawal of an application.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will notice the withdrawal of an application by publishing the notice of withdrawal in the same manner as the notice of receipt of the application was published under § 2.1301.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1303" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1303   Availability of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Unless exempt from disclosure under part 9 of this chapter, the following documents pertaining to each application for a license transfer requiring Commission approval will be placed at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> when available:
</P>
<P>(a) The license transfer application and any associated requests;
</P>
<P>(b) Commission correspondence with the applicant or licensee related to the application;
</P>
<P>(c) <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices;
</P>
<P>(d) The NRC staff Safety Evaluation Report (SER).
</P>
<P>(e) Any NRC staff order which acts on the license transfer application; and
</P>
<P>(f) If a hearing is held, the hearing record and decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 48949, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1305" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1305   Written comments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As an alternative to requests for hearings and petitions to intervene, persons may submit written comments regarding license transfer applications. The Commission will consider and, if appropriate, respond to these comments, but these comments do not otherwise constitute part of the decisional record.
</P>
<P>(b) These comments should be submitted within 30 days after public notice of receipt of the application and addressed to the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will provide the applicant with a copy of the comments. Any response the applicant chooses to make to the comments must be submitted within 10 days of service of the comments on the applicant. Such responses do not constitute part of the decisional record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1308" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1308   Oral hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Hearings under this subpart will be oral hearings, unless, within 15 days of the service of the notice or order granting the hearing, the parties unanimously agree and file a joint motion requesting a hearing consisting of written comments. No motion to hold a hearing consisting of written comments will be entertained absent consent of all the parties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2270, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1309" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1309   Notice of oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice of oral hearing will—
</P>
<P>(1) State the time, place, and issues to be considered;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide names and addresses of participants,
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the time limit for participants and others to indicate whether they wish to present views;
</P>
<P>(4) Specify the schedule for the filing of written testimony, statements of position, proposed questions for the Presiding Officer to consider, and rebuttal testimony consistent with the schedule provisions of § 2.1321.
</P>
<P>(5) Specify that the oral hearing shall commence within 15 days of the date for submittal of rebuttal testimony unless otherwise ordered;
</P>
<P>(6) State any other instructions the Commission deems appropriate;
</P>
<P>(7) If so determined by the NRC staff or otherwise directed by the Commission, direct that the staff participate as a party with respect to some or all issues.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commission is not the Presiding Officer, the notice of oral hearing will also state:
</P>
<P>(1) When the jurisdiction of the Presiding Officer commences and terminates;
</P>
<P>(2) The powers of the Presiding Officer;
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions to the Presiding Officer to certify promptly the completed hearing record to the Commission without a recommended or preliminary decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1310" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1310   Notice of hearing consisting of written comments.</HEAD>
<P>A notice of hearing consisting of written comments will:
</P>
<P>(a) State the issues to be considered;
</P>
<P>(b) Provide the names and addresses of participants;
</P>
<P>(c) Specify the schedule for the filing of written testimony, statements of position, proposed questions for the Presiding Officer to consider for submission to the other parties, and rebuttal testimony, consistent with the schedule provisions of § 2.1321.
</P>
<P>(d) State any other instructions the Commission deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1311" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1311   Conditions in a notice or order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice or order granting a hearing or permitting intervention shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Restrict irrelevant or duplicative testimony; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require common interests to be represented by a single participant.
</P>
<P>(b) If a participant's interests do not extend to all the issues in the hearing, the notice or order may limit her/his participation accordingly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1315" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1315   Generic determination regarding license amendments to reflect transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise determined by the Commission with regard to a specific application, the Commission has determined that any amendment to the license of a utilization facility or the license of an Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation which does no more than conform the license to reflect the transfer action, involves respectively, “no significant hazards consideration,” or “no genuine issue as to whether the health and safety of the public will be significantly affected.”
</P>
<P>(b) Where administrative license amendments are necessary to reflect an approved transfer, such amendments will be included in the order that approves the transfer. Any challenge to the administrative license amendment is limited to the question of whether the license amendment accurately reflects the approved transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 2270, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1316" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1316   Authority and role of NRC staff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the pendency of any hearing under this subpart, consistent with the NRC staff's findings in its Safety Evaluation Report (SER), the staff is expected to promptly issue approval or denial of license transfer requests. Notice of such action shall be promptly transmitted to the Presiding Officer and parties to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise directed in accordance with § 2.1309(a)(7), the NRC staff is not required to be a party to proceedings under this subpart but will offer into evidence its SER associated with the transfer application and provide one or more sponsoring witnesses.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Within 15 days of the issuance of the order granting requests for hearing/petitions to intervene and admitting contentions, the NRC staff must notify the presiding officer and the parties whether it desires to participate as a party, and identify the contentions on which it wishes to participate as a party. If the NRC staff desires to be a party thereafter, the NRC staff must notify the presiding officer and the parties, and identify the contentions on which it wishes to participate as a party, and make the disclosures required by § 2.336(b)(3) through (b)(5) unless accompanied by an affidavit explaining why the disclosures cannot be provided to the parties with the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) Once the NRC staff chooses to participate as a party, it will have all the rights and responsibilities of a party with respect to the admitted contention/matter in controversy on which the staff chooses to participate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 77 FR 46599, Aug. 3, 2012]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1319" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1319   Presiding Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will ordinarily be the Presiding Officer at a hearing under this part. However, the Commission may provide in a hearing notice that one or more Commissioners, or any other person permitted by law, will preside.
</P>
<P>(b) A participant may submit a written motion for the disqualification of any person presiding. The motion shall be supported by an affidavit setting forth the alleged grounds for disqualification. If the Presiding Officer does not grant the motion or the person does not disqualify themselves and the Presiding Officer or such other person is not the Commission or a Commissioner, the Commission will decide the matter.
</P>
<P>(c) If any person presiding deems themselves disqualified, they shall withdraw by notice on the record after notifying the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) If a Presiding Officer becomes unavailable, the Commission will designate a replacement.
</P>
<P>(e) Any motion concerning the designation of a replacement Presiding Officer shall be made within 5 days after the designation.
</P>
<P>(f) Unless otherwise ordered by the Commission, the jurisdiction of a Presiding Officer other than the Commission commences as designated in the hearing notice and terminates upon certification of the hearing record to the Commission, or when the Presiding Officer is disqualified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1320" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1320   Responsibility and power of the Presiding Officer in an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Presiding Officer in any oral hearing shall conduct a fair hearing, develop a record that will contribute to informed decisionmaking, and, within the framework of the Commission's orders, have the power necessary to achieve these ends, including the power to:
</P>
<P>(1) Take action to avoid unnecessary delay and maintain order;
</P>
<P>(2) Dispose of procedural requests;
</P>
<P>(3) Question participants and witnesses, and entertain suggestions as to questions which may be asked of participants and witnesses.
</P>
<P>(4) Order consolidation of participants;
</P>
<P>(5) Establish the order of presentation;
</P>
<P>(6) Hold conferences before or during the hearing;
</P>
<P>(7) Establish time limits;
</P>
<P>(8) Limit the number of witnesses; and
</P>
<P>(9) Strike or reject duplicative, unreliable, immaterial, or irrelevant presentations.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Commission itself does not preside:
</P>
<P>(1) The Presiding Officer may certify questions or refer rulings to the Commission for decision;
</P>
<P>(2) Any hearing order may be modified by the Commission; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Presiding Officer will certify the completed hearing record to the Commission, which may then issue its decision on the hearing or provide that additional testimony be presented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1321" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1321   Participation and schedule for submission in a hearing consisting of written comments.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise limited by this subpart or by the Commission, participants in a hearing consisting of written comments may submit:
</P>
<P>(a) Initial written statements of position and written testimony with supporting affidavits on the issues. These materials must be filed on the date set by the Commission or the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(b) Written responses, rebuttal testimony with supporting affidavits directed to the initial statements and testimony of other participants, and proposed written questions for the Presiding Officer to consider for submittal to persons sponsoring testimony submitted under paragraph (a) of this section. These materials shall be filed within 20 days of the filing of the materials submitted under paragraph (a) of this section, unless the Commission or Presiding Officer directs otherwise. Proposed written questions directed to rebuttal testimony for the Presiding Officer to consider for submittal to persons offering such testimony shall be filed within 7 days of the filing of the rebuttal testimony.
</P>
<P>(c) Written concluding statements of position on the issues. These materials shall be filed within 20 days of the filing of the materials submitted under paragraph (b) of this section, unless the Commission or the Presiding Officer directs otherwise.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 2271, Jan. 14, 2004; 77 FR 46599, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1322" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1322   Participation and schedule for submissions in an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise limited by this subpart or by the Commission, participants in an oral hearing may submit and sponsor in the hearings:
</P>
<P>(1) Initial written statements of position and written testimony with supporting affidavits on the issues. These materials must be filed on the date set by the Commission or the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Written responses and rebuttal testimony with supporting affidavits directed to the initial statements and testimony of other participants;
</P>
<P>(ii) Proposed questions for the Presiding Officer to consider for propounding to persons sponsoring testimony.
</P>
<P>(3) These materials must be filed within 20 days of the filing of the materials submitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, unless the Commission or Presiding Officer directs otherwise.
</P>
<P>(4) Proposed questions directed to rebuttal testimony for the Presiding Officer to consider for propounding to persons offering such testimony shall be filed within 7 days of the filing of the rebuttal testimony.
</P>
<P>(b) The oral hearing should commence within 65 days of the date of the Commission's notice granting a hearing unless the Commission or Presiding Officer directs otherwise. Ordinarily, questioning in the oral hearing will be conducted by the Presiding Officer, using either the Presiding Officer's questions or questions submitted by the participants or a combination of both.
</P>
<P>(c) Written post-hearing statements of position on the issues addressed in the oral hearing may be submitted within 20 days of the close of the oral hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission, on its own motion, or in response to a request from a Presiding Officer other than the Commission, may use additional procedures, such as direct and cross-examination, or may convene a formal hearing under subpart G of this part on specific and substantial disputes of fact, necessary for the Commission's decision, that cannot be resolved with sufficient accuracy except in a formal hearing. The staff will be a party in any such formal hearing. Neither the Commission nor the Presiding Officer will entertain motions from the parties that request such special procedures or formal hearings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 2271, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1323" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1323   Presentation of testimony in an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All direct testimony in an oral hearing shall be filed no later than 15 days before the hearing or as otherwise ordered or allowed pursuant to the provisions of § 2.1322.
</P>
<P>(b) Written testimony will be received into evidence in exhibit form.
</P>
<P>(c) Participants may designate and present their own witnesses to the Presiding Officer.
</P>
<P>(d) Testimony for the NRC staff will be presented only by persons designated for that purpose by either the Executive Director for Operations or a delegee of the Executive Director for Operations.
</P>
<P>(e) Participants and witnesses will be questioned orally or in writing and only by the Presiding Officer. Questions may be addressed to individuals or to panels of participants or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(f) The Presiding Officer may accept written testimony from a person unable to appear at the hearing, and may request him or her to respond to questions.
</P>
<P>(g) No subpoenas will be granted at the request of participants for attendance and testimony of participants or witnesses or the production of evidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 2271, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1324" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1324   Appearance in an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant may appear in a hearing on her or his own behalf or be represented by an authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(b) A person appearing shall file a written notice stating her or his name, address and telephone number, and if an authorized representative, the basis of her or his eligibility and the name and address of the participant on whose behalf she or he appears.
</P>
<P>(c) A person may be excluded from a hearing for disorderly, dilatory or contemptuous conduct, provided he or she is informed of the grounds and given an opportunity to respond.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1325" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1325   Motions and requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Motions and requests shall be addressed to the Presiding Officer, and, if written, also filed with the Secretary and served on other participants.
</P>
<P>(b) Other participants may respond to the motion or request. Responses to written motions or requests shall be filed within 5 days after service unless the Commission or Presiding Officer directs otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) The Presiding Officer may entertain motions for extension of time and changes in schedule in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) When the Commission does not preside, in response to a motion or request, the Presiding Officer may refer a ruling or certify a question to the Commission for decision and notify the participants.
</P>
<P>(e) Unless otherwise ordered by the Commission, a motion or request, or the certification of a question or referral of a ruling, shall not stay or extend any aspect of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1327" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1327   Application for a stay of the effectiveness of NRC staff action on license transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application for a stay of the effectiveness of the NRC staff's order on the license transfer application shall be filed with the Commission within 5 days of the issuance of the notice of staff action pursuant to § 2.1316(a).
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a stay must be no longer than 10 pages, exclusive of affidavits, and must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise summary of the action which is requested to be stayed; and
</P>
<P>(2) A concise statement of the grounds for a stay, with reference to the factors specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 10 days after service of an application for a stay under this section, any participant may file an answer supporting or opposing the granting of a stay. Answers must be no longer than 10 pages, exclusive of affidavits, and should concisely address the matters in paragraph (b) of this section, as appropriate. No further replies to answers will be entertained.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether to grant or deny an application for a stay, the Commission will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the requestor will be irreparably injured unless a stay is granted;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the requestor has made a strong showing that it is likely to prevail on the merits;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the granting of a stay would harm other participants; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where the public interest lies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1331" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.13.23.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1331   Commission action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon completion of a hearing, the Commission will issue a written opinion including its decision on the license transfer application and the reasons for the decision.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision on issues designated for hearing under § 2.309 will be based on the record developed at hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66730, Dec. 3, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 2271, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Expedited Proceedings with Oral Hearings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 2271, Jan. 14, 2004, unless otherwise noted.












</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1400" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1400   Purpose and scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to provide simplified procedures for the expeditious resolution of disputes among parties in an informal hearing process. The provisions of this subpart, together with subpart C of this part, govern adjudicatory proceedings that the Commission, the presiding officer, or the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board designated to rule on the request/petition determine will be conducted under this subpart in accordance with § 2.310. This subpart shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this subpart and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 67834, Aug. 22, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 55627, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1401" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1401   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions of terms in § 2.4 apply to this subpart unless a different definition is provided in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1402" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1402   General procedures and limitations; requests for other procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally-applicable procedures.</I> For proceedings conducted under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Except where provided otherwise in this subpart or specifically requested by the presiding officer or the Commission, written pleadings and briefs (regardless of whether they are in the form of a letter, a formal legal submission, or otherwise) are not permitted;
</P>
<P>(2) Requests to schedule a conference to consider oral motions may be in writing and served on the Presiding officer and the parties;
</P>
<P>(3) Motions for summary disposition before the hearing has concluded and motions for reconsideration to the presiding officer or the Commission are not permitted;
</P>
<P>(4) All motions must be presented and argued orally;
</P>
<P>(5) The presiding officer will reflect all rulings on motions and other requests from the parties in a written decision. A verbatim transcript of oral rulings satisfies this requirement;
</P>
<P>(6) Except for the information disclosure requirements set forth in subpart C of this part, requests for discovery will not be entertained; and
</P>
<P>(7) The presiding officer may issue written orders and rulings necessary for the orderly and effective conduct of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other procedures.</I> If it becomes apparent at any time before a hearing is held that a proceeding selected for adjudication under this subpart is not appropriate for application of this subpart, the presiding officer or the Commission may, on its own motion or at the request of a party, order the proceeding to continue under another appropriate subpart. If a proceeding under this subpart is discontinued because the proceeding is not appropriate for application of this subpart, the presiding officer may issue written orders necessary for the orderly continuation of the hearing process under another subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for cross-examination.</I> A party may present an oral motion to the presiding officer to permit cross-examination by the parties on particular admitted contentions or issues. The presiding officer may allow cross-examination by the parties if he or she determines that cross-examination by the parties is necessary for the development of an adequate record for decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1403" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1403   Authority and role of the NRC staff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the pendency of any hearing under this subpart, consistent with the NRC staff's findings in its review of the application or matter that is the subject of the hearing and as authorized by law, the NRC staff is expected to promptly issue its approval or denial of the application, or take other appropriate action on the matter that is the subject of the hearing. When the NRC staff takes its action, it must notify the presiding officer and the parties to the proceeding of its action. That notice must include the NRC staff's explanation why the public health and safety is protected and why the action is in accord with the common defense and security despite the pendency of the contested matter before the presiding officer. The NRC staff's action on the matter is effective upon issuance, except in matters involving:
</P>
<P>(1) An application to construct and/or operate a production or utilization facility;
</P>
<P>(2) An application for the construction and operation of an independent spent fuel storage installation located at a site other than a reactor site or a monitored retrievable storage facility under 10 CFR part 72; or
</P>
<P>(3) Production or utilization facility licensing actions that involve significant hazards considerations as defined in 10 CFR 50.92 or 53.1520.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The NRC staff is not required to be a party to proceedings under this subpart, except where:
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeding involves an application denied by the NRC staff or an enforcement action proposed by the staff; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The presiding officer determines that the resolution of any issue in the proceeding would be aided materially by the NRC staff's participation in the proceeding as a party and orders the staff to participate as a party for the identified issue. In the event that the presiding officer determines that the NRC staff's participation is necessary, the presiding officer shall issue an order identifying the issue(s) on which the staff is to participate as well as setting forth the basis for the determination that staff participation will materially aid in resolution of the issue(s).
</P>
<P>(2) Within fifteen (15) days of the issuance of the order granting requests for hearing/petitions to intervene and admitting contentions, the NRC staff shall notify the presiding officer and the parties whether it desires to participate as a party, and identify the contentions on which it wishes to participate as a party. If the NRC staff desires to be a party thereafter, the NRC staff shall notify the presiding officer and the parties, identify the contentions on which it wishes to participate as a party, and make the disclosures required by § 2.336(b)(3) through (5) unless accompanied by an affidavit explaining why the disclosures cannot be provided to the parties with the notice.
</P>
<P>(3) Once the NRC staff chooses to participate as a party, it shall have all the rights and responsibilities of a party with respect to the admitted contention/matter in controversy on which the staff chooses to participate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2271, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46599, Aug. 3, 2012; 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1404" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1404   Prehearing conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No later than forty (40) days after the order granting requests for hearing/petitions to intervene, the presiding officer shall conduct a prehearing conference. At the discretion of the presiding officer, the prehearing conference may be held in person or by telephone or through the use of video conference technology.
</P>
<P>(b) At the prehearing conference, each party shall provide the presiding officer and the parties participating in the conference with a statement identifying each witness the party plans to present at the hearing and a written summary of the oral and written testimony of each proposed witness. If the prehearing conference is not held in person, each party shall forward the summaries of the party's witnesses' testimony to the presiding officer and the other parties by such means that will ensure the receipt of the summaries by the commencement of the prehearing conference.
</P>
<P>(c) At the prehearing conference, the parties shall describe the results of their efforts to settle their disputes or narrow the contentions that remain for hearing, provide an agreed statement of facts, if any, identify witnesses that they propose to present at hearing, provide questions or question areas that they would propose to have the presiding officer cover with the witnesses at the hearing, and discuss other pertinent matters. At the conclusion of the conference, the presiding officer will issue an order specifying the issues to be addressed at the hearing and setting forth any agreements reached by the parties. The order must include the scheduled date for any hearing that remains to be held, and address any other matters as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1405" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1405   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No later than twenty (20) days after the conclusion of the prehearing conference, the presiding officer shall hold a hearing on any contention that remains in dispute. At the beginning of the hearing, the presiding officer shall enter into the record all agreements reached by the parties before the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) A hearing will be recorded stenographically or by other means, under the supervision of the presiding officer. A transcript will be prepared from the recording that will be the sole official transcript of the hearing. The transcript will be prepared by an official reporter who may be designated by the Commission or may be a regular employee of the Commission. Except as limited by section 181 of the Act or order of the Commission, the transcript will be available for inspection in the agency's public records system. Copies of transcripts are available to the parties and to the public from the official reporter on payment of the charges fixed therefor. If a hearing is recorded on videotape or other video medium, copies of the recording of each daily session of the hearing may be made available to the parties and to the public from the presiding officer upon payment of a charge fixed by the Chief Administrative Judge. Parties may purchase copies of the transcript from the reporter.
</P>
<P>(c) Hearings will be open to the public, unless portions of the hearings involving proprietary or other protectable information are closed in accordance with the Commission's regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) At the hearing, the presiding officer will not receive oral evidence that is irrelevant, immaterial, unreliable or unduly repetitious. Testimony will be under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(e) The presiding officer may question witnesses who testify at the hearing, but the parties may not do so.
</P>
<P>(f) Each party may present oral argument and a final statement of position at the close of the hearing. Written post-hearing briefs and proposed findings are not permitted unless ordered by the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1406" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1406   Initial decision—issuance and effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where practicable, the presiding officer will render a decision from the bench. In rendering a decision from the bench, the presiding officer shall state the issues in the proceeding and make clear its findings of fact and conclusions of law on each issue. The presiding officer's decision and order must be reduced to writing and transmitted to the parties as soon as practicable, but not later than twenty (20) days, after the hearing ends. If a decision is not rendered from the bench, a written decision and order will be issued not later than thirty (30) days after the hearing ends. Approval of the Chief Administrative Judge must be obtained for an extension of these time periods, and in no event may a written decision and order be issued later than sixty (60) days after the hearing ends without the express approval of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer's written decision must be served on the parties and filed with the Commission when issued.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer's initial decision is effective and constitutes the final action of the Commission twenty-five (25) days after the date of issuance of the written decision unless any party appeals to the Commission in accordance with § 2.1407 or the Commission takes review of the decision sua sponte or the regulations in this part specify other requirements with regard to the effectiveness of decisions on certain applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2271, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 79 FR 66602, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1407" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.14.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1407   Appeal and Commission review of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Within 25 days after service of a written initial decision, a party may file a written appeal seeking the Commission's review on the grounds specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Unless otherwise authorized by law, a party must file an appeal with the Commission before seeking judicial review.
</P>
<P>(2) An appeal under this section may not be longer than twenty (20) pages and must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A concise statement of the specific rulings and decisions that are being appealed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A concise statement (including record citations) where the matters of fact or law raised in the appeal were previously raised before the presiding officer and, if they were not, why they could not have been raised;
</P>
<P>(iii) A concise statement why, in the appellant's view, the decision or action is erroneous; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A concise statement why the Commission should review the decision or action, with particular reference to the grounds specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other party to the proceeding may, within 25 days after service of the appeal, file an answer supporting or opposing the appeal. The answer may not be longer than 20 pages and should concisely address the matters specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The appellant does not have a right to reply. Unless it directs additional filings or oral arguments, the Commission will decide the appeal on the basis of the filings permitted by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) In considering the appeal, the Commission will give due weight to the existence of a substantial question with respect to the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(1) A finding of material fact is clearly erroneous or in conflict with a finding as to the same fact in a different proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A necessary legal conclusion is without governing precedent or is a departure from, or contrary to, established law;
</P>
<P>(3) A substantial and important question of law, policy or discretion has been raised by the appeal;
</P>
<P>(4) The conduct of the proceeding involved a prejudicial procedural error; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any other consideration which the Commission may deem to be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) Once a decision becomes final agency action, the Secretary shall transmit the decision to the NRC staff for action in accordance with the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2271, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 46599, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Legislative Hearings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 2273, Jan. 14, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1500" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1500   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to provide for simplified, legislative hearing procedures to be used, at the Commission's sole discretion, in:
</P>
<P>(a) Any design certification rulemaking hearings under subpart B of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter that the Commission may choose to conduct; and
</P>
<P>(b) Developing a record to assist the Commission in resolving, under § 2.335(d), a petition filed under § 2.335(b).
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this subpart and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this paragraph (c) accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2273, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 90 FR 55627, Dec. 3, 2025; 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1501" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1501   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Demonstrative information means physical things, not constituting documentary information.
</P>
<P>Documentary information means information, ordinarily contained in documents or electronic files, but may also include photographs and digital audio files.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1502" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1502   Commission decision to hold legislative hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may, in its discretion, hold a legislative hearing in either a design certification rulemaking under § 52.51(b) or § 53.1242(b)(2) of this chapter, or a proceeding where a question has been certified to it under § 2.335(d).
</P>
<P>(b) Notice of Commission decision—(1) Hearing in design certification rulemakings. If, at the time a proposed design certification rule is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 52.51(a) or § 53.1242(b) of this chapter, the Commission decides that a legislative hearing should be held, the information required by paragraph (c) of this section must be included in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice for the proposed design certification rule. If, following the submission of written public comments submitted on the proposed design certification rule which are submitted in accordance with § 52.51(a) or § 53.1242(b) of this chapter, the Commission decides to conduct a legislative hearing, the Commission shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and on the NRC Web site indicating its determination to conduct a legislative hearing. The notice shall contain the information specified in paragraph (c) of this section, and specify whether the Commission or a presiding officer will conduct the legislative hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) Hearings under § 2.335(d). If, following a certification of a question to the Commission by a Licensing Board under § 2.335(d), the Commission decides to hold a legislative hearing to assist it in resolving the certified question, the Commission shall issue an order containing the information required by paragraph (c) of this section. The Commission shall serve the order on all parties in the proceeding. In addition, if the Commission decides that persons and entities other than those identified in paragraph (c)(2) may request to participate in the legislative hearing, the Commission shall publish a notice of its determination to hold a legislative hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and on the NRC Web site. The notice shall contain the information specified in paragraph (c) of this section, and refer to the criteria in § 2.1504 which will be used in determining requests to participate in the legislative hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commission decides to hold a legislative hearing, it shall, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify with specificity the issues on which it wishes to compile a record;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify, in a hearing associated with a question certified to the Commission under § 2.335(d), the parties and interested State(s), governmental bodies, and Federally-recognized Indian Tribe under § 2.315(c), who may participate in the legislative hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify persons and entities that may, in the discretion of the Commission, be invited to participate in the legislative hearing;
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate whether other persons and entities may request, in accordance with § 2.1504, to participate in the legislative hearing, and the criteria that the Commission or presiding officer will use in determining whether to permit such participation;
</P>
<P>(5) Indicate whether the Commission or a presiding officer will conduct the legislative hearing;
</P>
<P>(6) Specify any special procedures to be used in the legislative hearing;
</P>
<P>(7) Set the dates for submission of requests to participate in the legislative hearing, submission of written statements and demonstrative and documentary information, and commencement of the oral hearing; and
</P>
<P>(8) Specify the location where the oral hearing is to be held. Ordinarily, oral hearings will be held in the Washington, DC metropolitan area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2273, Jan. 14, 2004, as amended at 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1503" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1503   Authority of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>If the Commission appoints a presiding officer to conduct the legislative hearing, the presiding officer shall be responsible for expeditious development of a sufficient record on the Commission-identified issues, consistent with the direction provided by the Commission under § 2.1502(c). The presiding officer has the authority otherwise accorded to it under §§ 2.319(a), (c), (e), (g), (h), and (i), 2.324, and 2.333 to control the course of the proceeding, and may exercise any other authority granted to it by the Commission in accordance with § 2.1502(c)(6).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1504" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1504   Request to participate in legislative hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person or entity who wishes to participate in a legislative hearing noticed under either § 2.1502(b)(1) or (b)(2) shall submit a request to participate by the date specified in the notice. The request must address:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the person's position on the subject matter of the legislative hearing; and
</P>
<P>(2) The specific information, expertise or experience that the person possesses with respect to the subject matter of the legislative hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission or presiding officer shall, within ten (10) days of the date specified for submission of requests to participate, determine whether the person or entity has met the criteria specified by the Commission under § 2.1502(c)(4) for determining requests to participate in the legislative hearing, and issue an order to that person or entity informing them of the presiding officer's decision. A presiding officer's determinations in this regard are final and not subject to any motion for reconsideration or appeal to the Commission; and the Commission's determination in this regard are final and are not subject to a motion for reconsideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1505" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1505   Role of the NRC staff.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC staff shall be available to answer any Commission or presiding officer's questions on staff-prepared documents, provide additional information or documentation that may be available to the staff, and provide other assistance that the Commission or presiding officer may request without requiring the NRC staff to assume the role of an advocate. The NRC staff may request to participate in the legislative hearing by providing notice to the Commission or presiding officer, as applicable, within the time period established for submitting a request to participate; or if no notice is provided under § 2.1502(b)(2), within ten (10) days of the Commission's order announcing its determination to conduct a legislative hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1506" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1506   Written statements and submission of information.</HEAD>
<P>All participants shall file written statements on the Commission-identified issues, and may submit documentary and demonstrative information. Written statements, copies of documentary information, and a list and short description of any demonstrative information to be submitted must be received by the NRC (and in a hearing on issues stemming from a § 2.335(b) petition, by the parties in the proceeding in which the petition was filed) no later than ten (10) days before the commencement of the oral hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1507" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1507   Oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not less than five (5) days before the commencement of the oral hearing, the presiding officer shall issue an order setting forth the grouping and order of appearance of the witnesses at the oral hearing. The order shall be filed upon all participants by email or facsimile transmission if possible, otherwise by overnight mail.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission or presiding officer may question witnesses. Neither the Commission nor the presiding officer will ordinarily permit participants to submit recommended questions for the Commission or presiding officer to propound to witnesses. However, if the Commission or presiding officer believe that the conduct of the oral hearing will be expedited and that consideration of such proposed questions will assist in developing a more focused hearing record, the Commission or presiding officer may, in its discretion, permit the participants to submit recommended questions for the Commission or presiding officer's consideration.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission or presiding officer may request, or upon request of a participant may, in the presiding officer's discretion, permit the submission of additional information following the close of the oral hearing. Such information must be submitted no later than five (5) days after the close of the oral hearing and must be served at the same time upon all participants at the oral hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1508" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1508   Recommendation of presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Commission is not acting as a presiding officer, the presiding officer shall, within thirty (30) days following the close of the legislative hearing record, certify the record to the Commission on each of the issues identified by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The presiding officer's certification for each Commission-identified issue shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A transcript of the oral phase of the legislative hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of all participants;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of all witnesses at the oral hearing, and their affiliation with a participant;
</P>
<P>(4) A list, and copies of, all documentary information submitted by the participants with ADAMS accession numbers;
</P>
<P>(5) All demonstrative information submitted by the participants;
</P>
<P>(6) Any written answers submitted by the NRC staff in response to questions posed by the presiding officer with ADAMS accession numbers;
</P>
<P>(7) A certification that all documentary information has been entered into ADAMS, and have been placed on the NRC Web site unless otherwise protected from public disclosure;
</P>
<P>(8) A certification by the presiding officer that the record contains sufficient information for the Commission to make a reasoned determination on the Commission-identified issue; and
</P>
<P>(9) At the option of the presiding officer, a summary of the information in the record and a proposed resolution of the Commission-identified issue with a supporting basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.1509" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1509   Ex parte communications and separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>Section 2.347 applies in a legislative hearing. Section 2.348 applies in a legislative hearing only where the hearing addresses an issue certified to the Commission under § 2.335(d), and then only with respect to the underlying contested matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.11.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 2 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.11.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to 10 CFR Part 2—Model Milestones To Be Used By a Presiding Officer as a Guideline in Developing a Hearing Schedule for the Conduct of an Adjudicatory Proceeding in Accordance With 10 CFR 2.332.






</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Model Milestones for a Hearing on an Enforcement Action Conducted Under 10 CFR Part 2, Subpart G
</HD1>
<P>These model milestones would apply to enforcement proceedings conducted under 10 CFR Part 2, Subpart G. As required by 10 CFR 2.332 and 2.334, the presiding officer establishes, by order, a schedule for the conduct of the proceeding. In establishing a schedule, the presiding officer should use these milestones as a starting point, make appropriate modifications to the milestones, and set detailed schedules (e.g., for filings) based upon all relevant information. Such information would include, but not be limited to, the complexity of the issues, any other relevant consideration that a party brings to the attention of the presiding officer, and the NRC's interest in providing a fair and expeditious resolution of the issues to be adjudicated in the proceeding. The model milestones are based on the Commission's Rules of Practice in 10 CFR Part 2, Subparts B, C, and G.
</P>
<P>The model milestones are based upon the following assumptions: (i) the issues to be litigated will involve both disputes over fact and issues of compliance with the Commission's regulations and requirements; and (ii) no petitions to intervene are filed pursuant to 10 CFR 2.309(a)-(b). The model milestones reflect electronic filing and service in accordance with 10 CFR 2.305. In some cases, preparation of direct testimony and motions for summary disposition can proceed once initial mandatory disclosures have been made. The time periods set forth in the model milestones reflect these assumptions.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Model Milestones 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[10 CFR Part 2, Subpart G] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 20 days of date of enforcement order:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Person subject to order files answer; if order immediately effective, motion to set aside immediate effectiveness due; requests for hearing due.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 100 days of enforcement order:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer issues order on hearing request by person who is subject of enforcement order.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 25 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer sets initial schedule for the proceeding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 145 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Discovery complete.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 155 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motions for summary disposition due.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 235 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer decisions on motions for summary disposition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 245 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prehearing conference (optional); presiding officer sets schedule for remainder of proceeding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 275 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Written testimony filed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 90 days of end of evidentiary hearing and closing of record:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer issues initial decision.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>II. Model Milestones for Hearings Conducted Under 10 CFR Part 2, Subpart L
</HD1>
<P>These model milestones would apply to proceedings conducted under 10 CFR Part 2, Subpart L, including those on applications for combined licenses (COLs), renewed licenses, and license amendments. While such proceedings differ insofar as the scope and complexity of the NRC staff reviews for the requested actions may vary, such differences will be reflected in the staff's schedule for issuing its review documents in a particular type of action. Because the milestones are keyed to the staff's review schedule, separate milestones are not identified for proceedings on the different types of actions.
</P>
<P>As required by 10 CFR 2.332 and 2.334, the presiding officer establishes, by order, a schedule for the conduct of each proceeding. In establishing a schedule, the presiding officer should use these milestones as a starting point, make appropriate modifications to the milestones, and set detailed schedules (e.g., for filings) based upon all relevant information. Such information would include, but not be limited to, the number of contentions admitted, the complexity of the issues, the NRC staff's schedule for completion of its safety and environmental evaluations, any other relevant consideration that a party brings to the attention of the presiding officer, and the NRC's interest in providing a fair and expeditious resolution of the issues sought to be admitted for adjudication in the proceeding. The model milestones are based on the Commission's Rules of Practice in 10 CFR Part 2, Subparts B, C, and L.
</P>
<P>The model milestones include only the most significant events in the proceeding and are based upon the following assumptions: (I) the issues to be litigated will involve both disputes over fact and issues of compliance with the Commission's regulations and requirements; (ii) an oral hearing under 10 CFR 2.1207 will be held rather than a written hearing under 10 CFR 2.1208; and (iii) the final Safety Evaluation Report (SER) and final environmental document will be issued simultaneously. The model milestones reflect electronic filing and service in accordance with 10 CFR 2.305.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Model Milestones
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[10 CFR part 2, subpart L]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 140 days of publication of notice in <E T="04">Federal Register</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer decision on intervention petitions and admission of contentions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 55 days of presiding officer decision granting intervention and admitting contentions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer to set initial schedule for proceeding, based on staff schedule for issuing draft and final SERs and any necessary NEPA document.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 30 days of issuance of SER and any necessary NEPA document</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proposed new or amended contentions filed after the deadline on SER and necessary NEPA documents due.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 30 days of issuance of SER and any necessary NEPA document</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motions for summary disposition on previously admitted contentions due.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 85 days of issuance of SER and NEPA document</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer decision on admission of proposed new or amended contentions filed after the deadline and motions for summary disposition; presiding officer sets schedule for remainder of proceeding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 14 days after presiding officer decision on new or amended contentions filed after the deadline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All parties complete updates of mandatory disclosures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 115 days of issuance of SER and NEPA document</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Motions for summary disposition due.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 155 days of issuance of SER and NEPA document</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Written direct testimony filed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 175 days of issuance of SER and NEPA document</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evidentiary hearing begins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 90 days of end of evidentiary hearing and closing of record</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer issues initial decision.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>III. Model Milestones for a Hearing on a Transfer of a License Conducted Under 10 CFR Part 2, Subpart M
</HD1>
<P>These model milestones would apply to proceedings conducted under 10 CFR Part 2, Subpart M on applications for license transfer. As required by 10 CFR 2.332 and 2.334, the presiding officer establishes, by order, a schedule for the conduct of each proceeding. In establishing a schedule, the presiding officer should use these milestones as a starting point, make appropriate modifications to the milestones, and set detailed schedules (e.g., for filings) based upon all relevant information. Such information would include, but not be limited to, the number of contentions admitted, the complexity of the issues, the NRC staff's schedule for completion of its safety and environmental evaluations, any other relevant consideration that a party brings to the attention of the presiding officer, and the NRC's interest in providing a fair and expeditious resolution of the issues sought to be admitted for adjudication in the proceeding. The model milestones are based on the Commission's Rules of Practice in 10 CFR Part 2, Subparts B, C and M.
</P>
<P>The model milestones include only the most significant events in the proceeding, and are based upon the following assumptions: (i) The issues to be litigated will involve both disputes over fact and issues of compliance with the Commission's regulations and requirements; (ii) the parties do not file a joint request under 10 CFR 2.1308 for a hearing consisting of written comments; (iii) the final Safety Evaluation Report (SER) is not necessary to resolve the issues to be litigated; (iv) the Commission itself does not serve as the presiding officer; and (v) the Commission does not order further taking of testimony after the presiding officer certifies the record to the Commission under 10 CFR 2.1319(f). The model milestones reflect electronic filing and service in accordance with 10 CFR 2.305.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Model Milestones 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[10 CFR Part 2, Subpart M] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 100 days of publication of <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of opportunity for hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer decision on intervention petitions and admission of contentions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 30 days of order granting hearing petitions:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NRC staff and other parties complete mandatory disclosures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 12 days of completion of mandatory disclosures:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding Officer issues scheduling order to address, inter alia, scheduling of oral hearing, filing of written statements of position, direct testimony, and rebuttal testimony.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 45 days of scheduling order:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oral hearing commences.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 25 days after hearing ends:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer certifies hearing record to the Commission.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>IV. Model Milestones for a Hearing on an Enforcement Action Conducted Under 10 CFR Part 2, Subpart N
</HD1>
<P>These model milestones would apply to enforcement proceedings conducted under 10 CFR Part 2, Subpart N. As required by 10 CFR 2.332 and 2.334, the presiding officer establishes, by order, a schedule for the conduct of each proceeding. In establishing a schedule, the presiding officer should use these milestones as a starting point, make appropriate modifications to the milestones, and set detailed schedules based upon all relevant information. The model milestones are based on the Commission's Rules of Practice in 10 CFR Part 2, Subparts B, C, and N.
</P>
<P>The model milestones are based upon the following assumptions: (i) The issues to be litigated will involve both disputes over fact and issues of compliance with the Commission's regulations and requirements; and (ii) no petitions to intervene are filed pursuant to 10 CFR 2.309(a)-(b). The model milestones reflect electronic filing and service in accordance with 10 CFR 2.305. The only discovery provided is the mandatory disclosure made by each party pursuant to 10 CFR 2.336.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Model Milestones 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[10 CFR Part 2, Subpart N] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 20 of date of enforcement order:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Person subject to order files answer; if order immediately effective, motion to set aside immediate effectiveness due; requests for hearing due, including joint motion to use Subpart N procedures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 50 days of date of enforcement order:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer decision on requests for hearing and confirms use of Subpart N procedures (note: if presiding officer concludes that Subpart N procedures should not be used, the Model Milestone for Enforcement Actions under Subpart G are applicable).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 30 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mandatory disclosures complete.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 40 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prehearing conference to specify issues for hearing and set schedules for remaining course of proceeding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 60 days of presiding officer decision granting hearing:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evidentiary hearing begins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">• Within 30 days of end of evidentiary hearing and closing of record:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presiding officer issues initial decision.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 20462, Apr. 20, 2005, as amended at 85 FR 70438, Nov. 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.11.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 2 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.2.15.23.11.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 2—Schedule for the Proceeding on Consideration of Construction Authorization for a High-Level Waste Geologic Repository.
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Day 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Regulation
<br/>(10 CFR) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Action 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.101(f)(8), 2.105(a)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="04">Federal Register</E> Notice of Hearing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.309(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petition to intervene/request for hearing, w/contentions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.309(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petition for status as interested government participant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.315(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Answers to intervention &amp; interested government participant Petitions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.309(h)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Petitioner's response to answers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1021</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First Prehearing conference.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.309(h)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First Prehearing Conference Order identifying participants in proceeding, admitted contentions, and setting discovery and other schedules.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1021</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appeals from First Prehearing Conference Order.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Briefs in opposition to appeals.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1021, 2.329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commission ruling on appeals for First Prehearing Conference Order.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">548</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NRC Staff issues SER.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">578</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1022</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Second Prehearing Conference.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">608</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1021, 2.1022</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Discovery complete; Second Prehearing Conference Order finalizes issues for hearing and sets schedule for prefiled testimony and hearing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">618</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1015(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appeals from Second Prehearing Conference Order.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">628</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1015(b), <E T="03">c.f.</E> 2.710(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Briefs in opposition to appeals; last date for filing motions for summary disposition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">648</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">c.f.</E> 2.710(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Last date for responses to summary disposition motions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">658</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.710(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commission ruling on appeals from Second Prehearing Conference Order; last date for party opposing summary disposition motion to file response to new facts and arguments in any response supporting summary disposition motion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">698</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1015(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decision on summary disposition motions (may be determination to dismiss or to hold in abeyance).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">720</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">c.f.</E> 2.710(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evidentiary hearing begins.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">810</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evidentiary hearing ends.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">840</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.712(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicant's proposed findings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">850</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.712(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other parties' proposed findings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">855</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.712(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicant's reply to other parties' proposed findings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">955</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.713</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Initial decision.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">965</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.342(a), 2.345(a), 2.1015(c)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stay motion. Petition for reconsideration, notice of appeal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">975</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.342(d), 2.345(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other parties' responses to stay motion and Petitions for reconsideration.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">985</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commission ruling on stay motion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">995</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1015(c)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appellant's briefs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1015</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1015(c)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appellee's briefs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1055</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1023 Supp. Info</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Completion of NMSS and Commission supervisory review; issuance of construction authorization; NWPA 3-year period tolled.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commission decision.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2275, Jan. 14, 2004; 69 FR 25997, May 11, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4—NONDISCRIMINATION IN FEDERALLY ASSISTED PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE FROM THE COMMISSION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 161, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 401 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5891); 29 U.S.C. 794; 42 U.S.C. 12101 <I>et seq.;</I> 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Subpart A also issued under 42 U.S.C. 2000d through d-7.
</P><P>Subpart B also issued under 29 U.S.C. 706.
</P><P>Subpart C also issued under 42 U.S.C. 6101 through 6107.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 4 appear at 77 FR 39904, July 6, 2012.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV7 N="39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.0.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.0.39.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part implement:
</P>
<P>(a) The provisions of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Pub. L. 88-352; (78 Stat. 241; 42 U.S.C. 2000a note), and title IV of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-438, (88 Stat. 1233; 42 U.S.C. 5801 note), which relate to nondiscrimination with respect to race, color, national origin or sex in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from NRC;
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, Pub. L. 93-112 (87 Stat. 355; 29 U.S.C. 701 note), Pub. L. 95-602 (92 Stat. 2955; 29 U.S.C. 701 note), which relates to nondiscrimination with respect to the disabled in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance; and
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended Pub. L. 94-135 (89 Stat. 713; 42 U.S.C. 3001 note), Pub. L. 95-478 (92 Stat. 1513; 42 U.S.C. 3001 note), which relates to nondiscrimination on the basis of age in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25357, July 7, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.0.39.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.2   Subparts.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A sets forth rules applicable to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and title IV of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974. (The Acts are collectively referred to in subpart A as “the Act”.) Subpart B sets forth rules applicable specifically to matters pertaining to section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended. Subpart C sets forth rules pertaining to the provisions of the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, Pub. L. 94-135 (89 Stat. 713; 42 U.S.C. 3001 note), Pub. L. 95-478 (92 Stat. 1513; 42 U.S.C. 3001 note), which relates to nondiscrimination on the basis of age in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.0.39.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.3   Application of this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to any program for which Federal financial assistance is authorized under a law administered by NRC. The types of Federal financial assistance to which this part applies are listed in appendix A of this part; appendix A may be revised from time to time by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> This part applies to money paid, property transferred, or other Federal assistance extended, by way of grant, entitlement, cooperative agreement, loan, contract, or other agreement by NRC, or an authorized contractor or subcontractor of NRC, the terms of which require compliance with this part. If any statutes implemented by this part are otherwise applicable, the failure to list a type of Federal financial assistance in appendix A does not mean a program or activity is not covered by this part. This part does not apply to—
</P>
<P>(a) Contracts of insurance or guaranty; or
</P>
<P>(b) Procurement contracts; or
</P>
<P>(c) Employment practices under any program or activity except as provided in §§ 4.13, 4.122 and 4.302.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.0.39.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by NRC, or by a primary recipient, as a condition to eligibility for Federal financial assistance; “application” means such an application, request, or plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commission</I> means the Commission of five members or a quorum thereof sitting as a body; “NRC” means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Facility</I> includes all or any portion of structures, equipment, or other real or personal property or interests therein, and the provisions of facilities includes the construction, expansion, renovation, remodeling, alteration or acquisition of facilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any grant, entitlement, loan, cooperative agreement, contract (other than a procurement contract or a contract of insurance or guaranty), or any other arrangement by which NRC provides or otherwise makes available assistance in the form of—
</P>
<P>(1) Funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Services of Federal personnel or other personnel at Federal expense; or
</P>
<P>(3) Real and personal property or any interest in or use of property, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Transfers or leases of property for less than fair market value or for reduced consideration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Proceeds from a subsequent transfer or lease of property if the Federal share of its fair market value is not returned to the Federal Government; and the
</P>
<P>(iii) Sale and lease of, and the permission to use (other than on casual or transient basis) Federal property or any interest in such property without consideration or at a nominal consideration, or at a consideration which is reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient, or in recognition of the public interest to be served by such sale or lease to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administrative Law Judge</I> means an individual appointed pursuant to section 11 of the Administrative Procedure Act to conduct proceedings subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Primary recipient</I> means any recipient which is authorized or required to extend Federal financial assistance to another recipient.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Program or activity</I> and <I>program</I> mean all of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (g)(1) through (4) of this section, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government; 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A college, university or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 8801), system of vocational education, or other school system; 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship— 
</P>
<P>(A) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (g)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recipient</I> means any State, political subdivision of any State, or instrumentality of any State or political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or other entity, or any individual, in any State, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient, including any successor, assignee, or transferee thereof, but such term does not include any ultimate beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Responsible NRC official</I> means the Director of the Office of Small Business and Civil Rights or any other officer to whom the Executive Director for Operations has delegated the authority to act.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>United States</I> means the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, and the territories and possessions of the United States, and the term “State” means any one of the foregoing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980; 45 FR 18905, Mar. 24, 1980. Redesignated and amended at 52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987; 63 FR 15742, Apr. 1, 1998; 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003; 68 FR 75389, Dec. 31, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.0.39.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.5   Communications and reports.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise indicated, communications and reports relating to this part may be sent to the NRC by mail addressed to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58799, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62679, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.0.39.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.6   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19244, May 27, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.0.39.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0053.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 4.32, 4.34, 4.125, 4.127, 4.231, 4.232, 4.322, and 4.324.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52184, Oct. 6, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Regulations Implementing Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and Title IV of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Discrimination Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.40.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.11   General prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>No person in the United States shall, on the ground of sex, race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program to which this subpart applies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.40.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.12   Specific discriminatory actions prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient to which this subpart applies may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, on the ground of sex, race, color, or national origin:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny an individual any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided under the program;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide any service, financial aid, or other benefit to an individual which is different, or is provided in a different manner, from that provided to others under the program;
</P>
<P>(3) Subject an individual to segregation or separate treatment in any matter related to his receipt of any service, financial aid, or other benefit under the program;
</P>
<P>(4) Restrict an individual in any way in the enjoyment of any advantage or privilege enjoyed by others receiving any service, financial aid, or other benefit under the program;
</P>
<P>(5) Treat an individual differently from others in determining whether he satisfies any admission, enrollment, quota, eligibilty, membership or other requirement or condition which individuals must meet in order to be provided any service, financial aid, or other benefit provided under the program;
</P>
<P>(6) Deny an individual an opportunity to participate in the program through the provision of services or otherwise or afford him an opportunity to do so which is different from that afforded others under the program (including the opportunity to participate in the program as an employee but only to the extent set forth in § 4.13).
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient in determining the types of services, financial aid, or other benefits, or facilities which will be provided under any such program, or the class of individuals to whom, or the situations in which, such services, financial aid, other benefits, or facilities will be provided under any such program, or the class of individuals to be afforded an opportunity to participate in any such program, may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration which have the effect of subjecting individuals to discrimination because of their sex, race, color, or national origin, or have the effect of defeating or substantially impairing accomplishment of the objectives of the program as respects individuals of a particular sex, race, color, or national origin.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the site or location of facilities, a recipient or applicant may not make selections with the purpose or effect of excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under any program to which this subpart applies, on the grounds of sex, race, color, or national origin; or with the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the Act or this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this section the services, financial aid, or other benefits provided under a program receiving Federal financial assistance shall be deemed to include any services, financial aid, or other benefit provided in or through a facility provided with the aid of Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(e) The enumeration of specific forms of prohibited discrimination in this section and § 4.13 does not limit the generality of the prohibition in § 4.11.
</P>
<P>(f) This subpart does not prohibit the consideration of sex, race, color, or national origin if the purpose and effect are to remove or overcome the consequences of practices or impediments which have restricted the availability of, or participation in, the program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, on the grounds of sex, race, color or national origin. Where previous discriminatory practice or usage tends, on the grounds of sex, race, color, or national origin, to exclude individuals from participation in, to deny them the benefits of, or to subject them to discrimination under any program or activity to which this subpart applies, the applicant or recipient has an obligation to take reasonable action to remove or overcome the consequences of the prior discriminatory practice or usage, and to accomplish the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17927, July 5, 1973; 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975; 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.40.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.13   Employment practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance to a program to which this subpart applies is to provide employment, a recipient may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, subject an individual to discrimination on the ground of sex, race, color, or national origin in its employment practices under such program (including recruitment or recruitment advertising, employment, layoff or termination, upgrading, demotion, or transfer, rates of pay or other forms of compensation, and use of facilities), including programs where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance to a program is (1) to assist such individuals through employment to meet expenses incident to the commencement or continuation of their education or training, or (2) to provide work experience which contributes to the education or training of such individuals. (Examples of such Federal financial assistance are nuclear training equipment grants, grants and loans of materials for training, and fellowships.) The requirements applicable to construction employment under any such program shall be those specified in or pursuant to part III of Executive Order 11246 or any Executive order which supersedes it.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is not to provide employment, but discrimination on the grounds of sex, race, color, or national origin in the employment practices of the recipient or other persons subject to this subpart tends, on the grounds of sex, race, color, or national origin, to exclude individuals from participation in, to deny them the benefits of, or to subject them to discrimination under any program to which this subpart applies, the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section shall apply to the employment practices of the recipient or other persons subject to this subpart to the extent necessary to assure equality of opportunity to, and nondiscriminatory treatment of, beneficiaries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17927, July 5, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975; 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.40.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.14   Medical emergencies.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not be deemed to have failed to comply with § 4.11 if immediate provision of a service or other benefit to an individual is necessary to prevent his death or serious impairment of his health, and such service or other benefit cannot be provided except by or through a medical institution which refuses or fails to comply with § 4.11.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Assurances Required</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.41.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.21   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every grant, loan or contract to which this subpart applies, except an application to which § 4.22 applies, shall, as a condition to its approval by NRC, or by the appropriate NRC contractor or subcontractor, and the extension of any Federal financial assistance pursuant thereto, contain or be accompanied by an assurance that the program will be conducted in compliance with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this subpart. In the case of a grant, loan, or contract involving Federal financial assistance to provide real property or structures thereon, the assurance shall obligate the recipient, or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended, or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. In the case of personal property the assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which he retains ownership or possession of the property. In all other cases the assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended pursuant to the grant, loan or contract. The Commission will specify the form of the foregoing assurances and the extent to which like assurances will be required of subgrantees, contractors and subcontractors, successors in interest, and other participants. Any such assurance shall include provisions which give the United States a right to seek its judicial enforcement.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of real property, structures or improvements thereon, or interests therein, which was acquired with Federal financial assistance, or in the case where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of a transfer of real property or interest therein from the Federal Government, the instrument effecting or recording the transfer shall contain a covenant running with the land assuring nondiscrimination for the period during which the real property is used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. Where no transfer of property is involved, but property is improved with Federal financial assistance, the recipient shall agree to include such a covenant in any subsequent transfer of such property. Where the property is obtained from the Federal Government, such covenant may also include a condition coupled with a right to be reserved by the NRC to revert title to the property in the event of a breach of the covenant where, in the discretion of the NRC, such a condition and right of reverter is appropriate to the program and to the nature of the grant and the grantee. In such event if a transferee of real property proposes to mortgage or otherwise encumber the real property as security for financing construction of new, or improvement of existing, facilities on such property for the purposes for which the property was transferred, the NRC may agree, upon request of the transferee and if necessary to accomplish such financing, and upon such conditions as the NRC deems appropriate, to forbear the exercise of such right to revert title for so long as the lien of such mortgage or other encumbrance remains effective.
</P>
<P>(c) Transfers of surplus property are subject to regulations issued by the Administrator of General Services (41 CFR 101-6.2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17927, July 5, 1973; 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003; 68 FR 75389, Dec. 31, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.41.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.22   Continuing Federal financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>Every application by a State or a State agency for continuing Federal financial assistance shall require the submission of and every grant, loan, or contract to or with a State or a State agency for continuing Federal financial assistance to which this subpart applies, shall, as a condition to its approval and the extension of any Federal financial assistance pursuant to the grant, loan or contract, contain or be accompanied by, a statement that the program is (or, in the case of a new program, will be) conducted in compliance with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this subpart, and shall provide or be accompanied by provisions for such methods of administration for the program as are found by the responsible NRC official to give reasonable assurance that the recipient and all other recipients of Federal financial assistance under such program will comply with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17928, July 5, 1973, as amended at 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.24" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.41.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.24   Assurances from institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of a grant, loan or contract involving Federal financial assistance to an institution of higher education, the assurance required by § 4.21 shall extend to admission practices and to all other practices relating to the treatment of students.
</P>
<P>(b) The assurance required with respect to an institution of higher education, hospital, or any other institution, insofar as the assurance relates to the institution's practices with respect to admission or other treatment of individuals as students, patients, or clients of the institution or to the opportunity to participate in the provision of services or other benefits to such individuals, shall be applicable to the entire institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="42" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Compliance Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.42.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.31   Cooperation and assistance.</HEAD>
<P>The responsible NRC official shall to the fullest extent practicable seek the cooperation of recipients in obtaining compliance with this subpart and shall provide assistance and guidance to recipients to help them comply voluntarily with this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.42.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.32   Compliance reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each recipient shall keep records and submit to the responsible NRC official, timely, complete, and accurate compliance reports at the times and in the form and containing the information that the responsible NRC official may determine to be necessary to enable the official to ascertain whether the recipient has complied or is complying with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case in which a primary recipient extends Federal financial assistance to any other recipient, the other recipient shall also submit necessary compliance reports to the primary recipient to enable the primary recipient to carry out its obligations under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) The primary recipient shall retain each record of information needed to complete a compliance report pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section for three years or as long as the primary recipient retains the status of primary recipient as defined in § 4.4, whichever is shorter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19244, May 27, 1988, as amended at 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.42.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.33   Access to sources of information.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall permit access by the responsible NRC official during normal business hours to such of its books, records, accounts, and other sources of information, and its facilities as may be pertinent to ascertain compliance with this subpart. Where any information required of a recipient is in the exclusive possession of any other agency, institution or person and that agency, institution or person shall fail or refuse to furnish this information, the recipient shall so certify in its report and shall set forth what efforts it has made to obtain the information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.34" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.42.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.34   Information to beneficiaries and participants.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall make available to participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this subpart and its applicability to the program for which the recipient receives Federal financial assistance, and make such information available to them in such manner, as the responsible NRC official finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by the Act and this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.43" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Conduct of Investigations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.43.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.41   Periodic compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>The responsible NRC official shall from time to time review the practices of recipients to determine whether they are complying with this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.42" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.43.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.42   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who believes himself or any specific class of individuals to be subjected to discrimination prohibited by this subpart may by himself or by a representative file with the responsible NRC official a written complaint. A complaint must be filed not later than ninety (90) days from the date of the alleged discrimination, unless the time for filing is extended by the responsible NRC official. A complaint shall be signed by the complainant or his representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.43.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.43   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>The responsible NRC official will make a prompt investigation whenever a compliance review, report, complaint, or any other information indicates a possible failure to comply with this subpart. The investigation should include, where appropriate, a review of the pertinent practices and policies of the recipient, the circumstances under which the possible noncompliance with this subpart occurred, and other factors relevant to a determination as to whether the recipient has failed to comply with this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.44" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.43.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.44   Resolution of matters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an investigation pursuant to § 4.43 indicates a failure to comply with this subpart, the responsible NRC official will so inform the recipient and the matter will be resolved by voluntary means whenever possible. If it has been determined that the matter cannot be resolved by voluntary means, action will be taken as provided for in §§ 4.46 through 4.49.
</P>
<P>(b) If an investigation does not warrant action pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the responsible NRC official will so inform the recipient and the complainant, if any, in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.43.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.45   Intimidatory or retaliatory acts prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>No recipient or other person shall intimidate, threaten, coerce, or discriminate against any individual for the purpose of interfering with any right or privilege secured by the Act or this subpart, or because he has made a complaint, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this subpart. The identity of complainants shall be kept confidential, except to the extent necessary to carry out the purposes of this subpart including the conduct of any investigation, hearing, or judicial proceeding arising thereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="44" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.44" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Means of Effecting Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.46" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.44.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.46   Means available.</HEAD>
<P>If there appears to be a failure or threatened failure to comply with any of the provisions of this subpart, and if the noncompliance or threatened concompliance cannot be corrected by informal means, compliance with this subpart may be effected by the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance or by any other means authorized by law. Such other means may include, but are not limited to: (a) A reference to the Department of Justice with a recommendation that appropriate proceedings be brought to enforce any rights of the United States under any law of the United States (including other titles of the Act), or any assurance or other contractual undertaking, and (b) any applicable proceeding under State or local law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.44.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.47   Noncompliance with § 4.21.</HEAD>
<P>If an applicant fails or refuses to furnish an assurance required under § 4.21 or otherwise fails or refuses to comply with a requirement imposed by or pursuant to that section, Federal financial assistance may be refused in accordance with the procedures of § 4.48.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.48" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.44.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.48   Termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>No order suspending, terminating, or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance shall become effective until: (a) The responsible NRC official has advised the applicant or recipient of his failure to comply and has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, (b) there has been an express finding on the record, after opportunity for hearing, of a failure by the applicant or recipient to comply with the requirement imposed by or pursuant to this subpart, (c) the action has been approved by the Commission pursuant to § 4.72, and (d) the expiration of thirty (30) days after the Commission has filed with the committee of the House and the committee of the Senate having legislative jurisdiction over the program involved, a full written report of the circumstances and the grounds for such action. Any action to suspend or terminate or to refuse to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance shall be limited to the particular political entity, or part thereof, or other applicant or recipient as to whom such finding has been made and shall be limited in its effect to the particular program, or part thereof, in which such noncompliance has been so found.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.49" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.44.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.49   Other means authorized by law.</HEAD>
<P>No action to effect compliance by any other means authorized by law shall be taken until: (a) The responsible NRC official has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means, (b) the recipient or other person has been notified of its failure to comply and of the action to be taken to effect compliance, and (c) the expiration of at least ten (10) days from the mailing of such notice to the recipient or other person. During this period of at least ten (10) days, additional efforts shall be made to persuade the recipient or other person to comply with this subpart and to take such corrective action as may be appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17928, July 5, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.45" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Opportunity for Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.45.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.51   Notice of opportunity for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever an opportunity for hearing is required by § 4.48, the responsible NRC official shall serve on the applicant or recipient, by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, a notice of opportunity for hearing which will:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the applicant or recipient of his right within twenty (20) days of the date of the notice of opportunity for hearing, or such other period as may be specified in the notice, to request a hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) Set forth the alleged item or items of noncompliance with this subpart;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the issues;
</P>
<P>(4) State that compliance with this subpart may be effected by an order providing for the termination of or refusal to grant or to continue assistance, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide that the applicant or recipient may file a written answer to the notice of opportunity for hearing under oath or affirmation within twenty (20) days of its date, or such other period as may be specified in the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant or recipient may respond to a notice of opportunity for hearing by filing a written answer under oath or affirmation. The answer shall specifically admit or deny each allegation, or, where the applicant or recipient does not have knowledge or information sufficient to form a belief, the answer may so state and the statements shall have the effect of a denial. Allegations of fact not denied shall be deemed to be admitted. The answer shall separately state and identify matters alleged as affirmative defenses and may also set forth the matters of fact and law on which the applicant or recipient relies. The answer may request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) If the answer requests a hearing, the Commission will issue a notice of hearing specifying:
</P>
<P>(1) The time, place, and nature thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held; and
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law asserted or to be considered. The time and place of hearing will be fixed with due regard for the convenience and necessity of the parties or their representatives and for the public interest. An answer to a notice of hearing is not required.
</P>
<P>(d) An applicant or recipient may file an answer, and waive or fail to request a hearing, without waiving the requirement for findings of fact and conclusions of law or the right to seek Commission review in accordance with the provisions of §§ 4.71 through 4.74. At the time an answer is filed the applicant or recipient may also submit written information or argument for the record if he does not request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) An answer or stipulation may consent to the entry of an order in substantially the form set forth in the notice of opportunity for hearing; such order may be entered by the responsible Commission official. The consent of the applicant or recipient to the entry of an order shall constitute a waiver by him of a right to: (1) A hearing under the Act and § 4.48, (2) findings of fact and conclusions of law, and (3) seek Commission review.
</P>
<P>(f) The failure of an applicant or recipient to file an answer within the period prescribed, or, if he requests a hearing, his failure to appear therefor, shall constitute a waiver by him of a right to: (1) A hearing under the Act and § 4.48, (2) conclusions of law, and (3) seek Commission review. In the event of such waiver, the responsible NRC official may find the facts on the basis of the record available and enter an order in substantially the form set forth in the notice of opportunity for hearing.
</P>
<P>(g) An order entered in accordance with paragraph (e) or (f) of this section shall constitute the final decision of the Commission, unless the Commission, on its own motion, within forty-five (45) days after entry of the order, issues its own decision, which shall then constitute the final decision of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(h) A copy of an order entered by the responsible NRC official shall be mailed to the applicant or recipient and to the complainant, if any.
</P>
<P>(i) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to place the burden of proof on the applicant or recipient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17928, July 5, 1973; 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975; 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="46" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.46" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Hearings and Findings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.46.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.61   Presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>One or more members of the Commission or one or more administrative law judges appointed pursuant to section 3105 of title 5 of the United States Code shall: (a) Preside at a hearing and (b) make findings of fact and conclusions of law if an applicant or recipient waives a hearing and submits written information or argument for the record in accordance with § 4.51(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 11459, July 17, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.62" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.46.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.62   Right to counsel.</HEAD>
<P>In all proceedings under §§ 4.51-4.81, the applicant or recipient and the responsible NRC official shall have the right to be represented by counsel. A notice of appearance shall be filed by counsel prior to participation in any such proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.46.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.63   Procedures, evidence, and record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing, decision, and any administrative review thereof shall be conducted in conformity with 5 U.S.C. 554-557 (sections 5-8 of the Administrative Procedure Act), and in accordance with such procedures as are proper (and not inconsistent with §§ 4.61 through 4.64) relating to the conduct of the hearing, giving of notices subsequent to those provided for in § 4.51, taking of testimony, exhibits, arguments and briefs, requests for finding, and other related matters. Both the responsible NRC official and the applicant or recipient shall be entitled to introduce all relevant evidence on the issues as stated in the notice of hearing or as determined by the presiding officer at the outset of or during the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Technical rules of evidence shall not apply to hearings conducted pursuant to this subpart, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most credible evidence available and to subject testimony to test by cross-examination shall be applied where reasonably necessary by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence. All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by the parties and opportunity shall be given to refute facts and arguments advanced on either side of the issues. A transcript shall be made of the oral evidence except to the extent the substance thereof is stipulated for the record.
</P>
<P>(c) Each decision made after a hearing has been held shall be based on the hearing record, and written findings of fact and conclusions of law shall be made.
</P>
<P>(d) If an applicant or recipient waives a hearing and submits written information or argument for the record in accordance with § 4.51(d), written findings of fact and conclusions of law shall be made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 35 FR 11459, July 17, 1970; 38 FR 17928, July 5, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.64" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.46.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.64   Consolidated or joint hearings.</HEAD>
<P>In cases in which the same or related facts are asserted to constitute noncompliance with this subpart with respect to two or more Federal statutes, authorities, or other means by which Federal financial assistance is extended and to which this subpart applies or noncompliance with this subpart and the regulations of one or more other Federal departments or agencies issued under title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, the Commission may, by agreement with such other departments or agencies, where applicable, provide for the conduct of consolidated or joint hearings, and for the application to such hearings of rules of procedure not inconsistent with this subpart. Final decisions in such cases, insofar as this regulation is concerned shall be made in accordance with § 4.72.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975; 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.47" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Decision and Notice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.47.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.71   Initial decision or certification.</HEAD>
<P>The officer designated:
</P>
<P>(a) To preside at a hearing, or,
</P>
<P>(b) To make findings of fact and conclusions of law if an applicant or recipient waives a hearing and submits written information or argument for the record in accordance with § 4.51(d), shall render an initial decision on the record, or, if the Commission so directs, shall certify the entire record to the Commission for decision, together with a recommended decision on the record. A copy of such initial decision, or of such certification and recommended decision, shall be mailed to the applicant or recipient.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.72" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.47.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.72   Exceptions and final decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant or recipient, within thirty (30) days of the mailing of an initial decision or a recommended decision, may file with the Commission his exceptions to such decision, with his reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) In the absence of exceptions to an initial decision, the Commission may, on its own motion within forty-five (45) days after the mailing of such initial decision, serve on the applicant or recipient a notice that the Commission will review the decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the filing of exceptions to an initial decision or of a notice of review, the Commission shall review such initial decision and issue its own decision on the record with its reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(d) In the absence of either exceptions to an initial decision or of a notice of review, such initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon the filing of exceptions to a recommended decision, the Commission shall review such recommended decision and issue its own decision on the record with its reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(f) In the absence of exceptions to a recommended decision, the Commission shall review such recommended decision and issue its own decision on the record with its reasons therefor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.73" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.47.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.73   Rulings required.</HEAD>
<P>Each decision of a presiding officer or the Commission shall set forth the rulings on each finding, conclusion, or exception presented, and shall identify the requirement or requirements imposed by or pursuant to this subpart with which it is found that the applicant or recipient has failed to comply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.74" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.47.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.74   Content of orders.</HEAD>
<P>The final decision may provide for suspension or termination of, or refusal to grant or continue Federal financial assistance, in whole or in part, to which this regulation applies, and may contain such terms, conditions, and other provisions as are consistent with and will effectuate the purposes of the Act and this subpart, including provisions designed to assure that no Federal financial assistance to which this regulation applies will thereafter be extended to the applicant or recipient determined by such decision to be in default in its performance of an assurance given by it pursuant to this subpart, or to have otherwise failed to comply with this subpart, unless and until it corrects its noncompliance and satisfies the NRC that it will fully comply with this subpart. A copy of the final decision shall be mailed to the applicant or recipient and the complainant, if any.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.75" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.47.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.75   Post termination proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order issued under § 4.74 shall be restored to full eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance if it satisfies the terms and conditions of that order for such eligibility or if it brings itself into compliance with this subpart and provides reasonable assurance that it will fully comply with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Any applicant or recipient adversely affected by an order entered pursuant to § 4.74 may at any time request the responsible NRC official to restore fully its eligibility to receive Federal financial assistance. Any such request shall be supported by information showing that the applicant or recipient has met the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. If the responsible NRC official determines that those requirements have been satisfied, he shall restore such eligibility.
</P>
<P>(c) If the responsible NRC official denies any such request, the applicant or recipient may submit a request for a hearing in writing, specifying why it believes such official to have been in error. It shall thereupon be given an expeditious hearing, with the decision on the record, in accordance with rules of procedure issued by the responsible NRC official. The applicant or recipient will be restored to such eligibility if it proves at such a hearing that it satisfied the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. While proceedings under this section are pending, the sanctions imposed by the order issued under § 4.74 shall remain in effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 17928, July 5, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="48" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.48" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Judicial Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.48.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.81   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Action taken pursuant to section 602 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 is subject to judicial review as provided in section 603 of that Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="49" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.49" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Effect on Other Regulations; Forms and Instructions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.91" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.49.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.91   Effect on other regulations.</HEAD>
<P>All regulations, orders, or like directions heretofore issued by any officer of the NRC which impose requirements designed to prohibit any discrimination against individuals on the grounds of sex, race, color, or national origin under any program to which this subpart applies, and which authorize the suspension or termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance to any applicant for or recipient of such assistance for failure to comply with such requirements, are hereby superseded to the extent that such discrimination is prohibited by this subpart, except that nothing in this subpart shall be deemed to relieve any person of any obligation assumed or imposed under any such superseded regulation, order, instruction, or like direction prior to the effective date of this subpart. Nothing in this subpart, however, shall be deemed to supersede any of the following (including future amendments thereof):
</P>
<P>(a) Executive Orders 10925, 11114, and 11246 and regulations issued thereunder, or
</P>
<P>(b) Executive Order 11063 and regulations issued thereunder and any other regulations or instructions insofar as such order, regulations or instructions prohibit discrimination on the grounds of sex, race, color, or national origin in any program or situation to which this subpart is inapplicable, or prohibit discrimination on any other ground.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17928, July 5, 1973; 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975; 68 FR 51344, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.92" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.49.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.92   Forms and instructions.</HEAD>
<P>The responsible NRC official shall issue and promptly make available to interested persons forms and detailed instructions and procedures for effectuating this subpart as applied to programs to which this subpart applies and for which he is responsible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.93" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.1.49.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.93   Supervision and coordination.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may from time to time assign to officials of other departments or agencies of the Government, with the consent of the department or agency involved, responsibilities in connection with the effectuation of the purposes of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and this subpart, other than responsibility for final decision as provided in § 4.72, including the achievement of effective coordination and maximum uniformity within the NRC and within the Executive Branch of the Government in the application of title VI of the Civil Rights Act and this subpart to similar programs and in similar situations. Any action taken, determination made, or requirement imposed by an official of another department or agency acting pursuant to an assignment of responsibility under this section shall have the same effect as though such action had been taken by the responsible NRC official.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Regulations Implementing Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as Amended</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Disabled person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. Such term does not include any individual who is an alcoholic or drug abuser whose current use of alcohol or drugs prevents such individual from performing the duties of the job in question or whose employment, by reason of such current alcohol or drug abuse, would constitute a direct threat to property or the safety of others.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in paragraph (a) of this section, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> means: (i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive, genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or (ii) any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, and emotional illness.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> means functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by a recipient as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not have a physical or mental impairment but is treated by a recipient as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualified disabled person</I> means: (1) With respect to employment, a disabled person who, with reasonable accommodation, can perform essential functions of the job in question and (2) with respect to services, a disabled person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for the receipt of such services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-112, as amended by the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, Pub. L. 95-602 (29 U.S.C. 794).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="50" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Discriminatory Practices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.121" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.121   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified disabled person, shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subject to discrimination under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A recipient, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability:
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified disabled person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified disabled person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified disabled person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to disabled persons or to any class of disabled persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified disabled persons with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against a qualified disabled person by providing significant assistance to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of disability in providing any aid, benefit, or service to beneficiaries of the recipient's program or activity;
</P>
<P>(vi) Deny a qualified disabled person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Otherwise limit a qualified disabled person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may not deny a qualified disabled person the opportunity to participate in aid, benefits, or services that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different aid, benefits, or services.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient may not directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration: 
</P>
<P>(i) That have the effect of subjecting qualified disabled persons to discrimination on the basis of disability, 
</P>
<P>(ii) That have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing accomplishment of the objectives of the recipient's program or activity with respect to disabled persons, or
</P>
<P>(iii) That perpetuate the discrimination of another recipient if both recipients are subject to common administrative control or are agencies of the same State.
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections:
</P>
<P>(i) That have the effect of excluding disabled persons from, denying them the benefits of, or otherwise subjecting them to discrimination under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance or
</P>
<P>(ii) That have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the program or activity with respect to disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nondisabled persons from aid, benefits, or services limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to disabled persons or the exclusion of a specific class of disabled persons from aid, benefits, or services limited by Federal statute or Executive Order to a different class of disabled persons is not prohibited by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Recipients shall administer programs or activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(e) Recipients shall take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with their applicants, employees, and beneficiaries are available to persons with impaired vision and hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.122" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.122   General prohibitions against employment discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified disabled person shall, on the basis of disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient shall make all decisions concerning employment under any program or activity to which this subpart applies in a manner which ensures that discrimination on the basis of disability does not occur and may not limit, segregate, or classify applicants or employees in any way that adversely affects their opportunities or status because of disability.
</P>
<P>(c) The prohibition against discrimination in employment applies to the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment, advertising, and the processing of applications for employment;
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, right of return from layoff, and rehiring;
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation and changes in compensation;
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, job classifications, organizational structures, position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists;
</P>
<P>(5) Leaves of absence, sick leave, or any other leave;
</P>
<P>(6) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient;
</P>
<P>(7) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities and selection for leaves of absence to pursue training;
</P>
<P>(8) Employer sponsored activities, including those that are social or recreational; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment.
</P>
<P>(d) A recipient may not participate in a contractual or other relationship that has the effect of subjecting qualified disabled applicants or employees to discrimination prohibited by this subpart. The relationships referred to in this paragraph include relationships with employment and referral agencies, with labor unions, with organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient, and with organizations providing training and apprenticeships.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.123" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.123   Reasonable accommodation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of an otherwise qualified disabled applicant or employee unless the recipient can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) Reasonable accommodation may include: (1) Making facilities used by employees readily accessible to and usable by disabled persons, and (2) job restructuring, part-time or modified work schedules, acquisition or modification of equipment or devices, the provision of readers or interpreters, and other similar actions. This list is neither all-inclusive nor meant to suggest that an employer must follow all the actions listed.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section whether an accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of a recipient's program or activity, factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>(1) The overall size of the recipient's program or activity with respect to number of employees, number and type of facilities, and size of budget;
</P>
<P>(2) The type of the recipient's operations, including the composition and structure of the recipient's workforce; and
</P>
<P>(3) The nature and cost of the accommodation needed.
</P>
<P>(d) A recipient may not deny any employment opportunity to a qualified disabled employee or applicant if the basis for denial is the need to make reasonable accommodation to the physical or mental limitations of the employee or applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.124" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.124   Employment criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient may not make use of any employment test or other selection criterion that screens out or tends to screen out disabled persons or any class of disabled persons unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The test score or other selection criterion as used by the recipient is shown to be job-related for the position in question; and
</P>
<P>(2) Alternative job-related tests or criteria that do not screen out or tend to screen out as many disabled persons are not available.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient shall select and administer tests concerning employment so as best to ensure that, when administered to an applicant or employee who has a disability that impairs sensory, manual, or speaking skills, the test results accurately reflect the applicant's or employee's job skills, aptitude, or whatever other factor the test purports to measure, rather than reflecting the applicant's or employee's impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills (except where those skills are the factors that the test purports to measure).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.125" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.125   Preemployment inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a recipient may not conduct a preemployment medical examination or may not make preemployment inquiry of an applicant as to whether the applicant is a disabled person or as to the nature of severity of a disability. A recipient may, however, make preemployment inquiry into an applicant's ability to perform job-related functions.
</P>
<P>(b) When a recipient is taking remedial action to correct the effects of past discrimination, or when a recipient is taking voluntary action to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in its federally assisted program or activity, or when a recipient is taking affirmative action pursuant to section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the recipient may invite applicants for employment to indicate whether and to what extent they are disabled: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient makes clear to the applicant that the information requested is intended for use solely in connection with its remedial action obligations or its voluntary or affirmative action efforts; and
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient makes clear to the applicant that the information is being requested on a voluntary basis, that it will be kept confidential as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, that refusal to provide it will not subject the applicant to any adverse treatment, and that it will be used only in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a recipient from conditioning an offer of employment on the results of a medical examination conducted prior to the employee's entrance on duty: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) All entering employees are subjected to such an examination regardless of disability; and
</P>
<P>(2) The results of such an examination are used only in accordance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Information obtained in accordance with this section as to the medical condition or history of the applicant must be collected on separate forms. The recipient shall retain each form as a record for three years from the date the applicant's employment ends, or, if not hired, from the date of application. Each form must be accorded confidentiality as a medical record, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding restrictions on the work or duties that may be assigned to disabled persons and regarding necessary accommodations;
</P>
<P>(2) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, where appropriate, if the condition associated with the disability might require emergency treatment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Government officials investigating compliance with the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 shall be provided relevant information upon request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 19244, May 27, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.126" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.126   General requirement concerning accessibility.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified disabled person shall, because a recipient's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by disabled persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.127" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.127   Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accessibility.</I> A recipient shall operate each program or activity so that when each part is viewed in its entirety it is readily accessible to and usable by disabled persons. This paragraph does not necessarily require a recipient to make each of its existing facilities or every part of an existing facility accessible to and usable by disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> A recipient may comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of classes or other services to accessible buildings, assignment of aids to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of health, welfare or other social services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities in conformance with the requirements of § 4.128 or any other methods that result in making its program or activity accessible to and usable by disabled persons. A recipient is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with paragraph (a) of this section. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient shall give priority to those methods that serve disabled persons in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period.</I> A recipient shall comply with the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section within 60 days of the effective date of this subpart except that where structural changes in facilities are necessary, the changes are to be made within three years of the effective date of this subpart, but in any event, as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities are necessary to meet the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient shall develop a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete the changes. The plan is to be developed with the assistance of interested persons, including disabled persons, or organizations representing disabled persons, and the plan is to meet with the approval of the NRC. The recipient shall retain a copy of the transition plan as a record until any structural change to a facility is complete. A copy of the transition plan is to be made available for public inspection. At a minimum, the plan is to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the recipient's facilities that limit the accessibility and usability of its program or activity to disabled persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible to and usable by disabled persons;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve full accessibility under paragraph (a) of this section and, if the time period or the transition plan is longer than 1 year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the person responsible for implementation of the plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice.</I> The recipient shall adopt and implement procedures to ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information concerning the existence and location of services, activities, and facilities that are accessible to, and usable by, disabled persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 19244, May 27, 1988; 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.128" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.50.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.128   New construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Design, construction, and alteration.</I> New facilities shall be designed and constructed to be readily accessible to and usable by disabled persons. Alterations to existing facilities shall, to the maximum extent feasible, be designed and constructed to be readily accessible to and usable by disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conformance with Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards.</I> (1) Effective as of January 18, 1991, design, construction, or alteration of buildings in conformance with sections 3—8 of the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards (USAF) (appendix A to 41 CFR subpart 101-19.6) shall be deemed to comply with the requirements of this section with respect to those buildings. Departures from particular technical and scoping requirements of UFAS by the use of other methods are permitted where substantially equivalent or greater access to and usability of the building is provided.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, section 4.1.6(1)(g) of UFAS shall be interpreted to exempt from the requirements of UFAS only mechanical rooms and other spaces that, because of their intended use, will not require accessibility to the public or beneficiaries or result in the employment or residence therein of persons with physical disabilities.
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not require recipients to make building alterations that have little likelihood of being accomplished without removing or altering a load-bearing structural member.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 52138, 52139, Dec. 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.51" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.231" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.51.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.231   Responsibility of applicants and recipients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assurances.</I> An applicant for Federal financial assistance to which this subpart applies shall submit an assurance, on a form specified by the responsible NRC official, that the program or activity will be operated in compliance with the subpart. An applicant may incorporate these assurances by reference in subsequent applications to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> The assurance will obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remedial action.</I> (1) If the responsible NRC official finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of disability in violation of section 504 or this subpart, the recipient shall take such remedial action as the responsible NRC official deems necessary to overcome the effect of the discrimination.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a recipient is found to have discriminated against persons on the basis of disability in violation of section 504 or this subpart and where another recipient exercises control over the recipient that has discriminated, the responsible NRC official, where appropriate, may require either or both recipients to take remedial action.
</P>
<P>(3) The responsible NRC official may, where necessary to overcome the effects of discrimination in violation of section 504 or this subpart, require a recipient to take remedial action: (i) With respect to disabled persons who are no longer participants in the recipient's program or activity but who were participants in the program when such discrimination occurred or (ii) with respect to disabled persons who would have been participants in the program or activity had the discrimination not occurred.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voluntary action.</I> A recipient may take steps, in addition to any action that is required by this subpart, to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in the recipient's program or activity by qualified disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> (1) A recipient shall as soon as practicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate, with the assistance of interested persons, including disabled persons or organizations representing disabled persons, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof that do not or may not meet the requirements of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) Modify, after consultation with interested persons, including disabled persons or organizations representing disabled persons, any policies and practices that do not meet the requirements of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Take, after consultation with interested persons, including disabled persons or organizations representing disabled persons, appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of any discrimination that resulted from adherence to those policies and practices.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall, for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, maintain on file, make available for public inspection, and provide to the responsible NRC official upon request: (i) A list of the interested persons consulted, (ii) a description of areas examined and any problems identified, and (iii) a description of any modifications made and of any remedial steps taken.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> A recipient shall designate at least one person to coordinate its efforts to comply with this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.232" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.51.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.232   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall take appropriate initial and continuing steps to notify participants, beneficiaries, applicants, and employees, including those with impaired vision or hearing, and unions or professional organizations holding collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient that it does not discriminate on the basis of disability in violation of section 504 and this subpart. The notification shall state, where appropriate, that the recipient does not discriminate in admission or access to, or treatment or employment in, its programs or activities. The notification shall also include an identification of the responsible employee designated pursuant to § 4.231(f). A present recipient shall make the initial notification required by this paragraph within 90 days of the effective date of this subpart. Methods of initial and continuing notification may include the posting of notices, publication in newspapers and magazines, placement of notices in recipients' publications, and distribution of memoranda or other written communications.
</P>
<P>(b) If a recipient publishes or uses recruitment materials or publications containing general information that it makes available to participants, beneficiaries, applicants, or employees, if shall include in those materials or publications a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section. A recipient may meet the requirement of this paragraph either by including appropriate inserts in existing materials and publications or by revising and reprinting the materials and publications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14535, Mar. 6, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.233" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.2.51.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.233   Enforcement procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The enforcement and hearing procedures set forth in §§ 4.41 through 4.75 of subpart A with respect to discrimination based on sex, race, color or national origin shall be used for the enforcement of the regulations in subpart B with respect to discrimination based on disability.
</P>
<P> 
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Regulations Implementing the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as Amended</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="52" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.52" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.301" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.52.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.301   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to set forth NRC policies and procedures under the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 which prohibits discrimination on the basis of age in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.302" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.52.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.302   Application of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Age Discrimination Act of 1975 and these regulations apply to any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) The Age Discrimination Act of 1975 and these regulations do not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) An age distinction contained in that part of a Federal, State, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body that—
</P>
<P>(i) Provides any benefits or assistance to persons based on age; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes criteria for participation in age-related terms; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Describes intended beneficiaries or target groups in age-related terms.
</P>
<P>(2) Any employment practice of any employer, employment agency, labor organization, or any labor-management joint apprenticeship training program, except for any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance for public service employment under the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act of 1974 (CETA) (29 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.303" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.52.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.303   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, (title III of Pub. L. 94-135; 89 Stat. 713; 42 U.S.C. 3001 note).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action</I> means any act, activity, policy, rule, standard, or method of administration; or the use of any policy, rule, standard, or method of administration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Age</I> means how old a person is, or the number of elapsed years from the date of a person's birth.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Age distinction</I> means any action using age or an age-related term.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Age-related term</I> means a word or words which necessarily imply a particular age or range of ages (for example, “children,” “adult,” “older persons,” but not “student”).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Subrecipient</I> means any of the entities in the definition of “recipient” to which a recipient extends or passes on Federal financial assistance. A subrecipient is generally regarded as a recipient of Federal financial assistance and has all the duties of a recipient in these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.53" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Standards for Determining Age Discrimination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.311" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.53.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.311   Rules against age discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>The rules stated in this section are limited by the exceptions contained in §§ 4.313 and 4.314 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> No person in the United States shall, on the basis of age, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under, any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific rules.</I> A recipient may not, in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements use age distinctions or take any other actions which have the effect, on the basis of age, of—
</P>
<P>(1) Excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under, a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, or
</P>
<P>(2) Denying or limiting individuals in their opportunity to participate in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) The specific forms of age discrimination listed in paragraph (b) of this section do not necessarily constitute a complete list.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.312" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.312   Definitions of “normal operation” and “statutory objective”.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of §§ 4.313 and 4.314, the terms “normal operation” and “statutory objective” have the following meaning:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Normal operation</I> means the operation of a program or activity without significant changes that would impair its ability to meet its objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory objective</I> means any purposes of a program or activity expressly stated in any Federal statute State statute, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected general purpose legislative body.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.313" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.53.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.313   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination. Normal operation or statutory objective of any program or activity.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action, otherwise prohibited by § 4.311, if the action reasonably takes into account age as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity. An action reasonably takes into account age as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity, if—
</P>
<P>(a) Age is used as a measure or approximation of one or more other characteristics; and
</P>
<P>(b) The other characteristic(s) must be measured or approximated in order for the normal operation of the program or activity to continue, or to achieve any statutory objective of the program or activity; and
</P>
<P>(c) The other characteristic(s) can be reasonably measured or approximated by the use of age; and
</P>
<P>(d) The other characteristic(s) are impractical to measure directly on an individual basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.314" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.53.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.314   Exceptions to the rule against age discrimination. Reasonable factors other than age.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action otherwise prohibited by § 4.311 which is based on a factor other than age, even though that action may have a disproportionate effect on persons of different ages. An action may be based on a factor other than age only if the factor bears a direct and substantial relationship to the normal operation of the program or activity or to the achievement of a statutory objective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.315" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.53.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.315   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The burden of proving that an age distinction or other action falls within the exceptions outlined in §§ 4.313 and 4.314 is on the recipient of Federal financial assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="54" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.54" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Duties of NRC Recipients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.321" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.54.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.321   Assurance of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>Each NRC recipient has primary responsibility to ensure that its programs or activities are in compliance with the Act and these regulations. Each recipient will sign an assurance of compliance that its programs or activities will be conducted in compliance with all the requirements imposed by the Act and these regulations. A recipient also has responsibility to maintain records, provide information, and to afford access to its records to NRC, to the extent required to determine whether it is in compliance with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.322" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.54.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.322   Written notice, technical assistance, and educational materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NRC will provide written notice to each recipient of its obligations under the Act and these regulations, including its obligation under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a recipient makes available Federal financial assistance from NRC to a subrecipient, the recipient shall provide the subrecipient written notice of the subrecipient's obligations under the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) NRC will provide technical assistance, where necessary, to recipients to aid them in complying with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) NRC will make available educational materials which set forth the rights and obligations of recipients and beneficiaries under the Act and these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.324" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.54.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.324   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Make available upon request to NRC information necessary to determine whether the recipient is complying with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Permit reasonable access by NRC to the recipient's books, records, accounts, facilities, and other sources of information to the extent necessary to determine whether the recipient is in compliance with the Act and these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Investigation, Conciliation, and Enforcement Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.331" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.331   Compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NRC may conduct compliance reviews and preaward reviews of recipients or use other similar procedures that will permit it to investigate and correct violations of the Act and these regulations. NRC may conduct these reviews even in absence of a complaint against a recipient. The review may be as comprehensive as necessary to determine whether a violation of these regulations has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) If a compliance review or preaward review indicates a violation of the Act or these regulations, NRC will attempt to achieve voluntary compliance with the Act. If voluntary compliance cannot be achieved, NRC will arrange for enforcement as described in § 4.336.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.332" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.332   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person, individually or as a member of a class or on behalf of others, may file a complaint with NRC, alleging discrimination prohibited by the Act or these regulations based on an action occurring on or after July 1, 1979. A complainant shall file a complaint within 180 days from the date the complainant first had knowledge of the alleged act of discrimination. However, for good cause shown, NRC may extend this time limit.
</P>
<P>(b) NRC will attempt to facilitate the filing of complaints wherever possible, including taking the following measures:
</P>
<P>(1) Accepting a complaint as sufficient for further processing that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is made in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Alleges a violation of the Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identifies the parties involved and the date the complainant first had knowledge of the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Describes generally the action or practice complained of; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is signed by the complainant.
</P>
<P>(2) Freely permitting a complainant to add information to the complaint to meet the requirements of a sufficient complaint.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifying the complainant and the recipient of their rights and obligations under the complaint procedure, including the right to have a representative at all stages of the complaint procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) Notifying the complainant and the recipient (or their representatives) of their right to contact NRC for information and assistance regarding the complaint resolution process.
</P>
<P>(c) Each recipient and complainant shall participate actively in efforts toward speedy resolution of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(d) NRC will return to the complainant any complaint outside the jurisdiction of these regulations, and will state the reason(s) why it is outside the jurisdiction of these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.333" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.333   Mediation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Referral of complaints for mediation. NRC will refer to a mediation agency designated by the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services all complaints that—
</P>
<P>(1) Fall within the jurisdiction of the Act and these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) Contain all information necessary for further processing.
</P>
<P>(b) Both the complainant and the recipient shall participate in the mediation process to the extent necessary to reach an agreement or make an informed judgment that an agreement is not possible. There must be at least one meeting with the mediator before NRC will accept a judgment that an agreement is not possible. However, the recipient and the complainant need not meet with the mediator at the same time.
</P>
<P>(c) If the complainant and the recipient reach an agreement, the mediator shall prepare a written statement of the agreement and have the complainant and recipient sign it. The mediator shall send a copy of the agreement to NRC. NRC will take no further action on the complaint unless the complainant or recipient fails to comply with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) The mediator shall protect the confidentiality of all information obtained in the course of the mediation process. No mediator shall testify in any adjudicative proceeding, produce any document, or otherwise disclose any information obtained in the course of the mediation process without prior approval of the head of the agency appointing the mediator.
</P>
<P>(e) NRC will use the mediation process for a maximum of 60 days after receiving a complaint. Mediation ends if—
</P>
<P>(1) From the time NRC receives the complaint 60 days elapse; or
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the end of that 60-day period, the mediator determines an agreement is reached; or
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to the end of that 60-day period, the mediator determines that an agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(f) The mediator shall return unresolved complaints to NRC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.334" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.334   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Informal investigation.</I> (1) NRC will investigate complaints that are unresolved after mediation or are reopened because of a violation of a mediation agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the initial investigation, NRC will use informal fact-finding methods, including joint or separate discussions with the complaint and recipient to establish the facts and, if possible, settle the complaint on terms that are mutually agreeable to the parties. NRC may seek the assistance of any involved State agency.
</P>
<P>(3) NRC will put any agreement in writing and have it signed by the parties and an authorized official at NRC.
</P>
<P>(4) The settlement shall not affect the operation of any other enforcement effort of NRC, including compliance reviews and investigation of other complaints which may involve the recipient.
</P>
<P>(5) Settlement of a complaint under this section will not constitute a finding of discrimination by the NRC against a recipient or an admission of discrimination by the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Formal investigation.</I> If NRC cannot resolve the complaint through informal investigation, it will begin to develop formal findings through further investigation of the complaint. If the investigation indicates a violation of these regulations, NRC will attempt to obtain voluntary compliance. If NRC cannot obtain voluntary compliance, it will begin enforcement as described in § 4.336.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.335" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.335   Prohibition against intimidation or retaliation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may not engage in acts of intimidation or retaliation against any person who—
</P>
<P>(a) Attempts to assert a right protected by the Act or these regulations; or
</P>
<P>(b) Cooperates in any mediation, investigation, hearing, or other part of NRC's investigation, conciliation, and enforcement process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.336" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.336   Compliance procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NRC may enforce the Act and these regulations through—
</P>
<P>(1) Termination of a recipient's Federal financial assistance from NRC under the program or activity involved where the recipient has violated the Act or these regulations. The determination of the recipient's violation may be made only after a recipient has had an opportunity for a hearing on the record before an administrative law judge. Therefore, cases that are settled in mediation, or prior to a hearing, will not involve termination of a recipient's Federal fiancial assistance from NRC.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other means authorized by law including but not limited to—
</P>
<P>(i) Referral to the Department of Justice for proceedings to enforce any rights of the United States or obligations of the recipients created by the Act or these regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of any requirement of or referral to any Federal, State, or local government agency that will have the effect of correcting a violation of the Act or these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) NRC will limit any termination under § 4.336(a)(1) to the particular recipient and particular program or activity NRC finds in violation of Act or these regulations. NRC will not base any part of a termination on a finding with respect to any program or activity of the recipient that does not receive Federal financial assistance from NRC.
</P>
<P>(c) NRC will take no action under paragraph (a) until—
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission, or designee, has advised the recipient of its failure to comply with the Act or these regulations and has determined that voluntary compliance cannot be obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) 30 days have elapsed after the Commission, or designee, has sent a written report of the circumstances and grounds of the action to the committees of the Congress having legislative jurisdiction over the program or activity involved. A report will be filed whenever any action is taken under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) NRC also may defer granting new Federal financial assistance to a recipient when termination proceedings under § 4.336(a)(1) are initiated.
</P>
<P>(1) New Federal financial assistance includes all assistance for which NRC requires an application or approval, including renewal or continuation of existing activities or authorization of new activities, during the deferral period. New Federal financial assistance does not include increases in funding as a result of change computation of formula awards or assistance approved prior to the beginning of termination proceedings under § 4.336(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) NRC will not begin a deferral until the recipient has received a notice of an opportunity for a hearing under § 4.336(a)(1). NRC will not continue a deferral for more than 60 days unless a hearing has begun within that time or the time for beginning the hearings has been extended by mutual consent of the recipient and NRC. NRC will not continue a deferral for more than 30 days after the close of the hearing, unless the hearing results in a finding against the recipient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.337" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.337   Hearings, decisions, post-termination proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Certain NRC procedural provisions applicable to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 apply to NRC enforcement of these regulations. They are §§ 4.61 through 4.64 and §§ 4.71 through 4.75.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.338" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.338   Remedial and affirmative action by recipients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where NRC finds a recipient has discriminated on the basis of age, the recipient shall take any remedial action that NRC may require to overcome the effects of the discrimination. If another recipient exercises control over the recipient that has discriminated, NRC may require both recipients to take remedial action.
</P>
<P>(b) Even in the absence of a finding of discrimination, a recipient may take affirmative action to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in the recipient's program or activity on the basis of age.
</P>
<P>(c) If a recipient, operating a program that serves the elderly or children in addition to persons of other ages, provides special benefits to the elderly or to children, the provision of those benefits shall be presumed to be voluntary affirmative action provided that it does not have the effect of excluding otherwise eligible persons from participation in the program or activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.339" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.339   Alternate funds disbursal procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When NRC withholds funds from a recipient under these regulations, the Commission, or designee, may disburse the withheld funds directly to an alternate recipient, any public or nonprofit private organization or agency, or State or political subdivision of the State.
</P>
<P>(b) Any alternative recipient will be required to demonstrate—
</P>
<P>(1) The ability to comply with these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ability to achieve the goals of the Federal statute authorizing the Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.340" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.340   Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complainant may file a civil action following the exhaustion of administrative remedies under the Act. Administrative remedies are exhausted if—
</P>
<P>(1) 180 days have elapsed since the complainant filed the complaint and NRC has made no finding with regard to the complaint; or
</P>
<P>(2) NRC issues any finding in favor of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) If NRC fails to make a finding within 180 days or issues a finding in favor of the recipient, NRC will—
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly advise the complainant; and
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the complainant of his or her right to bring a civil action under section 305(e) of the Act of injunctive relief that will effect the purposes of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the complainant that—
</P>
<P>(i) The complainant may bring a civil action only in a United States District Court for the district in which the recipient is found or transacts business;
</P>
<P>(ii) A complainant prevailing in a civil action has the right to be awarded the costs of the action, including reasonable attorney's fees, but that the complainant must demand these costs in the complaint;
</P>
<P>(iii) That before commencing the action, the complainant shall give 30 days notice by registered mail to the Commission, the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services, the Attorney General of the United States, and the recipient;
</P>
<P>(iv) The notice must state the relief requested, the court in which the complainant is bringing the action, and whether or not attorney's fees are demanded in the event the complainant prevails; and
</P>
<P>(v) The complainant may not bring an action if the same alleged violation of the Act by the same recipient is the subject of pending action in any court of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.341" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.3.55.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.341   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC shall submit to the Secretary of Health and Human Services, not later than December 31 of each year, a report which—
</P>
<P>(a) Describes in detail the steps taken during the preceding fiscal year to carry out the Act; and
</P>
<P>(b) Contains data on the frequency, type, and resolution of complaints and on any compliance reviews, sufficient to permit analysis of the agency's progress in reducing age discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from NRC; and
</P>
<P>(c) Contains data directly relevant to the extent of any pattern or practice of age discrimination which NRC has identified in any programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from NRC and to progress toward eliminating it; and
</P>
<P>(d) Contains evaluative or interpretative information which NRC determines is useful in analyzing agency progress in reducing age discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from NRC; and
</P>
<P>(e) Contains whatever other data the Secretary of HHS may require.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 25358, July 7, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 51345, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Enforcement of Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Disability in Programs or Activities Conducted by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 22888, 22896, June 23, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4.501" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.501   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part effectuates section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.502" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.502   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.503" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.503   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Disabled person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term “physical or mental impairment” includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Historic preservation programs</I> means programs conducted by the agency that have preservation of historic properties as a primary purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Historic properties</I> means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified disabled person</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to preschool, elementary, or secondary education services provided by the agency, a disabled person who is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive education services from the agency.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a disabled person who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other program or activity, a disabled person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified disabled person</I> is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 4.540.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), and the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial impairment</I> means a significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.504-4.509" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.504-4.509   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.510" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.510   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, by August 24, 1987, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including disabled persons or organizations representing disabled persons, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written).
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, until three years following the completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspection:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified, and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.511" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.511   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.512-4.529" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.512-4.529   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.530" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.530   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified disabled person shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified disabled person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified disabled person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified disabled person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to disabled persons or to any class of disabled persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified disabled persons with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified disabled person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified disabled person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified disabled person the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangments, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified disabled persons to discrimination on the basis of disability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude disabled persons from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified disabled persons to discrimination on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified disabled persons to discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified disabled persons to discrimination on the basis of disability. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nondisabled persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to disabled persons or the exclusion of a specific class of disabled persons from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of disabled persons is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified disabled persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.531-4.539" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.531-4.539   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.540" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.540   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified disabled person shall, on the basis of disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.541-4.548" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.541-4.548   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.549" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.549   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 4.550, no qualified disabled person shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by disabled persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.550" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.550   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by disabled persons. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by disabled persons;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require the agency to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or
</P>
<P>(3) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 4.550(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that disabled persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by disabled persons. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified disabled persons in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historic preservation programs.</I> In meeting the requirements of § 4.550(a) in historic preservation programs, the agency shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to disabled persons. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of § 4.550(a)(2) or (a)(3), alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—
</P>
<P>(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigning persons to guide disabled persons into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Adopting other innovative methods.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section by October 21, 1986, except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made by August 22, 1989, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, by February 23, 1987 a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including disabled persons or organizations representing disabled persons, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to disabled persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.551" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.551   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by disabled persons. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.552-4.559" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.552-4.559   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.560" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.560   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford a disabled person an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the disabled person.
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf person (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and adminstrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 4.560 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, disabled persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.561-4.569" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.561-4.569   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.570" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.570   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c) The Civil Rights Program Manager, Office of Small Business and Civil Rights, shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints should be sent to the NRC using an appropriate method listed in § 4.5.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), is not readily accessible to and usable by disabled persons.
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 4.570(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause.
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency.
</P>
<P>(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22888, 22896, June 23, 1986, as amended at 68 FR 58799, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 4.571-4.999" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 4.571-4.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.3.5.56.20.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 4—Federal Financial Assistance to Which This Part Applies 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Categories of assistance may be added to appendix A from time to time by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> This part shall be deemed to apply to all grants, loans or contracts entered into under any such category of assistance on or after the effective date of the inclusion of the category of assistance in appendix A.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>Conferences on regulatory programs.</I> Agreements for financial assistance to State officials, without full-cost recovery, for visits to NRC facilities and offices or to other locations to confer on regulatory programs and related matters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Orientation and instruction.</I> Agreements for assistance to State and local officials, without full-cost recovery, to receive orientation and on-the-job instruction at NRC facilities and offices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Courses in fundamentals of radiation.</I> Agreements for the conduct of courses for State and local employees, without full-cost recovery, in fundamentals of radiation and radiation protection.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Participation in meetings and conferences.</I> Agreements for participation, without full-cost recovery, in meetings, conferences, workshops, and symposia to assist scientific, professional or educational institutions or groups.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Research Support.</I> Agreements for the financial support of basic and applied scientific research and for the exchange of scientific information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 19277, Dec. 31, 1964, as amended at 38 FR 17929, July 5, 1973; 40 FR 8778, Mar. 3, 1975; 45 FR 14539, Mar. 6, 1980; 52 FR 25361, July 7, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 5—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF SEX IN EDUCATION PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 52865, 52875, Aug. 30, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.100" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.100   Purpose and effective date.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these Title IX regulations is to effectuate Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (except sections 904 and 906 of those Amendments) (20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688), which is designed to eliminate (with certain exceptions) discrimination on the basis of sex in any education program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, whether or not such program or activity is offered or sponsored by an educational institution as defined in these Title IX regulations. The effective date of these Title IX regulations shall be September 29, 2000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in these Title IX regulations, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Administratively separate unit</I> means a school, department, or college of an educational institution (other than a local educational agency) admission to which is independent of admission to any other component of such institution. 
</P>
<P><I>Admission</I> means selection for part-time, full-time, special, associate, transfer, exchange, or any other enrollment, membership, or matriculation in or at an education program or activity operated by a recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by an official of the Federal agency that awards Federal financial assistance, or by a recipient, as a condition to becoming a recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>Designated agency official</I> means Program Manager, Civil Rights Program. 
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means a local educational agency (LEA) as defined by 20 U.S.C. 8801(18), a preschool, a private elementary or secondary school, or an applicant or recipient that is an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education, as defined in this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any of the following, when authorized or extended under a law administered by the Federal agency that awards such assistance: 
</P>
<P>(1) A grant or loan of Federal financial assistance, including funds made available for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, construction, renovation, restoration, or repair of a building or facility or any portion thereof; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Scholarships, loans, grants, wages, or other funds extended to any entity for payment to or on behalf of students admitted to that entity, or extended directly to such students for payment to that entity. 
</P>
<P>(2) A grant of Federal real or personal property or any interest therein, including surplus property, and the proceeds of the sale or transfer of such property, if the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not, upon such sale or transfer, properly accounted for to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of the services of Federal personnel. 
</P>
<P>(4) Sale or lease of Federal property or any interest therein at nominal consideration, or at consideration reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient or in recognition of public interest to be served thereby, or permission to use Federal property or any interest therein without consideration. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other contract, agreement, or arrangement that has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance to any education program or activity, except a contract of insurance or guaranty. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of graduate higher education</I> means an institution that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Offers academic study beyond the bachelor of arts or bachelor of science degree, whether or not leading to a certificate of any higher degree in the liberal arts and sciences; 
</P>
<P>(2) Awards any degree in a professional field beyond the first professional degree (regardless of whether the first professional degree in such field is awarded by an institution of undergraduate higher education or professional education); or
</P>
<P>(3) Awards no degree and offers no further academic study, but operates ordinarily for the purpose of facilitating research by persons who have received the highest graduate degree in any field of study. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of professional education</I> means an institution (except any institution of undergraduate higher education) that offers a program of academic study that leads to a first professional degree in a field for which there is a national specialized accrediting agency recognized by the Secretary of Education. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of undergraduate higher education</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An institution offering at least two but less than four years of college-level study beyond the high school level, leading to a diploma or an associate degree, or wholly or principally creditable toward a baccalaureate degree; or
</P>
<P>(2) An institution offering academic study leading to a baccalaureate degree; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or body that certifies credentials or offers degrees, but that may or may not offer academic study. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of vocational education</I> means a school or institution (except an institution of professional or graduate or undergraduate higher education) that has as its primary purpose preparation of students to pursue a technical, skilled, or semiskilled occupation or trade, or to pursue study in a technical field, whether or not the school or institution offers certificates, diplomas, or degrees and whether or not it offers full-time study. 
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or political subdivision thereof, or any instrumentality of a State or political subdivision thereof, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or other entity, or any person, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended directly or through another recipient and that operates an education program or activity that receives such assistance, including any subunit, successor, assignee, or transferee thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Student</I> means a person who has gained admission. 
</P>
<P><I>Title IX</I> means Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, Public Law 92-318, 86 Stat. 235, 373 (codified as amended at 20 U.S.C. 1681-1688) (except sections 904 and 906 thereof), as amended by section 3 of Public Law 93-568, 88 Stat. 1855, by section 412 of the Education Amendments of 1976, Public Law 94-482, 90 Stat. 2234, and by Section 3 of Public Law 100-259, 102 Stat. 28, 28-29 (20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688). 
</P>
<P><I>Title IX regulations</I> means the provisions set forth at §§ 5.100 through 5.605. 
</P>
<P><I>Transition plan</I> means a plan subject to the approval of the Secretary of Education pursuant to section 901(a)(2) of the Education Amendments of 1972, 20 U.S.C. 1681(a)(2), under which an educational institution operates in making the transition from being an educational institution that admits only students of one sex to being one that admits students of both sexes without discrimination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.110" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.110   Remedial and affirmative action and self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> If the designated agency official finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, such recipient shall take such remedial action as the designated agency official deems necessary to overcome the effects of such discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative action.</I> In the absence of a finding of discrimination on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, a recipient may take affirmative action consistent with law to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation therein by persons of a particular sex. Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be interpreted to alter any affirmative action obligations that a recipient may have under Executive Order 11246, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339; as amended by Executive Order 11375, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684; as amended by Executive Order 11478, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 803; as amended by Executive Order 12086, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 230; as amended by Executive Order 12107, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 264. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> Each recipient education institution shall, within one year of September 29, 2000: 
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate, in terms of the requirements of these Title IX regulations, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof concerning admission of students, treatment of students, and employment of both academic and non-academic personnel working in connection with the recipient's education program or activity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Modify any of these policies and practices that do not or may not meet the requirements of these Title IX regulations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Take appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of any discrimination that resulted or may have resulted from adherence to these policies and practices. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of self-evaluation and related materials.</I> Recipients shall maintain on file for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall provide to the designated agency official upon request, a description of any modifications made pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section and of any remedial steps taken pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.115" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.115   Assurance required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Either at the application stage or the award stage, Federal agencies must ensure that applications for Federal financial assistance or awards of Federal financial assistance contain, be accompanied by, or be covered by a specifically identified assurance from the applicant or recipient, satisfactory to the designated agency official, that each education program or activity operated by the applicant or recipient and to which these Title IX regulations apply will be operated in compliance with these Title IX regulations. An assurance of compliance with these Title IX regulations shall not be satisfactory to the designated agency official if the applicant or recipient to whom such assurance applies fails to commit itself to take whatever remedial action is necessary in accordance with § 5.110(a) to eliminate existing discrimination on the basis of sex or to eliminate the effects of past discrimination whether occurring prior to or subsequent to the submission to the designated agency official of such assurance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide real property or structures thereon, such assurance shall obligate the recipient or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used to provide an education program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide personal property, such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which it retains ownership or possession of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form.</I> (1) The assurances required by paragraph (a) of this section, which may be included as part of a document that addresses other assurances or obligations, shall include that the applicant or recipient will comply with all applicable Federal statutes relating to nondiscrimination. These include but are not limited to: Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (20 U.S.C. 1681-1683, 1685-1688). 
</P>
<P>(2) The designated agency official will specify the extent to which such assurances will be required of the applicant's or recipient's subgrantees, contractors, subcontractors, transferees, or successors in interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.120" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.120   Transfers of property.</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient sells or otherwise transfers property financed in whole or in part with Federal financial assistance to a transferee that operates any education program or activity, and the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not upon such sale or transfer properly accounted for to the Federal Government, both the transferor and the transferee shall be deemed to be recipients, subject to the provisions of §§ 5.205 through 5.235(a). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.125" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.125   Effect of other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect of other Federal provisions.</I> The obligations imposed by these Title IX regulations are independent of, and do not alter, obligations not to discriminate on the basis of sex imposed by Executive Order 11246, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339; as amended by Executive Order 11375, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684; as amended by Executive Order 11478, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 803; as amended by Executive Order 12087, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 230; as amended by Executive Order 12107, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 264; sections 704 and 855 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 295m, 298b-2); Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>); the Equal Pay Act of 1963 (29 U.S.C. 206); and any other Act of Congress or Federal regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of State or local law or other requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated by any State or local law or other requirement that would render any applicant or student ineligible, or limit the eligibility of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, to practice any occupation or profession. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of rules or regulations of private organizations.</I> The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated by any rule or regulation of any organization, club, athletic or other league, or association that would render any applicant or student ineligible to participate or limit the eligibility or participation of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, in any education program or activity operated by a recipient and that receives Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.130" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.130   Effect of employment opportunities.</HEAD>
<P>The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated because employment opportunities in any occupation or profession are or may be more limited for members of one sex than for members of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.135" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.135   Designation of responsible employee and adoption of grievance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> Each recipient shall designate at least one employee to coordinate its efforts to comply with and carry out its responsibilities under these Title IX regulations, including any investigation of any complaint communicated to such recipient alleging its noncompliance with these Title IX regulations or alleging any actions that would be prohibited by these Title IX regulations. The recipient shall notify all its students and employees of the name, office address, and telephone number of the employee or employees appointed pursuant to this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint procedure of recipient.</I> A recipient shall adopt and publish grievance procedures providing for prompt and equitable resolution of student and employee complaints alleging any action that would be prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.140" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.1.56.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.140   Dissemination of policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of policy.</I> (1) Each recipient shall implement specific and continuing steps to notify applicants for admission and employment, students and parents of elementary and secondary school students, employees, sources of referral of applicants for admission and employment, and all unions or professional organizations holding collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient, that it does not discriminate on the basis of sex in the educational programs or activities that it operates, and that it is required by Title IX and these Title IX regulations not to discriminate in such a manner. Such notification shall contain such information, and be made in such manner, as the designated agency official finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by Title IX and these Title IX regulations, but shall state at least that the requirement not to discriminate in education programs or activities extends to employment therein, and to admission thereto unless §§ 5.300 through 5.310 do not apply to the recipient, and that inquiries concerning the application of Title IX and these Title IX regulations to such recipient may be referred to the employee designated pursuant to § 5.135, or to the designated agency official. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each recipient shall make the initial notification required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section within 90 days of September 29, 2000 or of the date these Title IX regulations first apply to such recipient, whichever comes later, which notification shall include publication in: 
</P>
<P>(i) Newspapers and magazines operated by such recipient or by student, alumnae, or alumni groups for or in connection with such recipient; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Memoranda or other written communications distributed to every student and employee of such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publications.</I> (1) Each recipient shall prominently include a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section in each announcement, bulletin, catalog, or application form that it makes available to any person of a type, described in paragraph (a) of this section, or which is otherwise used in connection with the recruitment of students or employees. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not use or distribute a publication of the type described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that suggests, by text or illustration, that such recipient treats applicants, students, or employees differently on the basis of sex except as such treatment is permitted by these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distribution.</I> Each recipient shall distribute without discrimination on the basis of sex each publication described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and shall apprise each of its admission and employment recruitment representatives of the policy of nondiscrimination described in paragraph (a) of this section, and shall require such representatives to adhere to such policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.200" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.200   Application.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 5.205 through 5.235(a), these Title IX regulations apply to every recipient and to each education program or activity operated by such recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.205" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.205   Educational institutions and other entities controlled by religious organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to any operation of an educational institution or other entity that is controlled by a religious organization to the extent that application of these Title IX regulations would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption claims.</I> An educational institution or other entity that wishes to claim the exemption set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall do so by submitting in writing to the designated agency official a statement by the highest-ranking official of the institution, identifying the provisions of these Title IX regulations that conflict with a specific tenet of the religious organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.210" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.210   Military and merchant marine educational institutions.</HEAD>
<P>These Title IX regulations do not apply to an educational institution whose primary purpose is the training of individuals for a military service of the United States or for the merchant marine. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.215" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.215   Membership practices of certain organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Social fraternities and sororities.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of social fraternities and sororities that are exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), the active membership of which consists primarily of students in attendance at institutions of higher education. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>YMCA, YWCA, Girl Scouts, Boy Scouts, and Camp Fire Girls.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of the Young Men's Christian Association (YMCA), the Young Women's Christian Association (YWCA), the Girl Scouts, the Boy Scouts, and Camp Fire Girls. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voluntary youth service organizations.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of a voluntary youth service organization that is exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), and the membership of which has been traditionally limited to members of one sex and principally to persons of less than nineteen years of age.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.220" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.220   Admissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Admissions to educational institutions prior to June 24, 1973, are not covered by these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administratively separate units.</I> For the purposes only of this section, §§ 5.225 and 5.230, and §§ 5.300 through 5.310, each administratively separate unit shall be deemed to be an educational institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of §§ 5.300 through 5.310.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply to each recipient. A recipient to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of §§ 5.300 through 5.310. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Educational institutions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section as to recipients that are educational institutions, §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply only to institutions of vocational education, professional education, graduate higher education, and public institutions of undergraduate higher education. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public institutions of undergraduate higher education.</I> §§ 5.300 through 5.310 do not apply to any public institution of undergraduate higher education that traditionally and continually from its establishment has had a policy of admitting students of only one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.225" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.225   Educational institutions eligible to submit transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to each educational institution to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Admitted students of only one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1972; or
</P>
<P>(2) Admitted students of only one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1965, but thereafter admitted, as regular students, students of the sex not admitted prior to June 23, 1965. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provision for transition plans.</I> An educational institution to which this section applies shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of §§ 5.300 through 5.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.230" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.230   Transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of plans.</I> An institution to which § 5.225 applies and that is composed of more than one administratively separate unit may submit either a single transition plan applicable to all such units, or a separate transition plan applicable to each such unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of plans.</I> In order to be approved by the Secretary of Education, a transition plan shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) State the name, address, and Federal Interagency Committee on Education Code of the educational institution submitting such plan, the administratively separate units to which the plan is applicable, and the name, address, and telephone number of the person to whom questions concerning the plan may be addressed. The person who submits the plan shall be the chief administrator or president of the institution, or another individual legally authorized to bind the institution to all actions set forth in the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) State whether the educational institution or administratively separate unit admits students of both sexes as regular students and, if so, when it began to do so. 
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe with respect to the educational institution or administratively separate unit any obstacles to admitting students without discrimination on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(4) Describe in detail the steps necessary to eliminate as soon as practicable each obstacle so identified and indicate the schedule for taking these steps and the individual directly responsible for their implementation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Include estimates of the number of students, by sex, expected to apply for, be admitted to, and enter each class during the period covered by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> No policy or practice of a recipient to which § 5.225 applies shall result in treatment of applicants to or students of such recipient in violation of §§ 5.300 through 5.310 unless such treatment is necessitated by an obstacle identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and a schedule for eliminating that obstacle has been provided as required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of past exclusion.</I> To overcome the effects of past exclusion of students on the basis of sex, each educational institution to which § 5.225 applies shall include in its transition plan, and shall implement, specific steps designed to encourage individuals of the previously excluded sex to apply for admission to such institution. Such steps shall include instituting recruitment programs that emphasize the institution's commitment to enrolling students of the sex previously excluded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.235" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.2.56.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.235   Statutory amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section, which applies to all provisions of these Title IX regulations, addresses statutory amendments to Title IX. 
</P>
<P>(b) These Title IX regulations shall not apply to or preclude: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any program or activity of the American Legion undertaken in connection with the organization or operation of any Boys State conference, Boys Nation conference, Girls State conference, or Girls Nation conference; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any program or activity of a secondary school or educational institution specifically for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The promotion of any Boys State conference, Boys Nation conference, Girls State conference, or Girls Nation conference; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The selection of students to attend any such conference; 
</P>
<P>(3) Father-son or mother-daughter activities at an educational institution or in an education program or activity, but if such activities are provided for students of one sex, opportunities for reasonably comparable activities shall be provided to students of the other sex; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any scholarship or other financial assistance awarded by an institution of higher education to an individual because such individual has received such award in a single-sex pageant based upon a combination of factors related to the individual's personal appearance, poise, and talent. The pageant, however, must comply with other nondiscrimination provisions of Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Program or activity</I> or <I>program</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) All of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance: 
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government; 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or 
</P>
<P>(B) A local educational agency (as defined in section 8801 of title 20), system of vocational education, or other school system; 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship— 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(B) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other entity that is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) <I>Program or activity</I> does not include any operation of an entity that is controlled by a religious organization if the application of 20 U.S.C. 1681 to such operation would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For example, all of the operations of a college, university, or other postsecondary institution, including but not limited to traditional educational operations, faculty and student housing, campus shuttle bus service, campus restaurants, the bookstore, and other commercial activities are part of a “program or activity” subject to these Title IX regulations if the college, university, or other institution receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be construed to require or prohibit any person, or public or private entity, to provide or pay for any benefit or service, including the use of facilities, related to an abortion. Medical procedures, benefits, services, and the use of facilities, necessary to save the life of a pregnant woman or to address complications related to an abortion are not subject to this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit a penalty to be imposed on any person or individual because such person or individual is seeking or has received any benefit or service related to a legal abortion. Accordingly, subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, no person shall be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, employment, or other educational program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance because such individual has sought or received, or is seeking, a legal abortion, or any benefit or service related to a legal abortion. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Admission and Recruitment Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.300" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.3.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.300   Admission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be denied admission, or be subjected to discrimination in admission, by any recipient to which §§ 5.300 through §§ 5.310 apply, except as provided in §§ 5.225 and §§ 5.230. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> (1) In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply shall not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Give preference to one person over another on the basis of sex, by ranking applicants separately on such basis, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Apply numerical limitations upon the number or proportion of persons of either sex who may be admitted; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise treat one individual differently from another on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for admission that has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless the use of such test or criterion is shown to predict validly success in the education program or activity in question and alternative tests or criteria that do not have such a disproportionately adverse effect are shown to be unavailable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibitions relating to marital or parental status.</I> In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not apply any rule concerning the actual or potential parental, family, or marital status of a student or applicant that treats persons differently on the basis of sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not discriminate against or exclude any person on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, or establish or follow any rule or practice that so discriminates or excludes; 
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to § 5.235(d), shall treat disabilities related to pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability or physical condition; and
</P>
<P>(4) Shall not make pre-admission inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for admission, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” A recipient may make pre-admission inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for admission, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.305" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.3.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.305   Preference in admission.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply shall not give preference to applicants for admission, on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or other school or entity that admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preference has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 5.300 through 5.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.310" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.3.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.310   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment.</I> A recipient to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and admission of students. A recipient may be required to undertake additional recruitment efforts for one sex as remedial action pursuant to § 5.110(a), and may choose to undertake such efforts as affirmative action pursuant to § 5.110(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment at certain institutions.</I> A recipient to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 apply shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at educational institutions, schools, or entities that admit as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 5.300 through 5.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.400" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.400   Education programs or activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in these Title IX regulations, no person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, or other education program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. Sections 5.400 through 5.455 do not apply to actions of a recipient in connection with admission of its students to an education program or activity of a recipient to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 do not apply, or an entity, not a recipient, to which §§ 5.300 through 5.310 would not apply if the entity were a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> Except as provided in §§ 5.400 through 5.455, in providing any aid, benefit, or service to a student, a recipient shall not, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(1) Treat one person differently from another in determining whether such person satisfies any requirement or condition for the provision of such aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide different aid, benefits, or services or provide aid, benefits, or services in a different manner; 
</P>
<P>(3) Deny any person any such aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(4) Subject any person to separate or different rules of behavior, sanctions, or other treatment; 
</P>
<P>(5) Apply any rule concerning the domicile or residence of a student or applicant, including eligibility for in-state fees and tuition; 
</P>
<P>(6) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against any person by providing significant assistance to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of sex in providing any aid, benefit, or service to students or employees; 
</P>
<P>(7) Otherwise limit any person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistance administered by a recipient educational institution to study at a foreign institution.</I> A recipient educational institution may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other awards established by foreign or domestic wills, trusts, or similar legal instruments, or by acts of foreign governments and restricted to members of one sex, that are designed to provide opportunities to study abroad, and that are awarded to students who are already matriculating at or who are graduates of the recipient institution; <I>Provided,</I> that a recipient educational institution that administers or assists in the administration of such scholarships, fellowships, or other awards that are restricted to members of one sex provides, or otherwise makes available, reasonable opportunities for similar studies for members of the other sex. Such opportunities may be derived from either domestic or foreign sources. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aids, benefits or services not provided by recipient.</I> (1) This paragraph (d) applies to any recipient that requires participation by any applicant, student, or employee in any education program or activity not operated wholly by such recipient, or that facilitates, permits, or considers such participation as part of or equivalent to an education program or activity operated by such recipient, including participation in educational consortia and cooperative employment and student-teaching assignments. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such recipient: 
</P>
<P>(i) Shall develop and implement a procedure designed to assure itself that the operator or sponsor of such other education program or activity takes no action affecting any applicant, student, or employee of such recipient that these Title IX regulations would prohibit such recipient from taking; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall not facilitate, require, permit, or consider such participation if such action occurs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.405" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.405   Housing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, apply different rules or regulations, impose different fees or requirements, or offer different services or benefits related to housing, except as provided in this section (including housing provided only to married students). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Housing provided by recipient.</I> (1) A recipient may provide separate housing on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) Housing provided by a recipient to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, shall be as a whole: 
</P>
<P>(i) Proportionate in quantity to the number of students of that sex applying for such housing; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Comparable in quality and cost to the student. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other housing.</I> (1) A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, administer different policies or practices concerning occupancy by its students of housing other than that provided by such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A recipient which, through solicitation, listing, approval of housing, or otherwise, assists any agency, organization, or person in making housing available to any of its students, shall take such reasonable action as may be necessary to assure itself that such housing as is provided to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, is as a whole: 
</P>
<P>(A) Proportionate in quantity; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Comparable in quality and cost to the student. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A recipient may render such assistance to any agency, organization, or person that provides all or part of such housing to students of only one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.410" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.410   Comparable facilities.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may provide separate toilet, locker room, and shower facilities on the basis of sex, but such facilities provided for students of one sex shall be comparable to such facilities provided for students of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.415" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.415   Access to course offerings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall not provide any course or otherwise carry out any of its education program or activity separately on the basis of sex, or require or refuse participation therein by any of its students on such basis, including health, physical education, industrial, business, vocational, technical, home economics, music, and adult education courses. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) With respect to classes and activities in physical education at the elementary school level, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from September 29, 2000. With respect to physical education classes and activities at the secondary and post-secondary levels, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from September 29, 2000. 
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not prohibit grouping of students in physical education classes and activities by ability as assessed by objective standards of individual performance developed and applied without regard to sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not prohibit separation of students by sex within physical education classes or activities during participation in wrestling, boxing, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball, and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact. 
</P>
<P>(4) Where use of a single standard of measuring skill or progress in a physical education class has an adverse effect on members of one sex, the recipient shall use appropriate standards that do not have such effect. 
</P>
<P>(5) Portions of classes in elementary and secondary schools, or portions of education programs or activities, that deal exclusively with human sexuality may be conducted in separate sessions for boys and girls. 
</P>
<P>(6) Recipients may make requirements based on vocal range or quality that may result in a chorus or choruses of one or predominantly one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.420" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.420   Access to schools operated by LEAs.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient that is a local educational agency shall not, on the basis of sex, exclude any person from admission to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any institution of vocational education operated by such recipient; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any other school or educational unit operated by such recipient, unless such recipient otherwise makes available to such person, pursuant to the same policies and criteria of admission, courses, services, and facilities comparable to each course, service, and facility offered in or through such schools. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.425" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.425   Counseling and use of appraisal and counseling materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Counseling.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against any person on the basis of sex in the counseling or guidance of students or applicants for admission. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of appraisal and counseling materials.</I> A recipient that uses testing or other materials for appraising or counseling students shall not use different materials for students on the basis of their sex or use materials that permit or require different treatment of students on such basis unless such different materials cover the same occupations and interest areas and the use of such different materials is shown to be essential to eliminate sex bias. Recipients shall develop and use internal procedures for ensuring that such materials do not discriminate on the basis of sex. Where the use of a counseling test or other instrument results in a substantially disproportionate number of members of one sex in any particular course of study or classification, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination in the instrument or its application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disproportion in classes.</I> Where a recipient finds that a particular class contains a substantially disproportionate number of individuals of one sex, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination on the basis of sex in counseling or appraisal materials or by counselors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.430" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.430   Financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, in providing financial assistance to any of its students, a recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) On the basis of sex, provide different amounts or types of such assistance, limit eligibility for such assistance that is of any particular type or source, apply different criteria, or otherwise discriminate; 
</P>
<P>(2) Through solicitation, listing, approval, provision of facilities, or other services, assist any foundation, trust, agency, organization, or person that provides assistance to any of such recipient's students in a manner that discriminates on the basis of sex; or
</P>
<P>(3) Apply any rule or assist in application of any rule concerning eligibility for such assistance that treats persons of one sex differently from persons of the other sex with regard to marital or parental status. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial aid established by certain legal instruments.</I> (1) A recipient may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other forms of financial assistance established pursuant to domestic or foreign wills, trusts, bequests, or similar legal instruments or by acts of a foreign government that require that awards be made to members of a particular sex specified therein; <I>Provided,</I> that the overall effect of the award of such sex-restricted scholarships, fellowships, and other forms of financial assistance does not discriminate on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) To ensure nondiscriminatory awards of assistance as required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, recipients shall develop and use procedures under which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Students are selected for award of financial assistance on the basis of nondiscriminatory criteria and not on the basis of availability of funds restricted to members of a particular sex; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An appropriate sex-restricted scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance is allocated to each student selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No student is denied the award for which he or she was selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section because of the absence of a scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance designated for a member of that student's sex. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Athletic scholarships.</I> (1) To the extent that a recipient awards athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid, it must provide reasonable opportunities for such awards for members of each sex in proportion to the number of students of each sex participating in interscholastic or intercollegiate athletics. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may provide separate athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid for members of each sex as part of separate athletic teams for members of each sex to the extent consistent with this paragraph (c) and § 5.450. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.435" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.435   Employment assistance to students.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assistance by recipient in making available outside employment.</I> A recipient that assists any agency, organization, or person in making employment available to any of its students: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall assure itself that such employment is made available without discrimination on the basis of sex; and
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not render such services to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of sex in its employment practices. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employment of students by recipients.</I> A recipient that employs any of its students shall not do so in a manner that violates §§ 5.500 through 5.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.440" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.440   Health and insurance benefits and services.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to § 5.235(d), in providing a medical, hospital, accident, or life insurance benefit, service, policy, or plan to any of its students, a recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex, or provide such benefit, service, policy, or plan in a manner that would violate §§ 5.500 through 5.550 if it were provided to employees of the recipient. This section shall not prohibit a recipient from providing any benefit or service that may be used by a different proportion of students of one sex than of the other, including family planning services. However, any recipient that provides full coverage health service shall provide gynecological care. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.445" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.445   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Status generally.</I> A recipient shall not apply any rule concerning a student's actual or potential parental, family, or marital status that treats students differently on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy and related conditions.</I> (1) A recipient shall not discriminate against any student, or exclude any student from its education program or activity, including any class or extracurricular activity, on the basis of such student's pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, unless the student requests voluntarily to participate in a separate portion of the program or activity of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may require such a student to obtain the certification of a physician that the student is physically and emotionally able to continue participation as long as such a certification is required of all students for other physical or emotional conditions requiring the attention of a physician. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient that operates a portion of its education program or activity separately for pregnant students, admittance to which is completely voluntary on the part of the student as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall ensure that the separate portion is comparable to that offered to non-pregnant students. 
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to § 5.235(d), a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy and recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability with respect to any medical or hospital benefit, service, plan, or policy that such recipient administers, operates, offers, or participates in with respect to students admitted to the recipient's educational program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a recipient that does not maintain a leave policy for its students, or in the case of a student who does not otherwise qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence for as long a period of time as is deemed medically necessary by the student's physician, at the conclusion of which the student shall be reinstated to the status that she held when the leave began. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.450" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.450   Athletics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, be treated differently from another person, or otherwise be discriminated against in any interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics offered by a recipient, and no recipient shall provide any such athletics separately on such basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separate teams.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient may operate or sponsor separate teams for members of each sex where selection for such teams is based upon competitive skill or the activity involved is a contact sport. However, where a recipient operates or sponsors a team in a particular sport for members of one sex but operates or sponsors no such team for members of the other sex, and athletic opportunities for members of that sex have previously been limited, members of the excluded sex must be allowed to try out for the team offered unless the sport involved is a contact sport. For the purposes of these Title IX regulations, contact sports include boxing, wrestling, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball, and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equal opportunity.</I> (1) A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics shall provide equal athletic opportunity for members of both sexes. In determining whether equal opportunities are available, the designated agency official will consider, among other factors: 
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the selection of sports and levels of competition effectively accommodate the interests and abilities of members of both sexes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The provision of equipment and supplies; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Scheduling of games and practice time; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Travel and per diem allowance; 
</P>
<P>(v) Opportunity to receive coaching and academic tutoring; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Assignment and compensation of coaches and tutors; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Provision of locker rooms, practice, and competitive facilities; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Provision of medical and training facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(ix) Provision of housing and dining facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(x) Publicity. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unequal aggregate expenditures for members of each sex or unequal expenditures for male and female teams if a recipient operates or sponsors separate teams will not constitute noncompliance with this section, but the designated agency official may consider the failure to provide necessary funds for teams for one sex in assessing equality of opportunity for members of each sex. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustment period.</I> A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics at the elementary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from September 29, 2000. A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics at the secondary or postsecondary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from September 29, 2000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.455" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.4.56.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.455   Textbooks and curricular material.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be interpreted as requiring or prohibiting or abridging in any way the use of particular textbooks or curricular materials. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Employment in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.500" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.500   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination in employment, or recruitment, consideration, or selection therefor, whether full-time or part-time, under any education program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall make all employment decisions in any education program or activity operated by such recipient in a nondiscriminatory manner and shall not limit, segregate, or classify applicants or employees in any way that could adversely affect any applicant's or employee's employment opportunities or status because of sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient shall not enter into any contractual or other relationship which directly or indirectly has the effect of subjecting employees or students to discrimination prohibited by §§ 5.500 through 5.550, including relationships with employment and referral agencies, with labor unions, and with organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient shall not grant preferences to applicants for employment on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or entity that admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preferences has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> The provisions of §§ 5.500 through 5.550 apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment, advertising, and the process of application for employment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, consideration for and award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, application of nepotism policies, right of return from layoff, and rehiring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation, and changes in compensation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, classifications, and structure, including position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists; 
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of any collective bargaining agreement; 
</P>
<P>(6) Granting and return from leaves of absence, leave for pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, leave for persons of either sex to care for children or dependents, or any other leave; 
</P>
<P>(7) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient; 
</P>
<P>(8) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities, selection for tuition assistance, selection for sabbaticals and leaves of absence to pursue training; 
</P>
<P>(9) Employer-sponsored activities, including social or recreational programs; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.505" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.505   Employment criteria.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for any employment opportunity that has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless: 
</P>
<P>(a) Use of such test or other criterion is shown to predict validly successful performance in the position in question; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Alternative tests or criteria for such purpose, which do not have such disproportionately adverse effect, are shown to be unavailable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.510" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.510   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment and hiring.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and hiring of employees. Where a recipient has been found to be presently discriminating on the basis of sex in the recruitment or hiring of employees, or has been found to have so discriminated in the past, the recipient shall recruit members of the sex so discriminated against so as to overcome the effects of such past or present discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment patterns.</I> A recipient shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at entities that furnish as applicants only or predominantly members of one sex if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 5.500 through 5.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.515" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.515   Compensation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not make or enforce any policy or practice that, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(a) Makes distinctions in rates of pay or other compensation; 
</P>
<P>(b) Results in the payment of wages to employees of one sex at a rate less than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for equal work on jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, effort, and responsibility, and that are performed under similar working conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.520" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.520   Job classification and structure.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Classify a job as being for males or for females; 
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority lists, career ladders, or tenure systems based on sex; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority systems, career ladders, or tenure systems for similar jobs, position descriptions, or job requirements that classify persons on the basis of sex, unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the positions in question as set forth in § 5.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.525" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.525   Fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>“Fringe benefits” defined.</I> For purposes of these Title IX regulations, <I>fringe benefits</I> means: Any medical, hospital, accident, life insurance, or retirement benefit, service, policy or plan, any profit-sharing or bonus plan, leave, and any other benefit or service of employment not subject to the provision of § 5.515. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions.</I> A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Discriminate on the basis of sex with regard to making fringe benefits available to employees or make fringe benefits available to spouses, families, or dependents of employees differently upon the basis of the employee's sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a fringe benefit plan that does not provide for equal periodic benefits for members of each sex and for equal contributions to the plan by such recipient for members of each sex; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a pension or retirement plan that establishes different optional or compulsory retirement ages based on sex or that otherwise discriminates in benefits on the basis of sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.530" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.530   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A recipient shall not apply any policy or take any employment action: 
</P>
<P>(1) Concerning the potential marital, parental, or family status of an employee or applicant for employment that treats persons differently on the basis of sex; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Which is based upon whether an employee or applicant for employment is the head of household or principal wage earner in such employee's or applicant's family unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against or exclude from employment any employee or applicant for employment on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pregnancy as a temporary disability.</I> Subject to § 5.235(d), a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, recovery therefrom, and any temporary disability resulting therefrom as any other temporary disability for all job-related purposes, including commencement, duration, and extensions of leave, payment of disability income, accrual of seniority and any other benefit or service, and reinstatement, and under any fringe benefit offered to employees by virtue of employment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pregnancy leave.</I> In the case of a recipient that does not maintain a leave policy for its employees, or in the case of an employee with insufficient leave or accrued employment time to qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence without pay for a reasonable period of time, at the conclusion of which the employee shall be reinstated to the status that she held when the leave began or to a comparable position, without decrease in rate of compensation or loss of promotional opportunities, or any other right or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.535" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.535   Effect of state or local law or other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibitory requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with §§ 5.500 through 5.550 is not obviated or alleviated by the existence of any State or local law or other requirement that imposes prohibitions or limits upon employment of members of one sex that are not imposed upon members of the other sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits.</I> A recipient that provides any compensation, service, or benefit to members of one sex pursuant to a State or local law or other requirement shall provide the same compensation, service, or benefit to members of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.540" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.540   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not in any advertising related to employment indicate preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on sex unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the particular job in question. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.545" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.545   Pre-employment inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marital status.</I> A recipient shall not make pre-employment inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for employment, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sex.</I> A recipient may make pre-employment inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for employment, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.550" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.5.56.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.550   Sex as a bona fide occupational qualification.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may take action otherwise prohibited by §§ 5.500 through 5.550 provided it is shown that sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for that action, such that consideration of sex with regard to such action is essential to successful operation of the employment function concerned. A recipient shall not take action pursuant to this section that is based upon alleged comparative employment characteristics or stereotyped characterizations of one or the other sex, or upon preference based on sex of the recipient, employees, students, or other persons, but nothing contained in this section shall prevent a recipient from considering an employee's sex in relation to employment in a locker room or toilet facility used only by members of one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.600" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.6.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.600   Notice of covered programs.</HEAD>
<P>Within 60 days of September 29, 2000, each Federal agency that awards Federal financial assistance shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the programs covered by these Title IX regulations. Each such Federal agency shall periodically republish the notice of covered programs to reflect changes in covered programs. Copies of this notice also shall be made available upon request to the Federal agency's office that enforces Title IX.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.605" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.6.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.605   Enforcement procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The investigative, compliance, and enforcement procedural provisions of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d) (“Title VI”) are hereby adopted and applied to these Title IX regulations. These procedures may be found at 10 CFR 4.21 through 4.75.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 52875, Aug. 30, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.4.6.56.3.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 5—List of Federal Financial Assistance Administered by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission to Which Title IX Applies 
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>All recipients of Federal financial assistance from NRC are subject to Title IX, but Title IX's anti-discrimination prohibitions are limited to the educational components of the recipient's program or activity, if any. Failure to list a type of Federal assistance below shall not mean, if Title IX is otherwise applicable, that a program or activity is not covered by Title IX.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Conferences on regulatory programs and related matters.</I> Agreements for financial assistance to State and local officials, without full-cost recovery, to confer on regulatory programs and related matters at NRC facilities and offices, or other locations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Orientations and instruction.</I> Agreements for financial assistance to State and local officials, without full-cost recovery, to receive orientation and on-the-job instruction at NRC facilities and offices, or other locations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Technical training courses.</I> Agreements for financial assistance to State and local officials, without full-cost recovery to attend training on nuclear material licensing, inspection and emergency response regulatory responsibilities to ensure compatibility between NRC and Agreement State regulation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Participation in meetings and conferences.</I> Agreements for participation, without full-cost recovery, in meetings, conferences, workshops, and symposia to assist scientific, professional or educational institutions or groups. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Research support.</I> Agreements for the financial support of basic and applied scientific research and for the exchanges of scientific information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 709, Jan. 4, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 7—ADVISORY COMMITTEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, sec. 161 (42 U.S.C. 2201); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 5 U.S.C. Appendix (Federal Advisory Committee Act).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 26948, June 27, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 7.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part define the policies and procedures to be followed by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission in the establishment, utilization, and termination of advisory committees. In general, it is the policy of the Commission that—
</P>
<P>(a) Except where there is express legal authority to the contrary, the function of NRC advisory committees shall be advisory only.
</P>
<P>(b) Each NRC advisory committee shall function in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The number of NRC advisory committees shall be kept to the minimum necessary, and the number of members of each NRC advisory committee shall be limited to the fewest necessary to accomplish committee objectives.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) An NRC advisory committee shall be established only: 
</P>
<P>(i) When establishment of the committee is required by law; 
</P>
<P>(ii) When the Commission determines that the committee is essential to the conduct of NRC business; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) When the information to be obtained is not available through an existing advisory committee or a source within the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(2) Before establishing an advisory committee, the Commission shall consider whether: 
</P>
<P>(i) Committee deliberations will result in a significant contribution to the creation, amendment, or elimination of regulations, guidelines, or rules affecting NRC business; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The information to be obtained is available through another source within the Federal Government; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The committee will make recommendations resulting in significant improvements in service or reductions in cost; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) The committee's recommendations will provide an important additional perspective or viewpoint relating to NRC's mission. The advice or recommendations of an advisory committee should be the result of the advisory committee's independent judgment. 
</P>
<P>(e) Except where otherwise required by law, an NRC advisory committee shall be terminated whenever the stated objectives of the committee have been accomplished, the subject matter or work of the committee has become obsolete, the committee's main functions have been assumed by another entity within the Federal Government, or the cost of operating the committee has become excessive in relation to the benefits accruing to the Federal Government from its activities.
</P>
<P>(1) An advisory committee not required to be established by statute terminates no later than two years after its establishment or last renewal, unless renewed. 
</P>
<P>(2) An advisory committee required to be established by statute terminates upon the expiration of the time explicitly specified in the statute or implied by operation of the statute. 
</P>
<P>(f) NRC advisory committees shall be balanced in their membership in terms of the points of view represented and the functions to be performed.
</P>
<P>(g) The Congress shall be kept informed of the number, purpose, membership, activities, and cost of NRC advisory committees.
</P>
<P>(h) NRC advisory committee meetings shall be open to the public, except where closure is determined to be justified under § 7.15.
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission may periodically invite feedback from the public regarding the effectiveness of NRC advisory committees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26948, June 27, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 79838, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. App. 
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of General Services. 
</P>
<P><I>Advisory committee</I> means any committee, board, commission, council, conference, panel, task force, or similar group, or any subcommittee or other subgroup thereof, that is established by statute for the purpose of providing advice or recommendations on issues of policy to an official, branch, or agency of the Federal Government, or that is established or utilized by the President or any agency official to obtain advice or recommendations on issues or policies that fall within the scope of his or her responsibilities, except that the term “advisory committee” does not include the following advisory meetings or groups: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any group composed wholly of full-time officers or employees of the Federal Government; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any group specifically exempted from the Act or these regulations by an Act of Congress; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any local civic group whose primary function is that of rendering a public service with respect to a Federal program, or any State or local committee, council, board, commission, or similar group established to advise or make recommendations to any State or local government unit or an official thereof; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any group that performs primarily operational functions specifically provided by law. Operational functions are those specifically authorized by statute or Presidential directive, such as making or implementing Government decisions or policy, as long as the group does not become primarily advisory in nature; 
</P>
<P>(5) Any meeting initiated by the President or one or more Federal employees for the purpose of obtaining advice or recommendations from one individual; 
</P>
<P>(6) Any meeting between an NRC employee with a non-governmental individual or group where advice or recommendations are provided by the attendees on an individual basis and are not sought from the group as a whole; 
</P>
<P>(7) Any meeting with a committee or group created by a non-Federal entity that is not managed or controlled by the President or a Federal employee; 
</P>
<P>(8) Any meeting of two or more advisory committee members convened solely to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Discuss administrative matters relating to the operation of their advisory committee; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Receive administrative information from a Federal employee; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Gather information or conduct research for a chartered advisory committee to analyze relevant issues and facts for their advisory committee; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Draft proposed position papers for deliberation by their advisory committee; 
</P>
<P>(9) Any meeting with a group initiated by the President or by one or more Federal employees for the purpose of exchanging facts or information; 
</P>
<P>(10) Any meeting attended only by full-time or permanent part-time officers or employees of the Federal Government and elected officers of State, local, and Tribal governments (or their designated employees with authority to act on their own behalf), acting in their official capacities. However, the purpose of the meeting must be solely to exchange views, information, or advice relating to the management or implementation of Federal programs established pursuant to statute, that explicitly or inherently share intergovernmental responsibilities or administration; 
</P>
<P>(11) Any meeting of an NRC contractor, applicant, or licensee with an NRC employee to discuss specific matters involving the solicitation, issuance, or implementation of a contract or the Commission's effort to ensure compliance with its regulations; and 
</P>
<P>(12) Any meeting of a subcommittee or other subgroup of an advisory committee where the subgroup's recommendations will be reviewed by its parent advisory committee. 
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means an agency of the Government of the United States as defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(1). 
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission of five members, or a quorum thereof, sitting as a body, as provided by section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. 5841, (88 Stat. 1242). 
</P>
<P><I>Committee Management Secretariat</I> means the organization established within the General Services Administration, pursuant to section 7(a) of the Act, which is responsible for all matters relating to advisory committees, and carries out the responsibilities of the Administrator of the General Services Administration under the Act and Executive Order 12024 (42 FR 61445; December 1, 1977). 
</P>
<P><I>Committee meeting</I> means any gathering of advisory committee members (whether in person, by telephone, or through electronic means) held with the approval of an agency for the purpose of deliberating on the substantive matters upon which the advisory committee provides advice or recommendations. 
</P>
<P><I>Committee member</I> means an individual who is appointed to serve on an advisory committee and has the full right and obligation to participate in the activities of the committee, including voting on committee recommendations. 
</P>
<P><I>Designated Federal Officer</I> means a government employee appointed, pursuant to § 7.11(a), to chair or attend each meeting of an NRC advisory committee to which he or she is assigned. 
</P>
<P><I>Discretionary advisory committee</I> means any advisory committee that is established, but not required to be established, under the authority of an agency head, and its establishment or termination is within the legal discretion of an agency head. 
</P>
<P><I>GSA</I> means the General Services Administration. 
</P>
<P><I>Non-discretionary advisory committee</I> means any advisory committee either required by statute or Presidential directive. A non-discretionary committee required by statute generally is identified specifically in a statute by name, purpose, or functions and its establishment is mandated. 
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the agency established by title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. 5801 (88 Stat. 1233), and known as the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<P><I>NRC Advisory Committee Management Officer</I> means the individual appointed, pursuant to § 7.10(a), to supervise and control the establishment and management of NRC advisory committees. 
</P>
<P><I>NRC Public Document Room</I> means the Public Document Room maintained by the NRC at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. 
</P>
<P><I>Presidential advisory committee</I> means an advisory committee established by statute or directed by the President to advise the President. 
</P>
<P><I>Staff member</I> means any individual who serves in a support capacity to an advisory committee. 
</P>
<P><I>Subcommittee</I> means a subgroup of an advisory committee, whether or not its members are drawn in whole or in part from the parent advisory committee. 
</P>
<P><I>Utilized committee</I> means a committee or group not established by the Federal Government, but whose operations are managed or controlled by a Federal agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79839, Dec. 31, 2002, as amended at 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.3   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by an NRC officer or employee, other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel, shall be binding upon the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4   Establishment of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An NRC advisory committee may be established under this part only if its establishment—
</P>
<P>(1) Is specifically directed or authorized by statute or by Executive Order of the President; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has been determined by the Commission to be in the public interest and essential to the performance of the duties imposed on the Commission by law.
</P>
<FP>The determination required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be a matter of formal record, and shall include a statement of a clearly defined purpose for the advisory committee.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5   Consultation with Committee Management Secretariat on establishment of advisory committees; advisory committee charters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before establishing a discretionary advisory committee, the NRC shall consult with the Committee Management Secretariat. With a full understanding of the background and purpose behind the proposed advisory committee, the Committee Management Secretariat may share its knowledge and experience with the NRC on how best to make use of the proposed committee, alternate methods of attaining the agency's purpose, or whether a pre-existing advisory committee performs similar functions. Such consultation should include the transmittal of the proposed committee charter and the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A request for a review of the proposed charter; 
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation stating why the committee is essential to the conduct of NRC business and is in the public interest; 
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation stating why the committee's functions cannot be performed by the NRC, an existing NRC advisory committee, or other means (such as a public hearing); and 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of NRC's plan to attain balanced membership on the committee. The plan must ensure that, in the selection of members for the advisory committee, the NRC will consider a cross-section of those directly affected, interested, and qualified, as appropriate to the nature and functions of the committee. For purposes of attaining balance in an NRC advisory committee's membership, the Commission shall consider for membership interested persons and groups with professional, technical, or personal qualifications or experience that will contribute to the functions and tasks to be performed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each proposed committee charter submitted for review pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The committee's official designation; 
</P>
<P>(2) The committee's objectives and the scope of its activity; 
</P>
<P>(3) The period of time necessary for the committee to carry out its purposes; 
</P>
<P>(4) The NRC official to whom the committee will report; 
</P>
<P>(5) The NRC office responsible for providing support for the committee; 
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the duties that the committee will perform, and if such duties are not solely advisory, a specification of the authority for the functions that are not advisory; 
</P>
<P>(7) The estimated annual operating costs, in dollars and person years, for the committee; 
</P>
<P>(8) The estimated number and frequency of committee meetings; and 
</P>
<P>(9) The committee's termination date, if less than two years from the date of the committee's establishment. 
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this part, including the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, shall apply to any subcommittee that functions independently of the parent advisory committee (such as by making recommendations directly to the agency rather than to the parent advisory committee), regardless of whether the subcommittee's members are drawn in whole or in part from the parent advisory committee. 
</P>
<P>(d) After the Committee Management Secretariat has notified the Commission of the results of its review of a proposal to establish or utilize an NRC discretionary advisory committee, submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the Commission shall notify the Committee Management Secretariat whether the advisory committee is actually being established. Filing of the advisory committee charter pursuant to § 7.8 shall be deemed to fulfill this notification requirement. If the advisory committee is not being established, the Commission shall so advise the Committee Management Secretariat, stating whether NRC intends to take any further action with respect to the proposed advisory committee. 
</P>
<P>(e) The date of filing of an advisory committee charter pursuant to § 7.8 shall be added to the charter when such filing takes place, shall appear on the face of the charter, and shall constitute the date of establishment, renewal, or reestablishment of the committee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79840, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.6   Amendment to advisory committee charters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Final authority for amending the charter of an NRC advisory committee established or utilized by the NRC is vested in the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any proposed changes made to a current charter for an NRC advisory committee shall be coordinated with the General Counsel to ensure that they are consistent with applicable legal requirements. When a statute or Executive Order that directed or authorized the establishment of an advisory committee is amended, those sections of the advisory committee's charter affected by the amendments shall also be amended. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The charter of an NRC advisory committee established under general agency authority may be amended when the Commission determines that the existing charter no longer reflects the objectives or functions of the committee. Such changes may be minor (such as revising the name of the advisory committee or modifying the estimated number or frequency of meetings), or they may be major (such as revising the objectives or composition of the committee). 
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures in paragraph (b) of this section shall be used in the case of charter amendments involving minor changes. A proposed major amendment to the charter of an advisory committee established under general agency authority shall be submitted to the Committee Management Secretariat for review with an explanation of the purpose of the changes and why they are necessary. 
</P>
<P>(3) A committee charter that has been amended pursuant to this paragraph is subject to the filing requirements set forth in § 7.8. 
</P>
<P>(4) Amendment of an existing advisory committee charter pursuant to this paragraph does not constitute renewal of the committee for purposes of § 7.7.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79840, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.7   Termination, renewal, and rechartering of advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, each NRC advisory committee shall terminate two years after it is established, reestablished, or renewed, unless—
</P>
<P>(1) It has been terminated sooner;
</P>
<P>(2) It has been renewed or reestablished before the end of such period in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) Its duration has been otherwise designated by law. The NRC Committee Management Officer shall notify the Committee Management Secretariat of the effective date of termination of any advisory committee that has been terminated by the NRC. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An NRC advisory committee that is established by statute shall require rechartering by the filing of a new charter every 2 years after the date of enactment of the statute establishing the committee. If a new charter is not filed, the committee is not terminated, but it may not meet or take any actions.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other NRC advisory committee may be renewed, provided that such renewal is carried out in compliance with the procedures set forth in § 7.5, except that an advisory committee established by the President may be renewed by appropriate action of the President and the filing of a new charter. Renewal of an NRC advisory committee shall not be deemed to terminate the appointment of any committee member who was previously appointed to serve on the committee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26948, June 27, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 79840, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.8   Charter filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>No advisory committee may meet or take any action until a charter has been filed by the Committee Management Officer designated in accordance with § 7.10. 
</P>
<P>(a) To establish, renew, or reestablish a discretionary advisory committee, a charter must be filed with: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission; 
</P>
<P>(2) The Committee on Environment and Public Works of the United States Senate and the Committee on Energy and Commerce of the United States House of Representatives; 
</P>
<P>(3) The Library of Congress, Anglo-American Acquisitions Division, Government Documents Section, Federal Advisory Committee Desk, 101 Independence Avenue, S.E., Washington, DC 20540-4172; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The Committee Management Secretariat, indicating the date the charter was filed with the congressional committees. 
</P>
<P>(b) Charter filing requirements for non-discretionary advisory committees are the same as those in paragraph (a) of this section, except the date of establishment for a Presidential advisory committee is the date the charter is filed with the Secretariat. 
</P>
<P>(c) Subcommittees that report directly to a Federal employee or agency must comply with this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79841, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.9   Public notice of advisory committee establishment, reestablishment, or renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the Commission has received notice from the Committee Management Secretariat that its review of a proposal to establish, reestablish, renew, or utilize an NRC discretionary advisory committee has been completed, the Commission shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that the committee is being established, reestablished, renewed, or utilized. In the case of a new committee, the notice shall also describe the nature and purpose of the committee and shall include a statement that the committee is necessary and in the public interest. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notices required to be published pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall be published at least 15 calendar days before the committee charter is filed pursuant to § 7.8, except that the Committee Management Secretariat may approve publication for less than 15 days for good cause shown. The 15-day advance notice requirement does not apply to advisory committee renewals, notices of which may be published concurrently with the filing of the charter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79841, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.10   The NRC Advisory Committee Management Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chairman of the Commission or designee shall appoint an NRC Advisory Committee Management Officer to carry out the functions specified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC Advisory Committee Management Officer shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Carry out all responsibilities relating to NRC advisory committees delegated to such officer by the Commission;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that administrative guidelines and management controls are issued that apply to all NRC advisory committees;
</P>
<P>(3) Exercise control and supervision over the establishment, procedures, and accomplishments of NRC advisory committees;
</P>
<P>(4) Assemble and maintain the reports, records, and other papers of any such committee during this existence;
</P>
<P>(5) Carry out, on behalf of the NRC, the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and implementing NRC regulations (10 CFR part 9, subpart A) with respect to such reports, records, and other papers; 
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that, subject to the Freedom of Information Act and implementing NRC regulations at 10 CFR part 9, subpart A, copies of the records, reports, transcript minutes, appendices, working papers, drafts, studies, agenda, or other documents that were made available to or prepared for or by each NRC advisory committee are available for public inspection and copying at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> at the NRC Public Document Room, or both, until the advisory committee ceases to exist; 
</P>
<P>(7) Ensure that, subject to the Freedom of Information Act and implementing NRC regulations, at least eight copies of each report made by each NRC advisory committee and, where appropriate, background papers prepared by consultants, shall be filed with the Library of Congress; 
</P>
<P>(8) Ensure that NRC keeps such records as will fully disclose the disposition of any funds that may be at the disposal of NRC advisory committees and the nature and extent of their activities; and
</P>
<P>(9) Ensure that NRC keeps such other records and provides such support services as are required by § 7.22.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, the term “records” includes (but is not limited to):
</P>
<P>(1) A set of approved charters and membership lists for each NRC advisory committee;
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC's portion of the Committee Management Secretariat Annual Comprehensive Review of Federal advisory committees required by section 7(b) of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(3) NRC guidelines on committee management operations and procedures as maintained and updated; and
</P>
<P>(4) NRC determinations to close advisory committee meetings made pursuant to § 7.15.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26948, June 27, 1989; 54 FR 28554, July 6, 1989; 54 FR 31646, Aug. 1, 1989; 64 FR 48949, Sept. 9, 1999; 67 FR 79841, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.11   The Designated Federal Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chairman of the Commission or designee shall appoint a Designated Federal Officer or alternate Designated Federal Officer for each NRC advisory committee. The individual holding either position must be employed by the Federal Government on either a full-time or a permanent part-time basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) All meetings of an NRC advisory committee must be convened or approved by the committee's Designated Federal Officer or alternate, and the agenda for each committee meeting (except a meeting of a Presidential advisory committee) must be approved by that individual. 
</P>
<P>(c) An NRC advisory committee may not hold a meeting in the absence of its Designated Federal Officer or alternate. 
</P>
<P>(d) It shall also be the responsibility of the Designated Federal Officer or alternate to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Attend all meetings of the committee for which he or she has been appointed; 
</P>
<P>(2) Adjourn the meetings of the committee when such adjournment is in the public interest; 
</P>
<P>(3) Chair the meetings of the committee when so directed by the Commission; 
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure compliance with the requirements of § 7.13 regarding minutes of meetings of the committee; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Make copies of committee documents required to be maintained for public inspection and copying pursuant to § 7.14(b) and ensure their availability at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> at the NRC Public Document Room, or both.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79841, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.12   Public participation in and public notice of advisory committee meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each meeting of an NRC advisory committee shall be held at a reasonable time and in a place reasonably accessible to the public, including persons with disabilities. Any advisory committee meeting conducted in whole or part by teleconference, video conference, the Internet, or other electronic medium must comply with this section. The size of the meeting room must be sufficient to accommodate advisory committee members, committee or agency staff, and interested members of the public, except that the provisions of this paragraph relating to the room size shall not apply to any part of an NRC advisory committee meeting that has been closed pursuant to § 7.15. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any member of the public who wishes to do so shall be permitted to file a written statement with an NRC advisory committee regarding any matter discussed at a meeting of the committee. The committee chairman may also permit members of the public to speak at meetings of the committee in accordance with procedures established by the committee.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except when the President or designee determines in writing that no notice should be published for reasons of national security, at least 15 days prior to an NRC advisory committee meeting, a notice that includes the following information shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register:</E> 
</P>
<P>(i) The exact name of the advisory committee as chartered; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The time, date, place, and purpose of the meeting; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the agenda of the meeting; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether all or part of the meeting is open to the public; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The name and telephone number of the Designated Federal Officer, alternate, or other responsible agency employee who may be contacted for additional information concerning the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(2) If any part of the meeting is closed, the notice shall provide the reasons for the closure, citing the specific matter that has been determined to justify the closure under § 7.15. The Commission may publish a single notice announcing multiple meetings; however, a meeting may not be announced so far in advance as to prevent the public from being adequately informed of an NRC advisory committee's schedule. 
</P>
<P>(d) In exceptional circumstances, less than 15 days notice of an advisory committee meeting may be given, provided that there is as much prior notice as possible and the reasons for the shorter time are included in the committee meeting notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to notice required by paragraph (c) of this section, the NRC may also use other forms of notice, such as press releases, posting the information on the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> or notice by mail, to inform the public of advisory committee meetings. To that end, the Designated Federal Officer or alternate for each NRC advisory committee will, to the extent practicable, maintain lists of people and organizations interested in that advisory committee and notify them of meetings by mail. 
</P>
<P>(f) Meetings of a subcommittee whose recommendations will not be reviewed by its parent advisory committee shall be conducted in accordance with all notice and openness requirements contained in this section and in §§ 7.13, 7.14, and 7.15.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26948, June 27, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 79841, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.13   Minutes of advisory committee meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Detailed minutes shall be kept of each NRC advisory committee meeting. The minutes shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The time, date, and place of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of the attendees at the meeting who are advisory committee members or staff, agency employees, or members of the public who presented oral or written statements;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the number of other members of the public who were present;
</P>
<P>(4) The extent of public participation; and
</P>
<P>(5) An accurate description of each matter discussed during the meeting and its resolution, if any, by the committee.
</P>
<P>(b) The minutes of an NRC advisory committee meeting shall include a copy of each report or other document received, issued, or approved by the committee in connection with the meeting. If it is impracticable to attach a document to the minutes, the minutes shall describe the document in sufficient detail to permit it to be identified readily.
</P>
<P>(c) The chairperson of an NRC advisory committee shall certify the accuracy of the minutes of each of the committee's meetings. 
</P>
<P>(d) A verbatim transcript of an advisory committee meeting may be substituted for minutes required by this section, providing that the use of such a transcript is in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26948, June 27, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 79842, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.14   Public information on advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission shall maintain systematic information on the nature, functions, and operations of each NRC advisory committee. A complete set of the charters of NRC advisory committees and copies of the annual reports required by § 7.17(a) will be maintained for public inspection at either the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> at the NRC Public Document Room, or both. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and NRC's Freedom of Information Act regulations at 10 CFR part 9, subpart A, copies of NRC advisory committees' records, reports, transcripts, minutes, appendices, working papers, drafts, studies, agenda, and other documents shall be maintained for public inspection and copying at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> at the NRC Public Document Room, or both. To provide the public a meaningful opportunity to comprehend fully the work undertaken by an NRC advisory committee, advisory committee records should be available to the public as soon as practicable. Members of the public or other interested parties may review non-exempt advisory committee records without filing a request for these records under the Freedom of Information Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Official records generated by or for an advisory committee must be retained for the duration of the advisory committee. Upon termination of the advisory committee, the records must be processed in accordance with the Federal Records Act (44 U.S.C. Chapters 21, 29-33) and regulations issued by the National Archives and Records Administration (<I>see</I> 36 CFR Parts 1220, 1222, 1228, and 1234), or in accordance with the Presidential Records Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 22).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79842, Dec. 31, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.15   Procedures for closing an NRC advisory committee meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To close all or part of a meeting of an NRC advisory committee, the committee shall submit a written request for closure to the General Counsel, citing specific exemptions listed in the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), as implemented by 10 CFR 9.104, that justify the closure. The request shall provide the General Counsel sufficient time for review in order to make a determination prior to publication of the meeting notice pursuant to § 7.12. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the General Counsel finds that the request for closure is consistent with the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act and this part, a determination shall be issued in writing that all or part of the meeting will be closed. The determination shall include a statement of the reasons for the closing, citing the applicable exemptions in the Government in the Sunshine Act (as implemented by 10 CFR 9.104). 
</P>
<P>(c) Except when the President or designee determines in writing that no notice should be published for reasons of national security, the Secretary of the Commission shall make a copy of the determination to close all or part of an NRC advisory committee meeting available to the public upon request. If such a determination has been issued, the meeting notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> should comply with the provisions of § 7.12 applicable to closed meetings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79842, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.16" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.16   Annual comprehensive review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chairman of the Commission shall conduct an annual comprehensive review of the activities and responsibilities of each NRC advisory committee to determine whether the committee—
</P>
<P>(1) Is carrying out its purposes or, consistent with the provisions of applicable statutes, its responsibilities should be revised.
</P>
<P>(2) Should be merged with another advisory committee.
</P>
<P>(3) Should be terminated.
</P>
<P>(b) The comprehensive review required by paragraph (a) of this section shall include consideration of such information regarding the committee as is required for the Commission's annual report to the GSA Secretariat pursuant to § 7.17(a) and such other information as may be requested from the Committee by the NRC Advisory Committee Management Officer. The results of such review shall be included in the annual report to the GSA Secretariat.
</P>
<P>(c) If, as a result of the review required by this section, the Commission determines that an advisory committee is no longer needed, the committee shall be terminated; except that in the case of an advisory committee established by an Act of Congress or the President, the committee's termination shall be recommended to the President or the Congress, as the case may be.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26948, June 27, 1989, as amended at 67 FR 79842, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.17   Reports required for advisory committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall furnish a report on the activities of NRC advisory committees annually to the Committee Management Secretariat on a fiscal year basis. The report must contain information regarding NRC advisory committees consistent with instructions provided by the Committee Management Secretariat. A copy of the report shall be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> at the NRC Public Document Room, or both. The information provided by the Commission regarding its advisory committees is contained in the Committee Management Secretariat's report which is available on its Web site, <I>http://www.gsa.gov/committeemanagement.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) Any NRC advisory committee holding closed or partially closed meetings shall issue a report, at least annually, setting forth a summary of its activities consistent with the policy of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), as implemented by 10 CFR 9.104. A copy of the report shall be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> at the NRC Public Document Room, or both. 
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and implementing NRC regulations (10 CFR part 9, subpart A), eight copies of each report made by an advisory committee, including any report on closed meetings pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, and, where appropriate, background papers prepared by consultants, shall be filed for public inspection and use with the Library of Congress, Anglo-American Acquisitions Division, Government Documents Section, Federal Advisory Committee Desk, 101 Independence Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20540-4172.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79842, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.18" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.18   Appointment, compensation, and expense reimbursement of advisory committee members, staffs, and consultants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise provided by law, advisory committee members serve at the pleasure of the Commission and their terms are at the sole discretion of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except where otherwise provided by law, the Commission may accept the gratuitous services of an NRC advisory committee member, staff member, or consultant who agrees in advance to serve without compensation. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if the Commission determines that compensation of a member of an NRC advisory committee is appropriate, the amount that will be paid shall be fixed by the Chairman of the Commission at a rate that is the daily equivalent of a rate in NRC's General Grade Salary Schedule, unless the member is appointed as a consultant and compensated at a rate applicable to NRC consultants. 
</P>
<P>(2) In determining an appropriate rate of pay for a member of an NRC advisory committee, the Chairman of the Commission shall give consideration to the significance, scope, and technical complexity of the matters with which the advisory committee is concerned and the qualifications required of the committee member; provided that the Chairman may not set the rate of pay for an NRC advisory committee member higher than the daily equivalent rate for level IV of the Executive Schedule under 5 U.S.C. 5315, unless a higher rate is expressly allowed by another statute. The Chairman may authorize a rate of basic pay in excess of the maximum rate of basic pay established for NRC's General Grade Salary Schedule. This maximum rate includes an applicable locality payment. The Commission may pay advisory committee members on either an hourly or a daily rate basis. The Commission may not provide additional compensation in any form, such as bonuses or premium pay. The Chairman may not delegate the responsibility for making a determination that a higher rate of pay than that established by NRC's General Grade Salary Schedule is necessary and justified for an NRC advisory committee member, and such a determination must be reviewed annually. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Each NRC advisory committee staff member may be paid at a rate that is the daily equivalent of a rate in NRC's General Grade Salary Schedule in which the staff member's position would appropriately be placed. 
</P>
<P>(2) A staff member of an NRC advisory committee may not be paid at a rate higher than the daily equivalent of the maximum rate for a GG-15 under NRC's General Grade Salary Schedule, unless the Chairman of the Commission determines that the staff member's position would appropriately be placed at a grade higher than GG-15, provided that in establishing rates of compensation, the Chairman shall comply with any applicable statutes, regulations, Executive Orders, and administrative guidelines. The Commission may provide advisory committee staff members with additional compensation, such as bonuses or premium pay, as long as the aggregate compensation does not exceed the rate of pay for Executive Schedule level IV. 
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal employee may serve as a staff member of an NRC advisory committee only with the knowledge of the advisory committee's Designated Federal Officer or alternate and the approval of the employee's direct supervisor. A staff member who is not otherwise a Federal employee shall be appointed in accordance with applicable agency procedures, following consultation with the advisory committee. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Subject to the limitations in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the following factors shall be considered in determining an appropriate rate of pay for a consultant to an NRC advisory committee: 
</P>
<P>(i) The qualifications required of the consultant, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The significance, scope, and technical complexity of the work for which his services are required; 
</P>
<P>(2) The rate of pay for an NRC advisory committee consultant may not be higher than the maximum rate of basic pay established by NRC's General Salary Schedule (that is, the GG-15, step 10 rate, excluding locality pay or any other supplement), unless a higher rate is expressly allowed by another statute. The appointment and compensation of NRC experts and consultants must be in conformance with applicable regulations issued by the United States Office of Personnel Management (see 5 CFR part 304). 
</P>
<P>(f) A member or staff member of an NRC advisory committee engaged in the performance of duties away from his or her home or regular place of business may be allowed travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence, as authorized by section 5703, title 5, United States Code, for persons employed intermittently in the Government service. 
</P>
<P>(g) Nothing in this section shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Prevent any full-time Federal employee who provides services to an NRC advisory committee from receiving compensation at a rate at which he or she would otherwise be compensated as a full-time Federal employee; 
</P>
<P>(2) Prevent any individual who provides services to an NRC advisory committee, and who immediately before providing such services was a full-time Federal employee, from receiving compensation at a rate at which he or she was compensated as a full-time Federal employee; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Affect a rate of pay or a limitation on a rate of pay that is specifically established by law or a rate of pay established under the NRC's General Grade Salary Schedule and evaluation system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79843, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.19   Advisory committee members with disabilities.</HEAD>
<P>An NRC advisory committee member who is disabled may be provided services by a personal assistant while performing advisory committee duties, if the member; 
</P>
<P>(a) Qualifies as disabled under section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794) ; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Does not otherwise qualify for assistance under 5 U.S.C. 3102 by reason of being an employee of NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79843, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.20   Conflict of interest reviews of advisory committee members' outside interests.</HEAD>
<P>The Designated Federal Officer or alternate for each NRC advisory committee and the General Counsel or designee shall review the interests and affiliations of each member of the Designated Federal Officer's advisory committee annually, and upon the commencement of the member's appointment to the committee, for the purpose of ensuring that such appointment is consistent with the laws and regulations on conflict of interest applicable to that member.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79843, Dec. 31, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.21   Cost of duplication of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Copies of the records, reports, transcripts, minutes, appendices, working papers, drafts, studies, agenda, or other documents that were made available to or prepared for or by an NRC advisory committee shall be made available to any person at the actual cost of duplication prescribed in part 9 of this chapter. (For availability of information on advisory committees, see § 7.14.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.5.0.56.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.22   Fiscal and administrative responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of the Chief Financial Officer shall keep such records as will fully disclose the disposition of any funds that may be at the disposal of NRC advisory committees.
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of the Chief Information Officer shall keep such records as will fully disclose the nature and extent of activities of NRC advisory committees.
</P>
<P>(c) NRC shall provide support services (including staff support and meeting space) for each advisory committee established by or reporting to it unless the establishing authority provides otherwise. Where any such advisory committee reports to another agency in addition to NRC, only one agency shall be responsible for support services at any one time, and the establishing authority shall designate the agency responsible for providing such services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 26948, June 27, 1989, as amended at 63 FR 15742, Apr. 1, 1998; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 8 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 9—PUBLIC RECORDS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, sec. 161 (42 U.S.C. 2201); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Subpart A also issued under 31 U.S.C. 9701.
</P><P>Subpart B also issued under 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P><P>Subpart C also issued under 5 U.S.C. 552b.
</P><P>Subpart E also issued under 42 U.S.C. 405 note.
</P></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 9 appear at 82 FR 52825, Nov. 15, 2017.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 9.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.0.64.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subpart A implements the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, concerning the availability to the public of Nuclear Regulatory Commission records for inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B implements the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, concerning disclosure and availability of certain Nuclear Regulatory Commission records maintained on individuals.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart C implements the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b, concerning the opening of Commission meetings to public observation.
</P>
<P>(d) Subpart D describes procedures governing the production of agency records, information, or testimony in response to subpoenas or demands of courts or other judicial or quasi-judicial authorities in State and Federal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(e) Subpart E implements the provisions of the Social Security Number Fraud Prevention Act of 2017, Public Law 115-59, concerning the use of Social Security account numbers in documents sent by mail.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49355, Dec. 31, 1987, as amended at 85 FR 33529, June 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.0.64.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Commission of five members or a quorum thereof sitting as a body, as provided by section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, military department, Government corporation, Government-controlled corporation, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government (including the Executive Office of the President), or any independent regulatory agency.
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, established by the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974.
</P>
<P><I>NRC personnel</I> means employees, consultants, and members of advisory boards, committees, and panels of the NRC; members of boards designated by the Commission to preside at adjudicatory proceedings; and officers or employees of Government agencies, including military personnel, assigned to duty at the NRC.
</P>
<P><I>Working days</I> mean Monday through Friday, except legal holidays.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49355, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.0.64.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by an officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized as binding upon the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49356, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.0.64.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.6   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise indicated, communications relating to this part shall be addressed to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, may be sent to the NRC by mail addressed to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission via email to <I>FOIA.resource@nrc.gov</I> Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's website at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by email to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58799, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62680, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015; 91 FR 10943, Mar. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.0.64.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0043.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 9.23, 9.25, 9.26, 9.28, 9.29, 9.37, 9.53, 9.54, 9.55, 9.65, 9.66, and 9.67.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52184, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 2876, Jan. 20, 1998; 70 FR 34306, June 14, 2005; 91 FR 10943, Mar. 6, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Freedom of Information Act Regulations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 2876, Jan. 20, 1998, as amended at 91 FR 10943, Mar. 6, 2026, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 9.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.11   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes procedures for making Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC or Commission) agency records available to the public for inspection and copying pursuant to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552) and provides notice of procedures for obtaining NRC records otherwise publicly available. This subpart should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB Guidelines). Requests made by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) are processed in accordance with NRC's Privacy Act regulations at subpart B of this part. This subpart does not affect the dissemination or distribution of NRC-originated, or NRC contractor-originated, information to the public under any other NRC public, technical, or other information program or policy.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.13   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Agency record</I> means a record in the possession and control of the NRC that is associated with Government business. Agency record does not include records such as—
</P>
<P>(1) Publicly-available books, periodicals, or other publications that are owned or copyrighted by non-Federal sources;
</P>
<P>(2) Records solely in the possession and control of NRC contractors;
</P>
<P>(3) Personal records in possession of NRC personnel that have not been circulated, were not required to be created or retained by the NRC, and can be retained or discarded at the author's sole discretion, or records of a personal nature that are not associated with any Government business; or
</P>
<P>(4) Non-substantive information in logs or schedule books of the Chairman or Commissioners, uncirculated except for typing or recording purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Business information</I> means commercial or financial information obtained by the NRC from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial-use request</I> means a request made under § 9.23 and for information for a use or purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest of the requester, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. The NRC's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information.
</P>
<P><I>Compelling need</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) That a failure to obtain requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a request made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> mean the expenditures that an agency incurs in searching for and duplicating agency records. For a commercial-use request, direct costs include the expenditures involved in reviewing records to respond to the request. Direct costs include the salary of the employee category performing the work based on that basic rate of pay plus 16 percent of that rate to cover fringe benefits and the cost of operating duplicating machinery. The NRC will charge the requester for the actual direct costs of conducting an electronic records search, including computer search time, runs, and output. The NRC will also charge time spent by computer operators or programmers who conduct or assist in the conduct of an electronic records search.
</P>
<P><I>Duplication</I> means the process of making a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a request made under § 9.23. Copies may take the form of paper copy, microform, audio-visual materials, or electronic records, among others. The NRC will honor a requester's preference for receiving a record in a particular form or format where it can readily reproduce it in the form or format requested.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means an institution that operates a program or programs of scholarly research. Educational institution refers to a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with their role at the educational institution. The NRC may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research.
</P>
<P><I>Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer</I> means the NRC official designated to fulfill the responsibilities for implementing and administering the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act as specifically designated under the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis, as the term is referred to in the definition of commercial-use request, and is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the direction of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use.
</P>
<P><I>Office,</I> unless otherwise indicated, means all offices, boards, panels, and advisory committees of the NRC.
</P>
<P><I>Other requester</I> refers to a requester that does not fall within the fee categories of Commercial use, Educational institution, Noncommercial scientific institution, or Representative of the news media, as described in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any information that would be an agency record subject to the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act when maintained by the NRC in any format, including an electronic format. Record also includes a book, paper, map, drawing, diagram, photograph, brochure, punch card, magnetic tape, paper tape, sound recording, pamphlet, slide, motion picture, or other documentary material regardless of form or characteristics. Record does not include an object or article such as a structure, furniture, a tangible exhibit or model, a vehicle, or piece of equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person actively gathering news for an entity that is organized and operated to publish or broadcast news to the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations broadcasting “news” to the public at large, and publishers of periodicals (but only in those instances when they can qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase or subscriptions by the general public. Other examples of news media entities include online publications and websites that regularly deliver news content to the public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media will be considered to be news-media entities. A freelance journalist will be regarded as working for a news-media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the NRC may consider the past publication of the requester in making such a determination.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I> means the time devoted to examining records located in response to a request to determine whether any portion is exempt from disclosure. Review consists of the time for processing any record for disclosure, including ensuring that the records produced are responsive; de-duplicating records, redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions; conducting inter-agency or business submitter consultations; and obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential commercial information submitter. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> means the time devoted to looking for agency records responsive to requests. This includes a page-by-page or line-by-line identification of responsive information within the records and the reasonable efforts expended to locate and retrieve information from electronic records.
</P>
<P><I>Submitter</I> means any person from whom the NRC obtains business information, directly or indirectly. The term includes, without limitation, corporations, State, local or Tribal governments, and foreign governments.
</P>
<P><I>Unusual circumstances</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(2) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(3) The need for consultation, which will be conducted with all practical speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request or among two or more components of the NRC having substantial subject-matter interest therein.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.15   Availability of records.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC will make available for public inspection and copying any reasonably described agency record in the possession and control of the NRC under the provisions of this subpart, and upon request by any person. Records will be made available in any form or format requested by a person if the record is readily reproducible by NRC in that form or format. The NRC will make reasonable efforts to maintain its records in forms or formats that are reproducible. The NRC will make reasonable efforts to search for records in electronic form or format when requested, except when these efforts would significantly interfere with the operation of any of the NRC's automated information systems. Records that the NRC routinely makes publicly available are described in § 9.21. Procedures and conditions governing requests for records are set forth in § 9.23.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.17   Agency records exempt from public disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FOIA provides for public access to information and records developed or maintained by Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) The following types of agency records are exempt from public disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b):
</P>
<P>(1) Records—(i) That are specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, and
</P>
<P>(ii) That are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order;
</P>
<P>(2) Records related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Records specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552b), provided that the statute—
</P>
<P>(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in a manner that leaves no discretion on the issue; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;
</P>
<P>(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that are privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(5) Interagency or intra-agency memorandums or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the agency, provided that the deliberative process privilege would not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested;
</P>
<P>(6) Personnel and medical files and similar files, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(7) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of these law enforcement records or information—
</P>
<P>(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(iii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority, or any private institution which furnished information on a confidential basis, and, in the case of a record or information compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, or information furnished by a confidential source;
</P>
<P>(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, if the disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual;
</P>
<P>(8) Matters contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or
</P>
<P>(9) Geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this subpart authorizes withholding of information or limiting the availability of records to the public except as specifically provided in this part, nor is this subpart authority to withhold information from Congress.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The NRC will withhold information under this subpart only if—
</P>
<P>(i) The NRC reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this subpart requires disclosure of information that is otherwise prohibited from disclosure by law, or otherwise exempted from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(e) Whenever a request is made that involves access to agency records described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section, the NRC may, during only the time as that circumstance continues, treat the records as not subject to the requirements of this subpart when—
</P>
<P>(1) The investigation or proceeding involves a possible violation of criminal law; and
</P>
<P>(2) There is reason to believe that—
</P>
<P>(i) The subject of the investigation or proceeding is not aware of its pendency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure of the existence of the records could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.19   Segregation of exempt information and deletion of identifying details.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For records required to be made available under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), the NRC will delete information that is exempt under one or more of the exemptions cited in § 9.17. The amount of information deleted will be indicated on the released portion of the record, unless providing this information would harm an interest protected by the exemption(s) under which the matter has been withheld.
</P>
<P>(b) In responding to a request for information submitted under § 9.23, in which it has been determined to withhold exempt information, the NRC will segregate—
</P>
<P>(1) Information that is exempt from public disclosure under § 9.17 from nonexempt information; and
</P>
<P>(2) Factual information from advice, opinions, and recommendations in predecisional records unless the information is inextricably intertwined, or is contained in drafts, legal work products, and records covered by the attorney-client privilege, or is otherwise exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c) In denying a request for records, in whole or in part, the NRC will make a reasonable effort to estimate the volume of any information requested that is denied and provide the estimate to the person making the request, unless providing the estimate would harm an interest protected by the exemption(s) under which the information has been denied.
</P>
<P>(d) When entire records or portions thereof are denied and deletions are made from parts of the record by computer, the amount of information deleted will be indicated on the released portion of the record, unless providing this indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption(s) under which the matter has been denied.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.21   Publicly available records; proactive disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Publication in the</I> <I>Federal Register.</I> The NRC will separately state, publish and maintain current in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Descriptions of its headquarters and regional organization and the established place at which, the persons from whom, and the methods whereby, the public may obtain information, make submissions or requests, or obtain decisions;
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of all formal and informal procedures available;
</P>
<P>(3) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and contents of all papers, reports, or examinations;
</P>
<P>(4) Substantive rules of general applicability adopted as authorized by law, and statements of general policy or interpretations of general applicability formulated and adopted by the NRC and available for public disclosure if subject to the Executive Order 12866 OIRA review process; and
</P>
<P>(5) Each amendment, revision, or repeal of matters referred to in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public inspection.</I> Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusion in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c) and § 9.17, the NRC will make available for public inspection in an electronic format, including by posting on the NRC's website, <I>https://www.nrc.gov,</I> the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, and orders of the NRC issued as a result of adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(2) Those statements of policy and interpretations that have been adopted by the NRC but are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) NRC rules and regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) NRC manuals and instructions to NRC personnel that affect any member of the public; and
</P>
<P>(5) Copies of all records made publicly available pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indexes.</I> Individual indexes to publicly available records, including those records specified in this section, may be created by using the search features of the Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS), located at the NRC website, <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information made available online and assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison.</I> The NRC will ensure that its website of posted records is reviewed and updated on an ongoing basis. The NRC has a FOIA Public Liaison who can assist individuals in locating particular records, in accordance with § 9.30.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NRC publications.</I> Single copies of NRC publications in the NUREG series, NRC Regulatory Guides, and Standard Review Plans as well as NRC issuances can be purchased from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, Virginia 22161.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>NRC Public Document Room.</I> For the convenience of persons who may wish to inspect without charge, or purchase copies of a record or a limited category of records for a fee, publicly available records of the NRC's activities described in paragraph (a) of this section are also made available at the Public Document Room located at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738, by appointment.
</P>
<P>(1) A person may request access to publicly available records in person, by telephone at 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, by email at <I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by U.S. mail from the NRC Public Document Room, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738.
</P>
<P>(2) Each record requested must be described in sufficient detail to enable the NRC Public Document Room staff to locate the record.
</P>
<P>(3) To obtain copies of records expeditiously, a person may open an account with the NRC Public Document Room reproduction contractor. Payment for reproduction services will be made directly to the contractor in accordance with § 9.35.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disclosures of records frequently requested.</I> As provided in this section, the NRC will make publicly available all records regardless of form or format that have been released previously under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3) and this section, and that the NRC determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for the same, or substantially the same, records.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.23   Requirements for making requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the NRC will promptly make its records available to any person pursuant to a request that conforms to the rules and procedures of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of request.</I> A request will receive the quickest possible response if it is addressed to the NRC and addressed as a “Freedom of Information Act Request.” A request for records of the NRC must be made in writing and may be submitted in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail or delivery service to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001;
</P>
<P>(2) By email to <I>FOIA.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or other electronic means described on the FOIA page of the NRC's website (<I>https://www.nrc.gov</I>); or
</P>
<P>(3) Electronically to the National FOIA Portal at <I>https://www.foia.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of the request.</I> (1) To ensure the NRC's ability to respond in a timely manner, a requester must describe each record sought in sufficient detail to enable NRC personnel knowledgeable about the subject matter to locate the record with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent possible, requesters should include specific information that may help the NRC identify the requested records, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, subject matter of the record, case number, docket number, file designation, or other reference number.
</P>
<P>(2) If after receiving a request the NRC determines that it does not reasonably describe the records sought, the NRC will inform the requester what additional information is needed or why the request is otherwise insufficient. If a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, the agency's response to the request may be delayed.
</P>
<P>(3) To ensure the NRC's ability to communicate effectively with a requester, a request must include contact information for the requester, including the name of the requester and, to the extent available, a mailing address, telephone number, and email address at which the NRC may contact the requester regarding the request.
</P>
<P>(4) A requester may specify the preferred form or format (including an electronic format) for the records they seek. The NRC will accommodate the requester's preference if the record is readily reproducible in that form or format.
</P>
<P>(5) A requester must indicate in the request whether the requester is a commercial user, an educational institution, a non-commercial scientific institution, a representative of the news media, or “other” requester as those terms are defined in § 9.13, and the basis for claiming that fee category as described in § 9.37.
</P>
<P>(6) If a requester seeks a waiver or reduction of fees associated with processing a request, then the request must include a statement to that effect as required by § 9.37.
</P>
<P>(7) If a requester seeks expedited processing of a request, then the request must include a statement to that effect as required by § 9.26.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Perfected requests; effect of request deficiencies.</I> For purposes of computing its deadline to respond to a request, the NRC will deem a request to have been received only if, and on the date that, it receives a request that complies with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. If a request is deficient in any material respect, then the NRC may return it to the requester and if it does so, it will advise the requester in what respect the request is deficient, and what additional information is needed to respond to the request. A determination by the NRC that a request is deficient in any respect is not a denial of a request for records and such determinations are not subject to appeal. If a requester fails to respond within 30 days after the NRC's notification that a request is deficient, the NRC will deem the request withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for NRC records pertaining to the requester.</I> An individual who wishes to inspect or obtain copies of records of the NRC that pertain to that individual must provide identity verification in accordance with § 9.54.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requests for NRC records pertaining to an individual other than the requester.</I> Where a request for records pertains to a third party, a requester may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or a declaration made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 by that individual authorizing disclosure of the records to the requester, or by submitting proof that the individual is deceased (<I>e.g.,</I> a copy of a death certificate or an obituary). As an exercise of administrative discretion, the NRC may require a requester to supply additional information if needed to verify that a particular individual has consented to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Assistance from FOIA Public Liaison.</I> Requesters may contact the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison to seek assistance in determining the appropriate fee category, formatting of requests, or resolving any problems that arise prior to submitting a request or during the processing of a request, in accordance with § 9.30.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Requests for records not in NRC control or possession.</I> In determining which records are responsive to a request, the NRC ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date the NRC begins its search for the records. If any other date is used, the NRC will inform the requester of that date. A FOIA request covers only agency records that are in existence on the date the perfected request is received under this section and does not cover agency records destroyed, discarded, or transferred to the National Archives and Records Administration before receipt of the request, or which are created after the date of the request.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.25   Responsibility for responding to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority to grant or deny a request for records.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) through (4) of this section, the head of the responsible NRC office, or their delegate, will make the initial determination either to grant or to deny in whole or in part requests for records. If disclosure is authorized, the head of the office or their delegate will furnish the agency records to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, who will notify the requester of the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) For records originated by, or located in, the files of the Office of the Inspector General, the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations, or their delegate, will make the initial determination either to grant or to deny in whole or in part requests for records. If disclosure is authorized, the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations will furnish the agency records to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, who will notify the requester of the determination.
</P>
<P>(3) For records originated by, or transmitted to, the Commission, a Commissioner, or records originated by, or for which the Office of the Secretary or an Advisory Committee has primary responsibility, the Deputy Secretary of the Commission, or their delegate, will make the initial determination either to grant or to deny in whole or in part a request for records. If disclosure is authorized, the head of the office will furnish the agency records to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, who will notify the requester of the determination.
</P>
<P>(4) For records originated by, or for which the Office of the General Counsel has principal responsibility, the General Counsel will make the initial determinations either to grant or to deny in whole or in part requests for records. If disclosure is authorized, the head of the office will furnish the agency records to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, who will notify the requester of the determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of the response.</I> (1) If the NRC determines that the request for records should be denied in whole or in part, then the requester will be notified by mail or by email. The letter of notification will:
</P>
<P>(i) State the exemptions relied upon to deny the request in part or in whole;
</P>
<P>(ii) If technically feasible, indicate the amount of information deleted and the exemptions under which the deletion is made at the place in the record where such deletion is made (unless providing such indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption relied upon to deny such material);
</P>
<P>(iii) Set forth the name and title or position of the responsible official;
</P>
<P>(iv) Advise the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison, or the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) Advise the requester of the right to an administrative appeal in accordance with § 9.29; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Specify the official or office to which such an appeal will be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) If the NRC determines, after a reasonable search for records, that no responsive records have been found to exist, the NRC will notify the requester of the determination in writing or by email. The notification will also advise the requester of the right to administratively appeal the NRC's determination that no responsive records exist (<I>i.e.,</I> to challenge the adequacy of the NRC's search for responsive records) in accordance with § 9.29. The response will specify the official or office to which the appeal will be submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resolution of disputes.</I> The NRC is committed to efficiently resolving disputes during the request process. The following resources are available to requesters to resolve any disputes that may arise during the request process:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>FOIA Public Liaison.</I> Any request-related questions or concerns should be directed to the FOIA Public Liaison, who is responsible for reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes. Contact the NRC FOIA Public Liaison in accordance with § 9.30.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> OGIS offers non-compulsory, non-binding dispute resolution services to help resolve FOIA disputes. A requester may contact OGIS by mail, email, telephone, or fax as described at its web page, <I>https://www.archives.gov/ogis.</I> Contact OGIS in accordance with § 9.30.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of record exclusions.</I> (1) In the event that the NRC identifies records that may be subject to exclusion from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c) or § 9.17(e), the NRC may confer with the Department of Justice, Office of Information Policy, to obtain approval to apply the exclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC will maintain an administrative record of the process of invocation and approval of the exclusion by the Department of Justice, Office of Information Policy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consultation, referral, and coordination.</I> When reviewing records located by the NRC in response to a request, the NRC will determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the agency must proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consultation.</I> When records that originated with the NRC are responsive to a request but contain within them information of interest to another agency, the NRC ordinarily will consult with that other entity prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral.</I> (i) When the NRC believes that a different agency is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, the NRC ordinarily will refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that agency because the agency that originated the record is presumed to be the best agency to make the disclosure determination. However, if the NRC and the originating agency jointly agree that the NRC is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the NRC refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, the NRC will document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name(s) of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA contact information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. For example, if a non-law enforcement agency responding to a request for records on a living third party locates within its files records originating with a law enforcement agency, and if the existence of that law enforcement interest in the third party was not publicly known, then to disclose that law enforcement interest could cause an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of the third party. Similarly, if the NRC locates within its files material originating with an Intelligence Community agency, and the involvement of that agency in the matter is classified and not publicly acknowledged, then to disclose or give attribution to the involvement of that Intelligence Community agency could cause national security harms. In such instances, to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the NRC will coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on the disclosability of the record. The NRC will then convey the release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination to the requester.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure review.</I> (1) On receipt of any request potentially involving information exempt from disclosure (<I>e.g.,</I> nonpublic information), the NRC will determine whether the information is exempt from disclosure under § 9.17. Whenever a request involves a record containing information that may be exempt from disclosure, but the responsible office, as specified in paragraph (a) of this section, determines that, although exempt, the disclosure of the agency records will not be contrary to the public health and safety, will not be harmful to the common defense or security, and will not affect the rights of any person, the responsible office may authorize disclosure of the agency records. If the responsible office authorizes disclosure of the agency records, the head of the office will furnish the agency records to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, who will notify the requester of the determination in the manner provided in § 9.27.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever a request involves a record containing information that has been classified or may be appropriate for classification by another agency under any applicable executive order concerning the classification of records, the NRC will refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that information to the agency that classified the information, or that should consider the information for classification. Whenever an agency's record contains information that has been derivatively classified (<I>e.g.,</I> when it contains information classified by another agency), the NRC will refer the responsibility for responding to that portion of the request to the agency that classified the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Timing of responses to consultations and referrals.</I> All consultations and referrals received by the NRC will be handled according to the date that the first agency received the perfected FOIA request as described in § 9.23.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Agreements regarding consultations and referrals.</I> The NRC may establish agreements with other agencies to eliminate the need for consultations or referrals with respect to particular types of records.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.26   Timing of responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The NRC does not consider a request as received until the date it is received by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer. When NRC personnel determine that a request was misdirected within the agency, the request will be routed promptly to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer. If a Freedom of Information Act request is misdirected, the response time provided by this section will begin on the date that the request is received by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, but in any event not later than 10 working days, as defined in § 9.3, after the request is first received.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time for initial disclosure determination.</I> In determining which records are responsive to a request, the NRC ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date the NRC begins its search for the records. If any other date is used, the NRC will inform the requester of that date. A record that is excluded from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c) is not considered responsive to a request. Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, the NRC will notify a requester within 20 working days of its determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> (1) To ensure the most equitable treatment possible of all requesters, the NRC will seek to respond to requests according to their order of receipt within each track of the multitrack processing system. The NRC has designated processing tracks that distinguish between expedited, simple, and complex requests based on the estimated time it will take to process the request.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC will advise a requester of the track into which their request falls and, when appropriate, will offer the requester an opportunity to narrow the scope of their request so that it can be placed in a different processing track. The NRC will notify the requester in writing if subsequent information substantially changes the estimated time to process a request. A requester may modify the request to allow it to be processed faster or to reduce the cost of processing. The NRC may provide partial or interim responses to requester, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC uses a three-track system.
</P>
<P>(i) The first track is for expedited processing. The NRC will process a FOIA request on an expedited basis when a requester satisfies the requirements for expedited processing as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The second track is for simple requests (<I>e.g.,</I> requests involving possible records from two or three offices and/or various types of files of moderate volume, of which, some are expected to be exempt).
</P>
<P>(iii) The third track is for complex requests that, because of their unusual volume or other complexity, are expected to take more than 30 working days to complete (<I>e.g.,</I> requests involving several offices, regional offices, another agency's records, classified records requiring declassification review, records for business information that are required to be referred to the submitter for their proprietary review prior to disclosure, records in large volumes which require detailed review because of the sensitive nature of the records such as investigative records or legal opinions and recordings of internal deliberations of agency staff).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extension of time limit in unusual circumstances.</I> (1) Whenever the NRC cannot meet the statutory time limit for processing a request because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined in § 9.13, and the NRC extends the time limit on that basis, the NRC will, before expiration of the 20-day period to respond, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which the agency estimates processing of the request will be completed. Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, the NRC will, as described by the FOIA, provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. The NRC will make available its FOIA Public Liaison for this purpose in accordance with § 9.25(c).
</P>
<P>(2) In unusual circumstances, the NRC may extend the time limit prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section by not more than 10 working days. The extension may be made by written notice to the person making the request to explain the reasons for the extension and indicate the date on which a determination is expected to be made. The NRC may consider the following factors in determining whether “unusual circumstances,” as defined in § 9.13, apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from three or more offices within NRC's headquarters and/or regional offices;
</P>
<P>(ii) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records demanded in a single request;
</P>
<P>(iii) The need for consultation with another Government agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request;
</P>
<P>(iv) The need to undertake a declassification review of records;
</P>
<P>(v) The need to refer records to a licensee or other business submitter under § 9.28; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The need to retrieve records from Federal Records Centers or other off-site facilities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> To satisfy unusual circumstances under the FOIA, the NRC may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. The NRC will not aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exceptional circumstances.</I> (1) If the NRC cannot act upon the request within the time periods described in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section due to exceptional circumstances, the NRC will provide the requester with the reasons for the delay and provide a projected response date.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester will be provided an opportunity to limit the scope of the request so that it may be processed in a shorter amount of time, or to agree to a reasonable alternative time frame for processing. When notifying a requester under this paragraph (f), the NRC will make available its FOIA Public Liaison to assist in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and the agency and will notify the requester of the requester's right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services within the National Archives and Records Administration. See § 9.25(c).
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this paragraph (f), “exceptional circumstances” do not include delays that result from the normal predictable workload of FOIA requests or a failure by the NRC to exercise due diligence in processing the request. A requester's unwillingness to agree to reasonable modification of the request or an alternative time for processing the request may be considered as factors in determining whether exceptional circumstances exist and whether the agency exercised due diligence in responding to the request.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) The NRC may take requests and appeals out of order and give expedited treatment if the NRC determines that such requests or appeals involve a compelling need as defined in § 9.13.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for expedited processing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be made in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be labelled “Expedited Processing Requested”;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be submitted as part of a request for records in accordance with § 9.23; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Include a statement certifying the compelling need given to be true and correct to the best of their knowledge and belief. The NRC may waive the certification requirement as a matter of administrative discretion.
</P>
<P>(3) The Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, or their delegate, will make the initial determination whether to grant or deny a request for expedited processing and will notify a requester within 10 calendar days after the request has been received whether expedited processing will be granted.
</P>
<P>(4) If the NRC grants a request for expedited processing, then the NRC will give the expedited request priority over non-expedited requests and will process the expedited request as soon as practical.
</P>
<P>(5) If the NRC denies a request for expedited processing, then the requester will have the right to submit an appeal to the denial determination in accordance with § 9.29. The NRC will communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester denying expedited processing. The requester will label its appeal request “Appeal for Expedited Processing.”




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.27   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The NRC, to the extent practical, will communicate electronically with requesters having access to the internet, through online platforms such as email or web portal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgment of requests.</I> The NRC will acknowledge the request in writing and assign it an individualized tracking number if it will take longer than 10 working days, as defined in § 9.3, to process. The acknowledgment letter will contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicable tracking number;
</P>
<P>(2) The date of receipt, as determined in accordance with § 9.23;
</P>
<P>(3) A brief statement identifying the subject matter of the request; and
</P>
<P>(4) Confirmation, with respect to any fees that may apply to the request pursuant to § 9.37, that the requester has sought a waiver or reduction in such fees, has agreed to pay any and all applicable fees, or has specified a higher limit that the requester is willing to pay in fees to process the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Estimated dates of completion and interim responses.</I> Upon request, the NRC will provide an estimated date by which the agency expects to provide a response to the requester. If a request involves a voluminous amount of material, or searches in multiple locations, the NRC may provide interim responses, releasing the records on a rolling basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grants of requests.</I> Once the NRC determines it will grant a request in full or in part, it will notify the requester in writing. The NRC will also inform the requester of any fees charged under § 9.37 and disclose the requested records to the requester promptly upon payment of any applicable fees.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adverse determinations of requests.</I> The NRC will notify the requester, in writing, if the NRC makes an adverse determination denying a request in any respect, and include in its decisions that: the requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of denial.</I> The denial must be signed by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer or designee and must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption applied by the head of the office recommending denial of the record;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of any records or information withheld, such as the number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation, although such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed under § 9.29, and a description of the appeal requirements; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement notifying the requester of the assistance available from the agency's FOIA Public Liaison, and the dispute resolution services offered by OGIS in accordance with § 9.25(c).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Markings on released documents.</I> Records disclosed, in part, will be marked to show the amount of information deleted and the exemption under which the deletion was made unless doing so would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption. The location of the information deleted must also be indicated on the record, if technically feasible.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Discretionary disclosures.</I> Even though a FOIA exemption may apply to records requested, the NRC may, if not precluded by law, elect not to apply the exemption. The fact that the exemption is not applied by the NRC in response to a particular request will have no precedential significance in processing other requests.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.28" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.28   Requests for business information provided to the NRC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Business information provided to the NRC by a business submitter will not be disclosed pursuant to a FOIA request except in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of business information.</I> A submitter of business information must use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings, at the time of submission or a reasonable time thereafter, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4). These designations expire 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to submitters.</I> (1) The NRC will provide a submitter with notice of receipt of a request or appeal whenever:
</P>
<P>(i) The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The NRC has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice requirements of this paragraph (c) will not apply if:
</P>
<P>(i) The NRC determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information lawfully has been published or otherwise made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (d)(1) of this section appears obviously frivolous, except that, in such a case, the NRC will, within a reasonable time prior to a specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure before release.</I> (1) The submitter will be allowed 30 calendar days from the date of the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section to object to the disclosure of records containing its confidential business information prior to NRC disclosing it. If a submitter has any objection to the disclosure, the submitter must provide a detailed written statement. The statement must specify all grounds that support why the information is a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(2) If a submitter fails to respond to the notice within the time specified in the notice, the submitter will be considered to have no objection to the disclosure of the information. Information provided by the submitter that is received after the specified date for a response will not be considered unless that date is extended by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer upon request by the submitter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of final decision to disclose.</I> The NRC will consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to determining whether to disclose business information. Except as otherwise prohibited by law, when notice is given to a submitter under this section, the requester will be advised that such notice has been given to the submitter. Whenever the NRC decides to disclose business information over the objection of a submitter, the NRC will forward to the submitter a written notice that will include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons for which the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date that is not less than 30 calendar days after the notice of the final decision to release the requested information has been sent, by mail or email, to the submitter, after which the information will be made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel disclosure of business information, the NRC will promptly notify the submitter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.29   Administrative appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for administrative appeals.</I> A requester may administratively appeal an adverse NRC determination on their initial request, including—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial of a Freedom of Information Act request for access, in whole or part, to agency records;
</P>
<P>(2) Denial of a request for waiver or reduction of fees, including a denial to assign a requester to a particular fee category; or
</P>
<P>(3) Denial of a request for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Not grounds for administrative appeals.</I> A requester may not file an administrative appeal for the lack of a timely response.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for filing an administrative appeal.</I> To ensure a timely response to an appeal:
</P>
<P>(1) The appeal must be made in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) An appeal, other than an appeal of the denial of an expedited processing request, must be postmarked or submitted electronically within 90 calendar days of the date of an adverse determination;
</P>
<P>(3) An appeal of a denial of an expedited processing request must be made within 10 calendar days of the date of an adverse determination;
</P>
<P>(4) If an appeal is submitted by mail or delivery service, it must be addressed as set forth on the NRC's website;
</P>
<P>(5) The appeal must be labelled “Freedom of Information Act Appeal”;
</P>
<P>(6) If an appeal is submitted by electronic means, it must be addressed as set forth on the NRC's website, <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/foia/foia-privacy.html.</I> The appeal must be labelled “Freedom of Information Act Appeal”;
</P>
<P>(7) The appeal must set forth contact information for the requester, including to the extent available, a mailing address, telephone number, or email address at which the NRC may contact the requester regarding the appeal; and
</P>
<P>(8) The appeal must specify the applicable request tracking number, the date of the initial request, and the date of the initial determination; and, where possible, enclose a copy of the initial request and the initial determination being appealed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Processing of administrative appeals.</I> The receipt of the appeal will be acknowledged by the NRC and the requester will be advised of the date the appeal was received, the appeal tracking number, and the expected date of response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nondisclosed information.</I> On receipt of any appeal involving nondisclosed exempt information, the NRC will take appropriate action in accordance with § 9.25(f).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Determinations to grant or deny administrative appeals.</I> (1) The Chief Information Officer, or their delegate, will act on the appeal, except that the Inspector General will act on any appeal where the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations has made the initial determination being appealed; and the Secretary of the Commission, or their delegate, will act on any appeal where the Deputy Secretary of the Commission or General Counsel has made the decision being appealed.
</P>
<P>(2) The official authorized to act on an appeal will decide whether to reverse the initial determination (in whole or in part), or to remand the initial determination to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer for further action, and will notify the requester of this decision in writing within 20 working days, as defined in § 9.3, after the date of receipt of the appeal, unless extended pursuant to § 9.26(d) and (f).
</P>
<P>(3) If the appeal is denied (in whole or in part), the requester will be:
</P>
<P>(i) Notified in writing of the denial;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notified of the reasons for the denial, including which of the FOIA exemptions were relied upon;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notified of the name and title or position of the official responsible for the determination on appeal;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provided with a statement that judicial review of the denial is available in the United States District Court for the judicial district in which the requester resides or has a principal place of business, the judicial district in which the requested records are located, or the District of Columbia in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B); and
</P>
<P>(v) Provided with notification that dispute resolution services are available to the requester as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation through the Office of Government Information Services in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(h)(3). Dispute resolution is a voluntary process. If the NRC agrees to participate in the dispute resolution services provided by the Office of Government Information Services, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute. See § 9.30 for OGIS contact information.
</P>
<P>(4) If an initial determination is remanded or modified on appeal, the requester will be notified of that determination in writing. The NRC will then further process the request in accordance with that appeal determination and will respond directly to the requester.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>When an appeal is required.</I> Before seeking review by a court of an adverse determination, a requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Adjudication of administrative appeals of requests in litigation.</I> An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.30" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.30   Contact for dispute resolution services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NRC's FOIA Public Liaison:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail—11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20852; and
</P>
<P>(2) By email—<I>FOIAPublicLiaison.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Office of Government Information Services within National Archives and Records Administration:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail—8601 Adelphi Road-OGIS, College Park, MD 20740;
</P>
<P>(2) By facsimile—202-741-5769; and
</P>
<P>(3) By email—<I>ogis@nara.gov.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.35   Duplication fees for documents in the NRC Public Document Room and for NRC Advisory Committee proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The charges by the duplicating service contractor for the duplication of records made available under § 9.21 at the NRC Public Document Room (PDR), One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Room OWFN-P1 B35, Rockville, Maryland, may be found on the NRC's website at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/pdr/copy-service.html,</I> by calling the PDR at 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, or by email at <I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</I> and are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Paper-to-paper reproduction is $0.30 per page for standard size (up to and including 11″ x 14″ reduced). Pages 11″ x 17″ are $0.30 per page. Pages larger than 11″ x 17″, including engineering drawings, are $1.50 per square foot.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pages larger than 11″ x 17″ are $1.50 per square foot.
</P>
<P>(iii) Microfiche-to-paper reproduction is $0.30 per page. Aperture card blowback to paper is $3.00 per square foot.
</P>
<P>(iv) Microfiche card duplication is $5.00 per card; CD-ROM duplication is $10.00 each.
</P>
<P>(v) The charges for Electronic Full Text (EFT) (ADAMS documents) copying are as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Electronic Full Text (EFT) copying of ADAMS documents to paper (applies to images, OCR TIFF, and PDF text) is $0.30 per page.
</P>
<P>(B) EFT copying of ADAMS documents to CD-ROM is $5.00 per CD plus $0.15 per page.
</P>
<P>(C) CD-ROM-to-paper reproduction is $0.30 per page.
</P>
<P>(vi) Priority rates (rush processing) are as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The priority rate offered for standard size paper-to-paper reproduction is $0.35, microfiche-to-paper reproduction is $0.40, EFT copying of ADAMS documents to paper, and CD-ROM-to-paper production is $0.35 per page.
</P>
<P>(B) The priority rate for aperture cards is $3.50 per square foot. The priority rate for copying EFT to CD-ROM is $6.00 per CD-ROM plus $0.20 per page.
</P>
<P>(vii) Facsimile charges are $1.00 per page for local calls; $2.00 per page for U.S. long distance calls, and $6.00 per page for foreign long-distance calls, plus the regular per page copying charge.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester may submit mail-order requests for contractor duplication of NRC records made by writing to the NRC Public Document Room. The charges for mail-order duplication of records are the same as those set out in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, plus mailing or shipping charges.
</P>
<P>(3) A requester may open an account with the duplicating service contractor. A requester may obtain the name and address and billing policy of the contractor from the NRC Public Document Room.
</P>
<P>(4) Any change in the costs specified in this section will become effective immediately pending completion of the final rulemaking that amends this section to reflect the new charges. The Commission will post the charges that will be in effect for the interim period at the NRC Public Document Room. The Commission will publish a final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that includes the new charges within 15 working days, as defined in § 9.3, from the beginning of the interim period.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC will assess the following charges for copies of records to be duplicated by the NRC at locations other than the NRC Public Document Room located at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland.
</P>
<P>(1) Sizes up to 8
<FR>1/2</FR> x 14 inches made on office copying machines—$0.20 per page of copy; and
</P>
<P>(2) The charge for duplicating records other than those specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is computed on the basis of NRC's direct costs.
</P>
<P>(c) In compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, a requester may purchase copies of transcripts of testimony in NRC Advisory Committee proceedings, which are transcribed by a reporting firm under contract with the NRC directly from the reporting firm at the cost of reproduction as provided for in the contract with the reporting firm. A requester may also purchase transcripts from the NRC at the cost of reproduction as set out in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Copyrighted material may not be reproduced in violation of the copyright laws. Requesters will be given the citation to any copyrighted publication and advised to contact the NRC Public Document Room to arrange to view the publication.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.37   Fees for processing NRC FOIA requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The NRC may charge fees for processing a FOIA request. The NRC will determine whether and to what extent to charge a requester the fees described in this paragraph by determining a fee category for the requester (see paragraph (b) of this section) and then by charging the requester those fees applicable to the assigned category (see paragraph (c) of this section), unless circumstances exist (see paragraph (d) of this section) that render fees inapplicable or unless the requester has requested and the NRC has granted a reduction in or waiver of fees (see paragraph (e) of this section).
</P>
<P>(1) The NRC will generally respond to a request electronically. Except where a requester specifically asks that the NRC provide released records in paper format, or where the records must be scanned to process the records, the NRC will ordinarily not charge duplication fees. However, where a requester asks that the NRC provide released records in paper format, or where scanning records into a digital format is necessary to process the records, the NRC will charge a requester the fees for the cost of printing or copying records at the rate of $0.20 per page.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC will charge the following hourly rates for search and review of agency records by NRC personnel, rounded up to the nearest full hour:
</P>
<P>(i) Clerical search and review at a salary rate that is equivalent to a GG-9/step 7, plus 16 percent fringe benefits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Professional/managerial search and review at a salary rate that is equivalent to a GG-14/step 7, plus 16 percent fringe benefits; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Senior executive or Commissioner search and review at a salary rate that is equivalent to an ES-Maximum, plus 16 percent fringe benefits.
</P>
<P>(3) Search costs will be assessed even if no records are located, or, if records are located, all are exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(4) The NRC will honor the requester's preference for receiving records in a particular format whenever the NRC can readily reproduce the record in that format.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Categories of requesters.</I> (1) Within 20 calendar days of the receipt of a request, the NRC will determine the proper fee category that applies to a requester. The NRC will inform the requester of the determination in writing. Where the NRC has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which a requester will put the records sought or where that use is not clear from the request itself, the NRC will seek additional clarification before assigning the requester to a specific category.
</P>
<P>(2) The requester will have the right to submit an appeal of the NRC's determination of fee category in accordance with § 9.29. The NRC will communicate this appeal right as part of its written determination of one of the following fee categories:
</P>
<P>(i) Commercial user.
</P>
<P>(ii) Educational institution.
</P>
<P>(iii) Noncommercial scientific institution.
</P>
<P>(iv) Representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(v) Other requester.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees applicable to each category of requester.</I> The following fee schedule applies to requests processed under the FOIA. Specific levels of fees are prescribed for each category of requester identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial users will be charged the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing, and duplicating the requested records.
</P>
<P>(i) When a request is received for a disclosure that is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, the NRC will not consider a request for a waiver or reduction of fees based upon the assertion that disclosure would be in the public interest. The NRC may recover the cost of searching for and reviewing records even when there is ultimately no disclosure of records or no records are located.
</P>
<P>(ii) The NRC will not charge commercial use requesters for review at the administrative appeal stage of exemptions applied at the initial review stage. However, any costs associated with an agency's re-review of withheld information may be assessed as review fees.
</P>
<P>(2) Educational and non-commercial scientific institution requesters will be charged only for the cost of duplicating records they request, except that the NRC will provide the first 100 pages of duplication free of charge.
</P>
<P>(3) Representatives of the news media will be charged only for the cost of duplicating the records they request, except that the NRC will provide the first 100 pages of duplication free of charge.
</P>
<P>(4) Other requesters who do not fit any of the categories described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section will be charged the full direct cost of searching for and duplicating records that are responsive to the request, except that the NRC will provide the first 100 pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time free of charge.
</P>
<P>(i) For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, the NRC will charge the direct costs of producing the copy, including operator time. The NRC may recover the cost of searching for records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records, or no records are located.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests from persons for records about themselves filed in the NRC's systems of records will be assessed fees as provided under the fee provisions in § 9.85.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other circumstances when fees are not charged.</I> The NRC may not charge a requester certain FOIA processing fees in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) If the cost of collecting a fee would be equal to or greater than the total FOIA processing fee, taking into account any free services to which the requester is entitled under this section, then the NRC will not charge a requester the FOIA processing fees.
</P>
<P>(2) If the NRC has waived or reduced FOIA processing fees in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, then the NRC will not charge the portion of the FOIA processing fees that has been waived or reduced.
</P>
<P>(3) If the NRC fails to comply with any time limit under § 9.26, then the NRC will not assess search fees.
</P>
<P>(4) If the requester is a representative of the news media or an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, then the NRC will not assess duplication fees, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) A court has determined that exceptional circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, exist; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The NRC has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined under § 9.13 and referenced in § 9.26, apply to the processing of the request; and
</P>
<P>(A) Provided timely written notice to the requester of the unusual circumstances in accordance with § 9.26;
</P>
<P>(B) Determined that more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request; and
</P>
<P>(C) Discussed with the requester (or made not less than three good faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(5) If the NRC determines, as a matter of administrative discretion, that waiving or reducing the fees would serve the interest of the United States Government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) A requester may seek from the NRC a waiver or reduction in the fees otherwise applicable to a FOIA request provided the requester:
</P>
<P>(i) Requests such waiver or reduction of fees in writing as part of the FOIA request;
</P>
<P>(ii) Labels the request for waiver or reduction of fees “Fee Waiver or Reduction Requested” on the FOIA request; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrates that the fee reduction or waiver is in the public interest because:
</P>
<P>(A) Furnishing the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government; and
</P>
<P>(B) Furnishing the information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) However, a requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time, so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Advance notice and prepayment of fees.</I> (1) Subject to paragraphs (f)(2) through (4) of this section, for requests other than those described in § 9.26(d) and (f), the NRC will not require the requester to make an advance payment before work is commenced or continued on a request. However, payment owed for work already completed (<I>i.e.,</I> payment before a response is issued to a requester) is not an advance payment.
</P>
<P>(2) When the NRC determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will exceed $250.00, the NRC will require that the requester make an advance payment up to the amount of the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to the NRC within 30 calendar days of the billing date, the NRC will require that the requester pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest on that prior request, and make an advance payment of the full amount of any estimated fee before the NRC begins to process a new request or continues to process a pending request or any pending appeal. Where the NRC has a reasonable basis to believe that a requester has misrepresented the requester's identity to avoid paying outstanding fees, the NRC may require that the requester provide proof of identity.
</P>
<P>(4) In situations in which the NRC requires advance payment, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the required payment is received. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of the agency's fee determination, the request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00.</I> (1) When the NRC determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed in accordance with this section will exceed $25.00, the NRC will notify the requester of the actual or estimated amount of the fees, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review or duplication, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated.
</P>
<P>(i) If only a portion of the fee can be estimated readily, the NRC will advise the requester accordingly.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the request is for a noncommercial use, the notice will specify that the requester is entitled to the statutory entitlements of 100 pages of duplication at no charge.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the requester is charged search fees, two hours of search time will be provided at no charge, and the NRC will advise the requester whether those entitlements have been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) If the NRC notifies the requester that the actual or estimated fees are in excess of $25.00, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the requester commits in writing to pay the actual or estimated total fee, or designates some amount of fees the requester is willing to pay, or in the case of a noncommercial use requester who has not yet been provided with the requester's statutory entitlements, designates that the requester seeks only that which can be provided by the statutory entitlements. The requester must provide the commitment or designation in writing, and must, when applicable, designate an exact dollar amount the requester is willing to pay. The NRC will not accept payments in installments.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester has indicated a willingness to pay some designated amount of fees, but the NRC estimates that the total fee will exceed that amount, the agency will toll (pause) the processing of the request when it notifies the requester of the estimated fees in excess of the amount the requester has indicated a willingness to pay. The agency will inquire whether the requester wishes to revise the amount of fees the requester is willing to pay or modify the request. Once the requester responds, the time to respond will resume from where it was at the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(4) The NRC FOIA Public Liaison is available to assist any requester in reformulating a request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost. Contact the NRC FOIA Public Liaison in accordance with § 9.30.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Charges for other services.</I> (1) Although not required to provide special services, if the NRC chooses to do so as a matter of administrative discretion, the direct costs of providing the service will be charged. Examples of such services include certifying that records are true copies, providing multiple copies of the same document, or sending records by means other than first class mail.
</P>
<P>(2) For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by the NRC at a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), the NRC will charge additional costs in accordance with the Transactional Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Charging interest.</I> (1) The NRC will charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date the billing was sent to the requester in accordance with the NRC's regulations set out in § 15.37 of this chapter. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the billing date until payment is received by the agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC will use its debt collection procedures that are in part 15 of this chapter for any overdue fees.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Form of payment.</I> Payment may be tendered as set forth on <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/foia/foia-privacy.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> When the NRC reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters is attempting to divide a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the NRC may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The NRC may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 45-day period have been made to avoid fees. For requests separated by a longer period, the NRC will aggregate them only where there is a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in view of all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.38" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.38   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC will preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this subpart, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized pursuant to title 44 of the United States Code or the General Records Schedule 4.2 of the National Archives and Records Administration. Records described in this section will not be disposed of or destroyed while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.39   Annual report to the Attorney General of the United States and Director of the Office of Government Information Services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On or before February 1 of each year, the NRC will submit a report covering the preceding fiscal year to the Attorney General of the United States and to the Director of the Office of Government Information Services that will include the information required by 5 U.S.C. 552(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC will make its annual FOIA reports available to the public at the NRC website, <I>https://www.nrc.gov.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.1.64.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.41   Other rights and services.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart will be construed to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Privacy Act Regulations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 9.50" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.64.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.50   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements the provisions of section 3 of the Privacy Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-579, 5 U.S.C. 552a, with respect to (a) the procedures by which individuals may determine the existence of, seek access to and request correction of NRC records concerning themselves, and (b) the requirements applicable to NRC personnel with respect to the use and dissemination of such records. The regulations in this subpart apply to all records which are retrievable from a system of records under the control of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission by the use of an individual's name or of an identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to such individual. Except where specifically provided otherwise, this subpart applies to all NRC records maintained on individuals whether they predate or postdate September 27, 1975.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.64.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.51   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use or disseminate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the NRC, including, but not limited to, his or her education, financial transactions, medical history, employment history or criminal history, and that contains the individual's name, or the identifying number, symbol or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or a photograph.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>System manager</I> means the NRC official responsible for maintaining a system of records.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Systems of records</I> means a group of records under the control of the NRC from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by an identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to an individual.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Statistical record</I> means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by the Census Act, 13 U.S.C. 8.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected, as described in a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="64" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.64" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures Applicable to Requests by Individuals for Information, Access or Amendment of Records Maintained About Them</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.65" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>presentation of requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.52" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.65.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.52   Types of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals may make the following requests respecting records about themselves maintained by NRC in a system of records subject to the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974:
</P>
<P>(1) Request a determination whether a record about the individual is contained in a system of records.
</P>
<P>(2) Request access to a record about the individual. Access requests may include requests to review the record and to have a copy made of all or any portion thereof in a form comprehensible to the individual.
</P>
<P>(3) Request correction or amendment of a record about the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for accounting of disclosures.</I> Individuals may, at any time, request an accounting by NRC of disclosures to any other person or Government agency of any record about themselves contained in a system of records controlled by NRC, except the following: (1) Disclosures made pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552; (2) disclosures made within the Nuclear Regulatory Commission; (3) disclosures made to another Government agency or instrumentality for an authorized law enforcement activity pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7); (4) disclosures expressly exempted by NRC regulations from the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a (j)(2) and (k).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 60 FR 63900, Dec. 13, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.65.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.53   Requests; how and where presented.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests may be made in person or in writing. Assistance regarding equests or other matters relating to the Privacy Act of 1974 may be obtained by writing to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6. Requests relating to records in multiple systems of records should be made to the same Officer. That Officer shall assist the requestor in identifying his or her request more precisely and shall be responsible for forwarding the request to the appropriate system manager. 
</P>
<P>(b) All written requests must be made to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, and sent by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6, and should clearly state on the envelope and in the letter, as appropriate: “Privacy Act Request,” “Privacy Act Disclosure Accounting Request,” “Privacy Act Correction Request.” The NRC does not consider a request received until the date it is actually received by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests may be made in person during official hours at the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission office where the record is located, as listed in the “Notice of System of Records” for the system in which the record is contained.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 20645, May 20, 1976; 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 63 FR 15743, Apr. 1, 1998; 68 FR 58800, Oct. 10, 2003; 70 FR 34308, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.54" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.65.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.54   Verification of identity of individuals making requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Identification requirements in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section are applicable to any individual who makes requests respecting records about himself or herself, except that no verification of identity shall be required if the records requested are available to the public under the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act. With respect to certain sensitive records, additional requirements for verification of identity stated in the appropriate published “Notice of System of Records” may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Written requests.</I> An individual making a written request respecting a record about himself or herself may establish his or her identity by a signature, address, date of birth, employee identification number, if any, and one other item of identification such as a copy of a driver's license or other document.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests in person.</I> An individual making a request in person respecting a record about himself or herself may establish his or her identity by the presentation of a single document bearing a photograph (such as a passport or identification badge) or by the presentation of two items of identification which do not bear a photograph but do bear a name, address and signature (such, as a driver's license or credit card).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inability to provide requisite documentation of identity.</I> An individual making a request in person or in writing respecting a record about himself or herself who cannot provide the necessary documentation of identity may provide a notarized statement, swearing or affirming to his or her identity and to the fact that he or she understands that penalties for false statements may be imposed pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 1001, and that penalties for obtaining a record concerning an individual under false pretenses may be imposed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3). Forms for such notarized statements may be obtained on request from the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, and sent by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of parentage or guardianship.</I> In addition to establishing the identity of the minor, or other individual he or she represents as required in paragraph (a) of this section, the parent or legal guardian of a minor or of an individual judicially determined to be incompetent shall establish his or her status as parent or guardian by furnishing a copy of a birth certificate of the minor showing parentage or a copy of a court order establishing guardianship.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 63 FR 15743, Apr. 1, 1998; 68 FR 58800, Oct. 10, 2003; 70 FR 34309, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.65.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.55   Specification of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Requests relating to records shall, insofar as practicable, specify the nature of the record sought, the approximate dates covered by the record, the system of records in which the record is thought to be included and the system manager having custody of the record system as shown in the annual compilation, “Notices of Records Systems”, published by the General Services Administration. Requests shall, in addition, comply with any additional specification requirements contained in the published “Notice of System of Records” for that system.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for correction or amendment of records shall, in addition, specify the particular record involved, state the nature of the correction or amendment sought and furnish justification for the correction or amendment.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests which do not contain information sufficient to identify the record requested will be returned promptly to the requestor, with a notice indicating what information is lacking. Individuals making requests in person will be informed of any deficiency in the specification of records at the time the request is made. Individuals making requests in writing will be notified of any such deficiency when their request is acknowledged.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.56" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.65.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.56   Accompanying persons.</HEAD>
<P>An individual requesting access to records about himself or herself may be accompanied by another individual of his or her own choosing. Both the individual requesting access and the individual accompanying him or her shall sign the required form indicating that the Nuclear Regulatory Commission is authorized to discuss the contents of the subject record in the presence of both individuals.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="66" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.66" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>nrc procedures for processing requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.60" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.66.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.60   Acknowledgement of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Written requests by individuals to verify the existence of, obtain access to or correct or amend records about themselves maintained by NRC in a system of records subject to the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, shall be acknowledged in writing by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer within ten working days after date of actual receipt. The acknowledgement shall advise the requestor if any additional information is needed to process the request. Wherever practicable, the acknowledgement shall notify the individual whether his or her request to obtain access to the record or to correct or amend the record has been granted or denied.
</P>
<P>(b) When an individual requests access to records or permission to correct or amend records in person, every effort will be made to make an immediate determination as to whether access or correction or amendment should be granted. If an immediate determination cannot be made, the request will be processed in the same manner as a written request. Records will be made available for immediate inspection whenever possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 53 FR 17689, May 18, 1988; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 63 FR 15743, Apr. 1, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.66.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.61   Procedures for processing requests for records exempt in whole or in part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an individual requests information concerning the existence of, or access to, records about himself or herself which have been compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding in either a court or before an administrative tribunal, the NRC shall advise the individual only that no record available to him or her pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 has been identified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General exemptions.</I> Generally, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) allows the exemption of any system of records within the NRC from any part of section 552a except subsections (b), (c) (1) and (2), (e)(4) (A) through (F), (e) (6), (7), (9), (10), and (11), and (i) of the act if the system of records is maintained by an NRC component that performs as one of its principal functions any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws, including police efforts to prevent, control, or reduce crimes, or to apprehend criminals, and consists of—
</P>
<P>(1) Information compiled for the purpose of identifying individual criminal offenders and alleged offenders and consisting only of identifying data and notations of arrests, the nature and disposition of criminal charges, sentencing, confinement, release and parole, and probation status;
</P>
<P>(2) Information compiled for the purpose of a criminal investigation, including reports of informants and investigators, and associated with an identifiable individual; or
</P>
<P>(3) Reports identifiable to an individual compiled at any stage of the process of enforcement of the criminal laws from arrest or indictment through release from supervision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific exemptions under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k).</I> Individual requests for access to records which have been exempted from access under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k) shall be processed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Information classified under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, and exempted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).</I> (i) Requested information classified by NRC will be reviewed by the responsible official of the NRC to determine whether it continues to warrant classification under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information which no longer warrants classification under these criteria shall be declassified and made available to the individual. If the requested information has been classified by another agency, the responsible official of the NRC will request the classifying agency to review the information to ascertain if classification is still warranted. If the information continues to warrant classification, the individual shall be advised that the information sought is classified, that it has been reviewed and continues to warrant classification, and that it has been exempted from access pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes exempted pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2).</I> Requests shall be responded to in the manner provided in paragraph (a) of this section unless a review of the information indicates that the information has been used or is being used to deny the individual any right, privilege or benefit for which he or she is eligible or to which he or she would otherwise be entitled under Federal law. In that event, the individual shall be advised of the existence of the information and shall be provided the information except to the extent it would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Information that would reveal the identity of a confidential source shall be extracted or summarized in a manner which protects the source and the summary or extract shall be provided to the requesting individual.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Material within a system of records required by statute to be maintained and used solely as statistical records and exempted pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).</I> The exempted information requested will be reviewed by the responsible official of the NRC to determine whether it continues to warrant exemption. Information which no longer warrants exemption shall be made available to the individual. If the information continues to warrant exemption, the individual shall be advised that the information sought is exempt from disclosure, that it has been reviewed and continues to warrant exemption, and that it has been exempted from access pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, Federal contracts, or access to classified information and exempted pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5).</I> Information exempted pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5) shall be made available to an individual upon request except to the extent that the information would reveal the identity of a confidential source. Material that would reveal the identity of a confidential source shall be extracted or summarized in a manner which protects the source and the summary or extract shall be provided to the requesting individual.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Testing or examination material exempted pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6).</I> Testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service which has been exempted pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(6) shall not be made available to an individual if disclosure would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing or examination process but may be made available if no possibility of such compromise exists.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 44 FR 50804, Aug. 30, 1979; 50 FR 50284, Dec. 10, 1985; 60 FR 63900, Dec. 13, 1995; 70 FR 34309, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.62" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.66.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.62   Records under control of another Government agency.</HEAD>
<P>Requests received by NRC pertaining to records under the control of another Government agency will be returned to the requester with the name of the controlling Government agency, if known, within ten working days after receipt by the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 34309, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.67" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>determinations and appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.67.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.65   Access determinations; appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial determinations.</I> For agency records located in the Office of the Inspector General, the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations shall determine whether access to the record is available under the Privacy Act. For all other agency records, the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer with the advice of the system manager having control of the record to which access is requested, shall determine whether access to the record is available under the Privacy Act. The Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer shall notify the requesting individual in person or in writing of the determination. Unless the request presents unusual difficulties or involves extensive numbers of records, individuals shall be notified of determinations to grant or deny access within 30 working days after receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(1) Notices granting access shall inform the individual when and where the requested record may be seen, how copies may be obtained, and of any fees or anticipated charges which may be incurred pursuant to § 9.85 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Notices denying access must state the reasons for the denial, and advise the individual that the denial may be appealed to the Inspector General, for agency records located in the Office of Inspector General, or the Executive Director for Operations, for all other agency records, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeals from denials of access.</I> If an individual has been denied access to a record the individual may request a final review and determination of that individual's request by the Inspector General or the Executive Director for Operations, as appropriate. A request for final review of an initial determination must be filed within 60 calendar days of the receipt of the initial determination. For agency records denied by the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations, the appeal must be in writing directed to the Inspector General and sent to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6. For agency records denied by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer, the appeal must be in writing directed to the Executive Director for Operations and sent to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6. The appeal should clearly state on the envelope and in the letter “Privacy Act Appeal-Denial of Access.” The NRC does not consider an appeal received until the date it is actually received by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final determinations.</I> (1) The Inspector General, or the Executive Director for Operations or the EDO's designee, shall make a final determination within 30 working days of the receipt of the request for final review, unless the time is extended for good cause shown such as the need to obtain additional information, the volume of records involved, or the complexity of the issue. The extension of time may not exceed 30 additional working days. The requester shall be advised in advance of any extension of time and of the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Inspector General, or the Executive Director for Operations or the EDO's designee, determines that access was properly denied because the information requested has been exempted from disclosure, the Inspector General, or the Executive Director for Operations or the EDO's designee shall undertake a review of the exemption to determine whether the information should continue to be exempt from disclosure. The Inspector General, or the Executive Director for Operations or the EDO's designee, shall notify the individual in writing of the final agency determination to grant or deny the request for access. Notices denying access must state the reasons therefor and must advise the individual of his/her right to judicial review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 20645, May 20, 1976; 41 FR 25997, June 24, 1976; 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 55 FR 33647, Aug. 17, 1990; 63 FR 15743, Apr. 1, 1998; 68 FR 58800, Oct. 10, 2003; 70 FR 34309, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.66" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.67.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.66   Determinations authorizing or denying correction of records; appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial determinations.</I> (1) For agency records located in the Office of the Inspector General, the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations shall determine whether to authorize or refuse correction or amendment of a record. For all other agency records, the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer with the advice of the system manager having control of the record, shall determine whether to authorize or refuse correction or amendment of a record. The Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer shall notify the requesting individual. Unless the request presents unusual difficulties or involves extensive numbers of records, individuals must be notified of determinations to authorize or refuse correction or amendment of a record within 30 working days after receipt of the request. In making this determination, the NRC official shall be guided by the following standards:
</P>
<P>(i) Records shall contain only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish an NRC function required to be accomplished by statute or by executive order of the President;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records used by NRC in making any determination about any individual shall be as accurate, relevant, current, and complete as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in the determination;
</P>
<P>(iii) No record shall describe how any individual has exercised rights guaranteed by the First Amendment unless such record is expressly authorized by statute or by the individual about whom the record is maintained, or is pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity.
</P>
<P>(2) For agency records located in the Office of Inspector General, if correction or amendment of a record is authorized, the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations shall correct or amend the record. For all other agency records, the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer shall correct or amend the record. The Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer shall notify the requesting individual in writing that the correction or amendment has been made and provide the individual with a courtesy copy of the corrected record.
</P>
<P>(3) If correction or amendment of a record is refused, the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer shall notify the requesting individual in writing of the refusal and the reasons therefor, and shall advise the individual that the refusal may be appealed to the Inspector General or the Executive Director for Operations, as appropriate, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeals from initial adverse determinations.</I> If an individual's request to amend or correct a record has been denied, in whole or in part, the individual may appeal that action and request a final review and determination of that individual's request by the Inspector General or the Executive Director for Operations, as appropriate. An appeal of an initial determination must be filed within 60 calendar days of the receipt of the initial determination. For agency records denied by the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations, the appeal must be in writing directed to the Inspector General and sent to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6. For agency records denied by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer the appeal must be in writing directed to the Executive Director for Operations and sent to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6. The appeal should clearly state on the envelope and in the letter “Privacy Act Correction Appeal.” The NRC does not consider an appeal received until the date it is actually received by the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer. Requests for final review must set forth the specific item of information sought to be corrected or amended and should include, where appropriate, records supporting the correction or amendment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final determinations.</I> (1) The Inspector General, for agency records located in the Office of the Inspector General, or the Executive Director for Operations or the EDO's designee, for all other agency records, shall make a final agency determination within 30 working days of receipt of the request for final review, unless the time is extended for good cause shown such as the need to obtain additional information, the volume of records involved, or the complexity of the issue. The extension of time may not exceed 30 additional working days. The requester shall be advised in advance of any extension of time and of the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(2) For agency records located in the Office of the Inspector General, if the Inspector General makes a final determination that an amendment or correction of the record is warranted on the facts, the Inspector General or the IG's designee, shall correct or amend the record pursuant to the procedures in § 9.66(a)(2). For all other agency records, if the Executive Director for Operations, or the EDO's designee, makes a final determination that an amendment or correction of the record is warranted on the facts, the EDO or the EDO's designee, shall notify the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer to correct or amend the record to the procedures in § 9.66(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) If the Inspector General, or the Executive Director for Operations or the EDO's designee, makes a final determination that an amendment or correction of the record is not warranted on the facts, the individual shall be notified in writing of the refusal to authorize correction or amendment of the record in whole or in part, and of the reasons therefor, and the individual shall be advised of his/her right to provide a “Statement of Disagreement” for the record and of his/her right to judicial review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 20645, May 20, 1976; 41 FR 25997, June 24, 1976; 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 55 FR 33647, Aug. 17, 1990; 63 FR 15743, Apr. 1, 1998; 68 FR 58800, Oct. 10, 2003; 70 FR 34309, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.67.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.67   Statements of disagreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Written “Statements of Disagreement” may be furnished by the individual within 30 calendar days of the date of receipt of the final adverse determination of the Inspector General or the Executive Director for Operations. “Statements of Disagreement” directed to the Executive Director for Operations must be sent to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6, and should be clearly marked on the statement and on the envelope, “Privacy Act Statement of Disagreement.” “Statements of Disagreement” directed to the Inspector General must be sent to the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Officer by an appropriate method listed in § 9.6, and should be clearly marked on the statement and on the envelope “Privacy Act Statement of Disagreement”.
</P>
<P>(b) The Inspector General or the Executive Director for Operations, or their designees, as appropriate, are responsible for ensuring that: (1) The “Statement of Disagreement” is included in the system or systems of records in which the disputed item of information is maintained; and (2) the original record is marked to indicate the information disputed, the existence of a “Statement of Disagreement” and the location of the “Statement of Disagreement” within the system of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33848, Aug. 17, 1990, as amended at 68 FR 58800, Oct. 10, 2003; 70 FR 34309, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.68" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.67.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.68   NRC statement of explanation.</HEAD>
<P>The Inspector General, or the Executive Director for Operations or the EDO's designee, may if deemed appropriate, prepare a concise statement of the reasons why the requested amendments or corrections were not made. Any NRC “Statement of Explanation” must be included in the system of records in the same manner as the “Statement of Disagreement”. Courtesy copies of the NRC statement and of the notation of the dispute as marked on the original record must be furnished to the individual who requested correction or amendment of the record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33648, Aug. 17, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.69" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.67.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.69   Notices of correction or dispute.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a record has been corrected upon request or when a “Statement of Disagreement” has been filed, the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Officer shall, within 30 working days thereof, advise all prior recipients of the affected record whose identity can be determined pursuant to an accounting of disclosures required by the Privacy Act or any other accounting previously made, of the correction or of the filing of the “Statement of Disagreement”.
</P>
<P>(b) Any disclosure of disputed information occurring after a “Statement of Disagreement” has been filed shall clearly identify the specific information disputed and be accompanied by a copy of the “Statement of Disagreement” and a copy of any NRC “Statement of Explanation”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 63 FR 15743, Apr. 1, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="68" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.68" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>disclosure to others of records about individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.80" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.68.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.80   Disclosure of record to persons other than the individual to whom it pertains.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NRC Commissioners and NRC personnel shall not disclose any record which is contained in a system of records maintained by NRC by any means of communication to any person, or to another Government agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual to whom the record pertains, unless disclosure of the record is:
</P>
<P>(1) To NRC Commissioners and NRC personnel who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Required under 5 U.S.C. 552;
</P>
<P>(3) For a routine use published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(4) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of Title 13 of the United States Code;
</P>
<P>(5) To a recipient who has provided the agency with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record and the record is transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable. The advance written statement of assurance shall (i) state the purpose for which the record is requested, and (ii) certify that the record will be used only for statistical purposes. Prior to release for statistical purposes in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph, the record shall be stripped of all personally identifying information and reviewed to ensure that the identity of any individual cannot reasonably be determined by combining two or more statistical records;
</P>
<P>(6) To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record that has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or to the Archivist of the United States or designee for evaluation to determine whether the record has such value;
</P>
<P>(7) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the NRC specifying the particular portion of the record desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought. A record may be disclosed to a law enforcement agency at the initiative of the NRC if criminal conduct is suspected, provided that such disclosure has been established as a routine use by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and the instance of misconduct is directly related to the purpose for which the record is maintained;
</P>
<P>(8) To any person upon a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of any individual;
</P>
<P>(9) To either House of Congress or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, to any committee or subcommittee thereof or to any joint committee of the Congress or to any subcommittee of such joint committee;
</P>
<P>(10) To the Comptroller General, or any authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office;
</P>
<P>(11) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(12) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(f).
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 44484, Sept. 26, 1975, as amended at 60 FR 63900, Dec. 13, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.68.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.81   Notices of subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>When records concerning an individual are subpoenaed or otherwise disclosed pursuant to court order, the NRC officer or employee served with the subpoena shall be responsible for assuring that the individual is notified of the disclosure within five days after such subpoena or other order becomes a matter of public record. The notice shall be mailed to the last known address of the individual and shall contain the following information: (a) The date the subpoena is returnable; (b) the court in which it is returnable; (c) the name and number of the case or proceeding; and (d) the nature of the information sought.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.82" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.68.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.82   Notices of emergency disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>When information concerning an individual has been disclosed to any person under compelling circumstances affecting health or safety, the NRC officer or employee who made or authorized the disclosure shall notify the individual at his or her last known address within five days of the disclosure. The notice shall contain the following information: (a) The nature of the information disclosed; (b) the person or agency to whom the information was disclosed; (c) the date of the disclosure; and (d) the compelling circumstances justifying the disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="69" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.69" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.85" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.69.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.85   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>Fees shall not be charged for search or review of records requested under this subpart or for making copies or extracts of records to make them available for review, although fees may be charged for additional copies. Fees established under 31 U.S.C. 483c and 5 U.S.C. 552a(f)(5) shall be charged according to the schedule contained in § 9.35 for actual copies of records disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act from Privacy Act Systems of Records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 34309, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="70" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.70" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.90" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.70.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.90   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An injunction or other court order may be obtained pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g) (1-3) to compel NRC to permit an individual to review, amend or copy a record pertaining to him, or to be accompanied by someone of his or her own choosing when he or she reviews his or her record. A court order may be obtained for the payment of a civil penalty imposed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(4) if NRC intentionally or willfully fails to maintain a record accurately, or fails to comply with any provision of 5 U.S.C. 552a, or any provision of this subpart, if such failure results in an adverse determination or has an adverse effect on an individual. Court costs and attorney's fees may be awarded in civil actions.
</P>
<P>(b) Any officer or employee of NRC who willfully maintains a system of records without meeting the notice requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4), or who willfully discloses information knowing such disclosure to be prohibited by 5 U.S.C. 552a or by any rules or regulations issued thereunder, may be guilty of a criminal misdemeanor and upon conviction may be fined up to $5000. Any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from NRC under false pretenses may be convicted of a criminal misdemeanor and upon conviction may be fined up to $5,000.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.71" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.95" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.2.71.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.95   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Exemptions applicable to Privacy Act Systems of Records are stated in each Privacy Act System of Records Notice which is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and is available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 34309, June 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Government in the Sunshine Act Regulations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 12877, Mar. 7, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 9.100" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.100   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes procedures pursuant to which NRC meetings shall be open to public observation pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552b. This subpart does not affect the procedures pursuant to which NRC records are made available to the public for inspection and copying which remain governed by subpart A, except that the exemptions set forth in § 9.104(a) shall govern in the case of any request made pursuant to § 9.23 to copy or inspect the transcripts, recordings, or minutes described in § 9.108. Access to records considered at NRC meetings shall continue to be governed by subpart A of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49362, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Commission</I> means the collegial body of five Commissioners or a quorum thereof as provided by section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, or any subdivision of that collegial body authorized to act on its behalf, and shall not mean any body not composed of members of that collegial body.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commissioner</I> means an individual who is a member of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Meeting</I> means the deliberations of at least a quorum of Commissioners where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Commission business, that is, where discussions are sufficiently focused on discrete proposals or issues as to cause or to be likely to cause the individual participating members to form reasonably firm positions regarding matters pending or likely to arise before the agency. Deliberations required or permitted by §§ 9.105, 9.106, or 9.108(c) do not constitute “meetings” within this definition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Closed meeting</I> means a meeting of the Commission closed to public observation as provided by § 9.104.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Open meeting</I> means a meeting of the Commission open to public observation pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of the commission as provided by section 25(b) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 and section 201(f) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, and, until such time as the offices of that officer are in the same location as those of the Commission, any member of his or her office specially designated in writing by him or her pursuant to this subsection to carry out his or her responsibilities under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12877, Mar. 7, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 20891, May 21, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.102" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.102   General requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Commissioners shall not jointly conduct or dispose of Commission business in Commission meetings other than in accordance with this subpart. Except as provided in § 9.104, every portion of every meeting of the Commission shall be open to public observation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.103   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall ensure that all open Commission meetings are held in a location such that there is reasonable space and adequate visibility and acoustics, for public observation. No additional right to participate in Commission meetings is granted to any person by this subpart. An open meeting is not part of the formal or informal record of decision of the matters discussed therein except as otherwise required by law. Statements of views or expressions of opinion made by Commissioners or NRC employees at open meetings are not intended to represent final determinations or beliefs. Such statements may not be pleaded, cited, or relied upon before the Commission or in any proceeding under part 2 of these regulations (10 CFR part 2) except as the Commission may direct. Members of the public attending open Commission meetings may use small electronic sound recorders to record the meeting, but the use of other electronic recording equipment and cameras requires the advance written approval of the Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12877, Mar. 7, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 13055, Mar. 29, 1978; 43 FR 37421, Aug. 23, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.104" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.104   Closed meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where the Commission finds that the public interest requires otherwise, Commission meetings shall be closed, and the requirements of §§ 9.105 and 9.107 shall not apply to any information pertaining to such meeting otherwise required by this subpart to be disclosed to the public, where the Commission determines in accordance with the procedures of § 9.105 that opening such meetings or portions thereof or disclosing such information, is likely to:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose matters that are (i) specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy, and (ii) in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order;
</P>
<P>(2) Relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552) provided that such statute (i) requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or (ii) establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential, including such information as defined in §§ 2.390(b)(3)(i) and (b)(4) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, imposing a civil penalty on any person pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2282 or 42 U.S.C. 5846, or any revocation of any license pursuant to 42 U.S.C. sec. 2236, or formally censuring any person;
</P>
<P>(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where such disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(7) Disclose investigatory reports compiled for law enforcement purposes, including specifically enforcement of the Atomic Energy Act of l1954, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.,</I> and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 5801 <I>et seq.,</I> or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would: (i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings, (ii) deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication, (iii) constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, (iv) disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, (v) disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or (vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel;
</P>
<P>(8) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed Commission action, except that this subparagraph shall not apply in any instance where the Commission has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Commission is required to make such disclosure on its own initative prior to taking final action on such proposal; or
</P>
<P>(10) Specifically concern the Commission's issuance of a subpoena, or the Commission's participation in a civil action or proceeding or an action or proceeding before a state or federal administrative agency, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct or disposition by the Commission of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 554 or otherwise involving a determination on the record after an opportunity for a hearing pursuant to part 2 or similar provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) Examples of situations in which Commission action may be deemed to be significantly frustrated are: (1) If opening any Commission meeting or negotiations would be likely to disclose information provided or requests made to the Commission in confidence by persons outside the Commission and which would not have been provided or made otherwise; (2) if opening a meeting or disclosing any information would reveal legal or other policy advice, public knowledge of which could substantially affect the outcome or conduct of pending or reasonably anticipated litigation or negotiations; or (3) if opening any meeting or disclosing any information would reveal information requested by or testimony or proposals to be given to other agencies of government, including the Congress and the Executive Branch before the requesting agency would receive the information, testimony or proposals. The examples in the above sentence are for illustrative purposes only and are not intended to be exhaustive.










</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12877, Mar. 7, 1977, as amended at 88 FR 80949, Nov. 21, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.105   Commission procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Action under § 9.104 shall be taken only when a majority of the entire membership of the Commission votes to take such action. A separate vote of the Commissioners shall be taken with respect to each Commission meeting a portion or portions of which are proposed to be closed to the public pursuant to § 9.104, or which respect to any information which is proposed to be withheld under § 9.105(c). A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings, a portion or portions of which are proposed to be closed to the public, or with respect to any information concerning such series of meetings, so long as each meeting in such series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in such series. The vote of each Commissioner participating in such vote shall be recorded and no proxies shall be allowed.
</P>
<P>(b) Within one day of any vote taken pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, § 9.106(a), or § 9.108(c), the Secretary shall make publicly available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> a written copy of such vote reflecting the vote of each member on the question. If a portion of a meeting is to be closed to the public, the Secretary shall, within one day of the vote taken pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section or § 9.106(a), make publicly available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> a full written explanation of its action closing the portion together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation.
</P>
<P>(c) The notices and lists required by paragraph (b) of this section to be made public may be withheld from the public to the extent that the Commission determines that such information itself would be protected against disclosure by § 9.104(a). Any such determination shall be made independently of the Commission's determination pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section to close a meeting, but in accordance with the procedure of that subsection. Any such determination, including a written explanation for the action and the specific provision or provisions of § 9.104(a) relied upon, must be made publicly available to the extent permitted by the circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12877, Mar. 7, 1977, as amended at 64 FR 48951, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.106" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.106   Persons affected and motions for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever any person whose interests may be directly affected by a portion of a meeting requests that the Commission close such portion to the public for any of the reasons referred to in paragraphs (a) (5), (6), or (7) of § 9.104, the Commission, upon request of any one Commissioner, shall vote by recorded vote whether to close such meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may petition the Commission to reconsider its action under § 9.105(a) or paragraph (a) of this section by filing a petition for reconsideration with the Commission within seven days after the date of such action and before the meeting in question is held.
</P>
<P>(c) A petition for reconsideration filed pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section shall state specifically the grounds on which the Commission action is claimed to be erroneous, and shall set forth, if appropriate, the public interest in the closing or opening of the meeting. The filing of such a petition shall not act to stay the effectiveness of the Commission action or to postpone or delay the meeting in question unless the Commission orders otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.107" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.107   Public announcement of Commission meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of each meeting, the Secretary shall make public announcement, at least one week before the meeting, of the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open or closed to the public, and the name and phone number of the official designated by the Commission to respond to requests for information about the meeting. Such announcement shall be made unless a majority of the members of the Commission determines by a recorded vote that Commission business requires that such meeting be called at an earlier date, in which case the Secretary shall make public announcement of the time, place and subject matter of such meeting, and whether open or closed to the public, at the earliest practical time.
</P>
<P>(b) The time or place of a meeting may be changed following the public announcement required by paragraph (a) of this section only if the Secretary publicly announces such changes at the earliest practicable time. The subject matter of as meeting, or the determination of the Commission to open or close a meeting, or portion of a meeting, to the public, may be changed following the public announcement required by this subsection only if: (1) A majority of the entire membership of the Commission determines by a recorded vote that Commission business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible, and (2) the Secretary publicly announces such change and the vote of each member upon such change at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(c) Immediately following each public announcement required by this section, notice of the time, place, and subject matter of a meeting, whether the meeting is open or closed, any change in one of the preceding, and the name and phone number of the official designated by the Commission to respond to requests for information about the meeting, shall also be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) The public announcement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall consist of the Secretary:
</P>
<P>(1) Publicly posting a copy of the document at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I> and, to the extent appropriate under the circumstances;
</P>
<P>(2) Mailing a copy to all persons whose names are on a mailing list maintained for this purpose;
</P>
<P>(3) Submitting a copy for possible publication to at least two newspapers of general circulation in the Washington, DC metropolitan area;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other means which the Secretary believes will serve to further inform any persons who might be interested.
</P>
<P>(e) Action under the second sentence of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall be taken only when the Commission finds that the public interest in prompt Commission action or the need to protect the common defense or security or to protect the public health or safety overrides the public interest in having full prior notice of Commission meetings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12877, Mar. 7, 1977, as amended at 53 FR 43420, Oct. 27, 1988; 64 FR 48951, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.108" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.108   Certification, transcripts, recordings and minutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For every meeting closed pursuant to paragraphs (a) (1) through (10) of § 9.104 and for every determination pursuant to § 9.105(c), the General Counsel shall publicly certify at the time of the public announcement of the meeting, or if there is no public announcement at the earliest practical time, that, in his or her opinion, the meeting may be closed to the public and shall state each relevant exemptive provision unless the Commission votes pursuant to § 9.105(c) that such certification is protected against disclosure by § 9.104(a). A copy of such certification, together with a statement from the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of the meeting, and the persons present, shall be retained by the Commission. The Commission shall maintain a complete transcript or electronic recording adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting, or portion of a meeting closed to the public, except that in the case of a meeting, or portion of a meeting, closed to the public pursuant to paragraph (c)(10) of § 9.104, the Commission shall maintain such a transcript, or recording or a set of minutes. Such minutes shall fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and shall provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any rollcall vote (reflecting the vote of each Commissioner on the question). All documents considered in connection with any action shall be identified in such minutes.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall make promptly available to the public at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> the transcript, electronic recording, or minutes (as required by paragraph (a) of this section) of the discussion of any item on the agenda, or of any item of the testimony of any witness received at the meeting, except for such item or items of such discussion or testimony as the Commission determines pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section to contain information which may be withheld under § 9.104 or § 9.105(c). Copies of such transcript, or minutes, or a transcription of such recording disclosing the identity of each speaker, shall be furnished to any person upon payment of the actual cost of duplication or transcription as provided in § 9.14. The Secretary shall maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes, or a complete electronic recording of each meeting, or portion of a meeting, closed to the public, for a period of at least two years after such meeting, or until one year after the conclusion of any Commission proceeding with respect to which the meeting or portion was held, whichever occurs later.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of any meeting closed pursuant to § 9.104, the Secretary of the Commission, upon the advice of the General Counsel and after consultation with the Commission, shall determine which, if any, portions of the electronic recording, transcript or minutes and which, if any, items of information withheld pursuant to § 9.105(c) contain information which should be withheld pursuant to § 9.104, in the event that a request for the recording, transcript, or minutes is received within the period during which the recording, transcript, or minutes must be retained, under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If at some later time the Commission determines that there is no further justification for withholding any transcript, recording or other item of information from the public which has previously been withheld, then such information shall be made available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12877, Mar. 7, 1977, as amended at 50 FR 20891, May 21, 1985; 64 FR 48951, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.3.72.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.109   Report to Congress.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall annually report to the Congress regarding the Commission's compliance with the Government in the Sunshine Act, including a tabulation of the total number of open meetings, the total number of closed meetings, the reasons for closing such meetings and a description of any litigation brought against the Commission pursuant to the Government in the Sunshine Act, including any cost assessed against the Commission in such litigation (whether or not paid by the Commission).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Production or Disclosure in Response to Subpoenas or Demands of Courts or Other Authorities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 37645, Sept. 17, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 9.200" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.4.72.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.200   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures to be followed when a subpoena, order, or other demand (hereinafter referred to as a “demand”) for the production of NRC records or disclosure of NRC information, including testimony regarding such records, is issued by a court or other judicial or quasi-judicial authority in a proceeding, excluding Federal grand jury proceedings, to which the NRC is not a party. Information and documents subject to this subpart include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any material contained in the files of the NRC;
</P>
<P>(2) Any information relating to material contained in the files of the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this subpart, the term “employee of the NRC” includes all NRC personnel as that term is defined in § 9.3 of this part, including NRC contractors.
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart is intended to provide instructions regarding the internal operations of the NRC and is not intended, and does not, and may not, be relied upon to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 37645, Sept. 17, 1985, as amended at 52 FR 49362, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.201" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.4.72.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.201   Production or disclosure prohibited unless approved by appropriate NRC official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employee of the NRC shall, in response to a demand of a court or other judicial or quasi-judicial authority, produce any material contained in the files of the NRC or disclose, through testimony or other means, any information relating to material contained in the files of the NRC, or disclose any information or produce any material acquired as part of the performance of that employee's official duties or official status without prior approval of the appropriate NRC official. When the demand is for material contained in the files of the Office of the Inspector General or for information acquired by an employee of that Office, the Inspector General is the appropriate NRC official. In all other cases, the General Counsel is the appropriate NRC official.
</P>
<P>(b) Any NRC response to a demand of a court or other judicial or quasi-judicial authority that requires an employee of the NRC to expend more than 50 hours of official time shall be subject to hourly fees in accordance with 10 CFR 170.12(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 41185, June 24, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.202" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.4.72.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.202   Procedure in the event of a demand for production or disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to or simultaneous with a demand upon an employee of the NRC for the production of material or the disclosure of information described in § 9.200, the party seeking production or disclosure shall serve the General Counsel of the NRC with an affidavit or statement as described in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section. Except for employees in the Office of Inspector General, whenever a demand is made upon an employee of the NRC for the production of material or the disclosure of information described in § 9.200, that employee shall immediately notify the General Counsel. If the demand is made upon a regional NRC employee, that employee shall immediately notify the Regional Counsel who, in turn, shall immediately request instructions from the General Counsel. If the demand is made upon an employee in the Office of Inspector General, that employee shall immediately notify the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall immediately provide a copy of the demand to the General Counsel, and as deemed necessary, consult with the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If oral testimony is sought by the demand, a summary of the testimony desired must be furnished to the General Counsel by a detailed affidavit or, if that is not feasible, a detailed statement by the party seeking the testimony or the party's attorney. This requirement may be waived by the General Counsel in appropriate circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) The General Counsel may request a plan from the party seeking discovery of all demands then reasonably foreseeable, including but not limited to, names of all NRC personnel from whom discovery is or will be sought, areas of inquiry, length of time away from duty involved, and identification of documents to be used in each deposition, where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) The Inspector General or the General Counsel will notify the employee and such other persons, as circumstances may warrant, of the decision on the matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 37645, Sept. 17, 1985, as amended at 55 FR 33648, Aug. 17, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.203" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.4.72.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.203   Procedure where response to demand is required prior to receiving instructions.</HEAD>
<P>If a response to the demand is required before the instructions from the Inspector General or the General Counsel are received, a U.S. attorney or NRC attorney designated for the purpose shall appear with the employee of the NRC upon whom the demand has been made, and shall furnish the court or other authority with a copy of the regulations contained in this subpart and inform the court or other authority that the demand has been, or is being, as the case may be, referred for the prompt consideration of the appropriate NRC official and shall respectfully request the court or authority to stay the demand pending receipt of the requested instructions. In the event that an immediate demand for production or disclosure is made in circumstances which would preclude the proper designation or appearance of a U.S. or NRC attorney on the employee's behalf, the employee shall respectfully request the demanding authority for sufficient time to obtain advice of counsel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33649, Aug. 17, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.4.72.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.204   Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.</HEAD>
<P>If the court or other judicial or quasi-judicial authority declines to stay the effect of the demand in response to a request made in accordance with § 9.203 pending receipt of instructions, or if the court or other authority rules that the demand must be complied with irrespective of instructions not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the employee upon whom the demand has been made shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand, citing these regulations and <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951).






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Social Security Number Fraud Prevention Act Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 33529, June 2, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 9.300" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.5.72.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.300   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements the Social Security Number Fraud Prevention Act of 2017, Public Law 115-59, with respect to the use of Social Security account numbers in documents sent by mail and requirements applicable to NRC personnel for redacting Social Security account numbers in documents sent by mail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.301" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.7.5.72.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.301   Social Security account numbers in documents sent by mail.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Social Security account numbers shall not be visible on the outside of any package sent by mail.
</P>
<P>(b) A document sent by mail may only include the Social Security account number of an individual if it is determined by the head of the agency that the inclusion of a Social Security account number is necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) The inclusion of a Social Security account number of an individual on a document sent by mail is necessary when—
</P>
<P>(1) Required by law; or
</P>
<P>(2) Necessary to identify a specific individual and no adequate substitute is available.
</P>
<P>(d) Social Security account numbers must be partially redacted in documents sent by mail whenever feasible.












</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 10—CRITERIA AND PROCEDURES FOR DETERMINING ELIGIBILITY FOR ACCESS TO RESTRICTED DATA OR NATIONAL SECURITY INFORMATION OR AN EMPLOYMENT CLEARANCE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 145, 161 (42 U.S.C. 2165, 2201); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); E.O. 10450, 18 FR 2489, 3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 936, as amended; E.O. 10865, 25 FR 1583, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 398, as amended; E.O. 12968, 60 FR 40245, 3 CFR, 1995 Comp., p. 391.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 10 appear at 70 FR 30897, May 31, 2005; 77 FR 39904, July 6, 2012; 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.1.72.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the criteria, procedures, and methods for resolving questions concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) The eligibility of individuals who are employed by or applicants for employment with NRC contractors, agents, and other individuals who are NRC employees or applicants for NRC employment, and other persons designated by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs of the NRC, for access to Restricted Data under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, or for access to national security information;
</P>
<P>(2) The eligibility of NRC employees, or the eligibility of applicants for employment with the NRC, for employment clearance; and
</P>
<P>(3) The eligibility of individuals who are employed by or are applicants for employment with NRC licensees, certificate holders, holders of standard design approvals under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, applicants for licenses, certificates, and NRC approvals, and others who may require access related to a license, certificate, or NRC approval, or other activities as the Commission may determine, for access to Restricted Data under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, or for access to national security information.
</P>
<P>(b) This part is published to implement the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, Executive Order 10865, 25 FR 1583 (February 24, 1960) Executive Order 10450, 18 FR 2489 (April 27, 1954), and Executive Order 12968, 60 FR 40245 (August 2, 1995).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15641, Apr. 1, 1999, as amended at 72 FR 49483, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.1.72.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The criteria and procedures in this part shall be used in determining eligibility for NRC access authorization and/or employment clearance involving:
</P>
<P>(a) Employees (including consultants) of contractors and agents of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and applicants for employment;
</P>
<P>(b) NRC licensees, certificate holders and holders of standard design approvals under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, applicants for licenses, certificates, and standard design approvals under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, and their employees (including consultants) and applicants for employment (including consulting);
</P>
<P>(c) NRC employees (including consultants) and applicants for employment; and
</P>
<P>(d) Any other person designated by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 64 FR 15641, Apr. 1, 1999; 72 FR 49483, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.1.72.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.1.72.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission to carry out its responsibility for the security of the nuclear energy program in a manner consistent with traditional American concepts of justice. To this end, the Commission has established criteria for determining eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance and will afford those individuals described in § 10.2 the opportunity for administrative review of questions concerning their eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.1.72.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Access authorization</I> means an administrative determination that an individual (including a consultant) who is employed by or an applicant for employment with the NRC, NRC contractors, agents, and licensees of the NRC, or other person designated by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs, is eligible for a security clearance for access to Restricted Data or National Security Information.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission of five members or a quorum thereof sitting as a body, as provided by section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, or its designee.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible</I> or <I>Eligibility</I> means both initial eligibility and continued eligibility of an individual for access authorization and/or employment clearance.
</P>
<P><I>Employment Clearance</I> means an administrative determination that an individual (including a consultant) who is an NRC employee or applicant for NRC employment and other persons designated by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs of the NRC is eligible for employment or continued employment pursuant to subsection 145(b) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing Counsel</I> means an NRC attorney assigned by the General Counsel to prepare and administer hearings in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing Examiner</I> means a qualified attorney appointed by the Director, Office of Administration, to conduct a hearing in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>National Security Information</I> means information that has been determined under Executive Order 13526 or any predecessor or successor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and that is so designated.
</P>
<P><I>NRC Personnel Security Review Panel</I> means an appeal panel appointed by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs and consisting of three members, two of whom shall be selected from outside the security field. One member of the Panel shall be designated as Chairman.
</P>
<P><I>Personnel Security Review Examiners</I> are persons designated by the Executive Director for Operations to conduct a review of the record in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data</I> means all data concerning design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons, the production of special nuclear material, or the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but shall not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 51 FR 35999, Oct. 8, 1986; 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 64 FR 15641, Apr. 1, 1999; 75 FR 73938, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Criteria for Determining Eligibility for Access to Restricted Data or National Security Information or an Employment Clearance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.2.72.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.10   Application of the criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision as to access authorization and/or employment clearance is a comprehensive, common-sense judgment, made after consideration of all the information, favorable or unfavorable, relevant to whether the granting of access authorization and/or employment clearance would not endanger the common defense and security and would be clearly consistent with the national interest.
</P>
<P>(b) The criteria in § 10.11 set forth a number of the types of derogatory information used to assist in making determinations of eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance. These criteria are not exhaustive but contain the principal types of derogatory information which create a question as to the individual's eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance. While there must necessarily be adherence to such criteria, the NRC is not limited to them, nor precluded from exercising its judgment that information or facts in a case under its cognizance are derogatory although at variance with, or outside the scope of, the stated categories. These criteria are subject to continuing review and may be revised from time to time as experience and circumstances may make desirable.
</P>
<P>(c) When the reports of investigation of an individual contain information reasonably tending to establish the truth of one or more of the items in the criteria, such information shall be regarded as derogatory and shall create a question as to the individual's eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance. A question concerning the eligibility of an individual for access authorization and/or employment clearance shall be resolved in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 10.20 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) In resolving a question concerning the eligibility or continued eligibility of an individual for access authorization and/or employment clearance, the following principles shall be applied by the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, Hearing Examiners, and the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel:
</P>
<P>(1) Information reasonably tending to establish the truth of one or more of the items in the criteria shall be the basis for recommending denial or revocation of access authorization and/or employment clearance unless evidence to support faith in the individual's reliability and trust-worthiness is affirmatively shown.
</P>
<P>(2) When deemed material to the deliberations, the extent of the activity, conduct, or condition, the period in which they occurred or existed, the length of time which has since elapsed, and the attitude and convictions of the individual shall be considered in determining whether the recommendation will be adverse or favorable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 64 FR 15641, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.2.72.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.11   Criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria for determining eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance shall relate, but not be limited, to the following where an individual:
</P>
<P>(1) Committed, attempted to commit, aided, or abetted another who committed or attempted to commit any act of sabotage, espionage, treason, sedition, or terrorism.
</P>
<P>(2) Publicly or privately advocated actions that may be inimical to the interest of the United States, or publicly or privately advocated the use of force or violence to overthrow the Government of the United States or the alteration of the form of government of the United States by unconstitutional means.
</P>
<P>(3) Knowingly established or continued a sympathetic association with a saboteur, spy, traitor, seditionist, anarchist, terrorist, or revolutionist, or with an espionage agent or other secret agent or representative of a foreign nation whose interests may be inimical to the interests of the United States, or with any person who advocates the use of force or violence to overthrow the Government of the United States or the alteration of the form of government of the United States by unconstitutional means.
</P>
<P>(4) Joined or engaged in any activity knowingly in sympathy with or in support of any foreign or domestic organization, association, movement, group, or combination of persons which unlawfully advocates or practices the commission of acts of force or violence to prevent others from exercising their rights under the Constitution or laws of the United States or any State or any subdivisions thereof by unlawful means, or which advocate the use of force and violence to overthrow the Government of the United States or the alteration of the form of government of the United States by unconstitutional means. (Ordinarily, criteria (3) and (4) will not include chance or casual meetings or contacts limited to normal business or official relations.)
</P>
<P>(5) Deliberately misrepresented, falsified or omitted relevant and material facts from or in a personnel security questionnaire, a personal qualifications statement, a personnel security interview, or any other information submitted pursuant this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Willfully violated or disregarded security regulations or was grossly negligent with respect thereto to a degree which could endanger the common defense and security; or by intention or gross carelessness disclosed Restricted Data or national security information to any person not authorized to receive it.
</P>
<P>(7) Has any illness or mental condition which in the opinion of competent medical authority may cause significant defect in the judgment or reliability of the individual.
</P>
<P>(8) Has been convicted of crimes indicating habitual criminal tendencies.
</P>
<P>(9) Has been convicted of a crime, or has a background, where the facts, circumstances, or conduct are of a nature indicating poor judgment, unreliabilty, or untrustworthiness.
</P>
<P>(10) Is a user of alcohol habitually and to excess, or has been such without adequate evidence of rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(11) Has been, or is, a user of a drug or other substance listed in the schedules of Controlled Substances established pursuant to the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 (such as amphetamines, barbiturates, narcotics, etc.), except as prescribed or administered by a physician licensed to dispense drugs in the practice of medicine, without adequate evidence of rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(12) Refused, without satisfactory explanation, to answer questions before a congressional committee, Federal or state court, or Federal administrative body including the NRC regarding charges relevant to the individual's eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance.
</P>
<P>(13) Engaged in any other conduct or is subject to any other circumstances which tend to show that the individual is not reliable or trustworthy, or which furnishes reason to believe that the individual may be subject to coercion, influence, or pressures which may cause the individual to act contrary to the national interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.2.72.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.12   Interview and other investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, Division of Facilities and Security, Office of Administration, may authorize the granting of access authorization and/or employment clearance on the basis of the information in the possession of the NRC or may authorize an interview with the individual, if the individual consents to be interviewed, or other investigation as the Director deems appropriate. On the basis of this interview and/or an investigation, the Director may authorize the granting of access authorization and/or employment clearance.
</P>
<P>(b) The individual may elect on constitutional or other grounds not to participate in an interview or other investigation; however, such refusal or failure to furnish or authorize the furnishing of relevant and material information is deemed to be derogatory information pursuant to § 10.11(a) (5) and (12).
</P>
<P>(c) If the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, cannot make a favorable finding regarding the eligibility of an individual for access authorization and/or employment clearance, the question of the individual's eligibility must be resolved in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 10.20 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 64 FR 15642, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.20   Purpose of the procedures.</HEAD>
<P>These procedures establish methods for the conduct of hearings and administrative review of questions concerning an individual's eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and Executive Orders 10450, 10865, and 12968 when a resolution favorable to the individual cannot be made on the basis of the interview or other investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15642, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.21   Suspension of access authorization and/or employment clearance.</HEAD>
<P>In those cases where information is received which raises a question concerning the continued eligibility of an individual for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance, the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, through the Director, Office of Administration, shall forward to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs or other Deputy Executive Director, his or her recommendation as to whether the individual's access authorization and/or employment clearance should be suspended pending the final determination resulting from the operation of the procedures provided in this part. In making this recommendation the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, shall consider factors such as the seriousness of the derogatory information developed, the degree of access of the individual to classified information, and the individual's opportunity by reason of his or her position to commit acts adversely affecting the national security. An individual's access authorization and/or employment clearance may not be suspended except by the direction of the Executive Director for Operations, Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs or other Deputy Executive Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15642, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.22   Notice to individual.</HEAD>
<P>A notification letter, prepared by the Division of Facilities and Security, approved by the Office of the General Counsel, and signed by the Director, Office of Administration, must be presented to each individual whose eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance is in question. Where practicable, the letter will be presented to the individual in person. The letter will be accompanied by a copy of this part and must state:
</P>
<P>(a) That reliable information in the possession of the NRC has created a substantial doubt concerning the individual's eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance;
</P>
<P>(b) The information that creates a substantial doubt regarding the individual's eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance, that must be as comprehensive and detailed as the national security interests and other applicable law permit;
</P>
<P>(c) That the individual has the right to be represented by counsel or other representative at their own expense;
</P>
<P>(d) That the individual may request within 20 days of the date of the notification letter, any documents, records and reports which form the basis for the question of their eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance. The individual will be provided within 30 days all such documents, records and reports to the extent they are unclassified and do not reveal a confidential source. The individual may also request the entire investigative file, which will be promptly provided, as permitted by the national security interests and other applicable law;
</P>
<P>(e) That unless the individual files with the Director, Office of Administration, a written request for a hearing within 20 days of the individual's receipt of the notification letter or 20 days after receipt of the information provided in response to a request made under paragraph (d) of this section, whichever is later, the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, through the Director, Office of Administration, will submit a recommendation as to the final action to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs 

on the basis of the information in the possession of the NRC;
</P>
<P>(f) That if the individual files a written request for a hearing with the Director, Office of Administration, the individual shall file with that request a written answer under oath or affirmation that admits or denies specifically each allegation and each supporting fact contained in the notification letter. A general denial is not sufficient to controvert a specific allegation. If the individual is without knowledge, he or she shall so state and that statement will operate as a denial. The answer must also state any additional facts and information that the individual desires to have considered in explanation or mitigation of allegations in the notification letter. Failure to specifically deny or explain or deny knowledge of any allegation or supporting fact will be deemed an admission that the allegation or fact is true.
</P>
<P>(g) That if the individual does not want to exercise his or her right to a hearing, but does want to submit an answer to the allegations in the notification letter, the individual may do so by filing with the Director, Office of Administration, within 20 days of receipt of the notification letter or 20 days after receipt of the information provided in response to a request made under paragraph (d) of this section, whichever is later, a written answer in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(h) That the procedures in § 10.24 <I>et seq.</I> will apply to any hearing and review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15642, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.23   Failure of individual to request a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event the individual fails to file a timely written request for a hearing pursuant to § 10.22, a recommendation as to the final action to be taken will be made by the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, through the Director, Office of Administration, to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs on the basis of the information in the possession of the NRC, including any answer filed by the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Administration, may for good cause shown, at the request of the individual, extend the time for filing a written request for a hearing or for filing a written answer to the matters contained in the notification letter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 64 FR 15642, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.24" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.24   Procedures for hearing and review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a timely filed request for a hearing and answer complying with the requirements set forth in § 10.22, the Director, Office of Administration, shall forthwith appoint a Hearing Examiner, and the General Counsel shall forthwith assign an NRC attorney to act as Hearing Counsel. The Director, Office of Administration, shall promptly notify the individual of the identity of the Hearing Examiner and proposed hearing date, which shall be selected with due regard for the convenience of the parties and their representatives.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 72 hours of being notified of the identity of the Hearing Examiner, the individual may request that the Hearing Examiner be disqualified for cause by filing with the Director, Office of Administration, a written statement of the individual's reasons for seeking disqualification. The time for filing the request may be extended by the Director, Office of Administration, for good cause shown. If the Director, Office of Administration, grants the request the procedures of paragraph (a) of this section and this paragraph shall be followed just as though there had been no prior appointment.
</P>
<P>(c) The individual shall have the right to appear at the hearing before the Hearing Examiner, to be represented by counsel or other representative, to introduce documentary or other evidence, and to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses, subject to the provisions and limitations set forth in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 51 FR 35999, Oct. 8, 1986; 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.25   NRC Hearing Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hearing Counsel assigned pursuant to § 10.24 will, before the scheduling of the hearing, review the information in the case and will request the presence of witnesses and the production of documents and other physical evidence relied upon by the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, in making a finding that a question exists regarding the eligibility of the individual for an NRC access authorization and/or an employment clearance in accordance with the provisions of this part. When the presence of a witness and the production of documents and other physical evidence is deemed by the Hearing Counsel to be necessary or desirable for a determination of the issues, the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, will make arrangements for the production of evidence and for witnesses to appear at the hearing by subpoena or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) Hearing Counsel is authorized to consult directly with individual's counsel or representative or the individual, if the individual is not so represented, for purposes of reaching mutual agreement upon arrangements for expeditious hearing of the case. Such arrangements may include clarification of issues and stipulations with respect to testimony and contents of documents and other physical evidence. Such stipulations when entered into shall be binding upon the individual and the NRC for the purposes of this part. Prior to any consultation with the individual, the Hearing Counsel shall advise the individual of his or her rights under this part, of his or her right to counsel or other representation, and of the possibility that any statement made by the individual to the Hearing Counsel may be used in subsequent proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) The individual is responsible for producing witnesses in his or her own behalf and/or presenting other evidence before the Hearing Examiner to support the individual's answer and defense to the allegations contained in the notification letter. When requested by the individual, however, the Hearing Counsel may assist the individual to the extent practicable and necessary. The Hearing Counsel may at his or her discretion request the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, to arrange for the issuance of subpoenas for witnesses to attend the hearing in the individual's behalf, or for the production of specific documents or other physical evidence, provided a showing of the necessity for assistance has been made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 64 FR 15643, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.26   Appointment of Hearing Examiner.</HEAD>
<P>The appointment of a Hearing Examiner, pursuant to § 10.24 of this part, shall be from a list of qualified attorneys possessing the highest degree of integrity, ability, and good judgment. To qualify, an attorney shall have an NRC “Q” access authorization and may be an employee of the NRC, its contractors, agents or licensees. However, no employee or consultant of the NRC shall serve as Hearing Examiner hearing the case of an employee (including a consultant) or applicant for employment with the NRC; nor shall any employee or consultant of an NRC contractor, agent or licensee serve as Hearing Examiner hearing the case of an employee (including a consultant) or an applicant for employment of that contractor, agent, or licensee. No Hearing Examiner shall be selected who has knowledge of the case or of any information relevant to the disposition of it, or who for any reason would be unable to issue a fair and unbiased recommendation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.27   Prehearing proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the appointment of the Hearing Examiner, he or she shall be furnished the record in the case, which shall consist of the letter of notification, the request for hearing and its supporting answer, and the notice of hearing, if it has been issued, and any stipulations agreed to by the individual and the Hearing Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) The Hearing Examiner may on his or her own motion, or on that of either party, convene a prehearing conference with the Hearing Counsel and the individual and his or her counsel or representative, if any, for the purpose of clarifying the issues, identifying witnesses who may be called, identifying documents and other physical evidence that may be offered into evidence, and entering into stipulations of fact.
</P>
<P>(c) The parties will be notified by the Hearing Examiner at least ten days in advance of the hearing of the time and place of the hearing. For good cause shown, the Hearing Examiner may order postponements or continuances from time to time. If, after due notice, the individual fails to appear at the hearing, or appears but is not prepared to proceed, the Hearing Examiner shall, unless good cause is shown, return the case to the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, who shall make a recommendation on final action to be taken, through the Director, Office of Administration, to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs on the basis of the information in the possession of the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 64 FR 15643, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.28" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.28   Conduct of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Hearing Examiner shall conduct the hearing in an orderly, impartial and decorous manner. Technical rules of evidence may be relaxed so that a full evidentiary record may be made based on all material and relevant facts. Hearsay evidence may for good cause shown be received at the discretion of the Hearing Examiner and accorded such weight as the circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(b) The proceedings shall be open only to duly authorized representatives of the staff of the NRC, the individual, his or her counsel or representative, and such persons as may be officially authorized by the Hearing Examiner. Witnesses shall not testify in the presence of other witnesses except that the Hearing Examiner may, at his or her discretion, allow for expert witnesses to be present during testimony relevant to their own testimony.
</P>
<P>(c) Witnesses, including the individual, shall be examined under oath or affirmation by the party who called them and may be cross-examined by the other. The Hearing Examiner shall rule on all evidentiary matters, may further examine any witness, and may call for additional witnesses or the production of documentary or other physical evidence if, in the exercise of his or her discretion, such additional evidence is deemed necessary to the resolution of an issue.
</P>
<P>(d) If it appears during the hearing that Restricted Data or national security information may be disclosed, the Hearing Examiner shall assure that disclosure is made only to persons authorized to receive it.
</P>
<P>(e) The Hearing Examiner may, at any time during the hearing, permit the Hearing Counsel to amend the notification letter to add or modify allegations to be considered. In the event of such an amendment to the notification letter, the individual shall be given an opportunity to answer the amended allegations. If the changes are of such a substantial nature that the individual cannot answer the amended allegations without additional time, the Hearing Examiner shall grant such additional time as he or she deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(f) The Hearing Examiner may receive and consider evidence in the form of depositions or responses to interrogatories upon a showing that the witness is not available for good reason such as death, serious illness or similar cause, or in the form of depositions, interrogatories, affidavits or statements with agreement of the parties. The Hearing Examiner may take official notice at any stage of the proceeding, where appropriate, of any fact not subject to reasonable dispute in that it is either (1) generally known within the United States or (2) capable of accurate and ready determination by resort to sources whose accuracy cannot reasonably be questioned. A party is entitled upon timely request to an opportunity to be heard as to the propriety of taking such official notice. In the absence of prior notification the request may be made after notice is taken.
</P>
<P>(g) Hearing Counsel shall examine and cross-examine witnesses and otherwise assist the Hearing Examiner in such a manner as to bring out a full and true disclosure of all facts, both favorable and unfavorable, having a bearing on the issues before the Hearing Examiner. In performing these duties, the Hearing Counsel shall avoid the attitude of a prosecutor and shall always bear in mind that the proceeding is an administrative hearing and not a trial.
</P>
<P>(h) Hearing Counsel shall not participate in the deliberations of the Hearing Examiner, and shall express no opinion to the Hearing Examiner concerning the merits of the case. Hearing Counsel shall also, during the course of the hearing, advise the individual of his or her rights under these procedures when the individual is not represented by counsel or other representative.
</P>
<P>(i) The individual shall be afforded an opportunity to cross-examine persons who have made oral or written statements adverse to the individual relating to a controverted issue except that any such statement may be received and considered by the Hearing Examiner without affording such opportunity in either of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) The head of the department or agency supplying the statement certifies that the person who furnished the information is a confidential informant who has been engaged in obtaining intelligence information for the Government and that disclosure of the informant's identity would substantially harm the national interest or would endanger the well-being of the informant.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission has determined, after considering the information furnished by the investigative agency concerning the reliability of the person who furnished the information and the accuracy of the statement concerned, that the statement appears to be reliable and material, and that failure of the Hearing Examiner to receive and consider such statement would, in view of the fact that access authorization and/or employment clearance is being sought, be substantially harmful to the national security and that the person who furnished the information cannot appear to testify due to death, serious illness, or similar cause.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) Whenever the procedure under paragraph (i)(1) of this section is used, the individual shall be given a summary of the information which shall be as comprehensive and detailed as the national security permits.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the procedure under paragraph (i)(2) is used, the individual shall be provided the identity of the person and the information to be considered.
</P>
<P>(3) In both paragraph (i) (1) and (2) procedures, appropriate consideration shall be accorded to the fact that the individual did not have an opportunity to cross-examine such informant or person.
</P>
<P>(k) Records provided by investigative agencies that were compiled as a regular or routine procedure by the business or agency from which obtained, or other physical evidence other than investigative reports, may be received and considered subject to rebuttal without authenticating witnesses, provided that the investigative agency furnished such information to the NRC pursuant to its responsibilities in connection with assisting the NRC in determining the individual's eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance.
</P>
<P>(l) Records compiled in the regular course of business, or other physical evidence other than investigative reports, relating to a controverted issue which, because they are classified, may not be inspected by the individual, may be received and considered provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission has made a determination that such records or other physical evidence appears to be material;
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission has made a determination that failure to receive and consider such records or other physical evidence would, in view of the fact that access authorization and/or employment clearance is being sought, be substantially harmful to the national security; and
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that national security permits, a summary or description of such records or other physical evidence is made available to the individual. In every such case, information as to the authenticity and accuracy of such physical evidence furnished by the investigative agency shall be considered.
</P>
<P>(m) If the Hearing Examiner determines that additional investigation of any material information is required, he or she shall request in writing that the Director, Office of Administration, arrange for the investigation and shall specify those issues upon which more evidence is requested and identify, where possible, any persons or sources that might provide the evidence sought.
</P>
<P>(n) A written transcript of the entire proceeding must be made by a person possessing appropriate NRC access authorization and/or employment clearance and, except for portions containing Restricted Data or National Security Information, or other lawfully withholdable information, a copy of the transcript will be furnished the individual without cost. The transcript or recording will be made part of the applicant's or employee's personnel security file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 64 FR 15643, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.29   Recommendation of the Hearing Examiner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Hearing Examiner's findings and recommendation shall be based upon the entire record consisting of the transcript of the hearing, the documentary and other evidence adduced therein, and the letter of notification and answer. The Hearing Examiner shall also consider the circumstances of the receipt of evidence pursuant to § 10.28, the individual's record of past employment, and the nature and sensitivity of the job the individual is or may be expected to perform.
</P>
<P>(b) The Hearing Examiner shall make specific findings on each allegation in the notification letter including the reasons for his or her findings, and shall make a recommendation as to the action which should be taken in the case.
</P>
<P>(c) The Hearing Examiner's recommendation shall be predicated upon his or her findings. If, after considering all the factors in light of the criteria in this part, the Hearing Examiner is of the opinion that granting or continuing access authorization and/or employment clearance to the individual will not endanger the common defense and security and will be clearly consistent with the national interest, a favorable recommendation shall be made; otherwise, an adverse recommendation shall be made.
</P>
<P>(d) The Hearing Examiner shall submit his or her findings and recommendation in a signed report together with the record of the case to the Director, Office Administration, with the least practical delay.
</P>
<P>(e) The Hearing Examiner shall not consider the possible impact of the loss of the individual's services upon the NRC program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31609, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.30" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.30   New evidence.</HEAD>
<P>After the close of the hearing, in the event the individual discovers new evidence not previously available or known to him or her, the individual may petition the Hearing Examiner if the Hearing Examiner's recommendation has not yet been issued, or thereafter, the Director, Office of Administration, to reopen the record to receive that evidence. If the Hearing Examiner or the Director, respectively, deem it material and appropriate, the record may be reopened to accept the evidence either by stipulation, with the agreement of the Hearing Counsel, or in a reconvened hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31610, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.31   Actions on the recommendations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the findings and recommendation from the Hearing Examiner, and the record, the Director, Office of Administration, shall forthwith transmit it to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs who has the discretion to return the record to the Director, Office of Administration, for further proceedings by the Hearing Examiner with respect to specific matters designated by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In the event of a recommendation by the Hearing Examiner that an individual's access authorization and/or employment clearance be denied or revoked, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs shall immediately notify the individual in writing of the Hearing Examiner's findings with respect to each allegation contained in the notification letter, and that the individual has a right to request a review of his or her case by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel and of the right to submit a brief in support of his or her contentions. The request for a review must be submitted to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs within five days after the receipt of the notice. The brief will be forwarded to the for transmission to the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel not later than 10 days after receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event the individual fails to request a review by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel of an adverse recommendation within the prescribed time, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs may at his or her discretion request a review of the record of the case by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel. The request will set forth those matters at issue in the hearing on which the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs desires a review by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the Hearing Examiner has made a recommendation favorable to the individual, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs 

may at his or her discretion request a review of the record of the case by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel. If this request is made, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs 

shall immediately cause the individual to be notified of that fact and of those matters at issue in the hearing on which the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs 

desires a review by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel. The Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs 

will further inform the individual that within 10 days of receipt of this notice, the individual may submit a brief concerning those matters at issue for the consideration of the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel. The brief must be forwarded to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs for transmission to the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event of a request for a review pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the Hearing Counsel may file a brief within 10 days of being notified by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs 

that a review has been requested. The brief will be forwarded to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs 

for transmission to the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel.
</P>
<P>(e) The Hearing Counsel may also request a review of the case by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel. The request for review, which will set forth those matters at issue in the hearing on which the Hearing Counsel desires a review, will be submitted to the Deputy Director Executive for Management Services within five days after receipt of the Hearing Examiner's findings and recommendation. Within 10 days of the request for review, the Hearing Counsel may file a brief which will be forwarded to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs and Chief for transmission to the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel. A copy of the request for review, and a copy of any brief filed, will be immediately sent to the individual. If the Hearing Counsel's request is for a review of a recommendation favorable to the individual, the individual may, within 10 days of receipt of a copy of the request for review, submit a brief concerning those matters at issue for consideration of the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel. The brief will be forwarded to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs and Chief Information Officer for transmission to the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel and Hearing Counsel. A copy of the brief will be made a part of the applicant's personnel security file.
</P>
<P>(f) The time limits imposed by this section for requesting reviews and the filing of briefs may be extended by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(g) In the event a request is made for a review of the record by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs shall send the record, with all findings and recommendations and any briefs filed by the individual and the Hearing Counsel, to the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel. If neither the individual, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs and, nor the Hearing Counsel requests a review, the final determination will be made by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs on the basis of the record with all findings and recommendations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15643, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.32   Recommendation of the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs 

 shall designate an NRC Personnel Security Review Panel to conduct a review of the record of the case. The NRC Personnel Security Review Panel shall be comprised of three members, two of whom shall be selected from outside the security field. To qualify as an NRC Personnel Security Review Panel member, the person designated shall have an NRC “Q” access authorization and may be an employee of the NRC, its contractors, agents, or licensees. However, no employee or consultant of the NRC shall serve as an NRC Personnel Security Review Panel member reviewing the case of an employee (including a consultant) or applicant for employment with the NRC; nor shall any employee or consultant of an NRC contractor, agent or licensee serve as an NRC Personnel Security Review Panel member reviewing the case of an employee (including a consultant) or an applicant for employment of that contractor, agent, or licensee. No NRC Personnel Security Review Panel member shall be selected who has knowledge of the case or of any information relevant to the disposition of it, or who for any reason would be unable to issue a fair and unbiased recommendation.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC Personnel Security Review Panel shall consider the matter under review based upon the record supplemented by any brief submitted by the individual or the Hearing Counsel. The NRC Personnel Security Review Panel may request additional briefs as the Panel deems appropriate. When the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel determines that additional evidence or further proceedings are necessary, the record may be returned to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs with a recommendation that the case be returned to the Director, Office of Administration, for appropriate action, which may include returning the case to the Hearing Examiner and reconvening the hearing to obtain additional testimony. When additional testimony is taken by the Hearing Examiner, a written transcript of the testimony will be made a part of the record and will be taken by a person possessing an appropriate NRC access authorization and/or employment clearance and, except for portions containing Restricted Data or National Security Information, or other lawfully withholdable information, a copy of the transcript will be furnished the individual without cost.
</P>
<P>(c) In conducting the review, the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel shall make its findings and recommendations as to the eligibility or continued eligibility of an individual for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance on the record supplemented by additional testimony or briefs, as has been previously determined by the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The NRC Personnel Security Review Panel shall not consider the possible impact of the loss of the individual's services upon the NRC program.
</P>
<P>(e) If, after considering all the factors in light of the criteria set forth in this part, the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel is of the opinion that granting or continuing an access authorization and/or an employment clearance to the individual will not endanger the common defense and security and will be clearly consistent with the national interest, the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel shall make a favorable recommendation; otherwise, the NRC Personnel Security Review Panel shall make an adverse recommendation. The NRC Personnel Security Review Panel shall prepare a report of its findings and recommendations and submit the report in writing to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs , who shall furnish a copy to the individual. The findings and recommendations must be fully supported by stated reasons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15644, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.33   Action by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs, on the basis of the record accompanied by all findings and recommendations, shall make a final determination whether access authorization and/or employment clearance shall be granted, denied, or revoked, except when the provisions of § 10.28 (i), (j), or (l) have been used and the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs determination is adverse, the Commission shall make the final agency determination.
</P>
<P>(b) In making the determination as to whether an access authorization and/or an employment clearance shall be granted, denied, or revoked, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs or the Commission shall give due recognition to the favorable as well as the unfavorable information concerning the individual and shall take into account the value of the individual's services to the NRC's program and the consequences of denying or revoking access authorization and/or employment clearance.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event of an adverse determination, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs shall promptly notify the individual through the Director, Office of Administration, of his or her decision that an access authorization and/or an employment clearance is being denied or revoked and of his or her findings with respect to each allegation contained in the notification letter for transmittal to the individual.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event of a favorable determination, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs shall promptly notify the individual through the Director, Office of Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15644, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.34" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.34   Action by the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever, under the provisions of § 10.28(i), (j), or (l) an individual has not been afforded an opportunity to confront and cross-examine witnesses who have furnished information adverse to the individual and an adverse recommendation has been made by the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs , the Commission shall review the record and determine whether an access authorization and/or an employment clearance should be granted, denied, or revoked, based upon the record.
</P>
<P>(b) When the Commission determines to deny or revoke access authorization and/or employment clearance, the individual shall promptly be notified through the Director, Office of Administration, of its decision that access authorization and/or employment clearance is being denied or revoked and of its findings and conclusions with respect to each allegation contained in the notification letter for transmittal to the individual.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing contained in these procedures shall be deemed to limit or affect the responsibility and powers of the Commission to deny or revoke access to Restricted Data or national security information if the security of the nation so requires. Such authority may not be delegated and may be exercised when the Commission determines that invocation of the procedures prescribed in this part is inconsistent with the national security. Such determination shall be conclusive.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31610, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 64 FR 15645, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.3.72.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.35   Reconsideration of cases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where, pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 10.20 through 10.34, the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs or the Commission has made a determination granting an access authorization and/or an employment clearance to an individual, the individual's eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance will be reconsidered only when subsequent to the time of that determination, new derogatory information has been received or the scope or sensitivity of the Restricted Data or National Security Information to which the individual has or will have access has significantly increased. All new derogatory information, whether resulting from the NRC's reinvestigation program or other sources, will be evaluated relative to an individual's continued eligibility in accordance with the procedures of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Where, pursuant to these procedures, the Commission or Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs has made a determination denying or revoking an access authorization and/or an employment clearance to an individual, the individual's eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance may be reconsidered when there is a bona fide offer of employment and/or a bona fide need for access to Restricted Data or National Security Information and either material and relevant new evidence is presented, which the individual and his or her representatives are without fault in failing to present before, or there is convincing evidence of reformation or rehabilitation. Requests for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs through the Director, Office of Administration. Requests must be accompanied by an affidavit setting forth in detail the information referred to above. The Deputy Executive Director for Materials, Waste, Research, State, Tribal, Compliance, Administration, and Human Capital Programs shall cause the individual to be notified as to whether his or her eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance will be reconsidered and if so, the method by which a reconsideration will be accomplished.
</P>
<P>(c) Where an access authorization and/or an employment clearance has been granted to an individual by the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, without recourse to the procedures set forth in §§ 10.20 through 10.34, the individual's eligibility for an access authorization and/or an employment clearance will be reconsidered only in a case where, subsequent to the granting of the access authorization and/or employment clearance, new derogatory information has been received or the scope or sensitivity of the Restricted Data or National Security Information to which the individual has or will have access has significantly increased. All new derogatory information, whether resulting from the NRC's reinvestigation program or other sources, will be evaluated relative to an individual's continued eligibility in accordance with the procedures of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15645, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.36" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.4.72.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.36   Terminations.</HEAD>
<P>In the event the individual is no longer an applicant for access authorization and/or employment clearance or no longer requires such, the procedures of this part shall be terminated without a final determination as to the individual's eligibility for access authorization and/or employment clearance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.4.72.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.37   Attorney representation.</HEAD>
<P>In the event the individual is represented by an attorney or other representative, the individual shall file with the Director, Office of Administration, a document designating such attorney or representative and authorizing such attorney or representative to receive all correspondence, transcripts, and other documents pertaining to the proceeding under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38676, Sept. 2, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31610, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.38" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.8.4.72.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.38   Certifications.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever information is made a part of the record under the exceptions authorized by § 10.28 (i), (j), or (l), the record shall contain certificates evidencing that the required determinations have been made.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 11—CRITERIA AND PROCEDURES FOR DETERMINING ELIGIBILITY FOR ACCESS TO OR CONTROL OVER SPECIAL NUCLEAR MATERIAL


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 161, 223 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 2273); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Section 11.15(e) also issued under 31 U.S.C. 9701; 42 U.S.C. 2214.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 76970, Nov. 21, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="72" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.72" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.72.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the requirements for special nuclear material access authorization, and the criteria and procedures for resolving questions concerning the eligibility of individuals to receive special nuclear material access authorization for conduct of certain activities, licensed or otherwise, which involve access to or control over special nuclear material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.72.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.3   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements, criteria, and procedures of this part apply to the establishment of and eligibility for special nuclear material access authorization for employees, contractors, consultants of, and applicants for employment with licensees or contractors of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. This employment, contract, service, or consultation may involve any duties or assignments within the criteria of § 11.11 or § 11.13 requiring access to, or control over, formula quantities of special nuclear material (as defined in part 73 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements, criteria, and procedures of this part are in addition to and not in lieu of any requirements, criteria, or procedures for access to or control over classified special nuclear material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 76970, Nov. 21, 1980, as amended at 64 FR 15645, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.72.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.5   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission to carry out its authority to establish and administer, in a manner consistent with traditional American concepts of justice, a personnel security program in the interests of the common defense and security for the purpose of safeguarding special nuclear material and preventing sabotage which would endanger the public by exposure to radiation. To this end, the Commission has established criteria for determining eligibility for special nuclear material access authorization and will afford affected individuals the opportunity for administrative review of questions concerning their eligibility for special nuclear material access authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.72.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.7   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Terms defined in parts 10, 25, 50, 53, 70, 72, 73, and 95 of this chapter have the same meaning when used in this part. Also, as used in this part:


</P>
<P><I>NRC-“R” special nuclear material access authorization</I> means an administrative determination based upon a Tier 3 background investigation that an individual in the course of employment is eligible to work at a job falling within the criterion of § 11.11(a)(2).


</P>
<P><I>NRC-“U” special nuclear material access authorization</I> means an administrative determination based upon a Tier 5 background investigation that an individual in the course of employment is eligible to work at a job falling within the criterion of § 11.11(a)(1) or § 11.13.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material access authorization</I> means an administrative determination that an individual (including a contractor or consultant) who is employed by or is an applicant for employment with an affected Commission contractor, licensee of the Commission, or contractor of a licensee of the Commission may work at a job which affords access to or control over special nuclear material and that permitting the individual to work at that job would not be inimical to the common defense and security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 76970, Nov. 21, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 58282, Dec. 1, 1981; 50 FR 39077, Sept. 27, 1985; 55 FR 11574, Mar. 29, 1990; 64 FR 15645, Apr. 1, 1999; 86 FR 43401, Aug. 9, 2021; 87 FR 45239, July 28, 2022; 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.72.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0062.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 11.9, 11.11, 11.13, 11.15, and 11.16.
</P>
<P>(c) In § 11.15, the Standard Form 86 (SF-86), “Electronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing (e-QIP), SF-86—Questionnaire for National Security Positions,” is approved under control number 3206-0005.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52185, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 87 FR 45240, July 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.72.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.9   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested party, grant an exemption from the requirements of this part. Exemptions will be granted only if they are authorized by law and will not constitute an undue risk to the common defense and security. Documentation related to the request, notification and processing of an exemption shall be maintained for three years beyond the period covered by the exemption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 76970, Nov. 21, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 19245, May 27, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.72.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.10   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawing, specification, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures etc. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19245, May 27, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="73" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.73" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirements for Special Nuclear Material Access Authorization</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.73.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.11   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee who uses, processes, stores, transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, formula quantities of special nuclear material (as defined in part 73 of this chapter) subject to the physical protection requirements of §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26, 73.45, and 73.46, and each person subject to the general licensing requirements of § 70.20a, shall identify at its facility or plant (excluding all non-power reactor facilities and storage of fuel incident thereto and facilities and plants in which the licensee possesses or uses only irradiated special nuclear material subject to the exemption of § 73.6(b)), describe, and if not already provided, provide to the Commission, by December 26, 1985 by amendment to its security plan:
</P>
<P>(1) All jobs in which an individual could steal or divert special nuclear material, or commit sabotage which would endanger the public by exposure to radiation, by working alone or in cooperation with an individual who does not possess an NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization, or by directing or coercing any individual to assist in the theft, diversion, or sabotage. Such jobs include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) All positions in the licensee's security force,
</P>
<P>(ii) Management positions with the authority to:
</P>
<P>(A) Direct the actions of members of the security force or alter security procedures, or
</P>
<P>(B) Direct routine movements of special nuclear material, or
</P>
<P>(C) Direct the routine status of vital equipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) All jobs which require unescorted access within onsite alarm stations.
</P>
<P>(iv) All jobs which require unescorted access 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> to special nuclear material or within vital areas.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> This does not alter the requirement for methods to observe individuals within material access areas as stated in § 73.46(e)(9) of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) All jobs which require unescorted access within protected areas and which do not fall within the criterion of paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) After 365 days following Commission approval of the amended security plan submitted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, no individual may be permitted to work at any job determined by the Commission to fall within the criterion of paragraph (a)(1) of this section without an NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization, and no individual may be permitted unescorted access to any protected area at any site subject to this part without either an NRC-U or NRC-R special nuclear material access authorization. The exceptions to the requirement for an NRC-U and NRC-R special nuclear material access authorization are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Exceptions to the requirement for an NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization for an individual to work at a job within the criteria of paragraph (a)(1) are provided for:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual employed in such a job on October 28, 1985, who is not yet in receipt of an NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization from the Commission, provided that a complete application has been submitted to and is pending before the NRC for processing for that employee in accordance with § 11.15 (a) and (b); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any individual in possession of an NRC-L or R access authorization or an equivalent active Federal security clearance but not yet in receipt of the NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization, provided that a complete application has been submitted to and is pending before the NRC for processing for that employee in accordance with § 11.15 (a) or (b), or both.
</P>
<P>(2) Exceptions to the requirement for an NRC-R special nuclear material access authorization for an individual to have unescorted access to a protected area are provided for:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual employed in such a job on October 28, 1985 who is not yet in receipt of an NRC-R special nuclear material access authorization from the Commission, provided that a complete application has been submitted to and is pending before the NRC for processing for that employee in accordance with § 11.15 (a) and (b); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any individual in possession of an NRC-L access authorization or an equivalent active Federal security clearance, provided that a complete application has been submitted to the NRC for processing for that employee in accordance with § 11.15 (a) or (b), or both.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 76970, Nov. 21, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 56599, Nov. 18, 1981; 50 FR 39077, Sept. 27, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.73.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.13   Special requirements for transportation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All individuals who, after 365 days following approval of the amended security plan submitted in accordance with § 11.11(a), transport, arrange for transport, drive motor vehicles in road shipments of special nuclear material, pilot aircraft in air shipments of special nuclear material, act as monitors at transfer points, or escort road, rail, sea, or air shipments of special nuclear material subject to the appropriate physical protection requirements of §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26, or 73.27 of this chapter, or who are authorized to alter the scheduling and routing of such transport shall have NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization. Exceptions are provided for:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual who is employed in such a job on October 28, 1985 and who is not yet in receipt of an NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization from the Commission, provided that a complete application has been submitted to and is pending before the NRC for processing for that employee in accordance with § 11.15 (a) and (b) or
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual in possession of an NRC-L or R access authorization or equivalent active Federal security clearance but not yet in receipt of the NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization, provided that a complete application has been submitted to and is pending before the NRC for processing for that employee in accordance with § 11.15 (a) or (b), or both.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee who, 365 days after Commission approval of the amended security plan submitted in accordance with § 11.11(a), transports or delivers to a carrier for transport special nuclear material subject to the physical protection requirement of §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26, or 73.27 of this chapter shall confirm and record prior to shipment the name and special nuclear material access authorization number of all individuals identified in paragraph (a) of this section assigned to the shipment. The licensee shall retain this record for three years after the last shipment is made. However, the licensee need not confirm and record the special nuclear material access authorization number in the case of any individual for whom an application has been submitted and is pending before the NRC in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 39078, Sept. 27, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 19245, May 27, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.73.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.15   Application for special nuclear material access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Application for special nuclear material access authorization, renewal, or change in level must be filed by the licensee on behalf of the applicant with the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, Mail Stop T7-D57, either by mail addressed to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. Applications for affected individuals employed on October 28, 1985, shall be submitted within 60 days of notification of Commission approval of the amended security plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees who wish to secure NRC-U or NRC-R special nuclear material access authorizations for individuals in possession of an active NRC Q or L access authorization or other security clearance granted by another Federal agency based on an equivalent investigation shall submit a “Security Acknowledgment” (NRC Form 176) and a “Request for Access Authorization” (NRC Form 237). NRC will process these requests by verifying the data on an NRC-cleared individual, or by contacting the Federal agency that granted the clearance, requesting certification of the security clearance, and determining the investigative basis and level of the clearance. Licensees may directly request the Federal agency that administered the security clearance, if other than NRC, to certify to the NRC that it has on file an active security clearance for an individual and to specify the investigative basis and level of the clearance.
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for special nuclear material access authorization for individuals, other than those qualifying under the provisions of § 11.15(a)(2), must be made on forms supplied by the Commission, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing (e-QIP), SF-86—Questionnaire for National Security Positions;
</P>
<P>(2) Two completed standard fingerprint cards (FD-258);
</P>
<P>(3) Security Acknowledgment (NRC Form 176);
</P>
<P>(4) Other related forms where specified in accompanying instruction (NRC-254); and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement by the employer, prospective employer, or contractor identifying the job to be assigned to or assumed by the individual and the level of authorization needed, justified by appropriate reference to the licensee's security plan.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, NRC-U special nuclear material access authorizations must be renewed every five years from the date of issuance. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, NRC-R special nuclear material access authorizations must be renewed every ten years from the date of issuance. An application for renewal must be submitted at least 120 days before the expiration of the five-year period for NRC-U and ten-year period for NRC-R, respectively, and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement by the licensee that at the time of application for renewal the individual's assigned or assumed job requires an NRC-U or an NRC-R special nuclear material access authorization, justified by appropriate reference to the licensee's security plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Electronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing (e-QIP), SF-86—Questionnaire for National Security Positions;


</P>
<P>(iii) Two completed standard fingerprint cards (FD-258); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other related forms specified in accompanying NRC instructions (NRC Form 254).
</P>
<P>(2) An exception to the time for submission of NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization renewal applications and the paperwork required is provided for individuals who have a current and active DOE-Q access authorization and are subject to DOE Reinvestigation Program requirements. For these individuals, the submission to DOE of the SF-86 pursuant to DOE Reinvestigation Program requirements (generally every five years) will satisfy the NRC renewal submission and paperwork requirements even if less than five years has passed since the date of issuance or renewal of the NRC-U access authorization. Any NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization renewed in response to provisions of this paragraph will not be due for renewal until the date set by DOE for the next reinvestigation of the individual pursuant to DOE's Reinvestigation Program.
</P>
<P>(3) An exception to the time for submission of NRC-R special nuclear material access authorization renewal applications and the paperwork required is provided for individuals who have a current and active DOE-L or DOE-Q access authorization and are subject to DOE Reinvestigation Program requirements. For these individuals, the submission to DOE of the SF-86 pursuant to DOE Reinvestigation Program requirements will satisfy the NRC renewal submission and paperwork requirements even if less than ten years have passed since the date of issuance or renewal of the NRC-R access authorization. Any NRC-R special nuclear material access authorization renewed pursuant to this paragraph will not be due for renewal until the date set by DOE for the next reinvestigation of the individual pursuant to DOE's Reinvestigation Program.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the period of time for the initial and each subsequent NRC-U renewal application to NRC may not exceed seven years.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the period of time for the initial and each subsequent NRC-R renewal application to NRC may not exceed twelve years. Any individual who is subject to the DOE Reinvestigation Program requirements but, for administrative or other reasons, does not submit reinvestigation forms to DOE within seven years of the previous submission, for a NRC-U renewal or twelve years of the previous submission for a NRC-R renewal, shall submit a renewal application to NRC using the forms prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section before the expiration of the seven year period for NRC-U or twelve year period for NRC-R renewal.
</P>
<P>(d) If at any time, due to new assignment or assumption of duties, a change in a special nuclear material access authorization level from NRC “R” to “U” is required, the individual shall apply for a change of level of special nuclear material access authorization. The application must include a description of the new duties to be assigned or assumed, justified by appropriate reference to the licensee's security plan.
</P>
<P>(e) The Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) bills the NRC for the cost of each background investigation conducted in support of an application for special nuclear material access authorization (application). The combined cost of the DCSA investigation and the NRC's application processing overhead (NRC processing fee) are recovered through a material access authorization fee imposed on applicants for special nuclear material access authorization.
</P>
<P>(1) Each application for a special nuclear material access authorization, renewal, or change in level must be accompanied by a remittance, payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, which is equal to the NRC material access authorization fee. This fee must be determined using the following formula: the DCSA investigation billing rates on the day of NRC receipt of the application + the NRC processing fee = the NRC material access authorization fee. The NRC processing fee is determined by multiplying the DCSA investigation billing rate on the day of NRC receipt of the application by 90.2 percent (<I>i.e.,</I> DCSA rate × 90.2 percent).
</P>
<P>(2) Updated DCSA investigation billing rates are published periodically in a Federal Investigations Notice (FIN) issued by the DCSA's Federal Investigative Services. Copies of the current DCSA investigation billing rates schedule can be obtained by contacting the NRC's Personnel Security Branch, Division of Facilities Security, Office of Administration by email to: <I>Licensee_ Access_ Authorization_ Fee.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC's Material Access Authorization Program (MAAP) is considered reimbursable work representing services provided to an organization for which the NRC is entitled payment. The NRC is authorized to receive and retain fees from licensees for services performed. The NRC's Office of the Chief Financial Officer periodically reviews the fees charged for MAAP and makes recommendations on revising those charges to reflect costs incurred by the NRC in providing those services. The reviews are performed using cost analysis techniques to determine the direct and indirect costs. Based on this review, all MAAP requests for reciprocity will be charged a flat fee rate of $95.00 as referenced in paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section. This flat fee would be aligned with the level of effort that has recently been expended by DCSA to process reciprocity requests, and accounts for inflation as well as recovery of the appropriate cost for conducting this work. Copies of the current NRC material access authorization fee may be obtained by contacting the NRC's Personnel Security Branch, Division of Facilities and Security, Office of Administration by email to: <I>Licensee_ Access_ Authorization_ Fee.Resource@nrc.gov</I>. Any change in the NRC's access authorization fees will be applicable to each access authorization request received on or after the effective date of the DCSA's most recently published investigation billing rates schedule.
</P>
<P>(4) Certain applications from individuals having current Federal access authorizations may be processed expeditiously and at a reduced cost because the Commission, at its discretion, may decide to accept the certification of access authorizations and investigative data from other Federal Government agencies that grant personnel access authorizations.
</P>
<P>(i) Applications for reciprocity will be processed at the NRC flat fee rate of $95 per request as referenced in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The NRC application fee for an access authorization of type . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NRC fee rate
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) NRC-R based on certification of comparable investigation 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) NRC-U based on certification of comparable investigation 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the NRC determines, based on its review of available data, that a Tier 3 investigation is necessary, the appropriate NRC-R fee will be assessed as shown in paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section before the conduct of the investigation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> If the NRC determines, based on its review of available data, that a Tier 5 investigation is necessary, the appropriate NRC-U fee will be assessed as shown in paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section before the conduct of the investigation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Applicants shall, in cases where reciprocity is not acceptable and it is necessary to perform a background investigation, be charged the appropriate fee referenced in the following table. Applicants shall calculate the access authorization fee according to the stated formula (<I>i.e.,</I> DCSA rate × 90.2 percent).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The NRC application fee for an access authorization of type . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Is the sum of the current DCSA investigation billing rate charged for an investigation of type . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Plus the NRC's processing


<br/>fee (rounded to the nearest

<br/>dollar), which is equal to

<br/>the DCSA investigation

<br/>billing rate for the type of

<br/>investigation referenced

<br/>multiplied by . . .

<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) NRC-R initial 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 3 (T3) (Standard Service)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) NRC-R renewal 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 3 Reinvestigation (T3R) (Standard Service)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) NRC-U initial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 5 (T5) (Standard Service)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) NRC-U initial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 5 (T5) (Priority Handling)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) NRC-U renewal 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 5 Reinvestigation (T5R) (Standard Service)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(F) NRC-U renewal 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 5 Reinvestigation (T5R) (Priority Handling)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the NRC determines, based on its review of available data, that a Tier 5 investigation is necessary, the appropriate NRC-U fee will be assessed before the conduct of the investigation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f)(1) Any Federal employee, employee of a contractor of a Federal agency, licensee, or other person visiting an affected facility for the purpose of conducting official business, who possesses an active NRC or DOE-Q access authorization or an equivalent Federal security clearance granted by another Federal agency (“Top Secret”) based on a comparable T5 background investigation may be permitted, in accordance with § 11.11, the same level of unescorted access that an NRC-U special nuclear material access authorization would afford.
</P>
<P>(2) Any Federal employee, employee of a contractor of a Federal agency, licensee, or other person visiting an affected facility for the purpose of conducting official business, who possesses an active NRC or DOE-L access authorization or an equivalent security clearance granted by another Federal agency (“Secret”) based on a comparable or greater background investigation consisting of a national agency check with law and credit may be permitted, in accordance with § 11.11, the same level of unescorted access that an NRC-R special nuclear material access authorization would afford. An NRC or DOE-L access authorization or an equivalent security clearance (“Secret”), based on a background investigation or national agency check with credit granted or being processed by another Federal agency before January 1, 1998, is acceptable to meet this requirement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15645, Apr. 1, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 62511, Nov. 5, 2003; 68 FR 65765, Nov. 21, 2003; 68 FR 58800, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 27410, May 16, 2007; 74 FR 62680, Dec. 1, 2009; 77 FR 26152, May 3, 2012; 77 FR 46257, Aug. 3, 2012; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015; 86 FR 43401, Aug. 9, 2021; 87 FR 45240, July 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.16" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.73.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.16   Cancellation of request for special nuclear material access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>When a request for an individual's access authorization is withdrawn or canceled, the licensee shall notify the Chief, Personnel Security Branch, NRC Division of Facilities and Security immediately, by telephone, so that the investigation may be discontinued. The caller shall provide the full name and date of birth of the individual, the date of request, and the type of access authorization originally requested (“U” or “R”). The licensee shall promptly submit written confirmation of the telephone notification to the Personnel Security Branch, NRC Division of Facilities and Security. A portion of the fee for the “U” special nuclear material access authorization may be refunded depending upon the status of the Tier 5 investigation at the time of withdrawal or cancellation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15647, Apr. 1, 1999, as amended at 87 FR 45241, July 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="74" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.74" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Criteria for Determining Eligibility for Access to, or Control Over, Special Nuclear Material</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.74.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.21   Application of the criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision to grant or deny special nuclear material access authorization is a comprehensive, common-sense judgment, made after consideration of all the relevant information, favorable or unfavorable, that to grant or deny special nuclear material access authorization is or is not inimical to the common defense and security and is or is not clearly consistent with the national interest.
</P>
<P>(b) To assist in making these determinations, on the basis of all the information in a particular case, there are set forth in § 10.11 of this chapter a number of specific types of derogatory information. These criteria are not exhaustive but contain the principal types of derogatory information which in the opinion of the Commission create a question as to the individual's eligibility for special nuclear material access authorization. These criteria are subject to continuing review and may be revised from time to time as experience and circumstances may make desirable.
</P>
<P>(c) When the reports of an investigation of an individual contain information reasonably falling within one or more of the classes of derogatory information listed in § 10.11, it creates a question as to the individual's eligibility for special nuclear material access authorization. In these cases, the application of the criteria must be made in light of and with specific regard to whether the existence of the information supports a reasonable belief that the granting of a special nuclear material access authorization would be inimical to the common defense and security. The Director, Division of Facilities and Security, may authorize the granting of a special nuclear material access authorization on the basis of the information in the case or may authorize the conduct of an interview with the individual and, on the basis of the interview and other investigation as the Director deems appropriate, may authorize the granting of a special nuclear material access authorization. Otherwise, a question concerning the eligibility of an individual for a special nuclear material access authorization must be resolved in accordance with the procedures set forth in §§ 10.20 through 10.38 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) In resolving a question concerning the eligibility or continued eligibility of an individual for a special nuclear material access authorization by action of the Hearing Examiner or a Personnel Security Review Panel, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> the following principle shall be applied by the Examiner and the Personnel Security Review Panel: Where there are sufficient grounds to establish a reasonable belief as to the truth of the information regarded as substantially derogatory and when the existence of this information supports a reasonable belief that granting access would be inimical to the common defense and security, this will be the basis for a recommendation for denying or revoking special nuclear material access authorization if not satisfactorily rebutted by the individual or shown to be mitigated by circumstance.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The functions of the Hearing Examiner and the Personnel Security Review Panel are described in part 10 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 76970, Nov. 21, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 38683, Sept. 2, 1982; 64 FR 15647, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="75" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.75" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.30" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.75.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.30   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55070, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.9.0.75.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.32   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all regulations in part 11 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 11 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 11.1, 11.3, 11.5, 11.7, 11.8, 11.9, 11.16, 11.21, 11.30, and 11.32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55070, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 12—IMPLEMENTATION OF THE EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT IN AGENCY PROCEEDINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 504(c)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 23121, May 5, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to state the regulatory requirements for award of attorney fees to eligible individuals and entities in certain administrative proceedings before the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, in implementation of the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504 (EAJA), which provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to parties to “adversary adjudications”, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(C). In general, an “adversary adjudication” is an adjudication that is required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for hearing before an agency of the United States and in which the position of the agency, or any component of the agency, is presented by an attorney or other representative who enters an appearance and participates in the proceeding. However, some agency adjudications are expressly excluded from coverage by 5 U.S.C. 504 (e.g., an adjudication for the purpose of granting or renewing a license) even though they fall within this general definition, and certain appeals before an agency board of contract appeals and Administrative False Claims Act hearings conducted under 31 U.S.C. ch. 38 are expressly covered.
</P>
<P>An eligible party may receive an award in an adversary adjudication when the party prevails over the Commission, unless the Commission's position was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. The regulations in this part describe the parties eligible for awards and the proceedings that are covered. They also explain how to apply for awards, and the procedures and standards that the Commission will use to make them.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 23121, May 5, 1994, as amended at 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.102" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.102   When the EAJA applies.</HEAD>
<P>The EAJA applies to any covered adversary adjudication pending or commenced before the Commission on or after August 5, 1985.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.103   Proceedings covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The EAJA applies to the following proceedings:
</P>
<P>(1) Hearings under the Administrative False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3801-12);
</P>
<P>(2) Any appeal of a decision made pursuant to section 6 of the Contract Disputes Act of 1978 (41 U.S.C. 605) before an agency board of contract appeals as provided in section 8 of that Act (41 U.S.C. 607); and
</P>
<P>(3) Adversary adjudications conducted by the Commission pursuant to any other statutory provision that requires a proceeding before the Nuclear Regulatory Commission to be so conducted as to fall within the meaning of “adversary adjudication” under 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(C).
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission's failure to identify a type of proceeding as an adversary adjudication shall not preclude the filing of an application by a party who believes the proceeding is covered by the EAJA. Whether the proceeding is covered will then be an issue for resolution in proceedings on the application.
</P>
<P>(c) If a proceeding includes both matters covered by the EAJA and matters specifically excluded from coverage, any award made will include only fees and expenses related to covered issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 23121, May 5, 1994, as amended at 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.104" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.104   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under the EAJA, the applicant must be a party to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award. The term “party” is defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3). The applicant must show that it meets all conditions of eligibility set out in this subpart and in subpart B.
</P>
<P>(b) The types of eligible applicants are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million;
</P>
<P>(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests, and not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or organization with a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the proceeding was initiated.
</P>
<P>(d) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered as an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests.
</P>
<P>(e) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual, corporation, or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interests of the applicant, or any corporation or other entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will be considered an affiliate for purposes of this part, unless the adjudicative officer determines that such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, the adjudicative officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(g) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.105   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prevailing applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in connection with a proceeding or a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, unless the position of the Commission over which the applicant has prevailed was substantially justified. The position of the Commission includes, in addition to the position taken by the Commission in the adversary adjudication, the action or failure to act by the Commission upon which the adversary adjudication is based. The burden of proof that an award should not be made to a prevailing applicant because the Commission's position was substantially justified is on the Commission counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.106" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.106   Allowable fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at reduced rate to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) No award for the fee of an attorney or agent under this part may exceed $75.00 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the Commission pays expert witnesses. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for these expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the adjudicative officer shall consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent, or witness is in private practice, his or her customary fees for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated costs of the services;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily performs services;
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other factors that bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<P>(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the services does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of applicant's case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.107" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.107   Rulemaking on maximum rates for attorney fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If warranted by an increase in the cost of living or by special circumstances (such as limited availability of attorneys qualified to handle certain types of proceedings), the Commission may adopt regulations providing that attorney fees may be awarded at a rate higher than $75 per hour in some, or all of the types of proceedings covered by this part. The Commission will conduct any rulemaking proceedings for this purpose under the informal rulemaking procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may file with the Commission a petition for rulemaking to increase the maximum rate for attorney fees, in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR 2.802. The petition should identify the rate the petitioner believes the Commission should establish and the types of proceedings in which the rate should be used. It should also explain fully the reasons why the higher rate is warranted. Within 90 days after the petition is filed, the Commission will determine whether it will initiate a rulemaking proceeding, deny the petition, or take other appropriate action on the petition. The Commission will act on the petition in accordance with 10 CFR 2.803.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.108" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.108   Awards against other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>If an applicant is entitled to an award because it prevails over another agency of the United States that participates in a proceeding before the Commission and takes a position that is not substantially justified, the award or an appropriate portion of the award shall be made against that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.1.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.109   Decisionmaking authority.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the Commission in a particular proceeding, each application under this part shall be assigned for decision to the official or decisionmaking body that entered the decision in the adversary adjudication. That official or decisionmaking body is referred to in this part as the “adjudicative officer.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Information Required From Applicants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.201" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.2.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.201   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an award of fees and expenses under the EAJA shall identify the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought. The application shall show that the applicant has prevailed and identify the position of the Commission or other agency that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application shall also state the number of employees of the applicant and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall also include a statement that the applicant's net worth does not exceed $2 million (if an individual) or $7 million (for all other applicants, including their affiliates). However, an applicant may omit this statement if:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)).
</P>
<P>(c) The application shall state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought.
</P>
<P>(d) The application may also include any other matters that the applicant wishes the Commission to consider in determining whether, and in what amount, an award should be made.
</P>
<P>(e) The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.202" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.2.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.202   Net worth exhibit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant, except a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates (as defined in § 12.104(f) of this part) when the proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The adjudicative officer may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.
</P>
<P>(b) Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit and believes there are legal grounds for withholding it from disclosure may submit that portion of the exhibit directly to the adjudicative officer in a sealed envelope labeled “Confidential Financial Information,” accompanied by a motion to withhold the information from public disclosure. The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why it falls within one or more of the specific exemptions from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1)-(9), why public disclosure of the information would adversely affect the applicant, and why disclosure is not required in the public interest. The material in question shall be served on counsel representing the agency against which the applicant seeks an award, but need not be served on any other party to the proceeding. If the adjudicative officer finds that the information should not be withheld from disclosure, it shall be placed in the public record of the proceeding. Otherwise, any request to inspect or copy the exhibit shall be disposed of in accordance with the Commission's established procedures under the Freedom of Information Act, 10 CFR part 9, subpart A.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.203" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.2.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.203   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses, including the cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project, or similar matter for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rates at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The adjudicative officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, logs, or other substantiation for any fees or expenses claimed, pursuant to § 12.306 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.2.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.204   When an application may be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be filed whenever the applicant has prevailed in the proceeding or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, but in no case later than 30 days after the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of the proceeding or any other complete resolution of the proceeding, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, becomes final and unappealable, both within the NRC and to the courts.
</P>
<P>(b) If after the filing of an application for an award, review or reconsideration is sought or taken of a decision as to which an applicant believes it has prevailed, proceedings for the award of fees shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy. When the United States appeals the underlying merits of an adversary adjudication to a court, no decision on an application for fees and other expenses in connection with that adversary adjudication shall be made until a final and unreviewable decision is rendered by the court on the appeal or until the underlying merits of the case have been finally determined pursuant to the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Considering Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.301" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.301   Filing and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Any application for an award or other pleading or document related to an application shall be filed and served on all parties to the proceeding in the same manner as other pleadings in the proceeding, except as provided in § 12.202(b) for confidential financial information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.302" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.302   Answer to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, counsel representing the NRC against which an award is sought may file an answer to the application. Unless the NRC counsel requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of this section, failure to file an answer within the 30-day period may be treated as a consent to the award requested.
</P>
<P>(b) If the NRC counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the adjudicative officer upon request by the NRC counsel and the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the NRC counsel's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the NRC counsel shall include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 12.306.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.303" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.303   Reply.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 12.306.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.304" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.304   Comments by other parties.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and the NRC counsel may file comments on an application within 30 days after it is served, or on an answer within 15 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the adjudicative officer determines that the public interest requires participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.305" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.305   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and the NRC counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying proceeding, or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded, in accordance with the NRC's standard settlement procedure. If a prevailing party and the NRC's counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.306" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.306   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or the NRC counsel, or on the adjudicative officer's own initiative, the adjudicative officer may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions or, as to issues other than substantial justification (such as the applicant's eligibility or substantiation of fees and expenses), pertinent discovery or an evidentiary hearing. Further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application, and shall be conducted as promptly as possible. Whether or not the position of the agency was substantially justified shall be determined on the basis of the administrative record, as a whole, which is made in the adversary adjudication for which fees and other expenses are sought.
</P>
<P>(b) A request that the adjudicative officer order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.307" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.307   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The adjudicative officer shall issue an initial decision on the application within 90 days after completion of proceedings on the application. If the adjudicative officer fails to issue an initial decision within 90 days, he or she shall notify the parties of the reason for the delay and shall set a new deadline.
</P>
<P>(b) The initial decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the NRC's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. If the applicant has sought an award against more than one agency, the decision shall allocate responsibility for payment of any award made among the agencies, and shall explain the reasons for the allocation made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.308" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.308   Agency review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Either the applicant or the NRC counsel may seek review of the initial decision on the fee application, or the Commission may decide to review the decision on its own initiative, in accordance with the Commission's review procedures set out in 10 CFR 2.341. The filing of a petition for review is mandatory for a party to exhaust its administrative remedies before seeking judicial review. If neither the applicant nor NRC counsel seeks review and the Commission does not take review on its own initiative, the initial decision on the application shall become a final decision of the NRC 120 days after it is issued.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in any other part of the Commission's regulations, the initial decision shall be inoperative (<I>i.e.</I>, the decision shall not be final and any award made shall not be paid) until the later of—
</P>
<P>(1) The expiration of the 120 day period provided in paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) If within the 120 day period provided in paragraph (a) of this section the Commission elects to review the decision, the Commission's issuance of a final decision on review of the initial decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Whether to review a decision on its own motion is a matter within the discretion of the Commission. If review is taken, the Commission will issue a final decision on the application or remand the application to the adjudicative officer for further proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 23121, May 5, 1994, as amended at 77 FR 46599, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.309" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.309   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Judicial review of final agency decisions on awards may be sought as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.310" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.10.3.76.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.310   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit to the appropriate official of the paying agency a copy of the Commission's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a certification that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts. Where the award is granted against the Commission, the applicant shall make the submission to the Director, Division of Accounting and Finance, Office of the Controller, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555. The NRC will pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 60 days.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 13—ADMINISTRATIVE REMEDIES FOR FALSE CLAIMS AND STATEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3801 through 3812; 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Section 13.3 also issued under 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
</P><P>Section 13.13 also issued under 31 U.S.C. 3730.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 13.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.1   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part implements the Administrative False Claims Act of 2023 (31 U.S.C. 3801-3812). 31 U.S.C. 3809 requires each authority head to promulgate regulations necessary to implement the provisions of that Act.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part (1) establishes administrative procedures for imposing civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit, or present, or cause to be made, submitted, or presented, false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to authorities or to their agents, and (2) specifies the hearing and appeal rights of persons subject to allegations of liability for such penalties and assessments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991, as amended at 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>ALJ</I> means an Administrative Law Judge in the authority appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105 or detailed to the authority pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3344.
</P>
<P><I>Authority</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Authority head</I> means the Commission of five members or a quorum thereof sitting as a body, as provided by section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1242).
</P>
<P><I>Benefit</I> means, in the context of “statement”, anything of value, including but not limited to any advantage, preference, privilege, license, permit, favorable decision, ruling, status, or loan guarantee.


</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> means any request, demand, or submission—
</P>
<P>(1) Made to the authority for property, services, or money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits);
</P>
<P>(2) Made to a recipient of property, services, or money from the authority or to a party to a contract with the authority—
</P>
<P>(i) For property or services if the United States—
</P>
<P>(A) Provided such property or services;
</P>
<P>(B) Provided any portion of the funds for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(C) Will reimburse such recipient or party for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For the payment of money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits) if the United States—
</P>
<P>(A) Provided any portion of the money requested or demanded; or
</P>
<P>(B) Will reimburse such recipient or party for any portion of the money paid on such request or demand; or
</P>
<P>(3) Made to the authority which has the effect of concealing or improperly avoiding or decreasing an obligation to pay or transmit property, services, or money.






</P>
<P><I>Complaint</I> means the administrative complaint served by the reviewing official on the defendant under § 13.7.
</P>
<P><I>Defendant</I> means any person alleged in a complaint under § 13.7 to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 13.3.
</P>
<P><I>Digital ID certificate</I> means a file stored on a participant's computer that contains the participant's name, e-mail address, and participant's digital signature, proves the participant's identity when filing documents and serving participants electronically through the E-Filing system, and contains public keys, which allow for the encryption and decryption of documents so that the documents can be securely transferred over the Internet.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic acknowledgment</I> means a communication transmitted electronically from the E-Filing system to the submitter confirming receipt of electronic filing and service.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic Hearing Docket</I> means the publicly available Web site which houses a visual presentation of the docket and a link to its files.
</P>
<P><I>E-Filing System</I> means an electronic system that receives, stores, and distributes documents filed in proceedings for which an electronic hearing docket has been established.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC</I> means the document issued by the Commission that sets forth the transmission methods and formatting standards for filing and service under E-Filing. The document can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person.
</P>
<P><I>Initial decision</I> means the written decision of the ALJ required by § 13.10 or § 13.37, and includes a revised initial decision issued following a remand or a motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P><I>Investigating official</I> means the Inspector General of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or the Assistant Inspector General for Investigations, Office of the Inspector General.
</P>
<P><I>Knows or has reason to know</I> means that a person, with respect to a claim or statement—
</P>
<P>(a) Has actual knowledge that the claim or statement is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(b) Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement; or
</P>
<P>(c) Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement.
</P>
<P><I>Makes,</I> wherever it appears, shall include the terms presents, submits, and causes to be made, presented, or submitted. As the context requires, <I>making</I> or <I>made</I> shall likewise include the corresponding forms of such terms.










</P>
<P><I>Obligation</I> means an established duty, whether or not fixed, arising from an express or implied contractual, grantor-grantee, or licensor-licensee relationship, from a fee-based or similar relationship, from statute or regulation, or from the retention of any overpayment.


</P>
<P><I>Optical Storage Media</I> means any physical computer component that meets E-Filing Guidance standards for storing, saving, and accessing electronic documents.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means an individual or organization that has petitioned to intervene in a proceeding or requested a hearing but that has not yet been granted party status by an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board or other presiding officer. Participant also means a party to a proceeding and any interested State, local governmental body, or affected Federally-recognized Indian Tribe that seeks to participate in a proceeding in accordance with § 2.315(c). For the purpose of service of documents, the NRC staff is considered a participant even if not participating as a party.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or private organization and includes the plural of that term.
</P>
<P><I>Representative</I> means any person designated by a party in writing.
</P>
<P><I>Reviewing official</I> means the General Counsel of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or his or her designee who is— 
</P>
<P>(a) Not subject to supervision by, or required to report to, the investigating official; 
</P>
<P>(b) Not employed in the organizational unit of the authority in which the investigating official is employed; and
</P>
<P>(c) Serving in a position for which the rate of basic pay is not less than the minimum rate of basic pay for grade GS-16 under the General Schedule. 
</P>
<P><I>Statement</I> means any representation, certification, affirmation, document, record, or accounting or bookkeeping entry made—
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to a claim or to obtain the approval or payment of a claim (including relating to eligibility to make a claim); or
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to (including relating to eligibility for)—
</P>
<P>(1) A contract with, or a bid or proposal for a contract with, or
</P>
<P>(2) A grant, loan, or benefit from,
</P>
<P>(i) The authority, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any State, political subdivision of a State, or other party, if the United States government provides any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit, or if the Government will reimburse such State, political subdivision, or party for any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991; 56 FR 49945, Oct. 2, 1991, as amended at 62 FR 40427, July 29, 1997; 65 FR 59272, Oct. 4, 2000; 71 FR 15007, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 49152, Aug. 28, 2007; 72 FR 64529, Nov. 16, 2007; 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.3   Basis for civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims.</I> (1) Any person who makes a claim that the person knows or has reason to know— 
</P>
<P>(i) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes or is supported by any written statement which asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes or is supported by any written statement that— 
</P>
<P>(A) Omits a material fact; 
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of such omission; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is a statement in which the person making such statement has a duty to include such material fact; or 


</P>
<P>(iv) Is for payment for the provision of property or services which the person has not provided as claimed, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $14,308 for each such claim.




</P>
<P>(2) Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim.
</P>
<P>(3) A claim shall be considered made to the authority, recipient, or party when such claim is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of the authority, recipient, or party.
</P>
<P>(4) Each claim for property, services, or money is subject to a civil penalty regardless of whether such property, services, or money is actually delivered or paid.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Government has made any payment (including transferred property or provided services) on a claim, a person subject to a civil penalty under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall also be subject to an assessment of not more than twice the amount of such claim or that portion thereof that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Such assessment shall be in lieu of damages sustained by the Government because of such claim.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statements.</I> (1) Any person who makes a written statement that— 
</P>
<P>(i) The person knows or has reason to know— 
</P>
<P>(A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent because it omits a material fact that the person making the statement has a duty to include in such statement; and


</P>
<P>(ii) Contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $14,308 for each such statement.
</P>
<P>(2) Each written representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement shall be considered made to the authority when such statement is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of the authority.
</P>
<P>(c) No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to establish liability under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim or statement under this section, each such person may be held liable for a civil penalty under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim under this section on which the Government has made payment (including transferred property or provided services), an assessment may be imposed against any such person or jointly and severally against any combination of such persons.


</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of this section, materiality shall be determined in the same manner as under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729, which defines material to mean having a natural tendency to influence, or be capable of influencing, the payment or receipt of money or property.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 53555, Oct. 11, 1996; 62 FR 59275, Nov. 3, 1997; 65 FR 59273, Oct. 4, 2000; 71 FR 15007, Mar. 27, 2006; 73 FR 54673, Sept. 23, 2008; 81 FR 43021, July 1, 2016; 82 FR 8135, Jan. 24, 2017; 83 FR 1517, Jan. 12, 2018; 84 FR 2435, Feb. 7, 2019; 85 FR 2283, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 3747, Jan. 15, 2021; 87 FR 2312, Jan. 14, 2022; 88 FR 2190, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 2114, Jan. 12, 2024; 90 FR 3614, Jan. 15, 2025; 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.4   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an investigating official concludes that a subpoena pursuant to the authority conferred by 31 U.S.C. 3804(a) is warranted—
</P>
<P>(1) The subpoena so issued shall notify the person to whom it is addressed of the authority under which the subpoena is issued and shall identify the records or documents sought;
</P>
<P>(2) The investigating official may designate a person to act on his or her behalf to receive the documents sought; and
</P>
<P>(3) The person receiving such subpoena shall be required to tender to the investigating official or the person designated to receive the documents a certification that the documents sought have been produced, or that such documents are not available and the reasons therefor, or that such documents, suitably identified, have been withheld based upon the assertion of an identified privilege.
</P>
<P>(b) If the investigating official concludes that an action under the Administrative False Claims Act may be warranted, the investigating official shall submit a report containing the findings and conclusions of such investigation to the reviewing official. To the extent possible, before initiating an investigation or submitting a report involving a licensee false statement to the reviewing official, the investigating official shall consult with the Executive Director for Operations to ascertain whether any other agency action is under consideration, pending, or may be taken with regard to the licensee, and to allow for coordination between any action under this part and other enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall preclude or limit an investigating official's discretion to refer allegations directly to the Department of Justice for suit under the False Claims Act or other civil relief, or to refer the matter to the Executive Director for Operations for enforcement action under the Atomic Energy Act, or to defer initiating an investigation or postpone a report or referral to the reviewing official to avoid interference with other enforcement action by the Commission or with a criminal investigation or prosecution.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section modifies any responsibility of an investigating official to report violations of criminal law to the Attorney General.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991, as amended at 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.5   Review by the reviewing official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, based on the report of the investigating official under § 13.4(b), the reviewing official determines that there is adequate evidence to believe that a person is liable under § 13.3 of this part, the reviewing official shall transmit to the Attorney General a written notice of the reviewing official's intention to issue a complaint under § 13.7.
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reviewing official's reasons for issuing a complaint;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement specifying the evidence that supports the allegations of liability;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the claims or statements upon which the allegations of liability are based;
</P>
<P>(4) An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of § 13.3 of this part;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claims or statements known by the reviewing official or the investigating official; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.6   Prerequisites for issuing a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The reviewing official may issue a complaint under § 13.7 only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in a written statement described in 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of allegations of liability under § 13.3(a) with respect to a claim, the reviewing official determines that, with respect to such claim or a group of related claims submitted at the same time such claim is submitted (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section), the amount of money or the value of property or services demanded or requested in violation of § 13.3(a) does not exceed $1,000,000.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, a related group of claims submitted at the same time shall include only those claims arising from the same transaction (e.g., grant, loan, application, or contract) that are submitted simultaneously as part of a single request, demand, or submission.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the reviewing official's authority to join in a single complaint against a person claims that are unrelated or were not submitted simultaneously, regardless of the amount of money, or the value of property or services, demanded or requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991; 56 FR 49945, Oct. 2, 1991, as amended at 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.7   Complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On or after the date the Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), the reviewing official may serve a complaint on the defendant, as provided in § 13.8.
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint shall state—
</P>
<P>(1) The allegations of liability against the defendant, including the statutory basis for liability, an identification of the claims or statements that are the basis for the alleged liability, and the reasons why liability allegedly arises from such claims or statements;
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum amount of penalties and assessments for which the defendant may be held liable;
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions for filing an answer to request a hearing, including a specific statement of the defendant's right to request a hearing by filing an answer and to be represented by a representative; and
</P>
<P>(4) That failure to file an answer within 30 days of service of the complaint will result in the imposition of the maximum amount of penalties and assessments without right to appeal, as provided in § 13.10.
</P>
<P>(c) At the same time the reviewing official serves the complaint, he or she shall serve the defendant with a copy of these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.8   Service of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of a complaint must be made by certified or registered mail or by delivery in any manner authorized by Rule 4(d) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. Service is complete upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom the complaint was served, and the manner and date of service, may be made by—
</P>
<P>(1) Affidavit of the individual serving the complaint by delivery;
</P>
<P>(2) A United States Postal Service return receipt card acknowledging receipt; or
</P>
<P>(3) Written acknowledgment of receipt by the defendant or his or her representative.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991, as amended at 71 FR 15007, Mar. 27, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.9   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The defendant may request a hearing by filing an answer with the reviewing official within thirty (30) days of service of the complaint. Service of an answer shall be made by electronically delivering a copy to the reviewing official in accordance with § 13.26. An answer shall be deemed a request for hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) In the answer, the defendant—
</P>
<P>(1) Shall admit or deny each of the allegations of liability made in the complaint;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall state any defense on which the defendant intends to rely;
</P>
<P>(3) May state any reasons why the defendant contends that the penalties and assessments should be less than the statutory maximum; and
</P>
<P>(4) Shall state the name, address, and telephone number of the person authorized by the defendant to act as defendant's representative, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant is unable to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section within the time provided, the defendant may, before the expiration of 30 days from service of the complaint, file with the reviewing official a general answer denying liability and requesting a hearing, and a request for an extension of time within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. The reviewing official shall file promptly with the ALJ the complaint, the general answer denying liability, and the request for an extension of time as provided in § 13.11. For good cause shown, the ALJ may grant the defendant up to 30 additional days within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991; 56 FR 64839, Dec. 12, 1991; 72 FR 49152, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.10   Default upon failure to file an answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the defendant does not file an answer within the time prescribed in § 13.9(a), the reviewing official may refer the complaint to the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the referral of the complaint, the ALJ shall promptly serve on defendant in the manner prescribed in § 13.8 a notice that an initial decision will be issued under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall assume the facts alleged in the complaint to be true, and, if such facts establish liability under § 13.3, the ALJ shall issue an initial decision imposing the maximum amount of penalties and assessments allowed under the statute.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as otherwise provided in this section, by failing to file a timely answer, the defendant waives any right to further review of the penalties and assessments imposed under paragraph (c) of this section and the initial decision shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after it is issued.
</P>
<P>(e) If, before such an initial decision becomes final, the defendant files a motion with the ALJ seeking to reopen on the grounds that extraordinary circumstances prevented the defendant from filing an answer, the initial decision shall be stayed pending the ALJ's decision on the motion.
</P>
<P>(f) If, on such motion, the defendant can demonstrate extraordinary circumstances excusing the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ shall withdraw the initial decision in paragraph (c) of this section if such a decision has been issued, and shall grant the defendant an opportunity to answer the complaint.
</P>
<P>(g) A decision of the ALJ denying a defendant's motion under paragraph (e) of this section is not subject to reconsideration under § 13.38.
</P>
<P>(h) The defendant may appeal to the authority head the decision denying a motion to reopen by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head within 15 days after the ALJ denies the motion. The timely filing of a notice of appeal shall stay the initial decision until the authority head decides the issue.
</P>
<P>(i) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head, the ALJ shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head.
</P>
<P>(j) The authority head shall decide expeditiously whether extraordinary circumstances excuse the defendant's failure to file a timely answer based solely on the record before the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(k) If the authority head decides that extraordinary circumstances excused the defendant's failure to file a timely answer, the authority head shall remand the case to the ALJ with instructions to grant the defendant an opportunity to answer.
</P>
<P>(l) If the authority head decides that the defendant's failure to file a timely answer is not excused, the authority head shall reinstate the initial decision of the ALJ, which shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after the authority head issues such decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.11   Referral of complaint and answer to the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an answer, the reviewing official shall file the complaint and answer with the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.12   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the ALJ receives the complaint and answer, the ALJ shall promptly serve a notice of hearing upon the defendant in the manner prescribed by § 13.8. At the same time, the ALJ shall send a copy of such notice to the representative of the authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) The tentative time and place, and the nature of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law to be asserted;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the procedures for the conduct of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(5) The name, address, and telephone number of the representative of the authority and of the defendant, if any; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other matters as the ALJ deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.13   Parties to the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties to the hearing shall be the defendant and the authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3730(c)(5), a private plaintiff under the False Claims Act may participate in these proceedings to the extent authorized by the provisions of that Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.14   Separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigating official, the reviewing official, and any employee or agent of the authority who takes part in investigating, preparing, or presenting a particular case may not, in such case or a factually related case—
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in the hearing as the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(2) Participate or advise in the initial decision or the review of the initial decision by the authority head, except as a witness or a representative in public proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(3) Make the collection of penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ shall not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision or direction of, the investigating official or the reviewing official.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the representative for the Government may be employed anywhere in the authority, including in the offices of either the investigating official or the reviewing official.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991; 56 FR 64839, Dec. 12, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.15   Ex parte contacts.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) shall communicate in any way with the ALJ on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.16" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.16   Disqualification of reviewing official or ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A reviewing official or ALJ in a particular case may disqualify himself or herself at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may file with the ALJ a motion for disqualification of a reviewing official or an ALJ. Such motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit alleging personal bias or other reason for disqualification.
</P>
<P>(c) Such motion and affidavit shall be filed promptly upon the party's discovery of reasons requiring disqualification, or such objections, shall be deemed waived.
</P>
<P>(d) Such affidavit shall state specific facts that support the party's belief that personal bias or other reason for disqualification exists and the time and circumstances of the party's discovery of such facts. It shall be accompanied by a certificate of the representative of record that it is made in good faith.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon the filing of such a motion and affidavit, the ALJ shall proceed no further in the case until he or she resolves the matter of disqualification in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) If the ALJ determines that a reviewing official is disqualified, the ALJ shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ disqualifies himself or herself, the case shall be reassigned promptly to another ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) If the ALJ denies a motion to disqualify, the authority head may determine the matter only as part of its review of the initial decision upon appeal, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.17   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise limited by this part, all parties may—
</P>
<P>(a) Be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative;
</P>
<P>(b) Participate in any conference held by the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct discovery;
</P>
<P>(d) Agree to stipulation of fact or law, which shall be made part of the record;
</P>
<P>(e) Present evidence relevant to the issues at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(f) Present and cross-examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(g) Present oral arguments at the hearing as permitted by the ALJ; and
</P>
<P>(h) Submit written briefs and proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law after the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.18" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.18   Authority of the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ has the authority to—
</P>
<P>(1) Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(3) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(5) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents at depositions or at hearings;
</P>
<P>(6) Rule on motions and other procedural matters;
</P>
<P>(7) Regulate the scope and timing of discovery;
</P>
<P>(8) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties;
</P>
<P>(9) Examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(10) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence;
</P>
<P>(11) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts;
</P>
<P>(12) Upon motion of a party, decide cases, in whole or in part, by summary judgment where there is no disputed issue of material fact;
</P>
<P>(13) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing on motions in person or by telephone; and
</P>
<P>(14) Exercise such other authority as is necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the ALJ under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ does not have the authority to find Federal statutes or regulations invalid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.19   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may schedule prehearing conferences as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the motion of any party, the ALJ shall schedule at least one prehearing conference at a reasonable time in advance of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ may use prehearing conferences to discuss the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amendments to the pleadings, including the need for a more definite statement;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations and admissions of fact or as to the contents and authenticity of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether a party chooses to waive appearance at an oral hearing and to submit only documentary evidence (subject to the objection of other parties) and written argument;
</P>
<P>(6) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(7) Scheduling dates for the exchange of witness lists and of proposed exhibits;
</P>
<P>(8) Discovery;
</P>
<P>(9) The time and place for the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(10) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the fair and just disposition of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may issue an order containing all matters agreed upon by the parties or ordered by the ALJ at a prehearing conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.20   Disclosure of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant may review any relevant and material documents, transcripts, records, and other materials that relate to the allegations set out in the complaint and upon which the findings and conclusions of the investigating official under § 13.4(b) are based, unless such documents are subject to a privilege under Federal law. Upon payment of fees for duplication, the defendant may obtain copies of such documents.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant also may obtain a copy of all exculpatory information in the possession of the reviewing official or investigating official relating to the allegations in the complaint, even if it is contained in a document that would otherwise be privileged. If the document would otherwise be privileged, only that portion containing exculpatory information must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice sent to the Attorney General from the reviewing official as described in § 13.5 is not discoverable under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) The defendant may file a motion to compel disclosure of the documents subject to the provisions of this section. Such a motion may only be filed with the ALJ following the filing of an answer pursuant to § 13.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.21   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following types of discovery are authorized:
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for production of documents for inspection and copying;
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for admissions of the authenticity of any relevant document or of the truth of any relevant fact;
</P>
<P>(3) Written interrogatories; and
</P>
<P>(4) Depositions.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section and §§ 13.22 and 13.23, the term “documents” includes information, documents, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data and documentary evidence. Nothing contained herein shall be interpreted to require the creation of a document.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless mutually agreed to by the parties, discovery is available only as ordered by the ALJ. The ALJ shall regulate the timing of discovery.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions for discovery.</I> (1) A party seeking discovery may file a motion with the ALJ. Such a motion shall be accompanied by a copy of the requested discovery, or in the case of depositions, a summary of the scope of the proposed deposition.
</P>
<P>(2) Within ten days of service, a party may file an opposition to the motion and/or a motion for protective order as provided in § 13.24.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ may grant a motion for discovery only if he or she finds that the discovery sought—
</P>
<P>(i) Is necessary for the expeditious, fair, and reasonable consideration of the issues;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not unduly costly or burdensome;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will not unduly delay the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not seek privileged information.
</P>
<P>(4) The burden of showing that discovery should be allowed is on the party seeking discovery.
</P>
<P>(5) The ALJ may grant discovery subject to a protective order under § 13.24.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depositions.</I> (1) If a motion for deposition is granted, the ALJ shall issue a subpoena for the deponent, which may require the deponent to produce documents. The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the deposition will be held.
</P>
<P>(2) The party seeking to depose shall serve the subpoena in the manner prescribed in § 13.8.
</P>
<P>(3) The deponent may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena or a motion for a protective order within ten days of service.
</P>
<P>(4) The party seeking to depose shall provide for the taking of a verbatim transcript of the deposition, which it shall make available to all other parties for inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(f) Each party shall bear its own costs of discovery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.22   Exchange of witness lists, statements, and exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 15 days before the hearing or at such other times as may be ordered by the ALJ, the parties shall exchange witness lists, copies of prior statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including copies of any written statements that the party intends to offer in lieu of live testimony in accordance with § 13.33(b). At the time the above documents are exchanged, any party that intends to rely on the transcript of deposition testimony in lieu of live testimony at the hearing, if permitted by the ALJ, shall provide each party with a copy of the specific pages of the transcript it intends to introduce into evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) If a party objects, the ALJ shall not admit into evidence the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list or any exhibit not provided to the opposing party as provided above unless the ALJ finds good cause for the failure or that there in no prejudice to the objecting party.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless another party objects within the time set by the ALJ, documents exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed to be authentic for the purpose of admissibility at the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.23   Subpoenas for attendance at hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party wishing to procure the appearance and testimony of any individual at the hearing may request that the ALJ issue a subpoena.
</P>
<P>(b) A subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of an individual may also require the individual to produce documents at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) A party seeking a subpoena shall file a written request therefor not less than 15 days before the date fixed for the hearing unless otherwise allowed by the ALJ for good cause shown. Such request shall specify any documents to be produced and shall designate the witnesses and describe the address and location thereof with sufficient particularity to permit such witnesses to be found.
</P>
<P>(d) The subpoena shall specify the time and place at which the witness is to appear and any documents the witness is to produce.
</P>
<P>(e) The party seeking the subpoena shall serve it in the manner prescribed in § 13.8. A subpoena on a party or upon an individual under the control of a party may be served by first class mail.
</P>
<P>(f) A party or the individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena within ten days after service or on or before the time specified in the subpoena for compliance if it is less than ten days after service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.24" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.24   Protective order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party or a prospective witness or deponent may file a motion for a protective order with respect to discovery sought by an opposing party or with respect to the hearing, seeking to limit the availability or disclosure of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) In issuing a protective order, the ALJ may make any order which justice requires to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense, including one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) That the discovery not be had;
</P>
<P>(2) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place;
</P>
<P>(3) That the discovery may be had only through a method of discovery other than that requested;
</P>
<P>(4) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters;
</P>
<P>(5) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(6) That the contents of discovery or evidence by sealed;
</P>
<P>(7) That a deposition after being sealed be opened only by order of the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(8) That a trade secret or other confidential research, development, commercial information, or facts pertaining to any criminal investigation, proceeding, or other administrative investigation not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or
</P>
<P>(9) That the parties simultaneously file specified documents or information enclosed in sealed envelopes to be opened as directed by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.25   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>The party requesting a subpoena shall pay the cost of the fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage shall accompany the subpoena when served, except that when a subpoena is issued on behalf of the authority, a check for witness fees and mileage need not accompany the subpoena.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.26   Filing and service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> (1) Unless otherwise provided by order, all filings must be made as electronic submissions in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions may be found in the E-Filing Guidance and on the NRC Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html.</I> If a filing contains sections of information or electronic formats that may not be transmitted electronically for security or other reasons, portions not containing those sections will be transmitted electronically to the E-Filing system. In addition, optical storage media (OSM) containing the entire filing must be physically delivered or mailed. In such cases, the submitter does not need to apply to the Commission for an exemption to deviate from the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Electronic transmission exemption. The ALJ may relieve a participant who is filing electronic documents of the transmission requirements in paragraph (a) of this section. Such a participant will file electronic documents by physically delivering or mailing an OSM containing the documents. The electronic formatting requirement in paragraph (a) of this section must be met.
</P>
<P>(3) Electronic document exemption. The ALJ may relieve a participant of both the electronic (computer file) formatting and transmission requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Such a participant will file paper documents physically or by mail to the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff. Filing by mail is complete upon deposit in the mail.
</P>
<P>(4) Requesting an exemption. A participant seeking an exemption under paragraphs (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section must submit the exemption request with its first filing in the proceeding. In the request, the requestor must show good cause as to why it cannot file electronically. The filer may not change its formats and delivery methods for filing until a ruling on the exemption request is issued. Exemption requests submitted after the first filing in the proceeding will be granted only if the requestor shows that the interests of fairness so require.
</P>
<P>(5) Every pleading and document filed in the proceeding shall contain a caption setting forth the title of the action, the case number assigned by the presiding officer, and a designation of the document (e.g., motion to quash subpoena).
</P>
<P>(6) Filing is complete when the filer performs the last act that it must perform to submit a document, such as hitting the send/submit/transmit button for an electronic transmission or depositing the document, in its entirety, in a mailbox.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signatures.</I> The original of each document must be signed by the participant or its authorized representative, or by an attorney having authority with respect to it. The document must state the capacity of the person signing; his or her address, phone number, and e-mail address; and the date of signature. The signature of a person signing a pleading or other similar document submitted by a participant is a representation that the document has been subscribed in the capacity specified with full authority, that he or she has read it and knows the contents, that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief the statements made in it are true, and that it is not interposed for delay. The signature of a person signing an affidavit or similar document, which should be submitted in accord with the form outlined in 28 U.S.C. 1746, is a representation that, under penalty of perjury, the document is true and correct to the best of that individual's knowledge and belief. If a document is not signed, or is signed with intent to defeat the purpose of this section, it may be struck.
</P>
<P>(1) An electronic document must be signed using a participant's or a participant representative's digital ID certificate. Additional signatures can be added to the electronic document, including to any affidavits that accompany the document, by a typed-in designation that indicates the signer understands and acknowledges that he or she is assenting to the representations in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) When signing an electronic document using a digital ID certificate, the signature page for the electronic document should contain a typed signature block that includes the phrase “Signed (electronically) by” typed onto the signature line; the name and the capacity of the person signing; the person's address, phone number, and e-mail address; and the date of signature.
</P>
<P>(ii) If additional individuals need to sign an electronic document, including any affidavits that accompany the document, these individuals must sign by inserting a typed signature block in the electronic document that includes the phrase “Executed in Accord with 10 CFR 2.304(d)” or its equivalent typed on the signature line as well as the name and the capacity of the person signing; the person's address, phone number, and e-mail address; and the date of signature to the extent any of these items are different from the information provided for the digital ID certificate signer.
</P>
<P>(2) Paper documents must be signed in ink.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service.</I> A participant filing a document with the ALJ shall at the time of filing, serve a copy of such document on every other participant. Service upon any participant of any document other than those required to be served as prescribed in § 13.8 shall be made electronically to the E-Filing system. When a participant is represented by a representative, service shall be made upon such representative in lieu of the actual participant. Upon an order from the ALJ permitting alternative filing methods under paragraphs (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section, service may be made by physical delivery or mail. As to each participant that cannot serve electronically, the ALJ shall require service by the most expeditious means permitted under this paragraph that are available to the participant, unless the ALJ finds that this requirement would impose undue burden or expense on the participant.
</P>
<P>(1) Unless otherwise provided in this paragraph, a participant will serve documents on the other participants by the same method that those participants filed.
</P>
<P>(2) A participant granted an exemption under paragraph (a)(2) of this section will serve the participants in the proceeding that filed electronically by physically delivering or mailing an OSM containing the electronic document.
</P>
<P>(3) A participant granted an exemption under paragraph (a)(3) will serve the other participants in the proceeding by physically delivering or mailing a paper copy.
</P>
<P>(4) A certificate of service stating the names and addresses of the persons served as well as the method and date of service must accompany any paper served upon participants to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(5) Proof of service, which states the name and address of the person served as well as the method and date of service, may be made as required by law, by rule, or by order of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49152, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.27   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time under this part or in an order issued thereunder, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default, and includes the last day of the period, unless it is a Saturday or Sunday, a Federal legal holiday at the place where the action or event is to occur, or a day on which, because of emergency closure of the federal government in Washington, DC, NRC Headquarters does not open for business, in which event it includes the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, holiday or emergency closure.
</P>
<P>(b) When the period of time allowed is less than seven (7) days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, Federal legal holidays, and emergency closures shall be excluded from the computation.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever an action is required within a prescribed period by a document served pursuant to § 13.26, no additional time is added to the prescribed period except in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) If a notice or document is served upon a participant, by first-class mail only, three (3) calendar days will be added to the prescribed period for all the participants in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If a notice or document is served upon a participant, by express mail or other expedited service only, two (2) calendar days will be added to the prescribed period for all the participants in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) If a document is to be served by multiple service methods, such as partially electronic and entirely on an OSM, the additional number of days is computed according to the service method used to deliver the entire document, excluding courtesy copies, to all of the other participants in the proceeding. The presiding officer may determine the calculation of additional days when a participant is not entitled to receive an entire filing served by multiple methods.
</P>
<P>(4) In mixed service proceedings where all participants are not using the same filing and service method, the number of days for service will be determined by the presiding officer based on considerations of fairness and efficiency. The same number of additional days will be added to the prescribed period for all the participants in the proceeding with the number of days being determined by the slowest method of service being used in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) To be considered timely, a document must be served:
</P>
<P>(1) By 5 p.m. Eastern Time for a document served in person or by expedited service; and
</P>
<P>(2) By 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time for a document served by the E-Filing system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49153, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.28" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.28   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application to the ALJ for an order or ruling shall be by motion. Motions shall state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged, and shall be filed with the ALJ and served on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions shall be in writing. The ALJ may require that oral motions be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 days after a written motion is served, or such other time as may be fixed by the ALJ, any party may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses thereto has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ shall make a reasonable effort to dispose of all outstanding motions prior to the beginning of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.29   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may sanction a person, including any party or representative for—
</P>
<P>(1) Failing to comply with an order, rule, or procedure governing the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Failing to prosecute or defend an action; or
</P>
<P>(3) Engaging in other misconduct that interferes with the speedy, orderly, or fair conduct of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such sanction, including but not limited to those listed in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, shall reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct.
</P>
<P>(c) When a party fails to comply with an order, including an order for taking a deposition, the production of evidence within the party's control, or a request for admission, the ALJ may—
</P>
<P>(1) Draw an inference in favor of the requesting party with regard to the information sought;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of requests for admission, deem each matter of which an admission is requested to be admitted;
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibit the party failing to comply with such order from introducing evidence concerning, or otherwise relying upon testimony relating to the information sought; and
</P>
<P>(4) Strike any part of the pleadings or other submissions of the party failing to comply with such request.
</P>
<P>(d) If a party fails to prosecute or defend an action under this part commenced by service of a notice of hearing, the ALJ may dismiss the action or may issue an initial decision imposing penalties and assessments.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may refuse to consider any motion, request, response, brief or other document which is not filed in a timely fashion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.30" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.30   The hearing and burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall conduct a hearing on the record in order to determine whether the defendant is liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 13.3 and, if so, the appropriate amount of any such civil penalty or assessment considering any aggravating or mitigating factors.
</P>
<P>(b) The authority shall prove defendant's liability and any aggravating factors by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The defendant shall prove any affirmative defenses and any mitigating factors by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.31   Determining the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining an appropriate amount of civil penalties and assessments, the ALJ and the authority head, upon appeal, should evaluate any circumstances that mitigate or aggravate the violation and should articulate in their opinions the reasons that support the penalties and assessments they impose. Because of the intangible costs of fraud, the expense of investigating such conduct, and the need to deter others who might be similarly tempted, ordinarily double damages and a significant civil penalty should be imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) Although not exhaustive, the following factors are among those that may influence the ALJ and the authority head in determining the amount of penalties and assessments to impose with respect to the misconduct (<I>i.e.,</I> the false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements) charged in the complaint:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements;
</P>
<P>(2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made;
</P>
<P>(3) The degree of the defendant's culpability with respect to the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed;
</P>
<P>(5) The value of the Government's actual loss as a result of the misconduct, including foreseeable consequential damages and the costs of investigation;
</P>
<P>(6) The relationship of the amount imposed as civil penalties to the amount of the Government's loss;
</P>
<P>(7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon national defense, public health or safety, or public confidence in the management of Government programs and operations, including particularly the impact on the intended beneficiaries of such programs;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the defendant has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the defendant attempted to conceal the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(10) The degree to which the defendant has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it;
</P>
<P>(11) Where the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the defendant, the extent to which the defendant's practices fostered or attempted to preclude such misconduct;
</P>
<P>(12) Whether the defendant cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the defendant assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers;
</P>
<P>(14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the defendant's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the defendant's prior participation in the program or in similar transactions;
</P>
<P>(15) Whether the defendant has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the Government of the United States or of a State, directly or indirectly; and
</P>
<P>(16) The need to deter the defendant and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the ALJ or the authority head from considering any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the offense for which penalties and assessments are imposed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.32   Location of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing may be held—
</P>
<P>(1) In any judicial district of the United States in which the defendant resides or transacts business;
</P>
<P>(2) In any judicial district of the United States in which the claim or statement in issue was made; or
</P>
<P>(3) In such other place as may be agreed upon by the defendant and the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Each party shall have the opportunity to present argument with respect to the location of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing shall be held at the place and at the time ordered by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.33   Witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, testimony at the hearing shall be given orally by witnesses under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(b) At the discretion of the ALJ, testimony may be admitted in the form of a written statement or deposition. Any such written statement must be provided to all other parties along with the last known address of such witness, in a manner which allows sufficient time for other parties to subpoena such witness for cross-examination at the hearing. Prior written statements of witnesses proposed to testify at the hearing and deposition transcripts shall be exchanged as provided in § 13.22(a).
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to—
</P>
<P>(1) Make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth;
</P>
<P>(2) Avoid needless consumption of time; and
</P>
<P>(3) Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ shall permit the parties to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(e) At the discretion of the ALJ, a witness may be cross-examined on matters relevant to the proceeding without regard to the scope of his or her direct examination. To the extent permitted by the ALJ, cross-examination on matters outside the scope of direct examination shall be conducted in the manner of direct examination and may proceed by leading questions only if the witness is a hostile witness, an adverse party, or a witness identified with an adverse party.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon motion of any party, the ALJ shall order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of other witnesses. This rule does not authorize exclusion of—
</P>
<P>(1) A party who is an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a party that is not an individual, an officer or employee of the party appearing for the entity pro se or designated by the party's representative; or
</P>
<P>(3) An individual whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of its case, including an individual employed by the Government engaged in assisting the representative for the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.34" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.34   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall determine the admissibility of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in this part, the ALJ shall not be bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the ALJ may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence where appropriate, e.g., to exclude unreliable evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall exclude irrelevant and immaterial evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by considerations of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if it is privileged under Federal law.
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence concerning offers of compromise or settlement shall be inadmissible to the extent provided in Rule 408 of the Federal Rules of Evidence.
</P>
<P>(g) The ALJ shall permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence.
</P>
<P>(h) All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by all parties, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 13.24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.35   The record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing will be recorded and transcribed. Transcripts may be obtained following the hearing from the ALJ at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of duplication.
</P>
<P>(b) The transcript of testimony, exhibits and other evidence admitted at the hearing, and all papers and requests filed in the proceeding constitute the record for the decision by the ALJ and the authority head.
</P>
<P>(c) The record may be inspected and copied (upon payment of a reasonable fee) by anyone, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 13.24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.36" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.36   Post-hearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may require the parties to file post-hearing briefs. In any event, any party may file a post-hearing brief. The ALJ shall fix the time for filing such briefs, not to exceed 60 days from the date the parties receive the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ may permit the parties to file reply briefs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.37   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall issue an initial decision based only on the record, which shall contain findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the amount of any penalties and assessments imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings of fact shall include a finding on each of the following issues:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the claims or statements identified in the complaint, or any portions thereof, violate § 13.3; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the person is liable for penalties or assessments, the appropriate amount of any such penalties or assessments considering any mitigating or aggravating factors that he or she finds in the case, such as those described in § 13.31.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall promptly serve the initial decision on all parties within 90 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs (if permitted) has expired. The ALJ shall at the same time serve all parties with a statement describing the right of any defendant determined to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment to file a motion for reconsideration with the ALJ or a notice of appeal with the authority head. If the ALJ fails to meet the deadline contained in this paragraph, he or she shall notify the parties of the reason for the delay and shall set a new deadline.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the initial decision of the ALJ is timely appealed to the authority head, or a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision is timely filed, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.38" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.38   Reconsideration of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, any party may file a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision within 20 days of receipt of the initial decision. If service was made by mail, receipt will be presumed to be five days from the date of mailing in the absence of contrary proof.
</P>
<P>(b) Every such motion must set forth the matters claimed to have been erroneously decided and the nature of the alleged errors. Such motion shall be accompanied by a supporting brief.
</P>
<P>(c) Responses to such motions shall be allowed only upon request of the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(d) No party may file a motion for reconsideration of an initial decision that has been revised in response to a previous motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may dispose of a motion for reconsideration by denying it or by issuing a revised initial decision.
</P>
<P>(f) If the ALJ denies a motion for reconsideration, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion, unless the initial decision is timely appealed to the authority head in accordance with § 13.39.
</P>
<P>(g) If the ALJ issues a revised initial decision, that decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued, unless it is timely appealed to the authority head in accordance with § 13.39.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.39   Appeal to authority head.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any defendant who has filed a timely answer and who is determined in an initial decision to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment may appeal such decision to the authority head by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A notice of appeal may be filed at any time within 30 days after the ALJ issues an initial decision. However, if another party files a motion for reconsideration under § 13.38, consideration of the appeal shall be stayed automatically pending resolution of the motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) If a motion for reconsideration is timely filed, a notice of appeal may be filed within 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion or issues a revised initial decision, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(3) The authority head may extend the initial 30 day period for an additional 30 days if the defendant files with the authority head a request for an extension within the initial 30 day period and shows good cause.
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head and the time for filing motions for reconsideration under § 13.38 has expired, the ALJ shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head.
</P>
<P>(d) A notice of appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief specifying exceptions to the initial decision and reasons supporting the exceptions.
</P>
<P>(e) The representative for the Government may file a brief in opposition to exceptions within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief.
</P>
<P>(f) There is no right to appear personally before the authority head.
</P>
<P>(g) There is no right to appeal any interlocutory ruling by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(h) In reviewing the initial decision, the authority head shall not consider any objection that was not raised before the ALJ unless a demonstration is made of extraordinary circumstances causing the failure to raise the objection.
</P>
<P>(i) If any party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the authority head that additional evidence not presented at each hearing is material and that there were reasonable grounds for the failure to present such evidence at such hearing, the authority head shall remand the matter to the ALJ for consideration of such additional evidence.
</P>
<P>(j) The authority head may affirm, reduce, reverse, compromise, remand, or settle any penalty or assessment, determined by the ALJ in any initial decision.
</P>
<P>(k) The authority head shall promptly serve each party to the appeal with a copy of the decision of the authority head and a statement describing the right of any person determined to be liable for a penalty or assessment to seek judicial review.
</P>
<P>(l) Unless a petition for review is filed as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3805 after a defendant has exhausted all administrative remedies under this part and within 60 days after the date on which the authority head serves the defendant with a copy of the authority head's decision, a determination that a defendant is liable under § 13.3 is final and is not subject to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.40" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.40   Stays ordered by the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>If at any time the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General transmits to the authority head a written finding that continuation of the administrative process described in this part with respect to a claim or statement may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to such claim or statement, the authority head shall stay the process immediately. The authority head may order the process resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.41   Stay pending appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An initial decision is stayed automatically pending disposition of a motion for reconsideration or of an appeal to the authority head.
</P>
<P>(b) No administrative stay is available following a final decision of the authority head.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.42" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.42   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3805 of title 31, United States Code, authorizes judicial review by an appropriate United States District Court of a final decision of the authority head imposing penalties or assessments under this part and specifies the procedures for such review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.43   Collection of civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 3806 and 3808(b) of title 31, United States Code, authorize actions for collection of civil penalties and assessments imposed under this part and specify the procedures for such actions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.44" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.44   Right to administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of any penalty or assessment which has become final, or for which a judgment has been entered under § 13.42 or § 13.43, or any amount agreed upon in a compromise or settlement under § 13.46, may be collected by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, except that an administrative offset may not be made under this subsection against a refund of an overpayment of Federal taxes, then or later owing by the United States to the defendant.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.45   Recovery of Costs and Deposit in Treasury of United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any amount collected under this part shall be credited first to reimburse the authority or other Federal entity that expended costs in support of the investigation or prosecution of the action, including any court or hearing costs.
</P>
<P>(b) Any amount reimbursed under paragraph (a) of this section shall be deposited in the appropriations account of the authority or other Federal entity from which the costs described in paragraph (a) of this section were obligated, a similar appropriations account of the authority or other Federal entity; or if the authority or other Federal entity expended nonappropriated funds, another appropriate account; and remain available until expended.
</P>
<P>(c) Any amounts remaining after reimbursements described in paragraph (a) of this section pursuant to this part shall be deposited as miscellaneous receipts in the Treasury of the United States, except as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3806(g).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.46" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.46   Compromise or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Parties may make offers of compromise or settlement at any time.


</P>
<P>(b) The reviewing official has the exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the reviewing official is permitted to issue a complaint and before the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision. Before compromising or settling a case under this part, a reviewing official shall notify the Attorney General in writing not later than 30 days before entering into any agreement to compromise or settle allegations of liability under this part and before the date on which the reviewing official is permitted to refer allegations of liability to a presiding officer.












</P>
<P>(c) The authority head has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision, except during the pendency of any review under § 13.42 or during the pendency of any action to collect penalties and assessments under § 13.43.
</P>
<P>(d) The Attorney General has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part during the pendency of any review under § 13.42 or of any action to recover penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806.
</P>
<P>(e) The investigating officer may recommend settlement terms to the reviewing official, the authority head, or the Attorney General, as appropriate. The reviewing official may recommend settlement terms to the authority head, or the Attorney General, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) Any compromise or settlement must be in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991, as amended at 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.11.0.76.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.47   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice to the person alleged to be liable under this part with respect to a claim or statement shall be served in the manner specified in § 13.8 not later than the later of:
</P>
<P>(1) 6 years after the date on which the violation is committed; or
</P>
<P>(2) 3 years after the date on which facts material to the action are known or reasonably should have been known by the authority head, but in no event more than 10 years after the date on which the violation is committed.
</P>
<P>(b) A civil action to recover a penalty or assessment under this part shall be commenced within 3 years after the date on which the determination of liability for such penalty or assessment becomes final.


</P>
<P>(c) The statute of limitations may be extended by agreement of the parties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 47135, Sept. 18, 1991, as amended at 90 FR 33266, July 17, 2025]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 14—ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS UNDER FEDERAL TORT CLAIMS ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>28 U.S.C. 2672, 2679; Atomic Energy Act of 1954, sec. 161 (42 U.S.C. 2201); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 28 CFR 14.11.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 8983, Mar. 3, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.1.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.1   Scope of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms “Nuclear Regulatory Commission” and “NRC” as used in this part mean the agency established by section 201(a) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, but do not include any contractor with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part supplement the Department of Justice's regulations in 28 CFR parts 14 and 15.
</P>
<P>(c) These regulations apply to administrative claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act, as amended, asserted on or after the effective date of this rule, for money damages against the United States for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or death caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of any employee of the NRC while acting within the scope of his or her office or employment, under circumstances where the United States, if a private person, would be liable to the claimant in accordance with the law of the place where the act or omission occurred.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 54227, Nov. 26, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.1.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Filing Procedures and Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.11   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.15   Where to present a claim to NRC.</HEAD>
<P>A claimant shall mail or deliver the claim to the office of employment of the NRC employee whose negligent or wrongful act or omission is alleged to have caused the loss or injury. If the office of employment is not known, the claimant shall file the claim with the Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 8983, Mar. 3, 1982, as amended at 51 FR 35999, Oct. 8, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.17   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.21   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.23   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.25   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.2.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.27   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Commission Action and Authority</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.3.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.31   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.3.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.33   Officials authorized to act.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel or the General Counsel's designee shall exercise the authority to adjust, determine, compromise and settle a claim under the provisions of 28 U.S.C. 2672.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 35999, Oct. 8, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.3.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.35   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.3.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.37   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.3.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.39   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.3.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.41   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.3.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.43   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 15—DEBT COLLECTION PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 161, 186 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 2236); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 5 U.S.C. 5514; 26 U.S.C. 6402; 31 U.S.C. 3701, 3713, 3716, 3719, 3720A; 42 U.S.C. 664; 44 U.S.C. 3504 note; 31 CFR parts 900 through 904; 31 CFR part 285; E.O. 12146, 44 FR 42657, 3 CFR, 1979 Comp., p. 409; E.O. 12988, 61 FR 4729, 3 CFR, 1996 Comp., p. 157.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Application and Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.1   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to claims for the payment of debts owed to the United States Government in the form of money or property and; unless a different procedure is specified in a statute, regulation, or contract; prescribes procedures by which the NRC—
</P>
<P>(1) Collects, compromises, suspends, offsets, and terminates collection action for claims; 
</P>
<P>(2) Determines and collects interest and other charges on these claims; and
</P>
<P>(3) Refers unpaid claims over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for offset and collection and to the DOJ for litigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following are examples of kinds of debts to which special statutory and administrative procedures apply:
</P>
<P>(1) A claim against an employee for erroneous payment of pay and allowances subject to waiver under 5 U.S.C. 5584 are covered by the provisions of 10 CFR part 16.
</P>
<P>(2) A claim against an applicant for, or a holder or former holder of, an NRC license involving the payment of civil penalties imposed by the NRC under 10 CFR 2.205.
</P>
<P>(3) A claim involved in a case pending before any Federal Contract Appeals Board or Grant Appeals Board. However, nothing in this part prevents negotiation and settlement of a claim pending before a Board.
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC is not limited to collection remedies contained in the revised Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS). The FCCS is not intended to impair common law remedies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 55 FR 32377, Aug. 9, 1990; 56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991; 67 FR 30318, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding money payable by the United States Government to, or held by the Government for, a person to satisfy a debt the person owes the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative wage garnishment</I> is the process of withholding amounts from an employee's disposable pay and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order. 
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> and <I>debt</I> are used synonymously to refer to an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by an agency official to be owed to the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency. For the purposes of administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, the terms <I>claim</I> and <I>debt</I> include an amount of money, funds, or property owed by a person to a State (including past-due support being enforced by a State), the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P><I>Cross-servicing</I> means that the Treasury or another debt collection center is taking appropriate debt collection action on behalf of one or more Federal agencies or a unit or subagency thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent.</I> A debt is considered delinquent if it has not been paid by the date specified in the initial written demand for payment or applicable contractual agreement with the NRC unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made by that date. If the debtor fails to satisfy obligations under a payment agreement with the NRC after other payment arrangements have been made, the debt becomes a delinquent debt.
</P>
<P><I>Federal agencies</I> include agencies of the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the Government, including Government corporations. 
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means any license, permit, or other approval issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Payment in full</I> means payment of the total debt due the United States, including any interest, penalty, and administrative costs of collection assessed against the debtor.
</P>
<P><I>Recoupment</I> is a special method for adjusting debts arising under the same transaction or occurrence. For example, obligations arising under the same contract generally are subject to recoupment. 
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his/her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Tax refund offset</I> means withholding or reducing a tax refund payment by an amount necessary to satisfy a debt owed by the payee(s) of a tax refund payment. 
</P>
<P><I>Treasury</I> as used in 10 CFR part 15 means the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P><I>Withholding order</I> means any order for withholding or garnishment of pay issued by an agency, or judicial or administrative body.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32377, Aug. 9, 1990, as amended at 56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991; 67 FR 30318, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.3   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, communications concerning the regulations in this part may be addressed to the Secretary of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and sent either by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, ATTN: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, One White Flint North, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58801, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62680, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.5   Claims that are covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These procedures generally apply to any claim for payment of a debt which:
</P>
<P>(1) Results from activities of the NRC, including fees imposed under part 170 and part 171; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is referred to the NRC for collection.
</P>
<P>(b) These procedures do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) A claim based on a civil monetary penalty for violation of a licensing requirement unless § 2.205 of this chapter provides otherwise;
</P>
<P>(2) A claim as to which there is an indication of fraud, the presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any other party having an interest in the claim;
</P>
<P>(3) A claim based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws;
</P>
<P>(4) A claim under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986. 
</P>
<P>(5) A claim between Federal agencies. Federal agencies should attempt to resolve interagency claims as referenced in Executive Order 12146 (3 CFR, 1980 Comp., pp. 409-412). 
</P>
<P>(6) A claim once it becomes subject to salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514. These claims are subject to the provisions of 10 CFR part 16.
</P>
<P>(7) A claim involving bankruptcy is covered by Title 11 of the United States Code.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 55 FR 32377, Aug. 9, 1990; 56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991; 67 FR 30318, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.7   Monetary limitation on NRC's authority.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC's authority to compromise a claim, or to terminate or suspend collection action on a claim covered by these procedures, is limited by 31 U.S.C. 3711(a) to claims that—
</P>
<P>(a) Have not been referred to another Federal Agency for further collection actions; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Do not exceed $100,000 (exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative charges) or such higher amount as the Attorney General shall from time to time prescribe for purposes of compromise or suspension or termination of collection activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 55 FR 32378, Aug. 9, 1990; 67 FR 30318, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains no information collection requirements, and therefore, is not subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30319, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.9   No private rights created.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The failure of NRC to include in this part any provision of the FCCS, 31 CFR Chapter IX, parts 900-904, does not prevent the NRC from applying these provisions. 
</P>
<P>(b) A debtor may not use the failure of the NRC to comply with any provision of this part or of the Federal Claims Collections Standards as a defense.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 55 FR 32378, Aug. 9, 1990; 67 FR 30319, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.11   Form of payment.</HEAD>
<P>These procedures are directed primarily to the recovery of money on behalf of the Government. The NRC may demand:
</P>
<P>(a) The return of specific property; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The performance of specific services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 30319, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.1.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.13   Subdivision of claims.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC shall consider a debtor's liability arising from a particular transaction or contract as a single claim in determining whether the claim is less than the monetary limitation for the purpose of compromising or suspending or terminating collection action. A claim may not be subdivided to avoid the monetary limitation established by 31 U.S.C. 3711(a)(2) and § 15.7.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32378, Aug. 9, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Collection of Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.20   Aggressive agency collection activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC shall take aggressive action to collect all debts. These collection activities will be undertaken promptly and follow-up action will be taken as appropriate. These regulations do not require the Department of Justice, Department of the Treasury (Treasury), or any other Treasury-designated collection center to duplicate collection activities previously undertaken by NRC. 
</P>
<P>(b) Debt referred or transferred to Treasury or to a Treasury-designated debt collection center under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3711(g) must be serviced, collected, or compromised, or the collection action will be suspended or terminated, in accordance with the statutory requirements and authorities applicable to the collection of the debts. 
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC shall cooperate with other agencies in their debt collection activities. 
</P>
<P>(d) The NRC will consider referring debts that are less than 120 days delinquent to Treasury or to a Treasury-designated debt collection center to accomplish efficient, cost-effective debt collection. Referrals to debt collection centers are at the discretion of, and for a time period acceptable to, Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(e) The NRC shall transfer any debt that has been delinquent for 120 days or more to Treasury so that it may take appropriate action to collect the debt or terminate collection actions. This requirement does not apply to any debt that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Is in litigation or foreclosure; 
</P>
<P>(2) Will be disposed of under an approved asset sale program; 
</P>
<P>(3) Has been referred to a private collection contractor for a period of time acceptable to Treasury; 
</P>
<P>(4) Is at a debt collection center for a period of time acceptable to Treasury; 
</P>
<P>(5) Will be collected under internal offset procedures within 3 years after the date the debt first became delinquent; or 
</P>
<P>(6) Is exempt from this requirement based on a determination by Treasury that exemption for a certain class of debt is in the best interest of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(f) Agencies operating Treasury-designated debt collection centers are authorized to charge a fee for services rendered regarding referred or transferred debts. The fee may be paid out of amounts collected and may be added to the debt as an administrative cost.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30319, May 6, 2002, as amended at 79 FR 66602, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.21   Written demands for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC shall make appropriate written demands upon the debtor for payment of money or the return of specific property in terms which specify:
</P>
<P>(1) The basis of the indebtedness and the right of the debtor to seek review within the NRC;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount claimed;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any property which is to be returned by a date certain;
</P>
<P>(4) The date on which payment is to be made (which is normally the date the initial written demand letter statement was mailed or hand delivered, unless otherwise specified by contractual agreement, established by Federal statute or regulation, or agreed to under a payment agreement);
</P>
<P>(5) The applicable standards for assessing interest, penalties, and administrative costs under 31 CFR 901.9; 
</P>
<P>(6) The applicable policy for reporting the delinquent debt to consumer reporting agencies; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The name, address, and phone number of a contact person or office within the NRC will be included with each demand letter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC shall normally send two demand letters to debtors. The initial demand letter will be followed approximately 30 days later with a second demand letter, unless circumstances indicate that alternative remedies better protect the Government's interest, that the debtor has explicitly refused to pay, or that sending a further demand letter is futile. Depending upon the circumstances, the first and second demand letters may— 
</P>
<P>(1) Offer or seek to confer with the debtor;
</P>
<P>(2) State the amount of the interest and penalties that will be added on a daily basis as well as the administrative costs that will be added to the debt until the debt is paid; and
</P>
<P>(3) State that the authorized collection procedures include any procedure authorized in this part including:
</P>
<P>(i) Contacts with the debtor's employer when the debtor is employed by the Federal Government or is a member of the military establishment or the Coast Guard;
</P>
<P>(ii) The NRC may report debts to credit bureaus, refer debts to debt collection centers and collection agencies for cross-servicing (including wage garnishment), tax refund offset, administrative offset, and litigation. Any eligible debt that is delinquent for 180 days or more will be transferred to the Treasury for collection. Credit bureau reporting for transferred debts will be handled by Treasury or a Treasury-designated center. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Possible reporting of the delinquent debt to consumer reporting agencies in accordance with the guidance and standards contained in 31 CFR 901.4. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The suspension or revocation of a license or other remedy under § 15.29;
</P>
<P>(v) Installment payments possibly requiring security; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The right to refer the claim to DOJ for litigation. 
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC shall normally send only one written demand to a debtor who is a current NRC employee. The procedure described in § 15.33 and 10 CFR part 16 will be followed if full payment is not received either 30 days from the date the initial written demand was mailed or hand delivered. If the NRC cannot obtain full payment by following the procedures described in § 15.33 and 10 CFR part 16, the NRC may follow other collection procedures described in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) The failure to state in a letter of demand a matter described in § 15.21 is not a defense for a debtor and does not prevent the NRC from proceeding with respect to that matter.
</P>
<P>(e) When the NRC learns that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, the NRC will cease collection action immediately unless it has been determined that under 11 U.S.C. 362, the automatic stay has been lifted or is no longer in effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 55 FR 32378, Aug. 9, 1990; 56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991; 67 FR 30319, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.23   Telephone or internet inquiries and investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a debtor has not responded to one or more demands, the NRC shall make reasonable efforts by telephone or internet to determine the debtor's intentions. 
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC may undertake an investigation to locate a debtor if the whereabouts of a debtor is a problem, or if a debtor cannot be contacted by telephone.
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC, under 15 U.S.C. 1681(f), may obtain consumer credit information from private firms, including the name, address, former addresses, place of employment, and former places of employment of a debtor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 67 FR 30319, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.25   Personal interviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC may seek an interview with the debtor at the offices of the NRC when—
</P>
<P>(1) A matter involved in the claim needs clarification;
</P>
<P>(2) Information is needed concerning the debtor's circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(3) An agreement for payment might be negotiated.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC shall grant an interview with a debtor upon the debtor's request. The NRC will not reimburse a debtor's interview expenses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 55 FR 32378, Aug. 9, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.26   Reporting claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to assessing interest, penalties, and administrative costs under § 15.37, the NRC may report a debt that has been delinquent for 90 days to a consumer reporting agency if all the conditions of this paragraph are met.
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor has not—
</P>
<P>(i) Paid or agreed to pay the debt under a written payment plan that has been signed by the debtor and agreed to by the NRC; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Filed for review of the debt under § 15.26 (a)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC has included a notification in the second written demand (see § 15.21(b)) to the individual debtor stating— 
</P>
<P>(i) That the payment of the debt is delinquent; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That within not less than 60 days after the date of the notification, the NRC intends to disclose to a consumer reporting agency that the individual debtor is responsible for the debt; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The specific information to be disclosed to the consumer reporting agency; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) That the debtor has a right to a complete explanation of the debt (if that has not already been given), to dispute information in NRC records about the debt, and to request reconsideration of the debt by administrative appeal or review of the debt. 
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC has reconsidered its initial decision on the debt when the debtor has requested a review under paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) The NRC has taken reasonable action to locate a debtor for whom the NRC does not have a current address to send the notification provided for in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) If there is a substantial change in the condition or amount of the debt, the NRC shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly disclose that fact(s) to each consumer reporting agency to which the original disclosure was made;
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly verify or correct information about a debt on request of a consumer reporting agency for verification of information disclosed by the NRC; and,
</P>
<P>(3) Obtain assurances from the consumer reporting agency that the agency is complying with all applicable Federal, state and local laws relating to its use of consumer credit information.
</P>
<P>(c) The information the NRC discloses to the consumer reporting agency is limited to—
</P>
<P>(1) Information necessary to establish the identity of the individual debtor, including name, address, and taxpayer identification number;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, status, and history of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC activity under which the debt arose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32378, Aug. 9, 1990, as amended at 67 FR 30319, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.27   Contact with debtor's employing agency.</HEAD>
<P>If the debtor is employed by the Federal government or is a member of the military establishment or the Coast Guard, collection by offset must be accomplished in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 5514 and the provisions of 10 CFR part 16.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.29   Suspension or revocation of license.</HEAD>
<P>In non-bankruptcy cases, the NRC may suspend or revoke any license, permit, or approval which the NRC has granted to the debtor for any inexcusable, prolonged, or repeated failure of the debtor to pay a delinquent debt. Before suspending or revoking any license, permit, or approval for failure to pay a debt, the NRC shall issue to the debtor (by certified mail) an order or a demand for information as to why the license, permit, or approval should not be suspended or revoked. The NRC shall allow the debtor no more than 30 days to pay the debt in full, including applicable interest, penalties, and administrative costs of collection of the delinquent debt. The NRC may revoke the license, permit, or approval at the end of this period. If a license is revoked under authority of this part, a new application, with appropriate fees, must be made to the NRC. The NRC may not consider an application unless all previous delinquent debts of the debtor to the NRC have been paid in full. The suspension or revocation of a license, permit, or approval is also applicable to Federal programs or activities that are administered by the states on behalf of the Federal Government to the extent that they affect the Federal Government's ability to collect money or funds owed by debtors. In bankruptcy cases, before advising the debtor of NRC's intention to suspend or revoke licenses, permits, or approvals, the NRC will seek legal advice from its Office of the General Counsel concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code which may restrict such action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30320, May 6, 2002]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.31   Disputed debts.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="15">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36495, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Submitting a dispute of debt.</I> For any type of charges assessed by the NRC, a debtor may submit a dispute of debt within 45 days from the date of the initial demand letter. The debtor shall explain why the debt is incorrect in fact or in law and may support the explanation by affidavit, cancelled checks, or other relevant evidence. The dispute must be submitted to the Office of the Chief Financial Officer via the eBilling system, by email to <I>FeeBillingInquiries.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by mail to the Office of the Chief Financial Officer at: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attn: Chief Financial Officer. For debt disputes related to charges for 10 CFR part 170 fees, the debtor must complete and submit an NRC Form 529 with the required information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of receipt.</I> Following receipt of the dispute, the NRC will acknowledge receipt to the contact person identified by the debtor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dispute review.</I> The NRC will consider the facts involved in the dispute and, if it considers it necessary, arrange for a conference during which the debtor may present evidence and any arguments in support of the debtor's position. If the debtor's dispute potentially raises an error, the NRC may extend the interest waiver period as described in § 15.37(j) pending a final determination of the existence or amount of the debt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> If the NRC finds that the dispute has not identified an error, the NRC will notify the dispute contact. If the NRC finds that the dispute has identified an error, the NRC will:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the dispute contact;
</P>
<P>(2) Make corrections to the charges or information on the demand letter; and
</P>
<P>(3) Issue a revised demand letter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32169, June 16, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.32   Contracting for collection services.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may contract for collection services in order to recover delinquent debts only if the debts are not subject to the DCIA requirement to transfer debts to Treasury for debt collection services, e.g. debts that are less than 180 days delinquent. However, the NRC retains the authority to resolve disputes, compromise claims, suspend or terminate collection action, and initiate enforced collection through litigation. When appropriate, the NRC shall contract for collection services in accordance with the guidance and standards contained in 31 CFR chapter IX, parts 900-904.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30320, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.33   Collection by administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> (1) The NRC may administratively undertake collection by centralized offset on each claim which is liquidated or certain in amount in accordance with the guidance and standards in 31 CFR Chapter IX, parts 900-904 and 5 U.S.C. 5514. 
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Debts arising under the Social Security Act, except as provided in 42 U.S.C. 404; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Payments made under the Social Security Act, except as provided for in 31 U.S.C. 3716(c) (see 31 CFR 285.4, Federal Benefit Offset); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Debts arising under, or payments made under, the Internal Revenue Code (see 31 CFR 285.2, Tax Refund Offset) or the tariff laws of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Offsets against Federal salaries to the extent these standards are inconsistent with regulations published to implement such offsets under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3716 (see 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, and 31 CFR 285.7, Federal Salary Offset); 
</P>
<P>(v) Offsets under 31 U.S.C. 3728 against a judgment obtained by a debtor against the United States; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Offsets or recoupments under common law, State law, or Federal statutes specifically prohibiting offsets or recoupments of particular types of debts; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Offsets in the course of judicial proceedings, including bankruptcy. 
</P>
<P>(3) Unless otherwise provided for by contract or law, debts or payments that are not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under the common law or their applicable statutory authority. 
</P>
<P>(4) Unless otherwise provided by law, the NRC may not initiate administrative offset of payments under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3716 to collect a debt more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known to the NRC, or collection of “approval” fees has been deferred under 10 CFR part 170. If the collection of “approval” fees has been deferred, the ten-year period begins to run at the end of the deferral period. 
</P>
<P>(5) In bankruptcy cases, the NRC will seek legal advice from its Office of the General Counsel concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code on pending or contemplated collections by offset. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory centralized offset.</I> (1) The NRC is required to refer past due, legally enforceable, nontax debts that are over 120 days delinquent to Treasury for collection by centralized administrative offset. A debt is legally enforceable if there has been a final NRC determination that the debt, in the amount stated, is due and there are no legal bars to collection action. Debts that are less than 120 days delinquent also may be referred to Treasury for this purpose. 
</P>
<P>(2) The names and taxpayer identifying numbers (TINs) of debtors who owe debts referred to Treasury as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be compared to the names and TINs on payments to be made by Federal disbursing officials. Federal disbursing officials include disbursing officials of Treasury, the Department of Defense, the United States Postal Service, other Government corporations, and disbursing officials of the United States designated by Treasury. When the name and TIN of a debtor match the name and TIN of a payee and all other requirements for offset have been met, the payment will be offset to satisfy the debt. 
</P>
<P>(3) Federal disbursing officials will notify the debtor/payee in writing that an offset has occurred to satisfy, in part or in full, a past due, legally enforceable delinquent debt. The notice must include a description of the type and amount of the payment from which the offset was taken, the amount of offset that was taken, the identity of the creditor agency (NRC) requesting the offset, and a contact point within NRC who will respond to questions regarding the offset 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NRC administrative offset.</I> (1) Before referring a delinquent debt to Treasury for administrative offset, the NRC adopts the following administrative offset procedures: 
</P>
<P>(i) Offsets may be initiated only after the debtor has been sent written notice of the type and amount of the debt, the intention of the NRC to use administrative offset to collect the debt, and an explanation of the debtor's rights under 31 U.S.C. 3716; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The debtor has been given— 
</P>
<P>(A) The opportunity to inspect and copy NRC records related to the debt; 
</P>
<P>(B) The opportunity for a review within the NRC of the determination of indebtedness; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The opportunity to make a written agreement to repay the debt. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The procedures set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section may be omitted when—
</P>
<P>(A) The offset is in the nature of a recoupment; 
</P>
<P>(B) The debt arises under a contract as set forth in Cecile Industries, Inc. v. Cheney, 995 F.2d 1052 (Fed. Cir. 1993) (notice and other procedural protections set forth in 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) do not supplant or restrict established procedures for contractual offsets accommodated by the Contracts Disputes Act); or 
</P>
<P>(C) The NRC first learns of the existence of the amount owed by the debtor when there is insufficient time before payment would be made to the debtor/payee to allow for prior notice and an opportunity for review. This applies to non-centralized offsets conducted under paragraph (d) of this section. When prior notice and an opportunity for review are omitted, the NRC shall give the debtor notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practicable and shall refund any money ultimately found not to have been owed to the NRC. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When an agency previously has given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt (31 CFR 901.2), the NRC need not duplicate the notice and review opportunities before administrative offset may be initiated. 
</P>
<P>(2) When referring delinquent debts to Treasury, the NRC shall certify, in a form acceptable to Treasury, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The debt is past due and legally enforceable; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The NRC has complied with all due process requirements under 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) and the NRC's regulations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Payments that are prohibited by law from being offset are exempt from centralized administrative offset. The Treasury shall exempt payments under means-tested programs from centralized administrative offset when requested in writing by the head of the payment-certifying or authorizing agency. Also, the Treasury may exempt other classes of payments from centralized offset upon the written request of the head of the payment-certifying or authorizing agency. 
</P>
<P>(4) Benefit payments made under the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>), part B of the Black Lung Benefits Act (30 U.S.C. 921 <I>et seq.</I>), and any law administered by the Railroad Retirement Board (other than tier 2 benefits), may be offset only in accordance with Treasury regulations, issued in consultation with the Social Security Administration, the Railroad Retirement Board, and the Office of Management and Budget (31 CFR 285.4). 
</P>
<P>(5) In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716(f), the Treasury may waive the provisions of the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 concerning matching agreements and post-match notification and verification (5 U.S.C. 552a(o) and (p)) for centralized administrative offset upon receipt of a certification from the NRC that the due process requirements enumerated in 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) have been met. The certification of a debt in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section will satisfy this requirement. If a waiver is granted, only the Data Integrity Board of the Department of the Treasury is required to oversee any matching activities, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716(g). This waiver authority does not apply to offsets conducted under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-centralized administrative offset.</I> (1) Generally, non-centralized administrative offsets are ad hoc case-by-case offsets that NRC would conduct, at its discretion, internally or in cooperation with the agency certifying or authorizing payments to the debtor. Unless otherwise prohibited by law, when centralized administrative offset is not available or appropriate, past due, legally enforceable, nontax delinquent debts may be collected through non-centralized administrative offset. In these cases, the NRC may make a request directly to a payment-authorizing agency to offset a payment due a debtor to collect a delinquent debt. For example, the NRC will request the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) to offset a Federal employee's lump sum payment upon leaving Government service to satisfy an unpaid advance. 
</P>
<P>(2) Before requesting Treasury to conduct a non-centralized administrative offset, the NRC adopts the following procedures, which provide that such offsets may occur only after: 
</P>
<P>(i) The debtor has been provided due process as set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Treasury has received written certification from NRC that the debtor owes the past due, legally enforceable delinquent debt in the amount stated, and that the NRC has fully complied with its regulations concerning administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(3) Treasury shall comply with offset requests by NRC to collect debts owed to the United States, unless the offset would not be in the best interests of the United States with respect to the Treasury's program, or would otherwise be contrary to law. Appropriate use should be made of the cooperative efforts of other agencies in effecting collection by administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(4) When collecting multiple debts by non-centralized administrative offset, the NRC will apply the recovered amounts to those debts in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, particularly the applicable statute of limitations. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests to OPM to offset a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payment under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund.</I> Upon providing OPM written certification that a debtor has been afforded the procedures provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the NRC will request OPM to offset a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payments under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (Fund) in accordance with regulations codified at 5 CFR 831.1801-831.1808. Upon receipt of such a request, OPM will identify and “flag” a debtor's account in anticipation of the time when the debtor requests, or becomes eligible to receive, payments from the Fund. This will satisfy any requirement that offset be initiated prior to the expiration of the time limitations referenced in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review requirements.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, whenever the NRC is required to afford a debtor a review within the agency, the NRC shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing in accordance with 10 CFR 16.9, when the debtor requests reconsideration of the debt, and the NRC determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although the NRC should carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not require an oral hearing with respect to debt collection systems in which a determination of indebtedness rarely involves issues of credibility or veracity, and the NRC has determined that review of the written record is ordinarily an adequate means to correct prior mistakes. 
</P>
<P>(4) In those cases in which an oral hearing is not required by this section, the NRC shall accord the debtor a “paper hearing,” that is, a determination of the request for reconsideration based upon a review of the written record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30320, May 6, 2002, as amended at 79 FR 66602, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.35   Payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment in full.</I> The NRC shall make every effort to collect a claim in full before it becomes delinquent. If a claim is paid in one lump sum after it becomes delinquent, the NRC shall impose charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs as specified in § 15.37.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment by installment.</I> If a debtor furnishes satisfactory evidence of inability to pay a claim in one lump sum, payment in regular installments may be arranged. Evidence may consist of a financial statement or a signed statement that the debtor's application for a loan to enable the debtor to pay the claim in full was rejected. Except for a claim described in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and codified in 10 CFR part 16, all installment payment arrangements must be in writing and require the payment of interest and administrative charges. 
</P>
<P>(1) Installment note forms may be used. The written installment agreement must contain a provision accelerating the debt payment in the event the debtor defaults. If the debtor's financial statement discloses the ownership of assets which are free and clear of liens or security interests, or assets in which the debtor owns an equity, the debtor may be asked to secure the payment of an installment note by executing a Security Agreement and Financing Statement transferring to the United States a security interest in the asset until the debt is discharged. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the debtor owes more than one debt, the NRC will apply the payment to the various debts in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>To whom payment is made.</I> Payment of a debt is to be made payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The payments are to be made in U.S. funds using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I> Federal agencies may also make payment by Intra Governmental Payment and Collection (IPAC). Payments should be made to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission unless payment is—






</P>
<P>(1) Made pursuant to arrangements with DOJ; 
</P>
<P>(2) Ordered by a Court of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise directed in any other part of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31610, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 55 FR 32379, Aug. 9, 1990; 56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991; 63 FR 15743, Apr. 1, 1998; 67 FR 30322, May 6, 2002; 89 FR 51810, June 20, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.37   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs on debts owed to the United States Government in accordance with the guidance provided under the FCCS, 31 CFR 901.9. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before assessing any charges on delinquent debt, the NRC shall mail or hand-deliver a written notice to the debtor explaining its requirements concerning these charges under 31 CFR 901.2 and 901.9, except where these charges are included in a contractual or repayment agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) Interest begins to accrue from the date on which the initial written demand, advising the debtor of the interest requirements, is first mailed or hand delivered to the debtor unless a different date is specified in a statute, regulation, or contract.
</P>
<P>(d) The NRC shall assess interest based upon the rate of the current value of funds to the United States Treasury (the Treasury tax and loan account rate) prescribed for the current quarter and published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the Treasury Financial Manual Bulletins, unless a different rate is prescribed by statute, regulation, or contract.
</P>
<P>(e) Interest is computed only on the principal of the debt and the interest rate remains fixed for the duration of the indebtedness, unless a debtor defaults on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement.
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC shall assess against a debtor charges to cover administrative costs incurred as a result of a delinquent debt. Administrative costs may include costs incurred in obtaining a credit report or in using a private debt collector, to the extent they are attributable to the delinquency.
</P>
<P>(g) The NRC shall assess a penalty charge of 6 percent a year on any portion of a debt that is delinquent for more than 90 days. The charge accrues retroactively to the date that the debt became delinquent.
</P>
<P>(h) Amounts received by the NRC as partial or installment payments are applied first to outstanding penalty and administrative cost charges, second to accrued interest, and third to outstanding principal.
</P>
<P>(i) The NRC shall waive collection of interest on the debt or any portion of the debt which is paid in full within 30 days after the date on which interest began to accrue.
</P>
<P>(j) The NRC may waive interest during the period a debt disputed under § 15.31 is under consideration by the NRC. However, this additional waiver is not automatic and must be requested before the expiration of the initial 30-day waiver period. The NRC may grant the additional waiver only when it finds the debtor's dispute potentially raises an error.




</P>
<P>(k) The NRC may waive the collection of interest, penalties, and administrative costs if it finds that one or more of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor is unable to pay any significant sum toward the debt within a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(2) Collection of interest, penalties, and administrative costs will jeopardize collection of the principal of the debt;
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC is unable to enforce collection in full within a reasonable time by enforced collection proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(4) Collection would be against equity and good conscience or not in the best interests of the United States, including the situation in which an administrative offset or installment payment agreement is in effect.
</P>
<P>(l) The NRC is authorized to impose interest and related charges on debts not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717, in accordance with common law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32380, Aug. 9, 1990, as amended at 67 FR 30322, May 6, 2002; 86 FR 32169, June 16, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.38" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.38   Use of credit reports.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may institute a credit investigation of the debtor at any time following receipt of knowledge of the debt in order to aid NRC in making appropriate determinations as to:
</P>
<P>(a) The collection and compromise of a debt;
</P>
<P>(b) The collection of interest, penalties, and administrative costs;
</P>
<P>(c) The use of administrative offset;
</P>
<P>(d) The use of other collection methods; and
</P>
<P>(e) The likelihood of collecting the debt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 32380, Aug. 9, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.2.76.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.39   Bankruptcy claims.</HEAD>
<P>When the NRC learns that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, before proceeding with further collection action, the NRC will immediately seek legal advice from its Office of the General Counsel concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code on any pending or contemplated collection activities. Unless the NRC determines that the automatic stay imposed at the time of filing pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 362 has been lifted or is no longer in effect, collection activity against the debtor will in most cases stop immediately. 
</P>
<P>(a) After seeking legal advice from its Office of the General Counsel, a proof of claim usually will be filed with the bankruptcy court or the Trustee. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the NRC is a secured creditor, it may seek relief from the automatic stay regarding its security, subject to the provisions and requirements of 11 U.S.C. 362. 
</P>
<P>(c) Offset is stayed in most cases by the automatic stay. However, the NRC will seek legal advice from its Office of the General Counsel to determine whether its payments to the debtor and payments of other agencies available for offset may be frozen by the agency until relief from the automatic stay can be obtained from the bankruptcy court. The NRC will seek legal advice from its Office of the General Counsel to determine if recoupment is available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30322, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Compromise of a Claim</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.3.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.41   When a claim may be compromised.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC may compromise a claim not in excess of the monetary limitation if it has not been referred to DOJ for litigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise provided by law, when the principal balance of a debt, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, exceeds $100,000 or any higher amount authorized by the Attorney General, the authority to accept the compromise rests with the DOJ. The NRC will evaluate the compromise offer, using the factors set forth in this part. If an offer to compromise any debt in excess of $100,000 is acceptable to the NRC, the NRC shall refer the debt to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in the DOJ using a CCLR. The referral must include appropriate financial information and a recommendation for the acceptance of the compromise offer. DOJ approval is not required if the compromise offer is rejected by NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30322, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.3.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.43   Reasons for compromising a claim.</HEAD>
<P>A claim may be compromised for one or more of the reasons set forth below:
</P>
<P>(a) The full amount cannot be collected because:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor is unable to pay the full amount within a reasonable time; or
</P>
<P>(2) The debtor refuses to pay the claim in full and the Government is unable to enforce collection in full within a reasonable time by enforced collection proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) There is a real doubt concerning the Government's ability to prove its case in Court for the full amount claimed, either because of the legal issues involved or a bona fide dispute as to the facts.
</P>
<P>(c) The cost of collecting the claim does not justify the enforced collection of the full amount. The NRC shall apply this reason for compromise in accordance with the guidance in 31 CFR 902.2. 
</P>
<P>(d) The NRC shall determine the debtor's inability to pay, the Government's ability to enforce collection, and the amounts that are acceptable in compromise in accordance with the FCCS, 31 CFR part 902. 
</P>
<P>(e) Compromises payable in installments are discouraged, but, if necessary, must be in the form of a legally enforceable agreement for the reinstatement of the prior indebtedness less sums paid thereon. The agreement also must provide that in the event of default—
</P>
<P>(1) The entire balance of the debt becomes immediately due and payable; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Government has the right to enforce any security interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 7616, Feb. 22, 1982, as amended at 55 FR 32380, Aug. 9, 1990; 67 FR 30322, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.3.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.45   Consideration of tax consequences to the Government.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC may accept a percentage of a debtor's profits or stock in a debtor corporation in compromise of a claim. In negotiating a compromise with a business concern, the NRC should consider requiring a waiver of tax-loss-carry-forward and tax-loss-carry-back rights of the debtor. For information on reporting requirements, see § 15.60. 
</P>
<P>(b) When two or more debtors are jointly and severally liable, the NRC will pursue collection activity against all debtors, as appropriate. The NRC will not attempt to allocate the burden of payment between the debtors but will proceed to liquidate the indebtedness as quickly as possible. The NRC will ensure that a compromise agreement with one debtor does not release the NRC's claim against the remaining debtors. The amount of a compromise with one debtor shall not be considered a precedent or binding in determining the amount that will be required from other debtors jointly and severally liable on the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30322, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.3.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.47   Finality of a compromise.</HEAD>
<P>An offer of compromise must be in writing and signed by the debtor. An offer of compromise which is accepted by the NRC is final and conclusive on the debtor and on all officials, agencies, and courts of the United States, unless obtained by fraud, misrepresentation, the presentation of a false claim, or mutual mistake of fact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.49" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.3.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.49   Mutual releases of the debtor and the Government.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all appropriate instances, a compromise that is accepted by NRC should be implemented by means of a mutual release. 
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor is released from further non-tax liability on the compromised debt in consideration of payment in full of the compromised amount. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Government and its officials, past and present, are released and discharged from any and all claims and causes of action arising from the same transaction held by the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a mutual release is not executed when a debt is compromised, unless prohibited by law, the debtor is still deemed to have waived any and all claims and causes of action against the Government and its officials related to the transaction giving rise to the compromised debt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30322, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Suspension or Termination of Collection Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.4.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.51   When collection action may be suspended or terminated.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may suspend or terminate collection action on a claim not in excess of the monetary limitation of $100,000 or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, after deducting the amount of partial payments or collections, if any of the debt has not been referred to the DOJ for litigation. If, after deducting the amount of any partial payments or collections, the principal amount of a debt exceeds $100,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, the authority to suspend or terminate rests solely with the DOJ. If the NRC believes that suspension or termination of any debt in excess of $100,000 may be appropriate, the NRC shall refer the debt to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in the DOJ, using the CCLR. The referral should specify the reasons for the NRC's recommendation. If, prior to referral to the DOJ, the NRC determines that a debt is plainly erroneous or clearly without legal merit, the NRC may terminate collection activity, regardless of the amount involved, without obtaining DOJ concurrence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30323, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.4.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.53   Reasons for suspending collection action.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may suspend collection activity when: 
</P>
<P>(a) The NRC cannot locate the debtor; 
</P>
<P>(b) The debtor's financial condition is not expected to improve; or 
</P>
<P>(c) The debtor has requested a review of the debt or has disputed the debt.






</P>
<P>(d) Based on the current financial condition of the debtor, the NRC may suspend collection activity on a debt when the debtor's future prospects justify retention of the debt for periodic review and collection activity and: 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicable statute of limitations has not expired; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Future collection can be effected by administrative offset, notwithstanding the expiration of the applicable statute of limitations for litigation of claims, with due regard to the 10-year limitation for administrative offset prescribed by 31 U.S.C. 3716(e)(1); or 
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor agrees to pay interest on the amount of the debt on which collection will be suspended, and such suspension is likely to enhance the debtor's ability to pay the full amount of the principal of the debt with interest at a later date. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The NRC shall suspend collection activity during the time required for consideration of the debtor's request for review or dispute of the debt, if the statute under which the request is sought prohibits the NRC from collecting the debt during that time.
</P>
<P>(2) If the statute under which the request is sought does not prohibit collection activity pending consideration of the request, the NRC may use discretion, on a case-by-case basis, to suspend collection. Further, the NRC ordinarily should suspend collection action upon a request for review or dispute of the debt, if the NRC is prohibited by statute or regulation from issuing a refund of amounts collected prior to NRC consideration of the debtor's request. However, the NRC should not suspend collection when the NRC determines that the request for review or dispute of the debt is

frivolous or was made primarily to delay collection.


</P>
<P>(f) When the NRC learns that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, in most cases, the collection activity on a debt must be suspended, pursuant to the provisions of 11 U.S.C. 362, 1201, and 1301, unless the NRC can clearly establish that the automatic stay has been lifted or is no longer in effect. The NRC should seek legal advice immediately from its Office of the General Counsel and, if legally permitted, take the necessary steps to ensure that no funds or money are paid by the NRC to the debtor until relief from the automatic stay is obtained.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30323, May 6, 2002, as amended at 86 FR 32169, June 16, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.4.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.55   Reasons for terminating collection action.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may terminate collection activity when: 
</P>
<P>(a) The NRC is unable to collect any substantial amount through its own efforts or through the efforts of others; 
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC is unable to locate the debtor; 
</P>
<P>(c) Costs of collection are anticipated to exceed the amount recoverable, 
</P>
<P>(d) The debt is legally without merit or enforcement of the debt is barred by any applicable statute of limitations; 
</P>
<P>(e) The debt cannot be substantiated; or 
</P>
<P>(f) The debt against the debtor has been discharged in bankruptcy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30323, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.57" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.4.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.57   Termination of collection action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before terminating collection activity, the NRC should have pursued all appropriate means of collection and determined, based upon the results of the collection activity, that the debt is uncollectible. Termination of collection activity ceases active collection of the debt. The termination of collection activity does not preclude the NRC from retaining a record of the account for purposes of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Selling the debt, if the Treasury determines that such sale is in the best interests of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuing collection at a subsequent date in the event there is a change in the debtor's status or a new collection tool becomes available; 
</P>
<P>(3) Offsetting against future income or assets not available at the time of termination of collection activity; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Screening future applicants for prior indebtedness. 
</P>
<P>(b) Generally, the NRC will terminate collection activity on a debt that has been discharged in bankruptcy, regardless of the amount. However, the NRC may continue collection activity, subject to the provisions of the Bankruptcy Code, for any payments provided under a plan of reorganization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30323, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.59" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.4.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.59   Exception to termination.</HEAD>
<P>When a significant enforcement policy is involved, or recovery of a judgment is a prerequisite to the imposition of administrative sanctions, the NRC may refer debts for litigation, although termination of collection activity may be appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30323, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.60" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.4.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.60   Discharge of indebtedness; reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before discharging a delinquent debt (also referred to as a close out of the debt), the NRC shall take all appropriate steps to collect the debt in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g), including, as applicable, administrative offset; tax refund offset; Federal salary offset; referral to Treasury, Treasury-designated debt collection centers, or private collection contractors; credit bureau reporting; wage garnishment; litigation; and foreclosure. Discharge of indebtedness is distinct from termination or suspension of collection activity under 10 CFR 15.55 and 15.57 and is governed by the Internal Revenue Code. When collection action on a debt is suspended or terminated, the debt remains delinquent, and further collection action may be pursued at a later date. When the NRC discharges a debt in full or in part, further collection action is prohibited. Therefore, the NRC will make the determination that collection action is no longer warranted before discharging a debt. Before discharging a debt, the NRC must terminate debt collection action. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3711(i), title 31, United States Code, requires agencies to sell a delinquent nontax debt upon termination of collection action if Treasury determines such a sale is in the best interests of the United States. Since the discharge of a debt precludes any further collection action (including the sale of a delinquent debt), the NRC may not discharge a debt until the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3711(i) have been met. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon discharge of an indebtedness, the NRC shall report the discharge to the IRS in accordance with the requirements of 26 U.S.C. 6050P and 26 CFR 1.6050P-1. The NRC may request Treasury or a Treasury-designated debt collection center to file a discharge report to the IRS on the NRC's behalf. 
</P>
<P>(d) When discharging a debt, the NRC shall request that litigation counsel release any liens of record securing the debt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30323, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Referral of a Claim</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.5.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.61   Prompt referral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC shall promptly refer debts that are subject to aggressive collection activity (as described in subpart B of this part) and that cannot be compromised, or debts on which collection activity cannot be suspended or terminated, to DOJ for litigation. Debts for which the principal amount exceeds $1,000,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest and penalties, must be referred to the Civil Division or other division responsible for litigating such debts at DOJ, Washington, DC. Debts for which the principal amount is $1,000,000 or less, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest or penalties, must be referred to the DOJ's Nationwide Central Intake Facility, as required by the CCLR instructions. Debts will be referred as early as possible, consistent with the NRC's aggressive collection activity and well within the one year of the NRC's final determination of the fact and the amount of the debt. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOJ has exclusive jurisdiction over the debts referred to in paragraph (a) of this section. The NRC shall terminate the use of any administrative collection activities to collect a debt when the debt is referred to DOJ. The NRC shall advise the DOJ of the collection activities it used and the results. The NRC shall refrain from having any contact with the debtor and shall direct all inquiries to DOJ. The NRC shall immediately notify DOJ of any payments credited to the debtor's account after the account has been referred to DOJ. DOJ shall notify NRC in a timely manner of any payments it receives from the debtor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30324, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.5.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.65   Referral of a compromise offer.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may refer a debtor's firm written offer of compromise, which is substantial in amount, to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in DOJ using a CCLR accompanied by supporting data and particulars concerning the debt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30324, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 15.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.13.5.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 15.67   Referral to the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless excepted by DOJ, the NRC shall complete the CCLR accompanied by a Certificate of Indebtedness, to refer all administratively uncollectible claims to the DOJ for litigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC shall indicate the actions it wishes DOJ to take regarding the referred claim on the CCLR. 
</P>
<P>(c) Before referring a debt to DOJ for litigation, the NRC shall notify each person determined to be liable for the debt that, unless the debt can be collected administratively, litigation may be initiated. This notification must comply with Executive Order 12988 (3 CFR, 1996 Comp., pp 157-163) and may be given as part of a demand letter or as a separate document. 
</P>
<P>(d) The NRC shall preserve all files and records that DOJ may need to prove the claim in court. 
</P>
<P>(e) The NRC may ordinarily not refer for litigation claims of less than $2,500, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative charges, or such other amount as the Attorney General shall from time to time prescribe. 
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC may not refer claims of less than the minimum amount unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) Litigation to collect a smaller claim is important to ensure compliance with NRC's policies and programs; 
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is being referred solely to secure a judgment against the debtor, which will be filed as a lien against the debtor's property under 28 U.S.C. 3201 and returned to the NRC for enforcement, or 
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor has the clear ability to pay the claim, and the Government effectively can enforce payment, with due regard for the exemptions available to the debtor under state and Federal law and the judicial remedies available to the Government.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 30324, May 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="16" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 16—SALARY OFFSET PROCEDURES FOR COLLECTING DEBTS OWED BY FEDERAL EMPLOYEES TO THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, sec. 161 (42 U.S.C. 2201), Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 31 U.S.C. 3711, 3716, 3717, 3718; 5 U.S.C. 5514; Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749; 4 CFR parts 101 through 105; 5 CFR 550.1101 through 550.1108.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 16.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part provides procedures for the collection by administrative offset of a Federal employee's salary without his/her consent to satisfy certain debts owed to the Federal Government. This part applies to all Federal employees who owe debts to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and to current employees of the NRC who owe debts to other Federal agencies. This part does not apply when the employee consents to recovery from his/her current pay account.
</P>
<P>(b) These procedures do not apply to debts or claims arising under:
</P>
<P>(1) The Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, 26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The tariff laws of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any case where a collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute.
</P>
<P>(c) These procedures do not apply to any adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's selection of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less.
</P>
<P>(d) These procedures do not preclude the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection action where appropriate under the standards implementing the revised Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS), 31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.,</I> 31 CFR chapter IX, parts 900 through 904. 
</P>
<P>(e) This part does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of an overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 716 or in any way questioning the amount or validity of the debt by submitting a subsequent claim to the NRC. This part does not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver pursuant to other statutory provisions applicable to the particular debt being collected.
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC is not limited to collection remedies contained in the revised FCCS. The FCCS is not intended to impair common law remedies. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 15743, Apr. 1, 1998; 67 FR 57507, Sept. 11, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative charges</I> are those amounts assessed by NRC to cover the costs of processing and handling delinquent debts due the Government.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding money payable by the United States Government to, or held by the Government for, a person to satisfy a debt the person owes the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means any agency of the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the Federal Government, including Government corporations. 
</P>
<P><I>Centralized salary offset computer matching</I> describes the computerized process used to match delinquent debt records with Federal salary payment records when the purpose of the match is to identify Federal employees who owe debt to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means the agency to which the debt is owed, including a debt collection center when acting in behalf of a creditor agency in matters pertaining to the collection of a debt. 
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> and <I>claim</I> are used synonymously to refer to an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by an agency official to be owed to the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency. For the purposes of administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, the terms <I>debt</I> and <I>claim</I> include an amount of money, funds, or property owed by a person to a State (including past-due support being enforced by a State), the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P><I>Debt collection center</I> means the Department of the Treasury or other Government agency or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury with authority to collect debts on behalf of creditor agencies. 
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent debt record</I> refers to the information about a debt that an agency submits to Treasury when the agency refers the debt for collection by offset in accordance with the provision of 31 U.S.C. 3716. 
</P>
<P><I>Disbursing official</I> means an official who has authority to disburse Federal salary payments pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3321 or another law. 
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, or in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay remaining after the deduction of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any amount required by law to be withheld; 
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts properly withheld for Federal, state or local income tax purposes; 
</P>
<P>(3) Amounts deducted as health insurance premiums; 
</P>
<P>(4) Amounts deducted as normal retirement contributions, not including amounts deducted for supplementary coverage; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Amounts deducted as normal life insurance premiums not including amounts deducted for supplementary coverage. 
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> is any individual employed by any agency of the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the Federal Government, including Government corporations. 
</P>
<P><I>FCCS</I> means the Federal Claims Collection Standards jointly published by the Department of the Treasury and the Department of Justice at 31 CFR Chapter IX, Parts 900 through 904. 
</P>
<P><I>Hearing official</I> means an individual responsible for conducting any hearing with respect to the existence or amount of a debt claimed or the repayment schedule if not established by written agreement between the employee and the NRC, and who renders a decision on the basis of this hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Paying agency</I> means the agency that employs the individual who owes the debt and authorizes the payment of his/her current pay.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his or her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Treasury</I> as used in 10 CFR part 16 means the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P><I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to an agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, 5 U.S.C. 8346(b), or any other law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991, as amended at 67 FR 57507, Sept. 11, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.5   Application.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are to be followed when:
</P>
<P>(a) The NRC is owed a debt by an individual currently employed by another Federal agency;
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC is owed a debt by an individual who is a current employee of the NRC; or
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC employs an individual who owes a debt to another Federal agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.7   Notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the NRC is the creditor agency, deductions will not be made unless the NRC provides the employee with a signed written notice of the debt at least 30 days before salary offset commences. The notice will be delivered in person or by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, with receipt returned as proof of delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) The written notice must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the debt is owed and an explanation of its origin, nature, and amount;
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC's intention to collect the debt by deducting from the employee's current disposable pay account;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount and frequency of the intended deduction (stated as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of pay, not to exceed 15 percent of disposable pay) and the intention to continue the deduction until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved. 
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of interest, penalties, and administrative charges, including a statement that these charges will be assessed unless excused in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards at 4 CFR parts 101-105;
</P>
<P>(5) The employee's right to inspect and copy government records pertaining to the debt or, if the employee or his or her representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive a copy of these records;
</P>
<P>(6) If not previously provided, the opportunity (under terms agreeable to the NRC) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or to enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset (31 CFR Chapter IX, 901.2). The agreement must be in writing, signed by the employee and the NRC, and documented in the NRC's files. 
</P>
<P>(7) The employee's right to a hearing conducted by an official arranged for by the NRC (an administrative law judge, or alternatively, a hearing official not under the control of the head of the agency) if a petition is filed as prescribed in § 16.9;
</P>
<P>(8) The methods and time period for petitioning for hearings;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that the timely filing of a petition for a hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;
</P>
<P>(10) A statement that a final decision on the hearing will be issued not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(11) A statement that knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to appropriate disciplinary procedures under chapter 75 of title 5, United States Code and 5 CFR part 752, penalties under the False Claims Act, sections 3729-3731 of title 31, United States Code or other applicable statutory authority, or criminal penalties under section 286, 287, 1001 and 1002 of title 18, United States Code or any other applicable statutory authority;
</P>
<P>(12) A statement of other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and
</P>
<P>(13) Unless there are contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, a statement that amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991, as amended at 67 FR 57508, Sept. 11, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains no information collection requirements, and, therefore, is not subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et. seq.</I>). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 57508, Sept. 11, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.9   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for hearing.</I> (1) An employee shall file a petition for a hearing in accordance with the instructions outlined in the creditor agency's notice of offset.
</P>
<P>(2) If the NRC is the creditor agency, a hearing may be requested by filing a written petition stating why the employee disputes the existence or amount of the debt or the repayment schedule if it was not established by written agreement between the employee and the NRC. The employee shall sign the petition and fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, which the employee believes support his or her position. The petition for a hearing must be received no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after receipt of the notice of offset unless the employee can show that the delay in meeting the deadline date was because of circumstances beyond his or her control or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless otherwise aware of it).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) The hearing will be presided over by a hearing official arranged by NRC (an administrative law judge or, alternatively, a hearing official not under the supervision or control of the head of the agency.)
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing must conform to procedures contained in the revised FCCS, 31 CFR Chapter IX, 901.3(e). The burden is on the employee to demonstrate either that the existence or the amount of the debt is in error or that the terms of the repayment schedule would result in undue financial hardship or would be against equity and good conscience. 
</P>
<P>(3) An employee is entitled to representation of his or her choice at any stage of the proceeding. NRC attorneys may not be provided as representatives for the debtor. The NRC will not compensate the debtor for representation expenses, including hourly fees for attorneys, travel expenses, and costs for reproducing documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 51830, Oct. 16, 1991, as amended at 67 FR 57508, Sept. 11, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.11   Written decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing official will issue a written opinion no later than 60 days after the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The written opinion must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the facts presented to demonstrate the nature and origin of the alleged debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's analysis, findings, and conclusions;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount and validity of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(4) The repayment schedule, where appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.13   Procedures for centralized administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC must notify Treasury of all debts that are delinquent as defined in the FCCS (over 180 days old) so that recovery may be made by centralized administrative offset. This includes those debts the NRC seeks to recover from the pay account of an employee of another agency via salary offset. The Treasury and other Federal disbursing officials will match payments, including Federal salary payments, against such debts. When a match occurs, and all the requirements for offset have been met, the payments will be offset to collect the debt. Prior to offset of the pay account of an employee, the NRC must comply with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 5514, 5 CFR part 550, and 10 CFR part 15. Procedures for notifying Treasury of a debt for purposes of collection by centralized administrative offset are contained in 31 CFR part 285 and 10 CFR 15.33. Procedures for internal salary offset are contained in § 16.15 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the NRC determines that an employee of another Federal agency owes a delinquent debt to the NRC, the NRC will, as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(1) Arrange for a hearing upon the proper petitioning by the employee; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the Federal employee with a notice and an opportunity to dispute the debt as contained in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 10 CFR 15.26. 
</P>
<P>(3) Submit the debt to Treasury for centralized administrative offset and certify in writing that the debtor has been afforded the legally required due process notification. 
</P>
<P>(4) If collection must be made in installments, the NRC must advise the paying agency of the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offset amount.</I> (1) The amount offset from a salary payment under this section shall be the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the debt, including any interest, penalties, and administrative costs; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An amount up to 15 percent of the debtor's disposable pay. 
</P>
<P>(2) Alternatively, the amount offset may be an amount agreed upon, in writing, by the debtor and the NRC. 
</P>
<P>(3) Offsets will continue until the debt, including any interest, penalties, and administrative costs, is paid in full or otherwise resolved to the satisfaction of the NRC. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Priorities.</I> (1) A levy pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 shall take precedence over other deductions under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a salary payment may be reduced to collect more than one debt, amounts offset under this section will be applied to a debt only after amounts offset have been applied to satisfy past due child support debt assigned to a State pursuant 26 U.S.C. 6402(c) and 31 CFR 285.7(h)(2). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice.</I> (1) Before offsetting a salary payment, the disbursing official, or the paying agency on behalf of the disbursing official, shall notify the Federal employee in writing of the date that deductions from salary will commence and of the amount of such deductions. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) When an offset occurs under this section, the disbursing official, or the paying agency on behalf of the disbursing official, shall notify the Federal employee in writing that an offset has occurred including: 
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the payment and the amount of the offset taken; 
</P>
<P>(B) Identification of NRC as the agency requesting the offset; and, 
</P>
<P>(C) A contact point within the NRC that will handle concerns regarding the offset. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The information described in paragraphs (e)(2)(i)(B) and (e)(2)(i)(C) of this section does not need to be provided to the Federal employee when the offset occurs if such information was included in a prior notice from the disbursing official or paying agency. 
</P>
<P>(3) The disbursing official will advise the NRC of the names, mailing addresses, and taxpayer identifying numbers of the debtors from whom amounts of past-due, legally enforceable debt were collected and of the amounts collected from each debtor. The disbursing official will not advise the NRC of the source of payment from which such amounts were collected. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fees.</I> Agencies that perform centralized salary offset computer matching services may charge a fee sufficient to cover the full cost of such services. In addition, Treasury or a paying agency acting on behalf of Treasury, may charge a fee sufficient to cover the full cost of implementing the administrative offset program. Treasury may deduct the fees from amounts collected by offset or may bill the NRC. Fees charged for offset shall be based on actual administrative offsets completed. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disposition of amounts collected.</I> The disbursing official conducting the offset will transmit amounts collected for debts, less fees charged under paragraph (f) of this section, to NRC. If an erroneous offset payment is made to the NRC, the disbursing official will notify the NRC that an erroneous offset payment has been made. The disbursing official may deduct the amount of the erroneous offset payment from future amounts payable to the NRC. Alternatively, upon the disbursing official's request, the NRC shall return promptly to the disbursing official or the affected payee an amount equal to the amount of the erroneous payment (without regard to whether any other amounts payable to the agency have been paid). The disbursing official and the NRC shall adjust the debtor records appropriately. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 57508, Sept. 11, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.15   Procedures for internal salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Deductions to liquidate an employee's debt will be by the method and in the amount stated in the NRC's notice of intention to offset as provided in § 16.7. Debts will be collected in one lump sum where possible. If the employee is financially unable to pay in one lump sum, collection must be made in installments.
</P>
<P>(b) Debts will be collected by deduction at officially established pay intervals from an employee's current pay account unless alternative arrangements for repayment are made.
</P>
<P>(c) Installment deductions will be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of employment. The size of installment deductions must bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. The deduction for the pay intervals for any period may not exceed 15% of disposable pay unless the employee has agreed in writing to a deduction of a greater amount.
</P>
<P>(d) Offset against any subsequent payment due an employee who retires or resigns or whose employment or period of active duty ends before collection of the debt is completed is provided for in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716. These payments include but are not limited to final salary payment or lump-sum leave due the employee from the paying agency as of the date of separation to the extent necessary to liquidate the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.17   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC will refund promptly any amounts deducted to satisfy debts owed to the NRC when the debt is waived, found not owed to the NRC, or when directed by an administrative or Judicial order.
</P>
<P>(b) The creditor agency will promptly return any amounts deducted by NRC to satisfy debts owed to the creditor agency when the debt is waived, found not owed, or when directed by an administrative or judicial order.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless required or permitted by law or contract, refunds under this section may not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.19   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>If a debt has been outstanding for more than 10 years after the agency's right to collect the debt first accrued, the agency may not collect by salary offset unless facts material to the Government's right to collect were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the NRC official or officials who were charged with the responsibility for discovery and collection of the debts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.21   Non-waiver of rights.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment of all or any part of a debt collected under these regulations will not be construed as a waiver of any rights that the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutes or contract(s) to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.14.0.76.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.23   Interest, penalties, and administrative charges.</HEAD>
<P>Charges may be assessed for interest, penalties, and administrative charges in accordance with the FCCS, 31 CFR Chapter IX, 901.9. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 57509, Sept. 11, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 19—NOTICES, INSTRUCTIONS AND REPORTS TO WORKERS: INSPECTION AND INVESTIGATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 63, 81, 103, 104, 161, 223, 234, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2093, 2111, 2133, 2134, 2201, 2273, 2282, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 211, 401 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5851, 5891); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 22217, Aug. 17, 1973, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 19.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part establish requirements for notices, instructions, and reports by licensees and regulated entities to individuals participating in NRC-licensed and regulated activities and options available to these individuals in connection with Commission inspections of licensees and regulated entities, and to ascertain compliance with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, titles II and IV of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, and regulations, orders, and licenses thereunder. The regulations in this part also establish the rights and responsibilities of the Commission and individuals during interviews compelled by subpoena as part of agency inspections or investigations under Section 161c of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, on any matter within the Commission's jurisdiction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49483, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) All persons who receive, possess, use, or transfer material licensed by the NRC under the regulations in parts 30 through 36 or part 39, 40, 60, 61, 63, 70, or 72 of this chapter, including persons licensed to operate a production or utilization facility under part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter, persons licensed to possess power reactor spent fuel in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) under part 72 of this chapter, and in accordance with 10 CFR 76.60 to persons required to obtain a certificate of compliance or an approved compliance plan under part 76 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) All applicants for and holders of licenses (including construction permits and early site permits) under parts 50, 52, 53, and 54 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) All applicants for and holders of a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(4) All applicants for a standard design certification under subpart B of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, and those (former) applicants whose designs have been certified under that subpart.


</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part regarding interviews of individuals under subpoena apply to all investigations and inspections within the jurisdiction of the NRC other than those involving NRC employees or NRC contractors. The regulations in this part do not apply to subpoenas issued under 10 CFR 2.702.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49484, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15771, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, (68 Stat. 919) including any amendments thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Exclusion</I> means the removal of counsel representing multiple interests from an interview whenever the NRC official conducting the interview has concrete evidence that the presence of the counsel would obstruct and impede the particular investigation or inspection.
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a license issued under the regulations in parts 30 through 36 or part 39, 40, 60, 61, 63, 70, or 72 of this chapter, including licenses to manufacture, construct and/or operate a production or utilization facility under part 50, 52, 53, or 54 of this chapter.






</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means the holder of such a license.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated activities</I> means any activity carried on which is under the jurisdiction of the NRC under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or any title of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1972, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated entities</I> means any individual, person, organization, or corporation that is subject to the regulatory jurisdiction of the NRC, including (but not limited to) an applicant for or holder of a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter or a standard design certification under subpart B of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter.




</P>
<P><I>Restricted area</I> means an area, access to which is limited by the licensee for the purpose of protecting individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials. Restricted area does not include areas used as residential quarters, but separate rooms in a residential building may be set apart as a restricted area.
</P>
<P><I>Sequestration</I> means the separation or isolation of witnesses and their attorneys from other witnesses and their attorneys during an interview conducted as part of an investigation, inspection, or other inquiry.
</P>
<P><I>Worker</I> means an individual engaged in activities licensed or regulated by the Commission and controlled by a licensee or regulated entity, but does not include the licensee or regulated entity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 22217, Aug. 17, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8783, Mar. 3, 1975; 53 FR 31680, Aug. 19, 1988; 55 FR 247, Jan. 4, 1990; 56 FR 23470, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 65948, Dec. 19, 1991; 57 FR 61785, Dec. 29, 1992; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 66 FR 55789, Nov. 2, 2001; 69 FR 76600, Dec. 22, 2004; 72 FR 49484, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.4   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 22217, Aug. 17, 1973, as amended at 90 FR 55627, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified in this part, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part should be addressed to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in Appendix D of part 20 of this chapter. Communications, reports, and applications may be delivered in person at the Commission's offices at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 67098, Nov. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0044.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 19.12, 19.13, 19.16, and 19.31.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52185, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.11   Posting of notices to workers.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260330" REFID="57">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) Each licensee (except for a holder of an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, or a holder of a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter) shall post current copies of the following documents:
</P>
<P>(1) The regulations in this part and in part 20 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The license, license conditions, or documents incorporated into a license by reference, and amendments thereto;
</P>
<P>(3) The operating procedures applicable to licensed activities;
</P>
<P>(4) Any notice of violation involving radiological working conditions, proposed imposition of civil penalty, or order issued pursuant to subpart B of part 2 of this chapter, and any response from the licensee.


</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant for and holder of a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, each applicant for an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, each applicant for a standard design certification under subpart B of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, and each applicant for and holder of a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter shall post:
</P>
<P>(1) The regulations in this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The operating procedures applicable to the activities regulated by the NRC which are being conducted by the applicant or holder; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any notice of violation, proposed imposition of civil penalty, or order issued under subpart B of part 2 of this chapter, and any response from the applicant or holder.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) If posting of a document specified in paragraphs (a)(1), (2) or (3), or (b)(1) or (2) of this section is not practicable, the licensee or regulated entity may post a notice which describes the document and states where it may be examined.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each licensee, each applicant for a specific license, each applicant for or holder of a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, each applicant for an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, and each applicant for a standard design certification under subpart B of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter shall prominently post NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” dated August 1997. Later versions of NRC Form 3 that supersede the August 1997 version shall replace the previously posted version within 30 days of receiving the revised NRC Form 3 from the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) Additional copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>FORMS.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) Documents, notices, or forms posted under this section shall appear in a sufficient number of places to permit individuals engaged in NRC-licensed or regulated activities to observe them on the way to or from any particular licensed or regulated activity location to which the document applies, shall be conspicuous, and shall be replaced if defaced or altered.
</P>
<P>(g) Commission documents posted under paragraphs (a)(4) or (b)(3) of this section shall be posted within 2 working days after receipt of the documents from the Commission; the licensee's or regulated entity's response, if any, shall be posted within 2 working days after dispatch by the licensee or regulated entity. These documents shall remain posted for a minimum of 5 working days or until action correcting the violation has been completed, whichever is later.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 22217, Aug. 17, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8783, Mar. 3, 1975; 47 FR 30454, July 14, 1982; 58 FR 52408, Oct. 8, 1993; 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 61 FR 6764, Feb. 22, 1996; 62 FR 48166, Sept. 15, 1997; 68 FR 58801, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 49484, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 30457, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66602, Nov. 10, 2014; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.12   Instruction to workers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All individuals who in the course of employment are likely to receive in a year an occupational dose in excess of 100 mrem (1 mSv) shall be—
</P>
<P>(1) Kept informed of the storage, transfer, or use of radiation and/or radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(2) Instructed in the health protection problems associated with exposure to radiation and/or radioactive material, in precautions or procedures to minimize exposure, and in the purposes and functions of protective devices employed;
</P>
<P>(3) Instructed in, and required to observe, to the extent within the workers control, the applicable provisions of Commission regulations and licenses for the protection of personnel from exposure to radiation and/or radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(4) Instructed of their responsibility to report promptly to the licensee any condition which may lead to or cause a violation of Commission regulations and licenses or unnecessary exposure to radiation and/or radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(5) Instructed in the appropriate response to warnings made in the event of any unusual occurrence or malfunction that may involve exposure to radiation and/or radioactive material; and
</P>
<P>(6) Advised as to the radiation exposure reports which workers may request pursuant to § 19.13.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining those individuals subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, licensees must take into consideration assigned activities during normal and abnormal situations involving exposure to radiation and/or radioactive material which can reasonably be expected to occur during the life of a licensed facility. The extent of these instructions must be commensurate with potential radiological health protection problems present in the work place.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36043, July 13, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.13   Notifications and reports to individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Radiation exposure data for an individual, and the results of any measurements, analyses, and calculations of radioactive material deposited or retained in the body of an individual, shall be reported to the individual as specified in this section. The information reported shall include data and results obtained pursuant to Commission regulations, orders or license conditions, as shown in records maintained by the licensee pursuant to Commission regulations. Each notification and report shall: be in writing; include appropriate identifying data such as the name of the licensee, the name of the individual, the individual's social security number; include the individual's exposure information; and contain the following statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This report is furnished to you under the provisions of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission regulation 10 CFR part 19. You should preserve this report for further reference.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall make dose information available to workers as shown in records maintained by the licensee under the provisions of 10 CFR 20.2106. The licensee shall provide an annual report to each individual monitored under 10 CFR 20.1502 of the dose received in that monitoring year if:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual's occupational dose exceeds 1 mSv (100 mrem) TEDE or 1 mSv (100 mrem) to any individual organ or tissue; or
</P>
<P>(2) The individual requests his or her annual dose report.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) At the request of a worker formerly engaged in licensed activities controlled by the licensee, each licensee shall furnish to the worker a report of the worker's exposure to radiation and/or to radioactive material:
</P>
<P>(i) As shown in records maintained by the licensee pursuant to § 20.2106 for each year the worker was required to be monitored under the provisions of § 20.1502; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each year the worker was required to be monitored under the monitoring requirements in effect prior to January 1, 1994.
</P>
<P>(2) This report must be furnished within 30 days from the time the request is made or within 30 days after the exposure of the individual has been determined by the licensee, whichever is later. This report must cover the period of time that the worker's activities involved exposure to radiation from radioactive material licensed by the Commission and must include the dates and locations of licensed activities in which the worker participated during this period.
</P>
<P>(d) When a licensee is required by §§ 20.2202, 20.2203 or 20.2204 of this chapter to report to the Commission any exposure of an individual to radiation or radioactive material, the licensee shall also provide the individual a report on his or her exposure data included in the report to the Commission. This report must be transmitted no later than the transmittal to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) At the request of a worker who is terminating employment with the licensee that involved exposure to radiation or radioactive materials, during the current calendar quarter or the current year, each licensee shall provide at termination to each worker, or to the worker's designee, a written report regarding the radiation dose received by that worker from operations of the licensee during the current year or fraction thereof. If the most recent individual monitoring results are not available at that time, a written estimate of the dose must be provided together with a clear indication that this is an estimate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 22217, Aug. 17, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8783, Mar. 3, 1975; 44 FR 32352, June 6, 1979; 58 FR 67658, Dec. 22, 1993; 59 FR 41642, Aug. 15, 1994; 72 FR 68058, Dec. 4, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.14   Presence of representatives of licensees and regulated entities, and workers during inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee, applicant for a license, applicant for or holder of a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, applicant for an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, and applicant for a standard design certification under subpart B of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter shall afford to the Commission at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect materials, activities, facilities, premises, and records under the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) During an inspection, Commission inspectors may consult privately with workers as specified in § 19.15. The licensee, regulated entity, or the licensee's or regulated entity's representative may accompany Commission inspectors during other phases of an inspection.
</P>
<P>(c) If, at the time of inspection, an individual has been authorized by the workers to represent them during Commission inspections, the licensee or regulated entity shall notify the inspectors of such authorization and shall give the workers' representative an opportunity to accompany the inspectors during the inspection of physical working conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) Each workers' representative shall be routinely engaged in NRC-licensed or regulated activities under control of the licensee or regulated entity, and shall have received instructions as specified in § 19.12.
</P>
<P>(e) Different representatives of licensees or regulated entities, and workers may accompany the inspectors during different phases of an inspection if there is no resulting interference with the conduct of the inspection. However, only one workers' representative at a time may accompany the inspectors.
</P>
<P>(f) With the approval of the licensee or regulated entity, and the workers' representative an individual who is not routinely engaged in licensed or regulated activities under control of the license or regulated entity (for example, a consultant to the licensee, the regulated entity, or the workers' representative), shall be afforded the opportunity to accompany Commission inspectors during the inspection of physical working conditions.
</P>
<P>(g) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this section, Commission inspectors are authorized to refuse to permit accompaniment by any individual who deliberately interferes with a fair and orderly inspection. With regard to areas containing information classified by an agency of the U.S. Government in the interest of national security, an individual who accompanies an inspector may have access to such information only if authorized to do so. With regard to any area containing proprietary information, the workers' representative for that area shall be an individual previously authorized by the licensee or regulated entity to enter that area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49484, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 76 FR 72084, Nov. 22, 2011; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.15   Consultation with workers during inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commission inspectors may consult privately with workers concerning matters of occupational radiation protection and other matters related to applicable provisions of Commission regulations and licenses to the extent the inspectors deem necessary for the conduct of an effective and thorough inspection.
</P>
<P>(b) During the course of an inspection any worker may bring privately to the attention of the inspectors, either orally or in writing, any past or present condition which he has reason to believe may have contributed to or caused any violation of the act, the regulations in this chapter, or license condition, or any unnecessary exposure of an individual to radiation from licensed radioactive material under the licensee's control. Any such notice in writing shall comply with the requirements of § 19.16(a).
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section shall not be interpreted as authorization to disregard instructions pursuant to § 19.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.16" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.16   Requests by workers for inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any worker or representative of workers who believes that a violation of the Act, the regulations in this chapter, or license conditions exists or has occurred in license activities with regard to radiological working conditions in which the worker is engaged, may request an inspection by giving notice of the alleged violation to the Administrator of the appropriate Commission Regional Office, or to Commission inspectors. Any such notice shall be in writing, shall set forth the specific grounds for the notice, and shall be signed by the worker or representative of workers. A copy shall be provided the licensee by the Regional Office Administrator, or the inspector no later than at the time of inspection except that, upon the request of the worker giving such notice, his name and the name of individuals referred to therein shall not appear in such copy or on any record published, released or made available by the Commission, except for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(b) If, upon receipt of such notice, the Regional Office Administrator determines that the complaint meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, and that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the alleged violation exists or has occurred, he shall cause an inspection to be made as soon as practicable, to determine if such alleged violation exists or has occurred. Inspections pursuant to this section need not be limited to matters referred to in the complaint.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 22217, Aug. 17, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8783, Mar. 3, 1975; 47 FR 30454, July 14, 1982; 52 FR 31610, Aug. 21, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.17   Inspections not warranted; informal review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office determines, with respect to a complaint under § 19.16, that an inspection is not warranted because there are no reasonable grounds to believe that a violation exists or has occurred, he shall notify the complainant in writing of such determination. The complainant may obtain review of this determination by submitting a written statement of position to the Executive Director for Operations, either by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. The Executive Director for Operations will provide the licensee with a copy of such statement by certified mail, excluding, at the request of the complainant, the name of the complainant. The licensee may submit an opposing written statement of position with the Executive Director for Operations who will provide the complainant with a copy of such statement by certified mail. Upon the request of the complainant, the Executive Director for Operations or his designee may hold an informal conference in which the complainant and the licensee may orally present their views. An informal conference may also be held at the request of the licensee, but disclosure of the identity of the complainant will be made only following receipt of written authorization from the complainant. After considering all written and oral views presented, the Executive Director for Operations shall affirm, modify, or reverse the determination of the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office and furnish the complainant and the licensee a written notification of his decision and the reason therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office determines that an inspection is not warranted because the requirements of § 19.16(a) have not been met, he shall notify the complainant in writing of such determination. Such determination shall be without prejudice to the filing of a new complaint meeting the requirements of § 19.16(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 22217, Aug. 17, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8783, Mar. 3, 1975; 52 FR 31610, Aug. 21, 1987; 67 FR 77652, Dec. 19, 2002; 68 FR 58801, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62680, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74978, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.18" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.18   Sequestration of witnesses and exclusion of counsel in interviews conducted under subpoena.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All witnesses compelled by subpoena to submit to agency interviews shall be sequestered unless the official conducting the interviews permits otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) Any witness compelled by subpoena to appear at an interview during an agency inquiry may be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel of his or her choice. However, when the agency official conducting the inquiry determines, after consultation with the Office of the General Counsel, that the agency has concrete evidence that the presence of an attorney representing multiple interests would obstruct and impede the investigation or inspection, the agency official may prohibit that counsel from being present during the interview.
</P>
<P>(c) The interviewing official is to provide a witness whose counsel has been excluded under paragraph (b) of this section and the witness's counsel a written statement of the reasons supporting the decision to exclude. This statement, which must be provided no later than five working days after exclusion, must explain the basis for the counsel's exclusion. This statement must also advise the witness of the witness' right to appeal the exclusion decision and obtain an automatic stay of the effectiveness of the subpoena by filing a motion to quash the subpoena with the Commission within five days of receipt of this written statement.
</P>
<P>(d) Within five days after receipt of the written notification required in paragraph (c) of this section, a witness whose counsel has been excluded may appeal the exclusion decision by filing a motion to quash the subpoena with the Commission. The filing of the motion to quash will stay the effectiveness of the subpoena pending the Commission's decision on the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) If a witness' counsel is excluded under paragraph (b) of this section, the interview may, at the witness' request, either proceed without counsel or be delayed for a reasonable period of time to permit the retention of new counsel. The interview may also be rescheduled to a subsequent date established by the NRC, although the interview shall not be rescheduled by the NRC to a date that precedes the expiration of the time provided under § 19.18(d) for appeal of the exclusion of counsel, unless the witness consents to an earlier date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 247, Jan. 4, 1990, as amended at 56 FR 65948, Dec. 19, 1991; 57 FR 61785, Dec. 29, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.20   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>Employment discrimination by a licensee, a holder of a certificate of compliance issued under part 76 of this chapter or regulated entity subject to the requirements in this part as delineated in § 19.2(a), or a contractor or subcontractor of a licensee, a holder of a certificate of compliance issued under part 76 of this chapter, or regulated entity subject to the requirements in this part as delineated in § 19.2(a), against an employee for engaging in protected activities under this part or part 30, 40, 50, 52, 53, 54, 60, 61, 63, 70, 72, 76, or 150 of this chapter is prohibited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49485, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.30" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.30   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55071, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.31   Application for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law, will not result in undue hazard to life and property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49485, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.32   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>No person shall on the grounds of sex be excluded from participation in, be denied a license, be denied the benefit of, or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity carried on which is under the jurisdiction of the NRC under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or under any title of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. This provision will be enforced through agency provisions and regulations similar to those already established, with respect to racial and other discrimination, under Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. This remedy is not exclusive, however, and will not prejudice or cut off any other legal remedies available to a discriminatee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49485, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.40" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.15.0.76.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.40   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 19 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 19 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 19.1, 19.2, 19.3, 19.4, 19.5, 19.8, 19.16, 19.17, 19.18, 19.30, 19.31, and 19.40.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55071, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 20—STANDARDS FOR PROTECTION AGAINST RADIATION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 53, 63, 65, 81, 103, 104, 161, 170H, 182, 186, 223, 234, 274, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2073, 2093, 2095, 2111, 2133, 2134, 2201, 2210h, 2232, 2236, 2273, 2282, 2021, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985, sec. 2 (42 U.S.C. 2021b); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23391, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1001" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1001   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part establish standards for protection against ionizing radiation resulting from activities conducted under licenses issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. These regulations are issued under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the purpose of the regulations in this part to control the receipt, possession, use, transfer, and disposal of licensed material by any licensee in such a manner that the total dose to an individual (including doses resulting from licensed and unlicensed radioactive material and from radiation sources other than background radiation) does not exceed the standards for protection against radiation prescribed in the regulations in this part. However, nothing in this part shall be construed as limiting actions that may be necessary to protect health and safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1002" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1002   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to persons licensed by the Commission to receive, possess, use, transfer, or dispose of byproduct, source, or special nuclear material or to operate a production or utilization facility under parts 30 through 36 or part 39, 40, 50, 52, 53, 60, 61, 63, 70, or 72 of this chapter, and in accordance with 10 CFR 76.60 to persons required to obtain a certificate of compliance or an approved compliance plan under part 76 of this chapter. The limits in this part do not apply to doses due to background radiation, to exposure of patients to radiation for the purpose of medical diagnosis or therapy, to exposure from individuals administered radioactive material and released under § 35.75, or to exposure from voluntary participation in medical research programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49485, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026; 91 FR 18772, Apr. 13, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1003" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1003   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Absorbed dose</I> means the energy imparted by ionizing radiation per unit mass of irradiated material. The units of absorbed dose are the rad and the gray (Gy).
</P>
<P><I>Accelerator-produced radioactive material</I> means any material made radioactive by a particle accelerator.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Activity</I> is the rate of disintegration (transformation) or decay of radioactive material. The units of activity are the curie (Ci) and the becquerel (Bq).
</P>
<P><I>Adult</I> means an individual 18 or more years of age.
</P>
<P><I>Airborne radioactive material</I> means radioactive material dispersed in the air in the form of dusts, fumes, particulates, mists, vapors, or gases.
</P>
<P><I>Airborne radioactivity area</I> means a room, enclosure, or area in which airborne radioactive materials, composed wholly or partly of licensed material, exist in concentrations—
</P>
<P>(1) In excess of the derived air concentrations (DACs) specified in appendix B, to §§ 20.1001-20.2401, or
</P>
<P>(2) To such a degree that an individual present in the area without respiratory protective equipment could exceed, during the hours an individual is present in a week, an intake of 0.6 percent of the annual limit on intake (ALI) or 12 DAC-hours.
</P>
<P><I>Air-purifying respirator</I> means a respirator with an air-purifying filter, cartridge, or canister that removes specific air contaminants by passing ambient air through the air-purifying element.
</P>
<P><I>ALARA</I> (acronym for “as low as is reasonably achievable”) means making every reasonable effort to maintain exposures to radiation as far below the dose limits in this part as is practical consistent with the purpose for which the licensed activity is undertaken, taking into account the state of technology, the economics of improvements in relation to state of technology, the economics of improvements in relation to benefits to the public health and safety, and other societal and socioeconomic considerations, and in relation to utilization of nuclear energy and licensed materials in the public interest.
</P>
<P><I>Annual limit on intake</I> (ALI) means the derived limit for the amount of radioactive material taken into the body of an adult worker by inhalation or ingestion in a year. ALI is the smaller value of intake of a given radionuclide in a year by the reference man that would result in a committed effective dose equivalent of 5 rems (0.05 Sv) or a committed dose equivalent of 50 rems (0.5 Sv) to any individual organ or tissue. (ALI values for intake by ingestion and by inhalation of selected radionuclides are given in table 1, columns 1 and 2, of appendix B to §§ 20.1001-20.2401).
</P>
<P><I>Assigned protection factor (APF)</I> means the expected workplace level of respiratory protection that would be provided by a properly functioning respirator or a class of respirators to properly fitted and trained users. Operationally, the inhaled concentration can be estimated by dividing the ambient airborne concentration by the APF.
</P>
<P><I>Atmosphere-supplying respirator</I> means a respirator that supplies the respirator user with breathing air from a source independent of the ambient atmosphere, and includes supplied-air respirators (SARs) and self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) units.
</P>
<P><I>Background radiation</I> means radiation from cosmic sources; naturally occurring radioactive material, including radon (except as a decay product of source or special nuclear material); and global fallout as it exists in the environment from the testing of nuclear explosive devices or from past nuclear accidents such as Chernobyl that contribute to background radiation and are not under the control of the licensee. <I>“Background radiation”</I> does not include radiation from source, byproduct, or special nuclear materials regulated by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Bioassay</I> (radiobioassay) means the determination of kinds, quantities or concentrations, and, in some cases, the locations of radioactive material in the human body, whether by direct measurement (in vivo counting) or by analysis and evaluation of materials excreted or removed from the human body.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2) The tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from ore processed primarily for its source material content, including discrete surface wastes resulting from uranium solution extraction processes. Underground ore bodies depleted by these solution extraction operations do not constitute “byproduct material” within this definition;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Class</I> (or <I>lung class</I> or <I>inhalation class</I>) means a classification scheme for inhaled material according to its rate of clearance from the pulmonary region of the lung. Materials are classified as D, W, or Y, which applies to a range of clearance half-times: for Class D (Days) of less than 10 days, for Class W (Weeks) from 10 to 100 days, and for Class Y (Years) of greater than 100 days.
</P>
<P><I>Collective dose</I> is the sum of the individual doses received in a given period of time by a specified population from exposure to a specified source of radiation.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Committed dose equivalent</I> (H<E T="52">T,50</E>) means the dose equivalent to organs or tissues of reference (T) that will be received from an intake of radioactive material by an individual during the 50-year period following the intake.
</P>
<P><I>Committed effective dose equivalent</I> (H<E T="52">E,50</E>) is the sum of the products of the weighting factors applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated and the committed dose equivalent to these organs or tissues (H<E T="52">E,50</E> = Σ w<E T="52">T</E> H<E T="52">T,50</E>).
</P>
<P><I>Constraint (dose constraint)</I> means a value above which specified licensee actions are required.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled area</I> means an area, outside of a restricted area but inside the site boundary, access to which can be limited by the licensee for any reason.
</P>
<P><I>Critical Group</I> means the group of individuals reasonably expected to receive the greatest exposure to residual radioactivity for any applicable set of circumstances.
</P>
<P><I>Declared pregnant woman</I> means a woman who has voluntarily informed the licensee, in writing, of her pregnancy and the estimated date of conception. The declaration remains in effect until the declared pregnant woman withdraws the declaration in writing or is no longer pregnant.
</P>
<P><I>Decommission</I> means to remove a facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits—
</P>
<P>(1) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or
</P>
<P>(2) Release of the property under restricted conditions and the termination of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Deep-dose equivalent</I> (H<E T="52">d</E>), which applies to external whole-body exposure, is the dose equivalent at a tissue depth of 1 cm (1000 mg/cm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P><I>Demand respirator</I> means an atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece only when a negative pressure is created inside the facepiece by inhalation.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>) to the extent that the Department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the U.S. Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers, and components and transferred to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104 (b), (c), and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151).
</P>
<P><I>Derived air concentration</I> (DAC) means the concentration of a given radionuclide in air which, if breathed by the reference man for a working year of 2,000 hours under conditions of light work (inhalation rate 1.2 cubic meters of air per hour), results in an intake of one ALI. DAC values are given in table 1, column 3, of appendix B to §§ 20.1001-20.2401.
</P>
<P><I>Derived air concentration-hour</I> (DAC-hour) is the product of the concentration of radioactive material in air (expressed as a fraction or multiple of the derived air concentration for each radionuclide) and the time of exposure to that radionuclide, in hours. A licensee may take 2,000 DAC-hours to represent one ALI, equivalent to a committed effective dose equivalent of 5 rems (0.05 Sv).
</P>
<P><I>Discrete source</I> means a radionuclide that has been processed so that its concentration within a material has been purposely increased for use for commercial, medical, or research activities.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable respirator</I> means a respirator for which maintenance is not intended and that is designed to be discarded after excessive breathing resistance, sorbent exhaustion, physical damage, or end-of-service-life renders it unsuitable for use. Examples of this type of respirator are a disposable half-mask respirator or a disposable escape-only self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
</P>
<P><I>Distinguishable from background</I> means that the detectable concentration of a radionuclide is statistically different from the background concentration of that radionuclide in the vicinity of the site or, in the case of structures, in similar materials using adequate measurement technology, survey, and statistical techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Dose</I> or <I>radiation dose</I> is a generic term that means absorbed dose, dose equivalent, effective dose equivalent, committed dose equivalent, committed effective dose equivalent, or total effective dose equivalent, as defined in other paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Dose equivalent</I> (H<E T="52">T</E>) means the product of the absorbed dose in tissue, quality factor, and all other necessary modifying factors at the location of interest. The units of dose equivalent are the rem and sievert (Sv).
</P>
<P><I>Dosimetry processor</I> means an individual or organization that processes and evaluates individual monitoring equipment in order to determine the radiation dose delivered to the equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Effective dose equivalent</I> (H<E T="52">E</E>) is the sum of the products of the dose equivalent to the organ or tissue (H<E T="52">T</E>) and the weighting factors (w<E T="52">T</E>) applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated (H<E T="52">E</E> = Σ w<E T="52">T</E> H<E T="52">T</E>).
</P>
<P><I>Embryo/fetus</I> means the developing human organism from conception until the time of birth.
</P>
<P><I>Entrance or access point</I> means any location through which an individual could gain access to radiation areas or to radioactive materials. This includes entry or exit portals of sufficient size to permit human entry, irrespective of their intended use.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure</I> means being exposed to ionizing radiation or to radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>External dose</I> means that portion of the dose equivalent received from radiation sources outside the body.
</P>
<P><I>Extremity</I> means hand, elbow, arm below the elbow, foot, knee, or leg below the knee.
</P>
<P><I>Filtering facepiece (dust mask)</I> means a negative pressure particulate respirator with a filter as an integral part of the facepiece or with the entire facepiece composed of the filtering medium, not equipped with elastomeric sealing surfaces and adjustable straps.
</P>
<P><I>Fit factor</I> means a quantitative estimate of the fit of a particular respirator to a specific individual, and typically estimates the ratio of the concentration of a substance in ambient air to its concentration inside the respirator when worn.
</P>
<P><I>Fit test</I> means the use of a protocol to qualitatively or quantitatively evaluate the fit of a respirator on an individual.
</P>
<P><I>Generally applicable environmental radiation standards</I> means standards issued by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, that impose limits on radiation exposures or levels, or concentrations or quantities of radioactive material, in the general environment outside the boundaries of locations under the control of persons possessing or using radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation wholly or partly owned by the United States of America, which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government.
</P>
<P><I>Gray</I> [See § 20.1004].
</P>
<P><I>Helmet</I> means a rigid respiratory inlet covering that also provides head protection against impact and penetration.
</P>
<P><I>High radiation area</I> means an area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels from radiation sources external to the body could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in 1 hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source or 30 centimeters from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
</P>
<P><I>Hood</I> means a respiratory inlet covering that completely covers the head and neck and may also cover portions of the shoulders and torso.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means any human being.
</P>
<P><I>Individual monitoring</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) The assessment of dose equivalent by the use of devices designed to be worn by an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) The assessment of committed effective dose equivalent by bioassay (see <I>Bioassay</I>) or by determination of the time-weighted air concentrations to which an individual has been exposed, i.e., DAC-hours; or
</P>
<P>(3) The assessment of dose equivalent by the use of survey data.
</P>
<P><I>Individual monitoring devices</I> (individual monitoring equipment) means devices designed to be worn by a single individual for the assessment of dose equivalent such as film badges, thermoluminescence dosimeters (TLDs), pocket ionization chambers, and personal (“lapel”) air sampling devices.
</P>
<P><I>Internal dose</I> means that portion of the dose equivalent received from radioactive material taken into the body.
</P>
<P><I>Lens dose equivalent (LDE)</I> applies to the external exposure of the lens of the eye and is taken as the dose equivalent at a tissue depth of 0.3 centimeter (300 mg/cm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a license issued under the regulations in parts 30 through 36 or part 39, 40, 50, 53, 60, 61, 63, 70, or 72 of this chapter.






</P>
<P><I>Licensed material</I> means source material, special nuclear material, or byproduct material received, possessed, used, transferred or disposed of under a general or specific license issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means the holder of a license.
</P>
<P><I>Limits</I> (dose limits) means the permissible upper bounds of radiation doses.
</P>
<P><I>Loose-fitting facepiece</I> means a respiratory inlet covering that is designed to form a partial seal with the face.
</P>
<P><I>Lost or missing licensed material</I> means licensed material whose location is unknown. It includes material that has been shipped but has not reached its destination and whose location cannot be readily traced in the transportation system.
</P>
<P><I>Member of the public</I> means any individual except when that individual is receiving an occupational dose.
</P>
<P><I>Minor</I> means an individual less than 18 years of age.
</P>
<P><I>Monitoring</I> (radiation monitoring, radiation protection monitoring) means the measurement of radiation levels, concentrations, surface area concentrations or quantities of radioactive material and the use of the results of these measurements to evaluate potential exposures and doses.
</P>
<P><I>Nationally tracked source</I> is a sealed source containing a quantity equal to or greater than Category 1 or Category 2 levels of any radioactive material listed in Appendix E of this part. In this context a sealed source is defined as radioactive material that is sealed in a capsule or closely bonded, in a solid form and which is not exempt from regulatory control. It does not mean material encapsulated solely for disposal, or nuclear material contained in any fuel assembly, subassembly, fuel rod, or fuel pellet. Category 1 nationally tracked sources are those containing radioactive material at a quantity equal to or greater than the Category 1 threshold. Category 2 nationally tracked sources are those containing radioactive material at a quantity equal to or greater than the Category 2 threshold but less than the Category 1 threshold. 
</P>
<P><I>Negative pressure respirator (tight fitting)</I> means a respirator in which the air pressure inside the facepiece is negative during inhalation with respect to the ambient air pressure outside the respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Nonstochastic effect</I> means health effects, the severity of which varies with the dose and for which a threshold is believed to exist. Radiation-induced cataract formation is an example of a nonstochastic effect (also called a deterministic effect).
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Occupational dose</I> means the dose received by an individual in the course of employment in which the individual's assigned duties involve exposure to radiation or to radioactive material from licensed and unlicensed sources of radiation, whether in the possession of the licensee or other person. Occupational dose does not include doses received from background radiation, from any medical administration the individual has received, from exposure to individuals administered radioactive material and released under § 35.75, from voluntary participation in medical research programs, or as a member of the public. 
</P>
<P><I>Particle accelerator</I> means any machine capable of accelerating electrons, protons, deuterons, or other charged particles in a vacuum and of discharging the resultant particulate or other radiation into a medium at energies usually in excess of 1 megaelectron volt. For purposes of this definition, “accelerator” is an equivalent term.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy (except that the Department shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in 10 CFR chapter I to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission under section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244), the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978 (92 Stat. 3021), the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (96 Stat. 2201), and section 3(b)(2) of the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985 (99 Stat. 1842)), any State or any political subdivision of or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Planned special exposure</I> means an infrequent exposure to radiation, separate from and in addition to the annual dose limits.
</P>
<P><I>Positive pressure respirator</I> means a respirator in which the pressure inside the respiratory inlet covering exceeds the ambient air pressure outside the respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)</I> means an air-purifying respirator that uses a blower to force the ambient air through air-purifying elements to the inlet covering.
</P>
<P><I>Pressure demand respirator</I> means a positive pressure atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece when the positive pressure is reduced inside the facepiece by inhalation.
</P>
<P><I>Public dose</I> means the dose received by a member of the public from exposure to radiation or to radioactive material released by a licensee, or to any other source of radiation under the control of a licensee. Public dose does not include occupational dose or doses received from background radiation, from any medical administration the individual has received, from exposure to individuals administered radioactive material and released under § 35.75, or from voluntary participation in medical research programs. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualitative fit test (QLFT)</I> means a pass/fail fit test to assess the adequacy of respirator fit that relies on the individual's response to the test agent.
</P>
<P><I>Quality Factor (Q)</I> means the modifying factor (listed in tables 1004(b).1 and 1004(b).2 of § 20.1004) that is used to derive dose equivalent from absorbed dose.
</P>
<P><I>Quantitative fit test (QNFT)</I> means an assessment of the adequacy of respirator fit by numerically measuring the amount of leakage into the respirator.
</P>
<P><I>Quarter</I> means a period of time equal to one-fourth of the year observed by the licensee (approximately 13 consective weeks), providing that the beginning of the first quarter in a year coincides with the starting date of the year and that no day is omitted or duplicated in consecutive quarters.
</P>
<P><I>Rad</I> (See § 20.1004).
</P>
<P><I>Radiation</I> (ionizing radiation) means alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, x-rays, neutrons, high-speed electrons, high-speed protons, and other particles capable of producing ions. Radiation, as used in this part, does not include non-ionizing radiation, such as radio- or microwaves, or visible, infrared, or ultraviolet light.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation area</I> means an area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of 0.005 rem (0.05 mSv) in 1 hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
</P>
<P><I>Reference man</I> means a hypothetical aggregation of human physical and physiological characteristics arrived at by international consensus. These characteristics may be used by researchers and public health workers to standardize results of experiments and to relate biological insult to a common base.
</P>
<P><I>Rem</I> (See § 20.1004).
</P>
<P><I>Residual radioactivity</I> means radioactivity in structures, materials, soils, groundwater, and other media at a site resulting from activities under the licensee's control. This includes radioactivity from all licensed and unlicensed sources used by the licensee, but excludes background radiation. It also includes radioactive materials remaining at the site as a result of routine or accidental releases of radioactive material at the site and previous burials at the site, even if those burials were made in accordance with the provisions of 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P><I>Respiratory protective device</I> means an apparatus, such as a respirator, used to reduce the individual's intake of airborne radioactive materials.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted area</I> means an area, access to which is limited by the licensee for the purpose of protecting individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials. Restricted area does not include areas used as residential quarters, but separate rooms in a residential building may be set apart as a restricted area.
</P>
<P><I>Sanitary sewerage</I> means a system of public sewers for carrying off waste water and refuse, but excluding sewage treatment facilities, septic tanks, and leach fields owned or operated by the licensee.
</P>
<P><I>Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)</I> means an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the breathing air source is designed to be carried by the user.
</P>
<P><I>Shallow-dose equivalent (H</I><E T="52">s</E><I>),</I> which applies to the external exposure of the skin of the whole body or the skin of an extremity, is taken as the dose equivalent at a tissue depth of 0.007 centimeter (7 mg/cm
<SU>2</SU>). 
</P>
<P><I>Site boundary</I> means that line beyond which the land or property is not owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by the licensee.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium or thorium or any combination of uranium and thorium in any physical or chemical form; or
</P>
<P>(2) Ores that contain, by weight, one-twentieth of 1 percent (0.05 percent), or more, of uranium, thorium, or any combination of uranium and thorium. Source material does not include special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material that the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Act, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing but does not include source material.
</P>
<P><I>Stochastic effects</I> means health effects that occur randomly and for which the probability of the effect occurring, rather than its severity, is assumed to be a linear function of dose without threshold. Hereditary effects and cancer incidence are examples of stochastic effects.
</P>
<P><I>Supplied-air respirator (SAR)</I> or <I>airline respirator</I> means an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the source of breathing air is not designed to be carried by the user.
</P>
<P><I>Survey</I> means an evaluation of the radiological conditions and potential hazards incident to the production, use, transfer, release, disposal, or presence of radioactive material or other sources of radiation. When appropriate, such an evaluation includes a physical survey of the location of radioactive material and measurements or calculations of levels of radiation, or concentrations or quantities of radioactive material present.
</P>
<P><I>Tight-fitting facepiece</I> means a respiratory inlet covering that forms a complete seal with the face.
</P>
<P><I>Total Effective Dose Equivalent</I> (TEDE) means the sum of the effective dose equivalent (for external exposures) and the committed effective dose equivalent (for internal exposures).
</P>
<P><I>Unrestricted area</I> means an area, access to which is neither limited nor controlled by the licensee.
</P>
<P><I>Uranium fuel cycle</I> means the operations of milling of uranium ore, chemical conversion of uranium, isotopic enrichment of uranium, fabrication of uranium fuel, generation of electricity by a light-water-cooled nuclear power plant using uranium fuel, and reprocessing of spent uranium fuel to the extent that these activities directly support the production of electrical power for public use. Uranium fuel cycle does not include mining operations, operations at waste disposal sites, transportation of radioactive material in support of these operations, and the reuse of recovered non-uranium special nuclear and byproduct materials from the cycle.
</P>
<P><I>User seal check (fit check)</I> means an action conducted by the respirator user to determine if the respirator is properly seated to the face. Examples include negative pressure check, positive pressure check, irritant smoke check, or isoamyl acetate check.
</P>
<P><I>Very high radiation area</I> means an area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels from radiation sources external to the body could result in an individual receiving an absorbed dose in excess of 500 rads (5 grays) in 1 hour at 1 meter from a radiation source or 1 meter from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>At very high doses received at high dose rates, units of absorbed dose (e.g., rads and grays) are appropriate, rather than units of dose equivalent (e.g., rems and sieverts)).</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Waste</I> means those low-level radioactive wastes containing source, special nuclear, or byproduct material that are acceptable for disposal in a land disposal facility. For the purposes of this definition, low-level radioactive waste means radioactive waste not classified as high-level radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel, or byproduct material as defined in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of the definition of Byproduct material set forth in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Week</I> means 7 consecutive days starting on Sunday.
</P>
<P><I>Weighting factor</I> w<E T="52">T</E>, for an organ or tissue (T) is the proportion of the risk of stochastic effects resulting from irradiation of that organ or tissue to the total risk of stochastic effects when the whole body is irradiated uniformly. For calculating the effective dose equivalent, the values of w<E T="52">T</E> are:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Organ Dose Weighting Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Organ or tissue
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">w<E T="52">T</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gonads</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Breast</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red bone marrow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lung</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyroid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bone surfaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remainder</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 0.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole Body</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 1.00
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> 0.30 results from 0.06 for each of 5 “remainder” organs (excluding the skin and the lens of the eye) that receive the highest doses.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For the purpose of weighting the external whole body dose (for adding it to the internal dose), a single weighting factor, w<E T="52">T</E> = 1.0, has been specified. The use of other weighting factors for external exposure will be approved on a case-by-case basis until such time as specific guidance is issued.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Whole body</I> means, for purposes of external exposure, head, trunk (including male gonads), arms above the elbow, or legs above the knee.
</P>
<P><I>Working level</I> (WL) is any combination of short-lived radon daughters (for radon-222: polonium-218, lead-214, bismuth-214, and polonium-214; and for radon-220: polonium-216, lead-212, bismuth-212, and polonium-212) in 1 liter of air that will result in the ultimate emission of 1.3 × 10
<SU>5</SU> MeV of potential alpha particle energy.
</P>
<P><I>Working level month</I> (WLM) means an exposure to 1 working level for 170 hours (2,000 working hours per year/12 months per year = approximately 170 hours per month).
</P>
<P><I>Year</I> means the period of time beginning in January used to determine compliance with the provisions of this part. The licensee may change the starting date of the year used to determine compliance by the licensee provided that the change is made at the beginning of the year and that no day is omitted or duplicated in consecutive years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23391, May 21, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 57878, Dec. 8, 1992; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 60 FR 36043, July 13, 1995; 60 FR 48625, Sept. 20, 1995; 61 FR 65127, Dec. 10, 1996; 62 FR 4133, Jan. 29, 1997; 62 FR 39087, July 21, 1997; 63 FR 39481, July 23, 1998; 64 FR 54556, Oct. 7, 1999; 66 FR 55789, Nov. 2, 2001; 67 FR 16304, Apr. 5, 2002; 67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002; 67 FR 62872, Oct. 9, 2002; 71 FR 65707, Nov. 8, 2006; 72 FR 55921, Oct. 1, 2007; 72 FR 68058, Dec. 4, 2007; 74 FR 62680, Dec. 1, 2009; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1004" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1004   Units of radiation dose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this part, the units of radiation dose are:
</P>
<P><I>Gray</I> (Gy) is the SI unit of absorbed dose. One gray is equal to an absorbed dose of 1 Joule/kilogram (100 rads).
</P>
<P><I>Rad</I> is the special unit of absorbed dose. One rad is equal to an absorbed dose of 100 ergs/gram or 0.01 joule/kilogram (0.01 gray).
</P>
<P><I>Rem</I> is the special unit of any of the quantities expressed as dose equivalent. The dose equivalent in rems is equal to the absorbed dose in rads multiplied by the quality factor (1 rem = 0.01 sievert).
</P>
<P><I>Sievert</I> is the SI unit of any of the quantities expressed as dose equivalent. The dose equivalent in sieverts is equal to the absorbed dose in grays multiplied by the quality factor (1 Sv = 100 rems).
</P>
<P>(b) As used in this part, the quality factors for converting absorbed dose to dose equivalent are shown in table 1004(b).1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1004(<E T="01">b</E>).1—Quality Factors and Absorbed Dose Equivalencies
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Type of radiation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quality factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Absorbed dose equal to a unit dose equivalent 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(Q)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X-, gamma, or beta radiation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha particles, multiple-charged particles, fission fragments and heavy particles of unknown charge</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neutrons of unknown energy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High-energy protons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Absorbed dose in rad equal to 1 rem or the absorbed dose in gray equal to 1 sievert.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) If it is more convenient to measure the neutron fluence rate than to determine the neutron dose equivalent rate in rems per hour or sieverts per hour, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, 1 rem (0.01 Sv) of neutron radiation of unknown energies may, for purposes of the regulations in this part, be assumed to result from a total fluence of 25 million neutrons per square centimeter incident upon the body. If sufficient information exists to estimate the approximate energy distribution of the neutrons, the licensee may use the fluence rate per unit dose equivalent or the appropriate Q value from table 1004(b).2 to convert a measured tissue dose in rads to dose equivalent in rems.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1004(<E T="01">b</E>).2—Mean Quality Factors, Q, and Fluence per Unit Dose Equivalent for Monoenergetic Neutrons
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Neutron energy (MeV)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quality factor 
<sup>a</sup> (Q)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fluence per unit dose equivalent 
<sup>b</sup> (neutrons cm<E T="51">−2</E> rem <E T="51">−1</E>)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(thermal)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10 <E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 980 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10 <E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 980 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10 <E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 810 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10 <E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 810 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10 <E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 840 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10 <E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 980 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10 <E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1010 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10 <E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 170 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10 <E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 39 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 27 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 29 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 23 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 24 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 24 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 17 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 16 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 14 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 16 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 20 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 19 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 16 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 14 × 10 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Value of quality factor (Q) at the point where the dose equivalent is maximum in a 30-cm diameter cylinder tissue-equivalent phantom.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Monoenergetic neutrons incident normally on a 30-cm diameter cylinder tissue-equivalent phantom.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1005" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1005   Units of radioactivity.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, activity is expressed in the special unit of curies (Ci) or in the SI unit of becquerels (Bq), or their multiples, or disintegrations (transformations) per unit of time.
</P>
<P>(a) One becquerel = 1 disintegration per second (s<E T="51">−1</E>).
</P>
<P>(b) One curie = 3.7 × 10 
<SU>10</SU> disintegrations per second = 3.7 × 10 
<SU>10</SU> becquerels = 2.22 × 10 
<SU>12</SU> disintegrations per minute.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23391, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1006" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1006   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by an officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23391, May 21, 1991, as amended at 90 FR 55628, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1007" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1007   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, communications or reports concerning the regulations in this part should be addressed to the Executive Director for Operations (EDO), and sent either by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58801, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62680, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1008" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1008   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) The applicable section of §§ 20.1001-20.2402 must be used in lieu of requirements in the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> that are cited in license conditions or technical specifications, except as specified in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section. If the requirements of this part are more restrictive than the existing license condition, then the licensee shall comply with this part unless exempted by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See §§ 20.1-20.602 codified as of January 1, 1993.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Any existing license condition or technical specification that is more restrictive than a requirement in §§ 20.1001-20.2402 remains in force until there is a technical specification change, license amendment, or license renewal.
</P>
<P>(d) If a license condition or technical specification exempted a licensee from a requirement in the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994, 
<SU>1</SU> it continues to exempt a licensee from the corresponding provision of §§ 20.1001-20.2402.
</P>
<P>(e) If a license condition cites provisions in requirements in the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994 
<SU>1</SU> and there are no corresponding provisions in §§ 20.1001-20.2402, then the license condition remains in force until there is a technical specification change, license amendment, or license renewal that modifies or removes this condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 41643, Aug. 15, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1009" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.1.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1009   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0014.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 20.1003, 20.1101, 20.1202, 20.1203, 20.1204, 20.1206, 20.1208, 20.1301, 20.1302, 20.1403, 20.1404, 20.1406, 20.1501, 20.1601, 20.1703, 20.1901, 20.1904, 20.1905, 20.1906, 20.2002, 20.2004, 20.2005, 20.2006, 20.2102, 20.2103, 20.2104, 20.2105, 20.2106, 20.2107, 20.2108, 20.2110, 20.2201, 20.2202, 20.2203, 20.2204, 20.2205, 20.2206, 20.2207, 20.2301, and appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 20.2104, NRC Form 4 is approved under control number 3150-0005.
</P>
<P>(2) In §§ 20.2106 and 20.2206, NRC Form 5 is approved under control number 3150-0006.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 20.2006 and appendix G to 10 CFR part 20, NRC Form 540 and 540A is approved under control number 3150-0164.
</P>
<P>(4) In § 20.2006 and appendix G to 10 CFR part 20, NRC Form 541 and 541A is approved under control number 3150-0166.
</P>
<P>(5) In § 20.2006 and appendix G to 10 CFR part 20, NRC Form 542 and 542A is approved under control number 3150-0165.
</P>
<P>(6) In § 20.2207, NRC Form 748 is approved under control number 3150-0202.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 50128, Sept. 21, 1998, as amended at 67 FR 67099, Nov. 4, 2002; 71 FR 65707, Nov. 8, 2006; 72 FR 55922, Oct. 1, 2007; 77 FR 39905, July 6, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Radiation Protection Programs</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.2.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1101   Radiation protection programs.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260330" REFID="62">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall develop, document, and implement a radiation protection program commensurate with the scope and extent of licensed activities and sufficient to ensure compliance with the provisions of this part. (See § 20.2102 for recordkeeping requirements relating to these programs.)
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall use, to the extent practical, procedures and engineering controls based upon sound radiation protection principles to achieve occupational doses and doses to members of the public that are as low as is reasonably achievable (ALARA).
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall periodically (at least annually) review the radiation protection program content and implementation.
</P>
<P>(d) To implement the ALARA requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and notwithstanding the requirements in § 20.1301, a constraint on air emissions of radioactive material to the environment, excluding Radon-222 and its daughters, shall be established by licensees other than those subject to § 50.34a or § 53.260 of this chapter, such that the individual member of the public likely to receive the highest dose will not be expected to receive a total effective dose equivalent in excess of 10 mrem (0.1 mSv) per year from these emissions. If a licensee subject to this requirement exceeds this dose constraint, the licensee shall report the exceedance as provided in § 20.2203 and promptly take appropriate corrective action to ensure against recurrence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 65127, Dec. 10, 1996; 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Occupational Dose Limits</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1201" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1201   Occupational dose limits for adults.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall control the occupational dose to individual adults, except for planned special exposures under § 20.1206, to the following dose limits.
</P>
<P>(1) An annual limit, which is the more limiting of—
</P>
<P>(i) The total effective dose equivalent being equal to 5 rems (0.05 Sv); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the deep-dose equivalent and the committed dose equivalent to any individual organ or tissue other than the lens of the eye being equal to 50 rems (0.5 Sv).
</P>
<P>(2) The annual limits to the lens of the eye, to the skin of the whole body, and to the skin of the extremities, which are: 
</P>
<P>(i) A lens dose equivalent of 15 rems (0.15 Sv), and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A shallow-dose equivalent of 50 rem (0.5 Sv) to the skin of the whole body or to the skin of any extremity. 
</P>
<P>(b) Doses received in excess of the annual limits, including doses received during accidents, emergencies, and planned special exposures, must be subtracted from the limits for planned special exposures that the individual may receive during the current year (see § 20.1206(e)(1)) and during the individual's lifetime (see § 20.1206(e)(2)).
</P>
<P>(c) When the external exposure is determined by measurement with an external personal monitoring device, the deep-dose equivalent must be used in place of the effective dose equivalent, unless the effective dose equivalent is determined by a dosimetry method approved by the NRC. The assigned deep-dose equivalent must be for the part of the body receiving the highest exposure. The assigned shallow-dose equivalent must be the dose averaged over the contiguous 10 square centimeters of skin receiving the highest exposure. The deep-dose equivalent, lens-dose equivalent, and shallow-dose equivalent may be assessed from surveys or other radiation measurements for the purpose of demonstrating compliance with the occupational dose limits, if the individual monitoring device was not in the region of highest potential exposure, or the results of individual monitoring are unavailable.
</P>
<P>(d) Derived air concentration (DAC) and annual limit on intake (ALI) values are presented in table 1 of appendix B to part 20 and may be used to determine the individual's dose (see § 20.2106) and to demonstrate compliance with the occupational dose limits.
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to the annual dose limits, the licensee shall limit the soluble uranium intake by an individual to 10 milligrams in a week in consideration of chemical toxicity (see footnote 3 of appendix B to part 20).
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee shall reduce the dose that an individual may be allowed to receive in the current year by the amount of occupational dose received while employed by any other person (see § 20.2104(e)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995; 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998; 67 FR 16304, Apr. 5, 2002; 72 FR 68059, Dec. 4, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1202" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1202   Compliance with requirements for summation of external and internal doses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the licensee is required to monitor under both §§ 20.1502 (a) and (b), the licensee shall demonstrate compliance with the dose limits by summing external and internal doses. If the licensee is required to monitor only under § 20.1502(a) or only under § 20.1502(b), then summation is not required to demonstrate compliance with the dose limits. The licensee may demonstrate compliance with the requirements for summation of external and internal doses by meeting one of the conditions specified in paragraph (b) of this section and the conditions in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>(Note:</HED>
<P>The dose equivalents for the lens of the eye, the skin, and the extremities are not included in the summation, but are subject to separate limits.)</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Intake by inhalation.</I> If the only intake of radionuclides is by inhalation, the total effective dose equivalent limit is not exceeded if the sum of the deep-dose equivalent divided by the total effective dose equivalent limit, and one of the following, does not exceed unity:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the fractions of the inhalation ALI for each radionuclide, or
</P>
<P>(2) The total number of derived air concentration-hours (DAC-hours) for all radionuclides divided by 2,000, or
</P>
<P>(3) The sum of the calculated committed effective dose equivalents to all significantly irradiated 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> organs or tissues (T) calculated from bioassay data using appropriate biological models and expressed as a fraction of the annual limit.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> An organ or tissue is deemed to be significantly irradiated if, for that organ or tissue, the product of the weighting factor, w<E T="52">T</E>, and the committed dose equivalent, H<E T="52">T,50</E>, per unit intake is greater than 10 percent of the maximum weighted value of H<E T="52">T,50</E>, (<I>i.e.</I>, W<E T="52">T</E> H<E T="52">T,50</E>) per unit intake for any organ or tissue.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Intake by oral ingestion.</I> If the occupationally exposed individual also receives an intake of radionuclides by oral ingestion greater than 10 percent of the applicable oral ALI, the licensee shall account for this intake and include it in demonstrating compliance with the limits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Intake through wounds or absorption through skin.</I> The licensee shall evaluate and, to the extent practical, account for intakes through wounds or skin absorption.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The intake through intact skin has been included in the calculation of DAC for hydrogen-3 and does not need to be further evaluated.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 57878, Dec. 8, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1203" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1203   Determination of external dose from airborne radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees shall, when determining the dose from airborne radioactive material, include the contribution to the deep-dose equivalent, lens dose equivalent, and shallow-dose equivalent from external exposure to the radioactive cloud (see appendix B to part 20, footnotes 1 and 2).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Airborne radioactivity measurements and DAC values should not be used as the primary means to assess the deep-dose equivalent when the airborne radioactive material includes radionuclides other than noble gases or if the cloud of airborne radioactive material is not relatively uniform. The determination of the deep-dose equivalent to an individual should be based upon measurements using instruments or individual monitoring devices.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995; 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1204   Determination of internal exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of assessing dose used to determine compliance with occupational dose equivalent limits, the licensee shall, when required under § 20.1502, take suitable and timely measurements of—
</P>
<P>(1) Concentrations of radioactive materials in air in work areas; or
</P>
<P>(2) Quantities of radionuclides in the body; or
</P>
<P>(3) Quantities of radionuclides excreted from the body; or
</P>
<P>(4) Combinations of these measurements.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless respiratory protective equipment is used, as provided in § 20.1703, or the assessment of intake is based on bioassays, the licensee shall assume that an individual inhales radioactive material at the airborne concentration in which the individual is present.
</P>
<P>(c) When specific information on the physical and biochemical properties of the radionuclides taken into the body or the behavior or the material in an individual is known, the licensee may—
</P>
<P>(1) Use that information to calculate the committed effective dose equivalent, and, if used, the licensee shall document that information in the individual's record; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon prior approval of the Commission, adjust the DAC or ALI values to reflect the actual physical and chemical characteristics of airborne radioactive material (e.g., aerosol size distribution or density); and
</P>
<P>(3) Separately assess the contribution of fractional intakes of Class D, W, or Y compounds of a given radionuclide (see appendix B to part 20) to the committed effective dose equivalent.
</P>
<P>(d) If the licensee chooses to assess intakes of Class Y material using the measurements given in § 20.1204(a)(2) or (3), the licensee may delay the recording and reporting of the assessments for periods up to 7 months, unless otherwise required by §§ 20.2202 or 20.2203, in order to permit the licensee to make additional measurements basic to the assessments.
</P>
<P>(e) If the identity and concentration of each radionuclide in a mixture are known, the fraction of the DAC applicable to the mixture for use in calculating DAC-hours must be either—
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the ratios of the concentration to the appropriate DAC value (e.g., D, W, Y) from appendix B to part 20 for each radio-nuclide in the mixture; or
</P>
<P>(2) The ratio of the total concentration for all radionuclides in the mixture to the most restrictive DAC value for any radionuclide in the mixture.
</P>
<P>(f) If the identity of each radionuclide in a mixture is known, but the concentration of one or more of the radionuclides in the mixture is not known, the DAC for the mixture must be the most restrictive DAC of any radionuclide in the mixture.
</P>
<P>(g) When a mixture of radionuclides in air exists, licensees may disregard certain radionuclides in the mixture if—
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee uses the total activity of the mixture in demonstrating compliance with the dose limits in § 20.1201 and in complying with the monitoring requirements in § 20.1502(b), and
</P>
<P>(2) The concentration of any radionuclide disregarded is less than 10 percent of its DAC, and
</P>
<P>(3) The sum of these percentages for all of the radionuclides disregarded in the mixture does not exceed 30 percent.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) In order to calculate the committed effective dose equivalent, the licensee may assume that the inhalation of one ALI, or an exposure of 2,000 DAC-hours, results in a committed effective dose equivalent of 5 rems (0.05 Sv) for radionuclides that have their ALIs or DACs based on the committed effective dose equivalent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the ALI (and the associated DAC) is determined by the nonstochastic organ dose limit of 50 rems (0.5 Sv), the intake of radionuclides that would result in a committed effective dose equivalent of 5 rems (0.05 Sv) (the stochastic ALI) is listed in parentheses in table 1 of appendix B to part 20. In this case, the licensee may, as a simplifying assumption, use the stochastic ALIs to determine committed effective dose equivalent. However, if the licensee uses the stochastic ALIs, the licensee must also demonstrate that the limit in § 20.1201(a)(1)(ii) is met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1205" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1205   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1206" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1206   Planned special exposures.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee may authorize an adult worker to receive doses in addition to and accounted for separately from the doses received under the limits specified in § 20.1201 provided that each of the following conditions is satisfied—
</P>
<P>(a) The licensee authorizes a planned special exposure only in an exceptional situation when alternatives that might avoid the dose estimated to result from the planned special exposure are unavailable or impractical. 
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee (and employer if the employer is not the licensee) specifically authorizes the planned special exposure, in writing, before the exposure occurs.
</P>
<P>(c) Before a planned special exposure, the licensee ensures that the individuals involved are—
</P>
<P>(1) Informed of the purpose of the planned operation;
</P>
<P>(2) Informed of the estimated doses and associated potential risks and specific radiation levels or other conditions that might be involved in performing the task; and
</P>
<P>(3) Instructed in the measures to be taken to keep the dose ALARA considering other risks that may be present.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to permitting an individual to participate in a planned special exposure, the licensee ascertains prior doses as required by § 20.2104(b) during the lifetime of the individual for each individual involved.
</P>
<P>(e) Subject to § 20.1201(b), the licensee does not authorize a planned special exposure that would cause an individual to receive a dose from all planned special exposures and all doses in excess of the limits to exceed—
</P>
<P>(1) The numerical values of any of the dose limits in § 20.1201(a) in any year; and
</P>
<P>(2) Five times the annual dose limits in § 20.1201(a) during the individual's lifetime.
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee maintains records of the conduct of a planned special exposure in accordance with § 20.2105 and submits a written report in accordance with § 20.2204.
</P>
<P>(g) The licensee records the best estimate of the dose resulting from the planned special exposure in the individual's record and informs the individual, in writing, of the dose within 30 days from the date of the planned special exposure. The dose from planned special exposures is not to be considered in controlling future occupational dose of the individual under § 20.1201(a) but is to be included in evaluations required by § 20.1206 (d) and (e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1207" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1207   Occupational dose limits for minors.</HEAD>
<P>The annual occupational dose limits for minors are 10 percent of the annual dose limits specified for adult workers in § 20.1201.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1208" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.3.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1208   Dose equivalent to an embryo/fetus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall ensure that the dose equivalent to the embryo/fetus during the entire pregnancy, due to the occupational exposure of a declared pregnant woman, does not exceed 0.5 rem (5 mSv). (For recordkeeping requirements, see § 20.2106.)
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall make efforts to avoid substantial variation above a uniform monthly exposure rate to a declared pregnant woman so as to satisfy the limit in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The dose equivalent to the embryo/fetus is the sum of—
</P>
<P>(1) The deep-dose equivalent to the declared pregnant woman; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dose equivalent to the embryo/fetus resulting from radionuclides in the embryo/fetus and radionuclides in the declared pregnant woman.
</P>
<P>(d) If the dose equivalent to the embryo/fetus is found to have exceeded 0.5 rem (5 mSv), or is within 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) of this dose, by the time the woman declares the pregnancy to the licensee, the licensee shall be deemed to be in compliance with paragraph (a) of this section if the additional dose equivalent to the embryo/fetus does not exceed 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) during the remainder of the pregnancy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23396, May 21, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Radiation Dose Limits for Individual Members of the Public</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23398, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1301" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.4.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1301   Dose limits for individual members of the public.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall conduct operations so that— 
</P>
<P>(1) The total effective dose equivalent to individual members of the public from the licensed operation does not exceed 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in a year, exclusive of the dose contributions from background radiation, from any medical administration the individual has received, from exposure to individuals administered radioactive material and released under § 35.75, from voluntary participation in medical research programs, and from the licensee's disposal of radioactive material into sanitary sewerage in accordance with § 20.2003, and 
</P>
<P>(2) The dose in any unrestricted area from external sources, exclusive of the dose contributions from patients administered radioactive material and released in accordance with § 35.75, does not exceed 0.002 rem (0.02 millisievert) in any one hour.
</P>
<P>(b) If the licensee permits members of the public to have access to controlled areas, the limits for members of the public continue to apply to those individuals.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a licensee may permit visitors to an individual who cannot be released, under § 35.75, to receive a radiation dose greater than 0.1 rem (1 mSv) if— 
</P>
<P>(1) The radiation dose received does not exceed 0.5 rem (5 mSv); and 
</P>
<P>(2) The authorized user, as defined in 10 CFR Part 35, has determined before the visit that it is appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee or license applicant may apply for prior NRC authorization to operate up to an annual dose limit for an individual member of the public of 0.5 rem (5 mSv). The licensee or license applicant shall include the following information in this application:
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstration of the need for and the expected duration of operations in excess of the limit in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee's program to assess and control dose within the 0.5 rem (5 mSv) annual limit; and
</P>
<P>(3) The procedures to be followed to maintain the dose as low as is reasonably achievable.
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to the requirements of this part, a licensee subject to the provisions of EPA's generally applicable environmental radiation standards in 40 CFR part 190 shall comply with those standards.
</P>
<P>(f) The Commission may impose additional restrictions on radiation levels in unrestricted areas and on the total quantity of radionuclides that a licensee may release in effluents in order to restrict the collective dose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23398, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 48625, Sept. 20, 1995; 62 FR 4133, Jan. 29, 1997; 67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002; 67 FR 62872, Oct. 9, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1302" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.4.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1302   Compliance with dose limits for individual members of the public.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall make or cause to be made, as appropriate, surveys of radiation levels in unrestricted and controlled areas and radioactive materials in effluents released to unrestricted and controlled areas to demonstrate compliance with the dose limits for individual members of the public in § 20.1301.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall show compliance with the annual dose limit in § 20.1301 by—
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrating by measurement or calculation that the total effective dose equivalent to the individual likely to receive the highest dose from the licensed operation does not exceed the annual dose limit; or
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrating that—
</P>
<P>(i) The annual average concentrations of radioactive material released in gaseous and liquid effluents at the boundary of the unrestricted area do not exceed the values specified in table 2 of appendix B to part 20; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If an individual were continuously present in an unrestricted area, the dose from external sources would not exceed 0.002 rem (0.02 mSv) in an hour and 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) in a year.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon approval from the Commission, the licensee may adjust the effluent concentration values in appendix B to part 20, table 2, for members of the public, to take into account the actual physical and chemical characteristics of the effluents (e.g., aerosol size distribution, solubility, density, radioactive decay equilibrium, chemical form).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23398, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 57878, Dec. 8, 1992; 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Radiological Criteria for License Termination</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 39088, July 21, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1401" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.5.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1401   General provisions and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The criteria in this subpart apply to the decommissioning of facilities licensed under parts 30, 40, 50, 52, 53, 60, 61, 63, 70, and 72 of this chapter, and release of part of a facility or site for unrestricted use in accordance with § 50.83 or § 53.1080 of this chapter, as well as other facilities subject to the Commission's jurisdiction under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. For high-level and low-level waste disposal facilities (10 CFR parts 60, 61, and 63), the criteria apply only to ancillary surface facilities that support radioactive waste disposal activities. The criteria do not apply to uranium and thorium recovery facilities already subject to appendix A to 10 CFR part 40 or the uranium solution extraction facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) The criteria in this subpart do not apply to sites which:
</P>
<P>(1) Have been decommissioned prior to the effective date of the rule in accordance with criteria identified in the Site Decommissioning Management Plan (SDMP) Action Plan of April 16, 1992 (57 FR 13389);
</P>
<P>(2) Have previously submitted and received Commission approval on a license termination plan (LTP) or decommissioning plan that is compatible with the SDMP Action Plan criteria; or
</P>
<P>(3) Submit a sufficient LTP or decommissioning plan before August 20, 1998 and such LTP or decommissioning plan is approved by the Commission before August 20, 1999 and in accordance with the criteria identified in the SDMP Action Plan, except that if an EIS is required in the submittal, there will be a provision for day-for-day extension.
</P>
<P>(c) After a site has been decommissioned and the license terminated in accordance with the criteria in this subpart, or after part of a facility or site has been released for unrestricted use in accordance with § 50.83 or § 53.1080 of this chapter and in accordance with the criteria in this subpart, the Commission will require additional cleanup only, if based on new information, it determines that the criteria of this subpart were not met and residual radioactivity remaining at the site could result in significant threat to public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(d) When calculating TEDE to the average member of the critical group the licensee shall determine the peak annual TEDE dose expected within the first 1000 years after decommissioning.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 39088, July 21, 1997, as amended at 66 FR 55789, Nov. 2, 2001; 68 FR 19726, Apr. 22, 2003; 72 FR 49485, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026;  91 FR 18772, Apr. 13, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1402" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.5.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1402   Radiological criteria for unrestricted use.</HEAD>
<P>A site will be considered acceptable for unrestricted use if the residual radioactivity that is distinguishable from background radiation results in a TEDE to an average member of the critical group that does not exceed 25 mrem (0.25 mSv) per year, including that from groundwater sources of drinking water, and that the residual radioactivity has been reduced to levels that are as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA). Determination of the levels which are ALARA must take into account consideration of any detriments, such as deaths from transportation accidents, expected to potentially result from decontamination and waste disposal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1403" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.5.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1403   Criteria for license termination under restricted conditions.</HEAD>
<P>A site will be considered acceptable for license termination under restricted conditions if:
</P>
<P>(a) The licensee can demonstrate that further reductions in residual radioactivity necessary to comply with the provisions of § 20.1402 would result in net public or environmental harm or were not being made because the residual levels associated with restricted conditions are ALARA. Determination of the levels which are ALARA must take into account consideration of any detriments, such as traffic accidents, expected to potentially result from decontamination and waste disposal;
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee has made provisions for legally enforceable institutional controls that provide reasonable assurance that the TEDE from residual radioactivity distinguishable from background to the average member of the critical group will not exceed 25 mrem (0.25 mSv) per year;
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee has provided sufficient financial assurance to enable an independent third party, including a governmental custodian of a site, to assume and carry out responsibilities for any necessary control and maintenance of the site. Acceptable financial assurance mechanisms are—
</P>
<P>(1) Funds placed into a trust segregated from the licensee's assets and outside the licensee's administrative control, and in which the adequacy of the trust funds is to be assessed based on an assumed annual 1 percent real rate of return on investment;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of intent in the case of Federal, State, or local Government licensees, as described in § 30.35(f)(4) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(3) When a government entity is assuming custody and ownership of a site, an arrangement that is deemed acceptable by such governmental entity.


</P>
<P>(d) The licensee has submitted a decommissioning plan or License Termination Plan (LTP) to the Commission indicating the licensee's intent to decommission in accordance with § 30.36(d), § 40.42(d), § 50.82 (a) and (b), subpart G of part 53, § 70.38(d), or § 72.54 of this chapter, and specifying that the licensee intends to decommission by restricting use of the site. The licensee shall document in the LTP or decommissioning plan how the advice of individuals and institutions in the community who may be affected by the decommissioning has been sought and incorporated, as appropriate, following analysis of that advice.




</P>
<P>(1) Licensees proposing to decommission by restricting use of the site shall seek advice from such affected parties regarding the following matters concerning the proposed decommissioning—
</P>
<P>(i) Whether provisions for institutional controls proposed by the licensee:
</P>
<P>(A) Will provide reasonable assurance that the TEDE from residual radioactivity distinguishable from background to the average member of the critical group will not exceed 25 mrem (0.25 mSv) TEDE per year;
</P>
<P>(B) Will be enforceable; and
</P>
<P>(C) Will not impose undue burdens on the local community or other affected parties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the licensee has provided sufficient financial assurance to enable an independent third party, including a governmental custodian of a site, to assume and carry out responsibilities for any necessary control and maintenance of the site;
</P>
<P>(2) In seeking advice on the issues identified in § 20.1403(d)(1), the licensee shall provide for:
</P>
<P>(i) Participation by representatives of a broad cross section of community interests who may be affected by the decommissioning;
</P>
<P>(ii) An opportunity for a comprehensive, collective discussion on the issues by the participants represented; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A publicly available summary of the results of all such discussions, including a description of the individual viewpoints of the participants on the issues and the extent of agreement or disagreement among the participants on the issues; and
</P>
<P>(e) Residual radioactivity at the site has been reduced so that if the institutional controls were no longer in effect, there is reasonable assurance that the TEDE from residual radioactivity distinguishable from background to the average member of the critical group is as low as reasonably achievable and would not exceed either—
</P>
<P>(1) 100 mrem (1 mSv) per year; or
</P>
<P>(2) 500 mrem (5 mSv) per year provided that the licensee—
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrates that further reductions in residual radioactivity necessary to comply with the 100 mrem/y (1 mSv/y) value of paragraph (e)(1) of this section are not technically achievable, would be prohibitively expensive, or would result in net public or environmental harm;
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes provisions for durable institutional controls;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides sufficient financial assurance to enable a responsible government entity or independent third party, including a governmental custodian of a site, both to carry out periodic rechecks of the site no less frequently than every 5 years to assure that the institutional controls remain in place as necessary to meet the criteria of § 20.1403(b) and to assume and carry out responsibilities for any necessary control and maintenance of those controls. Acceptable financial assurance mechanisms are those in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 39088, July 21, 1997, as amended at 76 FR 35564, July 17, 2011; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1404" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.5.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1404   Alternate criteria for license termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may terminate a license using alternate criteria greater than the dose criterion of §§ 20.1402, 20.1403(b), and 20.1403(d)(1)(i)(A), if the licensee—
</P>
<P>(1) Provides assurance that public health and safety would continue to be protected, and that it is unlikely that the dose from all man-made sources combined, other than medical, would be more than the 1 mSv/y (100 mrem/y) limit of subpart D, by submitting an analysis of possible sources of exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) Has employed to the extent practical restrictions on site use according to the provisions of § 20.1403 in minimizing exposures at the site; and
</P>
<P>(3) Reduces doses to ALARA levels, taking into consideration any detriments such as traffic accidents expected to potentially result from decontamination and waste disposal.




</P>
<P>(4) Has submitted a decommissioning plan or License Termination Plan (LTP) to the Commission indicating the licensee's intent to decommission in accordance with § 30.36(d), § 40.42(d), § 50.82 (a) and (b), subpart G of part 53, § 70.38(d), or § 72.54 of this chapter, and specifying that the licensee proposes to decommission by use of alternate criteria. The licensee shall document in the decommissioning plan or LTP how the advice of individuals and institutions in the community who may be affected by the decommissioning has been sought and addressed, as appropriate, following analysis of that advice. In seeking such advice, the licensee shall provide for:


</P>
<P>(i) Participation by representatives of a broad cross section of community interests who may be affected by the decommissioning;
</P>
<P>(ii) An opportunity for a comprehensive, collective discussion on the issues by the participants represented; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A publicly available summary of the results of all such discussions, including a description of the individual viewpoints of the participants on the issues and the extent of agreement and disagreement on the issues.
</P>
<P>(5) Has provided sufficient financial assurance in the form of a trust fund to enable an independent third party, including a governmental custodian of a site, to assume and carry out responsibilities for any necessary control and maintenance of the site.
</P>
<P>(b) The use of alternate criteria to terminate a license requires the approval of the Commission after consideration of the NRC staff's recommendations that will address any comments provided by the Environmental Protection Agency and any public comments submitted pursuant to § 20.1405.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 39088, July 21, 1997, as amended at 76 FR 35564, July 17, 2011; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1405" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.5.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1405   Public notification and public participation.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the receipt of an LTP or decommissioning plan from the licensee, or a proposal by the licensee for release of a site pursuant to §§ 20.1403 or 20.1404, or whenever the Commission deems such notice to be in the public interest, the Commission shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Notify and solicit comments from:
</P>
<P>(1) Local and State governments in the vicinity of the site and any Indian Nation or other indigenous people that have treaty or statutory rights that could be affected by the decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Environmental Protection Agency for cases where the licensee proposes to release a site pursuant to § 20.1404.
</P>
<P>(b) Publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum. such as local newspapers, letters to State of local organizations, or other appropriate forum, that is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, and solicit comments from affected parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1406" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.5.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1406   Minimization of contamination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applicants for licenses, other than early site permits and manufacturing licenses under part 52 or 53 of this chapter and renewals, whose applications are submitted after August 20, 1997, shall describe in the application how facility design and procedures for operation will minimize, to the extent practicable, contamination of the facility and the environment, facilitate eventual decommissioning, and minimize, to the extent practicable, the generation of radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(b) Applicants for standard design certifications, standard design approvals, and manufacturing licenses under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, whose applications are submitted after August 20, 1997, shall describe in the application how facility design will minimize, to the extent practicable, contamination of the facility and the environment, facilitate eventual decommissioning, and minimize, to the extent practicable, the generation of radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees shall, to the extent practical, conduct operations to minimize the introduction of residual radioactivity into the site, including the subsurface, in accordance with the existing radiation protection requirements in subpart B and radiological criteria for license termination in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49485, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 76 FR 35564, June 17, 2011; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Surveys and Monitoring</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23398, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1501" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.6.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1501   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall make or cause to be made, surveys of areas, including the subsurface, that—
</P>
<P>(1) May be necessary for the licensee to comply with the regulations in this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Are reasonable under the circumstances to evaluate—
</P>
<P>(i) The magnitude and extent of radiation levels; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Concentrations or quantities of residual radioactivity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The potential radiological hazards of the radiation levels and residual radioactivity detected.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding § 20.2103(a), records from surveys describing the location and amount of subsurface residual radioactivity identified at the site must be kept with records important for decommissioning, and such records must be retained in accordance with § 30.35(g), § 40.36(f), § 50.75(g), subpart G of part 53, § 70.25(g), or § 72.30(d) of this chapter, as applicable.






</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall ensure that instruments and equipment used for quantitative radiation measurements (e.g., dose rate and effluent monitoring) are calibrated periodically for the radiation measured.
</P>
<P>(d) All personnel dosimeters (except for direct and indirect reading pocket ionization chambers and those dosimeters used to measure the dose to the extremities) that require processing to determine the radiation dose and that are used by licensees to comply with § 20.1201, with other applicable provisions of this chapter, or with conditions specified in a license must be processed and evaluated by a dosimetry processor—
</P>
<P>(1) Holding current personnel dosimetry accreditation from the National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP) of the National Institute of Standards and Technology; and
</P>
<P>(2) Approved in this accreditation process for the type of radiation or radiations included in the NVLAP program that most closely approximates the type of radiation or radiations for which the individual wearing the dosimeter is monitored.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23398, May 21, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998; 76 FR 35564, June 17, 2011; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1502" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.6.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1502   Conditions requiring individual monitoring of external and internal occupational dose.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall monitor exposures to radiation and radioactive material at levels sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the occupational dose limits of this part. As a minimum—
</P>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall monitor occupational exposure to radiation from licensed and unlicensed radiation sources under the control of the licensee and shall supply and require the use of individual monitoring devices by—
</P>
<P>(1) Adults likely to receive, in 1 year from sources external to the body, a dose in excess of 10 percent of the limits in § 20.1201(a),
</P>
<P>(2) Minors likely to receive, in 1 year, from radiation sources external to the body, a deep dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv), a lens dose equivalent in excess of 0.15 rem (1.5 mSv), or a shallow dose equivalent to the skin or to the extremities in excess of 0.5 rem (5 mSv);
</P>
<P>(3) Declared pregnant women likely to receive during the entire pregnancy, from radiation sources external to the body, a deep dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv); 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> All of the occupational doses in § 20.1201 continue to be applicable to the declared pregnant worker as long as the embryo/fetus dose limit is not exceeded.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Individuals entering a high or very high radiation area.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall monitor (see § 20.1204) the occupational intake of radioactive material by and assess the committed effective dose equivalent to—
</P>
<P>(1) Adults likely to receive, in 1 year, an intake in excess of 10 percent of the applicable ALI(s) in table 1, columns 1 and 2, of appendix B to §§ 20.1001-20.2402;
</P>
<P>(2) Minors likely to receive, in 1 year, a committed effective dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv); and
</P>
<P>(3) Declared pregnant women likely to receive, during the entire pregnancy, a committed effective dose equivalent in excess of 0.1 rem (1 mSv).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23398, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995; 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Control of Exposure From External Sources in Restricted Areas</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23398, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1601" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.7.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1601   Control of access to high radiation areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall ensure that each entrance or access point to a high radiation area has one or more of the following features—
</P>
<P>(1) A control device that, upon entry into the area, causes the level of radiation to be reduced below that level at which an individual might receive a deep-dose equivalent of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) in 1 hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates;
</P>
<P>(2) A control device that energizes a conspicuous visible or audible alarm signal so that the individual entering the high radiation area and the supervisor of the activity are made aware of the entry; or
</P>
<P>(3) Entryways that are locked, except during periods when access to the areas is required, with positive control over each individual entry.
</P>
<P>(b) In place of the controls required by paragraph (a) of this section for a high radiation area, the licensee may substitute continuous direct or electronic surveillance that is capable of preventing unauthorized entry.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee may apply to the Commission for approval of alternative methods for controlling access to high radiation areas.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall establish the controls required by paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section in a way that does not prevent individuals from leaving a high radiation area.
</P>
<P>(e) Control is not required for each entrance or access point to a room or other area that is a high radiation area solely because of the presence of radioactive materials prepared for transport and packaged and labeled in accordance with the regulations of the Department of Transportation provided that—
</P>
<P>(1) The packages do not remain in the area longer than 3 days; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dose rate at 1 meter from the external surface of any package does not exceed 0.01 rem (0.1 mSv) per hour.
</P>
<P>(f) Control of entrance or access to rooms or other areas in hospitals is not required solely because of the presence of patients containing radioactive material, provided that there are personnel in attendance who will take the necessary precautions to prevent the exposure of individuals to radiation or radioactive material in excess of the limits established in this part and to operate within the ALARA provisions of the licensee's radiation protection program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1602" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.7.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1602   Control of access to very high radiation areas.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements in § 20.1601, the licensee shall institute additional measures to ensure that an individual is not able to gain unauthorized or inadvertent access to areas in which radiation levels could be encountered at 500 rads (5 grays) or more in 1 hour at 1 meter from a radiation source or any surface through which the radiation penetrates.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Respiratory Protection and Controls To Restrict Internal Exposure in Restricted Areas</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23400, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1701" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.8.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1701   Use of process or other engineering controls.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall use, to the extent practical, process or other engineering controls (e.g., containment, decontamination, or ventilation) to control the concentration of radioactive material in air.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 54556, Oct. 7, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1702" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.8.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1702   Use of other controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When it is not practical to apply process or other engineering controls to control the concentrations of radioactive material in the air to values below those that define an airborne radioactivity area, the licensee shall, consistent with maintaining the total effective dose equivalent ALARA, increase monitoring and limit intakes by one or more of the following means—
</P>
<P>(1) Control of access;
</P>
<P>(2) Limitation of exposure times;
</P>
<P>(3) Use of respiratory protection equipment; or
</P>
<P>(4) Other controls.
</P>
<P>(b) If the licensee performs an ALARA analysis to determine whether or not respirators should be used, the licensee may consider safety factors other than radiological factors. The licensee should also consider the impact of respirator use on workers' industrial health and safety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 54556, Oct. 7, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1703" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.8.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1703   Use of individual respiratory protection equipment.</HEAD>
<P>If the licensee assigns or permits the use of respiratory protection equipment to limit the intake of radioactive material,
</P>
<P>(a) The licensee shall use only respiratory protection equipment that is tested and certified by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) except as otherwise noted in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) If the licensee wishes to use equipment that has not been tested or certified by NIOSH, or for which there is no schedule for testing or certification, the licensee shall submit an application to the NRC for authorized use of this equipment except as provided in this part. The application must include evidence that the material and performance characteristics of the equipment are capable of providing the proposed degree of protection under anticipated conditions of use. This must be demonstrated either by licensee testing or on the basis of reliable test information.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall implement and maintain a respiratory protection program that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Air sampling sufficient to identify the potential hazard, permit proper equipment selection, and estimate doses;
</P>
<P>(2) Surveys and bioassays, as necessary, to evaluate actual intakes;
</P>
<P>(3) Testing of respirators for operability (user seal check for face sealing devices and functional check for others) immediately prior to each use;
</P>
<P>(4) Written procedures regarding—
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring, including air sampling and bioassays;
</P>
<P>(ii) Supervision and training of respirator users;
</P>
<P>(iii) Fit testing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Respirator selection;
</P>
<P>(v) Breathing air quality;
</P>
<P>(vi) Inventory and control;
</P>
<P>(vii) Storage, issuance, maintenance, repair, testing, and quality assurance of respiratory protection equipment;
</P>
<P>(viii) Recordkeeping; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Limitations on periods of respirator use and relief from respirator use;
</P>
<P>(5) Determination by a physician that the individual user is medically fit to use respiratory protection equipment: 
</P>
<P>(i) Before the initial fitting of a face sealing respirator;
</P>
<P>(ii) Before the first field use of non-face sealing respirators, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Either every 12 months thereafter, or periodically at a frequency determined by a physician.
</P>
<P>(6) Fit testing, with fit factor ≥10 times the APF for negative pressure devices, and a fit factor ≥500 for any positive pressure, continuous flow, and pressure-demand devices, before the first field use of tight fitting, face-sealing respirators and periodically thereafter at a frequency not to exceed 1 year. Fit testing must be performed with the facepiece operating in the negative pressure mode.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall advise each respirator user that the user may leave the area at any time for relief from respirator use in the event of equipment malfunction, physical or psychological distress, procedural or communication failure, significant deterioration of operating conditions, or any other conditions that might require such relief.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall also consider limitations appropriate to the type and mode of use. When selecting respiratory devices the licensee shall provide for vision correction, adequate communication, low temperature work environments, and the concurrent use of other safety or radiological protection equipment. The licensee shall use equipment in such a way as not to interfere with the proper operation of the respirator.
</P>
<P>(f) Standby rescue persons are required whenever one-piece atmosphere-supplying suits, or any combination of supplied air respiratory protection device and personnel protective equipment are used from which an unaided individual would have difficulty extricating himself or herself. The standby persons must be equipped with respiratory protection devices or other apparatus appropriate for the potential hazards. The standby rescue persons shall observe or otherwise maintain continuous communication with the workers (visual, voice, signal line, telephone, radio, or other suitable means), and be immediately available to assist them in case of a failure of the air supply or for any other reason that requires relief from distress. A sufficient number of standby rescue persons must be immediately available to assist all users of this type of equipment and to provide effective emergency rescue if needed.
</P>
<P>(g) Atmosphere-supplying respirators must be supplied with respirable air of grade D quality or better as defined by the Compressed Gas Association in publication G-7.1, “Commodity Specification for Air,” 1997 and included in the regulations of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (29 CFR 1910.134(i)(1)(ii)(A) through (E)). Grade D quality air criteria include—
</P>
<P>(1) Oxygen content (v/v) of 19.5-23.5%;
</P>
<P>(2) Hydrocarbon (condensed) content of 5 milligrams per cubic meter of air or less;
</P>
<P>(3) Carbon monoxide (CO) content of 10 ppm or less;
</P>
<P>(4) Carbon dioxide content of 1,000 ppm or less; and
</P>
<P>(5) Lack of noticeable odor.
</P>
<P>(h) The licensee shall ensure that no objects, materials or substances, such as facial hair, or any conditions that interfere with the face—facepiece seal or valve function, and that are under the control of the respirator wearer, are present between the skin of the wearer's face and the sealing surface of a tight-fitting respirator facepiece.
</P>
<P>(i) In estimating the dose to individuals from intake of airborne radioactive materials, the concentration of radioactive material in the air that is inhaled when respirators are worn is initially assumed to be the ambient concentration in air without respiratory protection, divided by the assigned protection factor. If the dose is later found to be greater than the estimated dose, the corrected value must be used. If the dose is later found to be less than the estimated dose, the corrected value may be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 54557, Oct. 7, 1999, as amended at 67 FR 77652, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1704" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.8.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1704   Further restrictions on the use of respiratory protection equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may impose restrictions in addition to the provisions of §§ 20.1702, 20.1703, and Appendix A to Part 20, in order to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure that the respiratory protection program of the licensee is adequate to limit doses to individuals from intakes of airborne radioactive materials consistent with maintaining total effective dose equivalent ALARA; and
</P>
<P>(b) Limit the extent to which a licensee may use respiratory protection equipment instead of process or other engineering controls.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 54557, Oct. 7, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1705" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.8.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1705   Application for use of higher assigned protection factors.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall obtain authorization from the Commission before using assigned protection factors in excess of those specified in Appendix A to part 20. The Commission may authorize a licensee to use higher assigned protection factors on receipt of an application that—
</P>
<P>(a) Describes the situation for which a need exists for higher protection factors; and
</P>
<P>(b) Demonstrates that the respiratory protection equipment provides these higher protection factors under the proposed conditions of use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 54557, Oct. 7, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Storage and Control of Licensed Material</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23401, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1801" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.9.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1801   Security of stored material.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall secure from unauthorized removal or access licensed materials that are stored in controlled or unrestricted areas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1802" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.9.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1802   Control of material not in storage.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall control and maintain constant surveillance of licensed material that is in a controlled or unrestricted area and that is not in storage.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Precautionary Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23401, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.1901" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.10.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1901   Caution signs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard radiation symbol.</I> Unless otherwise authorized by the Commission, the symbol prescribed by this part shall use the colors magenta, or purple, or black on yellow background. The symbol prescribed by this part is the three-bladed design:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec02oc91.000.gif"/>
<P>(1) Cross-hatched area is to be magenta, or purple, or black, and
</P>
<P>(2) The background is to be yellow.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception to color requirements for standard radiation symbol.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, licensees are authorized to label sources, source holders, or device components containing sources of licensed materials that are subjected to high temperatures, with conspicuously etched or stamped radiation caution symbols and without a color requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information on signs and labels.</I> In addition to the contents of signs and labels prescribed in this part, the licensee may provide, on or near the required signs and labels, additional information, as appropriate, to make individuals aware of potential radiation exposures and to minimize the exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1902" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.10.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1902   Posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Posting of radiation areas.</I> The licensee shall post each radiation area with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words “CAUTION, RADIATION AREA.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting of high radiation areas.</I> The licensee shall post each high radiation area with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words “CAUTION, HIGH RADIATION AREA” or “DANGER, HIGH RADIATION AREA.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Posting of very high radiation areas.</I> The licensee shall post each very high radiation area with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and words “GRAVE DANGER, VERY HIGH RADIATION AREA.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Posting of airborne radioactivity areas.</I> The licensee shall post each airborne radioactivity area with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words “CAUTION, AIRBORNE RADIOACTIVITY AREA” or “DANGER, AIRBORNE RADIOACTIVITY AREA.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Posting of areas or rooms in which licensed material is used or stored.</I> The licensee shall post each area or room in which there is used or stored an amount of licensed material exceeding 10 times the quantity of such material specified in appendix C to part 20 with a conspicuous sign or signs bearing the radiation symbol and the words “CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL(S)” or “DANGER, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL(S).”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23401, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1903" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.10.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1903   Exceptions to posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee is not required to post caution signs in areas or rooms containing radioactive materials for periods of less than 8 hours, if each of the following conditions is met:
</P>
<P>(1) The materials are constantly attended during these periods by an individual who takes the precautions necessary to prevent the exposure of individuals to radiation or radioactive materials in excess of the limits established in this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The area or room is subject to the licensee's control.
</P>
<P>(b) Rooms or other areas in hospitals that are occupied by patients are not required to be posted with caution signs pursuant to § 20.1902 provided that the patient could be released from licensee control pursuant to § 35.75 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A room or area is not required to be posted with a caution sign because of the presence of a sealed source provided the radiation level at 30 centimeters from the surface of the source container or housing does not exceed 0.005 rem (0.05 mSv) per hour.
</P>
<P>(d) Rooms in hospitals or clinics that are used for teletherapy are exempt from the requirement to post caution signs under § 20.1902 if—
</P>
<P>(1) Access to the room is controlled pursuant to 10 CFR 35.615; and
</P>
<P>(2) Personnel in attendance take necessary precautions to prevent the inadvertent exposure of workers, other patients, and members of the public to radiation in excess of the limits established in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23401, May 21, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 39357, Aug. 31, 1992; 62 FR 4133, Jan. 29, 1997; 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1904" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.10.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1904   Labeling containers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall ensure that each container of licensed material bears a durable, clearly visible label bearing the radiation symbol and the words “CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL” or “DANGER, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL.” The label must also provide sufficient information (such as the radionuclide(s) present, an estimate of the quantity of radioactivity, the date for which the activity is estimated, radiation levels, kinds of materials, and mass enrichment) to permit individuals handling or using the containers, or working in the vicinity of the containers, to take precautions to avoid or minimize exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall, prior to removal or disposal of empty uncontaminated containers to unrestricted areas, remove or deface the radioactive material label or otherwise clearly indicate that the container no longer contains radioactive materials.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1905" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.10.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1905   Exemptions to labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee is not required to label—
</P>
<P>(a) Containers holding licensed material in quantities less than the quantities listed in appendix C to part 20; or
</P>
<P>(b) Containers holding licensed material in concentrations less than those specified in table 3 of appendix B to part 20; or
</P>
<P>(c) Containers attended by an individual who takes the precautions necessary to prevent the exposure of individuals in excess of the limits established by this part; or
</P>
<P>(d) Containers when they are in transport and packaged and labeled in accordance with the regulations of the Department of Transportation, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Labeling of packages containing radioactive materials is required by the Department of Transportation (DOT) if the amount and type of radioactive material exceeds the limits for an excepted quantity or article as defined and limited by DOT regulations 49 CFR 173.403 (m) and (w) and 173.421-424.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) Containers that are accessible only to individuals authorized to handle or use them, or to work in the vicinity of the containers, if the contents are identified to these individuals by a readily available written record (examples of containers of this type are containers in locations such as water-filled canals, storage vaults, or hot cells). The record must be retained as long as the containers are in use for the purpose indicated on the record; or
</P>
<P>(f) Installed manufacturing or process equipment, such as reactor components, piping, and tanks; or
</P>
<P>(g) Containers holding licensed material (other than sealed sources that are either specifically or generally licensed) at a facility licensed under part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter, not including non-power production or utilization facilities, that are within an area posted under the requirements in § 20.1902 if the containers are:
</P>
<P>(1) Conspicuously marked (such as by providing a system of color coding of containers) commensurate with the radiological hazard;
</P>
<P>(2) Accessible only to individuals who have sufficient instruction to minimize radiation exposure while handling or working in the vicinity of the containers; and
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to plant procedures to ensure they are appropriately labeled, as specified at § 20.1904 before being removed from the posted area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23401, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995; 72 FR 68059, Dec. 4, 2007; 89 FR 106250, Dec. 30, 2024; 91 FR 15772, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.1906" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.10.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.1906   Procedures for receiving and opening packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee who expects to receive a package containing quantities of radioactive material in excess of a Type A quantity, as defined in § 71.4 and appendix A to part 71 of this chapter, shall make arrangements to receive—
</P>
<P>(1) The package when the carrier offers it for delivery; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notification of the arrival of the package at the carrier's terminal and to take possession of the package expeditiously.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor the external surfaces of a labeled 
<SU>3a</SU>
<FTREF/> package for radioactive contamination unless the package contains only radioactive material in the form of a gas or in special form as defined in 10 CFR 71.4;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3a</SU> Labeled with a Radioactive White I, Yellow II, or Yellow III label as specified in U.S. Department of Transportation regulations, 49 CFR 172.403 and 172.436-440.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Monitor the external surfaces of a labeled 
<SU>3a</SU> package for radiation levels unless the package contains quantities of radioactive material that are less than or equal to the Type A quantity, as defined in § 71.4 and appendix A to part 71 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) Monitor all packages known to contain radioactive material for radioactive contamination and radiation levels if there is evidence of degradation of package integrity, such as packages that are crushed, wet, or damaged.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall perform the monitoring required by paragraph (b) of this section as soon as practical after receipt of the package, but not later than 3 hours after the package is received at the licensee's facility if it is received during the licensee's normal working hours, or not later than 3 hours from the beginning of the next working day if it is received after working hours.


</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall immediately notify the final delivery carrier and the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter, when—
</P>
<P>(1) Removable radioactive surface contamination exceeds the limits of § 71.87(i) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) External radiation levels exceed the limits of § 71.47 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Each licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Establish, maintain, and retain written procedures for safely opening packages in which radioactive material is received; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the procedures are followed and that due consideration is given to special instructions for the type of package being opened.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees transferring special form sources in licensee-owned or licensee-operated vehicles to and from a work site are exempt from the contamination monitoring requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, but are not exempt from the survey requirement in paragraph (b) of this section for measuring radiation levels that is required to ensure that the source is still properly lodged in its shield.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23401, May 21, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 39357, Aug. 31, 1992; 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995; 63 FR 39482, July 23, 1998; 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020; 85 FR 68243, Oct. 28, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Waste Disposal</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23403, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.2001" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2001   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall dispose of licensed material only—
</P>
<P>(1) By transfer to an authorized recipient as provided in § 20.2006 or in the regulations in parts 30, 40, 60, 61, 63, 70, and 72 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) By decay in storage; or
</P>
<P>(3) By release in effluents within the limits in § 20.1301; or
</P>
<P>(4) As authorized under §§ 20.2002, 20.2003, 20.2004, 20.2005, or 20.2008.
</P>
<P>(b) A person must be specifically licensed to receive waste containing licensed material from other persons for:
</P>
<P>(1) Treatment prior to disposal; or
</P>
<P>(2) Treatment or disposal by incineration; or
</P>
<P>(3) Decay in storage; or
</P>
<P>(4) Disposal at a land disposal facility licensed under part 61 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(5) Disposal at a geologic repository under part 60 or part 63 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23403, May 21, 1991, as amended at 66 FR 55789, Nov. 2, 2001; 72 FR 55922, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2002" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2002   Method for obtaining approval of proposed disposal procedures.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee or applicant for a license may apply to the Commission for approval of proposed procedures, not otherwise authorized in the regulations in this chapter, to dispose of licensed material generated in the licensee's activities. Each application shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) A description of the waste containing licensed material to be disposed of, including the physical and chemical properties important to risk evaluation, and the proposed manner and conditions of waste disposal; and
</P>
<P>(b) An analysis and evaluation of pertinent information on the nature of the environment; and
</P>
<P>(c) The nature and location of other potentially affected licensed and unlicensed facilities; and
</P>
<P>(d) Analyses and procedures to ensure that doses are maintained ALARA and within the dose limits in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2003" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2003   Disposal by release into sanitary sewerage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may discharge licensed material into sanitary sewerage if each of the following conditions is satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The material is readily soluble (or is readily dispersible biological material) in water; and
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of licensed or other radioactive material that the licensee releases into the sewer in 1 month divided by the average monthly volume of water released into the sewer by the licensee does not exceed the concentration listed in table 3 of appendix B to part 20; and
</P>
<P>(3) If more than one radionuclide is released, the following conditions must also be satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee shall determine the fraction of the limit in table 3 of appendix B to part 20 represented by discharges into sanitary sewerage by dividing the actual monthly average concentration of each radionuclide released by the licensee into the sewer by the concentration of that radionuclide listed in table 3 of appendix B to part 20; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the fractions for each radionuclide required by paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section does not exceed unity; and
</P>
<P>(4) The total quantity of licensed and other radioactive material that the licensee releases into the sanitary sewerage system in a year does not exceed 5 curies (185 GBq) of hydrogen-3, 1 curie (37 GBq) of carbon-14, and 1 curie (37 GBq) of all other radioactive materials combined.
</P>
<P>(b) Excreta from individuals undergoing medical diagnosis or therapy with radioactive material are not subject to the limitations contained in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23403, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2004" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2004   Treatment or disposal by incineration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may treat or dispose of licensed material by incineration only:
</P>
<P>(1) As authorized by paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the material is in a form and concentration specified in § 20.2005; or
</P>
<P>(3) As specifically approved by the Commission pursuant to § 20.2002.


</P>
<P>(b)(1) Waste oils (petroleum derived or synthetic oils used principally as lubricants, coolants, hydraulic or insulating fluids, or metalworking oils) that have been radioactively contaminated in the course of the operation or maintenance of a nuclear power reactor licensed under part 50 or 53 of this chapter may be incinerated on the site where generated provided that the total radioactive effluents from the facility, including the effluents from such incineration, conform to the requirements of appendix I to part 50 or § 53.425(c) of this chapter and the effluent release limits contained in applicable license conditions other than effluent limits specifically related to incineration of waste oil. The licensee shall report any changes or additions to the information supplied under § 50.34 or § 50.34a or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter associated with this incineration pursuant to § 50.71 or § 53.1620 of this chapter, as appropriate. The licensee shall also follow the procedures of § 50.59 or § 53.1565 of this chapter with respect to such changes to the facility or procedures.


</P>
<P>(2) Solid residues produced in the process of incinerating waste oils must be disposed of as provided by § 20.2001.
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions of this section authorize onsite waste oil incineration under the terms of this section and supersede any provision in an individual plant license or technical specification that may be inconsistent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 57656, Dec. 7, 1992, as amended at 91 FR 15773, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2005" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2005   Disposal of specific wastes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may dispose of the following licensed material as if it were not radioactive:
</P>
<P>(1) 0.05 microcurie (1.85 kBq), or less, of hydrogen-3 or carbon-14 per gram of medium used for liquid scintillation counting; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.05 microcurie (1.85 kBq), or less, of hydrogen-3 or carbon-14 per gram of animal tissue, averaged over the weight of the entire animal.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee may not dispose of tissue under paragraph (a)(2) of this section in a manner that would permit its use either as food for humans or as animal feed.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall maintain records in accordance with § 20.2108.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2006" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2006   Transfer for disposal and manifests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of this section and appendix G to 10 CFR part 20 are designed to—
</P>
<P>(1) Control transfers of low-level radioactive waste by any waste generator, waste collector, or waste processor licensee, as defined in this part, who ships low-level waste either directly, or indirectly through a waste collector or waste processor, to a licensed low-level waste land disposal facility (as defined in part 61 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(2) Establish a manifest tracking system; and
</P>
<P>(3) Supplement existing requirements concerning transfers and recordkeeping for those wastes.
</P>
<P>(b) Any licensee shipping radioactive waste intended for ultimate disposal at a licensed land disposal facility must document the information required on NRC's Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest and transfer this recorded manifest information to the intended consignee in accordance with appendix G to 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(c) Each shipment manifest must include a certification by the waste generator as specified in section II of appendix G to 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person involved in the transfer for disposal and disposal of waste, including the waste generator, waste collector, waste processor, and disposal facility operator, shall comply with the requirements specified in section III of appendix G to 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(e) Any licensee shipping byproduct material as defined in paragraphs (3) and (4) of the definition of <I>Byproduct material</I> set forth in § 20.1003 intended for ultimate disposal at a land disposal facility licensed under part 61 of this chapter must document the information required on the NRC's Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest and transfer this recorded manifest information to the intended consignee in accordance with appendix G to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 50128, Sept. 21, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 55922, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2007" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2007   Compliance with environmental and health protection regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart relieves the licensee from complying with other applicable Federal, State, and local regulations governing any other toxic or hazardous properties of materials that may be disposed of under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2008" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.11.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2008   Disposal of certain byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensed material as defined in paragraphs (3) and (4) of the definition of <I>Byproduct material</I> set forth in § 20.1003 may be disposed of in accordance with part 61 of this chapter, even though it is not defined as low-level radioactive waste. Therefore, any licensed byproduct material being disposed of at a facility, or transferred for ultimate disposal at a facility licensed under part 61 of this chapter, must meet the requirements of § 20.2006.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee may dispose of byproduct material, as defined in paragraphs (3) and (4) of the definition of <I>Byproduct material</I> set forth in § 20.1003, at a disposal facility authorized to dispose of such material in accordance with any Federal or State solid or hazardous waste law, including the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as authorized under the Energy Policy Act of 2005.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 55922, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Records</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23404, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.2101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2101   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall use the units: curie, rad, rem, including multiples and subdivisions, and shall clearly indicate the units of all quantities on records required by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In the records required by this part, the licensee may record quantities in SI units in parentheses following each of the units specified in paragraph (a) of this section. However, all quantities must be recorded as stated in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Not withstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, when recording information on shipment manifests, as required in § 20.2006(b), information must be recorded in the International System of Units (SI) or in SI and units as specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall make a clear distinction among the quantities entered on the records required by this part (e.g., total effective dose equivalent, shallow-dose equivalent, lens dose equivalent, deep-dose equivalent, committed effective dose equivalent).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23404, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 15663, Mar. 27, 1995; 63 FR 39483, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2102" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2102   Records of radiation protection programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain records of the radiation protection program, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of the program; and
</P>
<P>(2) Audits and other reviews of program content and implementation.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain the records required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section until the Commission terminates each pertinent license requiring the record. The licensee shall retain the records required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section for 3 years after the record is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2103   Records of surveys.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain records showing the results of surveys and calibrations required by §§ 20.1501 and 20.1906(b). The licensee shall retain these records for 3 years after the record is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain each of the following records until the Commission terminates each pertinent license requiring the record:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of the results of surveys to determine the dose from external sources and used, in the absence of or in combination with individual monitoring data, in the assessment of individual dose equivalents. This includes those records of results of surveys to determine the dose from external sources and used, in the absence of or in combination with individual monitoring data, in the assessment of individual dose equivalents required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994; and
</P>
<P>(2) Records of the results of measurements and calculations used to determine individual intakes of radioactive material and used in the assessment of internal dose. This includes those records of the results of measurements and calculations used to determine individual intakes of radioactive material and used in the assessment of internal dose required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994; and
</P>
<P>(3) Records showing the results of air sampling, surveys, and bioassays required pursuant to § 20.1703(c)(1) and (2). This includes those records showing the results of air sampling, surveys, and bioassays required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994; and
</P>
<P>(4) Records of the results of measurements and calculations used to evaluate the release of radioactive effluents to the environment. This includes those records of the results of measurements and calculations used to evaluate the release of radioactive effluents to the environment required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23404, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20185, Apr. 25, 1995; 66 FR 64737, Dec. 14, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2104" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2104   Determination of prior occupational dose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each individual who is likely to receive an annual occupational dose requiring monitoring under § 20.1502, the licensee shall determine the occupational radiation dose received during the current year.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to permitting an individual to participate in a planned special exposure, the licensee shall determine—
</P>
<P>(1) The internal and external doses from all previous planned special exposures; and
</P>
<P>(2) All doses in excess of the limits (including doses received during accidents and emergencies) received during the lifetime of the individual.
</P>
<P>(c) In complying with the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, a licensee may— 
</P>
<P>(1) Accept, as a record of the occupational dose that the individual received during the current year, a written signed statement from the individual, or from the individual's most recent employer for work involving radiation exposure, that discloses the nature and the amount of any occupational dose that the individual may have received during the current year;
</P>
<P>(2) Accept, as the record of cumulative radiation dose, an up-to-date NRC Form 4, or equivalent, signed by the individual and countersigned by an appropriate official of the most recent employer for work involving radiation exposure, or the individual's current employer (if the individual is not employed by the licensee); and
</P>
<P>(3) Obtain reports of the individual's dose equivalent(s) from the most recent employer for work involving radiation exposure, or the individual's current employer (if the individual is not employed by the licensee) by telephone, telegram, electronic media, or letter. The licensee shall request a written verification of the dose data if the authenticity of the transmitted report cannot be established.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall record the exposure history of each individual, as required by paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, on NRC Form 4, or other clear and legible record, including all of the information required by NRC Form 4. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> The form or record must show each period in which the individual received occupational exposure to radiation or radioactive material and must be signed by the individual who received the exposure. For each period for which the licensee obtains reports, the licensee shall use the dose shown in the report in preparing the NRC Form 4. For any period in which the licensee does not obtain a report, the licensee shall place a notation on the NRC Form 4 indicating the periods of time for which data are not available.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Licensees are not required to partition historical dose between external dose equivalent(s) and internal committed dose equivalent(s). Further, occupational exposure histories obtained and recorded on NRC Form 4 before January 1, 1994, might not have included effective dose equivalent, but may be used in the absence of specific information on the intake of radionuclides by the individual.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) If the licensee is unable to obtain a complete record of an individual's current and previously accumulated occupational dose, the licensee shall assume—
</P>
<P>(1) In establishing administrative controls under § 20.1201(f) for the current year, that the allowable dose limit for the individual is reduced by 1.25 rems (12.5 mSv) for each quarter for which records were unavailable and the individual was engaged in activities that could have resulted in occupational radiation exposure; and
</P>
<P>(2) That the individual is not available for planned special exposures.
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee shall retain the records on NRC Form 4 or equivalent until the Commission terminates each pertinent license requiring this record. The licensee shall retain records used in preparing NRC Form 4 for 3 years after the record is made. This includes records required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23404, May 21, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 57878, Dec. 8, 1992; 60 FR 20186, Apr. 25, 1995; 60 FR 36043, July 13, 1995; 72 FR 68059, Dec. 4, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2105   Records of planned special exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each use of the provisions of § 20.1206 for planned special exposures, the licensee shall maintain records that describe—
</P>
<P>(1) The exceptional circumstances requiring the use of a planned special exposure; and
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the management official who authorized the planned special exposure and a copy of the signed authorization; and
</P>
<P>(3) What actions were necessary; and
</P>
<P>(4) Why the actions were necessary; and
</P>
<P>(5) How doses were maintained ALARA; and
</P>
<P>(6) What individual and collective doses were expected to result, and the doses actually received in the planned special exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain the records until the Commission terminates each pertinent license requiring these records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2106" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2106   Records of individual monitoring results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recordkeeping requirement.</I> Each licensee shall maintain records of doses received by all individuals for whom monitoring was required pursuant to § 20.1502, and records of doses received during planned special exposures, accidents, and emergency conditions. These records 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> must include, when applicable—
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Assessments of dose equivalent and records made using units in effect before the licensee's adoption of this part need not be changed.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The deep-dose equivalent to the whole body, lens dose equivalent, shallow-dose equivalent to the skin, and shallow-dose equivalent to the extremities;
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated intake of radionuclides (see § 20.1202);
</P>
<P>(3) The committed effective dose equivalent assigned to the intake of radionuclides;
</P>
<P>(4) The specific information used to assess the committed effective dose equivalent pursuant to § 20.1204 (a) and (c), and when required by § 20.1502;
</P>
<P>(5) The total effective dose equivalent when required by § 20.1202; and
</P>
<P>(6) The total of the deep-dose equivalent and the committed dose to the organ receiving the highest total dose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recordkeeping frequency.</I> The licensee shall make entries of the records specified in paragraph (a) of this section at least annually.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recordkeeping format.</I> The licensee shall maintain the records specified in paragraph (a) of this section on NRC Form 5, in accordance with the instructions for NRC Form 5, or in clear and legible records containing all the information required by NRC Form 5.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Privacy protection.</I> The records required under this section should be protected from public disclosure because of their personal privacy nature. These records are protected by most State privacy laws and, when transferred to the NRC, are protected by the Privacy Act of 1974, Public Law 93-579, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR part 9.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall maintain the records of dose to an embryo/fetus with the records of dose to the declared pregnant woman. The declaration of pregnancy shall also be kept on file, but may be maintained separately from the dose records.
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee shall retain the required form or record until the Commission terminates each pertinent license requiring this record. This includes records required under the standards for protection against radiation in effect prior to January 1, 1994.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23404, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20186, Apr. 25, 1995; 63 FR 39483, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2107" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2107   Records of dose to individual members of the public.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain records sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the dose limit for individual members of the public (see § 20.1301).
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain the records required by paragraph (a) of this section until the Commission terminates each pertinent license requiring the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2108" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2108   Records of waste disposal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain records of the disposal of licensed materials made under §§ 20.2002, 20.2003, 20.2004, 20.2005, 10 CFR part 61 and disposal by burial in soil, including burials authorized before January 28, 1981. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> A previous § 20.304 permitted burial of small quantities of licensed materials in soil before January 28, 1981, without specific Commission authorization.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain the records required by paragraph (a) of this section until the Commission terminates each pertinent license requiring the record. Requirements for disposition of these records, prior to license termination, are located in §§ 30.51, 40.61, 70.51, and 72.80 for activities licensed under these parts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23404, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20186, Apr. 25, 1995; 61 FR 24673, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2110" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.12.76.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2110   Form of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the specified retention period. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records, such as letters, drawings, and specifications, must include all pertinent information, such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Reports</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23406, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.2201" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.13.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2201   Reports of theft or loss of licensed material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Telephone reports.</I> (1) Each licensee shall report by telephone as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately after its occurrence becomes known to the licensee, any lost, stolen, or missing licensed material in an aggregate quantity equal to or greater than 1,000 times the quantity specified in appendix C to part 20 under such circumstances that it appears to the licensee that an exposure could result to persons in unrestricted areas; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days after the occurrence of any lost, stolen, or missing licensed material becomes known to the licensee, all licensed material in a quantity greater than 10 times the quantity specified in appendix C to part 20 that is still missing at this time.
</P>
<P>(2) Reports must be made as follows:


</P>
<P>(i) Licensees having an installed Emergency Notification System shall make the reports to the NRC Operations Center under § 50.72 or § 53.1630 of this chapter, and


</P>
<P>(ii) All other licensees shall make reports by telephone to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written reports.</I> (1) Each licensee required to make a report under paragraph (a) of this section shall, within 30 days after making the telephone report, make a written report setting forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the licensed material involved, including kind, quantity, and chemical and physical form; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the circumstances under which the loss or theft occurred; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of disposition, or probable disposition, of the licensed material involved; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Exposures of individuals to radiation, circumstances under which the exposures occurred, and the possible total effective dose equivalent to persons in unrestricted areas; and
</P>
<P>(v) Actions that have been taken, or will be taken, to recover the material; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Procedures or measures that have been, or will be, adopted to ensure against a recurrence of the loss or theft of licensed material.
</P>
<P>(2) Reports must be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For holders of an operating license for a nuclear power plant, the events included in paragraph (b) of this section must be reported under the procedures described in § 50.73(b) through (e) and (g) or § 53.1640(b) through (e) of this chapter and must include the information required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and






</P>
<P>(ii) All other licensees shall make reports to the Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20.


</P>
<P>(c) A duplicate report is not required under paragraph (b) of this section if the licensee is also required to submit a report pursuant to § 30.55(c), § 37.57, § 37.81, § 40.64(c), § 50.72, § 50.73, § 53.1630, § 53.1640, § 70.52, § 73.27(b), § 73.67(e)(3)(vii) or (g)(3)(iii), § 73.1205, or § 150.19(c) of this chapter.






</P>
<P>(d) Subsequent to filing the written report, the licensee shall also report any additional substantive information on the loss or theft within 30 days after the licensee learns of such information.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall prepare any report filed with the Commission pursuant to this section so that names of individuals who may have received exposure to radiation are stated in a separate and detachable part of the report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23406, May 21, 1991, as amended at 58 FR 69220, Dec. 30, 1993; 60 FR 20186, Apr. 25, 1995; 66 FR 64738, Dec. 14, 2001; 67 FR 3585, Jan. 25, 2002; 78 FR 17006, Mar. 19, 2013; 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020; 88 FR 15880, Mar. 14, 2023; 91 FR 15773, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2202" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.13.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2202   Notification of incidents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediate notification. Notwithstanding any other requirements for notification, each licensee shall immediately report any event involving byproduct, source, or special nuclear material possessed by the licensee that may have caused or threatens to cause any of the following conditions—
</P>
<P>(1) An individual to receive—
</P>
<P>(i) A total effective dose equivalent of 25 rems (0.25 Sv) or more; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A lens dose equivalent of 75 rems (0.75 Sv) or more; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A shallow-dose equivalent to the skin or extremities of 250 rads (2.5 Gy) or more; or
</P>
<P>(2) The release of radioactive material, inside or outside of a restricted area, so that, had an individual been present for 24 hours, the individual could have received an intake five times the annual limit on intake (the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to locations where personnel are not normally stationed during routine operations, such as hot-cells or process enclosures).
</P>
<P>(b) Twenty-four hour notification. Each licensee shall, within 24 hours of discovery of the event, report any event involving loss of control of licensed material possessed by the licensee that may have caused, or threatens to cause, any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual to receive, in a period of 24 hours—
</P>
<P>(i) A total effective dose equivalent exceeding 5 rems (0.05 Sv); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A lens dose equivalent exceeding 15 rems (0.15 Sv); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A shallow-dose equivalent to the skin or extremities exceeding 50 rems (0.5 Sv); or
</P>
<P>(2) The release of radioactive material, inside or outside of a restricted area, so that, had an individual been present for 24 hours, the individual could have received an intake in excess of one occupational annual limit on intake (the provisions of this paragraph do not apply to locations where personnel are not normally stationed during routine operations, such as hot-cells or process enclosures).
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall prepare any report filed with the Commission pursuant to this section so that names of individuals who have received exposure to radiation or radioactive material are stated in a separate and detachable part of the report.
</P>
<P>(d) Reports made by licensees in response to the requirements of this section must be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees having an installed Emergency Notification System shall make the reports required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section to the NRC Operations Center in accordance with 50.72 or § 53.1630 of this chapter; and


</P>
<P>(2) All other licensees shall make the reports required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section by telephone to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(e) The provisions of this section do not include doses that result from planned special exposures, that are within the limits for planned special exposures, and that are reported under § 20.2204.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23406, May 21, 1991, as amended at 56 FR 40766, Aug. 16, 1991; 57 FR 57879, Dec. 8, 1992; 59 FR 14086, Mar. 25, 1994; 63 FR 39483, July 23, 1998; 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020; 91 FR 15773, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2203" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.13.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2203   Reports of exposures, radiation levels, and concentrations of radioactive material exceeding the constraints or limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable events.</I> In addition to the notification required by § 20.2202, each licensee shall submit a written report within 30 days after learning of any of the following occurrences:
</P>
<P>(1) Any incident for which notification is required by § 20.2202; or
</P>
<P>(2) Doses in excess of any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The occupational dose limits for adults in § 20.1201; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The occupational dose limits for a minor in § 20.1207; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The limits for an embryo/fetus of a declared pregnant woman in § 20.1208; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The limits for an individual member of the public in § 20.1301; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any applicable limit in the license; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The ALARA constraints for air emissions established under § 20.1101(d); or
</P>
<P>(3) Levels of radiation or concentrations of radioactive material in—
</P>
<P>(i) A restricted area in excess of any applicable limit in the license; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An unrestricted area in excess of 10 times any applicable limit set forth in this part or in the license (whether or not involving exposure of any individual in excess of the limits in § 20.1301); or
</P>
<P>(4) For licensees subject to the provisions of EPA's generally applicable environmental radiation standards in 40 CFR part 190, levels of radiation or releases of radioactive material in excess of those standards, or of license conditions related to those standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of reports.</I> (1) Each report required by paragraph (a) of this section must describe the extent of exposure of individuals to radiation and radioactive material, including, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Estimates of each individual's dose; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The levels of radiation and concentrations of radioactive material involved; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The cause of the elevated exposures, dose rates, or concentrations; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Corrective steps taken or planned to ensure against a recurrence, including the schedule for achieving conformance with applicable limits, ALARA constraints, generally applicable environmental standards, and associated license conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Each report filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must include for each occupationally overexposed 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> individual: the name, Social Security account number, and date of birth. The report must be prepared so that this information is stated in a separate and detachable part of the report and must be clearly labeled “Privacy Act Information: Not for Public Disclosure.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> With respect to the limit for the embryo/fetus (§ 20.1208), the identifiers should be those of the declared pregnant woman.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) For holders of an operating license or a combined license for a nuclear power plant, the occurrences included in paragraph (a) of this section must be reported under the procedures described in § 50.73(b) through (e) and (g) or § 53.1640(b) through (e) of this chapter, and must include the information required by paragraph (b) of this section. Occurrences reported under § 50.73 or § 53.1640 of this chapter need not be reported by a duplicate report under paragraph (a) of this section.






</P>
<P>(d) All licensees, other than those holding an operating license or a combined license for a nuclear power plant, who make reports under paragraph (a) of this section shall submit the report in writing either by mail addressed to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, ATTN: Document Control Desk, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. A copy should be sent to the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23406, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20186, Apr. 25, 1995; 61 FR 65127, Dec. 10, 1996; 68 FR 14308, Mar. 25, 2003; 68 FR 58801, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 49486, Aug. 28, 2007; 74 FR 62680, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015; 91 FR 15773, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.13.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2204   Reports of planned special exposures.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall submit a written report to the Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 within 30 days following any planned special exposure conducted in accordance with § 20.1206, informing the Commission that a planned special exposure was conducted and indicating the date the planned special exposure occurred and the information required by § 20.2105.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23406, May 21, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 20186, Apr. 25, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2205" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.13.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2205   Reports to individuals of exceeding dose limits.</HEAD>
<P>When a licensee is required by §§ 20.2203 or 20.2204 to report to the Commission any exposure of an identified occupationally exposed individual, or an identified member of the public, to radiation or radioactive material, the licensee shall also provide the individual a report on his or her exposure data included in the report to Commission. This report must be transmitted no later than the transmittal to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 68059, Dec. 4, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2206" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.13.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2206   Reports of individual monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to each person licensed by the Commission to—
</P>
<P>(1) Operate a nuclear reactor designed to produce electrical or heat energy pursuant to § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or part 53 of this chapter or a testing facility as defined in § 50.2 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) Possess or use byproduct material for purposes of radiography pursuant to parts 30 and 34 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(3) Possess or use at any one time, for purposes of fuel processing, fabricating, or reprocessing, special nuclear material in a quantity exceeding 5,000 grams of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium, or any combination thereof pursuant to part 70 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(4) Possess high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area pursuant to part 60 or 63 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(5) Possess spent fuel in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) pursuant to part 72 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(6) Receive radioactive waste from other persons for disposal under part 61 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(7) Possess or use at any time, for processing or manufacturing for distribution pursuant to parts 30, 32, 33 or 35 of this chapter, byproduct material in quantities exceeding any one of the following quantitites:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quantity of radionuclide 
<sup>1</sup> in curies
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Techetium-99m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The Commission may require as a license condition, or by rule, regulation, or order pursuant to § 20.2302, reports from licensees who are licensed to use radionuclides not on this list, in quantities sufficient to cause comparable radiation levels.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Each licensee in a category listed in paragraph (a) of this section shall submit an annual report of the results of individual monitoring carried out by the licensee for each individual for whom monitoring was required by § 20.1502 during that year. The licensee may include additional data for individuals for whom monitoring was provided but not required. The licensee shall use Form NRC 5 or electronic media containing all the information required by Form NRC 5.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall file the report required by § 20.2206(b), covering the preceding year, on or before April 30 of each year. The licensee shall submit the report to the REIRS Project Manager by an appropriate method listed in § 20.1007 or via the REIRS Web site at <I>http://www.reirs.com.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23406, May 21, 1991, as amended at 56 FR 32072, July 15, 1991; 66 FR 55789, Nov. 2, 2001; 68 FR 58802, Oct. 10, 2003; 91 FR 15773, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2207" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.13.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2207   Reports of transactions involving nationally tracked sources.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee who manufactures, transfers, receives, disassembles, or disposes of a nationally tracked source shall complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report as specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section for each type of transaction.
</P>
<P>(a) Each licensee who manufactures a nationally tracked source shall complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the individual preparing the report;
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer, model, and serial number of the source;
</P>
<P>(4) The radioactive material in the source;
</P>
<P>(5) The initial source strength in becquerels (curies) at the time of manufacture; and
</P>
<P>(6) The manufacture date of the source.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee that transfers a nationally tracked source to another person shall complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the individual preparing the report;
</P>
<P>(3) The name and license number of the recipient facility and the shipping address;
</P>
<P>(4) The manufacturer, model, and serial number of the source or, if not available, other information to uniquely identify the source;
</P>
<P>(5) The radioactive material in the source;
</P>
<P>(6) The initial or current source strength in becquerels (curies);
</P>
<P>(7) The date for which the source strength is reported;
</P>
<P>(8) The shipping date;
</P>
<P>(9) The estimated arrival date; and
</P>
<P>(10) For nationally tracked sources transferred as waste under a Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest, the waste manifest number and the container identification of the container with the nationally tracked source.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee that receives a nationally tracked source shall complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the individual preparing the report;
</P>
<P>(3) The name, address, and license number of the person that provided the source;
</P>
<P>(4) The manufacturer, model, and serial number of the source or, if not available, other information to uniquely identify the source;
</P>
<P>(5) The radioactive material in the source;
</P>
<P>(6) The initial or current source strength in becquerels (curies);
</P>
<P>(7) The date for which the source strength is reported;
</P>
<P>(8) The date of receipt; and
</P>
<P>(9) For material received under a Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest, the waste manifest number and the container identification with the nationally tracked source.
</P>
<P>(d) Each licensee that disassembles a nationally tracked source shall complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the individual preparing the report;
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer, model, and serial number of the source or, if not available, other information to uniquely identify the source;
</P>
<P>(4) The radioactive material in the source;
</P>
<P>(5) The initial or current source strength in becquerels (curies);
</P>
<P>(6) The date for which the source strength is reported;
</P>
<P>(7) The disassemble date of the source.
</P>
<P>(e) Each licensee who disposes of a nationally tracked source shall complete and submit a National Source Tracking Transaction Report. The report must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and license number of the reporting licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the individual preparing the report;
</P>
<P>(3) The waste manifest number;
</P>
<P>(4) The container identification with the nationally tracked source.
</P>
<P>(5) The date of disposal; and
</P>
<P>(6) The method of disposal.
</P>
<P>(f) The reports discussed in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section must be submitted by the close of the next business day after the transaction. A single report may be submitted for multiple sources and transactions. The reports must be submitted to the National Source Tracking System by using:
</P>
<P>(1) The on-line National Source Tracking System;
</P>
<P>(2) Electronically using a computer-readable format;
</P>
<P>(3) By facsimile;
</P>
<P>(4) By mail to the address on the National Source Tracking Transaction Report Form (NRC Form 748); or
</P>
<P>(5) By telephone with followup by facsimile or mail.
</P>
<P>(g) Each licensee shall correct any error in previously filed reports or file a new report for any missed transaction within 5 business days of the discovery of the error or missed transaction. Such errors may be detected by a variety of methods such as administrative reviews or by physical inventories required by regulation. In addition, each licensee shall reconcile the inventory of nationally tracked sources possessed by the licensee against that licensee's data in the National Source Tracking System. The reconciliation must be conducted during the month of January in each year. The reconciliation process must include resolving any discrepancies between the National Source Tracking System and the actual inventory by filing the reports identified by paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. By January 31 of each year, each licensee must submit to the National Source Tracking System confirmation that the data in the National Source Tracking System is correct.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 65707, Nov. 8, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 59163, Oct. 19, 2007; 86 FR 43401, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Exemptions and Additional Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 23408, May 21, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 20.2301" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.14.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2301   Applications for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application by a licensee or upon its own initiative, grant an exemption from the requirements of the regulations in this part if it determines the exemption is authorized by law and would not result in undue hazard to life or property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2302" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.14.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2302   Additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, by rule, regulation, or order, impose requirements on a licensee, in addition to those established in the regulations in this part, as it deems appropriate or necessary to protect health or to minimize danger to life or property.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2401" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2401   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107 or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under Section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23408, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 55071, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 20.2402" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 20.2402   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in §§ 20.1001 through 20.2402 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in §§ 20.1001 through 20.2402 that are not issued under Sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of Section 223 are as follows: §§ 20.1001, 20.1002, 20.1003, 20.1004, 20.1005, 20.1006, 20.1007, 20.1008, 20.1009, 20.1405, 20.1704, 20.1903, 20.1905, 20.2002, 20.2007, 20.2301, 20.2302, 20.2401, and 20.2402.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55071, Nov. 24, 1992, as amended at 62 FR 39089, July 21, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.3.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 20—Assigned Protection Factors for Respirators 
<SU>a</SU>
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operating mode
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assigned
<br/>Protection
<br/>Factors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I. Air Purifying Respirators [Particulate 
<sup>b</sup> only] 
<sup>c</sup>:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Filtering facepiece disposable 
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Negative Pressure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>d</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Facepiece, half 
<sup>e</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Negative Pressure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Negative Pressure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Facepiece, half</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Powered air-purifying respirators</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Powered air-purifying respirators</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Helmet/hood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Powered air-purifying respirators</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Facepiece, loose-fitting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Powered air-purifying respirators</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II. Atmosphere supplying respirators [particulate, gases and vapors 
<sup>f</sup>]:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1. Air-line respirator:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, half</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Demand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, half</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Continuous Flow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, half</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pressure Demand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Demand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Continuous Flow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pressure Demand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Helmet/hood</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Continuous Flow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, loose-fitting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Continuous Flow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Suit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Continuous Flow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>g</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2. Self-contained breathing Apparatus (SCBA):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Demand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>h</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pressure Demand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>i</sup> 10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Demand, Recirculating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>h</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Facepiece, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Positive Pressure Recirculating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>i</sup> 10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">III. Combination Respirators:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Any combination of air-purifying and atmosphere-supplying respirators</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Assigned protection factor for type and mode of operation as listed above.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> These assigned protection factors apply only in a respiratory protection program that meets the requirements of this Part. They are applicable only to airborne radiological hazards and may not be appropriate to circumstances when chemical or other respiratory hazards exist instead of, or in addition to, radioactive hazards. Selection and use of respirators for such circumstances must also comply with Department of Labor regulations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"> Radioactive contaminants for which the concentration values in Table 1, Column 3 of Appendix B to Part 20 are based on internal dose due to inhalation may, in addition, present external exposure hazards at higher concentrations. Under these circumstances, limitations on occupancy may have to be governed by external dose limits.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Air purifying respirators with APF &lt;100 must be equipped with particulate filters that are at least 95 percent efficient. Air purifying respirators with APF = 100 must be equipped with particulate filters that are at least 99 percent efficient. Air purifying respirators with APFs &gt;100 must be equipped with particulate filters that are at least 99.97 percent efficient.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> The licensee may apply to the Commission for the use of an APF greater than 1 for sorbent cartridges as protection against airborne radioactive gases and vapors (e.g., radioiodine).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> Licensees may permit individuals to use this type of respirator who have not been medically screened or fit tested on the device provided that no credit be taken for their use in estimating intake or dose. It is also recognized that it is difficult to perform an effective positive or negative pressure pre-use user seal check on this type of device. All other respiratory protection program requirements listed in § 20.1703 apply. An assigned protection factor has not been assigned for these devices. However, an APF equal to 10 may be used if the licensee can demonstrate a fit factor of at least 100 by use of a validated or evaluated, qualitative or quantitative fit test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> Under-chin type only. No distinction is made in this Appendix between elastomeric half-masks with replaceable cartridges and those designed with the filter medium as an integral part of the facepiece (e.g., disposable or reusable disposable). Both types are acceptable so long as the seal area of the latter contains some substantial type of seal-enhancing material such as rubber or plastic, the two or more suspension straps are adjustable, the filter medium is at least 95 percent efficient and all other requirements of this Part are met.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> The assigned protection factors for gases and vapors are not applicable to radioactive contaminants that present an absorption or submersion hazard. For tritium oxide vapor, approximately one-third of the intake occurs by absorption through the skin so that an overall protection factor of 3 is appropriate when atmosphere-supplying respirators are used to protect against tritium oxide. Exposure to radioactive noble gases is not considered a significant respiratory hazard, and protective actions for these contaminants should be based on external (submersion) dose considerations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> No NIOSH approval schedule is currently available for atmosphere supplying suits. This equipment may be used in an acceptable respiratory protection program as long as all the other minimum program requirements, with the exception of fit testing, are met (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, § 20.1703).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>h</sup> The licensee should implement institutional controls to assure that these devices are not used in areas immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>i</sup> This type of respirator may be used as an emergency device in unknown concentrations for protection against inhalation hazards. External radiation hazards and other limitations to permitted exposure such as skin absorption shall be taken into account in these circumstances. This device may not be used by any individual who experiences perceptible outward leakage of breathing gas while wearing the device.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 54558, Oct. 7, 1999; 64 FR 55524, Oct. 13, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.3.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 20—Annual Limits on Intake (ALIs) and Derived Air Concentrations (DACs) of Radionuclides for Occupational Exposure; Effluent Concentrations; Concentrations for Release to Sewerage
</HEAD>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>For each radionuclide table 1 indicates the chemical form which is to be used for selecting the appropriate ALI or DAC value. The ALIs and DACs for inhalation are given for an aerosol with an activity median aerodynamic diameter (AMAD) of 1 µm and for three classes (D,W,Y) of radioactive material, which refer to their retention (approximately days, weeks or years) in the pulmonary region of the lung. This classification applies to a range of clearance half-times of less than 10 days for D, for W from 10 to 100 days, and for Y greater than 100 days. The class (D, W, or Y) given in the column headed “Class” applies only to the inhalation ALIs and DACs given in table 1, columns 2 and 3. Table 2 provides concentration limits for airborne and liquid effluents released to the general environment. Table 3 provides concentration limits for discharges to sanitary sewer systems.
</P>
<HD1>Notation
</HD1>
<P>The values in tables 1, 2, and 3 are presented in the computer “E” notation. In this notation a value of 6E−02 represents a value of 6 × 10<E T="51">−2</E> or 0.06, 6E + 2 represents 6 × 10
<SU>2</SU> or 600, and 6E + 0 represents 6 × 10
<SU>0</SU> or 6.
</P>
<HD1>Table 1 “Occupational”
</HD1>
<P>Note that the columns in table 1, of this appendix captioned “Oral Ingestion ALI,” “Inhalation ALI,” and “DAC,” are applicable to occupational exposure to radioactive material.
</P>
<P>The ALIs in this appendix are the annual intakes of a given radionuclide by “Reference Man” which would result in either (1) a committed effective dose equivalent of 5 rems (stochastic ALI) or (2) a committed dose equivalent of 50 rems to an organ or tissue (non-stochastic ALI). The stochastic ALIs were derived to result in a risk, due to irradiation of organs and tissues, comparable to the risk associated with deep dose equivalent to the whole body of 5 rems. The derivation includes multiplying the committed dose equivalent to an organ or tissue by a weighting factor, w<E T="52">T</E>. This weighting factor is the proportion of the risk of stochastic effects resulting from irradiation of the organ or tissue, T, to the total risk of stochastic effects when the whole body is irradiated uniformly. The values of w<E T="52">T</E> are listed under the definition of weighting factor in § 20.1003. The non-stochastic ALIs were derived to avoid non-stochastic effects, such as prompt damage to tissue or reduction in organ function.
</P>
<P>A value of w<E T="52">T</E> = 0.06 is applicable to each of the five organs or tissues in the “remainder” category receiving the highest dose equivalents, and the dose equivalents of all other remaining tissues may be disregarded. The following parts of the GI tract—stomach, small intestine, upper large intestine, and lower large intestine—are to be treated as four separate organs.
</P>
<P>Note that the dose equivalents for extremities (hands and forearms, feet and lower legs), skin, and lens of the eye are not considered in computing the committed effective dose equivalent, but are subject to limits that must be met separately.
</P>
<P>When an ALI is defined by the stochastic dose limit, this value alone, is given. When an ALI is determined by the non-stochastic dose limit to an organ, the organ or tissue to which the limit applies is shown, and the ALI for the stochastic limit is shown in parentheses. (Abbreviated organ or tissue designations are used: LLI wall = lower large intestine wall; St. wall = stomach wall; Blad wall = bladder wall; and Bone surf = bone surface.)
</P>
<P>The use of the ALIs listed first, the more limiting of the stochastic and non-stochastic ALIs, will ensure that non-stochastic effects are avoided and that the risk of stochastic effects is limited to an acceptably low value. If, in a particular situation involving a radionuclide for which the non-stochastic ALI is limiting, use of that non-stochastic ALI is considered unduly conservative, the licensee may use the stochastic ALI to determine the committed effective dose equivalent. However, the licensee shall also ensure that the 50-rem dose equivalent limit for any organ or tissue is not exceeded by the sum of the external deep dose equivalent plus the internal committed dose to that organ (not the effective dose). For the case where there is no external dose contribution, this would be demonstrated if the sum of the fractions of the nonstochastic ALIs (ALI<E T="52">ns</E>) that contribute to the committed dose equivalent to the organ receiving the highest dose does not exceed unity (<I>i.e.</I>, Σ (intake (in µCi) of each radionuclide/ALI<E T="52">ns</E>) &lt;1.0). If there is an external deep dose equivalent contribution of H<E T="52">d</E> then this sum must be less than l−(H<E T="52">d</E>/50) instead of being &lt;1.0.
</P>
<P>The derived air concentration (DAC) values are derived limits intended to control chronic occupational exposures. The relationship between the DAC and the ALI is given by: DAC = ALI(in µCi)/(2000 hours per working year × 60 minutes/hour × 2 × 10
<SU>4</SU> ml per minute) = [ALI/2.4 × 10
<SU>9</SU>] µCi/ml, where 2 × 10
<SU>4</SU> ml is the volume of air breathed per minute at work by “Reference Man” under working conditions of “light work.”
</P>
<P>The DAC values relate to one of two modes of exposure: either external submersion or the internal committed dose equivalents resulting from inhalation of radioactive materials. Derived air concentrations based upon submersion are for immersion in a semi-infinite cloud of uniform concentration and apply to each radionuclide separately.
</P>
<P>The ALI and DAC values relate to exposure to the single radionuclide named, but also include contributions from the in-growth of any daughter radionuclide produced in the body by the decay of the parent. However, intakes that include both the parent and daughter radionuclides should be treated by the general method appropriate for mixtures.
</P>
<P>The value of ALI and DAC do not apply directly when the individual both ingests and inhales a radionuclide, when the individual is exposed to a mixture of radionuclides by either inhalation or ingestion or both, or when the individual is exposed to both internal and external radiation (see § 20.1202). When an individual is exposed to radioactive materials which fall under several of the translocation classifications (<I>i.e.</I>, Class D, Class W, or Class Y) of the same radionuclide, the exposure may be evaluated as if it were a mixture of different radionuclides.
</P>
<P>It should be noted that the classification of a compound as Class D, W, or Y is based on the chemical form of the compound and does not take into account the radiological half-life of different radioisotopes. For this reason, values are given for Class D, W, and Y compounds, even for very short-lived radionuclides.
</P>
<HD1>Table 2
</HD1>
<P>The columns in table 2 of this appendix captioned “Effluents,” “Air,” and “Water,” are applicable to the assessment and control of dose to the public, particularly in the implementation of the provisions of § 20.1302. The concentration values given in columns 1 and 2 of table 2 are equivalent to the radionuclide concentrations which, if inhaled or ingested continuously over the course of a year, would produce a total effective dose equivalent of 0.05 rem (50 millirem or 0.5 millisieverts).
</P>
<P>Consideration of non-stochastic limits has not been included in deriving the air and water effluent concentration limits because non-stochastic effects are presumed not to occur at the dose levels established for individual members of the public. For radionuclides, where the non-stochastic limit was governing in deriving the occupational DAC, the stochastic ALI was used in deriving the corresponding airborne effluent limit in table 2. For this reason, the DAC and airborne effluent limits are not always proportional as was the case in appendix B to §§ 20.1-20.601.
</P>
<P>The air concentration values listed in table 2, column 1, were derived by one of two methods. For those radionuclides for which the stochastic limit is governing, the occupational stochastic inhalation ALI was divided by 2.4 × 10 
<SU>9</SU> ml, relating the inhalation ALI to the DAC, as explained above, and then divided by a factor of 300. The factor of 300 includes the following components: a factor of 50 to relate the 5-rem annual occupational dose limit to the 0.1-rem limit for members of the public, a factor of 3 to adjust for the difference in exposure time and the inhalation rate for a worker and that for members of the public; and a factor of 2 to adjust the occupational values (derived for adults) so that they are applicable to other age groups.
</P>
<P>For those radionuclides for which submersion (external dose) is limiting, the occupational DAC in table 1, column 3, was divided by 219. The factor of 219 is composed of a factor of 50, as described above, and a factor of 4.38 relating occupational exposure for 2,000 hours per year to full-time exposure (8,760 hours per year). Note that an additional factor of 2 for age considerations is not warranted in the submersion case.
</P>
<P>The water concentrations were derived by taking the most restrictive occupational stochastic oral ingestion ALI and dividing by 7.3 × 10
<SU>7</SU>. The factor of 7.3 × 10
<SU>7</SU> (ml) includes the following components: the factors of 50 and 2 described above and a factor of 7.3 × 10
<SU>5</SU> (ml) which is the annual water intake of “Reference Man.”
</P>
<P>Note 2 of this appendix provides groupings of radionuclides which are applicable to unknown mixtures of radionuclides. These groupings (including occupational inhalation ALIs and DACs, air and water effluent concentrations and sewerage) require demonstrating that the most limiting radionuclides in successive classes are absent. The limit for the unknown mixture is defined when the presence of one of the listed radionuclides cannot be definitely excluded either from knowledge of the radionuclide composition of the source or from actual measurements.
</P>
<HD1>Table 3 “Sewer Disposal”
</HD1>
<P>The monthly average concentrations for release to sanitary sewers are applicable to the provisions in § 20.2003. The concentration values were derived by taking the most restrictive occupational stochastic oral ingestion ALI and dividing by 7.3 × 10
<SU>6</SU> (ml). The factor of 7.3 × 10
<SU>6</SU> (ml) is composed of a factor of 7.3 × 10
<SU>5</SU> (ml), the annual water intake by “Reference Man,” and a factor of 10, such that the concentrations, if the sewage released by the licensee were the only source of water ingested by a reference man during a year, would result in a committed effective dose equivalent of 0.5 rem.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">List of Elements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Atomic
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Symbol
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ac</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Al</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Am</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Argon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ar</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Astatine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ba</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Berkelium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bk</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Be</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bi</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Br</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cd</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cf</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ce</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Co</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cu</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cm</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Einsteinium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Es</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Er</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eu</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fermium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fm</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Francium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gd</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ga</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ge</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Au</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hf</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ho</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ir</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fe</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">La</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lu</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mn</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mendelevium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Md</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mo</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nd</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Np</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ni</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nitrogen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Os</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oxygen</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">O</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pd</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">P</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pt</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pu</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Po</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pm</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protactinium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pa</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ra</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rn</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Re</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rh</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ru</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sm</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Se</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Si</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ag</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Na</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">S</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ta</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tm</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sn</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ti</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">W</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Xe</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zn</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/er30no10.229.gif"/>
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<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23409, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 57879, Dec. 8, 1992. Redesignated at 58 FR 67659, Dec. 22, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 15007, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 55922, Oct. 1, 2007; 75 FR 73938, Nov. 30, 2010]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.3.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 20—Quantities 
<SU>1</SU> of Licensed Material Requiring Labeling
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quantity (µCi)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium-10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon-11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon-14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine-18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium-22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium-24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnesium-28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum-26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon-31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon-32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus-32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus-33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur-35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine-36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine-38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine-39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Argon-39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Argon-41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium-40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium-42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium-43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium-44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium-45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium-41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium-45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium-47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-44m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium-44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium-45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium-47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium-48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium-49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium-48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium-49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium-51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-52m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-58m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-62m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper-61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper-64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper-67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-69m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-71m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-73m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-81m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-74m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-80m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-83m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-85m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-81m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-82m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-85m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-87m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-86m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-90m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-91m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-89m (66 min)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-89 (122 min)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-93m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-95m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum-93m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum-101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-93m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-94m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-96m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-97m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-99m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-99m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-101m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-102m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-103m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-106m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-104m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-106m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-108m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-110m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-113m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-115m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-117m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-110 (69.1min.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-110
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">(4.9h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-113m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-114m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-115m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-116m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-117m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-119m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-117m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-119m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-121m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-123m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-116m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-118m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-120 (16min.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-120 (5.76d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-124m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-126m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-128 (10.4min.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-128 (9.01h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-116</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-121m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-123m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-125m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-127m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-129m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-131m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-133m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-120m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-132m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-129m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-131m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-133m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-135m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-134m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-135m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-136</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-131m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-133m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-135m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-137m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-136</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-138m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-142m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-136</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-139m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-148m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-141m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-156</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-150 (12.62h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-150 (34.2y)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-152m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-152</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-156</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-157</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-158</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-152</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-156m (5.0h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-156m (24.4h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-156</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-157</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-158</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-157</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-157</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-162m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-164m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-166m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-174m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-176m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-176</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-177m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-178m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-177m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-178m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-179m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-180m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-182m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-183</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-176</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-180m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-182m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-183</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-176</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-188</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-182 (12.7h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-182 (64.0h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-184m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-186m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-188m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-188</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-189m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-191m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-188</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-190m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192 (73.8d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192m (1.4min.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-194m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-195m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-195</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-188</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-193m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-195m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-197m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-195</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-198m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-200m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-193m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-195m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-195</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-197m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-199m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-194m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-195</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-198m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-204</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-195m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-202m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-209</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-214</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-206</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-210m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-213</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-214</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium-203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium-205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium-207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Astatine-207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Astatine-211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radon-220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radon-222</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Francium-222</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Francium-223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinium-224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinium-225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinium-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinium-227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinium-228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-229</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-natural</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protactinium-227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protactinium-228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protactinium-230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protactinium-231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protactinium-232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protactinium-233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protactinium-234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-235</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-236</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-natural</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-235</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-236 (1.15 × 10
<sup>5</sup> y)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-236 (22.5h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-235</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-236</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-242m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-244m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-246m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-247</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-248</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-249</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Berkelium-245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Berkelium-246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Berkelium-247</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Berkelium-249</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Berkelium-250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-248</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-249</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any alpha emitting radionuclide not listed above or mixtures of alpha emitters of unknown composition</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Einsteinium-250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Einsteinium-251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Einsteinium-253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Einsteinium-254m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Einsteinium-254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fermium-252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fermium-253</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fermium-254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fermium-255</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fermium-257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mendelevium-257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mendelevium-258</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any radionuclide other than alpha emitting radionuclides not listed above, or mixtures of beta emitters of unknown composition</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The quantities listed above were derived by taking 
<fr>1/10</fr>th of the most restrictive ALI listed in table 1, columns 1 and 2, of appendix B to §§ 20.1001-20.2401 of this part, rounding to the nearest factor of 10, and arbitrarily constraining the values listed between 0.001 and 1,000 µCi. Values of 100 µCi have been assigned for radionuclides having a radioactive half-life in excess of 10
<sup>9</sup> years (except rhenium, 1000 µCi) to take into account their low specific activity.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> For purposes of §§ 20.1902(e), 20.1905(a), and 20.2201(a) where there is involved a combination of radionuclides in known amounts, the limit for the combination should be derived as follows: determine, for each radionuclide in the combination, the ratio between the quantity present in the combination and the limit otherwise established for the specific radionuclide when not in combination. The sum of such ratios for all radionuclides in the combination may not exceed “1” (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, “unity”).</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 23465, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991. Redesignated and amended at 58 FR 67659, Dec. 22, 1993; 60 FR 20186, Apr. 25, 1995]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.3.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 20—United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Offices 





</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Address 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Telephone (24 hour) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E-Mail 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NRC Headquarters Operations Center</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Division of Preparedness and Response, Washington, DC 20555-0001</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(301) 816-5100
<br/>(301) 951-0550
<br/>(301) 816-5151 (fax)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hoo.Hoc@nrc.gov</E>  
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region I: Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, and Vermont</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Region I, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(610) 337-5000, (800) 432-1156 TDD: (301) 415-5575</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">RidsRgn1MailCenter@nrc.gov.</E></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region II: Alabama, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, North Carolina, Puerto Rico, South Carolina, Tennessee, Virginia, Virgin Islands, and West Virginia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Region II, 245 Peachtree Center Avenue, NE., Suite 1200, Atlanta, GA 30303-1257.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(404) 997-4000
<br/>(800) 877-8510
<br/>TDD: (301) 415-5575</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">RidsRgn2MailCenter@nrc.gov</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region III: Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio and Wisconsin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Region III, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(630) 829-9500
<br/>(800) 522-3025
<br/>TDD: (301) 415-5575</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">RidsRgn3MailCenter@nrc.gov</E>




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region IV: Alaska, Arizona, Arkansas, California, Colorado, Hawaii, Idaho, Kansas, Louisiana, Mississippi, Montana, Nebraska, Nevada, New Mexico, North Dakota, Oklahoma, Oregon, South Dakota, Texas, Utah, Washington, Wyoming, and the U.S. territories and possessions in the Pacific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">US NRC, Region IV, 1600 E Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(817) 200-1100, (800) 952-9677, TDD: (301) 415-5575</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</E>


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58802, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 71 FR 15007, Mar. 27, 2006; 73 FR 30457, May 28, 2008; 75 FR 21980, Apr. 27, 2010; 76 FR 72084, Nov. 22, 2011; 77 FR 39905, July 6, 2012; 79 FR 66602, Nov. 10, 2014; 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020; 87 FR 20696, Apr. 8, 2022; 87 FR 68030, Nov. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.3.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 20— Nationally Tracked Source Thresholds
</HEAD>
<P>The Terabecquerel (TBq) values are the regulatory standard. The curie (Ci) values specified are obtained by converting from the TBq value. The curie values are provided for practical usefulness only and are rounded after conversion. 

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radioactive material 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
<br/>(TBq) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
<br/>(Ci) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
<br/>(TBq) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
<br/>(Ci) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinium-227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241/Be</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">810</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-239/Be</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium-229</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 65708, Nov. 8, 2006]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.3.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 20 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.16.15.76.3.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 20—Requirements for Transfers of Low-Level Radioactive Waste Intended for Disposal at Licensed Land Disposal Facilities and Manifests
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Manifest
</HD1>
<P>A waste generator, collector, or processor who transports, or offers for transportation, low-level radioactive waste intended for ultimate disposal at a licensed low-level radioactive waste land disposal facility must prepare a Manifest (OMB Control Numbers 3150-0164, -0165, and -0166) reflecting information requested on applicable NRC Forms 540 (Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Shipping Paper)) and 541 (Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Container and Waste Description)) and, if necessary, on an applicable NRC Form 542 (Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest (Manifest Index and Regional Compact Tabulation)). NRC Forms 540 and 540A must be completed and must physically accompany the pertinent low-level waste shipment. Upon agreement between shipper and consignee, NRC Forms 541 and 541A and 542 and 542A may be completed, transmitted, and stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records on the respective forms. Licensees are not required by NRC to comply with the manifesting requirements of this part when they ship:
</P>
<P>(a) LLW for processing and expect its return (<I>i.e.</I>, for storage under their license) prior to disposal at a licensed land disposal facility;
</P>
<P>(b) LLW that is being returned to the licensee who is the “waste generator” or “generator,” as defined in this part; or
</P>
<P>(c) Radioactively contaminated material to a “waste processor” that becomes the processor's “residual waste.”
</P>
<P>For guidance in completing these forms, refer to the instructions that accompany the forms. Copies of manifests required by this appendix may be legible carbon copies, photocopies, or computer printouts that reproduce the data in the format of the uniform manifest.
</P>
<P>NRC Forms 540, 540A, 541, 541A, 542 and 542A, and the accompanying instructions, in hard copy, may be obtained by writing or calling the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (301) 415-7232, or by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I> and selecting forms from the index found on the home page.
</P>
<P>This appendix includes information requirements of the Department of Transportation, as codified in 49 CFR part 172. Information on hazardous, medical, or other waste, required to meet Environmental Protection Agency regulations, as codified in 40 CFR parts 259, 261 or elsewhere, is not addressed in this section, and must be provided on the required EPA forms. However, the required EPA forms must accompany the Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest required by this chapter.
</P>
<P>As used in this appendix, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Chelating agent</I> has the same meaning as that given in § 61.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Chemical description</I> means a description of the principal chemical characteristics of a low-level radioactive waste.
</P>
<P><I>Computer-readable medium</I> means that the regulatory agency's computer can transfer the information from the medium into its memory.
</P>
<P><I>Consignee</I> means the designated receiver of the shipment of low-level radioactive waste.
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination facility</I> means a facility operating under a Commission or Agreement State license whose principal purpose is decontamination of equipment or materials to accomplish recycle, reuse, or other waste management objectives, and, for purposes of this part, is not considered to be a consignee for LLW shipments.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal container</I> means a container principally used to confine low-level radioactive waste during disposal operations at a land disposal facility (also see “high integrity container”). Note that for some shipments, the disposal container may be the transport package.
</P>
<P><I>EPA identification number</I> means the number received by a transporter following application to the Administrator of EPA as required by 40 CFR part 263.
</P>
<P><I>Generator</I> means a licensee operating under a Commission or Agreement State license who (1) is a waste generator as defined in this part, or (2) is the licensee to whom waste can be attributed within the context of the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985 (e.g., waste generated as a result of decontamination or recycle activities).
</P>
<P><I>High integrity container</I> (HIC) means a container commonly designed to meet the structural stability requirements of § 61.56 of this chapter, and to meet Department of Transportation requirements for a Type A package.
</P>
<P><I>Land disposal facility</I> has the same meaning as that given in § 61.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>NRC Forms 540, 540A, 541, 541A, 542, and 542A</I> are official NRC Forms referenced in this appendix. Licensees need not use originals of these NRC Forms as long as any substitute forms are equivalent to the original documentation in respect to content, clarity, size, and location of information. Upon agreement between the shipper and consignee, NRC Forms 541 (and 541A) and NRC Forms 542 (and 542A) may be completed, transmitted, and stored in electronic media. The electronic media must have the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records in the format of the uniform manifest.
</P>
<P><I>Package</I> means the assembly of components necessary to ensure compliance with the packaging requirements of DOT regulations, together with its radioactive contents, as presented for transport.
</P>
<P><I>Physical description</I> means the items called for on NRC Form 541 to describe a low-level radioactive waste.
</P>
<P><I>Residual waste</I> means low-level radioactive waste resulting from processing or decontamination activities that cannot be easily separated into distinct batches attributable to specific waste generators. This waste is attributable to the processor or decontamination facility, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Shipper</I> means the licensed entity (<I>i.e.</I>, the waste generator, waste collector, or waste processor) who offers low-level radioactive waste for transportation, typically consigning this type of waste to a licensed waste collector, waste processor, or land disposal facility operator.
</P>
<P><I>Shipping paper</I> means NRC Form 540 and, if required, NRC Form 540A which includes the information required by DOT in 49 CFR part 172.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> has the same meaning as that given in § 40.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> has the same meaning as that given in § 70.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest</I> or <I>uniform manifest</I> means the combination of NRC Forms 540, 541, and, if necessary, 542, and their respective continuation sheets as needed, or equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>Waste collector</I> means an entity, operating under a Commission or Agreement State license, whose principal purpose is to collect and consolidate waste generated by others, and to transfer this waste, without processing or repackaging the collected waste, to another licensed waste collector, licensed waste processor, or licensed land disposal facility.
</P>
<P><I>Waste description</I> means the physical, chemical and radiological description of a low-level radioactive waste as called for on NRC Form 541.
</P>
<P><I>Waste generator</I> means an entity, operating under a Commission or Agreement State license, who (1) possesses any material or component that contains radioactivity or is radioactively contaminated for which the licensee foresees no further use, and (2) transfers this material or component to a licensed land disposal facility or to a licensed waste collector or processor for handling or treatment prior to disposal. A licensee performing processing or decontamination services may be a “waste generator” if the transfer of low-level radioactive waste from its facility is defined as “residual waste.”
</P>
<P><I>Waste processor</I> means an entity, operating under a Commission or Agreement State license, whose principal purpose is to process, repackage, or otherwise treat low-level radioactive material or waste generated by others prior to eventual transfer of waste to a licensed low-level radioactive waste land disposal facility.
</P>
<P><I>Waste type</I> means a waste within a disposal container having a unique physical description (<I>i.e.</I>, a specific waste descriptor code or description; or a waste sorbed on or solidified in a specifically defined media).
</P>
<HD2>Information Requirements
</HD2>
<HD3>A. General Information
</HD3>
<P>The shipper of the radioactive waste, shall provide the following information on the uniform manifest:
</P>
<P>1. The name, facility address, and telephone number of the licensee shipping the waste;
</P>
<P>2. An explicit declaration indicating whether the shipper is acting as a waste generator, collector, processor, or a combination of these identifiers for purposes of the manifested shipment; and
</P>
<P>3. The name, address, and telephone number, or the name and EPA identification number for the carrier transporting the waste.
</P>
<HD3>B. Shipment Information
</HD3>
<P>The shipper of the radioactive waste shall provide the following information regarding the waste shipment on the uniform manifest:
</P>
<P>1. The date of the waste shipment;
</P>
<P>2. The total number of packages/disposal containers;
</P>
<P>3. The total disposal volume and disposal weight in the shipment;
</P>
<P>4. The total radionuclide activity in the shipment;
</P>
<P>5. The activity of each of the radionuclides H-3, C-14, Tc-99, and I-129 contained in the shipment; and
</P>
<P>6. The total masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special nuclear material, and the total mass of uranium and thorium in source material.
</P>
<HD3>C. Disposal Container and Waste Information
</HD3>
<P>The shipper of the radioactive waste shall provide the following information on the uniform manifest regarding the waste and each disposal container of waste in the shipment:
</P>
<P>1. An alphabetic or numeric identification that uniquely identifies each disposal container in the shipment;
</P>
<P>2. A physical description of the disposal container, including the manufacturer and model of any high integrity container;
</P>
<P>3. The volume displaced by the disposal container;
</P>
<P>4. The gross weight of the disposal container, including the waste;
</P>
<P>5. For waste consigned to a disposal facility, the maximum radiation level at the surface of each disposal container;
</P>
<P>6. A physical and chemical description of the waste;
</P>
<P>7. The total weight percentage of chelating agent for any waste containing more than 0.1% chelating agent by weight, plus the identity of the principal chelating agent;
</P>
<P>8. The approximate volume of waste within a container;
</P>
<P>9. The sorbing or solidification media, if any, and the identity of the solidification media vendor and brand name;
</P>
<P>10. The identities and activities of individual radionuclides contained in each container, the masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special nuclear material, and the masses of uranium and thorium in source material. For discrete waste types (<I>i.e.</I>, activated materials, contaminated equipment, mechanical filters, sealed source/devices, and wastes in solidification/stabilization media), the identities and activities of individual radionuclides associated with or contained on these waste types within a disposal container shall be reported;
</P>
<P>11. The total radioactivity within each container; and
</P>
<P>12. For wastes consigned to a disposal facility, the classification of the waste pursuant to § 61.55 of this chapter. Waste not meeting the structural stability requirements of § 61.56(b) of this chapter must be identified.
</P>
<HD3>D. Uncontainerized Waste Information
</HD3>
<P>The shipper of the radioactive waste shall provide the following information on the uniform manifest regarding a waste shipment delivered without a disposal container:
</P>
<P>1. The approximate volume and weight of the waste;
</P>
<P>2. A physical and chemical description of the waste;
</P>
<P>3. The total weight percentage of chelating agent if the chelating agent exceeds 0.1% by weight, plus the identity of the principal chelating agent;
</P>
<P>4. For waste consigned to a disposal facility, the classification of the waste pursuant to § 61.55 of this chapter. Waste not meeting the structural stability requirements of § 61.56(b) of this chapter must be identified;
</P>
<P>5. The identities and activities of individual radionuclides contained in the waste, the masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special nuclear material, and the masses of uranium and thorium in source material; and
</P>
<P>6. For wastes consigned to a disposal facility, the maximum radiation levels at the surface of the waste.
</P>
<HD3>E. Multi-Generator Disposal Container Information
</HD3>
<P>This section applies to disposal containers enclosing mixtures of waste originating from different generators. (Note: The origin of the LLW resulting from a processor's activities may be attributable to one or more “generators” (including “waste generators”) as defined in this part). It also applies to mixtures of wastes shipped in an uncontainerized form, for which portions of the mixture within the shipment originate from different generators.
</P>
<P>1. For homogeneous mixtures of waste, such as incinerator ash, provide the waste description applicable to the mixture and the volume of the waste attributed to each generator.
</P>
<P>2. For heterogeneous mixtures of waste, such as the combined products from a large compactor, identify each generator contributing waste to the disposal container, and, for discrete waste types (<I>i.e.</I>, activated materials, contaminated equipment, mechanical filters, sealed source/devices, and wastes in solidification/stabilization media), the identities and activities of individual radionuclides contained on these waste types within the disposal container. For each generator, provide the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The volume of waste within the disposal container;
</P>
<P>(b) A physical and chemical description of the waste, including the solidification agent, if any;
</P>
<P>(c) The total weight percentage of chelating agents for any disposal container containing more than 0.1% chelating agent by weight, plus the identity of the principal chelating agent;
</P>
<P>(d) The sorbing or solidification media, if any, and the identity of the solidification media vendor and brand name if the media is claimed to meet stability requirements in 10 CFR 61.56(b); and
</P>
<P>(e) Radionuclide identities and activities contained in the waste, the masses of U-233, U-235, and plutonium in special nuclear material, and the masses of uranium and thorium in source material if contained in the waste.
</P>
<HD1>II. Certification
</HD1>
<P>An authorized representative of the waste generator, processor, or collector shall certify by signing and dating the shipment manifest that the transported materials are properly classified, described, packaged, marked, and labeled and are in proper condition for transportation according to the applicable regulations of the Department of Transportation and the Commission. A collector in signing the certification is certifying that nothing has been done to the collected waste which would invalidate the waste generator's certification.
</P>
<HD1>III. Control and Tracking
</HD1>
<P>A. Any licensee who transfers radioactive waste to a land disposal facility or a licensed waste collector shall comply with the requirements in paragraphs A.1 through 9 of this section. Any licensee who transfers waste to a licensed waste processor for waste treatment or repackaging shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs A.4 through 9 of this section. A licensee shall:
</P>
<P>1. Prepare all wastes so that the waste is classified according to § 61.55 and meets the waste characteristics requirements in § 61.56 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>2. Label each disposal container (or transport package if potential radiation hazards preclude labeling of the individual disposal container) of waste to identify whether it is Class A waste, Class B waste, Class C waste, or greater then Class C waste, in accordance with § 61.55 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>3. Conduct a quality assurance program to assure compliance with §§ 61.55 and 61.56 of this chapter (the program must include management evaluation of audits);
</P>
<P>4. Prepare the NRC Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest as required by this appendix;
</P>
<P>5. Forward a copy or electronically transfer the Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest to the intended consignee so that either (i) receipt of the manifest precedes the LLW shipment or (ii) the manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is transferred to the consignee. Using both (i) and (ii) is also acceptable;
</P>
<P>6. Include NRC Form 540 (and NRC Form 540A, if required) with the shipment regardless of the option chosen in paragraph A.5 of this section;
</P>
<P>7. Receive acknowledgement of the receipt of the shipment in the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
</P>
<P>8. Retain a copy of or electronically store the Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest and documentation of acknowledgement of receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required by 10 CFR parts 30, 40, and 70 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>9. For any shipments or any part of a shipment for which acknowledgement of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in this appendix, conduct an investigation in accordance with paragraph E of this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. Any waste collector licensee who handles only prepackaged waste shall:
</P>
<P>1. Acknowledge receipt of the waste from the shipper within one week of receipt by returning a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
</P>
<P>2. Prepare a new manifest to reflect consolidated shipments that meet the requirements of this appendix. The waste collector shall ensure that, for each container of waste in the shipment, the manifest identifies the generator of that container of waste;
</P>
<P>3. Forward a copy or electronically transfer the Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest to the intended consignee so that either: (i) Receipt of the manifest precedes the LLW shipment or (ii) the manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is transferred to the consignee. Using both (i) and (ii) is also acceptable;
</P>
<P>4. Include NRC Form 540 (and NRC Form 540A, if required) with the shipment regardless of the option chosen in paragraph B.3 of this section;
</P>
<P>5. Receive acknowledgement of the receipt of the shipment in the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
</P>
<P>6. Retain a copy of or electronically store the Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest and documentation of acknowledgement of receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required by 10 CFR parts 30, 40, and 70 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>7. For any shipments or any part of a shipment for which acknowledgement of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in this appendix, conduct an investigation in accordance with paragraph E of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>8. Notify the shipper and the Administrator of the nearest Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D of this part when any shipment, or part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been cancelled.
</P>
<P>C. Any licensed waste processor who treats or repackages waste shall:
</P>
<P>1. Acknowledge receipt of the waste from the shipper within one week of receipt by returning a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
</P>
<P>2. Prepare a new manifest that meets the requirements of this appendix. Preparation of the new manifest reflects that the processor is responsible for meeting these requirements. For each container of waste in the shipment, the manifest shall identify the waste generators, the preprocessed waste volume, and the other information as required in paragraph I.E. of this appendix;
</P>
<P>3. Prepare all wastes so that the waste is classified according to § 61.55 of this chapter and meets the waste characteristics requirements in § 61.56 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>4. Label each package of waste to identify whether it is Class A waste, Class B waste, or Class C waste, in accordance with §§ 61.55 and 61.57 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>5. Conduct a quality assurance program to assure compliance with §§ 61.55 and 61.56 of this chapter (the program shall include management evaluation of audits);
</P>
<P>6. Forward a copy or electronically transfer the Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest to the intended consignee so that either: (i) Receipt of the manifest precedes the LLW shipment or (ii) the manifest is delivered to the consignee with the waste at the time the waste is transferred to the consignee. Using both (i) and (ii) is also acceptable;
</P>
<P>7. Include NRC Form 540 (and NRC Form 540A, if required) with the shipment regardless of the option chosen in paragraph C.6 of this section;
</P>
<P>8. Receive acknowledgement of the receipt of the shipment in the form of a signed copy of NRC Form 540;
</P>
<P>9. Retain a copy of or electronically store the Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest and documentation of acknowledgement of receipt as the record of transfer of licensed material as required by 10 CFR parts 30, 40, and 70 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>10. For any shipment or any part of a shipment for which acknowledgement of receipt has not been received within the times set forth in this appendix, conduct an investigation in accordance with paragraph E of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>11. Notify the shipper and the Administrator of the nearest Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D of this part when any shipment, or part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been cancelled.
</P>
<P>D. The land disposal facility operator shall:
</P>
<P>1. Acknowledge receipt of the waste within one week of receipt by returning, as a minimum, a signed copy of NRC Form 540 to the shipper. The shipper to be notified is the licensee who last possessed the waste and transferred the waste to the operator. If any discrepancy exists between materials listed on the Uniform Low-Level Radioactive Waste Manifest and materials received, copies or electronic transfer of the affected forms must be returned indicating the discrepancy;
</P>
<P>2. Maintain copies of all completed manifests and electronically store the information required by 10 CFR 61.80(l) until the Commission terminates the license; and
</P>
<P>3. Notify the shipper and the Administrator of the nearest Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D of this part when any shipment, or part of a shipment, has not arrived within 60 days after receipt of an advance manifest, unless notified by the shipper that the shipment has been cancelled.
</P>
<P>E. Any shipment or part of a shipment for which acknowledgement is not received within the times set forth in this section must:
</P>
<P>1. Be investigated by the shipper if the shipper has not received notification or receipt within 20 days after transfer; and
</P>
<P>2. Be traced and reported. The investigation shall include tracing the shipment and filing a report with the nearest Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to this part. Each licensee who conducts a trace investigation shall file a written report with the appropriate NRC Regional Office within 2 weeks of completion of the investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 15664, Mar. 27, 1995, as amended at 60 FR 25983, May 16, 1995; 68 FR 58802, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 30457, May 28, 2008; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 21—REPORTING OF DEFECTS AND NONCOMPLIANCE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 63, 81, 103, 104, 161, 223, 234, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2093, 2111, 2133, 2134, 2201, 2273, 2282, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 135, 141 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 28893, June 6, 1977, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="76" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part establish procedures and requirements for implementation of section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974. That section requires any individual director or responsible officer of a firm constructing, owning, operating or supplying the components of any facility or activity which is licensed or otherwise regulated pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, who obtains information reasonably indicating: (a) That the facility, activity or basic component supplied to such facility or activity fails to comply with the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or any applicable rule, regulation, order, or license of the Commission relating to substantial safety hazards or (b) that the facility, activity, or basic component supplied to such facility or activity contains defects, which could create a substantial safety hazard, to immediately notify the Commission of such failure to comply or such defect, unless he has actual knowledge that the Commission has been adequately informed of such defect or failure to comply.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part apply, except as specifically provided otherwise in parts 31, 34, 35, 39, 40, 60, 61, 63, 70, or part 72 of this chapter, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Each individual, partnership, corporation, or other entity applying for or holding a license or permit under the regulations in this chapter to possess, use, or transfer within the United States source material, byproduct material, special nuclear material, and/or spent fuel and high-level radioactive waste, or to construct, manufacture, possess, own, operate, or transfer within the United States, any production or utilization facility or independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS); and each director and responsible officer of such a licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) Each individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity doing business within the United States, and each director and responsible officer of such an organization, that constructs a production or utilization facility licensed for manufacture, construction, or operation under part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter, an ISFSI for the storage of spent fuel licensed under part 72 of this chapter, an MRS for the storage of spent fuel or high-level radioactive waste under part 72 of this chapter, or a geologic repository for the disposal of high-level radioactive waste under part 60 or 63 of this chapter; or supplies basic components for a facility or activity licensed, other than for export, under part 30, 40, 50, 52, 53, 60, 61, 63, 70, 71, or 72 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Each individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity doing business within the United States, and each director and responsible officer of such an organization, applying for a design certification rule under part 52 or 53 of this chapter; or supplying basic components with respect to that design certification, and each individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity doing business within the United States, and each director and responsible officer of such an organization, whose application for design certification has been granted under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, or who has supplied or is supplying basic components with respect to that design certification;
</P>
<P>(4) Each individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity doing business within the United States, and each director and responsible officer of such an organization, applying for or holding a standard design approval under part 52 or 53 of this chapter; or supplying basic components with respect to a standard design approval under part 52 or 53 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) For persons licensed to construct a facility under either a construction permit issued under § 50.23 or § 53.1333 of this chapter or a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter (for the period of construction until the date that the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter), or to manufacture a facility under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, evaluation of potential defects and failures to comply and reporting of defects and failures to comply under § 50.55(e) or § 53.605 of this chapter satisfies each person's evaluation, notification, and reporting obligation to report defects and failures to comply under this part and the responsibility of individual directors and responsible officers of these licensees to report defects under section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(c) For persons licensed to operate a nuclear power plant under part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter, evaluation of potential defects and appropriate reporting of defects under § 50.72, § 50.73, § 53.1630, § 53.1640, or §§ 73.1200 and 73.1205 of this chapter, satisfies each person's evaluation, notification, and reporting obligation to report defects under this part, and the responsibility of individual directors and responsible officers of these licensees to report defects under Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974.








</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in these regulations should be deemed to preclude either an individual, a manufacturer, or a supplier of a commercial grade item (as defined in § 21.3) not subject to the regulations in this part from reporting to the Commission, a known or suspected defect or failure to comply and, as authorized by law, the identity of anyone so reporting will be withheld from disclosure. NRC regional offices and headquarters will accept collect telephone calls from individuals who wish to speak to NRC representatives concerning nuclear safety-related problems. The location and telephone numbers of the four regions (answered during regular working hours), are listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. The telephone numbers of the NRC Headquarters Operations Center (answered 24 hours a day—including holidays) are listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) The regulations in this part apply in accordance with 10 CFR 76.60 to each individual, partnership, corporation, or other entity required to obtain a certificate of compliance or an approved compliance plan under part 76 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 36089, July 31, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 14086, Mar. 25, 1994; 59 FR 48959, Sept. 23, 1994; 60 FR 48373, Sept. 19, 1995; 66 FR 55790, Nov. 2, 2001; 72 FR 49486, Aug. 28, 2007; 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020; 88 FR 15880, Mar. 14, 2023; 91 FR 15773, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260330" REFID="75">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 15774, Mar. 30, 2026.</XREF>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Basic component.</I> (1)(i) When applied to nuclear power plants licensed under part 53 of this chapter, basic component means a safety-related structure, system, or component (SSC), or part thereof, and when applied to nuclear power plants licensed under part 50 or 52 of this chapter, basic component means an SSC, or part thereof, that affects its safety function necessary to assure:
</P>
<P>(A) The integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary;
</P>
<P>(B) The capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe-shutdown condition; or
</P>
<P>(C) The capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents which could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to those referred to in § 50.34(a)(1), § 50.67(b)(2), or § 100.11 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Basic components are items designed and manufactured under a quality assurance program complying with appendix B to part 50 of this chapter, or commercial grade items which have successfully completed the dedication process.
</P>
<P>(2) When applied to standard design certifications and approvals under part 53 of this chapter, basic component means the design or procurement information approved or to be approved within the scope of the design certification or approval for a safety-related SSC, or part thereof. When applied to standard design certifications under subpart B of part 52 of this chapter and standard design approvals under part 52 of this chapter, basic component means the design or procurement information approved or to be approved within the scope of the design certification or approval for an SSC, or part thereof, that affects its safety function necessary to assure:
</P>
<P>(i) The integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary;
</P>
<P>(ii) The capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe-shutdown condition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents which could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to those referred to in § 50.34(a)(1), § 50.67(b)(2), or § 100.11 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) When applied to other facilities and other activities licensed under part 30, 40, 50 (other than nuclear power plants), 60, 61, 63, 70, 71, or 72 of this chapter, basic component means a structure, system, or component, or part thereof, that affects their safety function, that is directly procured by the licensee of a facility or activity subject to the regulations in this part and in which a defect or failure to comply with any applicable regulation in this chapter, order, or license issued by the Commission could create a substantial safety hazard.
</P>
<P>(4) In all cases, basic component includes safety-related design, analysis, inspection, testing, fabrication, replacement of parts, or consulting services that are associated with the component hardware, design certification, design approval, or information in support of an early site permit application under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, whether these services are performed by the component supplier or others.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial grade item.</I> (1) When applied to nuclear power plants licensed under part 50 or 53 of this chapter, commercial grade item means an SSC, or part thereof that affects its safety function, that was not designed and manufactured as a basic component. Commercial grade items do not include items where the design and manufacturing process require in-process inspections and verifications to ensure that defects or failures to comply are identified and corrected (<I>i.e.,</I> one or more critical characteristics of the item cannot be verified).
</P>
<P>(2) When applied to facilities and activities licensed pursuant to part 30, 40, 50 (other than nuclear power plants), 60, 61, 63, 70, 71, or 72 of this chapter, commercial grade item means an item that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not subject to design or specification requirements that are unique to those facilities or activities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Used in applications other than those facilities or activities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) To be ordered from the manufacturer/supplier on the basis of specifications set forth in the manufacturer's published product description (for example, a catalog).






</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Constructing</I> or <I>construction</I> means the analysis, design, manufacture, fabrication, placement, erection, installation, modification, inspection, or testing of a facility or activity which is subject to the regulations in this part and consulting services related to the facility or activity that are safety related.


</P>
<P><I>Critical characteristics.</I> When applied to nuclear power plants licensed under part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter, critical characteristics are those important design, material, and performance characteristics of a commercial grade item that, once verified, will provide reasonable assurance that the item will perform its intended safety function.
</P>
<P><I>Dedicating entity.</I> When applied to nuclear power plants licensed under part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter, dedicating entity means the organization that performs the dedication process. Dedication may be performed by the manufacturer of the item, a third-party dedicating entity, or the licensee itself. The dedicating entity, under § 21.21(c), is responsible for identifying and evaluating deviations, reporting defects and failures to comply for the dedicated item, and maintaining auditable records of the dedication process.
</P>
<P><I>Dedication.</I> (1) When applied to nuclear power plants licensed pursuant to part 30, 40, 50, 53, or 60 of this chapter, dedication is an acceptance process undertaken to provide reasonable assurance that a commercial grade item to be used as a basic component will perform its intended safety function and, in this respect, is deemed equivalent to an item designed and manufactured under a quality assurance program under appendix B to part 50 of this chapter. This assurance is achieved by identifying the critical characteristics of the item and verifying their acceptability by inspections, tests, or analyses performed by the purchaser or third-party dedicating entity after delivery, supplemented as necessary by one or more of the following: commercial grade surveys; product inspections or witness at holdpoints at the manufacturer's facility, and analysis of historical records for acceptable performance. In all cases, the dedication process must be conducted under the applicable provisions of appendix B to part 50. The process is considered complete when the item is designated for use as a basic component.
</P>
<P>(2) When applied to facilities and activities licensed pursuant to part 30, 40, 50 (other than nuclear power plants), 60, 61, 63, 70, 71, or 72 of this chapter, dedication occurs after receipt when that item is designated for use as a basic component.
</P>
<P><I>Defect</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A deviation in a basic component delivered to a purchaser for use in a facility or an activity subject to the regulations in this part if, on the basis of an evaluation, the deviation could create a substantial safety hazard;
</P>
<P>(2) The installation, use, or operation of a basic component containing a defect as defined in this section;
</P>
<P>(3) A deviation in a portion of a facility subject to the early site permit, standard design certification, standard design approval, construction permit, combined license or manufacturing licensing requirements of part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter, provided the deviation could, on the basis of an evaluation, create a substantial safety hazard and the portion of the facility containing the deviation has been offered to the purchaser for acceptance;
</P>
<P>(4) A condition or circumstance involving a basic component that could contribute to the exceeding of a safety limit, as defined in the technical specifications of a license for operation issued under part 50, 52, or 53 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(5) An error, omission or other circumstance in a design certification, or standard design approval that, on the basis of an evaluation, could create a substantial safety hazard.


























</P>
<P><I>Deviation</I> means a departure from the technical requirements included in a procurement document, or specified in early site permit information, a standard design certification or standard design approval.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means an individual, appointed or elected according to law, who is authorized to manage and direct the affairs of a corporation, partnership or other entity. In the case of an individual proprietorship, <I>director</I> means the individual.
</P>
<P><I>Discovery</I> means the completion of the documentation first identifying the existence of a deviation or failure to comply potentially associated with a substantial safety hazard within the evaluation procedures discussed in § 21.21(a).
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation</I> means the process of determining whether a particular deviation could create a substantial hazard or determining whether a failure to comply is associated with a substantial safety hazard.
</P>
<P><I>Notification</I> means the telephonic communication to the NRC Operations Center or written transmittal of information to the NRC Document Control Desk.
</P>
<P><I>Operating or operation</I> means the operation of a facility or the conduct of a licensed activity which is subject to the regulations in this part and consulting services related to operations that are safety related.
</P>
<P><I>Procurement document</I> means a contract that defines the requirements which facilities or basic components must meet in order to be considered acceptable by the purchaser.
</P>
<P><I>Responsible officer</I> means the president, vice-president or other individual in the organization of a corporation, partnership, or other entity who is vested with executive authority over activities subject to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial safety hazard</I> means a loss of safety function to the extent that there is a major reduction in the degree of protection provided to public health and safety for any facility or activity licensed or otherwise approved or regulated by the NRC, other than for export, under part 30, 40, 50, 52, 53, 60, 61, 63, 70, 71, or 72 of this chapter.


</P>
<P><I>Supplying</I> or <I>supplies</I> means contractually responsible for a basic component used or to be used in a facility or activity which is subject to the regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 28893, June 6, 1977; 42 FR 36803, July 18, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 48622, Oct. 19, 1978; 46 FR 58283, Dec. 1, 1981; 47 FR 57480, Dec. 27, 1982; 56 FR 36089, July 31, 1991; 59 FR 5519, Feb. 7, 1994; 60 FR 48373, Sept. 19, 1995; 61 FR 65171, Dec. 11, 1996; 64 FR 72000, Dec. 23, 1999; 66 FR 55790, Nov. 2, 2001; 72 FR 49486, Aug. 28, 2007; 84 FR 63567, Nov. 18, 2019; 91 FR 15774, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.4   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027 unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 28893, June 6, 1977, as amended at 90 FR 55628, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified in this part, written communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part must be addressed to the NRC's Document Control Desk, and sent by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. In the case of a licensee or permit holder, a copy of the communication must also be sent to the appropriate Regional Administrator at the address specified in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49487, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 62680, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.6   Posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each individual, partnership, corporation, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this part shall post current copies of—
</P>
<P>(i) The regulations in this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures adopted pursuant to the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) These documents must be posted in a conspicuous position on any premises within the United States where the activities subject to this part are conducted.
</P>
<P>(b) If posting of the regulations in this part or the procedures adopted pursuant to the regulations in this part is not practicable, the licensee or firm subject to the regulations in this part may, in addition to posting section 206, post a notice which describes the regulations/procedures, including the name of the individual to whom reports may be made, and states where they may be examined.
</P>
<P>(c) The effective date of this section has been deferred until January 6, 1978.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 28893, June 6, 1977, as amended at 60 FR 48374, Sept. 19, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.7   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest. Suppliers of commercial grade items are exempt from the provisions of this part to the extent that they supply commercial grade items.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 28893, June 6, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 48622, Oct. 19, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0035.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 21.7, 21.21 and 21.51.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52185, Oct. 6, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="77" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.77" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Notification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.21   Notification of failure to comply or existence of a defect and its evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each individual, corporation, partnership, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this part shall adopt appropriate procedures to—
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate deviations and failures to comply to identify defects and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards as soon as practicable, and, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, in all cases within 60 days of discovery, in order to identify a reportable defect or failure to comply that could create a substantial safety hazard, were it to remain uncorrected, and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that if an evaluation of an identified deviation or failure to comply potentially associated with a substantial safety hazard cannot be completed within 60 days from discovery of the deviation or failure to comply, an interim report is prepared and submitted to the Commission through a director or responsible officer or designated person as discussed in § 21.21(d)(5). The interim report should describe the deviation or failure to comply that is being evaluated and should also state when the evaluation will be completed. This interim report must be submitted in writing within 60 days of discovery of the deviation or failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that a director or responsible officer subject to the regulations of this part is informed as soon as practicable, and, in all cases, within the 5 working days after completion of the evaluation described in paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section if the manufacture, construction, or operation of a facility or activity, a basic component supplied for such facility or activity, or the design certification or design approval under part 52 or 53 of this chapter—
</P>
<P>(i) Fails to comply with the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or any applicable rule, regulation, order, or license of the Commission or standard design approval under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, relating to a substantial safety hazard, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains a defect.
</P>
<P>(b) If the deviation or failure to comply is discovered by a supplier of basic components, or services associated with basic components, and the supplier determines that it does not have the capability to perform the evaluation to determine if a defect exists, then the supplier must inform the purchasers or affected licensees within five working days of this determination so that the purchasers or affected licensees may evaluate the deviation or failure to comply, pursuant to § 21.21(a).
</P>
<P>(c) A dedicating entity is responsible for—
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying and evaluating deviations and reporting defects and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards for dedicated items; and
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining auditable records for the dedication process.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A director or responsible officer subject to the regulations of this part or a person designated under § 21.21(d)(5) must notify the Commission when he or she obtains information reasonably indicating a failure to comply or a defect affecting—
</P>
<P>(i) The manufacture, construction or operation of a facility or an activity within the United States that is subject to the licensing requirements under parts part 30, 40, 50, 52, 53, 60, 61, 63, 70, 71, or 72 of this chapter and that is within his or her organization's responsibility; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A basic component that is within his or her organization's responsibility and is supplied for a facility or an activity within the United States that is subject to the licensing, design certification, or approval requirements under part 30, 40, 50, 52, 53, 60, 61, 63, 70, 71, or 72 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The notification to NRC of a failure to comply or of a defect under paragraph (d)(1) of this section and the evaluation of a failure to comply or a defect under paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, are not required if the director or responsible officer has actual knowledge that the Commission has been notified in writing of the defect or the failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(3) Notification required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be made as follows—
</P>
<P>(i) Initial notification by facsimile, which is the preferred method of notification, to the NRC Operations Center at (301) 816-5151 or by telephone at (301) 816-5100 within two days following receipt of information by the director or responsible corporate officer under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, on the identification of a defect or a failure to comply. Verification that the facsimile has been received should be made by calling the NRC Operations Center. This paragraph does not apply to interim reports described in § 21.21(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) Written notification to the NRC at the address specified in § 21.5 within 30 days following receipt of information by the director or responsible corporate officer under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, on the identification of a defect or a failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(4) The written report required by this paragraph shall include, but need not be limited to, the following information, to the extent known:
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of the individual or individuals informing the Commission.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the facility, the activity, or the basic component supplied for such facility or such activity within the United States which fails to comply or contains a defect.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of the firm constructing the facility or supplying the basic component which fails to comply or contains a defect.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nature of the defect or failure to comply and the safety hazard which is created or could be created by such defect or failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(v) The date on which the information of such defect or failure to comply was obtained.
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of a basic component which contains a defect or fails to comply, the number and location of these components in use at, supplied for, being supplied for, or may be supplied for, manufactured, or being manufactured for one or more facilities or activities subject to the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(vii) The corrective action which has been, is being, or will be taken; the name of the individual or organization responsible for the action; and the length of time that has been or will be taken to complete the action.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any advice related to the defect or failure to comply about the facility, activity, or basic component that has been, is being, or will be given to purchasers or licensees.
</P>
<P>(ix) In the case of an early site permit, the entities to whom an early site permit was transferred.
</P>
<P>(5) The director or responsible officer may authorize an individual to provide the notification required by this paragraph, provided that, this shall not relieve the director or responsible officer of his or her responsibility under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(e) Individuals subject to this part may be required by the Commission to supply additional information related to a defect or failure to comply. Commission action to obtain additional information may be based on reports of defects from other reporting entities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 28893, June 6, 1977, as amended at 46 FR 58283, Dec. 1, 1981; 47 FR 57480, Dec. 27, 1982; 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 56 FR 36089, July 31, 1991; 59 FR 14086, Mar. 25, 1994; 60 FR 48374, Sept. 19, 1995; 66 FR 55790, Nov. 2, 2001; 67 FR 77652, Dec. 19, 2002; 72 FR 49487, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15775, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="78" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.78" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procurement Documents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.78.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.31   Procurement documents.</HEAD>
<P>Each individual, corporation, partnership, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this part shall ensure that each procurement document for a facility, or a basic component issued by him, her or it on or after January 6, 1978, specifies, when applicable, that the provisions of 10 CFR part 21 apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48374, Sept. 19, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="79" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.79" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Inspections, Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.79.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.41   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>Each individual, corporation, partnership, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this part shall permit the Commission to inspect records, premises, activities, and basic components as necessary to accomplish the purposes of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48374, Sept. 19, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.79.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.51   Maintenance and inspection of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each individual, corporation, partnership, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this part shall prepare and maintain records necessary to accomplish the purposes of this part, specifically—
</P>
<P>(1) Retain evaluations of all deviations and failures to comply for a minimum of five years after the date of the evaluation;
</P>
<P>(2) Suppliers of basic components must retain any notifications sent to purchasers and affected licensees for a minimum of five years after the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(3) Suppliers of basic components must retain a record of the purchasers of basic components for 10 years after delivery of the basic component or service associated with a basic component.
</P>
<P>(4) Applicants for standard design certification under subpart B of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter and others providing a design which is the subject of a design certification, during and following Commission adoption of a final design certification rule for that design, shall retain any notifications sent to purchasers and affected licensees for a minimum of 5 years after the date of the notification, and retain a record of the purchasers for 15 years after delivery of design which is the subject of the design certification rule or service associated with the design.
</P>
<P>(5) Applicants for or holders of a standard design approval under subpart E of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter and others providing a design which is the subject of a design approval shall retain any notifications sent to purchasers and affected licensees for a minimum of 5 years after the date of the notification, and retain a record of the purchasers for 15 years after delivery of the design which is the subject of the design approval or service associated with the design.
</P>
<P>(b) Each individual, corporation, partnership, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this part shall permit the Commission the opportunity to inspect records pertaining to basic components that relate to the identification and evaluation of deviations, and the reporting of defects and failures to comply, including (but not limited to) any advice given to purchasers or licensees on the placement, erection, installation, operation, maintenance, modification, or inspection of a basic component.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 36090, July 31, 1991, as amended at 60 FR 48374, Sept. 19, 1995; 72 FR 49488, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15775, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="80" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.80" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.80.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.61   Failure to notify.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any director or responsible officer of an entity (including dedicating entity) that is not otherwise subject to the deliberate misconduct provisions of this chapter but is subject to the regulations in this part who knowingly and consciously fails to provide the notice required as by § 21.21 shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to the amount provided by section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Any NRC licensee or applicant for a license (including an applicant for, or holder of, a permit), applicant for a design certification under part 52 or 53 of this chapter during the pendency of its application, applicant for a design certification after Commission adoption of a final design certification rule for that design, or applicant for or holder of a standard design approval under part 52 or 53 of this chapter subject to the regulations in this part who fails to provide the notice required by § 21.21, or otherwise fails to comply with the applicable requirements of this part shall be subject to a civil penalty as provided by Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) The dedicating entity, pursuant to § 21.21(c) of this part, is responsible for identifying and evaluating deviations, reporting defects and failures to comply for the dedicated item, and maintaining auditable records of the dedication process. NRC enforcement action can be taken for failure to identify and evaluate deviations, failure to report defects and failures to comply, or failure to maintain auditable records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 48374, Sept. 19, 1995, as amended at 72 FR 49488, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15775, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.62" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.17.0.80.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.62   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 21 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 21 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 21.1, 21.2, 21.3, 21.4 21.5, 21.7, 21.8, 21.61, and 21.62.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55071, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 25—ACCESS AUTHORIZATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 145, 161, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2165, 2201, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note; E.O. 10865, 25 FR 1583, as amended, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 398; E.O. 12829, 58 FR 3479, 3 CFR, 1993 Comp., p. 570; E.O. 13526, 75 FR 707, 3 CFR, 2009 Comp., p. 298; E.O. 12968, 60 FR 40245, 3 CFR, 1995 Comp., p. 391.
</PSPACE><P>Section 25.17(f) and Appendix A also issued under 31 U.S.C. 9701; 42 U.S.C. 2214.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 14481, Mar. 5, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part establish procedures for granting, reinstating, extending, transferring, and terminating access authorizations of licensee personnel, licensee contractors or agents, and other persons (e.g., individuals involved in adjudicatory procedures as set forth in 10 CFR part 2, subpart I) who may require access to classified information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17687, Apr. 11, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.3   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to licensees, certificate holders, and others who may require access to classified information related to a license, certificate, an application for a license or certificate, or other activities as the Commission may determine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 32227, June 2, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Access authorization</I> means an administrative determination that an individual (including a consultant) who is employed by or an applicant for employment with the NRC, NRC contractors, agents, licensees and certificate holders, or other person designated by the Executive Director for Operations, is eligible for a security clearance for access to classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate holder</I> means a facility operating under the provisions of parts 71 or 76 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Classified information</I> means either classified National Security Information, Restricted Data, or Formerly Restricted Data or any one of them. It is the generic term for information requiring protection in the interest of National Security whether classified under an Executive Order or the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Classified National Security Information</I> means information that has been determined under E.O. 13526, as amended, or any predecessor or successor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and that is so designated.
</P>
<P><I>Cognizant Security Agency (CSA)</I> means agencies of the Executive Branch that have been authorized by E.O. 12829 to establish an industrial security program for the purpose of safeguarding classified information under the jurisdiction of those agencies when disclosed or released to U.S. industry. These agencies are the Department of Defense, the Department of Energy, the Central Intelligence Agency, and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. A facility has a single CSA which exercises primary authority for the protection of classified information at the facility. The CSA for the facility provides security representation for other government agencies with security interests at the facility. The Secretary of Defense has been designated as Executive Agent for the National Industrial Security Program.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.


</P>
<P><I>“L” access authorization</I> means an access authorization granted by the Commission that is normally based on a Tier 3 (T3) investigation conducted by the Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA).
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a license issued pursuant to part 50, 52, 53, 60, 63, 70, or 72 of this chapter.






</P>
<P><I>Matter</I> means documents or material.
</P>
<P><I>National Security Information</I> means information that has been determined pursuant to Executive Order 12958, as amended, or any predecessor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and that is so designated.
</P>
<P><I>Need-to-know</I> means a determination made by an authorized holder of classified information that a prospective recipient requires access to a specific classified information to perform or assist in a lawful and authorized governmental function under the cognizance of the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means (1) any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy (DOE), except that the DOE shall be considered a person to the extent that its facilities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 and sections 104, 105 and 202 of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>“Q” access authorization</I> means an access authorization granted by the Commission normally based on a Tier 5 (T5) investigation conducted by the Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency, the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or other U.S. Government agency that conducts personnel security investigations.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data</I> means all data concerning design, manufacture or utilization of atomic weapons, the production of special nuclear material, or the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but shall not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Visit authorization letters (VAL)</I> means a letter, generated by a licensee, certificate holder or other organization under the requirements of 10 CFR parts 25 and/or 95, verifying the need-to-know and access authorization of an individual from that organization who needs to visit another authorized facility for the purpose of exchanging or acquiring classified information related to the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14481, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 58283, Dec. 1, 1981; 47 FR 38683, Sept. 2, 1982; 48 FR 24320, June 1, 1983; 50 FR 36984, Sept. 11, 1985; 55 FR 11574, Mar. 29, 1990; 62 FR 17687, Apr. 11, 1997; 64 FR 15647, Apr. 1, 1999; 70 FR 32227, June 2, 2005; 75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010; 86 FR 43401, Aug. 9, 2021; 87 FR 45241, July 28, 2022; 91 FR 15775, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.7   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14481, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 90 FR 55628, Dec. 3, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0046.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 25.11, 25.17, 25.21, 25.23, 25.25, 25.27, 25.29, 25.31, 25.33, and 25.35.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In §§ 25.17(b), 25.21(c), 25.27(a), 25.29, and 25.31, NRC Form 237 is approved under control number 3150-0050.
</P>
<P>(2) In §§ 25.17(c), 25.21(c), 25.27(b), 25.29, and 25.31, the “Electronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing (e-QIP), SF-86—Questionnaire for National Security Positions” is approved under control number 3206-0005.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 25.21(b), NRC Form 354 is approved under control number 3150-0026.
</P>
<P>(4) In § 25.33, NRC Form 136 is approved under control number 3150-0049.
</P>
<P>(5) In § 25.35, NRC Form 277 is approved under control number 3150-0051.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19624, May 9, 1984, as amended at 57 FR 3720, Jan. 31, 1992; 62 FR 17687, Apr. 11, 1997; 62 FR 52185, Oct. 6, 1997; 87 FR 45241, July 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.9   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part should be addressed to the Director, Division of Facilities and Security, Mail Stop T7-D57, and sent either by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58803, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62681, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.11   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of the regulations of this part, that are—
</P>
<P>(a) Authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and are consistent with the common defense and security; or
</P>
<P>(b) Coincidental with one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An application of the regulation in the particular circumstances conflicts with other NRC rules or requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) An application of the regulation in the particular circumstances would not serve the underlying purpose of the rule or is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule;
</P>
<P>(3) When compliance would result in undue hardship or other costs that significantly exceed those contemplated when the regulation was adopted, or that significantly exceed those incurred by others similarly situated;
</P>
<P>(4) When the exemption would result in benefit to the common defense and security that compensates for any decrease in the security that may result from the grant of the exemption;
</P>
<P>(5) When the exemption would provide only temporary relief from the applicable regulation and the licensee or applicant has made good faith efforts to comply with the regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) When there is any other material circumstance present that was not considered when the regulation was adopted that would be in the public interest to grant an exemption. If this condition is relied on exclusively for satisfying paragraph (b) of this section, the exemption may not be granted until the Executive Director for Operations has consulted with the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15647, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.81.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.13   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee or organization employing individuals approved for personnel security access authorization under this part, shall maintain records as prescribed within the part. These records are subject to review and inspection by CSA representatives during security reviews.
</P>
<P>(b) Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14481, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 19245, May 27, 1988; 62 FR 17687, Apr. 11, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="82" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Access Authorizations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.15   Access permitted under “Q” or “L” access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A “Q” access authorization permits an individual access on a need-to-know basis to (1) Secret and Confidential Restricted Data and (2) Secret and Confidential National Security Information including intelligence information, CRYPTO (<I>i.e.</I>, cryptographic information) or other classified communications security (COMSEC) information.
</P>
<P>(b) An “L” access authorization permits an individual access on a need-to-know basis to Confidential Restricted Data and Secret and Confidential National Security Information other than the categories specifically included in paragraph (a) of this section. In addition, access to certain Confidential COMSEC information is permitted as authorized by a National Communications Security Committee waiver dated February 14, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) Each employee of the Commission is processed for one of the two levels of access authorization. Licensees and other persons will furnish National Security Information and/or Restricted Data to a Commission employee on official business when the employee has the appropriate level of NRC access authorization and need-to-know. Some individuals are permitted to begin NRC employment without an access authorization. However, no NRC employee shall be permitted access to any classified information until the appropriate level of access authorization has been granted to that employee by NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14481, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 9195, Mar. 4, 1982; 50 FR 36984, Sept. 11, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.17   Approval for processing applicants for access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Access authorizations must be requested for licensee employees or other persons (e.g., 10 CFR part 2, subpart I) who need access to classified information in connection with activities under part 50, 52, 53, 54, 60, 63, 70, 72, or 76 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The request must be submitted to the facility CSA. If the NRC is the CSA, the procedures in § 25.17 (c) and (d) will be followed. If the NRC is not the CSA, the request will be submitted to the CSA in accordance with procedures established by the CSA. The NRC will be notified of the request by a letter that includes the name, Social Security number and level of access authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) The request must include a completed personnel security packet (see § 25.17(d)) and request form (NRC Form 237) signed by a licensee, licensee contractor official, or other authorized person.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Each personnel security packet submitted must include the following completed forms:
</P>
<P>(i) Electronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing (e-QIP), SF-86 Questionnaire for National Security Positions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Two standard fingerprint cards (FD-258);
</P>
<P>(iii) Security Acknowledgment (NRC Form 176); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other related forms where specified in accompanying instructions (NRC Form 254).
</P>
<P>(2) Only a Security Acknowledgment (NRC Form 176) need be completed by any person possessing an active access authorization, or who is being processed for an access authorization, by another Federal agency. The active or pending access authorization must be at an equivalent level to that required by the NRC and be based on an adequate investigation of not more than five years old.
</P>
<P>(e) To avoid delays in processing requests for access authorizations, each security packet should be reviewed for completeness and correctness (including legibility of response on the forms) before submittal.
</P>
<P>(f) The Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) bills the NRC for the cost of each background investigation conducted in support of an application for access authorization (application). The combined cost of the DCSA investigation and the NRC's application processing overhead (NRC processing fee) are recovered through an access authorization fee imposed on applicants for access authorization.
</P>
<P>(1) Each application for access authorization, renewal, or change in level must be accompanied by a remittance, payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, which is equal to the NRC access authorization fee. This fee must be determined using the following formula: the DCSA investigation billing rates on the day the NRC receives the application + the NRC processing fee = the NRC access authorization fee. The NRC processing fee is determined by multiplying the DCSA investigation billing rate on the day the NRC receives the application by 90.2 percent (<I>i.e.,</I> DCSA rate × 90.2 percent).
</P>
<P>(2) Updated DCSA investigation billing rates are published periodically in a Federal Investigations Notice (FIN) issued by the DCSA's Federal Investigative Services. Copies of the current DCSA investigation billing rates schedule can be obtained by contacting the NRC's Personnel Security Branch, Division of Facilities Security, Office of Administration by email to <I>Licensee_ Access_ Authorization_ Fee.Resource@nrc.gov</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC's Information Access Authority Program (IAAP) is considered reimbursable work representing services provided to an organization for which the NRC is entitled payment. The NRC is authorized to receive and retain fees from licensees for services performed. The NRC's Office of the Chief Financial Officer periodically reviews the fees charged for IAAP and makes recommendations on revising those charges to reflect costs incurred by the NRC in providing those services. The reviews are performed using cost analysis techniques to determine the direct and indirect costs. Based on this review, the IAAP fees are adjusted to reflect the current cost for the program. IAAP requests for reciprocity will be charged a flat fee rate of $95.00 as referenced in paragraph (f)(4) of this section. This flat fee is aligned with the level of effort that has been expended by DCSA to process reciprocity requests, and accounts for inflation as well as recovery of the appropriate cost for conducting the investigations. Copies of the current NRC access authorization fee may be obtained by contacting the NRC's Personnel Security Branch, Division of Facilities and Security, Office of Administration by email at: Licensee_Access_ Authorization_<I>Fee.Resource@nrc.gov</I>. Any change in the NRC's access authorization fee will be applicable to each access authorization request received on or after the effective date of the DCSA's most recently published investigation billing rates schedule.
</P>
<P>(4) Certain applications from individuals having current Federal access authorizations may be processed more expeditiously and at less cost because the Commission, at its discretion, may decide to accept the certification of access authorization and investigative data from other Federal Government agencies that grant personnel access authorizations.
</P>
<P>(i) Applications for reciprocity will be processed at the NRC flat fee rate of $95 per request, as referenced in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The NRC application fee for an access authorization of type . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NRC fee rate
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) NRC-L based on certification of comparable investigation 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) NRC-Q based on certification of comparable investigation 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the NRC determines, based on its review of available data, that a Tier 3 investigation is necessary, the appropriate NRC-L fee will be assessed as shown in appendix A to this part before the conduct of the investigation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> If the NRC determines, based on its review of available data, that a Tier 5 investigation is necessary, the appropriate NRC-Q fee will be assessed as shown in appendix A to this part before the conduct of the investigation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Applicants shall, in cases where reciprocity is not acceptable and it is necessary to perform a background investigation, be charged the appropriate fee referenced in appendix A to this part. Applicants shall calculate the access authorization fee according to the stated formula (<I>i.e.,</I> DCSA rate × 90.2 percent).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17687, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 62512, Nov. 5, 2003; 70 FR 32227, June 2, 2005; 72 FR 27411, May 16, 2007; 77 FR 26153, May 3, 2012; 77 FR 46258, Aug. 3, 2012; 86 FR 43401, Aug. 9, 2021; 86 FR 47209, Aug. 24, 2021; 87 FR 45241, July 28, 2022; 91 FR 15775, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.19   Processing applications.</HEAD>
<P>Each application for an access authorization or access authorization renewal must be submitted to the CSA. If the NRC is the CSA, the application and its accompanying fee must be submitted to the NRC Division of Facilities and Security. If necessary, the NRC Division of Facilities and Security may obtain approval from the appropriate Commission office exercising licensing or regulatory authority before processing the access authorization or access authorization renewal request. If the applicant is disapproved for processing, the NRC Division of Facilities and Security shall notify the submitter in writing and return the original application (security packet) and its accompanying fee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15648, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.21   Determination of initial and continued eligibility for access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following receipt by the CSA of the reports of the personnel security investigations, the record will be reviewed to determine that granting an access authorization or renewal of access authorization will not endanger the common defense and security and is clearly consistent with the national interest. If this determination is made, access authorization will be granted or renewed. If the NRC is the CSA, questions as to initial or continued eligibility will be determined in accordance with part 10 of chapter I. If another agency is the CSA, that agency will, under the requirements of the NISPOM, have established procedures at the facility to resolve questions as to initial or continued eligibility for access authorization. These questions will be determined in accordance with established CSA procedures already in effect for the facility.
</P>
<P>(b) The CSA must be promptly notified of developments that bear on continued eligibility for access authorization throughout the period for which the authorization is active (e.g., persons who marry subsequent to the completion of a personnel security packet must report this change by submitting a completed NRC Form 354, “Data Report on Spouse” or equivalent CSA form).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, an NRC “Q” access authorization must be renewed every five years from the date of issuance. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, an NRC “L” access authorization must be renewed every ten years from the date of issuance. An application for renewal must be submitted at least 120 days before the expiration of the five-year period for a “Q” access authorization and the ten-year period for an “L” access authorization, and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement by the licensee or other person that the individual continues to require access to classified National Security Information or Restricted Data; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A personnel security packet as described in § 25.17(d).
</P>
<P>(2) Renewal applications and the required paperwork are not required for individuals who have a current and active access authorization from another Federal agency and who are subject to a reinvestigation program by that agency that is determined by the NRC to meet the NRC's requirements. (The DOE Reinvestigation Program has been determined to meet the NRC's requirements.) For these individuals, the submission of the SF-86 by the licensee or other person to the other Government agency pursuant to their reinvestigation requirements will satisfy the NRC's renewal submission and paperwork requirements, even if less than five years have passed since the date of issuance or renewal of the NRC “Q” access authorization, or if less than 10 years have passed since the date of issuance or renewal of the NRC “L” access authorization. Any NRC access authorization continued in response to the provisions of this paragraph will, thereafter, not be due for renewal until the date set by the other Government agency for the next reinvestigation of the individual pursuant to the other agency's reinvestigation program. However, the period of time for the initial and each subsequent NRC “Q” renewal application to the NRC may not exceed seven years or, in the case of an NRC “L” renewal application, twelve years. Any individual who is subject to the reinvestigation program requirements of another Federal agency but, for administrative or other reasons, does not submit reinvestigation forms to that agency within seven years for a “Q” renewal or twelve years for an “L” renewal of the previous submission, shall submit a renewal application to the NRC using the forms prescribed in § 25.17(d) before the expiration of the seven-year period for a “Q” renewal or twelve-year period for an “L” renewal.
</P>
<P>(3) If the NRC is not the CSA, reinvestigation program procedures and requirements will be set by the CSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17688, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15648, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.23   Notification of grant of access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>The determination to grant or renew access authorization will be furnished in writing to the licensee or organization that initiated the request. Upon receipt of the notification of original grant of access authorization, the licensee or organization shall obtain, as a condition for grant of access authorization and access to classified information, an executed “Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement” (SF-312) from the affected individual. The SF-312 is an agreement between the United States and an individual who is cleared for access to classified information. An employee issued an initial access authorization shall execute a SF-312 before being granted access to classified information. The licensee or other organization shall forward the executed SF-312 to the CSA for retention. If the employee refuses to execute the SF-312, the licensee or other organization shall deny the employee access to classified information and submit a report to the CSA. The SF-312 must be signed and dated by the employee and witnessed. The employee's and witness' signatures must bear the same date. The individual shall also be given a security orientation briefing in accordance with § 95.33 of this chapter. Records of access authorization grant and renewal notification must be maintained by the licensee or other organization for three years after the access authorization has been terminated by the CSA. This information may also be furnished to other representatives of the Commission, to licensees, contractors, or other Federal agencies. Notifications of access authorization will not be given in writing to the affected individual except:
</P>
<P>(a) In those cases when the determination was made as a result of a Personnel Security Hearing or by a Personnel Security Review Panel ; or
</P>
<P>(b) When the individual also is the official designated by the licensee or other organization to whom written NRC notifications are forwarded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17688, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15648, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.25   Cancellation of requests for access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>When a request for an individual's access authorization or renewal of an access authorization is withdrawn or canceled, the requestor shall notify the CSA immediately by telephone so that the single scope background investigation, national agency check with law and credit investigation, or other personnel security action may be discontinued. The requestor shall identify the full name and date of birth of the individual, the date of request, and the type of access authorization or access authorization renewal requested. The requestor shall confirm each telephone notification promptly in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15648, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.27   Reopening of cases in which requests for access authorizations are canceled.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In conjunction with a new request for access authorization (NRC Form 237 or CSA equivalent) for individuals whose cases were previously canceled, new fingerprint cards (FD-257) in duplicate and a new Security Acknowledgment (NRC Form 176), or CSA equivalent, must be furnished to the CSA along with the request.
</P>
<P>(b) Additionally, if 90 days or more have elapsed since the date of the last Questionnaire for National Security Positions (SF-86), or CSA equivalent, the individual must complete a personnel security packet (see § 25.17(d)). The CSA, based on investigative or other needs, may require a complete personnel security packet in other cases as well. A fee, equal to the amount paid for an initial request, will be charged only if a new or updating investigation by the NRC is required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17689, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15648, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.29   Reinstatement of access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An access authorization can be reinstated provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) No more than 24 months has lapsed since the date of termination of the clearance;
</P>
<P>(2) There has been no break in employment with the employer since the date of termination of the clearance;
</P>
<P>(3) There is no known adverse information;
</P>
<P>(4) The most recent investigation must not exceed 5 years (Top Secret, Q) or 10 years (Secret, L); and
</P>
<P>(5) The most recent investigation must meet or exceed the scope of the investigation required for the level of access authorization that is to be reinstated or granted.
</P>
<P>(b) An access authorization can be reinstated at the same, or lower, level by submission of a CSA-designated form to the CSA. The employee may not have access to classified information until receipt of written confirmation of reinstatement and an up-to-date personnel security packet will be furnished with the request for reinstatement of an access authorization. A new Security Acknowledgement will be obtained in all cases. Where personnel security packets are not required, a request for reinstatement must state the level of access authorization to be reinstated and the full name and date of birth of the individual to establish positive identification. A fee, equal to the amount paid for an initial request, will be charged only if a new or updating investigation by the NRC is required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17689, Apr. 11, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.31   Extensions and transfers of access authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC Division of Facilities and Security may, on request, extend the authorization of an individual who possesses an access authorization in connection with a particular employer or activity to permit access to classified information in connection with an assignment with another employer or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC Division of Facilities and Security may, on request, transfer an access authorization when an individual's access authorization under one employer or activity is terminated, simultaneously with the individual being granted an access authorization for another employer or activity.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for an extension or transfer of an access authorization must state the full name of the person, date of birth, and level of access authorization. The Director, Division of Facilities and Security, may require a new personnel security packet (see § 25.17(c)) to be completed by the applicant. A fee, equal to the amount paid for an initial request, will be charged only if a new or updating investigation by the NRC is required.
</P>
<P>(d) The date of an extension or transfer of access authorization may not be used to determine when a request for renewal of access authorization is required. Access authorization renewal requests must be timely submitted, in accordance with § 25.21(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14481, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 24320, June 1, 1983; 57 FR 3721, Jan. 31, 1992; 62 FR 17689, Apr. 11, 1997; 64 FR 15648, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.82.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.33   Termination of access authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Access authorizations will be terminated when:
</P>
<P>(1) An access authorization is no longer required;
</P>
<P>(2) An individual is separated from the employment or the activity for which he or she obtained an access authorization for a period of 90 days or more; or
</P>
<P>(3) An individual, pursuant to 10 CFR part 10 or other CSA-approved adjudicatory standards, is no longer eligible for an access authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) A representative of the licensee or other organization that employs the individual whose access authorization will be terminated shall immediately notify the CSA when the circumstances noted in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section exist; inform the individual that his or her access authorization is being terminated, and the reason; and that he or she will be considered for reinstatement of an access authorization if he or she resumes work requiring the authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) When an access authorization is to be terminated, a representative of the licensee or other organization shall conduct a security termination briefing of the individual involved, explain the Security Termination Statement (NRC Form 136 or CSA approved form) and have the individual complete the form. The representative shall promptly forward the original copy of the completed Security Termination Statement to CSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17689, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15649, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="83" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.83" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Classified Visits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.83.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.35   Classified visits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The number of classified visits must be held to a minimum. The licensee, certificate holder, applicant for a standard design certification under part 52 or 53 of this chapter (including an applicant after the Commission has adopted a final standard design certification rule under part 52 or 53 of this chapter), or other facility, or an applicant for or holder of a standard design approval under part 52 or 53 of this chapter shall determine that the visit is necessary and that the purpose of the visit cannot be achieved without access to, or disclosure of, classified information. All classified visits require advance notification to, and approval of, the organization to be visited. In urgent cases, visit information may be furnished by telephone and confirmed in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) Representatives of the Federal Government, when acting in their official capacities as inspectors, investigators, or auditors, may visit a licensee, certificate holder, or other facility without furnishing advanced notification, provided these representatives present appropriate Government credentials upon arrival. Normally, however, Federal representatives will provide advance notification in the form of an NRC Form 277, “Request for Visit or Access Approval,” with the “need-to-know” certified by the appropriate NRC office exercising licensing or regulatory authority and verification of an NRC access authorization by the Division of Facilities and Security.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee, certificate holder, or others shall include the following information on all Visit Authorization Letters (VAL) which they prepare.
</P>
<P>(1) Visitor's name, address, and telephone number and certification of the level of the facility security clearance;
</P>
<P>(2) Name, date and place of birth, and citizenship of the individual intending to visit;
</P>
<P>(3) Certification of the proposed visitor's personnel clearance and any special access authorizations required for the visit;
</P>
<P>(4) Name of person(s) to be visited;
</P>
<P>(5) Purpose and sufficient justification for the visit to allow for a determination of the necessity of the visit; and
</P>
<P>(6) Date or period during which the VAL is to be valid.
</P>
<P>(d) Classified visits may be arranged for a 12 month period. The requesting facility shall notify all places honoring these visit arrangements of any change in the individual's status that will cause the visit request to be canceled before its normal termination date.
</P>
<P>(e) The responsibility for determining need-to-know in connection with a classified visit rests with the individual who will disclose classified information during the visit. The licensee, certificate holder or other facility shall establish procedures to ensure positive identification of visitors before the disclosure of any classified information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17689, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15649, Apr. 1, 1999; 72 FR 49488, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15775, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="84" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.84" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.84.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.37   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An injunction or other court order may be obtained to prohibit a violation of any provision of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any regulation or order issued under these Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) National Security Information is protected under the requirements and sanctions of Executive Order 13526, as amended, or any predecessor or successor orders.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 24320, June 1, 1983, as amended at 57 FR 55072, Nov. 24, 1992; 64 FR 15649, Apr. 1, 1999; 70 FR 32227, June 2, 2005; 75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.0.84.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.39   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 25 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 25 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 25.1, 25.3, 25.5, 25.7, 25.8, 25.9, 25.11, 25.19, 25.25, 25.27, 25.29, 25.31, 25.37, and 25.39.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55072, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.18.2.85.1.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 25—Fees for NRC Access Authorization











</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The NRC application fee for an access authorization of type . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Is the sum of the current DCSA investigation billing rate charged for an investigation of type . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Plus the NRC's processing


<br/>fee (rounded to the nearest

<br/>dollar), which is equal to

<br/>the investigation billing

<br/>rate for the type of

<br/>investigation referenced

<br/>multiplied by . . .

<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial “L” access authorization 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 3 (T3) (Standard Service)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reinstatement of “L” access authorization 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No fee assessed for most applications
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Renewal of “L” access authorization 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 3 Reinvestigation (T3R) (Standard Service)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial “Q” access authorization</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 5 (T5) (Standard Service)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial “Q” access authorization</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T5 (Priority Handling)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reinstatement of “Q” access authorization 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No fee assessed for most applications
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Renewal of “Q” access authorization 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 5 Reinvestigation (T5R) (Standard Service)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Renewal of “Q” access authorization 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 5 Reinvestigation (T5R) (Priority Handling)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If the NRC determines, based on its review of available data, that a Tier 5 investigation is necessary, the appropriate fee for an Initial “Q” access authorization will be assessed before the conduct of investigation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Full fee will only be charged if an investigation is required.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 45242, July 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 26—FITNESS FOR DUTY PROGRAMS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 103, 104, 107, 161, 223, 234, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2133, 2134, 2137, 2201, 2273, 2282, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 26 appear at 87 FR 71455, Nov. 22, 2022.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Administrative Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes requirements and standards for the establishment, implementation, and maintenance of fitness-for-duty (FFD) programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.3   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees who are authorized to operate a nuclear power reactor under 10 CFR 50.57, and holders of a combined license under 10 CFR Part 52 after the Commission has made the finding under 10 CFR 52.103(g) shall comply with the requirements of this part, except for subpart K of this part. Licensees who receive their authorization to operate a nuclear power reactor under 10 CFR 50.57 after the date of publication of this final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and holders of a combined license under 10 CFR Part 52 after the Commission has made the finding under 10 CFR 52.103(g) shall implement the FFD program before the receipt of special nuclear material in the form of fuel assemblies.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees who are authorized to possess, use, or transport formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material (SSNM) under Part 70 of this chapter, and any corporation, firm, partnership, limited liability company, association, or other organization who obtains a certificate of compliance or an approved compliance plan under Part 76 of this chapter, only if the entity elects to engage in activities involving formula quantities of SSNM shall comply with the requirements of this part, except for subparts I and K of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Before the receipt of special nuclear material in the form of fuel assemblies, the following licensees and other entities shall comply with the requirements of this part, except for subpart I of this part; and, no later than the receipt of special nuclear material in the form of fuel assemblies, the following licensees and other entities shall comply with the requirements of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Combined license applicants (under Part 52 of this chapter) who have been issued a limited work authorization under § 50.10(e), if the limited work authorization authorizes the applicant to install the foundations, including the placement of concrete, for safety- and security-related structures, systems, and components (SSCs) under the limited work authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) Combined license holders (under Part 52 of this chapter) before the Commission has made the finding under § 52.103(g);
</P>
<P>(3) Construction permit applicants (under Part 50 of this chapter) who have been issued a limited work authorization under § 50.10(e), if the limited work authorization authorizes the applicant to install the foundations, including the placement of concrete, for safety- and security-related SSCs under the limited work authorization;
</P>
<P>(4) Construction permit holders (under Part 50 of this chapter); and
</P>
<P>(5) Early site permit holders who have been issued a limited work authorization under § 50.10(e), if the limited work authorization authorizes the early site permit holder to install the foundations, including the placement of concrete, for safety- and security-related SSCs under the limited work authorization.
</P>
<P>(d) Contractor/vendors (C/Vs) who implement FFD programs or program elements, to the extent that the licensees and other entities specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) and (f) of this section rely on those C/V FFD programs or program elements to meet the requirements of this part, shall comply with the requirements of this part.






</P>
<P>(e) This part does not apply to either spent fuel storage facility licensees or non-power production or utilization facility licensees who possess, use, or transport formula quantities of irradiated SSNM.
</P>
<P>(f) No later than the start of construction activities, licensees and other entities that have applied for or have been issued a license under part 53 of this chapter, other than a manufacturing license (ML), must implement the requirements in subpart M of this part or all the requirements of this part except subparts K and M. Holders of an ML under part 53 of this chapter must implement the requirements in subpart M or all the requirements of this part except subparts K and M, before commencing activities that assemble a manufactured reactor.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 89 FR 106250, Dec. 30, 2024; 91 FR 15775, Mar. 30, 2026]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.4   FFD program applicability to categories of individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All persons who are granted unescorted access to nuclear power reactor protected areas by the licensees in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c) and perform the following duties shall be subject to an FFD program that meets all of the requirements of this part, except subparts K and M of this part, and those persons who are granted unescorted access to either nuclear power reactor protected areas or remote facilities where safety-significant systems or components may be operated within the design basis of a licensed commercial nuclear plant, by the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(f) and perform the following duties must be subject to an FFD program that satisfies the requirements in subpart M of this part, unless the licensee or other entity subjects these individuals to an FFD program that satisfies all of the requirements of this part except for those requirements in subparts K and M:
</P>
<P>(1) For persons who are granted unescorted access by the licensees in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c), operating or onsite directing of the operation of systems and components that a risk-informed evaluation process has shown to be significant to public health and safety; for those persons who are granted unescorted access by the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(f), operating or directing of the operation of systems and components that a risk-informed evaluation process has shown to be significant to public health and safety;
</P>
<P>(2) Performing health physics or chemistry duties required as a member of the onsite emergency response organization minimum shift complement;
</P>
<P>(3) Performing the duties of a fire brigade member who is responsible for understanding the effects of fire and fire suppressants on safe shutdown capability;
</P>
<P>(4) For persons who are granted unescorted access to nuclear power reactor protected areas by the licensees in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c), performing maintenance or onsite directing of the maintenance of SSCs that a risk-informed evaluation process has shown to be significant to public health and safety; for those persons who are granted unescorted access to nuclear power reactor protected areas by the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(f), performing maintenance or directing of the maintenance of SSCs that a risk-informed evaluation process has shown to be significant to public health and safety; and






</P>
<P>(5) Performing security duties as an armed security force officer, alarm station operator, response team leader, or watchman, hereinafter referred to as security personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) All persons who are granted unescorted access to nuclear power reactor protected areas by the licensees in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c) and who do not perform the duties described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to an FFD program that meets all of the requirements of this part, except §§ 26.205 through 26.209 and subparts K and M of this part. All persons who are granted unescorted access to a facility licensed under part 53 of this chapter, and who do not perform or direct the performance of the duties described in paragraph (a) of this section, must be subject to the requirements in subpart M of this part, unless the licensee or other entity implements an FFD program that satisfies all of the requirements of this part, except §§ 26.205 through 26.209 and subparts K and M.
</P>
<P>(c) All persons who are required by a licensee in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c) to physically report to the licensee's Technical Support Center or Emergency Operations Facility by licensee emergency plans and procedures shall be subject to an FFD program that meets all of the requirements of this part, except §§ 26.205 through 26.209 and subparts K and M of this part. Also, for licensees or other entities in § 26.3(f), all persons without unescorted access to the facility who make decisions and/or direct actions regarding plant safety and security, and all persons who participate remotely in emergency response activities or physically report to the Technical Support Center or Emergency Operations Facility (or an equivalent facility), must be subject to an FFD program that satisfies all of the requirements described in subpart M of this part, unless the licensee or other entity implements an FFD program that satisfies all of the requirements of this part, except §§ 26.205 through 26.209 and subparts K and M.








</P>
<P>(d) Any individual whose duties for the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(b) require him or her to have the following types of access or perform the following activities shall be subject to an FFD program that meets all of the requirements of this part, except subparts I and K of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) All persons who are granted unescorted access to Category IA material;
</P>
<P>(2) All persons who create or have access to procedures or records for safeguarding SSNM;
</P>
<P>(3) All persons who measure Category IA material;
</P>
<P>(4) All persons who transport or escort Category IA material; and
</P>
<P>(5) All persons who guard Category IA material.




</P>
<P>(e) When construction activities, as defined in § 26.5, begin, any individual whose duties for the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(c) require him or her to have the following types of access or perform the following activities at the location where the nuclear power plant will be constructed and operated shall be subject to an FFD program that meets all of the requirements of this part, except subparts I, K, and M of this part, and for any individual whose duties for the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(f) require him or her to have the following types of access, perform construction activities as defined in § 26.5, or perform the following activities must be subject to an FFD program as described in subpart M or an FFD program that satisfies all of the requirements of this part, except subparts I, K, and M:




</P>
<P>(1) Serves as security personnel required by the NRC, until the licensees or other entities receive special nuclear material in the form of fuel assemblies, at which time individuals who serve as security personnel required by the NRC must meet the requirements applicable to security personnel in paragraph (a)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Performs quality assurance, quality control, or quality verification activities related to safety- or security-related construction activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Based on a designation under § 26.406 by a licensee or other entity, monitors the fitness of the individuals specified in paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Witnesses or determines inspections, tests, and analyses certification required under part 52 or 53 of this chapter;






</P>
<P>(5) Supervises or manages the construction of safety- or security-related SSCs; or


</P>
<P>(6) Directs, as defined in § 26.5, or implements the access authorization program, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Having access to the information used by the licensee or other entity to make access authorization determinations, including information stored in electronic format;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making access authorization determinations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issuing entry-control picture badges in accordance with access authorization determinations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Conducting background investigations or psychological assessments used by the licensee or other entity to make access authorization determinations, except that he or she shall be subject to behavioral observation only when he or she is present at the location where the nuclear power plant will be constructed and operated, and licensees and other entities may rely on a local hospital or other organization that meets the requirements of 49 CFR Part 40, “Procedures for Department of Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs” to collect his or her specimens for drug and alcohol testing;
</P>
<P>(v) Adjudicating reviews or appeals of access authorization determinations;
</P>
<P>(vi) Auditing the access authorization program; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Performing any of the activities or having any of the duties listed in paragraph (e)(6) of this section for any C/V upon whom the licensee's or other entity's access authorization program will rely.
</P>
<P>(f) Any individual who is constructing or directing the construction of safety- or security-related SSCs shall be subject to an FFD program that meets the requirements of subpart K, or, if applicable, subpart M of this part, unless the licensee or other entity subjects these individuals to an FFD program that meets all of the requirements of this part, except for subparts I, K, and M of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) All FFD program personnel who are involved in the day-to-day operations of the program, as defined by the procedures of the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(a) through (c), and, as applicable, (d) and whose duties require them to have the following types of access or perform the following activities shall be subject to an FFD program that meets all of the requirements of this part, except subparts I, K, and M of this part, and, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, subpart C of this part. All personnel whose duties require them to have the following types of access or perform the following activities at facilities licensed under part 53 of this chapter must be subject to the requirements in subpart M or an FFD program that satisfies all of the requirements of this part, except subparts I, K, and M, and, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, subpart C of this part:










</P>
<P>(1) All persons who can link test results with the individual who was tested before an FFD policy violation determination is made, including, but not limited to the MRO;
</P>
<P>(2) All persons who make determinations of fitness;
</P>
<P>(3) All persons who make authorization decisions;
</P>
<P>(4) All persons involved in selecting or notifying individuals for testing; and
</P>
<P>(5) All persons involved in the collection or onsite testing of specimens.


</P>
<P>(h) Individuals who have applied for authorization to have the types of access or perform the activities described in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section shall be subject to §§ 26.31(c)(1), 26.35(b), 26.37, and 26.39, and the applicable requirements of subparts C, E through H, and M of this part.




</P>
<P>(i) The following individuals are not subject to an FFD program under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals who are not employed by a licensee or other entity in this part, who do not routinely provide FFD program services to a licensee or other entity in this part, and whose normal workplace is not at the licensee's or other entity's facility, but who may be called on to provide an FFD program service, including, but not limited to, collecting specimens for drug and alcohol testing, performing behavioral observation, or providing input to a determination of fitness. Such individuals may include, but are not limited to, hospital, employee assistance program (EAP) or substance abuse treatment facility personnel, or other medical professionals;
</P>
<P>(2) NRC employees, law enforcement personnel, or offsite emergency fire and medical response personnel while responding on site;
</P>
<P>(3) SSNM transporter personnel who are subject to U.S. Department of Transportation drug and alcohol FFD programs that require random testing for drugs and alcohol; and
</P>
<P>(4) The FFD program personnel of a program that is regulated by another Federal agency or State on which a licensee or other entity relies to meet the requirements of this part, as permitted under §§ 26.4(j), 26.31(b)(2), and 26.405(e), if the FFD program personnel are not employed by the licensee or other entity and their normal workplace is not at the licensee's or other entity's facility.




</P>
<P>(j) Individuals who are subject to this part and who are also subject to a program regulated by another Federal agency or State need be covered by only those elements of an FFD program that are not included in the Federal agency or State program, as long as all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The individuals are subject to pre-access (or pre-employment), random, for-cause, and post-event testing for the drugs and drug metabolites specified in § 26.31(d)(1) at or below the cutoff levels specified in § 26.163(a)(1) for initial drug testing and in § 26.163(b)(1) for confirmatory drug testing;
</P>
<P>(2) The individuals are subject to pre-access (or pre-employment), random, for-cause, and post-event testing for alcohol at or below the cutoff levels specified in § 26.103(a) and breath specimens are subject to confirmatory testing, if required, with an EBT that meets the requirements specified in § 26.91;
</P>
<P>(3) Urine specimens are tested for validity and the presence of drugs and drug metabolites at a Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)-certified laboratory, as defined in § 26.5;


</P>
<P>(4) Training is provided to address the knowledge and abilities (KAs) listed in § 26.29(a)(1) through (a)(10); and
</P>
<P>(5) Provisions are made to ensure that the testing agency or organization notifies the licensee or other entity granting authorization of any FFD policy violation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010; 87 FR 71455, Nov. 22, 2022; 91 FR 15775, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Acute fatigue</I> means fatigue from causes (e.g., restricted sleep, sustained wakefulness, task demands) occurring within the past 24 hours.
</P>
<P><I>Adulterated specimen</I> means a urine specimen that has been altered, as evidenced by test results showing either a substance that is not a normal constituent of urine or showing an abnormal concentration of an endogenous substance.
</P>
<P><I>Alertness</I> means the ability to remain awake and sustain attention.
</P>
<P><I>Aliquot</I> means a portion of a specimen that is used for testing. It is taken as a sample representing the whole specimen.
</P>
<P><I>Analytical run</I> means the process of testing a group of urine specimens for validity or for the presence of drugs and/or drug metabolites. For the purposes of defining the periods within which performance testing must be conducted by any licensee testing facility or HHS-certified laboratory that continuously processes specimens, an analytical run is defined as no more than an 8-hour period. For a facility that analyzes specimens in batches, an analytical run is defined as a group of specimens that are handled and tested together.
</P>
<P><I>Authorization</I> means that a licensee or other entity in § 26.3 has determined that an individual has met the requirements of this part to be granted or maintain the types of access or perform the duties specified in § 26.4(a) through (e), and, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, § 26.4(f) or (g).
</P>
<P><I>Best effort</I> means documented actions that a licensee or other entity who is subject to subpart C of this part takes to obtain suitable inquiry and employment information in order to determine whether an individual may be granted authorization, when the primary source of information refuses or indicates an inability or unwillingness to provide the information within 3 business days of the request and the licensee or other entity relies on a secondary source to meet the requirement.
</P>
<P><I>Biological marker</I> means, for a part 53 licensee implementing subpart M of this part, an endogenous substance that is used to validate that the biological specimen collected for testing was produced by the donor.






</P>
<P><I>Blood alcohol concentration (BAC)</I> means the mass of alcohol in a volume of blood.




</P>
<P><I>Calibrator</I> means a solution of known concentration in the appropriate matrix that is used to define expected outcomes of a measurement procedure or to compare the response obtained with the response of a donor specimen or quality control sample. The concentration of the analyte of interest in the calibrator is known within limits ascertained during its preparation.
</P>
<P><I>Cancelled test</I> means the test result reported by the MRO to the licensee or other entity when a specimen has been reported to the MRO by the HHS-certified laboratory as an invalid result (for which the donor has no legitimate explanation), a specimen has been rejected for testing by the licensee testing facility or HHS-certified laboratory, or the retesting of a single specimen or the testing of Bottle B of a split specimen fails to reconfirm the original test result. For alcohol testing only, <I>cancelled test</I> means a test result that was not acceptable because testing did not meet the quality assurance and quality control requirements in § 26.91.
</P>
<P><I>Carryover</I> means the effect that occurs when a test result has been affected by a preceding sample or specimen during analysis.








</P>
<P><I>Category IA material</I> means SSNM that is directly usable in the manufacture of a nuclear explosive device, except if the material meets any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The dimensions are large enough (at least 2 meters in one dimension, greater than 1 meter in each of two dimensions, or greater than 25 centimeters in each of three dimensions) to preclude hiding the item on an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) The total weight of an encapsulated item of SSNM is such that it cannot be carried inconspicuously by one person (<I>i.e.</I>, at least 50 kilograms gross weight); or
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of SSNM (less than 0.05 formula kilograms) in each container requires protracted diversions to accumulate 5 formula kilograms.


</P>
<P><I>Certifying Scientist</I> means the individual at an HHS-certified laboratory responsible for verifying the chain of custody and scientific reliability of any test result reported by an HHS-certified laboratory.


</P>
<P><I>Chain of custody</I> means procedures to account for the integrity of each specimen or aliquot by tracking its handling and storage from the point of specimen collection to final disposition of the specimen and its aliquots. “Chain of custody” and “custody and control” are synonymous and may be used interchangeably.</P>
<P><I>Change</I> as used in § 26.603(e) means an action that results in a modification of, addition to, or removal from the licensee's or other entity's FFD program.






</P>
<P><I>Circadian variation in alertness and performance</I> means the increases and decreases in alertness and cognitive/motor functioning caused by human physiological processes (e.g., body temperature, release of hormones) that vary on an approximately 24-hour cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Collection site</I> means a designated place where individuals present themselves for the purpose of providing a specimen of their urine, oral fluids, and/or breath to be analyzed for the presence of drugs or alcohol.
</P>
<P><I>Collector</I> means a person who is trained in the collection procedures of subpart E, instructs and assists a specimen donor at a collection site, and receives and makes an initial examination of the specimen(s) provided by the donor.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Confirmatory drug or alcohol test</I> means a second analytical procedure to identify the presence of alcohol or a specific drug or drug metabolite in a specimen. The purpose of a confirmatory test is to ensure the reliability and accuracy of an initial test result.
</P>
<P><I>Confirmatory validity test</I> means a second test performed on a different aliquot of the original urine specimen to further support a validity test result.
</P>
<P><I>Confirmed test result</I> means a test result that demonstrates that an individual has used drugs and/or alcohol in violation of the requirements of this part or has attempted to subvert the testing process by submitting an adulterated or substituted urine specimen. For drugs, adulterants, and substituted specimens, a confirmed test result is determined by the Medical Review Officer (MRO), after discussion with the donor subsequent to the MRO's receipt of a positive confirmatory drug test result from the HHS-certified laboratory and/or a confirmatory substituted or adulterated validity test result from the HHS-certified laboratory for that donor. For alcohol, a confirmed test result is based on a positive confirmatory alcohol test result from an evidential breath testing device (EBT) without MRO review of the test result.
</P>
<P><I>Consortium/Third-party administrator (C/TPA)</I> means a contractor/vendor that provides or coordinates one or more FFD program elements for a group of licensees or other entities, such as administering a collective random testing pool and random testing selections under § 26.607(b)(2)(vi), that otherwise could not be independently implemented by those licensees or other entities. A C/TPA also could provide access to, for example, the services of medical review officers, substance abuse experts, employee assistance programs, and HHS-certified laboratories under contract to perform drug testing.
</P>
<P><I>Constructing or construction activities</I> means, for the purposes of this part, the tasks involved in building a nuclear power plant that are performed at the location where the nuclear power plant will be constructed and operated. These tasks include fabricating, erecting, integrating, and testing safety- and security-related SSCs, and the installation of their foundations, including the placement of concrete. For a licensee or other entity described in § 26.3(f), construction is defined in § 53.020 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor/vendor (C/V)</I> means any company, or any individual not employed by a licensee or other entity specified in § 26.3(a) through (c) and (f), who is providing work or services to a licensee or other entity covered in § 26.3(a) through (c) and (f), either by contract, purchase order, oral agreement, or other arrangement.










</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means a sample used to evaluate whether an analytical procedure or test is operating within predefined tolerance limits.






</P>
<P><I>Cumulative fatigue</I> means the increase in fatigue over consecutive sleep-wake periods resulting from inadequate rest.
</P>
<P><I>Cutoff level</I> means the concentration or decision criteria established for designating and reporting a test result as positive, of questionable validity (referring to validity screening or initial validity test results from a licensee testing facility), or adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid (referring to initial or confirmatory test results from an HHS-certified laboratory).
</P>
<P><I>Dilute specimen</I> means a urine specimen with creatinine and specific gravity values that are lower than expected but are still within the physiologically producible ranges of human urine.




</P>
<P><I>Directing</I> means the exercise of control over a work activity by an individual who is directly involved in the execution of the work activity, and either makes technical decisions for that activity without subsequent technical review, or is ultimately responsible for the correct performance of that work activity.
</P>
<P><I>Donor</I> means the individual from whom a specimen is collected.
</P>
<P><I>Eight (8)-hour shift schedule</I> means a schedule that averages not more than 9 hours per workday over the entire shift cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Employment action</I> means a change in job responsibilities or removal from a job, or the employer-mandated implementation of a plan for substance abuse treatment in order to avoid a change in or removal from a job, because of the individual's use of drugs or alcohol.
</P>
<P><I>Fatigue</I> means the degradation in an individual's cognitive and motor functioning resulting from inadequate rest.
</P>
<P><I>Federal custody and control form (Federal CCF)</I> means any HHS-approved form, which has not expired, that is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and is used to document the collection, custody, transport, and testing of a specimen.




</P>
<P><I>Formula quantity</I> means SSNM in any combination in a quantity of 5000 grams or more computed by the formula, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2.5 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium). This class of material is sometimes referred to as a Category I quantity of material.


</P>
<P><I>HHS-certified laboratory</I> means a laboratory that is certified to meet the standards of the <I>Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs</I> (the HHS Guidelines) at the time that testing of a specimen is performed for a licensee or other entity and performs that testing for a licensee or other entity in accordance with the HHS Guidelines, unless otherwise specified in this part.




</P>
<P><I>Illegal drug</I> means, for the purposes of this regulation, any drug that is included in Schedules I to V of section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act [21 U.S.C. 812], but not when used pursuant to a valid prescription or when used as otherwise authorized by law.
</P>
<P><I>Illicit substance</I> means a substance that causes impairment and possible addiction but is not an illegal drug as defined in this section.






</P>
<P><I>Increased threat condition</I> means an increase in the protective measure level, relative to the lowest protective measure level applicable to the site during the previous 60 days, as promulgated by an NRC Advisory.
</P>
<P><I>Initial drug test</I> means a test to differentiate “negative” specimens from those that require confirmatory drug testing.
</P>
<P><I>Initial validity test</I> means a first test used to determine whether a specimen is adulterated, dilute, substituted, or invalid, and may require confirmatory validity testing.




</P>
<P><I>Invalid result</I> means the result reported by an HHS-certified laboratory in accordance with the criteria established in § 26.161(f) when a positive, negative, adulterated, or substituted result cannot be established for a specific drug or specimen validity test.




</P>
<P><I>Legal action</I> means a formal action taken by a law enforcement authority or court of law, including an arrest, an indictment, the filing of charges, a conviction, or the mandated implementation of a plan for substance abuse treatment in order to avoid a permanent record of an arrest or conviction, in response to any of the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) The use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs;
</P>
<P>(2) The abuse of legal drugs or alcohol; or
</P>
<P>(3) The refusal to take a drug or alcohol test.
</P>
<P><I>Licensee testing facility</I> means a drug and specimen validity testing facility that is operated by a licensee or other entity who is subject to this part to perform tests of urine specimens.
</P>
<P><I>Limit of detection (LOD)</I> means the lowest concentration of an analyte that an analytical procedure can reliably detect, which could be significantly lower than the established cutoff levels.






</P>
<P><I>Limit of quantitation (LOQ)</I> means for quantitation assays, the lowest concentration at which the identity and concentration of the analyte can be accurately established.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means a number of units of an item (<I>e.g.,</I> drug test kits, reagents, quality control samples) manufactured from the same starting materials within a specified period of time for which the manufacturer states that the items have essentially the same performance characteristics and the same expiration date.




</P>
<P><I>Maintenance</I> means, for the purposes of § 26.4(a)(4), the following onsite maintenance activities: Modification, surveillance, post-maintenance testing, and corrective and preventive maintenance.
</P>
<P><I>Medical Review Officer (MRO)</I> means a licensed physician who is responsible for receiving laboratory results generated by a Part 26 drug testing program and who has the appropriate medical training to properly interpret and evaluate an individual's drug and validity test results together with his or her medical history and any other relevant biomedical information.
</P>
<P><I>Nominal</I> means the limited flexibility that is permitted in meeting a scheduled due date for completing a recurrent activity that is required under this part, such as the nominal 12-month frequency required for FFD refresher training in § 26.29(c)(2) and the nominal 12-month frequency required for certain audits in § 26.41(c)(1). Completing a recurrent activity at a nominal frequency means that the activity may be completed within a period that is 25 percent longer or shorter than the period required in this part. The next scheduled due date would be no later than the current scheduled due date plus the required frequency for completing the activity.
</P>
<P><I>Other entity</I> means any corporation, firm, partnership, limited liability company, association, C/V, or other organization who is subject to this part under § 26.3(a) through (c) and (f) but is not licensed by the NRC.










</P>
<P><I>Oxidizing adulterant</I> means a substance that acts alone or in combination with other substances to oxidize drugs or drug metabolites to prevent the detection of the drugs or drug metabolites, or a substance that affects the reagents in either the initial or confirmatory drug test. Examples of these agents include, but are not limited to, nitrites, pyridinium chlorochromate, chromium (VI), bleach, iodine/iodide, halogens, peroxidase, and peroxide.
</P>
<P><I>Positive result</I> means, for drug testing, the result reported by a licensee testing facility or HHS-certified laboratory when a specimen contains a drug or drug metabolite equal to or greater than the cutoff concentration. A result reported by an HHS-certified laboratory that a specimen contains a drug or drug metabolite below the cutoff concentration is also a positive result when the laboratory has conducted the special analysis permitted in § 26.163(a)(2). For alcohol testing, a positive result means the result reported by a collection site when the BAC indicated by testing a specimen is equal to or greater than the cutoff concentrations established in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Potentially disqualifying FFD information</I> means information demonstrating that an individual has—
</P>
<P>(1) Violated a licensee's or other entity's FFD policy;
</P>
<P>(2) Had authorization denied or terminated unfavorably under §§ 26.35(c)(2), 26.53(i), 26.63(d), 26.65(g), 26.67(c), 26.69(f), or 26.75(b) through (e);
</P>
<P>(3) Used, sold, or possessed illegal drugs;
</P>
<P>(4) Abused legal drugs or alcohol;
</P>
<P>(5) Subverted or attempted to subvert a drug or alcohol testing program;
</P>
<P>(6) Refused to take a drug or alcohol test;
</P>
<P>(7) Been subjected to a plan for substance abuse treatment (except for self-referral); or
</P>
<P>(8) Had legal action or employment action, as defined in this section, taken for alcohol or drug use.
</P>
<P><I>Protected area</I> has the same meaning as in § 73.2(g) of this chapter: An area encompassed by physical barriers and to which access is controlled.
</P>
<P><I>Quality control sample</I> means a sample used to evaluate whether an analytical procedure is operating within predefined tolerance limits. Calibrators, controls, negative samples, and blind performance test samples are collectively referred to as “quality control samples” and each is individually referred to as a “sample.”
</P>
<P><I>Questionable validity</I> means the results of validity screening or initial validity tests at a licensee testing facility indicating that a urine specimen may be adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid.
</P>
<P><I>Reduction in FFD program effectiveness</I> means, for a part 53 licensee or other entity implementing subpart M of this part, a change or series of changes to an element of the FFD program that reduces or eliminates the licensee's ability to satisfy or maintain site-specific FFD program performance when compared to historical site-specific performance, the licensee's fleet-level program performance, or industry performance.




</P>
<P><I>Rejected for testing</I> means the result reported to the MRO by a licensee testing facility or HHS-certified laboratory when no tests can be performed on a specimen.
</P>
<P><I>Responsible Person</I> means the person at the HHS-certified laboratory who assumes professional, organizational, educational, and administrative responsibility for the day-to-day management of the HHS-certified laboratory.




</P>
<P><I>Reviewing official</I> means an employee of a licensee or other entity specified in § 26.3(a) through (c) and (f), who is designated by the licensee or other entity to be responsible for reviewing and evaluating any potentially disqualifying FFD information about an individual, including, but not limited to, the results of a determination of fitness, as defined in § 26.189, in order to determine whether the individual may be granted or maintain authorization.






</P>
<P><I>Safety-related structures, systems, and components (SSCs)</I> means, for part 50 or 52 licensees and other entities described in § 26.3(a) through (d), those SSCs that are relied on to remain functional during and following design-basis events to ensure the integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary, the capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition, or the capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents that could result in potential offsite exposure comparable to the guidelines in § 50.34(a)(1) of this chapter. For part 53 licensees and other entities described in § 26.3(d) and (f), safety-related has the same meaning as that in § 53.020 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Security-related SSCs</I> means, for the purposes of this part, those structures, systems, and components that the licensee will rely on to implement the licensee's physical security and safeguards contingency plans that either are required under part 73 of this chapter if the licensee is a construction permit applicant or holder or an early site permit holder, as described in § 26.3(c)(3) through (5), respectively, or are included in the licensee's application if the licensee is a combined license applicant or holder, as described in § 26.3(c)(1) and (2), respectively, or a licensee or other entity described in § 26.3(d) or (f).






</P>
<P><I>Shift cycle</I> means a series of consecutive work shifts and days off that is planned by the licensee or other entity to repeat regularly, thereby constituting a continuous shift schedule.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material (SNM)</I> has the same meaning as that in § 70.4 of this chapter.






</P>
<P><I>Standard</I> means a reference material of known purity or a solution containing a reference material at a known concentration.
</P>
<P><I>Strategic special nuclear material (SSNM)</I> means uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the uranium-235 isotope), uranium-233, or plutonium.
</P>
<P><I>Substance abuse</I> means the use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs, or the abuse of prescription and over-the-counter drugs, or the abuse of alcohol.


</P>
<P><I>Substituted specimen</I> means a specimen that has been submitted in place of the donor's urine, as evidenced by creatinine and specific gravity values that are outside the physiologically producible ranges of human urine.




</P>
<P><I>Subversion and subvert the testing process</I> mean a willful act to avoid being tested or to bring about an inaccurate drug or alcohol test result for oneself or others at any stage of the testing process (including selection and notification of individuals for testing, specimen collection, specimen analysis, and test result reporting), and adulterating, substituting, or otherwise causing a specimen to provide an inaccurate test result.
</P>
<P><I>Supervises or manages</I> means the exercise of control over a work activity by an individual who is not directly involved in the execution of the work activity, but who either makes technical decisions for that activity without subsequent technical review, or is ultimately responsible for the correct performance of that work activity.
</P>
<P><I>Ten (10)-hour shift schedule</I> means a schedule that averages more than 9 hours, but not more than 11 hours, per workday over the entire shift cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Transporter</I> means a general licensee, under 10 CFR 70.20(a), who is authorized to possess formula quantities of SSNM, in the regular course of carriage for another or storage incident thereto, and includes the driver or operator of any conveyance, and the accompanying guards or escorts.
</P>
<P><I>Twelve (12)-hour shift schedule</I> means a schedule that averages more than 11 hours, but not more than 12 hours, per workday over the entire shift cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Unit outage</I> means, for the purposes of this part, for electricity-generation units, that the reactor unit is disconnected from the electrical grid. <I>Unit outage</I> means, for the purposes of this part, for non-electricity-generation units, that the reactor unit is disconnected from the loads to which its output is supplied under normal operating conditions.








</P>
<P><I>Validity screening test</I> means a test to determine the need for initial validity testing of a urine specimen, using a non-instrumented test in which the endpoint result is obtained by visual evaluation (read by the human eye), or a test that is instrumented to the extent that results are machine-read.
</P>
<P><I>Validity screening test lot</I> means a group of validity screening tests that were made from the same starting material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016; 83 FR 58464, Nov. 20, 2018; 87 FR 71455, Nov. 22, 2022; 91 FR 15776, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.7   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding on the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 90 FR 55628, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part for approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0146.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 26.9, 26.27, 26.29, 26.31, 26.33, 26.35, 26.37, 26.39, 26.41, 26.53, 26.55, 26.57, 26.59, 26.61, 26.63, 26.65, 26.67, 26.69, 26.75, 26.77, 26.85, 26.87, 26.89, 26.91, 26.93, 26.95, 26.97, 26.99, 26.101, 26.103, 26.107, 26.109, 26.111, 26.113, 26.115, 26.117, 26.119, 26.125, 26.127, 26.129, 26.135, 26.137, 26.139, 26.153, 26.157, 26.159, 26.163, 26.165, 26.167, 26.168, 26.169, 26.183, 26.185, 26.187, 26.189, 26.202, 26.203, 26.205, 26.207, 26.211, 26.401, 26.403, 26.405, 26.406, 26.407, 26.411, 26.413, 26.415, 26.417, 26.603, 26.605, 26.606, 26.607, 26.608, 26.609, 26.611, 26.613, 26.617, 26.619, 26.711, 26.713, 26.715, 26.717, 26.719, and 26.821.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71456, Nov. 22, 2022; 91 FR 15777, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.9   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Upon application of any interested person or on its own initiative, the Commission may grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.1.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.11   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified in this part, all communications, applications, and reports concerning the regulations in this part must be sent either by mail addressed to ATTN: NRC Document Control Desk, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738, between the hours of 8:15 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, e-mail, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. Copies of all communications must be sent to the appropriate regional office and resident inspector (addresses for the NRC Regional Offices are listed in Appendix D to Part 20 of this chapter).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 62681, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015; 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Program Elements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.21   Fitness-for-duty program.</HEAD>
<P>The licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(a) through (c) and (f) (for those licensees and other entities that do not implement the requirements in subparts M and K of this part) shall establish, implement, and maintain FFD programs that, at a minimum, comprise the program elements contained in this subpart. The individuals specified in § 26.4(a) through (e) and (g), and, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, § 26.4(f), and, if necessary, § 26.4(j) shall be subject to these FFD programs. Licensees and other entities may rely on the FFD program or program elements of a C/V, as defined in § 26.5, if the C/V's FFD program or program elements satisfy the applicable requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15777, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.23   Performance objectives.</HEAD>
<P>Fitness-for-duty programs must—
</P>
<P>(a) Provide reasonable assurance that individuals are trustworthy and reliable as demonstrated by the avoidance of substance abuse;
</P>
<P>(b) Provide reasonable assurance that individuals are not under the influence of any substance, legal or illegal, or mentally or physically impaired from any cause, which in any way adversely affects their ability to safely and competently perform their duties;
</P>
<P>(c) Provide reasonable measures for the early detection of individuals who are not fit to perform the duties that require them to be subject to the FFD program;
</P>
<P>(d) Provide reasonable assurance that the workplaces subject to this part are free from the presence and effects of illegal drugs and alcohol; and
</P>
<P>(e) Provide reasonable assurance that the effects of fatigue and degraded alertness on individuals' abilities to safely and competently perform their duties are managed commensurate with maintaining public health and safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.25   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.27   Written policy and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each licensee and other entity shall establish, implement, and maintain written policies and procedures to meet the general performance objectives and applicable requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> The FFD policy statement must be clear, concise, and readily available, in its most current form, to all individuals who are subject to the policy. Methods of making the statement readily available include, but are not limited to, posting the policy in multiple work areas, providing individuals with brochures, or allowing individuals to print the policy from a computer. The policy statement must be written in sufficient detail to provide affected individuals with information on what is expected of them and what consequences may result from a lack of adherence to the policy. At a minimum, the written policy statement must—
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the consequences of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(i) The use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs on or off site;
</P>
<P>(ii) The abuse of legal drugs and alcohol; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The misuse of prescription and over-the-counter drugs;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the requirement that individuals who are notified that they have been selected for random testing must report to the collection site within the time period specified by the licensee or other entity;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the actions that constitute a refusal to provide a specimen for testing, the consequences of a refusal to test, as well as the consequences of subverting or attempting to subvert the testing process;
</P>
<P>(4) Prohibit the consumption of alcohol, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(i) Within an abstinence period of 5 hours preceding the individual's arrival at the licensee's or other entity's facility, except as permitted in § 26.27(c)(3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) During the period of any tour of duty;
</P>
<P>(5) Convey that abstinence from alcohol for the 5 hours preceding any scheduled tour of duty is considered to be a minimum that is necessary, but may not be sufficient, to ensure that the individual is fit for duty;
</P>
<P>(6) Address other factors that could affect FFD, such as mental stress, fatigue, or illness, and the use of prescription and over-the-counter medications that could cause impairment;
</P>
<P>(7) Provide a description of any program that is available to individuals who are seeking assistance in dealing with drug, alcohol, fatigue, or other problems that could adversely affect an individual's ability to safely and competently perform the duties that require an individual to be subject to this subpart;
</P>
<P>(8) Describe the consequences of violating the policy;
</P>
<P>(9) Describe the individual's responsibility to report legal actions, as defined in § 26.5;
</P>
<P>(10) Describe the responsibilities of managers, supervisors, and escorts to report FFD concerns; and
</P>
<P>(11) Describe the individual's responsibility to report FFD concerns.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> Each licensee and other entity shall prepare, implement, and maintain written procedures that describe the methods to be used in implementing the FFD policy and the requirements of this part. The procedures must—
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the methods and techniques to be used in testing for drugs and alcohol, including procedures for protecting the privacy and other rights (including due process) of an individual who provides a specimen, procedures for protecting the integrity of the specimen, and procedures used to ensure that the test results are valid and attributable to the correct individual;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe immediate and followup actions that will be taken, and the procedures to be used, in those cases in which individuals are determined to have—
</P>
<P>(i) Been involved in the use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Consumed alcohol to excess before the mandatory pre-work abstinence period, or consumed any alcohol during the mandatory pre-work abstinence period or while on duty, as determined by a test that measures BAC;
</P>
<P>(iii) Attempted to subvert the testing process by adulterating or diluting specimens (in vivo or in vitro), substituting specimens, or by any other means;
</P>
<P>(iv) Refused to provide a specimen for analysis; or
</P>
<P>(v) Had legal action taken relating to drug or alcohol use, as defined in § 26.5;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the process that the licensee or other entity will use to ensure that individuals who are called in to perform an unscheduled working tour are fit for duty. At a minimum—
</P>
<P>(i) The procedure must require the individual who is called in to state whether the individual considers himself or herself fit for duty and whether he or she has consumed alcohol within the pre-duty abstinence period stated in the policy;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the individual has consumed alcohol within this period and the individual is called in for an unscheduled working tour, including an unscheduled working tour to respond to an emergency, the procedure must—
</P>
<P>(A) Require a determination of fitness by breath alcohol analysis or other means;
</P>
<P>(B) Permit the licensee or other entity to assign the individual to duties that require him or her to be subject to this subpart, if the results of the determination of fitness indicate that the individual is fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties;
</P>
<P>(C) Prohibit the licensee or other entity from assigning the individual to duties that require him or her to be subject to this subpart, if the individual is not required to respond to an emergency and the results of the determination of fitness indicate that the individual may be impaired;
</P>
<P>(D) State that consumption of alcohol during the 5-hour abstinence period required in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section may not by itself preclude a licensee or other entity from using individuals who are needed to respond to an emergency. However, if the determination of fitness indicates that an individual who has been called in for an unscheduled working tour to respond to an emergency may be impaired, the procedure must require the establishment of controls and conditions under which the individual who has been called in can perform work, if necessary; and
</P>
<P>(E) State that no sanctions may be imposed on an individual who is called in to perform any unscheduled working tour for having consumed alcohol within the pre-duty abstinence period stated in the policy.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the individual reports that he or she considers himself or herself to be unfit for duty for other reasons, including illness, fatigue, or other potentially impairing conditions, and the individual is called in, the procedure must require the establishment of controls and conditions under which the individual can perform work, if necessary;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the process to be followed if an individual's behavior raises a concern regarding the possible use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs on or off site; the possible possession or consumption of alcohol on site; or impairment from any cause which in any way could adversely affect the individual's ability to safely and competently perform his or her duties. The procedure must require that individuals who have an FFD concern about another individual's behavior shall contact the personnel designated in the procedures to report the concern.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review.</I> The NRC may, at any time, review the written policy and procedures to assure that they meet the performance objectives and requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.29   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Training content.</I> Licensees and other entities shall ensure that the individuals who are subject to this subpart have the following KAs:
</P>
<P>(1) Knowledge of the policy and procedures that apply to the individual, the methods that will be used to implement them, and the consequences of violating the policy and procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) Knowledge of the individual's role and responsibilities under the FFD program;
</P>
<P>(3) Knowledge of the roles and responsibilities of others, such as the MRO and the human resources, FFD, and EAP staffs;
</P>
<P>(4) Knowledge of the EAP services available to the individual;
</P>
<P>(5) Knowledge of the personal and public health and safety hazards associated with abuse of illegal and legal drugs and alcohol;
</P>
<P>(6) Knowledge of the potential adverse effects on job performance of prescription and over-the-counter drugs, alcohol, dietary factors, illness, mental stress, and fatigue;
</P>
<P>(7) Knowledge of the prescription and over-the-counter drugs and dietary factors that have the potential to affect drug and alcohol test results;
</P>
<P>(8) Ability to recognize illegal drugs and indications of the illegal use, sale, or possession of drugs;
</P>
<P>(9) Ability to observe and detect performance degradation, indications of impairment, or behavioral changes; and
</P>
<P>(10) Knowledge of the individual's responsibility to report an FFD concern and the ability to initiate appropriate actions, including referrals to the EAP and person(s) designated by the licensee or other entity to receive FFD concerns.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comprehensive examination.</I> Individuals who are subject to this subpart shall demonstrate the successful completion of training by passing a comprehensive examination that addresses the KAs in paragraph (a) of this section. The examination must include a comprehensive random sampling of all KAs with questions that test each KA, including at least one question for each KA. The minimum passing score required must be 80 percent. Remedial training and testing are required for individuals who fail to answer correctly at least 80 percent of the test questions. The examination may be administered using a variety of media, including, but not limited to, hard-copy test booklets with separate answer sheets or computer-based questions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training administration.</I> Licensees and other entities shall ensure that individuals who are subject to this subpart are trained, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Training must be completed before the licensee or other entity grants initial authorization, as defined in § 26.55, and must be current before the licensee or other entity grants an authorization update, as defined in § 26.57, or authorization reinstatement, as defined in § 26.59;
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals shall complete refresher training on a nominal 12-month frequency, or more frequently where the need is indicated. Indications of the need for more frequent training include, but are not limited to, an individual's failure to properly implement FFD program procedures and the frequency, nature, or severity of problems discovered through audits or the administration of the program. Individuals who pass a comprehensive annual examination that meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section may forgo the refresher training; and
</P>
<P>(3) Initial and refresher training may be delivered using a variety of media (including, but not limited to, classroom lectures, required reading, video, or computer-based training systems). The licensee or other entity shall monitor the completion of training and provide a qualified instructor or designated subject matter expert to answer questions during the course of training.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acceptance of training.</I> Licensees and other entities may accept training of individuals who have been subject to another training program that meets the requirements of this section and who have, within the past 12 months, either had initial or refresher training, or have successfully passed a comprehensive examination that meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.31   Drug and alcohol testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> To provide a means to deter and detect substance abuse, licensees and other entities who are subject to this part shall implement drug and alcohol testing programs for individuals who are subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assuring the honesty and integrity of FFD program personnel.</I> (1) Licensees and other entities who are subject to this subpart shall carefully select and monitor FFD program personnel, as defined in § 26.4(g), based on the highest standards of honesty and integrity, and shall implement measures to ensure that these standards are maintained. The measures must ensure that the honesty and integrity of these individuals are not compromised and that FFD program personnel are not subject to influence attempts attributable to personal relationships with any individuals who are subject to testing, an undetected or untreated substance abuse problem, or other factors. At a minimum, these measures must include the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees and other entities shall complete appropriate background investigations, credit and criminal history checks, and psychological assessments of FFD program personnel before assignment to tasks directly associated with administration of the FFD program. The background investigations, credit and criminal history checks, and psychological assessments that are conducted to grant unescorted access authorization to individuals under a nuclear power plant licensee's access authorization program are acceptable to meet the requirements of this paragraph. The credit and criminal history checks and psychological assessments must be updated nominally every 5 years;
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals who have personal relationships with a donor may not perform any assessment or evaluation procedures, including, but not limited to, determinations of fitness. These personal relationships may include, but are not limited to, supervisors, coworkers within the same work group, and relatives of the donor;
</P>
<P>(iii) Except if a directly observed collection is required, a collector who has a personal relationship with the donor may collect specimens from the donor only if the integrity of specimen collections in these instances is assured through the following means:
</P>
<P>(A) The collection must be monitored by an individual who does not have a personal relationship with the donor and who is designated by the licensee or other entity for this purpose, including, but not limited to, security force or quality assurance personnel; and
</P>
<P>(B) Individuals who are designated to monitor collections in these instances shall be trained to monitor specimen collections and the preparation of specimens for transfer or shipping under the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) If a specimen must be collected under direct observation, the collector or an individual who serves as the observer, as permitted under § 26.115(e), may not have a personal relationship with the donor; and
</P>
<P>(v) FFD program personnel shall be subject to a behavioral observation program designed to assure that they continue to meet the highest standards of honesty and integrity. When an MRO and MRO staff are on site at a licensee's or other entity's facility, the MRO and MRO staff shall be subject to behavioral observation.




</P>
<P>(2) Licensees and other entities may rely on a local hospital or other organization that meets the requirements of 49 CFR Part 40, “Procedures for Department of Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs” to collect specimens for drug and alcohol testing from the FFD program personnel listed in § 26.4(g).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions for testing.</I> Licensees and other entities shall administer drug and alcohol tests to the individuals who are subject to this subpart under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pre-access.</I> In order to grant initial, updated, or reinstated authorization to an individual, as specified in subpart C of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For cause.</I> In response to an individual's observed behavior or physical condition indicating possible substance abuse or after receiving credible information that an individual is engaging in substance abuse, as defined in § 26.5;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Post-event.</I> As soon as practical after an event involving a human error that was committed by an individual who is subject to this subpart, where the human error may have caused or contributed to the event. The licensee or other entity shall test the individual(s) who committed the error(s), and need not test individuals who were affected by the event whose actions likely did not cause or contribute to the event. The individual(s) who committed the human error(s) shall be tested if the event resulted in—
</P>
<P>(i) A significant illness or personal injury to the individual to be tested or another individual, which within 4 hours after the event is recordable under the Department of Labor standards contained in 29 CFR 1904.7, “General Recording Criteria,” and subsequent amendments thereto, and results in death, days away from work, restricted work, transfer to another job, medical treatment beyond first aid, loss of consciousness, or other significant illness or injury as diagnosed by a physician or other licensed health care professional, even if it does not result in death, days away from work, restricted work or job transfer, medical treatment beyond first aid, or loss of consciousness;
</P>
<P>(ii) A radiation exposure or release of radioactivity in excess of regulatory limits; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Actual or potential substantial degradations of the level of safety of the plant;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Follow-up.</I> As part of a follow-up plan to verify an individual's continued abstinence from substance abuse; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Random.</I> On a statistically random and unannounced basis, so that all individuals in the population subject to testing have an equal probability of being selected and tested.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General requirements for drug and alcohol testing</I>—(1) <I>Substances tested.</I> At a minimum, licensees and other entities shall test for marijuana metabolite, cocaine metabolite, opioids (codeine, morphine, 6-acetylmorphine, hydrocodone, hydromorphone, oxycodone, and oxymorphone), amphetamines (amphetamine, methamphetamine, methylenedioxymethamphetamine, and methylenedioxyamphetamine), phencyclidine, and alcohol.


</P>
<P>(i) In addition, licensees and other entities may consult with local law enforcement authorities, hospitals, and drug counseling services to determine whether other drugs with abuse potential are being used in the geographical locale of the facility and by the local workforce that may not be detected in the panel of drugs and drug metabolites specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) When appropriate, the licensee or other entity may add other drugs identified under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section to the panel of substances for testing, but only if the additional drugs are listed in Schedules I through V of section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act [21 U.S.C. 812].
</P>
<P>(B) The licensee or other entity shall establish appropriate cutoff limits for these substances.
</P>
<P>(C) The licensee or other entity shall establish rigorous testing procedures for these substances that are consistent with the intent of this part, so that the MRO can evaluate the use of these substances.
</P>
<P>(D) The licensee or other entity may not conduct an analysis for any drug or drug metabolites except those identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section unless the assay and cutoff levels to be used are certified in writing as scientifically sound and legally defensible by an independent, qualified forensic toxicologist who has no relationships with manufacturers of the assays or instruments to be used or the HHS-certified laboratory that will conduct the testing for the licensee or other entity, which could be construed as a potential conflict of interest. The forensic toxicologist may not be an employee of the licensee or entity, and shall either be a Diplomate of the American Board of Forensic Toxicology or currently holds, has held, or is eligible to hold, the position of Responsible Person at an HHS-certified laboratory. All new assays and cutoff levels must be properly validated consistent with established forensic toxicological standards before implementation. Certification of the assay and cutoff levels is not required if the HHS Guidelines are revised to authorize use of the assay in testing for the additional drug or drug metabolites and the licensee or other entity uses the cutoff levels established in the HHS Guidelines for the drug or drug metabolites, or if the licensee or other entity received written approval of the NRC to test for the additional drug or drug metabolites before April 30, 2008.


</P>
<P>(ii) When conducting post-event, followup, and for-cause testing, as defined in § 26.31(c), licensees and other entities may test for any drugs listed on Schedules I through V of section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act [21 U.S.C. 812] that an individual is suspected of having abused, and may consider any drugs or metabolites so detected when determining appropriate action under subpart D of this part. If the drug or metabolites for which testing will be performed under this paragraph are not included in the FFD program's drug panel, the assay and cutoff levels to be used in testing for the additional drugs must be certified by a forensic toxicologist under paragraph (d)(1)(i)(D) of this section. Test results that fall below the established cutoff levels may not be considered when determining appropriate action under subpart D of this part, except if special analyses of the specimen is performed under § 26.163(a)(2) by the HHS-certified laboratory.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee or other entity shall document the additional drug(s) for which testing will be performed in written policies and procedures in which the substances for which testing will be performed are described.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Random testing.</I> Random testing must—
</P>
<P>(i) Be administered in a manner that provides reasonable assurance that individuals are unable to predict the time periods during which specimens will be collected. At a minimum, the FFD program shall—
</P>
<P>(A) Take reasonable steps to either conceal from the workforce that collections will be performed during a scheduled collection period or create the appearance that specimens are being collected during a portion of each day on at least 4 days in each calendar week at each site. In the latter instance, the portions of each day and the days of the week must vary in a manner that cannot be predicted by donors; and
</P>
<P>(B) Collect specimens on an unpredictable schedule, including weekends, backshifts, and holidays, and at various times during a shift;
</P>
<P>(ii) At a minimum, be administered by the FFD program on a nominal weekly frequency;
</P>
<P>(iii) Require individuals who are selected for random testing to report to the collection site as soon as reasonably practicable after notification, within the time period specified in the FFD program policy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that all individuals in the population subject to testing have an equal probability of being selected and tested;
</P>
<P>(v) Require that individuals who are off site when selected for testing, or who are on site and are not reasonably available for testing when selected, shall be tested at the earliest reasonable and practical opportunity when both the donor and collectors are available to collect specimens for testing and without prior notification to the individual that he or she has been selected for testing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide that an individual completing a test is immediately eligible for another unannounced test; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Ensure that the sampling process used to select individuals for random testing provides that the number of random tests performed annually is equal to at least 50 percent of the population that is subject to the FFD program.




</P>
<P>(3) <I>Drug testing.</I> (i) Testing of urine specimens for drugs and validity, except validity screening and initial drug and validity tests performed by licensee testing facilities under paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, must be performed in a laboratory that is certified by HHS for that purpose, consistent with its standards and procedures for certification. Urine specimens sent to HHS-certified laboratories must be subject to initial validity and initial drug testing by the laboratory. Oral fluid specimens sent to HHS-certified laboratories must be subject to initial drug testing by the laboratory.  Specimens that yield positive initial drug test results or are determined by initial validity testing to be of questionable validity must be subject to confirmatory testing by the laboratory, except for invalid specimens that cannot be tested. Licensees and other entities shall ensure that laboratories report results for all specimens sent for testing, including blind performance test samples.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees and other entities may conduct validity screening, initial validity, and initial drug tests of urine aliquots to determine which specimens are valid and negative and need no further testing, provided that the licensee's or other entity's staff possesses the necessary training and skills for the tasks assigned, the staff's qualifications are documented, and adequate quality controls for the testing are implemented.
</P>
<P>(iii) At a minimum, licensees and other entities shall apply the cutoff levels specified in § 26.163(a)(1) for initial drug testing at either the licensee testing facility or HHS-certified laboratory, and in § 26.163(b)(1) for confirmatory drug testing at the HHS-certified laboratory. At their discretion, licensees and other entities may implement programs with lower cutoff levels in testing for drugs and drug metabolites.
</P>
<P>(A) If a licensee or other entity implements lower cutoff levels, and the MRO determines that an individual has violated the FFD policy using the licensee's or other entity's more stringent cutoff levels, the individual shall be subject to all management actions and sanctions required by the licensee's or other entity's FFD policy and this part, as if the individual had a confirmed positive drug test result using the cutoff levels specified in this subpart. The licensee or other entity shall document the more stringent cutoff levels in any written policies and procedures in which cutoff levels for drug testing are described.
</P>
<P>(B) The licensee or other entity shall uniformly apply the cutoff levels listed in § 26.163(a)(1) for initial drug testing and in § 26.163(b)(1) for confirmatory drug testing, or any more stringent cutoff levels implemented by the FFD program, to all tests performed under this part and equally to all individuals who are tested under this part, except as permitted in §§ 26.31(d)(1)(ii), 26.163(a)(2), and 26.165(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(C) In addition, the scientific and technical suitability of any more stringent cutoff levels must be evaluated and certified, in writing, by a forensic toxicologist who meets the requirements set forth in § 26.31(d)(1)(i)(D). Certification of the more stringent cutoff levels is not required if the HHS Guidelines are revised to lower the cutoff levels for the drug or drug metabolites in Federal workplace drug testing programs and the licensee or other entity implements the cutoff levels published in the HHS Guidelines, or if the licensee or other entity received written approval of the NRC to test for lower cutoff levels before April 30, 2008.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alcohol testing.</I> Initial tests for alcohol must be administered by breath or oral fluids analysis using alcohol analysis devices that meet the requirements of § 26.91(a). If the initial test shows a BAC of 0.02 percent or greater, a confirmatory test for alcohol must be performed. The confirmatory test must be performed with an EBT that meets the requirements of § 26.91(b).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medical conditions.</I> (i) If an individual has a medical condition that makes collection of breath, oral fluids, or urine specimens difficult or hazardous, the MRO may authorize an alternative evaluation process, tailored to the individual case, to meet the requirements of this part for drug and alcohol testing. The alternative process must include measures to prevent subversion and achieve results that are comparable to those produced by urinalysis for drugs and breath analysis for alcohol.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an individual requires medical attention, including, but not limited to, an injured worker in an emergency medical facility who is required to have a post-event test, treatment may not be delayed to conduct drug and alcohol testing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Limitations of testing.</I> Specimens collected under NRC regulations may only be designated or approved for testing as described in this part and may not be used to conduct any other analysis or test without the written permission of the donor. Analyses and tests that may not be conducted include, but are not limited to, DNA testing, serological typing, or any other medical or genetic test used for diagnostic or specimen identification purposes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 38327, Aug. 3, 2009; 87 FR 71456, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.33   Behavioral observation.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees and other entities shall ensure that the individuals who are subject to this subpart are subject to behavioral observation. Behavioral observation must be performed by individuals who are trained under § 26.29 to detect behaviors that may indicate possible use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs; use or possession of alcohol on site or while on duty; or impairment from fatigue or any cause that, if left unattended, may constitute a risk to public health and safety or the common defense and security. Individuals who are subject to this subpart shall report any FFD concerns about other individuals to the personnel designated in the FFD policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.35   Employee assistance programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee and other entity who is subject to this part shall maintain an EAP to strengthen the FFD program by offering confidential assessment, short-term counseling, referral services, and treatment monitoring to individuals who have problems that could adversely affect the individuals' abilities to safely and competently perform their duties. Employee assistance programs must be designed to achieve early intervention and provide for confidential assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities need not provide EAP services to a C/V's employees, including those whose work location is a licensee's or other entity's facility, or to individuals who have applied for, but have not yet been granted, authorization under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The EAP staff shall protect the identity and privacy of any individual (including those who have self-referred) seeking assistance from the EAP, except if the individual waives the right to privacy in writing or a determination is made that the individual's condition or actions pose or have posed an immediate hazard to himself or herself or others.
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees and other entities may not require the EAP to routinely report the names of individuals who self-refer to the EAP or the nature of the assistance the individuals sought.
</P>
<P>(2) If EAP personnel determine that an individual poses or has posed an immediate hazard to himself or herself or others, EAP personnel shall so inform FFD program management, and need not obtain a written waiver of the right to privacy from the individual. The individual conditions or actions that EAP personnel shall report to FFD program management include, but are not limited to, substantive reasons to believe that the individual—
</P>
<P>(i) Is likely to commit self-harm or harm to others;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been impaired from using drugs or alcohol while in a work status and has a continuing substance abuse disorder that makes it likely he or she will be impaired while in a work status in the future; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has ever engaged in any acts that would be reportable under § 26.719(b)(1) through (b)(3).
</P>
<P>(3) If a licensee or other entity receives a report from EAP personnel under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the licensee or other entity must ensure that the requirements of §§ 26.69(d) and 26.77(b), or the procedures and actions required by § 26.606(b)(2)(vii) are implemented, as applicable.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 91 FR 15777, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.37   Protection of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee or other entity who is subject to this subpart who collects personal information about an individual for the purpose of complying with this part, shall establish, use, and maintain a system of files and procedures that protects the individual's privacy.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities shall obtain a signed consent that authorizes the disclosure of the personal information collected and maintained under this part before disclosing the personal information, except for disclosures to the following individuals:
</P>
<P>(1) The subject individual or his or her representative, when the individual has designated the representative in writing for specified FFD matters;
</P>
<P>(2) Assigned MROs and MRO staff;
</P>
<P>(3) NRC representatives;
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriate law enforcement officials under court order;
</P>
<P>(5) A licensee's or other entity's representatives who have a need to have access to the information to perform their assigned duties under the FFD program, including determinations of fitness, FFD program audits, or some human resources functions;
</P>
<P>(6) The presiding officer in a judicial or administrative proceeding that is initiated by the subject individual;
</P>
<P>(7) Persons deciding matters under review in § 26.39; and
</P>
<P>(8) Other persons pursuant to court order.
</P>
<P>(c) Personal information that is collected under this subpart must be disclosed to other licensees and entities, including C/Vs, or their authorized representatives, who are legitimately seeking the information for authorization decisions as required by this part and who have obtained a signed release from the subject individual.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receipt of a written request by the subject individual or his or her designated representative, the FFD program, including but not limited to, the collection site, HHS-certified laboratory, substance abuse expert (SAE), or MRO, possessing such records shall promptly provide copies of all FFD records pertaining to the individual, including, but not limited to, records pertaining to a determination that the individual has violated the FFD policy, drug and alcohol test results, MRO reviews, determinations of fitness, and management actions pertaining to the subject individual. The licensee or other entity shall obtain records related to the results of any relevant laboratory certification, review, or revocation-of-certification proceedings from the HHS-certified laboratory and provide them to the subject individual on request.
</P>
<P>(e) A licensee's or other entity's contracts with HHS-certified laboratories and C/Vs providing specimen collection services, and licensee testing facility procedures, must require test records to be maintained in confidence, except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) This section does not authorize the licensee or other entity to withhold evidence of criminal conduct from law enforcement officials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.39   Review process for fitness-for-duty policy violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee and other entity who is subject to this subpart shall establish procedures for the review of a determination that an individual who they employ or who has applied for authorization has violated the FFD policy. The review procedure must provide for an objective and impartial review of the facts related to the determination that the individual has violated the FFD policy.
</P>
<P>(b) The review procedure must provide notice to the individual of the grounds for the determination that the individual has violated the FFD policy, and must provide an opportunity for the individual to respond and submit additional relevant information.
</P>
<P>(c) The review procedure must ensure that the individual who conducts the review is not associated with the administration of the FFD program [<I>see</I> the description of FFD program personnel in § 26.4(g)]. Individuals who conduct the review may be management personnel.
</P>
<P>(d) If the review finds in favor of the individual, the licensee or other entity shall update the relevant records to reflect the outcome of the review and delete or correct all information the review found to be inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(e) When a C/V is administering an FFD program on which licensees and other entities rely, and the C/V determines that its employee, subcontractor, or applicant has violated its FFD policy, the C/V shall ensure that the review procedure required in this section is provided to the individual. Licensees and other entities who rely on a C/V's FFD program need not provide the review procedure required in this section to a C/V's employee, subcontractor, or applicant when the C/V is administering its own FFD program and the FFD policy violation was determined under the C/V's program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.2.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.41   Audits and corrective action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each licensee and other entity who is subject to this subpart is responsible for the continuing effectiveness of the FFD program, including FFD program elements that are provided by C/Vs, the FFD programs of any C/Vs that are accepted by the licensee or other entity, any FFD program services that are provided to the C/V by a subcontractor, and the programs of the HHS-certified laboratories on whom the licensee or other entity and its C/Vs rely. Each licensee and other entity shall ensure that these programs are audited and that corrective actions are taken to resolve any problems identified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FFD program.</I> Each licensee and other entity who is subject to this subpart shall ensure that the entire FFD program is audited as needed, but no less frequently than nominally every 24 months. Licensees and other entities are responsible for determining the appropriate frequency, scope, and depth of additional auditing activities within the nominal 24-month period based on the review of FFD program performance, including, but not limited to, the frequency, nature, and severity of discovered problems, testing errors, personnel or procedural changes, and previous audit findings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>C/Vs and HHS-certified laboratories.</I> (1) FFD services that are provided to a licensee or other entity by C/V personnel who are off site or are not under the direct daily supervision or observation of the licensee's or other entity's personnel and HHS-certified laboratories must be audited on a nominal 12-month frequency.
</P>
<P>(2) Audits of HHS-certified laboratories that are conducted for licensees and other entities who are subject to this subpart need not duplicate areas inspected in the most recent HHS certification inspection. However, the licensee and other entity shall review the HHS certification inspection records and reports to identify any areas in which the licensee or other entity uses services that the HHS certification inspection did not address. The licensee or other entity shall ensure that any such areas are audited on a nominal 12-month frequency. Licensees and other entities need not audit organizations and professionals who may provide an FFD program service to the licensee or other entity, but who are not routinely involved in providing services to a licensee's or other entity's FFD program, as specified in § 26.4(i)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contracts.</I> (1) The contracts of licensees and other entities with C/Vs and HHS-certified laboratories must reserve the right to audit the C/V, the C/V's subcontractors providing FFD program services, and the HHS-certified laboratories at any time, including at unannounced times, as well as to review all information and documentation that is reasonably relevant to the audits.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees' and other entities' contracts with C/Vs and HHS-certified laboratories must also permit the licensee or other entity to obtain copies of and take away any documents, including reviews and inspections pertaining to a laboratory's certification by HHS, and any other data that may be needed to assure that the C/V, its subcontractors, or the HHS-certified laboratory are performing their functions properly and that staff and procedures meet applicable requirements. In a contract with a licensee or other entity who is subject to this subpart, an HHS-certified laboratory may reasonably limit the use and dissemination of any documents copied or taken away by the licensee's or other entity's auditors in order to ensure the protection of proprietary information and donors' privacy.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, before awarding a contract, the licensee or other entity shall ensure completion of pre-award inspections and/or audits of the procedural aspects of the HHS-certified laboratory's drug-testing operations, except as provided in paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conduct of audits.</I> Audits must focus on the effectiveness of the FFD program or program element(s), as appropriate, and must be conducted by individuals who are qualified in the subject(s) being audited. The individuals performing the audit of the FFD program or program element(s) shall be independent from both the subject FFD program's management and from personnel who are directly responsible for implementing the FFD program.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Audit results.</I> The result of the audits, along with any recommendations, must be documented and reported to senior corporate and site management. Each audit report must identify conditions that are adverse to the proper performance of the FFD program, the cause of the condition(s), and recommended corrective actions. The licensee or other entity shall review the audit findings and take corrective actions, including re-auditing of the deficient areas where indicated, to preclude, within reason, repetition of the condition. The resolution of the audit findings and corrective actions must be documented.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Sharing of audits.</I> Licensees and other entities may jointly conduct audits, or may accept audits of C/Vs and HHS-certified laboratories that were conducted by other licensees and entities who are subject to this subpart, if the audit addresses the services obtained from the C/V or HHS-certified laboratory by each of the sharing licensees and other entities.
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees and other entities shall review audit records and reports to identify any areas that were not covered by the shared or accepted audit.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees and other entities shall ensure that FFD program elements and services on which the licensee or entity relies are audited, if the program elements and services were not addressed in the shared audit.
</P>
<P>(3) Sharing licensees and other entities need not re-audit the same C/V or HHS-certified laboratory for the same period of time.
</P>
<P>(4) Each sharing licensee and other entity shall maintain a copy of the shared audit and HHS certification inspection records and reports, including findings, recommendations, and corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(5) If an HHS-certified laboratory loses its certification, in whole or in part, a licensee or other entity is permitted to immediately use another HHS-certified laboratory that has been audited within the previous 12 months by another NRC licensee or entity who is subject to this subpart. Within 3 months after the change, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that an audit is completed of any areas that have not been audited by another licensee or entity who is subject to this subpart within the past 12 months.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 38327, Aug. 3, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Granting and Maintaining Authorization</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.51   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements in this subpart apply to the licensees and other entities identified in § 26.3(a), (b), and, as applicable, (c) for the categories of individuals in § 26.4(a) through (d), and, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, in § 26.4(g) and, if necessary, § 26.4(j). The requirements in this subpart also apply to the licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(c), as applicable, for the categories of individuals in § 26.4(e). At the discretion of a licensee or other entity in § 26.3(c), the requirements of this subpart also may be applied to the categories of individuals identified in § 26.4(f). In addition, the requirements in this subpart apply to the entities in § 26.3(d) to the extent that a licensee or other entity relies on the C/V to satisfy the requirements of this subpart. Certain requirements in this subpart also apply to the individuals specified in § 26.4(h). The requirements in this subpart apply to the FFD programs of licensees and other entities identified in § 26.3(f) that elect not to implement the requirements in subpart M of this part for the categories of individuals in § 26.4 and those licensees and other entities that elect to implement the requirements in § 26.605.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15777, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.53   General provisions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260330" REFID="89">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 15777, Mar. 30, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) In order to grant authorization to an individual, a licensee or other entity shall ensure that the requirements in this subpart have been met for either initial authorization, authorization update, authorization reinstatement, or authorization with potentially disqualifying FFD information, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) For individuals who have previously held authorization under this part but whose authorization has since been favorably terminated, the licensee or other entity shall implement the requirements for either initial authorization, authorization update, or authorization reinstatement, based on the total number of days that the individual's authorization is interrupted, to include the day after the individual's last period of authorization was terminated and the intervening days until the day on which the licensee or other entity grants authorization to the individual. If potentially disqualifying FFD information is disclosed or discovered about an individual, licensees and other entities shall implement the applicable requirements in § 26.69 in order to grant or maintain an individual's authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee or other entity shall ensure that an individual has met the applicable FFD training requirements in §§ 26.29 and 26.203(c) before granting authorization to the individual.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees and other entities who are seeking to grant authorization to an individual who is maintaining authorization under another FFD program that is implemented by a licensee or entity who is subject to this subpart may rely on the transferring FFD program to satisfy the requirements of this subpart. The individual may maintain his or her authorization if he or she continues to be subject to either the receiving FFD program or the transferring FFD program, or a combination of elements from both programs that collectively satisfy the applicable requirements of this part. The receiving FFD program shall ensure that the program elements to which the individual is subject under the transferring FFD program remain current.
</P>
<P>(e) Licensees and other entities in § 26.3(a) through (c) and (f) may also rely on a C/V's FFD program or program elements when granting or maintaining the authorization of an individual who is or has been subject to the C/V's FFD program, if the C/V's program or program elements meet the applicable requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) A C/V's FFD program may grant and maintain an individual's authorization, as defined in § 26.5, under the C/V's FFD program. However, only a licensee or other entity in § 26.3(a) through (c) and (f) may grant or maintain an individual's authorization to have the types of access or perform the duties specified in § 26.4(a) through (e) and (g), and, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, § 26.4(f).
</P>
<P>(2) If a C/V's FFD program denies or unfavorably terminates an individual's authorization, and the individual is performing any duties for a licensee or other entity that are specified in § 26.4(a) through (e) and (g), or, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, § 26.4(f), then the C/V shall inform the affected licensee or other entity of the denial or unfavorable termination. The licensee or other entity shall deny or unfavorably terminate the individual's authorization to perform those duties on the day that the licensee or other entity receives the information from the C/V, or implement the applicable process in § 26.69 to maintain the individual's authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) If an individual is maintaining authorization under a C/V's FFD program, a licensee or other entity in § 26.3(a) through (c) and (f) may grant authorization to the individual to have the types of access and perform the duties specified in § 26.4(a) through (e) and (g), and, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, § 26.4(f), and maintain his or her authorization, if the individual continues to be subject to either the receiving FFD program or a combination of elements from the receiving FFD program and the C/V's program that collectively satisfy the applicable requirements of this part. The receiving licensee's or other entity's FFD program shall ensure that the program elements to which the individual is subject under the C/V's FFD program remain current.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees and other entities who are seeking to grant authorization to an individual who has been subject to an FFD program under subpart K may not rely on that program or its program elements to meet the requirements of this subpart, except if the program or program element(s) of the FFD program for construction satisfy the applicable requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) The licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c), (d), and (f), shall identify any violation of any requirement of this part to any licensee who has relied on or intends to rely on the FFD program element that is determined to be in violation of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) The licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c), (d), and (f), may not initiate any actions under this subpart without the knowledge and written consent of the subject individual. The individual may withdraw his or her consent at any time. If an individual withdraws his or her consent, the licensee or other entity may not initiate any elements of the authorization process specified in this subpart that were not in progress at the time the individual withdrew his or her consent, but shall complete and document any elements that are in progress at the time consent is withdrawn. The licensee or other entity shall record the individual's application for authorization; his or her withdrawal of consent; the reason given by the individual for the withdrawal, if any; and any pertinent information gathered from the elements that were completed (e.g., the results of pre-access drug tests, information obtained from the suitable inquiry). The licensee or other entity to whom the individual has applied for authorization shall inform the individual that—
</P>
<P>(1) Withdrawal of his or her consent will withdraw the individual's current application for authorization under the licensee's or other entity's FFD program; and
</P>
<P>(2) Other licensees and entities will have access to information documenting the withdrawal as a result of the information sharing that is required under this part.
</P>
<P>(i) The licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c), (d), and (f), shall inform, in writing, any individual who is applying for authorization that the following actions related to providing and sharing the personal information required under this subpart are sufficient cause for denial or unfavorable termination of authorization:
</P>
<P>(1) Refusal to provide written consent for the suitable inquiry;
</P>
<P>(2) Refusal to provide or the falsification of any personal information required under this part, including, but not limited to, the failure to report any previous denial or unfavorable termination of authorization;
</P>
<P>(3) Refusal to provide written consent for the sharing of personal information with other licensees or other entities required under this part; and
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to report any legal actions, as defined in § 26.5.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 91 FR 15777, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.55   Initial authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before granting authorization to an individual who has never held authorization under this part or whose authorization has been interrupted for a period of 3 years or more and whose last period of authorization was terminated favorably, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that—
</P>
<P>(1) A self-disclosure has been obtained and reviewed under the applicable requirements of § 26.61;
</P>
<P>(2) A suitable inquiry has been completed under the applicable requirements of § 26.63;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual has been subject to pre-access drug and alcohol testing under the applicable requirements of § 26.65; and
</P>
<P>(4) The individual is subject to random drug and alcohol testing under the applicable requirements of § 26.67.
</P>
<P>(b) If potentially disqualifying FFD information is disclosed or discovered, the licensee or other entity may not grant authorization to the individual, except under § 26.69.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.57" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.57   Authorization update.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before granting authorization to an individual whose authorization has been interrupted for more than 365 days but less than 3 years and whose last period of authorization was terminated favorably, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that—
</P>
<P>(1) A self-disclosure has been obtained and reviewed under the applicable requirements of § 26.61;
</P>
<P>(2) A suitable inquiry has been completed under the applicable requirements of § 26.63;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual has been subject to pre-access drug and alcohol testing under the applicable requirements of § 26.65; and
</P>
<P>(4) The individual is subject to random drug and alcohol testing under the applicable requirements of § 26.67.
</P>
<P>(b) If potentially disqualifying FFD information is disclosed or discovered, the licensee or other entity may not grant authorization to the individual, except under § 26.69.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.59" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.59   Authorization reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to grant authorization to an individual whose authorization has been interrupted for a period of more than 30 days but no more than 365 days and whose last period of authorization was terminated favorably, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that—
</P>
<P>(1) A self-disclosure has been obtained and reviewed under the applicable requirements of § 26.61;
</P>
<P>(2) A suitable inquiry has been completed under the requirements of § 26.63 within 5 business days of reinstating authorization. If the suitable inquiry is not completed within 5 business days due to circumstances that are outside of the licensee's or other entity's control and the licensee or other entity is not aware of any potentially disqualifying information regarding the individual within the past 5 years, the licensee or other entity may maintain the individual's authorization for an additional 5 business days. If the suitable inquiry is not completed within 10 business days of reinstating authorization, the licensee or other entity shall administratively withdraw the individual's authorization until the suitable inquiry is completed;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual has been subject to pre-access drug and alcohol testing under the applicable requirements of § 26.65; and
</P>
<P>(4) The individual is subject to random drug and alcohol testing under the applicable requirements of § 26.67.
</P>
<P>(b) If a licensee or other entity administratively withdraws an individual's authorization under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, and until the suitable inquiry is completed, the licensee or other entity may not record the administrative action to withdraw authorization as an unfavorable termination and may not disclose it in response to a suitable inquiry conducted under the provisions of § 26.63, a background investigation conducted under the provisions of this chapter, or any other inquiry or investigation. The individual may not be required to disclose the administrative action in response to requests for self-disclosure of potentially disqualifying FFD information, except if the individual's authorization was subsequently denied or terminated unfavorably by the licensee or other entity.
</P>
<P>(c) Before granting authorization to an individual whose authorization has been interrupted for a period of no more than 30 days and whose last period of authorization was terminated favorably, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that—
</P>
<P>(1) A self-disclosure has been obtained and reviewed under the applicable requirements of § 26.61;
</P>
<P>(2) The individual has been subject to pre-access drug and alcohol testing under the applicable requirements of § 26.65, if the individual's authorization was interrupted for more than 5 days; and
</P>
<P>(3) The individual is subject to random drug and alcohol testing under the applicable requirements of § 26.67.
</P>
<P>(d) If potentially disqualifying FFD information is disclosed or discovered, the licensee or other entity may not grant authorization to the individual, except under § 26.69.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.61   Self-disclosure and employment history.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before granting authorization, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that a written self-disclosure and employment history has been obtained from the individual who is applying for authorization, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If an individual previously held authorization under this part, and the licensee or other entity has verified that the individual's last period of authorization was terminated favorably, and the individual has been subject to a behavioral observation program that includes arrest reporting, which meets the requirements of this part, throughout the period since the individual's last authorization was terminated, the granting licensee or other entity need not obtain the self-disclosure or employment history in order to grant authorization; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the individual's last period of authorization was terminated favorably within the past 30 days, the licensee or other entity need not obtain the employment history.
</P>
<P>(b) The written self-disclosure must—
</P>
<P>(1) State whether the individual has—
</P>
<P>(i) Violated a licensee's or other entity's FFD policy;
</P>
<P>(ii) Had authorization denied or terminated unfavorably under §§ 26.35(c)(2), 26.53(i), 26.63(d), 26.65(g), 26.67(c), 26.69(f), or 26.75(b) through (e);
</P>
<P>(iii) Used, sold, or possessed illegal drugs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Abused legal drugs or alcohol;
</P>
<P>(v) Subverted or attempted to subvert a drug or alcohol testing program;
</P>
<P>(vi) Refused to take a drug or alcohol test;
</P>
<P>(vii) Been subject to a plan for substance abuse treatment (except for self-referral); or
</P>
<P>(viii) Had legal action or employment action, as defined in § 26.5, taken for alcohol or drug use;
</P>
<P>(2) Address the specific type, duration, and resolution of any matter disclosed, including, but not limited to, the reason(s) for any unfavorable termination or denial of authorization; and
</P>
<P>(3) Address the shortest of the following periods:
</P>
<P>(i) The past 5 years;
</P>
<P>(ii) Since the individual's eighteenth birthday; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Since the individual's last period of authorization was terminated, if authorization was terminated favorably within the past 3 years.
</P>
<P>(c) The individual shall provide a list of all employers, including the employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed on the day before he or she completes the employment history, if any, with dates of employment, for the shortest of the following periods:
</P>
<P>(1) The past 3 years;
</P>
<P>(2) Since the individual's eighteenth birthday; or
</P>
<P>(3) Since authorization was last terminated, if authorization was terminated favorably within the past 3 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.63   Suitable inquiry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to grant authorization, licensees and other entities shall ensure that a suitable inquiry has been conducted, on a best effort basis, to verify the individual's self-disclosed information and determine whether any potentially disqualifying FFD information is available, except if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual previously held authorization under this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee or other entity has verified that the individual's last period of authorization was terminated favorably; and
</P>
<P>(3) The individual has been subject to a behavioral observation program that includes arrest reporting, which meets the requirements of this part, throughout the period of interruption.
</P>
<P>(b) To meet the suitable inquiry requirement, licensees and other entities may rely on the information that other licensees and entities who are subject to this subpart have gathered for previous periods of authorization. Licensees and other entities may also rely on those licensees' and entities' determinations of fitness that were conducted under § 26.189, as well as their reviews and resolutions of potentially disqualifying FFD information, for previous periods of authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee or other entity shall ensure that the suitable inquiry has been conducted, on a best effort basis, by questioning former employers, and the employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed on the day before he or she completes the employment history, if an employment history is required under § 26.61.
</P>
<P>(1) For the claimed employment period, the suitable inquiry must ascertain the reason for termination, eligibility for rehire, and other information that could reflect on the individual's fitness to be granted authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) If the claimed employment was military service, the licensee or other entity who is conducting the suitable inquiry shall request a characterization of service, reason for separation, and any disciplinary actions related to potentially disqualifying FFD information. If the individual's last duty station cannot provide this information, the licensee or other entity may accept a hand-carried copy of the DD 214 presented by the individual which on face value appears to be legitimate. The licensee or other entity may also accept a copy of a DD 214 provided by the custodian of military records.
</P>
<P>(3) If a company, previous employer, or educational institution to whom the licensee or other entity has directed a request for information refuses to provide information or indicates an inability or unwillingness to provide information within 3 business days of the request, the licensee or other entity shall document this refusal, inability, or unwillingness in the licensee's or other entity's record of the investigation, and obtain a confirmation of employment or educational enrollment and attendance from at least one alternate source, with suitable inquiry questions answered to the best of the alternate source's ability. This alternate source may not have been previously used by the licensee or other entity to obtain information about the individual's character. If the licensee or other entity uses an alternate source because employer information is not forthcoming within 3 business days of the request, the licensee or other entity need not delay granting authorization to wait for any employer response, but shall evaluate and document the response if it is received.
</P>
<P>(d) When any licensee or other entity in § 26.3(a) through (d) and (f) is legitimately seeking the information required for an authorization decision under this subpart and has obtained a signed release from the subject individual authorizing the disclosure of information, any licensee or other entity who is subject to this part shall disclose whether the subject individual's authorization was denied or terminated unfavorably as a result of a violation of an FFD policy and shall make available the information on which the denial or unfavorable termination of authorization was based, including, but not limited to, drug or alcohol test results, treatment and followup testing requirements or other results from a determination of fitness, and any other information that is relevant to an authorization decision.
</P>
<P>(e) In conducting a suitable inquiry, a licensee or other entity may obtain information and documents by electronic means, including, but not limited to, telephone, facsimile, or e-mail. The licensee or other entity shall make a record of the contents of the telephone call and shall retain that record, and any documents or electronic files obtained electronically, under §§ 26.711 and 26.713(a), (b), and (c), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) For individuals about whom no potentially disqualifying FFD information is known (or about whom potentially disqualifying FFD information is known, but it has been resolved by a licensee or other entity who is subject to this subpart) at the time at which the suitable inquiry is initiated, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that a suitable inquiry has been conducted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Initial authorization. The period of the suitable inquiry must be the past 3 years or since the individual's eighteenth birthday, whichever is shorter. For the 1-year period immediately preceding the date on which the individual applies for authorization, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that the suitable inquiry has been conducted with every employer, regardless of the length of employment. For the remaining 2-year period, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that the suitable inquiry has been conducted with the employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed the longest within each calendar month, if the individual claims employment during the given calendar month.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization update. The period of the suitable inquiry must be the period since authorization was terminated. For the 1-year period immediately preceding the date on which the individual applies for authorization, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that the suitable inquiry has been conducted with every employer, regardless of the length of employment. For the remaining period since authorization was terminated, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that the suitable inquiry has been conducted with the employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed the longest within each calendar month, if the individual claims employment during the given calendar month.
</P>
<P>(3) Authorization reinstatement after an interruption of more than 30 days. The period of the suitable inquiry must be the period since authorization was terminated. The licensee or other entity shall ensure that the suitable inquiry has been conducted with the employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed the longest within the calendar month, if the individual claims employment during the given calendar month.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 91 FR 15777, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.65   Pre-access drug and alcohol testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section contains pre-access testing requirements for granting authorization to an individual who either has never held authorization or whose last period of authorization was terminated favorably and about whom no potentially disqualifying FFD information has been discovered or disclosed that was not previously reviewed and resolved by a licensee or other entity under the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accepting tests conducted within the past 30 days.</I> If an individual has negative results from drug and alcohol tests that were conducted under the requirements of this part before the individual applied for authorization from the licensee or other entity, and the specimens for such testing were collected within the 30-day period preceding the day on which the licensee or other entity grants authorization to the individual, the licensee or other entity may rely on the results of those drug and alcohol tests to meet the requirements for pre-access testing in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial authorization and authorization update.</I> Before granting authorization to an individual who has never held authorization or whose authorization has been interrupted for a period of more than 365 days, the licensee or other entity shall verify that the results of pre-access drug and alcohol tests, which must be performed within the 30-day period preceding the day the licensee or other entity grants authorization to the individual, are negative. The licensee or other entity need not conduct pre-access testing if—
</P>
<P>(1) The individual previously held authorization under this part and has been subject to a drug and alcohol testing program that includes random testing and a behavioral observation program that includes arrest reporting, which both meet the requirements of this part, from the date the individual's last authorization was terminated through the date the individual is granted authorization; or
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee or other entity relies on negative results from drug and alcohol tests that were conducted under the requirements of this part at any time before the individual applied for authorization, and the individual has remained subject to a drug and alcohol testing program that includes random testing and a behavioral observation program that includes arrest reporting, which both meet the requirements of this part, beginning on the date the drug and alcohol testing was conducted through the date the individual is granted authorization and thereafter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authorization reinstatement after an interruption of more than 30 days.</I> (1) To reinstate authorization for an individual whose authorization has been interrupted for a period of more than 30 days but no more than 365 days, except as permitted in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the licensee or other entity shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Verify that the individual has negative results from alcohol testing and collect a specimen for drug testing within the 30-day period preceding the day the licensee reinstates the individual's authorization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Verify that the drug test results are negative within 5 business days of specimen collection or administratively withdraw authorization until the drug test results are received.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee or other entity need not conduct pre-access testing of these individuals if—
</P>
<P>(i) The individual previously held authorization under this part and has been subject to a drug and alcohol testing program that includes random testing and a behavioral observation program that includes arrest reporting, which both meet the requirements of this part, beginning on the date the individual's last authorization was terminated through the date the individual is granted authorization; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee or other entity relies on negative results from drug and alcohol tests that were conducted under the requirements of this part at any time before the individual applied for authorization, and the individual remains subject to a drug and alcohol testing program that includes random testing and a behavioral observation program that includes arrest reporting, which both meet the requirements of this part, beginning on the date the drug and alcohol testing was conducted through the date the individual is granted authorization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Authorization reinstatement after an interruption of 30 or fewer days.</I> (1) The licensee or other entity need not conduct pre-access testing before granting authorization to an individual whose authorization has been interrupted for 5 or fewer days. In addition, the licensee or other entity need not conduct pre-access testing if the individual has been subject to a drug and alcohol testing program that includes random testing and a behavioral observation program that includes arrest reporting, which both meet the requirements of this part, from the date the individual's last authorization was terminated through the date the individual is granted authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) In order to reinstate authorization for an individual whose authorization has been interrupted for a period of more than 5 days but not more than 30 days, except as permitted in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the licensee or other entity shall take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee or other entity shall subject the individual to random selection for pre-access drug and alcohol testing at a one-time probability that is equal to or greater than the normal testing rate specified in § 26.31(d)(2)(vii) calculated for a 30-day period;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the individual is not selected for pre-access testing under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, the licensee or other entity need not perform pre-access drug and alcohol tests; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the individual is selected for pre-access testing under this paragraph, the licensee or other entity shall—
</P>
<P>(A) Verify that the individual has negative results from alcohol testing and collect a specimen for drug testing before reinstating authorization; and
</P>
<P>(B) Verify that the drug test results are negative within 5 business days of specimen collection or administratively withdraw authorization until negative drug test results are received.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administrative withdrawal of authorization.</I> If a licensee or other entity administratively withdraws an individual's authorization under paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) or (e)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, and until the drug test results are known, the licensee or other entity may not record the administrative action to withdraw authorization as an unfavorable termination. The individual may not be required to disclose the administrative action in response to requests for self-disclosure of potentially disqualifying FFD information, except if the individual's authorization was subsequently denied or terminated unfavorably by a licensee or entity. Immediately on receipt of negative test results, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that any matter that could link the individual to the temporary administrative action is eliminated from the donor's personnel record and other records.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Sanctions.</I> If an individual has confirmed positive, adulterated, or substituted test results from any drug, validity, or alcohol tests that may be required in this section, the licensee or other entity shall, at a minimum and as appropriate—
</P>
<P>(1) Deny authorization to the individual, as required by § 26.75(b), (d), (e)(2), or (g);
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate the individual's authorization, if it has been reinstated, under § 26.75(e)(1) or (f); or
</P>
<P>(3) Grant authorization to the individual under § 26.69.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.67   Random drug and alcohol testing of individuals who have applied for authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the licensee or other entity collects specimens from an individual for any pre-access testing that may be required under §§ 26.65 or 26.69, and thereafter, the licensee or other entity shall subject the individual to random testing under § 26.31(d)(2), except if—
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee or other entity does not grant authorization to the individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee or other entity relies on drug and alcohol tests that were conducted before the individual applied for authorization to meet the applicable requirements for pre-access testing. If the licensee or other entity relies on drug and alcohol tests that were conducted before the individual applied for authorization, the licensee or other entity shall subject the individual to random testing when the individual arrives at a licensee's or other entity's facility for in-processing and thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b) If an individual is selected for one or more random tests after any applicable requirement for pre-access testing in §§ 26.65 or 26.69 has been met, the licensee or other entity may grant authorization before random testing is completed, if the individual has met all other applicable requirements for authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) If an individual has confirmed positive, adulterated, or substituted test results from any drug, validity, or alcohol test required in this section, the licensee or other entity shall, at a minimum and as appropriate—
</P>
<P>(1) Deny authorization to the individual, as required by § 26.75(b), (d), (e)(2), or (g);
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate the individual's authorization, if it has been granted, as required by § 26.75(e)(1) or (f); or
</P>
<P>(3) Grant authorization to the individual under § 26.69.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.69" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.69   Authorization with potentially disqualifying fitness-for-duty information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section defines the management actions that licensees and other entities who are subject to this subpart shall take to grant or maintain, at the licensee's or other entity's discretion, the authorization of an individual who is in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Potentially disqualifying FFD information within the past 5 years has been disclosed or discovered about the individual by any means, including, but not limited to, the individual's self-disclosure, the suitable inquiry, drug and alcohol testing, the administration of any FFD program under this part, a self-report of a legal action, behavioral observation, or other sources of information, including, but not limited to, any background investigation or credit and criminal history check conducted under the requirements of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) The potentially disqualifying FFD information has not been reviewed and favorably resolved by a previous licensee or other entity under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorization after a first confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result or a 5-year denial of authorization.</I> The requirements in this paragraph apply to individuals whose authorization was denied or terminated unfavorably for a first violation of an FFD policy involving a confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result and individuals whose authorization was denied for 5 years under § 26.75(c), (d), (e)(2), or (f). To grant, and subsequently maintain, the individual's authorization, the licensee or other entity shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain and review a self-disclosure and employment history from the individual that addresses the shorter period of either the past 5 years or since the individual's last period of authorization was terminated, and verify that the self-disclosure does not contain any previously undisclosed potentially disqualifying FFD information before granting authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) Complete a suitable inquiry with every employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed during the period addressed in the employment history obtained under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and obtain and review any records that other licensees or entities who are subject to this part may have developed related to the unfavorable termination or denial of authorization;
</P>
<P>(3) If the individual was subject to a 5-year denial of authorization under this part, verify that he or she has abstained from substance abuse for at least the past 5 years;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that an SAE has conducted a determination of fitness and concluded that the individual is fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties.
</P>
<P>(i) If the individual's authorization was denied or terminated unfavorably for a first confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result, ensure that clinically appropriate treatment and followup testing plans have been developed by an SAE before granting authorization;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the individual was subject to a 5-year denial of authorization, ensure that any recommendations for treatment and followup testing from an SAE's determination of fitness are initiated before granting authorization; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Verify that the individual is in compliance with, and successfully completes, any followup testing and treatment plans.
</P>
<P>(5) Within 10 business days before granting authorization, perform a pre-access alcohol test, collect a specimen for drug testing under direct observation, and ensure that the individual is subject to random testing thereafter. Verify that the pre-access drug and alcohol test results are negative before granting authorization.
</P>
<P>(6) If the individual's authorization was denied or terminated unfavorably for a first confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result and a licensee or other entity grants authorization to the individual, ensure that the individual is subject to unannounced testing at least quarterly for 3 calendar years after the date the individual is granted authorization. Both random and followup tests, as defined in § 26.31(c), satisfy this requirement. Verify that the individual has negative test results from a minimum of 15 tests distributed over the 3-year period, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the individual does not continuously hold authorization during the 3-year period, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that at least one unannounced test is conducted in any quarter during which the individual holds authorization;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the 15 tests are not completed within the 3-year period specified in this paragraph due to periods during which the individual does not hold authorization, the followup testing program may be extended up to 5 calendar years to complete the 15 tests;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the individual does not hold authorization during the 5-year period a sufficient number of times or for sufficient periods of time to complete the 15 tests required in this paragraph, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that an SAE conducts a determination of fitness to assess whether further followup testing is required and implement the SAE's recommendations; and
</P>
<P>(7) Verify that any drug and alcohol tests required in this paragraph, and any other drug and alcohol tests that are conducted under this part since authorization was terminated or denied, yield results indicating no further drug abuse, as determined by the MRO after review, or alcohol abuse, as determined by the result of confirmatory alcohol testing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Granting authorization with other potentially disqualifying FFD information.</I> The requirements in this paragraph apply to an individual who has applied for authorization, and about whom potentially disqualifying FFD information has been discovered or disclosed that is not a first confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result or a 5-year denial of authorization. If potentially disqualifying FFD information is obtained about an individual by any means, including, but not limited to, the individual's self-disclosure, the suitable inquiry, the administration of any FFD program under this part, a self-report of a legal action, behavioral observation, or other sources of information, including, but not limited to, any background investigation or credit and criminal history check conducted under the requirements of this chapter, before granting authorization to the individual, the licensee or other entity shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain and review a self-disclosure and employment history that addresses the shortest of the following periods:
</P>
<P>(i) The past 5 years;
</P>
<P>(ii) Since the individual's eighteenth birthday; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Since the individual's last period of authorization was terminated;
</P>
<P>(2) Complete a suitable inquiry with every employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed during the period addressed in the employment history required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. If the individual held authorization within the past 5 years, obtain and review any records that other licensees or entities who are subject to this part may have developed with regard to potentially disqualifying FFD information about the individual from the past 5 years;
</P>
<P>(3) If the designated reviewing official determines that a determination of fitness is required, verify that a professional with the appropriate qualifications, as specified in § 26.189(a), has indicated that the individual is fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the individual is in compliance with, or has completed, any plans for treatment and drug and alcohol testing from the determination of fitness, which may include the collection of a urine specimen under direct observation; and
</P>
<P>(5) Verify that the results of pre-access drug and alcohol tests are negative before granting authorization, and that the individual is subject to random testing after the specimens have been collected for pre-access testing and thereafter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintaining authorization with other potentially disqualifying FFD information.</I> If an individual is authorized when other potentially disqualifying FFD information is disclosed or discovered, in order to maintain the individual's authorization, the licensee or other entity shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the licensee's or other entity's designated reviewing official completes a review of the circumstances associated with the information;
</P>
<P>(2) If the designated reviewing official concludes that a determination of fitness is required, verify that a professional with the appropriate qualifications, as specified in § 26.189(a), has indicated that the individual is fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the reviewing official determines that maintaining the individual's authorization is warranted, implement any recommendations for treatment and followup drug and alcohol testing from the determination of fitness, which may include the collection of urine specimens under direct observation, and ensure that the individual complies with and successfully completes the treatment plans.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Accepting followup testing and treatment plans from another FFD program.</I> Licensees and other entities may rely on followup testing, treatment plans, and determinations of fitness that meet the requirements of § 26.189 and were conducted under the FFD program of another licensee or entity who is subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) If an individual leaves the FFD program in which a treatment and/or followup testing plan was required under paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) of this section, the licensee or other entity who imposed the treatment and/or followup testing plan shall ensure that information documenting the treatment and/or followup testing plan is identified to any subsequent licensee or other entity who seeks to grant authorization to the individual. If the individual is granted authorization by the same or another licensee or entity, the licensee or other entity who grants authorization to the individual shall ensure that any followup testing requirements are met and that the individual complies with any treatment plan, with accountability assumed by the granting licensee or other entity. If it is impractical for the individual to comply with a treatment plan that was developed under another FFD program because of circumstances that are outside of the individual's or licensee's or other entity's control (e.g., geographical distance, closure of a treatment facility), then the granting FFD program shall ensure that an SAE develops a comparable treatment plan, with accountability for monitoring the individual's compliance with the plan assumed by the granting licensee or other entity.
</P>
<P>(2) If the previous licensee or other entity determined that the individual successfully completed any required treatment and followup testing, and the individual's last period of authorization was terminated favorably, the receiving licensee or entity may rely on the previous determination of fitness and no further review or followup is required.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Sanctions.</I> If an individual has confirmed positive, adulterated, or substituted test results from any drug, validity, or alcohol test required in this section, the licensee or other entity shall, at a minimum and as appropriate—
</P>
<P>(1) Deny authorization to the individual, as required by § 26.75(b), (d), (e)(2), or (g); or
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate the individual's authorization, if it has been granted, as required by § 26.75(e)(1) or (f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 38328, Aug. 3, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.3.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.71   Maintaining authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals may maintain authorization under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual complies with the licensee's or other entity's FFD policies and procedures, as described in § 26.27, including the responsibility to report any legal actions, as defined in § 26.5;
</P>
<P>(2) The individual remains subject to a drug and alcohol testing program that meets the requirements of § 26.31, including random testing;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual remains subject to a behavioral observation program that meets the requirements of § 26.33; and
</P>
<P>(4) The individual successfully completes required FFD training on the schedule specified in § 26.29(c).
</P>
<P>(b) If an authorized individual is not subject to an FFD program that meets the requirements of this section for more than 30 continuous days, then the licensee or other entity shall terminate the individual's authorization and the individual shall meet the requirements in this subpart, as applicable, to regain authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Management Actions and Sanctions To Be Imposed</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.73" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.4.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.73   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements in this subpart apply to the licensees and other entities identified in § 26.3(a), (b), and, as applicable, (c) for the categories of individuals specified in § 26.4(a) through (d) and (g). The requirements in this subpart also apply to the licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(c), as applicable, for the categories of individuals in § 26.4(e). At the discretion of a licensee or other entity in § 26.3(c), the requirements of this subpart also may be applied to the categories of individuals identified in § 26.4(f). In addition, the requirements in this subpart apply to the entities in § 26.3(d) to the extent that a licensee or other entity relies on the C/V to satisfy the requirements of this subpart. The regulations in this subpart also apply to the individuals specified in § 26.4(h) and (j), as appropriate. The requirements in this subpart apply to the FFD programs of licensees and other entities identified in § 26.3(f) that elect not to implement the requirements in subpart M of this part for the categories of individuals in § 26.4 and those licensees and other entities that elect to implement the requirements in § 26.605(b).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15778, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.75" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.4.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.75   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section defines the minimum sanctions that licensees and other entities shall impose when an individual has violated the drug and alcohol provisions of an FFD policy. A licensee or other entity may impose more stringent sanctions, except as specified in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Any act or attempted act to subvert the testing process, including, but not limited to, refusing to provide a specimen and providing or attempting to provide a substituted or adulterated specimen, for any test required under § 26.31(c) must result in the immediate unfavorable termination of the individual's authorization and permanent denial of authorization thereafter.
</P>
<P>(c) Any individual who is determined to have been involved in the sale, use, or possession of illegal drugs or the consumption of alcohol within a protected area of any nuclear power plant, within a facility that is licensed to possess or use formula quantities of SSNM, within a transporter's facility or vehicle, or while performing the duties that require the individual to be subject to this subpart shall immediately have his or her authorization unfavorably terminated and denied for a minimum of 5 years from the date of the unfavorable termination of authorization.
</P>
<P>(d) Any individual who resigns or withdraws his or her application for authorization before authorization is terminated or denied for a first violation of the FFD policy involving a confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result shall immediately have his or her authorization denied for a minimum of 5 years from the date of termination or denial. If an individual resigns or withdraws his or her application for authorization before his or her authorization is terminated or denied for any violation of the FFD policy, the licensee or other entity shall record the resignation or withdrawal, the nature of the violation, and the minimum sanction that would have been required under this section had the individual not resigned or withdrawn his or her application for authorization.
</P>
<P>(e) Lacking any other evidence to indicate the use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs or consumption of alcohol on site, a confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result must be presumed to be an indication of offsite drug or alcohol use in violation of the FFD policy.
</P>
<P>(1) The first violation of the FFD policy involving a confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result must, at a minimum, result in the immediate unfavorable termination of the individual's authorization for at least 14 days from the date of the unfavorable termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Any subsequent confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result, including during an assessment or treatment period, must result in the denial of authorization for a minimum of 5 years from the date of denial.
</P>
<P>(f) Paragraph (e) of this section does not apply to the misuse of prescription and over-the-counter drugs, except if the MRO determines that misuse of the prescription or over-the-counter drug represents substance abuse. Sanctions for misuse of prescription and over-the-counter drugs must be sufficient to deter misuse of those substances.
</P>
<P>(g) For individuals whose authorization was denied for 5 years under paragraphs (c), (d), (e)(2), or (f) of this section, any subsequent violation of the drug and alcohol provisions of an FFD policy must immediately result in permanent denial of authorization.
</P>
<P>(h) A licensee or other entity may not terminate an individual's authorization and may not subject the individual to other administrative action based solely on a positive test result from any initial drug test, other than positive initial test results for marijuana or cocaine metabolites from a specimen that is reported to be valid on the basis of either validity screening or initial validity testing performed at a licensee testing facility, unless other evidence, including information obtained under the process set forth in § 26.189, indicates that the individual is impaired or might otherwise pose a safety hazard. The licensee or other entity may not terminate an individual's authorization or subject an individual to any other administrative action under this section based on the results of validity screening or initial validity testing performed at a licensee testing facility indicating that a specimen is of questionable validity.
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to positive initial drug test results from a licensee testing facility for marijuana and cocaine metabolites from a valid specimen, licensee testing facility personnel may inform licensee or other entity management of the positive initial drug test result and the specific drugs or metabolites identified, and licensees or other entities may administratively withdraw the donor's authorization or take lesser administrative actions against the donor, provided that the licensee or other entity complies with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) For the drug for which action will be taken, at least 85 percent of the specimens that were determined to be positive as a result of initial drug tests at the licensee testing facility during the past 12-month data reporting period submitted to the NRC under § 26.717 were subsequently reported as positive by the HHS-certified laboratory as the result of confirmatory testing;
</P>
<P>(2) There is no loss of compensation or benefits to the donor during the period of temporary administrative action;
</P>
<P>(3) Immediately on receipt of a negative report from the HHS-certified laboratory or MRO, any matter that could link the donor to the temporary administrative action is eliminated from the donor's personnel record and other records; and
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees and other entities may not disclose the temporary administrative action against an individual whose initial drug test result is not subsequently confirmed by the MRO as a violation of the FFD policy in response to a suitable inquiry conducted under the provisions of § 26.63, a background investigation conducted under the provisions of this chapter, or to any other inquiry or investigation.
</P>
<P>(i) To ensure that no records are retained, access to the system of files and records must be provided to personnel who are conducting reviews, inquiries into allegations, or audits under the provisions of § 26.41, and to NRC inspectors.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee or other entity shall provide the donor with a written statement that the records specified in §§ 26.713 and 26.715 have not been retained with respect to the temporary administrative action and shall inform the donor in writing that the temporary administrative action that was taken will not be disclosed and need not be disclosed by the individual in response to requests for self-disclosure of potentially disqualifying FFD information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.77" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.4.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.77   Management actions regarding possible impairment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section defines management actions that licensees and other entities who are subject to this subpart must take when an individual who is subject to this subpart shows indications that he or she may not be fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties.
</P>
<P>(b) If an individual appears to be impaired or the individual's fitness is questionable, except as permitted under §§ 26.27(c)(3), 26.207, and 26.209, the licensee or other entity shall take immediate action to prevent the individual from performing the duties that require him or her to be subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) If an observed behavior or physical condition creates a reasonable suspicion of possible substance abuse, the licensee or other entity shall perform drug and alcohol testing. The results must be negative before the individual returns to performing the duties that require the individual to be subject to this subpart. However, if the physical condition is the smell of alcohol with no other behavioral or physical indications of impairment, then only an alcohol test is required and the results must be negative before the individual returns to performing his or her duties.
</P>
<P>(2) If a licensee or C/V who is subject to subpart I of this part is certain that the observed behavior or physical condition is the result solely of fatigue, the licensee or C/V shall ensure that a fatigue assessment is conducted under § 26.211. If the results of the fatigue assessment confirm that the observed behavior or physical condition is the result solely of fatigue, the licensee or C/V need not perform drug and alcohol tests or implement the determination of fitness process otherwise required by § 26.189.
</P>
<P>(3) For other indications of possible impairment that do not create a reasonable suspicion of substance abuse (or fatigue, in the case of licensees and C/Vs who are subject to subpart I of this part), the licensee or other entity may permit the individual to return to performing his or her duties only after the impairing or questionable conditions are resolved and a determination of fitness indicates that the individual is fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties.
</P>
<P>(c) If a licensee or other entity has a reasonable belief that an NRC employee or NRC contractor may be under the influence of any substance, or is otherwise unfit for duty, the licensee or other entity may not deny access but shall escort the individual. In any such instance, the licensee or other entity shall immediately notify the appropriate Regional Administrator by telephone, followed by written notification (e.g., e-mail or fax) to document the oral notification. If the Regional Administrator cannot be reached, the licensee or other entity shall notify the NRC Operations Center.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Collecting Specimens for Testing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.81   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains requirements for collecting specimens for drug testing and conducting alcohol tests by or on behalf of the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(a) through (d) for the categories of individuals specified in § 26.4(a) through (d) and (g). At the discretion of a licensee or other entity in § 26.3(c), specimen collections and alcohol tests must be conducted either under this subpart for the individuals specified in § 26.4(e) and (f) or the licensee or other entity may rely on specimen collections and alcohol tests conducted under the requirements of 49 CFR part 40 for the individuals specified in § 26.4(e) and (f). The requirements of this subpart do not apply to specimen collections and alcohol tests that are conducted under the requirements of 49 CFR part 40, as permitted in this section and under §§ 26.4(j) and 26.31(b)(2) and subpart K of this part. The requirements in this subpart apply to the FFD programs of licensees and other entities identified in § 26.3(f) that elect not to implement the requirements in subpart M of this part for the categories of individuals in § 26.4 and those licensees and other entities that elect to implement the requirements in § 26.605.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15778, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.83" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.83   Specimens to be collected.</HEAD>
<P>Except as permitted under § 26.31(d)(5), licensees and other entities who are subject to this subpart shall—
</P>
<P>(a) Collect either breath or oral fluids for initial tests for alcohol. Breath must be collected for confirmatory tests for alcohol; and




</P>
<P>(b) Collect only urine specimens for both initial and confirmatory tests for drugs, unless the licensee or other entity establishes through its policy and procedures that an oral fluid specimen can be collected and tested for any of the observed specimen collection conditions under § 26.115(a)(1) through (3) and (5). For each observed collection condition under § 26.115(a)(1) through (3) and (5), the licensee or other entity shall always collect and test the same specimen type.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71456, Nov. 22, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.85" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.85   Collector qualifications and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collector qualifications.</I> Each collector shall be knowledgeable of the requirements of this part and the FFD policy and procedures of the licensee or other entity for whom collections are performed, and shall keep current on any changes to the collection procedures for each specimen the individual is qualified to collect under this part. Each collector shall receive qualification training that meets the requirements of this paragraph and demonstrate proficiency in applying the requirements of this paragraph before serving as a collector. At a minimum, qualification training must provide instruction on the following subjects:


</P>
<P>(1) All steps necessary to complete a collection correctly and the proper completion and transmission of the Federal CCF;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods to address “problem” collections, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Inability to provide a specimen (<I>e.g.,</I> “shy bladder” for a urine specimen, “shy lung” for a breath specimen, dry mouth for an oral fluid specimen); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Attempts to tamper with a specimen;
</P>
<P>(3) Operation of the particular specimen collection or alcohol testing device(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> alcohol screening device (ASD), EBT, oral fluid) to be used, consistent with the most recent version of the manufacturers' instructions;


</P>
<P>(4) How to correct problems in collections; and
</P>
<P>(5) The collector's responsibility for maintaining the integrity of the specimen collection process, carefully ensuring the modesty and privacy of the donor, and avoiding any conduct or remarks that might be construed as accusatorial or otherwise offensive or inappropriate, and the specimen transfer process, if applicable.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative collectors.</I> A medical professional, technologist, or technician may serve as a collector without meeting the collector qualification requirements in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, as applicable, only if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) A collector who meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section cannot reasonably be made available at the time the collection must occur;
</P>
<P>(2) The individual is not employed by the licensee's or other entity's FFD program and his or her normal workplace is not at the licensee's or other entity's facility;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual does not routinely provide FFD program services to the licensee or other entity;
</P>
<P>(4) The individual is licensed or otherwise approved to practice in the jurisdiction in which the collection occurs; and
</P>
<P>(5) The individual is provided with detailed, clearly-illustrated, written instructions for collecting specimens under this subpart and follows those instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Personnel available to testify at proceedings.</I> The licensee or other entity shall ensure that qualified collection site personnel, when required, are available to testify in an administrative or disciplinary proceeding against an individual when that proceeding is based on positive drug or alcohol test results or adulterated or substituted test results from specimens collected by or under contract to the licensee or other entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Files.</I> Collection site personnel files must include each individual's resume of training and experience; certification or license, if any; references; job descriptions; records of performance evaluations and advancement; incident reports, if any; results of tests to establish employee competency for the position he or she holds, including, but not limited to, certification that collectors are proficient in administering alcohol tests consistent with the most recent manufacturer's instructions for the instruments and devices used; and appropriate data to support determinations of honesty and integrity conducted under § 26.31(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71456, Nov. 22, 2022]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.87" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.87   Collection sites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each FFD program must have one or more designated collection sites that have all necessary personnel, materials, equipment, facilities, and supervision to collect specimens for drug testing and to perform alcohol testing. Each collection site must provide for the collection, security, temporary storage, and shipping or transportation of specimens to a drug testing laboratory; the testing of specimens for alcohol; the security of specimen collection and testing devices; and test results. A properly equipped mobile facility that meets the requirements of this section is an acceptable collection site.
</P>
<P>(b) Visual privacy must be provided to the donor and collector when viewing alcohol test results and during the collection of an oral fluid specimen for drug testing. The donor must be provided with individual privacy while submitting a urine specimen, except if a directly observed urine specimen collection is required. Unauthorized personnel may not be present for the specimen collection.


</P>
<P>(c) Contracts for collection site services must permit representatives of the NRC, licensee, or other entity to conduct unannounced inspections and audits and to obtain all information and documentation that is reasonably relevant to the inspections and audits.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees and other entities shall take the following measures to prevent unauthorized access to the collection site that could compromise the integrity of the collection process or the specimens.
</P>
<P>(1) Unauthorized personnel may not be permitted in any part of the designated collection site where specimens are collected or stored;
</P>
<P>(2) A designated collection site must be secure. If a collection site is dedicated solely to specimen collection, it must be secure at all times. Methods of assuring security may include, but are not limited to, physical measures to control access, such as locked doors, alarms, or visual monitoring of the collection site when it is not occupied; and
</P>
<P>(3) If a collection site cannot be dedicated solely to collecting specimens, the portion of the facility that is used for specimen collection must be secured and, during the time period during which a specimen is being collected, a sign must be posted to indicate that access is permitted only for authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(e) The following steps must be taken to deter the dilution and adulteration of urine specimens at the collection site:
</P>
<P>(1) Agents that color any source of standing water in the stall or room in which the donor will provide a specimen, including, but not limited to, the toilet bowl or tank, must be placed in the source of standing water, so that the reservoirs of water are neither yellow nor colorless;
</P>
<P>(2) There must be no other source of water (e.g., no shower or sink) in the enclosure where urination occurs, or the source of water must be rendered unusable; and
</P>
<P>(3) Chemicals or products that could be used to contaminate or otherwise alter the specimen must be removed from the collection site or secured. The collector shall inspect the enclosure in which urination will occur before each collection to ensure that no materials are available that could be used to subvert the testing process.




</P>
<P>(f) In the exceptional event that a designated collection site is inaccessible and there is an immediate requirement to collect a specimen for drug testing, including, but not limited to, an event investigation, then the licensee or other entity may use a public rest room, onsite rest room, or hospital examining room according to the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) The facility must be secured by visual inspection to ensure that no unauthorized persons are present, and that undetected access (e.g., through a rear door not in the view of the collector) is impossible. Security during the collection may be maintained by restricting access to collection materials and specimens. In the case of a public rest room, a sign must be posted or an individual assigned to ensure that no unauthorized personnel are present during the entire collection procedure to avoid embarrassment of the donor and distraction of the collector.
</P>
<P>(2) If practical when a urine specimen is to be collected, a water coloring agent that meets the requirements of § 26.87(e)(1) must be placed in the toilet bowl to be used by the donor and in any other accessible source of standing water, including, but not limited to, the toilet tank. The collector shall instruct the donor not to flush the toilet.
</P>
<P>(3) A collector of the same gender as the donor shall accompany the donor into the area that will be used for a urine specimen collection , but remain outside of the stall, if it is a multi-stalled rest room, or outside of the door to the room, if it is a single rest room, in which the donor will provide the specimen. If a collector of the same gender is not available, the collector shall select a same-gender person to accompany the donor. This person shall be instructed on the collection procedures specified in this subpart and his or her identity must be documented on the Federal CCF.
</P>
<P>(4) Once the collector has possession of the specimen, if the specimen is urine, the collector shall inspect the toilet bowl and area to ensure that there is no evidence of a subversion attempt and shall then flush the toilet, and for any specimen collected for drug testing, the collector shall instruct the donor to participate with the collector in completing the chain of custody procedures.


</P>
<P>(5) If it is impractical to maintain continuous physical security of a collection site from the time a specimen for drug testing is presented until the sealed container is transferred for shipment, the specimen must remain under the direct control of an individual who is authorized by the licensee or other entity until the specimen is prepared for transfer, storage, or shipping, as required by § 26.117. The authorized individual shall be instructed on his or her responsibilities for maintaining custody and control of the specimen and his or her custody of the specimen must be documented on the Federal CCF .
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71457, Nov. 22, 2022]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.89" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.89   Preparing to collect specimens for testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an individual has been notified of a requirement for testing and does not appear at the collection site within the time period specified by FFD program procedures, the collector shall inform FFD program management that the individual has not reported for testing. FFD program management shall ensure that the necessary steps are taken to determine whether the individual's undue tardiness or failure to appear for testing constitutes a violation of the licensee's or other entity's FFD policy. If FFD program management determines that the undue tardiness or failure to report for testing represents an attempt to subvert the testing process, the licensee or other entity shall impose on the individual the sanctions in § 26.75(b). If FFD program management determines that the undue tardiness or failure to report does not represent a subversion attempt, the licensee or other entity may not impose sanctions but shall ensure that the individual is tested at the earliest reasonable and practical opportunity after locating the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) Donors shall provide acceptable identification before testing.
</P>
<P>(1) Acceptable identification includes photo-identification issued by a licensee or other entity who is subject to this part, or by the Federal, State, or local government. Licensees and other entities may not accept faxes or photocopies of identification.
</P>
<P>(2) If the donor cannot produce acceptable identification before any testing that is required under this part other than pre-access testing, the collector shall proceed with the test and immediately inform FFD program management that the donor did not present acceptable identification. When so informed, FFD program management shall contact the individual's supervisor to verify in-person the individual's identity, or, if the supervisor is not available, take other steps to establish the individual's identity and determine whether the lack of identification was an attempt to subvert the testing process. The donor may not leave the collection site except under supervision until his or her identity has been established.
</P>
<P>(3) If the donor is scheduled for pre-access testing and cannot produce acceptable identification, the collector may not proceed with the collection, and shall inform FFD program management that the individual did not present acceptable identification. When so informed, FFD program management will take the necessary steps to determine whether the lack of identification was an attempt to subvert the testing process.
</P>
<P>(4) The collector shall explain the testing procedure to the donor, show the donor the form(s) to be used, and ask the donor to sign a consent-to-testing form. The donor may not be required to list prescription medications or over-the-counter preparations that he or she has recently used.




</P>
<P>(c) The collector shall inform the donor that, if the donor refuses to cooperate in the specimen collection process (including, but not limited to, behaving in a confrontational manner that disrupts the testing process; admitting to the collector that he or she adulterated, diluted, or substituted the specimen; is found to have a device, such as a prosthetic appliance, the purpose of which is to interfere with providing an actual urine specimen; or leaving the collection site before all of the collection procedures are completed), it will be considered a refusal to test, and sanctions for subverting the testing process will be imposed under § 26.75(b). If the donor refuses to cooperate in the collection procedures, the collector shall inform FFD program management to obtain guidance on the actions to be taken.
</P>
<P>(d) In order to promote the security of specimens, avoid distraction of the collector, and ensure against any confusion in the identification of specimens, a collector shall conduct only one collection procedure at any given time, except as described in § 26.109(b)(1). For the collection of specimen(s) for drug testing, the collection procedure is complete when the specimen container has been sealed with a tamper-evident seal, the seal has been dated and initialed, and the Federal CCF has been completed or when a refusal to test has been determined.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71457, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.91" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.91   Acceptable devices for conducting initial and confirmatory tests for alcohol and methods of use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptable alcohol screening devices.</I> Alcohol screening devices (ASDs), including devices that test specimens of oral fluids or breath, must be approved by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) and listed in the most current version of NHTSA's Conforming Products List (CPL) for such devices. An ASD that is listed in the NHTSA CPL may be used only for initial tests for alcohol, and may not be used for confirmatory tests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptable evidential breath testing devices.</I> Evidential breath testing devices listed in the NHTSA CPL for evidential devices that meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section must be used to conduct confirmatory alcohol tests, and may be used to conduct initial alcohol tests. Note that, among the devices listed in the CPL for EBTs, only those devices listed without an asterisk (*) may be used for confirmatory alcohol testing under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>EBT capabilities.</I> An EBT that is listed in the NHTSA CPL for evidential devices that has the following capabilities may be used for conducting initial alcohol tests and must be used for confirmatory alcohol tests under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides a printed result of each breath test;
</P>
<P>(2) Assigns a unique number to each completed test, which the collector and donor can read before each test and which is printed on each copy of the test result;
</P>
<P>(3) Prints, on each copy of the test result, the manufacturer's name for the device, its serial number, and the time of the test;
</P>
<P>(4) Distinguishes alcohol from acetone at the 0.02 alcohol concentration level;
</P>
<P>(5) Tests an air blank; and
</P>
<P>(6) Permits performance of an external calibration check.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quality assurance and quality control of ASDs.</I> (1) Licensees and other entities shall implement the most recent version of the quality assurance plan submitted to NHTSA for any ASD that is used for initial alcohol testing.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees and other entities may not use an ASD that fails the specified quality control checks or that has passed its expiration date.
</P>
<P>(3) For ASDs that test breath specimens and meet EBT requirements for confirmatory testing, licensees and other entities shall also follow the device use and care requirements specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quality assurance and quality control of EBTs.</I> (1) Licensees and other entities shall implement the most recent version of the manufacturer's instructions for the use and care of the EBT consistently with the quality assurance plan submitted to NHTSA for the EBT, including performing external calibration checks no less frequently than at the intervals specified in the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) When conducting external calibration checks, licensees and other entities shall use only calibration devices appearing on NHTSA's CPL for “Calibrating Units for Breath Alcohol Tests.”
</P>
<P>(3) If an EBT fails an external check of calibration, the licensee or other entity shall take the EBT out of service. The EBT may not be used again for alcohol testing under this subpart until it is repaired and passes an external calibration check.
</P>
<P>(4) In order to ensure that confirmed positive alcohol test results are derived from an EBT that is calibrated, the licensee or other entity shall implement one of the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) If an EBT fails any external check of calibration, cancel every confirmed positive test result that was obtained using the EBT from any tests that were conducted after the EBT passed the last external calibration check; or
</P>
<P>(ii) After every confirmed positive test result obtained from using an EBT, conduct an external check of calibration of the EBT in the presence of the donor. If the EBT fails the external calibration check, cancel the donor's test result and conduct another initial and confirmatory test on a different EBT as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(5) Inspection, maintenance, and calibration of the EBT must be performed by its manufacturer or a maintenance representative or other individual who is certified either by the manufacturer or by a State health agency or other appropriate State agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.93" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.93   Preparing for alcohol testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately before collecting a specimen for alcohol testing, the collector shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Ask the donor whether he or she, in the past 15 minutes, has had anything to eat or drink, belched, or put anything into his or her mouth (including, but not limited to, a cigarette, breath mint, or chewing gum), and instruct the donor that he or she should avoid these activities during the collection process;
</P>
<P>(2) If the donor states that he or she has not engaged in the activities listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, alcohol testing may proceed;
</P>
<P>(3) If the donor states that he or she has engaged in any of the activities listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, inform the donor that a 15-minute waiting period is necessary to prevent an accumulation of mouth alcohol from leading to an artificially high reading;
</P>
<P>(4) Explain that it is to the donor's benefit to avoid the activities listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section during the collection process;
</P>
<P>(5) Explain that the initial and confirmatory tests, if a confirmatory test is necessary, will be conducted at the end of the waiting period, even if the donor has not followed the instructions; and
</P>
<P>(6) Document that the instructions were communicated to the donor.
</P>
<P>(b) With the exception of the 15-minute waiting period, if necessary, the collector shall begin for-cause alcohol and/or drug testing as soon as reasonably practical after the decision is made that for-cause testing is required. When for-cause alcohol testing is required, alcohol testing may not be delayed by collecting a specimen for drug testing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.95" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.95   Conducting an initial test for alcohol using a breath specimen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The collector shall perform the initial breath test as soon as practical after the donor indicates that he or she has not engaged in the activities listed in § 26.93(a)(1) or after the 15-minute waiting period has elapsed, if required.
</P>
<P>(b) To perform the initial test, the collector shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Select, or allow the donor to select, an individually wrapped or sealed mouthpiece from the testing materials;
</P>
<P>(2) Open the individually wrapped or sealed mouthpiece in view of the donor and insert it into the device as required by the manufacturer's instructions;
</P>
<P>(3) Instruct the donor to blow steadily and forcefully into the mouthpiece for at least 6 seconds or until the device indicates that an adequate amount of breath has been obtained;
</P>
<P>(4) Show the donor the displayed or printed test result; and
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure that the test result record can be associated with the donor and is maintained secure.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless problems in administering the breath test require an additional collection, only one breath specimen may be collected for the initial test. If an additional collection(s) is required, the collector shall rely on the test result from the first successful collection to determine the need for confirmatory testing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.97" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.97   Collecting oral fluid specimens for alcohol and drug testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The collector, with the assistance of a virtual collection monitor as permitted under § 26.607(g)(2) if applicable, shall perform the oral fluid specimen collection consistent with the device manufacturer's instructions. The collector shall:




</P>
<P>(1) Check the expiration date on the device and show it to the donor (the device may not be used after its expiration date);
</P>
<P>(2) Open an individually wrapped or sealed package containing the device in the presence of the donor;
</P>
<P>(3) Offer the donor the choice of using the device or having the collector use it. If the donor chooses to use it, instruct the donor to insert the device into his or her mouth and use it in the manner described by the device's manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(4) If the donor chooses not to use the device, or in all cases when a new specimen collection is necessary because the device failed to activate, insert the device into the donor's mouth, and gather oral fluids in the manner described by the device's manufacturer (wear single-use examination or similar gloves while doing so and change them following each specimen collection); and
</P>
<P>(5) When the device is removed from the donor's mouth, follow the manufacturer's instructions regarding necessary next steps to ensure that the device has activated.




</P>
<P>(b) If all steps in paragraph (a) of this section could not be completed successfully (<I>e.g.,</I> the device breaks, the device is dropped on the floor, the device fails to activate), the collector, with the assistance of a virtual collection monitor as permitted under § 26.607(g)(2) if applicable, shall:








</P>
<P>(1) Discard the device and conduct a new specimen collection using a new device. The new device must be one that has been under the collector's control before the specimen collection;
</P>
<P>(2) Record the reason for the new specimen collection;
</P>
<P>(3) Offer the donor the choice of using the device or having the collector use it unless the donor, in the opinion of the collector, was responsible for the new specimen collection needing to be conducted. If the collector concludes that the donor was responsible, then the collector shall use the device to conduct the specimen collection; and
</P>
<P>(4) Repeat the procedures in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) If the second collection attempt in paragraph (b) of this section could not be completed, the collector shall—
</P>
<P>(1) End the collection of oral fluids and document the reason(s) that the collection could not be completed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Immediately conduct another specimen collection (<I>i.e.,</I> initial test using an EBT for alcohol, or urine specimen collection for drug testing).
</P>
<P>(d) For alcohol testing of oral fluids, the collector shall read the result displayed on the device no sooner than the device's manufacturer instructs. In all cases, the collector shall read the result within 15 minutes of the test. The collector shall then show the device and its reading to the donor, record the result, and record that an ASD was used.
</P>
<P>(e) Devices, swabs, gloves, and other materials used in collecting oral fluids may not be re-used.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71457, Nov. 22, 2022; 91 FR 15778, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.99" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.99   Determining the need for a confirmatory test for alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the initial test result is less than 0.02 percent BAC, the collector shall declare the test result as negative.
</P>
<P>(b) If the initial test result is 0.02 percent BAC or higher, the collector shall ensure that the time at which the test was concluded (<I>i.e.</I>, the time at which the test result was known) is recorded and inform the donor that a confirmatory test for alcohol is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.101   Conducting a confirmatory test for alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The confirmatory test must begin as soon as possible, but no more than 30 minutes after the conclusion of the initial test.
</P>
<P>(b) To complete the confirmatory test, the collector shall—
</P>
<P>(1) In the presence of the donor, conduct an air blank on the EBT before beginning the confirmatory test and show the result to the donor;
</P>
<P>(2) Verify that the reading is 0.00. If the reading is 0.00, the test may proceed. If not, then conduct another air blank;
</P>
<P>(3) If the reading on the second air blank is 0.00, the test may proceed. If the reading is greater than 0.00, take the EBT out of service and proceed with the test using another EBT. If an EBT is taken out of service for this reason, the EBT may not be used for further testing until it is found to be within tolerance limits on an external check of calibration;
</P>
<P>(4) Open an individually wrapped or sealed mouthpiece in view of the donor and insert it into the device as required by the manufacturer's instructions;
</P>
<P>(5) Read the unique test number displayed on the EBT, and ensure that the donor reads the same number;
</P>
<P>(6) Instruct the donor to blow steadily and forcefully into the mouthpiece for at least 6 seconds or until the device indicates that an adequate amount of breath has been obtained; and
</P>
<P>(7) Show the donor the result displayed on or printed by the EBT, record the result, and document the time at which the confirmatory test result was known.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless there are problems in administering the breath test that require an additional collection, the collector shall collect only one breath specimen for the confirmatory test. If an additional collection(s) is required because of problems in administering the breath test, the collector shall rely on the breath specimen from the first successful collection to determine the confirmatory test result. Collection procedures may not require collectors to calculate an average or otherwise combine results from two or more breath specimens to determine the confirmatory test result.
</P>
<P>(d) If an EBT that meets the requirements of § 26.91(b) and (c) was used for the initial alcohol test, the same EBT may be used for confirmatory testing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.103   Determining a confirmed positive test result for alcohol.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A confirmed positive test result for alcohol must be declared under any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) When the result of the confirmatory test for alcohol is 0.04 percent BAC or higher;
</P>
<P>(2) When the result of the confirmatory test for alcohol is 0.03 percent BAC or higher and the donor had been in a work status for at least 1 hour at the time the initial test was concluded (including any breaks for rest, lunch, dental/doctor appointments, etc.); or
</P>
<P>(3) When the result of the confirmatory test for alcohol is 0.02 percent BAC or higher and the donor had been in a work status for at least 2 hours at the time the initial test was concluded (including any breaks for rest, lunch, dental/doctor appointments, etc.).
</P>
<P>(b) When the result of the confirmatory test for alcohol is equal to or greater than 0.01 percent BAC but less than 0.02 percent BAC and the donor has been in a work status for 3 hours or more at the time the initial test was concluded (including any breaks for rest, lunch, dental/doctor appointments, etc.), the collector shall declare the test result as negative and inform FFD program management. The licensee or other entity shall prohibit the donor from performing any duties that require the individual to be subject to this subpart and may not return the individual to performing such duties until a determination of fitness indicates that the donor is fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.105   Preparing for the collection of a specimen for drug testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The collector shall ask the donor to remove any unnecessary outer garments, such as a coat or jacket, which might conceal items or substances that the donor could use to tamper with or adulterate his or her specimen. The collector shall ensure that all personal belongings such as a purse or briefcase remain with the outer garments outside of the room or stall in which the specimen is collected. The donor may retain his or her wallet.
</P>
<P>(b) The collector shall also ask the donor to empty his or her pockets and display the items in them to enable the collector to identify items that the donor could use to adulterate or substitute his or her urine specimen. The donor shall permit the collector to make this observation. If the donor refuses to show the collector the items in his or her pockets, this is considered a refusal to test. If an item is found that appears to have been brought to the collection site with the intent to adulterate or substitute the specimen, the collector shall contact the MRO or FFD program manager to determine whether a directly observed collection is required. If the item appears to have been inadvertently brought to the collection site, the collector shall secure the item and continue with the normal collection procedure. If the collector identifies nothing that the donor could use to adulterate or substitute the specimen, the donor may place the items back into his or her pockets.






</P>
<P>(c) The collector shall instruct the donor to wash and dry his or her hands before providing a specimen.




</P>
<P>(d) After washing his or her hands, the donor shall remain in the presence of the collector and may not have access to any water fountain, faucet, soap dispenser, cleaning agent, or other materials that he or she could use to adulterate the specimen.


</P>
<P>(e) The collector may select, or allow the donor to select, an individually wrapped or sealed urine specimen collection container from the collection kit materials or an oral fluid specimen collection device. Either the collector or the donor, with both present, shall unwrap or break the seal of the urine specimen collection container. With the exception of the collection container, the donor may not take anything from the collection kit into the room or stall used for urination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71457, Nov. 22, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.107" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.107   Collecting a urine specimen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The collector shall direct the donor to go into the room or stall used for urination, provide a specimen of the quantity that has been predetermined by the licensee or other entity, as defined in § 26.109(a), not flush the toilet, and return with the specimen as soon as the donor has completed the void.
</P>
<P>(1) The donor shall provide his or her urine specimen in the privacy of a room, stall, or otherwise partitioned area (private area) that allows for individual privacy, except if a directly observed collection is required, as described in § 26.115;
</P>
<P>(2) Except in the case of a directly observed collection, no one may go with the donor into the room or stall in which the donor will provide his or her specimen; and
</P>
<P>(3) The collector may set a reasonable time limit for voiding.




</P>
<P>(b)(1) The collector shall pay careful attention to the donor during the entire collection process, except as provided in § 26.109(b)(1), to observe any conduct that indicates an attempt to subvert the testing process (<I>e.g.,</I> tampering with a specimen; having a substitute urine specimen in plain view; attempting to bring an adulterant, urine substitute, heating element, and/or temperature measurement device into the room, stall, or private area used for urination). If any such conduct is detected, the collector shall document a description of the conduct on the Federal CCF or through another documentation method consistent with the collection procedures of the licensee or other entity, and contact FFD program management to determine whether a directly observed collection is required, as described in § 26.115.
</P>
<P>(2) If a hydration monitor is used to observe a donor during the § 26.109(b)(1) hydration process, this individual shall immediately inform the collector of any donor conduct that may indicate an attempt to subvert the testing process (<I>e.g.,</I> donor leaves the collection site, donor refuses to follow instructions).


</P>
<P>(c) After the donor has provided the urine specimen and submitted it to the collector, the donor shall be permitted to wash his or her hands. The collector shall inspect the toilet bowl and room or stall in which the donor voided to identify any evidence of a subversion attempt, and then flush the toilet.
</P>
<P>(d) If a refusal to test is determined at any point during the specimen collection process, the collector shall do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the donor that a refusal to test has been determined;
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate the collection process;
</P>
<P>(3) Document a description of the refusal to test on the Federal CCF or through another documentation method consistent with the collection procedures of the licensee or other entity;
</P>
<P>(4) Discard any urine specimen(s) provided by the donor, unless the specimen was collected for a post-event test under § 26.31(c)(3); and
</P>
<P>(5) Immediately inform the FFD program manager.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71457, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.109   Urine specimen quantity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities who are subject to this subpart shall establish a predetermined quantity of urine that donors are requested to provide when submitting a specimen. At a minimum, the predetermined quantity must include 30 milliliters (mL) to ensure that a sufficient quantity of urine is available for initial and confirmatory validity and drug tests at an HHS-certified laboratory, and for retesting of an aliquot of the specimen if requested by the donor under § 26.165(b). The licensee's or other entity's predetermined quantity may include more than 30 mL, if the testing program follows split specimen procedures, tests for additional drugs, or performs initial testing at a licensee testing facility. Where collected specimens are to be split under the provisions of this subpart, the predetermined quantity must include an additional 15 mL.






</P>
<P>(b) If the quantity of urine in the first specimen provided by the donor is less than 30 mL, the collector shall take the following steps:
</P>
<P>(1) The collector shall encourage the donor to drink a reasonable amount of liquid (normally, 8 ounces of water every 30 minutes, but not to exceed a maximum of 40 ounces over 3 hours) until the donor provides a specimen of at least 30 mL. Alternatively, as specified in the licensee's or other entity's FFD program procedures, the collector may assign responsibility for monitoring a donor during the hydration process to another collector who meets the requirements in § 26.85(a) or to a hydration monitor. If another collector or hydration monitor is used, the collector:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall explain the hydration process and acceptable donor behavior to the hydration monitor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall record the name of the other collector or hydration monitor on the Federal CCF; and
</P>
<P>(iii) May perform other collections while the donor is in the hydration process;
</P>
<P>(2) The collector shall provide the donor with a separate collection container for each successive specimen. Once the donor provides a specimen of at least 30 mL, the collection must end. If the specimen quantity is at least 30 mL but is less than the licensee's or other entity's predetermined quantity, the licensee or other entity may not require the donor to provide additional specimens and may not impose any sanctions on the donor. If the donor provides a specimen of 30 mL or more, but the specimen quantity is less than the predetermined quantity, the collector shall forward the specimen to the HHS-certified laboratory for testing. If the donor provides a specimen of at least the predetermined quantity, the specimen may be processed under the FFD program's usual testing procedures;
</P>
<P>(3) If the donor has not provided a specimen of at least 30 mL within 3 hours of the first unsuccessful attempt to provide a specimen of the predetermined quantity, the collector shall discontinue the collection and notify the FFD program manager or MRO to initiate the “shy bladder” procedures in § 26.119; and
</P>
<P>(4) Neither the donor nor the collector may combine specimens. The collector shall discard specimens of less than 30 mL, except if there is reason to believe that the donor has diluted, adulterated, substituted, or otherwise tampered with the specimen, based on the collector's observations of the donor's behavior during the collection process or the specimen's characteristics, as specified in § 26.111. If the collector has a reason to believe that a specimen that is 15 mL or more, but less than 30 mL, has been diluted, adulterated, substituted, or altered, the collector shall prepare the suspect specimen for shipping to the HHS-certified laboratory and contact FFD program management to determine whether a directly observed collection is required, as described in § 26.115.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71458, Nov. 22, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.111" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.111   Checking the acceptability of the urine specimen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately after the donor provides the urine specimen to the collector, including specimens of less than 30 mL but equal to or greater than 15 mL, the collector shall measure the temperature of the specimen. The temperature-measuring device used must accurately reflect the temperature of the specimen and not contaminate the specimen. The time from urination to temperature measurement may not exceed 4 minutes. If the temperature of a urine specimen is outside the range of 90  °F to 100  °F (32 °C to 38 °C), that is a reason to believe the donor may have altered (<I>e.g.,</I> adulterated or diluted) or substituted the specimen.






</P>
<P>(b) Immediately after the donor provides a urine specimen, including specimens of less than 30 mL but equal to or greater than 15 mL, the collector shall also inspect the specimen to determine its color and clarity and look for any signs of contaminants or adulteration. The collector shall note any unusual findings on the Federal CCF or through another documentation method consistent with the collection procedures of the licensee or other entity. 
</P>
<P>(c) If there is reason to believe that the donor may have attempted to dilute, substitute, or adulterate the specimen based on specimen temperature or other observations made during the collection, the collector shall contact the FFD program manager, who may consult with the MRO, to determine whether the donor has attempted to subvert the testing process or whether other circumstances may explain the observations. The FFD program manager or MRO may require the donor to provide a second specimen as soon as possible under direct observation. 

In addition, the collector shall inform the donor that he or she may volunteer to submit a second specimen under direct observation to counter the reason to believe the donor may have altered (<I>e.g.,</I> adulterated or diluted) or substituted the specimen.
</P>
<P>(d) Any specimen of 15 mL or more that the collector suspects has been diluted, substituted, or adulterated, and any specimen of 15 mL or more that has been collected under direct observation under paragraph (c) of this section, must be sent directly to the HHS-certified laboratory for initial and, if required, confirmatory testing, and may not be subject to initial testing at a licensee testing facility.
</P>
<P>(e) As much of the suspect specimen as possible must be preserved, except under the conditions described in § 26.107(d)(4).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71458, Nov. 22, 2022]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.113" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.113   Splitting the urine specimen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities may, but are not required to, use split-specimen methods of collection.
</P>
<P>(b) If the urine specimen is to be split into two specimen bottles, hereinafter referred to as Bottle A and Bottle B, the collector shall take the following steps:
</P>
<P>(1) The collector shall instruct the donor to urinate into a specimen container;
</P>
<P>(2) The collector, in the presence of the donor and after determining specimen temperature as described in § 26.111(a), shall split the urine specimen. The collector shall pour 30 mL of urine into Bottle A and a minimum of 15 mL of urine into Bottle B. If the quantity of urine available for Bottle B is less than 15 mL, the collector shall pour the remaining urine into Bottle B and forward the specimens in Bottles A and B to the HHS-certified laboratory for drug and validity testing; and
</P>
<P>(3) The collector shall ask the donor to observe the splitting of the urine specimen and to maintain visual contact with both specimen bottles until the Federal CCF(s) for both specimens are completed, the specimens are sealed, and the specimens and form(s) are prepared for secure storage or shipping.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees and other entities may use aliquots of the specimen collected for validity screening and initial validity and drug testing at the licensee testing facility, as permitted under § 26.31(d)(3)(ii), or to test for additional drugs, as permitted under § 26.31(d)(1)(i)(A), but only if sufficient urine is available for this testing after the specimen has been split into Bottle A and Bottle B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.115" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.115   Collecting a urine specimen under direct observation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Procedures for collecting urine specimens must provide for the donor's privacy unless directed by this subpart or the MRO or FFD program manager determines that a directly observed collection is warranted. The following circumstances constitute the exclusive grounds for performing a directly observed collection:
</P>
<P>(1) The donor has presented, at this or a previous collection, a urine specimen that the HHS-certified laboratory reported as being substituted, adulterated, or invalid to the MRO and the MRO reported to the licensee or other entity that there is no adequate medical explanation for the result;
</P>
<P>(2) The donor has presented, at this collection, a urine specimen that falls outside the required temperature range;
</P>
<P>(3) The collector, or the hydration monitor if one is used as permitted in § 26.109(b)(1), observes conduct by the donor indicating an attempt to subvert the testing process;
</P>
<P>(4) A directly observed collection is required under § 26.69; or
</P>
<P>(5) The donor requests a retest and either Bottle B or the single specimen is not available due to circumstances outside of the donor's control, as described in § 26.165(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) Before collecting a urine specimen under direct observation, the collector shall obtain the agreement of the FFD program manager or MRO to obtain a urine specimen under direct observation. After obtaining agreement, the collector shall ensure that a specimen is collected under direct observation as soon as reasonably practicable.
</P>
<P>(c) The collector shall explain to the donor the reason for direct observation of the collection under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The collector shall complete a new Federal CCF for the specimen that is obtained from the directly observed collection. The collector shall record that the collection was observed and the reason(s) for the directly observed collection on the form.
</P>
<P>(e) The collector shall ensure that the observer is the same gender as the donor. A person of the opposite gender may not act as the observer under any conditions. The observer may be a different person from the collector and need not be a qualified collector. If the observer is not a qualified collector, the collector shall, in the presence of the donor, instruct the observer on the collection procedures in paragraph (f) of this section before proceeding with the directly observed collection.
</P>
<P>(f) The individual who observes the collection shall follow these procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) The observer shall instruct the donor to adjust his or her clothing to ensure that the area of the donor's body between the waist and knees is exposed;
</P>
<P>(2) The observer shall watch the donor urinate into the collection container. Specifically, the observer shall watch the urine go from the donor's body into the collection container. A reflective mirror may be used to assist in observing the provision of the specimen only if the physical configuration of the room, stall, or private area used for urination is not sufficient to meet this direct observation requirement; the use of a video camera to assist in the observation process is not permitted;
</P>
<P>(3) If the observer is not the collector, the observer may not touch or handle the collection container but shall maintain visual contact with the specimen until the donor hands the collection container to the collector; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the observer is not the collector, the collector shall record the observer's name on the Federal CCF.
</P>
<P>(g) If a donor declines to allow a directly observed collection that is required or permitted under this section, the donor's refusal constitutes an act to subvert the testing process, and the collector shall follow the procedures in § 26.107(d).
</P>
<P>(h) If a collector learns that a directly observed collection should have been performed but was not, the collector shall inform the FFD program manager, or his or her designee. The FFD program manager or designee shall ensure that a directly observed collection is immediately performed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71458, Nov. 22, 2022]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.117" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.117   Preparing drug testing specimens for storage and shipping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once the collector is presented with the specimen from the donor, both the donor and the collector shall keep the donor's specimen(s) in view at all times before the specimen(s) are sealed and labeled. If any specimen or aliquot is transferred to another container, the collector shall ask the donor to observe the transfer and sealing of the container with a tamper-evident seal.






</P>
<P>(b) Both the collector and the donor shall be present (at the same time) during the procedures outlined in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The collector shall place an identification label securely on each container. The label must contain the date, the donor's specimen number, and any other identifying information provided or required by the FFD program. The collector shall also apply a tamper-evident seal on each container if it is separate from the label. The specimen bottle must be securely sealed to prevent undetected tampering.
</P>
<P>(d) The donor shall initial the identification label(s) on the specimen bottle(s) for the purpose of certifying that the specimen was collected from him or her. The collector shall also ask the donor to read and sign a statement on the Federal CCF certifying that the specimen(s) identified as having been collected from the donor is, in fact, the specimen(s) that he or she provided.
</P>
<P>(e) The collector shall complete the Federal CCF(s) and shall certify proper completion of the collection.




</P>
<P>(f) The specimens and Federal CCFs must be packaged for transfer to the HHS-certified laboratory or to the licensee testing facility. 

If the specimens are not immediately prepared for transfer, they must be appropriately safeguarded during temporary storage.
</P>
<P>(g) While any part of the chain of custody procedures is being performed, the specimens and custody documents must be under the control of the involved collector, except as provided in § 26.109(b)(1)(ii) for the Federal CCF. The collector may not leave the collection site during the interval between presentation of the specimen by the donor and securing of the specimens with identifying labels bearing the donor's specimen identification numbers and seals initialed by the donor. If the involved collector momentarily leaves his or her workstation, the sealed specimens and Federal CCFs must be secured or taken with him or her. If the collector is leaving for an extended period of time, the specimens must be packaged for transfer to the HHS-certified laboratory or the licensee testing facility and secured before the collector leaves the collection site.
</P>
<P>(h) The specimen(s) sealed in a shipping container must be immediately transferred, appropriately safeguarded during temporary storage, or kept under the personal control of an authorized individual until transferred. These minimum procedures apply to the transfer of specimens to licensee testing facilities from collection sites (except where co-located) as well as to the shipping of specimens to HHS-certified laboratories. As an option, licensees and other entities may ship several specimens via courier in a locked or sealed shipping container.
</P>
<P>(i) Collection site personnel shall ensure that a Federal CCF is packaged with its associated specimen bottle. Unless a collection site and a licensee testing facility are co-located, the sealed and labeled specimen bottles, with their associated Federal CCFs that are being transferred from the collection site to the drug testing laboratory must be placed in a second, tamper-evident shipping container. The second container must be designed to minimize the possibility of damage to the specimen during shipment (e.g., specimen boxes, shipping bags, padded mailers, or bulk insulated shipping containers with that capability), so that the contents of the shipping containers are no longer accessible without breaking a tamper-evident seal.






</P>
<P>(j) Collection site personnel shall arrange to transfer the collected specimens to the HHS-certified laboratory or the licensee testing facility. Licensees and other entities shall take appropriate and prudent actions to minimize false negative results from specimen degradation. Urine specimens that have not shipped to the HHS-certified laboratory or the licensee testing facility within 24 hours of collection and any urine specimen that is suspected of having been substituted, adulterated, or tampered with in any way must be maintained cooled to not more than 6 °C (42.8 °F) until they are shipped to the HHS-certified laboratory. Oral fluid specimens shall be stored under the conditions specified by the oral fluid specimen collection device manufacturer.  Specimens must be shipped from the collection site to the HHS-certified laboratory or the licensee testing facility as soon as reasonably practical but, except under unusual circumstances, the time between specimen shipment and receipt of the specimen at the licensee testing facility or HHS-certified laboratory should not exceed 2 business days. </P>
<P>(k) Couriers, express carriers, and postal service personnel do not have direct access to the Federal CCFs or the specimen bottles. Therefore, there is no requirement that such personnel document chain of custody on the Federal CCFs during transit. Custody accountability of the shipping containers during shipment must be maintained by a tracking system provided by the courier, express carrier, or postal service. </P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71458, Nov. 22, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.119" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.5.85.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.119   Determining “shy” bladder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a donor has not provided a specimen of at least 30 mL within the 3 hours permitted for urine collection, FFD program personnel shall direct the donor to obtain, within 5 business days, an evaluation from a licensed physician who is acceptable to the MRO and has expertise in the medical issues raised by the donor's failure to provide a sufficient specimen. The MRO may perform this evaluation if the MRO has the appropriate expertise.
</P>
<P>(b) If another physician will perform the evaluation, the MRO shall provide the other physician with the following information and instructions:
</P>
<P>(1) The donor was required to take a drug test, but was unable to provide a sufficient quantity of urine to complete the test;
</P>
<P>(2) The potential consequences of refusing to take the required drug test; and
</P>
<P>(3) The physician must agree to follow the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The physician who conducts this evaluation shall make one of the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(1) A medical condition has, or with a high degree of probability could have, precluded the donor from providing a sufficient amount of urine; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is an inadequate basis for determining that a medical condition has, or with a high degree of probability could have, precluded the donor from providing a sufficient quantity of urine.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, a medical condition includes an ascertainable physiological condition (e.g., a urinary system dysfunction) or a medically documented pre-existing psychological disorder, but does not include unsupported assertions of “situational anxiety” or dehydration.
</P>
<P>(e) The physician who conducts this evaluation shall provide a written statement of his or her determination and the basis for it to the MRO. This statement may not include detailed information on the donor's medical condition beyond what is necessary to explain the determination.
</P>
<P>(f) If the physician who conducts this evaluation determines that the donor's medical condition is a serious and permanent or long-term disability that is highly likely to prevent the donor from providing a sufficient amount of urine for a very long or indefinite period of time, the physician shall set forth this determination and the reasons for it in the written statement to the MRO.
</P>
<P>(g) The MRO shall seriously consider and assess the information provided by the physician in deciding whether the donor has a medical condition that has, or with a high degree of probability could have, precluded the donor from providing a sufficient amount of urine, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the MRO concurs with the physician's determination, then the MRO shall declare that the donor has not violated the FFD policy and the licensee or other entity shall take no further action with respect to the donor;
</P>
<P>(2) If the MRO determines that the medical condition has not, or with a high degree of probability could not have, precluded the donor from providing a sufficient amount of urine, then the MRO shall declare that there has been a refusal to test; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the MRO determines that the medical condition is highly likely to prevent the donor from providing a sufficient amount of urine for a very long or indefinite period of time, then the MRO shall authorize an alternative evaluation process, tailored to the individual case, for drug testing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Licensee Testing Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.121" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.121   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains requirements for facilities that are operated by licensees and other entities who are subject to this part to perform initial tests of urine specimens for validity, drugs, and drug metabolites. This subpart shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this subpart and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this subpart accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 90 FR 55628, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.123" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.123   Testing facility capabilities.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee testing facility shall have the capability, at the same premises, to perform either validity screening tests or initial validity tests or both, and initial drug tests for each drug and drug metabolite for which testing is conducted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.125" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.125   Licensee testing facility personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee testing facility shall have one or more individuals who are responsible for day-to-day operations and supervision of the testing technicians. The designated individual(s) shall have at least a bachelor's degree in the chemical or biological sciences, medical technology, or equivalent. He or she shall also have training and experience in the theory and practice of the procedures used in the licensee testing facility, and a thorough understanding of quality control practices and procedures, the review, interpretation, and reporting of test results, and proper remedial actions to be taken in response to detection of abnormal test or quality control results.
</P>
<P>(b) Other technicians or non-technical staff shall have the necessary training and skills for their assigned tasks. Technicians who perform urine specimen testing shall have documented proficiency in operating the testing instruments and devices used at the licensee testing facility.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensee testing facility personnel files must include each individual's resume of training and experience; certification or license, if any; references; job descriptions; records of performance evaluations and advancement; incident reports, if any; results of tests that establish employee competency for the position he or she holds, including, but not limited to, certification that personnel are proficient in conducting testing in accordance with manufacturer's most recent instructions for the instruments and devices used and tests for color blindness; and appropriate data to support determinations of honesty and integrity required by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.127" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.127   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensee testing facilities shall develop, implement, and maintain clear and well-documented procedures for accession, shipment, and testing of urine specimens.
</P>
<P>(b) Written chain of custody procedures must describe the methods to be used to maintain control and accountability of specimens from receipt through completion of testing and reporting of results, during storage and shipping to the HHS-certified laboratory, and continuing until final disposition of the specimens.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensee testing facilities shall develop, implement, and maintain written standard operating procedures for each assay performed for drug and specimen validity testing. If a licensee testing facility performs validity screening tests, the licensee testing facility shall develop, implement, and maintain written standard operating procedures for each test. The procedures must include, but are not limited to, detailed descriptions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The principles of each test;
</P>
<P>(2) Preparation of reagents, standards, and controls;
</P>
<P>(3) Calibration procedures;
</P>
<P>(4) Derivation of results;
</P>
<P>(5) Linearity of the methods;
</P>
<P>(6) Sensitivity of the methods;
</P>
<P>(7) Cutoff values;
</P>
<P>(8) Mechanisms for reporting results;
</P>
<P>(9) Controls;
</P>
<P>(10) Criteria for unacceptable specimens and results;
</P>
<P>(11) Reagents and expiration dates; and
</P>
<P>(12) References.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensee testing facilities shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures for instrument and test setup and normal operation, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A schedule for checking critical operating characteristics for all instruments and validity screening tests;
</P>
<P>(2) Tolerance limits for acceptable function checks; and
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions for major troubleshooting and repair.
</P>
<P>(e) Licensee testing facilities shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures for remedial actions to be taken when systems, and instrumented and non-instrumented tests are out of acceptable limits or errors are detected. Each facility shall maintain documentation that these procedures are followed and that all necessary corrective actions are taken. In addition, each facility shall have systems in place to verify all stages of testing and reporting and to document the verification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.129" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.129   Assuring specimen security, chain of custody, and preservation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee testing facility must be secure at all times. Each licensee or other entity shall have sufficient security measures in place to control access to the licensee testing facility and to ensure that no unauthorized personnel handle specimens or gain access to the licensee testing facility's processes or areas where records are stored. Access to these secured areas must be limited to specifically authorized individuals whose authorization is documented. All authorized visitors and maintenance and service personnel shall be escorted at all times while in the licensee testing facility.


</P>
<P>(b) When specimens are received, licensee testing facility personnel shall inspect each package for evidence of possible tampering and shall compare information on the specimen containers within each package to the information on the accompanying Federal CCFs. Licensee testing facility personnel shall attempt to resolve any discrepancies identified in the information on specimen bottles or on the accompanying Federal CCFs. When resolving any discrepancies, licensee testing facility personnel shall obtain a memorandum for the record from the specimen collector involved in the discrepancy to document correction of the discrepancy. This memorandum must accompany the specimen(s) and Federal CCFs to the HHS-certified laboratory if the specimen(s) must be transferred.
</P>
<P>(1) Indications of tampering with specimens in transit from the collection site, or at a licensee testing facility, must be reported to senior licensee or other entity management as soon as practical and no later than 8 hours after the indications are identified. In response to a report, licensee or other entity management personnel shall initiate an investigation to determine whether tampering has occurred.
</P>
<P>(i) If the investigation determines that tampering has occurred, licensee or other entity management shall ensure that corrective actions are taken.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is reason to believe that the integrity or identity of a specimen is in question (as a result of tampering or discrepancies between the information on the specimen bottle and on the accompanying Federal CCFs that cannot be resolved), the licensee testing facility shall reject the specimen for testing. The licensee or other entity shall ensure that another collection occurs as soon as reasonably practical, except if a split specimen collection was performed, either the Bottle A or Bottle B seal remains intact, and the intact specimen contains at least 15 mL of urine. In this instance, the licensee testing facility shall forward the intact specimen for testing to the HHS-certified laboratory and may not conduct any testing at the licensee testing facility.
</P>
<P>(2) The following are exclusive grounds requiring the MRO to cancel the testing of a donor's urine specimen and report a cancelled test result to the licensee or other entity:


</P>
<P>(i) The Federal CCF does not contain information to identify the specimen collector and the collection site cannot provide conclusive evidence of the collector's identity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identification numbers on the specimen bottle seal(s) do not match the identification numbers on the Federal CCF;
</P>
<P>(iii) A specimen bottle seal is broken or shows evidence of tampering and an intact specimen, as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, does not exist;
</P>
<P>(iv) The specimen appears to have leaked out of its sealed bottle and there is less than 15 mL remaining, and an intact specimen, as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, does not exist; or
</P>
<P>(v) As required under § 26.165(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee testing facility shall retain specimen containers within the testing facility's accession area until all analyses have been completed. Testing facility personnel shall use aliquots of the specimen and licensee testing facility chain of custody forms, or other appropriate methods of tracking aliquot custody and control, when conducting validity screening and initial validity and drug tests. The original specimen bottles and the original Federal CCFs must remain in secure storage. Licensee testing facility personnel may discard specimens and aliquots as soon as practical after validity screening or initial validity tests have demonstrated that the specimen appears valid and initial test results for drugs and drug metabolites are negative.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee testing facility's procedure for tracking custody and control of specimens and aliquots must protect the identity of the donor, and provide documentation of the testing process and transfers of custody of the specimen and aliquots. Each time a specimen or aliquot is handled or transferred within the licensee testing facility, testing facility personnel shall document the date and purpose and every individual in the chain of custody must be identified.
</P>
<P>(e) Urine specimens identified as positive or of questionable validity at a licensee testing facility must be shipped to an HHS-certified laboratory for testing as soon as reasonably practical.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensee testing facility personnel shall take appropriate and prudent actions to minimize false negative results from specimen degradation. If validity screening or initial validity testing indicate that the specimen is of questionable validity, or initial drug test results are positive, or if a specimen has not been tested within 24 hours of receipt at the licensee testing facility, then the facility shall maintain the specimen cooled to not more than 6 °C (42.8 °F) until it is forwarded to the HHS-certified laboratory for further testing, if required. Split specimens in Bottle B that are associated with positive specimens or specimens of questionable validity in Bottle A must also be maintained cooled (as previously specified) until test results from the HHS-certified laboratory are known to be negative for Bottle A; until the MRO informs the licensee testing facility that Bottle B must be forwarded to an HHS-certified laboratory for testing; or until the specimen is moved to long-term, frozen storage, under § 26.135(c).
</P>
<P>(g) Licensee testing facility personnel shall ensure that the original Federal CCF is packaged with its associated urine specimen bottle. Sealed and labeled specimen bottles, with their associated Federal CCFs, being transferred from the licensee testing facility to the HHS-certified laboratory must be placed in a second, tamper-evident shipping container designed to minimize the possibility of damage to the specimen during shipment (e.g., specimen boxes, padded mailers, or bulk insulated shipping containers with that capability) so that the contents of the shipping containers are no longer accessible without breaking a tamper-evident seal.
</P>
<P>(h) Couriers, express carriers, and postal service personnel do not have direct access to the Federal CCFs or the specimen bottles. Therefore, such personnel are not required to document chain of custody on the Federal CCFs during transit. Custody accountability of the shipping containers during shipment must be maintained by a tracking system provided by the courier, express carrier, or postal service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71459, Nov. 22, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.131" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.131   Cutoff levels for validity screening and initial validity tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each validity test result from the licensee testing facility must be based on performing either a validity screening test or an initial validity test, or both, on one or more aliquots of a urine specimen. The licensee testing facility shall forward any specimen that yields a questionable validity screening or initial validity test result to the HHS-certified laboratory for further testing. Licensee testing facilities need not perform validity screening tests before conducting initial validity tests of a specimen.
</P>
<P>(b) At a minimum, the licensee testing facility shall test each urine specimen for creatinine, pH, and one or more oxidizing adulterants. Licensees and other entities may not specify more stringent cutoff levels for validity screening and initial validity tests than those specified in this section. If tests or observations indicate one or more of the following from either a validity screening test or an initial validity test, the licensee testing facility shall forward the specimen to the HHS-certified laboratory for additional testing:
</P>
<P>(1) Creatinine is less than 20 milligrams (mg) per deciliter (dL);
</P>
<P>(2) The pH of the specimen is either less than 4.5 or equal to or greater than 9, using either a colorimetric pH test with a dynamic range of 2 to 12 or pH meter that is capable of measuring pH to one decimal place (for initial validity tests), or colorimetric pH tests, dipsticks, and pH paper (for pH validity screening tests) that have a narrow dynamic range;
</P>
<P>(3) Nitrite or other oxidant concentration is equal to or greater than 200 micrograms (mcg) per mL or equal to or greater than 200 mcg/mL nitrite-equivalents using either a nitrite colorimetric test or a general oxidant colorimetric test;
</P>
<P>(4) The possible presence of an oxidizing adulterant (e.g., chromium (VI), pyridine (pyridinium chlorochromate)) is determined using either a general oxidant colorimetric test (with a cutoff equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL chromium (VI)-equivalents) or a chromium (VI) colorimetric test (chromium (VI) concentration equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL);
</P>
<P>(5) The possible presence of halogen (e.g., bleach, iodine, fluoride) is determined using a general oxidant colorimetric test (with a cutoff equal to or greater than 200 mcg/mL nitrite-equivalents or equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL chromium (VI)-equivalents), a halogen colorimetric test (halogen concentration equal to or greater than the limit of detection (LOD)), or the odor of the specimen;
</P>
<P>(6) The possible presence of glutaraldehyde is determined using either an aldehyde test (aldehyde present) or the characteristic immunoassay response is observed on one or more drug immunoassay tests;
</P>
<P>(7) The possible presence of a surfactant is determined by using a surfactant colorimetric test with a cutoff equal to or greater than 100 mcg/mL dodecylbenzene sulfonate-equivalent or a foam/shake test; or
</P>
<P>(8) The specimen shows evidence of adulterants, including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Abnormal physical characteristics;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reactions or responses characteristic of an adulterant obtained during the validity screening or initial test; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A possible unidentified interfering substance or adulterant, demonstrated by interference occurring on the immunoassay drug tests on two separate aliquots (<I>i.e.</I>, valid immunoassay drug test results cannot be obtained).






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.133" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.133   Cutoff levels for drugs and drug metabolites.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the provisions of § 26.31(d)(3)(iii), licensees and other entities may specify more stringent cutoff levels for drugs and drug metabolites than those in Table 1 to § 26.133 and, in such cases, may report initial test results for only the more stringent cutoff levels. Otherwise, the following cutoff levels must be used for initial testing of urine specimens to determine whether they are negative or positive for the indicated drugs and drug metabolites:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 26.133—Urine, Initial Test Cutoff Levels for Drugs and Drug Metabolites
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drugs or drug metabolites
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cutoff level


<br/>[nanograms

<br/>(ng)/mL]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marijuana metabolites</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cocaine metabolites</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Opioids:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Codeine/Morphine 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrocodone/Hydromorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxycodone/Oxymorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">6-acetylmorphine (6-AM)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phencyclidine (PCP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amphetamines: 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">AMP/MAMP 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">MDMA 
<sup>4</sup>/MDA 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Morphine is the target analyte for codeine/morphine testing.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Either a single initial test kit or multiple initial test kits may be used provided the single test kit detects each target analyte independently at the specified cutoff.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Methamphetamine (MAMP) is the target analyte for amphetamine (AMP)/MAMP testing.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Methylenedioxymethamphetamine.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Methylenedioxyamphetamine.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 71459, Nov. 22, 2022]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.135" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.135   Split specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the FFD program follows split-specimen procedures, as described in § 26.113, the licensee testing facility shall analyze aliquots of the specimen for the licensee's or other entity's purposes as described in this part. Except as provided in paragraph (b) in this section, the licensee testing facility shall store Bottles A and B of the specimen in a secure manner until the facility has finished testing. If the initial validity and drug test results are negative and the specimen in Bottle A will not be forwarded to the HHS-certified laboratory, the licensee testing facility may discard both Bottle A and Bottle B. If any test results are positive or indicate that the specimen is of questionable validity, the licensee testing facility shall forward Bottle A to the HHS-certified laboratory for testing and shall retain Bottle B in secure storage, under the requirements of § 26.159(i), or may forward it to the HHS-certified laboratory for storage.
</P>
<P>(b) If the MRO confirms any positive, adulterated, or substituted result for a specimen in Bottle A, based on the results of confirmatory testing at an HHS-certified laboratory, and the licensee testing facility has elected to retain Bottle B of the specimen, and the donor requests testing of the specimen in Bottle B, as permitted under § 26.165(b), the MRO shall ensure that Bottle B is forwarded to an HHS-certified laboratory other than the laboratory that tested the specimen in Bottle A, under the procedures specified in § 26.165(b).
</P>
<P>(c) If the MRO confirms that the specimen in Bottle A is positive, adulterated, substituted, or invalid and the donor does not request that Bottle B be tested, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that Bottle B is maintained in long-term frozen storage (−20 °C (−4 °F) or less) for a minimum of 1 year. If a licensee testing facility elects to retain the specimen in Bottle B, rather than forwarding it to the HHS-certified laboratory with Bottle A, the licensee testing facility shall ensure proper storage conditions in the event of a prolonged power failure. After the end of 1 year, the licensee or other entity may discard Bottle B, with the exception that the licensee testing facility shall retain any specimens under legal challenge, or as requested by the NRC, until the specimen is no longer needed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 66602, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.137" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.137   Quality assurance and quality control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Quality assurance program.</I> Each licensee testing facility shall have a quality assurance program that encompasses all aspects of the testing process including, but not limited to, specimen acquisition, chain of custody, security and reporting of results, validity screening (if validity screening tests are performed), initial validity and drug testing, and validation of analytical procedures. Quality assurance procedures must be designed, implemented, and reviewed to monitor the conduct of each step of the process of validity testing and testing for drugs and drug metabolites.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance testing and quality control requirements for validity screening tests.</I> (1) Licensee testing facilities may rely on validity screening tests to determine the need for initial tests of specimen validity either at the licensee testing facility or HHS-certified laboratory. Licensees and other entities shall ensure that the HHS-certified laboratory is capable of conducting confirmatory testing for any adulterant for which the licensee testing facility conducts validity screening tests. Licensee testing facilities shall use only validity screening tests that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Either the test, by lot number, has been placed on the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) list of point-of-collection tests that are approved for use in the Federal Workplace Drug Testing Program; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Before using the test, the licensee or other entity has ensured that the validity screening test, by lot number, effectively identifies specimens of questionable validity by meeting the following performance testing and quality control requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The creatinine validity screening test must use a 20 mg/dL cutoff concentration;
</P>
<P>(B) A pH specimen validity screening test must be able to determine if pH is less than 4.5 and if pH is equal to or greater than 9; and
</P>
<P>(C) An oxidant validity screening test must be able to determine if an oxidant concentration is equal to or greater than a 200 mcg/mL nitrite-equivalent cutoff, and/or a chromium screening test must be able to determine concentrations equal to or greater than a 50 mcg/mL chromium(VI)-equivalent cutoff, and/or a halogen screening test must be able to determine the halogen concentration is equal to or greater than the LOD. Licensees and other entities who use validity screening tests for additional adulterants shall establish performance testing requirements to challenge the licensee testing facility and the HHS-certified laboratory for the additional validity screening test(s);
</P>
<P>(D) The manufacturer has conducted validation studies to document the validity screening test's performance characteristics around each applicable cutoff specified in this section, using performance testing samples that have been formulated to challenge the validity screening test around the applicable cutoffs. These validation studies must demonstrate the validity screening test's ability to differentiate valid samples from those of questionable validity and the performance of the validity screening test(s) around the applicable cutoffs specified in this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) The licensee testing facility shall submit three consecutive sets of performance testing samples to the manufacturer, using performance testing samples that have been formulated to challenge the validity screening test around the applicable cutoffs specified in this paragraph and whose formulation levels have been confirmed by an HHS-certified laboratory. For example, one set of performance testing samples used to challenge a creatinine validity screening test must include at least six samples formulated at different concentrations ranging from 0 to 20 mg/dL. A set of performance testing samples used to challenge a pH validity screening test must include at least six samples formulated with different pH levels that are equal to or less than 4.5, and six samples formulated with different pH levels that are equal to or greater than 9. And, a set of performance testing samples used to challenge an oxidizing adulterant validity screening test must include at least six samples to challenge each validity screening test used. The performance testing samples for oxidizing adulterants must contain nitrite and other oxidizing adulterant concentrations in a range of less than or equal to a 200 mcg/mL nitrite-equivalent cutoff to a 500 mcg/mL nitrite-equivalent cutoff; chromium samples formulated in a range less than or equal to a 50 mcg/mL chromium(VI)-equivalent cutoff to 100 mcg/mL chromium(VI)-equivalent cutoff; or halogen samples formulated in a concentration at or near the LOD and 25 percent above the LOD. The results of analyzing the three consecutive sets of performance test samples for each validity screening test (<I>i.e.</I>, creatinine, pH, nitrite and general oxidants, chromium, or halogen) must demonstrate that the validity screening test, by lot number, correctly identified at least 90 percent of the total validity performance test challenges on each of three sets of performance testing samples, and, for each individual specimen validity screening test, the test, by lot number, correctly identified at least 90 percent of the validity performance test challenges on each of three sets of performance testing samples; and
</P>
<P>(iii) After the licensee testing facility has placed a validity screening test in service, the licensee or other entity shall verify that the test, by lot number, remains on the SAMHSA-approved list. Or, if the SAMHSA-approved list is unavailable, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that the test continues to identify specimens of questionable validity, as demonstrated by documentation from the manufacturer that a set of validity screening tests from each lot in use by the licensee testing facility correctly identified at least 90 percent of the total validity test challenges on a set of performance testing samples, and, for each individual specimen validity screening test, that the test, by lot number, correctly identified at least 90 percent of the validity test challenges. This performance testing must be performed at a nominal annual frequency after the date on which the manufacturer completed the initial validation studies required under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(D) of this section. The performance testing samples used must be formulated to challenge the validity screening test around the applicable cutoffs of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, licensee testing facility personnel who perform the validity screening tests shall conduct quality control testing of validity screening tests as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) At the beginning of any 8-hour period during which the licensee testing facility will perform validity screening tests, licensee testing facility personnel shall test a minimum of one quality control sample that is negative for each specific validity test to be performed (e.g., creatinine, pH, nitrites, chromium) during the 8-hour period, and one quality control sample that is formulated to challenge the validity screening test(s) around the cutoffs specified in this subpart for each specific validity test to be performed during the 8-hour period. The results of these quality control tests must be correct before any donor specimens may be tested.
</P>
<P>(ii) After screening every ten donor specimens during the 8-hour period, licensee testing facility personnel shall also challenge each validity screening test with at least one quality control sample that is formulated to challenge the validity screening test(s) around the cutoffs specified in this subpart. If fewer than ten donor specimens were screened during the 8-hour period or the number of donor specimens tested exceeds a multiple of ten but is less than the next multiple of ten (e.g., 24 donor specimens, 48 donor specimens), licensee testing facility personnel shall challenge each validity screening test at the end of the 8-hour period during which the validity screening tests were performed.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee testing facility shall also submit at least one specimen out of every ten donor specimens that test negative using each validity screening test that the licensee testing facility uses to an HHS-certified laboratory as part of the licensee testing facility's quality assurance program.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensee testing facilities shall store specimen validity tests as specified by the manufacturer's instructions and may not use such tests after the manufacturer's expiration date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Validity screening test results.</I> If the results of a validity screening test indicate that the specimen is of questionable validity, the licensee testing facility may either perform initial validity testing or shall forward the specimen to the HHS-certified laboratory for further testing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quality control requirements for performing initial validity tests.</I> Licensees and other entities shall ensure that the HHS-certified laboratory is capable of conducting confirmatory testing for any adulterant for which the licensee testing facility conducts initial validity tests.
</P>
<P>(1) Creatinine. Creatinine concentration must be measured to 1 decimal place. The initial creatinine test must have a control in the range of 3 to 20 mg/dL and a control in the range of 21 to 25 mg/dL.
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements for performing initial pH tests are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Colorimetric pH tests must have a dynamic range of 2 to 12 and pH meters must be capable of measuring pH to one decimal place.
</P>
<P>(ii) An initial colorimetric pH test must have the following calibrators and controls:
</P>
<P>(A) One calibrator at 3;
</P>
<P>(B) One calibrator at 11;
</P>
<P>(C) One control in the range of 2 to 2.8;
</P>
<P>(D) One control in the range of 3.2 to 4;
</P>
<P>(E) One control in the range of 4.5 to 9;
</P>
<P>(F) One control in the range of 10 to 10.8; and
</P>
<P>(G) One control in the range of 11.2 to 12.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a pH screening test is not used, an initial pH meter test must have the following calibrators and controls:
</P>
<P>(A) One calibrator at 4;
</P>
<P>(B) One calibrator at 7;
</P>
<P>(C) One calibrator at 10;
</P>
<P>(D) One control in the range of 2 to 2.8;
</P>
<P>(E) One control in the range of 3.2 to 4;
</P>
<P>(F) One control in the range of 10 to 10.8; and
</P>
<P>(G) One control in the range of 11.2 to 12.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a pH screening test is used, an initial pH meter test must have the following calibrators and controls when the screening result indicates that the pH is below the lower decision point in use:
</P>
<P>(A) One calibrator at 4;
</P>
<P>(B) One calibrator at 7;
</P>
<P>(C) One control in the range of 2 to 2.8; and
</P>
<P>(D) One control in the range of 3.2 to 4.
</P>
<P>(v) If a pH screening test is used, an initial pH meter test must have the following calibrators and controls when the screening test result indicates that the pH is above the upper decision point in use:
</P>
<P>(A) One calibrator at 7;
</P>
<P>(B) One calibrator at 10;
</P>
<P>(C) One control in the range of 10 to 10.8; and
</P>
<P>(D) One control in the range of 11.2 to 12.
</P>
<P>(3) Oxidizing adulterants. Initial tests for oxidizing adulterants must include a calibrator at the appropriate cutoff concentration for the compound of interest, a control without the compound of interest (<I>i.e.</I>, a certified negative control), and a control with at least one of the compounds of interest at a measurable concentration. For nitrite, the licensee testing facility shall have one control in the range of 200 to 400 mcg/mL, one control in the range of 500 to 625 mcg/mL, and a control without nitrite (<I>i.e.</I>, a certified negative control).
</P>
<P>(4) Other adulterants. Initial tests for other adulterants must include an appropriate calibrator, a control without the compound of interest (<I>i.e.</I>, a certified negative control), and a control with the compound of interest at a measurable concentration.
</P>
<P>(5) Each analytical run performed to conduct initial validity testing shall include at least one quality control sample.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee testing facility shall also submit at least one specimen out of every 10 donor specimens that test negative on the initial validity tests performed by the licensee testing facility to an HHS-certified laboratory as part of the licensee testing facility's quality assurance program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quality control requirements for initial drug tests.</I> (1) Any initial drug test performed by a licensee testing facility must use an immunoassay that meets the requirements of the Food and Drug Administration for commercial distribution. Licensee testing facilities may not use non-instrumented immunoassay testing devices that are pending HHS/SAMHSA review and approval for initial drug testing under this part. In addition, licensees and other entities may not take management actions on the basis of any drug test results obtained from non-instrumented devices that may be used for validity screening tests.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensee testing facilities shall discard negative specimens or may pool them for use in the licensee testing facility's internal quality control program after certification by an HHS-certified laboratory that the specimens are negative and valid. Licensee testing facilities may not retain any information linking donors to specimens that are pooled for use in the internal quality control program.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensee testing facilities may perform multiple initial drug tests for the same drug or drug class, provided that all tests meet the cutoffs and quality control requirements of this part. For example, a licensee testing facility may use immunoassay technique “A” for all drugs using the licensee's or other entity's cutoff levels, but specimens testing positive for amphetamines may also be tested using immunoassay technique “B” to eliminate any possible positives due to structural analogues; or, a valid analytical result cannot be obtained using immunoassay technique “A” and immunoassay technique “B” is used in an attempt to obtain a valid analytical result.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensee testing facilities need not assess their false positive testing rates for drugs, because all specimens that test as positive on the initial tests for drugs and drug metabolites must be forwarded to an HHS-certified laboratory for initial and confirmatory testing.
</P>
<P>(5) To ensure that the rate of false negative drug tests is kept to the minimum that the immunoassay technology supports, licensee testing facilities shall submit to the HHS-certified laboratory a minimum of 5 percent (or at least one) of the donor specimens screened as negative from every analytical run.
</P>
<P>(6) A minimum of 10 percent of the total specimens in each analytical run of specimens to be initially tested for drugs and drug metabolites by the licensee testing facility must be quality control samples (<I>i.e.,</I> calibrators and controls), which the licensee testing facility shall use for internal quality control purposes. (These samples are not forwarded to the HHS-certified laboratory for further testing, other than for performance testing of the samples.) Licensee testing facilities shall ensure that quality control samples that are positive for each drug and drug metabolite for which the FFD program conducts testing are included in at least one analytical run each calendar quarter. The quality control samples for each analytical run must include—
</P>
<P>(i) At least one control certified by an HHS-certified laboratory to contain no drug or drug metabolite;
</P>
<P>(ii) At least one positive control with the drug or drug metabolite targeted at 25 percent above the cutoff;
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one positive control with the drug or drug metabolite targeted at 75 percent of the cutoff;
</P>
<P>(iv) A sufficient number of calibrators to ensure and document the linearity of the assay method over time in the concentration area of the cutoff (after acceptable values are obtained for the known calibrators, those values will be used to calculate sample data); and
</P>
<P>(7) Licensee testing facilities shall document the implementation of procedures to ensure that carryover does not contaminate the testing of a donor's specimen.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Errors in testing.</I> Each licensee testing facility shall investigate any testing errors or unsatisfactory performance discovered in the testing of quality control samples, in the testing of actual specimens, or through the processing of management reviews and/or MRO reviews, as well as any other errors or matters that could adversely reflect on the licensee testing facility's testing process.
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever possible, the investigation must determine relevant facts and identify the root cause(s) of the testing or process error.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee testing facility shall take action to correct the cause(s) of any errors or unsatisfactory performance that are within the licensee testing facility's control.
</P>
<P>(3) If false negative results are obtained in any analytical run from testing the quality control samples specified in paragraphs (b), (d), and (e) of this section at the licensee testing facility, the licensee testing facility shall forward all donor specimens from that analytical run to the HHS-certified laboratory for additional testing and implement corrective actions before resuming testing of donor specimens for the drug(s), drug metabolite(s), adulterant(s), or other specimen characteristics (<I>i.e.</I>, creatinine, pH) associated with the quality control sample that yielded the false negative result(s).
</P>
<P>(4) If a donor specimen that yielded negative validity or drug test results at the licensee testing facility yields positive, substituted, adulterated, or invalid results after confirmatory testing by the HHS-certified laboratory under paragraphs (b)(3), (d)(6), or (e)(5) of this section, the licensee or other entity shall implement corrective actions before resuming testing of donor specimens for the drug(s), drug metabolite(s), adulterant(s), or other specimen characteristics (<I>i.e.</I>, creatinine, pH) associated with the donor specimen that yielded the false negative result(s). In addition to resolving any technical, methodological, or administrative errors in the licensee testing facility's testing process, the licensee or other entity may re-collect and test specimens from any donor whose test results from the licensee testing facility may have been inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(5) A record of the investigative findings and the corrective actions taken, where applicable, must be dated and signed by the individuals who are responsible for the day-to-day management of the licensee testing facility and reported to appropriate levels of management.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Accuracy.</I> Volumetric pipettes and measuring devices must be certified for accuracy or be checked by gravimetric, colorimetric, or other verification procedure. Automatic pipettes and dilutors must be checked for accuracy and reproducibility before being placed in service, and periodically thereafter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calibrators and controls.</I> Calibrators and controls must be prepared using pure drug reference materials, stock standard solutions obtained from other laboratories, or standard solutions that are obtained from commercial manufacturers and are properly labeled as to content and concentration. Calibrators and controls may not be prepared from the same stock solution. The standards and controls must be labeled with the following dates: when received; when prepared or opened; when placed in service; and when scheduled for expiration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 38328, Aug. 3, 2009; 87 FR 71459, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.139" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.6.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.139   Reporting initial validity and drug test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee testing facility shall report as negative all specimens that are valid on the basis of validity screening or initial validity tests, or both, and are negative on the initial tests for drugs and drug metabolites. Except as permitted under § 26.75(h), positive test results from initial drug tests at the licensee testing facility may not be reported to licensee or other entity management. In addition, the licensee testing facility may not report results from validity screening or initial validity testing indicating that a specimen is of questionable validity or positive initial drug test results from specimens that are of questionable validity.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in §§ 26.37 and 26.75(h), access to the results of initial tests must be limited to the licensee testing facility's staff, the MRO and MRO staff, the FFD program manager, and, when appropriate, EAP staff and the SAE.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee testing facility shall provide qualified personnel, when required, to testify in an administrative or disciplinary proceeding against an individual when that proceeding is based on urinalysis results reported by the licensee testing facility.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee testing facility shall prepare the information required for the annual report to the NRC, as required in § 26.717.
</P>
<P>(e) The data in the annual report to the NRC must be presented for either the cutoff levels specified in this part, or for more stringent cutoff levels, if the FFD program uses more stringent cutoff levels for drugs and drug metabolites. If the FFD program tests for drugs and drug metabolites that are not specified in § 26.31(d)(1), the summary must also include the number of positive test results and the cutoff levels used for those drugs and drug metabolites.
</P>
<P>(f) The designated FFD program official shall use the available information from the licensee testing facility's validity and drug test results, the results of quality control testing performed at the licensee testing facility, and the results from testing the quality control samples that the licensee testing facility submits to the HHS-certified laboratory to evaluate continued testing program effectiveness and detect any local trends in drugs of abuse that may require management action or FFD program adjustments. FFD program adjustments may include, but are not limited to, training enhancements, procedure changes, the expansion of the FFD program's drug panel to include additional drugs to be tested, or changes in the types of assays, validity screening tests, or instruments used.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Laboratories Certified by the Department of Health and Human Services</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.151" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.151   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains requirements for the HHS-certified laboratories that licensees and other entities use to perform testing under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 71459, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.153" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.153   Using certified laboratories for testing specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities who are subject to this part shall use only HHS-certified laboratories as defined in § 26.5.


</P>
<P>(b) HHS-certified laboratories shall have the capability, at the same premises, to perform both initial and confirmatory tests for specimen validity and for each drug and drug metabolite for which the HHS-certified laboratory provides services to the licensee or other entity.
</P>
<P>(c) An HHS-certified laboratory may not subcontract and shall perform all work with its own personnel and equipment unless otherwise authorized by the licensee or other entity.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees and other entities shall use only HHS-certified laboratories that agree to follow the same rigorous specimen testing, quality control, and chain of custody procedures when testing for more stringent cutoff levels as may be specified by licensees and other entities for the classes of drugs identified in this part, and for any other substances included in the licensees' or other entities' panels.
</P>
<P>(e) Before awarding a contract to an HHS-certified laboratory, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that qualified personnel conduct a pre-award inspection and evaluation of the procedural aspects of the laboratory's drug testing operations. However, if an HHS-certified laboratory loses its certification, in whole or in part, a licensee or other entity may immediately begin using another HHS-certified laboratory that is being used by another licensee or entity who is subject to this part, as permitted by § 26.41(g)(5).
</P>
<P>(f) All contracts between licensees or other entities who are subject to this part and HHS-certified laboratories must require the laboratory to implement all applicable requirements of this part. At a minimum, licensees' and other entities' contracts with HHS-certified laboratories must include the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Laboratory facilities shall comply with the applicable provisions of any State licensor requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) The laboratory shall make available qualified personnel to testify in an administrative or disciplinary proceeding against an individual when that proceeding is based on urinalysis results reported by the HHS-certified laboratory;
</P>
<P>(3) The laboratory shall maintain test records in confidence, consistent with the requirements of § 26.37, and use them with the highest regard for individual privacy.
</P>
<P>(4) Consistent with the principles established in section 503 of Public Law 100-71, any employee of a licensee or other entity who is the subject of a drug test (or his or her representative designated under § 26.37(d)) shall, on written request, have access to the laboratory's records related to his or her validity and drug test and any records related to the results of any relevant certification, review, or revocation-of-certification proceedings;
</P>
<P>(5) The laboratory may not enter into any relationship with the licensee's or other entity's MRO(s) that may be construed as a potential conflict of interest, including, but not limited to, the relationships described in § 26.183(b), and may not derive any financial benefit by having a licensee or other entity use a specific MRO; and
</P>
<P>(6) The laboratory shall permit representatives of the NRC and any licensee or other entity using the laboratory's services to inspect the laboratory at any time, including unannounced inspections.
</P>
<P>(g) If licensees or other entities use a form other than the current Federal CCF, licensees and other entities shall provide a memorandum to the laboratory explaining why a non-Federal CCF was used, but must ensure, at a minimum, that the form used contains all the required information on the Federal CCF.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 38328, Aug. 3, 2009; 87 FR 71459, Nov. 22, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.155" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.155   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.157" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.157   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HHS-certified laboratories shall develop, implement, and maintain procedures specific to this part that document the accession, receipt, shipment, and testing of specimens.


</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 71459, Nov. 22, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.159" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.159   Assuring specimen security, chain of custody, and preservation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The HHS-certified laboratories performing services for licensees and other entities under this part shall be secure at all times. Each laboratory shall have in place sufficient security measures to control access to the premises and to ensure that no unauthorized personnel handle specimens or gain access to the laboratory processes or areas where records are stored. Access to these secured areas must be limited to specially authorized individuals whose authorization is documented. All authorized visitors, and maintenance and service personnel, shall be escorted at all times in the laboratory, except personnel who are authorized to conduct inspections and audits on behalf of licensees, other entities, the NRC, or the HHS Secretary, and emergency personnel (including but not limited to firefighters and medical rescue teams).


</P>
<P>(b) When a shipment of specimens is received, laboratory personnel shall inspect each package for evidence of possible tampering and shall compare information on specimen bottles within each package to the information on the accompanying Federal CCFs.
</P>
<P>(1) Any direct evidence of tampering or discrepancies in the information on the specimen bottles and the Federal CCFs attached to the shipment must be reported to the licensee or other entity within 24 hours of the discovery and must be noted on the Federal CCFs for each specimen contained in the package. When notified, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that an investigation is initiated to determine whether tampering has occurred.
</P>
<P>(i) If the investigation determines that tampering has occurred, the licensee or other entity shall ensure that corrective actions are taken.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the licensee or other entity has reason to question the integrity and identity of the specimens, the laboratory shall reject the specimens for testing. The licensee or other entity shall ensure that another collection occurs as soon as reasonably practical, except if a split specimen collection was performed, either the Bottle A or Bottle B seal remains intact, and the intact specimen contains at least 15 mL of urine. In this instance, if the licensee testing facility has retained the specimen in Bottle B, the licensee testing facility shall forward the intact specimen for testing to the HHS-certified laboratory and may not conduct any testing at the licensee testing facility.
</P>
<P>(2) The following are exclusive grounds requiring the MRO to cancel the testing of a donor's urine specimen and report a cancelled test to the licensee or other entity:


</P>
<P>(i) The Federal CCF does not contain information to identify the specimen collector and the collection site cannot provide conclusive evidence of the collector's identity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identification numbers on the specimen bottle seal(s) do not match the identification numbers on the Federal CCF;
</P>
<P>(iii) A specimen bottle seal is broken or shows evidence of tampering and an intact specimen, as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, does not exist;
</P>
<P>(iv) The specimen appears to have leaked out of its sealed bottle and there is less than 15 mL remaining, and an intact specimen, as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, does not exist; or
</P>
<P>(v) As required under § 26.165(f)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) The HHS-certified laboratory shall retain specimen bottles within the laboratory's accession area until all analyses have been completed.  Laboratory personnel shall use aliquots and laboratory internal chain of custody forms when conducting initial and confirmatory tests. The original specimen and the original Federal CCF must remain in secure storage.
</P>
<P>(d) The laboratory's internal chain of custody form must allow for identification of the donor and documentation of the testing process and transfers of custody of the specimen.
</P>
<P>(e) Each time a specimen is handled or transferred within the laboratory, laboratory personnel shall document the date and purpose on the chain of custody form and every individual in the chain shall be identified. Authorized technicians are responsible for each urine specimen or aliquot in their possession and shall sign and complete chain of custody forms for those specimens or aliquots as they are received.


</P>
<P>(f) If a specimen is to be transferred to a second HHS-certified laboratory, laboratory personnel shall ensure that a copy of the Federal CCF is packaged with the aliquot of a single specimen or Bottle B of a split specimen, as appropriate. Sealed and labeled specimen bottles and aliquots, with their associated Federal CCFs , being transferred from one laboratory to another must be placed in a second, tamper-evident shipping container designed to minimize the possibility of damage to the specimen during shipment (e.g., specimen boxes, padded mailers, or bulk insulated shipping containers with that capability) so that the contents of the shipping containers are inaccessible without breaking a tamper-evident seal.
</P>
<P>(g) Couriers, express carriers, and postal service personnel do not have direct access to the Federal CCFs or the specimen bottles. Therefore, such personnel are not required to document chain of custody on the Federal CCFs during transit. Custody accountability of the shipping containers during shipment must be maintained by a tracking system provided by the courier, express carrier, or postal service.
</P>
<P>(h) Specimens that do not receive an initial test within 7 days of arrival at the laboratory must be placed in secure refrigeration units for short-term storage. Temperatures may not exceed 6 °C (42.8 °F). The laboratory shall ensure proper storage conditions in the event of a prolonged power failure.
</P>
<P>(i) Long-term frozen storage at a temperature of −20 °C (−4 °F) or less ensures that positive, adulterated, substituted, and invalid urine specimens and Bottle B of a split specimen will be available for any necessary retests. Unless otherwise authorized in writing by the licensee or other entity, laboratories shall retain and place in properly secured long-term frozen storage all specimens reported as positive, adulterated, substituted, or invalid. At a minimum, such specimens must be stored for 1 year. Within this 1-year period, a licensee, other entity, or the NRC may ask the laboratory to retain the specimen for an additional period of time. If no retention request is received, the laboratory may discard the specimen at the end of 1 year. However, the laboratory shall retain any specimens under review or legal challenge until they are no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(j) The laboratory shall discard a valid specimen that tests negative on initial or confirmatory drug tests or may pool such specimens for use in the laboratory's internal quality control program after certifying that the specimens are negative and valid. The laboratory may not retain any information linking donors to specimens that are pooled for use in the internal quality control program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 66602, Nov. 10, 2014; 87 FR 71460, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.161" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.161   Cutoff levels for validity testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Validity test results.</I> Each validity test result for a specimen that the HHS-certified laboratory reports to the MRO as adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid must be based on performing an initial validity test on one aliquot and a confirmatory validity test on a second aliquot. Licensees and other entities shall ensure that the HHS-certified laboratory is capable of conducting, and conducts, confirmatory testing for at least one oxidizing adulterant and any other adulterants specified by the licensee's or other entity's testing program. If initial validity test results indicate that the specimen is valid under the criteria in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section, the HHS-certified laboratory need not perform confirmatory validity testing of the specimen.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial validity testing of urine.</I> The HHS-certified laboratory shall perform initial validity testing of each specimen as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the creatinine concentration;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine the specific gravity of every specimen for which the creatinine concentration is less than 20 mg/dL;
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the pH;
</P>
<P>(4) Perform one or more initial validity tests for oxidizing adulterants; and
</P>
<P>(5) Perform additional validity tests, the choice of which depends on the observed indicators or characteristics below, when the following conditions are observed:
</P>
<P>(i) Abnormal physical characteristics;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reactions or responses characteristic of an adulterant obtained during initial or confirmatory drug tests (e.g., non-recovery of internal standards, unusual response); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Possible unidentified interfering substance or adulterant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Results indicating an adulterated specimen.</I> The laboratory shall report a specimen as adulterated when the specimen yields any one or more of the following validity testing results:
</P>
<P>(1) The pH is less than 3, or equal to or greater than 11, using either a pH meter or a colorimetric pH test for the initial test on the first aliquot and a pH meter for the confirmatory test on the second aliquot;
</P>
<P>(2) The nitrite concentration is equal to or greater than 500 mcg/mL using either a nitrite colorimetric test or a general oxidant colorimetric test for the initial test on the first aliquot and a different confirmatory test (e.g., multi-wavelength spectrophotometry, ion chromatography, capillary electrophoresis) on the second aliquot;
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of chromium (VI) is verified using either a general oxidant colorimetric test (with a cutoff equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL chromium (VI)-equivalents) or a chromium (VI) colorimetric test (chromium (VI) concentration equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL) for the initial test on the first aliquot and a different confirmatory test (e.g., multi-wavelength spectrophotometry, ion chromatography, atomic absorption spectrophotometry, capillary electrophoresis, inductively coupled plasma-mass spectrometry) with the chromium (VI) concentration equal to or greater than the LOQ of the confirmatory test on the second aliquot;
</P>
<P>(4) The presence of halogen (e.g., bleach, iodine, fluoride) is verified using either a general oxidant colorimetric test (with a cutoff equal to or greater than 200 mcg/mL nitrite-equivalents or a cutoff equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL chromium (VI)-equivalents) or a halogen colorimetric test (halogen concentration equal to or greater than the  LOQ) for the initial test on the first aliquot and a different confirmatory test (e.g., multi-wavelength spectrophotometry, ion chromatography, inductively coupled plasma-mass spectrometry) with a specific halogen concentration equal to or greater than the LOQ of the confirmatory test on the second aliquot;
</P>
<P>(5) The presence of glutaraldehyde is verified using either an aldehyde test (aldehyde present) or the specimen yields the characteristic immunoassay response on one or more drug immunoassay tests for the initial test on the first aliquot and a different confirmatory test (<I>e.g.,</I> gas chromatography/mass spectrometry (GC/MS)) for the confirmatory test with the glutaraldehyde concentration equal to or greater than the LOQ of the analysis on the second aliquot;
</P>
<P>(6) The presence of pyridine (pyridinium chlorochromate) is verified using either a general oxidant colorimetric test (with a cutoff equal to or greater than 200 mcg/mL nitrite-equivalents or a cutoff equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL chromium (VI)-equivalents) or a chromium (VI) colorimetric test (chromium (VI) concentration equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL) for the initial test on the first aliquot and a different confirmatory test (<I>e.g.,</I> GC/MS) for the confirmatory test with the pyridine concentration equal to or greater than the LOQ of the analysis on the second aliquot;
</P>
<P>(7) The presence of a surfactant is verified by using a surfactant colorimetric test with a cutoff equal to or greater than 100 mcg/mL dodecylbenzene sulfonate-equivalent for the initial test on the first aliquot and a different confirmatory test (e.g., multi-wavelength spectrophotometry) with a cutoff equal to or greater than 100 mcg/mL dodecylbenzene sulfonate equivalent on the second aliquot; or
</P>
<P>(8) The presence of any other adulterant not specified in paragraphs (c)(3) through (c)(7) of this section is verified using an initial test on the first aliquot and a different confirmatory test on the second aliquot.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Results indicating a substituted urine specimen.</I> The laboratory shall report a specimen as substituted when the specimen's creatinine concentration is less than 2 mg/dL and its specific gravity is less than or equal to 1.0010, or equal to or greater than 1.0200, on both the initial and confirmatory creatinine tests (<I>i.e.</I>, the same colorimetric test may be used to test both aliquots) and on both the initial and confirmatory specific gravity tests (<I>i.e.</I>, a refractometer is used to test both aliquots) on two separate aliquots.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Results indicating a dilute urine specimen.</I> The laboratory shall report a specimen as dilute when the specimen's creatinine concentration is equal to or greater than 2 mg/dL but less than 20 mg/dL and its specific gravity is greater than 1.0010 but less than 1.0030 on a single aliquot.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Results indicating an invalid specimen.</I> The laboratory shall report a specimen as invalid when the laboratory obtains any one or more of the following validity testing results:
</P>
<P>(1) Inconsistent creatinine concentration and specific gravity results are obtained (<I>i.e.</I>, the creatinine concentration is less than 2 mg/dL on both the initial and confirmatory creatinine tests and the specific gravity is greater than 1.0010 but less than 1.0200 on the initial and/or confirmatory specific gravity test, the specific gravity is less than or equal to 1.0010 on both the initial and confirmatory specific gravity tests and the creatinine concentration is equal to or greater than 2 mg/dL on either or both the initial or confirmatory creatinine tests);
</P>
<P>(2) The pH is equal to or greater than 3 and less than 4.5, or equal to or greater than 9 and less than 11, using either a colorimetric pH test or pH meter for the initial test and a pH meter for the confirmatory test on two separate aliquots;
</P>
<P>(3) The nitrite concentration is equal to or greater than 200 mcg/mL using a nitrite colorimetric test, or equal to or greater than the equivalent of 200 mcg/mL nitrite using a general oxidant colorimetric test for both the initial test and the confirmatory test, or, using either initial test, the nitrite concentration is equal to or greater than 200 mcg/mL but less than 500 mcg/mL using a different confirmatory test (e.g., multi-wavelength spectrophotometry, ion chromatography, capillary electrophoresis) on two separate aliquots;
</P>
<P>(4) The possible presence of chromium (VI) is determined using the same chromium (VI) colorimetric test with a cutoff equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL chromium (VI) for both the initial test and the confirmatory test on two separate aliquots;
</P>
<P>(5) The possible presence of a halogen (e.g., bleach, iodine, fluoride) is determined using the same halogen colorimetric test with a cutoff equal to or greater than the LOQ for both the initial test and the confirmatory test on two separate aliquots or relying on the odor of the specimen as the initial test;
</P>
<P>(6) The possible presence of glutaraldehyde is determined using the same aldehyde test (aldehyde present) or the characteristic immunoassay response is observed on one or more drug immunoassay tests for both the initial test and the confirmatory test on two separate aliquots;
</P>
<P>(7) The possible presence of an oxidizing adulterant is determined by using the same general oxidant colorimetric test (with cutoffs equal to or greater than 200 mcg/mL nitrite-equivalents, equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL chromium (VI)-equivalents, or a halogen concentration equal to or greater than the LOQ) for both the initial test and the confirmatory test on two separate aliquots;
</P>
<P>(8) The possible presence of a surfactant is determined using the same surfactant colorimetric test with a cutoff equal to or greater than 100 mcg/mL dodecylbenzene sulfonate-equivalent for both the initial test and the confirmatory test on two separate aliquots or a foam/shake test for the initial test;
</P>
<P>(9) Interference occurs on the immunoassay drug tests on two separate aliquots (<I>i.e.</I>, valid immunoassay drug test results cannot be obtained);
</P>
<P>(10) Interference with the drug confirmation assay occurs on at least two separate aliquots of the specimen, and the laboratory is unable to identify the interfering substance;
</P>
<P>(11) The physical appearance of the specimen indicates that testing may damage the laboratory's equipment; or
</P>
<P>(12) The physical appearances of Bottles A and B (when a split specimen collection is used) are clearly different, and either the test result for Bottle A indicated it is an invalid specimen or the specimen in Bottle A was screened negative for drugs, or both.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional testing by a second laboratory.</I> If the presence of an interfering substance/adulterant is suspected that could make a test result invalid, but it cannot be identified (e.g., a new adulterant), laboratory personnel shall consult with the licensee's or other entity's MRO and, with the MRO's agreement, shall send the specimen to another HHS-certified laboratory that has the capability to identify the suspected substance.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Validity test cutoff levels.</I> Licensees and other entities may use more stringent cutoff levels for validity tests than those specified in this section only if the testing is performed at an HHS-certified laboratory.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71460, Nov. 22, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.163" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.163   Cutoff levels for drugs and drug metabolites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial drug testing.</I> (1) HHS-certified laboratories shall apply the following cutoff levels for initial testing of specimens to determine whether they are negative or positive for the indicated drugs and drug metabolites, except as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or the licensee or other entity has established more stringent cutoff levels:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)—Urine, Initial Test Cutoff Levels for Drugs and Drug Metabolites
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drugs or drug metabolites
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cutoff level


<br/>[nanograms

<br/>(ng)/mL]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marijuana metabolites</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cocaine metabolites</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Opioids:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Codeine/Morphine
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrocodone/Hydromorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxycodone/Oxymorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">6-acetylmorphine (6-AM)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phencyclidine (PCP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amphetamines: 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">AMP/MAMP 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">MDMA 
<sup>4</sup>/MDA 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Morphine is the target analyte for codeine/morphine testing.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Either a single initial test kit or multiple initial test kits may be used provided the single test kit detects each target analyte independently at the specified cutoff.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Methamphetamine (MAMP) is the target analyte for amphetamine (AMP)/MAMP testing.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Methylenedioxymethamphetamine.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Methylenedioxyamphetamine.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)—Oral Fluid, Initial Test Cutoff Levels for Drugs and Drug Metabolites
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drugs or drug metabolites
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cutoff level 
<sup>1</sup>


<br/>[nanograms

<br/>(ng)/mL]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marijuana (THC) 
<sup>2</sup> 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cocaine/Benzoylecgonine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Opioids:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Codeine/Morphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrocodone/Hydromorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxycodone/Oxymorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">6-acetylmorphine (6-AM)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phencyclidine (PCP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amphetamines:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">AMP/MAMP 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">MDMA/MDA 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For grouped analytes (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> two or more analytes in the same drug class with the same initial test cutoff):
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">• Immunoassay: The test must be calibrated with one analyte from the group identified as the target analyte. The cross reactivity of the immunoassay to the other analyte(s) within the group must be 80 percent or greater; if not, separate immunoassays must be used for the analytes within the group.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">• Alternative technology: Either one analyte or all analytes from the group must be used for calibration, depending on the technology. At least one analyte within the group must have a concentration equal to or greater than the initial test cutoff or, alternatively, the sum of the analytes present.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> An immunoassay must be calibrated with the target analyte, delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Alternate technology (THC and 6-AM): The confirmatory tests cutoff must be used for an alternate technology initial test that is specific for the target analyte (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> 2 ng/mL for THC, 2 ng/mL for 6-AM).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Amphetamine (AMP) and methamphetamine (MAMP).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) and methylenedioxyamphetamine (MDA).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) HHS-certified laboratories shall conduct special analyses of specimens as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If initial validity testing indicates that a specimen is dilute, or if a specimen is collected under direct observation for any of the conditions specified in § 26.115(a)(1) through (3) or (a)(5), the laboratory shall compare the immunoassay responses of the specimen to the cutoff calibrator in each drug class tested;
</P>
<P>(ii) If any immunoassay response is equal to or greater than 40 percent of the cutoff calibrator, the laboratory shall conduct confirmatory drug testing of the specimen to the LOQ for those drugs and/or drug metabolites; and




</P>
<P>(iii) The laboratory shall report the numerical values obtained from this special analysis to the MRO.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmatory drug testing.</I> (1) A specimen that is identified as positive on an initial drug test must be subject to confirmatory testing for the class(es) of drugs for which the specimen initially tested positive. The HHS-certified laboratory shall apply the confirmatory cutoff levels specified in this paragraph, except as permitted in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or the licensee or other entity has established more stringent cutoff levels.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1)—Urine, Confirmatory Test Cutoff Levels for Drugs and Drug Metabolites
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drugs or drug metabolites
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cutoff level


<br/>(ng/mL)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marijuana metabolite 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cocaine metabolite 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Opioids:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Morphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Codeine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrocodone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydromorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxycodone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxymorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">6-acetylmorphine (6-AM)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phencyclidine (PCP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amphetamines:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Amphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methamphetamine 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylenedioxyamphetamine (MDA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> As delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol-9-carboxylic acid (THCA).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> As benzoylecgonine.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> To be reported positive for methamphetamine, a specimen must also contain amphetamine at a concentration equal to or greater than 100 ng/mL.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1)—Oral Fluid, Confirmatory Test Cutoff Levels for Drugs and Drug Metabolites
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Drugs or drug metabolites
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cutoff level


<br/>[nanograms

<br/>(ng)/mL]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marijuana (THC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cocaine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benzoylecgonine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Opioids:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Codeine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Morphine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrocodone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydromorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxycodone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oxymorphone</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">6-acetylmorphine (6-AM)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phencyclidine (PCP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amphetamines:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Amphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methamphetamine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methylenedioxyamphetamine (MDA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Each confirmatory drug test must provide a quantitative result. When the concentration of a drug or metabolite exceeds the linear range of the standard curve, the laboratory may record the result as “exceeds the linear range of the test” or as “equal to or greater than &lt;insert the value for the upper limit of the linear range&gt;,” or may dilute an aliquot of the specimen to obtain an accurate quantitative result when the concentration is above the upper limit of the linear range.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71460, Nov. 22, 2022]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.165" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.165   Testing split specimens and retesting single specimens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Testing split specimens.</I> (1) If a specimen has been split into Bottle A and Bottle B at the collection site, and the specimen was not initially tested at a licensee testing facility, then the HHS-certified laboratory shall perform initial and confirmatory validity and drug testing, if required, of the specimen in Bottle A.
</P>
<P>(2) If a specimen was initially tested at a licensee testing facility and positive or questionable validity test results were obtained, then the HHS-certified laboratory shall perform initial and confirmatory testing, if required, of the specimen in Bottle A. 
</P>
<P>(3) At the licensee's or other entity's discretion, Bottle B must either be forwarded to the HHS-certified laboratory or maintained in secure storage at the licensee testing facility, as required by § 26.135(a) and (c), as applicable. If the specimen in Bottle A is free of any evidence of drugs or drug metabolites, and is a valid specimen, then the licensee testing facility or HHS-certified laboratory may discard the specimens in Bottles A and B.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Donor request to MRO for a retest of a single specimen or testing Bottle B of a split specimen.</I> (1) For a confirmed positive, adulterated, or substituted result reported on a single specimen of 30 mL or more, or a specimen in Bottle A of a split specimen which the donor submitted to the licensee or other entity, a donor may request (through the MRO) that an aliquot from the single specimen or the split (Bottle B) specimen be tested by a second HHS-certified laboratory to verify the result reported by the first laboratory. For an invalid test result, a donor may not request that an aliquot from the single specimen or the split specimen in Bottle B be tested by a second HHS-certified laboratory.
</P>
<P>(2) The MRO shall inform the donor that he or she may, within 3 business days of notification by the MRO of the confirmed positive, adulterated, or substituted test result, request the retesting of an aliquot of the single specimen or the testing of the Bottle B split specimen. The MRO shall provide the donor with specific instructions for making this request (<I>i.e.</I>, providing telephone numbers or other contact information). The MRO shall have the ability to receive the donor's calls at all times during the 3-day period (e.g., by use of an answering machine with a “time stamp” feature when there is no one in the MRO's office to answer the phone). The donor's request may be oral or in writing. The MRO shall document in his or her records when (<I>i.e.,</I> date and time) the request was received from the donor to retest an aliquot of the single specimen or to test the Bottle B split specimen.
</P>
<P>(3) No entity, other than the MRO as permitted in § 26.185(l), may order the retesting of an aliquot of the single specimen or the testing of the Bottle B split specimen.
</P>
<P>(4) If the donor has not requested a retest of an aliquot of a single specimen or a test of the split specimen (Bottle B) within 3 business days, the donor may present to the MRO information documenting that serious injury, illness, lack of actual notice of the confirmed test result, inability to contact the MRO (e.g., there was no one in the MRO's office and the answering machine was not working), or other circumstances unavoidably prevented the donor from making a timely request. If the MRO concludes from the donor's information that there was a legitimate reason for the donor's failure to contact the MRO within the 3 business days permitted, the MRO shall direct the retesting of an aliquot of the single specimen or the test of the split specimen (Bottle B) take place, as if the donor had made a timely request.
</P>
<P>(5) As soon as reasonably practical and not more than 1 business day following the day of the donor's request, as permitted in paragraph (b)(3) or (b)(4) of this section, the MRO shall ensure that the HHS-certified laboratory forwards an aliquot of a single specimen, or that the HHS-certified laboratory (or licensee testing facility, as appropriate) forwards Bottle B of a split specimen, to a second HHS-certified laboratory that did not test the specimen in Bottle A.
</P>
<P>(6) The HHS-certified laboratory that retests an aliquot of a single specimen or tests the specimen in Bottle B shall provide quantitative test results to the MRO and the MRO shall provide them to the donor.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retesting a specimen for drugs.</I> (1) The second laboratory shall use its confirmatory drug test when retesting an aliquot of a single specimen or testing Bottle B of a split specimen for the drug(s) or drug metabolite(s) for which the first laboratory reported a positive result(s), including retesting specimens that have been subject to the special analysis permitted in § 26.163(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) Because some drugs or drug metabolites may deteriorate during storage, the retest by the second laboratory is not subject to a specific drug cutoff level, but must provide data sufficient to reconfirm the presence of the drug(s) or drug metabolite(s) down to the assay's LOD.
</P>
<P>(3) If the second laboratory fails to reconfirm the presence of the drug(s) or drug metabolite(s) for which the first laboratory reported a positive result(s), the second laboratory shall attempt to determine the reason for not reconfirming the first laboratory's findings by conducting specimen validity tests. The second laboratory shall conduct the same specimen validity tests it would conduct on a single specimen or the specimen in Bottle A of a split specimen.
</P>
<P>(4) The second laboratory shall report all results to the licensee's or other entity's MRO.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retesting a specimen for adulterants.</I> A second laboratory shall use the required confirmatory validity test and criteria in § 26.161(c) to reconfirm an adulterant result when retesting an aliquot from a single specimen or when testing Bottle B of a split specimen. The second laboratory may only conduct the confirmatory validity test needed to reconfirm the adulterant result reported by the first laboratory.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retesting a specimen for substitution.</I> A second laboratory shall use its confirmatory creatinine and confirmatory specific gravity tests, when retesting an aliquot of a single specimen or testing Bottle B of a split specimen, to reconfirm that the creatinine concentration was less than 2 mg/dL and the specific gravity was less than or equal to 1.0010 or equal to or greater than 1.0200. The second laboratory may only conduct the confirmatory creatinine and specific gravity tests to reconfirm the substitution result reported by the first laboratory.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Management actions and sanctions.</I> (1) If the MRO confirms a positive, adulterated, or substituted test result(s) from the first HHS-certified laboratory and the donor requests testing of Bottle B of a split specimen or retesting of an aliquot from a single specimen, the licensee or other entity shall administratively withdraw the individual's authorization on the basis of the first confirmed positive, adulterated, or substituted test result until the results of testing Bottle B or retesting an aliquot of the single specimen are available and have been reviewed by the MRO. If the MRO reports that the results of testing Bottle B or retesting the aliquot of a single specimen reconfirm any of the original positive, adulterated, or substituted test result(s), the licensee or other entity shall impose the appropriate sanctions specified in subpart D.  If the results of testing Bottle B or retesting the aliquot of a single specimen are negative, the MRO shall report a cancelled test result to the licensee or other entity, and the licensee and other entity—


</P>
<P>(i) May not impose any sanctions on the individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall eliminate from the donor's personnel file and other records any matter that could link the individual to the temporary administrative action;
</P>
<P>(iii) May not disclose the temporary administrative action in response to a suitable inquiry conducted under the provisions of § 26.63 or to any other inquiry or investigation required in this chapter. To ensure that no records have been retained, access to the system of files and records must be provided to personnel conducting reviews, inquiries into allegations, or audits under the provisions of § 26.41, or to NRC inspectors; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Shall provide the tested individual with a written statement that the records specified in §§ 26.713 and 26.715 have not been retained and shall inform the individual in writing that the temporary administrative action that was taken will not be disclosed and need not be disclosed by the individual in response to requests for self-disclosure of potentially disqualifying FFD information.
</P>
<P>(2) If a donor requests that Bottle B be tested or that an aliquot of the single specimen be retested, and either Bottle B or the single specimen are not available due to circumstances outside of the donor's control (including, but not limited to, circumstances in which there is an insufficient quantity of the single specimen or the specimen in Bottle B to permit retesting, either Bottle B or the original single specimen is lost in transit to the second HHS-certified laboratory, or Bottle B has been lost at the HHS-certified laboratory or licensee testing facility), the MRO shall cancel the test, report a cancelled test result to the licensee or other entity for the donor's specimen, and inform the licensee or other entity that another collection is required under direct observation as soon as reasonably practical. The donor shall receive no notice of the collection requirement before he or she is instructed to proceed to the collection site. The licensee or other entity shall continue to administratively withdraw the individual's authorization, as required by § 26.165(f)(1) until the results of the second specimen collection have been received by the MRO. The licensee or other entity shall eliminate from the donor's personnel and other records any matter that could link the donor to the original positive, adulterated, or substituted test result(s) and any temporary administrative action, and may not impose any sanctions on the donor for a cancelled test. If test results from the second specimen collected are positive, adulterated, or substituted and the MRO determines that the donor has violated the FFD policy, the licensee or other entity shall impose the appropriate sanctions specified in subpart D of this part, but may not consider the original confirmed positive, adulterated, or substituted test result that was reported as a cancelled test by the MRO under § 26.129(b)(2) or § 26.159(b)(2) in determining the appropriate sanctions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71461, Nov. 22, 2022]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.167" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.167   Quality assurance and quality control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Quality assurance program.</I> Each HHS-certified laboratory shall have a quality assurance program that encompasses all aspects of the testing process, including, but not limited to, specimen accessioning, chain of custody, security and reporting of results, initial and confirmatory testing, certification of calibrators and controls, and validation of analytical procedures. The performance characteristics (e.g., accuracy, precision, LOD, limit of quantitation (LOQ), specificity) of each test must be validated and documented for each test. Validation of procedures must document that carryover does not affect the donor's specimen results. Periodic re-verification of analytical procedures is required. Quality assurance procedures must be designed, implemented, and reviewed to monitor the conduct of each step of the testing process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calibrators and controls required.</I> Each analytical run of specimens for which an initial or confirmatory validity test, or an initial or confirmatory drug test, is being performed must include the appropriate calibrators and controls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quality control requirements for performing initial and confirmatory validity tests on urine.</I> (1) Requirements for performing creatinine tests:
</P>
<P>(i) The creatinine concentration must be measured to one decimal place on both the initial and the confirmatory creatinine tests;
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial creatinine test must have a calibrator at 2 mg/dL;
</P>
<P>(iii) The initial creatinine test must have a control in the range of 1 to 1.5 mg/dL, a control in the range of 3 to 20 mg/dL, and a control in the range of 21 to 25 mg/dL; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The confirmatory creatinine test (performed on those specimens with a creatinine concentration less than 2 mg/dL on the initial test) must have a calibrator at 2 mg/dL, a control in the range of 1.0 to 1.5 mg/dL, and a control in the range of 3 to 4 mg/dL.
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements for performing specific gravity tests:
</P>
<P>(i) The refractometer must report and display the specific gravity to four decimal places, and must be interfaced with a laboratory information management system, or computer, and/or generate a hard copy or digital electronic display to document the numerical result;
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial and confirmatory specific gravity tests must have a calibrator or control at 1.0000; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The initial and confirmatory specific gravity tests must have the following controls:
</P>
<P>(A) One control targeted at 1.0020;
</P>
<P>(B) One control in the range of 1.0040 to 1.0180; and
</P>
<P>(C) One control equal to or greater than 1.0200 but not greater than 1.0250.
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements for performing pH tests:
</P>
<P>(i) Colorimetric pH tests that have the dynamic range of 2 to 12 to support the 3 and 11 pH cutoffs and pH meters must be capable of measuring pH to one decimal place. Dipsticks, colorimetric pH tests, and pH paper that have a narrow dynamic range and do not support the 2 to 12 pH cutoffs may be used only to determine whether initial validity tests must be performed;
</P>
<P>(ii) At a minimum, pH screening tests must have the following controls:
</P>
<P>(A) One control below the lower decision point in use;
</P>
<P>(B) One control between the decision points in use; and
</P>
<P>(C) One control above the upper decision point in use;
</P>
<P>(iii) If a pH screening test is not used, an initial pH meter test must have the following calibrators and controls:
</P>
<P>(A) One calibrator at 4;
</P>
<P>(B) One calibrator at 7;
</P>
<P>(C) One calibrator at 10;
</P>
<P>(D) One control in the range of 2 to 2.8;
</P>
<P>(E) One control in the range of 3.2 to 4;
</P>
<P>(F) One control in the range of 10 to 10.8; and
</P>
<P>(G) One control in the range of 11.2 to 12;
</P>
<P>(iv) If a pH screening test is used, an initial or confirmatory pH meter test must have the following calibrators and controls when the screening result indicates that the pH is below the lower decision point in use:
</P>
<P>(A) One calibrator at 4;
</P>
<P>(B) One calibrator at 7;
</P>
<P>(C) One control in the range of 2 to 2.8; and
</P>
<P>(D) One control in the range of 3.2 to 4;
</P>
<P>(v) If a pH screening test is used, an initial or confirmatory pH meter test must have the following calibrators and controls when the screening result indicates that the pH is above the upper decision point in use:
</P>
<P>(A) One calibrator at 7;
</P>
<P>(B) One calibrator at 10;
</P>
<P>(C) One control in the range of 10 to 10.8; and
</P>
<P>(D) One control in the range of 11.2 to 12; and
</P>
<P>(vi) An initial colorimetric pH test must have the following calibrators and controls:
</P>
<P>(A) One calibrator at 3;
</P>
<P>(B) One calibrator at 11;
</P>
<P>(C) One control in the range of 2 to 2.8;
</P>
<P>(D) One control in the range of 3.2 to 4;
</P>
<P>(E) One control in the range of 4.5 to 9;
</P>
<P>(F) One control in the range of 10 to 10.8;
</P>
<P>(G) One control in the range of 11.2 to 12.
</P>
<P>(4) Requirements for performing oxidizing adulterant tests:
</P>
<P>(i) Initial tests for oxidizing adulterants must include a calibrator at the appropriate cutoff concentration for the compound of interest as specified in § 26.161(c) and (f), a control without the compound of interest (<I>i.e.</I>, a certified negative control), and at least one control with one of the compounds of interest at a measurable concentration; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A confirmatory test for a specific oxidizing adulterant must use a different analytical method than that used for the initial test. Each confirmatory analytical run must include a calibrator at the appropriate cutoff concentration for the compound of interest as specified in § 26.161(c) and (f), a control without the compound of interest (<I>i.e.</I>, a certified negative control), and a control with the compound of interest at a measurable concentration.
</P>
<P>(5) Requirements for performing nitrite tests: The initial and confirmatory nitrite tests must have a calibrator at the cutoff concentration, a control without nitrite (<I>i.e.</I>, certified negative urine specimen), one control in the range of 200 to 400 mcg/mL, and one control in the range of 500 to 625 mcg/mL.
</P>
<P>(6) Requirements for performing “other” adulterant tests:
</P>
<P>(i) The initial and confirmatory tests for any “other” adulterant that may be identified in the future must satisfy the requirements in § 26.161(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) The confirmatory test for “other” adulterants must use a different analytical principle or chemical reaction than that used for the initial test; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The initial and confirmatory tests for “other” adulterants must include an appropriate calibrator, a control without the compound of interest (<I>i.e.</I>, a certified negative control), and a control with the compound of interest at a measurable concentration.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quality control requirements for performing initial drug tests.</I> (1) Any initial drug test of urine performed by an HHS-certified laboratory must use an immunoassay that meets the requirements of the Food and Drug Administration for commercial distribution. Non-instrumented immunoassay testing devices that are pending HHS/SAMHSA review and approval may not be used for initial drug testing under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) HHS-certified laboratories may perform multiple initial drug tests for the same drug or drug class, provided that all tests meet the cutoffs and quality control requirements of this part. For example, an HHS-certified laboratory may use immunoassay technique “A” for all drugs using the licensee's or other entity's cutoff levels, but specimens testing positive for amphetamines may also be tested using immunoassay technique “B” to eliminate any possible positives due to structural analogues; or, a valid analytical result cannot be obtained using immunoassay technique “A” and immunoassay technique “B” is used in an attempt to obtain a valid analytical result.
</P>
<P>(3) Quality control samples for each analytical run of specimens for initial testing must include—
</P>
<P>(i) At least one control certified to contain no drug or drug metabolite;
</P>
<P>(ii) At least one positive control with the drug or drug metabolite targeted at 25 percent above the cutoff;
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one positive control with the drug or drug metabolite targeted at 75 percent of the cutoff;






</P>
<P>(iv) A sufficient number of calibrators to ensure and document the linearity of the assay method over time in the concentration area of the cutoff (after acceptable values are obtained for the known calibrators, those values will be used to calculate sample data); and
</P>
<P>(v) At least one control that appears to be a donor specimen to the laboratory analysts.
</P>
<P>(4) A minimum of 10 percent of the total specimens in each analytical run must be quality control samples (<I>i.e.,</I> calibrators and controls), as defined by paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (iv) of this section.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quality control requirements for performing confirmatory drug tests.</I> (1) Confirmatory tests for drugs and drug metabolites must be performed using gas chromatography/mass spectrometry (GC/MS) or other confirmatory test methodologies that HHS-certified laboratories are permitted to use in Federal workplace drug testing programs for this purpose.


</P>
<P>(2) A minimum of 10 percent of the total specimens in each analytical run must be quality control samples (<I>i.e.,</I> calibrators and controls).
</P>
<P>(3) Each analytical run of specimens that are subjected to confirmatory testing must include—
</P>
<P>(i) At least one control certified to contain no drug or drug metabolite;
</P>
<P>(ii) A calibrator with its drug concentration at the cutoff;
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one positive control with the drug or drug metabolite targeted at 25 percent above the cutoff; and
</P>
<P>(iv) At least one control targeted at or below 40 percent of the cutoff.














</P>
<P>(f) <I>Errors in testing.</I> The licensee or other entity shall ensure that the HHS-certified laboratory investigates any testing errors or unsatisfactory performance discovered in blind performance testing, as required under § 26.168, in the testing of actual specimens, or through the processing of reviews, as well as any other errors or matters that could adversely reflect on the testing process.
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever possible, the investigation must determine relevant facts and identify the root cause(s) of the testing or process error. The licensee or other entity, and the HHS-certified laboratory, shall take action to correct the causes of any errors or unsatisfactory performance that are within each entity's control. Sufficient records shall be maintained to furnish evidence of activities affecting quality. The licensee or other entity shall assure that the cause of the condition is determined and that corrective action is taken to preclude repetition. The identification of the significant condition, the cause of the condition, and the corrective action taken shall be documented and reported to appropriate levels of management.
</P>
<P>(2) If a false positive error occurs on a blind performance test sample or on a regular specimen, the licensee or other entity shall require the laboratory to take corrective action to minimize the occurrence of the particular error in the future. If there is reason to believe that the error could have been systematic, the licensee or other entity may also require review and re-analysis of previously run specimens.
</P>
<P>(3) If a false positive error occurs on a blind performance test sample and the error is determined to be technical or methodological, the licensee or other entity shall instruct the laboratory to provide all quality control data from the batch or analytical run of specimens that included a false positive sample. In addition, the licensee or other entity shall require the laboratory to retest all specimens that analyzed as positive for that drug or metabolite, or as adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid in validity testing, from the time of final resolution of the error back to the time of the last satisfactory performance test cycle. This retesting must be documented by a statement signed by the laboratory's Responsible Person. The licensee or other entity and the NRC also may require an onsite review of the laboratory, which may be conducted unannounced during any hours of operation of the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Accuracy.</I> Volumetric pipettes and measuring devices must be certified for accuracy or be checked by gravimetric, colorimetric, or other verification procedures. Automatic pipettes and dilutors must be checked for accuracy and reproducibility both before being placed in service and periodically thereafter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calibrators and controls.</I> Laboratory calibrators and controls must be prepared using pure drug reference materials, stock standard solutions obtained from other laboratories, or standard solutions that are obtained from commercial manufacturers and are properly labeled as to content and concentration. Calibrators and controls may not be prepared from the same stock solution. The standards and controls must be labeled with the following dates: when received; when prepared or opened; when placed in service; and when scheduled for expiration.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71462, Nov. 22, 2022]














</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.168" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.168   Blind performance testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee and other entity shall submit blind performance test samples to the HHS-certified laboratory.
</P>
<P>(1) During the initial 90-day period of any contract with an HHS-certified laboratory (not including rewritten or renewed contracts), each licensee or other entity shall submit blind performance test samples to each HHS-certified laboratory with whom it contracts in the amount of at least 20 percent of the total number of specimens submitted (up to a maximum of 100 blind performance test samples) or 30 blind performance test samples, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(2) Following the initial 90-day period, the number of blind performance test samples submitted per quarter must be a minimum of one percent of all specimens (up to a maximum of 100) or ten blind performance test samples, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(3) Both during the initial 90-day period and quarterly thereafter, licensees and other entities should attempt to submit blind performance test samples at a frequency that corresponds to the submission frequency for other specimens.
</P>
<P>(b) Approximately 60 percent of the blind performance test samples submitted to the laboratory must be positive for one or more drugs or drug metabolites per sample and submitted so that all of the drugs for which the FFD program is testing are included at least once each calendar quarter, except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees and other entities shall submit blind performance test samples that are positive for marijuana metabolite at least two times each quarter; and
</P>
<P>(2) In at least two quarters each year, licensees and other entities shall submit an additional blind performance test sample that is positive for cocaine instead of the required sample that is positive for PCP.
</P>
<P>(c) The positive blind performance test samples must be positive for only those drugs for which the FFD program is testing and formulated at concentrations established in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) To challenge the HHS-certified laboratory's ability to limit false negatives, approximately 10 percent of the blind performance test samples submitted to the laboratory each quarter must be formulated at the concentrations established in paragraph (g)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) To challenge the HHS-certified laboratory's ability to determine specimen validity, the licensee or other entity shall submit blind performance test samples each quarter that are appropriately adulterated, diluted, or substituted, in the amount of 20 percent of the specimens submitted that quarter or at least three samples per quarter (one each that is adulterated, diluted, or substituted), whichever is greater. These samples must be formulated at the concentrations established in paragraphs (g)(4) through (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Approximately 10 percent of the blind performance test samples submitted to the laboratory each quarter must be negative, as specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Licensees and other entities shall use only blind performance test samples that have been certified by the supplier to be—
</P>
<P>(1) Negative. A negative blind performance test sample may not contain a measurable amount of a target drug analyte and must be certified by immunoassay and confirmatory testing;
</P>
<P>(2) Drug positive. These samples must contain a measurable amount of the target drug or analyte in concentrations ranging between 150 and 200 percent of the initial cutoff values and be certified by immunoassay and confirmatory testing to contain one or more drug(s) or drug metabolite(s);
</P>
<P>(3) A false negative challenge. This blind performance test sample must contain a measurable amount of the target drug or analyte in concentrations ranging between 130 and 155 percent of the initial cutoff values;
</P>
<P>(4) Adulterated. The adulterated blind performance test sample must have a pH of less than or equal to 2, or greater than or equal to 12, or a nitrite or other oxidant concentration equal to or greater than 500 mcg/mL, equal to or greater than 50 mcg/mL chromium (VI)-equivalents, or a halogen concentration equal to or greater than the LOD. Blind performance test samples for other adulterants must have adulterant concentrations equal to or greater than (or equal to or less than, as appropriate) the initial cutoff levels used by the licensee's or other entity's HHS-certified laboratory;
</P>
<P>(5) Dilute. The dilute blind performance test sample must contain a creatinine concentration that is equal to or greater than 5 mg/dL but less than 20 mg/dL, and the specific gravity must be greater than 1.0010 but less than 1.0030; or
</P>
<P>(6) Substituted. The substituted blind performance test sample must contain less than 2 mg/dL of creatinine, and the specific gravity must be less than or equal to 1.0010, or equal to or greater than 1.0200.
</P>
<P>(h) In order to ensure that blind performance test samples continue to meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (g) of this section, licensees and other entities shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that all blind performance test sample lots are placed in service by the supplier only after confirmation by an HHS-certified laboratory;


</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the supplier provides the expiration date for each blind performance test sample to ensure that each sample will have the expected value when it is submitted to and tested by a laboratory; and
</P>
<P>(3) At a minimum, require the supplier to check each open lot bi-monthly (<I>i.e.</I>, every two months) to ensure that samples remaining in the lot do not fall below 130 percent of the initial cutoff test concentration established by the assay manufacturer. Thus, for example, a lot that was certified by an HHS-certified laboratory at 155 percent of the manufacturer's assay cutoff level, and was reported by the licensee's or other entity's HHS-certified laboratory to be at or above 130 percent of that standard is acceptable. A test that indicated a result below 130 percent of that standard would be unacceptable. Licensees and other entities shall discard blind performance test samples from any lot that is outside of these parameters and may not use any further samples from that lot.
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees and other entities shall ensure that each blind performance test sample is indistinguishable to laboratory personnel from a donor's specimen, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee or other entity shall submit blind performance test samples to the laboratory using the same channels (<I>i.e.</I>, from the licensee's or other entity's collection site or licensee testing facility, as appropriate) through which donors' specimens are sent to the laboratory;
</P>
<P>(2) The collector and licensee testing facility personnel, as appropriate, shall use a Federal CCF, place fictional initials on the specimen bottles' labels/seals, and indicate for the MRO on the MRO's copy that the specimen is a blind performance test sample; and
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee or other entity shall ensure that all blind performance test samples include split samples, when the FFD program includes split specimen procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016; 87 FR 71462, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.169" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.7.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.169   Reporting Results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The HHS-certified laboratory shall report test results to the licensee's or other entity's MRO within 5 business days after receiving the specimen from the licensee or other entity. Before reporting any test result to the MRO, the laboratory's Certifying Scientist shall certify the result as correct. The report must identify the substances for which testing was performed; the results of the validity and drug tests; the cutoff levels for each; any indications of tampering, adulteration, or substitution that may be present; the specimen identification number assigned by the licensee or other entity; and the specimen identification number assigned by the laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) If licensees or other entities specify cutoff levels for drugs or drug metabolites that are more stringent than those specified in this part, the laboratory need only conduct the more stringent tests and shall report the results of the initial and confirmatory tests only for the more stringent cutoff levels.
</P>
<P>(c) The HHS-certified laboratory shall report as negative all specimens that are negative on the initial or confirmatory drug and validity tests. Specimens that test as positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid on the confirmatory analysis must be reported to the MRO as positive for a specific drug(s) or drug metabolite(s), or as meeting the criteria for an adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid specimen.
</P>
<P>(1) The laboratory shall report all positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, and invalid test results for each specimen to the MRO. For example, a specimen may be both adulterated and positive for one or more specific drugs.




</P>
<P>(2) For a specimen that has a positive test result, the laboratory shall provide numerical values if the MRO requests such information. The MRO's request for positive confirmatory test results may be either a general request covering all such results or a specific case-by-case request. The laboratory shall routinely provide quantitative values for confirmatory test results for morphine or codeine that are greater than or equal to 15,000 ng/mL, even if the MRO has not requested quantitative values for the test result.






</P>
<P>(3) For a specimen that has an adulterated or substituted test result, the laboratory shall provide the MRO with the numerical values that support the reported result. The MRO may not disclose the numerical values to the licensee or other entity, except as permitted in § 26.37(b). If the numerical values for creatinine are below the LOD, the laboratory shall report to the MRO “creatinine: none detected” (<I>i.e.</I>, substituted) along with the numerical values of the specific gravity test.
</P>
<P>(4) For a specimen that has an invalid result, the laboratory shall contact the MRO and both will decide whether testing by another certified laboratory would be useful in being able to report a positive or adulterated result. This contact may occur through any secure electronic means (e.g., telephone, fax, e-mail). If no further testing is necessary, the laboratory shall report the invalid result to the MRO.
</P>
<P>(5) When the concentration of a drug, metabolite, or adulterant exceeds the linear range of the standard curve, the laboratory may report to the MRO that the quantitative value “exceeds the linear range of the test,” that the quantitative value is “equal to or greater than &lt;insert the value for the upper limit of the linear range&gt;,” or may report an accurate quantitative value above the upper limit of the linear range that was obtained by diluting an aliquot of the specimen.
</P>
<P>(d) The MRO and MRO staff may not disclose quantitative test results to a licensee or other entity, but shall report only whether the specimen was positive (and for which analyte), adulterated, substituted, dilute, invalid, or negative, except as permitted under § 26.37(b). This paragraph does not preclude either the HHS-certified laboratory or the MRO from providing program performance data, as required under § 26.717.
</P>
<P>(e) The laboratory may transmit results to the MRO by various electronic means (e.g., teleprinters, facsimile, or computer) in a manner designed to ensure the confidentiality of the information. The laboratory may not provide results orally by telephone. The licensee or other entity, directly or through the HHS-certified laboratory, shall ensure the security of the data transmission and ensure only authorized access to any data transmission, storage, and retrieval system.
</P>
<P>(f) For negative test results, the HHS-certified laboratory may fax, courier, mail, or electronically transmit a computer-generated electronic report and/or a legible image or copy of the completed Federal CCF to the MRO. However, for positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, and invalid results, the laboratory shall fax, courier, mail, or electronically transmit a legible image or copy of the completed Federal CCF to the MRO.
</P>
<P>(g) For a specimen that has a positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid result, the laboratory shall retain the original Federal CCF and transmit to the MRO a copy of the original Federal CCF signed by a certifying scientist.




</P>
<P>(h) The HHS-certified laboratory shall provide to the licensee's or other entity's official responsible for coordination of the FFD program an annual statistical summary of testing, which may not include any personal identifying information. To avoid sending data from which it is likely that information about a donor's test result can be readily inferred, the laboratory may not send a summary report if the licensee or other entity has fewer than 10 specimen test results in a 1-year period. The summary report must include test results that were reported within the year period. The laboratory shall send the summary report to the licensee or other entity within 14 calendar days after the end of the 1-year period covered by the report. The statistics must be presented either for the cutoff levels specified in this part or for any more stringent cutoff levels that the licensee or other entity may specify. The HHS-certified laboratory shall make available quantitative results for all specimens tested when requested by the NRC, licensee, or other entity for whom the laboratory is performing drug-testing services. If the FFD program tests for additional drugs beyond those listed in § 26.31(d), the summary must include drug test results for the additional drugs. The summary report must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Total number of specimens received;
</P>
<P>(2) Number of specimens reported as—
</P>
<P>(i) Negative, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Negative and dilute;
</P>
<P>(3) Number of specimens reported as positive on confirmatory tests by drug or drug metabolite for which testing is conducted, including, but not limited to—
</P>
<P>(i) Marijuana metabolite (as THCA);
</P>
<P>(ii) Cocaine metabolite (as benzoylecgonine);
</P>
<P>(iii) Opioids (total);


</P>
<P>(A) Codeine;
</P>
<P>(B) Morphine;
</P>
<P>(C) 6-acetylmorphine (6-AM);
</P>
<P>(D) Hydrocodone;
</P>
<P>(E) Hydromorphone;
</P>
<P>(F) Oxycodone; and
</P>
<P>(G) Oxymorphone;
</P>
<P>(iv) Phencyclidine (PCP);
</P>
<P>(v) Amphetamines (total);
</P>
<P>(A) Amphetamine;




</P>
<P>(B) Methamphetamine;
</P>
<P>(C) Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA); and
</P>
<P>(D) Methylenedioxyamphetamine (MDA);


</P>
<P>(4) Total number of specimens reported as adulterated;
</P>
<P>(5) Total number of specimens reported as substituted;
</P>
<P>(6) Total number of specimens reported as positive and dilute [including an indication as to whether the specimen was subject to the special analysis permitted in § 26.163(a)(2)];
</P>
<P>(7) Total number of specimens reported as invalid; and
</P>
<P>(8) Number of specimens reported as rejected for testing and the reason for the rejection.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71462, Nov. 22, 2022]














</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Determining Fitness-for-Duty Policy Violations and Determining Fitness</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.181" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.8.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.181   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains requirements for determining whether a donor has violated the FFD policy and for making a determination of fitness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.183" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.8.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.183   Medical review officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifications.</I> The MRO shall be knowledgeable of this part and of the FFD policies of the licensees and other entities for whom the MRO provides services. The MRO shall be a physician holding either a Doctor of Medicine or Doctor of Osteopathy degree who is licensed to practice medicine by any State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. The MRO shall have passed an examination administered by a nationally-recognized MRO certification board or subspecialty board for medical practitioners in the field of medical review of Federally mandated drug tests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relationships.</I> The MRO may be an employee of the licensee or other entity or a contractor. However, the MRO may not be an employee or agent of, or have any financial interest in, an HHS-certified laboratory or a contracted operator of a licensee testing facility for whom the MRO reviews drug test results. Additionally, the MRO may not derive any financial benefit by having the licensee or other entity use a specific drug testing laboratory or licensee testing facility operating contractor and may not have any agreement with such parties that may be construed as a potential conflict of interest. Examples of relationships between laboratories and MROs that create conflicts of interest, or the appearance of such conflicts, include, but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(1) The laboratory employs an MRO who reviews test results produced by the laboratory;
</P>
<P>(2) The laboratory has a contract or retainer with the MRO for the review of test results produced by the laboratory;
</P>
<P>(3) The laboratory designates which MRO the licensee or other entity is to use, gives the licensee or other entity a slate of MROs from which to choose, or recommends certain MROs;
</P>
<P>(4) The laboratory gives the licensee or other entity a discount or other incentive to use a particular MRO;
</P>
<P>(5) The laboratory has its place of business co-located with that of an MRO or MRO staff who review test results produced by the laboratory; or
</P>
<P>(6) The laboratory permits an MRO, or an MRO's organization, to have a financial interest in the laboratory.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities.</I> The primary role of the MRO is to review and interpret positive, adulterated, substituted, invalid, and dilute test results obtained through the licensee's or other entity's testing program and to identify any evidence of subversion of the testing process. The MRO is also responsible for identifying any issues associated with collecting and testing specimens, and for advising and assisting FFD program management in planning and overseeing the overall FFD program.
</P>
<P>(1) In carrying out these responsibilities, the MRO shall examine alternate medical explanations for any positive, adulterated, substituted, invalid, or dilute test result. This action may include, but is not limited to, conducting a medical interview with the donor, reviewing the donor's medical history, or reviewing any other relevant biomedical factors. The MRO shall review all medical records that the donor may make available when a positive, adulterated, substituted, invalid, or dilute test result could have resulted from responsible use of legally prescribed medication, a documented condition or disease state, or the demonstrated physiology of the donor.






</P>
<P>(2) The MRO may only consider the results of tests of specimens that are collected and processed under this part, including the results of testing split specimens, in making his or her determination, as long as those split specimens have been stored and tested under the procedures described in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>MRO staff.</I> Individuals who provide administrative support to the MRO may be employees of a licensee or other entity, employees of the MRO, or employees of an organization with whom a licensee or other entity contracts for MRO services. Employees of a licensee or other entity who serve MRO staff functions may also perform other duties for the licensee or other entity and need not be under the direction of the MRO while performing those other duties.
</P>
<P>(1) Direction of MRO staff activities. MROs shall be directly responsible for all administrative, technical, and professional activities of individuals who are serving MRO staff functions while they are performing those functions, and those functions must be under the MRO's direction.
</P>
<P>(i) The duties of MRO staff must be maintained independent from any other activity or interest of a licensee or other entity, in order to protect the integrity of the MRO function and donors' privacy.
</P>
<P>(ii) An MRO's responsibilities for directing MRO staff must include, but are not limited to, ensuring that—
</P>
<P>(A) The procedures being performed by MRO staff meet NRC regulations and HHS' and professional standards of practice;
</P>
<P>(B) Records and other donor personal information are maintained confidential by MRO staff and are not released to other individuals or entities, except as permitted under this part;
</P>
<P>(C) Data transmission is secure; and
</P>
<P>(D) Drug test results are reported to the licensee's or other entity's designated reviewing official only as required by this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The MRO may not delegate any of his or her responsibilities for directing MRO staff to any other individual or entity, except another MRO.
</P>
<P>(2) MRO staff responsibilities. MRO staff may perform routine administrative support functions, including receiving test results, reviewing negative test results, and scheduling interviews for the MRO.
</P>
<P>(i) The staff under the direction of the MRO may receive, review, and report negative test results to the licensee's or other entity's designated representative.
</P>
<P>(ii) The staff reviews of positive, adulterated, substituted, invalid, and dilute test results must be limited to reviewing the Federal CCF to determine whether it contains any errors that may require corrective action and to ensure that it is consistent with the information on the MRO's copy. The staff may resolve errors in Federal CCFs that require corrective action(s), but shall forward the Federal CCFs to the MRO for review and approval of the resolution.


</P>
<P>(iii) The staff may not conduct interviews with donors to discuss positive, adulterated, substituted, invalid, or dilute test results nor request medical information from a donor. Only the MRO may request and review medical information related to a positive, adulterated, substituted, or invalid test result or other matter from a donor.
</P>
<P>(iv) Staff may not report nor discuss with any individuals other than the MRO and other MRO staff any positive, adulterated, substituted, invalid, or dilute test results received from the HHS-certified laboratory before those results have been reviewed and confirmed by the MRO. Any MRO staff discussions of confirmed positive, adulterated, substituted, invalid, or dilute test results must be limited to discussions only with the licensee's or other entity's FFD program personnel and may not reveal quantitative test results or any personal medical information about the donor that the MRO may have obtained in the course of reviewing confirmatory test results from the HHS-certified laboratory.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 58464, Nov. 20, 2018; 87 FR 71462, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.185" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.8.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.185   Determining a fitness-for-duty policy violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>MRO review required.</I> A positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid drug test result does not automatically identify an individual as having used drugs in violation of the NRC's regulations, or the licensee's or other entity's FFD policy, or as having attempted to subvert the testing process. An individual who has a detailed knowledge of possible alternate medical explanations is essential to the review of the results. The MRO shall review all positive, adulterated, substituted, and invalid test results from the HHS-certified laboratory to determine whether the donor has violated the FFD policy before reporting the results to the licensee's or other entity's designated representative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting of initial test results prohibited.</I> Neither the MRO nor MRO staff may report positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid initial test results that are received from the HHS-certified laboratory to the licensee or other entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discussion with the donor.</I> Before determining that a positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid test result or other occurrence is an FFD policy violation and reporting it to the licensee or other entity, the MRO shall give the donor an opportunity to discuss the test result or other occurrence with the MRO, except as described in paragraph (d) of this section. After this discussion, if the MRO determines that a positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid test result or other occurrence is an FFD policy violation, the MRO shall immediately notify the licensee's or other entity's designated representative.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Donor unavailability.</I> The MRO may determine that a positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid test result or other occurrence is an FFD policy violation without having discussed the test result or other occurrence directly with the donor in the following three circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) The MRO has made and documented contact with the donor and the donor expressly declined the opportunity to discuss the test result or other occurrence that may constitute an FFD policy violation;
</P>
<P>(2) A representative of the licensee or other entity, or an MRO staff member, has successfully made and documented contact with the donor and has instructed him or her to contact the MRO, and more than 1 business day has elapsed since the date on which the licensee's representative or MRO's staff member successfully contacted the donor; or
</P>
<P>(3) The MRO, after making all reasonable efforts and documenting the dates and time of those efforts, has been unable to contact the donor. Reasonable efforts include, at a minimum, three attempts, spaced reasonably over a 24-hour period, to reach the donor at the day and evening telephone numbers listed on the Federal CCF.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional opportunity for discussion.</I> If the MRO determines that the donor has violated the FFD policy without having discussed the positive, adulterated, substituted, dilute, or invalid test result or other occurrence directly with the donor, the donor may, on subsequent notification of the MRO determination and within 30 days of that notification, present to the MRO information documenting the circumstances, including, but not limited to, serious illness or injury, which unavoidably prevented the donor from being contacted by the MRO or a representative of the licensee or other entity, or from contacting the MRO in a timely manner. On the basis of this information, the MRO may reopen the procedure for determining whether the donor's test result or other occurrence is an FFD policy violation and permit the individual to present information related to the issue. The MRO may modify the initial determination based on an evaluation of the information provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review of invalid specimens.</I> (1) If the HHS-certified laboratory reports an invalid result, the MRO shall consult with the laboratory to determine whether additional testing by another HHS-certified laboratory may be useful in determining and reporting a positive or adulterated test result. If the MRO and the laboratory agree that further testing would be useful, the HHS-certified laboratory shall forward the specimen to a second laboratory for additional testing.
</P>
<P>(2) If the MRO and the laboratory agree that further testing would not be useful and there is no technical explanation for the result, the MRO shall contact the donor and determine whether there is an acceptable medical explanation for the invalid result. If there is an acceptable medical explanation, the MRO shall report to the licensee or other entity that the test result is not an FFD policy violation, but that a negative test result was not obtained. If the medical reason for the invalid result is, in the opinion of the MRO, a temporary condition, the licensee or other entity shall collect a second urine specimen from the donor as soon as reasonably practical and rely on the MRO's review of the test results from the second collection. The second specimen collected for the purposes of this paragraph may not be collected under direct observation. If the medical reason for the invalid result would similarly affect the testing of another urine specimen, the MRO may authorize an alternative method for drug testing. Licensees and other entities may not impose sanctions for an invalid test result due to a medical condition.
</P>
<P>(3) If the MRO and the laboratory agree that further testing would not be useful and there is no legitimate technical or medical explanation, and the invalid result is based on pH in the range of 9.0 to 9.5, the MRO shall consider whether there is evidence of elapsed time, exposure of the specimen to high temperature, or both that could account for the pH value. If an acceptable explanation exists for the invalid test result due to pH, based on objective and sufficient information, that elapsed time, high temperature, or both caused the high pH and donor action did not result in the invalid pH result, the MRO shall report a cancelled test result to the licensee or other entity, cancel the test result, and direct the licensee or other entity to collect a second urine specimen from the donor as soon as reasonably practicable. The second specimen collected may not be collected under direct observation.










</P>
<P>(4) If the MRO and the laboratory agree that further testing would not be useful and there is no legitimate technical or medical explanation for the invalid test result, the MRO shall require that a second collection take place as soon as practical under direct observation. The licensee or other entity shall rely on the MRO's review of the test results from the directly observed collection.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review of dilute specimens.</I> (1) If the HHS-certified laboratory reports that a specimen is dilute and that drugs or drug metabolites were detected in the specimen at or above the cutoff levels specified in this part or the licensee's or other entity's more stringent cutoff levels, and the MRO determines that there is no legitimate medical explanation for the presence of the drugs or drug metabolites in the specimen, and a clinical examination, if required under paragraph (g)(3) of this section, has been conducted, the MRO shall determine that the drug test results are positive and that the donor has violated the FFD policy.
</P>
<P>(2) If the results of the special analysis testing required by § 26.163(a)(2) are positive, the MRO determines that there is no legitimate medical explanation for the presence of the drug(s) or drug metabolite(s) in the specimen, and a clinical examination, if required under paragraph (g)(3) of this section, has been conducted under paragraph (j) of this section, the MRO shall determine whether the positive and dilute specimen is a refusal to test. If the MRO does not have sufficient reason to believe that the positive and dilute specimen is a subversion attempt, he or she shall determine that the drug test results are positive and that the donor has violated the FFD policy. When determining whether the donor has diluted the specimen in a subversion attempt, the MRO shall also consider the following circumstances, if applicable:


</P>
<P>(i) The donor has presented, at this or a previous collection, a urine specimen that the HHS-certified laboratory reported as being substituted, adulterated, or invalid to the MRO and the MRO determined that there is no adequate technical or medical explanation for the result;
</P>
<P>(ii) The donor has presented a urine specimen of 30 mL or more that falls outside the required temperature range, even if a subsequent directly observed collection was performed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The collector observed conduct indicating an attempt to dilute the specimen.


</P>
<P>(3) If the drugs detected in a dilute specimen are opioids (<I>i.e.,</I> morphine and/or codeine), or if the drugs or metabolites detected indicate the use of prescription or over-the-counter medications, before determining that the donor has violated the FFD policy under paragraph (a) of this section, the MRO or his/her designee, who shall also be a licensed physician with knowledge of the clinical signs of drug abuse, shall conduct the clinical examination for abuse of these substances that is required in paragraph (j) of this section. An evaluation for clinical evidence of abuse is not required if the laboratory confirms the presence of 6-AM (<I>i.e.</I>, the presence of this metabolite is proof of heroin use) in the dilute specimen.
</P>
<P>(4) An MRO review is not required for specimens that the HHS-certified laboratory reports as negative and dilute. The licensee or other entity may not take any administrative actions or impose any sanctions on a donor who submits a negative and dilute specimen.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Review of substituted specimens.</I> (1) If the HHS-certified laboratory reports a specimen as substituted (<I>i.e.</I>, the creatinine concentration is less than 2 mg/dL and the specific gravity is less than or equal to 1.0010 or equal to or greater than 1.0200), the MRO shall contact the donor and offer the donor an opportunity to provide a legitimate medical explanation for the substituted result. The burden of proof resides solely with the donor, who must provide legitimate medical evidence within 5 business days that he or she produced the specimen for which the HHS-certified laboratory reported a substituted result. Any medical evidence must be submitted through a physician who is experienced and qualified in the medical issues involved, as verified by the MRO. Claims of excessive hydration, or claims based on unsubstantiated personal characteristics, including, but not limited to, race, gender, diet, and body weight, are not acceptable evidence without medical studies which demonstrate that the donor did produce the laboratory result.
</P>
<P>(2) If the MRO determines that there is no legitimate medical explanation for the substituted test result, the MRO shall report to the licensee or other entity that the specimen was substituted.
</P>
<P>(3) If the MRO determines that there is a legitimate medical explanation for the substituted test result and no drugs or drug metabolites were detected in the specimen, the MRO shall report to the licensee or other entity that no FFD policy violation has occurred.




</P>
<P>(i) <I>Review of adulterated specimens.</I> (1) If the HHS-certified laboratory reports a specimen as adulterated with a specific substance, the MRO shall contact the donor and offer the donor an opportunity to provide a legitimate medical explanation for the adulterated result. The burden of proof resides solely with the donor, who must provide legitimate medical evidence within 5 business days that he or she produced the adulterated result. Any medical evidence must be submitted through a physician experienced and qualified in the medical issues involved, as verified by the MRO.
</P>
<P>(2) If the MRO determines there is no legitimate medical explanation for the adulterated test result, the MRO shall report to the licensee or other entity that the specimen is adulterated.
</P>
<P>(3) If the MRO determines that there is a legitimate medical explanation for the adulterated test result and no drugs or drug metabolites were detected in the specimen, the MRO shall report to the licensee or other entity that no FFD policy violation has occurred.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Review for opioids and prescription and over-the-counter medications.</I> (1) If the MRO determines that there is no legitimate medical explanation for a positive confirmatory test result for opioids (<I>i.e.,</I> morphine and/or codeine) and before the MRO determines that the test result is a violation of the FFD policy, the MRO or his/her designee, who shall also be a licensed physician with knowledge of the clinical signs of drug abuse, shall determine that there is clinical evidence, in addition to the positive confirmatory test result, that the donor has illegally used morphine and/or codeine. 

This requirement does not apply if the laboratory confirms the presence of 6-AM (<I>i.e.</I>, the presence of this metabolite is proof of heroin use), or the morphine or codeine concentration is equal to or greater than 15,000 ng/mL and the donor does not present a legitimate medical explanation for the presence of morphine or codeine at or above this concentration. The MRO may not determine that the consumption of food products is a legitimate medical explanation for the presence of morphine or codeine at or above this concentration.






</P>
<P>(2) If the MRO determines that there is no legitimate medical explanation for a positive confirmatory test result for drugs other than opioids that are commonly prescribed or included in over-the-counter preparations (e.g., benzodiazepines in the first case, barbiturates in the second) and are listed in the licensee's or other entity's panel of substances to be tested, the MRO shall determine whether there is clinical evidence, in addition to the positive confirmatory test result, of abuse of any of these substances or their derivatives.






</P>
<P>(3) If the MRO determines that the donor has used another individual's prescription medication, including a medication containing opioids (<I>i.e.,</I> morphine and/or codeine), and no clinical evidence of drug abuse is found, the MRO shall report to the licensee or other entity that the donor has misused a prescription medication. If the MRO determines that the donor has used another individual's prescription medication and clinical evidence of drug abuse is found, the MRO shall report to the licensee that the donor has violated the FFD policy.
</P>
<P>(4) In determining whether a legitimate medical explanation exists for a positive confirmatory test result for opioids or prescription or over-the-counter medications, the MRO may consider the use of a medication from a foreign country. The MRO shall exercise professional judgment consistently with the following principles:
</P>
<P>(i) There can be a legitimate medical explanation only with respect to a drug that is obtained legally in a foreign country;
</P>
<P>(ii) There can be a legitimate medical explanation only with respect to a drug that has a legitimate medical use. Use of a drug of abuse (e.g., heroin, PCP) or any other substance that cannot be viewed as having a legitimate medical use can never be the basis for a legitimate medical explanation, even if the drug is obtained legally in a foreign country; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use of the drug can form the basis of a legitimate medical explanation only if it is used consistently with its proper and intended medical purpose.
</P>
<P>(5) The MRO may not consider consumption of food products, supplements, or other preparations containing substances that may result in a positive confirmatory drug test result, including, but not limited to supplements containing hemp products or coca leaf tea, as a legitimate medical explanation for the presence of drugs or drug metabolites in the urine specimen above the cutoff levels specified in § 26.163 or a licensee's or other entity's more stringent cutoff levels.
</P>
<P>(6) The MRO may not consider the use of any drug contained in Schedule I of section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act [21 U.S.C. 812] as a legitimate medical explanation for a positive confirmatory drug test result, even if the drug may be legally prescribed and used under State law.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Results consistent with legitimate drug use.</I> If the MRO determines that there is a legitimate medical explanation for a positive confirmatory drug test result, and that the use of a drug identified through testing was in the manner and at the dosage prescribed, and the results do not reflect a lack of reliability or trustworthiness, then the donor has not violated the licensee's or other entity's FFD policy. The MRO shall report to the licensee or other entity that no FFD policy violation has occurred. The MRO shall further evaluate the positive confirmatory test result and medical explanation to determine whether use of the drug and/or the medical condition poses a potential risk to public health and safety as a result of the individual being impaired while on duty. If the MRO determines that such a risk exists, he or she shall ensure that a determination of fitness is performed.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Retesting authorized.</I> Should the MRO question the accuracy or scientific validity of a positive, adulterated, substituted, or invalid test result, only the MRO is authorized to order retesting of an aliquot of the original specimen or the analysis of any split specimen (Bottle B) in order to determine whether the FFD policy has been violated. Retesting must be performed by a second HHS-certified laboratory. The MRO is also the only individual who may authorize a reanalysis of an aliquot of the original specimen or an analysis of any split specimen (Bottle B) in response to a request from the donor tested.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Result scientifically insufficient.</I> Based on the review of inspection and audit reports, quality control data, multiple specimens, and other pertinent results, the MRO may determine that a positive, adulterated, substituted or invalid test result is scientifically insufficient for further action and may declare that a drug or validity test result is not an FFD policy violation, but that a negative test result was not obtained. In this situation, the MRO may request retesting of the original specimen before making this decision. The MRO is neither expected nor required to request such retesting, unless in the sole opinion of the MRO, such retesting is warranted. The MRO may request that the reanalysis be performed by the same laboratory, or that an aliquot of the original specimen be sent for reanalysis to another HHS-certified laboratory. The licensee testing facility and the HHS-certified laboratory shall assist in this review process, as requested by the MRO, by making available the individual(s) responsible for day-to-day management of the licensee testing facility or the HHS-certified laboratory, or other individuals who are forensic toxicologists or who have equivalent forensic experience in urine drug testing, to provide specific consultation as required by the MRO.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Evaluating results from a second laboratory.</I> After a second laboratory tests an aliquot of a single specimen or the split (Bottle B) specimen, the MRO shall take the following actions if the second laboratory reports the following results:
</P>
<P>(1) If the second laboratory reconfirms any positive test results, the MRO may report an FFD policy violation to the licensee or other entity;
</P>
<P>(2) If the second laboratory reconfirms any adulterated, substituted, or invalid validity test results, the MRO may report an FFD policy violation to the licensee or other entity;
</P>
<P>(3) If the second laboratory does not reconfirm the positive test results, the MRO shall report that no FFD policy violation has occurred; or
</P>
<P>(4) If the second laboratory does not reconfirm the adulterated, substituted, or invalid validity test results, the MRO shall report that no FFD policy violation has occurred.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Re-authorization after a first violation for a positive test result.</I> The MRO is responsible for reviewing drug test results from an individual whose authorization was terminated or denied for a first violation of the FFD policy involving a confirmed positive drug test result and who is being considered for re-authorization. In order to determine whether subsequent positive confirmatory drug test results represent new drug use or remaining metabolites from the drug use that initially resulted in the FFD policy violation, the MRO shall request from the HHS-certified laboratory, and the laboratory shall provide, quantitation of the test results and other information necessary to make the determination. If the drug for which the individual first tested positive was marijuana and the confirmatory assay for delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol-9-carboxylic acid yields a positive result, the MRO shall determine whether the confirmatory test result indicates further marijuana use since the first positive test result, or whether the test result is consistent with the level of delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol-9-carboxylic acid that would be expected if no further marijuana use had occurred. If the test result indicates that no further marijuana use has occurred since the first positive test result, then the MRO shall declare the drug test result as negative.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Time to complete MRO review.</I> The MRO shall complete his or her review of positive, adulterated, substituted, and invalid test results and, in instances when the MRO determines that there is no legitimate medical explanation for the test result(s), notify the licensee's or other entity's designated representative within 10 business days of an initial positive, adulterated, substituted, or invalid test result. The MRO shall notify the licensee or other entity of the results of his or her review in writing and in a manner designed to ensure the confidentiality of the information.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71462, Nov. 22, 2022]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.187" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.8.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.187   Substance abuse expert.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Implementation.</I> Any SAEs on whom licensees and other entities rely to make determinations of fitness under this part shall meet the requirements of this section. An MRO who meets the requirements of this section may serve as both an MRO and as an SAE.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credentials.</I> An SAE shall have at least one of the following credentials:
</P>
<P>(1) A licensed physician;
</P>
<P>(2) A licensed or certified social worker;
</P>
<P>(3) A licensed or certified psychologist;
</P>
<P>(4) A licensed or certified employee assistance professional; or
</P>
<P>(5) An alcohol and drug abuse counselor certified by the National Association of Alcoholism and Drug Abuse Counselors Certification Commission or by the International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/Alcohol and Other Drug Abuse.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Basic knowledge.</I> An SAE shall be knowledgeable in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrated knowledge of and clinical experience in the diagnosis and treatment of alcohol and controlled-substance abuse disorders;
</P>
<P>(2) Knowledge of the SAE function as it relates to the public's interests in the duties performed by the individuals who are subject to this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(3) Knowledge of this part and any changes thereto.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualification training.</I> SAEs shall receive qualification training on the following subjects:
</P>
<P>(1) Background, rationale, and scope of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Key drug testing requirements of this part, including specimen collection, laboratory testing, MRO review, and problems in drug testing;
</P>
<P>(3) Key alcohol testing requirements of this part, including specimen collection, the testing process, and problems in alcohol tests;
</P>
<P>(4) SAE qualifications and prohibitions;
</P>
<P>(5) The role of the SAE in making determinations of fitness and the return-to-duty process, including the initial evaluation, referrals for education and/or treatment, the followup evaluation, continuing treatment recommendations, and the followup testing plan;
</P>
<P>(6) Procedures for SAE consultation and communication with licensees or other entities, MROs, and treatment providers;
</P>
<P>(7) Reporting and recordkeeping requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(8) Issues that SAEs confront in carrying out their duties under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Continuing education.</I> During each 3-year period following completion of initial qualification training, the SAE shall complete continuing education consisting of at least 12 continuing professional education hours relevant to performing SAE functions.
</P>
<P>(1) This continuing education must include material concerning new technologies, interpretations, recent guidance, rule changes, and other information about developments in SAE practice pertaining to this part, since the time the SAE met the qualification training requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Continuing education activities must include documented assessment tools to assist in determining that the SAE has learned the material.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation.</I> The SAE shall maintain documentation showing that he or she currently meets all requirements of this section. The SAE shall provide this documentation on request to NRC representatives, licensees, or other entities who are relying on or contemplating relying on the SAE's services, and to other individuals and entities, as required by § 26.37.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Responsibilities and prohibitions.</I> The SAE shall evaluate individuals who have violated the substance abuse provisions of an FFD policy and make recommendations concerning education, treatment, return to duty, followup drug and alcohol testing, and aftercare. The SAE is not an advocate for the licensee or other entity, or the individual. The SAE's function is to protect public health and safety and the common defense and security by professionally evaluating the individual and recommending appropriate education/treatment, follow-up tests, and aftercare.
</P>
<P>(1) The SAE is authorized to make determinations of fitness in at least the following three circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) When potentially disqualifying FFD information has been identified regarding an individual who has applied for authorization under this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) When an individual has violated the substance abuse provisions of a licensee's or other entity's FFD policy; and
</P>
<P>(iii) When an individual may be impaired by alcohol, prescription or over-the-counter medications, or illegal drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) After determining the best recommendation for assisting the individual, the SAE shall serve as a referral source to assist the individual's entry into an education and/or treatment program.
</P>
<P>(i) To prevent the appearance of a conflict of interest, the SAE may not refer an individual requiring assistance to his or her private practice or to a person or organization from whom the SAE receives payment or in which the SAE has a financial interest. The SAE is precluded from making referrals to entities with whom the SAE is financially associated.
</P>
<P>(ii) There are four exceptions to the prohibitions contained in the preceding paragraph. The SAE may refer an individual to any of the following providers of assistance, regardless of his or her relationship with them:
</P>
<P>(A) A public agency (e.g., treatment facility) operated by a state, county, or municipality;
</P>
<P>(B) A person or organization under contract to the licensee or other entity to provide alcohol or drug treatment and/or education services (e.g., the licensee's or other entity's contracted treatment provider);
</P>
<P>(C) The sole source of therapeutically appropriate treatment under the individual's health insurance program (e.g., the single substance abuse in-patient treatment program made available by the individual's insurance coverage plan); or
</P>
<P>(D) The sole source of therapeutically appropriate treatment reasonably available to the individual (e.g., the only treatment facility or education program reasonably located within the general commuting area).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 58464, Nov. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.189" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.8.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.189   Determination of fitness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A determination of fitness is the process entered when there are indications that an individual specified in § 26.4(a) through (e), and at the licensee's or other entity's discretion as specified in § 26.4(f) and (g), may be in violation of the licensee's or other entity's FFD policy or is otherwise unable to safely and competently perform his or her duties. A determination of fitness must be made by a licensed or certified professional who is appropriately qualified and has the necessary clinical expertise, as verified by the licensee or other entity, to evaluate the specific fitness issues presented by the individual. A professional called on by the licensee or other entity may not perform a determination of fitness regarding fitness issues that are outside of his or her specific areas of expertise. The types of professionals and the fitness issues for which they are qualified to make determinations of fitness include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An SAE who meets the requirements of § 26.187 may determine the fitness of an individual who may have engaged in substance abuse and shall determine an individual's fitness to be granted authorization following an unfavorable termination or denial of authorization under this part, but may not be qualified to assess the fitness of an individual who may have experienced mental illness, significant emotional stress, or other mental or physical conditions that may cause impairment but are unrelated to substance abuse, unless the SAE has additional qualifications for addressing those fitness issues;
</P>
<P>(2) A clinical psychologist may determine the fitness of an individual who may have experienced mental illness, significant emotional stress, or cognitive or psychological impairment from causes unrelated to substance abuse, but may not be qualified to assess the fitness of an individual who may have a substance abuse disorder, unless the psychologist is also an SAE;
</P>
<P>(3) A psychiatrist may determine the fitness of an individual who is taking psychoactive medications consistently with one or more valid prescription(s), but may not be qualified to assess potential impairment attributable to substance abuse, unless the psychiatrist has had specific training to diagnose and treat substance abuse disorders;
</P>
<P>(4) A physician may determine the fitness of an individual who may be ill, injured, fatigued, taking medications in accordance with one or more valid prescriptions, or using over-the-counter medications, but may not be qualified to assess the fitness of an individual who may have a substance abuse disorder, unless the physician is also an SAE; and
</P>
<P>(5) As a physician with specialized training, the MRO may determine the fitness of an individual who may have engaged in substance abuse or may be ill, injured, fatigued, taking medications under one or more valid prescriptions, and/or using over-the-counter medications, but may not be qualified to assess an individual's fitness to be granted authorization following an unfavorable termination or denial of authorization under this part, unless the MRO is also an SAE.
</P>
<P>(b) A determination of fitness must be made in at least the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) When there is an acceptable medical explanation for a positive, adulterated, substituted, or invalid test result, but there is a basis for believing that the individual could be impaired while on duty;
</P>
<P>(2) Before making return-to-duty recommendations after an individual's authorization has been terminated unfavorably or denied under a licensee's or other entity's FFD policy;
</P>
<P>(3) Before an individual is granted authorization when potentially disqualifying FFD information is identified that has not previously been evaluated by another licensee or entity who is subject to this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(4) When potentially disqualifying FFD information is otherwise identified and the licensee's or other entity's reviewing official concludes that a determination of fitness is warranted under § 26.69.
</P>
<P>(c) A determination of fitness that is conducted for cause (<I>i.e.</I>, because of observed behavior or a physical condition) must be conducted through face-to-face interaction between the subject individual and the professional making the determination. Electronic means of communication may not be used.
</P>
<P>(1) If there is neither conclusive evidence of an FFD policy violation nor a significant basis for concern that the individual may be impaired while on duty, then the individual must be determined to be fit for duty.
</P>
<P>(2) If there is no conclusive evidence of an FFD policy violation but there is a significant basis for concern that the individual may be impaired while on duty, then the subject individual must be determined to be unfit for duty. This result does not constitute a violation of this part nor of the licensee's or other entity's FFD policy, and no sanctions may be imposed. However, the professional who made the determination of fitness shall consult with the licensee's or other entity's management personnel to identify the actions required to ensure that any possible limiting condition does not represent a threat to workplace or public health and safety. Licensee or other entity management personnel shall implement the required actions. When appropriate, the subject individual may also be referred to the EAP.
</P>
<P>(d) Neither the individual nor licensees and other entities may seek a second determination of fitness if a determination of fitness under this part has already been performed by a qualified professional employed by or under contract to the licensee or other entity. After the initial determination of fitness has been made, the professional may modify his or her evaluation and recommendations based on new or additional information from other sources including, but not limited to, the subject individual, another licensee or entity, or staff of an education or treatment program. Unless the professional who made the initial determination of fitness is no longer employed by or under contract to the licensee or other entity, only that professional is authorized to modify the evaluation and recommendations. When reasonably practicable, licensees and other entities shall assist in arranging for consultation between the new professional and the professional who is no longer employed by or under contract to the licensee or other entity, to ensure continuity and consistency in the recommendations and their implementation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Managing Fatigue</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.201" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.9.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.201   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements in this subpart, with the exception of § 26.202, apply to the licensees and other entities identified in § 26.3(a); if applicable, (c), (d), and (f), for licensees and other entities not implementing the requirements in subparts K and M. For the licensees and other entities to whom the requirements in this subpart, with the exception of § 26.202, apply, the requirements in §§ 26.203 and 26.211 apply to the individuals identified in § 26.4(a) through (c). In addition, the requirements in § 26.205 through § 26.209 apply to the individuals identified in § 26.4(a).
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements in this subpart, with the exception of § 26.203, apply to the licensees or other entities identified in § 26.3(f) implementing this subpart under § 26.605. For these licensees and other entities, the requirements in §§ 26.202 and 26.211 apply to the individuals identified in § 26.4(a) through (c) and any person licensed to operate under 10 CFR part 53; and the requirements in §§ 26.205 through 26.209 apply to the individuals identified in § 26.4(a).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15778, Mar. 30, 2026]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.202" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.9.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.202   General provisions for facilities licensed under 10 CFR part 53.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> Licensees must establish a policy for the management of fatigue for all individuals who are subject to the licensee's FFD program and incorporate it into the written policy required in § 26.606(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> In addition to the procedures required in § 26.606(b), licensees must develop, implement, and maintain procedures that—
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the process to be followed when any individual identified in § 26.4(a) through (c) makes a self-declaration that he or she is not fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties for any part of a working tour as a result of fatigue. The procedure must—
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the individual's and licensee's rights and responsibilities related to self-declaration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe requirements for establishing controls and conditions under which an individual may be permitted or required to perform work after that individual declares that he or she is not fit due to fatigue; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the process to be followed if the individual disagrees with the results of a fatigue assessment that is required under § 26.211(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the process for implementing the controls required under § 26.205 for the individuals who are performing the duties listed in § 26.4(a);
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the process to be followed in conducting fatigue assessments under § 26.211; and
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the disciplinary actions that the licensee may impose on an individual following a fatigue assessment, and the conditions and considerations for taking those disciplinary actions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training and assessments.</I> Licensees must include the following KAs in the content of the training and trainee assessments required in § 26.608:
</P>
<P>(1) Knowledge of the contributors to worker fatigue, circadian variations in alertness and performance, indications and risk factors for common sleep disorders, shiftwork strategies for obtaining adequate rest, and the effective use of fatigue countermeasures; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ability to identify symptoms of worker fatigue and contributors to decreased alertness in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Licensees must retain the following records for at least 3 years or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of work hours for individuals who are subject to the work hour controls in § 26.205;
</P>
<P>(2) For licensees implementing the requirements of § 26.205(d)(3), records of shift schedules and shift cycles, or, for licensees implementing the requirements of § 26.205(d)(7), records of shift schedules and records showing the beginning and end times and dates of all averaging periods, of individuals who are subject to the work hour controls in § 26.205;
</P>
<P>(3) The documentation of waivers that is required in § 26.207(a)(4), including the bases for granting the waivers;
</P>
<P>(4) The documentation of work hour reviews that is required in § 26.205(e)(3) and (e)(4); and
</P>
<P>(5) The documentation of fatigue assessments that is required in § 26.211(g).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting.</I> Licensees must include the following information in a standard format in the annual FFD program performance report required under § 26.617(b)(2):
</P>
<P>(1) A summary for each nuclear power plant site of all instances during the previous calendar year when the licensee waived one or more of the work hour controls specified in § 26.205(d)(1) through (d)(5)(i) and (d)(7) for individuals described in § 26.4(a). The summary must include only those waivers under which work was performed. If it was necessary to waive more than one work hour control during any single extended work period, the summary of instances must include each of the work hour controls that were waived during the period. For each category of individuals specified in § 26.4(a), the licensee must report—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of instances when each applicable work hour control specified in § 26.205(d)(1)(i) through (iii), (d)(2)(i) and (ii), (d)(3)(i) through (v), and (d)(7) was waived for individuals not working on outage activities;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of instances when each applicable work hour control specified in § 26.205(d)(1)(i) through (iii), (d)(2)(i) and (ii), (d)(3)(i) through (v), (d)(4), (d)(5)(i), and (d)(7) was waived for individuals working on outage activities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary that shows the distribution of waiver use among the individuals applicable within each category of individuals identified in § 26.4(a) (<I>e.g.,</I> a table that shows the number of individuals who received only one waiver during the reporting period, the number of individuals who received a total of two waivers during the reporting period).
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of corrective actions, if any, resulting from the analyses of these data, including fatigue assessments.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Audits.</I> Licensees must audit the management of worker fatigue under § 26.615.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15778, Mar. 30, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.203" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.9.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.203   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> Licensees shall establish a policy for the management of fatigue for all individuals who are subject to the licensee's FFD program and incorporate it into the written policy required in § 26.27(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> In addition to the procedures required in § 26.27(c), licensees shall develop, implement, and maintain procedures that—
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the process to be followed when any individual identified in § 26.4(a) through (c) makes a self-declaration that he or she is not fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties for any part of a working tour as a result of fatigue. The procedure must—
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the individual's and licensee's rights and responsibilities related to self-declaration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe requirements for establishing controls and conditions under which an individual may be permitted or required to perform work after that individual declares that he or she is not fit due to fatigue; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the process to be followed if the individual disagrees with the results of a fatigue assessment that is required under § 26.211(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the process for implementing the controls required under § 26.205 for the individuals who are performing the duties listed in § 26.4(a);
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the process to be followed in conducting fatigue assessments under § 26.211; and
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the disciplinary actions that the licensee may impose on an individual following a fatigue assessment, and the conditions and considerations for taking those disciplinary actions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training and examinations.</I> Licensees shall add the following KAs to the content of the training that is required in § 26.29(a) and the comprehensive examination required in § 26.29(b):
</P>
<P>(1) Knowledge of the contributors to worker fatigue, circadian variations in alertness and performance, indications and risk factors for common sleep disorders, shiftwork strategies for obtaining adequate rest, and the effective use of fatigue countermeasures; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ability to identify symptoms of worker fatigue and contributors to decreased alertness in the workplace.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Licensees shall retain the following records for at least 3 years or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of work hours for individuals who are subject to the work hour controls in § 26.205;
</P>
<P>(2) For licensees implementing the requirements of § 26.205(d)(3), records of shift schedules and shift cycles, or, for licensees implementing the requirements of § 26.205(d)(7), records of shift schedules and records showing the beginning and end times and dates of all averaging periods, of individuals who are subject to the work hour controls in § 26.205;
</P>
<P>(3) The documentation of waivers that is required in § 26.207(a)(4), including the bases for granting the waivers;
</P>
<P>(4) The documentation of work hour reviews that is required in § 26.205(e)(3) and (e)(4); and
</P>
<P>(5) The documentation of fatigue assessments that is required in § 26.211(g).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting.</I> Licensees shall include the following information in a standard format in the annual FFD program performance report required under § 26.717:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary for each nuclear power plant site of all instances during the previous calendar year when the licensee waived one or more of the work hour controls specified in § 26.205(d)(1) through (d)(5)(i) and (d)(7) for individuals described in § 26.4(a). The summary must include only those waivers under which work was performed. If it was necessary to waive more than one work hour control during any single extended work period, the summary of instances must include each of the work hour controls that were waived during the period. For each category of individuals specified in § 26.4(a), the licensee shall report:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of instances when each applicable work hour control specified in § 26.205(d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(iii), (d)(2)(i) and (d)(2)(ii), (d)(3)(i) through (d)(3)(v), and (d)(7) was waived for individuals not working on outage activities;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of instances when each applicable work hour control specified in § 26.205(d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(iii), (d)(2)(i) and (d)(2)(ii), (d)(3)(i) through (d)(3)(v), (d)(4) and (d)(5)(i), and (d)(7) was waived for individuals working on outage activities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary that shows the distribution of waiver use among the individuals within each category of individuals identified in § 26.4(a) (e.g., a table that shows the number of individuals who received only one waiver during the reporting period, the number of individuals who received a total of two waivers during the reporting period).
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of corrective actions, if any, resulting from the analyses of these data, including fatigue assessments.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Audits.</I> Licensees shall audit the management of worker fatigue as required by § 26.41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 43548, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.205" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.9.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.205   Work hours.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individuals subject to work hour controls.</I> Any individual who performs duties identified in § 26.4(a)(1) through (a)(5) shall be subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculating work hours.</I> For the purposes of this section, a licensee shall calculate the work hours of individuals who are subject to this section as the amount of time the individuals perform duties for the licensee. Except as permitted by paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section, the calculated work hours must include all time performing duties for the licensee, including all within-shift break times and rest periods during which there are no reasonable opportunities or accommodations appropriate for restorative sleep.
</P>
<P>(1) Shift turnover. Licensees may exclude shift turnover from the calculation of an individual's work hours. Shift turnover includes only those activities that are necessary to safely transfer information and responsibilities between two or more individuals between shifts. Shift turnover activities may include, but are not limited to, discussions of the status of plant equipment, and the status of ongoing activities, such as extended tests of safety systems and components. Licensees may not exclude work hours worked during turnovers between individuals within a shift period due to rotations or relief within a shift. Activities that licensees may not exclude from work hours calculations also include, but are not limited to, shift holdovers to cover for late arrivals of incoming shift members; early arrivals of individuals for meetings, training, or pre-shift briefings for special evolutions; and holdovers for interviews needed for event investigations.
</P>
<P>(2) Within-shift break and rest periods. Licensees may exclude from the calculation of an individual's work hours only that portion of a break or rest period during which there is a reasonable opportunity and accommodations for restorative sleep (e.g., a nap).
</P>
<P>(3) Beginning or resuming duties subject to work hour controls. If an individual begins or resumes performing for the licensee any of the duties listed in § 26.4(a) during the calculation period, the licensee shall include in the calculation of the individual's work hours all work hours worked for the licensee, including hours worked performing duties that are not listed in § 26.4(a), and control the individual's work hours under the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Unannounced emergency preparedness exercises and drills. Licensees may exclude from the calculation of an individual's work hours the time the individual works unscheduled work hours for the purpose of participating in the actual conduct of an unannounced emergency preparedness exercise or drill.
</P>
<P>(5) Incidental duties performed off site. Licensees may exclude from the calculation of an individual's work hours unscheduled work performed off site (e.g., technical assistance provided by telephone from an individual's home), provided the total duration of the work does not exceed a nominal 30 minutes during any single break period. For the purposes of compliance with the minimum break requirements of § 26.205(d)(2), and the minimum days off requirements of § 26.205(d)(3) through (d)(5) or the maximum average work hours requirements of § 26.205(d)(7), such duties do not constitute work periods, work shifts, or hours worked.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Work hours scheduling.</I> Licensees shall schedule the work hours of individuals who are subject to this section consistent with the objective of preventing impairment from fatigue due to the duration, frequency, or sequencing of successive shifts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Work hour controls.</I> Licensees shall control the work hours of individuals who are subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Except as permitted in § 26.207, licensees shall ensure that any individual's work hours do not exceed the following limits:
</P>
<P>(i) 16 work hours in any 24-hour period;
</P>
<P>(ii) 26 work hours in any 48-hour period; and
</P>
<P>(iii) 72 work hours in any 7-day period.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees shall ensure that individuals have, at a minimum, the rest breaks specified in this paragraph. For the purposes of this subpart, a break is defined as an interval of time that falls between successive work periods, during which the individual does not perform any duties for the licensee other than one period of shift turnover at either the beginning or end of a shift but not both. Except as permitted in § 26.207, licensees shall ensure that individuals have, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(i) A 10-hour break between successive work periods or an 8-hour break between successive work periods when a break of less than 10 hours is necessary to accommodate a crew's scheduled transition between work schedules or shifts; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A 34-hour break in any 9-day period.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees shall either ensure that individuals have, at a minimum, the number of days off specified in this paragraph, or comply with the requirements for maximum average workhours in § 26.205(d)(7). For the purposes of this section, a day off is defined as a calendar day during which an individual does not start a work shift. For the purposes of calculating the average number of days off required in this paragraph, the duration of the shift cycle may not exceed 6 weeks.
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals who are working 8-hour shift schedules shall have at least 1 day off per week, averaged over the shift cycle;
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals who are working 10-hour shift schedules shall have at least 2 days off per week, averaged over the shift cycle;
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals who are working 12-hour shift schedules while performing the duties described in § 26.4(a)(1) through (a)(3) shall have at least 2.5 days off per week, averaged over the shift cycle;
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals who are working 12-hour shift schedules while performing the duties described in § 26.4(a)(4) shall have at least 2 days off per week, averaged over the shift cycle; and
</P>
<P>(v) Individuals who are working 12-hour shift schedules while performing the duties described in § 26.4(a)(5) shall have at least 3 days off per week, averaged over the shift cycle.
</P>
<P>(4) During the first 60 days of a unit outage, licensees need not meet the requirements of § 26.205(d)(3) or (d)(7) for individuals specified in § 26.4(a)(1) through (a)(4), while those individuals are working on outage activities. However, the licensee shall ensure that the individuals specified in § 26.4(a)(1) through (a)(3) have at least 3 days off in each successive (<I>i.e.</I>, non-rolling) 15-day period and that the individuals specified in § 26.4(a)(4) have at least 1 day off in any 7-day period;
</P>
<P>(5) During the first 60 days of a unit outage, security system outage, or increased threat condition, licensees shall control the hours worked by individuals specified in § 26.4(a)(5) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) During the first 60 days of a unit outage or a planned security system outage, licensees need not meet the requirements of § 26.205(d)(3) or (d)(7). However, licensees shall ensure that these individuals have at least 4 days off in each successive (<I>i.e.</I>, non-rolling) 15-day period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) During the first 60 days of an unplanned security system outage or increased threat condition, licensees need not meet the requirements of § 26.205(d)(3), (d)(5)(i), or (d)(7).
</P>
<P>(6) The 60-day periods in paragraphs (d)(4) and (d)(5) of this section may be extended for each individual in 7-day increments for each non-overlapping 7-day period the individual has worked not more than 48 hours during the unit or security system outage or increased threat condition, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(7) Licensees may, as an alternative to complying with the minimum days off requirements in § 26.205(d)(3), comply with the requirements for maximum average work hours in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals may not work more than a weekly average of 54 hours, calculated using an averaging period of up to six (6) weeks, which advances by 7 consecutive calendar days at the finish of every averaging period.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this section, when an individual's work shift starts at the end of a calendar day and concludes during the next calendar day, the licensee shall either consider the hours worked during that entire shift as if they were all worked on the day the shift started, or attribute the hours to the calendar days on which the hours were actually worked.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each licensee shall state, in its FFD policy and procedures required by either §§ 26.27 and 26.203(a) and (b) or §§ 26.202(a) and (b) and 26.606, the work hour counting system in paragraph (d)(7)(ii) of this section the licensee is using.
</P>
<P>(8) Each licensee shall state, in its FFD policy and procedures required by either §§ 26.27 and 26.203(a) and (b) or §§ 26.202(a) and (b) and 26.606, the requirements with which the licensee is complying: the minimum days off requirements in paragraph (d)(3) of this section or maximum average work hours requirements in paragraph (d)(7) of this section.






</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reviews.</I> Licensees shall evaluate the effectiveness of their control of work hours of individuals who are subject to this section. Licensees shall conduct the reviews once per calendar year. If any plant or security system outages or increased threat conditions occurred since the licensee completed the most recent review, the licensee shall include in the review an evaluation of the control of work hours during the outages or increased threat conditions. Licensees shall complete the review within 30 days of the end of the review period. Licensees shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Review the actual work hours and performance of individuals who are subject to this section for consistency with the requirements of § 26.205(c). At a minimum, this review must address—
</P>
<P>(i) Individuals whose actual hours worked during the review period exceeded an average of 54 hours per week in any shift cycle while the individuals' work hours are subject to the requirements of § 26.205(d)(3) or in any averaging period of up to 6 weeks, using the same averaging period durations that the licensee uses to control the individuals' work hours, while the individuals' work hours are subject to the requirements of § 26.205(d)(7);
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals who were granted more than one waiver during the review period; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals who were assessed for fatigue under § 26.211 during the review period.
</P>
<P>(2) Review individuals' hours worked and the waivers under which work was performed to evaluate staffing adequacy for all jobs subject to the work hour controls of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Document the methods used to conduct the review and the results of the review; and
</P>
<P>(4) Record, trend, and correct, under the licensee's corrective action program, any problems identified in maintaining control of work hours consistent with the specific requirements and performance objectives of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 43548, July 21, 2011; 91 FR 15779, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.207" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.9.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.207   Waivers and exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Waivers.</I> Licensees may grant a waiver of one or more of the work hour controls in § 26.205(d)(1) through (d)(5)(i) and (d)(7), as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) To grant a waiver, the licensee shall meet both of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) An operations shift manager determines that the waiver is necessary to mitigate or prevent a condition adverse to safety, or a security shift manager determines that the waiver is necessary to maintain site security, or a site senior-level manager with requisite signature authority makes either determination; and


</P>
<P>(ii) A supervisor assesses the individual face-to-face and determines that there is reasonable assurance that the individual will be able to safely and competently perform his or her duties during the additional work period for which the waiver will be granted. The supervisor performing the assessment shall be trained as required by either §§ 26.29 and 26.203(c) or §§ 26.202(c) and 26.608 and shall be qualified to direct the work to be performed by the individual. If there is no supervisor on site who is qualified to direct the work, the assessment may be performed by a supervisor who is qualified to provide oversight of the work to be performed by the individual. At a minimum, the assessment must address the potential for acute and cumulative fatigue considering the individual's work history for at least the past 14 days, the potential for circadian degradations in alertness and performance considering the time of day for which the waiver will be granted, the potential for fatigue-related degradations in alertness and performance to affect risk-significant functions, and whether any controls and conditions must be established under which the individual will be permitted to perform work. For licensees and other entities in § 26.3(f), the assessment may be performed remotely using electronic communications. In such instances, the assessment must be supported by someone who is present in-person with the individual whose alertness may be impaired, and that supporting person must be trained under the requirements of either §§ 26.29 and 26.203(c) or §§ 26.202(c) and 26.608.






</P>
<P>(2) To the extent practicable, licensees shall rely on the granting of waivers only to address circumstances that could not have been reasonably controlled;
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees shall ensure that the timing of the face-to-face supervisory assessment that is required by paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section supports a valid assessment of the potential for worker fatigue during the time the individual will be performing work under the waiver. Licensees may not perform the face-to-face assessment more than 4 hours before the individual begins performing any work under the waiver; and
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees shall document the bases for individual waivers. The documented basis for a waiver must include a description of the circumstances that necessitate the waiver, a statement of the scope of work and time period for which the waiver is approved, and the bases for the determinations required in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Force-on-force tactical exercises.</I> For the purposes of compliance with the minimum days off requirements of § 26.205(d)(3) or the maximum average work hours requirements of § 26.205(d)(7), licensees may exclude shifts worked by security personnel during the actual conduct of NRC-evaluated force-on-force tactical exercises when calculating the individual's number of days off or hours worked, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Common defense and security.</I> When informed in writing by the NRC that the requirements of § 26.205, or any subset thereof, are waived for security personnel to ensure the common defense and security, licensees need not meet the specified requirements of § 26.205 for the duration of the period defined by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plant emergencies.</I> Licensees need not meet the requirements of § 26.205(c) and (d) during declared emergencies, as defined in the licensee's emergency plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 43549, July 21, 2011; 91 FR 15779, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.209" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.9.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.209   Self-declarations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an individual is performing, or being assessed for, work under a waiver of one or more of the requirements contained in § 26.205(d)(1) through (d)(5)(i) and (d)(7) and declares that, due to fatigue, he or she is unable to safely and competently perform his or her duties, the licensee shall immediately stop the individual from performing any duties listed in § 26.4(a), except if the individual is required to continue performing those duties under other requirements of this chapter. If the subject individual must continue performing the duties listed in § 26.4(a) until relieved, the licensee shall immediately take action to relieve the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) Following a self-declaration, as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the licensee—
</P>
<P>(1) May reassign the individual to duties other than those listed in § 26.4(a), but only if the results of a fatigue assessment, conducted under the requirements of § 26.211, indicate that the individual is fit to safely and competently perform those other duties; and
</P>
<P>(2) Shall permit or require the individual to take a break of at least 10 hours before the individual returns to performing any duties listed in § 26.4(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 43549, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.211" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.9.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.211   Fatigue assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees shall ensure that fatigue assessments are conducted under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) For-cause. In addition to any other test or determination of fitness that may be required under §§ 26.31(c), 26.77, 26.607(b), and 26.619, a fatigue assessment must be conducted in response to an observed condition of impaired individual alertness creating a reasonable suspicion that an individual is not fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties, except if the condition is observed during an individual's break period. If the observed condition is impaired alertness with no other behaviors or physical conditions creating a reasonable suspicion of possible substance abuse, then the licensee need only conduct a fatigue assessment. If the licensee has reason to believe that the observed condition is not due to fatigue, the licensee need not conduct a fatigue assessment;




</P>
<P>(2) Self-declaration. A fatigue assessment must be conducted in response to an individual's self-declaration to his or her supervisor that he or she is not fit to safely and competently perform his or her duties for any part of a working tour because of fatigue, except if, following the self-declaration, the licensee permits or requires the individual to take a rest break of at least 10 hours before the individual returns to duty;
</P>
<P>(3) Post-event. A fatigue assessment must be conducted in response to events requiring post-event drug and alcohol testing as specified in § 26.31(c) or post-event tests in § 26.607(b)(4). Licensees may not delay necessary medical treatment in order to conduct a fatigue assessment; and


</P>
<P>(4) Followup. If a fatigue assessment was conducted for cause or in response to a self-declaration, and the licensee returns the individual to duty following a break of less than 10 hours in duration, the licensee shall reassess the individual for fatigue as well as the need to implement controls and conditions before permitting the individual to resume performing any duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Only supervisors and FFD program personnel who are trained under either §§ 26.29 and 26.203(c) or §§ 26.202(c) and 26.608 may conduct a fatigue assessment. The fatigue assessment must be conducted face-to-face with the individual whose alertness may be impaired. For licensees and other entities in § 26.3(f), a fatigue assessment may be performed remotely using electronic communications. In such instances, the fatigue assessment must be supported by someone who is present in-person with the individual whose alertness may be impaired, and that supporting person must be trained in accordance with the requirements of either §§ 26.29 and 26.203(c) or §§ 26.202(c) and 26.608.








</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a fatigue assessment conducted for cause, the individual who observed the condition of impaired alertness may not conduct the fatigue assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a post-event fatigue assessment, the individual who conducts the fatigue assessment may not have—
</P>
<P>(i) Performed or directed (on site) the work activities during which the event occurred;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performed, within 24 hours before the event occurred, a fatigue assessment of the individuals who were performing or directing (on site) the work activities during which the event occurred; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Evaluated or approved a waiver of one or more of the limits specified in § 26.205(d)(1) through (d)(5)(i) and (d)(7) for any of the individuals who were performing or directing (on site) the work activities during which the event occurred, if the event occurred while such individuals were performing work under that waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) A fatigue assessment must provide the information necessary for management decisions and actions in response to the circumstance that initiated the assessment.
</P>
<P>(1) At a minimum, the fatigue assessment must address the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Acute fatigue;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cumulative fatigue; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Circadian variations in alertness and performance.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals shall provide complete and accurate information that may be required by the licensee to address the factors listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Licensees shall limit any inquiries to obtaining from the subject individual only the personal information that may be necessary to assess the factors listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee may not conclude that fatigue has not or will not degrade the individual's ability to safely and competently perform his or her duties solely on the basis that the individual's work hours have not exceeded any of the limits specified in § 26.205(d)(1), the individual has had the minimum breaks required in § 26.205(d)(2) or minimum days off required in § 26.205(d)(3) through (d)(5), as applicable, or the individual's hours worked have not exceeded the maximum average number of hours worked in § 26.205(d)(7).
</P>
<P>(e) Following a fatigue assessment, the licensee shall determine and implement the controls and conditions, if any, that are necessary to permit the individual to resume performing duties for the licensee, including the need for a break.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees shall document the results of any fatigue assessments conducted, the circumstances that necessitated the fatigue assessment, and any controls and conditions that were implemented.
</P>
<P>(g) Licensees shall also prepare an annual summary for each nuclear power plant site of instances of fatigue assessments that were conducted during the previous calendar year for any individual identified in § 26.4(a) through (c). Each summary must include—
</P>
<P>(1) The conditions under which each fatigue assessment was conducted (<I>i.e.</I>, self-declaration, for cause, post-event, followup);
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of whether or not the individual was working on outage activities at the time of the self-declaration or condition resulting in the fatigue assessment;
</P>
<P>(3) The category of duties the individual was performing, if the individual was performing the duties described in § 26.4(a)(1) through (a)(5) at the time of the self-declaration or condition resulting in the fatigue assessment; and
</P>
<P>(4) The management actions, if any, resulting from each fatigue assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 43549, July 21, 2011; 91 FR 15779, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—FFD Program for Construction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.401" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.401   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the licensee's or other entity's discretion, a licensee or other entity in § 26.3(c) may establish, implement, and maintain an FFD program that meets the requirements of this subpart to apply to the individuals specified in § 26.4(f). If a licensee or other entity in § 26.3(c) does not elect to implement an FFD program that meets the requirements of this subpart, the individuals specified in § 26.4(f) shall be subject to an FFD program that meets the requirements of subparts A through H, N, and O of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Entities who intend to implement an FFD program under this subpart shall submit a description of the FFD program and its implementation as part of the license, permit, or limited work authorization application.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this subpart prohibits the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(c) from subjecting the individuals in § 26.4(f) to an FFD program that meets all of the requirements of this part or FFD program elements that meet all of the applicable requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.403" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.403   Written policy and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities who implement an FFD program under this subpart shall ensure that a clear, concise, written FFD policy statement is provided to individuals who are subject to the program. The policy statement must be written in sufficient detail to provide affected individuals with information on what is expected of them and what consequences may result from a lack of adherence to the policy.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures that address the following topics:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods and techniques to be used in testing for drugs and alcohol, including procedures for protecting the privacy of an individual who provides a specimen, procedures for protecting the integrity of the specimen, and procedures used to ensure that the test results are valid and attributable to the correct individual;
</P>
<P>(2) The immediate and followup actions that will be taken, and the procedures to be used, in those cases in which individuals who are subject to the FFD program are determined to have—
</P>
<P>(i) Been involved in the use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Consumed alcohol to excess before or while constructing or directing the construction of safety- or security-related SSCs, as determined by a test that accurately measures BAC;
</P>
<P>(iii) Attempted to subvert the testing process by adulterating or diluting specimens (in vivo or in vitro), substituting specimens, or by any other means;
</P>
<P>(iv) Refused to provide a specimen for analysis; or
</P>
<P>(v) Had legal action taken relating to drug or alcohol use.
</P>
<P>(3) The process to be followed if an individual's behavior or condition raises a concern regarding the possible use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs on or off site; the possible use or possession of alcohol while constructing or directing the construction of safety- or security-related SSCs; or impairment from any cause which in any way could adversely affect the individual's ability to safely and competently perform his or her duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.405" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.405   Drug and alcohol testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To provide means to deter and detect substance abuse, licensees and other entities who implement an FFD program under this subpart shall perform drug and alcohol testing that complies with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) If the licensee or other entity elects to impose random testing for drugs and alcohol on the individuals identified in § 26.4(f), random testing must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be administered in a manner that provides reasonable assurance that individuals are unable to predict the time periods during which specimens will be collected;
</P>
<P>(2) Require individuals who are selected for random testing to report to the collection site as soon as reasonably practicable after notification, within the time period specified in the FFD program policy;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that all individuals in the population that is subject to random testing on a given day have an equal probability of being selected and tested; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide that an individual completing a test is immediately eligible for another random test.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals identified in § 26.4(f) shall be subject to drug and alcohol testing under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Pre-assignment. Before assignment to construct or direct the construction of safety- or security-related SSCs;
</P>
<P>(2) For-cause. In response to an individual's observed behavior or physical condition indicating possible substance abuse or after receiving credible information that an individual is engaging in substance abuse, as defined in § 26.5;
</P>
<P>(3) Post-accident. As soon as practical after an event involving a human error that was committed by an individual specified in § 26.4(f), where the human error may have caused or contributed to the accident. The licensee or other entity shall test the individual(s) who committed the error(s), and need not test individuals who were affected by the event but whose actions likely did not cause or contribute to the event. The individual(s) who committed the human error(s) shall be tested if the event resulted in—
</P>
<P>(i) A significant illness or personal injury to the individual to be tested or another individual, which within 4 hours after the event is recordable under the Department of Labor standards contained in 29 CFR 1904.7, and subsequent amendments thereto, and results in death, days away from work, restricted work, transfer to another job, medical treatment beyond first aid, loss of consciousness, or other significant illness or injury as diagnosed by a physician or other licensed health care professional, even if it does not result in death, days away from work, restricted work or job transfer, medical treatment beyond first aid, or loss of consciousness; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Significant damage, during construction, to any safety-or security-related SSC; and
</P>
<P>(4) Followup. As part of a followup plan to verify an individual's continued abstinence from substance abuse.




</P>
<P>(d) At a minimum, licensees and other entities shall test specimens for marijuana metabolite, cocaine metabolite, opioids (codeine, morphine, 6-acetylmorphine, hydrocodone, hydromorphone, oxycodone, and oxymorphone), amphetamines (amphetamine, methamphetamine, methylenedioxymethamphetamine, and methylenedioxyamphetamine), phencyclidine, and alcohol at the cutoff levels specified in this part, or comparable cutoff levels if specimens other than urine are collected for drug testing. Urine specimens collected for drug testing must be subject to validity testing that includes testing for adulterants.


</P>
<P>(e) The specimen collection and drug and alcohol testing procedures of FFD programs under this subpart must protect the donor's privacy and the integrity of the specimen, and implement stringent quality controls to ensure that test results are valid and attributable to the correct individual. At the licensee's or other entity's discretion, specimen collections and alcohol testing may be conducted at a local hospital or other facility under the specimen collection and alcohol testing requirements of 49 CFR Part 40 and subsequent amendments thereto.
</P>
<P>(f) Testing of urine specimens for drugs and validity, except validity screening and initial drug and validity tests that may be performed by licensee testing facilities, must be performed in a laboratory that is certified by HHS for that purpose, consistent with its standards and procedures for certification. Any initial drug test performed by a licensee or other entity subject to this subpart must use an immunoassay that meets the requirements of the Food and Drug Administration for commercial distribution. Urine specimens that yield positive, adulterated, substituted, or invalid initial validity or drug test results must be subject to confirmatory testing by the HHS-certified laboratory, except for invalid specimens that cannot be tested. Other specimens that yield positive initial drug test results must be subject to confirmatory testing by a laboratory that meets stringent quality control requirements that are comparable to those required for certification by the HHS.
</P>
<P>(g) Licensees and other entities shall provide for an MRO review of positive, adulterated, substituted, and invalid confirmatory drug and validity test results to determine whether the donor has violated the FFD policy, before reporting the results to the individual designated by the licensee or other entity to perform the suitability and fitness evaluations required under § 26.419.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010; 87 FR 71463, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.406" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.406   Fitness monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements in this section apply only if a licensee or other entity does not elect to subject the individuals specified in § 26.4(f) to random testing for drugs and alcohol under § 26.405(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities shall implement a fitness monitoring program to deter substance abuse and detect indications of possible use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs; use or possession of alcohol while constructing or directing the construction of safety- or security-related SSCs; or impairment from any cause that if left unattended may result in a risk to public health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees and other entities shall establish procedures that monitors shall follow in response to the indications and actions specified in paragraph (b) of this section and train the monitors to implement the program.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees and other entities shall ensure that the fitness of individuals specified in § 26.4(f) is monitored effectively while the individuals are constructing or directing the construction of safety- and security-related SSCs, commensurate with the potential risk to public health and safety and the common defense and security imposed by the construction activity. To achieve this objective, licensees and other entities shall consider the number and placement of monitors required, the necessary ratio of monitors to individuals specified in § 26.4(f), and the frequency with which the individuals specified in § 26.4(f) shall be monitored while constructing or directing the construction of each safety- or security-related SSC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.407" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.407   Behavioral observation.</HEAD>
<P>While the individuals specified in § 26.4(f) are constructing or directing the construction of safety- or security-related SSCs, licensees and other entities shall ensure that these individuals are subject to behavioral observation, except if the licensee or other entity has implemented a fitness monitoring program under § 26.406.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.409" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.409   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees and other entities who implement an FFD program under this subpart shall establish sanctions for FFD policy violations that, at a minimum, prohibit the individuals specified in § 26.4(f) from being assigned to construct or direct the construction of safety- or security-related SSCs unless or until the licensee or other entity determines that the individual's condition or behavior does not pose a potential risk to public health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73941, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.411" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.411   Protection of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities who collect personal information about an individual for the purpose of complying with this subpart shall establish and maintain a system of files and procedures to protect the personal information. FFD programs must maintain and use such records with the highest regard for individual privacy.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities shall obtain a signed consent that authorizes the disclosure of the personal information collected and maintained under this subpart before disclosing the personal information, except for disclosures to the individuals and entities specified in § 26.37(b)(1) through (b)(6), (b)(8), and persons deciding matters under review in § 26.413.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.413" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.413   Review process.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees and other entities who implement an FFD program under this subpart shall establish and implement procedures for the review of a determination that an individual in § 26.4(f) has violated the FFD policy. The procedure must provide for an objective and impartial review of the facts related to the determination that the individual has violated the FFD policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.415" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.415   Audits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities who implement an FFD program under this subpart shall ensure that audits are performed to assure the continuing effectiveness of the FFD program, including FFD program elements that are provided by C/Vs, and the FFD programs of C/Vs that are accepted by the licensee or other entity.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee and other entity shall ensure that these programs are audited at a frequency that assures their continuing effectiveness and that corrective actions are taken to resolve any problems identified. Licensees and entities may conduct joint audits, or accept audits of C/Vs conducted by others, so long as the audit addresses the relevant C/Vs' services.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees and other entities need not audit HHS-certified laboratories or the specimen collection and alcohol testing services that meet the requirements of 49 CFR Part 40, “Procedures for Department of Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs”, on which licensees and other entities may rely to meet the drug and alcohol testing requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71463, Nov. 22, 2022]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.417" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.417   Recordkeeping and reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities who implement FFD programs under this subpart shall ensure that records pertaining to the administration of the program, which may be stored and archived electronically, are maintained so that they are available for NRC inspection purposes and for any legal proceedings resulting from the administration of the program.


</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities shall make the following reports:
</P>
<P>(1) Reports to the NRC Operations Center by telephone within 24 hours after the licensee or other entity discovers any intentional act that casts doubt on the integrity of the FFD program and any programmatic failure, degradation, or discovered vulnerability of the FFD program that may permit undetected drug or alcohol use or abuse by individuals who are subject to this subpart. These events must be reported under this subpart, rather than under the provisions of 10 CFR 73.1200; and
</P>
<P>(2) Annual program performance reports for the FFD program.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 88 FR 15880, Mar. 14, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.419" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.11.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.419   Suitability and fitness evaluations.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees and other entities who implement FFD programs under this subpart shall develop, implement, and maintain procedures for evaluating whether to assign individuals to construct safety- and security-related SSCs. These procedures must provide reasonable assurance that the individuals are fit to safely and competently perform their duties, and are trustworthy and reliable, as demonstrated by the avoidance of substance abuse.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Fitness-for-Duty Programs for Facilities Licensed Under 10 CFR Part 53</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>91 FR 15779, Mar. 30, 2026, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 26.601" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.601   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee or other entity in § 26.3(f), at its discretion, may establish, implement, and maintain a fitness-for-duty (FFD) program that satisfies the requirements of this subpart for those categories of individuals in § 26.4, as applicable, and any person licensed to operate under part 53 of this chapter. If a licensee or other entity in § 26.3(f) does not elect to implement an FFD program that satisfies the requirements of this subpart, then those categories of individuals in § 26.4, as applicable, and any person licensed to operate under part 53 of this chapter must be subject to an FFD program that satisfies all requirements under this part, except for those requirements in subpart K and this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee or other entity in § 26.3(f) that elects to implement an FFD program that satisfies the requirements of this subpart, and that demonstrates compliance with § 73.100(a)(1)(i) of this chapter, must establish, implement, and maintain an FFD program under § 26.605(a) or (b).
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee or other entity in § 26.3(f) that elects to implement an FFD program that satisfies the requirements of this subpart and does not demonstrate compliance with § 73.100(a)(1)(i) of this chapter must establish, implement, and maintain an FFD program under § 26.605(a) and (b).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.603" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.603   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FFD program description.</I> An applicant's description of the FFD program in its Final Safety Analysis Report, required by subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, must include—
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the applicant demonstrates compliance with § 73.100(a)(1)(i) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement whether the FFD program will be implemented pursuant to § 26.605(a) or (b) or § 26.605(a) and (b), or will satisfy all requirements under this part, except for the requirements in subpart K and this subpart;
</P>
<P>(3) A discussion of the applicability of the FFD program to those individuals described in § 26.4 and how the program will be implemented offsite at a U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)-licensed facility authorized to assemble or test a manufactured reactor, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the drug and alcohol testing and fitness determination process to be implemented through the licensee's or other entity's procedures, including the collection and testing facilities to be used, biological specimens to be collected and tested, and sanctions to be imposed for FFD policy violations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FFD program implementation and availability.</I> For the licensees and other entities in § 26.3(f), other than the holder of a manufacturing license (ML), the FFD program must be maintained until the NRC's docketing of the license holder's certifications described in § 53.1070 of this chapter. For holders of an ML, the FFD program must be maintained until expiration of the ML.
</P>
<P>(c)-(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FFD program change control.</I> (1) The licensee or other entity may make changes to its FFD program under this subpart if—
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee or other entity performs and retains an analysis demonstrating that the changes do not reduce the effectiveness of the FFD program; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The change was necessitated or justified by a change to this part, laboratory processes or procedures, or guidance issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) or NRC, as implemented by the licensee or other entity though its procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee or other entity desiring to make a change that decreases FFD program effectiveness must implement a mitigating strategy so the FFD program, as revised, will continue to satisfy the performance objectives in § 26.23 and not result in a reduction in FFD program effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(3) Except for phencyclidine, and notwithstanding paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, the change control process may not be used to reduce the minimum panel of drugs to be tested in § 26.607(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee must retain a record of each change made under this section for a period of at least 5 years from the date the change was implemented and summarize this change in its annual FFD performance report required by § 26.617(b)(2) or § 26.717, as applicable.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.605" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.605   FFD program requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The licensee or other entity must establish, implement, and maintain an FFD program under this paragraph (a) before the start of—
</P>
<P>(i) Construction activities as defined in § 26.5;
</P>
<P>(ii) Activities performed under an ML that authorizes the assembly, non-operational testing, or both of a manufactured reactor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Activities described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An FFD program under this paragraph (a) must—
</P>
<P>(i) Apply to those individuals described in § 26.4, as applicable; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement the following requirements and subparts:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 26.23, for performance objectives;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 26.35, for employee assistance programs:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For licensees and other entities who demonstrate compliance with § 73.100(a)(1)(i) of this chapter, § 26.35 must be implemented before the earliest occurrence of the following, as applicable: the loading of fuel onsite into a reactor vessel; receiving a fueled manufactured reactor; or individuals subject to this part operate, test, perform maintenance of, or direct the maintenance or surveillance of security-related equipment or equipment that a risk-informed evaluation process has shown to be significant to public health and safety; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For licensees and other entities that do not demonstrate compliance with § 73.100(a)(1)(i) of this chapter, § 26.35 must be implemented before the start of activities performed under an ML that allows the assembly, non-operational testing, or both, of a manufactured reactor;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 26.603, for general provisions;
</P>
<P>(D) Section 26.606, for written policy and procedures;
</P>
<P>(E) Section 26.607, for drug and alcohol testing;
</P>
<P>(F) Section 26.608, for FFD program training;
</P>
<P>(G) Section 26.609, for behavioral observation;
</P>
<P>(H) Section 26.610, for sanctions;
</P>
<P>(I) Section 26.611, for protection of information;
</P>
<P>(J) Section 26.613, for the appeals process;
</P>
<P>(K) Section 26.615, for audits;
</P>
<P>(L) Section 26.617, for recordkeeping, reporting, and FFD program performance;
</P>
<P>(M) Section 26.619, for suitability and fitness determinations;
</P>
<P>(N) Subpart A, for administrative provisions;
</P>
<P>(O) Subpart I, for managing fatigue, in the case of holders of an ML that allows the assembly, non-operational testing, or both of a manufactured reactor; and
</P>
<P>(P) Subpart O, for inspections, violations, and penalties.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except for a licensee or other entity that demonstrates compliance with § 73.100(a)(1)(i) of this chapter and elects to implement an FFD program that satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b), for which its FFD program must be established, implemented, and maintained no later than the start of construction activities, as defined in § 26.5, and except for holders of manufacturing licenses if they possess a separate license to load fuel into a manufactured reactor, for which its FFD program under this paragraph (b) must be established, implemented, and maintained no later than the start of the loading of fuel into the reactor, the licensee or other entity must establish, implement, and maintain an FFD program under this paragraph (b) before the earliest occurrence of the following, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The loading of fuel onsite into a reactor vessel;
</P>
<P>(ii) Receiving a fueled manufactured reactor; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals subject to this part operate, test, perform maintenance of, or direct the maintenance or surveillance of security-related equipment or equipment that a risk-informed evaluation process has shown to be significant to public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(2) An FFD program under this paragraph (b) must—
</P>
<P>(i) Apply to those individuals described in § 26.4, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Implements the following requirements and subparts:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 26.23, for performance objectives;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 26.35, for employee assistance programs;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 26.603, for general provisions;
</P>
<P>(D) Section 26.606, for written policy and procedures;
</P>
<P>(E) Section 26.607, for drug and alcohol testing;
</P>
<P>(F) Section 26.608, for FFD program training;
</P>
<P>(G) Section 26.609, for behavioral observation;
</P>
<P>(H) Section 26.611, for protection of information;
</P>
<P>(I) Section 26.613, for the appeals process;
</P>
<P>(J) Section 26.615, for audits;
</P>
<P>(K) Subpart A, for administrative provisions;
</P>
<P>(L) Subpart C, for granting and maintaining authorization;
</P>
<P>(M) Subpart D, for management actions and sanctions to be imposed;
</P>
<P>(N) Subpart H, for determining fitness-for-duty Policy violations and determining fitness, unless using the <I>Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs</I> (the HHS Guidelines) for Medical Review Officer (MRO) evaluation of drug test results, and determining fitness;
</P>
<P>(O) Subpart I, for managing fatigue;
</P>
<P>(P) Subpart N, for recordkeeping and reporting requirements; and
</P>
<P>(Q) Subpart O, for inspections, violations, and penalties.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.606" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.606   Written policy and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities that implement an FFD program under this subpart must ensure that—
</P>
<P>(1) A written FFD policy statement is provided to each individual who is subject to the program before the individual is subject to drug and alcohol testing.
</P>
<P>(2) The FFD policy statement describes the performance objectives in § 26.23.
</P>
<P>(3) The FFD policy statement describes the minimum days off requirements in § 26.205(d)(3) or maximum average work hours requirements in § 26.205(d)(7).
</P>
<P>(4) The FFD policy statement must be written in sufficient detail to provide affected individuals with information on what is expected of them and what consequences may result from a lack of adherence to the policy, including those elements described in paragraph (b) of this section, sanctions required under this part, and required medical/clinical treatment and follow-up testing for FFD policy violations.
</P>
<P>(5) The FFD policy statement describes the individual's responsibilities to report for work in a physiological and psychological condition that enables the safe and competent performance of assigned duties and responsibilities and inform a licensee- or other entity-designated representative when the individual determines that this cannot be accomplished.
</P>
<P>(6) The FFD policy statement must prohibit the consumption of alcohol, at a minimum, within an abstinence period of 5 hours preceding the individual's arrival at the licensee's or other entity's facility.
</P>
<P>(7) The FFD policy statement must convey that abstinence from alcohol for the 5 hours preceding any scheduled tour of duty is considered to be a minimum that is necessary, but may not be sufficient, to ensure that the individual is fit for duty.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities must establish, implement, and maintain written procedures that address the following topics:
</P>
<P>(1) For the drug and alcohol testing program under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(i) The methods and techniques to collect and test for drugs and alcohol and for the shipping and temporary storage of biological specimens used for drug testing at HHS-certified laboratories;
</P>
<P>(ii) The urine specimen volumes, techniques for split specimen collections, and the acceptability of a urine specimen as described in § 26.111 or as described in the HHS Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(iii) Protecting the privacy of an individual who provides a specimen, protecting the integrity of the specimen, and ensuring that the test results are valid and attributable to the correct individual; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the licensee or other entity elects to use the HHS Guidelines, the name of the specific HHS Guideline and revision being implemented by the licensee or other entity and a description of the specific sections in the guideline that are being implemented in the procedure, including specimen collections, drug testing, and evaluation of test results.
</P>
<P>(2) The immediate and follow-up actions that will be taken, and the procedures to be used, in those cases in which individuals who are subject to the FFD program:
</P>
<P>(i) Have been involved in the use, sale, or possession of illegal substances, illegal drugs, or illicit substances;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are impaired by any illegal substances, illegal drugs, or illicit substances or the consumption of alcohol as determined by behavioral observation or a test that measures blood alcohol concentration;
</P>
<P>(iii) Attempted to subvert the testing process by adulterating or diluting specimens (<I>in vivo</I> or <I>in vitro</I>), substituting specimens, or by any other means;
</P>
<P>(iv) Refused to provide a specimen for analysis or follow instructions provided by FFD program personnel;
</P>
<P>(v) Had legal action taken relating to drug or alcohol use;
</P>
<P>(vi) Demonstrated character or actions indicating that the individual cannot be trusted or relied upon to perform those duties and responsibilities or maintain access to NRC-licensed facilities, special nuclear material (SNM), or sensitive information; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Have a condition or have taken actions that pose or have posed an immediate hazard to themselves or others, as notified by EAP personnel under § 26.35(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) The process, including the duties and responsibilities of FFD program personnel, to be followed if an individual's behavior or condition raises a concern regarding the possible use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs on- or offsite; the possible use or possession of alcohol on the NRC-licensed facility; impairment from any cause that in any way could adversely affect the individual's ability to safely and competently perform the individual's duties; or the receipt of credible information indicating that the individual cannot be trusted or relied on to perform those duties and responsibilities making the individual subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Operation and oversight of any onsite or offsite collection facility.
</P>
<P>(5) The fatigue management requirements in § 26.202(b) and either § 26.205(d)(3) or (7).
</P>
<P>(6) Measures to prevent subversion of drug and alcohol tests conducted onsite and offsite.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.607" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.607   Drug and alcohol testing.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees and other entities must perform drug and alcohol testing that complies with the following requirements—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Split specimens.</I> Split specimen collections of oral fluid or urine must be used for the test conditions described in paragraph (b) of this section. Testing of the split specimen (specimen B) requires the donor's permission unless ordered by the MRO to resolve an invalid test result obtained for specimen A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test conditions.</I> Individuals identified in § 26.4 must be subject to drug and alcohol testing under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pre-access.</I> A pre-access test must be conducted for drugs and alcohol before performing or directing the conduct of roles and responsibilities making the individual subject to this subpart or being granted unescorted access to the protected areas of the NRC-licensed facility. A pre-access test must have been conducted no more than 14 days before the individual is granted unescorted access.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Random.</I> Random testing for drugs and alcohol must—
</P>
<P>(i) Be administered in a manner that provides reasonable assurance that individuals are unable to predict the time periods during which specimens will be collected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require individuals who are selected for random testing to report to the onsite collection site as soon as reasonably practicable after notification, within the time period specified in the FFD program procedure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that all individuals in the population that is subject to random testing on a given day have an equal probability of being selected and tested;
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that an individual completing a test is immediately eligible for another random test; and
</P>
<P>(v) Ensure that the sampling process used to select individuals for random testing provides that the number of random tests performed annually is equal to at least 50 percent of the population that is subject to the FFD program at the NRC-licensed site.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the number of individuals subject to random testing at an NRC-licensed site is such that paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section cannot be implemented without predictable outcomes, the licensee must use a consortium/third-party administrator to manage the random testing pool and make selections for testing throughout the year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For-cause.</I> For-cause drug and alcohol tests must be conducted onsite in response to an individual's observed behavior or physical condition indicating possible substance abuse, as defined in § 26.5. A for-cause drug test, alcohol test, or both, must be conducted onsite after receiving credible information either that an individual is engaging in substance abuse or in response to a portal area screening test result under paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Post-event.</I> A post-event test for drugs and alcohol must be conducted—
</P>
<P>(i) As soon as practical after an event involving a human error that was committed by an individual specified in § 26.4, where the human error may have caused or contributed to the event. This test must be conducted onsite unless the individual requires offsite medical care. The licensee or other entity must test the individual(s) who committed or directed the error and need not test individuals who were affected by the event and whose actions likely did not cause or contribute to the event. The licensee or other entity must describe in its procedures what constitutes a human error.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 4 hours of an event unless immediate medical intervention precludes the conduct of the test on the individual(s) who caused or contributed to the accident(s), if the event results in—
</P>
<P>(A) An illness or personal injury to any individual which results in death, days away from work, restricted work, transfer to another job, medical treatment beyond first aid, loss of consciousness, or other significant illness or injury, as diagnosed by a licensee- or other entity-designated physician or other licensed health care professional, even if the illness or injury does not result in death, days away from work, restricted work or job transfer, medical treatment beyond first aid, or loss of consciousness; or
</P>
<P>(B) Damage to any safety- or security-related structures, systems, and components; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Follow-up.</I> An individual subject to this part who has violated the FFD policy for substance use or abuse, or the sale, use, or possession of illegal drugs must be subject to a follow-up series of tests for drugs, alcohol, or both to verify an individual's continued abstinence from substance abuse.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Urine and oral fluid specimens.</I> (1) All urine or oral fluid specimens must be tested for the substances listed in § 26.31(d)(1), except as allowed by § 26.603(e)(3). All urine specimens must be subject to validity testing as specified in either this part or the HHS Guidelines. All oral fluid specimens may be subject to validity testing, including a biological marker, as specified in either this part or the HHS Guidelines.
</P>
<P>(2) For the use of urine as the biological specimen to be tested, the following requirements must be implemented—
</P>
<P>(i) Section 26.115, for collecting a urine specimen under direct observation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 26.119, for determining “shy” bladder; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 26.163, for cutoff levels for drugs and drug metabolites.
</P>
<P>(3) For alcohol testing onsite, the following requirements must be implemented—
</P>
<P>(i) Section 26.91, for acceptable devices for conducting initial and confirmatory tests for alcohol and methods of use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 26.93, for preparing for alcohol testing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 26.95, for conducting an initial test for alcohol using a breath specimen;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 26.97, for collecting oral fluid specimens for alcohol and drug testing;
</P>
<P>(v) Section 26.99, for determining the need for a confirmatory test for alcohol;
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 26.101, for conducting a confirmatory test for alcohol; and,
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 26.103, for determining a confirmed positive test result for alcohol.
</P>
<P>(4) For all test conditions in paragraph (b) of this section and for MRO-directed tests under § 26.185, drug testing must be performed at an HHS-certified laboratory for the specific biological specimen to be tested. Only HHS-certified laboratory test results from urine and oral fluid specimens may be used for the issuance of a sanction required under this part. The licensee or other entity must establish and maintain a contract with a primary and a back-up HHS-certified laboratory (with a different Certifying Scientist) for the specimen(s) to be tested. These contracts must stipulate that the laboratories are subject to inspection or audit by the licensee or other entity and that records and documents must be provided and/or able to be photocopied and removed from the premises to support the inspection or audit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Privacy and integrity.</I> The specimen collection and drug and alcohol testing procedures of FFD programs must protect the donor's privacy and the integrity of the specimen and implement quality controls to ensure that test results are valid and attributable to the correct individual.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Offsite collection facilities.</I> At the licensee's or other entity's discretion, except for those specimens that must be collected onsite under paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, specimen collections and alcohol testing may be conducted at a local hospital or other facility licensed to conduct specimen collections and perform alcohol testing and audited by the State or a State-designated entity. The licensee or other entity must audit these facilities, if used, before their initial use and then on a biennial basis to confirm that the facility procedures are comparable to those described in subpart E of this part or the HHS Guidelines for urine and oral fluid.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Initial testing.</I> A licensee or other entity subject to this subpart performing an initial test must use an immunoassay, or an alternative technology as specified in the HHS Guidelines for the specific biological specimen that is to be tested. Specimens that yield positive, positive and dilute, adulterated, substituted, or invalid initial validity or drug test results or discrepant biological markers must be subject to confirmatory testing by an HHS-certified laboratory, certified for that biological specimen, except for invalid specimens that cannot be tested.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Oral fluid testing.</I> (1) If the licensee or other entity elects to use oral fluid for drug or alcohol testing, the collection, packaging, temporary storage, and shipment of an oral fluid specimen to an HHS-certified laboratory for drug testing, or the collection of an oral fluid specimen for alcohol testing must be performed in accordance with licensee- or other entity-established procedures based either on the requirements in this part or the procedures in HHS Guidelines identified by the licensee or other entity in § 26.606(b)(1)(iv). The oral fluid device must not expire before the date of the collection of the specimen for testing. The drugs, drug metabolites, initial and confirmatory testing cutoffs, and biological markers, if applicable, must be those established by the HHS Guidelines for oral fluid testing and the alcohol cutoffs in this part or, if not established by the HHS Guidelines or this part for the panel of drugs and drug metabolites to be tested, as determined and documented by a forensic toxicologist review conducted pursuant to § 26.31(d)(1)(i)(D).
</P>
<P>(2) The virtual collection of oral fluid specimens for drug and alcohol testing is only permitted for sites that must use a C/TPA to implement random testing under paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section. For a licensee or other entity to utilize a virtual oral fluid specimen collection process, the following must apply or should be considered, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The specimen collector completing the virtual collection must meet the requirements in § 26.85.
</P>
<P>(ii) The oral fluid specimen collection process must be completed as described under §§ 26.97 and 26.99.
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual other than the donor (<I>i.e.,</I> a virtual collection monitor) may be needed in the location where the specimen collection is to be performed to assist the virtual collector in completing activities, performing observations, or both.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a virtual collection monitor is used to assist the specimen collector in completing an oral fluid specimen collection, then the virtual specimen collector must explain the collection process to the monitor and provide instruction to the monitor on required activities to be performed during the collection process. The monitor's name must be recorded on the Federal custody and control form (Federal CCF) for drug testing specimens, or an analogous document for alcohol testing.
</P>
<P>(v) Video teleconference communication method(s) must provide sufficient visual and aural clarity to complete the process and ensure that a donor is not able to subvert the testing process.
</P>
<P>(vi) Collection kit materials must be maintained in a secure fashion until the virtual collector initiates the virtual collection process with the donor.
</P>
<P>(vii) The licensee or other entity's written FFD procedures must describe in detail the virtual collection process and when and how it is to be implemented.
</P>
<P>(viii) The virtual collection procedure must address problem collections, such as the video teleconference becomes inoperable during the collection process or the donor is unable to provide an oral fluid specimen of sufficient quantity to complete the specimen collection process for drug or alcohol testing.
</P>
<P>(ix) The virtual collection procedure must include steps to collect a breath specimen using an evidential breath testing device (EBT) if the oral fluid specimen test result under § 26.99(b) requires a confirmatory testing for alcohol under § 26.101. At a minimum, a donor with an oral fluid specimen test result requiring confirmatory testing for alcohol must be removed from duty pending additional testing.
</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hair testing.</I> The testing of hair specimens may only be used to inform a licensee's or other entity's determination of whether the individual is trustworthy and reliable under the test condition in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to supplement the information gained from a pre-access test using oral fluid or urine as the test specimen and must be conducted at an HHS-certified laboratory certified to test hair specimens.
</P>
<P>(1) If used, this process must be described in the licensee's or other entity's FFD policy and described in detail in its procedure. The panel of drugs and drug metabolites to be evaluated must only include those listed as Schedule I or II of section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act [21 U.S.C. 812]. The collection, packaging, and temporary storage of a hair specimen and shipment of the specimen to an HHS-certified laboratory must be conducted in accordance with the HHS Guidelines. The licensee- or other entity-designated FFD program personnel must conduct the collection, packaging, temporary storage, shipping, and custody and control of the specimen.
</P>
<P>(2) Before the licensee or other entity begins to conduct hair testing, the initial and confirmatory testing cutoffs must be the cutoffs established by the HHS Guidelines for hair testing or, if not established by the HHS Guidelines or this part, as determined by a forensic toxicologist review conducted pursuant to § 26.31(d)(1)(i)(D).
</P>
<P>(3) Confirmed positive test results must be considered potentially disqualifying FFD information until proven otherwise by a review under § 26.613. Sanctions under this subpart must not be issued for any FFD policy violation involving a drug test using a hair specimen unless the licensee or other entity determines that the individual has attempted to subvert the testing process, as defined in § 26.5, for the hair test.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Portal area screening.</I> A non-invasive testing instrument may be used to screen individuals for drugs, drug metabolites, and alcohol before the individuals' entry into or exit from a protected or vital area.
</P>
<P>(1) The instrument must be operated in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications. If screening detects the presence of any drug, drug metabolite, or alcohol at or above the instrument set point, the individual screened by the instrument must be subject to for-cause testing under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Annually, the licensee or other entity must verify the accuracy of the portal area screening test for each substance with any positive results. If at least 85 percent of the positive portal area screening test results for a substance in the past 12 months do not subsequently confirm positive on for-cause testing performed under paragraph (j)(1) of this section, the licensee or other entity cannot continue to use the screening test for the particular substance until such time as corrective actions have been implemented to improve the testing accuracy.
</P>
<P>(3) A sanction under this part may not be issued to an individual based solely on a portal area screening instrument detection that drugs or alcohol exceed the instrument's established setpoint.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Blood testing.</I> The testing of blood specimens may only be conducted under the order of the licensee- or other entity-designated MRO for a valid medical reason as confirmed by the MRO pursuant to § 26.31(d)(5). This specimen must be subject to testing by a laboratory that satisfies quality control requirements that are comparable to those required for certification by the HHS.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Federal custody and control form.</I> For the collection and packaging of urine, oral fluid, and hair specimens for drug testing, the licensee or other entity must use a Federal CCF.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Medical Review Officer.</I> Licensees or other entities must—
</P>
<P>(1) Require their designated MRO to review positive, positive and dilute, adulterated, substituted, and invalid confirmatory drug and validity test results to determine whether the donor has violated the FFD policy. The review must be completed before reporting the results to the individual designated by the licensee or other entity to assess authorization or perform the suitability and fitness determinations required under § 26.619, or, if required, that are described in subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Require their MRO to satisfy the requirements in § 26.183 and, prior to conducting any activities under this part, attend and pass a medical- or clinical-based training session to improve his/her knowledge of MRO duties and responsibilities, drug and alcohol testing processes and procedures, and evaluation of drug testing results. This training session must be conducted by a nationally recognized MRO training and certification organization that has been assessed by the licensee's or other entity's FFD program personnel to include the technical elements an MRO must implement under § 26.185. An MRO who performed the duties and responsibilities in §§ 26.185 and 26.187 for at least 3 continuous years in the last 10 years prior to being hired or contracted by the licensee or other entity satisfies the requirements in this paragraph (m)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) Require their MRO to attend a medical- or clinical-based training session at least every 5 years to improve his/her knowledge of changes in drug and alcohol testing processes and procedures and evaluation of drug testing results.
</P>
<P>(4) Require their MRO to determine whether a biological specimen is positive, positive and dilute, adulterated, substituted, or invalid by implementing the requirements in § 26.185 or the HHS Guidelines through the licensee's or other entity's procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) If § 26.185 or the HHS Guidelines, as used by the licensee or other entity in its procedures, are insufficient to make this determination, then guidance issued by a State agency in the State in which the NRC-licensed facility is located, Federal agencies, or nationally recognized MRO training and certification organizations may be used to inform an MRO determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) An MRO need not review alcohol test results, including positive confirmatory alcohol test results determined by an EBT under paragraphs (c)(3)(vi) and (vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Require their MRO to determine and approve the use of oral fluid or urine as an alternative biological specimen when the donor cannot provide a specimen for testing. This determination and the retest must be documented and completed as soon as reasonably practicable.
</P>
<P>(6) Require the MRO to review all specimen test results associated with drug-related FFD policy violations. This review includes split specimens and all specimens taken to resolve a discrepant condition, such as a possible subversion attempt, impairment without a known cause, or a donor-requested or MRO-directed re-test. To resolve a discrepant condition, the MRO is authorized to test a specimen for a biological marker, adulterants, or additional drugs.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Limitations of screening and testing.</I> Specimens collected under NRC regulations may only be designated or approved for screening and testing as described in this part and may not be used to conduct any other analysis or test without the written permission of the donor. Analyses, screens, and tests that may not be conducted include, but are not limited to, DNA testing, serological typing, or any other medical or genetic test used for diagnostic or specimen identification purposes. No biological specimens may be passively sampled and analyzed in a manner different than described in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Specimen collectors.</I> All onsite specimen collections, except a collection by a portal area screening instrument in paragraph (j) of this section, must be conducted by licensee- or other entity-designated and -trained personnel.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.608" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.608   FFD program training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FFD program training.</I> (1) Individuals must be trained in the FFD policy and procedure, including fatigue management, and their FFD program responsibilities. Individuals who collect specimens for testing must also be trained in specimen collector duties and responsibilities, including, at a minimum, specimen collection, custody and control, identification and response to subversion attempts, and privacy. For licensees and other entities of commercial nuclear plants, the FFD program training program must use a systems approach to training as defined in § 53.725 of this chapter and described in § 53.830 of this chapter for those individuals in § 26.4.
</P>
<P>(2) FFD program training must include training on the behavioral observation program. The behavioral observation program training must include the detection of physiological behaviors or conditions that may indicate—
</P>
<P>(i) Possible use, sale, or possession of illegal drugs or illicit drugs, or substance abuse on- or offsite;
</P>
<P>(ii) Use or possession of alcohol onsite or use while on duty offsite;
</P>
<P>(iii) Impairment from fatigue or any cause that, if left unattended, could result in inattentiveness or human errors; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any individual's inability to safely and competently perform assigned duties and responsibilities or act in a trustworthy and reliable manner while having access to protected areas, SNM, or sensitive information.
</P>
<P>(3) Training must explain that an individual's FFD policy violation will—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject the individual to an FFD program-required sanction designed to preclude recurrence of an FFD policy violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contribute to the licensee's or other entity's assessment of whether the individual can be trusted and relied upon to safely and competently perform the assigned duties and responsibilities making the individual subject to this subpart;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be used to inform the licensee's or other entity's insider mitigation and access authorization programs under § 73.55, § 73.56, § 73.100, or § 73.120 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be used to inform other NRC licensees and other entities subject to this part when FFD program information is requested to support authorization determinations under subpart C of this part or § 73.56 or § 73.120 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training and assessments.</I> Training and a trainee assessment must be conducted before pre-access testing, and FFD program refresher training and trainee assessments must be conducted on a nominal 24-month frequency, or more frequently where the need is indicated. Indications of the need for more frequent training include, but are not limited to, an individual's failure to properly implement FFD program procedures and the frequency, nature, or severity of problems discovered through audits or the administration of the program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training program review.</I> The licensee or other entity must periodically evaluate its FFD training program and revise it as appropriate to reflect industry experience as well as applicable changes to the regulations in this part, the HHS Guidelines, if used, and specimen collection and testing processes implemented by the licensee or other entity.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.609" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.609   Behavioral observation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities must ensure that the individuals who are subject to this subpart are subject to behavioral observation and that behavioral observation is performed by all individuals subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities must require all individuals subject to the FFD program to report to the licensee- or other entity-designated representative any onsite or offsite behaviors or activities by individuals subject to this part that may constitute an unreasonable risk to the safety or security of the NRC-licensed facility or SNM or may cause harm to others. This reporting must include any information relating to character or reputation of the individual indicating that the individual cannot be trusted or relied upon to perform those duties and responsibilities or maintain access to NRC-licensed facilities, SNM, or sensitive information that makes them subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Behavioral observation must be performed visually, in-person, and, when necessary, remotely by live video and audible streaming and capture, to observe the behavior of individuals in the workforce subject to the requirements in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Not withstanding paragraph (c) of this section, for a reactor facility where individual task loading does not allow for the effective conduct of behavior observation in addition to assigned operational tasks, the licensee or other entity must implement a live video and audible streaming and capture system to conduct behavioral observation of persons licensed to operate under part 53 of this chapter who manipulate the controls of any commercial nuclear plant licensed under part 53.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.610" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.610   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities that implement an FFD program under this subpart must establish sanctions for FFD policy violations that, at a minimum, prohibit the individuals specified in § 26.4 from being assigned to perform or direct those duties and responsibilities or maintaining authorization making them subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The severity of the sanction must escalate with the number of occurrences and severity of the FFD policy violation. The sanction must be long enough to act as a deterrent and, if the individual is retained as a licensee employee or contractor/vendor, facilitate the individual to complete counseling or treatment. The sanctions must include an immediate unfavorable termination of the individual's authorization as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A minimum 14-day denial of access for a first violation of the FFD policy involving a confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result;
</P>
<P>(2) A minimum 3-year denial of access for a second violation of the FFD policy involving a confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result;
</P>
<P>(3) A minimum 5-year denial of access for any individual who is determined to have been involved in the sale, use, or possession of illegal drugs or the consumption of alcohol within a protected area of any facility licensed under part 53 of this chapter or within a transporter's facility or vehicle used in the conveyance of formula quantities of strategic SNM while the individual is subject to this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(4) A permanent denial of access for a third violation of the FFD policy involving a confirmed positive drug or alcohol test result or a subversion attempt of any drug or alcohol test or screening process.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.611" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.611   Protection of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities that collect personal information about an individual for the purpose of complying with this subpart must establish and maintain a system of files and procedures to prevent unauthorized disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities must obtain a signed consent that documents the individual's acceptance of being subject to the FFD program and authorizes the disclosure of the personal information collected and maintained under this subpart, except for disclosures to the individuals and entities specified in § 26.37(b)(1) through (6) and (8), and persons deciding matters under review in § 26.613. This signed and dated consent must be obtained before making the individual subject to the FFD program.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.613" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.613   Appeals process.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees and other entities that implement an FFD program under this subpart must establish and implement procedures for the review of a determination that an individual in § 26.4 has violated the FFD policy. The procedure must provide for an objective and impartial review of the facts related to the determination that the individual has violated the FFD policy and a schedule for the completion of the review.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.615" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.615   Audits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities that implement an FFD program under this subpart must audit their programs at a frequency that ensures the continuing effectiveness of their FFD program, FFD program elements that are provided by C/Vs, and the FFD programs of C/Vs that are accepted by the licensee or other entity. Corrective actions must be taken as soon as reasonably practicable to resolve any problems identified in an audit and preclude recurrence.
</P>
<P>(b) The subject matter, scope, and frequency of audits must be revised as necessary to improve or maintain program performance based on annual FFD program performance data reviews performed under § 26.617(d) and unsatisfactory performance or programmatic weaknesses identified under § 26.617(b)(3) and (e).
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees and other entities may conduct joint audits or accept audits of C/Vs so long as the audit addresses the relevant services of the C/Vs.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees and other entities must audit HHS-certified laboratories unless the licensee's or other entity's panel of drugs and drug metabolites to be tested is equivalent to the panel by which the laboratory is certified by HHS or is subject to the standards and procedures for drug testing and evaluation used by the laboratory under the HHS Guidelines. Licensees and other entities must audit any hospital or other facility licensed by the State (or State-designated entity) if used to conduct specimen collections and perform alcohol testing under this part on a biennial basis to confirm that the facility procedures are comparable to those described in subpart E of this part, for urine and oral fluid.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.617" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.617   Recordkeeping, reporting, and FFD program performance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities that implement FFD programs under this subpart must ensure that records pertaining to the administration of their program, which may be stored and archived electronically, are maintained so that they are available for NRC inspection purposes and for any legal proceedings resulting from the administration of the program. Records pertaining to the administration of the FFD program and FFD performance data required by § 26.717 must be retained until license termination.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees and other entities must make the following reports:
</P>
<P>(1) Reports to the NRC Operations Center by telephone within 24 hours after the licensee or other entity discovers any intentional act that casts doubt on the integrity of the FFD program and any programmatic failure, degradation, or discovered vulnerability of the FFD program that may permit undetected drug or alcohol use or abuse by individuals who are subject to this subpart. These events must be reported under this subpart, rather than under the provisions of § 73.1200 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Annual FFD program performance data under § 26.717(b) for each FFD program subject to this subpart. Licensees and other entities must submit FFD program performance data (for January through December) to the NRC annually, before March 1 of the following year and must use unexpired NRC-provided forms for the electronic submission of FFD information to the NRC; and
</P>
<P>(3) Reports on drug and alcohol testing errors within 30 days of completing an investigation of any testing errors or unsatisfactory performance, discovered at an HHS-certified laboratory or through the processing of appeals under § 26.613, or errors or matters that could adversely reflect on the integrity of the random selection or random testing process. The reports must describe the incident and any corrective actions taken or planned.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees and other entities subject to this subpart must describe in sufficient detail to support an authorization determination, an individual's FFD policy violation (while protecting privacy information under § 26.611) and FFD program weakness to NRC, licensees, and other entities subject to this part when requested to support authorization determinations under subpart C of this part or § 73.120 of this chapter, as applicable, or to support licensee or other entity performance monitoring.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees and other entities must analyze FFD program performance data at least annually and take appropriate actions to correct any identified program weakness.
</P>
<P>(e) Licensees and other entities must document, trend, and correct non-reportable indicators of FFD programmatic weaknesses under the licensee's or other entity's corrective action program, but may not track or trend drug and alcohol test results in a manner that would permit the identification of any individuals.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.619" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.13.85.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.619   Suitability and fitness determinations.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees and other entities that implement FFD programs under this subpart must develop, implement, and maintain procedures for evaluating whether to assign individuals to perform or direct those duties and responsibilities making them subject to this subpart. A suitability or fitness determination conducted for cause must be performed face-to-face. A suitability or fitness determination conducted for cause may be performed remotely using electronic communications that provide sufficient visual and aural clarity to complete the assessment. A fitness determination may be supported by someone who is present in-person with the individual being assessed only during for-cause drug and alcohol testing determinations under § 26.607(b)(3) and fatigue assessments performed under § 26.211(a)(1). The supporting person must be trained in accordance with the requirements of either § 26.29 or § 26.608.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Recordkeeping and Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.709" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.14.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.709   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of this subpart apply to the FFD programs of licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(a) through (d), except for FFD programs that are implemented under subpart K of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements in this subpart apply to the FFD programs of licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(f) that elect not to implement the requirements in subpart M or elect to implement the requirements in § 26.605(b).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15786, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.711" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.14.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.711   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee and other entity shall maintain records and submit certain reports to the NRC. Records that are required by the regulations in this part must be retained for the period specified by the appropriate regulation. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, these records must be retained until the Commission terminates the facility's license, certificate, or other regulatory approval.
</P>
<P>(b) All records may be stored and archived electronically, provided that the method used to create the electronic records meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides an accurate representation of the original records;
</P>
<P>(2) Prevents the alteration of any archived information and/or data once it has been committed to storage; and
</P>
<P>(3) Permits easy retrieval and re-creation of the original records.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensees and other entities specified in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c), (d), and (f), shall inform each individual of his or her right to review information about the individual that is collected and maintained under this part to assure its accuracy. Licensees and other entities shall provide the individual with an opportunity to correct any inaccurate or incomplete information that is documented by licensees and other entities about the individual.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees and other entities shall ensure that only correct and complete information about individuals is retained and shared with other licensees and entities. If, for any reason, the shared information used for determining an individual's eligibility for authorization under this part changes or new information is developed about the individual, licensees and other entities shall correct or augment the shared information contained in the records. If the changed or developed information has implications for adversely affecting an individual's eligibility for authorization, a licensee and other entity specified in § 26.3(a) and, as applicable, (c), (d), and (f), who has discovered the incorrect information, or develops new information, shall inform the reviewing official of any FFD program under which the individual is maintaining authorization of the updated information on the day of discovery. The reviewing official shall evaluate the information and take appropriate actions, which may include denial or unfavorable termination of the individual's authorization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 91 FR 15786, Mar. 30, 2026]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.713" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.14.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.713   Recordkeeping requirements for licensees and other entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee and other entity who is subject to this subpart shall retain the following records for at least 5 years after the licensee or other entity terminates or denies an individual's authorization or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of self-disclosures, employment histories, and suitable inquiries that are required under §§ 26.55, 26.57, 26.59, and 26.69 that result in the granting of authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) Records pertaining to the determination of a violation of the FFD policy and related management actions;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation of the granting and termination of authorization; and
</P>
<P>(4) Records of any determinations of fitness conducted under § 26.189, including any recommendations for treatment and followup testing plans.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee and other entity who is subject to this subpart shall retain the following records for at least 3 years or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of FFD training and examinations conducted under § 26.29; and
</P>
<P>(2) Records of audits, audit findings, and corrective actions taken under § 26.41.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees and other entities shall ensure the retention and availability of records pertaining to any 5-year denial of authorization under § 26.75(c), (d), or (e)(2) and any permanent denial of authorization under § 26.75(b) and (g) for at least 40 years or until, on application, the NRC determines that the records are no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees and other entities shall retain any superseded versions of the written FFD policy and procedures required under §§ 26.27, 26.39, and 26.203(b) for at least 5 years or until completion of all legal proceedings related to an FFD violation that may have occurred under the policy and procedures, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(e) Licensees and other entities shall retain written agreements for the provision of services under this part for the life of the agreement or until completion of all legal proceedings related to an FFD policy violation that involved those services, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees and other entities shall retain records of the background investigations, credit and criminal history checks, and psychological assessments of FFD program personnel, conducted under § 26.31(b)(1)(i), for the length of the individual's employment by or contractual relationship with the licensee or other entity, or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(g) If a licensee's or other entity's FFD program includes tests for drugs in addition to those specified in this part, as permitted under § 26.31(d)(1), or uses more stringent cutoff levels than those specified in this part, as permitted under § 26.31(d)(3), the licensee or other entity shall retain documentation certifying the scientific and technical suitability of the assays and cutoff levels used, as required under § 26.31(d)(1)(i) and (d)(3)(iii)(C), respectively, for the time the FFD program follows these practices or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.715" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.14.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.715   Recordkeeping requirements for collection sites, licensee testing facilities, and laboratories certified by the Department of Health and Human Services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Collection sites providing services to licensees and other entities who are subject to this subpart, licensee testing facilities, and HHS-certified laboratories shall maintain and make available documentation of all aspects of the testing process for at least 2 years or until the completion of all legal proceedings related to a determination of an FFD violation, whichever is later. This 2-year period may be extended on written notification by the NRC or by any licensee or other entity for whom services are being provided.
</P>
<P>(b) Documentation that must be retained includes, but is not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel files, including training records, for all individuals who have been authorized to have access to specimens, but are no longer under contract to or employed by the collection site or licensee testing facility;
</P>
<P>(2) Chain of custody documents (other than forms recording specimens with negative test results and no FFD violations or anomalies, which may be destroyed after appropriate summary information has been recorded for program administration purposes);
</P>
<P>(3) Quality assurance and quality control records;
</P>
<P>(4) Superseded procedures;
</P>
<P>(5) All test data (including calibration curves and any calculations used in determining test results);
</P>
<P>(6) Test reports;
</P>
<P>(7) Records pertaining to performance testing;
</P>
<P>(8) Records pertaining to the investigation of testing errors or unsatisfactory performance discovered in quality control or blind performance testing, in the testing of actual specimens, or through the processing of appeals and MRO reviews, as well as any other errors or matters that could adversely reflect on the integrity of the testing process, investigation findings, and corrective actions taken, where applicable;
</P>
<P>(9) Performance records on certification inspections;
</P>
<P>(10) Records of preventative maintenance on licensee testing facility instruments;
</P>
<P>(11) Records that summarize any test results that the MRO determined to be scientifically insufficient for further action;
</P>
<P>(12) Either printed or electronic copies of computer-generated data;
</P>
<P>(13) Records that document the dates, times of entry and exit, escorts, and purposes of entry of authorized visitors, maintenance personnel, and service personnel who have accessed secured areas of licensee testing facilities and HHS-certified laboratories; and
</P>
<P>(14) Records of the inspection, maintenance, and calibration of EBTs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 87 FR 71463, Nov. 22, 2022]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.717" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.14.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.717   Fitness-for-duty program performance data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees and other entities shall collect and compile FFD program performance data for each FFD program that is subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The FFD program performance data must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The random testing rate;
</P>
<P>(2) Drugs for which testing is conducted and cutoff levels, including results of tests using lower cutoff levels, tests for drugs not included in the HHS panel, and any special analyses of dilute specimens permitted under § 26.163(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(3) Populations tested (<I>i.e.,</I> licensee or other entity employees, C/Vs);
</P>
<P>(4) Number of tests administered and results of those tests sorted by population tested (<I>i.e.,</I> licensee or other entity employees, C/Vs);


</P>
<P>(5) Conditions under which the tests were performed, as defined in § 26.31(c);
</P>
<P>(6) Substances identified;
</P>
<P>(7) Number of subversion attempts by type;
</P>
<P>(8) Summary of management actions; and
</P>
<P>(9) The information required under § 26.203(e)(1) and (e)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees and other entities who have a licensee-approved FFD program shall analyze the data at least annually and take appropriate actions to correct any identified program weaknesses. Records of the data, analyses, and corrective actions taken must be retained for at least 3 years or until the completion of any related legal proceedings, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(d) Any licensee or other entity who terminates an individual's authorization or takes administrative action on the basis of the results of a positive initial drug test for marijuana or cocaine shall also report these test results in the annual summary by processing stage (<I>i.e.</I>, initial testing at the licensee testing facility, testing at the HHS-certified laboratory, and MRO determinations). The report must also include the number of terminations and administrative actions taken against individuals for the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(e) Licensees and other entities shall submit the FFD program performance data (for January through December) to the NRC annually, before March 1 of the following year.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees and other entities may submit the FFD program performance data in a consolidated report, as long as the report presents the data separately for each site.
</P>
<P>(g) Each C/V who maintains a licensee-approved drug and alcohol testing program is subject to the reporting requirements of this section and shall submit the required information either directly to the NRC or through the licensees or other entities to whom the C/V provided services during the year. Licensees, other entities, and C/Vs shall share information to ensure that the information is reported completely and is not duplicated in reports submitted to the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 66603, Nov. 10, 2014; 87 FR 71463, Nov. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.719" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.14.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.719   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required reports.</I> Each licensee and entity who is subject to this subpart shall inform the NRC of significant violations of the FFD policy, significant FFD program failures, and errors in drug and alcohol testing. These events must be reported under this section, rather than under the provisions of 10 CFR 73.1200.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significant FFD policy violations or programmatic failures.</I> The following significant FFD policy violations and programmatic failures must be reported to the NRC Operations Center by telephone within 24 hours after the licensee or other entity discovers the violation:
</P>
<P>(1) The use, sale, distribution, possession, or presence of illegal drugs, or the consumption or presence of alcohol within a protected area;
</P>
<P>(2) Any acts by any person licensed under 10 CFR part 55 to operate a power reactor, as well as any acts by SSNM transporters, FFD program personnel, or any supervisory personnel who are authorized under this part, if such acts—
</P>
<P>(i) Involve the use, sale, or possession of a controlled substance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Result in a determination that the individual has violated the licensee's or other entity's FFD policy (including subversion as defined in § 26.5); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Involve the consumption of alcohol within a protected area or while performing the duties that require the individual to be subject to the FFD program;
</P>
<P>(3) Any intentional act that casts doubt on the integrity of the FFD program; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any programmatic failure, degradation, or discovered vulnerability of the FFD program that may permit undetected drug or alcohol use or abuse by individuals within a protected area, or by individuals who are assigned to perform duties that require them to be subject to the FFD program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Drug and alcohol testing errors.</I> (1) Within 30 days of completing an investigation of any testing errors or unsatisfactory performance discovered in performance testing at either a licensee testing facility or an HHS-certified laboratory, in the testing of quality control or actual specimens, or through the processing of reviews under § 26.39 and MRO reviews under § 26.185, as well as any other errors or matters that could adversely reflect on the integrity of the random selection or testing process, the licensee or other entity shall submit to the NRC a report of the incident and corrective actions taken or planned. If the error involves an HHS-certified laboratory, the NRC shall ensure that HHS is notified of the finding.
</P>
<P>(2) If a false positive error occurs on a blind performance test sample submitted to an HHS-certified laboratory, the licensee or other entity shall notify the NRC within 24 hours after discovery of the error.
</P>
<P>(3) If a false negative error occurs on a quality assurance check of validity screening tests, as required in § 26.137(b), the licensee or other entity shall notify the NRC within 24 hours after discovery of the error.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indicators of programmatic weaknesses.</I> Licensees and other entities shall document, trend, and correct non-reportable indicators of FFD programmatic weaknesses under the licensee's or other entity's corrective action program, but may not track or trend drug and alcohol test results in a manner that would permit the identification of any individuals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 73942, Nov. 30, 2010; 88 FR 15880, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Inspections, Violations, and Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.821" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.15.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.821   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee and other entity who is subject to this part shall permit duly authorized NRC representatives to inspect, copy, or take away copies of its records and to inspect its premises, activities, and personnel as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Written agreements between licensees or other entities and their C/Vs must clearly show that—
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee or other entity is responsible to the NRC for maintaining an effective FFD program under this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Duly authorized NRC representatives may inspect, copy, or take away copies of any licensee's, other entity's, or C/V's documents, records, and reports related to implementation of the licensee's or other entity's FFD program under the scope of the contracted activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.823" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.15.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.823   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An injunction or other court order may be obtained to prohibit a violation of any provision of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any regulation or order issued under these Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) A court order may be obtained for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, for violations of—
</P>
<P>(1) Section 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974;
</P>
<P>(3) Any rule, regulation, or order issued under these sections;
</P>
<P>(4) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under these sections; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any provisions for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.825" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.19.15.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.825   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For the purposes of section 223, all of the regulations in Part 26 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 26.1, 26.3, 26.5, 26.7, 26.8, 26.9, 26.11, 26.51, 26.81, 26.121, 26.151, 26.181, 26.201, 26.601, 26.823, and 26.825.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 17176, Mar. 31, 2008, as amended at 91 FR 15786, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="30" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 30—RULES OF GENERAL APPLICABILITY TO DOMESTIC LICENSING OF BYPRODUCT MATERIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 81, 161, 181, 182, 183, 184, 186, 187, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2111, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2236, 2237, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 30 appear at 79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV7 N="85" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes rules applicable to all persons in the United States governing domestic licensing of byproduct material under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919), and under title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1242), and exemptions from the domestic licensing requirements permitted by Section 81 of the Act. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, certificate of registration holder, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's, applicant's or certificate of registration holder's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 30.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1895, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.2   Resolution of conflict.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this part are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements of this chapter. In any conflict between the requirements in this part and a specific requirement in another part of the regulations in this chapter, the specific requirement governs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.3   Activities requiring license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this section and for persons exempt as provided in this part and part 150 of this chapter, no person shall manufacture, produce, transfer, receive, acquire, own, possess, or use byproduct material except as authorized in a specific or general license issued in accordance with the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The requirements, including provisions that are specific to licensees, in this part and parts 19, 20, 21, and 71 of this chapter, as well as the additional requirements for specific broad scope, industrial radiography, irradiator, or well logging uses in 10 CFR parts 33, 34, 36, or 39, respectively, shall apply to Government agencies or Federally recognized Indian Tribes on November 30, 2007, when conducting activities under the authority provided by paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A specifically licensed Government agency or Federally recognized Indian Tribe that possesses and uses accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for which a license amendment is required to authorize the activities in paragraph (a) of this section, may continue to use these materials for uses permitted under this part until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the licensee submits an amendment application on or before June 2, 2008.
</P>
<P>(3) A Government agency or Federally recognized Indian Tribe that possesses and uses accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for which a specific license is required in paragraph (a) of this section, may continue to use such material for uses permitted under this part until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination provided that the agency or Indian Tribe submits an application for a license authorizing activities involving these materials on or before December 1, 2008.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The requirements, including provisions that are specific to licensees in this part and parts 19, 20, 21, and 71 of this chapter, as well as the additional requirements for specific broad scope, industrial radiography, irradiator, or well logging uses in 10 CFR parts 33, 34, 36, or 39, respectively, shall apply to all persons, other than those included in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, on August 8, 2009, or earlier as noticed by the NRC, when conducting activities under the authority provided by paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, all other licensees, who possess and use accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for which a license amendment is required to authorize the activities in paragraph (a) of this section, may continue to use these materials for uses permitted under this part until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the person submits an amendment application within 6 months from the waiver expiration date of August 7, 2009 or within 6 months from the date of an earlier termination of the waiver as noticed by the NRC, whichever date is earlier.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, all other persons, who possess and use accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for which a specific license is required in paragraph (a) of this section, may continue to use such material for uses permitted under this part until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the person submits a license application within 12 months from the waiver expiration date of August 7, 2009 or within 12 months from the date of an earlier termination of the waiver as noticed by the NRC, whichever date is earlier.
</P>
<P>(d) If a person or licensee is required to file an application for a license or amendment in accordance with paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this section, but does not file for the license or amendment within the required time, the authority provided by paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this section to receive or use the accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 shall expire with respect to the person's or licensee's authority to receive and use such byproduct material. This authority shall not expire with respect to the responsibility of the person or licensee regarding the possession of such byproduct material, the decommissioning (including financial assurance) of facilities, or the disposal of such byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 55924, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Accelerator-produced radioactive material</I> means any material made radioactive by a particle accelerator.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919), including any amendments thereto;
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means any state with which the Atomic Energy Commission or the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b. of the Act. <I>Non-agreement State</I> means any other State;
</P>
<P><I>Alert</I> means events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a release of radioactive material but that the release is not expected to require a response by offsite response organizations to protect persons offsite.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means taking any action defined as “construction” or any other activity at the site of a facility subject to the regulations in this part that has a reasonable nexus to:
</P>
<P>(1) Radiological health and safety; or
</P>
<P>(2) Common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and its duly authorized representatives;
</P>
<P><I>Consortium</I> means an association of medical use licensees and a PET radionuclide production facility in the same geographical area that jointly own or share in the operation and maintenance cost of the PET radionuclide production facility that produces PET radionuclides for use in producing radioactive drugs within the consortium for noncommercial distributions among its associated members for medical use. The PET radionuclide production facility within the consortium must be located at an educational institution or a Federal facility or a medical facility.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the installation of foundations, or in-place assembly, erection, fabrication, or testing for any structure, system, or component of a facility or activity subject to the regulations in this part that are related to radiological safety or security. The term “construction” does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Changes for temporary use of the land for public recreational purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Site exploration, including necessary borings to determine foundation conditions or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site, the environmental impacts of construction or operation, or the protection of environmental values;
</P>
<P>(3) Preparation of the site for construction of the facility, including clearing of the site, grading, installation of drainage, erosion and other environmental mitigation measures, and construction of temporary roads and borrow areas;
</P>
<P>(4) Erection of fences and other access control measures that are not related to the safe use of, or security of, radiological materials subject to this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Excavation;
</P>
<P>(6) Erection of support buildings (e.g., construction equipment storage sheds, warehouse and shop facilities, utilities, concrete mixing plants, docking and unloading facilities, and office buildings) for use in connection with the construction of the facility;
</P>
<P>(7) Building of service facilities (e.g., paved roads, parking lots, railroad spurs, exterior utility and lighting systems, potable water systems, sanitary sewerage treatment facilities, and transmission lines);
</P>
<P>(8) Procurement or fabrication of components or portions of the proposed facility occurring at other than the final, in-place location at the facility; or
</P>
<P>(9) Taking any other action that has no reasonable nexus to:
</P>
<P>(i) Radiological health and safety, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Curie</I> means that amount of radioactive material which disintegrates at the rate of 37 billion atoms per second;
</P>
<P><I>Cyclotron</I> means a particle accelerator in which the charged particles travel in an outward spiral or circular path. A cyclotron accelerates charged particles at energies usually in excess of 10 megaelectron volts and is commonly used for production of short half-life radionuclides for medical use.
</P>
<P><I>Decommission</I> means to remove a facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits—
</P>
<P>(1) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or
</P>
<P>(2) Release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Dentist</I> means an individual licensed by a State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to practice dentistry.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> and <I>Department of Energy</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>) to the extent that the Department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the U.S. Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components and transferred to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104 (b), (c) and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151).
</P>
<P><I>Discrete source</I> means a radionuclide that has been processed so that its concentration within a material has been purposely increased for use for commercial, medical, or research activities.
</P>
<P><I>Effective dose equivalent</I> means the sum of the products of the dose equivalent to the organ or tissue and the weighting factors applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated. Weighting factors are: 0.25 for gonads, 0.15 for breast, 0.12 for red bone marrow, 0.12 for lungs, 0.03 for thyroid, 0.03 for bone surface, and 0.06 for each of the other five organs receiving the highest dose equivalent.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government;
</P>
<P><I>License,</I> except where otherwise specified means a license for by-product material issued pursuant to the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter;
</P>
<P><I>Medical use</I> means the intentional internal or external administration of byproduct material or the radiation therefrom to patients or human research subjects under the supervision of an authorized user as defined in 10 CFR part 35.
</P>
<P><I>Microcurie</I> means that amount of radioactive material which disintegrates at the rate of 37 thousand atoms per second;
</P>
<P><I>Millicurie</I> means that amount of radioactive material which disintegrates at the rate of 37 million atoms per second;
</P>
<P><I>Particle accelerator</I> means any machine capable of accelerating electrons, protons, deuterons, or other charged particles in a vacuum and of discharging the resultant particulate or other radiation into a medium at energies usually in excess of 1 megaelectron volt. For purposes of this definition, accelerator is an equivalent term.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means: (1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission or the Department, except that the Department shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244), any State or any political subdivision of or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing;
</P>
<P><I>Physician</I> means a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy licensed by a State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to prescribe drugs in the practice of medicine;
</P>
<P><I>Podiatrist</I> means an individual licensed by a State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to practice podiatry.
</P>
<P><I>Principal activities,</I> as used in this part, means activities authorized by the license which are essential to achieving the purpose(s) for which the license was issued or amended. Storage during which no licensed material is accessed for use or disposal and activities incidental to decontamination or decommissioning are not principal activities.
</P>
<P><I>Production facility</I> means production facility as defined in the regulations contained in part 50 of this chapter;
</P>
<P><I>Research and development</I> means: (1) Theoretical analysis, exploration, or experimentation; or (2) the extension of investigative findings and theories of a scientific or technical nature into practical application for experimental and demonstration purposes, including the experimental production and testing of models, devices, equipment, materials and processes. “Research and development” as used in this part and parts 31 through 35 does not include the internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings;
</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any byproduct material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the byproduct material;
</P>
<P><I>Site area emergency</I> means events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a significant release of radioactive material and that could require a response by offsite response organizations to protect persons offsite.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means source material as defined in the regulations contained in part 40 of this chapter;
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means special nuclear material as defined in the regulations contained in part 70 of this chapter;
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States;
</P>
<P><I>Utilization facility</I> means a utilization facility as defined in the regulations contained in part 50 or 53 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 30.4, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965, as amended at 43 FR 6921, Feb. 17, 1978; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 90 FR 55628, Dec. 3, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.6   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise specified or covered under the regional licensing program as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, any communication or report concerning the regulations in parts 30 through 37 and 39 of this chapter and any application filed under these regulations may be submitted to the Commission as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
</P>
<P>(2) By hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission has delegated to the four Regional Administrators licensing authority for selected parts of its decentralized licensing program for nuclear materials as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Any communication, report, or application covered under this licensing program must be submitted to the appropriate Regional Administrator. The Administrators' jurisdictions and mailing addresses are listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The delegated licensing program includes authority to issue, renew, amend, cancel, modify, suspend, or revoke licenses for nuclear materials issued pursuant to 10 CFR parts 30 through 36, 39, 40, and 70 to all persons for academic, medical, and industrial uses, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) Activities in the fuel cycle and special nuclear material in quantities sufficient to constitute a critical mass in any room or area. This exception does not apply to license modifications relating to termination of special nuclear material licenses that authorize possession of larger quantities when the case is referred for action from NRC's Headquarters to the Regional Administrators.
</P>
<P>(ii) Health and safety design review of sealed sources and devices and approval, for licensing purposes, of sealed sources and devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Processing of source material for extracting of metallic compounds (including Zirconium, Hafnium, Tantalum, Titanium, Niobium, etc.).
</P>
<P>(iv) Distribution of products containing radioactive material under §§ 32.11 through 32.30 and 40.52 of this chapter to persons exempt from licensing requirements.
</P>
<P>(v) New uses or techniques for use of byproducts, source, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submissions.</I> (i) <I>Region I.</I> The regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region I non-Agreement States and the District of Columbia: Connecticut, Delaware, and Vermont. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region I, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415; where email is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn1MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Region II.</I> The regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region II non-Agreement States and territories: West Virginia, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region I, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415; where email is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn1MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Region III.</I> (A) The regional licensing program for mining and milling involves all Federal facilities in the region, and non-Federal licensees in the Region III non-Agreement States of Indiana, Michigan, Missouri and the Region III Agreement States of Minnesota, Wisconsin, and Iowa. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region III, Material Licensing Section, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352; where e-mail is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn3MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Otherwise, the regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the Region III non-Agreement States of Indiana, Michigan, and Missouri. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region III, Material Licensing Section, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352; where e-mail is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn3MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Region IV.</I> (A) The regional licensing program for mining and milling involves all Federal facilities in the region, and non-Federal licensees in the Region IV non-Agreement States and territory of Alaska, Hawaii, Idaho, Montana, South Dakota, Wyoming and Guam and Region IV Agreement States of Oregon, California, Nevada, New Mexico, Louisiana, Mississippi, Arkansas, Oklahoma, Kansas, Nebraska, and North Dakota. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region IV, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511; where email is appropriate, it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Otherwise, the regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region IV non-Agreement States and territory: Alaska, Hawaii, Idaho, Montana, South Dakota, Wyoming, and Guam. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region IV, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511; where email is appropriate, it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 30.6, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.7   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act.
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text.
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation.
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages.
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraphs (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant may be grounds for—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license.
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each specific licensee, each applicant for a specific license, and each general licensee subject to part 19 shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) The posting of NRC Form 3 must be at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, and for 30 days following license termination.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I> 
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 52408, Oct. 8, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 61 FR 6764, Feb. 22, 1996; 68 FR 58803, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63973, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30458, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66603, Nov. 10, 2014; 83 FR 58465, Nov. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0017.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 30.9, 30.11, 30.15, 30.19, 30.20, 30.32, 30.34, 30.35, 30.36, 30.37, 30.38, 30.41, 30.50, 30.51, 30.55, and appendices A, C, D, and E to this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In §§ 30.32 and 30.37, NRC Form 313 is approved under control number 3150-0120.
</P>
<P>(2) In § 30.36, NRC Form 314 is approved under control number 3150-0028.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 30.34, DOC/NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control number 0694-0135.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19625, May 9, 1984, as amended at 59 FR 61780, Dec. 2, 1994; 62 FR 52186, Oct. 6, 1997; 62 FR 63639, Dec. 2, 1997; 63 FR 29541, June 1, 1998; 67 FR 67099, Nov. 4, 2002; 73 FR 78604, Dec. 23, 2008; 77 FR 43689, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.9   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant or licensee shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant or licensee violates this paragraph only if the applicant or licensee fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant or licensee has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification shall be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within two working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49371, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.10   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, certificate of registration holder, applicant for a license or certificate of registration, employee of a licensee, certificate of registration holder or applicant; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or certificate of registration holder or applicant for a license or certificate of registration, who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, certificate holder, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's, certificate holder's or applicant's activities in this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee, certificate of registration holder, or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, certificate of registration holder, an applicant, or a licensee's, certificate holder's or applicant's, contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee, certificate of registration holder or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, certificate of registration holder, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1896, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="86" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.11   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) Any licensee's activities are exempt from the requirements of this part to the extent that its activities are licensed under the requirements of part 72 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department of Energy is exempt from the requirements of this part to the extent that its activities are subject to the requirements of part 60 or 63 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as specifically provided in part 61 of this chapter, any licensee is exempt from the requirements of this part to the extent that its activities are subject to the requirements of part 61 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 5746, Mar. 21, 1972, as amended at 39 FR 26279, July 18, 1974; 40 FR 8784, Mar. 3, 1975; 43 FR 6921, Feb. 21, 1978; 45 FR 65530, Oct. 3, 1980; 46 FR 13979, Feb. 25, 1981; 47 FR 57480, Dec. 27, 1982; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 66 FR 51838, Oct. 11, 2001; 66 FR 55790, Nov. 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.12   Persons using byproduct material under certain Department of Energy and Nuclear Regulatory Commission contracts.</HEAD>
<P>Except to the extent that Department facilities or activities of the types subject to licensing pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 are involved, any prime contractor of the Department is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in sections 81 and 82 of the Act and from the regulations in this part to the extent that such contractor, under his prime contract with the Department manufactures, produces, transfers, receives, acquires, owns, possesses, or uses byproduct material for:
</P>
<P>(a) The performance of work for the Department at a United States Government-owned or controlled site, including the transportation of byproduct material to or from such site and the performance of contract services during temporary interruptions of such transportation;
</P>
<P>(b) Research in, or development, manufacture, storage, testing or transportation of, atomic weapons or components thereof; or
</P>
<P>(c) The use or operation of nuclear reactors or other nuclear devices in a United States Government-owned vehicle or vessel.
</P>
<FP>In addition to the foregoing exemptions and subject to the requirement for licensing of Department facilities and activities pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, any prime contractor or subcontractor of the Department or the Commission is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in sections 81 and 82 of the Act and from the regulations in this part to the extent that such prime contractor or subcontractor manufacturers, produces, transfers, receives, acquires, owns, possesses, or uses byproduct material under his prime contract or subcontract when the Commission determines that the exemption of the prime contractor or subcontractor is authorized by law; and that, under the terms of the contract or subcontract, there is adequate assurance that the work thereunder can be accomplished without undue risk to the public health and safety.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8784, Mar. 3, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 6921, Feb. 17, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.13   Carriers.</HEAD>
<P>Common and contract carriers, freight forwarders, warehousemen, and the U.S. Postal Service are exempt from the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 37 and 39 of this chapter and the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act to the extent that they transport or store byproduct material in the regular course of carriage for another or storage incident thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17006, Mar. 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.14   Exempt concentrations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, any person is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns or acquires products or materials containing byproduct material in concentrations not in excess of those listed in § 30.70.
</P>
<P>(b) This section shall not be deemed to authorize the import of byproduct material or products containing byproduct material.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturer, processor, or producer of a product or material is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter to the extent that this person transfers byproduct material contained in a product or material in concentrations not in excess of those specified in § 30.70 and introduced into the product or material by a licensee holding a specific license issued by the Commission expressly authorizing such introduction. This exemption does not apply to the transfer of byproduct material contained in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug, or other commodity or product designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being.
</P>
<P>(d) No person may introduce byproduct material into a product or material knowing or having reason to believe that it will be transferred to persons exempt under this section or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, except in accordance with a license issued under § 32.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965, as amended at 40 FR 8785, Mar. 3, 1975; 43 FR 6921, Feb. 17, 1978; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 72 FR 58486, Oct. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.15   Certain items containing byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for persons who apply byproduct material to, or persons who incorporate byproduct material into, the following products, or persons who initially transfer for sale or distribution the following products containing byproduct material, any person is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in parts 20 and 30 through 36 and 39 of this chapter to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires the following products:
</P>
<P>(1) Timepieces or hands or dials containing not more than the following specified quantities of byproduct material and not exceeding the following specified levels of radiation:
</P>
<P>(i) 25 millicuries of tritium per timepiece,
</P>
<P>(ii) 5 millicuries of tritium per hand,
</P>
<P>(iii) 15 millicuries of tritium per dial (bezels when used shall be considered as part of the dial),
</P>
<P>(iv) 100 microcuries of promethium 147 per watch or 200 microcuries of promethium 147 per any other timepiece,
</P>
<P>(v) 20 microcuries of promethium 147 per watch hand or 40 microcuries of promethium 147 per other timepiece hand,
</P>
<P>(vi) 60 microcuries of promethium 147 per watch dial or 120 microcuries of promethium 147 per other timepiece dial (bezels when used shall be considered as part of the dial),
</P>
<P>(vii) The levels of radiation from hands and dials containing promethium 147 will not exceed, when measured through 50 milligrams per square centimeter of absorber:
</P>
<P>(A) For wrist watches, 0.1 millirad per hour at 10 centimeters from any surface,
</P>
<P>(B) For pocket watches, 0.1 millirad per hour at 1 centimeter from any surface,
</P>
<P>(C) For any other timepiece, 0.2 millirad per hour at 10 centimeters from any surface.
</P>
<P>(viii) 0.037 megabecquerel (1 microcurie) of radium-226 per timepiece in intact timepieces manufactured prior to November 30, 2007.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Static elimination devices which contain, as a sealed source or sources, byproduct material consisting of a total of not more than 18.5 MBq (500 µCi) of polonium-210 per device.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ion generating tubes designed for ionization of air that contain, as a sealed source or sources, byproduct material consisting of a total of not more than 18.5 MBq (500 µCi) of polonium-210 per device or of a total of not more than 1.85 GBq (50 mCi) of hydrogen-3 (tritium) per device.
</P>
<P>(iii) Such devices authorized before October 23, 2012 for use under the general license then provided in § 31.3 and equivalent regulations of Agreement States and manufactured, tested, and labeled by the manufacturer in accordance with the specifications contained in a specific license issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) Balances of precision containing not more than 1 millicurie of tritium per balance or not more than 0.5 millicurie of tritium per balance part manufactured before December 17, 2007.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) Marine compasses containing not more than 750 millicuries of tritium gas and other marine navigational instruments containing not more than 250 millicuries of tritium gas manufactured before December 17, 2007.
</P>
<P>(6) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(7) Ionization chamber smoke detectors containing not more than 1 microcurie (µCi) of americium-241 per detector in the form of a foil and designed to protect life and property from fires.
</P>
<P>(8) Electron tubes: <I>Provided,</I> That each tube does not contain more than one of the following specified quantities of byproduct material:
</P>
<P>(i) 150 millicuries of tritium per microwave receiver protector tube or 10 millicuries of tritium per any other electron tube;
</P>
<P>(ii) 1 microcurie of cobalt-60;
</P>
<P>(iii) 5 microcuries of nickel-63;
</P>
<P>(iv) 30 microcuries of krypton-85;
</P>
<P>(v) 5 microcuries of cesium-137;
</P>
<P>(vi) 30 microcuries of promethium-147;
</P>
<FP><I>And provided further,</I> That the levels of radiation from each electron tube containing byproduct material do not exceed 1 millirad per hour at 1 centimeter from any surface when measured through 7 milligrams per square centimeter of absorber. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For purposes of this paragraph “electron tubes” include spark gap tubes, power tubes, gas tubes including glow lamps, receiving tubes, microwave tubes, indicator tubes, pickup tubes, radiation detection tubes, and any other completely sealed tube that is designed to conduct or control electrical currents.</P></FTNT>
<P>(9) Ionizing radiation measuring instruments containing, for purposes of internal calibration or standardization, one or more sources of byproduct material: <I>Provided,</I> That;
</P>
<P>(i) Each source contains no more than one exempt quantity set forth in § 30.71, Schedule B, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each instrument contains no more than 10 exempt quantities. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(9), an instrument's source(s) may contain either one type or different types of radionuclides and an individual exempt quantity may be composed of fractional parts of one or more of the exempt quantities in § 30.71, Schedule B, provided that the sum of such fractions shall not exceed unity.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(9), 0.05 microcurie of americium-241 is considered an exempt quantity under § 30.71, Schedule B.
</P>
<P>(10) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who desires to apply byproduct material to, or to incorporate byproduct material into, the products exempted in paragraph (a) of this section, or who desires to initially transfer for sale or distribution such products containing byproduct material, should apply for a specific license pursuant to § 32.14 of this chapter, which license states that the product may be distributed by the licensee to persons exempt from the regulations pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 5316, Apr. 2, 1966] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 30.15, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.18" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.18   Exempt quantities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section, any person is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in parts 30 through 34, 36, and 39 of this chapter to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires byproduct material in individual quantities, each of which does not exceed the applicable quantity set forth in § 30.71, Schedule B.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person, who possesses byproduct material received or acquired before September 25, 1971, under the general license then provided in § 31.4 of this chapter or similar general license of a State, is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in parts 30 through 34, 36 and 39 of this chapter to the extent that this person possesses, uses, transfers, or owns byproduct material.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not authorize for purposes of commercial distribution the production, packaging, repackaging, or transfer of byproduct material or the incorporation of byproduct material into products intended for commercial distribution.
</P>
<P>(d) No person may, for purposes of commercial distribution, transfer byproduct material in the individual quantities set forth in § 30.71 Schedule B, knowing or having reason to believe that such quantities of byproduct material will be transferred to persons exempt under this section or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, except in accordance with a license issued under § 32.18 of this chapter, which license states that the byproduct material may be transferred by the licensee to persons exempt under this section or the equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(e) No person may, for purposes of producing an increased radiation level, combine quantities of byproduct material covered by this exemption so that the aggregate quantity exceeds the limits set forth in § 30.71, Schedule B, except for byproduct material combined within a device placed in use before May 3, 1999, or as otherwise permitted by the regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 6427, Apr. 22, 1970, as amended at 36 FR 16898, Aug. 26, 1971; 43 FR 6921, Feb. 17, 1978; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 72 FR 55925, Oct. 1, 2007; 72 FR 58486, Oct. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.19   Self-luminous products containing tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for persons who manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution self-luminous products containing tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147, and except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any person is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in parts 20 and 30 through 36 and 39 of this chapter to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147 in self-luminous products manufactured, processed, produced, or initially transferred in accordance with a specific license issued pursuant to § 32.22 of this chapter, which license authorizes the initial transfer of the product for use under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who desires to manufacture, process, or produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution self-luminous products containing tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147 for use under paragraph (a) of this section, should apply for a license under § 32.22 of this chapter and for a certificate of registration in accordance with § 32.210 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The exemption in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147 used in products primarily for frivolous purposes or in toys or adornments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 9026, June 6, 1969, as amended at 40 FR 8785, Mar. 3, 1975; 43 FR 6921, Feb. 17, 1978; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 77 FR 43689, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.20   Gas and aerosol detectors containing byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for persons who manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution gas and aerosol detectors containing byproduct material, any person is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in parts 19, 20, 21, and 30 through 36 and 39 of this chapter to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires byproduct material in gas and aerosol detectors designed to protect health, safety, or property, and manufactured, processed, produced, or initially transferred in accordance with a specific license issued under § 32.26 of this chapter, which license authorizes the initial transfer of the product for use under this section. This exemption also covers gas and aerosol detectors manufactured or distributed before November 30, 2007, in accordance with a specific license issued by a State under comparable provisions to § 32.26 of this chapter authorizing distribution to persons exempt from regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who desires to manufacture, process, or produce gas and aerosol detectors containing byproduct material, or to initially transfer such products for use under paragraph (a) of this section, should apply for a license under § 32.26 of this chapter and for a certificate of registration in accordance with § 32.210 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43689, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.21   Radioactive drug: Capsules containing carbon-14 urea for “in vivo” diagnostic use for humans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, any person is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in Section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in this part and part 35 of this chapter provided that such person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires capsules containing 37 kBq (1 µCi) carbon-14 urea (allowing for nominal variation that may occur during the manufacturing process) each, for “in vivo” diagnostic use for humans.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who desires to use the capsules for research involving human subjects shall apply for and receive a specific license pursuant to part 35 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who desires to manufacture, prepare, process, produce, package, repackage, or transfer for commercial distribution such capsules shall apply for and receive a specific license pursuant to § 32.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section relieves persons from complying with applicable FDA, other Federal, and State requirements governing receipt, administration, and use of drugs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 63640, Dec. 2, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.86.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.22   Certain industrial devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for persons who manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution industrial devices containing byproduct material designed and manufactured for the purpose of detecting, measuring, gauging or controlling thickness, density, level, interface location, radiation, leakage, or qualitative or quantitative chemical composition, or for producing an ionized atmosphere, any person is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 81 of the Act and from the regulations in parts 19, 20, 21, 30 through 36, and 39 of this chapter to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, transfers, owns, or acquires byproduct material, in these certain detecting, measuring, gauging, or controlling devices and certain devices for producing an ionized atmosphere, and manufactured, processed, produced, or initially transferred in accordance with a specific license issued under § 32.30 of this chapter, which license authorizes the initial transfer of the device for use under this section. This exemption does not cover sources not incorporated into a device, such as calibration and reference sources.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who desires to manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution industrial devices containing byproduct material for use under paragraph (a) of this section, should apply for a license under § 32.30 of this chapter and for a certificate of registration in accordance with § 32.210 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43689, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="87" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.31   Types of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Licenses for byproduct material are of two types: General and specific. 
</P>
<P>(a) The Commission issues a specific license to a named person who has filed an application for the license under the provisions of this part and parts 32 through 36, and 39. 
</P>
<P>(b) A general license is provided by regulation, grants authority to a person for certain activities involving byproduct material, and is effective without the filing of an application with the Commission or the issuance of a licensing document to a particular person. However, registration with the Commission may be required by the particular general license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 79187, Dec. 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.32   Application for specific licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may file an application on NRC Form 313, “Application for Material License,” in accordance with the instructions in § 30.6 of this chapter. Information contained in previous applications, statements or reports filed with the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission may be incorporated by reference, provided that the reference is clear and specific.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may at any time after the filing of the original application, and before the expiration of the license, require further statements in order to enable the Commission to determine whether the application should be granted or denied or whether a license should be modified or revoked.
</P>
<P>(c) Each application shall be signed by the applicant or licensee or a person duly authorized to act for and on his behalf.
</P>
<P>(d) An application for license filed pursuant to the regulations in this part and parts 32 through 35 of this chapter will be considered also as an application for licenses authorizing other activities for which licenses are required by the Act, provided that the application specifies the additional activities for which licenses are requested and complies with regulations of the Commission as to applications for such licenses.
</P>
<P>(e) Each application for a byproduct material license, other than a license exempted from part 170 of this chapter, shall be accompanied by the fee prescribed in § 170.31 of this chapter. No fee will be required to accompany an application for renewal or amendment of a license, except as provided in § 170.31 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) An application for a license to receive and possess byproduct material for the conduct of any activity which the Commission has determined pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter will significantly affect the quality of the environment shall be filed at least 9 months prior to commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted and shall be accompanied by any Environmental Report required pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (g)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, an application for a specific license to use byproduct material in the form of a sealed source or in a device that contains the sealed source must either—
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the source or device by manufacturer and model number as registered with the Commission under § 32.210 of this chapter, with an Agreement State, or for a source or a device containing radium-226 or accelerator-produced radioactive material with a State under provisions comparable to § 32.210 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain the information identified in § 32.210(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For sources or devices manufactured before October 23, 2012 that are not registered with the Commission under § 32.210 of this chapter or with an Agreement State, and for which the applicant is unable to provide all categories of information specified in § 32.210(c) of this chapter, the application must include:
</P>
<P>(i) All available information identified in § 32.210(c) of this chapter concerning the source, and, if applicable, the device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Sufficient additional information to demonstrate that there is reasonable assurance that the radiation safety properties of the source or device are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life and property. Such information must include a description of the source or device, a description of radiation safety features, the intended use and associated operating experience, and the results of a recent leak test.
</P>
<P>(3) For sealed sources and devices allowed to be distributed without registration of safety information in accordance with § 32.210(g)(1) of this chapter, the applicant may supply only the manufacturer, model number, and radionuclide and quantity.
</P>
<P>(4) If it is not feasible to identify each sealed source and device individually, the applicant may propose constraints on the number and type of sealed sources and devices to be used and the conditions under which they will be used, in lieu of identifying each sealed source and device.
</P>
<P>(h) As provided by § 30.35, certain applications for specific licenses filed under this part and parts 32 through 35 of this chapter must contain a proposed decommissioning funding plan or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning. In the case of renewal applications submitted before July 27, 1990, this submittal may follow the renewal application but must be submitted on or before July 27, 1990.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) Each application to possess radioactive materials in unsealed form, on foils or plated sources, or sealed in glass in excess of the quantities in § 30.72, “Schedule C—Quantities of Radioactive Materials Requiring Consideration of the Need for an Emergency Plan for Responding to a Release,” must contain either:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation showing that the maximum dose to a person offsite due to a release of radioactive materials would not exceed 1 rem effective dose equivalent or 5 rems to the thyroid; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An emergency plan for responding to a release of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the following factors may be used to support an evaluation submitted under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The radioactive material is physically separated so that only a portion could be involved in an accident;
</P>
<P>(ii) All or part of the radioactive material is not subject to release during an accident because of the way it is stored or packaged;
</P>
<P>(iii) The release fraction in the respirable size range would be lower than the release fraction shown § 30.72 due to the chemical or physical form of the material;
</P>
<P>(iv) The solubility of the radioactive material would reduce the dose received;
</P>
<P>(v) Facility design or engineered safety features in the facility would cause the release fraction to be lower than shown in § 30.72;
</P>
<P>(vi) Operating restrictions or procedures would prevent a release fraction as large as that shown in § 30.72; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Other factors appropriate for the specific facility.
</P>
<P>(3) An emergency plan for responding to a release of radioactive material submitted under paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Facility description.</I> A brief description of the licensee's facility and area near the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Types of accidents.</I> An identification of each type of radio-active materials accident for which protective actions may be needed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Classification of accidents.</I> A classification system for classifying accidents as alerts or site area emergencies.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Detection of accidents.</I> Identification of the means of detecting each type of accident in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Mitigation of consequences.</I> A brief description of the means and equipment for mitigating the consequences of each type of accident, including those provided to protect workers onsite, and a description of the program for maintaining the equipment.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Assessment of releases.</I> A brief description of the methods and equipment to assess releases of radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Responsibilities.</I> A brief description of the responsibilities of licensee personnel should an accident occur, including identification of personnel responsible for promptly notifying offsite response organizations and the NRC; also responsibilities for developing, maintaining, and updating the plan.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Notification and coordination.</I> A commitment to and a brief description of the means to promptly notify offsite response organizations and request offsite assistance, including medical assistance for the treatment of contaminated injured onsite workers when appropriate. A control point must be established. The notification and coordination must be planned so that unavailability of some personnel, parts of the facility, and some equipment will not prevent the notification and coordination. The licensee shall also commit to notify the NRC operations center immediately after notification of the appropriate offsite response organizations and not later than one hour after the licensee declares an emergency. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> These reporting requirements do not supersede or release licensees of complying with the requirements under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Pub. L. 99-499 or other state or federal reporting requirements.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ix) <I>Information to be communicated.</I> A brief description of the types of information on facility status, radioactive releases, and recommended protective actions, if necessary, to be given to offsite response organizations and to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Training.</I> A brief description of the frequency, performance objectives and plans for the training that the licensee will provide workers on how to respond to an emergency including any special instructions and orientation tours the licensee would offer to fire, police, medical and other emergency personnel. The training shall familiarize personnel with site-specific emergency procedures. Also, the training shall thoroughly prepare site personnel for their responsibilities in the event of accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site, including the use of team training for such scenarios.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Safe shutdown.</I> A brief description of the means of restoring the facility to a safe condition after an accident.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Exercises.</I> Provisions for conducting quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations and biennial onsite exercises to test response to simulated emergencies. Quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations must include the check and update of all necessary telephone numbers. The licensee shall invite offsite response organizations to participate in the biennial exercises. Participation of offsite response organizations in biennial exercises although recommended is not required. Exercises must use accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site and the scenarios shall not be known to most exercise participants. The licensee shall critique each exercise using individuals not having direct implementation responsibility for the plan. Critiques of exercises must evaluate the appropriateness of the plan, emergency procedures, facilities, equipment, training of personnel, and overall effectiveness of the response. Deficiencies found by the critiques must be corrected.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Hazardous chemicals.</I> A certification that the applicant has met its responsibilities under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, title III, Pub. L. 99-499, if applicable to the applicant's activities at the proposed place of use of the byproduct material.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall allow the offsite response organizations expected to respond in case of an accident 60 days to comment on the licensee's emergency plan before submitting it to NRC. The licensee shall provide any comments received within the 60 days to the NRC with the emergency plan.
</P>
<P>(j) An application from a medical facility, educational institution, or Federal facility to produce Positron Emission Tomography (PET) radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to licensees in its consortium authorized for medical use under part 35 of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A request for authorization for the production of PET radionuclides or evidence of an existing license issued under part 30 of this chapter or Agreement State requirements for a PET radionuclide production facility within its consortium from which it receives PET radionuclides.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that the applicant is qualified to produce radioactive drugs for medical use by meeting one of the criteria in § 32.72(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of individual(s) authorized to prepare the PET radioactive drugs if the applicant is a pharmacy, and documentation that each individual meets the requirements of an authorized nuclear pharmacist as specified in § 32.72(b)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Information identified in § 32.72(a)(3) of this chapter on the PET drugs to be noncommercially transferred to members of its consortium.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965, as amended at 36 FR 145, Jan. 6, 1971; 37 FR 5747, Mar. 21, 1972; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 49 FR 9403, Mar. 12, 1984; 49 FR 27924, July 9, 1984; 52 FR 27786, July 24, 1987; 53 FR 24044, June 27, 1988; 54 FR 14060, Apr. 7, 1989; 68 FR 58004, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 55925, Oct. 1, 2007; 73 FR 63570, Oct. 24, 2008; 77 FR 43689, July 25, 2012; 79 FR 58671, Sept. 30, 2014; 88 FR 80949, Nov. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.33   General requirements for issuance of specific licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a specific license will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(1) The application is for a purpose authorized by the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant's proposed equipment and facilities are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life or property;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant is qualified by training and experience to use the material for the purpose requested in such manner as to protect health and minimize danger to life or property;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant satisfies any special requirements contained in parts 32 through 37 and 39 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of an application for a license to receive and possess byproduct material for the conduct of any activity which the NRC determines will significantly affect the quality of the environment, the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or his/her designee, before commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted, on the basis of information filed and evaluations made pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter, has concluded, after weighing the environmental, economic, technical, and other benefits against environmental costs and considering available alternatives, that the action called for is the issuance of the proposed license, with any appropriate conditions to protect environmental values. Commencement of construction prior to such conclusion shall be grounds for denial of a license to receive and possess byproduct material in such plant or facility. Commencement of construction as defined in § 30.4 may include non-construction activities if the activity has a reasonable nexus to radiological safety and security.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon a determination that an application meets the requirements of the Act, and the regulations of the Commission, the Commission will issue a specific license authorizing the possession and use of byproduct material (Form NRC 374, “Byproduct Material License”).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965, as amended at 36 FR 12731, July 7, 1971; 37 FR 5747, Mar. 21, 1972; 39 FR 26279, July 18, 1974; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 49 FR 9403, Mar. 12, 1984; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 73 FR 5717, Jan. 31, 2008; 76 FR 56962, Sept. 15, 2011; 78 FR 17006, Mar. 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.34" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.34   Terms and conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part and the regulations in parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter shall be subject to all the provisions of the Act, now or hereafter in effect, and to all valid rules, regulations and orders of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) No license issued or granted pursuant to the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36, and 39 nor any right under a license shall be transferred, assigned or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of any license to any person, unless the Commission shall, after securing full information, find that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of the Act and shall give its consent in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) An application for transfer of license must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The identity, technical and financial qualifications of the proposed transferee; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Financial assurance for decommissioning information required by § 30.35.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person licensed by the Commission pursuant to the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 shall confine his possession and use of the byproduct material to the locations and purposes authorized in the license. Except as otherwise provided in the license, a license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter shall carry with it the right to receive, acquire, own, and possess byproduct material. Preparation for shipment and transport of byproduct material shall be in accordance with the provisions of part 71 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Each license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 shall be deemed to contain the provisions set forth in section 183b.-d., inclusive, of the Act, whether or not these provisions are expressly set forth in the license.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may incorporate, in any license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39, at the time of issuance, or thereafter by appropriate rule, regulation or order, such additional requirements and conditions with respect to the licensee's receipt, possession, use and transfer of byproduct material as it deems appropriate or necessary in order to:
</P>
<P>(1) Promote the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(2) Protect health or to minimize danger to life or property;
</P>
<P>(3) Protect restricted data;
</P>
<P>(4) Require such reports and the keeping of such records, and to provide for such inspections of activities under the license as may be necessary or appropriate to effectuate the purposes of the Act and regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees required to submit emergency plans by § 30.32(i) shall follow the emergency plan approved by the Commission. The licensee may change the approved without Commission approval only if the changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan. The licensee shall furnish the change to the appropriate NRC Regional Office specified in § 30.6 and to affected offsite response organizations within six months after the change is made. Proposed changes that decrease, or potentially decrease, the effectiveness of the approved emergency plan may not be implemented without prior application to and prior approval by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(g) Each licensee preparing technetium-99m radiopharmaceuticals from molybdenum-99/technetium-99m generators or rubidium-82 from strontium-82/rubidium-82 generators shall test the generator eluates for molybdenum-99 breakthrough or strontium-82 and strontium-85 contamination, respectively, in accordance with § 35.204 of this chapter. The licensee shall record the results of each test and retain each record for 3 years after the record is made. The licensee shall report the results of any test that exceeds the permissible concentration listed in § 35.204(a) of this chapter at the time of generator elution, in accordance with § 35.3204 of this chapter.






</P>
<P>(h)(1) Each general licensee that is required to register by § 31.5(c)(13) of this chapter and each specific licensee shall notify the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any chapter of title 11 (Bankruptcy) of the United States Code by or against: 
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An entity (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(15) controlling the licensee or listing the license or licensee as property of the estate; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) An affiliate (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(2)) of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) This notification must indicate:
</P>
<P>(i) The bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the filing of the petition.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Security requirements for portable gauges.</I> Each portable gauge licensee shall use a minimum of two independent physical controls that form tangible barriers to secure portable gauges from unauthorized removal, whenever portable gauges are not under the control and constant surveillance of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) Authorization under § 30.32(j) to produce Positron Emission Tomography (PET) radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to medical use licensees in its consortium does not relieve the licensee from complying with applicable FDA, other Federal, and State requirements governing radioactive drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee authorized under § 30.32(j) to produce PET radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to medical use licensees in its consortium shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Satisfy the labeling requirements in § 32.72(a)(4) of this chapter for each PET radioactive drug transport radiation shield and each syringe, vial, or other container used to hold a PET radioactive drug intended for noncommercial distribution to members of its consortium.
</P>
<P>(ii) Possess and use instrumentation to measure the radioactivity of the PET radioactive drugs intended for noncommercial distribution to members of its consortium and meet the procedural, radioactivity measurement, instrument test, instrument check, and instrument adjustment requirements in § 32.72(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) A licensee that is a pharmacy authorized under § 30.32(j) to produce PET radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to medical use licensees in its consortium shall require that any individual that prepares PET radioactive drugs shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) an authorized nuclear pharmacist that meets the requirements in § 32.72(b)(2) of this chapter, or
</P>
<P>(ii) an individual under the supervision of an authorized nuclear pharmacist as specified in § 35.27 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) A pharmacy, authorized under § 30.32(j) to produce PET radioactive drugs for noncommercial transfer to medical use licensees in its consortium that allows an individual to work as an authorized nuclear pharmacist, shall meet the requirements of § 32.72(b)(5) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(k) As required by the Additional Protocol, each specific licensee authorized to possess and use byproduct material shall file with the Commission location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Forms AP-1 and associated forms. The licensee shall also permit verification of this information by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and shall take other action as may be necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965, as amended at 38 FR 33969, Dec. 10, 1973; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 48 FR 32328, July 15, 1983; 52 FR 1295, Jan. 12, 1987; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 53 FR 19245, May 27, 1988; 53 FR 23383, June 22, 1988; 54 FR 14061, Apr. 7, 1989; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 59 FR 61780, Dec. 2, 1994; 65 FR 79187, Dec. 18, 2000; 70 FR 2009, Jan. 12, 2005; 72 FR 55926, Oct. 1, 2007; 73 FR 63570, Oct. 24, 2008; 73 FR 78604, Dec. 23, 2008; 74 FR 7785, Feb. 20, 2009; 76 FR 35564, June 17, 2011; 77 FR 39905, July 6, 2012; 79 FR 58671, Sept. 30, 2014; 83 FR 33101, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.35   Financial assurance and recordkeeping for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each applicant for a specific license authorizing the possession and use of unsealed byproduct material of half-life greater than 120 days and in quantities exceeding 10
<SU>5</SU> times the applicable quantities set forth in appendix B to part 30 shall submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (e) of this section. The decommissioning funding plan must also be submitted when a combination of isotopes is involved if R divided by 10
<SU>5</SU> is greater than 1 (unity rule), where R is defined here as the sum of the ratios of the quantity of each isotope to the applicable value in appendix B to part 30.
</P>
<P>(2) Each holder of, or applicant for, any specific license authorizing the possession and use of sealed sources or plated foils of half-life greater than 120 days and in quantities exceeding 10
<SU>12</SU> times the applicable quantities set forth in appendix B to part 30 (or when a combination of isotopes is involved if R, as defined in § 30.35(a)(1), divided by 10 
<SU>12</SU> is greater than 1), shall submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (e) of this section. The decommissioning funding plan must be submitted to NRC by December 2, 2005. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant for a specific license authorizing possession and use of byproduct material of half-life greater than 120 days and in quantities specified in paragraph (d) of this section shall either—
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (e) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Submit a certification that financial assurance for decommissioning has been provided in the amount prescribed by paragraph (d) of this section using one of the methods described in paragraph (f) of this section. For an applicant, this certification may state that the appropriate assurance will be obtained after the application has been approved and the license issued but before the receipt of licensed material. If the applicant defers execution of the financial instrument until after the license has been issued, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section must be submitted to NRC before receipt of licensed material. If the applicant does not defer execution of the financial instrument, the applicant shall submit to NRC, as part of the certification, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each holder of a specific license issued on or after July 27, 1990, which is of a type described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, shall provide financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Each holder of a specific license issued before July 27, 1990, and of a type described in paragraph (a) of this section shall submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (e) of this section or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning in an amount at least equal to $1,125,000 in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section. If the licensee submits the certification of financial assurance rather than a decommissioning funding plan, the licensee shall include a decommissioning funding plan in any application for license renewal. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each holder of a specific license issued before July 27, 1990, and of a type described in paragraph (b) of this section shall submit, on or before July 27, 1990, a decommissioning funding plan as described, in paragraph (e) of this section, or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Any licensee who has submitted an application before July 27, 1990, for renewal of license in accordance with § 30.37 shall provide financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. This assurance must be submitted when this rule becomes effective November 24, 1995.
</P>
<P>(5) Waste collectors and waste processors, as defined in 10 CFR part 20, Appendix G, must provide financial assurance in an amount based on a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (e) of this section. The decommissioning funding plan must include the cost of disposal of the maximum amount (curies) of radioactive material permitted by license, and the cost of disposal of the maximum quantity, by volume, of radioactive material which could be present at the licensee's facility at any time, in addition to the cost to remediate the licensee's site to meet the license termination criteria of 10 CFR part 20. The decommissioning funding plan must be submitted by December 2, 2005.
</P>
<P>(6) If, in surveys made under 10 CFR 20.1501(a), residual radioactivity in the facility and environment, including the subsurface, is detected at levels that would, if left uncorrected, prevent the site from meeting the 10 CFR 20.1402 criteria for unrestricted use, the licensee must submit a decommissioning funding plan within one year of when the survey is completed.
</P>
<P>(d) Table of required amounts of financial assurance for decommissioning by quantity of material. Licensees required to submit the $1,125,000 amount must do so by December 2, 2004. Licensees required to submit the $113,000 or $225,000 amount must do so by June 2, 2005. Licensees having possession limits exceeding the upper bounds of this table must base financial assurance on a decommissioning funding plan.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 10
<sup>4</sup> but less than or equal to 10
<sup>5</sup> times the applicable quantities of appendix B to part 30 in unsealed form. (For a combination of isotopes, if R, as defined in § 30.35(a)(1), divided by 10
<sup>4</sup> is greater than 1 but R divided by 10
<sup>5</sup> is less than or equal to 1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,125,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 10
<sup>3</sup> but less than or equal to 10
<sup>4</sup> times the applicable quantities of appendix B to part 30 in unsealed form. (For a combination of isotopes, if R, as defined in § 30.35(a)(1), divided by 10
<sup>3</sup> is greater than 1 but R divided by 10
<sup>4</sup> is less than or equal to 1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 10
<sup>10</sup> but less than or equal to 10
<sup>12</sup> times the applicable quantities of appendix B to part 30 in sealed sources or plated foils. (For a combination of isotopes, if R, as defined in § 30.35(a)(1), divided by 10
<sup>10</sup> is greater than, 1, but R divided by 10
<sup>12</sup> is less than or equal to 1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e)(1) Each decommissioning funding plan must be submitted for review and approval and must contain —
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed cost estimate for decommissioning, in an amount reflecting:
</P>
<P>(A) The cost of an independent contractor to perform all decommissioning activities;
</P>
<P>(B) The cost of meeting the 10 CFR 20.1402 criteria for unrestricted use, provided that, if the applicant or licensee can demonstrate its ability to meet the provisions of 10 CFR 20.1403, the cost estimate may be based on meeting the 10 CFR 20.1403 criteria;
</P>
<P>(C) The volume of onsite subsurface material containing residual radioactivity that will require remediation to meet the criteria for license termination; and
</P>
<P>(D) An adequate contingency factor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of and justification for using the key assumptions contained in the DCE;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the method of assuring funds for decommissioning from paragraph (f) of this section, including means for adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels periodically over the life of the facility;
</P>
<P>(iv) A certification by the licensee that financial assurance for decommissioning has been provided in the amount of the cost estimate for decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(v) A signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section (unless a previously submitted and accepted financial instrument continues to cover the cost estimate for decommissioning).
</P>
<P>(2) At the time of license renewal and at intervals not to exceed 3 years, the decommissioning funding plan must be resubmitted with adjustments as necessary to account for changes in costs and the extent of contamination. If the amount of financial assurance will be adjusted downward, this can not be done until the updated decommissioning funding plan is approved. The decommissioning funding plan must update the information submitted with the original or prior approved plan, and must specifically consider the effect of the following events on decommissioning costs:
</P>
<P>(i) Spills of radioactive material producing additional residual radioactivity in onsite subsurface material;
</P>
<P>(ii) Waste inventory increasing above the amount previously estimated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Waste disposal costs increasing above the amount previously estimated;
</P>
<P>(iv) Facility modifications;
</P>
<P>(v) Changes in authorized possession limits;
</P>
<P>(vi) Actual remediation costs that exceed the previous cost estimate;
</P>
<P>(vii) Onsite disposal; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Use of a settling pond.
</P>
<P>(f) The financial instrument must include the licensee's name, license number, and docket number, and the name, address, and other contact information of the issuer, and, if a trust is used, the trustee. When any of the foregoing information changes, the licensee must, within 30 days, submit financial instruments reflecting such changes. The financial instrument submitted must be a signed original or signed original duplicate, except where a copy of the signed original is specifically permitted. Financial assurance for decommissioning must be provided by one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prepayment.</I> Prepayment is the deposit before the start of operation into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. Prepayment must be made into a trust account, and the trustee and the trust must be acceptable to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method.</I> These methods guarantee that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, or letter of credit. A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in Appendix A to this part. For commercial corporations that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in Appendix C to this part. For commercial companies that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in Appendix D to this part. For nonprofit entities, such as colleges, universities, and nonprofit hospitals, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in Appendix E to this part. Except for an external sinking fund, a parent company guarantee or a guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in combination with any other financial methods used to satisfy the requirements of this section. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in any situation where the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of the voting stock of the company. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must contain the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The surety method or insurance must be open-ended or, if written for a specified term, such as five years, must be renewed automatically unless 90 days or more prior to the renewal date, the issuer notifies the Commission, the beneficiary, and the licensee of its intention not to renew. The surety method or insurance must also provide that the full face amount be paid to the beneficiary automatically prior to the expiration without proof of forfeiture if the licensee fails to provide a replacement acceptable to the Commission within 30 days after receipt of notification of cancellation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The surety method or insurance must be payable to a trust established for decommissioning costs. The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the Commission. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal government agency or an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) The surety method or insurance must remain in effect until the Commission has terminated the license.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>An external sinking fund in which deposits are made at least annually, coupled with a surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method, the value of which may decrease by the amount being accumulated in the sinking fund.</I> An external sinking fund is a fund established and maintained by setting aside funds periodically in an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control in which the total amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs at the time termination of operation is expected. An external sinking fund must be in the form of a trust. If the other guarantee method is used, no surety or insurance may be combined with the external sinking fund. The surety, insurance, or other guarantee provisions must be as stated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of Federal, State, or local government licensees, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning or an amount based on the table in paragraph (d) of this section, and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary.
</P>
<P>(5) When a government entity is assuming custody and ownership of a site, an arrangement that is deemed acceptable by such government entity.
</P>
<P>(g) Each person licensed under this part or parts 32 through 36 and 39 of this chapter shall keep records of information important to the decommissioning of a facility in an identified location until the site is released for unrestricted use. Before licensed activities are transferred or assigned in accordance with § 30.34(b), licensees shall transfer all records described in this paragraph to the new licensee. In this case, the new licensee will be responsible for maintaining these records until the license is terminated. If records important to the decommissioning of a facility are kept for other purposes, reference to these records and their locations may be used. Information the Commission considers important to decommissioning consists of—
</P>
<P>(1) Records of spills or other unusual occurrences involving the spread of contamination in and around the facility, equipment, or site. These records may be limited to instances when contamination remains after any cleanup procedures or when there is reasonable likelihood that contaminants may have spread to inaccessible areas as in the case of possible seepage into porous materials such as concrete. These records must include any known information on identification of involved nuclides, quantities, forms, and concentrations.
</P>
<P>(2) As-built drawings and modifications of structures and equipment in restricted areas where radioactive materials are used and/or stored, and of locations of possible inaccessible contamination such as buried pipes which may be subject to contamination. If required drawings are referenced, each relevant document need not be indexed individually. If drawings are not available, the licensee shall substitute appropriate records of available information concerning these areas and locations.
</P>
<P>(3) Except for areas containing only sealed sources (provided the sources have not leaked or no contamination remains after any leak) or byproduct materials having only half-lives of less than 65 days, a list contained in a single document and updated every 2 years, of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) All areas designated and formerly designated restricted areas as defined in 10 CFR 20.1003 (For requirements prior to January 1, 1994, see 10 CFR 20.3 as contained in the CFR edition revised as of January 1, 1993.);
</P>
<P>(ii) All areas outside of restricted areas that require documentation under § 30.35(g)(1).
</P>
<P>(iii) All areas outside of restricted areas where current and previous wastes have been buried as documented under 10 CFR 20.2108; and
</P>
<P>(iv) All areas outside of restricted areas that contain material such that, if the license expired, the licensee would be required to either decontaminate the area to meet the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E, or apply for approval for disposal under 10 CFR 20.2002.
</P>
<P>(4) Records of the cost estimate performed for the decommissioning funding plan or of the amount certified for decommissioning, and records of the funding method used for assuring funds if either a funding plan or certification is used.
</P>
<P>(h) In providing financial assurance under this section, each licensee must use the financial assurance funds only for decommissioning activities and each licensee must monitor the balance of funds held to account for market variations. The licensee must replenish the funds, and report such actions to the NRC, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If, at the end of a calendar quarter, the fund balance is below the amount necessary to cover the cost of decommissioning, but is not below 75 percent of the cost, the licensee must increase the balance to cover the cost, and must do so within 30 days after the end of the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) If, at any time, the fund balance falls below 75 percent of the amount necessary to cover the cost of decommissioning, the licensee must increase the balance to cover the cost, and must do so within 30 days of the occurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 30 days of taking the actions required by paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this section, the licensee must provide a written report of such actions to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , and state the new balance of the fund.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 24044, June 27, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 23471, May 21, 1991; 58 FR 39633, July 26, 1993; 58 FR 67659, Dec. 22, 1993; 58 FR 68730, Dec. 29, 1993; 59 FR 1618, Jan. 12, 1994; 60 FR 38238, July 26, 1995; 61 FR 24673, May 16, 1996; 62 FR 39090, July 21, 1997; 63 FR 29541, June 1, 1998; 68 FR 57335, Oct. 3, 2003; 76 FR 35564, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.36" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.36   Expiration and termination of licenses and decommissioning of sites and separate buildings or outdoor areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each specific license expires at the end of the day on the expiration date stated in the license, unless the licensee has filed an application for renewal under § 30.37 not less than 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license. If an application for renewal has been filed at least 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license, the existing license expires at the end of the day on which the Commission makes a final determination to deny the renewal application or, if the determination states an expiration date, the expiration date stated in the determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Each specific license revoked by the Commission expires at the end of the day on the date of the Commission's final determination to revoke the license, or on the expiration date stated in the determination, or as otherwise provided by Commission Order.
</P>
<P>(c) Each specific license continues in effect, beyond the expiration date if necessary, with respect to possession of byproduct material until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this time, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Limit actions involving byproduct material to those related to decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(2) Continue to control entry to restricted areas until they are suitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 60 days of the occurrence of any of the following, consistent with the administrative directions in § 30.6, each licensee shall provide notification to the NRC in writing of such occurrence, and either begin decommissioning its site, or any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity so that the building or outdoor area is suitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements, or submit within 12 months of notification a decommissioning plan, if required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and begin decommissioning upon approval of that plan if—
</P>
<P>(1) The license has expired pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee has decided to permanently cease principal activities, as defined in this part, at the entire site or in any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity such that the building or outdoor area is unsuitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements; or
</P>
<P>(3) No principal activities under the license have been conducted for a period of 24 months; or
</P>
<P>(4) No principal activities have been conducted for a period of 24 months in any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity such that the building or outdoor area is unsuitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) Coincident with the notification required by paragraph (d) of this section, the licensee shall maintain in effect all decommissioning financial assurances established by the licensee pursuant to § 30.35 in conjunction with a license issuance or renewal or as required by this section. The amount of the financial assurance must be increased, or may be decreased, as appropriate, to cover the detailed cost estimate for decommissioning established pursuant to paragraph (g)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Any licensee who has not provided financial assurance to cover the detailed cost estimate submitted with the decommissioning plan shall do so when this rule becomes effective November 24, 1995.
</P>
<P>(2) Following approval of the decommissioning plan, a licensee may reduce the amount of the financial assurance as decommissioning proceeds and radiological contamination is reduced at the site with the approval of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) The Commission may grant a request to extend the time periods established in paragraph (d) if the Commission determines that this relief is not detrimental to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest. The request must be submitted no later than 30 days before notification pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. The schedule for decommissioning set forth in paragraph (d) of this section may not commence until the Commission has made a determination on the request.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) A decommissioning plan must be submitted if required by license condition or if the procedures and activities necessary to carry out decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area have not been previously approved by the Commission and these procedures could increase potential health and safety impacts to workers or to the public, such as in any of the following cases:
</P>
<P>(i) Procedures would involve techniques not applied routinely during cleanup or maintenance operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Workers would be entering areas not normally occupied where surface contamination and radiation levels are significantly higher than routinely encountered during operation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures could result in significantly greater airborne concentrations of radioactive materials than are present during operation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures could result in significantly greater releases of radioactive material to the environment than those associated with operation.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may approve an alternate schedule for submittal of a decommissioning plan required pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section if the Commission determines that the alternative schedule is necessary to the effective conduct of decommissioning operations and presents no undue risk from radiation to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures such as those listed in paragraph (g)(1) of this section with potential health and safety impacts may not be carried out prior to approval of the decommissioning plan.
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed decommissioning plan for the site or separate building or outdoor area must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the conditions of the site or separate building or outdoor area sufficient to evaluate the acceptability of the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of planned decommissioning activities;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of methods used to ensure protection of workers and the environment against radiation hazards during decommissioning;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the planned final radiation survey; and
</P>
<P>(v) An updated detailed cost estimate for decommissioning, comparison of that estimate with present funds set aside for decommissioning, and a plan for assuring the availability of adequate funds for completion of decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(vi) For decommissioning plans calling for completion of decommissioning later than 24 months after plan approval, the plan shall include a justification for the delay based on the criteria in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed decommissioning plan will be approved by the Commission if the information therein demonstrates that the decommissioning will be completed as soon as practicable and that the health and safety of workers and the public will be adequately protected.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, licensees shall complete decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area as soon as practicable but no later than 24 months following the initiation of decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, when decommissioning involves the entire site, the licensee shall request license termination as soon as practicable but no later than 24 months following the initiation of decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission may approve a request for an alternative schedule for completion of decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area, and license termination if appropriate, if the Commission determines that the alternative is warranted by consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether it is technically feasible to complete decommissioning within the allotted 24-month period;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether sufficient waste disposal capacity is available to allow completion of decommissioning within the allotted 24-month period;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether a significant volume reduction in wastes requiring disposal will be achieved by allowing short-lived radionuclides to decay;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether a significant reduction in radiation exposure to workers can be achieved by allowing short-lived radionuclides to decay; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other site-specific factors which the Commission may consider appropriate on a case-by-case basis, such as the regulatory requirements of other government agencies, lawsuits, groundwater treatment activities, monitored natural groundwater 

restoration, actions that could result in more environmental harm than deferred cleanup, and other factors beyond the control of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(j) As the final step in decommissioning, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Certify the disposition of all licensed material, including accumulated wastes, by submitting a completed NRC Form 314 or equivalent information; and
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct a radiation survey of the premises where the licensed activities were carried out and submit a report of the results of this survey, unless the licensee demonstrates in some other manner that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E. The licensee shall, as appropriate—
</P>
<P>(i) Report levels of gamma radiation in units of millisieverts (microroentgen) per hour at one meter from surfaces, and report levels of radioactivity, including alpha and beta, in units of megabecquerels (disintegrations per minute or microcuries) per 100 square centimeters—removable and fixed—for surfaces, megabecquerels (microcuries) per milliliter for water, and becquerels (picocuries) per gram for solids such as soils or concrete; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the survey instrument(s) used and certify that each instrument is properly calibrated and tested.
</P>
<P>(k) Specific licenses, including expired licenses, will be terminated by written notice to the licensee when the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) Byproduct material has been properly disposed;
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable effort has been made to eliminate residual radioactive contamination, if present; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A radiation survey has been performed which demonstrates that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other information submitted by the licensee is sufficient to demonstrate that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(4) Records required by § 30.51 (d) and (f) have been received.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 36034, July 15, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 38238, July 26, 1995; 61 FR 1114, Jan. 16, 1996; 61 FR 24673, May 16, 1996; 61 FR 29637, June 12, 1996; 62 FR 39090, July 21, 1997; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008; 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.37   Application for renewal of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Application for renewal of a specific license must be filed on NRC Form 313 and in accordance with § 30.32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73942, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.38" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.38   Application for amendment of licenses and registration certificates.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for amendment of a license must be filed in accordance with § 30.32 and must specify the respects in which the licensee desires its license to be amended and the grounds for the amendment. Applications for amendment of sealed source and device registration certificates must be filed in accordance with § 32.210 of this chapter and any other applicable provisions and must specify the respects in which the certificate holder desires its certificate to be amended and the grounds for the amendment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43690, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.39   Commission action on applications to renew or amend.</HEAD>
<P>In considering an application to renew or amend a license or to amend a sealed source or device registration certificate, the Commission will apply the applicable criteria set forth in § 30.33 and parts 32 through 36 and 39 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43690, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.87.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.41   Transfer of byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No licensee shall transfer byproduct material except as authorized pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in his license and subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, any licensee may transfer byproduct material:
</P>
<P>(1) To the Department;
</P>
<P>(2) To the agency in any Agreement State which regulates radioactive material pursuant to an agreement under section 274 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(3) To any person exempt from the licensing requirements of the Act and regulations in this part, to the extent permitted under such exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) To any person in an Agreement State, subject to the jurisdiction of that State, who has been exempted from the licensing requirements and regulations of that State, to the extent permitted under such exemption;
</P>
<P>(5) To any person authorized to receive such byproduct material under terms of a specific license or a general license or their equivalents issued by the Atomic Energy Commission, the Commission, or an Agreement State;
</P>
<P>(6) To a person abroad pursuant to an export license issued under part 110 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(7) As otherwise authorized by the Commission in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) Before transferring byproduct material to a specific licensee of the Commission or an Agreement State or to a general licensee who is required to register with the Commission or with an Agreement State prior to receipt of the byproduct material, the licensee transferring the material shall verify that the transferee's license authorizes the receipt of the type, form, and quantity of byproduct material to be transferred.
</P>
<P>(d) The following methods for the verification required by paragraph (c) of this section are acceptable:
</P>
<P>(1) The transferor may have in his possession, and read, a current copy of the transferee's specific license or registration certificate;
</P>
<P>(2) The transferor may have in his possession a written certification by the transferee that he is authorized by license or registration certificate to receive the type, form, and quantity of byproduct material to be transferred, specifying the license or registration certificate number, issuing agency and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(3) For emergency shipments the transferor may accept oral certification by the transferee that he is authorized by license or registration certificate to receive the type, form, and quantity of byproduct material to be transferred, specifying the license or registration certificate number, issuing agency and expiration date: <I>Provided,</I> That the oral certification is confirmed in writing within 10 days;
</P>
<P>(4) The transferor may obtain other sources of information compiled by a reporting service from official records of the Commission or the licensing agency of an Agreement State as to the identity of licensees and the scope and expiration dates of licenses and registration; or
</P>
<P>(5) When none of the methods of verification described in paragraphs (d)(1) to (4) of this section are readily available or when a transferor desires to verify that information received by one of such methods is correct or up-to-date, the transferor may obtain and record confirmation from the Commission or the licensing agency of an Agreement State that the transferee is licensed to receive the byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 33969, Dec. 10, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8785, Mar. 3, 1975; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="88" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.88" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records, Inspections, Tests, and Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.50" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.88.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.50   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Immediate report.</I> Each licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as possible but not later than 4 hours after the discovery of an event that prevents immediate protective actions necessary to avoid exposures to radiation or radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits or releases of licensed material that could exceed regulatory limits (events may include fires, explosions, toxic gas releases, etc.).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Twenty-four hour report.</I> Each licensee shall notify the NRC within 24 hours after the discovery of any of the following events involving licensed material:
</P>
<P>(1) An unplanned contamination event that:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires access to the contaminated area, by workers or the public, to be restricted for more than 24 hours by imposing additional radiological controls or by prohibiting entry into the area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves a quantity of material greater than five times the lowest annual limit on intake specified in appendix B of §§ 20.1001-20.2401 of 10 CFR part 20 for the material; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has access to the area restricted for a reason other than to allow isotopes with a half-life of less than 24 hours to decay prior to decontamination.
</P>
<P>(2) An event in which equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when:
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment is required by regulation or license condition to prevent releases exceeding regulatory limits, to prevent exposures to radiation and radioactive materials exceeding regulatory limits, or to mitigate the consequences of an accident;
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment is required to be available and operable when it is disabled or fails to function; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No redundant equipment is available and operable to perform the required safety function.
</P>
<P>(3) An event that requires unplanned medical treatment at a medical facility of an individual with spreadable radioactive contamination on the individual's clothing or body.
</P>
<P>(4) An unplanned fire or explosion damaging any licensed material or any device, container, or equipment containing licensed material when:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of material involved is greater than five times the lowest annual limit on intake specified in appendix B of §§ 20.1001-20.2401 of 10 CFR part 20 for the material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The damage affects the integrity of the licensed material or its container.
</P>
<P>(c) Preparation and submission of reports. Reports made by licensees in response to the requirements of this section must be made as follows:


</P>
<P>(1) Licensees shall make reports required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section by telephone to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.

 To the extent that the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided in these reports must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The caller's name and call back telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the event, including date and time;
</P>
<P>(iii) The exact location of the event;
</P>
<P>(iv) The isotopes, quantities, and chemical and physical form of the licensed material involved; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any personnel radiation exposure data available.
</P>
<P>(2) Written report. Each licensee who makes a report required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall submit a written follow-up report within 30 days of the initial report. Written reports prepared pursuant to other regulations may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all of the necessary information and the appropriate distribution is made. These written reports must be sent to the NRC using an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a); and a copy must be sent to the appropriate NRC Regional office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. The reports must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the event, including the probable cause and the manufacturer and model number (if applicable) of any equipment that failed or malfunctioned;
</P>
<P>(ii) The exact location of the event;
</P>
<P>(iii) The isotopes, quantities, and chemical and physical form of the licensed material involved;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date and time of the event;
</P>
<P>(v) Corrective actions taken or planned and the results of any evaluations or assessments; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The extent of exposure of individuals to radiation or to radioactive materials without identification of individuals by name.
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions of this section do not apply to licensees subject to the notification requirements in § 50.72 or § 53.1630 of this chapter. They do apply to those licensees under part 50 of this chapter possessing material licensed under this part, who are not subject to the notification requirements in § 50.72 of this chapter.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40767, Aug. 16, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 14086, Mar. 25, 1994; 68 FR 58804, Oct. 10, 2003; 85 FR 65661, Oct. 16, 2020; 91 FR 15786, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.88.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.51   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person who receives byproduct material pursuant to a license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 of this chapter shall keep records showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of the byproduct material as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall retain each record of receipt of byproduct material as long as the material is possessed and for three years following transfer or disposal of the material.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee who transferred the material shall retain each record of transfer for three years after each transfer unless a specific requirement in another part of the regulations in this chapter dictates otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee who disposed of the material shall retain each record of disposal of byproduct material until the Commission terminates each license that authorizes disposal of the material.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain each record that is required by the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 of this chapter or by license condition for the period specified by the appropriate regulation or license condition. If a retention period is not otherwise specified by regulation or license condition, the record must be retained until the Commission terminates each license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the recordkeeping requirement.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Records which must be maintained pursuant to this part and parts 31 through 36 of this chapter may be the original or a reproduced copy or microform if such reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a conflict between the Commission's regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter, license condition, or other written Commission approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the retention period specified in the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter for such records shall apply unless the Commission, pursuant to § 30.11, has granted a specific exemption from the record retention requirements specified in the regulations in this part or parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to license termination, each licensee authorized to possess radioactive material with a half-life greater than 120 days, in an unsealed form, shall forward the following records to the appropriate NRC Regional Office:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of disposal of licensed material made under §§ 20.2002 (including burials authorized before January 28, 1981 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>), 20.2003, 20.2004, 20.2005; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A previous § 20.304 permitted burial of small quantities of licensed materials in soil before January 28, 1981, without specific Commission authorization. See § 20.304 contained in the 10 CFR, parts 0 to 199, edition revised as of January 1, 1981.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Records required by § 20.2103(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) If licensed activities are transferred or assigned in accordance with § 30.34(b), each licensee authorized to possess radioactive material, with a half-life greater than 120 days, in an unsealed form, shall transfer the following records to the new licensee and the new licensee will be responsible for maintaining these records until the license is terminated:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of disposal of licensed material made under §§ 20.2002 (including burials authorized before January 28, 1981 
<SU>1</SU>), 20.2003, 20.2004, 20.2005; and
</P>
<P>(2) Records required by § 20.2103(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to license termination, each licensee shall forward the records required by § 30.35(g) to the appropriate NRC Regional Office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 18301, May 5, 1976, as amended at 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 53 FR 19245, May 27, 1988; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993; 61 FR 24673, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.52" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.88.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.52   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall afford to the Commission at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect byproduct material and the premises and facilities wherein byproduct material is used or stored.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by him pursuant to the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.88.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.53   Tests.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, such tests as the Commission deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter, including tests of:
</P>
<P>(a) Byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(b) Facilities wherein byproduct material is utilized or stored;
</P>
<P>(c) Radiation detection and monitoring instruments; and
</P>
<P>(d) Other equipment and devices used in connection with the utilization or storage of byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965, as amended at 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 52 FR 8241, Mar. 17, 1987; 58 FR 7736, Feb. 9, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.88.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.55   Tritium reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a)-(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, each licensee who is authorized to possess tritium shall report promptly to the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter by telephone and telegraph, mailgram, or facsimile any incident in which an attempt has been made or is believed to have been made to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of more than 10 curies of such material at any one time or more than 100 curies of such material in any one calendar year. The initial report shall be followed within a period of fifteen (15) days by a written report submitted to the appropriate NRC Regional Office which sets forth the details of the incident and its consequences. Copies of such written report shall be sent to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , using an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a). Subsequent to the submission of the written report required by this paragraph, the licensee shall promptly inform the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by means of a written report of any substantive additional information, which becomes available to the licensee, concerning an attempted or apparent theft or unlawful diversion of tritium.
</P>
<P>(d) The reports described in this section are not required for tritium possessed pursuant to a general license provided in part 31 of this chapter or for tritium contained in spent fuel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9208, May 6, 1972, as amended at 38 FR 1271, Jan. 11, 1973; 38 FR 2330, Jan. 24, 1973; 41 FR 16446, Apr. 19, 1976; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 46 FR 55085, Nov. 6, 1981; 49 FR 24707, June 15, 1984; 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 68 FR 58804, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5718, Jan. 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="89" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.89" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.89.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.61   Modification and revocation of licenses and registration certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms and conditions of each license and registration certificate issued under the regulations in this part and parts 31 through 36 and 39 of this chapter shall be subject to amendment, revision, or modification by reason of amendments to the Act, or by reason of rules, regulations, and orders issued in accordance with the terms of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Any license or registration certificate may be revoked, suspended, or modified, in whole or in part, for any material false statement in the application or in any statement of fact required under section 182 of the Act, or because of conditions revealed by such application or statement of fact or any report, record, or inspection or other means that would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license or registration certificate on an original application, or for violation of, or failure to observe any of the terms and provisions of the Act or of any rule, regulation, or order of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) Except in cases of willfulness or those in which the public health, interest, or safety requires otherwise, no license or registration certificate shall be modified, suspended, or revoked unless, before the institution of proceedings therefor, facts or conduct that may warrant such action shall have been called to the attention of the licensee or certificate holder in writing and the licensee or certificate holder shall have been given an opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance with all lawful requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43690, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.62" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.89.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.62   Right to cause the withholding or recall of byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may cause the withholding or recall of byproduct material from any licensee who is not equipped to observe or fails to observe such safety standards to protect health as may be established by the Commission, or who uses such materials in violation of law or regulation of the Commission, or in a manner other than as disclosed in the application therefor or approved by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965, as amended at 40 FR 8785, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.89.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.63   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55072, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.64" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.89.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.64   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 30 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 30 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 30.1, 30.2, 30.4, 30.5, 30.6, 30.8, 30.11, 30.12, 30.13, 30.15, 30.31, 30.32, 30.33, 30.37, 30.38, 30.39, 30.61, 30.62, 30.63, 30.64, 30.70, 30.71, and 30.72.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55072, Nov. 24, 1992, as amended at 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="90" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.90" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Schedules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.70" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.90.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.70   Schedule A—Exempt concentrations.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_description">[See footnotes at end of this table]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Element (atomic number)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Isotope
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Col. I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Col. II
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gas concentration µCi/ml 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid and solid concentration µCi/ml 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony (51)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sb 122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sb 124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sb 125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Argon (18)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 37</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A 41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic (33)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As 73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As 74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As 76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As 77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium (56)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ba 131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ba 140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Be 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth (83)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bi 206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine (35)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Br 82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium (48)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cd 109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cd 115m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cd 115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium (20)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca 45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ca 47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon (6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C 14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium (58)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ce 141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ce 143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ce 144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium (55)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cs 131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cs 134m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cs 134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine (17)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cl 38</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium (24)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cr 51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt (27)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Co 57</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Co 58</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Co 60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper (29)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cu 64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium (66)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dy 165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dy 166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium (68)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Er 169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Er 171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium (63)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eu 152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(T/2 = 9.2 Hrs)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eu 155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine (9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F 18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium (64)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gd 153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gd 159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium (31)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ga 72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium (32)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ge 71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold (79)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Au 196</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Au 198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Au 199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium (72)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hf 181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium (49)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In 113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In 114m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine (53)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I 126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I 131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I 132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I 133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I 134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium (77)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ir 190</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ir 192</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ir 194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron (26)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fe 55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fe 59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton (36)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kr 85m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kr 85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum (57)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">La 140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead (82)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pb 203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium (71)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lu 177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese (25)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mn 52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mn 54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mn 56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury (80)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hg 197m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hg 197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hg 203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum (42)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mo 99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium (60)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nd 147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nd 149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel (28)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ni 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium (Columbium) (41)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nb 95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nb 97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium (76)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Os 185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Os 191m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Os 191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Os 193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium (46)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pd 103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pd 109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus (15)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">P 32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum (78)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pt 191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pt 193m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pt 197m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pt 197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium (19)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K 42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium (59)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pr 142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pr 143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium (61)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pm 147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pm 149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium (75)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Re 183</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Re 186</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Re 188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium (45)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rh 103m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rh 105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium (37)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rb 86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium (44)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ru 97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ru 103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ru 105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ru 106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium (62)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sm 153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium (21)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sc 46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sc 47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sc 48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium (34)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Se 75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon (14)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Si 31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver (47)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ag 105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ag 110m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ag 111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium (11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Na 24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium (38)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sr 85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sr 89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sr 91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sr 92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur (16)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">S 35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum (73)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ta 182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium (43)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc 96m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc 96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium (52)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te 125m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te 127m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te 127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te 129m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te 131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te 132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium (65)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tb 160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium (81)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tl 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tl 201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tl 202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tl 204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium (69)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tm 170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tm 171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin (50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sn 113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sn 125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten (Wolfram) (74)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">W 181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">W 187</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium (23)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">V 48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon (54)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Xe 131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Xe 133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Xe 135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium (70)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yb 175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium (39)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 91m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y 93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc (30)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zn 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zn 69m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zn 69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium (40)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zr 95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zr 97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beta and/or gamma emitting byproduct material not listed above with half-life less than 3 years</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Footnotes to Schedule A:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Values are given only for those materials normally used as gases.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> µCi/gm for solids.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note 1:</E> Many radioisotopes disintegrate into isotopes which are also radioactive. In expressing the concentrations in Schedule A, the activity stated is that of the parent isotope and takes into account the daughters.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note 2:</E> For purposes of § 30.14 where there is involved a combination of isotopes, the limit for the combination should be derived as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Determine for each isotope in the product the ratio between the concentration present in the product and the exempt concentration established in Schedule A for the specific isotope when not in combination. The sum of such ratios may not exceed “1” (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, unity).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">Example:</E></P></DIV></DIV>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec14no91.021.gif"/></MATH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8185, June 26, 1965, as amended at 35 FR 3982, Mar. 3, 1970; 38 FR 29314, Oct. 24, 1973; 59 FR 5520, Feb. 7, 1994]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.90.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.71   Schedule B.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Byproduct material
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Microcuries
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony 122 (Sb 122)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony 124 (Sb 124)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony 125 (Sb 125)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic 73 (As 73)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic 74 (As 74)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic 76 (As 76)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic 77 (As 77)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium 131 (Ba 131)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium 133 (Ba 133)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium 140 (Ba 140)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth 210 (Bi 210)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine 82 (Br 82)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium 109 (Cd 109)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium 115m (Cd 115m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium 115 (Cd 115)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium 45 (Ca 45)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium 47 (Ca 47)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon 14 (C 14)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium 141 (Ce 141)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium 143 (Ce 143)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium 144 (Ce 144)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium 129 (Cs 129)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium 131 (Cs 131)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium 134m (Cs 134m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium 134 (Cs 134)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium 135 (Cs 135)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium 136 (Cs 136)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium 137 (Cs 137)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine 36 (C1 36)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine 38 (Cl 38)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium 51 (Cr 51)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt 57 (Co 57)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt 58m (Co 58m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt 58 (Co 58)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt 60 (Co 60)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper 64 (Cu 64)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium 165 (Dy 165)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium 166 (Dy 166)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium 169 (Er 169)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium 171 (Er 171)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium 152 9.2 h (Eu 152 9.2 h)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium 152 13 yr (Eu 152 13 yr)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium 154 (Eu 154)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium 155 (Eu 155)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine 18 (F 18)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium 153 (Gd 153)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium 159 (Gd 159)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium 67 (Ga 67)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium 72 (Ga 72)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium 68 (Ge 68)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium 71 (Ge 71)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold 195 (Au 195)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold 198 (Au 198)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold 199 (Au 199)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium 181 (Hf 181)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium 166 (Ho 166)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen 3 (H 3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium 111 (In 111)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium 113m (In 113m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium 114m (In 114m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium 115m (In 115m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium 115 (In 115)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 123 (I 123)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 125 (I 125)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 126 (I 126)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 129 (I 129)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 131 (I 131)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 132 (I 132)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 133 (I 133)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 134 (I 134)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine 135 (I 135)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium 192 (Ir 192)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium 194 (Ir 194)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron 52 (Fe 52)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron 55 (Fe 55)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron 59 (Fe 59)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton 85 (Kr 85)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton 87 (Kr 87)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum 140 (La 140)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium 177 (Lu 177)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese 52 (Mn 52)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese 54 (Mn 54)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese 56 (Mn 56)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury 197m (Hg 197m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury 197 (Hg 197)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury 203 (Hg 203)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum 99 (Mo 99)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium 147 (Nd 147)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium 149 (Nd 149)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel 59 (Ni 59)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel 63 (Ni 63)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel 65 (Ni 65)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium 93m (Nb 93m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium 95 (Nb 95)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium 97 (Nb 97)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium 185 (Os 185)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium 191m (Os 191m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium 191 (Os 191)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium 193 (Os 193)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium 103 (Pd 103)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium 109 (Pd 109)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus 32 (P 32)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum 191 (Pt 191)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum 193m (Pt 193m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum 193 (Pt 193)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum 197m (Pt 197m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum 197 (Pt 197)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium 210 (Po 210)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium 42 (K 42)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium 43 (K 43)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium 142 (Pr 142)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium 143 (Pr 143)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium 147 (Pm 147)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium 149 (Pm 149)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium 186 (Re 186)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium 188 (Re 188)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium 103m (Rh 103m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium 105 (Rh 105)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium 81 (Rb 81)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium 86 (Rb 86)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium 87 (Rb 87)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium 97 (Ru 97)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium 103 (Ru 103)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium 105 (Ru 105)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium 106 (Ru 106)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium 151 (Sm 151)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium 153 (Sm 153)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium 46 (Sc 46)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium 47 (Sc 47)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium 48 (Sc 48)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium 75 (Se 75)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon 31 (Si 31)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver 105 (Ag 105)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver 110m (Ag 110m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver 111 (Ag 111)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 22 (Na 22)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium 24 (Na 24)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium 85 (Sr 85)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium 89 (Sr 89)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium 90 (Sr 90)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium 91 (Sr 91)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium 92 (Sr 92)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulphur 35 (S 35)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum 182 (Ta 182)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium 96 (Tc 96)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium 97m (Tc 97m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium 97 (Tc 97)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium 99m (Tc 99m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium 99 (Tc 99)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium 125m (Te 125m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium 127m (Te 127m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium 127 (Te 127)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium 129m (Te 129m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium 129 (Te 129)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium 131m (Te 131m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium 132 (Te 132)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium 160 (Tb 160)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium 200 (Tl 200)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium 201 (Tl 201)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium 202 (Tl 202)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium 204 (Tl 204)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium 170 (Tm 170)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium 171 (Tm 171)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin 113 (Sn 113)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin 125 (Sn 125)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten 181 (W 181)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten 185 (W 185)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten 187 (W 187)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium 48 (V 48)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon 131m (Xe 131m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon 133 (Xe 133)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon 135 (Xe 135)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium 175 (Yb 175)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium 87 (Y 87)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium 88 (Y 88)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium 90 (Y 90)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium 91 (Y 91)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium 92 (Y 92)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium 93 (Y 93)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc 65 (Zn 65)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc 69m (Zn 69m)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc 69 (Zn 69)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium 93 (Zr 93)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium 95 (Zr 95)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium 97 (Zr 97)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any byproduct material not listed above other than alpha emitting byproduct material</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 6427, Apr. 22, 1970, as amended at 36 FR 16898, Aug. 26, 1971; 59 FR 5519, Feb. 7, 1994; 72 FR 55926, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.72" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.0.90.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.72   Schedule C—Quantities of radioactive materials requiring consideration of the need for an emergency plan for responding to a release.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radioactive material 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Release fraction
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Quantity (curies)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Actinium-228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium-45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9 (20 mg)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon-14 (non-carbon dioxide)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine-36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium-51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper-64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-152</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-166m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-114m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lead-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neptunium-237</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus-32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus-33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium-42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-110m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium-22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium-24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulfur-35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technitium-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technitium-99m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-127m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-129m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Titanium-44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium-48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">900,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any other beta-gamma emitter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed fission products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed corrosion products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Contaminated equipment beta-gamma</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Irradiated material, any form other than solid noncombustible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Irradiated material, solid noncombustible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed radioactive waste, beta-gamma</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Packaged mixed waste, beta-gamma 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any other alpha emitter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Contaminated equipment, alpha</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Packaged waste, alpha 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combinations of radioactive materials listed above 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For combinations of radioactive materials, consideration of the need for an emergency plan is required if the sum of the ratios of the quantity of each radioactive material authorized to the quantity listed for that material in Schedule C exceeds one.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Waste packaged in Type B containers does not require an emergency plan.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 14061, Apr. 7, 1989, as amended at 61 FR 9902, Mar. 12, 1996; 72 FR 55926, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.2.91.1.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 30—Criteria Relating to Use of Financial Tests and Parent Company Guarantees for Providing Reasonable Assurance of Funds for Decommissioning
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>An applicant or licensee may provide reasonable assurance of the availability of funds for decommissioning based on obtaining a parent company guarantee that funds will be available for decommissioning costs and on a demonstration that the parent company passes a financial test. This appendix establishes criteria for passing the financial test and for obtaining the parent company guarantee.
</P>
<HD1>II. Financial Test
</HD1>
<P>A. To pass the financial test, the parent company must meet the criteria of either paragraph A.1 or A.2 of this section. For purposes of applying the Appendix A criteria, tangible net worth must be calculated to exclude all intangible assets and the net book value of the nuclear facility and site, and total net worth, which may include intangible assets, must be calculated to exclude the net book value and goodwill of the nuclear facility and site.
</P>
<P>1. The parent company must have:
</P>
<P>(i) Two of the following three ratios: A ratio of total liabilities to total net worth less than 2.0; a ratio of the sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion, and amortization to total liabilities greater than 0.1; and a ratio of current assets to current liabilities greater than 1.5; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Net working capital and tangible net worth each at least six times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a parent company guarantee for the total of all nuclear facilities or parts thereof (or prescribed amount if a certification is used); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Tangible net worth of at least $21 million; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of the total assets or at least six times the current decommissioning cost estimates for the total of all facilities or parts thereof (or prescribed amount if a certification is used), or, for a power reactor licensee, at least six times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a parent company guarantee for the total of all reactor units or parts thereof.
</P>
<P>2. The parent company must have:
</P>
<P>(i) A current rating for its most recent uninsured, uncollateralized, and unencumbered bond issuance of AAA, AA, A, or BBB (including adjustments of + and −) as issued by Standard and Poor's or Aaa, Aa, A, or Baa (including adjustment of 1, 2, or 3) as issued by Moody's; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Total net worth at least six times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a parent company guarantee for the total of all nuclear facilities or parts thereof (or prescribed amount if a certification is used); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Tangible net worth of at least $21 million; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of the total assets or at least six times the current decommissioning cost estimates for the total of all facilities or parts thereof (or prescribed amount if a certification is used), or, for a power reactor licensee, at least six times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a parent company guarantee for the total of all reactor units or parts thereof.
</P>
<P>B. The parent company's independent certified public accountant must compare the data used by the parent company in the financial test, which is derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year, with the amounts in such financial statement. The accountant must evaluate the parent company's off-balance sheet transactions and provide an opinion on whether those transactions could materially adversely affect the parent company's ability to pay for decommissioning costs. The accountant must verify that a bond rating, if used to demonstrate passage of the financial test, meets the requirements of paragraph A of this section. In connection with the auditing procedure, the licensee must inform the NRC within 90 days of any matters coming to the auditor's attention which cause the auditor to believe that the data specified in the financial test should be adjusted and that the company no longer passes the test.
</P>
<P>C.1. After the initial financial test, the parent company must annually pass the test and provide documentation of its continued eligibility to use the parent company guarantee to the Commission within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>2. If the parent company no longer meets the requirements of paragraph A of this section, the licensee must send notice to the Commission of intent to establish alternate financial assurance as specified in the Commission's regulations. The notice must be sent by certified mail within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year end financial data show that the parent company no longer meets the financial test requirements. The licensee must provide alternate financial assurance within 120 days after the end of such fiscal year.
</P>
<HD1>III. Parent Company Guarantee
</HD1>
<P>The terms of a parent company guarantee which an applicant or licensee obtains must provide that:
</P>
<P>A. The parent company guarantee will remain in force unless the guarantor sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the licensee and the Commission. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the licensee and the Commission, as evidenced by the return receipts.
</P>
<P>B. If the licensee fails to provide alternate financial assurance as specified in the Commission's regulations within 90 days after receipt by the licensee and Commission of a notice of cancellation of the parent company guarantee from the guarantor, the guarantor will provide alternative financial assurance that meets the provisions of the Commission's regulations in the name of the licensee.
</P>
<P>C. The parent company guarantee and financial test provisions must remain in effect until the Commission has terminated the license, accepted in writing the parent company's alternate financial assurances, or accepted in writing the licensee's financial assurances.
</P>
<P>D. A standby trust to protect public health and safety and the environment must be established for decommissioning costs before the parent company guarantee agreement is submitted. The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the Commission. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal Government agency or an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee, whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. The Commission has the right to change the trustee. An acceptable trust will meet the regulatory criteria established in these regulations that govern the issuance of the license for which the guarantor has accepted the obligation to pay for decommissioning costs.
</P>
<P>E. The guarantor must agree that it would be subject to Commission orders to make payments under the guarantee agreement.
</P>
<P>F. The guarantor must agree that if the guarantor admits in writing its inability to pay its debts generally, or makes a general assignment for the benefit of creditors, or any proceeding is instituted by or against the guarantor seeking to adjudicate it as bankrupt or insolvent, or seeking dissolution, liquidation, winding-up, reorganization, arrangement, adjustment, protection, relief or composition of it or its debts under any law relating to bankruptcy, insolvency, or reorganization or relief of debtors, or seeking the entry of an order for relief or the appointment of a receiver, trustee, custodian, or other similar official for the guarantor or for any substantial part of its property, or the guarantor takes any action to authorize or effect any of the actions stated in this paragraph, then the Commission may:
</P>
<P>1. Declare that the financial assurance guaranteed by the parent company guarantee agreement is immediately due and payable to the standby trust set up to protect the public health and safety and the environment, without diligence, presentment, demand, protest or any other notice of any kind, all of which are expressly waived by guarantor; and
</P>
<P>2. Exercise any and all of its other rights under applicable law.
</P>
<P>G. 1. The guarantor must agree to notify the NRC, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any chapter of title 11 (Bankruptcy) of the United States Code, or the occurrence of any other event listed in paragraph F of this Appendix, by or against:
</P>
<P>(i) The guarantor;
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee;
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(14)) controlling the licensee or listing the license or licensee as property of the estate; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An affiliate (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(2)) of the licensee.
</P>
<P>2. This notification must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the event, including major creditors, the amounts involved, and the actions taken to assure that the amount of funds guaranteed by the parent company guarantee for decommissioning will be transferred to the standby trust as soon as possible;
</P>
<P>(ii) If a petition of bankruptcy was filed, the identity of the bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of filing of any petitions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 24046, June 27, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 50479, Sept. 22, 1998; 76 FR 35565, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.2.91.1.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 30—Quantities 
<SU>1</SU> of Licensed Material Requiring Labeling
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">Material</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">Microcuries</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-115m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium-45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium-47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon-14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-134m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-136</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine-36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine-38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium-51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-58m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper-64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-152 9.2 h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-152 13 yr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine-18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-113m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-114m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-115m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-197m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-93m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-191m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus-32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-193m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-197m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium-42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-188</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-103m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon-31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-110m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium-24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulphur-35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-97m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-99m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-125m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-127m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-129m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-131m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-204</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thorium (natural) 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium (natural) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uranium-234—Uranium-235</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium-48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-131m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-69m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any alpha emitting radionuclide not listed above or mixtures of alpha emitters of unknown composition</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any radionuclide other than alpha emitting radionuclides, not listed above or mixtures of beta emitters of unknown composition</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Based on alpha disintegration rate of Th-232, Th-230 and their daughter products.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Based on alpha disintegration rate of U-238, U-234, and U-235.</P></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For purposes of § 20.303, where there is involved a combination of isotopes in known amounts, the limit for the combination should be derived as follows: Determine, for each isotope in the combination, the ratio between the quantity present in the combination and the limit otherwise established for the specific isotope when not in combination. The sum of such ratios for all the isotopes in the combination may not exceed “1” (<I>i.e.</I>, “unity”).</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 6425, Apr. 22, 1970, as amended at 36 FR 16898, Aug. 26, 1971; 38 FR 29314, Oct. 24, 1973; 39 FR 23991, June 28, 1974; 45 FR 71763, Oct. 30, 1980. Redesignated at 56 FR 23391, May 21, 1991, and further redesignated at 58 FR 67659, Dec. 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.2.91.1.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 30—Criteria Relating to Use of Financial Tests and Self Guarantees for Providing Reasonable Assurance of Funds for Decommissioning
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>An applicant or licensee may provide reasonable assurance of the availability of funds for decommissioning based on furnishing its own guarantee that funds will be available for decommissioning costs and on a demonstration that the company passes the financial test of Section II of this appendix. The terms of the self-guarantee are in Section III of this appendix. This appendix establishes criteria for passing the financial test for the self guarantee and establishes the terms for a self-guarantee.
</P>
<HD1>II. Financial Test
</HD1>
<P>A. To pass the financial test a company must meet all of the criteria set forth in this section. For purposes of applying the Appendix C criteria, tangible net worth must be calculated to exclude all intangible assets and the net book value of the nuclear facility and site, and total net worth, which may include intangible assets, must be calculated to exclude the net book value and goodwill of the nuclear facility and site. These criteria include:
</P>
<P>(1) Tangible net worth of at least $21 million, and total net worth at least 10 times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a self-guarantee for all decommissioning activities for which the company is responsible as self-guaranteeing licensee and as parent-guarantor for the total of all nuclear facilities or parts thereof (or the current amount required if certification is used).
</P>
<P>(2) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of total assets or at least 10 times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a self-guarantee, for all decommissioning activities for which the company is responsible as self-guaranteeing licensee and as parent-guarantor for the total of all nuclear facilities or parts thereof (or the current amount required if certification is used).
</P>
<P>(3) A current rating for its most recent uninsured, uncollateralized, and unencumbered bond issuance of AAA, AA, or A (including adjustments of + and −) as issued by Standard and Poor's, or Aaa, Aa, or A (including adjustments of 1, 2, or 3) as issued by Moody's.
</P>
<P>B. To pass the financial test, a company must meet all of the following additional requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The company must have at least one class of equity securities registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(2) The company's independent certified public accountant must compare the data used by the company in the financial test, which is derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year, with the amounts in such financial statement. The accountant must evaluate the company's off-balance sheet transactions and provide an opinion on whether those transactions could materially adversely affect the company's ability to pay for decommissioning costs. The accountant must verify that a bond rating, if used to demonstrate passage of the financial test, meets the requirements of Section II, paragraph A of this appendix. In connection with the auditing procedure, the licensee must inform the NRC within 90 days of any matters coming to the auditor's attention which cause the auditor to believe that the data specified in the financial test should be adjusted and that the company no longer passes the test.
</P>
<P>(3) After the initial financial test, the company must annually pass the test and provide documentation of its continued eligibility to use the self-guarantee to the Commission within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>C. If the licensee no longer meets the requirements of Section II.A. of this appendix, the licensee must send immediate notice to the Commission of its intent to establish alternate financial assurance as specified in the Commission's regulations within 120 days of such notice.
</P>
<HD1>III. Company Self-Guarantee
</HD1>
<P>The terms of a self-guarantee which an applicant or licensee furnishes must provide that:
</P>
<P>A. The guarantee will remain in force unless the licensee sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the Commission. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by the Commission, as evidenced by the return receipt.
</P>
<P>B. The licensee shall provide alternative financial assurance as specified in the Commission's regulations within 90 days following receipt by the Commission of a notice of cancellation of the guarantee.
</P>
<P>C. The guarantee and financial test provisions must remain in effect until the Commission has terminated the license or until another financial assurance method acceptable to the Commission has been put in effect by the licensee.
</P>
<P>D. The licensee will promptly forward to the Commission and the licensee's independent auditor all reports covering the latest fiscal year filed by the licensee with the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to the requirements of section 13 of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>E. (1) If, at any time, the licensee's most recent bond issuance ceases to be rated in any category of “A−” and above by Standard and Poor's or in any category of “A3” and above by Moody's, the licensee will notify the Commission in writing within 20 days after publication of the change by the rating service.
</P>
<P>(2) If the licensee's most recent bond issuance ceases to be rated in any category of A or above by both Standard and Poor's and Moody's, the licensee no longer meets the requirements of Section II.A. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F. The applicant or licensee must provide to the Commission a written guarantee (a written commitment by a corporate officer) which states that the licensee will fund and carry out the required decommissioning activities or, upon issuance of an order by the Commission, the licensee will fund the standby trust in the amount guaranteed by the self-guarantee agreement.
</P>
<P>G. (1) A standby trust to protect public health and safety and the environment must be established for decommissioning costs before the self-guarantee agreement is submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the Commission. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal Government agency or an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. The Commission has the right to change the trustee. An acceptable trust will meet the regulatory criteria established in these regulations that govern the issuance of the license for which the guarantor has accepted the obligation to pay for decommissioning costs.
</P>
<P>H. The guarantor must agree that if the guarantor admits in writing its inability to pay its debts generally, or makes a general assignment for the benefit of creditors, or any proceeding is instituted by or against the guarantor seeking to adjudicate it as bankrupt or insolvent, or seeking dissolution, liquidation, winding-up, reorganization, arrangement, adjustment, protection, relief or composition of it or its debts under any law relating to bankruptcy, insolvency, or reorganization or relief of debtors, or seeking the entry of an order for relief or the appointment of a receiver, trustee, custodian, or other similar official for the guarantor or for any substantial part of its property, or the guarantor takes any action to authorize or effect any of the actions stated in this paragraph, then the Commission may:
</P>
<P>(1) Declare that the financial assurance guaranteed by the self-guarantee agreement is immediately due and payable to the standby trust set up to protect the public health and safety and the environment, without diligence, presentment, demand, protest or any other notice of any kind, all of which are expressly waived by guarantor; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exercise any and all of its other rights under applicable law.
</P>
<P>I. The guarantor must notify the NRC, in writing, immediately following the occurrence of any event listed in paragraph H of this appendix, and must include a description of the event, including major creditors, the amounts involved, and the actions taken to assure that the amount of funds guaranteed by the self-guarantee agreement for decommissioning will be transferred to the standby trust as soon as possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 68730, Dec. 29, 1993; 59 FR 1618, Jan. 12, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 50479, Sept. 22, 1998; 76 FR 35566, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.2.91.1.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 30—Criteria Relating to Use of Financial Tests and Self-Guarantee for Providing Reasonable Assurance of Funds for Decommissioning by Commercial Companies That Have No Outstanding Rated Bonds


</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>An applicant or licensee may provide reasonable assurance of the availability of funds for decommissioning based on furnishing its own guarantee that funds will be available for decommissioning costs and on a demonstration that the company passes the financial test of Section II of this appendix. The terms of the self-guarantee are in Section III of this appendix. This appendix establishes criteria for passing the financial test for the self-guarantee and establishes the terms for a self-guarantee.
</P>
<HD1>II. Financial Test
</HD1>
<P>A. To pass the financial test a company must meet all of the criteria set forth in this section. For purposes of applying the Appendix D criteria, tangible net worth must be calculated to exclude all intangible assets and the net book value of the nuclear facility and site, and total net worth, which may include intangible assets, must be calculated to exclude the net book value and goodwill of the nuclear facility and site. These criteria include:
</P>
<P>(1) Tangible net worth of at least $21 million, and total net worth of at least 10 times the amount of decommissioning funds being assured by a self-guarantee for all decommissioning activities for which the company is responsible as self-guaranteeing licensee and as parent-guarantor for the total of all nuclear facilities or parts thereof (or the current amount required if certification is used).
</P>
<P>(2) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent of total assets or at least 10 times the total current decommissioning cost estimate (or the current amount required if certification is used) for all decommissioning activities for which the company is responsible as self-guaranteeing licensee and as parent-guarantor.
</P>
<P>(3) A ratio of cash flow divided by total liabilities greater than 0.15 and a ratio of total liabilities divided by total net worth less than 1.5.
</P>
<P>B. In addition, to pass the financial test, a company must meet all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The company's independent certified public accountant must compare the data used by the company in the financial test, which is derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year, with the amounts in such financial statement. The accountant must evaluate the company's off-balance sheet transactions and provide an opinion on whether those transactions could materially adversely affect the company's ability to pay for decommissioning costs. In connection with the auditing procedure, the licensee must inform the NRC within 90 days of any matters coming to the auditor's attention which cause the auditor to believe that the data specified in the financial test should be adjusted and that the company no longer passes the test.
</P>
<P>(2) After the initial financial test, the company must annually pass the test and provide documentation of its continued eligibility to use the self-guarantee to the Commission within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(3) If the licensee no longer meets the requirements of paragraph II.A of this appendix, the licensee must send notice to the NRC of intent to establish alternative financial assurance as specified in NRC regulations. The notice must be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year end financial data show that the licensee no longer meets the financial test requirements. The licensee must provide alternative financial assurance within 120 days after the end of such fiscal year.
</P>
<HD1>III. Company Self-Guarantee
</HD1>
<P>The terms of a self-guarantee which an applicant or licensee furnishes must provide that:
</P>
<P>A. The guarantee shall remain in force unless the licensee sends notice of cancellation by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the NRC. Cancellation may not occur until an alternative financial assurance mechanism is in place.
</P>
<P>B. The licensee shall provide alternative financial assurance as specified in the regulations within 90 days following receipt by the NRC of a notice of cancellation of the guarantee.
</P>
<P>C. The guarantee and financial test provisions must remain in effect until the Commission has terminated the license or until another financial assurance method acceptable to the Commission has been put in effect by the licensee.
</P>
<P>D. The applicant or licensee must provide to the Commission a written guarantee (a written commitment by a corporate officer) which states that the licensee will fund and carry out the required decommissioning activities or, upon issuance of an order by the Commission, the licensee will fund the standby trust in the amount of the current cost estimates for decommissioning.
</P>
<P>E. A standby trust to protect public health and safety and the environment must be established for decommissioning costs before the self-guarantee agreement is submitted. The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the Commission. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal Government agency or an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. The Commission will have the right to change the trustee. An acceptable trust will meet the regulatory criteria established in the part of these regulations that governs the issuance of the license for which the guarantor has accepted the obligation to pay for decommissioning costs.
</P>
<P>F. The guarantor must agree that if the guarantor admits in writing its inability to pay its debts generally, or makes a general assignment for the benefit of creditors, or any proceeding is instituted by or against the guarantor seeking to adjudicate it as bankrupt or insolvent, or seeking dissolution, liquidation, winding-up, reorganization, arrangement, adjustment, protection, relief or composition of it or its debts under any law relating to bankruptcy, insolvency, or reorganization or relief of debtors, or seeking the entry of an order for relief or the appointment of a receiver, trustee, custodian, or other similar official for the guarantor or for any substantial part of its property, or the guarantor takes any action to authorize or effect any of the actions stated in this paragraph, then the Commission may:
</P>
<P>(1) Declare that the financial assurance guaranteed by the self-guarantee agreement is immediately due and payable to the standby trust set up to protect the public health and safety and the environment, without diligence, presentment, demand, protest or any other notice of any kind, all of which are expressly waived by guarantor; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exercise any and all of its other rights under applicable law.
</P>
<P>G. The guarantor must notify the NRC, in writing, immediately following the occurrence of any event listed in paragraph F of this appendix, and must include a description of the event, including major creditors, the amounts involved, and the actions taken to assure that the amount of funds guaranteed by the self-guarantee agreement for decommissioning will be transferred to the standby trust as soon as possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 29542, June 1, 1998, as amended at 76 FR 35567, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.20.2.91.1.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 30—Criteria Relating to Use of Financial Tests and Self-Guarantee For Providing Reasonable Assurance of Funds For Decommissioning by Nonprofit Colleges, Universities, and Hospitals
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>An applicant or licensee may provide reasonable assurance of the availability of funds for decommissioning based on furnishing its own guarantee that funds will be available for decommissioning costs and on a demonstration that the applicant or licensee passes the financial test of Section II of this appendix. The terms of the self-guarantee are in Section III of this appendix. This appendix establishes criteria for passing the financial test for the self-guarantee and establishes the terms for a self-guarantee.
</P>
<HD1>II. Financial Test
</HD1>
<P>A. For colleges and universities, to pass the financial test a college or university must meet either the criteria in Paragraph II.A.(1) or the criteria in Paragraph II.A.(2) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(1) For applicants or licensees that issue bonds, a current rating for its most recent uninsured, uncollateralized, and unencumbered bond issuance of AAA, AA, or A (including adjustments of + or −) as issued by Standard and Poor's (S&amp;P) or Aaa, Aa, or A (including adjustments of 1, 2, or 3) as issued by Moody's.
</P>
<P>(2) For applicants or licensees that do not issue bonds, unrestricted endowment consisting of assets located in the United States of at least $50 million, or at least 30 times the total current decommissioning cost estimate (or the current amount required if certification is used), whichever is greater, for all decommissioning activities for which the college or university is responsible as a self-guaranteeing licensee.
</P>
<P>B. For hospitals, to pass the financial test a hospital must meet either the criteria in Paragraph II.B.(1) or the criteria in Paragraph II.B.(2) of this appendix:
</P>
<P>(1) For applicants or licensees that issue bonds, a current rating for its most recent uninsured, uncollateralized, and unencumbered bond issuance of AAA, AA, or A (including adjustments of + or −) as issued by Standard and Poor's or Aaa, Aa, or A (including adjustments of 1, 2, or 3) as issued by Moody's.
</P>
<P>(2) For applicants or licensees that do not issue bonds, all the following tests must be met:
</P>
<P>(a) (Total Revenues less total expenditures) divided by total revenues must be equal to or greater than 0.04.
</P>
<P>(b) Long term debt divided by net fixed assets must be less than or equal to 0.67.
</P>
<P>(c) (Current assets and depreciation fund) divided by current liabilities must be greater than or equal to 2.55.
</P>
<P>(d) Operating revenues must be at least 100 times the total current decommissioning cost estimate (or the current amount required if certification is used) for all decommissioning activities for which the hospital is responsible as a self-guaranteeing license.
</P>
<P>C. In addition, to pass the financial test, a licensee must meet all the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee's independent certified public accountant must compare the data used by the licensee in the financial test, which is derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year, with the amounts in such financial statement. The accountant must evaluate the licensee's off-balance sheet transactions and provide an opinion on whether those transactions could materially adversely affect the licensee's ability to pay for decommissioning costs. The accountant must verify that a bond rating, if used to demonstrate passage of the financial test, meets the requirements of Section II of this appendix. In connection with the auditing procedure, the licensee must inform the NRC within 90 days of any matters coming to the auditor's attention which cause the auditor to believe that the data specified in the financial test should be adjusted and that the licensee no longer passes the test.
</P>
<P>(2) After the initial financial test, the licensee must repeat passage of the test and provide documentation of its continued eligibility to use the self-guarantee to the Commission within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(3) If the licensee no longer meets the requirements of Section I of this appendix, the licensee must send notice to the NRC of its intent to establish alternative financial assurance as specified in NRC regulations. The notice must be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year end financial data show that the licensee no longer meets the financial test requirements. The licensee must provide alternate financial assurance within 120 days after the end of such fiscal year.
</P>
<HD1>III. Self-Guarantee
</HD1>
<P>The terms of a self-guarantee which an applicant or licensee furnishes must provide that—
</P>
<P>A. The guarantee shall remain in force unless the licensee sends notice of cancellation by certified mail, and/or return receipt requested, to the Commission. Cancellation may not occur unless an alternative financial assurance mechanism is in place.
</P>
<P>B. The licensee shall provide alternative financial assurance as specified in the Commission's regulations within 90 days following receipt by the Commission of a notice of cancellation of the guarantee.
</P>
<P>C. The guarantee and financial test provisions must remain in effect until the Commission has terminated the license or until another financial assurance method acceptable to the Commission has been put in effect by the licensee.
</P>
<P>D. The applicant or licensee must provide to the Commission a written guarantee (a written commitment by a corporate officer or officer of the institution) which states that the licensee will fund and carry out the required decommissioning activities or, upon issuance of an order by the Commission, the licensee will fund the standby trust in the amount of the current cost estimates for decommissioning.
</P>
<P>E. (1) If, at any time, the licensee's most recent bond issuance ceases to be rated in any category of “A” or above by either Standard and Poor's or Moody's, the licensee shall notify the Commission in writing within 20 days after publication of the change by the rating service.
</P>
<P>(2) If the licensee's most recent bond issuance ceases to be rated in any category of “A−” and above by Standard and Poor's or in any category of “A3” and above by Moody's, the licensee no longer meets the requirements of Section II.A. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F. (1) A standby trust to protect public health and safety and the environment must be established for decommissioning costs before the self-guarantee agreement is submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the Commission. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal Government agency or an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. The Commission has the right to change the trustee. An acceptable trust will meet the regulatory criteria established in the part of these regulations that governs the issuance of the license for which the guarantor has accepted the obligation to pay for decommissioning costs.
</P>
<P>G. The guarantor must agree that if the guarantor admits in writing its inability to pay its debts generally, or makes a general assignment for the benefit of creditors, or any proceeding is instituted by or against the guarantor seeking to adjudicate it as bankrupt or insolvent, or seeking dissolution, liquidation, winding-up, reorganization, arrangement, adjustment, protection, relief or composition of it or its debts under any law relating to bankruptcy, insolvency, or reorganization or relief of debtors, or seeking the entry of an order for relief or the appointment of a receiver, trustee, custodian, or other similar official for guarantor or for any substantial part of its property, or the guarantor takes any action to authorize or effect any of the actions stated in this paragraph, then the Commission may:
</P>
<P>(1) Declare that the financial assurance guaranteed by the self-guarantee agreement is immediately due and payable to the standby trust set up to protect the public health and safety and the environment, without diligence, presentment, demand, protest or any other notice of any kind, all of which are expressly waived by guarantor; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exercise any and all of its other rights under applicable law.
</P>
<P>H. The guarantor must notify the NRC, in writing, immediately following the occurrence of any event listed in paragraph G of this appendix, and must include a description of the event, including major creditors, the amounts involved, and the actions taken to assure that the amount of funds guaranteed by the self-guarantee agreement for decommissioning will be transferred to the standby trust as soon as possible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 29542, June 1, 1998, as amended at 76 FR 35568, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 31—GENERAL DOMESTIC LICENSES FOR BYPRODUCT MATERIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 81, 161, 183, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2111, 2201, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 31 appear at 79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 31.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes general licenses for the possession and use of byproduct material and a general license for ownership of byproduct material. Specific provisions of 10 CFR Part 30 are applicable to general licenses established by this part. These provisions are specified in § 31.2 or in the particular general license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 79187, Dec. 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.2   Terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>The general licenses provided in this part are subject to the general provisions of Part 30 of this chapter (§§ 30.1 through 30.10), the provisions of §§ 30.14(d), 30.34(a) to (e), 30.41, 30.50 to 30.53, 30.61 to 30.63, and Parts 19, 20, and 21, of this chapter 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> unless indicated otherwise in the specific provision of the general license.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Attention is directed particularly to the provisions of Part 20 of this chapter concerning labeling of containers.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 79187, Dec. 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.4   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0016.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 31.5, 31.8, 31.11, and 31.12.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 31.11. NRC Form 483 is approved under control number 3150-0038.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52186, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 67099, Nov. 4, 2002; 72 FR 55926, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.5   Certain detecting, measuring, gauging, or controlling devices and certain devices for producing light or an ionized atmosphere. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Persons possessing byproduct material in devices under a general license in § 31.5 before January 15, 1975, may continue to possess, use, or transfer that material in accordance with the labeling requirements of § 31.5 in effect on January 14, 1975.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to commercial and industrial firms and research, educational and medical institutions, individuals in the conduct of their business, and Federal, State or local government agencies to acquire, receive, possess, use or transfer, in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this section, byproduct material contained in devices designed and manufactured for the purpose of detecting, measuring, gauging or controlling thickness, density, level, interface location, radiation, leakage, or qualitative or quantitative chemical composition, or for producing light or an ionized atmosphere.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section applies only to byproduct material contained in devices which have been manufactured or initially transferred and labeled in accordance with the specifications contained in—
</P>
<P>(i) A specific license issued under § 32.51 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An equivalent specific license issued by an Agreement State; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An equivalent specific license issued by a State with provisions comparable to § 32.51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The devices must have been received from one of the specific licensees described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or through a transfer made under paragraph (c)(9) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who acquires, receives, possesses, uses or transfers byproduct material in a device pursuant to the general license in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall assure that all labels affixed to the device at the time of receipt and bearing a statement that removal of the label is prohibited are maintained thereon and shall comply with all instructions and precautions provided by such labels;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall assure that the device is tested for leakage of radioactive material and proper operation of the on-off mechanism and indicator, if any, at no longer than six-month intervals or at such other intervals as are specified in the label; however:
</P>
<P>(i) Devices containing only krypton need not be tested for leakage of radioactive material, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Devices containing only tritium or not more than 100 microcuries of other beta and/or gamma emitting material or 10 microcuries of alpha emitting material and devices held in storage in the original shipping container prior to initial installation need not be tested for any purpose;
</P>
<P>(3) Shall assure that the tests required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section and other testing, installation, servicing, and removal from installation involving the radioactive materials, its shielding or containment, are performed:
</P>
<P>(i) In accordance with the instructions provided by the labels; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By a person holding a specific license pursuant to parts 30 and 32 of this chapter or from an Agreement State to perform such activities;
</P>
<P>(4) Shall maintain records showing compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section. The records must show the results of tests. The records also must show the dates of performance of, and the names of persons performing, testing, installing, servicing, and removing from the installation radioactive material and its shielding or containment. The licensee shall retain these records as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Each record of a test for leakage or radioactive material required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section must be retained for three years after the next required leak test is performed or until the sealed source is transferred or disposed of.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each record of a test of the on-off mechanism and indicator required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section must be retained for three years after the next required test of the on-off mechanism and indicator is performed or until the sealed source is transferred or disposed of.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each record that is required by paragraph (c)(3) of this section must be retained for three years from the date of the recorded event or until the device is transferred or disposed of.
</P>
<P>(5) Shall immediately suspend operation of the device if there is a failure of, or damage to, or any indication of a possible failure of or damage to, the shielding of the radioactive material or the on-off mechanism or indicator, or upon the detection of 185 bequerel (0.005 microcurie) or more removable radioactive material. The device may not be operated until it has been repaired by the manufacturer or other person holding a specific license to repair such devices that was issued under parts 30 and 32 of this chapter or by an Agreement State. The device and any radioactive material from the device may only be disposed of by transfer to a person authorized by a specific license to receive the byproduct material in the device or as otherwise approved by the Commission. A report containing a brief description of the event and the remedial action taken; and, in the case of detection of 0.005 microcurie or more removable radioactive material or failure of or damage to a source likely to result in contamination of the premises or the environs, a plan for ensuring that the premises and environs are acceptable for unrestricted use, must be furnished to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, ATTN: GLTS, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001 within 30 days. Under these circumstances, the criteria set out in § 20.1402 of this chapter, “Radiological criteria for unrestricted use,” may be applicable, as determined by the Commission on a case-by-case basis;
</P>
<P>(6) Shall not abandon the device containing byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(7) Shall not export the device containing byproduct material except in accordance with part 110 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Shall transfer or dispose of the device containing byproduct material only by export as provided by paragraph (c)(7) of this section, by transfer to another general licensee as authorized in paragraph (c)(9) of this section, or to a person authorized to receive the device by a specific license issued under parts 30 and 32 of this chapter, or part 30 of this chapter that authorizes waste collection, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, or as otherwise approved under paragraph (c)(8)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall, within 30 days after the transfer of a device to a specific licensee or export, furnish a report to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , ATTN: Document Control Desk/GLTS, using an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter. The report must contain—
</P>
<P>(A) The identification of the device by manufacturer's (or initial transferor's) name, model number, and serial number; 
</P>
<P>(B) The name, address, and license number of the person receiving the device (license number not applicable if exported); and 
</P>
<P>(C) The date of the transfer. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall obtain written NRC approval before transferring the device to any other specific licensee not specifically identified in paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section; however, a holder of a specific license may transfer a device for possession and use under its own specific license without prior approval, if, the holder:
</P>
<P>(A) Verifies that the specific license authorizes the possession and use, or applies for and obtains an amendment to the license authorizing the possession and use;
</P>
<P>(B) Removes, alters, covers, or clearly and unambiguously augments the existing label (otherwise required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section) so that the device is labeled in compliance with § 20.1904 of this chapter; however the manufacturer, model number, and serial number must be retained;
</P>
<P>(C) Obtains the manufacturer's or initial transferor's information concerning maintenance that would be applicable under the specific license (such as leak testing procedures); and
</P>
<P>(D) Reports the transfer under paragraph (c)(8)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) Shall transfer the device to another general licensee only if— 
</P>
<P>(i) The device remains in use at a particular location. In this case, the transferor shall give the transferee a copy of this section, a copy of § 31.2, 30.51, 20.2201, and 20.2202 of this chapter, and any safety documents identified in the label of the device. Within 30 days of the transfer, the transferor shall report to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , ATTN: Document Control Desk/GLTS, using an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter—
</P>
<P>(A) The manufacturer's (or initial transferor's) name; 
</P>
<P>(B) The model number and the serial number of the device transferred; 
</P>
<P>(C) The transferee's name and mailing address for the location of use; and 
</P>
<P>(D) The name, title, and phone number of the responsible individual identified by the transferee in accordance with paragraph (c)(12) of this section to have knowledge of and authority to take actions to ensure compliance with the appropriate regulations and requirements; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The device is held in storage by an intermediate person in the original shipping container at its intended location of use prior to initial use by a general licensee. 
</P>
<P>(10) Shall comply with the provisions of §§ 20.2201, and 20.2202 of this chapter for reporting radiation incidents, theft or loss of licensed material, but shall be exempt from the other requirements of parts 19, 20, and 21, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(11) Shall respond to written requests from the Nuclear Regulatory Commission to provide information relating to the general license within 30 calendar days of the date of the request, or other time specified in the request. If the general licensee cannot provide the requested information within the allotted time, it shall, within that same time period, request a longer period to supply the information by providing the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, a written justification for the request.
</P>
<P>(12) Shall appoint an individual responsible for having knowledge of the appropriate regulations and requirements and the authority for taking required actions to comply with appropriate regulations and requirements. The general licensee, through this individual, shall ensure the day-to-day compliance with appropriate regulations and requirements. This appointment does not relieve the general licensee of any of its responsibility in this regard. 
</P>
<P>(13)(i) Shall register, in accordance with paragraphs (c)(13)(ii) and (iii) of this section, devices containing at least 370 megabecquerels (10 millicuries) of cesium-137, 3.7 megabecquerels (0.1 millicurie) of strontium-90, 37 megabecquerels (1 millicurie) of cobalt-60, 3.7 megabecquerels (0.1 millicurie) of radium-226, or 37 megabecquerels (1 millicurie) of americium-241 or any other transuranic (<I>i.e.</I>, element with atomic number greater than uranium (92)), based on the activity indicated on the label. Each address for a location of use, as described under paragraph (c)(13)(iii)(D) of this section, represents a separate general licensee and requires a separate registration and fee.
</P>
<P>(ii) If in possession of a device meeting the criteria of paragraph (c)(13)(i) of this section, shall register these devices annually with the Commission and shall pay the fee required by § 170.31 of this chapter. Registration must be done by verifying, correcting, and/or adding to the information provided in a request for registration received from the Commission. The registration information must be submitted to the NRC within 30 days of the date of the request for registration or as otherwise indicated in the request. In addition, a general licensee holding devices meeting the criteria of paragraph (c)(13)(i) of this section is subject to the bankruptcy notification requirement in § 30.34(h) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In registering devices, the general licensee shall furnish the following information and any other information specifically requested by the Commission— 
</P>
<P>(A) Name and mailing address of the general licensee. 
</P>
<P>(B) Information about each device: the manufacturer (or initial transferor), model number, serial number, the radioisotope and activity (as indicated on the label). 
</P>
<P>(C) Name, title, and telephone number of the responsible person designated as a representative of the general licensee under paragraph (c)(12) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(D) Address or location at which the device(s) are used and/or stored. For portable devices, the address of the primary place of storage. 
</P>
<P>(E) Certification by the responsible representative of the general licensee that the information concerning the device(s) has been verified through a physical inventory and checking of label information. 
</P>
<P>(F) Certification by the responsible representative of the general licensee that they are aware of the requirements of the general license. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Persons generally licensed by an Agreement State with respect to devices meeting the criteria in paragraph (c)(13)(i) of this section are not subject to registration requirements if the devices are used in areas subject to NRC jurisdiction for a period less than 180 days in any calendar year. The Commission will not request registration information from such licensees. 
</P>
<P>(14) Shall report changes to the mailing address for the location of use (including change in name of general licensee) to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, ATTN: GLTS, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001 within 30 days of the effective date of the change. For a portable device, a report of address change is only required for a change in the device's primary place of storage.
</P>
<P>(15) May not hold devices that are not in use for longer than 2 years. If devices with shutters are not being used, the shutter must be locked in the closed position. The testing required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section need not be performed during the period of storage only. However, when devices are put back into service or transferred to another person, and have not been tested within the required test interval, they must be tested for leakage before use or transfer and the shutter tested before use. Devices kept in standby for future use are excluded from the two-year time limit if the general licensee performs quarterly physical inventories of these devices while they are in standby.
</P>
<P>(d) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section does not authorize the manufacture or import of devices containing byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 43532, Dec. 16, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 8785, Mar. 3, 1975; 40 FR 14085, Mar. 28, 1975; 42 FR 25721, May 19, 1977; 42 FR 28896, June 6, 1977; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 53 FR 19246, May 27, 1988; 56 FR 23471, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991; 58 FR 67659, Dec. 22, 1993; 64 FR 42275, Aug. 4, 1999; 65 FR 79188, Dec. 18, 2000; 68 FR 58804, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 55926, Oct. 1, 2007; 72 FR 58486, Oct. 16, 2007; 73 FR 5718, Jan. 31, 2008; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.6   General license to install devices generally licensed in § 31.5.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who holds a specific license issued by an Agreement State authorizing the holder to manufacture, install, or service a device described in § 31.5 within such Agreement State is hereby granted a general license to install and service such device in any non-Agreement State and a general license to install and service such device in offshore waters, as defined in § 150.3(f) of this chapter: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) The device has been manufactured, labeled, installed, and serviced in accordance with applicable provisions of the specific license issued to such person by the Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(c) Such person assures that any labels required to be affixed to the device under regulations of the Agreement State which licensed manufacture of the device bear a statement that removal of the label is prohibited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8189, June 26, 1965, as amended at 30 FR 10947, Aug. 24, 1965; 39 FR 43533, Dec. 16, 1974; 46 FR 44151, Sept. 3, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.7   Luminous safety devices for use in aircraft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to own, receive, acquire, possess, and use tritium or promethium-147 contained in luminous safety devices for use in aircraft, provided each device contains not more than 10 curies of tritium or 300 millicuries of promethium-147 and that each device has been manufactured, assembled or initially transferred in accordance with a license issued under the provisions of § 32.53 of this chapter or manufactured or assembled in accordance with a specific license issued by an Agreement State which authorizes manufacture or assembly of the device for distribution to persons generally licensed by the Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons who own, receive, acquire, possess or use luminous safety devices pursuant to the general license in this section are exempt from the requirements of parts 19, 20, and 21, of this chapter, except that they shall comply with the provisions of §§ 20.2201, and 20.2202 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) This general license does not authorize the manufacture, assembly, repair or import of luminous safety devices containing tritium or promethium-147.
</P>
<P>(d) This general license does not authorize the export of luminous safety devices containing tritium or promethium-147.
</P>
<P>(e) This general license does not authorize the ownership, receipt, acquisition, possession or use of promethium-147 contained in instrument dials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8189, June 26, 1965, as amended at 33 FR 6463, Apr. 27, 1968; 38 FR 22220, Aug. 17, 1973; 42 FR 28896, June 6, 1977; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 56 FR 23471, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991; 58 FR 67659, Dec. 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.8   Americium-241 and radium-226 in the form of calibration or reference sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to those persons listed in this section to own, receive, acquire, possess, use, and transfer, in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, americium-241 or radium-226 in the form of calibration or reference sources:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person in a non-Agreement State who holds a specific license issued under this chapter which authorizes receipt, possession, use, and transfer of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any Government agency, as defined in § 30.4 of this chapter, which holds a specific license issued under this chapter which authorizes it to receive, possess, use, and transfer byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(b) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section applies only to calibration or reference sources which have been manufactured or initially transferred in accordance with the specifications contained in a specific license issued under § 32.57 of this chapter or in accordance with the specifications contained in a specific license issued to the manufacturer by an Agreement State which authorizes manufacture of the sources for distribution to persons generally licensed by the Agreement State, or in accordance with a specific license issued by a State with comparable provisions to § 32.57.
</P>
<P>(c) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section is subject to the provisions of §§ 30.14(d), 30.34 (a) to (e), and 30.50 to 30.63 of this chapter, and to the provisions of parts 19, 20, and 21, of this chapter. In addition, persons who own, receive, acquire, possess, use, and transfer one or more calibration or reference sources under this general license:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not possess at any one time, at any one location of storage or use, more than 0.185 megabecquerel (5 microcuries) of americium-241 or 0.185 megabecquerel (5 microcuries) of radium-226 in such sources;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not receive, possess, use, or transfer a source unless the source, or the storage container, bears a label which includes the following statement or a substantially similar statement which contains the information called for in the following statement: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Sources generally licensed under this section before January 19, 1975, may bear labels authorized by the regulations in effect on January 1, 1975. Sources containing radium-226 generally licensed under this section and manufactured before November 30, 2007 shall be labeled in accordance with the applicable State regulations at the time of manufacture or import.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this source, Model XX, Serial No. XX, are subject to a general license and the regulations of the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission or of a State with which the Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label.
</P>
<FP>CAUTION—RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL—THIS SOURCE CONTAINS AMERICIUM-241 [or RADIUM-226, as appropriate]. DO NOT TOUCH RADIOACTIVE PORTION OF THIS SOURCE.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of manufacturer or initial transferor)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Shall not transfer, abandon, or dispose of a source except by transfer to a person authorized by a license issued under this chapter or by an Agreement State to receive the source.
</P>
<P>(4) Shall store a source, except when the source is being used, in a closed container adequately designed and constructed to contain americium-241 or radium-226 which might otherwise escape during storage.
</P>
<P>(5) Shall not use a source for any purpose other than the calibration of radiation detectors or the standardization of other sources.
</P>
<P>(d) This general license does not authorize the manufacture or import of calibration or reference sources containing americium-241 or radium-226.
</P>
<P>(e) This general license does not authorize the export of calibration or reference sources containing americium-241 or radium-226.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 55927, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.9   General license to own byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>A general license is hereby issued to own byproduct material without regard to quantity. Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a general licensee under this paragraph is not authorized to manufacture, produce, transfer, receive, possess, use, import or export byproduct material, except as authorized in a specific license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8189, June 26, 1965]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.10   General license for strontium 90 in ice detection devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to own, receive, acquire, possess, use, and transfer strontium 90 contained in ice detection devices, provided each device contains not more than fifty microcuries of strontium 90 and each device has been manufactured or initially transferred in accordance with the specifications contained in a license issued pursuant to § 32.61 of this chapter or in accordance with the specifications contained in a specific license issued to the manufacturer by an Agreement State which authorizes manufacture of the ice detection devices for distribution to persons generally licensed by the Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons who own, receive, acquire, possess, use, or transfer strontium 90 contained in ice detection devices pursuant to the general license in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall, upon occurrence of visually observable damage, such as a bend or crack or discoloration from overheating, to the device, discontinue use of the device until it has been inspected, tested for leakage and repaired by a person holding a specific license pursuant to part 30 or 32 of this chapter or from an Agreement State to manufacture or service such devices; or shall dispose of the device pursuant to the provisions of § 20.2001.
</P>
<P>(2) Shall assure that all labels affixed to the device at the time of receipt, and which bear a statement which prohibits removal of the labels, are maintained thereon;
</P>
<P>(3) Are exempt from the requirements of parts 19, 20, and 21, of this chapter except that such persons shall comply with the provisions of §§ 20.2001, 20.2201, and 20.2202 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The general license does not authorize the manufacture, assembly, disassembly, repair, or import of strontium 90 in ice detection devices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 9905, Aug. 10, 1965, as amended at 38 FR 22220, Aug. 17, 1973; 40 FR 8785, Mar. 3, 1975; 42 FR 28896, June 6, 1977; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 56 FR 23471, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991; 58 FR 67659, Dec. 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.11   General license for use of byproduct material for certain in vitro clinical or laboratory testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to any physician, veterinarian in the practice of veterinary medicine, clinical laboratory or hospital to receive, acquire, possess, transfer, or use, for any of the following stated tests, in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section, the following byproduct materials in prepackaged units:
</P>
<P>(1) Iodine-125, in units not exceeding 10 microcuries each for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals.
</P>
<P>(2) Iodine-131, in units not exceeding 10 microcuries each for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals.
</P>
<P>(3) Carbon-14, in units not exceeding 10 microcuries each for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals.
</P>
<P>(4) Hydrogen-3 (tritium), in units not exceeding 50 microcuries each for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals.
</P>
<P>(5) Iron-59, in units not exceeding 20 microcuries each for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings, or animals.
</P>
<P>(6) Selenium-75, in units not exceeding 10 microcuries each for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals.
</P>
<P>(7) Mock Iodine-125 reference or calibration sources, in units not exceeding 0.05 microcurie of iodine-129 and 0.005 microcurie of americium-241 each for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals.
</P>
<P>(8) Cobalt-57, in units not exceeding 0.37 megabecquerel (10 microcuries) each for use in in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of byproduct material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals.
</P>
<P>(b) A person shall not receive, acquire, possess, use, or transfer byproduct material under the general license established by paragraph (a) of this section unless that person:
</P>
<P>(1) Has filed NRC Form 483, “Registration Certificate—In Vitro Testing with Byproduct Material Under General License,” with the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, and has received from the Commission a validated copy of NRC Form 483 with a registration number assigned; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has a license that authorizes the medical use of byproduct material that was issued under part 35 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A person who receives, acquires, possesses, or uses byproduct material pursuant to the general license established by paragraph (a) of this section shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The general licensee shall not possess at any one time, under the general license in paragraph (a) of this section, at any one location of storage or use, a total amount of iodine-125, iodine-131, selenium-75, cobalt-57 and/or iron-59 in excess of 7.4 megabecquerels (200 microcuries).
</P>
<P>(2) The general licensee shall store the byproduct material, until used, in the original shipping container or in a container providing equivalent radiation protection.
</P>
<P>(3) The general licensee shall use the byproduct material only for the uses authorized by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The general licensee shall not transfer the byproduct material except by transfer to a person authorized to receive it by a license pursuant to this chapter or from an Agreement State, nor transfer the byproduct material in any manner other than in the unopened, labeled shipping container as received from the supplier.
</P>
<P>(5) The general licensee shall dispose of the Mock Iodine-125 reference or calibration sources described in paragraph (a)(7) of this section as required by § 20.2001.
</P>
<P>(d) The general licensee shall not receive, acquire, possess, or use byproduct material pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as prepackaged units which are labeled in accordance with the provisions of a specific license issued under the provisions of § 32.71 of this chapter or in accordance with the provisions of a specific license issued by an Agreement State, or before November 30, 2007, and the provisions of a specific license issued by a State with comparable provisions to § 32.71 that authorize manufacture and distribution of iodine-125, iodine-131, carbon-14, hydrogen-3 (tritium), selenium-75, iron-59, cobalt-57, or Mock Iodine-125 for distribution to persons generally licensed by the Agreement State or the State with comparable provisions to § 32.71.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the following statement, or a substantially similar statement which contains the information called for in the following statement, appears on a label affixed to each prepackaged unit or appears in a leaflet or brochure which accompanies the package: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Labels authorized by the regulations in effect on September 26, 1979, may be used until one year from September 27, 1979.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This radioactive material may be received, acquired, possessed, and used only by physicians, veterinarians in the practice of veterinary medicine, clinical laboratories or hospitals and only for in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of the material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals. Its receipt, acquisition, possession, use, and transfer are subject to the regulations and a general license of the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or of a State with which the Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of Manufacturer)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The registrant possessing or using byproduct materials under the general license of paragraph (a) of this section shall report in writing to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , any changes in the information furnished by him in the ”Registration Certificate—In Vitro Testing With Byproduct Material Under General License.” Form NRC-483. The report shall be furnished within 30 days after the effective date of such change.
</P>
<P>(f) Any person using byproduct material pursuant to the general license of paragraph (a) of this section is exempt from the requirements of parts 19, 20, and 21, of this chapter with respect to byproduct materials covered by that general license, except that such persons using the Mock Iodine-125 described in paragraph (a)(7) of this section shall comply with the provisions of §§ 20.2001, 20.2201, and 20.2202.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 16553, Nov. 14, 1968] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 31.11, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.12   General license for certain items and self-luminous products containing radium-226.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to any person to acquire, receive, possess, use, or transfer, in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, radium-226 contained in the following products manufactured prior to November 30, 2007.
</P>
<P>(1) Antiquities originally intended for use by the general public. For the purposes of this paragraph, antiquities mean products originally intended for use by the general public and distributed in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, such as radium emanator jars, revigators, radium water jars, radon generators, refrigerator cards, radium bath salts, and healing pads.
</P>
<P>(2) Intact timepieces containing greater than 0.037 megabecquerel (1 microcurie), nonintact timepieces, and timepiece hands and dials no longer installed in timepieces.
</P>
<P>(3) Luminous items installed in air, marine, or land vehicles.
</P>
<P>(4) All other luminous products, provided that no more than 100 items are used or stored at the same location at any one time.
</P>
<P>(5) Small radium sources containing no more than 0.037 megabecquerel (1 microcurie) of radium-226. For the purposes of this paragraph, “small radium sources” means discrete survey instrument check sources, sources contained in radiation measuring instruments, sources used in educational demonstrations (such as cloud chambers and spinthariscopes), electron tubes, lightning rods, ionization sources, static eliminators, or as designated by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons who acquire, receive, possess, use, or transfer byproduct material under the general license issued in paragraph (a) of this section are exempt from the provisions of 10 CFR parts 19, 20, and 21, and § 30.50 and 30.51 of this chapter, to the extent that the receipt, possession, use, or transfer of byproduct material is within the terms of the general license; provided, however, that this exemption shall not be deemed to apply to any such person specifically licensed under this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who acquires, receives, possesses, uses, or transfers byproduct material in accordance with the general license in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall notify the NRC should there be any indication of possible damage to the product so that it appears it could result in a loss of the radioactive material. A report containing a brief description of the event, and the remedial action taken, must be furnished to the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001 within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not abandon products containing radium-226. The product, and any radioactive material from the product, may only be disposed of according to § 20.2008 of this chapter or by transfer to a person authorized by a specific license to receive the radium-226 in the product or as otherwise approved by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(3) Shall not export products containing radium-226 except in accordance with part 110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Shall dispose of products containing radium-226 at a disposal facility authorized to dispose of radioactive material in accordance with any Federal or State solid or hazardous waste law, including the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as authorized under the Energy Policy Act of 2005, by transfer to a person authorized to receive radium-226 by a specific license issued under part 30 of this chapter, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, or as otherwise approved by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(5) Shall respond to written requests from the NRC to provide information relating to the general license within 30 calendar days of the date of the request, or other time specified in the request. If the general licensee cannot provide the requested information within the allotted time, it shall, within that same time period, request a longer period to supply the information by providing the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, a written justification for the request.
</P>
<P>(d) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section does not authorize the manufacture, assembly, disassembly, repair, or import of products containing radium-226, except that timepieces may be disassembled and repaired.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 55927, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 31.13-31.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 31.13-31.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.21   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as letters, stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19246, May 27, 1988. Redesignated at 72 FR 55927, Oct. 1, 2007, as amended at 90 FR 55628, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.22   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55072, Nov. 24, 1992. Redesignated at 72 FR 55927, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.21.0.91.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.23   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 31 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 31 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 31.1, 31.2, 31.4, 31.9, 31.22, and 31.23.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55073, Nov. 24, 1992. Redesignated at 72 FR 55927, Oct. 1, 2007, and amended at 77 FR 43690, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 32—SPECIFIC DOMESTIC LICENSES TO MANUFACTURE OR TRANSFER CERTAIN ITEMS CONTAINING BYPRODUCT MATERIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 81, 161, 170H, 181, 182, 183, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2111, 2201, 2210h, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 32 appear at 79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 32.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.0.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) This part prescribes requirements for the issuance of specific licenses to persons who manufacture or initially transfer items containing byproduct material for sale or distribution to:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons exempted from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(iii) Persons licensed under part 35 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) This part prescribes requirements for the issuance of specific licenses to persons who introduce byproduct material into a product or material owned by or in the possession of a licensee or another, and regulations governing holders of such licenses.
</P>
<P>(3) This part prescribes certain requirements governing holders of licenses to manufacture or distribute items containing byproduct material.
</P>
<P>(4) This part describes procedures and prescribes requirements for the issuance of certificates of registration (covering radiation safety information about a product) to manufacturers or initial transferors of sealed sources or devices containing sealed sources.
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions and requirements of this part are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements of this chapter. In particular, the provisions of part 30 of this chapter apply to applications, licenses and certificates of registration subject to this part, and the provisions of part 37 of this chapter apply to applications and licenses subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The requirements in this part, including provisions that are specific to licensees, shall apply to Government agencies and Federally recognized Indian Tribes with respect to accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 on November 30, 2007 except that the agency or Tribe may continue to manufacture or initially transfer items containing accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for sale or distribution to persons exempted from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter, and to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter, and radioactive drugs and sources and devices to medical use licensees, until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the agency or Tribe submits a new license application for these activities on or before December 1, 2008 or an amendment application for these activities on or before June 2, 2008.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements in this part, including provisions that are specific to licensees, shall apply to all persons other than those included in paragraph (c)(1) of this section with respect to accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 on August 8, 2009, or earlier as noticed by the NRC, except that these persons may continue to manufacture or initially transfer items containing accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for sale or distribution to persons exempted from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter, and to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter, and to sell or manufacture radioactive drugs and sources and devices to medical use licensees until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the person submits a license application within 12 months from the waiver expiration date of August 7, 2009 or within 12 months from the date of an earlier termination of the waiver as noticed by the NRC, whichever is earlier; or that the person submits an amendment request within 6 months from the waiver expiration date of August 7, 2009 or within 6 months from the date of an earlier termination of the waiver as noticed by the NRC, whichever date is earlier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8192, June 26, 1965, as amended at 52 FR 27786, July 24, 1987; 63 FR 1896, Jan. 13, 1998; 72 FR 55928, Oct. 1, 2007; 77 FR 43690, July 25, 2012; 78 FR 17006, Mar. 19, 2013; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.0.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Committed dose</I> for the purposes of this part means the radiation dose that will accumulate over time as a result of retention in the body of radioactive material. Committed dose is a generic term for internal dose and must be calculated by summing the projected dose over the 50 years after intake for all irradiated organs or tissues multiplying the doses to individual organs and tissues by applicable tissue weighting factors.
</P>
<P><I>Dose commitment</I> means the total radiation dose to a part of the body that will result from retention in the body of radioactive material. For purposes of estimating the dose commitment, it is assumed that from the time of intake the period of exposure to retained material will not exceed 50 years.
</P>
<P><I>Lot Tolerance Percent Defective</I> means, expressed in percent defective, the poorest quality in an individual inspection lot that should be accepted.
</P>
<P><I>Nationally tracked source</I> is a sealed source containing a quantity equal to or greater than Category 1 or Category 2 levels of any radioactive material listed in Appendix E to part 20 of this Chapter. In this context a sealed source is defined as radioactive material that is sealed in a capsule or closely bonded, in a solid form and which is not exempt from regulatory control. It does not mean material encapsulated solely for disposal, or nuclear material contained in any fuel assembly, subassembly, fuel rod, or fuel pellet. Category 1 nationally tracked sources are those containing radioactive material at a quantity equal to or greater than the Category 1 threshold. Category 2 nationally tracked sources are those containing radioactive material at a quantity equal to or greater than the Category 2 threshold but less than the Category 1 threshold.
</P>
<P><I>Sealed Source and Device Registry</I> means the national registry that contains all the registration certificates, generated by both the NRC and the Agreement States, that summarize the radiation safety information for the sealed sources and devices and describe the licensing and use conditions approved for the product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 6653, Apr. 18, 1969, as amended at 39 FR 22129, June 20, 1974; 71 FR 65708, Nov. 8, 2006; 77 FR 43690, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.0.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.3   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy of a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19246, May 27, 1988, as amended at 90 FR 55629, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.0.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0001.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 32.11, 32.12, 32.14, 32.15, 32.16, 32.18, 32.19, 32.20, 32.21, 32.21a, 32.22, 32.23, 32.25, 32.26, 32.27, 32.29, 32.30, 32.31, 32.32, 32.51, 32.51a, 32.52, 32.53, 32.54, 32.55, 32.56, 32.57, 32.58, 32.61, 32.62, 32.71, 32.72, 32.74, 32.201, 32.210, and 32.211.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 32.11, NRC Form 313 is approved under control number 3150-0120.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19625, May 9, 1984, as amended at 59 FR 61780, Dec. 2, 1994; 62 FR 52186, Oct. 6, 1997; 62 FR 63640, Dec. 2, 1997; 71 FR 65708, Nov. 8, 2006; 72 FR 58486, Oct. 16, 2007; 77 FR 43691, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Exempt Concentrations and Items</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.11   Introduction of byproduct material in exempt concentrations into products or materials, and transfer of ownership or possession: Requirements for license.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license on Form NRC-313 authorizing the introduction of byproduct material into a product or material owned by or in the possession of the licensee or another and the transfer of ownership or possession of the product or material containing the byproduct material will be approved if the applicant:
</P>
<P>(a) Satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter; <I>provided, however,</I> that the requirements of § 30.33(a)(2) and (3) do not apply to an application for a license to introduce byproduct material into a product or material owned by or in the possession of the licensee or another and the transfer of ownership or possession of the product or material containing the byproduct material, if the possession and use of the byproduct material to be introduced is authorized by a license issued by an Agreement State; 
</P>
<P>(b) Provides a description of the product or material into which the byproduct material will be introduced, intended use of the byproduct material and the product or material into which it is introduced, method of introduction, initial concentration of the byproduct material in the product or material, control methods to assure that no more than the specified concentration is introduced into the product or material, estimated time interval between introduction and transfer of the product or material, and estimated concentration of the radioisotopes in the product or material at the time of transfer; and
</P>
<P>(c) Provides reasonable assurance that the concentrations of byproduct material at the time of transfer will not exceed the concentrations in § 30.70 of this chapter, that reconcentration of the byproduct material in concentrations exceeding those in § 30.70 is not likely, that use of lower concentrations is not feasible, and that the product or material is not likely to be incorporated in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug or other commodity or product designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8192, June 26, 1965, as amended at 49 FR 19625, May 9, 1984; 72 FR 58487, Oct. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.12   Same: Records and material transfer reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 32.11 shall maintain records of transfer of byproduct material and file a report with the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, including in the address: ATTN: Document Control Desk/Exempt Distribution.
</P>
<P>(1) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) The report must indicate that the byproduct material is transferred for use under § 30.14 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(b) The report must identify the:
</P>
<P>(1) Type and quantity of each product or material into which byproduct material has been introduced during the reporting period;
</P>
<P>(2) Name and address of the person who owned or possessed the product or material, into which byproduct material has been introduced, at the time of introduction;
</P>
<P>(3) The type and quantity of radionuclide introduced into each product or material; and
</P>
<P>(4) The initial concentrations of the radionuclide in the product or material at time of transfer of the byproduct material by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The licensee shall file the report, covering the preceding calendar year, on or before January 31 of each year. In its first report after December 17, 2007, the licensee shall separately include data for transfers in prior years not previously reported to the Commission or to an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees who permanently discontinue activities authorized by the license issued under § 32.11 shall file a report for the current calendar year within 30 days after ceasing distribution.
</P>
<P>(d) If no transfers of byproduct material have been made under § 32.11 during the reporting period, the report must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall maintain the record of a transfer for one year after the transfer is included in a report to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 58487, Oct. 16, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 5719, Jan. 31, 2008; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.13   Same: Prohibition of introduction.</HEAD>
<P>No person may introduce byproduct material into a product or material knowing or having reason to believe that it will be transferred to persons exempt under § 30.14 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, except in accordance with a license issued under § 32.11.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 58487, Oct. 16, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.14   Certain items containing byproduct material; requirements for license to apply or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to apply byproduct material to, or to incorporate byproduct material into, the products specified in § 30.15 of this chapter or to initially transfer for sale or distribution such products containing byproduct material for use pursuant to § 30.15 of this chapter will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits sufficient information regarding the product pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Chemical and physical form and maximum quantity of byproduct material in each product;
</P>
<P>(2) Details of construction and design of each product;
</P>
<P>(3) The method of containment or binding of the byproduct material in the product;
</P>
<P>(4) Except for electron tubes and ionization chamber smoke detectors and timepieces containing promethium-147 or tritium in the form of gaseous tritium light sources, procedures for and results of prototype testing to demonstrate that the byproduct material will not become detached from the product and that the byproduct material will not be released to the environment under the most severe conditions likely to be encountered in normal use of the product;
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of ionizing radiation measuring instruments and timepieces containing tritium in the form of paint, quality control procedures to be followed in the fabrication of production lots of the product and the quality control standards the product will be required to meet;
</P>
<P>(6) The proposed method of labeling or marking each unit, except timepieces or hands or dials containing tritium or promethium-147, and its container with the identification of the manufacturer or initial transferor of the product and the byproduct material in the product;
</P>
<P>(7) For products for which limits on levels of radiation are specified in § 30.15 of this chapter, the radiation level and the method of measurement;
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the Commission to facilitate a determination of the safety of the product.
</P>
<P>(c) Each product will contain no more than the quantity of byproduct material specified for that product in § 30.15 of this chapter. The levels of radiation from each product containing byproduct material will not exceed the limits specified for that product in § 30.15 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission determines that the byproduct material is properly contained in the product under the most severe conditions that are likely to be encountered in normal use and handling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 5316, Apr. 2, 1966, as amended at 34 FR 6652, Apr. 18, 1969; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 63 FR 32971, June 17, 1998; 72 FR 58487, Oct. 16, 2007; 77 FR 43691, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.15   Same: Quality assurance, prohibition of transfer, and labeling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 32.14 for products for which quality control procedures are required shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain quality assurance systems in the manufacture of the part or product, or the installation of the part into the product, in a manner sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the safety-related components of the distributed products are capable of performing their intended functions;
</P>
<P>(2) Subject inspection lots to acceptance sampling procedures, by procedures specified in the license issued under § 32.14, to provide at least 95 percent confidence that the Lot Tolerance Percent Defective of 5.0 percent will not be exceeded; and
</P>
<P>(3) Visually inspect each unit in inspection lots. Any unit which has an observable physical defect that could adversely affect containment of the byproduct material must be considered a defective unit.
</P>
<P>(b) No person licensed under § 32.14 shall transfer to other persons for use under § 30.15 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State:
</P>
<P>(1) Any part or product tested and found defective under the criteria and procedures specified in the license issued under § 32.14, unless the defective part or product has been repaired or reworked, retested, and found by an independent inspector to meet the applicable acceptance criteria; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any part or product contained within any lot that has been sampled and rejected as a result of the procedures in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) A procedure for defining sub-lot size, independence, and additional testing procedures is contained in the license issued under § 32.14; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each individual sub-lot is sampled, tested, and accepted in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2)(i) of this section and any other criteria that may be required as a condition of the license issued under § 32.14.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(d) Each person licensed under § 32.14 for products for which quality control procedures are required shall:


</P>
<P>(1) Label or mark each unit, except timepieces or hands or dials containing tritium or promethium-147, and its container so that the manufacturer or initial transferor of the product and the byproduct material in the product can be identified.
</P>
<P>(2) For ionization chamber smoke detectors, label or mark each detector and its point-of-sale package so that:
</P>
<P>(i) Each detector has a durable, legible, readily visible label or marking on the external surface of the detector containing:
</P>
<P>(A) The following statement: “CONTAINS RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL”;
</P>
<P>(B) The name of the radionuclide (“americium-241” or “Am-241”) and the quantity of activity; and
</P>
<P>(C) An identification of the person licensed under § 32.14 to transfer the detector for use under § 30.15(a)(7) of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(ii) The labeling or marking specified in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section is located where it will be readily visible when the detector is removed from its mounting.
</P>
<P>(iii) The external surface of the point-of-sale package has a legible, readily visible label or marking containing:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the radionuclide and quantity of activity;
</P>
<P>(B) An identification of the person licensed under § 32.14 to transfer the detector for use under § 30.15(a)(7) or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State; and
</P>
<P>(C) The following or a substantially similar statement: “THIS DETECTOR CONTAINS RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL. THE PURCHASER IS EXEMPT FROM ANY REGULATORY REQUIREMENTS.”
</P>
<P>(iv) Each detector and point-of-sale package is provided with such other information as may be required by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 5317, Apr. 2, 1966, as amended at 34 FR 6652, Apr. 18, 1969; 39 FR 22129, June 20, 1974; 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978; 72 FR 58487, Oct. 16, 2007; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008; 77 FR 43691, July 25, 2012; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.16" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.16   Certain items containing byproduct material: Records and reports of transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 32.14 shall maintain records of all transfers of byproduct material and file a report with the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, including in the address: ATTN: Document Control Desk/Exempt Distribution.
</P>
<P>(1) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) The report must indicate that the products are transferred for use under § 30.15 of this chapter, giving the specific paragraph designation, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(b) The report must include the following information on products transferred to other persons for use under § 30.15 or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State:
</P>
<P>(1) A description or identification of the type of each product and the model number(s), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) For each radionuclide in each type of product and each model number, if applicable, the total quantity of the radionuclide; and
</P>
<P>(3) The number of units of each type of product transferred during the reporting period by model number, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The licensee shall file the report, covering the preceding calendar year, on or before January 31 of each year. In its first report after December 17, 2007, the licensee shall separately include data for transfers in prior years not previously reported to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees who permanently discontinue activities authorized by the license issued under § 32.14 shall file a report for the current calendar year within 30 days after ceasing distribution.
</P>
<P>(d) If no transfers of byproduct material have been made under § 32.14 during the reporting period, the report must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall maintain the record of a transfer for one year after the transfer is included in a report to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 58487, Oct. 16, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 5719, Jan. 31, 2008; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.18" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.18   Manufacture, distribution and transfer of exempt quantities of byproduct material: Requirements for license.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to manufacture, process, produce, package, repackage, or transfer quantities of byproduct material for commercial distribution to persons exempt pursuant to § 30.18 of this chapter or the equivalent regulations of an Agreement State will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the requirements of § 30.33(a) (2) and (3) of this chapter do not apply to an application for a license to transfer byproduct material manufactured, processed, produced, packaged, or repackaged pursuant to a license issued by an Agreement State;
</P>
<P>(b) The byproduct material is not contained in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug, or other commodity designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being;
</P>
<P>(c) The byproduct material is in the form of processed chemical elements, compounds, or mixtures, tissue samples, bioassay samples, counting standards, plated or encapsulated sources, or similar substances, identified as radioactive and to be used for its radioactive properties, but is not incorporated into any manufactured or assembled commodity, product, or device intended for commercial distribution; and
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant submits copies of prototype labels and brochures and the Commission approves such labels and brochures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 6428, Apr. 22, 1970, as amended at 43 FR 6922, Feb. 17, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.19   Same: Conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Each license issued under § 32.18 is subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) No more than 10 exempt quantities set forth in § 30.71, Schedule B of this chapter shall be sold or transferred in any single transaction. For purposes of this requirement, an individual exempt quantity may be composed of fractional parts of one or more of the exempt quantities in § 30.71, Schedule B of this chapter, provided that the sum of such fractions shall not exceed unity.
</P>
<P>(b) Each quantity of byproduct material set forth in § 30.71, Schedule B of this chapter shall be separately and individually packaged. No more than 10 such packaged exempt quantities shall be contained in any outer package for transfer to persons exempt pursuant to § 30.18 of this chapter. The outer package shall be such that the dose rate at the external surface of the package does not exceed 0.5 millirem per hour.
</P>
<P>(c) The immediate container of each quantity or separately packaged fractional quantity of byproduct material shall bear a durable, legible label which (1) identifies the radioisotope and the quantity of radioactivity, and (2) bears the words “Radioactive Material.”
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the labeling information required by paragraph (c) of this section, the label affixed to the immediate container, or an accompanying brochure, shall also (1) state that the contents are exempt from NRC or Agreement State licensing requirements; (2) bear the words “Radioactive Material—Not for Human Use—Introduction Into Foods, Beverages, Cosmetics, Drugs, or Medicinals, or Into Products Manufactured for Commercial Distribution is Prohibited—Exempt Quantities Should Not be Combined”; and (3) set forth appropriate additional radiation safety precautions and instructions relating to the handling, use, storage, and disposal of the radioactive material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 6428, Apr. 22, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.20   Same: Records and material transfer reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 32.18 shall maintain records of transfer of material identifying, by name and address, each person to whom byproduct material is transferred for use under § 30.18 of this chapter or the equivalent regulations of an Agreement State and stating the kinds, quantities, and physical form of byproduct material transferred.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall file a summary report with the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, including in the address: ATTN: Document Control Desk/Exempt Distribution.
</P>
<P>(1) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) The report must indicate that the materials are transferred for use under § 30.18 or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(c) For each radionuclide in each physical form, the report shall indicate the total quantity of each radionuclide and the physical form, transferred under the specific license.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The licensee shall file the report, covering the preceding calendar year, on or before January 31 of each year. In its first report after December 17, 2007, the licensee shall separately include the total quantity of each radionuclide transferred for transfers in prior years not previously reported to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees who permanently discontinue activities authorized by the license issued under § 32.18 shall file a report for the current calendar year within 30 days after ceasing distribution.
</P>
<P>(e) If no transfers of byproduct material have been made under § 32.18 during the reporting period, the report must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee shall maintain the record of a transfer for one year after the transfer is included in a summary report to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 58488, Oct. 16, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 5719, Jan. 31, 2008; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.21   Radioactive drug: Manufacture, preparation, or transfer for commercial distribution of capsules containing carbon-14 urea each for “in vivo” diagnostic use for humans to persons exempt from licensing; Requirements for a license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a specific license to manufacture, prepare, process, produce, package, repackage, or transfer for commercial distribution capsules containing 37 kBq (1 µCi) carbon-14 urea (allowing for nominal variation that may occur during the manufacturing process) each for “in vivo” diagnostic use, to persons exempt from licensing under § 30.21 of this chapter or the equivalent regulations of an Agreement State will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter, provided that the requirements of § 30.33(a) (2) and (3) of this chapter do not apply to an application for a license to transfer byproduct material manufactured, prepared, processed, produced, packaged, or repackaged pursuant to a license issued by an Agreement State;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant meets the requirements under § 32.72(a)(2) of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant provides evidence that each capsule contains 37 kBq (1 µCi) carbon-14 urea (allowing for nominal variation that may occur during the manufacturing process);
</P>
<P>(4) The carbon-14 urea is not contained in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug (except as described in this section) or other commodity designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or topical application to, a human being;
</P>
<P>(5) The carbon-14 urea is in the form of a capsule, identified as radioactive, and to be used for its radioactive properties, but is not incorporated into any manufactured or assembled commodity, product, or device intended for commercial distribution; and
</P>
<P>(6) The applicant submits copies of prototype labels and brochures and the NRC approves these labels and brochures.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this section relieves the licensee from complying with applicable FDA, other Federal, and State requirements governing drugs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 63640, Dec. 2, 1997, as amended at 66 FR 64738, Dec. 14, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.21a" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.21a   Same: Conditions of license.</HEAD>
<P>Each license issued under § 32.21 of this part is subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The immediate container of the capsule(s) must bear a durable, legible label which:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifies the radioisotope, the physical and chemical form, the quantity of radioactivity of each capsule at a specific date; and
</P>
<P>(2) Bears the words “Radioactive Material.”
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the labeling information required by paragraph (a) of this section, the label affixed to the immediate container, or an accompanying brochure also must:
</P>
<P>(1) State that the contents are exempt from NRC or Agreement State licensing requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Bears the words “Radioactive Material. For “In Vivo” Diagnostic Use Only. This Material Is Not To Be Used for Research Involving Human Subjects and Must Not Be Introduced into Foods, Beverages, Cosmetics, or Other Drugs or Medicinals, or into Products Manufactured for Commercial Distribution. This Material May Be Disposed of in Ordinary Trash.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 63640, Dec. 2, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.22   Self-luminous products containing tritium, krypton-85 or promethium-147: Requirements for license to manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a specific license to manufacture, process, or produce self-luminous products containing tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147, or to initially transfer such products for use pursuant to § 30.19 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the requirements of § 30.33(a) (2) and (3) do not apply to an application for a license to transfer tritium, krypton-85, or promethium-147 in self-luminous products manufactured, processed, or produced pursuant to a license issued by an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant submits sufficient information relating to the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control procedures, labeling or marking, and conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the self-luminous product to demonstrate that the product will meet the safety criteria set forth in § 32.23. The information should include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the product and its intended use or uses.
</P>
<P>(ii) The type and quantity of byproduct material in each unit.
</P>
<P>(iii) Chemical and physical form of the byproduct material in the product and changes in chemical and physical form that may occur during the useful life of the product.
</P>
<P>(iv) Solubility in water and body fluids of the forms of the byproduct material identified in paragraphs (a)(2) (iii) and (xii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Details of construction and design of the product as related to containment and shielding of the byproduct material and other safety features under normal and severe conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the product.
</P>
<P>(vi) Maximum external radiation levels at 5 and 25 centimeters from any external surface of the product, averaged over an area not to exceed 10 square centimeters, and the method of measurement.
</P>
<P>(vii) Degree of access of human beings to the product during normal handling and use.
</P>
<P>(viii) Total quantity of byproduct material expected to be distributed in the product annually.
</P>
<P>(ix) The expected useful life of the product.
</P>
<P>(x) The proposed method of labeling or marking each unit with identification of the manufacturer or initial transferor of the product and the byproduct material in the product.
</P>
<P>(xi) Procedures for prototype testing of the product to demonstrate the effectiveness of the containment, shielding, and other safety features under both normal and severe conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the product.
</P>
<P>(xii) Results of the prototype testing of the product, including any change in the form of the byproduct material contained in the product, the extent to which the byproduct material may be released to the environment, any increase in external radiation levels, and any other changes in safety features.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The estimated external radiation doses and dose commitments relevant to the safety criteria in § 32.23 and the basis for such estimates.
</P>
<P>(xiv) A determination that the probabilities with respect to the doses referred to in § 32.23(d) meet the criteria of that paragraph.
</P>
<P>(xv) Quality control procedures to be followed in the fabrication of production lots of the product and the quality control standards the product will be required to meet.
</P>
<P>(xvi) Any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The Commission determines that the product meets the safety criteria in § 32.23; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The product has been evaluated by the NRC and registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the Commission may deny an application for a specific license under this section if the end uses of the product cannot be reasonably foreseen.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 9026, June 6, 1969, as amended at 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 77 FR 43691, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.23   Same: Safety criteria.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant for a license under § 32.22 shall demonstrate that the product is designed and will be manufactured so that:
</P>
<P>(a) In normal use and disposal of a single exempt unit, it is unlikely that the external radiation dose in any one year, or the dose commitment resulting from the intake of radioactive material in any one year, to a suitable sample of the group of individuals expected to be most highly exposed to radiation or radioactive material from the product will exceed the dose to the appropriate organ as specified in Column I of the table in § 32.24 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In normal handling and storage of the quantities of exempt units likely to accumulate in one location during marketing, distribution, installation, and servicing of the product, it is unlikely that the external radiation dose in any one year, or the dose commitment resulting from the intake of radioactive material in any one year, to a suitable sample of the group of individuals expected to be most highly exposed to radiation or radioactive material from the product will exceed the dose to the appropriate organ as specified in Column II of the table in § 32.24.
</P>
<P>(c) It is unlikely that there will be a significant reduction in the effectiveness of the containment, shielding, or other safety features of the product from wear and abuse likely to occur in normal handling and use of the product during its useful life.
</P>
<P>(d) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> In use and disposal of a single exempt unit, or in handling and storage of the quantities of exempt units likely to accumulate in one location during marketing, distribution, installation, and servicing of the product, the probability is low that the containment, shielding, or other safety features of the product would fail under such circumstances that a person would receive an external radiation dose or dose commitment in excess of the dose to the appropriate organ as specified in Column III of the table in § 32.24, and the probability is negligible that a person would receive an external radiation dose or dose commitment in excess of the dose to the appropriate organ as specified in Column IV of the table in § 32.24.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> It is the intent of this paragraph that as the magnitude of the potential dose increases above that permitted under normal conditions, the probability that any individual will receive such a dose must decrease. The probabilities have been expressed in general terms to emphasize the approximate nature of the estimates which are to be made. The following values may be used as guides in estimating compliance with the criteria:
</P>
<P>Low—not more than one such failure per year for each 10,000 exempt units distributed.
</P>
<P>Negligible—not more than one such failure per year for each 1 million exempt units distributed.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 9027, June 6, 1969]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.24" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.24   Same: Table of organ doses.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Part of body
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column I (rem)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column II (rem)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column III (rem)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column IV (rem)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole body; head and trunk: active blood-forming organs; gonads: or lens of eye</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hands and forearms; feet and ankles; localized areas of skin averaged over areas no larger than 1 square centimeter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other organs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 9329, June 13, 1969]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.25   Conditions of licenses issued under § 32.22: Quality control, labeling, and reports of transfer.</HEAD>
<P>Each person licensed under § 32.22 shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Carry out adequate control procedures in the manufacture of the product to assure that each production lot meets the quality control standards approved by the Commission;
</P>
<P>(b) Label or mark each unit so that the manufacturer, processor, producer, or initial transferor of the product and the byproduct material in the product can be identified; and
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain records of all transfers and file a report with the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, including in the address: ATTN: Document Control Desk/Exempt Distribution.
</P>
<P>(1) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) The report must indicate that the products are transferred for use under § 30.19 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(3) The report must include the following information on products transferred to other persons for use under § 30.19 or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State:
</P>
<P>(i) A description or identification of the type of each product and the model number(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) For each radionuclide in each type of product and each model number, the total quantity of the radionuclide;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of units of each type of product transferred during the reporting period by model number.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The licensee shall file the report, covering the preceding calendar year, on or before January 31 of each year. In its first report after December 17, 2007, the licensee shall separately include data for transfers in prior years not previously reported to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees who permanently discontinue activities authorized by the license issued under § 32.22 shall file a report for the current calendar year within 30 days after ceasing distribution.
</P>
<P>(5) If no transfers of byproduct material have been made under § 32.22 during the reporting period, the report must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall maintain the record of a transfer for one year after the transfer is included in a report to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 9027, June 6, 1969, as amended at 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 48 FR 12334, Mar. 24, 1983; 68 FR 58804, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 58488, Oct. 16, 2007; 73 FR 5719, Jan. 31, 2008; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.26   Gas and aerosol detectors containing byproduct material: Requirements for license to manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to manufacture, process, or produce gas and aerosol detectors containing byproduct material and designed to protect health, safety, or property, or to initially transfer such products for use under § 30.20 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the requirements of § 30.33(a) (2) and (3) do not apply to an application for a license to transfer byproduct material in gas and aerosol detectors manufactured, processed or produced pursuant to a license issued by an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits sufficient information relating to the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control procedures, labeling or marking, and conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the gas and aerosol detector to demonstrate that the product will meet the safety criteria set forth in § 32.27. The information should include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the product and its intended use or uses;
</P>
<P>(2) The type and quantity of byproduct material in each unit;
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical and physical form of the byproduct material in the product and changes in chemical and physical form that may occur during the useful life of the product;
</P>
<P>(4) Solubility in water and body fluids of the forms of the byproduct material identified in paragraphs (b) (3) and (12) of this section;
</P>
<P>(5) Details of construction and design of the product as related to containment and shielding of the byproduct material and other safety features under normal and severe conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the product;
</P>
<P>(6) Maximum external radiation levels at 5 and 25 centimeters from any external surface of the product, averaged over an area not to exceed 10 square centimeters, and the method of measurement;
</P>
<P>(7) Degree of access of human beings to the product during normal handling and use;
</P>
<P>(8) Total quantity of byproduct material expected to be distributed in the product annually;
</P>
<P>(9) The expected useful life of the product;
</P>
<P>(10) The proposed methods of labeling or marking the detector and its point-of-sale package to satisfy the requirements of § 32.29(b);
</P>
<P>(11) Procedures for prototype testing of the product to demonstrate the effectiveness of the containment, shielding, and other safety features under both normal and severe conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the product;
</P>
<P>(12) Results of the prototype testing of the product, including any change in the form of the byproduct material contained in the product, the extent to which the byproduct material may be released to the environment, any increase in external radiation levels, and any other changes in safety features;
</P>
<P>(13) The estimated external radiation doses and dose commitments relevant to the safety criteria in § 32.27 and the basis for such estimates;
</P>
<P>(14) A determination that the probabilities with respect to the doses referred to in § 32.27(c) meet the criteria of that paragraph;
</P>
<P>(15) Quality control procedures to be followed in the fabrication of production lots of the product and the quality control standards the product will be required to meet; and
</P>
<P>(16) Any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Commission determines that the product meets the safety criteria in § 32.27; and
</P>
<P>(2) The product has been evaluated by the NRC and registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 6653, Apr. 18, 1969, as amended at 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 45 FR 38342, June 9, 1980; 77 FR 43691, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.27   Same: Safety criteria.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant for a license under § 32.26 shall demonstrate that the product is designed and will be manufactured so that:
</P>
<P>(a) In normal use and disposal of a single exempt unit, and in normal handling and storage of the quantities of exempt units likely to accumulate in one location during marketing, distribution, installation, and servicing of the product, it is unlikely that the external radiation dose in any one year, or the dose commitment resulting from the intake of radioactive material in any one year, to a suitable sample of the group of individuals expected to be most highly exposed to radiation or radioactive material from the product will exceed the dose to the appropriate organ as specified in Column I of the table in § 32.28.
</P>
<P>(b) It is unlikely that there will be a significant reduction in the effectiveness of the containment, shielding, or other safety features of the product from wear and abuse likely to occur in normal handling and use of the product during its useful life.
</P>
<P>(c) In use and disposal of a single exempt unit and in handling and storage of the quantities of exempt units likely to accumulate in one location during marketing, distribution, installation, and servicing of the product, the probability is low that the containment, shielding, or other safety features of the product would fail under such circumstances that a person would receive an external radiation dose or dose commitment in excess of the dose to the appropriate organ as specified in Column II of the table in § 32.28, and the probability is negligible that a person would receive an external radiation dose or dose commitment in excess of the dose to the appropriate organ as specified in Column III of the table in § 32.28. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> It is the intent of this paragraph that as the magnitude of the potential dose increases above that permitted under normal conditions, the probability that any individual will receive such a dose must decrease. The probabilities have been expressed in general terms to emphasize the approximate nature of the estimates which are to be made. The following values may be used as guides in estimating compliance with the criteria:
</P>
<P>Low—not more than one such failure per year for each 10,000 exempt units distributed.
</P>
<P>Negligible—not more than one such failure per year for each one million exempt units distributed.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 6654, Apr. 18, 1969]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.28" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.28   Same: Table of organ doses.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Part of body
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column I (rem)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column II (rem)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column III (rem)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole body; head and trunk; active blood-forming organs; gonads; or lens of eye</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hands and forearms; feet and ankles; localized areas of skin averaged over areas no larger than 1 square centimeter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other organs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 6654, Apr. 18, 1969]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.29   Conditions of licenses issued under § 32.26: Quality control, labeling, and reports of transfer.</HEAD>
<P>Each person licensed under § 32.26 shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Carry out adequate control procedures in the manufacture of the product to assure that each production lot meets the quality control standards approved by the Commission;
</P>
<P>(b) Label or mark each detector and its point-of-sale package so that:
</P>
<P>(1) Each detector has a durable, legible, readily visible label or marking on the external surface of the detector containing:
</P>
<P>(i) The following statement: “CONTAINS RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the radionuclide and quantity of activity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An identification of the person licensed under § 32.26 to transfer the detector for use pursuant to § 30.20 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(2) The labeling or marking specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is located where its will be readily visible when the detector is removed from its mounting.
</P>
<P>(3) The external surface of the point-of-sale package has a legible, readily visible label or marking containing:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the radionuclide and quantity of activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) An identification of the person licensed under § 32.26 to transfer the detector for use pursuant to § 30.20 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The following or a substantially similar statement:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>THIS DETECTOR CONTAINS RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL AND HAS BEEN MANUFACTURED IN COMPLIANCE WITH U.S. NRC SAFETY CRITERIA IN 10 CFR 32.27. THE PURCHASER IS EXEMPT FROM ANY REGULATORY REQUIREMENTS.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Each detector and point-of-sale package is provided with such other information as may be required by the Commission; and
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain records of all transfers and file a report with the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, including in the address: ATTN: Document Control Desk/Exempt Distribution.
</P>
<P>(1) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) The report must indicate that the products are transferred for use under § 30.20 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(3) The report must include the following information on products transferred to other persons for use under § 30.20 or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State:
</P>
<P>(i) A description or identification of the type of each product and the model number(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) For each radionuclide in each type of product and each model number, the total quantity of the radionuclide;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of units of each type of product transferred during the reporting period by model number.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The licensee shall file the report, covering the preceding calendar year, on or before January 31 of each year. In its first report after December 17, 2007, the licensee shall separately include data for transfers in prior years not previously reported to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees who permanently discontinue activities authorized by the license issued under § 32.26 shall file a report for the current calendar year within 30 days after ceasing distribution.
</P>
<P>(5) If no transfers of byproduct material have been made under § 32.26 during the reporting period, the report must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall maintain the record of a transfer for one year after the transfer is included in a report to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 6654, Apr. 18, 1969, as amended at 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 45 FR 38342, June 9, 1980; 48 FR 12334, Mar. 24, 1983; 72 FR 58488, Oct. 16, 2007; 73 FR 5719, Jan. 31, 2008; 73 FR 42673, July 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.30" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.30   Certain industrial devices containing byproduct material: Requirements for license to manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to manufacture, process, produce, or initially transfer for sale or distribution devices containing byproduct material for use under § 30.22 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements of § 30.33 of this chapter: However, the requirements of § 30.33(a)(2) and (3) do not apply to an application for a license to transfer byproduct material in such industrial devices manufactured, processed, or produced under a license issued by an Agreement State;
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits sufficient information relating to the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control procedures, labeling or marking, and conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the industrial devices to demonstrate that the device will meet the safety criteria set forth in § 32.31. The information should include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the device and its intended use or uses;
</P>
<P>(2) The type and quantity of byproduct material in each unit;
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical and physical form of the byproduct material in the device and changes in chemical and physical form that may occur during the useful life of the device;
</P>
<P>(4) Solubility in water and body fluids of the forms of the byproduct material identified in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(12) of this section;
</P>
<P>(5) Details of construction and design of the device as related to containment and shielding of the byproduct material and other safety features under normal and severe conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the device;
</P>
<P>(6) Maximum external radiation levels at 5 and 30 centimeters from any external surface of the device, averaged over an area not to exceed 10 square centimeters, and the method of measurement;
</P>
<P>(7) Degree of access of human beings to the device during normal handling and use;
</P>
<P>(8) Total quantity of byproduct material expected to be distributed in the devices annually;
</P>
<P>(9) The expected useful life of the device;
</P>
<P>(10) The proposed methods of labeling or marking the device and its point-of-sale package to satisfy the requirements of § 32.32(b);
</P>
<P>(11) Procedures for prototype testing of the device to demonstrate the effectiveness of the containment, shielding, and other safety features under both normal and severe conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the device;
</P>
<P>(12) Results of the prototype testing of the device, including any change in the form of the byproduct material contained in the device, the extent to which the byproduct material may be released to the environment, any increase in external radiation levels, and any other changes in safety features;
</P>
<P>(13) The estimated external radiation doses and committed doses resulting from the intake of byproduct material in any one year relevant to the safety criteria in § 32.31 and the basis for these estimates;
</P>
<P>(14) A determination that the probabilities with respect to the doses referred to in § 32.31(a)(4) meet the criteria of that paragraph;
</P>
<P>(15) Quality control procedures to be followed in the fabrication of production lots of the devices and the quality control standards the devices will be required to meet; and
</P>
<P>(16) Any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Commission determines that the device meets the safety criteria in § 32.31.
</P>
<P>(2) The device is unlikely to be routinely used by members of the general public in a non-occupational environment.
</P>
<P>(3) The device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43691, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.31   Certain industrial devices containing byproduct material: Safety criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant for a license under § 32.30 shall demonstrate that the device is designed and will be manufactured so that:
</P>
<P>(1) In normal use, handling, and storage of the quantities of exempt units likely to accumulate in one location, including during marketing, distribution, installation, and servicing of the device, it is unlikely that the external radiation dose in any one year, or the committed dose resulting from the intake of radioactive material in any one year, to a suitable sample of the group of individuals expected to be most highly exposed to radiation or radioactive material from the device will exceed 200 µSv (20 mrem).
</P>
<P>(2) It is unlikely that the external radiation dose in any one year, or the committed dose resulting from the intake of radioactive material in any one year, to a suitable sample of the group of individuals expected to be most highly exposed to radiation or radioactive material from disposal of the quantities of units likely to accumulate in the same disposal site will exceed 10 µSv (1 mrem).
</P>
<P>(3) It is unlikely that there will be a significant reduction in the effectiveness of the containment, shielding, or other safety features of the device from wear and abuse likely to occur in normal handling and use of the device during its useful life.
</P>
<P>(4) In use, handling, storage, and disposal of the quantities of exempt units likely to accumulate in one location, including during marketing, distribution, installation, and servicing of the device, the probability is low that the containment, shielding, or other safety features of the device would fail under such circumstances that a person would receive an external radiation dose or committed dose in excess of 5 mSv (500 mrem), and the probability is negligible that a person would receive an external radiation dose or committed dose of 100 mSv (10 rem) or greater.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> It is the intent of this paragraph that as the magnitude of the potential dose increases above that permitted under normal conditions, the probability that any individual will receive such a dose must decrease. The probabilities have been expressed in general terms to emphasize the approximate nature of the estimates that are to be made. The following values may be used as guides in estimating compliance with the criteria: Low—not more than one such failure/incident per year for each 10,000 exempt units distributed. Negligible—not more than one such failure/incident per year for each one million exempt units distributed.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) An applicant for a license under § 32.30 shall demonstrate that, even in unlikely scenarios of misuse, including those resulting in direct exposure to the unshielded source removed from the device for 1,000 hours at an average distance of 1 meter and those resulting in dispersal and subsequent intake of 10<E T="51">−4</E> of the quantity of byproduct material (or in the case of tritium, an intake of 10 percent), a person will not receive an external radiation dose or committed dose in excess of 100 mSv (10 rem), and, if the unshielded source is small enough to fit in a pocket, that the dose to localized areas of skin averaged over areas no larger than 1 square centimeter from carrying the unshielded source in a pocket for 80 hours will not exceed 2 Sv (200 rem).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43692, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.1.91.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.32   Conditions of licenses issued under § 32.30: Quality control, labeling, and reports of transfer.</HEAD>
<P>Each person licensed under § 32.30 shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Carry out adequate control procedures in the manufacture of the device to ensure that each production lot meets the quality control standards approved by the Commission;
</P>
<P>(b) Label or mark each device and its point-of-sale package so that:
</P>
<P>(1) Each item has a durable, legible, readily visible label or marking on the external surface of the device containing:
</P>
<P>(i) The following statement: “CONTAINS RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the radionuclide(s) and quantity(ies) of activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) An identification of the person licensed under § 32.30 to transfer the device for use under § 30.22 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Instructions and precautions necessary to assure safe installation, operation, and servicing of the device (documents such as operating and service manuals may be identified in the label and used to provide this information).
</P>
<P>(2) The external surface of the point-of-sale package has a legible, readily visible label or marking containing:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the radionuclide and quantity of activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) An identification of the person licensed under § 32.30 to transfer the device for use under § 30.22 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The following or a substantially similar statement: “THIS DEVICE CONTAINS RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL AND HAS BEEN MANUFACTURED IN COMPLIANCE WITH U.S. NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION SAFETY CRITERIA IN 10 CFR 32.31. THE PURCHASER IS EXEMPT FROM ANY REGULATORY REQUIREMENTS.”
</P>
<P>(3) Each device and point-of-sale package contains such other information as may be required by the Commission; and
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain records of all transfers and file a report with the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, including in the address: ATTN: Document Control Desk/Exempt Distribution.
</P>
<P>(1) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) The report must indicate that the devices are transferred for use under § 30.22 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(3) The report must include the following information on devices transferred to other persons for use under § 30.22 or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State:
</P>
<P>(i) A description or identification of the type of each device and the model number(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) For each radionuclide in each type of device and each model number, the total quantity of the radionuclide; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of units of each type of device transferred during the reporting period by model number.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The licensee shall file the report, covering the preceding calendar year, on or before January 31 of each year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees who permanently discontinue activities authorized by the license issued under § 32.30 shall file a report for the current calendar year within 30 days after ceasing distribution.
</P>
<P>(5) If no transfers of byproduct material have been made under § 32.30 during the reporting period, the report must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall maintain the record of a transfer for a period of one year after the transfer is included in a report to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43692, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Generally Licensed Items</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.51   Byproduct material contained in devices for use under § 31.5; requirements for license to manufacture, or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a specific license to manufacture, or initially transfer devices containing byproduct material to persons generally licensed under § 31.5 of this chapter or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant satisfies the general requirements of § 30.33 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant submits sufficient information relating to the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control, labels, proposed uses, installation, servicing, leak testing, operating and safety instructions, and potential hazards of the device to provide reasonable assurance that:
</P>
<P>(i) The device can be safely operated by persons not having training in radiological protection;
</P>
<P>(ii) Under ordinary conditions of handling, storage, and use of the device, the byproduct material contained in the device will not be released or inadvertently removed from the device, and it is unlikely that any person will receive in 1 year a dose in excess of 10 percent of the annual limits specified in § 20.1201(a) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Under accident conditions (such as fire and explosion) associated with handling, storage and use of the device, it is unlikely that any person would receive an external radiation dose or dose commitment in excess of the dose to the appropriate organ as specified in Column IV of the table in § 32.24.
</P>
<P>(3) Each device bears a durable, legible, clearly visible label or labels approved by the Commission which contain in a clearly identified and separate statement:
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions and precautions necessary to assure safe installation, operation, and servicing of the device (documents such as operating and service manuals may be identified in the label and used to provide this information);
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirements, or lack of requirement, for leak testing, or for testing any on-off mechanism and indicator, including the maximum time interval for such testing, and the identification of radioactive material by isotope, quantity of radioactivity, and date of determination of the quantity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The information called for in the following statement in the same or substantially similar form: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Devices licensed under § 32.51 prior to January 19, 1975 may bear labels authorized by the regulations in effect on January 1, 1975.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this device Model ____ 
<SU>2</SU>,
<FTREF/> Serial No.___ 
<SU>2</SU>, are subject to a general license or the equivalent and the regulations of the U.S. NRC or of a State with which the NRC has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. This label shall be maintained on the device in a legible condition. Removal of this label is prohibited.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The model, serial number, and the name of the manufacturer, or initial transferor may be omitted from this label provided the information is elsewhere specified in labeling affixed to the device.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>CAUTION—RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of manufacturer, or initial transferor) 
<SU>2</SU></FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Each device having a separable source housing that provides the primary shielding for the source also bears, on the source housing, a durable label containing the device model number and serial number, the isotope and quantity, the words, “Caution-Radioactive Material,” the radiation symbol described in § 20.1901 of this chapter, and the name of the manufacturer or initial distributor.
</P>
<P>(5) Each device meeting the criteria of § 31.5(c)(13)(i) of this chapter, bears a permanent (e.g., embossed, etched, stamped, or engraved) label affixed to the source housing if separable, or the device if the source housing is not separable, that includes the words, “Caution-Radioactive Material,” and, if practicable, the radiation symbol described in § 20.1901 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) The device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event the applicant desires that the device be required to be tested at intervals longer than six months, either for proper operation of the on-off mechanism and indicator, if any, or for leakage of radioactive material or for both, he shall include in this application sufficient information to demonstrate that such longer interval is justified by performance characteristics of the device or similar devices, and by design features which have a significant bearing on the probability or consequences of leakage of radioactive material from the device or failure of the on-off mechanism and indicator. In determining the acceptable interval for the test for leakage of radioactive material, the Commission will consider information which includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Primary containment (source capsule);
</P>
<P>(2) Protection of primary containment;
</P>
<P>(3) Method of sealing containment;
</P>
<P>(4) Containment construction materials;
</P>
<P>(5) Form of contained radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(6) Maximum temperature withstood during prototype tests;
</P>
<P>(7) Maximum pressure withstood during prototype tests;
</P>
<P>(8) Maximum quantity of contained radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(9) Radiotoxicity of contained radioactive material; and
</P>
<P>(10) Operating experience with identical devices or similarly designed and constructed devices.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event the applicant desires that the general licensee under § 31.5 of this chapter, or under equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, be authorized to install the device, collect the sample to be analyzed by a specific licensee for leakage of radioactive material, service the device, test the on-off mechanism and indicator, or remove the device from installation, the applicant shall include in the application written instructions to be followed by the general licensee, estimated calendar quarter doses associated with such activity or activities, and the bases for these estimates. The submitted information must demonstrate that performance of this activity or activities by an individual untrained in radiological protection, in addition to other handling, storage, and use of devices under the general license, is unlikely to cause that individual to receive a dose in excess of 10 percent of the annual limits specified in § 20.1201(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 43533, Dec. 16, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 8785, Mar. 3, 1975; 42 FR 25721, May 19, 1977; 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 58 FR 67660, Dec. 22, 1993; 59 FR 5520, Feb. 7, 1994; 65 FR 79189, Dec. 18, 2000; 77 FR 43693, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.51a" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.51a   Same: Conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a device containing byproduct material is to be transferred for use under the general license contained in § 31.5 of this chapter, each person that is licensed under § 32.51 shall provide the information specified in this paragraph to each person to whom a device is to be transferred. This information must be provided before the device may be transferred. In the case of a transfer through an intermediate person, the information must also be provided to the intended user prior to initial transfer to the intermediate person. The required information includes—
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the general license contained in § 31.5 of this chapter; if paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) or (c)(13) of § 31.5 do not apply to the particular device, those paragraphs may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of §§ 31.2, 30.51, 20.2201, and 20.2202 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the services that can only be performed by a specific licensee; 
</P>
<P>(4) Information on acceptable disposal options including estimated costs of disposal; and
</P>
<P>(5) An indication that NRC's policy is to issue high civil penalties for improper disposal. 
</P>
<P>(b) If byproduct material is to be transferred in a device for use under an equivalent general license of an Agreement State, each person that is licensed under § 32.51 shall provide the information specified in this paragraph to each person to whom a device is to be transferred. This information must be provided before the device may be transferred. In the case of a transfer through an intermediate person, the information must also be provided to the intended user prior to initial transfer to the intermediate person. The required information includes—
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the Agreement State's regulations equivalent to §§ 31.5, 31.2, 30.51, 20.2201, and 20.2202 of this chapter or a copy of §§ 31.5, 31.2, 30.51, 20.2201, and 20.2202 of this chapter. If a copy of the NRC regulations is provided to a prospective general licensee in lieu of the Agreement State's regulations, it shall be accompanied by a note explaining that use of the device is regulated by the Agreement State; if certain paragraphs of the regulations do not apply to the particular device, those paragraphs may be omitted. 
</P>
<P>(2) A list of the services that can only be performed by a specific licensee; 
</P>
<P>(3) Information on acceptable disposal options including estimated costs of disposal; and
</P>
<P>(4) The name or title, address, and phone number of the contact at the Agreement State regulatory agency from which additional information may be obtained. 
</P>
<P>(c) An alternative approach to informing customers may be proposed by the licensee for approval by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each device that is transferred after February 19, 2002 must meet the labeling requirements in § 32.51(a)(3) through (5). 
</P>
<P>(e) If a notification of bankruptcy has been made under § 30.34(h) or the license is to be terminated, each person licensed under § 32.51 shall provide, upon request, to the NRC and to any appropriate Agreement State, records of final disposition required under § 32.52(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 79189, Dec. 18, 2000; 65 FR 80991, Dec. 22, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.52" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.52   Same: material transfer reports and records.</HEAD>
<P>Each person licensed under § 32.51 to initially transfer devices to generally licensed persons shall comply with the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(a) The person shall report to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , ATTN: GLTS, by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, all transfers of such devices to persons for use under the general license in § 31.5 of this chapter and all receipts of devices from persons licensed under § 31.5 of this chapter. The report must be submitted on a quarterly basis on NRC Form 653—“Transfers of Industrial Devices Report” or in a clear and legible report containing all of the data required by the form.
</P>
<P>(1) The required information for transfers to general licensees includes— 
</P>
<P>(i) The identity of each general licensee by name and mailing address for the location of use; if there is no mailing address for the location of use, an alternate address for the general licensee shall be submitted along with information on the actual location of use. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The name, title, and phone number of the person identified by the general licensee as having knowledge of and authority to take required actions to ensure compliance with the appropriate regulations and requirements; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of transfer; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The type, model number, and serial number of the device transferred; and
</P>
<P>(v) The quantity and type of byproduct material contained in the device. 
</P>
<P>(2) If one or more intermediate persons will temporarily possess the device at the intended place of use before its possession by the user, the report must include the same information for both the intended user and each intermediate person, and clearly designate the intermediate person(s). 
</P>
<P>(3) For devices received from a § 31.5 general licensee, the report must include the identity of the general licensee by name and address, the type, model number, and serial number of the device received, the date of receipt, and, in the case of devices not initially transferred by the reporting licensee, the name of the manufacturer or initial transferor. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the licensee makes changes to a device possessed by a § 31.5 general licensee, such that the label must be changed to update required information, the report must identify the general licensee, the device, and the changes to information on the device label. 
</P>
<P>(5) The report must cover each calendar quarter, must be filed within 30 days of the end of the calendar quarter, and must clearly indicate the period covered by the report. 
</P>
<P>(6) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee. 
</P>
<P>(7) If no transfers have been made to or from persons generally licensed under § 31.5 of this chapter during the reporting period, the report must so indicate. 
</P>
<P>(b) The person shall report all transfers of devices to persons for use under a general license in an Agreement State's regulations that are equivalent to § 31.5 of this chapter and all receipts of devices from general licensees in the Agreement State's jurisdiction to the responsible Agreement State agency. The report must be submitted on Form 653—“Transfers of Industrial Devices Report” or in a clear and legible report containing all of the data required by the form. 
</P>
<P>(1) The required information for transfers to general licensees includes— 
</P>
<P>(i) The identity of each general licensee by name and mailing address for the location of use; if there is no mailing address for the location of use, an alternate address for the general licensee shall be submitted along with information on the actual location of use. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The name, title, and phone number of the person identified by the general licensee as having knowledge of and authority to take required actions to ensure compliance with the appropriate regulations and requirements; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of transfer; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The type, model number, and serial number of the device transferred; and
</P>
<P>(v) The quantity and type of byproduct material contained in the device. 
</P>
<P>(2) If one or more intermediate persons will temporarily possess the device at the intended place of use before its possession by the user, the report must include the same information for both the intended user and each intermediate person, and clearly designate the intermediate person(s). 
</P>
<P>(3) For devices received from a general licensee, the report must include the identity of the general licensee by name and address, the type, model number, and serial number of the device received, the date of receipt, and, in the case of devices not initially transferred by the reporting licensee, the name of the manufacturer or initial transferor.
</P>
<P>(4) If the licensee makes changes to a device possessed by a general licensee, such that the label must be changed to update required information, the report must identify the general licensee, the device, and the changes to information on the device label.
</P>
<P>(5) The report must cover each calendar quarter, must be filed within 30 days of the end of the calendar quarter, and must clearly indicate the period covered by the report.
</P>
<P>(6) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and must include the license number of the specific licensee.
</P>
<P>(7) If no transfers have been made to or from a particular Agreement State during the reporting period, this information shall be reported to the responsible Agreement State agency upon request of the agency.
</P>
<P>(c) The person shall maintain all information concerning transfers and receipts of devices that supports the reports required by this section. Records required by this paragraph must be maintained for a period of 3 years following the date of the recorded event.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 79189, Dec. 18, 2000, as amended at 68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5719, Jan. 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.53   Luminous safety devices for use in aircraft: Requirements for license to manufacture, assemble, repair or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to manufacture, assemble, repair or initially transfer luminous safety devices containing tritium or promethium-147 for use in aircraft, for distribution to persons generally licensed under § 31.7 of this chapter, will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits sufficient information regarding each device pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Chemical and physical form and maximum quantity of tritium or promethium-147 in each device;
</P>
<P>(2) Details of construction and design;
</P>
<P>(3) Details of the method of binding or containing the tritium or promethium-147;
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures for and results of prototype testing to demonstrate that the tritium or promethium-147 will not be released to the environment under the most severe conditions likely to be encountered in normal use;
</P>
<P>(5) Quality assurance procedures to be followed that are sufficient to ensure compliance with § 32.55;
</P>
<P>(6) Any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the Commission to facilitate a determination of the safety of the device.
</P>
<P>(c) Each device will contain no more than 10 curies of tritium or 300 millicuries of promethium-147. The levels of radiation from each device containing promethium-147 will not exceed 0.5 millirad per hour at 10 centimeters from any surface when measured through 50 milligrams per square centimeter of absorber.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The method of incorporation and binding of the tritium or promethium-147 in the device is such that the tritium or promethium-147 will not be released under the most severe conditions which are likely to be encountered in normal use and handling of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) The tritium or promethium-147 is incorporated or enclosed so as to preclude direct physical contact by any person with it;
</P>
<P>(3) The device is so designed that it cannot easily be disassembled; and
</P>
<P>(4) Prototypes of the device have been subjected to and have satisfactorily passed the tests required by paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) The applicant shall subject at least five prototypes of the device to tests as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The devices are subjected to tests that adequately take into account the individual, aggregate, and cumulative effects of environmental conditions expected in service that could adversely affect the effective containment of tritium or promethium-147, such as temperature, moisture, absolute pressure, water immersion, vibration, shock, and weathering.
</P>
<P>(2) The devices are inspected for evidence of physical damage and for loss of tritium or promethium-147, after each stage of testing, using methods of inspection adequate for determining compliance with the criteria in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Device designs are rejected for which the following has been detected for any unit:
</P>
<P>(i) A leak resulting in a loss of 0.1 percent or more of the original amount of tritium or promethium-147 from the device; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Surface contamination of tritium or promethium-147 on the device of more than 2,200 disintegrations per minute per 100 square centimeters of surface area; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other evidence of physical damage.
</P>
<P>(f) The device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8192, June 26, 1965, as amended at 33 FR 6463, Apr. 27, 1968; 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 77 FR 43693, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.54" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.54   Same: Labeling of devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person licensed under § 32.53 to manufacture, assemble, or initially transfer devices containing tritium or promethium-147 for distribution to persons generally licensed under § 31.7 of this chapter shall, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, affix to each device a label containing the radiation symbol prescribed by § 20.1901 of this chapter, such other information as may be required by the Commission including disposal instructions when appropriate, and the following or a substantially similar statement which contains the information called for in the following statement: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Devices licensed under § 32.53 prior to January 19, 1975 may bear labels authorized by the regulations in effect on January 1, 1975.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this device, Model* _______, Serial No.* ___, containing ______ (Identity and quantity of radioactive material) are subject to a general license or the equivalent and the regulations of the U.S. NRC or of a State with which the NRC has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label.
</P>
<HD1>CAUTION—RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of manufacturer, assembler, or initial transferor.)*
</FP>
<P>*The model, serial number, and name of manufacturer, assembler, or initial transferor may be omitted from this label provided they are elsewhere specified in labeling affixed to the device.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) If the Commission determines that it is not feasible to affix a label to the device containing all the information called for in paragraph (a) of this section, it may waive the requirements of that paragraph and require in lieu thereof that:
</P>
<P>(1) A label be affixed to the device identifying:
</P>
<P>(i) The manufacturer, assembler, or initial transferor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of radioactive material; and
</P>
<P>(2) A leaflet bearing the following information be enclosed in or accompany the container in which the device is shipped:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the manufacturer, assembler, or initial transferor,
</P>
<P>(ii) The type and quantity of radioactive material,
</P>
<P>(iii) The model number,
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the receipt, possession, use, and transfer of the device are subject to a general license or the equivalent and the regulations of the U.S. NRC or of an Agreement State, and
</P>
<P>(v) Such other information as may be required by the Commission, including disposal instructions when appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 16331, Nov. 7, 1968, as amended at 40 FR 8785, Mar. 3, 1975; 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 63 FR 39483, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.55   Same: Quality assurance, prohibition of transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 32.53 shall visually inspect each device and shall reject any that has an observable physical defect that could adversely affect containment of the tritium or promethium-147.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person licensed under § 32.53 shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain quality assurance systems in the manufacture of the luminous safety device in a manner sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the safety-related components of the distributed devices are capable of performing their intended functions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Subject inspection lots to acceptance sampling procedures, by procedures specified in paragraph (c) of this section and in the license issued under § 32.53, to provide at least 95 percent confidence that the Lot Tolerance Percent Defective of 5.0 percent will not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall subject each inspection lot to:
</P>
<P>(1) Tests that adequately take into account the individual, aggregate, and cumulative effects of environmental conditions expected in service that could adversely affect the effective containment of tritium or promethium-147, such as absolute pressure and water immersion.
</P>
<P>(2) Inspection for evidence of physical damage, containment failure, or for loss of tritium or promethium-147 after each stage of testing, using methods of inspection adequate for applying the following criteria for defective:
</P>
<P>(i) A leak resulting in a loss of 0.1 percent or more of the original amount of tritium or promethium-147 from the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Levels of radiation in excess of 5 microgray (0.5 millirad) per hour at 10 centimeters from any surface when measured through 50 milligrams per square centimeter of absorber, if the device contains promethium-147; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other criteria specified in the license issued under § 32.53.
</P>
<P>(d) No person licensed under § 32.53 shall transfer to persons generally licensed under § 31.7 of this chapter, or under an equivalent general license of an Agreement State:
</P>
<P>(1) Any luminous safety device tested and found defective under any condition of a license issued under § 32.53, or paragraph (b) of this section, unless the defective luminous safety device has been repaired or reworked, retested, and determined by an independent inspector to meet the applicable acceptance criteria; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any luminous safety device contained within any lot that has been sampled and rejected as a result of the procedures in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) A procedure for defining sub-lot size, independence, and additional testing procedures is contained in the license issued under § 32.53; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each individual sub-lot is sampled, tested, and accepted in accordance with paragraphs (b)(2) and (d)(2)(i) of this section and any other criteria that may be required as a condition of the license issued under § 32.53.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43693, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.56" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.56   Same: Material transfer reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 32.53 shall file an annual report with the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , ATTN: Document Control Desk/GLTS, by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, which must state the total quantity of tritium or promethium-147 transferred to persons generally licensed under § 31.7 of this chapter. The report must identify each general licensee by name, state the kinds and numbers of luminous devices transferred, and specify the quantity of tritium or promethium-147 in each kind of device. Each report must cover the year ending June 30 and must be filed within thirty (30) days thereafter. If no transfers have been made to persons generally licensed under § 31.7 of this chapter during the reporting period, the report must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person licensed under § 32.53 shall report annually all transfers of devices to persons for use under a general license in an Agreement State's regulations that are equivalent to § 31.7 of this chapter to the responsible Agreement State agency. The report must state the total quantity of tritium or promethium-147 transferred, identify each general licensee by name, state the kinds and numbers of luminous devices transferred, and specify the quantity of tritium or promethium-147 in each kind of device. If no transfers have been made to a particular Agreement State during the reporting period, this information must be reported to the responsible Agreement State agency upon request of the agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43694, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.57" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.57   Calibration or reference sources containing americium-241 or radium-226: Requirements for license to manufacture or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to manufacture or initially transfer calibration or reference sources containing americium-241 or radium-226, for distribution to persons generally licensed under § 31.8 of this chapter, will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements of § 30.33 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits sufficient information regarding each type of calibration or reference source pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Chemical and physical form and maximum quantity of americium 241 or radium-226 in the source;
</P>
<P>(2) Details of construction and design;
</P>
<P>(3) Details of the method of incorporation and binding of the americium-241 or radium-226 in the source;
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures for and results of prototype testing of sources, which are designed to contain more than 0.005 microcurie of americium-241 or radium-226, to demonstrate that the americium-241 or radium-226 contained in each source will not be released or be removed from the source under normal conditions of use;
</P>
<P>(5) Details of quality control procedures to be followed in manufacture of the source;
</P>
<P>(6) Description of labeling to be affixed to the source or the storage container for the source;
</P>
<P>(7) Any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the Commission to facilitate a determination of the safety of the source.
</P>
<P>(c) Each source will contain no more than 5 microcuries of americium-241 or radium-226.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission determines, with respect to any type of source containing more than 0.005 microcurie of americium-241 or radium-226, that:
</P>
<P>(1) The method of incorporation and binding of the americium-241 or radium-226 in the source is such that the americium-241 or radium-226 will not be released or be removed from the source under normal conditions of use and handling of the source; and
</P>
<P>(2) The source has been subjected to and has satisfactorily passed appropriate tests required by paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) The applicant shall subject at least five prototypes of each source that is designed to contain more than 0.185 kilobecquerel (0.005 microcurie) of americium-241 or radium-226 to tests as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The initial quantity of radioactive material deposited on each source is measured by direct counting of the source.
</P>
<P>(2) The sources are subjected to tests that adequately take into account the individual, aggregate, and cumulative effects of environmental conditions expected in service that could adversely affect the effective containment or binding of americium-241 or radium-226, such as physical handling, moisture, and water immersion.
</P>
<P>(3) The sources are inspected for evidence of physical damage and for loss of americium-241 or radium-226, after each stage of testing, using methods of inspection adequate for determining compliance with the criteria in paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Source designs are rejected for which the following has been detected for any unit: Removal of more than 0.185 kilobecquerel (0.005 microcurie) of americium-241 or radium-226 from the source or any other evidence of physical damage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 8192, June 26, 1965, as amended at 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 72 FR 55928, Oct. 1, 2007; 73 FR 42674, July 23, 2008; 77 FR 43694, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.58" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.58   Same: Labeling of devices.</HEAD>
<P>Each person licensed under § 32.57 shall affix to each source, or storage container for the source, a label which shall contain sufficient information relative to safe use and storage of the source and shall include the following statement or a substantially similar statement which contains the information called for in the following statement: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Sources licensed under § 32.57 before January 19, 1975, may bear labels authorized by the regulations in effect on January 1, 1975.</P></FTNT>
<P>The receipt, possession, use, and transfer of this source, Model, Serial No., are subject to a general license and the regulations of the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission or of a State with which the Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>CAUTION-RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL-THIS SOURCE CONTAINS AMERICIUM-241 (or RADIUM-226). DO NOT TOUCH RADIOACTIVE PORTION OF THIS SOURCE
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of manufacturer or initial transferor)</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 55929, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.59" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.59   Same: Leak testing of each source.</HEAD>
<P>Each person licensed under § 32.57 shall perform a dry wipe test upon each source containing more than 3.7 kilobecquerels (0.1 microcurie) of americium-241 or radium-226 before transferring the source to a general licensee under § 31.8 of this chapter or under equivalent regulations of an Agreement State. This test must be performed by wiping the entire radioactive surface of the source with a filter paper with the application of moderate finger pressure. The radioactivity on the filter paper must be measured using methods capable of detecting 0.185 kilobecquerel (0.005 microcurie) of americium-241 or radium-226. If a source has been shown to be leaking or losing more than 0.185 kilobecquerel (0.005 microcurie) of americium-241 or radium-226 by the methods described in this section, the source must be rejected and must not be transferred to a general licensee under § 31.8 of this chapter, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43694, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.60" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.61   Ice detection devices containing strontium-90; requirements for license to manufacture or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to manufacture or initially transfer ice detection devices containing strontium-90 for distribution to persons generally licensed under § 31.10 of this chapter will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits sufficient information regarding each type of device pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Chemical and physical form and maximum quantity of strontium-90 in the device;
</P>
<P>(2) Details of construction and design of the source of radiation and its shielding;
</P>
<P>(3) Radiation profile of a prototype device;
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures for and results of prototype testing of devices to demonstrate that the strontium-90 contained in each device will not be released or be removed from the device under the most severe conditions likely to be encountered in normal handling and use;
</P>
<P>(5) Details of quality control procedures to be followed in manufacture of the device;
</P>
<P>(6) Description of labeling to be affixed to the device;
</P>
<P>(7) Instructions for handling and installation of the device;
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the Commission to facilitate a determination of the safety of the device;
</P>
<P>(c) Each device will contain no more than 50 microcuries of strontium-90 in an insoluble form;
</P>
<P>(d) Each device will bear durable, legible labeling which includes the radiation caution symbol prescribed by § 20.1901(a) of this chapter, a statement that the device contains strontium-90 and the quantity thereof, instructions for disposal and statements that the device may be possessed pursuant to a general license, that the manufacturer or civil authorities should be notified if the device is found, that removal of the labeling is prohibited and that disassembly and repair of the device may be performed only by a person holding a specific license to manufacture or service such devices;
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The method of incorporation and binding of the strontium-90 in the device is such that the strontium-90 will not be released from the device under the most severe conditions which are likely to be encountered in normal use and handling of the device;
</P>
<P>(2) The strontium-90 is incorporated or enclosed so as to preclude direct physical contact by any individual with it and is shielded so that no individual will receive a radiation exposure to a major portion of his body in excess of 0.5 rem in a year under ordinary circumstances of use;
</P>
<P>(3) The device is so designed that it cannot be easily disassembled;
</P>
<P>(4) Prototypes of the device have been subjected to and have satisfactorily passed the tests required by paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Quality control procedures have been established to satisfy the requirements of § 32.62.
</P>
<P>(f) The applicant shall subject at least five prototypes of the device to tests as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The devices are subjected to tests that adequately take into account the individual, aggregate, and cumulative effects of environmental conditions expected in service that could adversely affect the effective containment of strontium-90, such as temperature, moisture, absolute pressure, water immersion, vibration, shock, and weathering.
</P>
<P>(2) The devices are inspected for evidence of physical damage and for loss of strontium-90 after each stage of testing, using methods of inspection adequate for determining compliance with the criteria in paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Device designs are rejected for which the following has been detected for any unit:
</P>
<P>(i) A leak resulting in a loss of 0.1 percent or more of the original amount of strontium-90 from the device; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Surface contamination of strontium-90 on the device of more than 2,200 disintegrations per minute per 100 square centimeters of surface area; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other evidence of physical damage.
</P>
<P>(g) The device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 9905, Aug. 10, 1965, as amended at 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 56 FR 23472, May 21, 1991; 58 FR 67660, Dec. 22, 1993; 77 FR 43694, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.62" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.62   Same: Quality assurance; prohibition of transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 32.61 shall visually inspect each device and shall reject any which has an observable physical defect that could affect containment of the strontium-90.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person licensed under § 32.61 shall test each device for possible loss of strontium-90 or for contamination by wiping with filter paper an area of at least 100 square centimeters on the outside surface of the device, or by wiping the entire surface area if it is less than 100 square centimeters. The detection on the filter paper of more than 2,200 disintegrations per minute of radioactive material per 100 square centimeters of surface wiped shall be cause for rejection of the tested device.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person licensed under § 32.61 shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain quality assurance systems in the manufacture of the ice detection device containing strontium-90 in a manner sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the safety-related components of the distributed devices are capable of performing their intended functions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Subject inspection lots to acceptance sampling procedures, by procedures specified in paragraph (d) of this section and in the license issued under § 32.61, to provide at least 95 percent confidence that the Lot Tolerance Percent Defective of 5.0 percent will not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person licensed under § 32.61 shall subject each inspection lot to:
</P>
<P>(1) Tests that adequately take into account the individual, aggregate, and cumulative effects of environmental conditions expected in service that could possibly affect the effective containment of strontium-90, such as absolute pressure and water immersion.
</P>
<P>(2) Inspection for evidence of physical damage, containment failure, or for loss of strontium-90 after each stage of testing, using methods of inspection adequate to determine compliance with the following criteria for defective: A leak resulting in a loss of 0.1 percent or more of the original amount of strontium-90 from the device and any other criteria specified in the license issued under § 32.61.
</P>
<P>(e) No person licensed under § 32.61 shall transfer to persons generally licensed under § 31.10 of this chapter, or under an equivalent general license of an Agreement State:
</P>
<P>(1) Any ice detection device containing strontium-90 tested and found defective under the criteria specified in a license issued under § 32.61, unless the defective ice detection device has been repaired or reworked, retested, and determined by an independent inspector to meet the applicable acceptance criteria; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any ice detection device containing strontium-90 contained within any lot that has been sampled and rejected as a result of the procedures in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) A procedure for defining sub-lot size, independence, and additional testing procedures is contained in the license issued under § 32.61; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each individual sub-lot is sampled, tested, and accepted in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2) and (e)(2)(i) of this section and any other criteria as may be required as a condition of the license issued under § 32.61.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 9905, Aug. 10, 1965, as amended at 39 FR 22130, June 20, 1974; 39 FR 26397, July 19, 1974; 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 77 FR 43694, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.2.91.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.71   Manufacture and distribution of byproduct material for certain in vitro clinical or laboratory testing under general license.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to manufacturer or distribute byproduct material for use under the general license of § 31.11 of this chapter will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The byproduct material is to be prepared for distribution in prepackaged units of:
</P>
<P>(1) Iodine-125 in units not exceeding 10 microcuries each.
</P>
<P>(2) Iodine-131 in units not exceeding 10 microcuries each.
</P>
<P>(3) Carbon-14 in units not exceeding 10 microcuries each.
</P>
<P>(4) Hydrogen-3 (tritium) in units not exceeding 50 microcuries each.
</P>
<P>(5) Iron-59 in units not exceeding 20 microcuries each.
</P>
<P>(6) Selenium-75 in units not exceeding 10 microcuries each.
</P>
<P>(7) Mock Iodine-125 in units not exceeding 0.05 microcurie of iodine-129 and 0.005 microcurie of americium-241 each.
</P>
<P>(8) Cobalt-57 in units not exceeding 0.37 megabecquerel (10 microcuries) each.
</P>
<P>(c) Each prepackaged unit bears a durable, clearly visible label:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying the radioactive contents as to chemical form and radionuclide, and indicating that the amount of radioactivity does not exceed 0.37 megabecquerel (10 microcuries) of iodine-131, iodine-125, selenium-75, or carbon-14; 1.85 megabecquerels (50 microcuries) of hydrogen-3 (tritium); or 0.74 megabecquerel (20 microcuries) of iron-59; or Mock Iodine-125 in units not exceeding 1.85 kilobecquerels (0.05 microcurie) of iodine-129 and 0.185 kilobecquerel (0.005 microcurie) of americium-241 each; or cobalt-57 in units not exceeding 0.37 megabecquerel (10 microcuries); and
</P>
<P>(2) Displaying the radiation caution symbol described in § 20.1901(a) of this chapter and the words, “Caution, Radioactive Material”, and “Not for Internal or External Use in Humans or Animals.”
</P>
<P>(d) The following statement, or a substantially similar statement which contains the information called for in the following statement, appears on a label affixed to each prepackaged unit or appears in a leaflet or brochure which accompanies the package: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Labels authorized by the regulations in effect on September 26, 1979, may be used until one year from September 27, 1979.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The radioactive material may be received, acquired, possessed, and used only by physicians, veterinarians in the practice of veterinary medicine, clinical laboratories or hospitals and only for in vitro clinical or laboratory tests not involving internal or external administration of the material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings or animals. Its receipt, acquisition, possession, use, and transfer are subject to the regulations and a general license of the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or of a State with which the Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of Manufacturer)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The label affixed to the unit, or the leaflet or brochure which accompanies the package, contains adequate information as to the precautions to be observed in handling and storing such byproduct material. In the case of the Mock Iodine-125 reference or calibration source, the information accompanying the source must also contain directions to the licensee regarding the waste disposal requirements set out in § 20.2001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 16553, Nov. 14, 1968, as amended at 38 FR 34110, Dec. 11, 1973; 39 FR 26148, July 17, 1974; 40 FR 8786, Mar. 3, 1975; 42 FR 21604, Apr. 28, 1977; 42 FR 26987, May 26, 1977; 44 FR 50325, Aug. 28, 1979; 56 FR 23472, May 21, 1991; 58 FR 67660, Dec. 22, 1993; 72 FR 55929, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Specifically Licensed Items</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.72" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.3.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.72   Manufacture, preparation, or transfer for commercial distribution of radioactive drugs containing byproduct material for medical use under part 35.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a specific license to manufacture, prepare, or transfer for commercial distribution radioactive drugs containing byproduct material for use by persons authorized pursuant to part 35 of this chapter will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in 10 CFR 30.33;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant submits evidence that the applicant is at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Registered with the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as the owner or operator of a drug establishment that engages in the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, or processing of a drug under 21 CFR 207.17(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) Registered or licensed with a state agency as a drug manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensed as a pharmacy by a State Board of Pharmacy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Operating as a nuclear pharmacy within a Federal medical institution; or
</P>
<P>(v) A Positron Emission Tomography (PET) drug production facility registered with a State agency.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant submits information on the radionuclide; the chemical and physical form; the maximum activity per vial, syringe, generator, or other container of the radioactive drug; and the shielding provided by the packaging to show it is appropriate for the safe handling and storage of the radioactive drugs by medical use licensees; and
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant commits to the following labeling requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) A label is affixed to each transport radiation shield, whether it is constructed of lead, glass, plastic, or other material, of a radioactive drug to be transferred for commercial distribution. The label must include the radiation symbol and the words “CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL” or “DANGER, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL”; the name of the radioactive drug or its abbreviation; and the quantity of radioactivity at a specified date and time. For radioactive drugs with a half life greater than 100 days, the time may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) A label is affixed to each syringe, vial, or other container used to hold a radioactive drug to be transferred for commercial distribution. The label must include the radiation symbol and the words “CAUTION, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL” or “DANGER, RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL” and an identifier that ensures that the syringe, vial, or other container can be correlated with the information on the transport radiation shield label.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee described by paragraph (a)(2)(iii) or (iv) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) May prepare radioactive drugs for medical use, as defined in 10 CFR 35.2, provided that the radioactive drug is prepared by either an authorized nuclear pharmacist, as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(4) of this section, or an individual under the supervision of an authorized nuclear pharmacist as specified in 10 CFR 35.27.
</P>
<P>(2) May allow a pharmacist to work as an authorized nuclear pharmacist if:
</P>
<P>(i) This individual qualifies as an authorized nuclear pharmacist as defined in 10 CFR 35.2,
</P>
<P>(ii) This individual meets the requirements specified in § 35.55(b) and 35.59 of this chapter, and the licensee has received an approved license amendment identifying this individual as an authorized nuclear pharmacist; or
</P>
<P>(iii) This individual is designated as an authorized nuclear pharmacist in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The actions authorized in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section are permitted in spite of more restrictive language in license conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) May designate a pharmacist (as defined in § 35.2 of this chapter) as an authorized nuclear pharmacist if:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual was a nuclear pharmacist preparing only radioactive drugs containing accelerator-produced radioactive material, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual practiced at a pharmacy at a Government agency or Federally recognized Indian Tribe before November 30, 2007 or at all other pharmacies before August 8, 2009, or an earlier date as noticed by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(5) Shall provide to the Commission:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of each individual's certification by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State as specified in § 35.55(a) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission or Agreement State license, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Commission master materials licensee permit, or
</P>
<P>(iv) The permit issued by a licensee or Commission master materials permittee of broad scope or the authorization from a commercial nuclear pharmacy authorized to list its own authorized nuclear pharmacist, or
</P>
<P>(v) Documentation that only accelerator-produced radioactive materials were used in the practice of nuclear pharmacy at a Government agency or Federally recognized Indian Tribe before November 30, 2007 or at all other locations of use before August 8, 2009, or an earlier date as noticed by the NRC; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A copy of the State pharmacy licensure or registration, no later than 30 days after the date that the licensee allows, under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(iii) of this section, the individual to work as an authorized nuclear pharmacist.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall possess and use instrumentation to measure the radioactivity of radioactive drugs. The licensee shall have procedures for use of the instrumentation. The licensee shall measure, by direct measurement or by combination of measurements and calculations, the amount of radioactivity in dosages of alpha-, beta-, or photon-emitting radioactive drugs prior to transfer for commercial distribution. In addition, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Perform tests before initial use, periodically, and following repair, on each instrument for accuracy, linearity, and geometry dependence, as appropriate for the use of the instrument; and make adjustments when necessary; and
</P>
<P>(2) Check each instrument for constancy and proper operation at the beginning of each day of use.
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee shall satisfy the labeling requirements in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this section relieves the licensee from complying with applicable FDA, other Federal, and State requirements governing radioactive drugs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 61780, Dec. 2, 1994; 59 FR 65244, Dec. 19, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 324, Jan. 4, 1995; 67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002; 67 FR 62872, Oct. 9, 2002; 67 FR 77652, Dec. 19, 2002; 71 FR 15007, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 45150, Aug. 13, 2007; 72 FR 55929, Oct. 1, 2007; 83 FR 33101, July 16, 2018; 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.74" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.3.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.74   Manufacture and distribution of sources or devices containing byproduct material for medical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a specific license to manufacture and distribute sources and devices containing byproduct material to persons licensed under part 35 of this chapter for use as a calibration, transmission, or reference source or for the uses listed in §§ 35.400, 35.500, 35.600, and 35.1000 of this chapter will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant satisfies the general requirements in § 30.33 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant submits sufficient information regarding each type of source or device pertinent to an evaluation of its radiation safety, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The byproduct material contained, its chemical and physical form, and amount;
</P>
<P>(ii) Details of design and construction of the source or device;
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures for, and results of, prototype tests to demonstrate that the source or device will maintain its integrity under stresses likely to be encountered in normal use and accidents;
</P>
<P>(iv) For devices containing byproduct material, the radiation profile of a prototype device;
</P>
<P>(v) Details of quality control procedures to assure that production sources and devices meet the standards of the design and prototype tests;
</P>
<P>(vi) Procedures and standards for calibrating sources and devices;
</P>
<P>(vii) Legend and methods for labeling sources and devices as to their radioactive content;
</P>
<P>(viii) Instructions for handling and storing the source or device from the radiation safety standpoint; these instructions are to be included on a durable label attached to the source or device or attached to a permanent storage container for the source or device: <I>Provided,</I> That instructions which are too lengthy for such label may be summarized on the label and printed in detail on a brochure which is referenced on the label;
</P>
<P>(3) The label affixed to the source or device, or to the permanent storage container for the source or device, contains information on the radionuclide, quantity and date of assay, and a statement that the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission has approved distribution of the (name of source or device) to persons licensed to use byproduct material identified in §§ 35.65, 35.400, 35.500, and 35.600 as appropriate, and to persons who hold an equivalent license issued by an Agreement State. However, labels worded in accordance with requirements that were in place on March 30, 1987 may be used until March 30, 1989.
</P>
<P>(4) The source or device has been registered in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In the event the applicant desires that the source or device be required to be tested for leakage of radioactive material at intervals longer than six months, he shall include in his application sufficient information to demonstrate that such longer interval is justified by performance characteristics of the source or device or similar sources or devices and by design features that have a significant bearing on the probability or consequences of leakage of radioactive material from the source.
</P>
<P>(2) In determining the acceptable interval for test of leakage of radioactive material, the Commission will consider information that includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Primary containment (source capsule);
</P>
<P>(ii) Protection of primary containment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Method of sealing containment;
</P>
<P>(iv) Containment construction materials;
</P>
<P>(v) Form of contained radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(vi) Maximum temperature withstood during prototype tests;
</P>
<P>(vii) Maximum pressure withstood during prototype tests;
</P>
<P>(viii) Maximum quantity of contained radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(ix) Radiotoxicity of contained radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(x) Operating experience with identical sources or devices or similarly designed and constructed sources or devices.
</P>
<P>(c) If an application is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section on or before October 15, 1974, for a license to manufacture and distribute a source or device that was distributed commercially on or before August 16, 1974, the applicant may continue the distribution of such source or device to group licensees until the Commission issues the license or notifies the applicant otherwise.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 26149, July 17, 1974, as amended at 51 FR 36967, Oct. 16, 1986; 62 FR 59276, Nov. 3, 1997; 67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002; 71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 45150, Aug. 13, 2007; 77 FR 43695, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.201" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.3.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.201   Serialization of nationally tracked sources.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee who manufactures a nationally tracked source after February 6, 2007 shall assign a unique serial number to each nationally tracked source. Serial numbers must be composed only of alpha-numeric characters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 65709, Nov. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Sealed Source and Device Registration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.210" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.4.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.210   Registration of product information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any manufacturer or initial distributor of a sealed source or device containing a sealed source may submit a request to the NRC for evaluation of radiation safety information about its product and for its registration.
</P>
<P>(b) The request for review must be sent to the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, ATTN: SSDR by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The request for review of a sealed source or a device must include sufficient information about the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control program, labeling, proposed uses and leak testing and, for a device, the request must also include sufficient information about installation, service and maintenance, operating and safety instructions, and its potential hazards, to provide reasonable assurance that the radiation safety properties of the source or device are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life and property.
</P>
<P>(d) The NRC normally evaluates a sealed source or a device using radiation safety criteria in accepted industry standards. If these standards and criteria do not readily apply to a particular case, the NRC formulates reasonable standards and criteria with the help of the manufacturer or distributor. The NRC shall use criteria and standards sufficient to ensure that the radiation safety properties of the device or sealed source are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life and property. Subpart A of this part includes specific criteria that apply to certain exempt products and subpart B includes specific criteria applicable to certain generally licensed devices. Subpart C includes specific provisions that apply to certain specifically licensed items.
</P>
<P>(e) After completion of the evaluation, the Commission issues a certificate of registration to the person making the request. The certificate of registration acknowledges the availability of the submitted information for inclusion in an application for a specific license proposing use of the product, or concerning use under an exemption from licensing or general license as applicable for the category of certificate.
</P>
<P>(f) The person submitting the request for evaluation and registration of safety information about the product shall manufacture and distribute the product in accordance with—
</P>
<P>(1) The statements and representations, including quality control program, contained in the request; and
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of the registration certificate.
</P>
<P>(g) Authority to manufacture or initially distribute a sealed source or device to specific licensees may be provided in the license without the issuance of a certificate of registration in the following cases:
</P>
<P>(1) Calibration and reference sources containing no more than:
</P>
<P>(i) 37 MBq (1 mCi), for beta and/or gamma emitting radionuclides; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 0.37 MBq (10 µCi), for alpha emitting radionuclides; or
</P>
<P>(2) The intended recipients are qualified by training and experience and have sufficient facilities and equipment to safely use and handle the requested quantity of radioactive material in any form in the case of unregistered sources or, for registered sealed sources contained in unregistered devices, are qualified by training and experience and have sufficient facilities and equipment to safely use and handle the requested quantity of radioactive material in unshielded form, as specified in their licenses; and
</P>
<P>(i) The intended recipients are licensed under part 33 of this chapter or comparable provisions of an Agreement State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The recipients are authorized for research and development; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The sources and devices are to be built to the unique specifications of the particular recipient and contain no more than 740 GBq (20 Ci) of tritium or 7.4 GBq (200 mCi) of any other radionuclide.
</P>
<P>(h) After the certificate is issued, the Commission may conduct an additional review as it determines is necessary to ensure compliance with current regulatory standards. In conducting its review, the Commission will complete its evaluation in accordance with criteria specified in this section. The Commission may request such additional information as it considers necessary to conduct its review and the certificate holder shall provide the information as requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 27786, July 24, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5719, Jan. 31, 2008; 77 FR 43695, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.211" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.4.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.211   Inactivation of certificates of registration of sealed sources and devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A certificate holder who no longer manufactures or initially transfers any of the sealed source(s) or device(s) covered by a particular certificate issued by the Commission shall request inactivation of the registration certificate. Such a request must be made to the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, ATTN: SSDR by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter and must normally be made no later than two years after initial distribution of all of the source(s) or device(s) covered by the certificate has ceased. However, if the certificate holder determines that an initial transfer was in fact the last initial transfer more than two years after that transfer, the certificate holder shall request inactivation of the certificate within 90 days of this determination and briefly describe the circumstances of the delay.
</P>
<P>(b) If a distribution license is to be terminated in accordance with § 30.36 of this chapter, the licensee shall request inactivation of its registration certificates associated with that distribution license before the Commission will terminate the license. Such a request for inactivation of certificate(s) must indicate that the license is being terminated and include the associated specific license number.
</P>
<P>(c) A specific license to manufacture or initially transfer a source or device covered only by an inactivated certificate no longer authorizes the licensee to initially transfer such sources or devices for use. Servicing of devices must be in accordance with any conditions in the certificate, including in the case of an inactive certificate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 43695, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.301" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.5.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.301   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55073, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.303" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.22.5.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.303   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 32 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 32 that are not issued under subsections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 32.1, 32.2, 32.8, 32.11, 32.14, 32.18, 32.21, 32.22, 32.23, 32.24, 32.26, 32.27, 32.28, 32.30, 32.31, 32.51, 32.53, 32.57, 32.61, 32.71, 32.72, 32.74, 32.301, and 32.303.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55073, Nov. 24, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 61781, Dec. 2, 1994; 73 FR 42674, July 23, 2008; 77 FR 43696, July 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 33—SPECIFIC DOMESTIC LICENSES OF BROAD SCOPE FOR BYPRODUCT MATERIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 81, 161, 181, 182, 183, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2111, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>33 FR 14579, Sept. 28, 1968, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 33.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes requirements for the issuance of specific licenses of broad scope for byproduct material (“broad licenses”) and certain regulations governing holders of such licenses. The provisions and requirements of this part are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements of this chapter. In particular, the provisions of parts 30 and 37 of this chapter apply to applications and licenses subject to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17006, Mar. 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0015.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 33.12, 33.13, 33.14 and 33.15.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 33.12, NRC Form 313 is approved under control number 3150-0120.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19625, May 9, 1984, as amended at 62 FR 52186, Oct. 6, 1997; 67 FR 67099, Nov. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="91" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Specific Licenses of Broad Scope</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.11   Types of specific licenses of broad scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A “Type A specific license of broad scope” is a specific license authorizing receipt, acquisition, ownership, possession, use, and transfer of any chemical or physical form of the byproduct material specified in the license, but not exceeding quantities specified in the license, for purposes authorized by the Act. The quantities specified are usually in the multicurie range.
</P>
<P>(b) A “Type B specific license of broad scope” is a specific license authorizing receipt, acquisition, ownership, possession, use, and transfer of any chemical or physical form of byproduct material specified in § 33.100, Schedule A, of this part for purposes authorized by the Act. The possession limit for a Type B broad license, if only one radionuclide is possessed thereunder, is the quantity specified for that radionuclide in § 33.100, Schedule A, Column I. If two or more radionuclides are possessed thereunder, the possession limit for each is determined as follows: For each radionuclide, determine the ratio of the quantity possessed to the applicable quantity specified in § 33.100, Schedule A, Column I, for that radionuclide. The sum of the ratios for all radionuclides possessed under the license shall not exceed unity.
</P>
<P>(c) A “Type C specific license of broad scope” is a specific license authorizing receipt, acquisition, ownership, possession, use, and transfer of any chemical or physical form of byproduct material specified in § 33.100, Schedule A, for purposes authorized by the Act. The possession limit for a Type C broad license, if only one radionuclide is possessed thereunder, is the quantity specified for that radionuclide in § 33.100, Schedule A, Column II. If two or more radionuclides are possessed thereunder, the possession limit is determined for each as follows: For each radionuclide determine the ratio of the quantity possessed to the applicable quantity specified in § 33.100, Schedule A, Column II, for that radionuclide. The sum of the ratios for all radionuclides possessed under the license shall not exceed unity.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 161, as amended, Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 948 (42 U.S.C. 2201); sec. 201, as amended, Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1243 (42 U.S.C. 5841)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 14579, Sept. 28, 1968, as amended at 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.12   Applications for specific licenses of broad scope.</HEAD>
<P>A person may file an application for specific license of broad scope on NRC Form 313, “Application for Material License,” in accordance with the provisions of § 30.32 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.13   Requirements for the issuance of a Type A specific license of broad scope.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a Type A specific license of broad scope will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant has engaged in a reasonable number of activities involving the use of byproduct material; and
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant has established administrative controls and provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, record keeping, material control, and accounting and management review that are necessary to assure safe operations, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment of a radiation safety committee composed of such persons as a radiological safety officer, a representative of management, and persons trained and experienced in the safe use of radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(2) The appointment of a radiological safety officer who is qualified by training and experience in radiation protection, and who is available for advice and assistance on radiological safety matters; and
</P>
<P>(3) The establishment of appropriate administrative procedures to assure:
</P>
<P>(i) Control of procurement and use of byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(ii) Completion of safety evaluations of proposed uses of byproduct material which take into consideration such matters as the adequacy of facilities and equipment, training and experience of the user, and the operating or handling procedures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Review, approval, and recording by the radiation safety committee of safety evaluations of proposed uses prepared in accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section prior to use of the byproduct material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.14   Requirements for the issuance of a Type B specific license of broad scope.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a Type B specific license of broad scope will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant has established administrative controls and provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, record keeping, material control and accounting, and management review that are necessary to assure safe operations, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The appointment of a radiological safety officer who is qualified by training and experience in radiation protection, and who is available for advice and assistance on radiological safety matters; and
</P>
<P>(2) The establishment of appropriate administrative procedures to assure:
</P>
<P>(i) Control of procurement and use of byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(ii) Completion of safety evaluations of proposed uses of byproduct material which take into consideration such matters as the adequacy of facilities and equipment, training and experience of the user, and the operating or handling procedures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Review, approval, and recording by the radiological safety officer of safety evaluations of proposed uses prepared in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section prior to use of the byproduct material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.15   Requirements for the issuance of a Type C specific license of broad scope.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a Type C specific license of broad scope will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits a statement that byproduct material will be used only by, or under the direct supervision of, individuals who have received:
</P>
<P>(1) A college degree at the bachelor level, or equivalent training and experience, in the physical or biological sciences or in engineering; and
</P>
<P>(2) At least 40 hours of training and experience in the safe handling of radioactive materials, and in the characteristics of ionizing radiation, units of radiation dose and quantities, radiation detection instrumentation, and biological hazards of exposure to radiation appropriate to the type and forms of byproduct material to be used; and
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant has established administrative controls and provisions relating to procurement of byproduct material, procedures, record keeping, material control and accounting, and management review necessary to assure safe operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.16" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.16   Application for other specific licenses.</HEAD>
<P>An application filed pursuant to part 30 of this chapter for a specific license other than one of broad scope will be considered by the Commission as an application for a specific license of broad scope under this part if the requirements of the applicable sections of this part are satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.91.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.17   Conditions of specific licenses of broad scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless specifically authorized pursuant to other parts of this chapter, persons licensed under this part shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct tracer studies in the environment involving direct release of byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(2) Receive, acquire, own, possess, use, transfer, or import devices containing 100,000 curies or more of byproduct material in sealed sources used for irradiation of materials;
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct activities for which a specific license issued by the Commission under part 32, 34, or 35 of this chapter is required; or
</P>
<P>(4) Add or cause the addition of byproduct material to any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug, or other product designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Type A specific license of broad scope issued under this part shall be subject to the condition that byproduct material possessed under the license may only be used by, or under the direct supervision of, individuals approved by the licensee's radiation safety committee.
</P>
<P>(c) Each Type B specific license of broad scope issued under this part shall be subject to the condition that byproduct material possessed under the license may only be used by, or under the direct supervision of, individuals approved by the licensee's radiological safety officer.
</P>
<P>(d) Each Type C specific license of broad scope issued under this part shall be subject to the condition that byproduct material possessed under the license may only be used by, or under the direct supervision of, individuals who satisfy the requirements of § 33.15 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="92" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.92" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.92.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.21   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55073, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.92.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.23   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 33 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 33 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 33.1, 33.8, 33.11, 33.12, 33.13, 33.14, 33.15, 33.16, 33.21, 33.23 and 33.100.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55073, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="93" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.93" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Schedules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 33.100" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.23.0.93.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 33.100   Schedule A.</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Byproduct material
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Col. I curies
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Col. II curies
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Antimony-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arsenic-77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barium-140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beryllium-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bismuth-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bromine-82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-115m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cadmium-115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium-45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calcium-47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Carbon-14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cerium-144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-134m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-136</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine-36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chlorine-38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chromium-51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-58m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Copper-64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-165</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dysprosium-166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Erbium-171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-152 9.2 h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-152 13 y</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Europium-155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorine-18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gallium-72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Germanium-71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold-199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hafnium-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Holmium-166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydrogen-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-113m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-114m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-115m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indium-115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iodine-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iron-59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Krypton-87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lanthanum-140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lutetium-177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manganese-56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-197m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury-203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Molybdenum-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neodymium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel-65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-93m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Niobium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-191m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Osmium-193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Palladium-109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Phosphorus-32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-193m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-193</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-197m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platinum-197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Polonium-210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potassium-42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Praseodymium-143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhenium-188</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-103m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhodium-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rubidium-87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ruthenium-106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Samarium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scandium-48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silicon-31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-110m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver-111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium-22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sodium-24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-85m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0001
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sulphur-35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tantalum-182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-97m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-99m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Technetium-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-125m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-127m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-129m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-131m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tellurium-132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Terbium-160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thallium-204</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tin-125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten-187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vanadium-48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-131m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xenon-135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yttrium-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-69m</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zinc-69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zirconium-97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Any byproduct material other than alpha emitting byproduct material not listed above</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 201, Pub. L. 93-438; 88 Stat. 1242 (42 U.S.C. 5841))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 14579, Sept. 28, 1968, as amended at 72 FR 55930, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="34" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 34—LICENSES FOR INDUSTRIAL RADIOGRAPHY AND RADIATION SAFETY REQUIREMENTS FOR INDUSTRIAL RADIOGRAPHIC OPERATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 81, 161, 181, 182, 183, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2111, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 34 appear at 79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.1.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes requirements for the issuance of licenses for the use of sealed sources containing byproduct material and radiation safety requirements for persons using these sealed sources in industrial radiography. The provisions and requirements of this part are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements of this chapter. In particular, the requirements and provisions of parts 19, 20, 21, 30, 37, 71, 150, 170, and 171 of this chapter apply to applications and licenses subject to this part. This rule does not apply to medical uses of byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17006, Mar. 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.1.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>ALARA</I> (acronym for “as low as is reasonably achievable”) means making every reasonable effort to maintain exposures to radiation as far below the dose limits specified in 10 CFR part 20 as is practical consistent with the purpose for which the licensed activity is undertaken, taking into account the state of technology, the economics of improvements in relation to state of technology, the economics of improvements in relation to benefits to the public health and safety, and other societal and socioeconomic considerations, and in relation to utilization of nuclear energy and licensed materials in the public interest.
</P>
<P><I>Annual refresher safety training</I> means a review conducted or provided by the licensee for its employees on radiation safety aspects of industrial radiography. The review may include, as appropriate, the results of internal inspections, new procedures or equipment, new or revised regulations, accidents or errors that have been observed, and should also provide opportunities for employees to ask safety questions.
</P>
<P><I>Associated equipment</I> means equipment that is used in conjunction with a radiographic exposure device to make radiographic exposures that drives, guides, or comes in contact with the source, (e.g., guide tube, control tube, control (drive) cable, removable source stop, “J” tube and collimator when it is used as an exposure head.
</P>
<P><I>Becquerel (Bq)</I> means one disintegration per second.
</P>
<P><I>Certifying Entity</I> means an independent certifying organization meeting the requirements in appendix A of this part or an Agreement State meeting the requirements in appendix A, parts II and III of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Collimator</I> means a radiation shield that is placed on the end of the guide tube or directly onto a radiographic exposure device to restrict the size of the radiation beam when the sealed source is cranked into position to make a radiographic exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Control (drive)</I> cable means the cable that is connected to the source assembly and used to drive the source to and from the exposure location.
</P>
<P><I>Control drive mechanism</I> means a device that enables the source assembly to be moved to and from the exposure device.
</P>
<P><I>Control tube</I> means a protective sheath for guiding the control cable. The control tube connects the control drive mechanism to the radiographic exposure device.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure head</I> means a device that locates the gamma radiography sealed source in the selected working position. (An exposure head is also known as a source stop.)
</P>
<P><I>Field station</I> means a facility where licensed material may be stored or used and from which equipment is dispatched.
</P>
<P><I>Gray</I> means the SI unit of absorbed dose. One gray is equal to an absorbed dose of 1 Joule/kilogram. It is also equal to 100 rads.
</P>
<P><I>Guide tube (Projection sheath)</I> means a flexible or rigid tube (<I>i.e.</I>, “J” tube) for guiding the source assembly and the attached control cable from the exposure device to the exposure head. The guide tube may also include the connections necessary for attachment to the exposure device and to the exposure head.
</P>
<P><I>Hands-on experience</I> means experience in all of those areas considered to be directly involved in the radiography process.
</P>
<P><I>Independent certifying organization</I> means an independent organization that meets all of the criteria of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial radiography (radiography)</I> means an examination of the structure of materials by nondestructive methods, utilizing ionizing radiation to make radiographic images.
</P>
<P><I>Lay-barge radiography</I> means industrial radiography performed on any water vessel used for laying pipe.
</P>
<P><I>Offshore platform radiography</I> means industrial radiography conducted from a platform over a body of water.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent radiographic installation</I> means an enclosed shielded room, cell, or vault, not located at a temporary jobsite, in which radiography is performed.
</P>
<P><I>Practical Examination</I> means a demonstration through practical application of the safety rules and principles in industrial radiography including use of all appropriate equipment and procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation Safety Officer for industrial radiography</I> means an individual with the responsibility for the overall radiation safety program on behalf of the licensee and who meets the requirements of § 34.42.
</P>
<P><I>Radiographer</I> means any individual who performs or who, in attendance at the site where the sealed source or sources are being used, personally supervises industrial radiographic operations and who is responsible to the licensee for assuring compliance with the requirements of the Commission's regulations and the conditions of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Radiographer certification</I> means written approval received from a certifying entity stating that an individual has satisfactorily met certain established radiation safety, testing, and experience criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Radiographer's assistant</I> means any individual who under the direct supervision of a radiographer, uses radiographic exposure devices, sealed sources or related handling tools, or radiation survey instruments in industrial radiography.
</P>
<P><I>Radiographic exposure device</I> (also called a camera, or a projector) means any instrument containing a sealed source fastened or contained therein, in which the sealed source or shielding thereof may be moved, or otherwise changed, from a shielded to unshielded position for purposes of making a radiographic exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Radiographic operations</I> means all activities associated with the presence of radioactive sources in a radiographic exposure device during use of the device or transport (except when being transported by a common or contract transport), to include surveys to confirm the adequacy of boundaries, setting up equipment and any activity inside restricted area boundaries.
</P>
<P><I>S-tube</I> means a tube through which the radioactive source travels when inside a radiographic exposure device.
</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any byproduct material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the byproduct material.
</P>
<P><I>Shielded position</I> means the location within the radiographic exposure device or source changer where the sealed source is secured and restricted from movement.
</P>
<P><I>Sievert</I> means the SI unit of any of the quantities expressed as dose equivalent. The dose equivalent in sieverts is equal to the absorbed dose in grays multiplied by the quality factor (1 Sv = 100 rems).
</P>
<P><I>Source assembly</I> means an assembly that consists of the sealed source and a connector that attaches the source to the control cable. The source assembly may also include a stop ball used to secure the source in the shielded position.
</P>
<P><I>Source changer</I> means a device designed and used for replacement of sealed sources in radiographic exposure devices, including those also used for transporting and storage of sealed sources.
</P>
<P><I>Storage area</I> means any location, facility, or vehicle which is used to store or to secure a radiographic exposure device, a storage container, or a sealed source when it is not in use and which is locked or has a physical barrier to prevent accidental exposure, tampering with, or unauthorized removal of the device, container, or source.
</P>
<P><I>Storage container</I> means a container in which sealed sources are secured and stored.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary jobsite</I> means a location where radiographic operations are conducted and where licensed material may be stored other than those location(s) of use authorized on the license.
</P>
<P><I>Underwater radiography</I> means industrial radiography performed when the radiographic exposure device and/or related equipment are beneath the surface of the water.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.1.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission, other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel, will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 90 FR 55629, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.1.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may nor conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0007.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 34.13, 34.20, 34.25, 34.27, 34.29, 34.31, 34.33, 34.35, 34.41, 34.42, 34.43, 34.45, 34.47, 34.49, 34.61, 34.63, 34.65, 34.67, 34.69, 34.71, 34.73, 34.75, 34.79, 34.81, 34.83, 34.85, 34.87, 34.89, 34.101, 34.111, and appendix A.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. The information collection requirements and the control numbers under which it is approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 34.11, NRC Form 313 is approved under control number 3150-0120.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52186, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 73942, Nov. 30, 2010; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Licensing Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.2.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.11   Application for a specific license.</HEAD>
<P>A person may file an application for specific license for use of sealed sources in industrial radiography on NRC Form 313, “Application for Material License,” in accordance with the provisions of § 30.32 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.2.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.13   Specific license for industrial radiography.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license for the use of licensed material in industrial radiography will be approved if the applicant meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter for byproduct material, as appropriate, and any special requirements contained in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits an adequate program for training radiographers and radiographers' assistants that meets the requirements of § 34.43.
</P>
<P>(1) After May 28, 1999, a license applicant need not describe its initial training and examination program for radiographers in the subjects outlined in § 34.43(g).
</P>
<P>(2) From June 27, 1997 to May 28, 1999 a license applicant may affirm that all individuals acting as industrial radiographers will be certified in radiation safety by a certifying entity before commencing duty as radiographers. This affirmation substitutes for a description of its initial training and examination program for radiographers in the subjects outlined in § 34.43(g).
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant submits procedures for verifying and documenting the certification status of radiographers and for ensuring that the certification of individuals acting as radiographers remains valid.
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant submits written operating and emergency procedures as described in § 34.45.
</P>
<P>(e) The applicant submits a description of a program for inspections of the job performance of each radiographer and radiographers' assistant at intervals not to exceed 6 months as described in § 34.43(e).
</P>
<P>(f) The applicant submits a description of the applicant's overall organizational structure as it applies to the radiation safety responsibilities in industrial radiography, including specified delegation of authority and responsibility.
</P>
<P>(g) The applicant identifies and lists the qualifications of the individual(s) designated as the RSO (§ 34.42) and potential designees responsible for ensuring that the licensee's radiation safety program is implemented in accordance with approved procedures.
</P>
<P>(h) If an applicant intends to perform leak testing of sealed sources or exposure devices containing depleted uranium (DU) shielding, the applicant must describe the procedures for performing and the qualifications of the person(s) authorized to do the leak testing. If the applicant intends to analyze its own wipe samples, the application must include a description of the procedures to be followed. The description must include the—
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments to be used;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods of performing the analysis; and
</P>
<P>(3) Pertinent experience of the person who will analyze the wipe samples.
</P>
<P>(i) If the applicant intends to perform “in-house” calibrations of survey instruments the applicant must describe methods to be used and the relevant experience of the person(s) who will perform the calibrations. All calibrations must be performed according to the procedures described and at the intervals prescribed in § 34.25.
</P>
<P>(j) The applicant identifies and describes the location(s) of all field stations and permanent radiographic installations.
</P>
<P>(k) The applicant identifies the locations where all records required by this part and other parts of this chapter will be maintained.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.20   Performance requirements for industrial radiography equipment.</HEAD>
<P>Equipment used in industrial radiographic operations must meet the following minimum criteria:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Each radiographic exposure device, source assembly or sealed source, and all associated equipment must meet the requirements specified in American National Standards Institute, N432-1980 “Radiological Safety for the Design and Construction of Apparatus for Gamma Radiography,” (published as NBS Handbook 136, issued January 1981). This publication has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)and 1 CFR part 51. This publication may be purchased from the American National Standards Institute, Inc., 25 West 43rd Street, New York, New York 10036; Telephone: (212) 642-4900. Copies of the document are available for inspection at the Nuclear Regulatory Commission Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. A copy of the document is also on file at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Engineering analysis may be submitted by an applicant or licensee to demonstrate the applicability of previously performed testing on similar individual radiography equipment components. Upon review, the Commission may find this an acceptable alternative to actual testing of the component pursuant to the above referenced standard.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the requirements specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the following requirements apply to radiographic exposure devices, source changers, source assemblies and sealed sources.
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall ensure that each radiographic exposure device has attached to it a durable, legible, clearly visible label bearing the—
</P>
<P>(i) Chemical symbol and mass number of the radionuclide in the device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Activity and the date on which this activity was last measured;
</P>
<P>(iii) Model (or product code) and serial number of the sealed source;
</P>
<P>(iv) Manufacturer's identity of the sealed source; and
</P>
<P>(v) Licensee's name, address, and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(2) Radiographic exposure devices intended for use as Type B transport containers must meet the applicable requirements of 10 CFR part 71.
</P>
<P>(3) Modification of radiographic exposure devices, source changers, and source assemblies and associated equipment is prohibited, unless the design of any replacement component,including source holder, source assembly, controls or guide tubes would not compromise the design safety features of the system.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the requirements specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the following requirements apply to radiographic exposure devices, source assemblies, and associated equipment that allow the source to be moved out of the device for radiographic operations or to source changers.
</P>
<P>(1) The coupling between the source assembly and the control cable must be designed in such a manner that the source assembly will not become disconnected if cranked outside the guide tube. The coupling must be such that it cannot be unintentionally disconnected under normal and reasonably foreseeable abnormal conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) The device must automatically secure the source assembly when it is cranked back into the fully shielded position within the device. This securing system may only be released by means of a deliberate operation on the exposure device.
</P>
<P>(3) The outlet fittings, lock box, and drive cable fittings on each radiographic exposure device must be equipped with safety plugs or covers which must be installed during storage and transportation to protect the source assembly from water, mud, sand or other foreign matter.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Each sealed source or source assembly must have attached to it or engraved on it, a durable, legible, visible label with the words: “DANGER—RADIOACTIVE.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The label may not interfere with the safe operation of the exposure device or associated equipment.
</P>
<P>(5) The guide tube must be able to withstand a crushing test that closely approximates the crushing forces that are likely to be encountered during use, and be able to withstand a kinking resistance test that closely approximates the kinking forces that are likely to be encountered during use.
</P>
<P>(6) Guide tubes must be used when moving the source out of the device.
</P>
<P>(7) An exposure head or similar device designed to prevent the source assembly from passing out of the end of the guide tube must be attached to the outermost end of the guide tube during industrial radiography operations.
</P>
<P>(8) The guide tube exposure head connection must be able to withstand the tensile test for control units specified in ANSI N432-1980.
</P>
<P>(9) Source changers must provide a system for ensuring that the source will not be accidentally withdrawn from the changer when connecting or disconnecting the drive cable to or from a source assembly.
</P>
<P>(d) All radiographic exposure devices and associated equipment in use after January 10, 1996, must comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, equipment used in industrial radiographic operations need not comply with § 8.9.2(c) of the Endurance Test in American National Standards Institute N432-1980, if the prototype equipment has been tested using a torque value representative of the torque that an individual using the radiography equipment can realistically exert on the lever or crankshaft of the drive mechanism.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 77 FR 39906, July 6, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.21   Limits on external radiation levels from storage containers and source changers.</HEAD>
<P>The maximum exposure rate limits for storage containers and source changers are 2 millisieverts (200 millirem) per hour at any exterior surface, and 0.1 millisieverts (10 millirem) per hour at 1 meter from any exterior surface with the sealed source in the shielded position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.23   Locking of radiographic exposure devices, storage containers and source changers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each radiographic exposure device must have a lock or outer locked container designed to prevent unauthorized or accidental removal of the sealed source from its shielded position. The exposure device and/or its container must be kept locked (and if a keyed-lock, with the key removed at all times) when not under the direct surveillance of a radiographer or a radiographer's assistant except at permanent radiographic installations as stated in § 34.51. In addition, during radiographic operations the sealed source assembly must be secured in the shielded position each time the source is returned to that position.
</P>
<P>(b) Each sealed source storage container and source changer must have a lock or outer locked container designed to prevent unauthorized or accidental removal of the sealed source from its shielded position. Storage containers and source changers must be kept locked (and if a keyed-lock, with the key removed at all times) when containing sealed sources except when under the direct surveillance of a radiographer or a radiographer's assistant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.25   Radiation survey instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall keep sufficient calibrated and operable radiation survey instruments at each location where radioactive material is present to make the radiation surveys required by this part and by 10 CFR part 20 of this chapter. Instrumentation required by this section must be capable of measuring a range from 0.02 millisieverts (2 millirems) per hour through 0.01 sievert (1 rem) per hour.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall have each radiation survey instrument required under paragraph (a) of this section calibrated—
</P>
<P>(1) At intervals not to exceed 6 months and after instrument servicing, except for battery changes;
</P>
<P>(2) For linear scale instruments, at two points located approximately one-third and two-thirds of full-scale on each scale; for logarithmic scale instruments, at mid-range of each decade, and at two points of at least one decade; and for digital instruments, at 3 points between 0.02 and 10 millisieverts (2 and 1000 millirems) per hour; and
</P>
<P>(3) So that an accuracy within plus or minus 20 percent of the calibration source can be demonstrated at each point checked.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall maintain records of the results of the instrument calibrations in accordance with § 34.65.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.27   Leak testing and replacement of sealed sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The replacement of any sealed source fastened to or contained in a radiographic exposure device and leak testing of any sealed source must be performed by persons authorized to do so by the NRC or an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(b) The opening, repair, or modification of any sealed source must be performed by persons specifically authorized to do so by the Commission or an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Testing and recordkeeping requirements.</I> (1) Each licensee who uses a sealed source shall have the source tested for leakage at intervals not to exceed 6 months. The leak testing of the source must be performed using a method approved by the Commission or by an Agreement State. The wipe sample should be taken from the nearest accessible point to the sealed source where contamination might accumulate. The wipe sample must be analyzed for radioactive contamination. The analysis must be capable of detecting the presence of 185 Bq (0.005 microcurie) of radioactive material on the test sample and must be performed by a person specifically authorized by the Commission or an Agreement State to perform the analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall maintain records of the leak tests in accordance with § 34.67.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless a sealed source is accompanied by a certificate from the transferor that shows that it has been leak tested within 6 months before the transfer, it may not be used by the licensee until tested for leakage. Sealed sources that are in storage and not in use do not require leak testing, but must be tested before use or transfer to another person if the interval of storage exceeds 6 months.
</P>
<P>(d) Any test conducted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section which reveals the presence of 185 Bq (0.005 microcurie) or more of removable radioactive material must be considered evidence that the sealed source is leaking. The licensee shall immediately withdraw the equipment involved from use and shall have it decontaminated and repaired or disposed of in accordance with Commission regulations. A report must be filed with the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards , by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, the report to be filed within 5 days of any test with results that exceed the threshold in this paragraph (d), and to describe the equipment involved, the test results, and the corrective action taken. A copy of the report must be sent to the Administrator of the appropriate Nuclear Regulatory Commission's Regional Office listed in appendix D of 10 CFR part 20 of this chapter “Standards for Protection Against Radiation.”
</P>
<P>(e) Each exposure device using depleted uranium (DU) shielding and an “S” tube configuration must be tested for DU contamination at intervals not to exceed 12 months. The analysis must be capable of detecting the presence of 185 Bq (0.005 microcuries) of radioactive material on the test sample and must be performed by a person specifically authorized by the Commission or an Agreement State to perform the analysis. Should such testing reveal the presence of 185 Bq (0.005 microcuries) or more of removable DU contamination, the exposure device must be removed from use until an evaluation of the wear on the S-tube has been made. Should the evaluation reveal that the S-tube is worn through, the device may not be used again. DU shielded devices do not have to be tested for DU contamination while in storage and not in use. Before using or transferring such a device however, the device must be tested for DU contamination if the interval of storage exceeded 12 months. A record of the DU leak-test must be made in accordance with § 34.67. Licensees will have until June 27, 1998, to comply with the DU leak-testing requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 37061, July 9, 1998; 67 FR 77652, Dec. 19, 2002; 68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5719, Jan. 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.29   Quarterly inventory.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall conduct a quarterly physical inventory to account for all sealed sources and for devices containing depleted uranium received and possessed under this license.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall maintain records of the quarterly inventory in accordance with § 34.69.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.31   Inspection and maintenance of radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, associated equipment, source changers, and survey instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall perform visual and operability checks on survey meters, radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, associated equipment and source changers before use on each day the equipment is to be used to ensure that the equipment is in good working condition, that the sources are adequately shielded, and that required labeling is present. Survey instrument operability must be performed using check sources or other appropriate means. If equipment problems are found, the equipment must be removed from service until repaired.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall have written procedures for:
</P>
<P>(1) Inspection and routine maintenance of radiographic exposure devices, source changers, associated equipment, transport and storage containers, and survey instruments at intervals not to exceed 3 months or before the first use thereafter to ensure the proper functioning of components important to safety. Replacement components shall meet design specifications. If equipment problems are found, the equipment must be removed from service until repaired.
</P>
<P>(2) Inspection and maintenance necessary to maintain the Type B packaging used to transport radioactive materials. The inspection and maintenance program must include procedures to assure that Type B packages are shipped and maintained in accordance with the certificate of compliance or other approval.
</P>
<P>(c) Records of equipment problems and of any maintenance performed under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be made in accordance with § 34.73.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.33   Permanent radiographic installations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each entrance that is used for personnel access to the high radiation area in a permanent radiographic installation must have either:
</P>
<P>(1) An entrance control of the type described in § 20.1601(a)(1) of this chapter that reduces the radiation level upon entry into the area, or
</P>
<P>(2) Both conspicuous visible and audible warning signals to warn of the presence of radiation. The visible signal must be actuated by radiation whenever the source is exposed. The audible signal must be actuated when an attempt is made to enter the installation while the source is exposed.
</P>
<P>(b) The alarm system must be tested for proper operation with a radiation source each day before the installation is used for radiographic operations. The test must include a check of both the visible and audible signals. Entrance control devices that reduce the radiation level upon entry (designated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) must be tested monthly. If an entrance control device or an alarm is operating improperly, it must be immediately labeled as defective and repaired within 7 calendar days. The facility may continue to be used during this 7-day period, provided the licensee implements the continuous surveillance requirements of § 34.51 and uses an alarming ratemeter. Test records for entrance controls and audible and visual alarm must be maintained in accordance with § 34.75.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.3.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.35   Labeling, storage, and transportation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee may not use a source changer or a container to store licensed material unless the source changer or the storage container has securely attached to it a durable, legible, and clearly visible label bearing the standard trefoil radiation caution symbol conventional colors, <I>i.e.</I>, magenta, purple or black on a yellow background, having a minimum diameter of 25 mm, and the wording
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>CAUTION*
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (or “NAME OF COMPANY”)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>*____ or “DANGER”</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The licensee may not transport licensed material unless the material is packaged, and the package is labeled, marked, and accompanied with appropriate shipping papers in accordance with regulations set out in 10 CFR part 71.
</P>
<P>(c) Locked radiographic exposure devices and storage containers must be physically secured to prevent tampering or removal by unauthorized personnel. The licensee shall store licensed material in a manner which will minimize danger from explosion or fire.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall lock and physically secure the transport package containing licensed material in the transporting vehicle to prevent accidental loss, tampering, or unauthorized removal of the licensed material from the vehicle.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Radiation Safety Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.41   Conducting industrial radiographic operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever radiography is performed at a location other than a permanent radiographic installation, the radiographer must be accompanied by at least one other qualified radiographer or an individual who has at a minimum met the requirements of § 34.43(c). The additional qualified individual shall observe the operations and be capable of providing immediate assistance to prevent unauthorized entry. Radiography may not be performed if only one qualified individual is present.
</P>
<P>(b) All radiographic operations conducted at locations of use authorized on the license must be conducted in a permanent radiographic installation, unless specifically authorized by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee may conduct lay-barge, offshore platform, or underwater radiography only if procedures have been approved by the Commission or by an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees will have until June 27, 1998, to meet the requirements for having two qualified individuals present at locations other than a permanent radiographic installation as specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 37061, July 9, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.42" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.42   Radiation Safety Officer for industrial radiography.</HEAD>
<P>The RSO shall ensure that radiation safety activities are being performed in accordance with approved procedures and regulatory requirements in the daily operation of the licensee's program.
</P>
<P>(a) The minimum qualifications, training, and experience for RSOs for industrial radiography are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Completion of the training and testing requirements of § 34.43(a);
</P>
<P>(2) 2000 hours of hands-on experience as a qualified radiographer in industrial radiographic operations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Formal training in the establishment and maintenance of a radiation protection program.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will consider alternatives when the RSO has appropriate training and/or experience in the field of ionizing radiation, and in addition, has adequate formal training with respect to the establishment and maintenance of a radiation safety protection program.
</P>
<P>(c) The specific duties and authorities of the RSO include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing and overseeing all operating, emergency, and ALARA procedures as required by 10 CFR part 20 of this chapter, and reviewing them regularly to ensure that the procedures in use conform to current 10 CFR part 20 procedures, conform to other NRC regulations and to the license conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Overseeing and approving all phases of the training program for radiographic personnel, ensuring that appropriate and effective radiation protection practices are taught;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensuring that required radiation surveys and leak tests are performed and documented in accordance with the regulations, including any corrective measures when levels of radiation exceed established limits;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensuring that personnel monitoring devices are calibrated and used properly by occupationally-exposed personnel, that records are kept of the monitoring results, and that timely notifications are made as required by § 20.2203 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(5) Ensuring that operations are conducted safely and to assume control for instituting corrective actions including stopping of operations when necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) Licensees will have until June 27, 1999, to meet the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 37061, July 9, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.43   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee may not permit any individual to act as a radiographer until the individual—
</P>
<P>(1) Has received training in the subjects in paragraph (g) of this section, in addition to a minimum of 2 months of on-the-job training, and is certified through a radiographer certification program by a certifying entity in accordance with the criteria specified in appendix A of this part. (An independent organization that would like to be recognized as a certifying entity shall submit its request to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter.); or
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee may, until June 27, 1999, allow an individual who has not met the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, to act as a radiographer after the individual has received training in the subjects outlined in paragraph (g) of this section and demonstrated an understanding of these subjects by successful completion of a written examination that was previously submitted to and approved by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, the licensee may not permit any individual to act as a radiographer until the individual—
</P>
<P>(1) Has received copies of and instruction in the requirements described in NRC regulations contained in this part; in §§ 30.7, 30.9, and 30.10 of this chapter; in the applicable sections of 10 CFR parts 19 and 20, of this chapter, in applicable DOT regulations as referenced in 10 CFR part 71, in the NRC license(s) under which the radiographer will perform industrial radiography, and the licensee's operating and emergency procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) Has demonstrated understanding of the licensee's license and operating and emergency procedures by successful completion of a written or oral examination covering this material.
</P>
<P>(3) Has received training in the use of the licensee's radiographic exposure devices, sealed sources, in the daily inspection of devices and associated equipment, and in the use of radiation survey instruments.
</P>
<P>(4) Has demonstrated understanding of the use of radiographic exposure devices, sources, survey instruments and associated equipment described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3) of this section by successful completion of a practical examination covering this material.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee may not permit any individual to act as a radiographer's assistant until the individual—
</P>
<P>(1) Has received copies of and instruction in the requirements described in NRC regulations contained in this part, in §§ 30.7, 30.9, and 30.10 of this chapter, in the applicable sections of 10 CFR parts 19 and 20 of this chapter, in applicable DOT regulations as referenced in 10 CFR part 71, in the NRC license(s) under which the radiographer's assistant will perform industrial radiography, and the licensee's operating and emergency procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) Has developed competence to use, under the personal supervision of the radiographer, the radiographic exposure devices, sealed sources, associated equipment, and radiation survey instruments that the assistant will use; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has demonstrated understanding of the instructions provided under (c)(1) of this section by successfully completing a written test on the subjects covered and has demonstrated competence in the use of hardware described in (c)(2) of this section by successful completion of a practical examination on the use of such hardware.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall provide annual refresher safety training for each radiographer and radiographer's assistant at intervals not to exceed 12 months.
</P>
<P>(e) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(4), the RSO or designee shall conduct an inspection program of the job performance of each radiographer and radiographer's assistant to ensure that the Commission's regulations, license requirements, and the applicant's operating and emergency procedures are followed. The inspection program must:
</P>
<P>(1) Include observation of the performance of each radiographer and radiographer's assistant during an actual industrial radiographic operation, at intervals not to exceed 6 months; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide that, if a radiographer or a radiographer's assistant has not participated in an industrial radiographic operation for more than 6 months since the last inspection, the radiographer must demonstrate knowledge of the training requirements of § 34.43(b)(3) and the radiographer's assistant must re-demonstrate knowledge of the training requirements of § 34.43(c)(2) by a practical examination before these individuals can next participate in a radiographic operation.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission may consider alternatives in those situations where the individual serves as both radiographer and RSO.
</P>
<P>(4) In those operations where a single individual serves as both radiographer and RSO, and performs all radiography operations, an inspection program is not required.
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee shall maintain records of the above training to include certification documents, written and practical examinations, refresher safety training and inspections of job performance in accordance with § 34.79.
</P>
<P>(g) The licensee shall include the following subjects required in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Fundamentals of radiation safety including—
</P>
<P>(i) Characteristics of gamma radiation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Units of radiation dose and quantity of radioactivity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Hazards of exposure to radiation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Levels of radiation from licensed material; and
</P>
<P>(v) Methods of controlling radiation dose (time, distance, and shielding);
</P>
<P>(2) Radiation detection instruments including—
</P>
<P>(i) Use, operation, calibration, and limitations of radiation survey instruments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Survey techniques; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use of personnel monitoring equipment;
</P>
<P>(3) Equipment to be used including—
</P>
<P>(i) Operation and control of radiographic exposure equipment, remote handling equipment, and storage containers, including pictures or models of source assemblies (pigtails).
</P>
<P>(ii) Storage, control, and disposal of licensed material; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Inspection and maintenance of equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of pertinent Federal regulations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Case histories of accidents in radiography.
</P>
<P>(h) Licensees will have until June 27, 1998, to comply with the additional training requirements specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees will have until June 27, 1999 to comply with the certification requirements specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Records of radiographer certification maintained in accordance with § 34.79(a) provide appropriate affirmation of certification requirements specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 37061, July 9, 1998; 68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003, 73 FR 5720, Jan. 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.45   Operating and emergency procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Operating and emergency procedures must include, as a minimum, instructions in the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate handling and use of licensed sealed sources and radiographic exposure devices so that no person is likely to be exposed to radiation doses in excess of the limits established in 10 CFR part 20 of this chapter “Standards for Protection Against Radiation”;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods and occasions for conducting radiation surveys;
</P>
<P>(3) Methods for controlling access to radiographic areas;
</P>
<P>(4) Methods and occasions for locking and securing radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers and sealed sources;
</P>
<P>(5) Personnel monitoring and the use of personnel monitoring equipment;
</P>
<P>(6) Transporting sealed sources to field locations, including packing of radiographic exposure devices and storage containers in the vehicles, placarding of vehicles when needed, and control of the sealed sources during transportation (refer to 49 CFR parts 171-173);
</P>
<P>(7) The inspection, maintenance, and operability checks of radiographic exposure devices, survey instruments, transport containers, and storage containers;
</P>
<P>(8) Steps that must be taken immediately by radiography personnel in the event a pocket dosimeter is found to be off-scale or an alarm ratemeter alarms unexpectedly.
</P>
<P>(9) The procedure(s) for identifying and reporting defects and noncompliance, as required by 10 CFR part 21 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(10) The procedure for notifying proper persons in the event of an accident;
</P>
<P>(11) Minimizing exposure of persons in the event of an accident;
</P>
<P>(12) Source recovery procedure if licensee will perform source recovery;
</P>
<P>(13) Maintenance of records.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall maintain copies of current operating and emergency procedures in accordance with §§ 34.81 and 34.89.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.46" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.46   Supervision of radiographers' assistants.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a radiographer's assistant uses radiographic exposure devices, associated equipment or sealed sources or conducts radiation surveys required by § 34.49(b) to determine that the sealed source has returned to the shielded position after an exposure, the assistant shall be under the personal supervision of a radiographer. The personal supervision must include:
</P>
<P>(a) The radiographer's physical presence at the site where the sealed sources are being used;
</P>
<P>(b) The availability of the radiographer to give immediate assistance if required; and
</P>
<P>(c) The radiographer's direct observation of the assistant's performance of the operations referred to in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.47   Personnel monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee may not permit any individual to act as a radiographer or a radiographer's assistant unless, at all times during radiographic operations, each individual wears, on the trunk of the body, a direct reading dosimeter, an operating alarm ratemeter, and a personnel dosimeter. At permanent radiography installations where other appropriate alarming or warning devices are in routine use, the wearing of an alarming ratemeter is not required. 
</P>
<P>(1) Pocket dosimeters must have a range from zero to 2 millisieverts (200 millirems) and must be recharged at the start of each shift. Electronic personal dosimeters may only be used in place of ion-chamber pocket dosimeters.
</P>
<P>(2) Each personnel dosimeter must be assigned to and worn only by one individual. 
</P>
<P>(3) Film badges must be replaced at least monthly and all other personnel dosimeters that require replacement must be replaced at least quarterly. All personnel dosimeters must be evaluated at least quarterly or promptly after replacement, whichever is more frequent.


</P>
<P>(b) Direct reading dosimeters such as pocket dosimeters or electronic personal dosimeters, must be read and the exposures recorded at the beginning and end of each shift, and records must be maintained in accordance with § 34.83.
</P>
<P>(c) Pocket dosimeters, or electronic personal dosimeters, must be checked at periods not to exceed 12 months for correct response to radiation, and records must be maintained in accordance with § 34.83. Acceptable dosimeters must read within plus or minus 20 percent of the true radiation exposure.




</P>
<P>(d) If an individual's pocket chamber is found to be off-scale, or if his or her electronic personal dosimeter reads greater than 2 millisieverts (200 millirems), and the possibility of radiation exposure cannot be ruled out as the cause, the individual's personnel dosimeter that requires processing must be sent for processing and evaluation within 24 hours. For personnel dosimeters that do not require processing, evaluation of the dosimeter must be started within 24 hours. In addition, the individual may not resume work associated with licensed material use until a determination of the individual's radiation dose has been made. This determination must be made by the RSO or the RSO's designee. The results of this determination must be included in the records maintained in accordance with § 34.83.


</P>
<P>(e) If the personnel dosimeter that is required by paragraph (a) of this section is lost or damaged, the worker shall cease work immediately until a replacement personnel dosimeter meeting the requirements in paragraph (a) is provided and the exposure is calculated for the time period from issuance to loss or damage of the personnel dosimeter. The results of the calculated exposure and the time period for which the personnel dosimeter was lost or damaged must be included in the records maintained in accordance with § 34.83. 
</P>
<P>(f) Dosimetry results must be retained in accordance with § 34.83.


</P>
<P>(g) Each alarm ratemeter must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be checked to ensure that the alarm functions properly (sounds) before using at the start of each shift;
</P>
<P>(2) Be set to give an alarm signal at a preset dose rate of 5 mSv/hr (500 mrem/hr); with an accuracy of plus or minus 20 percent of the true radiation dose rate;
</P>
<P>(3) Require special means to change the preset alarm function; and
</P>
<P>(4) Be calibrated at periods not to exceed 12 months for correct response to radiation. The licensee shall maintain records of alarm ratemeter calibrations in accordance with § 34.83.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 63751, Oct. 24, 2000; 85 FR 15351, Mar. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.49" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.49   Radiation surveys.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Conduct surveys with a calibrated and operable radiation survey instrument that meets the requirements of § 34.25.
</P>
<P>(b) Using a survey instrument meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, conduct a survey of the radiographic exposure device and the guide tube after each exposure when approaching the device or the guide tube. The survey must determine that the sealed source has returned to its shielded position before exchanging films, repositioning the exposure head, or dismantling equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct a survey of the radiographic exposure device with a calibrated radiation survey instrument any time the source is exchanged and whenever a radiographic exposure device is placed in a storage area (as defined in § 34.3), to ensure that the sealed source is in its shielded position.
</P>
<P>(d) Maintain records in accordance with § 34.85.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.51   Surveillance.</HEAD>
<P>During each radiographic operation the radiographer, or the other individual present, as required by § 34.41, shall maintain continuous direct visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a high radiation area, as defined in 10 CFR part 20 of this chapter, except at permanent radiographic installations where all entryways are locked and the requirements of § 34.33 are met.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.4.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.53   Posting.</HEAD>
<P>All areas in which industrial radiography is being performed must be conspicuously posted as required by § 20.1902(a) and (b) of this chapter. Exceptions listed in § 20.1903 of this chapter do not apply to industrial radiographic operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 66 FR 64738, Dec. 14, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Recordkeeping Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.61   Records of the specific license for industrial radiography.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain a copy of its license, license conditions, documents incorporated by reference, and amendments to each of these items until superseded by new documents approved by the Commission, or until the Commission terminates the license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.63   Records of receipt and transfer of sealed sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain records showing the receipts and transfers of sealed sources and devices using DU for shielding and retain each record for 3 years after it is made.
</P>
<P>(b) These records must include the date, the name of the individual making the record, radionuclide, number of becquerels (curies) or mass (for DU), and manufacturer, model, and serial number of each sealed source and/or device, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.65   Records of radiation survey instruments.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain records of the calibrations of its radiation survey instruments that are required under § 34.25 and retain each record for 3 years after it is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.67   Records of leak testing of sealed sources and devices containing depleted uranium.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain records of leak test results for sealed sources and for devices containing DU. The results must be stated in units of becquerels (microcuries). The licensee shall retain each record for 3 years after it is made or until the source in storage is removed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.69" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.69   Records of quarterly inventory.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain records of the quarterly inventory of sealed sources and of devices containing depleted uranium as required by § 34.29 and retain each record for 3 years after it is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include the date of the inventory, name of the individual conducting the inventory, radionuclide, number of becquerels (curies) or mass (for DU) in each device, location of sealed source and/or devices, and manufacturer, model, and serial number of each sealed source and/or device, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.71   Utilization logs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain utilization logs showing for each sealed source the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description, including the make, model, and serial number of the radiographic exposure device or transport or storage container in which the sealed source is located;
</P>
<P>(2) The identity and signature of the radiographer to whom assigned; and
</P>
<P>(3) The plant or site where used and dates of use, including the dates removed and returned to storage.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain the logs required by paragraph (a) of this section for 3 years after the log is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.73" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.73   Records of inspection and maintenance of radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, associated equipment, source changers, and survey instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain records specified in § 34.31 of equipment problems found in daily checks and quarterly inspections of radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, associated equipment, source changers, and survey instruments; and retain each record for 3 years after it is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include the date of check or inspection, name of inspector, equipment involved, any problems found, and what repair and/or maintenance, if any, was done.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.75" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.75   Records of alarm system and entrance control checks at permanent radiographic installations.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain records of alarm system and entrance control device tests required under § 34.33 and retain each record for 3 years after it is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.79" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.79   Records of training and certification.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain the following records (of training and certification) for 3 years after the record is made:
</P>
<P>(a) Records of training of each radiographer and each radiographer's assistant. The record must include radiographer certification documents and verification of certification status, copies of written tests, dates of oral and practical examinations, and names of individuals conducting and receiving the oral and practical examinations; and
</P>
<P>(b) Records of annual refresher safety training and semi-annual inspections of job performance for each radiographer and each radiographer's assistant. The records must list the topics discussed during the refresher safety training, the dates the annual refresher safety training was conducted, and names of the instructors and attendees. For inspections of job performance, the records must also include a list showing the items checked and any non-compliances observed by the RSO.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.81   Copies of operating and emergency procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain a copy of current operating and emergency procedures until the Commission terminates the license. Superseded material must be retained for 3 years after the change is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.83" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.83   Records of personnel monitoring procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain the following exposure records specified in § 34.47:
</P>
<P>(a) Direct reading dosimeter readings and yearly operability checks required by § 34.47 (b) and (c) for 3 years after the record is made.
</P>
<P>(b) Records of alarm ratemeter calibrations for 3 years after the record is made.
</P>
<P>(c) Personnel dosimeter results until the Commission terminates the license. 
</P>
<P>(d) Records of estimates of exposures as a result of: off-scale personal direct reading dosimeters, or lost or damaged personnel dosimeters until the Commission terminates the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 63752, Oct. 24, 2000; 85 FR 15351, Mar. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.85" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.85   Records of radiation surveys.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain a record of each exposure device survey conducted before the device is placed in storage as specified in § 34.49(c), if that survey is the last one performed in the workday. Each record must be maintained for 3 years after it is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.87" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.87   Form of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the specified retention period. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of reproducing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records, such as letters, drawings, and specifications, must include all pertinent information, such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 90 FR 55629, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.89" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.5.94.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.89   Location of documents and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain copies of records required by this part and other applicable parts of this chapter at the location specified in § 34.13(k).
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall also maintain copies of the following documents and records sufficient to demonstrate compliance at each applicable field station and each temporary jobsite;
</P>
<P>(1) The license authorizing the use of licensed material;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of 10 CFR parts 19, 20, and 34 of NRC regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) Utilization records for each radiographic exposure device dispatched from that location as required by § 34.71.
</P>
<P>(4) Records of equipment problems identified in daily checks of equipment as required by § 34.73(a);
</P>
<P>(5) Records of alarm system and entrance control checks required by § 34.75, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(6) Records of direct reading dosimeters such as pocket dosimeter and/or electronic personal dosimeters readings as required by § 34.83;
</P>
<P>(7) Operating and emergency procedures required by § 34.81;
</P>
<P>(8) Evidence of the latest calibration of the radiation survey instruments in use at the site, as required by § 34.65;
</P>
<P>(9) Evidence of the latest calibrations of alarm ratemeters and operability checks of pocket dosimeters and/or electronic personal dosimeters as required by § 34.83;
</P>
<P>(10) Latest survey records required by § 34.85;
</P>
<P>(11) The shipping papers for the transportation of radioactive materials required by § 71.5 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(12) When operating under reciprocity pursuant to § 150.20 of this chapter, a copy of the Agreement State license authorizing the use of licensed materials.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Notifications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.6.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.101   Notifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the reporting requirements specified in § 30.50 and under other sections of this chapter, such as § 21.21, each licensee shall send a written report to the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, within 30 days of the occurrence of any of the following incidents involving radiographic equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) Unintentional disconnection of the source assembly from the control cable;
</P>
<P>(2) Inability to retract the source assembly to its fully shielded position and secure it in this position; or
</P>
<P>(3) Failure of any component (critical to safe operation of the device) to properly perform its intended function;
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall include the following information in each report submitted under paragraph (a) of this section, and in each report of overexposure submitted under 10 CFR 20.2203 which involves failure of safety components of radiography equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the equipment problem;
</P>
<P>(2) Cause of each incident, if known;
</P>
<P>(3) Name of the manufacturer and model number of equipment involved in the incident;
</P>
<P>(4) Place, date, and time of the incident;
</P>
<P>(5) Actions taken to establish normal operations;
</P>
<P>(6) Corrective actions taken or planned to prevent recurrence; and
</P>
<P>(7) Qualifications of personnel involved in the incident.
</P>
<P>(c) Any licensee conducting radiographic operations or storing radioactive material at any location not listed on the license for a period in excess of 180 days in a calendar year, shall notify the appropriate NRC regional office listed in § 30.6(b)(2) of this chapter prior to exceeding the 180 days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 3585, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5720, Jan. 31, 2008; 83 FR 30287, June 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.111" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.7.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.111   Applications for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant an exemption from the requirements of the regulations in this part if it determines the exemption is authorized by law and would not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and is otherwise in the public interest. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 28963, May 28, 1997, as amended at 90 FR 55629, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.121" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.8.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.121   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to these Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act;
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.123" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.8.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.123   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1952, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under one or more of §§ 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of Section 223, all the regulations in 10 CFR part 34 are issued under one or more of §§ 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in 10 CFR part 34 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of Section 223 are as follows: §§ 34.1, 34.3, 34.5, 34.8, 34.11, 34.13, 34.111, 34.121, 34.123.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.24.8.94.3.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 34—Radiographer Certification
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Requirements for an Independent Certifying Organization
</HD1>
<P>An independent certifying organization shall:
</P>
<P>1. Be an organization such as a society or association, whose members participate in, or have an interest in, the fields of industrial radiography;
</P>
<P>2. Make its membership available to the general public nationwide that is not restricted because of race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin or disability;
</P>
<P>3. Have a certification program open to nonmembers, as well as members;
</P>
<P>4. Be an incorporated, nationally recognized organization, that is involved in setting national standards of practice within its fields of expertise;
</P>
<P>5. Have an adequate staff, a viable system for financing its operations, and a policy-and decision-making review board;
</P>
<P>6. Have a set of written organizational by-laws and policies that provide adequate assurance of lack of conflict of interest and a system for monitoring and enforcing those by-laws and policies;
</P>
<P>7. Have a committee, whose members can carry out their responsibilities impartially, to review and approve the certification guidelines and procedures, and to advise the organization's staff in implementing the certification program;
</P>
<P>8. Have a committee, whose members can carry out their responsibilities impartially, to review complaints against certified individuals and to determine appropriate sanctions;
</P>
<P>9. Have written procedures describing all aspects of its certification program, maintain records of the current status of each individual's certification and the administration of its certification program;
</P>
<P>10. Have procedures to ensure that certified individuals are provided due process with respect to the administration of its certification program, including the process of becoming certified and any sanctions imposed against certified individuals;
</P>
<P>11. Have procedures for proctoring examinations, including qualifications for proctors. These procedures must ensure that the individuals proctoring each examination are not employed by the same company or corporation (or a wholly-owned subsidiary of such company or corporation) as any of the examinees;
</P>
<P>12. Exchange information about certified individuals with the Commission and other independent certifying organizations and/or Agreement States and allow periodic review of its certification program and related records; and
</P>
<P>13. Provide a description to the Commission of its procedures for choosing examination sites and for providing an appropriate examination environment.
</P>
<HD1>II. Requirements for Certification Programs
</HD1>
<P>All certification programs must:
</P>
<P>1. Require applicants for certification to (a) receive training in the topics set forth in § 34.43(g) or equivalent Agreement State regulations, and (b) satisfactorily complete a written examination covering these topics;
</P>
<P>2. Require applicants for certification to provide documentation that demonstrates that the applicant has: (a) received training in the topics set forth in § 34.43(g) or equivalent Agreement State regulations; (b) satisfactorily completed a minimum period of on-the-job training; and (c) has received verification by an Agreement State or a NRC licensee that the applicant has demonstrated the capability of independently working as a radiographer;
</P>
<P>3. Include procedures to ensure that all examination questions are protected from disclosure;
</P>
<P>4. Include procedures for denying an application, revoking, suspending, and reinstating a certificate;
</P>
<P>5. Provide a certification period of not less than 3 years nor more than 5 years;
</P>
<P>6. Include procedures for renewing certifications and, if the procedures allow renewals without examination, require evidence of recent full-time employment and annual refresher training.
</P>
<P>7. Provide a timely response to inquiries, by telephone or letter, from members of the public, about an individual's certification status.
</P>
<HD1>III. Requirements for Written Examinations
</HD1>
<P>All examinations must be:
</P>
<P>1. Designed to test an individual's knowledge and understanding of the topics listed in § 34.43(g) or equivalent Agreement State requirements;
</P>
<P>2. Written in a multiple-choice format;
</P>
<P>3. Have test items drawn from a question bank containing psychometrically valid questions based on the material in § 34.43(g).


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 35—MEDICAL USE OF BYPRODUCT MATERIAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 81, 161, 181, 182, 183, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2111, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 35 appear at 79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the requirements and provisions for the medical use of byproduct material and for issuance of specific licenses authorizing the medical use of this material. These requirements and provisions provide for the radiation safety of workers, the general public, patients, and human research subjects. The requirements and provisions of this part are in addition to, and not in substitution for, others in this chapter. The requirements and provisions of parts 19, 20, 21, 30, 37, 71, 170, and 171 of this chapter apply to applicants and licensees subject to this part unless specifically exempted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17006, Mar. 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Address of use</I> means the building or buildings that are identified on the license and where byproduct material may be received, prepared, used, or stored. 
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means any State with which the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Area of use</I> means a portion of an address of use that has been set aside for the purpose of receiving, preparing, using, or storing byproduct material. 
</P>
<P><I>Associate Radiation Safety Officer</I> means an individual who—
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements in §§ 35.50 and 35.59; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is currently identified as an Associate Radiation Safety Officer for the types of use of byproduct material for which the individual has been assigned duties and tasks by the Radiation Safety Officer on—
</P>
<P>(i) A specific medical use license issued by the Commission or an Agreement State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A medical use permit issued by a Commission master material licensee.








</P>
<P><I>Authorized medical physicist</I> means an individual who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements in §§ 35.51(a) and 35.59; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is identified as an authorized medical physicist or teletherapy physicist on— 
</P>
<P>(i) A specific medical use license issued by the Commission or Agreement State; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A medical use permit issued by a Commission master material licensee; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A permit issued by a Commission or Agreement State broad scope medical use licensee; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) A permit issued by a Commission master material license broad scope medical use permittee. 
</P>
<P><I>Authorized nuclear pharmacist</I> means a pharmacist who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements in §§ 35.55(a) and 35.59; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is identified as an authorized nuclear pharmacist on— 
</P>
<P>(i) A specific license issued by the Commission or Agreement State that authorizes medical use or the practice of nuclear pharmacy; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A permit issued by a Commission master material licensee that authorizes medical use or the practice of nuclear pharmacy; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A permit issued by a Commission or Agreement State broad scope medical use licensee that authorizes medical use or the practice of nuclear pharmacy; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) A permit issued by a Commission master material license broad scope medical use permittee that authorizes medical use or the practice of nuclear pharmacy; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Is identified as an authorized nuclear pharmacist by a commercial nuclear pharmacy that has been authorized to identify authorized nuclear pharmacists; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Is designated as an authorized nuclear pharmacist in accordance with § 32.72(b)(4). 
</P>
<P><I>Authorized user</I> means a physician, dentist, or podiatrist who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements in §§ 35.59 and 35.190(a), 35.290(a), 35.390(a), 35.392(a), 35.394(a), 35.490(a), 35.590(a), or 35.690(a); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is identified as an authorized user on— 
</P>
<P>(i) A Commission or Agreement State license that authorizes the medical use of byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A permit issued by a Commission master material licensee that is authorized to permit the medical use of byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A permit issued by a Commission or Agreement State specific licensee of broad scope that is authorized to permit the medical use of byproduct material; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) A permit issued by a Commission master material license broad scope permittee that is authorized to permit the medical use of byproduct material. 
</P>
<P><I>Brachytherapy</I> means a method of radiation therapy in which sources are used to deliver a radiation dose at a distance of up to a few centimeters by surface, intracavitary, intraluminal, or interstitial application. 
</P>
<P><I>Brachytherapy</I> source means a radioactive source or a manufacturer-assembled source train or a combination of these sources that is designed to deliver a therapeutic dose within a distance of a few centimeters. 
</P>
<P><I>Client's address</I> means the area of use or a temporary job site for the purpose of providing mobile medical service in accordance with § 35.80. 
</P>
<P><I>Cyclotron</I> means a particle accelerator in which the charged particles travel in an outward spiral or circular path. A cyclotron accelerates charged particles at energies usually in excess of 10 megaelectron volts and is commonly used for production of short half-life radionuclides for medical use.
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated check source</I> means a radioactive source that is used to assure the constant operation of a radiation detection or measurement device over several months or years. 
</P>
<P><I>Dentist</I> means an individual licensed by a State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to practice dentistry. 
</P>
<P><I>High dose-rate remote afterloader,</I> as used in this part, means a brachytherapy device that remotely delivers a dose rate in excess of 12 gray (1200 rads) per hour at the point or surface where the dose is prescribed. 
</P>
<P><I>Low dose-rate remote afterloader,</I> as used in this part, means a brachytherapy device that remotely delivers a dose rate of less than or equal to 2 gray (200 rads) per hour at the point or surface where the dose is prescribed. 
</P>
<P><I>Management</I> means the chief executive officer or other individual having the authority to manage, direct, or administer the licensee's activities, or those persons' delegate or delegates. 
</P>
<P><I>Manual brachytherapy,</I> as used in this part, means a type of brachytherapy in which the brachytherapy sources (e.g., seeds, ribbons) are manually placed topically on or inserted either into the body cavities that are in close proximity to a treatment site or directly into the tissue volume. 
</P>
<P><I>Medical event</I> means an event that meets the criteria in § 35.3045(a) or (b).
</P>
<P><I>Medical institution</I> means an organization in which more than one medical discipline is practiced. 
</P>
<P><I>Medical use</I> means the intentional internal or external administration of byproduct material or the radiation from byproduct material to patients or human research subjects under the supervision of an authorized user. 
</P>
<P><I>Medium dose-rate remote afterloader,</I> as used in this part, means a brachytherapy device that remotely delivers a dose rate of greater than 2 gray (200 rads) per hour, but less than or equal to 12 gray (1200 rads) per hour at the point or surface where the dose is prescribed.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile medical service</I> means the transportation of byproduct material to and its medical use at the client's address. 
</P>
<P><I>Ophthalmic physicist</I> means an individual who—
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements in §§ 35.433(a)(2) and 35.59; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is identified as an ophthalmic physicist on a—
</P>
<P>(i) Specific medical use license issued by the Commission or an Agreement State;
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit issued by a Commission or Agreement State broad scope medical use licensee;
</P>
<P>(iii) Medical use permit issued by a Commission master material licensee; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Permit issued by a Commission master material licensee broad scope medical use permittee.






</P>
<P><I>Output</I> means the exposure rate, dose rate, or a quantity related in a known manner to these rates from a brachytherapy source or a teletherapy, remote afterloader, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit for a specified set of exposure conditions. 
</P>
<P><I>Patient intervention</I> means actions by the patient or human research subject, whether intentional or unintentional, such as dislodging or removing treatment devices or prematurely terminating the administration. 
</P>
<P><I>Pharmacist</I> means an individual licensed by a State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to practice pharmacy. 
</P>
<P><I>Physician</I> means a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy licensed by a State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to prescribe drugs in the practice of medicine. 
</P>
<P><I>Podiatrist</I> means an individual licensed by a State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to practice podiatry.
</P>
<P><I>Positron Emission Tomography (PET) radionuclide production facility</I> is defined as a facility operating a cyclotron or accelerator for the purpose of producing PET radionuclides.
</P>
<P><I>Preceptor</I> means an individual who provides, directs, or verifies training and experience required for an individual to become an authorized user, an authorized medical physicist, an authorized nuclear pharmacist, a Radiation Safety Officer, or an Associate Radiation Safety Officer.


</P>
<P><I>Prescribed dosage</I> means the specified activity or range of activity of unsealed byproduct material as documented— 
</P>
<P>(1) In a written directive; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with the directions of the authorized user for procedures performed pursuant to §§ 35.100 and 35.200. 
</P>
<P><I>Prescribed dose</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) For gamma stereotactic radiosurgery, the total dose as documented in the written directive; 
</P>
<P>(2) For teletherapy, the total dose and dose per fraction as documented in the written directive; 
</P>
<P>(3) For manual brachytherapy, either the total source strength and exposure time or the total dose, as documented in the written directive; or 
</P>
<P>(4) For remote brachytherapy afterloaders, the total dose and dose per fraction as documented in the written directive. 
</P>
<P><I>Pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader,</I> as used in this part, means a special type of remote afterloading brachytherapy device that uses a single source capable of delivering dose rates in the “high dose-rate” range, but— 
</P>
<P>(1) Is approximately one-tenth of the activity of typical high dose-rate remote afterloader sources; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Is used to simulate the radiobiology of a low dose-rate treatment by inserting the source for a given fraction of each hour. 
</P>
<P><I>Radiation Safety Officer</I> means an individual who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements in §§ 35.50(a) or (c)(1) and 35.59; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is identified as a Radiation Safety Officer on— 
</P>
<P>(i) A specific medical use license issued by the Commission or Agreement State; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A medical use permit issued by a Commission master material licensee. 
</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any byproduct material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the byproduct material. 
</P>
<P><I>Sealed Source</I> and <I>Device Registry</I> means the national registry that contains all the registration certificates, generated by both NRC and the Agreement States, that summarize the radiation safety information for the sealed sources and devices and describe the licensing and use conditions approved for the product. 
</P>
<P><I>Stereotactic radiosurgery</I> means the use of external radiation in conjunction with a stereotactic guidance device to very precisely deliver a therapeutic dose to a tissue volume. 
</P>
<P><I>Structured educational program</I> means an educational program designed to impart particular knowledge and practical education through interrelated studies and supervised training. 
</P>
<P><I>Teletherapy,</I> as used in this part, means a method of radiation therapy in which collimated gamma rays are delivered at a distance from the patient or human research subject. 
</P>
<P><I>Temporary job site</I> means a location where mobile medical services are conducted other than those location(s) of use authorized on the license. 
</P>
<P><I>Therapeutic dosage</I> means a dosage of unsealed byproduct material that is intended to deliver a radiation dose to a patient or human research subject for palliative or curative treatment. 
</P>
<P><I>Therapeutic dose</I> means a radiation dose delivered from a source containing byproduct material to a patient or human research subject for palliative or curative treatment. 
</P>
<P><I>Treatment site</I> means the anatomical description of the tissue intended to receive a radiation dose, as described in a written directive. 
</P>
<P><I>Type of use</I> means use of byproduct material under §§ 35.100, 35.200, 35.300, 35.400, 35.500, 35.600, or 35.1000. 
</P>
<P><I>Unit dosage</I> means a dosage prepared for medical use for administration as a single dosage to a patient or human research subject without any further manipulation of the dosage after it is initially prepared. 
</P>
<P><I>Written directive</I> means an authorized user's written order for the administration of byproduct material or radiation from byproduct material to a specific patient or human research subject, as specified in § 35.40. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19324, Apr. 21, 2003; 69 FR 55737, Sept. 16, 2004; 70 FR 16361, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 45151, Aug. 13, 2007; 72 FR 55930, Oct. 1, 2007; 83 FR 33102, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.5   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the specified retention period. The record may be the original, a reproduced copy, or a microform if the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 90 FR 55629, Dec. 3, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.6   Provisions for the protection of human research subjects.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may conduct research involving human research subjects only if it uses the byproduct materials specified on its license for the uses authorized on its license. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the research is conducted, funded, supported, or regulated by another Federal agency that has implemented the Federal Policy for the Protection of Human Subjects (Federal Policy), the licensee shall, before conducting research— 
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain review and approval of the research from an “Institutional Review Board,” as defined and described in the Federal Policy; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain “informed consent,” as defined and described in the Federal Policy, from the human research subject. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the research will not be conducted, funded, supported, or regulated by another Federal agency that has implemented the Federal Policy, the licensee shall, before conducting research, apply for and receive a specific amendment to its NRC medical use license. The amendment request must include a written commitment that the licensee will, before conducting research— 
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain review and approval of the research from an “Institutional Review Board,” as defined and described in the Federal Policy; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain “informed consent”, as defined and described in the Federal Policy, from the human research subject. 
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section relieves licensees from complying with the other requirements in this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002; 67 FR 62872, Oct. 9, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.7   FDA, other Federal, and State requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part relieves the licensee from complying with applicable FDA, other Federal, and State requirements governing radioactive drugs or devices. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501<I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements in this part under control number 3150-0010. 


</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 35.6, 35.12, 35.13, 35.14, 35.19, 35.24, 35.26, 35.27, 35.40, 35.41, 35.50, 35.51, 35.55, 35.60, 35.61, 35.63, 35.67, 35.69, 35.70, 35.75, 35.80, 35.92, 35.190, 35.204, 35.290, 35.310, 35.315, 35.390, 35.392, 35.394, 35.396, 35.404, 35.406, 35.410, 35.415, 35.432, 35.433, 35.490, 35.491, 35.590, 35.604, 35.605, 35.610, 35.615, 35.630, 35.632, 35.633, 35.635, 35.642, 35.643, 35.645, 35.647, 35.652, 35.655, 35.690, 35.1000, 35.2024, 35.2026, 35.2040, 35.2041, 35.2060, 35.2061, 35.2063, 35.2067, 35.2070, 35.2075, 35.2080, 35.2092, 35.2204, 35.2310, 35.2404, 35.2406, 35.2432, 35.2433, 35.2605, 35.2610, 35.2630, 35.2632, 35.2642, 35.2643, 35.2645, 35.2647, 35.2652, 35.2655, 35.3045, 35.3047, 35.3067, and 35.3204.




</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) In § 35.12, NRC Form 313, including NRC Form 313A, which licensees may use to provide supplemental information, is approved under control number 3150-0120. 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006; 83 FR 33102, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.10   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Government agency or a Federally recognized Indian Tribe that possesses and uses accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for which a specific medical use license is required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, must comply with the requirements of this part, including provisions that are specific to licensees, on November 30, 2007. All other persons who possess and use accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for which a specific medical use license is required, must comply with the requirements of this part, including provisions that are specific to licensees, on August 8, 2009, or earlier as noticed by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b)-(c) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(d) If a license condition exempted a licensee from a provision of Part 35 on October 24, 2002, then the license condition continues to exempt the licensee from the requirements in the corresponding provision of §§ 35.1-35.4002. 
</P>
<P>(e) When a requirement in this part differs from the requirement in an existing license condition, the requirement in this part shall govern. 
</P>
<P>(f) A licensee shall continue to comply with any license condition that requires it to implement procedures required by §§ 35.610, 35.642, 35.643, and 35.645 until there is a license amendment or renewal that modifies the license condition. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 55930, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.11   License required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may manufacture, produce, acquire, receive, possess, prepare, use, or transfer byproduct material for medical use only in accordance with a specific license issued by the Commission or an Agreement State, or as allowed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A specific license is not needed for an individual who— 
</P>
<P>(1) Receives, possesses, uses, or transfers byproduct material in accordance with the regulations in this chapter under the supervision of an authorized user as provided in § 35.27, unless prohibited by license condition; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Prepares unsealed byproduct material for medical use in accordance with the regulations in this chapter under the supervision of an authorized nuclear pharmacist or authorized user as provided in § 35.27, unless prohibited by license condition.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A Government agency or a Federally recognized Indian Tribe, that possesses and uses accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for which a specific medical use license is required in paragraph (a) of this section, may continue to use such materials for medical uses until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the person submits a medical use license application on or before December 1, 2008.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, all other persons, who possess and use accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 for which a specific medical use license is required in paragraph (a) of this section, may continue to use this type of material for medical uses permitted under this part until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the person submits a medical use license application within 12 months from the waiver expiration date of August 7, 2009 or within 12 months from the date of an earlier termination of the waiver as noticed by the NRC, whichever date is earlier.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 55930, Oct. 1, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.12   Application for license, amendment, or renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application must be signed by the applicant's or licensee's management. 
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a license for medical use of byproduct material as described in §§ 35.100, 35.200, 35.300, 35.400, 35.500, 35.600, and 35.1000 must be made by— 
</P>
<P>(1) Filing an original NRC Form 313, “Application for Material License,” that includes the facility diagram, equipment, and training and experience qualifications of the Radiation Safety Officer, Associate Radiation Safety Officer(s), authorized user(s), authorized medical physicist(s), ophthalmic physicist(s), and authorized nuclear pharmacist(s); and






</P>
<P>(2) Submitting procedures required by §§ 35.610, 35.642, 35.643, and 35.645, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(c) A request for a license amendment or renewal must be made by— 
</P>
<P>(1) Submitting an original of either—




</P>
<P>(i) NRC Form 313, “Application for Material License”; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A letter containing all information required by NRC Form 313; and




</P>
<P>(2) Submitting procedures required by §§ 35.610, 35.642, 35.643, and 35.645, as applicable. 


</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the requirements in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, an application for a license or amendment for medical use of byproduct material as described in § 35.1000 must also include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any additional aspects of the medical use of the material that are applicable to radiation safety that are not addressed in, or differ from, subparts A through C, L, and M of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of and commitment to follow the applicable radiation safety program requirements in subparts D through H of this part that are appropriate for the specific § 35.1000 medical use;
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional specific information on—
</P>
<P>(i) Radiation safety precautions and instructions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Methodology for measurement of dosages or doses to be administered to patients or human research subjects; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Calibration, maintenance, and repair of instruments and equipment necessary for radiation safety; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other information requested by the Commission in its review of the application.






</P>
<P>(e) An applicant that satisfies the requirements specified in § 33.13 of this chapter may apply for a Type A specific license of broad scope. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002; 67 FR 62872, Oct. 9, 2002; 83 FR 33102, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.13   License amendments.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall apply for and must receive a license amendment—
</P>
<P>(a) Before it receives, prepares, or uses byproduct material for a type of use that is permitted under this part, but is not authorized on the licensee's current license issued under this part; except that—
</P>
<P>(1) A Government agency or a Federally recognized Indian Tribe licensee who possesses and uses accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 may continue to use such material for medical uses permitted under this part until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the licensee submits an amendment application on or before June 2, 2008.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, all other licensees who possess and use accelerator-produced radioactive material or discrete sources of radium-226 may continue to use those materials for medical uses permitted under this part until the date of the NRC's final licensing determination, provided that the person submits a medical use license amendment request within 6 months from the waiver expiration date of August 7, 2009 or within 6 months from the date of an earlier termination of the waiver as noticed by the NRC, whichever date is earlier.




</P>
<P>(b) Before it permits anyone to work as an authorized user, authorized medical physicist, ophthalmic physicist, or authorized nuclear pharmacist under the license, except—
</P>
<P>(1) For an authorized user, an individual who meets the requirements in §§ 35.59 and 35.190(a), 35.290(a), 35.390(a), 35.392(a), 35.394(a), 35.490(a), 35.590(a), and 35.690(a);
</P>
<P>(2) For an authorized nuclear pharmacist, an individual who meets the requirements in §§ 35.55(a) and 35.59;
</P>
<P>(3) For an authorized medical physicist, an individual who meets the requirements in §§ 35.51(a) and 35.59;
</P>
<P>(4) An individual who is identified as an authorized user, an authorized nuclear pharmacist, authorized medical physicist, or an ophthalmic physicist—
</P>
<P>(i) On a Commission or Agreement State license or other equivalent permit or license recognized by NRC that authorizes the use of byproduct material in medical use or in the practice of nuclear pharmacy;
</P>
<P>(ii) On a permit issued by a Commission or Agreement State specific license of broad scope that is authorized to permit the use of byproduct material in medical use or in the practice of nuclear pharmacy;
</P>
<P>(iii) On a permit issued by a Commission master material licensee that is authorized to permit the use of byproduct material in medical use or in the practice of nuclear pharmacy; or
</P>
<P>(iv) By a commercial nuclear pharmacy that has been authorized to identify authorized nuclear pharmacists;


</P>
<P>(c) Before it changes Radiation Safety Officers, except as provided in § 35.24(c);
</P>
<P>(d) Before it permits anyone to work as an Associate Radiation Safety Officer, or before the Radiation Safety Officer assigns duties and tasks to an Associate Radiation Safety Officer that differ from those for which this individual is authorized on the license;









 
</P>
<P>(e) Before it receives byproduct material in excess of the amount or in a different form, or receives a different radionuclide than is authorized on the license;
</P>
<P>(f) Before it adds to or changes the areas of use identified in the application or on the license, including areas used in accordance with either § 35.100 or § 35.200 if the change includes addition or relocation of either an area where PET radionuclides are produced or a PET radioactive drug delivery line from the PET radionuclide/PET radioactive drug production area. Other areas of use where byproduct material is used only in accordance with either § 35.100 or § 35.200 are exempt;

 
</P>
<P>(g) Before it changes the address(es) of use identified in the application or on the license;
</P>
<P>(h) Before it revises procedures required by §§ 35.610, 35.642, 35.643, and 35.645, as applicable, where such revision reduces radiation safety; and
</P>
<P>(i) Before it receives a sealed source from a different manufacturer or of a different model number than authorized by its license unless the sealed source is used for manual brachytherapy, is listed in the Sealed Source and Device Registry, and is in a quantity and for an isotope authorized by the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 55930, Oct. 1, 2007; 83 FR 33102, July 16, 2018; 87 FR 68031, Nov. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.14   Notifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall provide the Commission, no later than 30 days after the date that the licensee permits an individual to work under the provisions of § 35.13(b) as an authorized user, authorized medical physicist, ophthalmic physicist, or authorized nuclear pharmacist—
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the board certification and, as appropriate, verification of completion of:
</P>
<P>(i) Training for the authorized medical physicist under § 35.51(c);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any additional case experience required in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G) for an authorized user under § 35.300; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Device specific training in § 35.690(c) for the authorized user under § 35.600; or
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the Commission or Agreement State license, the permit issued by a Commission master material licensee, the permit issued by a Commission or Agreement State licensee of broad scope, the permit issued by a Commission master material license broad scope permittee, or documentation that only accelerator-produced radioactive materials, discrete sources of radium-226, or both, were used for medical use or in the practice of nuclear pharmacy at a Government agency or Federally recognized Indian Tribe before November 30, 2007, or at all other locations of use before August 8, 2009, or an earlier date as noticed by the NRC for each individual whom the licensee permits to work under the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall notify the Commission no later than 30 days after:
</P>
<P>(1) An authorized user, an authorized nuclear pharmacist, a Radiation Safety Officer, an Associate Radiation Safety Officer, an authorized medical physicist, or ophthalmic physicist permanently discontinues performance of duties under the license or has a name change;
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee permits an individual qualified to be a Radiation Safety Officer under §§ 35.50 and 35.59 to function as a temporary Radiation Safety Officer and to perform the functions of a Radiation Safety Officer in accordance with § 35.24(c);
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee's mailing address changes;
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee's name changes, but the name change does not constitute a transfer of control of the license as described in § 30.34(b) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee has added to or changed the areas of use identified in the application or on the license where byproduct material is used in accordance with either § 35.100 or § 35.200 if the change does not include addition or relocation of either an area where PET radionuclides are produced or a PET radioactive drug delivery line from the PET radionuclide/PET radioactive drug production area; or
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee obtains a sealed source for use in manual brachytherapy from a different manufacturer or with a different model number than authorized by its license for which it did not require a license amendment as provided in § 35.13(i). The notification must include the manufacturer and model number of the sealed source, the isotope, and the quantity per sealed source.


</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall send the documents required in this section to the appropriate address identified in § 30.6 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003; 70 FR 16361, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 55931, Oct. 1, 2007; 83 FR 33103, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.15   Exemptions regarding Type A specific licenses of broad scope.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee possessing a Type A specific license of broad scope for medical use, issued under Part 33 of this chapter, is exempt from— 
</P>
<P>(a) The provisions of § 35.12(d) regarding the need to file an amendment to the license for medical use of byproduct material, as described in § 35.1000; 
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of § 35.13(b); 
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of § 35.13(f) regarding additions to or changes in the areas of use at the addresses identified in the application or on the license;
</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of § 35.14(a); 
</P>
<P>(e) The provisions of § 35.14(b)(1) for an authorized user, an authorized nuclear pharmacist, an authorized medical physicist, or an ophthalmic physicist;


</P>
<P>(f) The provisions of § 35.14(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(g) The provisions of § 35.49(a). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 55931, Oct. 1, 2007; 83 FR 33103, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.18" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.18   License issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall issue a license for the medical use of byproduct material if— 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant has filed NRC Form 313 “Application for Material License” in accordance with the instructions in § 35.12; 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant has paid any applicable fee as provided in Part 170 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission finds the applicant equipped and committed to observe the safety standards established by the Commission in this Chapter for the protection of the public health and safety; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant meets the requirements of Part 30 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall issue a license for mobile medical service if the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Assures that individuals or human research subjects to whom unsealed byproduct material or radiation from implants containing byproduct material will be administered may be released following treatment in accordance with § 35.75. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.1.94.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.19   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the regulations in this part that it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 90 FR 55629, Dec. 3, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Administrative Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.24" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.24   Authority and responsibilities for the radiation protection program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the radiation protection program requirements of § 20.1101 of this chapter, a licensee's management shall approve in writing— 
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for a license application, renewal, or amendment before submittal to the Commission; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual before allowing that individual to work as an authorized user, authorized nuclear pharmacist, or authorized medical physicist; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Radiation protection program changes that do not require a license amendment and are permitted under § 35.26; 


</P>
<P>(b) A licensee's management shall appoint a Radiation Safety Officer who agrees, in writing, to be responsible for implementing the radiation protection program. The licensee, through the Radiation Safety Officer, shall ensure that radiation safety activities are being performed in accordance with licensee-approved procedures and regulatory requirements. A licensee's management may appoint, in writing, one or more Associate Radiation Safety Officers to support the Radiation Safety Officer. The Radiation Safety Officer, with written agreement of the licensee's management, must assign the specific duties and tasks to each Associate Radiation Safety Officer. These duties and tasks are restricted to the types of use for which the Associate Radiation Safety Officer is listed on a license. The Radiation Safety Officer may delegate duties and tasks to the Associate Radiation Safety Officer but shall not delegate the authority or responsibilities for implementing the radiation protection program.
</P>
<P>(c) For up to 60 days each year, a licensee may permit an individual qualified to be a Radiation Safety Officer, under §§ 35.50 and 35.59, to function as a temporary Radiation Safety Officer and to perform the functions of a Radiation Safety Officer, as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, if the licensee takes the actions required in paragraphs (b), (e), (g), and (h) of this section and notifies the Commission in accordance with § 35.14(b).


</P>
<P>(d) A licensee may simultaneously appoint more than one temporary Radiation Safety Officer in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, if needed to ensure that the licensee has a temporary Radiation Safety Officer that satisfies the requirements to be a Radiation Safety Officer for each of the different types of uses of byproduct material permitted by the license. 
</P>
<P>(e) A licensee shall establish the authority, duties, and responsibilities of the Radiation Safety Officer in writing. 
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees that are authorized for two or more different types of uses of byproduct material under Subparts E, F, and H of this part, or two or more types of units under Subpart H of this part, shall establish a Radiation Safety Committee to oversee all uses of byproduct material permitted by the license. The Committee must include an authorized user of each type of use permitted by the license, the Radiation Safety Officer, a representative of the nursing service, and a representative of management who is neither an authorized user nor a Radiation Safety Officer. The Committee may include other members the licensee considers appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(g) A licensee shall provide the Radiation Safety Officer sufficient authority, organizational freedom, time, resources, and management prerogative, to— 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify radiation safety problems; 
</P>
<P>(2) Initiate, recommend, or provide corrective actions; 
</P>
<P>(3) Stop unsafe operations; and, 
</P>
<P>(4) Verify implementation of corrective actions. 
</P>
<P>(h) A licensee shall retain a record of actions taken under paragraphs (a), (b), and (e) of this section in accordance with § 35.2024. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 83 FR 33103, July 16, 2018]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.26   Radiation protection program changes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may revise its radiation protection program without Commission approval if— 
</P>
<P>(1) The revision does not require a license amendment under § 35.13; 
</P>
<P>(2) The revision is in compliance with the regulations and the license ; 
</P>
<P>(3) The revision has been reviewed and approved by the Radiation Safety Officer and licensee management; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The affected individuals are instructed on the revised program before the changes are implemented. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall retain a record of each change in accordance with § 35.2026. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.27   Supervision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee that permits the receipt, possession, use, or transfer of byproduct material by an individual under the supervision of an authorized user, as allowed by § 35.11(b)(1), shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) In addition to the requirements in § 19.12 of this chapter, instruct the supervised individual in the licensee's written radiation protection procedures, written directive procedures, regulations of this chapter, and license conditions with respect to the use of byproduct material; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the supervised individual to follow the instructions of the supervising authorized user for medical uses of byproduct material, written radiation protection procedures established by the licensee, written directive procedures, regulations of this chapter, and license conditions with respect to the medical use of byproduct material. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee that permits the preparation of byproduct material for medical use by an individual under the supervision of an authorized nuclear pharmacist or physician who is an authorized user, as allowed by § 35.11(b)(2), shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) In addition to the requirements in § 19.12 of this chapter, instruct the supervised individual in the preparation of byproduct material for medical use, as appropriate to that individual's involvement with byproduct material; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the supervised individual to follow the instructions of the supervising authorized user or authorized nuclear pharmacist regarding the preparation of byproduct material for medical use, written radiation protection procedures established by the licensee, the regulations of this chapter, and license conditions. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee that permits supervised activities under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is responsible for the acts and omissions of the supervised individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.40" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.40   Written directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A written directive must be dated and signed by an authorized user before the administration of I-131 sodium iodide greater than 1.11 megabecquerels (MBq) (30 microcuries (µCi)), any therapeutic dosage of unsealed byproduct material or any therapeutic dose of radiation from byproduct material. 
</P>
<P>(1) If, because of the emergent nature of the patient's condition, a delay in order to provide a written directive would jeopardize the patient's health, an oral directive is acceptable. The information contained in the oral directive must be documented as soon as possible in writing in the patient's record. A written directive must be prepared within 48 hours of the oral directive. 




</P>
<P>(b) The written directive must contain the patient or human research subject's name and the following information— 
</P>
<P>(1) For any administration of quantities greater than 1.11 MBq (30 µCi) of sodium iodide I-131: the dosage; 
</P>
<P>(2) For an administration of a therapeutic dosage of unsealed byproduct material other than sodium iodide I-131: the radioactive drug, dosage, and route of administration; 
</P>
<P>(3) For gamma stereotactic radiosurgery: the total dose, treatment site, and values for the target coordinate settings per treatment for each anatomically distinct treatment site; 
</P>
<P>(4) For teletherapy: the total dose, dose per fraction, number of fractions, and treatment site; 
</P>
<P>(5) For high dose-rate remote afterloading brachytherapy: The radionuclide, treatment site, dose per fraction, number of fractions, and total dose;
</P>
<P>(6) For permanent implant brachytherapy:
</P>
<P>(i) Before implantation: The treatment site, the radionuclide, and the total source strength; and
</P>
<P>(ii) After implantation but before the patient leaves the post-treatment recovery area: The treatment site, the number of sources implanted, the total source strength implanted, and the date; or
</P>
<P>(7) For all other brachytherapy, including low, medium, and pulsed dose rate remote afterloaders:
</P>
<P>(i) Before implantation: The treatment site, radionuclide, and dose; and
</P>
<P>(ii) After implantation but before completion of the procedure: The radionuclide; treatment site; number of sources; total source strength and exposure time (or the total dose); and date.


</P>
<P>(c)(1) A written revision to an existing written directive may be made if the revision is dated and signed by an authorized user before the administration of the dosage of unsealed byproduct material, the brachytherapy dose, the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery dose, the teletherapy dose, or the next fractional dose. 
</P>
<P>(2) If, because of the patient's condition, a delay in order to provide a written revision to an existing written directive would jeopardize the patient's health, an oral revision to an existing written directive is acceptable. The oral revision must be documented as soon as possible in the patient's record. A revised written directive must be signed by the authorized user within 48 hours of the oral revision. 
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall retain a copy of the written directive in accordance with § 35.2040. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002; 67 FR 62872, Oct. 9, 2002; 68 FR 75389, Dec. 31, 2003; 83 FR 33103, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.41   Procedures for administrations requiring a written directive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For any administration requiring a written directive, the licensee shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures to provide high confidence that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The patient's or human research subject's identity is verified before each administration; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Each administration is in accordance with the written directive. 


</P>
<P>(b) At a minimum, the procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must address the following items that are applicable to the licensee's use of byproduct material— 
</P>
<P>(1) Verifying the identity of the patient or human research subject; 
</P>
<P>(2) Verifying that the administration is in accordance with the treatment plan, if applicable, and the written directive; 
</P>
<P>(3) Checking both manual and computer-generated dose calculations;
</P>
<P>(4) Verifying that any computer-generated dose calculations are correctly transferred into the consoles of therapeutic medical units authorized by §§ 35.600 or 35.1000;
</P>
<P>(5) Determining if a medical event, as defined in § 35.3045, has occurred; and
</P>
<P>(6) Determining, for permanent implant brachytherapy, within 60 calendar days from the date the implant was performed, the total source strength administered outside of the treatment site compared to the total source strength documented in the post-implantation portion of the written directive, unless a written justification of patient unavailability is documented.


</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a copy of the procedures required under paragraph (a) in accordance with § 35.2041. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 45151, Aug. 13, 2007; 83 FR 33104, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.49" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.49   Suppliers for sealed sources or devices for medical use.</HEAD>
<P>For medical use, a licensee may only use— 
</P>
<P>(a) Sealed sources or devices manufactured, labeled, packaged, and distributed in accordance with a license issued under 10 CFR Part 30 and 10 CFR 32.74 of this chapter or equivalent requirements of an Agreement State; 
</P>
<P>(b) Sealed sources or devices non-commercially transferred from a Part 35 licensee or an Agreement State medical use licensee.
</P>
<P>(c) Teletherapy sources manufactured and distributed in accordance with a license issued under 10 CFR Part 30 or the equivalent requirements of an Agreement State. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.50" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.50   Training for Radiation Safety Officer and Associate Radiation Safety Officer.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an individual fulfilling the responsibilities of the Radiation Safety Officer or an individual assigned duties and tasks as an Associate Radiation Safety Officer as provided in § 35.24 to be an individual who—
</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State and who meets the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page. To have its certification process recognized, a specialty board shall require all candidates for certification to: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Hold a bachelor's or graduate degree from an accredited college or university in physical science or engineering or biological science with a minimum of 20 college credits in physical science;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have 5 or more years of professional experience in health physics (graduate training may be substituted for no more than 2 years of the required experience) including at least 3 years in applied health physics; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Pass an examination administered by diplomates of the specialty board, which evaluates knowledge and competence in radiation physics and instrumentation, radiation protection, mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity, radiation biology, and radiation dosimetry; or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Hold a master's or doctor's degree in physics, medical physics, other physical science, engineering, or applied mathematics from an accredited college or university;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have 2 years of full-time practical training and/or supervised experience in medical physics—
</P>
<P>(A) Under the supervision of a medical physicist who is certified in medical physics by a specialty board recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State; or
</P>
<P>(B) In clinical nuclear medicine facilities providing diagnostic or therapeutic services under the direction of physicians who meet the requirements for authorized users in §§ 35.57, 35.290, or 35.390; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that assesses knowledge and competence in clinical diagnostic radiological or nuclear medicine physics and in radiation safety; or
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Has completed a structured educational program consisting of both:
</P>
<P>(i) 200 hours of classroom and laboratory training in the following areas—
</P>
<P>(A) Radiation physics and instrumentation;
</P>
<P>(B) Radiation protection;
</P>
<P>(C) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity;
</P>
<P>(D) Radiation biology; and
</P>
<P>(E) Radiation dosimetry; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One year of full-time radiation safety experience under the supervision of the individual identified as the Radiation Safety Officer on a Commission or an Agreement State license or permit issued by a Commission master material licensee that authorizes similar type(s) of use(s) of byproduct material. An Associate Radiation Safety Officer may provide supervision for those areas for which the Associate Radiation Safety Officer is authorized on a Commission or an Agreement State license or permit issued by a Commission master material licensee. The full-time radiation safety experience must involve the following—
</P>
<P>(A) Shipping, receiving, and performing related radiation surveys;
</P>
<P>(B) Using and performing checks for proper operation of instruments used to determine the activity of dosages, survey meters, and instruments used to measure radionuclides;
</P>
<P>(C) Securing and controlling byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(D) Using administrative controls to avoid mistakes in the administration of byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(E) Using procedures to prevent or minimize radioactive contamination and using proper decontamination procedures;
</P>
<P>(F) Using emergency procedures to control byproduct material; and
</P>
<P>(G) Disposing of byproduct material; and
</P>
<P>(2) This individual must obtain a written attestation, signed by a preceptor Radiation Safety Officer or Associate Radiation Safety Officer who has experience with the radiation safety aspects of similar types of use of byproduct material for which the individual is seeking approval as a Radiation Safety Officer or an Associate Radiation Safety Officer. The written attestation must state that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (d) of this section, and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as a Radiation Safety Officer or as an Associate Radiation Safety Officer for a medical use license; or
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Is a medical physicist who has been certified by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State under § 35.51(a), has experience with the radiation safety aspects of similar types of use of byproduct material for which the licensee seeks the approval of the individual as Radiation Safety Officer or an Associate Radiation Safety Officer, and meets the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is an authorized user, authorized medical physicist, or authorized nuclear pharmacist identified on a Commission or an Agreement State license, a permit issued by a Commission master material licensee, a permit issued by a Commission or an Agreement State licensee of broad scope, or a permit issued by a Commission master material license broad scope permittee, has experience with the radiation safety aspects of similar types of use of byproduct material for which the licensee seeks the approval of the individual as the Radiation Safety Officer or Associate Radiation Safety Officer, and meets the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section; or


</P>
<P>(3) Has experience with the radiation safety aspects of the types of use of byproduct material for which the individual is seeking simultaneous approval both as the Radiation Safety Officer and the authorized user on the same new medical use license or new medical use permit issued by a Commission master material licensee. The individual must also meet the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Has training in the radiation safety, regulatory issues, and emergency procedures for the types of use for which a licensee seeks approval. This training requirement may be satisfied by completing training that is supervised by a Radiation Safety Officer, an Associate Radiation Safety Officer, authorized medical physicist, authorized nuclear pharmacist, or authorized user, as appropriate, who is authorized for the type(s) of use for which the licensee is seeking approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33104, July 16, 2018, as amended at 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.51   Training for an authorized medical physicist.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require the authorized medical physicist to be an individual who— 
</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State and who meets the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page. To have its certification process recognized, a specialty board shall require all candidates for certification to:




</P>
<P>(1) Hold a master's or doctor's degree in physics, medical physics, other physical science, engineering, or applied mathematics from an accredited college or university;
</P>
<P>(2) Have 2 years of full-time practical training and/or supervised experience in medical physics—
</P>
<P>(i) Under the supervision of a medical physicist who is certified in medical physics by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized under this section by the Commission or an Agreement State; or




</P>
<P>(ii) In clinical radiation facilities providing high-energy, external beam therapy (photons and electrons with energies greater than or equal to 1 million electron volts) and brachytherapy services under the direction of physicians who meet the requirements in § 35.57, 35.490, or 35.690; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that assesses knowledge and competence in clinical radiation therapy, radiation safety, calibration, quality assurance, and treatment planning for external beam therapy, brachytherapy, and stereotactic radiosurgery; or
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Holds a master's or doctor's degree in physics, medical physics, other physical science, engineering, or applied mathematics from an accredited college or university; and has completed 1 year of full-time training in medical physics and an additional year of full-time work experience under the supervision of an individual who meets the requirements for an authorized medical physicist for the type(s) of use for which the individual is seeking authorization. This training and work experience must be conducted in clinical radiation facilities that provide high-energy, external beam therapy (photons and electrons with energies greater than or equal to 1 million electron volts) and brachytherapy services and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Performing sealed source leak tests and inventories;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performing decay corrections;
</P>
<P>(iii) Performing full calibration and periodic spot checks of external beam treatment units, stereotactic radiosurgery units, and remote afterloading units as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Conducting radiation surveys around external beam treatment units, stereotactic radiosurgery units, and remote afterloading units as applicable; and






</P>
<P>(2) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (c) of this section, and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized medical physicist for each type of therapeutic medical unit for which the individual is requesting authorized medical physicist status. The written attestation must be signed by a preceptor authorized medical physicist who meets the requirements in § 35.51, § 35.57, or equivalent Agreement State requirements for an authorized medical physicist for each type of therapeutic medical unit for which the individual is requesting authorized medical physicist status.


</P>
<P>(c) Has training for the type(s) of use for which authorization is sought that includes hands-on device operation, safety procedures, clinical use, and the operation of a treatment planning system. This training requirement may be satisfied by satisfactorily completing either a training program provided by the vendor or by training supervised by an authorized medical physicist authorized for the type(s) of use for which the individual is seeking authorization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002; 67 FR 62872, Oct. 9, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 16362, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006; 74 FR 33904, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33105, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.55   Training for an authorized nuclear pharmacist.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require the authorized nuclear pharmacist to be a pharmacist who— 


</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page. To have its certification process recognized, a specialty board shall require all candidates for certification to:






</P>
<P>(1) Have graduated from a pharmacy program accredited by the  Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) (previously named the American Council on Pharmaceutical Education) or have passed the Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Examination Committee (FPGEC) examination;
</P>
<P>(2) Hold a current, active license to practice pharmacy;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide evidence of having acquired at least 4000 hours of training/experience in nuclear pharmacy practice. Academic training may be substituted for no more than 2000 hours of the required training and experience; and
</P>
<P>(4) Pass an examination in nuclear pharmacy administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that assesses knowledge and competency in procurement, compounding, quality assurance, dispensing, distribution, health and safety, radiation safety, provision of information and consultation, monitoring patient outcomes, research and development; or
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Has completed 700 hours in a structured educational program consisting of both: 
</P>
<P>(i) 200 hours of classroom and laboratory training in the following areas—
</P>
<P>(A) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(B) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(C) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; 
</P>
<P>(D) Chemistry of byproduct material for medical use; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Radiation biology; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Supervised practical experience in a nuclear pharmacy involving— 
</P>
<P>(A) Shipping, receiving, and performing related radiation surveys; 
</P>
<P>(B) Using and performing checks for proper operation of instruments used to determine the activity of dosages, survey meters, and, if appropriate, instruments used to measure alpha- or beta-emitting radionuclides; 
</P>
<P>(C) Calculating, assaying, and safely preparing dosages for patients or human research subjects; 
</P>
<P>(D) Using administrative controls to avoid medical events in the administration of byproduct material; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Using procedures to prevent or minimize radioactive contamination and using proper decontamination procedures; and 


</P>
<P>(2) Has obtained written attestation, signed by a preceptor authorized nuclear pharmacist, that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized nuclear pharmacist.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 16362, Mar. 30, 2005; 83 FR 33105, July 16, 2018; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.57" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.57   Training for experienced Radiation Safety Officer, teletherapy or medical physicist, authorized medical physicist, authorized user, nuclear pharmacist, and authorized nuclear pharmacist.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) An individual identified on a Commission or an Agreement State license or a permit issued by a Commission or an Agreement State broad scope licensee or master material license permit or by a master material license permittee of broad scope as a Radiation Safety Officer, a teletherapy or medical physicist, an authorized medical physicist, a nuclear pharmacist or an authorized nuclear pharmacist on or before January 14, 2019 need not comply with the training requirements of § 35.50, § 35.51, or § 35.55, respectively, except the Radiation Safety Officers and authorized medical physicists identified in this paragraph must meet the training requirements in § 35.50(d) or § 35.51(c), as appropriate, for any material or uses for which they were not authorized prior to this date.
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual certified by the American Board of Health Physics in Comprehensive Health Physics; American Board of Radiology; American Board of Nuclear Medicine; American Board of Science in Nuclear Medicine; Board of Pharmaceutical Specialties in Nuclear Pharmacy; American Board of Medical Physics in radiation oncology physics; Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada in nuclear medicine; American Osteopathic Board of Radiology; or American Osteopathic Board of Nuclear Medicine on or before October 24, 2005, need not comply with the training requirements of § 35.50 to be identified as a Radiation Safety Officer or as an Associate Radiation Safety Officer on a Commission or an Agreement State license or Commission master material license permit for those materials and uses that these individuals performed on or before October 24, 2005.
</P>
<P>(3) Any individual certified by the American Board of Radiology in therapeutic radiological physics, Roentgen ray and gamma ray physics, x-ray and radium physics, or radiological physics, or certified by the American Board of Medical Physics in radiation oncology physics, on or before October 24, 2005, need not comply with the training requirements for an authorized medical physicist described in § 35.51, for those materials and uses that these individuals performed on or before October 24, 2005.
</P>
<P>(4) A Radiation Safety Officer, a medical physicist, or a nuclear pharmacist, who used only accelerator-produced radioactive materials, discrete sources of radium-226, or both, for medical uses or in the practice of nuclear pharmacy at a Government agency or Federally recognized Indian Tribe before November 30, 2007, or at all other locations of use before August 8, 2009, or an earlier date as noticed by the NRC, need not comply with the training requirements of § 35.50, § 35.51 or § 35.55, respectively, when performing the same uses. A nuclear pharmacist, who prepared only radioactive drugs containing accelerator-produced radioactive materials, or a medical physicist, who used only accelerator-produced radioactive materials, at the locations and during the time period identified in this paragraph, qualifies as an authorized nuclear pharmacist or an authorized medical physicist, respectively, for those materials and uses performed before these dates, for the purposes of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Physicians, dentists, or podiatrists identified as authorized users for the medical use of byproduct material on a license issued by the Commission or an Agreement State, a permit issued by a Commission master material licensee, a permit issued by a Commission or an Agreement State broad scope licensee, or a permit issued by a Commission master material license broad scope permittee on or before January 14, 2019, who perform only those medical uses for which they were authorized on or before that date need not comply with the training requirements of subparts D through H of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Physicians, dentists, or podiatrists not identified as authorized users for the medical use of byproduct material on a license issued by the Commission or an Agreement State, a permit issued by a Commission master material licensee, a permit issued by a Commission or an Agreement State broad scope licensee, or a permit issued in accordance with a Commission master material broad scope license on or before October 24, 2005, need not comply with the training requirements of subparts D through H of this part for those materials and uses that these individuals performed on or before October 24, 2005, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For uses authorized under § 35.100 or § 35.200, or oral administration of sodium iodide I-131 requiring a written directive for imaging and localization purposes, a physician who was certified on or before October 24, 2005, in nuclear medicine by the American Board of Nuclear Medicine; diagnostic radiology by the American Board of Radiology; diagnostic radiology or radiology by the American Osteopathic Board of Radiology; nuclear medicine by the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada; or American Osteopathic Board of Nuclear Medicine in nuclear medicine;
</P>
<P>(ii) For uses authorized under § 35.300, a physician who was certified on or before October 24, 2005, by the American Board of Nuclear Medicine; the American Board of Radiology in radiology, therapeutic radiology, or radiation oncology; nuclear medicine by the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada; or the American Osteopathic Board of Radiology after 1984;
</P>
<P>(iii) For uses authorized under § 35.400 or § 35.600, a physician who was certified on or before October 24, 2005, in radiology, therapeutic radiology or radiation oncology by the American Board of Radiology; radiation oncology by the American Osteopathic Board of Radiology; radiology, with specialization in radiotherapy, as a British “Fellow of the Faculty of Radiology” or “Fellow of the Royal College of Radiology”; or therapeutic radiology by the Canadian Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For uses authorized under § 35.500, a physician who was certified on or before October 24, 2005, in radiology, diagnostic radiology, therapeutic radiology, or radiation oncology by the American Board of Radiology; nuclear medicine by the American Board of Nuclear Medicine; diagnostic radiology or radiology by the American Osteopathic Board of Radiology; or nuclear medicine by the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada.
</P>
<P>(3) Physicians, dentists, or podiatrists who used only accelerator-produced radioactive materials, discrete sources of radium-226, or both, for medical uses performed at a Government agency or Federally recognized Indian Tribe before November 30, 2007, or at all other locations of use before August 8, 2009, or an earlier date as noticed by the NRC, need not comply with the training requirements of subparts D through H of this part when performing the same medical uses. A physician, dentist, or podiatrist, who used only accelerator-produced radioactive materials, discrete sources of radium-226, or both, for medical uses at the locations and time period identified in this paragraph, qualifies as an authorized user for those materials and uses performed before these dates, for the purposes of this chapter.




</P>
<P>(c) Individuals who need not comply with training requirements as described in this section may serve as preceptors for, and supervisors of, applicants seeking authorization on NRC licenses for the same uses for which these individuals are authorized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 16363, Mar. 30, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 55931, Oct. 1, 2007; 74 FR 33905, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33105, July 16, 2018; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021; 86 FR 47209, Aug. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.59" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.2.94.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.59   Recentness of training.</HEAD>
<P>The training and experience specified in Subparts B, D, E, F, G, and H of this part must have been obtained within the 7 years preceding the date of application or the individual must have had related continuing education and experience since the required training and experience was completed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 15008, Mar. 27, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—General Technical Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.60" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.60   Possession, use, and calibration of instruments used to measure the activity of unsealed byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For direct measurements performed in accordance with § 35.63, a licensee shall possess and use instrumentation to measure the activity of unsealed byproduct material before it is administered to each patient or human research subject. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall calibrate the instrumentation required in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with nationally recognized standards or the manufacturer's instructions. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a record of each instrument calibration required by this section in accordance with § 35.2060. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.61   Calibration of survey instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall calibrate the survey instruments used to show compliance with this part and 10 CFR Part 20 before first use, annually, and following a repair that affects the calibration. A licensee shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Calibrate all scales with readings up to 10 mSv (1000 mrem) per hour with a radiation source; 
</P>
<P>(2) Calibrate two separated readings on each scale or decade that will be used to show compliance; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Conspicuously note on the instrument the date of calibration. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee may not use survey instruments if the difference between the indicated exposure rate and the calculated exposure rate is more than 20 percent. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a record of each survey instrument calibration in accordance with § 35.2061. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.63   Determination of dosages of unsealed byproduct material for medical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall determine and record the activity of each dosage before medical use. 
</P>
<P>(b) For a unit dosage, this determination must be made by— 
</P>
<P>(1) Direct measurement of radioactivity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A decay correction, based on the activity or activity concentration determined by— 
</P>
<P>(i) A manufacturer or preparer licensed under § 32.72 of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An NRC or Agreement State licensee for use in research in accordance with a Radioactive Drug Research Committee-approved protocol or an Investigational New Drug (IND) protocol accepted by FDA; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A PET radioactive drug producer licensed under § 30.32(j) of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) For other than unit dosages, this determination must be made by— 
</P>
<P>(1) Direct measurement of radioactivity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Combination of measurement of radioactivity and mathematical calculations; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Combination of volumetric measurements and mathematical calculations, based on the measurement made by:
</P>
<P>(i) A manufacturer or preparer licensed under § 32.72 of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A PET radioactive drug producer licensed under § 30.32(j) of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless otherwise directed by the authorized user, a licensee may not use a dosage if the dosage does not fall within the prescribed dosage range or if the dosage differs from the prescribed dosage by more than 20 percent. 
</P>
<P>(e) A licensee shall retain a record of the dosage determination required by this section in accordance with § 35.2063. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 55931, Oct. 1, 2007]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.65   Authorization for calibration, transmission, and reference sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person authorized by § 35.11 for medical use of byproduct material may receive, possess, and use any of the following byproduct material for check, calibration, transmission, and reference use:
</P>
<P>(1) Sealed sources, not exceeding 1.11 GBq (30 mCi) each, manufactured and distributed by a person licensed under § 32.74 of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Sealed sources, not exceeding 1.11 GBq (30 mCi) each, redistributed by a licensee authorized to redistribute the sealed sources manufactured and distributed by a person licensed under § 32.74 of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State regulations, providing the redistributed sealed sources are in the original packaging and shielding and are accompanied by the manufacturer's approved instructions;
</P>
<P>(3) Any byproduct material with a half-life not longer than 120 days in individual amounts not to exceed 0.56 GBq (15 mCi);
</P>
<P>(4) Any byproduct material with a half-life longer than 120 days in individual amounts not to exceed the smaller of 7.4 MBq (200 µCI) or 1000 times the quantities in appendix B of part 30 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(5) Technetium-99m in amounts as needed.
</P>
<P>(b) Byproduct material in sealed sources authorized by this provision shall not be:
</P>
<P>(1) Used for medical use as defined in § 35.2 except in accordance with the requirements in § 35.500; or
</P>
<P>(2) Combined (<I>i.e.,</I> bundled or aggregated) to create an activity greater than the maximum activity of any single sealed source authorized under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee using calibration, transmission, and reference sources in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section need not list these sources on a specific medical use license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33106, July 16, 2018]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.67   Requirements for possession of sealed sources and brachytherapy sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee in possession of any sealed source or brachytherapy source shall follow the radiation safety and handling instructions supplied by the manufacturer. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee in possession of a sealed source shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Test the source for leakage before its first use unless the licensee has a certificate from the supplier indicating that the source was tested within 6 months before transfer to the licensee; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Test the source for leakage at intervals not to exceed 6 months or at other intervals approved by the Commission or an Agreement State in the Sealed Source and Device Registry. 
</P>
<P>(c) To satisfy the leak test requirements of this section, the licensee shall measure the sample so that the leak test can detect the presence of 185 Bq (0.005 µCi) of radioactive material in the sample. 
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee shall retain leak test records in accordance with § 35.2067(a). 
</P>
<P>(e) If the leak test reveals the presence of 185 Bq (0.005 µCi) or more of removable contamination, the licensee shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately withdraw the sealed source from use and store, dispose, or cause it to be repaired in accordance with the requirements in parts 20 and 30 of this chapter; and 
</P>
<P>(2) File a report within 5 days of the leak test in accordance with § 35.3067. 
</P>
<P>(f) A licensee need not perform a leak test on the following sources: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sources containing only byproduct material with a half-life of less than 30 days; 
</P>
<P>(2) Sources containing only byproduct material as a gas; 
</P>
<P>(3) Sources containing 3.7 MBq (100 µCi) or less of beta or gamma-emitting material or 0.37 MBq (10 µCi) or less of alpha-emitting material; 
</P>
<P>(4) Seeds of iridium-192 encased in nylon ribbon; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Sources stored and not being used. However, the licensee shall test each such source for leakage before any use or transfer unless it has been leak tested within 6 months before the date of use or transfer. 
</P>
<P>(g) A licensee in possession of sealed sources or brachytherapy sources, except for gamma stereotactic radiosurgery sources, shall conduct a semi-annual physical inventory of all such sources in its possession. The licensee shall retain each inventory record in accordance with § 35.2067(b). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.69" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.69   Labeling of vials and syringes.</HEAD>
<P>Each syringe and vial that contains unsealed byproduct material must be labeled to identify the radioactive drug. Each syringe shield and vial shield must also be labeled unless the label on the syringe or vial is visible when shielded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.70" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.70   Surveys of ambient radiation exposure rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the surveys required by Part 20 of this chapter, a licensee shall survey with a radiation detection survey instrument at the end of each day of use. A licensee shall survey all areas where unsealed byproduct material requiring a written directive was prepared for use or administered. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee does not need to perform the surveys required by paragraph (a) of this section in an area(s) where patients or human research subjects are confined when they cannot be released under § 35.75. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a record of each survey in accordance with § 35.2070. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.75" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.75   Release of individuals containing unsealed byproduct material or implants containing byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may authorize the release from its control of any individual who has been administered unsealed byproduct material or implants containing byproduct material if the total effective dose equivalent to any other individual from exposure to the released individual is not likely to exceed 5 mSv (0.5 rem). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The current revision of NUREG-1556, Vol. 9, “Consolidated Guidance About Materials Licenses: Program-Specific Guidance About Medical Licenses” describes methods for calculating doses to other individuals and contains tables of activities not likely to cause doses exceeding 5 mSv (0.5 rem).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) A licensee shall provide the released individual, or the individual's parent or guardian, with instructions, including written instructions, on actions recommended to maintain doses to other individuals as low as is reasonably achievable if the total effective dose equivalent to any other individual is likely to exceed 1 mSv (0.1 rem). If the total effective dose equivalent to a nursing infant or child could exceed 1 mSv (0.1 rem) assuming there were no interruption of breast-feeding, the instructions must also include— 
</P>
<P>(1) Guidance on the interruption or discontinuation of breast-feeding; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Information on the potential consequences, if any, of failure to follow the guidance. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall maintain a record of the basis for authorizing the release of an individual in accordance with § 35.2075(a). 
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall maintain a record of instructions provided to a breast-feeding female in accordance with § 35.2075(b). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 16363, Mar. 30, 2005; 72 FR 45151, Aug. 13, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.80" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.80   Provision of mobile medical service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee providing mobile medical service shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain a letter signed by the management of each client for which services are rendered that permits the use of byproduct material at the client's address and clearly delineates the authority and responsibility of the licensee and the client; 
</P>
<P>(2) Check instruments used to measure the activity of unsealed byproduct material for proper function before medical use at each client's address or on each day of use, whichever is more frequent. At a minimum, the check for proper function required by this paragraph must include a constancy check; 
</P>
<P>(3) Check survey instruments for proper operation with a dedicated check source before use at each client's address; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Before leaving a client's address, survey all areas of use to ensure compliance with the requirements in Part 20 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) A mobile medical service may not have byproduct material delivered from the manufacturer or the distributor to the client unless the client has a license allowing possession of the byproduct material. Byproduct material delivered to the client must be received and handled in conformance with the client's license. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee providing mobile medical services shall retain the letter required in paragraph (a)(1) and the record of each survey required in paragraph (a)(4) of this section in accordance with § 35.2080(a) and (b), respectively. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.92" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.3.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.92   Decay-in-storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may hold byproduct material with a physical half-life of less than or equal to 120 days for decay-in-storage before disposal without regard to its radioactivity if it—
</P>
<P>(1) Monitors byproduct material at the surface before disposal and determines that its radioactivity cannot be distinguished from the background radiation level with an appropriate radiation detection survey meter set on its most sensitive scale and with no interposed shielding; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Removes or obliterates all radiation labels, except for radiation labels on materials that are within containers and that will be managed as biomedical waste after they have been released from the licensee. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall retain a record of each disposal permitted under paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with § 35.2092. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 45151, Aug. 13, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Unsealed Byproduct Material—Written Directive Not Required</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.100" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.4.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.100   Use of unsealed byproduct material for uptake, dilution, and excretion studies for which a written directive is not required.</HEAD>
<P>Except for quantities that require a written directive under § 35.40(b), a licensee may use any unsealed byproduct material prepared for medical use for uptake, dilution, or excretion studies that is— 
</P>
<P>(a) Obtained from:
</P>
<P>(1) A manufacturer or preparer licensed under § 32.72 of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(2) A PET radioactive drug producer licensed under § 30.32(j) of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(b) Excluding production of PET radionuclides, prepared by:
</P>
<P>(1) An authorized nuclear pharmacist; 
</P>
<P>(2) A physician who is an authorized user and who meets the requirements specified in §§ 35.290, or 35.390 and 35.290(c)(1)(ii)(G); or 
</P>
<P>(3) An individual under the supervision, as specified in § 35.27, of the authorized nuclear pharmacist in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or the physician who is an authorized user in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(c) Obtained from and prepared by an NRC or Agreement State licensee for use in research in accordance with a Radioactive Drug Research Committee-approved protocol or an Investigational New Drug (IND) protocol accepted by FDA; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Prepared by the licensee for use in research in accordance with a Radioactive Drug Research Committee-approved application or an Investigational New Drug (IND) protocol accepted by FDA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19324, Apr. 21, 2003; 71 FR 15009, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 55931, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.190" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.4.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.190   Training for uptake, dilution, and excretion studies.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an authorized user of unsealed byproduct material for the uses authorized under § 35.100 to be a physician who— 




</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page. To have its certification process recognized, a specialty board shall require all candidates for certification to:


</P>
<P>(1) Complete 60 hours of training and experience in basic radionuclide handling techniques and radiation safety applicable to the medical use of unsealed byproduct material for uptake, dilution, and excretion studies as described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (c)(1)(ii)(F) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that assesses knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, and quality control; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Is an authorized user under §§ 35.290, 35.390, or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Has completed 60 hours of training and experience, including a minimum of 8 hours of classroom and laboratory training, in basic radionuclide handling techniques applicable to the medical use of unsealed byproduct material for uptake, dilution, and excretion studies. The training and experience must include—
</P>
<P>(i) Classroom and laboratory training in the following areas— 
</P>
<P>(A) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(B) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(C) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; 
</P>
<P>(D) Chemistry of byproduct material for medical use; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Radiation biology; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Work experience, under the supervision of an authorized user who meets the requirements in §§ 35.57, 35.190, 35.290, 35.390, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, involving—
</P>
<P>(A) Ordering, receiving, and unpacking radioactive materials safely and performing the related radiation surveys; 
</P>
<P>(B) Performing quality control procedures on instruments used to determine the activity of dosages and performing checks for proper operation of survey meters; 
</P>
<P>(C) Calculating, measuring, and safely preparing patient or human research subject dosages; 
</P>
<P>(D) Using administrative controls to prevent a medical event involving the use of unsealed byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(E) Using procedures to contain spilled byproduct material safely and using proper decontamination procedures; and 
</P>
<P>(F) Administering dosages of radioactive drugs to patients or human research subjects; and 


</P>
<P>(2) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user for the medical uses authorized under § 35.100. The attestation must be obtained from either:
</P>
<P>(i) A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.190, § 35.290, or § 35.390, or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A residency program director who affirms in writing that the attestation represents the consensus of the residency program faculty where at least one faculty member is an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.190, § 35.290, or § 35.390, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, and concurs with the attestation provided by the residency program director. The residency training program must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association and must include training and experience specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19324, Apr. 21, 2003; 69 FR 55738, Sept. 16, 2004; 70 FR 16363, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15009, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 45151, Aug. 13, 2007; 74 FR 33905, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33106, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.200" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.4.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.200   Use of unsealed byproduct material for imaging and localization studies for which a written directive is not required.</HEAD>
<P>Except for quantities that require a written directive under § 35.40(b), a licensee may use any unsealed byproduct material prepared for medical use for imaging and localization studies that is— 
</P>
<P>(a) Obtained from:
</P>
<P>(1) A manufacturer or preparer licensed under § 32.72 of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(2) A PET radioactive drug producer licensed under § 30.32(j) of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(b) Excluding production of PET radionuclides, prepared by:
</P>
<P>(1) An authorized nuclear pharmacist; 
</P>
<P>(2) A physician who is an authorized user and who meets the requirements specified in § 35.290, or 35.390 and 35.290(c)(1)(ii)(G); or 
</P>
<P>(3) An individual under the supervision, as specified in § 35.27, of the authorized nuclear pharmacist in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or the physician who is an authorized user in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(c) Obtained from and prepared by an NRC or Agreement State licensee for use in research in accordance with a Radioactive Drug Research Committee-approved protocol or an Investigational New Drug (IND) protocol accepted by FDA; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Prepared by the licensee for use in research in accordance with a Radioactive Drug Research Committee-approved application or an Investigational New Drug (IND) protocol accepted by FDA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19324, Apr. 21, 2003; 71 FR 15009, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 55932, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.4.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.204   Permissible molybdenum-99, strontium-82, and strontium-85 concentrations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may not administer to humans a radiopharmaceutical that contains:
</P>
<P>(1) More than 0.15 kilobecquerel of molybdenum-99 per megabecquerel of technetium-99m (0.15 microcurie of molybdenum-99 per millicurie of technetium-99m); or
</P>
<P>(2) More than 0.02 kilobecquerel of strontium-82 per megabecquerel of rubidium-82 chloride injection (0.02 microcurie of strontium-82 per millicurie of rubidium-82 chloride); or more than 0.2 kilobecquerel of strontium-85 per megabecquerel of rubidium-82 chloride injection (0.2 microcurie of strontium-85 per millicurie of rubidium-82).


</P>
<P>(b) A licensee that uses molybdenum-99/technetium-99m generators for preparing a technetium-99m radiopharmaceutical shall measure the molybdenum-99 concentration in each eluate from a generator to demonstrate compliance with paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
<P>(c) A licensee that uses a strontium-82/rubidium-82 generator for preparing a rubidium-82 radiopharmaceutical shall, before the first patient use of the day, measure the concentration of radionuclides strontium-82 and strontium-85 to demonstrate compliance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If a licensee is required to measure the molybdenum-99 concentration or strontium-82 and strontium-85 concentrations, the licensee shall retain a record of each measurement in accordance with § 35.2204.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall report any measurement that exceeds the limits in paragraph (a) of this section at the time of generator elution, in accordance with § 35.3204.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 55932, Oct. 1, 2007; 83 FR 33107, July 16, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.290" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.4.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.290   Training for imaging and localization studies.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an authorized user of unsealed byproduct material for the uses authorized under § 35.200 to be a physician who— 


</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page. To have its certification process recognized, a specialty board shall require all candidates for certification to:


</P>
<P>(1) Complete 700 hours of training and experience in basic radionuclide handling techniques and radiation safety applicable to the medical use of unsealed byproduct material for imaging and localization studies as described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (c)(1)(ii)(G) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, which assesses knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, and quality control; or


</P>
<P>(b) Is an authorized user under § 35.390 and meets the requirements in § 35.290(c)(1)(ii)(G), or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Has completed 700 hours of training and experience, including a minimum of 80 hours of classroom and laboratory training, in basic radionuclide handling techniques applicable to the medical use of unsealed byproduct material for imaging and localization studies. The training and experience must include, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(i) Classroom and laboratory training in the following areas—




</P>
<P>(A) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(B) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(C) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; 
</P>
<P>(D) Chemistry of byproduct material for medical use; 
</P>
<P>(E) Radiation biology; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Work experience, under the supervision of an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.290, or §§ 35.390 and 35.290(c)(1)(ii)(G), or equivalent Agreement State requirements. An authorized nuclear pharmacist who meets the requirements in § 35.55 or § 35.57 may provide the supervised work experience for paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(G) of this section. Work experience must involve—


</P>
<P>(A) Ordering, receiving, and unpacking radioactive materials safely and performing the related radiation surveys; 
</P>
<P>(B) Performing quality control procedures on instruments used to determine the activity of dosages and performing checks for proper operation of survey meters;
</P>
<P>(C) Calculating, measuring, and safely preparing patient or human research subject dosages; 
</P>
<P>(D) Using administrative controls to prevent a medical event involving the use of unsealed byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(E) Using procedures to safely contain spilled radioactive material and using proper decontamination procedures; 
</P>
<P>(F) Administering dosages of radioactive drugs to patients or human research subjects; and 
</P>
<P>(G) Eluting generator systems appropriate for preparation of radioactive drugs for imaging and localization studies, measuring and testing the eluate for radionuclidic purity, and processing the eluate with reagent kits to prepare labeled radioactive drugs; and 


</P>
<P>(2) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user for the medical uses authorized under §§ 35.100 and 35.200. The attestation must be obtained from either:
</P>
<P>(i) A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.290, or §§ 35.390 and 35.290(c)(1)(ii)(G), or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A residency program director who affirms in writing that the attestation represents the consensus of the residency program faculty where at least one faculty member is an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.290, or §§ 35.390 and 35.290(c)(1)(ii)(G), or equivalent Agreement State requirements, and concurs with the attestation provided by the residency program director. The residency training program must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association and must include training and experience specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 16364, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15009, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 45151, Aug. 13, 2007; 74 FR 33905, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33107, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Unsealed Byproduct Material—Written Directive Required</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.300" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.5.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.300   Use of unsealed byproduct material for which a written directive is required.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee may use any unsealed byproduct material identified in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G) prepared for medical use and for which a written directive is required that is—








</P>
<P>(a) Obtained from:
</P>
<P>(1) A manufacturer or preparer licensed under § 32.72 of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(2) A PET radioactive drug producer licensed under § 30.32(j) of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(b) Excluding production of PET radionuclides, prepared by:
</P>
<P>(1) An authorized nuclear pharmacist; 
</P>
<P>(2) A physician who is an authorized user and who meets the requirements specified in §§ 35.290, 35.390, or
</P>
<P>(3) An individual under the supervision, as specified in § 35.27, of the authorized nuclear pharmacist in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or the physician who is an authorized user in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(c) Obtained from and prepared by an NRC or Agreement State licensee for use in research in accordance with an Investigational New Drug (IND) protocol accepted by FDA; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Prepared by the licensee for use in research in accordance with an Investigational New Drug (IND) protocol accepted by FDA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19324, Apr. 21, 2003; 71 FR 15009, Mar. 27, 2006; 72 FR 55932, Oct. 1, 2007; 83 FR 33107, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.310" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.5.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.310   Safety instruction.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements of § 19.12 of this chapter, 
</P>
<P>(a) A licensee shall provide radiation safety instruction, initially and at least annually, to personnel caring for patients or human research subjects who cannot be released under § 35.75. To satisfy this requirement, the instruction must be commensurate with the duties of the personnel and include— 
</P>
<P>(1) Patient or human research subject control; 
</P>
<P>(2) Visitor control, including— 
</P>
<P>(i) Routine visitation to hospitalized individuals in accordance with § 20.1301(a)(1) of this chapter; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Visitation authorized in accordance with § 20.1301(c) of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(3) Contamination control; 
</P>
<P>(4) Waste control; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Notification of the Radiation Safety Officer, or his or her designee, and an authorized user if the patient or the human research subject has a medical emergency or dies. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall retain a record of individuals receiving instruction in accordance with § 35.2310. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19324, Apr. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.315" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.5.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.315   Safety precautions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each patient or human research subject who cannot be released under § 35.75, a licensee shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Quarter the patient or the human research subject either in— 
</P>
<P>(i) A private room with a private sanitary facility; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A room, with a private sanitary facility, with another individual who also has received therapy with unsealed byproduct material and who also cannot be released under § 35.75; 
</P>
<P>(2) Visibly post the patient's or the human research subject's room with a “Radioactive Materials” sign. 
</P>
<P>(3) Note on the door or in the patient's or human research subject's chart where and how long visitors may stay in the patient's or the human research subject's room; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Either monitor material and items removed from the patient's or the human research subject's room to determine that their radioactivity cannot be distinguished from the natural background radiation level with a radiation detection survey instrument set on its most sensitive scale and with no interposed shielding, or handle the material and items as radioactive waste. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall notify the Radiation Safety Officer, or his or her designee, and an authorized user as soon as possible if the patient or human research subject has a medical emergency or dies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19325, Apr. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.390" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.5.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.390   Training for use of unsealed byproduct material for which a written directive is required.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an authorized user of unsealed byproduct material for the uses authorized under § 35.300 to be a physician who— 


</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State and who meets the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(G) of this section. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page. To be recognized, a specialty board shall require all candidates for certification to:


</P>
<P>(1) Successfully complete residency training in a radiation therapy or nuclear medicine training program or a program in a related medical specialty. These residency training programs must include 700 hours of training and experience as described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(ii)(E) of this section. Eligible training programs must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, which tests knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, quality assurance, and clinical use of unsealed byproduct material for which a written directive is required; or
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Has completed 700 hours of training and experience, including a minimum of 200 hours of classroom and laboratory training, in basic radionuclide handling techniques applicable to the medical use of unsealed byproduct material requiring a written directive. The training and experience must include—
</P>
<P>(i) Classroom and laboratory training in the following areas— 
</P>
<P>(A) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(B) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(C) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; 
</P>
<P>(D) Chemistry of byproduct material for medical use; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Radiation biology; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Work experience, under the supervision of an authorized user who meets the requirements in §§ 35.57, 35.390, or equivalent Agreement State requirements. A supervising authorized user, who meets the requirements in § 35.390(b), must also have experience in administering dosages in the same dosage category or categories (<I>i.e.</I>, § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)) as the individual requesting authorized user status. The work experience must involve— 
</P>
<P>(A) Ordering, receiving, and unpacking radioactive materials safely and performing the related radiation surveys; 
</P>
<P>(B) Performing quality control procedures on instruments used to determine the activity of dosages, and performing checks for proper operation of survey meters;
</P>
<P>(C) Calculating, measuring, and safely preparing patient or human research subject dosages; 
</P>
<P>(D) Using administrative controls to prevent a medical event involving the use of unsealed byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(E) Using procedures to contain spilled byproduct material safely and using proper decontamination procedures; 
</P>
<P>(F) [Reserved] 




</P>
<P>(G) Administering dosages of radioactive drugs to patients or human research subjects from the three categories in this paragraph. Radioactive drugs containing radionuclides in categories not included in this paragraph are regulated under § 35.1000. This work experience must involve a minimum of three cases in each of the following categories for which the individual is requesting authorized user status—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Oral administration of less than or equal to 1.22 gigabecquerels (33 millicuries) of sodium iodide I-131, for which a written directive is required;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Oral administration of greater than 1.22 gigabecquerels (33 millicuries) of sodium iodide I-131; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Experience with at least three cases in Category (G)(2) also satisfies the requirement in Category (G)(1).</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Parenteral administration of any radioactive drug that contains a radionuclide that is primarily used for its electron emission, beta radiation characteristics, alpha radiation characteristics, or photon energy of less than 150 keV, for which a written directive is required; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user for the medical uses authorized under § 35.300 for which the individual is requesting authorized user status. The attestation must be obtained from either:
</P>
<P>(i) A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, or equivalent Agreement State requirements and has experience in administering dosages in the same dosage category or categories as the individual requesting authorized user status; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A residency program director who affirms in writing that the attestation represents the consensus of the residency program faculty where at least one faculty member is an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, has experience in administering dosages in the same dosage category or categories as the individual requesting authorized user status, and concurs with the attestation provided by the residency program director. The residency training program must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association and must include training and experience specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 75389, Dec. 31, 2003; 70 FR 16364, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15009, Mar. 27, 2006; 74 FR 33905, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33107, July 16, 2018; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.392" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.5.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.392   Training for the oral administration of sodium iodide I-131 requiring a written directive in quantities less than or equal to 1.22 gigabecquerels (33 millicuries).</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an authorized user for the oral administration of sodium iodide I-131 requiring a written directive in quantities less than or equal to 1.22 Gigabecquerels (33 millicuries), to be a physician who— 


</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process includes all of the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section and whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page; or


</P>
<P>(b) Is an authorized user under § 35.390 for uses listed in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>), § 35.394, or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Has successfully completed 80 hours of classroom and laboratory training, applicable to the medical use of sodium iodide I-131 for procedures requiring a written directive. The training must include— 
</P>
<P>(i) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Chemistry of byproduct material for medical use; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Radiation biology; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Has work experience, under the supervision of an authorized user who meets the requirements in §§ 35.57, 35.390, 35.392, 35.394, or equivalent Agreement State requirements. A supervising authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.390(b) must also have experience in administering dosages as specified in §§ 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(1) or 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(2). The work experience must involve— 
</P>
<P>(i) Ordering, receiving, and unpacking radioactive materials safely and performing the related radiation surveys; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Performing quality control procedures on instruments used to determine the activity of dosages and performing checks for proper operation of survey meters; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculating, measuring, and safely preparing patient or human research subject dosages; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Using administrative controls to prevent a medical event involving the use of byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(v) Using procedures to contain spilled byproduct material safely and using proper decontamination procedures; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Administering dosages to patients or human research subjects, that includes at least 3 cases involving the oral administration of less than or equal to 1.22 gigabecquerels (33 millicuries) of sodium iodide I-131; and 


</P>
<P>(3) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user for oral administration of less than or equal to 1.22 gigabecquerels (33 millicuries) of sodium iodide I-131 for medical uses authorized under § 35.300. The attestation must be obtained from either:
</P>
<P>(i) A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, § 35.392, § 35.394, or equivalent Agreement State requirements and has experience in administering dosages as specified in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A residency program director who affirms in writing that the attestation represents the consensus of the residency program faculty where at least one faculty member is an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, § 35.392, § 35.394, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, has experience in administering dosages as specified in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>), and concurs with the attestation provided by the residency program director. The residency training program must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association and must include training and experience specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 75389, Dec. 31, 2003; 70 FR 16364, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15009, Mar. 27, 2006; 74 FR 33905, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33108, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.394" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.5.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.394   Training for the oral administration of sodium iodide I-131 requiring a written directive in quantities greater than 1.22 gigabecquerels (33 millicuries).</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an authorized user for the oral administration of sodium iodide I-131 requiring a written directive in quantities greater than 1.22 Gigabecquerels (33 millicuries), to be a physician who— 

 
</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process includes all of the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, and whose certification has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page; or




</P>
<P>(b) Is an authorized user under § 35.390 for uses listed in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>2</I>) or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Has successfully completed 80 hours of classroom and laboratory training, applicable to the medical use of sodium iodide I-131 for procedures requiring a written directive. The training must include— 
</P>
<P>(i) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Chemistry of byproduct material for medical use; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Radiation biology; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Has work experience, under the supervision of an authorized user who meets the requirements in §§ 35.57, 35.390, 35.394, or equivalent Agreement State requirements. A supervising authorized user, who meets the requirements in § 35.390(b), must also have experience in administering dosages as specified in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(2). The work experience must involve— 
</P>
<P>(i) Ordering, receiving, and unpacking radioactive materials safely and performing the related radiation surveys; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Performing quality control procedures on instruments used to determine the activity of dosages and performing checks for proper operation of survey meters; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculating, measuring, and safely preparing patient or human research subject dosages; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Using administrative controls to prevent a medical event involving the use of byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(v) Using procedures to contain spilled byproduct material safely and using proper decontamination procedures; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Administering dosages to patients or human research subjects, that includes at least 3 cases involving the oral administration of greater than 1.22 gigabecquerels (33 millicuries) of sodium iodide I-131; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user for oral administration of greater than 1.22 gigabecquerels (33 millicuries) of sodium iodide I-131 for medical uses authorized under § 35.300. The attestation must be obtained from either:
</P>
<P>(i) A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, § 35.394, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, and has experience in administering dosages as specified in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>2</I>); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A residency program director who affirms in writing that the attestation represents the consensus of the residency program faculty where at least one faculty member is an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, § 35.394, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, has experience in administering dosages as specified in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>2</I>), and concurs with the attestation provided by the residency program director. The residency training program must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association and must include training and experience specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 75389, Dec. 31, 2003; 70 FR 16365, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15010, Mar. 27, 2006; 74 FR 33905, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33108, July 16, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.396" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.5.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.396   Training for the parenteral administration of unsealed byproduct material requiring a written directive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an authorized user for the parenteral administration requiring a written directive, to be a physician who—
</P>
<P>(1) Is an authorized user under § 35.390 for uses listed in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(3), or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is an authorized user under § 35.490, § 35.690, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, and who meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State under § 35.490 or § 35.690, and who meets the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The physician—
</P>
<P>(1) Has successfully completed 80 hours of classroom and laboratory training, applicable to parenteral administrations listed in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>3</I>). The training must include—
</P>
<P>(i) Radiation physics and instrumentation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Radiation protection;
</P>
<P>(iii) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity;
</P>
<P>(iv) Chemistry of byproduct material for medical use; and
</P>
<P>(v) Radiation biology; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has work experience, under the supervision of an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, § 35.396, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, in the parenteral administrations listed in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>3</I>). A supervising authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.390, § 35.396, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, must have experience in administering dosages in the same category or categories as the individual requesting authorized user status. The work experience must involve—
</P>
<P>(i) Ordering, receiving, and unpacking radioactive materials safely, and performing the related radiation surveys;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performing quality control procedures on instruments used to determine the activity of dosages, and performing checks for proper operation of survey meters;
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculating, measuring, and safely preparing patient or human research subject dosages;
</P>
<P>(iv) Using administrative controls to prevent a medical event involving the use of unsealed byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(v) Using procedures to contain spilled byproduct material safely, and using proper decontamination procedures; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Administering dosages to patients or human research subjects, that include at least three cases of the parenteral administrations as specified in § 35.390(b)(1)(ii)(G)(<I>3</I>); and
</P>
<P>(3) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user for the parenteral administration of unsealed byproduct material requiring a written directive. The attestation must be obtained from either:
</P>
<P>(i) A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, § 35.396, or equivalent Agreement State requirements. A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.390, § 35.396, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, must have experience in administering dosages in the same category or categories as the individual requesting authorized user status; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A residency program director who affirms in writing that the attestation represents the consensus of the residency program faculty where at least one faculty member is an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.390, § 35.396, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, has experience in administering dosages in the same dosage category or categories as the individual requesting authorized user status, and concurs with the attestation provided by the residency program director. The residency training program must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association and must include training and experience specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33108, July 16, 2018]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Manual Brachytherapy</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.400" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.400   Use of sources for manual brachytherapy.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee must use only brachytherapy sources:
</P>
<P>(a) Approved in the Sealed Source and Device Registry for manual brachytherapy medical use. The manual brachytherapy sources may be used for manual brachytherapy uses that are not explicitly listed in the Sealed Source and Device Registry, but must be used in accordance with the radiation safety conditions and limitations described in the Sealed Source and Device Registry; or
</P>
<P>(b) In research to deliver therapeutic doses for medical use in accordance with an active Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) application accepted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration provided the requirements of § 35.49(a) are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33109, July 16, 2018]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.404" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.404   Surveys after source implant and removal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately after implanting sources in a patient or a human research subject, the licensee shall make a survey to locate and account for all sources that have not been implanted. 
</P>
<P>(b) Immediately after removing the last temporary implant source from a patient or a human research subject, the licensee shall make a survey of the patient or the human research subject with a radiation detection survey instrument to confirm that all sources have been removed. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a record of the surveys required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in accordance with § 35.2404. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.406" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.406   Brachytherapy sources accountability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall maintain accountability at all times for all brachytherapy sources in storage or use. 
</P>
<P>(b) As soon as possible after removing sources from a patient or a human research subject, a licensee shall return brachytherapy sources to a secure storage area. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall maintain a record of the brachytherapy source accountability in accordance with § 35.2406. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.410" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.410   Safety instruction.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the requirements of § 19.12 of this chapter, 
</P>
<P>(a) The licensee shall provide radiation safety instruction, initially and at least annually, to personnel caring for patients or human research subjects who are receiving brachytherapy and cannot be released under § 35.75. To satisfy this requirement, the instruction must be commensurate with the duties of the personnel and include the— 
</P>
<P>(1) Size and appearance of the brachytherapy sources; 
</P>
<P>(2) Safe handling and shielding instructions; 
</P>
<P>(3) Patient or human research subject control; 
</P>
<P>(4) Visitor control, including both: 
</P>
<P>(i) Routine visitation of hospitalized individuals in accordance with § 20.1301(a)(1) of this chapter; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Visitation authorized in accordance with § 20.1301(c) of this chapter; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Notification of the Radiation Safety Officer, or his or her designee, and an authorized user if the patient or the human research subject has a medical emergency or dies. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall retain a record of individuals receiving instruction in accordance with § 35.2310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.415" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.415   Safety precautions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each patient or human research subject who is receiving brachytherapy and cannot be released under § 35.75, a licensee shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Not quarter the patient or the human research subject in the same room as an individual who is not receiving brachytherapy; 
</P>
<P>(2) Visibly post the patient's or human research subject's room with a “Radioactive Materials” sign; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Note on the door or in the patient's or human research subject's chart where and how long visitors may stay in the patient's or human research subject's room. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall have applicable emergency response equipment available near each treatment room to respond to a source— 
</P>
<P>(1) Dislodged from the patient; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Lodged within the patient following removal of the source applicators. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall notify the Radiation Safety Officer, or his or her designee, and an authorized user as soon as possible if the patient or human research subject has a medical emergency or dies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.432" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.432   Calibration measurements of brachytherapy sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before the first medical use of a brachytherapy source on or after October 24, 2002, a licensee shall have— 
</P>
<P>(1) Determined the source output or activity using a dosimetry system that meets the requirements of § 35.630(a); 
</P>
<P>(2) Determined source positioning accuracy within applicators; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Used published protocols currently accepted by nationally recognized bodies to meet the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Instead of a licensee making its own measurements as required in paragraph (a) of this section, the licensee may use measurements provided by the source manufacturer or by a calibration laboratory accredited by the American Association of Physicists in Medicine that are made in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall mathematically correct the outputs or activities determined in paragraph (a) of this section for physical decay at intervals consistent with 1 percent physical decay. 
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee shall retain a record of each calibration in accordance with § 35.2432. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19325, Apr. 21, 2003]



 






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.433" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.433   Strontium-90 sources for ophthalmic treatments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees who use strontium-90 for ophthalmic treatments must ensure that certain activities as specified in paragraph (b) of this section are performed by either:
</P>
<P>(1) An authorized medical physicist; or
</P>
<P>(2) An individual who:
</P>
<P>(i) is identified as an ophthalmic physicist on a specific medical use license issued by the Commission or an Agreement State; permit issued by a Commission or Agreement State broad scope medical use licensee; medical use permit issued by a Commission master material licensee; or permit issued by a Commission master material licensee broad scope medical use permittee; and
</P>
<P>(ii) holds a master's or doctor's degree in physics, medical physics, other physical sciences, engineering, or applied mathematics from an accredited college or university; and
</P>
<P>(iii) has successfully completed 1 year of full-time training in medical physics and an additional year of full-time work experience under the supervision of a medical physicist; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has documented training in:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation, modification, and completion of written directives;
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for administrations requiring a written directive; and
</P>
<P>(C) Performing the calibration measurements of brachytherapy sources as detailed in § 35.432.
</P>
<P>(b) The individuals who are identified in paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Calculate the activity of each strontium-90 source that is used to determine the treatment times for ophthalmic treatments. The decay must be based on the activity determined under § 35.432; and
</P>
<P>(2) Assist the licensee in developing, implementing, and maintaining written procedures to provide high confidence that the administration is in accordance with the written directive. These procedures must include the frequencies that the individual meeting the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section will observe treatments, review the treatment methodology, calculate treatment time for the prescribed dose, and review records to verify that the administrations were in accordance with the written directives.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees must retain a record of the activity of each strontium-90 source in accordance with § 35.2433.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33109, July 16, 2018]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.457" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.457   Therapy-related computer systems.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall perform acceptance testing on the treatment planning system of therapy-related computer systems in accordance with published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies. At a minimum, the acceptance testing must include, as applicable, verification of: 
</P>
<P>(a) The source-specific input parameters required by the dose calculation algorithm; 
</P>
<P>(b) The accuracy of dose, dwell time, and treatment time calculations at representative points; 
</P>
<P>(c) The accuracy of isodose plots and graphic displays; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The accuracy of the software used to determine sealed source positions from radiographic images. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.490" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.490   Training for use of manual brachytherapy sources.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an authorized user of a manual brachytherapy source for the uses authorized under § 35.400 to be a physician who— 


</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page. To have its certification process recognized, a specialty board shall require all candidates for certification to:




</P>
<P>(1) Successfully complete a minimum of 3 years of residency training in a radiation oncology program approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, that tests knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, treatment planning, quality assurance, and clinical use of manual brachytherapy; or
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Has completed a structured educational program in basic radionuclide handling techniques applicable to the use of manual brachytherapy sources that includes— 
</P>
<P>(i) 200 hours of classroom and laboratory training in the following areas— 
</P>
<P>(A) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(B) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(C) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Radiation biology; and 


</P>
<P>(ii) 500 hours of work experience, under the supervision of an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.490, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, at a medical facility authorized to use byproduct materials under § 35.400, involving—




</P>
<P>(A) Ordering, receiving, and unpacking radioactive materials safely and performing the related radiation surveys; 
</P>
<P>(B) Checking survey meters for proper operation; 
</P>
<P>(C) Preparing, implanting, and removing brachytherapy sources; 
</P>
<P>(D) Maintaining running inventories of material on hand; 
</P>
<P>(E) Using administrative controls to prevent a medical event involving the use of byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(F) Using emergency procedures to control byproduct material; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Has completed 3 years of supervised clinical experience in radiation oncology, under an authorized user who meets the requirements in §§ 35.57, 35.490, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, as part of a formal training program approved by the Residency Review Committee for Radiation Oncology of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association. This experience may be obtained concurrently with the supervised work experience required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section; and


</P>
<P>(3) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user of manual brachytherapy sources for the medical uses authorized under § 35.400. The attestation must be obtained from either:
</P>
<P>(i) A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.490, or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A residency program director who affirms in writing that the attestation represents the consensus of the residency program faculty where at least one faculty member is an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.490, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, and concurs with the attestation provided by the residency program director. The residency training program must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association and must include training and experience specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 16366, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15010, Mar. 27, 2006; 74 FR 33906, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33109, July 16, 2018; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.491" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.6.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.491   Training for ophthalmic use of strontium-90.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require the authorized user of strontium-90 for ophthalmic radiotherapy to be a physician who— 
</P>
<P>(a) Is an authorized user under § 35.490 or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Has completed 24 hours of classroom and laboratory training applicable to the medical use of strontium-90 for ophthalmic radiotherapy. The training must include— 
</P>
<P>(i) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Radiation biology; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Supervised clinical training in ophthalmic radiotherapy under the supervision of an authorized user at a medical institution, clinic, or private practice that includes the use of strontium-90 for the ophthalmic treatment of five individuals. This supervised clinical training must involve— 
</P>
<P>(i) Examination of each individual to be treated; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculation of the dose to be administered; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Administration of the dose; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Follow up and review of each individual's case history; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Has obtained written attestation, signed by a preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.490, § 35.491, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user of strontium-90 for ophthalmic use.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19326, Apr. 21, 2003; 71 FR 15011, Mar. 27, 2006; 74 FR 33906, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33109, July 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Sealed Sources for Diagnosis</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.500" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.7.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.500   Use of sealed sources and medical devices for diagnosis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee must use only sealed sources that are not in medical devices for diagnostic medical uses if the sealed sources are approved in the Sealed Source and Device Registry for diagnostic medicine. The sealed sources may be used for diagnostic medical uses that are not explicitly listed in the Sealed Source and Device Registry but must be used in accordance with the radiation safety conditions and limitations described in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee must only use medical devices containing sealed sources for diagnostic medical uses if both the sealed sources and medical devices are approved in the Sealed Source and Device Registry for diagnostic medical uses. The diagnostic medical devices may be used for diagnostic medical uses that are not explicitly listed in the Sealed Source and Device Registry but must be used in accordance with the radiation safety conditions and limitations described in the Sealed Source and Device Registry.
</P>
<P>(c) Sealed sources and devices for diagnostic medical uses may be used in research in accordance with an active Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) application accepted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration provided the requirements of § 35.49(a) are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33110, July 16, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.590" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.7.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.590   Training for use of sealed sources and medical devices for diagnosis.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require the authorized user of a diagnostic sealed source or a device authorized under § 35.500 to be a physician, dentist, or podiatrist who—
</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a specialty board whose certification process includes all of the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section and whose certification has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page; or
</P>
<P>(b) Is an authorized user for uses listed in § 35.200 or equivalent Agreement State requirements; or
</P>
<P>(c) Has completed 8 hours of classroom and laboratory training in basic radionuclide handling techniques specifically applicable to the use of the device. The training must include—
</P>
<P>(1) Radiation physics and instrumentation;
</P>
<P>(2) Radiation protection;
</P>
<P>(3) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Radiation biology; and
</P>
<P>(d) Has completed training in the use of the device for the uses requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33110, July 16, 2018]




















</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Photon Emitting Remote Afterloader Units, Teletherapy Units, and Gamma Stereotactic Radiosurgery Units</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.600" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.600   Use of a sealed source in a remote afterloader unit, teletherapy unit, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee must only use sealed sources:
</P>
<P>(1) Approved and as provided for in the Sealed Source and Device Registry in photon emitting remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units to deliver therapeutic doses for medical uses: or
</P>
<P>(2) In research involving photon-emitting remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units in accordance with an active Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) application accepted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration provided the requirements of § 35.49(a) are met.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee must use photon-emitting remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units:
</P>
<P>(1) Approved in the Sealed Source and Device Registry to deliver a therapeutic dose for medical use. These devices may be used for therapeutic medical treatments that are not explicitly provided for in the Sealed Source and Device Registry, but must be used in accordance with radiation safety conditions and limitations described in the Sealed Source and Device Registry; or
</P>
<P>(2) In research in accordance with an active Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) application accepted by the FDA provided the requirements of § 35.49(a) are met.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33110, July 16, 2018]



 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.604" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.604   Surveys of patients and human research subjects treated with a remote afterloader unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before releasing a patient or a human research subject from licensee control, a licensee shall survey the patient or the human research subject and the remote afterloader unit with a portable radiation detection survey instrument to confirm that the source(s) has been removed from the patient or human research subject and returned to the safe shielded position. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall retain a record of these surveys in accordance with § 35.2404. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.605" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.605   Installation, maintenance, adjustment, and repair.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only a person specifically licensed by the Commission or an Agreement State shall install, maintain, adjust, or repair a remote afterloader unit, teletherapy unit, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit that involves work on the source(s) shielding, the source(s) driving unit, or other electronic or mechanical component that could expose the source(s), reduce the shielding around the source(s), or compromise the radiation safety of the unit or the source(s). 
</P>
<P>(b) Except for low dose-rate remote afterloader units, only a person specifically licensed by the Commission or an Agreement State shall install, replace, relocate, or remove a sealed source or source contained in other remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units. 
</P>
<P>(c) For a low dose-rate remote afterloader unit, only a person specifically licensed by the Commission or an Agreement State or an authorized medical physicist shall install, replace, relocate, or remove a sealed source(s) contained in the unit. 
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee shall retain a record of the installation, maintenance, adjustment, and repair of remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units in accordance with § 35.2605. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.610" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.610   Safety procedures and instructions for remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Secure the unit, the console, the console keys, and the treatment room when not in use or unattended; 
</P>
<P>(2) Permit only individuals approved by the authorized user, Radiation Safety Officer, or authorized medical physicist to be present in the treatment room during treatment with the source(s); 
</P>
<P>(3) Prevent dual operation of more than one radiation producing device in a treatment room if applicable; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Develop, implement, and maintain written procedures for responding to an abnormal situation when the operator is unable to place the source(s) in the shielded position, or remove the patient or human research subject from the radiation field with controls from outside the treatment room. These procedures must include— 
</P>
<P>(i) Instructions for responding to equipment failures and the names of the individuals responsible for implementing corrective actions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The process for restricting access to and posting of the treatment area to minimize the risk of inadvertent exposure; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The names and telephone numbers of the authorized users, the authorized medical physicist, and the Radiation Safety Officer to be contacted if the unit or console operates abnormally. 
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the procedures required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section must be physically located at the unit console. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall post instructions at the unit console to inform the operator of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The location of the procedures required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The names and telephone numbers of the authorized users, the authorized medical physicist, and the Radiation Safety Officer to be contacted if the unit or console operates abnormally. 


</P>
<P>(d)(1) Prior to the first use for patient treatment of a new unit or an existing unit with a manufacturer upgrade that affects the operation and safety of the unit, a licensee shall ensure that vendor operational and safety training is provided to all individuals who will operate the unit. The vendor operational and safety training must be provided by the device manufacturer or by an individual certified by the device manufacturer to provide the operational and safety training.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee shall provide operational and safety instructions initially and at least annually to all individuals who operate the unit at the facility, as appropriate to the individual's assigned duties. The instructions shall include instruction in—
</P>
<P>(i) The procedures identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The operating procedures for the unit.








</P>
<P>(e) A licensee shall ensure that operators, authorized medical physicists, and authorized users participate in drills of the emergency procedures, initially and at least annually. 
</P>
<P>(f) A licensee shall retain a record of individuals receiving instruction required by paragraph (d) of this section, in accordance with § 35.2310. 


</P>
<P>(g) A licensee shall retain a copy of the procedures required by paragraphs (a)(4) and (d)(2)(ii) of this section in accordance with § 35.2610.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 83 FR 33110, July 16, 2018]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.615" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.615   Safety precautions for remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall control access to the treatment room by a door at each entrance. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall equip each entrance to the treatment room with an electrical interlock system that will— 
</P>
<P>(1) Prevent the operator from initiating the treatment cycle unless each treatment room entrance door is closed; 
</P>
<P>(2) Cause the source(s) to be shielded when an entrance door is opened; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Prevent the source(s) from being exposed following an interlock interruption until all treatment room entrance doors are closed and the source(s) on-off control is reset at the console. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall require any individual entering the treatment room to assure, through the use of appropriate radiation monitors, that radiation levels have returned to ambient levels. 
</P>
<P>(d) Except for low-dose remote afterloader units, a licensee shall construct or equip each treatment room with viewing and intercom systems to permit continuous observation of the patient or the human research subject from the treatment console during irradiation. 
</P>
<P>(e) For licensed activities where sources are placed within the patient's or human research subject's body, a licensee shall only conduct treatments which allow for expeditious removal of a decoupled or jammed source. 
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the requirements specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, a licensee shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) For medium dose-rate and pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader units, require— 
</P>
<P>(i) An authorized medical physicist and either an authorized user or a physician, under the supervision of an authorized user, who has been trained in the operation and emergency response for the unit to be physically present during the initiation of all patient treatments involving the unit; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) An authorized medical physicist and either an authorized user or an individual, under the supervision of an authorized user, who has been trained to remove the source applicator(s) in the event of an emergency involving the unit, to be immediately available during continuation of all patient treatments involving the unit. 
</P>
<P>(2) For high dose-rate remote afterloader units, require— 
</P>
<P>(i) An authorized user and an authorized medical physicist to be physically present during the initiation of all patient treatments involving the unit; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) An authorized medical physicist and either an authorized user or a physician, under the supervision of an authorized user, who has been trained in the operation and emergency response for the unit, to be physically present during continuation of all patient treatments involving the unit. 
</P>
<P>(3) For gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units, require an authorized user and an authorized medical physicist to be physically present throughout all patient treatments involving the unit. 
</P>
<P>(4) Notify the Radiation Safety Officer, or his/her designee, and an authorized user as soon as possible if the patient or human research subject has a medical emergency or dies. 
</P>
<P>(g) A licensee shall have applicable emergency response equipment available near each treatment room to respond to a source— 
</P>
<P>(1) Remaining in the unshielded position; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Lodged within the patient following completion of the treatment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.630" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.630   Dosimetry equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for low dose-rate remote afterloader sources where the source output or activity is determined by the manufacturer, a licensee shall have a calibrated dosimetry system available for use. To satisfy this requirement, one of the following two conditions must be met. 
</P>
<P>(1) The system must have been calibrated using a system or source traceable to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) and published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies; or by a calibration laboratory accredited by the American Association of Physicists in Medicine (AAPM). The calibration must have been performed within the previous 2 years and after any servicing that may have affected system calibration; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The system must have been calibrated within the previous 4 years. Eighteen to thirty months after that calibration, the system must have been intercompared with another dosimetry system that was calibrated within the past 24 months by NIST or by a calibration laboratory accredited by the AAPM. The results of the intercomparison must indicate that the calibration factor of the licensee's system had not changed by more than 2 percent. The licensee may not use the intercomparison result to change the calibration factor. When intercomparing dosimetry systems to be used for calibrating sealed sources for therapeutic units, the licensee shall use a comparable unit with beam attenuators or collimators, as applicable, and sources of the same radionuclide as the source used at the licensee's facility. 
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall have a dosimetry system available for use for spot-check output measurements, if applicable. To satisfy this requirement, the system may be compared with a system that has been calibrated in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. This comparison must have been performed within the previous year and after each servicing that may have affected system calibration. The spot-check system may be the same system used to meet the requirement in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall retain a record of each calibration, intercomparison, and comparison in accordance with § 35.2630. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19326, Apr. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.632" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.632   Full calibration measurements on teletherapy units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee authorized to use a teletherapy unit for medical use shall perform full calibration measurements on each teletherapy unit— 
</P>
<P>(1) Before the first medical use of the unit; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Before medical use under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Whenever spot-check measurements indicate that the output differs by more than 5 percent from the output obtained at the last full calibration corrected mathematically for radioactive decay; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Following replacement of the source or following reinstallation of the teletherapy unit in a new location; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Following any repair of the teletherapy unit that includes removal of the source or major repair of the components associated with the source exposure assembly; and 
</P>
<P>(3) At intervals not exceeding 1 year. 
</P>
<P>(b) To satisfy the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, full calibration measurements must include determination of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The output within ±3 percent for the range of field sizes and for the distance or range of distances used for medical use; 
</P>
<P>(2) The coincidence of the radiation field and the field indicated by the light beam localizing device; 
</P>
<P>(3) The uniformity of the radiation field and its dependence on the orientation of the useful beam; 
</P>
<P>(4) Timer accuracy and linearity over the range of use; 
</P>
<P>(5) On-off error; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The accuracy of all distance measuring and localization devices in medical use. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall use the dosimetry system described in § 35.630(a) to measure the output for one set of exposure conditions. The remaining radiation measurements required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be made using a dosimetry system that indicates relative dose rates. 
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee shall make full calibration measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies. 
</P>
<P>(e) A licensee shall mathematically correct the outputs determined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for physical decay for intervals not exceeding 1 month for cobalt-60, 6 months for cesium-137, or at intervals consistent with 1 percent decay for all other nuclides. 
</P>
<P>(f) Full calibration measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section and physical decay corrections required by paragraph (e) of this section must be performed by the authorized medical physicist. 
</P>
<P>(g) A licensee shall retain a record of each calibration in accordance with § 35.2632. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.633" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.633   Full calibration measurements on remote afterloader units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee authorized to use a remote afterloader unit for medical use shall perform full calibration measurements on each unit— 
</P>
<P>(1) Before the first medical use of the unit; 
</P>
<P>(2) Before medical use under the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Following replacement of the source or following reinstallation of the unit in a new location outside the facility; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Following any repair of the unit that includes removal of the source or major repair of the components associated with the source exposure assembly; and 
</P>
<P>(3) At intervals not exceeding 1 quarter for high dose-rate, medium dose-rate, and pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader units with sources whose half-life exceeds 75 days; and 
</P>
<P>(4) At intervals not exceeding 1 year for low dose-rate remote afterloader units. 
</P>
<P>(b) To satisfy the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, full calibration measurements must include, as applicable, determination of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The output within ±5 percent; 
</P>
<P>(2) Source positioning accuracy to within ±1 millimeter; 
</P>
<P>(3) Source retraction with backup battery upon power failure; 
</P>
<P>(4) Length of the source transfer tubes; 
</P>
<P>(5) Timer accuracy and linearity over the typical range of use; 
</P>
<P>(6) Length of the applicators; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Function of the source transfer tubes, applicators, and transfer tube-applicator interfaces. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall use the dosimetry system described in § 35.630(a) to measure the output. 
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee shall make full calibration measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies. 
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to the requirements for full calibrations for low dose-rate remote afterloader units in paragraph (b) of this section, a licensee shall perform an autoradiograph of the source(s) to verify inventory and source(s) arrangement at intervals not exceeding 1 quarter. 
</P>
<P>(f) For low dose-rate remote afterloader units, a licensee may use measurements provided by the source manufacturer that are made in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) A licensee shall mathematically correct the outputs determined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for physical decay at intervals consistent with 1 percent physical decay. 
</P>
<P>(h) Full calibration measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section and physical decay corrections required by paragraph (g) of this section must be performed by the authorized medical physicist. 
</P>
<P>(i) A licensee shall retain a record of each calibration in accordance with § 35.2632. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.635" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.635   Full calibration measurements on gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee authorized to use a gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit for medical use shall perform full calibration measurements on each unit— 
</P>
<P>(1) Before the first medical use of the unit; 
</P>
<P>(2) Before medical use under the following conditions— 
</P>
<P>(i) Whenever spot-check measurements indicate that the output differs by more than 5 percent from the output obtained at the last full calibration corrected mathematically for radioactive decay; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Following replacement of the sources or following reinstallation of the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit in a new location; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Following any repair of the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit that includes removal of the sources or major repair of the components associated with the source assembly; and 
</P>
<P>(3) At intervals not exceeding 1 year, with the exception that relative helmet factors need only be determined before the first medical use of a helmet and following any damage to a helmet. 
</P>
<P>(b) To satisfy the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, full calibration measurements must include determination of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The output within ±3 percent; 
</P>
<P>(2) Relative helmet factors; 
</P>
<P>(3) Isocenter coincidence; 
</P>
<P>(4) Timer accuracy and linearity over the range of use; 
</P>
<P>(5) On-off error; 
</P>
<P>(6) Trunnion centricity; 
</P>
<P>(7) Treatment table retraction mechanism, using backup battery power or hydraulic backups with the unit off; 
</P>
<P>(8) Helmet microswitches; 
</P>
<P>(9) Emergency timing circuits; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Stereotactic frames and localizing devices (trunnions). 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall use the dosimetry system described in § 35.630(a) to measure the output for one set of exposure conditions. The remaining radiation measurements required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be made using a dosimetry system that indicates relative dose rates. 
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee shall make full calibration measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies. 
</P>
<P>(e) A licensee shall mathematically correct the outputs determined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section at intervals not exceeding 1 month for cobalt-60 and at intervals consistent with 1 percent physical decay for all other radionuclides. 
</P>
<P>(f) Full calibration measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section and physical decay corrections required by paragraph (e) of this section must be performed by the authorized medical physicist. 
</P>
<P>(g) A licensee shall retain a record of each calibration in accordance with § 35.2632. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.642" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.642   Periodic spot-checks for teletherapy units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee authorized to use teletherapy units for medical use shall perform output spot-checks on each teletherapy unit once in each calendar month that include determination of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Timer accuracy, and timer linearity over the range of use; 
</P>
<P>(2) On-off error; 
</P>
<P>(3) The coincidence of the radiation field and the field indicated by the light beam localizing device; 
</P>
<P>(4) The accuracy of all distance measuring and localization devices used for medical use; 
</P>
<P>(5) The output for one typical set of operating conditions measured with the dosimetry system described in § 35.630(b); and 
</P>
<P>(6) The difference between the measurement made in paragraph (a)(5) of this section and the anticipated output, expressed as a percentage of the anticipated output (<I>i.e.</I>, the value obtained at last full calibration corrected mathematically for physical decay). 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall perform measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with written procedures established by the authorized medical physicist. That individual need not actually perform the spot-check measurements. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall have the authorized medical physicist review the results of each spot-check within 15 days. The authorized medical physicist shall notify the licensee as soon as possible in writing of the results of each spot-check. 
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee authorized to use a teletherapy unit for medical use shall perform safety spot-checks of each teletherapy facility once in each calendar month and after each source installation to assure proper operation of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Electrical interlocks at each teletherapy room entrance; 
</P>
<P>(2) Electrical or mechanical stops installed for the purpose of limiting use of the primary beam of radiation (restriction of source housing angulation or elevation, carriage or stand travel and operation of the beam on-off mechanism); 
</P>
<P>(3) Source exposure indicator lights on the teletherapy unit, on the control console, and in the facility; 
</P>
<P>(4) Viewing and intercom systems; 
</P>
<P>(5) Treatment room doors from inside and outside the treatment room; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Electrically assisted treatment room doors with the teletherapy unit electrical power turned off. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the results of the checks required in paragraph (d) of this section indicate the malfunction of any system, a licensee shall lock the control console in the off position and not use the unit except as may be necessary to repair, replace, or check the malfunctioning system. 
</P>
<P>(f) A licensee shall retain a record of each spot-check required by paragraphs (a) and (d) of this section, and a copy of the procedures required by paragraph (b), in accordance with § 35.2642. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.643" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.643   Periodic spot-checks for remote afterloader units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee authorized to use a remote afterloader unit for medical use shall perform spot-checks of each remote afterloader facility and on each unit— 
</P>
<P>(1) Before the first use of a high dose-rate, medium dose-rate, or pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader unit on a given day; 
</P>
<P>(2) Before each patient treatment with a low dose-rate remote afterloader unit; and 
</P>
<P>(3) After each source installation. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall perform the measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with written procedures established by the authorized medical physicist. That individual need not actually perform the spot check measurements. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall have the authorized medical physicist review the results of each spot-check within 15 days. The authorized medical physicist shall notify the licensee as soon as possible in writing of the results of each spot-check. 
</P>
<P>(d) To satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, spot-checks must, at a minimum, assure proper operation of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Electrical interlocks at each remote afterloader unit room entrance; 
</P>
<P>(2) Source exposure indicator lights on the remote afterloader unit, on the control console, and in the facility; 
</P>
<P>(3) Viewing and intercom systems in each high dose-rate, medium dose-rate, and pulsed dose-rate remote afterloader facility; 
</P>
<P>(4) Emergency response equipment; 
</P>
<P>(5) Radiation monitors used to indicate the source position; 
</P>
<P>(6) Timer accuracy; 
</P>
<P>(7) Clock (date and time) in the unit's computer; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Decayed source(s) activity in the unit's computer. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the results of the checks required in paragraph (d) of this section indicate the malfunction of any system, a licensee shall lock the control console in the off position and not use the unit except as may be necessary to repair, replace, or check the malfunctioning system. 
</P>
<P>(f) A licensee shall retain a record of each check required by paragraph (d) of this section and a copy of the procedures required by paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with § 35.2643. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.645" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.645   Periodic spot-checks for gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee authorized to use a gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit for medical use shall perform spot-checks of each gamma stereotactic radiosurgery facility and on each unit— 
</P>
<P>(1) Monthly; 
</P>
<P>(2) Before the first use of the unit on a given day; and 
</P>
<P>(3) After each source installation. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Perform the measurements required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with written procedures established by the authorized medical physicist. That individual need not actually perform the spot check measurements. 
</P>
<P>(2) Have the authorized medical physicist review the results of each spot-check within 15 days. The authorized medical physicist shall notify the licensee as soon as possible in writing of the results of each spot-check. 
</P>
<P>(c) To satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, spot-checks must, at a minimum— 
</P>
<P>(1) Assure proper operation of— 
</P>
<P>(i) Treatment table retraction mechanism, using backup battery power or hydraulic backups with the unit off; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Helmet microswitches; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency timing circuits; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Stereotactic frames and localizing devices (trunnions). 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine— 
</P>
<P>(i) The output for one typical set of operating conditions measured with the dosimetry system described in § 35.630(b); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The difference between the measurement made in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section and the anticipated output, expressed as a percentage of the anticipated output (<I>i.e.</I>, the value obtained at last full calibration corrected mathematically for physical decay); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Source output against computer calculation; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Timer accuracy and linearity over the range of use; 
</P>
<P>(v) On-off error; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Trunnion centricity. 
</P>
<P>(d) To satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, spot-checks must assure proper operation of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Electrical interlocks at each gamma stereotactic radiosurgery room entrance; 
</P>
<P>(2) Source exposure indicator lights on the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit, on the control console, and in the facility; 
</P>
<P>(3) Viewing and intercom systems; 
</P>
<P>(4) Timer termination; 
</P>
<P>(5) Radiation monitors used to indicate room exposures; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Emergency off buttons. 
</P>
<P>(e) A licensee shall arrange for the repair of any system identified in paragraph (c) of this section that is not operating properly as soon as possible. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the results of the checks required in paragraph (d) of this section indicate the malfunction of any system, a licensee shall lock the control console in the off position and not use the unit except as may be necessary to repair, replace, or check the malfunctioning system. 
</P>
<P>(g) A licensee shall retain a record of each check required by paragraphs (c) and (d) and a copy of the procedures required by paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with § 35.2645. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.647" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.647   Additional technical requirements for mobile remote afterloader units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee providing mobile remote afterloader service shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Check survey instruments before medical use at each address of use or on each day of use, whichever is more frequent; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Account for all sources before departure from a client's address of use. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the periodic spot-checks required by § 35.643, a licensee authorized to use mobile afterloaders for medical use shall perform checks on each remote afterloader unit before use at each address of use. At a minimum, checks must be made to verify the operation of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Electrical interlocks on treatment area access points; 
</P>
<P>(2) Source exposure indicator lights on the remote afterloader unit, on the control console, and in the facility; 
</P>
<P>(3) Viewing and intercom systems; 
</P>
<P>(4) Applicators, source transfer tubes, and transfer tube-applicator interfaces; 
</P>
<P>(5) Radiation monitors used to indicate room exposures; 
</P>
<P>(6) Source positioning (accuracy); and 
</P>
<P>(7) Radiation monitors used to indicate whether the source has returned to a safe shielded position. 
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the requirements for checks in paragraph (b) of this section, a licensee shall ensure overall proper operation of the remote afterloader unit by conducting a simulated cycle of treatment before use at each address of use. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the results of the checks required in paragraph (b) of this section indicate the malfunction of any system, a licensee shall lock the control console in the off position and not use the unit except as may be necessary to repair, replace, or check the malfunctioning system. 
</P>
<P>(e) A licensee shall retain a record of each check required by paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with § 35.2647. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.652" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.652   Radiation surveys.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the survey requirement in § 20.1501 of this chapter, a person licensed under this subpart shall make surveys to ensure that the maximum radiation levels and average radiation levels from the surface of the main source safe with the source(s) in the shielded position do not exceed the levels stated in the Sealed Source and Device Registry. 
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall make the survey required by paragraph (a) of this section at installation of a new source and following repairs to the source(s) shielding, the source(s) driving unit, or other electronic or mechanical component that could expose the source, reduce the shielding around the source(s), or compromise the radiation safety of the unit or the source(s). 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a record of the radiation surveys required by paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with § 35.2652. 










</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.655" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.655   Full-inspection servicing for teletherapy and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall have each teletherapy unit and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit fully inspected and serviced during each source replacement to assure proper functioning of the source exposure mechanism and other safety components. The interval between each full-inspection servicing shall not exceed 5 years for each teletherapy unit and shall not exceed 7 years for each gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit.


</P>
<P>(b) This inspection and servicing may only be performed by persons specifically licensed to do so by the Commission or an Agreement State. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall keep a record of the inspection and servicing in accordance with § 35.2655. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 83 FR 33110, July 16, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.657" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.657   Therapy-related computer systems.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall perform acceptance testing on the treatment planning system of therapy-related computer systems in accordance with published protocols accepted by nationally recognized bodies. At a minimum, the acceptance testing must include, as applicable, verification of: 
</P>
<P>(a) The source-specific input parameters required by the dose calculation algorithm; 
</P>
<P>(b) The accuracy of dose, dwell time, and treatment time calculations at representative points; 
</P>
<P>(c) The accuracy of isodose plots and graphic displays; 
</P>
<P>(d) The accuracy of the software used to determine sealed source positions from radiographic images; and 
</P>
<P>(e) The accuracy of electronic transfer of the treatment delivery parameters to the treatment delivery unit from the treatment planning system. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.690" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.8.94.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.690   Training for use of remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 35.57, the licensee shall require an authorized user of a sealed source for a use authorized under § 35.600 to be a physician who— 
</P>
<P>(a) Is certified by a medical specialty board whose certification process has been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State and who meets the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section. The names of board certifications that have been recognized by the Commission or an Agreement State are posted on the NRC's Medical Uses Licensee Toolkit web page. To have its certification process recognized, a specialty board shall require all candidates for certification to:








</P>
<P>(1) Successfully complete a minimum of 3 years of residency training in a radiation therapy program approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pass an examination, administered by diplomates of the specialty board, which tests knowledge and competence in radiation safety, radionuclide handling, treatment planning, quality assurance, and clinical use of stereotactic radiosurgery, remote afterloaders and external beam therapy; or




</P>
<P>(b)(1) Has completed a structured educational program in basic radionuclide techniques applicable to the use of a sealed source in a therapeutic medical unit that includes— 
</P>
<P>(i) 200 hours of classroom and laboratory training in the following areas— 
</P>
<P>(A) Radiation physics and instrumentation; 
</P>
<P>(B) Radiation protection; 
</P>
<P>(C) Mathematics pertaining to the use and measurement of radioactivity; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Radiation biology; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) 500 hours of work experience, under the supervision of an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.690, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, at a medical facility that is authorized to use byproduct materials in § 35.600, involving—


</P>
<P>(A) Reviewing full calibration measurements and periodic spot-checks; 
</P>
<P>(B) Preparing treatment plans and calculating treatment doses and times; 
</P>
<P>(C) Using administrative controls to prevent a medical event involving the use of byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(D) Implementing emergency procedures to be followed in the event of the abnormal operation of the medical unit or console; 
</P>
<P>(E) Checking and using survey meters; and 
</P>
<P>(F) Selecting the proper dose and how it is to be administered; and 




</P>
<P>(2) Has completed 3 years of supervised clinical experience in radiation therapy, under an authorized user who meets the requirements in §§ 35.57, 35.690, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, as part of a formal training program approved by the Residency Review Committee for Radiation Oncology of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association. This experience may be obtained concurrently with the supervised work experience required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section; and






</P>
<P>(3) Has obtained written attestation that the individual has satisfactorily completed the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) and (c) of this section; and is able to independently fulfill the radiation safety-related duties as an authorized user of each type of therapeutic medical unit for which the individual is requesting authorized user status. The attestation must be obtained from either:
</P>
<P>(i) A preceptor authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.690, or equivalent Agreement State requirements for the type(s) of therapeutic medical unit for which the individual is requesting authorized user status; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A residency program director who affirms in writing that the attestation represents the consensus of the residency program faculty where at least one faculty member is an authorized user who meets the requirements in § 35.57, § 35.690, or equivalent Agreement State requirements, for the type(s) of therapeutic medical unit for which the individual is requesting authorized user status, and concurs with the attestation provided by the residency program director. The residency training program must be approved by the Residency Review Committee of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association and must include training and experience specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(c) Has received training in device operation, safety procedures, and clinical use for the type(s) of use for which authorization is sought. This training requirement may be satisfied by satisfactory completion of a training program provided by the vendor for new users or by receiving training supervised by an authorized user or authorized medical physicist, as appropriate, who is authorized for the type(s) of use for which the individual is seeking authorization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 16366, Mar. 30, 2005; 71 FR 15011, Mar. 27, 2006; 74 FR 33906, July 14, 2009; 83 FR 33110, July 16, 2018; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts I-J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Other Medical Uses of Byproduct Material or Radiation From Byproduct Material</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.1000" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.10.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.1000   Other medical uses of byproduct material or radiation from byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee may use byproduct material or a radiation source approved for medical use which is not specifically addressed in subparts D through H of this part if— 
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant or licensee has submitted the information required by § 35.12(b) through (d); and 
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant or licensee has received written approval from the Commission in a license or license amendment and uses the material in accordance with the regulations and specific conditions the Commission considers necessary for the medical use of the material. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2024" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2024   Records of authority and responsibilities for radiation protection programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain a record of actions taken by the licensee's management in accordance with § 35.24(a) for 5 years. The record must include a summary of the actions taken and a signature of licensee management. 
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain a copy of both authority, duties, and responsibilities of the Radiation Safety Officer as required by § 35.24(e), and a signed copy of each Radiation Safety Officer's agreement to be responsible for implementing the radiation safety program, as required by § 35.24(b), for the duration of the license. The records must include the signature of the Radiation Safety Officer and licensee management.
</P>
<P>(c) For each Associate Radiation Safety Officer appointed under § 35.24(b), the licensee shall retain, for 5 years after the Associate Radiation Safety Officer is removed from the license, a copy of the written document appointing the Associate Radiation Safety Officer signed by the licensee's management.

 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 83 FR 33111, July 16, 2018]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2026" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2026   Records of radiation protection program changes.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall retain a record of each radiation protection program change made in accordance with § 35.26(a) for 5 years. The record must include a copy of the old and new procedures; the effective date of the change; and the signature of the licensee management that reviewed and approved the change. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2040" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2040   Records of written directives.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall retain a copy of each written directive as required by § 35.40 for 3 years. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2041" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2041   Records for procedures for administrations requiring a written directive</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall retain a copy of the procedures required by § 35.41(a) for the duration of the license. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2060" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2060   Records of calibrations of instruments used to measure the activity of unsealed byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall maintain a record of instrument calibrations required by § 35.60 for 3 years. The records must include the model and serial number of the instrument, the date of the calibration, the results of the calibration, and the name of the individual who performed the calibration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2061" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2061   Records of radiation survey instrument calibrations.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall maintain a record of radiation survey instrument calibrations required by § 35.61 for 3 years. The record must include the model and serial number of the instrument, the date of the calibration, the results of the calibration, and the name of the individual who performed the calibration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2063" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2063   Records of dosages of unsealed byproduct material for medical use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall maintain a record of dosage determinations required by § 35.63 for 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must contain— 
</P>
<P>(1) The radiopharmaceutical; 
</P>
<P>(2) The patient's or human research subject's name, or identification number if one has been assigned; 
</P>
<P>(3) The prescribed dosage, the determined dosage, or a notation that the total activity is less than 1.1 MBq (30 µCi); 
</P>
<P>(4) The date and time of the dosage determination; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The name of the individual who determined the dosage. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2067" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2067   Records of leaks tests and inventory of sealed sources and brachytherapy sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain records of leak tests required by § 35.67(b) for 3 years. The records must include the model number, and serial number if one has been assigned, of each source tested; the identity of each source by radionuclide and its estimated activity; the results of the test; the date of the test; and the name of the individual who performed the test. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall retain records of the semi-annual physical inventory of sealed sources and brachytherapy sources required by § 35.67(g) for 3 years. The inventory records must contain the model number of each source, and serial number if one has been assigned, the identity of each source by radionuclide and its nominal activity, the location of each source, and the name of the individual who performed the inventory. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2070" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2070   Records of surveys for ambient radiation exposure rate.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall retain a record of each survey required by § 35.70 for 3 years. The record must include the date of the survey, the results of the survey, the instrument used to make the survey, and the name of the individual who performed the survey. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2075" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2075   Records of the release of individuals containing unsealed byproduct material or implants containing byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain a record of the basis for authorizing the release of an individual in accordance with § 35.75, if the total effective dose equivalent is calculated by— 
</P>
<P>(1) Using the retained activity rather than the activity administered; 
</P>
<P>(2) Using an occupancy factor less than 0.25 at 1 meter; 
</P>
<P>(3) Using the biological or effective half-life; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Considering the shielding by tissue. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall retain a record that the instructions required by § 35.75(b) were provided to a breast-feeding female if the radiation dose to the infant or child from continued breast-feeding could result in a total effective dose equivalent exceeding 5 mSv (0.5 rem). 
</P>
<P>(c) The records required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be retained for 3 years after the date of release of the individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2080" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2080   Records of mobile medical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain a copy of each letter that permits the use of byproduct material at a client's address, as required by § 35.80(a)(1). Each letter must clearly delineate the authority and responsibility of the licensee and the client and must be retained for 3 years after the last provision of service. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall retain the record of each survey required by § 35.80(a)(4) for 3 years. The record must include the date of the survey, the results of the survey, the instrument used to make the survey, and the name of the individual who performed the survey. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2092" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2092   Records of decay-in-storage.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall maintain records of the disposal of licensed materials, as required by § 35.92, for 3 years. The record must include the date of the disposal, the survey instrument used, the background radiation level, the radiation level measured at the surface of each waste container, and the name of the individual who performed the survey. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2204   Records of molybdenum-99, strontium-82, and strontium-85 concentrations.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall maintain a record of the molybdenum-99 concentration or strontium-82 and strontium-85 concentration tests required by § 35.204(b) and (c) for 3 years. The record must include:
</P>
<P>(a) For each measured elution of technetium-99m, the ratio of the measures expressed as kilobecquerel of molybdenum-99 per megabecquerel of technetium-99m (or microcuries of molybdenum per millicurie of technetium), the time and date of the measurement, and the name of the individual who made the measurement; or
</P>
<P>(b) For each measured elution of rubidium-82, the ratio of the measures expressed as kilobecquerel of strontium-82 per megabecquerel of rubidium-82 (or microcuries of strontium-82 per millicurie of rubidium), kilobecquerel of strontium-85 per megabecquerel of rubidium-82 (or microcuries of strontium-85 per millicurie of rubidium), the time and date of the measurement, and the name of the individual who made the measurement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 55932, Oct. 1, 2007]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2310" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2310   Records of safety instruction.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall maintain a record of safety instructions required by §§ 35.310 and 35.410 and the operational and safety instructions required by § 35.610 for 3 years. The record must include a list of the topics covered, the date of the instruction, the name(s) of the attendee(s), and the name(s) of the individual(s) who provided the instruction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33111, July 16, 2018]



 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2404" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2404   Records of surveys after source implant and removal.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall maintain a record of the surveys required by §§ 35.404 and 35.604 for 3 years. Each record must include the date and results of the survey, the survey instrument used, and the name of the individual who made the survey. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2406" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2406   Records of brachytherapy source accountability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall maintain a record of brachytherapy source accountability required by § 35.406 for 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(b) For temporary implants, the record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The number and activity of sources removed from storage, the time and date they were removed from storage, the name of the individual who removed them from storage, and the location of use; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The number and activity of sources returned to storage, the time and date they were returned to storage, and the name of the individual who returned them to storage. 
</P>
<P>(c) For permanent implants, the record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The number and activity of sources removed from storage, the date they were removed from storage, and the name of the individual who removed them from storage; 
</P>
<P>(2) The number and activity of sources not implanted, the date they were returned to storage, and the name of the individual who returned them to storage; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The number and activity of sources permanently implanted in the patient or human research subject. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2432" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2432   Records of calibration measurements of brachytherapy sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall maintain a record of the calibrations of brachytherapy sources required by § 35.432 for 3 years after the last use of the source. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the calibration; 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for the source and the instruments used to calibrate the source; 
</P>
<P>(3) The source output or activity; 
</P>
<P>(4) The source positioning accuracy within the applicators; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The name of the individual, the source manufacturer, or the calibration laboratory that performed the calibration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 19326, Apr. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2433" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2433   Records of decay of strontium-90 sources for ophthalmic treatments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall maintain a record of the activity of a strontium-90 source required by § 35.433 for the life of the source. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date and initial activity of the source as determined under § 35.432; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For each decay calculation, the date and the source activity as determined under § 35.433. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2605" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2605   Records of installation, maintenance, adjustment, and repair of remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall retain a record of the installation, maintenance, adjustment, and repair of remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units as required by § 35.605 for 3 years. For each installation, maintenance, adjustment and repair, the record must include the date, description of the service, and name(s) of the individual(s) who performed the work. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2610" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2610   Records of safety procedures.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall retain a copy of the procedures required by §§ 35.610(a)(4) and (d)(2) until the licensee no longer possesses the remote afterloader, teletherapy unit, or gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2630" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2630   Records of dosimetry equipment used with remote afterloader units, teletherapy units, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain a record of the calibration, intercomparison, and comparisons of its dosimetry equipment done in accordance with § 35.630 for the duration of the license. 
</P>
<P>(b) For each calibration, intercomparison, or comparison, the record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date; 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's name, model numbers and serial numbers of the instruments that were calibrated, intercompared, or compared as required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 35.630; 
</P>
<P>(3) The correction factor that was determined from the calibration or comparison or the apparent correction factor that was determined from an intercomparison; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The names of the individuals who performed the calibration, intercomparison, or comparison. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2632" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2632   Records of teletherapy, remote afterloader, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery full calibrations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall maintain a record of the teletherapy unit, remote afterloader unit, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit full calibrations required by §§ 35.632, 35.633, and 35.635 for 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the calibration; 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number of the teletherapy, remote afterloader, and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit(s), the source(s), and the instruments used to calibrate the unit(s); 
</P>
<P>(3) The results and an assessment of the full calibrations; 
</P>
<P>(4) The results of the autoradiograph required for low dose-rate remote afterloader units; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The signature of the authorized medical physicist who performed the full calibration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2642" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2642   Records of periodic spot-checks for teletherapy units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain a record of each periodic spot-check for teletherapy units required by § 35.642 for 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the spot-check; 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number of the teletherapy unit, source and instrument used to measure the output of the teletherapy unit; 
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of timer linearity and constancy; 
</P>
<P>(4) The calculated on-off error; 
</P>
<P>(5) A determination of the coincidence of the radiation field and the field indicated by the light beam localizing device; 
</P>
<P>(6) The determined accuracy of each distance measuring and localization device; 
</P>
<P>(7) The difference between the anticipated output and the measured output; 
</P>
<P>(8) Notations indicating the operability of each entrance door electrical interlock, each electrical or mechanical stop, each source exposure indicator light, and the viewing and intercom system and doors; and 
</P>
<P>(9) The name of the individual who performed the periodic spot-check and the signature of the authorized medical physicist who reviewed the record of the spot-check. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a copy of the procedures required by § 35.642(b) until the licensee no longer possesses the teletherapy unit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2643" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2643   Records of periodic spot-checks for remote afterloader units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain a record of each spot-check for remote afterloader units required by § 35.643 for 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include, as applicable— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the spot-check; 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for the remote afterloader unit and source; 
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of timer accuracy; 
</P>
<P>(4) Notations indicating the operability of each entrance door electrical interlock, radiation monitors, source exposure indicator lights, viewing and intercom systems, and clock and decayed source activity in the unit's computer; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The name of the individual who performed the periodic spot-check and the signature of the authorized medical physicist who reviewed the record of the spot-check. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a copy of the procedures required by § 35.643(b) until the licensee no longer possesses the remote afterloader unit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2645" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2645   Records of periodic spot-checks for gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain a record of each spot-check for gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units required by § 35.645 for 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the spot-check; 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number for the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit and the instrument used to measure the output of the unit; 
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of timer linearity and accuracy; 
</P>
<P>(4) The calculated on-off error; 
</P>
<P>(5) A determination of trunnion centricity; 
</P>
<P>(6) The difference between the anticipated output and the measured output; 
</P>
<P>(7) An assessment of source output against computer calculations; 
</P>
<P>(8) Notations indicating the operability of radiation monitors, helmet microswitches, emergency timing circuits, emergency off buttons, electrical interlocks, source exposure indicator lights, viewing and intercom systems, timer termination, treatment table retraction mechanism, and stereotactic frames and localizing devices (trunnions); and 
</P>
<P>(9) The name of the individual who performed the periodic spot-check and the signature of the authorized medical physicist who reviewed the record of the spot-check. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee shall retain a copy of the procedures required by § 35.645(b) until the licensee no longer possesses the gamma stereotactic radiosurgery unit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2647" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2647   Records of additional technical requirements for mobile remote afterloader units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall retain a record of each check for mobile remote afterloader units required by § 35.647 for 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the check; 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's name, model number, and serial number of the remote afterloader unit; 
</P>
<P>(3) Notations accounting for all sources before the licensee departs from a facility; 
</P>
<P>(4) Notations indicating the operability of each entrance door electrical interlock, radiation monitors, source exposure indicator lights, viewing and intercom system, applicators, source transfer tubes, and transfer tube applicator interfaces, and source positioning accuracy; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The signature of the individual who performed the check. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2652" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2652   Records of surveys of therapeutic treatment units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall maintain a record of radiation surveys of treatment units made in accordance with § 35.652 for the duration of use of the unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) The record must include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the measurements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturer's name, model number and serial number of the treatment unit, source, and instrument used to measure radiation levels; 
</P>
<P>(3) Each dose rate measured around the source while the unit is in the off position and the average of all measurements; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The signature of the individual who performed the test. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2655" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.11.94.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2655   Records of full-inspection servicing for teletherapy and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall maintain a record of the full-inspection servicing for teletherapy and gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units required by § 35.655 for the duration of the use of the unit.


</P>
<P>(b) The record must contain— 
</P>
<P>(1) The inspector's radioactive materials license number; 
</P>
<P>(2) The date of inspection; 
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer's name and model number and serial number of both the treatment unit and source; 
</P>
<P>(4) A list of components inspected and serviced, and the type of service; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The signature of the inspector. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 83 FR 33111, July 16, 2018]












</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.3045" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.12.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.3045   Report and notification of a medical event.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall report any event as a medical event, except for an event that results from patient intervention, in which—
</P>
<P>(1) The administration of byproduct material or radiation from byproduct material, except permanent implant brachytherapy, results in—
</P>
<P>(i) A dose that differs from the prescribed dose or dose that would have resulted from the prescribed dosage by more than 0.05 Sv (5 rem) effective dose equivalent, 0.5 Sv (50 rem) to an organ or tissue, or 0.5 Sv (50 rem) shallow dose equivalent to the skin; and
</P>
<P>(A) The total dose delivered differs from the prescribed dose by 20 percent or more;
</P>
<P>(B) The total dosage delivered differs from the prescribed dosage by 20 percent or more or falls outside the prescribed dosage range; or
</P>
<P>(C) The fractionated dose delivered differs from the prescribed dose for a single fraction, by 50 percent or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) A dose that exceeds 0.05 Sv (5 rem) effective dose equivalent, 0.5 Sv (50 rem) to an organ or tissue, or 0.5 Sv (50 rem) shallow dose equivalent to the skin from any of the following—
</P>
<P>(A) An administration of a wrong radioactive drug containing byproduct material or the wrong radionuclide for a brachytherapy procedure;
</P>
<P>(B) An administration of a radioactive drug containing byproduct material by the wrong route of administration;
</P>
<P>(C) An administration of a dose or dosage to the wrong individual or human research subject;
</P>
<P>(D) An administration of a dose or dosage delivered by the wrong mode of treatment; or
</P>
<P>(E) A leaking sealed source.
</P>
<P>(iii) A dose to the skin or an organ or tissue other than the treatment site that exceeds by:
</P>
<P>(A) 0.5 Sv (50 rem) or more the expected dose to that site from the procedure if the administration had been given in accordance with the written directive prepared or revised before administration; and
</P>
<P>(B) 50 percent or more the expected dose to that site from the procedure if the administration had been given in accordance with the written directive prepared or revised before administration.
</P>
<P>(2) For permanent implant brachytherapy, the administration of byproduct material or radiation from byproduct material (excluding sources that were implanted in the correct site but migrated outside the treatment site) that results in—
</P>
<P>(i) The total source strength administered differing by 20 percent or more from the total source strength documented in the post-implantation portion of the written directive;
</P>
<P>(ii) The total source strength administered outside of the treatment site exceeding 20 percent of the total source strength documented in the post-implantation portion of the written directive; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An administration that includes any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The wrong radionuclide;
</P>
<P>(B) The wrong individual or human research subject;
</P>
<P>(C) Sealed source(s) implanted directly into a location discontiguous from the treatment site, as documented in the post-implantation portion of the written directive; or
</P>
<P>(D) A leaking sealed source resulting in a dose that exceeds 0.5 Sv (50 rem) to an organ or tissue.


</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall report any event resulting from intervention of a patient or human research subject in which the administration of byproduct material or radiation from byproduct material results or will result in unintended permanent functional damage to an organ or a physiological system, as determined by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall notify by telephone the NRC Operations Center 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> no later than the next calendar day after discovery of the medical event. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The commercial telephone number of the NRC Operations Center is (301) 816-5100.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) By an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, the licensee shall submit a written report to the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in § 30.6 of this chapter within 15 days after discovery of the medical event. 
</P>
<P>(1) The written report must include— 
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee's name; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the prescribing physician; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief description of the event; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Why the event occurred; 
</P>
<P>(v) The effect, if any, on the individual(s) who received the administration; 
</P>
<P>(vi) What actions, if any, have been taken or are planned to prevent recurrence; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Certification that the licensee notified the individual (or the individual's responsible relative or guardian), and if not, why not. 
</P>
<P>(2) The report may not contain the individual's name or any other information that could lead to identification of the individual. 
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall provide notification of the event to the referring physician and also notify the individual who is the subject of the medical event no later than 24 hours after its discovery, unless the referring physician personally informs the licensee either that he or she will inform the individual or that, based on medical judgment, telling the individual would be harmful. The licensee is not required to notify the individual without first consulting the referring physician. If the referring physician or the affected individual cannot be reached within 24 hours, the licensee shall notify the individual as soon as possible thereafter. The licensee may not delay any appropriate medical care for the individual, including any necessary remedial care as a result of the medical event, because of any delay in notification. To meet the requirements of this paragraph, the notification of the individual who is the subject of the medical event may be made instead to that individual's responsible relative or guardian. If a verbal notification is made, the licensee shall inform the individual, or appropriate responsible relative or guardian, that a written description of the event can be obtained from the licensee upon request. The licensee shall provide such a written description if requested. 
</P>
<P>(f) Aside from the notification requirement, nothing in this section affects any rights or duties of licensees and physicians in relation to each other, to individuals affected by the medical event, or to that individual's responsible relatives or guardians. 




</P>
<P>(g) A licensee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Annotate a copy of the report provided to the NRC with the: 
</P>
<P>(i) Name of the individual who is the subject of the event; and 


</P>
<P>(ii) Identification number or if no other identification number is available, the social security number of the individual who is the subject of the event; and


</P>
<P>(2) Provide a copy of the annotated report to the referring physician, if other than the licensee, no later than 15 days after the discovery of the event. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003; 76 FR 72085, Nov. 22, 2011; 83 FR 33111, July 16, 2018; 85 FR 33530, June 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.3047" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.12.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.3047   Report and notification of a dose to an embryo/fetus or a nursing child.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee shall report any dose to an embryo/fetus that is greater than 50 mSv (5 rem) dose equivalent that is a result of an administration of byproduct material or radiation from byproduct material to a pregnant individual unless the dose to the embryo/fetus was specifically approved, in advance, by the authorized user. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall report any dose to a nursing child that is a result of an administration of byproduct material to a breast-feeding individual that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Is greater than 50 mSv (5 rem) total effective dose equivalent; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Has resulted in unintended permanent functional damage to an organ or a physiological system of the child, as determined by a physician. 
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall notify by telephone the NRC Operations Center no later than the next calendar day after discovery of a dose to the embryo/fetus or nursing child that requires a report in paragraphs (a) or (b) in this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) By an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, the licensee shall submit a written report to the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in § 30.6 of this chapter within 15 days after discovery of a dose to the embryo/fetus or nursing child that requires a report in paragraphs (a) or (b) in this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The written report must include— 
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee's name; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the prescribing physician; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief description of the event; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Why the event occurred; 
</P>
<P>(v) The effect, if any, on the embryo/fetus or the nursing child; 
</P>
<P>(vi) What actions, if any, have been taken or are planned to prevent recurrence; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Certification that the licensee notified the pregnant individual or mother (or the mother's or child's responsible relative or guardian), and if not, why not. 
</P>
<P>(2) The report must not contain the individual's or child's name or any other information that could lead to identification of the individual or child. 
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall provide notification of the event to the referring physician and also notify the pregnant individual or mother, both hereafter referred to as the mother, no later than 24 hours after discovery of an event that would require reporting under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, unless the referring physician personally informs the licensee either that he or she will inform the mother or that, based on medical judgment, telling the mother would be harmful. The licensee is not required to notify the mother without first consulting with the referring physician. If the referring physician or mother cannot be reached within 24 hours, the licensee shall make the appropriate notifications as soon as possible thereafter. The licensee may not delay any appropriate medical care for the embryo/fetus or for the nursing child, including any necessary remedial care as a result of the event, because of any delay in notification. To meet the requirements of this paragraph, the notification may be made to the mother's or child's responsible relative or guardian instead of the mother. If a verbal notification is made, the licensee shall inform the mother, or the mother's or child's responsible relative or guardian, that a written description of the event can be obtained from the licensee upon request. The licensee shall provide such a written description if requested. 




</P>
<P>(f) A licensee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Annotate a copy of the report provided to the NRC with the: 
</P>
<P>(i) Name of the pregnant individual or the nursing child who is the subject of the event; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification number or if no other identification number is available, the social security number of the individual who is the subject of the event; and




</P>
<P>(2) Provide a copy of the annotated report to the referring physician, if other than the licensee, no later than 15 days after the discovery of the event. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 20370, Apr. 24, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 58805, Oct. 10, 2003; 85 FR 33530, June 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.3067" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.12.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.3067   Report of a leaking source.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee shall file a report within 5 days if a leak test required by § 35.67 reveals the presence of 185 Bq (0.005 µCi) or more of removable contamination. The report must be filed with the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in § 30.6 of this chapter, by an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, with a copy to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. The written report must include the model number and serial number, if assigned, of the leaking source; the radionuclide and its estimated activity; the results of the test; the date of the test; and the action taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5720, Jan. 31, 2008]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.3204" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.12.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.3204   Report and notification for an eluate exceeding permissible molybdenum-99, strontium-82, and strontium-85 concentrations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall notify by telephone the NRC Operations Center and the distributor of the generator within 7 calendar days after discovery that an eluate exceeded the permissible concentration listed in § 35.204(a) at the time of generator elution. The telephone report to the NRC must include the manufacturer, model number, and serial number (or lot number) of the generator; the results of the measurement; the date of the measurement; whether dosages were administered to patients or human research subjects, when the distributor was notified, and the action taken.
</P>
<P>(b) By an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, the licensee shall submit a written report to the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in § 30.6 of this chapter within 30 calendar days after discovery of an eluate exceeding the permissible concentration at the time of generator elution. The written report must include the action taken by the licensee; the patient dose assessment; the methodology used to make this dose assessment if the eluate was administered to patients or human research subjects; and the probable cause and an assessment of failure in the licensee's equipment, procedures or training that contributed to the excessive readings if an error occurred in the licensee's breakthrough determination; and the information in the telephone report as required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 33111, July 16, 2018]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.4001" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.13.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.4001   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued under those Acts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of— 
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under Section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.4002" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.25.13.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.4002   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of Section 223, all the regulations in 10 CFR part 35 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in 10 CFR part 35 that are not issued under subsections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of Section 223 are as follows: §§ 35.1, 35.2, 35.7, 35.8, 35.12, 35.15, 35.18, 35.19, 35.65, 35.100, 35.200, 35.300, 35.4001, and 35.4002.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="36" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 36—LICENSES AND RADIATION SAFETY REQUIREMENTS FOR IRRADIATORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 81, 161, 181, 182, 183, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2111, 2112, 2201, 2231, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.1.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part contains requirements for the issuance of a license authorizing the use of sealed sources containing radioactive materials in irradiators used to irradiate objects or materials using gamma radiation. This part also contains radiation safety requirements for operating irradiators. The requirements of this part are in addition to other requirements of this chapter. In particular, the provisions of parts 19, 20, 21, 30, 37, 71, 170, and 171 of this chapter apply to applications and licenses subject to this part. Nothing in this part relieves the licensee from complying with other applicable Federal, State and local regulations governing the siting, zoning, land use, and building code requirements for industrial facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part apply to panoramic irradiators that have either dry or wet storage of the radioactive sealed sources and to underwater irradiators in which both the source and the product being irradiated are under water. Irradiators whose dose rates exceed 5 grays (500 rads) per hour at 1 meter from the radioactive sealed sources in air or in water, as applicable for the irradiator type, are covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The regulations in this part do not apply to self-contained dry-source-storage irradiators (those in which both the source and the area subject to irradiation are contained within a device and are not accessible by personnel), medical radiology or teletherapy, radiography (the irradiation of materials for nondestructive testing purposes), gauging, or open-field (agricultural) irradiations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.1.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Annually</I> means either (1) at intervals not to exceed 1 year or (2) once per year, at about the same time each year (plus or minus 1 month).
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means taking any action defined as “construction” or any other activity at the site of a facility subject to the regulations in this part that has a reasonable nexus to:
</P>
<P>(1) Radiological health and safety; or
</P>
<P>(2) Common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the installation of foundations, or in-place assembly, erection, fabrication, or testing for any structure, system, or component of a facility or activity subject to the regulations in this part that are related to radiological safety or security. The term “construction” does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Changes for temporary use of the land for public recreational purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Site exploration, including necessary borings to determine foundation conditions or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site, the environmental impacts of construction or operation, or the protection of environmental values;
</P>
<P>(3) Preparation of the site for construction of the facility, including clearing of the site, grading, installation of drainage, erosion and other environmental mitigation measures, and construction of temporary roads and borrow areas;
</P>
<P>(4) Erection of fences and other access control measures that are not related to the safe use of, or security of, radiological materials subject to this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Excavation;
</P>
<P>(6) Erection of support buildings (e.g., construction equipment storage sheds, warehouse and shop facilities, utilities, concrete mixing plants, docking and unloading facilities, and office buildings) for use in connection with the construction of the facility;
</P>
<P>(7) Building of service facilities (e.g., paved roads, parking lots, railroad spurs, exterior utility and lighting systems, potable water systems, sanitary sewerage treatment facilities, and transmission lines);
</P>
<P>(8) Procurement or fabrication of components or portions of the proposed facility occurring at other than the final, in-place location at the facility; or
</P>
<P>(9) Taking any other action that has no reasonable nexus to:
</P>
<P>(i) Radiological health and safety, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Doubly encapsulated sealed source</I> means a sealed source in which the radioactive material is sealed within a capsule and that capsule is sealed within another capsule.
</P>
<P><I>Irradiator</I> means a facility that uses radioactive sealed sources for the irradiation of objects or materials and in which radiation dose rates exceeding 5 grays (500 rads) per hour exist at 1 meter from the sealed radioactive sources in air or water, as applicable for the irradiator type, but does not include irradiators in which both the sealed source and the area subject to irradiation are contained within a device and are not accessible to personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Irradiator operator</I> means an individual who has successfully completed the training and testing described in § 36.51 and is authorized by the terms of the license to operate the irradiator without a supervisor present.
</P>
<P><I>Panoramic dry-source-storage irradiator</I> means an irradiator in which the irradiations occur in air in areas potentially accessible to personnel and in which the sources are stored in shields made of solid materials. The term includes beam-type dry-source-storage irradiators in which only a narrow beam of radiation is produced for performing irradiations.
</P>
<P><I>Panoramic irradiator</I> means an irradiator in which the irradiations are done in air in areas potentially accessible to personnel. The term includes beam-type irradiators.
</P>
<P><I>Panoramic wet-source-storage irradiator</I> means an irradiator in which the irradiations occur in air in areas potentially accessible to personnel and in which the sources are stored under water in a storage pool.
</P>
<P><I>Pool irradiator</I> means any irradiator at which the sources are stored or used in a pool of water including panoramic wet-source-storage irradiators and underwater irradiators.
</P>
<P><I>Product conveyor system</I> means a system for moving the product to be irradiated to, from, and within the area where irradiation takes place.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation room</I> means a shielded room in which irradiations take place. Underwater irradiators do not have radiation rooms.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation safety officer</I> means an individual with responsibility for the overall radiation safety program at the facility.
</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any byproduct material that is used as a source of radiation and is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the byproduct material.
</P>
<P><I>Seismic area</I> means any area where the probability of a horizontal acceleration in rock of more than 0.3 times the acceleration of gravity in 250 years is greater than 10 percent, as designated by the U.S. Geological Survey.
</P>
<P><I>Underwater irradiator</I> means an irradiator in which the sources always remain shielded under water and humans do not have access to the sealed sources or the space subject to irradiation without entering the pool.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 76 FR 56963, Sept. 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.1.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission, other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel, will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 90 FR 55629, Dec. 3, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.1.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0158.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 36.11, 36.13, 36.17, 36.19, 36.21, 36.53, 36.69, 36.81, and 36.83.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 36.11, NRC Form 313 is approved under control number 3150-0120.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 62 FR 52187, Oct. 6, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Licensing Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.2.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.11   Application for a specific license.</HEAD>
<P>A person, as defined in § 30.4 of this chapter, may file an application for a specific license authorizing the use of sealed sources in an irradiator on Form NRC 313, “Application for Material License.” Each application for a license, other than a license exempted from part 170 of this chapter, must be accompanied by the fee prescribed in § 170.31 of this chapter. The application and one copy must be sent to the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.2.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.13   Specific licenses for irradiators.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will approve an application for a specific license for the use of licensed material in an irradiator if the applicant meets the requirements contained in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant shall satisfy the general requirements specified in §§ 30.33(a)(1)-(4) and 30.33(b) of this chapter and the requirements contained in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The application must describe the training provided to irradiator operators including—
</P>
<P>(1) Classroom training;
</P>
<P>(2) On-the-job or simulator training;
</P>
<P>(3) Safety reviews;
</P>
<P>(4) Means employed by the applicant to test each operator's understanding of the Commission's regulations and licensing requirements and the irradiator operating and emergency procedures; and
</P>
<P>(5) Minimum training and experience of personnel who may provide training.
</P>
<P>(c) The application must include an outline of the written operating and emergency procedures listed in § 36.53 that describes the radiation safety aspects of the procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) The application must describe the organizational structure for managing the irradiator, specifically the radiation safety responsibilities and authorities of the radiation safety officer and those management personnel who have important radiation safety responsibilities or authorities. In particular, the application must specify who, within the management structure, has the authority to stop unsafe operations. The application must also describe the training and experience required for the position of radiation safety officer.
</P>
<P>(e) The application must include a description of the access control systems required by § 36.23, the radiation monitors required by § 36.29, the method of detecting leaking sources required by § 36.59 including the sensitivity of the method, and a diagram of the facility that shows the locations of all required interlocks and radiation monitors.
</P>
<P>(f) If the applicant intends to perform leak testing of dry-source-storage sealed sources, the applicant shall establish procedures for leak testing and submit a description of these procedures to the Commission. The description must include the—
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments to be used;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods of performing the analysis; and
</P>
<P>(3) Pertinent experience of the individual who analyzes the samples.
</P>
<P>(g) If licensee personnel are to load or unload sources, the applicant shall describe the qualifications and training of the personnel and the procedures to be used. If the applicant intends to contract for source loading or unloading at its facility, the loading or unloading must be done by an organization specifically authorized by the Commission or an Agreement State to load or unload irradiator sources.
</P>
<P>(h) The applicant shall describe the inspection and maintenance checks, including the frequency of the checks required by § 36.61.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 76 FR 56963, Sept. 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.2.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.15   Commencement of construction.</HEAD>
<P>Commencement of construction of a new irradiator may not occur prior to the submission to the NRC of both an application for a license for the irradiator and the fee required by § 170.31 of this chapter. Any activities undertaken prior to the issuance of a license are entirely at the risk of the applicant and have no bearing on the issuance of a license with respect to the requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (Act), as amended, and rules, regulations, and orders issued under the Act. Commencement of construction as defined in § 36.2 may include non-construction activities if the activity has a reasonable nexus to radiological safety and security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 56963, Sept. 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.2.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.17   Applications for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant any exemptions from the requirements in this part that it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest. This paragraph (a) shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this paragraph (a) and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this paragraph (a) accordingly.
</P>
<P>(b) Any application for a license or for amendment of a license authorizing use of a teletherapy-type unit for irradiation of materials or objects may include proposed alternatives for the requirements of this part. The Commission will approve the proposed alternatives if the applicant provides adequate rationale for the proposed alternatives and demonstrates that they are likely to provide an adequate level of safety for workers and the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 90 FR 55629, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.19" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.2.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.19   Request for written statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the filing of the original application, the Commission may request further information necessary to enable the Commission to determine whether the application should be granted or denied.
</P>
<P>(b) Each license is issued with the condition that the licensee will, at any time before expiration of the license, upon the Commission's request, submit written statements to enable the Commission to determine whether the license should be modified, suspended, or revoked.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Design and Performance Requirements for Irradiators</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.21   Performance criteria for sealed sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> Sealed sources installed after July 1, 1993:
</P>
<P>(1) Must have a certificate of registration issued under 10 CFR 32.210;
</P>
<P>(2) Must be doubly encapsulated;
</P>
<P>(3) Must use radioactive material that is as nondispersible as practical and that is as insoluble as practical if the source is used in a wet-source-storage or wet-source-change irradiator;
</P>
<P>(4) Must be encapsulated in a material resistant to general corrosion and to localized corrosion, such as 316L stainless steel or other material with equivalent resistance if the sources are for use in irradiator pools; and
</P>
<P>(5) In prototype testing of the sealed source, must have been leak tested and found leak-free after each of the tests described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Temperature.</I> The test source must be held at −40 °C for 20 minutes, 600 °C for 1 hour, and then be subjected to a thermal shock test with a temperature drop from 600 °C to 20 °C within 15 seconds.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pressure.</I> The test source must be twice subjected for at least 5 minutes to an external pressure (absolute) of 2 million newtons per square meter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Impact.</I> A 2-kilogram steel weight, 2.5 centimeters in diameter, must be dropped from a height of 1 meter onto the test source.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Vibration.</I> The test source must be subjected 3 times for 10 minutes each to vibrations sweeping from 25 hertz to 500 hertz with a peak amplitude of 5 times the acceleration of gravity. In addition, each test source must be vibrated for 30 minutes at each resonant frequency found.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Puncture.</I> A 50-gram weight and pin, 0.3-centimeter pin diameter, must be dropped from a height of 1 meter onto the test source.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Bend.</I> If the length of the source is more than 15 times larger than the minimum cross-sectional dimension, the test source must be subjected to a force of 2000 newtons at its center equidistant from two support cylinders, the distance between which is 10 times the minimum cross-sectional dimension of the source.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.23   Access control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each entrance to a radiation room at a panoramic irradiator must have a door or other physical barrier to prevent inadvertent entry of personnel if the sources are not in the shielded position. Product conveyor systems may serve as barriers as long as they reliably and consistently function as a barrier. It must not be possible to move the sources out of their shielded position if the door or barrier is open. Opening the door or barrier while the sources are exposed must cause the sources to return promptly to their shielded position. The personnel entrance door or barrier must have a lock that is operated by the same key used to move the sources. The doors and barriers must not prevent any individual in the radiation room from leaving.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, each entrance to a radiation room at a panoramic irradiator must have an independent backup access control to detect personnel entry while the sources are exposed. Detection of entry while the sources are exposed must cause the sources to return to their fully shielded position and must also activate a visible and audible alarm to make the individual entering the room aware of the hazard. The alarm must also alert at least one other individual who is onsite of the entry. That individual shall be trained on how to respond to the alarm and prepared to promptly render or summon assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) A radiation monitor must be provided to detect the presence of high radiation levels in the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator before personnel entry. The monitor must be integrated with personnel access door locks to prevent room access when radiation levels are high. Attempted personnel entry while the monitor measures high radiation levels, must activate the alarm described in paragraph (b) of this section. The monitor may be located in the entrance (normally referred to as the maze) but not in the direct radiation beam.
</P>
<P>(d) Before the sources move from their shielded position in a panoramic irradiator, the source control must automatically activate conspicuous visible and audible alarms to alert people in the radiation room that the sources will be moved from their shielded position. The alarms must give individuals enough time to leave the room before the sources leave the shielded position.
</P>
<P>(e) Each radiation room at a panoramic irradiator must have a clearly visible and readily accessible control that would allow an individual in the room to make the sources return to their fully shielded position.
</P>
<P>(f) Each radiation room of a panoramic irradiator must contain a control that prevents the sources from moving from the shielded position unless the control has been activated and the door or barrier to the radiation room has been closed within a preset time after activation of the control.
</P>
<P>(g) Each entrance to the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator and each entrance to the area within the personnel access barrier of an underwater irradiator must be posted as required by 10 CFR 20.1902. Radiation postings for panoramic irradiators must comply with the posting requirements of 10 CFR 20.1902, except that signs may be removed, covered, or otherwise made inoperative when the sources are fully shielded.
</P>
<P>(h) If the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator has roof plugs or other movable shielding, it must not be possible to operate the irradiator unless the shielding is in its proper location. This requirement may be met by interlocks that prevent operation if shielding is not placed properly or by an operating procedure requiring inspection of shielding before operating.
</P>
<P>(i) Underwater irradiators must have a personnel access barrier around the pool which must be locked to prevent access when the irradiator is not attended. Only operators and facility management may have access to keys to the personnel access barrier. There must be an intrusion alarm to detect unauthorized entry when the personnel access barrier is locked. Activation of the intrusion alarm must alert an individual (not necessarily onsite) who is prepared to respond or summon assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 39483, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.25   Shielding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The radiation dose rate in areas that are normally occupied during operation of a panoramic irradiator may not exceed 0.02 millisievert (2 millirems) per hour at any location 30 centimeters or more from the wall of the room when the sources are exposed. The dose rate must be averaged over an area not to exceed 100 square centimeters having no linear dimension greater than 20 cm. Areas where the radiation dose rate exceeds 0.02 millisievert (2 millirems) per hour must be locked, roped off, or posted.
</P>
<P>(b) The radiation dose at 30 centimeters over the edge of the pool of a pool irradiator may not exceed 0.02 millisievert (2 millirems) per hour when the sources are in the fully shielded position.
</P>
<P>(c) The radiation dose rate at 1 meter from the shield of a dry-source-storage panoramic irradiator when the source is shielded may not exceed 0.02 millisievert (2 millirems) per hour and at 5 centimeters from the shield may not exceed 0.2 millisievert (20 millirems) per hour.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.27   Fire protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The radiation room at a panoramic irradiator must have heat and smoke detectors. The detectors must activate an audible alarm. The alarm must be capable of alerting a person who is prepared to summon assistance promptly. The sources must automatically become fully shielded if a fire is detected.
</P>
<P>(b) The radiation room at a panoramic irradiator must be equipped with a fire extinguishing system capable of extinguishing a fire without the entry of personnel into the room. The system for the radiation room must have a shut-off valve to control flooding into unrestricted areas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.29   Radiation monitors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Irradiators with automatic product conveyor systems must have a radiation monitor with an audible alarm located to detect loose radioactive sources that are carried toward the product exit. If the monitor detects a source, an alarm must sound and product conveyors must stop automatically. The alarm must be capable of alerting an individual in the facility who is prepared to summon assistance. Underwater irradiators in which the product moves within an enclosed stationary tube are exempt from the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) Underwater irradiators that are not in a shielded radiation room must have a radiation monitor over the pool to detect abnormal radiation levels. The monitor must have an audible alarm and a visible indicator at entrances to the personnel access barrier around the pool. The audible alarm may have a manual shut-off. The alarm must be capable of alerting an individual who is prepared to respond promptly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.31   Control of source movement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The mechanism that moves the sources of a panoramic irradiator must require a key to actuate. Actuation of the mechanism must cause an audible signal to indicate that the sources are leaving the shielded position. Only one key may be in use at any time, and only operators or facility management may possess it. The key must be attached to a portable radiation survey meter by a chain or cable. The lock for source control must be designed so that the key may not be removed if the sources are in an unshielded position. The door to the radiation room must require the same key.
</P>
<P>(b) The console of a panoramic irradiator must have a source position indicator that indicates when the sources are in the fully shielded position, when they are in transit, and when the sources are exposed.
</P>
<P>(c) The control console of a panoramic irradiator must have a control that promptly returns the sources to the shielded position.
</P>
<P>(d) Each control for a panoramic irradiator must be clearly marked as to its function.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.33   Irradiator pools.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For licenses initially issued after July 1, 1993, irradiator pools must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a water-tight stainless steel liner or a liner metallurgically compatible with other components in the pool; or
</P>
<P>(2) Be constructed so that there is a low likelihood of substantial leakage and have a surface designed to facilitate decontamination. In either case, the licensee shall have a method to safely store the sources during repairs of the pool.
</P>
<P>(b) For licenses initially issued after July 1, 1993, irradiator pools must have no outlets more than 0.5 meter below the normal low water level that could allow water to drain out of the pool. Pipes that have intakes more than 0.5 meter below the normal low water level and that could act as siphons must have siphon breakers to prevent the siphoning of pool water.
</P>
<P>(c) A means must be provided to replenish water losses from the pool.
</P>
<P>(d) A visible indicator must be provided in a clearly visible location to indicate if the pool water level is below the normal low water level or above the normal high water level.
</P>
<P>(e) Irradiator pools must be equipped with a purification system designed to be capable of maintaining the water during normal operation at a conductivity of 20 microsiemens per centimeter or less and with a clarity so that the sources can be seen clearly.
</P>
<P>(f) A physical barrier, such as a railing or cover, must be used around or over irradiator pools during normal operation to prevent personnel from accidentally falling into the pool. The barrier may be removed during maintenance, inspection, and service operations.
</P>
<P>(g) If long-handled tools or poles are used in irradiator pools, the radiation dose rate on the handling areas of the tools may not exceed 0.02 millisievert (2 millirems) per hour.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.35   Source rack protection.</HEAD>
<P>If the product to be irradiated moves on a product conveyor system, the source rack and the mechanism that moves the rack must be protected by a barrier or guides to prevent products and product carriers from hitting or touching the rack or mechanism.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.37   Power failures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If electrical power at a panoramic irradiator is lost for longer than 10 seconds, the sources must automatically return to the shielded position.
</P>
<P>(b) The lock on the door of the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator may not be deactivated by a power failure.
</P>
<P>(c) During a power failure, the area of any irradiator where sources are located may be entered only when using an operable and calibrated radiation survey meter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.39   Design requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Irradiators whose construction begins after July 1, 1993, must meet the design requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Shielding.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall design shielding walls to meet generally accepted building code requirements for reinforced concrete and design the walls, wall penetrations, and entranceways to meet the radiation shielding requirements of § 36.25. If the irradiator will use more than 2 × 10
<SU>17</SU> becquerels (5 million curies) of activity, the licensee shall evaluate the effects of heating of the shielding walls by the irradiator sources.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foundations.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall design the foundation, with consideration given to soil characteristics, to ensure it is adequate to support the weight of the facility shield walls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pool integrity.</I> For pool irradiators, the licensee shall design the pool to assure that it is leak resistant, that it is strong enough to bear the weight of the pool water and shipping casks, that a dropped cask would not fall on sealed sources, that all outlets or pipes meet the requirements of § 36.33(b), and that metal components are metallurgically compatible with other components in the pool.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Water handling system.</I> For pool irradiators, the licensee shall verify that the design of the water purification system is adequate to meet the requirements of § 36.33(e). The system must be designed so that water leaking from the system does not drain to unrestricted areas without being monitored.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Radiation monitors.</I> For all irradiators, the licensee shall evaluate the location and sensitivity of the monitor to detect sources carried by the product conveyor system as required by § 36.29(a). The licensee shall verify that the product conveyor is designed to stop before a source on the product conveyor would cause a radiation overexposure to any person. For pool irradiators, if the licensee uses radiation monitors to detect contamination under § 36.59(b), the licensee shall verify that the design of radiation monitoring systems to detect pool contamination includes sensitive detectors located close to where contamination is likely to concentrate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Source rack.</I> For pool irradiators, the licensee shall verify that there are no crevices on the source or between the source and source holder that would promote corrosion on a critical area of the source. For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall determine that source rack drops due to loss of power will not damage the source rack and that source rack drops due to failure of cables (or alternate means of support) will not cause loss of integrity of sealed sources. For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall review the design of the mechanism that moves the sources to assure that the likelihood of a stuck source is low and that, if the rack sticks, a means exists to free it with minimal risk to personnel.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Access control.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall verify from the design and logic diagram that the access control system will meet the requirements of § 36.23.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fire protection.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall verify that the number, location, and spacing of the smoke and heat detectors are appropriate to detect fires and that the detectors are protected from mechanical and radiation damage. The licensee shall verify that the design of the fire extinguishing system provides the necessary discharge patterns, densities, and flow characteristics for complete coverage of the radiation room and that the system is protected from mechanical and radiation damage.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Source return.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall verify that the source rack will automatically return to the fully shielded position if offsite power is lost for more than 10 seconds.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Seismic.</I> For panoramic irradiators to be built in seismic areas, the licensee shall design the reinforced concrete radiation shields to retain their integrity in the event of an earthquake by designing to the seismic requirements of an appropriate source such as American Concrete Institute Standard ACI 318-89, “Building Code Requirements for Reinforced Concrete,” Chapter 21, “Special Provisions for Seismic Design,” or local building codes, if current.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Wiring.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall verify that electrical wiring and electrical equipment in the radiation room are selected to minimize failures due to prolonged exposure to radiation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.3.94.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.41   Construction monitoring and acceptance testing.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this section must be met for irradiators whose construction begins after July 1, 1993. The requirements must be met prior to loading sources.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Shielding.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall monitor the construction of the shielding to verify that its construction meets design specifications and generally accepted building code requirements for reinforced concrete.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foundations.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall monitor the construction of the foundations to verify that their construction meets design specifications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pool integrity.</I> For pool irradiators, the licensee shall verify that the pool meets design specifications and shall test the integrity of the pool. The licensee shall verify that outlets and pipes meet the requirements of § 36.33(b).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Water handling system.</I> For pool irradiators, the licensee shall verify that the water purification system, the conductivity meter, and the water level indicators operate properly.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Radiation monitors.</I> For all irradiators, the licensee shall verify the proper operation of the monitor to detect sources carried on the product conveyor system and the related alarms and interlocks required by § 36.29(a). For pool irradiators, the licensee shall verify the proper operation of the radiation monitors and the related alarm if used to meet § 36.59(b). For underwater irradiators, the licensee shall verify the proper operation of the over-the-pool monitor, alarms, and interlocks required by § 36.29(b).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Source rack.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall test the movement of the source racks for proper operation prior to source loading; testing must include source rack lowering due to simulated loss of power. For all irradiators with product conveyor systems, the licensee shall observe and test the operation of the conveyor system to assure that the requirements in § 36.35 are met for protection of the source rack and the mechanism that moves the rack; testing must include tests of any limit switches and interlocks used to protect the source rack and mechanism that moves the rack from moving product carriers.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Access control.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall test the completed access control system to assure that it functions as designed and that all alarms, controls, and interlocks work properly.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fire protection.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall test the ability of the heat and smoke detectors to detect a fire, to activate alarms, and to cause the source rack to automatically become fully shielded. The licensee shall test the operability of the fire extinguishing system.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Source return.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall demonstrate that the source racks can be returned to their fully shielded positions without offsite power.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Computer systems.</I> For panoramic irradiators that use a computer system to control the access control system, the licensee shall verify that the access control system will operate properly if offsite power is lost and shall verify that the computer has security features that prevent an irradiator operator from commanding the computer to override the access control system when it is required to be operable.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Wiring.</I> For panoramic irradiators, the licensee shall verify that the electrical wiring and electrical equipment that were installed meet the design specifications.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Operation of Irradiators</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.51   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before an individual is permitted to operate an irradiator without a supervisor present, the individual must be instructed in:
</P>
<P>(1) The fundamentals of radiation protection applied to irradiators (including the differences between external radiation and radioactive contamination, units of radiation dose, NRC dose limits, why large radiation doses must be avoided, how shielding and access controls prevent large doses, how an irradiator is designed to prevent contamination, the proper use of survey meters and personnel dosimeters, other radiation safety features of an irradiator, and the basic function of the irradiator);
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of parts 19 and 36 of NRC regulations that are relevant to the irradiator;
</P>
<P>(3) The operation of the irradiator;
</P>
<P>(4) Those operating and emergency procedures listed in § 36.53 that the individual is responsible for performing; and
</P>
<P>(5) Case histories of accidents or problems involving irradiators.
</P>
<P>(b) Before an individual is permitted to operate an irradiator without a supervisor present, the individual shall pass a written test on the instruction received consisting primarily of questions based on the licensee's operating and emergency procedures that the individual is responsible for performing and other operations necessary to safely operate the irradiator without supervision.
</P>
<P>(c) Before an individual is permitted to operate an irradiator without a supervisor present, the individual must have received on-the-job training or simulator training in the use of the irradiator as described in the license application. The individual shall also demonstrate the ability to perform those portions of the operating and emergency procedures that he or she is to perform.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall conduct safety reviews for irradiator operators at least annually. The licensee shall give each operator a brief written test on the information. Each safety review must include, to the extent appropriate, each of the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Changes in operating and emergency procedures since the last review, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) Changes in regulations and license conditions since the last review, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) Reports on recent accidents, mistakes, or problems that have occurred at irradiators, if any;
</P>
<P>(4) Relevant results of inspections of operator safety performance;
</P>
<P>(5) Relevant results of the facility's inspection and maintenance checks; and
</P>
<P>(6) A drill to practice an emergency or abnormal event procedure.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall evaluate the safety performance of each irradiator operator at least annually to ensure that regulations, license conditions, and operating and emergency procedures are followed. The licensee shall discuss the results of the evaluation with the operator and shall instruct the operator on how to correct any mistakes or deficiencies observed.
</P>
<P>(f) Individuals who will be permitted unescorted access to the radiation room of the irradiator or the area around the pool of an underwater irradiator, but who have not received the training required for operators and the radiation safety officer, shall be instructed and tested in any precautions they should take to avoid radiation exposure, any procedures or parts of procedures listed in § 36.53 that they are expected to perform or comply with, and their proper response to alarms required in this part. Tests may be oral.
</P>
<P>(g) Individuals who must be prepared to respond to alarms required by §§ 36.23(b), 36.23(i), 36.27(a), 36.29(a), 36.29(b), and 36.59(b) shall be trained and tested on how to respond. Each individual shall be retested at least once a year. Tests may be oral.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.53   Operating and emergency procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall have and follow written operating procedures for—
</P>
<P>(1) Operation of the irradiator, including entering and leaving the radiation room;
</P>
<P>(2) Use of personnel dosimeters;
</P>
<P>(3) Surveying the shielding of panoramic irradiators;
</P>
<P>(4) Monitoring pool water for contamination while the water is in the pool and before release of pool water to unrestricted areas;
</P>
<P>(5) Leak testing of sources;
</P>
<P>(6) Inspection and maintenance checks required by § 36.61;
</P>
<P>(7) Loading, unloading, and repositioning sources, if the operations will be performed by the licensee; and
</P>
<P>(8) Inspection of movable shielding required by § 36.23(h), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall have and follow emergency or abnormal event procedures, appropriate for the irradiator type, for—
</P>
<P>(1) Sources stuck in the unshielded position;
</P>
<P>(2) Personnel overexposures;
</P>
<P>(3) A radiation alarm from the product exit portal monitor or pool monitor;
</P>
<P>(4) Detection of leaking sources, pool contamination, or alarm caused by contamination of pool water;
</P>
<P>(5) A low or high water level indicator, an abnormal water loss, or leakage from the source storage pool;
</P>
<P>(6) A prolonged loss of electrical power;
</P>
<P>(7) A fire alarm or explosion in the radiation room;
</P>
<P>(8) An alarm indicating unauthorized entry into the radiation room, area around pool, or another alarmed area;
</P>
<P>(9) Natural phenomena, including an earthquake, a tornado, flooding, or other phenomena as appropriate for the geographical location of the facility; and
</P>
<P>(10) The jamming of automatic conveyor systems.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee may revise operating and emergency procedures without Commission approval only if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The revisions do not reduce the safety of the facility,
</P>
<P>(2) The revisions are consistent with the outline or summary of procedures submitted with the license application,
</P>
<P>(3) The revisions have been reviewed and approved by the radiation safety officer, and
</P>
<P>(4) The users or operators are instructed and tested on the revised procedures before they are put into use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.55   Personnel monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Irradiator operators shall wear a personnel dosimeter while operating a panoramic irradiator or while in the area around the pool of an underwater irradiator. The personnel dosimeter must be capable of detecting high energy photons in the normal and accident dose ranges. Each personnel dosimeter must be assigned to and worn by only one individual. Film badges must be replaced at least monthly and all other personnel dosimeters that require replacement must be replaced at least quarterly. All personnel dosimeters must be evaluated at least quarterly or promptly after replacement, whichever is more frequent.




</P>
<P>(b) Other individuals who enter the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator shall wear a dosimeter, which may be a pocket dosimeter. For groups of visitors, only two people who enter the radiation room are required to wear dosimeters. If pocket dosimeters are used to meet the requirements of this paragraph, a check of their response to radiation must be done at least annually. Acceptable dosimeters must read within plus or minus 30 percent of the true radiation dose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 63752, Oct. 24, 2000; 85 FR 15351, Mar. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.57" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.57   Radiation surveys.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A radiation survey of the area outside the shielding of the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator must be conducted with the sources in the exposed position before the facility starts to operate. A radiation survey of the area above the pool of pool irradiators must be conducted after the sources are loaded but before the facility starts to operate. Additional radiation surveys of the shielding must be performed at intervals not to exceed 3 years and before resuming operation after addition of new sources or any modification to the radiation room shielding or structure that might increase dose rates.
</P>
<P>(b) If the radiation levels specified in § 36.25 are exceeded, the facility must be modified to comply with the requirements in § 36.25.
</P>
<P>(c) Portable radiation survey meters must be calibrated at least annually to an accuracy of ±20 percent for the gamma energy of the sources in use. The calibration must be done at two points on each scale or, for digital instruments, at one point per decade over the range that will be used. Portable radiation survey meters must be of a type that does not saturate and read zero at high radiation dose rates.
</P>
<P>(d) Water from the irradiator pool, other potentially contaminated liquids, and sediments from pool vacuuming must be monitored for radioactive contamination before release to unrestricted areas. Radioactive concentrations must not exceed those specified in 10 CFR part 20, table 2, column 2 or table 3 of appendix B, “Annual Limits on Intake (ALIs) and Derived Air Concentrations (DACs) of Radionuclides for Occupational Exposure; Effluent Concentrations; Concentrations for Release to Sewerage.”
</P>
<P>(e) Before releasing resins for unrestricted use, they must be monitored before release in an area with a background level less than 0.5 microsievert (0.05 millirem) per hour. The resins may be released only if the survey does not detect radiation levels above background radiation levels. The survey meter used must be capable of detecting radiation levels of 0.5 microsievert (0.05 millirem) per hour.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.59" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.59   Detection of leaking sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each dry-source-storage sealed source must be tested for leakage at intervals not to exceed 6 months using a leak test kit or method approved by the Commission or an Agreement State. In the absence of a certificate from a transferor that a test has been made within the 6 months before the transfer, the sealed source may not be used until tested. The test must be capable of detecting the presence of 200 becquerels (0.005 microcurie) of radioactive material and must be performed by a person approved by the Commission or an Agreement State to perform the test.
</P>
<P>(b) For pool irradiators, sources may not be put into the pool unless the licensee tests the sources for leaks or has a certificate from a transferor that leak test has been done within the 6 months before the transfer. Water from the pool must be checked for contamination each day the irradiator operates. The check may be done either by using a radiation monitor on a pool water circulating system or by analysis of a sample of pool water. If a check for contamination is done by analysis of a sample of pool water, the results of the analysis must be available within 24 hours. If the licensee uses a radiation monitor on a pool water circulating system, the detection of above normal radiation levels must activate an alarm. The alarm set-point must be set as low as practical, but high enough to avoid false alarms. The licensee may reset the alarm set-point to a higher level if necessary to operate the pool water purification system to clean up contamination in the pool if specifically provided for in written emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) If a leaking source is detected, the licensee shall arrange to remove the leaking source from service and have it decontaminated, repaired, or disposed of by an NRC or Agreement State licensee that is authorized to perform these functions. The licensee shall promptly check its personnel, equipment, facilities, and irradiated product for radioactive contamination. No product may be shipped until the product has been checked and found free of contamination. If a product has been shipped that may have been inadvertently contaminated, the licensee shall arrange to locate and survey that product for contamination. If any personnel are found to be contaminated, decontamination must be performed promptly. If contaminated equipment, facilities, or products are found, the licensee shall arrange to have them decontaminated or disposed of by an NRC or Agreement State licensee that is authorized to perform these functions. If a pool is contaminated, the licensee shall arrange to clean the pool until the contamination levels do not exceed the appropriate concentration in table 2, column 2, appendix B to part 20. (See 10 CFR 30.50 for reporting requirements.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 67660, Dec. 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.61   Inspection and maintenance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall perform inspection and maintenance checks that include, as a minimum, each of the following at the frequency specified in the license or license application:
</P>
<P>(1) Operability of each aspect of the access control system required by § 36.23.
</P>
<P>(2) Functioning of the source position indicator required by § 36.31(b).
</P>
<P>(3) Operability of the radiation monitor for radioactive contamination in pool water required by § 36.59(b) using a radiation check source, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) Operability of the over-pool radiation monitor at underwater irradiators as required by § 36.29(b).
</P>
<P>(5) Operability of the product exit monitor required by § 36.29(a).
</P>
<P>(6) Operability of the emergency source return control required by § 36.31(c).
</P>
<P>(7) Leak-tightness of systems through which pool water circulates (visual inspection).
</P>
<P>(8) Operability of the heat and smoke detectors and extinguisher system required by § 36.27 (but without turning extinguishers on).
</P>
<P>(9) Operability of the means of pool water replenishment required by § 36.33(c).
</P>
<P>(10) Operability of the indicators of high and low pool water levels required by § 36.33(d).
</P>
<P>(11) Operability of the intrusion alarm required by § 36.23(i), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(12) Functioning and wear of the system, mechanisms, and cables used to raise and lower sources.
</P>
<P>(13) Condition of the barrier to prevent products from hitting the sources or source mechanism as required by § 36.35.
</P>
<P>(14) Amount of water added to the pool to determine if the pool is leaking.
</P>
<P>(15) Electrical wiring on required safety systems for radiation damage.
</P>
<P>(16) Pool water conductivity measurements and analysis as required by § 36.63(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Malfunctions and defects found during inspection and maintenance checks must be repaired without undue delay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.63   Pool water purity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pool water purification system must be run sufficiently to maintain the conductivity of the pool water below 20 microsiemens per centimeter under normal circumstances. If pool water conductivity rises above 20 microsiemens per centimeter, the licensee shall take prompt actions to lower the pool water conductivity and shall take corrective actions to prevent future recurrences.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall measure the pool water conductivity frequently enough, but no less than weekly, to assure that the conductivity remains below 20 microsiemens per centimeter. Conductivity meters must be calibrated at least annually.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.65   Attendance during operation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Both an irradiator operator and at least one other individual, who is trained on how to respond and prepared to promptly render or summon assistance if the access control alarm sounds, shall be present onsite:
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever the irradiator is operated using an automatic product conveyor system; and
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the product is moved into or out of the radiation room when the irradiator is operated in a batch mode.
</P>
<P>(b) At a panoramic irradiator at which static irradiations (no movement of the product) are occurring, a person who has received the training on how to respond to alarms described in § 36.51(g) must be onsite.
</P>
<P>(c) At an underwater irradiator, an irradiator operator must be present at the facility whenever the product is moved into or out of the pool. Individuals who move the product into or out of the pool of an underwater irradiator need not be qualified as irradiator operators; however, they must have received the training described in § 36.51 (f) and (g). Static irradiations may be performed without a person present at the facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.67   Entering and leaving the radiation room.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon first entering the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator after an irradiation, the irradiator operator shall use a survey meter to determine that the source has returned to its fully shielded position. The operator shall check the functioning of the survey meter with a radiation check source prior to entry.
</P>
<P>(b) Before exiting from and locking the door to the radiation room of a panoramic irradiator prior to a planned irradiation, the irradiator operator shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Visually inspect the entire radiation room to verify that no one else is in it; and
</P>
<P>(2) Activate a control in the radiation room that permits the sources to be moved from the shielded position only if the door to the radiation room is locked within a preset time after setting the control.
</P>
<P>(c) During a power failure, the area around the pool of an underwater irradiator may not be entered without using an operable and calibrated radiation survey meter unless the over-the-pool monitor required by § 36.29(b) is operating with backup power.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.69" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.4.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.69   Irradiation of explosive or flammable materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Irradiation of explosive material is prohibited unless the licensee has received prior written authorization from the Commission. Authorization will not be granted unless the licensee can demonstrate that detonation of the explosive would not rupture the sealed sources, injure personnel, damage safety systems, or cause radiation overexposures of personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) Irradiation of more than small quantities of flammable material (flash point below 140 °F) is prohibited in panoramic irradiators unless the licensee has received prior written authorization from the Commission. Authorization will not be granted unless the licensee can demonstrate that a fire in the radiation room could be controlled without damage to sealed sources or safety systems and without radiation overexposures of personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.5.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.81   Records and retention periods.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall maintain the following records at the irradiator for the periods specified.
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the license, license conditions, documents incorporated into a license by reference, and amendments thereto until superseded by new documents or until the Commission terminates the license for documents not superseded.
</P>
<P>(b) Records of each individual's training, tests, and safety reviews provided to meet the requirements of § 36.51 (a), (b), (c), (d), (f), and (g) until 3 years after the individual terminates work.
</P>
<P>(c) Records of the annual evaluations of the safety performance of irradiator operators required by § 36.51(e) for 3 years after the evaluation.
</P>
<P>(d) A copy of the current operating and emergency procedures required by § 36.53 until superseded or the Commission terminates the license. Records of the radiation safety officer's review and approval of changes in procedures as required by § 36.53(c)(3) retained for 3 years from the date of the change.
</P>
<P>(e) Evaluations of personnel dosimeters required by § 36.55 until the Commission terminates the license. 
</P>
<P>(f) Records of radiation surveys required by § 36.57 for 3 years from the date of the survey.
</P>
<P>(g) Records of radiation survey meter calibrations required by § 36.57 and pool water conductivity meter calibrations required by § 36.63(b) until 3 years from the date of calibration.
</P>
<P>(h) Records of the results of leak tests required by § 36.59(a) and the results of contamination checks required by § 36.59(b) for 3 years from the date of each test.
</P>
<P>(i) Records of inspection and maintenance checks required by § 36.61 for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(j) Records of major malfunctions, significant defects, operating difficulties or irregularities, and major operating problems that involve required radiation safety equipment for 3 years after repairs are completed.
</P>
<P>(k) Records of the receipt, transfer and disposal, of all licensed sealed sources as required by §§ 30.51 and 30.41.
</P>
<P>(l) Records on the design checks required by § 36.39 and the construction control checks as required by § 36.41 until the license is terminated. The records must be signed and dated. The title or qualification of the person signing must be included.
</P>
<P>(m) Records related to decommissioning of the irradiator as required by § 30.35(g).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 7728, Feb. 9, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 63752, Oct. 24, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.83" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.5.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.83   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the reporting requirements in other parts of NRC regulations, the licensee shall report the following events if not reported under other parts of NRC regulations:
</P>
<P>(1) Source stuck in an unshielded position.
</P>
<P>(2) Any fire or explosion in a radiation room.
</P>
<P>(3) Damage to the source racks.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure of the cable or drive mechanism used to move the source racks.
</P>
<P>(5) Inoperability of the access control system.
</P>
<P>(6) Detection of radiation source by the product exit monitor.
</P>
<P>(7) Detection of radioactive contamination attributable to licensed radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(8) Structural damage to the pool liner or walls.
</P>
<P>(9) Abnormal water loss or leakage from the source storage pool.
</P>
<P>(10) Pool water conductivity exceeding 100 microsiemens per centimeter.
</P>
<P>(b) The report must include a telephone report within 24 hours as described in § 30.50(c)(1), and a written report within 30 days as described in § 30.50(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.91" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.6.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.91   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 36.93" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.26.6.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 36.93   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 36 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 36 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 36.1, 36.2, 36.5, 36.8, 36.11, 36.13, 36.17, 36.19, 36.91, and 36.93.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 37—PHYSICAL PROTECTION OF CATEGORY 1 AND CATEGORY 2 QUANTITIES OF RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 53, 81, 103, 104, 147, 148, 149, 161, 182, 183, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2073, 2111, 2133, 2134, 2167, 2168, 2169, 2201, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 37 appear at 79 FR 75739, Dec. 19, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.1.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part has been established to provide the requirements for the physical protection program for any licensee that possesses an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material listed in Appendix A to this part. These requirements provide reasonable assurance of the security of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material by protecting these materials from theft or diversion. Specific requirements for access to material, use of material, transfer of material, and transport of material are included. No provision of this part authorizes possession of licensed material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.1.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.3   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subparts B and C of this part apply to any person who, under the regulations in this chapter, possesses or uses at any site, an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart D of this part applies to any person who, under the regulations of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Transports or delivers to a carrier for transport in a single shipment, a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material; or
</P>
<P>(2) Imports or exports a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material; the provisions only apply to the domestic portion of the transport.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.1.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Access control</I> means a system for allowing only approved individuals to have unescorted access to the security zone and for ensuring that all other individuals are subject to escorted access.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919), including any amendments thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Aggregated</I> means accessible by the breach of a single physical barrier that would allow access to radioactive material in any form, including any devices that contain the radioactive material, when the total activity equals or exceeds a category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means any state with which the Atomic Energy Commission or the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b. of the Act. <I>Non-agreement State</I> means any other State.
</P>
<P><I>Approved individual</I> means an individual whom the licensee has determined to be trustworthy and reliable for unescorted access in accordance with subpart B of this part and who has completed the training required by § 37.43(c).
</P>
<P><I>Background investigation</I> means the investigation conducted by a licensee or applicant to support the determination of trustworthiness and reliability.
</P>
<P><I>Becquerel (Bq)</I> means one disintegration per second.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2) The tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from ore processed primarily for its source material content, including discrete surface wastes resulting from uranium solution extraction processes. Underground ore bodies depleted by these solution extraction operations do not constitute “byproduct material” within this definition;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Carrier</I> means a person engaged in the transportation of passengers or property by land or water as a common, contract, or private carrier, or by civil aircraft.
</P>
<P><I>Category 1 quantity of radioactive material</I> means a quantity of radioactive material meeting or exceeding the category 1 threshold in Table 1 of Appendix A to this part. This is determined by calculating the ratio of the total activity of each radionuclide to the category 1 threshold for that radionuclide and adding the ratios together. If the sum is equal to or exceeds 1, the quantity would be considered a category 1 quantity. Category 1 quantities of radioactive material do not include the radioactive material contained in any fuel assembly, subassembly, fuel rod, or fuel pellet.
</P>
<P><I>Category 2 quantity of radioactive material</I> means a quantity of radioactive material meeting or exceeding the category 2 threshold but less than the category 1 threshold in Table 1 of Appendix A to this part. This is determined by calculating the ratio of the total activity of each radionuclide to the category 2 threshold for that radionuclide and adding the ratios together. If the sum is equal to or exceeds 1, the quantity would be considered a category 2 quantity. Category 2 quantities of radioactive material do not include the radioactive material contained in any fuel assembly, subassembly, fuel rod, or fuel pellet.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Curie</I> means that amount of radioactive material which disintegrates at the rate of 37 billion atoms per second.
</P>
<P><I>Diversion</I> means the unauthorized movement of radioactive material subject to this part to a location different from the material's authorized destination inside or outside of the site at which the material is used or stored.
</P>
<P><I>Escorted access</I> means accompaniment while in a security zone by an approved individual who maintains continuous direct visual surveillance at all times over an individual who is not approved for unescorted access.
</P>
<P><I>Fingerprint orders</I> means the orders issued by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or the legally binding requirements issued by Agreement States that require fingerprints and criminal history records checks for individuals with unescorted access to category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material or safeguards information-modified handling.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government.
</P>
<P><I>License,</I> except where otherwise specified, means a license for byproduct material issued pursuant to the regulations in parts 30 through 36 and 39 of this chapter;
</P>
<P><I>License issuing authority</I> means the licensing agency that issued the license, <I>i.e.</I> the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or the appropriate agency of an Agreement State;
</P>
<P><I>Local law enforcement agency (LLEA)</I> means a public or private organization that has been approved by a federal, state, or local government to carry firearms and make arrests, and is authorized and has the capability to provide an armed response in the jurisdiction where the licensed category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material is used, stored, or transported.
</P>
<P><I>Lost or missing licensed material</I> means licensed material whose location is unknown. It includes material that has been shipped but has not reached its destination and whose location cannot be readily traced in the transportation system.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile device</I> means a piece of equipment containing licensed radioactive material that is either mounted on wheels or casters, or otherwise equipped for moving without a need for disassembly or dismounting; or designed to be hand carried. Mobile devices do not include stationary equipment installed in a fixed location.
</P>
<P><I>Movement control center</I> means an operations center that is remote from transport activity and that maintains position information on the movement of radioactive material, receives reports of attempted attacks or thefts, provides a means for reporting these and other problems to appropriate agencies and can request and coordinate appropriate aid.
</P>
<P><I>No-later-than arrival time</I> means the date and time that the shipping licensee and receiving licensee have established as the time at which an investigation will be initiated if the shipment has not arrived at the receiving facility. The no-later-than-arrival time may not be more than 6 hours after the estimated arrival time for shipments of category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission or the DOE (except that the Department shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in 10 CFR chapter I to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission under section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244), the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978 (92 Stat. 3021), the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (96 Stat. 2201), and section 3(b)(2) of the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985 (99 Stat. 1842), any State or any political subdivision of or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Reviewing official</I> means the individual who shall make the trustworthiness and reliability determination of an individual to determine whether the individual may have, or continue to have, unescorted access to the category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials that are possessed by the licensee.
</P>
<P><I>Sabotage</I> means deliberate damage, with malevolent intent, to a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material, a device that contains a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material, or the components of the security system.
</P>
<P><I>Safe haven</I> means a readily recognizable and readily accessible site at which security is present or from which, in the event of an emergency, the transport crew can notify and wait for the local law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P><I>Security zone</I> means any temporary or permanent area determined and established by the licensee for the physical protection of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Telemetric position monitoring system</I> means a data transfer system that captures information by instrumentation and/or measuring devices about the location and status of a transport vehicle or package between the departure and destination locations.
</P>
<P><I>Trustworthiness and reliability</I> are characteristics of an individual considered dependable in judgment, character, and performance, such that unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material by that individual does not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety or security. A determination of trustworthiness and reliability for this purpose is based upon the results from a background investigation.
</P>
<P><I>Unescorted access</I> means solitary access to an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material or the devices that contain the material.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.1.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.7   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified or covered under the regional licensing program as provided in § 30.6(b) of this chapter, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part may be sent as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) By mail addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk; Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation; or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001;
</P>
<P>(b) By hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852;
</P>
<P>(c) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by email to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015; 83 FR 58722, Nov. 21, 2018; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.1.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.9   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretations of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized as binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 90 FR 55630, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.1.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.11   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) Any licensee's NRC-licensed activities are exempt from the requirements of subparts B and C of this part to the extent that its activities are included in a security plan required by part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee that possesses radioactive waste that contains category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material is exempt from the requirements of subparts B, C, and D of this part. Except that any radioactive waste that contains discrete sources, ion-exchange resins, or activated material that weighs less than 2,000 kg (4,409 lbs) is not exempt from the requirements of this part. The licensee shall implement the following requirements to secure the radioactive waste:
</P>
<P>(1) Use continuous physical barriers that allow access to the radioactive waste only through established access control points;
</P>
<P>(2) Use a locked door or gate with monitored alarm at the access control point;
</P>
<P>(3) Assess and respond to each actual or attempted unauthorized access to determine whether an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion occurred; and
</P>
<P>(4) Immediately notify the LLEA and request an armed response from the LLEA upon determination that there was an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of the radioactive waste that contains category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.1.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.13   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0214.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 37.11, 37.21, 37.23, 37.25, 37.27, 37.29, 37.31, 37.33, 37.41, 37.43, 37.45, 37.49, 37.51, 37.55, 37.57, 37.71, 37.75, 37.77, 37.79, and 37.81.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Background Investigations and Access Authorization Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.2.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.21   Personnel access authorization requirements for category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Each licensee that possesses an aggregated quantity of radioactive material at or above the category 2 threshold shall establish, implement, and maintain its access authorization program in accordance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant for a new license and each licensee that would become newly subject to the requirements of this subpart upon application for modification of its license shall implement the requirements of this subpart, as appropriate, before taking possession of an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(3) Any licensee that has not previously implemented the Security Orders or been subject to the provisions of this subpart B shall implement the provisions of this subpart B before aggregating radioactive material to a quantity that equals or exceeds the category 2 threshold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General performance objective.</I> The licensee's access authorization program must ensure that the individuals specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section are trustworthy and reliable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) Licensees shall subject the following individuals to an access authorization program:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual whose assigned duties require unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material or to any device that contains the radioactive material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing officials.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees need not subject the categories of individuals listed in § 37.29(a)(1) through (13) to the investigation elements of the access authorization program.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees shall approve for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material only those individuals with job duties that require unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees may include individuals needing access to safeguards information-modified handling under part 73 of this chapter in the access authorization program under this subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.2.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.23   Access authorization program requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Granting unescorted access authorization.</I> (1) Licensees shall implement the requirements of this subpart for granting initial or reinstated unescorted access authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals who have been determined to be trustworthy and reliable shall also complete the security training required by § 37.43(c) before being allowed unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reviewing officials.</I> (1) Reviewing officials are the only individuals who may make trustworthiness and reliability determinations that allow individuals to have unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials possessed by the licensee.


</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee shall name one or more individuals to be reviewing officials. After completing the background investigation on the reviewing official, the licensee shall provide under oath or affirmation, a certification that the reviewing official is deemed trustworthy and reliable by the licensee. Provide oath or affirmation certifications to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, ATTN: Source Management and Protection Branch. The fingerprints of the named reviewing official must be taken by a law enforcement agency, Federal or State agencies that provide fingerprinting services to the public, or commercial fingerprinting services authorized by a State to take fingerprints. The licensee shall recertify that the reviewing official is deemed trustworthy and reliable every 10 years in accordance with § 37.25(c).


</P>
<P>(3) Reviewing officials must be permitted to have unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials or access to safeguards information or safeguards information-modified handling, if the licensee possesses safeguards information or safeguards information-modified handling.
</P>
<P>(4) Reviewing officials cannot approve other individuals to act as reviewing officials.
</P>
<P>(5) A reviewing official does not need to undergo a new background investigation before being named by the licensee as the reviewing official if:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual has undergone a background investigation that included fingerprinting and an FBI criminal history records check and has been determined to be trustworthy and reliable by the licensee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual is subject to a category listed in § 37.29(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Informed consent.</I> (1) Licensees may not initiate a background investigation without the informed and signed consent of the subject individual. This consent must include authorization to share personal information with other individuals or organizations as necessary to complete the background investigation. Before a final adverse determination, the licensee shall provide the individual with an opportunity to correct any inaccurate or incomplete information that is developed during the background investigation. Licensees do not need to obtain signed consent from those individuals that meet the requirements of § 37.25(b). A signed consent must be obtained prior to any reinvestigation.
</P>
<P>(2) The subject individual may withdraw his or her consent at any time. Licensees shall inform the individual that:
</P>
<P>(i) If an individual withdraws his or her consent, the licensee may not initiate any elements of the background investigation that were not in progress at the time the individual withdrew his or her consent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The withdrawal of consent for the background investigation is sufficient cause for denial or termination of unescorted access authorization.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Personal history disclosure.</I> Any individual who is applying for unescorted access authorization shall disclose the personal history information that is required by the licensee's access authorization program for the reviewing official to make a determination of the individual's trustworthiness and reliability. Refusal to provide, or the falsification of, any personal history information required by this subpart is sufficient cause for denial or termination of unescorted access.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination basis.</I> (1) The reviewing official shall determine whether to permit, deny, unfavorably terminate, maintain, or administratively withdraw an individual's unescorted access authorization based on an evaluation of all of the information collected to meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The reviewing official may not permit any individual to have unescorted access until the reviewing official has evaluated all of the information collected to meet the requirements of this subpart and determined that the individual is trustworthy and reliable. The reviewing official may deny unescorted access to any individual based on information obtained at any time during the background investigation.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall document the basis for concluding whether or not there is reasonable assurance that an individual is trustworthy and reliable.
</P>
<P>(4) The reviewing official may terminate or administratively withdraw an individual's unescorted access authorization based on information obtained after the background investigation has been completed and the individual granted unescorted access authorization.
</P>
<P>(5) Licensees shall maintain a list of persons currently approved for unescorted access authorization. When a licensee determines that a person no longer requires unescorted access or meets the access authorization requirement, the licensee shall remove the person from the approved list as soon as possible, but no later than 7 working days, and take prompt measures to ensure that the individual is unable to have unescorted access to the material.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures.</I> Licensees shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures for implementing the access authorization program. The procedures must include provisions for the notification of individuals who are denied unescorted access. The procedures must include provisions for the review, at the request of the affected individual, of a denial or termination of unescorted access authorization. The procedures must contain a provision to ensure that the individual is informed of the grounds for the denial or termination of unescorted access authorization and allow the individual an opportunity to provide additional relevant information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Right to correct and complete information.</I> (1) Prior to any final adverse determination, licensees shall provide each individual subject to this subpart with the right to complete, correct, and explain information obtained as a result of the licensee's background investigation. Confirmation of receipt by the individual of this notification must be maintained by the licensee for a period of 1 year from the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(2) If, after reviewing his or her criminal history record, an individual believes that it is incorrect or incomplete in any respect and wishes to change, correct, update, or explain anything in the record, the individual may initiate challenge procedures. These procedures include direct application by the individual challenging the record to the law enforcement agency that contributed the questioned information or a direct challenge as to the accuracy or completeness of any entry on the criminal history record to the Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division, ATTN: SCU, Mod. D-2, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, WV 26306 as set forth in 28 CFR 16.30 through 16.34. In the latter case, the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) will forward the challenge to the agency that submitted the data, and will request that the agency verify or correct the challenged entry. Upon receipt of an official communication directly from the agency that contributed the original information, the FBI Identification Division makes any changes necessary in accordance with the information supplied by that agency. Licensees must provide at least 10 days for an individual to initiate action to challenge the results of an FBI criminal history records check after the record being made available for his or her review. The licensee may make a final adverse determination based upon the criminal history records only after receipt of the FBI's confirmation or correction of the record.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Records.</I> (1) The licensee shall retain documentation regarding the trustworthiness and reliability of individual employees for 3 years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall retain a copy of the current access authorization program procedures as a record for 3 years after the procedure is no longer needed. If any portion of the procedure is superseded, the licensee shall retain the superseded material for 3 years after the record is superseded.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall retain the list of persons approved for unescorted access authorization for 3 years after the list is superseded or replaced.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 45843, Aug. 3, 2015; 83 FR 30287, June 28, 2018; 84 FR 63567, Nov. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.2.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.25   Background investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial investigation.</I> Before allowing an individual unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material or to the devices that contain the material, licensees shall complete a background investigation of the individual seeking unescorted access authorization. The scope of the investigation must encompass at least the 7 years preceding the date of the background investigation or since the individual's eighteenth birthday, whichever is shorter. The background investigation must include at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Fingerprinting and an FBI identification and criminal history records check in accordance with § 37.27;
</P>
<P>(2) Verification of true identity. Licensees shall verify the true identity of the individual who is applying for unescorted access authorization to ensure that the applicant is who he or she claims to be. A licensee shall review official identification documents (<I>e.g.,</I> driver's license; passport; government identification; certificate of birth issued by the state, province, or country of birth) and compare the documents to personal information data provided by the individual to identify any discrepancy in the information. Licensees shall document the type, expiration, and identification number of the identification document, or maintain a photocopy of identifying documents on file in accordance with § 37.31. Licensees shall certify in writing that the identification was properly reviewed, and shall maintain the certification and all related documents for review upon inspection;
</P>
<P>(3) Employment history verification. Licensees shall complete an employment history verification, including military history. Licensees shall verify the individual's employment with each previous employer for the most recent 7 years before the date of application;
</P>
<P>(4) Verification of education. Licensees shall verify that the individual participated in the education process during the claimed period;
</P>
<P>(5) Character and reputation determination. Licensees shall complete reference checks to determine the character and reputation of the individual who has applied for unescorted access authorization. Unless other references are not available, reference checks may not be conducted with any person who is known to be a close member of the individual's family, including but not limited to the individual's spouse, parents, siblings, or children, or any individual who resides in the individual's permanent household. Reference checks under this subpart must be limited to whether the individual has been and continues to be trustworthy and reliable;
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall also, to the extent possible, obtain independent information to corroborate that provided by the individual (<I>e.g.,</I> seek references not supplied by the individual); and
</P>
<P>(7) If a previous employer, educational institution, or any other entity with which the individual claims to have been engaged fails to provide information or indicates an inability or unwillingness to provide information within a time frame deemed appropriate by the licensee but at least after 10 business days of the request or if the licensee is unable to reach the entity, the licensee shall document the refusal, unwillingness, or inability in the record of investigation; and attempt to obtain the information from an alternate source.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grandfathering.</I> (1) Individuals who have been determined to be trustworthy and reliable for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material under the Fingerprint Orders may continue to have unescorted access to category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material without further investigation. These individuals shall be subject to the reinvestigation requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals who have been determined to be trustworthy and reliable under the provisions of part 73 of this chapter or the security orders for access to safeguards information, safeguards information-modified handling, or risk-significant material may have unescorted access to category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material without further investigation. The licensee shall document that the individual was determined to be trustworthy and reliable under the provisions of part 73 of this chapter or a security order. Security order, in this context, refers to any order that was issued by the NRC that required fingerprints and an FBI criminal history records check for access to safeguards information, safeguards information-modified handling, or risk significant material such as special nuclear material or large quantities of uranium hexafluoride. These individuals shall be subject to the reinvestigation requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reinvestigations.</I> Licensees shall conduct a reinvestigation every 10 years for any individual with unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. The reinvestigation shall consist of fingerprinting and an FBI identification and criminal history records check in accordance with § 37.27. The reinvestigations must be completed within 10 years of the date on which these elements were last completed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.2.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.27   Requirements for criminal history records checks of individuals granted unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General performance objective and requirements.</I> (1) Except for those individuals listed in § 37.29 and those individuals grandfathered under § 37.25(b), each licensee subject to the provisions of this subpart shall fingerprint each individual who is to be permitted unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Licensees shall transmit all collected fingerprints to the Commission for transmission to the FBI. The licensee shall use the information received from the FBI as part of the required background investigation to determine whether to grant or deny further unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials for that individual.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall notify each affected individual that his or her fingerprints will be used to secure a review of his or her criminal history record, and shall inform him or her of the procedures for revising the record or adding explanations to the record.
</P>
<P>(3) Fingerprinting is not required if a licensee is reinstating an individual's unescorted access authorization to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials if:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual returns to the same facility that granted unescorted access authorization within 365 days of the termination of his or her unescorted access authorization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The previous access was terminated under favorable conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Fingerprints do not need to be taken if an individual who is an employee of a licensee, contractor, manufacturer, or supplier has been granted unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, access to safeguards information, or safeguards information-modified handling by another licensee, based upon a background investigation conducted under this subpart, the Fingerprint Orders, or part 73 of this chapter. An existing criminal history records check file may be transferred to the licensee asked to grant unescorted access in accordance with the provisions of § 37.31(c).
</P>
<P>(5) Licensees shall use the information obtained as part of a criminal history records check solely for the purpose of determining an individual's suitability for unescorted access authorization to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials, access to safeguards information, or safeguards information-modified handling.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions.</I> (1) Licensees may not base a final determination to deny an individual unescorted access authorization to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material solely on the basis of information received from the FBI involving:
</P>
<P>(i) An arrest more than 1 year old for which there is no information of the disposition of the case; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An arrest that resulted in dismissal of the charge or an acquittal.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees may not use information received from a criminal history records check obtained under this subpart in a manner that would infringe upon the rights of any individual under the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States, nor shall licensees use the information in any way that would discriminate among individuals on the basis of race, religion, national origin, gender, or age.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for processing of fingerprint checks.</I> (1) For the purposes of complying with this subpart, licensees shall use an appropriate method listed in § 37.7 to submit to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, 11545 Rockville Pike, ATTN: Criminal History Program/Mail Stop T-07D04M, Rockville, MD 20852, one completed, legible standard fingerprint card (Form FD-258, ORIMDNRCOOOZ), electronic fingerprint scan or, where practicable, other fingerprint record for each individual requiring unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Copies of these forms may be obtained by emailing <I>MAILSVS.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> Guidance on submitting electronic fingerprints can be found at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/security/chp.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Fees for the processing of fingerprint checks are due upon application. Licensees shall submit payment made payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The payments are to be made in U.S. funds using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I> For guidance on making electronic payments, contact the Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy by emailing <I>Crimhist.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> Combined payment for multiple applications is acceptable. The Commission publishes the amount of the fingerprint check application fee on the NRC's public website. (To find the current fee amount, go to the Licensee Criminal History Records Checks &amp; Firearms Background Check information page at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/security/chp.html</I> and see the link for How do I determine how much to pay for the request?)


</P>
<P>(3) The Commission will forward to the submitting licensee all data received from the FBI as a result of the licensee's application(s) for criminal history records checks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015; 84 FR 63567, Nov. 18, 2019; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021; 89 FR 51810, June 20, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.29" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.2.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.29   Relief from fingerprinting, identification, and criminal history records checks and other elements of background investigations for designated categories of individuals permitted unescorted access to certain radioactive materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Fingerprinting, and the identification and criminal history records checks required by section 149 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and other elements of the background investigation are not required for the following individuals prior to granting unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive materials:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee of the Commission or of the Executive Branch of the U.S. Government who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. Government criminal history records check;
</P>
<P>(2) A Member of Congress;
</P>
<P>(3) An employee of a member of Congress or Congressional committee who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. Government criminal history records check;
</P>
<P>(4) The Governor of a State or his or her designated State employee representative;
</P>
<P>(5) Federal, State, or local law enforcement personnel;
</P>
<P>(6) State Radiation Control Program Directors and State Homeland Security Advisors or their designated State employee representatives;
</P>
<P>(7) Agreement State employees conducting security inspections on behalf of the NRC under an agreement executed under section 274.i. of the Atomic Energy Act;
</P>
<P>(8) Representatives of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) engaged in activities associated with the U.S./IAEA Safeguards Agreement who have been certified by the NRC;
</P>
<P>(9) Emergency response personnel who are responding to an emergency;
</P>
<P>(10) Commercial vehicle drivers for road shipments of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(11) Package handlers at transportation facilities such as freight terminals and railroad yards;
</P>
<P>(12) Any individual who has an active Federal security clearance, provided that he or she makes available the appropriate documentation. Written confirmation from the agency/employer that granted the Federal security clearance or reviewed the criminal history records check must be provided to the licensee. The licensee shall retain this documentation for a period of 3 years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material; and
</P>
<P>(13) Any individual employed by a service provider licensee for which the service provider licensee has conducted the background investigation for the individual and approved the individual for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. Written verification from the service provider must be provided to the licensee. The licensee shall retain the documentation for a period of 3 years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(b) Fingerprinting, and the identification and criminal history records checks required by section 149 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, are not required for an individual who has had a favorably adjudicated U.S. Government criminal history records check within the last 5 years, under a comparable U.S. Government program involving fingerprinting and an FBI identification and criminal history records check provided that he or she makes available the appropriate documentation. Written confirmation from the agency/employer that reviewed the criminal history records check must be provided to the licensee. The licensee shall retain this documentation for a period of 3 years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. These programs include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) National Agency Check;
</P>
<P>(2) Transportation Worker Identification Credentials (TWIC) under 49 CFR part 1572;
</P>
<P>(3) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives background check and clearances under 27 CFR part 555;
</P>
<P>(4) Health and Human Services security risk assessments for possession and use of select agents and toxins under 42 CFR part 73;
</P>
<P>(5) Hazardous Material security threat assessment for hazardous material endorsement to commercial drivers license under 49 CFR part 1572; and
</P>
<P>(6) Customs and Border Protection's Free and Secure Trade (FAST) Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 58671, Sept. 30, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.2.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.31   Protection of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee who obtains background information on an individual under this subpart shall establish and maintain a system of files and written procedures for protection of the record and the personal information from unauthorized disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee may not disclose the record or personal information collected and maintained to persons other than the subject individual, his or her representative, or to those who have a need to have access to the information in performing assigned duties in the process of granting or denying unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, safeguards information, or safeguards information-modified handling. No individual authorized to have access to the information may disseminate the information to any other individual who does not have a need to know.
</P>
<P>(c) The personal information obtained on an individual from a background investigation may be provided to another licensee:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon the individual's written request to the licensee holding the data to disseminate the information contained in his or her file; and
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient licensee verifies information such as name, date of birth, social security number, gender, and other applicable physical characteristics.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall make background investigation records obtained under this subpart available for examination by an authorized representative of the NRC to determine compliance with the regulations and laws.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall retain all fingerprint and criminal history records (including data indicating no record) received from the FBI, or a copy of these records if the individual's file has been transferred, on an individual for 3 years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.2.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.33   Access authorization program review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall be responsible for the continuing effectiveness of the access authorization program. Each licensee shall ensure that access authorization programs are reviewed to confirm compliance with the requirements of this subpart and that comprehensive actions are taken to correct any noncompliance that is identified. The review program shall evaluate all program performance objectives and requirements. Each licensee shall periodically (at least annually) review the access program content and implementation.
</P>
<P>(b) The results of the reviews, along with any recommendations, must be documented. Each review report must identify conditions that are adverse to the proper performance of the access authorization program, the cause of the condition(s), and, when appropriate, recommend corrective actions, and corrective actions taken. The licensee shall review the findings and take any additional corrective actions necessary to preclude repetition of the condition, including reassessment of the deficient areas where indicated.
</P>
<P>(c) Review records must be maintained for 3 years.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Physical Protection Requirements During Use</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.41   Security program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) Each licensee that possesses an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material shall establish, implement, and maintain a security program in accordance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant for a new license and each licensee that would become newly subject to the requirements of this subpart upon application for modification of its license shall implement the requirements of this subpart, as appropriate, before taking possession of an aggregated category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(3) Any licensee that has not previously implemented the Security Orders or been subject to the provisions of subpart C shall provide written notification to the NRC regional office specified in § 30.6 of this chapter at least 90 days before aggregating radioactive material to a quantity that equals or exceeds the category 2 threshold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General performance objective.</I> Each licensee shall establish, implement, and maintain a security program that is designed to monitor and, without delay, detect, assess, and respond to an actual or attempted unauthorized access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Program features.</I> Each licensee's security program must include the program features, as appropriate, described in §§ 37.43, 37.45, 37.47, 37.49, 37.51, 37.53, and 37.55.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.43   General security program requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Security plan.</I> (1) Each licensee identified in § 37.41(a) shall develop a written security plan specific to its facilities and operations. The purpose of the security plan is to establish the licensee's overall security strategy to ensure the integrated and effective functioning of the security program required by this subpart. The security plan must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the measures and strategies used to implement the requirements of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the security resources, equipment, and technology used to satisfy the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The security plan must be reviewed and approved by the individual with overall responsibility for the security program.
</P>
<P>(3) A licensee shall revise its security plan as necessary to ensure the effective implementation of Commission requirements. The licensee shall ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The revision has been reviewed and approved by the individual with overall responsibility for the security program; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The affected individuals are instructed on the revised plan before the changes are implemented.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall retain a copy of the current security plan as a record for 3 years after the security plan is no longer required. If any portion of the plan is superseded, the licensee shall retain the superseded material for 3 years after the record is superseded.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementing procedures.</I> (1) The licensee shall develop and maintain written procedures that document how the requirements of this subpart and the security plan will be met.
</P>
<P>(2) The implementing procedures and revisions to these procedures must be approved in writing by the individual with overall responsibility for the security program.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall retain a copy of the current procedure as a record for 3 years after the procedure is no longer needed. Superseded portions of the procedure must be retained for 3 years after the record is superseded.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training.</I> (1) Each licensee shall conduct training to ensure that those individuals implementing the security program possess and maintain the knowledge, skills, and abilities to carry out their assigned duties and responsibilities effectively. The training must include instruction in:
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee's security program and procedures to secure category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, and in the purposes and functions of the security measures employed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The responsibility to report promptly to the licensee any condition that causes or may cause a violation of Commission requirements;
</P>
<P>(iii) The responsibility of the licensee to report promptly to the local law enforcement agency and licensee any actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The appropriate response to security alarms.
</P>
<P>(2) In determining those individuals who shall be trained on the security program, the licensee shall consider each individual's assigned activities during authorized use and response to potential situations involving actual or attempted theft, diversion, or sabotage of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material. The extent of the training must be commensurate with the individual's potential involvement in the security of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(3) Refresher training must be provided at a frequency not to exceed 12 months and when significant changes have been made to the security program. This training must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Review of the training requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and any changes made to the security program since the last training;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reports on any relevant security issues, problems, and lessons learned;
</P>
<P>(iii) Relevant results of NRC inspections; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Relevant results of the licensee's program review and testing and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall maintain records of the initial and refresher training for 3 years from the date of the training. The training records must include dates of the training, topics covered, a list of licensee personnel in attendance, and related information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Protection of information.</I> (1) Licensees authorized to possess category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material shall limit access to and unauthorized disclosure of their security plan, implementing procedures, and the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
</P>
<P>(2) Efforts to limit access shall include the development, implementation, and maintenance of written policies and procedures for controlling access to, and for proper handling and protection against unauthorized disclosure of, the security plan, implementing procedures, and the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
</P>
<P>(3) Before granting an individual access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access, licensees shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate an individual's need to know the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the individual has not been authorized for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, safeguards information, or safeguards information-modified handling, the licensee must complete a background investigation to determine the individual's trustworthiness and reliability. A trustworthiness and reliability determination shall be conducted by the reviewing official and shall include the background investigation elements contained in § 37.25(a)(2) through (a)(7).
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees need not subject the following individuals to the background investigation elements for protection of information:
</P>
<P>(i) The categories of individuals listed in § 37.29(a)(1) through (13); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Security service provider employees, provided written verification that the employee has been determined to be trustworthy and reliable, by the required background investigation in § 37.25(a)(2) through (a)(7), has been provided by the security service provider.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee shall document the basis for concluding that an individual is trustworthy and reliable and should be granted access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
</P>
<P>(6) Licensees shall maintain a list of persons currently approved for access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access. When a licensee determines that a person no longer needs access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access, or no longer meets the access authorization requirements for access to the information, the licensee shall remove the person from the approved list as soon as possible, but no later than 7 working days, and take prompt measures to ensure that the individual is unable to obtain the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
</P>
<P>(7) When not in use, the licensee shall store its security plan, implementing procedures, and the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access in a manner to prevent unauthorized access. Information stored in nonremovable electronic form must be password protected.
</P>
<P>(8) The licensee shall retain as a record for 3 years after the document is no longer needed:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the information protection procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The list of individuals approved for access to the security plan, implementing procedures, or the list of individuals that have been approved for unescorted access.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 58671, Sept. 30, 2014; 83 FR 30287, June 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.45   LLEA coordination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee subject to this subpart shall coordinate, to the extent practicable, with an LLEA for responding to threats to the licensee's facility, including any necessary armed response. The information provided to the LLEA must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the facilities and the category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive materials along with a description of the licensee's security measures that have been implemented to comply with this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) A notification that the licensee will request a timely armed response by the LLEA to any actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of material.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall notify the appropriate NRC regional office listed in § 30.6(b)(2) of this chapter within 3 business days if:
</P>
<P>(1) The LLEA has not responded to the request for coordination within 60 days of the coordination request; or
</P>
<P>(2) The LLEA notifies the licensee that the LLEA does not plan to participate in coordination activities.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall document its efforts to coordinate with the LLEA. The documentation must be kept for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall coordinate with the LLEA at least every 12 months, or when changes to the facility design or operation adversely affect the potential vulnerability of the licensee's material to theft, sabotage, or diversion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 30288, June 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.47   Security zones.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees shall ensure that all aggregated category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material are used or stored within licensee-established security zones. Security zones may be permanent or temporary.
</P>
<P>(b) Temporary security zones must be established as necessary to meet the licensee's transitory or intermittent business activities, such as periods of maintenance, source delivery, and source replacement.
</P>
<P>(c) Security zones must, at a minimum, allow unescorted access only to approved individuals through:
</P>
<P>(1) Isolation of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive materials by the use of continuous physical barriers that allow access to the security zone only through established access control points. A physical barrier is a natural or man-made structure or formation sufficient for the isolation of the category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material within a security zone; or
</P>
<P>(2) Direct control of the security zone by approved individuals at all times; or
</P>
<P>(3) A combination of continuous physical barriers and direct control.
</P>
<P>(d) For category 1 quantities of radioactive material during periods of maintenance, source receipt, preparation for shipment, installation, or source removal or exchange, the licensee shall, at a minimum, provide sufficient individuals approved for unescorted access to maintain continuous surveillance of sources in temporary security zones and in any security zone in which physical barriers or intrusion detection systems have been disabled to allow such activities.
</P>
<P>(e) Individuals not approved for unescorted access to category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material must be escorted by an approved individual when in a security zone.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.49" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.49   Monitoring, detection, and assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Monitoring and detection.</I> (1) Licensees shall establish and maintain the capability to continuously monitor and detect without delay all unauthorized entries into its security zones. Licensees shall provide the means to maintain continuous monitoring and detection capability in the event of a loss of the primary power source, or provide for an alarm and response in the event of a loss of this capability to continuously monitor and detect unauthorized entries.
</P>
<P>(2) Monitoring and detection must be performed by:
</P>
<P>(i) A monitored intrusion detection system that is linked to an onsite or offsite central monitoring facility; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Electronic devices for intrusion detection alarms that will alert nearby facility personnel; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A monitored video surveillance system; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Direct visual surveillance by approved individuals located within the security zone; or
</P>
<P>(v) Direct visual surveillance by a licensee designated individual located outside the security zone.
</P>
<P>(3) A licensee subject to this subpart shall also have a means to detect unauthorized removal of the radioactive material from the security zone. This detection capability must provide:
</P>
<P>(i) For category 1 quantities of radioactive material, immediate detection of any attempted unauthorized removal of the radioactive material from the security zone. Such immediate detection capability must be provided by:
</P>
<P>(A) Electronic sensors linked to an alarm; or
</P>
<P>(B) Continuous monitored video surveillance; or
</P>
<P>(C) Direct visual surveillance.
</P>
<P>(ii) For category 2 quantities of radioactive material, weekly verification through physical checks, tamper indicating devices, use, or other means to ensure that the radioactive material is present.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment.</I> Licensees shall immediately assess each actual or attempted unauthorized entry into the security zone to determine whether the unauthorized access was an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Personnel communications and data transmission.</I> For personnel and automated or electronic systems supporting the licensee's monitoring, detection, and assessment systems, licensees shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain continuous capability for personnel communication and electronic data transmission and processing among site security systems; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide an alternative communication capability for personnel, and an alternative data transmission and processing capability, in the event of a loss of the primary means of communication or data transmission and processing. Alternative communications and data transmission systems may not be subject to the same failure modes as the primary systems.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Response.</I> Licensees shall immediately respond to any actual or attempted unauthorized access to the security zones, or actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material at licensee facilities or temporary job sites. For any unauthorized access involving an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material, the licensee's response shall include requesting, without delay, an armed response from the LLEA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.51   Maintenance and testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee subject to this subpart shall implement a maintenance and testing program to ensure that intrusion alarms, associated communication systems, and other physical components of the systems used to secure or detect unauthorized access to radioactive material are maintained in operable condition and are capable of performing their intended function when needed. The equipment relied on to meet the security requirements of this part must be inspected and tested for operability and performance at the manufacturer's suggested frequency. If there is no suggested manufacturer's suggested frequency, the testing must be performed at least annually, not to exceed 12 months.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall maintain records on the maintenance and testing activities for 3 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.53   Requirements for mobile devices.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee that possesses mobile devices containing category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material must:
</P>
<P>(a) Have two independent physical controls that form tangible barriers to secure the material from unauthorized removal when the device is not under direct control and constant surveillance by the licensee; and
</P>
<P>(b) For devices in or on a vehicle or trailer, unless the health and safety requirements for a site prohibit the disabling of the vehicle, the licensee shall utilize a method to disable the vehicle or trailer when not under direct control and constant surveillance by the licensee. Licensees shall not rely on the removal of an ignition key to meet this requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.55   Security program review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall be responsible for the continuing effectiveness of the security program. Each licensee shall ensure that the security program is reviewed to confirm compliance with the requirements of this subpart and that comprehensive actions are taken to correct any noncompliance that is identified. The review must include the radioactive material security program content and implementation. Each licensee shall periodically (at least annually) review the security program content and implementation.
</P>
<P>(b) The results of the review, along with any recommendations, must be documented. Each review report must identify conditions that are adverse to the proper performance of the security program, the cause of the condition(s), and, when appropriate, recommend corrective actions, and corrective actions taken. The licensee shall review the findings and take any additional corrective actions necessary to preclude repetition of the condition, including reassessment of the deficient areas where indicated.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall maintain the review documentation for 3 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.57" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.3.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.57   Reporting of events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall immediately notify the LLEA after determining that an unauthorized entry resulted in an actual or attempted theft, sabotage, or diversion of a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material. As soon as possible after initiating a response, but not at the expense of causing delay or interfering with the LLEA response to the event, the licensee shall notify the NRC's Operations Center (301-816-5100). In no case shall the notification to the NRC be later than 4 hours after the discovery of any attempted or actual theft, sabotage, or diversion.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall assess any suspicious activity related to possible theft, sabotage, or diversion of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material and notify the LLEA as appropriate. As soon as possible but not later than 4 hours after notifying the LLEA, the licensee shall notify the NRC's Operations Center (301-816-5100).
</P>
<P>(c) The initial telephonic notification required by paragraph (a) of this section must be followed within a period of 30 days by a written report submitted to the NRC by an appropriate method listed in § 37.7. The report must include sufficient information for NRC analysis and evaluation, including identification of any necessary corrective actions to prevent future instances.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Physical Protection in Transit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.4.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.71   Additional requirements for transfer of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee transferring a category 1 or category 2 quantity of radioactive material to a licensee of the Commission or an Agreement State shall meet the license verification provisions listed below instead of those listed in § 30.41(d) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(a) Any licensee transferring category 1 quantities of radioactive material to a licensee of the Commission or an Agreement State, prior to conducting such transfer, shall verify with the NRC's license verification system or the license issuing authority that the transferee's license authorizes the receipt of the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred and that the licensee is authorized to receive radioactive material at the location requested for delivery. If the verification is conducted by contacting the license issuing authority, the transferor shall document the verification. For transfers within the same organization, the licensee does not need to verify the transfer.
</P>
<P>(b) Any licensee transferring category 2 quantities of radioactive material to a licensee of the Commission or an Agreement State, prior to conducting such transfer, shall verify with the NRC's license verification system or the license issuing authority that the transferee's license authorizes the receipt of the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred. If the verification is conducted by contacting the license issuing authority, the transferor shall document the verification. For transfers within the same organization, the licensee does not need to verify the transfer.
</P>
<P>(c) In an emergency where the licensee cannot reach the license issuing authority and the license verification system is nonfunctional, the licensee may accept a written certification by the transferee that it is authorized by license to receive the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred. The certification must include the license number, current revision number, issuing agency, expiration date, and for a category 1 shipment the authorized address. The licensee shall keep a copy of the certification. The certification must be confirmed by use of the NRC's license verification system or by contacting the license issuing authority by the end of the next business day.
</P>
<P>(d) The transferor shall keep a copy of the verification documentation as a record for 3 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.73" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.4.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.73   Applicability of physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material during transit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For shipments of category 1 quantities of radioactive material, each shipping licensee shall comply with the requirements for physical protection contained in §§ 37.75(a) and (e); 37.77; 37.79(a)(1), (b)(1), and (c); and 37.81(a), (c), (e), (g) and (h).
</P>
<P>(b) For shipments of category 2 quantities of radioactive material, each shipping licensee shall comply with the requirements for physical protection contained in §§ 37.75(b) through (e); 37.79(a)(2), (a)(3), (b)(2), and (c); and 37.81(b), (d), (f), (g), and (h). For those shipments of category 2 quantities of radioactive material that meet the criteria of § 71.97(b) of this chapter, the shipping licensee shall also comply with the advance notification provisions of § 71.97 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The shipping licensee shall be responsible for meeting the requirements of this subpart unless the receiving licensee has agreed in writing to arrange for the in-transit physical protection required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Each licensee that imports or exports category 1 quantities of radioactive material shall comply with the requirements for physical protection during transit contained in §§ 37.75(a)(2) and (e); 37.77; 37.79(a)(1), (b)(1), and (c); and 37.81(a), (c), (e), (g), and (h) for the domestic portion of the shipment.
</P>
<P>(e) Each licensee that imports or exports category 2 quantities of radioactive material shall comply with the requirements for physical protection during transit contained in §§ 37.79(a)(2), (a)(3), and (b)(2); and 37.81(b), (d), (f), (g), and (h) for the domestic portion of the shipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.75" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.4.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.75   Preplanning and coordination of shipment of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee that plans to transport, or deliver to a carrier for transport, licensed material that is a category 1 quantity of radioactive material outside the confines of the licensee's facility or other place of use or storage shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Preplan and coordinate shipment arrival and departure times with the receiving licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) Preplan and coordinate shipment information with the governor or the governor's designee of any State through which the shipment will pass to:
</P>
<P>(i) Discuss the State's intention to provide law enforcement escorts; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify safe havens; and
</P>
<P>(3) Document the preplanning and coordination activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee that plans to transport, or deliver to a carrier for transport, licensed material that is a category 2 quantity of radioactive material outside the confines of the licensee's facility or other place of use or storage shall coordinate the shipment no-later-than arrival time and the expected shipment arrival with the receiving licensee. The licensee shall document the coordination activities.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee who receives a shipment of a category 2 quantity of radioactive material shall confirm receipt of the shipment with the originator. If the shipment has not arrived by the no-later-than arrival time, the receiving licensee shall notify the originator.
</P>
<P>(d) Each licensee, who transports or plans to transport a shipment of a category 2 quantity of radioactive material, and determines that the shipment will arrive after the no-later-than arrival time provided pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, shall promptly notify the receiving licensee of the new no-later-than arrival time.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall retain a copy of the documentation for preplanning and coordination and any revision thereof, as a record for 3 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.77" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.4.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.77   Advance notification of shipment of category 1 quantities of radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>As specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, each licensee shall provide advance notification to the NRC and the governor of a State, or the governor's designee, of the shipment of licensed material in a category 1 quantity, through or across the boundary of the State, before the transport, or delivery to a carrier for transport of the licensed material outside the confines of the licensee's facility or other place of use or storage.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for submitting advance notification.</I> (1) The notification must be made to the NRC and to the office of each appropriate governor or governor's designee. The contact information, including telephone and mailing addresses, of governors and governors' designees, is available on the NRC's Web site at <I>https://scp.nrc.gov/special/designee.pdf.</I> A list of the contact information is also available upon request from the Director, Division of Materials Safety, Security, State, and Tribal Programs , Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards., U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. Notifications to the NRC must be to the NRC's Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The notification to the NRC may be made by email to <I>RAMQC_SHIPMENTS@nrc.gov</I> or by fax to 301-816-5151.
</P>
<P>(2) A notification delivered by mail must be postmarked at least 7 days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipping facility.
</P>
<P>(3) A notification delivered by any means other than mail must reach NRC at least 4 days before the transport of the shipment commences and must reach the office of the governor or the governor's designee at least 4 days before transport of a shipment within or through the State.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information to be furnished in advance notification of shipment.</I> Each advance notification of shipment of category 1 quantities of radioactive material must contain the following information, if available at the time of notification:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the shipper, carrier, and receiver of the category 1 radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(2) The license numbers of the shipper and receiver;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the radioactive material contained in the shipment, including the radionuclides and quantity;
</P>
<P>(4) The point of origin of the shipment and the estimated time and date that shipment will commence;
</P>
<P>(5) The estimated time and date that the shipment is expected to enter each State along the route;
</P>
<P>(6) The estimated time and date of arrival of the shipment at the destination; and
</P>
<P>(7) A point of contact, with a telephone number, for current shipment information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Revision notice.</I> (1) The licensee shall provide any information not previously available at the time of the initial notification, as soon as the information becomes available but not later than commencement of the shipment, to the governor of the State or the governor's designee and to the NRC's Director, Office and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee shall promptly notify the governor of the State or the governor's designee of any changes to the information provided in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c)(1) of this section. The licensee shall also immediately notify the NRC's Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001 of any such changes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cancellation notice.</I> Each licensee who cancels a shipment for which advance notification has been sent shall send a cancellation notice to the governor of each State or to the governor's designee previously notified and to the NRC's Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The licensee shall send the cancellation notice before the shipment would have commenced or as soon thereafter as possible. The licensee shall state in the notice that it is a cancellation and identify the advance notification that is being cancelled.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records.</I> The licensee shall retain a copy of the advance notification and any revision and cancellation notices as a record for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Protection of information.</I> State officials, State employees, and other individuals, whether or not licensees of the Commission or an Agreement State, who receive schedule information of the kind specified in § 37.77(b) shall protect that information against unauthorized disclosure as specified in § 37.43(d) of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013; 78 FR 31821, May 28, 2013; 79 FR 58671, Sept. 30, 2014; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015; 83 FR 30288, June 28, 2018; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.79" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.4.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.79   Requirements for physical protection of category 1 and category 2 quantities of radioactive material during shipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Shipments by road.</I> (1) Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a category 1 quantity of radioactive material shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that movement control centers are established that maintain position information from a remote location. These control centers must monitor shipments 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, and have the ability to communicate immediately, in an emergency, with the appropriate law enforcement agencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that redundant communications are established that allow the transport to contact the escort vehicle (when used) and movement control center at all times. Redundant communications may not be subject to the same interference factors as the primary communication.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that shipments are continuously and actively monitored by a telemetric position monitoring system or an alternative tracking system reporting to a movement control center. A movement control center must provide positive confirmation of the location, status, and control over the shipment. The movement control center must be prepared to promptly implement preplanned procedures in response to deviations from the authorized route or a notification of actual, attempted, or suspicious activities related to the theft, loss, or diversion of a shipment. These procedures will include, but not be limited to, the identification of and contact information for the appropriate LLEA along the shipment route.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide an individual to accompany the driver for those highway shipments with a driving time period greater than the maximum number of allowable hours of service in a 24-hour duty day as established by the Department of Transportation Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration. The accompanying individual may be another driver.
</P>
<P>(v) Develop written normal and contingency procedures to address:
</P>
<P>(A) Notifications to the communication center and law enforcement agencies;
</P>
<P>(B) Communication protocols. Communication protocols must include a strategy for the use of authentication codes and duress codes and provisions for refueling or other stops, detours, and locations where communication is expected to be temporarily lost;
</P>
<P>(C) Loss of communications; and
</P>
<P>(D) Responses to an actual or attempted theft or diversion of a shipment.
</P>
<P>(vi) Each licensee who makes arrangements for the shipment of category 1 quantities of radioactive material shall ensure that drivers, accompanying personnel, and movement control center personnel have access to the normal and contingency procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee that transports category 2 quantities of radioactive material shall maintain constant control and/or surveillance during transit and have the capability for immediate communication to summon appropriate response or assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee who delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a category 2 quantity of radioactive material shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Use carriers that have established package tracking systems. An established package tracking system is a documented, proven, and reliable system routinely used to transport objects of value. In order for a package tracking system to maintain constant control and/or surveillance, the package tracking system must allow the shipper or transporter to identify when and where the package was last and when it should arrive at the next point of control.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use carriers that maintain constant control and/or surveillance during transit and have the capability for immediate communication to summon appropriate response or assistance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use carriers that have established tracking systems that require an authorized signature prior to releasing the package for delivery or return.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Shipments by rail.</I> (1) Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a category 1 quantity of radioactive material shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that rail shipments are monitored by a telemetric position monitoring system or an alternative tracking system reporting to the licensee, third-party, or railroad communications center. The communications center shall provide positive confirmation of the location of the shipment and its status. The communications center shall implement preplanned procedures in response to deviations from the authorized route or to a notification of actual, attempted, or suspicious activities related to the theft or diversion of a shipment. These procedures will include, but not be limited to, the identification of and contact information for the appropriate LLEA along the shipment route.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that periodic reports to the communications center are made at preset intervals.
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a category 2 quantity of radioactive material shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Use carriers that have established package tracking systems. An established package tracking system is a documented, proven, and reliable system routinely used to transport objects of value. In order for a package tracking system to maintain constant control and/or surveillance, the package tracking system must allow the shipper or transporter to identify when and where the package was last and when it should arrive at the next point of control.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use carriers that maintain constant control and/or surveillance during transit and have the capability for immediate communication to summon appropriate response or assistance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use carriers that have established tracking systems that require an authorized signature prior to releasing the package for delivery or return.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investigations.</I> Each licensee who makes arrangements for the shipment of category 1 quantities of radioactive material shall immediately conduct an investigation upon the discovery that a category 1 shipment is lost or missing. Each licensee who makes arrangements for the shipment of category 2 quantities of radioactive material shall immediately conduct an investigation, in coordination with the receiving licensee, of any shipment that has not arrived by the designated no-later-than arrival time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.4.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.81   Reporting of events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The shipping licensee shall notify the appropriate LLEA and the NRC's Operations Center (301-816-5100) within 1 hour of its determination that a shipment of category 1 quantities of radioactive material is lost or missing. The appropriate LLEA would be the law enforcement agency in the area of the shipment's last confirmed location. During the investigation required by § 37.79(c), the shipping licensee will provide agreed upon updates to the NRC's Operations Center on the status of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) The shipping licensee shall notify the NRC's Operations Center (301-816-5100) within 4 hours of its determination that a shipment of category 2 quantities of radioactive material is lost or missing. If, after 24 hours of its determination that the shipment is lost or missing, the radioactive material has not been located and secured, the licensee shall immediately notify the NRC's Operations Center.
</P>
<P>(c) The shipping licensee shall notify the designated LLEA along the shipment route as soon as possible upon discovery of any actual or attempted theft or diversion of a shipment or suspicious activities related to the theft or diversion of a shipment of a category 1 quantity of radioactive material. As soon as possible after notifying the LLEA, the licensee shall notify the NRC's Operations Center (301-816-5100) upon discovery of any actual or attempted theft or diversion of a shipment, or any suspicious activity related to the shipment of category 1 radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(d) The shipping licensee shall notify the NRC's Operations Center (301-816-5100) as soon as possible upon discovery of any actual or attempted theft or diversion of a shipment, or any suspicious activity related to the shipment, of a category 2 quantity of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(e) The shipping licensee shall notify the NRC's Operations Center (301-816-5100) and the LLEA as soon as possible upon recovery of any lost or missing category 1 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(f) The shipping licensee shall notify the NRC's Operations Center (301-816-5100) as soon as possible upon recovery of any lost or missing category 2 quantities of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(g) The initial telephonic notification required by paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section must be followed within a period of 30 days by a written report submitted to the NRC by an appropriate method listed in § 37.7. A written report is not required for notifications on suspicious activities required by paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. The report must set forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the licensed material involved, including kind, quantity, and chemical and physical form;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the circumstances under which the loss or theft occurred;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of disposition, or probable disposition, of the licensed material involved;
</P>
<P>(4) Actions that have been taken, or will be taken, to recover the material; and
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures or measures that have been, or will be, adopted to ensure against a recurrence of the loss or theft of licensed material.
</P>
<P>(h) Subsequent to filing the written report, the licensee shall also report any additional substantive information on the loss or theft within 30 days after the licensee learns of such information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.6.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.101   Form of records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform, provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.6.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.103   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees shall maintain the records that are required by the regulations in this part for the period specified by the appropriate regulation. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, these records must be retained until the Commission terminates the facility's license. All records related to this part may be destroyed upon Commission termination of the facility license.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.7.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.105   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall afford to the Commission at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material and the premises and facilities wherein the nuclear material is used, produced, or stored.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by the licensee pertaining to its receipt, possession, use, acquisition, import, export, or transfer of category 1 or category 2 quantities of radioactive material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.107" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.7.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.107   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended:
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under Section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.7.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.109   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in this part 37 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part 37 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 37.1, 37.3, 37.5, 37.7, 37.9, 37.11, 37.13, 37.107, and 37.109.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.27.7.94.4.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 37—Category 1 and Category 2 Radioactive Materials




</HEAD>
<HD1>Table 1—Category 1 and Category 2 Threshold
</HD1>
<P>The terabecquerel (TBq) values are the regulatory standard. The curie (Ci) values specified are obtained by converting from the TBq value. The curie values are provided for practical usefulness only.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radioactive material
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
<br/>(TBq)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 1
<br/>(Ci)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
<br/>(TBq)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 2
<br/>(Ci)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241/Be</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">810</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-239/Be</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,620</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,080,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,080</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P><I>Calculations Concerning Multiple Sources or Multiple Radionuclides</I>
</P>
<P>The ”sum of fractions” methodology for evaluating combinations of multiple sources or multiple radionuclides is to be used in determining whether a location meets or exceeds the threshold and is thus subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>I. If multiple sources of the same radionuclide and/or multiple radionuclides are aggregated at a location, the sum of the ratios of the total activity of each of the radionuclides must be determined to verify whether the activity at the location is less than the category 1 or category 2 thresholds of Table 1, as appropriate. If the calculated sum of the ratios, using the equation below, is greater than or equal to 1.0, then the applicable requirements of this part apply.
</P>
<P>II. First determine the total activity for each radionuclide from Table 1. This is done by adding the activity of each individual source, material in any device, and any loose or bulk material that contains the radionuclide. Then use the equation below to calculate the sum of the ratios by inserting the total activity of the applicable radionuclides from Table 1 in the numerator of the equation and the corresponding threshold activity from Table 1 in the denominator of the equation. Calculations must be performed in metric values (i.e., TBq) and the numerator and denominator values must be in the same units.</P></NOTE>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">1</E> = total activity for radionuclide 1
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">2</E> = total activity for radionuclide 2
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">N</E> = total activity for radionuclide n
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR<E T="52">1</E> = activity threshold for radionuclide 1
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR<E T="52">2</E> = activity threshold for radionuclide 2
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR<E T="52">N</E> = activity threshold for radionuclide n




</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er30no21.046.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17007, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 67842, Nov. 30, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 39—LICENSES AND RADIATION SAFETY REQUIREMENTS FOR WELL LOGGING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 57, 62, 63, 65, 69, 81, 161, 181, 182, 183, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2077, 2092, 2093, 2095, 2099, 2111, 2112, 2201, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.1.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part prescribes requirements for the issuance of a license authorizing the use of licensed materials including sealed sources, radioactive tracers, radioactive markers, and uranium sinker bars in well logging in a single well. This part also prescribes radiation safety requirements for persons using licensed materials in these operations. The provisions and requirements of this part are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements of this chapter. In particular, the provisions of parts 19, 20, 21, 30, 37, 40, 70, 71, and 150 of this chapter apply to applicants and licensees subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements set out in this part do not apply to the issuance of a license authorizing the use of licensed material in tracer studies involving multiple wells, such as field flooding studies, or to the use of sealed sources auxiliary to well logging but not lowered into wells.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 78 FR 17020, Mar. 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.1.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Energy compensation source</I> (ECS) means a small sealed source, with an activity not exceeding 3.7 MBq [100 microcuries], used within a logging tool, or other tool components, to provide a reference standard to maintain the tool's calibration when in use. 
</P>
<P><I>Field station</I> means a facility where licensed material may be stored or used and from which equipment is dispatched to temporary jobsites.
</P>
<P><I>Fresh water aquifer,</I> for the purpose of this part, means a geologic formation that is capable of yielding fresh water to a well or spring.
</P>
<P><I>Injection tool</I> means a device used for controlled subsurface injection of radioactive tracer material.
</P>
<P><I>Irretrievable well logging source</I> means any sealed source containing licensed material that is pulled off or not connected to the wireline that suspends the source in the well and for which all reasonable effort at recovery has been expended.
</P>
<P><I>Licensed material</I> means byproduct, source, or special nuclear material received, processed, used, or transferred under a license issued by the Commission under the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Logging assistant</I> means any individual who, under the personal supervision of a logging supervisor, handles sealed sources or tracers that are not in logging tools or shipping containers or who performs surveys required by § 39.67.
</P>
<P><I>Logging supervisor</I> means an individual who uses licensed material or provides personal supervision in the use of licensed material at a temporary jobsite and who is responsible to the licensee for assuring compliance with the requirements of the Commission's regulations and the conditions of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Logging tool</I> means a device used subsurface to perform well logging.
</P>
<P><I>Personal supervision</I> means guidance and instruction by a logging supervisor, who is physically present at a temporary jobsite, who is in personal contact with logging assistants, and who can give immediate assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive marker</I> means licensed material used for depth determination or direction orientation. For purposes of this part, this term includes radioactive collar markers and radioactive iron nails.
</P>
<P><I>Safety review</I> means a periodic review provided by the licensee for its employees on radiation safety aspects of well logging. The review may include, as appropriate, the results of internal inspections, new procedures or equipment, accidents or errors that have been observed, and opportunities for employees to ask safety questions.
</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any licensed material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the licensed material.
</P>
<P><I>Source holder</I> means a housing or assembly into which a sealed source is placed to facilitate the handling and use of the source in well logging.
</P>
<P><I>Subsurface tracer study</I> means the release of unsealed license material or a substance labeled with licensed material in a single well for the purpose of tracing the movement or position of the material or substance in the well or adjacent formation.
</P>
<P><I>Surface casing for protecting fresh water aquifers</I> means a pipe or tube used as a lining in a well to isolate fresh water aquifers from the well.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary jobsite</I> means a place where licensed materials are present for the purpose of performing well logging or subsurface tracer studies.
</P>
<P><I>Tritium neutron generator target source</I> means a tritium source used within a neutron generator tube to produce neutrons for use in well logging applications. 
</P>
<P><I>Uranium sinker bar</I> means a weight containing depleted uranium used to pull a logging tool toward the bottom of a well.
</P>
<P><I>Well</I> means a drilled hole in which well logging may be performed. As used in this part, “well” includes drilled holes for the purpose of oil, gas, mineral, groundwater, or geological exploration.
</P>
<P><I>Well logging</I> means all operations involving the lowering and raising of measuring devices or tools which contain licensed material or are used to detect licensed materials in wells for the purpose of obtaining information about the well or adjacent formations which may be used in oil, gas, mineral, groundwater, or geological exploration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 20344, Apr. 17, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.1.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission, other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel, will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended 90 FR 55630, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.1.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>) The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0130.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 39.11, 39.13, 39.15, 39.17, 39.31, 39.33, 39.35, 39.37, 39.39, 39.43, 39.51, 39.61, 39.63, 39.65, 39.67, 39.73, 39.75, 39.77, and 39.91.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 39.11, NRC Form 313 is approved under control 3150-0120.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52187, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 67099, Nov. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Licensing Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.2.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.11   Application for a specific license.</HEAD>
<P>A person, as defined in § 30.4 of this chapter, shall file an application for a specific license authorizing the use of licensed material in well logging on Form NRC 313, “Application for Material License.” Each application for a license, other than a license exempted from part 170 of this chapter, must be accompanied by the fee prescribed in § 170.31 of this chapter. The application must be sent to the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.2.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.13   Specific licenses for well logging.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will approve an application for a specific license for the use of licensed material in well logging if the applicant meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant shall satisfy the general requirements specified in § 30.33 of this chapter for byproduct material, in § 40.32 of this chapter for source material, and in § 70.23 of this chapter for special nuclear material, as appropriate, and any special requirements contained in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant shall develop a program for training logging supervisors and logging assistants and submit to the Commission a description of this program which specifies the—
</P>
<P>(1) Initial training;
</P>
<P>(2) On-the-job training;
</P>
<P>(3) Annual safety reviews provided by the licensee;
</P>
<P>(4) Means the applicant will use to demonstrate the logging supervisor's knowledge and understanding of and ability to comply with the Commission's regulations and licensing requirements and the applicant's operating and emergency procedures; and
</P>
<P>(5) Means the applicant will use to demonstrate the logging assistant's knowledge and understanding of and ability to comply with the applicant's operating and emergency procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant shall submit to the Commission written operating and emergency procedures as described in § 39.63 or an outline or summary of the procedures that includes the important radiation safety aspects of the procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant shall establish and submit to the Commission its program for annual inspections of the job performance of each logging supervisor to ensure that the Commission's regulations, license requirements, and the applicant's operating and emergency procedures are followed. Inspection records must be retained for 3 years after each annual internal inspection.
</P>
<P>(e) The applicant shall submit a description of its overall organizational structure as it applies to the radiation safety responsibilities in well logging, including specified delegations of authority and responsibility.
</P>
<P>(f) If an applicant wants to perform leak testing of sealed sources, the applicant shall identify the manufacturers and the model numbers of the leak test kits to be used. If the applicant wants to analyze its own wipe samples, the applicant shall establish procedures to be followed and submit a description of these procedures to the Commission. The description must include the—
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments to be used;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods of performing the analysis; and
</P>
<P>(3) Pertinent experience of the person who will analyze the wipe samples.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 76 FR 56963, Sept. 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.15" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.2.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.15   Agreement with well owner or operator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may perform well logging with a sealed source only after the licensee has a written agreement with the employing well owner or operator. This written agreement must identify who will meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) If a sealed source becomes lodged in the well, a reasonable effort will be made to recover it.
</P>
<P>(2) A person may not attempt to recover a sealed source in a manner which, in the licensee's opinion, could result in its rupture.
</P>
<P>(3) The radiation monitoring required in § 39.69(a) will be performed.
</P>
<P>(4) If the environment, any equipment, or personnel are contaminated with licensed material, they must be decontaminated before release from the site or release for unrestricted use; and
</P>
<P>(5) If the sealed source is classified as irretrievable after reasonable efforts at recovery have been expended, the following requirements must be implemented within 30 days:
</P>
<P>(i) Each irretrievable well logging source must be immobilized and sealed in place with a cement plug.
</P>
<P>(ii) A means to prevent inadvertent intrusion on the source, unless the source is not accessible to any subsequent drilling operations; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A permanent identification plaque, constructed of long lasting material such as stainless steel, brass, bronze, or monel, must be mounted at the surface of the well, unless the mounting of the plaque is not practical. The size of the plaque must be at least 17 cm [7 inches] square and 3 mm [


<FR>1/8</FR>-inch] thick. The plaque must contain— 
</P>
<P>(A) The word “CAUTION”;
</P>
<P>(B) The radiation symbol (the color requirement in § 20.1901(a) need not be met);
</P>
<P>(C) The date the source was abandoned;
</P>
<P>(D) The name of the well owner or well operator, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(E) The well name and well identification number(s) or other designation;
</P>
<P>(F) An identification of the sealed source(s) by radionuclide and quantity;
</P>
<P>(G) The depth of the source and depth to the top of the plug; and
</P>
<P>(H) An appropriate warning, such as, “DO NOT RE-ENTER THIS WELL.”
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain a copy of the written agreement for 3 years after the completion of the well logging operation.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee may apply, pursuant to § 39.91, for Commission approval, on a case-by-case basis, of proposed procedures to abandon an irretrievable well logging source in a manner not otherwise authorized in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A written agreement between the licensee and the well owner or operator is not required if the licensee and the well owner or operator are part of the same corporate structure or otherwise similarly affiliated. However, the licensee shall still otherwise meet the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 23472, May 21, 1991; 58 FR 67660, Dec. 22, 1993; 65 FR 20344, Apr. 17, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.17" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.2.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.17   Request for written statements.</HEAD>
<P>Each license is issued with the condition that the licensee will, at any time before expiration of the license, upon the Commission's request, submit written statements, signed under oath or affirmation, to enable the Commission to determine whether or not the license should be modified, suspended, or revoked.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.31   Labels, security, and transportation precautions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Labels.</I> (1) The licensee may not use a source, source holder, or logging tool that contains licensed material unless the smallest component that is transported as a separate piece of equipment with the licensed material inside bears a durable, legible, and clearly visible marking or label. The marking or label must contain the radiation symbol specified in § 20.1901(a), without the conventional color requirements, and the wording “DANGER (or CAUTION) RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL.”
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee may not use a container to store licensed material unless the container has securely attached to it a durable, legible, and clearly visible label. The label must contain the radiation symbol specified in § 20.1901(a) of this chapter and the wording “CAUTION (or DANGER), RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL, NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (or NAME OF COMPANY).”
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee may not transport licensed material unless the material is packaged, labeled, marked, and accompanied with appropriate shipping papers in accordance with regulations set out in 10 CFR part 71.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security precautions during storage and transportation.</I> (1) The licensee shall store each source containing licensed material in a storage container or transportation package. The container or package must be locked and physically secured to prevent tampering or removal of licensed material from storage by unauthorized personnel. The licensee shall store licensed material in a manner which will minimize danger from explosion or fire.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall lock and physically secure the transport package containing licensed material in the transporting vehicle to prevent accidental loss, tampering, or unauthorized removal of the licensed material from the vehicle.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 23472, May 21, 1991; 58 FR 67660, Dec. 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.33   Radiation detection instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall keep a calibrated and operable radiation survey instrument capable of detecting beta and gamma radiation at each field station and temporary jobsite to make the radiation surveys required by this part and by part 20 of this chapter. To satisfy this requirement, the radiation survey instrument must be capable of measuring 0.001 mSv (0.1 mrem) per hour through at least 0.5 mSv (50 mrem) per hour.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall have available additional calibrated and operable radiation detection instruments sensitive enough to detect the low radiation and contamination levels that could be encountered if a sealed source ruptured. The licensee may own the instruments or may have a procedure to obtain them quickly from a second party.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall have each radiation survey instrument required under paragraph (a) of this section calibrated—
</P>
<P>(1) At intervals not to exceed 6 months and after instrument servicing;
</P>
<P>(2) For linear scale instruments, at two points located approximately 
<FR>1/3</FR> and 
<FR>2/3</FR> of full-scale on each scale; for logarithmic scale instruments, at midrange of each decade, and at two points of at least one decade; and for digital instruments, at appropriate points; and
</P>
<P>(3) So that an accuracy within plus or minus 20 percent of the calibration standard can be demonstrated on each scale.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall retain calibration records for a period of 3 years after the date of calibration for inspection by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 39483, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.35   Leak testing of sealed sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Testing and recordkeeping requirements.</I> Each licensee who uses a sealed source shall have the source tested for leakage periodically. The licensee shall keep a record of leak test results in units of microcuries and retain the record for inspection by the Commission for 3 years after the leak test is performed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of testing.</I> The wipe of a sealed source must be performed using a leak test kit or method approved by the Commission or an Agreement State. The wipe sample must be taken from the nearest accessible point to the sealed source where contamination might accumulate. The wipe sample must be analyzed for radioactive contamination. The analysis must be capable of detecting the presence of 185 Bq [0.005 microcuries] of radioactive material on the test sample and must be performed by a person approved by the Commission or an Agreement State to perform the analysis. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Test frequency.</I> (1) Each sealed source (except an energy compensation source (ECS)) must be tested at intervals not to exceed 6 months. In the absence of a certificate from a transferor that a test has been made within the 6 months before the transfer, the sealed source may not be used until tested. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each ECS that is not exempt from testing in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section must be tested at intervals not to exceed 3 years. In the absence of a certificate from a transferor that a test has been made within the 3 years before the transfer, the ECS may not be used until tested. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Removal of leaking source from service.</I> (1) If the test conducted pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section reveals the presence of 185 Bq [0.005 microcuries] or more of removable radioactive material, the licensee shall remove the sealed source from service immediately and have it decontaminated, repaired, or disposed of by an NRC or Agreement State licensee that is authorized to perform these functions. The licensee shall check the equipment associated with the leaking source for radioactive contamination and, if contaminated, have it decontaminated or disposed of by an NRC or Agreement State licensee that is authorized to perform these functions. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall submit a report to the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter, within 5 days of receiving the test results. The report must describe the equipment involved in the leak, the test results, any contamination which resulted from the leaking source, and the corrective actions taken up to the time the report is made.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemptions from testing requirements.</I> The following sealed sources are exempt from the periodic leak test requirements set out in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Hydrogen-3 (tritium) sources; 
</P>
<P>(2) Sources containing licensed material with a half-life of 30 days or less;
</P>
<P>(3) Sealed sources containing licensed material in gaseous form;
</P>
<P>(4) Sources of beta- or gamma-emitting radioactive material with an activity of 3.7 MBq [100 microcuries] or less; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Sources of alpha- or neutron-emitting radioactive material with an activity of 0.37 MBq [10 microcuries] or less.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 20344, Apr. 17, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.37   Physical inventory.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall conduct a semi-annual physical inventory to account for all licensed material received and possessed under the license. The licensee shall retain records of the inventory for 3 years from the date of the inventory for inspection by the Commission. The inventory must indicate the quantity and kind of licensed material, the location of the licensed material, the date of the inventory, and the name of the individual conducting the inventory. Physical inventory records may be combined with leak test records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.39   Records of material use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain records for each use of licensed material showing—
</P>
<P>(1) The make, model number, and a serial number or a description of each sealed source used;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of unsealed licensed material used for subsurface tracer studies, the radionuclide and quantity of activity used in a particular well and the disposition of any unused tracer materials;
</P>
<P>(3) The identity of the logging supervisor who is responsible for the licensed material and the identity of logging assistants present; and
</P>
<P>(4) The location and date of use of the licensed material.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall make the records required by paragraph (a) of this section available for inspection by the Commission. The licensee shall retain the records for 3 years from the date of the recorded event.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.41   Design and performance criteria for sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may use a sealed source for use in well logging applications if— 
</P>
<P>(1) The sealed source is doubly encapsulated; 
</P>
<P>(2) The sealed source contains licensed material whose chemical and physical forms are as insoluble and nondispersible as practical; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Meets the requirements of paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) For a sealed source manufactured on or before July 14, 1989, a licensee may use the sealed source, for use in well logging applications if it meets the requirements of USASI N5.10-1968, “Classification of Sealed Radioactive Sources,” or the requirements in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) For a sealed source manufactured after July 14, 1989, a licensee may use the sealed source, for use in well logging applications if it meets the oil-well logging requirements of ANSI/HPS N43.6-1997, “Sealed Radioactive Sources—Classification.” 
</P>
<P>(d) For a sealed source manufactured after July 14, 1989, a licensee may use the sealed source, for use in well logging applications, if— 
</P>
<P>(1) The sealed source's prototype has been tested and found to maintain its integrity after each of the following tests: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Temperature.</I> The test source must be held at −40 °C for 20 minutes, 600 °C for 1 hour, and then be subject to a thermal shock test with a temperature drop from 600 °C to 20 °C within 15 seconds. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Impact test.</I> A 5 kg steel hammer, 2.5 cm in diameter, must be dropped from a height of 1 m onto the test source. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Vibration test.</I> The test source must be subject to a vibration from 25 Hz to 500 Hz at 5 g amplitude for 30 minutes. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Puncture test.</I> A 1 gram hammer and pin, 0.3 cm pin diameter, must be dropped from a height of 1 m onto the test source. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Pressure test.</I> The test source must be subject to an external pressure of 1.695 × 10


<SU>7</SU> pascals [24,600 pounds per square inch absolute]. 
</P>
<P>(e) The requirements in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section do not apply to sealed sources that contain licensed material in gaseous form. 
</P>
<P>(f) The requirements in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section do not apply to energy compensation sources (ECS). ECSs must be registered with the Commission under § 32.210 of this chapter or with an Agreement State.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 20345, Apr. 17, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.43   Inspection, maintenance, and opening of a source or source holder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall visually check source holders, logging tools, and source handling tools, for defects before each use to ensure that the equipment is in good working condition and that required labeling is present. If defects are found, the equipment must be removed from service until repaired, and a record must be made listing: the date of check, name of inspector, equipment involved, defects found, and repairs made. These records must be retained for 3 years after the defect is found.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall have a program for semiannual visual inspection and routine maintenance of source holders, logging tools, injection tools, source handling tools, storage containers, transport containers, and uranium sinker bars to ensure that the required labeling is legible and that no physical damage is visible. If defects are found, the equipment must be removed from service until repaired, and a record must be made listing: date, equipment involved, inspection and maintenance operations performed, any defects found, and any actions taken to correct the defects. These records must be retained for 3 years after the defect is found.
</P>
<P>(c) Removal of a sealed source from a source holder or logging tool, and maintenance on sealed sources or holders in which sealed sources are contained may not be performed by the licensee unless a written procedure developed pursuant to § 39.63 has been approved either by the Commission pursuant to § 39.13(c) or by an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(d) If a sealed source is stuck in the source holder, the licensee may not perform any operation, such as drilling, cutting, or chiseling, on the source holder unless the licensee is specifically approved by the Commission or an Agreement State to perform this operation.
</P>
<P>(e) The opening, repair, or modification of any sealed source must be performed by persons specifically approved to do so by the Commission or an Agreement State.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.45   Subsurface tracer studies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall require all personnel handling radioactive tracer material to use protective gloves and, if required by the license, other protective clothing and equipment. The licensee shall take precautions to avoid ingestion or inhalation of radioactive tracer material and to avoid contamination of field stations and temporary jobsites.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee may not knowingly inject licensed material into fresh water aquifers unless specifically authorized to do so by the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.47   Radioactive markers.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee may use radioactive markers in wells only if the individual markers contain quantities of licensed material not exceeding the quantities specified in § 30.71 of this chapter. The use of markers is subject only to the requirements of § 39.37.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.49" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.49   Uranium sinker bars.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee may use a uranium sinker bar in well logging applications only if it is legibly impressed with the words “CAUTION—RADIOACTIVE-DEPLETED URANIUM” and “NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (or COMPANY NAME) IF FOUND.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 20345, Apr. 17, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.51   Use of a sealed source in a well without a surface casing.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee may use a sealed source in a well without a surface casing for protecting fresh water aquifers only if the licensee follows a procedure for reducing the probability of the source becoming lodged in the well. The procedure must be approved by the Commission pursuant to § 39.13(c) or by an Agreement State.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.53   Energy compensation source.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee may use an energy compensation source (ECS) which is contained within a logging tool, or other tool components, only if the ECS contains quantities of licensed material not exceeding 3.7 MBq [100 microcuries]. 
</P>
<P>(a) For well logging applications with a surface casing for protecting fresh water aquifers, use of the ECS is only subject to the requirements of §§ 39.35, 39.37 and 39.39. 
</P>
<P>(b) For well logging applications without a surface casing for protecting fresh water aquifers, use of the ECS is only subject to the requirements of §§ 39.15, 39.35, 39.37, 39.39, 39.51, and 39.77.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 20345, Apr. 17, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.3.94.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.55   Tritium neutron generator target sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Use of a tritium neutron generator target source, containing quantities not exceeding 1,110 GBg [30 curies] and in a well with a surface casing to protect fresh water aquifers, is subject to the requirements of this part except §§ 39.15, 39.41, and 39.77.
</P>
<P>(b) Use of a tritium neutron generator target source, containing quantities exceeding 1,110 GBg [30 curies] or in a well without a surface casing to protect fresh water aquifers, is subject to the requirements of this part except § 39.41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 75390, Dec. 31, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Radiation Safety Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.4.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.61   Training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee may not permit an individual to act as a logging supervisor until that person—
</P>
<P>(1) Has completed training in the subjects outlined in paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Has received copies of, and instruction in—
</P>
<P>(i) The NRC regulations contained in the applicable sections of parts 19, 20, and 39 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) The NRC license under which the logging supervisor will perform well logging; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee's operating and emergency procedures required by § 39.63;
</P>
<P>(3) Has completed on-the-job training and demonstrated competence in the use of licensed materials, remote handling tools, and radiation survey instruments by a field evaluation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has demonstrated understanding of the requirements in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section by successfully completing a written test.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee may not permit an individual to act as a logging assistant until that person—
</P>
<P>(1) Has received instruction in applicable sections of parts 19 and 20 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Has received copies of, and instruction in, the licensee's operating and emergency procedures required by § 39.63;
</P>
<P>(3) Has demonstrated understanding of the materials listed in paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section by successfully completing a written or oral test; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has received instruction in the use of licensed materials, remote handling tools, and radiation survey instruments, as appropriate for the logging assistant's intended job responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall provide safety reviews for logging supervisors and logging assistants at least once during each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall maintain a record on each logging supervisor's and logging assistant's training and annual safety review. The training records must include copies of written tests and dates of oral tests given after July 14, 1987. The training records must be retained until 3 years following the termination of employment. Records of annual safety reviews must list the topics discussed and be retained for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall include the following subjects in the training required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Fundamentals of radiation safety including—
</P>
<P>(i) Characteristics of radiation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Units of radiation dose and quantity of radioactivity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Hazards of exposure to radiation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Levels of radiation from licensed material;
</P>
<P>(v) Methods of controlling radiation dose (time, distance, and shielding); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Radiation safety practices, including prevention of contamination, and methods of decontamination.
</P>
<P>(2) Radiation detection instruments including—
</P>
<P>(i) Use, operation, calibration, and limitations of radiation survey instruments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Survey techniques; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use of personnel monitoring equipment;
</P>
<P>(3) Equipment to be used including—
</P>
<P>(i) Operation of equipment, including source handling equipment and remote handling tools;
</P>
<P>(ii) Storage, control, and disposal of licensed material; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintenance of equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of pertinent Federal regulations. And
</P>
<P>(5) Case histories of accidents in well logging.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.4.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.63   Operating and emergency procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall develop and follow written operating and emergency procedures that cover—
</P>
<P>(a) The handling and use of licensed materials including the use of sealed sources in wells without surface casing for protecting fresh water aquifers, if appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) The use of remote handling tools for handling sealed sources and radioactive tracer material except low-activity calibration sources;
</P>
<P>(c) Methods and occasions for conducting radiation surveys, including surveys for detecting contamination, as required by § 39.67(c)-(e);
</P>
<P>(d) Minimizing personnel exposure including exposures from inhalation and ingestion of licensed tracer materials;
</P>
<P>(e) Methods and occasions for locking and securing stored licensed materials;
</P>
<P>(f) Personnel monitoring and the use of personnel monitoring equipment;
</P>
<P>(g) Transportation of licensed materials to field stations or temporary jobsites, packaging of licensed materials for transport in vehicles, placarding of vehicles when needed, and physically securing licensed materials in transport vehicles during transportation to prevent accidental loss, tampering, or unauthorized removal;
</P>
<P>(h) Picking up, receiving, and opening packages containing licensed materials, in accordance with § 20.1906 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(i) For the use of tracers, decontamination of the environment, equipment, and personnel;
</P>
<P>(j) Maintenance of records generated by logging personnel at temporary jobsites;
</P>
<P>(k) The inspection and maintenance of sealed sources, source holders, logging tools, injection tools, source handling tools, storage containers, transport containers, and uranium sinker bars as required by § 39.43;
</P>
<P>(l) Identifying and reporting to NRC defects and noncompliance as required by part 21 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(m) Actions to be taken if a sealed source is lodged in a well;
</P>
<P>(n) Notifying proper persons in the event of an accident; and
</P>
<P>(o) Actions to be taken if a sealed source is ruptured including actions to prevent the spread of contamination and minimize inhalation and ingestion of licensed materials and actions to obtain suitable radiation survey instruments as required by § 39.33(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 67 FR 77652, Dec. 19, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.4.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.65   Personnel monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee may not permit an individual to act as a logging supervisor or logging assistant unless that person wears a personnel dosimeter at all times during the handling of licensed radioactive materials. Each personnel dosimeter must be assigned to and worn by only one individual. Film badges must be replaced at least monthly and all other personnel dosimeters that require replacement must be replaced at least quarterly. All personnel dosimeters must be evaluated at least quarterly or promptly after replacement, whichever is more frequent.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall provide bioassay services to individuals using licensed materials in subsurface tracer studies if required by the license.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall retain records of personnel dosimeters required by paragraph (a) of this section and bioassay results for inspection until the Commission authorizes disposition of the records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 65 FR 63752, Oct. 24, 2000; 85 FR 15352, Mar. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.4.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.67   Radiation surveys.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall make radiation surveys, including but not limited to the surveys required under paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, of each area where licensed materials are used and stored.
</P>
<P>(b) Before transporting licensed materials, the licensee shall make a radiation survey of the position occupied by each individual in the vehicle and of the exterior of each vehicle used to transport the licensed materials.
</P>
<P>(c) If the sealed source assembly is removed from the logging tool before departure from the temporary jobsite, the licensee shall confirm that the logging tool is free of contamination by energizing the logging tool detector or by using a survey meter.
</P>
<P>(d) If the licensee has reason to believe that, as a result of any operation involving a sealed source, the encapsulation of the sealed source could be damaged by the operation, the licensee shall conduct a radiation survey, including a contamination survey, during and after the operation.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall make a radiation survey at the temporary jobsite before and after each subsurface tracer study to confirm the absence of contamination.
</P>
<P>(f) The results of surveys required under paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section must be recorded and must include the date of the survey, the name of the individual making the survey, the identification of the survey, instrument used, and the location of the survey. The licensee shall retain records of surveys for inspection by the Commission for 3 years after they are made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.69" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.4.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.69   Radioactive contamination control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the licensee detects evidence that a sealed source has ruptured or licensed materials have caused contamination, the licensee shall initiate immediately the emergency procedures required by § 39.63.
</P>
<P>(b) If contamination results from the use of licensed material in well logging, the licensee shall decontaminate all work areas, equipment, and unrestricted areas.
</P>
<P>(c) During efforts to recover a sealed source lodged in the well, the licensee shall continuously monitor, with an appropriate radiation detection instrument or a logging tool with a radiation detector, the circulating fluids from the well, if any, to check for contamination resulting from damage to the sealed source.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Security, Records, Notifications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.5.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.71   Security.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A logging supervisor must be physically present at a temporary jobsite whenever licensed materials are being handled or are not stored and locked in a vehicle or storage place. The logging supervisor may leave the jobsite in order to obtain assistance if a source becomes lodged in a well.
</P>
<P>(b) During well logging, except when radiation sources are below ground or in shipping or storage containers, the logging supervisor or other individual designated by the logging supervisor shall maintain direct surveillance of the operation to prevent unauthorized entry into a restricted area, as defined in § 20.1003 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 39483, July 23, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.73" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.5.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.73   Documents and records required at field stations.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall maintain the following documents and records at the field station:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of parts 19, 20, and 39 of NRC regulations;
</P>
<P>(b) The license authorizing the use of licensed material;
</P>
<P>(c) Operating and emergency procedures required by § 39.63;
</P>
<P>(d) The record of radiation survey instrument calibrations required by § 39.33;
</P>
<P>(e) The record of leak test results required by § 39.35;
</P>
<P>(f) Physical inventory records required by § 39.37;
</P>
<P>(g) Utilization records required by § 39.39;
</P>
<P>(h) Records of inspection and maintenance required by § 39.43;
</P>
<P>(i) Training records required by § 39.61(d); and
</P>
<P>(j) Survey records required by § 39.67.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.75" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.5.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.75   Documents and records required at temporary jobsites.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee conducting operations at a temporary jobsite shall maintain the following documents and records at the temporary jobsite until the well logging operation is completed:
</P>
<P>(a) Operating and emergency procedures required by § 39.63.
</P>
<P>(b) Evidence of latest calibration of the radiation survey instruments in use at the site required by § 39.33.
</P>
<P>(c) Latest survey records required by §§ 39.67 (b), (c), and (e).
</P>
<P>(d) The shipping papers for the transportation of radioactive materials required by § 71.5 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(e) When operating under reciprocity pursuant to § 150.20 of this chapter, a copy of the Agreement State license authorizing use of licensed materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.77" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.5.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.77   Notification of incidents and lost sources; abandonment procedures for irretrievable sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall immediately notify the appropriate NRC Regional Office by telephone and subsequently, within 30 days, by confirmation in writing, using an appropriate method listed in § 30.6(a) of this chapter, if the licensee knows or has reason to believe that a sealed source has been ruptured. The written confirmation must designate the well or other location, describe the magnitude and extent of the escape of licensed materials, assess the consequences of the rupture, and explain efforts planned or being taken to mitigate these consequences. 
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall notify the Commission of the theft or loss of radioactive materials, radiation overexposures, excessive levels and concentrations of radiation, and certain other accidents as required by §§ 20.2201-20.2202, § 20.2203 and § 30.50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) If a sealed source becomes lodged in a well, and when it becomes apparent that efforts to recover the sealed source will not be successful, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the appropriate NRC Regional Office by telephone of the circumstances that resulted in the inability to retrieve the source and— 
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain NRC approval to implement abandonment procedures; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) That the licensee implemented abandonment before receiving NRC approval because the licensee believed there was an immediate threat to public health and safety; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the well owner or operator, as appropriate, of the abandonment procedures under § 39.15 (a) or (c); and
</P>
<P>(3) Either ensure that abandonment procedures are implemented within 30 days after the sealed source has been classified as irretrievable or request an extension of time if unable to complete the abandonment procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall, within 30 days after a sealed source has been classified as irretrievable, make a report in writing to the appropriate NRC Regional Office. The licensee shall send a copy of the report to each appropriate State or Federal agency that issued permits or otherwise approved of the drilling operation. The report must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Date of occurrence;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the irretrievable well logging source involved including the radionuclide and its quantity, chemical, and physical form;
</P>
<P>(3) Surface location and identification of the well;
</P>
<P>(4) Results of efforts to immobilize and seal the source in place;
</P>
<P>(5) A brief description of the attempted recovery effort;
</P>
<P>(6) Depth of the source;
</P>
<P>(7) Depth of the top of the cement plug;
</P>
<P>(8) Depth of the well;
</P>
<P>(9) The immediate threat to public health and safety justification for implementing abandonment if prior NRC approval was not obtained in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(10) Any other information, such as a warning statement, contained on the permanent identification plaque; and
</P>
<P>(11) State and Federal agencies receiving copy of this report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 64980, Dec. 13, 1991; 58 FR 67660, Dec. 22, 1993; 65 FR 20345, Apr. 17, 2000; 68 FR 58806, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.91" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.6.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.91   Applications for exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 8234, Mar. 17, 1987, as amended at 90 FR 55630, Dec. 3, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.7.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.101   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55074, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 39.103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.28.7.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 39.103   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 39 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 39 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 39.1, 39.2, 39.5, 39.8, 39.13, 39.91, 39.101, and 39.103.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55074, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="40" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 40—DOMESTIC LICENSING OF SOURCE MATERIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 62, 63, 64, 65, 69, 81, 83, 84, 122, 161, 181, 182, 183, 184, 186, 187, 193, 223, 234, 274, 275 (42 U.S.C. 2092, 2093, 2094, 2095, 2099, 2111, 2113, 2114, 2152, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2236, 2237, 2243, 2273, 2282, 2021, 2022); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, sec. 104 (42 U.S.C. 7914); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 40 appear at 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV7 N="94" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part establish procedures and criteria for the issuance of licenses to receive title to, receive, possess, use, transfer, or deliver source and byproduct materials, as defined in this part, and establish and provide for the terms and conditions upon which the Commission will issue such licenses. (Additional requirements applicable to natural and depleted uranium at enrichment facilities are set forth in § 70.22 of this chapter.) These regulations also provide for the disposal of byproduct material and for the long-term care and custody of byproduct material and residual radioactive material. The regulations in this part also establish certain requirements for the physical protection of import, export, and transient shipments of natural uranium. (Additional requirements applicable to the import and export of natural uranium are set forth in part 110 of this chapter.)
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations contained in this part are issued under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919), title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended (88 Stat. 1242), and titles I and II of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended (42 U.S.C. 7901).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 45597, Oct. 30, 1990, as amended at 56 FR 55997, Oct. 31, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 40.11 to 40.14, inclusive, the regulations in this part apply to all persons in the United States. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 40.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1896, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.2a" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.2a   Coverage of inactive tailings sites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to the completion of the remedial action, the Commission will not require a license pursuant to 10 CFR chapter I for possession of residual radioactive materials as defined in this part that are located at a site where milling operations are no longer active, if the site is covered by the remedial action program of title I of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended. The Commission will exert its regulatory role in remedial actions primarily through concurrence and consultation in the execution of the remedial action pursuant to title I of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended. After remedial actions are completed, the Commission will license the long-term care of sites, where residual radioactive materials are disposed, under the requirements set out in § 40.27.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will regulate byproduct material as defined in this part that is located at a site where milling operations are no longer active, if such site is not covered by the remedial action program of title I of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978. The criteria in appendix A of this part will be applied to such sites.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65531, Oct. 3, 1980, as amended at 55 FR 45598, Oct. 30, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.3   License requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A person subject to the regulations in this part may not receive title to, own, receive, possess, use, transfer, provide for long-term care, deliver or dispose of byproduct material or residual radioactive material as defined in this part or any source material after removal from its place of deposit in nature, unless authorized in a specific or general license issued by the Commission under the regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 45598, Oct. 30, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919), including any amendments thereto;
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means any State with which the Atomic Energy Commission or the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Alert</I> means events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a release of radioactive material but that the release is not expected to require a response by offsite response organizations to protect persons offsite.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct Material</I> means the tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from any ore processed primarily for its source material content, including discrete surface wastes resulting from uranium solution extraction processes. Underground ore bodies depleted by such solution extraction operations do not constitute “byproduct material” within this definition.
</P>
<P>With the exception of “byproduct material” as defined in section 11e. of the Act, other terms defined in section 11 of the Act shall have the same meaning when used in the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means taking any action defined as “construction” or any other activity at the site of a facility subject to the regulations in this part that has a reasonable nexus to:
</P>
<P>(1) Radiological health and safety; or
</P>
<P>(2) Common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the installation of wells associated with radiological operations (e.g., production, injection, or monitoring well networks associated with in-situ recovery or other facilities), the installation of foundations, or in-place assembly, erection, fabrication, or testing for any structure, system, or component of a facility or activity subject to the regulations in this part that are related to radiological safety or security. The term “construction” does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Changes for temporary use of the land for public recreational purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Site exploration, including necessary borings to determine foundation conditions or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site, the environmental impacts of construction or operation, or the protection of environmental values;
</P>
<P>(3) Preparation of the site for construction of the facility, including clearing of the site, grading, installation of drainage, erosion and other environmental mitigation measures, and construction of temporary roads and borrow areas;
</P>
<P>(4) Erection of fences and other access control measures that are not related to the safe use of, or security of, radiological materials subject to this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Excavation;
</P>
<P>(6) Erection of support buildings (e.g., construction equipment storage sheds, warehouse and shop facilities, utilities, concrete mixing plants, docking and unloading facilities, and office buildings) for use in connection with the construction of the facility;
</P>
<P>(7) Building of service facilities (e.g., paved roads, parking lots, railroad spurs, exterior utility and lighting systems, potable water systems, sanitary sewerage treatment facilities, and transmission lines);
</P>
<P>(8) Procurement or fabrication of components or portions of the proposed facility occurring at other than the final, in-place location at the facility; or
</P>
<P>(9) Taking any other action that has no reasonable nexus to:
</P>
<P>(i) Radiological health and safety, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> means the United States Enrichment Corporation (USEC), or its successor, a Corporation that is authorized by statute to lease the gaseous diffusion enrichment plants in Paducah, Kentucky, and Piketon, Ohio, from the Department of Energy, or any person authorized to operate one or both of the gaseous diffusion plants, or other facilities, pursuant to a plan for the privatization of USEC that is approved by the President.
</P>
<P><I>Decommission</I> means to remove a facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits—
</P>
<P>(1) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or
</P>
<P>(2) Release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> and <I>Department of Energy</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>) to the extent that the Department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the U.S. Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components and transferred to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104 (b), (c) and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151).
</P>
<P><I>Depleted uranium</I> means the source material uranium in which the isotope uranium-235 is less than 0.711 weight percent of the total uranium present. Depleted uranium does not include special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Effective kilogram</I> means (1) for the source material uranium in which the uranium isotope uranium-235 is greater than 0.005 (0.5 weight percent) of the total uranium present: 10,000 kilograms, and (2) for any other source material: 20,000 kilograms.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign obligations</I> means the commitments entered into by the U.S. Government under Atomic Energy Act (AEA) section 123 agreements for cooperation in the peaceful uses of atomic energy. Imports and exports of material or equipment pursuant to such agreements are subject to these commitments, which in some cases involve an exchange of information on imports, exports, retransfers with foreign governments, peaceful end-use assurances, and other conditions placed on the transfer of the material or equipment. The U.S. Government informs the licensee of obligations attached to material.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government.
</P>
<P><I>License,</I> except where otherwise specified, means a license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Persons</I> means: (1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy except that the Department of Energy shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244) and the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978 (92 Stat. 3021), any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Pharmacist</I> means an individual registered by a state or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to compound and dispense drugs, prescriptions and poisons.
</P>
<P><I>Physician</I> means a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy licensed by a State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to prescribe drugs in the practice of medicine.
</P>
<P><I>Principal activities,</I> as used in this part, means activities authorized by the license which are essential to achieving the purpose(s) for which the license was issued or amended. Storage during which no licensed material is accessed for use or disposal and activities incidental to decontamination or decommissioning are not principal activities.
</P>
<P><I>Reconciliation</I> means the process of evaluating and comparing licensee reports required under this part to the projected material balances generated by the Nuclear Materials Management and Safeguards System. This process is considered complete when the licensee resolves any differences between the reported and projected balances, including those listed for foreign obligated materials.
</P>
<P><I>Residual radioactive material</I> means: (1) Waste (which the Secretary of Energy determines to be radioactive) in the form of tailings resulting from the processing of ores for the extraction of uranium and other valuable constituents of the ores; and (2) other waste (which the Secretary of Energy determines to be radioactive) at a processing site which relates to such processing, including any residual stock of unprocessed ores or low-grade materials. This term is used only with respect to materials at sites subject to remediation under title I of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Site area emergency</I> means events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a significant release of radioactive material and that could require a response by offsite response organizations to protect persons offsite.
</P>
<P><I>Source Material</I> means: (1) Uranium or thorium, or any combination thereof, in any physical or chemical form or (2) ores which contain by weight one-twentieth of one percent (0.05%) or more of: (i) Uranium, (ii) thorium or (iii) any combination thereof. Source material does not include special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means: (1) Plutonium, uranium 233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Act, determines to be special nuclear material; or (2) any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Transient shipment</I> means a shipment of nuclear material, originating and terminating in foreign countries, on a vessel or aircraft that stops at a United States port.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Unrefined and unprocessed ore</I> means ore in its natural form prior to any processing, such as grinding, roasting or beneficiating, or refining. Processing does not include sieving or encapsulation of ore or preparation of samples for laboratory analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Uranium enrichment facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any facility used for separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device, or important component part especially designed for such equipment or device, capable of separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235.
</P>
<P><I>Uranium Milling</I> means any activity that results in the production of byproduct material as defined in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 40.4, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise specified or covered under the regional licensing program as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, any communication or report concerning the regulations in this part and any application filed under these regulations may be submitted to the Commission as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, or Director, Office of Nuclear Security, or Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, as appropriate, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
</P>
<P>(2) By hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
</P>
<P>(3) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission has delegated to the four Regional Administrators licensing authority for selected parts of its decentralized licensing program for nuclear materials as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Any communication, report, or application covered under this licensing program must be submitted to the appropriate Regional Administrator. The administrators' jurisdictions and mailing addresses are listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The delegated licensing program includes authority to issue, renew, amend, cancel, modify, suspend, or revoke licenses for nuclear materials issued pursuant to 10 CFR parts 30 through 36, 39, 40, and 70 to all persons for academic, medical, and industrial uses, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) Activities in the fuel cycle and special nuclear material in quantities sufficient to constitute a critical mass in any room or area. This exception does not apply to license modifications relating to termination of special nuclear material licenses that authorize possession of larger quantities when the case is referred for action from NRC's Headquarters to the Regional Administrators.
</P>
<P>(ii) Health and safety design review of sealed sources and devices and approval, for licensing purposes, of sealed sources and devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Processing of source material for extracting of metallic compounds (including Zirconium, Hafnium, Tantalum, Titanium, Niobium, etc.).
</P>
<P>(iv) Distribution of products containing radioactive material under §§ 32.11 through 32.30 and 40.52 of this chapter to persons exempt from licensing requirements.
</P>
<P>(v) New uses or techniques for use of byproduct, source, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(vi) Uranium enrichment facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submissions</I>—(i) <I>Region I.</I> The regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region I non-Agreement States and the District of Columbia: Connecticut, Delaware, and Vermont. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region I, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415; where email is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn1MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Region II.</I> The regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region II non-Agreement States and territories: West Virginia, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region I, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415; where email is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn1MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Region III.</I> (A) The regional licensing program for mining and milling involves all Federal facilities in the region, and non-Federal licensees in the Region III non-Agreement States of Indiana, Michigan, Missouri and Region III Agreement States of Minnesota, Wisconsin, and Iowa. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region III, Material Licensing Section, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352; where e-mail is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn3MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Otherwise, the regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region III non-Agreement States: Indiana, Michigan, and Missouri. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region III, Material Licensing Section, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352; where e-mail is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn3MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> Outside of this jurisdiction, concerning the licensing program involving mining and milling, the Agreement States of Illinois and Ohio should be contacted.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Region IV.</I> (A) The regional licensing program for mining and milling involves all Federal facilities in the region, and non-Federal licensees in the Region IV non-Agreement States and territory of Alaska, Hawaii, Idaho, Montana, South Dakota, Wyoming and Guam and Region IV Agreement States of Oregon, California, Nevada, New Mexico, Louisiana, Mississippi, Arkansas, Oklahoma, Kansas, Nebraska, and North Dakota. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region IV, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511; where email is appropriate, it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Otherwise, the regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region IV non-Agreement States and territory: Alaska, Hawaii, Idaho, Montana, South Dakota, Wyoming, and Guam. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region IV, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511; where email is appropriate, it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16031, Apr. 14, 1983] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 40.5, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.6" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.6   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.  
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961, as amended at 90 FR 55630, Dec. 3, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.7   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act.
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text.
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation.
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages.
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraphs (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant may be grounds for—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license.
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each specific licensee, each applicant for a specific license, and each general licensee subject to part 19 shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees”, referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) The posting of NRC Form 3 must be at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, and for 30 days following license termination.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I></P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 52409, Oct. 8, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 61 FR 6765, Feb. 22, 1996; 68 FR 58806, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63973, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30458, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66603, Nov. 10, 2014; 83 FR 58465, Nov. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0020.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 40.9, 40.14, 40.22, 40.23, 40.25, 40.26, 40.27, 40.31, 40.34, 40.35, 40.36, 40.41, 40.42, 40.43, 40.44, 40.51, 40.52, 40.53, 40.54, 40.55, 40.60, 40.61, 40.64, 40.65, 40.66, 40.67, and appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In §§ 40.31, 40.43, 40.44, and appendix A, NRC Form 313 is approved under control number 3150-0120.
</P>
<P>(2) In § 40.31, DOC/NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control numbers 0694-0135.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 40.31, IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms  are approved under control number 3150-0056.
</P>
<P>(4) In § 40.42, NRC Form 314 is approved under control number 3150-0028.
</P>
<P>(5) In § 40.64, DOE/NRC Form 741 is approved under control number 3150-0003.
</P>
<P>(6) In §§ 40.25 and 40.35, NRC Form 244 is approved under control number 3150-0031.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19626, May 9, 1984, as amended at 56 FR 40768, Aug. 16, 1991; 58 FR 68731, Dec. 29, 1993; 62 FR 52187, Oct. 6, 1997; 73 FR 78604, Dec. 23, 2008; 77 FR 39906, July 6, 2012; 78 FR 32338, May 29, 2013; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.9   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant or licensee shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant or licensee violates this paragraph only if the applicant or licensee fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant or licensee has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification shall be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within two working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or undating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49371, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.94.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.10   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, applicant for a license, employee of a licensee or applicant; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or applicant for a license, who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities in this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, an applicant, or a licensee's or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1896, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="95" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.95" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.95.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.11   Persons using source material under certain Department of Energy and Nuclear Regulatory Commission contracts.</HEAD>
<P>Except to the extent that Department facilities or activities of the types subject to licensing pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 or the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978 are involved, any prime contractor of the Department is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in sections 62, 63, and 64 of the Act and from the regulations in this part to the extent that such contractor, under his prime contract with the Department, receives, possesses, uses, transfers or delivers source material for: (a) The performance of work for the Department at a United States Government-owned or controlled site, including the transportation of source material to or from such site and the performance of contract services during temporary interruptions of such transportation; (b) research in, or development, manufacture, storage, testing or transportation of, atomic weapons or components thereof; or (c) the use or operation of nuclear reactors or other nuclear devices in a United States Government-owned vehicle or vessel. In addition to the foregoing exemptions, and subject to the requirement for licensing of Department facilities and activities pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 or the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1980, any prime contractor or subcontractor of the Department or the Commission is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in sections 62, 63, and 64 of the Act and from the regulations in this part to the extent that such prime contractor or subcontractor receives, possesses, uses, transfers or delivers source material under his prime contract or subcontract when the Commission determines that the exemption of the prime contractor or subcontractor is authorized by law; and that, under the terms of the contract or subcontract, there is adequate assurance that the work thereunder can be accomplished without undue risk to the public health and safety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8787, Mar. 3, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 45 FR 65531, Oct. 3, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.95.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.12   Carriers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, common and contract carriers, freight forwarders, warehousemen, and the U.S. Postal Service are exempt from the regulations in this part and the requirements for a license set forth in section 62 of the Act to the extent that they transport or store source material in the regular course of the carriage for another or storage incident thereto.
</P>
<P>(b) The exemption in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to a person who possesses a transient shipment (as defined in § 40.4(r)), an import shipment, or an export shipment of natural uranium in an amount exceeding 500 kilograms, unless the shipment is in the form of ore or ore residue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9651, Mar. 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.95.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.13   Unimportant quantities of source material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person is exempt from the regulations in this part and from the requirements for a license set forth in section 62 of the Act to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, transfers or delivers source material in any chemical mixture, compound, solution, or alloy in which the source material is by weight less than one-twentieth of 1 percent (0.05 percent) of the mixture, compound, solution or alloy. The exemption contained in this paragraph does not apply to Australian-obligated source material, nor does it include byproduct materials as defined in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person is exempt from the regulations in this part and from the requirements for a license set forth in section 62 of the act to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, or transfers unrefined and unprocessed ore containing source material; provided, that, except as authorized in a specific license, such person shall not refine or process such ore.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 62 of the Act and from the regulations in this part and parts 19, 20, and 21 of this chapter to the extent that such person receives, possesses, uses, or transfers:
</P>
<P>(1) Any quantities of thorium contained in (i) incandescent gas mantles, (ii) vacuum tubes, (iii) welding rods, (iv) electric lamps for illuminating purposes: <I>Provided,</I> That each lamp does not contain more than 50 milligrams of thorium, (v) germicidal lamps, sunlamps, and lamps for outdoor or industrial lighting: <I>Provided,</I> That each lamp does not contain more than 2 grams of thorium, (vi) rare earth metals and compounds, mixtures, and products containing not more than 0.25 percent by weight thorium, uranium, or any combination of these, or (vii) personnel neutron dosimeters: <I>Provided,</I> That each dosimeter does not contain more than 50 milligrams of thorium.
</P>
<P>(2) Source material contained in the following products:
</P>
<P>(i) Glazed ceramic tableware manufactured before August 27, 2013, provided that the glaze contains not more than 20 percent by weight source material;
</P>
<P>(ii) Piezoelectric ceramic containing not more than 2 percent by weight source material;
</P>
<P>(iii) Glassware containing not more than 2 percent by weight source material or, for glassware manufactured before August 27, 2013, 10 percent by weight source material; but not including commercially manufactured glass brick, pane glass, ceramic tile, or other glass or ceramic used in construction;
</P>
<P>(iv) Glass enamel or glass enamel frit containing not more than 10 percent by weight source material imported or ordered for importation into the United States, or initially distributed by manufacturers in the United States, before July 25, 1983. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> On July 25, 1983, the exemption of glass enamel or glass enamel frit was suspended. The exemption was eliminated on September 11, 1984.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Photographic film, negatives, and prints containing uranium or thorium;
</P>
<P>(4) Any finished product or part fabricated of, or containing tungsten or magnesium-thorium alloys, provided that the thorium content of the alloy does not exceed 4 percent by weight and that the exemption contained in this subparagraph shall not be deemed to authorize the chemical, physical or metallurgical treatment or processing of any such product or part; and
</P>
<P>(5) Uranium contained in counterweights installed in aircraft, rockets, projectiles, and missiles, or stored or handled in connection with installation or removal of such counterweights: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(i) Each counterweight has been impressed with the following legend clearly legible through any plating or other covering: “Depleted Uranium”; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section need not be met by counterweights manufactured prior to Dec. 31, 1969, provided that such counterweights were manufactured under a specific license issued by the Atomic Energy Commission and were impressed with the legend required by § 40.13(c)(5)(ii) in effect on June 30, 1969.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Each counterweight is durably and legibly labeled or marked with the identification of the manufacturer, and the statement: “Unauthorized Alterations Prohibited”; 
<SU>2</SU> and
</P>
<P>(iii) The exemption contained in this paragraph shall not be deemed to authorize the chemical, physical, or metallurgical treatment or processing of any such counterweights other than repair or restoration of any plating or other covering.
</P>
<P>(iv) Consistent with § 40.56, the counterweights are not manufactured for a military purpose using Australian-obligated source material.
</P>
<P>(6) Natural or depleted uranium metal used as shielding constituting part of any shipping container: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(i) The shipping container is conspicuously and legibly impressed with the legend “CAUTION—RADIOACTIVE SHIELDING—URANIUM”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The uranium metal is encased in mild steel or equally fire resistant metal of minimum wall thickness of one-eighth inch (3.2 mm).
</P>
<P>(7) Thorium or uranium contained in or on finished optical lenses and mirrors, provided that each lens or mirror does not contain more than 10 percent by weight thorium or uranium or, for lenses manufactured before August 27, 2013, 30 percent by weight of thorium; and that the exemption contained in this paragraph does not authorize either:
</P>
<P>(i) The shaping, grinding or polishing of such lens or mirror or manufacturing processes other than the assembly of such lens or mirror into optical systems and devices without any alteration of the lens or mirror; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The receipt, possession, use, or transfer of uranium or thorium contained in contact lenses, or in spectacles, or in eyepieces in binoculars or other optical instruments.
</P>
<P>(8) Thorium contained in any finished aircraft engine part containing nickel-thoria alloy, <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(i) The thorium is dispersed in the nickel-thoria alloy in the form of finely divided thoria (thorium dioxide); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The thorium content in the nickel-thoria alloy does not exceed 4 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(9) The exemptions in this paragraph (c) do not authorize the manufacture of any of the products described.
</P>
<P>(10) No person may initially transfer for sale or distribution a product containing source material to persons exempt under this paragraph (c), or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, unless authorized by a license issued under § 40.52 to initially transfer such products for sale or distribution.
</P>
<P>(i) Persons initially distributing source material in products covered by the exemptions in this paragraph (c) before August 27, 2013, without specific authorization may continue such distribution for 1 year beyond this date. Initial distribution may also be continued until the Commission takes final action on a pending application for license or license amendment to specifically authorize distribution submitted no later than 1 year beyond this date.
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons authorized to manufacture, process, or produce these materials or products containing source material by an Agreement State, and persons who import finished products or parts, for sale or distribution must be authorized by a license issued under § 40.52 for distribution only and are exempt from the requirements of parts 19 and 20 of this chapter, and § 40.32(b) and (c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 40.13, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.14" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.95.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.14   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulation in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) The Department of Energy is exempt from the requirements of this part to the extent that its activities are subject to the requirements of part 60 or 63 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as specifically provided in part 61 of this chapter any licensee is exempt from the requirements of this part to the extent that its activities are subject to the requirements of part 61 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 5747, Mar. 21, 1972, as amended at 39 FR 26279, July 18, 1974; 40 FR 8787, Mar. 3, 1975; 45 FR 65531, Oct. 3, 1980; 46 FR 13979, Feb. 25, 1981; 47 FR 57481, Dec. 27, 1982; 66 FR 55790, Nov. 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="96" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.20   Types of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licenses for source material and byproduct material are of two types: general and specific. Licenses for long-term care and custody of residual radioactive material at disposal sites are general licenses. The general licenses provided in this part are effective without the filing of applications with the Commission or the issuance of licensing documents to particular persons. Specific licenses are issued to named persons upon applications filed pursuant to the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 40.27 contains a general license applicable for custody and long-term care of residual radioactive material at uranium mill tailings disposal sites remediated under title I of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 40.28 contains a general license applicable for custody and long-term care of byproduct material at uranium or thorium mill tailings disposal sites under title II of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 45598, Oct. 30, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.21   General license to receive title to source or byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>A general license is hereby issued authorizing the receipt of title to source or byproduct material, as defined in this part, without regard to quantity. This general license does not authorize any person to receive, possess, deliver, use, or transfer source or byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65531, Oct. 3, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.22   Small quantities of source material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued authorizing commercial and industrial firms; research, educational, and medical institutions; and Federal, State, and local government agencies to receive, possess, use, and transfer uranium and thorium, in their natural isotopic concentrations and in the form of depleted uranium, for research, development, educational, commercial, or operational purposes in the following forms and quantities:
</P>
<P>(1) No more than 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) of uranium and thorium in dispersible forms (e.g., gaseous, liquid, powder, etc.) at any one time. Any material processed by the general licensee that alters the chemical or physical form of the material containing source material must be accounted for as a dispersible form. A person authorized to possess, use, and transfer source material under this paragraph may not receive more than a total of 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium and thorium in any one calendar year. Persons possessing source material in excess of these limits as of August 27, 2013, may continue to possess up to 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium and thorium at any one time for one year beyond this date, or until the Commission takes final action on a pending application submitted on or before August 27, 2014, for a specific license for such material; and receive up to 70 kg (154 lb) of uranium or thorium in any one calendar year until December 31, 2014, or until the Commission takes final action on a pending application submitted on or before August 27, 2014, for a specific license for such material; and
</P>
<P>(2) No more than a total of 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium and thorium at any one time. A person authorized to possess, use, and transfer source material under this paragraph may not receive more than a total of 70 kg (154 lb) of uranium and thorium in any one calendar year. A person may not alter the chemical or physical form of the source material possessed under this paragraph unless it is accounted for under the limits of paragraph (a)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) No more than 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium, removed during the treatment of drinking water, at any one time. A person may not remove more than 70 kg (154 lb) of uranium from drinking water during a calendar year under this paragraph; or
</P>
<P>(4) No more than 7 kg (15.4 lb) of uranium and thorium at laboratories for the purpose of determining the concentration of uranium and thorium contained within the material being analyzed at any one time. A person authorized to possess, use, and transfer source material under this paragraph may not receive more than a total of 70 kg (154 lb) of source material in any one calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who receives, possesses, uses, or transfers source material in accordance with the general license in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Is prohibited from administering source material, or the radiation therefrom, either externally or internally, to human beings except as may be authorized by the NRC in a specific license.
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not abandon such source material. Source material may be disposed of as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A cumulative total of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) of source material in a solid, non-dispersible form may be transferred each calendar year, by a person authorized to receive, possess, use, and transfer source material under this general license to persons receiving the material for permanent disposal. The recipient of source material transferred under the provisions of this paragraph is exempt from the requirements to obtain a license under this part to the extent the source material is permanently disposed. This provision does not apply to any person who is in possession of source material under a specific license issued under this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In accordance with § 20.2001 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Is subject to the provisions in §§ 40.1 through 40.10, 40.41(a) through (e), 40.46, 40.51, 40.56, 40.60 through 40.63, 40.71, and 40.81.
</P>
<P>(4) Shall respond to written requests from the NRC to provide information relating to the general license within 30 calendar days of the date of the request, or other time specified in the request. If the person cannot provide the requested information within the allotted time, the person shall, within that same time period, request a longer period to supply the information by providing the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, using an appropriate method listed in § 40.5(a), a written justification for the request;
</P>
<P>(5) Shall not export such source material except in accordance with part 110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who receives, possesses, uses, or transfers source material in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section shall conduct activities so as to minimize contamination of the facility and the environment. When activities involving such source material are permanently ceased at any site, if evidence of significant contamination is identified, the general licensee shall notify the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by an appropriate method listed in § 40.5(a) about such contamination and may consult with the NRC as to the appropriateness of sampling and restoration activities to ensure that any contamination or residual source material remaining at the site where source material was used under this general license is not likely to result in exposures that exceed the limits in § 20.1402 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who receives, possesses, uses, or transfers source material in accordance with the general license granted in paragraph (a) of this section is exempt from the provisions of parts 19, 20, and 21 of this chapter to the extent that such receipt, possession, use, and transfer are within the terms of this general license, except that such person shall comply with the provisions of §§ 20.1402 and 20.2001 of this chapter to the extent necessary to meet the provisions of paragraphs (b)(2) and (c) of this section. However, this exemption does not apply to any person who also holds a specific license issued under this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) No person may initially transfer or distribute source material to persons generally licensed under paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, unless authorized by a specific license issued in accordance with § 40.54 or equivalent provisions of an Agreement State. This prohibition does not apply to analytical laboratories returning processed samples to the client who initially provided the sample. Initial distribution of source material to persons generally licensed by paragraph (a) of this section before August 27, 2013, without specific authorization may continue for 1 year beyond this date. Distribution may also be continued until the Commission takes final action on a pending application for license or license amendment to specifically authorize distribution submitted on or before August 27, 2014.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 32339, May 29, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.23   General license for carriers of transient shipments of natural uranium other than in the form of ore or ore residue.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to any person to possess a transient shipment of natural uranium, other than in the form of ore or ore residue, in amounts exceeding 500 kilograms.


</P>
<P>(b)(1) Persons generally licensed under paragraph (a) of this section, who plan to carry a transient shipment with scheduled stops at a United States port, shall notify the Director Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, by email (preferred method) to <I>AdvanceNotifications.Resource@nrc.gov</I> or using an appropriate method listed in § 40.5. The notification must be in writing and must be received at least 10 days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipping facility.


</P>
<P>(2) The notification must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Location of all scheduled stops in United States territory;
</P>
<P>(ii) Arrival and departure times for all scheduled stops in United States territory;
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of transport vehicle;
</P>
<P>(iv) A physical description of the shipment;
</P>
<P>(v) The numbers and types of containers;
</P>
<P>(vi) The name and telephone number of the carrier's representatives at each stopover location in the United States territory;
</P>
<P>(vii) A listing of the modes of shipments, transfer points, and routes to be used;
</P>
<P>(viii) The estimated date and time that shipment will commence and that each nation (other than the United States) along the route is scheduled to be entered;
</P>
<P>(ix) For shipment between countries that are not party to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material (<I>i.e.,</I> not listed in appendix F to part 73 of this chapter), a certification that arrangements have been made to notify the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response when the shipment is received at the destination facility.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons generally licensed under this section making unscheduled stops at United States ports, immediately after the decision to make an unscheduled stop, shall provide to the Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy the information required under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee who needs to amend a notification may do so by telephoning the Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy at (301) 287-3598.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9651, Mar. 26, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 4110, Feb. 12, 1988; 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 68 FR 58806, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62681, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 86 FR 67842, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.24" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.24   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.25" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.25   General license for use of certain industrial products or devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to receive, acquire, possess, use, or transfer, in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, depleted uranium contained in industrial products or devices for the purpose of providing a concentrated mass in a small volume of the product or device.
</P>
<P>(b) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section applies only to industrial products or devices which have been manufactured or initially transferred in accordance with a specific license issued pursuant to § 40.34 (a) of this part or in accordance with a specific license issued by an Agreement State which authorizes manufacture of the products or devices for distribution to persons generally licensed by the Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Persons who receive, acquire, possess, or use depleted uranium pursuant to the general license established by paragraph (a) of this section shall file NRC Form 244, “Registration Certificate—Use of Depleted Uranium Under General License,” with the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, by an appropriate method listed in § 40.5, with a copy to the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator. The form shall be submitted within 30 days after the first receipt or acquisition of such depleted uranium. The registrant shall furnish on NRC Form 244 the following information and such other information as may be required by that form:
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of the registrant;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the registrant has developed and will maintain procedures designed to establish physical control over the depleted uranium described in paragraph (a) of this section and designed to prevent transfer of such depleted uranium in any form, including metal scrap, to persons not authorized to receive the depleted uranium; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Name and/or title, address, and telephone number of the individual duly authorized to act for and on behalf of the registrant in supervising the procedures identified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The registrant possessing or using depleted uranium under the general license established by paragraph (a) of this section shall report in writing to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, with a copy to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter, any changes in information furnished by him in the NRC Form 244 “Registration Certificate—Use of Depleted Uranium Under General License.” The report shall be submitted within 30 days after the effective date of such change.
</P>
<P>(d) A person who receives, acquires, possesses, or uses depleted uranium pursuant to the general license established by paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not introduce such depleted uranium, in any form, into a chemical, physical, or metallurgical treatment or process, except a treatment or process for repair or restoration of any plating or other covering of the depleted uranium.
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not abandon such depleted uranium.
</P>
<P>(3) Shall transfer or dispose of such depleted uranium only by transfer in accordance with the provisions of § 40.51 of this part. In the case where the transferee receives the depleted uranium pursuant to the general license established by paragraph (a) of this section, the transferor shall furnish the transferee a copy of this section and a copy of Form NRC 244. In the case where the transferee receives the depleted uranium pursuant to a general license contained in an Agreement State's regulation equivalent to this section, the transferor shall furnish the transferee a copy of this section and a copy of Form NRC 244 accompanied by a note explaining that use of the product or device is regulated by the Agreement State under requirements substantially the same as those in this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 30 days of any transfer, shall report in writing to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, with a copy to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter, the name and address of the person receiving the source material pursuant to such transfer.
</P>
<P>(e) Any person receiving, acquiring, possessing, using, or transferring depleted uranium pursuant to the general license established by paragraph (a) of this section is exempt from the requirements of parts 19, 20 and 21 of this chapter with respect to the depleted uranium covered by that general license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53331, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 42 FR 28896, June 6, 1977; 43 FR 6923, Feb. 17, 1978; 43 FR 52202, Nov. 9, 1978; 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 68 FR 58807, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5720, Jan. 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.26" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.26   General license for possession and storage of byproduct material as defined in this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to receive title to, own, or possess byproduct material as defined in this part without regard to form or quantity.
</P>
<P>(b) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section applies only: In the case of licensees of the Commission, where activities that result in the production of byproduct material are authorized under a specific license issued by the Commission pursuant to this part, to byproduct material possessed or stored at an authorized disposal containment area or transported incident to such authorized activity: <I>Provided,</I> That authority to receive title to, own, or possess byproduct material under this general license shall terminate when the specific license for source material expires, is renewed, or is amended to include a specific license for byproduct material as defined in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section is subject to:
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of parts 19, 20, 21, and §§ 40.1, 40.2a, 40.3, 40.4, 40.5, 40.6, 40.41, 40.46, 40.60, 40.61, 40.62, 40.63, 40.65, 40.71, and 40.81 of part 40 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) The documentation of daily inspections of tailings or waste retention systems and the immediate notification of the appropriate NRC regional office as indicated in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, of any failure in a tailings or waste retention system that results in a release of tailings or waste into unrestricted areas, or of any unusual conditions (conditions not contemplated in the design of the retention system) that if not corrected could lead to failure of the system and result in a release of tailings or waste into unrestricted areas; and any additional requirements the Commission may by order deem necessary. The licensee shall retain this documentation of each daily inspection as a record for three years after each inspection is documented.
</P>
<P>(d) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section shall expire nine months from the effective date of this subparagraph unless an applicable licensee has submitted, pursuant to the provisions of § 40.31 of this part, an application for license renewal or amendment which includes a detailed program for meeting the technical and financial criteria contained in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 50014, Aug. 24, 1979, as amended at 45 FR 12377, Feb. 26, 1980; 45 FR 65531, Oct. 3, 1980; 53 FR 19248, May 27, 1988; 56 FR 40768, Aug. 16, 1991; 73 FR 5720, Jan. 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.27" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.27   General license for custody and long-term care of residual radioactive material disposal sites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued for the custody of and long-term care, including monitoring, maintenance, and emergency measures necessary to protect public health and safety and other actions necessary to comply with the standards promulgated under section 275(a) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, for disposal sites under title I of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended. The license is available only to the Department of Energy, or another Federal agency designated by the President to provide long-term care. The purpose of this general license is to ensure that uranium mill tailings disposal sites will be cared for in such a manner as to protect the public health, safety, and the environment after remedial action has been completed.
</P>
<P>(b) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section becomes effective when the Commission accepts a site Long-Term Surveillance Plan (LTSP) that meets the requirements of this section, and when the Commission concurs with the Department of Energy's determination of completion of remedial action at each disposal site. There is no termination of this general license. The LTSP may incorporate by reference information contained in documents previously submitted to the Commission if the references to the individual incorporated documents are clear and specific. Each LTSP must include—
</P>
<P>(1) A legal description of the disposal site to be licensed, including documentation on whether land and interests are owned by the United States or an Indian Tribe. If the site is on Indian land, then, as specified in the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended, the Indian Tribe and any person holding any interest in the land shall execute a waiver releasing the United States of any liability or claim by the Tribe or person concerning or arising from the remedial action and holding the United States harmless against any claim arising out of the performance of the remedial action;
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description, which can be in the form of a reference, of the final disposal site conditions, including existing groundwater characterization and any necessary groundwater protection activities or strategies. This description must be detailed enough so that future inspectors will have a baseline to determine changes to the site and when these changes are serious enough to require maintenance or repairs. If the disposal site has continuing aquifer restoration requirements, then the licensing process will be completed in two steps. The first step includes all items other than groundwater restoration. Groundwater monitoring, which would be addressed in the LTSP, may still be required in this first step to assess performance of the tailings disposal units. When the Commission concurs with the completion of groundwater restoration, the licensee shall assess the need to modify the LTSP and report results to the Commission. If the proposed modifications meet the requirements of this section, the LTSP will be considered suitable to accommodate the second step.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the long-term surveillance program, including proposed inspection frequency and reporting to the Commission (as specified in appendix A, criterion 12 of this part), frequency and extent of groundwater monitoring if required, appropriate constituent concentration limits for groundwater, inspection personnel qualifications, inspection procedures, recordkeeping and quality assurance procedures;
</P>
<P>(4) The criteria for follow-up inspections in response to observations from routine inspections or extreme natural events; and
</P>
<P>(5) The criteria for instituting maintenance or emergency measures.
</P>
<P>(c) The long-term care agency under the general license established by paragraph (a) of this section shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Implement the LTSP as described in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Care for the disposal site in accordance with the provisions of the LTSP;
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the Commission of any changes to the LTSP; the changes may not conflict with the requirements of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Guarantee permanent right-of-entry to Commission representatives for the purpose of periodic site inspections; and
</P>
<P>(5) Notify the Commission prior to undertaking any significant construction, actions, or repairs related to the disposal site, even if the action is required by a State or another Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(d) As specified in the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended, the Secretary of the Interior, with the concurrence of the Secretary of Energy and the Commission, may sell or lease any subsurface mineral rights associated with land on which residual radioactive materials are disposed. In such cases, the Commission shall grant a license permitting use of the land if it finds that the use will not disturb the residual radioactive materials or that the residual radioactive materials will be restored to a safe and environmentally sound condition if they are disturbed by the use.
</P>
<P>(e) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section is exempt from parts 19, 20, and 21 of this chapter, unless significant construction, actions, or repairs are required. If these types of actions are to be undertaken, the licensee shall explain to the Commission which requirements from these parts apply for the actions and comply with the appropriate requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 45598, Oct. 30, 1990, as amended at 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.28" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.96.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.28   General license for custody and long-term care of uranium or thorium byproduct materials disposal sites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued for the custody of and long-term care, including monitoring, maintenance, and emergency measures necessary to protect the public health and safety and other actions necessary to comply with the standards in this part for uranium or thorium mill tailings sites closed under title II of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended. The licensee will be the Department of Energy, another Federal agency designated by the President, or a State where the disposal site is located. The purpose of this general license is to ensure that uranium and thorium mill tailings disposal sites will be cared for in such a manner as to protect the public health, safety, and the environment after closure.
</P>
<P>(b) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section becomes effective when the Commission terminates, or concurs in an Agreement State's termination of, the current specific license and a site Long-Term Surveillance Plan (LTSP) meeting the requirements of this section has been accepted by the Commission. There is no termination of this general license. If the LTSP has not been formally received by the NRC prior to termination of the current specific license, the Commission may issue a specific order to the intended custodial agency to ensure continued control and surveillance of the disposal site to protect the public health, safety, and the environment. The Commission will not unnecessarily delay the termination of the specific license solely on the basis that an acceptable LTSP has not been received. The LTSP may incorporate by reference information contained in documents previously submitted to the Commission if the references to the individual incorporated documents are clear and specific. Each LTSP must include—
</P>
<P>(1) A legal description of the disposal site to be transferred (unless transfer is exempted under provisions of the Atomic Energy Act, § 83(b)(1)(A)) and licensed;
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description, which can be in the form of a reference of the final disposal site conditions, including existing groundwater characterization. This description must be detailed enough so that future inspectors will have a baseline to determine changes to the site and when these changes are serious enough to require maintenance or repairs;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the long-term surveillance program, including proposed inspection frequency and reporting to the Commission (as specified in appendix A, Criterion 12 of this part), frequency and extent of groundwater monitoring if required, appropriate constituent concentration limits for groundwater, inspection personnel qualifications, inspection procedures, recordkeeping and quality assurance procedures;
</P>
<P>(4) The criteria for follow-up inspections in response to observations from routine inspections or extreme natural events; and
</P>
<P>(5) The criteria for instituting maintenance or emergency measures.
</P>
<P>(c) The long-term care agency who has a general license established by paragraph (a) of this section shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Implement the LTSP as described in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Care for the disposal site in accordance with the provisions of the LTSP;
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the Commission of any changes to the LTSP; the changes may not conflict with the requirements of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Guarantee permanent right-of-entry to Commission representatives for the purpose of periodic site inspections; and
</P>
<P>(5) Notify the Commission prior to undertaking any significant construction, actions, or repairs related to the disposal site, even if the action is required by a State or another Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon application, the Commission may issue a specific license, as specified in the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended, permitting the use of surface and/or subsurface estates transferred to the United States or a State. Although an application may be received from any person, if permission is granted, the person who transferred the land to DOE or the State shall receive the right of first refusal with respect to this use of the land. The application must demonstrate that—
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed action does not endanger the public health, safety, welfare, or the environment;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the proposed action is of a temporary or permanent nature, the site would be maintained and/or restored to meet requirements in appendix A of this part for closed sites; and
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate financial arrangements are in place to ensure that the byproduct materials will not be disturbed, or if disturbed that the applicant is able to restore the site to a safe and environmentally sound condition.
</P>
<P>(e) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section is exempt from parts 19, 20, and 21 of this chapter, unless significant construction, actions, or repairs are required. If these types of actions are to be undertaken, the licensee shall explain to the Commission which requirements from these parts apply for the actions and comply with the appropriate requirements.
</P>
<P>(f) In cases where the Commission determines that transfer of title of land used for disposal of any byproduct materials to the United States or any appropriate State is not necessary to protect the public health, safety or welfare or to minimize or eliminate danger to life or property (Atomic Energy Act, § 83(b)(1)(A)), the Commission will consider specific modifications of the custodial agency's LTSP provisions on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 45599, Oct. 30, 1990, as amended at 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="97" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.97" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>License Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.97.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.31   Application for specific licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may file an application for specific license on NRC Form 313, “Application for Material License,” in accordance with the instructions in § 40.5 of this chapter. Information contained in previous applications, statements or reports filed with the Commission may be incorporated by reference provided that the reference is clear and specific.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may at any time after the filing of the original application, and before the expiration of the license, require further statements in order to enable the Commission to determine whether the application should be granted or denied or whether a license should be modified or revoked. All applications and statements shall be signed by the applicant or licensee or a person duly authorized to act for and on his behalf.
</P>
<P>(c) Applications and documents submitted to the Commission in connection with applications will be made available for public inspection in accordance with the provisions of the regulations contained in parts 2 and 9 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) An application for a license filed pursuant to the regulations in this part will be considered also as an application for licenses authorizing other activities for which licenses are required by the Act: <I>Provided,</I> That the application specifies the additional activities for which licenses are requested and complies with regulations of the Commission as to applications for such licenses.
</P>
<P>(e) Each application for a source material license, other than a license exempted from part 170 of this chapter, shall be accompanied by the fee prescribed in § 170.31 of this chapter. No fee will be required to accompany an application for renewal or amendment of a license, except as provided in § 170.31 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) An application for a license to possess and use source material for uranium milling, production of uranium hexafluoride, or for the conduct of any other activity which the Commission has determined pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter will significantly affect the quality of the environment shall be filed at least 9 months prior to commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted and shall be accompanied by any Environmental Report required pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) An applicant for a license to possess and use source material, or the recipient of such a license shall report information to the Commission as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In response to a written request by the Commission, a uranium or thorium processing plant, and any other applicant for a license to possess and use source material, shall submit facility information described in § 75.10 of this chapter on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A, and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(2) As required by the Additional Protocol, a uranium or thorium processing plant, and any other applicant for a license to possess and use source material, shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; shall permit verification of this information by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA); and shall take other actions as may be necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(3) As required by the Additional Protocol, an ore processing plant or a facility using or storing ore concentrates or other impure source materials shall submit the information described in § 75.11 of this chapter, as appropriate, on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; shall permit verification of this information by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA); and shall take other actions as may be necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) An application for a license to receive, possess, and use source material for uranium or thorium milling or byproduct material, as defined in this part, at sites formerly associated with such milling shall contain proposed written specifications relating to milling operations and the disposition of the byproduct material to achieve the requirements and objectives set forth in appendix A of this part. Each application must clearly demonstrate how the requirements and objectives set forth in appendix A of this part have been addressed. Failure to clearly demonstrate how the requirements and objectives in appendix A have been addressed shall be grounds for refusing to accept an application.
</P>
<P>(i) As provided by § 40.36, certain applications for specific licenses filed under this part must contain a proposed decommissioning funding plan or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning. In the case of renewal applications submitted before July 27, 1990, this submittal may follow the renewal application but must be submitted on or before July 27, 1990.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) Each application to possess uranium hexafluoride in excess of 50 kilograms in a single container or 1000 kilograms total must contain either:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation showing that the maximum intake of uranium by a member of the public due to a release would not exceed 2 milligrams; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An emergency plan for responding to the radiological hazards of an accidental release of source material and to any associated chemical hazards directly incident thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the following factors may be used to support an evaluation submitted under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) All or part of the radioactive material is not subject to release during an accident because of the way it is stored or packaged;
</P>
<P>(ii) Facility design or engineered safety features in the facility would reduce the amount of the release; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Other factors appropriate for the specific facility.
</P>
<P>(3) An emergency plan submitted under paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Facility description.</I> A brief description of the licensee's facility and area near the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Types of accidents.</I> An identification of each type of accident for which protective actions may be needed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Classification of accidents.</I> A classification system for classifying accidents as alerts or site area emergencies.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Detection of accidents.</I> Identification of the means of detecting each type of radioactive materials accident in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Mitigation of consequences.</I> A brief description of the means and equipment for mitigating the consequences of each type of accident, including those provided to protect workers onsite, and a description of the program for maintaining the equipment.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Assessment of releases.</I> A brief description of the methods and equipment to assess releases of radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Responsibilities.</I> A brief description of the responsibilities of licensee personnel should an accident occur, including identification of personnel responsible for promptly notifying offsite response organizations and the NRC; also responsibilities for developing, maintaining, and updating the plan.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Notification and coordination.</I> A commitment to and a brief description of the means to promptly notify offsite response organizations and request offsite assistance, including medical assistance for the treatment of contaminated injured onsite workers when appropriate. A control point must be established. The notification and coordination must be planned so that unavailability of some personnel, parts of the facility, and some equipment will not prevent the notification and coordination. The licensee shall also commit to notify the NRC operations center immediately after notification of the offsite response organizations and not later than one hour after the licensee declares an emergency. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> These reporting requirements do not supersede or release licensees of complying with the requirements under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III. Pub. L. 99-499 or other state or federal reporting requirements.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ix) <I>Information to be communicated.</I> A brief description of the types of information on facility status, radioactive releases, and recommended protective actions, if necessary, to be given to offsite response organizations and to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Training.</I> A brief description of the frequency, performance objectives and plans for the training that the licensee will provide workers on how to respond to an emergency including any special instructions and orientation tours the licensee would offer to fire, police, medical and other emergency personnel. The training shall familiarize personnel with site-specific emergency procedures. Also, the training shall thoroughly prepare site personnel for their responsibilities in the event of accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site, including the use of team training for such scenarios.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Safe shutdown.</I> A brief description of the means of restoring the facility to a safe condition after an accident.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Exercises.</I> Provisions for conducting quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations and biennial onsite exercises to test response to simulated emergencies. Quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations must include the check and update of all necessary telephone numbers. The licensee shall invite offsite response organizations to participate in the biennial exercises. Participation of offsite response organizations in biennial exercises although recommended is not required. Exercises must use accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site and the scenarios shall not be known to most exercise participants. The licensee shall critique each exercise using individuals not having direct implementation responsibility for the plan. Critiques of exercises must evaluate the appropriateness of the plan, emergency procedures, facilities, equipment, training of personnel, and overall effectiveness of the response. Deficiencies found by the critiques must be corrected.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Hazardous chemicals.</I> A certification that the application has met its responsibilities under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, title III, Pub. L. 99-499, if applicable to the applicant's activities at the proposed place of the use of the source material.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall allow the offsite response organizations expected to respond in case of an accident 60 days to comment on the licensee's emergency plan before submitting it to the NRC. The licensee shall provide any comments received within the 60 days to the NRC with the emergency plan.
</P>
<P>(k) A license application for a uranium enrichment facility must be accompanied by an Environmental Report required under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(l) A license application that involves the use of source material in a uranium enrichment facility must include the applicant's provisions for liability insurance.
</P>
<P>(m) Each applicant for a license for the possession of source material at a facility for the production or conversion of uranium hexafluoride shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable. Each applicant for a license for source material shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961, as amended at 31 FR 4669, Mar. 19, 1966; 34 FR 19546, Dec. 11, 1969; 36 FR 145, Jan. 6, 1971; 37 FR 5748, Mar. 21, 1972; 46 FR 13497, Feb. 23, 1981; 49 FR 9403, Mar. 12, 1984; 49 FR 19626, May 9, 1984; 49 FR 21699, May 23, 1984; 49 FR 27924, July 9, 1984; 53 FR 24047, June 27, 1988; 54 FR 14061, Apr. 7, 1989; 57 FR 18390, Apr. 30, 1992; 68 FR 58807, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 63570, Oct. 24, 2008; 73 FR 78604, Dec. 23, 2008; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.97.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.32   General requirements for issuance of specific licenses.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The application is for a purpose authorized by the Act; and
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant is qualified by reason of training and experience to use the source material for the purpose requested in such manner as to protect health and minimize danger to life or property; and
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant's proposed equipment, facilities and procedures are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life or property; and
</P>
<P>(d) The issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public; and
</P>
<P>(e) In the case of an application for a license for a uranium enrichment facility, or for a license to possess and use source and byproduct material for uranium milling, production of uranium hexafluoride, or for the conduct of any other activity which the NRC determines will significantly affect the quality of the environment, the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguardsor his/her designee, before commencement of construction, on the basis of information filed and evaluations made pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter, has concluded, after weighing the environmental, economic, technical and other benefits against environmental costs and considering available alternatives, that the action called for is the issuance of the proposed license, with any appropriate conditions to protect environmental values. Commencement of construction prior to this conclusion is grounds for denial of a license to possess and use source and byproduct material in the plant or facility. Commencement of construction as defined in § 40.4 may include non-construction activities if the activity has a reasonable nexus to radiological safety and security.
</P>
<P>(f) The applicant satisfies any applicable special requirements contained in §§ 40.34, 40.52, and 40.54.
</P>
<P>(g) If the proposed activity involves use of source material in a uranium enrichment facility, the applicant has satisfied the applicable provisions of part 140 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961, as amended at 36 FR 12731, July 7, 1971; 40 FR 8787, Mar. 3, 1975; 41 FR 53332, Dec. 6, 1976; 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978; 49 FR 9403, Mar. 12, 1984; 57 FR 18390, Apr. 30, 1992; 73 FR 5721, Jan. 31, 2008; 76 FR 56964, Sept. 15, 2011; 78 FR 32340, May 29, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.97.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.33   Issuance of a license for a uranium enrichment facility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will hold a hearing pursuant to 10 CFR part 2, subparts A, G, and I, on each application with regard to the licensing of the construction and operation of a uranium enrichment facility. The Commission will publish public notice of the hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least 30 days before the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) A license for a uranium enrichment facility may not be issued before the hearing is completed and a decision issued on the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 18391, Apr. 30, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.34" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.97.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.34   Special requirements for issuance of specific licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a specific license to manufacture industrial products and devices containing depleted uranium, or to initially transfer such products or devices, for use pursuant to § 40.25 of this part or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 40.32;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant submits sufficient information relating to the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control procedures, labeling or marking, proposed uses, and potential hazards of the industrial product or device to provide reasonable assurance that possession, use, or transfer of the depleted uranium in the product or device is not likely to cause any individual to receive in 1 year a radiation dose in excess of 10 percent of the annual limits specified in § 20.1201(a) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant submits sufficient information regarding the industrial product or device and the presence of depleted uranium for a mass-volume application in the product or device to provide reasonable assurance that unique benefits will accrue to the public because of the usefulness of the product or device.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an industrial product or device whose unique benefits are questionable, the Commission will approve an application for a specific license under this paragraph only if the product or device is found to combine a high degree of utility and low probability of uncontrolled disposal and dispersal of significant quantities of depleted uranium into the environment.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may deny an applicant for a specific license under this paragraph if the end uses of the industrial product or device cannot be reasonably foreseen.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53332, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978; 58 FR 67661, Dec. 22, 1993; 59 FR 41643, Aug. 15, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.97.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.35   Conditions of specific licenses issued pursuant to § 40.34.</HEAD>
<P>Each person licensed pursuant to § 40.34 shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain the level of quality control required by the license in the manufacture of the industrial product or device, and in the installation of the depleted uranium into the product or device;
</P>
<P>(b) Label or mark each unit to: (1) Identify the manufacturer or initial transferor of the product or device and the number of the license under which the product or device was manufactured or initially transferred, the fact that the product or device contains depleted uranium, and the quantity of depleted uranium in each product or device; and (2) state that the receipt, possession, use, and transfer of the product or device are subject to a general license or the equivalent and the regulations of the U.S. NRC or of an Agreement State;
</P>
<P>(c) Assure that the depleted uranium before being installed in each product or device has been impressed with the following legend clearly legible through any plating or other covering: “Depleted Uranium”;
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Furnish a copy of the general license contained in § 40.25 and a copy of Form NRC 244 to each person to whom he transfers source material in a product or device for use pursuant to the general license contained in § 40.25; or
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish a copy of the general license contained in the Agreement State's regulation equivalent to § 40.25 and a copy of the Agreement State's certificate, or alternately, furnish a copy of the general license contained in § 40.25 and a copy of Form NRC 244 to each person to whom he transfers source material in a product or device for use pursuant to the general license of an Agreement State. If a copy of the general license in § 40.25 and a copy of Form NRC 244 are furnished to such person, they shall be accompanied by a note explaining that use of the product or device is regulated by the Agreement State under requirements substantially the same as those in § 40.25; and
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Report to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, by an appropriate method listed in § 40.5, all transfers of industrial products or devices to persons for use under the general license in § 40.25. Such report shall identify each general licensee by name and address, an individual by name and/or position who may constitute a point of contact between the Commission and the general licensee, the type and model number of device transferred, and the quantity of depleted uranium contained in the product or device. The report shall be submitted within 30 days after the end of each calendar quarter in which such a product or device is transferred to the generally licensed person. If no transfers have been made to persons generally licensed under § 40.25 during the reporting period, the report shall so indicate;
</P>
<P>(2) Report to the responsible Agreement State Agency all transfers of industrial products or devices to persons for use under the general license in the Agreement State's regulation equivalent to § 40.25. Such report shall identify each general licensee by name and address, an individual by name and/or position who may constitute a point of contact between the Agency and the general licensee, the type and model number of device transferred, and the quantity of depleted uranium contained in the product or device. The report shall be submitted within 30 days after the end of each calendar quarter in which such product or device is transferred to the generally licensed person. If no transfers have been made to a particular Agreement State during the reporting period, this information shall be reported to the responsible Agreement State Agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Keep records showing the name, address, and a point of contact for each general license to whom he or she transfers depleted uranium in industrial products or devices for use pursuant to the general license provided in § 40.25 or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State. The records must be retained for three years from the date of transfer and must show the date of each transfer, the quantity of depleted uranium in each product or device transferred, and compliance with the report requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees required to submit emergency plans by § 40.31(j)(1)-(4) shall follow the emergency plan approved by the Commission. The licensee may change the plan without Commission approval if the changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan. The licensee shall furnish the change to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, by an appropriate method listed in § 40.5, and to affected offsite response organizations, within six months after the change is made. Proposed changes that decrease the effectiveness of the approved emergency plan may not be implemented without application to and prior approval by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 53332, Dec. 6, 1976, as amended at 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978; 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 53 FR 19248, May 27, 1988; 54 FR 14062, Apr. 7, 1989; 68 FR 58807, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5721, Jan. 31, 2008; 82 FR 52825, Nov. 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.36" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.97.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.36   Financial assurance and recordkeeping for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>Except for licenses authorizing the receipt, possession, and use of source material for uranium or thorium milling, or byproduct material at sites formerly associated with such milling, for which financial assurance requirements are set forth in appendix A of this part, criteria for providing financial assurance for decommissioning are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Each applicant for a specific license authorizing the possession and use of more than 100 mCi of source material in a readily dispersible form shall submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant for a specific license authorizing possession and use of quantities of source material greater than 10 mCi but less than or equal to 100 mCi in a readily dispersible form shall either—
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Submit a certification that financial assurance for decommissioning has been provided in the amount of $225,000 by June 2, 2005 using one of the methods described in paragraph (e) of this section. For an applicant, this certification may state that the appropriate assurance will be obtained after the application has been approved and the license issued but before the receipt of licensed material. If the applicant defers execution of the financial instrument until after the license has been issued, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section must be submitted to NRC prior to receipt of licensed material. If the applicant does not defer execution of the financial instrument, the applicant shall submit to NRC, as part of the certification, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each holder of a specific license issued on or after July 27, 1990, which is covered by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, shall provide financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Each holder of a specific license issued before July 27, 1990, and of a type described in paragraph (a) of this section shall submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (d) of this section or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning in an amount at least equal to $1,125,000 in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section. If the licensee submits the certification of financial assurance rather than a decommissioning funding plan, the licensee shall include a decommissioning funding plan in any application for license renewal. Licensees required to submit the $1,125,000 amount must do so by December 2, 2004. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each holder of a specific license issued before July 27, 1990, and of a type described in paragraph (b) of this section shall submit, on or before July 27, 1990, a decommissioning funding plan, as described in paragraph (d) of this section, or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Any licensee who has submitted an application before July 27, 1990, for renewal of license in accordance with § 40.43 shall provide financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. This assurance must be submitted when this rule becomes effective November 24, 1995.
</P>
<P>(5) If, in surveys made under 10 CFR 20.1501(a), residual radioactivity in the facility and environment, including the subsurface, is detected at levels that would, if left uncorrected, prevent the site from meeting the 10 CFR 20.1402 criteria for unrestricted use, the licensee must submit a decommissioning funding plan within one year of when the survey is completed.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Each decommissioning funding plan must be submitted for review and approval and must contain—
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed cost estimate for decommissioning, in an amount reflecting:
</P>
<P>(A) The cost of an independent contractor to perform all decommissioning activities;
</P>
<P>(B) The cost of meeting the 10 CFR 20.1402 criteria for unrestricted use, provided that, if the applicant or licensee can demonstrate its ability to meet the provisions of 10 CFR 20.1403, the cost estimate may be based on meeting the 10 CFR 20.1403 criteria;
</P>
<P>(C) The volume of onsite subsurface material containing residual radioactivity that will require remediation; and
</P>
<P>(D) An adequate contingency factor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of and justification for using the key assumptions contained in the DCE;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the method of assuring funds for decommissioning from paragraph (e) of this section, including means for adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels periodically over the life of the facility;
</P>
<P>(iv) A certification by the licensee that financial assurance for decommissioning has been provided in the amount of the cost estimate for decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(v) A signed original, or if permitted, a copy, of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section (unless a previously submitted and accepted financial instrument continues to cover the cost estimate for decommissioning).
</P>
<P>(2) At the time of license renewal and at intervals not to exceed 3 years, the decommissioning funding plan must be resubmitted with adjustments as necessary to account for changes in costs and the extent of contamination. If the amount of financial assurance will be adjusted downward, this can not be done until the updated decommissioning funding plan is approved. The decommissioning funding plan must update the information submitted with the original or prior approved plan, and must specifically consider the effect of the following events on decommissioning costs:
</P>
<P>(i) Spills of radioactive material producing additional residual radioactivity in onsite subsurface material;
</P>
<P>(ii) Waste inventory increasing above the amount previously estimated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Waste disposal costs increasing above the amount previously estimated;
</P>
<P>(iv) Facility modifications;
</P>
<P>(v) Changes in authorized possession limits;
</P>
<P>(vi) Actual remediation costs that exceed the previous cost estimate;
</P>
<P>(vii) Onsite disposal; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Use of a settling pond.
</P>
<P>(e) The financial instrument must include the licensee's name, license number, and docket number; and the name, address, and other contact information of the issuer, and, if a trust is used, the trustee. When any of the foregoing information changes, the licensee must, within 30 days, submit financial instruments reflecting such changes. The financial instrument submitted must be a signed original or signed original duplicate, except where a copy is specifically permitted. Financial assurance for decommissioning must be provided by one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prepayment.</I> Prepayment is the deposit before the start of operation into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. Prepayment must be made into a trust account, and the trustee and the trust must be acceptable to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method.</I> These methods guarantee that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, or letter of credit. A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix A to part 30 of this chapter. For commercial corporations that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix C to part 30 of this chapter. For commercial companies that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix D to part 30 of this chapter. For nonprofit entities, such as colleges, universities, and nonprofit hospitals, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix E to part 30 of this chapter. Except for an external sinking fund, a parent company guarantee or guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in combination with any other financial methods used to satisfy the requirements of this section. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in any situation where the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of the voting stock of the company. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must contain the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The surety method or insurance must be open-ended or, if written for a specified term, such as five years, must be renewed automatically unless 90 days or more prior to the renewal date, the issuer notifies the Commission, the beneficiary, and the licensee of its intention not to renew. The surety method or insurance must also provide that the full face amount be paid to the beneficiary automatically prior to the expiration without proof of forfeiture if the licensee fails to provide a replacement acceptable to the Commission within 30 days after receipt of notification of cancellation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The surety method or insurance must be payable to a trust established for decommissioning costs. The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the Commission. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal government agency or an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) The surety method or insurance must remain in effect until the Commission has terminated the license.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>An external sinking fund in which deposits are made at least annually, coupled with a surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method, the value of which may decrease by the amount being accumulated in the sinking fund.</I> An external sinking fund is a fund established and maintained by setting aside funds periodically in an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control in which the total amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs at the time termination of operation is expected. An external sinking fund must be in the form of a trust. If the other guarantee method is used, no surety or insurance may be combined with the external sinking fund. The surety, insurance, or other guarantee provisions must be as stated in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of Federal, State, or local government licensees, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning or an amount based on paragraph (b) of this section, and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary.
</P>
<P>(5) When a government entity is assuming custody and ownership of a site, an arrangement that is deemed acceptable by such government entity.
</P>
<P>(f) Each person licensed under this part shall keep records of information important to the decommissioning of a facility in an identified location until the site is released for unrestricted use. Before licensed activities are transferred or assigned in accordance with § 40.41(b) licensees shall transfer all records described in this paragraph to the new licensee. In this case, the new licensee will be responsible for maintaining these records until the license is terminated. If records important to the decommissioning of a facility are kept for other purposes, reference to these records and their locations may be used. Information the Commission considers important to decommissioning consists of—
</P>
<P>(1) Records of spills or other unusual occurrences involving the spread of contamination in and around the facility, equipment, or site. These records may be limited to instances when contamination remains after any cleanup procedures or when there is reasonable likelihood that contaminants may have spread to inaccessible areas as in the case of possible seepage into porous materials such as concrete. These records must include any known information on identification of involved nuclides, quantities, forms, and concentrations.
</P>
<P>(2) As-built drawings and modifications of structures and equipment in restricted areas where radioactive materials are used and/or stored, and of locations of possible inaccessible contamination such as buried pipes which may be subject to contamination. If required drawings are referenced, each relevant document need not be indexed individually. If drawings are not available, the licensee shall substitute appropriate records of available information concerning these areas and locations.
</P>
<P>(3) Except for areas containing depleted uranium used only for shielding or as penetrators in unused munitions, a list contained in a single document and updated every 2 years, of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) All areas designated and formerly designated as restricted areas as defined under 10 CFR 20.1003;
</P>
<P>(ii) All areas outside of restricted areas that require documentation under § 40.36(f)(1);
</P>
<P>(iii) All areas outside of restricted areas where current and previous wastes have been buried as documented under 10 CFR 20.2108; and
</P>
<P>(iv) All areas outside of restricted areas that contain material such that, if the license expired, the licensee would be required to either decontaminate the area to meet the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E, or apply for approval for disposal under 10 CFR 20.2002.
</P>
<P>(4) Records of the cost estimate performed for the decommissioning funding plan or of the amount certified for decommissioning, and records of the funding method used for assuring funds if either a funding plan or certification is used.
</P>
<P>(g) In providing financial assurance under this section, each licensee must use the financial assurance funds only for decommissioning activities and each licensee must monitor the balance of funds held to account for market variations. The licensee must replenish the funds, and report such actions to the NRC, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If, at the end of a calendar quarter, the fund balance is below the amount necessary to cover the cost of decommissioning, but is not below 75 percent of the cost, the licensee must increase the balance to cover the cost, and must do so within 30 days after the end of the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) If, at any time, the fund balance falls below 75 percent of the amount necessary to cover the cost of decommissioning, the licensee must increase the balance to cover the cost, and must do so within 30 days of the occurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 30 days of taking the actions required by paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this section, the licensee must provide a written report of such actions to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, and state the new balance of the fund.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 24047, June 27, 1988, as amended at 58 FR 39633, July 26, 1993; 58 FR 67661, Dec. 22, 1993; 58 FR 68731, Dec. 29, 1993; 59 FR 1618, Jan. 12, 1994; 60 FR 38238, July 26, 1995; 61 FR 24674, May 16, 1996; 62 FR 39090, July 21, 1997; 63 FR 29543, June 1, 1998; 68 FR 57336, Oct. 3, 2003; 76 FR 35568, June 17, 2011; 78 FR 34247, June 7, 2013; 78 FR 75450, Dec. 12, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.38" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.97.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.38   Ineligibility of certain applicants.</HEAD>
<P>A license may not be issued to the Corporation if the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(a) The Corporation is owned, controlled, or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or a foreign government; or
</P>
<P>(b) The issuance of such a license would be inimical to—
</P>
<P>(1) The common defense and security of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) The maintenance of a reliable and economical domestic source of enrichment services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6669, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="98" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.98" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.41   Terms and conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part shall be subject to all the provisions of the act, now or hereafter in effect, and to all rules, regulations and orders of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Neither the license nor any right under the license shall be assigned or otherwise transferred in violation of the provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person licensed by the Commission pursuant to the regulations in this part shall confine his possession and use of source or byproduct material to the locations and purposes authorized in the license. Except as otherwise provided in the license, a license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part shall carry with it the right to receive, possess, and use source or byproduct material. Preparation for shipment and transport of source or byproduct material shall be in accordance with the provisions of part 71 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Each license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part shall be deemed to contain the provisions set forth in sections 183b.-d., of the Act, whether or not said provisions are expressly set forth in the license.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may incorporate in any license at the time of issuance, or thereafter, by appropriate rule, regulation or order, such additional requirements and conditions with respect to the licensee's receipt, possession, use, and transfer of source or byproduct material as it deems appropriate or necessary in order to:
</P>
<P>(1) Promote the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(2) Protect health or to minimize danger of life or property;
</P>
<P>(3) Protect restricted data;
</P>
<P>(4) Require such reports and the keeping of such records, and to provide for such inspections of activities under the license as may be necessary or appropriate to effectuate the purposes of the act and regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Each licensee shall notify the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any chapter of title 11 (Bankruptcy) of the United States Code by or against:
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee;
</P>
<P>(ii) An entity (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(14)) controlling the licensee or listing the license or licensee as property of the estate; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An affiliate (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(2)) of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) This notification must indicate:
</P>
<P>(i) The bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the filing of the petition.
</P>
<P>(g) No person may commence operation of a uranium enrichment facility until the Commission verifies through inspection that the facility has been constructed in accordance with the requirements of the license. The Commission shall publish notice of the inspection results in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(h) Each licensee shall ensure that Safeguards Information is protected against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961, as amended at 31 FR 15145, Dec. 2, 1966; 45 FR 65531, Oct. 3, 1980; 48 FR 32328, July 15, 1983; 52 FR 1295, Jan. 12, 1987; 57 FR 18391, Apr. 30, 1992; 73 FR 63571, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.42" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.42   Expiration and termination of licenses and decommissioning of sites and separate buildings or outdoor areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each specific license expires at the end of the day on the expiration date stated in the license unless the licensee has filed an application for renewal under § 40.43 not less than 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license. If an application for renewal has been filed at least 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license, the existing license expires at the end of the day on which the Commission makes a final determination to deny the renewal application or, if the determination states an expiration date, the expiration date stated in the determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Each specific license revoked by the Commission expires at the end of the day on the date of the Commission's final determination to revoke the license, or on the expiration date stated in the determination, or as otherwise provided by Commission Order.
</P>
<P>(c) Each specific license continues in effect, beyond the expiration date if necessary, with respect to possession of source material until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this time, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Limit actions involving source material to those related to decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(2) Continue to control entry to restricted areas until they are suitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements;
</P>
<P>(d) Within 60 days of the occurrence of any of the following, consistent with the administrative directions in § 40.5, each licensee shall provide notification to the NRC in writing and either begin decommissioning its site, or any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity, so that the building or outdoor area is suitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements, or submit within 12 months of notification a decommissioning plan, if required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and begin decommissioning upon approval of that plan if—
</P>
<P>(1) The license has expired pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee has decided to permanently cease principal activities, as defined in this part, at the entire site or in any separate building or outdoor area; or
</P>
<P>(3) No principal activities under the license have been conducted for a period of 24 months; or
</P>
<P>(4) No principal activities have been conducted for a period of 24 months in any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity such that the building or outdoor area is unsuitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) Coincident with the notification required by paragraph (d) of this section, the licensee shall maintain in effect all decommissioning financial assurances established by the licensee pursuant to § 40.36 in conjunction with a license issuance or renewal or as required by this section. The amount of the financial assurance must be increased, or may be decreased, as appropriate, to cover the detailed cost estimate for decommissioning established pursuant to paragraph (g)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Any licensee who has not provided financial assurance to cover the detailed cost estimate submitted with the decommissioning plan shall do so when this rule becomes effective November 24, 1995.
</P>
<P>(2) Following approval of the decommissioning plan, a licensee may reduce the amount of the financial assurance as decommissioning proceeds and radiological contamination is reduced at the site with the approval of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) The Commission may grant a request to delay or postpone initiation of the decommissioning process if the Commission determines that such relief is not detrimental to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest. The request must be submitted no later than 30 days before notification pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. The schedule for decommissioning set forth in paragraph (d) of this section may not commence until the Commission has made a determination on the request.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) A decommissioning plan must be submitted if required by license condition or if the procedures and activities necessary to carry out decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area have not been previously approved by the Commission and these procedures could increase potential health and safety impacts to workers or to the public, such as in any of the following cases:
</P>
<P>(i) Procedures would involve techniques not applied routinely during cleanup or maintenance operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Workers would be entering areas not normally occupied where surface contamination and radiation levels are significantly higher than routinely encountered during operation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures could result in significantly greater airborne concentrations of radioactive materials than are present during operation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures could result in significantly greater releases of radioactive material to the environment than those associated with operation.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may approve an alternate schedule for submittal of a decommissioning plan required pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section if the Commission determines that the alternative schedule is necessary to the effective conduct of decommissioning operations and presents no undue risk from radiation to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) The procedures listed in paragraph (g)(1) of this section may not be carried out prior to approval of the decommissioning plan.
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed decommissioning plan for the site or separate building or outdoor area must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the conditions of the site or separate building or outdoor area sufficient to evaluate the acceptability of the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of planned decommissioning activities;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of methods used to ensure protection of workers and the environment against radiation hazards during decommissioning;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the planned final radiation survey; and
</P>
<P>(v) An updated detailed cost estimate for decommissioning, comparison of that estimate with present funds set aside for decommissioning, and a plan for assuring the availability of adequate funds for completion of decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(vi) For decommissioning plans calling for completion of decommissioning later than 24 months after plan approval, a justification for the delay based on the criteria in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed decommissioning plan will be approved by the Commission if the information therein demonstrates that the decommissioning will be completed as soon as practicable and that the health and safety of workers and the public will be adequately protected.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, licensees shall complete decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area as soon as practicable but no later than 24 months following the initiation of decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, when decommissioning involves the entire site, the licensee shall request license termination as soon as practicable but no later than 24 months following the initiation of decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission may approve a request for an alternate schedule for completion of decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area, and license termination if appropriate, if the Commission determines that the alternative is warranted by consideration of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether it is technically feasible to complete decommissioning within the allotted 24-month period;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether sufficient waste disposal capacity is available to allow completion of decommissioning within the allotted 24-month period;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether a significant volume reduction in wastes requiring disposal will be achieved by allowing short-lived radionuclides to decay;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether a significant reduction in radiation exposure to workers can be achieved by allowing short-lived radionuclides to decay; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other site-specific factors which the Commission may consider appropriate on a case-by-case basis, such as the regulatory requirements of other government agencies, lawsuits, groundwater treatment activities, monitored natural groundwater restoration, actions that could result in more environmental harm than deferred cleanup, and other factors beyond the control of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(j) As the final step in decommissioning, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Certify the disposition of all licensed material, including accumulated wastes, by submitting a completed NRC Form 314 or equivalent information; and
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct a radiation survey of the premises where the licensed activities were carried out and submit a report of the results of this survey, unless the licensee demonstrates in some other manner that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E or, for uranium milling (uranium and thorium recovery) facilities, Criterion 6(6) of Appendix A to this part. The licensee shall, as appropriate—
</P>
<P>(i) Report levels of gamma radiation in units of millisieverts (microroentgen) per hour at one meter from surfaces, and report levels of radioactivity, including alpha and beta, in units of megabecquerels (disintegrations per minute or microcuries) per 100 square centimeters removable and fixed for surfaces, megabecquerels (microcuries) per milliliter for water, and becquerels (picocuries) per gram for solids such as soils or concrete; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the survey instrument(s) used and certify that each instrument is properly calibrated and tested.
</P>
<P>(k) Specific licenses, including expired licenses, will be terminated by written notice to the licensee when the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) Source material has been properly disposed;
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable effort has been made to eliminate residual radioactive contamination, if present; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A radiation survey has been performed which demonstrates that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E or, for (uranium and thorium recovery) facilities, Criterion 6(6) of Appendix A to this part; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other information submitted by the licensee is sufficient to demonstrate that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E or, for uranium milling (uranium and thorium recovery) facilities, Criterion 6(6) of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Records required by § 40.61 (d) and (f) have been received.
</P>
<P>(l) Specific licenses for uranium and thorium milling are exempt from paragraphs (d)(4), (g) and (h) of this section with respect to reclamation of tailings impoundments and/or waste disposal areas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 36035, July 15, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 38239, July 26, 1995; 61 FR 1114, Jan. 16, 1996; 61 FR 24674, May 16, 1996; 61 FR 29637, June 12, 1996; 62 FR 39090, July 21, 1997; 66 FR 64738, Dec. 14, 2001; 68 FR 75390, Dec. 31, 2003; 73 FR 42674, July 23, 2008; 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.43   Renewal of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Application for renewal of a specific license must be filed on NRC Form 313 and in accordance with § 40.31.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73943, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.44" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.44   Amendment of licenses at request of licensee.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for amendment of a license shall be filed on NRC Form 313 in accordance with § 40.31 and shall specify the respects in which the licensee desires the license to be amended and the grounds for such amendment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19627, May 9, 1984, as amended at 56 FR 40768, Aug. 16, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.45   Commission action on applications to renew or amend.</HEAD>
<P>In considering an application by a licensee to renew or amend his license the Commission will apply the applicable criteria set forth in § 40.32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961, as amended at 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.46" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.98.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.46   Inalienability of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No license issued or granted pursuant to the regulations in this part shall be transferred, assigned or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of any license to any person, unless the Commission shall after securing full information, find that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of this act, and shall give its consent in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for transfer of license must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The identity, technical and financial qualifications of the proposed transferee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Financial assurance for decommissioning information required by § 40.36 or Appendix A to this part, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961, as amended at 76 FR 35569, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="99" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.99" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Transfer of Source Material</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.99.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.51   Transfer of source or byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No licensee shall transfer source or byproduct material except as authorized pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in his license and subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, any licensee may transfer source or byproduct material:
</P>
<P>(1) To the Department of Energy;
</P>
<P>(2) To the agency in any Agreement State which regulates radioactive materials pursuant to an agreement with the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission under section 274 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(3) To any person exempt from the licensing requirements of the Act and regulations in this part, to the extent permitted under such exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) To any person in an Agreement State subject to the jurisdiction of that State who has been exempted from the licensing requirements and regulations of that State, to the extent permitted under such exemptions;
</P>
<P>(5) To any person authorized to receive such source or byproduct material under terms of a specific license or a general license or their equivalents issued by the Commission or an Agreement State;
</P>
<P>(6) To any person abroad pursuant to an export license issued under part 110 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(7) As otherwise authorized by the commission in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) Before transferring source or byproduct material to a specific licensee of the Commission or an Agreement State or to a general licensee who is required to register with the Commission or with an Agreement State prior to receipt of the source or byproduct material, the licensee transferring the material shall verify that the transferee's license authorizes receipt of the type, form, and quantity of source or byproduct material to be transferred.
</P>
<P>(d) The following methods for the verification required by paragraph (c) of this section are acceptable:
</P>
<P>(1) The transferor may have in his possession, and read, a current copy of the transferee's specific license or registration certificate;
</P>
<P>(2) The transferor may have in his possession a written certification by the transferee that he is authorized by license or registration certificate to receive the type, form, and quantity of source or byproduct material to be transferred, specifying the license or registration certification number, issuing agency and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(3) For emergency shipments the transferor may accept oral certification by the transferee that he is authorized by license or registration certificate to receive the type, form, and quantity of source or byproduct material to be transferred, specifying the license or registration certificate number, issuing agency and expiration date: <I>Provided,</I> That the oral certification is confirmed in writing within 10 days;
</P>
<P>(4) The transferor may obtain other sources of information compiled by a reporting service from official records of the Commission or the licensing agency of an Agreement State as to the identity of licensees and the scope and expiration dates of licenses and registrations; or
</P>
<P>(5) When none of the methods of verification described in paragraphs (d)(1) to (4) of this section are readily available or when a transferor desires to verify that information received by one of such methods is correct or up-to-date, the transferor may obtain and record confirmation from the Commission or the licensing agency of an Agreement State that the transferee is licensed to receive the source or byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65532, Oct. 3, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.52" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.99.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.52   Certain items containing source material; requirements for license to apply or initially transfer.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to apply source material to, incorporate source material into, manufacture, process, or produce the products specified in § 40.13(c) or to initially transfer for sale or distribution any products containing source material for use under § 40.13(c) or equivalent provisions of an Agreement State will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 40.32. However, the requirements of § 40.32(b) and (c) do not apply to an application for a license to transfer products manufactured, processed, or produced in accordance with a license issued by an Agreement State or to the import of finished products or parts.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits sufficient information regarding the product pertinent to the evaluation of the potential radiation exposures, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Chemical and physical form and maximum quantity of source material in each product;
</P>
<P>(2) Details of construction and design of each product, if applicable. For coated lenses, this must include a description of manufacturing methods that will ensure that the coatings are unlikely to be removed under the conditions expected to be encountered during handling and use;
</P>
<P>(3) For products with applicable quantity or concentration limits, quality control procedures to be followed in the fabrication of production lots of the product and the quality control standards the product will be required to meet;
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed method of labeling or marking each unit, and/or its container with the identification of the manufacturer or initial transferor of the product and the source material in the product; and
</P>
<P>(5) The means of providing radiation safety precautions and instructions relating to handling, use, and storage of products to be used under § 40.13(c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(c) Each product will contain no more than the quantity or the concentration of source material specified for that product in § 40.13(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 32340, May 29, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.99.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.53   Conditions for licenses issued for initial transfer of certain items containing source material: Quality control, labeling, and records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 40.52 shall ensure that the quantities or concentrations of source material do not exceed any applicable limit in § 40.13(c).
</P>
<P>(b) Each person licensed under § 40.52 shall ensure that each product is labeled as provided in the specific exemption under § 40.13(c) and as required by their license. Those distributing products to be used under § 40.13(c)(1)(i) and (iii) or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State shall provide radiation safety precautions and instructions relating to handling, use, and storage of these products as specified in the license.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each person licensed under § 40.52 shall file a report with the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards by an appropriate method listed in § 40.5(a), including in the address: ATTN: Document Control Desk/Exempt Distribution.
</P>
<P>(2) The report must clearly identify the specific licensee submitting the report and include the license number of the specific licensee and indicate that the products are transferred for use under § 40.13(c), giving the specific paragraph designation, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(3) The report must include the following information on products transferred to other persons for use under § 40.13(c) or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State:
</P>
<P>(i) A description or identification of the type of each product and the model number(s), if applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) For each type of source material in each type of product and each model number, if applicable, the total quantity of the source material; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of units of each type of product transferred during the reporting period by model number, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall file the report, covering the preceding calendar year, on or before January 31 of each year. Licensees who permanently discontinue activities authorized by the license issued under § 40.52 shall file a report for the current calendar year within 30 days after ceasing distribution.
</P>
<P>(5) If no transfers of source material have been made to persons exempt under § 40.13(c) or the equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, during the reporting period, the report must so indicate.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall maintain all information concerning transfers that support the reports required by this section for 1 year after each transfer is included in a report to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 32340, May 29, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.54" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.99.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.54   Requirements for license to initially transfer source material for use under the ‘small quantities of source material’ general license.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a specific license to initially transfer source material for use under § 40.22, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, will be approved if:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant satisfies the general requirements specified in § 40.32; and
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant submits adequate information on, and the Commission approves the methods to be used for quality control, labeling, and providing safety instructions to recipients.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 32340, May 29, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.99.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.55   Conditions of licenses to initially transfer source material for use under the ‘small quantities of source material’ general license: Quality control, labeling, safety instructions, and records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person licensed under § 40.54 shall label the immediate container of each quantity of source material with the type of source material and quantity of material and the words, “radioactive material.”
</P>
<P>(b) Each person licensed under § 40.54 shall ensure that the quantities and concentrations of source material are as labeled and indicated in any transfer records.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person licensed under § 40.54 shall provide the information specified in this paragraph to each person to whom source material is transferred for use under § 40.22 or equivalent provisions in Agreement State regulations. This information must be transferred before the source material is transferred for the first time in each calendar year to the particular recipient. The required information includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of §§ 40.22 and 40.51, or relevant equivalent regulations of the Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate radiation safety precautions and instructions relating to handling, use, storage, and disposal of the material.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person licensed under § 40.54 shall report transfers as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) File a report with the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555. The report shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and license number of the person who transferred the source material;
</P>
<P>(ii) For each general licensee under § 40.22 or equivalent Agreement State provisions to whom greater than 50 grams (0.11 lb) of source material has been transferred in a single calendar quarter, the name and address of the general licensee to whom source material is distributed; a responsible agent, by name and/or position and phone number, of the general licensee to whom the material was sent; and the type, physical form, and quantity of source material transferred; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The total quantity of each type and physical form of source material transferred in the reporting period to all such generally licensed recipients.
</P>
<P>(2) File a report with each responsible Agreement State agency that identifies all persons, operating under provisions equivalent to § 40.22, to whom greater than 50 grams (0.11 lb) of source material has been transferred within a single calendar quarter. The report shall include the following information specific to those transfers made to the Agreement State being reported to:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and license number of the person who transferred the source material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and address of the general licensee to whom source material was distributed; a responsible agent, by name and/or position and phone number, of the general licensee to whom the material was sent; and the type, physical form, and quantity of source material transferred.
</P>
<P>(iii) The total quantity of each type and physical form of source material transferred in the reporting period to all such generally licensed recipients within the Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(3) Submit each report by January 31 of each year covering all transfers for the previous calendar year. If no transfers were made to persons generally licensed under § 40.22 or equivalent Agreement State provisions during the current period, a report shall be submitted to the Commission indicating so. If no transfers have been made to general licensees in a particular Agreement State during the reporting period, this information shall be reported to the responsible Agreement State agency upon request of the agency.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person licensed under § 40.54 shall maintain all information that supports the reports required by this section concerning each transfer to a general licensee for a period of 1 year after the event is included in a report to the Commission or to an Agreement State agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 32340, May 29, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.56" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.99.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.56   Restrictions on the use of Australian-obligated source material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with Article 8 of the Agreement between the Government of Australia and the Government of the United States of America Concerning Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy, dated 2010, Australian-obligated source material shall not be used for military purposes. As used in this section, “military purposes” includes, but is not limited to, the production of tritium for use in nuclear explosive devices; military nuclear propulsion; munitions, including depleted uranium munitions; and other direct military non-nuclear applications. “Military purposes” does not include the supply of electricity to a military base from any power network; the production of radioisotopes to be used for medical purposes in military hospitals; and such other similar purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees are prohibited from receiving, processing, transferring, or otherwise using Australian-obligated source material for military purposes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 69122, Nov. 8, 2011. Redesignated at 76 FR 78805, Dec. 20, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="100" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records, Reports, and Inspections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.60" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.60   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Immediate report.</I> Each licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as possible but not later than 4 hours after the discovery of an event that prevents immediate protective actions necessary to avoid exposures to radiation or radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits or releases of licensed material that could exceed regulatory limits (events may include fires, explosions, toxic gas releases, etc.).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Twenty-four hour report.</I> Each licensee shall notify the NRC within 24 hours after the discovery of any of the following events involving licensed material:
</P>
<P>(1) An unplanned contamination event that:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires access to the contaminated area, by workers or the public, to be restricted for more than 24 hours by imposing additional radiological controls or by prohibiting entry into the area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves a quantity of material greater than five times the lowest annual limit on intake specified in appendix B of §§ 20.1001-20.2401 of 10 CFR part 20 for the material; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has access to the area restricted for a reason other than to allow isotopes with a half-life of less than 24 hours to decay prior to decontamination.
</P>
<P>(2) An event in which equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when:
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment is required by regulation or license condition to prevent releases exceeding regulatory limits, to prevent exposures to radiation and radioactive materials exceeding regulatory limits, or to mitigate the consequences of an accident;
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment is required to be available and operable when it is disabled or fails to function; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No redundant equipment is available and operable to perform the required safety function.
</P>
<P>(3) An event that requires unplanned medical treatment at a medical facility of an individual with spreadable radioactive contamination on the individual's clothing or body.
</P>
<P>(4) An unplanned fire or explosion damaging any licensed material or any device, container, or equipment containing licensed material when:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of material involved is greater than five times the lowest annual limit on intake specified in appendix B of §§ 20.1001-20.2401 of 10 CFR part 20 for the material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The damage affects the integrity of the licensed material or its container.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preparation and submission of reports.</I> Reports made by licensees in response to the requirements of this section must be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees shall make reports required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section by telephone to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter. To the extent that the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided in these reports must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The caller's name and call back telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the event, including date and time;
</P>
<P>(iii) The exact location of the event;
</P>
<P>(iv) The isotopes, quantities, and chemical and physical form of the licensed material involved; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any personnel radiation exposure data available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written report.</I> Each licensee who makes a report required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall submit a written follow-up report within 30 days of the initial report. Written reports prepared pursuant to other regulations may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all of the necessary information and the appropriate distribution is made. These written reports must be sent to the NRC's Document Control Desk by an appropriate method listed in § 40.5, with a copy to the appropriate NRC regional office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. The reports must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the event, including the probable cause and the manufacturer and model number (if applicable) of any equipment that failed or malfunctioned;
</P>
<P>(ii) The exact location of the event;
</P>
<P>(iii) The isotopes, quantities, and chemical and physical form of the licensed material involved;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date and time of the event;
</P>
<P>(v) Corrective actions taken or planned and the results of any evaluations or assessments; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The extent of exposure of individuals to radiation or to radioactive materials without identification of individuals by name.
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions of this section do not apply to licensees subject to the notification requirements in § 50.72 or § 53.1630 of this chapter. They do apply to those licensees under part 50 of this chapter possessing material licensed under this part who are not subject to the notification requirements in § 50.72 of this chapter.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40768, Aug. 16, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 14086, Mar. 25, 1994; 68 FR 58807, Oct. 10, 2003; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020; 91 FR 15787, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.61   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person who receives source or byproduct material pursuant to a license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part shall keep records showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of this source or byproduct material as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall retain each record of receipt of source or byproduct material as long as the material is possessed and for three years following transfer or disposition of the source or byproduct material.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee who transferred the material shall retain each record of transfer of source or byproduct material until the Commission terminates each license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the recordkeeping requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall retain each record of disposal of source or byproduct material until the Commission terminates each license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the recordkeeping requirement.
</P>
<P>(4) If source or byproduct material is combined or mixed with other licensed material and subsequently treated in a manner that makes direct correlation of a receipt record with a transfer, export, or disposition record impossible, the licensee may use evaluative techniques (such as first-in-first-out), to make the records that are required by this part account for 100 percent of the material received.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall retain each record that is required by the regulations in this part or by license condition for the period specified by the appropriate regulation or license condition. If a retention period is not otherwise specified by regulation or license condition, each record must be maintained until the Commission terminates the license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the recordkeeping requirement.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Records which must be maintained pursuant to this part may be the original or reproduced copy or microform if the reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a conflict between the Commission's regulations in this part, license condition, or other written Commission approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the retention period specified in the regulations in this part for such records shall apply unless the Commission, pursuant to § 40.14 of this part, has granted a specific exemption from the record retention requirements specified in the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to license termination, each licensee authorized to possess source material, in an unsealed form, shall forward the following records to the appropriate NRC Regional Office:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of disposal of licensed material made under § 20.2002 (including burials authorized before January 28, 1981 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>), 20.2003, 20.2004, 20.2005; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A previous § 20.304 permitted burial of small quantities of licensed materials in soil before January 28, 1981, without specific Commission authorization. See § 20.304 contained in the 10 CFR, parts 0 to 199, edition revised as of January 1, 1981.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Records required by § 20.2103(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) If licensed activities are transferred or assigned in accordance with § 40.41(b), each licensee authorized to possess source material, in an unsealed form, shall transfer the following records to the new licensee and the new licensee will be responsible for maintaining these records until the license is terminated:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of disposal of licensed material made under § 20.2002 (including burials authorized before January 28, 1981 
<SU>1</SU>), 20.2003, 20.2004, 20.2005; and
</P>
<P>(2) Records required by § 20.2103(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to license termination, each licensee shall forward the records required by § 40.36(f) to the appropriate NRC Regional Office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65532, Oct. 3, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 19248, May 27, 1988; 61 FR 24674, May 16, 1996; 80 FR 45843, Aug. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.62" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.62   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall afford to the Commission at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect source or byproduct material and the premises and facilities wherein source or byproduct material is used or stored.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by him pursuant to the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65532, Oct. 3, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.63   Tests.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, such tests as the Commission deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of the regulations in this part, including tests of:
</P>
<P>(a) Source or byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(b) Facilities wherein source or byproduct material is utilized or stored;
</P>
<P>(c) Radiation detection and monitoring instruments; and
</P>
<P>(d) Other equipment and devices used in connection with the utilization and storage of source or byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65533, Oct. 3, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.64" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.64   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, each specific licensee who transfers, receives, or adjusts the inventory in any manner, of uranium or thorium source material with foreign obligations by one kilogram or more; or who imports or exports one kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material; or who uses one kilogram or more of any uranium or thorium source material in enrichment services, downblending uranium that has an initial enrichment of the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope of 10 percent or more, or in the fabrication of mixed-oxide fuels, shall complete a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Each licensee who exports one kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material shall complete in the format listed above the licensee's portion of the Nuclear Material Transaction Report unless there is indication of loss, theft, or diversion as discussed under paragraph (d) of this section, in which case both the licensee's and the foreign facility's information must be reported. Licensees who import one kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material shall complete the supplier's and the licensee's portion of the Nuclear Material Transaction Report. Copies of the instructions may be obtained either by writing the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> Each licensee who transfers the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format as specified in the instructions no later than the close of business the next working day. Each licensee who receives the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format in accordance with instructions within ten (10) days after the material is received. The Commission's copy of the report must be submitted to the address specified in the instructions. These prescribed computer-readable forms replace the DOE/NRC Form 741 previously submitted in paper form.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, each licensee who:
</P>
<P>(1) Possesses, or had possessed in the previous reporting period, at any one time and location, one kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material with foreign obligations as defined in this part, shall document holdings as of September 30 of each year and submit to the Commission within 30 days, a statement of its source material inventory with foreign obligations as defined in this part. Alternatively, this information may be submitted with the licensee's material status reports on special nuclear material filed under part 72 or 74 of this chapter, as a statement of its source material inventory with foreign obligations as defined in this part. This statement must be submitted to the address specified in the reporting instructions in NUREG/BR-0007, and include the Reporting Identification Symbol (RIS) assigned by the Commission to the licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) Possesses, or had possessed in the previous reporting period, one kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material pursuant to the operation of enrichment services, downblending uranium that has an initial enrichment of the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope of 10 percent or more, or in the fabrication of mixed-oxide fuels shall complete and submit, in computer-readable format, Material Balance and Physical Inventory Listing Reports concerning all source material that the licensee has received, produced, possessed, transferred, consumed, disposed of, or lost. Reports must be submitted for each Reporting Identification Symbol (RIS) account including all holding accounts. Each licensee shall prepare and submit these reports as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0007 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” These reports must document holdings as of September 30 of each year and must be submitted to the Commission within 30 days. Alternatively, these reports may be submitted with the licensee's material status reports on special nuclear material filed under parts 72 or 74 of this chapter. Copies of the reporting instructions may be obtained either by writing to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> Each licensee required to report material balance, inventory, and/or foreign obligation information, as detailed in this part, shall resolve any discrepancies identified during the report review and reconciliation process within 30 calendar days of notification of a discrepancy identified by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, each licensee who is authorized to possess uranium or thorium pursuant to a specific license shall notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone, at the numbers listed in appendix A of part 73 of this chapter, of any incident in which an attempt has been made or is believed to have been made to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of more than 6.8 kilograms (kg) [15 pounds] of such material at any one time or more than 68 kg [150 pounds] of such material in any one calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as possible, but within 4 hours, of discovery of any incident in which an attempt has been made or is believed to have been made to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of such material. 
</P>
<P>(3) The initial notification shall be followed within a period of sixty (60) days by a written followup notification submitted in accordance with § 40.5. 
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent to the submission of the written followup notification required by this paragraph, the licensee shall promptly update the written followup notification, in accordance with this paragraph, with any substantive additional information, which becomes available to the licensee, concerning an attempted or apparent theft or unlawful diversion of source material.
</P>
<P>(d) The reports described in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section are not required for:
</P>
<P>(1) Processed ores containing less than five (5) percent of uranium or thorium, or any combination of uranium or thorium, by dry weight;
</P>
<P>(2) Thorium contained in magnesium-thorium and tungsten-thorium alloys, if the thorium content in the alloys does not exceed 4 percent by weight;
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical catalysts containing uranium depleted in the U-235 isotope to 0.4 percent or less, if the uranium content of the catalyst does not exceed 15 percent by weight; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any source material contained in non-nuclear end use devices or components, including but not limited to permanently installed shielding, teletherapy, radiography, X-ray, accelerator devices, or munitions.
</P>
<P>(e) Any licensee who is required to submit inventory change reports and material status reports pursuant to part 75 of this chapter (pertaining to implementation of the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement) shall prepare and submit such reports only as provided in §§ 75.34 and 75.35 of this chapter (instead of as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 12195, July 30, 1970, as amended at 36 FR 10938, June 5, 1971; 38 FR 1272, Jan. 11, 1973; 38 FR 2330, Jan. 24, 1973; 40 FR 8787, Mar. 3, 1975; 41 FR 16446, Apr. 19, 1976; 45 FR 50710, July 31, 1980; 49 FR 24707, June 15, 1984; 51 FR 9766, Mar. 21, 1986; 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 59 FR 35620, July 13, 1994; 68 FR 10364, Mar. 5, 2003; 68 FR 58807, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 32461, June 9, 2008; 74 FR 62681, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.65   Effluent monitoring reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee authorized to possess and use source material in uranium milling, in production of uranium hexafluoride, or in a uranium enrichment facility shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 60 days after January 1, 1976 and July 1, 1976, and within 60 days after January 1 and July 1 of each year thereafter, submit a report to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, using an appropriate method listed in § 40.5, with a copy to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter; the report must specify the quantity of each of the principal radionuclides released to unrestricted areas in liquid and in gaseous effluents during the previous six months of operation, and such other information as the Commission may require to estimate maximum potential annual radiation doses to the public resulting from effluent releases. If quantities of radioactive materials released during the reporting period are significantly above the licensee's design objectives previously reviewed as part of the licensing action, the report shall cover this specifically. On the basis of such reports and any additional information the Commission may obtain from the licensee or others, the Commission may from time to time require the licensee to take such action as the Commission deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 53230, Nov. 17, 1975, as amended at 41 FR 21627, May 27, 1976; 42 FR 25721, May 19, 1977; 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 57 FR 18391, Apr. 30, 1992; 68 FR 58807, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5721, Jan. 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.66" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.66   Requirements for advance notice of export shipments of natural uranium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee authorized to export natural uranium, other than in the form of ore or ore residue, in amounts exceeding 500 kilograms, shall notify the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, by email (preferred method) to <I>AdvanceNotifications.Resource@nrc.gov</I> or by an appropriate method listed in § 40.5. The notification must be in writing and must be received at least 10 days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipping facility.
</P>
<P>(b) The notification must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name(s), address(es), and telephone number(s) of the shipper, receiver, and carrier(s);
</P>
<P>(2) A physical description of the shipment;
</P>
<P>(3) A listing of the mode(s) of shipment, transfer points, and routes to be used;
</P>
<P>(4) The estimated date and time that shipment will commence and that each nation (other than the United States) along the route is scheduled to be entered; and
</P>
<P>(5) A certification that arrangements have been made to notify the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response when the shipment is received at the receiving facility.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee who needs to amend a notification may do so by telephoning the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, at the numbers for the NRC Headquarters Operations Center listed in Appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9651, Mar. 26, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 4110, Feb. 12, 1988; 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 68 FR 58808, Oct. 10, 2003; 69 FR 76600, Dec. 22, 2004; 74 FR 62681, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 86 FR 67842, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.100.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.67   Requirement for advance notice for importation of natural uranium from countries that are not party to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee authorized to import natural uranium, other than in the form of ore or ore residue, in amounts exceeding 500 kilograms, from countries not party to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material (see appendix F to part 73 of this chapter) shall notify the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, by email (preferred method) to <I>AdvanceNotifications.Resource@nrc.gov</I> or using an appropriate method listed in § 40.5. The notification must be in writing and must be received at least 10 days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipping facility.








</P>
<P>(b) The notification must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name(s), address(es), and telephone number(s) of the shipper, receiver, and carrier(s);
</P>
<P>(2) A physical description of the shipment;
</P>
<P>(3) A listing of the mode(s) of shipment, transfer points, and routes to be used;
</P>
<P>(4) The estimated date and time that shipment will commence and that each nation along the route is scheduled to be entered.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall notify the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, by telephone at the numbers for the NRC Headquarters Operations Center specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter when the shipment is received in the receiving facility.
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee who needs to amend a notification shall notify the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, by telephone at the numbers specified for the NRC Headquarters Operations Center in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9652, Mar. 26, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 4110, Feb. 12, 1988; 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 68 FR 58808, Oct. 10, 2003; 69 FR 76600, Dec. 22, 2004; 74 FR 62681, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020; 86 FR 67842, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.101" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Modification and Revocation of Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.101.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.71   Modification and revocation of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms and conditions of each license shall be subject to amendment, revision, or modification by reason of amendments to the Act, or by reason of rules, regulations, or orders issued in accordance with the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Any license may be revoked, suspended, or modified, in whole or in part, for any material false statement in the application or any statement of fact required under section 182 of the Act, or because of conditions revealed by such application or statement of fact or any report, record, or inspection or other means which would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license on an original application, or for violation of, or failure to observe any of, the terms and conditions of the Act, or the license, or of any rule, regulation or order of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) Except in cases of willfulness or those in which the public health, interest or safety requires otherwise, no license shall be modified, suspended, or revoked unless, prior to the institution of proceedings therefor, facts or conduct which may warrant such action shall have been called to the attention of the licensee in writing and the licensee shall have been accorded opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance with all lawful requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 284, Jan. 14, 1961, as amended at 35 FR 11460, July 17, 1970; 48 FR 32328, July 15, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="102" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.102" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.102.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.81   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55074, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 40.82" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.102.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 40.82   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 40 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 40 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 40.1, 40.2, 40.2a, 40.4, 40.5, 40.6, 40.8, 40.11, 40.12, 40.13, 40.14, 40.20, 40.21, 40.31, 40.32, 40.34, 40.43, 40.44, 40.45, 40.52, 40.54, 40.71, 40.81, and 40.82.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55075, Nov. 24, 1992, as amended at 78 FR 32341, May 29, 2013]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.29.0.103.55.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 40—Criteria Relating to the Operation of Uranium Mills and the Disposition of Tailings or Wastes Produced by the Extraction or Concentration of Source Material From Ores Processed Primarily for Their Source Material Content
</HEAD>
<P><I>Introduction.</I> Every applicant for a license to possess and use source material in conjunction with uranium or thorium milling, or byproduct material at sites formerly associated with such milling, is required by the provisions of § 40.31(h) to include in a license application proposed specifications relating to milling operations and the disposition of tailings or wastes resulting from such milling activities. This appendix establishes technical, financial, ownership, and long-term site surveillance criteria relating to the siting, operation, decontamination, decommissioning, and reclamation of mills and tailings or waste systems and sites at which such mills and systems are located. As used in this appendix, the term “as low as is reasonably achievable” has the same meaning as in § 20.1003 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>In many cases, flexibility is provided in the criteria to allow achieving an optimum tailings disposal program on a site-specific basis. However, in such cases the objectives, technical alternatives and concerns which must be taken into account in developing a tailings program are identified. As provided by the provisions of § 40.31(h) applications for licenses must clearly demonstrate how the criteria have been addressed.
</P>
<P>The specifications must be developed considering the expected full capacity of tailings or waste systems and the lifetime of mill operations. Where later expansions of systems or operations may be likely (for example, where large quantities of ore now marginally uneconomical may be stockpiled), the amenability of the disposal system to accommodate increased capacities without degradation in long-term stability and other performance factors must be evaluated.
</P>
<P>Licensees or applicants may propose alternatives to the specific requirements in this appendix. The alternative proposals may take into account local or regional conditions, including geology, topography, hydrology, and meteorology. The Commission may find that the proposed alternatives meet the Commission's requirements if the alternatives will achieve a level of stabilization and containment of the sites concerned, and a level of protection for public health, safety, and the environment from radiological and nonradiological hazards associated with the sites, which is equivalent to, to the extent practicable, or more stringent than the level which would be achieved by the requirements of this appendix and the standards promulgated by the Environmental Protection Agency in 40 CFR part 192, subparts D and E.
</P>
<P>All site specific licensing decisions based on the criteria in this appendix or alternatives proposed by licensees or applicants will take into account the risk to the public health and safety and the environment with due consideration to the economic costs involved and any other factors the Commission determines to be appropriate. In implementing this appendix, the Commission will consider “practicable” and “reasonably achievable” as equivalent terms. Decisions involved these terms will take into account the state of technology, and the economics of improvements in relation to benefits to the public health and safety, and other societal and socioeconomic considerations, and in relation to the utilization of atomic energy in the public interest.
</P>
<P>The following definitions apply to the specified terms as used in this appendix:
</P>
<P><I>Aquifer</I> means a geologic formation, group of formations, or part of a formation capable of yielding a significant amount of groundwater to wells or springs. Any saturated zone created by uranium or thorium recovery operations would not be considered an aquifer unless the zone is or potentially is (1) hydraulically interconnected to a natural aquifer, (2) capable of discharge to surface water, or (3) reasonably accessible because of migration beyond the vertical projection of the boundary of the land transferred for long-term government ownership and care in accordance with Criterion 11 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>As expeditiously as practicable considering technological feasibility,</I> for the purposes of Criterion 6A, means as quickly as possible considering: the physical characteristics of the tailings and the site; the limits of <I>available technology</I>; the need for consistency with mandatory requirements of other regulatory programs; and <I>factors beyond the control of the licensee.</I> The phrase permits consideration of the cost of compliance only to the extent specifically provided for by use of the term <I>available technology.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Available technology</I> means technologies and methods for emplacing a final radon barrier on uranium mill tailings piles or impoundments. This term shall not be construed to include extraordinary measures or techniques that would impose costs that are grossly excessive as measured by practice within the industry (or one that is reasonably analogous), (such as, by way of illustration only, unreasonable overtime, staffing, or transportation requirements, etc., considering normal practice in the industry; laser fusion of soils, etc.), provided there is reasonable progress toward emplacement of the final radon barrier. To determine grossly excessive costs, the relevant baseline against which cost shall be compared is the cost estimate for tailings impoundment closure contained in the licensee's approved reclamation plan, but costs beyond these estimates shall not automatically be considered grossly excessive.
</P>
<P><I>Closure</I> means the activities following operations to decontaminate and decommission the buildings and site used to produce byproduct materials and reclaim the tailings and/or waste disposal area.
</P>
<P><I>Closure plan</I> means the Commission approved plan to accomplish closure.
</P>
<P><I>Compliance period</I> begins when the Commission sets secondary groundwater protection standards and ends when the owner or operator's license is terminated and the site is transferred to the State or Federal agency for long-term care.
</P>
<P><I>Dike</I> means an embankment or ridge of either natural or man-made materials used to prevent the movement of liquids, sludges, solids or other materials.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal area</I> means the area containing byproduct materials to which the requirements of Criterion 6 apply.
</P>
<P><I>Existing portion</I> means that land surface area of an existing surface impoundment on which significant quantities of uranium or thorium byproduct materials had been placed prior to September 30, 1983.
</P>
<P><I>Factors beyond the control of the licensee</I> means factors proximately causing delay in meeting the schedule in the applicable reclamation plan for the timely emplacement of the final radon barrier notwithstanding the good faith efforts of the licensee to complete the barrier in compliance with paragraph (1) of Criterion 6A. These factors may include, but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(1) Physical conditions at the site;
</P>
<P>(2) Inclement weather or climatic conditions;
</P>
<P>(3) An act of God;
</P>
<P>(4) An act of war;
</P>
<P>(5) A judicial or administrative order or decision, or change to the statutory, regulatory, or other legal requirements applicable to the licensee's facility that would preclude or delay the performance of activities required for compliance;
</P>
<P>(6) Labor disturbances;
</P>
<P>(7) Any modifications, cessation or delay ordered by State, Federal, or local agencies;
</P>
<P>(8) Delays beyond the time reasonably required in obtaining necessary government permits, licenses, approvals, or consent for activities described in the reclamation plan proposed by the licensee that result from agency failure to take final action after the licensee has made a good faith, timely effort to submit legally sufficient applications, responses to requests (including relevant data requested by the agencies), or other information, including approval of the reclamation plan; and
</P>
<P>(9) An act or omission of any third party over whom the licensee has no control.
</P>
<P><I>Final radon barrier</I> means the earthen cover (or approved alternative cover) over tailings or waste constructed to comply with Criterion 6 of this appendix (excluding erosion protection features).
</P>
<P><I>Groundwater</I> means water below the land surface in a zone of saturation. For purposes of this appendix, groundwater is the water contained within an aquifer as defined above.
</P>
<P><I>Leachate</I> means any liquid, including any suspended or dissolved components in the liquid, that has percolated through or drained from the byproduct material.
</P>
<P><I>Licensed site</I> means the area contained within the boundary of a location under the control of persons generating or storing byproduct materials under a Commission license.
</P>
<P><I>Liner</I> means a continuous layer of natural or man-made materials, beneath or on the sides of a surface impoundment which restricts the downward or lateral escape of byproduct material, hazardous constituents, or leachate.
</P>
<P><I>Milestone</I> means an action or event that is required to occur by an enforceable date.
</P>
<P><I>Operation</I> means that a uranium or thorium mill tailings pile or impoundment is being used for the continued placement of byproduct material or is in standby status for such placement. A pile or impoundment is in operation from the day that byproduct material is first placed in the pile or impoundment until the day final closure begins.
</P>
<P><I>Point of compliance</I> is the site specific location in the uppermost aquifer where the groundwater protection standard must be met.
</P>
<P><I>Reclamation plan,</I> for the purposes of Criterion 6A, means the plan detailing activities to accomplish reclamation of the tailings or waste disposal area in accordance with the technical criteria of this appendix. The reclamation plan must include a schedule for reclamation milestones that are key to the completion of the final radon barrier including as appropriate, but not limited to, wind blown tailings retrieval and placement on the pile, interim stabilization (including dewatering or the removal of freestanding liquids and recontouring), and final radon barrier construction. (Reclamation of tailings must also be addressed in the closure plan; the detailed reclamation plan may be incorporated into the closure plan.)
</P>
<P><I>Surface impoundment</I> means a natural topographic depression, man-made excavation, or diked area, which is designed to hold an accumulation of liquid wastes or wastes containing free liquids, and which is not an injection well.
</P>
<P><I>Uppermost aquifer</I> means the geologic formation nearest the natural ground surface that is an aquifer, as well as lower aquifers that are hydraulically interconnected with this aquifer within the facility's property boundary.
</P>
<HD1>I. Technical Criteria
</HD1>
<P><I>Criterion 1</I>—The general goal or broad objective in siting and design decisions is permanent isolation of tailings and associated contaminants by minimizing disturbance and dispersion by natural forces, and to do so without ongoing maintenance. For practical reasons, specific siting decisions and design standards must involve finite times (e.g., the longevity design standard in Criterion 6). The following site features which will contribute to such a goal or objective must be considered in selecting among alternative tailings disposal sites or judging the adequacy of existing tailings sites:
</P>
<P>Remoteness from populated areas;
</P>
<P>Hydrologic and other natural conditions as they contribute to continued immobilization and isolation of contaminants from groundwater sources; and
</P>
<P>Potential for minimizing erosion, disturbance, and dispersion by natural forces over the long term.
</P>
<P>The site selection process must be an optimization to the maximum extent reasonably achievable in terms of these features.
</P>
<P>In the selection of disposal sites, primary emphasis must be given to isolation of tailings or wastes, a matter having long-term impacts, as opposed to consideration only of short-term convenience or benefits, such as minimization of transportation or land acquisition costs. While isolation of tailings will be a function of both site and engineering design, overriding consideration must be given to siting features given the long-term nature of the tailings hazards.
</P>
<P>Tailings should be disposed of in a manner that no active maintenance is required to preserve conditions of the site.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 2</I>—To avoid proliferation of small waste disposal sites and thereby reduce perpetual surveillance obligations, byproduct material from in situ extraction operations, such as residues from solution evaporation or contaminated control processes, and wastes from small remote above ground extraction operations must be disposed of at existing large mill tailings disposal sites; unless, considering the nature of the wastes, such as their volume and specific activity, and the costs and environmental impacts of transporting the wastes to a large disposal site, such offsite disposal is demonstrated to be impracticable or the advantages of onsite burial clearly outweigh the benefits of reducing the perpetual surveillance obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 3</I>—The “prime option” for disposal of tailings is placement below grade, either in mines or specially excavated pits (that is, where the need for any specially constructed retention structure is eliminated). The evaluation of alternative sites and disposal methods performed by mill operators in support of their proposed tailings disposal program (provided in applicants' environmental reports) must reflect serious consideration of this disposal mode. In some instances, below grade disposal may not be the most environmentally sound approach, such as might be the case if a groundwater formation is relatively close to the surface or not very well isolated by overlying soils and rock. Also, geologic and topographic conditions might make full below grade burial impracticable: For example, bedrock may be sufficiently near the surface that blasting would be required to excavate a disposal pit at excessive cost, and more suitable alternative sites are not available. Where full below grade burial is not practicable, the size of retention structures, and size and steepness of slopes associated exposed embankments must be minimized by excavation to the maximum extent reasonably achievable or appropriate given the geologic and hydrologic conditions at a site. In these cases, it must be demonstrated that an above grade disposal program will provide reasonably equivalent isolation of the tailings from natural erosional forces.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 4</I>—The following site and design criteria must be adhered to whether tailings or wastes are disposed of above or below grade.
</P>
<P>(a) Upstream rainfall catchment areas must be minimized to decrease erosion potential and the size of the floods which could erode or wash out sections of the tailings disposal area.
</P>
<P>(b) Topographic features should provide good wind protection.
</P>
<P>(c) Embankment and cover slopes must be relatively flat after final stabilization to minimize erosion potential and to provide conservative factors of safety assuring long-term stability. The broad objective should be to contour final slopes to grades which are as close as possible to those which would be provided if tailings were disposed of below grade; this could, for example, lead to slopes of about 10 horizontal to 1 vertical (10h:1v) or less steep. In general, slopes should not be steeper than about 5h:1v. Where steeper slopes are proposed, reasons why a slope less steep than 5h:1v would be impracticable should be provided, and compensating factors and conditions which make such slopes acceptable should be identified.
</P>
<P>(d) A full self-sustaining vegetative cover must be established or rock cover employed to reduce wind and water erosion to negligible levels.
</P>
<P>Where a full vegetative cover is not likely to be self-sustaining due to climatic or other conditions, such as in semi-arid and arid regions, rock cover must be employed on slopes of the impoundment system. The NRC will consider relaxing this requirement for extremely gentle slopes such as those which may exist on the top of the pile.
</P>
<P>The following factors must be considered in establishing the final rock cover design to avoid displacement of rock particles by human and animal traffic or by natural process, and to preclude undercutting and piping:
</P>
<P>Shape, size, composition, and gradation of rock particles (excepting bedding material average particles size must be at least cobble size or greater);
</P>
<P>Rock cover thickness and zoning of particles by size; and
</P>
<P>Steepness of underlying slopes.
</P>
<P>Individual rock fragments must be dense, sound, and resistant to abrasion, and must be free from cracks, seams, and other defects that would tend to unduly increase their destruction by water and frost actions. Weak, friable, or laminated aggregate may not be used.
</P>
<P>Rock covering of slopes may be unnecessary where top covers are very thick (on the order of 10 m or greater); impoundment slopes are very gentle (on the order of 10 h:1v or less); bulk cover materials have inherently favorable erosion resistance characteristics; and, there is negligible drainage catchment area upstream of the pile and good wind protection as described in points (a) and (b) of this Criterion.
</P>
<P>Furthermore, all impoundment surfaces must be contoured to avoid areas of concentrated surface runoff or abrupt or sharp changes in slope gradient. In addition to rock cover on slopes, areas toward which surface runoff might be directed must be well protected with substantial rock cover (rip rap). In addition to providing for stability of the impoundment system itself, overall stability, erosion potential, and geomorphology of surrounding terrain must be evaluated to assure that there are not ongoing or potential processes, such as gully erosion, which would lead to impoundment instability.
</P>
<P>(e) The impoundment may not be located near a capable fault that could cause a maximum credible earthquake larger than that which the impoundment could reasonably be expected to withstand. As used in this criterion, the term “capable fault” has the same meaning as defined in section III(g) of appendix A of 10 CFR part 100. The term “maximum credible earthquake” means that earthquake which would cause the maximum vibratory ground motion based upon an evaluation of earthquake potential considering the regional and local geology and seismology and specific characteristics of local subsurface material.
</P>
<P>(f) The impoundment, where feasible, should be designed to incorporate features which will promote deposition. For example, design features which promote deposition of sediment suspended in any runoff which flows into the impoundment area might be utilized; the object of such a design feature would be to enhance the thickness of cover over time.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 5—</I>Criteria 5A-5D and new Criterion 13 incorporate the basic groundwater protection standards imposed by the Environmental Protection Agency in 40 CFR part 192, subparts D and E (48 FR 45926; October 7, 1983) which apply during operations and prior to the end of closure. Groundwater 

monitoring to comply with these standards is required by Criterion 7A.
</P>
<P>5A(1)—The primary groundwater protection standard is a design standard for surface impoundments used to manage uranium and thorium byproduct material. Unless exempted under paragraph 5A(3) of this criterion, surface impoundments (except for an existing portion) must have a liner that is designed, constructed, and installed to prevent any migration of wastes out of the impoundment to the adjacent subsurface soil, groundwater, or surface water at any time during the active life (including the closure period) of the impoundment. The liner may be constructed of materials that may allow wastes to migrate into the liner (but not into the adjacent subsurface soil, groundwater, or surface water) during the active life of the facility, provided that impoundment closure includes removal or decontamination of all waste residues, contaminated containment system components (liners, etc.), contaminated subsoils, and structures and equipment contaminated with waste and leachate. For impoundments that will be closed with the liner material left in place, the liner must be constructed of materials that can prevent wastes from migrating into the liner during the active life of the facility.
</P>
<P>5A(2)—The liner required by paragraph 5A(1) above must be—
</P>
<P>(a) Constructed of materials that have appropriate chemical properties and sufficient strength and thickness to prevent failure due to pressure gradients (including static head and external hydrogeologic forces), physical contact with the waste or leachate to which they are exposed, climatic conditions, the stress of installation, and the stress of daily operation;
</P>
<P>(b) Placed upon a foundation or base capable of providing support to the liner and resistance to pressure gradients above and below the liner to prevent failure of the liner due to settlement, compression, or uplift; and
</P>
<P>(c) Installed to cover all surrounding earth likely to be in contact with the wastes or leachate.
</P>
<P>5A(3)—The applicant or licensee will be exempted from the requirements of paragraph 5A(1) of this criterion if the Commission finds, based on a demonstration by the applicant or licensee, that alternate design and operating practices, including the closure plan, together with site characteristics will prevent the migration of any hazardous constituents into groundwater or surface water at any future time. In deciding whether to grant an exemption, the Commission will consider—
</P>
<P>(a) The nature and quantity of the wastes;
</P>
<P>(b) The proposed alternate design and operation;
</P>
<P>(c) The hydrogeologic setting of the facility, including the attenuative capacity and thickness of the liners and soils present between the impoundment and groundwater or surface water; and
</P>
<P>(d) All other factors which would influence the quality and mobility of the leachate produced and the potential for it to migrate to groundwater or surface water.
</P>
<P>5A(4)—A surface impoundment must be designed, constructed, maintained, and operated to prevent overtopping resulting from normal or abnormal operations, overfilling, wind and wave actions, rainfall, or run-on; from malfunctions of level controllers, alarms, and other equipment; and from human error.
</P>
<P>5A(5)—When dikes are used to form the surface impoundment, the dikes must be designed, constructed, and maintained with sufficient structural integrity to prevent massive failure of the dikes. In ensuring structural integrity, it must not be presumed that the liner system will function without leakage during the active life of the impoundment.
</P>
<P>5B(1)—Uranium and thorium byproduct materials must be managed to conform to the following secondary groundwater 

protection standard: Hazardous constituents entering the groundwater from a licensed site must not exceed the specified concentration limits in the uppermost aquifer beyond the point of compliance during the compliance period. Hazardous constituents are those constituents identified by the Commission pursuant to paragraph 5B(2) of this criterion. Specified concentration limits are those limits established by the Commission as indicated in paragraph 5B(5) of this criterion. The Commission will also establish the point of compliance and compliance period on a site specific basis through license conditions and orders. The objective in selecting the point of compliance is to provide the earliest practicable warning that the impoundment is releasing hazardous constituents to the groundwater. The point of compliance must be selected to provide prompt indication of groundwater contamination on the hydraulically downgradient edge of the disposal area. The Commission shall identify hazardous constituents, establish concentration limits, set the compliance period, and may adjust the point of compliance if needed to accord with developed data and site information as to the flow of groundwater or contaminants, when the detection monitoring established under Criterion 7A indicates leakage of hazardous constituents from the disposal area.
</P>
<P>5B(2)—A constituent becomes a hazardous constituent subject to paragraph 5B(5) only when the constituent meets all three of the following tests:
</P>
<P>(a) The constituent is reasonably expected to be in or derived from the byproduct material in the disposal area;
</P>
<P>(b) The constituent has been detected in the groundwater in the uppermost aquifer; and
</P>
<P>(c) The constituent is listed in Criterion 13 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5B(3)—Even when constituents meet all three tests in paragraph 5B(2) of this criterion, the Commission may exclude a detected constituent from the set of hazardous constituents on a site specific basis if it finds that the constituent is not capable of posing a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment. In deciding whether to exclude constituents, the Commission will consider the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Potential adverse effects on groundwater quality, considering—
</P>
<P>(i) The physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the licensed site, including its potential for migration;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding land;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity of groundwater and the direction of groundwater flow;
</P>
<P>(iv) The proximity and withdrawal rates of groundwater users;
</P>
<P>(v) The current and future uses of groundwater in the area;
</P>
<P>(vi) The existing quality of groundwater, including other sources of contamination and their cumulative impact on the groundwater quality;
</P>
<P>(vii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste constituents;
</P>
<P>(viii) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents;
</P>
<P>(ix) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
</P>
<P>(b) Potential adverse effects on hydraulically-connected surface water quality, considering—
</P>
<P>(i) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the licensed site;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding land;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity and quality of groundwater, and the direction of groundwater flow;
</P>
<P>(iv) The patterns of rainfall in the region;
</P>
<P>(v) The proximity of the licensed site to surface waters;
</P>
<P>(vi) The current and future uses of surface waters in the area and any water quality standards established for those surface waters;
</P>
<P>(vii) The existing quality of surface water, including other sources of contamination and the cumulative impact on surface-water quality;
</P>
<P>(viii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste constituents;
</P>
<P>(ix) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents; and
</P>
<P>(x) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
</P>
<P>5B(4)—In making any determinations under paragraphs 5B(3) and 5B(6) of this criterion about the use of groundwater in the area around the facility, the Commission will consider any identification of underground sources of drinking water and exempted aquifers made by the Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<P>5B(5)—At the point of compliance, the concentration of a hazardous constituent must not exceed—
</P>
<P>(a) The Commission approved background concentration of that constituent in the groundwater;
</P>
<P>(b) The respective value given in the table in paragraph 5C if the constituent is listed in the table and if the background level of the constituent is below the value listed; or
</P>
<P>(c) An alternate concentration limit established by the Commission.
</P>
<P>5B(6)—Conceptually, background concentrations pose no incremental hazards and the drinking water limits in paragraph 5C state acceptable hazards but these two options may not be practically achievable at a specific site. Alternate concentration limits that present no significant hazard may be proposed by licensees for Commission consideration. Licensees must provide the basis for any proposed limits including consideration of practicable corrective actions, that limits are as low as reasonably achievable, and information on the factors the Commission must consider. The Commission will establish a site specific alternate concentration limit for a hazardous constituent as provided in paragraph 5B(5) of this criterion if it finds that the proposed limit is as low as reasonably achievable, after considering practicable corrective actions, and that the constituent will not pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment as long as the alternate concentration limit is not exceeded. In making the present and potential hazard finding, the Commission will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(a) Potential adverse effects on groundwater quality, considering—
</P>
<P>(i) The physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the licensed site including its potential for migration;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding land;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity of groundwater and the direction of groundwater 

flow;
</P>
<P>(iv) The proximity and withdrawal rates of groundwater = users;
</P>
<P>(v) The current and future uses of groundwater in the area;
</P>
<P>(vi) The existing quality of groundwater, including other sources of contamination and their cumulative impact on the groundwater = quality;
</P>
<P>(vii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste constituents;
</P>
<P>(viii) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents;
</P>
<P>(ix) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
</P>
<P>(b) Potential adverse effects on hydraulically-connected surface water quality, considering—
</P>
<P>(i) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the licensed site;
</P>
<P>(ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding land;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quantity and quality of groundwater, and the direction of groundwater flow;
</P>
<P>(iv) The patterns of rainfall in the region;
</P>
<P>(v) The proximity of the licensed site to surface waters;
</P>
<P>(vi) The current and future uses of surface waters in the area and any water quality standards established for those surface waters;
</P>
<P>(vii) The existing quality of surface water including other sources of contamination and the cumulative impact on surface water quality;
</P>
<P>(viii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste constituents;
</P>
<P>(ix) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents; and
</P>
<P>(x) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">5C—Maximum Values for groundwater 

Protection
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Constituent or property
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum concentration
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Milligrams per liter:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Arsenic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Barium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cadmium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chromium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lead</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mercury</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Selenium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Silver</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Endrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,7 -expoxy-1,4,4a,5, 6,7,8,9a-octahydro-1, 4-endo, endo-5,8-dimethano naphthalene)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0002
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Lindane (1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachlorocyclohexane, gamma isomer)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.004
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Methoxychlor (1,1,1-Trichloro-2,2-bis (p-methoxyphenylethane)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Toxaphene (C<E T="52">10</E> H<E T="52">10</E> C1<E T="52">6</E>, Technical chlorinated camphene, 67-69 percent chlorine)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2,4,5-TP Silvex (2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxypropionic acid)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Picocuries per liter:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Combined radium-226 and radium-228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Gross alpha—particle activity (excluding radon and uranium when producing uranium byproduct material or radon and thorium when producing thorium byproduct material)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>5D—If the groundwater 

protection standards established under paragraph 5B(1) of this criterion are exceeded at a licensed site, a corrective action program must be put into operation as soon as is practicable, and in no event later than eighteen (18) months after the Commission finds that the standards have been exceeded. The licensee shall submit the proposed corrective action program and supporting rationale for Commission approval prior to putting the program into operation, unless otherwise directed by the Commission. The objective of the program is to return hazardous constituent concentration levels in groundwater to the concentration limits set as standards. The licensee's proposed program must address removing the hazardous constituents that have entered the groundwater at the point of compliance or treating them in place. The program must also address removing or treating in place any hazardous constituents that exceed concentration limits in groundwater between the point of compliance and the downgradient facility property boundary. The licensee shall continue corrective action measures to the extent necessary to achieve and maintain compliance with the groundwater 

protection standard. The Commission will determine when the licensee may terminate corrective action measures based on data from the groundwater monitoring program and other information that provide reasonable assurance that the groundwater protection standard will not be exceeded.
</P>
<P>5E—In developing and conducting groundwater protection programs, applicants and licensees shall also consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Installation of bottom liners (Where synthetic liners are used, a leakage detection system must be installed immediately below the liner to ensure major failures are detected if they occur. This is in addition to the groundwater monitoring program conducted as provided in Criterion 7. Where clay liners are proposed or relatively thin, in-situ clay soils are to be relied upon for seepage control, tests must be conducted with representative tailings solutions and clay materials to confirm that no significant deterioration of permeability or stability properties will occur with continuous exposure of clay to tailings solutions. Tests must be run for a sufficient period of time to reveal any effects if they are going to occur (in some cases deterioration has been observed to occur rather rapidly after about nine months of exposure)).
</P>
<P>(2) Mill process designs which provide the maximum practicable recycle of solutions and conservation of water to reduce the net input of liquid to the tailings impoundment.
</P>
<P>(3) Dewatering of tailings by process devices and/or in-situ drainage systems (At new sites, tailings must be dewatered by a drainage system installed at the bottom of the impoundment to lower the phreatic surface and reduce the driving head of seepage, unless tests show tailings are not amenable to such a system. Where in-situ dewatering is to be conducted, the impoundment bottom must be graded to assure that the drains are at a low point. The drains must be protected by suitable filter materials to assure that drains remain free running. The drainage system must also be adequately sized to assure good drainage).
</P>
<P>(4) Neutralization to promote immobilization of hazardous constituents.
</P>
<P>5F—Where groundwater impacts are occurring at an existing site due to seepage, action must be taken to alleviate conditions that lead to excessive seepage impacts and restore groundwater quality. The specific seepage control and groundwater 

protection method, or combination of methods, to be used must be worked out on a site-specific basis. Technical specifications must be prepared to control installation of seepage control systems. A quality assurance, testing, and inspection program, which includes supervision by a qualified engineer or scientist, must be established to assure the specifications are met.
</P>
<P>5G—In support of a tailings disposal system proposal, the applicant/operator shall supply information concerning the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The chemical and radioactive characteristics of the waste solutions.
</P>
<P>(2) The characteristics of the underlying soil and geologic formations particularly as they will control transport of contaminants and solutions. This includes detailed information concerning extent, thickness, uniformity, shape, and orientation of underlying strata. Hydraulic gradients and conductivities of the various formations must be determined. This information must be gathered from borings and field survey methods taken within the proposed impoundment area and in surrounding areas where contaminants might migrate to groundwater. The information gathered on boreholes must include both geologic and geophysical logs in sufficient number and degree of sophistication to allow determining significant discontinuities, fractures, and channeled deposits of high hydraulic conductivity. If field survey methods are used, they should be in addition to and calibrated with borehole logging. Hydrologic parameters such as permeability may not be determined on the basis of laboratory analysis of samples alone; a sufficient amount of field testing (e.g., pump tests) must be conducted to assure actual field properties are adequately understood. Testing must be conducted to allow estimating chemi-sorption attenuation properties of underlying soil and rock.
</P>
<P>(3) Location, extent, quality, capacity and current uses of any groundwater at and near the site.
</P>
<P>5H—Steps must be taken during stockpiling of ore to minimize penetration of radionuclides into underlying soils; suitable methods include lining and/or compaction of ore storage areas.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 6</I>—(1) In disposing of waste byproduct material, licensees shall place an earthen cover (or approved alternative) over tailings or wastes at the end of milling operations and shall close the waste disposal area in accordance with a design 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> which provides reasonable assurance of control of radiological hazards to (i) be effective for 1,000 years, to the extent reasonably achievable, and, in any case, for at least 200 years, and (ii) limit releases of radon-222 from uranium byproduct materials, and radon-220 from thorium byproduct materials, to the atmosphere so as not to exceed an average 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> release rate of 20 picocuries per square meter per second (pCi/m
<SU>2</SU> s) to the extent practicable throughout the effective design life determined pursuant to (1)(i) of this Criterion. In computing required tailings cover thicknesses, moisture in soils in excess of amounts found normally in similar soils in similar circumstances may not be considered. Direct gamma exposure from the tailings or wastes should be reduced to background levels. The effects of any thin synthetic layer may not be taken into account in determining the calculated radon exhalation level. If non-soil materials are proposed as cover materials, it must be demonstrated that these materials will not crack or degrade by differential settlement, weathering, or other mechanism, over long-term intervals.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In the case of thorium byproduct materials, the standard applies only to design. Monitoring for radon emissions from thorium byproduct materials after installation of an appropriately designed cover is not required.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> This average applies to the entire surface of each disposal area over a period of a least one year, but a period short compared to 100 years. Radon will come from both byproduct materials and from covering materials. Radon emissions from covering materials should be estimated as part of developing a closure plan for each site. The standard, however, applies only to emissions from byproduct materials to the atmosphere.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) As soon as reasonably achievable after emplacement of the final cover to limit releases of radon-222 from uranium byproduct material and prior to placement of erosion protection barriers or other features necessary for long-term control of the tailings, the licensee shall verify through appropriate testing and analysis that the design and construction of the final radon barrier is effective in limiting releases of radon-222 to a level not exceeding 20 pCi/m 
<SU>2</SU>s averaged over the entire pile or impoundment using the procedures described in 40 CFR part 61, appendix B, Method 115, or another method of verification approved by the Commission as being at least as effective in demonstrating the effectiveness of the final radon barrier.
</P>
<P>(3) When phased emplacement of the final radon barrier is included in the applicable reclamation plan, the verification of radon-222 release rates required in paragraph (2) of this criterion must be conducted for each portion of the pile or impoundment as the final radon barrier for that portion is emplaced.
</P>
<P>(4) Within ninety days of the completion of all testing and analysis relevant to the required verification in paragraphs (2) and (3) of this criterion, the uranium mill licensee shall report to the Commission the results detailing the actions taken to verify that levels of release of radon-222 do not exceed 20 pCi/m 
<SU>2</SU>s when averaged over the entire pile or impoundment. The licensee shall maintain records until termination of the license documenting the source of input parameters including the results of all measurements on which they are based, the calculations and/or analytical methods used to derive values for input parameters, and the procedure used to determine compliance. These records shall be kept in a form suitable for transfer to the custodial agency at the time of transfer of the site to DOE or a State for long-term care if requested.
</P>
<P>(5) Near surface cover materials (<I>i.e.</I>, within the top three meters) may not include waste or rock that contains elevated levels of radium; soils used for near surface cover must be essentially the same, as far as radioactivity is concerned, as that of surrounding surface soils. This is to ensure that surface radon exhalation is not significantly above background because of the cover material itself.
</P>
<P>(6) The design requirements in this criterion for longevity and control of radon releases apply to any portion of a licensed and/or disposal site unless such portion contains a concentration of radium in land, averaged over areas of 100 square meters, which, as a result of byproduct material, does not exceed the background level by more than: (i) 5 picocuries per gram (pCi/g) of radium-226, or, in the case of thorium byproduct material, radium-228, averaged over the first 15 centimeters (cm) below the surface, and (ii) 15 pCi/g of radium-226, or, in the case of thorium byproduct material, radium-228, averaged over 15-cm thick layers more than 15 cm below the surface.
</P>
<P>Byproduct material containing concentrations of radionuclides other than radium in soil, and surface activity on remaining structures, must not result in a total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) exceeding the dose from cleanup of radium contaminated soil to the above standard (benchmark dose), and must be at levels which are as low as is reasonably achievable. If more than one residual radionuclide is present in the same 100-square-meter area, the sum of the ratios for each radionuclide of concentration present to the concentration limit will not exceed “1” (unity). A calculation of the potential peak annual TEDE within 1000 years to the average member of the critical group that would result from applying the radium standard (not including radon) on the site must be submitted for approval. The use of decommissioning plans with benchmark doses which exceed 100 mrem/yr, before application of ALARA, requires the approval of the Commission after consideration of the recommendation of the NRC staff. This requirement for dose criteria does not apply to sites that have decommissioning plans for soil and structures approved before June 11, 1999.
</P>
<P>(7) The licensee shall also address the nonradiological hazards associated with the wastes in planning and implementing closure. The licensee shall ensure that disposal areas are closed in a manner that minimizes the need for further maintenance. To the extent necessary to prevent threats to human health and the environment, the licensee shall control, minimize, or eliminate post-closure escape of nonradiological hazardous constituents, leachate, contaminated rainwater, or waste decomposition products to the ground or surface waters or to the atmosphere.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 6A</I>—(1) For impoundments containing uranium byproduct materials, the final radon barrier must be completed <I>as expeditiously as practicable considering technological feasibility</I> after the pile or impoundment ceases operation in accordance with a written, Commission-approved reclamation plan. (The term <I>as expeditiously as practicable considering technological feasibility</I> as specifically defined in the Introduction of this appendix includes factors beyond the control of the licensee.) Deadlines for completion of the final radon barrier and, if applicable, the following interim milestones must be established as a condition of the individual license: windblown tailings retrieval and placement on the pile and interim stabilization (including dewatering or the removal of freestanding liquids and recontouring). The placement of erosion protection barriers or other features necessary for long-term control of the tailings must also be completed in a timely manner in accordance with a written, Commission-approved reclamation plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may approve a licensee's request to extend the time for performance of milestones related to emplacement of the final radon barrier if, after providing an opportunity for public participation, the Commission finds that the licensee has adequately demonstrated in the manner required in paragraph (2) of Criterion 6 that releases of radon-222 do not exceed an average of 20 pCi/m
<SU>2</SU>s. If the delay is approved on the basis that the radon releases do not exceed 20 pCi/m
<SU>2</SU>s, a verification of radon levels, as required by paragraph (2) of Criterion 6, must be made annually during the period of delay. In addition, once the Commission has established the date in the reclamation plan for the milestone for completion of the final radon barrier, the Commission may extend that date based on cost if, after providing an opportunity for public participation, the Commission finds that the licensee is making good faith efforts to emplace the final radon barrier, the delay is consistent with the definition of <I>available technology,</I> and the radon releases caused by the delay will not result in a significant incremental risk to the public health.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission may authorize by license amendment, upon licensee request, a portion of the impoundment to accept uranium byproduct material or such materials that are similar in physical, chemical, and radiological characteristics to the uranium mill tailings and associated wastes already in the pile or impoundment, from other sources, during the closure process. No such authorization will be made if it results in a delay or impediment to emplacement of the final radon barrier over the remainder of the impoundment in a manner that will achieve levels of radon-222 releases not exceeding 20 pCi/m
<SU>2</SU>s averaged over the entire impoundment. The verification required in paragraph (2) of Criterion 6 may be completed with a portion of the impoundment being used for further disposal if the Commission makes a final finding that the impoundment will continue to achieve a level of radon-222 releases not exceeding 20 pCi/m
<SU>2</SU> s averaged over the entire impoundment. In this case, after the final radon barrier is complete except for the continuing disposal area, (a) only byproduct material will be authorized for disposal, (b) the disposal will be limited to the specified existing disposal area, and (c) this authorization will only be made after providing opportunity for public participation. Reclamation of the disposal area, as appropriate, must be completed in a timely manner after disposal operations cease in accordance with paragraph (1) of Criterion 6; however, these actions are not required to be complete as part of meeting the deadline for final radon barrier construction.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 7—</I>At least one full year prior to any major site construction, a preoperational monitoring program must be conducted to provide complete baseline data on a milling site and its environs. Throughout the construction and operating phases of the mill, an operational monitoring program must be conducted to measure or evaluate compliance with applicable standards and regulations; to evaluate performance of control systems and procedures; to evaluate environmental impacts of operation; and to detect potential long-term effects.
</P>
<P>7A—The licensee shall establish a detection monitoring program needed for the Commission to set the site-specific groundwater protection standards in paragraph 5B(1) of this appendix. For all monitoring under this paragraph the licensee or applicant will propose for Commission approval as license conditions which constituents are to be monitored on a site specific basis. A detection monitoring program has two purposes. The initial purpose of the program is to detect leakage of hazardous constituents from the disposal area so that the need to set groundwater 

protection standards is monitored. If leakage is detected, the second purpose of the program is to generate data and information needed for the Commission to establish the standards under Criterion 5B. The data and information must provide a sufficient basis to identify those hazardous constituents which require concentration limit standards and to enable the Commission to set the limits for those constituents and the compliance period. They may also need to provide the basis for adjustments to the point of compliance. For licenses in effect September 30, 1983, the detection monitoring programs must have been in place by October 1, 1984. For licenses issued after September 30, 1983, the detection monitoring programs must be in place when specified by the Commission in orders or license conditions. Once groundwater 

protection standards have been established pursuant to paragraph 5B(1), the licensee shall establish and implement a compliance monitoring program. The purpose of the compliance monitoring program is to determine that the hazardous constituent concentrations in groundwater continue to comply with the standards set by the Commission. In conjunction with a corrective action program, the licensee shall establish and implement a corrective action monitoring program. The purpose of the corrective action monitoring program is to demonstrate the effectiveness of the corrective actions. Any monitoring program required by this paragraph may be based on existing monitoring programs to the extent the existing programs can meet the stated objective for the program.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 8—</I>Milling operations must be conducted so that all airborne effluent releases are reduced to levels as low as is reasonably achievable. The primary means of accomplishing this must be by means of emission controls. Institutional controls, such as extending the site boundary and exclusion area, may be employed to ensure that offsite exposure limits are met, but only after all practicable measures have been taken to control emissions at the source. Notwithstanding the existence of individual dose standards, strict control of emissions is necessary to assure that population exposures are reduced to the maximum extent reasonably achievable and to avoid site contamination. The greatest potential sources of offsite radiation exposure (aside from radon exposure) are dusting from dry surfaces of the tailings disposal area not covered by tailings solution and emissions from yellowcake drying and packaging operations. During operations and prior to closure, radiation doses from radon emissions from surface impoundments of uranium or thorium byproduct materials must be kept as low as is reasonably achievable.
</P>
<P>Checks must be made and logged hourly of all parameters (e.g., differential pressures and scrubber water flow rates) that determine the efficiency of yellowcake stack emission control equipment operation. The licensee shall retain each log as a record for three years after the last entry in the log is made. It must be determined whether or not conditions are within a range prescribed to ensure that the equipment is operating consistently near peak efficiency; corrective action must be taken when performance is outside of prescribed ranges. Effluent control devices must be operative at all times during drying and packaging operations and whenever air is exhausting from the yellowcake stack. Drying and packaging operations must terminate when controls are inoperative. When checks indicate the equipment is not operating within the range prescribed for peak efficiency, actions must be taken to restore parameters to the prescribed range. When this cannot be done without shutdown and repairs, drying and packaging operations must cease as soon as practicable. Operations may not be restarted after cessation due to off-normal performance until needed corrective actions have been identified and implemented. All these cessations, corrective actions, and restarts must be reported to the appropriate NRC regional office as indicated in Criterion 8A, in writing, within ten days of the subsequent restart.
</P>
<P>To control dusting from tailings, that portion not covered by standing liquids must be wetted or chemically stabilized to prevent or minimize blowing and dusting to the maximum extent reasonably achievable. This requirement may be relaxed if tailings are effectively sheltered from wind, such as may be the case where they are disposed of below grade and the tailings surface is not exposed to wind. Consideration must be given in planning tailings disposal programs to methods which would allow phased covering and reclamation of tailings impoundments because this will help in controlling particulate and radon emissions during operation. To control dusting from diffuse sources, such as tailings and ore pads where automatic controls do not apply, operators shall develop written operating procedures specifying the methods of control which will be utilized.
</P>
<P>Milling operations producing or involving thorium byproduct material must be conducted in such a manner as to provide reasonable assurance that the annual dose equivalent does not exceed 25 millirems to the whole body, 75 millirems to the thyroid, and 25 millirems to any other organ of any member of the public as a result of exposures to the planned discharge of radioactive materials, radon-220 and its daughters excepted, to the general environment.
</P>
<P>Uranium and thorium byproduct materials must be managed so as to conform to the applicable provisions of title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, part 440, “Ore Mining and Dressing Point Source Category: Effluent Limitations Guidelines and New Source Performance Standards, subpart C, Uranium, Radium, and Vanadium Ores Subcategory,” as codified on January 1, 1983.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 8A</I>—Daily inspections of tailings or waste retention systems must be conducted by a qualified engineer or scientist and documented. The licensee shall retain the documentation for each daily inspection as a record for three years after the documentation is made. The appropriate NRC regional office as indicated in appendix D to 10 CFR part 20 of this chapter, or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, must be immediately notified of any failure in a tailings or waste retention system that results in a release of tailings or waste into unrestricted areas, or of any unusual conditions (conditions not contemplated in the design of the retention system) that if not corrected could indicate the potential or lead to failure of the system and result in a release of tailings or waste into unrestricted areas.
</P>
<HD1>II. Financial Criteria
</HD1>
<P><I>Criterion 9</I>—(a) Financial surety arrangements must be established by each mill operator before the commencement of operations to assure that sufficient funds will be available to carry out the decontamination and decommissioning of the mill and site and for the reclamation of any tailings or waste disposal areas. The amount of funds to be ensured by such surety arrangements must be based on Commission-approved cost estimates in a Commission-approved plan, or a proposed revision to the plan submitted to the Commission for approval, if the proposed revision contains a higher cost estimate, for:
</P>
<P>(1) Decontamination and decommissioning of mill buildings and the milling site to levels which allow unrestricted use of these areas upon decommissioning, and
</P>
<P>(2) The reclamation of tailings and/or waste areas in accordance with technical criteria delineated in Section I of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Each cost estimate must contain—
</P>
<P>(1) A detailed cost estimate for decontamination, decommissioning, and reclamation, in an amount reflecting:
</P>
<P>(i) The cost of an independent contractor to perform the decontamination, decommissioning and reclamation activities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An adequate contingency factor;
</P>
<P>(2) An estimate of the amount of radioactive contamination in onsite subsurface material;
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of and justification for using the key assumptions contained in the DCE; and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the method of assuring funds for decontamination, decommissioning, and reclamation.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall submit this plan in conjunction with an environmental report that addresses the expected environmental impacts of the milling operation, decommissioning and tailings reclamation, and evaluates alternatives for mitigating these impacts. The plan must include a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the surety arrangement requirements of this criterion (unless a previously submitted and approved financial instrument continues to cover the cost estimate for decommissioning). The surety arrangement must also cover the cost estimate and the payment of the charge for long-term surveillance and control required by Criterion 10 of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) To avoid unnecessary duplication and expense, the Commission may accept financial sureties that have been consolidated with financial or surety arrangements established to meet requirements of other Federal or state agencies and/or local governing bodies for decommissioning, decontamination, reclamation, and long-term site surveillance and control, provided such arrangements are considered adequate to satisfy these requirements and that the portion of the surety which covers the decommissioning and reclamation of the mill, mill tailings site and associated areas, and the long-term funding charge is clearly identified and committed for use in accomplishing these activities.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee's surety mechanism will be reviewed annually by the Commission to assure, that sufficient funds would be available for completion of the reclamation plan if the work had to be performed by an independent contractor.
</P>
<P>(f) The amount of surety liability should be adjusted to recognize any increases or decreases resulting from:
</P>
<P>(1) Inflation;
</P>
<P>(2) Changes in engineering plans;
</P>
<P>(3) Activities performed;
</P>
<P>(4) Spills, leakage or migration of radioactive material producing additional contamination in onsite subsurface material that must be remediated to meet applicable remediation criteria;
</P>
<P>(5) Waste inventory increasing above the amount previously estimated;
</P>
<P>(6) Waste disposal costs increasing above the amount previously estimated;
</P>
<P>(7) Facility modifications;
</P>
<P>(8) Changes in authorized possession limits;
</P>
<P>(9) Actual remediation costs that exceed the previous cost estimate;
</P>
<P>(10) Onsite disposal; and
</P>
<P>(11) Any other conditions affecting costs.
</P>
<P>(g) Regardless of whether reclamation is phased through the life of the operation or takes place at the end of operations, an appropriate portion of surety liability must be retained until final compliance with the reclamation plan is determined.
</P>
<P>(h) The appropriate portion of surety liability retained until final compliance with the reclamation plan is determined will be at least sufficient at all times to cover the costs of decommissioning and reclamation of the areas that are expected to be disturbed before the next license renewal. The term of the surety mechanism must be open ended, unless it can be demonstrated that another arrangement would provide an equivalent level of assurance. This assurance would be provided with a surety instrument which is written for a specified time (e.g., 5 years) and which must be automatically renewed unless the surety notifies the beneficiary (the Commission or the State regulatory agency) and the principal (the licensee) with reasonable time (e.g., 90 days) before the renewal date of their intention not to renew. In such a situation the surety requirement still exists and the licensee would be required to submit an acceptable replacement surety within a brief time to allow at least 60 days for the regulatory agency to collect.
</P>
<P>(i) Proof of forfeiture must not be necessary to collect the surety. In the event that the licensee can not provide an acceptable replacement surety within the required time, the surety shall be automatically collected before its expiration. The surety instrument must provide for collection of the full face amount immediately on demand without reduction for any reason, except for trustee fees and expenses provided for in a trust agreement, and that the surety will not refuse to make full payment. The conditions described previously would have to be clearly stated on any surety instrument which is not open-ended, and must be agreed to by all parties. Financial surety arrangements generally acceptable to the Commission are:
</P>
<P>(1) Trust funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Surety bonds;
</P>
<P>(3) Irrevocable letters of credit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Combinations of the financial surety arrangements or other types of arrangements as may be approved by the Commission. If a trust is not used, then a standby trust must be set up to receive funds in the event the Commission or State regulatory agency exercises its right to collect the surety. The surety arrangement and the surety or trustee, as applicable, must be acceptable to the Commission. Self insurance, or any arrangement which essentially constitutes self insurance (e.g., a contract with a State or Federal agency), will not satisfy the surety requirement because this provides no additional assurance other than that which already exists through license requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 10</I>—A minimum charge of $250,000 (1978 dollars) to cover the costs of long-term surveillance must be paid by each mill operator to the general treasury of the United States or to an appropriate State agency prior to the termination of a uranium or thorium mill license.
</P>
<P>If site surveillance or control requirements at a particular site are determined, on the basis of a site-specific evaluation, to be significantly greater than those specified in Criterion 12 (e.g., if fencing is determined to be necessary), variance in funding requirements may be specified by the Commission. In any case, the total charge to cover the costs of long-term surveillance must be such that, with an assumed 1 percent annual real interest rate, the collected funds will yield interest in an amount sufficient to cover the annual costs of site surveillance. The total charge will be adjusted annually prior to actual payment to recognize inflation. The inflation rate to be used is that indicated by the change in the Consumer Price Index published by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics.
</P>
<HD1>III. Site and Byproduct Material Ownership
</HD1>
<P><I>Criterion 11</I>—A. These criteria relating to ownership of tailings and their disposal sites become effective on November 8, 1981, and apply to all licenses terminated, issued, or renewed after that date.
</P>
<P>B. Any uranium or thorium milling license or tailings license must contain such terms and conditions as the Commission determines necessary to assure that prior to termination of the license, the licensee will comply with ownership requirements of this criterion for sites used for tailings disposal.
</P>
<P>C. Title to the byproduct material licensed under this part and land, including any interests therein (other than land owned by the United States or by a State) which is used for the disposal of any such byproduct material, or is essential to ensure the long term stability of such disposal site, must be transferred to the United States or the State in which such land is located, at the option of such State. In view of the fact that physical isolation must be the primary means of long-term control, and Government land ownership is a desirable supplementary measure, ownership of certain severable subsurface interests (for example, mineral rights) may be determined to be unnecessary to protect the public health and safety and the environment. In any case, however, the applicant/operator must demonstrate a serious effort to obtain such subsurface rights, and must, in the event that certain rights cannot be obtained, provide notification in local public land records of the fact that the land is being used for the disposal of radioactive material and is subject to either an NRC general or specific license prohibiting the disruption and disturbance of the tailings. In some rare cases, such as may occur with deep burial where no ongoing site surveillance will be required, surface land ownership transfer requirements may be waived. For licenses issued before November 8, 1981, the Commission may take into account the status of the ownership of such land, and interests therein, and the ability of a licensee to transfer title and custody thereof to the United States or a State.
</P>
<P>D. If the Commission subsequent to title transfer determines that use of the surface or subsurface estates, or both, of the land transferred to the United States or to a State will not endanger the public health, safety, welfare, or environment, the Commission may permit the use of the surface or subsurface estates, or both, of such land in a manner consistent with the provisions provided in these criteria. If the Commission permits such use of such land, it will provide the person who transferred such land with the right of first refusal with respect to such use of such land.
</P>
<P>E. Material and land transferred to the United States or a State in accordance with this Criterion must be transferred without cost to the United States or a State other than administrative and legal costs incurred in carrying out such transfer.
</P>
<P>F. The provisions of this part respecting transfer of title and custody to land and tailings and wastes do not apply in the case of lands held in trust by the United States for any Indian Tribe or lands owned by such Indian Tribe subject to a restriction against alienation imposed by the United States. In the case of such lands which are used for the disposal of byproduct material, as defined in this part, the licensee shall enter into arrangements with the Commission as may be appropriate to assure the long-term surveillance of such lands by the United States.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Long-Term Site Surveillance
</HD1>
<P><I>Criterion 12</I>—The final disposition of tailings, residual radioactive material, or wastes at milling sites should be such that ongoing active maintenance is not necessary to preserve isolation. As a minimum, annual site inspections must be conducted by the government agency responsible for long-term care of the disposal site to confirm its integrity and to determine the need, if any, for maintenance and/or monitoring. Results of the inspections for all the sites under the licensee's jurisdiction will be reported to the Commission annually within 90 days of the last site inspection in that calendar year. Any site where unusual damage or disruption is discovered during the inspection, however, will require a preliminary site inspection report to be submitted within 60 days. On the basis of a site specific evaluation, the Commission may require more frequent site inspections if necessary due to the features of a particular disposal site. In this case, a preliminary inspection report is required to be submitted within 60 days following each inspection.
</P>
<HD1>V. Hazardous Constituents
</HD1>
<P><I>Criterion 13</I>—Secondary groundwater protection standards required by Criterion 5 of this appendix are concentration limits for individual hazardous constituents. The following list of constituents identifies the constituents for which standards must be set and complied with if the specific constituent is reasonably expected to be in or derived from the byproduct material and has been detected in groundwater. For purposes of this appendix, the property of gross alpha activity will be treated as if it is a hazardous constituent. Thus, when setting standards under paragraph 5B(5) of Criterion 5, the Commission will also set a limit for gross alpha activity. The Commission does not consider the following list imposed by 40 CFR part 192 to be exhaustive and may determine other constituents to be hazardous on a case-by-case basis, independent of those specified by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency in part 192.
</P>
<HD2>Hazardous Constituents
</HD2>
<FP-1>Acetonitrile (Ethanenitrile)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetophenone (Ethanone, 1-phenyl)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-(alpha-Acetonylbenzyl)-4-hydroxycoumarin and salts (Warfarin)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Acetylaminofluorene (Acetamide, N-(9H-fluoren-2-yl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acetyl chloride (Ethanoyl chloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Acetyl-2-thiourea (Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acrolein (2-Propenal)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acrylamide (2-Propenamide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Acrylonitrile (2-Propenenitrile)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aflatoxins
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aldrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-endo, exo-1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allyl alcohol (2-Propen-1-ol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aluminum phosphide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Aminobiphenyl ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-4-amine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>6-Amino-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8-(hydroxymethyl)-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-carbamate azirino[2′,3′:3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, (ester) (Mitomycin C) (Azirino[2′3′:3,4]pyrrolo(1,2-a)indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[((amino-cabonyl)oxy)methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexa-hydro-8a methoxy-5-methy-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol (3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)-) 4-Aminopyridine (4-Pyridinamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amitrole (1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aniline (Benzenamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Antimony and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP-1>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The abbreviation N.O.S. (not otherwise specified) signifies those members of the general class not specifically listed by name in this list.</P></FTNT>
<FP-1>Aramite (Sulfurous acid, 2-chloroethyl-, 2-[4-(1,1-dimethylethyl) phenoxy]-1-methylethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic acid (Orthoarsenic acid)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic pentoxide (Arsenic (V) oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arsenic trioxide (Arsenic (III) oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Auramine (Benzenamine, 4,4′-carbonimidoylbis[N,N-Dimethyl-, monohydrochloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Azaserine (L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Barium and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Barium cyanide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benz[c]acridine (3,4-Benzacridine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benz[a]anthracene (1,2-Benzanthracene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzene (Cyclohexatriene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzenearsonic acid (Arsonic acid, phenyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzene, dichloromethyl- (Benzal chloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzenethiol (Thiophenol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzidine ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′ diamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzo[b]fluoranthene (2,3-Benzofluoranthene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzo[j]fluoranthene (7,8-Benzofluoranthene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzo[a]pyrene (3,4-Benzopyrene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>p-Benzoquinone (1,4-Cyclohexadienedione)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzotrichloride (Benzene, trichloromethyl)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Benzyl chloride (Benzene, (chloromethyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Beryllium and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bis(2-chloroethoxy)methane (Ethane, 1,1′-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro-])
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bis(2-chloroethyl) ether (Ethane, 1,1′-oxybis[2-chloro-])
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N,N-Bis(2-chloroethyl)-2-naphthylamine (Chlornaphazine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ether (Propane, 2,2′-oxybis[2-chloro-])
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bis(chloromethyl) ether (Methane, oxybis[chloro-])
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bromoacetone (2-Propanone, 1-bromo-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bromomethane (Methyl bromide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether (Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brucine (Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Butanone peroxide (Methyl ethyl ketone, peroxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Butyl benzyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, butyl phenylmethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (DNBP) (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6-(1-methylpropyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cadmium and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium chromate (Chromic acid, calcium salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcium cyanide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbon disulfide (Carbon bisulfide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbon oxyfluoride (Carbonyl fluoride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloral (Acetaldehyde, trichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorambucil (Butanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]benzene-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlordane (alpha and gamma isomers) (4,7-Methanoindan, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-3,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-) (alpha and gamma isomers)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorinated benzenes, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorinated ethane, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorinated fluorocarbons, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorinated naphthalene, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorinated phenol, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroacetaldehyde (Acetaldehyde, chloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroalkyl ethers, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>p-Chloroaniline (Benzenamine, 4-chloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorobenzene (Benzene, chloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chlorobenzilate (Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-,ethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>p-Chloro-m-cresol (Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane (Oxirane, 2-(chloromethyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether (Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloroform (Methane, trichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloromethane (Methyl chloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chloromethyl methyl ether (Methane, chloromethoxy-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Chloronaphthalene (Naphthalene, betachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Chlorophenol (Phenol, o-chloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea (Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Chloropropionitrile (Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chromium and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chrysene (1,2-Benzphenanthrene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Citrus red No. 2 (2-Naphthol, 1-[(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)azo]-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coal tars
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Copper cyanide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Creosote (Creosote, wood)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cresols (Cresylic acid) (Phenol, methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Crotonaldehyde (2-Butenal)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes), N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyanogen (Ethanedinitrile)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyanogen bromide (Bromine cyanide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyanogen chloride (Chlorine cyanide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cycasin (beta-D-Glucopyranoside, (methyl-ONN-azoxy)methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyclophosphamide (2H-1,3,2,-Oxazaphosphorine, [bis(2-chloroethyl) amino]-tetrahydro-,2-oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Daunomycin (5,12-Naphthacenedione, (8S-cis)-8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DDD (Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(p-chlorophenyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DDE (Ethylene, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(4-chlorophenyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2-bis (p-chlorophenyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diallate (S-(2,3-dichloroallyl) diisopropylthiocarbamate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenz[a,h]acridine (1,2,5,6-Dibenzacridine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenz[a,j]acridine (1,2,7,8-Dibenzacridine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenz[a,h]anthracene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzanthracene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>7H-Dibenzo[c,g]carbazole (3,4,5,6-Dibenzcarbazole)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzo[a,e]pyrene (1,2,4,5-Dibenzpyrene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzo[a,h]pyrene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzpyrene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene (1,2,7,8-Dibenzpyrene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dibromoethane (Ethylene dibromide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dibromomethane (Methylene bromide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di-n-butyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>o-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>m-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>p-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,4-dichlor-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Benzene, dichloro-, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,3′-Dichlorobenzidine ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichlorodifluoromethane (Methane, dichlorodifluoro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,1-Dichloroethane (Ethylidene dichloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dichloroethane (Ethylene dichloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>trans-1,2-Dichloroethene (1,2-Dichloroethylene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichloroethylene, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Ethene, dichloro-, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,1-Dichloroethylene (Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichloromethane (Methylene chloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D), salts and esters (Acetic acid, 2,4-dichlorophenoxy-, salts and esters)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichlorophenylarsine (Phenyl dichloroarsine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichloropropane, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Propane, dichloro-, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dichloropropane (Propylene dichloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichloropropanol, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Propanol, dichloro-, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dichloropropene, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Propene, dichloro-, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Dichloropropene (1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dieldin (1,2,3,4,10.10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octa-hydro-endo, exo- 1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (2,2′-Bioxirane)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylarsine (Arsine, diethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N,N-Diethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>O,O-Diethyl S-methyl ester of phosphorodithioic acid (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>O,O-Diethylphosphoric acid, O-p-nitrophenyl ester (Phosphoric acid, diethyl p-nitrophenyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>O,O-Diethyl O-2-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diethylstilbesterol (4,4′-Stilbenediol,alpha,alpha-diethyl, bis(dihydrogen phosphate, (E)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dihydrosafrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-propyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,4-Dihydroxy-alpha-(methylamino)methyl benzyl alcohol (1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dilsopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) (Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethoate (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,3′-Dimethoxybenzidine ([1,1′-Biphenyl]- 4,4′-diamine, 3-3′-dimethoxy-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene (Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene (1,2-Benzanthracene, 7,12-dimethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,3′-Dimethylbenzidine ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-4,4′-diamine, 3,3′-dimethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride (Carbamoyl chloride, dimethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3,3-Dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-2-butanone, O-[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime (Thiofanox)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine (Ethanamine, 1,1-dimethyl-2-phenyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dimethylphenol (Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dimethyl sulfate (Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Benzene, dinitro-, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6-methyl-, and salts)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,6-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,6-dinitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di-n-octyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Dioxane (1,4-Diethylene oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Diphenylamine (Benzenamine, N-phenyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2-Diphenylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Di-n-propylnitrosamine (N-Nitroso-di-n-propylamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Disulfoton (O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] phosphorodithioate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4-Dithiobiuret (Thioimidodicarbonic diamide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Endosulfan (5-Norbornene, 2,3-dimethanol, 1,4,5,6,7,7-hexachloro-, cyclic sulfite)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Endrin and metabolites (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octahydro-endo,endo-1,4:5,8-dimethanonaphthalene, and metabolites)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl carbamate (Urethan) (Carbamic acid, ethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl cyanide (propanenitrile)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts and esters (1,2-Ethanediyl-biscarbamodithioic acid, salts and esters)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyleneimine (Aziridine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylene oxide (Oxirane)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethylenethiourea (2-Imidazolidinethione)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ethyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluoranthene (Benzo[j,k]fluorene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluorine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Fluoroacetamide (Acetamide, 2-fluoro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt (Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Formaldehyde (Methylene oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Formic acid (Methanoic acid)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glycidylaldehyde (1-Propanol-2,3-epoxy)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Halomethane, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptachlor (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heptachlor epoxide (alpha, beta, and gamma isomers) (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-2,3-epoxy-3a,4,7,7-tetrahydro-, alpha, beta, and gamma isomers)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorobenzene (Benzene, hexachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorobutadiene (1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorocyclohexane (all isomers) (Lindane and isomers)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorocyclopentadiene (1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachloroethane (Ethane, 1,1,1,2,2,2-hexachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2,3,4,10,10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1,4:5,8-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene (Hexachlorohexa-hydro-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachlorophene (2,2′-Methylenebis(3,4,6-trichlorophenol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexachloropropene (1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hexaethyl tetraphosphate (Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrazine (Diamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrocyanic acid (Hydrogen cyanide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrofluoric acid (Hydrogen fluoride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrogen sulfide (Sulfur hydride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydroxydimethylarsine oxide (Cacodylic acid)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Indeno (1,2,3-cd)pyrene (1,10-(1,2-phenylene)pyrene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iodomethane (Methyl iodide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iron dextran (Ferric dextran)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isocyanic acid, methyl ester (Methyl isocyanate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isobutyl alcohol (1-Propanol, 2-methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isosafrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-allyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kepone (Decachlorooctahydro-1,3,4-Methano-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lasiocarpine (2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl]-2,3,5,7a- tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead acetate (Acetic acid, lead salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead phosphate (Phosphoric acid, lead salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lead subacetate (Lead, bis(acetato-0)tetrahydroxytri-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maleic anhydride (2,5-Furandione)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Maleic hydrazide (1,2-Dihydro-3,6-pyridazinedione)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Malononitrile (Propanedinitrile)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melphalan (Alanine, 3-[p-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]phenyl-,L-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury fulminate (Fulminic acid, mercury salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mercury and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methacrylonitrile (2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methanethiol (Thiomethanol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methapyrilene (Pyridine. 2-[(2-dimethylamino)ethyl]-2-thenylamino-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Metholmyl (Acetimidic acid, N-[(methylcarbamoyl)oxy]thio-, methyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methoxychlor (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2′-bis(p-methoxyphenyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methylaziridine (1,2-Propylenimine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3-Methylcholanthrene (Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl chlorocarbonate (Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4,4′-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) (Benzenamine, 4,4′-methylenebis- (2-chloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (2-Butanone)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl hydrazine (Hydrazine, methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyllactonitrile (Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl) oxime (Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, 0-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Methyl-N′-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine (Guanidine, N-nitroso-N-methyl-N′- nitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methyl parathion (0,0-dimethyl 0-(4-nitrophenyl) phosphorothioate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Methylthiouracil (4-IH-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Molybdenum and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mustard gas (Sulfide, bis(2-chloroethyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Naphthalene
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,4-Naphthoquinone (1,4-Naphthalenedione)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Naphthylamine (alpha-Naphthylamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Naphthylamine (beta-Naphthylamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1-Naphthyl-2-thiourea (Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nickel and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nickel carbonyl (Nickel tetracarbonyl)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nickel cyanide (Nickel (II) cyanide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nicotine and salts (Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitric oxide (Nitrogen (II) oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>p-Nitroaniline (Benzenamine, 4-nitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrobenzine (Benzene, nitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrogen dioxide (Nitrogen (IV) oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrogen mustard and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-, N-(2-chloroethyl)- N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrogen mustard N-Oxide and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-, N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitroglycerine (1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Nitrophenol (Phenol, 4-nitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4-Nitroquinoline-1-oxide (Quinoline, 4-nitro-1-oxide-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrosamine, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine (1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosodiethanolamine (Ethanol, 2,2′-(nitrosoimino)bis-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosodiethylamine (Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosodimethylamine (Dimethylnitrosamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea (Carbamide, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosomethylethylamine (Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitroso-N-methylurea (Carbamide, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane (Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine (Ethenamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosomorpholine (Morpholine, N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosonornicotine (Nornicotine, N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrosopiperidine (Pyridine, hexahydro-, N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nitrosopyrrolidine (Pyrrole, tetrahydro-, N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Nitrososarcosine (Sarcosine, N-nitroso-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5-Nitro-o-toluidine (Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Octamethylpyrophosphoramide (Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Osmium tetroxide (Osmium (VIII) oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid (Endothal)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Paraldehyde (1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Parathion (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(p-nitrophenyl)ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentachlorobenzene (Benzene, pentachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentachloroethane (Ethane, pentachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) (Benzene, pentachloronitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pentachlorophenol (Phenol, pentachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenacetin (Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenol (Benzene, hydroxy-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylenediamine (Benzenediamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phenylmercury acetate (Mercury, acetatophenyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N-Phenylthiourea (Thiourea, phenyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosgene (Carbonyl chloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosphine (Hydrogen phosphide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester (Phorate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-[p-((dimethylamino)sulfonyl)phenyl] ester (Famphur)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Benzene, 1,2-dicarboxylic acid, esters, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phthalic anhydride (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid anhydride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Picoline (Pyridine, 2-methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polychlorinated biphenyl, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium cyanide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Potassium silver cyanide (Argentate(1-), dicyano-, potassium)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pronamide (3,5-Dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)benzamide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,3-Propane sultone (1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>n-Propylamine (1-Propanamine)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Propylthiouracil (Undecamethylenediamine, N,N′-bis(2-chlorobenzyl-), dihydrochloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2-Propyn-1-ol (Propargyl alcohol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyridine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Radium-226 and -228
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reserpine (Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[3,4,5- trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Resorcinol (1,3-Benzenediol)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saccharin and salts (1,2-Benzoisothiazolin-3-one, 1,1-dioxide, and salts)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Safrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-allyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Selenious acid (Selenium dioxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Selenium and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Selenium sulfide (Sulfur selenide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Selenourea (Carbamimidoselenoic acid)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silver and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Silver cyanide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sodium cyanide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Streptozotocin (D-Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Strontium sulfide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Strychnine and salts (Strychnidin-10-one, and salts)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD) (Dibenzo-p-dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Ethane, tetrachloro-, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,1,1,2-Tetrachlorethane (Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,1,2,2-Tetrachlorethane (Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrachloroethane (Ethene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetrachloromethane (Carbon tetrachloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,3,4,6,-Tetrachlorophenol (Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate (Dithiopyrophosphoric acid, tetraethyl-ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetraethyl lead (Plumbane, tetraethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetraethylpyrophosphate (Pyrophosphoric acide, tetraethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tetranitromethane (Methane, tetranitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thallium and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thallic oxide (Thallium (III) oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thallium (I) acetate (Acetic acid, thallium (I) salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thallium (I) carbonate (Carbonic acid, dithallium (I) salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thallium (I) chloride
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thallium (I) nitrate (Nitric acid, thallium (I) salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thallium selenite
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thallium (I) sulfate (Sulfuric acid, thallium (I) salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thioacetamide (Ethanethioamide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiosemicarbazide (Hydrazinecarbothioamide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiourea (Carbamide thio-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thiuram (Bis(dimethylthiocarbamoyl) disulfide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thorium and compounds, N.O.S.,
<SU>3</SU> when producing thorium byproduct material
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Toluene (Benzene, methyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Toluenediamine (Diaminotoluene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>o-Toluidine hydrochloride (Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tolylene diisocyanate (Benzene, l,3-diisocyanatomethyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Toxaphene (Camphene, octachloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tribromomethane (Bromoform)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,1,1-Trichloroethane (Methyl chloroform)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,1,2-Trichloroethane (Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trichloroethene (Trichloroethylene)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trichloromethanethiol (Methanethiol, trichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trichloromonofluoromethane (Methane, trichlorofluoro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4,5-Trichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4,6-Trichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4,5-T) (Acetic acid, 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxypropionic acid (2,4,5-TP) (Silvex) (Propionoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trichloropropane, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU> (Propane, trichloro-, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1,2,3-Trichloropropane (Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>O,O,O-Triethyl phosphorothioate (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,O-triethyl ester)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>sym-Trinitrobenzene (Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tris(1-azridinyl) phosphine sulfide (Phosphine sulfide, tris(1-aziridinyl-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate (1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trypan blue (2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3′-[(3,3′-dimethyl (1,1′-biphenyl)- 4,4′-diyl)bis(azo)]bis(5-amino-4-hydroxy-, tetrasodium salt)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uracil mustard (Uracil 5-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uranium and compounds, N.O.S. 
<SU>3</SU>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vanadic acid, ammonium salt (ammonium vanadate)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vanadium pentoxide (Vanadium (V) oxide)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vinyl chloride (Ethene, chloro-)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc cyanide
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zinc phosphide
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 41862, Oct. 16, 1985, as amended at 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 52 FR 43562, Nov. 13, 1987; 53 FR 19248, May 27, 1988; 55 FR 45600, Oct. 30, 1990; 56 FR 23473, May 21, 1991; 58 FR 67661, Dec. 22, 1993; 59 FR 28229, June 1, 1994; 64 FR 17510, Apr. 12, 1999; 77 FR 35570, June 17, 2012; 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016; 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="50" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 50—DOMESTIC LICENSING OF PRODUCTION AND UTILIZATION FACILITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 101, 102, 103, 104, 105, 108, 122, 147, 149, 161, 181, 182, 183, 184, 185, 186, 187, 189, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2131, 2132, 2133, 2134, 2135, 2138, 2152, 2167, 2169, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2235, 2236, 2237, 2239, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, sec. 306 (42 U.S.C. 10226); National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note; ADVANCE Act of 2024, sec. 301 (42 U.S.C. 2133 note).














</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.1" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.1   Basis, purpose, and procedures applicable.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are promulgated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919), and Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1242), to provide for the licensing of production and utilization facilities. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 50.5.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1897, Jan. 13, 1998]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.2" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part,
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919) including any amendments thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Alternate ac source</I> means an alternating current (ac) power source that is available to and located at or nearby a nuclear power plant and meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Is connectable to but not normally connected to the offsite or onsite emergency ac power systems;
</P>
<P>(2) Has minimum potential for common mode failure with offsite power or the onsite emergency ac power sources;
</P>
<P>(3) Is available in a timely manner after the onset of station blackout; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has sufficient capacity and reliability for operation of all systems required for coping with station blackout and for the time required to bring and maintain the plant in safe shutdown (non-design basis accident).
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a person or an entity applying for a license, permit, or other form of Commission permission or approval under this part or part 52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Atomic energy</I> means all forms of energy released in the course of nuclear fission or nuclear transformation.
</P>
<P><I>Atomic weapon</I> means any device utilizing atomic energy, exclusive of the means for transporting or propelling the device (where such means is a separable and divisible part of the device), the prinicipal purpose of which is for use as, or for development of, a weapon, a weapon prototype, or a weapon test device.
</P>
<P><I>Basic component</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) When applied to nuclear power reactors, any plant structure, system, component, or part thereof necessary to assure
</P>
<P>(i) The integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary,
</P>
<P>(ii) The capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition, or
</P>
<P>(iii) The capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents which could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to those referred to in § 50.34(a)(1), § 50.67(b)(2), or § 100.11 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) When applied to other types of facilities or portions of such facilities for which construction permits are issued under § 50.23, a component, structure, system or part thereof that is directly procured by the construction permit holder for the facility subject to the regulations of this part and in which a defect or failure to comply with any applicable regulation in this chapter, order, or license issued by the Commission could create a substantial safety hazard.
</P>
<P>(3) In all cases, <I>basic component</I> includes safety related design, analysis, inspection, testing, fabrication, replacement parts, or consulting services that are associated with the component hardware, whether these services are performed by the component supplier or other supplier.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Certified fuel handler</I> means, for a nuclear power reactor facility, a non-licensed operator who has qualified in accordance with a fuel handler training program approved by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Committed dose equivalent</I> means the dose equivalent to organs or tissues of reference that will be received from an intake of radioactive material by an individual during the 50-year period following the intake.
</P>
<P><I>Committed effective dose equivalent</I> is the sum of the products of the weighting factors applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated and the committed dose equivalent to these organs or tissues.
</P>
<P><I>Common defense and security</I> means the common defense and security of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> or <I>constructing</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e), the analysis, design, manufacture, fabrication, quality assurance, placement, erection, installation, modification, inspection, or testing of a facility or activity which is subject to the regulations in this part and consulting services related to the facility or activity that are safety related.
</P>
<P><I>Controls</I> when used with respect to nuclear reactors means apparatus and mechanisms, the manipulation of which directly affects the reactivity or power level of the reactor.
</P>
<P><I>Controls</I> when used with respect to any other facility means apparatus and mechanisms, the manipulation of which could affect the chemical, physical, metallurgical, or nuclear process of the facility in such a manner as to affect the protection of health and safety against radiation.
</P>
<P><I>Cost of service regulation</I> means the traditional system of rate regulation, or similar regulation, including “price cap” or “incentive” regulation, in which a rate regulatory authority generally allows an electric utility to charge its customers the reasonable and prudent costs of providing electricity services, including capital, operations, maintenance, fuel, decommissioning, and other costs required to provide such services.
</P>
<P><I>Decommission</I> means to remove a facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits—
</P>
<P>(1) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or
</P>
<P>(2) Release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Deep-dose equivalent,</I> which applies to external whole-body exposure, is the dose equivalent at a tissue depth of 1 cm (1000mg/cm
<SU>2</SU>).
</P>
<P><I>Defect</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) A deviation in a basic component delivered to a purchaser for use in a facility or activity subject to a construction permit under this part, if on the basis of an evaluation, the deviation could create a substantial safety hazard; or
</P>
<P>(2) The installation, use, or operation of a basic component containing, a defect as defined in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(3) A deviation in a portion of a facility subject to the construction permit of this part provided the deviation could, on the basis of an evaluation, create a substantial safety hazard.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> and <I>Department of Energy</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>), to the extent that the department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components and transferred to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104 (b), (c) and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151).
</P>
<P><I>Design bases</I> means that information which identifies the specific functions to be performed by a structure, system, or component of a facility, and the specific values or ranges of values chosen for controlling parameters as reference bounds for design. These values may be (1) restraints derived from generally accepted “state of the art” practices for achieving functional goals, or (2) requirements derived from analysis (based on calculation and/or experiments) of the effects of a postulated accident for which a structure, system, or component must meet its functional goals.
</P>
<P><I>Deviation</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter, a departure from the technical or quality assurance requirements defined in procurement documents, safety analysis report, construction permit, or other documents provided for basic components installed in a facility subject to the regulations of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter, an individual, appointed or elected according to law, who is authorized to manage and direct the affairs of a corporation, partnership or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Discovery</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter, the completion of the documentation first identifying the existence of a deviation or failure to comply potentially associated with a substantial safety hazard within the evaluation procedures discussed in § 50.55(e)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Electric utility</I> means any entity that generates or distributes electricity and which recovers the cost of this electricity, either directly or indirectly, through rates established by the entity itself or by a separate regulatory authority. Investor-owned utilities, including generation or distribution subsidiaries, public utility districts, municipalities, rural electric cooperatives, and State and Federal agencies, including associations of any of the foregoing, are included within the meaning of “electric utility.”
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter, the process of determining whether a particular deviation could create a substantial safety hazard or determining whether a failure to comply is associated with a substantial safety hazard.
</P>
<P><I>Exclusion area</I> means that area surrounding the reactor, in which the reactor licensee has the authority to determine all activities including exclusion or removal of personnel and property from the area. This area may be traversed by a highway, railroad, or waterway, provided these are not so close to the facility as to interfere with normal operations of the facility and provided appropriate and effective arrangements are made to control traffic on the highway, railroad, or waterway, in case of emergency, to protect the public health and safety. Residence within the exclusion area shall normally be prohibited. In any event, residents shall be subject to ready removal in case of necessity. Activities unrelated to operation of the reactor may be permitted in an exclusion area under appropriate limitations, provided that no significant hazards to the public health and safety will result.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Government funding for conversion</I> means funds appropriated to the Department of Energy or to any other Federal Agency to pay directly to or to reimburse non-power reactor licensees for costs attendant to conversion.
</P>
<P><I>Federal licensee</I> means any NRC licensee, the obligations of which are guaranteed by and supported by the full faith and credit of the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Fuel acceptable to the Commission</I> means that the fuel replacing the existing HEU fuel in a specific non-power reactor (1) meets the operating requirements of the existing license or, through appropriate NRC safety review and approval, can be used in a manner which protects public health and safety and promotes the common defense and security; and (2) meets the Commission's policy of limiting, to the maximum extent possible, the use of HEU fuel in that reactor.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government.
</P>
<P><I>Highly enriched uranium (HEU) fuel</I> means fuel in which the weight percent of U-235 in the uranium is 20% or greater. Target material, special instrumentation, or experimental devices using HEU are not included.
</P>
<P><I>Historical site assessment</I> means the identification of potential, likely, or known sources of radioactive material and radioactive contamination based on existing or derived information for the purpose of classifying a facility or site, or parts thereof, as impacted or non-impacted. 
</P>
<P><I>Impacted areas</I> mean the areas with some reasonable potential for residual radioactivity in excess of natural background or fallout levels.
</P>
<P><I>Incentive regulation</I> means the system of rate regulation in which a rate regulatory authority establishes rates that an electric generator may charge its customers that are based on specified performance factors, in addition to cost-of-service factors.
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a license, including a construction permit or operating license under this part, an early site permit, combined license or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, or a renewed license issued by the Commission under this part, part 52, or part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means a person who is authorized to conduct activities under a license issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Low enriched uranium (LEU) fuel</I> means fuel in which the weight percent of U-235 in the uranium is less than 20%.
</P>
<P><I>Low population zone</I> means the area immediately surrounding the exclusion area which contains residents, the total number and density of which are such that there is a reasonable probability that appropriate protective measures could be taken in their behalf in the event of a serious accident. These guides do not specify a permissible population density or total population within this zone because the situation may vary from case to case. Whether a specific number of people can, for example, be evacuated from a specific area, or instructed to take shelter, on a timely basis will depend on many factors such as location, number and size of highways, scope and extent of advance planning, and actual distribution of residents within the area.
</P>
<P><I>Major decommissioning activity</I> means, for a nuclear power reactor facility, any activity that results in permanent removal of major radioactive components, permanently modifies the structure of the containment, or results in dismantling components for shipment containing greater than class C waste in accordance with § 61.55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Major radioactive components</I> means, for a nuclear power reactor facility, the reactor vessel and internals, steam generators, pressurizers, large bore reactor coolant system piping, and other large components that are radioactive to a comparable degree.
</P>
<P><I>Non-bypassable charges</I> mean those charges imposed over an established time period by a Government authority that affected persons or entities are required to pay to cover costs associated with the decommissioning of a nuclear power plant. Such charges include, but are not limited to, wire charges, stranded cost charges, transition charges, exit fees, other similar charges, or the securitized proceeds of a revenue stream.
</P>
<P><I>Non-impacted areas</I> mean the areas with no reasonable potential for residual radioactivity in excess of natural background or fallout levels.
</P>
<P><I>Non-light-water reactor</I> means a nuclear power reactor using a coolant other than light water.
</P>
<P><I>Non-power production or utilization facility</I> means a production or utilization facility, licensed under § 50.21(a) or (c), or § 50.22, as applicable, that is not a nuclear power reactor or a production facility as defined under paragraphs (1) and (2) of the definition of <I>Production facility</I> in this section.


</P>
<P><I>Non-power reactor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A testing facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) A research reactor, which is a non-power production or utilization facility that is a nuclear reactor licensed under § 50.21(c):
</P>
<P>(i) For which a safety assessment demonstrates accident radiation doses consistent with § 50.34(a)(1)(i); and
</P>
<P>(ii) That is not a testing facility; or
</P>
<P>(3) A commercial or industrial reactor, which is a non-power production or utilization facility that is a nuclear reactor licensed under § 50.22:
</P>
<P>(i) For which a safety assessment demonstrates accident radiation doses consistent with § 50.34(a)(1)(i); and
</P>
<P>(ii) That is not a testing facility.






</P>
<P><I>Notification</I> means the telephonic communication to the NRC Operations Center or written transmittal of information to the NRC Document Control Desk.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means an apparatus, other than an atomic weapon, designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-supporting chain reaction.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent cessation of operation(s)</I> means, for a nuclear power reactor facility, a certification by a licensee to the NRC that it has permanently ceased or will permanently cease reactor operation(s), or a final legally effective order to permanently cease operation(s) has come into effect.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent fuel removal</I> means, for a nuclear power reactor facility, a certification by the licensee to the NRC that it has permanently removed all fuel assemblies from the reactor vessel.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means (1) any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, government agency other than the Commission or the Department, except that the Department shall be considered a person to the extent that its facilities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Price-cap regulation</I> means the system of rate regulation in which a rate regulatory authority establishes rates that an electric generator may charge its customers that are based on a specified maximum price of electricity.
</P>
<P><I>Procurement document</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter, a contract that defines the requirements which facilities or basic components must meet in order to be considered acceptable by the purchaser.
</P>
<P><I>Produce,</I> when used in relation to special nuclear material, means (1) to manufacture, make, produce, or refine special nuclear material; (2) to separate special nuclear material from other substances in which such material may be contained; or (3) to make or to produce new special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Production facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any nuclear reactor designed or used primarily for the formation of plutonium or uranium-233; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any facility designed or used for the separation of the isotopes of plutonium, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any facility designed or used for the processing of irradiated materials containing special nuclear material, except (i) laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes, (ii) facilities in which the only special nuclear materials contained in the irradiated material to be processed are uranium enriched in the isotope U-235 and plutonium produced by the irradiation, if the material processed contains not more than 10<E T="51">−6</E> grams of plutonium per gram of U-235 and has fission product activity not in excess of 0.25 millicuries of fission products per gram of U-235, and (iii) facilities in which processing is conducted pursuant to a license issued under parts 30 and 70 of this chapter, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, for the receipt, possession, use, and transfer of irradiated special nuclear material, which authorizes the processing of the irradiated material on a batch basis for the separation of selected fission products and limits the process batch to not more than 100 grams of uranium enriched in the isotope 235 and not more than 15 grams of any other special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Prototype plant</I> means a nuclear reactor that is used to test design features, such as the testing required under § 50.43(e). The prototype plant is similar to a first-of-a-kind or standard plant design in all features and size, but may include additional safety features to protect the public and the plant staff from the possible consequences of accidents during the testing period.
</P>
<P><I>Reactor coolant pressure boundary</I> means all those pressure-containing components of boiling and pressurized water-cooled nuclear power reactors, such as pressure vessels, piping, pumps, and valves, which are:
</P>
<P>(1) Part of the reactor coolant system, or
</P>
<P>(2) Connected to the reactor coolant system, up to and including any and all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The outermost containment isolation valve in system piping which penetrates primary reactor containment,
</P>
<P>(ii) The second of two valves normally closed during normal reactor operation in system piping which does not penetrate primary reactor containment,
</P>
<P>(iii) The reactor coolant system safety and relief valves.
</P>
<FP>For nuclear power reactors of the direct cycle boiling water type, the reactor coolant system extends to and includes the outermost containment isolation valve in the main steam and feedwater piping.
</FP>
<P><I>Research and development</I> means (1) theoretical analysis, exploration, or experimentation; or (2) the extension of investigative findings and theories of a scientific or technical nature into practical application for experimental and demonstration purposes, including the experimental production and testing of models, devices, equipment, materials, and processes.
</P>
<P><I>Responsible officer</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter, the president, vice-president, or other individual in the organization of a corporation, partnership, or other entity who is vested with executive authority over activities subject to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data</I> means all data concerning (1) design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons; (2) the production of special nuclear material; or (3) the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but shall not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Safe shutdown (non-design basis accident (non-DBA))</I> for station blackout means bringing the plant to those shutdown conditions specified in plant technical specifications as Hot Standby or Hot Shutdown, as appropriate (plants have the option of maintaining the RCS at normal operating temperatures or at reduced temperatures).
</P>
<P><I>Safety-related structures, systems and components</I> means those structures, systems and components that are relied upon to remain functional during and following design basis events to assure:
</P>
<P>(1) The integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary
</P>
<P>(2) The capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition; or
</P>
<P>(3) The capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents which could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to the applicable guideline exposures set forth in § 50.34(a)(1) or § 100.11 of this chapter, as applicable.


</P>
<P><I>Small modular reactor</I> means a power reactor, which may be of modular design as defined in § 52.1 of this chapter, licensed under § 50.21 or § 50.22 to produce heat energy up to 1,000 megawatts thermal per module.








</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means source material as defined in subsection 11z. of the Act and in the regulations contained in part 40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Source term</I> refers to the magnitude and mix of the radionuclides released from the fuel, expressed as fractions of the fission product inventory in the fuel, as well as their physical and chemical form, and the timing of their release.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means (1) plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope-233 or in the isotope-235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the act, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or (2) any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, but does not include source material.
</P>
<P><I>Station blackout</I> means the complete loss of alternating current (ac) electric power to the essential and nonessential switchgear buses in a nuclear power plant (<I>i.e.</I>, loss of offsite electric power system concurrent with turbine trip and unavailability of the onsite emergency ac power system). Station blackout does not include the loss of available ac power to buses fed by station batteries through inverters or by alternate ac sources as defined in this section, nor does it assume a concurrent single failure or design basis accident. At single unit sites, any emergency ac power source(s) in excess of the number required to meet minimum redundancy requirements (<I>i.e.</I>, single failure) for safe shutdown (non-DBA) is assumed to be available and may be designated as an alternate power source(s) provided the applicable requirements are met. At multi-unit sites, where the combination of emergency ac power sources exceeds the minimum redundancy requirements for safe shutdown (non-DBA) of all units, the remaining emergency ac power sources may be used as alternate ac power sources provided they meet the applicable requirements. If these criteria are not met, station blackout must be assumed on all the units.
</P>
<P><I>Substantial safety hazard</I> means, for the purposes of § 50.55(e) of this chapter, a loss of safety function to the extent that there is a major reduction in the degree of protection provided to public health and safety for any facility or activity authorized by the construction permit issued under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Testing facility</I> means a non-power production or utilization facility that is a nuclear reactor licensed under § 50.21(c) or § 50.22 for which:
</P>
<P>(1) Analyzed accident radiation doses are in excess of the dose criterion for facilities not subject to 10 CFR part 100 set forth in § 50.34(a)(1)(i); or
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission determines that the design, operation, or use and the associated risk warrant classification as a testing facility.


</P>
<P><I>Total Effective Dose Equivalent</I> (TEDE) means the sum of the effective dose equivalent (for external exposures) and the committed effective dose equivalent (for internal exposures).
</P>
<P><I>Unique purpose</I> means a project, program, or commercial activity which cannot reasonably be accomplished without the use of HEU fuel, and may include: (1) A specific experiment, program, or commercial activity (typically long-term) that significantly serves the U.S. national interest and cannot be accomplished without the use of HEU fuel; (2) Reactor physics or reactor development based explicitly on the use of HEU fuel; (3) Research projects based on neutron flux levels or spectra attainable only with HEU fuel; or (4) A reactor core of special design that could not perform its intended function without using HEU fuel.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Utilization facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any nuclear reactor other than one designed or used primarily for the formation of plutonium or U-233; or
</P>
<P>(2) An accelerator-driven subcritical operating assembly used for the irradiation of materials containing special nuclear material and described in the application assigned docket number 50-608.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Pursuant to subsections 11v. and 11cc., respectively, of the Act, the Commission may from time to time add to, or otherwise alter, the foregoing definitions of production and utilization facility. It may also include as a facility an important component part especially designed for a facility, but has not at this time included any component parts in the definitions.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 50.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.3" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.3   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 90 FR 55630, Dec. 3, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.4" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.4   Written communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> All correspondence, reports, applications, and other written communications from the applicant or licensee to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission concerning the regulations in this part or individual license conditions must be sent either by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738, between the hours of 8:15 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, e-mail, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent. If a submission due date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the next Federal working day becomes the official due date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution requirements.</I> Copies of all correspondence, reports, and other written communications concerning the regulations in this part or individual license conditions must be submitted to the persons listed below (addresses for the NRC Regional Offices are listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applications for amendment of permits and licenses; reports; and other communications.</I> All written communications (including responses to: generic letters, bulletins, information notices, regulatory information summaries, inspection reports, and miscellaneous requests for additional information) that are required of holders of operating licenses or construction permits issued pursuant to this part, must be submitted as follows, except as otherwise specified in paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(7) of this section: to the NRC's Document Control Desk (if on paper, the signed original), with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector, if one has been assigned to the site of the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applications for permits and licenses, and amendments to applications.</I> Applications for construction permits, applications for operating licenses and amendments to either type of application must be submitted as follows, except as otherwise specified in paragraphs (b)(3) through (b)(7) in this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Applications for licenses for facilities described in § 50.21 (a) and (c) and amendments to these applications must be sent to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office. If the application or amendment is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(ii) Applications for permits and licenses for facilities described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, and amendments to these applications must be sent to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector, if one has been assigned to the site of the facility. If the application or amendment is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceptance review application.</I> Written communications required for an application for determination of suitability for docketing under § 50.30(a)(6) must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security plan and related submissions.</I> Written communications, as defined in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section, must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(i) Physical security plan under § 50.34;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safeguards contingency plan under § 50.34;
</P>
<P>(iii) Change to security plan, guard training and qualification plan, or safeguards contingency plan made without prior Commission approval under § 50.54(p);
</P>
<P>(iv) Application for amendment of physical security plan, guard training and qualification plan, or safeguards contingency plan under § 50.90.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Emergency plan and related submissions.</I> Written communications as defined in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) through (iii) of this section must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(i) Emergency plan under § 50.34;
</P>
<P>(ii) Change to an emergency plan under § 50.54(q);
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency implementing procedures under appendix E.V of this part. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Updated FSAR.</I> An updated Final Safety Analysis Report (FSAR) or replacement pages, under § 50.71(e) must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility. Paper copy submissions may be made using replacement pages; however, if a licensee chooses to use electronic submission, all subsequent updates or submissions must be performed electronically on a total replacement basis. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original. If the communications are submitted electronically, see Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Quality assurance related submissions.</I> (i) A change to the Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description under § 50.54(a)(3) or § 50.55(f)(3), or a change to a licensee's NRC-accepted quality assurance topical report under § 50.54(a)(3) or § 50.55(f)(3), must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A change to an NRC-accepted quality assurance topical report from nonlicensees (<I>i.e.,</I> architect/engineers, NSSS suppliers, fuel suppliers, constructors, etc.) must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Certification of permanent cessation of operations.</I> The licensee's certification of permanent cessation of operations, under § 50.82(a)(1), must state the date on which operations have ceased or will cease, and must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. This submission must be under oath or affirmation. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Certification of permanent fuel removal.</I> The licensee's certification of permanent fuel removal, under § 50.82(a)(1), must state the date on which the fuel was removed from the reactor vessel and the disposition of the fuel, and must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. This submission must be under oath or affirmation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of communications.</I> All paper copies submitted to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section must be typewritten, printed or otherwise reproduced in permanent form on unglazed paper. Exceptions to these requirements imposed on paper submissions may be granted for the submission of micrographic, photographic, or similar forms. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Regulation governing submission.</I> Licensees and applicants submitting correspondence, reports, and other written communications under the regulations of this part are requested but not required to cite whenever practical, in the upper right corner of the first page of the submission, the specific regulation or other basis requiring submission. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conflicting requirements.</I> The communications requirements contained in this section and §§ 50.12, 50.30, 50.36, 50.36a. 50.44, 50.49, 50.54, 50.55, 50.55a, 50.59, 50.62, 50.71, 50.73, 50.82, 50.90, and 50.91 supersede and replace all existing requirements in any license conditions or technical specifications in effect on January 5, 1987. Exceptions to these requirements must be approved by the Office of the Chief Information Officer, Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (301) 415-7233, e-mail <I>INFOCOLLECTS@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58808, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62682, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74979, Dec. 1, 2015; 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.5" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.5   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, applicant for a license, employee of a licensee or applicant; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or applicant for a license, who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities in this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, an applicant, or a licensee's or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1897, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.7" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.7   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act.
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text.
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation.
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages.
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraph (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant may be grounds for—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license.
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each licensee and each applicant for a license shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(e)(1). This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, and for 30 days following license termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 52410, Oct. 8, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 24551, May 9, 1995; 61 FR 6765, Feb. 22, 1996; 68 FR 58809, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63974, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30458, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66603, Nov. 10, 2014; 83 FR 58465, Nov. 20, 2018]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.8" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0011.


</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 50.12, 50.30, 50.33, 50.34, 50.34a, 50.35, 50.36, 50.36a, 50.36b, 50.44, 50.46, 50.47, 50.48, 50.49, 50.54, 50.55, 50.55a, 50.59, 50.60, 50.61, 50.61a, 50.62, 50.63, 50.64, 50.65, 50.66, 50.68, 50.69, 50.70, 50.71, 50.72, 50.74, 50.75, 50.80, 50.82, 50.90, 50.91, 50.120, 50.135, 50.150, 50.155, 50.160, and appendices A, B, E, G, H, I, J, K, M, N,O, Q, R, and S to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 50.73, NRC Form 366 is approved under control number 3150-0104.
</P>
<P>(2) In § 50.78, IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms  are approved under control number 3150-0056.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 50.78, DOC/NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control numbers 0694-0135.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19627, May 9, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 68731, Dec. 29, 1993; 60 FR 65468, Dec. 19, 1995; 61 FR 65172, Dec. 11, 1996; 62 FR 52187, Oct. 6, 1997; 67 FR 67099, Nov. 4, 2002; 68 FR 19727, Apr. 22, 2003; 69 FR 68046, Nov. 22, 2004; 70 FR 61887, Oct. 27, 2005; 73 FR 78605, Dec. 23, 2008; 74 FR 28145, June 12, 2009; 75 FR 22, Jan. 4, 2010; 77 FR 39907, July 6, 2012; 83 FR 58465, Nov. 20, 2018; 84 FR 39718, Aug. 9, 2019; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020; 88 FR 80074, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 106250, Dec. 30, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.9" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.103.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.9   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant or licensee shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant or licensee violates this paragraph only if the applicant or licensee fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant or licensee has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification shall be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within two working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49372, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="104" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.104" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Requirement of License, Exceptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.10" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.104.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.10   License required; limited work authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section, <I>construction</I> means the activities in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and does not mean the activities in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Activities constituting construction are the driving of piles, subsurface preparation, placement of backfill, concrete, or permanent retaining walls within an excavation, installation of foundations, or in-place assembly, erection, fabrication, or testing, which are for:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety-related structures, systems, or components (SSCs) of a facility, as defined in 10 CFR 50.2;
</P>
<P>(ii) SSCs relied upon to mitigate accidents or transients or used in plant emergency operating procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) SSCs whose failure could prevent safety-related SSCs from fulfilling their safety-related function;
</P>
<P>(iv) SSCs whose failure could cause a reactor scram or actuation of a safety-related system;
</P>
<P>(v) SSCs necessary to comply with 10 CFR part 73;
</P>
<P>(vi) SSCs necessary to comply with 10 CFR 50.48 and criterion 3 of 10 CFR part 50, appendix A; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Onsite emergency facilities necessary to comply with either § 50.160 or § 50.47 and appendix E to this part, as applicable.


</P>
<P>(2) Construction does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes for temporary use of the land for public recreational purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Site exploration, including necessary borings to determine foundation conditions or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site, the environmental impacts of construction or operation, or the protection of environmental values;
</P>
<P>(iii) Preparation of a site for construction of a facility, including clearing of the site, grading, installation of drainage, erosion and other environmental mitigation measures, and construction of temporary roads and borrow areas;
</P>
<P>(iv) Erection of fences and other access control measures;
</P>
<P>(v) Excavation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Erection of support buildings (such as, construction equipment storage sheds, warehouse and shop facilities, utilities, concrete mixing plants, docking and unloading facilities, and office buildings) for use in connection with the construction of the facility;
</P>
<P>(vii) Building of service facilities, such as paved roads, parking lots, railroad spurs, exterior utility and lighting systems, potable water systems, sanitary sewerage treatment facilities, and transmission lines;
</P>
<P>(viii) Procurement or fabrication of components or portions of the proposed facility occurring at other than the final, in-place location at the facility;
</P>
<P>(ix) Manufacture of a nuclear power reactor under a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 of this chapter to be installed at the proposed site and to be part of the proposed facility; or
</P>
<P>(x) With respect to production or utilization facilities, other than testing facilities and nuclear power plants, required to be licensed under Section 104.a or Section 104.c of the Act, the erection of buildings which will be used for activities other than operation of a facility and which may also be used to house a facility (e.g., the construction of a college laboratory building with space for installation of a training reactor).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement for license.</I> Except as provided in § 50.11 of this chapter, no person within the United States shall transfer or receive in interstate commerce, manufacture, produce, transfer, acquire, possess, or use any production or utilization facility except as authorized by a license issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirement for construction permit, early site permit authorizing limited work authorization activities, combined license, or limited work authorization.</I> No person may begin the construction of a production or utilization facility on a site on which the facility is to be operated until that person has been issued either a construction permit under this part, a combined license under part 52 of this chapter, an early site permit authorizing the activities under paragraph (d) of this section, or a limited work authorization under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for limited work authorization.</I> (1) Any person to whom the Commission may otherwise issue either a license or permit under Sections 103, 104.b, or 185 of the Act for a facility of the type specified in §§ 50.21(b)(2), (b)(3), or 50.22 of this chapter, or a testing facility, may request a limited work authorization allowing that person to perform the driving of piles, subsurface preparation, placement of backfill, concrete, or permanent retaining walls within an excavation, installation of the foundation, including placement of concrete, any of which are for an SSC of the facility for which either a construction permit or combined license is otherwise required under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An application for a limited work authorization may be submitted as part of a complete application for a construction permit or combined license in accordance with 10 CFR 2.101(a)(1) through (a)(5), or as a partial application in accordance with 10 CFR 2.101(a)(9). An application for a limited work authorization must be submitted by an applicant for or holder of an early site permit as a complete application in accordance with 10 CFR 2.101(a)(1) through (a)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) The application must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A safety analysis report required by 10 CFR 50.34, 10 CFR 52.17 or 10 CFR 52.79 of this chapter, as applicable, a description of the activities requested to be performed, and the design and construction information otherwise required by the Commission's rules and regulations to be submitted for a construction permit or combined license, but limited to those portions of the facility that are within the scope of the limited work authorization. The safety analysis report must demonstrate that activities conducted under the limited work authorization will be conducted in compliance with the technically-relevant Commission requirements in 10 CFR Chapter I applicable to the design of those portions of the facility within the scope of the limited work authorization;
</P>
<P>(ii) An environmental report in accordance with § 51.49 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A plan for redress of activities performed under the limited work authorization, should limited work activities be terminated by the holder or the limited work authorization be revoked by the NRC, or upon effectiveness of the Commission's final decision denying the associated construction permit or combined license application, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Issuance of limited work authorization.</I> (1) The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation may issue a limited work authorization only after:
</P>
<P>(i) The NRC staff issues the final environmental impact statement for the limited work authorization in accordance with subpart A of part 51 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director determines that the applicable standards and requirements of the Act, and the Commission's regulations applicable to the activities to be conducted under the limited work authorization, have been met; the applicant is technically qualified to engage in the activities authorized; and issuance of the limited work authorization will provide reasonable assurance of adequate protection to public health and safety and will not be inimical to the common defense and security; and




</P>
<P>(iii) If a contested hearing is held, the presiding officer finds that there are no unresolved safety issues relating to the activities to be conducted under the limited work authorization that would constitute good cause for withholding the authorization.


</P>
<P>(2) Each limited work authorization will specify the activities that the holder is authorized to perform.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect of limited work authorization.</I> Any activities undertaken under a limited work authorization are entirely at the risk of the applicant and, except as to the matters determined under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the issuance of the limited work authorization has no bearing on the issuance of a construction permit or combined license with respect to the requirements of the Act, and rules, regulations, or orders issued under the Act. The environmental impact statement for a construction permit or combined license application for which a limited work authorization was previously issued will not address, and the presiding officer in a contested hearing will not consider, the sunk costs of the holder of limited work authorization in determining the proposed action (<I>i.e.,</I> issuance of the construction permit or combined license).


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Implementation of redress plan.</I> If construction is terminated by the holder, the underlying application is withdrawn by the applicant or denied by the NRC, or the limited work authorization is revoked by the NRC, then the holder must begin implementation of the redress plan in a reasonable time. The holder must also complete the redress of the site no later than 18 months after termination of construction, revocation of the limited work authorization, or upon effectiveness of the Commission's final decision denying the associated construction permit application or the underlying combined license application, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 57441, Oct. 9, 2007; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019; 88 FR 80074, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 57719, July 16, 2024; 91 FR 20066, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.11" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.104.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.11   Exceptions and exemptions from licensing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be deemed to require a license for:
</P>
<P>(a) The manufacture, production, or acquisition by the Department of Defense of any utilization facility authorized pursuant to section 91 of the Act, or the use of such facility by the Department of Defense or by a person under contract with and for the account of the Department of Defense;
</P>
<P>(b) Except to the extent that Administration facilities of the types subject to licensing pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 are involved;
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The processing, fabrication or refining of special nuclear material or the separation of special nuclear material, or the separation of special nuclear material from other substances by a prime contractor of the Department under a prime contract for:
</P>
<P>(A) The performance of work for the Department at a United States government-owned or controlled site;
</P>
<P>(B) Research in, or development, manufacture, storage, testing or transportation of, atomic weapons or components thereof; or
</P>
<P>(C) The use or operation of a production or utilization facility in a United States owned vehicle or vessel; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By a prime contractor or subcontractor of the Commission or the Department under a prime contract or subcontract when the Commission determines that the exemption of the prime contractor or subcontractor is authorized by law; and that, under the terms of the contract or subcontract, there is adequate assurance that the work thereunder can be accomplished without undue risk to the public health and safety;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The construction or operation of a production or utilization facility for the Department at a United States government-owned or controlled site, including the transportation of the production or utilization facility to or from such site and the performance of contract services during temporary interruptions of such transportation; or the construction or operation of a production or utilization facility for the Department in the performance of research in, or development, manufacture, storage, testing, or transportation of, atomic weapons or components thereof; or the use or operation of a production or utilization facility for the Department in a United States government-owned vehicle or vessel: <I>Provided,</I> That such activities are conducted by a prime contractor of the Department under a prime contract with the Department.
</P>
<P>(ii) The construction or operation of a production or utilization facility by a prime contractor or subcontractor of the Commission or the Department under his prime contract or subcontract when the Commission determines that the exemption of the prime contractor or subcontractor is authorized by law; and that, under the terms of the contract or subcontract, there is adequate assurance that the work thereunder can be accomplished without undue risk to the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(c) The transportation or possession of any production or utilization facility by a common or contract carrier or warehousemen in the regular course of carriage for another or storage incident thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8788, Mar. 3, 1975, as amended at 65 FR 54950, Sept. 12, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.12" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.104.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.12   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of the regulations of this part, which are—
</P>
<P>(1) Authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and are consistent with the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission will not consider granting an exemption unless special circumstances are present. Special circumstances are present whenever—
</P>
<P>(i) Application of the regulation in the particular circumstances conflicts with other rules or requirements of the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Application of the regulation in the particular circumstances would not serve the underlying purpose of the rule or is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Compliance would result in undue hardship or other costs that are significantly in excess of those contemplated when the regulation was adopted, or that are significantly in excess of those incurred by others similarly situated; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The exemption would result in benefit to the public health and safety that compensates for any decrease in safety that may result from the grant of the exemption; or
</P>
<P>(v) The exemption would provide only temporary relief from the applicable regulation and the licensee or applicant has made good faith efforts to comply with the regulation; or
</P>
<P>(vi) There is present any other material circumstance not considered when the regulation was adopted for which it would be in the public interest to grant an exemption. If such condition is relied on exclusively for satisfying paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the exemption may not be granted until the Executive Director for Operations has consulted with the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may request an exemption permitting the conduct of activities prior to the issuance of a construction permit prohibited by § 50.10. The Commission may grant such an exemption upon considering and balancing the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether conduct of the proposed activities will give rise to a significant adverse impact on the environment and the nature and extent of such impact, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether redress of any adverse environment impact from conduct of the proposed activities can reasonably be effected should such redress be necessary;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether conduct of the proposed activities would foreclose subsequent adoption of alternatives; and
</P>
<P>(4) The effect of delay in conducting such activities on the public interest, including the power needs to be used by the proposed facility, the availability of alternative sources, if any, to meet those needs on a timely basis and delay costs to the applicant and to consumers.
</P>
<FP>Issuance of such an exemption shall not be deemed to constitute a commitment to issue a construction permit. During the period of any exemption granted pursuant to this paragraph (b), any activities conducted shall be carried out in such a manner as will minimize or reduce their environmental impact.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 5748, Mar. 21, 1972, as amended at 40 FR 8789, Mar. 3, 1975; 50 FR 50777, Dec. 12, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.13" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.104.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.13   Attacks and destructive acts by enemies of the United States; and defense activities.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant for a license to construct and operate a production or utilization facility, or for an amendment to such license, is not required to provide for design features or other measures for the specific purpose of protection against the effects of (a) attacks and destructive acts, including sabotage, directed against the facility by an enemy of the United States, whether a foreign government or other person, or (b) use or deployment of weapons incident to U.S. defense activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 13445, Sept. 26, 1967]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="105" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.105" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Classification and Description of Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.20" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.105.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.20   Two classes of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Licenses will be issued to named persons applying to the Commission therefor, and will be either class 104 or class 103.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.21" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.105.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.21   Class 104 licenses; for medical therapy and research and development facilities.</HEAD>
<P>A class 104 license will be issued, to an applicant who qualifies, for any one or more of the following: to transfer or receive in interstate commerce, manufacture, produce, transfer, acquire, possess, or use.
</P>
<P>(a) A utilization facility for use in medical therapy; or
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A production or utilization facility the construction or operation of which was licensed pursuant to subsection 104b of the Act prior to December 19, 1970;
</P>
<P>(2) A production or utilization facility for industrial or commercial purposes constructed or operated under an arrangement with the Administration entered into under the Cooperative Power Reactor Demonstration Program, except as otherwise specifically required by applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(3) A production or utilization facility for industrial or commercial purposes, when specifically authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(c) A production or utilization facility, which is useful in the conduct of research and development activities of the types specified in section 31 of the Act, and which is not a facility of the type specified  in § 50.22.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 31 FR 15145, Dec. 2, 1966; 35 FR 19659, Dec. 29, 1970; 38 FR 11446, May 8, 1973; 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978; 91 FR 21939, Apr. 24, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.22" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.105.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.22   Class 103 licenses; for commercial and industrial facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A class 103 license will be issued, to an applicant who qualifies, for any one or more of the following: To transfer or receive in interstate commerce, manufacture, produce, transfer, acquire, possess, or use a production or utilization facility for industrial or commercial purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a production facility that is useful in the conduct of research and development activities of the types specified in section 31 of the Act, such facility is deemed to be for industrial or commercial purposes and a class 103 license is required if the facility is to be used so that more than 50 percent of the annual costs to the licensee of owning and operating the facility are devoted to the production of materials, products, or energy for sale or commercial distribution, or to the sale of services, other than research and development or education or training.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of a utilization facility that is useful in the conduct of research and development activities of the types specified in section 31 of the Act, such facility is deemed to be for industrial or commercial purposes and a class 103 license is required if the facility is to be used so that:
</P>
<P>(1) more than 75 percent of the annual costs to the licensee of owning and operating the facility are devoted to the sale, other than for research and development or education and training, of nonenergy services, energy, or a combination of nonenergy services and energy; or
</P>
<P>(2) more than 50 percent of the annual costs to the licensee of owning and operating the facility are devoted to the sale of energy.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 21940, Apr. 24, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.23" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.105.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.23   Construction permits.</HEAD>
<P>A construction permit for the construction of a production or utilization facility will be issued before the issuance of a license if the application is otherwise acceptable, and will be converted upon completion of the facility and Commission action, into a license as provided in § 50.56. However, if a combined license for a nuclear power reactor is issued under part 52 of this chapter, the construction permit and operating license are deemed to be combined in a single license. A construction permit for the alteration of a production or utilization facility will be issued before the issuance of an amendment of a license, if the application for amendment is otherwise acceptable, as provided in § 50.92.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49490, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="106" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Applications for Licenses, Certifications, and Regulatory Approvals; Form; Contents; Ineligibility of Certain Applicants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.30" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.30   Filing of application; oath or affirmation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Serving of applications.</I> (1) Each filing of an application for a standard design approval or license to construct and/or operate, or manufacture, a production or utilization facility (including an early site permit, combined license, and manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter), and any amendments to the applications, must be submitted to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission in accordance with § 50.4 or § 52.3 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies of the general information and the safety analysis report, or part thereof or amendment thereto, for subsequent distribution in accordance with the written instructions of the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must make a copy of the updated application available at the public hearing for the use of any other parties to the proceeding, and shall certify that the updated copies of the application contain the current contents of the application submitted in accordance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) At the time of filing an application, the Commission will make available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I>, a copy of the application, subsequent amendments, and other records pertinent to the matter which is the subject of the application for public inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(5) The serving of copies required by this section must not occur until the application has been docketed under § 2.101(a) of this chapter. Copies must be submitted to the Commission, as specified in § 50.4 or § 52.3 of this chapter, as applicable, to enable the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, to determine whether the application is sufficiently complete to permit docketing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oath or affirmation.</I> Each application for a standard design approval or license, including, whenever appropriate, a construction permit or early site permit, or amendment of it, and each amendment of each application must be executed in a signed original by the applicant or duly authorized officer thereof under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application for operating licenses.</I> The holder of a construction permit for a production or utilization facility shall, at the time of submission of the final safety analysis report, file an application for an operating license. The application shall state the name of the applicant, the name, location and power level, if any, of the facility and the time when the facility is expected to be ready for operation and may incorporate by reference any pertinent information submitted in accordance with § 50.33 with the application for a construction permit.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing Fees.</I> Each application for a standard design approval or production or utilization facility license, including, whenever appropriate, a construction permit or early site permit, other than a license exempted from part 170 of this chapter, shall be accompanied by the fee prescribed in part 170 of this chapter. No fee will be required to accompany an application for renewal, amendment, or termination of a construction permit, operating license, combined license, or manufacturing license, except as provided in § 170.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Environmental report.</I> An application for a construction permit, operating license, early site permit, combined license, or manufacturing license for a nuclear power reactor, testing facility, fuel reprocessing plant, or other production or utilization facility whose construction or operation may be determined by the Commission to have a significant impact in the environment, shall be accompanied by an Environmental Report required under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[23 FR 3115, May 10, 1958, as amended at 33 FR 10924, Aug. 1, 1968; 34 FR 6307, Apr. 3, 1969; 35 FR 19660, Dec. 29, 1970; 37 FR 5749, Mar. 21, 1972; 51 FR 40307, Nov. 6, 1986; 64 FR 48951, Sept. 9, 1999; 68 FR 58809, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 49490, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 5721, Jan. 31, 2008; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019; 89 FR 57719, July 16, 2024; 91 FR 20066, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.31" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.31   Combining applications.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may combine in one his several applications for different kinds of licenses under the regulations in this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.32" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.32   Elimination of repetition.</HEAD>
<P>In his application, the applicant may incorporate by reference information contained in previous applications, statements or reports filed with the Commission: <I>Provided,</I> That such references are clear and specific.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.33" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.33   Contents of applications; general information.</HEAD>
<P>Each application shall state:
</P>
<P>(a) Name of applicant;
</P>
<P>(b) Address of applicant;
</P>
<P>(c) Description of business or occupation of applicant;
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If applicant is an individual, state citizenship.
</P>
<P>(2) If applicant is a partnership, state name, citizenship and address of each partner and the principal location where the partnership does business.
</P>
<P>(3) If applicant is a corporation or an unincorporated association, state:
</P>
<P>(i) The state where it is incorporated or organized and the principal location where it does business;
</P>
<P>(ii) The names, addresses and citizenship of its directors and of its principal officers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether it is owned, controlled, or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or foreign government, and if so, give details.
</P>
<P>(4) If the applicant is acting as agent or representative of another person in filing the application, identify the principal and furnish information required under this paragraph with respect to such principal.
</P>
<P>(e) The class of license applied for, the use to which the facility will be put, the period of time for which the license is sought, and a list of other licenses, except operator's licenses, issued or applied for in connection with the proposed facility.
</P>
<P>(f) Except for an electric utility applicant for a license to operate a utilization facility of the type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, information sufficient to demonstrate to the Commission the financial qualification of the applicant to carry out, in accordance with regulations in this chapter, the activities for which the permit or license is sought. As applicable, the following should be provided:
</P>
<P>(1) If the application is for a construction permit, the applicant shall submit information that demonstrates that the applicant possesses or has reasonable assurance of obtaining the funds necessary to cover estimated construction costs and related fuel cycle costs. The applicant shall submit estimates of the total construction costs of the facility and related fuel cycle costs, and shall indicate the source(s) of funds to cover these costs.


</P>
<P>(2) If the application is for an operating license, the applicant shall submit information that demonstrates the applicant possesses or has reasonable assurance of obtaining the funds necessary to cover estimated operation costs for the period of the license. The applicant shall submit estimates for total annual operating costs for each of the first five years of operation of the facility. The applicant shall also indicate the source(s) of funds to cover these costs. An applicant seeking to renew or extend the term of an operating license need not submit the financial information that is required in an application for an initial license. 






</P>
<P>(3) If the application is for a combined license under subpart C of part 52 of this chapter, the applicant shall submit the information described in paragraphs (f)(1) and (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Each application for a construction permit, operating license, or combined license submitted by a newly-formed entity organized for the primary purpose of constructing and/or operating a facility must also include information showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The legal and financial relationships it has or proposes to have with its stockholders or owners;
</P>
<P>(ii) The stockholders' or owners' financial ability to meet any contractual obligation to the entity which they have incurred or proposed to incur; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information considered necessary by the Commission to enable it to determine the applicant's financial qualification.
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission may request an established entity or newly-formed entity to submit additional or more detailed information respecting its financial arrangements and status of funds if the Commission considers this information appropriate. This may include information regarding a licensee's ability to continue the conduct of the activities authorized by the license and to decommission the facility.


</P>
<P>(g)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, if the application is for an operating license or combined license for a nuclear power reactor, or if the application is for an early site permit and contains plans for coping with emergencies under § 52.17(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter, the applicant shall submit the radiological emergency response plans of State and local governmental entities in the United States that are wholly or partially within the plume exposure pathway emergency planning zone (EPZ),
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> as well as the plans of State governments wholly or partially within the ingestion pathway EPZ.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> If the application is for an early site permit that, under 10 CFR 52.17(b)(2)(i), proposes major features of the emergency plans describing the EPZs, then the descriptions of the EPZs must meet the requirements of this paragraph. Generally, the plume exposure pathway EPZ for nuclear power reactors shall consist of an area about 10 miles (16 km) in radius and the ingestion pathway EPZ shall consist of an area about 50 miles (80 km) in radius. The exact size and configuration of the EPZs surrounding a particular nuclear power reactor shall be determined in relation to the local emergency response needs and capabilities as they are affected by such conditions as demography, topography, land characteristics, access routes, and jurisdictional boundaries. The size of the EPZs also may be determined on a case-by-case basis for gas-cooled reactors and for reactors with an authorized power level less than 250 MW thermal. The plans for the ingestion pathway shall focus on such actions as are appropriate to protect the food ingestion pathway.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Emergency planning zones (EPZs) are discussed in NUREG-0396, EPA 520/1-78-016, “Planning Basis for the Development of State and Local Government Radiological Emergency Response Plans in Support of Light Water Nuclear Power Plants,” December 1978.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> If the State and local emergency response plans have been previously provided to the NRC for inclusion in the facility docket, the applicant need only provide the appropriate reference to meet this requirement.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Small modular reactor, non-light-water reactor, or non-power production or utilization facility applicants complying with § 50.160 who apply for a construction permit or an operating license under this part, or small modular reactor or non-light-water reactor applicants complying with § 50.160 who apply for a combined license or an early site permit under part 52 of this chapter, must submit as part of the application the analysis used to determine whether the criteria in § 50.33(g)(2)(i)(A) and (B) are met and, if they are met, the size of the plume exposure pathway EPZ.
</P>
<P>(i) The plume exposure pathway EPZ is the area within which:
</P>
<P>(A) Public dose, as defined in § 20.1003 of this chapter, is projected to exceed 10 mSv (1 rem) total effective dose equivalent over 96 hours from the release of radioactive materials from the facility considering accident likelihood and source term, timing of the accident sequence, and meteorology; and
</P>
<P>(B) Pre-determined, prompt protective measures are necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the application is for an operating license or combined license or if the application is for an early site permit and contains plans for coping with emergencies under § 52.17(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter, and if the plume exposure pathway EPZ extends beyond the site boundary:
</P>
<P>(A) The applicant shall submit radiological emergency response plans of State, local, and participating Tribal governmental entities in the United States that are wholly or partially within the plume exposure pathway EPZ.
</P>
<P>(B) The exact configuration of the plume exposure pathway EPZ surrounding the facility shall be determined in relation to the local emergency response needs and capabilities as they are affected by such conditions as demography, topography, land characteristics, access routes, and jurisdictional boundaries.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the application is for an early site permit that, under § 52.17(b)(2)(i) of this chapter, proposes major features of the emergency plans and describes the EPZ, and if the EPZ extends beyond the site boundary, then the exact configuration of the plume exposure pathway EPZ surrounding the facility shall be determined in relation to the local emergency response needs and capabilities as they are affected by such conditions as demography, topography, land characteristics, access routes, and jurisdictional boundaries.




</P>
<P>(h) If the applicant, other than an applicant for a combined license, proposes to construct or alter a production or utilization facility, the application shall state the earliest and latest dates for completion of the construction or alteration.
</P>
<P>(i) If the proposed activity is the generation and distribution of electric energy under a class 103 license, a list of the names and addresses of such regulatory agencies as may have jurisdiction over the rates and services incident to the proposed activity, and a list of trade and news publications which circulate in the area where the proposed activity will be conducted and which are considered appropriate to give reasonable notice of the application to those municipalities, private utilities, public bodies, and cooperatives, which might have a potential interest in the facility.
</P>
<P>(j) If the application contains Restricted Data or classified National Security Information, it shall be prepared in such manner that all Restricted Data and classified National Security Information are separated from the unclassified information.
</P>
<P>(k)(1) For an application for an operating license or combined license for a production or utilization facility, information in the form of a report, as described in § 50.75, indicating how reasonable assurance will be provided that funds will be available to decommission the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) On or before July 26, 1990, each holder of an operating license for a production or utilization facility in effect on July 27, 1990, shall submit information in the form of a report as described in § 50.75 of this part, indicating how reasonable assurance will be provided that funds will be available to decommission the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 35 FR 19660, Dec. 29, 1970; 38 FR 3956, Feb. 9, 1973; 45 FR 55408, Aug. 19, 1980; 49 FR 35752, Sept. 12, 1984; 53 FR 24049, June 27, 1988; 69 FR 4448, Jan. 30, 2004; 72 FR 49490, Aug. 28, 2007; 88 FR 80074, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 57719, July 16, 2024; 89 FR 106250, Dec. 30, 2024]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.34" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.34   Contents of applications; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preliminary safety analysis report.</I> Each application for a construction permit shall include a preliminary safety analysis report. The minimum information 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> to be included shall consist of the following:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The applicant may provide information required by this paragraph in the form of a discussion, with specific references, of similarities to and differences from, facilities of similar design for which applications have previously been filed with the Commission.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Stationary power reactor applicants for a construction permit who apply on or after January 10, 1997, shall comply with paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. All other applicants for a construction permit shall comply with paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) A description and safety assessment of the site on which the facility is to be located, with appropriate attention to features affecting facility design. Special attention should be directed to the site evaluation factors identified in part 100 of this chapter. The assessment must contain an analysis and evaluation of the major structures, systems and components of the facility which bear significantly on the acceptability of the site under the site evaluation factors identified in part 100 of this chapter, assuming that the facility will be operated at the ultimate power level which is contemplated by the applicant. For non-power production or utilization facilities not subject to 10 CFR part 100, the assessment must provide an evaluation of the applicable radiological consequences that demonstrates with reasonable assurance that any individual located in the unrestricted area following the onset of a postulated accident, including consideration of experiments, would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 1 rem (0.01 Sv) 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> TEDE for the duration of the accident. With respect to operation at the projected initial power level, the applicant is required to submit information prescribed in paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(8) of this section, as well as the information required by this paragraph, in support of the application for a construction permit, or a design approval.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The 1 rem accident dose criterion for non-power production or utilization facilities is not a dose limit; it informs the analysis of postulated accidents and the development of safety measures so that in the unlikely event of an accident, the NRC has reasonable assurance that no acute radiation-related harm will result to any member of the public.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) A description and safety assessment of the site and a safety assessment of the facility. It is expected that reactors will reflect through their design, construction and operation an extremely low probability for accidents that could result in the release of significant quantities of radioactive fission products. The following power reactor design characteristics and proposed operation will be taken into consideration by the Commission:
</P>
<P>(A) Intended use of the reactor including the proposed maximum power level and the nature and inventory of contained radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(B) The extent to which generally accepted engineering standards are applied to the design of the reactor;
</P>
<P>(C) The extent to which the reactor incorporates unique, unusual or enhanced safety features having a significant bearing on the probability or consequences of accidental release of radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(D) The safety features that are to be engineered into the facility and those barriers that must be breached as a result of an accident before a release of radioactive material to the environment can occur. Special attention must be directed to plant design features intended to mitigate the radiological consequences of accidents. In performing this assessment, an applicant shall assume a fission product release 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> from the core into the containment assuming that the facility is operated at the ultimate power level contemplated. The applicant shall perform an evaluation and analysis of the postulated fission product release, using the expected demonstrable containment leak rate and any fission product cleanup systems intended to mitigate the consequences of the accidents, together with applicable site characteristics, including site meteorology, to evaluate the offsite radiological consequences. Site characteristics must comply with part 100 of this chapter. The evaluation must determine that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The fission product release assumed for this evaluation should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events. Such accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release into the containment of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2 hour period following the onset of the postulated fission product release, would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> total effective dose equivalent (TEDE).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> A whole body dose of 25 rem has been stated to correspond numerically to the once in a lifetime accidental or emergency dose for radiation workers which, according to NCRP recommendations at the time could be disregarded in the determination of their radiation exposure status (see NBS Handbook 69 dated June 5, 1959). However, its use is not intended to imply that this number constitutes an acceptable limit for an emergency dose to the public under accident conditions. Rather, this dose value has been set forth in this section as a reference value, which can be used in the evaluation of plant design features with respect to postulated reactor accidents, in order to assure that such designs provide assurance of low risk of public exposure to radiation, in the event of such accidents.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low population zone, who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem total effective dose equivalent (TEDE);
</P>
<P>(E) With respect to operation at the projected initial power level, the applicant is required to submit information prescribed in paragraphs (a)(2) through (a)(8) of this section, as well as the information required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, in support of the application for a construction permit.
</P>
<P>(2) A summary description and discussion of the facility, with special attention to design and operating characteristics, unusual or novel design features, and principal safety considerations.
</P>
<P>(3) The preliminary design of the facility including:
</P>
<P>(i) The principal design criteria for the facility. Appendix A, General Design Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants, establishes minimum requirements for the principal design criteria for water-cooled nuclear power plants similar in design and location to plants for which construction permits have previously been issued by the Commission and provides guidance to applicants for construction permits in establishing principal design criteria for other types of nuclear power units;




</P>
<P>(ii) The design bases and the relation of the design bases to the principal design criteria;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information relative to materials of construction, general arrangement, and approximate dimensions, sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the final design will conform to the design bases with adequate margin for safety.
</P>
<P>(4) A preliminary analysis and evaluation of the design and performance of structures, systems, and components of the facility with the objective of assessing the risk to public health and safety resulting from operation of the facility and including determination of the margins of safety during normal operations and transient conditions anticipated during the life of the facility, and the adequacy of structures, systems, and components provided for the prevention of accidents and the mitigation of the consequences of accidents. Analysis and evaluation of ECCS cooling performance and the need for high point vents following postulated loss-of-coolant accidents must be performed in accordance with the requirements of § 50.46 and § 50.46a of this part for facilities for which construction permits may be issued after December 28, 1974. 
</P>
<P>(5) An identification and justification for the selection of those variables, conditions, or other items which are determined as the result of preliminary safety analysis and evaluation to be probable subjects of technical specifications for the facility, with special attention given to those items which may significantly influence the final design: <I>Provided, however,</I> That this requirement is not applicable to an application for a construction permit filed prior to January 16, 1969.
</P>
<P>(6) A preliminary plan for the applicant's organization, training of personnel, and conduct of operations.
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the quality assurance program to be applied to the design, fabrication, construction, and testing of the structures, systems, and components of the facility. Appendix B, “Quality Assurance Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants and Fuel Reprocessing Plants,” sets forth the requirements for quality assurance programs for nuclear power plants and fuel reprocessing plants. The description of the quality assurance program for a nuclear power plant or a fuel reprocessing plant shall include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B will be satisfied.
</P>
<P>(8) An identification of those structures, systems, or components of the facility, if any, which require research and development to confirm the adequacy of their design; and identification and description of the research and development program which will be conducted to resolve any safety questions associated with such structures, systems or components; and a schedule of the research and development program showing that such safety questions will be resolved at or before the latest date stated in the application for completion of construction of the facility.
</P>
<P>(9) The technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(10) A discussion of the applicant's preliminary plans for coping with emergencies based on:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(10)(ii) of this section, the requirements in appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a small modular reactor, a non-light-water reactor, or non-power production or utilization facility construction permit applicant, the requirements in either § 50.160 or appendix E to this part.












</P>
<P>(11) On or after February 5, 1979, applicants who apply for construction permits for nuclear power plants to be built on multiunit sites shall identify potential hazards to the structures, systems and components important to safety of operating nuclear facilities from construction activities. A discussion shall also be included of any managerial and administrative controls that will be used during construction to assure the safety of the operating unit.
</P>
<P>(12) On or after January 10, 1997, stationary power reactor applicants who apply for a construction permit, as partial conformance to General Design Criterion 2 of appendix A to this part, shall comply with the earthquake engineering criteria in appendix S to this part.
</P>
<P>(13) On or after July 13, 2009, power reactor applicants who apply for a construction permit shall submit the information required by 10 CFR 50.150(b) as a part of their preliminary safety analysis report.






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final safety analysis report.</I> Each application for an operating license shall include a final safety analysis report. The final safety analysis report shall include information that describes the facility, presents the design bases and the limits on its operation, and presents a safety analysis of the structures, systems, and components and of the facility as a whole, and shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All current information, such as the results of environmental and meteorological monitoring programs, which has been developed since issuance of the construction permit, relating to site evaluation factors identified in part 100 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A description and analysis of the structures, systems, and components of the facility, with emphasis upon performance requirements, the bases, with technical justification therefor, upon which such requirements have been established, and the evaluations required to show that safety functions will be accomplished. The description shall be sufficient to permit understanding of the system designs and their relationship to safety evaluations.
</P>
<P>(i) For nuclear reactors, such items as the reactor core, reactor coolant system, instrumentation and control systems, electrical systems, containment system, other engineered safety features, auxiliary and emergency systems, power conversion systems, radioactive waste handling systems, and fuel handling systems shall be discussed insofar as they are pertinent.
</P>
<P>(ii) For facilities other than nuclear reactors, such items as the chemical, physical, metallurgical, or nuclear process to be performed, instrumentation and control systems, ventilation and filter systems, electrical systems, auxiliary and emergency systems, and radioactive waste handling systems shall be discussed insofar as they are pertinent.
</P>
<P>(3) The kinds and quantities of radioactive materials expected to be produced in the operation and the means for controlling and limiting radioactive effluents and radiation exposures within the limits set forth in part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) A final analysis and evaluation of the design and performance of structures, systems, and components with the objective stated in paragraph (a)(4) of this section and taking into account any pertinent information developed since the submittal of the preliminary safety analysis report. Analysis and evaluation of ECCS cooling performance following postulated loss-of-coolant accidents shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of § 50.46 for facilities for which a license to operate may be issued after December 28, 1974.
</P>
<P>(5) A description and evaluation of the results of the applicant's programs, including research and development, if any, to demonstrate that any safety questions identified at the construction permit stage have been resolved.
</P>
<P>(6) The following information concerning facility operation:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant's organizational structure, allocations of responsibilities and authorities, and personnel qualifications requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) Managerial and administrative controls to be used to assure safe operation. Appendix B, “Quality Assurance Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants and Fuel Reprocessing Plants,” sets forth the requirements for such controls for nuclear power plants and fuel reprocessing plants. The information on the controls to be used for a nuclear power plant or a fuel reprocessing plant shall include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B will be satisfied.
</P>
<P>(iii) Plans for preoperational testing and initial operations.
</P>
<P>(iv) Plans for conduct of normal operations, including maintenance, surveillance, and periodic testing of structures, systems, and components.
</P>
<P>(v) Plans for coping with emergencies based on:
</P>
<P>(A) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(6)(v)(B) of this section, the requirements in appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) For a small modular reactor, a non-light-water reactor, or a non-power production or utilization facility operating license applicant, the requirements in either § 50.160 or appendix E to this part.


</P>
<P>(vi) Proposed technical specifications prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 50.36.
</P>
<P>(vii) On or after February 5, 1979, applicants who apply for operating licenses for nuclear power plants to be operated on multiunit sites shall include an evaluation of the potential hazards to the structures, systems, and components important to safety of operating units resulting from construction activities, as well as a description of the managerial and administrative controls to be used to provide assurance that the limiting conditions for operation are not exceeded as a result of construction activities at the multiunit sites.
</P>
<P>(7) The technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) A description and plans for implementation of an operator requalification program. The operator requalification program must as a minimum, meet the requirements for those programs contained in § 55.59 of part 55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) A description of protection provided against pressurized thermal shock events, including projected values of the reference temperature for reactor vessel beltline materials as defined in § 50.61 (b)(1) and (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(10) On or after January 10, 1997, stationary power reactor applicants who apply for an operating license, as partial conformance to General Design Criterion 2 of appendix A to this part, shall comply with the earthquake engineering criteria of appendix S to this part. However, for those operating license applicants and holders whose construction permit was issued before January 10, 1997, the earthquake engineering criteria in Section VI of appendix A to part 100 of this chapter continues to apply.
</P>
<P>(11) On or after January 10, 1997, stationary power reactor applicants who apply for an operating license, shall provide a description and safety assessment of the site and of the facility as in § 50.34(a)(1)(ii). However, for either an operating license applicant or holder whose construction permit was issued before January 10, 1997, the reactor site criteria in part 100 of this chapter and the seismic and geologic siting criteria in appendix A to part 100 of this chapter continues to apply.
</P>
<P>(12) On or after July 13, 2009, power reactor applicants who apply for an operating license which is subject to 10 CFR 50.150(a) shall submit the information required by 10 CFR 50.150(b) as a part of their final safety analysis report.
</P>
<P>(13) Non-power production or utilization facility applicants who apply for an initial or renewed operating license shall provide a final evaluation of the applicable radiological consequences in § 50.34(a)(1)(i).




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Physical security plan.</I> (1) Each applicant for an operating license for a production or utilization facility that will be subject to §§ 73.50 and 73.60 of this chapter must include a physical security plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Each applicant for an operating license for a utilization facility that will be subject to the requirements of § 73.55 of this chapter must include a physical security plan, a training and qualification plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in appendix B to part 73 of this chapter, and a cyber security plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 73.54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The physical security plan must describe how the applicant will meet the requirements of part 73 of this chapter (and part 11 of this chapter, if applicable, including the identification and description of jobs as required by § 11.11(a) of this chapter, at the proposed facility). Security plans must list tests, inspections, audits, and other means to be used to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of 10 CFR parts 11 and 73, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safeguards contingency plan.</I> (1) Each application for a license to operate a production or utilization facility that will be subject to §§ 73.50 and 73.60 of this chapter must include a licensee safeguards contingency plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in section I of appendix C to part 73 of this chapter. The “implementation procedures” required per section I of appendix C to part 73 of this chapter do not have to be submitted to the Commission for approval.
</P>
<P>(2) Each application for a license to operate a utilization facility that will be subject to § 73.55 of this chapter must include a licensee safeguards contingency plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in section II of appendix C to part 73 of this chapter. The “implementing procedures” required in section II of appendix C to part 73 of this chapter do not have to be submitted to the Commission for approval.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protection against unauthorized disclosure.</I> Each applicant for an operating license for a production or utilization facility, who prepares a physical security plan, a safeguards contingency plan, a training and qualification plan, or a cyber security plan, shall protect the plans and other related Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements of § 73.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional TMI-related requirements.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, each applicant for a light-water-reactor construction permit or manufacturing license whose application was pending as of February 16, 1982, shall meet the requirements in paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section. This regulation applies to the pending applications by Duke Power Company (Perkins Nuclear Station, Units 1, 2, and 3), Houston Lighting &amp; Power Company (Allens Creek Nuclear Generating Station, Unit 1), Portland General Electric Company (Pebble Springs Nuclear Plant, Units 1 and 2), Public Service Company of Oklahoma (Black Fox Station, Units 1 and 2), Puget Sound Power &amp; Light Company (Skagit/Hanford Nuclear Power Project, Units 1 and 2), and Offshore Power Systems (License to Manufacture Floating Nuclear Plants). The number of units that will be specified in the manufacturing license above, if issued, will be that number whose start of manufacture, as defined in the license application, can practically begin within a 10-year period commencing on the date of issuance of the manufacturing license, but in no event will that number be in excess of ten. The manufacturing license will require the plant design to be updated no later than 5 years after its approval. Paragraphs (f)(1)(xii), (2)(ix), and (3)(v) of this section, pertaining to hydrogen control measures, must be met by all applicants covered by this regulation. However, the Commission may decide to impose additional requirements and the issue of whether compliance with these provisions, together with 10 CFR 50.44 and criterion 50 of appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, is sufficient for issuance of that manufacturing license which may be considered in the manufacturing license proceeding. In addition, each applicant for a design certification, design approval, combined license, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter shall demonstrate compliance with the technically relevant portions of the requirements in paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section, except for paragraphs (f)(1)(xii), (f)(2)(ix), and (f)(3)(v).
</P>
<P>(1) To satisfy the following requirements, the application shall provide sufficient information to describe the nature of the studies, how they are to be conducted, estimated submittal dates, and a program to ensure that the results of these studies are factored into the final design of the facility. For licensees identified in the introduction to paragraph (f) of this section, all studies must be completed no later than 2 years following the issuance of the construction permit or manufacturing license. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> For all other applicants, the studies must be submitted as part of the final safety analysis report.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Alphanumeric designations correspond to the related action plan items in NUREG 0718 and NUREG-0660, “NRC Action Plan Developed as a Result of the TMI-2 Accident.” They are provided herein for information only.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) Perform a plant/site specific probabilistic risk assessment, the aim of which is to seek such improvements in the reliability of core and containment heat removal systems as are significant and practical and do not impact excessively on the plant. (II.B.8)
</P>
<P>(ii) Perform an evaluation of the proposed auxiliary feedwater system (AFWS), to include (applicable to PWR's only) (II.E.1.1):
</P>
<P>(A) A simplified AFWS reliability analysis using event-tree and fault-tree logic techniques.
</P>
<P>(B) A design review of AFWS.
</P>
<P>(C) An evaluation of AFWS flow design bases and criteria.
</P>
<P>(iii) Perform an evaluation of the potential for and impact of reactor coolant pump seal damage following small-break LOCA with loss of offsite power. If damage cannot be precluded, provide an analysis of the limiting small-break loss-of-coolant accident with subsequent reactor coolant pump seal damage. (II.K.2.16 and II.K.3.25)
</P>
<P>(iv) Perform an analysis of the probability of a small-break loss-of-coolant accident (LOCA) caused by a stuck-open power-operated relief valve (PORV). If this probability is a significant contributor to the probability of small-break LOCA's from all causes, provide a description and evaluation of the effect on small-break LOCA probability of an automatic PORV isolation system that would operate when the reactor coolant system pressure falls after the PORV has opened. (Applicable to PWR's only). (II.K.3.2)
</P>
<P>(v) Perform an evaluation of the safety effectiveness of providing for separation of high pressure coolant injection (HPCI) and reactor core isolation cooling (RCIC) system initiation levels so that the RCIC system initiates at a higher water level than the HPCI system, and of providing that both systems restart on low water level. (For plants with high pressure core spray systems in lieu of high pressure coolant injection systems, substitute the words, “high pressure core spray” for “high pressure coolant injection” and “HPCS” for “HPCI”) (Applicable to BWR's only). (II.K.3.13)
</P>
<P>(vi) Perform a study to identify practicable system modifications that would reduce challenges and failures of relief valves, without compromising the performance of the valves or other systems. (Applicable to BWR's only). (II.K.3.16)
</P>
<P>(vii) Perform a feasibility and risk assessment study to determine the optimum automatic depressurization system (ADS) design modifications that would eliminate the need for manual activation to ensure adequate core cooling. (Applicable to BWR's only). (II.K.3.18)
</P>
<P>(viii) Perform a study of the effect on all core-cooling modes under accident conditions of designing the core spray and low pressure coolant injection systems to ensure that the systems will automatically restart on loss of water level, after having been manually stopped, if an initiation signal is still present. (Applicable to BWR's only). (II.K.3.21)
</P>
<P>(ix) Perform a study to determine the need for additional space cooling to ensure reliable long-term operation of the reactor core isolation cooling (RCIC) and high-pressure coolant injection (HPCI) systems, following a complete loss of offsite power to the plant for at least two (2) hours. (For plants with high pressure core spray systems in lieu of high pressure coolant injection systems, substitute the words, “high pressure core spray” for “high pressure coolant injection” and “HPCS” for “HPCI”) (Applicable to BWR's only). (II.K.3.24)
</P>
<P>(x) Perform a study to ensure that the Automatic Depressurization System, valves, accumulators, and associated equipment and instrumentation will be capable of performing their intended functions during and following an accident situation, taking no credit for non-safety related equipment or instrumentation, and accounting for normal expected air (or nitrogen) leakage through valves. (Applicable to BWR's only). (II.K.3.28)
</P>
<P>(xi) Provide an evaluation of depressurization methods, other than by full actuation of the automatic depressurization system, that would reduce the possibility of exceeding vessel integrity limits during rapid cooldown. (Applicable to BWR's only) (II.K.3.45)
</P>
<P>(xii) Perform an evaluation of alternative hydrogen control systems that would satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f)(2)(ix) of this section. As a minimum include consideration of a hydrogen ignition and post-accident inerting system. The evaluation shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A comparison of costs and benefits of the alternative systems considered.
</P>
<P>(B) For the selected system, analyses and test data to verify compliance with the requirements of (f)(2)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) For the selected system, preliminary design descriptions of equipment, function, and layout.
</P>
<P>(2) To satisfy the following requirements, the application shall provide sufficient information to demonstrate that the required actions will be satisfactorily completed by the operating license stage. This information is of the type customarily required to satisfy 10 CFR 50.35(a)(2) or to address unresolved generic safety issues.
</P>
<P>(i) Provide simulator capability that correctly models the control room and includes the capability to simulate small-break LOCA's. (Applicable to construction permit applicants only) (I.A.4.2.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish a program, to begin during construction and follow into operation, for integrating and expanding current efforts to improve plant procedures. The scope of the program shall include emergency procedures, reliability analyses, human factors engineering, crisis management, operator training, and coordination with INPO and other industry efforts. (Applicable to construction permit applicants only) (I.C.9)
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide, for Commission review, a control room design that reflects state-of-the-art human factor principles prior to committing to fabrication or revision of fabricated control room panels and layouts. (I.D.1)
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide a plant safety parameter display console that will display to operators a minimum set of parameters defining the safety status of the plant, capable of displaying a full range of important plant parameters and data trends on demand, and capable of indicating when process limits are being approached or exceeded. (I.D.2)
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for automatic indication of the bypassed and operable status of safety systems. (I.D.3)
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide the capability of high point venting of noncondensible gases from the reactor coolant system, and other systems that may be required to maintain adequate core cooling. Systems to achieve this capability shall be capable of being operated from the control room and their operation shall not lead to an unacceptable increase in the probability of loss-of-coolant accident or an unacceptable challenge to containment integrity. (II.B.1)
</P>
<P>(vii) Perform radiation and shielding design reviews of spaces around systems that may, as a result of an accident, contain accident source term 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> radioactive materials, and design as necessary to permit adequate access to important areas and to protect safety equipment from the radiation environment. (II.B.2)
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The fission product release assumed for these calculations should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events, that would result in potential hazards not exceeded by those from any accident considered credible. Such accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(viii) Provide a capability to promptly obtain and analyze samples from the reactor coolant system and containment that may contain accident source term 
<SU>6</SU> radioactive materials without radiation exposures to any individual exceeding 5 rems to the whole body or 50 rems to the extremities. Materials to be analyzed and quantified include certain radionuclides that are indicators of the degree of core damage (e.g., noble gases, radioiodines and cesiums, and nonvolatile isotopes), hydrogen in the containment atmosphere, dissolved gases, chloride, and boron concentrations. (II.B.3)
</P>
<P>(ix) Provide a system for hydrogen control that can safely accommodate hydrogen generated by the equivalent of a 100% fuel-clad metal water reaction. Preliminary design information on the tentatively preferred system option of those being evaluated in paragraph (f)(1)(xii) of this section is sufficient at the construction permit stage. The hydrogen control system and associated systems shall provide, with reasonable assurance, that: (II.B.8)
</P>
<P>(A) Uniformly distributed hydrogen concentrations in the containment do not exceed 10% during and following an accident that releases an equivalent amount of hydrogen as would be generated from a 100% fuel clad metal-water reaction, or that the post-accident atmosphere will not support hydrogen combustion.
</P>
<P>(B) Combustible concentrations of hydrogen will not collect in areas where unintended combustion or detonation could cause loss of containment integrity or loss of appropriate mitigating features.
</P>
<P>(C) Equipment necessary for achieving and maintaining safe shutdown of the plant and maintaining containment integrity will perform its safety function during and after being exposed to the environmental conditions attendant with the release of hydrogen generated by the equivalent of a 100% fuel-clad metal water reaction including the environmental conditions created by activation of the hydrogen control system.
</P>
<P>(D) If the method chosen for hydrogen control is a post-accident inerting system, inadvertent actuation of the system can be safely accommodated during plant operation.
</P>
<P>(x) Provide a test program and associated model development and conduct tests to qualify reactor coolant system relief and safety valves and, for PWR's, PORV block valves, for all fluid conditions expected under operating conditions, transients and accidents. Consideration of anticipated transients without scram (ATWS) conditions shall be included in the test program. Actual testing under ATWS conditions need not be carried out until subsequent phases of the test program are developed. (II.D.1)
</P>
<P>(xi) Provide direct indication of relief and safety valve position (open or closed) in the control room. (II.D.3)
</P>
<P>(xii) Provide automatic and manual auxiliary feedwater (AFW) system initiation, and provide auxiliary feedwater system flow indication in the control room. (Applicable to PWR's only) (II.E.1.2)
</P>
<P>(xiii) Provide pressurizer heater power supply and associated motive and control power interfaces sufficient to establish and maintain natural circulation in hot standby conditions with only onsite power available. (Applicable to PWR's only) (II.E.3.1)
</P>
<P>(xiv) Provide containment isolation systems that: (II.E.4.2)
</P>
<P>(A) Ensure all non-essential systems are isolated automatically by the containment isolation system,
</P>
<P>(B) For each non-essential penetration (except instrument lines) have two isolation barriers in series,
</P>
<P>(C) Do not result in reopening of the containment isolation valves on resetting of the isolation signal,
</P>
<P>(D) Utilize a containment set point pressure for initiating containment isolation as low as is compatible with normal operation,
</P>
<P>(E) Include automatic closing on a high radiation signal for all systems that provide a path to the environs.
</P>
<P>(xv) Provide a capability for containment purging/venting designed to minimize the purging time consistent with ALARA principles for occupational exposure. Provide and demonstrate high assurance that the purge system will reliably isolate under accident conditions. (II.E.4.4)
</P>
<P>(xvi) Establish a design criterion for the allowable number of actuation cycles of the emergency core cooling system and reactor protection system consistent with the expected occurrence rates of severe overcooling events (considering both anticipated transients and accidents). (Applicable to B&amp;W designs only). (II.E.5.1)
</P>
<P>(xvii) Provide instrumentation to measure, record and readout in the control room: (A) containment pressure, (B) containment water level, (C) containment hydrogen concentration, (D) containment radiation intensity (high level), and (E) noble gas effluents at all potential, accident release points. Provide for continuous sampling of radioactive iodines and particulates in gaseous effluents from all potential accident release points, and for onsite capability to analyze and measure these samples. (II.F.1)
</P>
<P>(xviii) Provide instruments that provide in the control room an unambiguous indication of inadequate core cooling, such as primary coolant saturation meters in PWR's, and a suitable combination of signals from indicators of coolant level in the reactor vessel and in-core thermocouples in PWR's and BWR's. (II.F.2)
</P>
<P>(xix) Provide instrumentation adequate for monitoring plant conditions following an accident that includes core damage. (II.F.3)
</P>
<P>(xx) Provide power supplies for pressurizer relief valves, block valves, and level indicators such that: (A) Level indicators are powered from vital buses; (B) motive and control power connections to the emergency power sources are through devices qualified in accordance with requirements applicable to systems important to safety and (C) electric power is provided from emergency power sources. (Applicable to PWR's only). (II.G.1)
</P>
<P>(xxi) Design auxiliary heat removal systems such that necessary automatic and manual actions can be taken to ensure proper functioning when the main feedwater system is not operable. (Applicable to BWR's only). (II.K.1.22)
</P>
<P>(xxii) Perform a failure modes and effects analysis of the integrated control system (ICS) to include consideration of failures and effects of input and output signals to the ICS. (Applicable to B&amp;W-designed plants only). (II.K.2.9)
</P>
<P>(xxiii) Provide, as part of the reactor protection system, an anticipatory reactor trip that would be actuated on loss of main feedwater and on turbine trip. (Applicable to B&amp;W-designed plants only). (II.K.2.10)
</P>
<P>(xxiv) Provide the capability to record reactor vessel water level in one location on recorders that meet normal post-accident recording requirements. (Applicable to BWR's only). (II.K.3.23)
</P>
<P>(xxv) Provide an onsite Technical Support Center, an onsite Operational Support Center, and, for construction permit applications only, a nearsite Emergency Operations Facility. (III.A.1.2).
</P>
<P>(xxvi) Provide for leakage control and detection in the design of systems outside containment that contain (or might contain) accident source term 
<SU>6</SU> radioactive materials following an accident. Applicants shall submit a leakage control program, including an initial test program, a schedule for re-testing these systems, and the actions to be taken for minimizing leakage from such systems. The goal is to minimize potential exposures to workers and public, and to provide reasonable assurance that excessive leakage will not prevent the use of systems needed in an emergency. (III.D.1.1)
</P>
<P>(xxvii) Provide for monitoring of inplant radiation and airborne radioactivity as appropriate for a broad range of routine and accident conditions. (III.D.3.3)
</P>
<P>(xxviii) Evaluate potential pathways for radioactivity and radiation that may lead to control room habitability problems under accident conditions resulting in an accident source term 
<SU>6</SU> release, and make necessary design provisions to preclude such problems. (III.D.3.4)
</P>
<P>(3) To satisfy the following requirements, the application shall provide sufficient information to demonstrate that the requirement has been met. This information is of the type customarily required to satisfy paragraph (a)(1) of this section or to address the applicant's technical qualifications and management structure and competence.
</P>
<P>(i) Provide administrative procedures for evaluating operating, design and construction experience and for ensuring that applicable important industry experiences will be provided in a timely manner to those designing and constructing the plant. (I.C.5)
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that the quality assurance (QA) list required by Criterion II, app. B, 10 CFR part 50 includes all structures, systems, and components important to safety. (I.F.1)
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish a quality assurance (QA) program based on consideration of: (A) Ensuring independence of the organization performing checking functions from the organization responsible for performing the functions; (B) performing quality assurance/quality control functions at construction sites to the maximum feasible extent; (C) including QA personnel in the documented review of and concurrence in quality related procedures associated with design, construction and installation; (D) establishing criteria for determining QA programmatic requirements; (E) establishing qualification requirements for QA and QC personnel; (F) sizing the QA staff commensurate with its duties and responsibilities; (G) establishing procedures for maintenance of “as-built” documentation; and (H) providing a QA role in design and analysis activities. (I.F.2)
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide one or more dedicated containment penetrations, equivalent in size to a single 3-foot diameter opening, in order not to preclude future installation of systems to prevent containment failure, such as a filtered vented containment system. (II.B.8)
</P>
<P>(v) Provide preliminary design information at a level of detail consistent with that normally required at the construction permit stage of review sufficient to demonstrate that: (II.B.8)
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Containment integrity will be maintained (<I>i.e.</I>, for steel containments by meeting the requirements of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section III, Division 1, subarticle NE-3220, Service Level C Limits, except that evaluation of instability is not required, considering pressure and dead load alone. For concrete containments by meeting the requirements of the ASME Boiler Pressure Vessel Code, Section III, Division 2 subarticle CC-3720, Factored Load Category, considering pressure and dead load alone) during an accident that releases hydrogen generated from 100% fuel clad metal-water reaction accompanied by either hydrogen burning or the added pressure from post-accident inerting assuming carbon dioxide is the inerting agent. As a minimum, the specific code requirements set forth above appropriate for each type of containment will be met for a combination of dead load and an internal pressure of 45 psig. Modest deviations from these criteria will be considered by the staff, if good cause is shown by an applicant. Systems necessary to ensure containment integrity shall also be demonstrated to perform their function under these conditions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Subarticle NE-3220, Division 1, and subarticle CC-3720, Division 2, of section III of the July 1, 1980 ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, which are referenced in paragraphs (f)(3)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (f)(3)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, were approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Office of the Federal Register. A notice of any changes made to the material incorporated by reference will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Copies of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code may be purchased from the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, United Engineering Center, 345 East 47th St., New York, NY 10017. It is also available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Containment structure loadings produced by an inadvertent full actuation of a post-accident inerting hydrogen control system (assuming carbon dioxide), but not including seismic or design basis accident loadings will not produce stresses in steel containments in excess of the limits set forth in the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section III, Division 1, subarticle NE-3220, Service Level A Limits, except that evaluation of instability is not required (for concrete containments the loadings specified above will not produce strains in the containment liner in excess of the limits set forth in the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section III, Division 2, subarticle CC-3720, Service Load Category, (<I>2</I>) The containment has the capability to safely withstand pressure tests at 1.10 and 1.15 times (for steel and concrete containments, respectively) the pressure calculated to result from carbon dioxide inerting.
</P>
<P>(vi) For plant designs with external hydrogen recombiners, provide redundant dedicated containment penetrations so that, assuming a single failure, the recombiner systems can be connected to the containment atmosphere. (II.E.4.1)
</P>
<P>(vii) Provide a description of the management plan for design and construction activities, to include: (A) The organizational and management structure singularly responsible for direction of design and construction of the proposed plant; (B) technical resources director by the applicant; (C) details of the interaction of design and construction within the applicant's organization and the manner by which the applicant will ensure close integration of the architect engineer and the nuclear steam supply vendor; (D) proposed procedures for handling the transition to operation; (E) the degree of top level management oversight and technical control to be exercised by the applicant during design and construction, including the preparation and implementation of procedures necessary to guide the effort. (II.J.3.1)
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Combustible gas control.</I> All applicants for a reactor construction permit or operating license whose application is submitted after October 16, 2003, shall include the analyses, and the descriptions of the equipment and systems required by § 50.44 as a part of their application.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Conformance with the Standard Review Plan (SRP).</I> (1)(i) Applications for light water cooled nuclear power plant operating licenses docketed after May 17, 1982 shall include an evaluation of the facility against the Standard Review Plan (SRP) in effect on May 17, 1982 or the SRP revision in effect six months prior to the docket date of the application, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(ii) Applications for light-water-cooled nuclear power plant construction permits docketed after May 17, 1982, shall include an evaluation of the facility against the SRP in effect on May 17, 1982, or the SRP revision in effect six months before the docket date of the application, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(2) The evaluation required by this section shall include an identification and description of all differences in design features, analytical techniques, and procedural measures proposed for a facility and those corresponding features, techniques, and measures given in the SRP acceptance criteria. Where such a difference exists, the evaluation shall discuss how the alternative proposed provides an acceptable method of complying with those rules or regulations of Commission, or portions thereof, that underlie the corresponding SRP acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(3) The SRP was issued to establish criteria that the NRC staff intends to use in evaluating whether an applicant/licensee meets the Commission's regulations. The SRP is not a substitute for the regulations, and compliance is not a requirement. Applicants shall identify differences from the SRP acceptance criteria and evaluate how the proposed alternatives to the SRP criteria provide an acceptable method of complying with the Commission's regulations.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mitigation of beyond-design-basis events.</I> Each application for a power reactor operating license under this part must include the applicant's plans for implementing the requirements of § 50.155, including a schedule for achieving full compliance with these requirements and a description of the equipment upon which the strategies and guidelines required by § 50.155(b)(1) rely, including the planned locations of the equipment and how the equipment meets the requirements of § 50.155(c).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 18612, Dec. 17, 1968]






</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 50.34, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.34a" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.34a   Design objectives for equipment to control releases of radioactive material in effluents—nuclear power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a construction permit shall include a description of the preliminary design of equipment to be installed to maintain control over radioactive materials in gaseous and liquid effluents produced during normal reactor operations, including expected operational occurrences. In the case of an application filed on or after January 2, 1971, the application shall also identify the design objectives, and the means to be employed, for keeping levels of radioactive material in effluents to unrestricted areas as low as is reasonably achievable. The term “as low as is reasonably achievable” as used in this part means as low as is reasonably achievable taking into account the state of technology, and the economics of improvements in relation to benefits to the public health and safety and other societal and socioeconomic considerations, and in relation to the use of atomic energy in the public interest. The guides set out in appendix I to this part provide numerical guidance on design objectives for light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors to meet the requirements that radioactive material in effluents released to unrestricted areas be kept as low as is reasonably achievable. These numerical guides for design objectives and limiting conditions for operation are not to be construed as radiation protection standards.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application for a construction permit shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the preliminary design of equipment to be installed under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) An estimate of:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of each of the principal radionuclides expected to be released annually to unrestricted areas in liquid effluents produced during normal reactor operations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The quantity of each of the principal radionuclides of the gases, halides, and particulates expected to be released annually to unrestricted areas in gaseous effluents produced during normal reactor operations.
</P>
<P>(3) A general description of the provisions for packaging, storage, and shipment offsite of solid waste containing radioactive materials resulting from treatment of gaseous and liquid effluents and from other sources.
</P>
<P>(c) Each application for an operating license shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the equipment and procedures for the control of gaseous and liquid effluents and for the maintenance and use of equipment installed in radioactive waste systems, under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) A revised estimate of the information required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section if the expected releases and exposures differ significantly from the estimates submitted in the application for a construction permit.
</P>
<P>(d) Each application for a combined license under part 52 of this chapter shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the equipment and procedures for the control of gaseous and liquid effluents and for the maintenance and use of equipment installed in radioactive waste systems, under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The information required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Each application for a design approval, a design certification, or a manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the equipment for the control of gaseous and liquid effluents and for the maintenance and use of equipment installed in radioactive waste systems, under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The information required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49492, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.35" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.35   Issuance of construction permits. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Commission may issue a provisional construction permit pursuant to the regulations in this part in effect on March 30, 1970, for any facility for which a notice of hearing on an application for a provisional construction permit has been published on or before that date.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) When an applicant has not supplied initially all of the technical information required to complete the application and support the issuance of a construction permit which approves all proposed design features, the Commission may issue a construction permit if the Commission finds that (1) the applicant has described the proposed design of the facility, including, but not limited to, the principal architectural and engineering criteria for the design, and has identified the major features or components incorporated therein for the protection of the health and safety of the public; (2) such further technical or design information as may be required to complete the safety analysis, and which can reasonably be left for later consideration, will be supplied in the final safety analysis report; (3) safety features or components, if any, which require research and development have been described by the applicant and the applicant has identified, and there will be conducted, a research and development program reasonably designed to resolve any safety questions associated with such features or components; and that (4) on the basis of the foregoing, there is reasonable assurance that, (i) such safety questions will be satisfactorily resolved at or before the latest date stated in the application for completion of construction of the proposed facility, and (ii) taking into consideration the site criteria contained in part 100 of this chapter, the proposed facility can be constructed and operated at the proposed location without undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When an applicant has supplied initially all of the technical information required to complete the application, including the final design of the facility, the findings required above will be appropriately modified to reflect that fact.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) A construction permit will constitute an authorization to the applicant to proceed with construction but will not constitute Commission approval of the safety of any design feature or specification unless the applicant specifically requests such approval and such approval is incorporated in the permit. The applicant, at his option, may request such approvals in the construction permit or, from time to time, by amendment of his construction permit. The Commission may, in its discretion, incorporate in any construction permit provisions requiring the applicant to furnish periodic reports of the progress and results of research and development programs designed to resolve safety questions.
</P>
<P>(c) Any construction permit will be subject to the limitation that a license authorizing operation of the facility will not be issued by the Commission until (1) the applicant has submitted to the Commission, by amendment to the application, the complete final safety analysis report, portions of which may be submitted and evaluated from time to time, and (2) the Commission has found that the final design provides reasonable assurance that the health and safety of the public will not be endangered by operation of the facility in accordance with the requirements of the license and the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 12915, Dec. 29, 1962, as amended at 31 FR 12780, Sept. 30, 1966; 35 FR 5318, Mar. 31, 1970; 35 FR 6644, Apr. 25, 1970; 35 FR 11461, July 7, 1970]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.36" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.36   Technical specifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each applicant for a license authorizing operation of a production or utilization facility shall include in his application proposed technical specifications in accordance with the requirements of this section. A summary statement of the bases or reasons for such specifications, other than those covering administrative controls, shall also be included in the application, but shall not become part of the technical specifications.
</P>
<P>(2) Each applicant for a design certification or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter shall include in its application proposed generic technical specifications in accordance with the requirements of this section for the portion of the plant that is within the scope of the design certification or manufacturing license application.
</P>
<P>(b) Each license authorizing operation of a production or utilization facility of a type described in § 50.21 or § 50.22 will include technical specifications. The technical specifications will be derived from the analyses and evaluation included in the safety analysis report, and amendments thereto, submitted pursuant to § 50.34. The Commission may include such additional technical specifications as the Commission finds appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Technical specifications will include items in the following categories:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Safety limits, limiting safety system settings, and limiting control settings.</I> (i)(A) Safety limits for nuclear reactors are limits upon important process variables that are found to be necessary to reasonably protect the integrity of certain physical  barriers that guard against the uncontrolled release of radioactivity. If any safety limit is exceeded, the reactor must be shut down. The licensee shall notify the Commission, review the matter, and record the results of the review, including the cause of the condition and the basis for corrective action taken to preclude recurrence. Operation must not be resumed until authorized by the Commission. The licensee shall retain the record of the results of each review until the Commission terminates the license for the reactor, except for nuclear power reactors licensed under § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 of this part. For these reactors, the licensee shall notify the Commission as required by § 50.72 and submit a Licensee Event Report to the Commission as required by § 50.73. Licensees in these cases shall retain the records of the review for a period of three years following issuance of a Licensee Event Report.
</P>
<P>(B) Safety limits for fuel reprocessing plants are those bounds within which the process variables must be maintained for adequate control of the operation and that must not be exceeded in order to protect the integrity of the physical system that is designed to guard against the uncontrolled release or radioactivity. If any safety limit for a fuel reprocessing plant is exceeded, corrective action must be taken as stated in the technical specification or the affected part of the process, or the entire process if required, must be shut down, unless this action would further reduce the margin of safety. The licensee shall notify the Commission, review the matter, and record the results of the review, including the cause of the condition and the basis for corrective action taken to preclude recurrence. If a portion of the process or the entire process has been shutdown, operation must not be resumed until authorized by the Commission. The licensee shall retain the record of the results of each review until the Commission terminates the license for the plant.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Limiting safety system settings for nuclear reactors are settings for automatic protective devices related to those variables having significant safety functions. Where a limiting safety system setting is specified for a variable on which a safety limit has been placed, the setting must be so chosen that automatic protective action will correct the abnormal situation before a safety limit is exceeded. If, during operation, it is determined that the automatic safety system does not function as required, the licensee shall take appropriate action, which may include shutting down the reactor. The licensee shall notify the Commission, review the matter, and record the results of the review, including the cause of the condition and the basis for corrective action taken to preclude recurrence. The licensee shall retain the record of the results of each review until the Commission terminates the license for the reactor except for nuclear power reactors licensed under § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 of this part. For these reactors, the licensee shall notify the Commission as required by § 50.72 and submit a Licensee Event Report to the Commission as required by § 50.73. Licensees in these cases shall retain the records of the review for a period of three years following issuance of a Licensee Event Report.
</P>
<P>(B) Limiting control settings for fuel reprocessing plants are settings for automatic alarm or protective devices related to those variables having significant safety functions. Where a limiting control setting is specified for a variable on which a safety limit has been placed, the setting must be so chosen that protective action, either automatic or manual, will correct the abnormal situation before a safety limit is exceeded. If, during operation, the automatic alarm or protective devices do not function as required, the licensee shall take appropriate action to maintain the variables within the limiting control-setting values and to repair promptly the automatic devices or to shut down the affected part of the process and, if required, to shut down the entire process for repair of automatic devices. The licensee shall notify the Commission, review the matter, and record the results of the review, including the cause of the condition and the basis for corrective action taken to preclude recurrence. The licensee shall retain the record of the results of each review until the Commission terminates the license for the plant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limiting conditions for operation.</I> (i) Limiting conditions for operation are the lowest functional capability or performance levels of equipment required for safe operation of the facility. When a limiting condition for operation of a nuclear reactor is not met, the licensee shall shut down the reactor or follow any remedial action permitted by the technical specifications until the condition can be met. When a limiting condition for operation of any process step in the system of a fuel reprocessing plant is not met, the licensee shall shut down that part of the operation or follow any remedial action permitted by the technical specifications until the condition can be met. In the case of a nuclear reactor not licensed under § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 of this part or fuel reprocessing plant, the licensee shall notify the Commission, review the matter, and record the results of the review, including the cause of the condition and the basis for corrective action taken to preclude recurrence. The licensee shall retain the record of the results of each review until the Commission terminates the license for the nuclear reactor or the fuel reprocessing plant. In the case of nuclear power reactors licensed under § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, the licensee shall notify the Commission if required by § 50.72 and shall submit a Licensee Event Report to the Commission as required by § 50.73. In this case, licensees shall retain records associated with preparation of a Licensee Event Report for a period of three years following issuance of the report. For events which do not require a Licensee Event Report, the licensee shall retain each record as required by the technical specifications.
</P>
<P>(ii) A technical specification limiting condition for operation of a nuclear reactor must be established for each item meeting one or more of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Criterion 1.</I> Installed instrumentation that is used to detect, and indicate in the control room, a significant abnormal degradation of the reactor coolant pressure boundary.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Criterion 2.</I> A process variable, design feature, or operating restriction that is an initial condition of a design basis accident or transient analysis that either assumes the failure of or presents a challenge to the integrity of a fission product barrier.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Criterion 3.</I> A structure, system, or component that is part of the primary success path and which functions or actuates to mitigate a design basis accident or transient that either assumes the failure of or presents a challenge to the integrity of a fission product barrier.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Criterion 4.</I> A structure, system, or component which operating experience or probabilistic risk assessment has shown to be significant to public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(iii) A licensee is not required to propose to modify technical specifications that are included in any license issued before August 18, 1995, to satisfy the criteria in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Surveillance requirements.</I> Surveillance requirements are requirements relating to test, calibration, or inspection to assure that the necessary quality of systems and components is maintained, that facility operation will be within safety limits, and that the limiting conditions for operation will be met.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Design features.</I> Design features to be included are those features of the facility such as materials of construction and geometric arrangements, which, if altered or modified, would have a significant effect on safety and are not covered in categories described in paragraphs (c) (1), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Administrative controls.</I> Administrative controls are the provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, recordkeeping, review and audit, and reporting necessary to assure operation of the facility in a safe manner. Each licensee shall submit any reports to the Commission pursuant to approved technical specifications as specified in § 50.4.


</P>
<P>(6) <I>Decommissioning.</I> This paragraph applies only to nuclear power reactor facilities that have submitted the certifications required by § 50.82(a)(1) and to non-power production or utilization facilities which are not authorized to operate. Technical specifications involving safety limits, limiting safety system settings, and limiting control system settings; limiting conditions for operation; surveillance requirements; design features; and administrative controls will be developed on a case-by-case basis.


</P>
<P>(7) <I>Initial notification.</I> Reports made to the Commission by licensees in response to the requirements of this section must be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees that have an installed Emergency Notification System shall make the initial notification to the NRC Operations Center in accordance with § 50.72 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) All other licensees shall make the initial notification by telephone to the Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D, part 20, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Written Reports.</I> Licensees for nuclear power reactors licensed under § 50.21(b) and § 50.22 of this part shall submit written reports to the Commission in accordance with § 50.73 of this part for events described in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section. For all licensees, the Commission may require Special Reports as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) This section shall not be deemed to modify the technical specifications included in any license issued prior to January 16, 1969. A license in which technical specifications have not been designated shall be deemed to include the entire safety analysis report as technical specifications.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant for a license authorizing operation of a production or utilization facility to whom a construction permit has been issued prior to January 16, 1969, may submit technical specifications in accordance with this section, or in accordance with the requirements of this part in effect prior to January 16, 1969.
</P>
<P>(3) At the initiative of the Commission or the licensee, any license may be amended to include technical specifications of the scope and content which would be required if a new license were being issued.
</P>
<P>(e) The provisions of this section apply to each nuclear reactor licensee whose authority to operate the reactor has been removed by license amendment, order, or regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 18612, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended at 48 FR 33860, July 26, 1983; 51 FR 40308, Nov. 6, 1986; 53 FR 19249, May 27, 1988; 60 FR 36959, July 19, 1995; 61 FR 39299, July 29, 1996; 72 FR 49493, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 54932, Sept. 24, 2008; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019; 89 FR 106251, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.36a" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.36a   Technical specifications on effluents from nuclear power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To keep releases of radioactive materials to unrestricted areas during normal conditions, including expected occurrences, as low as is reasonably achievable, each licensee of a nuclear power reactor and each applicant for a design certification or a manufacturing license will include technical specifications that, in addition to requiring compliance with applicable provisions of § 20.1301 of this chapter, require that:
</P>
<P>(1) Operating procedures developed pursuant to § 50.34a(c) for the control of effluents be established and followed and that the radioactive waste system, pursuant to § 50.34a, be maintained and used. The licensee shall retain the operating procedures in effect as a record until the Commission terminates the license and shall retain each superseded revision of the procedures for 3 years from the date it was superseded.
</P>
<P>(2) Each holder of an operating license, and each holder of a combined license after the Commission has made the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter, shall submit a report to the Commission annually that specifies the quantity of each of the principal radionuclides released to unrestricted areas in liquid and in gaseous effluents during the previous 12 months, including any other information as may be required by the Commission to estimate maximum potential annual radiation doses to the public resulting from effluent releases. The report must be submitted as specified in § 50.4, and the time between submission of the reports must be no longer than 12 months. If quantities of radioactive materials released during the reporting period are significantly above design objectives, the report must cover this specifically. On the basis of these reports and any additional information the Commission may obtain from the licensee or others, the Commission may require the licensee to take action as the Commission deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) In establishing and implementing the operating procedures described in paragraph (a) of this section, the licensee shall be guided by the following considerations: Experience with the design, construction, and operation of nuclear power reactors indicates that compliance with the technical specifications described in this section will keep average annual releases of radioactive material in effluents and their resultant committed effective dose equivalents at small percentages of the dose limits specified in § 20.1301 and in the license. At the same time, the licensee is permitted the flexibility of operation, compatible with considerations of health and safety, to assure that the public is provided a dependable source of power even under unusual conditions which may temporarily result in releases higher than such small percentages, but still within the limits specified in § 20.1301 of this chapter and in the license. It is expected that in using this flexibility under unusual conditions, the licensee will exert its best efforts to keep levels of radioactive material in effluents as low as is reasonably achievable. The guides set out in appendix I, provide numerical guidance on limiting conditions for operation for light-water cooled nuclear power reactors to meet the requirement that radioactive materials in effluents released to unrestricted areas be kept as low as is reasonably achievable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 39299, July 29, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 49493, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.36b" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.36b   Environmental conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each construction permit under this part, each early site permit under part 52 of this chapter, and each combined license under part 52 of this chapter may include conditions to protect the environment during construction. These conditions are to be set out in an attachment to the permit or license, which is incorporated in and made a part of the permit or license. These conditions will be derived from information contained in the environmental report submitted pursuant to § 51.50 of this chapter as analyzed and evaluated in the NRC record of decision, and will identify the obligations of the licensee in the environmental area, including, as appropriate, requirements for reporting and keeping records of environmental data, and any conditions and monitoring requirement for the protection of the nonaquatic environment.
</P>
<P>(b) Each license authorizing operation of a production or utilization facility, including a combined license under part 52 of this chapter, and each license for a nuclear power reactor facility that no longer authorizes operation of the reactor under § 50.82(a)(1) or § 52.110(a) of this chapter has been submitted, which is of a type described in § 50.21(b)(2) or (3) or § 50.22 or is a testing facility, may include conditions to protect the environment during operation and decommissioning. These conditions are to be set out in an attachment to the license, which is incorporated in and made a part of the license. These conditions will be derived from information contained in the environmental report or the supplement to the environmental report submitted pursuant to §§ 51.50 and 51.53 of this chapter as analyzed and evaluated in the NRC record of decision, and will identify the obligations of the licensee in the environmental area, including, as appropriate, requirements for reporting and keeping records of environmental data, and any conditions and monitoring requirement for the protection of the nonaquatic environment.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49493, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 57719, July 16, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.37" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.37   Agreement limiting access to Classified Information.</HEAD>
<P>As part of its application and in any event before the receipt of Restricted Data or classified National Security Information or the issuance of a license, construction permit, early site permit, or standard design approval, or before the Commission has adopted a final standard design certification rule under part 52 of this chapter, the applicant shall agree in writing that it will not permit any individual to have access to, or any facility to possess, Restricted Data or classified National Security Information until the individual and/or facility has been approved for access under the provisions of 10 CFR parts 25 and/or 95. The agreement of the applicant becomes part of the license, or construction permit, or standard design approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 57719, July 16, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.38" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.38   Ineligibility of certain applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is a citizen, national, or agent of a foreign country, or any corporation, or other entity which the Commission knows or has reason to believe is owned, controlled, or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or a foreign government shall be ineligible to apply for and obtain a license for a utilization facility unless—
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission determines that issuance of the applicable license to the entity is not inimical to the common defense and security or the health and safety of the public; and
</P>
<P>(2) The entity is an alien, corporation, or other entity that is owned, controlled, or dominated by the government of, a corporation that is incorporated in, or an alien who is a citizen or national of Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Czechia, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, or the United Kingdom;
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who is a citizen, national, or agent of a foreign country, or any corporation, or other entity which the Commission knows or has reason to believe is owned, controlled, or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or a foreign government, shall be ineligible to apply for and obtain a license for a production facility.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 21723, Apr. 23, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.39" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.106.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.39   Public inspection of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications and documents submitted to the Commission in connection with applications may be made available for public inspection in accordance with the provisions of the regulations contained in part 2 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="107" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Standards for Licenses, Certifications, and Regulatory Approvals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.40" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.40   Common standards.</HEAD>
<P>In determining that a construction permit or operating license in this part, or early site permit, combined license, or manufacturing license in part 52 of this chapter will be issued to an applicant, the Commission will be guided by the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(a) Except for an early site permit or manufacturing license, the processes to be performed, the operating procedures, the facility and equipment, the use of the facility, and other technical specifications, or the proposals, in regard to any of the foregoing collectively provide reasonable assurance that the applicant will comply with the regulations in this chapter, including the regulations in part 20 of this chapter, and that the health and safety of the public will not be endangered.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant for a construction permit, operating license, combined license, or manufacturing license is technically and financially qualified to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter. However, no consideration of financial qualification is necessary for an electric utility applicant for an operating license for a utilization facility of the type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or for an applicant for a manufacturing license.
</P>
<P>(c) The issuance of a construction permit, operating license, early site permit, combined license, or manufacturing license to the applicant will not, in the opinion of the Commission, be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>(d) Any applicable requirements of subpart A of 10 CFR part 51 have been satisfied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49493, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.41" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.41   Additional standards for class 104 licenses.</HEAD>
<P>In determining that a class 104 license will be issued to an applicant, the Commission will, in addition to applying the standards set forth in § 50.40 be guided by the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(a) The Commission will permit the widest amount of effective medical therapy possible with the amount of special nuclear material available for such purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will permit the conduct of widespread and diverse research and development.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 35 FR 19660, Dec. 29, 1970; 73 FR 44620, July 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.42" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.42   Additional standard for class 103 licenses.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether a class 103 license will be issued to an applicant, the Commission will, in addition to applying the standards set forth in § 50.40, consider whether the proposed activities will serve a useful purpose proportionate to the quantities of special nuclear material or source material to be utilized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 44620, July 31, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.43" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.43   Additional standards and provisions affecting class 103 licenses and certifications for commercial power.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to applying the standards set forth in §§ 50.40 and 50.42, paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section apply in the case of a class 103 license for a facility for the generation of commercial power. For a design certification under part 52 of this chapter, only paragraph (e) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(a) The NRC will:
</P>
<P>(1) Give notice in writing of each application to the regulatory agency or State as may have jurisdiction over the rates and services incident to the proposed activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Publish notice of the application in trade or news publications as it deems appropriate to give reasonable notice to municipalities, private utilities, public bodies, and cooperatives which might have a potential interest in the utilization or production facility; and
</P>
<P>(3) Publish notice of the application once each week for 4 consecutive weeks in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> No license will be issued by the NRC prior to the giving of these notices and until 4 weeks after the last notice is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) If there are conflicting applications for a limited opportunity for such license, the Commission will give preferred consideration in the following order: First, to applications submitted by public or cooperative bodies for facilities to be located in high cost power areas in the United States; second, to applications submitted by others for facilities to be located in such areas; third, to applications submitted by public or cooperative bodies for facilities to be located in other than high cost power areas; and, fourth, to all other applicants.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee who transmits electric energy in interstate commerce, or sells it at wholesale in interstate commerce, shall be subject to the regulatory provisions of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing shall preclude any government agency, now or hereafter authorized by law to engage in the production, marketing, or distribution of electric energy, if otherwise qualified, from obtaining a construction permit or operating license under this part, or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter for a utilization facility for the primary purpose of producing electric energy for disposition for ultimate public consumption.
</P>
<P>(e) Applications for a design certification, combined license, manufacturing license, operating license or standard design approval that propose nuclear reactor designs that differ significantly from light-water reactor designs that were licensed before 1997, or use simplified, inherent, passive, or other innovative means to accomplish their safety functions will be approved only if:


</P>
<P>(1)(i) The performance of each safety feature of the design has been demonstrated through either analysis, appropriate test programs, experience, or a combination thereof;
</P>
<P>(ii) Interdependent effects among the safety features of the design are acceptable, as demonstrated by analysis, appropriate test programs, experience, or a combination thereof; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Sufficient data exist on the safety features of the design to assess the analytical tools used for safety analyses over a sufficient range of normal operating conditions, transient conditions, and specified accident sequences, including equilibrium core conditions; or
</P>
<P>(2) There has been acceptable testing of a prototype plant over a sufficient range of normal operating conditions, transient conditions, and specified accident sequences, including equilibrium core conditions. If a prototype plant is used to comply with the testing requirements, then the NRC may impose additional requirements on siting, safety features, or operational conditions for the prototype plant to protect the public and the plant staff from the possible consequences of accidents during the testing period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 35 FR 19660, Dec. 29, 1970; 63 FR 50480, Sept. 22, 1998; 72 FR 49494, Aug. 28, 2007; 82 FR 52825, Nov. 15, 2017; 89 FR 57719, July 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.44" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.44   Combustible gas control for nuclear power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Inerted atmosphere</I> means a containment atmosphere with less than 4 percent oxygen by volume. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mixed atmosphere</I> means that the concentration of combustible gases in any part of the containment is below a level that supports combustion or detonation that could cause loss of containment integrity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for currently-licensed reactors.</I> Each boiling or pressurized water nuclear power reactor with an operating license on October 16, 2003, except for those facilities for which the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) have been submitted, must comply with the following requirements, as applicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Mixed atmosphere.</I> All containments must have a capability for ensuring a mixed atmosphere. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combustible gas control.</I> (i) All boiling water reactors with Mark I or Mark II type containments must have an inerted atmosphere. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All boiling water reactors with Mark III type containments and all pressurized water reactors with ice condenser containments must have the capability for controlling combustible gas generated from a metal-water reaction involving 75 percent of the fuel cladding surrounding the active fuel region (excluding the cladding surrounding the plenum volume) so that there is no loss of containment structural integrity. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equipment survivability.</I> All boiling water reactors with Mark III containments and all pressurized water reactors with ice condenser containments that do not rely upon an inerted atmosphere inside containment to control combustible gases must be able to establish and maintain safe shutdown and containment structural integrity with systems and components capable of performing their functions during and after exposure to the environmental conditions created by the burning of hydrogen. Environmental conditions caused by local detonations of hydrogen must also be included, unless such detonations can be shown unlikely to occur. The amount of hydrogen to be considered must be equivalent to that generated from a metal-water reaction involving 75 percent of the fuel cladding surrounding the active fuel region (excluding the cladding surrounding the plenum volume). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Monitoring.</I> (i) Equipment must be provided for monitoring oxygen in containments that use an inerted atmosphere for combustible gas control. Equipment for monitoring oxygen must be functional, reliable, and capable of continuously measuring the concentration of oxygen in the containment atmosphere following a significant beyond design-basis accident for combustible gas control and accident management, including emergency planning. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment must be provided for monitoring hydrogen in the containment. Equipment for monitoring hydrogen must be functional, reliable, and capable of continuously measuring the concentration of hydrogen in the containment atmosphere following a significant beyond design-basis accident for accident management, including emergency planning. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Analyses.</I> Each holder of an operating license for a boiling water reactor with a Mark III type of containment or for a pressurized water reactor with an ice condenser type of containment, shall perform an analysis that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provides an evaluation of the consequences of large amounts of hydrogen generated after the start of an accident (hydrogen resulting from the metal-water reaction of up to and including 75 percent of the fuel cladding surrounding the active fuel region, excluding the cladding surrounding the plenum volume) and include consideration of hydrogen control measures as appropriate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes the period of recovery from the degraded condition; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Uses accident scenarios that are accepted by the NRC staff. These scenarios must be accompanied by sufficient supporting justification to show that they describe the behavior of the reactor system during and following an accident resulting in a degraded core. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Supports the design of the hydrogen control system selected to meet the requirements of this section; and, 
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrates, for those reactors that do not rely upon an inerted atmosphere to comply with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Containment structural integrity is maintained. Containment structural integrity must be demonstrated by use of an analytical technique that is accepted by the NRC staff in accordance with § 50.90. This demonstration must include sufficient supporting justification to show that the technique describes the containment response to the structural loads involved. This method could include the use of actual material properties with suitable margins to account for uncertainties in modeling, in material properties, in construction tolerances, and so on; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Systems and components necessary to establish and maintain safe shutdown and to maintain containment integrity will be capable of performing their functions during and after exposure to the environmental conditions created by the burning of hydrogen, including local detonations, unless such detonations can be shown unlikely to occur. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for future water-cooled reactor applicants and licensees.</I> 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The requirements in this paragraph apply to all water-cooled reactor construction permits or operating licenses under this part, and to all water-cooled reactor design approvals, design certifications, combined licenses or manufacturing licenses under part 52 of this chapter, any of which are issued after October 16, 2003. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The requirements of this paragraph apply only to water-cooled reactor designs with characteristics (e.g., type and quantity of cladding materials) such that the potential for production of combustible gases is comparable to light water reactor designs licensed as of October 16, 2003.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) <I>Mixed atmosphere.</I> All containments must have a capability for ensuring a mixed atmosphere during design-basis and significant beyond design-basis accidents. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combustible gas control.</I> All containments must have an inerted atmosphere, or must limit hydrogen concentrations in containment during and following an accident that releases an equivalent amount of hydrogen as would be generated from a 100 percent fuel clad-coolant reaction, uniformly distributed, to less than 10 percent (by volume) and maintain containment structural integrity and appropriate accident mitigating features. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equipment Survivability.</I> Containments that do not rely upon an inerted atmosphere to control combustible gases must be able to establish and maintain safe shutdown and containment structural integrity with systems and components capable of performing their functions during and after exposure to the environmental conditions created by the burning of hydrogen. Environmental conditions caused by local detonations of hydrogen must also be included, unless such detonations can be shown unlikely to occur. The amount of hydrogen to be considered must be equivalent to that generated from a fuel clad-coolant reaction involving 100 percent of the fuel cladding surrounding the active fuel region. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Monitoring.</I> (i) Equipment must be provided for monitoring oxygen in containments that use an inerted atmosphere for combustible gas control. Equipment for monitoring oxygen must be functional, reliable, and capable of continuously measuring the concentration of oxygen in the containment atmosphere following a significant beyond design-basis accident for combustible gas control and accident management, including emergency planning. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment must be provided for monitoring hydrogen in the containment. Equipment for monitoring hydrogen must be functional, reliable, and capable of continuously measuring the concentration of hydrogen in the containment atmosphere following a significant beyond design-basis accident for accident management, including emergency planning. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Structural analysis.</I> An applicant must perform an analysis that demonstrates containment structural integrity. This demonstration must use an analytical technique that is accepted by the NRC and include sufficient supporting justification to show that the technique describes the containment response to the structural loads involved. The analysis must address an accident that releases hydrogen generated from 100 percent fuel clad-coolant reaction accompanied by hydrogen burning. Systems necessary to ensure containment integrity must also be demonstrated to perform their function under these conditions. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements for future non water-cooled reactor applicants and licensees and certain water-cooled reactor applicants and licensees.</I> The requirements in this paragraph apply to all construction permits and operating licenses under this part, and to all design approvals, design certifications, combined licenses, or manufacturing licenses under part 52 of this chapter, for non water-cooled reactors and water-cooled reactors that do not fall within the description in paragraph (c), footnote 1 of this section, any of which are issued after October 16, 2003. Applications subject to this paragraph must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Information addressing whether accidents involving combustible gases are technically relevant for their design, and 
</P>
<P>(2) If accidents involving combustible gases are found to be technically relevant, information (including a design-specific probabilistic risk assessment) demonstrating that the safety impacts of combustible gases during design-basis and significant beyond design-basis accidents have been addressed to ensure adequate protection of public health and safety and common defense and security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 54141, Sept. 16, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.45" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.45   Standards for construction permits, operating licenses, and combined licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant for an operating license or an amendment of an operating license who proposes to construct or alter a production or utilization facility will be initially granted a construction permit if the application is in conformity with and acceptable under the criteria of §§ 50.31 through 50.38, and the standards of §§ 50.40 through 50.43, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) A holder of a combined license who proposes, after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter, to alter the licensed facility will be initially granted a construction permit if the application is in conformity with and acceptable under the criteria of §§ 50.30 through 50.33, § 50.34(f), §§ 50.34a through 50.38, the standards of §§ 50.40 through 50.43, as applicable, and §§ 52.79 and 52.80 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49494, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.46" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.46   Acceptance criteria for emergency core cooling systems for light-water nuclear power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1)(i) Each boiling or pressurized light-water nuclear power reactor fueled with uranium oxide pellets within cylindrical zircaloy or ZIRLO cladding must be provided with an emergency core cooling system (ECCS) that must be designed so that its calculated cooling performance following postulated loss-of-coolant accidents conforms to the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. ECCS cooling performance must be calculated in accordance with an acceptable evaluation model and must be calculated for a number of postulated loss-of-coolant accidents of different sizes, locations, and other properties sufficient to provide assurance that the most severe postulated loss-of-coolant accidents are calculated. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, the evaluation model must include sufficient supporting justification to show that the analytical technique realistically describes the behavior of the reactor system during a loss-of-coolant accident. Comparisons to applicable experimental data must be made and uncertainties in the analysis method and inputs must be identified and assessed so that the uncertainty in the calculated results can be estimated. This uncertainty must be accounted for, so that, when the calculated ECCS cooling performance is compared to the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, there is a high level of probability that the criteria would not be exceeded. Appendix K, Part II Required Documentation, sets forth the documentation requirements for each evaluation model. This section does not apply to a nuclear power reactor facility for which the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) have been submitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Alternatively, an ECCS evaluation model may be developed in conformance with the required and acceptable features of appendix K ECCS Evaluation Models.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director of Nuclear Reactor Regulation may impose restrictions on reactor operation if it is found that the evaluations of ECCS cooling performance submitted are not consistent with paragraphs (a)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Each applicant for or holder of an operating license or construction permit issued under this part, applicant for a standard design certification under part 52 of this chapter (including an applicant after the Commission has adopted a final design certification regulation), or an applicant for or holder of a standard design approval, a combined license or a manufacturing license issued under part 52 of this chapter, shall estimate the effect of any change to or error in an acceptable evaluation model or in the application of such a model to determine if the change or error is significant. For this purpose, a significant change or error is one which results in a calculated peak fuel cladding temperature different by more than 50 °F from the temperature calculated for the limiting transient using the last acceptable model, or is a cumulation of changes and errors such that the sum of the absolute magnitudes of the respective temperature changes is greater than 50 °F.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each change to or error discovered in an acceptable evaluation model or in the application of such a model that affects the temperature calculation, the applicant or holder of a construction permit, operating license, combined license, or manufacturing license shall report the nature of the change or error and its estimated effect on the limiting ECCS analysis to the Commission at least annually as specified in § 50.4 or § 52.3 of this chapter, as applicable. If the change or error is significant, the applicant or licensee shall provide this report within 30 days and include with the report a proposed schedule for providing a reanalysis or taking other action as may be needed to show compliance with § 50.46 requirements. This schedule may be developed using an integrated scheduling system previously approved for the facility by the NRC. For those facilities not using an NRC approved integrated scheduling system, a schedule will be established by the NRC staff within 60 days of receipt of the proposed schedule. Any change or error correction that results in a calculated ECCS performance that does not conform to the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section is a reportable event as described in §§ 50.55(e), 50.72, and 50.73. The affected applicant or licensee shall propose immediate steps to demonstrate compliance or bring plant design or operation into compliance with § 50.46 requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each change to or error discovered in an acceptable evaluation model or in the application of such a model that affects the temperature calculation, the applicant or holder of a standard design approval or the applicant for a standard design certification (including an applicant after the Commission has adopted a final design certification rule) shall report the nature of the change or error and its estimated effect on the limiting ECCS analysis to the Commission and to any applicant or licensee referencing the design approval or design certification at least annually as specified in § 52.3 of this chapter. If the change or error is significant, the applicant or holder of the design approval or the applicant for the design certification shall provide this report within 30 days and include with the report a proposed schedule for providing a reanalysis or taking other action as may be needed to show compliance with § 50.46 requirements. The affected applicant or holder shall propose immediate steps to demonstrate compliance or bring plant design into compliance with § 50.46 requirements.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Peak cladding temperature.</I> The calculated maximum fuel element cladding temperature shall not exceed 2200 °F.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum cladding oxidation.</I> The calculated total oxidation of the cladding shall nowhere exceed 0.17 times the total cladding thickness before oxidation. As used in this subparagraph total oxidation means the total thickness of cladding metal that would be locally converted to oxide if all the oxygen absorbed by and reacted with the cladding locally were converted to stoichiometric zirconium dioxide. If cladding rupture is calculated to occur, the inside surfaces of the cladding shall be included in the oxidation, beginning at the calculated time of rupture. Cladding thickness before oxidation means the radial distance from inside to outside the cladding, after any calculated rupture or swelling has occurred but before significant oxidation. Where the calculated conditions of transient pressure and temperature lead to a prediction of cladding swelling, with or without cladding rupture, the unoxidized cladding thickness shall be defined as the cladding cross-sectional area, taken at a horizontal plane at the elevation of the rupture, if it occurs, or at the elevation of the highest cladding temperature if no rupture is calculated to occur, divided by the average circumference at that elevation. For ruptured cladding the circumference does not include the rupture opening.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Maximum hydrogen generation.</I> The calculated total amount of hydrogen generated from the chemical reaction of the cladding with water or steam shall not exceed 0.01 times the hypothetical amount that would be generated if all of the metal in the cladding cylinders surrounding the fuel, excluding the cladding surrounding the plenum volume, were to react.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Coolable geometry.</I> Calculated changes in core geometry shall be such that the core remains amenable to cooling.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Long-term cooling.</I> After any calculated successful initial operation of the ECCS, the calculated core temperature shall be maintained at an acceptably low value and decay heat shall be removed for the extended period of time required by the long-lived radioactivity remaining in the core.
</P>
<P>(c) As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Loss-of-coolant accidents (LOCA's) are hypothetical accidents that would result from the loss of reactor coolant, at a rate in excess of the capability of the reactor coolant makeup system, from breaks in pipes in the reactor coolant pressure boundary up to and including a break equivalent in size to the double-ended rupture of the largest pipe in the reactor coolant system.
</P>
<P>(2) An evaluation model is the calculational framework for evaluating the behavior of the reactor system during a postulated loss-of-coolant accident (LOCA). It includes one or more computer programs and all other information necessary for application of the calculational framework to a specific LOCA, such as mathematical models used, assumptions included in the programs, procedure for treating the program input and output information, specification of those portions of analysis not included in computer programs, values of parameters, and all other information necessary to specify the calculational procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of this section are in addition to any other requirements applicable to ECCS set forth in this part. The criteria set forth in paragraph (b), with cooling performance calculated in accordance with an acceptable evaluation model, are in implementation of the general requirements with respect to ECCS cooling performance design set forth in this part, including in particular Criterion 35 of appendix A.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 1002, Jan. 4, 1974, as amended at 53 FR 36004, Sept. 16, 1988; 57 FR 39358, Aug. 31, 1992; 61 FR 39299, July 29, 1996; 62 FR 59276, Nov. 3, 1997; 72 FR 49494, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.46a" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.46a   Acceptance criteria for reactor coolant system venting systems.</HEAD>
<P>Each nuclear power reactor must be provided with high point vents for the reactor coolant system, for the reactor vessel head, and for other systems required to maintain adequate core cooling if the accumulation of noncondensible gases would cause the loss of function of these systems. High point vents are not required for the tubes in U-tube steam generators. Acceptable venting systems must meet the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(a) The high point vents must be remotely operated from the control room. 
</P>
<P>(b) The design of the vents and associated controls, instruments and power sources must conform to appendix A and appendix B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The vent system must be designed to ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The vents will perform their safety functions; and 
</P>
<P>(2) There would not be inadvertent or irreversible actuation of a vent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 54142, Sept. 16, 2003]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.47" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.47   Emergency plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no initial operating license for a nuclear power reactor will be issued under this part or under part 53 of this chapter unless a finding is made by the NRC that there is reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency. No finding under this section is necessary for issuance of a renewed nuclear power reactor operating license.
</P>
<P>(ii) No initial combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter will be issued unless a finding is made by the NRC that there is reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency. No finding under this section is necessary for issuance of a renewed combined license.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an application for an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 of this chapter includes complete and integrated emergency plans under § 52.17(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter or an application for an early site permit under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter includes complete and integrated emergency plans under § 53.1146(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter, no early site permit will be issued unless a finding is made by the NRC that the emergency plans provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency.
</P>
<P>(iv) If an application for an early site permit proposes major features of the emergency plans under § 52.17(b)(2)(i) or § 53.1146(b)(2)(i) of this chapter, no early site permit will be issued unless a finding is made by the NRC that the major features are acceptable in accordance with the applicable standards of either this section and appendix E to this part or the applicable requirements of § 50.160, within the scope of emergency preparedness matters addressed in the major features.




</P>
<P>(2) The NRC will base its finding on a review of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) findings and determinations as to whether State and local emergency plans are adequate and whether there is reasonable assurance that they can be implemented, and on the NRC assessment as to whether the applicant's onsite emergency plans are adequate and whether there is reasonable assurance that they can be implemented. A FEMA finding will primarily be based on a review of the plans. Any other information already available to FEMA may be considered in assessing whether there is reasonable assurance that the plans can be implemented. In any NRC licensing proceeding, a FEMA finding will constitute a rebuttable presumption on questions of adequacy and implementation capability.
</P>
<P>(b) The onsite and, except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section, offsite emergency response plans for nuclear power reactors must meet the following standards:




</P>
<P>(1) Primary responsibilities for emergency response by the nuclear facility licensee and by State and local organizations within the Emergency Planning Zones have been assigned, the emergency responsibilities of the various supporting organizations have been specifically established, and each principal response organization has staff to respond and to augment its initial response on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P>(2) On-shift facility licensee responsibilities for emergency response are unambiguously defined, adequate staffing to provide initial facility accident response in key functional areas is maintained at all times, timely augmentation of response capabilities is available and the interfaces among various onsite response activities and offsite support and response activities are specified.
</P>
<P>(3) Arrangements for requesting and effectively using assistance resources have been made, arrangements to accommodate State and local staff at the licensee's Emergency Operations Facility have been made, and other organizations capable of augmenting the planned response have been identified.
</P>
<P>(4) A standard emergency classification and action level scheme, the bases of which include facility system and effluent parameters, is in use by the nuclear facility licensee, and State and local response plans call for reliance on information provided by facility licensees for determinations of minimum initial offsite response measures.
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures have been established for notification, by the licensee, of State and local response organizations and for notification of emergency personnel by all organizations; the content of initial and followup messages to response organizations and the public has been established; and means to provide early notification and clear instruction to the populace within the plume exposure pathway Emergency Planning Zone have been established.
</P>
<P>(6) Provisions exist for prompt communications among principal response organizations to emergency personnel and to the public.
</P>
<P>(7) Information is made available to the public on a periodic basis on how they will be notified and what their initial actions should be in an emergency (e.g., listening to a local broadcast station and remaining indoors), the principal points of contact with the news media for dissemination of information during an emergency (including the physical location or locations) are established in advance, and procedures for coordinated dissemination of information to the public are established.
</P>
<P>(8) Adequate emergency facilities and equipment to support the emergency response are provided and maintained.
</P>
<P>(9) Adequate methods, systems, and equipment for assessing and monitoring actual or potential offsite consequences of a radiological emergency condition are in use.
</P>
<P>(10) A range of protective actions has been developed for the plume exposure pathway EPZ for emergency workers and the public. In developing this range of actions, consideration has been given to evacuation, sheltering, and, as a supplement to these, the prophylactic use of potassium iodide (KI), as appropriate. Evacuation time estimates have been developed by applicants and licensees. Licensees shall update the evacuation time estimates on a periodic basis. Guidelines for the choice of protective actions during an emergency, consistent with Federal guidance, are developed and in place, and protective actions for the ingestion exposure pathway EPZ appropriate to the locale have been developed.
</P>
<P>(11) Means for controlling radiological exposures, in an emergency, are established for emergency workers. The means for controlling radiological exposures shall include exposure guidelines consistent with EPA Emergency Worker and Lifesaving Activity Protective Action Guides.
</P>
<P>(12) Arrangements are made for medical services for contaminated injured individuals.
</P>
<P>(13) General plans for recovery and reentry are developed.
</P>
<P>(14) Periodic exercises are (will be) conducted to evaluate major portions of emergency response capabilities, periodic drills are (will be) conducted to develop and maintain key skills, and deficiencies identified as a result of exercises or drills are (will be) corrected.
</P>
<P>(15) Radiological emergency response training is provided to those who may be called on to assist in an emergency.
</P>
<P>(16) Responsibilities for plan development and review and for distribution of emergency plans are established, and planners are properly trained.


</P>
<P>(c)(1) Failure to meet the applicable standards set forth in either § 50.160 or paragraph (b) of this section may result in the Commission declining to issue an operating license; however, the applicant will have an opportunity to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Commission that deficiencies in the plans are not significant for the plant in question, that adequate interim compensating actions have been or will be taken promptly, or that there are other compelling reasons to permit plant operations. Where an applicant for an operating license asserts that its inability to demonstrate compliance with the requirements in either § 50.160 or paragraph (b) of this section results wholly or substantially from the decision of State and/or local governments not to participate further in emergency planning, an operating license may be issued if the applicant demonstrates to the Commission's satisfaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant's inability to comply with the requirements in either § 50.160 or paragraph (b) of this section is wholly or substantially the result of the non-participation of State and/or local governments.










</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant has made a sustained, good faith effort to secure and retain the participation of the pertinent state and/or local governmental authorities, including the furnishing of copies of its emergency plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant's emergency plan provides reasonable assurance that public health and safety is not endangered by operation of the facility concerned. To make that finding, the applicant must demonstrate that, as outlined below, adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of an emergency. A utility plan will be evaluated against the same planning standards applicable to a state or local plan, as listed in paragraph (b) of this section, with due allowance made both for—
</P>
<P>(A) Those elements for which state and/or local non-participation makes compliance infeasible and
</P>
<P>(B) The utility's measures designed to compensate for any deficiencies resulting from state and/or local non-participation.
</P>
<FP>In making its determination on the adequacy of a utility plan, the NRC will recognize the reality that in an actual emergency, state and local government officials will exercise their best efforts to protect the health and safety of the public. The NRC will determine the adequacy of that expected response, in combination with the utility's compensating measures, on a case-by-case basis, subject to the following guidance. In addressing the circumstance where applicant's inability to comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is wholly or substantially the result of non-participation of state and/or local governments, it may be presumed that in the event of an actual radiological emergency state and local officials would generally follow the utility plan. However, this presumption may be rebutted by, for example, a good faith and timely proffer of an adequate and feasible state and/or local radiological emergency plan that would in fact be relied upon in a radiological emergency.
</FP>
<P>(2) Generally, the plume exposure pathway EPZ for nuclear power plants shall consist of an area about 10 miles (16 km) in radius and the ingestion pathway EPZ shall consist of an area about 50 miles (80 km) in radius. The exact size and configuration of the EPZs surrounding a particular nuclear power reactor shall be determined in relation to local emergency response needs and capabilities as they are affected by such conditions as demography, topography, land characteristics, access routes, and jurisdictional boundaries. The size of the EPZs also may be determined on a case-by-case basis for gas-cooled nuclear reactors and for reactors with an authorized power level less than 250 MW thermal. The plans for the ingestion pathway shall focus on such actions as are appropriate to protect the food ingestion pathway.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, and except as specified by this paragraph, no NRC or FEMA review, findings, or determinations concerning the state of offsite emergency preparedness or the adequacy of and capability to implement State and local or utility offsite emergency plans are required prior to issuance of an operating license authorizing only fuel loading or low power testing and training (up to 5 percent of the rated thermal power). Insofar as emergency planning and preparedness requirements are concerned, a license authorizing fuel loading and/or low power testing and training may be issued after a finding is made by the NRC that the state of onsite emergency preparedness provides reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency. The NRC will base this finding on its assessment of the applicant's onsite emergency plans against the pertinent standards in paragraph (b) of this section and appendix E. Review of applicant's emergency plans will include the following standards with offsite aspects:
</P>
<P>(1) Arrangements for requesting and effectively using offsite assistance on site have been made, arrangements to accommodate State and local staff at the licensee's Emergency Operations Facility have been made, and other organizations capable of augmenting the planned onsite response have been identified.
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures have been established for licensee communications with State and local response organizations, including initial notification of the declaration of emergency and periodic provision of plant and response status reports.
</P>
<P>(3) Provisions exist for prompt communications among principal response organizations to offsite emergency personnel who would be responding onsite.
</P>
<P>(4) Adequate emergency facilities and equipment to support the emergency response onsite are provided and maintained.
</P>
<P>(5) Adequate methods, systems, and equipment for assessing and monitoring actual or potential offsite consequences of a radiological emergency condition are in use onsite.
</P>
<P>(6) Arrangements are made for medical services for contaminated and injured onsite individuals.
</P>
<P>(7) Radiological emergency response training has been made available to those offsite who may be called to assist in an emergency onsite.
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and the provisions of § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter, a holder of a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, as applicable, that is complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and appendix E to this part may not load fuel or operate except as provided in accordance with appendix E to this part and § 50.54(gg), and a holder of a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter that is complying with the requirements of § 50.160 may not load fuel or operate except as provided in accordance with §§ 50.160(c)(2) and 50.54(gg).










</P>
<P>(f) Paragraphs (a)(2), (b), and (c)(2) of this section do not apply to offsite radiological emergency response plans if the onsite emergency plan is not required to meet paragraph (b) of this section or if the plume exposure pathway EPZ does not extend beyond the site boundary.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 55409, Aug. 8, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 30235, July 13, 1982; 47 FR 40537, Sept. 15, 1982; 49 FR 27736, July 6, 1984; 50 FR 19324, May 8, 1985; 52 FR 42085, Nov. 3, 1987; 53 FR 36959, Sept. 23, 1988; 56 FR 64976, Dec. 13, 1991; 61 FR 30132, June 14, 1996; 66 FR 5440, Jan. 19, 2001; 72 FR 49495, Aug. 28, 2007; 76 FR 72595, Nov. 23, 2011; 78 FR 34248, June 7, 2013; 88 FR 80075, Nov. 16, 2023; 91 FR 15787, Mar. 30, 2026]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.48" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.48   Fire protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each holder of an operating license issued under this part or a combined license issued under part 52 of this chapter must have a fire protection plan that satisfies Criterion 3 of appendix A to this part. This fire protection plan must:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the overall fire protection program for the facility; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the various positions within the licensee's organization that are responsible for the program;
</P>
<P>(iii) State the authorities that are delegated to each of these positions to implement those responsibilities; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Outline the plans for fire protection, fire detection and suppression capability, and limitation of fire damage. 
</P>
<P>(2) The plan must also describe specific features necessary to implement the program described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section such as— 
</P>
<P>(i) Administrative controls and personnel requirements for fire prevention and manual fire suppression activities; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Automatic and manually operated fire detection and suppression systems; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The means to limit fire damage to structures, systems, or components important to safety so that the capability to shut down the plant safely is ensured. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall retain the fire protection plan and each change to the plan as a record until the Commission terminates the reactor license. The licensee shall retain each superseded revision of the procedures for 3 years from the date it was superseded. 
</P>
<P>(4) Each applicant for a design approval, design certification, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter must have a description and analysis of the fire protection design features for the standard plant necessary to demonstrate compliance with Criterion 3 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Appendix R to this part establishes fire protection features required to satisfy Criterion 3 of appendix A to this part with respect to certain generic issues for nuclear power plants licensed to operate before January 1, 1979. 
</P>
<P>(1) Except for the requirements of Sections III.G, III.J, and III.O, the provisions of Appendix R to this part do not apply to nuclear power plants licensed to operate before January 1, 1979, to the extent that— 
</P>
<P>(i) Fire protection features proposed or implemented by the licensee have been accepted by the NRC staff as satisfying the provisions of Appendix A to Branch Technical Position (BTP) APCSB 9.5-1 reflected in NRC fire protection safety evaluation reports issued before the effective date of February 19, 1981; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Fire protection features were accepted by the NRC staff in comprehensive fire protection safety evaluation reports issued before Appendix A to Branch Technical Position (BTP) APCSB 9.5-1 was published in August 1976. 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to all other fire protection features covered by Appendix R, all nuclear power plants licensed to operate before January 1, 1979, must satisfy the applicable requirements of Appendix R to this part, including specifically the requirements of Sections III.G, III.J, and III.O. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>National Fire Protection Association Standard NFPA 805</I>—(1) <I>Approval of incorporation by reference.</I> National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard 805, “Performance-Based Standard for Fire Protection for Light Water Reactor Electric Generating Plants, 2001 Edition” (NFPA 805), which is referenced in this section, was approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of NFPA 805 may be purchased from the NFPA Customer Service Department, 1 Batterymarch Park, P.O. Box 9101, Quincy, MA 02269-9101 and in PDF format through the NFPA Online Catalog (<I>www.nfpa.org</I>) or by calling 1-800-344-3555 or (617) 770-3000. Copies are also available for inspection at the NRC Library, Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738, and at the NRC Public Document Room, Building One White Flint North, Room O1-F15, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. Copies are also available at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions, modifications, and supplementation of NFPA 805.</I> As used in this section, references to NFPA 805 are to the 2001 Edition, with the following exceptions, modifications, and supplementation:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Life Safety Goal, Objectives, and Criteria.</I> The Life Safety Goal, Objectives, and Criteria of Chapter 1 are not endorsed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Plant Damage/Business Interruption Goal, Objectives, and Criteria.</I> The Plant Damage/Business Interruption Goal, Objectives, and Criteria of Chapter 1 are not endorsed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Use of feed-and-bleed.</I> In demonstrating compliance with the performance criteria of Sections 1.5.1(b) and (c), a high-pressure charging/injection pump coupled with the pressurizer power-operated relief valves (PORVs) as the sole fire-protected safe shutdown path for maintaining reactor coolant inventory, pressure control, and decay heat removal capability (<I>i.e.</I>, feed-and-bleed) for pressurized-water reactors (PWRs) is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Uncertainty analysis.</I> An uncertainty analysis performed in accordance with
</P>
<P>Section 2.7.3.5 is not required to support deterministic approach calculations.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Existing cables.</I> In lieu of installing cables meeting flame propagation tests as required by Section 3.3.5.3, a flame-retardant coating may be applied to the electric cables, or an automatic fixed fire suppression system may be installed to provide an equivalent level of protection. In addition, the italicized exception to Section 3.3.5.3 is not endorsed.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Water supply and distribution.</I> The italicized exception to Section 3.6.4 is not endorsed. Licensees who wish to use the exception to Section 3.6.4 must submit a request for a license amendment in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Performance-based methods.</I> Notwithstanding the prohibition in Section 3.1 against the use of performance-based methods, the fire protection program elements and minimum design requirements of Chapter 3 may be subject to the performance-based methods permitted elsewhere in the standard. Licensees who wish to use performance-based methods for these fire protection program elements and minimum design requirements shall submit a request in the form of an application for license amendment under § 50.90. The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or a designee of the Director, may approve the application if the Director or designee determines that the performance-based approach;
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfies the performance goals, performance objectives, and performance criteria specified in NFPA 805 related to nuclear safety and radiological release;
</P>
<P>(B) Maintains safety margins; and
</P>
<P>(C) Maintains fire protection defense-in-depth (fire prevention, fire detection, fire suppression, mitigation, and post-fire safe shutdown capability).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Compliance with NFPA 805.</I> (i) A licensee may maintain a fire protection program that complies with NFPA 805 as an alternative to complying with paragraph (b) of this section for plants licensed to operate before January 1, 1979, or the fire protection license conditions for plants licensed to operate after January 1, 1979. The licensee shall submit a request to comply with NFPA 805 in the form of an application for license amendment under § 50.90. The application must identify any orders and license conditions that must be revised or superseded, and contain any necessary revisions to the plant's technical specifications and the bases thereof. The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or a designee of the Director, may approve the application if the Director or designee determines that the licensee has identified orders, license conditions, and the technical specifications that must be revised or superseded, and that any necessary revisions are adequate. Any approval by the Director or the designee must be in the form of a license amendment approving the use of NFPA 805 together with any necessary revisions to the technical specifications.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall complete its implementation of the methodology in Chapter 2 of NFPA 805 (including all required evaluations and analyses) and, upon completion, modify the fire protection plan required by paragraph (a) of this section to reflect the licensee's decision to comply with NFPA 805, before changing its fire protection program or nuclear power plant as permitted by NFPA 805.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Risk-informed or performance-based alternatives to compliance with NFPA 805.</I> A licensee may submit a request to use risk-informed or performance-based alternatives to compliance with NFPA 805. The request must be in the form of an application for license amendment under § 50.90 of this chapter. The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or designee of the Director, may approve the application if the Director or designee determines that the proposed alternatives:
</P>
<P>(i) Satisfy the performance goals, performance objectives, and performance criteria specified in NFPA 805 related to nuclear safety and radiological release;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain safety margins; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain fire protection defense-in-depth (fire prevention, fire detection, fire suppression, mitigation, and post-fire safe shutdown capability).
</P>
<P>(d)-(e) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees that have submitted the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) shall maintain a fire protection program to address the potential for fires that could cause the release or spread of radioactive materials (<I>i.e.</I>, that could result in a radiological hazard). A fire protection program that complies with NFPA 805 shall be deemed to be acceptable for complying with the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) The objectives of the fire protection program are to— 
</P>
<P>(i) Reasonably prevent these fires from occurring; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Rapidly detect, control, and extinguish those fires that do occur and that could result in a radiological hazard; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the risk of fire-induced radiological hazards to the public, environment and plant personnel is minimized. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall assess the fire protection program on a regular basis. The licensee shall revise the plan as appropriate throughout the various stages of facility decommissioning. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee may make changes to the fire protection program without NRC approval if these changes do not reduce the effectiveness of fire protection for facilities, systems, and equipment that could result in a radiological hazard, taking into account the decommissioning plant conditions and activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 38190, June 20, 2000, as amended at 69 FR 33550, June 16, 2004; 72 FR 49495, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.49" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.107.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.49   Environmental qualification of electric equipment important to safety for nuclear power plants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of or an applicant for an operating license issued under this part, or a combined license or manufacturing license issued under part 52 of this chapter, other than a nuclear power plant for which the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) or § 52.110(a)(1) of this chapter have been submitted, shall establish a program for qualifying the electric equipment defined in paragraph (b) of this section. For a manufacturing license, only electric equipment defined in paragraph (b) which is within the scope of the manufactured reactor must be included in the program.
</P>
<P>(b) Electric equipment important to safety covered by this section is:
</P>
<P>(1) Safety-related electric equipment. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Safety-related electric equipment is referred to as “Class 1E” equipment in IEEE 323-1974. Copies of this standard may be obtained from the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Inc., 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) This equipment is that relied upon to remain functional during and following design basis events to ensure—
</P>
<P>(A) The integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary;
</P>
<P>(B) The capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition; or
</P>
<P>(C) The capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents that could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to the guidelines in § 50.34(a)(1), § 50.67(b)(2), or § 100.11 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Design basis events are defined as conditions of normal operation, including anticipated operational occurrences, design basis accidents, external events, and natural phenomena for which the plant must be designed to ensure functions (b)(1)(i) (A) through (C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonsafety-related electric equipment whose failure under postulated environmental conditions could prevent satisfactory accomplishment of safety functions specified in subparagraphs (b)(1)(i)(A) through (C) of this section by the safety-related equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Certain post-accident monitoring equipment. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Specific guidance concerning the types of variables to be monitored is provided in Revision 2 of Regulatory Guide 1.97, “Instrumentation for Light-Water-Cooled Nuclear Power Plants to Assess Plant and Environs Conditions During and Following an Accident.” Copies of the Regulatory Guide may be purchased through the U.S. Government Publishing Office by calling 202-512-1800 or by writing to the U.S. Government Publishing Office, P.O. Box 37082, Washington, DC 20013-7082.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Requirements for (1) dynamic and seismic qualification of electric equipment important to safety, (2) protection of electric equipment important to safety against other natural phenomena and external events, and (3) environmental qualification of electric equipment important to safety located in a mild environment are not included within the scope of this section. A mild environment is an environment that would at no time be significantly more severe than the environment that would occur during normal plant operation, including anticipated operational occurrences.
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant or licensee shall prepare a list of electric equipment important to safety covered by this section. In addition, the applicant or licensee shall include the information in paragraphs (d)(1), (2), and (3) of this section for this electric equipment important to safety in a qualification file. The applicant or licensee shall keep the list and information in the file current and retain the file in auditable form for the entire period during which the covered item is installed in the nuclear power plant or is stored for future use to permit verification that each item of electric equipment is important to safely meet the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The performance specifications under conditions existing during and following design basis accidents.
</P>
<P>(2) The voltage, frequency, load, and other electrical characteristics for which the performance specified in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section can be ensured.
</P>
<P>(3) The environmental conditions, including temperature, pressure, humidity, radiation, chemicals, and submergence at the location where the equipment must perform as specified in accordance with paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) The electric equipment qualification program must include and be based on the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Temperature and pressure.</I> The time-dependent temperature and pressure at the location of the electric equipment important to safety must be established for the most severe design basis accident during or following which this equipment is required to remain functional.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Humidity.</I> Humidity during design basis accidents must be considered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Chemical effects.</I> The composition of chemicals used must be at least as severe as that resulting from the most limiting mode of plant operation (e.g., containment spray, emergency core cooling, or recirculation from containment sump). If the composition of the chemical spray can be affected by equipment malfunctions, the most severe chemical spray environment that results from a single failure in the spray system must be assumed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Radiation.</I> The radiation environment must be based on the type of radiation, the total dose expected during normal operation over the installed life of the equipment, and the radiation environment associated with the most severe design basis accident during or following which the equipment is required to remain functional, including the radiation resulting from recirculating fluids for equipment located near the recirculating lines and including dose-rate effects.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Aging.</I> Equipment qualified by test must be preconditioned by natural or artificial (accelerated) aging to its end-of-installed life condition. Consideration must be given to all significant types of degradation which can have an effect on the functional capability of the equipment. If preconditioning to an end-of-installed life condition is not practicable, the equipment may be preconditioned to a shorter designated life. The equipment must be replaced or refurbished at the end of this designated life unless ongoing qualification demonstrates that the item has additional life.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Submergence</I> (if subject to being submerged).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Synergistic effects.</I> Synergistic effects must be considered when these effects are believed to have a significant effect on equipment performance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Margins.</I> Margins must be applied to account for unquantified uncertainty, such as the effects of production variations and inaccuracies in test instruments. These margins are in addition to any conservatisms applied during the derivation of local environmental conditions of the equipment unless these conservatisms can be quantified and shown to contain appropriate margins.
</P>
<P>(f) Each item of electric equipment important to safety must be qualified by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) Testing an identical item of equipment under identical conditions or under similar conditions with a supporting analysis to show that the equipment to be qualified is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(2) Testing a similar item of equipment with a supporting analysis to show that the equipment to be qualified is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(3) Experience with identical or similar equipment under similar conditions with a supporting analysis to show that the equipment to be qualified is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(4) Analysis in combination with partial type test data that supports the analytical assumptions and conclusions.
</P>
<P>(g) Each holder of an operating license issued prior to February 22, 1983, shall, by May 20, 1983, identify the electric equipment important to safety within the scope of this section already qualified and submit a schedule for either the qualification to the provisions of this section or for the replacement of the remaining electric equipment important to safety within the scope of this section. This schedule must establish a goal of final environmental qualification of the electric equipment within the scope of this section by the end of the second refueling outage after March 31, 1982 or by March 31, 1985, whichever is earlier. The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation may grant requests for extensions of this deadline to a date no later than November 30, 1985, for specific pieces of equipment if these requests are filed on a timely basis and demonstrate good cause for the extension, such as procurement lead time, test complications, and installation problems. In exceptional cases, the Commission itself may consider and grant extensions beyond November 30, 1985, for completion of environmental qualification.
</P>
<FP>The schedule in this paragraph supersedes the June 30, 1982, deadline, or any other previously imposed date, for environmental qualification of electric equipment contained in certain nuclear power operating licenses.
</FP>
<P>(h) Each license shall notify the Commission as specified in § 50.4 of any significant equipment qualification problem that may require extension of the completion date provided in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section within 60 days of its discovery.
</P>
<P>(i) Applicants for operating licenses granted after February 22, 1983, but prior to November 30, 1985, shall perform an analysis to ensure that the plant can be safely operated pending completion of equipment qualification required by this section. This analysis must be submitted, as specified in § 50.4, for consideration prior to the granting of an operating license and must include, where appropriate, consideration of:
</P>
<P>(1) Accomplishing the safety function by some designated alternative equipment if the principal equipment has not been demonstrated to be fully qualified.
</P>
<P>(2) The validity of partial test data in support of the original qualification.
</P>
<P>(3) Limited use of administrative controls over equipment that has not been demonstrated to be fully qualified.
</P>
<P>(4) Completion of the safety function prior to exposure to the accident environment resulting from a design basis event and ensuring that the subsequent failure of the equipment does not degrade any safety function or mislead the operator.
</P>
<P>(5) No significant degradation of any safety function or misleading information to the operator as a result of failure of equipment under the accident environment resulting from a design basis event.
</P>
<P>(j) A record of the qualification, including documentation in paragraph (d) of this section, must be maintained in an auditable form for the entire period during which the covered item is installed in the nuclear power plant or is stored for future use to permit verification that each item of electric equipment important to safety covered by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Is qualified for its application; and
</P>
<P>(2) Meets its specified performance requirements when it is subjected to the conditions predicted to be present when it must perform its safety function up to the end of its qualified life.
</P>
<P>(k) Applicants for and holders of operating licenses are not required to requalify electric equipment important to safety in accordance with the provisions of this section if the Commission has previously required qualification of that equipment in accordance with “Guidelines for Evaluating Environmental Qualification of Class 1E Electrical Equipment in Operating Reactors,” November 1979 (DOR Guidelines), or NUREG-0588 (For Comment version), “Interim Staff Position on Environmental Qualification of Safety-Related Electrical Equipment.”
</P>
<P>(l) Replacement equipment must be qualified in accordance with the provisions of this section unless there are sound reasons to the contrary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 2733, Jan. 21, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 45576, Nov. 19, 1984; 51 FR 40308, Nov. 6, 1986; 51 FR 43709, Dec. 3, 1986; 52 FR 31611, Aug. 21, 1987; 53 FR 19250, May 27, 1988; 61 FR 39300, July 29, 1996; 61 FR 65173, Dec. 11, 1996; 62 FR 47271, Sept. 8, 1997; 64 FR 72001, Dec. 23, 1999; 66 FR 64738, Dec. 14, 2001; 72 FR 49495, Aug. 28, 2007; 80 FR 45843, Aug. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="108" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Issuance, Limitations, and Conditions of Licenses and Construction Permits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.50" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.50   Issuance of licenses and construction permits.</HEAD>
<P>Upon determination that an application for a license meets the standards and requirements of the act and regulations, and that notifications, if any, to other agencies or bodies have been duly made, the Commission will issue a license, or if appropriate a construction permit, in such form and containing such conditions and limitations including technical specifications, as it deems appropriate and necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.51" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.51   Continuation of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as noted in § 50.51(c), each license will be issued for a fixed period of time to be specified in the license but in no case to exceed 40 years from date of issuance. Where the operation of a facility is involved, the Commission will issue the license for the term requested by the applicant or for the estimated useful life of the facility if the Commission determines that the estimated useful life is less than the term requested. Where construction of a facility is involved, the Commission may specify in the construction permit the period for which the license will be issued if approved pursuant to § 50.56. Licenses may be renewed by the Commission upon the expiration of the period. Renewal of operating licenses for nuclear power plants is governed by 10 CFR part 54. Application for termination of license is to be made pursuant to § 50.82.
</P>
<P>(b) Each license for a facility that has permanently ceased operations, continues in effect beyond the expiration date to authorize ownership and possession of the production or utilization facility, until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During such period of continued effectiveness the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Take actions necessary to decommission and decontaminate the facility and continue to maintain the facility, including, where applicable, the storage, control and maintenance of the spent fuel, in a safe condition, and
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct activities in accordance with all other restrictions applicable to the facility in accordance with the NRC regulations and the provisions of the specific 10 CFR part 50 license for the facility.


</P>
<P>(c) Each non-power production or utilization facility license issued under § 50.21(a) or (c), other than a testing facility license, after January 29, 2025, will be issued with no fixed license term.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 64976, Dec. 13, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 39300, July 29, 1996; 89 FR 106251, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.52" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.52   Combining licenses.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may combine in a single license the activities of an applicant which would otherwise be licensed severally.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.53" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.53   Jurisdictional limitations.</HEAD>
<P>No license under this part shall be deemed to have been issued for activities which are not under or within the jurisdiction of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.54" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.54   Conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>The following paragraphs of this section, with the exception of paragraphs (r) and (gg), and the applicable requirements of 10 CFR 50.55a, are conditions in every nuclear power reactor operating license issued under this part. The following paragraphs with the exception of paragraph (r), (s), and (u) of this section are conditions in every combined license issued under part 52 of this chapter, provided, however, that paragraphs (i) introductory text, (i)(1), (j), (k), (l), (m), (n), (w), (x), (y), (z), and (hh) of this section are only applicable after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Each nuclear power plant or fuel reprocessing plant licensee subject to the quality assurance criteria in appendix B of this part shall implement, under § 50.34(b)(6)(ii) or § 52.79 of this chapter, the quality assurance program described or referenced in the safety analysis report, including changes to that report. However, a holder of a combined license under part 52 of this chapter shall implement the quality assurance program described or referenced in the safety analysis report applicable to operation 30 days prior to the scheduled date for the initial loading of fuel.
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall, by June 10, 1983, submit to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter the current description of the quality assurance program it is implementing for inclusion in the Safety Analysis Report, unless there are no changes to the description previously accepted by NRC. This submittal must identify changes made to the quality assurance program description since the description was submitted to NRC. (Should a licensee need additional time beyond June 10, 1983 to submit its current quality assurance program description to NRC, it shall notify the appropriate NRC Regional Office in writing, explain why additional time is needed, and provide a schedule for NRC approval showing when its current quality assurance program description will be submitted.)
</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may make a change to a previously accepted quality assurance program description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report without prior NRC approval, provided the change does not reduce the commitments in the program description as accepted by the NRC. Changes to the quality assurance program description that do not reduce the commitments must be submitted to the NRC in accordance with the requirements of § 50.71(e). In addition to quality assurance program changes involving administrative improvements and clarifications, spelling corrections, punctuation, or editorial items, the following changes are not considered to be reductions in commitment:
</P>
<P>(i) The use of a QA standard approved by the NRC which is more recent than the QA standard in the licensee's current QA program at the time of the change;
</P>
<P>(ii) The use of a quality assurance alternative or exception approved by an NRC safety evaluation, provided that the bases of the NRC approval are applicable to the licensee's facility;
</P>
<P>(iii) The use of generic organizational position titles that clearly denote the position function, supplemented as necessary by descriptive text, rather than specific titles;
</P>
<P>(iv) The use of generic organizational charts to indicate functional relationships, authorities, and responsibilities, or, alternately, the use of descriptive text;
</P>
<P>(v) The elimination of quality assurance program information that duplicates language in quality assurance regulatory guides and quality assurance standards to which the licensee is committed; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Organizational revisions that ensure that persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions continue to have the requisite authority and organizational freedom, including sufficient independence from cost and schedule when opposed to safety considerations.
</P>
<P>(4) Changes to the quality assurance program description that do reduce the commitments must be submitted to the NRC and receive NRC approval prior to implementation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes made to the quality assurance program description as presented in the Safety Analysis Report or in a topical report must be submitted as specified in § 50.4.
</P>
<P>(ii) The submittal of a change to the Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description must include all pages affected by that change and must be accompanied by a forwarding letter identifying the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the revised program incorporating the change continues to satisfy the criteria of appendix B of this part and the Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description commitments previously accepted by the NRC (the letter need not provide the basis for changes that correct spelling, punctuation, or editorial items).
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the forwarding letter identifying the change must be maintained as a facility record for three years.
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes to the quality assurance program description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report shall be regarded as accepted by the Commission upon receipt of a letter to this effect from the appropriate reviewing office of the Commission or 60 days after submittal to the Commission, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(b) No right to the special nuclear material shall be conferred by the license except as may be defined by the license.
</P>
<P>(c) Neither the license, nor any right thereunder, nor any right to utilize or produce special nuclear material shall be transferred, assigned, or disposed of in any manner, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license to any person, unless the Commission shall, after securing full information, find that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of the act and give its consent in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) The license shall be subject to suspension and to the rights of recapture of the material or control of the facility reserved to the Commission under section 108 of the act in a state of war or national emergency declared by Congress.
</P>
<P>(e) The license shall be subject to revocation, suspension, modification, or amendment for cause as provided in the act and regulations, in accordance with the procedures provided by the act and regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee shall at any time before expiration of the license, upon request of the Commission, submit, as specified in § 50.4, written statements, signed under oath or affirmation, to enable the Commission to determine whether or not the license should be modified, suspended, or revoked. Except for information sought to verify licensee compliance with the current licensing basis for that facility, the NRC must prepare the reason or reasons for each information request prior to issuance to ensure that the burden to be imposed on respondents is justified in view of the potential safety significance of the issue to be addressed in the requested information. Each such justification provided for an evaluation performed by the NRC staff must be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee prior to issuance of the request.
</P>
<P>(g) The issuance or existence of the license shall not be deemed to waive, or relieve the licensee from compliance with, the antitrust laws, as specified in subsection 105a of the Act. In the event that the licensee should be found by a court of competent jurisdiction to have violated any provision of such antitrust laws in the conduct of the licensed activity, the Commission may suspend or revoke the license or take such other action with respect to it as shall be deemed necessary.
</P>
<P>(h) The license shall be subject to the provisions of the Act now or hereafter in effect and to all rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission. The terms and conditions of the license shall be subject to amendment, revision, or modification, by reason of amendments of the Act or by reason of rules, regulations, and orders issued in accordance with the terms of the act.
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in § 55.13 of this chapter, the licensee may not permit the manipulation of the controls of any facility by anyone who is not a licensed operator or senior operator as provided in part 55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i-1) Within 3 months after either the issuance of an operating license or the date that the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter for a combined license, as applicable, the licensee shall have in effect an operator requalification program. The operator requalification program must, as a minimum, meet the requirements of § 55.59(c) of this chapter. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 50.59, the licensee may not, except as specifically authorized by the Commission decrease the scope of an approved operator requalification program.
</P>
<P>(j) Apparatus and mechanisms other than controls, the operation of which may affect the reactivity or power level of a reactor shall be manipulated only with the knowledge and consent of an operator or senior operator licensed pursuant to part 55 of this chapter present at the controls.
</P>
<P>(k) An operator or senior operator licensed pursuant to part 55 of this chapter shall be present at the controls at all times during the operation of the facility.
</P>
<P>(l) The licensee shall designate individuals to be responsible for directing the licensed activities of licensed operators. These individuals shall be licensed as senior operators pursuant to part 55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(m)(1) A senior operator licensed pursuant to part 55 of this chapter shall be present at the facility or readily available on call at all times during its operation, and shall be present at the facility during initial start-up and approach to power, recovery from an unplanned or unscheduled shut-down or significant reduction in power, and refueling, or as otherwise prescribed in the facility license.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, by January 1, 1984, licensees of nuclear power units shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Each licensee shall meet the minimum licensed operator staffing requirements in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Minimum Requirements 
<sup>1</sup> Per Shift for On-Site Staffing of Nuclear Power Units by Operators and Senior Operators Licensed Under 10 CFR Part 55
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Number of nuclear power units operating 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Position
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">One unit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Two units
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three units
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">One control room
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">One control room
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Two control rooms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Two control rooms
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Three control rooms
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Senior Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Senior Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Senior Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Senior Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Temporary deviations from the numbers required by this table shall be in accordance with criteria established in the unit's technical specifications.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For the purpose of this table, a nuclear power unit is considered to be operating when it is in a mode other than cold shutdown or refueling as defined by the unit's technical specifications.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The number of required licensed personnel when the operating nuclear power units are controlled from a common control room are two senior operators and four operators.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Each licensee shall have at its site a person holding a senior operator license for all fueled units at the site who is assigned responsibility for overall plant operation at all times there is fuel in any unit. If a single senior operator does not hold a senior operator license on all fueled units at the site, then the licensee must have at the site two or more senior operators, who in combination are licensed as senior operators on all fueled units.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a nuclear power unit is in an operational mode other than cold shutdown or refueling, as defined by the unit's technical specifications, each licensee shall have a person holding a senior operator license for the nuclear power unit in the control room at all times. In addition to this senior operator, for each fueled nuclear power unit, a licensed operator or senior operator shall be present at the controls at all times.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each licensee shall have present, during alteration of the core of a nuclear power unit (including fuel loading or transfer), a person holding a senior operator license or a senior operator license limited to fuel handling to directly supervise the activity and, during this time, the licensee shall not assign other duties to this person.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees who cannot meet the January 1, 1984 deadline must submit by October 1, 1983 a request for an extension to the Director of the Office of Nuclear Regulation and demonstrate good cause for the request.
</P>
<P>(n) The licensee shall not, except as authorized pursuant to a construction permit, make any alteration in the facility constituting a change from the technical specifications previously incorporated in a license or construction permit pursuant to § 50.36 of this part.
</P>
<P>(o) Primary reactor containments for water cooled power reactors, other than facilities for which the certifications required under §§ 50.82(a)(1) or 52.110(a)(1) of this chapter have been submitted, shall be subject to the requirements set forth in appendix J to this part.
</P>
<P>(p)(1) The licensee shall prepare and maintain safeguards contingency plan procedures in accordance with appendix C of part 73 of this chapter for affecting the actions and decisions contained in the Responsibility Matrix of the safeguards contingency plan. The licensee may not make a change which would decrease the effectiveness of a physical security plan, or guard training and qualification plan, or cyber security plan prepared under § 50.34(c) or § 52.79(a), or part 73 of this chapter, or of the first four categories of information (Background, Generic Planning Base, Licensee Planning Base, Responsibility Matrix) contained in a licensee safeguards contingency plan prepared under § 50.34(d) or § 52.79(a), or part 73 of this chapter, as applicable, without prior approval of the Commission. A licensee desiring to make such a change shall submit an application for amendment to the licensee's license under § 50.90.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee may make changes to the plans referenced in paragraph (p)(1) of this section, without prior Commission approval if the changes do not decrease the safeguards effectiveness of the plan. The licensee shall maintain records of changes to the plans made without prior Commission approval for a period of 3 years from the date of the change, and shall submit, as specified in § 50.4 or § 52.3 of this chapter, a report containing a description of each change within 2 months after the change is made. Prior to the safeguards contingency plan being put into effect, the licensee shall have:
</P>
<P>(i) All safeguards capabilities specified in the safeguards contingency plan available and functional;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detailed procedures developed according to appendix C to part 73 of this chapter available at the licensee's site; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All appropriate personnel trained to respond to safeguards incidents as outlined in the plan and specified in the detailed procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall provide for the development, revision, implementation, and maintenance of its safeguards contingency plan. The licensee shall ensure that all program elements are reviewed by individuals independent of both security program management and personnel who have direct responsibility for implementation of the security program either:
</P>
<P>(i) At intervals not to exceed 12 months; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As necessary, based on an assessment by the licensee against performance indicators, and as soon as reasonably practicable after a change occurs in personnel, procedures, equipment, or facilities that potentially could adversely affect security, but no longer than 12 months after the change. In any case, all elements of the safeguards contingency plan must be reviewed at least once every 24 months.
</P>
<P>(4) The review must include a review and audit of safeguards contingency procedures and practices, an audit of the security system testing and maintenance program, and a test of the safeguards systems along with commitments established for response by local law enforcement authorities. The results of the review and audit, along with recommendations for improvements, must be documented, reported to the licensee's corporate and plant management, and kept available at the plant for inspection for a period of 3 years.








</P>
<P>(q) <I>Emergency plans</I>—(1) Definitions for the purpose of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Change</I> means an action that results in modification or addition to, or removal from, the licensee's emergency plan. All such changes are subject to the provisions of this section except where the applicable regulations establish specific criteria for accomplishing a particular change.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Emergency plan</I> means the document(s), prepared and maintained by the licensee, that identify and describe the licensee's methods for maintaining emergency preparedness and responding to emergencies. An emergency plan includes the plan as originally approved by the NRC and all subsequent changes made by the licensee with, and without, prior NRC review and approval under paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Emergency planning function</I> means a capability or resource necessary to prepare for and respond to a radiological emergency.


</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Reduction in effectiveness</I> means a change in an emergency plan that results in reducing the licensee's capability to perform an emergency planning function in the event of a radiological emergency.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (q)(2)(ii) of this section, a holder of a license under this part, or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter, shall follow and maintain the effectiveness of an emergency plan that meets the requirements in appendix E to this part and, for nuclear power reactor licensees, the planning standards of § 50.47(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) A holder of a license under this part for a non-power production or utilization facility, a holder of a license under this part for a small modular reactor or a non-light water reactor, or a holder of a combined license under part 52 of this chapter after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter for a small modular reactor or a non-light-water reactor, shall follow and maintain the effectiveness of either an emergency plan that meets the requirements in § 50.160 or an emergency plan that meets the requirements in appendix E to this part and, for nuclear power reactor licensees, the planning standards of § 50.47(b).
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (q)(3)(ii) of this section, the licensee may make changes to its emergency plan without NRC approval only if the licensee performs and retains an analysis demonstrating that the changes do not reduce the effectiveness of the plan and the plan, as changed, continues to meet the requirements in appendix E to this part and, for nuclear power reactor licensees, the planning standards of § 50.47(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) A non-power production or utilization facility, small modular reactor, or non-light-water reactor licensee may make changes to its emergency plan without NRC approval only if the licensee performs and retains an analysis demonstrating that the changes do not reduce the effectiveness of the plan and the plan, as changed, continues to meet either the requirements in § 50.160 or the requirements in appendix E to this part and, for nuclear power reactor licensees, the planning standards of § 50.47(b).
</P>
<P>(4) The changes to a licensee's emergency plan that reduce the effectiveness of the plan as defined in paragraph (q)(1)(iv) of this section may not be implemented without prior approval by the NRC. A licensee desiring to make such a change shall submit an application for an amendment to its license. In addition to the filing requirements of §§ 50.90 and 50.91, the request must include all emergency plan pages affected by that change and must be accompanied by a forwarding letter identifying the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the licensee's emergency plan, as revised, will continue to meet either the requirements in § 50.160 or the requirements in appendix E to this part and, for nuclear power reactor licensees, the planning standards of § 50.47(b).


</P>
<P>(5) The licensee shall retain a record of each change to the emergency plan made without prior NRC approval for a period of three years from the date of the change and shall submit, as specified in § 50.4, a report of each such change, including a summary of its analysis, within 30 days after the change is put in effect.
</P>
<P>(6) The nuclear power reactor licensee shall retain the emergency plan and each change for which prior NRC approval was obtained pursuant to paragraph (q)(4) of this section as a record until the Commission terminates the license for the nuclear power reactor.
</P>
<P>(7) Each holder of an operating license under this part or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter for a small modular reactor or non-light-water reactor or each holder of an operating license under this part issued after December 18, 2023 for a non-power production or utilization facility that wishes to transition to § 50.160 shall submit to the Commission, as specified in § 50.90, a license amendment request for implementing an emergency preparedness program with the associated plan modification necessary to meet the requirements of § 50.160(b). This submittal must include an explanation of the schedule and analyses supporting the implementation of the emergency preparedness program.


</P>
<P>(r) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(s)(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2)(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) If the NRC finds that the state of emergency preparedness does not provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency (<I>including findings based on requirements of appendix E, section IV.D.3</I>) and if the deficiencies (<I>including deficiencies based on requirements of appendix E, section IV.D.3</I>) are not corrected within four months of that finding, the Commission will determine whether the facility shall be shut down or cease operation until such deficiencies are remedied or whether other enforcement action is appropriate. In determining whether a shutdown or other enforcement action is appropriate, the Commission shall take into account, among other factors, whether the licensee can demonstrate to the Commission's satisfaction that the deficiencies in the plan are not significant for the plant in question, or that adequate interim compensating actions have been or will be taken promptly, or that there are other compelling reasons for continued operation.
</P>
<P>(3) If the planning standards for radiological emergency preparedness apply to offsite emergency response plans, or if the planning activities in § 50.160(b)(1)(iv)(B) apply, then the NRC will base its finding on a review of the FEMA findings and determinations as to whether State and local emergency plans are adequate and capable of being implemented, and on the NRC assessment as to whether the licensee's emergency plans are adequate and capable of being implemented. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as limiting the authority of the Commission to take action under any other regulation or authority of the Commission or at any time other than that specified in this paragraph.


</P>
<P>(t)(1) The licensee shall provide for the development, revision, implementation, and maintenance of its emergency preparedness program. The licensee shall ensure that all program elements are reviewed by persons who have no direct responsibility for the implementation of the emergency preparedness program either:
</P>
<P>(i) At intervals not to exceed 12 months or,
</P>
<P>(ii) As necessary, based on an assessment by the licensee against performance indicators, and as soon as reasonably practicable after a change occurs in personnel, procedures, equipment, or facilities that potentially could adversely affect emergency preparedness, but no longer than 12 months after the change. In any case, all elements of the emergency preparedness program must be reviewed at least once every 24 months.
</P>
<P>(2) The review must include an evaluation for adequacy of interfaces with State and local governments and of licensee drills, exercises, capabilities, and procedures. The results of the review, along with recommendations for improvements, must be documented, reported to the licensee's corporate and plant management, and retained for a period of 5 years. The part of the review involving the evaluation for adequacy of interface with State and local governments must be available to the appropriate State and local governments.
</P>
<P>(u) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) Each licensee subject to the requirements of Part 73 of this chapter shall ensure that Safeguards Information is protected against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements in § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(w) Each power reactor licensee under this part for a production or utilization facility of the type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 shall take reasonable steps to obtain insurance available at reasonable costs and on reasonable terms from private sources or to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the NRC that it possesses an equivalent amount of protection covering the licensee's obligation, in the event of an accident at the licensee's reactor, to stabilize and decontaminate the reactor and the reactor station site at which the reactor experiencing the accident is located, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance required by paragraph (w) of this section must have a minimum coverage limit for each reactor station site of either $1.06 billion or whatever amount of insurance is generally available from private sources, whichever is less. The required insurance must clearly state that, as and to the extent provided in paragraph (w)(4) of this section, any proceeds must be payable first for stabilization of the reactor and next for decontamination of the reactor and the reactor station site. If a licensee's coverage falls below the required minimum, the licensee shall within 60 days take all reasonable steps to restore its coverage to the required minimum. The required insurance may, at the option of the licensee, be included within policies that also provide coverage for other risks, including, but not limited to, the risk of direct physical damage.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) With respect to policies issued or annually renewed on or after April 2, 1991, the proceeds of such required insurance must be dedicated, as and to the extent provided in this paragraph, to reimbursement or payment on behalf of the insured of reasonable expenses incurred or estimated to be incurred by the licensee in taking action to fulfill the licensee's obligation, in the event of an accident at the licensee's reactor, to ensure that the reactor is in, or is returned to, and maintained in, a safe and stable condition and that radioactive contamination is removed or controlled such that personnel exposures are consistent with the occupational exposure limits in 10 CFR part 20. These actions must be consistent with any other obligation the licensee may have under this chapter and must be subject to paragraph (w)(4) of this section. As used in this section, an “accident” means an event that involves the release of radioactive material from its intended place of confinement within the reactor or on the reactor station site such that there is a present danger of release off site in amounts that would pose a threat to the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(ii) The stabilization and decontamination requirements set forth in paragraph (w)(4) of this section must apply uniformly to all insurance policies required under paragraph (w) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall report to the NRC on April 1 of each year the current levels of this insurance or financial security it maintains and the sources of this insurance or financial security.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) In the event of an accident at the licensee's reactor, whenever the estimated costs of stabilizing the licensed reactor and of decontaminating the reactor and the reactor station site exceed $100 million, the proceeds of the insurance required by paragraph (w) of this section must be dedicated to and used, first, to ensure that the licensed reactor is in, or is returned to, and can be maintained in, a safe and stable condition so as to prevent any significant risk to the public health and safety and, second, to decontaminate the reactor and the reactor station site in accordance with the licensee's cleanup plan as approved by order of the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. This priority on insurance proceeds must remain in effect for 60 days or, upon order of the Director, for such longer periods, in increments not to exceed 60 days except as provided for activities under the cleanup plan required in paragraphs (w)(4)(iii) and (w)(4)(iv) of this section, as the Director may find necessary to protect the public health and safety. Actions needed to bring the reactor to and maintain the reactor in a safe and stable condition may include one or more of the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Shutdown of the reactor;
</P>
<P>(B) Establishment and maintenance of long-term cooling with stable decay heat removal;
</P>
<P>(C) Maintenance of sub-criticality;
</P>
<P>(D) Control of radioactive releases; and
</P>
<P>(E) Securing of structures, systems, or components to minimize radiation exposure to onsite personnel or to the offsite public or to facilitate later decontamination or both.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall inform the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation in writing when the reactor is and can be maintained in a safe and stable condition so as to prevent any significant risk to the public health and safety. Within 30 days after the licensee informs the Director that the reactor is in this condition, or at such earlier time as the licensee may elect or the Director may for good cause direct, the licensee shall prepare and submit a cleanup plan for the Director's approval. The cleanup plan must identify and contain an estimate of the cost of each cleanup operation that will be required to decontaminate the reactor sufficiently to permit the licensee either to resume operation of the reactor or to apply to the Commission under § 50.82 for authority to decommission the reactor and to surrender the license voluntarily. Cleanup operations may include one or more of the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Processing any contaminated water generated by the accident and by decontamination operations to remove radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(B) Decontamination of surfaces inside the auxiliary and fuel-handling buildings and the reactor building to levels consistent with the Commission's occupational exposure limits in 10 CFR part 20, and decontamination or disposal of equipment;
</P>
<P>(C) Decontamination or removal and disposal of internal parts and damaged fuel from the reactor vessel; and
</P>
<P>(D) Cleanup of the reactor coolant system.
</P>
<P>(iii) Following review of the licensee's cleanup plan, the Director will order the licensee to complete all operations that the Director finds are necessary to decontaminate the reactor sufficiently to permit the licensee either to resume operation of the reactor or to apply to the Commission under § 50.82 for authority to decommission the reactor and to surrender the license voluntarily. The Director shall approve or disapprove, in whole or in part for stated reasons, the licensee's estimate of cleanup costs for such operations. Such order may not be effective for more than 1 year, at which time it may be renewed. Each subsequent renewal order, if imposed, may be effective for not more than 6 months.
</P>
<P>(iv) Of the balance of the proceeds of the required insurance not already expended to place the reactor in a safe and stable condition pursuant to paragraph (w)(2)(i) of this section, an amount sufficient to cover the expenses of completion of those decontamination operations that are the subject of the Director's order shall be dedicated to such use, provided that, upon certification to the Director of the amounts expended previously and from time to time for stabilization and decontamination and upon further certification to the Director as to the sufficiency of the dedicated amount remaining, policies of insurance may provide for payment to the licensee or other loss payees of amounts not so dedicated, and the licensee may proceed to use in parallel (and not in preference thereto) any insurance proceeds not so dedicated for other purposes.
</P>
<P>(x) A licensee may take reasonable action that departs from a license condition or a technical specification (contained in a license issued under this part) in an emergency when this action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety and no action consistent with license conditions and technical specifications that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent.
</P>
<P>(y) Licensee action permitted by paragraph (x) of this section shall be approved, as a minimum, by a licensed senior operator, or, at a nuclear power reactor facility for which the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) have been submitted, by either a licensed senior operator or a certified fuel handler, prior to taking the action.
</P>
<P>(z) Each licensee with a utilization facility licensed pursuant to sections 103 or 104b. of the Act shall immediately notify the NRC Operations Center of the occurrence of any event specified in § 50.72 of this part.
</P>
<P>(aa) The license shall be subject to all conditions deemed imposed as a matter of law by sections 401(a)(2) and 401(d) of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended (33 U.S.C.A. 1341 (a)(2) and (d).)
</P>
<P>(bb) For nuclear power reactors licensed by the NRC, the licensee shall, within 2 years following permanent cessation of operation of the reactor or 5 years before expiration of the reactor operating license, whichever occurs first, submit written notification to the Commission for its review and preliminary approval of the program by which the licensee intends to manage and provide funding for the management of all irradiated fuel at the reactor following permanent cessation of operation of the reactor until title to the irradiated fuel and possession of the fuel is transferred to the Secretary of Energy for its ultimate disposal in a repository. Licensees of nuclear power reactors that have permanently ceased operation by April 4, 1994 are required to submit such written notification by April 4, 1996. Final Commission review will be undertaken as part of any proceeding for continued licensing under part 50 or part 72 of this chapter. The licensee must demonstrate to NRC that the elected actions will be consistent with NRC requirements for licensed possession of irradiated nuclear fuel and that the actions will be implemented on a timely basis. Where implementation of such actions requires NRC authorizations, the licensee shall verify in the notification that submittals for such actions have been or will be made to NRC and shall identify them. A copy of the notification shall be retained by the licensee as a record until expiration of the reactor operating license. The licensee shall notify the NRC of any significant changes in the proposed waste management program as described in the initial notification.
</P>
<P>(cc)(1) Each licensee shall notify the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any chapter of title 11 (Bankruptcy) of the United States Code by or against:
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee;
</P>
<P>(ii) An entity (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(14)) controlling the licensee or listing the license or licensee as property of the estate; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An affiliate (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(2)) of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) This notification must indicate:
</P>
<P>(i) The bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the filing of the petition.
</P>
<P>(dd) A licensee may take reasonable action that departs from a license condition or a technical specification (contained in a license issued under this part) in a national security emergency:
</P>
<P>(1) When this action is immediately needed to implement national security objectives as designated by the national command authority through the Commission, and
</P>
<P>(2) No action consistent with license conditions and technical specifications that can meet national security objectives is immediately apparent.
</P>
<FP>A national security emergency is established by a law enacted by the Congress or by an order or directive issued by the President pursuant to statutes or the Constitution of the United States. The authority under this paragraph must be exercised in accordance with law, including section 57e of the Act, and is in addition to the authority granted under paragraph (x) of this section, which remains in effect unless otherwise directed by the Commission during a national security emergency.
</FP>
<P>(ee)(1) Each license issued under this part authorizing the possession of byproduct and special nuclear material produced in the operation of the licensed reactor includes, whether stated in the license or not, the authorization to receive back that same material, in the same or altered form or combined with byproduct or special nuclear material produced in the operation of another reactor of the same licensee located at that site, from a licensee of the Commission or an Agreement State, or from a non-licensed entity authorized to possess the material.
</P>
<P>(2) The authorizations in this subsection are subject to the same limitations and requirements applicable to the original possession of the material.
</P>
<P>(3) This paragraph does not authorize the receipt of any material recovered from the reprocessing of irradiated fuel.
</P>
<P>(ff) For licensees of nuclear power plants that have implemented the earthquake engineering criteria in appendix S to this part, plant shutdown is required as provided in paragraph IV(a)(3) of appendix S to this part. Prior to resuming operations, the licensee shall demonstrate to the Commission that no functional damage has occurred to those features necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public and the licensing basis is maintained.




</P>
<P>(gg)(1) Notwithstanding § 52.103 or § 53.1452 of this chapter, if following the conduct of the exercise required by paragraph IV.f.2.a of appendix E to this part or § 50.160(c)(2), as applicable, FEMA identifies one or more deficiencies in the state of offsite emergency preparedness, the holder of a combined license under part 52 or 53 of this chapter, as applicable, may operate at up to 5 percent of rated thermal power only if the Commission finds that the state of onsite emergency preparedness provides reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency. The NRC will base this finding on its assessment of the applicant's onsite emergency plans against the pertinent standards in either § 50.47 and appendix E to this part, or § 50.160, as applicable. Review of the applicant's emergency plans will include the following standards with offsite aspects:








</P>
<P>(i) Arrangements for requesting and effectively using offsite assistance onsite have been made, arrangements to accommodate State and local staff at the licensee's Emergency Operations Facility have been made, and other organizations capable of augmenting the planned onsite response have been identified.
</P>
<P>(ii) Procedures have been established for licensee communications with State and local response organizations, including initial notification of the declaration of emergency and periodic provision of plant and response status reports.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provisions exist for prompt communications among principal response organizations to offsite emergency personnel who would be responding onsite.
</P>
<P>(iv) Adequate emergency facilities and equipment to support the emergency response onsite are provided and maintained.
</P>
<P>(v) Adequate methods, systems, and equipment for assessing and monitoring actual or potential offsite consequences of a radiological emergency condition are in use onsite.
</P>
<P>(vi) Arrangements are made for medical services for contaminated and injured onsite individuals.
</P>
<P>(vii) Radiological emergency response training has been made available to those offsite who may be called to assist in an emergency onsite.
</P>
<P>(2) The condition in this paragraph, regarding operation at up to 5 percent power, ceases to apply 30 days after FEMA informs the NRC that the offsite deficiencies have been corrected, unless the NRC notifies the combined license holder before the expiration of the 30-day period that the Commission finds under paragraphs (s)(2) and (3) of this section that the state of emergency preparedness does not provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency.






</P>
<P>(hh) (1) Each licensee shall develop, implement and maintain procedures that describe how the licensee will address the following areas if the licensee is notified of a potential aircraft threat:
</P>
<P>(i) Verification of the authenticity of threat notifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintenance of continuous communication with threat notification sources;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contacting all onsite personnel and applicable offsite response organizations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Onsite actions necessary to enhance the capability of the facility to mitigate the consequences of an aircraft impact;
</P>
<P>(v) Measures to reduce visual discrimination of the site relative to its surroundings or individual buildings within the protected area;
</P>
<P>(vi) Dispersal of equipment and personnel, as well as rapid entry into site protected areas for essential onsite personnel and offsite responders who are necessary to mitigate the event; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Recall of site personnel.


















</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (hh)(1) of this section does not apply to a licensee that has submitted the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) or § 52.110(a) of this chapter.






</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(jj) Structures, systems, and components subject to the codes and standards in 10 CFR 50.55a must be designed, fabricated, erected, constructed, tested, and inspected to quality standards commensurate with the importance of the safety function to be performed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 50.54, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.55" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.55   Conditions of construction permits, early site permits, combined licenses, and manufacturing licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Each construction permit for a utilization facility is subject to the following terms and conditions and the applicable requirements of § 50.55a; each construction permit for a production facility is subject to the following terms and conditions with the exception of paragraph (i); each early site permit is subject to the terms and conditions in paragraph (f) of this section; each manufacturing license is subject to the terms and conditions in paragraphs (e), (f), and (i) of this section and the applicable requirements of § 50.55a; and each combined license is subject to the terms and conditions in paragraphs (e), (f), and (i) of this section and the applicable requirements of § 50.55a until the date that the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(a) The construction permit shall state the earliest and latest dates for completion of the construction or modification.
</P>
<P>(b) If the proposed construction or modification of the facility is not completed by the latest completion date, the construction permit shall expire and all rights are forfeited. However, upon good cause shown, the Commission will extend the completion date for a reasonable period of time. The Commission will recognize, among other things, developmental problems attributable to the experimental nature of the facility or fire, flood, explosion, strike, sabotage, domestic violence, enemy action, an act of the elements, and other acts beyond the control of the permit holder, as a basis for extending the completion date.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as modified by this section and § 50.55a, the construction permit shall be subject to the same conditions to which a license is subject.
</P>
<P>(d) At or about the time of completion of the construction or modification of the facility, the applicant will file any additional information needed to bring the original application for license up to date, and will file an application for an operating license or an amendment to an application for a license to construct and operate the facility for the issuance of an operating license, as appropriate, as specified in § 50.30(d) of this part.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, the definitions in § 21.3 of this chapter apply.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Posting requirements.</I> (i) Each individual, partnership, corporation, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this part (<I>i.e.,</I> holders of a construction permit, combined license, or a manufacturing license) must post current copies of the regulations in this part, Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (ERA), and procedures adopted under the regulations in this part. These documents must be posted in a conspicuous position on any premises within the United States where the activities subject to this part are conducted.


</P>
<P>(ii) If posting of the regulations in this part or the procedures adopted under the regulations in this part is not practicable, the licensee or firm subject to the regulations in this part may, in addition to posting Section 206 of the ERA, post a notice which describes the regulations/procedures, including the name of the individual to whom reports may be made, and states where the regulation, procedures, and reports may be examined.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures.</I> Each individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity holding a facility construction permit subject to this part, combined license (until the Commission makes the finding under 10 CFR 52.103(g)), and manufacturing license under 10 CFR part 52 must adopt appropriate procedures to—
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate deviations and failures to comply to identify defects and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards as soon as practicable, and, except as provided in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, in all cases within 60 days of discovery, to identify a reportable defect or failure to comply that could create a substantial safety hazard, were it to remain uncorrected.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that if an evaluation of an identified deviation or failure to comply potentially associated with a substantial safety hazard cannot be completed within 60 days from discovery of the deviation or failure to comply, an interim report is prepared and submitted to the Commission through a director or responsible officer or designated person as discussed in paragraph (e)(4)(v) of this section. The interim report should describe the deviation or failure to comply that is being evaluated and should also state when the evaluation will be completed. This interim report must be submitted in writing within 60 days of discovery of the deviation or failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that a director or responsible officer of the holder of a facility construction permit subject to this part, combined license (until the Commission makes the finding under 10 CFR 52.103(g)), and manufacturing license under 10 CFR part 52 is informed as soon as practicable, and, in all cases, within the 5 working days after completion of the evaluation described in paragraph (e)(3)(i) or (e)(3)(ii) of this section, if the construction or manufacture of a facility or activity or manufactured reactor, or a basic component supplied for such facility or activity—


</P>
<P>(A) Fails to comply with the AEA, as amended, or any applicable regulation, order, or license of the Commission, relating to a substantial safety hazard;
</P>
<P>(B) Contains a defect; or
</P>
<P>(C) Undergoes any significant breakdown in any portion of the quality assurance program conducted under the requirements of appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 which could have produced a defect in a basic component. These breakdowns in the quality assurance program are reportable whether or not the breakdown actually resulted in a defect in a design approved and released for construction, installation, or manufacture.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notification.</I> (i) The holder of a facility construction permit subject to this part, combined license (until the Commission makes the finding under 10 CFR 52.103(g)), and manufacturing license who obtains information reasonably indicating that the facility fails to comply with the AEA, as amended, or any applicable regulation, order, or license of the Commission relating to a substantial safety hazard must notify the Commission of the failure to comply through a director or responsible officer or designated person as discussed in paragraph (e)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of a facility construction permit subject to this part, combined license, or manufacturing license, who obtains information reasonably indicating the existence of any defect found in the construction or manufacture, or any defect found in the final design of a facility or manufactured reactor as approved and released for construction or manufacture, must notify the Commission of the defect through a director or responsible officer or designated person as discussed in paragraph (e)(4)(v) of this section.


</P>
<P>(iii) The holder of a facility construction permit subject to this part, combined license, or manufacturing license, who obtains information reasonably indicating that the quality assurance program has undergone any significant breakdown discussed in paragraph (e)(3)(iii)(C) of this section must notify the Commission of the breakdown in the quality assurance program through a director or responsible officer or designated person as discussed in paragraph (e)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) A dedicating entity is responsible for identifying and evaluating deviations and reporting defects and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards for dedicated items; and maintaining auditable records for the dedication process.
</P>
<P>(v) The notification requirements of this paragraph apply to all defects and failures to comply associated with a substantial safety hazard regardless of whether extensive evaluation, redesign, or repair is required to conform to the criteria and bases stated in the safety analysis report, construction permit, combined license, or manufacturing license. Evaluation of potential defects and failures to comply and reporting of defects and failures to comply under this section satisfies the construction permit holder's, combined license holder's, and manufacturing license holder's evaluation and notification obligations under part 21 of this chapter, and satisfies the responsibility of individual directors or responsible officers of holders of construction permits issued under § 50.23, holders of combined licenses (until the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103 of this chapter), and holders of manufacturing licenses to report defects, and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards under Section 206 of the ERA. The director or responsible officer may authorize an individual to provide the notification required by this section, provided that this must not relieve the director or responsible officer of his or her responsibility under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notification—timing and where sent.</I> The notification required by paragraph (e)(4) of this section must consist of—


</P>
<P>(i) Initial notification by email, which is the preferred method of notification, or facsimile to the NRC Operations Center at (301) 816-5151 or by telephone at (301) 816-5100 within 2 days following receipt of information by the director or responsible corporate officer under paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section, on the identification of a defect or a failure to comply. Verification that the email or facsimile has been received should be made by calling the NRC Operations Center. This paragraph does not apply to interim reports described in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(ii) Written notification submitted to the Document Control Desk, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, by an appropriate method listed in § 50.4, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Administrator at the address specified in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter and a copy to the appropriate NRC resident inspector within 30 days following receipt of information by the director or responsible corporate officer under paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section, on the identification of a defect or failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Content of notification.</I> The written notification required by paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section must clearly indicate that the written notification is being submitted under § 50.55(e) and include the following information, to the extent known.
</P>
<P>(i) Name and address of the individual or individuals informing the Commission.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the facility, the activity, or the basic component supplied for the facility or the activity within the United States which contains a defect or fails to comply.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of the firm constructing or manufacturing the facility or supplying the basic component which fails to comply or contains a defect.
</P>
<P>(iv) Nature of the defect or failure to comply and the safety hazard which is created or could be created by the defect or failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(v) The date on which the information of a defect or failure to comply was obtained.
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of a basic component which contains a defect or fails to comply, the number and location of all the basic components in use at the facility subject to the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(vii) In the case of a completed reactor manufactured under part 52 of this chapter, the entities to which the reactor was supplied.
</P>
<P>(viii) The corrective action which has been, is being, or will be taken; the name of the individual or organization responsible for the action; and the length of time that has been or will be taken to complete the action.
</P>
<P>(ix) Any advice related to the defect or failure to comply about the facility, activity, or basic component that has been, is being, or will be given to other entities.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Procurement documents.</I> Each individual, corporation, partnership, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this part shall ensure that each procurement document for a facility, or a basic component specifies or is issued by the entity subject to the regulations, when applicable, that the provisions of 10 CFR part 21 or 10 CFR 50.55(e) applies, as applicable.


</P>
<P>(8) <I>Coordination with 10 CFR part 21.</I> The requirements of § 50.55(e) are satisfied when the defect or failure to comply associated with a substantial safety hazard has been previously reported under part 21 of this chapter, under § 73.1205  of this chapter, or under §§ 50.55(e) or 50.73. For holders of construction permits issued before October 29, 1991, evaluation, reporting and recordkeeping requirements of § 50.55(e) may be met by complying with the comparable requirements of part 21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Records retention.</I> The holder of a construction permit, combined license, and manufacturing license must prepare and maintain records necessary to accomplish the purposes of this section, specifically—
</P>
<P>(i) Retain procurement documents, which define the requirements that facilities or basic components must meet in order to be considered acceptable, for the lifetime of the facility or basic component.
</P>
<P>(ii) Retain records of evaluations of all deviations and failures to comply under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section for the longest of:
</P>
<P>(A) Ten (10) years from the date of the evaluation;
</P>
<P>(B) Five (5) years from the date that an early site permit is referenced in an application for a combined license; or
</P>
<P>(C) Five (5) years from the date of delivery of a manufactured reactor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Retain records of all interim reports to the Commission made under paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, or notifications to the Commission made under paragraph (e)(4) of this section for the minimum time periods stated in paragraph (e)(9)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Suppliers of basic components must retain records of:
</P>
<P>(A) All notifications sent to affected licensees or purchasers under paragraph (e)(4)(iv) of this section for a minimum of ten (10) years following the date of the notification;
</P>
<P>(B) The facilities or other purchasers to whom basic components or associated services were supplied for a minimum of fifteen (15) years from the delivery of the basic component or associated services.
</P>
<P>(v) Maintaining records in accordance with this section satisfies the recordkeeping obligations under part 21 of this chapter of the entities, including directors or responsible officers thereof, subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Each nuclear power plant or fuel reprocessing plant construction permit holder subject to the quality assurance criteria in appendix B of this part shall implement, pursuant to § 50.34(a)(7) of this part, the quality assurance program described or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report, including changes to that report.
</P>
<P>(2) Each construction permit holder described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall, by June 10, 1983, submit to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter the current description of the quality assurance program it is implementing for inclusion in the Safety Analysis Report, unless there are no changes to the description previously accepted by NRC. This submittal must identify changes made to the quality assurance program description since the description was submitted to NRC. (Should a permit holder need additional time beyond June 10, 1983 to submit its current quality assurance program description to NRC, it shall notify the appropriate NRC Regional Office in writing, explain why additional time is needed, and provide a schedule for NRC approval showing when its current quality assurance program description will be submitted.)
</P>
<P>(3) After March 11, 1983, each construction permit holder described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section may make a change to a previously accepted quality assurance program description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report, provided the change does not reduce the commitments in the program description previously accepted by the NRC. Changes to the quality assurance program description that do not reduce the commitments must be submitted to NRC within 90 days. Changes to the quality assurance program description that do reduce the commitments must be submitted to NRC and receive NRC approval before implementation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes to the Safety Analysis Report must be submitted for review as specified in § 50.4. Changes made to NRC-accepted quality assurance topical report descriptions must be submitted as specified in § 50.4.
</P>
<P>(ii) The submittal of a change to the Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description must include all pages affected by that change and must be accompanied by a forwarding letter identifying the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the revised program incorporating the change continues to satisfy the criteria of appendix B of this part and the Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description commitments previously accepted by the NRC (the letter need not provide the basis for changes that correct spelling, punctuation, or editorial items).
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the forwarding letter identifying the changes must be maintained as a facility record for three years.
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes to the quality assurance program description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report shall be regarded as accepted by the Commission upon receipt of a letter to this effect from the appropriate reviewing office of the Commission or 60 days after submittal to the Commission, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(4) Each holder of an early site permit or a manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter shall implement the quality assurance program described or referenced in the safety analysis report, including changes to that report. Each holder of a combined license shall implement the quality assurance program for design and construction described or referenced in the safety analysis report, including changes to that report, provided, however, that the holder of a combined license is not subject to the terms and conditions in this paragraph after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) Each holder described in paragraph (f)(4) of this section may make a change to a previously accepted quality assurance program description included or referenced in the safety analysis report, if the change does not reduce the commitments in the program description previously accepted by the NRC. Changes to the quality assurance program description that do not reduce the commitments must be submitted to NRC within 90 days. Changes to the quality assurance program description that reduce the commitments must be submitted to NRC and receive NRC approval before implementation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Changes to the safety analysis report must be submitted for review as specified in § 50.4. Changes made to NRC-accepted quality assurance topical report descriptions must be submitted as specified in § 50.4.
</P>
<P>(B) The submittal of a change to the safety analysis report quality assurance program description must include all pages affected by that change and must be accompanied by a forwarding letter identifying the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the revised program incorporating the change continues to satisfy the criteria of appendix B of this part and the safety analysis report quality assurance program description commitments previously accepted by the NRC (the letter need not provide the basis for changes that correct spelling, punctuation, or editorial items).
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the forwarding letter identifying the changes must be maintained as a facility record for three (3) years.
</P>
<P>(D) Changes to the quality assurance program description included or referenced in the safety analysis report shall be regarded as accepted by the Commission upon receipt of a letter to this effect from the appropriate reviewing office of the Commission or 60 days after submittal to the Commission, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g)-(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) Structures, systems, and components subject to the codes and standards in 10 CFR 50.55a must be designed, fabricated, erected, constructed, tested, and inspected to quality standards commensurate with the importance of the safety function to be performed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 32 FR 4055, Mar. 15, 1967; 35 FR 11461, July 17, 1970; 35 FR 19661, Dec. 29, 1970; 36 FR 11424, June 12, 1971; 37 FR 6460, Mar. 30, 1972; 38 FR 1272, Jan. 11, 1973; 41 FR 16446, Apr. 19, 1976; 42 FR 43385, Aug. 29, 1977; 48 FR 1029, Jan. 10, 1983; 51 FR 40309, Nov. 6, 1986; 56 FR 36091, July 31, 1991; 59 FR 14087, Mar. 25, 1994; 68 FR 58809, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 49497, Aug. 28, 2007; 78 FR 34248, June 7, 2013; 79 FR 65798, Nov. 5, 2014; 88 FR 15880, Mar. 14, 2023; 89 FR 57719, July 16, 2024]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.55a" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.55a   Codes and standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Documents approved for incorporation by reference.</I> The material listed in this paragraph (a) is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact the NRC at NRC Technical Library, Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852; telephone: 301-415-7000; email: <I>Library.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the following sources in this paragraph (a).


</P>
<P>(1) <I>American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME),</I> Three Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016; telephone: 1-800-843-2763; <I>https://www.asme.org/Codes/.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section III.</I> The editions and addenda for Section III of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code (excluding Nonmandatory Appendices)  are listed in this paragraph (a)(1)(i), but limited by those provisions identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) “Rules for Construction of Nuclear Vessels:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1963 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Summer 1964 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Winter 1964 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 1965 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) 1965 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) 1965 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) 1966 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) 1966 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) 1967 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) 1967 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) 1968 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) 1968 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>)1968 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) 1969 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>15</I>) 1969 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>16</I>) 1970 Summer Addenda, and
</P>
<P>(<I>17</I>) 1970 Winter Addenda.
</P>
<P>(B) “Rules for Construction of Nuclear Power Plant Components:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1971 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 1971 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 1971 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 1972 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) 1972 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) 1973 Summer Addenda, and
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) 1973 Winter Addenda.
</P>
<P>(C) “Division 1 Rules for Construction of Nuclear Power Plant Components:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1974 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 1974 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 1974 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 1975 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) 1975 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) 1976 Summer Addenda, and
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) 1976 Winter Addenda;
</P>
<P>(D) “Rules for Construction of Nuclear Power Plant Components—Division 1”;
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1977 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 1977 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 1977 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 1978 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) 1978 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) 1979 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) 1979 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) 1980 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) 1980 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) 1980 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) 1981 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) 1981 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) 1982 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) 1982 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>15</I>) 1983 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>16</I>) 1983 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>17</I>) 1983 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>18</I>) 1984 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>19</I>) 1984 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>20</I>) 1985 Summer Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>21</I>) 1985 Winter Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>22</I>) 1986 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>23</I>) 1986 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>24</I>) 1987 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>25</I>) 1988 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>26</I>) 1989 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>27</I>) 1989 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>28</I>) 1990 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>29</I>) 1991 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>30</I>) 1992 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>31</I>) 1992 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>32</I>) 1993 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>33</I>) 1994 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>34</I>) 1995 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>35</I>) 1995 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>36</I>) 1996 Addenda, and
</P>
<P>(<I>37</I>) 1997 Addenda.
</P>
<P>(E) “Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components—Division 1:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1998 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 1998 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 1999 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 2000 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) 2001 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) 2001 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) 2002 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) 2003 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) 2004 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) 2005 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) 2006 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) 2007 Edition,
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) 2008 Addenda,
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) 2009b Addenda (including Subsection NCA; and Division 1 subsections NB through NH and Appendices),
</P>
<P>(<I>15</I>) 2010 Edition (including Subsection NCA; and Division 1 subsections NB through NH and Appendices),
</P>
<P>(<I>16</I>) 2011a Addenda (including Subsection NCA; and Division 1 subsections NB through NH and Appendices), 
</P>
<P>(<I>17</I>) 2013 Edition (including Subsection NCA; and Division 1 subsections NB through NH and Appendices), 
</P>
<P>(<I>18</I>) 2015 Edition (including Subsection NCA; and Division 1 subsections NB through NH and Appendices);
</P>
<P>(<I>19</I>) 2017 Edition (including Subsection NCA; and Division 1 subsections NB through NG and Appendices); 


</P>
<P>(<I>20</I>) 2019 Edition (including Subsection NCA; and Division 1 subsections NB through NG and Appendices); and
</P>
<P>(<I>21</I>) 2021 Edition (including Subsection NCA; and Division 1 subsections NB through NG and Appendices).







 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section XI.</I> The editions and addenda for Section XI of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code are listed in this paragraph (a)(1)(ii), but limited by those provisions identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(B) “Rules for Inservice Inspection of Nuclear Power Plant Components:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1974 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 1974 Summer Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 1974 Winter Addenda; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 1975 Summer Addenda.
</P>
<P>(C) “Rules for Inservice Inspection of Nuclear Power Plant Components—Division 1:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>)-(<I>32</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>33</I>) 1995 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>34</I>) 1995 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>35</I>) 1996 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>36</I>) 1997 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>37</I>)-(<I>40</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>41</I>) 2001 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>42</I>) 2001 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>43</I>) 2002 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>44</I>) 2003 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>45</I>) 2004 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>46</I>) 2005 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>47</I>) 2006 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>48</I>) 2007 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>49</I>) 2008 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>50</I>) 2009b Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>51</I>) 2010 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>52</I>) 2011a Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>53</I>) 2013 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>54</I>) 2015 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>55</I>) 2017 Edition; 
</P>
<P>(<I>56</I>) 2019 Edition; and
</P>
<P>(<I>57</I>) 2021 Edition.






</P>
<P>(iii) <I>ASME Code Cases: Nuclear Components</I>—(A) <I>ASME BPV Code Case N-513-3 Mandatory Appendix I.</I> ASME BPV Code Case N-513-3, “Evaluation Criteria for Temporary Acceptance of Flaws in Moderate Energy Class 2 or 3 Piping Section XI, Division 1,” Mandatory Appendix I, “Relations for <I>F</I><E T="54">m</E><I>, F</I><E T="54">b</E><I>,</I> and <I>F</I> for Through-Wall Flaws” (Approval Date: January 26, 2009). ASME BPV Code Case N-513-3 Mandatory Appendix I is referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(xxxiv)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>ASME BPV Code Case N-722-1.</I> ASME BPV Code Case N-722-1, “Additional Examinations for PWR Pressure Retaining Welds in Class 1 Components Fabricated with Alloy 600/82/182 Materials, Section XI, Division 1” (Approval Date: January 26, 2009), with the conditions in paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>ASME BPV Code Case N-729-6.</I> ASME BPV Code Case N-729-6, “Alternative Examination Requirements for PWR Reactor Vessel Upper Heads With Nozzles Having Pressure-Retaining Partial-Penetration Welds Section XI, Division 1” (Approval Date: March 3, 2016), with the conditions in paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>ASME BPV Code Case N-770-7.</I> ASME BPV Code Case <I>N-770-7,</I> “Alternative Examination Requirements and Acceptance Standards for Class 1 PWR Piping and Vessel Nozzle Butt Welds Fabricated with UNS N06082 or UNS W86182 Weld Filler Material With or Without Application of Listed Mitigation Activities Section XI, Division 1” (Approval Date: December 4, 2020), with the conditions in paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(F) of this section.






</P>
<P>(E) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(F) <I>ASME BPV Code Case N-852.</I> ASME BPV Code Case N-852, “Application of the ASME NPT Stamp, Section III, Division 1; Section III, Division 2; Section III, Division 3; Section III, Division 5” (Approval Date: February 9, 2015). ASME BPV Code Case N-852 is referenced in paragraph (b)(1)(ix) of this section.
</P>
<P>(G) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(H) <I>ASME OM Code Case OMN-28.</I> ASME OM Case OMN-28, “Alternative Valve Position Verification Approach to Satisfy ISTC-3700 for Valves Not Susceptible to Stem-Disk Separation.” Issued March 4, 2021. OMN-28 is referenced in paragraph (b)(3)(xi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>ASME Operation and Maintenance Code.</I> The editions and addenda for the ASME Operation and Maintenance of Nuclear Power Plants are listed in this paragraph (a)(1)(iv), but limited by those provisions identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) “Code for Operation and Maintenance of Nuclear Power Plants:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1995 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 1996 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 1997 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 1998 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) 1999 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) 2000 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) 2001 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) 2002 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) 2003 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) 2004 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) 2005 Addenda; and
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) 2006 Addenda.
</P>
<P>(B) “Operation and Maintenance of Nuclear Power Plants, Division 1: Section IST Rules for Inservice Testing of Light-Water Reactor Power Plants:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 2009 Edition.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(C) Operation and Maintenance of Nuclear Power Plants, “Division 1: OM Code: Section IST”:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 2012 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 2017 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 2020 Edition; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 2022 Edition.


</P>
<P>(v) <I>ASME Quality Assurance Requirements.</I> (A) ASME NQA-1, “Quality Assurance Program Requirements for Nuclear Facilities:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) NQA-1—1983 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) NQA-1a—1983 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) NQA-1b—1984 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) NQA-1c—1985 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) NQA-1—1986 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) NQA-1a—1986 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) NQA-1b—1987 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) NQA-1c—1988 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) NQA-1—1989 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) NQA-1a—1989 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) NQA-1b—1991 Addenda; and
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) NQA-1c—1992 Addenda.
</P>
<P>(B) ASME NQA-1, “Quality Assurance Requirements for Nuclear Facility Applications:”
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) NQA-1—1994 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) NQA-1—2008 Edition;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) NQA-1a—2009;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) NQA-1b—2011 Addenda;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) NQA-1—2012; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) NQA-1—2015.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) Service Center,</I> 445 Hoes Lane, Piscataway, NJ 08855; telephone: 1-800-678-4333; <I>http://ieeexplore.ieee.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>IEEE standard 279-1968.</I> (IEEE Std 279-1968), “Proposed IEEE Criteria for Nuclear Power Plant Protection Systems” (Approval Date: August 30, 1968), referenced in paragraph (h)(2) of this section. (Copies of this document may be purchased from IHS Global, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112; <I>https://global.ihs.com.</I>)
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>IEEE standard 279-1971.</I> (IEEE Std 279-1971), “Criteria for Protection Systems for Nuclear Power Generating Stations” (Approval Date: June 3, 1971), referenced in paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>IEEE standard 603-1991.</I> (IEEE Std 603-1991), “Standard Criteria for Safety Systems for Nuclear Power Generating Stations” (Approval Date: June 27, 1991), referenced in paragraphs (h)(2) and (h)(3) of this section. All other standards that are referenced in IEEE Std 603-1991 are not approved for incorporation by reference.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>IEEE standard 603-1991, correction sheet.</I> (IEEE Std 603-1991 correction sheet), “Standard Criteria for Safety Systems for Nuclear Power Generating Stations, Correction Sheet, Issued January 30, 1995,” referenced in paragraphs (h)(2) and (h)(3) of this section. (This correction sheet is available from IEEE at <I>http://standards.ieee.org/findstds/errata/</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC): Public Document Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852; telephone: 1-800-397-4209; email: <I>pdr.resource@nrc.gov; https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/reg-guides/.</I> The use of code cases listed in the NRC regulatory guides in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iv) of this section is acceptable with the specified conditions in those guides when implementing the editions and addenda of the ASME BPV Code and ASME OM Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The NRC report in paragraph (a)(3)(v) of this section is acceptable as specified in the conditions when implementing code cases listed in the NRC regulatory guides in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>NRC Regulatory Guide 1.84, Revision 40.</I> NRC Regulatory Guide 1.84, Revision 40, “Design, Fabrication, and Materials Code Case Acceptability, ASME Section III,” issued March 2024, with the requirements in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>NRC Regulatory Guide 1.147, Revision 21.</I> NRC Regulatory Guide 1.147, Revision 21, “Inservice Inspection Code Case Acceptability, ASME Section XI, Division 1,” issued March 2024, which lists ASME Code Cases that the NRC has approved in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>NRC Regulatory Guide 1.192, Revision 5.</I> NRC Regulatory Guide 1.192, Revision 5, “Operation and Maintenance Code Case Acceptability, ASME OM Code,” issued March 2024, which lists ASME Code Cases that the NRC has approved in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>NRC Regulatory Guide 1.262, Revision 0.</I> NRC Regulatory Guide 1.262, Revision 0, “ASME Code Cases Approved for Use Without Conditions,” issued July 2025, which lists ASME Code Cases that the NRC has approved in accordance with the requirements in paragraphs (b)(4), (5), and (6) of this section.


</P>
<P>(v) <I>NUREG-2228.</I> NUREG-2228, “Weld Residual Stress Finite Element Analysis Validation: Part II—Proposed Validation Procedure,” published July 2020 (including Errata September 22, 2021), which is referenced in RG 1.147, Revision 21.












</P>
<P>(4) Electric Power Research Institute, Materials Reliability Program, 3420 Hillview Avenue, Palo Alto, CA 94304-1338; telephone: 1-650-855-2000; <I>http://www.epri.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) “Materials Reliability Program: Topical Report for Primary Water Stress Corrosion Cracking Mitigation by Surface Stress Improvement (MRP-335, Revision 3-A)”, EPRI approval date: November 2016.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use and conditions on the use of standards.</I> Systems and components of boiling and pressurized water-cooled nuclear power reactors must meet the requirements of the ASME BPV Code and the ASME OM Code as specified in this paragraph (b). Each combined license for a utilization facility is subject to the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conditions on ASME BPV Code Section III.</I> Each manufacturing license, standard design approval, and design certification under 10 CFR part 52 is subject to the following conditions. As used in this section, references to Section III refer to Section III of the ASME BPV Code and include the 1963 Edition through 1973 Winter Addenda and the 1974 Edition (Division 1) through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Section III condition: Section III materials.</I> When applying the 1992 Edition of Section III, applicants or licensees must apply the 1992 Edition with the 1992 Addenda of Section II of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Section III condition: Weld leg dimensions.</I> When applying the 1989 Addenda through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, applicants and licensees may not apply the Section III provisions identified in table 1 to this paragraph (b)(1)(ii) for welds with leg size less than 1.09 t<E T="52">n</E>:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(b)(1)(ii)</E>—Prohibited Code Provisions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Editions and addenda
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Code provision
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1989 Addenda through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Subparagraph NB-3683.4(c)(1); Subparagraph NB-3683.4(c)(2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1989 Addenda through 2003 Addenda</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Footnote 11 to Figure NC-3673.2(b)-1; Note 11 to Figure ND-3673.2(b)-1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2004 Edition through 2010 Edition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Footnote 13 to Figure NC-3673.2(b)-1; Note 13 to Figure ND-3673.2(b)-1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2011 Addenda through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Footnote 11 to Table NC-3673.2(b)-1; Note 11 to Table ND-3673.2(b)-1.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Section III condition: Seismic design of piping.</I> Applicants or licensees may use Subarticles NB-3200, NB-3600, NC-3600, and ND-3600 for seismic design of piping, up to and including the 1993 Addenda, subject to the condition specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Applicants or licensees may not use these subarticles for seismic design of piping in the 1994 Addenda through the 2005 Addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, except that Subarticle NB-3200 in the 2004 Edition through the 2017 Edition may be used by applicants and licensees, subject to the condition in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section. Applicants or licensees may use Subarticles NB-3600, NC-3600, and ND-3600 for the seismic design of piping in the 2006 Addenda through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, subject to the conditions of this paragraph (b)(1)(iii) corresponding to those subarticles.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Seismic design of piping: First provision.</I> When applying Note (1) of Figure NB-3222-1 for Level B service limits, the calculation of Pb stresses must include reversing dynamic loads (including inertia earthquake effects) if evaluation of these loads is required by NB-3223(b).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Seismic design of piping: Second provision.</I> For Class 1 piping, the material and Do/t requirements of NB-3656(b) must be met for all Service Limits when the Service Limits include reversing dynamic loads, and the alternative rules for reversing dynamic loads are used.


</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Section III condition: Quality Assurance.</I> When applying editions and addenda later than the 1989 Edition of Section III, an applicant or licensee may use the requirements of NQA-1, “Quality Assurance Requirements for Nuclear Facility Applications,” that is both incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section and specified in either NCA-4000 or NCA-7000 of that Edition and Addenda of Section III, with the exceptions in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section, provided that the administrative, quality, and technical provisions contained in that Edition and Addenda of Section III are used in conjunction with the applicant's or licensee's appendix B to this part quality assurance program; and that the applicant's or licensee's Section III activities comply with those commitments contained in the applicant's or licensee's quality assurance program description. Where NQA-1 and Section III do not address the commitments contained in the applicant's or licensee's appendix B quality assurance program description, those licensee commitments must be applied to Section III activities.
</P>
<P>(A) Subpart 2.19 in NQA-1-2017, NQA-1-2019, and NQA-1-2022 is not approved for use.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]




</P>
<P>(v) <I>Section III condition: Independence of inspection.</I> Applicants or licensees may not apply the exception in NCA-4134.10(a) of Section III, 1995 Edition through 2009b Addenda of the 2007 Edition, from paragraph 3.1 of Supplement 10S-1 of NQA-1-1994 Edition.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Section III condition: Subsection NH.</I> The provisions in Subsection NH, “Class 1 Components in Elevated Temperature Service,” 1995 Addenda through all editions and addenda up to and including the 2013 Edition incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, may only be used for the design and construction of Type 316 stainless steel pressurizer heater sheaths where service conditions do not cause the components to reach temperatures exceeding 900  °F. This condition is not applicable to the 2015 Edition and later editions.








</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Section III condition: Capacity certification and demonstration of function of incompressible-fluid pressure-relief valves.</I> When applying the 2006 Addenda through all editions and addenda up to and including the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, applicants and licensees may use paragraph NB-7742, except that paragraph NB-7742(a)(2) may not be used. For a valve design of a single size to be certified over a range of set pressures, the demonstration of function tests under paragraph NB-7742 must be conducted as prescribed in NB-7732.2 on two valves covering the minimum set pressure for the design and the maximum set pressure that can be accommodated at the demonstration facility selected for the test.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Section III condition: Use of ASME certification marks.</I> When applying editions and addenda earlier than the 2011 Addenda to the 2010 Edition, licensees may use either the ASME BPV Code Symbol Stamps or the ASME Certification Marks with the appropriate certification designators and class designators as specified in the 2013 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Section III Condition: NPT Code Symbol Stamps.</I> Licensees may use the NPT Code Symbol Stamp with the letters arranged horizontally as specified in ASME BPV Code Case N-852 for the service life of a component that had the NPT Code Symbol Stamp applied during the time period from January 1, 2005, through December 31, 2015.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Section III Condition: Visual examination of bolts, studs and nuts.</I> Applicants or licensees applying the provisions of NB-2582, NC-2582, ND-2582, NE-2582, NF-2582, NG-2582 in the 2017 Edition of Section III through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, must apply paragraphs (b)(1)(x)(A) and (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Visual examination of bolts, studs, and nuts: First provision.</I> When applying the provisions of NB-2582, NC-2582, ND-2582, NE-2582, NF-2582, NG-2582 in the 2017 Edition of Section III through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the visual examinations are required to be performed in accordance with procedures qualified to NB-5100, NC-5100, ND-5100, NE-5100, NF-5100, NG-5100 and performed by personnel qualified in accordance with NB-5500, NC-5500, ND-5500, NE-5500, NF-5500, and NG-5500.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Visual examination of bolts, studs, and nuts: Second provision.</I> When applying the provisions of NB-2582, NC-2582, ND-2582, NE-2582, NF-2582, and NG-2582 in the 2017 Edition of Section III through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, bolts, studs, and nuts must be visually examined for discontinuities including cracks, bursts, seams, folds, thread lap, voids, and tool marks.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Section III condition: Mandatory Appendix XXVI.</I> When applying the 2015 and 2017 Editions of Section III, Mandatory Appendix XXVI, “Rules for Construction of Class 3 Buried Polyethylene Pressure Piping,” applicants or licensees must meet the first provision in paragraph (b)(1)(xi)(A) of this section. When applying the 2015 through 2021 Editions of Section III, Mandatory Appendix XXVI, “Rules for Construction of Class 3 Buried Polyethylene Pressure Piping,” applicants or licensees must meet the second provision in paragraph (b)(1)(xi)(B) of this section. When applying the 2017 Edition of Section III, Mandatory Appendix XXVI, “Rules for Construction of Class 3 Buried Polyethylene Pressure Piping,” applicants or licensees must meet the third provision in paragraph (b)(1)(xi)(C) of this section.








</P>
<P>(A) <I>Mandatory Appendix XXVI: First provision.</I> When performing fusing procedure qualification testing in accordance with XXVI-2300 and XXVI-4330 the following essential variables must be used for the performance qualification tests of butt fusion joints:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Joint Type: A change in the type of joint from that qualified, except that a square butt joint qualifies as a mitered joint.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Pipe Surface Alignment: A change in the pipe outside diameter (O.D.) surface misalignment of more than 10 percent of the wall thickness of the thinner member to be fused.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) PE Material: Each lot of polyethylene source material to be used in production (XXVI-2310(c)).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Wall Thickness: Each thickness to be fused in production (XXVI-2310(c)).
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Diameter: Each diameter to be fused in production (XXVI-2310(c)).
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Cross-sectional Area: Each combination of thickness and diameter (XXVI-2310(c)).
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Position: Maximum machine carriage slope when greater than 20 degrees from horizontal (XXVI-4321(c)).
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Heater Surface Temperature: A change in the heater surface temperature to a value beyond the range tested (XXVI-2321).
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Ambient Temperature: A change in ambient temperature to less than 50  °F (10 °C) or greater than 125  °F (52 °C) (XXVI-4412(b)).
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Interfacial Pressure: A change in interfacial pressure to a value beyond the range tested (XXVI-2321).
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Decrease in Melt Bead Width: A decrease in melt bead size from that qualified.
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Increase in Heater Removal Time: An increase in heater plate removal time from that qualified.
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) Decrease in Cool-down Time: A decrease in the cooling time at pressure from that qualified.
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) Fusing Machine Carriage Model: A change in the fusing machine carriage model from that tested (XXVI-2310(d)).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Mandatory Appendix XXVI: Second provision.</I> When performing procedure qualification for high speed tensile impact testing of butt fusion joints in accordance with XXVI-2300 or XXVI-4330 of the 2015 through 2021 Editions of BPV Code Section III, breaks in the specimen that are away from the fusion zone require the test plot yield strength to be evaluated to confirm sound base material. If the base material failed (broke) at less than minimum required base material yield strength, a retest is required.












</P>
<P>(C) <I>Mandatory Appendix XXVI: Third provision.</I> When performing fusing procedure qualification tests in accordance with 2017 Edition of BPV Code Section III XXVI-2300 and XXVI-4330, the following essential variables must be used for the testing of electrofusion joints:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Joint Design: A change in the design of an electrofusion joint.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Fit-up Gap: An increase in the maximum radial fit-up gap qualified.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Pipe PE Material: A change in the PE designation or cell classification of the pipe from that tested (XXVI-2322(a)).
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Fitting PE Material: A change in the manufacturing facility or production lot from that tested (XXVI-2322(b)).
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Pipe Wall Thickness: Each thickness to be fused in production (XXVI-2310(c)).
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Fitting Manufacturer: A change in fitting manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Pipe Diameter: Each diameter to be fused in production (XXVI-2310(c)).
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Cool-down Time: A decrease in the cool time at pressure from that qualified.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Fusion Voltage: A change in fusion voltage.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Nominal Fusion Time: A change in the nominal fusion time.
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Material Temperature Range: A change in material fusing temperature beyond the range qualified.
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Power Supply: A change in the make or model of electrofusion control box (XXVI-2310(f)).
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) Power Cord: A change in power cord material, length, or diameter that reduces current at the coil to below the minimum qualified.
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) Processor: A change in the manufacturer or model number of the processor. (XXVI-2310(f)).
</P>
<P>(<I>15</I>) Saddle Clamp: A change in the type of saddle clamp.
</P>
<P>(<I>16</I>) Scraping Device: A change from a clean peeling scraping tool to any other type of tool.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Section III condition: Certifying Engineer.</I> When applying the 2017 and later editions of ASME BPV Code Section III, the NRC does not permit applicants and licensees to use a Certifying Engineer who is not a Registered Professional Engineer qualified in accordance with paragraph XXIII-1222 for Code-related activities that are applicable to U.S. nuclear facilities regulated by the NRC. The use of paragraph XXIII-1223 is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Section III condition: Preservice Inspection of Steam Generator Tubes.</I> Applicants or licensees applying the provisions of NB-5283 and NB-5360 in the 2019 Edition of Section III through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, must apply paragraphs (b)(1)(xiii)(A) and (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Preservice Inspection of Steam Generator Tubes: First provision.</I> When applying the provisions of NB-5283 in the 2019 Edition of Section III through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, a full-length preservice examination of 100 percent of the steam generator tubing in each newly installed steam generator must be performed prior to plant startup.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Preservice Inspection of Steam Generator Tubes: Second provision.</I> When applying the provisions of NB-5360 in the 2019 Edition of Section III through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, flaws revealed during preservice examination of steam generator tubing performed in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(xiii)(A) of this section must be evaluated using the criteria in the design specifications.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Section III condition: Repairs to Stamped Components.</I> Applicants or licensees applying the provisions of NCA-8151, NCA-8500 and Nonmandatory Appendix NN in the 2021 Edition of Section III, are required to meet all of the requirements in Nonmandatory Appendix NN.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions on ASME BPV Code, Section XI.</I> As used in this section, references to Section XI refer to Section XI, Division 1, in the editions and addenda of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, subject to the following conditions:


</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Section XI condition: Pressure-retaining welds in ASME Code Class 1 piping (applies to Table IWB-2500 and IWB-2500-1 and Category B-J).</I> If the facility's application for a construction permit was docketed prior to July 1, 1978, the extent of examination for Code Class 1 pipe welds may be determined by the requirements of Table IWB-2500 and Table IWB-2600 Category B-J of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code in the 1974 Edition and Addenda through the Summer 1975 Addenda or other requirements the NRC may adopt.
</P>
<P>(iii)-(vii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Section XI condition: Concrete containment examinations.</I> Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWL, 2001 Edition through the 2004 Edition, up to and including the 2006 Addenda, must apply paragraphs (b)(2)(viii)(E) through (G) of this section. Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWL, 2007 Edition up to and including the 2008 Addenda must apply paragraph (b)(2)(viii)(E) of this section. Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWL, 2007 Edition with the 2009 Addenda through the 2019 Edition, must apply paragraphs (b)(2)(viii)(H) and (I) of this section.






</P>
<P>(A)-(D) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Concrete containment examinations: Fifth provision.</I> For Class CC applications, the applicant or licensee must evaluate the acceptability of inaccessible areas when conditions exist in accessible areas that could indicate the presence of or the result in degradation to such inaccessible areas. For each inaccessible area identified, the applicant or licensee must provide the following in the ISI Summary Report required by IWA-6000:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A description of the type and estimated extent of degradation, and the conditions that led to the degradation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An evaluation of each area, and the result of the evaluation; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A description of necessary corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Concrete containment examinations: Sixth provision.</I> Personnel that examine containment concrete surfaces and tendon hardware, wires, or strands must meet the qualification provisions in IWA-2300. The “owner-defined” personnel qualification provisions in IWL-2310(d) are not approved for use.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Concrete containment examinations: Seventh provision.</I> Corrosion protection material must be restored following concrete containment post-tensioning system repair and replacement activities in accordance with the quality assurance program requirements specified in IWA-1400.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Concrete containment examinations: Eighth provision.</I> For each inaccessible area of concrete identified for evaluation under IWL-2512(a), or identified as susceptible to deterioration under IWL-2512(b), the licensee must provide the applicable information specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(viii)(E)(<I>1</I>), (<I>2</I>), and (<I>3</I>) of this section in the ISI Summary Report required by IWA-6000.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Concrete containment examinations: Ninth provision.</I> During the period of extended operation of a renewed license under part 54 of this chapter, the licensee must perform the technical evaluation under IWL-2512(b) of inaccessible below-grade concrete surfaces exposed to foundation soil, backfill, or groundwater at periodic intervals not to exceed 5 years. In addition, the licensee must examine representative samples of the exposed portions of the below-grade concrete, when such below-grade concrete is excavated for any reason.


</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Section XI condition: Metal containment examinations.</I> Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWE, 2001 Edition up to and including the 2003 Addenda, must satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(ix)(A) and (B), (F) through (I), and (K) of this section. Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWE, 2004 Edition, up to and including the 2005 Addenda, must satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(ix)(A) and (B), (F) through (H), and (K) of this section. Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWE, 2004 Edition with the 2006 Addenda, must satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>2</I>) and (b)(2)(ix)(B) and (K) of this section. Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWE, 2007 Edition through the 2015 Edition, must satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>2</I>) and (b)(2)(ix)(B), (J), and (K) of this section. Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWE, 2017 Edition, through the 2019 Edition, must satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(ix)(A)<I>(2)</I> and (b)(2)(ix)(B) and (J) of this section. Applicants or licensees applying Subsection IWE, 2021 Edition, through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section must satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(ix)(B) and (J) of this section.




</P>
<P>(A) <I>Metal containment examinations: First provision.</I> For Class MC applications, the following apply to inaccessible areas.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The applicant or licensee must evaluate the acceptability of inaccessible areas when conditions exist in accessible areas that could indicate the presence of or could result in degradation to such inaccessible areas.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For each inaccessible area identified for evaluation, the applicant or licensee must provide the following in the ISI Summary Report as required by IWA-6000:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A description of the type and estimated extent of degradation, and the conditions that led to the degradation;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) An evaluation of each area, and the result of the evaluation; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A description of necessary corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Metal containment examinations: Second provision.</I> When performing remotely the visual examinations required by Subsection IWE, the maximum direct examination distance specified in Table IWA-2210-1 (2001 Edition through 2004 Edition) or Table IWA-2211-1 (2005 Addenda through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) may be extended and the minimum illumination requirements specified may be decreased provided that the conditions or indications for which the visual examination is performed can be detected at the chosen distance and illumination.
</P>
<P>(C)-(E) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Metal containment examinations: Sixth provision.</I> VT-1 and VT-3 examinations must be conducted in accordance with IWA-2200. Personnel conducting examinations in accordance with the VT-1 or VT-3 examination method must be qualified in accordance with IWA-2300. The “owner-defined” personnel qualification provisions in IWE-2330(a) for personnel that conduct VT-1 and VT-3 examinations are not approved for use.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Metal containment examinations: Seventh provision.</I> The VT-3 examination method must be used to conduct the examinations in Items E1.12 and E1.20 of Table IWE-2500-1, and the VT-1 examination method must be used to conduct the examination in Item E4.11 of Table IWE-2500-1. An examination of the pressure-retaining bolted connections in Item E1.11 of Table IWE-2500-1 using the VT-3 examination method must be conducted once each interval. The “owner-defined” visual examination provisions in IWE-2310(a) are not approved for use for VT-1 and VT-3 examinations.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Metal containment examinations: Eighth provision.</I> Containment bolted connections that are disassembled during the scheduled performance of the examinations in Item E1.11 of Table IWE-2500-1 must be examined using the VT-3 examination method. Flaws or degradation identified during the performance of a VT-3 examination must be examined in accordance with the VT-1 examination method. The criteria in the material specification or IWB-3517.1 must be used to evaluate containment bolting flaws or degradation. As an alternative to performing VT-3 examinations of containment bolted connections that are disassembled during the scheduled performance of Item E1.11, VT-3 examinations of containment bolted connections may be conducted whenever containment bolted connections are disassembled for any reason.
</P>
<P>(I) <I>Metal containment examinations: Ninth provision.</I> The ultrasonic examination acceptance standard specified in IWE-3511.3 for Class MC pressure-retaining components must also be applied to metallic liners of Class CC pressure-retaining components.
</P>
<P>(J) <I>Metal containment examinations: Tenth provision.</I> In general, a repair/replacement activity such as replacing a large containment penetration, cutting a large construction opening in the containment pressure boundary to replace steam generators, reactor vessel heads, pressurizers, or other major equipment; or other similar modification is considered a major containment modification. When applying IWE-5000 to Class MC pressure-retaining components, any major containment modification or repair/replacement must be followed by a Type A test to provide assurance of both containment structural integrity and leak-tight integrity prior to returning to service, in accordance with appendix J to this part, Option A or Option B, on which the applicant's or licensee's Containment Leak-Rate Testing Program is based. When applying IWE-5000, if a Type A, B, or C Test is performed, the test pressure and acceptance standard for the test must be in accordance with appendix J to this part.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>Metal Containment Examinations: Eleventh provision.</I> A general visual examination of containment leak chase channel moisture barriers must be performed once each interval, in accordance with the completion percentages in Table IWE 2411-1 of the 2017 Edition. Examination shall include the moisture barrier materials (caulking, gaskets, coatings, etc.) that prevent water from accessing the embedded containment liner within the leak chase channel system. Caps of stub tubes extending to or above the concrete floor interface may be inspected, provided the configuration of the cap functions as a moisture barrier as described previously. Leak chase channel system closures need not be disassembled for performance of examinations if the moisture barrier material is clearly visible without disassembly, or coatings are intact. The closures are acceptable if no damage or degradation exists that would allow intrusion of moisture against inaccessible surfaces of the metal containment shell or liner within the leak chase channel system. Examinations that identify flaws or relevant conditions shall be extended in accordance with paragraph IWE 2430 of the 2017 Edition.


</P>
<P>(x) <I>Section XI condition: Quality assurance.</I> When applying the editions and addenda later than the 1989 Edition of ASME BPV Code, Section XI, licensees may use any edition or addenda of NQA-1, “Quality Assurance Requirements for Nuclear Facility Applications,” that is both incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section and specified in Table IWA 1600-1 of that edition and addenda of Section XI, provided that the licensee uses its appendix B to this part quality assurance program in conjunction with Section XI requirements and the commitments contained in the licensee's quality assurance program description. Where NQA-1 and Section XI do not address the commitments contained in the licensee's appendix B quality assurance program description, those licensee commitments must be applied to Section XI activities.
</P>
<P>(xi) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Section XI condition: Underwater welding.</I> The provisions in IWA-4660, “Underwater Welding,” of Section XI, 2001 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, are approved for use on irradiated material with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Underwater welding: First provision.</I> Licensees must obtain NRC approval in accordance with paragraph (z) of this section regarding the welding technique to be used prior to performing welding on ferritic material exposed to fast neutron fluence greater than 1 × 10
<SU>17</SU> n/cm
<SU>2</SU> (E &gt; 1 MeV).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Underwater welding: Second provision.</I> Licensees must obtain NRC approval in accordance with paragraph (z) of this section regarding the welding technique to be used prior to performing welding on austenitic material other than P-No. 8 material exposed to thermal neutron fluence greater than 1 × 10
<SU>17</SU> n/cm
<SU>2</SU> (E &lt; 0.5 eV). Licensees must obtain NRC approval in accordance with paragraph (z) regarding the welding technique to be used prior to performing welding on P-No. 8 austenitic material exposed to thermal neutron fluence greater than 1 × 10
<SU>17</SU> n/cm
<SU>2</SU> (E &lt; 0.5 eV) and measured or calculated helium concentration of the material greater than 0.1 atomic parts per million.
</P>
<P>(xiii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Section XI condition: Appendix VIII personnel qualification.</I> All personnel qualified for performing ultrasonic examinations in accordance with Appendix VIII must receive 8 hours of annual hands-on training on specimens that contain cracks. Licensees applying the 2001 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may use the annual practice requirements in VII-4240 of Appendix VII of Section XI in place of the 8 hours of annual hands-on training provided that the supplemental practice is performed on material or welds that contain cracks, or by analyzing prerecorded data from material or welds that contain cracks. In either case, training must be completed no earlier than 6 months prior to performing ultrasonic examinations at a licensee's facility.
</P>
<P>(xv) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Section XI condition: Appendix VIII single side ferritic vessel and piping and stainless steel piping examinations.</I> When applying editions and addenda prior to the 2007 Edition of Section XI, the following conditions apply.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Ferritic and stainless steel piping examinations: First provision.</I> Examinations performed from one side of a ferritic vessel weld must be conducted with equipment, procedures, and personnel that have demonstrated proficiency with single side examinations. To demonstrate equivalency to two sided examinations, the demonstration must be performed to the requirements of Appendix VIII, as conditioned by this paragraph and paragraphs (b)(2)(xv)(B) through (G) of this section, on specimens containing flaws with non-optimum sound energy reflecting characteristics or flaws similar to those in the vessel being examined.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Ferritic and stainless steel piping examinations: Second provision.</I> Examinations performed from one side of a ferritic or stainless steel pipe weld must be conducted with equipment, procedures, and personnel that have demonstrated proficiency with single side examinations. To demonstrate equivalency to two sided examinations, the demonstration must be performed to the requirements of Appendix VIII, as conditioned by this paragraph and paragraph (b)(2)(xv)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xvii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xviii) <I>Section XI condition: NDE personnel certification</I>—(A) <I>NDE personnel certification: First provision.</I> Level I and II nondestructive examination personnel must be recertified on a 3-year interval in lieu of the 5-year interval specified in IWA-2314(a) and IWA-2314(b) of the 2001 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>NDE personnel certification: Second provision.</I> When applying editions and addenda prior to the 2007 Edition of Section XI, paragraph IWA-2316 may only be used to qualify personnel that observe leakage during system leakage and hydrostatic tests conducted in accordance with IWA 5211(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>NDE personnel certification: Third provision.</I> When applying editions and addenda prior to the 2005 Addenda of Section XI, licensee's qualifying visual examination personnel for VT-3 visual examination under paragraph IWA-2317 of Section XI must demonstrate the proficiency of the training by administering an initial qualification examination and administering subsequent examinations on a 3-year interval.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>NDE personnel certification: Fourth provision.</I> The use of Appendix VII, Table VII-4110-1 and Appendix VIII, Subarticle VIII-2200 of the 2011 Addenda through the latest edition incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is prohibited. When using ASME BPV Code, Section XI editions and addenda later than the 2010 Edition, licensees and applicants must use the prerequisites for ultrasonic examination personnel certifications in Appendix VII, Table VII-4110-1 and Appendix VIII, Subarticle VIII-2200 in the 2010 Edition.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) As an alternative to Note (c) in Table VII-4110-1 of ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2010 Edition, the 250 hours of Level I experience time may be reduced to 175 hours, if the experience time includes a minimum of 125 hours of field experience and 50 hours of laboratory practice beyond the requirements of for training in accordance with Appendix VII Subarticle 4220, provided those practice hours are dedicated to the Level I or Level II skill areas as described in ANSI/ASNT CP-189.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As an alternative to Note (d) in Table VII-4110-1 of ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2010 Edition, the 800 hours of Level II experience time may be reduced to 720 hours, if the experience time includes a minimum of 400 hours of field experience and a minimum of 320 hours of laboratory practice. The practice must be dedicated to scanning specimens containing flaws in materials representative of those in actual power plant components. Additionally, for Level II Certification, the candidate must pass a Mandatory Appendix VIII, Supplement 2 performance demonstration for detection and length sizing.
</P>
<P>(xix) <I>Section XI condition: Substitution of alternative methods.</I> The provisions for substituting alternative examination methods, a combination of methods, or newly developed techniques in the 1997 Addenda of IWA-2240 must be applied when using the 2001 Edition through the 2004 Edition of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code. The provisions in IWA-4520(c), 2001 Edition through the 2004 Edition, allowing the substitution of alternative methods, a combination of methods, or newly developed techniques for the methods specified in the Construction Code, are not approved for use. The provisions in IWA-4520(b)(2) and IWA-4521 of the 2008 Addenda through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, allowing the substitution of ultrasonic examination for radiographic examination specified in the Construction Code, are not approved for use.
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Section XI condition: System leakage tests</I>—(A) <I>System leakage tests: First provision.</I> When performing system leakage tests in accordance with IWA-5213(a), 2001 Edition through 2002 Addenda, the licensee must maintain a 10-minute hold time after test pressure has been reached for Class 2 and Class 3 components that are not in use during normal operating conditions. No hold time is required for the remaining Class 2 and Class 3 components provided that the system has been in operation for at least 4 hours for insulated components or 10 minutes for uninsulated components.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>System leakage tests: Second provision.</I> The nondestructive examination method and acceptance criteria of the 1992 Edition or later of Section III shall be met when performing system leakage tests (in lieu of a hydrostatic test) in accordance with IWA-4520 after repair and replacement activities performed by welding or brazing on a pressure retaining boundary using the 2003 Addenda through the latest edition and addenda of Section XI incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. The nondestructive examination and pressure testing may be performed using procedures and personnel meeting the requirements of the licensee's/applicant's current ISI code of record.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>System leakage tests: Third provision.</I> The use of the provisions for an alternative BWR pressure test at reduced pressure to satisfy IWA-4540 requirements as described in IWB-5210(c) of Section XI, 2017 Edition and IWA-5213(b)(2) and IWB-5221(d) of Section XI, 2017 Edition through the latest edition incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may be used subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The use of nuclear heat to conduct the BWR Class 1 system leakage test is prohibited (<I>i.e.,</I> the reactor must be in a non-critical state), except during refueling outages in which the ASME Section XI Category B-P pressure test has already been performed, or at the end of mid-cycle maintenance outages fourteen (14) days or less in duration.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In lieu of the test condition holding time of IWA-5213(b)(2), after pressurization to test conditions, and before the visual examinations commence, the holding time shall be 1 hour for non-insulated components.
</P>
<P>(xxi) <I>Section XI condition: Table IWB-2500-1 examination requirements.</I> (A) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Table IWB-2500-1 examination.</I> Use of the provisions of IWB-2500(f) and (g) and Table IWB-2500-1 Notes 6 and 7 of Section XI, 2017 Edition through the latest edition incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, for examination of Examination Category B-D Item Numbers B3.90 and B3.100 shall be subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A plant-specific evaluation demonstrating the criteria of IWB-2500(f) are met must be maintained in accordance with IWA-1400(l).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The use of the provisions of IWB-2500(f) and Table IWB-2500-1 Note 6 for examination of Examination Category B-D Item Numbers B3.90 is prohibited for plants with renewed licenses in accordance with 10 CFR part 54.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The provisions of IWB-2500(g) and Table IWB-2500-1 Notes 6 and 7 for examination of Examination Category B-D Item Numbers B3.90 and B3.100 shall not be used to eliminate the preservice or inservice volumetric examination of plants with a Combined Operating License pursuant to 10 CFR part 52, or a plant that receives its operating license after October 22, 2015.
</P>
<P>(xxii) <I>Section XI condition: Surface examination.</I> The use of the provision in IWA-2220, “Surface Examination,” of Section XI, 2001 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, that allows use of an ultrasonic examination method is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xxiii) <I>Section XI condition: Evaluation of thermally cut surfaces.</I> The use of the provisions for eliminating mechanical processing of thermally cut surfaces in IWA-4461.4.2 of Section XI, 2001 Edition through the 2009 Addenda, is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xxiv) <I>Section XI condition: Incorporation of the performance demonstration initiative and addition of ultrasonic examination criteria.</I> The use of Appendix VIII and the supplements to Appendix VIII and Article I-3000 of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code, 2002 Addenda through the 2006 Addenda, is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xxv) <I>Section XV Condition: Mitigation of defects by modification.</I> Use of the provisions of IWA-4340 must be subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Mitigation of defects by modification: First provision.</I> The use of the provisions for mitigation of defects by modification in IWA-4340 of Section XI 2001 Edition through the 2010 Addenda, is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Mitigation of defects by modification: Second provision.</I> The provisions for mitigation of defects by modification in IWA-4340 of Section XI, 2011 Edition through the latest edition incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, may be used subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The use of the provisions in IWA 4340 to mitigate crack-like defects or those associated with flow accelerated corrosion are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The design of a modification that mitigates a defect must incorporate a loss of material rate either 2 times the actual measured corrosion rate, which must be established based on wall thickness measurements conducted at least twice, in that pipe location or another location with similar corrosion conditions, similar flow characteristics, and the same piping configuration (<I>e.g.,</I> straight run of pipe, elbow, tee) as the encapsulated area, or 4 times the estimated maximum corrosion rate for the piping system.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The licensee must perform a wall thickness examination in the vicinity of the modification and relevant pipe base metal at half its expected life or, if the modification has an expected life greater than 19 years, once per interval starting with the interval subsequent to the mitigation, and the results must be used to confirm corrosion rates, determine the next inspection date, and confirm the design inputs.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For buried pipe locations where the loss of material has occurred due to internal corrosion, the wall thickness examinations may be conducted at a different location in the same system as long as: Wall thickness measurements were conducted at the different location at the same time as installation of the modification; the flow rate is the same or higher at the different location; the piping configuration is the same (<I>e.g.,</I> straight run of pipe, elbow, tee); and if pitting occurred at the modification location, but not the different location, wall loss values must be multiplied by four (instead of two) times the actual measured corrosion rate. Where wall loss values are greater than that assumed during the design of the modification, the structural integrity of the modification must be reanalyzed. Additionally, if the extent of degradation is different (<I>i.e.,</I> percent wall loss plus or minus 25 percent) or the corrosion mechanism (<I>e.g.,</I> general, pitting) is not the same at the different location as at the modification location, the modification must be examined at half its expected life or 10 years, whichever is sooner.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For buried pipe locations where loss of material has occurred due to external corrosion, the modification must be examined at half its expected life or 10 years, whichever is sooner. Alternatively, when the modification has been recoated prior to return to service, the modification may be examined at half its expected life or during the subsequent 10-year inspection interval after installation, whichever is sooner.
</P>
<P>(xxvi) <I>Section XI condition: Pressure Testing of Class 1, 2, and 3 Mechanical Joints.</I> Mechanical joints in Class 1, 2, and 3 piping and components greater than NPS-1 that are disassembled and reassembled during the performance of a Section XI repair/replacement activity requiring documentation on a Form NIS-2 must be verified to be leak tight. The verification must be performed to the standards of the licensee's appendix B to this part quality assurance program.
</P>
<P>(xxvii) <I>Section XI condition: Removal of insulation.</I> When performing visual examination in accordance with IWA-5242 of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code, 2003 Addenda through the 2006 Addenda, or IWA-5241 of the 2007 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, insulation must be removed from 17-4 PH or 410 stainless steel studs or bolts aged at a temperature below 1100 °F or having a Rockwell Method C hardness value above 30, and from A-286 stainless steel studs or bolts preloaded to 100,000 pounds per square inch or higher.
</P>
<P>(xxviii) <I>Section XI condition: Analysis of flaws.</I> Licensees using ASME BPV Code, Section XI, Appendix A, must use the following conditions when implementing Equation (2) in A-4300(b)(1):
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For R &lt; 0, ΔK<E T="52">I</E> depends on the crack depth (a), and the flow stress (σ<E T="52">f</E>). The flow stress is defined by σ<E T="52">f</E> = 1/2(σ<E T="52">ys</E> + σ<E T="52">ult</E>), where σ<E T="52">ys</E> is the yield strength and σ<E T="52">ult</E> is the ultimate tensilestrength in units ksi (MPa) and (a) is in units in. (mm). For −2 ≤ R ≤ 0 and K<E T="52">max</E>− K<E T="52">min</E> ≤ 0.8 × 1.12 σ<E T="52">f</E>√(πa), S = 1 and ΔK<E T="52">I</E> = K<E T="52">max</E>. For R &lt; −2 and K<E T="52">max</E>− K<E T="52">min</E> ≤ 0.8 × 1.12 σ<E T="52">f</E>√(πa), S = 1 and ΔK<E T="52">I</E> = (1 − R) K<E T="52">max</E>/3. For R &lt; 0 and K<E T="52">max</E> − K<E T="52">min</E> &gt; 0.8 × 1.12σ<E T="52">f</E>√(πa), S = 1 and ΔK<E T="52">I</E> = K<E T="52">max</E>−K<E T="52">min</E>.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(xxix) <I>Section XI condition: Nonmandatory Appendix R.</I> (A) Nonmandatory Appendix R, “Risk-Informed Inspection Requirements for Piping Supplement 1—Risk-Informed Selection Process—Method A,” of Section XI, 2005 Addenda through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, may not be implemented without prior NRC authorization of the proposed alternative in accordance with paragraph (z) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Nonmandatory Appendix R, “Risk-Informed Inspection Requirements for Piping, Supplement 2—Risk-Informed Selection Process—Method B” of Section XI, 2005 Addenda through the 2015 Edition, may not be implemented without prior NRC authorization of the proposed alternative in accordance with paragraph (z) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Nonmandatory Appendix R, “Risk-Informed Inspection Requirements for Piping, Supplement 2—Risk-Informed Selection Process—Method B” of Section XI, 2017 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, may be implemented without prior NRC authorization of the proposed alternative in accordance with paragraph (z) of this section.
</P>
<P>(xxx) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xxxi) <I>Section XI condition: Mechanical clamping devices.</I> When installing a mechanical clamping device on an ASME BPV Code class piping system, Appendix W of Section XI shall be treated as a mandatory appendix and all of the provisions of Appendix W shall be met for the mechanical clamping device being installed. Additionally, use of IWA-4131.1(c) of the 2010 Edition of Section XI and IWA-4131.1(d) of the 2011 Addenda of the 2010 Edition and later versions of Section XI is prohibited on small item Class 1 piping and portions of a piping system that form the containment boundary.
</P>
<P>(xxxii) <I>Section XI condition: Summary report submittal.</I> When using ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2010 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, Summary Reports and Owner's Activity Reports described in IWA-6230 must be submitted to the NRC. Preservice inspection reports for examinations prior to commercial service must be submitted prior to the date of placement of the unit into commercial service. For preservice and inservice examinations performed following placement of the unit into commercial service, reports must be submitted within 120 calendar days of the completion of each refueling outage.
</P>
<P>(xxxiii) <I>Section XI condition: Risk-Informed allowable pressure.</I> The use of Paragraph G-2216 in Appendix G in the 2011 Addenda and later editions and addenda of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI is prohibited.


</P>
<P>(xxxiv) <I>Section XI condition: Nonmandatory Appendix U.</I> (A) When using Nonmandatory Appendix U of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2013 Edition through the 2019 Edition, the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The repair or replacement activities temporarily deferred under the provisions of Nonmandatory Appendix U must be performed during the next scheduled refueling outage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In lieu of the appendix referenced in paragraph U-S1-4.2.1(c) of Appendix U, an approved version of the ASME BPV Code Case N-513 must be used in accordance with the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, at the time the case was incorporated into the licensee's program.


</P>
<P>(B) Use of Nonmandatory Appendix U, Supplement U-S1 of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2021 Edition is prohibited.




















</P>
<P>(xxxv) <I>Section XI condition: Use of RT</I><E T="52">T0</E><I> in the K</I><E T="52">Ia</E><I> and K</I><E T="52">Ic</E><I> equations.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) When using the 2013 Edition of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, Appendix A, paragraph A-4200, if T<E T="52">0</E> is available, then RT<E T="52">T0</E> may be used in place of RT<E T="52">NDT</E> for applications using the K<E T="52">Ic</E> equation and the associated K<E T="52">Ic</E> curve, but not for applications using the K<E T="52">Ia</E> equation and the associated K<E T="52">Ia</E> curve.
</P>
<P>(B) When using the 2015 Edition of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, Appendix A, paragraph A-4200 subparagraph (c) RT<E T="52">KIa</E> shall be defined as RT<E T="52">KIa</E> = T<E T="52">0</E> + 90.267 exp(−0.003406T<E T="52">0</E>) for U.S. Customary Units.
</P>
<P>(xxxvi) <I>Section XI condition: Fracture toughness of irradiated materials.</I> When using the 2013 Edition through the latest edition incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, Appendix A paragraph A-4400, the licensee shall determine irradiated T<E T="52">0</E> and the associated RT<E T="52">T0</E> as specified in the 2021 Edition of ASME BPV Code, Section III, NB-2331, subparagraph (a)(5).


</P>
<P>(xxxviii) <I>Section XI condition: ASME Code Section XI Appendix III Supplement 2.</I> Licensees applying the provisions of ASME Code Section XI Appendix III Supplement 2, “Welds in Cast Austenitic Materials,” are subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>ASME Code Section XI Appendix III Supplement 2: First provision.</I>: First provision. In lieu of Paragraph (c)(1)(-c)(-2), licensees shall use a search unit with a center frequency of 500 kHz with a tolerance of ± 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>ASME Code Section XI Appendix III Supplement 2: Second provision.</I>: Second provision. In lieu of Paragraph (c)(1)(-d), the search unit shall produce angles including, but not limited to, 30 to 55 degrees with a maximum increment of 5 degrees.
</P>
<P>(xxxix) <I>Section XI condition: Defect Removal.</I> The use of the provisions for removal of defects by welding or brazing in IWA-4421(c)(1) and IWA-4421(c)(2) of Section XI, 2017 Edition through the latest edition incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may be used subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Defect removal requirements: First provision.</I> The provisions of subparagraph IWA 4421(c)(1) shall not be used to contain or isolate a defective area without removal of the defect.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Defect removal requirements: Second provision.</I> The provisions of subparagraph IWA-4421(c)(2) shall not be used for crack-like defects.
</P>
<P>(xl) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xli) <I>Section XI condition: Preservice Volumetric and Surface Examinations Acceptance.</I> The use of the provisions for accepting flaws by analytical evaluation during preservice inspection in IWB-3112(a)(3) and IWC-3112(a)(3) of Section XI, 2013 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xlii) <I>Section XI condition: Steam Generator Nozzle-to-Component welds and Reactor Vessel Nozzle-to-Component welds.</I> Licensees applying the provisions of Table IWB-2500-1, Examination Category B-F, Pressure Retaining Dissimilar Metal Welds in Vessel Nozzles, Item B5.11 (NPS 4 or Larger Nozzle-to-Component Butt Welds) of the 2013 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section and Item B5.71 (NPS 4 or Larger Nozzle-to-Component Butt Welds) of the 2011a Addenda through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section must also meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Ultrasonic examination procedures, equipment, and personnel shall be qualified by performance demonstration in accordance with Mandatory Appendix VIII.
</P>
<P>(B) When applying the examination requirements of Figure IWB-2500-8, the volumetric examination volume shall be extended to include 100 percent of the weld volume, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(xlii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the examination volume that can be obtained by performance demonstration qualified procedures is less than 100 percent of the weld volume, the licensee may ultrasonically examine the qualified volume and perform a flaw evaluation of the largest hypothetical crack that could exist in the volume not qualified for ultrasonic examination, subject to prior NRC authorization in accordance with paragraph (z) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(xliii) Section XI condition: Regulatory Submittal Requirements. Licenses shall submit to the NRC the analytical evaluation determining the effects of an out-of-limit condition on the structural integrity of the Reactor Coolant System, as described in IWB-3720(a).
</P>
<P>(xliv) <I>Section XI condition: Nonmandatory Appendix Y.</I> When using Nonmandatory Appendix Y of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2021 Edition, the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(A) Use of Nonmandatory Appendix Y, Article Y-2200 is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(B) Use of Nonmandatory Appendix Y, Subarticle Y-2440 is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(C) Use of Nonmandatory Appendix Y, Article Y-3200 is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xlv) <I>Section XI condition: Pressure Testing of Containment Penetration Piping After Repair/Replacement Activities.</I> Applicants or licensees applying the provision of IWA-4540(a) and (e) of the 2021 Edition of the ASME Code, Section XI, are required to perform a VT-2 examination of the area affected by the repair/replacement activity during the Type C test in appendix J to this part.
</P>
<P>(xlvi) <I>Section XI condition: Contracted Repair/Replacement Organization Fabricating Items Offsite of the Owner's Facility.</I> When applicants or licensees apply the provision of IWA-4143 in the 2021 Edition of Section XI of the ASME Code, a contracted Repair/Replacement Organization fabricating ASME Code, Section III parts, appurtenances, piping subassemblies, and supports offsite of the Owner's facility (<I>e.g.,</I> vendor facility) without an ASME Certificate of Authorization and without applying an ASME Stamp/Certification Mark is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(xlvii) <I>Section XI condition: Weld Overlay Design Crack Growth Analysis.</I> Under Subparagraph Q-3000(a) stress corrosion crack growth analysis is required within the weld overlay material.
</P>
<P>(xlviii) <I>Section XI condition: Analytical Evaluations of Degradation.</I> Applicants or licensees using the 2021 Edition of Section XI must submit analytical evaluations performed as required by IWB-3132.3 and IWC-3132.3 to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P>(xlix) <I>Section XI condition: Analytical Evaluations of Flaws in Cladding.</I> The use of IWB-3600(b)(1) in the 2021 Edition of ASME BPV Code, Section XI (Division 1) is prohibited for the inlay and onlay that are subject to the augmented inspection requirements in paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Section XI condition: Determination of the Master Curve T</I><E T="52">0</E>. When using the 2017 Edition of Section XI through the latest Edition incorporated by reference in this section and implementing Nonmandatory Appendix A, A-4200(c) and Nonmandatory Appendix G, G-2110(c), the licensee shall determine T<E T="52">0</E> and the associated RT<E T="52">T0</E> as specified in the 2021 Edition of ASME BPV Code, Section III, NB-2331, subparagraph (a)(5).






</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions on ASME OM Code.</I> As used in this section, references to the ASME OM Code are to the ASME OM Code, Subsections ISTA, ISTB, ISTC, ISTD, ISTE, and ISTF; Mandatory Appendices I, II, III, IV, and V; and Nonmandatory Appendices A through H and J through M, in the editions and addenda of the ASME OM Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section. Mandatory appendices must be used if required by the OM Code; nonmandatory appendices are approved for use by the NRC but need not be used. When implementing the ASME OM Code, conditions are applicable only as specified in the following paragraphs:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>OM condition: Quality assurance.</I> When applying editions and addenda of the ASME OM Code, the requirements of ASME Standard NQA-1, “Quality Assurance Requirements for Nuclear Facility Applications,” 1994 Edition, 2008 Edition, and 2009-1a Addenda, are acceptable as permitted by either ISTA 1.4 of the 1995 Edition through 1997 Addenda or ISTA-1500 of the 1998 Edition through the latest edition and addenda of the ASME OM Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section, provided the licensee uses its appendix B to this part quality assurance program in conjunction with the ASME OM Code requirements and the commitments contained in the licensee's quality assurance program description. Where NQA-1 and the ASME OM Code do not address the commitments contained in the licensee's appendix B quality assurance program description, the commitments must be applied to ASME OM Code activities.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>OM condition: Motor-Operated Valve (MOV) testing.</I> Licensees must comply with the provisions for testing MOVs in ASME OM Code, ISTC 4.2, 1995 Edition with the 1996 and 1997 Addenda, or ISTC-3500, 1998 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section, and must establish a program to ensure that MOVs continue to be capable of performing their design basis safety functions. Licensees implementing ASME OM Code, Mandatory Appendix III, “Preservice and Inservice Testing of Active Electric Motor-Operated Valve Assemblies in Water-Cooled Reactor Nuclear Power Plants,” of the 2009 Edition, through the latest edition and addenda of the ASME OM Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section shall comply with the following conditions (with the exception of conditions in paragraphs (b)(3)(ii)(A) through (C) of this section when implementing the 2022 Edition of the ASME OM Code):


</P>
<P>(A) <I>MOV diagnostic test interval.</I> Licensees shall evaluate the adequacy of the diagnostic test intervals established for MOVs within the scope of ASME OM Code, Appendix III, not later than 5 years or three refueling outages (whichever is longer) from initial implementation of ASME OM Code, Appendix III.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>MOV testing impact on risk.</I> Licensees shall ensure that the potential increase in core damage frequency and large early release frequency associated with the extension is acceptably small when extending exercise test intervals for high risk MOVs beyond a quarterly frequency.


</P>
<P>(C) <I>MOV risk categorization.</I> When applying Appendix III to the ASME OM Code, licensees shall categorize MOVs according to their safety significance using the methodology described in ASME OM Code Case OMN-3, “Requirements for Safety Significance Categorization of Components Using Risk Insights for Inservice Testing of LWR Power Plants,” subject to the conditions applicable to OMN-3 which are set forth in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, or using an MOV risk ranking methodology accepted by the NRC on a plant-specific or industry-wide basis in accordance with the conditions in the applicable safety evaluation.


</P>
<P>(D) <I>MOV stroke time.</I> When applying Paragraph III-3600, “MOV Exercising Requirements,” of Appendix III to the ASME OM Code, licensees shall verify that the stroke time of MOVs specified in plant technical specifications satisfies the assumptions in the plant's safety analyses.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>OM condition: New reactors.</I> In addition to complying with the provisions in the ASME OM Code with the conditions specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, holders of operating licenses for nuclear power reactors that received construction permits under this part on or after August 17, 2018, and holders of combined licenses issued under 10 CFR part 52, whose initial fuel loading occurs on or after August 17, 2018, must also comply with the following conditions, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Power-operated valves.</I> Licensees must periodically verify the capability of power-operated valves to perform their design-basis safety functions.
</P>
<P>(B)-(C) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(D) <I>High risk non-safety systems.</I> Licensees must assess the operational readiness of pumps, valves, and dynamic restraints within the scope of the Regulatory Treatment of Non-Safety Systems for applicable reactor designs.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>OM condition: Check valves (Appendix II).</I> Appendix II of the ASME OM Code, 2003 Addenda through the 2012 Edition, is acceptable for use with the following requirements. Trending and evaluation must support the determination that the valve or group of valves is capable of performing its intended function(s) over the entire interval. At least one of the Appendix II condition monitoring activities for a valve group must be performed on each valve of the group at approximate equal intervals not to exceed the maximum interval shown in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iv</E>)—Maximum Intervals for Use When Applying Interval Extensions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Group size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum interval between activities of
<br/>member valves in the groups
<br/>(years)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum interval between activities of each valve in the group
<br/>(years)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) <I>OM condition: Snubbers ISTD.</I> Article IWF-5000, “Inservice Inspection Requirements for Snubbers,” of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, must be used when performing inservice inspection examinations and tests of snubbers at nuclear power plants, except as conditioned in paragraphs (b)(3)(v)(A) and (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Snubbers: First provision.</I> Licensees may use Subsection ISTD, “Preservice and Inservice Examination and Testing of Dynamic Restraints (Snubbers) in Light-Water Reactor Power Plants,” ASME OM Code, 1995 Edition through the latest edition and addenda incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section, in place of the requirements for snubbers in the editions and addenda up to the 2005 Addenda of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, IWF-5200(a) and (b) and IWF-5300(a) and (b), by making appropriate changes to their technical specifications or licensee-controlled documents. Preservice and inservice examinations must be performed using the VT-3 visual examination method described in IWA-2213.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Snubbers: Second provision.</I> Licensees must comply with the provisions for examining and testing snubbers in Subsection ISTD of the ASME OM Code and make appropriate changes to their technical specifications or licensee-controlled documents when using the 2006 Addenda and later editions and addenda of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>OM condition: Exercise interval for manual valves.</I> Manual valves must be exercised on a 2-year interval rather than the 5-year interval specified in paragraph ISTC-3540 of the 1999 through the 2005 Addenda of the ASME OM Code, provided that adverse conditions do not require more frequent testing.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>OM condition: Snubber visual examination interval extension.</I> When implementing Subsection ISTD, paragraph ISTD-4253, and Note 7 of Table ISTD-4252-1, in the 2022 Edition of the ASME OM Code, incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section, to extend snubber visual examination beyond 2 refueling cycles (48 months), the licensee is prohibited from applying OM Code Case OMN-15, Revision 2, to extend the operational readiness testing interval of snubbers.






</P>
<P>(viii) <I>OM condition: Subsection ISTE.</I> Licensees may not implement the risk-informed approach for inservice testing (IST) of pumps and valves specified in Subsection ISTE, “Risk-Informed Inservice Testing of Components in Light-Water Reactor Nuclear Power Plants,” in the ASME OM Code, 2009 Edition through the 2017 Edition, without first obtaining NRC authorization to use Subsection ISTE as an alternative to the applicable IST requirements in the ASME OM Code, pursuant to paragraph (z) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>OM condition: Subsection ISTF.</I> Licensees applying Subsection ISTF, 2012 Edition must satisfy the requirements of Mandatory Appendix V, “Pump Periodic Verification Test Program,” of the ASME OM Code in that edition.


</P>
<P>(x) <I>OM condition: Class 1 Pressure Relief Valve Sample Expansion.</I> When implementing paragraph I-1320<I>(c)(1)</I> in Appendix I, “Inservice Testing of Pressure Relief Devices in Water-Cooled Reactor Nuclear Power Plants,” of the editions and addenda of the ASME OM Code, incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section, the requirement for sample expansion of Class 1 Pressure Relief Valves shall be implemented such that for each valve tested for which the as-found set-pressure (first test actuation) exceeds the plus/minus tolerance limit of the Owner-established design set-pressure acceptance criteria of paragraph I-1310<I>(e),</I> two additional valves shall be tested from the same group. If the Owner has not established design set-pressure acceptance criteria, then for each valve tested for which the as-found set-pressure (first actuation) exceeds ±3 percent of valve nameplate set-pressure, two additional valves shall be tested from the same valve group.




</P>
<P>(xi) <I>OM condition: Valve Position Indication.</I> When implementing paragraph ISTC-3700, “Position Verification Testing,” in the ASME OM Code, 2012 Edition through the latest edition of the ASME OM Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section, licensees must verify that valve operation is accurately indicated by supplementing valve position indicating lights with other indications, such as flow meters or other suitable instrumentation to provide assurance of proper obturator position for valves with remote position indication within the scope of Subsection ISTC including its mandatory appendices and their verification methods and frequencies. For valves not susceptible to stem-disk separation, licensees may implement ASME OM Code Case OMN-28, “Alternative Valve Position Verification Approach to Satisfy ISTC-3700 for Valves Not Susceptible to Stem-Disk Separation,” which is incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(H) of this section. Where plant conditions make it impractical to perform the initial ISTC-3700 test as supplemented by paragraph (b)(3)(xi) of this section by the date 2 years following the previously performed ISTC-3700 test, a licensee may justify an extension of this initial supplemental valve position verification provided the ISTC-3700 test as supplemented by paragraph (b)(3)(xi) of this section is performed at the next available opportunity and no later than the next plant shutdown. This one-time extension of the ISTC-3700 test schedule as supplemented by paragraph (b)(3)(xi) of this section is acceptable provided the licensee has available for NRC review documented justification based on information obtained over the previous 5 years of the structural integrity of the stem-disk connection for the applicable valves. The licensee's justification could be based on, for example, verification of the valve stem-disk connection through an appropriate weak link analysis, appropriate disk motion confirmed during diagnostic testing, or allowance and cessation of flow through the valves. The licensee's justification must provide reasonable assurance that the remote indicating lights accurately reveal the position of the valve obturator until the next ISTC-3700 test as supplemented by paragraph (b)(3)(xi) of this section is performed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conditions on Design, Fabrication, and Materials Code Cases.</I> Each manufacturing license, standard design approval, and design certification application under part 52 of this chapter is subject to the following conditions. Applicants and licensees may apply the ASME BPV Code Cases listed in NRC Regulatory Guide 1.84 and Table 1 of NRC Regulatory Guide 1.262, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, without prior NRC approval, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Design, Fabrication, and Materials Code Case condition: Applying Code Cases.</I> When an applicant or licensee initially applies a listed Code Case, the applicant or licensee must apply the most recent version of that Code Case incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Design, Fabrication, and Materials Code Case condition: Applying different revisions of Code Cases.</I> If an applicant or licensee has previously applied a Code Case and a later version of the Code Case is incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant or licensee may continue to apply the previous version of the Code Case as authorized or may apply the later version of the Code Case, including any NRC-specified conditions placed on its use, until it updates its Code of Record for the component being constructed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Design, Fabrication, and Materials Code Case condition: Applying annulled Code Cases.</I> Application of an annulled Code Case is prohibited unless an applicant or licensee applied the listed Code Case prior to it being listed as annulled in an NRC regulatory guide, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. If an applicant or licensee has applied a listed Code Case that is later listed as annulled in an NRC regulatory guide, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the applicant or licensee may continue to apply the Code Case until it updates its Code of Record for the component being constructed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Conditions on inservice inspection Code Cases.</I> Licensees may apply the ASME BPV Code Cases listed in NRC Regulatory Guide 1.147 and Table 2 of NRC Regulatory Guide 1.262, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, without prior NRC approval, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>ISI Code Case condition: Applying Code Cases.</I> When a licensee initially applies a listed Code Case, the licensee must apply the most recent version of that Code Case incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>ISI Code Case condition: Applying different revisions of Code Cases.</I> If a licensee has previously applied a Code Case and a later version of the Code Case is incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, the licensee may continue to apply, to the end of the current code of record interval, the previous version of the Code Case, as authorized, or may apply the later version of the Code Case, including any NRC-specified conditions placed on its use. Licensees who choose to continue use of the Code Case during subsequent code of record intervals will be required to implement the latest version as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>ISI Code Case condition: Applying annulled Code Cases.</I> Application of an annulled Code Case is prohibited unless a licensee previously applied the listed Code Case prior to it being listed as annulled in an NRC regulatory guide, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. If a licensee has applied a listed Code Case that is later listed as annulled in an NRC regulatory guide, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the licensee may continue to apply the Code Case to the end of the current code of record interval.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Conditions on ASME OM Code Cases.</I> Licensees may apply the ASME OM Code Cases listed in NRC Regulatory Guide 1.192 and Table 3 of NRC Regulatory Guide 1.262, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, without prior NRC approval, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>OM Code Case condition: Applying Code Cases.</I> When a licensee initially applies a listed Code Case, the licensee must apply the most recent version of that Code Case incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>OM Code Case condition: Applying different revisions of Code Cases.</I> If a licensee has previously applied a Code Case and a later version of the Code Case is incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, the licensee may continue to apply, to the end of the current code of record interval, the previous version of the Code Case, as authorized, or may apply the later version of the Code Case, including any NRC-specified conditions placed on its use. Licensees who choose to continue use of the Code Case during subsequent code of record intervals will be required to implement the latest version as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>OM Code Case condition: Applying annulled Code Cases.</I> Application of an annulled Code Case is prohibited unless a licensee previously applied the listed Code Case prior to it being listed as annulled in an NRC regulatory guide, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. If a licensee has applied a listed Code Case that is later listed as annulled in an NRC regulatory guide, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the licensee may continue to apply the Code Case to the end of the current code of record interval.










</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reactor coolant pressure boundary.</I> Systems and components of boiling and pressurized water-cooled nuclear power reactors must meet the requirements of the ASME BPV Code as specified in this paragraph. Each manufacturing license, standard design approval, and design certification application under part 52 of this chapter and each combined license for a utilization facility is subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standards requirement for reactor coolant pressure boundary components.</I> Components that are part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary must meet the requirements for Class 1 components in Section III 
<SU>1 4</SU> of the ASME BPV Code, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions to reactor coolant pressure boundary standards requirement.</I> Components that are connected to the reactor coolant system and are part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary as defined in § 50.2 need not meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exceptions: Shutdown and cooling capability.</I> In the event of postulated failure of the component during normal reactor operation, the reactor can be shut down and cooled down in an orderly manner, assuming makeup is provided by the reactor coolant makeup system; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions: Isolation capability.</I> The component is or can be isolated from the reactor coolant system by two valves in series (both closed, both open, or one closed and the other open). Each open valve must be capable of automatic actuation and, assuming the other valve is open, its closure time must be such that, in the event of postulated failure of the component during normal reactor operation, each valve remains operable and the reactor can be shut down and cooled down in an orderly manner, assuming makeup is provided by the reactor coolant makeup system only.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicable Code and Code Cases and conditions on their use.</I> The Code edition, addenda, and optional ASME Code Cases to be applied to components of the reactor coolant pressure boundary must be determined by the provisions of paragraph NCA-1140, Subsection NCA of Section III of the ASME BPV Code, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reactor coolant pressure boundary condition: Code edition and addenda.</I> The edition and addenda applied to a component must be those that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reactor coolant pressure boundary condition: Earliest edition and addenda for pressure vessel.</I> The ASME Code provisions applied to the pressure vessel may be dated no earlier than the summer 1972 Addenda of the 1971 Edition;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reactor coolant pressure boundary condition: Earliest edition and addenda for piping, pumps, and valves.</I> The ASME Code provisions applied to piping, pumps, and valves may be dated no earlier than the Winter 1972 Addenda of the 1971 Edition; and
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Reactor coolant pressure boundary condition: Use of Code Cases.</I> The optional Code Cases applied to a component must be those listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Standards requirement for components in older plants.</I> For a nuclear power plant whose construction permit was issued prior to May 14, 1984, the applicable Code edition and addenda for a component of the reactor coolant pressure boundary continue to be that Code edition and addenda that were required by Commission regulations for such a component at the time of issuance of the construction permit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quality Group B components.</I> Systems and components of boiling and pressurized water-cooled nuclear power reactors must meet the requirements of the ASME BPV Code as specified in this paragraph. Each manufacturing license, standard design approval, and design certification application under part 52 of this chapter, and each combined license for a utilization facility is subject to the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standards requirement for Quality Group B components.</I> For a nuclear power plant whose application for a construction permit under this part, or a combined license or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, docketed after May 14, 1984, or for an application for a standard design approval or a standard design certification docketed after May 14, 1984, components classified Quality Group B 
<SU>7</SU> must meet the requirements for Class 2 Components in Section III of the ASME BPV Code.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quality Group B: Applicable Code and Code Cases and conditions on their use.</I> The Code edition, addenda, and optional ASME Code Cases to be applied to the systems and components identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be determined by the rules of paragraph NCA-1140, Subsection NCA of Section III of the ASME BPV Code, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Quality Group B condition: Code edition and addenda.</I> The edition and addenda must be those that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Quality Group B condition: Earliest edition and addenda for components.</I> The ASME Code provisions applied to the systems and components may be dated no earlier than the 1980 Edition; and


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Quality Group B condition: Use of Code Cases.</I> The optional Code Cases must be those listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.






</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quality Group C components.</I> Systems and components of boiling and pressurized water-cooled nuclear power reactors must meet the requirements of the ASME BPV Code as specified in this paragraph. Each manufacturing license, standard design approval, and design certification application under part 52 of this chapter and each combined license for a utilization facility is subject to the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standards requirement for Quality Group C components.</I> For a nuclear power plant whose application for a construction permit under this part, or a combined license or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, docketed after May 14, 1984, or for an application for a standard design approval or a standard design certification docketed after May 14, 1984, components classified Quality Group C 
<SU>7</SU> must meet the requirements for Class 3 components in Section III of the ASME BPV Code.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quality Group C applicable Code and Code Cases and conditions on their use.</I> The Code edition, addenda, and optional ASME Code Cases to be applied to the systems and components identified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section must be determined by the rules of paragraph NCA-1140, subsection NCA of Section III of the ASME BPV Code, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Quality Group C condition: Code edition and addenda.</I> The edition and addenda must be those incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Quality Group C condition: Earliest edition and addenda for components.</I> The ASME Code provisions applied to the systems and components may be dated no earlier than the 1980 Edition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Quality Group C condition: Use of Code Cases.</I> The optional Code Cases must be those listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Preservice and inservice testing requirements.</I> Systems and components of boiling and pressurized water-cooled nuclear power reactors must meet the requirements for preservice and inservice testing (referred to in this paragraph (f) collectively as inservice testing) of the ASME BPV Code and ASME OM Code as specified in this paragraph (f). Each operating license for a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear facility is subject to the following conditions. Each combined license for a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear facility is subject to the following conditions, but the conditions in paragraphs (f)(4) through (6) of this section must be met only after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter. Requirements for inservice inspection of Class 1, Class 2, Class 3, Class MC, and Class CC components (including their supports) are located in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Inservice testing requirements for older plants (pre-1971 CPs).</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility whose construction permit was issued prior to January 1, 1971, pumps and valves must meet the test requirements of paragraphs (f)(4) and (5) of this section to the extent practical. Pumps and valves that are part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary must meet the requirements applicable to components that are classified as ASME Code Class 1. Other pumps and valves that perform a function to shut down the reactor or maintain the reactor in a safe shutdown condition, mitigate the consequences of an accident, or provide overpressure protection for safety-related systems (in meeting the requirements of the 1986 Edition, or later, of the BPV or OM Code) must meet the test requirements applicable to components that are classified as ASME Code Class 2 or Class 3.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design and accessibility requirements for performing inservice testing in plants with CPs issued between 1971 and 1974.</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility whose construction permit was issued on or after January 1, 1971, but before July 1, 1974, pumps and valves that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1 and Class 2 must be designed and provided with access to enable the performance of inservice tests for operational readiness set forth in editions and addenda of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section (or the optional ASME Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) in effect 6 months before the date of issuance of the construction permit. The pumps and valves may meet the inservice test requirements set forth in subsequent editions of this Code and addenda that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section (or the optional ASME Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), subject to the applicable conditions listed therein.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design and accessibility requirements for performing inservice testing in plants with CPs issued after 1974.</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility whose construction permit under this part or design approval, design certification, combined license, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter was issued on or after July 1, 1974:
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>IST design and accessibility requirements: Class 1 pumps and valves</I>—(A) <I>Class 1 pumps and valves: First provision.</I> In facilities whose construction permit was issued before November 22, 1999, pumps and valves that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1 must be designed and provided with access to enable the performance of inservice testing of the pumps and valves for assessing operational readiness set forth in the editions and addenda of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section (or the optional ASME Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) applied to the construction of the particular pump or valve or the summer 1973 Addenda, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Class 1 pumps and valves: Second provision.</I> In facilities whose construction permit under this part, or design certification, design approval, combined license, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, issued on or after November 22, 1999, pumps and valves that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1 must be designed and provided with access to enable the performance of inservice testing of the pumps and valves for assessing operational readiness set forth in editions and addenda of the ASME OM Code (or the optional ASME OM Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section at the time the construction permit, combined license, manufacturing license, design certification, or design approval is issued.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>IST design and accessibility requirements: Class 2 and 3 pumps and valves.</I>—(A) <I>Class 2 and 3 pumps and valves: First provision.</I> In facilities whose construction permit was issued before November 22, 1999, pumps and valves that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 2 and Class 3 must be designed and be provided with access to enable the performance of inservice testing of the pumps and valves for assessing operational readiness set forth in the editions and addenda of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section (or the optional ASME BPV Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) applied to the construction of the particular pump or valve or the Summer 1973 Addenda, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Class 2 and 3 pumps and valves: Second provision.</I> In facilities whose construction permit under this part, or design certification, design approval, combined license, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, issued on or after November 22, 1999, pumps and valves that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 2 and 3 must be designed and provided with access to enable the performance of inservice testing of the pumps and valves for assessing operational readiness set forth in editions and addenda of the ASME OM Code (or the optional ASME OM Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section at the time the construction permit, combined license, or design certification is issued.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>IST design and accessibility requirements: Meeting later IST requirements.</I> All pumps and valves may meet the test requirements set forth in subsequent editions of codes and addenda or portions thereof that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Inservice testing standards requirement for operating plants.</I> Throughout the service life of a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility, pumps and valves that are within the scope of the ASME OM Code must meet the inservice test requirements (except design and access provisions) set forth in the ASME OM Code and addenda that become effective subsequent to editions and addenda specified in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section and that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section, to the extent practical within the limitations of design, geometry, and materials of construction of the components. The inservice test requirements for pumps and valves that are within the scope of the ASME OM Code but are not classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1, Class 2, or Class 3 may be satisfied as an augmented IST program. This use of an augmented IST program is acceptable without prior NRC approval provided the basis for deviations from the ASME OM Code, as incorporated by reference in this section, demonstrates an acceptable level of quality and safety, or that implementing the Code provisions would result in hardship or unusual difficulty without a compensating increase in the level of quality and safety, where documented and available for NRC review. When using the 2006 Addenda or later of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, the inservice examination, testing, and service life monitoring requirements for dynamic restraints (snubbers) must meet the requirements set forth in the applicable ASME OM Code as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(v)(B) of this section. When using the 2005 Addenda or earlier edition or addenda of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, the inservice examination, testing, and service life monitoring requirements for dynamic restraints (snubbers) must meet the requirements set forth in either the applicable ASME OM Code or ASME BPV Code, Section XI as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicable IST Code: Initial code of record interval.</I> Inservice tests to verify operational readiness of pumps and valves, whose function is required for safety, conducted during the initial code of record interval must comply with the requirements in the latest edition and addenda of the ASME OM Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section on the date no more than 18 months before the date of issuance of the operating license under this part, or no more than 18 months before the date scheduled for initial loading of fuel under a combined license under part 52 of this chapter (or the optional ASME OM Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Applicable IST Code: Successive code of record intervals.</I> Inservice tests to verify operational readiness of pumps and valves, whose function is required for safety, conducted during successive code of record intervals must comply with the requirements of the latest edition and addenda of the ASME OM Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section no more than18 months before the start of the code of record interval (or the optional ASME Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Applicable IST Code: Use of later Code editions and addenda.</I> Inservice tests of pumps and valves may meet the requirements set forth in subsequent editions and addenda that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section, subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section, and subject to NRC approval. Portions of editions or addenda may be used, provided that all related requirements of the respective editions or addenda are met. NRC approval is not required when updating the IST code of record before the start of an IST interval in which the updated IST code of record will be used and when using the latest edition incorporated by reference in (a)(1)(iv) of this section in its entirety, subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section (or the optional ASME Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section).










</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requirements for updating IST programs</I>—(i) <I>IST program update: Applicable IST Code editions and addenda.</I> The inservice test program for a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility must be revised by the licensee, as necessary, to meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>IST program update: Conflicting IST Code requirements with technical specifications.</I> If a revised inservice test program for a facility conflicts with the technical specifications for the facility, the licensee must apply to the Commission for amendment of the technical specifications to conform the technical specifications to the revised program. The licensee must submit this application, as specified in § 50.4, at least 6 months before the start of the period during which the provisions become applicable, as determined by paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>IST program update: Notification of impractical IST Code requirements.</I> If the licensee has determined that conformance with certain Code requirements is impractical for its facility, the licensee must notify the Commission and submit, as specified in § 50.4, information to support the determination.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>IST program update: Schedule for completing impracticality determinations.</I> Where a pump or valve test requirement by the Code or addenda is determined to be impractical by the licensee and is not included in the revised inservice test program (as permitted by paragraph (f)(4) of this section), the basis for this determination must be submitted for NRC review and approval not later than 12 months after the expiration of the initial inservice examination and test interval from the start of facility commercial operation and each subsequent inservice examination and test interval during which the test is determined to be impractical.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Actions by the Commission for evaluating impractical and augmented IST Code requirements</I>—(i) <I>Impractical IST requirements: Granting of relief.</I> The Commission will evaluate determinations under paragraph (f)(5) of this section that code requirements are impractical. The Commission may grant relief and may impose such alternative requirements as it determines are authorized by law, will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest, giving due consideration to the burden upon the licensee that could result if the requirements were imposed on the facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Augmented IST requirements.</I> The Commission may require the licensee to follow an augmented inservice test program for pumps and valves for which the Commission deems that added assurance of operational readiness is necessary.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Inservice testing reporting requirements.</I> Inservice Testing Program Test and Examination Plans (IST Plans) for pumps, valves, and dynamic restraints (snubbers) prepared to meet the requirements of the ASME OM Code must be submitted to the NRC as specified in § 50.4. IST Plans must be submitted within 90 days of their implementation for the applicable inservice examination and test interval. Electronic submission is preferred.








</P>
<P>(g) <I>Preservice and inservice inspection requirements.</I> Systems and components of boiling and pressurized water-cooled nuclear power reactors must meet the requirements of the ASME BPV Code as specified in this paragraph. Each operating license for a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear facility is subject to the following conditions. Each combined license for a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear facility is subject to the following conditions, but the conditions in paragraphs (g)(4) through (6) of this section must be met only after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter. Requirements for inservice testing of Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 pumps and valves are located in paragraph (f) of this section.</P>
<P>(1) <I>Inservice inspection requirements for older plants (pre-1971 CPs).</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility whose construction permit was issued before January 1, 1971, components (including supports) must meet the requirements of paragraphs (g)(4) and (g)(5) of this section to the extent practical. Components that are part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary and their supports must meet the requirements applicable to components that are classified as ASME Code Class 1. Other safety-related pressure vessels, piping, pumps and valves, and their supports must meet the requirements applicable to components that are classified as ASME Code Class 2 or Class 3.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accessibility requirements</I>—(i) <I>Accessibility requirements for plants with CPs issued between 1971 and 1974.</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility whose construction permit was issued on or after January 1, 1971, but before July 1, 1974, components that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1 and Class 2 and supports for components that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1 and Class 2 must be designed and be provided with the access necessary to perform the required preservice and inservice examinations set forth in editions and addenda of Section III or Section XI of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section (or the optional ASME BPV Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) in effect 6 months before the date of issuance of the construction permit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Accessibility requirements for plants with CPs issued after 1974.</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility, whose construction permit under this part, or design certification, design approval, combined license, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, was issued on or after July 1, 1974, components that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 and supports for components that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 must be designed and provided with the access necessary to perform the required preservice and inservice examinations set forth in editions and addenda of Section III or Section XI of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section (or the optional ASME BPV Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) applied to the construction of the particular component.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Accessibility requirements: Meeting later Code requirements.</I> All components (including supports) may meet the requirements set forth in subsequent editions of codes and addenda or portions thereof that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, subject to the conditions listed therein.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Preservice examination requirements</I>—(i) <I>Preservice examination requirements for plants with CPs issued between 1971 and 1974.</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility whose construction permit was issued on or after January 1, 1971, but before July 1, 1974, components that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1 and Class 2 and supports for components that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1 and Class 2 must meet the preservice examination requirements set forth in editions and addenda of Section III or Section XI of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section (or the optional ASME BPV Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) in effect 6 months before the date of issuance of the construction permit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preservice examination requirements for plants with CPs issued after 1974.</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility, whose construction permit under this part, or design certification, design approval, combined license, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, was issued on or after July 1, 1974, components that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 and supports for components that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 must meet the preservice examination requirements set forth in the editions and addenda of Section III or Section XI of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1) of this section (or the optional ASME BPV Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) applied to the construction of the particular component.
</P>
<P>(iii)-(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Preservice examination requirements: Meeting later Code requirements.</I> All components (including supports) may meet the requirements set forth in subsequent editions of codes and addenda or portions thereof that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, subject to the conditions listed therein.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Inservice inspection standards requirement for operating plants.</I> Throughout the service life of a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility, components (including supports) that are classified as ASME BPV Code Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 must meet the requirements, except design and access provisions and preservice examination requirements, set forth in Section XI of editions and addenda of the ASME BPV Code that become effective subsequent to editions specified in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section and that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) or (iv) of this section for snubber examination and testing of this section, to the extent practical within the limitations of design, geometry, and materials of construction of the components. Components that are classified as Class MC pressure retaining components and their integral attachments, and components that are classified as Class CC pressure retaining components and their integral attachments, must meet the requirements, except design and access provisions and preservice examination requirements, set forth in Section XI of the ASME BPV Code and addenda that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section subject to the condition listed in paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section and the conditions listed in paragraphs (b)(2)(viii) and (ix) of this section, to the extent practical within the limitation of design, geometry, and materials of construction of the components. When using the 2006 Addenda or later of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, the inservice examination, testing, and service life monitoring requirements for dynamic restraints (snubbers) must meet the requirements set forth in the applicable ASME OM Code as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(v)(B) of this section. When using the 2005 Addenda or earlier edition or addenda of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, the inservice examination, testing, and service life monitoring requirements for dynamic restraints (snubbers) must meet the requirements set forth in either the applicable ASME OM Code or ASME BPV Code, Section XI as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicable ISI Code: Initial code of record interval.</I> Inservice examination of components and system pressure tests conducted during the initial code of record interval must comply with the requirements in the latest edition and addenda of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section on the date no more than 18 months before the date of issuance of the operating license under this part, or no more than 18 months before the date scheduled for initial loading of fuel under a combined license under part 52 of this chapter (or the optional ASME Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Licensees may, at any time in their code of record interval, elect to use the Appendix VIII in the latest edition and addenda of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, subject to any applicable conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Licensees using this option must also use the same edition and addenda of Appendix I, Subarticle I-3200, as Appendix VIII, including any applicable conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Applicable ISI Code: Successive code of record intervals.</I> Inservice examination of components and system pressure tests conducted during successive code of record intervals must comply with the requirements of the latest edition and addenda of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section no more than 18 months before the start of the code of record interval (or the optional ASME Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section. However, a licensee whose inservice inspection interval commences during the 12 through 18-month period after September 30, 2024, may delay the update of their Appendix VIII program by up to 18 months after September 30, 2024. Alternatively, licensees may, at any time in their code of record interval, elect to use the Appendix VIII in the latest edition and addenda of the ASME BPV Code incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, subject to any applicable conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Licensees using this option must also use the same edition and addenda of Appendix I, Subarticle I-3200, as Appendix VIII, including any applicable conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Applicable ISI Code: Optional surface examination requirement.</I> When applying editions and addenda prior to the 2003 Addenda of Section XI of the ASME BPV Code, licensees may, but are not required to, perform the surface examinations of high-pressure safety injection systems specified in Table IWB-2500-1, Examination Category B-J, Item Numbers B9.20, B9.21, and B9.22.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Applicable ISI Code: Use of subsequent Code editions and addenda.</I> Inservice examination of components and system pressure tests may meet the requirements set forth in subsequent editions and addenda that are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section, and subject to Commission approval. Portions of editions or addenda may be used, provided that all related requirements of the respective editions or addenda are met. NRC approval is not required when updating the ISI code of record before the start of an ISI interval in which the updated ISI code of record will be used and when using the latest edition incorporated by reference in (a)(1)(iv) of this section in its entirety, subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section (or the optional ASME Code Cases listed in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Applicable ISI Code: Metal and concrete containments.</I> For a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility whose construction permit under this part or combined license under part 52 of this chapter was issued after January 1, 1956, the following are required:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Metal and concrete containments: First provision.</I> Metal containment pressure retaining components and their integral attachments must meet the inservice inspection, repair, and replacement requirements applicable to components that are classified as ASME Code Class MC;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Metal and concrete containments: Second provision.</I> Metallic shell and penetration liners that are pressure retaining components and their integral attachments in concrete containments must meet the inservice inspection, repair, and replacement requirements applicable to components that are classified as ASME Code Class MC; and
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Metal and concrete containments: Third provision.</I> Concrete containment pressure retaining components and their integral attachments, and the post-tensioning systems of concrete containments, must meet the inservice inspections, repair, and replacement requirements applicable to components that are classified as ASME Code Class CC.


</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requirements for updating ISI programs</I>—(i) <I>ISI program update: Applicable ISI code of record.</I> The inservice inspection program for a boiling or pressurized water-cooled nuclear power facility must be revised by the licensee, as necessary, to meet the requirements of paragraph (g)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>ISI program update: Conflicting ISI Code requirements with technical specifications.</I> If a revised inservice inspection program for a facility conflicts with the technical specifications for the facility, the licensee must apply to the Commission for amendment of the technical specifications to conform the technical specifications to the revised program. The licensee must submit this application, as specified in § 50.4, at least six months before the start of the code of record interval during which the provisions become applicable, as determined by paragraph (g)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>ISI program update: Notification of impractical ISI Code requirements.</I> If the licensee has determined that conformance with a Code requirement is impractical for its facility the licensee must notify the NRC and submit, as specified in § 50.4, information to support the determinations. Determinations of impracticality in accordance with this section must be based on the demonstrated limitations experienced when attempting to comply with the Code requirements during the inservice inspection interval for which the request is being submitted. Requests for relief made in accordance with this section must be submitted to the NRC no later than 12 months after the expiration of the initial or subsequent inservice inspection interval for which relief is sought.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>ISI program update: Schedule for completing impracticality determinations.</I> Where the licensee determines that an examination required by Code edition or addenda is impractical, the basis for this determination must be submitted for NRC review and approval not later than 12 months after the expiration of the initial or subsequent inservice inspection interval for which relief is sought.


</P>
<P>(6) <I>Actions by the Commission for evaluating impractical and augmented ISI Code requirements</I>—(i) <I>Impractical ISI requirements: Granting of relief.</I> The Commission will evaluate determinations under paragraph (g)(5) of this section that code requirements are impractical. The Commission may grant such relief and may impose such alternative requirements as it determines are authorized by law, will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest giving due consideration to the burden upon the licensee that could result if the requirements were imposed on the facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Augmented ISI program.</I> The Commission may require the licensee to follow an augmented inservice inspection program for systems and components for which the Commission deems that added assurance of structural reliability is necessary.
</P>
<P>(A) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Augmented ISI requirements: Submitting containment ISI programs.</I> Licensees do not have to submit to the NRC for approval of their containment inservice inspection programs that were developed to satisfy the requirements of Subsection IWE and Subsection IWL with specified conditions. The program elements and the required documentation must be maintained on site for audit.
</P>
<P>(C) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Augmented ISI requirements: Reactor vessel head inspections</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Implementation.</I> Holders of operating licenses or combined licenses for pressurized-water reactors as of or after June 3, 2020 shall implement the requirements of ASME BPV Code Case N-729-6 instead of ASME BPV Code Case N-729-4, subject to the conditions specified in paragraphs (g)(6)(ii)(D)(<I>2</I>) through (<I>8</I>) of this section, by no later than one year after June 3, 2020. All previous NRC-approved alternatives from the requirements of paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(D) of this section remain valid.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Appendix I use.</I> If Appendix I is used, Section I-3000 must be implemented to define an alternative examination area or volume.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Bare metal visual frequency.</I> Instead of Note 4 of ASME BPV Code Case N-729-6, the following shall be implemented. If effective degradation years (EDY) &lt; 8 and if no flaws are found that are attributed to primary water stress corrosion cracking:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A bare metal visual examination is not required during refueling outages when a volumetric or surface examination is performed; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If a wetted surface examination has been performed of all of the partial penetration welds during the previous non-visual examination, the reexamination frequency may be extended to every third refueling outage or 5 calendar years, whichever is less, provided an IWA-2212 VT-2 visual examination of the head is performed under the insulation through multiple access points in outages that the VE is not completed. This IWA-2212 VT-2 visual examination may be performed with the reactor vessel depressurized.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Surface exam acceptance criteria.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph 3132.1(b) of ASME BPV Code Case N-729-6, a component whose surface examination detects rounded indications greater than allowed in paragraph NB-5352 in size on the partial-penetration or associated fillet weld shall be classified as having an unacceptable indication and corrected in accordance with the provisions of paragraph 3132.2 of ASME BPV Code Case N-729-6.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Peening.</I> In lieu of inspection requirements of Table 1, Items B4.50 and B4.60, and all other requirements in ASME BPV Code Case N-729-6 pertaining to peening, in order for a RPV upper head with nozzles and associated J-groove welds mitigated by peening to obtain examination relief from the requirements of Table 1 for unmitigated heads, peening must meet the performance criteria, qualification, and examination requirements stated in MRP-335, Revision 3-A, with the exception that a plant-specific alternative request is not required and NRC condition 5.4 of MRP-335, Revision 3-A does not apply.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Baseline Examinations.</I> In lieu of the requirements for Note 7(c) the baseline volumetric and surface examination for plants with a RPV Head with less than 8 EDY shall be performed by 2.25 reinspection years (RIY) after initial startup not to exceed 8 years.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Sister Plants.</I> Note 10 of ASME BPV Code Case N-729-6 shall not be implemented without prior NRC approval.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Volumetric Leak Path.</I> In lieu of paragraph 3200(b) requirement for a surface examination of the partial penetration weld, a volumetric leak path assessment of the nozzle may be performed in accordance with Note 6 of Table 1 of N-729-6.


</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) <I>Volumetric Qualifications.</I> Volumetric examinations of Table 1 of ASME Code Case N-729-6 may be qualified in accordance with Section XI, Division 1, Mandatory Appendix VIII, Supplement 15, in the 2021 Edition, in lieu of subparagraphs (a) through (j) of 2500 of ASME Code Case N-729-6.










</P>
<P>(E) <I>Augmented ISI requirements: Reactor coolant pressure boundary visual inspections</I> 
<SU>5</SU>—(<I>1</I>) All licensees of pressurized water reactors must augment their inservice inspection program by implementing ASME Code Case N-722-1, subject to the conditions specified in paragraphs (g)(6)(ii)(E)(<I>2</I>) through (<I>4</I>) of this section. The inspection requirements of ASME Code Case N-722-1 do not apply to components with pressure retaining welds fabricated with Alloy 600/82/182 materials that have been mitigated by weld overlay or stress improvement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a visual examination determines that leakage is occurring from a specific item listed in Table 1 of ASME Code Case N-722-1 that is not exempted by the ASME Code, Section XI, IWB-1220(b)(1), additional actions must be performed to characterize the location, orientation, and length of a crack or cracks in Alloy 600 nozzle wrought material and location, orientation, and length of a crack or cracks in Alloy 82/182 butt welds. Alternatively, licensees may replace the Alloy 600/82/182 materials in all the components under the item number of the leaking component.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the actions in paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(E)(<I>2</I>) of this section determine that a flaw is circumferentially oriented and potentially a result of primary water stress corrosion cracking, licensees must perform non-visual NDE inspections of components that fall under that ASME Code Case N-722-1 item number. The number of components inspected must equal or exceed the number of components found to be leaking under that item number. If circumferential cracking is identified in the sample, non-visual NDE must be performed in the remaining components under that item number.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) If ultrasonic examinations of butt welds are used to meet the NDE requirements in paragraphs (g)(6)(ii)(E)(<I>2</I>) or (<I>3</I>) of this section, they must be performed using the appropriate supplement of Section XI, Appendix VIII, of the ASME BPV Code.


</P>
<P>(F) <I>Augmented ISI requirements: Examination requirements for Class 1 piping and nozzle dissimilar-metal butt welds</I>—

(<I>1</I>) <I>Implementation.</I> Holders of operating licenses or combined licenses for pressurized water reactors as of or after September 30, 2024, shall implement the requirements of ASME BPV Code Case N-770-7 instead of ASME BPV Code Case N-770-5, subject to the conditions specified in paragraphs (g)(6)(ii)(F)(<I>2</I>) through (<I>16</I>) of this section, by no later than one year after September 30, 2024. All NRC authorized alternatives from previous versions of paragraph (g)(6)(ii)(F) of this section remain applicable.


</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Categorization.</I> (<I>i</I>) Welds that have been mitigated by the Mechanical Stress Improvement Process (MSIP
<SU>TM</SU>) may be categorized as Inspection Items D or E, as appropriate, provided the criteria in Appendix I of the code case have been met.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) In order to be categorized as peened welds, in lieu of inspection category L requirements and examinations, welds must meet the performance criteria, qualification and examination requirements as stated by MRP-335, Revision 3-A, with the exception that no plant-specific alternative is required.
</P>
<P><I>(iii)</I> Other mitigated welds shall be identified as the appropriate inspection item of the NRC authorized alternative or NRC-approved code case for the mitigation type in the appropriate NRC regulatory guides, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.


</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) All other butt welds that rely on Alloy 82/182 for structural integrity shall be categorized as Inspection Items A-1, A-2, B-1 or B-2, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Paragraph -1100(e) of ASME BPV Code Case N-770-5 shall not be used to exempt welds that rely on Alloy 82/182 for structural integrity from any requirement of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Examination coverage.</I> When implementing Paragraph -2500(a) of ASME BPV Code Case N-770-5, essentially 100 percent of the required volumetric examination coverage shall be obtained, including greater than 90 percent of the volumetric examination coverage for circumferential flaws. Licensees are prohibited from using Paragraphs -2500(c) and -2500(d) of ASME BPV Code Case N-770-5 to meet examination requirements.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Inlay/onlay inspection frequency.</I> All hot-leg operating temperature welds in Inspection Items G, H, J, and K shall be inspected each inspection interval. A 25 percent sample of Inspection Items G, H, J, and K cold-leg operating temperature welds shall be inspected whenever the core barrel is removed (unless it has already been inspected within the past 10 years) or within 20 years, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> The licensee will promptly notify the NRC regarding any volumetric examination of a mitigated weld that detects growth of existing flaws in the required examination volume that exceed the previous IWB-3600 flaw evaluations, new flaws, or any indication in the weld overlay or excavate and weld repair material characterized as stress corrosion cracking. Additionally, the licensee will submit to the NRC a report summarizing the evaluation, along with inputs, methodologies, assumptions, and causes of the new flaw or flaw growth within 30 days following plant startup.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Defining “t”.</I> For Inspection Items G, H, J, and K, when applying the acceptance standards of ASME BPV Code, Section XI, IWB-3514, for planar flaws contained within the inlay or onlay, the thickness “t” in IWB-3514 is the thickness of the inlay or onlay. For planar flaws in the balance of the dissimilar metal weld examination volume, the thickness “t” in IWB-3514 is the combined thickness of the inlay or onlay and the dissimilar metal weld.


</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) <I>Optimized weld overlay examination.</I> Following initial inservice volumetric inspection for Inspection Items C-2 and F-2 of Table 1 of ASME Code Case N-770-7, for weld overlay examination volumes that show no indication of crack growth or new cracking, in lieu of sample population, 100 percent of these optimized weld overlayed welds shall be added to the ISI program in accordance with -2410 of ASME Code Case N-770-7 and shall be examined once each inspection interval.


</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) <I>Deferrals.</I> (<I>i</I>) The initial inservice volumetric examination of optimized weld overlays, Inspection Item C-2, shall not be deferred.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Volumetric inspection of peened dissimilar metal butt welds shall not be deferred.
</P>
<P><I>(iii</I>) For Inspection Item M-2, N-1 and N-2 welds, the second required inservice volumetric examination shall not be deferred.
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) <I>Examination technique.</I> Note 14(b) of Table 1 and Note (b) of Figure 5(a) of ASME BPV Code Case N-770-5 may only be implemented if the requirements of Note 14(a) of Table 1 of ASME BPV Code Case N-770-5 cannot be met.
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) <I>Stress improvement inspection coverage.</I> Under Paragraph I.5.1, for cast stainless steel items, the required examination volume shall be examined by Appendix VIII procedures to the maximum extent practical including 100 percent of the susceptible material volume.
</P>
<P>(<I>13</I>) <I>Encoded ultrasonic examination.</I> Ultrasonic examinations of non-mitigated or cracked mitigated dissimilar metal butt welds in the reactor coolant pressure boundary must be performed in accordance with the requirements of Table 1 for Inspection Item A-1, A-2, B-1, B-2, E, F-2, J, K, N-1, N-2 and O. Essentially 100 percent of the required inspection volume shall be examined using an encoded method.
</P>
<P>(<I>14</I>) <I>Excavate and weld repair cold leg.</I> For cold leg temperature M-2, N-1 and N-2 welds, initial volumetric inspection after application of an excavate and weld repair (EWR) shall be performed during the second refueling outage.
</P>
<P>(<I>15</I>) <I>Cracked excavate and weld repair.</I> In lieu of the examination requirements for cracked welds with 360 excavate and weld repairs, Inspection Item N-1 of Table 1, welds shall be examined during the first or second refueling outage following EWR. Examination volumes that show no indication of crack growth or new cracking shall be examined once each inspection interval thereafter.
</P>
<P>(<I>16</I>) <I>Partial arc excavate and weld repair.</I> Inspection Item O cannot be used without NRC review and approval.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protection and safety systems.</I> Protection systems of nuclear power reactors of all types must meet the requirements specified in this paragraph. Each combined license for a utilization facility is subject to the following conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection systems.</I> For nuclear power plants with construction permits issued after January 1, 1971, but before May 13, 1999, protection systems must meet the requirements in IEEE Std 279-1968, “Proposed IEEE Criteria for Nuclear Power Plant Protection Systems,” or the requirements in IEEE Std 279-1971, “Criteria for Protection Systems for Nuclear Power Generating Stations,” or the requirements in IEEE Std 603-1991, “Criteria for Safety Systems for Nuclear Power Generating Stations,” and the correction sheet dated January 30, 1995. For nuclear power plants with construction permits issued before January 1, 1971, protection systems must be consistent with their licensing basis or may meet the requirements of IEEE Std. 603-1991 and the correction sheet dated January 30, 1995.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safety systems.</I> Applications filed on or after May 13, 1999, for construction permits and operating licenses under this part, and for design approvals, design certifications, and combined licenses under part 52 of this chapter, must meet the requirements for safety systems in IEEE Std. 603-1991 and the correction sheet dated January 30, 1995.
</P>
<P>(i)-(x) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Code of record interval</I> means the period of time between the code of record updates required by paragraphs (f)(4) and (g)(4) of this section for the inservice examination and test programs and inservice inspection programs, respectively.
</P>
<P>(1) For licensees with codes of record prior to ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2017 Edition, and OM Code, 2017 Edition, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, the code of record interval is the same as the inservice inspection interval or inservice examination and test interval.
</P>
<P>(2) For licensees with codes of record of ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2017 Edition and OM Code, 2017 Edition, or later, as incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section, the code of record interval is two consecutive inservice inspection or inservice examination and test intervals.
</P>
<P><I>Inservice examination and test (IST) code of record</I> means the specific edition(s) and addenda of the ASME OM Code required by (f)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section, subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section, and applicable NRC endorsed code cases, for inservice test to verify operational readiness of pumps, valves, and dynamic restraints, whose function is required for safety.
</P>
<P><I>Inservice examination and test (IST) interval</I> means the inservice examination and test interval described by the licensee's code of record (paragraph ISTA-3120 of the ASME OM Code, 2001 Edition through 2009 Edition, or paragraph ISTA-3120 of the ASME OM Code, 2012 Edition and later).
</P>
<P><I>Inservice examination and testing (IST) program</I> means the requirements for preservice and inservice examination and testing of pumps, valves, and dynamic restraints within the scope of this section to assess their operational readiness in nuclear power plants, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements specified in the ASME OM Code, as incorporated by reference in this section, such as for test or examination, responsibilities, methods, intervals, parameters to be measured and evaluated, criteria for evaluating the results, corrective action, personnel qualification, and recordkeeping.
</P>
<P>(2) Relief requested under paragraph (f)(5)(iii) of this section and granted under paragraph (f)(6)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Augmented IST requirements as applied by the Commission under paragraph (f)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Alternatives authorized under paragraph (z) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Inservice inspection (ISI) code of record</I> means the specific edition(s) and addenda of the ASME BPV Code, Section XI, required by paragraphs (g)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section, subject to the conditions listed in paragraph (b) of this section, and applicable NRC endorsed code cases, for the inservice examination of components and system pressure tests.
</P>
<P><I>Inservice inspection (ISI) interval</I> means the inservice inspection interval described in Article IWA-2432 of ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 1989 Edition with 1991 Addenda through the 2008 Addenda, or Article IWA-2431 of ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 2009 Addenda and later.
</P>
<P><I>Inservice inspection (ISI) program</I> means the set of all administrative and technical requirements pertaining to periodic examination of nuclear components, as specified in ASME BPV Code, Section XI, and this section, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of IWA-2400 of ASME BPV Code, Section XI, 1991 Addenda and later.
</P>
<P>(2) Relief requested under paragraph (g)(5)(iii) of this section and granted under paragraph (g)(6)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The augmented inspection program described in paragraph (g)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Alternatives authorized under paragraph (z) of this section.


</P>
<P>(z) <I>Alternatives to codes and standards requirements.</I> Alternatives to the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section or portions thereof may be used when authorized by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. A proposed alternative must be submitted and authorized prior to implementation. The applicant or licensee must demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Acceptable level of quality and safety.</I> The proposed alternative would provide an acceptable level of quality and safety; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hardship without a compensating increase in quality and safety.</I> Compliance with the specified requirements of this section would result in hardship or unusual difficulty without a compensating increase in the level of quality and safety. Footnotes to § 50.55a:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> USAS and ASME Code addenda issued prior to the winter 1977 Addenda are considered to be “in effect” or “effective” 6 months after their date of issuance and after they are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section. Addenda to the ASME Code issued after the summer 1977 Addenda are considered to be “in effect” or “effective” after the date of publication of the addenda and after they are incorporated by reference in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P><E T="51">2-3</E> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> For ASME Code editions and addenda issued prior to the winter 1977 Addenda, the Code edition and addenda applicable to the component is governed by the order or contract date for the component, not the contract date for the nuclear energy system. For the winter 1977 Addenda and subsequent editions and addenda the method for determining the applicable Code editions and addenda is contained in Paragraph NCA 1140 of Section III of the ASME Code.
</P>
<P><E T="51">5-6</E> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Guidance for quality group classifications of components that are to be included in the safety analysis reports pursuant to § 50.34(a) and § 50.34(b) may be found in Regulatory Guide 1.26, “Quality Group Classifications and Standards for Water-, Steam-, and Radiological-Waste-Containing Components of Nuclear Power Plants,” and in Section 3.2.2 of NUREG-0800, “Standard Review Plan for Review of Safety Analysis Reports for Nuclear Power Plants.”
</P>
<P><E T="51">8-9</E> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> For inspections to be conducted once per interval, the inspections must be performed in accordance with the schedule in Section XI, paragraph IWB-2400, except for plants with inservice inspection programs based on a Section XI edition or addenda prior to the 1994 Addenda. For plants with inservice inspection programs based on a Section XI edition or addenda prior to the 1994 Addenda, the inspection must be performed in accordance with the schedule in Section XI, paragraph IWB-2400, of the 1994 Addenda.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 65798, Nov. 5, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 66603, Nov. 10, 2014; 79 FR 73462, Dec. 11, 2014; 82 FR 52825, Dec. 15, 2017; 83 FR 2354, Jan. 17, 2018; 83 FR 2526, Jan. 18, 2018; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019; 85 FR 14756, Mar. 16, 2020; 85 FR 26576, May 4, 2020; 85 FR 34088, June 3, 2020; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020; 87 FR 11949, Mar. 3, 2022; 87 FR 65148, Oct. 27, 2022; 87 FR 73633, Dec. 1, 2022; 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023; 89 FR 58055, July 17, 2024; 89 FR 60795, July 29, 2024; 89 FR 70467, Aug. 30, 2024; 91 FR 46326, Jan. 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.56" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.56   Conversion of construction permit to license; or amendment of license.</HEAD>
<P>Upon completion of the construction or alteration of a facility, in compliance with the terms and conditions of the construction permit and subject to any necessary testing of the facility for health or safety purposes, the Commission will, in the absence of good cause shown to the contrary, issue a license of the class for which the construction permit was issued or an appropriate amendment of the license, as the case may be.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 35 FR 11461, July 17, 1970; 75 FR 73944, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.57" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.57   Issuance of operating license. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Commission may issue a provisional operating license pursuant to the regulations in this part in effect on March 30, 1970, for any facility for which a notice of hearing on an application for a provisional operating license or a notice of proposed issuance of a provisional operating license has been published on or before that date.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a)Pursuant to § 50.56, an operating license may be issued by the Commission, up to the full term authorized by § 50.51, upon finding that:
</P>
<P>(1) Construction of the facility has been substantially completed, in conformity with the construction permit and the application as amended, the provisions of the Act, and the rules and regulations of the Commission; and
</P>
<P>(2) The facility will operate in conformity with the application as amended, the provisions of the Act, and the rules and regulations of the Commission; and
</P>
<P>(3) There is reasonable assurance (i) that the activities authorized by the operating license can be conducted without endangering the health and safety of the public, and (ii) that such activities will be conducted in compliance with the regulations in this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant is technically and financially qualified to engage in the activities authorized by the operating license in accordance with the regulations in this chapter. However, no finding of financial qualification is necessary for an electric utility applicant for an operating license for a utilization facility of the type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22.
</P>
<P>(5) The applicable provisions of part 140 of this chapter have been satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(6) The issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>(b) Each operating license will include appropriate provisions with respect to any uncompleted items of construction and such limitations or conditions as are required to assure that operation during the period of the completion of such items will not endanger public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant may, in a case where a hearing is held in connection with a pending proceeding under this section make a motion in writing, under this paragraph (c), for an operating license authorizing low-power testing (operation at not more than 1 percent of full power for the purpose of testing the facility), and further operations short of full power operation. Action on such a motion by the presiding officer shall be taken with due regard to the rights of the parties to the proceedings, including the right of any party to be heard to the extent that his contentions are relevant to the activity to be authorized. Before taking any action on such a motion that any party opposes, the presiding officer shall make findings on the matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section as to which there is a controversy, in the form of an initial decision with respect to the contested activity sought to be authorized. The Director of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will make findings on all other matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section. If no party opposes the motion, the presiding officer will issue an order in accordance with § 2.319(p) authorizing the Director of Nuclear Reactor Regulation to make appropriate findings on the matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section and to issue a license for the requested operation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 5318, Mar. 31, 1970, as amended at 35 FR 6644, Apr. 25, 1970; 37 FR 11873, June 15, 1972; 37 FR 15142, July 28, 1972; 49 FR 35753, Sept. 12, 1984; 51 FR 7765, Mar. 6, 1986; 69 FR 2275, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.58" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.58   Hearings and report of the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application for a construction permit or an operating license for a facility which is of a type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, or for a testing facility, shall be referred to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards for a review and report. An application for an amendment to such a construction permit or operating license may be referred to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards for review and report. Any report shall be made part of the record of the application and available to the public, except to the extent that security classification prevents disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Commission will hold a hearing after at least 30-days' notice and publication once in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on each application for a construction permit for a production or utilization facility which is of a type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, or for a testing facility.
</P>
<P>(2) When a construction permit has been issued for such a facility following the holding of a public hearing, and an application is made for an operating license or for an amendment to a construction permit or operating license, the Commission may hold a hearing after at least 30-days' notice and publication once in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or, in the absence of a request therefor by any person whose interest may be affected, may issue an operating license or an amendment to a construction permit or operating license without a hearing, upon 30-days' notice and publication once in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of its intent to do so.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Commission finds, in an emergency situation, as defined in § 50.91, that no significant hazards consideration is presented by an application for an amendment to an operating license, it may dispense with public notice and comment and may issue the amendment. If the Commission finds that exigent circumstances exist, as described in § 50.91, it may reduce the period provided for public notice and comment.
</P>
<P>(4) Both in an emergency situation and in the case of exigent circumstances, the Commission will provide 30 days notice of opportunity for a hearing, though this notice may be published after issuance of the amendment if the Commission determines that no significant hazards consideration is involved.
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission will use the standards in § 50.92 to determine whether a significant hazards consideration is presented by an amendment to an operating license for a facility of the type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, or which is a testing facility, and may make the amendment immediately effective, notwithstanding the pendency before it of a request for a hearing from any person, in advance of the holding and completion of any required hearing, where it has determined that no significant hazards consideration is involved.
</P>
<P>(6) No petition or other request for review of or hearing on the staff's significant hazards consideration determination will be entertained by the Commission. The staff's determination is final, subject only to the Commission's discretion, on its own initiative, to review the determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 12186, Dec. 8, 1962, as amended at 35 FR 11461, July 17, 1970; 39 FR 10555, Mar. 21, 1974; 51 FR 7765, Mar. 6, 1986]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.59" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.59   Changes, tests, and experiments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions for the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Change</I> means a modification or addition to, or removal from, the facility or procedures that affects a design function, method of performing or controlling the function, or an evaluation that demonstrates that intended functions will be accomplished.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the FSAR (as updated) used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Changing any of the elements of the method described in the FSAR (as updated) unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Changing from a method described in the FSAR to another method unless that method has been approved by NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facility as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The structures, systems, and components (SSC) that are described in the final safety analysis report (FSAR) (as updated),
</P>
<P>(ii) The design and performance requirements for such SSCs described in the FSAR (as updated), and
</P>
<P>(iii) The evaluations or methods of evaluation included in the FSAR (as updated) for such SSCs which demonstrate that their intended function(s) will be accomplished.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Final Safety Analysis Report (as updated)</I> means the Final Safety Analysis Report (or Final Hazards Summary Report) submitted in accordance with § 50.34, as amended and supplemented, and as updated per the requirements of § 50.71(e) or § 50.71(f), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Procedures as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated)</I> means those procedures that contain information described in the FSAR (as updated) such as how structures, systems, and components are operated and controlled (including assumed operator actions and response times).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tests or experiments not described in the final safety analysis report (as updated)</I> means any activity where any structure, system, or component is utilized or controlled in a manner which is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Outside the reference bounds of the design bases as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated) or
</P>
<P>(ii) Inconsistent with the analyses or descriptions in the final safety analysis report (as updated).


</P>
<P>(b) This section applies to each holder of an operating license issued under this part or a combined license issued under part 52 of this chapter, including the holder of a license authorizing the operation of a nuclear power reactor that has submitted the certification of permanent cessation of operations required under § 50.82(a)(1) or § 50.110, a reactor licensee whose license has been amended to allow possession of nuclear fuel but not operation of the facility, or a non-power production or utilization facility that has permanently ceased operations.








</P>
<P>(c)(1) A licensee may make changes in the facility as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated), make changes in the procedures as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated), and conduct tests or experiments not described in the final safety analysis report (as updated) without obtaining a license amendment pursuant to § 50.90 only if:
</P>
<P>(i) An amendment to the technical specifications incorporated in the license is not required, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The change, test, or experiment does not meet any of the criteria in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee shall obtain a license amendment pursuant to § 50.90 prior to implementing a proposed change, test, or experiment if the change, test, or experiment would:
</P>
<P>(i) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the final safety analysis report (as updated);
</P>
<P>(ii) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component (SSC) important to safety previously evaluated in the final safety analysis report (as updated);
</P>
<P>(iii) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the final safety analysis report (as updated);
</P>
<P>(iv) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of an SSC important to safety previously evaluated in the final safety analysis report (as updated);
</P>
<P>(v) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any previously evaluated in the final safety analysis report (as updated);
</P>
<P>(vi) Create a possibility for a malfunction of an SSC important to safety with a different result than any previously evaluated in the final safety analysis report (as updated);
</P>
<P>(vii) Result in a design basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the FSAR (as updated) being exceeded or altered; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the FSAR (as updated) used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.
</P>
<P>(3) In implementing this paragraph, the FSAR (as updated) is considered to include FSAR changes resulting from evaluations performed pursuant to this section and analyses performed pursuant to § 50.90 since submittal of the last update of the final safety analysis report pursuant to § 50.71 of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions in this section do not apply to changes to the facility or procedures when the applicable regulations establish more specific criteria for accomplishing such changes.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The licensee shall maintain records of changes in the facility, of changes in procedures, and of tests and experiments made pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. These records must include a written evaluation which provides the bases for the determination that the change, test, or experiment does not require a license amendment pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall submit, as specified in § 50.4 or § 52.3 of this chapter, as applicable, a report containing a brief description of any changes, tests, and experiments, including a summary of the evaluation of each. A report must be submitted at intervals not to exceed 24 months. For combined licenses, the report must be submitted at intervals not to exceed 6 months during the period from the date of application for a combined license to the date the Commission makes its findings under 10 CFR 52.103(g).
</P>
<P>(3) The records of changes in the facility must be maintained until the termination of an operating license issued under this part, a combined license issued under part 52 of this chapter, or the termination of a license issued under 10 CFR part 54, whichever is later. Records of changes in procedures and records of tests and experiments must be maintained for a period of 5 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53613, Oct. 4, 1999, as amended at 66 FR 64738, Dec. 14, 2001; 72 FR 49500, Aug. 28, 2007; 89 FR 57720, July 16, 2024; 89 FR 106251, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.60" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.60   Acceptance criteria for fracture prevention measures for lightwater nuclear power reactors for normal operation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, all light-water nuclear power reactors, other than reactor facilities for which the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) have been submitted, must meet the fracture toughness and material surveillance program requirements for the reactor coolant pressure boundary set forth in appendices G and H to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Proposed alternatives to the described requirements in Appendices G and H of this part or portions thereof may be used when an exemption is granted by the Commission under § 50.12.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 24009, May 27, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 50777, Dec. 12, 1985; 61 FR 39300, July 29, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.61" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.61   Fracture toughness requirements for protection against pressurized thermal shock events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>ASME Code</I> means the American Society of Mechanical Engineers Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section III, Division I, “Rules for the Construction of Nuclear Power Plant Components,” edition and addenda and any limitations and modifications thereof as specified in § 50.55a.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pressurized Thermal Shock Event</I> means an event or transient in pressurized water reactors (PWRs) causing severe overcooling (thermal shock) concurrent with or followed by significant pressure in the reactor vessel.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reactor Vessel Beltline</I> means the region of the reactor vessel (shell material including welds, heat affected zones and plates or forgings) that directly surrounds the effective height of the active core and adjacent regions of the reactor vessel that are predicted to experience sufficient neutron radiation damage to be considered in the selection of the most limiting material with regard to radiation damage.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>RT</I><E T="54">NDT</E> means the reference temperature for a reactor vessel material, under any conditions. For the reactor vessel beltline materials, RT<E T="52">NDT</E> must account for the effects of neutron radiation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>RT</I><E T="54">NDT(U)</E> means the reference temperature for a reactor vessel material in the pre-service or unirradiated condition, evaluated according to the procedures in the ASME Code, Paragraph NB-2331 or other methods approved by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>EOL Fluence</I> means the best-estimate neutron fluence projected for a specific vessel beltline material at the clad-base-metal interface on the inside surface of the vessel at the location where the material receives the highest fluence on the expiration date of the operating license.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>RT</I><E T="54">PTS</E> means the reference temperature, RT<E T="52">NDT</E>, evaluated for the EOL Fluence for each of the vessel beltline materials, using the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>PTS Screening Criterion</I> means the value of RT<E T="52">PTS</E> for the vessel beltline material above which the plant cannot continue to operate without justification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) For each pressurized water nuclear power reactor for which an operating license has been issued under this part or a combined license issued under Part 52 of this chapter, other than a nuclear power reactor facility for which the certification required under § 50.82(a)(1) has been submitted, the licensee shall have projected values of RT<E T="52">PTS</E> or RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E>, accepted by the NRC, for each reactor vessel beltline material. For pressurized water nuclear power reactors for which a construction permit was issued under this part before February 3, 2010 and whose reactor vessel was designed and fabricated to the 1998 Edition or earlier of the ASME Code, the projected values must be in accordance with this section or § 50.61a. For pressurized water nuclear power reactors for which a construction permit is issued under this part after February 3, 2010 and whose reactor vessel is designed and fabricated to an ASME Code after the 1998 Edition, or for which a combined license is issued under Part 52, the projected values must be in accordance with this section. When determining compliance with this section, the assessment of RT<E T="52">PTS</E> must use the calculation procedures described in paragraph (c)(1) and perform the evaluations described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section. The assessment must specify the bases for the projected value of RT<E T="52">PTS</E> for each vessel beltline material, including the assumptions regarding core loading patterns, and must specify the copper and nickel contents and the fluence value used in the calculation for each beltline material. This assessment must be updated whenever there is a significant 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> change in projected values of RT<E T="52">PTS</E>, or upon request for a change in the expiration date for operation of the facility.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Changes to RT<E T="52">PTS</E> values are considered significant if either the previous value or the current value, or both values, exceed the screening criterion before the expiration of the operating license or the combined license under Part 52 of this chapter, including any renewed term, if applicable for the plant.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The pressurized thermal shock (PTS) screening criterion is 270 °F for plates, forgings, and axial weld materials, and 300 °F for circumferential weld materials. For the purpose of comparison with this criterion, the value of RT<E T="52">PTS</E> for the reactor vessel must be evaluated according to the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section, for each weld and plate, or forging, in the reactor vessel beltline. RT<E T="52">PTS</E> must be determined for each vessel beltline material using the EOL fluence for that material.
</P>
<P>(3) For each pressurized water nuclear power reactor for which the value of RT<E T="52">PTS</E> for any material in the beltline is projected to exceed the PTS screening criterion using the EOL fluence, the licensee shall implement those flux reduction programs that are reasonably practicable to avoid exceeding the PTS screening criterion set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The schedule for implementation of flux reduction measures may take into account the schedule for submittal and anticipated approval by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, of detailed plant-specific analyses, submitted to demonstrate acceptable risk with RT<E T="52">PTS</E> above the screening limit due to plant modifications, new information or new analysis techniques.
</P>
<P>(4) For each pressurized water nuclear power reactor for which the analysis required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section indicates that no reasonably practicable flux reduction program will prevent RT<E T="52">PTS</E> from exceeding the PTS screening criterion using the EOL fluence, the licensee shall submit a safety analysis to determine what, if any, modifications to equipment, systems, and operation are necessary to prevent potential failure of the reactor vessel as a result of postulated PTS events if continued operation beyond the screening criterion is allowed. In the analysis, the licensee may determine the properties of the reactor vessel materials based on available information, research results, and plant surveillance data, and may use probabilistic fracture mechanics techniques. This analysis must be submitted at least three years before RT<E T="52">PTS</E> is projected to exceed the PTS screening criterion.
</P>
<P>(5) After consideration of the licensee's analyses, including effects of proposed corrective actions, if any, submitted in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section, the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, may, on a case-by-case basis, approve operation of the facility with RT<E T="52">PTS</E> in excess of the PTS screening criterion. The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, will consider factors significantly affecting the potential for failure of the reactor vessel in reaching a decision.
</P>
<P>(6) If the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, concludes, pursuant to paragraph (b)(5) of this section, that operation of the facility with RT<E T="52">PTS</E> in excess of the PTS screening criterion cannot be approved on the basis of the licensee's analyses submitted in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section, the licensee shall request and receive approval by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, prior to any operation beyond the criterion. The request must be based upon modifications to equipment, systems, and operation of the facility in addition to those previously proposed in the submitted analyses that would reduce the potential for failure of the reactor vessel due to PTS events, or upon further analyses based upon new information or improved methodology.
</P>
<P>(7) If the limiting RT<E T="52">PTS</E> value of the plant is projected to exceed the screening criteria in paragraph (b)(2), or the criteria in paragraphs (b)(3) through (b)(6) of this section cannot be satisfied, the reactor vessel beltline may be given a thermal annealing treatment to recover the fracture toughness of the material, subject to the requirements of § 50.66. The reactor vessel may continue to be operated only for that service period within which the predicted fracture toughness of the vessel beltline materials satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(6) of this section, with RT<E T="52">PTS</E> accounting for the effects of annealing and subsequent irradiation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of RT</I><E T="54">PTS</E>. RT<E T="52">PTS</E> must be calculated for each vessel beltline material using a fluence value, f, which is the EOL fluence for the material. RT<E T="52">PTS</E> must be evaluated using the same procedures used to calculate RT<E T="52">NDT</E>, as indicated in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Equation 1 must be used to calculate values of RT<E T="52">NDT</E> for each weld and plate, or forging, in the reactor vessel beltline.
</P>
<FP-2>Equation 1: RT<E T="52">NDT</E> = RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> + M + ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E>
</FP-2>
<P>(i) If a measured value of RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> is not available, a generic mean value for the class 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> of material may be used if there are sufficient test results to establish a mean and a standard deviation for the class.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The class of material for estimating RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> is generally determined for welds by the type of welding flux (Linde 80, or other), and for base metal by the material specification.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) For generic values of weld metal, the following generic mean values must be used unless justification for different values is provided: 0 °F for welds made with Linde 80 flux, and −56 °F for welds made with Linde 0091, 1092 and 124 and ARCOS B-5 weld fluxes.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>M</I> means the margin to be added to account for uncertainties in the values of RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E>, copper and nickel contents, fluence and the calculational procedures. M is evaluated from Equation 2.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="19" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er19de95.003.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(A) In Equation 2, σ<E T="52">U</E> is the standard deviation for RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E>. If a measured value of RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> is used, then σ<E T="52">U</E> is determined from the precision of the test method. If a measured value of RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> is not available and a generic mean value for that class of materials is used, then σ<E T="52">U</E> is the standard deviation obtained from the set of data used to establish the mean. If a generic mean value given in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section for welds is used, then σ<E T="52">U</E> is 17 °F.
</P>
<P>(B) In Equation 2, σ<E T="8064">Δ</E> is the standard deviation for ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E>. The value of σ<E T="8064">Δ</E> to be used is 28 °F for welds and 17 °F for base metal; the value of σ<E T="8064">Δ</E> need not exceed one-half of ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E>.
</P>
<P>(iv) ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E> is the mean value of the transition temperature shift, or change in RT<E T="52">NDT</E>, due to irradiation, and must be calculated using Equation 3.
</P>
<FP-2>Equation 3: ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E> = (CF)f<E T="51">(0.28−0.10 log f)</E>
</FP-2>
<P>(A) <I>CF</I> (°F) is the chemistry factor, which is a function of copper and nickel content. CF is given in table 1 for welds and in table 2 for base metal (plates and forgings). Linear interpolation is permitted. In tables 1 and 2, “Wt − % copper” and “Wt − % nickel” are the best-estimate values for the material, which will normally be the mean of the measured values for a plate or forging. For a weld, the best estimate values will normally be the mean of the measured values for a weld deposit made using the same weld wire heat number as the critical vessel weld. If these values are not available, the upper limiting values given in the material specifications to which the vessel material was fabricated may be used. If not available, conservative estimates (mean plus one standard deviation) based on generic data 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> may be used if justification is provided. If none of these alternatives are available, 0.35% copper and 1.0% nickel must be assumed.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Data from reactor vessels fabricated to the same material specification in the same shop as the vessel in question and in the same time period is an example of “generic data.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) <I>f</I> is the best estimate neutron fluence, in units of 10
<SU>19</SU> n/cm
<SU>2</SU> (E greater than 1 MeV), at the clad-base-metal interface on the inside surface of the vessel at the location where the material in question receives the highest fluence for the period of service in question. As specified in this paragraph, the EOL fluence for the vessel beltline material is used in calculating KRT<E T="52">PTS</E>.
</P>
<P>(v) Equation 4 must be used for determining RT<E T="52">PTS</E> using equation 3 with EOL fluence values for determining ΔRT<E T="52">PTS</E>.
</P>
<FP-2>Equation 4: RT<E T="52">PTS</E> = RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> + M + ΔRT<E T="52">PTS</E>
</FP-2>
<P>(2) To verify that RT<E T="52">NDT</E> for each vessel beltline material is a bounding value for the specific reactor vessel, licensees shall consider plant-specific information that could affect the level of embrittlement. This information includes but is not limited to the reactor vessel operating temperature and any related surveillance program 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> results.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Surveillance program results means any data that demonstrates the embrittlement trends for the limiting beltline material, including but not limited to data from test reactors or from surveillance programs at other plants with or without surveillance program integrated per 10 CFR part 50, appendix H.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) Results from the plant-specific surveillance program must be integrated into the RT<E T="52">NDT</E> estimate if the plant-specific surveillance data has been deemed credible as judged by the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The materials in the surveillance capsules must be those which are the controlling materials with regard to radiation embrittlement.
</P>
<P>(B) Scatter in the plots of Charpy energy versus temperature for the irradiated and unirradiated conditions must be small enough to permit the determination of the 30-foot-pound temperature unambiguously.
</P>
<P>(C) Where there are two or more sets of surveillance data from one reactor, the scatter of ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E> values must be less than 28 °F for welds and 17 °F for base metal. Even if the range in the capsule fluences is large (two or more orders of magnitude), the scatter may not exceed twice those values.
</P>
<P>(D) The irradiation temperature of the Charpy specimens in the capsule must equal the vessel wall temperature at the cladding/base metal interface within ±25 °F.
</P>
<P>(E) The surveillance data for the correlation monitor material in the capsule, if present, must fall within the scatter band of the data base for the material.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Surveillance data deemed credible according to the criteria of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section must be used to determine a material-specific value of CF for use in Equation 3. A material-specific value of CF is determined from Equation 5.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="61" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er19de95.004.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(B) In Equation 5, “n” is the number of surveillance data points, “A<E T="52">i</E>” is the measured value of ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E> and “f<E T="52">i</E>” is the fluence for each surveillance data point. If there is clear evidence that the copper and nickel content of the surveillance weld differs from the vessel weld, <I>i.e.</I>, differs from the average for the weld wire heat number associated with the vessel weld and the surveillance weld, the measured values of ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E> must be adjusted for differences in copper and nickel content by multiplying them by the ratio of the chemistry factor for the vessel material to that for the surveillance weld.
</P>
<P>(iii) For cases in which the results from a credible plant-specific surveillance program are used, the value of σ<E T="8064">Δ</E> to be used is 14 °F for welds and 8.5 °F for base metal; the value of σ<E T="8064">Δ</E> need not exceed one-half of ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E>.
</P>
<P>(iv) The use of results from the plant-specific surveillance program may result in an RT<E T="52">NDT</E> that is higher or lower than those determined in paragraph (c)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) Any information that is believed to improve the accuracy of the RT<E T="52">PTS</E> value significantly must be reported to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. Any value of RT<E T="52">PTS</E> that has been modified using the procedures of paragraph (c)(2) of this section is subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, when used as provided in this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Chemistry Factor for Weld Metals, °F
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Copper, wt-%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="7" scope="col">Nickel, wt-%
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.40
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.60
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.80
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.00
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.20
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">148
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">176
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">188
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">178</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">221
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">214</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">157</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">238
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">108</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">197</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">229</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">252
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">232</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">257
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">236</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">263
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">206</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">268
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">176</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">209</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">272
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">276
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">216</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">249</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">280
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">218</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">284
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">222</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">287
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">290
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">136</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">293
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">263</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">296
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">266</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">299
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">209</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">302
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">272</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">305
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">158</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">216</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">308
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">196</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">248</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">278</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">311
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">314
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">285</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">317
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Chemistry Factor for Base Metals, °F
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Copper, wt-%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="7" scope="col">Nickel, wt-%
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.40
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.60
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0.80
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.00
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.20
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">123</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">154</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">154
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">165
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">174
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">176</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">194
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">121</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">204
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">148</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">176</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">199</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">208</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">216</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">221
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">114</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">211</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">119</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">216</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">233</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">239
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">124</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">221</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">248
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">146</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">249</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">257
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">255</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">266
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">202</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">274
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">144</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">205</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">264</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">282
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">149</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">209</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">238</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">268</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">290
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">187</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">212</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">272</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">298
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">158</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">173</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">191</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">216</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">245</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">303
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">162</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">196</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">248</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">278</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">308
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">166</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">281</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">313
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">171</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">185</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">203</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">227</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">254</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">285</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">317
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">207</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">231</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">257</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">288</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 65468, Dec. 19, 1995, as amended at 61 FR 39300, July 29, 1996; 72 FR 49500, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 5722, Jan. 31, 2008; 75 FR 23, Jan. 4, 2010; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.61a" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.61a   Alternate fracture toughness requirements for protection against pressurized thermal shock events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> Terms in this section have the same meaning as those presented in 10 CFR 50.61(a), with the exception of the term “ASME Code.”
</P>
<P>(1) <I>ASME Code</I> means the American Society of Mechanical Engineers Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section III, Division I, “Rules for the Construction of Nuclear Power Plant Components,” and Section XI, Division I, “Rules for Inservice Inspection of Nuclear Power Plant Components,” edition and addenda and any limitations and modifications thereof as specified in § 50.55a.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>RT</I><E T="52">MAX-AW</E> means the material property which characterizes the reactor vessel's resistance to fracture initiating from flaws found along axial weld fusion lines. RT<E T="52">MAX-AW</E> is determined under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section and has units of °F.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>RT</I><E T="52">MAX-PL</E> means the material property which characterizes the reactor vessel's resistance to fracture initiating from flaws found in plates in regions that are not associated with welds found in plates. RT<E T="52">MAX-PL</E> is determined under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section and has units of °F.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>RT</I><E T="52">MAX-FO</E> means the material property which characterizes the reactor vessel's resistance to fracture initiating from flaws in forgings that are not associated with welds found in forgings. RT<E T="52">MAX-FO</E> is determined under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section and has units of °F.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>RT</I><E T="52">MAX-CW</E> means the material property which characterizes the reactor vessel's resistance to fracture initiating from flaws found along the circumferential weld fusion lines. RT<E T="52">MAX-CW</E> is determined under the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section and has units of °F.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>RT</I><E T="52">MAX-X</E> means any or all of the material properties RT<E T="52">MAX-AW</E>, RT<E T="52">MAX-PL</E>, RT<E T="52">MAX-FO</E>, RT<E T="52">MAX-CW</E>, or sum of RT<E T="52">MAX-AW</E> and RT<E T="52">MAX-PL</E>, for a particular reactor vessel.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>φt</I> means fast neutron fluence for neutrons with energies greater than 1.0 MeV. φt is utilized under the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section and has units of n/cm
<SU>2</SU>.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>φ</I> means average neutron flux for neutrons with energies greater than 1.0 MeV. φ is utilized under the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section and has units of n/cm
<SU>2</SU>/sec.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>ΔT</I><E T="52">30</E> means the shift in the Charpy V-notch transition temperature at the 30 ft-lb energy level produced by irradiation. The ΔT<E T="52">30</E> value is utilized under the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section and has units of °F.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Surveillance data</I> means any data that demonstrates the embrittlement trends for the beltline materials, including, but not limited to, surveillance programs at other plants with or without a surveillance program integrated under 10 CFR part 50, appendix H.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>T</I><E T="52">C</E> means cold leg temperature under normal full power operating conditions, as a time-weighted average from the start of full power operation through the end of licensed operation. T<E T="52">C</E> has units of °F.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>CRP</I> means the copper rich precipitate term in the embrittlement model from this section. The CRP term is defined in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>MD</I> means the matrix damage term in the embrittlement model for this section. The MD term is defined in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to each holder of an operating license for a pressurized water nuclear power reactor whose construction permit was issued before February 3, 2010 and whose reactor vessel was designed and fabricated to the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, 1998 Edition or earlier. The requirements of this section may be implemented as an alternative to the requirements of 10 CFR 50.61.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for approval.</I> Before the implementation of this section, each licensee shall submit a request for approval in the form of an application for a license amendment in accordance with § 50.90 together with the documentation required by paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this section for review and approval by the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation (Director). The application must be submitted for review and approval by the Director at least three years before the limiting RT<E T="52">PTS</E> value calculated under 10 CFR 50.61 is projected to exceed the PTS screening criteria in 10 CFR 50.61 for plants licensed under this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Each licensee shall have projected values of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> for each reactor vessel beltline material for the EOL fluence of the material. The assessment of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values must use the calculation procedures given in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section. The assessment must specify the bases for the projected value of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> for each reactor vessel beltline material, including the assumptions regarding future plant operation (e.g., core loading patterns, projected capacity factors); the copper (Cu), phosphorus (P), manganese (Mn), and nickel (Ni) contents; the reactor cold leg temperature (T<E T="52">C</E>); and the neutron flux and fluence values used in the calculation for each beltline material. Assessments performed under paragraphs (f)(6) and (f)(7) of this section, shall be submitted by the licensee to the Director in its license amendment application to utilize § 50.61a.
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee shall perform an examination and an assessment of flaws in the reactor vessel beltline as required by paragraph (e) of this section. The licensee shall verify that the requirements of paragraphs (e), (e)(1), (e)(2), and (e)(3) of this section have been met. The licensee must submit to the Director, in its application to use § 50.61a, the adjustments made to the volumetric test data to account for NDE-related uncertainties as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, all information required by paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, and, if applicable, analyses performed under paragraphs (e)(4), (e)(5) and (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee shall compare the projected RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values for plates, forgings, axial welds, and circumferential welds to the PTS screening criteria in Table 1 of this section, for the purpose of evaluating a reactor vessel's susceptibility to fracture due to a PTS event. If any of the projected RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values are greater than the PTS screening criteria in Table 1 of this section, then the licensee may propose the compensatory actions or plant-specific analyses as required in paragraphs (d)(3) through (d)(7) of this section, as applicable, to justify operation beyond the PTS screening criteria in Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subsequent requirements.</I> Licensees who have been approved to use 10 CFR 50.61a under the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section shall comply with the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever there is a significant change in projected values of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E>, so that the previous value, the current value, or both values, exceed the screening criteria before the expiration of the plant operating license; or upon the licensee's request for a change in the expiration date for operation of the facility; a re-assessment of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values documented consistent with the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) and (c)(3) of this section must be submitted in the form of a license amendment for review and approval by the Director. If the surveillance data used to perform the re-assessment of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(6)(v) of this section, the licensee shall submit the data and the results of the analysis of the data to the Director for review and approval within one year after the capsule is withdrawn from the vessel. If the surveillance data meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(6)(vi) of this section, the licensee shall submit the data, the results of the analysis of the data, and proposed ΔT<E T="52">30</E> and RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values considering the surveillance data in the form of a license amendment to the Director for review and approval within two years after the capsule is withdrawn from the vessel. If the Director does not approve the assessment of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values, then the licensee shall perform the actions required in paragraphs (d)(3) through (d)(7) of this section, as necessary, before operation beyond the PTS screening criteria in Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall verify that the requirements of paragraphs (e), (e)(1), (e)(2), and (e)(3) of this section have been met. The licensee must submit, within 120 days after completing a volumetric examination of reactor vessel beltline materials as required by ASME Code, Section XI, the adjustments made to the volumetric test data to account for NDE-related uncertainties as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and all information required by paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section in the form of a license amendment for review and approval by the Director. If a licensee is required to implement paragraphs (e)(4), (e)(5), and (e)(6) of this section, the information required in these paragraphs must be submitted in the form of a license amendment for review and approval by the Director within one year after completing a volumetric examination of reactor vessel materials as required by ASME Code, Section XI.
</P>
<P>(3) If the value of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> is projected to exceed the PTS screening criteria, then the licensee shall implement those flux reduction programs that are reasonably practicable to avoid exceeding the PTS screening criteria. The schedule for implementation of flux reduction measures may take into account the schedule for review and anticipated approval by the Director of detailed plant-specific analyses which demonstrate acceptable risk with RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values above the PTS screening criteria due to plant modifications, new information, or new analysis techniques.
</P>
<P>(4) If the analysis required by paragraph (d)(3) of this section indicates that no reasonably practicable flux reduction program will prevent the RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> value for one or more reactor vessel beltline materials from exceeding the PTS screening criteria, then the licensee shall perform a safety analysis to determine what, if any, modifications to equipment, systems, and operation are necessary to prevent the potential for an unacceptably high probability of failure of the reactor vessel as a result of postulated PTS events. In the analysis, the licensee may determine the properties of the reactor vessel materials based on available information, research results and plant surveillance data, and may use probabilistic fracture mechanics techniques. This analysis and the description of the modifications must be submitted to the Director in the form of a license amendment at least three years before RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> is projected to exceed the PTS screening criteria.
</P>
<P>(5) After consideration of the licensee's analyses, including effects of proposed corrective actions, if any, submitted under paragraphs (d)(3) and (d)(4) of this section, the Director may, on a case-by-case basis, approve operation of the facility with RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values in excess of the PTS screening criteria. The Director will consider factors significantly affecting the potential for failure of the reactor vessel in reaching a decision. The Director shall impose the modifications to equipment, systems and operations described to meet paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) If the Director concludes, under paragraph (d)(5) of this section, that operation of the facility with RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values in excess of the PTS screening criteria cannot be approved on the basis of the licensee's analyses submitted under paragraphs (d)(3) and (d)(4) of this section, then the licensee shall request a license amendment, and receive approval by the Director, before any operation beyond the PTS screening criteria. The request must be based on modifications to equipment, systems, and operation of the facility in addition to those previously proposed in the submitted analyses that would reduce the potential for failure of the reactor vessel due to PTS events, or on further analyses based on new information or improved methodology. The licensee must show that the proposed alternatives provide reasonable assurance of adequate protection of the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(7) If the limiting RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> value of the facility is projected to exceed the PTS screening criteria and the requirements of paragraphs (d)(3) through (d)(6) of this section cannot be satisfied, the reactor vessel beltline may be given a thermal annealing treatment under the requirements of § 50.66 to recover the fracture toughness of the material. The reactor vessel may be used only for that service period within which the predicted fracture toughness of the reactor vessel beltline materials satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(6) of this section, with RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values accounting for the effects of annealing and subsequent irradiation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examination and flaw assessment requirements.</I> The volumetric examination results evaluated under paragraphs (e)(1), (e)(2), and (e)(3) of this section must be acquired using procedures, equipment and personnel that have been qualified under the ASME Code, Section XI, Appendix VIII, Supplement 4 and Supplement 6, as specified in 10 CFR 50.55a(b)(2)(xv).
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall verify that the flaw density and size distributions within the volume described in ASME Code, Section XI,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Figures IWB-2500-1 and IWB-2500-2 and limited to a depth from the clad-to-base metal interface of 1-inch or 10 percent of the vessel thickness, whichever is greater, do not exceed the limits in Tables 2 and 3 of this section based on the test results from the volumetric examination. The values in Tables 2 and 3 represent actual flaw sizes. Test results from the volumetric examination may be adjusted to account for the effects of NDE-related uncertainties. The methodology to account for NDE-related uncertainties must be based on statistical data from the qualification tests and any other tests that measure the difference between the actual flaw size and the NDE detected flaw size. Licensees who adjust their test data to account for NDE-related uncertainties to verify conformance with the values in Tables 2 and 3 shall prepare and submit the methodology used to estimate the NDE uncertainty, the statistical data used to adjust the test data and an explanation of how the data was analyzed for review and approval by the Director in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2) and (d)(2) of this section. The verification of the flaw density and size distributions shall be performed line-by-line for Tables 2 and 3. If the flaw density and size distribution exceeds the limitations specified in Tables 2 and 3 of this section, the licensee shall perform the analyses required by paragraph (e)(4) of this section. If analyses are required in accordance with paragraph (e)(4) of this section, the licensee must address the effects on through-wall crack frequency (TWCF) in accordance with paragraph (e)(5) of this section and must prepare and submit a neutron fluence map in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For forgings susceptible to underclad cracking the determination of the flaw density for that forging from the licensee's inspection shall exclude those indications identified as underclad cracks.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The licensee shall determine the allowable number of weld flaws in the reactor vessel beltline by multiplying the values in Table 2 of this section by the total length of the reactor vessel beltline welds that were volumetrically inspected and dividing by 1000 inches of weld length.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall determine the allowable number of plate or forging flaws in their reactor vessel beltline by multiplying the values in Table 3 of this section by the total surface area of the reactor vessel beltline plates or forgings that were volumetrically inspected and dividing by 1000 square inches.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each flaw detected in the inspection volume described in paragraph (e)(1) with a through-wall extent equal to or greater than 0.075 inches, the licensee shall document the dimensions of the flaw, including through-wall extent and length, whether the flaw is axial or circumferential in orientation and its location within the reactor vessel, including its azimuthal and axial positions and its depth embedded from the clad-to-base metal interface.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall identify, as part of the examination required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section and any subsequent ASME Code, Section XI ultrasonic examination of the beltline welds, any flaws within the inspection volume described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section that are equal to or greater than 0.075 inches in through-wall depth, axially-oriented, and located at the clad-to-base metal interface. The licensee shall verify that these flaws do not open to the vessel inside surface using surface or visual examination technique capable of detecting and characterizing service induced cracking of the reactor vessel cladding.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall verify, as part of the examination required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section and any subsequent ASME Code, Section XI ultrasonic examination of the beltline welds, that all flaws between the clad-to-base metal interface and three-eights of the reactor vessel thickness from the interior surface are within the allowable values in ASME Code, Section XI, Table IWB-3510-1.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall perform analyses to demonstrate that the reactor vessel will have a TWCF of less than 1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E> per reactor year if the ASME Code, Section XI volumetric examination required by paragraph (c)(2) or (d)(2) of this section indicates any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The flaw density and size in the inspection volume described in paragraph (e)(1) exceed the limits in Tables 2 or 3 of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) There are axial flaws that penetrate through the clad into the low alloy steel reactor vessel shell, at a depth equal to or greater than 0.075 inches in through-wall extent from the clad-to-base metal interface; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any flaws between the clad-to-base metal interface and three-eighths 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> of the vessel thickness exceed the size allowable in ASME Code, Section XI, Table IWB-3510-1.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Because flaws greater than three-eights of the vessel wall thickness from the inside surface do not contribute to TWCF, flaws greater than three-eights of the vessel wall thickness from the inside surface need not be analyzed for their contribution to PTS.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) The analyses required by paragraph (e)(4) of this section must address the effects on TWCF of the known sizes and locations of all flaws detected by the ASME Code, Section XI, Appendix VIII, Supplement 4 and Supplement 6 ultrasonic examination out to three-eights of the vessel thickness from the inner surface, and may also take into account other reactor vessel-specific information, including fracture toughness information.
</P>
<P>(6) For all flaw assessments performed in accordance with paragraph (e)(4) of this section, the licensee shall prepare and submit a neutron fluence map, projected to the date of license expiration, for the reactor vessel beltline clad-to-base metal interface and indexed in a manner that allows the determination of the neutron fluence at the location of the detected flaws.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of RT</I><E T="52">MAX-X</E> <I>values.</I> Each licensee shall calculate RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values for each reactor vessel beltline material using φt. The neutron flux (φ[t]), must be calculated using a methodology that has been benchmarked to experimental measurements and with quantified uncertainties and possible biases.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Regulatory Guide 1.190 dated March 2001, establishes acceptable methods for determining neutron flux.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The values of RT<E T="52">MAX-AW</E>, RT<E T="52">MAX-PL</E>, RT<E T="52">MAX-FO</E>, and RT<E T="52">MAX-CW</E> must be determined using Equations 1 through 4 of this section. When calculating RT<E T="52">MAX-AW</E> using Equation 1, RT<E T="52">MAX-AW</E> is the maximum value of (RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> + ΔT<E T="52">30</E>) for the weld and for the adjoining plates. When calculating RT<E T="52">MAX-CW</E> using Equation 4, RT<E T="52">MAX-CW</E> is the maximum value of (RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> + ΔT<E T="52">30</E>) for the circumferential weld and for the adjoining plates or forgings.
</P>
<P>(2) The values of ΔT<E T="52">30</E> must be determined using Equations 5, 6 and 7 of this section, unless the conditions specified in paragraph (f)(6)(v) of this section are not met, for each axial weld, plate, forging, and circumferential weld. The ΔT<E T="52">30</E> value for each axial weld calculated as specified by Equation 1 of this section must be calculated for the maximum fluence (φt<E T="52">AXIAL-WELD</E>) occurring along a particular axial weld at the clad-to-base metal interface. The ΔT<E T="52">30</E> value for each plate calculated as specified by Equation 1 of this section must also be calculated using the same value of φt<E T="52">AXIAL-WELD</E> used for the axial weld. The ΔT<E T="52">30</E> values in Equation 1 shall be calculated for the weld itself and each adjoining plate. The ΔT<E T="52">30</E> value for each plate or forging calculated as specified by Equations 2 and 3 of this section must be calculated for the maximum fluence (φt<E T="52">MAX</E>) occurring at the clad-to-base metal interface over the entire area of each plate or forging. In Equation 4, the fluence (φt<E T="52">WELD-CIRC</E>) value used for calculating the plate, forging, and circumferential weld ΔT<E T="52">30</E> value is the maximum fluence occurring for each material along the circumferential weld at the clad-to-base metal interface. The ΔT<E T="52">30</E> values in Equation 4 shall be calculated for the circumferential weld and for the adjoining plates or forgings. If the conditions specified in paragraph (f)(6)(v) of this section are not met, licensees must propose ΔT<E T="52">30</E> and RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values in accordance with paragraph (f)(6)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The values of Cu, Mn, P, and Ni in Equations 6 and 7 of this section must represent the best estimate values for the material. For a plate or forging, the best estimate value is normally the mean of the measured values for that plate or forging. For a weld, the best estimate value is normally the mean of the measured values for a weld deposit made using the same weld wire heat number as the critical vessel weld. If these values are not available, either the upper limiting values given in the material specifications to which the vessel material was fabricated, or conservative estimates (<I>i.e.,</I> mean plus one standard deviation) based on generic data 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> as shown in Table 4 of this section for P and Mn, must be used.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Data from reactor vessels fabricated to the same material specification in the same shop as the vessel in question and in the same time is an example of “generic data.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) The values of RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> must be evaluated according to the procedures in the ASME Code, Section III, paragraph NB-2331. If any other method is used for this evaluation, the licensee shall submit the proposed method for review and approval by the Director along with the calculation of RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values required in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If a measured value of RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> is not available, a generic mean value of RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> for the class 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> of material must be used if there are sufficient test results to establish a mean.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> The class of material for estimating RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> must be determined by the type of welding flux (Linde 80, or other) for welds or by the material specification for base metal.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The following generic mean values of RT<E T="52">NDT(U)</E> must be used unless justification for different values is provided: 0 °F for welds made with Linde 80 weld flux; and −56 °F for welds made with Linde 0091, 1092, and 124 and ARCOS B-5 weld fluxes.
</P>
<P>(5) The value of T<E T="52">C</E> in Equation 6 of this section must represent the time-weighted average of the reactor cold leg temperature under normal operating full power conditions from the beginning of full power operation through the end of licensed operation.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall verify that an appropriate RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> value has been calculated for each reactor vessel beltline material by considering plant-specific information that could affect the use of the model (<I>i.e.,</I> Equations 5, 6 and 7) of this section for the determination of a material's ΔT<E T="52">30</E> value.
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee shall evaluate the results from a plant-specific or integrated surveillance program if the surveillance data satisfy the criteria described in paragraphs (f)(6)(i)(A) and (f)(6)(i)(B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The surveillance material must be a heat-specific match for one or more of the materials for which RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> is being calculated. The 30-foot-pound transition temperature must be determined as specified by the requirements of 10 CFR part 50, Appendix H.
</P>
<P>(B) If three or more surveillance data points measured at three or more different neutron fluences exist for a specific material, the licensee shall determine if the surveillance data show a significantly different trend than the embrittlement model predicts. This must be achieved by evaluating the surveillance data for consistency with the embrittlement model by following the procedures specified by paragraphs (f)(6)(ii), (f)(6)(iii), and (f)(6)(iv) of this section. If fewer than three surveillance data points exist for a specific material, then the embrittlement model must be used without performing the consistency check.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall estimate the mean deviation from the embrittlement model for the specific data set (<I>i.e.,</I> a group of surveillance data points representative of a given material). The mean deviation from the embrittlement model for a given data set must be calculated using Equations 8 and 9 of this section. The mean deviation for the data set must be compared to the maximum heat-average residual given in Table 5 or derived using Equation 10 of this section. The maximum heat-average residual is based on the material group into which the surveillance material falls and the number of surveillance data points. For surveillance data sets with greater than 8 data points, the maximum credible heat-average residual must be calculated using Equation 10 of this section. The value of σ used in Equation 10 of this section must be obtained from Table 5 of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee shall estimate the slope of the embrittlement model residuals (estimated using Equation 8) plotted as a function of the base 10 logarithm of neutron fluence for the specific data set. The licensee shall estimate the T-statistic for this slope (T<E T="52">SURV</E>) using Equation 11 and compare this value to the maximum permissible T-statistic (T<E T="52">MAX</E>) in Table 6. For surveillance data sets with greater than 15 data points, the T<E T="52">MAX</E> value must be calculated using Student's T distribution with a significance level (α) of 1 percent for a one-tailed test.
</P>
<P>(iv) The licensee shall estimate the two largest positive deviations (<I>i.e.,</I> outliers) from the embrittlement model for the specific data set using Equations 8 and 12. The licensee shall compare the largest normalized residual (r *) to the appropriate allowable value from the third column in Table 7 and the second largest normalized residual to the appropriate allowable value from the second column in Table 7.
</P>
<P>(v) The ΔT<E T="52">30</E> value must be determined using Equations 5, 6, and 7 of this section if all three of the following criteria are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean deviation from the embrittlement model for the data set is equal to or less than the value in Table 5 or the value derived using Equation 10 of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The T-statistic for the slope (T<E T="52">SURV</E>) estimated using Equation 11 is equal to or less than the Maximum permissible T-statistic (T<E T="52">MAX</E>) in Table 6; and
</P>
<P>(C) The largest normalized residual value is equal to or less than the appropriate allowable value from the third column in Table 7 and the second largest normalized residual value is equal to or less than the appropriate allowable value from the second column in Table 7. If any of these criteria is not satisfied, the licensee must propose ΔT<E T="52">30</E> and RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values in accordance with paragraph (f)(6)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) If any of the criteria described in paragraph (f)(6)(v) of this section are not satisfied, the licensee shall review the data base for that heat in detail, including all parameters used in Equations 5, 6, and 7 of this section and the data used to determine the baseline Charpy V-notch curve for the material in an unirradiated condition. The licensee shall submit an evaluation of the surveillance data to the NRC and shall propose ΔT<E T="52">30</E> and RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> values, considering their plant-specific surveillance data, to be used for evaluation relative to the acceptance criteria of this rule. These evaluations must be submitted for review and approval by the Director in the form of a license amendment in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) and (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) The licensee shall report any information that significantly influences the RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> value to the Director in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) and (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Equations and variables used in this section.</I>
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="15" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.000.gif"/></MATH>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="15" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.001.gif"/></MATH>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="15" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.002.gif"/></MATH>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="30" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.003.gif"/></MATH>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="15" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.004.gif"/></MATH>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="20" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.005.gif"/></MATH>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="20" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.006.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P [wt-&amp;%] = phosphorus content
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Mn [wt-%] = manganese content
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ni [wt-%] = nickel content
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Cu [wt-%] = copper content
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A = 1.140 × 10<E T="51">−7</E> for forgings
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A = 1.561 × 10<E T="51">−7</E> for plates
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A = 1.417 × 10<E T="51">−7</E> for welds
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = 102.3 for forgings
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = 102.5 for plates in non-Combustion Engineering manufactured vessels
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = 135.2 for plates in Combustion Engineering vessels
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = 155.0 for welds</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP-2>φt<E T="52">e</E> = φt for φ ≥4.39 × 10
<SU>10</SU> n/cm
<SU>2</SU>/sec
</FP-2>
<FP-2>φt<E T="52">e</E> = φt × (4.39 × 10
<SU>10</SU>/φ)
<SU>0.2595</SU> for φ &lt;4.39 × 10
<SU>10</SU> n/cm
<SU>2</SU>/sec
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>φ [n/cm
<SU>2</SU>/sec] = average neutron flux
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t [sec] = time that the reactor has been in full power operation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>φt [n/cm
<SU>2</SU>] = φ × t</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP-2>f(Cu<E T="52">e</E>,P) = 0 for Cu ≤0.072
</FP-2>
<FP-2>f(Cu<E T="52">e</E>,P) = [Cu<E T="52">e</E>−0.072]
<SU>0.668</SU> for Cu &gt;0.072 and P ≤0.008
</FP-2>
<FP-2>f(Cu<E T="52">e</E>,P) = [Cu<E T="52">e</E>−0.072 + 1.359 × (P−0.008)]
<SU>0.668</SU> for Cu &gt;0.072 and P &gt;0.008
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Cu<E T="52">e</E> = 0 for Cu ≤0.072
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Cu<E T="52">e</E> = MIN (Cu, maximum Cu<E T="52">e</E>) for Cu &gt;0.072
</FP-2>
<FP-2>maximum Cu<E T="52">e</E> = 0.243 for Linde 80 welds
</FP-2>
<FP-2>maximum Cu<E T="52">e</E> = 0.301 for all other materials</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<FP-2>g(Cu<E T="52">e</E>,Ni,φt<E T="52">e</E>) = 0.5 + (0.5 × tanh {[log<E T="52">10</E>(φt<E T="52">e</E>) + (1.1390 × Cu<E T="52">e</E>)−(0.448 × Ni)−18.120]/0.629}
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Equation 8: Residual (r) = measured ΔT<E T="52">30</E>−predicted ΔT<E T="52">30</E> (by Equations 5, 6 and 7)
</FP-2>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="33" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.007.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>Equation 10: Maximum credible heat-average residual = 2.33σ/n
<SU>0.5</SU>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>n = number of surveillance data points (sample size) in the specific data set
</FP-2>
<FP-2>σ = standard deviation of the residuals about the model for a relevant material group given in Table 5.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.008.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>m</I> is the slope of a plot of all of the r values (estimated using Equation 8) versus the base 10 logarithm of the neutron fluence for each r value. The slope shall be estimated using the method of least squares.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>se(m)</I> is the least squares estimate of the standard-error associated with the estimated slope value <I>m.</I></FP-2></EXTRACT>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er03fe10.009.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>r</I> is defined using Equation 8 and σ is given in Table 5</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—PTS Screening Criteria
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Product form and RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E>
<br/>values
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">RT<E T="52">MAX-X</E> limits [ °F] for different vessel wall thicknesses 
<sup>6</sup> (T<E T="52">WALL</E>)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T<E T="52">WALL</E> ≤9.5 in.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">9.5 in. &lt;T<E T="52">WALL</E>
<br/>≤10.5 in.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">10.5 in. &lt;T<E T="52">WALL</E>
<br/>≤11.5 in.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Axial Weld—RT<E T="52">MAX-AW</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">222
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plate—RT<E T="52">MAX-PL</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">356</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">305</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">293
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Forging without underclad cracks—RT<E T="52">MAX-FO</E> 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">356</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">305</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">293
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Axial Weld and Plate—RT<E T="52">MAX-AW</E> + RT<E T="52">MAX-PL</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">538</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">476</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">445
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Circumferential Weld—RT<E T="52">MAX-CW</E> 
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">312</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">269
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Forging with underclad cracks—RT<E T="52">MAX-FO</E> 
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">246</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">239
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Wall thickness is the beltline wall thickness including the clad thickness.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Forgings without underclad cracks apply to forgings for which no underclad cracks have been detected and that were fabricated in accordance with Regulatory Guide 1.43.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> RT<E T="52">PTS</E> limits contribute 1 × 10<E T="51">−8</E> per reactor year to the reactor vessel TWCF.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>9</sup> Forgings with underclad cracks apply to forgings that have detected underclad cracking or were not fabricated in accordance with Regulatory Guide 1.43.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Allowable Number of Flaws in Welds
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Through-wall extent, TWE [in.]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Maximum number of flaws per 1,000-inches of weld length in the inspection volume that are greater than or equal to TWE<E T="52">MIN</E> and less than TWE<E T="52">MAX</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TWE<E T="52">MIN</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TWE<E T="52">MAX</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Limit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.075</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">166.70.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90.80.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22.82.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.66.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.275</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.01.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.325</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.01.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.49.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.425</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.475</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Infinite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Allowable Number of Flaws in Plates and Forgings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Through-wall extent, TWE [in.]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Maximum number of flaws per 1,000 square-inches of inside surface area in the inspection volume that are greater than or equal to TWE<E T="52">MIN</E> and less than TWE<E T="52">MAX</E>. This flaw density does not include underclad cracks in forgings
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TWE<E T="52">MIN</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TWE<E T="52">MAX</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Limit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.075</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.05.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.275</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.325</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.375</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Infinite</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Conservative Estimates for Chemical Element Weight Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Materials
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">P
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mn
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plates</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Forgings</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Welds</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.63</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Maximum Heat-Average Residual [ °F] for Relevant Material Groups by Number of Available Data Points (Significance Level = 1%)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Material group
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">σ [ °F]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Number of available data points
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">7
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Welds, for Cu &gt;0.072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plates, for Cu &gt;0.072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Forgings, for Cu &gt;0.072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weld, Plate or Forging, for Cu ≤0.072</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6—T<E T="52">MAX</E> Values for the Slope Deviation Test (Significance Level = 1%)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of available
<br/>data points (n)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">T<E T="52">MAX</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.96
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.65</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—Threshold Values for the Outlier Deviation Test (Significance Level = 1%)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of available data points (n)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Second largest allowable normalized residual value (r*)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Largest allowable normalized residual value (r*)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.71
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.93
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.21</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 23, Jan. 4, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 5495, Feb. 3, 2010; 75 FR 10411, Mar. 8, 2010; 75 FR 72653, Nov. 26, 2010]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.62" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.62   Requirements for reduction of risk from anticipated transients without scram (ATWS) events for light-water-cooled nuclear power plants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to all commercial light-water-cooled nuclear power plants, other than nuclear power reactor facilities for which the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) have been submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>Anticipated Transient Without Scram</I> (ATWS) means an anticipated operational occurrence as defined in appendix A of this part followed by the failure of the reactor trip portion of the protection system specified in General Design Criterion 20 of appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) Each pressurized water reactor must have equipment from sensor output to final actuation device, that is diverse from the reactor trip system, to automatically initiate the auxiliary (or emergency) feedwater system and initiate a turbine trip under conditions indicative of an ATWS. This equipment must be designed to perform its function in a reliable manner and be independent (from sensor output to the final actuation device) from the existing reactor trip system.
</P>
<P>(2) Each pressurized water reactor manufactured by Combustion Engineering or by Babcock and Wilcox must have a diverse scram system from the sensor output to interruption of power to the control rods. This scram system must be designed to perform its function in a reliable manner and be independent from the existing reactor trip system (from sensor output to interruption of power to the control rods).
</P>
<P>(3) Each boiling water reactor must have an alternate rod injection (ARI) system that is diverse (from the reactor trip system) from sensor output to the final actuation device. The ARI system must have redundant scram air header exhaust valves. The ARI must be designed to perform its function in a reliable manner and be independent (from the existing reactor trip system) from sensor output to the final actuation device.
</P>
<P>(4) Each boiling water reactor must have a standby liquid control system (SLCS) with the capability of injecting into the reactor pressure vessel a borated water solution at such a flow rate, level of boron concentration and boron-10 isotope enrichment, and accounting for reactor pressure vessel volume, that the resulting reactivity control is at least equivalent to that resulting from injection of 86 gallons per minute of 13 weight percent sodium pentaborate decahydrate solution at the natural boron-10 isotope abundance into a 251-inch inside diameter reactor pressure vessel for a given core design. The SLCS and its injection location must be designed to perform its function in a reliable manner. The SLCS initiation must be automatic and must be designed to perform its function in a reliable manner for plants granted a construction permit after July 26, 1984, and for plants granted a construction permit prior to July 26, 1984, that have already been designed and built to include this feature.
</P>
<P>(5) Each boiling water reactor must have equipment to trip the reactor coolant recirculating pumps automatically under conditions indicative of an ATWS. This equipment must be designed to perform its function in a reliable manner.
</P>
<P>(6) Information sufficient to demonstrate to the Commission the adequacy of items in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this section shall be submitted to the Commission as specified in § 50.4.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Implementation.</I> For each light-water-cooled nuclear power plant operating license issued before September 27, 2007, by 180 days after the issuance of the QA guidance for non-safety related components, each licensee shall develop and submit to the Commission, as specified in § 50.4, a proposed schedule for meeting the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this section. Each shall include an explanation of the schedule along with a justification if the schedule calls for final implementation later than the second refueling outage after July 26, 1984, or the date of issuance of a license authorizing operation above 5 percent of full power. A final schedule shall then be mutually agreed upon by the Commission and licensee. For each light-water-cooled nuclear power plant operating license application submitted after September 27, 2007, the applicant shall submit information in its final safety analysis report demonstrating how it will comply with paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 26044, June 26, 1984; 49 FR 27736, July 6, 1984, as amended at 51 FR 40310, Nov. 6, 1986; 54 FR 13362, Apr. 3, 1989; 61 FR 39301, July 29, 1996; 72 FR 49500, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.63" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.63   Loss of all alternating current power.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) Each light-water-cooled nuclear power plant licensed to operate under this part, each light-water-cooled nuclear power plant licensed under subpart C of 10 CFR part 52 after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter, and each design for a light-water-cooled nuclear power plant approved under a standard design approval, standard design certification, and manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter must be able to withstand for a specified duration and recover from a station blackout as defined in § 50.2. The specified station blackout duration shall be based on the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The redundancy of the onsite emergency ac power sources;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reliability of the onsite emergency ac power sources;
</P>
<P>(iii) The expected frequency of loss of offsite power; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The probable time needed to restore offsite power.
</P>
<P>(2) The reactor core and associated coolant, control, and protection systems, including station batteries and any other necessary support systems, must provide sufficient capacity and capability to ensure that the core is cooled and appropriate containment integrity is maintained in the event of a station blackout for the specified duration. The capability for coping with a station blackout of specified duration shall be determined by an appropriate coping analysis. Licensees are expected to have the baseline assumptions, analyses, and related information used in their coping evaluations available for NRC review.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation of scope.</I> Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to those plants licensed to operate prior to <I>July 21, 1988,</I> if the capability to withstand station blackout was specifically addressed in the operating license proceeding and was explicitly approved by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) <I>Information Submittal.</I> For each light-water-cooled nuclear power plant operating license application submitted after September 27, 2007, the applicant shall submit the information defined below in its final safety analysis report.




</P>
<P>(i) A proposed station blackout duration to be used in determining compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, including a justification for the selection based on the four factors identified in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the procedures that will be implemented for station blackout events for the duration determined in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section and for recovery therefrom; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of modifications to equipment and associated procedures, if any, necessary to meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, for the specified station blackout duration determined in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, and a proposed schedule for implementing the stated modifications.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternate ac source:</I> The alternate ac power source(s), as defined in § 50.2, will constitute acceptable capability to withstand station blackout provided an analysis is performed which demonstrates that the plant has this capability from onset of the station blackout until the alternate ac source(s) and required shutdown equipment are started and lined up to operate. The time required for startup and alignment of the alternate ac power source(s) and this equipment shall be demonstrated by test. Alternate ac source(s) serving a multiple unit site where onsite emergency ac sources are not shared between units must have, as a minimum, the capacity and capability for coping with a station blackout in any of the units. At sites where onsite emergency ac sources are shared between units, the alternate ac source(s) must have the capacity and capability as required to ensure that all units can be brought to and maintained in safe shutdown (non-DBA) as defined in § 50.2. If the alternate ac source(s) meets the above requirements and can be demonstrated by test to be available to power the shutdown buses within 10 minutes of the onset of station blackout, then no coping analysis is required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regulatory Assessment:</I> After consideration of the information submitted in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, will notify the licensee of the Director's conclusions regarding the adequacy of the proposed specified station blackout duration, the proposed equipment modifications and procedures, and the proposed schedule for implementing the procedures and modifications for compliance with paragraph (a) this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 23215, June 21, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 50480, Sept. 22, 1998; 72 FR 49501, Aug. 28, 2007; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.64" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.64   Limitations on the use of highly enriched uranium (HEU) in domestic non-power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to all non-power reactors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) The Commission will not issue a construction permit after March 27, 1986 for a non-power reactor where the applicant proposes to use highly enriched uranium (HEU) fuel, unless the applicant demonstrates that the proposed reactor will have a unique purpose as defined in § 50.2.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the Commission has determined, based on a request submitted in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, that the non-power reactor has a unique purpose, each licensee authorized to possess and use HEU fuel in connection with the reactor's operation shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Not initiate acquisition of additional HEU fuel, if low enriched uranium (LEU) fuel acceptable to the Commission for that reactor is available when it proposes that acquisition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Replace all HEU fuel in its possession with available LEU fuel acceptable to the Commission for that reactor, in accordance with a schedule determined pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If not required by paragraphs (b) (1) and (2) of this section to use LEU fuel, the applicant or licensee must use HEU fuel of enrichment as close to 20% as is available and acceptable to the Commisson.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Implementation.</I> (1) Any request by a licensee for a determination that a non-power reactor has a unique purpose as defined in § 50.2 should be submitted with supporting documentation to the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, by September 29, 1986.
</P>
<P>(2) (i) By March 27, 1987 and at 12-month intervals thereafter, each licensee of a non-power reactor authorized to possess and use HEU fuel shall develop and submit to the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation a written proposal for meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) (2) or (3) of this section. The licensee shall include in the proposal a certification that Federal Government funding for conversion is available through the Department of Energy (DOE) or other appropriate Federal Agency. The licensee shall also include in the proposal a schedule for conversion, based upon availability of replacement fuel acceptable to the Commisson for that reactor and upon consideration of other factors such as the availability of shipping casks, implementation of arrangements for the available financial support, and reactor usage.
</P>
<P>(ii) If Federal Government funding for conversion cannot be certified, the proposal's contents may be limited to a statement of this fact. If a statement of non-availability of Federal Government funding for conversion is submitted by a licensee, then it shall be required to resubmit a proposal for meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) (2) or (3) of this section at 12-month intervals.
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposal shall include, to the extent required to effect the conversion, all necessary changes in the license, facility, or procedures. Supporting safety analyses should be provided so as to meet the schedule established for conversion. As long as Federal Government funding for conversion is not available, the resubmittal may be a reiteration of the original proposal. The Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation shall review the proposal and confirm the status of Federal Government funding for conversion and, if a schedule for conversion has been submitted by the licensee, will then determine a final schedule.
</P>
<P>(3) After review of the safety analysis required by paragraph (c)(2), the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation will issue an appropriate enforcement order directing both the conversion and, to the extent consistent with protection of the public health and safety, any necessary changes to the license, facility, or procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 6519, Feb. 25, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.65" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.65   Requirements for monitoring the effectiveness of maintenance at nuclear power plants.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this section are applicable during all conditions of plant operation, including normal shutdown operations.
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Each holder of an operating license for a nuclear power plant under this part and each holder of a combined license under part 52 of this chapter after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter, shall monitor the performance or condition of structures, systems, or components, against licensee-established goals, in a manner sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that these structures, systems, and components, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, are capable of fulfilling their intended functions. These goals shall be established commensurate with safety and, where practical, take into account industry-wide operating experience. When the performance or condition of a structure, system, or component does not meet established goals, appropriate corrective action shall be taken. For a nuclear power plant for which the licensee has submitted the certifications specified in § 50.82(a)(1) or 52.110(a)(1) of this chapter, as applicable, this section shall only apply to the extent that the licensee shall monitor the performance or condition of all structures, systems, or components associated with the storage, control, and maintenance of spent fuel in a safe condition, in a manner sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that these structures, systems, and components are capable of fulfilling their intended functions.
</P>
<P>(2) Monitoring as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is not required where it has been demonstrated that the performance or condition of a structure, system, or component is being effectively controlled through the performance of appropriate preventive maintenance, such that the structure, system, or component remains capable of performing its intended function.
</P>
<P>(3) Performance and condition monitoring activities and associated goals and preventive maintenance activities shall be evaluated at least every refueling cycle provided the interval between evaluations does not exceed 24 months. The evaluations shall take into account, where practical, industry-wide operating experience. Adjustments shall be made where necessary to ensure that the objective of preventing failures of structures, systems, and components through maintenance is appropriately balanced against the objective of minimizing unavailability of structures, systems, and components due to monitoring or preventive maintenance.
</P>
<P>(4) Before performing maintenance activities (including but not limited to surveillance, post-maintenance testing, and corrective and preventive maintenance), the licensee shall assess and manage the increase in risk that may result from the proposed maintenance activities. The scope of the assessment may be limited to structures, systems, and components that a risk-informed evaluation process has shown to be significant to public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(b) The scope of the monitoring program specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall include safety related and nonsafety related structures, systems, and components, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Safety-related structures, systems and components that are relied upon to remain functional during and following design basis events to ensure the integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary, the capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition, or the capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents that could result in potential offsite exposure comparable to the guidelines in § 50.34(a)(1), § 50.67(b)(2), or § 100.11 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonsafety related structures, systems, or components:
</P>
<P>(i) That are relied upon to mitigate accidents or transients or are used in plant emergency operating procedures (EOPs); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose failure could prevent safety-related structures, systems, and components from fulfilling their safety-related function; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Whose failure could cause a reactor scram or actuation of a safety-related system.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this section shall be implemented by each licensee no later than July 10, 1996.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 31324, July 10, 1991, as amended at 58 FR 33996, June 23, 1993; 61 FR 39301, July 29, 1996; 61 FR 65173, Dec. 11, 1996; 62 FR 47271, Sept. 8, 1997; 62 FR 59276, Nov. 3, 1997; 64 FR 38557, July 19, 1999; 64 FR 72001, Dec. 23, 1999; 72 FR 49501, Aug. 28, 2007]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>See 64 FR 38551, July 19, 1999, for effectiveness of § 50.65 (a)(3) and (a)(4).</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.66" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.66   Requirements for thermal annealing of the reactor pressure vessel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For those light water nuclear power reactors where neutron radiation has reduced the fracture toughness of the reactor vessel materials, a thermal annealing may be applied to the reactor vessel to recover the fracture toughness of the material. The use of a thermal annealing treatment is subject to the requirements in this section. A report describing the licensee's plan for conducting the thermal annealing must be submitted in accordance with § 50.4 at least three years prior to the date at which the limiting fracture toughness criteria in § 50.61 or appendix G to part 50 would be exceeded. Within three years of the submittal of the Thermal Annealing Report and at least thirty days prior to the start of the thermal annealing, the NRC will review the Thermal Annealing Report and make available the results of its evaluation at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I> The licensee may begin the thermal anneal after:
</P>
<P>(1) Submitting the Thermal Annealing Report required by paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC makes available the results of its evaluation of the Thermal Annealing Report at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov;</I> and
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Thermal Annealing Report.</I> The Thermal Annealing Report must include: a Thermal Annealing Operating Plan; a Requalification Inspection and Test Program; a Fracture Toughness Recovery and Reembrittlement Trend Assurance Program; and an Identification of Changes Requiring a License Amendment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Thermal Annealing Operating Plan.</I> The thermal annealing operating plan must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the pressure vessel and all structures and components that are expected to experience significant thermal or stress effects during the thermal annealing operation;
</P>
<P>(ii) An evaluation of the effects of mechanical and thermal stresses and temperatures on the vessel, containment, biological shield, attached piping and appurtenances, and adjacent equipment and components to demonstrate that operability of the reactor will not be detrimentally affected. This evaluation must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Detailed thermal and structural analyses to establish the time and temperature profile of the annealing operation. These analyses must include heatup and cooldown rates, and must demonstrate that localized temperatures, thermal stress gradients, and subsequent residual stresses will not result in unacceptable dimensional changes or distortions in the vessel, attached piping and appurtenances, and that the thermal annealing cycle will not result in unacceptable degradation of the fatigue life of these components.
</P>
<P>(B) The effects of localized high temperatures on degradation of the concrete adjacent to the vessel and changes in thermal and mechanical properties, if any, of the reactor vessel insulation, and on detrimental effects, if any, on containment and the biological shield. If the design temperature limitations for the adjacent concrete structure are to be exceeded during the thermal annealing operation, an acceptable maximum temperature for the concrete must be established for the annealing operation using appropriate test data.
</P>
<P>(iii) The methods, including heat source, instrumentation and procedures proposed for performing the thermal annealing. This shall include any special precautions necessary to minimize occupational exposure, in accordance with the As Low As Reasonably Achievable (ALARA) principle and the provisions of § 20.1206.
</P>
<P>(iv) The proposed thermal annealing operating parameters, including bounding conditions for temperatures and times, and heatup and cooldown schedules.
</P>
<P>(A) The thermal annealing time and temperature parameters selected must be based on projecting sufficient recovery of fracture toughness, using the procedures of paragraph (e) of this section, to satisfy the requirements of § 50.60 and § 50.61 for the proposed period of operation addressed in the application.
</P>
<P>(B) The time and temperature parameters evaluated as part of the thermal annealing operating plan, and supported by the evaluation results of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, represent the bounding times and temperatures for the thermal annealing operation. If these bounding conditions for times and temperatures are violated during the thermal annealing operation, then the annealing operation is considered not in accordance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan, as required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and the licensee must comply with paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requalification Inspection and Test Program.</I> The inspection and test program to requalify the annealed reactor vessel must include the detailed monitoring, inspections, and tests proposed to demonstrate that the limitations on temperatures, times and temperature profiles, and stresses evaluated for the proposed thermal annealing conditions of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section have not been exceeded, and to determine the thermal annealing time and temperature to be used in quantifying the fracture toughness recovery. The requalification inspection and test program must demonstrate that the thermal annealing operation has not degraded the reactor vessel, attached piping or appurtenances, or the adjacent concrete structures to a degree that could affect the safe operation of the reactor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fracture Toughness Recovery and Reembrittlement Trend Assurance Program.</I> The percent recovery of RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy due to the thermal annealing treatment must be determined based on the time and temperature of the actual vessel thermal anneal. The recovery of RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy provide the basis for establishing the post-anneal RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy for each vessel material. Changes in the RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy with subsequent plant operation must be determined using the post-anneal values of these parameters in conjunction with the projected reembrittlement trend determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. Recovery and reembrittlement evaluations shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Recovery Evaluations.</I> (A) The percent recovery of both RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy must be determined by one of the procedures described in paragraph (e) of this section, using the proposed lower bound thermal annealing time and temperature conditions described in the operating plan.
</P>
<P>(B) If the percent recovery is determined from testing surveillance specimens or from testing materials removed from the reactor vessel, then it shall be demonstrated that the proposed thermal annealing parameters used in the test program are equal to or bounded by those used in the vessel annealing operation.
</P>
<P>(C) If generic computational methods are used, appropriate justification must be submitted as a part of the application.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reembrittlement Evaluations.</I> (A) The projected post-anneal reembrittlement of RT<E T="52">NDT</E> must be calculated using the procedures in § 50.61(c), or must be determined using the same basis as that used for the pre-anneal operating period. The projected change due to post-anneal reembrittlement for Charpy upper-shelf energy must be determined using the same basis as that used for the pre-anneal operating period.
</P>
<P>(B) The post-anneal reembrittlement trend of both RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy must be estimated, and must be monitored using a surveillance program defined in the Thermal Annealing Report and which conforms to the intent of appendix H of this part, “Reactor Vessel Material Surveillance Program Requirements.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Identification of Changes Requiring a License Amendment.</I> Any changes to the facility as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated) which requires a license amendment pursuant to § 50.59(c)(2) of this part, and any changes to the Technical Specifications, which are necessary to either conduct the thermal annealing or to operate the nuclear power reactor following the annealing must be identified. The section shall demonstrate that the Commission's requirements continue to be complied with, and that there is reasonable assurance of adequate protection to the public health and safety following the changes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Completion or Termination of Thermal Annealing.</I> (1) If the thermal annealing was completed in accordance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and the Requalification Inspection and Test Program, the licensee shall so confirm in writing to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. The licensee may restart its reactor after the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(2) If the thermal annealing was completed but the annealing was not performed in accordance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and the Requalification Inspection and Test Program, the licensee shall submit a summary of lack of compliance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and the Requalification Inspection and Test Program and a justification for subsequent operation to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. Any changes to the facility as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated) which are attributable to the noncompliances and which require a license amendment pursuant to § 50.59(c)(2) and any changes to the Technical Specifications shall also be identified.
</P>
<P>(i) If no changes requiring a license amendment pursuant to § 50.59(c)(2) or changes to Technical Specifications are identified, the licensee may restart its reactor after the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) If any changes requiring a license amendment pursuant to § 50.59(c)(2) or changes to the Technical Specifications are identified, the licensee may not restart its reactor until approval is obtained from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation and the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(3) If the thermal annealing was terminated prior to completion, the licensee shall immediately notify the NRC of the premature termination of the thermal anneal.
</P>
<P>(i) If the partial annealing was otherwise performed in accordance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and relevant portions of the Requalification Inspection and Test Program, and the licensee does not elect to take credit for any recovery, the licensee need not submit the Thermal Annealing Results Report required by paragraph (d) of this section but instead shall confirm in writing to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation that the partial annealing was otherwise performed in accordance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and relevant portions of the Requalification Inspection and Test Program. The licensee may restart its reactor after the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the partial annealing was otherwise performed in accordance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and relevant portions of the Requalification Inspection and Test Program, and the licensee elects to take full or partial credit for the partial annealing, the licensee shall confirm in writing to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation that the partial annealing was otherwise performed in compliance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and relevant portions of the Requalification Inspection and Test Program. The licensee may restart its reactor after the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the partial annealing was not performed in accordance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and the Requalification Inspection and Test Program, the licensee shall submit a summary of lack of compliance with the Thermal Annealing Operating Plan and the Requalification Inspection and Test Program and a justification for subsequent operation to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. Any changes to the facility as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated) which are attributable to the noncompliances and which require a license amendment pursuant to § 50.59(c)(2) and any changes to the technical specifications which are required as a result of the noncompliances, shall also be identified.
</P>
<P>(A) If no changes requiring a license amendment pursuant to § 50.59(c)(2) or changes to Technical Specifications are identified, the licensee may restart its reactor after the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(B) If any changes requiring a license amendment pursuant to § 50.59(c)(2) or changes to Technical Specifications are identified, the licensee may not restart its reactor until approval is obtained from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation and the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Thermal Annealing Results Report.</I> Every licensee that either completes a thermal annealing, or that terminates an annealing but elects to take full or partial credit for the annealing, shall provide the following information within three months of completing the thermal anneal, unless an extension is authorized by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation:
</P>
<P>(1) The time and temperature profiles of the actual thermal annealing;
</P>
<P>(2) The post-anneal RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy values of the reactor vessel materials for use in subsequent reactor operation;
</P>
<P>(3) The projected post-anneal reembrittlement trends for both RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy; and
</P>
<P>(4) The projected values of RT<E T="52">PTS</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy at the end of the proposed period of operation addressed in the Thermal Annealing Report.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for Determining the Recovery of Fracture Toughness.</I> The procedures of this paragraph must be used to determine the percent recovery of ΔRT<E T="52">NDT</E>, R<E T="52">t</E>, and percent recovery of Charpy upper-shelf energy, R<E T="52">u</E>. In all cases, R<E T="52">t</E> and R<E T="52">u</E> may not exceed 100.
</P>
<P>(1) For those reactors with surveillance programs which have developed credible surveillance data as defined in § 50.61, percent recovery due to thermal annealing (R<E T="52">t</E> and R<E T="52">u</E>) must be evaluated by testing surveillance specimens that have been withdrawn from the surveillance program and that have been annealed under the same time and temperature conditions as those given the beltline material.
</P>
<P>(2) Alternatively, the percent recovery due to thermal annealing (R<E T="52">t</E> and R<E T="52">u</E>) may be determined from the results of a verification test program employing materials removed from the beltline region of the reactor vessel 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> and that have been annealed under the same time and temperature conditions as those given the beltline material.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> For those cases where materials are removed from the beltline of the pressure vessel, the stress limits of the applicable portions of the ASME Code Section III must be satisfied, including consideration of fatigue and corrosion, regardless of the Code of record for the vessel design.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Generic computational methods may be used to determine recovery if adequate justification is provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public information and participation.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a Thermal Annealing Report, and a minimum of 30 days before the licensee starts thermal annealing, the Commission shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify and solicit comments from local and State governments in the vicinity of the site where the thermal annealing will take place and any Indian Nation or other indigenous people that have treaty or statutory rights that could be affected by the thermal annealing,
</P>
<P>(ii) Publish a notice of a public meeting in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, which is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, to solicit comments from the public, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Hold a public meeting on the licensee's Thermal Annealing Report.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 15 days after the NRC's receipt of the licensee submissions required by paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2) and (c)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, the NRC staff shall make available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> a summary of its inspection of the licensee's thermal annealing, and the Commission shall hold a public meeting:
</P>
<P>(i) For the licensee to explain to NRC and the public the results of the reactor pressure vessel annealing,
</P>
<P>(ii) for the NRC to discuss its inspection of the reactor vessel annealing, and
</P>
<P>(iii) for the NRC to receive public comments on the annealing.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 45 days of NRC's receipt of the licensee submissions required by paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2) and (c)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, the NRC staff shall complete full documentation of its inspection of the licensee's annealing process and make available this documentation at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 65472, Dec. 19, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 48952, Sept. 9, 1999; 64 FR 53613, Oct. 4, 1999]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>See 64 FR 53582, Oct. 4, 1999, for effectiveness of § 50.66 (b) introductory text, paragraphs (b)(4), (c)(2), and (c)(3)(iii).</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.67" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.67   Accident source term.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to all holders of operating licenses issued prior to January 10, 1997, and holders of renewed licenses under part 54 of this chapter whose initial operating license was issued prior to January 10, 1997, who seek to revise the current accident source term used in their design basis radiological analyses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) A licensee who seeks to revise its current accident source term in design basis radiological consequence analyses shall apply for a license amendment under § 50.90. The application shall contain an evaluation of the consequences of applicable design basis accidents 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> previously analyzed in the safety analysis report.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The fission product release assumed for these calculations should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of design analyses or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events, that would result in potential hazards not exceeded by those from any accident considered credible. Such accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The NRC may issue the amendment only if the applicant's analysis demonstrates with reasonable assurance that:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2-hour period following the onset of the postulated fission product release, would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 0.25 Sv (25 rem) 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> total effective dose equivalent (TEDE).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 2 The use of 0.25 Sv (25 rem) TEDE is not intended to imply that this value constitutes an acceptable limit for emergency doses to the public under accident conditions. Rather, this 0.25 Sv (25 rem) TEDE value has been stated in this section as a reference value, which can be used in the evaluation of proposed design basis changes with respect to potential reactor accidents of exceedingly low probability of occurrence and low risk of public exposure to radiation.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low population zone, who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage), would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 0.25 Sv (25 rem) total effective dose equivalent (TEDE).
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate radiation protection is provided to permit access to and occupancy of the control room under accident conditions without personnel receiving radiation exposures in excess of 0.05 Sv (5 rem) total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) for the duration of the accident.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 72001, Dec. 23, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.68" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.68   Criticality accident requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of a construction permit or operating license for a nuclear power reactor issued under this part or a combined license for a nuclear power reactor issued under part 52 of this chapter, shall comply with either 10 CFR 70.24 of this chapter or the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall comply with the following requirements in lieu of maintaining a monitoring system capable of detecting a criticality as described in 10 CFR 70.24:
</P>
<P>(1) Plant procedures shall prohibit the handling and storage at any one time of more fuel assemblies than have been determined to be safely subcritical under the most adverse moderation conditions feasible by unborated water.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated ratio of neutron production to neutron absorption and leakage (k-effective) of the fresh fuel in the fresh fuel storage racks shall be calculated assuming the racks are loaded with fuel of the maximum fuel assembly reactivity and flooded with unborated water and must not exceed 0.95, at a 95 percent probability, 95 percent confidence level. This evaluation need not be performed if administrative controls and/or design features prevent such flooding or if fresh fuel storage racks are not used.
</P>
<P>(3) If optimum moderation of fresh fuel in the fresh fuel storage racks occurs when the racks are assumed to be loaded with fuel of the maximum fuel assembly reactivity and filled with low-density hydrogenous fluid, the k-effective corresponding to this optimum moderation must not exceed 0.98, at a 95 percent probability, 95 percent confidence level. This evaluation need not be performed if administrative controls and/or design features prevent such moderation or if fresh fuel storage racks are not used.
</P>
<P>(4) If no credit for soluble boron is taken, the k-effective of the spent fuel storage racks loaded with fuel of the maximum fuel assembly reactivity must not exceed 0.95, at a 95 percent probability, 95 percent confidence level, if flooded with unborated water. If credit is taken for soluble boron, the k-effective of the spent fuel storage racks loaded with fuel of the maximum fuel assembly reactivity must not exceed 0.95, at a 95 percent probability, 95 percent confidence level, if flooded with borated water, and the k-effective must remain below 1.0 (subcritical), at a 95 percent probability, 95 percent confidence level, if flooded with unborated water.
</P>
<P>(5) The quantity of SNM, other than nuclear fuel stored onsite, is less than the quantity necessary for a critical mass.
</P>
<P>(6) Radiation monitors are provided in storage and associated handling areas when fuel is present to detect excessive radiation levels and to initiate appropriate safety actions.
</P>
<P>(7) The maximum nominal U-235 enrichment of the fresh fuel assemblies is limited to five (5.0) percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(8) The FSAR is amended no later than the next update which § 50.71(e) of this part requires, indicating that the licensee has chosen to comply with § 50.68(b).
</P>
<P>(c) While a spent fuel transportation package approved under Part 71 of this chapter or spent fuel storage cask approved under Part 72 of this chapter is in the spent fuel pool:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements in § 50.68(b) do not apply to the fuel located within that package or cask; and
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements in Part 71 or 72 of this chapter, as applicable, and the requirements of the Certificate of Compliance for that package or cask, apply to the fuel within that package or cask.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 63130, Nov. 12, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 66652, Nov. 16, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.69" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.108.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.69   Risk-informed categorization and treatment of structures, systems and components for nuclear power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Risk-Informed Safety Class (RISC)-1 structures, systems, and components (SSCs)</I> means safety-related SSCs that perform safety significant functions.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-Informed Safety Class (RISC)-2 structures, systems and components (SSCs)</I> means nonsafety-related SSCs that perform safety significant functions.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-Informed Safety Class (RISC)-3 structures, systems and components (SSCs)</I> means safety-related SSCs that perform low safety significant functions.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-Informed Safety Class (RISC)-4 structures, systems and components (SSCs)</I> means nonsafety-related SSCs that perform low safety significant functions.
</P>
<P><I>Safety significant function</I> means a function whose degradation or loss could result in a significant adverse effect on defense-in-depth, safety margin, or risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability and scope of risk-informed treatment of SSCs and submittal/approval process.</I> (1) A holder of a license to operate a light water reactor (LWR) nuclear power plant under this part; a holder of a renewed LWR license under part 54 of this chapter; an applicant for a construction permit or operating license under this part; or an applicant for a design approval, a combined license, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter; may voluntarily comply with the requirements in this section as an alternative to compliance with the following requirements for RISC-3 and RISC-4 SSCs:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 CFR part 21.
</P>
<P>(ii) The portion of 10 CFR 50.46a(b) that imposes requirements to conform to Appendix B to 10 CFR part 50.
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 CFR 50.49.
</P>
<P>(iv) 10 CFR 50.55(e).
</P>
<P>(v) The inservice testing requirements in 10 CFR 50.55a(f); the inservice inspection, and repair and replacement (with the exception of fracture toughness), requirements for ASME Class 2 and Class 3 SSCs in 10 CFR 50.55a(g); and the electrical component quality and qualification requirements in Section 4.3 and 4.4 of IEEE 279, and Sections 5.3 and 5.4 of IEEE 603-1991, as incorporated by reference in 10 CFR 50.55a(h).
</P>
<P>(vi) 10 CFR 50.65, except for paragraph (a)(4).
</P>
<P>(vii) 10 CFR 50.72.
</P>
<P>(viii) 10 CFR 50.73.
</P>
<P>(ix) Appendix B to 10 CFR part 50.
</P>
<P>(x) The Type B and Type C leakage testing requirements in both Options A and B of Appendix J to 10 CFR part 50, for penetrations and valves meeting the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Containment penetrations that are either 1-inch nominal size or less, or continuously pressurized.
</P>
<P>(B) Containment isolation valves that meet one or more of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The valve is required to be open under accident conditions to prevent or mitigate core damage events;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The valve is normally closed and in a physically closed, water-filled system;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The valve is in a physically closed system whose piping pressure rating exceeds the containment design pressure rating and is not connected to the reactor coolant pressure boundary; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The valve is 1-inch nominal size or less.
</P>
<P>(xi) Appendix A to part 100, Sections VI(a)(1) and VI(a)(2), to the extent that these regulations require qualification testing and specific engineering methods to demonstrate that SSCs are designed to withstand the Safe Shutdown Earthquake and Operating Basis Earthquake.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee voluntarily choosing to implement this section shall submit an application for license amendment under § 50.90 that contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the process for categorization of RISC-1, RISC-2, RISC-3 and RISC-4 SSCs.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the measures taken to assure that the quality and level of detail of the systematic processes that evaluate the plant for internal and external events during normal operation, low power, and shutdown (including the plant-specific probabilistic risk assessment (PRA), margins-type approaches, or other systematic evaluation techniques used to evaluate severe accident vulnerabilities) are adequate for the categorization of SSCs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Results of the PRA review process conducted to meet § 50.69(c)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of, and basis for acceptability of, the evaluations to be conducted to satisfy § 50.69(c)(1)(iv). The evaluations must include the effects of common cause interaction susceptibility, and the potential impacts from known degradation mechanisms for both active and passive functions, and address internally and externally initiated events and plant operating modes (e.g., full power and shutdown conditions).
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission will approve a licensee's implementation of this section if it determines that the process for categorization of RISC-1, RISC-2, RISC-3, and RISC-4 SSCs satisfies the requirements of § 50.69(c) by issuing a license amendment approving the licensee's use of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) An applicant choosing to implement this section shall include the information in § 50.69(b)(2) as part of application. The Commission will approve an applicant's implementation of this section if it determines that the process for categorization of RISC-1, RISC-2, RISC-3, and RISC-4 SSCs satisfies the requirements of § 50.69(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>SSC Categorization Process.</I> (1) SSCs must be categorized as RISC-1, RISC-2, RISC-3, or RISC-4 SSCs using a categorization process that determines if an SSC performs one or more safety significant functions and identifies those functions. The process must:
</P>
<P>(i) Consider results and insights from the plant-specific PRA. This PRA must at a minimum model severe accident scenarios resulting from internal initiating events occurring at full power operation. The PRA must be of sufficient quality and level of detail to support the categorization process, and must be subjected to a peer review process assessed against a standard or set of acceptance criteria that is endorsed by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine SSC functional importance using an integrated, systematic process for addressing initiating events (internal and external), SSCs, and plant operating modes, including those not modeled in the plant-specific PRA. The functions to be identified and considered include design bases functions and functions credited for mitigation and prevention of severe accidents. All aspects of the integrated, systematic process used to characterize SSC importance must reasonably reflect the current plant configuration and operating practices, and applicable plant and industry operational experience.
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain defense-in-depth.
</P>
<P>(iv) Include evaluations that provide reasonable confidence that for SSCs categorized as RISC-3, sufficient safety margins are maintained and that any potential increases in core damage frequency (CDF) and large early release frequency (LERF) resulting from changes in treatment permitted by implementation of §§ 50.69(b)(1) and (d)(2) are small.
</P>
<P>(v) Be performed for entire systems and structures, not for selected components within a system or structure.
</P>
<P>(2) The SSCs must be categorized by an Integrated Decision-Making Panel (IDP) staffed with expert, plant-knowledgeable members whose expertise includes, at a minimum, PRA, safety analysis, plant operation, design engineering, and system engineering.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative treatment requirements</I>—(1) <I>RISC-1 and RISC 2 SSCs.</I> The licensee or applicant shall ensure that RISC-1 and RISC-2 SSCs perform their functions consistent with the categorization process assumptions by evaluating treatment being applied to these SSCs to ensure that it supports the key assumptions in the categorization process that relate to their assumed performance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>RISC-3 SSCs.</I> The licensee or applicant shall ensure, with reasonable confidence, that RISC-3 SSCs remain capable of performing their safety-related functions under design basis conditions, including seismic conditions and environmental conditions and effects throughout their service life. The treatment of RISC-3 SSCs must be consistent with the categorization process. Inspection and testing, and corrective action shall be provided for RISC-3 SSCs.
</P>
<P>(i) Inspection and testing. Periodic inspection and testing activities must be conducted to determine that RISC-3 SSCs will remain capable of performing their safety-related functions under design basis conditions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Corrective action. Conditions that would prevent a RISC-3 SSC from performing its safety-related functions under design basis conditions must be corrected in a timely manner. For significant conditions adverse to quality, measures must be taken to provide reasonable confidence that the cause of the condition is determined and corrective action taken to preclude repetition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Feedback and process adjustment</I>—(1) <I>RISC-1, RISC-2, RISC-3 and RISC-4 SSCs.</I> The licensee shall review changes to the plant, operational practices, applicable plant and industry operational experience, and, as appropriate, update the PRA and SSC categorization and treatment processes. The licensee shall perform this review in a timely manner but no longer than once every two refueling outages.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>RISC-1 and RISC-2 SSCs.</I> The licensee shall monitor the performance of RISC-1 and RISC-2 SSCs. The licensee shall make adjustments as necessary to either the categorization or treatment processes so that the categorization process and results are maintained valid.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>RISC-3 SSCs.</I> The licensee shall consider data collected in § 50.69(d)(2)(i) for RISC-3 SSCs to determine if there are any adverse changes in performance such that the SSC unreliability values approach or exceed the values used in the evaluations conducted to satisfy § 50.69(c)(1)(iv). The licensee shall make adjustments as necessary to the categorization or treatment processes so that the categorization process and results are maintained valid.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Program documentation, change control and records.</I> (1) The licensee or applicant shall document the basis for its categorization of any SSC under paragraph (c) of this section before removing any requirements under § 50.69(b)(1) for those SSCs.
</P>
<P>(2) Following implementation of this section, licensees and applicants shall update their final safety analysis report (FSAR) to reflect which systems have been categorized, in accordance with § 50.71(e).
</P>
<P>(3) When a licensee first implements this section for a SSC, changes to the FSAR for the implementation of the changes in accordance with § 50.69(d) need not include a supporting § 50.59 evaluation of the changes directly related to implementation. Thereafter, changes to the programs and procedures for implementation of § 50.69(d), as described in the FSAR, may be made if the requirements of this section and § 50.59 continue to be met.
</P>
<P>(4) When a licensee first implements this section for a SSC, changes to the quality assurance plan for the implementation of the changes in accordance with § 50.69(d) need not include a supporting § 50.54(a) review of the changes directly related to implementation. Thereafter, changes to the programs and procedures for implementation of § 50.69(d), as described in the quality assurance plan may be made if the requirements of this section and § 50.54(a) continue to be met.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reporting.</I> The licensee shall submit a licensee event report under § 50.73(b) for any event or condition that prevented, or would have prevented, a RISC-1 or RISC-2 SSC from performing a safety significant function.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 68047, Nov. 22, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.109" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Inspections, Records, Reports, Notifications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.70" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.109.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.70   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant for or holder of a license, including a construction permit or an early site permit, shall permit inspection, by duly authorized representatives of the Commission, of his records, premises, activities, and of licensed materials in possession or use, related to the license or construction permit or early site permit as may be necessary to effectuate the purposes of the Act, as amended, including Section 105 of the Act, and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each licensee and each holder of a construction permit shall, upon request by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, provide rent-free office space for the exclusive use of the Commission inspection personnel. Heat, air conditioning, light, electrical outlets, and janitorial services shall be furnished by each licensee and each holder of a construction permit. The office shall be convenient to and have full access to the facility and shall provide the inspector both visual and acoustic privacy.
</P>
<P>(2) For a site with a single power reactor or fuel facility licensed under part 50 or part 52 of this chapter, or a facility issued a manufacturing license under part 52, the space provided shall be adequate to accommodate a full-time inspector, a part-time secretary and transient NRC personnel and will be generally commensurate with other office facilities at the site. A space of 250 square feet either within the site's office complex or in an office trailer or other onsite space is suggested as a guide. For sites containing multiple power reactor units or fuel facilities, additional space may be requested to accommodate additional full-time inspector(s). The office space that is provided shall be subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. All furniture, supplies and communication equipment will be furnished by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee or construction permit holder shall afford any NRC resident inspector assigned to that site, or other NRC inspectors identified by the Regional Administrator as likely to inspect the facility, immediate unfettered access, equivalent to access provided regular plant employees, following proper identification and compliance with applicable access control measures for security, radiological protection and personal safety.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee or construction permit holder (nuclear power reactor only) shall ensure that the arrival and presence of an NRC inspector, who has been properly authorized facility access as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, is not announced or otherwise communicated by its employees or contractors to other persons at the facility unless specifically requested by the NRC inspector.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956; 44 FR 47919, Aug. 16, 1979, as amended at 52 FR 31612, Aug. 21, 1987; 53 FR 42942, Oct. 25, 1988; 72 FR 49501, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 5722, Jan. 31, 2008; 75 FR 73944, Nov. 30, 2010; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.71" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.109.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.71   Maintenance of records, making of reports.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20241230" REFID="14">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 106251, Dec. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) Each licensee, including each holder of a construction permit or early site permit, shall maintain all records and make all reports, in connection with the activity, as may be required by the conditions of the license or permit or by the regulations, and orders of the Commission in effectuating the purposes of the Act, including Section 105 of the Act, and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. Reports must be submitted in accordance with § 50.4 or 10 CFR 52.3, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to any production or utilization facility of a type described in § 50.21(b) or 50.22, or a testing facility, each licensee and each holder of a construction permit shall submit its annual financial report, including the certified financial statements, to the Commission, as specified in § 50.4, upon issuance of the report. However, licensees and holders of a construction permit who submit a Form 10-Q with the Securities and Exchange Commission or a Form 1 with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, need not submit the annual financial report or the certified financial statement under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) Records that are required by the regulations in this part or part 52 of this chapter, by license condition, or by technical specifications must be retained for the period specified by the appropriate regulation, license condition, or technical specification. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, these records must be retained until the Commission terminates the facility license or, in the case of an early site permit, until the permit expires.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Records which must be maintained under this part or part 52 of this chapter may be the original or a reproduced copy or microform if the reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability of producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with, and loss of records.
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a conflict between the Commission's regulations in this part, license condition, or technical specification, or other written Commission approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the retention period specified in the regulations in this part for such records shall apply unless the Commission, pursuant to § 50.12 of this part, has granted a specific exemption from the record retention requirements specified in the regulations in this part.


</P>
<P>(e) Each person licensed to operate a nuclear power reactor, or non-power production or utilization facility, under the provisions of § 50.21 or § 50.22, and each applicant for a combined license under part 52 of this chapter, shall update periodically, as provided in paragraphs (e) (3) and (4) of this section, the final safety analysis report (FSAR) originally submitted as part of the application for the license, to assure that the information included in the report contains the latest information developed. This submittal shall contain all the changes necessary to reflect information and analyses submitted to the Commission by the applicant or licensee or prepared by the applicant or licensee pursuant to Commission requirement since the submittal of the original FSAR, or as appropriate, the last update to the FSAR under this section. The submittal shall include the effects 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of all changes made in the facility or procedures as described in the FSAR; all safety analyses and evaluations performed by the applicant or licensee either in support of approved license amendments or in support of conclusions that changes did not require a license amendment in accordance with § 50.59(c)(2) or, in the case of a license that references a certified design, in accordance with § 52.98(c) of this chapter; and all analyses of new safety issues performed by or on behalf of the applicant or licensee at Commission request. The updated information shall be appropriately located within the update to the FSAR.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Effects of changes include appropriate revisions of descriptions in the FSAR such that the FSAR (as updated) is complete and accurate.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The licensee shall submit revisions containing updated information to the Commission, as specified in § 50.4, on a replacement-page basis that is accompanied by a list which identifies the current pages of the FSAR following page replacement.
</P>
<P>(2) The submittal shall include (i) a certification by a duly authorized officer of the licensee that either the information accurately presents changes made since the previous submittal, necessary to reflect information and analyses submitted to the Commission or prepared pursuant to Commission requirement, or that no such changes were made; and (ii) an identification of changes made under the provisions of § 50.59 but not previously submitted to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) For nuclear power reactor licensees, a revision of the original FSAR containing those original pages that are still applicable plus new replacement pages shall be filed within 24 months of either July 22, 1980, or the date of issuance of the operating license, whichever is later, and shall bring the FSAR up to date as of a maximum of 6 months prior to the date of filing the revision.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) During the period from the docketing of an application for a combined license under subpart C of part 52 of this chapter until the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter, the update to the FSAR must be submitted annually.
</P>
<P>(iv) Holders of non-power production or utilization facility licenses issued after January 29, 2025, shall file a revision of the original FSAR containing those original pages that are still applicable plus new replacement pages within 5 years of the date of issuance of the operating license. The revision must bring the FSAR up to date as of a maximum of 6 months prior to the date of filing the revision.








</P>
<P>(4)(i) For nuclear power licensees, subsequent revisions must be filed annually or 6 months after each refueling outage provided the interval between successive updates does not exceed 24 months. The revisions must reflect all changes up to a maximum of 6 months prior to the date of filling. For nuclear power reactor facilities that have submitted the certifications required by § 50.82(a)(1), subsequent revisions must be filed every 24 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-power production or utilization facility licensees shall file an FSAR update no more than 5 years from the date of the submittal of the updated FSAR required by § 50.71(e)(3)(iv) or by order and shall file subsequent updates no more than 5 years from the date of the previous submittal. Each submittal must reflect all changes made to the FSAR up to a maximum of 6 months prior to the date of filing the submittal.


</P>
<P>(5) Each replacement page shall include both a change indicator for the area changed, e.g., a bold line vertically drawn in the margin adjacent to the portion actually changed, and a page change identification (date of change or change number or both).
</P>
<P>(6) The updated FSAR shall be retained by the licensee until the Commission terminates their license.
</P>
<P>(f) Each person licensed to manufacture a nuclear power reactor under subpart F of 10 CFR part 52 shall update the FSAR originally submitted as part of the application to reflect any modification to the design that is approved by the Commission under § 52.171 of this chapter, and any new analyses of the design performed by or on behalf of the licensee at the NRC's request. This submittal shall contain all the changes necessary to reflect information and analyses submitted to the Commission by the licensee or prepared by the licensee with respect to the modification approved under § 52.171 of this chapter or the analyses requested by the Commission under § 52.171 of this chapter. The updated information shall be appropriately located within the update to the FSAR.


</P>
<P>(g) The provisions of this section apply to nuclear power reactor licensees that have submitted the certification of permanent cessation of operations required under §§ 50.82(a)(1)(i) or 52.110(a)(1) of this chapter. The provisions of paragraphs (a), (c), and (d) of this section also apply to non-power production or utilization facility licensees that are no longer authorized to operate.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) No later than the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel, each holder of a combined license under subpart C of 10 CFR part 52 shall develop a level 1 and a level 2 probabilistic risk assessment (PRA). The PRA must cover those initiating events and modes for which NRC-endorsed consensus standards on PRA exist one year prior to the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel.
</P>
<P>(2) Each holder of a combined license shall maintain and upgrade the PRA required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section. The upgraded PRA must cover initiating events and modes of operation contained in NRC-endorsed consensus standards on PRA in effect one year prior to each required upgrade. The PRA must be upgraded every four years until the permanent cessation of operations under § 52.110(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Each holder of a combined license shall, no later than the date on which the licensee submits an application for a renewed license, upgrade the PRA required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section to cover all modes and all initiating events.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 9704, July 4, 1968, as amended at 41 FR 18303, May 3, 1976; 45 FR 30615, May 9, 1980; 51 FR 40310, Nov. 6, 1986; 53 FR 19250, May 27, 1988; 57 FR 39358, Aug. 31, 1992; 61 FR 39301, July 29, 1996; 64 FR 53614, Oct. 4, 1999; 71 FR 29246, May 22, 2006; 72 FR 49501, Aug. 28, 2007; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021; 89 FR 106251, Dec. 30, 2024]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>See 64 FR 53582, Oct. 4, 1999, for effectiveness of § 50.71(e) introductory text.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.72" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.109.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.72   Immediate notification requirements for operating nuclear power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I>
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (1) Each nuclear power reactor licensee licensed under §§ 50.21(b) or 50.22 holding an operating license under this part or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter after the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g), shall notify the NRC Operations Center via the Emergency Notification System of:


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Other requirements for immediate notification of the NRC by licensed operating nuclear power reactors are contained elsewhere in this chapter, in particular §§ 20.1906, 20.2202, 50.36, 72.74, 72.75, and 73.1200.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The declaration of any of the Emergency Classes specified in the licensee's approved Emergency Plan; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> or 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> These Emergency Classes are addressed in Appendix E of this part.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Those non-emergency events specified in paragraph (b) of this section that occurred within three years of the date of discovery. 


</P>
<P>(2) If the Emergency Notification System is inoperative, the licensee shall make the required notifications via commercial telephone service, other dedicated telephone system, or any other method which will ensure that a report is made as soon as practical to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall notify the NRC immediately after notification of the appropriate State or local agencies and not later than one hour after the time the licensee declares one of the Emergency Classes. 
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall activate the Emergency Response Data System (ERDS) 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> as soon as possible but not later than one hour after declaring an Emergency Class of alert, site area emergency, or general emergency. The ERDS may also be activated by the licensee during emergency drills or exercises if the licensee's computer system has the capability to transmit the exercise data. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Requirements for ERDS are addressed in Appendix E, Section VI.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) When making a report under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the licensee shall identify: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Emergency Class declared; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (b)(1), “One-hour reports,” paragraph (b)(2), “Four-hour reports,” or paragraph (b)(3), “Eight-hour reports,” as the paragraph of this section requiring notification of the non-emergency event. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-emergency events</I>—(1) <I>One-hour reports.</I> If not reported as a declaration of an Emergency Class under paragraph (a) of this section, the licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as practical and in all cases within one hour of the occurrence of any deviation from the plant's Technical Specifications authorized pursuant to § 50.54(x) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Four-hour reports.</I> If not reported under paragraphs (a) or (b)(1) of this section, the licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as practical and in all cases, within four hours of the occurrence of any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The initiation of any nuclear plant shutdown required by the plant's Technical Specifications. 
</P>
<P>(ii)-(iii) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) Any event that results or should have resulted in emergency core cooling system (ECCS) discharge into the reactor coolant system as a result of a valid signal except when the actuation results from and is part of a pre-planned sequence during testing or reactor operation. 
</P>
<P>(B) Any event or condition that results in actuation of the reactor protection system (RPS) when the reactor is critical except when the actuation results from and is part of a pre-planned sequence during testing or reactor operation. 
</P>
<P>(v)-(x) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(xi) Any event or situation, related to the health and safety of the public or onsite personnel, or protection of the environment, for which a news release is planned or notification to other government agencies has been or will be made. Such an event may include an onsite fatality or inadvertent release of radioactively contaminated materials. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eight-hour reports.</I> If not reported under paragraphs (a), (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, the licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as practical and in all cases within eight hours of the occurrence of any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any event or condition that results in: 
</P>
<P>(A) The condition of the nuclear power plant, including its principal safety barriers, being seriously degraded; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The nuclear power plant being in an unanalyzed condition that significantly degrades plant safety. 
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) Any event or condition that results in valid actuation of any of the systems listed in paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(B) of this section, except when the actuation results from and is part of a pre-planned sequence during testing or reactor operation. 
</P>
<P>(B) The systems to which the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(A) of this section apply are: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reactor protection system (RPS) including: Reactor scram and reactor trip. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Actuation of the RPS when the reactor is critical is reportable under paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) General containment isolation signals affecting containment isolation valves in more than one system or multiple main steam isolation valves (MSIVs). 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Emergency core cooling systems (ECCS) for pressurized water reactors (PWRs) including: High-head, intermediate-head, and low-head injection systems and the low pressure injection function of residual (decay) heat removal systems. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) ECCS for boiling water reactors (BWRs) including: High-pressure and low-pressure core spray systems; high-pressure coolant injection system; low pressure injection function of the residual heat removal system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) BWR reactor core isolation cooling system; isolation condenser system; and feedwater coolant injection system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) PWR auxiliary or emergency feedwater system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Containment heat removal and depressurization systems, including containment spray and fan cooler systems. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Emergency ac electrical power systems, including: Emergency diesel generators (EDGs); hydroelectric facilities used in lieu of EDGs at the Oconee Station; and BWR dedicated Division 3 EDGs. 
</P>
<P>(v) Any event or condition that at the time of discovery could have prevented the fulfillment of the safety function of structures or systems that are needed to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition; 
</P>
<P>(B) Remove residual heat; 
</P>
<P>(C) Control the release of radioactive material; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Mitigate the consequences of an accident. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Events covered in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section may include one or more procedural errors, equipment failures, and/or discovery of design, analysis, fabrication, construction, and/or procedural inadequacies. However, individual component failures need not be reported pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section if redundant equipment in the same system was operable and available to perform the required safety function. 
</P>
<P>(vii)-(xi) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(xii) Any event requiring the transport of a radioactively contaminated person to an offsite medical facility for treatment. 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Any event that results in a major loss of emergency assessment capability, offsite response capability, or offsite communications capability (e.g., significant portion of control room indication, Emergency Notification System, or offsite notification system).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Followup notification.</I> With respect to the telephone notifications made under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, in addition to making the required initial notification, each licensee, shall during the course of the event:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Immediately report</I> (i) any further degradation in the level of safety of the plant or other worsening plant conditions, including those that require the declaration of any of the Emergency Classes, if such a declaration has not been previously made, or (ii) any change from one Emergency Class to another, or (iii) a termination of the Emergency Class.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediately report</I> (i) the results of ensuing evaluations or assessments of plant conditions, (ii) the effectiveness of response or protective measures taken, and (iii) information related to plant behavior that is not understood.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain an open, continuous communication channel with the NRC Operations Center upon request by the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 39046, Aug. 29, 1983; 48 FR 40882, Sept. 12, 1983; 55 FR 29194, July 18, 1990, as amended at 56 FR 944, Jan. 10, 1991; 56 FR 23473, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 40184, Aug. 13, 1991; 57 FR 41381, Sept. 10, 1992; 58 FR 67661, Dec. 22, 1993; 59 FR 14087, Mar. 25, 1994; 65 FR 63786, Oct. 25, 2000; 72 FR 49502, Aug. 28, 2007; 85 FR 65662, Oct. 16, 2020; 87 FR 20697, Apr. 8, 2022; 88 FR 15880, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.73" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.109.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.73   Licensee event report system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable events.</I> (1) The holder of an operating license under this part or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter (after the Commission has made the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter) for a nuclear power plant (licensee) shall submit a Licensee Event Report (LER) for any event of the type described in this paragraph within 60 days after the discovery of the event. In the case of an invalid actuation reported under § 50.73(a)(2)(iv), other than actuation of the reactor protection system (RPS) when the reactor is critical, the licensee may, at its option, provide a telephone notification to the NRC Operations Center within 60 days after discovery of the event instead of submitting a written LER. Unless otherwise specified in this section, the licensee shall report an event if it occurred within 3 years of the date of discovery regardless of the plant mode or power level, and regardless of the significance of the structure, system, or component that initiated the event.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall report: 
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The completion of any nuclear plant shutdown required by the plant's Technical Specifications. 
</P>
<P>(B) Any operation or condition which was prohibited by the plant's Technical Specifications except when: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Technical Specification is administrative in nature; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The event consisted solely of a case of a late surveillance test where the oversight was corrected, the test was performed, and the equipment was found to be capable of performing its specified safety functions; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Technical Specification was revised prior to discovery of the event such that the operation or condition was no longer prohibited at the time of discovery of the event. 
</P>
<P>(C) Any deviation from the plant's Technical Specifications authorized pursuant to § 50.54(x) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any event or condition that resulted in: 
</P>
<P>(A) The condition of the nuclear power plant, including its principal safety barriers, being seriously degraded; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The nuclear power plant being in an unanalyzed condition that significantly degraded plant safety. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any natural phenomenon or other external condition that posed an actual threat to the safety of the nuclear power plant or significantly hampered site personnel in the performance of duties necessary for the safe operation of the nuclear power plant. 
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) Any event or condition that resulted in manual or automatic actuation of any of the systems listed in paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, except when:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The actuation resulted from and was part of a pre-planned sequence during testing or reactor operation; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The actuation was invalid and; 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Occurred while the system was properly removed from service; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Occurred after the safety function had been already completed. 
</P>
<P>(B) The systems to which the requirements of paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(A) of this section apply are: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Reactor protection system (RPS) including: reactor scram or reactor trip. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) General containment isolation signals affecting containment isolation valves in more than one system or multiple main steam isolation valves (MSIVs). 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Emergency core cooling systems (ECCS) for pressurized water reactors (PWRs) including: high-head, intermediate-head, and low-head injection systems and the low pressure injection function of residual (decay) heat removal systems. 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) ECCS for boiling water reactors (BWRs) including: high-pressure and low-pressure core spray systems; high-pressure coolant injection system; low pressure injection function of the residual heat removal system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) BWR reactor core isolation cooling system; isolation condenser system; and feedwater coolant injection system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) PWR auxiliary or emergency feedwater system. 
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Containment heat removal and depressurization systems, including containment spray and fan cooler systems. 
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Emergency ac electrical power systems, including: emergency diesel generators (EDGs); hydroelectric facilities used in lieu of EDGs at the Oconee Station; and BWR dedicated Division 3 EDGs. 
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Emergency service water systems that do not normally run and that serve as ultimate heat sinks. 
</P>
<P>(v) Any event or condition that could have prevented the fulfillment of the safety function of structures or systems that are needed to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition; 
</P>
<P>(B) Remove residual heat; 
</P>
<P>(C) Control the release of radioactive material; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Mitigate the consequences of an accident. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Events covered in paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section may include one or more procedural errors, equipment failures, and/or discovery of design, analysis, fabrication, construction, and/or procedural inadequacies. However, individual component failures need not be reported pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section if redundant equipment in the same system was operable and available to perform the required safety function. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Any event where a single cause or condition caused at least one independent train or channel to become inoperable in multiple systems or two independent trains or channels to become inoperable in a single system designed to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition; 
</P>
<P>(B) Remove residual heat; 
</P>
<P>(C) Control the release of radioactive material; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Mitigate the consequences of an accident. 
</P>
<P>(viii)(A) Any airborne radioactive release that, when averaged over a time period of 1 hour, resulted in airborne radionuclide concentrations in an unrestricted area that exceeded 20 times the applicable concentration limits specified in appendix B to part 20, table 2, column 1. 
</P>
<P>(B) Any liquid effluent release that, when averaged over a time period of 1 hour, exceeds 20 times the applicable concentrations specified in appendix B to part 20, table 2, column 2, at the point of entry into the receiving waters (<I>i.e.,</I> unrestricted area) for all radionuclides except tritium and dissolved noble gases. 
</P>
<P>(ix)(A) Any event or condition that as a result of a single cause could have prevented the fulfillment of a safety function for two or more trains or channels in different systems that are needed to: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Remove residual heat; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Control the release of radioactive material; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Mitigate the consequences of an accident. 
</P>
<P>(B) Events covered in paragraph (a)(2)(ix)(A) of this section may include cases of procedural error, equipment failure, and/or discovery of a design, analysis, fabrication, construction, and/or procedural inadequacy. However, licensees are not required to report an event pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ix)(A) of this section if the event results from: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A shared dependency among trains or channels that is a natural or expected consequence of the approved plant design; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Normal and expected wear or degradation. 
</P>
<P>(x) Any event that posed an actual threat to the safety of the nuclear power plant or significantly hampered site personnel in the performance of duties necessary for the safe operation of the nuclear power plant including fires, toxic gas releases, or radioactive releases. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The Licensee Event Report shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief abstract describing the major occurrences during the event, including all component or system failures that contributed to the event and significant corrective action taken or planned to prevent recurrence.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A clear, specific, narrative description of what occurred so that knowledgeable readers conversant with the design of commercial nuclear power plants, but not familiar with the details of a particular plant, can understand the complete event.
</P>
<P>(ii) The narrative description must include the following specific information as appropriate for the particular event:
</P>
<P>(A) Plant operating conditions before the event.
</P>
<P>(B) Status of structures, components, or systems that were inoperable at the start of the event and that contributed to the event.
</P>
<P>(C) Dates and approximate times of occurrences.
</P>
<P>(D) The cause of each component or system failure or personnel error, if known.
</P>
<P>(E) The failure mode, mechanism, and effect of each failed component, if known.
</P>
<P>(F) The Energy Industry Identification System component function identifier and system name of each component or system referred to in the LER. 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Energy Industry Identification System is defined in: IEEE Std 803-1983 (May 16, 1983) Recommended Practice for Unique Identification in Power Plants and Related Facilities—Principles and Definitions. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) IEEE Std 803-1983 has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A notice of any changes made to the material incorporated by reference will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Copies may be obtained from the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, 445 Hoes Lane, P.O. Box 1331, Piscataway, NJ 08855-1331. IEEE Std 803-1983 is available for inspection at the NRC's Technical Library, which is located in the Two White Flint North Building, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(G) For failures of components with multiple functions, include a list of systems or secondary functions that were also affected.
</P>
<P>(H) For failure that rendered a train of a safety system inoperable, an estimate of the elapsed time from the discovery of the failure until the train was returned to service.
</P>
<P>(I) The method of discovery of each component or system failure or procedural error.
</P>
<P>(J) For each human performance related root cause, the licensee shall discuss the cause(s) and circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(K) Automatically and manually initiated safety system responses.
</P>
<P>(L) The manufacturer and model number (or other identification) of each component that failed during the event.
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of the safety consequences and implications of the event. This assessment must include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The availability of systems or components that could have performed the same function as the components and systems that failed during the event, and
</P>
<P>(ii) For events that occurred when the reactor was shutdown, the availability of systems or components that are needed to shutdown the reactor and maintain safe shutdown conditions, remove residual heat, control the release of radioactive material, or mitigate the consequences of an accident.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of any corrective actions planned as a result of the event, including those to reduce the probability of similar events occurring in the future.
</P>
<P>(5) Reference to any previous similar events at the same plant that are known to the licensee.
</P>
<P>(6) The name and telephone number of a person within the licensee's organization who is knowledgeable about the event and can provide additional information concerning the event and the plant's characteristics.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplemental information.</I> The Commission may require the licensee to submit specific additional information beyond that required by paragraph (b) of this section if the Commission finds that supplemental material is necessary for complete understanding of an unusually complex or significant event. These requests for supplemental information will be made in writing and the licensee shall submit, as specified in § 50.4, the requested information as a supplement to the initial LER.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of reports.</I> Licensee Event Reports must be prepared on Form NRC 366 and submitted to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, as specified in § 50.4. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Report legibility.</I> The reports and copies that licensees are required to submit to the Commission under the provisions of this section must be of sufficient quality to permit legible reproduction and micrographic processing. 
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reportable occurrences.</I> The requirements contained in this section replace all existing requirements for licensees to report “Reportable Occurrences” as defined in individual plant Technical Specifications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 33858, July 26, 1983, as amended at 49 FR 47824, Dec. 7, 1984; 51 FR 40310, Nov. 6, 1986; 56 FR 23473, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991; 57 FR 41381, Sept. 10, 1992; 58 FR 67661, Dec. 22, 1993; 59 FR 50689, Oct. 5, 1994; 63 FR 50480, Sept. 22, 1998; 65 FR 63787, Oct. 25, 2000; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; 72 FR 49502, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.74" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.109.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.74   Notification of change in operator or senior operator status.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall notify the appropriate NRC contact, as described in § 55.5 of this chapter, within 30 days of the following in regard to a licensed operator or senior operator:




</P>
<P>(a) Permanent reassignment from the position for which the licensee has certified the need for a licensed operator or senior operator under § 55.31(a)(3) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) Termination of any operator or senior operator;
</P>
<P>(c) Permanent disability or illness as described in § 55.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9469, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 13616, Mar. 14, 1995; 68 FR 58809, Oct. 10, 2003; 86 FR 67842, Nov. 30, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.75" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.109.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.75   Reporting and recordkeeping for decommissioning planning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section establishes requirements for indicating to NRC how a licensee will provide reasonable assurance that funds will be available for the decommissioning process. For power reactor licensees (except a holder of a manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter), reasonable assurance consists of a series of steps as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (e), and (f) of this section. Funding for the decommissioning of power reactors may also be subject to the regulation of Federal or State Government agencies (e.g., Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) and State Public Utility Commissions) that have jurisdiction over rate regulation. The requirements of this section, in particular paragraph (c) of this section, are in addition to, and not substitution for, other requirements, and are not intended to be used by themselves or by other agencies to establish rates.
</P>
<P>(b) Each power reactor applicant for or holder of an operating license, and each applicant for a combined license under subpart C of 10 CFR part 52 for a production or utilization facility of the type and power level specified in paragraph (c) of this section shall submit a decommissioning report, as required by § 50.33(k).
</P>
<P>(1) For an applicant for or holder of an operating license under part 50, the report must contain a certification that financial assurance for decommissioning will be (for a license applicant), or has been (for a license holder), provided in an amount which may be more, but not less, than the amount stated in the table in paragraph (c)(1) of this section adjusted using a rate at least equal to that stated in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. For an applicant for a combined license under subpart C of 10 CFR part 52, the report must contain a certification that financial assurance for decommissioning will be provided no later than 30 days after the Commission publishes notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 52.103(a) in an amount which may be more, but not less, than the amount stated in the table in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, adjusted using a rate at least equal to that stated in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount to be provided must be adjusted annually using a rate at least equal to that stated in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The amount must be covered by one or more of the methods described in paragraph (e) of this section as acceptable to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(4) The amount stated in the applicant's or licensee's certification may be based on a cost estimate for decommissioning the facility. As part of the certification, a copy of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section must be submitted to NRC; <I>provided, however,</I> that an applicant for or holder of a combined license need not obtain such financial instrument or submit a copy to the Commission except as provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Table of minimum amounts (January 1986 dollars) required to demonstrate reasonable assurance of funds for decommissioning by reactor type and power level, P (in MWt); adjustment factor. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Amounts are based on activities related to the definition of “Decommission” in § 50.2 of this part and do not include the cost of removal and disposal of spent fuel or of nonradioactive structures and materials beyond that necessary to terminate the license.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">Millions</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1)(i) For a PWR:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">greater than or equal to 3400 MWt</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$105
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">between 1200 MWt and 3400 MWt (For a PWR of less than 1200 MWt, use P = 1200 MWt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$(75 + 0.0088P)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) For a BWR:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">greater than or equal to 3400 MWt</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$135
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">between 1200 MWt and 3400 MWt (For a BWR of less than 1200 MWt, use P = 1200 MWt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$(104 + 0.009P)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) An adjustment factor at least equal to 0.65 L + 0.13 E + 0.22 B is to be used where L and E are escalation factors for labor and energy, respectively, and are to be taken from regional data of U.S. Department of Labor Bureau of Labor Statistics and B is an escalation factor for waste burial and is to be taken from NRC report NUREG-1307, “Report on Waste Burial Charges.”




</P>
<P>(d)(1) Each applicant for or holder of an operating license for a non-power production or utilization facility shall submit a decommissioning report as required by § 50.33(k) of this part.








</P>
<P>(2) The report must:
</P>
<P>(i) Contain a cost estimate for decommissioning the facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Indicate which method or methods described in paragraph (e) of this section as acceptable to the NRC will be used to provide funds for decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a description of the means of adjusting the cost estimate and associated funding level periodically over the life of the facility.




</P>
<P>(e)(1) Financial assurance is to be provided by the following methods. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prepayment.</I> Prepayment is the deposit made preceding the start of operation or the transfer of a license under § 50.80 into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the administrative control of the licensee and its subsidiaries or affiliates of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs at the time permanent termination of operations is expected. Prepayment may be in the form of a trust, escrow account, or Government fund with payment by, certificate of deposit, deposit of government or other securities or other method acceptable to the NRC. This trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other type of agreement shall be established in writing and maintained at all times in the United States with an entity that is an appropriate State or Federal government agency, or an entity whose operations in which the prepayment deposit is managed are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. A licensee that has prepaid funds based on a site-specific estimate under § 50.75(b)(1) of this section may take credit for projected earnings on the prepaid decommissioning trust funds, using up to a 2 percent annual real rate of return from the time of future funds' collection through the projected decommissioning period, provided that the site-specific estimate is based on a period of safe storage that is specifically described in the estimate. This includes the periods of safe storage, final dismantlement, and license termination. A licensee that has prepaid funds based on the formulas in § 50.75(c) of this section may take credit for projected earnings on the prepaid decommissioning funds using up to a 2 percent annual real rate of return up to the time of permanent termination of operations. A licensee may use a credit of greater than 2 percent if the licensee's rate-setting authority has specifically authorized a higher rate. However, licensees certifying only to the formula amounts (<I>i.e.</I>, not a site-specific estimate) can take a pro-rata credit during the immediate dismantlement period (<I>i.e.</I>, recognizing both cash expenditures and earnings the first 7 years after shutdown). Actual earnings on existing funds may be used to calculate future fund needs. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>External sinking fund.</I> An external sinking fund is a fund established and maintained by setting funds aside periodically in an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the administrative control of the licensee and its subsidiaries or affiliates in which the total amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs at the time permanent termination of operations is expected. An external sinking fund may be in the form of a trust, escrow account, or Government fund, with payment by certificate of deposit, deposit of Government or other securities, or other method acceptable to the NRC. This trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other type of agreement shall be established in writing and maintained at all times in the United States with an entity that is an appropriate State or Federal government agency, or an entity whose operations in which the external linking fund is managed are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. A licensee that has collected funds based on a site-specific estimate under § 50.75(b)(1) of this section may take credit for projected earnings on the external sinking funds using up to a 2 percent annual real rate of return from the time of future funds' collection through the decommissioning period, provided that the site-specific estimate is based on a period of safe storage that is specifically described in the estimate. This includes the periods of safe storage, final dismantlement, and license termination. A licensee that has collected funds based on the formulas in § 50.75(c) of this section may take credit for collected earnings on the decommissioning funds using up to a 2 percent annual real rate of return up to the time of permanent termination of operations. A licensee may use a credit of greater than 2 percent if the licensee's rate-setting authority has specifically authorized a higher rate. However, licensees certifying only to the formula amounts (<I>i.e.,</I> not a site-specific estimate) can take a pro-rata credit during the dismantlement period (<I>i.e.,</I> recognizing both cash expenditures and earnings the first 7 years after shutdown). Actual earnings on existing funds may be used to calculate future fund needs. A licensee, whose rates for decommissioning costs cover only a portion of these costs, may make use of this method only for the portion of these costs that are collected in one of the manners described in this paragraph, (e)(1)(ii). This method may be used as the exclusive mechanism relied upon for providing financial assurance for decommissioning in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(A) By a licensee that recovers, either directly or indirectly, the estimated total cost of decommissioning through rates established by “cost of service” or similar ratemaking regulation. Public utility districts, municipalities, rural electric cooperatives, and State and Federal agencies, including associations of any of the foregoing, that establish their own rates and are able to recover their cost of service allocable to decommissioning, are assumed to meet this condition.
</P>
<P>(B) By a licensee whose source of revenues for its external sinking fund is a “non-bypassable charge,” the total amount of which will provide funds estimated to be needed for decommissioning pursuant to §§ 50.75(c), 50.75(f), or 50.82 of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method:
</P>
<P>(A) These methods guarantee that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, or letter of credit. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must contain the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The surety method or insurance must be open-ended, or, if written for a specified term, such as 5 years, must be renewed automatically, unless 90 days or more prior to the renewal day the issuer notifies the NRC, the beneficiary, and the licensee of its intention not to renew. The surety or insurance must also provide that the full face amount be paid to the beneficiary automatically prior to the expiration without proof of forfeiture if the licensee fails to provide a replacement acceptable to the NRC within 30 days after receipt of notification of cancellation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The surety or insurance must be payable to a trust established for decommissioning costs. The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the NRC. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal government agency or an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
</P>
<P>(B) A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix A to 10 CFR part 30.
</P>
<P>(C) For commercial companies that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix C to 10 CFR part 30. For commercial companies that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix D to 10 CFR part 30. For non-profit entities, such as colleges, universities, and non-profit hospitals, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix E to 10 CFR part 30. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in any situation in which the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of voting stock of the company.


</P>
<P>(iv) For a power reactor licensee that is a Federal licensee, or for a non-power production or utilization facility licensee that is a Federal, State, or local government licensee, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning, and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary.


</P>
<P>(v) Contractual obligation(s) on the part of a licensee's customer(s), the total amount of which over the duration of the contract(s) will provide the licensee's total share of uncollected funds estimated to be needed for decommissioning pursuant to §§ 50.75(c), 50.75(f), or § 50.82. To be acceptable to the NRC as a method of decommissioning funding assurance, the terms of the contract(s) shall include provisions that the electricity buyer(s) will pay for the decommissioning obligations specified in the contract(s), notwithstanding the operational status either of the licensed power reactor to which the contract(s) pertains or force majeure provisions. All proceeds from the contract(s) for decommissioning funding will be deposited to the external sinking fund. The NRC reserves the right to evaluate the terms of any contract(s) and the financial qualifications of the contracting entity or entities offered as assurance for decommissioning funding.
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other mechanism, or combination of mechanisms, that provides, as determined by the NRC upon its evaluation of the specific circumstances of each licensee submittal, assurance of decommissioning funding equivalent to that provided by the mechanisms specified in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (v) of this section. Licensees who do not have sources of funding described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section may use an external sinking fund in combination with a guarantee mechanism, as specified in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, provided that the total amount of funds estimated to be necessary for decommissioning is assured.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC reserves the right to take the following steps in order to ensure a licensee's adequate accumulation of decommissioning funds: review, as needed, the rate of accumulation of decommissioning funds; and, either independently or in cooperation with the FERC and the licensee's State PUC, take additional actions as appropriate on a case-by-case basis, including modification of a licensee's schedule for the accumulation of decommissioning funds.
</P>
<P>(3) Each holder of a combined license under subpart C of 10 CFR part 52 shall, 2 years before and 1 year before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel, consistent with the schedule required by § 52.99(a), submit a report to the NRC containing a certification updating the information described under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, including a copy of the financial instrument to be used. No later than 30 days after the Commission publishes notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under 10 CFR 52.103(a), the licensee shall submit a report containing a certification that financial assurance for decommissioning is being provided in an amount specified in the licensee's most recent updated certification, including a copy of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.


</P>
<P>(f)(1) Each power reactor licensee shall report, on a calendar-year basis, to the NRC by March 31, 1999, and at least once every 2 years thereafter on the status of its decommissioning funding for each reactor or part of a reactor that it owns. However, each holder of a combined license under part 52 of this chapter need not begin reporting until the date that the Commission has made the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter. The information in this report must include, at a minimum, the amount of decommissioning funds estimated to be required pursuant to 10 CFR 50.75(b) and (c); the amount of decommissioning funds accumulated to the end of the calendar year preceding the date of the report; a schedule of the annual amounts remaining to be collected; the assumptions used regarding rates of escalation in decommissioning costs, rates of earnings on decommissioning funds, and rates of other factors used in funding projections; any contracts upon which the licensee is relying pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(v) of this section; any modifications occurring to a licensee's current method of providing financial assurance since the last submitted report; and any material changes to trust agreements. If any of the preceding items is not applicable, the licensee should so state in its report. Any licensee for a plant that is within 5 years of the projected end of its operation, or where conditions have changed such that it will close within 5 years (before the end of its licensed life), or that has already closed (before the end of its licensed life), or that is involved in a merger or an acquisition shall submit this report annually.
</P>
<P>(2) Each power reactor licensee shall report, on a calendar-year basis, to the NRC by March 31, 1999, and at least once every 2 years thereafter on the status of its decommissioning funding for each reactor or part of a reactor that it owns. The information in this report must include, at a minimum, the amount of decommissioning funds estimated to be required pursuant to 10 CFR 50.75(b) and (c); the amount of decommissioning funds accumulated to the end of the calendar year preceding the date of the report; a schedule of the annual amounts remaining to be collected; the assumptions used regarding rates of escalation in decommissioning costs, rates of earnings on decommissioning funds, and rates of other factors used in funding projections; any contracts upon which the licensee is relying pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(v) of this section; any modifications occurring to a licensee's current method of providing financial assurance since the last submitted report; and any material changes to trust agreements. If any of the preceding items is not applicable, the licensee should so state in its report. Any licensee for a plant that is within 5 years of the projected end of its operation, or where conditions have changed such that it will close within 5 years (before the end of its licensed life), or that has already closed (before the end of its licensed life), or that is involved in a merger or an acquisition shall submit this report annually.
</P>
<P>(3) Each power reactor licensee shall at or about 5 years prior to the projected end of operations submit a preliminary decommissioning cost estimate which includes an up-to-date assessment of the major factors that could affect the cost to decommission.


</P>
<P>(4) Each non-power production or utilization facility licensee shall at or about 2 years prior to the projected end of operations submit a preliminary decommissioning plan containing a cost estimate for decommissioning and an up-to-date assessment of the major factors that could affect planning for decommissioning. Factors to be considered in submitting this preliminary plan information include—


</P>
<P>(i) The decommissioning alternative anticipated to be used. The requirements of § 50.82(b)(4)(i) must be considered at this time;
</P>
<P>(ii) Major technical actions necessary to carry out decommissioning safely;
</P>
<P>(iii) The current situation with regard to disposal of high-level and low-level radioactive waste;
</P>
<P>(iv) Residual radioactivity criteria;
</P>
<P>(v) Other site specific factors which could affect decommissioning planning and cost.
</P>
<P>(5) If necessary, the cost estimate, for power reactors and non-power production or utilization facilities, shall also include plans for adjusting levels of funds assured for decommissioning to demonstrate that a reasonable level of assurance will be provided that funds will be available when needed to cover the cost of decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(g) Each licensee shall keep records of information important to the safe and effective decommissioning of the facility in an identified location until the license is terminated by the Commission. If records of relevant information are kept for other purposes, reference to these records and their locations may be used. Information the Commission considers important to decommissioning consists of—
</P>
<P>(1) Records of spills or other unusual occurrences involving the spread of contamination in and around the facility, equipment, or site. These records may be limited to instances when significant contamination remains after any cleanup procedures or when there is reasonable likelihood that contaminants may have spread to inaccessible areas as in the case of possible seepage into porous materials such as concrete. These records must include any known information on identification of involved nuclides, quantities, forms, and concentrations.
</P>
<P>(2) As-built drawings and modifications of structures and equipment in restricted areas where radioactive materials are used and/or stored and of locations of possible inaccessible contamination such as buried pipes which may be subject to contamination. If required drawings are referenced, each relevant document need not be indexed individually. If drawings are not available, the licensee shall substitute appropriate records of available information concerning these areas and locations.
</P>
<P>(3) Records of the cost estimate performed for the decommissioning funding plan or of the amount certified for decommissioning, and records of the funding method used for assuring funds if either a funding plan or certification is used.
</P>
<P>(4) Records of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The licensed site area, as originally licensed, which must include a site map and any acquisition or use of property outside the originally licensed site area for the purpose of receiving, possessing, or using licensed materials; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensed activities carried out on the acquired or used property; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The release and final disposition of any property recorded in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section, the historical site assessment performed for the release, radiation surveys performed to support release of the property, submittals to the NRC made in accordance with § 50.83, and the methods employed to ensure that the property met the radiological criteria of 10 CFR Part 20, Subpart E, at the time the property was released.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Licensees that are not “electric utilities” as defined in § 50.2 that use prepayment or an external sinking fund to provide financial assurance shall provide in the terms of the arrangements governing the trust, escrow account, or Government fund, used to segregate and manage the funds that— 
</P>
<P>(i) The trustee, manager, investment advisor, or other person directing investment of the funds: 
</P>
<P>(A) Is prohibited from investing the funds in securities or other obligations of the licensee or any other owner or operator of any nuclear power reactor or their affiliates, subsidiaries, successors or assigns, or in a mutual fund in which at least 50 percent of the fund is invested in the securities of a licensee or parent company whose subsidiary is an owner or operator of a foreign or domestic nuclear power plant. However, the funds may be invested in securities tied to market indices or other non-nuclear sector collective, commingled, or mutual funds, provided that this subsection shall not operate in such a way as to require the sale or transfer either in whole or in part, or other disposition of any such prohibited investment that was made before the publication date of this rule, and provided further that no more than 10 percent of trust assets may be indirectly invested in securities of any entity owning or operating one or more nuclear power plants. 
</P>
<P>(B) Is obligated at all times to adhere to a standard of care set forth in the trust, which either shall be the standard of care, whether in investing or otherwise, required by State or Federal law or one or more State or Federal regulatory agencies with jurisdiction over the trust funds, or, in the absence of any such standard of care, whether in investing or otherwise, that a prudent investor would use in the same circumstances. The term “prudent investor,” shall have the same meaning as set forth in the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's “Regulations Governing Nuclear Plant Decommissioning Trust Funds” at 18 CFR 35.32(a)(3), or any successor regulation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee, its affiliates, and its subsidiaries are prohibited from being engaged as investment manager for the funds or from giving day-to-day management direction of the funds' investments or direction on individual investments by the funds, except in the case of passive fund management of trust funds where management is limited to investments tracking market indices. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds may not be amended in any material respect without written notification to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, at least 30 working days before the proposed effective date of the amendment. The licensee shall provide the text of the proposed amendment and a statement of the reason for the proposed amendment. The trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account may not be amended if the person responsible for managing the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account receives written notice of objection from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, within the notice period; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Except for withdrawals being made under § 50.82(a)(8) or for payments of ordinary administrative costs (including taxes) and other incidental expenses of the fund (including legal, accounting, actuarial, and trustee expenses) in connection with the operation of the fund, no disbursement or payment may be made from the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds until written notice of the intention to make a disbursement or payment has been given to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, at least 30 working days before the date of the intended disbursement or payment. The disbursement or payment from the trust, escrow account, Government fund or other account may be made following the 30-working day notice period if the person responsible for managing the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account does not receive written notice of objection from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, within the notice period. Disbursements or payments from the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds, other than for payment of ordinary administrative costs (including taxes) and other incidental expenses of the fund (including legal, accounting, actuarial, and trustee expenses) in connection with the operation of the fund, are restricted to decommissioning expenses or transfer to another financial assurance method acceptable under paragraph (e) of this section until final decommissioning has been completed. After decommissioning has begun and withdrawals from the decommissioning fund are made under § 50.82(a)(8), no further notification need be made to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees that are “electric utilities” under § 50.2 that use prepayment or an external sinking fund to provide financial assurance shall include a provision in the terms of the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage funds that except for withdrawals being made under § 50.82(a)(8) or for payments of ordinary administrative costs (including taxes) and other incidental expenses of the fund (including legal, accounting, actuarial, and trustee expenses) in connection with the operation of the fund, no disbursement or payment may be made from the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds until written notice of the intention to make a disbursement or payment has been given the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, at least 30 working days before the date of the intended disbursement or payment. The disbursement or payment from the trust, escrow account, Government fund or other account may be made following the 30-working day notice period if the person responsible for managing the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account does not receive written notice of objection from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, within the notice period. Disbursements or payments from the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds, other than for payment of ordinary administrative costs (including taxes) and other incidental expenses of the fund (including legal, accounting, actuarial, and trustee expenses) in connection with the operation of the fund, are restricted to decommissioning expenses or transfer to another financial assurance method acceptable under paragraph (e) of this section until final decommissioning has been completed. After decommissioning has begun and withdrawals from the decommissioning fund are made under § 50.82(a)(8), no further notification need be made to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(3) A licensee that is not an “electric utility” under § 50.2 and using a surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method to provide financial assurance shall provide that the trust established for decommissioning costs to which the surety or insurance is payable contains in its terms the requirements in paragraphs (h)(1)(i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) Unless otherwise determined by the Commission with regard to a specific application, the Commission has determined that any amendment to the license of a utilization facility that does no more than delete specific license conditions relating to the terms and conditions of decommissioning trust agreements involves “no significant hazards consideration.”
</P>
<P>(5) The provisions of paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(3) of this section do not apply to any licensee that as of December 24, 2003, has existing license conditions relating to decommissioning trust agreements, so long as the licensee does not elect to amend those license conditions. If a licensee with existing license conditions relating to decommissioning trust agreements elects to amend those conditions, the license amendment shall be in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 24049, June 27, 1988, as amended at 58 FR 68731, Dec. 29, 1993; 59 FR 1618, Jan. 12, 1994; 61 FR 39301, July 29, 1996; 63 FR 50480, Sept. 22, 1998; 63 FR 57236, Oct. 27, 1998; 68 FR 19727, Apr. 22, 2003; 67 FR 78350, Dec. 24, 2002; 68 FR 12571, Mar. 17, 2003; 68 FR 65388, Nov. 20, 2003; 72 FR 49502, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 5722, Jan. 31, 2008; 77 FR 35571, June 17, 2012; 83 FR 30288, June 28, 2018; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019; 87 FR 68031, Nov. 14, 2022; 89 FR 106251, Dec. 30, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.76" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.109.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.76   Licensee's change of status; financial qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>An electric utility licensee holding an operating license (including a renewed license) for a nuclear power reactor, no later than seventy-five (75) days prior to ceasing to be an electric utility in any manner not involving a license transfer under § 50.80, shall provide the NRC with the financial qualifications information that would be required for obtaining an initial operating license as specified in § 50.33(f)(2). The financial qualifications information must address the first full five years of operation after the date the licensee ceases to be an electric utility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 4448, Jan. 30, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="110" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.110" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.78" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.110.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.78   Facility information and verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for a construction permit or license and each recipient of a construction permit or a license shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(b) As required by the Additional Protocol, shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; and
</P>
<P>(c) Shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and take other action as necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78605, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="111" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.111" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Transfers of Licenses—Creditors' Rights—Surrender of Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.80" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.111.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.80   Transfer of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No license for a production or utilization facility (including, but not limited to, permits under this part and part 52 of this chapter, and licenses under parts 50 and 52 of this chapter), or any right thereunder, shall be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license to any person, unless the Commission gives its consent in writing.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An application for transfer of a license shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) For a construction permit or operating license under this part, as much of the information described in §§ 50.33 and 50.34 of this part with respect to the identity and technical and financial qualifications of the proposed transferee as would be required by those sections if the application were for an initial license. The Commission may require additional information such as data respecting proposed safeguards against hazards from radioactive materials and the applicant's qualifications to protect against such hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an early site permit under part 52 of this chapter, as much of the information described in §§ 52.16 and 52.17 of this chapter with respect to the identity and technical qualifications of the proposed transferee as would be required by those sections if the application were for an initial license.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a combined license under part 52 of this chapter, as much of the information described in §§ 52.77 and 52.79 of this chapter with respect to the identity and technical and financial qualifications of the proposed transferee as would be required by those sections if the application were for an initial license. The Commission may require additional information such as data respecting proposed safeguards against hazards from radioactive materials and the applicant's qualifications to protect against such hazards.
</P>
<P>(iv) For a manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, as much of the information described in §§ 52.156 and 52.157 of this chapter with respect to the identity and technical qualifications of the proposed transferee as would be required by those sections if the application were for an initial license.
</P>
<P>(2) The application shall include also a statement of the purposes for which the transfer of the license is requested, the nature of the transaction necessitating or making desirable the transfer of the license, and an agreement to limit access to Restricted Data pursuant to § 50.37. The Commission may require any person who submits an application for license pursuant to the provisions of this section to file a written consent from the existing licensee or a certified copy of an order or judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction attesting to the person's right (subject to the licensing requirements of the Act and these regulations) to possession of the facility or site involved.
</P>
<P>(c) After appropriate notice to interested persons, including the existing licensee, and observance of such procedures as may be required by the Act or regulations or orders of the Commission, the Commission will approve an application for the transfer of a license, if the Commission determines:
</P>
<P>(1) That the proposed transferee is qualified to be the holder of the license; and
</P>
<P>(2) That transfer of the license is otherwise consistent with applicable provisions of law, regulations, and orders issued by the Commission pursuant thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 9546, Oct. 10, 1961, as amended at 35 FR 19661, Dec. 29, 1970; 38 FR 3956, Feb. 9, 1973; 65 FR 44660, July 19, 2000; 70 FR 61888, Oct. 27, 2005; 72 FR 49503, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.81" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.111.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.81   Creditor regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 184 of the Act, the Commission consents, without individual application, to the creation of any mortgage, pledge, or other lien upon any production or utilization facility not owned by the United States which is the subject of a license or upon any leasehold or other interest in such facility: <I>Provided:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) That the rights of any creditor so secured may be exercised only in compliance with and subject to the same requirements and restrictions as would apply to the licensee pursuant to the provisions of the license, the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant to said Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) That no creditor so secured may take possession of the facility pursuant to the provisions of this section prior to either the issuance of a license from the Commission authorizing such possession or the transfer of the license.
</P>
<P>(b) Any creditor so secured may apply for transfer of the license covering such facility by filing an application for transfer of the license pursuant to § 50.80(b). The Commission will act upon such application pursuant to § 50.80 (c).
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing contained in this regulation shall be deemed to affect the means of acquiring, or the priority of, any tax lien or other lien provided by law.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>License</I> includes any license under this chapter, any construction permit under this part, and any early site permit under part 52 of this chapter, which may be issued by the Commission with regard to a facility;
</P>
<P>(2) “Creditor” includes, without implied limitation, the trustee under any mortgage, pledge or lien on a facility made to secure any creditor, any trustee or receiver of the facility appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction in any action brought for the benefit of any creditor secured by such mortgage, pledge or lien, any purchaser of such facility at the sale thereof upon foreclosure of such mortgage, pledge, or lien or upon exercise of any power of sale contained therein, or any assignee of any such purchaser.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facility</I> includes but is not limited to, a site which is the subject of an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 of this chapter, and a reactor manufactured under a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 9546, Oct. 10, 1961, as amended at 32 FR 2562, Feb. 7, 1967; 72 FR 49504, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.82" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.111.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.82   Termination of license.</HEAD>
<P>For power reactor licensees who, before the effective date of this rule, either submitted a decommissioning plan for approval or possess an approved decommissioning plan, the plan is considered to be the PSDAR submittal required under paragraph (a)(4) of this section and the provisions of this section apply accordingly. For power reactor licensees whose decommissioning plan approval activities have been relegated to notice of opportunity for a hearing under subpart G of 10 CFR part 2, the public meeting convened and 90-day delay of major decommissioning activities required in paragraphs (a)(4)(ii) and (a)(5) of this section shall not apply, and any orders arising from proceedings under subpart G of 10 CFR part 2 shall continue and remain in effect absent any orders from the Commission.
</P>
<P>(a) For power reactor licensees—
</P>
<P>(1)(i) When a licensee has determined to permanently cease operations the licensee shall, within 30 days, submit a written certification to the NRC, consistent with the requirements of § 50.4(b)(8);
</P>
<P>(ii) Once fuel has been permanently removed from the reactor vessel, the licensee shall submit a written certification to the NRC that meets the requirements of § 50.4(b)(9); and
</P>
<P>(iii) For licensees whose licenses have been permanently modified to allow possession but not operation of the facility, before August 28, 1996, the certifications required in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (ii) of this section shall be deemed to have been submitted.






</P>
<P>(2) Upon docketing of the certifications for permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, or when a final legally effective order to permanently cease operations has come into effect, the 10 CFR part 50 license no longer authorizes operation of the reactor or emplacement or retention of fuel into the reactor vessel.
</P>
<P>(3) Decommissioning will be completed within 60 years of permanent cessation of operations. Completion of decommissioning beyond 60 years will be approved by the Commission only when necessary to protect public health and safety. Factors that will be considered by the Commission in evaluating an alternative that provides for completion of decommissioning beyond 60 years of permanent cessation of operations include unavailability of waste disposal capacity and other site-specific factors affecting the licensee's capability to carry out decommissioning, including presence of other nuclear facilities at the site.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Prior to or within 2 years following permanent cessation of operations, the licensee shall submit a post-shutdown decommissioning activities report (PSDAR) to the NRC, and a copy to the affected State(s). The PSDAR must contain a description of the planned decommissioning activities along with a schedule for their accomplishment, a discussion that provides the reasons for concluding that the environmental impacts associated with site-specific decommissioning activities will be bounded by appropriate previously issued environmental impact statements, and a site-specific DCE, including the projected cost of managing irradiated fuel.
</P>
<P>(ii) The NRC shall notice receipt of the PSDAR and make the PSDAR available for public comment. The NRC shall also schedule a public meeting in the vicinity of the licensee's facility upon receipt of the PSDAR. The NRC shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, that is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, announcing the date, time and location of the meeting, along with a brief description of the purpose of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(5) Licensees shall not perform any major decommissioning activities, as defined in § 50.2, until 90 days after the NRC has received the licensee's PSDAR submittal and until certifications of permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, as required under § 50.82(a)(1), have been submitted.
</P>
<P>(6) Licensees shall not perform any decommissioning activities that—
</P>
<P>(i) Foreclose release of the site for possible unrestricted use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Result in significant environmental impacts not previously reviewed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Result in there no longer being reasonable assurance that adequate funds will be available for decommissioning.








</P>
<P>(7) In taking actions permitted under § 50.59 following submittal of the PSDAR, the licensee shall notify the NRC, in writing and send a copy to the affected State(s), before performing any decommissioning activity inconsistent with, or making any significant schedule change from, those actions and schedules described in the PSDAR, including changes that significantly increase the decommissioning cost.




</P>
<P>(8)(i) Decommissioning trust funds may be used by licensees if—
</P>
<P>(A) The withdrawals are for expenses for legitimate decommissioning activities consistent with the definition of decommissioning in § 50.2;
</P>
<P>(B) The expenditure would not reduce the value of the decommissioning trust below an amount necessary to place and maintain the reactor in a safe storage condition if unforeseen conditions or expenses arise; and
</P>
<P>(C) The withdrawals would not inhibit the ability of the licensee to complete funding of any shortfalls in the decommissioning trust needed to ensure the availability of funds to ultimately release the site and terminate the license.


</P>
<P>(ii) Initially, 3 percent of the generic amount specified in § 50.75 may be used for decommissioning planning. For licensees that have submitted the certifications required under § 50.82(a)(1) and commencing 90 days after the NRC has received the PSDAR, an additional 20 percent may be used. A site-specific decommissioning cost estimate must be submitted to the NRC prior to the licensee using any funding in excess of these amounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 2 years following permanent cessation of operations, if not already submitted, the licensee shall submit a site-specific decommissioning cost estimate.
</P>
<P>(iv) For decommissioning activities that delay completion of decommissioning by including a period of storage or surveillance, the licensee shall provide a means of adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels over the storage or surveillance period.
</P>
<P>(v) After submitting its site-specific DCE required by paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, and until the licensee has completed its final radiation survey and demonstrated that residual radioactivity has been reduced to a level that permits termination of its license, the licensee must annually submit to the NRC, by March 31, a financial assurance status report. The report must include the following information, current through the end of the previous calendar year:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount spent on decommissioning, both cumulative and over the previous calendar year, the remaining balance of any decommissioning funds, and the amount provided by other financial assurance methods being relied upon;
</P>
<P>(B) An estimate of the costs to complete decommissioning, reflecting any difference between actual and estimated costs for work performed during the year, and the decommissioning criteria upon which the estimate is based;
</P>
<P>(C) Any modifications occurring to a licensee's current method of providing financial assurance since the last submitted report; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any material changes to trust agreements or financial assurance contracts.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the sum of the balance of any remaining decommissioning funds, plus earnings on such funds calculated at not greater than a 2 percent real rate of return, together with the amount provided by other financial assurance methods being relied upon, does not cover the estimated cost to complete the decommissioning, the financial assurance status report must include additional financial assurance to cover the estimated cost of completion.
</P>
<P>(vii) After submitting its site-specific DCE required by paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, the licensee must annually submit to the NRC, by March 31, a report on the status of its funding for managing irradiated fuel. The report must include the following information, current through the end of the previous calendar year:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of funds accumulated to cover the cost of managing the irradiated fuel;
</P>
<P>(B) The projected cost of managing irradiated fuel until title to the fuel and possession of the fuel is transferred to the Secretary of Energy; and
</P>
<P>(C) If the funds accumulated do not cover the projected cost, a plan to obtain additional funds to cover the cost.
</P>
<P>(9) All power reactor licensees must submit an application for termination of license. The application for termination of license must be accompanied or preceded by a license termination plan to be submitted for NRC approval.
</P>
<P>(i) The license termination plan must be a supplement to the FSAR or equivalent and must be submitted at least 2 years before termination of the license date.
</P>
<P>(ii) The license termination plan must include—
</P>
<P>(A) A site characterization;
</P>
<P>(B) Identification of remaining dismantlement activities;
</P>
<P>(C) Plans for site remediation;
</P>
<P>(D) Detailed plans for the final radiation survey;
</P>
<P>(E) A description of the end use of the site, if restricted;
</P>
<P>(F) An updated site-specific estimate of remaining decommissioning costs; and
</P>
<P>(G) A supplement to the environmental report, pursuant to § 51.53, describing any new information or significant environmental change associated with the licensee's proposed termination activities.
</P>
<P>(H) Identification of parts, if any, of the facility or site that were released for use before approval of the license termination plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The NRC shall notice receipt of the license termination plan and make the license termination plan available for public comment. The NRC shall also schedule a public meeting in the vicinity of the licensee's facility upon receipt of the license termination plan. The NRC shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, which is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, announcing the date, time and location of the meeting, along with a brief description of the purpose of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(10) If the license termination plan demonstrates that the remainder of decommissioning activities will be performed in accordance with the regulations in this chapter, will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public, and will not have a significant effect on the quality of the environment and after notice to interested persons, the Commission shall approve the plan, by license amendment, subject to such conditions and limitations as it deems appropriate and necessary and authorize implementation of the license termination plan.
</P>
<P>(11) The Commission shall terminate the license if it determines that—
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining dismantlement has been performed in accordance with the approved license termination plan, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The final radiation survey and associated documentation, including an assessment of dose contributions associated with parts released for use before approval of the license termination plan, demonstrate that the facility and site have met the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E.






</P>
<P>(b) For non-power production or utilization facility licensees—
</P>
<P>(1) A licensee that permanently ceases operations must make application for license termination within 2 years following permanent cessation of operations, and for testing facilities licensed under § 50.21(c) or facilities licensed under § 50.22, in no case later than 1 year prior to expiration of the operating license. Each application for termination of a license must be accompanied or preceded by a proposed decommissioning plan. The contents of the decommissioning plan are specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.




</P>
<P>(2) For decommissioning plans in which the major dismantlement activities are delayed by first placing the facility in storage, planning for these delayed activities may be less detailed. Updated detailed plans must be submitted and approved prior to the start of these activities.
</P>
<P>(3) For decommissioning plans that delay completion of decommissioning by including a period of storage or surveillance, the licensee shall provide that—
</P>
<P>(i) Funds needed to complete decommissioning be placed into an account segregated from the licensee's assets and outside the licensee's administrative control during the storage or surveillance period, or a surety method or fund statement of intent be maintained in accordance with the criteria of § 50.75(e); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Means be included for adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels over the storage or surveillance period.
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed decommissioning plan must include—
</P>
<P>(i) The choice of the alternative for decommissioning with a description of activities involved. An alternative is acceptable if it provides for completion of decommissioning without significant delay. Consideration will be given to an alternative which provides for delayed completion of decommissioning only when necessary to protect the public health and safety. Factors to be considered in evaluating an alternative which provides for delayed completion of decommissioning include unavailability of waste disposal capacity and other site-specific factors affecting the licensee's capability to carry out decommissioning, including the presence of other nuclear facilities at the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the controls and limits on procedures and equipment to protect occupational and public health and safety;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the planned final radiation survey;
</P>
<P>(iv) An updated cost estimate for the chosen alternative for decommissioning, comparison of that estimate with present funds set aside for decommissioning, and plan for assuring the availability of adequate funds for completion of decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(v) A description of technical specifications, quality assurance provisions and physical security plan provisions in place during decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(5) If the decommissioning plan demonstrates that the decommissioning will be performed in accordance with the regulations in this chapter and will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public, and after notice to interested persons, the Commission will approve, by amendment, the plan subject to such conditions and limitations as it deems appropriate and necessary. The approved decommissioning plan will be a supplement to the Safety Analysis report or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(6) The Commission will terminate the license if it determines that—
</P>
<P>(i) The decommissioning has been performed in accordance with the approved decommissioning plan, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The terminal radiation survey and associated documentation demonstrate that the facility and site are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(c) The collection period for any shortfall of funds will be determined, upon application by the licensee, on a case-by-case basis taking into account the specific financial situation of each holder of the following licenses:
</P>
<P>(1) A non-power production or utilization facility licensed under § 50.21(a) or (c), other than a testing facility, that has permanently ceased operations.
</P>
<P>(2) A facility licensed under § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, or a testing facility, that has permanently ceased operation before the expiration of its license.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 39301, July 29, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 39091, July 21, 1997; 68 FR 19727, Apr. 22, 2003; 76 FR 35571, June 17, 2011; 79 FR 66603, Nov. 10, 2014; 89 FR 57720, July 16, 2024; 89 FR 106251, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.83" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.111.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.83   Release of part of a power reactor facility or site for unrestricted use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior written NRC approval is required to release part of a facility or site for unrestricted use at any time before receiving approval of a license termination plan. Section 50.75 specifies recordkeeping requirements associated with partial release. Nuclear power reactor licensees seeking NRC approval shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate the effect of releasing the property to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) The dose to individual members of the public does not exceed the limits and standards of 10 CFR Part 20, Subpart D; 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no reduction in the effectiveness of emergency planning or physical security; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Effluent releases remain within license conditions; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The environmental monitoring program and offsite dose calculation manual are revised to account for the changes; 
</P>
<P>(v) The siting criteria of 10 CFR Part 100 continue to be met; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) All other applicable statutory and regulatory requirements continue to be met. 
</P>
<P>(2) Perform a historical site assessment of the part of the facility or site to be released; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Perform surveys adequate to demonstrate compliance with the radiological criteria for unrestricted use specified in 10 CFR 20.1402 for impacted areas. 
</P>
<P>(b) For release of non-impacted areas, the licensee may submit a written request for NRC approval of the release if a license amendment is not otherwise required. The request submittal must include—
</P>
<P>(1) The results of the evaluations performed in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the part of the facility or site to be released; 
</P>
<P>(3) The schedule for release of the property; 
</P>
<P>(4) The results of the evaluations performed in accordance with § 50.59; and 
</P>
<P>(5) A discussion that provides the reasons for concluding that the environmental impacts associated with the licensee's proposed release of the property will be bounded by appropriate previously issued environmental impact statements. 
</P>
<P>(c) After receiving an approval request from the licensee for the release of a non-impacted area, the NRC shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the licensee has adequately evaluated the effect of releasing the property as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the licensee's classification of any release areas as non-impacted is adequately justified; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Upon determining that the licensee's submittal is adequate, inform the licensee in writing that the release is approved. 
</P>
<P>(d) For release of impacted areas, the licensee shall submit an application for amendment of its license for the release of the property. The application must include—
</P>
<P>(1) The information specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) The methods used for and results obtained from the radiation surveys required to demonstrate compliance with the radiological criteria for unrestricted use specified in 10 CFR 20.1402; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A supplement to the environmental report, under § 51.53, describing any new information or significant environmental change associated with the licensee's proposed release of the property. 
</P>
<P>(e) After receiving a license amendment application from the licensee for the release of an impacted area, the NRC shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the licensee has adequately evaluated the effect of releasing the property as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the licensee's classification of any release areas as non-impacted is adequately justified; 
</P>
<P>(3) Determine whether the licensee's radiation survey for an impacted area is adequate; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Upon determining that the licensee's submittal is adequate, approve the licensee's amendment application. 
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC shall notice receipt of the release approval request or license amendment application and make the approval request or license amendment application available for public comment. Before acting on an approval request or license amendment application submitted in accordance with this section, the NRC shall conduct a public meeting in the vicinity of the licensee's facility for the purpose of obtaining public comments on the proposed release of part of the facility or site. The NRC shall publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, which is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, announcing the date, time, and location of the meeting, along with a brief description of the purpose of the meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 19727, Apr. 22, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="112" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.112" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Amendment of License or Construction Permit at Request of Holder</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.90" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.112.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.90   Application for amendment of license, construction permit, or early site permit.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a holder of a license, including a construction permit and operating license under this part, and an early site permit, combined license, and manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, desires to amend the license or permit, application for an amendment must be filed with the Commission, as specified in §§ 50.4 or 52.3 of this chapter, as applicable, fully describing the changes desired, and following as far as applicable, the form prescribed for original applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49504, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.91" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.112.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.91   Notice for public comment; State consultation.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will use the following procedures for an application requesting an amendment to an operating license under this part or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter for a facility licensed under §§ 50.21(b) or 50.22, or for a testing facility, except for amendments subject to hearings governed by 10 CFR part 2, subpart L. For amendments subject to 10 CFR part 2, subpart L, the following procedures will apply only to the extent specifically referenced in § 2.309(b) of this chapter, except that notice of opportunity for hearing must be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least 30 days before the requested amendment is issued by the Commission:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice for public comment.</I> (1) At the time a licensee requests an amendment, it must provide to the Commission, in accordance with the distribution requirements specified in § 50.4, its analysis about the issue of no significant hazards consideration using the standards in § 50.92.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The Commission may publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 2.105 an individual notice of proposed action for an amendment for which it makes a proposed determination that no significant hazards consideration is involved, or, at least once every 30 days, publish a periodic <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of proposed actions which identifies each amendment issued and each amendment proposed to be issued since the last such periodic notice, or it may publish both such notices.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each amendment proposed to be issued, the notice will (A) contain the staff's proposed determination, under the standards in § 50.92, (B) provide a brief description of the amendment and of the facility involved, (C) solicit public comments on the proposed determination, and (D) provide for a 30-day comment period.
</P>
<P>(iii) The comment period will begin on the day after the date of the publication of the first notice, and, normally, the amendment will not be granted until after this comment period expires.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission may inform the public about the final disposition of an amendment request for which it has made a proposed determination of no significant hazards consideration either by issuing an individual notice of issuance under § 2.106 of this chapter or by publishing such a notice in its periodic system of <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices. In either event, it will not make and will not publish a final determination on no significant hazards consideration, unless it receives a request for a hearing on that amendment request.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the Commission makes a final determination that no significant hazards consideration is involved and that the amendment should be issued, the amendment will be effective on issuance, even if adverse public comments have been received and even if an interested person meeting the provisions for intervention called for in § 2.309 of this chapter has filed a request for a hearing. The Commission need hold any required hearing only after it issues an amendment, unless it determines that a significant hazards consideration is involved, in which case the Commission will provide an opportunity for a prior hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) Where the Commission finds that an emergency situation exists, in that failure to act in a timely way would result in derating or shutdown of a nuclear power plant, or in prevention of either resumption of operation or of increase in power output up to the plant's licensed power level, it may issue a license amendment involving no significant hazards consideration without prior notice and opportunity for a hearing or for public comment. In such a situation, the Commission will not publish a notice of proposed determination on no significant hazards consideration, but will publish a notice of issuance under § 2.106 of this chapter, providing for opportunity for a hearing and for public comment after issuance. The Commission expects its licensees to apply for license amendments in timely fashion. It will decline to dispense with notice and comment on the determination of no significant hazards consideration if it determines that the licensee has abused the emergency provision by failing to make timely application for the amendment and thus itself creating the emergency. Whenever an emergency situation exists, a licensee requesting an amendment must explain why this emergency situation occurred and why it could not avoid this situation, and the Commission will assess the licensee's reasons for failing to file an application sufficiently in advance of that event.
</P>
<P>(6) Where the Commission finds that exigent circumstances exist, in that a licensee and the Commission must act quickly and that time does not permit the Commission to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice allowing 30 days for prior public comment, and it also determines that the amendment involves no significant hazards considerations, it:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Will either issue a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice providing notice of an opportunity for hearing and allowing at least two weeks from the date of the notice for prior public comment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Will use local media to provide reasonable notice to the public in the area surrounding a licensee's facility of the licensee's amendment and of its proposed determination as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, consulting with the licensee on the proposed media release and on the geographical area of its coverage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will provide for a reasonable opportunity for the public to comment, using its best efforts to make available to the public whatever means of communication it can for the public to respond quickly, and, in the case of telephone comments, have these comments recorded or transcribed, as necessary and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iii) When it has issued a local media release, may inform the licensee of the public's comments, as necessary and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iv) Will publish a notice of issuance under § 2.106;
</P>
<P>(v) Will provide a hearing after issuance, if one has been requested by a person who satisfies the provisions for intervention specified in § 2.309 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(vi) Will require the licensee to explain the exigency and why the licensee cannot avoid it, and use its normal public notice and comment procedures in paragraph (a)(2) of this section if it determines that the licensee has failed to use its best efforts to make a timely application for the amendment in order to create the exigency and to take advantage of this procedure.
</P>
<P>(7) Where the Commission finds that significant hazards considerations are involved, it will issue a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice providing an opportunity for a prior hearing even in an emergency situation, unless it finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State consultation.</I> (1) At the time a licensee requests an amendment, it must notify the State in which its facility is located of its request by providing that State with a copy of its application and its reasoned analysis about no significant hazards considerations and indicate on the application that it has done so. (The Commission will make available to the licensee the name of the appropriate State official designated to receive such amendments.)
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission will advise the State of its proposed determination about no significant hazards consideration normally by sending it a copy of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission will make available to the State official designated to consult with it about its proposed determination the names of the Project Manager or other NRC personnel it designated to consult with the State. The Commission will consider any comments of that State official. If it does not hear from the State in a timely manner, it will consider that the State has no interest in its determination; nonetheless, to ensure that the State is aware of the application, before it issues the amendment, it will make a good faith effort to telephone that official. (Inability to consult with a responsible State official following good faith attempts will not prevent the Commission from making effective a license amendment involving no significant hazards consideration.)
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission will make a good faith attempt to consult with the State before it issues a license amendment involving no significant hazards consideration. If, however, it does not have time to use its normal consultation procedures because of an emergency situation, it will attempt to telephone the appropriate State official. (Inability to consult with a responsible State official following good faith attempts will not prevent the Commission from making effective a license amendment involving no significant hazards consideration, if the Commission deems it necessary in an emergency situation.)
</P>
<P>(5) After the Commission issues the requested amendment, it will send a copy of its determination to the State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Caveats about State consultation.</I> (1) The State consultation procedures in paragraph (b) of this section do not give the State a right:
</P>
<P>(i) To veto the Commission's proposed or final determination;
</P>
<P>(ii) To a hearing on the determination before the amendment becomes effective; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To insist upon a postponement of the determination or upon issuance of the amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) These procedures do not alter present provisions of law that reserve to the Commission exclusive responsibility for setting and enforcing radiological health and safety requirements for nuclear power plants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 7765, Mar. 6, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 40310, Nov. 6, 1986; 61 FR 39303, July 29, 1996; 69 FR 2276, Jan. 14, 2004; 72 FR 49504, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.92" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.112.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.92   Issuance of amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining whether an amendment to a license, construction permit, or early site permit will be issued to the applicant, the Commission will be guided by the considerations which govern the issuance of initial licenses, construction permits, or early site permits to the extent applicable and appropriate. If the application involves the material alteration of a licensed facility, a construction permit will be issued before the issuance of the amendment to the license, provided however, that if the application involves a material alteration to a nuclear power reactor manufactured under part 52 of this chapter before its installation at a site, or a combined license before the date that the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter, no application for a construction permit is required. If the amendment involves a significant hazards consideration, the Commission will give notice of its proposed action:
</P>
<P>(1) Under § 2.105 of this chapter before acting thereon; and
</P>
<P>(2) As soon as practicable after the application has been docketed.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will be particularly sensitive to a license amendment request that involves irreversible consequences (such as one that permits a significant increase in the amount of effluents or radiation emitted by a nuclear power plant).
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may make a final determination, under the procedures in § 50.91, that a proposed amendment to an operating license or a combined license for a facility or reactor licensed under §§ 50.21(b) or 50.22, or for a testing facility involves no significant hazards consideration, if operation of the facility in accordance with the proposed amendment would not:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated; or
</P>
<P>(2) Create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated; or
</P>
<P>(3) Involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 7767, Mar. 6, 1986, as amended at 72 FR 49504, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="113" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.113" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Revocation, Suspension, Modification, Amendment of Licenses and Construction Permits, Emergency Operations by the Commission</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.100" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.113.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.100   Revocation, suspension, modification of licenses, permits, and approvals for cause.</HEAD>
<P>A license, permit, or standard design approval under parts 50 or 52 of this chapter may be revoked, suspended, or modified, in whole or in part, for any material false statement in the application or in the supplemental or other statement of fact required of the applicant; or because of conditions revealed by the application or statement of fact of any report, record, inspection, or other means which would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license, permit, or approval on an original application (other than those relating to §§ 50.51, 50.42, and 50.43(b)); or for failure to manufacture a reactor, or construct or operate a facility in accordance with the terms of the permit or license, provided, however, that failure to make timely completion of the proposed construction or alteration of a facility under a construction permit under part 50 of this chapter or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter shall be governed by the provisions of § 50.55(b); or for violation of, or failure to observe, any of the terms and provisions of the act, regulations, license, permit, approval, or order of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49504, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 57720, July 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.101" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.113.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.101   Retaking possession of special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>Upon revocation of a license, the Commission may immediately cause the retaking of possession of all special nuclear material held by the licensee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 40 FR 8790, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.102" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.113.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.102   Commission order for operation after revocation.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Commission finds that the public convenience and necessity, or the Department finds that the production program of the Department requires continued operation of a production or utilization facility, the license for which has been revoked, the Commission may, after consultation with the appropriate federal or state regulatory agency having jurisdiction, order that possession be taken of such facility and that it be operated for a period of time as, in the judgment of the Commission, the public convenience and necessity or the production program of the Department may require, or until a license for operation of the facility shall become effective. Just compensation shall be paid for the use of the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8790, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.103" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.113.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.103   Suspension and operation in war or national emergency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever Congress declares that a state of war or national emergency exists, the Commission, if it finds it necessary to the common defense and security, may,
</P>
<P>(1) Suspend any license it has issued.
</P>
<P>(2) Cause the recapture of special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(3) Order the operation of any licensed facility.
</P>
<P>(4) Order entry into any plant or facility in order to recapture special nuclear material or to operate the facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Just compensation shall be paid for any damages caused by recapture of special nuclear material or by operation of any facility, pursuant to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 355, Jan. 19, 1956, as amended at 35 FR 11416, July 17, 1970; 40 FR 8790, Mar. 3, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="114" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.114" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Backfitting</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.109" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.114.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.109   Backfitting.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Backfitting is defined as the modification of or addition to systems, structures, components, or design of a facility; or the design approval or manufacturing license for a facility; or the procedures or organization required to design, construct or operate a facility; any of which may result from a new or amended provision in the Commission's regulations or the imposition of a regulatory staff position interpreting the Commission's regulations that is either new or different from a previously applicable staff position after:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of issuance of the construction permit for the facility for facilities having construction permits issued after October 21, 1985;
</P>
<P>(ii) Six (6) months before the date of docketing of the operating license application for the facility for facilities having construction permits issued before October 21, 1985;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of issuance of the operating license for the facility for facilities having operating licenses;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date of issuance of the design approval under subpart E of part 52 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(v) The date of issuance of a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(vi) The date of issuance of the first construction permit issued for a duplicate design under appendix N of this part; or
</P>
<P>(vii) The date of issuance of a combined license under subpart C of part 52 of this chapter, provided that if the combined license references an early site permit, the provisions in § 52.39 of this chapter apply with respect to the site characteristics, design parameters, and terms and conditions specified in the early site permit. If the combined license references a standard design certification rule under subpart B of 10 CFR part 52, the provisions in § 52.63 of this chapter apply with respect to the design matters resolved in the standard design certification rule, provided however, that if any specific backfitting limitations are included in a referenced design certification rule, those limitations shall govern. If the combined license references a standard design approval under subpart E of 10 CFR part 52, the provisions in § 52.145 of this chapter apply with respect to the design matters resolved in the standard design approval. If the combined license uses a reactor manufactured under a manufacturing license under subpart F of 10 CFR part 52, the provisions of § 52.171 of this chapter apply with respect to matters resolved in the manufacturing license proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Commission shall require a systematic and documented analysis pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section for backfits which it seeks to impose.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Commission shall require the backfitting of a facility only when it determines, based on the analysis described in paragraph (c) of this section, that there is a substantial increase in the overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the backfit and that the direct and indirect costs of implementation for that facility are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions of paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section are inapplicable and, therefore, backfit analysis is not required and the standards in paragraph (a)(3) of this section do not apply where the Commission or staff, as appropriate, finds and declares, with appropriate documented evaluation for its finding, either:
</P>
<P>(i) That a modification is necessary to bring a facility into compliance with a license or the rules or orders of the Commission, or into conformance with written commitments by the licensee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That regulatory action is necessary to ensure that the facility provides adequate protection to the health and safety of the public and is in accord with the common defense and security; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That the regulatory action involves defining or redefining what level of protection to the public health and safety or common defense and security should be regarded as adequate.
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission shall always require the backfitting of a facility if it determines that such regulatory action is necessary to ensure that the facility provides adequate protection to the health and safety of the public and is in accord with the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(6) The documented evaluation required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section shall include a statement of the objectives of and reasons for the modification and the basis for invoking the exception. If immediately effective regulatory action is required, then the documented evaluation may follow rather than precede the regulatory action.
</P>
<P>(7) If there are two or more ways to achieve compliance with a license or the rules or orders of the Commission, or with written licensee commitments, or there are two or more ways to reach a level of protection which is adequate, then ordinarily the applicant or licensee is free to choose the way which best suits its purposes. However, should it be necessary or appropriate for the Commission to prescribe a specific way to comply with its requirements or to achieve adequate protection, then cost may be a factor in selecting the way, provided that the objective of compliance or adequate protection is met.
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall not apply to backfits imposed prior to October 21, 1985.
</P>
<P>(c) In reaching the determination required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Commission will consider how the backfit should be scheduled in light of other ongoing regulatory activities at the facility and, in addition, will consider information available concerning any of the following factors as may be appropriate and any other information relevant and material to the proposed backfit:
</P>
<P>(1) Statement of the specific objectives that the proposed backfit is designed to achieve;
</P>
<P>(2) General description of the activity that would be required by the licensee or applicant in order to complete the backfit;
</P>
<P>(3) Potential change in the risk to the public from the accidental off-site release of radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(4) Potential impact on radiological exposure of facility employees;
</P>
<P>(5) Installation and continuing costs associated with the backfit, including the cost of facility downtime or the cost of construction delay;
</P>
<P>(6) The potential safety impact of changes in plant or operational complexity, including the relationship to proposed and existing regulatory requirements;
</P>
<P>(7) The estimated resource burden on the NRC associated with the proposed backfit and the availability of such resources;
</P>
<P>(8) The potential impact of differences in facility type, design or age on the relevancy and practicality of the proposed backfit;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the proposed backfit is interim or final and, if interim, the justification for imposing the proposed backfit on an interim basis.
</P>
<P>(d) No licensing action will be withheld during the pendency of backfit analyses required by the Commission's rules.
</P>
<P>(e) The Executive Director for Operations shall be responsible for implementation of this section, and all analyses required by this section shall be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his designee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 20610, June 6, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 15398, Apr. 18, 1989; 72 FR 49504, Aug. 28, 2007; 89 FR 57720, July 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="115" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.115" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.110" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.115.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.110   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55075, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.111" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.115.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.111   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 50 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in 10 CFR part 50 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 50.1, 50.2, 50.3, 50.4, 50.8, 50.11, 50.12, 50.13, 50.20, 50.21, 50.22, 50.23, 50.30, 50.31, 50.32, 50.33, 50.34a, 50.35, 50.36b, 50.37, 50.38, 50.39, 50.40, 50.41, 50.42, 50.43, 50.45, 50.50, 50.51, 50.52, 50.53, 50.56, 50.57, 50.58, 50.81, 50.90, 50.91, 50.92, 50.100, 50.101, 50.102, 50.103, 50.109, 50.110, 50.111.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55075, Nov. 24, 1992, as amended at 61 FR 39303, July 29, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="116" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.116" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Standards for Licenses, Certifications, and Regulatory Approvals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.120" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.116.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.120   Training and qualification of nuclear power plant personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to each applicant for and each holder of an operating license issued under this part and each holder of a combined license issued under part 52 of this chapter for a nuclear power plant of the type specified in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1)(i) Each nuclear power plant operating license applicant, by 18 months prior to fuel load, and each holder of an operating license shall establish, implement, and maintain a training program that meets the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each holder of a combined license shall establish, implement, and maintain the training program that meets the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section, as described in the final safety analysis report no later than 18 months before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel.
</P>
<P>(2) The training program must be derived from a systems approach to training as defined in 10 CFR 55.4, and must provide for the training and qualification of the following categories of nuclear power plant personnel:
</P>
<P>(i) Non-licensed operator.
</P>
<P>(ii) Shift supervisor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Shift technical advisor.
</P>
<P>(iv) Instrument and control technician.
</P>
<P>(v) Electrical maintenance personnel.
</P>
<P>(vi) Mechanical maintenance personnel.
</P>
<P>(vii) Radiological protection technician.
</P>
<P>(viii) Chemistry technician.
</P>
<P>(ix) Engineering support personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) The training program must incorporate the instructional requirements necessary to provide qualified personnel to operate and maintain the facility in a safe manner in all modes of operation. The training program must be developed to be in compliance with the facility license, including all technical specifications and applicable regulations. The training program must be periodically evaluated and revised as appropriate to reflect industry experience as well as changes to the facility, procedures, regulations, and quality assurance requirements. The training program must be periodically reviewed by licensee management for effectiveness. Sufficient records must be maintained by the licensee to maintain program integrity and kept available for NRC inspection to verify the adequacy of the program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49505, Aug. 28, 2007]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.135" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.116.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.135   Renewal of non-power production or utilization facility licenses issued under § 50.22 and testing facility licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements in this section apply to applicants for renewed non-power production or utilization facility operating licenses issued under § 50.22 and to applicants for renewed testing facility operating licenses issued under § 50.21(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written communications.</I> All applications, correspondence, reports, and other written communications must be filed in accordance with applicable portions of § 50.4.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of application.</I> (1) The filing of an application for a renewed license must be in accordance with subpart A of 10 CFR part 2 and all applicable sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) An application for a renewed license may not be submitted to the Commission earlier than 10 years before the expiration of the operating license currently in effect.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents of application.</I> (1) Each application must include the information specified in §§ 50.33, 50.34, and 50.36, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Each application must include conforming changes to the standard indemnity agreement, under 10 CFR part 140 to account for the expiration term of the proposed renewed license.
</P>
<P>(3) Each application must include a supplement to the environmental report that complies with the requirements of 10 CFR 51.56.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Issuance of a renewed license.</I> (1) A renewed license will be of the class for which the operating license currently in effect was issued.
</P>
<P>(2) A renewed license will be issued for a fixed period of time. The term of any renewed license may not exceed 40 years.
</P>
<P>(3) A renewed license will become effective immediately upon its issuance, thereby superseding the operating license previously in effect. If a renewed license is subsequently set aside upon further administrative or judicial appeal, the operating license previously in effect will be reinstated unless its term has expired and the renewal application was not filed in a timely manner in accordance with 10 CFR 2.109.
</P>
<P>(4) A renewed license may be subsequently renewed in accordance with all applicable requirements.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 106252, Dec. 30, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.150" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.116.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.150   Aircraft impact assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment requirements</I>—(1) <I>Assessment.</I> Each applicant listed in paragraph (a)(3) shall perform a design-specific assessment of the effects on the facility of the impact of a large, commercial aircraft. Using realistic analyses, the applicant shall identify and incorporate into the design those design features and functional capabilities to show that, with reduced use of operator actions:
</P>
<P>(i) The reactor core remains cooled, or the containment remains intact; and
</P>
<P>(ii) spent fuel cooling or spent fuel pool integrity is maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aircraft impact characteristics.</I> 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The assessment must be based on the beyond-design-basis impact of a large, commercial aircraft used for long distance flights in the United States, with aviation fuel loading typically used in such flights, and an impact speed and angle of impact considering the ability of both experienced and inexperienced pilots to control large, commercial aircraft at the low altitude representative of a nuclear power plant's low profile.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Changes to the detailed parameters on aircraft impact characteristics set forth in guidance shall be approved by the Commission.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section apply to applicants for:
</P>
<P>(i) Construction permits for nuclear power reactors issued under this part after July 13, 2009;
</P>
<P>(ii) Operating licenses for nuclear power reactors issued under this part for which a construction permit was issued after July 13, 2009;
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Standard design certifications issued under part 52 of this chapter after July 13, 2009;
</P>
<P>(B) Renewal of standard design certifications in effect on July 13, 2009 which have not been amended to comply with the requirements of this section by the time of application for renewal;
</P>
<P>(iv) Standard design approvals issued under part 52 of this chapter after July 13, 2009;
</P>
<P>(v) Combined licenses issued under part 52 of this chapter that:
</P>
<P>(A) Do not reference a standard design certification, standard design approval, or manufactured reactor; or
</P>
<P>(B) Reference a standard design certification issued before July 13, 2009 which has not been amended to address the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Manufacturing licenses issued under part 52 of this chapter that:
</P>
<P>(A) Do not reference a standard design certification or standard design approval; or
</P>
<P>(B) Reference a standard design certification issued before July 13, 2009 which has not been amended to address the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of application.</I> For applicants identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the preliminary or final safety analysis report, as applicable, must include a description of:
</P>
<P>(1) The design features and functional capabilities identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) How the design features and functional capabilities identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section meet the assessment requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control of changes.</I> (1) For construction permits which are subject to paragraph (a) of this section, if the permit holder changes the information required by 10 CFR 50.34(a)(13) to be included in the preliminary safety analysis report, then the permit holder shall consider the effect of the changed feature or capability on the original assessment required by 10 CFR 50.150(a) and amend the information required by 10 CFR 50.34(a)(13) to be included in the preliminary safety analysis report to describe how the modified design features and functional capabilities continue to meet the assessment requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For operating licenses which are subject to paragraph (a) of this section, if the licensee changes the information required by 10 CFR 50.34(b)(12) to be included in the final safety analysis report, then the licensee shall consider the effect of the changed feature or capability on the original assessment required by 10 CFR 50.150(a) and amend the information required by 10 CFR 50.34(b)(12) to be included in the final safety analysis report to describe how the modified design features and functional capabilities continue to meet the assessment requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For standard design certifications which are subject to paragraph (a) of this section, generic changes to the information required by 10 CFR 52.47(a)(28) to be included in the final safety analysis report are governed by the applicable requirements of 10 CFR 52.63.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) For combined licenses which are subject to paragraph (a) of this section, if the licensee changes the information required by 10 CFR 52.79(a)(47) to be included in the final safety analysis report, then the licensee shall consider the effect of the changed feature or capability on the original assessment required by 10 CFR 50.150(a) and amend the information required by 10 CFR 52.79(a)(47) to be included in the final safety analysis report to describe how the modified design features and functional capabilities continue to meet the assessment requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For combined licenses which are not subject to paragraph (a) of this section but reference a standard design certification which is subject to paragraph (a) of this section, proposed departures from the information required by 10 CFR 52.47(a)(28) to be included in the final safety analysis report for the referenced standard design certification are governed by the change control requirements in the applicable design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(iii) For combined licenses which are not subject to paragraph (a) of this section but reference a manufactured reactor which is subject to paragraph (a) of this section, proposed departures from the information required by 10 CFR 52.157(f)(32) to be included in the final safety analysis report for the manufacturing license are governed by the applicable requirements in 10 CFR 52.171(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(5)(i) For manufacturing licenses which are subject to paragraph (a) of this section, generic changes to the information required by 10 CFR 52.157(f)(32) to be included in the final safety analysis report are governed by the applicable requirements of 10 CFR 52.171.
</P>
<P>(ii) For manufacturing licenses which are not subject to paragraph (a) of this section but reference a standard design certification which is subject to paragraph (a) of this section, proposed departures from the information required by 10 CFR 52.47(a)(28) to be included in the final safety analysis report for the referenced standard design certification are governed by the change control requirements in the applicable design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sunsetting provisions.</I> This section shall cease to have effect on April 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 28146, June 12, 2009, as amended at 91 FR 17762, Apr. 8, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.155" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.116.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.155   Mitigation of beyond-design-basis events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) Each holder of an operating license for a nuclear power reactor under this part and each holder of a combined license under part 52 of this chapter for which the Commission has made the finding under § 52.103(g) of this chapter shall comply with the requirements of this section until submittal of the license holder's certifications described in § 50.82(a)(1) or § 52.110(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Once the certifications described in § 50.82(a)(1) or § 52.110(a) of this chapter have been submitted by a licensee subject to the requirements of this section, that licensee need only comply with the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (d) and (f) of this section associated with spent fuel pool cooling capabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Holders of operating licenses or combined licenses for which the certifications described in § 50.82(a)(1) or § 52.110(a) of this chapter have been submitted need not meet the requirements of this section except for the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section associated with spent fuel pool cooling capabilities once the decay heat of the fuel in the spent fuel pool can be removed solely by heating and boiling of water within the spent fuel pool and the boil-off period provides sufficient time for the licensee to obtain off-site resources to sustain the spent fuel pool cooling function indefinitely, as demonstrated by an analysis performed and retained by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(iii) The holder of the license for Millstone Power Station, Unit 1, is not subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Holders of operating licenses or combined licenses for which the certifications described in § 50.82(a)(1) or § 52.110(a) of this chapter have been submitted need not meet the requirements of this section once all irradiated fuel has been permanently removed from the spent fuel pool(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Strategies and guidelines.</I> Each applicant or licensee shall develop, implement, and maintain:
</P>
<P>(1) Mitigation strategies for beyond-design-basis external events—Strategies and guidelines to mitigate beyond-design-basis external events from natural phenomena that are developed assuming a loss of all ac power concurrent with either a loss of normal access to the ultimate heat sink or, for passive reactor designs, a loss of normal access to the normal heat sink. These strategies and guidelines must be capable of being implemented site-wide and must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintaining or restoring core cooling, containment, and spent fuel pool cooling capabilities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition and use of offsite assistance and resources to support the functions required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section indefinitely, or until sufficient site functional capabilities can be maintained without the need for the mitigation strategies.
</P>
<P>(2) Extensive damage mitigation guidelines—Strategies and guidelines to maintain or restore core cooling, containment, and spent fuel pool cooling capabilities under the circumstances associated with loss of large areas of the plant impacted by the event, due to explosions or fire, to include strategies and guidelines in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(i) Firefighting;
</P>
<P>(ii) Operations to mitigate fuel damage; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Actions to minimize radiological release.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equipment.</I> (1) The equipment relied on for the mitigation strategies and guidelines required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section must have sufficient capacity and capability to perform the functions required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The equipment relied on for the mitigation strategies and guidelines required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be reasonably protected from the effects of natural phenomena that are equivalent in magnitude to the phenomena assumed for developing the design basis of the facility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Training requirements.</I> Each licensee shall provide for the training of personnel that perform activities in accordance with the capabilities required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Spent fuel pool monitoring.</I> In order to support effective prioritization of event mitigation and recovery actions, each licensee shall provide reliable means to remotely monitor wide-range water level for each spent fuel pool at its site until 5 years have elapsed since all of the fuel within that spent fuel pool was last used in a reactor vessel for power generation. This provision does not apply to General Electric Mark III upper containment pools.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation of changes.</I> (1) A licensee may make changes in the implementation of the requirements in this section without NRC approval, provided that before implementing each such change, the licensee demonstrates that the provisions of this section continue to be met and maintains documentation of changes until the requirements of this section no longer apply.
</P>
<P>(2) Changes in the implementation of requirements in this section subject to change control processes in addition to paragraph (f) of this section must be processed via their respective change control processes, unless the changes being evaluated impact only the implementation of the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Implementation.</I> Each holder of an operating license for a nuclear power reactor under this part on September 9, 2019, and each holder of a combined license under part 52 of this chapter for which the Commission made the finding specified in 10 CFR 52.103(g) as of September 9, 2019, shall continue to comply with the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and shall comply with all other provisions of this section no later than September 9, 2022, for licensees that received NRC Order EA-13-109 or September 9, 2021, for all other applicable licensees.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Withdrawal of orders and removal of license conditions.</I> (1) On September 9, 2022, Order EA-12-049, “Order Modifying Licenses With Regard to Requirements for Mitigation Strategies for Beyond-Design-Basis External Events,” and Order EA-12-051, “Order Modifying Licenses With Regard to Reliable Spent Fuel Pool Instrumentation,” are withdrawn for each licensee or construction permit holder that was issued those Orders.
</P>
<P>(2) On September 9, 2019, Enrico Fermi Nuclear Plant Unit 3, License No. NPF-95, license conditions 2.D(12)(h), “Reliable Spent Fuel Pool/Buffer Pool Level Instrumentation,” 2.D(12)(i), “Emergency Planning Actions,” and 2.D(12)(g), “Mitigation Strategies for Beyond-Design-Basis External Events,” except for 2.D(12)(g)1, are deemed removed from that license.
</P>
<P>(3) On September 9, 2019, William States Lee III Nuclear Station, Unit 1, License No. NPF-101, license conditions 2.D(12)(d)11 regarding reliable spent fuel pool instrumentation, 2.D(12)(g), “Emergency Planning Actions,” and 2.D(12)(j), “Mitigation Strategies for Beyond-Design-Basis External Events,” except for 2.D(12)(j)1, and William States Lee III Nuclear Station, Unit 2, License No. NPF-102, license conditions 2.D(12)(d)11 regarding reliable spent fuel pool instrumentation, 2.D(12)(g), “Emergency Planning Actions,” and 2.D(12)(j), “Mitigation Strategies for Beyond-Design-Basis External Events,” except for 2.D(12)(j)1, are deemed removed from those licenses.
</P>
<P>(4) On September 9, 2019, North Anna Unit 3, License No. NPF-103, license conditions 2.D(12)(g), “Reliable Spent Fuel Pool/Buffer Pool Level Instrumentation,” 2.D(12)(h), “Emergency Planning Actions,” and 2.D(12)(f), “Mitigation Strategies for Beyond-Design-Basis External Events,” except for 2.D(12)(f)1, are deemed removed from the license.
</P>
<P>(5) On September 9, 2019, Turkey Point, Unit 6, License No. NPF-104, license conditions 2.D(12)(e)11 regarding reliable spent fuel pool instrumentation, 2.D(12)(g), “Emergency Planning Actions,” and 2.D(12)(h), “Mitigation Strategies for Beyond-Design-Basis External Events,” except for 2.D(12)(h)1, and Turkey Point, Unit 7, License No. NPF-105, license conditions 2.D(12)(e)11 regarding reliable spent fuel pool instrumentation, 2.D(12)(g), “Emergency Planning Actions,” and 2.D(12)(h), “Mitigation Strategies for Beyond-Design-Basis External Events,” except for 2.D(12)(h)1, are deemed removed from those licenses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 39718, Aug. 9, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="117" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.117" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Small Modular Reactors, Non-Light-Water Reactors, and Non-Power Production or Utilization Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.160" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.117.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.160   Emergency preparedness for small modular reactors, non-light-water reactors, and non-power production or utilization facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Site boundary</I> means site boundary as defined in § 20.1003 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> The emergency plan shall contain information needed to demonstrate compliance with the elements set forth in this paragraph. The applicable requirements of § 50.47(a)(1) apply to applications submitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Performance-based framework.</I> Demonstrate effective response in drills and exercises for emergency and accident conditions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maintenance of performance.</I> Maintain in effect preparedness to respond to emergency and accident conditions and describe in an emergency plan the provisions to be employed to maintain preparedness.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Performance objectives.</I> (A) By the beginning of each calendar quarter, develop and maintain a complete list of performance objectives for that calendar quarter; and
</P>
<P>(B) Maintain records showing the implemented performance objectives and associated metrics during each calendar quarter for the previous eight calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Emergency response performance.</I> The emergency response team must have sufficient capability to demonstrate the following emergency response functions using drills or exercises:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Event classification and mitigation.</I> Assess, classify, monitor, and repair facility malfunctions in accordance with the emergency plan to return the facility to safe conditions.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Protective actions.</I> Implement and maintain protective actions for onsite personnel for emergency conditions, and recommend protective actions to offsite authorities as conditions warrant.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Communications.</I> Establish and maintain effective communications with the emergency response organization, and make notifications to response personnel and organizations who may have responsibilities for responding during emergencies.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Command and control.</I> Establish and maintain effective command and control for emergencies by using a supporting organizational structure with defined roles, responsibilities, and authorities for directing and performing emergency response functions as described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Staffing and operations.</I> Establish staffing for the facility necessary to implement the roles and responsibilities in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Radiological assessment.</I> Assess radiological conditions in and around the facility during emergencies, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Radiological conditions.</I> Assess, monitor, and report radiological conditions to the applicable response personnel using installed or portable equipment.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Protective equipment.</I> Issue and use protective equipment necessary to continue and expand mitigation and protective action strategies.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Core or vessel damage.</I> Assess, monitor, and report to the applicable response personnel the extent and magnitude of damage to the core or other vessel containing irradiated special nuclear material, such as fuel or targets, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Releases.</I> Assess, monitor, and report to the applicable response personnel the extent and magnitude of all radiological releases, including releases of hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Reentry.</I> Develop and implement reentry plans for accessing the facility after emergencies.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Critique and corrective actions.</I> Critique emergency response functions and implement corrective actions after drills and exercises, and after emergencies, if they occur.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Planning activities.</I> (A) Maintain the capability to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prepare and issue public information during emergencies.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Implement the NRC-approved emergency response plan in conjunction with the licensee's Safeguards Contingency Plan.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Establish voice and data communications with the NRC for emergencies.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Establish an emergency facility or facilities from which effective direction can be given and effective control can be exercised during an emergency, with capabilities to support the emergency response functions as described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Provide site familiarization training for any offsite organization that may respond to the site in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Establish methods for maintaining the emergency plan, contacts and arrangements, procedures, and evacuation time estimate up to date, including periodic reviews by the onsite and offsite organizations.
</P>
<P>(B) For a plume exposure pathway EPZ that extends beyond the site boundary, the emergency plan must describe:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The contacts and arrangements made and documented with Federal, State, local, and Tribal governmental agencies, as applicable, with responsibilities for coping with emergencies, including the identification of the principal coordinating agencies, and the coordinated reviews of changes in offsite and onsite planning and preparation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Offsite organizations responsible for coping with emergencies and the means of notifying, in the event of an emergency, persons assigned to the emergency organizations, including the means of validating notifications, the time period by which notifications must be completed, and primary and secondary methods to complete notification;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The protective measures to be taken within the EPZ to protect the health and safety of the public in the event of an emergency, including the procedures by which the protective measures are implemented, maintained, and discontinued;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) An evacuation time estimate of the areas within the EPZ;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The offsite facility and any backup facilities to coordinate the onsite response with the offsite response;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The means of making offsite dose projections and the means of communicating the offsite dose projections to the offsite response coordinating agencies;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The means by which public information is provided to the members of the public concerning emergency planning information, public alert notification system, and any prompt actions that need to be taken by the public;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The general plans and methods to allow reentry into the EPZ during and after an emergency; and
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) The drill and exercise program that tests and implements major portions of planning, preparations, and the coordinated response by the onsite response organization with the offsite response organizations within the EPZ without mandatory public participation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hazard analysis.</I> Conduct a hazard analysis of any contiguous or nearby facility, such as industrial, military, and transportation facilities, and include any credible hazard into the licensee's emergency preparedness program that would adversely impact the implementation of emergency plans.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Emergency planning zone.</I> For an applicant whose analysis required by § 50.33(g)(2) or § 53.1109(g)(2) of this chapter meets the criteria in § 50.33(g)(2)(i) or § 53.1109(g)(2)(i) of this chapter, as applicable, determine and describe the boundary and physical characteristics of the EPZ in the emergency plan.










</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ingestion response planning.</I> Describe or reference in the emergency plan the capabilities that provide actions to prevent contaminated food and water from entering into the ingestion pathway.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Implementation.</I> (1) An applicant for an operating license issued under this part after December 18, 2023 must establish, implement, and maintain an emergency preparedness program that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, as described in the emergency plan and license, and conduct an initial exercise to demonstrate this compliance within 2 years before the issuance of an operating license for the facility described in the license application.


</P>
<P>(2) A holder of a combined license issued under part 52 or 53 of this chapter before the Commission has made the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter, as applicable, must establish, implement, and maintain an emergency preparedness program that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, as described in the approved emergency plan and license, and conduct an initial exercise to demonstrate this compliance within 2 years before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, within 2 years before the scheduled date for initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1) of this chapter).




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 80076, Nov. 16, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 15787, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 50—General Design Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants
</HEAD>
<HD2>Table of Contents
</HD2>
<HD1>introduction
</HD1>
<HD1>definitions
</HD1>
<FP-2>Nuclear Power Unit.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Loss of Coolant Accidents.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Single Failure.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Anticipated Operational Occurrences.
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">criteria
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I. <E T="03">Overall Requirements:</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Quality Standards and Records</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Design Bases for Protection Against Natural Phenomena</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fire Protection</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Environmental and Dynamic Effects Design Bases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sharing of Structures, Systems, and Components</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 


</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II. <E T="03">Protection by Multiple Fission Product Barriers:</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reactor Design</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reactor Inherent Protection</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Suppression of Reactor Power Oscillations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Instrumentation and Control</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reactor Coolant Pressure Boundary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reactor Coolant System Design</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Containment Design</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Electric Power Systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Inspection and Testing of Electric Power Systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Control Room</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 


</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">III. <E T="03">Protection and Reactivity Control Systems:</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Protection System Functions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Protection System Reliability and Testability</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Protection System Independence</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Protection System Failure Modes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Separation of Protection and Control Systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Protection System Requirements for Reactivity Control Malfunctions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reactivity Control System Redundancy and Capability</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Combined Reactivity Control Systems Capability</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reactivity Limits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Protection Against Anticipated Operational Occurrences</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IV. <E T="03">Fluid Systems:</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Quality of Reactor Coolant Pressure Boundary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fracture Prevention of Reactor Coolant Pressure Boundary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Inspection of Reactor Coolant Pressure Boundary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reactor Coolant Makeup</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Residual Heat Removal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Emergency Core Cooling</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Inspection of Emergency Core Cooling System</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Testing of Emergency Core Cooling System</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Containment Heat Removal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Inspection of Containment Heat Removal System</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Testing of Containment Heat Removal System</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Containment Atmosphere Cleanup</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Inspection of Containment Atmosphere Cleanup Systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Testing of Containment Atmosphere Cleanup Systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cooling Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Inspection of Cooling Water System</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Testing of Cooling Water System</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V. <E T="03">Reactor Containment:</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Containment Design Basis</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fracture Prevention of Containment Pressure Boundary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Capability for Containment Leakage Rate Testing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Provisions for Containment Testing and Inspection</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Systems Penetrating Containment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Reactor Coolant Pressure Boundary Penetrating Containment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Primary Containment Isolation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Closed Systems Isolation Valves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VI. <E T="03">Fuel and Radioactivity Control:</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Control of Releases of Radioactive Materials to the Environment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fuel Storage and Handling and Radioactivity Control</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Prevention of Criticality in Fuel Storage and Handling</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Monitoring Fuel and Waste Storage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Monitoring Radioactivity Releases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>introduction
</HD1>
<P>Under the provisions of § 50.34, an application for a construction permit must include the principal design criteria for a proposed facility. Under the provisions of 10 CFR 52.47, 52.79, 52.137, and 52.157, an application for a design certification, combined license, design approval, or manufacturing license, respectively, must include the principal design criteria for a proposed facility. The principal design criteria establish the necessary design, fabrication, construction, testing, and performance requirements for structures, systems, and components important to safety; that is, structures, systems, and components that provide reasonable assurance that the facility can be operated without undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>These General Design Criteria establish minimum requirements for the principal design criteria for water-cooled nuclear power plants similar in design and location to plants for which construction permits have been issued by the Commission. The General Design Criteria are also considered to be generally applicable to other types of nuclear power units and are intended to provide guidance in establishing the principal design criteria for such other units.
</P>
<P>The development of these General Design Criteria is not yet complete. For example, some of the definitions need further amplification. Also, some of the specific design requirements for structures, systems, and components important to safety have not as yet been suitably defined. Their omission does not relieve any applicant from considering these matters in the design of a specific facility and satisfying the necessary safety requirements. These matters include:
</P>
<P>(1) Consideration of the need to design against single failures of passive components in fluid systems important to safety. (See Definition of Single Failure.)
</P>
<P>(2) Consideration of redundancy and diversity requirements for fluid systems important to safety. A “system” could consist of a number of subsystems each of which is separately capable of performing the specified system safety function. The minimum acceptable redundancy and diversity of subsystems and components within a subsystem, and the required interconnection and independence of the subsystems have not yet been developed or defined. (See Criteria 34, 35, 38, 41, and 44.)
</P>
<P>(3) Consideration of the type, size, and orientation of possible breaks in components of the reactor coolant pressure boundary in determining design requirements to suitably protect against postulated loss-of-coolant accidents. (See Definition of Loss of Coolant Accidents.)
</P>
<P>(4) Consideration of the possibility of systematic, nonrandom, concurrent failures of redundant elements in the design of protection systems and reactivity control systems. (See Criteria 22, 24, 26, and 29.)
</P>
<P>It is expected that the criteria will be augmented and changed from time to time as important new requirements for these and other features are developed.
</P>
<P>There will be some water-cooled nuclear power plants for which the General Design Criteria are not sufficient and for which additional criteria must be identified and satisfied in the interest of public safety. In particular, it is expected that additional or different criteria will be needed to take into account unusual sites and environmental conditions, and for water-cooled nuclear power units of advanced design. Also, there may be water-cooled nuclear power units for which fulfillment of some of the General Design Criteria may not be necessary or appropriate. For plants such as these, departures from the General Design Criteria must be identified and justified.
</P>
<HD1>definitions and explanations
</HD1>
<P><I>Nuclear power unit.</I> A nuclear power unit means a nuclear power reactor and associated equipment necessary for electric power generation and includes those structures, systems, and components required to provide reasonable assurance the facility can be operated without undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P><I>Loss of coolant accidents.</I> Loss of coolant accidents mean those postulated accidents that result from the loss of reactor coolant at a rate in excess of the capability of the reactor coolant makeup system from breaks in the reactor coolant pressure boundary, up to and including a break equivalent in size to the double-ended rupture of the largest pipe of the reactor coolant system. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Further details relating to the type, size, and orientation of postulated breaks in specific components of the reactor coolant pressure boundary are under development.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Single failure.</I> A single failure means an occurrence which results in the loss of capability of a component to perform its intended safety functions. Multiple failures resulting from a single occurrence are considered to be a single failure. Fluid and electric systems are considered to be designed against an assumed single failure if neither (1) a single failure of any active component (assuming passive components function properly) nor (2) a single failure of a passive component (assuming active components function properly), results in a loss of the capability of the system to perform its safety functions. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Single failures of passive components in electric systems should be assumed in designing against a single failure. The conditions under which a single failure of a passive component in a fluid system should be considered in designing the system against a single failure are under development.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Anticipated operational occurrences.</I> Anticipated operational occurrences mean those conditions of normal operation which are expected to occur one or more times during the life of the nuclear power unit and include but are not limited to loss of power to all recirculation pumps, tripping of the turbine generator set, isolation of the main condenser, and loss of all offsite power.
</P>
<HD1>criteria
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Overall Requirements
</HD2>
<P><I>Criterion 1—Quality standards and records.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed, fabricated, erected, and tested to quality standards commensurate with the importance of the safety functions to be performed. Where generally recognized codes and standards are used, they shall be identified and evaluated to determine their applicability, adequacy, and sufficiency and shall be supplemented or modified as necessary to assure a quality product in keeping with the required safety function. A quality assurance program shall be established and implemented in order to provide adequate assurance that these structures, systems, and components will satisfactorily perform their safety functions. Appropriate records of the design, fabrication, erection, and testing of structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be maintained by or under the control of the nuclear power unit licensee throughout the life of the unit.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 2—Design bases for protection against natural phenomena.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed to withstand the effects of natural phenomena such as earthquakes, tornadoes, hurricanes, floods, tsunami, and seiches without loss of capability to perform their safety functions. The design bases for these structures, systems, and components shall reflect: (1) Appropriate consideration of the most severe of the natural phenomena that have been historically reported for the site and surrounding area, with sufficient margin for the limited accuracy, quantity, and period of time in which the historical data have been accumulated, (2) appropriate combinations of the effects of normal and accident conditions with the effects of the natural phenomena and (3) the importance of the safety functions to be performed.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 3—Fire protection.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed and located to minimize, consistent with other safety requirements, the probability and effect of fires and explosions. Noncombustible and heat resistant materials shall be used wherever practical throughout the unit, particularly in locations such as the containment and control room. Fire detection and fighting systems of appropriate capacity and capability shall be provided and designed to minimize the adverse effects of fires on structures, systems, and components important to safety. Firefighting systems shall be designed to assure that their rupture or inadvertent operation does not significantly impair the safety capability of these structures, systems, and components.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 4—Environmental and dynamic effects design bases.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed to accommodate the effects of and to be compatible with the environmental conditions associated with normal operation, maintenance, testing, and postulated accidents, including loss-of-coolant accidents. These structures, systems, and components shall be appropriately protected against dynamic effects, including the effects of missiles, pipe whipping, and discharging fluids, that may result from equipment failures and from events and conditions outside the nuclear power unit. However, dynamic effects associated with postulated pipe ruptures in nuclear power units may be excluded from the design basis when analyses reviewed and approved by the Commission demonstrate that the probability of fluid system piping rupture is extremely low under conditions consistent with the design basis for the piping.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 5—Sharing of structures, systems, and components.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety shall not be shared among nuclear power units unless it can be shown that such sharing will not significantly impair their ability to perform their safety functions, including, in the event of an accident in one unit, an orderly shutdown and cooldown of the remaining units.
</P>
<HD2>II. Protection by Multiple Fission Product Barriers
</HD2>
<P><I>Criterion 10—Reactor design.</I> The reactor core and associated coolant, control, and protection systems shall be designed with appropriate margin to assure that specified acceptable fuel design limits are not exceeded during any condition of normal operation, including the effects of anticipated operational occurrences.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 11—Reactor inherent protection.</I> The reactor core and associated coolant systems shall be designed so that in the power operating range the net effect of the prompt inherent nuclear feedback characteristics tends to compensate for a rapid increase in reactivity.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 12—Suppression of reactor power oscillations.</I> The reactor core and associated coolant, control, and protection systems shall be designed to assure that power oscillations which can result in conditions exceeding specified acceptable fuel design limits are not possible or can be reliably and readily detected and suppressed.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 13—Instrumentation and control.</I> Instrumentation shall be provided to monitor variables and systems over their anticipated ranges for normal operation, for anticipated operational occurrences, and for accident conditions as appropriate to assure adequate safety, including those variables and systems that can affect the fission process, the integrity of the reactor core, the reactor coolant pressure boundary, and the containment and its associated systems. Appropriate controls shall be provided to maintain these variables and systems within prescribed operating ranges.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 14—Reactor coolant pressure boundary.</I> The reactor coolant pressure boundary shall be designed, fabricated, erected, and tested so as to have an extremely low probability of abnormal leakage, of rapidly propagating failure, and of gross rupture.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 15—Reactor coolant system design.</I> The reactor coolant system and associated auxiliary, control, and protection systems shall be designed with sufficient margin to assure that the design conditions of the reactor coolant pressure boundary are not exceeded during any condition of normal operation, including anticipated operational occurrences.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 16—Containment design.</I> Reactor containment and associated systems shall be provided to establish an essentially leak-tight barrier against the uncontrolled release of radioactivity to the environment and to assure that the containment design conditions important to safety are not exceeded for as long as postulated accident conditions require.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 17—Electric power systems.</I> An onsite electric power system and an offsite electric power system shall be provided to permit functioning of structures, systems, and components important to safety. The safety function for each system (assuming the other system is not functioning) shall be to provide sufficient capacity and capability to assure that (1) specified acceptable fuel design limits and design conditions of the reactor coolant pressure boundary are not exceeded as a result of anticipated operational occurrences and (2) the core is cooled and containment integrity and other vital functions are maintained in the event of postulated accidents.
</P>
<P>The onsite electric power supplies, including the batteries, and the onsite electric distribution system, shall have sufficient independence, redundancy, and testability to perform their safety functions assuming a single failure.
</P>
<P>Electric power from the transmission network to the onsite electric distribution system shall be supplied by two physically independent circuits (not necessarily on separate rights of way) designed and located so as to minimize to the extent practical the likelihood of their simultaneous failure under operating and postulated accident and environmental conditions. A switchyard common to both circuits is acceptable. Each of these circuits shall be designed to be available in sufficient time following a loss of all onsite alternating current power supplies and the other offsite electric power circuit, to assure that specified acceptable fuel design limits and design conditions of the reactor coolant pressure boundary are not exceeded. One of these circuits shall be designed to be available within a few seconds following a loss-of-coolant accident to assure that core cooling, containment integrity, and other vital safety functions are maintained.
</P>
<P>Provisions shall be included to minimize the probability of losing electric power from any of the remaining supplies as a result of, or coincident with, the loss of power generated by the nuclear power unit, the loss of power from the transmission network, or the loss of power from the onsite electric power supplies.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 18—Inspection and testing of electric power systems.</I> Electric power systems important to safety shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic inspection and testing of important areas and features, such as wiring, insulation, connections, and switchboards, to assess the continuity of the systems and the condition of their components. The systems shall be designed with a capability to test periodically (1) the operability and functional performance of the components of the systems, such as onsite power sources, relays, switches, and buses, and (2) the operability of the systems as a whole and, under conditions as close to design as practical, the full operation sequence that brings the systems into operation, including operation of applicable portions of the protection system, and the transfer of power among the nuclear power unit, the offsite power system, and the onsite power system.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 19—Control room.</I> A control room shall be provided from which actions can be taken to operate the nuclear power unit safely under normal conditions and to maintain it in a safe condition under accident conditions, including loss-of-coolant accidents. Adequate radiation protection shall be provided to permit access and occupancy of the control room under accident conditions without personnel receiving radiation exposures in excess of 5 rem whole body, or its equivalent to any part of the body, for the duration of the accident. Equipment at appropriate locations outside the control room shall be provided (1) with a design capability for prompt hot shutdown of the reactor, including necessary instrumentation and controls to maintain the unit in a safe condition during hot shutdown, and (2) with a potential capability for subsequent cold shutdown of the reactor through the use of suitable procedures.
</P>
<P>Applicants for and holders of construction permits and operating licenses under this part who apply on or after January 10, 1997, applicants for design approvals or certifications under part 52 of this chapter who apply on or after January 10, 1997, applicants for and holders of combined licenses or manufacturing licenses under part 52 of this chapter who do not reference a standard design approval or certification, or holders of operating licenses using an alternative source term under § 50.67, shall meet the requirements of this criterion, except that with regard to control room access and occupancy, adequate radiation protection shall be provided to ensure that radiation exposures shall not exceed 0.05 Sv (5 rem) total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) as defined in § 50.2 for the duration of the accident.
</P>
<HD2>III. Protection and Reactivity Control Systems
</HD2>
<P><I>Criterion 20—Protection system functions.</I> The protection system shall be designed (1) to initiate automatically the operation of appropriate systems including the reactivity control systems, to assure that specified acceptable fuel design limits are not exceeded as a result of anticipated operational occurrences and (2) to sense accident conditions and to initiate the operation of systems and components important to safety.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 21—Protection system reliability and testability.</I> The protection system shall be designed for high functional reliability and inservice testability commensurate with the safety functions to be performed. Redundancy and independence designed into the protection system shall be sufficient to assure that (1) no single failure results in loss of the protection function and (2) removal from service of any component or channel does not result in loss of the required minimum redundancy unless the acceptable reliability of operation of the protection system can be otherwise demonstrated. The protection system shall be designed to permit periodic testing of its functioning when the reactor is in operation, including a capability to test channels independently to determine failures and losses of redundancy that may have occurred.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 22—Protection system independence.</I> The protection system shall be designed to assure that the effects of natural phenomena, and of normal operating, maintenance, testing, and postulated accident conditions on redundant channels do not result in loss of the protection function, or shall be demonstrated to be acceptable on some other defined basis. Design techniques, such as functional diversity or diversity in component design and principles of operation, shall be used to the extent practical to prevent loss of the protection function.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 23—Protection system failure modes.</I> The protection system shall be designed to fail into a safe state or into a state demonstrated to be acceptable on some other defined basis if conditions such as disconnection of the system, loss of energy (e.g., electric power, instrument air), or postulated adverse environments (e.g., extreme heat or cold, fire, pressure, steam, water, and radiation) are experienced.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 24—Separation of protection and control systems.</I> The protection system shall be separated from control systems to the extent that failure of any single control system component or channel, or failure or removal from service of any single protection system component or channel which is common to the control and protection systems leaves intact a system satisfying all reliability, redundancy, and independence requirements of the protection system. Interconnection of the protection and control systems shall be limited so as to assure that safety is not significantly impaired.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 25—Protection system requirements for reactivity control malfunctions.</I> The protection system shall be designed to assure that specified acceptable fuel design limits are not exceeded for any single malfunction of the reactivity control systems, such as accidental withdrawal (not ejection or dropout) of control rods.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 26—Reactivity control system redundancy and capability.</I> Two independent reactivity control systems of different design principles shall be provided. One of the systems shall use control rods, preferably including a positive means for inserting the rods, and shall be capable of reliably controlling reactivity changes to assure that under conditions of normal operation, including anticipated operational occurrences, and with appropriate margin for malfunctions such as stuck rods, specified acceptable fuel design limits are not exceeded. The second reactivity control system shall be capable of reliably controlling the rate of reactivity changes resulting from planned, normal power changes (including xenon burnout) to assure acceptable fuel design limits are not exceeded. One of the systems shall be capable of holding the reactor core subcritical under cold conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 27—Combined reactivity control systems capability.</I> The reactivity control systems shall be designed to have a combined capability, in conjunction with poison addition by the emergency core cooling system, of reliably controlling reactivity changes to assure that under postulated accident conditions and with appropriate margin for stuck rods the capability to cool the core is maintained.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 28—Reactivity limits.</I> The reactivity control systems shall be designed with appropriate limits on the potential amount and rate of reactivity increase to assure that the effects of postulated reactivity accidents can neither (1) result in damage to the reactor coolant pressure boundary greater than limited local yielding nor (2) sufficiently disturb the core, its support structures or other reactor pressure vessel internals to impair significantly the capability to cool the core. These postulated reactivity accidents shall include consideration of rod ejection (unless prevented by positive means), rod dropout, steam line rupture, changes in reactor coolant temperature and pressure, and cold water addition.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 29—Protection against anticipated operational occurrences.</I> The protection and reactivity control systems shall be designed to assure an extremely high probability of accomplishing their safety functions in the event of anticipated operational occurrences.
</P>
<HD2>IV. Fluid Systems
</HD2>
<P><I>Criterion 30—Quality of reactor coolant pressure boundary.</I> Components which are part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary shall be designed, fabricated, erected, and tested to the highest quality standards practical. Means shall be provided for detecting and, to the extent practical, identifying the location of the source of reactor coolant leakage.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 31—Fracture prevention of reactor coolant pressure boundary.</I> The reactor coolant pressure boundary shall be designed with sufficient margin to assure that when stressed under operating, maintenance, testing, and postulated accident conditions (1) the boundary behaves in a nonbrittle manner and (2) the probability of rapidly propagating fracture is minimized. The design shall reflect consideration of service temperatures and other conditions of the boundary material under operating, maintenance, testing, and postulated accident conditions and the uncertainties in determining (1) material properties, (2) the effects of irradiation on material properties, (3) residual, steady state and transient stresses, and (4) size of flaws.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 32—Inspection of reactor coolant pressure boundary.</I> Components which are part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary shall be designed to permit (1) periodic inspection and testing of important areas and features to assess their structural and leaktight integrity, and (2) an appropriate material surveillance program for the reactor pressure vessel.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 33—Reactor coolant makeup.</I> A system to supply reactor coolant makeup for protection against small breaks in the reactor coolant pressure boundary shall be provided. The system safety function shall be to assure that specified acceptable fuel design limits are not exceeded as a result of reactor coolant loss due to leakage from the reactor coolant pressure boundary and rupture of small piping or other small components which are part of the boundary. The system shall be designed to assure that for onsite electric power system operation (assuming offsite power is not available) and for offsite electric power system operation (assuming onsite power is not available) the system safety function can be accomplished using the piping, pumps, and valves used to maintain coolant inventory during normal reactor operation.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 34—Residual heat removal.</I> A system to remove residual heat shall be provided. The system safety function shall be to transfer fission product decay heat and other residual heat from the reactor core at a rate such that specified acceptable fuel design limits and the design conditions of the reactor coolant pressure boundary are not exceeded.
</P>
<P>Suitable redundancy in components and features, and suitable interconnections, leak detection, and isolation capabilities shall be provided to assure that for onsite electric power system operation (assuming offsite power is not available) and for offsite electric power system operation (assuming onsite power is not available) the system safety function can be accomplished, assuming a single failure.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 35—Emergency core cooling.</I> A system to provide abundant emergency core cooling shall be provided. The system safety function shall be to transfer heat from the reactor core following any loss of reactor coolant at a rate such that (1) fuel and clad damage that could interfere with continued effective core cooling is prevented and (2) clad metal-water reaction is limited to negligible amounts.
</P>
<P>Suitable redundancy in components and features, and suitable interconnections, leak detection, isolation, and containment capabilities shall be provided to assure that for onsite electric power system operation (assuming offsite power is not available) and for offsite electric power system operation (assuming onsite power is not available) the system safety function can be accomplished, assuming a single failure.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 36—Inspection of emergency core cooling system.</I> The emergency core cooling system shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic inspection of important components, such as spray rings in the reactor pressure vessel, water injection nozzles, and piping, to assure the integrity and capability of the system.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 37—Testing of emergency core cooling system.</I> The emergency core cooling system shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic pressure and functional testing to assure (1) the structural and leaktight integrity of its components, (2) the operability and performance of the active components of the system, and (3) the operability of the system as a whole and, under conditions as close to design as practical, the performance of the full operational sequence that brings the system into operation, including operation of applicable portions of the protection system, the transfer between normal and emergency power sources, and the operation of the associated cooling water system.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 38—Containment heat removal.</I> A system to remove heat from the reactor containment shall be provided. The system safety function shall be to reduce rapidly, consistent with the functioning of other associated systems, the containment pressure and temperature following any loss-of-coolant accident and maintain them at acceptably low levels.
</P>
<P>Suitable redundancy in components and features, and suitable interconnections, leak detection, isolation, and containment capabilities shall be provided to assure that for onsite electric power system operation (assuming offsite power is not available) and for offsite electric power system operation (assuming onsite power is not available) the system safety function can be accomplished, assuming a single failure.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 39—Inspection of containment heat removal system.</I> The containment heat removal system shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic inspection of important components, such as the torus, sumps, spray nozzles, and piping to assure the integrity and capability of the system.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 40—Testing of containment heat removal system.</I> The containment heat removal system shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic pressure and functional testing to assure (1) the structural and leaktight integrity of its components, (2) the operability and performance of the active components of the system, and (3) the operability of the system as a whole, and under conditions as close to the design as practical the performance of the full operational sequence that brings the system into operation, including operation of applicable portions of the protection system, the transfer between normal and emergency power sources, and the operation of the associated cooling water system.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 41—Containment atmosphere cleanup.</I> Systems to control fission products, hydrogen, oxygen, and other substances which may be released into the reactor containment shall be provided as necessary to reduce, consistent with the functioning of other associated systems, the concentration and quality of fission products released to the environment following postulated accidents, and to control the concentration of hydrogen or oxygen and other substances in the containment atmosphere following postulated accidents to assure that containment integrity is maintained.
</P>
<P>Each system shall have suitable redundancy in components and features, and suitable interconnections, leak detection, isolation, and containment capabilities to assure that for onsite electric power system operation (assuming offsite power is not available) and for offsite electric power system operation (assuming onsite power is not available) its safety function can be accomplished, assuming a single failure.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 42—Inspection of containment atmosphere cleanup systems.</I> The containment atmosphere cleanup systems shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic inspection of important components, such as filter frames, ducts, and piping to assure the integrity and capability of the systems.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 43—Testing of containment atmosphere cleanup systems.</I> The containment atmosphere cleanup systems shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic pressure and functional testing to assure (1) the structural and leaktight integrity of its components, (2) the operability and performance of the active components of the systems such as fans, filters, dampers, pumps, and valves and (3) the operability of the systems as a whole and, under conditions as close to design as practical, the performance of the full operational sequence that brings the systems into operation, including operation of applicable portions of the protection system, the transfer between normal and emergency power sources, and the operation of associated systems.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 44—Cooling water.</I> A system to transfer heat from structures, systems, and components important to safety, to an ultimate heat sink shall be provided. The system safety function shall be to transfer the combined heat load of these structures, systems, and components under normal operating and accident conditions.
</P>
<P>Suitable redundancy in components and features, and suitable interconnections, leak detection, and isolation capabilities shall be provided to assure that for onsite electric power system operation (assuming offsite power is not available) and for offsite electric power system operation (assuming onsite power is not available) the system safety function can be accomplished, assuming a single failure.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 45—Inspection of cooling water system.</I> The cooling water system shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic inspection of important components, such as heat exchangers and piping, to assure the integrity and capability of the system.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 46—Testing of cooling water system.</I> The cooling water system shall be designed to permit appropriate periodic pressure and functional testing to assure (1) the structural and leaktight integrity of its components, (2) the operability and the performance of the active components of the system, and (3) the operability of the system as a whole and, under conditions as close to design as practical, the performance of the full operational sequence that brings the system into operation for reactor shutdown and for loss-of-coolant accidents, including operation of applicable portions of the protection system and the transfer between normal and emergency power sources.
</P>
<HD2>V. Reactor Containment
</HD2>
<P><I>Criterion 50—Containment design basis.</I> The reactor containment structure, including access openings, penetrations, and the containment heat removal system shall be designed so that the containment structure and its internal compartments can accommodate, without exceeding the design leakage rate and with sufficient margin, the calculated pressure and temperature conditions resulting from any loss-of-coolant accident. This margin shall reflect consideration of (1) the effects of potential energy sources which have not been included in the determination of the peak conditions, such as energy in steam generators and as required by § 50.44 energy from metal-water and other chemical reactions that may result from degradation but not total failure of emergency core cooling functioning, (2) the limited experience and experimental data available for defining accident phenomena and containment responses, and (3) the conservatism of the calculational model and input parameters.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 51—Fracture prevention of containment pressure boundary.</I> The reactor containment boundary shall be designed with sufficient margin to assure that under operating, maintenance, testing, and postulated accident conditions (1) its ferritic materials behave in a nonbrittle manner and (2) the probability of rapidly propagating fracture is minimized. The design shall reflect consideration of service temperatures and other conditions of the containment boundary material during operation, maintenance, testing, and postulated accident conditions, and the uncertainties in determining (1) material properties, (2) residual, steady state, and transient stresses, and (3) size of flaws.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 52—Capability for containment leakage rate testing.</I> The reactor containment and other equipment which may be subjected to containment test conditions shall be designed so that periodic integrated leakage rate testing can be conducted at containment design pressure.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 53—Provisions for containment testing and inspection.</I> The reactor containment shall be designed to permit (1) appropriate periodic inspection of all important areas, such as penetrations, (2) an appropriate surveillance program, and (3) periodic testing at containment design pressure of the leaktightness of penetrations which have resilient seals and expansion bellows.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 54—Piping systems penetrating containment.</I> Piping systems penetrating primary reactor containment shall be provided with leak detection, isolation, and containment capabilities having redundancy, reliability, and performance capabilities which reflect the importance to safety of isolating these piping systems. Such piping systems shall be designed with a capability to test periodically the operability of the isolation valves and associated apparatus and to determine if valve leakage is within acceptable limits.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 55—Reactor coolant pressure boundary penetrating containment.</I> Each line that is part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary and that penetrates primary reactor containment shall be provided with containment isolation valves as follows, unless it can be demonstrated that the containment isolation provisions for a specific class of lines, such as instrument lines, are acceptable on some other defined basis:
</P>
<P>(1) One locked closed isolation valve inside and one locked closed isolation valve outside containment; or
</P>
<P>(2) One automatic isolation valve inside and one locked closed isolation valve outside containment; or
</P>
<P>(3) One locked closed isolation valve inside and one automatic isolation valve outside containment. A simple check valve may not be used as the automatic isolation valve outside containment; or
</P>
<P>(4) One automatic isolation valve inside and one automatic isolation valve outside containment. A simple check valve may not be used as the automatic isolation valve outside containment.
</P>
<FP>Isolation valves outside containment shall be located as close to containment as practical and upon loss of actuating power, automatic isolation valves shall be designed to take the position that provides greater safety.
</FP>
<P>Other appropriate requirements to minimize the probability or consequences of an accidental rupture of these lines or of lines connected to them shall be provided as necessary to assure adequate safety. Determination of the appropriateness of these requirements, such as higher quality in design, fabrication, and testing, additional provisions for inservice inspection, protection against more severe natural phenomena, and additional isolation valves and containment, shall include consideration of the population density, use characteristics, and physical characteristics of the site environs.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 56—Primary containment isolation.</I> Each line that connects directly to the containment atmosphere and penetrates primary reactor containment shall be provided with containment isolation valves as follows, unless it can be demonstrated that the containment isolation provisions for a specific class of lines, such as instrument lines, are acceptable on some other defined basis:
</P>
<P>(1) One locked closed isolation valve inside and one locked closed isolation valve outside containment; or
</P>
<P>(2) One automatic isolation valve inside and one locked closed isolation valve outside containment; or
</P>
<P>(3) One locked closed isolation valve inside and one automatic isolation valve outside containment. A simple check valve may not be used as the automatic isolation valve outside containment; or
</P>
<P>(4) One automatic isolation valve inside and one automatic isolation valve outside containment. A simple check valve may not be used as the automatic isolation valve outside containment.
</P>
<FP>Isolation valves outside containment shall be located as close to the containment as practical and upon loss of actuating power, automatic isolation valves shall be designed to take the position that provides greater safety.
</FP>
<P><I>Criterion 57—Closed system isolation valves.</I> Each line that penetrates primary reactor containment and is neither part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary nor connected directly to the containment atmosphere shall have at least one containment isolation valve which shall be either automatic, or locked closed, or capable of remote manual operation. This valve shall be outside containment and located as close to the containment as practical. A simple check valve may not be used as the automatic isolation valve.
</P>
<HD2>VI. Fuel and Radioactivity Control
</HD2>
<P><I>Criterion 60—Control of releases of radioactive materials to the environment.</I> The nuclear power unit design shall include means to control suitably the release of radioactive materials in gaseous and liquid effluents and to handle radioactive solid wastes produced during normal reactor operation, including anticipated operational occurrences. Sufficient holdup capacity shall be provided for retention of gaseous and liquid effluents containing radioactive materials, particularly where unfavorable site environmental conditions can be expected to impose unusual operational limitations upon the release of such effluents to the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 61—Fuel storage and handling and radioactivity control.</I> The fuel storage and handling, radioactive waste, and other systems which may contain radioactivity shall be designed to assure adequate safety under normal and postulated accident conditions. These systems shall be designed (1) with a capability to permit appropriate periodic inspection and testing of components important to safety, (2) with suitable shielding for radiation protection, (3) with appropriate containment, confinement, and filtering systems, (4) with a residual heat removal capability having reliability and testability that reflects the importance to safety of decay heat and other residual heat removal, and (5) to prevent significant reduction in fuel storage coolant inventory under accident conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 62—Prevention of criticality in fuel storage and handling.</I> Criticality in the fuel storage and handling system shall be prevented by physical systems or processes, preferably by use of geometrically safe configurations.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 63—Monitoring fuel and waste storage.</I> Appropriate systems shall be provided in fuel storage and radioactive waste systems and associated handling areas (1) to detect conditions that may result in loss of residual heat removal capability and excessive radiation levels and (2) to initiate appropriate safety actions.
</P>
<P><I>Criterion 64—Monitoring radioactivity releases.</I> Means shall be provided for monitoring the reactor containment atmosphere, spaces containing components for recirculation of loss-of-coolant accident fluids, effluent discharge paths, and the plant environs for radioactivity that may be released from normal operations, including anticipated operational occurrences, and from postulated accidents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 3256, Feb. 20, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 12733, July 7, 1971; 41 FR 6258, Feb. 12, 1976; 43 FR 50163, Oct. 27, 1978; 51 FR 12505, Apr. 11, 1986; 52 FR 41294, Oct. 27, 1987; 64 FR 72002, Dec. 23, 1999; 72 FR 49505, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 50—Quality Assurance Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants and Fuel Reprocessing Plants








</HEAD>
<P><I>Introduction.</I> Every applicant for a construction permit is required by the provisions of § 50.34 or § 53.1309 of this chapter to include in its Preliminary Safety Analysis Report a description of the quality assurance program to be applied to the design, fabrication, construction, and testing of the structures, systems, and components of the facility. Every applicant for an operating license is required by the provisions of § 50.34 or § 53.1369 of this chapter to include, in its Final Safety Analysis Report, information pertaining to the managerial and administrative controls to be used to assure safe operation. Every applicant for a combined license is required by the provisions of § 52.79 or § 53.1416 of this chapter to include in its Final Safety Analysis Report a description of the quality assurance applied to the design, and to be applied to the fabrication, construction, and testing of the structures, systems, and components of the facility and to the managerial and administrative controls to be used to assure safe operation. For applications submitted after September 27, 2007, every applicant for an early site permit is required by the provisions of § 52.17 or § 53.1146 of this chapter to include in its Site Safety Analysis Report a description of the quality assurance program applied to site activities related to the design, fabrication, construction, and testing of the structures, systems, and components of a facility or facilities that may be constructed on the site. Every applicant for a design approval is required by the provisions of § 52.137 or § 53.1209 of this chapter to include in its Final Safety Analysis Report a description of the quality assurance program applied to the design of the structures, systems, and components of the facility. Every applicant for a design certification is required by the provisions of § 52.47 or § 53.1239 of this chapter to include in its Final Safety Analysis Report a description of the quality assurance program applied to the design of the structures, systems, and components of the facility. Every applicant for a manufacturing license is required by the provisions of § 52.157 or § 53.1279 of this chapter to include in its Final Safety Analysis Report a description of the quality assurance program applied to the design, and to be applied to the manufacture of, the structures, systems, and components of the reactor. Nuclear power plants and fuel reprocessing plants include structures, systems, and components that prevent or mitigate the consequences of postulated accidents that could cause undue risk to the health and safety of the public. This appendix establishes quality assurance requirements for the design, manufacture, construction, and operation of those structures, systems, and components. The pertinent requirements of this appendix apply to all activities affecting the safety-related functions of those structures, systems, and components; these activities include designing, purchasing, fabricating, handling, shipping, storing, cleaning, erecting, installing, inspecting, testing, operating, maintaining, repairing, refueling, and modifying.






</P>
<P>As used in this appendix, “quality assurance” comprises all those planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that a structure, system, or component will perform satisfactorily in service. Quality assurance includes quality control, which comprises those quality assurance actions related to the physical characteristics of a material, structure, component, or system which provide a means to control the quality of the material, structure, component, or system to predetermined requirements.


</P>
<HD1>I. Organization
</HD1>
<P>The applicant 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> shall be responsible for the establishment and execution of the quality assurance program. The applicant may delegate to others, such as contractors, agents, or consultants, the work of establishing and executing the quality assurance program, or any part thereof, but shall retain responsibility for the quality assurance program. The authority and duties of persons and organizations performing activities affecting the safety-related functions of structures, systems, and components shall be clearly established and delineated in writing. These activities include both the performing functions of attaining quality objectives and the quality assurance functions. The quality assurance functions are those of (1) assuring that an appropriate quality assurance program is established and effectively executed; and (2) verifying, such as by checking, auditing, and inspecting, that activities affecting the safety-related functions have been correctly performed. The persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions shall have sufficient authority and organizational freedom to identify quality problems; to initiate, recommend, or provide solutions; and to verify implementation of solutions. The persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions shall report to a management level so that the required authority and organizational freedom, including sufficient independence from cost and schedule when opposed to safety considerations, are provided. Because of the many variables involved, such as the number of personnel, the type of activity being performed, and the location or locations where activities are performed, the organizational structure for executing the quality assurance program may take various forms, provided that the persons and organizations assigned the quality assurance functions have the required authority and organizational freedom. Irrespective of the organizational structure, the individual(s) assigned the responsibility for assuring effective execution of any portion of the quality assurance program at any location where activities subject to this appendix are being performed, shall have direct access to the levels of management necessary to perform this function.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> While the term “applicant” is used in these criteria, the requirements are, of course, applicable after such a person has received a license to construct and operate a nuclear power plant or a fuel reprocessing plant or has received an early site permit, design approval, design certification, or manufacturing license, as applicable. These criteria will also be used for guidance in evaluating the adequacy of quality assurance programs in use by holders of construction permits, operating licenses, early site permits, design approvals, combined licenses, and manufacturing licenses.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Quality Assurance Program
</HD1>
<P>The applicant shall establish at the earliest practicable time, consistent with the schedule for accomplishing the activities, a quality assurance program which complies with the requirements of this appendix. This program shall be documented by written policies, procedures, or instructions and shall be carried out throughout plant life in accordance with those policies, procedures, or instructions. The applicant shall identify the structures, systems, and components to be covered by the quality assurance program and the major organizations participating in the program, together with the designated functions of these organizations. The quality assurance program shall provide control over activities affecting the quality of the identified structures, systems, and components, to an extent consistent with their importance to safety. Activities affecting quality shall be accomplished under suitably controlled conditions. Controlled conditions include the use of appropriate equipment; suitable environmental conditions for accomplishing the activity, such as adequate cleanness; and assurance that all prerequisites for the given activity have been satisfied. The program shall take into account the need for special controls, processes, test equipment, tools, and skills to attain the required quality, and the need for verification of quality by inspection and test. The program shall provide for indoctrination and training of personnel performing activities affecting quality as necessary to assure that suitable proficiency is achieved and maintained. The applicant shall regularly review the status and adequacy of the quality assurance program. Management of other organizations participating in the quality assurance program shall regularly review the status and adequacy of that part of the quality assurance program which they are executing.
</P>
<HD1>III. Design Control


</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to assure that applicable regulatory requirements and the design bases, as defined in § 50.2 and as specified in the license application, or the functional design criteria, as defined in § 53.020 of this chapter and as specified in the license application, for those structures, systems, and components to which this appendix applies are correctly translated into specifications, drawings, procedures, and instructions. These measures shall include provisions to assure that appropriate quality standards are specified and included in design documents and that deviations from such standards are controlled. Measures shall also be established for the selection and review for suitability of application of materials, parts, equipment, and processes that are essential to the safety-related functions of the structures, systems and components.






</P>
<P>Measures shall be established for the identification and control of design interfaces and for coordination among participating design organizations. These measures shall include the establishment of procedures among participating design organizations for the review, approval, release, distribution, and revision of documents involving design interfaces.
</P>
<P>The design control measures shall provide for verifying or checking the adequacy of design, such as by the performance of design reviews, by the use of alternate or simplified calculational methods, or by the performance of a suitable testing program. The verifying or checking process shall be performed by individuals or groups other than those who performed the original design, but who may be from the same organization. Where a test program is used to verify the adequacy of a specific design feature in lieu of other verifying or checking processes, it shall include suitable qualifications testing of a prototype unit under the most adverse design conditions. Design control measures shall be applied to items such as the following: reactor physics, stress, thermal, hydraulic, and accident analyses; compatibility of materials; accessibility for inservice inspection, maintenance, and repair; and delineation of acceptance criteria for inspections and tests.
</P>
<P>Design changes, including field changes, shall be subject to design control measures commensurate with those applied to the original design and be approved by the organization that performed the original design unless the applicant designates another responsible organization.


</P>
<HD1>IV. Procurement Document Control
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to assure that applicable regulatory requirements, design bases or functional design criteria, and other requirements which are necessary to assure adequate quality are suitably included or referenced in the documents for procurement of material, equipment, and services, whether purchased by the applicant or by its contractors or subcontractors. To the extent necessary, procurement documents shall require contractors or subcontractors to provide a quality assurance program consistent with the pertinent provisions of this appendix.












</P>
<HD1>V. Instructions, Procedures, and Drawings
</HD1>
<P>Activities affecting quality shall be prescribed by documented instructions, procedures, or drawings, of a type appropriate to the circumstances and shall be accomplished in accordance with these instructions, procedures, or drawings. Instructions, procedures, or drawings shall include appropriate quantitative or qualitative acceptance criteria for determining that important activities have been satisfactorily accomplished.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Document Control
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to control the issuance of documents, such as instructions, procedures, and drawings, including changes thereto, which prescribe all activities affecting quality. These measures shall assure that documents, including changes, are reviewed for adequacy and approved for release by authorized personnel and are distributed to and used at the location where the prescribed activity is performed. Changes to documents shall be reviewed and approved by the same organizations that performed the original review and approval unless the applicant designates another responsible organization.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Control of Purchased Material, Equipment, and Services
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to assure that purchased material, equipment, and services, whether purchased directly or through contractors and subcontractors, conform to the procurement documents. These measures shall include provisions, as appropriate, for source evaluation and selection, objective evidence of quality furnished by the contractor or subcontractor, inspection at the contractor or subcontractor source, and examination of products upon delivery. Documentary evidence that material and equipment conform to the procurement requirements shall be available at the nuclear power plant or fuel reprocessing plant site prior to installation or use of such material and equipment. This documentary evidence shall be retained at the nuclear power plant or fuel reprocessing plant site and shall be sufficient to identify the specific requirements, such as codes, standards, or specifications, met by the purchased material and equipment. The effectiveness of the control of quality by contractors and subcontractors shall be assessed by the applicant or designee at intervals consistent with the importance, complexity, and quantity of the product or services.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Identification and Control of Materials, Parts, and Components
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established for the identification and control of materials, parts, and components, including partially fabricated assemblies. These measures shall assure that identification of the item is maintained by heat number, part number, serial number, or other appropriate means, either on the item or on records traceable to the item, as required throughout fabrication, erection, installation, and use of the item. These identification and control measures shall be designed to prevent the use of incorrect or defective material, parts, and components.
</P>
<HD1>IX. Control of Special Processes
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to assure that special processes, including welding, heat treating, and nondestructive testing, are controlled and accomplished by qualified personnel using qualified procedures in accordance with applicable codes, standards, specifications, criteria, and other special requirements.
</P>
<HD1>X. Inspection
</HD1>
<P>A program for inspection of activities affecting quality shall be established and executed by or for the organization performing the activity to verify conformance with the documented instructions, procedures, and drawings for accomplishing the activity. Such inspection shall be performed by individuals other than those who performed the activity being inspected. Examinations, measurements, or tests of material or products processed shall be performed for each work operation where necessary to assure quality. If inspection of processed material or products is impossible or disadvantageous, indirect control by monitoring processing methods, equipment, and personnel shall be provided. Both inspection and process monitoring shall be provided when control is inadequate without both. If mandatory inspection hold points, which require witnessing or inspecting by the applicant's designated representative and beyond which work shall not proceed without the consent of its designated representative are required, the specific hold points shall be indicated in appropriate documents.
</P>
<HD1>XI. Test Control
</HD1>
<P>A test program shall be established to assure that all testing required to demonstrate that structures, systems, and components will perform satisfactorily in service is identified and performed in accordance with written test procedures which incorporate the requirements and acceptance limits contained in applicable design documents. The test program shall include, as appropriate, proof tests prior to installation, preoperational tests, and operational tests during nuclear power plant or fuel reprocessing plant operation, of structures, systems, and components. Test procedures shall include provisions for assuring that all prerequisites for the given test have been met, that adequate test instrumentation is available and used, and that the test is performed under suitable environmental conditions. Test results shall be documented and evaluated to assure that test requirements have been satisfied.
</P>
<HD1>XII. Control of Measuring and Test Equipment
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to assure that tools, gages, instruments, and other measuring and testing devices used in activities affecting quality are properly controlled, calibrated, and adjusted at specified periods to maintain accuracy within necessary limits.
</P>
<HD1>XIII. Handling, Storage and Shipping
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to control the handling, storage, shipping, cleaning and preservation of material and equipment in accordance with work and inspection instructions to prevent damage or deterioration. When necessary for particular products, special protective environments, such as inert gas atmosphere, specific moisture content levels, and temperature levels, shall be specified and provided.
</P>
<HD1>XIV. Inspection, Test, and Operating Status
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to indicate, by the use of markings such as stamps, tags, labels, routing cards, or other suitable means, the status of inspections and tests performed upon individual items of the nuclear power plant or fuel reprocessing plant. These measures shall provide for the identification of items which have satisfactorily passed required inspections and tests, where necessary to preclude inadvertent bypassing of such inspections and tests. Measures shall also be established for indicating the operating status of structures, systems, and components of the nuclear power plant or fuel reprocessing plant, such as by tagging valves and switches, to prevent inadvertent operation.
</P>
<HD1>XV. Nonconforming Materials, Parts, or Components
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to control materials, parts, or components which do not conform to requirements in order to prevent their inadvertent use or installation. These measures shall include, as appropriate, procedures for identification, documentation, segregation, disposition, and notification to affected organizations. Nonconforming items shall be reviewed and accepted, rejected, repaired or reworked in accordance with documented procedures.
</P>
<HD1>XVI. Corrective Action
</HD1>
<P>Measures shall be established to assure that conditions adverse to quality, such as failures, malfunctions, deficiencies, deviations, defective material and equipment, and nonconformances are promptly identified and corrected. In the case of significant conditions adverse to quality, the measures shall assure that the cause of the condition is determined and corrective action taken to preclude repetition. The identification of the significant condition adverse to quality, the cause of the condition, and the corrective action taken shall be documented and reported to appropriate levels of management.
</P>
<HD1>XVII. Quality Assurance Records
</HD1>
<P>Sufficient records shall be maintained to furnish evidence of activities affecting quality. The records shall include at least the following: Operating logs and the results of reviews, inspections, tests, audits, monitoring of work performance, and materials analyses. The records shall also include closely-related data such as qualifications of personnel, procedures, and equipment. Inspection and test records shall, as a minimum, identify the inspector or data recorder, the type of observation, the results, the acceptability, and the action taken in connection with any deficiencies noted. Records shall be identifiable and retrievable. Consistent with applicable regulatory requirements, the applicant shall establish requirements concerning record retention, such as duration, location, and assigned responsibility.
</P>
<HD1>XVIII. Audits
</HD1>
<P>A comprehensive system of planned and periodic audits shall be carried out to verify compliance with all aspects of the quality assurance program and to determine the effectiveness of the program. The audits shall be performed in accordance with the written procedures or check lists by appropriately trained personnel not having direct responsibilities in the areas being audited. Audit results shall be documented and reviewed by management having responsibility in the area audited. Followup action, including reaudit of deficient areas, shall be taken where indicated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 10499, June 27, 1970, as amended at 36 FR 18301, Sept. 11, 1971; 40 FR 3210, Jan. 20, 1975; 72 FR 49505, Aug. 28, 2007; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019; 91 FR 15787, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 50—A Guide for the Financial Data and Related Information Required To Establish Financial Qualifications for Construction Permits and Combined Licenses








</HEAD>
<HD1>General Information
</HD1>
<P>This appendix is intended to appraise applicants for construction permits and combined licenses for production or utilization facilities of the types described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, or testing facilities, of the general kinds of financial data and other related information that will demonstrate the financial qualification of the applicant to carry out the activities for which the permit or license is sought. The kind and depth of information described in this guide is not intended to be a rigid and absolute requirement. In some instances, additional pertinent material may be needed. In any case, the applicant should include information other than that specified, if the information is pertinent to establishing the applicant's financial ability to carry out the activities for which the permit or license is sought.
</P>
<P>It is important to observe also that both § 50.33(f) and this appendix distinguish between applicants which are established organizations and those which are newly-formed entities organized primarily for the purpose of engaging in the activity for which the permit is sought. Those in the former category will normally have a history of operating experience and be able to submit financial statements reflecting the financial results of past operations. With respect, however, to the applicant which is a newly formed company established primarily for the purpose of carrying out the licensed activity, with little or no prior operating history, somewhat more detailed data and supporting documentation will generally be necessary. For this reason, the appendix describes separately the scope of information to be included in applications by each of these two classes of applicants.
</P>
<P>In determining an applicant's financial qualification, the Commission will require the minimum amount of information necessary for that purpose. No special forms are prescribed for submitting the information. In many cases, the financial information usually contained in current annual financial reports, including summary data of prior years, will be sufficient for the Commission's needs. The Commission reserves the right, however, to require additional financial information at the construction permit stage, particularly in cases in which the proposed power generating facility will be commonly owned by two or more existing companies or in which financing depends upon long-term arrangements for sharing of the power from the facility by two or more electrical generating companies.
</P>
<P>Applicants are encouraged to consult with the Commission with respect to any questions they may have relating to the requirements of the Commission's regulations or the information set forth in this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>I. Applicants Which Are Established Organizations
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Applications for Construction Permits or Combined Licenses
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Estimate of construction costs.</I> For electric utilities, each applicant's estimate of the total cost of the proposed facility should be broken down as follows and be accompanied by a statement describing the bases from which the estimate is derived:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) Total nuclear production plant costs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$..........
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) Transmission, distribution, and general plant costs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$..........
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) Nuclear fuel inventory cost for first core 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$..........
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total estimated cost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$..........


</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Section 2.390 of 10 CFR part 2 and § 9.5 of 10 CFR part 9 indicate the circumstances under which information submitted by applicants may be withheld from public disclosure.</P></DIV></DIV>
<FP>If the fuel is to be acquired by lease or other arrangement than purchase, the application should so state. The items to be included in these categories should be the same as those defined in the applicable electric plant and nuclear fuel inventory accounts prescribed by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission or an explanation given as to any departure therefrom.
</FP>
<P>Since the composition of construction cost estimates for production and utilization facilities other than nuclear power reactors will vary according to the type of facility, no particular format is suggested for submitting such estimates. The estimate should, however, be itemized by categories of cost in sufficient detail to permit an evaluation of its reasonableness.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Source of construction funds.</I> The application should include a brief statement of the applicant's general financial plan for financing the cost of the facility, identifying the source or sources upon which the applicant relies for the necessary construction funds, e.g., internal sources such as undistributed earnings and depreciation accruals, or external sources such as borrowings.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Applicant's financial statements.</I> The application should also include the applicant's latest published annual financial report, together with any current interim financial statements that are pertinent. If an annual financial report is not published, the balance sheet and operating statement covering the latest complete accounting year together with all pertinent notes thereto and certification by a public accountant should be furnished.
</P>
<HD1>II. Applicants Which Are Newly Formed Entities
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Applications for Construction Permits or Combined Licenses
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Estimate of construction costs.</I> The information that will normally be required of applicants which are newly formed entities will not differ in scope from that required of established organizations. Accordingly, applicants should submit estimates as described above for established organizations.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Source of construction funds.</I> The application should specifically identify the source or sources upon which the applicant relies for the funds necessary to pay the cost of constructing the facility, and the amount to be obtained from each. With respect to each source, the application should describe in detail the applicant's legal and financial relationships with its stockholders, corporate affiliates, or others (such as financial institutions) upon which the applicant is relying for financial assistance. If the sources of funds relied upon include parent companies or other corporate affiliates, information to support the financial capability of each such company or affiliate to meet its commitments to the applicant should be set forth in the application. This information should be of the same kind and scope as would be required if the parent companies or affiliates were in fact the applicant. Ordinarily, it will be necessary that copies of agreements or contracts among the companies be submitted.
</P>
<FP>As noted earlier in this appendix, an applicant which is a newly formed entity will normally not be in a position to submit the usual types of balance sheets and income statements reflecting the results of prior operations. The applicant should, however, include in its application a statement of its assets, liabilities, and capital structure as of the date of the application.


</FP>
<HD1>III. Annual Financial Statement
</HD1>
<P>Each holder of a construction permit for a production or utilization facility of a type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 or a testing facility, and each holder of a combined license issued under part 52 of this chapter, is required by § 50.71(b) to file its annual financial report with the Commission at the time of issuance. This requirement does not apply to licensees or holders of construction permits for non-power production or utilization facilities of a type described in § 50.21(a) or (c), other than testing facilities.


</P>
<HD1>IV. Additional Information
</HD1>
<P>The Commission may, from time to time, request the applicant, whether an established organization or newly formed entity, to submit additional or more detailed information respecting its financial arrangements and status of funds if such information is deemed necessary to enable the Commission to determine an applicant's financial qualifications for the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 35753, Sept. 12, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 18853, May 3, 1985; 72 FR 49506, Aug. 28, 2007; 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016; 88 FR 80949, Nov. 21, 2023; 89 FR 106252, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 50 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 50—Emergency Planning and Preparedness for Production and Utilization Facilities


</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260330" REFID="111">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 15788, Mar. 30, 2026.</XREF>
<HD2>Table of Contents
</HD2>
<FP-2>I. Introduction
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. The Preliminary Safety Analysis Report
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. The Final Safety Analysis Report
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Content of Emergency Plans
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V. Implementing Procedures
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VI. Emergency Response Data System
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>1. Each applicant for a construction permit is required by § 50.34(a) or § 53.1309(a)(4) of this chapter to include in the preliminary safety analysis report a discussion of preliminary plans for coping with emergencies. Each applicant for an operating license is required by § 50.34(b) or § 53.1416 of this chapter to include in the application plans for coping with emergencies. Each applicant for an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter may submit plans for coping with emergencies under § 52.17 or § 53.1146 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>2. This appendix establishes minimum requirements for emergency plans for use in attaining an acceptable state of emergency preparedness. These plans shall be described generally in the preliminary safety analysis report for a construction permit and submitted as part of the final safety analysis report for an operating license. These plans, or major features thereof, may be submitted as part of the site safety analysis report for an early site permit.


</P>
<P>3. The potential radiological hazards to the public associated with the operation of non-power production or utilization facilities licensed under this part and fuel facilities licensed under 10 CFR part 70 involve considerations different than those associated with nuclear power reactors. Consequently, the size of Emergency Planning Zones 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (EPZs) for facilities other than power reactors and the degree to which compliance with the requirements of this section and sections II, III, IV, and V of this appendix is necessary, will be determined on a case-by-case basis.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> EPZs for power reactors are discussed in NUREG-0396; EPA 520/1-78-016, “Planning Basis for the Development of State and Local Government Radiological Emergency Response Plans in Support of Light Water Nuclear Power Plants,” December 1978. The size of the EPZs for a nuclear power plant shall be determined in relation to local emergency response needs and capabilities as they are affected by such conditions as demography, topography, land characteristics, access routes, and jurisdictional boundaries. The size of the EPZs also may be determined on a case-by-case basis for gas-cooled nuclear reactors and for reactors with an authorized power level less than 250 MW thermal. Generally, the plume exposure pathway EPZ for nuclear power plants with an authorized power level greater than 250 MW thermal shall consist of an area about 10 miles (16 km) in radius and the ingestion pathway EPZ shall consist of an area about 50 miles (80 km) in radius.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Regulatory Guide 2.6, “Emergency Planning for Research and Test Reactors and Other Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities,” may be used as guidance for the acceptability of non-power production or utilization facility emergency response plans.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. Notwithstanding the above paragraphs, in the case of an operating license authorizing only fuel loading and/or low power operations up to 5 percent of rated power, no NRC or FEMA review, findings, or determinations concerning the state of offsite emergency preparedness or the adequacy of and the capability to implement State and local offsite emergency plans, as defined in this Appendix, are required prior to the issuance of such a license.
</P>
<P>5. Each applicant for a combined license or early site permit under part 52 of this chapter whose application is docketed before December 23, 2011 may defer compliance with any change to emergency preparedness regulations under the final rule issued November 23, 2011. If that applicant chooses to defer compliance, it shall subsequently request to amend the combined license or early site permit to comply with those changes no later than December 31, 2013. An applicant that does not receive a combined license or early site permit before December 31, 2013, shall revise its combined license or early site permit application to comply with those changes no later than December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding any Commission finding under 10 CFR 52.103(g) regarding the combined license holder's facility, the combined license holder may not operate the facility until the NRC has approved the license amendment demonstrating compliance with the final rule.
</P>
<P>6. The Tennessee Valley Authority Watts Bar Nuclear Plant, Unit 2, holding a construction permit under the provisions of part 50 of this chapter, shall meet the requirements of the final rule issued November 23, 2011 as applicable to operating nuclear power reactor licensees.


</P>
<P>7. For a fueled manufactured reactor licensed under part 53 of this chapter, the date for initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1) is equivalent to the initial loading of fuel in this appendix.










</P>
<HD1>II. The Preliminary Safety Analysis Report
</HD1>
<P>The Preliminary Safety Analysis Report shall contain sufficient information to ensure the compatibility of proposed emergency plans for both onsite areas and the EPZs, with facility design features, site layout, and site location with respect to such considerations as access routes, surrounding population distributions, land use, and local jurisdictional boundaries for the EPZs in the case of nuclear power reactors as well as the means by which the standards of § 50.47(b) will be met.
</P>
<P>As a minimum, the following items shall be described:
</P>
<P>A. Onsite and offsite organizations for coping with emergencies and the means for notification, in the event of an emergency, of persons assigned to the emergency organizations.
</P>
<P>B. Contacts and arrangements made and documented with local, State, and Federal governmental agencies with responsibility for coping with emergencies, including identification of the principal agencies.
</P>
<P>C. Protective measures to be taken within the site boundary and within each EPZ to protect health and safety in the event of an accident; procedures by which these measures are to be carried out (e.g., in the case of an evacuation, who authorizes the evacuation, how the public is to be notified and instructed, how the evacuation is to be carried out); and the expected response of offsite agencies in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>D. Features of the facility to be provided for onsite emergency first aid and decontamination and for emergency transportation of onsite individuals to offsite treatment facilities.
</P>
<P>E. Provisions to be made for emergency treatment at offsite facilities of individuals injured as a result of licensed activities.
</P>
<P>F. Provisions for a training program for employees of the licensee, including those who are assigned specific authority and responsibility in the event of an emergency, and for other persons who are not employees of the licensee but whose assistance may be needed in the event of a radiological emergency.
</P>
<P>G. A preliminary analysis that projects the time and means to be employed in the notification of State and local governments and the public in the event of an emergency. A nuclear power plant applicant shall perform a preliminary analysis of the time required to evacuate various sectors and distances within the plume exposure pathway EPZ for transient and permanent populations, noting major impediments to the evacuation or taking of protective actions.
</P>
<P>H. A preliminary analysis reflecting the need to include facilities, systems, and methods for identifying the degree of seriousness and potential scope of radiological consequences of emergency situations within and outside the site boundary, including capabilities for dose projection using real-time meteorological information and for dispatch of radiological monitoring teams within the EPZs; and a preliminary analysis reflecting the role of the onsite technical support center and the emergency operations facility in assessing information, recommending protective action, and disseminating information to the public.


</P>
<HD1>III. The Final Safety Analysis Report; Site Safety Analysis Report


</HD1>
<P>The final safety analysis report or the site safety analysis report for an early site permit that includes complete and integrated emergency plans under § 52.17(b)(2)(ii) or § 53.1146(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter shall contain the plans for coping with emergencies. The plans shall be an expression of the overall concept of operation; they shall describe the essential elements of advance planning that have been considered and the provisions that have been made to cope with emergency situations. The plans shall incorporate information about the emergency response roles of supporting organizations and offsite agencies. That information shall be sufficient to provide assurance of coordination among the supporting groups and with the licensee. The site safety analysis report for an early site permit which proposes major features must address the relevant provisions of 10 CFR 50.47 and 10 CFR part 50, appendix E, within the scope of emergency preparedness matters addressed in the major features.








</P>
<P>The plans submitted must include a description of the elements set out in Section IV for the emergency planning zones (EPZs) to an extent sufficient to demonstrate that the plans provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of an emergency.










</P>
<HD1>IV. Content of Emergency Plans
</HD1>
<P>1. The applicant's emergency plans shall contain, but not necessarily be limited to, information needed to demonstrate compliance with the elements in this section IV., <I>i.e.,</I> organization for coping with radiological emergencies, assessment actions, activation of emergency organization, notification procedures, emergency facilities and equipment, training, maintaining emergency preparedness, recovery, and onsite protective actions during hostile action. In addition, the emergency response plans submitted by an applicant for a nuclear power reactor operating license under 10 CFR part 50 or 10 CFR part 53, or for an early site permit (as applicable) or combined license under 10 CFR part 52 or 10 CFR part 53, shall contain information needed to demonstrate compliance with the standards described in § 50.47(b), and they will be evaluated against those standards.
</P>
<P>2. This nuclear power reactor license applicant shall also provide an analysis of the time required to evacuate various sectors and distances within the plume exposure pathway EPZ for transient and permanent populations, using the most recent U.S. Census Bureau data as of the date the applicant submits its application to the NRC.
</P>
<P>3. Nuclear power reactor licensees shall use NRC approved evacuation time estimates (ETEs) and updates to the ETEs in the formulation of protective action recommendations and shall provide the ETEs and ETE updates to State and local governmental authorities for use in developing offsite protective action strategies.
</P>
<P>4. Within 365 days of the date of the availability of the most recent decennial census data from the U.S. Census Bureau, nuclear power reactor licensees shall develop an ETE analysis using this decennial data and submit it under § 50.4 or § 53.040 of this chapter to the NRC. These licensees shall submit this ETE analysis to the NRC at least 180 days before using it to form protective action recommendations and providing it to State and local governmental authorities for use in developing offsite protective action strategies.
</P>
<P>5. During the years between decennial censuses, nuclear power reactor licensees shall estimate EPZ permanent resident population changes once a year, but no later than 365 days from the date of the previous estimate, using the most recent U.S. Census Bureau annual resident population estimate and State/local government population data, if available. These licensees shall maintain these estimates so that they are available for NRC inspection during the period between decennial censuses and shall submit these estimates to the NRC with any updated ETE analysis.
</P>
<P>6. If at any time during the decennial period, the EPZ permanent resident population increases such that it causes the longest ETE value for the 2-mile zone or 5-mile zone, including all affected Emergency Response Planning Areas, or for the entire 10-mile EPZ to increase by 25 percent or 30 minutes, whichever is less, from the nuclear power reactor licensee's currently NRC-approved or updated ETE, the licensee shall update the ETE analysis to reflect the impact of that population increase. The licensee shall submit the updated ETE analysis to the NRC under § 50.4 or § 53.040 of this chapter no later than 365 days after the licensee's determination that the criteria for updating the ETE have been met and at least 180 days before using it to form protective action recommendations and providing it to State and local governmental authorities for use in developing offsite protective action strategies.
</P>
<P>7. After an applicant for a combined license under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter receives its license, the licensee shall conduct at least one review of any changes in the population of its EPZ at least 365 days prior to its scheduled fuel load. The licensee shall estimate EPZ permanent resident population changes using the most recent U.S. Census Bureau annual resident population estimate and State/local government population data, if available. If the EPZ permanent resident population increases such that it causes the longest ETE value for the 2-mile zone or 5-mile zone, including all affected Emergency Response Planning Areas, or for the entire 10-mile EPZ, to increase by 25 percent or 30 minutes, whichever is less, from the licensee's currently approved ETE, the licensee shall update the ETE analysis to reflect the impact of that population increase. The licensee shall submit the updated ETE analysis to the NRC for review under § 50.4 or § 53.040 of this chapter no later than 365 days before the licensee's scheduled fuel load.
</P>
<HD2>A. Organization
</HD2>
<P>The organization for coping with radiological emergencies shall be described, including definition of authorities, responsibilities, and duties of individuals assigned to the licensee's emergency organization and the means for notification of such individuals in the event of an emergency. Specifically, the following shall be included:
</P>
<P>1. A description of the normal plant operating organization.
</P>
<P>2. A description of the onsite emergency response organization (ERO) with a detailed discussion of:
</P>
<P>a. Authorities, responsibilities, and duties of the individual(s) who will take charge during an emergency;
</P>
<P>b. Plant staff emergency assignments;
</P>
<P>c. Authorities, responsibilities, and duties of an onsite emergency coordinator who shall be in charge of the exchange of information with offsite authorities responsible for coordinating and implementing offsite emergency measures.
</P>
<P>3. A description, by position and function to be performed, of the licensee's headquarters personnel who will be sent to the plant site to augment the onsite emergency organization.
</P>
<P>4. Identification, by position and function to be performed, of persons within the licensee organization who will be responsible for making offsite dose projections, and a description of how these projections will be made and the results transmitted to State and local authorities, NRC, and other appropriate governmental entities.
</P>
<P>5. Identification, by position and function to be performed, of other employees of the licensee with special qualifications for coping with emergency conditions that may arise. Other persons with special qualifications, such as consultants, who are not employees of the licensee and who may be called upon for assistance for emergencies shall also be identified. The special qualifications of these persons shall be described.
</P>
<P>6. A description of the local offsite services to be provided in support of the licensee's emergency organization.
</P>
<P>7. Identification of, and a description of the assistance expected from, appropriate State, local, and Federal agencies with responsibilities for coping with emergencies, including hostile action at the site. For purposes of this appendix, “hostile action” is defined as an act directed toward a nuclear power plant or its personnel that includes the use of violent force to destroy equipment, take hostages, and/or intimidate the licensee to achieve an end. This includes attack by air, land, or water using guns, explosives, projectiles, vehicles, or other devices used to deliver destructive force.
</P>
<P>8. Identification of the State and/or local officials responsible for planning for, ordering, and controlling appropriate protective actions, including evacuations when necessary.
</P>
<P>9. For nuclear power reactor licensees, a detailed analysis demonstrating that on-shift personnel assigned emergency plan implementation functions are not assigned responsibilities that would prevent the timely performance of their assigned functions as specified in the emergency plan.
</P>
<HD2>B. Assessment Actions
</HD2>
<P>1. The means to be used for determining the magnitude of, and for continually assessing the impact of, the release of radioactive materials shall be described, including emergency action levels that are to be used as criteria for determining the need for notification and participation of local and State agencies, the Commission, and other Federal agencies, and the emergency action levels that are to be used for determining when and what type of protective measures should be considered within and outside the site boundary to protect health and safety. The emergency action levels shall be based on in-plant conditions and instrumentation in addition to onsite and offsite monitoring. For nuclear power reactor licensees, these action levels must include hostile action that may adversely affect the nuclear power plant. The initial emergency action levels shall be discussed and agreed on by the applicant or licensee and state and local governmental authorities, and approved by the NRC. Thereafter, emergency action levels shall be reviewed with the State and local governmental authorities on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>2. A licensee desiring to change its entire emergency action level scheme shall submit an application for an amendment to its license and receive NRC approval before implementing the change. Licensees shall follow the change process in § 50.54(q) or § 53.1565(d)(3) of this chapter for all other emergency action level changes.
</P>
<HD2>C. Activation of Emergency Organization
</HD2>
<P>1. The entire spectrum of emergency conditions that involve the alerting or activating of progressively larger segments of the total emergency organization shall be described. The communication steps to be taken to alert or activate emergency personnel under each class of emergency shall be described. Emergency action levels (based not only on onsite and offsite radiation monitoring information but also on readings from a number of sensors that indicate a potential emergency, such as the pressure in containment and the response of the Emergency Core Cooling System) for notification of offsite agencies shall be described. The existence, but not the details, of a message authentication scheme shall be noted for such agencies. The emergency classes defined shall include: (1) Notification of unusual events, (2) alert, (3) site area emergency, and (4) general emergency. These classes are further discussed in NUREG-0654/FEMA-REP-1.
</P>
<P>2. Nuclear power reactor licensees shall establish and maintain the capability to assess, classify, and declare an emergency condition within 15 minutes after the availability of indications to plant operators that an emergency action level has been exceeded and shall promptly declare the emergency condition as soon as possible following identification of the appropriate emergency classification level. Licensees shall not construe these criteria as a grace period to attempt to restore plant conditions to avoid declaring an emergency action due to an emergency action level that has been exceeded. Licensees shall not construe these criteria as preventing implementation of response actions deemed by the licensee to be necessary to protect public health and safety provided that any delay in declaration does not deny the State and local authorities the opportunity to implement measures necessary to protect the public health and safety.
</P>
<HD2>D. Notification Procedures
</HD2>
<P>1. Administrative and physical means for notifying local, State, and Federal officials and agencies and agreements reached with these officials and agencies for the prompt notification of the public and for public evacuation or other protective measures, should they become necessary, shall be described. This description shall include identification of the appropriate officials, by title and agency, of the State and local government agencies within the EPZs.
</P>
<P>2. Provisions shall be described for yearly dissemination to the public within the plume exposure pathway EPZ of basic emergency planning information, such as the methods and times required for public notification and the protective actions planned if an accident occurs, general information as to the nature and effects of radiation, and a listing of local broadcast stations that will be used for dissemination of information during an emergency. Signs or other measures shall also be used to disseminate to any transient population within the plume exposure pathway EPZ appropriate information that would be helpful if an accident occurs.
</P>
<P>3. A licensee shall have the capability to notify responsible State and local governmental agencies within 15 minutes after declaring an emergency. The licensee shall demonstrate that the appropriate governmental authorities have the capability to make a public alerting and notification decision promptly on being informed by the licensee of an emergency condition. Prior to initial operation greater than 5 percent of rated thermal power of the first reactor at a site, each nuclear power reactor licensee shall demonstrate that administrative and physical means have been established for alerting and providing prompt instructions to the public within the plume exposure pathway EPZ. The design objective of the prompt public alert and notification system shall be to have the capability to essentially complete the initial alerting and initiate notification of the public within the plume exposure pathway EPZ within about 15 minutes. The use of this alerting and notification capability will range from immediate alerting and notification of the public (within 15 minutes of the time that State and local officials are notified that a situation exists requiring urgent action) to the more likely events where there is substantial time available for the appropriate governmental authorities to make a judgment whether or not to activate the public alert and notification system. The alerting and notification capability shall additionally include administrative and physical means for a backup method of public alerting and notification capable of being used in the event the primary method of alerting and notification is unavailable during an emergency to alert or notify all or portions of the plume exposure pathway EPZ population. The backup method shall have the capability to alert and notify the public within the plume exposure pathway EPZ, but does not need to meet the 15-minute design objective for the primary prompt public alert and notification system. When there is a decision to activate the alert and notification system, the appropriate governmental authorities will determine whether to activate the entire alert and notification system simultaneously or in a graduated or staged manner. The responsibility for activating such a public alert and notification system shall remain with the appropriate governmental authorities.
</P>
<HD2>E. Emergency Facilities and Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Adequate provisions shall be made and described for emergency facilities and equipment, including:
</P>
<P>1. Equipment at the site for personnel monitoring;
</P>
<P>2. Equipment for determining the magnitude of and for continuously assessing the impact of the release of radioactive materials to the environment;
</P>
<P>3. Facilities and supplies at the site for decontamination of onsite individuals;
</P>
<P>4. Facilities and medical supplies at the site for appropriate emergency first aid treatment;
</P>
<P>5. Arrangements for medical service providers qualified to handle radiological emergencies onsite;
</P>
<P>6. Arrangements for transportation of contaminated injured individuals from the site to specifically identified treatment facilities outside the site boundary;
</P>
<P>7. Arrangements for treatment of individuals injured in support of licensed activities on the site at treatment facilities outside the site boundary;
</P>
<P>8. a. (i) A licensee onsite technical support center and an emergency operations facility from which effective direction can be given and effective control can be exercised during an emergency;
</P>
<P>(ii) For nuclear power reactor licensees, a licensee onsite operational support center;
</P>
<P>b. For a nuclear power reactor licensee's emergency operations facility required by paragraph 8.a of this section, either a facility located between 10 miles and 25 miles of the nuclear power reactor site(s), or a primary facility located less than 10 miles from the nuclear power reactor site(s) and a backup facility located between 10 miles and 25 miles of the nuclear power reactor site(s). An emergency operations facility may serve more than one nuclear power reactor site. A licensee desiring to locate an emergency operations facility more than 25 miles from a nuclear power reactor site shall request prior Commission approval by submitting an application for an amendment to its license. For an emergency operations facility located more than 25 miles from a nuclear power reactor site, provisions must be made for locating NRC and offsite responders closer to the nuclear power reactor site so that NRC and offsite responders can interact face-to-face with emergency response personnel entering and leaving the nuclear power reactor site. Provisions for locating NRC and offsite responders closer to a nuclear power reactor site that is more than 25 miles from the emergency operations facility must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Space for members of an NRC site team and Federal, State, and local responders;
</P>
<P>(2) Additional space for conducting briefings with emergency response personnel;
</P>
<P>(3) Communication with other licensee and offsite emergency response facilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Access to plant data and radiological information; and
</P>
<P>(5) Access to copying equipment and office supplies;
</P>
<P>c. For a nuclear power reactor licensee's emergency operations facility required by paragraph 8.a of this section, a facility having the following capabilities:
</P>
<P>(1) The capability for obtaining and displaying plant data and radiological information for each reactor at a nuclear power reactor site and for each nuclear power reactor site that the facility serves;
</P>
<P>(2) The capability to analyze plant technical information and provide technical briefings on event conditions and prognosis to licensee and offsite response organizations for each reactor at a nuclear power reactor site and for each nuclear power reactor site that the facility serves; and
</P>
<P>(3) The capability to support response to events occurring simultaneously at more than one nuclear power reactor site if the emergency operations facility serves more than one site; and
</P>
<P>d. For nuclear power reactor licensees, an alternative facility (or facilities) that would be accessible even if the site is under threat of or experiencing hostile action, to function as a staging area for augmentation of emergency response staff and collectively having the following characteristics: the capability for communication with the emergency operations facility, control room, and plant security; the capability to perform offsite notifications; and the capability for engineering assessment activities, including damage control team planning and preparation, for use when onsite emergency facilities cannot be safely accessed during hostile action. The requirements in this paragraph 8.d must be implemented no later than December 23, 2014, with the exception of the capability for staging emergency response organization personnel at the alternative facility (or facilities) and the capability for communications with the emergency operations facility, control room, and plant security, which must be implemented no later than June 20, 2012.
</P>
<P>e. A licensee shall not be subject to the requirements of paragraph 8.b of this section for an existing emergency operations facility approved as of December 23, 2011;
</P>
<P>9. At least one onsite and one offsite communications system; each system shall have a backup power source. All communication plans shall have arrangements for emergencies, including titles and alternates for those in charge at both ends of the communication links and the primary and backup means of communication. Where consistent with the function of the governmental agency, these arrangements will include:
</P>
<P>a. Provision for communications with contiguous State/local governments within the plume exposure pathway EPZ. Such communications shall be tested monthly.
</P>
<P>b. Provision for communications with Federal emergency response organizations. Such communications systems shall be tested annually.
</P>
<P>c. Provision for communications among the nuclear power reactor control room, the onsite technical support center, and the emergency operations facility; and among the nuclear facility, the principal State and local emergency operations centers, and the field assessment teams. Such communications systems shall be tested annually.
</P>
<P>d. Provisions for communications by the licensee with NRC Headquarters and the appropriate NRC Regional Office Operations Center from the nuclear power reactor control room, the onsite technical support center, and the emergency operations facility. Such communications shall be tested monthly.
</P>
<HD2>F. Training
</HD2>
<P>1. The program to provide for: (a) The training of employees and exercising, by periodic drills, of emergency plans to ensure that employees of the licensee are familiar with their specific emergency response duties, and (b) The participation in the training and drills by other persons whose assistance may be needed in the event of a radiological emergency shall be described. This shall include a description of specialized initial training and periodic retraining programs to be provided to each of the following categories of emergency personnel:
</P>
<P>i. Directors and/or coordinators of the plant emergency organization;
</P>
<P>ii. Personnel responsible for accident assessment, including control room shift personnel;
</P>
<P>iii. Radiological monitoring teams;
</P>
<P>iv. Fire control teams (fire brigades);
</P>
<P>v. Repair and damage control teams;
</P>
<P>vi. First aid and rescue teams;
</P>
<P>vii. Medical support personnel;
</P>
<P>viii. Licensee's headquarters support personnel;
</P>
<P>ix. Security personnel.
</P>
<P>In addition, a radiological orientation training program shall be made available to local services personnel; <I>e.g.,</I> local emergency services/Civil Defense, local law enforcement personnel, local news media persons.
</P>
<P>2. The plan shall describe provisions for the conduct of emergency preparedness exercises as follows: Exercises shall test the adequacy of timing and content of implementing procedures and methods, test emergency equipment and communications networks, test the public alert and notification system, and ensure that emergency organization personnel are familiar with their duties.
<SU>3</SU>
</P>
<P>a. A full participation 
<SU>4</SU> exercise which tests as much of the licensee, State, and local emergency plans as is reasonably achievable without mandatory public participation shall be conducted for each site at which a power reactor is located. Nuclear power reactor licensees shall submit exercise scenarios under § 50.4 or § 53.040 of this chapter at least 60 days before use in a full participation exercise required by this paragraph 2.a.
</P>
<P>(i) For an operating license issued under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter, this exercise must be conducted within 2 years before the issuance of the first operating license for full power (one authorizing operation above 5 percent of rated thermal power) of the first reactor and shall include participation by each State and local government within the plume exposure pathway EPZ and each state within the ingestion exposure pathway EPZ. If the full participation exercise is conducted more than 1 year prior to issuance of an operating licensee for full power, an exercise which tests the licensee's onsite emergency plans must be conducted within 1 year before issuance of an operating license for full power. This exercise need not have State or local government participation.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a combined license issued under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter, this exercise must be conducted within 2 years of the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel. If the first full participation exercise is conducted more than 1 year before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel, an exercise which tests the licensee's onsite emergency plans must be conducted within 1 year before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel. This exercise need not have State or local government participation. If FEMA identifies one or more deficiencies in the state of offsite emergency preparedness as the result of the first full participation exercise, or if the Commission finds that the state of emergency preparedness does not provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency, the provisions of § 50.54(gg) apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a combined license issued under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter, if the applicant currently has an operating reactor at the site, an exercise, either full or partial participation,
<SU>5</SU> shall be conducted for each subsequent reactor constructed on the site. This exercise may be incorporated in the exercise requirements of Sections IV.F.2.b. and c. in this appendix. If FEMA identifies one or more deficiencies in the state of offsite emergency preparedness as the result of this exercise for the new reactor, or if the Commission finds that the state of emergency preparedness does not provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency, the provisions of § 50.54(gg) apply.
</P>
<P>b. Each licensee at each site shall conduct a subsequent exercise of its onsite emergency plan every 2 years. Nuclear power reactor licensees shall submit exercise scenarios under § 50.4 or § 53.040 of this chapter at least 60 days before use in an exercise required by this paragraph 2.b. The exercise may be included in the full participation biennial exercise required by paragraph 2.c. of this section. In addition, the licensee shall take actions necessary to ensure that adequate emergency response capabilities are maintained during the interval between biennial exercises by conducting drills, including at least one drill involving a combination of some of the principal functional areas of the licensee's onsite emergency response capabilities. The principal functional areas of emergency response include activities such as management and coordination of emergency response, accident assessment, event classification, notification of offsite authorities, assessment of the onsite and offsite impact of radiological releases, protective action recommendation development, protective action decision making, plant system repair and mitigative action implementation. During these drills, activation of all of the licensee's emergency response facilities (Technical Support Center (TSC), Operations Support Center (OSC), and the Emergency Operations Facility (EOF)) would not be necessary, licensees would have the opportunity to consider accident management strategies, supervised instruction would be permitted, operating staff in all participating facilities would have the opportunity to resolve problems (success paths) rather than have controllers intervene, and the drills may focus on the onsite exercise training objectives.
</P>
<P>c. Offsite plans for each site shall be exercised biennially with full participation by each offsite authority having a role under the radiological response plan. Where the offsite authority has a role under a radiological response plan for more than one site, it shall fully participate in one exercise every 2 years and shall, at least, partially participate in other offsite plan exercises in this period. If two different licensees each have licensed facilities located either on the same site or on adjacent, contiguous sites, and share most of the elements defining co-located licensees,
<SU>6</SU> then each licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct an exercise biennially of its onsite emergency plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Participate quadrennially in an offsite biennial full or partial participation exercise;
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct emergency preparedness activities and interactions in the years between its participation in the offsite full or partial participation exercise with offsite authorities, to test and maintain interface among the affected State and local authorities and the licensee. Co-located licensees shall also participate in emergency preparedness activities and interaction with offsite authorities for the period between exercises;
</P>
<P>(4) Conduct a hostile action exercise of its onsite emergency plan in each exercise cycle; and
</P>
<P>(5) Participate in an offsite biennial full or partial participation hostile action exercise in alternating exercise cycles.
</P>
<P>d. Each State with responsibility for nuclear power reactor emergency preparedness should fully participate in the ingestion pathway portion of exercises at least once every exercise cycle. In States with more than one nuclear power reactor plume exposure pathway EPZ, the State should rotate this participation from site to site. Each State with responsibility for nuclear power reactor emergency preparedness should fully participate in a hostile action exercise at least once every cycle. States with more than one nuclear power reactor plume exposure pathway EPZ should rotate this participation from site to site.
</P>
<P>e. Licensees shall enable any State or local government located within the plume exposure pathway EPZ to participate in the licensee's drills when requested by such State or local government.
</P>
<P>f. Remedial exercises will be required if the emergency plan is not satisfactorily tested during the biennial exercise, such that NRC, in consultation with FEMA, cannot (1) find reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency or (2) determine that the Emergency Response Organization (ERO) has maintained key skills specific to emergency response. The extent of State and local participation in remedial exercises must be sufficient to show that appropriate corrective measures have been taken regarding the elements of the plan not properly tested in the previous exercises.
</P>
<P>g. All exercises, drills, and training that provide performance opportunities to develop, maintain, or demonstrate key skills must provide for formal critiques in order to identify weak or deficient areas that need correction. Any weaknesses or deficiencies that are identified in a critique of exercises, drills, or training must be corrected.
</P>
<P>h. The participation of State and local governments in an emergency exercise is not required to the extent that the applicant has identified those governments as refusing to participate further in emergency planning activities, pursuant to § 50.47(c)(1). In such cases, an exercise shall be held with the applicant or licensee and such governmental entities as elect to participate in the emergency planning process.
</P>
<P>i. Licensees shall use drill and exercise scenarios that provide reasonable assurance that anticipatory responses will not result from preconditioning of participants. Such scenarios for nuclear power reactor licensees must include a wide spectrum of radiological releases and events, including hostile action. Exercise and drill scenarios as appropriate must emphasize coordination among onsite and offsite response organizations.
</P>
<P>j. (i) The exercises conducted under paragraph 2 of this section by nuclear power reactor licensees must provide the opportunity for the ERO to demonstrate proficiency in the key skills necessary to implement the principal functional areas of emergency response identified in paragraph 2.b of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each exercise must provide the opportunity for the ERO to demonstrate key skills specific to emergency response duties in the control room, TSC, OSC, EOF, and joint information center.
</P>
<P>(iii) In each 8-calendar-year exercise cycle, nuclear power reactor licensees shall vary the content of scenarios during exercises conducted under paragraph 2 of this section to provide the opportunity for the ERO to demonstrate proficiency in the key skills necessary to respond to the following scenario elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Hostile action directed at the plant site;
</P>
<P>(2) No radiological release or an unplanned minimal radiological release that does not require public protective actions;
</P>
<P>(3) An initial classification of, or rapid escalation to, a Site Area Emergency or General Emergency;
</P>
<P>(4) Implementation of strategies, procedures, and guidance under § 50.155(b)(2) for applicants and licensees under parts 50 and 52 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(5) Integration of offsite resources with onsite response.
</P>
<P>(iv) The licensee shall maintain a record of exercises conducted during each 8-year exercise cycle that documents the content of scenarios used to comply with the requirements of section IV.F.2.j of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(v) Each licensee shall conduct a hostile action exercise for each of its sites no later than December 31, 2015.
</P>
<P>(vi) The first 8-year exercise cycle for a site will begin in the calendar year in which the first hostile action exercise is conducted. For a site licensed under 10 CFR part 52 or 10 CFR part 53 using 10 CFR 50.47 and this appendix, the first 8-year exercise cycle begins in the calendar year of the initial exercise required by section IV.F.2.a of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>G. Maintaining Emergency Preparedness
</HD2>
<P>Provisions to be employed to ensure that the emergency plan, its implementing procedures, and emergency equipment and supplies are maintained up to date shall be described.
</P>
<HD2>H. Recovery
</HD2>
<P>Criteria to be used to determine when, following an accident, reentry of the facility would be appropriate or when operation could be resumed shall be described.
</P>
<HD2>I. Onsite Protective Actions During Hostile Action
</HD2>
<P>For nuclear power reactor licensees, a range of protective actions to protect onsite personnel during hostile action must be developed to ensure the continued ability of the licensee to safely shut down the reactor and perform the functions of the licensee's emergency plan.
</P>
<HD1>V. Implementing Procedures
</HD1>
<P>No less than 180 days before the scheduled issuance of an operating license for a nuclear power reactor or a license to possess nuclear material, or the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel for a combined license under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter, the applicant's or licensee's detailed implementing procedures for its emergency plan shall be submitted to the Commission as specified in § 50.4 or § 53.040.
</P><STARS/>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Use of site specific simulators or computers is acceptable for any exercise.
</P>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Full participation when used in conjunction with emergency preparedness exercises for a particular site means appropriate offsite local and State authorities and licensee personnel physically and actively take part in testing their integrated capability to adequately assess and respond to an accident at a commercial nuclear power plant. Full participation includes testing major observable portions of the onsite and offsite emergency plans and mobilization of State, local and licensee personnel and other resources in sufficient numbers to verify the capability to respond to the accident scenario.
</P>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Partial participation when used in conjunction with emergency preparedness exercises for a particular site means appropriate offsite authorities shall actively take part in the exercise sufficient to test direction and control functions; <I>i.e.,</I> (a) protective action decision making related to emergency action levels, and (b) communication capabilities among affected State and local authorities and the licensee.
</P>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Co-located licensees are two different licensees whose licensed facilities are located either on the same site or on adjacent, contiguous sites, and that share most of the following emergency planning and siting elements:
</P>
<P>a. Plume exposure and ingestion emergency planning zones;
</P>
<P>b. Offsite governmental authorities;
</P>
<P>c. Offsite emergency response organizations;
</P>
<P>d. Public notification system; and/or
</P>
<P>e. Emergency facilities.


</P>
<HD1>VI. Emergency Response Data System
</HD1>
<P>1. The Emergency Response Data System (ERDS) is a direct near real-time electronic data link between the licensee's onsite computer system and the NRC Operations Center that provides for the automated transmission of a limited data set of selected parameters. The ERDS supplements the existing voice transmission over the Emergency Notification System (ENS) by providing the NRC Operations Center with timely and accurate updates of a limited set of parameters from the licensee's installed onsite computer system in the event of an emergency. When selected plant data are not available on the licensee's onsite computer system, retrofitting of data points is not required. The licensee shall test the ERDS periodically to verify system availability and operability. The frequency of ERDS testing will be quarterly unless otherwise set by NRC based on demonstrated system performance.
</P>
<P>2. Except for Big Rock Point and all nuclear power facilities that are shut down permanently or indefinitely, onsite hardware shall be provided at each unit by the licensee to interface with the NRC receiving system. Software, which will be made available by the NRC, will assemble the data to be transmitted and transmit data from each unit via an output port on the appropriate data system. The hardware and software must have the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>a. Data points, if resident in the in-plant computer systems, must be transmitted for four selected types of plant conditions: Reactor core and coolant system conditions; reactor containment conditions; radioactivity release rates; and plant meteorological tower data. A separate data feed is required for each reactor unit. While it is recognized that ERDS is not a safety system, it is conceivable that a licensee's ERDS interface could communicate with a safety system. In this case, appropriate isolation devices would be required at these interfaces. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> The data points, identified in the following parameters will be transmitted:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See 10 CFR 50.55a(h) Protection Systems.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) For pressurized water reactors (PWRs), the selected plant parameters are: (1) Primary coolant system: pressure, temperatures (hot leg, cold leg, and core exit thermocouples), subcooling margin, pressurizer level, reactor coolant charging/makeup flow, reactor vessel level, reactor coolant flow, and reactor power; (2) Secondary coolant system: Steam generator levels and pressures, main feedwater flows, and auxiliary and emergency feedwater flows; (3) Safety injection: High- and low-pressure safety injection flows, safety injection flows (Westinghouse), and borated water storage tank level; (4) Containment: pressure, temperatures, hydrogen concentration, and sump levels; (5) Radiation monitoring system: Reactor coolant radioactivity, containment radiation level, condenser air removal radiation level, effluent radiation monitors, and process radiation monitor levels; and (6) Meteorological data: wind speed, wind direction, and atmospheric stability.
</P>
<P>(ii) For boiling water reactors (BWRs), the selected parameters are: (1) Reactor coolant system: Reactor pressure, reactor vessel level, feedwater flow, and reactor power; (2) Safety injection: Reactor core isolation cooling flow, high-pressure coolant injection/high-pressure core spray flow, core spray flow, low-pressure coolant injection flow, and condensate storage tank level; (3) Containment: drywell pressure, drywell temperatures, drywell sump levels, hydrogen and oxygen concentrations, suppression pool temperature, and suppression pool level; (4) Radiation monitoring system: Reactor coolant radioactivity level, primary containment radiation level, condenser off-gas radiation level, effluent radiation monitor, and process radiation levels; and (5) Meteorological data: Wind speed, wind direction, and atmospheric stability.
</P>
<P>b. The system must be capable of transmitting all available ERDS parameters at time intervals of not less than 15 seconds or more than 60 seconds. Exceptions to this requirement will be considered on a case by case basis.
</P>
<P>c. All link control and data transmission must be established in a format compatible with the NRC receiving system 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> as configured at the time of licensee implementation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Guidance is provided in NUREG-1394, Revision 1.</P></FTNT>
<P>3. Maintaining Emergency Response Data System:
</P>
<P>a. Any hardware and software changes that affect the transmitted data points identified in the ERDS Data Point Library 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> (site specific data base residing on the ERDS computer) must be submitted to the NRC within 30 days after the changes are completed.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See NUREG-1394, Revision 1, appendix C, Data Point Library.</P></FTNT>
<P>b. Hardware and software changes, with the exception of data point modifications, that could affect the transmission format and computer communication protocol to the ERDS must be provided to the NRC as soon as practicable and at least 30 days prior to the modification.
</P>
<P>c. In the event of a failure of NRC-supplied equipment, a replacement will be furnished by the NRC for licensee installation.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 55410, Aug. 19, 1980; 46 FR 28839, May 29, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 63032, Dec. 30, 1981; 47 FR 30236, July 13, 1982; 47 FR 57671, Dec. 28, 1982; 49 FR 27736, July 6, 1984; 51 FR 40310, Nov. 6, 1986; 52 FR 16829, May 6, 1987; 52 FR 42086, Nov. 3, 1987; 56 FR 40185, Aug. 13, 1991; 59 FR 14090, Mar. 25, 1994; 61 FR 30132, June 14, 1996; 72 FR 49506, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 42674, July 23, 2008; 76 FR 72596, Nov. 23, 2011; 78 FR 34248, June 7, 2013; 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015; 84 FR 39719, Aug. 9, 2019; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021; 86 FR 67842, Nov. 30, 2021; 88 FR 80077, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 106252, Dec. 30, 2024; 91 FR 15788, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 72 FR 49506, Aug. 28, 2007, Appendix E to part 50 was amended by redesignating footnotes 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 as 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12; however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 50—Policy Relating to the Siting of Fuel Reprocessing Plants and Related Waste Management Facilities
</HEAD>
<P>1. Public health and safety considerations relating to licensed fuel reprocessing plants do not require that such facilities be located on land owned and controlled by the Federal Government. Such plants, including the facilities for the temporary storage of highlevel radioactive wastes, may be located on privately owned property.
</P>
<P>2. A fuel reprocessing plant's inventory of high-level liquid radioactive wastes will be limited to that produced in the prior 5 years. (For the purpose of this statement of policy, “high-level liquid radioactive wastes” means those aqueous wastes resulting from the operation of the first cycle solvent extraction system, or equivalent, and the concentrated wastes from subsequent extraction cycles, or equivalent, in a facility for reprocessing irradiated reactor fuels.) High-level liquid radioactive wastes shall be converted to a dry solid as required to comply with this inventory limitation, and placed in a sealed container prior to transfer to a Federal repository in a shipping cask meeting the requirements of 10 CFR part 71. The dry solid shall be chemically, thermally, and radiolytically stable to the extent that the equilibrium pressure in the sealed container will not exceed the safe operating pressure for that container during the period from canning through a minimum of 90 days after receipt (transfer of physical custody) at the Federal repository. All of these high-level radioactive wastes shall be transferred to a Federal repository no later than 10 years following separation of fission products from the irradiated fuel. Upon receipt, the Federal repository will assume permanent custody of these radioactive waste materials although industry will pay the Federal Government a charge which together with interest on unexpended balances will be designed to defray all costs of disposal and perpetual surveillance. The Department of Energy will take title to the radioactive waste material upon transfer to a Federal repository. Before retirement of the reprocessing plant from operational status and before termination of licensing pursuant to § 50.82, transfer of all such wastes to a Federal repository shall be completed. Federal repositories, which will be limited in number, will be designated later by the Commission.
</P>
<P>3. Disposal of high-level radioactive fission product waste material will not be permitted on any land other than that owned and controlled by the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>4. A design objective for fuel reprocessing plants shall be to facilitate decontamination and removal of all significant radioactive wastes at the time the facility is permanently decommissioned. Criteria for the extent of decontamination to be required upon decommissioning and license termination will be developed in consultation with competent groups. Opportunity will be afforded for public comment before such criteria are made effective.
</P>
<P>5. Applicants proposing to operate fuel reprocessing plants, in submitting information concerning financial qualifications as required by § 50.33(f), shall include information enabling the Commission to determine whether the applicant is financially qualified, among other things, to provide for the removal and disposal of radioactive wastes, during operation and upon decommissioning of the facility, in accordance with the Commission's regulations, including the requirements set out in this appendix.
</P>
<P>6. With respect to fuel reprocessing plants already licensed, the licenses will be appropriately conditioned to carry out the purposes of the policy stated above with respect to high-level radioactive fission product wastes generated after installation of new equipment for interim storage of liquid wastes, or after installation of equipment required for solidification without interim liquid storage. In either case, such equipment shall be installed at the earliest practicable date, taking into account the time required for design, procurement and installation thereof. With respect to such plants, the application of the policy stated in this appendix to existing wastes and to wastes generated prior to the installation of such equipment, will be the subject of a further rulemaking proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 17533, Nov. 14, 1970, as amended at 36 FR 5411, Mar. 23, 1971; 42 FR 20139, Apr. 18, 1977; 45 FR 14201, Mar. 5, 1980; 70 FR 3599, Jan. 26, 2005]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 50—Fracture Toughness Requirements 
</HEAD>
<FP-2>I. Introduction and scope.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Definitions.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Fracture toughness tests.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Fracture toughness requirements.
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction and Scope
</HD1>
<P>This appendix specifies fracture toughness requirements for ferritic materials of pressure-retaining components of the reactor coolant pressure boundary of light water nuclear power reactors to provide adequate margins of safety during any condition of normal operation, including anticipated operational occurrences and system hydrostatic tests, to which the pressure boundary may be subjected over its service lifetime.
</P>
<P>The ASME Code forms the basis for the requirements of this appendix. “ASME Code” means the American Society of Mechanical Engineers Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code. If no section is specified, the reference is to Section III, Division 1, “Rules for Construction of Nuclear Power Plant Components.” “Section XI” means Section XI, Division 1, “Rules for Inservice Inspection of Nuclear Power Plant Components.” If no edition or addenda are specified, the ASME Code edition and addenda and any limitations and modifications thereof, which are specified in § 50.55a, are applicable.
</P>
<P>The sections, editions and addenda of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code specified in § 50.55a have been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A notice of any changes made to the material incorporated by reference will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Copies of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code may be purchased from the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, United Engineering Center, 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017, and are available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Two White Flint North, Rockville, MD 20852-2738.
</P>
<P>The requirements of this appendix apply to the following materials:
</P>
<P>A. Carbon and low-alloy ferritic steel plate, forgings, castings, and pipe with specified minimum yield strengths not over 50,000 psi (345 MPa), and to those with specified minimum yield strengths greater than 50,000 psi (345 MPa) but not over 90,000 psi (621 MPa) if qualified by using methods equivalent to those described in paragraph G-2110 of appendix G of section XI of the latest edition and addenda of the ASME Code incorporated by reference into § 50.55a(b)(2).
</P>
<P>B. Welds and weld heat-affected zones in the materials specified in paragraph I.A. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. Materials for bolting and other types of fasteners with specified minimum yield strengths not over 130,000 psi (896 MPa).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The adequacy of the fracture toughness of other ferritic materials not covered in this section must be demonstrated to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, on an individual case basis.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Ferritic material</I> means carbon and low-alloy steels, higher alloy steels including all stainless alloys of the 4xx series, and maraging and precipitation hardening steels with a predominantly body-centered cubic crystal structure.
</P>
<P>B. <I>System hydrostatic tests</I> means all preoperational system leakage and hydrostatic pressure tests and all system leakage and hydrostatic pressure tests performed during the service life of the pressure boundary in compliance with the ASME Code, Section XI.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Specified minimum yield strength</I> means the minimum yield strength (in the unirradiated condition) of a material specified in the construction code under which the component is built under § 50.55a.
</P>
<P>D. <I>RT</I><E T="54">NDT</E> means the reference temperature of the material, for all conditions.
</P>
<P>(i) For the pre-service or unirradiated condition, RT<E T="52">NDT</E> is evaluated according to the procedures in the ASME Code, Paragraph NB-2331.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the reactor vessel beltline materials, RT<E T="52">NDT</E> must account for the effects of neutron radiation.
</P>
<P>E. Δ<I>RT</I><E T="54">NDT</E> means the transition temperature shift, or change in RT<E T="54">NDT</E>, due to neutron radiation effects, which is evaluated as the difference in the 30 ft-lb (41 J) index temperatures from the average Charpy curves measured before and after irradiation.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Beltline</I> or <I>Beltline region of reactor vessel</I> means the region of the reactor vessel (shell material including welds, heat affected zones, and plates or forgings) that directly surrounds the effective height of the active core and adjacent regions of the reactor vessel that are predicted to experience sufficient neutron radiation damage to be considered in the selection of the most limiting material with regard to radiation damage.
</P>
<HD1>III. Fracture Toughness Tests
</HD1>
<P>A. To demonstrate compliance with the fracture toughness requirements of section IV of this appendix, ferritic materials must be tested in accordance with the ASME Code and, for the beltline materials, the test requirements of appendix H of this part. For a reactor vessel that was constructed to an ASME code earlier than the Summer 1972 Addenda of the 1971 Edition (under § 50.55a), the fracture toughness data and data analysis must be supplemented in a manner approved by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, to demonstrate equivalence with the fracture toughness requirements of this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. Test methods for supplemental fracture toughness tests described in paragraph IV.A.1.b of this appendix must be submitted to and approved by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, prior to testing.
</P>
<P>C. All fracture toughness test programs conducted in accordance with paragraphs III.A and III.B must comply with ASME Code requirements for calibration of test equipment, qualification of test personnel, and retention of records of these functions and of the test data.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Fracture Toughness Requirements
</HD1>
<P>A. The pressure-retaining components of the reactor coolant pressure boundary that are made of ferritic materials must meet the requirements of the ASME Code, supplemented by the additional requirements set forth below, for fracture toughness during system hydrostatic tests and any condition of normal operation, including anticipated operational occurrences. Reactor vessels may continue to be operated only for that service period within which the requirements of this section are satisfied. For the reactor vessel beltline materials, including welds, plates and forgings, the values of RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy must account for the effects of neutron radiation, including the results of the surveillance program of appendix H of this part. The effects of neutron radiation must consider the radiation conditions (<I>i.e.</I>, the fluence) at the deepest point on the crack front of the flaw assumed in the analysis.
</P>
<HD2>1. Reactor Vessel Charpy Upper-Shelf Energy Requirements
</HD2>
<P>a. Reactor vessel beltline materials must have Charpy upper-shelf energy 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in the transverse direction for base material and along the weld for weld material according to the ASME Code, of no less than 75 ft-lb (102 J) initially and must maintain Charpy upper-shelf energy throughout the life of the vessel of no less than 50 ft-lb (68 J), unless it is demonstrated in a manner approved by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, that lower values of Charpy upper-shelf energy will provide margins of safety against fracture equivalent to those required by Appendix G of Section XI of the ASME Code. This analysis must use the latest edition and addenda of the ASME Code incorporated by reference into § 50.55a(b)(2) at the time the analysis is submitted.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Defined in ASTME 185-79 and -82 which are incorporated by reference in appendix H to part 50.</P></FTNT>
<P>b. Additional evidence of the fracture toughness of the beltline materials after exposure to neutron irradiation may be obtained from results of supplemental fracture toughness tests for use in the analysis specified in section IV.A.1.a.
</P>
<P>c. The analysis for satisfying the requirements of section IV.A.1 of this appendix must be submitted, as specified in § 50.4, for review and approval on an individual case basis at least three years prior to the date when the predicted Charpy upper-shelf energy will no longer satisfy the requirements of section IV.A.1 of this appendix, or on a schedule approved by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<HD2>2. Pressure-Temperature Limits and Minimum Temperature Requirements
</HD2>
<P>a. Pressure-temperature limits and minimum temperature requirements for the reactor vessel are given in table 1, and are defined by the operating condition (i.e., hydrostatic pressure and leak tests, or normal operation including anticipated operational occurrences), the vessel pressure, whether or not fuel is in the vessel, and whether the core is critical. In table 1, the vessel pressure is defined as a percentage of the preservice system hydrostatic test pressure. The appropriate requirements on both the pressure-temperature limits and the minimum permissible temperature must be met for all conditions.
</P>
<P>b. The pressure-temperature limits identified as “ASME Appendix G limits” in table 1 require that the limits must be at least as conservative as limits obtained by following the methods of analysis and the margins of safety of Appendix G of Section XI of the ASME Code.
</P>
<P>c. The minimum temperature requirements given in table 1 pertain to the controlling material, which is either the material in the closure flange or the material in the beltline region with the highest reference temperature. As specified in table 1, the minimum temperature requirements and the controlling material depend on the operating condition (i.e., hydrostatic pressure and leak tests, or normal operation including anticipated operational occurrences), the vessel pressure, whether fuel is in the vessel, and whether the core is critical. The metal temperature of the controlling material, in the region of the controlling material which has the least favorable combination of stress and temperature must exceed the appropriate minimum temperature requirement for the condition and pressure of the vessel specified in table 1.
</P>
<P>d. Pressure tests and leak tests of the reactor vessel that are required by Section XI of the ASME Code must be completed before the core is critical.
</P>
<P>B. If the procedures of section IV.A. of this appendix do not indicate the existence of an equivalent safety margin, the reactor vessel beltline may be given a thermal annealing treatment to recover the fracture toughness of the material, subject to the requirements of § 50.66. The reactor vessel may continue to be operated only for that service period within which the predicted fracture toughness of the beltline region materials satisfies the requirements of section IV.A. of this appendix using the values of RT<E T="52">NDT</E> and Charpy upper-shelf energy that include the effects of annealing and subsequent irradiation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Pressure and Temperature Requirements for the Reactor Pressure Vessel
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operating condition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Vessel pressure 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Requirements for pressure-temperature limits
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum temperature
<br/>requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Hydrostatic pressure and leak tests (core is not critical):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1.a Fuel in the vessel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME Appendix G Limits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1.b Fuel in the vessel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME Appendix G Limits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) + 90 °F (
<sup>6</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">1.c No fuel in the vessel (Preservice Hydrotest Only)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">ALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Not Applicable)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>) + 60 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Normal operation (incl. heat-up and cool-down), including anticipated operational occurrences:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2.a Core not critical</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME Appendix G Limits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2.b Core not critical</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME Appendix G Limits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) + 120 °F (
<sup>6</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2.c Core critical</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME Appendix G Limits + 40 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Larger of [(
<sup>4</sup>)] or [(
<sup>2</sup>) + 40 °F]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2.d Core critical</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME Appendix G Limits + 40 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Larger of [(
<sup>4</sup>)] or [(
<sup>2</sup>) + 160 °F]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2.e Core critical for BWR (
<sup>5</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤20%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME Appendix G Limits + 40 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>) + 60 °F
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Percent of the preservice system hydrostatic test pressure.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The highest reference temperature of the material in the closure flange region that is highly stressed by the bolt preload.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The highest reference temperature of the vessel.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The minimum permissible temperature for the inservice system hydrostatic pressure test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> For boiling water reactors (BWR) with water level within the normal range for power operation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Lower temperatures are permissible if they can be justified by showing that the margins of safety of the controlling region are equivalent to those required for the beltline when it is controlling.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 65474, Dec. 19, 1995, as amended at 73 FR 5723, Jan. 31, 2008; 78 FR 34248, June 7, 2013; 78 FR 75450, Dec. 12, 2013; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 50—Reactor Vessel Material Surveillance Program Requirements
</HEAD>
<FP-2>I. Introduction
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Definitions
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Surveillance Program Criteria
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Report of Test Results
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>The purpose of the material surveillance program required by this appendix is to monitor changes in the fracture toughness properties of ferritic materials in the reactor vessel beltline region of light water nuclear power reactors which result from exposure of these materials to neutron irradiation and the thermal environment. Under the program, fracture toughness test data are obtained from material specimens exposed in surveillance capsules, which are withdrawn periodically from the reactor vessel. These data will be used as described in section IV of appendix G to part 50.
</P>
<P>ASTM E 185-73, “Standard Recommended Practice for Surveillance Tests for Nuclear Reactor Vessels”; ASTM E 185-79, “Standard Practice for Conducting Surveillance Tests for Light-Water Cooled Nuclear Power Reactor Vessels”; and ASTM E 185-82, “Standard Practice for Conducting Surveillance Tests for Light-Water Cooled Nuclear Power Reactor Vessels”; which are referenced in the following paragraphs, have been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. Copies of ASTM E 185-73, -79, and -82, may be purchased from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103 and are available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Two White Flint North, Rockville, MD 20852-2738.
</P>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>All terms used in this appendix have the same meaning as in appendix G.




</P>
<HD1>III. Surveillance Program Criteria
</HD1>
<P>A. No material surveillance program is required for reactor vessels for which it can be conservatively demonstrated by analytical methods applied to experimental data and tests performed on comparable vessels, making appropriate allowances for all uncertainties in the measurements, that the peak neutron fluence at the end of the design life of the vessel will not exceed 10
<SU>17</SU> n/cm
<SU>2</SU> (E &gt;1 MeV).
</P>
<P>B. Reactor vessels that do not meet the conditions of paragraph III.A of this appendix must have their beltline materials monitored by a surveillance program complying with ASTM E 185, as modified by this appendix.




</P>
<P>1. The design of the surveillance program and the withdrawal schedule must meet the requirements of the edition of the ASTM E 185 that is current on the issue date of the ASME Code to which the reactor vessel was purchased; for reactor vessels purchased after 1982, the design of the surveillance program and the withdrawal schedule must meet the requirements of ASTM E 185-82. For reactor vessels purchased in or before 1982, later editions of ASTM E 185 may be used, but including only those editions through 1982. For each capsule withdrawal, the test procedures and reporting requirements must meet the requirements of ASTM E 185-82 to the extent practicable for the configuration of the specimens in the capsule. If any of the optional provisions in paragraphs III.B.4(a) through (d) of this section are implemented in lieu of ASTM E 185, the number of specimens included or tested in the surveillance program shall be adjusted as specified in paragraphs III.B.4(a) through (d) of this section.


</P>
<P>2. Surveillance specimen capsules must be located near the inside vessel wall in the beltline region so that the specimen irradiation history duplicates, to the extent practicable within the physical constraints of the system, the neutron spectrum, temperature history, and maximum neutron fluence experienced by the reactor vessel inner surface. If the capsule holders are attached to the vessel wall or to the vessel cladding, construction and inservice inspection of the attachments and attachment welds must be done according to the requirements for permanent structural attachments to reactor vessels given in Sections III and XI of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code (ASME Code). The design and location of the capsule holders must permit insertion of replacement capsules. Accelerated irradiation capsules may be used in addition to the required number of surveillance capsules.
</P>
<P>3. A proposed withdrawal schedule must be submitted with a technical justification as specified in § 50.4. The proposed schedule must be approved prior to implementation.


</P>
<P>4. Optional provisions. As used in this section, references to ASTM E 185 include the edition of ASTM E 185 that is current on the issue date of the ASME Code to which the reactor vessel was purchased through the 1982 edition.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>First Provision:</I> Heat-Affected Zone Specimens—The inclusion or testing of weld heat-affected zone Charpy impact specimens within the surveillance program as specified in ASTM E 185 is optional.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Second Provision:</I> Tension Specimens—If this provision is implemented, the minimum number of tension specimens to be included and tested in the surveillance program shall be as specified in paragraphs III.B.4(b)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Unirradiated Tension Specimens—Two tension specimens from each base and weld material required by ASTM E 185 shall be tested, with one specimen tested at room temperature and the other specimen tested at the service temperature; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Irradiated Tension Specimens—Two tension specimens from each base and weld material required by ASTM E 185 shall be included in each surveillance capsule and tested, with one specimen tested at room temperature and the other specimen tested at the service temperature.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Third Provision:</I> Correlation Monitor Materials—The testing of correlation monitor material specimens within the surveillance program as specified in ASTM E 185 is optional.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fourth Provision:</I> Thermal Monitor—The inclusion or examination of thermal monitors within the surveillance program as specified in ASTM E 185 is optional.


</P>
<P>C. Requirements for an Integrated Surveillance Program.
</P>
<P>1. In an integrated surveillance program, the representative materials chosen for surveillance for a reactor are irradiated in one or more other reactors that have similar design and operating features. Integrated surveillance programs must be approved by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, on a case-by-case basis. Criteria for approval include the following:
</P>
<P>a. The reactor in which the materials will be irradiated and the reactor for which the materials are being irradiated must have sufficiently similar design and operating features to permit accurate comparisons of the predicted amount of radiation damage.
</P>
<P>b. Each reactor must have an adequate dosimetry program.
</P>
<P>c. There must be adequate arrangement for data sharing between plants.
</P>
<P>d. There must be a contingency plan to assure that the surveillance program for each reactor will not be jeopardized by operation at reduced power level or by an extended outage of another reactor from which data are expected.
</P>
<P>e. There must be substantial advantages to be gained, such as reduced power outages or reduced personnel exposure to radiation, as a direct result of not requiring surveillance capsules in all reactors in the set.
</P>
<P>2. No reduction in the requirements for number of materials to be irradiated, specimen types, or number of specimens per reactor is permitted.
</P>
<P>3. After (the effective date of this section), no reduction in the amount of testing is permitted unless previously authorized by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.




</P>
<HD1>IV. Report of Test Results
</HD1>
<P>A. Each capsule withdrawal and the test results must be the subject of a summary technical report to be submitted, as specified in § 50.4, within eighteen months of the date of capsule withdrawal, unless an extension is granted by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<P>B. The report must include the data required by ASTM E 185, as specified in paragraph III.B.1 of this appendix, and the results of all fracture toughness tests conducted on the beltline materials in the irradiated and unirradiated conditions.
</P>
<P>C. If a change in the Technical Specifications is required, either in the pressure-temperature limits or in the operating procedures required to meet the limits, the expected date for submittal of the revised Technical Specifications must be provided with the report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 65476, Dec. 19, 1995, as amended at 68 FR 75390, Dec. 31, 2003; 73 FR 5723, Jan. 31, 2008; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019; 85 FR 62207, Oct. 2, 2020; 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 50—Numerical Guides for Design Objectives and Limiting Conditions for Operation To Meet the Criterion “As Low as is Reasonably Achievable” for Radioactive Material in Light-Water-Cooled Nuclear Power Reactor Effluents
</HEAD>
<P>SECTION I. <I>Introduction.</I> Section 50.34a provides that an application for a construction permit shall include a description of the preliminary design of equipment to be installed to maintain control over radioactive materials in gaseous and liquid effluents produced during normal conditions, including expected occurrences. In the case of an application filed on or after January 2, 1971, the application must also identify the design objectives, and the means to be employed, for keeping levels of radioactive material in effluents to unrestricted areas as low as practicable. Sections 52.47, 52.79, 52.137, and 52.157 of this chapter provide that applications for design certification, combined license, design approval, or manufacturing license, respectively, shall include a description of the equipment and procedures for the control of gaseous and liquid effluents and for the maintenance and use of equipment installed in radioactive waste systems.
</P>
<P>Section 50.36a contains provisions designed to assure that releases of radioactive material from nuclear power reactors to unrestricted areas during normal conditions, including expected occurrences, are kept as low as practicable.
</P>
<P>SECTION II. <I>Guides on design objectives for light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors licensed under 10 CFR part 50 or part 52 of this chapter.</I> The guides on design objectives set forth in this section may be used by an applicant for a construction permit as guidance in meeting the requirements of § 50.34a(a), or by an applicant for a combined license under part 52 of this chapter as guidance in meeting the requirements of § 50.34a(d), or by an applicant for a design approval, a design certification, or a manufacturing license as guidance in meeting the requirements of § 50.34a(e). The applicant shall provide reasonable assurance that the following design objectives will be met.
</P>
<P>A. The calculated annual total quantity of all radioactive material above background 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> to be released from each light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor to unrestricted areas will not result in an estimated annual dose or dose commitment from liquid effluents for any individual in an unrestricted area from all pathways of exposure in excess of 3 millirems to the total body or 10 millirems to any organ.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Here and elsewhere in this appendix background means radioactive materials in the environment and in the effluents from light-water-cooled power reactors not generated in, or attributable to, the reactors of which specific account is required in determining design objectives.</P></FTNT>
<P>B.1. The calculated annual total quantity of all radioactive material above background to be released from each light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor to the atmosphere will not result in an estimated annual air dose from gaseous effluents at any location near ground level which could be occupied by individuals in unrestricted areas in excess of 10 millirads for gamma radiation or 20 millirads for beta radiation.
</P>
<P>2. Notwithstanding the guidance of paragraph B.1:
</P>
<P>(a) The Commission may specify, as guidance on design objectives, a lower quantity of radioactive material above background to be released to the atmosphere if it appears that the use of the design objectives in paragraph B.1 is likely to result in an estimated annual external dose from gaseous effluents to any individual in an unrestricted area in excess of 5 millirems to the total body; and
</P>
<P>(b) Design objectives based upon a higher quantity of radioactive material above background to be released to the atmosphere than the quantity specified in paragraph B.1 will be deemed to meet the requirements for keeping levels of radioactive material in gaseous effluents as low as is reasonably achievable if the applicant provides reasonable assurance that the proposed higher quantity will not result in an estimated annual external dose from gaseous effluents to any individual in unrestricted areas in excess of 5 millirems to the total body or 15 millirems to the skin.
</P>
<P>C. The calculated annual total quantity of all radioactive iodine and radioactive material in particulate form above background to be released from each light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor in effluents to the atmosphere will not result in an estimated annual dose or dose commitment from such radioactive iodine and radioactive material in particulate form for any individual in an unrestricted area from all pathways of exposure in excess of 15 millirems to any organ.
</P>
<P>D. In addition to the provisions of paragraphs A, B, and C above, the applicant shall include in the radwaste system all items of reasonably demonstrated technology that, when added to the system sequentially and in order of diminishing cost-benefit return, can for a favorable cost-benefit ratio effect reductions in dose to the population reasonably expected to be within 50 miles of the reactor. As an interim measure and until establishment and adoption of better values (or other appropriate criteria), the values $1000 per total body man-rem and $1000 per man-thyroid-rem (or such lesser values as may be demonstrated to be suitable in a particular case) shall be used in this cost-benefit analysis. The requirements of this paragraph D need not be complied with by persons who have filed applications for construction permits which were docketed on or after January 2, 1971, and prior to June 4, 1976, if the radwaste systems and equipment described in the preliminary or final safety analysis report and amendments thereto satisfy the Guides on Design Objectives for Light-Water-Cooled Nuclear Power Reactors proposed in the Concluding Statement of Position of the Regulatory Staff in Docket-RM-50-2 dated February 20, 1974, pp. 25-30, reproduced in the annex to this appendix I.
</P>
<P>SECTION III. <I>Implementation.</I> A.1. Conformity with the guides on design objectives of Section II shall be demonstrated by calculational procedures based upon models and data such that the actual exposure of an individual through appropriate pathways is unlikely to be substantially underestimated, all uncertainties being considered together. Account shall be taken of the cumulative effect of all sources and pathways within the plant contributing to the particular type of effluent being considered. For determination of design objectives in accordance with the guides of Section II, the estimations of exposure shall be made with respect to such potential land and water usage and food pathways as could actually exist during the term of plant operation: <I>Provided,</I> That, if the requirements of paragraph B of Section III are fulfilled, the applicant shall be deemed to have complied with the requirements of paragraph C of Section II with respect to radioactive iodine if estimations of exposure are made on the basis of such food pathways and individual receptors as actually exist at the time the plant is licensed.
</P>
<P>2. The characteristics attributed to a hypothetical receptor for the purpose of estimating internal dose commitment shall take into account reasonable deviations of individual habits from the average. The applicant may take account of any real phenomenon or factors actually affecting the estimate of radiation exposure, including the characteristics of the plant, modes of discharge of radioactive materials, physical processes tending to attenuate the quantity of radioactive material to which an individual would be exposed, and the effects of averaging exposures over times during which determining factors may fluctuate.
</P>
<P>B. If the applicant determines design objectives with respect to radioactive iodine on the basis of existing conditions and if potential changes in land and water usage and food pathways could result in exposures in excess of the guideline values of paragraph C of Section II, the applicant shall provide reasonable assurance that a monitoring and surveillance program will be performed to determine:
</P>
<P>1. The quantities of radioactive iodine actually released to the atmosphere and deposited relative to those estimated in the determination of design objectives;
</P>
<P>2. Whether changes in land and water usage and food pathways which would result in individual exposures greater than originally estimated have occurred; and
</P>
<P>3. The content of radioactive iodine and foods involved in the changes, if and when they occur.
</P>
<P>SECTION IV. <I>Guides on technical specifications for limiting conditions for operation for light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors licensed under 10 CFR part 50 or part 52 of this chapter.</I> The guides on limiting conditions for operation for light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors set forth below may be used by an applicant for an operating license under this part or a design certification or combined license under part 52 of this chapter, or a licensee who has submitted a certification of permanent cessation of operations under § 50.82(a)(1) or § 52.110 of this chapter as guidance in developing technical specifications under § 50.36a(a) to keep levels of radioactive materials in effluents to unrestricted areas as low as is reasonably achievable.
</P>
<P>Section 50.36a(b) provides that licensees shall be guided by certain considerations in establishing and implementing operating procedures specified in technical specifications that take into account the need for operating flexibility and at the same time assure that the licensee will exert his best effort to keep levels of radioactive material in effluents as low as is reasonably achievable. The guidance set forth below provides additional and more specific guidance to licensees in this respect.
</P>
<P>Through the use of the guides set forth in this section it is expected that the annual release of radioactive material in effluents from light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors can generally be maintained within the levels set forth as numerical guides for design objectives in Section II.
</P>
<P>At the same time, the licensee is permitted the flexibility of operations, compatible with considerations of health and safety, to assure that the public is provided a dependable source of power even under unusual conditions which may temporarily result in releases higher than numerical guides for design objectives but still within levels that assure that the average population exposure is equivalent to small fractions of doses from natural background radiation. It is expected that in using this operational flexibility under unusual conditions, the licensee will exert his best efforts to keep levels of radioactive material in effluents within the numerical guides for design objectives.
</P>
<P>A. If the quantity of radioactive material actually released in effluents to unrestricted areas from a light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor during any calendar quarter is such that the resulting radiation exposure, calculated on the same basis as the respective design objective exposure, would exceed one-half the design objective annual exposure derived pursuant to Sections II and III, the licensee shall: 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Section 50.36a(a)(2) requires the licensee to submit certain reports to the Commission with regard to the quantities of the principal radionuclides released to unrestricted areas. It also provides that, on the basis of such reports and any additional information the Commission may obtain from the licensee and others, the Commission may from time to time require the license to take such action as the Commission deems appropriate.</P></FTNT>
<P>1. Make an investigation to identify the causes for such release rates;
</P>
<P>2. Define and initiate a program of corrective action; and
</P>
<P>3. Report these actions as specified in § 50.4, within 30 days from the end of the quarter during which the release occurred.
</P>
<P>B. The licensee shall establish an appropriate surveillance and monitoring program to:
</P>
<P>1. Provide data on quantities of radioactive material released in liquid and gaseous effluents to assure that the provisions of paragraph A of this section are met;
</P>
<P>2. Provide data on measurable levels of radiation and radioactive materials in the environment to evaluate the relationship between quantities of radioactive material released in effluents and resultant radiation doses to individuals from principal pathways of exposure; and
</P>
<P>3. Identify changes in the use of unrestricted areas (e.g., for agricultural purposes) to permit modifications in monitoring programs for evaluating doses to individuals from principal pathways of exposure.
</P>
<P>C. If the data developed in the surveillance and monitoring program described in paragraph B of Section III or from other monitoring programs show that the relationship between the quantities of radioactive material released in liquid and gaseous effluents and the dose to individuals in unrestricted areas is significantly different from that assumed in the calculations used to determine design objectives pursuant to Sections II and III, the Commission may modify the quantities in the technical specifications defining the limiting conditions in a license to operate a light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor or a license whose holder has submitted a certification of permanent cessation of operations under § 50.82(a)(1).
</P>
<P>SECTION V. <I>Effective dates.</I> A. The guides for limiting conditions for operation set forth in this appendix shall be applicable in any case in which an application was filed on or after January 2, 1971, for a construction permit for a light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor under this part, or a design certification, a combined license, or a manufacturing license for a light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor under part 52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>B. For each light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor constructed pursuant to a permit for which application was filed prior to January 2, 1971, the holder of the permit or a license, authorizing operation of the reactor shall, within a period of twelve months from June 4, 1975, file with the Commission:
</P>
<P>1. Such information as is necessary to evaluate the means employed for keeping levels of radioactivity in effluents to unrestricted areas as low as is reasonably achievable, including all such information as is required by § 50.34a (b) and (c) not already contained in his application; and
</P>
<P>2. Plans and proposed technical specifications developed for the purpose of keeping releases of radioactive materials to unrestricted areas during normal reactor operations, including expected operational occurrences, as low as is reasonably achievable.
</P>
<HD1>Concluding Statement of Position of the Regulatory Staff (Docket-RM-50-2)
</HD1>
<HD1>guides on design objectives for light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors
</HD1>
<P>A. For radioactive material above background 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in liquid effluents to be released to unrestricted areas:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> “Background,” means the quantity of radioactive material in the effluent from light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors at a site that did not originate in the reactors.</P></FTNT>
<P>1. The calculated annual total quantity of all radioactive material from all light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors at a site should not result in an annual dose or dose commitment to the total body or to any organ of an individual in an unrestricted area from all pathways of exposure in excess of 5 millirems; and
</P>
<P>2. The calculated annual total quantity of radioactive material, except tritium and dissolved gases, should not exceed 5 curies for each light-water-cooled reactor at a site.
</P>
<P>3. Notwithstanding the guidance in paragraph A.2, for a particular site, if an applicant for a permit to construct a light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor has proposed baseline in-plant control measures 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> to reduce the possible sources of radioactive material in liquid effluent releases and the calculated quantity exceeds the quantity set forth in paragraph A.2, the requirements for design objectives for radioactive material in liquid effluents may be deemed to have been met provided:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Such measures may include treatment of clear liquid waste streams (normally tritiated, nonaerated, low conductivity equipment drains and pump seal leakoff), dirty liquid waste streams (normally nontritiated, aerated, high conductivity building sumps, floor and sample station drains), steam generator blowdown streams, chemical waste streams, low purity and high purity liquid streams (resin regenerate and laboratory wastes), as appropriate for the type of reactor.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. The applicant submits, as specified in § 50.4, an evaluation of the potential for effects from long-term buildup on the environment in the vicinity of the site of radioactive material, with a radioactive half-life greater than one year, to be released; and
</P>
<P>b. The provisions of paragraph A.1 are met.
</P>
<P>B. For radioactive material above background in gaseous effluents the annual total quantity of radioactive material to be released to the atmosphere by all light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors at a site:
</P>
<P>1. The calculated annual air dose due to gamma radiation at any location near ground level which could be occupied by individuals at or beyond the boundary of the site should not exceed 10 millirads; and
</P>
<P>2. The calculated annual air dose due to beta radiation at any location near ground level which could be occupied by individuals at or beyond the boundary of the site should not exceed 20 millirads.
</P>
<P>3. Notwithstanding the guidance in paragraphs B.1 and B.2, for a particular site:
</P>
<P>a. The Commission may specify, as guidance on design objectives, a lower quantity of radioactive material above background in gaseous effluents to be released to the atmosphere if it appears that the use of the design objectives described in paragraphs B.1 and B.2 is likely to result in an annual dose to an individual in an unrestricted area in excess of 5 millirems to the total body or 15 millirems to the skin; or
</P>
<P>b. Design objectives based on a higher quantity of radioactive material above background in gaseous effluents to be released to the atmosphere than the quantity specified in paragraphs B.1 and B.2 may be deemed to meet the requirements for keeping levels of radioactive material in gaseous effluents as low as practicable if the applicant provides reasonable assurance that the proposed higher quantity will not result in annual doses to an individual in an unrestricted area in excess of 5 millirems to the total body or 15 millirems to the skin.
</P>
<P>C. For radioactive iodine and radioactive material in particulate form above background released to the atmosphere:
</P>
<P>1. The calculated annual total quantity of all radioactive iodine and radioactive material in particulate form from all light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors at a site should not result in an annual dose or dose commitment to any organ of an individual in an unrestricted area from all pathways of exposure in excess of 15 millirems. In determining the dose or dose commitment the portion thereof due to intake of radioactive material via the food pathways may be evaluated at the locations where the food pathways actually exist; and
</P>
<P>2. The calculated annual total quantity of iodine-131 in gaseous effluents should not exceed 1 curie for each light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor at a site.
</P>
<P>3. Notwithstanding the guidance in paragraphs C.1 and C.2 for a particular site, if an applicant for a permit to construct a light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor has proposed baseline in-plant control measures 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> to reduce the possible sources of radioactive iodine releases, and the calculated annual quantities taking into account such control measures exceed the design objective quantities set forth in paragraphs C.1 and C.2, the requirements for design objectives for radioactive iodine and radioactive material in particulate form in gaseous effluents may be deemed to have been met provided the calculated annual total quantity of all radioactive iodine and radioactive material in particulate form that may be released in gaseous effluents does not exceed four times the quantity calculated pursuant to paragraph C.1.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Such in-plant control measures may include treatment of steam generator blowdown tank exhaust, clean steam supplies for turbine gland seals, condenser vacuum systems, containment purging exhaust and ventilation exhaust systems and special design features to reduce contaminated steam and liquid leakage from valves and other sources such as sumps and tanks, as appropriate for the type of reactor.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 19442, May 5, 1975, as amended at 40 FR 40818, Sept. 4, 1975; 40 FR 58847, Dec. 19, 1975; 41 FR 16447, Apr. 19, 1976; 42 FR 20139, Apr. 18, 1977; 51 FR 40311, Nov. 6, 1986; 61 FR 39303, July 29, 1996; 72 FR 49507, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 50—Primary Reactor Containment Leakage Testing for Water-Cooled Power Reactors






</HEAD>
<P>This appendix includes two options, A and B, either of which can be chosen for meeting the requirements of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>Option A—Prescriptive Requirements
</HD1>
<HD2>Table of Contents
</HD2>
<P>I. Introduction.
</P>
<P>II. Explanation of terms.
</P>
<P>III. Leakage test requirements.
</P>
<P>A. Type A test.
</P>
<P>B. Type B test.
</P>
<P>C. Type C test.
</P>
<P>D. Periodic retest schedule.
</P>
<P>IV. Special test requirements.
</P>
<P>A. Containment modifications.
</P>
<P>B. Multiple leakage-barrier containments.
</P>
<P>V. Inspection and reporting of tests.
</P>
<P>A. Containment inspection.
</P>
<P>B. Repordkeeping of test results.
</P>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>One of the conditions of all operating licenses under this part and combined licenses under part 52 of this chapter for water-cooled power reactors as specified in § 50.54(o) is that primary reactor containments shall meet the containment leakage test requirements set forth in this appendix. These test requirements provide for preoperational and periodic verification by tests of the leak-tight integrity of the primary reactor containment, and systems and components which penetrate containment of water-cooled power reactors, and establish the acceptance criteria for these tests. The purposes of the tests are to assure that (a) leakage through the primary reactor containment and systems and components penetrating primary containment shall not exceed allowable leakage rate values as specified in the technical specifications or associated bases; and (b) periodic surveillance of reactor containment penetrations and isolation valves is performed so that proper maintenance and repairs are made during the service life of the containment, and systems and components penetrating primary containment. These test requirements may also be used for guidance in establishing appropriate containment leakage test requirements in technical specifications or associated bases for other types of nuclear power reactors.
</P>
<HD1>II. Explanation of Terms
</HD1>
<P>A. “Primary reactor containment” means the structure or vessel that encloses the components of the reactor coolant pressure boundary, as defined in § 50.2, and serves as an essentially leak-tight barrier against the uncontrolled release of radioactivity to the environment.
</P>
<P>B. “Containment isolation valve” means any valve which is relied upon to perform a containment isolation function.
</P>
<P>C. “Reactor containment leakage test program” includes the performance of Type A, Type B, and Type C tests, described in II.F, II.G, and II.H, respectively.
</P>
<P>D. “Leakage rate” for test purposes is that leakage which occurs in a unit of time, stated as a percentage of weight of the original content of containment air at the leakage rate test pressure that escapes to the outside atmosphere during a 24-hour test period.
</P>
<P>E. “Overall integrated leakage rate” means that leakage rate which obtains from a summation of leakage through all potential leakage paths including containment welds, valves, fittings, and components which penetrate containment.
</P>
<P>F. “Type A Tests” means tests intended to measure the primary reactor containment overall integrated leakage rate (1) after the containment has been completed and is ready for operation, and (2) at periodic intervals thereafter.
</P>
<P>G. “Type B Tests” means tests intended to detect local leaks and to measure leakage across each pressure-containing or leakage-limiting boundary for the following primary reactor containment penetrations:
</P>
<P>1. Containment penetrations whose design incorporates resilient seals, gaskets, or sealant componds, piping penetrations fitted with expansion bellows, and electrical penetrations fitted with flexible metal seal assemblies.
</P>
<P>2. Air lock door seals, including door operating mechanism penetrations which are part of the containment pressure boundary.
</P>
<P>3. Doors with resilient seals or gaskets except for seal-welded doors.
</P>
<P>4. Components other than those listed in II.G.1, II.G.2, or II.G.3 which must meet the acceptance criteria in III.B.3.
</P>
<P>H. “Type C Tests” means tests intended to measure containment isolation valve leakage rates. The containment isolation valves included are those that:
</P>
<P>1. Provide a direct connection between the inside and outside atmospheres of the primary reactor containment under normal operation, such as purge and ventilation, vacuum relief, and instrument valves;
</P>
<P>2. Are required to close automatically upon receipt of a containment isolation signal in response to controls intended to effect containment isolation;
</P>
<P>3. Are required to operate intermittently under postaccident conditions; and
</P>
<P>4. Are in main steam and feedwater piping and other systems which penetrate containment of direct-cycle boiling water power reactors.
</P>
<P>I. Pa (p.s.i.g.) means the calculated peak containment internal pressure related to the design basis accident and specified either in the technical specification or associated bases.
</P>
<P>J. Pt (p.s.i.g.) means the containment vessel reduced test pressure selected to measure the integrated leakage rate during periodic Type A tests.
</P>
<P>K. La (percent/24 hours) means the maximum allowable leakage rate at pressure Pa as specified for preoperational tests in the technical specifications or associated bases, and as specified for periodic tests in the operating license or combined license, including the technical specifications in any referenced design certification or manufactured reactor used at the facility.
</P>
<P>L. Ld (percent/24 hours) means the design leakage rate at pressure, Pa, as specified in the technical specifications or associated bases.
</P>
<P>M. Lt (percent/24 hours) means the maximum allowable leakage rate at pressure Pt derived from the preoperational test data as specified in III.A.4.(a)(iii).
</P>
<P>N. Lam, Ltm (percent/24 hours) means the total measured containment leakage rates at pressure Pa and Pt, respectively, obtained from testing the containment with components and systems in the state as close as practical to that which would exist under design basis accident conditions (e.g., vented, drained, flooded or pressurized).
</P>
<P>O. “Acceptance criteria” means the standard against which test results are to be compared for establishing the functional acceptability of the containment as a leakage limiting boundary.


</P>
<HD1>III. Leakage Testing Requirements
</HD1>
<P>A program consisting of a schedule for conducting Type A, B, and C tests shall be developed for leak testing the primary reactor containment and related systems and components penetrating primary containment pressure boundary.
</P>
<P>Upon completion of construction of the primary reactor containment, including installation of all portions of mechanical, fluid, electrical, and instrumentation systems penetrating the primary reactor containment pressure boundary, and prior to any reactor operating period, preoperational and periodic leakage rate tests, as applicable, shall be conducted in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Type A test—</I>1. <I>Pretest requirements.</I> (a) Containment inspection in accordance with V. A. shall be performed as a prerequisite to the performance of Type A tests. During the period between the initiation of the containment inspection and the performance of the Type A test, no repairs or adjustments shall be made so that the containment can be tested in as close to the “as is” condition as practical. During the period between the completion of one Type A test and the initiation of the containment inspection for the subsequent Type A test, repairs or adjustments shall be made to components whose leakage exceeds that specified in the technical specification as soon as practical after identification. If during a Type A test, including the supplemental test specified in III.A.3.(b), potentially excessive leakage paths are identified which will interfere with satisfactory completion of the test, or which result in the Type A test not meeting the acceptance criteria III.A.4.(b) or III.A.5.(b), the Type A test shall be terminated and the leakage through such paths shall be measured using local leakage testing methods. Repairs and/or adjustments to equipment shall be made and Type A test performed. The corrective action taken and the change in leakage rate determined from the tests and overall integrated leakage determined from local leak and Type A tests shall be included in the summary report required by V.B.
</P>
<P>(b) Closure of containment isolation valves for the Type A test shall be accomplished by normal operation and without any preliminary exercising or adjustments (e.g., no tightening of valve after closure by valve motor). Repairs of maloperating or leaking valves shall be made as necessary. Information on any valve closure malfunction or valve leakage that require corrective action before the test, shall be included in the summary report required by V.B.
</P>
<P>(c) The containment test conditions shall stabilize for a period of about 4 hours prior to the start of a leakage rate test.
</P>
<P>(d) Those portions of the fluid systems that are part of the reactor coolant pressure boundary and are open directly to the containment atmosphere under post-accident conditions and become an extension of the boundary of the containment shall be opened or vented to the containment atmosphere prior to and during the test. Portions of closed systems inside containment that penetrate containment and rupture as a result of a loss of coolant accident shall be vented to the containment atmosphere. All vented systems shall be drained of water or other fluids to the extent necessary to assure exposure of the system containment isolation valves to containment air test pressure and to assure they will be subjected to the post accident differential pressure. Systems that are required to maintain the plant in a safe condition during the test shall be operable in their normal mode, and need not be vented. Systems that are normally filled with water and operating under post-accident conditions, such as the containment heat removal system, need not be vented. However, the containment isolation valves in the systems defined in III.A.1.(d) shall be tested in accordance with III.C. The measured leakage rate from these tests shall be included in the summary report required by V.B.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Conduct of tests.</I> Preoperational leakage rate tests at either reduced or at peak pressure, shall be conducted at the intervals specified in III.D.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Test Methods.</I> (a) All Type A tests shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of the American National Standards N45.4-1972, “Leakage Rate Testing of Containment Structures for Nuclear Reactors,” March 16, 1972. In addition to the Total time and Point-to-Point methods described in that standard, the Mass Point Method, when used with a test duration of at least 24 hours, is an acceptable method to use to calculate leakage rates. A typical description of the Mass Point method can be found in the American National Standard ANSI/ANS 56.8-1987, “Containment System Leakage Testing Requirements,” January 20, 1987. Incorporation of ANSI N45.4-1972 by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register. Copies of this standard, as well as ANSI/ANS-56.8-1987, “Containment System Leakage Testing Requirements” (dated January 20, 1987) may be obtained from the American Nuclear Society, 555 North Kensington Avenue, La Grange Park, IL 60525. A copy of each of these standards is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738.
</P>
<P>(b) The accuracy of any Type A test shall be verified by a supplemental test. An acceptable method is described in Appendix C of ANSI N45.4-1972. The supplemental test method selected shall be conducted for sufficient duration to establish accurately the change in leakage rate between the Type A and supplemental test. Results from this supplemental test are acceptable provided the difference between the supplemental test data and the Type A test data is within 0.25 La (or 0.25 Lt). If results are not within 0.25 La (or 0.25 Lt), the reason shall be determined, corrective action taken, and a successful supplemental test performed.
</P>
<P>(c) Test leakage rates shall be calculated using absolute values corrected for instrument error.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Preoperational leakage rate tests.</I> (a) <I>Test pressure</I>—(1) <I>Reduced pressure tests.</I> (i) An initial test shall be performed at a pressure Pt, not less than 0.50 Pa to measure a leakage rate Ltm.
</P>
<P>(ii) A second test shall be performed at pressure Pa to measure a leakage rate Lam.
</P>
<P>(iii) The leakage characteristics yielded by measurements Ltm and Lam shall establish the maximum allowable test leakage rate Lt of not more than La (Ltm/Lam). In the event Ltm/Lam is greater than 0.7, Lt shall be specified as equal to La (Pt/Pa). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Such inservice inspections are required by § 50.55a.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Peak pressure tests.</I> A test shall be performed at pressure Pa to measure the leakage rate Lam.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance criteria</I>—(1) <I>Reduced pressure tests.</I> The leakage rate Ltm shall be less than 0.75 Lt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Peak pressure tests.</I> The leakage rate Lam shall be less than 0.75 La and not greater than Ld.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Periodic leakage rate tests</I>—(a) <I>Test pressure.</I> (1) Reduced pressure tests shall be conducted at Pt;
</P>
<P>(2) Peak pressure tests shall be conducted at Pa.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance criteria</I>—(1) <I>Reduced pressure tests.</I> The leakage rate Ltm shall be less than 0.75 Lt. If local leakage measurements are taken to effect repairs in order to meet the acceptance criteria, these measurements shall be taken at a test pressure Pt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Peak pressure tests.</I> The leakage rate Lam shall be less than 0.75 La. If local leakage measurements are taken to effect repairs in order to meet the acceptance criteria, these measurements shall be taken at a test pressure Pa.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Additional requirements.</I> (a) If any periodic Type A test fails to meet the applicable acceptance criteria in III.A.5.(b), the test schedule applicable to subsequent Type A tests will be reviewed and approved by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) If two consecutive periodic Type A tests fail to meet the applicable acceptance criteria in III.A.5(b), notwithstanding the periodic retest schedule of III.D., a Type A test shall be performed at each plant shutdown for refueling or approximately every 18 months, whichever occurs first, until two consecutive Type A tests meet the acceptance criteria in III.A.5(b), after which time the retest schedule specified in III.D. may be resumed.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Type B tests—</I>1. <I>Test methods.</I> Acceptable means of performing preoperation and periodic Type B tests include:
</P>
<P>(a) Examination by halide leak-detection method (or by other equivalent test methods such as mass spectrometer) of a test chamber, pressurized with air, nitrogen, or pneumatic fluid specified in the technical specifications or associated bases and constructed as part of individual containment penetrations.
</P>
<P>(b) Measurement of the rate of pressure loss of the test chamber of the containment penetration pressurized with air, nitrogen, or pneumatic fluid specified in the technical specifications or associated bases.
</P>
<P>(c) Leakage surveillance by means of a permanently installed system with provisions for continuous or intermittent pressurization of individual or groups of containment penetrations and measurement of rate of pressure loss of air, nitrogen, or pneumatic fluid specified in the technical specification or associated bases through the leak paths.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Test pressure.</I> All preoperational and periodic Type B tests shall be performed by local pneumatic pressurization of the containment penetrations, either individually or in groups, at a pressure not less than Pa.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Acceptance criteria.</I> (See also Type C tests.) (a) The combined leakage rate of all penetrations and valves subject to Type B and C tests shall be less than 0.60 La, with the exception of the valves specified in III.C.3.
</P>
<P>(b) Leakage measurements obtained through component leakage surveillance systems (e.g., continuous pressurization of individual containment components) that maintains a pressure not less than Pa at individual test chambers of containment penetrations during normal reactor operation, are acceptable in lieu of Type B tests.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Type C tests—</I>1. <I>Test method.</I> Type C tests shall be performed by local pressurization. The pressure shall be applied in the same direction as that when the value would be required to perform its safety function, unless it can be determined that the results from the tests for a pressure applied in a different direction will provide equivalent or more conservative results. The test methods in III.B.1 may be substituted where appropriate. Each valve to be tested shall be closed by normal operation and without any preliminary exercising or adjustments (e.g., no tightening of valve after closure by valve motor).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Test pressure.</I> (a) Valves, unless pressurized with fluid (e.g., water, nitrogen) from a seal system, shall be pressurized with air or nitrogen at a pressure of Pa.
</P>
<P>(b) Valves, which are sealed with fluid from a seal system shall be pressurized with that fluid to a pressure not less than 1.10 Pa.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Acceptance criterion.</I> The combined leakage rate for all penetrations and valves subject to Type B and C tests shall be less than 0.60 La. Leakage from containment isolation valves that are sealed with fluid from a seal system may be excluded when determining the combined leakage rate: <I>Provided,</I> That;
</P>
<P>(a) Such valves have been demonstrated to have fluid leakage rates that do not exceed those specified in the technical specifications or associated bases, and
</P>
<P>(b) The installed isolation valve seal-water system fluid inventory is sufficient to assure the sealing function for at least 30 days at a pressure of 1.10 Pa.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Periodic retest schedule—</I>1. <I>Type A test.</I> (a) After the preoperational leakage rate tests, a set of three Type A tests shall be performed, at approximately equal intervals during each inservice inspection interval, as defined in § 50.55a(y). The third test of each set shall be conducted when the plant is shut down for the final plant inservice inspections of the inservice inspection interval.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 


</P>
<P>(b) Permissible periods for testing. The performance of Type A tests shall be limited to periods when the plant facility is non-operational and secured in the shutdown condition under the administrative control and in accordance with the safety procedures defined in the license.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Type B tests.</I> (a) Type B tests, except tests for air locks, shall be performed during reactor shutdown for refueling, or other convenient intervals, but in no case at intervals greater than 2 years. If opened following a Type A or B test, containment penetrations subject to Type B testing shall be Type B tested prior to returning the reactor to an operating mode requiring containment integrity. For primary reactor containment penetrations employing a continuous leakage monitoring system, Type B tests, except for tests of air locks, may, notwithstanding the test schedule specified under III.D.1., be performed every other reactor shutdown for refueling but in no case at intervals greater than 3 years.
</P>
<P>(b)(i) Air locks shall be tested prior to initial fuel loading and at 6-month intervals thereafter at an internal pressure not less than P<E T="52">a</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) Air locks opened during periods when containment integrity is not required by the plant's Technical Specifications shall be tested at the end of such periods at not less than P<E T="52">a</E>.
</P>
<P>(iii) Air locks opened during periods when containment integrity is required by the plant's Technical Specifications shall be tested within 3 days after being opened. For air lock doors opened more frequently than once every 3 days, the air lock shall be tested at least once every 3 days during the period of frequent openings. For air lock doors having testable seals, testing the seals fulfills the 3-day test requirements. In the event that the testing for this 3-day interval cannot be at P<E T="52">a</E>, the test pressure shall be as stated in the Technical Specifications. Air lock door seal testing shall not be substituted for the 6-month test of the entire air lock at not less than P<E T="52">a</E>.
</P>
<P>(iv) The acceptance criteria for air lock testing shall be stated in the Technical Specifications.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Type C tests.</I> Type C tests shall be performed during each reactor shutdown for refueling but in no case at intervals greater than 2 years.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Special Testing Requirements
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Containment modification.</I> Any major modification, replacement of a component which is part of the primary reactor containment boundary, or resealing a seal-welded door, performed after the preoperational leakage rate test shall be followed by either a Type A, Type B, or Type C test, as applicable for the area affected by the modification. The measured leakage from this test shall be included in the summary report required by V.B. The acceptance criteria of III.A.5.(b), III.B.3., or III.C.3., as appropriate, shall be met. Minor modifications, replacements, or resealing of seal-welded doors, performed directly prior to the conduct of a scheduled Type A test do not require a separate test.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Multiple leakage barrier or subatmospheric containments.</I> The primary reactor containment barrier of a multiple barrier or subatmospheric containment shall be subjected to Type A tests to verify that its leakage rate meets the requirements of this appendix. Other structures of multiple barrier or subatmospheric containments (e.g., secondary containments for boiling water reactors and shield buildings for pressurized water reactors that enclose the entire primary reactor containment or portions thereof) shall be subject to individual tests in accordance with the procedures specified in the technical specifications, or associated bases.
</P>
<HD1>V. Inspection and Reporting of Tests
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Containment inspection.</I> A general inspection of the accessible interior and exterior surfaces of the containment structures and components shall be performed prior to any Type A test to uncover any evidence of structural deterioration which may affect either the containment structural integrity or leak-tightness. If there is evidence of structural deterioration, Type A tests shall not be performed until corrective action is taken in accordance with repair procedures, non destructive examinations, and tests as specified in the applicable code specified in § 50.55a at the commencement of repair work. Such structural deterioration and corrective actions taken shall be included in the summary report required by V.B.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Recordkeeping of test results.</I> 1. The preoperational and periodic tests must be documented in a readily available summary report that will be made available for inspection, upon request, at the nuclear power plant. The summary report shall include a schematic arrangement of the leakage rate measurement system, the instrumentation used, the supplemental test method, and the test program selected as applicable to the preoperational test, and all the subsequent periodic tests. The report shall contain an analysis and interpretation of the leakage rate test data for the Type A test results to the extent necessary to demonstrate the acceptability of the containment's leakage rate in meeting acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>2. For each periodic test, leakage test results from Type A, B, and C tests shall be included in the summary report. The summary report shall contain an analysis and interpretation of the Type A test results and a summary analysis of periodic Type B and Type C tests that were performed since the last type A test. Leakage test results from type A, B, and C tests that failed to meet the acceptance criteria of III.A.5(b), III.B.3, and III.C.3, respectively, shall be included in a separate accompanying summary report that includes an analysis and interpretation of the test data, the least squares fit analysis of the test data, the instrumentation error analysis, and the structural conditions of the containment or components, if any, which contributed to the failure in meeting the acceptance criteria. Results and analyses of the supplemental verification test employed to demonstrate the validity of the leakage rate test measurements shall also be included.
</P>
<HD1>Option B—Performance-Based Requirements
</HD1>
<HD2>Table of Contents
</HD2>
<FP-2>I. Introduction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Definitions.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Performance-based leakage-test requirements.
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Type A test.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Type B and C tests.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>IV. Recordkeeping.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V. Application.
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>One of the conditions required of all operating licenses and combined licenses for light-water-cooled power reactors as specified in § 50.54(o) is that primary reactor containments meet the leakage-rate test requirements in either Option A or B of this appendix. These test requirements ensure that (a) leakage through these containments or systems and components penetrating these containments does not exceed allowable leakage rates specified in the technical specifications; and (b) integrity of the containment structure is maintained during its service life. Option B of this appendix identifies the performance-based requirements and criteria for preoperational and subsequent periodic leakage-rate testing. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 

Specific guidance concerning a performance-based leakage-test program, acceptable leakage-rate test methods, procedures, and analyses that may be used to implement these requirements and criteria are provided in Regulatory Guide 1.163, “Performance-Based Containment Leak-Test Program.”</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P><I>Performance criteria</I> means the performance standards against which test results are to be compared for establishing the acceptability of the containment system as a leakage-limiting boundary.
</P>
<P><I>Containment system</I> means the principal barrier, after the reactor coolant pressure boundary, to prevent the release of quantities of radioactive material that would have a significant radiological effect on the health of the public.
</P>
<P><I>Overall integrated leakage rate</I> means the total leakage rate through all tested leakage paths, including containment welds, valves, fittings, and components that penetrate the containment system.
</P>
<P><I>La (percent/24 hours)</I> means the maximum allowable leakage rate at pressure Pa as specified in the Technical Specifications.
</P>
<P><I>Pa (p.s.i.g)</I> means the calculated peak containment internal pressure related to the design basis loss-of-coolant accident as specified in the Technical Specifications.
</P>
<HD1>III. Performance-Based Leakage-Test Requirements
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Type A Test
</HD2>
<P>Type A tests to measure the containment system overall integrated leakage rate must be conducted under conditions representing design basis loss-of-coolant accident containment peak pressure. A Type A test must be conducted (1) after the containment system has been completed and is ready for operation and (2) at a periodic interval based on the historical performance of the overall containment system as a barrier to fission product releases to reduce the risk from reactor accidents. A general visual inspection of the accessible interior and exterior surfaces of the containment system for structural deterioration which may affect the containment leak-tight integrity must be conducted prior to each test, and at a periodic interval between tests based on the performance of the containment system. The leakage rate must not exceed the allowable leakage rate (La) with margin, as specified in the Technical Specifications. The test results must be compared with previous results to examine the performance history of the overall containment system to limit leakage.
</P>
<HD2>B. Type B and C Tests
</HD2>
<P>Type B pneumatic tests to detect and measure local leakage rates across pressure retaining, leakage-limiting boundaries, and Type C pneumatic tests to measure containment isolation valve leakage rates, must be conducted (1) prior to initial criticality, and (2) periodically thereafter at intervals based on the safety significance and historical performance of each boundary and isolation valve to ensure the integrity of the overall containment system as a barrier to fission product release to reduce the risk from reactor accidents. The performance-based testing program must contain a performance criterion for Type B and C tests, consideration of leakage-rate limits and factors that are indicative of or affect performance, when establishing test intervals, evaluations of performance of containment system components, and comparison to previous test results to examine the performance history of the overall containment system to limit leakage. The tests must demonstrate that the sum of the leakage rates at accident pressure of Type B tests, and pathway leakage rates from Type C tests, is less than the performance criterion (La) with margin, as specified in the Technical Specification.


</P>
<HD1>IV. Recordkeeping
</HD1>
<P>The results of the preoperational and periodic Type A, B, and C tests must be documented to show that performance criteria for leakage have been met. The comparison to previous results of the performance of the overall containment system and of individual components within it must be documented to show that the test intervals established for the containment system and components within it are adequate. These records must be available for inspection at plant sites.


</P>
<P>If the test results exceed the performance criteria (La) as defined in the plant Technical Specifications, those exceedances must be assessed for Emergency Notification System reporting under § 50.72 (b)(2)(i), and for a Licensee Event Report under § 50.73 (a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<HD1>V. Application
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Applicability
</HD2>
<P>The requirements in either or both Option B, III.A for Type A tests, and Option B, III.B for Type B and C tests, may be adopted on a voluntary basis by an operating nuclear power reactor licensee as specified in § 50.54 in substitution of the requirements for those tests contained in Option A of this appendix. If the requirements for tests in Option B, III.A or Option B, III.B are implemented, the recordkeeping requirements in Option B, IV for these tests must be substituted for the reporting requirements of these tests contained in Option A of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>B. Implementation
</HD2>
<P>1. Specific exemptions to Option A of this appendix that have been formally approved by the AEC or NRC, according to 10 CFR 50.12, are still applicable to Option B of this appendix if necessary, unless specifically revoked by the NRC.
</P>
<P>2. A licensee or applicant for an operating license under this part or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter may adopt Option B, or parts thereof, as specified in Section V.A of this appendix, by submitting its implementation plan and request for revision to technical specifications (see paragraph B.3 of this section) to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<P>3. The regulatory guide or other implementation document used by a licensee or applicant for an operating license under this part or a combined license under part 52 of this chapter to develop a performance-based leakage-testing program must be included, by general reference, in the plant technical specifications. The submittal for technical specification revisions must contain justification, including supporting analyses, if the licensee chooses to deviate from methods approved by the Commission and endorsed in a regulatory guide.
</P>
<P>4. The detailed licensee programs for conducting testing under Option B must be available at the plant site for NRC inspection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 4386, Feb. 14, 1973; 38 FR 5997, Mar. 6, 1973, as amended at 41 FR 16447, Apr. 19, 1976; 45 FR 62789, Sept. 22, 1980; 51 FR 40311, Nov. 6, 1986; 53 FR 45891, Nov. 15, 1988; 57 FR 61786, Dec. 29, 1992; 59 FR 50689, Oct. 5, 1994; 60 FR 13616, Mar. 14, 1995; 60 FR 49504, Sept. 26, 1995; 72 FR 49508, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 5723, Jan. 31, 2008; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019; 88 FR 80949, Nov. 21, 2023; 89 FR 58058, July 17, 2024; 89 FR 60795, July 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix K" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix K to Part 50—ECCS Evaluation Models
</HEAD>
<P>I. Required and Acceptable Features of Evaluation Models.
</P>
<P>II. Required Documentation.
</P>
<HD1>I. Required and Acceptable Features of the Evaluation Models
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Sources of heat during the LOCA.</I> For the heat sources listed in paragraphs I.A.1 to 4 of this appendix it must be assumed that the reactor has been operating continuously at a power level at least 1.02 times the licensed power level (to allow for instrumentation error), with the maximum peaking factor allowed by the technical specifications. An assumed power level lower than the level specified in this paragraph (but not less than the licensed power level) may be used provided the proposed alternative value has been demonstrated to account for uncertainties due to power level instrumentation error. A range of power distribution shapes and peaking factors representing power distributions that may occur over the core lifetime must be studied. The selected combination of power distribution shape and peaking factor should be the one that results in the most severe calculated consequences for the spectrum of postulated breaks and single failures that are analyzed.
</P>
<P>1. <I>The Initial Stored Energy in the Fuel.</I> The steady-state temperature distribution and stored energy in the fuel before the hypothetical accident shall be calculated for the burn-up that yields the highest calculated cladding temperature (or, optionally, the highest calculated stored energy.) To accomplish this, the thermal conductivity of the UO<E T="52">2</E> shall be evaluated as a function of burn-up and temperature, taking into consideration differences in initial density, and the thermal conductance of the gap between the UO<E T="52">2</E> and the cladding shall be evaluated as a function of the burn-up, taking into consideration fuel densification and expansion, the composition and pressure of the gases within the fuel rod, the initial cold gap dimension with its tolerances, and cladding creep.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fission Heat.</I> Fission heat shall be calculated using reactivity and reactor kinetics. Shutdown reactivities resulting from temperatures and voids shall be given their minimum plausible values, including allowance for uncertainties, for the range of power distribution shapes and peaking factors indicated to be studied above. Rod trip and insertion may be assumed if they are calculated to occur.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Decay of Actinides.</I> The heat from the radioactive decay of actinides, including neptunium and plutonium generated during operation, as well as isotopes of uranium, shall be calculated in accordance with fuel cycle calculations and known radioactive properties. The actinide decay heat chosen shall be that appropriate for the time in the fuel cycle that yields the highest calculated fuel temperature during the LOCA.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fission Product Decay.</I> The heat generation rates from radioactive decay of fission products shall be assumed to be equal to 1.2 times the values for infinite operating time in the ANS Standard (Proposed American Nuclear Society Standards—“Decay Energy Release Rates Following Shutdown of Uranium-Fueled Thermal Reactors.” Approved by Subcommittee ANS-5, ANS Standards Committee, October 1971). This standard has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of the standard is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. The fraction of the locally generated gamma energy that is deposited in the fuel (including the cladding) may be different from 1.0; the value used shall be justified by a suitable calculation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Metal—Water Reaction Rate.</I> The rate of energy release, hydrogen generation, and cladding oxidation from the metal/water reaction shall be calculated using the Baker-Just equation (Baker, L., Just, L.C., “Studies of Metal Water Reactions at High Temperatures, III. Experimental and Theoretical Studies of the Zirconium-Water Reaction,” ANL-6548, page 7, May 1962). This publication has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of the publication is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Two White Flint North, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. The reaction shall be assumed not to be steam limited. For rods whose cladding is calculated to rupture during the LOCA, the inside of the cladding shall be assumed to react after the rupture. The calculation of the reaction rate on the inside of the cladding shall also follow the Baker-Just equation, starting at the time when the cladding is calculated to rupture, and extending around the cladding inner circumference and axially no less that 1.5 inches each way from the location of the rupture, with the reaction assumed not to be steam limited.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reactor Internals Heat Transfer.</I> Heat transfer from piping, vessel walls, and non-fuel internal hardware shall be taken into account.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Pressurized Water Reactor Primary-to-Secondary Heat Transfer.</I> Heat transferred between primary and secondary systems through heat exchangers (steam generators) shall be taken into account. (Not applicable to Boiling Water Reactors.)
</P>
<HD2>B. Swelling and Rupture of the Cladding and Fuel Rod Thermal Parameters
</HD2>
<P>Each evaluation model shall include a provision for predicting cladding swelling and rupture from consideration of the axial temperature distribution of the cladding and from the difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the cladding, both as functions of time. To be acceptable the swelling and rupture calculations shall be based on applicable data in such a way that the degree of swelling and incidence of rupture are not underestimated. The degree of swelling and rupture shall be taken into account in calculations of gap conductance, cladding oxidation and embrittlement, and hydrogen generation.
</P>
<P>The calculations of fuel and cladding temperatures as a function of time shall use values for gap conductance and other thermal parameters as functions of temperature and other applicable time-dependent variables. The gap conductance shall be varied in accordance with changes in gap dimensions and any other applicable variables.
</P>
<HD2>C. Blowdown Phenomena
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Break Characteristics and Flow.</I> a. In analyses of hypothetical loss-of-coolant accidents, a spectrum of possible pipe breaks shall be considered. This spectrum shall include instantaneous double-ended breaks ranging in cross-sectional area up to and including that of the largest pipe in the primary coolant system. The analysis shall also include the effects of longitudinal splits in the largest pipes, with the split area equal to the cross-sectional area of the pipe.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Discharge Model.</I> For all times after the discharging fluid has been calculated to be two-phase in composition, the discharge rate shall be calculated by use of the Moody model (F.J. Moody, “Maximum Flow Rate of a Single Component, Two-Phase Mixture,” Journal of Heat Transfer, Trans American Society of Mechanical Engineers, 87, No. 1, February, 1965). This publication has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of this publication is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. The calculation shall be conducted with at least three values of a discharge coefficient applied to the postulated break area, these values spanning the range from 0.6 to 1.0. If the results indicate that the maximum clad temperature for the hypothetical accident is to be found at an even lower value of the discharge coefficient, the range of discharge coefficients shall be extended until the maximum clad temperatures calculated by this variation has been achieved.
</P>
<P>c. <I>End of Blowdown.</I> (Applies Only to Pressurized Water Reactors.) For postulated cold leg breaks, all emergency cooling water injected into the inlet lines or the reactor vessel during the bypass period shall in the calculations be subtracted from the reactor vessel calculated inventory. This may be executed in the calculation during the bypass period, or as an alternative the amount of emergency core cooling water calculated to be injected during the bypass period may be subtracted later in the calculation from the water remaining in the inlet lines, downcomer, and reactor vessel lower plenum after the bypass period. This bypassing shall end in the calculation at a time designated as the “end of bypass,” after which the expulsion or entrainment mechanisms responsible for the bypassing are calculated not to be effective. The end-of-bypass definition used in the calculation shall be justified by a suitable combination of analysis and experimental data. Acceptable methods for defining “end of bypass” include, but are not limited to, the following: (1) Prediction of the blowdown calculation of downward flow in the downcomer for the remainder of the blowdown period; (2) Prediction of a threshold for droplet entrainment in the upward velocity, using local fluid conditions and a conservative critical Weber number.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Noding Near the Break and the ECCS Injection Points.</I> The noding in the vicinity of and including the broken or split sections of pipe and the points of ECCS injection shall be chosen to permit a reliable analysis of the thermodynamic history in these regions during blowdown.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Frictional Pressure Drops.</I> The frictional losses in pipes and other components including the reactor core shall be calculated using models that include realistic variation of friction factor with Reynolds number, and realistic two-phase friction multipliers that have been adequately verified by comparison with experimental data, or models that prove at least equally conservative with respect to maximum clad temperature calculated during the hypothetical accident. The modified Baroczy correlation (Baroczy, C. J., “A Systematic Correlation for Two-Phase Pressure Drop,” <I>Chem. Enging. Prog. Symp. Series,</I> No. 64, Vol. 62, 1965) or a combination of the Thom correlation (Thom, J.R.S., “Prediction of Pressure Drop During Forced Circulation Boiling of Water,” <I>Int. J. of Heat &amp; Mass Transfer,</I> 7, 709-724, 1964) for pressures equal to or greater than 250 psia and the Martinelli-Nelson correlation (Martinelli, R. C. Nelson, D.B., “Prediction of Pressure Drop During Forced Circulation Boiling of Water,” <I>Transactions of ASME,</I> 695-702, 1948) for pressures lower than 250 psia is acceptable as a basis for calculating realistic two-phase friction multipliers.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Momentum Equation.</I> The following effects shall be taken into account in the conservation of momentum equation: (1) temporal change of momentum, (2) momentum convection, (3) area change momentum flux, (4) momentum change due to compressibility, (5) pressure loss resulting from wall friction, (6) pressure loss resulting from area change, and (7) gravitational acceleration. Any omission of one or more of these terms under stated circumstances shall be justified by comparative analyses or by experimental data.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Critical Heat Flux.</I> a. Correlations developed from appropriate steady-state and transient-state experimental data are acceptable for use in predicting the critical heat flux (CHF) during LOCA transients. The computer programs in which these correlations are used shall contain suitable checks to assure that the physical parameters are within the range of parameters specified for use of the correlations by their respective authors.
</P>
<P>b. Steady-state CHF correlations acceptable for use in LOCA transients include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>W 3.</I> L. S. Tong, “Prediction of Departure from Nucleate Boiling for an Axially Non-uniform Heat Flux Distribution,” <I>Journal of Nuclear Energy,</I> Vol. 21, 241-248, 1967.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>B&amp;W-2.</I> J. S. Gellerstedt, R. A. Lee, W. J. Oberjohn, R. H. Wilson, L. J. Stanek, “Correlation of Critical Heat Flux in a Bundle Cooled by Pressurized Water,” <I>Two-Phase Flow and Heat Transfer in Rod Bundles,</I> ASME, New York, 1969.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hench-Levy.</I> J. M. Healzer, J. E. Hench, E. Janssen, S. Levy, “Design Basis for Critical Heat Flux Condition in Boiling Water Reactors,” APED-5186, GE Company Private report, July 1966.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Macbeth.</I> R. V. Macbeth, “An Appraisal of Forced Convection Burnout Data,” <I>Proceedings of the Institute of Mechanical Engineers,</I> 1965-1966.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Barnett.</I> P. G. Barnett, “A Correlation of Burnout Data for Uniformly Heated Annuli and Its Uses for Predicting Burnout in Uniformly Heated Rod Bundles,” AEEW-R 463, 1966.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Hughes.</I> E. D. Hughes, “A Correlation of Rod Bundle Critical Heat Flux for Water in the Pressure Range 150 to 725 psia,” IN-1412, Idaho Nuclear Corporation, July 1970.
</P>
<P>c. Correlations of appropriate transient CHF data may be accepted for use in LOCA transient analyses if comparisons between the data and the correlations are provided to demonstrate that the correlations predict values of CHF which allow for uncertainty in the experimental data throughout the range of parameters for which the correlations are to be used. Where appropriate, the comparisons shall use statistical uncertainty analysis of the data to demonstrate the conservatism of the transient correlation.
</P>
<P>d. Transient CHF correlations acceptable for use in LOCA transients include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>GE transient CHF.</I> B. C. Slifer, J. E. Hench, “Loss-of-Coolant Accident and Emergency Core Cooling Models for General Electric Boiling Water Reactors,” NEDO-10329, General Electric Company, Equation C-32, April 1971.
</P>
<P>e. After CHF is first predicted at an axial fuel rod location during blowdown, the calculation shall not use nucleate boiling heat transfer correlations at that location subsequently during the blowdown even if the calculated local fluid and surface conditions would apparently justify the reestablishment of nucleate boiling. Heat transfer assumptions characteristic of return to nucleate boiling (rewetting) shall be permitted when justified by the calculated local fluid and surface conditions during the reflood portion of a LOCA.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Post-CHF Heat Transfer Correlations.</I> a. Correlations of heat transfer from the fuel cladding to the surrounding fluid in the post-CHF regimes of transition and film boiling shall be compared to applicable steady-state and transient-state data using statistical correlation and uncertainty analyses. Such comparison shall demonstrate that the correlations predict values of heat transfer co-efficient equal to or less than the mean value of the applicable experimental heat transfer data throughout the range of parameters for which the correlations are to be used. The comparisons shall quantify the relation of the correlations to the statistical uncertainty of the applicable data.
</P>
<P>b. The Groeneveld flow film boiling correlation (equation 5.7 of D.C. Groeneveld, “An Investigation of Heat Transfer in the Liquid Deficient Regime,” AECL-3281, revised December 1969) and the Westinghouse correlation of steady-state transition boiling (“Proprietary Redirect/Rebuttal Testimony of Westinghouse Electric Corporation,” USNRC Docket RM-50-1, page 25-1, October 26, 1972) are acceptable for use in the post-CHF boiling regimes. In addition, the transition boiling correlation of McDonough, Milich, and King (J.B. McDonough, W. Milich, E.C. King, “An Experimental Study of Partial Film Boiling Region with Water at Elevated Pressures in a Round Vertical Tube,” Chemical Engineering Progress Symposium Series, Vol. 57, No. 32, pages 197-208, (1961) is suitable for use between nucleate and film boiling. Use of all these correlations is restricted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The Groeneveld correlation shall not be used in the region near its low-pressure singularity,
</P>
<P>(2) The first term (nucleate) of the Westinghouse correlation and the entire McDonough, Milich, and King correlation shall not be used during the blowdown after the temperature difference between the clad and the saturated fluid first exceeds 300 °F,
</P>
<P>(3) Transition boiling heat transfer shall not be reapplied for the remainder of the LOCA blowdown, even if the clad superheat returns below 300 °F, except for the reflood portion of the LOCA when justified by the calculated local fluid and surface conditions.
</P>
<P>c. Evaluation models approved after October 17, 1988, which make use of the Dougall-Rohsenow flow film boiling correlation (R.S. Dougall and W.M. Rohsenow, “Film Boiling on the Inside of Vertical Tubes with Upward Flow of Fluid at Low Qualities,” MIT Report Number 9079 26, Cambridge, Massachusetts, September 1963) may not use this correlation under conditions where nonconservative predictions of heat transfer result. Evaluation models that make use of the Dougall-Rohsenow correlation and were approved prior to October 17, 1988, continue to be acceptable until a change is made to, or an error is corrected in, the evaluation model that results in a significant reduction in the overall conservatism in the evaluation model. At that time continued use of the Dougall-Rohsenow correlation under conditions where nonconservative predictions of heat transfer result will no longer be acceptable. For this purpose, a significant reduction in the overall conservatism in the evaluation model would be a reduction in the calculated peak fuel cladding temperature of at least 50 °F from that which would have been calculated on October 17, 1988, due either to individual changes or error corrections or the net effect of an accumulation of changes or error corrections.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Pump Modeling.</I> The characteristics of rotating primary system pumps (axial flow, turbine, or centrifugal) shall be derived from a dynamic model that includes momentum transfer between the fluid and the rotating member, with variable pump speed as a function of time. The pump model resistance used for analysis should be justified. The pump model for the two-phase region shall be verified by applicable two-phase pump performance data. For BWR's after saturation is calculated at the pump suction, the pump head may be assumed to vary linearly with quality, going to zero for one percent quality at the pump suction, so long as the analysis shows that core flow stops before the quality at pump suction reaches one percent.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Core Flow Distribution During Blowdown.</I> (Applies only to pressurized water reactors.)
</P>
<P>a. The flow rate through the hot region of the core during blowdown shall be calculated as a function of time. For the purpose of these calculations the hot region chosen shall not be greater than the size of one fuel assembly. Calculations of average flow and flow in the hot region shall take into account cross flow between regions and any flow blockage calculated to occur during blowdown as a result of cladding swelling or rupture. The calculated flow shall be smoothed to eliminate any calculated rapid oscillations (period less than 0.1 seconds).
</P>
<P>b. A method shall be specified for determining the enthalpy to be used as input data to the hot channel heatup analysis from quantities calculated in the blowdown analysis, consistent with the flow distribution calculations.
</P>
<HD2>D. Post-Blowdown Phenomena; Heat Removal by the ECCS
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Single Failure Criterion.</I> An analysis of possible failure modes of ECCS equipment and of their effects on ECCS performance must be made. In carrying out the accident evaluation the combination of ECCS subsystems assumed to be operative shall be those available after the most damaging single failure of ECCS equipment has taken place.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Containment Pressure.</I> The containment pressure used for evaluating cooling effectiveness during reflood and spray cooling shall not exceed a pressure calculated conservatively for this purpose. The calculation shall include the effects of operation of all installed pressure-reducing systems and processes.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Calculation of Reflood Rate for Pressurized Water Reactors.</I> The refilling of the reactor vessel and the time and rate of reflooding of the core shall be calculated by an acceptable model that takes into consideration the thermal and hydraulic characteristics of the core and of the reactor system. The primary system coolant pumps shall be assumed to have locked impellers if this assumption leads to the maximum calculated cladding temperature; otherwise the pump rotor shall be assumed to be running free. The ratio of the total fluid flow at the core exit plane to the total liquid flow at the core inlet plane (carryover fraction) shall be used to determine the core exit flow and shall be determined in accordance with applicable experimental data (for example, “PWR FLECHT (Full Length Emergency Cooling Heat Transfer) Final Report,” Westinghouse Report WCAP-7665, April 1971; “PWR Full Length Emergency Cooling Heat Transfer (FLECHT) Group I Test Report,” Westinghouse Report WCAP-7435, January 1970; “PWR FLECHT (Full Length Emergency Cooling Heat Transfer) Group II Test Report,” Westinghouse Report WCAP-7544, September 1970; “PWR FLECHT Final Report Supplement,” Westinghouse Report WCAP-7931, October 1972).
</P>
<P>The effects on reflooding rate of the compressed gas in the accumulator which is discharged following accumulator water discharge shall also be taken into account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Steam Interaction with Emergency Core Cooling Water in Pressurized Water Reactors.</I> The thermal-hydraulic interaction between steam and all emergency core cooling water shall be taken into account in calculating the core reflooding rate. During refill and reflood, the calculated steam flow in unbroken reactor coolant pipes shall be taken to be zero during the time that accumulators are discharging water into those pipes unless experimental evidence is available regarding the realistic thermal-hydraulic interaction between the steam and the liquid. In this case, the experimental data may be used to support an alternate assumption.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Refill and Reflood Heat Transfer for Pressurized Water Reactors.</I> a. For reflood rates of one inch per second or higher, reflood heat transfer coefficients shall be based on applicable experimental data for unblocked cores including FLECHT results (“PWR FLECHT (Full Length Emergency Cooling Heat Transfer) Final Report,” Westinghouse Report WCAP-7665, April 1971). The use of a correlation derived from FLECHT data shall be demonstrated to be conservative for the transient to which it is applied; presently available FLECHT heat transfer correlations (“PWR Full Length Emergency Cooling Heat Transfer (FLECHT) Group I Test Report,” Westinghouse Report WCAP-7544, September 1970; “PWR FLECHT Final Report Supplement,” Westinghouse Report WCAP-7931, October 1972) are not acceptable. Westinghouse Report WCAP-7665 has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of this report is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. New correlations or modifications to the FLECHT heat transfer correlations are acceptable only after they are demonstrated to be conservative, by comparison with FLECHT data, for a range of parameters consistent with the transient to which they are applied.
</P>
<P>b. During refill and during reflood when reflood rates are less than one inch per second, heat transfer calculations shall be based on the assumption that cooling is only by steam, and shall take into account any flow blockage calculated to occur as a result of cladding swelling or rupture as such blockage might affect both local steam flow and heat transfer.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Convective Heat Transfer Coefficients for Boiling Water Reactor Fuel Rods Under Spray Cooling.</I> Following the blowdown period, convective heat transfer shall be calculated using coefficients based on appropriate experimental data. For reactors with jet pumps and having fuel rods in a 7 × 7 fuel assembly array, the following convective coefficients are acceptable:
</P>
<P>a. During the period following lower plenum flashing but prior to the core spray reaching rated flow, a convective heat transfer coefficient of zero shall be applied to all fuel rods.
</P>
<P>b. During the period after core spray reaches rated flow but prior to reflooding, convective heat transfer coefficients of 3.0, 3.5, 1.5, and 1.5 Btu-hr <E T="51">−1</E>-ft <E T="51">−2</E> °F <E T="51">−1</E> shall be applied to the fuel rods in the outer corners, outer row, next to outer row, and to those remaining in the interior, respectively, of the assembly.
</P>
<P>c. After the two-phase reflooding fluid reaches the level under consideration, a convective heat transfer coefficient of 25 Btu-hr <E T="51">−1</E>-ft <E T="51">−2</E> °F <E T="51">−1</E> shall be applied to all fuel rods.
</P>
<P>7. <I>The Boiling Water Reactor Channel Box Under Spray Cooling.</I> Following the blowdown period, heat transfer from, and wetting of, the channel box shall be based on appropriate experimental data. For reactors with jet pumps and fuel rods in a 7 × 7 fuel assembly array, the following heat transfer coefficients and wetting time correlation are acceptable.
</P>
<P>a. During the period after lower plenum flashing, but prior to core spray reaching rated flow, a convective coefficient of zero shall be applied to the fuel assembly channel box.
</P>
<P>b. During the period after core spray reaches rated flow, but prior to wetting of the channel, a convective heat transfer coefficient of 5 Btu-hr <E T="51">−1</E>-ft <E T="51">−2</E>- °F <E T="51">−1</E> shall be applied to both sides of the channel box.
</P>
<P>c. Wetting of the channel box shall be assumed to occur 60 seconds after the time determined using the correlation based on the Yamanouchi analysis (“Loss-of-Coolant Accident and Emergency Core Cooling Models for General Electric Boiling Water Reactors,” General Electric Company Report NEDO-10329, April 1971). This report was approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of the report is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738.
</P>
<HD1>II. Required Documentation
</HD1>
<P>1. a. A description of each evaluation model shall be furnished. The description shall be sufficiently complete to permit technical review of the analytical approach including the equations used, their approximations in difference form, the assumptions made, and the values of all parameters or the procedure for their selection, as for example, in accordance with a specified physical law or empirical correlation.
</P>
<P>b. A complete listing of each computer program, in the same form as used in the evaluation model, must be furnished to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission upon request.
</P>
<P>2. For each computer program, solution convergence shall be demonstrated by studies of system modeling or noding and calculational time steps.
</P>
<P>3. Appropriate sensitivity studies shall be performed for each evaluation model, to evaluate the effect on the calculated results of variations in noding, phenomena assumed in the calculation to predominate, including pump operation or locking, and values of parameters over their applicable ranges. For items to which results are shown to be sensitive, the choices made shall be justified.
</P>
<P>4. To the extent practicable, predictions of the evaluation model, or portions thereof, shall be compared with applicable experimental information.
</P>
<P>5. General Standards for Acceptability—Elements of evaluation models reviewed will include technical adequacy of the calculational methods, including: For models covered by § 50.46(a)(1)(ii), compliance with required features of section I of this appendix K; and, for models covered by § 50.46(a)(1)(i), assurance of a high level of probability that the performance criteria of § 50.46(b) would not be exceeded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 1003, Jan. 4, 1974, as amended at 51 FR 40311, Nov. 6, 1986; 53 FR 36005, Sept. 16, 1988; 57 FR 61786, Dec. 29, 1992; 59 FR 50689, Oct. 5, 1994; 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 65 FR 34921, June 1, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes L-M to Part 50 [Reserved] 


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix N" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix N to Part 50—Standardization of Nuclear Power Plant Designs: Permits To Construct and Licenses To Operate Nuclear Power Reactors of Identical Design at Multiple Sites
</HEAD>
<P>Section 101 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and § 50.10 of this part require a Commission license to transfer or receive in interstate commerce, manufacture, produce, transfer, acquire, possess, use, import or export any production or utilization facility. The regulations in this part require the issuance of a construction permit by the Commission before commencement of construction of a production or utilization facility, except as provided in § 50.10(e), and the issuance of an operating license before operation of the facility.
</P>
<P>The Commission's regulations in part 2 of this chapter specifically provide for the holding of hearings on particular issues separately from other issues involved in hearings in licensing proceedings (§ 2.761a, appendix A, section I(c)), and for the consolidation of adjudicatory proceedings and of the presentations of parties in adjudicatory proceedings such as licensing proceedings (§§ 2.715a, 2.716).
</P>
<P>This appendix sets out the particular requirements and provisions applicable to situations in which applications are filed by one or more applicants for licenses to construct and operate nuclear power reactors of essentially the same design to be located at different sites. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> If the design for the power reactor(s) proposed in a particular application is not identical to the others, that application may not be processed under this appendix and subpart D of part 2 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>1. Except as otherwise specified in this appendix or as the context otherwise indicates, the provisions of this part applicable to construction permits and operating licenses, including the requirement in § 50.58 for review of the application by the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards and the holding of public hearings, apply to construction permits and operating licenses subject to this appendix N.
</P>
<P>2. Applications for construction permits submitted pursuant to this appendix must include the information required by §§ 50.33, 50.34(a) and 50.34a(a) and (b) and be submitted as specified in § 50.4. The applicant shall also submit the information required by § 51.50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>3. Applications for operating licenses submitted pursuant to this appendix N shall include the information required by §§ 50.33, 50.34(b) and (c), and 50.34a(c). The applicant shall also submit the information required by § 51.53 of this chapter. For the technical information required by §§ 50.34(b)(2) through (5) and 50.34a(c), reference may be made to a single final safety analysis of the design.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 2977, Jan. 17, 1975, as amended at 49 FR 9405, Mar. 12, 1984; 51 FR 40311, Nov. 6, 1986; 70 FR 61888, Oct. 27, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.36" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes O-P to Part 50 [Reserved] 


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix Q" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.37" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix Q to Part 50—Pre-Application Early Review of Site Suitability Issues
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix sets out procedures for the filing, Staff review, and referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards of requests for early review of one or more site suitability issues relating to the construction and operation of certain utilization facilities separately from and prior to the submittal of applications for construction permits for the facilities. The appendix also sets out procedures for the preparation and issuance of Staff Site Reports and for their incorporation by reference in applications for the construction and operation of certain utilization facilities. The utilization facilities are those which are subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and are of the type specified in § 50.21(b) (2) or (3) or § 50.22 or are testing facilities. This appendix does not apply to proceedings conducted pursuant to subpart F of part 2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>1. Any person may submit information regarding one or more site suitability issues to the Commission's Staff for its review separately from and prior to an application for a construction permit for a facility. Such a submittal shall be accompanied by any fee required by part 170 of this chapter and shall consist of the portion of the information required of applicants for construction permits by §§ 50.33(a)-(c) and (e), and, insofar as it relates to the issue(s) of site suitability for which early review is sought, by §§ 50.34(a)(1) and 50.30(f), except that information with respect to operation of the facility at the projected initial power level need not be supplied.
</P>
<P>2. The submittal for early review of site suitability issue(s) must be made in the same manner and in the same number of copies as provided in §§ 50.4 and 50.30 for license applications. The submittal must include sufficient information concerning a range of postulated facility design and operation parameters to enable the Staff to perform the requested review of site suitability issues. The submittal must contain suggested conclusions on the issues of site suitability submitted for review and must be accompanied by a statement of the bases or the reasons for those conclusions. The submittal must also list, to the extent possible, any long-range objectives for ultimate development of the site, state whether any site selection process was used in preparing the submittal, describe any site selection process used, and explain what consideration, if any, was given to alternative sites.
</P>
<P>3. The Staff shall publish a notice of docketing of the submittal in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and shall send a copy of the notice of docketing to the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the site is located. This notice shall identify the location of the site, briefly describe the site suitability issue(s) under review, and invite comments from Federal, State, and local agencies and interested persons within 120 days of publication or such other time as may be specified, for consideration by the staff in connection with the initiation or outcome of the review and, if appropriate by the ACRS, in connection with the outcome of their review. The person requesting review shall serve a copy of the submittal on the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the site is located, and on the chief executive of the municipality in which the site is located or, if the site is not located in a municipality, on the chief executive of the county. The portion of the submittal containing information required of applicants for construction permits by §§ 50.33(a)-(c) and (e) and 50.34(a)(1) will be referred to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) for a review and report. There will be no referral to the ACRS unless early review of the site safety issues under § 50.34(a)(1) is requested.
</P>
<P>4. Upon completion of review by the NRC staff and, if appropriate by the ACRS, of a submittal under this appendix, the NRC staff shall prepare a Staff Site Report which shall identify the location of the site, state the site suitability issues reviewed, explain the nature and scope of the review, state the conclusions of the staff regarding the issues reviewed and state the reasons for those conclusions. Upon issuance of an NRC Staff Site Report, the NRC staff shall publish a notice of the availability of the report in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall make the report available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I> The NRC staff shall also send a copy of the report to the Governor or other appropriate official of the State in which the site is located, and to the chief executive of the municipality in which the site is located or, if the site is not located in a municipality, to the chief executive of the county.
</P>
<P>5. Any Staff Site Report prepared and issued in accordance with this appendix may be incorporated by reference, as appropriate, in an application for a construction permit for a utilization facility which is subject to § 51.20(b) of this chapter and is of the type specified in § 50.21(b) (2) or (3) or § 50.22 of this chapter or is a testing facility. The conclusions of the Staff Site Report will be reexamined by the staff where five years or more have elapsed between the issuance of the Staff Site Report and its incorporation by reference in a construction permit application.
</P>
<P>6. Issuance of a Staff Site Report shall not constitute a commitment to issue a permit or license, to permit on-site work under § 50.10(e), or in any way affect the authority of the Commission, Atomic Safety and Licensing Appeal Panel, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, and other presiding officers in any proceeding under subpart F and/or G of part 2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>7. The staff will not conduct more than one review of site suitability issues with regard to a particular site prior to the full construction permit review required by subpart A of part 51 of this chapter. The staff may decline to prepare and issue a Staff Site Report in response to a submittal under this appendix where it appears that, (a) in cases where no review of the relative merits of the submitted site and alternative sites under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter is requested, there is a reasonable likelihood that further Staff review would identify one or more preferable alternative sites and the Staff review of one or more site suitability issues would lead to an irreversible and irretrievable commitment of resources prior to the submittal of the analysis of alternative sites in the Environmental Report that would prejudice the later review and decision on alternative sites under subpart F and/or G of part 2 and subpart A of part 51 of this chapter; or (b) in cases where, in the judgment of the Staff, early review of any site suitability issue or issues would not be in the public interest, considering (1) the degree of likelihood that any early findings on those issues would retain their validity in later reviews, (2) the objections, if any, of cognizant state or local government agencies to the conduct of an early review on those issues, and (3) the possible effect on the public interest of having an early, if not necessarily conclusive, resolution of those issues.
</P>
<P>8. This appendix shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this appendix and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this appendix accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 22887, May 5, 1977, as amended at 49 FR 9405, Mar. 12, 1984; 51 FR 40311, Nov. 6, 1986; 53 FR 43420, Oct. 27, 1988; 64 FR 48952, Sept. 9, 1999; 90 FR 55630, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix R" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.38" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix R to Part 50—Fire Protection Program for Nuclear Power Facilities Operating Prior to January 1, 1979




</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction and Scope
</HD1>
<P>This appendix applies to licensed nuclear power electric generating stations that were operating prior to January 1, 1979, except to the extent set forth in § 50.48(b) of this part. With respect to certain generic issues for such facilities it sets forth fire protection features required to satisfy Criterion 3 of appendix A to this part. 
</P>
<P>Criterion 3 of appendix A to this part specifies that “Structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed and located to minimize, consistent with other safety requirements, the probability and effect of fires and explosions.”
</P>
<P>When considering the effects of fire, those systems associated with achieving and maintaining safe shutdown conditions assume major importance to safety because damage to them can lead to core damage resulting from loss of coolant through boiloff.
</P>
<P>The phrases “important to safety,” or “safety-related,” will be used throughout this appendix R as applying to all safety functions. The phrase “safe shutdown” will be used throughout this appendix as applying to both hot and cold shutdown functions.
</P>
<P>Because fire may affect safe shutdown systems and because the loss of function of systems used to mitigate the consequences of design basis accidents under postfire conditions does not per se impact public safety, the need to limit fire damage to systems required to achieve and maintain safe shutdown conditions is greater than the need to limit fire damage to those systems required to mitigate the consequences of design basis accidents. Three levels of fire damage limits are established according to the safety functions of the structure, system, or component:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Safety function
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fire damage limits
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Shutdown</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One train of equipment necessary to achieve hot shutdown from either the control room or emergency control station(s) must be maintained free of fire damage by a single fire, including an exposure fire. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cold Shutdown</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Both trains of equipment necessary to achieve cold shutdown may be damaged by a single fire, including an exposure fire, but damage must be limited so that at least one train can be repaired or made operable within 72 hours using onsite capability.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Design Basis Accidents</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Both trains of equipment necessary for mitigation of consequences following design basis accidents may be damaged by a single exposure fire.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">Exposure Fire.</E> An exposure fire is a fire in a given area that involves either in situ or transient combustibles and is external to any structures, systems, or components located in or adjacent to that same area. The effects of such fire (e.g., smoke, heat, or ignition) can adversely affect those structures, systems, or components important to safety. Thus, a fire involving one train of safe shutdown equipment may constitute an exposure fire for the redundant train located in the same area, and a fire involving combustibles other than either redundant train may constitute an exposure fire to both redundant trains located in the same area.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The most stringent fire damage limit shall apply for those systems that fall into more than one category. Redundant systems used to mitigate the consequences of other design basis accidents but not necessary for safe shutdown may be lost to a single exposure fire. However, protection shall be provided so that a fire within only one such system will not damage the redundant system.
</P>
<HD1>II. General Requirements
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Fire protection program.</I> A fire protection program shall be established at each nuclear power plant. The program shall establish the fire protection policy for the protection of structures, systems, and components important to safety at each plant and the procedures, equipment, and personnel required to implement the program at the plant site.
</P>
<P>The fire protection program shall be under the direction of an individual who has been delegated authority commensurate with the responsibilities of the position and who has available staff personnel knowledgeable in both fire protection and nuclear safety.
</P>
<P>The fire protection program shall extend the concept of defense-in-depth to fire protection in fire areas important to safety, with the following objectives:
</P>
<P>• To prevent fires from starting;
</P>
<P>• To detect rapidly, control, and extinguish promptly those fires that do occur;
</P>
<P>• To provide protection for structures, systems, and components important to safety so that a fire that is not promptly extinguished by the fire suppression activities will not prevent the safe shutdown of the plant.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Fire hazards analysis.</I> A fire hazards analysis shall be performed by qualified fire protection and reactor systems engineers to (1) consider potential in situ and transient fire hazards; (2) determine the consequences of fire in any location in the plant on the ability to safely shut down the reactor or on the ability to minimize and control the release of radioactivity to the environment; and (3) specify measures for fire prevention, fire detection, fire suppression, and fire containment and alternative shutdown capability as required for each fire area containing structures, systems, and components important to safety in accordance with NRC guidelines and regulations.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Fire prevention features.</I> Fire protection features shall meet the following general requirements for all fire areas that contain or present a fire hazard to structures, systems, or components important to safety.
</P>
<P>1. In situ fire hazards shall be identified and suitable protection provided.
</P>
<P>2. Transient fire hazards associated with normal operation, maintenance, repair, or modification activities shall be identified and eliminated where possible. Those transient fire hazards that can not be eliminated shall be controlled and suitable protection provided.
</P>
<P>3. Fire detection systems, portable extinguishers, and standpipe and hose stations shall be installed.
</P>
<P>4. Fire barriers or automatic suppression systems or both shall be installed as necessary to protect redundant systems or components necessary for safe shutdown.
</P>
<P>5. A site fire brigade shall be established, trained, and equipped and shall be on site at all times.
</P>
<P>6. Fire detection and suppression systems shall be designed, installed, maintained, and tested by personnel properly qualified by experience and training in fire protection systems.
</P>
<P>7. Surveillance procedures shall be established to ensure that fire barriers are in place and that fire suppression systems and components are operable.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Alternative or dedicated shutdown capability.</I> In areas where the fire protection features cannot ensure safe shutdown capability in the event of a fire in that area, alternative or dedicated safe shutdown capability shall be provided.
</P>
<HD1>III. Specific Requirements
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Water supplies for fire suppression systems.</I> Two separate water supplies shall be provided to furnish necessary water volume and pressure to the fire main loop.
</P>
<P>Each supply shall consist of a storage tank, pump, piping, and appropriate isolation and control valves. Two separate redundant suctions in one or more intake structures from a large body of water (river, lake, etc.) will satisfy the requirement for two separated water storage tanks. These supplies shall be separated so that a failure of one supply will not result in a failure of the other supply.
</P>
<P>Each supply of the fire water distribution system shall be capable of providing for a period of 2 hours the maximum expected water demands as determined by the fire hazards analysis for safety-related areas or other areas that present a fire exposure hazard to safety-related areas.
</P>
<P>When storage tanks are used for combined service-water/fire-water uses the minimum volume for fire uses shall be ensured by means of dedicated tanks or by some physical means such as a vertical standpipe for other water service. Administrative controls, including locks for tank outlet valves, are unacceptable as the only means to ensure minimum water volume.
</P>
<P>Other water systems used as one of the two fire water supplies shall be permanently connected to the fire main system and shall be capable of automatic alignment to the fire main system. Pumps, controls, and power supplies in these systems shall satisfy the requirements for the main fire pumps. The use of other water systems for fire protection shall not be incompatible with their functions required for safe plant shutdown. Failure of the other system shall not degrade the fire main system.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Sectional isolation valves.</I> Sectional isolation valves such as post indicator valves or key operated valves shall be installed in the fire main loop to permit isolation of portions of the fire main loop for maintenance or repair without interrupting the entire water supply.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Hydrant isolation valves.</I> Valves shall be installed to permit isolation of outside hydrants from the fire main for maintenance or repair without interrupting the water supply to automatic or manual fire suppression systems in any area containing or presenting a fire hazard to safety-related or safe shutdown equipment.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Manual fire suppression.</I> Standpipe and hose systems shall be installed so that at least one effective hose stream will be able to reach any location that contains or presents an exposure fire hazard to structures, systems, or components important to safety.
</P>
<P>Access to permit effective functioning of the fire brigade shall be provided to all areas that contain or present an exposure fire hazard to structures, systems, or components important to safety.
</P>
<P>Standpipe and hose stations shall be inside PWR containments and BWR containments that are not inerted. Standpipe and hose stations inside containment may be connected to a high quality water supply of sufficient quantity and pressure other than the fire main loop if plant-specific features prevent extending the fire main supply inside containment. For BWR drywells, standpipe and hose stations shall be placed outside the dry well with adequate lengths of hose to reach any location inside the dry well with an effective hose stream.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Hydrostatic hose tests.</I> Fire hose shall be hydrostatically tested at a pressure of 150 psi or 50 psi above maximum fire main operating pressure, whichever is greater. Hose stored in outside hose houses shall be tested annually. Interior standpipe hose shall be tested every three years.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Automatic fire detection.</I> Automatic fire detection systems shall be installed in all areas of the plant that contain or present an exposure fire hazard to safe shutdown or safety-related systems or components. These fire detection systems shall be capable of operating with or without offsite power.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Fire protection of safe shutdown capability.</I> 1. Fire protection features shall be provided for structures, systems, and components important to safe shutdown. These features shall be capable of limiting fire damage so that:
</P>
<P>a. One train of systems necessary to achieve and maintain hot shutdown conditions from either the control room or emergency control station(s) is free of fire damage; and
</P>
<P>b. Systems necessary to achieve and maintain cold shutdown from either the control room or emergency control station(s) can be repaired within 72 hours.
</P>
<P>2. Except as provided for in paragraph G.3 of this section, where cables or equipment, including associated non-safety circuits that could prevent operation or cause maloperation due to hot shorts, open circuits, or shorts to ground, of redundant trains of systems necessary to achieve and maintain hot shutdown conditions are located within the same fire area outside of primary containment, one of the following means of ensuring that one of the redundant trains is free of fire damage shall be provided:
</P>
<P>a. Separation of cables and equipment and associated non-safety circuits of redundant trains by a fire barrier having a 3-hour rating. Structural steel forming a part of or supporting such fire barriers shall be protected to provide fire resistance equivalent to that required of the barrier;
</P>
<P>b. Separation of cables and equipment and associated non-safety circuits of redundant trains by a horizontal distance of more than 20 feet with no intervening combustible or fire hazards. In addition, fire detectors and an automatic fire suppression system shall be installed in the fire area; or
</P>
<P>c. Enclosure of cable and equipment and associated non-safety circuits of one redundant train in a fire barrier having a 1-hour rating, In addition, fire detectors and an automatic fire suppression system shall be installed in the fire area;
</P>
<P>Inside noninerted containments one of the fire protection means specified above or one of the following fire protection means shall be provided:
</P>
<P>d. Separation of cables and equipment and associated non-safety circuits of redundant trains by a horizontal distance of more than 20 feet with no intervening combustibles or fire hazards;
</P>
<P>e. Installation of fire detectors and an automatic fire suppression system in the fire area; or
</P>
<P>f. Separation of cables and equipment and associated non-safety circuits of redundant trains by a noncombustible radiant energy shield.
</P>
<P>3. Alternative or dedicated shutdown capability and its associated circuits, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> independent of cables, systems or components in the area, room, zone under consideration should be provided: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Alternative shutdown capability is provided by rerouting, relocating, or modifying existing systems; dedicated shutdown capability is provided by installing new structures and systems for the function of post-fire shutdown.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. Where the protection of systems whose function is required for hot shutdown does not satisfy the requirement of paragraph G.2 of this section; or
</P>
<P>b. Where redundant trains of systems required for hot shutdown located in the same fire area may be subject to damage from fire suppression activities or from the rupture or inadvertent operation of fire suppression systems.
</P>
<P>In addition, fire detection and a fixed fire suppression system shall be installed in the area, room, or zone under consideration.
</P>
<P>H. <I>Fire brigade.</I> A site fire brigade trained and equipped for fire fighting shall be established to ensure adequate manual fire fighting capability for all areas of the plant containing structures, systems, or components important to safety. The fire brigade shall be at least five members on each shift. The brigade leader and at least two brigade members shall have sufficient training in or knowledge of plant safety-related systems to understand the effects of fire and fire suppressants on safe shutdown capability. The qualification of fire brigade members shall include an annual physical examination to determine their ability to perform strenuous fire fighting activities. The shift supervisor shall not be a member of the fire brigade. The brigade leader shall be competent to assess the potential safety consequences of a fire and advise control room personnel. Such competence by the brigade leader may be evidenced by possession of an operator's license or equivalent knowledge of plant safety-related systems.
</P>
<P>The minimum equipment provided for the brigade shall consist of personal protective equipment such as turnout coats, boots, gloves, hard hats, emergency communications equipment, portable lights, portable ventilation equipment, and portable extinguishers. Self-contained breathing apparatus using full-face positive-pressure masks approved by NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health—approval formerly given by the U.S. Bureau of Mines) shall be provided for fire brigade, damage control, and control room personnel. At least 10 masks shall be available for fire brigade personnel. Control room personnel may be furnished breathing air by a manifold system piped from a storage reservoir if practical. Service or rated operating life shall be a minimum of one-half hour for the self-contained units.
</P>
<P>At least a 1-hour supply of breathing air in extra bottles shall be located on the plant site for each unit of self-contained breathing appratus. In addition, an onsite 6-hour supply of reserve air shall be provided and arranged to permit quick and complete replenishment of exhausted air supply bottles as they are returned. If compressors are used as a source of breathing air, only units approved for breathing air shall be used and the compressors shall be operable assuming a loss of offsite power. Special care must be taken to locate the compressor in areas free of dust and contaminants.
</P>
<P>I. <I>Fire brigade training.</I> The fire brigade training program shall ensure that the capability to fight potential fires is established and maintained. The program shall consist of an initial classroom instruction program followed by periodic classroom instruction, fire fighting practice, and fire drills:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Instruction</I>
</P>
<P>a. The initial classroom instruction shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Indoctrination of the plant fire fighting plan with specific identification of each individual's responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the type and location of fire hazards and associated types of fires that could occur in the plant.
</P>
<P>(3) The toxic and corrosive characteristics of expected products of combustion.
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of the location of fire fighting equipment for each fire area and familiarization with the layout of the plant, including access and egress routes to each area.
</P>
<P>(5) The proper use of available fire fighting equipment and the correct method of fighting each type of fire. The types of fires covered should include fires in energized electrical equipment, fires in cables and cable trays, hydrogen fires, fires involving flammable and combustible liquids or hazardous process chemicals, fires resulting from construction or modifications (welding), and record file fires.
</P>
<P>(6) The proper use of communication, lighting, ventilation, and emergency breathing equipment.
</P>
<P>(7) The proper method for fighting fires inside buildings and confined spaces.
</P>
<P>(8) The direction and coordination of the fire fighting activities (fire brigade leaders only).
</P>
<P>(9) Detailed review of fire fighting strategies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(10) Review of the latest plant modifications and corresponding changes in fire fighting plans.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Items (9) and (10) may be deleted from the training of no more than two of the non-operations personnel who may be assigned to the fire brigade.</P></NOTE>
<P>b. The instruction shall be provided by qualified individuals who are knowledgeable, experienced, and suitably trained in fighting the types of fires that could occur in the plant and in using the types of equipment available in the nuclear power plant.
</P>
<P>c. Instruction shall be provided to all fire brigade members and fire brigade leaders.
</P>
<P>d. Regular planned meetings shall be held at least every 3 months for all brigade members to review changes in the fire protection program and other subjects as necessary.
</P>
<P>e. Periodic refresher training sessions shall be held to repeat the classroom instruction program for all brigade members over a two-year period. These sessions may be concurrent with the regular planned meetings.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Practice</I>
</P>
<P>Practice sessions shall be held for each shift fire brigade on the proper method of fighting the various types of fires that could occur in a nuclear power plant. These sessions shall provide brigade members with experience in actual fire extinguishment and the use of emergency breathing apparatus under strenuous conditions encountered in fire fighting. These practice sessions shall be provided at least once per year for each fire brigade member.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Drills</I>
</P>
<P>a. Fire brigade drills shall be performed in the plant so that the fire brigade can practice as a team.
</P>
<P>b. Drills shall be performed at regular intervals not to exceed 3 months for each shift fire brigade. Each fire brigade member should participate in each drill, but must participate in at least two drills per year.
</P>
<P>A sufficient number of these drills, but not less than one for each shift fire brigade per year, shall be unannounced to determine the fire fighting readiness of the plant fire brigade, brigade leader, and fire protection systems and equipment. Persons planning and authorizing an unannounced drill shall ensure that the responding shift fire brigade members are not aware that a drill is being planned until it is begun. Unannounced drills shall not be scheduled closer than four weeks.
</P>
<P>At least one drill per year shall be performed on a “back shift” for each shift fire brigade.
</P>
<P>c. The drills shall be preplanned to establish the training objectives of the drill and shall be critiqued to determine how well the training objectives have been met. Unannounced drills shall be planned and critiqued by members of the management staff responsible for plant safety and fire protection. Performance deficiencies of a fire brigade or of individual fire brigade members shall be remedied by scheduling additional training for the brigade or members. Unsatisfactory drill performance shall be followed by a repeat drill within 30 days.
</P>
<P>d. At 3-year intervals, a randomly selected unannounced drill must be critiqued by qualified individuals independent of the licensee's staff. A copy of the written report from these individuals must be available for NRC review and shall be retained as a record as specified in section III.I.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. Drills shall as a minimum include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Assessment of fire alarm effectiveness, time required to notify and assemble fire brigade, and selection, placement and use of equipment, and fire fighting strategies.
</P>
<P>(2) Assessment of each brigade member's knowledge of his or her role in the fire fighting strategy for the area assumed to contain the fire. Assessment of the brigade member's conformance with established plant fire fighting procedures and use of fire fighting equipment, including self-contained emergency breathing apparatus, communication equipment, and ventilation equipment, to the extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(3) The simulated use of fire fighting equipment required to cope with the situation and type of fire selected for the drill. The area and type of fire chosen for the drill should differ from those used in the previous drill so that brigade members are trained in fighting fires in various plant areas. The situation selected should simulate the size and arrangement of a fire that could reasonably occur in the area selected, allowing for fire development due to the time required to respond, to obtain equipment, and organize for the fire, assuming loss of automatic suppression capability.
</P>
<P>(4) Assessment of brigade leader's direction of the fire fighting effort as to thoroughness, accuracy, and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Records</I>
</P>
<P>Individual records of training provided to each fire brigade member, including drill critiques, shall be maintained for at least 3 years to ensure that each member receives training in all parts of the training program. These records of training shall be available for NRC review. Retraining or broadened training for fire fighting within buildings shall be scheduled for all those brigade members whose performance records show deficiencies.
</P>
<P>J. <I>Emergency lighting.</I> Emergency lighting units with at least an 8-hour battery power supply shall be provided in all areas needed for operation of safe shutdown equipment and in access and egress routes thereto.
</P>
<P>K. <I>Administrative controls.</I> Administrative controls shall be established to minimize fire hazards in areas containing structures, systems, and components important to safety. These controls shall establish procedures to:
</P>
<P>1. Govern the handling and limitation of the use of ordinary combustible materials, combustible and flammable gases and liquids, high efficiency particulate air and charcoal filters, dry ion exchange resins, or other combustible supplies in safety-related areas.
</P>
<P>2. Prohibit the storage of combustibles in safety-related areas or establish designated storage areas with appropriate fire protection.
</P>
<P>3. Govern the handling of and limit transient fire loads such as combustible and flammable liquids, wood and plastic products, or other combustible materials in buildings containing safety-related systems or equipment during all phases of operating, and especially during maintenance, modification, or refueling operations.
</P>
<P>4. Designate the onsite staff member responsible for the inplant fire protection review of proposed work activities to identify potential transient fire hazards and specify required additional fire protection in the work activity procedure.
</P>
<P>5. Govern the use of ignition sources by use of a flame permit system to control welding, flame cutting, brazing, or soldering operations. A separate permit shall be issued for each area where work is to be done. If work continues over more than one shift, the permit shall be valid for not more than 24 hours when the plant is operating or for the duration of a particular job during plant shutdown.
</P>
<P>6. Control the removal from the area of all waste, debris, scrap, oil spills, or other combustibles resulting from the work activity immediately following completion of the activity, or at the end of each work shift, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>7. Maintain the periodic housekeeping inspections to ensure continued compliance with these administrative controls.
</P>
<P>8. Control the use of specific combustibles in safety-related areas. All wood used in safety-related areas during maintenance, modification, or refueling operations (such as lay-down blocks or scaffolding) shall be treated with a flame retardant. Equipment or supplies (such as new fuel) shipped in untreated combustible packing containers may be unpacked in safety-related areas if required for valid operating reasons. However, all combustible materials shall be removed from the area immediately following the unpacking. Such transient combustible material, unless stored in approved containers, shall not be left unattended during lunch breaks, shift changes, or other similar periods. Loose combustible packing material such as wood or paper excelsior, or polyethylene sheeting shall be placed in metal containers with tight-fitting self-closing metal covers.
</P>
<P>9. Control actions to be taken by an individual discovering a fire, for example, notification of control room, attempt to extinguish fire, and actuation of local fire suppression systems.
</P>
<P>10. Control actions to be taken by the control room operator to determine the need for brigade assistance upon report of a fire or receipt of alarm on control room annunciator panel, for example, announcing location of fire over PA system, sounding fire alarms, and notifying the shift supervisor and the fire brigade leader of the type, size, and location of the fire.
</P>
<P>11. Control actions to be taken by the fire brigade after notification by the control room operator of a fire, for example, assembling in a designated location, receiving directions from the fire brigade leader, and discharging specific fire fighting responsibilities including selection and transportation of fire fighting equipment to fire location, selection of protective equipment, operating instructions for use of fire suppression systems, and use of preplanned strategies for fighting fires in specific areas.
</P>
<P>12. Define the strategies for fighting fires in all safety-related areas and areas presenting a hazard to safety-related equipment. These strategies shall designate:
</P>
<P>a. Fire hazards in each area covered by the specific prefire plans.
</P>
<P>b. Fire extinguishants best suited for controlling the fires associated with the fire hazards in that area and the nearest location of these extinguishants.
</P>
<P>c. Most favorable direction from which to attack a fire in each area in view of the ventilation direction, access hallways, stairs, and doors that are most likely to be free of fire, and the best station or elevation for fighting the fire. All access and egress routes that involve locked doors should be specifically identified in the procedure with the appropriate precautions and methods for access specified.
</P>
<P>d. Plant systems that should be managed to reduce the damage potential during a local fire and the location of local and remote controls for such management (e.g., any hydraulic or electrical systems in the zone covered by the specific fire fighting procedure that could increase the hazards in the area because of overpressurization or electrical hazards).
</P>
<P>e. Vital heat-sensitive system components that need to be kept cool while fighting a local fire. Particularly hazardous combustibles that need cooling should be designated.
</P>
<P>f. Organization of fire fighting brigades and the assignment of special duties according to job title so that all fire fighting functions are covered by any complete shift personnel complement. These duties include command control of the brigade, transporting fire suppression and support equipment to the fire scenes, applying the extinguishant to the fire, communication with the control room, and coordination with outside fire departments.
</P>
<P>g. Potential radiological and toxic hazards in fire zones.
</P>
<P>h. Ventilation system operation that ensures desired plant air distribution when the ventilation flow is modified for fire containment or smoke clearing operations.
</P>
<P>i. Operations requiring control room and shift engineer coordination or authorization.
</P>
<P>j. Instructions for plant operators and general plant personnel during fire.
</P>
<P>L. <I>Alternative and dedicated shutdown capability.</I> 1. Alternative or dedicated shutdown capability provided for a specific fire area shall be able to (a) achieve and maintain subcritical reactivity conditions in the reactor; (b) maintain reactor coolant inventory; (c) achieve and maintain hot standby 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> conditions for a PWR (hot shutdown 
<SU>2</SU> for a BWR); (d) achieve cold shutdown conditions within 72 hours; and (e) maintain cold shutdown conditions thereafter. During the postfire shutdown, the reactor coolant system process variables shall be maintained within those predicted for a loss of normal a.c. power, and the fission product boundary integrity shall not be affected; i.e., there shall be no fuel clad damage, rupture of any primary coolant boundary, or rupture of the containment boundary.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> As defined in the Standard Technical Specifications.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. The performance goals for the shutdown functions shall be:
</P>
<P>a. The reactivity control function shall be capable of achieving and maintaining cold shutdown reactivity conditions.
</P>
<P>b. The reactor coolant makeup function shall be capable of maintaining the reactor coolant level above the top of the core for BWRs and be within the level indication in the pressurizer for PWRs.
</P>
<P>c. The reactor heat removal function shall be capable of achieving and maintaining decay heat removal.
</P>
<P>d. The process monitoring function shall be capable of providing direct readings of the process variables necessary to perform and control the above functions.
</P>
<P>e. The supporting functions shall be capable of providing the process cooling, lubrication, etc., necessary to permit the operation of the equipment used for safe shutdown functions.
</P>
<P>3. The shutdown capability for specific fire areas may be unique for each such area, or it may be one unique combination of systems for all such areas. In either case, the alternative shutdown capability shall be independent of the specific fire area(s) and shall accommodate postfire conditions where offsite power is available and where offsite power is not available for 72 hours. Procedures shall be in effect to implement this capability.
</P>
<P>4. If the capability to achieve and maintain cold shutdown will not be available because of fire damage, the equipment and systems comprising the means to achieve and maintain the hot standby or hot shutdown condition shall be capable of maintaining such conditions until cold shutdown can be achieved. If such equipment and systems will not be capable of being powered by both onsite and offsite electric power systems because of fire damage, an independent onsite power system shall be provided. The number of operating shift personnel, exclusive of fire brigade members, required to operate such equipment and systems shall be on site at all times.
</P>
<P>5. Equipment and systems comprising the means to achieve and maintain cold shutdown conditions shall not be damaged by fire; or the fire damage to such equipment and systems shall be limited so that the systems can be made operable and cold shutdown can be achieved within 72 hours. Materials for such repairs shall be readily available on site and procedures shall be in effect to implement such repairs. If such equipment and systems used prior to 72 hours after the fire will not be capable of being powered by both onsite and offsite electric power systems because of fire damage, an independent onsite power system shall be provided. Equipment and systems used after 72 hours may be powered by offsite power only.
</P>
<P>6. Shutdown systems installed to ensure postfire shutdown capability need not be designed to meet seismic Category I criteria, single failure criteria, or other design basis accident criteria, except where required for other reasons, e.g., because of interface with or impact on existing safety systems, or because of adverse valve actions due to fire damage.
</P>
<P>7. The safe shutdown equipment and systems for each fire area shall be known to be isolated from associated non-safety circuits in the fire area so that hot shorts, open circuits, or shorts to ground in the associated circuits will not prevent operation of the safe shutdown equipment. The separation and barriers between trays and conduits containing associated circuits of one safe shutdown division and trays and conduits containing associated circuits or safe shutdown cables from the redundant division, or the isolation of these associated circuits from the safe shutdown equipment, shall be such that a postulated fire involving associated circuits will not prevent safe shutdown. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> An acceptable method of complying with this alternative would be to meet Regulatory Guide 1.75 position 4 related to associated circuits and IEEE Std 384-1974 (Section 4.5) where trays from redundant safety divisions are so protected that postulated fires affect trays from only one safety division.</P></FTNT>
<P>M. <I>Fire barrier cable penetration seal qualification.</I> Penetration seal designs must be qualified by tests that are comparable to tests used to rate fire barriers. The acceptance criteria for the test must include the following: 
</P>
<P>1. The cable fire barrier penetration seal has withstood the fire endurance test without passage of flame or ignition of cables on the unexposed side for a period of time equivalent to the fire resistance rating required of the barrier; 
</P>
<P>2. The temperature levels recorded for the unexposed side are analyzed and demonstrate that the maximum temperature is sufficiently below the cable insulation ignition temperature; and 
</P>
<P>3. The fire barrier penetration seal remains intact and does not allow projection of water beyond the unexposed surface during the hose stream test.
</P>
<P>N. <I>Fire doors.</I> Fire doors shall be self-closing or provided with closing mechanisms and shall be inspected semiannually to verify that automatic hold-open, release, and closing mechanisms and latches are operable.
</P>
<P>One of the following measures shall be provided to ensure they will protect the opening as required in case of fire:
</P>
<P>1. Fire doors shall be kept closed and electrically supervised at a continuously manned location;
</P>
<P>2. Fire doors shall be locked closed and inspected weekly to verify that the doors are in the closed position;
</P>
<P>3. Fire doors shall be provided with automatic hold-open and release mechanisms and inspected daily to verify that doorways are free of obstructions; or
</P>
<P>4. Fire doors shall be kept closed and inspected daily to verify that they are in the closed position.
</P>
<P>The fire brigade leader shall have ready access to keys for any locked fire doors.
</P>
<P>Areas protected by automatic total flooding gas suppression systems shall have electrically supervised self-closing fire doors or shall satisfy option 1 above.
</P>
<P>O. <I>Oil collection system for reactor coolant pump.</I> The reactor coolant pump shall be equipped with an oil collection system if the containment is not inerted during normal operation. The oil collection system shall be so designed, engineered, and installed that failure will not lead to fire during normal or design basis accident conditions and that there is reasonable assurance that the system will withstand the Safe Shutdown Earthquake. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See Regulatory Guide 1.29—“Seismic Design Classification” paragraph C.2.</P></FTNT>
<P>Such collection systems shall be capable of collecting lube oil from all potential pressurized and unpressurized leakage sites in the reactor coolant pump lube oil systems. Leakage shall be collected and drained to a vented closed container that can hold the entire lube oil system inventory. A flame arrester is required in the vent if the flash point characteristics of the oil present the hazard of fire flashback. Leakage points to be protected shall include lift pump and piping, overflow lines, lube oil cooler, oil fill and drain lines and plugs, flanged connections on oil lines, and lube oil reservoirs where such features exist on the reactor coolant pumps. The drain line shall be large enough to accommodate the largest potential oil leak.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 76611, Nov. 19, 1980; 46 FR 44735, Sept. 8, 1981, as amended at 53 FR 19251, May 27, 1988; 65 FR 38191, June 20, 2000; 77 FR 39907, July 6, 2012; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix S" NODE="10:1.0.1.1.30.0.118.90.39" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix S to Part 50—Earthquake Engineering Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants
</HEAD>
<HD1>General Information
</HD1>
<P>This appendix applies to applicants for a construction permit or operating license under part 50, or a design certification, combined license, design approval, or manufacturing license under part 52 of this chapter, on or after January 10, 1997. However, for either an operating license applicant or holder whose construction permit was issued before January 10, 1997, the earthquake engineering criteria in Section VI of appendix A to 10 CFR part 100 continue to apply. Paragraphs IV.a.1.i, IV.a.1.ii, IV.4.b, and IV.4.c of this appendix apply to applicants for an early site permit under part 52.
</P>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>(a) Each applicant for a construction permit, operating license, design certification, combined license, design approval, or manufacturing license is required by §§ 50.34(a)(12), 50.34(b)(10), or 10 CFR 52.47, 52.79, 52.137, or 52.157, and General Design Criterion 2 of appendix A to this part, to design nuclear power plant structures, systems, and components important to safety to withstand the effects of natural phenomena, such as earthquakes, without loss of capability to perform their safety functions. Also, as specified in § 50.54(ff), nuclear power plants that have implemented the earthquake engineering criteria described herein must shut down if the criteria in paragraph IV(a)(3) of this appendix are exceeded.
</P>
<P>(b) These criteria implement General Design Criterion 2 insofar as it requires structures, systems, and components important to safety to withstand the effects of earthquakes.
</P>
<HD1>II. Scope
</HD1>
<P>The evaluations described in this appendix are within the scope of investigations permitted by § 50.10(c)(1).
</P>
<HD1>III. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>As used in these criteria:
</P>
<P><I>Combined license</I> means a combined construction permit and operating license with conditions for a nuclear power facility issued under subpart C of part 52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Design Approval</I> means an NRC staff approval, issued under subpart E of part 52 of this chapter, of a final standard design for a nuclear power reactor of the type described in 10 CFR 50.22.
</P>
<P><I>Design Certification</I> means a Commission approval, issued under subpart B of part 52 of this chapter, of a standard design for a nuclear power facility.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing license</I> means a license, issued under subpart F of part 52 of this chapter, authorizing the manufacture of nuclear power reactors but not their installation into facilities located at the sites on which the facilities are to be operated.
</P>
<P><I>Operating basis earthquake ground motion (OBE)</I> is the vibratory ground motion for which those features of the nuclear power plant necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public will remain functional. The operating basis earthquake ground motion is only associated with plant shutdown and inspection unless specifically selected by the applicant as a design input.
</P>
<P><I>Response spectrum</I> is a plot of the maximum responses (acceleration, velocity, or displacement) of idealized single-degree-of-freedom oscillators as a function of the natural frequencies of the oscillators for a given damping value. The response spectrum is calculated for a specified vibratory motion input at the oscillators' supports.
</P>
<P><I>Safe-shutdown earthquake ground motion (SSE)</I> is the vibratory ground motion for which certain structures, systems, and components must be designed to remain functional.
</P>
<P><I>Structures, systems, and components required to withstand the effects of the safe-shutdown earthquake ground motion or surface deformation</I> are those necessary to assure:
</P>
<P>(1) The integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary;
</P>
<P>(2) The capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe-shutdown condition; or
</P>
<P>(3) The capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents that could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to the guideline exposures of § 50.34(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Surface deformation</I> is distortion of geologic strata at or near the ground surface by the processes of folding or faulting as a result of various earth forces. Tectonic surface deformation is associated with earthquake processes.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Application to Engineering Design
</HD1>
<P>The following are pursuant to the seismic and geologic design basis requirements of § 100.23 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Vibratory Ground Motion.</I> (1) <I>Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion.</I> (i) The Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion must be characterized by free-field ground motion response spectra at the free ground surface. In view of the limited data available on vibratory ground motions of strong earthquakes, it usually will be appropriate that the design response spectra be smoothed spectra. The horizontal component of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion in the free-field at the foundation level of the structures must be an appropriate response spectrum with a peak ground acceleration of at least 0.1g.
</P>
<P>(ii) The nuclear power plant must be designed so that, if the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion occurs, certain structures, systems, and components will remain functional and within applicable stress, strain, and deformation limits. In addition to seismic loads, applicable concurrent normal operating, functional, and accident-induced loads must be taken into account in the design of these safety-related structures, systems, and components. The design of the nuclear power plant must also take into account the possible effects of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion on the facility foundations by ground disruption, such as fissuring, lateral spreads, differential settlement, liquefaction, and landsliding, as required in § 100.23 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) The required safety functions of structures, systems, and components must be assured during and after the vibratory ground motion associated with the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion through design, testing, or qualification methods.
</P>
<P>(iv) The evaluation must take into account soil-structure interaction effects and the expected duration of vibratory motion. It is permissible to design for strain limits in excess of yield strain in some of these safety-related structures, systems, and components during the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion and under the postulated concurrent loads, provided the necessary safety functions are maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operating Basis Earthquake Ground Motion.</I> (i) The Operating Basis Earthquake Ground Motion must be characterized by response spectra. The value of the Operating Basis Earthquake Ground Motion must be set to one of the following choices:
</P>
<P>(A) One-third or less of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion design response spectra. The requirements associated with this Operating Basis Earthquake Ground Motion in Paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B)(<I>I</I>) can be satisfied without the applicant performing explicit response or design analyses, or
</P>
<P>(B) A value greater than one-third of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion design response spectra. Analysis and design must be performed to demonstrate that the requirements associated with this Operating Basis Earthquake Ground Motion in Paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B)(<I>I</I>) are satisfied. The design must take into account soil-structure interaction effects and the duration of vibratory ground motion.
</P>
<P>(<I>I</I>) When subjected to the effects of the Operating Basis Earthquake Ground Motion in combination with normal operating loads, all structures, systems, and components of the nuclear power plant necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public must remain functional and within applicable stress, strain, and deformation limits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Required Plant Shutdown.</I> If vibratory ground motion exceeding that of the Operating Basis Earthquake Ground Motion or if significant plant damage occurs, the licensee must shut down the nuclear power plant. If systems, structures, or components necessary for the safe shutdown of the nuclear power plant are not available after the occurrence of the Operating Basis Earthquake Ground Motion, the licensee must consult with the Commission and must propose a plan for the timely, safe shutdown of the nuclear power plant. Prior to resuming operations, the licensee must demonstrate to the Commission that no functional damage has occurred to those features necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public and the licensing basis is maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Required Seismic Instrumentation.</I> Suitable instrumentation must be provided so that the seismic response of nuclear power plant features important to safety can be evaluated promptly after an earthquake.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Surface Deformation.</I> The potential for surface deformation must be taken into account in the design of the nuclear power plant by providing reasonable assurance that in the event of deformation, certain structures, systems, and components will remain functional. In addition to surface deformation induced loads, the design of safety features must take into account seismic loads and applicable concurrent functional and accident-induced loads. The design provisions for surface deformation must be based on its postulated occurrence in any direction and azimuth and under any part of the nuclear power plant, unless evidence indicates this assumption is not appropriate, and must take into account the estimated rate at which the surface deformation may occur.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Seismically Induced Floods and Water Waves and Other Design Conditions.</I> Seismically induced floods and water waves from either locally or distantly generated seismic activity and other design conditions determined pursuant to § 100.23 of this chapter must be taken into account in the design of the nuclear power plant so as to prevent undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65173, Dec. 11, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 49508, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 7, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="2" NODE="10:2" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 10—Energy--Volume 2</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Nuclear Regulatory Commission (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>51


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="10:2.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 51—ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION REGULATIONS FOR DOMESTIC LICENSING AND RELATED REGULATORY FUNCTIONS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 161, 193 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 2243); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332, 4334, 4335); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 144(f), 121, 135, 141, 148 (42 U.S.C. 10134(f), 10141, 10155, 10161, 10168); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.


</PSPACE><P>Sections 51.20, 51.30, 51.60, 51.80, and 51.97 also issued under Nuclear Waste Policy Act secs. 135, 141, 148 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161, 10168). 
</P><P>Section 51.22 also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 274 (42 U.S.C. 2021) and under Nuclear Waste Policy Act sec. 121 (42 U.S.C. 10141). 
</P><P>Sections 51.43, 51.67, and 51.109 also issued under Nuclear Waste Policy Act sec. 114(f) (42 U.S.C. 10134(f)).
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 51 appear at 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 51.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.0.31.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains environmental protection regulations applicable to NRC's domestic licensing and related regulatory functions. These regulations do not apply to export licensing matters within the scope of part 110 of this chapter or to any environmental effects which NRC's domestic licensing and related regulatory functions may have upon the environment of foreign nations. Subject to these limitations, the regulations in this part implement:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 102(2) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.0.31.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.2   Subparts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in subpart A of this part implement section 102(2) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.0.31.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.3   Resolution of conflict.</HEAD>
<P>In any conflict between a general rule in subpart A of this part and a special rule in another subpart of this part or another part of this chapter applicable to a particular type of proceeding, the special rule governs.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.0.31.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 919) including any amendments thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) For production and utilization facilities licensed under 10 CFR part 50 or 10 CFR part 52, the activities in 10 CFR 50.10(a)(1), and does not mean the activities in 10 CFR 50.10(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) For utilization facilities licensed under 10 CFR part 53, the activities in paragraph (1) of the definition of <I>construction</I> in 10 CFR 53.020, and does not mean the activities in paragraph (2) of the definition of <I>construction</I> in 10 CFR 53.020.
</P>
<P>(2) For materials licenses, the activities in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition, and does not mean the activities in paragraph (2)(ii) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(i) Taking any site-preparation activity at the site of a facility subject to the regulations in 10 CFR parts 30, 36, 40, and 70 that has a reasonable nexus to radiological health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(ii) Construction does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) The activities listed in 10 CFR 50.10(a)(2)(i)-(viii); or
</P>
<P>(B) Taking any other action that has no reasonable nexus to radiological health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Previously disturbed areas</I> means areas that have been changed by development of the facility and remain altered by human activity such that they do not support important habitat or habitat to important species and no longer have the potential to yield historic and cultural resources. This includes the lateral and vertical extent of alteration from natural cover to a managed state.
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, the agency established by Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>NRC staff</I> means any NRC officer or employee or his/her authorized representative, except a Commissioner, a member of a Commissioner's immediate staff, an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, a presiding officer, an administrative judge, an administrative law judge, or any other officer or employee of the Commission who performs adjudicatory functions.
</P>
<P><I>NRC staff director</I> means the Executive Director for Operations; the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation; the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; the Director, Office of Nuclear Regulatory Research; the Director, Office of Public Affairs; and the designee of any NRC staff director.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 51 FR 35999, Oct. 8, 1986; 52 FR 31612, Aug. 21, 1987; 72 FR 57443, Oct. 9, 2007; 73 FR 5723, Jan. 31, 2008; 76 FR 56964, Sept. 15, 2011; 77 FR 46599, Aug. 3, 2012; 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019; 87 FR 68031, Nov. 14, 2022; 91 FR 15532, 15792, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.0.31.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 90 FR 55630, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.0.31.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.6   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and are otherwise in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—National Environmental Policy Act—Regulations Implementing Section 102(2)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.10   Purpose and scope of subpart; application of regulations of Council on Environmental Quality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (NEPA) directs that, to the fullest extent possible: (1) The policies, regulations, and public laws of the United States shall be interpreted and administered in accordance with the policies set forth in NEPA, and (2) all agencies of the Federal Government shall comply with the procedures in section 102(2) of NEPA except where compliance would be inconsistent with other statutory requirements. The regulations in this subpart implement section 102(2) of NEPA in a manner which is consistent with the NRC's domestic licensing and related regulatory authority under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, and which reflects the Commission's announced policy to take account of the regulations of the Council on Environmental Quality published November 29, 1978 (43 FR 55978-56007) voluntarily, subject to certain conditions. This subpart does not apply to export licensing matters within the scope of part 110 of this chapter nor does it apply to any environmental effects which NRC's domestic licensing and related regulatory functions may have upon the environment of foreign nations.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission recognizes a continuing obligation to conduct its domestic licensing and related regulatory functions in a manner which is both receptive to environmental concerns and consistent with the Commission's responsibility as an independent regulatory agency for protecting the radiological health and safety of the public. Accordingly, the Commission will: 
</P>
<P>(1) Examine any future interpretation or change to the Council's NEPA regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Follow the provisions of 40 CFR 1501.5 and 1501.6 relating to lead agencies and cooperating agencies, except that the Commission reserves the right to prepare an independent environmental impact statement whenever the NRC has regulatory jurisdiction over an activity even though the NRC has not been designated as lead agency for preparation of the statement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Reserve the right to make a final decision on any matter within the NRC's regulatory authority even though another agency has made a predecisional referral of an NRC action to the Council under the procedures of 40 CFR part 1504.
</P>
<P>(c) The regulations in this subpart 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> also address the limitations imposed on NRC's authority and responsibility under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, by the Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972, Pub. L. 92-500, 86 Stat. 816 <I>et seq.</I> (33 U.S.C. 1251 <I>et seq.</I>) In accordance with section 511(c)(2) of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (86 Stat. 893, 33 U.S.C 1371(c)(2)) the NRC recognizes that responsibility for Federal regulation of nonradiological pollutant discharges 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> into receiving waters rests by statute with the Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See also Second Memorandum of Understanding Regarding Implementation of Certain NRC and EPA Responsibilities and Policy Statement on Implementation of Section 511 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (FWPCA) attached as Appendix A thereto, which were published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on December 31, 1975 (40 FR 60115) and became effective January 30, 1976.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> On June 1, 1976, the U.S. Supreme Court held that “ ‘pollutants’ subject to regulation under the FWPCA [Federal Water Pollution Control Act] do not include source, byproduct, and special nuclear materials, . . .” <I>Train</I> v. <I>Colorado PIRG,</I> 426 U.S. 1 at 25.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Commission actions initiating or relating to administrative or judicial civil or criminal enforcement actions or proceedings are not subject to Section 102(2) of NEPA. These actions include issuance of notices of violation, orders, and denials of requests for action pursuant to subpart B of part 2 of this chapter; matters covered by part 15 and part 160 of this chapter; and issuance of confirmatory action letters, bulletins, generic letters, notices of deviation, and notices of nonconformance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 43578, Oct. 26, 1989; 61 FR 43408, Aug. 22, 1996; 86 FR 67843, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.11   Relationship to other subparts. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.12   Application of subpart to ongoing environmental work.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the regulations in this subpart shall apply to the fullest extent practicable to NRC's ongoing environmental work.
</P>
<P>(b) No environmental report or any supplement to an environmental report filed with the NRC and no environmental assessment, environmental impact statement or finding of no significant impact or any supplement to any of the foregoing issued by the NRC before June 7, 1984, need be redone and no notice of intent to prepare an environmental impact statement or notice of availability of these environmental documents need be republished solely by reason of the promulgation on March 12, 1984, of this revision of part 51.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 49 FR 24513, June 14, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.13   Emergencies.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever emergency circumstances make it necessary and whenever, in other situations, the health and safety of the public may be adversely affected if mitigative or remedial actions are delayed, the Commission may take an action with significant environmental impact without observing the provisions of these regulations. In taking an action covered by this section, the Commission will consult with the Council as soon as feasible concerning appropriate alternative NEPA arrangements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.14" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.14   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Categorical Exclusion</I> means a category of actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment and which the Commission has found to have no such effect in accordance with procedures set out in § 51.22, and for which, therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
</P>
<P><I>Cooperating Agency</I> means any Federal agency other than the NRC which has jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to any environmental impact involved in a proposal (or a reasonable alternative) for legislation or other major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. By agreement with the Commission, a State or local agency of similar qualifications or, when the effects are on a reservation, an Indian Tribe, may become a cooperating agency.
</P>
<P><I>Council</I> means the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) established by Title II of NEPA.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental Assessment</I> means a concise public document for which the Commission is responsible that serves to:
</P>
<P>(1) Briefly provide sufficient evidence and analysis for determining whether to prepare an environmental impact statement or a finding of no significant impact.
</P>
<P>(2) Aid the Commission's compliance with NEPA when no environmental impact statement is necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) Facilitate preparation of an environmental impact statement when one is necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental document</I> includes an environmental assessment, an environmental impact statement, a finding of no significant impact, an environmental report and any supplements to or comments upon those documents, and a notice of intent.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental Impact Statement</I> means a detailed written statement as required by section 102(2)(C) of NEPA.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental report</I> means a document submitted to the Commission by an applicant for a permit, license, or other form of permission, or an amendment to or renewal of a permit, license or other form of permission, or by a petitioner for rulemaking, in order to aid the Commission in complying with section 102(2) of NEPA.
</P>
<P><I>Finding of No Significant Impact</I> means a concise public document for which the Commission is responsible that briefly states the reasons why an action, not otherwise excluded, will not have a significant effect on the human environment and for which therefore an environmental impact statement will not be prepared.
</P>
<P><I>NEPA</I> means the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (Pub. L. 91-190, 83 Stat. 852, 856, as amended by Pub. L. 94-83, 89 Stat. 424, 42 U.S.C. 4321, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Notice of Intent</I> means a notice that an environmental impact statement will be prepared and considered.
</P>
<P><I>Uranium enrichment facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any facility used for separating the isotopes for uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device, or important component part especially designed for such equipment or device, capable of separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235.
</P>
<P>(b) The definitions in 40 CFR 1508.3, 1508.7, 1508.8, 1508.14, 1508.15, 1508.16, 1508.17, 1508.18, 1508.20, 1508.23, 1508.25, 1508.26, and 1508.27, will also be used in implementing section 102(2) of NEPA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 57 FR 18391, Apr. 30, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.15   Time schedules.</HEAD>
<P>Consistent with the purposes of NEPA, the Administrative Procedure Act, the Commission's rules of practice in part 2 of this chapter, §§ 51.100 and 51.101, and with other essential considerations of national policy:
</P>
<P>(a) The appropriate NRC staff director may, and upon the request of an applicant for a proposed action or a petitioner for rulemaking shall, establish a time schedule for all or any constituent part of the NRC staff NEPA process. To the maximum extent practicable, the NRC staff will conduct its NEPA review in accordance with any time schedule established under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) As specified in 10 CFR part 2, the presiding officer, the Atomic Safety and Licensing Board or the Commissioners acting as a collegial body may establish a time schedule for all or any part of an adjudicatory or rulemaking proceeding to the extent that each has jurisdiction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 69 FR 2276, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.16   Proprietary information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Proprietary information, such as trade secrets or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, will be treated in accordance with the procedures provided in § 2.390 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any proprietary information which a person seeks to have withheld from public disclosure shall be submitted in accordance with § 2.390 of this chapter. When submitted, the proprietary information should be clearly identified and accompanied by a request, containing detailed reasons and justifications, that the proprietary information be withheld from public disclosure. A non-proprietary summary describing the general content of the proprietary information should also be provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2276, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.17   Information collection requirements; OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0021.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements in this part appear in §§ 51.6, 51.16, 51.41, 51.45, 51.49, 51.50, 51.51, 51.52, 51.53, 51.54, 51.55, 51.56, 51.58, 51.60, 51.61, 51.62, 51.66, 51.68, and 51.69.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 24513, June 14, 1984, as amended at 62 FR 52188, Oct. 6, 1997; 67 FR 67100, Nov. 4, 2002; 72 FR 57443, Oct. 9, 2007; 89 FR 106252, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.31" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preliminary Procedures</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.32" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>classification of licensing and regulatory actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.32.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.20   Criteria for and identification of licensing and regulatory actions requiring environmental impact statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensing and regulatory actions requiring an environmental impact statement shall meet at least one of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed action is a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed action involves a matter which the Commission, in the exercise of its discretion, has determined should be covered by an environmental impact statement. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following types of actions require an environmental impact statement or a supplement to an environmental impact statement: 


</P>
<P>(1) Issuance of a limited work authorization or a permit to construct a nuclear power reactor, testing facility, or fuel reprocessing plant under part 50 of this chapter, issuance of an early site permit under part 52 of this chapter, or issuance of a limited work authorization, construction permit, or early site permit under part 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Issuance or renewal of a full power or design capacity license to operate a nuclear power reactor, testing facility, or fuel reprocessing plant under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter, or a combined license under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Issuance of a permit to construct or a design capacity license to operate or renewal of a design capacity license to operate an isotopic enrichment plant pursuant to part 50 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(4) Conversion of a provisional operating license for a nuclear power reactor, testing facility or fuel reprocessing plant to a full term or design capacity license pursuant to part 50 of this chapter if a final environmental impact statement covering full term or design capacity operation has not been previously prepared. 
</P>
<P>(5)-(6) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(7) Issuance of a license to possess and use special nuclear material for processing and fuel fabrication, scrap recovery, or conversion of uranium hexafluoride pursuant to part 70 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(8) Issuance of a license to possess and use source material for uranium milling or production of uranium hexafluoride pursuant to part 40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(9) Issuance of a license pursuant to part 72 of this chapter for the storage of spent fuel in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) at a site not occupied by a nuclear power reactor, or for the storage of spent fuel or high-level radioactive waste in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS).
</P>
<P>(10) Issuance of a license for a uranium enrichment facility.
</P>
<P>(11) Issuance of renewal of a license authorizing receipt and disposal of radioactive waste from other persons pursuant to part 61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(12) Issuance of a license amendment pursuant to part 61 of this chapter authorizing (i) closure of a land disposal site, (ii) transfer of the license to the disposal site owner for the purpose of institutional control, or (iii) termination of the license at the end of the institutional control period. 
</P>
<P>(13) Issuance of a construction authorization and license pursuant to part 60 or part 63 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(14) Any other action which the Commission determines is a major Commission action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. As provided in § 51.22(b), the Commission may, in special circumstances, prepare an environmental impact statement on an action covered by a categorical exclusion. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 53 FR 31681, Aug. 19, 1988; 53 FR 24052, June 27, 1988; 54 FR 15398, Apr. 18, 1989; 54 FR 27870, July 3, 1989; 57 FR 18392, Apr. 30, 1992; 66 FR 55790, Nov. 2, 2001; 72 FR 49509, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15793, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.32.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.21   Criteria for and identification of licensing and regulatory actions requiring environmental assessments.</HEAD>
<P>All licensing and regulatory actions subject to this subpart require an environmental assessment except those identified in § 51.20(b) as requiring an environmental impact statement, those covered by categorical exclusions identified in § 51.22(a) through (d), and those identified in § 51.22(e) as other actions not requiring environmental review. As provided in § 51.22, the Commission may, in special circumstances, prepare an environmental assessment on an action that could be covered by a categorical exclusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 27870, July 3, 1989, as amended at 91 FR 15532, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.32.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.22   Categorical exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>Licensing, regulatory, and administrative actions eligible for categorical exclusion must belong to a category of actions that the Commission, by rule or regulation, has declared to be a categorical exclusion, after first finding that the actions within the category do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Except in special circumstances, as determined by the Commission upon its own initiative or upon request of any interested person, an environmental assessment or an environmental impact statement is not required for any action within a category of actions included in the list of categorical exclusions set out in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. Special circumstances include the circumstance where the proposed action involves unresolved conflicts concerning alternative uses of available resources within the meaning of section 102(2)(H) of NEPA.
</P>
<P>(a) The following categories of NRC actions are excluded from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement:
</P>
<P>(1) Actions that are administrative, procedural, or solely financial in nature, including, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) Issuance of or changes to procedures for filing and reviewing applications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Issuance of or changes to recordkeeping or reporting requirements;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issuance of or changes to surety, insurance, or indemnity requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Issuance of or changes to administrative procedures or requirements;
</P>
<P>(v) Actions on petitions for rulemaking, but not including rulemakings in response to a petition for rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(vi) Amendments to the regulations in this chapter that are corrective or of a minor or nonpolicy nature and do not substantially modify existing regulations;
</P>
<P>(vii) Issuance of or changes to guidance for the implementation of regulations in this chapter and other informational and procedural documents that do not impose any legal requirements;
</P>
<P>(viii) Changes to a person or organization's name, position, or title;
</P>
<P>(ix) Revisions that are editorial, corrective, or otherwise minor, including the updating of NRC-approved references, or changes to formatting of a document;
</P>
<P>(x) Changes to contact information;
</P>
<P>(xi) Personnel or managerial actions;
</P>
<P>(xii) Actions on or changes to requirements for decommissioning funding under parts 30, 40, 50, 70, or 72 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(xiii) Termination of licenses that were issued but for which no construction activities have begun or where all decommissioning activities have been completed and approved and license termination is a final administrative step.
</P>
<P>(2) Issuance of or changes to education, training, experience, qualification, or other employment suitability requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Amendments to parts 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16, 19, 21, 25, 26, 55, 75, 95, 110, 140, 150, 160, 170, or 171 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Procurement of general equipment and supplies, and procurement of technical assistance and personal services relating to the safe operation and protection of commercial reactors, other facilities, and materials subject to NRC licensing and regulation.
</P>
<P>(5) Entrance into or amendment, suspension, or termination of all or part of an agreement with a State under section 274 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, providing for assumption by the State and discontinuance by the Commission of certain regulatory authority of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(6) Approvals of direct or indirect transfers of any license issued by the NRC (any associated amendments of a license required to reflect the approval of a direct or indirect transfer of an NRC license are included in paragraph (a)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(7) The import of nuclear facilities and materials under part 110 of this chapter, but not including the import of spent power reactor fuel.
</P>
<P>(8) Approvals of or changes to operators' licenses under part 55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) Approvals of package designs for packages to be used for the transportation of licensed materials.
</P>
<P>(10) Actions under parts 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 39, 40, or 70 of this chapter authorizing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Distribution of radioactive material and devices or products containing radioactive material to general licensees and to persons exempt from licensing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Distribution of radiopharmaceuticals, generators, reagent kits and/or sealed sources to persons licensed under 10 CFR 35.18;
</P>
<P>(iii) Nuclear pharmacies;
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of radioactive materials for medical and veterinary purposes;
</P>
<P>(v) Use of radioactive materials for research and development and for educational purposes;
</P>
<P>(vi) Industrial radiography;
</P>
<P>(vii) Irradiators;
</P>
<P>(viii) Use of sealed sources and use of gauging devices, analytical instruments and other devices containing sealed sources;
</P>
<P>(ix) Use of uranium as shielding material in containers or devices;
</P>
<P>(x) Possession of radioactive material incident to performing services such as installation, maintenance, leak tests and calibration;
</P>
<P>(xi) Use of sealed sources and/or radioactive tracers in well-logging procedures;
</P>
<P>(xii) Acceptance of packaged radioactive wastes from others for transfer to licensed land burial facilities provided the interim storage period for any package does not exceed 180 days and the total possession limit for all packages held in interim storage at the same time does not exceed 50 curies;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Manufacturing or processing of source, byproduct, or special nuclear materials for distribution to other licensees, except processing of source material for extraction of rare earth and other metals;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Nuclear laundries;
</P>
<P>(xv) Possession, manufacturing, processing, shipment, testing, or other use of depleted uranium military munitions; or
</P>
<P>(xvi) Any use of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material not listed above which involves quantities and forms of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material similar to those listed in paragraphs (a)(10)(i) through (xv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) Standard design approvals under part 52 or 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(12) Issuance of amendments to 10 CFR 72.214 for new, amended, revised, or renewed certificates of compliance for cask designs used for spent fuel storage.
</P>
<P>(13) Issuance, amendment, modification, or renewal of a certificate of compliance of gaseous diffusion enrichment plants under part 76 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(14) The decommissioning of sites where licensed operations have been limited to the use of—
</P>
<P>(i) Small quantities of short-lived radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Radioactive materials in sealed sources, provided there is no evidence of leakage of radioactive material from these sealed sources; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Radioactive materials in such a manner that a decommissioning plan is not required by 10 CFR 30.36(g)(1), 10 CFR 40.42(g)(1), or 10 CFR 70.38(g)(1), and the NRC has determined that the facility meets the radiological criteria for unrestricted use in 10 CFR 20.1402 without further remediation or analysis.
</P>
<P>(15) The Commission finding for a combined license under 10 CFR 52.103(g) or 53.1452(g).
</P>
<P>(16) Actions under 10 CFR 50.55a.
</P>
<P>(b) The following categories of NRC actions are excluded from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement, provided that any ground disturbance is limited to previously disturbed areas:
</P>
<P>(1) Procurement of confirmatory research.
</P>
<P>(2) Review and approval of transportation routes under 10 CFR 73.37.
</P>
<P>(c) The following categories of NRC actions are excluded from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement except to the extent they include activities directly affecting the environment, such as the construction of facilities; a major disturbance brought about by blasting, drilling, excavating or other means; field work, except that which only involves noninvasive or non-harmful techniques such as taking water or soil samples or collecting non-protected species of flora and fauna; or the release of radioactive material:
</P>
<P>(1) Grants to institutions of higher education in the United States, to fund scholarships, fellowships, and stipends for the study of science, engineering, or another field of study that the NRC determines is in a critical skill area related to its regulatory mission, to support faculty and curricular development in such fields, and to support other domestic educational, technical assistance, or training programs (including those of trade schools) in such fields.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) The following categories of NRC actions are excluded from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement provided that any ground disturbance is limited to previously disturbed areas and there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite, no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure, and no significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents.
</P>
<P>(1) Changes to inspection or surveillance requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Changes to equipment servicing or maintenance requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Changes to safeguard plans or materials control and accounting inventory requirements, including modifications to systems used for security and/or materials accountability.
</P>
<P>(4) Changes to requirements for fire protection, emergency planning, physical security, cybersecurity, or quality assurance.
</P>
<P>(5) Changes to scheduling requirements.
</P>
<P>(6) Changes to extend implementation dates for activities previously found to not have a significant environmental impact.
</P>
<P>(7) Actions that result in a change in process operations or equipment under licenses for fuel cycle facilities or radioactive waste disposal sites, or under the materials licenses identified in § 51.60(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(8) Authorizations under, or changes to requirements in 10 CFR part 50, 52, or 53 with respect to installation or use of a facility component.
</P>
<P>(e) In accordance with section 121 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (42 U.S.C. 10141), the promulgation of technical requirements and criteria that the Commission will apply in approving or disapproving applications under part 60 or 63 of this chapter shall not require an environmental impact statement, an environmental assessment, or any further environmental review under subparagraph (H) or (I) of section 102(2) of NEPA.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 51.22, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.32.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.23   Environmental impacts of continued storage of spent nuclear fuel beyond the licensed life for operation of a reactor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission has generically determined that the environmental impacts of continued storage of spent nuclear fuel beyond the licensed life for operation of a reactor are those impacts identified in NUREG-2157, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for Continued Storage of Spent Nuclear Fuel.”
</P>
<P>(b) The environmental reports described in §§ 51.50, 51.53, and 51.61 are not required to discuss the environmental impacts of spent nuclear fuel storage in a reactor facility storage pool or an ISFSI for the period following the term of the reactor operating license, reactor combined license, or ISFSI license. The impact determinations in NUREG-2157 regarding continued storage shall be deemed incorporated into the environmental impact statements described in §§ 51.75, 51.80(b), 51.95, and 51.97(a). The impact determinations in NUREG-2157 regarding continued storage shall be considered in the environmental assessments described in §§ 51.30(b) and 51.95(d), if the impacts of continued storage of spent fuel are relevant to the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not alter any requirements to consider the environmental impacts of spent fuel storage during the term of a reactor operating license or combined license, or a license for an ISFSI in a licensing proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 34694, Aug. 31, 1984, as amended at 55 FR 38474, Sept. 18, 1990; 72 FR 49509, Aug. 28, 2007; 75 FR 81037, Dec. 23, 2010; 79 FR 56260, Sept. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.33" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>determinations to prepare environmental impact statements, environmental assessments or findings of no significant impact, and related procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.33.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.25   Determination to prepare environmental impact statement or environmental assessment; eligibility for categorical exclusion.</HEAD>
<P>Before taking a proposed action subject to the provisions of this subpart, the appropriate NRC director will determine on the basis of the criteria and classifications of types of actions in §§ 51.20, 51.21 and 51.22 whether the proposed action is of the type listed in § 51.22(a) through (d) as a categorical exclusion or whether an environmental impact statement or an environmental assessment should be prepared. An environmental assessment is not necessary if it is determined that an environmental impact statement will be prepared.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 91 FR 15534, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.33.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.26   Requirement to publish notice of intent and conduct scoping process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the appropriate NRC staff director determines that an environmental impact statement will be prepared by NRC in connection with a proposed action, a notice of intent will be prepared as provided in § 51.27, and will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided in § 51.116, and an appropriate scoping process (see §§ 51.27, 51.28, and 51.29) will be conducted. 
</P>
<P>(b) The scoping process may include a public scoping meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of an application and accompanying environmental impact statement under § 60.22 or § 63.22 of this chapter (pertaining to geologic repositories for high-level radioactive waste), the appropriate NRC staff director will include in the notice of docketing required to be published by § 2.101(f)(8) of this chapter a statement of Commission intention to adopt the environmental impact statement to the extent practicable. However, if the appropriate NRC staff director determines, at the time of such publication or at any time thereafter, that NRC should prepare a supplemental environmental impact statement in connection with the Commission's action on the license application, the NRC shall follow the procedures set out in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever the appropriate NRC staff director determines that a supplement to an environmental impact statement will be prepared by the NRC, a notice of intent will be prepared as provided in § 51.27, and will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided in § 51.116. The NRC staff need not conduct a scoping process (see §§ 51.27, 51.28, and 51.29), provided, however, that if scoping is conducted, then the scoping must be directed at matters to be addressed in the supplement. If scoping is conducted in a proceeding for a combined license referencing an early site permit under 10 CFR part 52 or part 53, then the scoping must be directed at matters to be addressed in the supplement as described in § 51.92(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 27870, July 3, 1989; 66 FR 55791, Nov. 2, 2001; 72 FR 49510, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15793, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.33.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.27   Notice of intent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice of intent required by § 51.26(a) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) State that an environmental impact statement will be prepared;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the proposed action and, to the extent sufficient information is available, possible alternatives;
</P>
<P>(3) State whether the applicant or petitioner for rulemaking has filed an environmental report, and, if so, where copies are available for public inspection;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the proposed scoping process, including the role of participants, whether written comments will be accepted, the last date for submitting comments and where comments should be sent, whether a public scoping meeting will be held, the time and place of any scoping meeting or when the time and place of the meeting will be announced; and 
</P>
<P>(5) State the name, address and telephone number of an individual in NRC who can provide information about the proposed action, the scoping process, and the environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice of intent required by § 51.26(d) shall:
</P>
<P>(1) State that a supplement to a final environmental impact statement will be prepared in accordance with § 51.72 or § 51.92. For a combined license application that references an early site permit, the supplement to the early site permit environmental impact statement will be prepared in accordance with § 51.92(e);
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the proposed action and, to the extent required, possible alternatives. For the case of a combined license referencing an early site permit, identify the proposed action as the issuance of a combined license for the construction and operation of a nuclear power plant as described in the combined license application at the site described in the early site permit referenced in the combined license application;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the environmental report prepared by the applicant and information on where copies are available for public inspection;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the matters to be addressed in the supplement to the final environmental impact statement;
</P>
<P>(5) Describe any proposed scoping process that the NRC staff may conduct, including the role of participants, whether written comments will be accepted, the last date for submitting comments and where comments should be sent, whether a public scoping meeting will be held, the time and place of any scoping meeting or when the time and place of the meeting will be announced; and
</P>
<P>(6) State the name, address, and telephone number of an individual in NRC who can provide information about the proposed action, the scoping process, and the supplement to the environmental impact statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 72 FR 49510, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="34" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.34" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>scoping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.28" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.34.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.28   Scoping—participants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The appropriate NRC staff director shall invite the following persons to participate in the scoping process:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant or the petitioner for rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who has petitioned for leave to intervene in the proceeding or who has been admitted as a party to the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Any other Federal agency which has jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to any environmental impact involved or which is authorized to develop and enforce relevant environmental standards;
</P>
<P>(4) Affected State and local agencies, including those authorized to develop and enforce relevant environmental standards; 
</P>
<P>(5) Any affected Indian Tribe; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Any person who has requested an opportunity to participate in the scoping process.
</P>
<P>(b) The appropriate NRC staff director may also invite any other appropriate person to participate in the scoping process.
</P>
<P>(c) Participation in the scoping process for an environmental impact statement does not entitle the participant to become a party to the proceeding to which the environmental impact statement relates. Participation in an adjudicatory proceeding is governed by the procedures in §§ 2.309 and 2.315 of this chapter. Participation in a rulemaking proceeding in which the Commission has decided to have a hearing is governed by the provisions in the notice of hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 74 FR 62682, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.29" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.34.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.29   Scoping-environmental impact statement and supplement to environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The scoping process for an environmental impact statement shall begin as soon as practicable after publication of the notice of intent as provided in § 51.116, and shall be used to:
</P>
<P>(1) Define the proposed action which is to be the subject of the statement or supplement. For environmental impact statements other than a supplement to an early site permit final environmental impact statement prepared for a combined license application, the provisions of 40 CFR 1502.4 will be used for this purpose. For a supplement to an early site permit final environmental impact statement prepared for a combined license application, the proposed action shall be as set forth in the relevant provisions of § 51.92(e).
</P>
<P>(2) Determine the scope of the statement and identify the significant issues to be analyzed in depth.
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and eliminate from detailed study issues which are peripheral or are not significant or which have been covered by prior environmental review. Discussion of these issues in the statement will be limited to a brief presentation of why they are peripheral or will not have a significant effect on the quality of the human environment or a reference to their coverage elsewhere.
</P>
<P>(4) Identify any environmental assessments and other environmental impact statements which are being or will be prepared that are related to but are not part of the scope of the statement under consideration.
</P>
<P>(5) Identify other environmental review and consultation requirements related to the proposed action so that other required analyses and studies may be prepared concurrently and integrated with the environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(6) Indicate the relationship between the timing of the preparation of environmental analyses and the Commission's tentative planning and decision-making schedule.
</P>
<P>(7) Identify any cooperating agencies, and as appropriate, allocate assignments for preparation and schedules for completion of the statement to the NRC and any cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(8) Describe the means by which the environmental impact statement will be prepared, including any contractor assistance to be used.
</P>
<P>(b) At the conclusion of the scoping process, the appropriate NRC staff director will prepare a concise summary of the determinations and conclusions reached, including the significant issues identified, and will send a copy of the summary to each participant in the scoping process.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time prior to issuance of the draft environmental impact statement, the appropriate NRC staff director may revise the determinations made under paragraph (b) of this section, as appropriate, if substantial changes are made in the proposed action, or if significant new circumstances or information arise which bear on the proposed action or its impacts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 72 FR 49510, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.35" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>environmental assessment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.30" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.35.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.30   Environmental assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An environmental assessment for proposed actions, other than those for a standard design certification under 10 CFR part 52 or part 53, or a manufacturing license under 10 CFR part 52 or part 53, shall identify the proposed action and include:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief discussion of:
</P>
<P>(i) The need for the proposed action;
</P>
<P>(ii) Alternatives as required by section 102(2)(E) of NEPA;
</P>
<P>(iii) The environmental impacts of the proposed action and alternatives as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(2) A list of agencies and persons consulted, and identification of sources used.
</P>
<P>(b) As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be considered in the environmental assessment, if the impacts of continued storage of spent fuel are relevant to the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(c) An environmental assessment for a proposed action regarding a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) will not address the need for the MRS or any alternative to the design criteria for an MRS set forth in section 141(b)(1) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (96 Stat. 2242, 42 U.S.C. 10161(b)(1)).


</P>
<P>(d) An environmental assessment for a standard design certification under subpart B of part 52, or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter must identify the proposed action and will be limited to the consideration of the costs and benefits of severe accident mitigation design alternatives and the bases for not incorporating severe accident mitigation design alternatives in the design certification. An environmental assessment for an amendment to a design certification will be limited to the consideration of whether the design change which is the subject of the proposed amendment renders a severe accident mitigation design alternative previously rejected in the earlier environmental assessment to become cost beneficial, or results in the identification of new severe accident mitigation design alternatives, in which case the costs and benefits of new severe accident mitigation design alternatives and the bases for not incorporating new severe accident mitigation design alternatives in the design certification must be addressed.
</P>
<P>(e) An environmental assessment for a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 of this chapter or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter must identify the proposed action and will be limited to the consideration of the costs and benefits of severe accident mitigation design alternatives and the bases for not incorporating severe accident mitigation design alternatives in the manufacturing license. An environmental assessment for an amendment to a manufacturing license will be limited to consideration of whether the design change which is the subject of the proposed amendment either renders a severe accident mitigation design alternative previously rejected in an environmental assessment to become cost beneficial, or results in the identification of new severe accident mitigation design alternatives, in which case the costs and benefits of new severe accident mitigation design alternatives and the bases for not incorporating new severe accident mitigation design alternatives in the manufacturing license must be addressed. In either case, the environmental assessment will not address the environmental impacts associated with manufacturing the reactor under the manufacturing license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 49 FR 34694, Aug. 31, 1984; 53 FR 31681, Aug. 19, 1988; 72 FR 49510, Aug. 28, 2007; 79 FR 56260, Sept. 19, 2014; 91 FR 15793, Mar. 30, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.35.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.31   Determinations based on environmental assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Upon completion of an environmental assessment for proposed actions other than those involving a standard design certification or a manufacturing license under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter, the appropriate NRC staff director will determine whether to prepare an environmental impact statement or a finding of no significant impact on the proposed action. As provided in § 51.33, a determination to prepare a draft finding of no significant impact may be made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard design certification.</I> (1) For actions involving the issuance or amendment of a standard design certification, the Commission shall prepare a draft environmental assessment for public comment as part of the proposed rule. The proposed rule must state that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission has determined in § 51.32 that there is no significant environmental impact associated with the issuance of the standard design certification or its amendment, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Comments on the environmental assessment will be limited to the consideration of SAMDAs as required by § 51.30(d).
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission will prepare a final environmental assessment following the close of the public comment period for the proposed standard design certification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Manufacturing license.</I> (1) Upon completion of the environmental assessment for actions involving issuance or amendment of a manufacturing license (manufacturing license environmental assessment), the appropriate NRC staff director will determine the costs and benefits of severe accident mitigation design alternatives and the bases for not incorporating severe accident mitigation design alternatives in the design of the reactor to be manufactured under the manufacturing license. The NRC staff director may determine to prepare a draft environmental assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) The manufacturing license environmental assessment must state that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission has determined in § 51.32 that there is no significant environmental impact associated with the issuance of a manufacturing license or an amendment to a manufacturing license, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The environmental assessment will not address the environmental impacts associated with manufacturing the reactor under the manufacturing license; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Comments on the environmental assessment will be limited to the consideration of severe accident mitigation design alternatives as required by § 51.30(e).
</P>
<P>(3) If the NRC staff director makes a determination to prepare and issue a draft environmental assessment for public review and comment before making a final determination on the manufacturing license application, the assessment will be marked, “Draft.” The NRC notice of availability on the draft environmental assessment will include a request for comments which specifies where comments should be submitted and when the comment period expires. The notice will state that copies of the environmental assessment and any related environmental documents are available for public inspection and where inspections can be made. A copy of the final environmental assessment will be sent to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, the applicant, any party to a proceeding, each commenter, and any other Federal, State, and local agencies, and Indian Tribes, State, regional, and metropolitan clearinghouses expressing an interest in the action. Additional copies will be made available in accordance with § 51.123.
</P>
<P>(4) When a hearing is held under the regulations in part 2 of this chapter on the proposed issuance of the manufacturing license or amendment, the NRC staff director will prepare a final environmental assessment which may be subject to modification as a result of review and decision as appropriate to the nature and scope of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(5) Only a party admitted into the proceeding with respect to a contention on the environmental assessment, or an entity participating in the proceeding pursuant to § 2.315(c) of this chapter, may take a position and offer evidence on the matters within the scope of the environmental assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49510, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15793, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="36" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.36" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>finding of no significant impact</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.36.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.32   Finding of no significant impact.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A finding of no significant impact will:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the proposed action;
</P>
<P>(2) State that the Commission has determined not to prepare an environmental impact statement for the proposed action;
</P>
<P>(3) Briefly present the reasons why the proposed action will not have a significant effect on the quality of the human environment;
</P>
<P>(4) Include the environmental assessment or a summary of the environmental assessment. If the assessment is included, the finding need not repeat any of the discussion in the assessment but may incorporate it by reference;
</P>
<P>(5) Note any other related environmental documents; and
</P>
<P>(6) State that the finding and any related environmental documents are available for public inspection and where the documents may be inspected.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission finds that there is no significant environmental impact associated with the issuance of:
</P>
<P>(1) A standard design certification under subpart B of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) An amendment to a design certification;
</P>
<P>(3) A manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(4) An amendment to a manufacturing license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 72 FR 49511, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15793, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.36.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.33   Draft finding of no significant impact; distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the appropriate NRC staff director may make a determination to prepare and issue a draft finding of no significant impact for public review and comment before making a final determination whether to prepare an environmental impact statement or a final finding of no significant impact on the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(b) Circumstances in which a draft finding of no significant impact may be prepared will ordinarily include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A finding of no significant impact appears warranted for the proposed action but the proposed action is (i) closely similar to one which normally requires the preparation of an environmental impact statement, or (ii) without precedent; and
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate NRC staff director determines that preparation of a draft finding of no significant impact will further the purposes of NEPA.
</P>
<P>(c) A draft finding of no significant impact will (1) be marked “Draft”, (2) contain the information specified in § 51.32, (3) be accompanied by or include a request for comments on the proposed action and on the draft finding within thirty (30) days, or such longer period as may be specified in the notice of the draft finding, and (4) be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as required by §§ 51.35 and 51.119.
</P>
<P>(d) A draft finding will be distributed as provided in § 51.74(a). Additional copies will be made available in accordance with § 51.123.
</P>
<P>(e) When a draft finding of no significant impact is issued for a proposed action, a final determination to prepare an environmental impact statement or a final finding of no significant impact for that action shall not be made until the last day of the public comment period has expired.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.34" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.36.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.34   Preparation of finding of no significant impact.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the finding of no significant impact will be prepared by the NRC staff director authorized to take the action.
</P>
<P>(b) When a hearing is held on the proposed action under the regulations in part 2 of this chapter or when the action can only be taken by the Commissioners acting as a collegial body, the appropriate NRC staff director will prepare a proposed finding of no significant impact, which may be subject to modification as a result of review and decision as appropriate to the nature and scope of the proceeding. In such cases, the presiding officer, or the Commission acting as a collegial body, as appropriate, will issue the final finding of no significant impact.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 77 FR 46600, Aug. 3, 2012; 79 FR 66604, Nov. 10, 2014' 88 FR 80949, Nov. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.36.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.35   Requirement to publish finding of no significant impact; limitation on Commission action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the Commission makes a draft or final finding of no significant impact on a proposed action, the finding will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided in § 51.119.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 51.13, the Commission shall not take the proposed action until after the final finding has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="37" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.37" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Environmental Reports and Information—Requirements Applicable to Applicants and Petitioners for Rulemaking</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="38" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.38" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>general</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.38.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.40   Consultation with NRC staff.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prospective applicant or petitioner for rulemaking is encouraged to confer with NRC staff as early as possible in its planning process before submitting environmental information or filing an environmental report.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for guidance or information on environmental matters may include inquiries relating to:
</P>
<P>(1) Applicable NRC rules and regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Format, content and procedures for filing environmental reports and other environmental information, including the type and quantity of environmental information likely to be needed to address issues and concerns identified in the scoping process described in § 51.29 in a manner appropriate to their relative significance;
</P>
<P>(3) Availability of relevant environmental studies and environmental information;
</P>
<P>(4) Need for, appropriate level and scope of any environmental studies or information which the Commission may require to be submitted in connection with an application or petition for rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(5) Public meetings with NRC staff.
</P>
<P>(c) Questions concerning environmental matters should be addressed to the following NRC staff offices as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Utilization facilities:</I> ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (301) 415-1270, e-mail <I>RidsNrrOd@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Production facilities:</I> ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (301) 415-7800, e-mail <I>RidsNmssOd@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Materials licenses:</I> ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (301) 415-7800, e-mail <I>RidsNmssOd@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rulemaking:</I> ATTN: Chief, Regulatory Analysis and Rulemaking Support Branch, Division of Rulemaking, Environmental, and Financial Support, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (800) 368-5642.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>General Environmental Matters:</I> Executive Director for Operations, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, Telephone: (301) 415-1700.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 53 FR 13399, Apr. 25, 1988; 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 68 FR 58810, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5724, Jan. 31, 2008; 84 FR 65644, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.38.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.41   Requirement to submit environmental information.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may require an applicant for a permit, license, or other form of permission, or amendment to or renewal of a permit, license or other form of permission, or a petitioner for rulemaking to submit such information to the Commission as may be useful in aiding the Commission in complying with section 102(2) of NEPA. The Commission will independently evaluate and be responsible for the reliability of any information which it uses.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="39" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>environmental reports—general requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.39.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.45   Environmental report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> As required by § 51.50, § 51.53, § 51.54, § 51.55, § 51.56, § 51.60, § 51.61, § 51.62, or § 51.68, as appropriate, each applicant or petitioner for rulemaking shall submit with its application or petition for rulemaking one signed original of a separate document entitled “Applicant's” or “Petitioner's Environmental Report,” as appropriate. An applicant or petitioner for rulemaking may submit a supplement to an environmental report at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Environmental considerations.</I> The environmental report shall contain a description of the proposed action, a statement of its purposes, a description of the environment affected, and discuss the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(1) The impact of the proposed action on the environment. Impacts shall be discussed in proportion to their significance;
</P>
<P>(2) Any adverse environmental effects which cannot be avoided should the proposal be implemented;
</P>
<P>(3) Alternatives to the proposed action. The discussion of alternatives shall be sufficiently complete to aid the Commission in developing and exploring, pursuant to section 102(2)(E) of NEPA, “appropriate alternatives to recommended courses of action in any proposal which involves unresolved conflicts concerning alternative uses of available resources.” To the extent practicable, the environmental impacts of the proposal and the alternatives should be presented in comparative form;
</P>
<P>(4) The relationship between local short-term uses of man's environment and the maintenance and enhancement of long-term productivity; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any irreversible and irretrievable commitments of resources which would be involved in the proposed action should it be implemented.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Analysis.</I> The environmental report must include an analysis that considers and balances the environmental effects of the proposed action, the environmental impacts of alternatives to the proposed action, and alternatives available for reducing or avoiding adverse environmental effects. An environmental report required for materials licenses under § 51.60 must also include a description of those site preparation activities excluded from the definition of construction under § 51.4 which have been or will be undertaken at the proposed site (<I>i.e.,</I> those activities listed in paragraphs (2)(i) and (2)(ii) in the definition of construction contained in § 51.4); a description of the impacts of such excluded site preparation activities; and an analysis of the cumulative impacts of the proposed action when added to the impacts of such excluded site preparation activities on the human environment. An environmental report prepared at the early site permit stage under § 51.50(b), limited work authorization stage under § 51.49, construction permit stage under § 51.50(a), or combined license stage under § 51.50(c) must include a description of impacts of the preconstruction activities performed by the applicant at the proposed site (<I>i.e.,</I> those activities listed in paragraph (1)(ii) in the definition of “construction” contained in § 51.4), necessary to support the construction and operation of the facility which is the subject of the early site permit, limited work authorization, construction permit, or combined license application. The environmental report must also contain an analysis of the cumulative impacts of the activities to be authorized by the limited work authorization, construction permit, or combined license in light of the preconstruction impacts described in the environmental report. Except for an environmental report prepared at the early site permit stage, or an environmental report prepared at the license renewal stage under § 51.53(c), the analysis in the environmental report should also include consideration of the economic, technical, and other benefits and costs of the proposed action and its alternatives. Environmental reports prepared at the license renewal stage under § 51.53(c) need not discuss the economic or technical benefits and costs of either the proposed action or alternatives except if these benefits and costs are either essential for a determination regarding the inclusion of an alternative in the range of alternatives considered or relevant to mitigation. In addition, environmental reports prepared under § 51.53(c) need not discuss issues not related to the environmental effects of the proposed action and its alternatives. The analyses for environmental reports shall, to the fullest extent practicable, quantify the various factors considered. To the extent that there are important qualitative considerations or factors that cannot be quantified, those considerations or factors shall be discussed in qualitative terms. The environmental report should contain sufficient data to aid the Commission in its development of an independent analysis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Status of compliance.</I> The environmental report shall list all Federal permits, licenses, approvals and other entitlements which must be obtained in connection with the proposed action and shall describe the status of compliance with these requirements. The environmental report shall also include a discussion of the status of compliance with applicable environmental quality standards and requirements including, but not limited to, applicable zoning and land-use regulations, and thermal and other water pollution limitations or requirements which have been imposed by Federal, State, regional, and local agencies having responsibility for environmental protection. The discussion of alternatives in the report shall include a discussion of whether the alternatives will comply with such applicable environmental quality standards and requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adverse information.</I> The information submitted pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section should not be confined to information supporting the proposed action but should also include adverse information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 61 FR 28486, June 5, 1996; 61 FR 66542, Dec. 18, 1996; 68 FR 58810, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 49511, Aug. 28, 2007; 72 FR 57443, Oct. 9, 2007; 73 FR 22787, Apr. 28, 2008; 76 FR 56965, Sept. 15, 2011; 89 FR 106252, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>environmental reports—production and utilization facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.49" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.49   Environmental report—limited work authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limited work authorization submitted as part of complete construction permit or combined license application.</I> Each applicant for a construction permit or combined license applying for a limited work authorization under § 50.10(d) of this chapter in a complete application under 10 CFR 2.101(a)(1) through (a)(4), shall submit with its application a separate document, entitled, “Applicant's Environmental Report—Limited Work Authorization Stage,” which is in addition to the environmental report required by § 51.50 of this part. Each environmental report must also contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the need for the activities; and
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the environmental impacts that may reasonably be expected to result from the activities, the mitigation measures that the applicant proposes to implement to achieve the level of environmental impacts described, and a discussion of the reasons for rejecting mitigation measures that could be employed by the applicant to further reduce environmental impacts.
</P>
<P>(4) If the application for the construction permit or combined license will rely on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in its environmental report, then the environmental report for the limited work authorization may implement the process in § 51.50(d) to determine whether it can rely on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Phased application for limited work authorization and construction permit or combined license.</I> If the construction permit or combined license application is filed in accordance with § 2.101(a)(9) of this chapter, then the environmental report for part one of the application may be limited to a discussion of the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization. If the scope of the environmental report for part one is so limited, then:
</P>
<P>(1) Part two of the application must include the information required by § 51.50, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(2) If part two of the application will rely on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in its environmental report, then the environmental report for part one may implement the process in § 51.50(d) to determine whether it can rely on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limited work authorization submitted as part of an early site permit application.</I> Each applicant for an early site permit under subpart A of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter requesting a limited work authorization shall submit with its application the environmental report required by § 51.50(b). Each environmental report must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the need for the activities; and
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the environmental impacts that may reasonably be expected to result from the activities, the mitigation measures that the applicant proposes to implement to achieve the level of environmental impacts described, and a discussion of the reasons for rejecting mitigation measures that could be employed by the applicant to further reduce environmental impacts.
</P>
<P>(4) If the application for the early site permit will rely on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in its environmental report, then the environmental report for the limited work authorization may implement the process in § 51.50(d) to determine whether it can rely on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limited work authorization request submitted by early site permit holder.</I> Each holder of an early site permit requesting a limited work authorization shall submit with its application a document entitled, “Applicant's Environmental Report—Limited Work Authorization under Early Site Permit,” containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the need for the activities;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the environmental impacts that may reasonably be expected to result from the activities, the mitigation measures that the applicant proposes to implement to achieve the level of environmental impacts described, and a discussion of the reasons for rejecting mitigation measures that could be employed by the applicant to further reduce environmental impacts; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any new and significant information for issues related to the impacts of construction of the facility that were resolved in the early site permit proceeding with respect to the environmental impacts of the activities to be conducted under the limited work authorization.
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the process used to identify new and significant information regarding NRC's conclusions in the early site permit environmental impact statement. The process must be a reasonable methodology for identifying this new and significant information.
</P>
<P>(6) If the environmental impact statement for the early site permit relied on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in its environmental report, then the environmental report for the limited work authorization may implement the process in § 51.50(d) to determine whether it can rely on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part for issues that were not resolved in the environmental impact statement for the early site permit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limited work authorization for a site where an environmental impact statement was prepared, but the facility construction was not completed.</I> If the limited work authorization is for activities to be conducted at a site for which the Commission has previously prepared an environmental impact statement for the construction and operation of a nuclear power plant, and a construction permit was issued but construction of the plant was never completed, then the applicant's environmental report may incorporate by reference the earlier environmental impact statement. In the event of such referencing, the environmental report must identify:
</P>
<P>(1) Any new and significant information material to issues related to the impacts of construction of the facility that were resolved in the construction permit proceeding for the matters required to be addressed in paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the process used to identify new and significant information regarding the NRC's conclusions in the construction permit environmental impact statement. The process must use a reasonable methodology for identifying this new and significant information.
</P>
<P>(3) If the environmental impact statement for the construction permit relied on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in its environmental report, then the environmental report for the limited work authorization may implement the process in § 51.50(d) to determine whether it can rely on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Environmental report.</I> An environmental report submitted in accordance with this section must separately evaluate the environmental impacts and proposed alternatives attributable to the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization. At the option of the applicant, the “Applicant's Environmental Report—Limited Work Authorization Stage,” may contain the information required to be submitted in the environmental report required under § 51.50, which addresses the impacts of construction and operation for the proposed facility (including the environmental impacts attributable to the limited work authorization), and discusses the overall costs and benefits balancing for the proposed action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 57444, Oct. 9, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15793, Mar. 30, 2026; 91 FR 22411, Apr. 24, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.50" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.50   Environmental report—construction permit, early site permit, or combined license stage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Construction permit stage.</I> Each applicant for a permit to construct a production or utilization facility covered by § 51.20 shall submit with its application a separate document, entitled “Applicant's Environmental Report—Construction Permit Stage,” which shall contain the information specified in §§ 51.45, 51.51, and 51.52. For non-light-water reactors as defined in § 50.2 of this chapter, the environmental report shall contain the basis for evaluating the contribution of the environmental effects of fuel cycle activities for the nuclear reactor. Each environmental report shall identify procedures for reporting and keeping records of environmental data, and any conditions and monitoring requirements for protecting the non-aquatic environment, proposed for possible inclusion in the license as environmental conditions in accordance with § 50.36b or § 53.1112 of this chapter. As stated in § 51.23, no discussion of the environmental impacts of the continued storage of spent fuel is required in this report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Early site permit stage.</I> Each applicant for an early site permit shall submit with its application a separate document, entitled “Applicant's Environmental Report—Early Site Permit Stage,” which shall contain the information specified in §§ 51.45, 51.51, and 51.52, as modified in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) The environmental report must include an evaluation of alternative sites to determine whether there is any obviously superior alternative to the site proposed.
</P>
<P>(2) The environmental report may address one or more of the environmental effects of construction and operation of a reactor, or reactors, which have design characteristics that fall within the site characteristics and design parameters for the early site permit application, provided however, that the environmental report must address all environmental effects of construction and operation necessary to determine whether there is any obviously superior alternative to the site proposed. The environmental report need not include an assessment of the economic, technical, or other benefits (for example, need for power) and costs of the proposed action or an evaluation of alternative energy sources. As stated in § 51.23, no discussion of the environmental impacts of the continued storage of spent fuel is required in this report.
</P>
<P>(3) For other than light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors, the environmental report must contain the basis for evaluating the contribution of the environmental effects of fuel cycle activities for the nuclear power reactor.
</P>
<P>(4) Each environmental report must identify the procedures for reporting and keeping records of environmental data, and any conditions and monitoring requirements for protecting the non-aquatic environment, proposed for possible inclusion in the license as environmental conditions in accordance with § 50.36b or § 53.1112 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Combined license stage.</I> Each applicant for a combined license shall submit with its application a separate document, entitled “Applicant's Environmental Report—Combined License Stage.” Each environmental report shall contain the information specified in §§ 51.45, 51.51, and 51.52, as modified in this paragraph. For other than light-water-cooled nuclear power reactors, the environmental report shall contain the basis for evaluating the contribution of the environmental effects of fuel cycle activities for the nuclear power reactor. Each environmental report shall identify procedures for reporting and keeping records of environmental data, and any conditions and monitoring requirements for protecting the non-aquatic environment, proposed for possible inclusion in the license as environmental conditions in accordance with § 50.36b or § 53.1112 of this chapter. The combined license environmental report may reference information contained in a final environmental document previously prepared by the NRC staff. As stated in § 51.23, no discussion of the environmental impacts of the continued storage of spent fuel is required in this report.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Application referencing an early site permit.</I> If the combined license application references an early site permit, then the “Applicant's Environmental Report—Combined License Stage” need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in “Applicant's Environmental Report—Early Site Permit Stage,” or resolved in the Commission's early site permit environmental impact statement, but must contain, in addition to the environmental information and analyses otherwise required:
</P>
<P>(i) Information to demonstrate that the design of the facility falls within the site characteristics and design parameters specified in the early site permit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information to resolve any significant environmental issue that was not resolved in the early site permit proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any new and significant information for issues related to the impacts of construction and operation of the facility that were resolved in the early site permit proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the process used to identify new and significant information regarding the NRC's conclusions in the early site permit environmental impact statement. The process must use a reasonable methodology for identifying such new and significant information; and
</P>
<P>(v) A demonstration that all environmental terms and conditions that have been included in the early site permit will be satisfied by the date of issuance of the combined license. Any terms or conditions of the early site permit that could not be met by the time of issuance of the combined license, must be set forth as terms or conditions of the combined license.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application referencing standard design certification.</I> If the combined license references a standard design certification, then the combined license environmental report may incorporate by reference the environmental assessment previously prepared by the NRC for the referenced design certification. If the design certification environmental assessment is referenced, then the combined license environmental report must contain information to demonstrate that the site characteristics for the combined license site fall within the site parameters in the design certification environmental assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application referencing a manufactured reactor.</I> If the combined license application proposes to use a manufactured reactor, then the combined license environmental report may incorporate by reference the environmental assessment previously prepared by the NRC for the underlying manufacturing license. If the manufacturing license environmental assessment is referenced, then the combined license environmental report must contain information to demonstrate that the site characteristics for the combined license site fall within the site parameters in the manufacturing license environmental assessment. The environmental report need not address the environmental impacts associated with manufacturing the reactor under the manufacturing license.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application for a construction permit, early site permit, or combined license for a nuclear reactor.</I> If an application is for a construction permit, an early site permit, or a combined license that does not reference an early site permit for a nuclear reactor, as defined in § 50.2 of this chapter, and further, if the applicant chooses to rely upon the findings of one or more of the issues identified as Category 1 issues in appendix C to subpart A of this part, then, in addition to the information and analyses required in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, as appropriate, the applicant's environmental report will be subject to the following conditions and considerations:
</P>
<P>(1) The environmental report must contain information to demonstrate that the values and assumptions in appendix C to subpart A of this part are met, and no new and significant information is identified in accordance with paragraph (d)(5) of this section, for each Category 1 issue for which the applicant relies on the finding for that issue.
</P>
<P>(2) The environmental report is not required to contain analyses of the environmental impacts of any issue identified as a Category 1 issue in appendix C to subpart A of this part, provided that the environmental report contains the information specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The environmental report must contain analyses of the environmental impacts of the proposed action, including the construction, operation, and decommissioning of the proposed nuclear reactor, for:
</P>
<P>(i) Any Category 1 issue for which the values and assumptions are not met or for which new and significant information is identified in accordance with paragraph (d)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each issue identified as a Category 2 issue in appendix C to subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The environmental report must contain a consideration of alternatives for reducing adverse environmental impacts, as required by § 51.45(c), for all issues identified as Category 1 issues in appendix C to subpart A of this part for which the environmental report does not contain the information specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and for all issues identified as Category 2 issues in appendix C to subpart A of this part. No such consideration is required for Category 1 issues in appendix C to subpart A of this part that meet the applicable values and assumptions as specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The environmental report must contain any new and significant information of which the applicant is aware regarding the environmental impacts for all issues identified as Category 1 issues in appendix C to subpart A of this part for which the applicant relies on the findings for those issues.
</P>
<P>(6) The environmental report must contain a description of the process used to identify new and significant information regarding the issues identified as Category 1 issues in appendix C to subpart A of this part for which the applicant relies on the findings for those issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49511, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 56260, Sept. 19, 2014; 91 FR 15793, Mar. 30, 2026; 91 FR 22411, Apr. 24, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.51   Uranium fuel cycle environmental data—Table S-3.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under § 51.50, every environmental report prepared for the construction permit stage or early site permit stage or combined license stage of a light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor, and submitted on or after September 4, 1979, shall take Table S-3, Table of Uranium Fuel Cycle Environmental Data, as the basis for evaluating the contribution of the environmental effects of uranium mining and milling, the production of uranium hexafluoride, isotopic enrichment, fuel fabrication, reprocessing of irradiated fuel, transportation of radioactive materials and management of low-level wastes and high-level wastes related to uranium fuel cycle activities to the environmental costs of licensing the nuclear power reactor. Table S-3 shall be included in the environmental report and may be supplemented by a discussion of the environmental significance of the data set forth in the table as weighed in the analysis for the proposed facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Table S-3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table S-3—Table of Uranium Fuel Cycle Environmental Data 
<sup>1</sup>
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Normalized to model LWR annual fuel requirement [WASH-1248] or reference reactor year [NUREG-0116]]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Environmental considerations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum effect per annual fuel requirement or reference reactor year of model 1,000 MWe LWR
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="04">Natural Resource Use</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Land (acres):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Temporarily committed 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Undisturbed area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Disturbed area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equivalent to a 110 MWe coal-fired power plant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Permanently committed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Overburden moved (millions of MT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equivalent to 95 MWe coal-fired power plant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water (millions of gallons):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Discharged to air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> = 2 percent of model 1,000 MWe LWR with cooling tower.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Discharged to water bodies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,090
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Discharged to ground</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,377</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;4 percent of model 1,000 MWe LWR with once-through cooling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fossil fuel:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Electrical energy (thousands of MW-hour)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">323</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;5 percent of model 1,000 MWe LWR output.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Equivalent coal (thousands of MT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equivalent to the consumption of a 45 MWe coal-fired power plant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Natural gas (millions of scf)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;0.4 percent of model 1,000 MWe energy output.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="04">Effluents—Chemical (MT)</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gases (including entrainment): 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">SO<E T="52">X</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,400
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">NO<E T="52">X</E>
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,190</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Equivalent to emissions from 45 MWe coal-fired plant for a year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Hydrocarbons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">CO</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.6
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Particulates</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,154
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other gases:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Principally from UF<E T="52">6</E> production, enrichment, and reprocessing. Concentration within range of state standards—below level that has effects on human health.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">HCl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.014
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquids:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SO <E T="51">−</E><E T="52">4</E>
<br/>NO <E T="51">−</E><E T="52">3</E>
<br/>Fluoride
<br/>Ca 
<sup>+</sup>
<br/>C1 <E T="51">−</E>
<br/>Na 
<sup>+</sup>
<br/>NH <E T="52">3</E>
<br/>Fe</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9
<br/>25.8
<br/>12.9
<br/>5.4
<br/>8.5
<br/>12.1
<br/>10.0
<br/>.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From enrichment, fuel fabrication, and reprocessing steps. Components that constitute a potential for adverse environmental effect are present in dilute concentrations and receive additional dilution by receiving bodies of water to levels below permissible standards. The constituents that require dilution and the flow of dilution water are: NH <E T="52">3</E>—600 cfs., NO <E T="52">3</E>—20 cfs., Fluoride—70 cfs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tailings solutions (thousands of MT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From mills only—no significant effluents to environment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Solids</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Principally from mills—no significant effluents to environment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Effluents—Radiological (curies)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gases (including entrainment):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rn-222</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presently under reconsideration by the Commission.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ra-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.02
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Th-230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.02
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Uranium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.034
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tritium (thousands)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">C-14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Kr-85 (thousands)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ru-106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Principally from fuel reprocessing plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">I-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">I-131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.83
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Tc-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Presently under consideration by the Commission.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fission products and transuranics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.203
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquids:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Uranium and daughters</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Principally from milling—included tailings liquor and returned to ground—no effluents; therefore, no effect on environment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Ra-226</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0034</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From UF<E T="52">6</E> production.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Th-230</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.0015
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Th-234</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From fuel fabrication plants—concentration 10 percent of 10 CFR 20 for total processing 26 annual fuel requirements for model LWR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fission and activation products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Solids (buried on site):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Other than high level (shallow)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9,100 Ci comes from low level reactor wastes and 1,500 Ci comes from reactor decontamination and decommissioning—buried at land burial facilities. 600 Ci comes from mills—included in tailings returned to ground. Approximately 60 Ci comes from conversion and spent fuel storage. No significant effluent to the environment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">TRU and HLW (deep)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Buried at Federal Repository.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Effluents—thermal (billions of British thermal units)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,063</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;5 percent of model 1,000 MWe LWR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transportation (person-rem):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Exposure of workers and general public</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Occupational exposure (person-rem)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">From reprocessing and waste management.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> In some cases where no entry appears it is clear from the background documents that the matter was addressed and that, in effect, the Table should be read as if a specific zero entry had been made. However, there are other areas that are not addressed at all in the Table. Table S-3 does not include health effects from the effluents described in the Table, or estimates of releases of Radon-222 from the uranium fuel cycle or estimates of Technetium-99 released from waste management or reprocessing activities. These issues may be the subject of litigation in the individual licensing proceedings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Data supporting this table are given in the “Environmental Survey of the Uranium Fuel Cycle,” WASH-1248, April 1974; the “Environmental Survey of the Reprocessing and Waste Management Portion of the LWR Fuel Cycle,” NUREG-0116 (Supp.1 to WASH-1248); the “Public Comments and Task Force Responses Regarding the Environmental Survey of the Reprocessing and Waste Management Portions of the LWR Fuel Cycle,” NUREG-0216 (Supp. 2 to WASH-1248); and in the record of the final rulemaking pertaining to Uranium Fuel Cycle Impacts from Spent Fuel Reprocessing and Radioactive Waste Management, Docket RM-50-3. The contributions from reprocessing, waste management and transportation of wastes are maximized for either of the two fuel cycles (uranium only and no recycle). The contribution from transportation excludes transportation of cold fuel to a reactor and of irradiated fuel and radioactive wastes from a reactor which are considered in Table S-4 of § 51.20(g). The contributions from the other steps of the fuel cycle are given in columns A-E of Table S-3A of WASH-1248.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The contributions to temporarily committed land from reprocessing are not prorated over 30 years, since the complete temporary impact accrues regardless of whether the plant services one reactor for one year or 57 reactors for 30 years.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Estimated effluents based upon combustion of equivalent coal for power generation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> 1.2 percent from natural gas use and process.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984; 49 FR 10922, Mar. 23, 1984, as amended at 67 FR 77652, Dec. 19, 2002; 72 FR 49512, Aug. 28, 2007]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.52   Environmental effects of transportation of fuel and waste—Table S-4.</HEAD>
<P>Under § 51.50, every environmental report prepared for the construction permit stage or early site permit stage or combined license stage of a light-water-cooled nuclear power reactor, and submitted after February 4, 1975, shall contain a statement concerning transportation of fuel and radioactive wastes to and from the reactor. That statement shall indicate that the reactor and this transportation either meet all of the conditions in paragraph (a) of this section or all of the conditions of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a)(1) The reactor has a core thermal power level not exceeding 3,800 megawatts;
</P>
<P>(2) The reactor fuel is in the form of sintered uranium dioxide pellets having a uranium-235 enrichment not exceeding 4% by weight, and the pellets are encapsulated in zircaloy rods;
</P>
<P>(3) The average level of irradiation of the irradiated fuel from the reactor does not exceed 33,000 megawatt-days per metric ton, and no irradiated fuel assembly is shipped until at least 90 days after it is discharged from the reactor;
</P>
<P>(4) With the exception of irradiated fuel, all radioactive waste shipped from the reactor is packaged and in a solid form;
</P>
<P>(5) Unirradiated fuel is shipped to the reactor by truck; irradiated fuel is shipped from the reactor by truck, rail, or barge; and radioactive waste other than irradiated fuel is shipped from the reactor by truck or rail; and
</P>
<P>(6) The environmental impacts of transportation of fuel and waste to and from the reactor, with respect to normal conditions of transport and possible accidents in transport, are as set forth in Summary Table S-4 in paragraph (c) of this section; and the values in the table represent the contribution of the transportation to the environmental costs of licensing the reactor.
</P>
<P>(b) For reactors not meeting the conditions of paragraph (a) of this section, the statement shall contain a full description and detailed analysis of the environmental effects of transportation of fuel and wastes to and from the reactor, including values for the environmental impact under normal conditions of transport and for the environmental risk from accidents in transport. The statement shall indicate that the values determined by the analysis represent the contribution of such effects to the environmental costs of licensing the reactor.
</P>
<P>(c)
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Summary Table S-4—Environmental Impact of Transportation of Fuel and Waste to and From One Light-Water-Cooled Nuclear Power Reactor 
<sup>1</sup>
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">Normal Conditions of Transport
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Environmental impact
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat (per irradiated fuel cask in transit)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">250,000 Btu/hr.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weight (governed by Federal or State restrictions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">73,000 lbs. per truck; 100 tons per cask per rail car.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Traffic density:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Truck</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 1 per day.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rail</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 3 per month.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exposed population 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated number of persons exposed 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Range of doses to exposed individuals 
<sup>2</sup> (per reactor year) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cumulative dose to exposed population (per reactor year) 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transportation workers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 to 300 millirem</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 man-rem.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General public:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Onlookers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.003 to 1.3 millirem</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 man-rem.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Along Route</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0001 to 0.06 millirem</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_description">Accidents in Transport
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Environmental risk
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radiological effects</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small 
<sup>4</sup> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Common (nonradiological) causes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 fatal injury in 100 reactor years; 1 nonfatal injury in 10 reactor years; $475 property damage per reactor year. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Data supporting this table are given in the Commission's “Environmental Survey of Transportation of Radioactive Materials to and from Nuclear Power Plants,” WASH-1238, December 1972; and Supp. 1 of NUREG-75/038, April 1975. Both documents are available for inspection and copying at the Commission's Public Document Room, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852 and may be obtained from National Technical Information Service, Springfield, VA 22161. The WASH-1238 is available from NTIS at a cost of $5.45 (microfiche, $2.25) and NUREG-75/038 is available at a cost of $3.25 (microfiche, $2.25).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The Federal Radiation Council has recommended that the radiation doses from all sources of radiation other than natural background and medical exposures should be limited to 5,000 millirem per year for individuals as a result of occupational exposure and should be limited to 500 millirem per year for individuals in the general population. The dose to individuals due to average natural background radiation is about 130 millirem per year. 


</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Man-rem is an expression for the summation of whole body doses to individuals in a group. Thus, if each member of a population group of 1,000 people were to receive a dose of 0.001 rem (1 millirem), or if 2 people were to receive a dose of 0.5 rem (500 millirem) each, the total man-rem dose in each case would be 1 man-rem.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Athough the environmental risk of radiological effects stemming from transportation accidents is currently incapable of being numerically quantified, the risk remains small regardless of whether it is being applied to a single reactor or a multireactor site.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984; 49 FR 10922, Mar. 23, 1984, as amended at 53 FR 43420, Oct. 27, 1988; 72 FR 49512, Aug. 28, 2007; 79 FR 66604, Nov. 10, 2014; 86 FR 67843, Nov. 30, 2021]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.53   Postconstruction environmental reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any environmental report prepared under the provisions of this section may incorporate by reference any information contained in a prior environmental report or supplement thereto that relates to the production or utilization facility or site, or any information contained in a final environmental document previously prepared by the NRC staff that relates to the production or utilization facility or site. Documents that may be referenced include, but are not limited to, the final environmental impact statement; supplements to the final environmental impact statement, including supplements prepared at the license renewal stage; NRC staff-prepared final generic environmental impact statements; and environmental assessments and records of decisions prepared in connection with the construction permit, operating license, early site permit, combined license and any license amendment for that facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operating license stage.</I> Each applicant for a license to operate a production or utilization facility covered by § 51.20 shall submit with its application a separate document entitled “Supplement to Applicant's Environmental Report—Operating License Stage,” which will update “Applicant's Environmental Report—Construction Permit Stage.” Unless otherwise required by the Commission, the applicant for an operating license for a nuclear power reactor shall submit this report only in connection with the first licensing action authorizing full-power operation. In this report, the applicant shall discuss the same matters described in §§ 51.45, 51.51, and 51.52, but only to the extent that they differ from those discussed or reflect new information in addition to that discussed in the final environmental impact statement prepared by the Commission in connection with the construction permit. No discussion of need for power, or of alternative energy sources, or of alternative sites for the facility, is required in this report. As stated in § 51.23, no discussion of the environmental impacts of the continued storage of spent fuel is required in this report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operating license renewal stage.</I> (1) Each applicant for renewal of a license to operate a nuclear power plant under part 54 of this chapter shall submit with its application a separate document entitled “Applicant's Environmental Report—Operating License Renewal Stage.” 
</P>
<P>(2) The report must contain a description of the proposed action, including the applicant's plans to modify the facility or its administrative control procedures as described in accordance with § 54.21 of this chapter. This report must describe in detail the affected environment around the plant, the modifications directly affecting the environment or any plant effluents, and any planned refurbishment activities. In addition, the applicant shall discuss in this report the environmental impacts of alternatives and any other matters described in § 51.45. The report is not required to include discussion of need for power or the economic costs and economic benefits of the proposed action or of alternatives to the proposed action except insofar as such costs and benefits are either essential for a determination regarding the inclusion of an alternative in the range of alternatives considered or relevant to mitigation. The environmental report need not discuss other issues not related to the environmental effects of the proposed action and the alternatives. As stated in § 51.23, no discussion of the environmental impacts of the continued storage of spent fuel is required in this report.
</P>
<P>(3) For those applicants seeking an initial renewed license and holding an operating license, construction permit, or combined license as of June 30, 1995, the environmental report shall include the information required in paragraph (c)(2) of this section subject to the following conditions and considerations:
</P>
<P>(i) The environmental report for the operating license renewal stage is not required to contain analyses of the environmental impacts of the license renewal issues identified as Category 1 issues in appendix B to subpart A of this part. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The environmental report must contain analyses of the environmental impacts of the proposed action, including the impacts of refurbishment activities, if any, associated with license renewal and the impacts of operation during the renewal term, for those issues identified as Category 2 issues in appendix B to subpart A of this part. The required analyses are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(A) If the applicant's plant utilizes cooling towers or cooling ponds and withdraws makeup water from a river, an assessment of the impact of the proposed action on water availability and competing water demands, the flow of the river, and related impacts on stream (aquatic) and riparian (terrestrial) ecological communities must be provided. The applicant shall also provide an assessment of the impacts of the withdrawal of water from the river on alluvial aquifers during low flow. 
</P>
<P>(B) If the applicant's plant utilizes once-through cooling or cooling pond water intake and discharge systems, the applicant shall provide a copy of current Clean Water Act 316(b) Best Technology Available determinations and, if applicable, a 316(a) variance in accordance with 40 CFR part 125, or equivalent State permits and supporting documentation. If the applicant cannot provide these documents, it shall assess the impact of the proposed action on fish and shellfish resources resulting from impingement mortality and entrainment and thermal discharges.
</P>
<P>(C) If the applicant's plant pumps more than 100 gallons (total onsite) of groundwater per minute, an assessment of the impact of the proposed action on groundwater must be provided.
</P>
<P>(D) If the applicant's plant utilizes cooling ponds, an assessment of the impact of the proposed action on groundwater quality must be provided. 
</P>
<P>(E) All license renewal applicants shall assess the impact of refurbishment, continued operations, and other license renewal-related construction activities on important plant and animal habitats. Additionally, the applicant shall assess the impact of the proposed action on federally protected ecological resources in accordance with Federal laws protecting such resources, including but not limited to, the Endangered Species Act, the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, and the National Marine Sanctuaries Act.
</P>
<P>(F) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(G) If the applicant's plant uses a cooling pond, lake, canal, or discharges to publicly accessible surface waters, an assessment of the impact of the proposed action on public health from thermophilic organisms in the affected water must be provided.
</P>
<P>(H) If the applicant's transmission lines that were constructed for the specific purpose of connecting the plant to the transmission system do not meet the recommendations of the National Electric Safety Code for preventing electric shock from induced currents, an assessment of the impact of the proposed action on the potential shock hazard from the transmission lines must be provided. 
</P>
<P>(I)-(J) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(K) All applicants shall identify any potentially affected historic and cultural resources and historic properties and assess whether continued operations and any planned refurbishment activities would affect these resources in accordance with the Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act and in the context of the National Environmental Policy Act.
</P>
<P>(L) If the staff has not previously considered severe accident mitigation alternatives for the applicant's plant in an environmental impact statement or related supplement or in an environmental assessment, a consideration of alternatives to mitigate severe accidents must be provided. 
</P>
<P>(M) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(N) Applicants shall provide information on the general demographic composition of minority and low-income populations and communities (by race and ethnicity) and Indian Tribes in the vicinity of the nuclear power plant that could be disproportionately affected by license renewal, including continued reactor operations and refurbishment activities.
</P>
<P>(O) Applicants shall provide information about other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable actions occurring in the vicinity of the nuclear plant that may result in a cumulative effect.
</P>
<P>(P) An applicant shall assess the impact of any documented inadvertent releases of radionuclides into groundwater. The applicant shall include in its assessment a description of any groundwater protection program used for the surveillance of piping and components containing radioactive liquids for which a pathway to groundwater may exist. The assessment must also include a description of any past inadvertent releases and the projected impact to the environment (e.g., aquifers, rivers, lakes, ponds, ocean) during the license renewal term.
</P>
<P>(Q) Applicants shall include an assessment of the effects of any observed and projected changes in climate on environmental resource areas that are affected by license renewal.


</P>
<P>(iii) The report must contain a consideration of alternatives for reducing adverse impacts, as required by § 51.45(c), for all Category 2 license renewal issues in appendix B to subpart A of this part. No such consideration is required for Category 1 issues in appendix B to subpart A of this part. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The environmental report must contain any new and significant information regarding the environmental impacts of license renewal of which the applicant is aware. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Postoperating license stage.</I> Each applicant for a license amendment authorizing decommissioning activities for a production or utilization facility either for unrestricted use or based on continuing use restrictions applicable to the site; and each applicant for a license amendment approving a license termination plan or decommissioning plan under § 50.82, § 52.110, or § 53.1080 of this chapter either for unrestricted use or based on continuing use restrictions applicable to the site; and each applicant for a license or license amendment to store spent fuel at a nuclear power reactor after expiration of the operating license for the nuclear power reactor shall submit with its application a separate document, entitled “Supplement to Applicant's Environmental Report—Post Operating License Stage,” which will update “Applicant's Environmental Report—Operating License Stage,” as appropriate, to reflect any new information or significant environmental change associated with the applicant's proposed decommissioning activities or with the applicant's proposed activities with respect to the planned storage of spent fuel. As stated in § 51.23, no discussion of the environmental impacts of the continued storage of spent fuel is required in this report. The “Supplement to Applicant's Environmental Report—Post Operating License Stage” may incorporate by reference any information contained in “Applicant's Environmental Report—Construction Permit Stage.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 66543, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 48506, Sept. 3, 1999; 68 FR 58810, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 49513, Aug. 28, 2007; 78 FR 37316, June 20, 2013; 79 FR 56260, Sept. 19, 2014; 79 FR 66604, Nov. 10, 2014; 89 FR 64189, Aug. 6, 2024; 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026; 91 FR 22412, Apr. 24, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.54" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.54   Environmental report—manufacturing license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant for a manufacturing license under subpart F of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter shall submit with its application a separate document entitled, “Applicant's Environmental Report—Manufacturing License.” The environmental report must address the costs and benefits of severe accident mitigation design alternatives, and the bases for not incorporating severe accident mitigation design alternatives into the design of the reactor to be manufactured. The environmental report need not address the environmental impacts associated with manufacturing the reactor under the manufacturing license, the benefits and impacts of utilizing the reactor in a nuclear power plant, or an evaluation of alternative energy sources.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant for an amendment to a manufacturing license shall submit with its application a separate document entitled, “Applicant's Supplemental Environmental Report—Amendment to Manufacturing License.” The environmental report must address whether the design change which is the subject of the proposed amendment either renders a severe accident mitigation design alternative previously rejected in an environmental assessment to become cost beneficial, or results in the identification of new severe accident mitigation design alternatives that may be reasonably incorporated into the design of the manufactured reactor. The environmental report need not address the environmental impacts associated with manufacturing the reactor under the manufacturing license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49513, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.55   Environmental report—standard design certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant for a standard design certification under subpart B of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter shall submit with its application a separate document entitled, “Applicant's Environmental Report—Standard Design Certification.” The environmental report must address the costs and benefits of severe accident mitigation design alternatives, and the bases for not incorporating severe accident mitigation design alternatives in the design to be certified.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant for an amendment to a design certification shall submit with its application a separate document entitled, “Applicant's Supplemental Environmental Report—Amendment to Standard Design Certification.” The environmental report must address whether the design change which is the subject of the proposed amendment either renders a severe accident mitigation design alternative previously rejected in an environmental assessment to become cost beneficial, or results in the identification of new severe accident mitigation design alternatives that may be reasonably incorporated into the design certification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49513, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.56" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.56   Environmental report—non-power production or utilization facility.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant for a non-power production or utilization construction permit or facility license, or renewal of a non-power production or utilization facility license issued pursuant to § 50.21(a) or (c) or § 50.22 of this chapter shall submit a separate document, entitled “Applicant's Environmental Report” or “Supplement to Applicant's Environmental Report,” as appropriate, with its application to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. The environmental report or supplement shall contain the information specified in § 51.45. If the application is for a renewal of a license for which the applicant has previously submitted an environmental report, the supplement, to the extent applicable, shall include an analysis of any environmental impacts resulting from operational experience or a change in operations, and an analysis of any environmental impacts that may result from proposed decommissioning activities.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 106252, Dec. 30, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.58" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.40.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.58   Environmental report—number of copies; distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant for a license or permit to site, construct, manufacture, or operate a production or utilization facility covered by § 51.20(b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), or (b)(4), each applicant for renewal of an operating or combined license for a nuclear power plant, each applicant for a license amendment authorizing the decommissioning of a production or utilization facility covered by § 51.20, and each applicant for a license or license amendment to store spent fuel at a nuclear power plant after expiration of the operating license or combined license for the nuclear power plant shall submit a copy to the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, of an environmental report or any supplement to an environmental report. These reports must be sent either by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk; U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, between the hours of 7:30 a.m. and 4:15 p.m. eastern time; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent. If a submission due date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the next Federal working day becomes the official due date. The applicant shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies of the environmental report or any supplement to the environmental report for subsequent distribution to parties and Boards in the NRC proceedings; Federal, State, and local officials; and any affected Indian Tribes, in accordance with written instructions issued by the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation or the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate.


</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant for a license to manufacture a nuclear power reactor, or for an amendment to a license to manufacture, seeking approval of the final design of the nuclear power reactor under subpart F of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, shall submit to the Commission an environmental report or any supplement to an environmental report in the manner specified in § 50.3 or § 53.040 of this chapter. The applicant shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies of the environmental report or any supplement to the environmental report for subsequent distribution to parties and Boards in the NRC proceeding; Federal, State, and local officials; and any affected Indian Tribes, in accordance with written instructions issued by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49513, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 62682, Dec. 1, 2009; 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019; 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>environmental reports—materials licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.60" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.41.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.60   Environmental report—materials licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant for a license or other form of permission, or an amendment to or renewal of a license or other form of permission issued pursuant to parts 30, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 39, 40, 61, 70 and/or 72 of this chapter, and covered by paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section, shall submit with its application to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, a separate document, entitled “Applicant's Environmental Report” or “Supplement to Applicant's Environmental Report,” as appropriate. The “Applicant's Environmental Report” shall contain the information specified in § 51.45. If the application is for an amendment to or a renewal of a license or other form of permission for which the applicant has previously submitted an environmental report, the supplement to applicant's environmental report may be limited to incorporating by reference, updating or supplementing the information previously submitted to reflect any significant environmental change, including any significant environmental change resulting from operational experience or a change in operations or proposed decommissioning activities. If the applicant is the U.S. Department of Energy, the environmental report may be in the form of either an environmental impact statement or an environmental assessment, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) As required by paragraph (a) of this section, each applicant shall prepare an environmental report for the following types of actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Issuance or renewal of a license or other form of permission for:
</P>
<P>(i) Possession and use of special nuclear material for processing and fuel fabrication, scrap recovery, or conversion of uranium hexafluoride pursuant to part 70 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Possession and use of source material for uranium milling or production of uranium hexafluoride pursuant to part 40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Storage of spent fuel in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or the storage of spent fuel or high-level radio-active waste in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) pursuant to part 72 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Receipt and disposal of radioactive waste from other persons pursuant to part 61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(v) Processing of source material for extraction of rare earth and other metals.
</P>
<P>(vi) Use of radioactive tracers in field flood studies involving secondary and tertiary oil and gas recovery. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Construction and operation of a uranium enrichment facility.
</P>
<P>(2) Issuance of an amendment that would authorize or result in (i) a significant expansion of a site, (ii) a significant change in the types of effluents, (iii) a significant increase in the amounts of effluents, (iv) a significant increase in individual or cumulative occupational radiation exposure, (v) a significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents, or (vi) a significant increase in spent fuel storage capacity, in a license or other form of permission to conduct an activity listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Amendment of a license to authorize the decommissioning of an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) pursuant to part 72 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Issuance of a license amendment pursuant to part 61 of this chapter authorizing (i) closure of a land disposal site, (ii) transfer of the license to the disposal site owner for the purpose of institutional control, or (iii) termination of the license at the end of the institutional control period. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other licensing action for which the Commission determines an Environmental Report is necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 53 FR 31681, Aug. 19, 1988; 57 FR 18392, Apr. 30, 1992; 58 FR 7737, Feb. 9, 1993; 62 FR 26732, May 14, 1997; 68 FR 58811, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.41.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.61   Environmental report—independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) license.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant for issuance of a license for storage of spent fuel in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or for the storage of spent fuel and high-level radioactive waste in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) pursuant to part 72 of this chapter shall submit with its application to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, a separate document entitled “Applicant's Environmental Report—ISFSI License” or “Applicant's Environmental Report—MRS License,” as appropriate. If the applicant is the U.S. Department of Energy, the environmental report may be in the form of either an environmental impact statement or an environmental assessment, as appropriate. The environmental report shall contain the information specified in § 51.45 and shall address the siting evaluation factors contained in subpart E of part 72 of this chapter. As stated in § 51.23, no discussion of the environmental impacts of the continued storage of spent fuel in an ISFSI is required in this report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 56261, Sept. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.41.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.62   Environmental report—land disposal of radioactive waste licensed under 10 CFR part 61.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant for issuance of a license for land disposal of radioactive waste pursuant to part 61 of this chapter shall submit with its application to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, a separate document, entitled “Applicant's Environmental Report—License for Land Disposal of Radioactive Waste.” The environmental report and any supplement to the environmental report may incorporate by reference information contained in the application or in any previous application, statement or report filed with the Commission provided that such references are clear and specific and that copies of the information so incorporated are available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room.
</P>
<P>(b) The environmental report shall contain the information specified in § 51.45, shall address the applicant's environmental monitoring program required by §§ 61.12(l), 61.53 and 61.59(b) of this chapter, and shall be as complete as possible in the light of information that is available at the time the environmental report is submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant shall supplement the environmental report in a timely manner as necessary to permit the Commission to review, prior to issuance, amendment or renewal of a license, new information regarding the environmental impact of previously proposed activities, information regarding the environmental impact of any changes in previously proposed activities, or any significant new information regarding the environmental impact of closure activities and long-term performance of the disposal site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 53 FR 43420, Oct. 27, 1988; 64 FR 48952, Sept. 9, 1999; 68 FR 58811, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.66" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.41.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.66   Environmental report—number of copies; distribution.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant for a license or other form of permission, or an amendment to or renewal of a license or other form of permission issued under parts 30, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 39, 40, 61, 70, and/or 72 of this chapter, and covered by § 51.60(b)(1) through (6); or by § 51.61 or § 51.62 shall submit to the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards an environmental report or any supplement to an environmental report in the manner specified in § 51.58(a). The applicant shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies of the environmental report or any supplement to the environmental report for subsequent distribution to Federal, State, and local officials, and any affected Indian Tribes in accordance with written instructions issued by the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49514, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.67" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.41.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.67   Environmental information concerning geologic repositories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In lieu of an environmental report, the Department of Energy, as an applicant for a license or license amendment pursuant to part 60 or 63 of this chapter, shall submit to the Commission any final environmental impact statement which the Department prepares in connection with any geologic repository developed under Subtitle A of Title I, or under Title IV, of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended. (See § 60.22 or § 63.22 of this chapter as to the required time and manner of submission.) The statement shall include, among the alternatives under consideration, denial of a license or construction authorization by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Under applicable provisions of law, the Department of Energy may be required to supplement its final environmental impact statement if it makes a substantial change in its proposed action that is relevant to environmental concerns or determines that there are significant new circumstances or information relevant to environmental concerns and bearing on the proposed action or its impacts. The Department shall submit any supplement to its final environmental impact statement to the Commission. (See § 60.22 or § 63.22 of this chapter as to the required time and manner of submission.) 
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the Department of Energy submits a final environmental impact statement, or a final supplement to an environmental impact statement, to the Commission pursuant to this section, it shall also inform the Commission of the status of any civil action for judicial review initiated pursuant to section 119 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982. This status report, which the Department shall update from time to time to reflect changes in status, shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) State whether the environmental impact statement has been found by the courts of the United States to be adequate or inadequate; and
</P>
<P>(2) Identify any issues relating to the adequacy of the environmental impact statement that may remain subject to judicial review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 27870, July 3, 1989, as amended at 66 FR 55791, Nov. 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="42" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>environmental reports—rulemaking</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.68" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.42.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.68   Environmental report—rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>Petitioners for rulemaking requesting amendments of parts 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 39, 40 or part 70 of this chapter concerning the exemption from licensing and regulatory requirements of or authorizing general licenses for any equipment, device, commodity or other product containing byproduct material, source material or special nuclear material shall submit with the petition a separate document entitled “Petitioner's Environmental Report,” which shall contain the information specified in § 51.45.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58811, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.43" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Environmental Impact Statements</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="44" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.44" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>draft environmental impact statements—general requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.70" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.44.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.70   Draft environmental impact statement—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC staff will prepare a draft environmental impact statement as soon as practicable after publication of the notice of intent to prepare an environmental impact statement and completion of the scoping process. To the fullest extent practicable, environmental impact statements will be prepared concurrently or integrated with environmental impact analyses and related surveys and studies required by other Federal law.
</P>
<P>(b) The draft environmental impact statement will be concise, clear and analytic, will be written in plain language with appropriate graphics, will state how alternatives considered in it and decisions based on it will or will not achieve the requirements of sections 101 and 102(1) of NEPA and of any other relevant and applicable environmental laws and policies, will identify any methodologies used and sources relied upon, and will be supported by evidence that the necessary environmental analyses have been made. The format provided in section 1(a) of appendix A of this subpart should be used. The NRC staff will independently evaluate and be responsible for the reliability of all information used in the draft environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will cooperate with State and local agencies to the fullest extent possible to reduce duplication between NEPA and State and local requirements, in accordance with 40 CFR 1506.2 (b) and (c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.44.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.71   Draft environmental impact statement—contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The draft environmental impact statement will be prepared in accordance with the scope decided upon in the scoping process required by §§ 51.26 and 51.29. As appropriate and to the extent required by the scope, the draft statement will address the topics in paragraphs (b), (c), (d) and (e) of this section and the matters specified in §§ 51.45, 51.50, 51.51, 51.52, 51.53, 51.54, 51.61 and 51.62.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Analysis of major points of view.</I> To the extent sufficient information is available, the draft environmental impact statement will include consideration of major points of view concerning the environmental impacts of the proposed action and the alternatives, and contain an analysis of significant problems and objections raised by other Federal, State, and local agencies, by any affected Indian Tribes, and by other interested persons.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Status of compliance.</I> The draft environmental impact statement will list all Federal permits, licenses, approvals, and other entitlements which must be obtained in implementing the proposed action and will describe the status of compliance with those requirements. If it is uncertain whether a Federal permit, license, approval, or other entitlement is necessary, the draft environmental impact statement will so indicate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Analysis.</I> Unless excepted in this paragraph or § 51.75, the draft environmental impact statement will include a preliminary analysis that considers and weighs the environmental effects, including any cumulative effects, of the proposed action; the environmental impacts of alternatives to the proposed action; and alternatives available for reducing or avoiding adverse environmental effects. Additionally, the draft environmental impact statement will include a consideration of the economic, technical, and other benefits and costs of the proposed action and alternatives. The draft environmental impact statement will indicate what other interests and considerations of Federal policy, including factors not related to environmental quality, if applicable, are relevant to the consideration of environmental effects of the proposed action identified under paragraph (a) of this section. The draft supplemental environmental impact statement prepared at the license renewal stage under § 51.95(c) need not discuss the economic or technical benefits and costs of either the proposed action or alternatives except if benefits and costs are either essential for a determination regarding the inclusion of an alternative in the range of alternatives considered or relevant to mitigation. In addition, the supplemental environmental impact statement prepared at the license renewal stage need not discuss other issues not related to the environmental effects of the proposed action and associated alternatives. The draft supplemental environmental impact statement for license renewal prepared under § 51.95(c) will rely on conclusions as amplified by the supporting information in the GEIS for issues designated as Category 1 in appendix B to subpart A of this part. The draft supplemental environmental impact statement must contain an analysis of those issues identified as Category 2 in appendix B to subpart A of this part that are open for the proposed action. The analysis for all draft environmental impact statements will, to the fullest extent practicable, quantify the various factors considered. To the extent that there are important qualitative considerations or factors that cannot be quantified, these considerations or factors will be discussed in qualitative terms. Consideration will be given to compliance with environmental quality standards and requirements that have been imposed by Federal, State, regional, and local agencies having responsibility for environmental protection, including applicable zoning and land-use regulations and water pollution limitations or requirements issued or imposed under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act. The environmental impact of the proposed action will be considered in the analysis with respect to matters covered by environmental quality standards and requirements irrespective of whether a certification or license from the appropriate authority has been obtained. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> While satisfaction of Commission standards and criteria pertaining to radiological effects will be necessary to meet the licensing requirements of the Atomic Energy Act, the analysis will, for the purposes of NEPA, consider the radiological effects of the proposed action and alternatives.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Compliance with the environmental quality standards and requirements of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (imposed by EPA or designated permitting states) is not a substitute for, and does not negate the requirement for NRC to weigh all environmental effects of the proposed action, including the degradation, if any, of water quality, and to consider alternatives to the proposed action that are available for reducing adverse effects. Where an environmental assessment of aquatic impact from plant discharges is available from the permitting authority, the NRC will consider the assessment in its determination of the magnitude of environmental impacts for striking an overall cost-benefit balance at the construction permit and operating license and early site permit and combined license stages, and in its determination of whether the adverse environmental impacts of license renewal are so great that preserving the option of license renewal for energy planning decision-makers would be unreasonable at the license renewal stage. When no such assessment of aquatic impacts is available from the permitting authority, NRC will establish on its own, or in conjunction with the permitting authority and other agencies having relevant expertise, the magnitude of potential impacts for striking an overall cost-benefit balance for the facility at the construction permit and operating license and early site permit and combined license stages, and in its determination of whether the adverse environmental impacts of license renewal are so great that preserving the option of license renewal for energy planning decision-makers would be unreasonable at the license renewal stage.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of limited work authorization.</I> If a limited work authorization was issued either in connection with or subsequent to an early site permit, or in connection with a construction permit or combined license application, then the environmental impact statement for the construction permit or combined license application will not address or consider the sunk costs associated with the limited work authorization.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Preliminary recommendation.</I> The draft environmental impact statement normally will include a preliminary recommendation by the NRC staff respecting the proposed action. This preliminary recommendation will be based on the information and analysis described in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section and §§ 51.75, 51.76, 51.80, 51.85, and 51.95, as appropriate, and will be reached after considering the environmental effects of the proposed action and reasonable alternatives, 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> and, except for supplemental environmental impact statements for the operating license renewal stage prepared pursuant to § 51.95(c), after weighing the costs and benefits of the proposed action. In lieu of a recommendation, the NRC staff may indicate in the draft statement that two or more alternatives remain under consideration. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The consideration of reasonable alternatives to a proposed action involving nuclear power reactors (e.g., alternative energy sources) is intended to assist the NRC in meeting its NEPA obligations and does not preclude any State authority from making separate determinations with respect to these alternatives and in no way preempts, displaces, or affects the authority of States or other Federal agencies to address these issues.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 61 FR 28488, June 5, 1996; 61 FR 66544, Dec. 18, 1996; 72 FR 49514, Aug. 28, 2007; 72 FR 57445, Oct. 9, 2007; 78 FR 37317, June 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.44.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.72   Supplement to draft environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC staff will prepare a supplement to a draft environmental impact statement for which a notice of availability has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided in § 51.117, if:
</P>
<P>(1) There are substantial changes in the proposed action that are relevant to environmental concerns; or
</P>
<P>(2) There are significant new circumstances or information relevant to environmental concerns and bearing on the proposed action or its impacts.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC staff may prepare a supplement to a draft environmental impact statement when, in its opinion, preparation of a supplement will further the purposes of NEPA.
</P>
<P>(c) The supplement to a draft environmental impact statement will be prepared and noticed in the same manner as the draft environmental impact statement except that a scoping process need not be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.44.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.73   Request for comments on draft environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>Each draft environmental impact statement and each supplement to a draft environmental impact statement distributed in accordance with § 51.74, and each news release provided pursuant to § 51.74(d) will be accompanied by or include a request for comments on the proposed action and on the draft environmental impact statement or any supplement to the draft environmental impact statement and will state where comments should be submitted and the date on which the comment period closes. A minimum comment period of 45 days will be provided. The comment period will be calculated from the date on which the Environmental Protection Agency notice stating that the draft statement or the supplement to the draft statement has been filed with EPA is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> If no comments are provided within the time specified, it will be presumed, unless the agency or person requests an extension of time, that the agency or person has no comment to make. To the extent practicable, NRC staff will grant reasonable requests for extensions of time of up to fifteen (15) days. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.44.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.74   Distribution of draft environmental impact statement and supplement to draft environmental impact statement; news releases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A copy of the draft environmental impact statement will be distributed to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other Federal agency which has special expertise or jurisdiction by law with respect to any environmental impact involved or which is authorized to develop and enforce relevant environmental standards.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant or petitioner for rulemaking and any other party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriate State and local agencies authorized to develop and enforce relevant environmental standards.
</P>
<P>(5) Appropriate State, regional and metropolitan clearinghouses.
</P>
<P>(6) Appropriate Indian Tribes when the proposed action may have an environmental impact on a reservation.
</P>
<P>(7) Upon written request, any organization or group included in the master list of interested organizations and groups maintained under § 51.122.
</P>
<P>(8) Upon written request, any other person to the extent available.
</P>
<P>(b) Additional copies will be made available in accordance with § 51.123.
</P>
<P>(c) A supplement to a draft environmental impact statement will be distributed in the same manner as the draft environmental impact statement to which it relates.
</P>
<P>(d) News releases stating the availability for comment and place for obtaining or inspecting a draft environmental statement or supplement will be provided to local newspapers and other appropriate media.
</P>
<P>(e) A notice of availability will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 51.117.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.45" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>draft environmental impact statements—production and utilization facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.75" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.45.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.75   Draft environmental impact statement—construction permit, early site permit, or combined license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Construction permit stage.</I> A draft environmental impact statement relating to issuance of a construction permit for a production or utilization facility will be prepared in accordance with the procedures and measures described in §§ 51.70, 51.71, 51.72, and 51.73. The contribution of the environmental effects of the uranium fuel cycle activities specified in § 51.51 shall be evaluated on the basis of impact values set forth in Table S-3, Table of Uranium Fuel Cycle Environmental Data, which shall be set out in the draft environmental impact statement. With the exception of radon-222 and technetium-99 releases, no further discussion of fuel cycle release values and other numerical data that appear explicitly in the table shall be required.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> The impact statement shall take account of dose commitments and health effects from fuel cycle effluents set forth in Table S-3 and shall in addition take account of economic, socioeconomic, and possible cumulative impacts and other fuel cycle impacts as may reasonably appear significant. As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be deemed incorporated into the environmental impact statement.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Values for releases of Rn-222 and Tc-99 are not given in the table. The amount and significance of Rn-222 releases from the fuel cycle and Tc-99 releases from waste management or reprocessing activities shall be considered in the draft environmental impact statement and may be the subject of litigation in individual licensing proceedings.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Early site permit stage.</I> A draft environmental impact statement relating to issuance of an early site permit for a production or utilization facility will be prepared in accordance with the procedures and measures described in §§ 51.70, 51.71, 51.72, 51.73, and this section. The contribution of the environmental effects of the uranium fuel cycle activities specified in § 51.51 shall be evaluated on the basis of impact values set forth in Table S-3, Table of Uranium Fuel Cycle Environmental Data, which shall be set out in the draft environmental impact statement. With the exception of radon-222 and technetium-99 releases, no further discussion of fuel cycle release values and other numerical data that appear explicitly in the table shall be required.
<SU>5</SU> The impact statement shall take account of dose commitments and health effects from fuel cycle effluents set forth in Table S-3 and shall in addition take account of economic, socioeconomic, and possible cumulative impacts and other fuel cycle impacts as may reasonably appear significant. As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be deemed incorporated into the environmental impact statement. The draft environmental impact statement must include an evaluation of alternative sites to determine whether there is any obviously superior alternative to the site proposed. The draft environmental impact statement must also include an evaluation of the environmental effects of construction and operation of a reactor, or reactors, which have design characteristics that fall within the site characteristics and design parameters for the early site permit application, but only to the extent addressed in the early site permit environmental report or otherwise necessary to determine whether there is any obviously superior alternative to the site proposed. The draft environmental impact statement must not include an assessment of the economic, technical, or other benefits (for example, need for power) and costs of the proposed action or an evaluation of alternative energy sources, unless these matters are addressed in the early site permit environmental report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Combined license stage.</I> A draft environmental impact statement relating to issuance of a combined license that does not reference an early site permit will be prepared in accordance with the procedures and measures described in §§ 51.70, 51.71, 51.72, and 51.73. The contribution of the environmental effects of the uranium fuel cycle activities specified in § 51.51 shall be evaluated on the basis of impact values set forth in Table S-3, Table of Uranium Fuel Cycle Environmental Data, which shall be set out in the draft environmental impact statement. With the exception of radon-222 and technetium-99 releases, no further discussion of fuel cycle release values and other numerical data that appear explicitly in the table shall be required.
<SU>5</SU> The impact statement shall take account of dose commitments and health effects from fuel cycle effluents set forth in Table S-3 and shall in addition take account of economic, socioeconomic, and possible cumulative impacts and other fuel cycle impacts as may reasonably appear significant. As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be deemed incorporated into the environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Combined license application referencing an early site permit.</I> If the combined license application references an early site permit, then the NRC staff shall prepare a draft supplement to the early site permit environmental impact statement. The supplement must be prepared in accordance with § 51.92(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combined license application referencing a standard design certification.</I> If the combined license application references a standard design certification and the site characteristics of the combined license's site fall within the site parameters specified in the design certification environmental assessment, then the draft combined license environmental impact statement shall incorporate by reference the design certification environmental assessment, and summarize the findings and conclusions of the environmental assessment with respect to severe accident mitigation design alternatives.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Combined license application referencing a manufactured reactor.</I> If the combined license application proposes to use a manufactured reactor and the site characteristics of the combined license's site fall within the site parameters specified in the manufacturing license environmental assessment, then the draft combined license environmental impact statement shall incorporate by reference the manufacturing license environmental assessment, and summarize the findings and conclusions of the environmental assessment with respect to severe accident mitigation design alternatives. The combined license environmental impact statement report will not address the environmental impacts associated with manufacturing the reactor under the manufacturing license.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Construction permit, early site permit, or combined license for a nuclear reactor.</I> If a draft environmental impact statement is being prepared in accordance with paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, and if applicant's environmental report relied upon the findings of one or more of the issues identified as Category 1 issues in appendix C to subpart A of this part, the draft environmental impact statement must be prepared as a supplement to NUREG-2249, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for Licensing of New Nuclear Reactors.” In addition, the NRC staff will conduct scoping in accordance with § 51.26(a) and (b). The draft supplemental environmental impact statement will incorporate the conclusions in NUREG-2249 for issues identified as Category 1 for which the applicant has demonstrated that the applicable values and assumptions have been met and for which neither the applicant nor the NRC identified any new and significant information. The draft supplemental environmental impact statement must contain an analysis for those issues identified as Category 1 for which the applicant could not demonstrate that the applicable values and assumptions were met or for which any new and significant information was identified by the applicant or the NRC, and for those issues identified as Category 2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49514, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 56261, Sept. 19, 2014; 91 FR 22412, Apr. 24, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.76" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.45.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.76   Draft environmental impact statement—limited work authorization.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC will prepare a draft environmental impact statement relating to issuance of a limited work authorization in accordance with the procedures and measures described in §§ 51.70, 51.71, and 51.73, as further supplemented or modified in the following paragraphs.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Limited work authorization submitted as part of complete construction permit or combined license application.</I> If the application for a limited work authorization is submitted as part of a complete construction permit or combined license application, then the NRC may prepare a partial draft environmental impact statement. The analysis called for by § 51.71(d) must be limited to the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization. Alternatively, the NRC may prepare a complete draft environmental impact statement prepared in accordance with § 51.75(a) or (c), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Phased application for limited work authorization under § 2.101(a)(9) of this chapter.</I> If the application for a limited work authorization is submitted in accordance with § 2.101(a)(9) of this chapter, then the draft environmental impact statement for part one of the application may be limited to consideration of the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization, and the proposed redress plan. However, if the environmental report contains the full set of information required to be submitted under § 51.50(a) or (c), then a draft environmental impact statement must be prepared in accordance with § 51.75(a) or (c), as applicable. Siting issues, including whether there is an obviously superior alternative site, or issues related to operation of the proposed nuclear power plant at the site, including need for power, may not be considered. After part two of the application is docketed, the NRC will prepare a draft supplement to the final environmental impact statement for part two of the application under § 51.72. No updating of the information contained in the final environmental impact statement prepared for part one is necessary in preparation of the supplemental environmental impact statement. The draft supplement must consider all environmental impacts associated with the prior issuance of the limited work authorization, but may not address or consider the sunk costs associated with the limited work authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limited work authorization submitted as part of an early site permit application.</I> If the application for a limited work authorization is submitted as part of an application for an early site permit, then the NRC will prepare an environmental impact statement in accordance with § 51.75(b). However, the analysis called for by § 51.71(d) must also address the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limited work authorization request submitted by an early site permit holder.</I> If the application for a limited work authorization is submitted by a holder of an early site permit, then the NRC will prepare a draft supplement to the environmental impact statement for the early site permit. The supplement is limited to consideration of the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization, the adequacy of the proposed redress plan, and whether there is new and significant information identified with respect to issues related to the impacts of construction of the facility that were resolved in the early site permit proceeding with respect to the environmental impacts of the activities to be conducted under the limited work authorization. No other updating of the information contained in the final environmental impact statement prepared for the early site permit is required.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limited work authorization for a site where an environmental impact statement was prepared, but the facility construction was not completed.</I> If the limited work authorization is for activities to be conducted at a site for which the Commission has previously prepared an environmental impact statement for the construction and operation of a nuclear power plant, and a construction permit was issued but construction of the plant was not completed, then the draft environmental impact statement shall incorporate by reference the earlier environmental impact statement. The draft environmental impact statement must be limited to a consideration of whether there is significant new information with respect to the environmental impacts of construction, relevant to the activities to be conducted under the limited work authority, so that the conclusion of the referenced environmental impact statement on the impacts of construction would, when analyzed in accordance with § 51.71, lead to the conclusion that the limited work authorization should not be issued or should be issued with appropriate conditions.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Draft environmental impact statement.</I> A draft environmental impact statement prepared under this section must separately evaluate the environmental impacts and proposed alternatives attributable to the activities proposed to be conducted under the limited work authorization. However, if the “Applicant's Environmental Report—Limited Work Authorization Stage,” also contains the information required to be submitted in the environmental report required under § 51.50, then the environmental impact statement must address the impacts of construction and operation for the proposed facility (including the environmental impacts attributable to the limited work authorization), and discuss the overall costs and benefits balancing for the underlying proposed action, in accordance with §§ 51.71, and 51.75(a) or (c), as applicable. For any draft environmental impact statement prepared under this section, if the applicant's environmental report relied upon the findings of one or more of the issues identified as Category 1 issues in appendix C to subpart A of this part, the draft environmental impact statement must be prepared as a supplement to NUREG-2249, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for Licensing of New Nuclear Reactors.” In addition, the NRC staff will conduct scoping in accordance with § 51.26(a) and (b). The draft supplemental environmental impact statement will incorporate the conclusions in NUREG-2249 for issues identified as Category 1 for which the applicant has demonstrated that the applicable values and assumptions have been met and for which neither the applicant nor the NRC identified any new and significant information. The draft supplemental environmental impact statement must contain an analysis for those issues identified as Category 1 for which the applicant could not demonstrate that the applicable values and assumptions were met or for which any new and significant information was identified by the applicant or the NRC, and for those issues identified as Category 2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 57445, Oct. 9, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 22412, Apr. 24, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.77" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.45.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.77   Distribution of draft environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the distribution authorized by § 51.74, a copy of a draft environmental statement for a licensing action for a production or utilization facility, except an action authorizing issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license to manufacture a nuclear power reactor pursuant to 10 CFR part 52, subpart F or 10 CFR part 53, subparts H or I will also be distributed to:
</P>
<P>(1) The chief executive of the municipality or county identified in the draft environmental impact statement as the preferred site for the proposed facility or activity.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request, the chief executive of each municipality or county identified in the draft environmental impact statement as an alternative site.
</P>
<P>(b) Additional copies will be made available in accordance with § 51.123.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 15398, Apr. 18, 1989; 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023; 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.46" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>draft environmental impact statements—materials licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.80" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.46.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.80   Draft environmental impact statement—materials license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC staff will either prepare a draft environmental impact statement or as provided in § 51.92, a supplement to a final environmental impact statement for each type of action identified in § 51.20(b) (7) through (12). Except as the context may otherwise require, procedures and measures similar to those described in §§ 51.70, 51.71, 51.72 and 51.73 will be followed.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI).</I> As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be deemed incorporated in the environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS).</I> As provided in sections 141 (c), (d), and (e) and 148 (a) and (c) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended (NWPA) (96 Stat. 2242, 2243, 42 U.S.C. 10161 (c), (d), (e); 101 Stat. 1330-235, 1330-236, 42 U.S.C. 10168 (a) and (c)), a draft environmental impact statement for the construction of a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) will not address the need for the MRS or any alternative to the design criteria for an MRS set forth in section 141(b)(1) of the NWPA (96 Stat. 2242, 42 U.S.C. 10161(b)(1)) but may consider alternative facility designs which are consistent with these design criteria.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 34695, Aug. 31, 1984, as amended at 53 FR 31682, Aug. 19, 1988; 79 FR 56262, Sept. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.46.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.81   Distribution of draft environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>Copies of the draft environmental impact statement and any supplement to the draft environmental impact statement will be distributed in accordance with the provisions of § 51.74.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="47" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.47" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>draft environmental impact statements—rulemaking</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.85" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.47.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.85   Draft environmental impact statement—rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>Except as the context may otherwise require, procedures and measures similar to those described in §§ 51.70, 51.71, 51.72 and 51.73 will be followed in proceedings for rulemaking for which the Commission has determined to prepare an environmental impact statement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.86" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.47.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.86   Distribution of draft environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>Copies of the draft environmental impact statement and any supplement to the draft environmental impact statement will be distributed in accordance with the provisions of § 51.74.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="48" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.48" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>legislative environmental impact statements—proposals for legislation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.88" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.48.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.88   Proposals for legislation.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will, as a matter of policy, follow the provisions of 40 CFR 1506.8 regarding the NEPA process for proposals for legislation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="49" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.49" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>final environmental impact statements—general requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.90" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.49.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.90   Final environmental impact statement—general.</HEAD>
<P>After receipt and consideration of comments requested pursuant to §§ 51.73 and 51.117, the NRC staff will prepare a final environmental impact statement in accordance with the requirements in §§ 51.70(b) and 51.71 for a draft environmental impact statement. The format provided in section 1(a) of appendix A of this subpart should be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.91" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.49.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.91   Final environmental impact statement—contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The final environmental impact statement will include responses to any comments on the draft environmental impact statement or on any supplement to the draft environmental impact statement. Responses to comments may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Modification of alternatives, including the proposed action;
</P>
<P>(ii) Development and evaluation of alternatives not previously given serious consideration;
</P>
<P>(iii) Supplementation or modification of analyses;
</P>
<P>(iv) Factual corrections;
</P>
<P>(v) Explanation of why comments do not warrant further response, citing sources, authorities or reasons which support this conclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) All substantive comments received on the draft environmental impact statement or any supplement to the draft environmental impact statement (or summaries thereof where the response has been exceptionally voluminous) will be attached to the final statement, whether or not each comment is discussed individually in the text of the statement.
</P>
<P>(3) If changes in the draft environmental impact statement in response to comments are minor and are confined either to factual corrections or to explanations of why the comments do not warrant further response, the changes may be made by attaching errata sheets to the draft statement. The entire document with a new cover may then be issued as the final environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(b) The final environmental impact statement will discuss any relevant responsible opposing view not adequately discussed in the draft environmental impact statement or in any supplement to the draft environmental impact statement, and respond to the issues raised.
</P>
<P>(c) The final environmental impact statement will state how the alternatives considered in it and decisions based on it will or will not achieve the requirements of sections 101 and 102(1) of NEPA and of any other relevant and applicable environmental laws and policies.
</P>
<P>(d) The final environmental impact statement will include a final analysis and a final recommendation on the action to be taken.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.92" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.49.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.92   Supplement to the final environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the proposed action has not been taken, the NRC staff will prepare a supplement to a final environmental impact statement for which a notice of availability has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided in § 51.118, if:
</P>
<P>(1) There are substantial changes in the proposed action that are relevant to environmental concerns; or
</P>
<P>(2) There are new and significant circumstances or information relevant to environmental concerns and bearing on the proposed action or its impacts.
</P>
<P>(b) In a proceeding for a combined license application under 10 CFR part 52 or part 53 referencing an early site permit under part 52, the NRC staff shall prepare a supplement to the final environmental impact statement for the referenced early site permit in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC staff may prepare a supplement to a final environmental impact statement when, in its opinion, preparation of a supplement will further the purposes of NEPA.
</P>
<P>(d) The supplement to a final environmental impact statement will be prepared in the same manner as the final environmental impact statement except that a scoping process need not be used.
</P>
<P>(e) The supplement to an early site permit final environmental impact statement which is prepared for a combined license application in accordance with § 51.75(c)(1) and paragraph (b) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the proposed action as the issuance of a combined license for the construction and operation of a nuclear power plant as described in the combined license application at the site described in the early site permit referenced in the combined license application;
</P>
<P>(2) Incorporate by reference the final environmental impact statement prepared for the early site permit;
</P>
<P>(3) Contain no separate discussion of alternative sites;
</P>
<P>(4) Include an analysis of the economic, technical, and other benefits and costs of the proposed action, to the extent that the final environmental impact statement prepared for the early site permit did not include an assessment of these benefits and costs;
</P>
<P>(5) Include an analysis of other energy alternatives, to the extent that the final environmental impact statement prepared for the early site permit did not include an assessment of energy alternatives;
</P>
<P>(6) Include an analysis of any environmental issue related to the impacts of construction or operation of the facility that was not resolved in the proceeding on the early site permit; and
</P>
<P>(7) Include an analysis of the issues related to the impacts of construction and operation of the facility that were resolved in the early site permit proceeding for which new and significant information has been identified, including, but not limited to, new and significant information demonstrating that the design of the facility falls outside the site characteristics and design parameters specified in the early site permit.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) A supplement to a final environmental impact statement will be accompanied by or will include a request for comments as provided in § 51.73 and a notice of availability will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided in § 51.117 if paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(2) If comments are not requested, a notice of availability of a supplement to a final environmental impact statement will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided in § 51.118.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49515, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.93" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.49.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.93   Distribution of final environmental impact statement and supplement to final environmental impact statement; news releases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A copy of the final environmental impact statement will be distributed to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant or petitioner for rulemaking and any other party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate State, regional and metropolitan clearinghouses.
</P>
<P>(4) Each commenter.
</P>
<P>(b) Additional copies will be made available in accordance with § 51.123.
</P>
<P>(c) If the final environmental impact statement is unusually long or there are so many comments on a draft environmental impact statement or any supplement to a draft environmental impact statement that distribution of the entire final statement to all commenters is impracticable, a summary of the final statement and the substantive comments will be distributed. When the final environmental impact statement has been prepared by adding errata sheets to the draft environmental impact statement as provided in § 51.91(a)(3), only the comments, the responses to the comments and the changes to the environmental impact statement will be distributed.
</P>
<P>(d) A supplement to a final environmental impact statement will be distributed in the same manner as the final environmental impact statement to which it relates.
</P>
<P>(e) News releases stating the availability and place for obtaining or inspecting a final environmental impact statement or supplement will be provided to local newspapers and other appropriate media.
</P>
<P>(f) A notice of availability will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 51.118.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.94" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.49.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.94   Requirement to consider final environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>The final environmental impact statement, together with any comments and any supplement, will accompany the application or petition for rulemaking through, and be considered in, the Commission's decisionmaking process. The final environmental impact statement, together with any comments and any supplement, will be made a part of the record of the appropriate adjudicatory or rulemaking proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="50" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.50" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>final environmental impact statements—production and utilization facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.95" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.50.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.95   Postconstruction environmental impact statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any supplement to a final environmental impact statement or any environmental assessment prepared under the provisions of this section may incorporate by reference any information contained in a final environmental document previously prepared by the NRC staff that relates to the same production or utilization facility. Documents that may be referenced include, but are not limited to, the final environmental impact statement; supplements to the final environmental impact statement, including supplements prepared at the operating license stage; NRC staff-prepared final generic environmental impact statements; environmental assessments and records of decisions prepared in connection with the construction permit, the operating license, the early site permit, or the combined license and any license amendment for that facility. A supplement to a final environmental impact statement will include a request for comments as provided in § 51.73.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial operating license stage.</I> In connection with the issuance of an operating license for a production or utilization facility, the NRC staff will prepare a supplement to the final environmental impact statement on the construction permit for that facility, which will update the prior environmental review. The supplement will only cover matters that differ from the final environmental impact statement or that reflect significant new information concerning matters discussed in the final environmental impact statement. Unless otherwise determined by the Commission, a supplement on the operation of a nuclear power plant will not include a discussion of need for power, or of alternative energy sources, or of alternative sites, and will only be prepared in connection with the first licensing action authorizing full-power operation. As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be deemed incorporated into the environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operating license renewal stage.</I> In connection with the renewal of an operating license or combined license for a nuclear power plant under 10 CFR part 52, part 53, or part 54 of this chapter, the Commission shall prepare an environmental impact statement, which is a supplement to the Commission's NUREG-1437, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for License Renewal of Nuclear Plants”, which is available in the NRC's Public Document Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
</P>
<P>(1) The supplemental environmental impact statement for the operating license renewal stage shall address those issues as required by § 51.71. In addition, the NRC staff must comply with 40 CFR 1506.6(b)(3) in conducting the additional scoping process as required by § 51.71(a). 
</P>
<P>(2) The supplemental environmental impact statement for license renewal is not required to include discussion of need for power or the economic costs and economic benefits of the proposed action or of alternatives to the proposed action except insofar as such benefits and costs are either essential for a determination regarding the inclusion of an alternative in the range of alternatives considered or relevant to mitigation. In addition, the supplemental environmental impact statement prepared at the license renewal stage need not discuss other issues not related to the environmental effects of the proposed action and the alternatives. The analysis of alternatives in the supplemental environmental impact statement should be limited to the environmental impacts of such alternatives and should otherwise be prepared in accordance with § 51.71 and appendix A to subpart A of this part. As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be deemed incorporated into the supplemental environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(3) The supplemental environmental impact statement shall be issued as a final impact statement in accordance with §§ 51.91 and 51.93 after considering any significant new information relevant to the proposed action contained in the supplement or incorporated by reference. 
</P>
<P>(4) The supplemental environmental impact statement must contain the NRC staff's recommendation regarding the environmental acceptability of the license renewal action. In order to make recommendations and reach a final decision on the proposed action, the NRC staff, adjudicatory officers, and Commission shall integrate the conclusions in the generic environmental impact statement for issues designated as Category 1 with information developed for those Category 2 issues applicable to the plant under § 51.53(c)(3)(ii) and any new and significant information. Given this information, the NRC staff, adjudicatory officers, and Commission shall determine whether or not the adverse environmental impacts of license renewal are so great that preserving the option of license renewal for energy planning decisionmakers would be unreasonable. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Postoperating license stage.</I> In connection with the amendment of an operating or combined license authorizing decommissioning activities at a production or utilization facility covered by § 51.20, either for unrestricted use or based on continuing use restrictions applicable to the site, or with the issuance, amendment or renewal of a license to store spent fuel at a nuclear power reactor after expiration of the operating or combined license for the nuclear power reactor, the NRC staff will prepare a supplemental environmental impact statement for the post operating or post combined license stage or an environmental assessment, as appropriate, which will update the prior environmental documentation prepared by the NRC for compliance with NEPA under the provisions of this part. The supplement or assessment may incorporate by reference any information contained in the final environmental impact statement—for the operating or combined license stage, as appropriate, or in the records of decision prepared in connection with the early site permit, construction permit, operating license, or combined license for that facility. The supplement will include a request for comments as provided in § 51.73. As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be deemed incorporated into the supplemental environmental impact statement or shall be considered in the environmental assessment, if the impacts of continued storage of spent fuel are applicable to the proposed action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 66545, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 49516, Aug. 28, 2007; 78 FR 37317, June 20, 2013; 79 FR 56262, Sept. 19, 2014; 89 FR 64190, Aug. 6. 2024; 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.96" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.50.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.96   Final supplemental environmental impact statement relying on a generic environmental impact statement for licensing new nuclear reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In connection with a construction permit, an early site permit, or a combined license that does not reference an early site permit for a nuclear reactor, as defined in 10 CFR 50.2, and for which the NRC staff relied on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in preparing a draft supplemental environmental impact statement in accordance with § 51.75(d), the NRC shall prepare a final supplemental environmental impact statement, which is a supplement to the Commission's NUREG-2249, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for Licensing of New Nuclear Reactors.”
</P>
<P>(b) The final supplemental environmental impact statement required by paragraph (a) of this section must contain the NRC staff's recommendation regarding the environmental acceptability of approving the construction permit, the early site permit, or the combined license. In order to make recommendations and reach a final decision on the proposed action, the NRC staff, adjudicatory officers, and Commission shall integrate:
</P>
<P>(1) The conclusions in NUREG-2249 for issues designated as Category 1 for which the applicant has demonstrated that the applicable values and assumptions have been met and for which neither the applicant nor the NRC staff identified any new and significant information.
</P>
<P>(2) Information developed for those Category 1 issues for which the applicant could not demonstrate that the applicable values and assumptions were met and those Category 2 issues applicable to the plant under § 51.50(d) and any new and significant information.
</P>
<P>(c) The final supplemental environmental impact statement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall address those issues as required by § 51.91 and shall be distributed in accordance with § 51.93.
</P>
<P>(d) In connection with a combined license that references an early site permit for which the NRC staff relied on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in preparing the supplemental environmental impact statement for that early site permit, the NRC shall prepare a supplement to that final supplemental environmental impact statement. The supplement must meet the requirements of § 51.92(e) and shall be considered a supplement to NUREG-2249.
</P>
<P>(e) In connection with a combined license that references an early site permit for which the NRC staff relied on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in preparing the draft supplemental environmental impact statement, the NRC staff shall prepare a supplement to the early site permit environmental impact statement. The supplement must be prepared in accordance with § 51.92(e) and shall be considered a supplement to NUREG-2249.
</P>
<P>(f) In connection with the issuance of an operating license for which the NRC staff relied on any of the findings in appendix C to subpart A of this part in preparing the supplemental environmental impact statement for the construction permit for that nuclear reactor, the NRC shall prepare a supplement to the final supplemental environmental impact statement. The supplement must meet the requirements of § 51.95(b) and shall be considered a supplement to NUREG-2249.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 22412, Apr. 24, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.51" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>final environmental impact statements—materials licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.97" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.51.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.97   Final environmental impact statement—materials license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI).</I> As stated in § 51.23, the generic impact determinations regarding the continued storage of spent fuel in NUREG-2157 shall be deemed incorporated into the environmental impact statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Monitored retrievable storage facility (MRS).</I> As provided in sections 141 (c), (d), and (e) and 148 (a) and (c) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended (NWPA) (96 Stat. 2242, 2243, 42 U.S.C. 10161 (c), (d), (e); 101 Stat. 1330-235, 1330-236, 42 U.S.C. 10168 (a), (c)) a final environmental impact statement for the construction of a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) will not address the need for the MRS or any alternative to the design criteria for an MRS set forth in section 141(b)(1) of the NWPA (96 Stat. 2242, 42 U.S.C. 10161(b)(1)) but may consider alternative facility designs which are consistent with these design criteria.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uranium enrichment facility.</I> As provided in section 5(e) of the Solar, Wind, Waste, and Geothermal Power Production Incentives Act of 1990 (104 Stat. 2834 at 2835, 42 U.S.C. 2243), a final environmental impact statement must be prepared before the hearing on the issuance of a license for a uranium enrichment facility is completed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 34695, Aug. 31, 1984, as amended at 53 FR 31682, Aug. 19, 1988; 57 FR 18392, Apr. 30, 1992; 79 FR 56262, Sept. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.52" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>final environmental impact statements—rulemaking</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.99" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.52.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.99   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.53" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>NEPA Procedure and Administrative Action</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="54" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.54" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>general</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.100" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.54.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.100   Timing of Commission action.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Except as provided in § 51.13 and paragraph (b) of this section, no decision on a proposed action, including the issuance of a permit, license, or other form of permission, or amendment to or renewal of a permit, license, or other form of permission, or the issuance of an effective regulation, for which an environmental impact statement is required, will be made and no record of decision will be issued until the later of the following dates:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety (90) days after publication by the Environmental Protection Agency of a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice stating that the draft environmental impact statement has been filed with EPA.
</P>
<P>(ii) Thirty (30) days after publication by the Environmental Protection Agency of a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice stating that the final environmental impact statement has been filed with EPA.
</P>
<P>(2) If a notice of filing of a final environmental impact statement is published by the Environmental Protection Agency within ninety (90) days after a notice of filing of a draft environmental impact statement has been published by EPA, the minimum thirty (30) day period and the minimum ninety (90) day period may run concurrently to the extent they overlap.
</P>
<P>(b) In any rulemaking proceeding for the purpose of protecting the public health or safety or the common defense and security, the Commission may make and publish the decision on the final rule at the same time that the Environmental Protection Agency publishes the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of filing of the final environmental impact statement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.101" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.54.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.101   Limitations on actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Until a record of decision is issued in connection with a proposed licensing or regulatory action for which an environmental impact statement is required under § 51.20, or until a final finding of no significant impact is issued in connection with a proposed licensing or regulatory action for which an environmental assessment is required under § 51.21:
</P>
<P>(1) No action concerning the proposal may be taken by the Commission which would (i) have an adverse environmental impact, or (ii) limit the choice of reasonable alternatives.
</P>
<P>(2) Any action concerning the proposal taken by an applicant which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Have an adverse environmental impact; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Limit the choice of reasonable alternatives that may be grounds for denial of the license. In the case of an application covered by § 30.32(f), § 40.31(f), § 50.10(c), § 53.1130, § 70.21(f), or § 72.16 and § 72.34 of this chapter, the provisions of this paragraph will be applied in accordance with § 30.33(a)(5), § 40.32(e), § 50.10(c), § 53.1130, § 70.23(a)(7), or § 72.40(b) of this chapter, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) While work on a required program environmental impact statement is in progress, the Commission will not undertake in the interim any major Federal action covered by the program which may significantly affect the quality of the human environment unless such action:
</P>
<P>(1) Is justified independently of the program;
</P>
<P>(2) Is itself accompanied by an adequate environmental impact statement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Will not prejudice the ultimate decision on the program. Absent any satisfactory explanation to the contrary, interim action which tends to determine subsequent development or limit reasonable alternatives, will be considered prejudicial.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not preclude any applicant for an NRC permit, license, or other form of permission, or amendment to or renewal of an NRC permit, license, or other form of permission, (1) from developing any plans or designs necessary to support an application; or (2) after prior notice and consultation with NRC staff, (i) from performing any physical work necessary to support an application, or (ii) from performing any other physical work relating to the proposed action if the adverse environmental impact of that work is de minimis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 53 FR 31682, Aug. 19, 1988; 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.102" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.54.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.102   Requirement to provide a record of decision; preparation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Commission decision on any action for which a final environmental impact statement has been prepared shall be accompanied by or include a concise public record of decision.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the record of decision will be prepared by the NRC staff director authorized to take the action.
</P>
<P>(c) When a contested hearing is held on the proposed action under the regulations in part 2 of this chapter or when the action can only be taken by the Commissioners acting as a collegial body, the initial decision of the presiding officer or the final decision of the Commissioners acting as a collegial body will constitute the record of decision. An initial or final decision constituting the record of decision will be distributed as provided in § 51.93.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 77 FR 46600, Aug. 3, 2012; 79 FR 66604, Nov. 10, 2014; 88 FR 80949, Nov. 21, 2023; 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.103" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.54.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.103   Record of decision—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The record of decision required by § 51.102 shall be clearly identified and shall:
</P>
<P>(1) State the decision.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify all alternatives considered by the Commission in reaching the decision, state that these alternatives were included in the range of alternatives discussed in the environmental impact statement, and specify the alternative or alternatives which were considered to be environmentally preferable.
</P>
<P>(3) Discuss preferences among alternatives based on relevant factors, including economic and technical considerations where appropriate, the NRC's statutory mission, and any essential considerations of national policy, which were balanced by the Commission in making the decision and state how these considerations entered into the decision. 
</P>
<P>(4) State whether the Commission has taken all practicable measures within its jurisdiction to avoid or minimize environmental harm from the alternative selected, and if not, to explain why those measures were not adopted. Summarize any license conditions and monitoring programs adopted in connection with mitigation measures.
</P>
<P>(5) In making a final decision on a license renewal action pursuant to part 54 of this chapter, the Commission shall determine whether or not the adverse environmental impacts of license renewal are so great that preserving the option of license renewal for energy planning decisionmakers would be unreasonable. 
</P>
<P>(6) In a construction permit or a combined license proceeding where a limited work authorization under § 50.10 or § 53.1130 of this chapter was issued, the Commission's decision on the construction permit or combined license application will not address or consider the sunk costs associated with the limited work authorization in determining the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(b) The record of decision may be integrated into any other record prepared by the Commission in connection with the action.
</P>
<P>(c) The record of decision may incorporate by reference material contained in a final environmental impact statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 61 FR 28490, June 5, 1996; 61 FR 66546, Dec. 18, 1996; 61 FR 68543, Dec. 30, 1996; 72 FR 57445, Oct. 9, 2007; 91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.104" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.54.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.104   NRC proceeding using public hearings; consideration of environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In any proceeding in which a contested hearing is held on the proposed action; a final environmental impact statement has been prepared in connection with the proposed action; and matters within the scope of NEPA and this subpart are in issue, the NRC staff may not offer the final environmental impact statement in evidence or present the position of the NRC staff on matters within the scope of NEPA and this subpart until the final environmental impact statement is filed with the Environmental Protection Agency, furnished to commenting agencies and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party to the proceeding may take a position and offer evidence on the aspects of the proposed action within the scope of NEPA and this subpart in accordance with the provisions of part 2 of this chapter applicable to that proceeding or in accordance with the terms of the notice of hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) In the proceeding the presiding officer will decide those matters in controversy among the parties within the scope of NEPA and this subpart.


</P>
<P>(b) In any proceeding in which a contested hearing is held where the NRC staff has determined that no environmental impact statement need be prepared for the proposed action, unless the Commission orders otherwise, any party to the proceeding may take a position and offer evidence on the aspects of the proposed action within the scope of NEPA and this subpart in accordance with the provisions of part 2 of this chapter applicable to that proceeding or in accordance with the terms of the notice of hearing. In the proceeding, the presiding officer will decide any such matters in controversy among the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) In any proceeding in which a limited work authorization is requested, unless the Commission orders otherwise, a party in a contested hearing may take a position and offer evidence only on the aspects of the proposed action within the scope of NEPA and this subpart which are within the scope of that party's admitted contention, in accordance with the provisions of part 2 of this chapter applicable to the limited work authorization or in accordance with the terms of any notice of hearing applicable to the limited work authorization. In the proceeding, the presiding officer will decide all matters in controversy among the parties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 72 FR 57445, Oct. 9, 2007; 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.55" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>production and utilization facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.105" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.55.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.105   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.105a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.55.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.105a   Public hearings in proceedings for issuance of manufacturing licenses.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to complying with applicable requirements of § 51.31(c), in a proceeding for the issuance of a manufacturing license, the presiding officer will determine whether, in accordance with the regulations in this subpart, the manufacturing license should be issued as proposed by the NRC's Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5724, Jan. 31, 2008, as amended at 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.106" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.55.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.106   Public hearings in proceedings for issuance of operating licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Consistent with the requirements of this section and as appropriate, the presiding officer in an operating license hearing shall comply with any applicable requirements of sect; 51.104.
</P>
<P>(b) During the course of a hearing on an application for issuance of an operating license for a nuclear power reactor, or a testing facility, the presiding officer may authorize, pursuant to § 50.57(c) of this chapter, the loading of nuclear fuel in the reactor core and limited operation within the scope of § 50.57(c) of this chapter, upon compliance with the procedures described therein. In any such hearing, where any party opposes such authorization on the basis of matters covered by subpart A of this part, the provisions of sect; 51.104 will apply, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer in an operating license hearing shall not admit contentions proffered by any party concerning need for power or alternative energy sources or alternative sites for the facility for which an operating license is requested.
</P>
<P>(d) The presiding officer in an operating license hearing shall not raise issues concerning alternative sites for the facility for which an operating license is requested <I>sua sponte.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.107" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.55.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.107   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.108" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.55.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.108   Public hearings on Commission findings that inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria of combined licenses are met.</HEAD>
<P>In any public hearing requested under § 52.103(b) or § 53.1452(b) of this chapter, the Commission will not admit any contentions on environmental issues, the adequacy of the environmental impact statement for the combined license issued under subpart C of part 52 or under subpart H of part 53 of this chapter, or the adequacy of any other environmental impact statement or environmental assessment referenced in the combined license application. The Commission will not make any environmental findings in connection with the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="56" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.56" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>materials licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.109" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.56.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.109   Public hearings in proceedings for issuance of materials license with respect to a geologic repository.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In a proceeding for issuance of a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 and 63 of this chapter, and in a proceeding for issuance of a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area under parts 60 and 63 of this chapter, the NRC staff shall, upon the publication of the notice of hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> present its position on whether it is practicable to adopt, without further supplementation, the environmental impact statement (including any supplement thereto) prepared by the Secretary of Energy. If the position of the staff is that supplementation of the environmental impact statement by NRC is required, it shall file its final supplemental environmental impact statement with the Environmental Protection Agency, furnish that statement to commenting agencies, and make it available to the public, before presenting its position, or as soon thereafter as may be practicable. In discharging its responsibilities under this paragraph, the staff shall be guided by the principles set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other party to the proceeding who contends that it is not practicable to adopt the DOE environmental impact statement, as it may have been supplemented, shall file a contention to that effect within thirty (30) days after the publication of the notice of hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such contention must be accompanied by one or more affidavits which set forth factual and/or technical bases for the claim that, under the principles set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, it is not practicable to adopt the DOE environmental impact statement, as it may have been supplemented. The presiding officer shall resolve disputes concerning adoption of the DOE environmental impact statement by using, to the extent possible, the criteria and procedures that are followed in ruling on motions to reopen under § 2.326 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) In any such proceeding, the presiding officer will determine those matters in controversy among the parties within the scope of NEPA and this subpart, specifically including whether, and to what extent, it is practicable to adopt the environmental impact statement prepared by the Secretary of Energy in connection with the issuance of a construction authorization and license for such repository. 
</P>
<P>(c) The presiding officer will find that it is practicable to adopt any environmental impact statement prepared by the Secretary of Energy in connection with a geologic repository proposed to be constructed under Title I of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended, unless: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The action proposed to be taken by the Commission differs from the action proposed in the license application submitted by the Secretary of Energy; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The difference may significantly affect the quality of the human environment; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Significant and substantial new information or new considerations render such environmental impact statement inadequate. 
</P>
<P>(d) To the extent that the presiding officer determines it to be practicable, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, to adopt the environmental impact statement prepared by the Secretary of Energy, such adoption shall be deemed to satisfy all responsibilities of the Commission under NEPA and no further consideration under NEPA or this subpart shall be required. 
</P>
<P>(e) To the extent that it is not practicable, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, to adopt the environmental impact statement prepared by the Secretary of Energy, the presiding officer will: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the requirements of section 102(2) (A), (C), and (E) of NEPA and the regulations in this subpart have been met; 
</P>
<P>(2) Independently consider the final balance among conflicting factors contained in the record of the proceeding with a view to determining the appropriate action to be taken; 
</P>
<P>(3) Determine, after weighing the environmental, economic, technical and other benefits against environmental and other costs, whether the construction authorization or license should be issued, denied, or appropriately conditioned to protect environmental values; 
</P>
<P>(4) Determine, in an uncontested proceeding, whether the NEPA review conducted by the NRC staff has been adequate; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Determine, in a contested proceeding, whether in accordance with the regulations in this subpart, the construction authorization or license should be issued as proposed. 
</P>
<P>(f) In making the determinations described in paragraph (e) of this section, the environmental impact statement will be deemed modified to the extent that findings and conclusions differ from those in the final statement prepared by the Secretary of Energy, as it may have been supplemented. The initial decision will be distributed to any persons not otherwise entitled to receive it who responded to the request in the notice of docketing, as described in § 51.26(c). If the Commission reaches conclusions different from those of the presiding officer with respect to such matters, the final environmental impact statement will be deemed modified to that extent and the decision will be similarly distributed.
</P>
<P>(g) The provisions of this section shall be followed, in place of those set out in § 51.104, in any proceedings for the issuance of a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 27870, July 3, 1989, as amended at 69 FR 2276, Jan. 14, 2004; 77 FR 46600, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="57" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.57" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>rulemaking</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.110" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.57.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.110   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="58" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Public Notice of and Access to Environmental Documents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.116" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.116   Notice of intent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with § 51.26, the appropriate NRC staff director will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of intent stating that an environmental impact statement will be prepared. The notice will contain the information specified in § 51.27.
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of the notice will be sent to appropriate Federal, State, and local agencies, and Indian Tribes, appropriate State, regional, and metropolitan clearinghouses and to interested persons upon request. A public announcement of the notice of intent will also be made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.117" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.117   Draft environmental impact statement—notice of availability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon completion of a draft environmental impact statement or any supplement to a draft environmental impact statement, the appropriate NRC staff director will publish a notice of availability of the statement in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) The notice will request comments on the proposed action and on the draft statement or any supplement to the draft statement and will specify where comments should be submitted and when the comment period expires.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice will (1) state that copies of the draft statement or any supplement to the draft statement are available for public inspection; (2) state where inspection may be made, and (3) state that any comments of Federal, State, and local agencies, Indian Tribes or other interested persons will be made available for public inspection when received.
</P>
<P>(d) Copies of the notice will be sent to appropriate Federal, State, and local agencies, and Indian Tribes, appropriate State, regional, and metropolitan clearinghouses, and to interested persons upon request. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.118" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.118   Final environmental impact statement—notice of availability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon completion of a final environmental impact statement or any supplement to a final environmental impact statement, the appropriate NRC staff director will publish a notice of availability of the statement in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice will state that copies of the final statement or any supplement to the final statement are available for public inspection and where inspection may be made. Copies of the notice will be sent to appropriate Federal, State, and local agencies, and Indian Tribes, appropriate State, regional, and metropolitan clearinghouses and to interested persons upon request.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon adoption of a final environmental impact statement or any supplement to a final environmental impact statement prepared by the Department of Energy with respect to a geologic repository that is subject to the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, the appropriate NRC staff director shall follow the procedures set out in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 27871, July 3, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.119" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.119   Publication of finding of no significant impact; distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As required by § 51.35, the appropriate NRC staff director will publish the finding of no significant impact in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The finding of no significant impact will be identified as a draft or final finding, and will contain the information specified in § 51.32 or § 51.33, as appropriate. A draft finding of no significant impact will include a request for comments which specifies where comments should be submitted and when the comment period expires.
</P>
<P>(b) The finding will state that copies of the finding, the environmental assessment setting forth the basis for the finding and any related environmental documents are available for public inspection and where inspection may be made.
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of a final finding will be sent to appropriate Federal, State, and local agencies, and Indian Tribes, appropriate State, regional, and metropolitan clearinghouses, the applicant or petitioner for rulemaking and any other party to the proceeding, and if a draft finding was issued, to each commenter. Additional copies will be made available in accordance with § 51.123.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.120" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.120   Availability of environmental documents for public inspection.</HEAD>
<P>Copies of environmental reports, draft and final environmental impact statements, environmental assessments, and findings of no significant impact, together with any related comments and environmental documents, will be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 48952, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.121" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.121   Status of NEPA actions.</HEAD>
<P>Individuals or organizations desiring information on the NRC's NEPA process or on the status of specific NEPA actions should address inquiries to: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Utilization facilities:</I> ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (301) 415-1270, e-mail <I>RidsNrrOd@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production facilities:</I> ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (301) 415-7800, e-mail <I>RidsNmssOd@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Materials licenses:</I> ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (301) 415-7800, e-mail <I>RidsNmssOd@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rulemaking:</I> ATTN: Chief, Regulatory Analysis and Rulemaking Support Branch, Division of Rulemaking, Environmental, and Financial Support, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone (800) 368-5642.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>General environmental matters:</I> Executive Director for Operations, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, Telephone: (301) 415-1700.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 13399, Apr. 25, 1988, as amended at 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 68 FR 58811, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5724, Jan. 31, 2008; 77 FR 39907, July 6, 2012; 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.122" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.122   List of interested organizations and groups.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC Office of the Chief Information Officer will maintain a master list of organizations and groups, including relevant conservation commissions, known to be interested in the Commission's licensing and regulatory activities. The NRC Office of the Chief Information Officer with the assistance of the appropriate NRC staff director will select from this master list those organizations and groups that may have an interest in a specific NRC NEPA action and will promptly notify such organizations and groups of the availability of a draft environmental impact statement or a draft finding of no significant impact.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 52 FR 31612, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 53316, Dec. 28, 1989; 77 FR 39907, July 6, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.123" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.58.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.123   Charges for environmental documents; distribution to public; distribution to governmental agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Distribution to public.</I> Upon written request to the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, e-mail <I>distribution.resource@nrc.gov,</I> and to the extent available, single copies of draft environmental impact statements and draft findings of no significant impact will be made available to interested persons without charge. Single copies of final environmental impact statements and final findings of no significant impact will also be provided without charge to the persons listed in §§ 51.93(a) and 51.119(c), respectively. When more than one copy of an environmental impact statement or a finding of no significant impact is requested or when available NRC copies have been exhausted, the requestor will be advised that the NRC will provide copies at the charges specified in § 9.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution to governmental agencies.</I> Upon written request to the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, e-mail <I>distribution.resource@nrc.gov,</I> and to the extent available, copies of draft and final environmental impact statements and draft final findings of no significant impact will be made available in the number requested to Federal, State and local agencies, Indian Tribes, and State, regional, and metropolitan clearinghouses. When available NRC copies have been exhausted, the requester will be advised that the NRC will provide copies at the charges specified in § 9.35 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charges.</I> Charges for the reproduction of environmental documents by the NRC at locations other than the NRC Public Document Room located in Washington, DC vary according to location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 21037, May 22, 1985, as amended at 52 FR 31612, Aug. 21, 1987; 53 FR 43421, Oct. 27, 1988; 61 FR 9902, Mar. 12, 1996; 64 FR 48952, Sept. 9, 1999; 68 FR 58812, Oct. 10, 2003; 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.59" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Commenting</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.124" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.59.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.124   Commission duty to comment.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Commission to comment on draft environmental impact statements prepared by other Federal agencies, consistent with the provisions of 40 CFR 1503.2 and 1503.3. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 90 FR 55631, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="60" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.60" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Responsible Official</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.125" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.1.60.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.125   Responsible official.</HEAD>
<P>The Executive Director for Operations shall be responsible for overall review of NRC NEPA compliance, except for matters under the jurisdiction of a presiding officer, administrative judge, administrative law judge, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, or the Commission acting as a collegial body.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 46600, Aug. 3, 2012]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.3.61.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 51—Format for Presentation of Material in Environmental Impact Statements




</HEAD>
<FP-2>1. General
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2. Cover sheet
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3. Summary
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4. Purpose of and need for action
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5. Alternatives including the proposed action
</FP-2>
<FP-2>6. Affected environment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>7. Environmental consequences and mitigating actions
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8. List of preparers
</FP-2>
<FP-2>9. Appendices
</FP-2>
<HD1>1. <I>General.</I>
</HD1>
<P>(a) The Commission will use a format for environmental impact statements which will encourage good analysis and clear presentation of the alternatives including the proposed action. The following standard format for environmental impact statements should be followed unless there is a compelling reason to do otherwise:
</P>
<P>(1) Cover sheet*
</P>
<P>(2) Summary*
</P>
<P>(3) Table of Contents
</P>
<P>(4) Purpose of and Need for Action*
</P>
<P>(5) Alternatives including the proposed action*
</P>
<P>(6) Affected Environment*
</P>
<P>(7) Environmental Consequences and Mitigating Actions*
</P>
<P>(8) List of Preparers*
</P>
<P>(9) List of Agencies, Organizations and Persons to Whom Copies of the Statement are Sent
</P>
<P>(10) Substantive Comments Received and NRC Staff Responses
</P>
<P>(11) Index
</P>
<P>(12) Appendices (if any)*
</P>
<P>If a different format is used, it shall include paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (8), (9), (10), and (11) of this section and shall include the substance of paragraphs (4), (5), (6), (7), and (12) of this section, in any appropriate format.
</P>
<P>Additional guidance on the presentation of material under the format headings identified by an asterisk is set out in sections 2.-9. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) The techniques of tiering and incorporation by reference described respectively in 40 CFR 1502.20 and 1508.28 and 40 CFR 1502.21 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of CEQ's NEPA regulations may be used as appropriate to aid in the presentation of issues, eliminate repetition or reduce the size of an environmental impact statement. In appropriate circumstances, draft or final environmental impact statements prepared by other Federal agencies may be adopted in whole or in part in accordance with the procedures outlined in 40 CFR 1506.3 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> of CEQ's NEPA regulations. In final environmental impact statements, material under the following format headings will normally be presented in less than 150 pages: Purpose of and Need for Action, Alternatives Including the Proposed Action, Affected Environment, and Environmental Consequences and Mitigating Actions. For proposals of unusual scope or complexity, the material presented under these format headings may extend to 300 pages.


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>Tiering—</I>40 CFR 1502.20, 40 CFR 1508.28; <I>Incorporation by reference</I>—40 CFR 1502.21.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> <I>Adoption</I>—40 CFR 1506.3.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>2. <I>Cover sheet.</I>
</HD1>
<P>The cover sheet will not exceed one page. It will include:
</P>
<P>(a) The name of the NRC office responsible for preparing the statement and a list of any cooperating agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) The title of the proposed action that is the subject of the statement with a list of the states, counties or municipalities where the facility or other subject of the action is located, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual in NRC who can supply further information.
</P>
<P>(d) A designation of the statement as a draft or final statement, or a draft or final supplement.
</P>
<P>(e) A one paragraph abstract of the statement.
</P>
<P>(f) For draft environmental impact statements, the date by which comments must be received. This date may be specified in the form of the following or a substantially similar statement:
</P>
<P>“Comments should be filed no later than 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> days after the date on which the Environmental Protection Agency notice stating that the draft environmental impact statement has been filed with EPA is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Comments received after the expiration of the comment period will be considered if it is practical to do so but assurance of consideration of late comments cannot be given.”
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The number of days in the comment period should be inserted. The minimum comment period is 45 days (see § 51.73.)</P></FTNT>
<HD1>3. <I>Summary.</I>
</HD1>
<P>Each environmental impact statement will contain a summary which adequately and accurately summarizes the statement. The summary will stress the major issues considered. The summary will discuss the areas of controversy, will identify any remaining issues to be resolved, and will present the major conclusions and recommendations. The summary will normally not exceed 15 pages.
</P>
<HD1>4. <I>Purpose of and need for action.</I> 
</HD1>
<P>The statement will briefly describe and specify the need for the proposed action. The alternative of no action will be discussed. In the case of nuclear power plant construction or siting, consideration will be given to the potential impact of conservation measures in determining the demand for power and consequent need for additional generating capacity. 
</P>
<HD1>5. <I>Alternatives including the proposed action.</I>
</HD1>
<P>This section is the heart of the environmental impact statement. It will present the environmental impacts of the proposal and the alternatives in comparative form. Where important to the comparative evaluation of alternatives, appropriate mitigating measures of the alternatives will be discussed. All reasonable alternatives will be identified. The range of alternatives discussed will encompass those proposed to be considered by the ultimate decisionmaker. An otherwise reasonable alternative will not be excluded from discussion solely on the ground that it is not within the jurisdiction of the NRC. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> The discussion of alternatives will take into accounts, without duplicating, the environmental information and analyses included in sections, 4., 6. and 7. of this appendix.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> With respect to limitations on NRC's NEPA authority and responsibility imposed by the Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972, <I>see</I> §§ 51.10(c) and 51.71(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>In the draft environmental impact statement, this section will either include a preliminary recommendation on the action to be taken, or identify the alternatives under consideration.
</P>
<P>In the final environmental impact statement, this section will include a final recommendation on the action to be taken.
</P>
<HD1>6. <I>Affected environment.</I>
</HD1>
<P>The environmental impact statement will succinctly describe the environment to be affected by the proposed action. Data and analyses in the statement will be commensurate with the importance of the impact, with less important material summarized, consolidated, or simply referenced. Effort and attention will be concentrated on important issues; useless bulk will be eliminated.
</P>
<HD1>7. <I>Environmental consequences and mitigating actions.</I>
</HD1>
<P>This section discusses the environmental consequences of alternatives, including the proposed actions and any mitigating actions which may be taken. Alternatives eliminated from detailed study will be identified and a discussion of those alternatives will be confined to a brief statement of the reasons why the alternatives were eliminated. The level of information for each alternative considered in detail will reflect the depth of analysis required for sound decisionmaking.
</P>
<P>The discussion will include any adverse environmental effects which cannot be avoided should the alternative be implemented, the relationship between short-term uses of man's environment and the maintenance and enhancement of long-term productivity, and any irreversible or irretrievable commitments of resources which would be involved in the alternative should it be implemented. This section will include discussions of:
</P>
<P>(a) Direct effects and their significance.
</P>
<P>(b) Indirect effects and their significance.
</P>
<P>(c) Possible conflicts between the alternative and the objectives of Federal, regional, State, and local (and in the case of a reservation, Indian Tribe) land use plans, policies and controls for the area concerned.
</P>
<P>(d) Means to mitigate adverse environmental impacts.
</P>
<HD1>8. <I>List of preparers.</I>
</HD1>
<P>The environmental impact statement will list the names and qualifications (expertise, experience, professional disciplines), of the persons who were primarily responsible for preparing the environmental impact statement or significant background papers. Persons responsible for making an independent evaluation of information submitted by the applicant or petitioner for rulemaking or others will be included in the list. Where possible, the persons who are responsible for a particular analysis, including analyses in background papers, will be identified.
</P>
<HD1>9. <I>Appendices.</I>
</HD1>
<P>An appendix to an environmental impact statement will:
</P>
<P>(a) Consist of material prepared in connection with an environmental impact statement (as distinct from material which is not so prepared and which is incorporated by reference (40 CFR 1502.21)).
</P>
<P>(b) Normally consist of material which substantiates any analysis fundamental to the impact statement. Discussion of methodology used may be placed in an appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Normally be analytic.
</P>
<P>(d) Be relevant to the decision to be made.
</P>
<P>(e) Be circulated with the environmental impact statement or be readily available on request.
</P>
<HD3>Discussion of Footnotes
</HD3>
<HD1>1. <I>Tiering.</I>
</HD1>
<P>40 CFR 1502.20 states:
</P>
<P>“Agencies are encouraged to tier their environmental impact statements to eliminate repetitive discussions of the same issues and to focus on the actual issues ripe for decision at each level of environmental review (§ 1508.28). Whenever a broad environmental impact statement has been prepared (such as a program or policy statement) and a subsequent statement or environmental assessment is then prepared on an action included within the entire program or policy (such as a site specific action) the subsequent statement or environmental assessment need only summarize the issues discussed in the broader statement and incorporate discussions from the broader statement by reference and shall concentrate on the issues specific to the subsequent action. The subsequent document shall state where the earlier document is available. Tiering may also be appropriate for different stages of actions. (Sec. 1508.28).”
</P>
<P>40 CFR 1508.28 states:
</P>
<P>“ ‘Tiering’ refers to the coverage of general matters in broader environmental impact statements (such as national program or policy statements) with subsequent narrower statements or environmental analyses (such as regional or basinwide program statements or ultimately site-specific statements) incorporating by reference the general discussions and concentrating solely on the issues specific to the statement subsequently prepared. Tiering is appropriate when the sequence of statements or analyses is:
</P>
<P>“(a) From a program, plan, or policy environmental impact statement to a program, plan, or policy statement or analysis of lesser scope or to a site-specific statement or analysis.
</P>
<P>“(b) From an environmental impact statement on a specific action at an early stage (such as need and site selection) to a supplement (which is preferred) or a subsequent statement or analysis at a later stage (such as environmental mitigation). Tiering in such cases is appropriate when it helps the lead agency to focus on the issues which are ripe for decision and exclude from consideration issues already decided or not yet ripe.”
</P>
<P><I>Incorporation by reference.</I> 40 CFR 1502.21 states:
</P>
<P>“Agencies shall incorporate material into an environmental impact statement by reference when the effect will be to cut down on bulk without impeding agency and public review of the action. The incorporated material shall be cited in the statement and its content briefly described. No material may be incorporated by reference unless it is reasonably available for inspection by potentially interested persons within the time allowed for comment. Material based on proprietary data which is itself not available for review and comment shall not be incorporated by reference.”
</P>
<HD1>2. <I>Adoption.</I>
</HD1>
<P>40 CFR 1506.3 states:
</P>
<P>“(a) An agency may adopt a Federal draft or final environmental impact statement or portion thereof provided that the statement or portion thereof meets the standards for an adequate statement under these regulations.
</P>
<P>“(b) If the actions covered by the original environmental impact statement and the proposed action are substantially the same, the agency adopting another agency's statement is not required to recirculate it except as a final statement. Otherwise the adopting agency shall treat the statement as a draft and recirculate it (except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>“(c) A cooperating agency may adopt without recirculating the environmental impact statement of a lead agency when, after an independent review of the statement, the cooperating agency concludes that its comments and suggestions have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>“(d) When an agency adopts a statement which is not final within the agency that prepared it, or when the action it assesses is the subject of a referral under part 1504, or when the statement's adequacy is the subject of a judicial action which is not final, the agency shall so specify.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9381, Mar. 12, 1984, as amended at 61 FR 28490, June 5, 1996; 61 FR 66546, Dec. 18, 1996; 91 FR 15534, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.3.61.1.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart A of 10 CFR Part 51—Environmental Effect of Renewing the Operating License of a Nuclear Power Plant
</HEAD>
<P>The Commission has assessed the environmental impacts associated with granting a renewed operating license for a nuclear power plant for which an operating license, construction permit, or combined license was issued as of June 30, 1995. This assessment applies to applications for initial or a first (<I>i.e.,</I> one term) subsequent license renewal. Table B-1 summarizes the Commission's findings on the scope and magnitude of environmental impacts of renewing the operating license for a nuclear power plant as required by section 102(2) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended. Table B-1, subject to an evaluation of those issues identified in Category 2 as requiring further analysis and possible significant new information, represents the analysis of the environmental impacts associated with renewal of any operating license and is to be used in accordance with § 51.95(c). On a 10-year cycle, the Commission intends to review the material in this appendix and update it if necessary. A scoping notice must be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> indicating the results of the NRC's review and inviting public comments and proposals for other areas that should be updated.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B-1—Summary of Findings on Environmental Issues for Initial and One Term of Subsequent License Renewal of Nuclear Power Plants <E T="01">
<sup>1</sup></E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Issue
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Finding 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Land Use</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Onsite land use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Changes in onsite land use from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal would be a small fraction of the nuclear power plant site and would involve only land that is controlled by the licensee.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Offsite land use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Offsite land use would not be affected by continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Offsite land use in transmission line right-of-ways (ROWs) 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Use of transmission line ROWs from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal would continue with no change in land use restrictions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Visual Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aesthetic impacts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. No important changes to the visual appearance of plant structures or transmission lines are expected from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Air Quality</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air quality impacts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Air quality impacts from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal are expected to be small at all plants. Emissions from emergency diesel generators and fire pumps and routine operations of boilers used for space heating are minor. Impacts from cooling tower particulate emissions have been small.


<br/>Emissions resulting from refurbishment activities at locations in or near air quality nonattainment or maintenance areas would be short-lived and would cease after these activities are completed. Operating experience has shown that the scale of refurbishment activities has not resulted in exceedance of the <E T="03">de minimis</E> thresholds for criteria pollutants, and best management practices, including fugitive dust controls and the imposition of permit conditions in State and local air emissions permits, would ensure conformance with applicable State or Tribal implementation plans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air quality effects of transmission lines 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Production of ozone and oxides of nitrogen from transmission lines is insignificant and does not contribute measurably to ambient levels of these gases.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Noise</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Noise impacts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Noise levels would remain below regulatory guidelines for offsite receptors during continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Geologic Environment</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Geology and soils</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The impact of continued operations and refurbishment activities on geology and soils would be small for all nuclear power plants and would not change appreciably during the license renewal term.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Surface Water Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Surface water use and quality (non-cooling system impacts)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Impacts are expected to be small if best management practices are employed to control soil erosion and spills. Surface water use associated with continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal would not increase significantly or would be reduced if refurbishment occurs during a plant outage.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Altered current patterns at intake and discharge structures</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Altered current patterns would be limited to the area in the vicinity of the intake and discharge structures. These impacts have been small at operating nuclear power plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Altered salinity gradients</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Effects on salinity gradients would be limited to the area in the vicinity of the intake and discharge structures. These impacts have been small at operating nuclear power plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Altered thermal stratification of lakes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Effects on thermal stratification would be limited to the area in the vicinity of the intake and discharge structures. These impacts have been small at operating nuclear power plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Scouring caused by discharged cooling water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Scouring effects would be limited to the area in the vicinity of the intake and discharge structures. These impacts have been small at operating nuclear power plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Discharge of metals in cooling system effluent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Discharges of metals have not been found to be a problem at operating nuclear power plants with cooling-tower-based heat dissipation systems and have been satisfactorily mitigated at other plants. Discharges are monitored and controlled as part of the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit process.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Discharge of biocides, sanitary wastes, and minor chemical spills</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The effects of these discharges are regulated by Federal and State environmental agencies. Discharges are monitored and controlled as part of the NPDES permit process. These impacts have been small at operating nuclear power plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Surface water use conflicts (plants with once-through cooling systems)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. These conflicts have not been found to be a problem at operating nuclear power plants with once-through heat dissipation systems.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Surface water use conflicts (plants with cooling ponds or cooling towers using makeup water from a river)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL or MODERATE. Impacts could be of small or moderate significance, depending on makeup water requirements, water availability, and competing water demands.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Effects of dredging on surface water quality</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Dredging to remove accumulated sediments in the vicinity of intake and discharge structures and to maintain barge shipping has not been found to be a problem for surface water quality. Dredging is performed under permit from the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, and possibly, from other State or local agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Temperature effects on sediment transport capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. These effects have not been found to be a problem at operating nuclear power plants and are not expected to be a problem during the license renewal term.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Groundwater Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Groundwater contamination and use (non-cooling system impacts)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Extensive dewatering is not anticipated from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal. Industrial practices involving the use of solvents, hydrocarbons, heavy metals, or other chemicals, and/or the use of wastewater ponds or lagoons have the potential to contaminate site groundwater, soil, and subsoil. Contamination is subject to State or U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulated cleanup and monitoring programs. The application of best management practices for handling any materials produced or used during these activities would reduce impacts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Groundwater use conflicts (plants that withdraw less than 100 gallons per minute [gpm])</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Plants that withdraw less than 100 gpm are not expected to cause any groundwater use conflicts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Groundwater use conflicts (plants that withdraw more than 100 gallons per minute [gpm])</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE. Plants that withdraw more than 100 gpm could cause groundwater use conflicts with nearby groundwater users.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Groundwater use conflicts (plants with closed-cycle cooling systems that withdraw makeup water from a river)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE. Water use conflicts could result from water withdrawals from rivers during low-flow conditions, which may affect aquifer recharge. The significance of impacts would depend on makeup water requirements, water availability, and competing water demands.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Groundwater quality degradation resulting from water withdrawals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Groundwater withdrawals at operating nuclear power plants would not contribute significantly to groundwater quality degradation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Groundwater quality degradation (plants with cooling ponds)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL or MODERATE. Sites with cooling ponds could degrade groundwater quality. The significance of the impact would depend on site-specific conditions including cooling pond water quality, site hydrogeologic conditions (including the interaction of surface water and groundwater), and the location, depth, and pump rate of water wells.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radionuclides released to groundwater</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL or MODERATE. Leaks of radioactive liquids from plant components and pipes have occurred at numerous plants. Groundwater protection programs have been established at all operating nuclear power plants to minimize the potential impact from any inadvertent releases. The magnitude of impacts would depend on site-specific characteristics.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Terrestrial Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-cooling system impacts on terrestrial resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE. The magnitude of effects of continued nuclear power plant operation and refurbishment, unrelated to operation of the cooling system, would depend on numerous site-specific factors, including ecological setting, planned activities during the license renewal term, and characteristics of the plants and animals present in the area. Application of best management practices and other conservation initiatives would reduce the potential for impacts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exposure of terrestrial organisms to radionuclides</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Doses to terrestrial organisms from continued nuclear power plant operation and refurbishment during the license renewal term would be expected to remain well below U.S. Department of Energy exposure guidelines developed to protect these organisms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooling system impacts on terrestrial resources (plants with once-through cooling systems or cooling ponds)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Continued operation of nuclear power plant cooling systems during license renewal could cause thermal effluent additions to receiving waterbodies, chemical effluent additions to surface water or groundwater, impingement of waterfowl, disturbance of terrestrial plants and wetlands from maintenance dredging, and erosion of shoreline habitat. However, plants where these impacts have occurred successfully mitigated the impact, and it is no longer of concern. These impacts are not expected to be significant issues during the license renewal term.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooling tower impacts on terrestrial plants</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Continued operation of nuclear power plant cooling towers could deposit particulates and water droplets or ice on vegetation and lead to structural damage or changes in terrestrial plant communities. However, nuclear power plants where these impacts occurred have successfully mitigated the impact. These impacts are not expected to be significant issues during the license renewal term.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bird collisions with plant structures and transmission lines 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Bird mortalities from collisions with nuclear power plant structures and in-scope transmission lines would be negligible for any species and are unlikely to threaten the stability of local or migratory bird populations or result in noticeable impairment of the function of a species within the ecosystem. These impacts are not expected to be significant issues during the license renewal term.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water use conflicts with terrestrial resources (plants with cooling ponds or cooling towers using makeup water from a river)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL or MODERATE. Nuclear power plants could consume water at rates that cause occasional or intermittent water use conflicts with nearby and downstream terrestrial and riparian communities. Such impacts could noticeably affect riparian or wetland species or alter characteristics of the ecological environment during the license renewal term. The one plant where impacts have occurred successfully mitigated the impact. Impacts are expected to be small at most nuclear power plants but could be moderate at some.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transmission line right-of-way (ROW) management impacts on terrestrial resources 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. In-scope transmission lines tend to occupy only industrial-use or other developed portions of nuclear power plant sites and, therefore, effects of ROW maintenance on terrestrial plants and animals during the license renewal term would be negligible. Application of best management practices would reduce the potential for impacts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electromagnetic field effects on terrestrial plants and animals 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. In-scope transmission lines tend to occupy only industrial-use or other developed portions of nuclear power plant sites and, therefore, effects of electromagnetic fields on terrestrial plants and animals during the license renewal term would be negligible.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Aquatic Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Impingement mortality and entrainment of aquatic organisms (plants with once-through cooling systems or cooling ponds)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE. The impacts of impingement mortality and entrainment would generally be small at nuclear power plants with once-through cooling systems or cooling ponds that have implemented best technology requirements for existing facilities under Clean Water Act (CWA) Section 316(b). For all other plants, impacts could be small, moderate, or large depending on characteristics of the cooling water intake system, results of impingement and entrainment studies performed at the plant, trends in local fish and shellfish populations, and implementation of mitigation measures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Impingement mortality and entrainment of aquatic organisms (plants with cooling towers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. No significant impacts on aquatic populations associated with impingement mortality and entrainment at nuclear power plants with cooling towers have been reported, including effects on fish and shellfish from direct mortality, injury, or other sublethal effects. Impacts during the license renewal term would be similar and small. Further, effects of these cooling water intake systems would be mitigated through adherence to NPDES permit conditions established pursuant to CWA Section 316(b).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Entrainment of phytoplankton and zooplankton</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Entrainment has not resulted in noticeable impacts on phytoplankton or zooplankton populations near operating nuclear power plants. Impacts during the license renewal term would be similar and small. Further, effects would be mitigated through adherence to NPDES permit conditions established pursuant to CWA Section 316(b).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Effects of thermal effluents on aquatic organisms (plants with once-through cooling systems or cooling ponds)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE. Acute, sublethal, and community-level effects of thermal effluents on aquatic organisms would generally be small at nuclear power plants with once-through cooling systems or cooling ponds that adhere to State water quality criteria or that have and maintain a valid CWA Section 316(a) variance. For all other plants, impacts could be small, moderate, or large depending on site-specific factors, including ecological setting of the plant; characteristics of the cooling system and effluent discharges; and characteristics of the fish, shellfish, and other aquatic organisms present in the area.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Effects of thermal effluents on aquatic organisms (plants with cooling towers)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Acute, sublethal, and community-level effects of thermal effluents have not resulted in noticeable impacts on aquatic communities at nuclear power plants with cooling towers. Impacts during the license renewal term would be similar and small. Further, effects would be mitigated through adherence to State water quality criteria or CWA Section 316(a) variances.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Infrequently reported effects of thermal effluents</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Continued operation of nuclear power plant cooling systems could result in certain infrequently reported thermal impacts, including cold shock, thermal migration barriers, accelerated maturation of aquatic insects, proliferation of aquatic nuisance organisms, depletion of dissolved oxygen, gas supersaturation, eutrophication, and increased susceptibility of exposed fish and shellfish to predation, parasitism, and disease. Most of these effects have not been reported at operating nuclear power plants. Plants that have experienced these impacts successfully mitigated the impact, and it is no longer of concern. Infrequently reported thermal impacts are not expected to be significant issues during the license renewal term.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Effects of nonradiological contaminants on aquatic organisms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Heavy metal leaching from condenser tubes was an issue at several operating nuclear power plants. These plants successfully mitigated the issue, and it is no longer of concern. Cooling system effluents would be the primary source of nonradiological contaminants during the license renewal term. Implementation of best management practices and adherence to NPDES permit limitations would minimize the effects of these contaminants on the aquatic environment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exposure of aquatic organisms to radionuclides</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Doses to aquatic organisms from continued nuclear power plant operation and refurbishment during the license renewal term would be expected to remain well below U.S. Department of Energy exposure guidelines developed to protect these organisms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Effects of dredging on aquatic resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Dredging at nuclear power plants is expected to occur infrequently, would be of relatively short duration, and would affect relatively small areas. Continued operation of many plants may not require any dredging. Adherence to best management practices and CWA Section 404 permit conditions would mitigate potential impacts at plants where dredging is necessary to maintain function or reliability of cooling systems. Dredging is not expected to be a significant issue during the license renewal term.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water use conflicts with aquatic resources (plants with cooling ponds or cooling towers using makeup water from a river)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL or MODERATE. Nuclear power plants could consume water at rates that cause occasional or intermittent water use conflicts with nearby and downstream aquatic communities. Such impacts could noticeably affect aquatic plants or animals or alter characteristics of the ecological environment during the license renewal term. The one plant where impacts have occurred successfully mitigated the impact. Impacts are expected to be small at most nuclear power plants but could be moderate at some.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-cooling system impacts on aquatic resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. No significant impacts on aquatic resources associated with landscape and grounds maintenance, stormwater management, or ground-disturbing activities at operating nuclear power plants have been reported. Impacts from continued operation and refurbishment during the license renewal term would be similar and small. Application of best management practices and other conservation initiatives would reduce the potential for impacts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Impacts of transmission line right-of-way (ROW) management on aquatic resources 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. In-scope transmission lines tend to occupy only industrial-use or other developed portions of nuclear power plant sites and, therefore, the effects of ROW maintenance on aquatic plants and animals during the license renewal term would be negligible. Application of best management practices would reduce the potential for impacts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Federally Protected Ecological Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endangered Species Act: Federally listed species and critical habitats under U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service jurisdiction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The potential effects of continued nuclear power plant operation and refurbishment on federally listed species and critical habitats would depend on numerous site-specific factors, including the ecological setting; listed species and critical habitats present in the action area; and plant-specific factors related to operations, including water withdrawal, effluent discharges, and other ground-disturbing activities. Consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service under Endangered Species Act Section 7(a)(2) would be required if license renewal may affect listed species or critical habitats under this agency's jurisdiction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endangered Species Act: federally listed species and critical habitats under National Marine Fisheries Service jurisdiction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The potential effects of continued nuclear power plant operation and refurbishment on federally listed species and critical habitats would depend on numerous site-specific factors, including the ecological setting; listed species and critical habitats present in the action area; and plant-specific factors related to operations, including water withdrawal, effluent discharges, and other ground-disturbing activities. Consultation with the National Marine Fisheries Service under Endangered Species Act Section 7(a)(2) would be required if license renewal may affect listed species or critical habitats under this agency's jurisdiction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Magnuson-Stevens Act: essential fish habitat</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The potential effects of continued nuclear power plant operation and refurbishment on essential fish habitat would depend on numerous site-specific factors, including the ecological setting; essential fish habitat present in the area, including habitats of particular concern; and plant-specific factors related to operations, including water withdrawal, effluent discharges, and other activities that may affect aquatic habitats. Consultation with the National Marine Fisheries Service under Magnuson-Stevens Act Section 305(b) would be required if license renewal could result in adverse effects to essential fish habitat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Marine Sanctuaries Act: sanctuary resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The potential effects of continued nuclear power plant operation and refurbishment on sanctuary resources would depend on numerous site-specific factors, including the ecological setting; national marine sanctuaries present in the area; and plant-specific factors related to operations, including water withdrawal, effluent discharges, and other activities that may affect aquatic habitats. Consultation with the Office of National Marine Sanctuaries under National Marine Sanctuaries Act Section 304(d) would be required if license renewal could destroy, cause the loss of, or injure sanctuary resources.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Historic and Cultural Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Historic and cultural resources 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Impacts from continued operations and refurbishment on historic and cultural resources located onsite and in the transmission line ROW are analyzed on a plant-specific basis. The NRC will perform a National Historic Preservation Act (NHPA) Section 106 review, in accordance with 36 CFR part 800 which includes consultation with the State and Tribal Historic Preservation Officers, Indian Tribes, and other interested parties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Socioeconomics</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Employment and income, recreation and tourism</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Although most nuclear plants have large numbers of employees with higher than average wages and salaries, employment, income, recreation, and tourism impacts from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal are expected to be small.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tax revenue</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Nuclear plants provide tax revenue to local jurisdictions in the form of property tax payments, payments in lieu of tax (PILOT), or tax payments on energy production. The amount of tax revenue paid during the license renewal term as a result of continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal is not expected to change.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Community services and education</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Changes resulting from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal to local community and educational services would be small. With little or no change in employment at the licensee's plant, value of the power plant, payments on energy production, and PILOT payments expected during the license renewal term, community and educational services would not be affected by continued power plant operations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Population and housing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Changes resulting from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal to regional population and housing availability and value would be small. With little or no change in employment at the licensee's plant expected during the license renewal term, population and housing availability and values would not be affected by continued power plant operations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transportation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Changes resulting from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal to traffic volumes would be small.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Human Health</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radiation exposures to plant workers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Occupational doses from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal are expected to be within the range of doses experienced during the current license term and would continue to be well below regulatory limits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radiation exposures to the public</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Radiation doses to the public from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal are expected to continue at current levels and would be well below regulatory limits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chemical hazards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Chemical hazards to plant workers resulting from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal are expected to be minimized by the licensee implementing good industrial hygiene practices as required by permits and Federal and State regulations. Chemical releases to the environment and the potential for impacts to the public are expected to be minimized by adherence to discharge limitations of NPDES and other permits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Microbiological hazards to plant workers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Occupational health impacts are expected to be controlled by continued application of accepted industrial hygiene practices to minimize worker exposures as required by permits and Federal and State regulations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Microbiological hazards to the public</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE. These microorganisms are not expected to be a problem at most operating plants except possibly at plants using cooling ponds, lakes, canals, or that discharge to publicly accessible surface waters. Impacts would depend on site-specific characteristics.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electromagnetic fields (EMFs) 
<sup>4</sup> 
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Uncertain impact. Studies of 60-Hz EMFs have not uncovered consistent evidence linking harmful effects with field exposures. EMFs are unlike other agents that have a toxic effect (e.g., toxic chemicals and ionizing radiation) in that dramatic acute effects cannot be forced and longer-term effects, if real, are subtle. Because the state of the science is currently inadequate, no generic conclusion on human health impacts is possible.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Physical occupational hazards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Occupational safety and health hazards are generic to all types of electrical generating stations, including nuclear power plants, and are of small significance if the workers adhere to safety standards and use protective equipment as required by Federal and State regulations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric shock hazards 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE. Electrical shock potential is of small significance for transmission lines that are operated in adherence with the National Electrical Safety Code (NESC). Without a review of conformance with NESC criteria of each nuclear power plant's in-scope transmission lines, it is not possible to determine the significance of the electrical shock potential.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Postulated Accidents</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Design-basis accidents</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The NRC staff has concluded that the environmental impacts of design-basis accidents are of small significance for all plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Severe accidents 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The probability-weighted consequences of atmospheric releases, fallout onto open bodies of water, releases to groundwater, and societal and economic impacts from severe accidents are small for all plants. Severe accident mitigation alternatives do not warrant further plant-specific analysis because the demonstrated reductions in population dose risk and continued severe accident regulatory improvements substantially reduce the likelihood of finding cost-effective significant plant improvements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Environmental Justice</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Impacts on minority populations, low-income populations, and Indian Tribes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Impacts on minority populations, low-income populations, Indian Tribes, and subsistence consumption resulting from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal will be addressed in nuclear plant-specific reviews.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Waste Management</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low-level waste storage and disposal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The comprehensive regulatory controls that are in place and the low public doses being achieved at reactors ensure that the radiological impacts on the environment would remain small during the license renewal term.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Onsite storage of spent nuclear fuel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">During the license renewal term, SMALL. The expected increase in the volume of spent fuel from an additional 20 years of operation can be safely accommodated onsite during the license renewal term with small environmental impacts through dry or pool storage at all plants.


<br/>For the period after the licensed life for reactor operations, the impacts of onsite storage of spent nuclear fuel during the continued storage period are discussed in NUREG-2157 and as stated in § 51.23(b), shall be deemed incorporated into this issue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Offsite radiological impacts of spent nuclear fuel and high-level waste disposal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the high-level waste and spent-fuel disposal component of the fuel cycle, the EPA established a dose limit of 0.15 mSv (15 millirem) per year for the first 10,000 years and 1.0 mSv (100 millirem) per year between 10,000 years and 1 million years for offsite releases of radionuclides at the proposed repository at Yucca Mountain, Nevada.


<br/>The Commission concludes that the impacts would not be sufficiently large to require the NEPA conclusion, for any plant, that the option of extended operation under 10 CFR part 54 should be eliminated. Accordingly, while the Commission has not assigned a single level of significance for the impacts of spent fuel and high-level waste disposal, this issue is considered Category 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed-waste storage and disposal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The comprehensive regulatory controls and the facilities and procedures that are in place ensure proper handling and storage, as well as negligible doses and exposure to toxic materials for the public and the environment at all plants. License renewal would not increase the small, continuing risk to human health and the environment posed by mixed waste at all plants. The radiological and nonradiological environmental impacts of long-term disposal of mixed waste from any individual plant at licensed sites are small.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonradioactive waste storage and disposal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. No changes to systems that generate nonradioactive waste are anticipated during the license renewal term. Facilities and procedures are in place to ensure continued proper handling, storage, and disposal, as well as negligible exposure to toxic materials for the public and the environment at all plants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Greenhouse Gas Emissions and Climate Change</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greenhouse gas impacts on climate change</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. Greenhouse gas impacts on climate change from continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal are expected to be small at all plants. Greenhouse gas emissions from routine operations of nuclear power plants are typically very minor, because such plants, by their very nature, do not normally combust fossil fuels to generate electricity.


<br/>Greenhouse gas emissions from construction vehicles and other motorized equipment for refurbishment activities would be intermittent and temporary, restricted to the refurbishment period. Worker vehicle greenhouse gas emissions for refurbishment would be similar to worker vehicle emissions from normal nuclear power plant operations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Climate change impacts on environmental resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Climate change can have additive effects on environmental resource conditions that may also be directly impacted by continued operations and refurbishment during the license renewal term. The effects of climate change can vary regionally and climate change information at the regional and local scale is necessary to assess trends and the impacts on the human environment for a specific location. The impacts of climate change on environmental resources during the license renewal term are location-specific and cannot be evaluated generically.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Cumulative Effects</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumulative effects</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cumulative effects or impacts of continued operations and refurbishment associated with license renewal must be considered on a plant-specific basis. The effects depend on regional resource characteristics, the incremental resource-specific effects of license renewal, and the cumulative significance of other factors affecting the environmental resource.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Uranium Fuel Cycle</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Offsite radiological impacts—individual impacts from other than the disposal of spent fuel and high-level waste</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The impacts to the public from radiological exposures have been considered by the Commission in Table S-3 of this part. Based on information in the GEIS, impacts to individuals from radioactive gaseous and liquid releases, including radon-222 and technetium-99, would remain at or below the NRC's regulatory limits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Offsite radiological impacts—collective impacts from other than the disposal of spent fuel and high-level waste</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">There are no regulatory limits applicable to collective doses to the general public from fuel-cycle facilities. The practice of estimating health effects on the basis of collective doses may not be meaningful. All fuel-cycle facilities are designed and operated to meet the applicable regulatory limits and standards. The Commission concludes that the collective impacts are acceptable.
<br/>The Commission concludes that the impacts would not be sufficiently large to require the NEPA conclusion, for any plant, that the option of extended operation under 10 CFR part 54 should be eliminated. Accordingly, while the Commission has not assigned a single level of significance for the collective impacts of the uranium fuel cycle, this issue is considered Category 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonradiological impacts of the uranium fuel cycle</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The nonradiological impacts of the uranium fuel cycle resulting from the renewal of an operating license for any plant would be small.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transportation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. The impacts of transporting materials to and from uranium-fuel-cycle facilities on workers, the public, and the environment are expected to be small.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Termination of Nuclear Power Plant Operations and Decommissioning</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Termination of plant operations and decommissioning</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL. License renewal is expected to have a negligible effect on the impacts of terminating operations and decommissioning on all resources.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Data supporting this table are contained in NUREG-1437, Revision 2, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for License Renewal of Nuclear Plants,” August 2024.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The numerical entries in this column are based on the following category definitions:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Category 1: For the issue, the analysis reported in the Generic Environmental Impact Statement has shown:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) The environmental impacts associated with the issue have been determined to apply either to all plants or, for some issues, to plants having a specific type of cooling system or other specified plant or site characteristic;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) A single significance level (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE) has been assigned to the impacts (except for offsite radiological impacts of spent nuclear fuel and high-level waste disposal and offsite radiological impacts—collective impacts from other than the disposal of spent fuel and high-level waste); and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(3) Mitigation of adverse impacts associated with the issue has been considered in the analysis, and it has been determined that additional plant-specific mitigation measures are not likely to be sufficiently beneficial to warrant implementation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">The generic analysis of the issue may be adopted in each plant-specific review.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Category 2: For the issue, the analysis reported in the Generic Environmental Impact Statement has shown that one or more of the criteria of Category 1 cannot be met, and therefore additional plant-specific review is required.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The impact findings in this column are based on the definitions of three significance levels. Unless the significance level is identified as beneficial, the impact is adverse, or in the case of “SMALL,” may be negligible. The definitions of significance follow:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">SMALL—For the issue, environmental effects are not detectable or are so minor that they will neither destabilize nor noticeably alter any important attribute of the resource. For the purposes of assessing radiological impacts, the Commission has concluded that those impacts that do not exceed permissible levels in the Commission's regulations are considered SMALL as the term is used in this table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">MODERATE—For the issue, environmental effects are sufficient to alter noticeably, but not to destabilize, important attributes of the resource.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">LARGE—For the issue, environmental effects are clearly noticeable and are sufficient to destabilize important attributes of the resource.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">These levels are used for describing the environmental impacts of the proposed action (license renewal), as well as for the impacts of a range of reasonable alternatives to the proposed action. Resource-specific effects or impact definitions from applicable environmental laws and executive orders, other than SMALL, MODERATE, and LARGE, are used where appropriate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">For issues where probability is a key consideration (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> accident consequences), probability was a factor in determining significance.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> This issue applies only to the in-scope portion of electric power transmission lines, which are defined as transmission lines that connect the nuclear power plant to the substation where electricity is fed into the regional power distribution system and transmission lines that supply power to the nuclear plant from the grid.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> NA (not applicable). The categorization and impact finding definitions do not apply to these issues.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> If, in the future, the Commission finds that, contrary to current indications, a consensus has been reached by appropriate Federal health agencies that there are adverse health effects from electromagnetic fields, the Commission will require applicants to submit plant-specific reviews of these health effects as part of their license renewal applications. Until such time, applicants for license renewal are not required to submit information on this issue.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Although the NRC does not anticipate any license renewal applications for nuclear power plants for which a previous severe accident mitigation design alternative (SAMDA) or severe accident mitigation alternative (SAMA) analysis has not been performed, alternatives to mitigate severe accidents must be considered for all plants that have not considered such alternatives and would be the functional equivalent of a Category 2 issue requiring plant-specific analysis.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 64190, Aug. 6, 2024; 89 FR 67522, Aug. 21, 2024]










</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.3.61.1.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart A of Part 51—Environmental Effect of Issuing a Permit or License for a New Nuclear Reactor


</HEAD>
<P>The Commission has assessed the environmental impacts associated with authorizing the construction, operation, and decommissioning of a nuclear reactor. Table C-1 summarizes the Commission's generic findings on the scope and magnitude of environmental impacts of such an authorization as required by section 102(2) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended. Table C-1 presents the results of the generic analysis of those environmental impacts associated with building,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> operating, and decommissioning a nuclear reactor that the NRC has designated as Category 1, as well as listing the issues that could not be resolved generically, designated as Category 2. The use of this table by applicants will be in accordance with § 51.50(d), and the use by the staff will be in accordance with §§ 51.75(d) and 51.96. On a 10-year cycle, the Commission intends to review the material in this appendix and update it if necessary. A scoping notice must be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> indicating the results of the NRC's review and inviting public comments and proposals for other areas that should be updated.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The term “building,” as used in the NR GEIS, includes the full range of preconstruction (building activities not within the NRC's regulatory authority), and construction and installation activities (building activities within the NRC's regulatory authority).</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C-1—Summary of Findings on Environmental Issues for Issuing a Permit or License for a New Nuclear Reactor 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Issue
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Finding 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Plant parameter envelope/site parameter


<br/>envelope values and assumptions 
<sup>4</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Land Use</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Onsite Land Use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The proposed project, including any associated land uses, complies with NRC siting regulations in 10 CFR part 100. The site size is 100 acres [ac] (40.5 hectares [ha]) or less. The permanent footprint of disturbance includes 30 ac (12 ha) or less of vegetated lands, and the temporary footprint of disturbance includes no more than an additional 20 ac (8.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands. The proposed project complies with the site's zoning and is consistent with any relevant land use plans or comprehensive plans. The site would not be situated closer than 0.5 miles [mi] (0.8 kilometers [km]) to existing residential areas or 1.0 mi (1.6 km) to sensitive land uses such as Federal, State, or local parks; wildlife refuges; conservation lands; Wild and Scenic Rivers; or Natural Heritage Rivers. The site does not have a history of past industrial use capable of leaving a legacy of contamination requiring cleanup to protect human health and the environment. The total wetland loss from use of the site, including use of any offsite rights-of-way (ROWs), would be no more than 0.5 ac (0.2 ha). Best management practices (BMPs) for erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management would be used. Compliance with any mitigation measures established through zoning ordinances, local building permits, site use permits, or other land use authorizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Offsite Land Use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New offsite ROWs for transmission lines, pipelines, or access roads would be no more than 100 feet [ft] (30.5 meters [m]) in width and total no more than 1 mi (1.6 km) in length. No new offsite ROW would be situated closer than 0.5 mi (0.8 km) to existing residential areas or sensitive land uses such as Federal, State, or local parks; wildlife refuges; conservation lands; Wild and Scenic Rivers; or Natural Heritage Rivers. No existing ROWs in residential areas would be used or widened to accommodate project features. No ROW has a history of past industrial use capable of leaving a legacy of contamination requiring cleanup to protect human health and the environment. The total wetland loss from use of the entire project, including use of the site and any offsite ROWs, would be no more than 0.5 ac (0.2 ha). BMPs for erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management would be used. Compliance with any mitigation measures established through zoning ordinances, local building permits, site use permits, or other land use authorizations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Impacts to Prime and Unique Farmland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site size is (40.5 ha) or less. The site does not contain any prime or unique farmland or other farmland of statewide or local importance; or the site does not abut any agricultural land and is not situated in a predominantly agricultural landscape.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Coastal Zone and Compliance with the Coastal Zone Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1451<E T="03"> et seq.</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site is not situated in any designated coastal zone, or the applicant can demonstrate that the affected State(s) have or will issue a consistency determination or other indication that the project complies with the Coastal Zone Management Act.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Onsite Land Use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The proposed project, including any associated land uses, complies with NRC siting regulations in 10 CFR part 100. The site size is 100 ac (40.5 ha) or less. If needed, cooling towers would be mechanical draft, not natural draft; less than 100 ft (30.5 m) in height; and equipped with drift eliminators. Any makeup water for the cooling towers would be fresh water (less than 1 part per trillion [ppt] salinity). BMPs for erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management would be used.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Offsite Land Use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New offsite ROWs for transmission lines, pipelines, or access roads would be no more than 100 ft (30.5 m) in width and total no more than 1 mi (1.6 km) in length. BMPs for erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management would be used (wherever land is disturbed during the course of ROW management).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Visual Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Visual Impacts in Site and Vicinity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site size is 100 ac (40.5 ha) or less. The site would not be situated closer than 0.5 mi (0.8 km) to existing residential areas or 1 mi (1.6 km) to sensitive land uses such as Federal, State, or local parks; wildlife refuges; conservation lands; Wild and Scenic Rivers; or Natural Heritage Rivers. The maximum proposed building and structure height is no more than 50 ft (15.2 m), except that the maximum height is 200 ft (61 m) for proposed meteorological towers and 100 ft (30.5 m) for transmission line poles/towers and mechanical draft cooling towers. The proposed project structures would not be visible from Federal or State parks or wilderness areas designated as Class 1 under section 162 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7472); or as a Wild and Scenic River, a Natural Heritage River, or a river of similar State designation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Visual Impacts from Transmission Lines</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New offsite ROWs for transmission lines, pipelines, or access roads would be no more than 100 ft (30.5 m) in width and total no more than 1 mi (1.6 km) in length. No transmission line structures (poles or towers) would be over 100 ft (30.5 m) in height. The new offsite ROWs would not be situated closer than 1 mi (1.6 km) to existing residential areas or sensitive land uses such as Federal, State, or local parks; wildlife refuges; conservation lands; Wild and Scenic Rivers; or Natural Heritage Rivers. Any proposed new structures on offsite ROWs would not be visible from Federal or State parks or wilderness areas designated as Class 1 under section 162 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7472); or as a Wild and Scenic River, a Natural Heritage River, or a river of similar State designation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Visual Impacts During Operations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site would not be situated closer than 1 mi (1.6 km) to existing residential areas or sensitive land uses such as Federal, State, or local parks; wildlife refuges; conservation lands; Wild and Scenic Rivers; or Natural Heritage Rivers. The maximum proposed building and structure height would be no more than 50 ft (15.2 m), except that the maximum height would be 200 ft (61 m) for proposed meteorological towers and 100 ft (30.5 m) for proposed transmission line poles/towers and proposed mechanical draft cooling towers. The proposed project structures would not be visible from Federal or State parks or wilderness areas designated as Class 1 under section 162 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7472); or as a Wild and Scenic River, a Natural Heritage River, or a river of similar State designation. If needed, cooling towers would be mechanical draft, not natural draft; less than 100 ft (30.5 m) in height; and equipped with drift eliminators. Any makeup water for the cooling towers would be fresh water (less than 1 ppt salinity).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Meteorology and Air Quality</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Emissions of Criteria Pollutants and Dust During Construction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site size is 100 ac (40.5 ha) or less. The permanent footprint of disturbance is 30 ac (12.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands and the temporary footprint of disturbance is an additional 20 ac (8.1 ha) or less of vegetated land. New offsite ROWs for transmission lines, pipelines, or access roads would be no longer than 1 mi (1.6 km) and have a maximum ROW width of 100 ft (30.5 m). Criteria pollutants emitted from vehicles and standby power equipment during construction are less than Clean Air Act de minimis levels set by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) if the site is located in a nonattainment or maintenance area, or the site is located in an attainment area. The site is not located within 1 mi (1.6 km) of a mandatory Class I Federal area where visibility is an important value. The level of service (LOS) determination for affected roadways does not change. Mitigation necessary to rely on the generic analysis includes implementation of BMPs for dust control. Compliance with air permits under State and Federal laws that address the impact of air emissions during construction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Greenhouse Gas Emissions During Construction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greenhouse gases emitted by equipment and vehicles during the 97-year greenhouse gas life-cycle period would be equal to or less than 2,534,000 metric tons [MT] of carbon dioxide equivalent [CO<E T="0732">2</E>(e)]. Appendix H of NUREG-2249, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for Licensing of New Nuclear Reactors” contains the NRC's methodology for developing this value, which includes emissions from construction, operation, and decommissioning. As long as this total value is met, the impacts for the life cycle of the project and the individual phases of the project are determined to be SMALL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Emissions of Criteria and Hazardous Air Pollutants during Operation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Criteria pollutants emitted from vehicles and standby power equipment during operations are less than Clean Air Act de minimis levels set by the EPA if located in a nonattainment or maintenance area. The site is not located within 1 mi (1.6 km) of a mandatory Class I Federal area where visibility is an important value. The LOS determination for affected roadways does not change. Compliance with air permits under State and Federal laws that address the impact of air emissions. Hazardous air pollutant (HAP) emissions will be within regulatory limits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Greenhouse Gas Emissions During Operation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greenhouse gases emitted by equipment and vehicles during the 97-year greenhouse gas life-cycle period would be equal to or less than 2,534,000 MT of CO<E T="0732">2</E>(e). Appendix H of NUREG-2249 contains the NRC's methodology for developing this value, which includes emissions from construction, operation, and decommissioning. As long as this total value is met, the impacts for the life cycle of the project and the individual phases of the project are determined to be SMALL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cooling-System Emissions</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If needed, cooling towers would be mechanical draft, not natural draft. Cooling towers would be equipped with drift eliminators. The site is not located within 1 mi (1.6 km) of a mandatory Class I Federal area where visibility is an important value. Mechanical draft cooling towers would be less than 100 ft (30.5 m) tall. Makeup water would be fresh (with a salinity less than 1 ppt). Operation of cooling towers is assumed to be subject to State permitting requirements. HAP emissions would be within regulatory limits. No existing residential areas within 0.5 mi (0.8 km) of the site.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Emissions of Ozone and Nitrogen Oxides during Transmission Line Operation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The transmission line voltage would be no higher than 1,200 kilovolts [kV].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Water Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Surface Water Use Conflicts during Construction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total Plant Water Demand Less than or equal to a daily average of 6,000 gallons per minute [gpm] (0.379 cubic meters per second [m
<sup>3</sup>/s]). If water is obtained from a flowing water body, then the following plant parameter envelope/site parameter envelope (PPE/SPE) parameter and associated assumptions also apply: Average plant water withdrawals do not reduce discharge from the flowing water body by more than 3 percent of the 95 percent exceedance daily flow and do not prevent the maintenance of applicable instream flow requirements. The 95 percent exceedance flow accounts for existing and planned future withdrawals. Water availability is demonstrated by the ability to obtain a withdrawal permit issued by State, regional, or Tribal governing authorities. Water rights for the withdrawal amount are obtainable, if needed. If water is obtained from a non-flowing water body, then the following PPE/SPE parameter and associated value and assumptions also apply: Water availability of the Great Lakes, the Gulf of America, oceans, estuaries, and intertidal zones exceeds the amount of water required by the plant. Water availability is demonstrated by the ability to obtain a withdrawal permit issued by State, regional, or Tribal governing authorities. Water rights for the withdrawal amount are obtainable, if needed. The Coastal Zone Management Act consistency determination is obtainable, if applicable, for the non-flowing water body.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Groundwater Use Conflicts due to Excavation Dewatering</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The long-term dewatering withdrawal rate is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s) (the initial rate may be larger). Dewatering results in negligible groundwater level drawdown at the site boundary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Groundwater Use Conflicts due to Construction-Related Groundwater Withdrawals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Groundwater withdrawal for all plant uses (excluding dewatering) is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Withdrawal results in no more than 1 ft (0.3 m) of groundwater level drawdown at the site boundary. Withdrawals are not derived from an EPA-designated Sole Source Aquifer (SSA), or from any aquifer designated by a State, Tribe, or regional authority to have special protections to limit drawdown. Withdrawals meet any applicable State or local permit requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Quality Degradation due to Construction-Related Discharges</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The permanent footprint of disturbance includes 30 ac (12.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands, and the temporary footprint of disturbance includes no more than an additional 20 ac (8.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands. Adherence to requirements in National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permits issued by the EPA or State permitting program, and any other applicable permits. The long-term groundwater dewatering withdrawal rate is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Dewatering discharge has minimal effects on the quality of the receiving water body (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> as demonstrated by conformance with NPDES permit requirements). There are no planned discharges to the subsurface (by infiltration or injection), including stormwater discharge.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Quality Degradation due to Inadvertent Spills during Construction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site size is 100 ac (40.5 ha) or less. The permanent footprint of disturbance includes 30 ac (12.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands, and the temporary footprint of disturbance includes no more than an additional 20 ac (8.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands. Applicable requirements and guidance on spill prevention and control are followed, including relevant BMPs and Integrated Pollution Prevention Plans (IPPPs).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Quality Degradation due to Groundwater Withdrawal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Groundwater Withdrawal for Excavation or Foundation Dewatering. The long-term dewatering withdrawal rate is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s) (the initial rate may be larger). Dewatering results in negligible groundwater level drawdown at the site boundary. Groundwater Withdrawal for Plant Uses Groundwater withdrawal for all plant uses (excluding dewatering) is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Withdrawal results in no more than 1 ft (0.3 m) of groundwater level drawdown at the site boundary. Withdrawals are not derived from an EPA-designated SSA, or from any aquifer designated by a State, Tribe, or regional authority to have special protections to limit drawdown. Withdrawals meet any applicable State or local permit requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Quality Degradation due to Offshore or In-Water Construction Activities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In-water structures (including intake and discharge structures) are constructed in compliance with provisions of the Clean Water Act (CWA) section 404 (33 U.S.C. 1344) and section 10 of the Rivers and Harbors Appropriation Act of 1899 (33 U.S.C. 401 <E T="03">et seq.</E>). Adverse effects of building activities controlled and localized using BMPs such as installation of turbidity curtains or installation of cofferdams. Construction duration would be less than 7 years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Use Conflict Due to Plant Municipal Water Demand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount available from municipal water systems exceeds the amount of municipal water required by the plant (gpm). Municipal Water Availability accounts for all existing and planned future uses. An agreement or permit for the usage amount can be obtained from the municipality.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Degradation of Water Quality from Plant Effluent Discharges to Municipal Systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Municipal Systems' Available Capacity to Receive and Treat Plant Effluent accounts for all existing and reasonably foreseeable future discharges. Agreement to discharge to a municipal treatment system is obtainable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Surface Water Use Conflicts during Operation due to Water Withdrawal from Flowing Waterbodies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total plant water demand is less than or equal to a daily average of 6,000 gpm (0.379 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Average plant water withdrawals do not reduce discharge from the flowing water body by more than 3 percent of the 95 percent exceedance daily flow and do not prevent the maintenance of applicable instream flow requirements. The 95 percent exceedance flow accounts for existing and planned future withdrawals. Water availability is demonstrated by the ability to obtain a withdrawal permit issued by State, regional, or Tribal governing authorities. Water rights for the withdrawal amount are obtainable, if needed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Surface Water Use Conflicts during Operation due to Water Withdrawal from Non-flowing Waterbodies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total plant water demand is less than or equal to a daily average of 6,000 gpm (0.379 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Water availability of the Great Lakes, the Gulf of America, oceans, estuaries, and intertidal zones exceeds the amount of water required by the plant. Water availability is demonstrated by the ability to obtain a withdrawal permit issued by State, regional, or Tribal governing authorities. Water rights for the withdrawal amount are obtainable, if needed. Coastal Zone Management Act of 1972 (16 U.S.C. 1451 <E T="03">et seq.</E>) consistency determination is obtainable, if applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Groundwater Use Conflicts Due to Building Foundation Dewatering</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The long-term dewatering withdrawal rate is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s) (the initial rate may be larger). Dewatering results in negligible groundwater level drawdown at the site boundary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Groundwater Use Conflicts Due to Groundwater Withdrawals for Plant Uses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Groundwater withdrawal for all plant uses (excluding dewatering) is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Withdrawal results in no more than 1 ft (0.3 m) of groundwater level drawdown at the site boundary. Withdrawals are not derived from an EPA-designated SSA, or from any aquifer designated by a State, Tribe, or regional authority to have special protections to limit drawdown. Withdrawals meet any applicable State or local permit requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Surface Water Quality Degradation Due to Physical Effects from Operation of Intake and Discharge Structures</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total plant water demand is less than or equal to a daily average of 6,000 gpm (0.379 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Adhere to best available technology requirements of CWA 316(b) (33 U.S.C. 1326). Operated in compliance with CWA section 316(b) and 40 CFR 125.83, including compliance with monitoring and recordkeeping requirements in 40 CFR 125.87 and 40 CFR 125.88, respectively (40 CFR part 125). Best available technologies are employed in the design and operation of intake and discharge structures to minimize alterations due to scouring, sediment transport, increased turbidity, and erosion. Adherence to requirements in NPDES permits issued by the EPA or a given State. If water is obtained from a flowing water body, then the following PPE/SPE parameter and associated value also apply: The average rate of plant withdrawal does not exceed 3 percent of the 95 percent exceedance daily flow for the water body. If water is obtained from a non-flowing water body, then the following PPE/SPE parameters and associated values and assumptions also apply: Water availability of the Great Lakes, the Gulf of America, oceans, estuaries, and intertidal zones exceeds the amount of water required by the plant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Surface Water Quality Degradation Due to Changes in Salinity Gradients Resulting from Withdrawals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total plant water demand is less than or equal to a daily average of 6,000 gpm (0.379 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). If water is obtained from a flowing water body, then the following PPE/SPE parameter and associated assumptions also apply: Average plant water withdrawals do not reduce discharge from the flowing water body by more than 3 percent of the 95 percent exceedance daily flow and do not prevent the maintenance of applicable instream flow requirements. The 95 percent exceedance flow accounts for existing and planned future withdrawals. Water availability is demonstrated by the ability to obtain a withdrawal permit issued by State, regional, or Tribal governing authorities. Water rights for the withdrawal amount are obtainable, if needed. If withdrawals are from an estuary or intertidal zone, then changes to salinity gradients are within the normal tidal or seasonal movements that characterize the water body. If water is obtained from a non-flowing water body, then the following PPE/SPE parameter and associated values and assumptions also apply: Water availability of the Great Lakes, the Gulf of America, oceans, estuaries, and intertidal zones exceeds the amount of water required by the plant. Water availability is demonstrated by the ability to obtain a withdrawal permit issued by State, regional, or Tribal governing authorities. Water rights for the withdrawal amount are obtainable, if needed. If withdrawals are from an estuary or intertidal zone, then changes to salinity gradients are within the normal tidal or seasonal movements that characterize the water body.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Surface Water Quality Degradation Due to Chemical and Thermal Discharges</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The NRC determined that a generic analysis to determine operational impacts on surface water quality due to chemical and thermal discharges was not possible because (1) some States may impose effluent constituent limitations more stringent that those required by the EPA, (2) limitations imposed on effluent constituents may vary among States, and (3) the establishment of a mixing zone may be required. Because all of these issues related to degradation of surface water quality from chemical and thermal discharges require consideration of project-specific information, a project-specific assessment should be performed in the supplemental environmental impact statement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Groundwater Quality Degradation Due to Plant Discharges</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The plant is outside the recharge area for any EPA-designated SSA, or any aquifer designated to have special protections by a State, Tribal, or regional authority. The plant is outside the wellhead protection area or designated contributing area for any public water supply well. There are no planned discharges to the subsurface (by infiltration or injection).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Quality Degradation due to Inadvertent Spills and Leaks during Operation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicable requirements and guidance on spill prevention and control are followed, including relevant BMPs and IPPPs. There are no planned discharges to the subsurface (by infiltration or injection), including stormwater discharge. A groundwater protection program conforming to currently applicable industry guidance is established and followed. The site size is 100 ac (40.5 ha) or less. Use of BMPs for soil erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management. Adherence to requirements in NPDES permits issued by the EPA or a given State, and any other applicable permits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Quality Degradation due to Groundwater Withdrawals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The long-term dewatering withdrawal rate is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s) (the initial rate may be larger). Dewatering results in negligible groundwater level drawdown at the site boundary. Groundwater withdrawal for all plant uses (excluding dewatering) is less than or equal to 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Withdrawal results in no more than 1 ft (0.3 m) of groundwater level drawdown at the site boundary. Withdrawals are not derived from an EPA-designated SSA, or from any aquifer designated by a State, Tribe, or regional authority to have special protections to limit drawdown. Withdrawals meet any applicable State or local permit requirements.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Use Conflict from Plant Municipal Water Demand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Usage amount is within the existing capacity of the system(s), accounting for all existing and planned future uses. An agreement or permit for the usage amount can be obtained from the municipality.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Degradation of Water Quality from Plant Effluent Discharges to Municipal Systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Municipal Systems' Available Capacity to Receive and Treat Plant Effluent accounts for all existing and reasonably foreseeable future discharges. Agreement to discharge to a municipal treatment system is obtainable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Terrestrial Ecology</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Permanent and Temporary Loss, Conversion, Fragmentation, and Degradation of Habitats</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The permanent footprint of disturbance would include 30 ac (12.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands, and the temporary footprint of disturbance would include no more than an additional 20 ac (8.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands. Temporarily disturbed lands would be revegetated using regionally indigenous vegetation once the lands are no longer needed to support building activities. New offsite ROWs for transmission lines, pipelines, or access roads would be no more than 100 ft (30.5 m) in width and total no more than 1 mi (1.6 km) in length. The footprint of disturbance (permanent and temporary) would contain no ecologically sensitive features such as floodplains, shorelines, riparian vegetation, late-successional vegetation, land specifically designated for conservation, or habitat known to be potentially suitable for one or more Federal or State threatened or endangered species. Total wetland impacts from use of the site and any offsite ROWs would be no more than 0.5 ac (0.2 ha). Applicants would demonstrate an effort to minimize fragmentation of terrestrial habitats by using existing ROWs, or widening existing ROWs, to the extent practicable. BMPs would be used for erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Permanent and Temporary Loss and Degradation of Wetlands</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicant would provide a delineation of potentially impacted wetlands, including wetlands not under CWA jurisdiction. Total wetland impacts from use of the site and any offsite ROWs would be no more than 0.5 ac (0.2 ha). If activities regulated under the CWA are performed, those activities would receive approval under one or more nationwide permits (NWPs) (33 CFR part 330) or other general permits recognized by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. Temporary groundwater withdrawals for excavation or foundation dewatering would not exceed a long-term rate of 50 gpm (0.003 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). Applicants would be able to demonstrate that the temporary groundwater withdrawals would not substantially alter the hydrology of wetlands connected to the same groundwater resource. Any required State or local permits for wetland impacts would be obtained. Any mitigation measures indicated in the NWPs or other permits would be implemented. BMPs would be used for erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Effects of Building Noise on Wildlife</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Noise generation would not exceed 85 A-weighted decibels [dBA] 50 ft (15.2 m) from the source.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Effects of Vehicular Collisions on Wildlife</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site size would be 100 ac (40.5 ha) or less. The permanent footprint of disturbance would include 30 ac (12.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands, and the temporary footprint of disturbance would include no more than an additional 20 ac (8.1 ha) or less of vegetated lands. There would be no decreases in the LOS designation for affected roadways. The licensee would communicate with Federal and State wildlife agencies and implement mitigation actions recommended by those agencies to reduce potential for vehicular injury to wildlife.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bird Collisions and Injury from Structures and Transmission Lines</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site size would be 100 ac (40.5 ha) or less. New offsite ROWs for transmission lines, pipelines, or access roads would be no more than 100 ft (30.5 m) in width and total no more than 1 mi (1.6 km) in length. No transmission line structures (poles or towers) would be more than 100 ft (30.5 m) in height. Licensees would implement common mitigation measures such as those provided by the American Bird Conservancy for buildings, by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) for towers, and by the Avian Power Line Interaction Committee (APLIC) for transmission lines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Important Species and Habitats—Resources Regulated under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 <E T="03">et seq.</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The NRC is unable to determine the significance of potential impacts without consideration of project-specific factors, including the specific species and habitats affected and the types of ecological changes potentially resulting from each specific licensing action.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Important Species and Habitats—Other Important Species and Habitats</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicants would communicate with State natural resource or conservation agencies regarding wildlife and plants and implement mitigation recommendations of those agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Permanent and Temporary Loss or Disturbance of Habitats</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Temporarily disturbed lands would be revegetated using regionally indigenous vegetation once the lands are no longer needed to support building activities. The total wetland loss from site disturbance over the operational life of the plant would be no more than 0.5 ac (0.2 ha). Any State or local permits for wetland impacts would be obtained. Any mitigation measures indicated in the NWPs or other wetland permits would be implemented. BMPs would be used for erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Effects of Operational Noise on Wildlife</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Noise generation would not exceed 85 dBA 50 ft (15.2 m) from the source. There would be no decreases in the LOS designation for affected roadways. The licensee would communicate with Federal and State wildlife agencies and implement mitigation actions recommended by those agencies to reduce potential for vehicular injury to wildlife.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Effects of Vehicular Collisions on Wildlife</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Noise generation would not exceed 85 dBA 50 ft (15.2 m) from the source. There would be no decreases in the LOS designation for affected roadways. The licensee would communicate with Federal and State wildlife agencies and implement mitigation actions recommended by those agencies to reduce potential for vehicular injury to wildlife.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Exposure of Terrestrial Organisms to Radionuclides</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicants would demonstrate in their application that any radiological nonhuman biota doses would be below International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) guidelines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cooling-Tower Operational Impacts on Vegetation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If needed, cooling towers would be mechanical draft, not natural draft; less than 100 ft (30.5 m) in height; and equipped with drift eliminators. Any makeup water for the cooling towers would be fresh water (less than 1 ppt salinity).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bird Collisions and Injury from Structures and Transmission Lines</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The site size would be 100 ac (40.5 ha) or less. New offsite ROWs for transmission lines, pipelines, or access roads would be no more than 100 ft (30.5 m) in width and total no more than 1 mi (1.6 km) in length. No transmission line structures (poles or towers) would be more than 100 ft (30.5 m) in height. Licensees would implement common mitigation measures such as those provided by the American Bird Conservancy for buildings, by the FWS for towers, and by the APLIC for transmission lines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bird Electrocutions from Transmission Lines</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New offsite ROWs for transmission lines, pipelines, or access roads would be no more than 100 ft (30.5 m) in width and total no more than 1 mi (1.6 km) in length. Common mitigation measures, such as those recommended by APLIC, would be implemented.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water Use Conflicts with Terrestrial Resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total plant water demand would be less than or equal to a daily average of 6,000 gpm (0.379 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). If water is withdrawn from flowing water bodies, average plant water withdrawals would not reduce flow by more than 3 percent of the 95 percent exceedance daily flow and would not prevent maintenance of applicable instream flow requirements. Any water withdrawals would be in compliance with any EPA or State permitting requirements. Applicants would be able to demonstrate that hydroperiod changes are within historical or seasonal fluctuations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Effects of Transmission Line ROW Management on Terrestrial Resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vegetation in transmission line ROWs would be managed following a plan consisting of integrated vegetation management practices. All ROW maintenance work would be performed in compliance with all applicable laws and regulations. Herbicides would be applied by licensed applicators, and only if in compliance with applicable manufacturer label instructions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Effects of Electromagnetic Fields on Flora and Fauna</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Based on the literature review in the License Renewal Generic Environmental Impact Statement (LR GEIS), the NRC determined that this is a Category 1 issue and impacts would be SMALL regardless of the length, location, or size of the transmission lines. The NRC did not recommend any mitigation in the LR GEIS; hence, none is needed here. The NRC did not rely on any PPE and SPE values or assumptions in reaching this conclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Important Species and Habitats—Resources Regulated under the ESA of 1973</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The NRC is unable to determine the significance of potential impacts without consideration of project-specific factors, including the specific species and habitats affected and the types of ecological changes potentially resulting from each specific licensing action.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Important Species and Habitats—Other Important Species and Habitats</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicants would communicate with State natural resource or conservation agencies regarding wildlife and plants and implement mitigation recommendations of those agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Aquatic Ecology</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Runoff and sedimentation from construction areas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BMPs would be used for erosion and sediment control. Temporarily disturbed lands would be revegetated using regionally indigenous vegetation once the lands are no longer needed to support building activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dredging and filling aquatic habitats to build intake and discharge structures</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicant would obtain approval, if required, under NWP 7 in 33 CFR part 330. Applicant would implement any mitigation required under NWP 7 in 33 CFR part 330. Applicant would minimize any temporarily disturbed shoreline and riparian lands needed to build the intake and discharge structures and restore those areas with regionally indigenous vegetation suited to those landscape settings once the disturbances are no longer needed. BMPs would be used for erosion and sediment control.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Building transmission lines, pipelines, and access roads across surface waterbodies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If activities regulated under the CWA are performed, they would receive approval under one or more NWPs (33 CFR part 330) or other general permits recognized by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. Pipelines would be extended under (or over) surface through directional drilling without physically disturbing shorelines or bottom substrate. Access roads would span streams and other surface waterbodies with a bridge or ford, and any fords would include placement and maintenance of matting to minimize physical disturbance of shorelines and bottom substrates. No access roads would be extended across stream channels over 10 ft (3 m) in width (at ordinary high water). Any bridges or fords would be removed once no longer needed, and any exposed soils or substrate would be revegetated using regionally indigenous vegetation appropriate to the landscape setting. Any mitigation measures indicated in the NWPs or other permits would be implemented. BMPs would be used for erosion and sediment control.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Important Species and Habitats—Resources Regulated under the ESA and Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C.1801 <E T="03">et seq.</E>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The NRC is unable to determine the significance of potential impacts without consideration of project-specific factors, including the specific species and habitats affected and the types of ecological changes potentially resulting from each specific licensing action. Furthermore, the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 <E T="03">et seq.</E>) and Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 <E T="03">et seq.</E>) require consultations for each licensing action that may affect regulated resources.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Important species and habitats—Other Important Species and Habitats</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicants would communicate with State natural resource or conservation agencies regarding aquatic fish, wildlife, and plants and implement mitigation recommendation of those agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Stormwater runoff</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Preparation, approval by applicable regulatory agencies, and implementation of a stormwater management plan. Obtaining and compliance with any required permits for the storage and use of hazardous materials issued by Federal and State agencies under Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). BMPs would be used for stormwater management.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Exposure of aquatic organisms to radionuclides</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicants would demonstrate in their application that any radiological nonhuman biota doses would be below IAEA and NCRP guidelines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Effects of refurbishment on aquatic biota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BMPs would be used for erosion, sediment control, and stormwater management. Exposed soils would be restored as soon as possible with regionally indigenous vegetation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Effects of maintenance dredging on aquatic biota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If activities regulated under the CWA are performed, those activities would receive approval under one or more NWPs (33 CFR part 330) or other general permits recognized by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. Any mitigation measures indicated in the NWPs or other permits would be implemented. BMPs would be used for erosion and sediment control.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Impacts of transmission line ROW management on aquatic resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vegetation in transmission line ROWs would be managed following a plan consisting of integrated vegetation management practices. All ROW maintenance work would be performed in compliance with all applicable laws and regulations. Herbicides would be applied by licensed applicators, and only if in compliance with applicable manufacturer label instructions. BMPs would be used for erosion and sediment control.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Impingement and entrainment of aquatic organisms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intakes would comply with regulatory requirements established by EPA in 40 CFR 125.84 to be protective of fish and shellfish. Best available control technology would be employed in the design of intakes to minimize entrainment and impingement, such as use of screens and intake rates recognized to minimize effects.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Thermal impacts on aquatic biota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The NRC would have to first review the discharge plume analysis (as described in section 3.4) and the aquatic biota potentially present before being able to reach a conclusion regarding the possible significance of impacts to that biota.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other effects of cooling-water discharges on aquatic biota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The NRC would have to first review the discharge plume analysis (as described in section 3.4) and the aquatic biota potentially present before being able to reach a conclusion regarding the possible significance of impacts to that biota.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Water use conflicts with aquatic resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If needed, cooling towers would be mechanical draft, not natural draft; less than 100 ft (30.5 m) in height; and equipped with drift eliminators. Any makeup water for the cooling towers would be fresh water (less than 1 ppt salinity). Total plant water demand would be less than or equal to a daily average of 6,000 gpm (0.379 m
<sup>3</sup>/s). If water is withdrawn from flowing waterbodies, average plant water withdrawals would not reduce flow by more than 3 percent of the 95 percent exceedance daily flow and would not prevent maintenance of applicable instream flow requirements. Any water withdrawals would be in compliance with any EPA or State permitting requirements. Applicants would be able to demonstrate that hydroperiod changes are within historical or seasonal fluctuations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Important Species and Habitats—Resources Regulated under the ESA and Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The NRC is unable to determine the significance of potential impacts without consideration of project-specific factors, including the specific species and habitats affected and the types of ecological changes potentially resulting from each specific licensing action. Furthermore, the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 <E T="03">et seq.</E>) and Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1801 <E T="03">et seq.</E>) require consultations for each licensing action that may affect regulated resources.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Important species and habitats—Other Important Species and Habitats</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicants would communicate with State natural resource or conservation agencies regarding aquatic fish, wildlife, and plants and implement mitigation recommendations of those agencies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Historic and Cultural Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Construction impacts on historic and cultural resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Impacts on historic and cultural resources are analyzed on a project-specific basis. The NRC will perform a National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) analysis and a National Historic Preservation Act (NHPA) Section 106 consultation as required, in accordance with 36 CFR part 800, including consultation with the State and Tribal Historic Preservation Officers, Indian Tribes, and other interested parties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operation impacts on historic and cultural resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Impacts on historic and cultural resources are analyzed on a project-specific basis. The NRC will perform a National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) analysis and a National Historic Preservation Act (NHPA) Section 106 consultation as required, in accordance with 36 CFR part 800, including consultation with the State and Tribal Historic Preservation Officers, Indian Tribes, and other interested parties.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Environmental Hazards—Radiological Environment</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Radiological dose to construction workers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For protection against radiation, the applicant must meet the regulatory requirements of:


<br/>—10 CFR 20.1101 Radiation Protection Programs if issued a license
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 20.1201 Occupational dose limits for adults 10 CFR 20.1301 Dose limits for individual members of the public
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Appendix B to 10 CFR part 20 Annual Limits on Intake (ALIs) and Derived Air Concentrations (DACs) of Radionuclides for Occupational Exposure; Effluent Concentrations; Concentrations for Release to Sewerage
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 50.34a Design objectives for equipment to control releases of radioactive material in effluents—nuclear power reactors
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 50.36a. Technical specifications on effluents from nuclear power reactors Application contains sufficient technical information for the staff to complete the detailed technical safety review.


<br/>Application will be found to be in compliance by the NRC with the above regulations through a radiation protection program and an effluent release monitoring program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Occupational doses to workers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For protection against radiation, the applicant must meet the regulatory requirements of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 20.1101 Radiation Protection Programs if issued a license
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 20.1201 Occupational dose limits for adults
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Appendix B of 10 CFR part 20 Annual Limits on Intake (ALIs) and Derived Air Concentrations (DACs) of Radionuclides for Occupational Exposure; Effluent Concentrations; Concentrations for Release to Sewerage
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 50.34a Design objectives for equipment to control releases of radioactive material in effluents—nuclear power reactors
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 50.36a Technical specifications on effluents from nuclear power reactors. Application contains sufficient technical information for the staff to complete the detailed technical safety review.


<br/>Application will be found to be in compliance by the NRC with the above regulations through a radiation protection program and an effluent release monitoring program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Maximally exposed individual annual doses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For protection against radiation, the applicant must meet the regulatory requirements of:


<br/>—10 CFR 20.1101 Radiation Protection Programs if issued a license
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 20.1301 Dose limits for individual members of the public
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Appendix B of 10 CFR part 20 ALIs and DACs of Radionuclides for Occupational Exposure; Effluent Concentrations; Concentrations for Release to Sewerage
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 50.34a Design objectives for equipment to control releases of radioactive material in effluents—nuclear power reactors
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 50.36a Technical specifications on effluents from nuclear power reactors. Application contains sufficient technical information for the staff to complete the detailed technical safety review.


<br/>Application will be found to be in compliance by the NRC with the above regulations through a radiation protection program and an effluent release monitoring program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total population annual doses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For protection against radiation, the applicant must meet the regulatory requirements of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 20.1101 Radiation Protection Programs if issued a license
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 20.1301 Dose limits for individual members of the public
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Appendix B of 10 CFR part 20 ALIs and DACs of Radionuclides for Occupational Exposure; Effluent Concentrations; Concentrations for Release to Sewerage
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 50.34a Design objectives for equipment to control releases of radioactive material in effluents—nuclear power reactors
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—10 CFR 50.36a Technical specifications on effluents from nuclear power reactors. Application contains sufficient technical information for the staff to complete the detailed technical safety review. Application will be found to be in compliance by the NRC with the above regulations through a radiation protection program and an effluent release monitoring program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Nonhuman biota doses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicants would demonstrate in their application that any radiological nonhuman biota doses would be below IAEA and NCRP guidelines.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Environmental Hazards—Nonradiological Environment</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Building impacts of chemical, biological, and physical nonradiological hazards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The applicant must adhere to all applicable Federal, State, local or Tribal regulatory limits and permit conditions for chemical hazards, biological hazards, and physical hazards. The applicant will follow nonradiological public and occupational health BMPs and mitigation measures, as appropriate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Building impacts of electromagnetic fields (EMFs)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Uncertain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Studies of 60 hertz [Hz] EMFs have not uncovered consistent evidence linking harmful effects with field exposures. Because the state of the science is currently uncertain, no generic conclusion on human health impacts is possible. If, in the future, the Commission finds scientific information sufficient to draw conclusions about potential human health impacts, the Commission may require applicants to submit plant-specific reviews of these health effects as part of their application. Until such time, applicants are not required to submit information about this issue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operation impacts of chemical, biological, and physical nonradiological hazards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The applicant must adhere to all applicable Federal, State, local or Tribal regulatory limits and permit conditions for chemical hazards, biological hazards, and physical hazards. The applicant will follow nonradiological public and occupational health BMPs and mitigation measures, as appropriate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operation impacts of EMFs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Uncertain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Studies of 60 Hz EMFs have not uncovered consistent evidence linking harmful effects with field exposures. Because the state of the science is currently uncertain, no generic conclusion on human health impacts is possible. If, in the future, the Commission finds scientific information sufficient to draw conclusions about potential human health impacts, the Commission may require applicants to submit plant-specific reviews of these health effects as part of their application. Until such time, applicants are not required to submit information about this issue.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Noise</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Construction-related noise</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The noise level would be no more than 65 dBA at site boundary, unless a relevant State or local noise abatement law or ordinance sets a different threshold, which would then be the presumptive threshold for PPE purposes. If an applicant cannot meet the 65 dBA threshold through mitigation, then the applicant must obtain a variance or exception with the relevant State or local regulator. The project would implement BMPs, such as modeling, foliage planting, construction of noise buffers, and the timing of construction and/or operation activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operation-related noise</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The noise level would be no more than 65 dBA at site boundary, unless a relevant State or local noise abatement law or ordinance sets a different threshold, which would then be the presumptive threshold for PPE purposes. If an applicant cannot meet the 65 dBA threshold through mitigation, then the applicant must obtain a variance or exception with the relevant State or local regulator. The project would implement BMPs, such as modeling, foliage planting, construction of noise buffers, and the timing of construction and/or operation activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Waste Management—Radiological Waste Management</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Low-level radioactive waste (LLRW)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicants must meet the regulatory requirements of 10 CFR part 20 (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 CFR 20.1406 and subpart K), 10 CFR part 61, 10 CFR part 71, and 10 CFR part 72. Quantities of LLRW generated at a new nuclear reactor would be less than the quantities of LLRW generated at existing nuclear power plants, which generate an average of 21,200 cubic feet [ft
<sup>3</sup>] (600 cubic meters [m
<sup>3</sup>]) and 2,000 curies [Ci] (7.4 × 1013 becquerels [Bq]) per year for boiling water reactors and half that amount for pressurized water reactors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Onsite spent nuclear fuel management</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compliance with 10 CFR part 72.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Mixed waste</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RCRA Small Quantity Generator for Mixed Waste.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Waste Management—Nonradiological Waste Management</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Construction nonradiological waste</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The applicant must meet all the applicable permit conditions, regulations, and BMPs related to solid, liquid, and gaseous waste management. For hazardous waste generation, applicants must meet conformity with hazardous waste quantity generation levels in accordance with RCRA. For sanitary waste, applicants must dispose of sanitary waste in a permitted process. For mitigation measures, the applicant would perform mitigation measures to the extent practicable, such as recycling, process improvements, or the use of a less hazardous substance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operation nonradiological waste</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The applicant must meet all the applicable permit conditions, regulations, and BMPs related to solid, liquid, and gaseous waste management. For hazardous waste generation, applicants must meet conformity with hazardous waste quantity generation levels in accordance with RCRA. For sanitary waste, applicants must dispose of sanitary waste in a permitted process. For mitigation measures, the applicant would perform mitigation measures to the extent practicable, such as recycling, process improvements, or the use of a less hazardous substance.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Postulated Accidents</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Design Basis Accidents Involving Radiological Releases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For the exclusion area boundary, the maximum total effective dose equivalent for any 2-hour period during the radioactivity release should be calculated. For the low-population zone, the total effective dose equivalent should be calculated for the duration of the accident release (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> 30 days, or other duration as justified). The above calculations would compare the design basis accident doses with the dose criteria given in regulations related to the application (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 CFR 50.34(a)(1), 10 CFR 52.17(a)(1), and 10 CFR 52.79(a)(1)), standard review plans (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> standard review plan criteria, table 1 in standard review plan section 15.0.3 of NUREG-0800), and regulatory guides, (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> RG 1.183), as applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Accidents Involving Releases of Hazardous Chemicals</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reactor inventory of a regulated substance is less than its Threshold Quantity (TQ). TQs are found in 40 CFR 68.130, tables 1, 2, 3, and 4; and Reactor inventory of an extremely hazardous substance is less than its Threshold Planning Quantity (TPQ). TPQs are found in 40 CFR part 355, appendices A and B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Severe Accidents</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within the maximum population dose risk 95th confidence bounding value of 9.727 × 10
<sup>3</sup> person-rem per reactor year (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> Indian Point Energy Center Units 2 and 3) specified in the 1996 LR GEIS and demonstrating the utilization of 10 CFR 50.155 or diverse and flexible coping strategies (FLEX) to address mitigation of beyond-design-basis events; or Within the maximum 10- and 150-mile Exposure Index at the 95th confidence bounding value of 1.896 × 10
<sup>4</sup> and 2.864 × 10
<sup>6</sup>, respectively (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> Indian Point Energy Center Units 2 and 3) specified in the 1996 LR GEIS and demonstrating the utilization of 10 CFR 50.155 or FLEX to address mitigation of beyond-design-basis events; or Utilizing the source term from 10 CFR 50.34(a)(1)(ii)(D), or the equivalent 10 CFR 52 regulation, with a non-intact containment or confinement for population density assessments under 10 CFR 100.21(h) to demonstrate a calculated total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) of no greater than 1 rem over a period of 30 days and that no further mitigation is necessary because health effects are shown not to be significant or a new reactor that is co-located with an existing LWR may compare its source terms to demonstrate that the LWR's severe accident risks bounds the new reactor's risks; or Utilizing 10 CFR 50.33(g)(2) to demonstrate there is no plume exposure pathway emergency planning zone where the projected total effective dose equivalent exceeds 1 rem over 96 hours (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> 10 CFR 50.33(g)(2)(i)(A)) and no further mitigation is necessary because health effects are shown not to be significant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acts of Terrorism</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The environmental impacts of acts of terrorism and sabotage only need to be addressed if a reactor facility is subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Socioeconomics</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Community Services and Infrastructure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The housing vacancy rate in the affected economic region does not change by more than 5 percent, or at least 5 percent of the housing stock remains available after accounting for in-migrating construction workers. Student:teacher ratios in the affected economic region do not exceed locally mandated levels after including the school age children of the in-migrating worker families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Transportation Systems and Traffic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The LOS determination for affected roadways does not change. Mitigation measures may include implementation of traffic flow management, management of shift-change timing, and encouragement of ride-sharing and use of public transportation options, such that LOS values can be maintained with the increased volumes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Economic Impacts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beneficial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The economic impacts of construction and operation of a new nuclear reactor are expected to be beneficial; therefore, this is a Category 1 issue. If, during the project-specific environmental review, the NRC determines a detailed analysis of economic costs and benefits is needed for analysis of the range of alternatives considered or relevant to mitigation, the NRC may require further information from the applicant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tax Revenue Impacts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beneficial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The tax revenue impacts of construction and operation of a new nuclear reactor are expected to be beneficial; therefore, this is a Category 1 issue. If, during the project-specific environmental review, the NRC determines a detailed analysis of tax revenue costs and benefits is needed for analysis of the range of alternatives considered or relevant to mitigation, the NRC may require further information from the applicant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Community Services and Infrastructure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The housing vacancy rate in the affected economic region does not change by more than 5 percent, or at least 5 percent of the housing stock remains available after accounting for in-migrating construction workers. Student:teacher ratios in the affected economic region do not exceed locally mandated levels after including the school age children of the in-migrating worker families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Transportation Systems and Traffic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The LOS determination for affected roadways does not change. Mitigation measures may include implementation of traffic flow management, management of shift-change timing, and encouragement of ride-sharing and use of public transportation options, such that LOS values can be maintained with the increased volumes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Economic Impacts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beneficial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The economic impacts of construction and operation of a nuclear reactor are expected to be beneficial; therefore, this is a Category 1 issue. If, during the project-specific environmental review, the NRC determines a detailed analysis of economic costs and benefits is needed for analysis of the range of alternatives considered or relevant to mitigation, the NRC may require further information from the applicant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tax Revenue Impacts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beneficial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The tax revenue impacts of construction and operation of a nuclear reactor are expected to be beneficial; therefore, this is a Category 1 issue. If, during the project-specific environmental review, the NRC determines a detailed analysis of tax revenue costs and benefits is needed for analysis of the range of alternatives considered or relevant to mitigation, the NRC may require further information from the applicant.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Fuel Cycle</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Uranium Recovery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Table S-3 of 10 CFR 51.51 is expected to bound the impacts for new reactor fuels, because of uranium fuel cycle changes since WASH-1248, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Increasing use of in situ leach uranium mining has lower environmental impacts than traditional mining and milling methods.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Current light-water reactors (LWRs) are using nuclear fuel more efficiently due to higher levels of fuel burnup resulting in less demand for mining and milling activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Less reliance on coal-fired electrical generation plants is resulting in less gaseous effluent releases from electrical generation sources supporting mining and milling activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must satisfy the regulatory requirements of 10 CFR part 40, Domestic Licensing of Source Material and 10 CFR part 71, Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Uranium Conversion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Table S-3 of 10 CFR 51.51 is expected to bound the impacts for new reactor fuels because of uranium fuel cycle changes since WASH-1248, including: Current LWRs are using nuclear fuel more efficiently due to higher levels of fuel burnup resulting in less demand for conversion activities. Less reliance on coal-fired electrical generation plants is resulting in less gaseous effluent releases from electrical generation sources supporting conversion activities. Must satisfy the regulatory requirements of 10 CFR part 40, Domestic Licensing of Source Material and 10 CFR part 71, Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material, and 10 CFR part 73, Physical Protection of Plants and Materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Enrichment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Table S-3 is expected to bound the impacts for new nuclear reactor fuels, because of uranium fuel cycle changes since WASH-1248, including: Transitioning of U.S. uranium enrichment technology from gaseous diffusion to gas centrifugation, which requires less electrical usage per separative work unit. Current LWRs are using nuclear fuel more efficiently due to higher levels of fuel burnup resulting in less demand for enrichment activities. Less reliance on coal-fired electrical generation plants is resulting in less gaseous effluent releases from electrical generation sources supporting enrichment activities. Must satisfy the regulatory requirements of 10 CFR part 40, Domestic Licensing of Source Material; 10 CFR part 70, Domestic Licensing of Special Nuclear Material; 10 CFR part 71, Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material; and 10 CFR part 73, Physical Protection of Plants and Materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fuel Fabrication (excluding metal fuel and liquid-fueled molten salt)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Table S-3 is expected to bound the impacts for new nuclear reactor fuels, because of uranium fuel cycle changes since WASH-1248, including: Current LWRs are using nuclear fuel more efficiently due to higher levels of fuel burnup resulting in fewer discharged fuel assemblies to be fabricated each year and due to longer time periods between refueling. Less reliance on coal-fired electrical generation plants is resulting in less gaseous effluent releases from electrical generation sources supporting fabrication. Must satisfy the regulatory requirements of 10 CFR part 40, Domestic Licensing of Source Material, 10 CFR part 70, Domestic Licensing of Special Nuclear Material, 10 CFR part 71, Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material, and 10 CFR part 73, Physical Protection of Plants and Materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reprocessing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Table S-3 is expected to bound the impacts for new nuclear reactor fuels, because of uranium fuel cycle changes since WASH-1248, including: Current LWRs are using nuclear fuel more efficiently due to higher levels of fuel burnup resulting in fewer discharged fuel assemblies to be reprocessed each year. Less reliance on coal-fired electrical generation plants is resulting in less gaseous effluent releases from electrical generation sources supporting reprocessing. Reprocessing capacity up to 900 metric tons of uranium [MTU]/yr. Must satisfy the regulatory requirements of 10 CFR part 40, Domestic Licensing of Source Material; 10 CFR part 50, Domestic Licensing of Production and Utilization Facilities;10 CFR part 70, Domestic Licensing of Special Nuclear Material; 10 CFR part 71, Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material; 10 CFR part 72, Licensing Requirements for the Independent Storage of Spent Fuel, High-Level Radioactive Waste, and Reactor-related Greater Than Class C Waste; and 10 CFR part 73, Physical Protection of Plants and Materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Storage and Disposal of Radiological Wastes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Table S-3 is expected to bound the impacts for new nuclear reactor fuels, because of uranium fuel cycle changes since WASH-1248, including: Current LWRs are using nuclear fuel more efficiently due to higher levels of fuel burnup resulting in fewer discharged fuel assemblies to be stored and disposed. Less reliance on coal-fired electrical generation plants is resulting in less gaseous effluent releases from electrical generation sources supporting storage and disposal. Waste and spent fuel inventories, as well as their associated certified spent fuel shipping and storage containers, are not significantly different from what has been considered for LWR evaluations in NUREG-2157. Must satisfy the regulatory requirements of 10 CFR part 40, Domestic Licensing of Source Material; 10 CFR part 70, Domestic Licensing of Special Nuclear Material; 10 CFR part 71, Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material; 10 CFR part 72, Licensing Requirements for the Independent Storage of Spent Fuel, High-Level Radioactive Waste, and Reactor-related Greater Than Class C Waste; and 10 CFR part 73, Physical Protection of Plants and Materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Transportation of Fuel and Waste</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Operation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Transportation of Unirradiated Fuel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The maximum annual one-way shipment distance does not exceed 59,160 km (36,760 mi). The annual shipments associated with the one-way shipment distance have been normalized to a net electrical output of 880 megawatts electric [MW(e)], <E T="03">i.e.,</E> 1,100 MW(e) with an 80 percent capacity factor from WASH-1238. The maximum annual round-trip shipment distance does not exceed 118,320 km (73,520 mi). The annual shipments associated with the round-trip shipment distance have been normalized to a net electrical output of 880 MW(e), <E T="03">i.e.,</E> 1,100 MW(e) with an 80 percent capacity factor from WASH-1238.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Transportation of Radioactive Waste</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The maximum annual round-trip shipment distance does not exceed 293,145 km (182,152 mi). The annual shipments associated with the round-trip shipment distance have been normalized to a net electrical output of 880 MW(e), <E T="03">i.e.,</E> 1,100 MW(e) with an 80 percent capacity factor and a shipment volume of 2.34 m
<sup>3</sup>/shipment from WASH-1238.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Transportation of Irradiated Fuel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The maximum annual one-way shipment distance does not exceed 505,393 km (314,037 mi). The annual shipments associated with the one-way shipment distance have been normalized to a net electrical output of 880 MW(e), <E T="03">i.e.,</E> 1,100 MW(e) with an 80 percent capacity factor and a shipment capacity of 0.5 MTU/shipment from WASH-1238. The maximum annual round-trip shipment distance does not exceed 1,010,786 km (628,073 mi). The annual shipments associated with the round-trip shipment distance have been normalized to a net electrical output of 880 MW(e), <E T="03">i.e.,</E> 1,100 MW(e) with an 80 percent capacity factor and a shipment capacity of 0.5 MTU/shipment from WASH-1238. A maximum assembly averaged burnup of 80 gigawatt-days [GWd]/MTU for UO2 fuel and peak pellet burnup of 133 GWd/MTU for TRi-structural ISOtropic (TRISO) fuel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Decommissioning</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decommissioning</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SMALL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The environmental impacts for the following resource areas were generically addressed in NUREG-0586, Supplement 1, would be limited to operational areas, would not be detectable or destabilizing and are expected to have a negligible effect on the impacts of terminating operations and decommissioning:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Onsite Land Use
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Water Use
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Water Quality
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Air Quality
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Aquatic Ecology within the operational area
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Terrestrial Ecology within the operational area
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Radiological
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Radiological Accidents (non-spent-fuel-related)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Occupational Issues
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Socioeconomic
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Onsite Cultural and Historic Resources for plants where the disturbance of lands beyond the operational areas is not anticipated
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Aesthetics
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Noise
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Transportation
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Irretrievable Resource


<br/>The following issues were not addressed in NUREG-0586, Supplement 1, but have been determined to be Category 1 issues:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Nonradiological waste
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Greenhouse Gases
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Decommissioning</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Threatened and endangered species was an issue identified in NUREG-0586, Supplement 1, as requiring a project-specific review.


<br/>Four conditionally project-specific issues identified in NUREG-0586, Supplement 1, will require a project-specific review if present:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Land use involving offsite areas to support decommissioning activities
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Aquatic ecology for activities beyond the licensed operational area
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Terrestrial ecology for activities beyond the licensed operational area
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Historic and cultural resources (archaeological, architectural, structural, historic) for activities within and beyond the licensed operational area with no current (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> at the time of decommissioning) evaluation of resources for National Register of Historic Places (NRHP) eligibility


<br/>Additionally, the following two environmental resource areas are additional decommissioning impacts that require project-specific review:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Climate Change: the effects of climate change are location-specific and cannot, therefore, be evaluated generically (see section 1.3.3.2.2, Category 2 Issues Applying Across Resources, of NUREG-2249)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—Cumulative: must be considered on a project-specific basis where impacts would depend on regional resource characteristics, the resource-specific impacts of the project, and the cumulative significance of other factors affecting the resource. (see section 1.3.3.2.2, Category 2 Issues Applying Across Resources, of NUREG-2249).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Issues Applying Across Resources</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Climate Change Impacts on Environmental Resources</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The effects of climate change on environmental resources are location-specific and cannot, therefore, be evaluated generically. For example, while climate change may cause many areas to receive less than average annual precipitation, other areas may see an increase in average annual precipitation. Therefore, applicants and the NRC would address the effects of climate change on environmental resources in the environmental documents for new nuclear reactor licensing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cumulative Impacts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applications must individually consider the cumulative impacts from past, present, and reasonably foreseeable actions known to occur at specific sites for proposed new nuclear reactors and briefly present those considerations in supplemental NEPA documentation. The staff would address whether these individualized evaluations of potential cumulative impacts alter any of the generic analyses and conclusions relied upon for Category 1 issues. The individualized cumulative impact analyses may also identify opportunities where NRC might rely upon the generic analyses for some Category 1 issues for which certain of the PPE or SPE values and assumptions might be exceeded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Non-Resource Related Issues</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Purpose and Need</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must be described in the environmental report associated with a given application.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Need for Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must be described in the environmental report associated with a given application.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Site Alternatives</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must be described in the environmental report associated with a given application.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energy Alternatives</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must be described in the environmental report associated with a given application.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">System Design Alternatives</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Undetermined</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must be described in the environmental report associated with a given application.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Data supporting this table are contained in NUREG-2249, “Generic Environmental Impact Statement for Licensing of New Nuclear Reactors.”
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The categories are defined as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Category 1 issues—environmental issues for which the NRC has been able to make a generic finding of SMALL adverse environmental impacts, or beneficial impacts, provided that the applicant's proposed reactor facility and site meet or are bounded by relevant values and assumptions in the PPE and SPE that support the generic finding for that Category issue.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Category 2 issues—Environmental issues for which a generic finding regarding the environmental impacts cannot be reached because the issue requires the consideration of project-specific information that can only be evaluated once the proposed site is identified. The impact significance (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> SMALL, MODERATE, or LARGE) for these issues will be determined in a project-specific evaluation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">N/A—Issues related to exposure to electromagnetic fields (EMFs) for which there is no national scientific agreement regarding adverse health effects.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A finding of SMALL impacts means that environmental effects are not detectable or are so minor that they will neither destabilize nor noticeably alter any important attribute of the resource. For the purposes of assessing radiological impacts, the Commission has concluded that those impacts that do not exceed permissible levels in the Commission's regulations are considered SMALL as the term is used in this table. For issues where probability is a key consideration (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> accident consequences), probability was a factor in determining significance.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Because the Category 2 issues require a project-specific review, there are no associated values and assumptions of the plant parameter envelope and site parameter envelope. A brief summary explanation for the designation of the Category 2 issues is provided in lieu of values and assumptions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 22413, Apr. 24, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 52—LICENSES, CERTIFICATIONS, AND APPROVALS FOR NUCLEAR POWER PLANTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 103, 104, 147, 149, 161, 181, 182, 183, 185, 186, 189, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2133, 2134, 2167, 2169, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2235, 2236, 2239, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.0" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.0   Scope; applicability of 10 CFR Chapter I provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part governs the issuance of early site permits, standard design certifications, combined licenses, standard design approvals, and manufacturing licenses for nuclear power facilities licensed under Section 103 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919), and Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1242). This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any holder of or applicant for an approval, certification, permit, or license, or to a contractor, subcontractor, or consultant of any of them, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to the activities of a holder of or applicant for an approval, certification, permit, or license, subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of the provisions in 10 CFR 52.4.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specifically provided for in this part, the regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I apply to a holder of or applicant for an approval, certification, permit, or license. A holder of or applicant for an approval, certification, permit, or license issued under this part shall comply with all requirements in 10 CFR Chapter I that are applicable. A license, approval, certification, or permit issued under this part is subject to all requirements in 10 CFR Chapter I which, by their terms, are applicable to early site permits, design certifications, combined licenses, design approvals, or manufacturing licenses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part—
</P>
<P><I>Combined license</I> means a combined construction permit and operating license with conditions for a nuclear power facility issued under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Decommission</I> means to remove a facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits—
</P>
<P>(i) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Design characteristics</I> are the actual features of a reactor or reactors. Design characteristics are specified in a standard design approval, a standard design certification, a combined license application, or a manufacturing license.
</P>
<P><I>Design parameters</I> are the postulated features of a reactor or reactors that could be built at a proposed site. Design parameters are specified in an early site permit.
</P>
<P><I>Early site permit</I> means a Commission approval, issued under subpart A of this part, for a site for one or more nuclear power facilities. An early site permit is a partial construction permit.
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a license, including an early site permit, combined license or manufacturing license under this part or a renewed license issued by the Commission under this part or part 54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means a person who is authorized to conduct activities under a license issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Limited work authorization</I> means the authorization provided by the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation under § 50.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Major feature of the emergency plans</I> means an aspect of those plans necessary to:
</P>
<P>(i) Address in whole or part either one or more of the 16 standards in 10 CFR 50.47(b) or the requirements of 10 CFR 50.160(b), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the emergency planning zones as required in 10 CFR 50.33(g).
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing license</I> means a license, issued under subpart F of this part, authorizing the manufacture of nuclear power reactors but not their construction, installation, or operation at the sites on which the reactors are to be operated.
</P>
<P><I>Modular design</I> means a nuclear power station that consists of two or more essentially identical nuclear reactors (modules) and each module is a separate nuclear reactor capable of being operated independent of the state of completion or operating condition of any other module co-located on the same site, even though the nuclear power station may have some shared or common systems.
</P>
<P><I>Prototype plant</I> means a nuclear power plant that is used to test new safety features, such as the testing required under 10 CFR 50.43(e). The prototype plant is similar to a first-of-a-kind or standard plant design in all features and size, but may include additional safety features to protect the public and the plant staff from the possible consequences of accidents during the testing period.
</P>
<P><I>Site characteristics</I> are the actual physical, environmental and demographic features of a site. Site characteristics are specified in an early site permit or in a final safety analysis report for a combined license.
</P>
<P><I>Site parameters</I> are the postulated physical, environmental and demographic features of an assumed site. Site parameters are specified in a standard design approval, standard design certification, or manufacturing license.
</P>
<P><I>Standard design</I> means a design which is sufficiently detailed and complete to support certification or approval in accordance with subpart B or E of this part, and which is usable for a multiple number of units or at a multiple number of sites without reopening or repeating the review.
</P>
<P><I>Standard design approval</I> or <I>design approval</I> means an NRC staff approval, issued under subpart E of this part, of a final standard design for a nuclear power reactor of the type described in 10 CFR 50.22. The approval may be for either the final design for the entire reactor facility or the final design of major portions thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Standard design certification</I> or <I>design certification</I> means a Commission approval, issued under subpart B of this part, of a final standard design for a nuclear power facility. This design may be referred to as a certified standard design.
</P>
<P>(b) All other terms in this part have the meaning set out in 10 CFR 50.2, or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 57446, Oct. 9, 2007; 79 FR 66604, Nov. 10, 2014; 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019; 84 FR 68781, Dec. 17, 2019; 88 FR 80077, Nov. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.2   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 90 FR 55631, Dec. 3, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.3   Written communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> All correspondence, reports, applications, and other written communications from an applicant, licensee, or holder of a standard design approval to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission concerning the regulations in this part, individual license conditions, or the terms and conditions of an early site permit or standard design approval, must be sent either by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738, between the hours of 7:30 a.m. and 4:15 p.m. eastern time; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, e-mail, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent. If a submission due date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the next Federal working day becomes the official due date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution requirements.</I> Copies of all correspondence, reports, and other written communications concerning the regulations in this part or individual license conditions, or the terms and conditions of an early site permit or standard design approval, must be submitted to the persons listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section (addresses for the NRC Regional Offices are listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applications for amendment of permits and licenses; reports; and other communications.</I> All written communications (including responses to: generic letters, bulletins, information notices, regulatory information summaries, inspection reports, and miscellaneous requests for additional information) that are required of holders of early site permits, standard design approvals, combined licenses, or manufacturing licenses issued under this part must be submitted as follows, except as otherwise specified in paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(7) of this section: to the NRC's Document Control Desk (if on paper, the signed original), with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector, if one has been assigned to the site of the facility or the place of manufacture of a reactor licensed under subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applications and amendments to applications.</I> Applications for early site permits, standard design approvals, combined licenses, manufacturing licenses and amendments to any of these types of applications must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector, if one has been assigned to the site of the facility or the place of manufacture of a reactor licensed under subpart F of this part, except as otherwise specified in paragraphs (b)(3) through (b)(7) of this section. If the application or amendment is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceptance review application.</I> Written communications required for an application for determination of suitability for docketing must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security plan and related submissions.</I> Written communications, as defined in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section, must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(i) Physical security plan under § 52.79 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safeguards contingency plan under § 52.79 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Change to security plan, guard training and qualification plan, or safeguards contingency plan made without prior Commission approval under § 50.54(p) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iv) Application for amendment of physical security plan, guard training and qualification plan, or safeguards contingency plan under § 50.90 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Emergency plan and related submissions.</I> Written communications as defined in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) through (iii) of this section must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(i) Emergency plan under § 52.17(b) or § 52.79(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) Change to an emergency plan under § 50.54(q) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency implementing procedures under appendix E, Section V of part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Updated FSAR.</I> An updated final safety analysis report (FSAR) or replacement pages under § 50.71(e) of this chapter, or the regulations in this part must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility or the place of manufacture of a reactor licensed under subpart F of this part. Paper copy submissions may be made using replacement pages; however, if a licensee chooses to use electronic submission, all subsequent updates or submissions must be performed electronically on a total replacement basis. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original. If the communications are submitted electronically, see Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Quality assurance related submissions.</I> (i) A change to the safety analysis report quality assurance program description under § 50.54(a)(3) or § 50.55(f)(4) of this chapter, or a change to a licensee's NRC-accepted quality assurance topical report under § 50.54(a)(3) or § 50.55(f)(4) of this chapter, must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(ii) A change to an NRC-accepted quality assurance topical report from nonlicensees (<I>i.e.</I>, architect/engineers, NSSS suppliers, fuel suppliers, constructors, etc.) must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Certification of permanent cessation of operations.</I> The licensee's certification of permanent cessation of operations under § 52.110(a)(1), must state the date on which operations have ceased or will cease, and must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. This submission must be under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Certification of permanent fuel removal.</I> The licensee's certification of permanent fuel removal under § 52.110(a)(1), must state the date on which the fuel was removed from the reactor vessel and the disposition of the fuel, and must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. This submission must be under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of communications.</I> All paper copies submitted to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section must be typewritten, printed or otherwise reproduced in permanent form on unglazed paper. Exceptions to these requirements imposed on paper submissions may be granted for the submission of micrographic, photographic, or similar forms.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Regulation governing submission.</I> Applicants, licensees, and holders of standard design approvals submitting correspondence, reports, and other written communications under the regulations of this part are requested but not required to cite whenever practical, in the upper right corner of the first page of the submission, the specific regulation or other basis requiring submission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 62682, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015; 88 FR 57878, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.4   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to any:
</P>
<P>(1) Licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) Holder of a standard design approval;
</P>
<P>(3) Applicant for a standard design certification;
</P>
<P>(4) Applicant for a license or permit;
</P>
<P>(5) Applicant for a standard design approval;
</P>
<P>(6) Employee of a licensee;
</P>
<P>(7) Employee of an applicant for a license, a standard design certification, or a standard design approval;
</P>
<P>(8) Any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, or employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee; or
</P>
<P>(9) Any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, or employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any applicant for a license, a standard design certification, or a standard design approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Deliberate misconduct</I> means an intentional act or omission that a person or entity knows:
</P>
<P>(i) Would cause a licensee or an applicant for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license, standard design certification, or standard design approval; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, holder of a standard design approval, applicant for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval, or contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition against deliberate misconduct.</I> Any person or entity subject to this section, who knowingly provides to any licensee, any applicant for a license, standard design certification or standard design approval, or a contractor, or subcontractor of a person or entity subject to this section, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities under this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee, holder of a standard design approval, or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission, any standard design approval, or standard design certification; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC; a licensee, an applicant for a license, standard design certification or standard design approval; or a licensee's, standard design approval holder's, or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(d) A person or entity who violates paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.5   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, holder of a standard design approval, an applicant for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval, a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee, holder of a standard design approval, applicant for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval, against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in Section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act.
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in the introductory text of paragraph (a) of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in the introductory text of paragraph (a) of this section or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in the introductory text of paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation.
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages.
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraph (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, a holder of a standard design approval, an applicant for a Commission license, standard design certification, or a standard design approval, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee, holder of a standard design approval, or any applicant may be grounds for—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license or standard design approval;
</P>
<P>(2) Withdrawal or revocation of a proposed or final standard design certification;
</P>
<P>(3) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, holder of a standard design approval, or applicant (including an applicant for a standard design certification under this part following Commission adoption of final design certification rule) or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee, holder of a standard design approval, or applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) Other enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each licensee, each holder of a standard design approval, and each applicant for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval, shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(e). This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted not later than thirty (30) days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, standard design certification, or standard design approval under 10 CFR part 52, and for 30 days following license termination or the expiration or termination of the standard design certification or standard design approval under 10 CFR part 52.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor under Section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(g) Part 19 of this chapter sets forth requirements and regulatory provisions applicable to licensees, holders of a standard design approval, applicants for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval, and contractors or subcontractors of a Commission licensee, or holder of a standard design approval, and are in addition to the requirements in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 63974, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30458, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66604, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.6   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by a licensee (including an early site permit holder, a combined license holder, and a manufacturing license holder), a holder of a standard design approval under this part, and an applicant for a license or an applicant for a standard design certification or a standard design approval under this part, and information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, license conditions, or terms and conditions of a standard design approval to be maintained by the licensee, the holder of a standard design approval under this part, the applicant for a standard design certification under this part following Commission adoption of a final design certification rule, and an applicant for a license, a standard design certification, or a standard design approval under this part shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant or licensee, each holder of a standard design approval under this part, and each applicant for a standard design certification under this part following Commission adoption of a final design certification regulation, shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or the licensee as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant, licensee, or holder violates this paragraph only if the applicant, licensee, or holder fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant, licensee, or holder has been identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification shall be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within 2 working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.7   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of the regulations of this part. The Commission's consideration will be governed by § 50.12 of this chapter, unless other criteria are provided for in this part, in which case the Commission's consideration will be governed by the criteria in this part. Only if those criteria are not met will the Commission's consideration be governed by § 50.12 of this chapter. The Commission's consideration of requests for exemptions from requirements of the regulations of other parts in this chapter, which are applicable by virtue of this part, shall be governed by the exemption requirements of those parts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.8   Combining licenses; elimination of repetition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant for a license under this part may combine in its application several applications for different kinds of licenses under the regulations of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant may incorporate by reference in its application information contained in previous applications, statements or reports filed with the Commission, provided, however, that such references are clear and specific.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may combine in a single license the activities of an applicant which would otherwise be licensed separately.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.9   Jurisdictional limits.</HEAD>
<P>No permit, license, standard design approval, or standard design certification under this part shall be deemed to have been issued for activities which are not under or within the jurisdiction of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.10   Attacks and destructive acts.</HEAD>
<P>Neither an applicant for a license to manufacture, construct, and operate a utilization facility under this part, nor for an amendment to this license, or an applicant for an early site permit, a standard design certification, or standard design approval under this part, or for an amendment to the early site permit, standard design certification, or standard design approval, is required to provide for design features or other measures for the specific purpose of protection against the effects of—
</P>
<P>(a) Attacks and destructive acts, including sabotage, directed against the facility by an enemy of the United States, whether a foreign government or other person; or
</P>
<P>(b) Use or deployment of weapons incident to U.S. defense activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.0.61.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.11   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under Control Number 3150-0151.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 52.7, 52.15, 52.16, 52.17, 52.29, 52.35, 52.39, 52.45, 52.46, 52.47, 52.57, 52.63, 52.75, 52.77, 52.79, 52.80, 52.93, 52.99, 52.110, 52.135, 52.136, 52.137, 52.155, 52.156, 52.157, 52.158, 52.171, 52.177, and appendices A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and N of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 61983, Nov. 14, 2014; 84 FR 23452, May 22, 2019; 88 FR 3306, Jan. 19, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Early Site Permits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.12   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets out the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of an early site permit for approval of a site for one or more nuclear power facilities separate from the filing of an application for a construction permit or combined license for the facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.13   Relationship to other subparts.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies when any person who may apply for a construction permit under 10 CFR part 50, or for a combined license under this part seeks an early site permit from the Commission separately from an application for a construction permit or a combined license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.15   Filing of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who may apply for a construction permit under 10 CFR part 50, or for a combined license under this part, may file an application for an early site permit with the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. An application for an early site permit may be filed notwithstanding the fact that an application for a construction permit or a combined license has not been filed in connection with the site for which a permit is sought.
</P>
<P>(b) The application must comply with the applicable filing requirements of §§ 52.3 and 50.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The fees associated with the filing and review of an application for the initial issuance or renewal of an early site permit are set forth in 10 CFR part 170.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.16   Contents of applications; general information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain all of the information required by 10 CFR 50.33(a) through (d) and (j) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.17   Contents of applications; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For applications submitted before September 27, 2007, the rule provisions in effect at the date of docketing apply unless otherwise requested by the applicant in writing. The application must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A site safety analysis report. The site safety analysis report shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific number, type, and thermal power level of the facilities, or range of possible facilities, for which the site may be used;
</P>
<P>(ii) The anticipated maximum levels of radiological and thermal effluents each facility will produce;
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of cooling systems, intakes, and outflows that may be associated with each facility;
</P>
<P>(iv) The boundaries of the site;
</P>
<P>(v) The proposed general location of each facility on the site;
</P>
<P>(vi) The seismic, meteorological, hydrologic, and geologic characteristics of the proposed site with appropriate consideration of the most severe of the natural phenomena that have been historically reported for the site and surrounding area and with sufficient margin for the limited accuracy, quantity, and period of time in which the historical data have been accumulated;
</P>
<P>(vii) The location and description of any nearby industrial, military, or transportation facilities and routes;
</P>
<P>(viii) The existing and projected future population profile of the area surrounding the site;
</P>
<P>(ix) A description and safety assessment of the site on which a facility is to be located. The assessment must contain an analysis and evaluation of the major structures, systems, and components of the facility that bear significantly on the acceptability of the site under the radiological consequence evaluation factors identified in paragraphs (a)(1)(ix)(A) and (a)(1)(ix)(B) of this section. In performing this assessment, an applicant shall assume a fission product release 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> from the core into the containment assuming that the facility is operated at the ultimate power level contemplated. The applicant shall perform an evaluation and analysis of the postulated fission product release, using the expected demonstrable containment leak rate and any fission product cleanup systems intended to mitigate the consequences of the accidents, together with applicable site characteristics, including site meteorology, to evaluate the offsite radiological consequences. Site characteristics must comply with part 100 of this chapter. The evaluation must determine that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The fission product release assumed for this evaluation should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events. Such accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release into the containment of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2 hour period following the onset of the postulated fission product release, would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> total effective dose equivalent (TEDE).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> A whole body dose of 25 rem has been stated to correspond numerically to the once in a lifetime accidental or emergency dose for radiation workers which, according to NCRP recommendations at the time could be disregarded in the determination of their radiation exposure status (see NBS Handbook 69 dated June 5, 1959). However, its use is not intended to imply that this number constitutes an acceptable limit for an emergency dose to the public under accident conditions. Rather, this dose value has been set forth in this section as a reference value, which can be used in the evaluation of plant design features with respect to postulated reactor accidents, to assure that these designs provide assurance of low risk of public exposure to radiation, in the event of an accident.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low population zone, who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem TEDE;
</P>
<P>(x) Information demonstrating that site characteristics are such that adequate security plans and measures can be developed;
</P>
<P>(xi) For applications submitted after September 27, 2007, a description of the quality assurance program applied to site-related activities for the future design, fabrication, construction, and testing of the structures, systems, and components of a facility or facilities that may be constructed on the site. Appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 sets forth the requirements for quality assurance programs for nuclear power plants. The description of the quality assurance program for a nuclear power plant site shall include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B to part 50 of this chapter will be satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(xii) An evaluation of the site against applicable sections of the Standard Review Plan (SRP) revision in effect 6 months before the docket date of the application. The evaluation required by this section shall include an identification and description of all differences in analytical techniques and procedural measures proposed for a site and those corresponding techniques and measures given in the SRP acceptance criteria. Where such a difference exists, the evaluation shall discuss how the proposed alternative provides an acceptable method of complying with the Commission's regulations, or portions thereof, that underlie the corresponding SRP acceptance criteria. The SRP is not a substitute for the regulations, and compliance is not a requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) A complete environmental report as required by 10 CFR 51.50(b).


</P>
<P>(b)(1) The site safety analysis report must identify physical characteristics of the proposed site, such as egress limitations from the area surrounding the site, that could pose a significant impediment to the development of emergency plans. If physical characteristics are identified that could pose a significant impediment to the development of emergency plans, the application must identify measures that would, when implemented, mitigate or eliminate the significant impediment.


</P>
<P>(2) The site safety analysis report may also:
</P>
<P>(i) Propose major features of the emergency plans, in accordance with either the requirements in § 50.160 of this chapter, or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and § 50.47(b) of this chapter, as applicable, such as the exact size and configuration of the emergency planning zones, for review and approval by the NRC, in consultation with the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), as applicable, in the absence of complete and integrated emergency plans; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Propose complete and integrated emergency plans for review and approval by the NRC, in consultation with FEMA, as applicable in accordance with either the requirements in § 50.160 of this chapter, or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and § 50.47(b) of this chapter. To the extent approval of emergency plans is sought, the application must contain the information required by § 50.33(g) and (j) of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(3) Emergency plans submitted under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section must include the proposed inspections, tests, and analyses that the holder of a combined license referencing the early site permit shall perform, and the acceptance criteria that are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met, the facility has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the emergency plans, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations. Major features of an emergency plan submitted under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section may include proposed inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(4) Under paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2)(i) of this section, the site safety analysis report must include a description of contacts and arrangements made with Federal, State, and local governmental agencies with emergency planning responsibilities. The site safety analysis report must contain any certifications that have been obtained. If these certifications cannot be obtained, the site safety analysis report must contain information, including a utility plan, sufficient to show that the proposed plans provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency at the site. Under the option set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the applicant shall make good faith efforts to obtain from the same governmental agencies certifications that:
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed emergency plans are practicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) These agencies are committed to participating in any further development of the plans, including any required field demonstrations, and
</P>
<P>(iii) That these agencies are committed to executing their responsibilities under the plans in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant may request that a limited work authorization under 10 CFR 50.10 be issued in conjunction with the early site permit. The application must include the information otherwise required by 10 CFR 50.10(d)(3). Applications submitted before, and pending as of November 8, 2007, must include the information required by § 52.17(c) effective on the date of docketing.
</P>
<P>(d) Each applicant for an early site permit under this part shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 57447, Oct. 9, 2007; 73 FR 63571, Oct. 24, 2008; 78 FR 34249, June 7, 2013; 78 FR 75450, Dec. 12, 2013; 87 FR 68031, Nov. 14, 2022; 88 FR 80078, Nov. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.18" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.18   Standards for review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications filed under this subpart will be reviewed according to the applicable standards set out in 10 CFR part 50 and its appendices and 10 CFR part 100. In addition, the Commission shall prepare an environmental impact statement during review of the application, in accordance with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 51. The Commission shall determine, after consultation with Federal Emergency Management Agency, as applicable, whether the information required of the applicant by § 52.17(b)(1) shows that there is not a significant impediment to the development of emergency plans that cannot be mitigated or eliminated by measures proposed by the applicant, whether any major features of emergency plans submitted by the applicant under § 52.17(b)(2)(i) are acceptable in accordance with either the requirements in § 50.160 of this chapter, or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and § 50.47(b) of this chapter, and whether any emergency plans submitted by the applicant under § 52.17(b)(2)(ii) provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 80078, Nov. 16, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.21   Administrative review of applications; hearings.</HEAD>
<P>An early site permit is subject to all applicable procedural requirements in 10 CFR part 2, including the requirements for docketing in § 2.101(a)(1) through (4) of this chapter, and the requirements for issuance of a notice of hearing in § 2.104(a) and (d) of this chapter, provided that the designated sections may not be construed to require that the environmental report, or draft or final environmental impact statement include an assessment of the benefits of construction and operation of the reactor or reactors, or an analysis of alternative energy sources. The presiding officer in a contested early site permit hearing shall not admit contentions proffered by any party concerning an assessment of the benefits of construction and operation of the reactor or reactors, or an analysis of alternative energy sources if those issues were not addressed by the applicant in the early site permit application. All contested hearings conducted on applications for early site permits filed under this part are governed by the procedures contained in subparts C, G, L, and N of 10 CFR part 2, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.23   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS).</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall refer a copy of the application for an early site permit to the ACRS. The ACRS shall report on those portions of the application which concern safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.24   Issuance of early site permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may issue an early site permit, in the form the Commission deems appropriate, if the Commission finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) An application for an early site permit meets the applicable standards and requirements of the Act and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications, if any, to other agencies or bodies have been duly made;
</P>
<P>(3) There is reasonable assurance that the site is in conformity with the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant is technically qualified to engage in any activities authorized;
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria, including any on emergency planning, are necessary and sufficient, within the scope of the early site permit, to provide reasonable assurance that the facility has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) Issuance of the permit will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(7) Any significant adverse environmental impact resulting from activities requested under § 52.17(c) can be redressed; and
</P>
<P>(8) The findings required by subpart A of 10 CFR part 51 have been made.
</P>
<P>(b) The early site permit must specify the site characteristics, design parameters, and terms and conditions of the early site permit the Commission deems appropriate. Before issuance of either a construction permit or combined license referencing an early site permit, the Commission shall find that any relevant terms and conditions of the early site permit have been met. Any terms or conditions of the early site permit that could not be met by the time of issuance of the construction permit or combined license, must be set forth as terms or conditions of the construction permit or combined license.
</P>
<P>(c) The early site permit shall specify those 10 CFR 50.10 activities requested under § 52.17(c) that the permit holder is authorized to perform.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 57447, Oct. 9, 2007; 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.25   Extent of activities permitted.</HEAD>
<P>If the activities authorized by § 52.24(c) are performed and the site is not referenced in an application for a construction permit or a combined license issued under subpart C of this part while the permit remains valid, then the early site permit remains in effect solely for the purpose of site redress, and the holder of the permit shall redress the site in accordance with the terms of the site redress plan required by § 52.17(c). If, before redress is complete, a use not envisaged in the redress plan is found for the site or parts thereof, the holder of the permit shall carry out the redress plan to the greatest extent possible consistent with the alternate use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.26   Duration of permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an early site permit issued under this subpart may be valid for not less than 10, nor more than 20 years from the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(b) An early site permit continues to be valid beyond the date of expiration in any proceeding on a construction permit application or a combined license application that references the early site permit and is docketed before the date of expiration of the early site permit, or, if a timely application for renewal of the early site permit has been docketed, before the Commission has determined whether to renew the permit.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for a construction permit or combined license may, at its own risk, reference in its application a site for which an early site permit application has been docketed but not granted.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon issuance of a construction permit or combined license, a referenced early site permit is subsumed, to the extent referenced, into the construction permit or combined license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007. Redesignated at 72 FR 57447, Oct. 9, 2007; 89 FR 57720, July 16, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.27   Limited work authorization after issuance of early site permit.</HEAD>
<P>A holder of an early site permit may request a limited work authorization in accordance with § 50.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 57447, Oct. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.28" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.28   Transfer of early site permit.</HEAD>
<P>An application to transfer an early site permit will be processed under 10 CFR 50.80.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.29" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.29   Application for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not less than 12, nor more than 36 months before the expiration date stated in the early site permit, or any later renewal period, the permit holder may apply for a renewal of the permit. An application for renewal must contain all information necessary to bring up to date the information and data contained in the previous application.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person whose interests may be affected by renewal of the permit may request a hearing on the application for renewal. The request for a hearing must comply with 10 CFR 2.309. If a hearing is granted, notice of the hearing will be published in accordance with 10 CFR 2.309.
</P>
<P>(c) An early site permit, either original or renewed, for which a timely application for renewal has been filed, remains in effect until the Commission has determined whether to renew the permit. If the permit is not renewed, it continues to be valid in certain proceedings in accordance with the provisions of § 52.26(b).
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission shall refer a copy of the application for renewal to the ACRS. The ACRS shall report on those portions of the application which concern safety and shall apply the criteria set forth in § 52.31.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.31   Criteria for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall grant the renewal only if it determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The site complies with the Act, the Commission's regulations, and orders applicable and in effect at the time the site permit was originally issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any new requirements the Commission may wish to impose are:
</P>
<P>(i) Necessary for adequate protection to public health and safety or common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessary for compliance with the Commission's regulations, and orders applicable and in effect at the time the site permit was originally issued; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A substantial increase in overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the new requirements, and the direct and indirect costs of implementation of those requirements are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(b) A denial of renewal under the provisions of § 52.31(a) does not bar the permit holder or another applicant from filing a new application for the site which proposes changes to the site or the way that it is used to correct the deficiencies cited in the denial of the renewal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 57720, July 16, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.33   Duration of renewal.</HEAD>
<P>Each renewal of an early site permit may be for not less than 10, nor more than 20 years, plus any remaining years on the early site permit then in effect before renewal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.35   Use of site for other purposes.</HEAD>
<P>A site for which an early site permit has been issued under this subpart may be used for purposes other than those described in the permit, including the location of other types of energy facilities. The permit holder shall inform the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation (Director), of any significant uses for the site which have not been approved in the early site permit. The information about the activities must be given to the Director at least 30 days in advance of any actual construction or site modification for the activities. The information provided could be the basis for imposing new requirements on the permit, in accordance with the provisions of § 52.39. If the permit holder informs the Director that the holder no longer intends to use the site for a nuclear power plant, the Director may terminate the permit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5724, Jan. 31, 2008, as amended at 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019; 84 FR 68781, Dec. 17, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.39" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.1.62.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.39   Finality of early site permit determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commission finality.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any provision in 10 CFR 50.109, while an early site permit is in effect under § 52.26 or § 52.33, the Commission may not change or impose new site characteristics, design parameters, or terms and conditions, including emergency planning requirements, on the early site permit unless the Commission:
</P>
<P>(i) Determines that a modification is necessary to bring the permit or the site into compliance with the Commission's regulations and orders applicable and in effect at the time the permit was issued;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determines the modification is necessary to assure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(iii) Determines that a modification is necessary based on an update under paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Issues a variance requested under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In making the findings required for issuance of a construction permit or combined license, or the findings required by § 52.103, or in any enforcement hearing other than one initiated by the Commission under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if the application for the construction permit or combined license references an early site permit, the Commission shall treat as resolved those matters resolved in the proceeding on the application for issuance or renewal of the early site permit, except as provided for in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If the early site permit approved an emergency plan (or major features thereof) that is in use by a licensee of a nuclear power plant, the Commission shall treat as resolved changes to the early site permit emergency plan (or major features thereof) that are identical to changes made to the licensee's emergency plans in compliance with § 50.54(q) of this chapter occurring after issuance of the early site permit.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the early site permit approved an emergency plan (or major features thereof) that is not in use by a licensee of a nuclear power plant, the Commission shall treat as resolved changes that are equivalent to those that could be made under § 50.54(q) of this chapter without prior NRC approval had the emergency plan been in use by a licensee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Updating of early site permit-emergency preparedness.</I> An applicant for a construction permit, operating license, or combined license who has filed an application referencing an early site permit issued under this subpart shall update the emergency preparedness information that was provided under § 52.17(b), and discuss whether the updated information materially changes the bases for compliance with applicable NRC requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearings and petitions.</I> (1) In any proceeding for the issuance of a construction permit, operating license, or combined license referencing an early site permit, contentions on the following matters may be litigated in the same manner as other issues material to the proceeding:
</P>
<P>(i) The nuclear power reactor proposed to be built does not fit within one or more of the site characteristics or design parameters included in the early site permit;
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more of the terms and conditions of the early site permit have not been met;
</P>
<P>(iii) A variance requested under paragraph (d) of this section is unwarranted or should be modified;
</P>
<P>(iv) New or additional information is provided in the application that substantially alters the bases for a previous NRC conclusion or constitutes a sufficient basis for the Commission to modify or impose new terms and conditions related to emergency preparedness; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any significant environmental issue that was not resolved in the early site permit proceeding, or any issue involving the impacts of construction and operation of the facility that was resolved in the early site permit proceeding for which significant new information has been identified.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person may file a petition requesting that the site characteristics, design parameters, or terms and conditions of the early site permit be modified, or that the permit be suspended or revoked. The petition will be considered in accordance with § 2.206 of this chapter. Before construction commences, the Commission shall consider the petition and determine whether any immediate action is required. If the petition is granted, an appropriate order will be issued. Construction under the construction permit or combined license will not be affected by the granting of the petition unless the order is made immediately effective. Any change required by the Commission in response to the petition must meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Variances.</I> An applicant for a construction permit, operating license, or combined license referencing an early site permit may include in its application a request for a variance from one or more site characteristics, design parameters, or terms and conditions of the early site permit, or from the site safety analysis report. In determining whether to grant the variance, the Commission shall apply the same technically relevant criteria applicable to the application for the original or renewed early site permit. Once a construction permit or combined license referencing an early site permit is issued, variances from the early site permit will not be granted for that construction permit or combined license.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Early site permit amendment.</I> The holder of an early site permit may not make changes to the early site permit, or the site safety analysis report, without prior Commission approval. The request for a change to the early site permit must be in the form of an application for a license amendment and must meet the requirements of 10 CFR 50.90 and 50.92.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Information requests.</I> Except for information requests seeking to verify compliance with the current licensing basis of the early site permit, information requests to the holder of an early site permit must be evaluated before issuance to ensure that the burden to be imposed on respondents is justified in view of the potential safety significance of the issue to be addressed in the requested information. Each evaluation performed by the NRC staff must be in accordance with 10 CFR 50.54(f), and must be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee before issuance of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020; 89 FR 57720, July 16, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standard Design Certifications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.41   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of rules granting standard design certifications for nuclear power facilities separate from the filing of an application for a construction permit or combined license for such a facility.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any person may seek a standard design certification for an essentially complete nuclear power plant design which is an evolutionary change from light water reactor designs of plants which have been licensed and in commercial operation before April 18, 1989.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person may also seek a standard design certification for a nuclear power plant design which differs significantly from the light water reactor designs described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or uses simplified, inherent, passive, or other innovative means to accomplish its safety functions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.43   Relationship to other subparts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies to a person that requests a standard design certification from the NRC separately from an application for a combined license filed under subpart C of this part for a nuclear power facility. An applicant for a combined license may reference a standard design certification.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart E of this part governs the NRC staff review and approval of a standard design. Subpart E may be used independently of the provisions in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart F of this part governs the issuance of licenses to manufacture nuclear power reactors to be installed and operated at sites not identified in the manufacturing license application. Subpart F may be used independently of the provisions in this subpart. However, an applicant for a manufacturing license under subpart F may reference a design certification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.45   Filing of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for design certification may be filed notwithstanding the fact that an application for a construction permit, combined license, or manufacturing license for such a facility has not been filed.
</P>
<P>(b) The application must comply with the applicable filing requirements of §§ 52.3 and §§ 2.811 through 2.819 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The fees associated with the review of an application for the initial issuance or renewal of a standard design certification are set forth in 10 CFR part 170.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.46   Contents of applications; general information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain all of the information required by 10 CFR 50.33(a) through (c) and (j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.47" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.47   Contents of applications; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain a level of design information sufficient to enable the Commission to judge the applicant's proposed means of assuring that construction conforms to the design and to reach a final conclusion on all safety questions associated with the design before the certification is granted. The information submitted for a design certification must include performance requirements and design information sufficiently detailed to permit the preparation of acceptance and inspection requirements by the NRC, and procurement specifications and construction and installation specifications by an applicant. The Commission will require, before design certification, that information normally contained in certain procurement specifications and construction and installation specifications be completed and available for audit if the information is necessary for the Commission to make its safety determination.
</P>
<P>(a) The application must contain a final safety analysis report (FSAR) that describes the facility, presents the design bases and the limits on its operation, and presents a safety analysis of the structures, systems, and components and of the facility as a whole, and must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The site parameters postulated for the design, and an analysis and evaluation of the design in terms of those site parameters;
</P>
<P>(2) A description and analysis of the structures, systems, and components (SSCs) of the facility, with emphasis upon performance requirements, the bases, with technical justification therefor, upon which these requirements have been established, and the evaluations required to show that safety functions will be accomplished. It is expected that the standard plant will reflect through its design, construction, and operation an extremely low probability for accidents that could result in the release of significant quantities of radioactive fission products. The description shall be sufficient to permit understanding of the system designs and their relationship to the safety evaluations. Such items as the reactor core, reactor coolant system, instrumentation and control systems, electrical systems, containment system, other engineered safety features, auxiliary and emergency systems, power conversion systems, radioactive waste handling systems, and fuel handling systems shall be discussed insofar as they are pertinent. The following power reactor design characteristics will be taken into consideration by the Commission:
</P>
<P>(i) Intended use of the reactor including the proposed maximum power level and the nature and inventory of contained radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) The extent to which generally accepted engineering standards are applied to the design of the reactor;
</P>
<P>(iii) The extent to which the reactor incorporates unique, unusual or enhanced safety features having a significant bearing on the probability or consequences of accidental release of radioactive materials; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The safety features that are to be engineered into the facility and those barriers that must be breached as a result of an accident before a release of radioactive material to the environment can occur. Special attention must be directed to plant design features intended to mitigate the radiological consequences of accidents. In performing this assessment, an applicant shall assume a fission product release 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> from the core into the containment assuming that the facility is operated at the ultimate power level contemplated. The applicant shall perform an evaluation and analysis of the postulated fission product release, using the expected demonstrable containment leak rate and any fission product cleanup systems intended to mitigate the consequences of the accidents, together with applicable postulated site parameters, including site meteorology, to evaluate the offsite radiological consequences. The evaluation must determine that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The fission product release assumed for this evaluation should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events. These accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release into the containment of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2-hour period following the onset of the postulated fission product release, would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> total effective dose equivalent (TEDE);
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> A whole body dose of 25 rem has been stated to correspond numerically to the once in a lifetime accidental or emergency dose for radiation workers which, according to NCRP recommendations at the time could be disregarded in the determination of their radiation exposure status (see NBS Handbook 69 dated June 5, 1959). However, its use is not intended to imply that this number constitutes an acceptable limit for an emergency dose to the public under accident conditions. This dose value has been set forth in this section as a reference value, which can be used in the evaluation of plant design features with respect to postulated reactor accidents, to assure that these designs provide assurance of low risk of public exposure to radiation, in the event of an accident.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low population zone, who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem TEDE;
</P>
<P>(3) The design of the facility including:
</P>
<P>(i) The principal design criteria for the facility. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, general design criteria (GDC), establishes minimum requirements for the principal design criteria for water-cooled nuclear power plants similar in design and location to plants for which construction permits have previously been issued by the Commission and provides guidance to applicants in establishing principal design criteria for other types of nuclear power units;
</P>
<P>(ii) The design bases and the relation of the design bases to the principal design criteria;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information relative to materials of construction, general arrangement, and approximate dimensions, sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the design will conform to the design bases with an adequate margin for safety;
</P>
<P>(4) An analysis and evaluation of the design and performance of structures, systems, and components with the objective of assessing the risk to public health and safety resulting from operation of the facility and including determination of the margins of safety during normal operations and transient conditions anticipated during the life of the facility, and the adequacy of structures, systems, and components provided for the prevention of accidents and the mitigation of the consequences of accidents. Analysis and evaluation of emergency core cooling system (ECCS) cooling performance and the need for high-point vents following postulated loss-of-coolant accidents shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of §§ 50.46 and 50.46a of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) The kinds and quantities of radioactive materials expected to be produced in the operation and the means for controlling and limiting radioactive effluents and radiation exposures within the limits set forth in part 20 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) The information required by § 20.1406 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(7) The technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter;
</P>
<P>(8) The information necessary to demonstrate compliance with any technically relevant portions of the Three Mile Island requirements set forth in 10 CFR 50.34(f), except paragraphs (f)(1)(xii), (f)(2)(ix), and (f)(3)(v);
</P>
<P>(9) For applications for light-water-cooled nuclear power plants, an evaluation of the standard plant design against the Standard Review Plan (SRP) revision in effect 6 months before the docket date of the application. The evaluation required by this section shall include an identification and description of all differences in design features, analytical techniques, and procedural measures proposed for the design and those corresponding features, techniques, and measures given in the SRP acceptance criteria. Where a difference exists, the evaluation shall discuss how the proposed alternative provides an acceptable method of complying with the Commission's regulations, or portions thereof, that underlie the corresponding SRP acceptance criteria. The SRP is not a substitute for the regulations, and compliance is not a requirement.
</P>
<P>(10) The information with respect to the design of equipment to maintain control over radioactive materials in gaseous and liquid effluents produced during normal reactor operations described in 10 CFR 50.34a(e);
</P>
<P>(11) Proposed technical specifications prepared in accordance with the requirements of §§ 50.36 and 50.36a of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(12) An analysis and description of the equipment and systems for combustible gas control as required by 10 CFR 50.44;
</P>
<P>(13) The list of electric equipment important to safety that is required by 10 CFR 50.49(d);
</P>
<P>(14) A description of protection provided against pressurized thermal shock events, including projected values of the reference temperature for reactor vessel beltline materials as defined in 10 CFR 50.60 and 50.61;
</P>
<P>(15) Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for reduction of risk from anticipated transients without scram events in § 50.62;
</P>
<P>(16) A coping analysis, and any design features necessary to address station blackout, as required by 10 CFR 50.63;
</P>
<P>(17) Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for criticality accidents in § 50.68(b)(2)-(b)(4);
</P>
<P>(18) A description and analysis of the fire protection design features for the standard plant necessary to comply with 10 CFR part 50, appendix A, GDC 3, and § 50.48 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(19) A description of the quality assurance program applied to the design of the structures, systems, and components of the facility. Appendix B to 10 CFR part 50, “Quality Assurance Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants and Fuel Reprocessing Plants,” sets forth the requirements for quality assurance programs for nuclear power plants. The description of the quality assurance program for a nuclear power plant shall include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 were satisfied;
</P>
<P>(20) The information necessary to demonstrate that the standard plant complies with the earthquake engineering criteria in 10 CFR part 50, appendix S;
</P>
<P>(21) Proposed technical resolutions of those Unresolved Safety Issues and medium- and high-priority generic safety issues which are identified in the version of NUREG-0933 current on the date up to 6 months before the docket date of the application and which are technically relevant to the design;
</P>
<P>(22) The information necessary to demonstrate how operating experience insights have been incorporated into the plant design;
</P>
<P>(23) For light-water reactor designs, a description and analysis of design features for the prevention and mitigation of severe accidents, e.g., challenges to containment integrity caused by core-concrete interaction, steam explosion, high-pressure core melt ejection, hydrogen combustion, and containment bypass;
</P>
<P>(24) A representative conceptual design for those portions of the plant for which the application does not seek certification, to aid the NRC in its review of the FSAR and to permit assessment of the adequacy of the interface requirements in paragraph (a)(25) of this section;
</P>
<P>(25) The interface requirements to be met by those portions of the plant for which the application does not seek certification. These requirements must be sufficiently detailed to allow completion of the FSAR;
</P>
<P>(26) Justification that compliance with the interface requirements of paragraph (a)(25) of this section is verifiable through inspections, tests, or analyses. The method to be used for verification of interface requirements must be included as part of the proposed ITAAC required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(27) A description of the design-specific probabilistic risk assessment (PRA) and its results.
</P>
<P>(28) For applications for standard design certifications which are subject to 10 CFR 50.150(a), the information required by 10 CFR 50.150(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The application must also contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria that are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met, a facility that incorporates the design certification has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the design certification, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) An environmental report as required by 10 CFR 51.55.
</P>
<P>(c) This paragraph applies, according to its provisions, to particular applications:
</P>
<P>(1) An application for certification of a nuclear power reactor design that is an evolutionary change from light-water reactor designs of plants that have been licensed and in commercial operation before April 18, 1989, must provide an essentially complete nuclear power plant design except for site-specific elements such as the service water intake structure and the ultimate heat sink;
</P>
<P>(2) An application for certification of a nuclear power reactor design that differs significantly from the light-water reactor designs described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or uses simplified, inherent, passive, or other innovative means to accomplish its safety functions must provide an essentially complete nuclear power reactor design except for site-specific elements such as the service water intake structure and the ultimate heat sink, and must meet the requirements of 10 CFR 50.43(e); and
</P>
<P>(3) An application for certification of a modular nuclear power reactor design must describe and analyze the possible operating configurations of the reactor modules with common systems, interface requirements, and system interactions. The final safety analysis must also account for differences among the configurations, including any restrictions that will be necessary during the construction and startup of a given module to ensure the safe operation of any module already operating.
</P>
<P>(d) Each applicant for a standard design certification under this part shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 63571, Oct. 24, 2008; 74 FR 28147, June 12, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.48" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.48   Standards for review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications filed under this subpart will be reviewed for compliance with the standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 50 and its appendices, 51, 73, and 100.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.51   Administrative review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A standard design certification is a rule that will be issued in accordance with the provisions of subpart H of 10 CFR part 2, as supplemented by the provisions of this section. The Commission shall initiate the rulemaking after an application has been filed under § 52.45 and shall specify the procedures to be used for the rulemaking. The notice of proposed rulemaking published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> must provide an opportunity for the submission of comments on the proposed design certification rule. If, at the time a proposed design certification rule is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under this paragraph (a), the Commission decides that a legislative hearing should be held, the information required by 10 CFR 2.1502(c) must be included in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> document for the proposed design certification.
</P>
<P>(b) Following the submission of comments on the proposed design certification rule, the Commission may, at its discretion, hold a legislative hearing under the procedures in subpart O of part 2 of this chapter. The Commission shall publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of its decision to hold a legislative hearing. The document shall contain the information specified in paragraph (c) of this section, and specify whether the Commission or a presiding officer will conduct the legislative hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding anything in 10 CFR 2.390 to the contrary, proprietary information will be protected in the same manner and to the same extent as proprietary information submitted in connection with applications for licenses, provided that the design certification shall be published in chapter I of this title.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.53   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS).</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS shall report on those portions of the application which concern safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.54" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.54   Issuance of standard design certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After conducting a rulemaking proceeding under § 52.51 on an application for a standard design certification and receiving the report to be submitted by the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards under § 52.53, the Commission may issue a standard design certification in the form of a rule for the design which is the subject of the application, if the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The application meets the applicable standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications, if any, to other agencies or bodies have been duly made;
</P>
<P>(3) There is reasonable assurance that the standard design conforms with the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant is technically qualified;
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria are necessary and sufficient, within the scope of the standard design, to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met, the facility has been constructed and will be operated in accordance with the design certification, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) Issuance of the standard design certification will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(7) The findings required by subpart A of part 51 of this chapter have been made; and
</P>
<P>(8) The applicant has implemented the quality assurance program described or referenced in the safety analysis report.
</P>
<P>(b) The design certification rule must specify the site parameters, design characteristics, and any additional requirements and restrictions of the design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(c) After the Commission has adopted a final design certification rule, the applicant shall not permit any individual to have access to, or any facility to possess, Restricted Data or classified National Security Information until the individual and/or facility has been approved for access under the provisions of 10 CFR parts 25 and/or 95, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 57721, July 16, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.55   Duration of certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a standard design certification issued under this subpart is valid for 40 years from the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(b) A standard design certification continues to be valid beyond the date of expiration in any proceeding on an application for a combined license or an operating license that references the standard design certification and is docketed either before the date of expiration of the certification, or, if a timely application for renewal of the certification has been filed, before the Commission has determined whether to renew the certification. A design certification also continues to be valid beyond the date of expiration in any hearing held under § 52.103 before operation begins under a combined license that references the design certification.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for a construction permit or a combined license may, at its own risk, reference in its application a design for which a design certification application has been docketed but not granted.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 90 FR 28873, July 2, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.57" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.57   Application for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not less than 12 nor more than 36 months before the expiration of the initial 40-year period, or any later renewal period, any person may apply for renewal of the certification. An application for renewal must contain all information necessary to bring up to date the information and data contained in the previous application. The Commission will require, before renewal of certification, that information normally contained in certain procurement specifications and construction and installation specifications be completed and available for audit if this information is necessary for the Commission to make its safety determination. Notice and comment procedures must be used for a rulemaking proceeding on the application for renewal. The Commission, in its discretion, may require the use of additional procedures in individual renewal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) A design certification, either original or renewed, for which a timely application for renewal has been filed remains in effect until the Commission has determined whether to renew the certification. If the certification is not renewed, it continues to be valid in certain proceedings, in accordance with the provisions of § 52.55.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission shall refer a copy of the application for renewal to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS). The ACRS shall report on those portions of the application which concern safety and shall apply the criteria set forth in § 52.59.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 90 FR 28873, July 2, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.59   Criteria for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall issue a rule granting the renewal if the design, either as originally certified or as modified during the rulemaking on the renewal, complies with the Atomic Energy Act and the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time the certification was issued, provided, however, that the first time the Commission issues a rule granting the renewal for a standard design certification in effect on July 13, 2009, the Commission shall, in addition, find that the renewed design complies with the applicable requirements of 10 CFR 50.150.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may impose other requirements if it determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) They are necessary for adequate protection to public health and safety or common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(2) They are necessary for compliance with the Commission's regulations and orders applicable and in effect at the time the design certification was issued; or
</P>
<P>(3) There is a substantial increase in overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the new requirements, and the direct and indirect costs of implementing those requirements are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition, the applicant for renewal may request an amendment to the design certification. The Commission shall grant the amendment request if it determines that the amendment will comply with the Atomic Energy Act and the Commission's regulations in effect at the time of renewal. If the amendment request entails such an extensive change to the design certification that an essentially new standard design is being proposed, an application for a design certification must be filed in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Denial of renewal does not bar the applicant, or another applicant, from filing a new application for certification of the design, which proposes design changes that correct the deficiencies cited in the denial of the renewal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 28147, June 12, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.61   Duration of renewal.</HEAD>
<P>Each renewal of certification for a standard design will be for not less than 10, nor more than 40 years.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 90 FR 28873, July 2, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.63" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.2.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.63   Finality of standard design certifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Notwithstanding any provision in 10 CFR 50.109, while a standard design certification rule is in effect under § 52.55 or § 52.61, the Commission may not modify, rescind, or impose new requirements on the certification information, whether on its own motion, or in response to a petition from any person, unless the Commission determines in a rulemaking that the change:
</P>
<P>(i) Is necessary either to bring the certification information or the referencing plants into compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time the certification was issued;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is necessary to provide adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reduces unnecessary regulatory burden and maintains protection to public health and safety and the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides the detailed design information to be verified under those inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC) which are directed at certification information (<I>i.e.</I>, design acceptance criteria);
</P>
<P>(v) Is necessary to correct material errors in the certification information;
</P>
<P>(vi) Substantially increases overall safety, reliability, or security of facility design, construction, or operation, and the direct and indirect costs of implementation of the rule change are justified in view of this increased safety, reliability, or security; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Contributes to increased standardization of the certification information.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) In a rulemaking under § 52.63(a)(1), except for § 52.63(a)(1)(ii), the Commission will give consideration to whether the benefits justify the costs for plants that are already licensed or for which an application for a permit or license is under consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rulemaking procedures for changes under § 52.63(a)(1) must provide for notice and opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(3) Any modification the NRC imposes on a design certification rule under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be applied to all plants referencing the certified design, except those to which the modification has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs (a)(4) or (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission may not impose new requirements by plant-specific order on any part of the design of a specific plant referencing the design certification rule if that part was approved in the design certification while a design certification rule is in effect under § 52.55 or § 52.61, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time the certification was issued, or to assure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 52.7 are present. In addition to the factors listed in § 52.7, the Commission shall consider whether the special circumstances which § 52.7 requires to be present outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the plant-specific order.
</P>
<P>(5) Except as provided in 10 CFR 2.335, in making the findings required for issuance of a combined license, construction permit, operating license, or manufacturing license, or for any hearing under § 52.103, the Commission shall treat as resolved those matters resolved in connection with the issuance or renewal of a design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An applicant or licensee who references a design certification rule may request an exemption from one or more elements of the certification information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of § 52.7. In addition to the factors listed in § 52.7, the Commission shall consider whether the special circumstances that § 52.7 requires to be present outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the exemption. The granting of an exemption on request of an applicant is subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues in the operating license or combined license hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to § 50.59 of this chapter, a licensee who references a design certification rule may make departures from the design of the nuclear power facility, without prior Commission approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to the design as described in the rule certifying the design. The licensee shall maintain records of all departures from the facility and these records must be maintained and available for audit until the date of termination of the license.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will require, before granting a construction permit, combined license, operating license, or manufacturing license which references a design certification rule, that information normally contained in certain procurement specifications and construction and installation specifications be completed and available for audit if the information is necessary for the Commission to make its safety determinations, including the determination that the application is consistent with the certification information. This information may be acquired by appropriate arrangements with the design certification applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Combined Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.71   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets out the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of combined licenses for nuclear power facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.73   Relationship to other subparts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a combined license under this subpart may, but need not, reference a standard design certification, standard design approval, or manufacturing license issued under subparts B, E, or F of this part, respectively, or an early site permit issued under subpart A of this part. In the absence of a demonstration that an entity other than the one originally sponsoring and obtaining a design certification is qualified to supply a design, the Commission will entertain an application for a combined license that references a standard design certification issued under subpart B of this part only if the entity that sponsored and obtained the certification supplies the design for the applicant's use.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will require, before granting a combined license that references a standard design certification, that information normally contained in certain procurement specifications and construction and installation specifications be completed and available for audit if the information is necessary for the Commission to make its safety determinations, including the determination that the application is consistent with the certification information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.75" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.75   Filing of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person except one excluded by § 50.38 of this chapter may file an application for a combined license for a nuclear power facility with the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) The application must comply with the applicable filing requirements of §§ 52.3 and 50.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The fees associated with the filing and review of the application are set forth in 10 CFR part 170.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 5724, Jan. 31, 2008; 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.77" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.77   Contents of applications; general information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain all of the information required by 10 CFR 50.33.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.79" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.79   Contents of applications; technical information in final safety analysis report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application must contain a final safety analysis report that describes the facility, presents the design bases and the limits on its operation, and presents a safety analysis of the structures, systems, and components of the facility as a whole. The final safety analysis report shall include the following information, at a level of information sufficient to enable the Commission to reach a final conclusion on all safety matters that must be resolved by the Commission before issuance of a combined license:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The boundaries of the site;
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed general location of each facility on the site;
</P>
<P>(iii) The seismic, meteorological, hydrologic, and geologic characteristics of the proposed site with appropriate consideration of the most severe of the natural phenomena that have been historically reported for the site and surrounding area and with sufficient margin for the limited accuracy, quantity, and time in which the historical data have been accumulated;
</P>
<P>(iv) The location and description of any nearby industrial, military, or transportation facilities and routes;
</P>
<P>(v) The existing and projected future population profile of the area surrounding the site;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description and safety assessment of the site on which the facility is to be located. The assessment must contain an analysis and evaluation of the major structures, systems, and components of the facility that bear significantly on the acceptability of the site under the radiological consequence evaluation factors identified in paragraphs (a)(1)(vi)(A) and (a)(1)(vi)(B) of this section. In performing this assessment, an applicant shall assume a fission product release 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> from the core into the containment assuming that the facility is operated at the ultimate power level contemplated. The applicant shall perform an evaluation and analysis of the postulated fission product release, using the expected demonstrable containment leak rate and any fission product cleanup systems intended to mitigate the consequences of the accidents, together with applicable site characteristics, including site meteorology, to evaluate the offsite radiological consequences. Site characteristics must comply with part 100 of this chapter. The evaluation must determine that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> The fission product release assumed for this evaluation should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events. These accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release into the containment of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2-hour period following the onset of the postulated fission product release, would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> total effective dose equivalent (TEDE).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> A whole body dose of 25 rem has been stated to correspond numerically to the once in a lifetime accidental or emergency dose for radiation workers which, according to NCRP recommendations at the time could be disregarded in the determination of their radiation exposure status (see NBS Handbook 69 dated June 5, 1959). However, its use is not intended to imply that this number constitutes an acceptable limit for an emergency dose to the public under accident conditions. Rather, this dose value has been set forth in this section as a reference value, which can be used in the evaluation of plant design features with respect to postulated reactor accidents, to assure that these designs provide assurance of low risk of public exposure to radiation, in the event of an accident.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low population zone, who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem TEDE; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description and analysis of the structures, systems, and components of the facility with emphasis upon performance requirements, the bases, with technical justification therefor, upon which these requirements have been established, and the evaluations required to show that safety functions will be accomplished. It is expected that reactors will reflect through their design, construction, and operation an extremely low probability for accidents that could result in the release of significant quantities of radioactive fission products. The descriptions shall be sufficient to permit understanding of the system designs and their relationship to safety evaluations. Items such as the reactor core, reactor coolant system, instrumentation and control systems, electrical systems, containment system, other engineered safety features, auxiliary and emergency systems, power conversion systems, radioactive waste handling systems, and fuel handling systems shall be discussed insofar as they are pertinent. The following power reactor design characteristics and proposed operation will be taken into consideration by the Commission:
</P>
<P>(i) Intended use of the reactor including the proposed maximum power level and the nature and inventory of contained radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) The extent to which generally accepted engineering standards are applied to the design of the reactor;
</P>
<P>(iii) The extent to which the reactor incorporates unique, unusual or enhanced safety features having a significant bearing on the probability or consequences of accidental release of radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(iv) The safety features that are to be engineered into the facility and those barriers that must be breached as a result of an accident before a release of radioactive material to the environment can occur. Special attention must be directed to plant design features intended to mitigate the radiological consequences of accidents. In performing this assessment, an applicant shall assume a fission product release 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> from the core into the containment assuming that the facility is operated at the ultimate power level contemplated;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The fission product release assumed for this evaluation should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events. These accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release into the containment of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) The kinds and quantities of radioactive materials expected to be produced in the operation and the means for controlling and limiting radioactive effluents and radiation exposures within the limits set forth in part 20 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(4) The design of the facility including:
</P>
<P>(i) The principal design criteria for the facility. Appendix A to part 50 of this chapter, “General Design Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants,” establishes minimum requirements for the principal design criteria for water-cooled nuclear power plants similar in design and location to plants for which construction permits have previously been issued by the Commission and provides guidance to applicants in establishing principal design criteria for other types of nuclear power units;
</P>
<P>(ii) The design bases and the relation of the design bases to the principal design criteria;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information relative to materials of construction, arrangement, and dimensions, sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the design will conform to the design bases with adequate margin for safety.
</P>
<P>(5) An analysis and evaluation of the design and performance of structures, systems, and components with the objective of assessing the risk to public health and safety resulting from operation of the facility and including determination of the margins of safety during normal operations and transient conditions anticipated during the life of the facility, and the adequacy of structures, systems, and components provided for the prevention of accidents and the mitigation of the consequences of accidents. Analysis and evaluation of ECCS cooling performance and the need for high-point vents following postulated loss-of-coolant accidents shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of §§ 50.46 and 50.46a of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) A description and analysis of the fire protection design features for the reactor necessary to comply with 10 CFR part 50, appendix A, GDC 3, and § 50.48 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(7) A description of protection provided against pressurized thermal shock events, including projected values of the reference temperature for reactor vessel beltline materials as defined in §§ 50.60 and 50.61(b)(1) and (b)(2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(8) An analysis and description of the equipment and systems for combustible gas control as required by § 50.44 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(9) The coping analyses, and any design features necessary to address station blackout, as described in § 50.63 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(10) A description of the program, and its implementation, required by § 50.49(a) of this chapter for the environmental qualification of electric equipment important to safety and the list of electric equipment important to safety that is required by 10 CFR 50.49(d);
</P>
<P>(11) A description of the program(s), and their implementation, necessary to ensure that the systems and components meet the requirements of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code and the ASME Code for Operation and Maintenance of Nuclear Power Plants in accordance with 50.55a of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(12) A description of the primary containment leakage rate testing program, and its implementation, necessary to ensure that the containment meets the requirements of appendix J to 10 CFR part 50;
</P>
<P>(13) A description of the reactor vessel material surveillance program required by appendix H to 10 CFR part 50 and its implementation;
</P>
<P>(14) A description of the operator training program, and its implementation, necessary to meet the requirements of 10 CFR part 55;
</P>
<P>(15) A description of the program, and its implementation, for monitoring the effectiveness of maintenance necessary to meet the requirements of § 50.65 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(16)(i) The information with respect to the design of equipment to maintain control over radioactive materials in gaseous and liquid effluents produced during normal reactor operations, as described in § 50.34a(d) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the process and effluent monitoring and sampling program required by appendix I to 10 CFR part 50 and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(17) The information with respect to compliance with technically relevant positions of the Three Mile Island requirements in § 50.34(f) of this chapter, with the exception of § 50.34(f)(1)(xii), (f)(2)(ix), (f)(2)(xxv), and (f)(3)(v);
</P>
<P>(18) If the applicant seeks to use risk-informed treatment of SSCs in accordance with § 50.69 of this chapter, the information required by § 50.69(b)(2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(19) Information necessary to demonstrate that the plant complies with the earthquake engineering criteria in 10 CFR part 50, appendix S;
</P>
<P>(20) Proposed technical resolutions of those Unresolved Safety Issues and medium- and high-priority generic safety issues which are identified in the version of NUREG-0933 current on the date up to 6 months before the docket date of the application and which are technically relevant to the design;
</P>
<P>(21) Emergency plans complying with the requirements of § 50.47 of this chapter, and appendix E to part 50 of this chapter, or for a small modular reactor or a non-light-water reactor license applicant, emergency plans complying with either the requirements in § 50.160 of this chapter, or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and § 50.47(b) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(22)(i) All emergency plan certifications that have been obtained from the State and local governmental agencies with emergency planning responsibilities must state that:
</P>
<P>(A) The proposed emergency plans are practicable;
</P>
<P>(B) These agencies are committed to participating in any further development of the plans, including any required field demonstrations; and
</P>
<P>(C) These agencies are committed to executing their responsibilities under the plans in the event of an emergency;
</P>
<P>(ii) If certifications cannot be obtained after sustained, good faith efforts by the applicant, then the application must contain information, including a utility plan, sufficient to show that the proposed plans provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency at the site.
</P>
<P>(23) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(24) If the application is for a nuclear power reactor design which differs significantly from light-water reactor designs that were licensed before 1997 or use simplified, inherent, passive, or other innovative means to accomplish their safety functions, the application must describe how the design meets the requirements in § 50.43(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(25) A description of the quality assurance program, applied to the design, and to be applied to the fabrication, construction, and testing, of the structures, systems, and components of the facility. Appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 sets forth the requirements for quality assurance programs for nuclear power plants. The description of the quality assurance program for a nuclear power plant must include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 have been and will be satisfied, including a discussion of how the quality assurance program will be implemented;
</P>
<P>(26) The applicant's organizational structure, allocations or responsibilities and authorities, and personnel qualifications requirements for operation;
</P>
<P>(27) Managerial and administrative controls to be used to assure safe operation. Appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 sets forth the requirements for these controls for nuclear power plants. The information on the controls to be used for a nuclear power plant shall include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 will be satisfied;
</P>
<P>(28) Plans for preoperational testing and initial operations;
</P>
<P>(29)(i) Plans for conduct of normal operations, including maintenance, surveillance, and periodic testing of structures, systems, and components;
</P>
<P>(ii) Plans for coping with emergencies, other than the plans required by § 52.79(a)(21);
</P>
<P>(30) Proposed technical specifications prepared in accordance with the requirements of §§ 50.36 and 50.36a of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(31) For nuclear power plants to be operated on multi-unit sites, an evaluation of the potential hazards to the structures, systems, and components important to safety of operating units resulting from construction activities, as well as a description of the managerial and administrative controls to be used to provide assurance that the limiting conditions for operation are not exceeded as a result of construction activities at the multi-unit sites;
</P>
<P>(32) The technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter;
</P>
<P>(33) A description of the training program required by § 50.120 of this chapter and its implementation;
</P>
<P>(34) A description and plans for implementation of an operator requalification program. The operator requalification program must as a minimum, meet the requirements for those programs contained in § 55.59 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(35)(i) A physical security plan, describing how the applicant will meet the requirements of 10 CFR part 73 (and 10 CFR part 11, if applicable, including the identification and description of jobs as required by § 11.11(a) of this chapter, at the proposed facility). The plan must list tests, inspections, audits, and other means to be used to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of 10 CFR parts 11 and 73, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the implementation of the physical security plan;
</P>
<P>(36)(i) A safeguards contingency plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in appendix C to 10 CFR part 73. The safeguards contingency plan shall include plans for dealing with threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage, as defined in part 73 of this chapter, relating to the special nuclear material and nuclear facilities licensed under this chapter and in the applicant's possession and control. Each application for this type of license shall include the information contained in the applicant's safeguards contingency plan. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> (Implementing procedures required for this plan need not be submitted for approval.)
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> A physical security plan that contains all the information required in both § 73.55 of this chapter and appendix C to 10 CFR part 73 satisfies the requirement for a contingency plan.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) A training and qualification plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in appendix B to 10 CFR part 73.
</P>
<P>(iii) A cyber security plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 73.54 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the implementation of the safeguards contingency plan, training and qualification plan, and cyber security plan; and
</P>
<P>(v) Each applicant who prepares a physical security plan, a safeguards contingency plan, a training and qualification plan, or a cyber security plan, shall protect the plans and other related Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements of § 73.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(37) The information necessary to demonstrate how operating experience insights have been incorporated into the plant design;
</P>
<P>(38) For light-water reactor designs, a description and analysis of design features for the prevention and mitigation of severe accidents, e.g., challenges to containment integrity caused by core-concrete interaction, steam explosion, high-pressure core melt ejection, hydrogen combustion, and containment bypass;
</P>
<P>(39) A description of the radiation protection program required by § 20.1101 of this chapter and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(40) A description of the fire protection program required by § 50.48 of this chapter and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(41) For applications for light-water-cooled nuclear power plant combined licenses, an evaluation of the facility against the Standard Review Plan (SRP) revision in effect 6 months before the docket date of the application. The evaluation required by this section shall include an identification and description of all differences in design features, analytical techniques, and procedural measures proposed for a facility and those corresponding features, techniques, and measures given in the SRP acceptance criteria. Where a difference exists, the evaluation shall discuss how the proposed alternative provides an acceptable method of complying with the Commission's regulations, or portions thereof, that underlie the corresponding SRP acceptance criteria. The SRP is not a substitute for the regulations, and compliance is not a requirement;
</P>
<P>(42) Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for reduction of risk from anticipated transients without scram (ATWS) events in § 50.62 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(43) Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for criticality accidents in § 50.68 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(44) A description of the fitness-for-duty program required by 10 CFR part 26 and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(45) The information required by § 20.1406 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(46) A description of the plant-specific probabilistic risk assessment (PRA) and its results.
</P>
<P>(47) For applications for combined licenses which are subject to 10 CFR 50.150(a), the information required by 10 CFR 50.150(b).
</P>
<P>(b) If the combined license application references an early site permit, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The final safety analysis report need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the early site permit, <I>provided, however,</I> that the final safety analysis report must either include or incorporate by reference the early site permit site safety analysis report and must contain, in addition to the information and analyses otherwise required, information sufficient to demonstrate that the design of the facility falls within the site characteristics and design parameters specified in the early site permit.
</P>
<P>(2) If the final safety analysis report does not demonstrate that design of the facility falls within the site characteristics and design parameters, the application shall include a request for a variance that complies with the requirements of §§ 52.39 and 52.93.
</P>
<P>(3) The final safety analysis report must demonstrate that all terms and conditions that have been included in the early site permit, other than those imposed under § 50.36b, will be satisfied by the date of issuance of the combined license. Any terms or conditions of the early site permit that could not be met by the time of issuance of the combined license, must be set forth as terms or conditions of the combined license.
</P>
<P>(4) If the early site permit approves complete and integrated emergency plans, or major features of emergency plans, then the final safety analysis report must include any new or additional information that updates and corrects the information that was provided under § 52.17(b), and discuss whether the new or additional information materially changes the bases for compliance with the applicable requirements. The application must identify changes to the emergency plans or major features of emergency plans that have been incorporated into the proposed facility emergency plans and that constitute or would constitute a reduction in effectiveness under § 50.54(q) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) If complete and integrated emergency plans are approved as part of the early site permit, new certifications meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(22) of this section are not required.
</P>
<P>(c) If the combined license application references a standard design approval, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The final safety analysis report need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the design approval, <I>provided, however,</I> that the final safety analysis report must either include or incorporate by reference the standard design approval final safety analysis report and must contain, in addition to the information and analyses otherwise required, information sufficient to demonstrate that the characteristics of the site fall within the site parameters specified in the design approval. In addition, the plant-specific PRA information must use the PRA information for the design approval and must be updated to account for site-specific design information and any design changes or departures.
</P>
<P>(2) The final safety analysis report must demonstrate that all terms and conditions that have been included in the design approval will be satisfied by the date of issuance of the combined license.
</P>
<P>(d) If the combined license application references a standard design certification, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The final safety analysis report need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the design certification, <I>provided, however,</I> that the final safety analysis report must either include or incorporate by reference the standard design certification final safety analysis report and must contain, in addition to the information and analyses otherwise required, information sufficient to demonstrate that the site characteristics fall within the site parameters specified in the design certification. In addition, the plant-specific PRA information must use the PRA information for the design certification and must be updated to account for site-specific design information and any design changes or departures.
</P>
<P>(2) The final safety analysis report must demonstrate that the interface requirements established for the design under § 52.47 have been met.
</P>
<P>(3) The final safety analysis report must demonstrate that all requirements and restrictions set forth in the referenced design certification rule, other than those imposed under § 50.36b, must be satisfied by the date of issuance of the combined license. Any requirements and restrictions set forth in the referenced design certification rule that could not be satisfied by the time of issuance of the combined license, must be set forth as terms or conditions of the combined license.
</P>
<P>(e) If the combined license application references the use of one or more manufactured nuclear power reactors licensed under subpart F of this part, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The final safety analysis report need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the manufacturing license, <I>provided, however,</I> that the final safety analysis report must either include or incorporate by reference the manufacturing license final safety analysis report and must contain, in addition to the information and analyses otherwise required, information sufficient to demonstrate that the site characteristics fall within the site parameters specified in the manufacturing license. In addition, the plant-specific PRA information must use the PRA information for the manufactured reactor and must be updated to account for site-specific design information and any design changes or departures.
</P>
<P>(2) The final safety analysis report must demonstrate that the interface requirements established for the design have been met.
</P>
<P>(3) The final safety analysis report must demonstrate that all terms and conditions that have been included in the manufacturing license, other than those imposed under § 50.36b, will be satisfied by the date of issuance of the combined license. Any terms or conditions of the manufacturing license that could not be met by the time of issuance of the combined license, must be set forth as terms or conditions of the combined license.
</P>
<P>(f) Each applicant for a combined license under this subpart shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 63571, Oct. 24, 2008; 74 FR 13970, Mar. 27, 2009; 74 FR 28147, June 12, 2009; 76 FR 72600, Nov. 23, 2011; 78 FR 34249, June 7, 2013; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019; 88 FR 80078, Nov. 16, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.80" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.80   Contents of applications; additional technical information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain:
</P>
<P>(a) The proposed inspections, tests, and analyses, including those applicable to emergency planning, that the licensee shall perform, and the acceptance criteria that are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met, the facility has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the combined license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(1) If the application references an early site permit with ITAAC, the early site permit ITAAC must apply to those aspects of the combined license which are approved in the early site permit.
</P>
<P>(2) If the application references a standard design certification, the ITAAC contained in the certified design must apply to those portions of the facility design which are approved in the design certification.
</P>
<P>(3) If the application references an early site permit with ITAAC or a standard design certification or both, the application may include a notification that a required inspection, test, or analysis in the ITAAC has been successfully completed and that the corresponding acceptance criterion has been met. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notification required by § 52.85 must indicate that the application includes this notification.
</P>
<P>(b) An environmental report, either in accordance with 10 CFR 51.50(c) if a limited work authorization under 10 CFR 50.10 is not requested in conjunction with the combined license application, or in accordance with §§ 51.49 and 51.50(c) of this chapter if a limited work authorization is requested in conjunction with the combined license application.
</P>
<P>(c) If the applicant wishes to request that a limited work authorization under 10 CFR 50.10 be issued before issuance of the combined license, the application must include the information otherwise required by 10 CFR 50.10, in accordance with either 10 CFR 2.101(a)(1) through (a)(4), or 10 CFR 2.101(a)(9).
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant's plans for implementing the requirements of § 50.155 of this chapter including a schedule for achieving full compliance with these requirements, and a description of the equipment upon which the strategies and guidelines required by § 50.155(b)(1) of this chapter rely, including the planned locations of the equipment and how the equipment meets the requirements of § 155(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 72 FR 57447, Oct. 9, 2007; 74 FR 13970, Mar. 27, 2009; 84 FR 39719, Aug. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.81   Standards for review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications filed under this subpart will be reviewed according to the standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 51, 54, 55, 73, 100, and 140.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.83" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.83   Finality of referenced NRC approvals; partial initial decision on site suitability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the application for a combined license under this subpart references an early site permit, design certification rule, standard design approval, or manufacturing license, the scope and nature of matters resolved for the application and any combined license issued are governed by the relevant provisions addressing finality, including §§ 52.39, 52.63, 52.98, 52.145, and 52.171.
</P>
<P>(b) While a partial decision on site suitability is in effect under 10 CFR 2.627(b)(2), the scope and nature of matters resolved in the proceeding are governed by the finality provisions in 10 CFR 2.629.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.85" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.85   Administrative review of applications; hearings.</HEAD>
<P>A proceeding on a combined license is subject to all applicable procedural requirements contained in 10 CFR part 2, including the requirements for docketing (§ 2.101 of this chapter) and issuance of a notice of hearing (§ 2.104 of this chapter). If an applicant requests a Commission finding on certain ITAAC with the issuance of the combined license, then those ITAAC will be identified in the notice of hearing. All contested hearings on combined licenses are governed by the procedures contained in 10 CFR part 2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.87" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.87   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS).</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS shall report on those portions of the application that concern safety and shall apply the standards referenced in § 52.81, in accordance with the finality provisions in § 52.83.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.89" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.89   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.91" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.91   Authorization to conduct limited work authorization activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the application does not reference an early site permit which authorizes the holder to perform the activities under 10 CFR 50.10(d), the applicant may not perform those activities without obtaining the separate authorization required by 10 CFR 50.10(d). Authorization may be granted only after the presiding officer in a contested hearing on the application has made the findings and determination required by 10 CFR 50.10(e), and the Director of the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation makes the determination required by 10 CFR 50.10(e).
</P>
<P>(b) If, after an applicant has performed the activities permitted by a limited work authorization issued under § 50.10 of this chapter, the application for the combined license is withdrawn or denied, then the applicant shall implement the approved site redress plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 57447, Oct. 9, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019; 89 FR 57721, July 16, 2024; 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.93" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.93   Exemptions and variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applicants for a combined license under this subpart, or any amendment to a combined license, may include in the application a request for an exemption from one or more of the Commission's regulations.
</P>
<P>(1) If the request is for an exemption from any part of a referenced design certification rule, the Commission may grant the request if it determines that the exemption complies with any exemption provisions of the referenced design certification rule, or with § 52.63 if there are no applicable exemption provisions in the referenced design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other requests for exemptions, the Commission may grant a request if it determines that the exemption complies with § 52.7.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant for a combined license who has filed an application referencing an early site permit issued under subpart A of this part may include in the application a request for a variance from one or more site characteristics, design parameters, or terms and conditions of the permit, or from the site safety analysis report. In determining whether to grant the variance, the Commission shall apply the same technically relevant criteria as were applicable to the application for the original or renewed site permit. Once a construction permit or combined license referencing an early site permit is issued, variances from the early site permit will not be granted for that construction permit or combined license.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for a combined license who has filed an application referencing a nuclear power reactor manufactured under a manufacturing license issued under subpart F of this part may include in the application a request for a departure from one or more design characteristics, site parameters, terms and conditions, or approved design of the manufactured reactor. The Commission may grant a request only if it determines that the departure will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.7, and that the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the departure.
</P>
<P>(d) Issuance of a variance under paragraph (b) or a departure under paragraph (c) of this section is subject to litigation during the combined license proceeding in the same manner as other issues material to that proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.97" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.97   Issuance of combined licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Commission may issue a combined license if the Commission finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable standards and requirements of the Act and the Commission's regulations have been met;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any required notifications to other agencies or bodies have been duly made;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is reasonable assurance that the facility will be constructed and will operate in conformity with the license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations.
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant is technically and financially qualified to engage in the activities authorized; and
</P>
<P>(v) Issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The findings required by subpart A of part 51 of this chapter have been made.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may also find, at the time it issues the combined license, that certain acceptance criteria in one or more of the inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC) in a referenced early site permit or standard design certification have been met. This finding will finally resolve that those acceptance criteria have been met, those acceptance criteria will be deemed to be excluded from the combined license, and findings under § 52.103(g) with respect to those acceptance criteria are unnecessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall identify within the combined license the inspections, tests, and analyses, including those applicable to emergency planning, that the licensee shall perform, and the acceptance criteria that, if met, are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the facility has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) A combined license shall contain the terms and conditions, including technical specifications, as the Commission deems necessary and appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.98" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.98   Finality of combined licenses; information requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After issuance of a combined license, the Commission may not modify, add, or delete any term or condition of the combined license, the design of the facility, the inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria contained in the license which are not derived from a referenced standard design certification or manufacturing license, except in accordance with the provisions of § 52.103 or § 50.109 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) If the combined license does not reference a design certification or a reactor manufactured under a manufacturing license issued under subpart F of this part, then a licensee may make changes in the facility as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated), make changes in the procedures as described in the final safety analysis report (as updated), and conduct tests or experiments not described in the final safety analysis report (as updated) under the applicable change processes in 10 CFR part 50 (e.g., § 50.54, § 50.59, or § 50.90 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(c) If the combined license references a certified design, then—
</P>
<P>(1) Changes to or departures from information within the scope of the referenced design certification rule are subject to the applicable change processes in that rule; and
</P>
<P>(2) Changes that are not within the scope of the referenced design certification rule are subject to the applicable change processes in 10 CFR part 50, unless they also involve changes to or noncompliance with information within the scope of the referenced design certification rule. In these cases, the applicable provisions of this section and the design certification rule apply.
</P>
<P>(d) If the combined license references a reactor manufactured under a manufacturing license issued under subpart F of this part, then—
</P>
<P>(1) Changes to or departures from information within the scope of the manufactured reactor's design are subject to the change processes in § 52.171; and
</P>
<P>(2) Changes that are not within the scope of the manufactured reactor's design are subject to the applicable change processes in 10 CFR part 50.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may issue and make immediately effective any amendment to a combined license upon a determination by the Commission that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person. The amendment may be issued and made immediately effective in advance of the holding and completion of any required hearing. The amendment will be processed in accordance with the procedures specified in 10 CFR 50.91.
</P>
<P>(f) Any modification to, addition to, or deletion from the terms and conditions of a combined license, including any modification to, addition to, or deletion from the inspections, tests, analyses, or related acceptance criteria contained in the license is a proposed amendment to the license. There must be an opportunity for a hearing on the amendment.
</P>
<P>(g) Except for information sought to verify licensee compliance with the current licensing basis for that facility, information requests to the holder of a combined license must be evaluated before issuance to ensure that the burden to be imposed on the licensee is justified in view of the potential safety significance of the issue to be addressed in the requested information. Each evaluation performed by the NRC staff must be in accordance with 10 CFR 50.54(f) and must be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee before issuance of the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.99" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.99   Inspection during construction; ITAAC schedules and notifications; NRC notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Licensee schedule for completing inspections, tests, or analyses.</I> The licensee shall submit to the NRC, no later than 1 year after issuance of the combined license or at the start of construction as defined at 10 CFR 50.10(a), whichever is later, its schedule for completing the inspections, tests, or analyses in the ITAAC. The licensee shall submit updates to the ITAAC schedules every 6 months thereafter and, within 1 year of its scheduled date for initial loading of fuel, the licensee shall submit updates to the ITAAC schedule every 30 days until the final notification is provided to the NRC under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensee and applicant conduct of activities subject to ITAAC.</I> With respect to activities subject to an ITAAC, an applicant for a combined license may proceed at its own risk with design and procurement activities, and a licensee may proceed at its own risk with design, procurement, construction, and preoperational activities, even though the NRC may not have found that any one of the prescribed acceptance criteria are met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Licensee notifications</I>—(1) <I>ITAAC closure notification.</I> The licensee shall notify the NRC that prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses have been performed and that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met. The notification must contain sufficient information to demonstrate that the prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses have been performed and that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ITAAC post-closure notifications.</I> Following the licensee's ITAAC closure notifications under paragraph (c)(1) of this section until the Commission makes the finding under 10 CFR 52.103(g), the licensee shall notify the NRC, in a timely manner, of new information that materially alters the basis for determining that either inspections, tests, or analyses were performed as required, or that acceptance criteria are met. The notification must contain sufficient information to demonstrate that, notwithstanding the new information, the prescribed inspections, tests, or analyses have been performed as required, and the prescribed acceptance criteria are met.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Uncompleted ITAAC notification.</I> If the licensee has not provided, by the date 225 days before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel, the notification required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section for all ITAAC, then the licensee shall notify the NRC that the prescribed inspections, tests, or analyses for all uncompleted ITAAC will be performed and that the prescribed acceptance criteria will be met prior to operation. The notification must be provided no later than the date 225 days before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel, and must provide sufficient information to demonstrate that the prescribed inspections, tests, or analyses will be performed and the prescribed acceptance criteria for the uncompleted ITAAC will be met, including, but not limited to, a description of the specific procedures and analytical methods to be used for performing the prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses and determining that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>All ITAAC complete notification.</I> The licensee shall notify the NRC that all ITAAC are complete.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Licensee determination of non-compliance with ITAAC.</I> (1) In the event that an activity is subject to an ITAAC derived from a referenced standard design certification and the licensee has not demonstrated that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met, the licensee may take corrective actions to successfully complete that ITAAC or request an exemption from the standard design certification ITAAC, as applicable. A request for an exemption must also be accompanied by a request for a license amendment under 10 CFR 52.98(f).
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that an activity is subject to an ITAAC not derived from a referenced standard design certification and the licensee has not demonstrated that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met, the licensee may take corrective actions to successfully complete that ITAAC or request a license amendment under 10 CFR 52.98(f).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NRC inspection, publication of notices, and availability of licensee notifications.</I> The NRC shall ensure that the prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses in the ITAAC are performed.
</P>
<P>(1) At appropriate intervals until the last date for submission of requests for hearing under 10 CFR 52.103(a), the NRC shall publish notices in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the NRC staff's determination of the successful completion of inspections, tests, and analyses.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC shall make publicly available the licensee notifications under paragraph (c) of this section. The NRC shall, no later than the date of publication of the notice of intended operation required by 10 CFR 52.103(a), make publicly available those licensee notifications under paragraph (c) of this section that have been submitted to the NRC at least seven (7) days before that notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 51892, Aug. 28, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.103" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.103   Operation under a combined license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall notify the NRC of its scheduled date for initial loading of fuel no later than 270 days before the scheduled date and shall notify the NRC of updates to its schedule every 30 days thereafter. Not less than 180 days before the date scheduled for initial loading of fuel into a plant by a licensee that has been issued a combined license under this part, the Commission shall publish notice of intended operation in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice must provide that any person whose interest may be affected by operation of the plant may, within 60 days, request that the Commission hold a hearing on whether the facility as constructed complies, or on completion will comply, with the acceptance criteria in the combined license, except that a hearing shall not be granted for those ITAAC which the Commission found were met under § 52.97(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) A request for hearing under paragraph (a) of this section must show, prima facie, that—
</P>
<P>(1) One or more of the acceptance criteria of the ITAAC in the combined license have not been, or will not be, met; and
</P>
<P>(2) The specific operational consequences of nonconformance would be contrary to providing reasonable assurance of adequate protection of the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission, acting as the presiding officer, shall determine whether to grant or deny the request for hearing in accordance with the applicable requirements of 10 CFR 2.309. If the Commission grants the request, the Commission, acting as the presiding officer, shall determine whether during a period of interim operation there will be reasonable assurance of adequate protection to the public health and safety. The Commission's determination must consider the petitioner's <I>prima facie</I> showing and any answers thereto. If the Commission determines there is such reasonable assurance, it shall allow operation during an interim period under the combined license.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission, in its discretion, shall determine appropriate hearing procedures, whether informal or formal adjudicatory, for any hearing under paragraph (a) of this section, and shall state its reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission shall, to the maximum possible extent, render a decision on issues raised by the hearing request within 180 days of the publication of the notice provided by paragraph (a) of this section or by the anticipated date for initial loading of fuel into the reactor, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(f) A petition to modify the terms and conditions of the combined license will be processed as a request for action in accordance with 10 CFR 2.206. The petitioner shall file the petition with the Secretary of the Commission. Before the licensed activity allegedly affected by the petition (fuel loading, low power testing, etc.) commences, the Commission shall determine whether any immediate action is required. If the petition is granted, then an appropriate order will be issued. Fuel loading and operation under the combined license will not be affected by the granting of the petition unless the order is made immediately effective.
</P>
<P>(g) The licensee shall not operate the facility until the Commission makes a finding that the acceptance criteria in the combined license are met, except for those acceptance criteria that the Commission found were met under § 52.97(a)(2). If the combined license is for a modular design, each reactor module may require a separate finding as construction proceeds.
</P>
<P>(h) After the Commission has made the finding in paragraph (g) of this section, the ITAAC do not, by virtue of their inclusion in the combined license, constitute regulatory requirements either for licensees or for renewal of the license; except for the specific ITAAC for which the Commission has granted a hearing under paragraph (a) of this section, all ITAAC expire upon final Commission action in the proceeding. However, subsequent changes to the facility or procedures described in the final safety analysis report (as updated) must comply with the requirements in § 52.98(e) or (f), as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 57721, July 16, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.104" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.104   Duration of combined license.</HEAD>
<P>A combined license is issued for a specified period not to exceed 40 years from the date on which the Commission makes a finding that acceptance criteria are met under § 52.103(g) or allowing operation during an interim period under the combined license under § 52.103(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.105" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.105   Transfer of combined license.</HEAD>
<P>A combined license may be transferred in accordance with § 50.80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.107" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.107   Application for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>The filing of an application for a renewed license must be in accordance with 10 CFR part 54.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.109" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.109   Continuation of combined license.</HEAD>
<P>Each combined license for a facility that has permanently ceased operations, continues in effect beyond the expiration date to authorize ownership and possession of the production or utilization facility, until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this period of continued effectiveness the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Take actions necessary to decommission and decontaminate the facility and continue to maintain the facility, including, where applicable, the storage, control and maintenance of the spent fuel, in a safe condition; and
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct activities in accordance with all other restrictions applicable to the facility in accordance with the NRC's regulations and the provisions of the combined license for the facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.110" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.3.62.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.110   Termination of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When a licensee has determined to permanently cease operations the licensee shall, within 30 days, submit a written certification to the NRC, consistent with the requirements of § 52.3(b)(8);
</P>
<P>(2) Once fuel has been permanently removed from the reactor vessel, the licensee shall submit a written certification to the NRC that meets the requirements of § 52.3(b)(9); and
</P>
<P>(3) For licensees whose licenses have been permanently modified to allow possession but not operation of the facility, before September 27, 2007, the certification required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be deemed to have been submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon docketing of the certifications for permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, or when a final legally effective order to permanently cease operations has come into effect, the 10 CFR part 52 license no longer authorizes operation of the reactor or emplacement or retention of fuel into the reactor vessel.
</P>
<P>(c) Decommissioning will be completed within 60 years of permanent cessation of operations. Completion of decommissioning beyond 60 years will be approved by the Commission only when necessary to protect public health and safety. Factors that will be considered by the Commission in evaluating an alternative that provides for completion of decommissioning beyond 60 years of permanent cessation of operations include unavailability of waste disposal capacity and other site-specific factors affecting the licensee's capability to carry out decommissioning, including presence of other nuclear facilities at the site.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Before or within 2 years following permanent cessation of operations, the licensee shall submit a post-shutdown decommissioning activities report (PSDAR) to the NRC, and a copy to the affected State(s). The report must include a description of the planned decommissioning activities along with a schedule for their accomplishment, an estimate of expected costs, and a discussion that provides the reasons for concluding that the environmental impacts associated with site-specific decommissioning activities will be bounded by appropriate previously issued environmental impact statements.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC shall notice receipt of the PSDAR and make the PSDAR available for public comment. The NRC shall also schedule a public meeting in the vicinity of the licensee's facility upon receipt of the PSDAR. The NRC shall publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, that is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, announcing the date, time and location of the meeting, along with a brief description of the purpose of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(e) Licensees shall not perform any major decommissioning activities, as defined in § 50.2 of this chapter, until 90 days after the NRC has received the licensee's PSDAR submittal and until certifications of permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, as required under § 52.110(a)(1), have been submitted.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees shall not perform any decommissioning activities, as defined in § 52.1, that—
</P>
<P>(1) Foreclose release of the site for possible unrestricted use;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in significant environmental impacts not previously reviewed; or
</P>
<P>(3) Result in there no longer being reasonable assurance that adequate funds will be available for decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(g) In taking actions permitted under § 50.59 of this chapter following submittal of the PSDAR, the licensee shall notify the NRC in writing and send a copy to the affected State(s), before performing any decommissioning activity inconsistent with, or making any significant schedule change from, those actions and schedules described in the PSDAR, including changes that significantly increase the decommissioning cost.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Decommissioning trust funds may be used by licensees if—
</P>
<P>(i) The withdrawals are for expenses for legitimate decommissioning activities consistent with the definition of decommissioning in § 52.1;
</P>
<P>(ii) The expenditure would not reduce the value of the decommissioning trust below an amount necessary to place and maintain the reactor in a safe storage condition if unforeseen conditions or expenses arise; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The withdrawals would not inhibit the ability of the licensee to complete funding of any shortfalls in the decommissioning trust needed to ensure the availability of funds to ultimately release the site and terminate the license.
</P>
<P>(2) Initially, 3 percent of the generic amount specified in § 50.75 of this chapter may be used for decommissioning planning. For licensees that have submitted the certifications required under § 52.110(a) and commencing 90 days after the NRC has received the PSDAR, an additional 20 percent may be used. A site-specific decommissioning cost estimate must be submitted to the NRC before the licensee may use any funding in excess of these amounts.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 2 years following permanent cessation of operations, if not already submitted, the licensee shall submit a site-specific decommissioning cost estimate.
</P>
<P>(4) For decommissioning activities that delay completion of decommissioning by including a period of storage or surveillance, the licensee shall provide a means of adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels over the storage or surveillance period.
</P>
<P>(i) All power reactor licensees must submit an application for termination of license. The application for termination of license must be accompanied or preceded by a license termination plan to be submitted for NRC approval.
</P>
<P>(1) The license termination plan must be a supplement to the FSAR or equivalent and must be submitted at least 2 years before termination of the license date.
</P>
<P>(2) The license termination plan must include—
</P>
<P>(i) A site characterization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of remaining dismantlement activities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Plans for site remediation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed plans for the final radiation survey;
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the end use of the site, if restricted;
</P>
<P>(vi) An updated site-specific estimate of remaining decommissioning costs;
</P>
<P>(vii) A supplement to the environmental report, under § 51.53 of this chapter, describing any new information or significant environmental change associated with the licensee's proposed termination activities; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Identification of parts, if any, of the facility or site that were released for use before approval of the license termination plan.
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC shall notice receipt of the license termination plan and make the license termination plan available for public comment. The NRC shall also schedule a public meeting in the vicinity of the licensee's facility upon receipt of the license termination plan. The NRC shall publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, which is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, announcing the date, time and location of the meeting, along with a brief description of the purpose of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(j) If the license termination plan demonstrates that the remainder of decommissioning activities will be performed in accordance with the regulations in this chapter, will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public, and will not have a significant effect on the quality of the environment and after notice to interested persons, the Commission shall approve the plan, by license amendment, subject to terms and conditions as it deems appropriate and necessary and authorize implementation of the license termination plan.
</P>
<P>(k) The Commission shall terminate the license if it determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) The remaining dismantlement has been performed in accordance with the approved license termination plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) The final radiation survey and associated documentation, including an assessment of dose contributions associated with parts released for use before approval of the license termination plan, demonstrate that the facility and site have met the criteria for decommissioning in subpart E to 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(l) For a facility that has permanently ceased operation before the expiration of its license, the collection period for any shortfall of funds will be determined, upon application by the licensee, on a case-by-case basis taking into account the specific financial situation of each licensee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 64353, Aug. 7, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Standard Design Approvals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.131" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.131   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets out procedures for the filing, NRC staff review, and referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards of standard designs for a nuclear power reactor of the type described in § 50.22 of this chapter or major portions thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.133" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.133   Relationship to other subparts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart applies to a person that requests a standard design approval from the NRC staff separately from an application for a construction permit filed under 10 CFR part 50 or a combined license filed under subpart C of this part. An applicant for a construction permit or combined license may reference a standard design approval.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of this part governs the certification by rulemaking of the design of a nuclear power plant. Subpart B may be used independently of the provisions in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart F of this part governs the issuance of licenses to manufacture nuclear power reactors to be installed and operated at sites not identified in the manufacturing license application. Subpart F of this part may be used independently of the provisions in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.135" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.135   Filing of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may submit a proposed standard design for a nuclear power reactor of the type described in 10 CFR 50.22 to the NRC staff for its review. The submittal may consist of either the final design for the entire facility or the final design of major portions thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) The submittal for review of the proposed standard design must be made in the same manner and in the same number of copies as provided in 10 CFR 50.30 and 52.3 for license applications.
</P>
<P>(c) The fees associated with the filing and review of the application are set forth in 10 CFR part 170.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.136" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.136   Contents of applications; general information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain all of the information required by 10 CFR 50.33(a) through (c) and (j).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 86 FR 67843, Nov. 30, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.137" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.137   Contents of applications; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>If the applicant seeks review of a major portion of a standard design, the application need only contain the information required by this section to the extent the requirements are applicable to the major portion of the standard design for which NRC staff approval is sought.
</P>
<P>(a) The application must contain a final safety analysis report that describes the facility, presents the design bases and the limits on its operation, and presents a safety analysis of the structures, systems, and components and of the facility, or major portion thereof, and must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The site parameters postulated for the design, and an analysis and evaluation of the design in terms of those site parameters;
</P>
<P>(2) A description and analysis of the SSCs of the facility, with emphasis upon performance requirements, the bases, with technical justification, upon which the requirements have been established, and the evaluations required to show that safety functions will be accomplished. It is expected that the standard plant will reflect through its design, construction, and operation an extremely low probability for accidents that could result in the release of significant quantities of radioactive fission products. The description shall be sufficient to permit understanding of the system designs and their relationship to the safety evaluations. Items such as the reactor core, reactor coolant system, instrumentation and control systems, electrical systems, containment system, other engineered safety features, auxiliary and emergency systems, power conversion systems, radioactive waste handling systems, and fuel handling systems shall be discussed insofar as they are pertinent. The following power reactor design characteristics will be taken into consideration by the Commission:
</P>
<P>(i) Intended use of the reactor including the proposed maximum power level and the nature and inventory of contained radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) The extent to which generally accepted engineering standards are applied to the design of the reactor;
</P>
<P>(iii) The extent to which the reactor incorporates unique, unusual or enhanced safety features having a significant bearing on the probability or consequences of accidental release of radioactive materials; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The safety features that are to be engineered into the facility and those barriers that must be breached as a result of an accident before a release of radioactive material to the environment can occur. Special attention must be directed to plant design features intended to mitigate the radiological consequences of accidents. In performing this assessment, an applicant shall assume a fission product release 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> from the core into the containment assuming that the facility is operated at the ultimate power level contemplated. The applicant shall perform an evaluation and analysis of the postulated fission product release, using the expected demonstrable containment leak rate and any fission product cleanup systems intended to mitigate the consequences of the accidents, together with applicable postulated site parameters, including site meteorology, to evaluate the offsite radiological consequences. The evaluation must determine that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The fission product release assumed for this evaluation should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events. These accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release into the containment of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2-hour period following the onset of the postulated fission product release, would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> total effective dose equivalent (TEDE); and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> A whole body dose of 25 rem has been stated to correspond numerically to the once in a lifetime accidental or emergency dose for radiation workers which, according to NCRP recommendations at the time could be disregarded in the determination of their radiation exposure status (see NBS Handbook 69 dated June 5, 1959). However, its use is not intended to imply that this number constitutes an acceptable limit for an emergency dose to the public under accident conditions. Rather, this dose value has been set forth in this section as a reference value, which can be used in the evaluation of plant design features with respect to postulated reactor accidents, to assure that these designs provide assurance of low risk of public exposure to radiation, in the event of an accident.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low population zone, who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem TEDE;
</P>
<P>(3) The design of the facility including:
</P>
<P>(i) The principal design criteria for the facility. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, general design criteria (GDC), establishes minimum requirements for the principal design criteria for water-cooled nuclear power plants similar in design and location to plants for which construction permits have previously been issued by the Commission and provides guidance to applicants in establishing principal design criteria for other types of nuclear power units;
</P>
<P>(ii) The design bases and the relation of the design bases to the principal design criteria; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Information relative to materials of construction, general arrangement, and approximate dimensions, sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the design will conform to the design bases with adequate margin for safety;
</P>
<P>(4) An analysis and evaluation of the design and performance of SSC with the objective of assessing the risk to public health and safety resulting from operation of the facility and including determination of the margins of safety during normal operations and transient conditions anticipated during the life of the facility, and the adequacy of SSCs provided for the prevention of accidents and the mitigation of the consequences of accidents. Analysis and evaluation of ECCS cooling performance and the need for high-point vents following postulated loss-of-coolant accidents shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.46 and 50.46a;
</P>
<P>(5) The kinds and quantities of radioactive materials expected to be produced in the operation and the means for controlling and limiting radioactive effluents and radiation exposures within the limits set forth in part 20 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) The information required by § 20.1406 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(7) The technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter;
</P>
<P>(8) The information necessary to demonstrate compliance with any technically relevant portions of the Three Mile Island requirements set forth in 10 CFR 50.34(f), except paragraphs (f)(1)(xii), (f)(2)(ix), and (f)(3)(v) of 10 CFR 50.34(f);
</P>
<P>(9) For applications for light-water-cooled nuclear power plants, an evaluation of the standard plant design against the Standard Review Plan (SRP) revision in effect 6 months before the docket date of the application. The evaluation required by this section shall include an identification and description of all differences in design features, analytical techniques, and procedural measures proposed for the design and those corresponding features, techniques, and measures given in the SRP acceptance criteria. Where a difference exists, the evaluation shall discuss how the proposed alternative provides an acceptable method of complying with the Commission's regulations, or portions thereof, that underlie the corresponding SRP acceptance criteria. The SRP is not a substitute for the regulations, and compliance is not a requirement;
</P>
<P>(10) The information with respect to the design of equipment to maintain control over radioactive materials in gaseous and liquid effluents produced during normal reactor operations described in 10 CFR 50.34a(e);
</P>
<P>(11) The information pertaining to design features that affect plans for coping with emergencies in the operation of the reactor facility or a major portion thereof;
</P>
<P>(12) An analysis and description of the equipment and systems for combustible gas control as required by § 50.44 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(13) The list of electric equipment important to safety that is required by 10 CFR 50.49(d);
</P>
<P>(14) A description of protection provided against pressurized thermal shock events, including projected values of the reference temperature for reactor vessel beltline materials as defined in 10 CFR 50.60 and 50.61;
</P>
<P>(15) Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for reduction of risk from anticipated transients without scram (ATWS) events in § 50.62;
</P>
<P>(16) The coping analysis, and any design features necessary to address station blackout, as described in § 50.63 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(17) Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for criticality accidents in § 50.68(b)(2)-(b)(4);
</P>
<P>(18) A description and analysis of the fire protection design features for the standard plant necessary to comply with part 50, appendix A, GDC 3, and § 50.48 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(19) A description of the quality assurance program applied to the design of the SSCs of the facility. Appendix B to 10 CFR part 50, “Quality Assurance Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants and Fuel Reprocessing Plants,” sets forth the requirements for quality assurance programs for nuclear power plants. The description of the quality assurance program for a nuclear power plant shall include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 were satisfied;
</P>
<P>(20) The information necessary to demonstrate that the standard plant complies with the earthquake engineering criteria in 10 CFR part 50, appendix S;
</P>
<P>(21) Proposed technical resolutions of those Unresolved Safety Issues and medium- and high-priority generic safety issues which are identified in the version of NUREG-0933 current on the date up to 6 months before the docket date of the application and which are technically relevant to the design;
</P>
<P>(22) The information necessary to demonstrate how operating experience insights have been incorporated into the plant design;
</P>
<P>(23) For light-water reactor designs, a description and analysis of design features for the prevention and mitigation of severe accidents, e.g., challenges to containment integrity caused by core-concrete interaction, steam explosion, high-pressure core melt ejection, hydrogen combustion, and containment bypass;
</P>
<P>(24) A description, analysis, and evaluation of the interfaces between the standard design and the balance of the nuclear power plant; and
</P>
<P>(25) A description of the design-specific probabilistic risk assessment and its results.
</P>
<P>(26) For applications for standard design approvals which are subject to 10 CFR 50.150(a), the information required by 10 CFR 50.150(b).
</P>
<P>(b) An application for approval of a standard design, which differs significantly from the light-water reactor designs of plants that have been licensed and in commercial operation before April 18, 1989, or uses simplified, inherent, passive, or other innovative means to accomplish its safety functions, must meet the requirements of 10 CFR 50.43(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 28147, June 12, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.139" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.139   Standards for review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications filed under this subpart will be reviewed for compliance with the standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 50 and its appendices, and 10 CFR parts 73 and 100.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.141" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.141   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS).</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS shall report on those portions of the application which concern safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.143" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.143   Staff approval of design.</HEAD>
<P>Upon completion of its review of a submittal under this subpart and receipt of a report by the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards under § 52.141 of this subpart, the NRC staff shall publish a determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as to whether or not the design is acceptable, subject to appropriate terms and conditions, and make an analysis of the design in the form of a report available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.145" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.145   Finality of standard design approvals; information requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An approved design must be used by and relied upon by the NRC staff and the ACRS in their review of any individual facility license application that incorporates by reference a standard design approved in accordance with this paragraph unless there exists significant new information that substantially affects the earlier determination or other good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) The determination and report by the NRC staff do not constitute a commitment to issue a permit or license, or in any way affect the authority of the Commission, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel, or presiding officers in any proceeding under part 2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Except for information requests seeking to verify compliance with the current licensing basis of the standard design approval, information requests to the holder of a standard design approval must be evaluated before issuance to ensure that the burden to be imposed on respondents is justified in view of the potential safety significance of the issue to be addressed in the requested information. Each evaluation performed by the NRC staff must be in accordance with 10 CFR 50.54(f) and must be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee before issuance of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.147" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.5.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.147   Duration of design approval.</HEAD>
<P>A standard design approval issued under this subpart is valid for 15 years from the date of issuance and may not be renewed. A design approval continues to be valid beyond the date of expiration in any proceeding on an application for a construction permit or an operating license under part 50 or a combined license or manufacturing license under part 52 that references the final design approval and is docketed before the date of expiration of the design approval.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Manufacturing Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.151" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.151   Scope of subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets out the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of a license authorizing manufacture of nuclear power reactors to be installed at sites not identified in the manufacturing license application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.153" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.153   Relationship to other subparts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A nuclear power reactor manufactured under a manufacturing license issued under this subpart may only be transported to and installed at a site for which either a construction permit under part 50 of this chapter or a combined license under subpart C of this part has been issued.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of this part governs the certification by rulemaking of the design of standard nuclear power facilities. Subpart E of this part governs the NRC staff review and approval of standard designs for a nuclear power facility. A manufacturing license applicant may reference a standard design certification or a standard design approval in its application. These subparts may also be used independently of the provisions in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.155" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.155   Filing of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person, except one excluded by 10 CFR 50.38, may file an application for a manufacturing license under this subpart with the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) The application must comply with the applicable filing requirements of §§ 52.3 and 50.30 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The fees associated with the filing and review of the application are set forth in 10 CFR part 170.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.156" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.156   Contents of applications; general information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain all of the information required by 10 CFR 50.33(a) through (d), and (j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.157" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.157   Contents of applications; technical information in final safety analysis report.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain a final safety analysis report containing the information set forth below, with a level of design information sufficient to enable the Commission to judge the applicant's proposed means of assuring that the manufacturing conforms to the design and to reach a final conclusion on all safety questions associated with the design, permit the preparation of construction and installation specifications by an applicant who seeks to use the manufactured reactor, and permit the preparation of acceptance and inspection requirements by the NRC:
</P>
<P>(a) The principal design criteria for the reactor to be manufactured. Appendix A of 10 CFR part 50, “General Design Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants,” establishes minimum requirements for the principal design criteria for water-cooled nuclear power plants similar in design and location to plants for which construction permits have previously been issued by the Commission and provides guidance to applicants in establishing principal design criteria for other types of nuclear power units;
</P>
<P>(b) The design bases and the relation of the design bases to the principal design criteria;
</P>
<P>(c) A description and analysis of the structures, systems, and components of the reactor to be manufactured, with emphasis upon the materials of manufacture, performance requirements, the bases, with technical justification therefor, upon which the performance requirements have been established, and the evaluations required to show that safety functions will be accomplished. The description shall be sufficient to permit understanding of the system designs and their relationship to safety evaluations. Items such as the reactor core, reactor coolant system, instrumentation and control systems, electrical systems, containment system, other engineered safety features, auxiliary and emergency systems, power conversion systems, radioactive waste handling systems, and fuel handling systems shall be discussed insofar as they are pertinent. The following power reactor design characteristics will be taken into consideration by the Commission:
</P>
<P>(1) Intended use of the manufactured reactor including the proposed maximum power level and the nature and inventory of contained radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which generally accepted engineering standards are applied to the design of the reactor; and
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the reactor incorporates unique, unusual or enhanced safety features having a significant bearing on the probability or consequences of accidental release of radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(d) The safety features that are engineered into the reactor and those barriers that must be breached as a result of an accident before a release of radioactive material to the environment can occur. Special attention must be directed to reactor design features intended to mitigate the radiological consequences of accidents. In performing this assessment, an applicant shall assume a fission product release 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> from the core into the containment assuming that the facility is operated at the ultimate power level contemplated. The applicant shall perform an evaluation and analysis of the postulated fission product release, using the expected demonstrable containment leak rate and any fission product cleanup systems intended to mitigate the consequences of the accidents, together with applicable postulated site parameters, including site meteorology, to evaluate the offsite radiological consequences. The evaluation must determine that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> The fission product release assumed for this evaluation should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events. These accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release into the containment of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2 hour period following the onset of the postulated fission product release, would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> total effective dose equivalent (TEDE);
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> A whole body dose of 25 rem has been stated to correspond numerically to the once in a lifetime accidental or emergency dose for radiation workers which, according to NCRP recommendations at the time could be disregarded in the determination of their radiation exposure status (see NBS Handbook 69 dated June 5, 1959). However, its use is not intended to imply that this number constitutes an acceptable limit for an emergency dose to the public under accident conditions. Rather, this dose value has been set forth in this section as a reference value, which can be used in the evaluation of plant design features with respect to postulated reactor accidents, to assure that these designs provide assurance of low risk of public exposure to radiation, in the event of an accident.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low population zone, who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem TEDE; and
</P>
<P>(e) The kinds and quantities of radioactive materials expected to be produced in the operation and the means for controlling and limiting radioactive effluents and radiation exposures within the limits set forth in part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) Information necessary to establish that the design of the reactor to be manufactured complies with the technical requirements in 10 CFR Chapter I, including:
</P>
<P>(1) An analysis and evaluation of the design and performance of structures, systems, and components with the objective of assessing the risk to public health and safety resulting from operation of the facility and including determination of the margins of safety during normal operations and transient conditions anticipated during the life of the facility, and the adequacy of structures, systems, and components provided for the prevention of accidents and the mitigation of the consequences of accidents. Analysis and evaluation of ECCS cooling performance and the need for high-point vents following postulated loss-of-coolant accidents shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of §§ 50.46 and 50.46a of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) A description and analysis of the fire protection design features for the reactor necessary to comply with 10 CFR part 50, appendix A, GDC 3 and § 50.48 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of protection provided against pressurized thermal shock events, including projected values of the reference temperature for reactor vessel beltline materials as defined in §§ 50.60 and 50.61 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(4) An analysis and description of the equipment and systems for combustible gas control as required by § 50.44 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) The coping analysis, and any design features necessary to address station blackout, as described in § 50.63 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) The list of electric equipment important to safety that is required by 10 CFR 50.49(d);
</P>
<P>(7) Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for reduction of risk from anticipated transients without scram (ATWS) events in § 50.62;
</P>
<P>(8) Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for criticality accidents in § 50.68(b)(2)-(b)(4);
</P>
<P>(9) The information required by § 20.1406 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(10) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(11) The information with respect to the design of equipment to maintain control over radioactive materials in gaseous and liquid effluents produced during normal reactor operations, as described in § 50.34a(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(12) The information necessary to demonstrate compliance with any technically relevant portions of the Three Mile Island requirements set forth in § 50.34(f) of this chapter, except paragraphs (f)(1)(xii), (f)(2)(ix), and (f)(3)(v);
</P>
<P>(13) If the applicant seeks to use risk-informed treatment of SSCs in accordance with § 50.69 of this chapter, the information required by § 50.69(b)(2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(14) The information necessary to demonstrate that the manufactured reactor complies with the earthquake engineering criteria in appendix S to 10 CFR part 50;
</P>
<P>(15) Information sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the applicable requirements regarding testing, analysis, and prototypes as set forth in § 50.43(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(16) The technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter;
</P>
<P>(17) A description of the quality assurance program applied to the design, and to be applied to the manufacture of, the structures, systems, and components of the reactor. Appendix B to 10 CFR part 50, “Quality Assurance Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants and Fuel Reprocessing Plants,” sets forth the requirements for quality assurance programs for nuclear power plants. The description of the quality assurance program must include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B to 10 CFR part 50 have been and will be satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(18) Proposed technical specifications applicable to the reactor being manufactured, prepared in accordance with the requirements of §§ 50.36 and 50.36a of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(19) The site parameters postulated for the design, and an analysis and evaluation of the reactor design in terms of those site parameters;
</P>
<P>(20) The interface requirements between the manufactured reactor and the remaining portions of the nuclear power plant. These requirements must be sufficiently detailed to allow for completion of the final safety analysis;
</P>
<P>(21) Justification that compliance with the interface requirements of paragraph (f)(20) of this section is verifiable through inspections, testing, or analysis. The method to be used for verification of interface requirements must be included as part of the proposed ITAAC required by § 52.158(a);
</P>
<P>(22) A representative conceptual design for a nuclear power facility using the manufactured reactor, to aid the NRC in its review of the final safety analysis required by this section and to permit assessment of the adequacy of the interface requirements in paragraph (f)(20) of this section;
</P>
<P>(23) For light-water reactor designs, a description and analysis of design features for the prevention and mitigation of severe accidents, e.g., challenges to containment integrity caused by core-concrete interaction, steam explosion, high-pressure core melt ejection, hydrogen combustion, and containment bypass;
</P>
<P>(24) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(25) If the reactor is to be used in modular plant design, a description of the possible operating configurations of the reactor modules with common systems, interface requirements, and system interactions. The final safety analysis must also account for differences among the configurations, including any restrictions that will be necessary during the construction and startup of a given module to ensure the safe operation of any module already operating;
</P>
<P>(26) A description of the management plan for design and manufacturing activities, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The organizational and management structure singularly responsible for direction of design and manufacture of the reactor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Technical resources directed by the applicant, and the qualifications requirements;
</P>
<P>(iii) Details of the interaction of design and manufacture within the applicant's organization and the manner by which the applicant will ensure close integration of the architect engineer and the nuclear steam supply vendor, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(iv) Proposed procedures governing the preparation of the manufactured reactor for shipping to the site where it is to be operated, the conduct of shipping, and verifying the condition of the manufactured reactor upon receipt at the site; and
</P>
<P>(v) The degree of top level management oversight and technical control to be exercised by the applicant during design and manufacture, including the preparation and implementation of procedures necessary to guide the effort;
</P>
<P>(27) Necessary parameters to be used in developing plans for preoperational testing and initial operation;
</P>
<P>(28) Proposed technical resolutions of those Unresolved Safety Issues and medium- and high-priority generic safety issues which are identified in the version of NUREG-0933 current on the date up to 6 months before the docket date of the application and which are technically relevant to the design;
</P>
<P>(29) The information necessary to demonstrate how operating experience insights have been incorporated into the manufactured reactor design;
</P>
<P>(30) For applications for light-water-cooled nuclear power plants, an evaluation of the design to be manufactured against the Standard Review Plan (SRP) revision in effect 6 months before the docket date of the application. The evaluation required by this section shall include an identification and description of all differences in design features, analytical techniques, and procedural measures proposed for the design and those corresponding features, techniques, and measures given in the SRP acceptance criteria. Where a difference exists, the evaluation shall discuss how the proposed alternative provides an acceptable method of complying with the Commission's regulations, or portions thereof, that underlie the corresponding SRP acceptance criteria. The SRP is not a substitute for the regulations, and compliance is not a requirement; and
</P>
<P>(31) A description of the design-specific probabilistic risk assessment and its results.
</P>
<P>(32) For applications for manufacturing licenses which are subject to 10 CFR 50.150(a), the information required by 10 CFR 50.150(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 28147, June 12, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.158" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.158   Contents of application; additional technical information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC).</I> The proposed inspections, tests, and analyses that the licensee who will be operating the reactor shall perform, and the acceptance criteria that are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met:
</P>
<P>(i) The reactor has been manufactured in conformity with the manufacturing license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The manufactured reactor will be operated in conformity with the approved design and any license authorizing operation of the manufactured reactor.
</P>
<P>(2) If the application references a standard design certification, the ITAAC contained in the certified design must apply to those portions of the facility design which are covered by the design certification.
</P>
<P>(3) If the application references a standard design certification, the application may include a notification that a required inspection, test, or analysis in the design certification ITAAC has been successfully completed and that the corresponding acceptance criterion has been met. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notification required by § 52.163 must indicate that the application includes this notification.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An environmental report as required by 10 CFR 51.54.
</P>
<P>(2) If the manufacturing license application references a standard design certification, the environmental report need not contain a discussion of severe accident mitigation design alternatives for the reactor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 57721, July 16, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.159" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.159   Standards for review of application.</HEAD>
<P>Applications filed under this subpart will be reviewed according to the applicable standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 50 and its appendices, 51, 73, and 100 and its appendices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.161" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.161   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.163" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.163   Administrative review of applications; hearings.</HEAD>
<P>A proceeding on a manufacturing license is subject to all applicable procedural requirements contained in 10 CFR part 2, including the requirements for docketing in § 2.101(a)(1) through (4) of this chapter, and the requirements for issuance of a notice of proposed action in § 2.105 of this chapter, <I>provided, however,</I> that the designated sections may not be construed to require that the environmental report or draft or final environmental impact statement include an assessment of the benefits of constructing and/or operating the manufactured reactor or an evaluation of alternative energy sources. All hearings on manufacturing licenses are governed by the hearing procedures contained in 10 CFR part 2, subparts C, E, G, L, and N.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 78 FR 34249, June 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.165" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.165   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS).</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS shall report on those portions of the application which concern safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.167" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.167   Issuance of manufacturing license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After completing any hearing under § 52.163, and receiving the report submitted by the ACRS, the Commission may issue a manufacturing license if the Commission finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) Applicable standards and requirements of the Act and the Commission's regulations have been met;
</P>
<P>(2) There is reasonable assurance that the reactor(s) will be manufactured, and can be transported, incorporated into a nuclear power plant, and operated in conformity with the manufacturing license, the provision of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed reactor(s) can be incorporated into a nuclear power plant and operated at sites having characteristics that fall within the site parameters postulated for the design of the manufactured reactor(s) without undue risk to the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant is technically qualified to design and manufacture the proposed nuclear power reactor(s);
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria are necessary and sufficient, within the scope of the manufacturing license, to provide reasonable assurance that the manufactured reactor has been manufactured and will be operated in conformity with the license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) The issuance of a license to the applicant will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public; and
</P>
<P>(7) The findings required by subpart A of part 51 of this chapter have been made.
</P>
<P>(b) Each manufacturing license issued under this subpart shall specify:
</P>
<P>(1) Terms and conditions as the Commission deems necessary and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) Technical specifications for operation of the manufactured reactor, as the Commission deems necessary and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(3) Site parameters and design characteristics for the manufactured reactor; and
</P>
<P>(4) The interface requirements to be met by the site-specific elements of the facility, such as the service water intake structure and the ultimate heat sink, not within the scope of the manufactured reactor.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A holder of a manufacturing license may not transport or allow to be removed from the place of manufacture the manufactured reactor except to the site of a licensee with either a construction permit under part 50 of this chapter or a combined license under subpart C of this part. The construction permit or combined license must authorize the construction of a nuclear power facility using the manufactured reactor(s).
</P>
<P>(2) A holder of a manufacturing license shall include, in any contract governing the transport of a manufactured reactor from the place of manufacture to any other location, a provision requiring that the person or entity transporting the manufactured reactor to comply with all NRC-approved shipping requirements in the manufacturing license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.169" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.171" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.171   Finality of manufacturing licenses; information requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Notwithstanding any provision in 10 CFR 50.109, during the term of a manufacturing license the Commission may not modify, rescind, or impose new requirements on the design of the nuclear power reactor being manufactured, or the requirements for the manufacture of the nuclear power reactor, unless the Commission determines that a modification is necessary to bring the design of the reactor or its manufacture into compliance with the Commission's requirements applicable and in effect at the time the manufacturing license was issued, or to provide reasonable assurance of adequate protection to public health and safety or common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(2) Any modification to the design of a manufactured nuclear power reactor which is imposed by the Commission under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be applied to all reactors manufactured under the license, including those that have already been transported and sited, except those reactors to which the modification has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In making the findings required for issuance of a construction permit, operating license, combined license, in any hearing under § 52.103, or in any enforcement hearing other than one initiated by the Commission under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, for which a nuclear power reactor manufactured under this subpart is referenced or used, the Commission shall treat as resolved those matters resolved in the proceeding on the application for issuance or renewal of the manufacturing license, including the adequacy of design of the manufactured reactor, the costs and benefits of severe accident mitigation design alternatives, and the bases for not incorporating severe accident mitigation design alternatives into the design of the reactor to be manufactured.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The holder of a manufacturing license may not make changes to the design of the nuclear power reactor authorized to be manufactured without prior Commission approval. The request for a change to the design must be in the form of an application for a license amendment, and must meet the requirements of 10 CFR 50.90 and 50.92.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant or licensee who references or uses a nuclear power reactor manufactured under a manufacturing license under this subpart may request a departure from the design characteristics, site parameters, terms and conditions, or approved design of the manufactured reactor. The Commission may grant a request only if it determines that the departure will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.7, and that the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the departure. The granting of a departure on request of an applicant is subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues in the construction permit or combined license hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) Except for information requests seeking to verify compliance with the current licensing basis of either the manufacturing license or the manufactured reactor, information requests to the holder of a manufacturing license or an applicant or licensee using a manufactured reactor must be evaluated before issuance to ensure that the burden to be imposed on respondents is justified in view of the potential safety significance of the issue to be addressed in the requested information. Each evaluation performed by the NRC staff must be in accordance with 10 CFR 50.54(f) and must be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee before issuance of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.173" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.173   Duration of manufacturing license.</HEAD>
<P>A manufacturing license issued under this subpart may be valid for not less than 5, nor more than 15 years from the date of issuance. A holder of a manufacturing license may not initiate the manufacture of a reactor less than 3 years before the expiration of the license even though a timely application for renewal has been docketed with the NRC. Upon expiration of the manufacturing license, the manufacture of any uncompleted reactors must cease unless a timely application for renewal has been docketed with the NRC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.175" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.175   Transfer of manufacturing license.</HEAD>
<P>A manufacturing license may be transferred in accordance with § 50.80 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.177" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.177   Application for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not less than 12 months, nor more than 5 years before the expiration of the manufacturing license, or any later renewal period, the holder of the manufacturing license may apply for a renewal of the license. An application for renewal must contain all information necessary to bring up to date the information and data contained in the previous application.
</P>
<P>(b) The filing of an application for a renewed license must be in accordance with subpart A of 10 CFR part 2 and 10 CFR 52.3 and 50.30.
</P>
<P>(c) A manufacturing license, either original or renewed, for which a timely application for renewal has been filed, remains in effect until the Commission has made a final determination on the renewal application, <I>provided, however,</I> that in accordance with § 52.173, the holder of a manufacturing license may not begin manufacture of a reactor less than 3 years before the expiration of the license.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person whose interest may be affected by renewal of the license may request a hearing on the application for renewal. The request for a hearing must comply with 10 CFR 2.309. If a hearing is granted, notice of the hearing will be published in accordance with 10 CFR 2.104.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission shall refer a copy of the application for renewal to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS). The ACRS shall report on those portions of the application which concern safety and shall apply the criteria set forth in § 52.159.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 89 FR 57721, July 16, 2024] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.179" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.179   Criteria for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may grant the renewal if the Commission determines:
</P>
<P>(a) The manufacturing license complies with the Atomic Energy Act and the Commission's regulations and orders applicable and in effect at the time the manufacturing license was originally issued; and
</P>
<P>(b) Any new requirements the Commission may wish to impose are:
</P>
<P>(1) Necessary for adequate protection to public health and safety or common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(2) Necessary for compliance with the Commission's regulations and orders applicable and in effect at the time the manufacturing license was originally issued; or
</P>
<P>(3) A substantial increase in overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the new requirements, and the direct and indirect costs of implementation of those requirements are justified in view of this increased protection.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.181" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.6.62.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.181   Duration of renewal.</HEAD>
<P>A renewed manufacturing license may be issued for a term of not less than 5, nor more than 15 years, plus any remaining years on the manufacturing license then in effect before renewal. The renewed license shall be subject to the requirements of §§ 52.171 and 52.175.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.301" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.301   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued under those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any regulation, or order issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under Section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.303" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.303   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under Sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of Section 223, all the regulations in part 52 are issued under one or more of Sections 161b, 161i, or 160o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 52 that are not issued under Sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of Section 223 are as follows: §§ 52.0, 52.1, 52.2, 52.3, 52.7, 52.8, 52.9, 52.10, 52.11, 52.12, 52.13, 52.15, 52.16, 52.17, 52.18, 52.21, 52.23, 52.24, 52.26 52.28, 52.29, 52.31, 52.33, 52.39, 52.41, 52.43, 52.45, 52.46, 52.47, 52.48, 52.51, 52.53, 52.54, 52.55, 52.57, 52.59, 52.61, 52.63, 52.71, 52.73, 52.75, 52.77, 52.79, 52.80, 52.81, 52.83, 52.85, 52.87, 52.93, 52.97, 52.98, 52.103, 52.104, 52.105, 52.107, 52.109, 52.131, 52.133, 52.135, 52.136, 52.137, 52.139, 52.141, 52.143, 52.145, 52.147, 52.151, 52.153, 52.155, 52.156, 52.157, 52.158, 52.159, 52.161, 52.163, 52.165, 52.167, 52.171, 52.173, 52.175, 52.177, 52.179, 52.181, 52.301, and 52.303.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 52—Design Certification Rule for the U.S. Advanced Boiling Water Reactor




</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Appendix A constitutes the renewed standard design certification for the U.S. Advanced Boiling Water Reactor (U.S. ABWR) design, in accordance with 10 CFR part 52, subpart B. The applicant for certification of the U.S. ABWR design is General Electric-Hitachi Nuclear Energy Americas, LLC (GEH).
</P>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Generic design control document (generic DCD)</I> means the document containing the Tier 1 and Tier 2 information and generic technical specifications that is incorporated by reference into this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Generic technical specifications (generic TS)</I> means the information required by §§ 50.36 and 50.36a of this chapter for the portion of the plant that is within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Plant-specific DCD</I> means that portion of the combined license (COL) final safety analysis report (FSAR) that sets forth both the generic DCD information and any plant-specific changes to generic DCD information.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Tier 1</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved and certified by this appendix (Tier 1 information). The design descriptions, interface requirements, and site parameters are derived from Tier 2 information. Tier 1 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Definitions and general provisions;
</P>
<P>2. Design descriptions;
</P>
<P>3. Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC);
</P>
<P>4. Significant site parameters; and
</P>
<P>5. Significant interface requirements.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Tier 2</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved but not certified by this appendix (Tier 2 information). Compliance with Tier 2 is required, but generic changes to and plant-specific departures from Tier 2 are governed by Section VIII of this appendix. Compliance with Tier 2 provides a sufficient, but not the only acceptable, method for complying with Tier 1. Compliance methods differing from Tier 2 must satisfy the change process in Section VIII of this appendix. Regardless of these differences, an applicant or licensee must meet the requirement in paragraph III.B of this appendix to reference Tier 2 when referencing Tier 1. Tier 2 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Information required by § 52.47(a) and (c), with the exception of generic TS and conceptual design information;
</P>
<P>2. Supporting information on the inspections, tests, and analyses that will be performed to demonstrate that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC have been met; and
</P>
<P>3. COL action items (COL license information), which identify certain matters that must be addressed in the site-specific portion of the FSAR by an applicant who references this appendix. These items constitute information requirements but are not the only acceptable set of information in the FSAR. An applicant may depart from or omit these items, provided that the departure or omission is identified and justified in the FSAR. After issuance of a COL, these items are not requirements for the licensee unless such items are restated in the FSAR.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Tier 2*</I> means the portion of the Tier 2 information, designated as such in the generic DCD, which is subject to the change process in paragraph VIII.B.6 of this appendix. This designation expires for some Tier 2* information under paragraph VIII.B.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses</I> means:
</P>
<P>1. Changing any of the elements of the method described in the plant-specific DCD unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>2. Changing from a method described in the plant-specific DCD to another method unless that method has been approved by the NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>H. All other terms in this appendix have the meaning set out in § 50.2 of this chapter, § 52.1, or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, as applicable.
</P>
<HD1>III. Scope and Contents
</HD1>
<P>A. Incorporation by reference approval. The ABWR material identified in paragraph III.A.1 of this section is approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies of the generic DCD, including the generic technical specifications, and the two GEH technical reports (NEDO-33875 and NEDO-33878) from Michelle Catts, Senior Vice President, Regulatory Affairs, General Electric-Hitachi Nuclear Energy Americas, LLC, 3901 Castle Hayne Road, P.O. Box 780, M/C A10, Wilmington, NC 28402. You can view the generic DCD, including the generic technical specifications, and the two GEH technical reports (NEDO-33875 and NEDO-33878) online in the NRC Library at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</I> In ADAMS, search under ADAMS Accession No. ML20093K254 to obtain the generic DCD, ADAMS Accession No. ML17059C523 to obtain GEH technical report NEDO-33875, and ADAMS Accession No. ML18092A306 to obtain GEH technical report NEDO-33878. If you do not have access to ADAMS or if you have problems accessing documents located in ADAMS, contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-3747, or by email at <I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> Copies of the ABWR materials are available in the ADAMS Public Documents Collection. All approved material is available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email <I>fedreg.legal@nara.gov</I> or go to <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>1. General Electric-Hitachi Nuclear Energy Americas, LLC
</P>
<P>a. ABWR Design Control Document Tier 1 (25A5675AA), Revision 7 (October 2019).
</P>
<P>b. ABWR Design Control Document Tier 2 (25A5675AB), Revision 7 (October 2019).
</P>
<P>c. Technical Report NEDO-33875, ABWR US Certified Design—Aircraft Impact Assessment, Licensing Basis Information and Design Details for Key Design Features, Rev. 3 (M170049) (February 2017).
</P>
<P>d. Licensing Technical Report NEDO-33878, ABWR ECCS Suction Strainer Evaluation of Long-Term Recirculation Capability, Rev. 3 (M180068) (March 2018).
</P>
<P>B. An applicant or licensee referencing this appendix, in accordance with Section IV of this appendix, shall incorporate by reference and comply with the requirements of this appendix except as otherwise provided in this appendix. Conceptual design information, as set forth in the generic DCD, the “Technical Support Document for the ABWR,” and the “Amendment to Technical Support Document for the ABWR,” are not part of this appendix. Tier 2 references to the probabilistic risk assessment (PRA) in the U.S. ABWR DCD Tier 2 Chapter 19 do not incorporate the PRA into Tier 2.
</P>
<P>C. If there is a conflict between Tier 1 and Tier 2 of the DCD, then Tier 1 controls.
</P>
<P>D. If there is a conflict between the generic DCD and either the application for the design certification renewal of the U.S. ABWR design or the NUREG-1503, “Final Safety Evaluation Report Related to Certification of the ABWR Standard Design”; NUREG-1503, Supplement 1; and NUREG-1503, Supplement 2, then the generic DCD controls.
</P>
<P>E. Design activities for structures, systems, and components that are wholly outside the scope of this appendix may be performed using site characteristics, provided the design activities do not affect the DCD or conflict with the interface requirements.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Additional Requirements and Restrictions
</HD1>
<P>A. An applicant for a COL that wishes to reference this appendix shall, in addition to complying with the requirements of §§ 52.77, 52.79, and 52.80, comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>1. Incorporate by reference, as part of its application, this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. Include, as part of its application:
</P>
<P>a. A plant-specific DCD containing the same type of information and using the same organization and numbering as the generic DCD for the U.S. ABWR design, either by including or incorporating by reference the generic DCD information, and as modified and supplemented by the applicant's exemptions and departures;
</P>
<P>b. The reports on departures from and updates to the plant-specific DCD required by paragraph X.B of this appendix;
</P>
<P>c. Plant-specific TS, consisting of the generic and site-specific TS that are required by §§ 50.36 and 50.36a of this chapter;
</P>
<P>d. Information demonstrating that the site characteristics fall within the site parameters and that the interface requirements have been met;
</P>
<P>e. Information that addresses the COL action items; and
</P>
<P>f. Information required by § 52.47(a) that is not within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. Include, in the plant-specific DCD, the sensitive, unclassified, non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information referenced in the U.S. ABWR generic DCD.
</P>
<P>4. Include, as part of its application, a demonstration that an entity other than GEH is qualified to supply the U.S. ABWR design, unless GEH supplies the design for the applicant's use.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission reserves the right to determine in what manner this appendix may be referenced by an applicant for a construction permit or operating license under 10 CFR part 50.
</P>
<HD1>V. Applicable Regulations
</HD1>
<P>A.1. Except as indicated in paragraphs A.2 and A.3 and B of this section, the regulations that apply to the U.S. ABWR design are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 52, 73, and 100, codified as of May 2, 1997, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the final safety evaluation report (NUREG-1503); NUREG-1503, Supplement 1; and as described in NUREG-1503, Supplement 2, for renewal modifications except as it pertains to addressing compliance with § 50.150 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>2. Except as indicated in paragraphs A.1 and A.3 and B of this section, the regulations that apply to the U.S. ABWR design are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 52, 73, and 100, codified as of September 29, 2021, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in NUREG-1503, Supplement 2, for renewal amendments.
</P>
<P>3. Except as indicated in paragraphs A.1 and A.2 and B of this section, the regulations in § 50.150 of this chapter, codified as of September 29, 2021, apply to the U.S. ABWR design, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in NUREG-1503, Supplement 2.
</P>
<P>B. The U.S. ABWR design is exempt from portions of the following regulations:
</P>
<P>1. Paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of 10 CFR 50.34—Plant Safety Parameter Display Console—codified as of May 2, 1997;
</P>
<P>2. Paragraph (f)(2)(viii) of 10 CFR 50.34—Post-Accident Sampling for Boron, Chloride, and Dissolved Gases—codified as of May 2, 1997; and
</P>
<P>3. Paragraph (f)(3)(iv) of 10 CFR 50.34—Dedicated Containment Penetration—codified as of May 2, 1997.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Issue Resolution
</HD1>
<P>A. The Commission has determined that the structures, systems, and components and design features of the U.S. ABWR design comply with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the applicable regulations identified in Section V of this appendix; and therefore, provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public. A conclusion that a matter is resolved includes the finding that additional or alternative structures, systems, and components, design features, design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justifications are not necessary for the U.S. ABWR design.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission considers the following matters resolved within the meaning of § 52.63(a)(5) in subsequent proceedings for issuance of a COL, amendment of a COL, or renewal of a COL, proceedings held under § 52.103, and enforcement proceedings involving plants referencing this appendix:
</P>
<P>1. All nuclear safety issues associated with the information in the final safety evaluation reports (NUREG-1503; NUREG-1503, Supplement 1; and NUREG-1503, Supplement 2), Tier 1, Tier 2, and the rulemaking records for original certification and renewal of the U.S. ABWR design, with the exception of generic TS and other operational requirements;
</P>
<P>2. All nuclear safety and safeguards issues associated with the referenced information in the 85 public and non-public documents in Tables 1.6-1 and 1.6-2 of Tier 2 of the generic DCD, or other referenced documents, which, in context, are intended as requirements in the generic DCD for the U.S. ABWR design;
</P>
<P>3. All generic changes to the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraphs VIII.A.1 and VIII.B.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>4. All exemptions from the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraphs VIII.A.4 and VIII.B.4 of this appendix, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>5. All departures from the DCD that are approved by license amendment, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>6. Except as provided in paragraph VIII.B.5.f of this appendix, all departures from Tier 2 under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix that do not require prior NRC approval, but only for that plant; and
</P>
<P>7. All environmental issues concerning severe accident mitigation design alternatives associated with the information in the NRC's environmental assessment for the U.S. ABWR design (ADAMS Accession No. ML21147A381) and GEH's supplemental evaluation of various severe accident mitigation design alternatives to prevent and mitigate severe accidents in “Amendment to Technical Support Document for the ABWR” (ADAMS Accession No. ML110040178), which updates information in the original “Technical Support Document for the ABWR” (ADAMS Accession No. ML100210563) for plants referencing this appendix whose averted risk person-rem value for each severe accident mitigation design alternative is less than or equal to the averted risk person-rem value for that severe accident mitigation design alternative provided in Table 5 of the original technical support document.
</P>
<P>C. The Commission does not consider operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to be matters resolved within the meaning of § 52.63(a)(5). The Commission reserves the right to require operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix by rule, regulation, order, or license condition.
</P>
<P>D. Except under the change processes in Section VIII of this appendix, the Commission may not require an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to:
</P>
<P>1. Modify structures, systems, components, or design features as described in the generic DCD;
</P>
<P>2. Provide additional or alternative structures, systems, components, or design features not discussed in the generic DCD; or
</P>
<P>3. Provide additional or alternative design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justification for structures, systems, components, or design features discussed in the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>E. The NRC will specify, at an appropriate time, the procedures to be used by an interested person who wishes to review portions of the DC or references containing safeguards information or sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information, such as trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that are privileged or confidential (§ 2.390 of this chapter and 10 CFR part 9), and security-related information), for the purpose of participating in the hearing required by § 52.85, the hearing provided under § 52.103, or in any other proceeding relating to this appendix, in which interested persons have a right to request an adjudicatory hearing.




</P>
<HD1>VII. Duration of this Appendix
</HD1>
<P>This appendix may be referenced for a period of 40 years from September 29, 2021, except as provided for in §§ 52.55(b) and 52.57(b). This appendix remains valid for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix until the application is withdrawn, or the license expires or is terminated by the NRC, including any period of extended operation under a renewed license.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Processes for Changes and Departures
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Tier 1 Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraph A.3 or A.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. Departures from Tier 1 information that are required by the Commission through plant-specific orders are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(4).
</P>
<P>4. Exemptions from Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in §§ 52.63(b)(1) and 52.98(f). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 1, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
</P>
<HD2>B. Tier 2 Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraph B.3, B.4, or B.5, of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may not require new requirements on Tier 2 information by plant-specific order, while this appendix is in effect under § 52.55 or § 52.61, unless:
</P>
<P>a. A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix, or to ensure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>b. Special circumstances as defined in § 50.12(a) of this chapter are present.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may request an exemption from Tier 2 information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of § 50.12(a) of this chapter. The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 2, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design. The granting of an exemption to an applicant must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing. The granting of an exemption to a licensee must be subject to an opportunity for a hearing in the same manner as license amendments.
</P>
<P>5.a. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may depart from Tier 2 information, without prior NRC approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to or departure from Tier 1 information, Tier 2* information, or the TS, or requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section. When evaluating the proposed departure, an applicant or licensee shall consider all matters described in the plant-specific DCD.
</P>
<P>b. A proposed departure from Tier 2, other than one affecting resolution of a severe accident issue identified in the plant-specific DCD or one affecting information required by § 52.47(a)(28) to address aircraft impacts, requires a license amendment if it would:
</P>
<P>(1) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety and previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(3) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(5) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(6) Create a possibility for a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety with a different result than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(7) Result in a design-basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the plant-specific DCD being exceeded or altered; or
</P>
<P>(8) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.
</P>
<P>c. A proposed departure from Tier 2, affecting resolution of an ex-vessel severe accident design feature identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a substantial increase in the probability of an ex-vessel severe accident such that a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed and determined to be not credible could become credible; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a substantial increase in the consequences to the public of a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed.
</P>
<P>d. A proposed departure from Tier 2 information required by § 52.47(a)(28) to address aircraft impacts shall consider the effect of the changed design feature or functional capability on the original aircraft impact assessment required by § 50.150(a) of this chapter. The applicant or licensee shall describe, in the plant-specific DCD, how the modified design features and functional capabilities continue to meet the aircraft impact assessment requirements in § 50.150(a)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>e. If a departure requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section, it is governed by § 50.90 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>f. A departure from Tier 2 information that is made under paragraph B.5 of this section does not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>g. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under § 52.103(a), who believes that an applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not complied with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix when departing from Tier 2 information, may petition to admit into the proceeding such a contention. In addition to complying with the general requirements of § 2.309 of this chapter, the petition must demonstrate that the departure does not comply with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix. Further, the petition must demonstrate that the change bears on an asserted noncompliance with an ITAAC acceptance criterion in the case of a § 52.103 preoperational hearing, or that the change bears directly on the amendment request in the case of a hearing on a license amendment. Any other party may file a response. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. The Commission may admit such a contention if it determines the petition raises a genuine issue of material fact regarding compliance with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6.a. An applicant who references this appendix may not depart from Tier 2* information, which is designated with brackets, italicized text, and an asterisk in the generic DCD, without NRC approval. The departure will not be considered a resolved issue, within the meaning of Section VI of this appendix and § 52.63(a)(5).
</P>
<P>b. A licensee who references this appendix may not depart from the following Tier 2* matters without prior NRC approval. A request for a departure will be treated as a request for a license amendment under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>(1) Fuel burnup limit (4.2).
</P>
<P>(2) Fuel design evaluation (4.2.3).
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel licensing acceptance criteria (Appendix 4B).
</P>
<P>c. A licensee who references this appendix may not, before the plant first achieves full power following the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), depart from the following Tier 2* matters except in accordance with paragraph B.6.b of this section. After the plant first achieves full power, the following Tier 2* matters revert to Tier 2 status and are thereafter subject to the departure provisions in paragraph B.5 of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) ASME Boiler &amp; Pressure Vessel Code, Section III.
</P>
<P>(2) ACI 349 and ANSI/AISC N-690.
</P>
<P>(3) Motor-operated valves.
</P>
<P>(4) Equipment seismic qualification methods.
</P>
<P>(5) Piping design acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(6) Fuel system and assembly design (4.2), except burnup limit.
</P>
<P>(7) Nuclear design (4.3).
</P>
<P>(8) Equilibrium cycle and control rod patterns (Appendix 4A).
</P>
<P>(9) Control rod licensing acceptance criteria (Appendix 4C).
</P>
<P>(10) Instrument setpoint methodology.
</P>
<P>(11) EMS performance specifications and architecture.
</P>
<P>(12) SSLC hardware and software qualification.
</P>
<P>(13) Self-test system design testing features and commitments.
</P>
<P>(14) Human factors engineering design and implementation process.
</P>
<P>d. Departures from Tier 2* information that are made under paragraph B.6 of this section do not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>C. Operational Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. Changes to U.S. ABWR DC generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved in the design certification rulemaking and do not require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in § 50.109 of this chapter. Changes that require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in paragraph A or B of this section.
</P>
<P>2. Changes to U.S. ABWR DC generic TS and other operational requirements are applicable to all applicants who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraph C.3 or C.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may require plant-specific departures on generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required and special circumstances, as defined in § 2.335 of this chapter are present. The Commission may modify or supplement generic TS and other operational requirements that were not completely reviewed and approved or require additional TS and other operational requirements on a plant-specific basis, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant who references this appendix may request an exemption from the generic TS or other operational requirements. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of § 52.7. The granting of an exemption must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing.
</P>
<P>5. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license, or for operation under § 52.103(a), who believes that an operational requirement approved in the DCD or a TS derived from the generic TS must be changed, may petition to admit such a contention into the proceeding. The petition must comply with the general requirements of § 2.309 of this chapter and must either demonstrate why special circumstances as defined in § 2.335 of this chapter are present or demonstrate that the proposed change is necessary for compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect, as set forth in Section V of this appendix. Any other party may file a response to the petition. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. All other issues with respect to the plant-specific TS or other operational requirements are subject to a hearing as part of the licensing proceeding.
</P>
<P>6. After issuance of a license, the generic TS have no further effect on the plant-specific TS. Changes to the plant-specific TS will be treated as license amendments under § 50.90 of this chapter.
</P>
<HD1>IX. [Reserved]
</HD1>
<HD1>X. Records and Reporting
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Records
</HD2>
<P>1. The applicant for this appendix shall maintain a copy of the generic DCD that includes all generic changes that are made to Tier 1 and Tier 2, and the generic TS and other operational requirements. The applicant shall maintain the sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information referenced in the generic DCD for the period that this appendix may be referenced, as specified in Section VII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain the plant-specific DCD to accurately reflect both generic changes to the generic DCD and plant-specific departures made under Section VIII of this appendix throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<P>3. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall prepare and maintain written evaluations which provide the bases for the determinations required by Section VIII of this appendix. These evaluations must be retained throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<P>4.a. The applicant for the U.S. ABWR design shall maintain a copy of the aircraft impact assessment performed to comply with the requirements of § 50.150(a) of this chapter for the term of the certification (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<P>b. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain a copy of the aircraft impact assessment performed to comply with the requirements of § 50.150(a) of this chapter throughout the pendency of the application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<HD2>B. Reporting
</HD2>
<P>1. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit a report to the NRC containing a brief description of any plant-specific departures from the DCD, including a summary of the evaluation of each departure. This report must be filed in accordance with the filing requirements applicable to reports in § 52.3.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit updates to its plant-specific DCD, which reflect the generic changes to and plant-specific departures from the generic DCD made under Section VIII of this appendix. These updates shall be filed under the filing requirements applicable to final safety analysis report updates in §§ 50.71(e) of this chapter and 52.3.
</P>
<P>3. The reports and updates required by paragraphs X.B.1 and X.B.2 of this appendix must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>a. On the date that an application for a license referencing this appendix is submitted, the application must include the report and any updates to the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>b. During the interval from the date of application for a license to the date the Commission makes its finding required by § 52.103(g) of this chapter, the report must be submitted semi-annually. Updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted annually and may be submitted along with amendments to the application.
</P>
<P>c. After the Commission makes the finding required by § 52.103(g), the reports and updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted, along with updates to the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report for the facility, at the intervals required by §§ 50.59(d)(2) and 50.71(e)(4) of this chapter, respectively, or at shorter intervals as specified in the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 34932, July 1, 2021, as amended at 90 FR 28873, July 2, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 52—Design Certification Rule for the System 80 + Design
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Appendix B constitutes design certification for the System 80 + 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> standard plant design, in accordance with 10 CFR part 52, subpart B. The applicant for certification of the System 80 + design was Combustion Engineering, Inc. (ABB-CE), which is now Westinghouse Electric Company LLC.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> “System 80 + ” is a trademark of Westinghouse Electric Company LLC. </P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>A. Generic design control document (generic DCD) means the document containing the Tier 1 and Tier 2 information and generic technical specifications that is incorporated by reference into this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. Generic technical specifications means the information, required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a, for the portion of the plant that is within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. Plant-specific DCD means the document, maintained by an applicant or licensee who references this appendix, consisting of the information in the generic DCD, as modified and supplemented by the plant-specific departures and exemptions made under Section VIII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Tier 1</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved and certified by this appendix (hereinafter Tier 1 information). The design descriptions, interface requirements, and site parameters are derived from Tier 2 information. Tier 1 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Definitions and general provisions;
</P>
<P>2. Design descriptions;
</P>
<P>3. Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC);
</P>
<P>4. Significant site parameters; and
</P>
<P>5. Significant interface requirements.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Tier 2</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved but not certified by this appendix (Tier 2 information). Compliance with Tier 2 is required, but generic changes to and plant-specific departures from Tier 2 are governed by Section VIII of this appendix. Compliance with Tier 2 provides a sufficient, but not the only acceptable, method for complying with Tier 1. Compliance methods differing from Tier 2 must satisfy the change process in Section VIII of this appendix. Regardless of these differences, an applicant or licensee must meet the requirement in Section III.B of this appendix to reference Tier 2 when referencing Tier 1. Tier 2 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Information required by §§ 52.47(a) and 52.47(c), with the exception of generic technical specifications and conceptual design information;
</P>
<P>2. Supporting information on the inspections, tests, and analyses that will be performed to demonstrate that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC have been met; and
</P>
<P>3. Combined license (COL) action items (COL license information), which identify certain matters that must be addressed in the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report (FSAR) by an applicant who references this appendix. These items constitute information requirements but are not the only acceptable set of information in the FSAR. An applicant may depart from or omit these items, provided that the departure or omission is identified and justified in the FSAR. After issuance of a construction permit or COL, these items are not requirements for the licensee unless such items are restated in the FSAR.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Tier 2*</I> means the portion of the Tier 2 information, designated as such in the generic DCD, which is subject to the change process in Section VIII.B.6 of this appendix. This designation expires for some Tier 2* information under Section VIII.B.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>G. Departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses means:
</P>
<P>(1) Changing any of the elements of the method described in the plant-specific DCD unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>(2) Changing from a method described in the plant-specific DCD to another method unless that method has been approved by NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>H. All other terms in this appendix have the meaning set out in 10 CFR 50.2 or 52.1, or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, as applicable.
</P>
<HD1>III. Scope and Contents
</HD1>
<P>A. Tier 1, Tier 2, and the generic technical specifications in the System 80 + Design Control Document, ABB-CE, with revisions dated January 1997, are approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Office of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of the generic DCD may be obtained from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, Virginia 22161. A copy is available for examination and copying at the NRC Public Document Room located at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. Copies are also available for examination at the NRC Library located at Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852 and the Office of the Federal Register, 800 North Capitol Street, NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>B. An applicant or licensee referencing this appendix, in accordance with Section IV of this appendix, shall incorporate by reference and comply with the requirements of this appendix, including Tier 1, Tier 2, and the generic technical specifications except as otherwise provided in this appendix. Conceptual design information, as set forth in the generic DCD, and the Technical Support Document for the System 80 + design are not part of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. If there is a conflict between Tier 1 and Tier 2 of the DCD, then Tier 1 controls.
</P>
<P>D. If there is a conflict between the generic DCD and either the application for design certification of the System 80 + design or NUREG-1462, “Final Safety Evaluation Report Related to the Certification of the System 80 + Design,” (FSER) and Supplement No. 1, then the generic DCD controls.
</P>
<P>E. Design activities for structures, systems, and components that are wholly outside the scope of this appendix may be performed using site characteristics, provided the design activities do not affect the DCD or conflict with the interface requirements.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Additional Requirements and Restrictions
</HD1>
<P>A. An applicant for a combined license that wishes to reference this appendix shall, in addition to complying with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.77, 52.79, and 52.80, comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>1. Incorporate by reference, as part of its application, this appendix;
</P>
<P>2. Include, as part of its application:
</P>
<P>a. A plant-specific DCD containing the same type of information and using the same organization and numbering as the generic DCD for the System 80 + design, as modified and supplemented by the applicant's exemptions and departures;
</P>
<P>b. The reports on departures from and updates to the plant-specific DCD required by paragraph X.B of this appendix;
</P>
<P>c. Plant-specific technical specifications, consisting of the generic and site-specific technical specifications, that are required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a;
</P>
<P>d. Information demonstrating compliance with the site parameters and interface requirements;
</P>
<P>e. Information that addresses the COL action items; and
</P>
<P>f. Information required by 10 CFR 52.47 that is not within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. Include, in the plant-specific DCD, the proprietary information referenced in the System 80 + DCD.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission reserves the right to determine in what manner this appendix may be referenced by an applicant for a construction permit or operating license under 10 CFR part 50.
</P>
<HD1>V. Applicable Regulations
</HD1>
<P>A. Except as indicated in paragraph B of this section, the regulations that apply to the System 80 + design are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 73, and 100, codified as of May 9, 1997, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the FSER (NUREG-1462) and Supplement No. 1.
</P>
<P>B. The System 80 + design is exempt from portions of the following regulations:
</P>
<P>1. Paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of 10 CFR 50.34—Separate Plant Safety Parameter Display Console;
</P>
<P>2. Paragraphs (f)(2) (vii), (viii), (xxvi), and (xxviii) of 10 CFR 50.34—Accident Source Terms;
</P>
<P>3. Paragraph (f)(2)(viii) of 10 CFR 50.34—Post-Accident Sampling for Hydrogen, Boron, Chloride, and Dissolved Gases;
</P>
<P>4. Paragraph (f)(3)(iv) of 10 CFR 50.34—Dedicated Containment Penetration; and
</P>
<P>5. Paragraphs III.A.1(a) and III.C.3(b) of Appendix J to 10 CFR 50—Containment Leakage Testing.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Issue Resolution
</HD1>
<P>A. The Commission has determined that the structures, systems, components, and design features of the System 80 + design comply with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the applicable regulations identified in Section V of this appendix; and therefore, provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public. A conclusion that a matter is resolved includes the finding that additional or alternative structures, systems, components, design features, design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justifications are not necessary for the System 80 + design.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission considers the following matters resolved within the meaning of 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5) in subsequent proceedings for issuance of a combined license, amendment of a combined license, or renewal of a combined license, proceedings held under 10 CFR 52.103, and enforcement proceedings involving plants referencing this appendix:
</P>
<P>1. All nuclear safety issues, except for the generic technical specifications and other operational requirements, associated with the information in the FSER and Supplement No. 1, Tier 1, Tier 2 (including referenced information which the context indicates is intended as requirements), and the rulemaking record for certification of the System 80 + design;
</P>
<P>2. All nuclear safety and safeguards issues associated with the information in proprietary and safeguards documents, referenced and in context, are intended as requirements in the generic DCD for the System 80 + design;
</P>
<P>3. All generic changes to the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in Sections VIII.A.1 and VIII.B.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>4. All exemptions from the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in Sections VIII.A.4 and VIII.B.4 of this appendix, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>5. All departures from the DCD that are approved by license amendment, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>6. Except as provided in paragraph VIII.B.5.f of this appendix, all departures from Tier 2 under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix that do not require prior NRC approval, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>7. All environmental issues concerning severe accident mitigation design alternatives associated with the information in the NRC's final environmental assessment for the System 80 + design and the technical support document for the System 80 + design, dated January 1995, for plants referencing this appendix whose site parameters are within those specified in the technical support document.
</P>
<P>C. The Commission does not consider operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to be matters resolved within the meaning of 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5). The Commission reserves the right to require operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix by rule, regulation, order, or license condition.
</P>
<P>D. Except in accordance with the change processes in Section VIII of this appendix, the Commission may not require an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to:
</P>
<P>1. Modify structures, systems, components, or design features as described in the generic DCD;
</P>
<P>2. Provide additional or alternative structures, systems, components, or design features not discussed in the generic DCD; or
</P>
<P>3. Provide additional or alternative design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justification for structures, systems, components, or design features discussed in the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>E.1. Persons who wish to review proprietary information or other secondary references in the DCD for the System 80 + design, in order to request or participate in the hearing required by 10 CFR 52.85 or the hearing provided under 10 CFR 52.103, or to request or participate in any other hearing relating to this appendix in which interested persons have adjudicatory hearing rights, shall first request access to such information from Westinghouse. The request must state with particularity:
</P>
<P>a. The nature of the proprietary or other information sought;
</P>
<P>b. The reason why the information currently available to the public at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I>, and/or at the NRC Public Document Room, is insufficient;
</P>
<P>c. The relevance of the requested information to the hearing issue(s) which the person proposes to raise; and
</P>
<P>d. A showing that the requesting person has the capability to understand and utilize the requested information.
</P>
<P>2. If a person claims that the information is necessary to prepare a request for hearing, the request must be filed no later than 15 days after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the notice required either by 10 CFR 52.85 or 10 CFR 52.103. If Westinghouse declines to provide the information sought, Westinghouse shall send a written response within ten (10) days of receiving the request to the requesting person setting forth with particularity the reasons for its refusal. The person may then request the Commission (or presiding officer, if a proceeding has been established) to order disclosure. The person shall include copies of the original request (and any subsequent clarifying information provided by the requesting party to the applicant) and the applicant's response. The Commission and presiding officer shall base their decisions solely on the person's original request (including any clarifying information provided by the requesting person to Westinghouse), and Westinghouse's response. The Commission and presiding officer may order Westinghouse to provide access to some or all of the requested information, subject to an appropriate non-disclosure agreement.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Duration of This Appendix
</HD1>
<P>This appendix may be referenced for a period of 15 years from June 20, 1997, except as provided for in 10 CFR 52.55(b) and 52.57(b). This appendix remains valid for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix until the application is withdrawn or the license expires, including any period of extended operation under a renewed license.


</P>
<HD1>VIII. Processes for Changes and Departures
</HD1>
<P>A. Tier 1 information.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs A.3 or A.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. Departures from Tier 1 information that are required by the Commission through plant-specific orders are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(4).
</P>
<P>4. Exemptions from Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(b)(1) and 52.98(f). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 1, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.


</P>
<HD1>B. Tier 2 Information
</HD1>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs B.3, B.4, B.5, or B.6 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may not require new requirements on Tier 2 information by plant-specific order while this appendix is in effect under §§ 52.55 or 52.61, unless:
</P>
<P>a. A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix, or to assure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>b. Special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 52.7 are present.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may request an exemption from Tier 2 information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.7. The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 2, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design. The grant of an exemption to an applicant must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing. The grant of an exemption to a licensee must be subject to an opportunity for a hearing in the same manner as license amendments.
</P>
<P>5.a. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may depart from Tier 2 information, without prior NRC approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to or departure from Tier 1 information, Tier 2* information, or the technical specifications, or requires a license amendment under paragraphs B.5.b or B.5.c of this section. When evaluating the proposed departure, an applicant or licensee shall consider all matters described in the plant-specific DCD.
</P>
<P>b. A proposed departure from Tier 2, other than one affecting resolution of a severe accident issue identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if it would—
</P>
<P>(1) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component (SSC) important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(3) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of an SSC important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(5) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(6) Create a possibility for a malfunction of an SSC important to safety with a different result than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(7) Result in a design basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the plant-specific DCD being exceeded or altered; or
</P>
<P>(8) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.
</P>
<P>c. A proposed departure from Tier 2 affecting resolution of an ex-vessel severe accident design feature identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a substantial increase in the probability of an ex-vessel severe accident such that a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed and determined to be not credible could become credible; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a substantial increase in the consequences to the public of a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed.
</P>
<P>d. If a departure requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section, it is governed by 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>e. A departure from Tier 2 information that is made under paragraph B.5 of this section does not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>f. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under 10 CFR 52.103(a), who believes that an applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not complied with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix when departing from Tier 2 information, may petition the NRC to admit into the proceeding such a contention. In addition to compliance with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309, the petition must demonstrate that the departure does not comply with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix. Further, the petition must demonstrate that the change bears on an asserted noncompliance with an ITAAC acceptance criterion in the case of a 10 CFR 52.103 preoperational hearing, or that the change bears directly on the amendment request in the case of a hearing on a license amendment. Any other party may file a response. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. The Commission may admit such a contention if it determines the petition raises a genuine issue of material fact regarding compliance with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>6.a. An applicant who references this appendix may not depart from Tier 2* information, which is designated with italicized text or brackets and an asterisk in the generic DCD, without NRC approval. The departure will not be considered a resolved issue, within the meaning of Section VI of this appendix and 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5).
</P>
<P>b. A licensee who references this appendix may not depart from the following Tier 2* matters without prior NRC approval. A request for a departure will be treated as a request for a license amendment under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>(1) Maximum fuel rod average burnup.
</P>
<P>(2) Control room human factors engineering.


</P>
<P>c. A licensee who references this appendix may not, before the plant first achieves full power following the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), depart from the following Tier 2* matters except in accordance with paragraph B.6.b of this section. After the plant first achieves full power, the following Tier 2* matters revert to Tier 2 status and are thereafter subject to the departure provisions in paragraph B.5 of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) ASME Boiler &amp; Pressure Vessel Code, Section III.


</P>
<P>(2) ACI 349 and ANSI/AISC N-690.
</P>
<P>(3) Motor-operated valves.
</P>
<P>(4) Equipment seismic qualification methods.
</P>
<P>(5) Piping design acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(6) Fuel and control rod design, except burnup limit.
</P>
<P>(7) Instrumentation and controls setpoint methodology.
</P>
<P>(8) Instrumentation and controls hardware and software changes.
</P>
<P>(9) Instrumentation and controls environmental qualification.
</P>
<P>(10) Seismic design criteria for non-seismic Category I structures.
</P>
<P>d. Departures from Tier 2* information that are made under paragraph B.6 of this section do not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. Operational requirements.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to generic technical specifications and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved in the design certification rulemaking and do not require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 50.109. Generic changes that do require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in paragraphs A or B of this section.
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to generic TS and other operational requirements are applicable to all applicants who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs C.3 or C.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may require plant-specific departures on generic technical specifications and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required and special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present. The Commission may modify or supplement generic technical specifications and other operational requirements that were not completely reviewed and approved or require additional technical specifications and other operational requirements on a plant-specific basis, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant who references this appendix may request an exemption from the generic technical specifications or other operational requirements. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.7. The grant of an exemption must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing.
</P>
<P>5. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under 10 CFR 52.103(a), who believes that an operational requirement approved in the DCD or a technical specification derived from the generic technical specifications must be changed may petition to admit into the proceeding such a contention. Such a petition must comply with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309 and must demonstrate why special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present, or for compliance with the Commission's regulations in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix. Any other party may file a response thereto. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. All other issues with respect to the plant-specific technical specifications or other operational requirements are subject to a hearing as part of the license proceeding.
</P>
<P>6. After issuance of a license, the generic technical specifications have no further effect on the plant-specific technical specifications and changes to the plant-specific technical specifications will be treated as license amendments under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<HD1>IX. Inspections, Tests, Analyses, and Acceptance Criteria (ITAAC)
</HD1>
<P>A.1 An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall perform and demonstrate conformance with the ITAAC before fuel load. With respect to activities subject to an ITAAC, an applicant for a license may proceed at its own risk with design and procurement activities, and a licensee may proceed at its own risk with design, procurement, construction, and preoperational activities, even though the NRC may not have found that any particular ITAAC has been met.
</P>
<P>2. The licensee who references this appendix shall notify the NRC that the required inspections, tests, and analyses in the ITAAC have been successfully completed and that the corresponding acceptance criteria have been met.
</P>
<P>3. In the event that an activity is subject to an ITAAC, and the applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not demonstrated that the ITAAC has been met, the applicant or licensee may either take corrective actions to successfully complete that ITAAC, request an exemption from the ITAAC in accordance with Section VIII of this appendix and 10 CFR 52.97(b), or petition for rulemaking to amend this appendix by changing the requirements of the ITAAC, under 10 CFR 2.802 and 52.97(b). Such rulemaking changes to the ITAAC must meet the requirements of Section VIII.A.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>B.1 The NRC shall ensure that the required inspections, tests, and analyses in the ITAAC are performed. The NRC shall verify that the inspections, tests, and analyses referenced by the licensee have been successfully completed and, based solely thereon, find the prescribed acceptance criteria have been met. At appropriate intervals during construction, the NRC shall publish notices of the successful completion of ITAAC in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>2. In accordance with 10 CFR 52.103(g), the Commission shall find that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC for the license are met before fuel load.
</P>
<P>3. After the Commission has made the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the ITAAC do not, by virtue of their inclusion within the DCD, constitute regulatory requirements either for licensees or for renewal of the license; except for specific ITAAC, which are the subject of a § 52.103(a) hearing, their expiration will occur upon final Commission action in such proceeding. However, subsequent modifications must comply with the Tier 1 and Tier 2 design descriptions in the plant-specific DCD unless the licensee has complied with the applicable requirements of 10 CFR 52.98 and Section VIII of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>X. Records and Reporting
</HD1>
<P>A. Records.
</P>
<P>1. The applicant for this appendix shall maintain a copy of the generic DCD that includes all generic changes to Tier 1, Tier 2, and the generic TS and other operational requirements. The applicant shall maintain the proprietary and safeguards information referenced in the generic DCD for the period that this appendix may be referenced, as specified in Section VII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain the plant-specific DCD to accurately reflect both generic changes to the generic DCD and plant-specific departures made under Section VIII of this appendix throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>3. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall prepare and maintain written evaluations which provide the bases for the determinations required by Section VIII of this appendix. These evaluations must be retained throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>B. Reporting.
</P>
<P>1. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit a report to the NRC containing a brief description of any plant-specific departures from the DCD, including a summary of the evaluation of each. This report must be filed in accordance with the filing requirements applicable to reports in 10 CFR 52.3.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit updates to its DCD, which reflect the generic changes to and plant-specific departures from the generic DCD made under Section VIII of this appendix. These updates must be filed under the filing requirements applicable to final safety analysis report updates in 10 CFR 52.3 and 50.71(e).
</P>
<P>3. The reports and updates required by paragraphs X.B.1 and X.B.2 must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>a. On the date that an application for a license referencing this appendix is submitted, the application must include the report and any updates to the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>b. During the interval from the date of application for a license to the date the Commission makes the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the report must be submitted semi-annually. Updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted annually and may be submitted along with amendments to the application.
</P>
<P>c. After the Commission makes the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the reports and updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted, along with updates to the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report for the facility, at the intervals required by 10 CFR 50.59(d)(2) and 50.71(e)(4), respectively, or at shorter intervals as specified in the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 76 FR 72085, Nov. 22, 2011; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 52—Design Certification Rule for the AP600 Design
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Appendix C constitutes the standard design certification for the AP600 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> design, in accordance with 10 CFR part 52, subpart B. The applicant for certification of the AP600 design is Westinghouse Electric Company LLC.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> AP600 is a trademark of Westinghouse Electric Company LLC.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>A. Generic design control document (generic DCD) means the document containing the Tier 1 and Tier 2 information and generic technical specifications that is incorporated by reference into this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. Generic technical specifications means the information, required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a, for the portion of the plant that is within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. Plant-specific DCD means the document, maintained by an applicant or licensee who references this appendix, consisting of the information in the generic DCD, as modified and supplemented by the plant-specific departures and exemptions made under Section VIII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Tier 1</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved and certified by this appendix (hereinafter Tier 1 information). The design descriptions, interface requirements, and site parameters are derived from Tier 2 information. Tier 1 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Definitions and general provisions;
</P>
<P>2. Design descriptions;
</P>
<P>3. Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC);
</P>
<P>4. Significant site parameters; and
</P>
<P>5. Significant interface requirements.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Tier 2</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved but not certified by this appendix (Tier 2 information). Compliance with Tier 2 is required, but generic changes to and plant-specific departures from Tier 2 are governed by Section VIII of this appendix. Compliance with Tier 2 provides a sufficient, but not the only acceptable, method for complying with Tier 1. Compliance methods differing from Tier 2 must satisfy the change process in Section VIII of this appendix. Regardless of these differences, an applicant or licensee must meet the requirement in Section III.B of this appendix to reference Tier 2 when referencing Tier 1. Tier 2 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Information required by §§ 52.47(a) and 52.47(c), with the exception of generic technical specifications and conceptual design information;
</P>
<P>2. Supporting information on the inspections, tests, and analyses that will be performed to demonstrate that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC have been met; and
</P>
<P>3. Combined license (COL) action items (COL license information), which identify certain matters that must be addressed in the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report (FSAR) by an applicant who references this appendix. These items constitute information requirements but are not the only acceptable set of information in the FSAR. An applicant may depart from or omit these items, provided that the departure or omission is identified and justified in the FSAR. After issuance of a construction permit or COL, these items are not requirements for the licensee unless such items are restated in the FSAR.
</P>
<P>4. The investment protection short-term availability controls in Section 16.3 of the DCD.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Tier 2*</I> means the portion of the Tier 2 information, designated as such in the generic DCD, which is subject to the change process in Section VIII.B.6 of this appendix. This designation expires for some Tier 2* information under Section VIII.B.6.
</P>
<P>G. Departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses means:
</P>
<P>(1) Changing any of the elements of the method described in the plant-specific DCD unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>(2) Changing from a method described in the plant-specific DCD to another method unless that method has been approved by NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>H. All other terms in this appendix have the meaning set out in 10 CFR 50.2 or 52.1, or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, as applicable.
</P>
<HD1>III. Scope and Contents
</HD1>
<P>A. Tier 1, Tier 2 (including the investment protection short-term availability controls in Section 16.3), and the generic technical specifications in the AP600 DCD (12/99 revision) are approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Office of the Federal Register on January 24, 2000, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of the generic DCD may be obtained from Ronald P. Vijuk, Manager, Passive Plant Engineering, Westinghouse Electric Company, P.O. Box 355, Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania 15230-0355. A copy of the generic DCD is available for examination and copying at the NRC Public Document Room located at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. Copies are also available for examination at the NRC Library located at Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852; and the Office of the Federal Register, 800 North Capitol Street, NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC.
</P>
<P>B. An applicant or licensee referencing this appendix, in accordance with Section IV of this appendix, shall incorporate by reference and comply with the requirements of this appendix, including Tier 1, Tier 2 (including the investment protection short-term availability controls in Section 16.3), and the generic technical specifications except as otherwise provided in this appendix. Conceptual design information in the generic DCD and the evaluation of severe accident mitigation design alternatives in Appendix 1B of the generic DCD are not part of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. If there is a conflict between Tier 1 and Tier 2 of the DCD, then Tier 1 controls.
</P>
<P>D. If there is a conflict between the generic DCD and either the application for design certification of the AP600 design or NUREG-1512, “Final Safety Evaluation Report Related to Certification of the AP600 Standard Design,” (FSER), then the generic DCD controls.
</P>
<P>E. Design activities for structures, systems, and components that are wholly outside the scope of this appendix may be performed using site characteristics, provided the design activities do not affect the DCD or conflict with the interface requirements.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Additional Requirements and Restrictions
</HD1>
<P>A. An applicant for a combined license that wishes to reference this appendix shall, in addition to complying with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.77, 52.79, and 52.80, comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>1. Incorporate by reference, as part of its application, this appendix;
</P>
<P>2. Include, as part of its application:
</P>
<P>a. A plant-specific DCD containing the same type of information and utilizing the same organization and numbering as the generic DCD for the AP600 design, as modified and supplemented by the applicant's exemptions and departures;
</P>
<P>b. The reports on departures from and updates to the plant-specific DCD required by paragraph X.B of this appendix;
</P>
<P>c. Plant-specific technical specifications, consisting of the generic and site-specific technical specifications, that are required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a;
</P>
<P>d. Information demonstrating compliance with the site parameters and interface requirements;
</P>
<P>e. Information that addresses the COL action items; and
</P>
<P>f. Information required by 10 CFR 52.47 that is not within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. Include, in the plant-specific DCD, the proprietary information and safeguards information referenced in the AP600 DCD.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission reserves the right to determine in what manner this appendix may be referenced by an applicant for a construction permit or operating license under 10 CFR part 50.
</P>
<HD1>V. Applicable Regulations
</HD1>
<P>A. Except as indicated in paragraph B of this section, the regulations that apply to the AP600 design are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 73, and 100, codified as of December 16, 1999, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the FSER (NUREG-1512) and the supplementary information for this section.
</P>
<P>B. The AP600 design is exempt from portions of the following regulations:
</P>
<P>1. Paragraph (a)(1) of 10 CFR 50.34—whole body dose criterion;
</P>
<P>2. Paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of 10 CFR 50.34—Plant Safety Parameter Display Console;
</P>
<P>3. Paragraphs (f)(2)(vii), (viii), (xxvi), and (xxviii) of 10 CFR 50.34—Accident Source Term in TID 14844;
</P>
<P>4. Paragraph (a)(2) of 10 CFR 50.55a—ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code;
</P>
<P>5. Paragraph (c)(1) of 10 CFR 50.62—Auxiliary (or emergency) feedwater system;
</P>
<P>6. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, GDC 17—Offsite Power Sources; and
</P>
<P>7. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, GDC 19—whole body dose criterion.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Issue Resolution
</HD1>
<P>A. The Commission has determined that the structures, systems, components, and design features of the AP600 design comply with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the applicable regulations identified in Section V of this appendix; and therefore, provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public. A conclusion that a matter is resolved includes the finding that additional or alternative structures, systems, components, design features, design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justifications are not necessary for the AP600 design.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission considers the following matters resolved within the meaning of 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5) in subsequent proceedings for issuance of a combined license, amendment of a combined license, or renewal of a combined license, proceedings held under 10 CFR 52.103, and enforcement proceedings involving plants referencing this appendix:
</P>
<P>1. All nuclear safety issues, except for the generic technical specifications and other operational requirements, associated with the information in the FSER and Supplement No. 1, Tier 1, Tier 2 (including referenced information which the context indicates is intended as requirements and the investment protection short-term availability controls in Section 16.3), and the rulemaking record for certification of the AP600 design;
</P>
<P>2. All nuclear safety and safeguards issues associated with the information in proprietary and safeguards documents, referenced and in context, are intended as requirements in the generic DCD for the AP600 design;
</P>
<P>3. All generic changes to the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in Sections VIII.A.1 and VIII.B.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>4. All exemptions from the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in Sections VIII.A.4 and VIII.B.4 of this appendix, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>5. All departures from the DCD that are approved by license amendment, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>6. Except as provided in paragraph VIII.B.5.f of this appendix, all departures from Tier 2 under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix that do not require prior NRC approval, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>7. All environmental issues concerning severe accident mitigation design alternatives associated with the information in the NRC's environmental assessment for the AP600 design and appendix 1B of the generic DCD, for plants referencing this appendix whose site parameters are within those specified in the severe accident mitigation design alternatives evaluation.
</P>
<P>C. The Commission does not consider operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to be matters resolved within the meaning of 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5). The Commission reserves the right to require operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix by rule, regulation, order, or license condition.
</P>
<P>D. Except in accordance with the change processes in Section VIII of this appendix, the Commission may not require an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to:
</P>
<P>1. Modify structures, systems, components, or design features as described in the generic DCD;
</P>
<P>2. Provide additional or alternative structures, systems, components, or design features not discussed in the generic DCD; or
</P>
<P>3. Provide additional or alternative design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justification for structures, systems, components, or design features discussed in the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>E.1. Persons who wish to review proprietary and safeguards information or other secondary references in the AP600 DCD, in order to request or participate in the hearing required by 10 CFR 52.85 or the hearing provided under 10 CFR 52.103, or to request or participate in any other hearing relating to this appendix in which interested persons have adjudicatory hearing rights, shall first request access to such information from Westinghouse. The request must state with particularity:
</P>
<P>a. The nature of the proprietary or other information sought;
</P>
<P>b. The reason why the information currently available to the public at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room, is insufficient;
</P>
<P>c. The relevance of the requested information to the hearing issue(s) which the person proposes to raise; and
</P>
<P>d. A showing that the requesting person has the capability to understand and utilize the requested information.
</P>
<P>2. If a person claims that the information is necessary to prepare a request for hearing, the request must be filed no later than 15 days after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the notice required either by 10 CFR 52.85 or 10 CFR 52.103. If Westinghouse declines to provide the information sought, Westinghouse shall send a written response within 10 days of receiving the request to the requesting person setting forth with particularity the reasons for its refusal. The person may then request the Commission (or presiding officer, if a proceeding has been established) to order disclosure. The person shall include copies of the original request (and any subsequent clarifying information provided by the requesting party to the applicant) and the applicant's response. The Commission and presiding officer shall base their decisions solely on the person's original request (including any clarifying information provided by the requesting person to Westinghouse), and Westinghouse's response. The Commission and presiding officer may order Westinghouse to provide access to some or all of the requested information, subject to an appropriate non-disclosure agreement.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Duration of This Appendix
</HD1>
<P>This appendix may be referenced for a period of 15 years from January 24, 2000, except as provided for in 10 CFR 52.55(b) and 52.57(b). This appendix remains valid for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix until the application is withdrawn or the license expires, including any period of extended operation under a renewed license.


</P>
<HD1>VIII. Processes for Changes and Departures
</HD1>
<P>A. Tier 1 information.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs A.3 or A.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. Departures from Tier 1 information that are required by the Commission through plant-specific orders are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(4).
</P>
<P>4. Exemptions from Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(b)(1) and 52.98(f). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 1, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.


</P>
<P>B. Tier 2 information.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs B.3, B.4, B.5, or B.6 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may not require new requirements on Tier 2 information by plant-specific order while this appendix is in effect under §§ 52.55 or 52.61, unless:
</P>
<P>a. A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix, or to assure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>b. Special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 52.7 are present.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may request an exemption from Tier 2 information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.7. The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 2, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design. The grant of an exemption to an applicant must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing. The grant of an exemption to a licensee must be subject to an opportunity for a hearing in the same manner as license amendments.
</P>
<P>5.a. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may depart from Tier 2 information, without prior NRC approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to or departure from Tier 1 information, Tier 2* information, or the technical specifications, or requires a license amendment under paragraphs B.5.b or B.5.c of this section. When evaluating the proposed departure, an applicant or licensee shall consider all matters described in the plant-specific DCD.
</P>
<P>b. A proposed departure from Tier 2, other than one affecting resolution of a severe accident issue identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if it would:
</P>
<P>(1) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component (SSC) important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(3) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of an SSC important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(5) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(6) Create a possibility for a malfunction of an SSC important to safety with a different result than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(7) Result in a design basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the plant-specific DCD being exceeded or altered; or
</P>
<P>(8) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.


</P>
<P>c. A proposed departure from Tier 2 affecting resolution of an ex-vessel severe accident design feature identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a substantial increase in the probability of an ex-vessel severe accident such that a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed and determined to be not credible could become credible; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a substantial increase in the consequences to the public of a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed.
</P>
<P>d. If a departure requires a license amendment under paragraphs B.5.b or B.5.c of this section, it is governed by 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>e. A departure from Tier 2 information that is made under paragraph B.5 of this section does not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>f. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under 10 CFR 52.103(a), who believes that an applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not complied with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix when departing from Tier 2 information, may petition the NRC to admit into the proceeding such a contention. In addition to compliance with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309, the petition must demonstrate that the departure does not comply with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix. Further, the petition must demonstrate that the change bears on an asserted noncompliance with an ITAAC acceptance criterion in the case of a 10 CFR 52.103 preoperational hearing, or that the change bears directly on the amendment request in the case of a hearing on a license amendment. Any other party may file a response. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. The Commission may admit such a contention if it determines the petition raises a genuine issue of material fact regarding compliance with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>6a. An applicant who references this appendix may not depart from Tier 2* information, which is designated with italicized text or brackets and an asterisk in the generic DCD, without NRC approval. The departure will not be considered a resolved issue, within the meaning of Section VI of this appendix and 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5).
</P>
<P>b. A licensee who references this appendix may not depart from the following Tier 2* matters without prior NRC approval. A request for a departure will be treated as a request for a license amendment under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>(1) Maximum fuel rod average burn-up.
</P>
<P>(2) Fuel principal design requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel criteria evaluation process.
</P>
<P>(4) Fire areas.
</P>
<P>(5) Human factors engineering.


</P>
<P>c. A licensee who references this appendix may not, before the plant first achieves full power following the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), depart from the following Tier 2* matters except in accordance with paragraph B.6.b of this section. After the plant first achieves full power, the following Tier 2* matters revert to Tier 2 status and are thereafter subject to the departure provisions in paragraph B.5 of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Nuclear Island structural dimensions.
</P>
<P>(2) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section III, and Code Case—284.
</P>
<P>(3) Design Summary of Critical Sections.
</P>
<P>(4) ACI 318, ACI 349, and ANSI/AISC N—690.
</P>
<P>(5) Definition of critical locations and thicknesses.
</P>
<P>(6) Seismic qualification methods and standards.
</P>
<P>(7) Nuclear design of fuel and reactivity control system, except burn-up limit.
</P>
<P>(8) Motor-operated and power-operated valves.
</P>
<P>(9) Instrumentation and control system design processes, methods, and standards.
</P>
<P>(10) PRHR natural circulation test (first plant only).
</P>
<P>(11) ADS and CMT verification tests (first three plants only).
</P>
<P>d. Departures from Tier 2* information that are made under paragraph B.6 of this section do not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. Operational requirements.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to generic technical specifications and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved in the design certification rulemaking and do not require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 50.109. Generic changes that do require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in paragraphs A or B of this section.
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to generic TS and other operational requirements are applicable to all applicants who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs C.3 or C.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may require plant-specific departures on generic technical specifications and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required and special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present. The Commission may modify or supplement generic technical specifications and other operational requirements that were not completely reviewed and approved or require additional technical specifications and other operational requirements on a plant-specific basis, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant who references this appendix may request an exemption from the generic technical specifications or other operational requirements. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.7. The grant of an exemption must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing.
</P>
<P>5. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under 10 CFR 52.103(a), who believes that an operational requirement approved in the DCD or a technical specification derived from the generic technical specifications must be changed may petition to admit into the proceeding such a contention. Such petition must comply with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309 and must demonstrate why special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present, or for compliance with the Commission's regulations in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix. Any other party may file a response thereto. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. All other issues with respect to the plant-specific technical specifications or other operational requirements are subject to a hearing as part of the license proceeding.
</P>
<P>6. After issuance of a license, the generic technical specifications have no further effect on the plant-specific technical specifications and changes to the plant-specific technical specifications will be treated as license amendments under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<HD1>IX. Inspections, Tests, Analyses, and Acceptance Criteria (ITAAC)
</HD1>
<P>A.1 An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall perform and demonstrate conformance with the ITAAC before fuel load. With respect to activities subject to an ITAAC, an applicant for a license may proceed at its own risk with design and procurement activities, and a licensee may proceed at its own risk with design, procurement, construction, and preoperational activities, even though the NRC may not have found that any particular ITAAC has been met.
</P>
<P>2. The licensee who references this appendix shall notify the NRC that the required inspections, tests, and analyses in the ITAAC have been successfully completed and that the corresponding acceptance criteria have been met.
</P>
<P>3. In the event that an activity is subject to an ITAAC, and the applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not demonstrated that the ITAAC has been met, the applicant or licensee may either take corrective actions to successfully complete that ITAAC, request an exemption from the ITAAC in accordance with Section VIII of this appendix and 10 CFR 52.97(b), or petition for rulemaking to amend this appendix by changing the requirements of the ITAAC, under 10 CFR 2.802 and 52.97(b). Such rulemaking changes to the ITAAC must meet the requirements of paragraph VIII.A.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>B.1. The NRC shall ensure that the required inspections, tests, and analyses in the ITAAC are performed. The NRC shall verify that the inspections, tests, and analyses referenced by the licensee have been successfully completed and, based solely thereon, find the prescribed acceptance criteria have been met. At appropriate intervals during construction, the NRC shall publish notices of the successful completion of ITAAC in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>2. In accordance with 10 CFR 52.103(g), the Commission shall find that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC for the license are met before fuel load.
</P>
<P>3. After the Commission has made the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the ITAAC do not, by virtue of their inclusion within the DCD, constitute regulatory requirements either for licensees or for renewal of the license; except for specific ITAAC, which are the subject of a § 52.103(a) hearing, their expiration will occur upon final Commission action in such proceeding. However, subsequent modifications must comply with the Tier 1 and Tier 2 design descriptions in the plant-specific DCD unless the licensee has complied with the applicable requirements of 10 CFR 52.98 and Section VIII of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>X. Records and Reporting
</HD1>
<P>A. Records.
</P>
<P>1. The applicant for this appendix shall maintain a copy of the generic DCD that includes all generic changes to Tier 1, Tier 2, and the generic TS and other operational requirements. The applicant shall maintain the proprietary and safeguards information referenced in the generic DCD for the period that this appendix may be referenced, as specified in Section VII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain the plant-specific DCD to accurately reflect both generic changes to the generic DCD and plant-specific departures made under Section VIII of this appendix throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>3. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall prepare and maintain written evaluations which provide the bases for the determinations required by Section VIII of this appendix. These evaluations must be retained throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>B. Reporting.
</P>
<P>1. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit a report to the NRC containing a brief description of any plant-specific departures from the DCD, including a summary of the evaluation of each. This report must be filed in accordance with the filing requirements applicable to reports in 10 CFR 52.3.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit updates to its DCD, which reflect the generic changes to and plant-specific departures from the generic DCD made under Section VIII of this appendix. These updates must be filed under the filing requirements applicable to final safety analysis report updates in 10 CFR 52.3 and 50.71(e).
</P>
<P>3. The reports and updates required by paragraphs X.B.1 and X.B.2 must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>a. On the date that an application for a license referencing this appendix is submitted, the application must include the report and any updates to the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>b. During the interval from the date of application for a license to the date the Commission makes the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the report must be submitted semi-annually. Updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted annually and may be submitted along with amendments to the application.
</P>
<P>c. After the Commission makes the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the reports and updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted, along with updates to the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report for the facility, at the intervals required by 10 CFR 50.59(d)(2) and 50.71(e), respectively, or at shorter intervals as specified in the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 76 FR 72085, Nov. 22, 2011; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 52—Design Certification Rule for the AP1000 Design




</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Appendix D constitutes the standard design certification for the AP1000 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> design, in accordance with 10 CFR part 52, subpart B. The applicant for certification of the AP1000 design is Westinghouse Electric Company LLC.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> AP1000 is a trademark of Westinghouse Electric Company LLC.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Generic design control document (generic DCD)</I> means the documents containing the Tier 1 and Tier 2 information and generic technical specifications that are incorporated by reference into this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Generic technical specifications</I> means the information required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a for the portion of the plant that is within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Plant-specific DCD</I> means the document maintained by an applicant or licensee who references this appendix consisting of the information in the generic DCD as modified and supplemented by the plant-specific departures and exemptions made under Section VIII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Tier 1</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved and certified by this appendix (Tier 1 information). The design descriptions, interface requirements, and site parameters are derived from Tier 2 information. Tier 1 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Definitions and general provisions;
</P>
<P>2. Design descriptions;
</P>
<P>3. Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC);
</P>
<P>4. Significant site parameters; and
</P>
<P>5. Significant interface requirements.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Tier 2</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved but not certified by this appendix (Tier 2 information). Compliance with Tier 2 is required, but generic changes to and plant-specific departures from Tier 2 are governed by Section VIII of this appendix. Compliance with Tier 2 provides a sufficient, but not the only acceptable, method for complying with Tier 1. Compliance methods differing from Tier 2 must satisfy the change process in Section VIII of this appendix. Regardless of these differences, an applicant or licensee must meet the requirement in Section III.B of this appendix to reference Tier 2 when referencing Tier 1. Tier 2 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Information required by §§ 52.47(a) and 52.47(c), with the exception of generic technical specifications and conceptual design information;
</P>
<P>2. Supporting information on the inspections, tests, and analyses that will be performed to demonstrate that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC have been met; and
</P>
<P>3. Combined license (COL) action items (COL license information), which identify certain matters that must be addressed in the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report (FSAR) by an applicant who references this appendix. These items constitute information requirements but are not the only acceptable set of information in the FSAR. An applicant may depart from or omit these items, provided that the departure or omission is identified and justified in the FSAR. After issuance of a construction permit or COL, these items are not requirements for the licensee unless such items are restated in the FSAR.
</P>
<P>4. The investment protection short-term availability controls in Section 16.3 of the DCD.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Tier 2</I>* means the portion of the Tier 2 information, designated as such in the generic DCD, which is subject to the change process in Section VIII.B.6 of this appendix. This designation expires for some Tier 2* information under paragraph VIII.B.6.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses</I> means:
</P>
<P>1. Changing any of the elements of the method described in the plant-specific DCD unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>2. Changing from a method described in the plant-specific DCD to another method unless that method has been approved by the NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>H. All other terms in this appendix have the meaning set out in 10 CFR 50.2, or 52.1, or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, as applicable.


</P>
<HD1>III. Scope and Contents
</HD1>
<P>A. Tier 1, Tier 2 (including the investment protection short-term availability controls in Section 16.3), and the generic TSs in the AP1000 Design Control Document, Revision 19, (Public Version) (AP1000 DCD), APP-GW-GL-702, dated June 13, 2011, and the amendments thereto in DCP_NRC_003343, Supplemental Information to Support the AP1000 Design Certification Extension (Non-proprietary), APP-GW-GL-705 Rev. 0, copyright 2021 (Supplemental Information), are approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of the generic DCD and Supplemental Information may be obtained from Zachary S. Harper, Manager, Licensing Engineering, Westinghouse Electric Company, 1000 Westinghouse Drive, Cranberry Township, Pennsylvania 16066, telephone (412) 374-5093. Copies of the generic DCD and Supplemental Information are also available for examination and copying at the NRC's PDR, Room O-1F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. Copies are available, by appointment, for examination at the NRC Library, Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, telephone (301) 415-5610, email <I>Library.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> The generic DCD and Supplemental Information can also be viewed online in the NRC Library at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html</I> by searching under ADAMS Accession Nos. ML11171A500 and ML21081A023. If you do not have access to ADAMS or if you have problems accessing documents located in ADAMS, contact the NRC's PDR reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-3747, or by email at <I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> Copies of the AP1000 materials are available in the ADAMS Public Documents Collection. All approved material is available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email at <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov</I> or go to <I>https://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>B. An applicant or licensee referencing this appendix, in accordance with Section IV of this appendix, shall incorporate by reference and comply with the requirements of this appendix, including Tier 1, Tier 2 (including the investment protection short-term availability controls in Section 16.3 of the DCD), and the generic TS except as otherwise provided in this appendix. Conceptual design information in the generic DCD and the evaluation of severe accident mitigation design alternatives in appendix 1B of the generic DCD are not part of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. If there is a conflict between Tier 1 and Tier 2 of the DCD, then Tier 1 controls.
</P>
<P>D.1. If there is a conflict between the generic DCD and either the application for the initial design certification of the AP1000 design or NUREG-1793, “Final Safety Evaluation Report Related to Certification of the Westinghouse Standard Design,” and Supplement No. 1, then the generic DCD controls.
</P>
<P>2. If there is a conflict between the generic DCD and either the application for Amendment 1 to the design certification of the AP1000 design or NUREG-1793, “Final Safety Evaluation Report Related to Certification of the Westinghouse Standard Design,” Supplement No. 2, then the generic DCD controls.
</P>
<P>3. The generic DCD controls if there is a conflict between the generic DCD and any of the following Safety Evaluations (SEs) for the matters discussed in the “Verification Evaluation Report,” May 11, 2021 (ADAMS Accession No. ML21131A221):
</P>
<P>a. SE for Southern Nuclear Company's (SNC) Vogtle Units 3 and 4, respectively, license amendment request (LAR) 16-026, February 27, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17024A307);
</P>
<P>b. SE for SNC Vogtle Units 3 and 4, respectively, LAR-17-023, April 20, 2018 (ADAMS Accession No. ML18085A628);
</P>
<P>c. SE for SNC Vogtle Units 3 and 4, respectively, LAR 17-001, February 1, 2018 (ADAMS Accession No. ML18011A894);
</P>
<P>d. SE for SNC Vogtle Units 3 and 4, respectively, LAR-17-003, August 23, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17213A224);
</P>
<P>e. SE for SNC Vogtle Units 3 and 4, respectively, LAR-16-006, February 24, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16320A174);
</P>
<P>f. SE for Florida Power and Light Company's Turkey Point Nuclear Generating Units 6 and 7, respectively, Chapter 16, “Technical Specifications,” November 10, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16266A185).


</P>
<P>E. Design activities for structures, systems, and components that are wholly outside the scope of this appendix may be performed using site characteristics, provided the design activities do not affect the DCD or conflict with the interface requirements.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Additional Requirements and Restrictions
</HD1>
<P>A. An applicant for a combined license that wishes to reference this appendix shall, in addition to complying with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.77, 52.79, and 52.80, comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>1. Incorporate by reference, as part of its application, this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. Include, as part of its application:
</P>
<P>a. A plant-specific DCD containing the same type of information and using the same organization and numbering as the generic DCD for the AP1000 design, as modified and supplemented by the applicant's exemptions and departures;
</P>
<P>b. The reports on departures from and updates to the plant-specific DCD required by paragraph X.B of this appendix;
</P>
<P>c. Plant-specific TS, consisting of the generic and site-specific TS that are required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a;
</P>
<P>d. Information demonstrating compliance with the site parameters and interface requirements;
</P>
<P>e. Information that addresses the COL action items; and
</P>
<P>f. Information required by 10 CFR 52.47(a) that is not within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. Include, in the plant-specific DCD, the sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information) and safeguards information referenced in the AP1000 DCD.
</P>
<P>4. Include, as part of its application, a demonstration that an entity other than Westinghouse is qualified to supply the AP1000 design, unless Westinghouse supplies the design for the applicant's use.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission reserves the right to determine in what manner this appendix may be referenced by an applicant for a construction permit or operating license under 10 CFR part 50.


</P>
<HD1>V. Applicable Regulations
</HD1>
<P>A.1. Except as indicated in paragraph B of this section, the regulations that apply to the AP1000 design are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 73, and 100, codified as of January 23, 2006, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the FSER (NUREG-1793) and Supplement No. 1. The regulations that apply to those portions of the AP1000 design as amended by Supplemental Information are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 52, 73, and 100, codified as of December 6, 2021, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the SEs listed in paragraphs III.D.3.a through III.D.3.f of this appendix.




</P>
<P>2. The regulations that apply to those portions of the AP1000 design approved by Amendment 1 are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 73, and 100, codified as of December 30, 2011, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the Supplement No. 2 of the FSER (NUREG-1793).
</P>
<P>B. The AP1000 design is exempt from portions of the following regulations:
</P>
<P>1. Paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of 10 CFR 50.34—Plant Safety Parameter Display Console;
</P>
<P>2. Paragraph (c)(1) of 10 CFR 50.62—Auxiliary (or emergency) feedwater system; and
</P>
<P>3. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, GDC 17—Second offsite power supply circuit.


</P>
<HD1>VI. Issue Resolution
</HD1>
<P>A. The Commission has determined that the structures, systems, components, and design features of the AP1000 design comply with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the applicable regulations identified in Section V of this appendix; and therefore, provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public. A conclusion that a matter is resolved includes the finding that additional or alternative structures, systems, components, design features, design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justifications are not necessary for the AP1000 design.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission considers the following matters resolved within the meaning of 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5) in subsequent proceedings for issuance of a COL, amendment of a COL, or renewal of a COL, proceedings held under 10 CFR 52.103, and enforcement proceedings involving plants referencing this appendix:
</P>
<P>1. All nuclear safety issues, except for the generic TS and other operational requirements, associated with the information in the FSER, Supplement Nos. 1 and 2, and the Verification Evaluation Report (ADAMS Accession No. ML21131A221); Tier 1 and Tier 2 (including referenced information, which the context indicates is intended as requirements, and the investment protection short-term availability controls in Section 16.3 of the DCD) as amended by Supplemental Information; and the rulemaking records for initial certification, Amendment 1, and the duration extension of the AP1000 design;
</P>
<P>2. All nuclear safety and safeguards issues associated with the referenced sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information) and safeguards information which, in context, are intended as requirements in the generic DCD for the AP1000 design;
</P>
<P>3. All generic changes to the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in Sections VIII.A.1 and VIII.B.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>4. All exemptions from the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in Sections VIII.A.4 and VIII.B.4 of this appendix, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>5. All departures from the DCD that are approved by license amendment, but only for that plant;


</P>
<P>6. Except as provided in paragraph VIII.B.5.g of this appendix, all departures from Tier 2 under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix that do not require prior NRC approval, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>7. All environmental issues concerning severe accident mitigation design alternatives associated with the information in the NRC's EA for the AP1000 design, Appendix 1B of Revision 15 of the generic DCD, the NRC's final EA for Amendment 1 to the AP1000 design, Appendix 1B of Revision 19 of the generic DCD, and the NRC's final EA relating to the extension of the AP1000 standard design certification, for plants referencing this appendix whose site parameters are within those specified in the severe accident mitigation design alternatives evaluation.
</P>
<P>C. The Commission does not consider operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to be matters resolved within the meaning of 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5). The Commission reserves the right to require operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix by rule, regulation, order, or license condition.
</P>
<P>D. Except under the change processes in Section VIII of this appendix, the Commission may not require an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to:
</P>
<P>1. Modify structures, systems, components, or design features as described in the generic DCD;
</P>
<P>2. Provide additional or alternative structures, systems, components, or design features not discussed in the generic DCD; or
</P>
<P>3. Provide additional or alternative design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justification for structures, systems, components, or design features discussed in the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>E. The NRC will specify at an appropriate time the procedures to be used by an interested person who wishes to review portions of the design certification or references containing safeguards information or sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information, such as trade secrets or financial information obtained from a person that are privileged or confidential (10 CFR 2.390 and 10 CFR part 9)), for the purpose of participating in the hearing required by 10 CFR 52.85, the hearing provided under 10 CFR 52.103, or in any other proceeding relating to this appendix in which interested persons have a right to request an adjudicatory hearing.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Duration of This Appendix
</HD1>
<P>This appendix may be referenced for a period of 40 years from February 27, 2006, except as provided for in 10 CFR 52.55(b) and 52.57(b). This appendix remains valid for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix until the application is withdrawn or the license expires, including any period of extended operation under a renewed license.


</P>
<HD1>VIII. Processes for Changes and Departures
</HD1>
<P>A. Tier 1 information.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs A.3 or A.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. Departures from Tier 1 information that are required by the Commission through plant-specific orders are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(4).
</P>
<P>4. Exemptions from Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(b)(1) and 52.98(f). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 1, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.


</P>
<P>B. Tier 2 information.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs B.3, B.4, B.5, or B.6 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may not require new requirements on Tier 2 information by plant-specific order while this appendix is in effect under 10 CFR 52.55 or 52.61, unless:
</P>
<P>a. A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix, or to ensure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>b. Special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 50.12(a) are present.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may request an exemption from Tier 2 information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.12(a). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 2, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design. The grant of an exemption to an applicant must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing. The grant of an exemption to a licensee must be subject to an opportunity for a hearing in the same manner as license amendments.
</P>
<P>5.a. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may depart from Tier 2 information, without prior NRC approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to or departure from Tier 1 information, Tier 2* information, or the TS, or requires a license amendment under paragraphs B.5.b or B.5.c of this section. When evaluating the proposed departure, an applicant or licensee shall consider all matters described in the plant-specific DCD.
</P>
<P>b. A proposed departure from Tier 2, other than one affecting resolution of a severe accident issue identified in the plant-specific DCD or one affecting information required by 10 CFR52.47(a)(28) to address 10 CFR 50.150, requires a license amendment if it would:
</P>
<P>(1) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component (SSC) important to safety and previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(3) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of an SSC important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(5) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(6) Create a possibility for a malfunction of an SSC important to safety with a different result than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(7) Result in a design basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the plant-specific DCD being exceeded or altered; or
</P>
<P>(8) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.
</P>
<P>c. A proposed departure from Tier 2 affecting resolution of an ex-vessel severe accident design feature identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a substantial increase in the probability of an ex-vessel severe accident such that a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed and determined to be not credible could become credible; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a substantial increase in the consequences to the public of a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed.
</P>
<P>d. If an applicant or licensee proposes to depart from the information required by 10 CFR 52.47(a)(28) to be included in the FSAR for the standard design certification, then the applicant or licensee shall consider the effect of the changed feature or capability on the original assessment required by 10 CFR 50.150(a). The applicant or licensee must also document how the modified design features and functional capabilities continue to meet the assessment requirements in 10 CFR 50.150(a)(1) in accordance with Section X of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. If a departure requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section, it is governed by 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>f. A departure from Tier 2 information that is made under paragraph B.5 of this section does not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>g. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under 10 CFR 52.103(a), who believes that an applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not complied with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix when departing from Tier 2 information, may petition to admit into the proceeding such a contention. In addition to compliance with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309, the petition must demonstrate that the departure does not comply with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix. Further, the petition must demonstrate that the change bears on an asserted noncompliance with an ITAAC acceptance criterion in the case of a 10 CFR 52.103 preoperational hearing, or that the change bears directly on the amendment request in the case of a hearing on a license amendment. Any other party may file a response. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. The Commission may admit such a contention if it determines the petition raises a genuine issue of material fact regarding compliance with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>6.a. An applicant who references this appendix may not depart from Tier 2* information, which is designated with italicized text or brackets and an asterisk in the generic DCD, without NRC approval. The departure will not be considered a resolved issue, within the meaning of Section VI of this appendix and 10 CFR 52.63(a)(5).
</P>
<P>b. A licensee who references this appendix may not depart from the following Tier 2* matters without prior NRC approval. A request for a departure will be treated as a request for a license amendment under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>(1) Maximum fuel rod average burn-up.
</P>
<P>(2) Fuel principal design requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel criteria evaluation process.
</P>
<P>(4) Fire areas.
</P>
<P>(5) Reactor coolant pump type.
</P>
<P>(6) Small-break loss-of-coolant accident (LOCA) analysis methodology.
</P>
<P>(7) Screen design criteria.
</P>
<P>(8) Heat sink data for containment pressure analysis.


</P>
<P>c. A licensee who references this appendix may not, before the plant first achieves full power following the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), depart from the following Tier 2* matters except under paragraph B.6.b of this section. After the plant first achieves full power, the following Tier 2* matters revert to Tier 2 status and are subject to the departure provisions in paragraph B.5 of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Nuclear Island structural dimensions.
</P>
<P>(2) American Society of Mechanical Engineers Boiler &amp; Pressure Vessel Code (ASME Code) piping design and welding restrictions, and ASME Code Cases.
</P>
<P>(3) Design Summary of Critical Sections.


</P>
<P>(4) American Concrete Institute (ACI) 318, ACI 349, American National Standards Institute/American Institute of Steel Construction (ANSI/AISC)N-690, and American Iron and Steel Institute (AISI), “Specification for the Design of Cold Formed Steel Structural Members, Part 1 and 2,” 1996 Edition and 2000 Supplement.
</P>
<P>(5) Definition of critical locations and thicknesses.
</P>
<P>(6) Seismic qualification methods and standards.
</P>
<P>(7) Nuclear design of fuel and reactivity control system, except burn-up limit.
</P>
<P>(8) Motor-operated and power-operated valves.
</P>
<P>(9) Instrumentation and control system design processes, methods, and standards.
</P>
<P>(10) Passive residual heat removal (PRHR) natural circulation test (first plant only).
</P>
<P>(11) Automatic depressurization system (ADS) and core make-up tank (CMT) verification tests (first three plants only).
</P>
<P>(12) Polar crane parked orientation.
</P>
<P>(13) Piping design acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(14) Containment vessel design parameters, including ASME Code, Section III, Subsection NE.
</P>
<P>(15) Human factors engineering.
</P>
<P>(16) Steel composite structural module details.
</P>
<P>d. Departures from Tier 2* information that are made under paragraph B.6 of this section do not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. Operational requirements.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved in the design certification rulemaking and do not require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 50.109. Generic changes that require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in paragraphs A or B of this section.
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to generic TS and other operational requirements are applicable to all applicants who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs C.3 or C.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may require plant-specific departures on generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required and special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present. The Commission may modify or supplement generic TS and other operational requirements that were not completely reviewed and approved or require additional TS and other operational requirements on a plant-specific basis, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant who references this appendix may request an exemption from the generic technical specifications or other operational requirements. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 52.7. The grant of an exemption must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing.
</P>
<P>5. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license, or for operation under 10 CFR 52.103(a), who believes that an operational requirement approved in the DCD or a TS derived from the generic TS must be changed may petition to admit such a contention into the proceeding. The petition must comply with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309 and must demonstrate why special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present, or demonstrate compliance with the Commission's regulations in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix. Any other party may file a response to the petition. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. All other issues with respect to the plant-specific TS or other operational requirements are subject to a hearing as part of the license proceeding.
</P>
<P>6. After issuance of a license, the generic TS have no further effect on the plant-specific TS. Changes to the plant-specific TS will be treated as license amendments under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<HD1>IX. Inspections, Tests, Analyses, and Acceptance Criteria (ITAAC)
</HD1>
<P>A.1. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall perform and demonstrate conformance with the ITAAC before fuel load. With respect to activities subject to an ITAAC, an applicant for a license may proceed at its own risk with design and procurement activities. A licensee may also proceed at its own risk with design, procurement, construction, and preoperational activities, even though the NRC may not have found that any particular ITAAC has been met.
</P>
<P>2. The licensee who references this appendix shall notify the NRC that the required inspections, tests, and analyses in the ITAAC have been successfully completed and that the corresponding acceptance criteria have been met.
</P>
<P>3. If an activity is subject to an ITAAC and the applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not demonstrated that the ITAAC has been met, the applicant or licensee may either take corrective actions to successfully complete that ITAAC, request an exemption from the ITAAC under Section VIII of this appendix and 10 CFR 52.97(b), or petition for rulemaking to amend this appendix by changing the requirements of the ITAAC, under 10 CFR 2.802 and 52.97(b). Such rulemaking changes to the ITAAC must meet the requirements of paragraph VIII.A.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>B.1. The NRC shall ensure that the required inspections, tests, and analyses in the ITAAC are performed. The NRC shall verify that the inspections, tests, and analyses referenced by the licensee have been successfully completed and, based solely thereon, find that the prescribed acceptance criteria have been met. At appropriate intervals during construction, the NRC shall publish notices of the successful completion of ITAAC in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>2. In accordance with 10 CFR 52.103(g), the Commission shall find that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC for the license are met before fuel load.
</P>
<P>3. After the Commission has made the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the ITAAC do not, by virtue of their inclusion within the DCD, constitute regulatory requirements either for licensees or for renewal of the license; except for specific ITAAC, which are the subject of a § 52.103(a) hearing, their expiration will occur upon final Commission action in such a proceeding. However, subsequent modifications must comply with the Tier 1 and Tier 2 design descriptions in the plant-specific DCD unless the licensee has complied with the applicable requirements of 10 CFR 52.98 and Section VIII of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>X. Records and Reporting
</HD1>
<P>A. Records
</P>
<P>1. The applicant for this appendix shall maintain a copy of the generic DCD that includes all generic changes it makes to Tier 1 and Tier 2, and the generic TS and other operational requirements. The applicant shall maintain sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information) and safeguards information referenced in the generic DCD for the period that this appendix may be referenced, as specified in Section VII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain the plant-specific DCD to accurately reflect both generic changes to the generic DCD and plant-specific departures made under Section VIII of this appendix throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>3. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall prepare and maintain written evaluations which provide the bases for the determinations required by Section VIII of this appendix. These evaluations must be retained throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>4.a. The applicant for the AP1000 design shall maintain a copy of the AIA performed to comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.150(a) for the term of the certification (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>b. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain a copy of the AIA performed to comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.150(a) throughout the pendency of the application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>B. Reporting
</P>
<P>1. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit a report to the NRC containing a brief description of any plant-specific departures from the DCD, including a summary of the evaluation of each. This report must be filed in accordance with the filing requirements applicable to reports in 10 CFR 52.3.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit updates to its DCD, which reflect the generic changes to and plant-specific departures from the generic DCD made under Section VIII of this appendix. These updates must be filed under the filing requirements applicable to final safety analysis report updates in 10 CFR 52.3 and 50.71(e).
</P>
<P>3. The reports and updates required by paragraphs X.B.1 and X.B.2 must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>a. On the date that an application for a license referencing this appendix is submitted, the application must include the report and any updates to the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>b. During the interval from the date of application for a license to the date the Commission makes its findings required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the report must be submitted semi-annually. Updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted annually and may be submitted along with amendments to the application.
</P>
<P>c. After the Commission makes the finding required by 10 CFR 52.103(g), the reports and updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted, along with updates to the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report for the facility, at the intervals required by 10 CFR 50.59(d)(2) and 50.71(e)(4), respectively, or at shorter intervals as specified in the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 76 FR 82102, Dec. 30, 2011; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019; 86 FR 52598, Sept. 22, 2021; 90 FR 28873, July 2, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 52—Design Certification Rule for the ESBWR Design




</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Appendix E constitutes the standard design certification for the Economic Simplified Boiling-Water Reactor (ESBWR) design, in accordance with 10 CFR part 52, subpart B. The applicant for certification of the ESBWR design is GE-Hitachi Nuclear Energy.
</P>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Generic design control document (generic DCD)</I> means the document containing the Tier 1 and Tier 2 information and generic technical specifications that is incorporated by reference into this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Generic technical specifications (generic TS)</I> means the information required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a for the portion of the plant that is within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Plant-specific DCD</I> means that portion of the combined license (COL) final safety analysis report (FSAR) that sets forth both the generic DCD information and any plant-specific changes to generic DCD information.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Tier 1</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved and certified by this appendix (Tier 1 information). The design descriptions, interface requirements, and site parameters are derived from Tier 2 information. Tier 1 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Definitions and general provisions;
</P>
<P>2. Design descriptions;
</P>
<P>3. Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAACs);
</P>
<P>4. Significant site parameters; and
</P>
<P>5. Significant interface requirements.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Tier 2</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved but not certified by this appendix (Tier 2 information). Compliance with Tier 2 is required, but generic changes to and plant-specific departures from Tier 2 are governed by Section VIII of this appendix. Compliance with Tier 2 provides a sufficient, but not the only acceptable, method for complying with Tier 1. Compliance methods differing from Tier 2 must satisfy the change process in Section VIII of this appendix. Regardless of these differences, an applicant or licensee must meet the requirement in paragraph III.B of this appendix to reference Tier 2 when referencing Tier 1. Tier 2 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Information required by §§ 52.47(a) and 52.47(c), with the exception of generic TS and conceptual design information;
</P>
<P>2. Supporting information on the inspections, tests, and analyses that will be performed to demonstrate that the acceptance criteria in the ITAACs have been met;
</P>
<P>3. COL action items (COL license information), which identify certain matters that must be addressed in the site-specific portion of the FSAR by an applicant who references this appendix. These items constitute information requirements but are not the only acceptable set of information in the FSAR. An applicant may depart from or omit these items, provided that the departure or omission is identified and justified in the FSAR. After issuance of a construction permit or COL, these items are not requirements for the licensee unless such items are restated in the FSAR; and
</P>
<P>4. The availability controls in Appendix 19ACM of the DCD.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Tier 2*</I> means the portion of the Tier 2 information, designated as such in the generic DCD, which is subject to the change process in paragraph VIII.B.6 of this appendix. This designation expires for some Tier 2* information under paragraph VIII.B.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses</I> means:
</P>
<P>1. Changing any of the elements of the method described in the plant-specific DCD unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>2. Changing from a method described in the plant-specific DCD to another method unless that method has been approved by the NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>H. All other terms in this appendix have the meaning set out in 10 CFR 50.2, 10 CFR 52.1, or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, as applicable.
</P>
<HD1>III. Scope and Contents
</HD1>
<P>A. Incorporation by reference approval. The documents in Table 1 are approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies of the generic DCD from Jerald G. Head, Senior Vice President, Regulatory Affairs, GE-Hitachi Nuclear Energy, 3901 Castle Hayne Road, MC A-18, Wilmington, NC 28401, telephone: 1-910-819-5692. You can view the generic DCD online in the NRC Library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</I> In ADAMS, search under the ADAMS Accession No. listed in Table 1. If you do not have access to ADAMS or if you have problems accessing documents located in ADAMS, contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, 1-301-415-3747, or by email at <I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> These documents can also be viewed at the Federal rulemaking Web site, <I>http://www.regulations.gov,</I> by searching for documents filed under Docket ID NRC-2010-0135. Copies of these documents are available for examination and copying at the NRC's PDR located at Room O-1F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. Copies are also available for examination at the NRC Library located at Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, telephone: 301-415-5610, email: <I>Library.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> All approved material is available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 1-202-741-6030 or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibrlocations.html.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Documents Approved for Incorporation by Reference
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Document No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Document title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ADAMS Accession No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GE Hitachi:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">26A6642AB Rev. 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ESBWR Design Control Document, Revision 10, Tier 1, dated April 2014</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14104A929 (package)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">26A6642AB Rev. 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ESBWR Design Control Document, Revision 10, Tier 2, dated April 2014</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14104A929 (package)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bechtel Power Corporation:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">BC-TOP-3-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Tornado and Extreme Wind Design Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants,” Topical Report, Revision 3, August 1974</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14093A218
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">BC-TOP-9A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Design of Structures for Missile Impact,” Topical Report, Revision 2, September 1974</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14093A217
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General Electric:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">GEZ-4982A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Electric Large Steam Turbine Generator Quality Control Program, The STG Global Supply Chain Quality Management System (MFGGLO-GEZ-0010) Revision 1.2, February 7, 2006</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14093A215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GE Nuclear Energy:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-11209-04A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“GE Nuclear Energy Quality Assurance Program Description,” Class 1, Revision 8, March 31, 1989</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14093A209
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-31960-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“BWR Owners' Group Long-Term Stability Solutions Licensing Methodology,” Class I, November 1995</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14093A212
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-31960-A—Supplement 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“BWR Owners' Group Long-Term Stability Solutions Licensing Methodology,” Class I, November 1995</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14093A211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-32465-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">GE Nuclear Energy and BWR Owners' Group, “Reactor Stability Detect and Suppress Solutions Licensing Basis Methodology for Reload Applications,” Class I, August 1996</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14093A210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GE-Hitachi Nuclear Energy:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“NP-2010 COL Demonstration Project Quality Assurance Plan,” Revision 6, August 2009</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14248A297
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33219</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Human Factors Engineering Functional Requirements Analysis Implementation Plan,” Revision 4, Class I, February 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML100350104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33260</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Quality Assurance Requirements for Suppliers of Equipment and Services to the GEH ESBWR Project,” Revision 5, Class I, April 2008</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14248A648
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33262</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Human Factors Engineering Operating Experience Review Implementation Plan,” Revision 3, Class I, January 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML100340030
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33266</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Human Factors Engineering Staffing and Qualifications Implementation Plan,” Revision 3, Class I, January 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML100350167
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33267</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Human Factors Engineering Human Reliability Analysis Implementation Plan,” Revision 4, Class I, January 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML100330609
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33277</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Human Factors Engineering Human Performance Monitoring Implementation Plan,” Revision 4, Class I, January 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML100270770
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33278</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Human Factors Engineering Design Implementation Plan,” Revision 4, Class I, January 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML100270468
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33289</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Reliability Assurance Program,” Revision 2, Class II, September 2008</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML14248A662
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33337</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Initial Core Transient Analyses,” Revision 1, Class I, April 2009</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML091130628
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33338</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“ESBWR Feedwater Temperature Operating Domain Transient and Accident Analysis,” Revision 1, Class I, May 2009</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML091380173
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33373-A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Dynamic, Load-Drop, and Thermal-Hydraulic Analyses for ESBWR Fuel Racks,” Revision 5, Class I, October 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML102990226 (part 1)
<br/>ML102990228 (part 2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NEDO-33411</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Risk Significance of Structures, Systems and Components for the Design Phase of the ESBWR,” Revision 2, Class I, February 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ML100610417</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>B. An applicant or licensee referencing this appendix, in accordance with Section IV of this appendix, shall incorporate by reference and comply with the requirements of this appendix, including Tier 1, Tier 2 (including the availability controls in Appendix 19ACM of the DCD), and the generic TS except as otherwise provided in this appendix. Conceptual design information in the generic DCD and the evaluation of severe accident mitigation design alternatives in NEDO-33306, Revision 4, “ESBWR Severe Accident Mitigation Design Alternatives,” are not part of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. If there is a conflict between Tier 1 and Tier 2 of the DCD, then Tier 1 controls.
</P>
<P>D. If there is a conflict between the generic DCD and either the application for design certification of the ESBWR design or NUREG-1966, “Final Safety Evaluation Report Related to Certification of the ESBWR Standard Design,” (FSER) and Supplement No. 1 to NUREG-1966, then the generic DCD controls.
</P>
<P>E. Design activities for structures, systems, and components that are wholly outside the scope of this appendix may be performed using site characteristics, provided the design activities do not affect the DCD or conflict with the interface requirements.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Additional Requirements and Restrictions
</HD1>
<P>A. An applicant for a COL who references this appendix shall, in addition to complying with the requirements of §§ 52.77, 52.79, and 52.80, comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>1. Incorporate by reference, as part of its application, this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. Include, as part of its application:
</P>
<P>a. A plant-specific DCD containing the same type of information and using the same organization and numbering as the generic DCD for the ESBWR design, either by including or incorporating by reference the generic DCD information, and as modified and supplemented by the applicant's exemptions and departures;
</P>
<P>b. The reports on departures from and updates to the plant-specific DCD required by paragraph X.B of this appendix;
</P>
<P>c. Plant-specific TS, consisting of the generic and site-specific TS that are required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a;
</P>
<P>d. Information demonstrating that the site characteristics fall within the site parameters and that the interface requirements have been met;
</P>
<P>e. Information that addresses the COL action items;
</P>
<P>f. Information required by § 52.47(a) that is not within the scope of this appendix;
</P>
<P>g. Information demonstrating that hurricane loads on those structures, systems, and components described in Section 3.3.2 of the generic DCD are either bounded by the total tornado loads analyzed in Section 3.3.2 of the generic DCD or will meet applicable NRC requirements with consideration of hurricane loads in excess of the total tornado loads; and hurricane-generated missile loads on those structures, systems, and components described in Section 3.5.2 of the generic DCD are either bounded by tornado-generated missile loads analyzed in Section 3.5.1.4 of the generic DCD or will meet applicable NRC requirements with consideration of hurricane-generated missile loads in excess of the tornado-generated missile loads; and
</P>
<P>h. Information demonstrating that the spent fuel pool level instrumentation is designed to allow the connection of an independent power source, and that the instrumentation will maintain its design accuracy following a power interruption or change in power source without requiring recalibration.
</P>
<P>3. Include, in the plant-specific DCD, the sensitive, unclassified, non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information referenced in the ESBWR generic DCD.
</P>
<P>4. Include, as part of its application, a demonstration that an entity other than GE-Hitachi Nuclear Energy is qualified to supply the ESBWR design unless GE-Hitachi Nuclear Energy supplies the design for the applicant's use.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission reserves the right to determine in what manner this appendix may be referenced by an applicant for a construction permit or operating license under 10 CFR part 50.
</P>
<HD1>V. Applicable Regulations
</HD1>
<P>A. Except as indicated in paragraph B of this section, the regulations that apply to the ESBWR design are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 73, and 100, codified as of October 6, 2014, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the FSER (NUREG-1966) and Supplement No. 1.
</P>
<P>B. The ESBWR design is exempt from portions of the following regulations:
</P>
<HD2>1. Paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of 10 CFR 50.34—Separate Plant Safety Parameter Display Console.






</HD2>
<HD1>VI. Issue Resolution
</HD1>
<P>A. The Commission has determined that the structures, systems, components, and design features of the ESBWR design comply with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the applicable regulations identified in Section V of this appendix; and therefore, provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public. A conclusion that a matter is resolved includes the finding that additional or alternative structures, systems, components, design features, design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justifications are not necessary for the ESBWR design.


</P>
<P>B. The Commission considers the following matters resolved within the meaning of § 52.63(a)(5) in subsequent proceedings for issuance of a COL, amendment of a COL, or renewal of a COL, proceedings held under § 52.103, and enforcement proceedings involving plants referencing this appendix:
</P>
<P>1. All nuclear safety issues associated with the information in the FSER and Supplement No. 1; Tier 1, Tier 2 (including referenced information, which the context indicates is intended as requirements, and the availability controls in Appendix 19ACM of the DCD), the 20 documents referenced in Table 1 of paragraph III.A, and the rulemaking record for certification of the ESBWR design, with the exception of: generic TS and other operational requirements such as human factors engineering procedure development and training program development in Sections 18.9 and 18.10 of the generic DCD; hurricane loads on those structures, systems, and components described in Section 3.3.2 of the generic DCD that are not bounded by the total tornado loads analyzed in Section 3.3.2 of the generic DCD; hurricane-generated missile loads on those structures, systems, and components described in Section 3.5.2 of the generic DCD that are not bounded by tornado-generated missile loads analyzed in Section 3.5.1.4 of the generic DCD; and spent fuel pool level instrumentation design in regard to the connection of an independent power source, and how the instrumentation will maintain its design accuracy following a power interruption or change in power source without recalibration;
</P>
<P>2. All nuclear safety and safeguards issues associated with the referenced information in the 50 non-public documents in Tables 1.6-1 and 1.6-2 of Tier 2 of the DCD which contain sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information and which, in context, are intended as requirements in the generic DCD for the ESBWR design, with the exception of human factors engineering procedure development and training program development in Chapters 18.9 and 18.10 of the generic DCD;
</P>
<P>3. All generic changes to the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraphs VIII.A.1 and VIII.B.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>4. All exemptions from the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraphs VIII.A.4 and VIII.B.4 of this appendix, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>5. All departures from the DCD that are approved by license amendment, but only for that plant;


</P>
<P>6. Except as provided in paragraph VIII.B.5.g of this appendix, all departures from Tier 2 under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix that do not require prior NRC approval, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>7. All environmental issues concerning severe accident mitigation design alternatives associated with the information in the NRC's Environmental Assessment for the ESBWR design (ADAMS Accession No. ML111730382) and NEDO-33306, Revision 4, “ESBWR Severe Accident Mitigation Design Alternatives,” (ADAMS Accession No. ML102990433) for plants referencing this appendix whose site characteristics fall within those site parameters specified in NEDO-33306.
</P>
<P>C. The Commission does not consider operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to be matters resolved within the meaning of § 52.63(a)(5). The Commission reserves the right to require operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix by rule, regulation, order, or license condition.
</P>
<P>D. Except under the change processes in Section VIII of this appendix, the Commission may not require an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to:
</P>
<P>1. Modify structures, systems, components, or design features as described in the generic DCD;
</P>
<P>2. Provide additional or alternative structures, systems, components, or design features not discussed in the generic DCD; or
</P>
<P>3. Provide additional or alternative design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justification for structures, systems, components, or design features discussed in the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>E. The NRC will specify at an appropriate time the procedures to be used by an interested person who seeks to review portions of the design certification or references containing safeguards information or sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information, such as trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that are privileged or confidential (10 CFR 2.390 and 10 CFR part 9), and security-related information), for the purpose of participating in the hearing required by § 52.85, the hearing provided under § 52.103, or in any other proceeding relating to this appendix in which interested persons have a right to request an adjudicatory hearing.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Duration of This Appendix
</HD1>
<P>This appendix may be referenced for a period of 40 years from November 14, 2014, except as provided for in §§ 52.55(b) and 52.57(b). This appendix remains valid for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix until the application is withdrawn or the license expires, including any period of extended operation under a renewed license.


</P>
<HD1>VIII. Processes for Changes and Departures
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Tier 1 information
</HD2>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs A.3 or A.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. Departures from Tier 1 information that are required by the Commission through plant-specific orders are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(4).
</P>
<P>4. Exemptions from Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in §§ 52.63(b)(1) and 52.98(f). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 1, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.


</P>
<HD2>B. Tier 2 information
</HD2>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs B.3, B.4, B.5, or B.6 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may not require new requirements on Tier 2 information by plant-specific order while this appendix is in effect under 10 CFR 52.55 or 52.61, unless:
</P>
<P>a. A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix, or to ensure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>b. Special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 50.12(a) are present.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may request an exemption from Tier 2 information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.12(a). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 2, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design. The grant of an exemption to an applicant must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing. The grant of an exemption to a licensee must be subject to an opportunity for a hearing in the same manner as license amendments.
</P>
<P>5.a. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may depart from Tier 2 information, without prior NRC approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to or departure from Tier 1 information, Tier 2* information, or the TS, or requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section. When evaluating the proposed departure, an applicant or licensee shall consider all matters described in the plant-specific DCD.
</P>
<P>b. A proposed departure from Tier 2, other than one affecting resolution of a severe accident issue identified in the plant-specific DCD or one affecting information required by § 52.47(a)(28) to address aircraft impacts, requires a license amendment if it would:
</P>
<P>(1) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component (SSC) important to safety and previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(3) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of an SSC important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(5) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(6) Create a possibility for a malfunction of an SSC important to safety with a different result than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(7) Result in a design-basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the plant-specific DCD being exceeded or altered; or
</P>
<P>(8) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.


</P>
<P>c. A proposed departure from Tier 2 affecting resolution of an ex-vessel severe accident design feature identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a substantial increase in the probability of an ex-vessel severe accident such that a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed and determined to be not credible could become credible; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a substantial increase in the consequences to the public of a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed.


</P>
<P>d. A proposed departure from Tier 2 information required by § 52.47(a)(28) to address aircraft impacts shall consider the effect of the changed design feature or functional capability on the original aircraft impact assessment required by 10 CFR 50.150(a). The applicant or licensee shall describe in the plant-specific DCD how the modified design features and functional capabilities continue to meet the aircraft impact assessment requirements in 10 CFR 50.150(a)(1).
</P>
<P>e. If a departure requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section, it is governed by 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>f. A departure from Tier 2 information that is made under paragraph B.5 of this section does not require an exemption from this appendix.


</P>
<P>g. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under § 52.103(a), who believes that an applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not complied with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix when departing from Tier 2 information, may petition to admit into the proceeding such a contention. In addition to compliance with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309, the petition must demonstrate that the departure does not comply with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix. Further, the petition must demonstrate that the change bears on an asserted noncompliance with an ITAAC acceptance criterion in the case of a § 52.103 preoperational hearing, or that the change bears directly on the amendment request in the case of a hearing on a license amendment. Any other party may file a response. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. The Commission may admit such a contention if it determines the petition raises a genuine issue of material fact regarding compliance with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>6.a. An applicant who references this appendix may not depart from Tier 2* information, which is designated with italicized text or brackets and an asterisk in the generic DCD, without NRC approval. The departure will not be considered a resolved issue, within the meaning of Section VI of this appendix and § 52.63(a)(5).
</P>
<P>b. A licensee who references this appendix may not depart from the following Tier 2* matters without prior NRC approval. A request for a departure will be treated as a request for a license amendment under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>(1) Fuel mechanical and thermal-mechanical design evaluation reports, including fuel burnup limits.
</P>
<P>(2) Control rod mechanical and nuclear design reports.
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel nuclear design report.
</P>
<P>(4) Critical power correlation.
</P>
<P>(5) Fuel licensing acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(6) Control rod licensing acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(7) Mechanical and structural design of spent fuel storage racks.
</P>
<P>(8) Steam dryer pressure load analysis methodology.


</P>
<P>c. A licensee who references this appendix may not, before the plant first achieves full power following the finding required by § 52.103(g), depart from the following Tier 2* matters except under paragraph B.6.b of this section. After the plant first achieves full power, the following Tier 2* matters revert to Tier 2 status and are subject to the departure provisions in paragraph B.5 of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section III, Subsections NE (Division 1) and CC (Division 2) for containment vessel design.
</P>
<P>(2) American Concrete Institute 349 and American National Standards Institute/American Institute of Steel Construction—N690.
</P>
<P>(3) Power-operated valves.
</P>
<P>(4) Equipment seismic qualification methods.
</P>
<P>(5) Piping design acceptance criteria.
</P>
<P>(6) Instrument setpoint methodology.
</P>
<P>(7) Safety-Related Distribution Control and Information System performance specification and architecture.
</P>
<P>(8) Safety System Logic and Control hardware and software.
</P>
<P>(9) Human factors engineering design and implementation.
</P>
<P>(10) First of a kind testing for reactor stability (first plant only).
</P>
<P>(11) Reactor precritical heatup with reactor water cleanup/shutdown cooling (first plant only).
</P>
<P>(12) Isolation condenser system heatup and steady state operation (first plant only).
</P>
<P>(13) Power maneuvering in the feedwater temperature operating domain (first plant only).
</P>
<P>(14) Load maneuvering capability (first plant only).
</P>
<P>(15) Defense-in-depth stability solution evaluation test (first plant only).
</P>
<P>d. Departures from Tier 2* information that are made under paragraph B.6 of this section do not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. Operational requirements.
</P>
<P>1. Generic changes to generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved in the design certification rulemaking and do not require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 50.109. Generic changes that require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in paragraphs A or B of this section.
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to generic TS and other operational requirements are applicable to all applicants who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs C.3 or C.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may require plant-specific departures on generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required and special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present. The Commission may modify or supplement generic TS and other operational requirements that were not completely reviewed and approved or require additional TS and other operational requirements on a plant-specific basis, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant who references this appendix may request an exemption from the generic TS or other operational requirements. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of § 52.7. The grant of an exemption must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing.
</P>
<P>5. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license, or for operation under § 52.103(a), who believes that an operational requirement approved in the DCD or a TS derived from the generic TS must be changed may petition to admit such a contention into the proceeding. The petition must comply with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309 and must demonstrate why special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present, or demonstrate compliance with the Commission's regulations in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix. Any other party may file a response to the petition. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. All other issues with respect to the plant-specific TS or other operational requirements are subject to a hearing as part of the license proceeding.
</P>
<P>6. After issuance of a license, the generic TS have no further effect on the plant-specific TS. Changes to the plant-specific TS will be treated as license amendments under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<HD1>IX. [Reserved]
</HD1>
<HD1>X. Records and Reporting
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Records
</HD2>
<P>1. The applicant for this appendix shall maintain a copy of the generic DCD that includes all generic changes it makes to Tier 1 and Tier 2, and the generic TS and other operational requirements. The applicant shall maintain the sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information referenced in the generic DCD for the period that this appendix may be referenced, as specified in Section VII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain the plant-specific DCD to accurately reflect both generic changes to the generic DCD and plant-specific departures made under Section VIII of this appendix throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>3. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall prepare and maintain written evaluations that provide the bases for the determinations required by Section VIII of this appendix. These evaluations must be retained throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>4.a. The applicant for the ESBWR design shall maintain a copy of the aircraft impact assessment performed to comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.150(a) for the term of the certification (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>b. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain a copy of the aircraft impact assessment performed to comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.150(a) throughout the pendency of the application and for the term of the license (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<HD2>B. Reporting
</HD2>
<P>1. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit a report to the NRC containing a brief description of any plant-specific departures from the DCD, including a summary of the evaluation of each. This report must be filed in accordance with the filing requirements applicable to reports in § 52.3.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit updates to its plant-specific DCD that reflect the generic changes to and plant-specific departures from the generic DCD made under Section VIII of this appendix. These updates shall be filed under the filing requirements applicable to final safety analysis report updates in 10 CFR 52.3 and 50.71(e).
</P>
<P>3. The reports and updates required by paragraphs X.B.1 and X.B.2 of this appendix must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>a. On the date that an application for a license referencing this appendix is submitted, the application must include the report and any updates to the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>b. During the interval from the date of application for a license to the date the Commission makes its finding required by § 52.103(g), the report must be submitted semi-annually. Updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted annually and may be submitted along with amendments to the application.
</P>
<P>c. After the Commission makes the finding required by § 52.103(g), the reports and updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted, along with updates to the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report for the facility, at the intervals required by 10 CFR 50.59(d)(2) and 50.71(e)(4), respectively, or at shorter intervals as specified in the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61983, Oct. 15, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021; 90 FR 28873, July 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 52—Design Certification Rule for the APR1400 Design




</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Appendix F constitutes the standard design certification for the Advanced Power Reactor 1400 (APR1400) design, in accordance with 10 CFR part 52, subpart B. The applicant for certification of the APR1400 design is Korea Electric Power Corporation and Korea Hydro &amp; Nuclear Power Co., Ltd. (KEPCO/KHNP).
</P>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Generic design control document (generic DCD)</I> means the document containing the Tier 1 and Tier 2 information (including the technical and topical reports referenced in Chapter 1) and generic technical specifications that is incorporated by reference into this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Generic technical specifications (generic TS)</I> means the information required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a for the portion of the plant that is within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Plant-specific DCD</I> means that portion of the combined license (COL) final safety analysis report that sets forth both the generic DCD information and any plant-specific changes to generic DCD information.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Tier 1</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved and certified by this appendix (Tier 1 information). The design descriptions, interface requirements, and site parameters are derived from Tier 2 information. Tier 1 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Definitions and general provisions;
</P>
<P>2. Design descriptions;
</P>
<P>3. Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC);
</P>
<P>4. Significant site parameters; and
</P>
<P>5. Significant interface requirements.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Tier 2</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved but not certified by this appendix (Tier 2 information). Compliance with Tier 2 is required, but generic changes to and plant-specific departures from Tier 2 are governed by Section VIII of this appendix. Compliance with Tier 2 provides a sufficient, but not the only acceptable, method for complying with Tier 1. Compliance methods differing from Tier 2 must satisfy the change process in Section VIII of this appendix. Regardless of these differences, an applicant or licensee must meet the requirement in paragraph III.B of this appendix to reference Tier 2 when referencing Tier 1. Tier 2 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Information required by § 52.47(a) and (c), with the exception of generic TS and conceptual design information;
</P>
<P>2. Supporting information on the inspections, tests, and analyses that will be performed to demonstrate that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC have been met; and
</P>
<P>3. COL Items (COL license information), which identify certain matters that must be addressed in the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report by an applicant who references this appendix. These items constitute information requirements but are not the only acceptable set of information in the final safety analysis report. An applicant may depart from or omit these items, provided that the departure or omission is identified and justified in the final safety analysis report. After issuance of a construction permit or COL, these items are not requirements for the licensee unless such items are restated in the final safety analysis report.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses</I> means:
</P>
<P>1. Changing any of the elements of the method described in the plant-specific DCD unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>2. Changing from a method described in the plant-specific DCD to another method unless that method has been approved by the NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>G. All other terms in this appendix have the meaning set out in 10 CFR 50.2, 10 CFR 52.1, or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, as applicable.
</P>
<HD1>III. Scope and Contents
</HD1>
<P>A. Incorporation by reference approval. The APR1400 material is approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Office of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain copies of the generic DCD from Yun-Ho Kim, President, KHNP Central Research Institute, 70, 1312-gil, Yuseong-daero, Yuseong-gu, Daejeon, 34101, Korea. You can view the generic DCD online in the NRC Library at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</I> In ADAMS, search under ADAMS Accession No. ML18228A667. If you do not have access to ADAMS or if you have problems accessing documents located in ADAMS, contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-3747, or by email at <I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> Copies of this document are available for examination and copying at the NRC's PDR located at Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. Copies are also available for examination at the NRC Library located at Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, telephone: 301-415-5610, email: <I>Library.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> All approved material is available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to <I>https://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibrlocations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Korea Electric Power Corporation and Korea Hydro &amp; Nuclear Power Co, Ltd
</P>
<P>a. APR1400 Design Control Document Tier 1 (APR1400-K-X-IT-14001-NP), Revision 3 (August 2018).
</P>
<P>b. APR1400 Design Control Document Tier 2 (APR1400-K-X-FS-14002-NP), Revision 3 (August 2018), including:
</P>
<P>i. Chapter 1, Introduction and General Description of the Plant.
</P>
<P>ii. Chapter 2, Site Characteristics.
</P>
<P>iii. Chapter 3, Design of Structures, Systems, Components, and Equipment.
</P>
<P>iv. Chapter 4, Reactor.
</P>
<P>v. Chapter 5, Reactor Coolant System and Connecting Systems.
</P>
<P>vi. Chapter 6, Engineered Safety Features.
</P>
<P>vii. Chapter 7, Instrumentation and Controls.
</P>
<P>viii. Chapter 8, Electric Power.
</P>
<P>ix. Chapter 9, Auxiliary Systems.
</P>
<P>x. Chapter 10, Steam and Power Conversion System.
</P>
<P>xi. Chapter 11, Radioactive Waste Management.
</P>
<P>xii. Chapter 12, Radiation Protection.
</P>
<P>xiii. Chapter 13, Conduct of Operations.
</P>
<P>xiv. Chapter 14, Verification Programs.
</P>
<P>xv. Chapter 15, Transient and Accident Analyses.
</P>
<P>xvi. Chapter 16, Technical Specifications.
</P>
<P>xvii. Chapter 17, Quality Assurance and Reliability Assurance.
</P>
<P>xviii. Chapter 18, Human Factors Engineering.
</P>
<P>xix. Chapter 19, Probabilistic Risk Assessment and Severe Accident Evaluation.
</P>
<P>c. APR1400-E-B-NR-16001-NP, Evaluation of Main Steam and Feedwater Piping Applied to the Graded Approach for the APR1400, Rev. 0 (July 2017).
</P>
<P>d. APR1400-E-B-NR-16002-NP, Evaluation of Safety Injection and Shutdown Cooling Piping Applied to the Graded Approach for the APR1400, Rev. 1 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>e. APR1400-E-I-NR-14001-NP, Human Factors Engineering Program Plan, Rev. 4 (July 2018).
</P>
<P>f. APR1400-E-I-NR-14002-NP, Operating Experience Review Implementation Plan, Rev. 2 (January 2018).
</P>
<P>g. APR1400-E-I-NR-14003-NP, Functional Requirements Analysis and Function Allocation Implementation Plan, Rev. 2 (January 2018).
</P>
<P>h. APR1400-E-I-NR-14004-NP, Task Analysis Implementation Plan, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>i. APR1400-E-I-NR-14006-NP, Treatment of Important Human Actions Implementation Plan, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>j. APR1400-E-I-NR-14007-NP, Human-System Interface Design Implementation Plan, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>k. APR1400-E-I-NR-14008-NP, Human Factors Verification and Validation Implementation Plan, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>l. APR1400-E-I-NR-14010-NP, Human Factors Verification and Validation Scenarios, Rev. 2 (January 2018).
</P>
<P>m. APR1400-E-I-NR-14011-NP, Basic Human-System Interface, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>n. APR1400-E-I-NR-14012-NP, Style Guide, Rev. 2 (January 2018).
</P>
<P>o. APR1400-E-J-NR-14001-NP, Component Interface Module, Rev. 1 (March 2017).
</P>
<P>p. APR1400-E-J-NR-17001-NP, Secure Development and Operational Environment for APR1400 Computer-Based I&amp;C Safety Systems, Rev. 0 (September 2017).
</P>
<P>q. APR1400-E-N-NR-14001-NP, Design Features To Address GSI-191, Rev. 3 (February 2018).
</P>
<P>r. APR1400-E-P-NR-14005-NP, Evaluations and Design Enhancements To Incorporate Lessons Learned from Fukushima Dai-Ichi Nuclear Accident, Rev. 2 (July 2017).
</P>
<P>s. APR1400-E-S-NR-14004-NP, Evaluation of Effects of HRHF Response Spectra on SSCs, Rev. 3 (December 2017).
</P>
<P>t. APR1400-E-S-NR-14005-NP, Evaluation of Structure-Soil-Structure Interaction (SSSI) Effects, Rev. 2 (December 2017).
</P>
<P>u. APR1400-E-S-NR-14006-NP, Stability Check for NI Common Basemat, Rev. 5 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>v. APR1400-E-X-NR-14001-NP, Equipment Qualification Program, Rev. 4 (July 2018).
</P>
<P>w. APR1400-F-A-NR-14001-NP, Small Break LOCA Evaluation Model, Rev. 1 (March 2017).
</P>
<P>x. APR1400-F-A-NR-14003-NP, Post-LOCA Long Term Cooling Evaluation Model, Rev. 1 (March 2017).
</P>
<P>y. APR1400-F-A-TR-12004-NP-A, Realistic Evaluation Methodology for Large-Break LOCA of the APR1400 (August 2018).
</P>
<P>z. APR1400-F-C-NR-14001-NP, CPC Setpoint Analysis Methodology for APR1400, Rev. 3 (June 2018).
</P>
<P>aa. APR1400-F-C-NR-14002-NP, Functional Design Requirements for a Core Operating Limit Supervisory System for APR1400, Rev. 1 (February 2017).
</P>
<P>ab. APR1400-F-C-NR-14003-NP, Functional Design Requirements for a Core Protection Calculator System for APR1400, Rev. 1 (March 2017).
</P>
<P>ac. APR1400-F-C-TR-12002-NP-A, KCE-1 Critical Heat Flux Correlation for PLUS7 Thermal Design (April 2017).
</P>
<P>ad. APR1400-F-M-TR-13001-NP-A, PLUS7 Fuel Design for the APR1400 (August 2018).
</P>
<P>ae. APR1400-H-N-NR-14005-NP, Summary Stress Report for Primary Piping, Rev. 2 (September 2016).
</P>
<P>af. APR1400-H-N-NR-14012-NP, Mechanical Analysis for New and Spent Fuel Storage Racks, Rev. 3 (August 2017).
</P>
<P>ag. APR1400-K-I-NR-14005-NP, Staffing and Qualifications Implementation Plan, Rev. 1 (February 2017).
</P>
<P>ah. APR1400-K-I-NR-14009-NP, Design Implementation Plan, Rev. 1 (February 2017).
</P>
<P>ai. APR1400-K-Q-TR-11005-NP-A, KHNP Quality Assurance Program Description (QAPD) for the APR1400 Design Certification, Rev. 2 (October 2016).
</P>
<P>aj. APR1400-Z-A-NR-14006-NP, Non-LOCA Safety Analysis Methodology, Rev. 1 (February 2017).
</P>
<P>ak. APR1400-Z-A-NR-14007-NP, Mass and Energy Release Methodologies for LOCA and MSLB, Rev. 2 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>al. APR1400-Z-A-NR-14011-NP, Criticality Analysis of New and Spent Fuel Storage Racks, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>am. APR1400-Z-A-NR-14019-NP, CCF Coping Analysis, Rev. 3 (July 2018).
</P>
<P>an. APR1400-Z-J-NR-14001-NP, Safety I&amp;C System, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>ao. APR1400-Z-J-NR-14002-NP, Diversity and Defense-in-Depth, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>ap. APR1400-Z-J-NR-14003-NP, Software Program Manual, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>aq. APR1400-Z-J-NR-14004-NP, Uncertainty Methodology and Application for Instrumentation, Rev. 2 (January 2018).
</P>
<P>ar. APR1400-Z-J-NR-14005-NP, Setpoint Methodology for Safety-Related Instrumentation, Rev. 2 (January 2018).
</P>
<P>as. APR1400-Z-J-NR-14012-NP, Control System CCF Analysis, Rev. 3 (May 2018).
</P>
<P>at. APR1400-Z-J-NR-14013-NP, Response Time Analysis of Safety I&amp;C System, Rev. 2 (January 2018).
</P>
<P>au. APR1400-Z-M-NR-14008-NP, Pressure-Temperature Limits Methodology for RCS Heatup and Cooldown, Rev. 1 (January 2018).
</P>
<P>av. APR1400-Z-M-TR-12003-NP-A, Fluidic Device Design for the APR1400 (April 2017).
</P>
<P>2. Combustion Engineering, Inc.
</P>
<P>a. CEN-310-NP-A, CPC and Methodology Changes for the CPC Improvement Program (April 1986).
</P>
<P>b. CEN-312-NP, Overview Description of the Core Operating Limit Supervisory System (COLSS), Rev. 01-NP (November 1986).
</P>
<P>3. Westinghouse
</P>
<P>a. WCAP-10697-NP-A, Common Qualified Platform Topical Report, Rev. 3 (February 2013).
</P>
<P>b. WCAP-17889-NP (APR1400-A-N-NR-17001-NP), Validation of SCALE 6.1.2 with 238-Group ENDF/B-VII.0 Cross Section Library for APR1400 Design Certification, Rev. 0 (June 2014).
</P>
<P>B. An applicant or licensee referencing this appendix, in accordance with Section IV of this appendix, shall incorporate by reference and comply with the requirements of this appendix except as otherwise provided in this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. If there is a conflict between Tier 1 and Tier 2 of the DCD, then Tier 1 controls.


</P>
<P>D. If there is a conflict between the generic DCD and either the application for the design certification of the APR1400 design or  “Final Safety Evaluation Report Related to Certification of the APR1400 Standard Design,” then the generic DCD controls.
</P>
<P>E. Design activities for structures, systems, and components that are wholly outside the scope of this appendix may be performed using site characteristics, provided the design activities do not affect the DCD or conflict with the interface requirements.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Additional Requirements and Restrictions
</HD1>
<P>A. An applicant for a COL that wishes to reference this appendix shall, in addition to complying with the requirements of §§ 52.77, 52.79, and 52.80, comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>1. Incorporate by reference, as part of its application, this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. Include, as part of its application:
</P>
<P>a. A plant-specific DCD containing the same type of information and using the same organization and numbering as the generic DCD for the APR1400 design, either by including or incorporating by reference the generic DCD information, and as modified and supplemented by the applicant's exemptions and departures;
</P>
<P>b. The reports on departures from and updates to the plant-specific DCD required by paragraph X.B of this appendix;
</P>
<P>c. Plant-specific TS, consisting of the generic and site-specific TS that are required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a;
</P>
<P>d. Information demonstrating that the site characteristics fall within the site parameters and that the interface requirements have been met;
</P>
<P>e. Information that addresses the COL items; and
</P>
<P>f. Information required by § 52.47(a) that is not within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. Include, in the plant-specific DCD, the sensitive, unclassified, non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information referenced in the APR1400 generic DCD.
</P>
<P>4. Include, as part of its application, a demonstration that an entity other than KEPCO/KHNP is qualified to supply the APR1400 design, unless KEPCO/KHNP supplies the design for the applicant's use.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission reserves the right to determine in what manner this appendix may be referenced by an applicant for a construction permit or operating license under 10 CFR part 50.


</P>
<HD1>V. Applicable Regulations
</HD1>
<P>A. The regulations that apply to the APR1400 design are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 52, 73, and 100, codified as of September 19, 2019, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the final safety evaluation report.
</P>
<P>B. [Reserved]


</P>
<HD1>VI. Issue Resolution
</HD1>
<P>A. The Commission has determined that the structures, systems, and components and design features of the APR1400 design comply with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the applicable regulations identified in Section V of this appendix; and therefore, provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public. A conclusion that a matter is resolved includes the finding that additional or alternative structures, systems, and components, design features, design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justifications are not necessary for the APR1400 design.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission considers the following matters resolved within the meaning of § 52.63(a)(5) in subsequent proceedings for issuance of a COL, amendment of a COL, or renewal of a COL, proceedings held under § 52.103, and enforcement proceedings involving plants referencing this appendix:
</P>
<P>1. All nuclear safety issues associated with the information in the final safety evaluation report, Tier 1, Tier 2, and the rulemaking record for certification of the APR1400 design, with the exception of generic TS and other operational requirements;
</P>
<P>2. All nuclear safety and safeguards issues associated with the referenced information in the 53 non-public documents in Tables 1.6-1 and 1.6-2 of Tier 2 of the DCD, which contain sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information and which, in context, are intended as requirements in the generic DCD for the APR1400 design;
</P>
<P>3. All generic changes to the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraphs VIII.A.1 and VIII.B.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>4. All exemptions from the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraphs VIII.A.4 and VIII.B.4 of this appendix, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>5. All departures from the DCD that are approved by license amendment, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>6. Except as provided in paragraph VIII.B.5.f of this appendix, all departures from Tier 2 under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix that do not require prior NRC approval, but only for that plant; and
</P>
<P>7. All environmental issues concerning severe accident mitigation design alternatives associated with the information in the NRC's environmental assessment for the APR1400 design (ADAMS Accession No. ML18306A607) and APR1400-E-P-NR-14006, Revision 2, “Severe Accident Mitigation Design Alternatives (SAMDAs) for the APR1400” (ML18235A158) for plants referencing this appendix whose site characteristics fall within those site parameters specified in APR1400-E-P-NR-14006.
</P>
<P>C. The Commission does not consider operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to be matters resolved within the meaning of § 52.63(a)(5). The Commission reserves the right to require operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix by rule, regulation, order, or license condition.
</P>
<P>D. Except under the change processes in Section VIII of this appendix, the Commission may not require an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to:
</P>
<P>1. Modify structures, systems, components, or design features as described in the generic DCD;
</P>
<P>2. Provide additional or alternative structures, systems, components, or design features not discussed in the generic DCD; or
</P>
<P>3. Provide additional or alternative design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justification for structures, systems, components, or design features discussed in the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>E. The NRC will specify, at an appropriate time, the procedures to be used by an interested person who wishes to review portions of the design certification or references containing safeguards information or sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information, such as trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that are privileged or confidential (10 CFR 2.390 and 10 CFR part 9), and security-related information), for the purpose of participating in the hearing required by § 52.85, the hearing provided under § 52.103, or in any other proceeding relating to this appendix, in which interested persons have a right to request an adjudicatory hearing.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Duration of This Appendix
</HD1>
<P>This appendix may be referenced for a period of 40 years from September 19, 2019, except as provided for in §§ 52.55(b) and 52.57(b). This appendix remains valid for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix until the application is withdrawn or the license expires, including any period of extended operation under a renewed license.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Processes for Changes and Departures
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Tier 1 Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs A.3 or A.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. Departures from Tier 1 information that are required by the Commission through plant-specific orders are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(4).
</P>
<P>4. Exemptions from Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in §§ 52.63(b)(1) and 52.98(f). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 1, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
</P>
<HD2>B. Tier 2 Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs B.3, B.4, or B.5, of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may not require new requirements on Tier 2 information by plant-specific order, while this appendix is in effect under § 52.55 or § 52.61, unless:
</P>
<P>a. A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix, or to ensure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>b. Special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 50.12(a) are present.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may request an exemption from Tier 2 information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.12(a). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 2, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design. The granting of an exemption to an applicant must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing. The granting of an exemption to a licensee must be subject to an opportunity for a hearing in the same manner as license amendments.
</P>
<P>5.a. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may depart from Tier 2 information, without prior NRC approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to or departure from Tier 1 information, or the TS, or requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section. When evaluating the proposed departure, an applicant or licensee shall consider all matters described in the plant-specific DCD.
</P>
<P>b. A proposed departure from Tier 2, other than one affecting resolution of a severe accident issue identified in the plant-specific DCD or one affecting information required by § 52.47(a)(28) to address aircraft impacts, requires a license amendment if it would:
</P>
<P>(1) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety and previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(3) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(5) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(6) Create a possibility for a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety with a different result than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(7) Result in a design-basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the plant-specific DCD being exceeded or altered; or
</P>
<P>(8) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.
</P>
<P>c. A proposed departure from Tier 2, affecting resolution of an ex-vessel severe accident design feature identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a substantial increase in the probability of an ex-vessel severe accident such that a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed and determined to be not credible could become credible; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a substantial increase in the consequences to the public of a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed.
</P>
<P>d. A proposed departure from Tier 2 information required by § 52.47(a)(28) to address aircraft impacts shall consider the effect of the changed design feature or functional capability on the original aircraft impact assessment required by 10 CFR 50.150(a). The applicant or licensee shall describe, in the plant-specific DCD, how the modified design features and functional capabilities continue to meet the aircraft impact assessment requirements in 10 CFR 50.150(a)(1).
</P>
<P>e. If a departure requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section, it is governed by 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>f. A departure from Tier 2 information that is made under paragraph B.5 of this section does not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>g. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under § 52.103(a), who believes that an applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not complied with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix when departing from Tier 2 information, may petition to admit into the proceeding such a contention. In addition to complying with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309, the petition must demonstrate that the departure does not comply with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix. Further, the petition must demonstrate that the change bears on an asserted noncompliance with an ITAAC acceptance criterion in the case of a § 52.103 preoperational hearing, or that the change bears directly on the amendment request in the case of a hearing on a license amendment. Any other party may file a response. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. The Commission may admit such a contention if it determines the petition raises a genuine issue of material fact regarding compliance with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>C. Operational Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. Changes to APR1400 DC generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved in the design certification rulemaking and do not require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 50.109. Changes that require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in paragraphs A or B of this section.
</P>
<P>2. Changes to APR1400 DC generic TS and other operational requirements are applicable to all applicants who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs C.3 or C.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may require plant-specific departures on generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required and special circumstances, as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present. The Commission may modify or supplement generic TS and other operational requirements that were not completely reviewed and approved or require additional TS and other operational requirements on a plant-specific basis, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant who references this appendix may request an exemption from the generic TS or other operational requirements. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of § 52.7. The granting of an exemption must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing.
</P>
<P>5. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license, or for operation under § 52.103(a), who believes that an operational requirement approved in the DCD or a TS derived from the generic TS must be changed, may petition to admit such a contention into the proceeding. The petition must comply with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309 and must demonstrate why special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present, or demonstrate compliance with the Commission's regulations in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix. Any other party may file a response to the petition. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. All other issues with respect to the plant-specific TS or other operational requirements are subject to a hearing as part of the licensing proceeding.
</P>
<P>6. After issuance of a license, the generic TS have no further effect on the plant-specific TS. Changes to the plant-specific TS will be treated as license amendments under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<HD1>IX. [Reserved]
</HD1>
<HD1>X. Records and Reporting
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Records
</HD2>
<P>1. The applicant for this appendix shall maintain a copy of the generic DCD that includes all generic changes that are made to Tier 1 and Tier 2, and the generic TS and other operational requirements. The applicant shall maintain the sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information referenced in the generic DCD for the period that this appendix may be referenced, as specified in Section VII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain the plant-specific DCD to accurately reflect both generic changes to the generic DCD and plant-specific departures made under Section VIII of this appendix throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<P>3. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall prepare and maintain written evaluations which provide the bases for the determinations required by Section VIII of this appendix. These evaluations must be retained throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<P>4.a. The applicant for the APR1400 design shall maintain a copy of the aircraft impact assessment performed to comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.150(a) for the term of the certification (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>b. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain a copy of the aircraft impact assessment performed to comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.150(a) throughout the pendency of the application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<HD2>B. Reporting
</HD2>
<P>1. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit a report to the NRC containing a brief description of any plant-specific departures from the DCD, including a summary of the evaluation of each departure. This report must be filed in accordance with the filing requirements applicable to reports in § 52.3.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit updates to its plant-specific DCD, which reflect the generic changes to and plant-specific departures from the generic DCD made under Section VIII of this appendix. These updates shall be filed under the filing requirements applicable to final safety analysis report updates in 10 CFR 50.71(e) and 52.3.
</P>
<P>3. The reports and updates required by paragraphs X.B.1 and X.B.2 of this appendix must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>a. On the date that an application for a license referencing this appendix is submitted, the application must include the report and any updates to the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>b. During the interval from the date of application for a license to the date the Commission makes its finding required by § 52.103(g), the report must be submitted semi-annually. Updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted annually and may be submitted along with amendments to the application.
</P>
<P>c. After the Commission makes the finding required by § 52.103(g), the reports and updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted, along with updates to the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report for the facility, at the intervals required by 10 CFR 50.59(d)(2) and 50.71(e)(4), respectively, or at shorter intervals as specified in the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 23452, May 22, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021; 90 FR 28873, July 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 52—Design Certification Rule for NuScale




</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Appendix G constitutes the standard design certification for the NuScale design (hereinafter referred to as NuScale), in accordance with 10 CFR part 52, subpart B. The applicant for this standard design certification NuScale is NuScale Power, LLC.
</P>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Generic design control document (generic DCD)</I> means the documents containing the Tier 1 and Tier 2 information (including the technical and topical reports referenced in Chapter 1) and generic technical specifications that are incorporated by reference into this appendix.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Generic technical specifications (generic TS)</I> means the information required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a for the portion of the plant that is within the scope of this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Plant-specific DCD</I> means that portion of the combined license (COL) final safety analysis report (FSAR) that sets forth both the generic DCD information and any plant-specific changes to generic DCD information.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Tier 1</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved and certified by this appendix (Tier 1 information). The design descriptions, interface requirements, and site parameters are derived from Tier 2 information. Tier 1 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Definitions and general provisions;
</P>
<P>2. Design descriptions;
</P>
<P>3. Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC);
</P>
<P>4. Significant site parameters; and
</P>
<P>5. Significant interface requirements.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Tier 2</I> means the portion of the design-related information contained in the generic DCD that is approved but not certified by this appendix (Tier 2 information). Compliance with Tier 2 is required, but generic changes to and plant-specific departures from Tier 2 are governed by Section VIII of this appendix. Compliance with Tier 2 provides a sufficient, but not the only acceptable, method for complying with Tier 1. Compliance methods differing from Tier 2 must satisfy the change process in Section VIII of this appendix. Regardless of these differences, an applicant or licensee must meet the requirement in paragraph III.B of this appendix to reference Tier 2 when referencing Tier 1. Tier 2 information includes:
</P>
<P>1. Information required by § 52.47(a) and (c), with the exception of generic TS and conceptual design information;
</P>
<P>2. Supporting information on the inspections, tests, and analyses that will be performed to demonstrate that the acceptance criteria in the ITAAC have been met; and
</P>
<P>3. COL action items (COL license information) identify certain matters that must be addressed in the site-specific portion of the FSAR by an applicant who references this appendix. These items constitute information requirements but are not the only acceptable set of information in the FSAR. An applicant may depart from or omit these items, provided that the departure or omission is identified and justified in the FSAR. After issuance of a construction permit or COL, these items are not requirements for the licensee unless such items are restated in the FSAR.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses</I> means:
</P>
<P>1. Changing any of the elements of the method described in the plant-specific DCD unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>2. Changing from a method described in the plant-specific DCD to another method unless that method has been approved by the NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Nuclear power unit,</I> as applied to this certified design, means a nuclear power module and associated equipment necessary for electric power generation and includes those structures, systems, and components required to provide reasonable assurance the facility can be operated without undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>H. All other terms in this appendix have the meaning set out in 10 CFR 50.2, 10 CFR 52.1, or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, as applicable.
</P>
<HD1>III. Scope and Contents
</HD1>
<P>A. Incorporation by reference.
</P>
<P>1. Certain material listed in paragraph III.A.2 of this appendix is incorporated by reference into this appendix G with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material in paragraph III.A.2 of this appendix may be obtained from NuScale Power, LLC, 6650 SW Redwood Lane, Suite 210, Portland, Oregon 97224, telephone: 1-971-371-1592, email: <I>RegulatoryAffairs@nuscalepower.com,</I> and can be inspected as follows:
</P>
<P>a. Contact the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission at: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852; telephone: 301-415-7000; email: <I>Library.Resource@nrc.gov; https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/pdr.html.</I>
</P>
<P>b. Access ADAMS and view the material online in the NRC Library at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</I> In ADAMS, search under ADAMS Accession No. ML20225A071. The material is available in the ADAMS Public Documents collection.
</P>
<P>c. If you do not have access to ADAMS or if you have problems accessing documents located in ADAMS, contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, 301-415-3747, or by email at <I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>d. For information on the availability of this material at the National Archives and Records Administration, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>2. Material incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>a. NuScale Standard Plant Design Certification Application, Certified Design Descriptions and Inspections, Tests, Analyses, &amp; Acceptance Criteria (ITAAC), Part 2—Tier 1, Revision 5, July 2020.
</P>
<P>b. NuScale Standard Plant Design Certification Application, Part 2—Tier 2, Revision 5, July 2020, including:
</P>
<P>i. Chapter One, Introduction and General Description of the Plant.
</P>
<P>ii. Chapter Two, Site Characteristics and Site Parameters.
</P>
<P>iii. Chapter Three, Design of Structures, Systems, Components and Equipment.
</P>
<P>iv. Chapter Four, Reactor.
</P>
<P>v. Chapter Five, Reactor Coolant System and Connecting Systems.
</P>
<P>vi. Chapter Six, Engineered Safety Features.
</P>
<P>vii. Chapter Seven, Instrumentation and Controls.
</P>
<P>viii. Chapter Eight, Electric Power.
</P>
<P>ix. Chapter Nine, Auxiliary Systems.
</P>
<P>x. Chapter Ten, Steam and Power Conversion System.
</P>
<P>xi. Chapter Eleven, Radioactive Waste Management.
</P>
<P>xii. Chapter Twelve, Radiation Protection.
</P>
<P>xiii. Chapter Thirteen, Conduct of Operations.
</P>
<P>xiv. Chapter Fourteen, Initial Test Program and Inspections, Tests, Analyses, and Acceptance Criteria.
</P>
<P>xv. Chapter Fifteen, Transient and Accident Analyses.
</P>
<P>xvi. Chapter Sixteen, Technical Specifications.
</P>
<P>xvii. Chapter Seventeen, Quality Assurance and Reliability Assurance.
</P>
<P>xviii. Chapter Eighteen, Human Factors Engineering.
</P>
<P>xix. Chapter Nineteen, Probabilistic Risk Assessment and Severe Accident Evaluation.
</P>
<P>xx. Chapter Twenty, Mitigation of Beyond-Design-Basis Events.
</P>
<P>xxi. Chapter Twenty-One, Multi-Module Design Considerations.
</P>
<P>c. DCA Part 4, Volume 1, Revision 5.0, Generic Technical Specifications, NuScale Nuclear Power Plants, Volume 1: Specifications.
</P>
<P>d. DCA Part 4, Volume 2, Revision 5.0, Generic Technical Specifications, NuScale Nuclear Power Plants, Volume 2: Bases.
</P>
<P>e. ES-0304-1381-NP, Human-System Interface Style Guide, December 2019, Revision 4.
</P>
<P>f. RP-0215-10815-NP, Concept of Operations, May 2019, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>g. RP-0316-17614-NP, Human Factors Engineering Operating Experience Review Results Summary Report, December 7, 2016, Revision 0.
</P>
<P>h. RP-0316-17615-NP, Human Factors Engineering Functional Requirements Analysis and Function Allocation Results Summary Report, December 2, 2016, Revision 0.
</P>
<P>i. RP-0316-17616-NP, Human Factors Engineering Task Analysis Results Summary Report, April 2019, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>j. RP-0316-17617-NP, Human Factors Engineering Staffing and Qualifications Results Summary Report, December 2, 2016, Revision 0.
</P>
<P>k. RP-0316-17618-NP, Human Factors Engineering Treatment of Important Human Actions Results Summary Report, December 2, 2016, Revision 0.
</P>
<P>l. RP-0316-17619-NP, Human Factors Engineering Human-System Interface Design Results Summary Report, April 2019, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>m. RP-0516-49116-NP, Control Room Staffing Plan Validation Results, December 2, 2016, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>n. RP-0914-8534-NP, Human Factors Engineering Program Management Plan, April 2019, Revision 5.
</P>
<P>o. RP-0914-8543-NP, Human Factors Verification and Validation Implementation Plan, April 2019, Revision 5.
</P>
<P>p. RP-0914-8544-NP, Human Factors Engineering Design Implementation Plan, November 2019, Revision 4.
</P>
<P>q. RP-1018-61289-NP, Human Factors Engineering Verification and Validation Results Summary Report, July 2019, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>r. RP-1215-20253-NP, Control Room Staffing Plan Validation Methodology, December 2, 2016, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>s. TR-0116-20781-NP, Fluence Calculation Methodology and Results, July 2019, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>t. TR-0116-20825-NP-A, Applicability of AREVA Fuel Methodology for the NuScale Design, June 2016, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>u. TR-0116-21012-NP-A, NuScale Power Critical Heat Flux Correlations, December 2018, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>v. TR-0316-22048-NP, Nuclear Steam Supply System Advanced Sensor Technical Report, May 2020, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>w. TR-0515-13952-NP-A, Risk Significance Determination, October 2016, Revision 0.
</P>
<P>x. TR-0516-49084-NP, Containment Response Analysis Methodology Technical Report, May 2020, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>y. TR-0516-49416-NP-A, Non-Loss-of-Coolant Accident Analysis Methodology, July 2020, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>z. TR-0516-49417-NP-A, Evaluation Methodology for Stability Analysis of the NuScale Power Module, March 2020, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>aa. TR-0516-49422-NP-A, Loss-of-Coolant Accident Evaluation Model, July 2020, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>ab. TR-0616-48793-NP-A, Nuclear Analysis Codes and Methods Qualification, November 2018, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>ac. TR-0616-49121-NP, NuScale Instrument Setpoint Methodology Technical Report, May 2020, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>ad. TR-0716-50350-NP-A, Rod Ejection Accident Methodology, June 2020, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>ae. TR-0716-50351-NP-A, NuScale Applicability of AREVA Method for the Evaluation of Fuel Assembly Structural Response to Externally Applied Forces, April 2020, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>af. TR-0716-50424-NP, Combustible Gas Control, March 2019, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>ag. TR-0716-50439-NP, NuScale Comprehensive Vibration Assessment Program Analysis Technical Report, July 2019, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>ah. TR-0815-16497-NP-A, Safety Classification of Passive Nuclear Power Plant Electrical Systems, January 2018, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>ai. TR-0816-49833-NP, Fuel Storage Rack Analysis, November 2018, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>aj. TR-0816-50796-NP, Loss of Large Areas Due to Explosions and Fires Assessment, June 2019, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>ak. TR-0816-50797, Mitigation Strategies for Loss of All AC Power Event [NuScale Nonproprietary], October 2019, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>al. TR-0816-51127-NP, NuFuel-HTP2<E T="51">TM</E> Fuel and Control Rod Assembly Designs, December 2019, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>am. TR-0818-61384-NP, Pipe Rupture Hazards Analysis, July 2019, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>an. TR-0915-17564-NP-A, Subchannel Analysis Methodology, February 2019, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>ao. TR-0915-17565-NP-A, Accident Source Term Methodology, February 2020, Revision 4.
</P>
<P>ap. TR-0916-51299-NP, Long-Term Cooling Methodology, May 2020, Revision 3.
</P>
<P>aq. TR-0916-51502-NP, NuScale Power Module Seismic Analysis, April 2019, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>ar. TR-0917-56119-NP, CNV Ultimate Pressure Integrity, June 2019, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>as. TR-0918-60894-NP, NuScale Comprehensive Vibration Assessment Program Measurement and Inspection Plan Technical Report, August 2019, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>at. NP-TR-1010-859-NP-A, NuScale Topical Report: Quality Assurance Program Description for the NuScale Power Plant, May 2020, Revision 5.
</P>
<P>au. TR-1015-18177-NP, Pressure and Temperature Limits Methodology, October 2018, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>av. TR-1015-18653-NP-A, Design of the Highly Integrated Protection System Platform, May 2017, Revision 2.
</P>
<P>aw. TR-1016-51669-NP, NuScale Power Module Short-Term Transient Analysis, July 2019, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>ax. TR-1116-51962-NP, NuScale Containment Leakage Integrity Assurance, May 2019, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>ay. TR-1116-52065-NP, Effluent Release (GALE Replacement) Methodology and Results, November 2018, Revision 1.
</P>
<P>B.1. An applicant or licensee referencing this appendix, in accordance with Section IV of this appendix, shall incorporate by reference and comply with the requirements of this appendix except as otherwise provided in this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. Conceptual design information, as set forth in the design certification application Part 2, Tier 2, Section 1.2, and the discussion of “first principles” contained in design certification application Part 2, Tier 2, Section 14.3.2, are not incorporated by reference into this appendix.
</P>
<P>C. If there is a conflict between Tier 1 and Tier 2 of the DCD, then Tier 1 controls.
</P>
<P>D. If there is a conflict between the generic DCD and either the application for the design certification of NuScale or the final safety evaluation report related to certification of the NuScale standard design, then the generic DCD controls.
</P>
<P>E. Design activities for structures, systems, and components that are wholly outside the scope of this appendix may be performed using site characteristics, provided the design activities do not affect the DCD or conflict with the interface requirements.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Additional Requirements and Restrictions
</HD1>
<P>A. An applicant for a COL that wishes to reference this appendix shall, in addition to complying with the requirements of §§ 52.77, 52.79, and 52.80, comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>1. Incorporate by reference, as part of its application, this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. Include, as part of its application:
</P>
<P>a. A plant-specific DCD containing the same type of information and using the same organization and numbering as the generic DCD for NuScale, either by including or incorporating by reference the generic DCD information, and as modified and supplemented by the applicant's exemptions and departures;
</P>
<P>b. The reports on departures from and updates to the plant-specific DCD required by paragraph X.B of this appendix;
</P>
<P>c. Plant-specific TS, consisting of the generic and site-specific TS that are required by 10 CFR 50.36 and 50.36a;
</P>
<P>d. Information demonstrating that the site characteristics fall within the site parameters and that the interface requirements have been met;
</P>
<P>e. Information that addresses the COL action items;
</P>
<P>f. Information required by § 52.47(a) that is not within the scope of this appendix;
</P>
<P>g. Information demonstrating that necessary shielding to limit radiological dose consistent with the radiation zones specified in design certification application Part 2, Tier 2, Chapter 12, Figure 12.3-1, “Reactor Building Radiation Zone Map,” is provided to account for penetrations in the radiation shield wall between the power module bay and the reactor building steam gallery area;
</P>
<P>h. Information demonstrating that the requirements of 10 CFR 50.34(f)(2)(xxviii) are met with respect to potential radiological releases under accident conditions from the systems used for post-accident hydrogen and oxygen monitoring described in design certification application Part 2, Tier 2, Section 6.2.5; information demonstrating that post-accident leakage from these systems does not result in the total main control room dose exceeding the dose criteria for the surrogate event with significant core damage, which may include use of design features compliant with 10 CFR 50.34(f)(2)(vii), as appropriate; and information demonstrating that post-accident leakage from these systems does not result in the total dose for the surrogate event with significant core damage exceeding the offsite dose criteria, as required by 10 CFR 52.47(a)(2)(iv); and
</P>
<P>i. Information demonstrating that the requirements of 10 CFR 52.47(a)(2)(iv) and General Design Criterion (GDC) 4 and GDC 31 of appendix A to 10 CFR part 50 are met with respect to the structural and leakage integrity of the steam generator tubes that might be compromised by effects from density wave oscillations in the secondary fluid system, including the method of analysis to predict the thermal-hydraulic conditions of the steam generator secondary fluid system and resulting loads, stresses, and deformations from density wave oscillations and reverse flow. This information must be consistent with the other design information regarding steam generator integrity contained in design certification application Part 2, Tier 2, Sections 3.9.2 and 5.4.1.
</P>
<P>3. Include, in the plant-specific DCD, the sensitive, unclassified, non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information referenced in the NuScale generic DCD.
</P>
<P>4. Include, as part of its application, a demonstration that an entity other than NuScale Power, LLC, is qualified to supply the NuScale generic DCD, unless NuScale Power, LLC, supplies the design for the applicant's use.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission reserves the right to determine in what manner this appendix may be referenced by an applicant for a construction permit or operating license under 10 CFR part 50.
</P>
<P>C. A licensee referencing the NuScale design certification is exempt from portions of the following regulation:
</P>
<P>1. Paragraph (m) of 10 CFR 50.54—Minimum Staffing. In lieu of these requirements, a licensee that references this appendix must comply with the following:
</P>
<P>a. A senior operator licensed pursuant to part 55 of this chapter shall be present at the facility or readily available on call at all times during its operation, and shall be present at the facility during initial startup and approach to power, recovery from an unplanned or unscheduled shutdown or significant reduction in power, and refueling, or as otherwise prescribed in the facility license.
</P>
<P>b. Licensees shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>i. Each licensee shall meet the minimum licensed operator staffing requirements identified in Table 1:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Minimum Requirements per Shift for On-Site Staffing of NuScale Power Plants by Operators and Senior Operators Licensed Under 10 CFR Part 55
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Number of units operating


<br/>(a nuclear power unit is considered to be operating when it is in MODE 1, 2, or 3 as defined by the unit's technical specifications)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Position
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">One to twelve units
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">One control room
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Senior operator


<br/>Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1


<br/>2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One to twelve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Senior operator


<br/>Operator</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3


<br/>3
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Source: Design Certification Application, Part 7, Section 6.1.3, “Requested Action.”</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. Each facility licensee shall have at its site a person holding a senior operator license for all fueled units at the site who is assigned responsibility for overall plant operation at all times there is fuel in any unit. At all times any module is fueled, regardless of mode, there must be a licensed operator or senior operator in the control room.
</P>
<P>iii. When a nuclear power unit is in MODE 1, 2, or 3, as defined by the unit's technical specifications, each licensee shall have a person holding a senior operator license for the nuclear power unit in the control room at all times. In addition to this senior operator, a second person who is either a licensed operator or licensed senior operator shall be present at the controls at all times. A third person who is either a licensed operator or licensed senior operator shall be in the control room envelope at all times.
</P>
<P>iv. Each licensee shall have present, during alteration or movement of the core of a nuclear power unit (including fuel loading, fuel transfer, or movement of a module that contains fuel), a person holding a senior operator license or a senior operator license limited to fuel handling to directly supervise the activity and, during this time, the licensee shall not assign other duties to this person.
</P>
<P>2. Appendix J to 10 CFR part 50, Type A testing—Primary Reactor Containment Leakage Testing for Water-Cooled Power Reactors.
</P>
<HD1>V. Applicable Regulations
</HD1>
<P>A. Except as indicated in paragraph B of this section, the regulations that apply to NuScale are in 10 CFR parts 20, 50, 52, 73, and 100, codified as of February 21, 2023, that are applicable and technically relevant, as described in the final safety evaluation report.
</P>
<P>B. The NuScale design is exempt from portions of the following regulations:
</P>
<P>1. Paragraph (f)(2)(vi) of 10 CFR 50.34 and 10 CFR 50.46a—High point venting for the reactor coolant system and reactor pressure vessel head.
</P>
<P>2. Paragraph (f)(2)(viii) of 10 CFR 50.34—Post-accident sampling of the reactor coolant system and containment.
</P>
<P>3. Paragraph (f)(2)(xiii) of 10 CFR 50.34—Power supplies for pressurizer heaters.
</P>
<P>4. Paragraph (f)(2)(xiv)(E) of 10 CFR 50.34—Automatic closing of containment isolation systems on a high radiation signal.
</P>
<P>5. Paragraph (f)(2)(xx) of 10 CFR 50.34—Power from vital buses and emergency power sources for pressurizer level indication.
</P>
<P>6. Paragraph (c)(2) of 10 CFR 50.44—Combustible gas control.
</P>
<P>7. Paragraph (a)(1)(i) of 10 CFR 50.46—Applicability limited to reactor designs that use zircaloy or ZIRLO fuel rod cladding material.
</P>
<P>8. Paragraph (c)(1) of 10 CFR 50.62—Diverse equipment to initiate a turbine trip under conditions indicative of an anticipated transient without scram.
</P>
<P>9 Appendix A of 10 CFR part 50—Electric Power Systems GDCs:
</P>
<P>a. GDC 17—Electric power systems for safety-related functions;
</P>
<P>b. GDC 18—Design to permit periodic inspection and testing of electric power systems;
</P>
<P>c. GDC 34—Electric power systems for residual heat removal;
</P>
<P>d. GDC 35—Electric power systems for emergency core cooling;
</P>
<P>e. GDC 38—Electric power systems for containment heat removal;
</P>
<P>f. GDC 41—Electric power systems for containment atmosphere cleanup; and
</P>
<P>g. GDC 44—Electric power systems for cooling.
</P>
<P>10. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, GDC 19—Equipment outside the control room with capability for cold shutdown of the reactor.
</P>
<P>11. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, GDC 27—Demonstration of long-term shutdown under post-accident conditions with an assumed worst rod stuck out.
</P>
<P>12. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, GDC 33—Reactor coolant makeup for protection against small breaks in the reactor coolant pressure boundary.
</P>
<P>13. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, GDC 40—Periodic pressure and functional testing of containment heat removal system.
</P>
<P>14. Appendix A to 10 CFR part 50, GDC 52—Design to allow periodic containment leakage rate testing.
</P>
<P>15. Appendix A of 10 CFR part 50, GDCs 55, 56, and 57—Containment Isolation:
</P>
<P>a. GDC 55—Isolation valves for certain reactor coolant pressure boundary lines penetrating containment;
</P>
<P>b. GDC 56—Isolation valves for certain primary containment lines; and
</P>
<P>c. GDC 57—Isolation valves for certain closed systems lines.
</P>
<P>16. Appendix K to 10 CFR part 50—Emergency Core Cooling System Evaluation Models:
</P>
<P>a. Section I.A.4—Heat generation rates from radioactive decay of fission products;
</P>
<P>b. Section I.A.5—Rate of energy release, hydrogen generation, and cladding oxidation from the metal/water reaction;
</P>
<P>c. Section I.B—Predicting cladding swelling and rupture;
</P>
<P>d. Section I.C.1.b—Calculation of the discharge rate for all times after the discharging fluid has been calculated to be two-phase;
</P>
<P>e. Section I.C.5.a—Post-critical heat flux correlations of heat transfer from the fuel cladding to the surrounding fluid; and
</P>
<P>f. Section I.C.7.a—Calculation of cross-flow between the hot and average channel regions of the core during blowdown.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Issue Resolution
</HD1>
<P>A. The Commission has determined that the structures, systems, and components and design features of NuScale comply with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the applicable regulations identified in Section V of this appendix; and therefore, provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public. A conclusion that a matter is resolved includes the finding that additional or alternative structures, systems, and components, design features, design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justifications are not necessary for NuScale.
</P>
<P>B. The Commission considers the following matters resolved within the meaning of § 52.63(a)(5) in subsequent proceedings for issuance of a COL, amendment of a COL, or renewal of a COL, proceedings held under § 52.103, and enforcement proceedings involving plants referencing this appendix:
</P>
<P>1. All nuclear safety issues associated with the information in the final safety evaluation report, Tier 1, Tier 2, and the rulemaking record for certification of the NuScale design, with the exception of the following:
</P>
<P>a. generic TS and other operational requirements;
</P>
<P>b. the adequacy of the design of the shield wall between the NuScale power module and the reactor building steam gallery to limit potential radiological doses consistent with the radiation zones specified in design certification application Part 2, Tier 2, Chapter 12, Figure 12.3-1, “Reactor Building Radiation Zone Map”;
</P>
<P>c. the adequacy of the design of the systems used for post-accident hydrogen and oxygen monitoring described in design certification application Part 2, Tier 2, Section 6.2.5 to meet the requirements of 10 CFR 50.34(f)(2)(vii), 10 CFR 50.34(f)(2)(xxviii), and 10 CFR 52.47(a)(2)(iv), with respect to radiological releases caused by leakage from these systems under accident conditions; and
</P>
<P>d. the ability of the steam generator tubes to maintain structural and leakage integrity during density wave oscillations in the secondary fluid system, including the method of analysis to predict the thermal-hydraulic conditions of the steam generator secondary fluid system and resulting loads, stresses, and deformations from density wave oscillations and reverse flow, consistent with the other design information regarding steam generator integrity described in DCA Part 2, Tier 2, Sections 3.9.1, 3.9.2, 5.4.1, and 15.6.3, and in accordance with 10 CFR part 50, GDC 4 and 31;
</P>
<P>2. All nuclear safety and safeguards issues associated with the referenced information in the non-public documents in Tables 1.6-1 and 1.6-2 of Tier 2 of the DCD, which contain sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information and which, in context, are intended as requirements in the generic DCD for the NuScale design;
</P>
<P>3. All generic changes to the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraphs VIII.A.1 and VIII.B.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>4. All exemptions from the DCD under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraphs VIII.A.4 and VIII.B.4 of this appendix, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>5. All departures from the DCD that are approved by license amendment, but only for that plant;
</P>
<P>6. Except as provided in paragraph VIII.B.5.g of this appendix, all departures from Tier 2 under and in compliance with the change processes in paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix that do not require prior NRC approval, but only for that plant; and
</P>
<P>7. All environmental issues concerning severe accident mitigation design alternatives associated with the information in the NRC's environmental assessment for NuScale (ADAMS Accession No. ML22004A006) and DCD Part 3, “Applicant's Environmental Report—Standard Design Certification,” Revision 5, dated July 2020 (ADAMS Accession No. ML20224A512), for plants referencing this appendix whose site characteristics fall within the site parameters of the representative site specified in the NuScale environmental report.
</P>
<P>C. The Commission does not consider operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to be matters resolved within the meaning of § 52.63(a)(5). The Commission reserves the right to require operational requirements for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix by rule, regulation, order, or license condition.
</P>
<P>D. Except under the change processes in Section VIII of this appendix, the Commission may not require an applicant or licensee who references this appendix to:
</P>
<P>1. Modify structures, systems, and components or design features as described in the generic DCD;
</P>
<P>2. Provide additional or alternative structures, systems, and components or design features not discussed in the generic DCD; or
</P>
<P>3. Provide additional or alternative design criteria, testing, analyses, acceptance criteria, or justification for structures, systems, and components or design features discussed in the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>E. The NRC will specify, at an appropriate time, the procedures to be used by an interested person who wishes to review portions of the design certification or references containing safeguards information or sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information, such as trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that are privileged or confidential (10 CFR 2.390 and 10 CFR part 9), and security-related information), for the purpose of participating in the hearing required by § 52.85, the hearing provided under § 52.103, or in any other proceeding relating to this appendix, in which interested persons have a right to request an adjudicatory hearing.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Duration of This Appendix
</HD1>
<P>This appendix may be referenced for a period of 40 years from February 21, 2023, except as provided for in §§ 52.55(b) and 52.57(b). This appendix remains valid for an applicant or licensee who references this appendix until the application is withdrawn or the license expires, including any period of extended operation under a renewed license.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Processes for Changes and Departures
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Tier 1 Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 1 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs A.3 or A.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. Departures from Tier 1 information that are required by the Commission through plant-specific orders are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(4).
</P>
<P>4. Exemptions from Tier 1 information are governed by the requirements in §§ 52.63(b)(1) and 52.98(f). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 1, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
</P>
<HD2>B. Tier 2 Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are governed by the requirements in § 52.63(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. Generic changes to Tier 2 information are applicable to all applicants or licensees who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs B.3, B.4, or B.5, of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may not require new requirements on Tier 2 information by plant-specific order, while this appendix is in effect under § 52.55 or § 52.61, unless:
</P>
<P>a. A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix, or to ensure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>b. Special circumstances as defined in 10 CFR 50.12(a) are present.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may request an exemption from Tier 2 information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.12(a). The Commission will deny a request for an exemption from Tier 2, if it finds that the design change will result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design. The granting of an exemption to an applicant must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing. The granting of an exemption to a licensee must be subject to an opportunity for a hearing in the same manner as license amendments.
</P>
<P>5.a. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix may depart from Tier 2 information, without prior NRC approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to or departure from Tier 1 information, or the TS, or requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section. When evaluating the proposed departure, an applicant or licensee shall consider all matters described in the plant-specific DCD.
</P>
<P>b. A proposed departure from Tier 2, other than one affecting resolution of a severe accident issue identified in the plant-specific DCD or one affecting information required by § 52.47(a)(28) to address aircraft impacts, requires a license amendment if it would:
</P>
<P>(1) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety and previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(3) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety previously evaluated in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(5) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(6) Create a possibility for a malfunction of a structure, system, or component important to safety with a different result than any evaluated previously in the plant-specific DCD;
</P>
<P>(7) Result in a design-basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the plant-specific DCD being exceeded or altered; or
</P>
<P>(8) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the plant-specific DCD used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.
</P>
<P>c. A proposed departure from Tier 2, affecting resolution of an ex-vessel severe accident design feature identified in the plant-specific DCD, requires a license amendment if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a substantial increase in the probability of an ex-vessel severe accident such that a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed and determined to be not credible could become credible; or
</P>
<P>(2) There is a substantial increase in the consequences to the public of a particular ex-vessel severe accident previously reviewed.
</P>
<P>d. A proposed departure from Tier 2 information required by § 52.47(a)(28) to address aircraft impacts shall consider the effect of the changed design feature or functional capability on the original aircraft impact assessment required by 10 CFR 50.150(a). The applicant or licensee shall describe, in the plant-specific DCD, how the modified design features and functional capabilities continue to meet the aircraft impact assessment requirements in 10 CFR 50.150(a)(1).
</P>
<P>e. If a departure requires a license amendment under paragraph B.5.b or B.5.c of this section, it is governed by 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<P>f. A departure from Tier 2 information that is made under paragraph B.5 of this section does not require an exemption from this appendix.
</P>
<P>g. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for either the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license or for operation under § 52.103(a), who believes that an applicant or licensee who references this appendix has not complied with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix when departing from Tier 2 information, may petition to admit into the proceeding such a contention. In addition to complying with the general requirements of 10 CFR 2.309, the petition must demonstrate that the departure does not comply with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix. Further, the petition must demonstrate that the change bears on an asserted noncompliance with an ITAAC acceptance criterion in the case of a § 52.103 preoperational hearing, or that the departure bears directly on the amendment request in the case of a hearing on a license amendment. Any other party may file a response. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. The Commission may admit such a contention if it determines the petition raises a genuine issue of material fact regarding compliance with paragraph VIII.B.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>C. Operational Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. Changes to NuScale design certification generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved in the design certification rule and do not require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in 10 CFR 50.109. Changes that require a change to a design feature in the generic DCD are governed by the requirements in paragraphs A or B of this section.
</P>
<P>2. Changes to NuScale design certification generic TS and other operational requirements are applicable to all applicants who reference this appendix, except those for which the change has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs C.3 or C.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>3. The Commission may require plant-specific departures on generic TS and other operational requirements that were completely reviewed and approved, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required and special circumstances, as defined in 10 CFR 2.335 are present. The Commission may modify or supplement generic TS and other operational requirements that were not completely reviewed and approved or require additional TS and other operational requirements on a plant-specific basis, provided a change to a design feature in the generic DCD is not required.
</P>
<P>4. An applicant who references this appendix may request an exemption from the generic TS or other operational requirements. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of § 52.7. The granting of an exemption must be subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues material to the license hearing.
</P>
<P>5. A party to an adjudicatory proceeding for the issuance, amendment, or renewal of a license, or for operation under § 52.103(a), who believes that an operational requirement approved in the DCD or a TS derived from the generic TS must be changed, may petition to admit such a contention into the proceeding. The petition must comply with the general requirements of § 2.309 of this chapter and must either demonstrate why special circumstances as defined in § 2.335 of this chapter are present or demonstrate that the proposed change is necessary for compliance with the Commission's regulations in effect at the time this appendix was approved, as set forth in Section V of this appendix. Any other party may file a response to the petition. If, on the basis of the petition and any response, the presiding officer determines that a sufficient showing has been made, the presiding officer shall certify the matter directly to the Commission for determination of the admissibility of the contention. All other issues with respect to the plant-specific TS or other operational requirements are subject to a hearing as part of the licensing proceeding.
</P>
<P>6. After issuance of a license, the generic TS have no further effect on the plant-specific TS. Changes to the plant-specific TS will be treated as license amendments under 10 CFR 50.90.
</P>
<HD1>IX. [Reserved]
</HD1>
<HD1>X. Records and Reporting
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Records
</HD2>
<P>1. The applicant for this appendix shall maintain a copy of the generic DCD that includes all generic changes that are made to Tier 1 and Tier 2, and the generic TS and other operational requirements. The applicant shall maintain the sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (including proprietary information and security-related information) and safeguards information referenced in the generic DCD for the period that this appendix may be referenced, as specified in Section VII of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain the plant-specific DCD to accurately reflect both generic changes to the generic DCD and plant-specific departures made under Section VIII of this appendix throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<P>3. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall prepare and maintain written evaluations that provide the bases for the determinations required by Section VIII of this appendix. These evaluations must be retained throughout the period of application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<P>4.a. The applicant for NuScale shall maintain a copy of the aircraft impact assessment performed to comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.150(a) for the term of the certification (including any period of renewal).
</P>
<P>b. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall maintain a copy of the aircraft impact assessment performed to comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 50.150(a) throughout the pendency of the application and for the term of the license (including any periods of renewal).
</P>
<HD2>B. Reporting
</HD2>
<P>1. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit a report to the NRC containing a brief description of any plant-specific departures from the DCD, including a summary of the evaluation of each departure. This report must be filed in accordance with the filing requirements applicable to reports in § 52.3.
</P>
<P>2. An applicant or licensee who references this appendix shall submit updates to its plant-specific DCD, which reflect the generic changes to and plant-specific departures from the generic DCD made under Section VIII of this appendix. These updates shall be filed under the filing requirements applicable to final safety analysis report updates in 10 CFR 50.71(e) and 52.3.
</P>
<P>3. The reports and updates required by paragraphs X.B.1 and X.B.2 of this appendix must be submitted as follows:
</P>
<P>a. On the date that an application for a license referencing this appendix is submitted, the application must include the report and any updates to the generic DCD.
</P>
<P>b. During the interval from the date of application for a license to the date the Commission makes its finding required by § 52.103(g), the report must be submitted semiannually. Updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted annually and may be submitted along with amendments to the application.
</P>
<P>c. After the Commission makes the finding required by § 52.103(g), the reports and updates to the plant-specific DCD must be submitted, along with updates to the site-specific portion of the final safety analysis report for the facility, at the intervals required by 10 CFR 50.59(d)(2) and 50.71(e)(4), respectively, or at shorter intervals as specified in the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 3306, Jan. 19, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 28873, July 2, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes H-M to Part 52 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix N" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.2.8.62.3.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix N to Part 52—Standardization of Nuclear Power Plant Designs: Combined Licenses To Construct and Operate Nuclear Power Reactors of Identical Design at Multiple Sites
</HEAD>
<P>The Commission's regulations in part 2 of this chapter specifically provide for the holding of hearings on particular issues separately from other issues involved in hearings in licensing proceedings, and for the consolidation of adjudicatory proceedings and of the presentations of parties in adjudicatory proceedings such as licensing proceedings (§§ 2.316 and 2.317 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>This appendix sets out the particular requirements and provisions applicable to situations in which applications for combined licenses under subpart C of this part are filed by one or more applicants for licenses to construct and operate nuclear power reactors of identical design (“common design”) to be located at multiple sites. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> If the design for the power reactor(s) proposed in a particular application is not identical to the others, that application may not be processed under this appendix and subpart D of part 2 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>1. Except as otherwise specified in this appendix or as the context otherwise indicates, the provisions of subpart C of this part and subpart D of part 2 of this chapter apply to combined license applications subject to this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. Each combined license application submitted pursuant to this appendix must be submitted as specified in § 52.75 and 10 CFR 2.101. Each application must state that the applicant wishes to have the application considered under 10 CFR part 52, appendix N, and must list each of the applications to be treated together under this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. Each application must include the information required by §§ 52.77, 52.79, and 52.80(a), <I>provided however</I>, that the application must identify the common design, and, if applicable, reference a standard design certification under subpart B of this part, or the use of a reactor manufactured under subpart F of this part. The final safety analysis report for each application must either incorporate by reference or include the final safety analysis of the common design, including, if applicable, the final safety analysis report for the referenced design certification or the manufactured reactor. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> As used in this appendix, the design of a nuclear power reactor included in a single referenced safety analysis report means the design of those structures, systems, and components important to radiological health and safety and the common defense and security.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. Each combined license application submitted pursuant to this appendix must contain an environmental report as required by § 52.80(b), and which complies with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 51, <I>provided, however,</I> that the application may incorporate by reference a single environmental report on the environmental impacts of the common design.
</P>
<P>5. Upon a determination that each application is acceptable for docketing under 10 CFR 2.101, each application will be docketed and a notice of docketing for each application will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> in accordance with 10 CFR 2.104, <I>provided, however,</I> that the notice must state that the application will be processed under the provisions of 10 CFR part 52, appendix N, and subpart D of part 2 of this chapter. As the discretion of the Commission, a single notice of docketing for multiple applications may be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>6. The NRC staff shall prepare draft and final environmental impact statements for each of the applications under part 51 of this chapter. Scoping under 10 CFR 51.28 and 51.29 for each of the combined license applications may be conducted simultaneously and joint scoping may be conducted with respect to the environmental issues relevant to the common design.
</P>
<P>If the applications reference a standard design certification, then the environmental impact statement for each of the applications must incorporate by reference the design certification environmental assessment. If the applications do not reference a standard design certification, then the NRC staff shall prepare draft and final supplemental environmental impact statements which address severe accident mitigation design alternatives for the common design, which must be incorporated by reference into the environmental impact statement prepared for each application. Scoping under 10 CFR 51.28 and 51.29 for the supplemental environmental impact statement may be conducted simultaneously, and may be part of the scoping for each of the combined license applications.
</P>
<P>7. The ACRS shall report on each of the applications as required by § 52.87. Each report must be limited to those safety matters for each application which are not relevant to the common design. In addition, the ACRS shall separately report on the safety of the common design, <I>provided, however,</I> that the report need not address the safety of a referenced standard design certification or reactor manufactured under subpart F of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49517, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 53—RISK-INFORMED, TECHNOLOGY-INCLUSIVE REGULATORY FRAMEWORK FOR COMMERCIAL NUCLEAR PLANTS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 101, 103, 108, 122, 147, 161, 181, 182, 183, 184, 185, 186, 187, 189, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2131, 2132, 2133, 2134, 2135, 2138, 2152, 2167, 2169, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2235, 2236, 2237, 2239, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, sec. 306 (42 U.S.C. 10226); National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note; Pub. L. 115-439, 132 Stat. 5571.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 53.000" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.0.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.000   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides an optional, technology-inclusive, performance-based framework for the issuance, amendment, renewal, and termination of licenses, permits, certifications, and approvals for commercial nuclear plants licensed under section 103 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act) (68 Stat. 919), and Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended (88 Stat. 1242). Also, this part gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any holder of or applicant for an approval, certification, permit, or license, or to a contractor, subcontractor, or consultant of any of them, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to the activities of a holder of or applicant for an approval, certification, permit, or license, subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission enforcement action for violation of the provisions in § 53.050.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.015" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.015   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A provides general provisions applicable to all applicants and licensees subject to the rules of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.020" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.020   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Anticipated event sequence</I> means event sequences expected to occur one or more times during the life of a commercial nuclear plant. Anticipated event sequences take into account the expected response of all structures, systems, and components (SSCs) within the plant, regardless of safety classification.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a person applying for a license, permit, or other form of Commission permission or approval under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Certified fuel handler</I> means, for a commercial nuclear plant, either—
</P>
<P>(1) A non-licensed operator who has qualified in accordance with a fuel handler training program approved by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) A non-licensed operator who demonstrates compliance with the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Has qualified in accordance with a fuel handler training program that demonstrates compliance with the same requirements as training programs for non-licensed operators required by § 53.830, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is responsible for decisions on—
</P>
<P>(A) Safe conduct of decommissioning activities,
</P>
<P>(B) Safe handling and storage of spent fuel; and
</P>
<P>(C) Appropriate response to plant emergencies.
</P>
<P><I>Combined license (COL)</I> means a combined construction permit (CP) and operating license (OL) with conditions for a commercial nuclear plant issued under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial nuclear plant</I> means a facility consisting of one or more commercial nuclear reactors and associated co-located support facilities, including the collection of buildings, radionuclide sources, and SSCs for which a license, certification, or approval is being sought under this part, that is or will be used for producing power for commercial electric power or other commercial purposes. For the purposes of requirements in this part that reference requirements in part 50 of this chapter, a commercial nuclear plant is equivalent to a nuclear power plant.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial nuclear reactor</I> means an apparatus, other than an atomic weapon, designed or used to sustain nuclear fission. For the purposes of requirements in this part that reference requirements in 10 CFR part 50, a commercial nuclear reactor is equivalent to a nuclear reactor as defined in § 50.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the activities in paragraph (1) of this definition and does not mean the activities in paragraph (2) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(1) Activities constituting construction are those activities that are conducted on-site to build the commercial nuclear plant, including the driving of piles; subsurface preparation; placement of backfill, concrete, or permanent retaining walls within an excavation; installation of foundations; or in-place assembly, erection, fabrication, or testing, which are for—
</P>
<P>(i) Safety-related (SR) SSCs and those non-safety-related but safety-significant (NSRSS) SSCs of a facility for which special treatment includes requirements on design or installation, including associated quality assurance measures;
</P>
<P>(ii) SSCs necessary to comply with 10 CFR part 73; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Onsite emergency facilities necessary to comply with § 53.855.
</P>
<P>(2) Construction does not include—
</P>
<P>(i) Changes for temporary use of the land for public recreational purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Site exploration, including necessary borings to determine foundation conditions or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site, the environmental impacts of construction or operation, or the protection of environmental values;
</P>
<P>(iii) Preparation of a site for construction of a facility, including clearing of the site, grading, installation of drainage, erosion, and other environmental mitigation measures, and construction of temporary roads and borrow areas;
</P>
<P>(iv) Erection of fences and other access control measures;
</P>
<P>(v) Excavation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Erection of support buildings (such as construction equipment storage sheds, warehouse and shop facilities, utilities, concrete mixing plants, docking and unloading facilities, and office buildings) for use in connection with the construction of the facility;
</P>
<P>(vii) Building of service facilities (such as paved roads, parking lots, railroad spurs, exterior utility and lighting systems, potable water systems, sanitary sewage treatment facilities, and transmission lines);
</P>
<P>(viii) Procurement or fabrication of components or portions of the proposed facility occurring at locations other than the final, in-place location at the facility; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Manufacture of a nuclear power reactor under a manufacturing license (ML) under subpart H of this part to be installed at the proposed site and to be part of the proposed facility.
</P>
<P><I>Custom combined license (custom COL)</I> means a COL that does not reference a standard design approval, standard design certification, or manufacturing license.
</P>
<P><I>Decommission or decommissioning</I> means to remove a plant or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits—
</P>
<P>(1) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or
</P>
<P>(2) Release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Defense in depth</I> means inclusion of two or more independent and redundant layers of defense in the design of a facility and its operating procedures to compensate for uncertainties such that no single layer of defense, no matter how robust, is exclusively relied upon. Defense in depth includes, but is not limited to, the use of access controls, physical barriers, redundant and diverse safety functions, and emergency response measures.
</P>
<P><I>Design-basis accidents (DBAs)</I> means postulated event sequences that are used to set functional design criteria and performance objectives for the design of SR SSCs through deterministic analyses. Design-basis accidents are a type of licensing-basis event and are based on the capabilities and reliabilities of SR SSCs needed to mitigate and prevent event sequences, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Design-basis external hazard level</I> means the level of severity or intensity of an external hazard for which the SR SSCs are protected against or designed to withstand without losing their capability to perform their safety functions.
</P>
<P><I>Design features</I> means the active and passive SSCs and the inherent characteristics of those SSCs that contribute to limiting the total effective dose equivalent to individual members of the public during normal operations and prevent or mitigate the consequences of event sequences.
</P>
<P><I>Early site permit (ESP)</I> means a Commission approval, issued under subpart H of this part, for a site for one or more commercial nuclear plants. An early site permit is a partial construction permit.
</P>
<P><I>Electric utility</I> means any entity that generates or distributes electricity and that recovers the cost of this electricity, either directly or indirectly, through rates established by the entity itself or by a separate regulatory authority. Investor-owned utilities, including generation or distribution subsidiaries, public utility districts, municipalities, rural electric cooperatives, and State and Federal agencies, including associations of any of the foregoing, are included within the meaning of “electric utility.”
</P>
<P><I>Event sequence</I> means a postulated initiating event defined for a set of initial plant conditions followed by system, safety function, and operator successes or failures, and terminating in a specified end state depending on the system, safety function, and operator successes and failures (<I>e.g.,</I> prevention of release of radioactive material or release in one of the reactor-specific release categories). An event sequence may include many unique variations of events that are similar in terms of results or end states.
</P>
<P><I>Exclusion area</I> means that area surrounding the reactor, in which the reactor licensee has the authority to determine all activities including exclusion or removal of personnel and property from the area. This area may be traversed by a highway, railroad, or waterway, provided these are not so close to the facility as to interfere with normal operations of the facility and provided appropriate and effective arrangements are made to control traffic on the highway, railroad, or waterway, in case of emergency, to protect the public health and safety. Residence within the exclusion area must normally be prohibited. In any event, residents must be subject to ready removal in case of necessity. Activities unrelated to operation of the reactor may be permitted in an exclusion area under appropriate limitations, provided that no significant hazards to the public health and safety will result.
</P>
<P><I>Fission product release</I> means the amount and composition of radioactive material released to the environment, after accounting for any retention of radionuclides provided by reactor design features.
</P>
<P><I>Fuel</I> means special nuclear material (SNM) or source material, discrete elements that physically contain SNM or source material, and homogeneous mixtures that contain SNM or source material, intended to or used to create power in a commercial nuclear plant.


</P>
<P><I>Functional design criteria</I> means metrics for the performance of SSCs. For SR SSCs, these criteria define performance metrics necessary to demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria in § 53.210. For NSRSS SSCs, these criteria define performance metrics necessary to demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria in § 53.220.
</P>
<P><I>License,</I> when used in the context of a facility, means a limited work authorization, CP, OL, early site permit, COL, or ML under this part, or a renewed license issued by the Commission under this part. When used in the context of a license authorizing an individual to manipulate the controls of a facility, <I>license</I> means a license issued by the Commission to perform the function of an operator, senior operator, or generally licensed reactor operator as defined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means a person who is authorized to conduct activities under a license issued under this part by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Licensing-basis events</I> means a collection of event sequences considered in the design and licensing of the commercial nuclear plant. Licensing-basis events are unplanned events and include anticipated event sequences, unlikely event sequences, very unlikely event sequences, and DBAs.
</P>
<P><I>Licensing-basis information</I> means the information contained in regulations, orders, licenses, certifications, or approvals issued by the NRC for a commercial nuclear plant licensed under this part and that information submitted to the NRC by an applicant or licensee in a Safety Analysis Report, program description, or other licensing-related document required under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Low-population zone</I> means the area immediately surrounding the exclusion area which contains residents, the total number and density of which are such that there is a reasonable probability that appropriate protective measures could be taken on their behalf in the event of a serious accident. A permissible population density or total population within this zone is not included in this definition because the situation may vary from case to case. Whether a specific number of people can, for example, be evacuated from a specific area or instructed to take shelter on a timely basis, will depend on many factors such as location, number and size of highways, scope and extent of advance planning, and actual distribution of residents within the area.
</P>
<P><I>Major decommissioning activity</I> means, for a commercial nuclear plant, any activity that results in permanent removal of major radioactive components, permanently modifies the structure of the containment, if applicable, or results in dismantling components for shipment containing greater than class C waste in accordance with § 61.55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Major feature of the emergency plans</I> means an aspect of those plans necessary to:
</P>
<P>(1) Address in whole or part either one or more of the 16 standards in 10 CFR 50.47(b) or the requirements of 10 CFR 50.160(b), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the emergency planning zones as required in 10 CFR 53.1109(g).
</P>
<P><I>Manufactured reactor</I> means the essential portions of a nuclear reactor that are manufactured under an ML and subsequently transported and incorporated into a commercial nuclear plant under a COL or CP.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing license</I> means a license issued under this part that authorizes the manufacture of manufactured reactors but not its construction, installation, or operation.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Safety-Related but Safety-Significant (NSRSS) SSCs</I> means those SSCs which are not SR but are relied on to achieve adequate defense in depth or perform risk-significant functions and warrant special treatment.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Safety-Significant SSCs</I> means those SSCs that are not SR or NSRSS, are not relied on to achieve adequate defense in depth or to perform risk-significant functions, and do not warrant special treatment.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy, except that the Department of Energy shall be considered a person to the extent that its facilities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Population center distance</I> means the distance from the reactor to the nearest boundary of a densely populated center containing more than about 25,000 residents.
</P>
<P><I>Programmatic controls</I> means administrative measures that govern human action in implementing programs and operating, monitoring, and maintaining SSCs and equipment of a commercial nuclear plant. Programmatic controls considered to be licensing basis information are addressed by programs under § 53.845 and are specified in an application for a requested activity of the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Quality assurance (QA)</I> means all those planned and systematic actions necessary to ensure that a structure, system, or component will perform satisfactorily in service. Quality assurance includes quality control, which comprises those QA actions related to the physical characteristics of a material, structure, component, or system which provide a means to control the quality of the material, structure, component, or system to predetermined requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Safety criteria</I> means performance-based metrics that establish a level of safety provided in requirements in §§ 53.210 and 53.220.
</P>
<P><I>Safety-related structures, systems, or components</I> means those SSCs that are relied upon to demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria in § 53.210 and warrant special treatment.
</P>
<P><I>Small modular reactor</I> means a power reactor, which may be of modular design as defined in § 52.1 of this chapter, licensed under this part to produce heat energy up to 1,000 megawatts thermal per module.
</P>
<P><I>Site characteristics</I> means the actual physical, environmental, and demographic features of a site. Site characteristics are specified in an early site permit or in a Preliminary or Final Safety Analysis Report for a limited work authorization, CP, or COL, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Site parameters</I> are the postulated physical, environmental, and demographic features of an assumed site. Site parameters are specified in a standard design approval, standard design certification, or ML.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means source material as defined in subsection 11z. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, (the Act) and in the regulations contained in part 40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material (SNM)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope-233 or in the isotope-235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Act, determines to be SNM, but does not include source material; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, but does not include source material.
</P>
<P><I>Special treatment</I> means those requirements, such as QA, design criteria, and programmatic controls, that are taken beyond the procurement, installation, and maintenance of commercial grade products to ensure that SR and NSRSS SSCs will provide defense in depth or perform risk-significant functions. The requirements also ensure that the SSCs will perform under the service conditions and with the reliability assumed in the analysis performed under § 53.450 to demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria in §§ 53.210 for SR SSCs and 53.220 for SR and NSRSS SSCs.
</P>
<P><I>Standard design</I> means a design which is sufficiently detailed and complete to support certification or approval in accordance with subpart H of this part, and which is usable under of this part for a multiple number of units or at a multiple number of sites without reopening or repeating the review.
</P>
<P><I>Standard design approval or design approval</I> means an NRC staff approval, issued under subpart H of this part, of a final standard design for a commercial nuclear plant. The approval may be for either the final design for the entire reactor facility or the final design of major portions thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Standard design certification or design certification</I> means a Commission approval, issued under subpart H of this part, of a final standard design for a nuclear power facility. This design may be referred to as a certified standard design.
</P>
<P><I>Total effective dose equivalent</I> means the sum of the effective dose equivalent (for external exposures) and the committed effective dose equivalent (for internal exposures).
</P>
<P><I>Utilization facility</I> means any commercial nuclear reactor other than one designed or used primarily for the formation of plutonium or uranium-233.
</P>
<P><I>Unlikely event sequences</I> means event sequences that are not expected to occur in the life of a commercial nuclear plant and are less likely than anticipated event sequences, but are infrequent rather than rare. Unlikely event sequences take into account the expected response of all SSCs within the plant regardless of safety classification.
</P>
<P><I>Very unlikely event sequences</I> means event sequences that are not expected to occur in the life of a commercial nuclear plant, are less likely than an unlikely event sequence, and are rare. Very unlikely event sequences take into account the expected response of all SSCs within the plant regardless of safety classification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 18773, Apr. 13, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.030" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.030   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.040" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.040   Written communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> All correspondence, reports, applications, and other written communications from the applicant or licensee to the NRC concerning the regulations in this part or individual license conditions must be sent either by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, between the hours of 8:15 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, email, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's website at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by email to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent. If a submission due date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the next Federal working day becomes the official due date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution requirements.</I> Copies of all correspondence, reports, and other written communications concerning the regulations in this part or individual license conditions, or the terms and conditions of an early site permit or standard design approval, must be submitted to the persons listed below (addresses for the NRC Regional Offices are listed in appendix D to 10 CFR part 20).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applications for amendment of permits and licenses, reports, and other communications.</I> All written communications (including responses to generic letters, bulletins, information notices, regulatory information summaries, inspection reports, and miscellaneous requests for additional information) that are required of holders of licenses, permits, and design approvals issued pursuant to this part, must be submitted as follows, except as otherwise specified in paragraphs (b)(2) through (7) of this section: to the NRC's Document Control Desk (if on paper, the signed original), with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility or the place of manufacture of a reactor licensed under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applications for permits and licenses, and amendments to applications.</I> Applications for licenses, permits, and design approvals and amendments to any of these types of applications must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the facility or the place of manufacture of a reactor licensed under this part, except as otherwise specified in paragraphs (b)(3) through (9) of this section. If the application or amendment is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceptance review application.</I> Written communications required for an application for determination of suitability for docketing must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security plan and related submissions.</I> Written communications, as defined in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) through (v) of this section, must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original. Submissions should include the following as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Physical security plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safeguards contingency plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cybersecurity plan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Change to security plan, guard training and qualification plan, safeguards contingency plan, or cybersecurity plan made without prior Commission approval under § 53.1565; and
</P>
<P>(v) Application for amendment of physical security plan, guard training and qualification plan, safeguards contingency plan, or cybersecurity plan under § 53.1510.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Emergency plan and related submissions.</I> Written communications as defined in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) through (iii) of this section must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original. Submissions should include the following as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Emergency plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Change to an emergency plan under § 53.1565; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency implementing procedures under § 53.855.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Updated Final Safety Analysis Report.</I> An updated Final Safety Analysis Report or replacement pages under § 53.1545 must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility or the place of manufacture of a reactor licensed under this part. Paper copy submissions may be made using replacement pages; however, if a licensee chooses to use electronic submission, all subsequent updates or submissions must be performed electronically on a total replacement basis. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original. If the communications are submitted electronically, see Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Quality assurance related submissions.</I> (i) A change to the Safety Analysis Report QA program description under § 53.1565, or a change to a licensee's NRC-accepted QA topical report under § 53.1565, must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk, with a copy to the appropriate Regional Office, and a copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector if one has been assigned to the site of the facility or the place of manufacture of a reactor licensed under this part. If the communication is on paper, the submission to the Document Control Desk must be the signed original.
</P>
<P>(ii) A change to an NRC-accepted QA topical report from non-licensees (<I>i.e.,</I> architect/engineers, nuclear steam supply system suppliers, fuel suppliers, constructors, etc.) must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. If the communication is on paper, the signed original must be sent.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Certification of permanent cessation of operations.</I> The licensee's certification of permanent cessation of operations, under subpart G of this part, must state the date on which operations have ceased or will cease, and must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. This submission must be under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Certification of permanent fuel removal.</I> The licensee's certification of permanent fuel removal, under subpart G of this part, must state the date on which the fuel was removed from the reactor vessel and the disposition of the fuel, and must be submitted to the NRC's Document Control Desk. This submission must be under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of communications.</I> All paper copies submitted to demonstrate compliance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section must be typewritten, printed, or otherwise reproduced in permanent form on unglazed paper. Exceptions to these requirements imposed on paper submissions may be granted for the submission of micrographic, photographic, or similar forms.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Regulation governing submission.</I> Licensees, applicants, and holders of standard design approvals submitting correspondence, reports, and other written communications under the regulations of this part are requested but not required to cite whenever practical, in the upper right corner of the first page of the submission, the specific regulation or other basis requiring submission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.050" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.050   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee or applicant for a license; holder of or applicant for a standard design approval; applicant for a standard design certification; employee of a licensee, holder of a standard design approval, or applicant for a license, standard design approval, or standard design certification; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or applicant for a license, holder of or applicant for a standard design approval, or applicant for a standard design certification, who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities in this part, may not—
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, an applicant, or a licensee's or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in subpart B of 10 CFR part 2.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows—
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.060" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.060   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, holder of a standard design approval, an applicant for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval, a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee, holder of a standard design approval, applicant for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval, against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Act or the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended.
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the NRC to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or being about to assist or participate in, these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation.
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that they have been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages.


</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraph (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, a holder of a standard design approval, an applicant for a Commission license, standard design certification, or a standard design approval, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee, holder of a standard design approval, or any applicant may be grounds for—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license or standard design approval;
</P>
<P>(2) Withdrawal or revocation of a proposed or final standard design certification;
</P>
<P>(3) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, holder of a standard design approval, or applicant (including an applicant for a standard design certification under this part following Commission adoption of final design certification rule) or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee, holder of a standard design approval, or applicant; or
</P>
<P>(4) Other enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each holder or applicant for a license or design approval, must prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in § 19.11(e)(1) of this chapter. This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted no later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, and for 30 days following license termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix D to 10 CFR part 20, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(g) Part 19 of 10 CFR sets forth requirements and regulatory provisions applicable to licensees, holders of a standard design approval, applicants for a license, standard design certification, or standard design approval, and contractors or subcontractors of a Commission licensee, or holder of a standard design approval, and are in addition to the requirements in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.070" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.070   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by a holder of a license, permit, design certification, or standard design approval under this part or an applicant for a license, permit, design certification, or standard design approval under this part, and information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, license conditions, or terms and conditions of a standard design approval to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee must be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant or licensee, each holder of a standard design approval under this part, and each applicant for a standard design certification under this part following Commission adoption of a final design certification regulation, must notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant, licensee, or holder violates this paragraph (b) only if the applicant, licensee, or holder fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant, licensee, or holder has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification must be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within 2 working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.080" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.080   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of the regulations of this part, which are authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and are consistent with the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will not consider granting an exemption unless special circumstances are present. Special circumstances are present whenever—
</P>
<P>(1) Application of the regulation in the particular circumstances conflicts with other rules or requirements of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(2) Application of the regulation in the particular circumstances would not serve the underlying purpose of the rule or is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule;
</P>
<P>(3) Compliance would result in undue hardship or other costs that are significantly in excess of those contemplated when the regulation was adopted, or that are significantly in excess of those incurred by others similarly situated;
</P>
<P>(4) The exemption would result in benefit to the public health and safety that compensates for any decrease in safety that may result from the grant of the exemption;
</P>
<P>(5) The exemption would provide only temporary relief from the applicable regulation and the licensee or applicant has made good faith efforts to comply with the regulation; or
</P>
<P>(6) There is present any other material circumstance not considered when the regulation was adopted for which it would be in the public interest to grant an exemption. If such condition is relied on exclusively for demonstrating compliance with paragraph (b) of this section, the exemption may not be granted until the Executive Director for Operations has consulted with the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person may request an exemption permitting the conduct of construction activities prior to the issuance of a CP. The Commission may grant such an exemption upon considering and balancing the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether conduct of the proposed activities will give rise to a significant adverse impact on the environment and the nature and extent of such impact, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether redress of any adverse environment impact from conduct of the proposed activities can reasonably be effective should such redress be necessary;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether conduct of the proposed activities would foreclose subsequent adoption of alternatives; and
</P>
<P>(4) The effect of delay in conducting such activities on the public interest, including whether the power needs to be used by the proposed facility, the availability of alternative sources, if any, to meet those needs on a timely basis, and delay costs to the applicant and to consumers.
</P>
<P>(d) Issuance of such an exemption must not be deemed to constitute a commitment to issue a CP. During the period of any exemption granted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, any activities conducted must be carried out in such a manner as will minimize or reduce their environmental impact.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission's consideration of requests for exemptions from requirements of the regulations of other parts in this chapter that are applicable by virtue of this part must be governed by the exemption requirements of those parts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.090" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.090   Standards for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Common standards.</I> In determining that a CP, OL, early site permit, COL, or ML under this part will be issued to an applicant, the Commission will be guided by the following considerations:
</P>
<P>(1) Except for an early site permit or ML, the processes to be performed, the operating procedures, the facility and equipment, the use of the facility, and other technical specifications, or the proposals, in regard to any of the foregoing, collectively provide reasonable assurance that the applicant will comply with the regulations in this chapter, including the regulations in 10 CFR part 20, and that the health and safety of the public will not be endangered.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant for a CP, OL, COL, or ML is technically and financially qualified to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter. However, no consideration of financial qualification is necessary for an electric utility applicant for an OL for a utilization facility of the type described in paragraph (d) of this section or for an applicant for an ML.
</P>
<P>(3) The issuance of a CP, OL, early site permit, COL, or ML to the applicant will not, in the opinion of the Commission, be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>(4) Any applicable requirements of 10 CFR part 51 have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional standards for licenses.</I> In determining whether a license will be issued to an applicant, the Commission will, in addition to applying the standards set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, consider whether the proposed activities will serve a useful purpose proportionate to the quantities of SNM or source material to be utilized.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional standards and provisions affecting licenses for commercial power.</I> In addition to applying the standards set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this section apply in the case of a license for a facility for the generation of commercial power.
</P>
<P>(1) The NRC will—
</P>
<P>(i) Give notice in writing of each application to the regulatory agency or State as may have jurisdiction over the rates and services incident to the proposed activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Publish notice of the application in trade or news publications as it deems appropriate to give reasonable notice to municipalities, private utilities, public bodies, and cooperatives which might have a potential interest in the utilization or production facility; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Publish notice of the application once each week for four consecutive weeks in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> No license will be issued by the NRC prior to the giving of these notices and until four weeks after the last notice is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(2) If there are conflicting applications for a limited opportunity for such license, the Commission will give preferred consideration in the following order: first, to applications submitted by public or cooperative bodies for facilities to be located in high cost power areas in the United States; second, to applications submitted by others for facilities to be located in such areas; third, to applications submitted by public or cooperative bodies for facilities to be located in areas other than high cost power areas; and, fourth, to all other applicants.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee who transmits electric energy in interstate commerce, or sells it at wholesale in interstate commerce, must be subject to the regulatory provisions of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing will preclude any government agency, now or hereafter authorized by law to engage in the production, marketing, or distribution of electric energy, if otherwise qualified, from obtaining a CP, OL, or COL under this part for a utilization facility for the primary purpose of producing electric energy for disposition for ultimate public consumption.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Licenses for commercial nuclear plants.</I> A license will be issued, to an applicant who qualifies, for any one or more of the following: to transfer or receive in interstate commerce, or manufacture, produce, transfer, acquire, possess, or use a utilization facility for industrial or commercial purposes.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.100" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.100   Jurisdictional limits.</HEAD>
<P>No permit, license, standard design approval, or standard design certification under this part shall be deemed to have been issued for activities that are not under or within the jurisdiction of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.110" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.110   Attacks and destructive acts.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees, applicants for licenses, permits, certifications, and design approvals, and applicants for an amendment to any license, permit, certification, or design approval under this part are not required to provide for design features or other measures for the specific purpose of protection against the effects of—
</P>
<P>(a) Attacks and destructive acts, including sabotage, directed against the facility by an enemy of the United States, whether a foreign government or other person; or
</P>
<P>(b) Use or deployment of weapons incident to U.S. defense activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.115" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.115   Rights related to special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No right to the SNM will be conferred by a license issued under this part except as may be defined by the license.
</P>
<P>(b) Neither a license issued under this part, nor any right thereunder, nor any right to utilize or produce SNM may be transferred, assigned, or disposed of in any manner, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license to any person, unless the Commission, after securing full information, finds that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of the Act and gives its consent in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.117" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.117   License suspension and rights of recapture.</HEAD>
<P>Any license issued under this part must be subject to suspension and to the rights of recapture of the material or control of the facility reserved to the Commission under section 108 of the Act in a state of war or national emergency declared by Congress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.120" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.1.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.120   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0274.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 53.070, 53.080, 53.240, 53.410, 53.420, 53.425, 53.430, 53.440, 53.450, 53.480, 53.500, 53.540, 53.605, 53.610, 53.620, 53.700, 53.710, 53.715, 53.720, 53.730, 53.780, 53.785, 53.805, 53.810, 53.815, 53.830, 53.850, 53.855, 53.865, 53.870, 53.875, 53.880, 53.910, 53.1010, 53.1020, 53.1030, 53.1045, 53.1060, 53.1070, 53.1075, 53.1080, 53.1100, 53.1109, 53.1115, 53.1130, 53.1140, 53.1144, 53.1146, 53.1173, 53. 1182, 53.1188, 53.1200, 53.1206, 53.1209, 53.1210, 53.1221, 53.1230, 53.1236, 53.1239, 53.1241, 53.1254, 53.1257, 53,1263, 53.1270, 53.1276, 53.1279, 53.1282, 53.1288, 53.1295, 53.1300, 53.1306, 53.1309, 53.1312, 53.1327, 53.1330, 53.1333, 53.1336, 53.1348, 53.1360, 53.1366, 53.1369, 53.1372, 53.1384, 53.1410, 53.1413, 53.1416, 53.1419, 53.1437, 53.1449, 53.1452, 53.1458, 53.1470, 53.1505, 53.1510, 53.1515, 53.1525, 53.1530, 53.1535, 53.1540, 53.1545, 53.1550, 53.1560, 53.1565, 53.1570, 53.1575, 53.1580, 53.1620, 53.1630, 53.1645, 53.1690, 53.1720.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. The information collection requirement and the control numbers under which it is approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In §§ 53.765, 53.770, 53.780, and 53.795, NRC Form 396 is approved under control number 3150-0024.
</P>
<P>(2) In §§ 53.775 and 53.795, NRC Form 398 is approved under control number 3150-0090.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 53.1640, NRC Form 366 is approved under control number 3150-0104.
</P>
<P>(4) In § 53.1630, NRC Form 361S is approved under control number 3150-0238.
</P>
<P>(5) In § 53.1650, International Atomic Energy Agency Design Information Questionnaire forms are approved under control number 3150-0056.
</P>
<P>(6) In § 53.1650, DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms are approved under control numbers 0694-0135.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Technology-Inclusive Safety Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.210" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.2.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.210   Safety criteria for design-basis accidents.</HEAD>
<P>Design features and programmatic controls must be provided for each commercial nuclear plant such that identification and analyses of design-basis accidents (DBAs) in accordance with § 53.240 demonstrate the following:
</P>
<P>(a) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2-hour period following the onset of the postulated fission product release would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem (250 millisieverts) total effective dose equivalent (TEDE); and
</P>
<P>(b) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low-population zone who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem (250 millisieverts) TEDE.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The use of 25 rem TEDE is not intended to imply that this number constitutes an acceptable limit for an emergency dose to the public under accident conditions. Rather, this dose value has been set forth in this section as a reference value, which can be used in the evaluation of plant design features with respect to postulated reactor accidents, to assure that these designs provide assurance of low risk of public exposure to radiation, in the event of an accident.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.220" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.2.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.220   Safety criteria for licensing-basis events other than design-basis accidents.</HEAD>
<P>Design features and programmatic controls must be provided for each commercial nuclear plant such that identification and analysis of licensing-basis events (LBEs) other than DBAs in accordance with § 53.240 demonstrate the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Plant structures, systems, and components (SSCs), personnel, and programs provide the necessary capabilities and maintain the necessary reliability to address LBEs other than DBAs in accordance with §§ 53.240 and 53.450(e), and provide measures for defense in depth in accordance with § 53.250; and
</P>
<P>(b) The analysis of risks to public health and safety resulting from LBEs other than DBAs under § 53.450(e) includes comprehensive risk metrics that satisfy associated risk performance objectives that are acceptable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and provide an appropriate level of safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.230" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.2.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.230   Safety functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The primary safety function is limiting the release of radioactive materials from the facility and must be maintained during normal operation and for LBEs over the life of the plant.
</P>
<P>(b) Additional safety functions needed to support the retention of radioactive materials during LBEs—such as controlling reactivity, heat generation, heat removal, and chemical interactions—must be identified for each commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P>(c) The primary and additional safety functions are required to satisfy the safety criteria defined in §§ 53.210 and 53.220 and must be fulfilled by the design features, human actions, and programmatic controls specified throughout this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.240" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.2.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.240   Licensing-basis events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensing-basis events must be identified for each commercial nuclear plant and analyzed under § 53.450 to demonstrate that the safety requirements in this subpart have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) The identified LBEs, ranging from anticipated event sequences to very unlikely event sequences, must collectively address appropriate risk-informed combinations of malfunctions of plant SSCs, human errors, facility hazards, and the effects of external hazards.
</P>
<P>(c) The analysis of LBEs must—
</P>
<P>(1) Include analysis of one or more DBAs under § 53.450(f);
</P>
<P>(2) Confirm the adequacy of design features and programmatic controls needed to satisfy the safety criteria defined in §§ 53.210 and 53.220, and
</P>
<P>(3) Establish related functional requirements for plant SSCs, personnel, and programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.250" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.2.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.250   Defense in depth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Measures must be taken for each commercial nuclear plant to ensure appropriate defense in depth is provided to compensate for uncertainties in the analysis of the safety criteria such that there is reasonable assurance that the safety criteria in this subpart are met over the life of the plant.
</P>
<P>(b) The uncertainties that must be addressed under paragraph (a) of this section include those related to the state of knowledge and modeling capabilities, the ability of barriers to limit the release of radioactive materials from the facility during LBEs other than DBAs, the reliability and performance of plant SSCs and personnel, and the effectiveness of programmatic controls.
</P>
<P>(c) The safety analysis may not exclusively rely upon a single engineered design feature, human action, or programmatic control, no matter how robust, to address the range of LBEs other than DBAs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.260" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.2.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.260   Normal operations.</HEAD>
<P>Holders of licenses to operate commercial nuclear plants under this part must control public doses and dose rates in unrestricted areas from normal plant operations to meet the requirements in 10 CFR part 20.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.270" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.2.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.270   Protection of plant workers.</HEAD>
<P>Holders of licenses to operate commercial nuclear plants under this part must control occupational doses to meet the requirements in 10 CFR part 20.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Design and Analysis Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.400" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.400   Design features for licensing-basis events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Design features must be provided for each commercial nuclear plant such that, when combined with corresponding human actions and programmatic controls, the plant will satisfy the safety criteria defined in §§ 53.210 and 53.220.
</P>
<P>(b) Design features must ensure that the safety functions identified in § 53.230 are fulfilled during licensing-basis events (LBEs).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.410" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.410   Functional design criteria for design-basis accidents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Functional design criteria must be defined for each design feature classified as safety-related (SR) in terms of its role in demonstrating compliance with the safety criteria defined in § 53.210.
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of special treatments associated with the design of SR structures, systems, and components (SSCs) must consider human actions and programmatic controls identified and implemented in accordance with this and other subparts to achieve and maintain the reliability and capability of SSCs relied upon to satisfy the defined functional design criteria and the safety criteria required in § 53.210, and to maintain consistency with analyses required by § 53.450(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.415" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.415   Protection against external hazards.</HEAD>
<P>Safety-related SSCs must be protected against or must be designed to withstand the effects of natural phenomena (<I>e.g.,</I> earthquakes, tornadoes, hurricanes, floods, tsunami, and seiches) and constructed hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> dams, transportation routes, military and industrial facilities) considering an event severity up to the design-basis external hazard levels as determined under § 53.510 without losing the capability to perform the safety functions identified under § 53.230. Specific requirements for earthquake engineering are included in § 53.480.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.420" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.420   Functional design criteria for licensing-basis events other than design-basis accidents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Functional design criteria must be defined for each design feature classified as SR or non-safety-related but safety-significant (NSRSS) in terms of its role in demonstrating compliance with—
</P>
<P>(1) The safety criteria in § 53.220; and
</P>
<P>(2) The evaluation criteria in § 53.450(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The identification of special treatments associated with the design of SR and NSRSS SSCs must consider human actions and programmatic controls identified and implemented in accordance with this and other subparts to achieve and maintain the reliability and capability of SSCs relied upon to satisfy—
</P>
<P>(1) The safety criteria in § 53.220; and
</P>
<P>(2) The evaluation criteria in § 53.450(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.425" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.425   Design features and functional design criteria for normal operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Design features must be provided for each commercial nuclear plant to support the Radiation Protection Program required in § 53.850.
</P>
<P>(b) Functional design criteria must be defined for each design feature relied upon to demonstrate compliance with § 53.850.
</P>
<P>(c) Functional design criteria, including design objectives for dose to the maximally exposed member of the public, must be defined for design features to show that plant design features and corresponding programmatic controls, including monitoring programs, control liquid, gaseous, and solid wastes, as required under part 20 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.430" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.430   Design features and functional design criteria for protection of plant workers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Design features must be provided for each commercial nuclear plant such that, when combined with corresponding programmatic controls, the requirements in § 53.270 can be met.
</P>
<P>(b) Functional design criteria must be defined for each design feature relied upon to demonstrate compliance with § 53.270.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.440" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.440   Design requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Analysis, appropriate test programs, prototype testing, operating experience, or a combination thereof must demonstrate that each design feature required by § 53.400 meets the defined functional design criteria required by §§ 53.410 and 53.420. This demonstration must consider interdependent effects throughout the commercial nuclear plant and the range of conditions under which the design features required by § 53.400 must function throughout the plant's lifetime.
</P>
<P>(2) The design processes for SR and NSRSS SSCs under this part must include administrative procedures for evaluating operating, design, and construction experience and for considering applicable important industry experiences in the design of those SSCs.
</P>
<P>(b) The design features classified as SR must, wherever applicable, be designed using generally accepted consensus codes and standards that have been endorsed or otherwise found acceptable by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC).
</P>
<P>(c) The materials used for each SR and NSRSS SSC must be qualified for their service conditions over the design life of the SSC as appropriate to satisfy the special treatments established for the SSC under § 53.460.
</P>
<P>(d) Possible degradation mechanisms related to aging, fatigue, chemical interactions, operating temperatures, effects of irradiation, and other environmental factors that may affect the performance of SR and NSRSS SSCs must be evaluated and used to inform the design and the development of integrity assessment programs under § 53.870.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Safety-related SSCs and, where appropriate, NSRSS SSCs must be designed and located to minimize, consistent with other safety requirements in this part, the probability and effect of fires and explosions.
</P>
<P>(2) Noncombustible and fire-resistant materials must be used wherever practical throughout the facility, particularly in locations with SR and NSRSS SSCs.
</P>
<P>(3) Fire detection and fire suppression systems of appropriate capacity and capability must be provided and designed to minimize the adverse effects of fires on SR and NSRSS SSCs.
</P>
<P>(4) Fire suppression systems must be designed to ensure that their rupture or inadvertent operation does not significantly impair the ability of SR and NSRSS SSCs to perform their safety functions to satisfy § 53.230.
</P>
<P>(f) Safety and security must be considered together in the design process such that, where possible, security issues are effectively resolved through design and engineered security features.
</P>
<P>(g) The reactor system and waste stores for each commercial nuclear plant must be capable of achieving and maintaining a subcritical condition during normal operations and following any LBE identified in accordance with § 53.240.
</P>
<P>(h) Each commercial nuclear plant must have a capability to provide long-term cooling of the reactor fuel and waste stores during normal operations and following any LBE identified in accordance with § 53.240.
</P>
<P>(i) The design, analysis, staffing, and programmatic controls for each commercial nuclear plant must consider the number of reactors, waste stores, and other significant inventories of radioactive materials and the associated operating configurations, common systems, system interfaces, and system interactions.
</P>
<P>(j) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(k) Design features, related functional design criteria, programmatic controls, or a combination thereof must be defined such that analyses demonstrate a low risk of permanent injury to the public due to the health effects of the chemical hazards of licensed material.
</P>
<P>(l) Measures must be taken during the design of commercial nuclear plants to minimize, to the extent practicable, contamination of the facility and the environment, facilitate eventual decommissioning, and minimize, to the extent practicable, the generation of radioactive waste in accordance with § 20.1406 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(m)(1) Each commercial nuclear plant must include criticality monitoring capabilities meeting the requirements of either § 70.24 of this chapter or paragraph (m)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of maintaining a monitoring system capable of detecting criticality as described in § 70.24 of this chapter, criticality accident requirements may be satisfied by—
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrating the sub-criticality of special nuclear material, except when it is inside the reactor and the reactor is being operated, by maintaining k-effective below 0.95 at a 95 percent probability, 95 percent confidence level, under conditions that maximize reactivity for the applicable storage and handling configurations, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing radiation monitors for fuel storage and associated handling areas when fuel is present to detect excessive radiation levels and to support initiating appropriate safety actions.
</P>
<P>(3) While a spent fuel transportation package approved under 10 CFR part 71 of this chapter or spent fuel storage cask approved under 10 CFR part 72 is in the special nuclear material handing or storage area, the requirements in 10 CFR parts 71 or 72, as applicable, and the requirements of the certificate of compliance for that package or cask, are the applicable requirements for the fuel within that package or cask.
</P>
<P>(n)(1) The design of each commercial nuclear plant must reflect state-of-the-art human factors principles for safe and reliable performance in all locations that human activities are expected for performing or supporting the continued availability of plant safety or emergency response functions.
</P>
<P>(2) The design must provide for the capabilities described in § 53.730(b) to ensure the plant staff are able to monitor plant conditions and respond to events.
</P>
<P>(3) The means by which the design and human actions together will achieve the safety requirements of subpart B of this part must be evaluated and used to inform the design and the development of the concept of operations required by § 53.730(c).
</P>
<P>(4) A functional requirements analysis and function allocation must be used to ensure that plant design features address how safety functions and functional safety criteria are satisfied, and how the safety functions will be assigned to appropriate combinations of human action, automation, active safety features, passive safety features, or inherent safety characteristics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.450" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.450   Analysis requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to have a probabilistic risk assessment (PRA), or other systematic risk evaluations (SREs), or a combination thereof.</I> A PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof for each commercial nuclear plant must be performed and used together with other generally accepted approaches for systematically evaluating engineered systems to identify potential failures, susceptibility to internal and external hazards, and other contributing factors to event sequences that might challenge the safety functions identified in § 53.230 and to support demonstrating that each commercial nuclear plant meets the safety criteria of § 53.220.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific uses of analyses.</I> The PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof, together with other generally accepted approaches for systematically evaluating engineered systems must be used to—
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the selection of the LBEs, as described in § 53.240, which must be considered in the design to determine compliance with the safety criteria in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the classification of SSCs according to their safety significance in accordance with § 53.460 and to identify the environmental conditions under which the SSCs and operating staff must perform their safety functions.


</P>
<P>(3) Evaluate the adequacy of defense-in-depth measures required in accordance with § 53.250.
</P>
<P>(4) Identify and assess all plant operating states where there is the potential for the uncontrolled release of radioactive material to the environment.
</P>
<P>(5) Identify and assess events that challenge plant control and safety systems whose failure could lead to the uncontrolled release of radioactive material to the environment. These include internal events, such as human errors and equipment failures, and external events identified in accordance with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Inform the establishment and updating of appropriate measures for plant operations, including availability controls, to ensure that the configurations and special treatments for SR SSCs and NSRSS SSCs provide the capabilities, availability, and reliability consistent with satisfying the safety criteria under §§ 53.220 and the analyses of licensing-basis events other than design-basis accidents (DBAs) under § 53.450(e).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance and upgrade of analyses.</I> The PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof must be maintained (<I>e.g.,</I> updated to reflect plant changes such as modifications, procedure changes, or plant performance data) at least every 5 years until the permanent cessation of operations under § 53.1070 and upgraded (<I>e.g.,</I> changed in scope or use of new methods) in conformance with generally accepted methods, standards, and practices that have been endorsed or otherwise found acceptable by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualification of analytical codes.</I> The analytical codes used in modeling the physical behavior of plant systems in the analyses of licensing-basis events (including but not limited to thermodynamics, reactor physics, fuel performance, and mechanistic source term codes) must be qualified for the range of conditions for which they are to be used.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Analyses of licensing-basis events other than design-basis accidents.</I> (1) Analyses must be performed for LBEs other than design-basis accidents (DBAs). These LBEs must be identified using insights from a PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof with other generally accepted approaches for systematically evaluating engineered systems to identify and analyze equipment failures and human errors.
</P>
<P>(2) The analysis of LBEs other than DBAs must include definitions of evaluation criteria for each event or specific categories of LBEs to determine the acceptability of the plant response to the challenges posed by internal and external hazards to provide an appropriate level of safety.
</P>
<P>(3) The analyses of LBEs other than DBAs must address event sequences from initiation to a defined end state and be used in combination with other engineering analyses to demonstrate that the functional design criteria required by § 53.420 provide sufficient barriers to the unplanned release of radionuclides to satisfy the evaluation criteria defined for each LBE other than DBAs, to satisfy the safety criteria specified in accordance with § 53.220 and provide defense in depth as required by § 53.250.
</P>
<P>(4) The methodology used to identify, categorize, and analyze LBEs must include a means to identify event sequences deemed significant for controlling the risks posed to public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis of design-basis accidents.</I> (1) The analysis of LBEs required by § 53.240 must include analysis of DBAs that address possible challenges to the safety functions identified under § 53.230. The events selected as DBAs must be those that, if not terminated, have the potential for exceeding the safety criteria in § 53.210.
</P>
<P>(2) The DBAs selected must be analyzed using deterministic methods that address event sequences from initiation to a safe stable end state and assume only the SR SSCs identified under § 53.460 and human actions addressed by the requirements of subpart F of this part are available to perform the safety functions identified in accordance with § 53.230.
</P>
<P>(3) The analysis must conservatively demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria in § 53.210.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Other required analyses.</I> Analyses must be performed to assess—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fire protection.</I> Fire protection measures to demonstrate, through inclusion of fires in the analysis of LBEs or by separate analyses, that a fire or explosion in any plant area would not—
</P>
<P>(i) Prevent equipment from fulfilling the safety functions identified in accordance with § 53.230; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Challenge the safety criteria in §§ 53.210 and 53.220.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dose to members of the public.</I> Measures taken under § 53.425, including estimating—
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of each of the principal radionuclides expected to be released annually to unrestricted areas in liquid effluents produced during normal reactor operations and the dose to the maximally exposed member of the public in unrestricted areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) The quantities of each of the principal radionuclides of the gases, halides, and particulates expected to be released annually to unrestricted areas in gaseous effluents produced during normal reactor operations and the dose to the maximally exposed member of the public in unrestricted areas.
</P>
<P>(iii) The annual external radiation dose in unrestricted areas and the maximally exposed member of the public in unrestricted areas due to direct radiation from contained radiation sources from the commercial nuclear plant during normal reactor operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.460" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.460   Safety categorization and special treatments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Structures, systems, and components must be classified according to their safety significance. The SSC categories must include “Safety-Related,” “Non-Safety-Related but Safety-Significant,” and “Non-Safety-Significant,” as defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) For SR and NSRSS SSCs, the conditions under which they must perform their safety function in § 53.230 must be identified. Special treatments must be established in accordance with this and other subparts to provide confidence that the SSCs will perform under the service conditions and with reliability consistent with the analysis performed under § 53.450 to demonstrate meeting the safety criteria in §§ 53.210 and 53.220.
</P>
<P>(1) The special treatments for SR SSCs must include meeting the applicable quality assurance requirements from appendix B of part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The special treatments for NSRSS SSCs and special treatments for SR SSCs beyond those required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may include meeting selected quality assurance requirements from appendix B of part 50 of this chapter when such treatment is needed to address performance requirements, equipment reliability, or uncertainties.
</P>
<P>(c) The identification of special treatments for SR and NSRSS SSCs must account for human actions needed to prevent or mitigate LBEs, the need to perform such actions reliably under the postulated environmental conditions, and the role of programs established in accordance with subpart F of this part to provide confidence that those actions will be performed as assumed in the analysis performed in accordance with § 53.450 to demonstrate meeting the applicable criteria in §§ 53.210, 53.220, and 53.450(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.470" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.470   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.480" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.3.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.480   Earthquake engineering.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effects of earthquakes.</I> Structures, systems, and components classified as SR or NSRSS must be able to withstand the effects of earthquakes, commensurate with the safety significance of the SSC, without loss of capability to perform their role in fulfilling the safety functions required by § 53.230.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section—
</P>
<P><I>Design-Basis Ground Motions (DBGMs)</I> are the vibratory ground motions for which certain SSCs must be designed to remain functional.
</P>
<P><I>Operating basis earthquake (OBE) ground motion</I> is the vibratory ground motion for which those features of the commercial nuclear plant necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public are designed to remain functional. The OBE ground motion is used in § 53.720.
</P>
<P><I>Response spectrum</I> is a plot of the maximum responses (acceleration, velocity, or displacement) of idealized single-degree-of-freedom oscillators as a function of the natural frequencies of the oscillators for a given damping value. The response spectrum is calculated for a specified vibratory motion input at the oscillators' supports.
</P>
<P><I>Surface deformation</I> is the distortion of geologic strata on or near the ground surface that occurs because of tectonic forces that result from earthquakes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Design considerations</I>—(1) <I>Design-Basis Ground Motions.</I> (i) The DBGMs must be derived from the Site Ground Motion Response Spectra developed in accordance with § 53.510(c), by taking into consideration the functional design criteria of SSCs in accordance with §§ 53.410 and 53.420. The horizontal component of the DBGM(s) in the free-field at the foundation level of the structures must be an appropriate response spectrum that is determined based on the risk-significance of SSCs and their safety functions. In view of the limited data available on vibratory ground motion of strong earthquakes, it is acceptable that the design response spectra be smoothed spectra.
</P>
<P>(ii) The commercial nuclear plant must be designed so that, if the DBGMs occur, the following SSCs remain functional and within applicable stress, strain, and deformation limits:
</P>
<P>(A) Structures, systems, and components for which functional design criteria are established in accordance with § 53.410 or § 53.420; and
</P>
<P>(B) Structures, systems, and components classified as SR or NSRSS commensurate with safety significance in accordance with § 53.460.
</P>
<P>(iii) In addition to seismic loads, applicable concurrent normal operating, functional, and accident-induced loads must be taken into account in the design of the SR SSCs and, commensurate with safety significance, NSRSS SSCs.
</P>
<P>(iv) The design of the commercial nuclear plant must take into account the possible effects of seismic-induced ground disruption, such as fissuring, lateral spreads, differential settlement, liquefaction, and landsliding, on the facility foundations.
</P>
<P>(v) The SSCs fulfilling the safety functions required by § 53.230 must be demonstrated through design, testing, or qualification methods to be able to fulfill those safety functions during and after the vibratory ground motion associated with the DBGMs.
</P>
<P>(vi) The evaluation of SSCs required by this section to show they are able to function during and after earthquake ground motion should consider, if applicable, soil-structure interaction effects and the expected duration of vibratory motion. It is permissible to design for inelastic behavior in some of these SSCs during the DBGMs and under the postulated concurrent loads, provided the necessary safety functions are maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>OBE Ground Motion.</I> The OBE Ground Motion must be characterized by response spectra. The value of the OBE Ground Motion must be set to one-third or less of the DBGMs response spectra.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Required seismic instrumentation.</I> Suitable instrumentation must be provided so that the seismic response of commercial nuclear plant SR SSCs or NSRSS SSCs can be evaluated promptly after an earthquake.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Surface deformation.</I> (1) The potential for surface deformation must be taken into account in the design of the commercial nuclear plant by providing reasonable assurance that in the event of deformation, SSCs classified as SR or NSRSS in accordance with § 53.460 will remain functional.


</P>
<P>(2) In addition to surface deformation induced loads, the design of SSCs must take into account, commensurate with safety significance, seismic loads and applicable concurrent functional and accident-induced loads.
</P>
<P>(3) The design provisions for surface deformation must be based on its postulated occurrence in any direction and azimuth and under any part of the commercial nuclear plant, unless evidence indicates this assumption is not appropriate, and must take into account the estimated rate at which the surface deformation may occur.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Seismically induced floods and water waves and other design conditions.</I> Seismically induced floods and water waves from either locally or distantly generated seismic activity and other design conditions determined pursuant to subpart D of this part must be taken into account in the design of the commercial nuclear plant so as to prevent undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis.</I> The analyses required by § 53.450 must address seismic hazards and related SSC responses in determining that the safety criteria defined in § 53.220 will be met.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Design criteria, human actions, and programmatic controls.</I> Functional design criteria, human actions, and programmatic controls needed to address seismic events must be identified and implemented in accordance with this and other subparts to achieve and maintain the performance of SSCs relied upon to satisfy the safety criteria in § 53.220 and to maintain consistency with analyses required by § 53.450 when accounting for the site-specific frequencies and magnitudes of earthquakes for a commercial nuclear plant.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Siting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.500" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.4.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.500   General siting and siting assessment.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart and the specific requirements therein is to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(a) The siting of each commercial nuclear plant is supported by assessments of proposed sites such that the design, including design features and programmatic controls corresponding to the site characteristics, satisfies the safety criteria defined in §§ 53.210 and 53.220. The siting assessment addresses the site characteristics that might contribute to the initiation, progression, or consequences of licensing-basis events (LBEs) analyzed under §§ 53.450 and 53.480 that are identified and mitigated by design features or programmatic controls. The siting assessment takes into consideration the potential adverse impacts that a commercial nuclear plant may have on nearby populations as a result of normal operations or LBEs.
</P>
<P>(b) Activities performed to identify site characteristics or otherwise needed to determine site-specific contributors to functional design criteria or analysis assumptions under subpart C of this part satisfy the applicable special treatment requirements of § 53.460, including, where applicable, the quality assurance requirements from appendix B of part 50 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.510" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.4.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.510   External hazards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General external hazard requirements.</I> The design-basis external hazard level for the relevant external hazards for a site must be identified and characterized based on site-specific assessments of natural and constructed hazards with the potential to adversely affect plant functions. The external hazard frequencies and magnitudes determined from the site-specific assessments must take into account uncertainties and variabilities in data, models, and methods relied on to characterize the external hazards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section, the following terms mean:
</P>
<P><I>Geological Siting Factors</I> are geological and seismic factors that may affect the design and operation of the proposed commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P><I>Ground Motion Response Spectra (GMRS)</I> are the site-specific GMRS resulting from the geologic investigations and evaluations of the site vicinity and region and used to determine design-basis ground motions for structures, systems, and components under § 53.480.
</P>
<P><I>Probabilistic Seismic Hazard Analysis</I> is an analytical methodology that incorporates uncertainty into estimates of an annual frequency of exceedance for a certain ground motion parameter (<I>e.g.,</I> peak ground acceleration, peak ground velocity, response spectral values) at a site.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Geological investigations.</I> The GMRS for the site must be determined based on the results of investigations of the geological, seismological, and engineering characteristics of the site and its environs and must be characterized by both horizontal and vertical free-field GMRS at the free ground surface. The size of the region to be investigated and the type of data pertinent to the investigations must be determined based on the nature of the region surrounding the site. Data on vibratory ground motion, earthquake recurrence rates, fault geometry and slip rates, and site subsurface material properties must be obtained by reviewing pertinent literature and carrying out field investigations. Uncertainties are inherent in the parameters and models used to estimate the GMRS for the site. The site assessment must reflect these uncertainties through an appropriate analysis, such as a probabilistic seismic hazard analysis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Geologic and seismic siting factors.</I> The geologic and seismic siting factors considered for design under §§ 53.415 and 53.480 must include, but are not limited to, determination of the potential for surface tectonic and nontectonic deformations, the size and character of seismically induced floods and water waves that could affect a site from either locally or distantly generated seismic activity, soil and rock stability, liquefaction potential, and natural and artificial slope stability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.520" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.4.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.520   Site characteristics.</HEAD>
<P>Site characteristics that might contribute to the initiation, progression, or consequences of LBEs analyzed under § 53.450 must be identified, assessed, and considered in the design and analyses required by subpart C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.530" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.4.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.530   Population-related considerations.</HEAD>
<P>Every site must have an exclusion area, a low-population zone, and a population center distance as defined in § 53.020.
</P>
<P>(a) The offsite radiological consequences estimated by the analyses required by § 53.450(f) must be used to confirm that—
</P>
<P>(1) An individual located at any point on the boundary of the exclusion area for any 2-hour period following onset of the postulated fission product release would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem (250 millisieverts) total effective dose equivalent.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual located at any point on the outer boundary of the low-population zone who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a radiation dose in excess of 25 rem (250 millisieverts) total effective dose equivalent.
</P>
<P>(b) The reactor site must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide a population center distance of at least one and one-third times the distance from the reactor to the outer boundary of the low-population zone; or
</P>
<P>(2) Be found acceptable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) based on assessments of societal risks in comparison to societal benefits for the specific site. The boundary of the population center or the alternate area assessed considering societal risks and benefits must be determined upon consideration of population distribution. Political boundaries are not controlling in the calculation of population center distance or the alternate area assessed considering societal risks and benefits.
</P>
<P>(c) Reactor sites should be located away from very densely populated centers or otherwise be shown to be acceptable by assessments of societal risks in comparison to societal benefits for the specific site. Areas of low-population density are, generally, preferred. However, in determining the acceptability of a particular site located away from a very densely populated center but not in an area of low-population density or when assessing a site considering societal risks and benefits, consideration will be given to safety, environmental, economic, or other factors, which may result in the site being found acceptable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.540" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.4.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.540   Siting interfaces.</HEAD>
<P>Site characteristics must be addressed by the design features, programmatic controls, and supporting analyses used to demonstrate that the safety criteria in §§ 53.210 and 53.220 are met for each commercial nuclear plant. Site characteristics must be such that adequate emergency plans and security plans can be developed and maintained.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Construction and Manufacturing Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.600" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.5.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.600   Construction and manufacturing—scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to those construction and manufacturing activities authorized by a construction permit (CP), combined license (COL), manufacturing license (ML), or limited work authorization (LWA) issued under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.605" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.5.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.605   Reporting of defects and noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>Each CP and ML issued under this part is subject to the terms and conditions in this section, and each COL issued under this part is subject to the terms and conditions in this section until the date that the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in § 21.3 of this chapter apply to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting requirements.</I> (1) Each individual, partnership, corporation, dedicating entity, or other entity subject to the regulations in this section must post current copies of this section and the regulations in 10 CFR part 21; section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and procedures adopted under these regulations. These documents must be posted in a conspicuous position on any premises within the United States where the activities subject to the license are conducted.
</P>
<P>(2) If posting of these regulations or the procedures adopted under them is not practical, the licensee may, in addition to posting section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, post a notice that describes the regulations/procedures, including the name of the individual to whom reports may be made, and states where they may be examined.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> The holder of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this section must adopt appropriate procedures to—
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate deviations and failures to comply to identify defects and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards as soon as practicable, and, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, in all cases within 60 days of discovery, to identify a reportable defect or failure to comply that could create a substantial safety hazard, were it to remain uncorrected.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that if an evaluation of an identified deviation or failure to comply potentially associated with a substantial safety hazard cannot be completed within 60 days from the discovery of the deviation or failure to comply, an interim report is prepared and submitted to the Commission through a director or responsible officer, or designated person as discussed in paragraph (d)(5) of this section. The interim report should describe the deviation or failure to comply that is being evaluated and should also state when the evaluation will be completed. This interim report must be submitted in writing within 60 days of discovery of the deviation or failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that a director or responsible officer of the holder of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this section is informed as soon as practicable, and, in all cases, within the 5 working days after completion of the evaluation described in paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section, if the construction or manufacture of a facility or activity, or a basic component supplied for such a facility or activity—
</P>
<P>(i) Fails to comply with the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or any applicable regulation, order, or license of the Commission relating to a substantial safety hazard;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains a defect; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Underwent any significant breakdown in any portion of the quality assurance program (QAP) conducted under the requirements of appendix B to part 50 of this chapter that could have produced a defect in a basic component. These breakdowns in the QAP are reportable whether or not the breakdown actually resulted in a defect in a design approved and released for construction, installation, or manufacture.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reporting defects and noncompliance.</I> (1) The holder of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this section that obtains information reasonably indicating that the facility or manufactured reactors fails to comply with the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or any applicable regulation, order, or license of the Commission relating to a substantial safety hazard must notify the Commission of the failure to comply through a director, responsible officer, or designated person as discussed in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The holder of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this section that obtains information reasonably indicating the existence of any defect found in the construction or manufacture, or any defect found in the final design of a facility as approved and released for construction or manufacture, must notify the Commission of the defect through a director, responsible officer, or designated person as discussed in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The holder of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this part, who obtains information reasonably indicating that the QAP has undergone any significant breakdown discussed in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section must notify the Commission of the breakdown in the QAP through a director, responsible officer, or designated person as discussed in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) When acting as a dedicating entity, the holder of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this section is responsible for identifying and evaluating deviations; reporting defects and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards for dedicated items; and maintaining auditable records for the dedication process.
</P>
<P>(5) The notification requirements of this paragraph (d) apply to all defects and failures to comply associated with a substantial safety hazard regardless of whether extensive evaluation, redesign, or repair is required to conform to the criteria and bases stated in the Safety Analysis Report, CP, COL, or ML. Evaluation of potential defects and failures to comply and reporting of defects and failures to comply under this section satisfies the CP holder's, COL holder's, and ML holder's evaluation and notification obligations under 10 CFR part 21, and satisfies the responsibility of individual directors or responsible officers or holders of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this section to report defects, and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards under section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. The director or responsible officer may authorize an individual to provide the notification required by this section. However, this does not relieve the director or responsible officer of his or her responsibility under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification—timing and where sent.</I> The notification required by paragraph (d) of this section must consist of—
</P>
<P>(1) Initial notification by telephone, facsimile, or email identified in appendix A to 10 CFR part 73 to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) Operations Center within 2 days following receipt of information by the director or responsible corporate officer under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, on the identification of a defect or a failure to comply. If the CP, COL, or ML holder elects to use facsimile, verification that the facsimile has been received should be made by calling the NRC Operations Center. This paragraph (e)(1) does not apply to interim reports described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Written notification submitted to the NRC Document Control Desk by an appropriate method listed in § 53.040, with a copy to the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator at the address specified in appendix D to 10 CFR part 20 and a copy to the appropriate NRC resident inspector, if applicable, within 30 days following receipt of information by the director or responsible corporate officer under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, on the identification of a defect or failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of notification.</I> The written notification required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section must clearly indicate that the written notification is being submitted under this section and include the following information, to the extent known.
</P>
<P>(1) Name and address of the individual or individuals informing the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the facility, the activity, or the basic component supplied for the facility or the activity within the United States which contains a defect or fails to comply.
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of the firm constructing or manufacturing the facility or supplying the basic component which fails to comply or contains a defect.
</P>
<P>(4) Nature of the defect or failure to comply and the safety hazard which is created or could be created by the defect or failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(5) The date on which the information of a defect or failure to comply was obtained.
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of a basic component that contains a defect or failure to comply, the number and location of these components in use at the facility subject to the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(7) In the case of a completed reactor manufactured under this part, the entities to which the reactor was supplied.
</P>
<P>(8) The corrective action which has been, is being, or will be taken; the name of the individual or organization responsible for the action; and the length of time that has been or will be taken to complete the action.
</P>
<P>(9) Any advice related to the defect or failure to comply about the facility, activity, or basic component that has been, is being, or will be given to other entities.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Procurement documents.</I> Each holder of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this section must ensure that each procurement document for a facility or a basic component specifies the provisions of 10 CFR part 21 or this section that apply, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Coordination with 10 CFR part 21.</I> The requirements of this section are satisfied when the defect or failure to comply associated with a substantial safety hazard has been previously reported under 10 CFR part 21, under § 73.1205 of this chapter, under this section, or under § 53.1640.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Records retention.</I> The holder of a CP, COL, or ML subject to this section must prepare and maintain records necessary to accomplish the purposes of this section, specifically—
</P>
<P>(1) Retain procurement documents, which define the requirements that facilities or basic components must satisfy in order to be considered acceptable, for the lifetime of the facility or basic component.
</P>
<P>(2) Retain records of evaluations of all deviations and failures to comply under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the longest of—
</P>
<P>(i) Ten years from the date of the evaluation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Five years from the date that an early site permit is referenced in an application for a COL; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Five years from the date of delivery of a manufactured reactor.
</P>
<P>(3) Retain records of all interim reports to the Commission made under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, or notifications to the Commission made under paragraph (d) of this section for the minimum time periods stated in paragraph (i)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Suppliers of basic components must retain records of—
</P>
<P>(i) All notifications sent to affected licensees or purchasers under paragraph (d)(4) of this section for a minimum of 10 years following the date of the notification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The facilities or other purchasers to whom the basic components or associated services were supplied for a minimum of 15 years from the delivery of the basic component or associated services.
</P>
<P>(5) Maintaining reports in accordance with this section satisfies the recordkeeping obligations under 10 CFR part 21 of the entities, including directors or responsible officers thereof, subject to this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.610" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.5.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.610   Construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Management and control.</I> Licensees must ensure that the following plans, programs, and organizational units are developed and implemented to manage and control the construction activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Programs to ensure that the construction of a commercial nuclear plant supports the eventual compliance with the design and analysis requirements in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) An organization, headed by qualified personnel, responsible for managing, controlling, and evaluating the adequacy of the construction activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures describing the qualifications for personnel in key positions in the licensee's management and control organization and the organizational responsibilities, authority, and interfaces with other parts of the licensee's organization.
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures to evaluate the applicability of other national and international construction experience to the planned and ongoing construction activities and to ensure the applicable experience will be provided to those constructing the plant.
</P>
<P>(5) A fitness-for-duty program, under 10 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) A QAP meeting the requirements of appendix B of part 50 of this chapter as required by § 53.460(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate programmatic controls to provide special treatment for non-safety-related but safety-significant structures, systems, and components (SSCs).
</P>
<P>(7) A radiation protection program, in accordance with 10 CFR part 20, that includes measures for monitoring the dose to individuals working with radioactive materials brought onto the site, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(8) An information security program in accordance with §§ 73.21, 73.22, and 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Construction activities.</I> No person may begin the construction of a commercial nuclear plant on a site on which the facility is to be operated under this part until that person has been issued either a CP or COL, an early site permit authorizing activities under § 53.1130, or an LWA under this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees must satisfy the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) As appropriate, considering the types and quantities of radioactive materials being brought onto the site—
</P>
<P>(A) The licensee must maintain and follow a special nuclear material (SNM) material control and accounting program, a measurement control program, and other material control procedures that include corresponding record management requirements as required by the provisions of § 70.32 of this chapter. Prior to initial receipt of SNM onsite, the licensee must implement an SNM material control and accounting program in accordance with 10 CFR part 74.
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures must be in place to receive, possess, use, and store source, byproduct, and SNM in accordance with applicable portions of 10 CFR parts 30, 40, and 70.
</P>
<P>(C) A plant staff training program associated with the receipt of radioactive material must be approved and implemented prior to initial receipt of byproduct, source or SNM (excluding exempt quantities as described in § 30.18 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(ii) For construction of a commercial nuclear plant involving multiple reactor units, plans and procedures must be in place to prevent or mitigate potential hazards to the SSCs of operating units resulting from construction activities, including the managerial and administrative controls to be used to provide assurance that the limiting conditions for operation of the operating units are not exceeded as a result of construction activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures must be in place prior to the start of construction activities that describe how construction will be controlled so as not to impact other features important to the design, such as dewatering, slope stability, backfill, compaction, and seepage.
</P>
<P>(iv) For LWA holders, a plan must be developed for redress of activities performed under the LWA should one of the following situations arise:
</P>
<P>(A) LWA work activities are terminated by the holder of the LWA;
</P>
<P>(B) The LWA is revoked by the NRC; or
</P>
<P>(C) The Commission denies the associated CP or COL application.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Onsite fresh fuel must be protected and stored in compliance with § 73.67 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before initial fuel load into the reactor (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, before initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1)), a cybersecurity program that meets the requirements of § 73.54 or § 73.110 of this chapter, a physical security program that meets the requirements of § 73.55 or § 73.100 of this chapter, and an access authorization program that meets the requirements of § 73.56 or § 73.120 of this chapter must be established, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fire protection measures must be implemented for work and storage areas (including adjacent fire areas that could affect the work or storage area) before initial receipt of byproduct, source, or non-fuel SNM (excluding exempt quantities as described in § 30.18 of this chapter). The fire protection measures for areas associated with new fuel (including all fuel handling, fuel storage, and adjacent fire areas that could affect the new fuel) must be implemented before receipt of fuel. Prior to the receipt of fuel, a formal letter of agreement must be in place with the local fire department specifying the nature of arrangements in support of the fire protection program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inspection and acceptance.</I> (1) The licensee must have a process for accepting individual or groups of SSCs upon completion of construction and protecting them from damage or tampering as other construction activities continue.
</P>
<P>(2) The post-construction acceptance process must address the inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria specified in the COL under § 53.1440 or the equivalent verifications needed to support the issuance of an operating license under § 53.1387.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.620" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.5.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.620   Manufacturing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Management and control.</I> Holders of MLs must ensure that the following plans, programs, and organizational units are developed and implemented to manage and control the manufacturing activities within the scope of the ML:
</P>
<P>(1) Programs to ensure that the manufacturing of a manufactured reactor or portions of a manufactured reactor complies with the design and analysis requirements in subpart C of this part. The entity with design authority for the manufactured reactor covered by the ML must be identified in the license.
</P>
<P>(2) An organizational and management structure responsible for managing, controlling, and evaluating the adequacy of the reactor design and manufacturing activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures describing the qualifications for personnel in key positions in the licensee's management and control organization and the organizational responsibilities, authority, and interfaces with other parts of the licensee's organization.
</P>
<P>(4) A program to evaluate the applicability of other national and international design and manufacturing experience to the planned and ongoing manufacturing activities.
</P>
<P>(5) A fitness-for-duty program, in accordance with 10 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) A QAP meeting the requirements of appendix B to part 50 of this chapter, to be applied to the design, fabrication, construction, and testing of the SSCs of the manufactured reactor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate programmatic controls to provide special treatment measures for non-safety-related but safety-significant SSCs.
</P>
<P>(7) A radiation protection program, in accordance with 10 CFR part 20, that includes measures for monitoring the dose to individuals if the manufacturing activities include working with radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>(8) An information security program in accordance with §§ 73.21, 73.22 and 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manufacturing activities.</I> Holders of MLs must satisfy the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The manufacturing process must be conducted within facilities for which the ML holder has the authority to establish controls on any activity that might affect manufacturing. The licensee must establish access controls to the portions of each facility involved in the manufacturing processes governed by the ML.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturing processes must be performed in accordance with the ML and the referenced codes and standards that have been endorsed or otherwise found acceptable by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(3) A post-manufacturing inspection and acceptance process must be established and implemented before transporting a manufactured reactor or portions of a manufactured reactor for installation at a commercial nuclear plant. The process must consider the results of inspections, tests, and analyses that have been performed and the acceptance criteria that are necessary and sufficient to conclude that manufacturing activities have been completed in accordance with the ML.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control of radioactive materials.</I> As appropriate considering the types and quantities of radioactive materials being brought into the manufacturing facility—
</P>
<P>(1) Procedures must be in place to receive, transfer, possess, and use source, byproduct, and SNM in accordance with the applicable portions of 10 CFR parts 30, 40 and 70.
</P>
<P>(2) A fire protection program must be established and implemented before the initial receipt of byproduct, source, or non-fuel SNM (excluding exempt quantities as described in § 30.18 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(3) An emergency plan appropriate for responding to the facility-specific hazards of an accidental release of radioactive material and to limit the health effects of the associated chemical hazards of licensed material must be approved and implemented prior to the receipt of byproduct, source, or SNM (excluding exempt quantities as described in § 30.18 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(4) A plant staff training program associated with the receipt of radioactive material must be approved and implemented before initial receipt of byproduct, source, or SNM (excluding exempt quantities as described in § 30.18 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(5) Security requirements must be implemented for the protection of SNM based on the type, enrichment, and quantity in accordance with 10 CFR part 73, as applicable, and for the protection of Category 1 and Category 2 quantities of radioactive material in accordance with 10 CFR part 37, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fuel loading.</I> (1)(i) An ML may authorize possession of a manufactured reactor into which the licensee has loaded fresh (unirradiated) fuel pursuant to a license issued under part 70 of this chapter only if the manufactured reactor is configured during its loading, storage, and transport with features to prevent criticality that are specified in the ML.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ML applicant may file a separate, subsequent application for the 10 CFR part 70 license or combine the application for the 10 CFR part 70 license with the application for an ML.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Commission has determined that any such fueled manufactured reactor in which the features to prevent criticality are in place is not in operation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon installation of the fueled manufactured reactor in its place of operation and a Commission finding that the acceptance criteria in the COL that authorized reactor construction are met under § 53.1452(g), or that any conditions in the CP that authorized reactor construction are met and the associated operating license (OL) issued, the features to prevent criticality may be removed. Upon initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality, the fueled manufactured reactor has commenced operation.
</P>
<P>(2) Holders of part 70 licenses authorizing the possession and loading of fresh fuel into manufactured reactors must comply with the requirements of part 70 for the facilities and activities related to the storage, movement, and loading of fresh fuel in the manufactured reactor. Holders of these part 70 licenses must comply with the requirements of Subpart H to part 70, regardless of whether their proposed activities meet the applicability criteria found in 10 CFR 70.60. Procedures, equipment, and personnel required by the 10 CFR part 70 license, must be in place before the receipt of SNM at the manufacturing facility.


</P>
<P>(i) Before the receipt of SNM, the licensee must have security programs in place that meet the performance objectives of 10 CFR 73.67, with the following additions and exceptions:
</P>
<P>(A) A physical security plan describing the physical security program must be maintained and a cybersecurity program must be established for the possession and loading of fresh fuel into a manufactured reactor authorized by a 10 CFR part 70 license, regardless of fuel type, enrichment, and quantity.
</P>
<P>(B) The physical security program must be designed to prevent unintended and uncontrolled criticality events.
</P>
<P>(C) The cybersecurity program must provide reasonable assurance that a cyberattack does not adversely impact the functions performed by digital assets necessary for implementing the physical security requirements of this section, or the radiation monitoring and criticality requirements in this section or in 10 CFR part 70.
</P>
<P>(D) All holders of a part 70 license that authorizes loading of fresh fuel into a manufactured reactor must perform the screening required in § 73.67(d)(4) of this chapter to confirm the identity, trustworthiness, and reliability of individuals prior to granting unescorted access to special nuclear material; these determinations must be documented.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) The loading or unloading of fresh fuel into or from a manufactured reactor and any changes to the configuration of reactivity control and prevention systems for the fueled manufactured reactor must be performed by a certified fuel handler meeting the requirements in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transportation.</I> (1) A holder of an ML may not transport or allow to be removed from the places of manufacture the manufactured reactor or portions thereof as defined in the ML except for either transport to a site for which the Commission has issued a COL or CP that references the subject ML or export in accordance with 10 CFR part 110.
</P>
<P>(2) A holder of an ML must include in any contract governing the transport of a manufactured reactor or portions thereof as defined in the ML from the places of manufacture to any other location, a provision requiring that the person transporting the manufactured reactor comply with all shipping requirements in applicable NRC regulations, certificates of compliance, and NRC-issued licenses.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures governing the preparation of the manufactured reactor or portions thereof as defined in the ML for transport and the conduct of the transport must be issued prior to transport. The procedures must implement the protective measures and restrictions described in NRC regulations and NRC-issued licenses to protect the reactor from potential conditions that would adversely affect the safe operation of a commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P>(4) For a manufactured reactor that is to be loaded with fresh fuel before transport to the place of operation, the ML must specify that transportation will be in accordance with parts 71 and 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acceptance and installation at the site for which the Commission has issued a COL or CP that references the subject ML.</I> (1) Installation at the site for which the Commission has issued a COL or CP that references the subject ML must follow the regulations in § 53.610.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon arrival at the site, the manufactured reactor or portions of a manufactured reactor may not be installed in its place of operation unless the COL or CP holder performs inspections sufficient to verify the reactor is in compliance with the ML and has not been damaged in transit. The COL or CP holder must perform these inspections in accordance with documented procedures subject to quality assurance measures commensurate with their importance to safety. In addition, inspections must confirm that the interface requirements between the manufactured reactor or portions of a manufactured reactor and the remaining portions of the commercial nuclear plant are met.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Requirements for Operation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.700" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.700   Operational objectives.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart and the specific requirements herein is to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(a) Each holder of an operating license (OL) or combined license (COL) under this part develops, implements, and maintains controls for plant structures, systems, and components (SSCs), responsibilities of personnel, and plant programs during the operating life of each commercial nuclear plant such that the requirements defined in subpart B are satisfied. More specifically:
</P>
<P>(1) Under § 53.710 through § 53.730, each holder of an OL or COL under this part must maintain the capabilities, availability, and reliability of plant SSCs to ensure that the safety functions identified in § 53.230 will be performed if called upon during licensing-basis events (LBEs).
</P>
<P>(2) Under § 53.725 through § 53.830, each holder of an OL or COL under this part must ensure that personnel have adequate knowledge and skills to perform their assigned duties that support the performance of the safety functions identified in § 53.230.
</P>
<P>(3) Under § 53.845 through § 53.910, each holder of an OL or COL under this part must implement plant programs sufficient to ensure that the safety functions identified in § 53.230 will be performed if called upon during normal operations and LBEs.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.710" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.710   Maintaining capabilities and availability of structures, systems, and components.</HEAD>
<P>Measures must be provided for each commercial nuclear plant licensed under this part such that the capabilities, availability, and reliability of plant SSCs, when combined with corresponding programmatic controls and human actions, provide that the safety criteria defined in §§ 53.210 and 53.220 will be met.
</P>
<P>(a) Technical specifications must be developed, implemented, and maintained that define conditions or limitations on plant operations that are necessary to ensure that safety-related (SR) SSCs can fulfill the safety functions identified under § 53.230 and support meeting the safety criteria of § 53.210. The technical specifications must describe the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Limits on the inventory of radioactive materials within the reactor system and supporting systems with the potential, individually or collectively, to cause a release exceeding the safety criteria in § 53.210 as a result of a design-basis accident analyzed in accordance with § 53.450(f).
</P>
<P>(2) Operating limits for the facility that if exceeded could lead to a failure to perform a required safety function necessary to demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria in § 53.210.
</P>
<P>(3) For each SSC classified as SR in accordance with § 53.460, technical specifications must define—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limiting conditions for operation.</I> Limiting conditions for operation are the lowest functional capability or performance levels of SR SSCs required to ensure that the design-basis accidents analyzed in accordance with § 53.450(f) satisfy the safety criteria of § 53.210. When a limiting condition for operation is not met, the licensee must shut down the plant or follow any remedial action permitted by the technical specifications until the condition can be met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Surveillance requirements.</I> Surveillance requirements are requirements relating to test, calibration, or inspection to assure that the necessary quality of systems and components is maintained and that the limiting conditions for operation will be met.
</P>
<P>(4) Design elements to be included are those elements of the plant such as materials of construction and geometric arrangements, which, if altered or modified, would have a significant effect on safety and are not covered in categories described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Administrative controls are the provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, recordkeeping, review and audit, and reporting necessary to assure operation of the plant in a safe manner. Each licensee must submit any reports to the Commission pursuant to approved technical specifications under § 53.040.
</P>
<P>(b) Control measures on plant operations, including availability controls, must be developed and implemented to ensure that the configurations and special treatments for SR SSCs and non-safety-related but safety-significant (NSRSS) SSCs provide the capabilities, availability, and reliability required to demonstrate compliance with the criteria of §§ 53.220 and 53.450(e).
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The control measures must—
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The comprehensive risk metrics and related risk performance objectives established under § 53.220 involve assessing and averaging the risks over a defined period (<I>e.g.,</I> plant year) and do not constitute a real-time requirement that must be continuously demonstrated by the licensee.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1)(i) Identify who within the licensee's organization has authority to make configuration changes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish processes to make configuration changes to NSRSS SSCs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish processes to ensure that all organizations of the commercial nuclear plant affected by the configuration changes are formally notified and approve of the change.
</P>
<P>(2) Describe how the special treatments for each NSRSS SSC and special treatments for SR SSCs beyond those under paragraph (a) of this section will be established and maintained over the operating life of the commercial nuclear plant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.715" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.715   Maintenance, repair, and inspection programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A program to control maintenance activities and monitor the performance or condition of SR and NSRSS SSCs must be developed, implemented, and maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever a licensee determines through activities related to maintenance, repair, and inspection of SSCs, the activities under § 53.710, or otherwise that the performance or condition of an SR or NSRSS SSC does not demonstrate compliance with established special treatments or performance goals related to capabilities, availability, or reliability, the licensee must take appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(c) Performance and condition monitoring activities and associated goals and preventive maintenance activities must be evaluated at least every 24 months. The evaluations must take into account, where practical, industry-wide operating experience. Adjustments must be made where necessary to ensure that the objective of preventing failures of SSCs through maintenance is appropriately balanced against the objective of minimizing unavailability of SSCs due to monitoring or preventive maintenance.
</P>
<P>(d) Before performing maintenance activities (including but not limited to surveillance, post-maintenance testing, and corrective and preventive maintenance), the licensee must assess and manage the increase in risk that may result from the proposed maintenance activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.720" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.720   Response to seismic events.</HEAD>
<P>If vibratory ground motion exceeding that of the operating basis earthquake Ground Motion or significant plant damage due to vibratory ground motion occurs, the licensee must shut down the commercial nuclear plant. If structures, systems, or components necessary for the safe shutdown of the commercial nuclear plant are not available after the occurrence of this vibratory ground motion, the licensee must consult with the Commission and must propose a plan for the timely, safe shutdown of the commercial nuclear plant. Prior to resuming operations, the licensee must demonstrate to the Commission that those features necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public or necessary to maintain the licensing basis of the commercial nuclear plant were either not functionally damaged or have been repaired.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.725" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.725   General staffing, training, personnel qualifications, and human factors requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Two classes of commercial nuclear plants.</I> Commercial nuclear plants licensed under this part are either of the class of self-reliant-mitigation facilities or of interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities, based upon the similarity of operating and technical characteristics of the plants in the class. A commercial nuclear plant is a self-reliant-mitigation facility if the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) determined as part of its approval of the OL or COL for that plant that its design demonstrates compliance with the criteria of § 53.800(a)(1) through (a)(5). Otherwise, the commercial nuclear plant is an interaction-dependent-mitigation facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and applicability.</I> The regulations in §§ 53.725 through 53.830 address areas related to staffing, training, personnel qualifications, and human factors engineering for applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs under this part. These regulations are organized as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Sections 53.725 through 53.745 address general requirements for staffing, training, personnel qualifications, and human factors engineering. The regulations within these sections are applicable to all applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs under this part, except where specifically stated otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 53.760 through 53.795 address operator and senior operator licensing requirements. The regulations within these sections are applicable to those applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs under this part for interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities that have not yet certified the permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel as described under § 53.1070.
</P>
<P>(3) Sections 53.800 through 53.820 address generally licensed reactor operator requirements. The regulations within these sections are in lieu of §§ 53.760 through 53.795 for those applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs under this part for self-reliant-mitigation facilities that have not yet certified the permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel as described under § 53.1070.
</P>
<P>(4) Section 53.830 provides general personnel training requirements. The regulations within this section are applicable to all applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> When used in §§ 53.725 through 53.830, <I>applicant</I> refers to an applicant for an operator or senior operator license; <I>licensee</I> refers to the holder of an operator, senior operator, or generally licensed reactor operator license; and <I>facility licensee</I> refers to the licensee for the commercial nuclear plant where the applicant would be licensed or the licensee is licensed. As also used in §§ 53.725 through 53.830—
</P>
<P><I>Automation</I> means a device or system that accomplishes (partially or fully) a function or task.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary operator</I> means any individual who operates components of a commercial nuclear plant but does not manipulate controls or direct the manipulation of controls of the plant and is not required to be licensed under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Controls</I> when used with respect to a nuclear reactor means apparatus and mechanisms, the manipulation of which directly affects the reactivity or power level of the reactor.
</P>
<P><I>Generally licensed reactor operator</I> means any individual licensed under the provisions of § 53.810 to manipulate controls of a self-reliant-mitigation facility and to direct the licensed activities of generally licensed reactor operators.
</P>
<P><I>Interaction-dependent-mitigation facility</I> means a commercial nuclear plant design other than one that demonstrates compliance with the operating and technical characteristics defined under § 53.800.
</P>
<P><I>Load following</I> means a commercial nuclear plant automatically changing its output to match expected demand in response to externally originated instructions or signals.
</P>
<P><I>Operator</I> means any individual licensed under the provisions of §§ 53.760 through 53.795 to manipulate controls of an interaction-dependent-mitigation facility.
</P>
<P><I>Performance testing</I> means testing conducted to verify a simulation facility's performance as compared to actual or predicted reference plant performance.
</P>
<P><I>Reference plant</I> means the specific commercial nuclear plant, or plant design for facilities which are not yet constructed, on which a simulation facility's configuration, system control arrangement, and design data are based.
</P>
<P><I>Self-reliant-mitigation facility</I> means a commercial nuclear plant design that demonstrates compliance with the operating and technical characteristics defined under § 53.800.
</P>
<P><I>Senior operator</I> means any individual licensed under the provisions of §§ 53.760 through 53.795 to manipulate controls of an interaction-dependent-mitigation facility and to direct the licensed activities of operators.
</P>
<P><I>Simulation facility</I> means an interface designed to provide a realistic imitation of the operation of a commercial nuclear plant used for the administration of examinations, for training, and/or to demonstrate compliance with experience requirements for applicants or licensees. A simulation facility may rely, in whole or part, upon the physical utilization of the reference plant itself.
</P>
<P><I>Systems approach to training</I> means a training program that includes the following five elements:
</P>
<P>(i) Systematic analysis of the jobs to be performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Learning objectives derived from the analysis which describe desired performance after training.
</P>
<P>(iii) Training design and implementation based on the learning objectives.
</P>
<P>(iv) Evaluation of trainee mastery of the objectives during training.
</P>
<P>(v) Evaluation and revision of the training based on the performance of trained personnel in the job setting.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.726" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.726   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant or licensee or facility licensee must submit any communication or report required by the regulations contained within §§ 53.725 through 53.830 and must submit any application filed under these regulations to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Each facility licensee that is required to comply with the requirements of §§ 53.760 through 53.795 (<I>i.e.,</I> interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities) must notify the appropriate NRC contact within 30 days of the following in regard to a licensed operator or senior operator:
</P>
<P>(1) Permanent reassignment from the position for which the facility licensee has certified the need for a licensed operator or senior operator under § 53.775(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) Termination of any operator or senior operator; or
</P>
<P>(3) Permanent disability or illness as required under § 53.770.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.728" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.728   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for an operator or senior operator license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee must be complete and accurate in all material respects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.730" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.730   Defining, fulfilling, and maintaining the role of personnel in ensuring safe operations.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant for or holder of an OL or COL for a commercial nuclear plant under this part must comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Human factors engineering design requirements.</I> The plant design must reflect state-of-the-art human factors engineering principles for safe and reliable performance in all locations that human activities are expected for performing or supporting the continued availability of plant safety or emergency response functions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Human system interface design requirements.</I> The plant design must provide for the following to support operating personnel in monitoring plant conditions and responding to plant events:
</P>
<P>(1) Features for displaying to operating personnel a minimum set of parameters that define the safety status of the plant and are capable of displaying both the full range of important plant parameters and data trends on demand, as well as indicating when process limits are being approached or exceeded;
</P>
<P>(2) Automatic indication of the bypassed and operable status of safety systems;
</P>
<P>(3) Direct indication of SSC status that relates to the ability of the SSC to perform its safety function, such as relief and safety valve position (<I>i.e.,</I> open or closed) for barriers important to fulfilling safety functions with such devices, and ultimate heat sink and cooling system status and availability;
</P>
<P>(4) Instrumentation to measure, record, and display key plant parameters related to the performance of SSCs and the integrity of barriers important to fulfilling safety functions to support operators in monitoring plant conditions and responding to plant events. Examples include temperatures and pressures within important systems or structures, core or fuel system conditions (including possible damage states), temperatures and levels associated with cooling functions, combustible gas concentrations, radiation levels in systems and within structures, and radioactive effluent releases;
</P>
<P>(5) Leakage control and detection in the design of systems that pass through barriers important to fulfilling safety functions for the release of radionuclides. An example is an SSC that penetrates a containment structure that might contain radioactive materials that could contribute to the source term during an accident;
</P>
<P>(6) Monitoring of in-plant radiation and airborne radioactivity as appropriate for a broad range of normal operating and accident conditions; and
</P>
<P>(7) For self-reliant-mitigation facilities, the plant design must also provide the generally licensed reactor operators with the capability to do the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Receive plant operating data, including reactor parameters and information needed for the evaluation of emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly dispatch operations and maintenance personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Immediately implement responsibilities under the facility emergency plan, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(8) For both interaction-dependent and self-reliant mitigation facilities, the plant design must provide licensed operators with the capability of immediately initiating a reactor shutdown from their location.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Concept of operations.</I> A concept of operations that is of sufficient scope and detail to address the following must be provided:
</P>
<P>(1) Plant goals;
</P>
<P>(2) The roles and responsibilities of operating personnel and automation (or any combination thereof) that are responsible for completing plant functions;
</P>
<P>(3) Staffing, qualifications, and training;
</P>
<P>(4) The management of normal operations;
</P>
<P>(5) The management of off-normal conditions and emergencies;
</P>
<P>(6) The management of maintenance and modifications; and
</P>
<P>(7) The management of tests, inspections, and surveillances.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Functional requirements analysis and function allocation.</I> A functional requirements analysis and a function allocation must be provided that are sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The functional requirements analysis must address how safety functions and functional safety criteria are satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(2) The function allocation must describe how the safety functions will be assigned to human action, automation, active safety features, passive safety features, and/or inherent safety characteristics.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Operating experience.</I> A program, during construction and during operation, as applicable, for evaluating and applying operating experience must be developed, implemented, and maintained.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Staffing plan.</I> A staffing plan must be developed and comply with the following:


</P>
<P>(1) The staffing plan must include a description of how engineering expertise will be available to the on-shift operating personnel during all plant conditions, to assist if they encounter a situation not covered by procedures or training. Engineering expertise includes familiarity with the operation of the plant for which the expertise is provided and one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A bachelor's degree in engineering, engineering technology, or physical science from an institution accredited by a U.S. Government recognized accrediting body or equivalent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A Professional Engineer's license from a U.S. State or territory.
</P>
<P>(2) Applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs for interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities must include within their staffing plans a description of how the proposed numbers, positions, and qualifications of operators and senior operators across all modes of plant operations will be sufficient to ensure that plant safety functions will be maintained. This description must be supported by human factors engineering analyses and assessments.
</P>
<P>(3) Applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs for self-reliant-mitigation facilities must include within their staffing plans a description of how generally licensed reactor operator staffing that is both sufficient to continually monitor the operations of fueled reactors and to provide for a continuity of responsibility for facility operations at all times during the operating phase will be maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) Applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs under this part must include within their staffing plans a description of how the positions and responsibilities of personnel contained within those plans will adequately satisfy necessary support functions within areas such as plant operations, equipment surveillance and maintenance, radiological protection, chemistry control, fire brigades, engineering, security, and emergency response.
</P>
<P>(5) The staffing plan must be approved by the NRC as part of its approval of the OL or COL for the plant. The approved staffing plan is subject to the requirements of § 53.1565.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Training, examination, and proficiency programs.</I> Develop, implement, and maintain programs that comply with the following requirements. These programs must be approved by the NRC as part of its approval of the OL or COL for the plant:
</P>
<P>(1) For those applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs for interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities:
</P>
<P>(i) The operator licensing initial training program required under § 53.780(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) The operator licensing initial examination program required under § 53.780(b);
</P>
<P>(iii) The operator licensing requalification program required under § 53.780(c); and
</P>
<P>(iv) The operator proficiency program required under § 53.780(g).
</P>
<P>(2) For those applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs for self-reliant-mitigation facilities, the generally licensed reactor operator training, examination, and proficiency programs required under § 53.815.
</P>
<P>(3) The operator licensing requalification programs required under § 53.780(c) or § 53.815(b) must be implemented upon commencing the administration of initial examinations under the operator licensing examination program required under § 53.780(b) or § 53.815(b), respectively.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.735" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.735   General exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in §§ 53.725 through 53.830 do not require a license for an individual who—
</P>
<P>(a) Under the direction and in the presence of an operator or senior operator or a generally licensed reactor operator, as appropriate, manipulates the controls of a commercial nuclear plant as a part of the individual's training in a facility licensee's training program as approved by the Commission to qualify for an operator or senior operator license or a generally licensed reactor operator license there, as appropriate, under these regulations; or
</P>
<P>(b) Under the direction and in the presence of a senior operator or generally licensed reactor operator, as appropriate, manipulates the controls of a commercial nuclear plant to load or unload the fuel into, out of, or within the reactor vessel while the reactor is not operating.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.740" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.740   Facility licensee requirements—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Facility licensees must demonstrate compliance with the requirements of either §§ 53.760 through 53.795 for interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities or §§ 53.800 through 53.820 for self-reliant-mitigation facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) The facility licensee must maintain the staffing complement described under its approved facility staffing plan until such time as the permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel has been certified as described under § 53.1070. The approved staffing plan is subject to the requirements of § 53.1565.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided under § 53.735, the facility licensee may not permit the manipulation of the controls of a commercial nuclear plant by anyone who is not an operator or senior operator or generally licensed reactor operator, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) Facility licensees for interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities that have not yet certified the permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel as described under § 53.1070 must designate senior operators to be responsible for supervising the licensed activities of operators.
</P>
<P>(e) Apparatus and mechanisms other than controls, the operation of which may affect the reactivity or power level of a reactor, must be manipulated only while plant conditions are being monitored by an individual who is an operator or senior operator or a generally licensed reactor operator, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Load following is permitted if at least one of the following is immediately capable of refusing demands when they could challenge the safe operation of the plant or when precluded by the plant equipment conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The actuation of an automatic protection system that utilizes setpoints more conservative than those otherwise credited for the purposes of reactor protection; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An automated control system; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An operator or senior operator or a generally licensed reactor operator, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of paragraph (e) of this section do not apply during load following operations.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Facility licensees for interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities must have present during alteration of the core (including fuel loading or transfer) an individual holding a senior operator license, or a senior operator license limited to fuel handling to directly supervise the activity and, during this time, the facility licensee must not assign other duties to this person.
</P>
<P>(2) Facility licensees for self-reliant-mitigation facilities must have present during alteration of the core (including fuel loading or transfer) an individual holding a generally licensed reactor operator license to directly supervise the activity and, during this time, the facility licensee must not assign other duties to this person.
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions of paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply to core alterations performed as part of refueling operations while a facility that is capable of online refueling is operating at power.
</P>
<P>(h) Facility licensees may take reasonable action that departs from a license condition or a technical specification (contained in a license issued under this part) in an emergency when this action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety and no action consistent with license conditions and technical specifications that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent. Such facility licensee action must be approved, as a minimum, by a senior operator or a generally licensed reactor operator, as applicable, or, after certifying the permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel as described under § 53.1070 by a certified fuel handler, senior operator, or generally licensed reactor operator, as applicable, prior to taking the action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.745" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.745   Operator license requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A person must be authorized by a license issued by the Commission to perform the function of an operator, senior operator, or generally licensed reactor operator as defined in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.760" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.760   Operator licensing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Sections 53.760 through 53.795 address operator and senior operator licensing requirements. The regulations within these sections are applicable to those applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs under this part for interaction-dependent-mitigation facilities that have not yet certified the permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel as described under § 53.1070.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.765" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.765   Medical requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant for an operator or senior operator license must have a medical examination by a physician. An operator or senior operator must have a medical examination by a physician every 2 years.
</P>
<P>(b) To certify the medical fitness of an applicant for an operator or senior operator license, an authorized representative of the facility licensee must complete and sign NRC Form 396, “Certification of Medical Examination by Facility Licensee,” which can be obtained by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, by calling 301-415-7232, or by visiting the NRC's website at <I>https://www.nrc.gov</I> and selecting forms from the index found on the home page, or by other means provided by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(1) NRC Form 396 must certify that a physician has conducted the medical examination of the applicant as required in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) When the medical certification requests a conditional license based on medical evidence, the medical evidence must be submitted on NRC Form 396 to the Commission to enable the Commission to make a determination in accordance with § 53.775(b).
</P>
<P>(c) The facility licensee must document and maintain the results of medical qualifications data, test results, and each operator's or senior operator's medical history for the current license period and provide the documentation to the Commission upon request. The facility licensee must retain this documentation while an individual performs the functions of an operator or senior operator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.770" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.770   Incapacitation because of disability or illness.</HEAD>
<P>If, during the term of the operator or senior operator license, the licensee develops a permanent physical or mental condition that causes the licensee to fail to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of § 53.775(b)(1)(i), the facility licensee must notify the Commission within 30 days of learning of the diagnosis. For conditions for which a conditional license (as described in § 53.775(b)) is requested, the facility licensee must provide medical certification on NRC Form 396 to the Commission (as described in § 53.765(b)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.775" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.775   Applications for operators and senior operators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to apply.</I> (1) The applicant for an operator or senior operator license must—
</P>
<P>(i) Complete NRC Form 398, “Personal Qualification Statement—Licensee,” which can be obtained by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, by calling 301-415-5877, or by visiting the NRC's website at <I>https://www.nrc.gov</I> and selecting forms from the index found on the home page, or by other means provided by the NRC;


</P>
<P>(ii) File an original of NRC Form 398, or an equivalent electronic submittal, together with the information required in paragraphs (a)(1)(iii) and (a)(1)(iv) of this section, with the appropriate Regional Administrator.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide evidence that the applicant, as a trainee, has successfully demonstrated competence in manipulating the controls of either the facility for which a license is sought or a simulation facility that demonstrates compliance with the requirements of § 53.780(e). For operators applying for a senior operator license, certification that the operator has successfully operated the controls of the facility as an operator will be accepted; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide certification by the facility licensee of medical condition and general health on NRC Form 396, to comply with § 53.765.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may at any time after the application has been filed, and before the license has expired, require further information under oath or affirmation to enable it to determine whether to grant or deny the application or whether to revoke, modify, or suspend the license.
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant whose application has been denied because of a medical condition or their general health may submit a further medical report at any time as a supplement to the application.
</P>
<P>(4) Each application and statement must contain complete and accurate disclosure as to all matters required to be disclosed. The applicant must sign statements required by paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disposition of an initial application</I>—(1) <I>License approval.</I> The Commission will approve an initial application if it finds that the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Health.</I> The applicant's medical condition and general health will not adversely affect the performance of assigned operator or senior operator job duties or cause operational errors endangering public health and safety. The Commission will base its finding upon the certification by the facility licensee as detailed in § 53.765(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examination.</I> The applicant has passed the requisite examination in accordance with § 53.780(b). The examination determines whether the applicant for an operator's or senior operator's license has learned to operate a facility competently and safely, and additionally, in the case of a senior operator, whether the applicant has learned to supervise the licensed activities of operators competently and safely.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditional license.</I> If an applicant's general medical condition does not demonstrate compliance with the minimum standards under § 53.775(b)(1)(i), the Commission may approve the application and include conditions in the license to accommodate the medical condition. The Commission will consider the recommendations and supporting evidence of the facility licensee and of the examining physician (provided on NRC Form 396) in arriving at its decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Re-applications.</I> (1) An applicant whose application for a license has been denied because of failure to pass the examination may file a new application. The application must be submitted on NRC Form 398 and include a statement signed by an authorized representative of the facility licensee by whom the applicant will be employed that states in detail the extent of the applicant's additional training and remediation since the denial and certifies that the applicant is ready for re-examination.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant who has passed a portion of the examination and failed another may request in a new application on NRC Form 398 to be excused from re-examination on the portions of the examination that the applicant has passed. The Commission may in its discretion grant the request if it determines that sufficient justification is presented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.780" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.780   Training, examination, and proficiency program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operator licensing initial training program.</I> (1) A program that is based upon a systems approach to training, as defined by § 53.725(b), must be utilized for the training of applicants for operator and senior operator licenses. The program must ensure that applicants at the facility will possess the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to protect the public health and maintain those plant safety functions specific to the facility design. The program must be approved by the Commission prior to its use for training applicants, as described under § 53.730(g). The approved operator licensing initial training program is subject to the requirements of § 53.1565.
</P>
<P>(2) The facility licensee must maintain operator licensing initial training program records documenting the initial operator licensing training administered and completed by each applicant. The facility licensee must retain these records during the period in which any trainees subsequently remain licensed as operators or senior operators at the facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operator licensing initial examination program.</I> (1) The facility licensee must establish and implement an examination program for testing a representative sample of the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to safely perform operator and senior operator duties, to include both the examination methods and criteria to be used to assess passing performance. The program must provide for valid and reliable examinations and be approved by the Commission prior to its use for examining applicants, as described under § 53.730(g). The approved operator licensing initial examination program is subject to the requirements of § 53.1565.
</P>
<P>(2) The facility licensee must submit prepared examinations to the Commission for review and approval in advance of their administration.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission will either administer an approved examination or allow the facility licensee to administer the examination. The facility licensee must ensure that sufficient advance notification is provided to the Commission to either administer the examination or allow for a representative of the Commission to be afforded the opportunity to be present when the facility licensee administers the examination.
</P>
<P>(4) Graded examination documentation for each applicant must be provided to the Commission for review in making operator licensing decisions.
</P>
<P>(5) The facility licensee must maintain operator licensing initial examination program records documenting the participation of each operator and senior operator applicant in the initial examination. The records must contain copies of examinations administered, the answers given by the applicant, documentation of the grading of examinations, and documentation of any additional training administered in areas in which an applicant exhibited deficiencies. The facility licensee must retain these records during the period in which the associated operators or senior operators remain licensed at the facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operator licensing requalification program.</I> (1) A program based upon a systems approach to training, as defined by § 53.725(b), must be utilized for the continuing training of operators and senior operators.
</P>
<P>(i) The program must ensure that operators and senior operators at the facility maintain the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to protect the public health and maintain those plant safety functions specific to the facility design. The program must be conducted for a continuous period not to exceed 24 months in duration.
</P>
<P>(ii) The program must be approved by the Commission prior to its use for continuing training, as described under § 53.730(g). The approved operator licensing requalification program is subject to the requirements of § 53.1565.
</P>
<P>(2) The following requirements apply to operator licensing requalification programs:
</P>
<P>(i) The facility licensee must propose a requalification examination program for testing, for each requalification period, a sample of the topics included under the systems approach to training, to include both the examination methods and criteria to be used to assess passing performance. The program must provide for valid and reliable examinations and be approved by the Commission prior to its use for examining operators and senior operators, as described under § 53.730(g). The approved requalification examination program is subject to the requirements of § 53.1565.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following requirements apply to the requalification examination program:
</P>
<P>(A) The facility licensee must make prepared requalification examinations available to the Commission for review.
</P>
<P>(B) The facility licensee must ensure that a representative of the Commission is afforded the opportunity to be present during requalification examination administration.
</P>
<P>(C) The facility licensee must ensure that each operator and senior operator is administered a complete requalification examination on a periodicity not to exceed 24 months. Additionally, the facility licensee must ensure that any licensed operator or senior licensed operator who either demonstrates unsatisfactory performance on, or fails to complete, this biennial requalification examination is removed from the performance of licensed operator and senior licensed operator duties until any necessary remedial training has been completed and a retake examination has been passed.
</P>
<P>(D) The facility licensee must promptly provide a summary of examination results to the NRC for each operator and senior operator following the completion of the requalification examination.
</P>
<P>(3) The facility licensee must maintain operator licensing requalification program records documenting the participation of each operator and senior operator in the requalification program. The records must contain copies of examinations administered, the answers given by the operator or senior operator, documentation of the grading of examinations, and documentation of any additional training administered in areas in which an operator or senior operator exhibited deficiencies. The facility licensee must retain these records until the operator's or senior operator's license is renewed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examination integrity.</I> Applicants, operators and senior operators, and facility licensees must not engage in any activity that compromises the integrity of any application or examination required by §§ 53.760 through 53.795. The integrity of an examination is considered compromised if any activity, regardless of intent, affected, or, but for detection, could have affected the consistent administration of the examination. This includes activities related to the preparation and certification of applications and all activities related to the preparation, administration, and grading of examinations required by §§ 53.760 through 53.795.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Simulation facilities.</I> (1) This section addresses the use of a simulation facility for the administration of examinations, for training, or to demonstrate compliance with experience requirements for applicants for operator and senior operator licenses.
</P>
<P>(2) Simulation facilities used for training purposes, for demonstrating compliance with experience requirements, or for the conduct of examinations under § 53.780(b) and (c) must demonstrate compliance with the following criteria as they relate to the facility licensee's reference plant:
</P>
<P>(i) The simulation facility must be of sufficient scope and fidelity for individuals to acquire and demonstrate the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities to safely perform operator and senior operator duties.
</P>
<P>(ii) The simulation facility must utilize models relating to nuclear, thermal-hydraulic, and other applicable design-specific characteristics that either replicate the most recent fuel load in the reference commercial nuclear plant or, prior to initial fuel load (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, prior to initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1)), replicate the intended initial fuel load for the reference commercial nuclear plant, with the exception of those portions of the simulation facility that utilize the reference plant itself.
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulation facility fidelity must be demonstrated so that significant control manipulations are completed without procedural exceptions, simulator performance exceptions, or deviation from the approved training scenario sequence.
</P>
<P>(3) Facility licensees that maintain a simulation facility that has been approved by the Commission for training purposes, demonstrating compliance with experience requirements, or the conduct of examinations under § 53.780(b) and (c) for the facility licensee's reference plant must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct performance testing throughout the life of the simulation facility in a manner sufficient to ensure that paragraph (e)(2) of this section is met;
</P>
<P>(ii) Retain the results of performance testing for 4 years after the completion of each performance test or until superseded by updated test results;


</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly correct modeling and hardware discrepancies and discrepancies identified from scenario validation and from performance testing or provide justification as to why the presence of such discrepancies will not adversely affect simulator performance with respect to the criteria of paragraph (e)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Make the results of any uncorrected performance test failures that may exist at the time of the initial license examination or requalification examination available for NRC review, prior to or concurrent with preparations for each initial license examination or requalification examination; and
</P>
<P>(v) Maintain the provisions for license application and examination integrity consistent with § 53.780(d).
</P>
<P>(4) A simulation facility must demonstrate compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section for the Commission to accept the simulation facility for conducting initial examinations as described in § 53.780(b), requalification training as described in § 53.780(c), or performing control manipulations that affect reactivity to establish eligibility for an operator or senior operator license as described in § 53.775(a).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiver of examination requirement.</I> On application, the Commission may waive any or all of the requirements for an initial licensing examination if it finds that the applicant has demonstrated the required knowledge, skills, and abilities to safely operate the plant, and is capable of continuing to do so. The Commission may make such a finding based on demonstration of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Recent operating experience at a comparable facility;
</P>
<P>(2) Proof of the applicant's past competent and safe performance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Proof of the applicant's current qualifications.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Proficiency.</I> The facility licensee must develop, implement, and maintain a proficiency program to ensure that operators and senior operators will actively perform the functions of an operator or senior operator, respectively, as needed to maintain proficiency with on-shift duties and familiarity with plant status. This program must include those steps that will be taken to re-establish proficiency when it cannot be maintained. This program must be approved by the Commission as part of its approval of the OL or COL for the plant. The approved proficiency program is subject to the requirements of § 53.1565.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Records.</I> Each record required by this section must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original, a reproduced copy, or an electronic copy provided that the copy is authenticated by authorized personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.785" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.785   Conditions of operator and senior operator licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Each operator and senior operator license contains and is subject to the following conditions whether stated in the license or not:
</P>
<P>(a) Neither the license nor any right under the license may be assigned or otherwise transferred.
</P>
<P>(b) The license is limited to the facility or facilities for which it is issued.
</P>
<P>(c) The license is limited to those controls of the facility or facilities specified in the license.
</P>
<P>(d) The license is subject to, and the licensee must observe, all applicable rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee must maintain or re-establish proficiency in accordance with the facility licensee's Commission-approved proficiency program required under § 53.780(g).
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee must be subject to the facility's Commission-approved operator licensing requalification and requalification examination programs required under § 53.780(c).
</P>
<P>(g) The licensee must have a biennial medical examination as described by § 53.765.
</P>
<P>(h) The licensee must notify the Commission within 30 days about a conviction for a felony.
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee must not consume or ingest alcoholic beverages within the protected area of commercial nuclear plants. The licensee must not use, possess, or sell any illegal drugs. The licensee must not perform activities authorized by a license issued under this part while under the influence of alcohol or any prescription, over-the-counter, or illegal substance that could adversely affect his or her ability to safely and competently perform his or her licensed duties. For the purpose of this paragraph (i), with respect to alcoholic beverages and drugs, the term “under the influence” means the licensee exceeded, as evidenced by a confirmed test result, the lower of the cutoff levels for drugs or alcohol contained in 10 CFR part 26, or as established by the facility licensee. The term “under the influence” also means the licensee could be mentally or physically impaired as a result of substance use including prescription and over-the-counter drugs, as determined under the provisions, policies, and procedures established by the facility licensee for its fitness-for-duty program, in such a manner as to adversely affect his or her ability to safely and competently perform licensed duties.
</P>
<P>(j) Each licensee must participate in the drug and alcohol testing programs as required under 10 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(k) The licensee must comply with any other conditions that the Commission may impose to protect health or to minimize danger to life or property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.790" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.790   Issuance, modification, and revocation of operator and senior operator licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of operator and senior operator licenses.</I> If the Commission determines that an applicant for an operator license or a senior operator license demonstrates compliance with the requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, (the Act) and its regulations, it will issue a license in the form and containing any conditions and limitations it considers appropriate and necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modification and revocation of operator and senior operator licenses.</I> (1) The terms and conditions of all operator and senior operator licenses are subject to amendment, revision, or modification by reason of rules, regulations, or orders issued in accordance with the Act or any amendments thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) Any license may be revoked, suspended, or modified, in whole or in part—
</P>
<P>(i) For any material false statement in the application or in any statement of fact required under section 182 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Because of conditions revealed by the application or statement of fact or any report, record, inspection, or other means that would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license on an original application;
</P>
<P>(iii) For willful violation of, or failure to observe, any of the terms and conditions of the Act or the license, or of any rule, regulation, or order of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(iv) For any conduct determined by the Commission to be a hazard to safe operation of the facility; or
</P>
<P>(v) For the sale, use, or possession of illegal drugs, or refusal to participate in the facility drug and alcohol testing program, or a confirmed positive test for drugs, drug metabolites, or alcohol in violation of the conditions and cutoff levels established by § 53.785(i) or the consumption of alcoholic beverages within the protected area of commercial nuclear plants, or a determination of unfitness for scheduled work as a result of the consumption of alcoholic beverages.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.795" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.795   Expiration and renewal of operator and senior operator licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expiration.</I> (1) Each operator license and senior operator license expires 6 years after the date of issuance, upon termination of employment with the facility licensee, or upon determination by the facility licensee that the licensed individual no longer needs to maintain a license.
</P>
<P>(2) If a licensee files an application for renewal or an upgrade of an existing license on NRC Form 398 at least 30 days before the expiration of the existing license, it does not expire until disposition of the application for renewal or for an upgraded license has been finally determined by the Commission. Filing by mail will be deemed to be complete at the time the application is postmarked
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Renewal.</I> (1) The applicant for renewal of an operator license or senior operator license must—
</P>
<P>(i) Complete and sign NRC Form 398 and include the number of the license for which renewal is sought.
</P>
<P>(ii) File an original of NRC Form 398 as specified in § 53.775.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide written evidence of the applicant's experience under the existing license and the approximate number of hours that the licensee has operated the facility.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide a statement by an authorized representative of the facility licensee that during the effective term of the current license the applicant has satisfactorily completed the requalification program for the facility for which operator or senior operator license renewal is sought.
</P>
<P>(v) Provide evidence that the applicant has discharged the license responsibilities competently and safely. The Commission may accept as evidence of the applicant's having met this requirement a certificate of an authorized representative of the facility licensee or holder of an authorization by which the licensee has been employed.
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide certification by the facility licensee of medical condition and general health on NRC Form 396, to comply with § 53.765.
</P>
<P>(2) The license will be renewed if the Commission finds that—
</P>
<P>(i) The medical condition and the general health of the licensee continue to be such as not to cause operational errors that endanger public health and safety. The Commission will base this finding upon the certification by the facility licensee as described in § 53.765(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee—
</P>
<P>(A) Is capable of continuing to competently and safely assume licensed duties;
</P>
<P>(B) Has successfully completed a requalification program that has been approved by the Commission as required by § 53.780(c); and


</P>
<P>(C) Has passed the requalification examinations as required by § 53.780(c).
</P>
<P>(iii) There is a continued need for an operator to operate or for a senior operator to supervise operators at the facility designated in the application.
</P>
<P>(iv) The past performance of the licensee has been satisfactory to the Commission. In making its finding, the Commission will include in its evaluation information such as notices of violations or letters of reprimand in the licensee's docket.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.800" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.800   Facility licensees for self-reliant-mitigation facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A commercial nuclear plant is a self-reliant-mitigation facility if the NRC determined as part of its approval of the OL or COL for that plant that its design demonstrates compliance with the criteria in paragraphs (a)(1) though (a)(5) of this section. A self-reliant-mitigation facility is of a class, based upon the similarity of operating and technical characteristics of the plants in the class, such that its licensee must comply with the requirements of §§ 53.800 through 53.820 in lieu of those in §§ 53.760 through 53.795.
</P>
<P>(1) The safety performance criteria of §§ 53.210 and 53.220 must be met without reliance upon human action for credited event mitigation.
</P>
<P>(2) The results of the probabilistic risk assessment (PRA), other systematic risk evaluations, or a combination thereof required by § 53.450(a) must demonstrate that the evaluation criteria for the events analyzed in accordance with § 53.450 will be met without reliance on human actions to achieve acceptable event mitigation.
</P>
<P>(3) The functional requirements analysis and function allocation performed under § 53.730(d) must demonstrate that functions required for safety are not reliant upon credited human action.
</P>
<P>(4) The plant response to events analyzed under § 53.450 must rely exclusively on safety features and characteristics that will neither be rendered unavailable by credible human errors of commission or omission nor credibly require manual human operation in response to equipment failures. Compliance with this paragraph (a)(4) may be achieved through the use of SSCs that function through inherent characteristics or that have engineered protections against human failures.
</P>
<P>(5) Assessments of credited human actions within the analysis of design-basis accidents (DBAs) and across the range of LBEs other than DBAs do not identify important human actions needed to ensure appropriate defense in depth is provided, as required by § 53.250.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.805" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.805   Facility licensee requirements related to generally licensed reactor operators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees for self-reliant-mitigation facilities that have not yet certified the permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel as described under § 53.1070 must demonstrate compliance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that, in addition to being qualified to perform those items identified by the facility-specific systems approach to training conducted under § 53.815, generally licensed reactor operators are qualified to safely and competently—
</P>
<P>(i) Perform administrative tasks, including compliance with technical specifications, and perform operability determinations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement maintenance and configuration controls;
</P>
<P>(iii) Comply with radioactive release limitations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Understand plant operating data, including reactor parameters, and evaluate emergency conditions;
</P>
<P>(v) Initiate a reactor shutdown from necessary locations;
</P>
<P>(vi) Dispatch and direct operations and maintenance personnel;
</P>
<P>(vii) Implement any applicable responsibilities under the facility emergency plan; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Make required notifications to local, State, participating Tribal, and Federal authorities.
</P>
<P>(2) Develop, implement, and maintain facility technical specifications that provide the necessary administrative controls to ensure the implementation of the requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Develop, implement, and maintain the generally licensed reactor operator training, examination, and proficiency programs required under § 53.815.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that generally licensed reactor operators are subject to the facility's generally licensed reactor operator training, examination, and proficiency programs required under § 53.815. Ensure that generally licensed reactor operators are subject to and comply with the applicable programmatic requirements for personnel required under 10 CFR parts 26 and 73. An individual that is not in compliance with any of these programs is not qualified to be in a position that may involve the manipulation of the controls of the commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P>(5) Report annually to the NRC the identity of all generally licensed reactor operators at the commercial nuclear plant, including all additions and deletions since the previous report.
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that the facility design continues to meet the criteria of § 53.800.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.810" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.810   Generally licensed reactor operators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license to manipulate the controls of a self-reliant-mitigation facility and to direct the licensed activities of generally licensed reactor operators is hereby issued to any individual employed in a position that may involve the manipulation of the controls of that self-reliant-mitigation facility and who observes the restrictions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A generally licensed reactor operator must comply with the operating procedures and other conditions specified in the license authorizing operation of the facility.
</P>
<P>(c) The general license is limited to the facility or facilities at which the operator is employed.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission will suspend the general license on an individual operator basis for violations of any provision of the Act or any rule or regulation issued thereunder whenever the Commission deems such suspension desirable, including—
</P>
<P>(1) For willful violation of, or failure to observe, any of the terms and conditions of the Act or the general license, or of any rule, regulation, or order of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(2) For any conduct determined by the Commission to be a hazard to safe operation of the facility; or
</P>
<P>(3) For the sale, use, or possession of illegal drugs, or refusal to participate in the facility drug and alcohol testing program, or a confirmed positive test for drugs, drug metabolites, or alcohol in violation of the conditions and cutoff levels established by § 53.810(f) or the consumption of alcoholic beverages within the protected area of commercial nuclear plants, or a determination of unfitness for scheduled work as a result of the consumption of alcoholic beverages.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may require information from a generally licensed reactor operator to determine whether a general license should be revoked or suspended with respect to that operator.
</P>
<P>(f) The generally licensed reactor operator must not consume or ingest alcoholic beverages within the protected area of commercial nuclear plants. The generally licensed reactor operator must not use, possess, or sell any illegal drugs. The generally licensed reactor operator must not perform activities requiring a general license while under the influence of alcohol or any prescription, over-the-counter, or illegal substance that could adversely affect his or her ability to safely and competently perform these activities. For the purpose of this paragraph (f), with respect to alcoholic beverages and drugs, the term “under the influence” means the generally licensed reactor operator exceeded, as evidenced by a confirmed test result, the lower of the cutoff levels for drugs or alcohol contained in 10 CFR part 26, or as established by the facility licensee. The term “under the influence” also means the generally licensed reactor operator could be mentally or physically impaired as a result of substance use including prescription and over-the-counter drugs, as determined under the provisions, policies, and procedures established by the facility licensee for its fitness-for-duty program, in such a manner as to adversely affect his or her ability to safely and competently perform generally licensed reactor operator duties.
</P>
<P>(g) The generally licensed reactor operator must notify the Commission within 30 days about a conviction for a felony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.815" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.815   Generally licensed reactor operator training, examination, and proficiency programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to each licensee of a self-reliant-mitigation facility that has not yet certified the permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel as described under § 53.1070.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) The facility licensee must develop, implement, and maintain training and examination programs that demonstrate compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The training program must provide for both the initial and continuing training of generally licensed reactor operators and be derived from a systems approach to training as defined in this part.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The training program must incorporate the instructional requirements necessary to provide qualified generally licensed reactor operators to operate and maintain the facility in a safe manner in all modes of operation. The training program must comply with the facility license, including all technical specifications and applicable regulations. The facility licensee must periodically evaluate and revise the training program as appropriate to reflect industry experience and relevant changes, including changes to the facility, procedures, regulations, and quality assurance (QA) requirements. Facility licensee management must periodically review the training program for effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(ii) The training program must ensure that generally licensed reactor operators have and maintain the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities.
</P>
<P>(iii) The training program must include the generally licensed reactor operator manipulating the controls of either the facility or a simulation facility that demonstrates compliance with the requirements of § 53.815(e).
</P>
<P>(iv) The training program must include an initial examination program for testing a representative sample of the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to safely perform generally licensed reactor operator duties, to include both the examination methods and criteria to be used to assess passing performance. The facility licensee must provide the opportunity for a representative of the Commission to be present during initial examination administration.
</P>
<P>(v) The training program must include a requalification examination program for testing a sample of the topics included under the systems approach to training, to include the examination methods and criteria to be used to assess passing performance. The requalification examination program must specify an appropriate periodicity for administering a complete requalification examination to each generally licensed reactor operator, and the facility licensee must provide the opportunity for a representative of the Commission to be present during requalification examination administration.
</P>
<P>(A) The facility licensee must ensure that any generally licensed reactor operator who either demonstrates unsatisfactory performance on, or fails to complete, the requalification examination is removed from the performance of generally licensed reactor operator duties until such time that any necessary remedial training has been completed and a retake examination has been passed.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) The training program must be approved by the Commission prior to its use, as described under § 53.730(g). The examination program must provide for valid and reliable examinations and must be approved by the Commission prior to their use, as described under § 53.730(g). The approved programs are subject to the requirements of § 53.1565.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> The following is required regarding the documentation of the generally licensed reactor operator training and examination programs:
</P>
<P>(1) Sufficient records must be maintained by the facility licensee to maintain the integrity of the programs and kept available for NRC inspection to verify the adequacy of the programs.
</P>
<P>(2) The facility licensee must maintain records documenting the participation of each generally licensed reactor operator in the training and examination programs. The records must contain copies of examinations administered, the answers given by the generally licensed reactor operator, documentation of the grading of examinations, and documentation of any additional training administered in areas in which a generally licensed reactor operator exhibited deficiencies. The facility licensee must retain these records while the associated generally licensed reactor operators remain employed at the facility.
</P>
<P>(3) Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period. The record may be the original, a reproduced copy, or an electronic copy provided that the copy is authenticated by authorized personnel.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examination integrity.</I> Generally licensed reactor operators and facility licensees must not engage in any activity that compromises the integrity of any examination conducted under the generally licensed reactor operator training and examination programs. The integrity of an examination is considered compromised if any activity, regardless of intent, affected, or, but for detection, could have affected the consistent administration of the examination. This includes all activities related to the preparation, administration, and grading of examinations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Simulation facilities.</I> (1) Simulation facilities used for training purposes, for maintaining proficiency, or for the conduct of examinations must demonstrate compliance with the following criteria as they relate to the facility licensee's reference plant:
</P>
<P>(i) The simulation facility must be of sufficient scope and fidelity for individuals to acquire and demonstrate the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities to safely perform generally licensed reactor operator duties.
</P>
<P>(ii) The simulation facility must utilize models relating to nuclear, thermal-hydraulic, and other applicable design-specific characteristics that either replicate the most recent fuel load in the reference commercial nuclear plant or, prior to initial fuel load (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, prior to initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1)), replicate the intended initial fuel load for the reference commercial nuclear plant, with the exception of those portions of the simulation facility that utilize the reference plant itself.
</P>
<P>(iii) Simulator fidelity must be demonstrated so that significant control manipulations are completed without procedural exceptions, simulator performance exceptions, or deviation from the approved training scenario sequence.
</P>
<P>(2) Facility licensees that maintain a simulation facility for training purposes, for maintaining proficiency, or for the conduct of examinations must—
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct performance testing throughout the life of the simulation facility in a manner sufficient to ensure that paragraph (e)(1) of this section is met;
</P>
<P>(ii) Retain the results of performance testing for 4 years after the completion of each performance test or until superseded by updated test results;
</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly correct modeling and hardware discrepancies and discrepancies identified from scenario validation and from performance testing or provide justification for why the presence of such discrepancies will not adversely affect the criteria of paragraph (e)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Make the results of any uncorrected performance test failures that may exist at the time of an inspection available for NRC review; and
</P>
<P>(v) Maintain the provisions for examination integrity consistent with § 53.815(d).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiver of examination requirement.</I> The facility licensee may waive any or all of the requirements for an examination in accordance with the facility licensee's Commission-approved generally licensed reactor operator training and examination programs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Proficiency.</I> The facility licensee must develop, implement, and maintain a proficiency program to allow generally licensed reactor operators to maintain proficiency regarding position functions and familiarity with plant status. This program must include those steps that will be taken in order to re-establish proficiency when it cannot be maintained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.820" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.820   Cessation of individual applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The general license ceases to be applicable on an individual basis once a generally licensed reactor operator is no longer being employed in a position that may involve the manipulation of the controls of the self-reliant mitigation facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.830" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.830   Training and qualification of commercial nuclear personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section addresses personnel training requirements. The regulations within this section are applicable to all applicants for or holders of OLs or COLs under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to initial fuel load (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, prior to initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1)), each holder of an operating or COL under this part must, with sufficient time to provide trained and qualified personnel to operate the facility, establish, implement, and maintain a training program that demonstrates compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The training program must be derived from a systems approach to training as defined in this part and must provide, at a minimum, for the training and qualification of the following categories of commercial nuclear personnel:
</P>
<P>(1) Supervisors (<I>e.g.,</I> shift supervisors);
</P>
<P>(2) Technicians (<I>e.g.,</I> maintenance, chemistry, and radiological); and
</P>
<P>(3) Other appropriate operating personnel (<I>e.g.,</I> auxiliary operators, certified fuel handlers, and individuals who provide engineering expertise to on-shift operating personnel).
</P>
<P>(d) The training program must incorporate the instructional requirements necessary to provide qualified personnel to operate components of a commercial nuclear plant and maintain the facility in a safe manner in all modes of operation. The training program must be developed to be in compliance with the facility license, including all technical specifications and applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(1) The training program must be periodically evaluated and revised as appropriate to reflect industry experience and relevant changes, including changes to the facility, procedures, regulations, and QA requirements. The training program must be periodically reviewed by facility licensee management for effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(2) Sufficient records must be maintained by the facility licensee to maintain program integrity and kept available for NRC inspection to verify the adequacy of the training program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.845" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.845   Programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The required plant programs under this part must include but are not necessarily limited to the programs described in the following sections of this subpart. Licensees may combine, separate, and otherwise organize programs and related documents as appropriate for the technologies and organizations associated with the commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the programs described in the following sections, programs must be provided for each commercial nuclear plant, if necessary, to ensure that the performance of design features and human actions are consistent with the analyses performed under §§ 53.450 and 53.730 and that the plant will demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria defined in §§ 53.210 and 53.220.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.850" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.850   Radiation protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain a Radiation Protection Program for operations that is commensurate with the scope and extent of licensed activities under this part and includes measures for limiting and monitoring radioactive plant effluents and limiting and monitoring the dose to individuals working with radioactive materials in accordance with 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(b) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain a program for the control of radioactive effluents and for environmental monitoring. The program must be contained in an Offsite Dose Calculations Manual, must be implemented by procedures, and must include remedial actions to be taken whenever the program limits are exceeded. The Offsite Dose Calculations Manual must—
</P>
<P>(1) Contain the methodology and parameters used in the calculation of offsite doses resulting from radioactive gaseous and liquid effluents, in the calculation of gaseous and liquid effluent monitoring alarm and trip setpoints, and in the conduct of the radiological environmental monitoring program; and
</P>
<P>(2) Contain the radioactive effluent controls and radiological environmental monitoring activities, and descriptions of the information that should be included in the Annual Radiological Environmental Operating and Radioactive Effluent Release Reports required by § 53.1645.
</P>
<P>(c) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain a Process Control Program that identifies the administrative and operational controls for solid radioactive waste processing, process parameters, and surveillance requirements sufficient to ensure compliance with the requirements of 10 CFR part 20, 10 CFR part 61, and 10 CFR part 71.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.855" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.855   Emergency preparedness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must have an emergency response plan that must contain information needed to demonstrate compliance with either the requirements in § 50.160 of this chapter or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 and the planning standards of § 50.47(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) No initial OL, initial COL, or early site permit that includes complete and integrated emergency plans will be issued under this part unless a finding is made by the NRC, in accordance with § 50.47 of this chapter, that there is reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.860" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.860   Security programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Physical protection program.</I> Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain a physical protection program under the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee must implement security requirements for the protection of special nuclear material based on the type, enrichment, and quantity in accordance with 10 CFR part 73, as applicable, and implement security requirements for the protection of Category 1 and Category 2 quantities of radioactive material in accordance with 10 CFR part 37, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must demonstrate compliance with the provisions set forth in either § 73.55 or § 73.100 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fitness-for-duty.</I> Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain a fitness-for-duty program under 10 CFR part 26.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access authorization.</I> Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain an access authorization program under § 73.56 or § 73.120 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cybersecurity.</I> Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain a cybersecurity program under § 73.54 or § 73.110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Information security.</I> Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain an information protection system under §§ 73.21, 73.22, and 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.865" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.865   Quality assurance.</HEAD>
<P>Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain a quality assurance program in accordance with appendix B of part 50 of this chapter. A written quality assurance program manual must be developed and used to guide the conduct of the program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.870" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.870   Integrity assessment programs.</HEAD>
<P>Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain an integrity assessment program to monitor, evaluate, and manage—
</P>
<P>(a) The effects of plant aging on SR and NSRSS SSCs. The program may refer to surveillances, tests, and inspections conducted for specific SSCs in accordance with other requirements in this part or conducted in accordance with applicable consensus codes and standards endorsed or otherwise found acceptable by the NRC;
</P>
<P>(b) Cyclic or transient load limits to ensure that SR and NSRSS SSCs are maintained within the applicable design limits; and
</P>
<P>(c) Degradation mechanisms related to chemical interactions, operating temperatures, effects of irradiation, and other environmental factors to ensure that the capabilities, availability, and reliability of SR and NSRSS SSCs demonstrate compliance with the functional design criteria of §§ 53.410 and 53.420.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.875" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.875   Fire protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must have a fire protection plan that describes the overall fire protection program for the facility; identifies the various positions within the licensee's organization that are responsible for the program; states the authorities that are delegated to each of these positions to implement those responsibilities; and outlines the plans for fire protection, fire detection and suppression capability; and limitation of fire damage.
</P>
<P>(2) The fire protection plan must also describe specific features necessary to implement the program described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section such as the following: administrative controls and personnel requirements for fire prevention and manual fire suppression activities; automatic and manually operated fire detection and suppression systems; and the means to limit fire damage to SSCs so that the capability to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of § 53.210 is ensured.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop a performance-based or deterministic fire protection program that demonstrates compliance with the safety criteria outlined in §§ 53.210 and 53.220, related safety functions outlined in § 53.230, and defense in depth as outlined in § 53.250 with specific fire protection measures related to fire prevention, fire detection, and fire suppression.
</P>
<P>(2) The fire protection program must comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety-related and, where appropriate, NSRSS SSCs must be designed, located, and maintained to minimize, consistent with other safety requirements, the probability and effect of fires and explosions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Noncombustible and fire-resistant materials must be used wherever practical throughout the facility, particularly in locations with SR and NSRSS SSCs.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fire detection and fire suppression systems of appropriate capacity and capability must be provided and designed and maintained to minimize the adverse effects of fires on SR and NSRSS SSCs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Fire suppression systems must be designed and maintained to ensure that their rupture or inadvertent operation does not significantly impair the ability of SR and NSRSS SSCs to perform their safety functions to satisfy § 53.230.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.880" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.880   Inservice inspection and inservice testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must develop, implement, and maintain a program for inservice inspection (ISI) and inservice testing (IST) prior to receiving an OL or COL. The ISI/IST programs must, wherever applicable, be in accordance with generally accepted consensus codes and standards that have been endorsed or otherwise found acceptable by the NRC. The ISI/IST program must include all inspections and tests required by the codes and standards used in the design and be supplemented by risk insights that identify the most important SSCs to plant safety. The types of testing and inspections and their frequency should be informed by risk insights to maintain the reliability and performance of SSCs consistent with the associated design and analyses activities involving those SSCs. Risk insights must also be used to determine when to conduct the inspections and tests (<I>e.g.,</I> full power, shutdown, refueling) to minimize risk to the plant workers and the public. The ISI/IST program must be documented in a written manual and managed by qualified personnel reporting to the director, responsible officer, or designated person.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to plant operation, baseline inspections and testing must be performed using the same techniques as will be used for future inspections and testing. The results of these inspections and testing must be used as benchmarks for evaluating the results of future inspections and testing. Sufficient room and support must be provided to accommodate the personnel, ISI/IST equipment, and shielding necessary to perform the inspections and testing. Acceptance criteria for determining whether corrective action is needed must be developed (or taken from the codes and standards used in the design) for evaluating the results of the inspections and testing. The results of the inspections and testing must be provided to the director, responsible officer, or designated person who is responsible for determining what, if any, corrective action is needed and when it should be taken. The ISI/IST results and corrective actions must be documented and the documentation retained for the life of the plant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.910" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.6.62.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.910   Procedures and guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must have a program for developing, implementing, and maintaining an integrated set of procedures, guidelines, and related supporting activities to support normal operations and respond to possible unplanned events.
</P>
<P>(b) The program required by paragraph (a) of this section must include but is not limited to development, implementation, maintenance, and supporting activities of procedures and guidelines for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Plant operations;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintenance activities under § 53.715;
</P>
<P>(3) Program requirements under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) Emergency operating procedures, if developed to address the role of human actions in responding to LBEs;
</P>
<P>(5) Accident management guidelines, if developed to address the role of human actions in responding to LBEs;
</P>
<P>(6) Procedures for each area in which licensed special nuclear material is handled, used, or stored to protect personnel upon the sounding of a criticality alarm required by § 53.440(m); and
</P>
<P>(7) Procedures that describe how the licensee will address the following areas if the licensee is notified of a potential aircraft threat:
</P>
<P>(i) Verification of the authenticity of threat notifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintenance of continuous communication with threat notification sources;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contacting all onsite personnel and applicable offsite response organizations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Onsite actions necessary to enhance the capability of the facility to mitigate the consequences of an aircraft impact;
</P>
<P>(v) Measures to reduce visual discrimination of the site relative to its surroundings or individual buildings within the protected area;
</P>
<P>(vi) Dispersal of equipment and personnel, as well as rapid entry into site protected areas for essential onsite personnel and offsite responders who are necessary to mitigate the event; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Recall of site personnel.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Decommissioning Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1000" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1000   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart defines the requirements related to decommissioning for applicants for, or holders of, an operating license (OL) or combined license (COL). The requirements related to maintaining financial assurance for decommissioning are in §§ 53.1010 through 53.1060. The requirements for transitioning from operations to decommissioning and for the release of property and termination of the license are in §§ 53.1070 through 53.1080.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1010" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1010   Financial assurance for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section establishes requirements for indicating to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) how an applicant for or holder of an OL or COL under this part will provide reasonable assurance that funds will be available for the decommissioning process. Reasonable assurance consists of a series of steps as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and §§ 53.1020, 53.1030 and 53.1040. Funding for the decommissioning of commercial nuclear plants may also be subject to the regulation of Federal or State government agencies (<I>e.g.,</I> Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) and State Public Utility Commissions) that have jurisdiction over rate regulation. The requirements of this subpart, in particular § 53.1020, are in addition to, and not a substitution for, other requirements, and are not intended to be used by themselves or by other agencies to establish rates.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant for an OL or COL under this part must prepare a plan and an associated decommissioning report that ensures and documents that adequate funding will be available to decommission the facility. Each holder of an OL or COL must implement and maintain the plan.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Before the Commission issues an OL under this part, the applicant must update the decommissioning report to certify that it has provided financial assurance for decommissioning in the amount proposed in the application and approved by the NRC under § 53.1020.


</P>
<P>(ii) No later than 30 days after the Commission issues the notice of intended operation under § 53.1452 for a COL under this part, the licensee must update the decommissioning report to certify that it has provided financial assurance for decommissioning in the amount proposed in the application and approved by the NRC under § 53.1020.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of financial assurance for decommissioning to be provided must be based on a site-specific cost estimate for decommissioning the facility under § 53.1020.
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of financial assurance for decommissioning to be provided must be adjusted annually using a rate at least equal to that stated in § 53.1030.
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of financial assurance for decommissioning to be provided must be covered by one or more of the methods described in § 53.1040 as acceptable to the NRC. A copy of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of § 53.1040 must be submitted to the NRC as part of the application for an OL under this part; however, an applicant for or holder of a COL need not obtain such financial instrument or submit a copy to the Commission except as provided in § 53.1060(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1020" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1020   Cost estimates for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>Cost estimates for decommissioning must be site-specific. Site-specific decommissioning cost estimates (DCEs) must account for the engineering, labor, equipment, transportation, disposal, and related charges needed to support termination of the license. They must include the costs for decontaminating structures, systems, and components and the site environs; removal of contaminated components and materials from the plant and the site environs; disposal of removed components and materials in appropriate facilities; and any other activities supporting the release of the property and termination of the license. They must also address the approach to annual adjustments required by § 53.1030. Finally, site-specific DCEs must include plans for adjusting levels of funds assured for decommissioning to demonstrate that a reasonable level of assurance will be provided that funds will be available when needed to cover the cost of decommissioning.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1030" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1030   Annual adjustments to cost estimates for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must annually adjust the cost estimate for decommissioning to account for escalation in labor, energy, and waste burial costs. Licensees may elect to use either a site-specific adjustment factor, approved as part of the plan and associated decommissioning report required by § 53.1010, in paragraph (a) of this section or the generic adjustment factor in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) A site-specific adjustment factor must address the estimated contributions and escalation of costs for the following aspects of decommissioning:
</P>
<P>(1) Labor, materials, and services;
</P>
<P>(2) Energy and waste transportation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Radioactive waste burial or other disposition.
</P>
<P>(b) A generic adjustment factor must be at least equal to 0.65 L + 0.13 E + 0.22 B, where L and E are escalation factors for labor and energy, respectively, and are to be taken from regional data of U.S. Department of Labor Bureau of Labor Statistics and B is an escalation factor for waste burial and is to be taken from NRC report NUREG-1307, “Report on Waste Burial Charges.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1040" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1040   Methods for providing financial assurance for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>Financial assurance for decommissioning is to be provided by the following methods.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Prepayment.</I> Prepayment is the deposit made preceding the start of operation or the transfer of a license under § 53.1570 into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the administrative control of the licensee and its subsidiaries or affiliates of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. Prepayment may be in the form of a trust, escrow account, or Government fund with payment by certificate of deposit, deposit of government or other securities, or other method acceptable to the NRC. This trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other type of agreement must be established in writing and maintained at all times in the United States with an entity that is an appropriate State or Federal government agency, or an entity whose operations in which the prepayment deposit is managed are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. A licensee that has prepaid funds based on a site-specific cost estimate under § 53.1020 may take credit for projected earnings on the prepaid decommissioning trust funds, using up to a 2 percent annual real rate of return through the time of termination of the license. A licensee may use a credit of greater than 2 percent if the licensee's rate-setting authority has specifically authorized a higher rate. Actual earnings on existing funds may be used to calculate future fund needs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>External sinking fund.</I> An external sinking fund is a fund established and maintained by setting funds aside periodically in an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the administrative control of the licensee and its subsidiaries or affiliates in which the total amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. An external sinking fund may be in the form of a trust, escrow account, or Government fund, with payment by certificate of deposit, deposit of government or other securities, or other method acceptable to the NRC. This trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other type of agreement must be established in writing and maintained at all times in the United States with an entity that is an appropriate State or Federal government agency, or an entity whose operations in which the external sinking fund is managed are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. A licensee that has collected funds based on a site-specific cost estimate under § 53.1020 may take credit for projected earnings on the external sinking funds using up to a 2 percent annual real rate of return from the time of future funds' collection through the time of termination of the license. A licensee may use a credit of greater than 2 percent if the licensee's rate-setting authority has specifically authorized a higher rate. Actual earnings on existing funds may be used to calculate future fund needs. A licensee whose rates for decommissioning costs cover only a portion of these costs may make use of this method only for the portion of these costs that are collected in one of the manners described in this paragraph (b). This method may be used as the exclusive mechanism relied upon for providing financial assurance for decommissioning in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) By a licensee that recovers, either directly or indirectly, the estimated total cost of decommissioning through rates established by “cost of service” or similar ratemaking regulation. Public utility districts, municipalities, rural electric cooperatives, and State and Federal agencies, including associations of any of the foregoing, that establish their own rates and are able to recover their cost of service allocable to decommissioning, are deemed to satisfy this condition.
</P>
<P>(2) By a licensee whose source of revenues for its external sinking fund is a “non-bypassable charge,” the total amount of which will provide funds estimated to be needed for decommissioning pursuant to § 53.1020, § 53.1060, or § 53.1575.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method.</I> (1) These methods guarantee that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, or letter of credit. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must contain the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The surety method or insurance must be open-ended, or, if written for a specified term, such as 5 years, must be renewed automatically, unless 90 days or more prior to the renewal day the issuer notifies the NRC, the beneficiary, and the licensee of its intention not to renew. The surety or insurance must also provide that the full-face amount be paid to the beneficiary automatically prior to the expiration without proof of forfeiture if the licensee fails to provide a replacement acceptable to the NRC within 30 days after receipt of notification of cancellation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The surety or insurance must be payable to a trust established for decommissioning costs. The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the NRC. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal government agency or an entity that has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
</P>
<P>(2) A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix A to 10 CFR part 30.
</P>
<P>(3) For commercial companies that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix C to 10 CFR part 30. For commercial companies that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix D to 10 CFR part 30. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in any situation in which the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of voting stock of the company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Funding method for Federal licensees.</I> For a Federal licensee, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contractual funding method.</I> Contractual obligation(s) on the part of a licensee's customer(s), the total amount of which over the duration of the contract(s) will provide the licensee's total share of uncollected funds estimated to be needed for decommissioning pursuant to § 53.1020, § 53.1060, or § 53.1575. To be acceptable to the NRC as a method of decommissioning funding assurance, the terms of the contract(s) must include provisions that the buyer(s) of electricity or other products will pay for the decommissioning obligations specified in the contract(s), notwithstanding the operational status either of the licensed plant to which the contract(s) pertains or force majeure provisions. All proceeds from the contract(s) for decommissioning funding will be deposited to the external sinking fund. The NRC reserves the right to evaluate the terms of any contract(s) and the financial qualifications of the contracting entity or entities offered as assurance for decommissioning funding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other funding mechanisms.</I> Any other mechanism, or combination of mechanisms, that provides, as determined by the NRC upon its evaluation of the specific circumstances of each licensee submittal, assurance of decommissioning funding equivalent to that provided by the mechanisms specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. Licensees who do not have sources of funding described in paragraph (b) of this section may use an external sinking fund in combination with a guarantee mechanism, as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, provided that the total amount of funds estimated to be necessary for decommissioning is assured.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1045" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1045   Limitations on the use of decommissioning trust funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Decommissioning trust funds may be used by licensees if—
</P>
<P>(i) The withdrawals are for expenses for decommissioning activities consistent with the definition of decommission or decommissioning in § 53.020;
</P>
<P>(ii) The expenditure would not reduce the value of the decommissioning trust below an amount necessary to place and maintain the reactor in a safe storage condition if unforeseen conditions or expenses arise; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The withdrawals would not inhibit the ability of the licensee to complete funding of any shortfalls in the decommissioning trust needed to ensure the availability of funds to ultimately release the site and terminate the license.
</P>
<P>(2) Initially, 3 percent of the amount determined in accordance with § 53.1020 may be used for decommissioning planning. For licensees that have submitted the certifications required under § 53.1070 and commencing 90 days after the NRC has received the post-shutdown decommissioning activities report (PSDAR) required by § 53.1060, an additional 20 percent may be used. An updated site-specific DCE must be submitted to the NRC prior to the licensee using any funding in excess of these amounts.


</P>
<P>(b) Licensees that are not “electric utilities” as defined in § 53.020 that use prepayment or an external sinking fund to provide financial assurance must provide in the terms of the arrangements governing the trust, escrow account, or Government fund, used to segregate and manage the funds that—
</P>
<P>(1) The trustee, manager, investment advisor, or other person directing investment of the funds—
</P>
<P>(i) Is prohibited from investing the funds in securities or other obligations of the licensee or any other owner or operator of any commercial nuclear plant or their affiliates, subsidiaries, successors or assigns, or in a mutual fund in which at least 50 percent of the fund is invested in the securities of a licensee or parent company whose subsidiary is an owner or operator of a foreign or domestic commercial nuclear plant. However, the funds may be invested in securities tied to market indices or other non-nuclear sector collective, commingled, or mutual funds, provided that no more than 10 percent of trust assets may be indirectly invested in securities of any entity owning or operating one or more commercial nuclear plants.
</P>
<P>(ii) Is obligated at all times to adhere to a standard of care set forth in the trust, which either shall be the standard of care, whether in investing or otherwise, required by State or Federal law or one or more State or Federal regulatory agencies with jurisdiction over the trust funds, or, in the absence of any such standard of care, whether in investing or otherwise, that a prudent investor would use in the same circumstances. The term “prudent investor,” shall have the same meaning as set forth in FERC's “Regulations Governing Nuclear Plant Decommissioning Trust Funds” at 18 CFR 35.32(a)(3), or any successor regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee, its affiliates, and its subsidiaries are prohibited from being engaged as investment manager for the funds or from giving day-to-day management direction of the funds' investments or direction on individual investments by the funds, except in the case of passive fund management of trust funds where management is limited to investments tracking market indices.
</P>
<P>(3) The trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds may not be amended in any material respect without written notification to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, at least 30 working days before the proposed effective date of the amendment. The licensee must provide the text of the proposed amendment and a statement of the reason for the proposed amendment. The trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account may not be amended if the person responsible for managing the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account receives written notice of objection from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, within the notice period.
</P>
<P>(4) Except for withdrawals being made under paragraph (a) of this section or for payments of ordinary administrative costs (including taxes) and other incidental expenses of the fund (including legal, accounting, actuarial, and trustee expenses) in connection with the operation of the fund, no disbursement or payment may be made from the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds until written notice of the intention to make a disbursement or payment has been given to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, at least 30 working days before the date of the intended disbursement or payment. The disbursement or payment from the trust, escrow account, Government fund or other account may be made following the 30 working day notice period if the person responsible for managing the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account does not receive written notice of objection from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, within the notice period. Disbursements or payments from the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds, other than for payment of ordinary administrative costs (including taxes) and other incidental expenses of the fund (including legal, accounting, actuarial, and trustee expenses) in connection with the operation of the fund, are restricted to decommissioning expenses or transfer to another financial assurance method acceptable under § 53.1040 until final decommissioning has been completed. After decommissioning has begun and withdrawals from the decommissioning fund are made under paragraph (a) of this section, no further notification need be made to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees that are “electric utilities” under § 53.020 that use prepayment or an external sinking fund to provide financial assurance must include a provision in the terms of the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage funds that except for withdrawals being made under paragraph (a) of this section or for payments of ordinary administrative costs (including taxes) and other incidental expenses of the fund (including legal, accounting, actuarial, and trustee expenses) in connection with the operation of the fund, no disbursement or payment may be made from the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds until written notice of the intention to make a disbursement or payment has been given the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, at least 30 working days before the date of the intended disbursement or payment. The disbursement or payment from the trust, escrow account, Government fund or other account may be made following the 30 working day notice period if the person responsible for managing the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account does not receive written notice of objection from the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as applicable, within the notice period. Disbursements or payments from the trust, escrow account, Government fund, or other account used to segregate and manage the funds, other than for payment of ordinary administrative costs (including taxes) and other incidental expenses of the fund (including legal, accounting, actuarial, and trustee expenses) in connection with the operation of the fund, are restricted to decommissioning expenses or transfer to another financial assurance method acceptable under § 53.1040 until final decommissioning has been completed. After decommissioning has begun and withdrawals from the decommissioning fund are made under paragraph (a) of this section, no further notification need be made to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(d) A licensee that is not an “electric utility” under § 53.020 and using a surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method to provide financial assurance must provide that the trust established for decommissioning costs to which the surety or insurance is payable contains in its terms the requirements in § 53.1045(b)(1) through (b)(4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1050" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1050   NRC oversight.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC reserves the right to take the following steps in order to ensure a licensee's adequate accumulation of decommissioning funds: review, as needed, the rate of accumulation of decommissioning funds and, either independently or in cooperation with FERC and the licensee's State Public Utility Commission, take additional actions as appropriate on a case-by-case basis, including modification of a licensee's schedule for the accumulation of decommissioning funds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1060" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1060   Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of an OL under this part or holder of a COL under this part after the date that the Commission has made the finding under § 53.1452(g) must report, at least once every 2 years, by March 31, on the status of its certification of decommissioning funding for each commercial nuclear reactor or part of a commercial nuclear reactor that it owns. The information in this report must include, at a minimum, the amount of decommissioning funds estimated to be required under §§ 53.1020 and 53.1030; the amount of decommissioning funds accumulated to the end of the calendar year preceding the date of the report; a schedule of the annual amounts remaining to be collected; the assumptions used regarding rates of escalation in decommissioning costs, rates of earnings on decommissioning funds, and rates of other factors used in funding projections; any contracts upon which the licensee is relying under § 53.1040(e); any modifications occurring to a licensee's method of providing financial assurance since the last submitted report; and any material changes to trust agreements. If any of the preceding items is not applicable, the licensee should so state in its report. Any licensee for a plant that is within 5 years of the projected end of its operation, or where conditions have changed such that it will close within 5 years (before the end of its licensed life), or that has already closed (before the end of its licensed life), or that is involved in a merger or an acquisition must submit this report annually.
</P>
<P>(b) Each holder of a COL under this part must, 2 years before and 1 year before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, 2 years before and 1 year before the scheduled date for initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1)) submit a report to the NRC containing a certification updating the DCEs and a copy of the financial instrument to be used to satisfy § 53.1040. No later than 30 days after the Commission publishes notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 53.1452(a), the licensee must submit an updated decommissioning report required under § 53.1010(b)(1)(ii), including a copy of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy § 53.1040.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee must keep records of information important to the safe and effective decommissioning of the facility in an identified location until the license is terminated by the Commission. If records of relevant information are kept for other purposes, reference to these records and their locations may be used. Information the Commission considers important to decommissioning consists of—
</P>
<P>(1) Records of spills or other unusual occurrences involving the spread of contamination in and around the facility, equipment, or site. These records may be limited to instances when significant contamination remains after any cleanup procedures or when there is reasonable likelihood that contaminants may have spread to inaccessible areas as in the case of possible seepage into porous materials such as concrete. These records must include any known information on identification of involved nuclides, quantities, forms, and concentrations.
</P>
<P>(2) As-built drawings and modifications of structures and equipment in restricted areas where radioactive materials are used and/or stored and of locations of possible inaccessible contamination such as buried pipes that may be subject to contamination. If required drawings are referenced, each relevant document need not be indexed individually. If drawings are not available, the licensee must substitute appropriate records of available information concerning these areas and locations.
</P>
<P>(3) Records of the cost estimate performed for the decommissioning funding plan or of the amount certified for decommissioning, and records of the funding method used for assuring funds if either a funding plan or certification is used.
</P>
<P>(4) Records of—
</P>
<P>(i) The licensed site area, as originally licensed and any revisions, which must include a site map and any acquisition or use of property outside the originally licensed site area for the purpose of receiving, possessing, or using licensed materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensed activities carried out on the acquired or used property; and


</P>
<P>(iii) The release and final disposition of any property recorded in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, the historical site assessment performed for the release, radiation surveys performed to support release of the property, submittals to the NRC made under § 53.1070, and the methods employed to ensure that the property met the radiological criteria of subpart E of 10 CFR part 20 at the time the property was released.
</P>
<P>(d) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part must at or about 5 years prior to the projected end of operations submit a preliminary DCE which includes an up-to-date assessment of the major factors that could affect the cost to decommission.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior to or within 2 years following permanent cessation of operations, the licensee must submit a PSDAR to the NRC, and a copy to the affected State(s). The PSDAR must contain a description of the planned decommissioning activities along with a schedule for their accomplishment, a discussion that provides the reasons for concluding that the environmental impacts associated with site-specific decommissioning activities will be bounded by appropriate previously issued environmental impact statements, and a site-specific DCE, including the projected cost of managing irradiated fuel.
</P>
<P>(f) For decommissioning activities that delay completion of decommissioning by including a period of storage or surveillance, the licensee must provide a means of adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels over the storage or surveillance period.
</P>
<P>(g) After submitting its site-specific DCE required by paragraph (e) of this section, and until the licensee has completed its final radiation survey and demonstrated that residual radioactivity has been reduced to a level that permits termination of its license, the licensee must annually submit to the NRC, by March 31, a financial assurance status report. The report must include the following information, current through the end of the previous calendar year:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount spent on decommissioning, both cumulative and over the previous calendar year, the remaining balance of any decommissioning funds, and the amount provided by other financial assurance methods being relied upon;
</P>
<P>(2) An estimate of the costs to complete decommissioning, reflecting any difference between actual and estimated costs for work performed during the year, and the decommissioning criteria upon which the estimate is based;
</P>
<P>(3) Any modifications occurring to a licensee's current method of providing financial assurance since the last submitted report; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any material changes to trust agreements or financial assurance contracts.
</P>
<P>(5) If the sum of the balance of any remaining decommissioning funds, plus earnings on such funds calculated at not greater than a 2 percent real rate of return, together with the amount provided by other financial assurance methods being relied upon, does not cover the estimated cost to complete the decommissioning, the financial assurance status report must include additional financial assurance to cover the estimated cost of completion.
</P>
<P>(h) After submitting its site-specific DCE required by paragraph (e) of this section, the licensee must annually submit to the NRC, by March 31, a report on the status of its funding for managing irradiated fuel. The report must include the following information, current through the end of the previous calendar year:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of funds accumulated to cover the cost of managing the irradiated fuel;
</P>
<P>(2) The projected cost of managing irradiated fuel until title to the fuel and possession of the fuel is transferred to the Secretary of Energy; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the funds accumulated do not cover the projected cost, a plan to obtain additional funds to cover the cost.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1070" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1070   Termination of license.</HEAD>
<P>For each holder of an OL or COL under this part—
</P>
<P>(a)(1) When the licensee has determined to permanently cease operations the licensee must, within 30 days, submit a written certification to the NRC, consistent with the requirements of § 53.040(b)(8);
</P>
<P>(2) When appropriate to support decommissioning activities and the eventual permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, the licensee must develop defueled technical specifications by reviewing the operational technical specifications and determining which specifications no longer apply during decommissioning and which ones should remain applicable. The licensee must make the appropriate submittals to the NRC in accordance with § 53.1510 to request changes to the technical specifications; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Once fuel has been permanently removed from the reactor vessel, the licensee must submit a written certification to the NRC that meets the requirements of § 53.040(b)(9); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee must establish and maintain staffing consisting of certified fuel handlers, as defined under § 53.020, and other non-licensed personnel with appropriate qualifications, and in sufficient numbers, to ensure support for facility operations and radiological control activities, as required by the facility defueled technical specifications. These personnel must be subject to the training requirements of § 53.830.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon docketing of the certifications for permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, or when a final legally effective order to permanently cease operations has come into effect, the license issued under this part no longer authorizes operation of the reactor or emplacement or retention of fuel into the reactor vessel.
</P>
<P>(c) Decommissioning will be completed within 60 years of permanent cessation of operations. Completion of decommissioning beyond 60 years will be approved by the Commission only when necessary to protect public health and safety. Factors that will be considered by the Commission in evaluating an alternative that provides for completion of decommissioning beyond 60 years of permanent cessation of operations include unavailability of waste disposal capacity and other site-specific factors affecting the licensee's capability to carry out decommissioning, including presence of other nuclear facilities at the site.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Prior to or within 2 years following permanent cessation of operations, the licensee must submit a PSDAR and site-specific DCE in accordance with § 53.1060(e).
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC must notice receipt of the PSDAR and make the PSDAR publicly available and publish notice of its availability for public comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The NRC must also schedule a public meeting readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the licensee's facility. The NRC must publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, that is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, announcing the date, time, and location of the meeting, along with a brief description of the purpose of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(e) Licensees must not perform any major decommissioning activities, as defined in § 53.020, until 90 days after the NRC has received the licensee's PSDAR submittal and until certifications of permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel, as required under paragraph (a) of this section, have been submitted.
</P>
<P>(f) Licensees must not perform any decommissioning activities, as defined in § 53.020, that—
</P>
<P>(1) Foreclose release of the site for possible unrestricted use;
</P>
<P>(2) Result in significant environmental impacts not previously reviewed; or
</P>
<P>(3) Result in there no longer being reasonable assurance that adequate funds will be available for decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(g) In taking actions permitted under § 53.1540 following submittal of the PSDAR, the licensee must notify the NRC in writing, and send a copy to the affected State(s), before performing any decommissioning activity inconsistent with, or making any significant schedule change from, those actions and schedules described in the PSDAR, including changes that increase the decommissioning cost by more than 20 percent from the previously provided DCE.
</P>
<P>(h) Licensees may use decommissioning trust funds consistent with the limitations of § 53.1045(a). Licensees must report on the status of decommissioning trust funds consistent with the requirements of § 53.1060.
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees must submit an application for termination of license in accordance with § 53.1070. The application for termination of license must be accompanied or preceded by a license termination plan to be submitted for NRC approval.
</P>
<P>(1) The license termination plan must be a supplement to the Final Safety Analysis Report or equivalent and must be submitted at least 2 years before termination of the license date.
</P>
<P>(2) The license termination plan must include—
</P>
<P>(i) A site characterization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of remaining dismantlement activities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Plans for site remediation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Detailed plans for the final radiation survey;
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the end use of the site, if restricted;
</P>
<P>(vi) An updated site-specific estimate of remaining decommissioning costs;
</P>
<P>(vii) A supplement to the environmental report, pursuant to § 51.53 of this chapter, describing any new information or significant environmental change associated with the licensee's proposed termination activities; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Identification of parts, if any, of the facility or site that were released for use before approval of the license termination plan.
</P>
<P>(3) Following receipt of the license termination plan, the NRC must make the license termination plan publicly available and publish notice of its availability for public comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The NRC must also schedule a public meeting readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the licensee's facility upon receipt of the license termination plan. The NRC must publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, that is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, announcing the date, time, and location of the meeting, along with a brief description of the purpose of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(j) If the license termination plan demonstrates that the remainder of decommissioning activities will be performed in accordance with the regulations in this chapter, will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public, and will not have a significant effect on the quality of the environment and after notice to interested persons, the Commission will approve the plan, by license amendment, subject to such conditions and limitations as it deems appropriate and necessary and authorize implementation of the license termination plan.
</P>
<P>(k) The Commission will terminate the license if it determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) The remaining dismantlement has been performed in accordance with the approved license termination plan; and


</P>
<P>(2) The final radiation survey and associated documentation, including an assessment of dose contributions associated with parts released for use before approval of the license termination plan, demonstrate that the facility and site have met the criteria for decommissioning in subpart E of 10 CFR part 20.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1075" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1075   Program requirements during decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees that have submitted the certifications required under § 53.1070 must maintain a decommissioning fire protection program to address the potential for fires that could cause the release or spread of radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>(1) The objectives of the decommissioning fire protection program are to
</P>
<P>(i) Reasonably prevent these fires from occurring;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rapidly detect, control, and extinguish those fires that do occur and that could result in a radiological hazard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the risk of fire-induced radiological hazards to the public, environment, and plant personnel is minimized.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must assess the decommissioning fire protection program on a regular basis. The licensee must revise the decommissioning fire protection program documentation as appropriate throughout the various stages of facility decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee may make changes to the decommissioning fire protection program without NRC approval if these changes do not reduce the effectiveness of fire protection for structures, systems, and components that could result in a radiological hazard, taking into account the decommissioning plant conditions and activities.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1080" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.7.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1080   Release of part of a commercial nuclear plant or site for unrestricted use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior written NRC approval is required to release part of a commercial nuclear plant or site for unrestricted use at any time before receiving approval of a license termination plan. Section 53.1060 specifies recordkeeping requirements associated with partial release. Holders of an OL or COL under this part seeking NRC review and approval must—
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate the effect of releasing the property to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) The dose to individual members of the public does not exceed the limits and standards of subpart D of 10 CFR part 20;
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no reduction in the effectiveness of emergency planning or physical security;
</P>
<P>(iii) Effluent releases remain within license conditions;
</P>
<P>(iv) The environmental monitoring program and offsite dose calculation manual are revised to account for the changes;
</P>
<P>(v) The siting criteria of subpart D of this part continue to be met; and
</P>
<P>(vi) All other applicable statutory and regulatory requirements continue to be met.
</P>
<P>(2) Perform a historical site assessment of the part of the commercial nuclear plant or site to be released; and
</P>
<P>(3) Perform surveys adequate to demonstrate compliance with the radiological criteria for unrestricted use specified in § 20.1402 of this chapter for impacted areas.
</P>
<P>(b) For release of non-impacted areas, the licensee may submit a written request for NRC review and approval of the release if a license amendment is not otherwise required. The request submittal must include—
</P>
<P>(1) The results of the evaluations performed in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the part of the commercial nuclear plant or site to be released;
</P>
<P>(3) The schedule for release of the property;
</P>
<P>(4) The results of the evaluations performed in accordance with § 53.1540; and
</P>
<P>(5) A discussion that provides the reasons for concluding that the environmental impacts associated with the licensee's proposed release of the property will be bounded by appropriate previously issued environmental impact statements.
</P>
<P>(c) After receiving a request from the licensee for NRC approval of the release of a non-impacted area, the NRC must—
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the licensee has adequately evaluated the effect of releasing the property as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the licensee's classification of any release areas as non-impacted is adequately justified; and
</P>
<P>(3) If determining that the licensee's submittal is adequate, inform the licensee in writing that the release is approved.
</P>
<P>(d) For release of impacted areas, the licensee must submit an application for amendment of its license for the release of the property. The application must include—
</P>
<P>(1) The information specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods used for and results obtained from the radiation surveys required to demonstrate compliance with the radiological criteria for unrestricted use specified in § 20.1402; and
</P>
<P>(3) A supplement to the environmental report, under § 51.53 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) After receiving a license amendment application from the licensee for the release of an impacted area, the NRC must—
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the licensee has adequately evaluated the effect of releasing the property as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine whether the licensee's classification of any release areas as non-impacted is adequately justified;
</P>
<P>(3) Determine whether the licensee's radiation survey for an impacted area is adequate; and
</P>
<P>(4) If determining that the licensee's submittal is adequate, approve the licensee's amendment application.
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC must publish notice receipt of the release approval request or license amendment application in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and make the approval request or license amendment application available for public comment. Before acting on an approval request or license amendment application submitted in accordance with this section, the NRC must conduct a public meeting readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the licensee's facility for the purpose of obtaining public comments on the proposed release of part of the commercial nuclear plant or site. The NRC must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a forum, such as local newspapers, which is readily accessible to individuals in the vicinity of the site, announcing the date, time, and location of the meeting, along with a brief description of the purpose of the meeting.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Licenses, Certifications, and Approvals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1100" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1100   Filing of application for licenses, certifications, or approvals; oath or affirmation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Serving of applications.</I> (1) Each filing of an application for a standard design approval, standard design certification, or license under this part, and any amendments to the applications, must be submitted to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) under § 53.040, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) Any person, except one excluded by § 53.1118, may file an application for a manufacturing license (ML), combined license (COL), construction permit (CP), or operating license (OL) under this part with the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person who may apply for a CP or for a COL under this part, may file an application for an early site permit (ESP) with the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. An application for an early site permit may be filed notwithstanding the fact that an application for a CP or a COL has not been filed in connection with the site for which a permit is sought.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any person may submit a proposed standard design for a commercial nuclear plant to the NRC for its review. The submittal may consist of either the final design for the entire facility or the final design for major portions thereof.
</P>
<P>(iv) An application for design certification may be filed notwithstanding the fact that an application for a CP, COL, or ML for such a facility has not been filed. The application must comply with §§ 2.811 through 2.819 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant must make a copy of the updated application available at the public hearing for the use of any other parties to the proceeding and must certify that the updated copies of the application contain the current contents of the application submitted in accordance with the requirements under this part.
</P>
<P>(3) At the time of filing an application, the Commission will make available at the NRC website, <I>https://www.nrc.gov,</I> a copy of the application, subsequent amendments, and other records pertinent to the matter that is the subject of the application for public inspection and copying.
</P>
<P>(4) The serving of copies required by this section must not occur until the application has been docketed under § 2.101(a) of this chapter. Copies must be submitted to the Commission, as specified in § 53.040, as applicable, to enable the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation to determine whether the application is sufficiently complete to permit docketing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oath or affirmation.</I> Each application for a standard design approval, standard design certification, or license, including, whenever appropriate, a CP or early site permit, or amendment of it, and each amendment of each application must be executed in a signed original by the applicant or duly authorized officer thereof under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(c)-(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing fees.</I> Each application for a standard design approval, standard design certification, or commercial nuclear plant license under this part, including, whenever appropriate, a CP, COL, operating license (OL), ML, or early site permit, other than a license exempted from 10 CFR part 170, must be accompanied by the fee prescribed in 10 CFR part 170. No fee will be required to accompany an application for renewal, amendment, or termination of a CP, OL, COL, or ML, except as provided in § 170.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Environmental report.</I> An application for a CP, OL, early site permit, design certification, COL, or ML for a commercial nuclear plant must be accompanied by an environmental report required under 10 CFR part 51.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20067, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1101" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1101   Requirement for license.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 53.1120, no person within the United States may transfer or receive in interstate commerce, manufacture, produce, transfer, acquire, possess, or use any utilization facility except as authorized by a license issued by the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1103" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1103   Combining applications and licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant may combine several applications in one application for different kinds of licenses under the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may combine in a single license the activities of an applicant which would otherwise be licensed separately.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1106" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1106   Elimination of repetition.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may incorporate by reference in its application information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission, provided, however, that such references are clear and specific.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1109" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1109   Contents of applications; general information.</HEAD>
<P>Each application must include, unless otherwise indicated in this subpart—
</P>
<P>(a) Name of applicant;


</P>
<P>(b) Address of applicant;
</P>
<P>(c) Description of business or occupation of applicant;
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If applicant is an individual, the citizenship of applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) If applicant is a partnership, the name, citizenship and address of each partner and the principal location where the partnership does business;
</P>
<P>(3) If applicant is a corporation or an unincorporated association, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The State where it is incorporated or organized and the principal location where it does business;
</P>
<P>(ii) The names, addresses and citizenship of its directors and of its principal officers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether it is owned, controlled, or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or foreign government, and if so, give details; or
</P>
<P>(4) If the applicant is acting as agent or representative of another person in filing the application, identify the principal and furnish information required under this paragraph (d) with respect to such principal;
</P>
<P>(e) The class and type of license applied for, the use to which the facility will be put, the period of time for which the license is sought, and a list of other licenses, except operator's licenses, issued or applied for in connection with the proposed facility;
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, if the application is for an OL or COL for a commercial nuclear plant, or if the application is for an early site permit for a commercial nuclear plant and contains plans for coping with emergencies under § 53.1146(b)(2)(ii), the applicant must submit the radiological emergency response plans of State, local, and participating Tribal governmental entities in the United States that are wholly or partially within the plume exposure pathway emergency planning zone (EPZ),
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and the plans of State governments wholly or partially within the ingestion pathway EPZ.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> If the application is for an early site permit that, under § 53.1146(b)(2)(i), proposes major features of the emergency plans describing the EPZs, then the descriptions of the EPZs must meet the requirements of this paragraph (g)(1). Generally, the plume exposure pathway EPZ for a commercial nuclear plant must consist of an area about 10 miles (16 km) in radius and the ingestion pathway EPZ must consist of an area about 50 miles (80 km) in radius. The exact size and configuration of the EPZs surrounding a particular commercial nuclear plant must be determined in relation to the local emergency response needs and capabilities as they are affected by such conditions as demography, topography, land characteristics, access routes, and jurisdictional boundaries. The size of the EPZs also may be determined on a case-by-case basis for gas-cooled reactors and for reactors with an authorized power level less than 250 megawatt thermal. The plans for the ingestion pathway must focus on such actions as are appropriate to protect the food ingestion pathway.


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> EPZs are discussed in NUREG-0396, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency 520/1-78-016, “Planning Basis for the Development of State and Local Government Radiological Emergency Response Plans in Support of Light-Water Nuclear Power Plants,” December 1978.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> If the State, local, and participating Tribal emergency response plans have been previously provided to the NRC for inclusion in the facility docket, the applicant need only provide the appropriate reference to meet this requirement.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Applicants for commercial nuclear plants consisting of either small modular reactors or non-light-water reactors complying with § 50.160 of this chapter who apply for a CP, an OL, a COL, or an early site permit under this part must submit as part of the application the analysis used to determine whether the criteria in § 53.1109(g)(2)(i)(A) and (B) are met and, if they are met, the size of the plume exposure pathway EPZ.
</P>
<P>(i) The plume exposure pathway EPZ is the area within which:
</P>
<P>(A) Public dose, as defined in § 20.1003 of this chapter, is projected to exceed 10 millisieverts (1 rem) total effective dose equivalent over 96 hours from the release of radioactive materials from the facility considering accident likelihood and source term, timing of the accident sequence, and meteorology; and
</P>
<P>(B) Pre-determined, prompt protective measures are necessary.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the application is for an OL or COL or if the application is for an early site permit and contains plans for coping with emergencies under § 53.1146(b)(2)(ii), and if the plume exposure pathway EPZ extends beyond the site boundary:
</P>
<P>(A) The applicant must submit radiological emergency response plans of State, local, and participating Tribal governmental entities in the United States that are wholly or partially within the plume exposure pathway EPZ.
</P>
<P>(B) The exact configuration of the plume exposure pathway EPZ surrounding the facility shall be determined in relation to the local emergency response needs and capabilities as they are affected by such conditions as demography, topography, land characteristics, access routes, and jurisdictional boundaries.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the application is for an early site permit that, under § 53.1146(b)(2)(i), proposes major features of the emergency plans and describes the EPZ, and if the EPZ extends beyond the site boundary, then the exact configuration of the plume exposure pathway EPZ surrounding the facility must be determined in relation to the local emergency response needs and capabilities as they are affected by such conditions as demography, topography, land characteristics, access routes, and jurisdictional boundaries.
</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) A list of the names and addresses of such regulatory agencies as may have jurisdiction over the rates and services incident to the proposed activity, and a list of trade and news publications which circulate in the area where the proposed activity will be conducted and which are considered appropriate to give reasonable notice of the application to those municipalities, private utilities, public bodies, and cooperatives, which might have a potential interest in the facility; and
</P>
<P>(j) If the application contains Restricted Data or classified National Security information, confirmation that all Restricted Data and classified National Security information are separated from the unclassified information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1112" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1112   Environmental conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each CP, early site permit, and COL under this part may include conditions to address environmental issues during construction. These conditions are to be set out in an attachment to the license, which is incorporated in and made a part of the license. These conditions will be derived from information contained in the environmental report submitted pursuant to § 51.50 of this chapter, as analyzed and evaluated in the NRC record of decision and will identify the obligations of the licensee in the environmental area, including, as appropriate, requirements for reporting and keeping records of environmental data, and any conditions and monitoring requirement for the protection of the nonaquatic environment.
</P>
<P>(b) Each license authorizing operation of a commercial nuclear plant under this part, and each license for a commercial nuclear plant for which the certification of permanent cessation of operations required under § 53.1070 has been submitted may include conditions to address environmental issues during operation and decommissioning. These conditions are to be set out in an attachment to the license, which is incorporated in and made a part of the license. These conditions will be derived from information contained in the environmental report or the supplement to the environmental report submitted under §§ 51.50 and 51.53 of this chapter as analyzed and evaluated in the NRC record of decision, and will identify the obligations of the licensee in the environmental area, including, as appropriate, requirements for reporting and keeping records of environmental data and any conditions and monitoring requirement for the protection of the nonaquatic environment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1115" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1115   Agreement limiting access to classified information.</HEAD>
<P>As part of its application and in any event before the receipt of Restricted Data or classified National Security Information or the issuance of a license or standard design approval under this part, or before the Commission has adopted a final standard design certification rule under this part, the applicant must agree in writing that it will not permit any individual to have access to or any facility to possess Restricted Data or classified National Security Information until the individual and/or facility has been approved for access under the provisions of 10 CFR parts 25 and/or 95. The agreement of the applicant becomes part of the license or standard design approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1118" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1118   Ineligibility of certain applicants.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who is a citizen, national, or agent of a foreign country, or any corporation, or other entity which the Commission knows or has reason to believe is owned, controlled, or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or a foreign government, will be ineligible to apply for and obtain a license unless—
</P>
<P>(a) The Commission determines that issuance of the applicable license to the entity is not inimical to the common defense and security or the health and safety of the public; and
</P>
<P>(b) The entity is an alien, corporation, or other entity that is owned, controlled, or dominated by the government of, a corporation that is incorporated in, or an alien who is a citizen or national of Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Czechia, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, or the United Kingdom.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1120" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1120   Exceptions and exemptions from licensing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part must be deemed to require a license for—
</P>
<P>(a) The manufacture, production, or acquisition by the Department of Defense of any utilization facility authorized pursuant to section 91 of the Act or the use of such facility by the Department of Defense or by a person under contract with and for the account of the Department of Defense;
</P>
<P>(b) Except to the extent that the Department of Energy facilities of the types subject to licensing pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, are involved—


</P>
<P>(1)(i) The processing, fabrication or refining of special nuclear material (SNM) or the separation of SNM, or the separation of SNM from other substances by a prime contractor of the Department of Energy under a prime contract for—
</P>
<P>(A) The performance of work for the Department of Energy at a United States Government-owned or controlled site;
</P>
<P>(B) Research in, or development, manufacture, storage, testing or transportation of, atomic weapons or components thereof; or
</P>
<P>(C) The use or operation of a utilization facility in a United States owned vehicle or vessel; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The processing, fabrication or refining of SNM of the separation of SNM, or the separation of SNM from other substances by a prime contractor or subcontractor of the Commission or the Department of Energy under a prime contract or subcontract when the Commission determines that the exemption of the prime contractor or subcontractor is authorized by law; and that, under the terms of the contract or subcontract, there is adequate assurance that the work thereunder can be accomplished without undue risk to the public health and safety; or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The construction or operation of a utilization facility for the Department of Energy at a United States Government-owned or controlled site, including the transportation of the utilization facility to or from such site and the performance of contract services during temporary interruptions of such transportation; or the construction or operation of a utilization facility for the Department of Energy in the performance of research in, or development, manufacture, storage, testing, or transportation of, atomic weapons or components thereof; or the use or operation of a utilization facility for the Department of Energy in a United States Government-owned vehicle or vessel; provided that such activities are conducted by a prime contractor of the Department of Energy under a prime contract with the Department of Energy; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The construction or operation of a utilization facility by a prime contractor or subcontractor of the Commission or the Department of Energy under his or her prime contract or subcontract when the Commission determines that the exemption of the prime contractor or subcontractor is authorized by law; and that, under the terms of the contract or subcontract, there is adequate assurance that the work thereunder can be accomplished without undue risk to the public health and safety; or
</P>
<P>(c) The transportation or possession of any utilization facility by a common or contract carrier or warehouse employee in the regular course of carriage for another or storage incident thereto.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1121" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1121   Public inspection of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications and documents submitted to the Commission in connection with applications may be made available for public inspection under the provisions of part 2 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1124" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1124   Relationship between sections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limited work authorization.</I> An application for a limited work authorization (LWA) under this part may be submitted as part of an application for an early site permit, CP, or COL under this part as required in § 53.1130(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Early site permit.</I> (1) A holder of an early site permit may request an LWA.
</P>
<P>(2) An application for a CP or COL under this part may, but need not, reference an early site permit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard design approval.</I> An application for a standard design approval under this part may, but need not, reference an OL or custom COL under this part that is essentially the same as the information supporting the standard design for which approval is being requested.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standard design certification.</I> An application for a standard design certification under this part may, but need not, reference an OL or custom COL under this part that is essentially the same as the standard design for which certification is being requested.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Manufacturing license.</I> (1) A manufactured reactor or portions thereof as defined in an ML issued under this part may be either transported to and installed at a site for which a COL or CP under this part has been issued or exported in accordance with part 110.
</P>
<P>(2) An ML applicant under this part may reference a standard design certification or a standard design approval under this part in its application.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Construction permit.</I> An application for a CP may, but need not, reference a standard design certification, standard design approval, or ML issued under this part, respectively, and may also reference an early site permit issued under this part. In the absence of a demonstration that an entity other than the one originally sponsoring a standard design certification is qualified to supply a design, the Commission will entertain an application for a CP that references a standard design certification issued under this part only if the entity that sponsored the certification supplies the design for the applicant's use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Operating license.</I> (1) An application for an OL under this part may, but need not, reference an early site permit, standard design certification, or standard design approval issued under this part. In the absence of a demonstration that an entity other than the one originally sponsoring a standard design certification is qualified to supply a design, the Commission will entertain an application for an OL that references a standard design certification issued under this part only if the entity that sponsored the certification supplies the design for the applicant's use.
</P>
<P>(2) The holder of a CP must, at the time of submission of the Final Safety Analysis Report (FSAR), file an application for an OL.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Combined licenses.</I> An application for a COL under this part may, but need not, reference an early site permit, standard design certification, standard design approval, or ML issued under this part. In the absence of a demonstration that an entity other than the one originally sponsoring and obtaining a standard design certification is qualified to supply a design, the Commission will entertain an application for a COL that references a standard design certification issued under this part only if the entity that sponsored the certification supplies the design for the applicant's use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1130" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1130   Limited work authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for limited work authorization.</I> (1) Any person to whom the Commission may otherwise issue either a license or permit related to a commercial nuclear plant may request an LWA allowing that person to perform the driving of piles, subsurface preparation, placement of backfill, concrete, or permanent retaining walls within an excavation, and installation of the foundation, including placement of concrete, any of which are for a structure, system, or component (SSC) of the facility for which either a CP or COL is otherwise required under § 53.610.
</P>
<P>(2) An application for an LWA may be submitted as part of a complete application for a CP or COL in accordance with § 2.101(a)(1) through (a)(5) of this chapter, or as a partial application in accordance with § 2.101(a)(9) of this chapter. An application for an LWA by the holder of an early site permit must be submitted as a complete application in accordance with § 2.101(a)(1) through (a)(4) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The application must include—
</P>
<P>(i) A Safety Analysis Report required by § 53.1146, § 53.1309 or § 53.1416, as applicable, a description of the activities requested to be performed, and the design and construction information otherwise required by the Commission's rules and regulations to be submitted for a CP or COL under this part but limited to those portions of the facility that are within the scope of the LWA. The Safety Analysis Report must demonstrate that activities conducted under the LWA will be conducted in compliance with the technically relevant Commission requirements in 10 CFR chapter I applicable to the design of those portions of the facility within the scope of the LWA;
</P>
<P>(ii) An environmental report in accordance with § 51.49 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A plan for redress of activities performed under the LWA, should limited work activities be terminated by the holder, or the LWA be revoked by the NRC or upon effectiveness of the Commission's final decision denying the associated CP or COL application, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of limited work authorization.</I> (1) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation may issue an LWA only after—
</P>
<P>(i) The NRC staff issues the final environmental impact statement for the LWA under part 51 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director determines that the applicable standards and requirements of the Act, and the Commission's regulations applicable to the activities to be conducted under the LWA, have been met, the applicant is technically qualified to engage in the activities authorized, and that issuance of the LWA will provide reasonable assurance of adequate protection to public health and safety and will not be inimical to the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If a contested hearing is held, the presiding officer finds that there are no unresolved safety issues relating to the activities to be conducted under the LWA that would constitute good cause for withholding the authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) Each LWA will specify the activities that the holder is authorized to perform.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of limited work authorization.</I> Any activities undertaken under an LWA are entirely at the risk of the applicant and, except as to the matters determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the issuance of the LWA has no bearing on the issuance of a CP or COL with respect to the requirements of the Act and rules, regulations, or orders issued under the Act. The environmental impact statement for a CP or COL application for which an LWA was previously issued will not address, and the presiding officer in a contested hearing will not consider, the sunk costs of the holder of the LWA in determining the proposed action (<I>i.e.,</I> issuance of the CP or COL).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Implementation of redress plan.</I> If construction is terminated by the holder, the underlying application is withdrawn by the applicant or denied by the NRC, or the LWA is revoked by the NRC, then the holder must begin implementation of the redress plan in a reasonable time. The holder must also complete the redress of the site no later than 18 months after termination of construction, revocation of the LWA, or upon effectiveness of the Commission's final decision denying the associated CP application or the associated COL application, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1140" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1140   Early site permits.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1140 through 53.1188 set out the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of an early site permit under this part for approval of a site for a commercial nuclear plant separate from the filing of an application for a CP or COL for the facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1144" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1144   Contents of applications for early site permits; general information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain all of the information required by § 53.1109(a) through (d) and (j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1146" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1146   Contents of applications for early site permits; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application must contain—
</P>
<P>(1) A Site Safety Analysis Report that must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific number, type, and thermal power level of the facilities, or range of possible facilities, for which the site may be used;
</P>
<P>(ii) The anticipated maximum levels of radiological and thermal effluents each facility will produce;
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of cooling systems, including intakes and outflows, where appropriate, that may be associated with each facility;
</P>
<P>(iv) The boundaries of the site;
</P>
<P>(v) The proposed general location of each facility on the site;
</P>
<P>(vi) The external hazards and site characteristics required by this part;
</P>
<P>(vii) The location and description of any nearby industrial, military, or transportation facilities and routes;
</P>
<P>(viii) The existing and projected future population profile of the area surrounding the site;
</P>
<P>(ix) A description and assessment of the site on which a facility is to be located. The assessment must address the requirements of subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(x) Information demonstrating that site characteristics are such that adequate security plans and measures can be developed; and
</P>
<P>(xi) A description of the quality assurance program (QAP) required by appendix B to part 50 of this chapter applied to site-related activities for the future design, fabrication, construction, and testing of the SSCs of a facility or facilities that may be constructed on the site.
</P>
<P>(2) A complete environmental report as required by § 51.50(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Site Safety Analysis Report must identify physical characteristics of the proposed site, such as egress limitations from the area surrounding the site, that could pose a significant impediment to the development of emergency plans. If physical characteristics are identified that could pose a significant impediment to the development of emergency plans, the application must identify measures that would, when implemented, mitigate or eliminate the significant impediment.
</P>
<P>(2) The Site Safety Analysis Report may also—
</P>
<P>(i) Propose major features of the emergency plans, under either § 50.160 or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 and § 50.47(b) of this chapter, as applicable, such as the exact size and configuration of the EPZs, for review and approval by the NRC, in consultation with the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), as applicable, in the absence of complete and integrated emergency plans; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Propose complete and integrated emergency plans for review and approval by the NRC, in consultation with FEMA, as applicable, in accordance with either § 50.160 or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 and § 50.47(b) of this chapter. To the extent approval of emergency plans is sought, the application must contain the information required by § 53.1109(g).
</P>
<P>(3) Emergency plans submitted under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section must include the proposed inspections, tests, and analyses that the holder of a COL referencing the early site permit must perform, and the acceptance criteria that are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met, the facility has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the emergency plans, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations. Major features of an emergency plan submitted under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section may include proposed inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria (ITAAC).
</P>
<P>(4) Under paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2)(i) of this section, the Site Safety Analysis Report must include, where appropriate, a description of contacts and arrangements made with Federal, State, participating Tribal, and local governmental agencies with emergency planning responsibilities. The Site Safety Analysis Report must contain any certifications that have been obtained. If these certifications, where appropriate, cannot be obtained, the Site Safety Analysis Report must contain information, including a utility plan, sufficient to show that the proposed plans provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency at the site. Under the option set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the applicant must make good faith efforts, where appropriate, to obtain from the same governmental agencies certifications that—
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed emergency plans are practicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) These agencies are committed to participating in any further development of the plans, including any required field demonstrations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That these agencies are committed to executing their responsibilities under the plans in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant may request that an LWA under § 53.1130 be issued in conjunction with the early site permit. The application must include the information otherwise required by § 53.1130.
</P>
<P>(d) Each applicant for an early site permit under this part must protect safeguards information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1149" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1149   Review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for review of applications.</I> Applications filed under this part will be reviewed according to the applicable standards set out in this part. In addition, the Commission must prepare an environmental impact statement during review of the application, under the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 51. The Commission must determine, after consultation with FEMA, as applicable, whether the information required of the applicant by § 53.1146(b)(1) shows that there is no significant impediment to the development of emergency plans that cannot be mitigated or eliminated by measures proposed by the applicant, whether any major features of emergency plans submitted by the applicant under § 53.1146(b)(2)(i) are acceptable under either § 50.160 or appendix E to part 50 and § 50.47(b) of this chapter, and whether any emergency plans submitted by the applicant under § 53.1146(b)(2)(ii) provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative review of applications; hearings.</I> An early site permit application is subject to all applicable procedural requirements in 10 CFR part 2, including the requirements for docketing in § 2.101(a)(1) through (4) of this chapter, and the requirements for issuance of a notice of hearing in § 2.104(a) and (d) of this chapter, provided that the designated sections may not be construed to require that the environmental report, or draft or final environmental impact statement includes an assessment of the benefits of construction and operation of the reactor or reactors, or an analysis of alternative energy sources. The presiding officer in a contested early site permit hearing must not admit contentions proffered by any party concerning an assessment of the benefits of construction and operation of the reactor or reactors, or an analysis of alternative energy sources if those issues were not addressed by the applicant in the early site permit application. All contested hearings conducted on applications for early site permits filed under this part are governed by the procedures contained in subparts C, G, L, and N of 10 CFR part 2, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1155" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1155   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission must refer a copy of the application for an early site permit to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS). The ACRS must report on those portions of the application which concern safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1158" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1158   Issuance of early site permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may issue an early site permit, in the form the Commission deems appropriate, if the Commission finds that—
</P>
<P>(1) An application for an early site permit demonstrates compliance with the applicable standards and requirements of the Act and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications, if any, to other agencies or bodies have been duly made;
</P>
<P>(3) There is reasonable assurance that the site is in conformity with the provisions of the Act and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant is technically qualified to engage in any activities authorized;
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed ITAAC, including any on emergency planning, are necessary and sufficient, within the scope of the early site permit, to provide reasonable assurance that the facility has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) Issuance of the permit will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(7) Any significant adverse environmental impact resulting from activities requested under § 53.1146(c) can be redressed; and
</P>
<P>(8) The findings required by 10 CFR part 51 have been made.
</P>
<P>(b) The early site permit must specify the site characteristics, design parameters, and terms and conditions of the early site permit the Commission deems appropriate. Before issuance of either a CP or COL referencing an early site permit, the Commission must find that any relevant terms and conditions of the early site permit have been met. Any terms or conditions of the early site permit that could not be met by the time of issuance of the CP or COL, must be set forth as terms or conditions of the CP or COL.
</P>
<P>(c) The early site permit must specify those § 53.1130(b) activities requested under § 53.1146(c) that the permit holder is authorized to perform.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1161" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1161   Extent of activities permitted.</HEAD>
<P>If the activities authorized by § 53.1158(c) are performed and the site is not referenced in an application for a CP or a COL issued under this part while the permit remains valid, then the early site permit remains in effect solely for the purpose of site redress, and the holder of the permit must redress the site under the terms of the site redress plan required by § 53.1146(c). If, before redress is complete, a use not envisaged in the redress plan is found for the site or parts thereof, the holder of the permit must carry out the redress plan to the greatest extent possible consistent with the alternate use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1164" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1164   Duration of permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an early site permit issued under this subpart may be valid for not less than 10, nor more than 20 years from the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(b) An early site permit continues to be valid beyond the date of expiration in any proceeding on a CP application or a COL application that references the early site permit and is docketed before the date of expiration of the early site permit, or, if a timely application for renewal of the permit has been docketed, before the Commission has determined whether to renew the permit.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for a CP or COL may, at its own risk, reference in its application a site for which an early site permit application has been docketed but not granted.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon issuance of a CP or COL, a referenced early site permit is subsumed, to the extent referenced, into the CP or COL.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1167" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1167   Limited work authorization after issuance of early site permit.</HEAD>
<P>A holder of an early site permit may request an LWA under § 53.1130.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1170" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1170   Transfer of early site permit.</HEAD>
<P>An application to transfer an early site permit will be processed under § 53.1570.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1173" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1173   Application for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not less than 12, nor more than 36 months before the expiration date stated in the early site permit, or any later renewal period, the permit holder may apply for a renewal of the permit. An application for renewal must contain all information necessary to bring up to date the information and data contained in the previous application.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person whose interests may be affected by renewal of the permit may request a hearing on the application for renewal. The request for a hearing must comply with § 2.309 of this chapter. If a hearing is granted, notice of the hearing will be published under § 2.309 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) An early site permit, either original or renewed, for which a timely application for renewal has been filed, remains in effect until the Commission has determined whether to renew the permit. If the permit is not renewed, it continues to be valid in certain proceedings in accordance with the provisions of § 53.1164(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1176" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1176   Criteria for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission must grant the renewal if it determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) The site complies with the Act, the Commission's regulations, and orders applicable and in effect at the time the site permit was originally issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any new requirements the Commission may wish to impose—
</P>
<P>(i) Are necessary for adequate protection to public health and safety or common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are necessary for compliance with the Commission's regulations, and orders applicable and in effect at the time the site permit was originally issued; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Would provide a substantial increase in overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the new requirements, and the direct and indirect costs of implementation of those requirements are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(b) A denial of renewal under the provisions of § 53.1176(a) does not bar the permit holder or another applicant from filing a new application for the site which proposes changes to the site or the way that it is used to correct the deficiencies cited in the denial of the renewal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1179" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1179   Duration of renewal.</HEAD>
<P>Each renewal of an early site permit may be for not less than 10, nor more than 20 years, plus any remaining years on the early site permit then in effect before renewal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1182" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1182   Use of site for other purposes.</HEAD>
<P>A site for which an early site permit has been issued under this part may be used for purposes other than those described in the permit, including the location of other types of energy facilities. The permit holder must inform the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation (Director), of any significant uses for the site which have not been approved in the early site permit. The information about the activities must be given to the Director at least 30 days in advance of any actual construction or site modification for the activities. The information provided could be the basis for imposing new requirements on the permit, under the provisions of § 53.1188. If the permit holder informs the Director that the holder no longer intends to use the site for a commercial nuclear plant, the Director may terminate the permit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1188" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1188   Finality of early site permit determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commission finality.</I> (1) While an early site permit is in effect under § 53.1164 or § 53.1179, the Commission may not change or impose new site characteristics, design parameters, or terms and conditions, including emergency planning requirements, on the early site permit unless the Commission—
</P>
<P>(i) Determines that a modification is necessary to bring the permit or the site into compliance with the Commission's regulations and orders applicable and in effect at the time the permit was issued;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determines the modification is necessary to assure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(iii) Determines that a modification is necessary based on an update under paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Issues a variance requested under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In making the findings required for issuance of a CP, COL, or OL, or the findings required by § 53.1452(g), or in any enforcement hearing other than one initiated by the Commission under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if the application for the CP, COL, or OL references an early site permit, the Commission must treat as resolved those matters resolved in the proceeding on the application for issuance or renewal of the early site permit, except as provided for in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If the Commission grants a CP application that references an early site permit and an application for an OL references the CP, the Commission must treat as resolved those matters resolved in the proceeding for the issuance or renewal of the early site permit, except as provided for in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the early site permit approved an emergency plan (or major features thereof) that is in use by a licensee of a commercial nuclear plant, the Commission must treat as resolved changes to the early site permit emergency plan (or major features thereof) that are identical to changes made to the licensee's emergency plans under § 53.1565 occurring after issuance of the early site permit.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the early site permit approved an emergency plan (or major features thereof) that is not in use by a licensee of a commercial nuclear plant, the Commission must treat as resolved changes that are equivalent to those that could be made under § 53.1565 without prior NRC approval had the emergency plan been in use by a licensee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Updating of early site permit-emergency preparedness.</I> An applicant for a CP, OL, or COL who has filed an application referencing an early site permit issued under this subpart must update the emergency preparedness information that was provided under § 53.1146(b) and discuss whether the updated information materially changes the bases for compliance with applicable NRC requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearings and petitions.</I> (1) In any proceeding for the issuance of a CP, OL, or COL referencing an early site permit, contentions on the following matters may be litigated in the same manner as other issues material to the proceeding:
</P>
<P>(i) The nuclear reactor proposed to be built does not fit within one or more of the site characteristics or design parameters included in the early site permit;
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more of the terms and conditions of the early site permit have not been met;
</P>
<P>(iii) A variance requested under paragraph (d) of this section is unwarranted or should be modified;
</P>
<P>(iv) New or additional information is provided in the application that substantially alters the bases for a previous NRC conclusion or constitutes a sufficient basis for the Commission to modify or impose new terms and conditions related to emergency preparedness; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any significant environmental issue that was not resolved in the early site permit proceeding, or any issue involving the impacts of construction and operation of the facility that was resolved in the early site permit proceeding for which significant new information has been identified.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person may file a petition requesting that the site characteristics, design parameters, or terms and conditions of the early site permit be modified, or that the permit be suspended or revoked. The petition will be considered under § 2.206 of this chapter. Before construction commences, the Commission must consider the petition and determine whether any immediate action is required. If the petition is granted, an appropriate order will be issued. Construction under the CP or COL will not be affected by the granting of the petition unless the order is made immediately effective. Any change required by the Commission in response to the petition must demonstrate compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Variances.</I> An applicant for a CP, OL, or COL referencing an early site permit may include in its application a request for a variance from one or more site characteristics, design parameters, or terms and conditions of the early site permit, or from the Site Safety Analysis Report. In determining whether to grant the variance, the Commission must apply the same technically relevant criteria applicable to the application for the original or renewed early site permit. Once a CP or COL referencing an early site permit is issued, variances from the early site permit will not be granted for that CP or COL.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Early site permit amendment.</I> The holder of an early site permit may not make changes to the early site permit or the Site Safety Analysis Report without prior Commission approval. The request for a change to the early site permit must be in the form of an application for a license amendment and must demonstrate compliance with the requirements of §§ 53.1510 and 53.1520.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1200" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1200   Standard design approvals.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1200 through 53.1221 set out procedures for the filing, NRC staff review, and referral to the ACRS of standard designs, or major portions thereof, for a commercial nuclear plant under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1206" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1206   Contents of applications for standard design approvals; general information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain all of the information required by § 53.1109(a) through (c) and (j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1209" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1209   Contents of applications for standard design approvals; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Major portion of a standard design.</I> If the applicant seeks review of a major portion of a standard design, the application need only contain the information required by this section to the extent the requirements are applicable to the major portion of the standard design for which NRC staff approval is sought. If an applicant seeks approval of a major portion of the design, the scope of the application for which approval is sought must include all functional design criteria necessary to demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria in §§ 53.210, 53.220 and 53.450(e), as applicable, for the major portion of the standard design for which NRC staff approval is sought. Such applicants must identify conditions related to interfaces with systems outside the scope of the major portion of the standard design for which NRC staff approval is sought, and functional or physical boundary conditions between the major portion of the standard design for which NRC staff approval is sought and the remainder of the standard design. These conditions must be demonstrated when the standard design approval is incorporated into a subsequent CP, design certification, ML, or COL application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final Safety Analysis Report.</I> The application must contain an FSAR that describes the facility and the limits on its operation, presents a safety analysis of the SSCs and of the facility, or major portions thereof, for which the applicant seeks design approval, and must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Site parameters.</I> The site parameters postulated for the design under this part, including the design-basis external hazard levels for the relevant external hazards, and an analysis and evaluation of the design in terms of those site parameters.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design information.</I> Except as specified in this paragraph (b), an application for a standard design approval for a commercial nuclear plant must include the design information equivalent to that required for a standard design certification under § 53.1239(a)(2) through (27) for those portions of a commercial nuclear plant included in the standard design approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1210" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1210   Contents of applications for standard design approvals; other application content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the FSAR, the application must also include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Availability controls (if not included in the FSAR).</I> A description of the controls on plant operations, including availability controls, to provide reasonable confidence that the configurations and special treatments for safety-related (SR) SSCs and non-safety-related but safety-significant (NSRSS) SSCs provide the capabilities and reliabilities required to demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria of § 53.220.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safeguards information.</I> A description of the program to protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) If there are SSCs of the plant which required research and development to confirm the adequacy of their design, provide a report in the application which documents the resolution of any safety questions associated with such SSCs.
</P>
<P>(c) A description of how the performance of each design feature has been demonstrated capable of fulfilling functional design criteria considering interdependent effects through either analysis, appropriate test programs, prototype testing, operating experience, or a combination thereof, in accordance with § 53.440(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1212" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1212   Standards for review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications filed under this part will be reviewed under the standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 53, and 73.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1215" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1215   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission must refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS must report on those portions of the application which concern safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1218" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1218   Staff approval of design.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon completion of its review of a submittal under §§ 53.1200 through 53.1221 and receipt of a report by the ACRS under § 53.1215, the NRC staff must publish a determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as to whether or not the design is acceptable, subject to appropriate terms and conditions, and make an analysis of the design in the form of a report available at the NRC website, <I>https://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) A standard design approval issued under this section is valid for 15 years from the date of issuance and may not be renewed. A design approval continues to be valid beyond the date of expiration in any proceeding on an application for a CP, OL, COL, or ML under this part that references the design approval and is docketed before the date of expiration of the design approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1221" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1221   Finality of standard design approvals; information requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An approved design must be used by and relied upon by the NRC staff and the ACRS in their reviews of any standard design certification or individual facility license application under this part that incorporates by reference a standard design approved under this part unless there exists significant new information that substantially affects the earlier determination or other good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) The determination and report by the NRC staff do not constitute a commitment to issue a permit or license, or in any way affect the authority of the Commission, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel, or presiding officers in any proceeding under part 2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Except for information requests seeking to verify compliance with the current licensing basis of the standard design approval, information requests to the holder of a standard design approval must be evaluated before issuance to ensure that the burden to be imposed on respondents is justified in view of the potential safety significance of the issue to be addressed in the requested information. Each evaluation performed by the NRC staff must be in accordance with § 53.1580 and must be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or authorized designee before issuance of the request.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission will require, before granting a CP, COL, OL, or ML that references a standard design approval, that information normally contained in engineering documents, such as analyses, drawings, procurement specifications, or construction and installation specifications, be completed and available for audit if the more detailed information is necessary for the Commission to verify the information in the application and make its safety determination, including the determination that the application is consistent with the design approval information. This information may be acquired by appropriate arrangements with the design approval applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1230" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1230   Standard design certifications.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1230 through 53.1263 set forth the requirements and procedures applicable to the Commission's issuance of rules granting standard design certifications for commercial nuclear plants under this part separate from the filing of an application for a CP or COL for such a facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1236" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1236   Contents of applications for standard design certifications; general information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain all of the information required by § 53.1109(a) through (c) and (j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1239" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1239   Contents of applications for standard design certifications; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain a level of design information sufficient to enable the Commission to judge the applicant's proposed means of assuring that construction conforms to the design and to reach a final conclusion on all safety questions associated with the design before the certification is granted. The information submitted for a design certification must include performance requirements and design information sufficiently detailed to permit the preparation of acceptance and inspection requirements by the NRC. The Commission will require, before design certification, that information normally contained in engineering documents, such as analyses, drawings, procurement specifications, or construction and installation specifications, be completed and available for audit if the more detailed information is necessary for the Commission to verify the information in the application and make its safety determination.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Final Safety Analysis Report.</I> The application must contain an FSAR that describes the facility and the limits on its operation, and presents a safety analysis of the SSCs, and must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Site parameters.</I> The site parameters postulated for the design under this part, including the design-basis external hazard levels for the relevant external hazards, and an analysis and evaluation of the design in terms of those site parameters.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plant description and safety functions</I>—(i) <I>General plant description.</I> A general description of the commercial nuclear plant including reactor type, the intended use of the reactor, nuclear design (<I>e.g.,</I> neutron spectrum, reactor control, multi-unit reactor control), overall layout of the plant including significant plant features and SSCs, maximum power level and the nature and inventory of radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safety functions.</I> A description of the primary and additional safety functions required under § 53.230 and a summary of how each safety function is satisfied.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design features and functional design criteria—licensing-basis events.</I> (i) A description of the design features required by § 53.400 and the functional design criteria required by §§ 53.410 and 53.420 that, when combined with corresponding human actions and programmatic controls, demonstrate that the plant will demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria defined in § 53.210 and established in accordance with § 53.220 during licensing-basis events (LBEs).
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of how design features demonstrate compliance with the requirements of § 53.440(a) through (i) and (k) through (m).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Design features supporting normal operations.</I> A description of the design features required by § 53.425 to support the holder of an OL or COL complying with § 53.260 during normal operations.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Earthquake engineering.</I> The information necessary to demonstrate that the commercial nuclear plant complies with the earthquake engineering criteria in § 53.480.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Programmatic controls and interfaces.</I> (i) A description of the corresponding programmatic controls and interfaces necessary to achieve and maintain the reliability and capability of SSCs relied upon to demonstrate compliance with the functional design criteria required by §§ 53.410 and 53.420 and the safety criteria in §§ 53.210 and 53.220 and necessary to maintain consistency with analyses required by § 53.450.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an application for a multi-unit commercial nuclear plant, the programmatic controls and interfaces must also be described for different modular configurations, as required by § 53.440(i), including any restrictions that will be necessary during the construction and startup of any given unit to ensure the safe operation of the overall commercial nuclear plant to be licensed under this part.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Programmatic controls for normal operations.</I> A description of how programmatic controls, including monitoring programs, would provide assurance that design features and procedures will enable the holder of an OL or COL to comply with § 53.260.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Design features supporting the protection of plant workers.</I> A description of the design features required by § 53.430 to support the holder of an OL or COL complying with § 53.270.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Programmatic controls for protection of plant workers.</I> A description of how programmatic controls, including monitoring programs, would provide assurance that design features and procedures will enable the holder of an OL or COL to comply with § 53.270.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Codes and standards.</I> A description of generally accepted consensus codes and standards used to design the design features, as required by § 53.440(b).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Materials.</I> A description of the materials used for SR and NSRSS SSCs and a description of the qualification of these materials for their service conditions over the plant lifetime, as required by § 53.440(c).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Integrity assessment program.</I> A description of a design integrity assessment program that addresses the elements described in § 53.440(d).
</P>
<P>(14) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Criticality.</I> Information demonstrating how the applicant will comply with requirements for criticality accidents in § 53.440(m).
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Multi-unit plants.</I> For an application for standard design certification of a multi-unit commercial nuclear plant, the possible operating configurations of the reactor units, including common systems, interface requirements, and system interactions, as required by § 53.440(i).
</P>
<P>(17) <I>SSC classification.</I> (i) The classification of SSCs according to their safety significance under § 53.460(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) For SR and NSRSS SSCs, the conditions under which they must perform the safety functions required by § 53.230, including environmental conditions.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Probabilistic risk assessment or other systematic risk evaluations (SREs).</I> A description of the probabilistic risk assessment (PRA), other SREs, or a combination thereof required by § 53.450(a) and associated results.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Analyses.</I> A description of the analyses performed under § 53.450(b) through (g) that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the analysis of LBEs and its results, as described in § 53.240. This analysis description must—
</P>
<P>(A) Address the elements in § 53.450(e) and (f); and
</P>
<P>(B) Under § 53.460(c)—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Describe any human actions that are necessary to prevent or mitigate LBEs;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Describe how those human actions are capable of being reliably performed under the postulated environmental conditions present; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Describe how those human actions would be addressed by programs established under subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A description of how SSCs relied on to meet the safety criteria defined in § 53.210 are protected against or designed to withstand the effects of external hazards under § 53.510.
</P>
<P>(B) The information necessary to demonstrate that the commercial nuclear plant complies with the earthquake engineering criteria in § 53.480.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the defense-in-depth measures required by § 53.250.
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of all plant operating states where there is the potential for the uncontrolled release of radioactive material to the environment, as required by § 53.450(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the events that challenge plant control and safety systems whose failure could lead to an undesirable end state and/or radioactive material release, as required by § 53.450(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the analytical codes used in modeling plant behavior in analyses of LBEs and how these codes are qualified for the range of conditions for which they were used, as required by § 53.450(d).
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the results of other analyses required by § 53.450(g).
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Special treatments.</I> A description of special treatments established as required by § 53.460.
</P>
<P>(21) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Quality assurance.</I> A description of the QAP applied to the design of the SSCs of the commercial nuclear plant, as required by § 53.460(b). The description of the QAP for a commercial nuclear plant must include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B to part 50 of this chapter were satisfied.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Design features and controls to address the minimization of contamination.</I> The information required by § 20.1406 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Interface requirements.</I> (i) A description analysis, and evaluation of the interfaces between the standard design and the balance of the commercial nuclear plant that may impact the ability of the plant to demonstrate compliance with the functional design criteria or the safety criteria of subparts B and C of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Confirmation that interface requirements are verifiable through inspections, testing, or analysis. These requirements must be sufficiently detailed to allow for completion of the final safety analysis by license applicants that reference the certified design under this subpart. The method to be used for verification of interface requirements must be included as part of the proposed ITAAC required by § 53.1241(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(iii) A representative conceptual design for those portions of the plant for which the application does not seek certification to aid the NRC in its review of the FSAR and to permit assessment of the adequacy of the interface requirements under paragraph (a)(24)(i) of this section.


</P>
<P>(25) <I>Technical qualifications.</I> A description of the technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Technical specifications.</I> Proposed technical specifications prepared under § 53.710(a) for those areas addressed by the design certification.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Role of personnel.</I> Information to address the following for the role of personnel in ensuring safe operations:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of how the human factors engineering design requirements of § 53.440(n)(1) are addressed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of how the human system interface design requirements of § 53.440(n)(2) are addressed;
</P>
<P>(iii) A concept of operations that is of sufficient scope and detail to address the requirements of § 53.440(n)(3);
</P>
<P>(iv) A functional requirements analysis and function allocation that is of sufficient scope and detail to address the requirements of § 53.440(n)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1241" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1241   Contents of applications for standard design certifications; other application content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the FSAR, the application must also include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Environmental report.</I> An environmental report as required by § 51.55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability controls (if not included in the FSAR).</I> A description of the controls on plant operations, including availability controls, to provide reasonable confidence that the configurations and special treatments for SR and NSRSS SSCs provide the capabilities and reliabilities required to demonstrate compliance with the safety criteria of § 53.220.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria.</I> The proposed ITAAC that are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met, a facility that incorporates the design certification has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the design certification, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Safeguards information.</I> A description of the program to protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) If there are SSCs of the plant which required research and development to confirm the adequacy of their design, provide a report in the application which documents the resolution of any safety questions associated with such SSCs.
</P>
<P>(c) A description of how the performance of each design feature has been demonstrated capable of fulfilling functional design criteria considering interdependent effects through either analysis, appropriate test programs, prototype testing, operating experience, or a combination thereof, in accordance with § 53.440(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1242" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1242   Review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for review of applications.</I> Applications filed under this part will be reviewed for compliance with the standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 51, 53, and 73.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative review of applications; hearings.</I> (1) A standard design certification is a rule that will be issued under the provisions of subpart H of 10 CFR part 2, as supplemented by the provisions of this section. The Commission must initiate the rulemaking after an application has been filed under § 53.1100(a)(1)(iii) and must specify the procedures to be used for the rulemaking. The notice of proposed rulemaking published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> must provide an opportunity for the submission of comments on the proposed design certification rule. If, at the time a proposed design certification rule is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under this paragraph (b)(1), the Commission decides that a legislative hearing should be held, the information required by § 2.1502(c) of this chapter must be included in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> document for the proposed design certification.
</P>
<P>(2) Following the submission of comments on the proposed design certification rule, the Commission may, at its discretion, hold a legislative hearing under the procedures in subpart O of part 2 of this chapter. The Commission must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of its decision to hold a legislative hearing. The document must contain the information specified in § 2.1502(c) of this chapter and specify whether the Commission or a presiding officer will conduct the legislative hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding anything in § 2.390 of this chapter to the contrary, proprietary information will be protected in the same manner and to the same extent as proprietary information submitted in connection with applications for licenses, provided that the design certification will be published in chapter I of this title.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reference to an issued operating license or combined license.</I> In those cases where a design certification application is preceded by the issuance of an OL or custom COL for a commercial nuclear plant that is essentially the same as the standard design for which certification is being requested, the NRC review will follow the processes for referencing a standard design approval in § 53.1221, to the extent practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1245" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1245   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission must refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS must report on those portions of the application which concern safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1248" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1248   Issuance of standard design certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After conducting a rulemaking proceeding under § 53.1242 on an application for a standard design certification and receiving the report to be submitted by the ACRS under § 53.1245, the Commission may issue a standard design certification in the form of a rule for the design that is the subject of the application, if the Commission determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) The application demonstrates compliance with the applicable standards and requirements of the Act and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications, if any, to other agencies or bodies have been duly made;
</P>
<P>(3) There is reasonable assurance that the standard design conforms with the provisions of the Act and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant is technically qualified;
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed ITAAC are necessary and sufficient, within the scope of the standard design, to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met, the facility has been constructed and will be operated in accordance with the design certification, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) Issuance of the standard design certification will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(7) The findings required by part 51 of this chapter have been made; and
</P>
<P>(8) The applicant has implemented the QAP described or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report.
</P>
<P>(b) The design certification rule must specify the site parameters, design characteristics, and any additional requirements and restrictions of the design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(c) After the Commission has adopted a final design certification rule, the applicant must not permit any individual to have access to or any facility to possess restricted data or classified National Security Information until the individual and/or facility has been approved for access under the provisions of 10 CFR parts 25 and/or 95, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1251" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1251   Duration of certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a standard design certification issued under this subpart is valid for 40 years from the effective date of the rule.
</P>
<P>(b) A standard design certification continues to be valid beyond the date of expiration in any proceeding on an application for a COL or an OL under this part that references the standard design certification and is docketed either before the date of expiration of the certification, or, if a timely application for renewal of the certification has been filed, before the Commission has determined whether to renew the certification. A design certification also continues to be valid beyond the date of expiration in any hearing held under § 53.1452 before operation begins under a COL that references the design certification.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for a CP, OL, COL, or ML under this part may, at its own risk, reference in its application a design for which a design certification application has been docketed but not granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1254" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1254   Application for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not less than 12 nor more than 36 months before the expiration of the initial 40-year period, or any later renewal period, any person may apply for renewal of the certification. An application for renewal must contain all information necessary to bring up to date the information and data contained in the previous application. The Commission will require, before renewal of certification, that information normally contained in engineering documents, such as analyses, drawings, procurement specifications, or construction and installation specifications, be completed and available for audit if the more detailed information is necessary for the Commission to verify the information in the application and make its safety determination. Notice and comment procedures must be used for a rulemaking proceeding on the application for renewal. The Commission, in its discretion, may require the use of additional procedures in individual renewal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) A design certification, either original or renewed, for which a timely application for renewal has been filed remains in effect until the Commission has determined whether to renew the certification. If the certification is not renewed, it continues to be valid in certain proceedings under § 53.1251.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1257" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1257   Criteria for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission must issue a rule granting the renewal if the design, either as originally certified or as modified during the rulemaking on the renewal, complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time the certification was issued.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may impose other requirements if it determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) They are necessary for adequate protection to public health and safety or common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(2) They are necessary for compliance with the Commission's regulations and orders applicable and in effect at the time the design certification was issued; or
</P>
<P>(3) There is a substantial increase in overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the new requirements, and the direct and indirect costs of implementing those requirements are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition, the applicant for renewal may request an amendment to the design certification. The Commission must grant the amendment request if it determines that the amendment will comply with the Act and the Commission's regulations in effect at the time of renewal. If the amendment request entails such an extensive change to the design certification that an essentially new standard design is being proposed, an application for a design certification must be filed in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Denial of renewal does not bar the applicant, or another applicant, from filing a new application for certification of the design, which proposes design changes that correct the deficiencies cited in the denial of the renewal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1260" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1260   Duration of renewal.</HEAD>
<P>Each renewal of certification for a standard design will be for not less than 10, nor more than 40 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1263" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1263   Finality of standard design certifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) While a standard design certification rule is in effect under § 53.1251 or § 53.1260, the Commission may not modify, rescind, or impose new requirements on the certification information, whether on its own motion, or in response to a petition from any person, unless the Commission determines in a rulemaking that the change—
</P>
<P>(i) Is necessary either to bring the certification information or the referencing plants into compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time the certification was issued;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is necessary to provide adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reduces unnecessary regulatory burden and maintains protection to public health and safety and the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides the detailed design information to be verified under those ITAAC that are directed at certification information (<I>i.e.,</I> design acceptance criteria);
</P>
<P>(v) Is necessary to correct material errors in the certification information;
</P>
<P>(vi) Substantially increases overall safety, reliability, or security of facility design, construction, or operation, and the direct and indirect costs of implementation of the rule change are justified in view of this increased safety, reliability, or security; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Contributes to increased standardization of the certification information.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) In a rulemaking under § 53.1263(a)(1), except for § 53.1263(a)(1)(ii), the Commission will give consideration to whether the benefits justify the costs for plants that are already licensed or for which an application for a permit or license is under consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rulemaking procedures for changes under § 53.1263(a)(1) must provide for notice and opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(3) Any modification the NRC imposes on a design certification rule under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be applied to all plants referencing the certified design, except those to which the modification has been rendered technically irrelevant by action taken under paragraphs (a)(4) or (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission may not impose new requirements by plant-specific order on any part of the design of a specific plant referencing the design certification rule if that part was approved in the design certification while a design certification rule is in effect under § 53.1248, unless—
</P>
<P>(i) A modification is necessary to secure compliance with the Commission's regulations applicable and in effect at the time the certification was issued, or to assure adequate protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Special circumstances as defined in § 53.080 are present. In addition to the factors listed in § 53.080, the Commission must consider whether the special circumstances which § 53.080 requires to be present outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the plant-specific order.
</P>
<P>(5) Except as provided in § 2.335 of this chapter, in making the findings required for issuance of a COL, CP, OL, or ML, or for any hearing under § 53.1452, the Commission must treat as resolved those matters resolved in connection with the issuance or renewal of a design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant who references a design certification rule may request an exemption from one or more elements of the certification information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of § 53.080. In addition to the factors listed in § 53.080, the Commission must consider whether the special circumstances that § 53.080 requires to be present outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the exemption. The granting of an exemption on request of an applicant is subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues in the OL or COL hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will require, before granting a CP, COL, OL, or ML that references a design certification rule, that information normally contained in engineering documents, such as analyses, drawings, procurement specifications, or construction and installation specifications, be completed and available for audit if the more detailed information is necessary for the Commission to verify the information in the application and make its safety determination, including the determination that the application is consistent with the certification information. This information may be acquired by appropriate arrangements with the design certification applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1270" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1270   Manufacturing licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1270 through 53.1295 set out the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of a license under this part authorizing manufacture of manufactured reactors to be installed at sites not identified in the ML application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1276" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1276   Contents of applications for manufacturing licenses; general information.</HEAD>
<P>Each application for an ML must include the information contained in § 53.1109(a) through (e), and (j).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1279" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1279   Contents of applications for manufacturing licenses; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Final Safety Analysis Report-siting and design.</I> The application must include an FSAR containing the information set forth below, with a level of design information sufficient to enable the Commission to judge the applicant's proposed means of ensuring that the manufacturing conforms to the design and to reach a final conclusion on all safety questions associated with the design, permit the preparation of construction and installation specifications by an applicant who seeks to use the manufactured reactor, and permit the preparation of acceptance and inspection requirements by the NRC. The application must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Site parameters.</I> The site parameters postulated for the design under this part, including the design-basis external hazard levels for the relevant external hazards, and an analysis and evaluation of the design in terms of those site parameters.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design information.</I> The design information equivalent to that required for a standard design certification as defined in § 53.1239(a)(2) through (27) for those portions of a commercial nuclear plant included in the manufactured reactor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quality assurance program.</I> A description of the QAP applied to the design, and to be applied to the fabrication and testing of the SSCs of the manufactured reactor under § 53.620(a)(6), including a discussion of how the applicable requirements of appendix B to part 50 of this chapter will be satisfied;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conceptual designs.</I> Representative conceptual designs for one or more commercial nuclear plants using the manufactured reactor;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Operating configurations.</I> If multiple manufactured reactors may be installed at a commercial nuclear plant, a description of the possible operating configurations, including common systems, interface requirements, and system interactions. The final safety analysis must also account for differences among the possible configurations, including any restrictions that will be necessary during the construction and startup of a given manufactured reactor to ensure the safe operation of any commercial nuclear reactor already operating;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Interface requirements.</I> (i) The interface requirements between the manufactured reactor and the remaining portions of the commercial nuclear plant or connections to other facilities outside of the commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P>(ii) Confirmation that interface requirements are verifiable through inspections, testing, or analysis. These requirements must be sufficiently detailed to allow for completion of the final safety analysis by license applicants that reference the manufactured reactor manufactured under this subpart. Applicants for a COL under this part will need to verify the interface requirements at the installation site. The method to be used for verification of interface requirements must be included as part of the proposed ITAAC required by § 53.1282(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) Information to support development of radiation monitoring programs required under subpart F of this part by an applicant for a COL, including potential pathways for radionuclides produced within the manufactured reactor to enter interfacing systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final Safety Analysis Report—manufacturing information.</I> The FSAR must include the following information related to the manufacturing processes, organization, controls, and inspections:
</P>
<P>(1) A description, including references to generally accepted consensus codes and standards, of the processes that will be used to procure, fabricate, and assemble components that make up the manufactured reactor. The description should clearly define which activities are proposed to be within the scope of the ML and those, such as the making of a component to be procured from a separate company for installation in the manufactured reactor, that are not considered to be within the scope of the ML;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the organizational and management structure singularly responsible for direction of design and manufacture of the manufactured reactor. The information should include a description of the management plans, technical qualifications, and controls in place to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of § 53.620;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the inspections and tests to be performed as part of the manufacturing process, including the inspection of procured components, inspection and testing of fabrication processes such as the molding, welding, or coating of components, and inspections and testing of the assembled manufactured reactor or portions of the manufactured reactor;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the fitness-for-duty program required by part 26 of this chapter and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final Safety Analysis Report—deployment of the completed manufactured reactor.</I> The application must include a description of the following information related to the deployment of a manufactured reactor:
</P>
<P>(1) Procedures governing the preparation of the manufactured reactor or portions of the manufactured reactor for shipping to the site where it is to be operated; the conduct of shipping; and verifying the condition of the shipped items upon receipt at the site;
</P>
<P>(2) Details of the interaction of the design, manufacture, and installation of a manufactured reactor within the applicant's organization and the manner by which the applicant will ensure close integration between the designer, contractors, and any facility in which the manufactured reactor is to be installed;
</P>
<P>(3) Measures to be used for the control of interfaces, including the consideration of key site parameters, between the holder of the ML and the holder of the COL or CP for the commercial nuclear plant at which the manufactured reactor is to be installed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final Safety Analysis Report—special considerations for factory fueling.</I> In addition to the above paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, an application for an ML for a manufactured reactor that will be fueled at the factory under a 10 CFR part 70 license must include the following information related to loading fuel and the required features to prevent criticality and to otherwise provide assurance that the fueled manufactured reactor can be successfully transported, installed, and operated at a site for which the Commission has issued a COL or a CP and OL that authorizes construction and operation of a commercial nuclear plant using the manufactured reactor:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the procedures used during the fueling of the manufactured reactor that ensure that the configuration of fuel within the fueled manufactured reactor is consistent with the design and analyses supporting operation of the manufactured reactor under the COL or OL at the place of operation. The description may reference the applicable 10 CFR part 70 application and other sections of the Safety Analysis Report supporting the ML license application.
</P>
<P>(i) The application must describe the measures taken for in-factory inspections and non-nuclear testing performed to ensure that the configuration of fuel within the fueled manufactured reactor is consistent with the design and analyses supporting operation of the manufactured reactor under the COL or OL at the place of operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The application must describe the design features included in the manufactured reactor to prevent criticality, the associated functional design criteria applied to those design features, and the physical and programmatic controls implemented during manufacturing, storage, and transport that are credited to assure the features function as designed when subject to potential hazards and human errors. The descriptions must include how those measures will be controlled during installation under the ML and removal under the COL or OL at the place of operation.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the procedures governing the transfer of responsibilities for the fueled manufactured reactor from the holder of the ML to the holder of the COL or CP and OL for the installation site.
</P>
<P>(3) If available at the time of filing the ML application or, if not available at the time of filing the ML application, submitted as an amendment to the ML or ML application at the time of filing the Part 70 application, a description of the programs needed to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of § 53.620(d) and 10 CFR parts 70, 71, and 73 for the receipt, storage, and loading of SNM into a manufactured reactor and the transport of the fueled manufactured reactor to a site for which the Commission has issued a COL or CP and OL that authorizes construction and operation of a commercial nuclear plant using the manufactured reactor, including the following.
</P>
<P>(i) A physical security program in accordance with § 53.620(d)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) A cybersecurity program in accordance with § 53.620(d)(2)(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1282" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1282   Contents of applications for manufacturing licenses; other application content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria.</I> (1) The application must contain proposed inspections, tests, and analyses that the COL or CP holder must perform, and the acceptance criteria that are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met:
</P>
<P>(i) The reactor has been manufactured in conformity with the ML, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The manufactured reactor will be operated in conformity with the approved design and any license authorizing operation of the manufactured reactor.


</P>
<P>(2) If the application references a standard design certification, the ITAAC contained in the certified design must apply to those portions of the facility design that are covered by the design certification.
</P>
<P>(3) If the application references a standard design certification, the application may include a notification that a required inspection, test, or analysis in the design certification ITAAC has been successfully completed and that the corresponding acceptance criterion has been met. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice required by § 53.1285 must indicate that the application includes this notification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Environmental report.</I> (1) The application must contain an environmental report as required by § 51.54 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ML application references a standard design certification, the environmental report need not contain a discussion of severe accident mitigation design alternatives for the manufactured reactor as used in a commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safeguards information.</I> The application must contain a description of the program to protect safeguards information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance demonstration.</I> A description of how the performance of each design feature has been demonstrated capable of fulfilling functional design criteria considering interdependent effects through either analysis, appropriate test programs, prototype testing, operating experience, or a combination thereof, in accordance with § 53.440(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1285" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1285   Review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for review of applications.</I> Applications for MLs under this part will be reviewed according to the applicable standards set out in this subpart as well as applicable standards in 10 CFR parts 20, 25, 26, 51, 53, 70, 71, 73, and 75.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative review of applications, hearings.</I> A proceeding on an ML is subject to all applicable procedural requirements contained in 10 CFR part 2, including the requirements for docketing in § 2.101(a)(1) through (4) of this chapter, and the requirements for issuance of a notice of proposed action in § 2.105 of this chapter, <I>provided, however,</I> that the designated sections may not be construed to require that the environmental report or draft or final environmental impact statement include an assessment of the benefits of constructing and/or operating the manufactured reactor or an evaluation of alternative energy sources. All hearings on MLs are governed by the hearing procedures contained in 10 CFR part 2, subparts C, E, G, L, and N.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1286" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1286   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission must refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS must report on those portions of the application which concern safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1287" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1287   Issuance of manufacturing licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After completing any hearing under § 53.1285(b), and receiving the report submitted by the ACRS, the Commission may issue an ML if the Commission finds that—
</P>
<P>(1) Applicable standards and requirements of the Act and the Commission's regulations have been met;
</P>
<P>(2) There is reasonable assurance that the manufactured reactor will be manufactured, and can be transported, incorporated into a commercial nuclear plant, and operated in conformity with the ML, the provision of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed manufactured reactor can be incorporated into a commercial nuclear plant and operated at sites having characteristics that fall within the site parameters postulated for the design of the manufactured reactors without undue risk to the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant is technically qualified to design and manufacture the proposed manufactured reactor;
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed ITAAC are necessary and sufficient, within the scope of the ML, to provide reasonable assurance that the manufactured reactor has been manufactured and will be operated in conformity with the license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) The issuance of a license to the applicant will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public; and
</P>
<P>(7) The findings required by 10 CFR part 51 have been made.
</P>
<P>(b) Each ML issued under this subpart must specify—
</P>
<P>(1) Terms and conditions as the Commission deems necessary and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) Technical specifications for operation of the manufactured reactor, as the Commission deems necessary and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(3) Significant site parameters and significant design characteristics for the manufactured reactor;
</P>
<P>(4) The interface requirements to be met by the site-specific elements of the facility, such as the energy conversions systems and ultimate heat sink, not within the scope of the manufactured reactor; and
</P>
<P>(5) The entity with design authority for the manufactured reactor covered by the license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1288" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1288   Finality of manufacturing licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) During the term of an ML issued under this part, the Commission may not modify, rescind, or impose new requirements on the design of the manufactured reactor, or the requirements for the manufacture of the manufactured reactor, unless the Commission determines that a modification is necessary to bring the design of the reactor or its manufacture into compliance with the Commission's requirements applicable and in effect at the time the ML was issued, or to provide reasonable assurance of adequate protection to public health and safety or common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(2) Any modification to the design of a manufactured reactor that is imposed by the Commission under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be applied to all manufactured reactors manufactured under the license, including those that have already been transported and sited, except those manufactured reactors to which the modification has been rendered technically irrelevant or otherwise unnecessary by action taken under § 53.1530, § 53.1550, or paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In making the findings required under this part for issuance of a COL, CP, or OL, in any hearing under § 53.1452, or in any enforcement hearing other than one initiated by the Commission under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, for which a manufactured reactor manufactured under this subpart is referenced or used, the Commission must treat as resolved those matters resolved in the proceeding on the application for issuance or renewal of the ML, including the adequacy of design of the manufactured reactor, the costs and benefits of severe accident mitigation design alternatives, and the bases for not incorporating severe accident mitigation design alternatives into the design of the manufactured reactor to be manufactured.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant who references or uses a manufactured reactor manufactured under an ML under this part may include in the application a request for a departure from the design characteristics, site parameters, terms and conditions, or approved design of the manufactured reactor. The Commission may grant a request only if it determines that the departure will comply with the requirements of § 53.080 The granting of a departure on request of an applicant is subject to litigation in the same manner as other issues in the COL or CP hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1291" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1291   Duration of manufacturing licenses.</HEAD>
<P>An ML issued under this part is valid for not less than 5, nor more than 40 years from the date of issuance. Upon expiration of the ML, the manufacture of any uncompleted manufactured reactors must cease unless a timely application for renewal has been docketed with the NRC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1293" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1293   Transfer of manufacturing licenses.</HEAD>
<P>An ML may be transferred under § 53.1570.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1295" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1295   Renewal of manufacturing licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Not less than 12 months, nor more than 5 years before the expiration of the ML, or any later renewal period, the holder of the ML issued under this part may apply for a renewal of the license. An application for renewal must contain all information necessary to bring up to date the information and data contained in the previous application.
</P>
<P>(2) The filing of an application for a renewed license must be in accordance with subpart A of 10 CFR part 2 and § 53.1100.
</P>
<P>(3) An ML issued under this part, either original or renewed, for which a timely application for renewal has been filed, remains in effect until the Commission has made a final determination on the renewal application.
</P>
<P>(4) Any person whose interest may be affected by renewal of the license may request a hearing on the application for renewal. The request for a hearing must comply with § 2.309 of this chapter. If a hearing is granted, notice of the hearing will be published in accordance with § 2.104 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may grant the renewal if the Commission determines—
</P>
<P>(1) The ML complies with the Act and the Commission's regulations and orders applicable and in effect at the time the ML was originally issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any new requirements the Commission may wish to impose are—
</P>
<P>(i) Necessary for adequate protection to public health and safety or common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessary for compliance with the Commission's regulations and orders applicable and in effect at the time the ML was originally issued; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A substantial increase in overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the new requirements, and the direct and indirect costs of implementation of those requirements are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(c) A renewed ML may be issued for a term of not less than 5, nor more than 40 years, plus any remaining years on the ML then in effect before renewal. The renewed license must be subject to the requirements of § 53.1288.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1300" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1300   Construction permits.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1300 through 53.1348 set out the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of a CP for commercial nuclear plants. A CP for the construction of a commercial nuclear plant under this part will be issued before the issuance of an OL if the application is otherwise acceptable and will be converted upon completion of the facility and Commission action, into an OL as provided under §§ 53.1360 through 53.1405.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1306" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1306   Contents of applications for construction permits; general information.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a CP must include the information required by § 53.1109 and the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) Information sufficient to demonstrate to the Commission the financial qualification of the applicant to carry out, under the regulations in this chapter, the activities for which the permit is sought. As applicable, the applicant should provide information that demonstrates that the applicant appears to be financially qualified to cover estimated construction costs and related fuel cycle costs, including estimates of the total construction costs and related fuel cycle costs of the facility, a financial capacity plan, and any source(s) of funds available at the time of application to cover these costs. If available funding at the time of application is 50 percent or less, the applicant should include proposed license conditions to facilitate verification that funding is available prior to the start of construction.
</P>
<P>(b) If the applicant proposes to construct or alter a facility, the application must state the earliest and latest dates for completion of the construction or alteration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1309" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1309   Contents of applications for construction permits; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>The application must contain a Preliminary Safety Analysis Report (PSAR) that describes the facility and the limits on its operation and presents a preliminary safety analysis of the SSCs of the facility as a whole. The PSAR must include the following information, at a level of detail sufficient to enable the Commission to reach a conclusion on safety matters that must be resolved by the Commission before issuance of a CP:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Site information.</I> An application for a CP for a commercial nuclear reactor must include the site information equivalent to that required for an early site permit in § 53.1146(a)(1)(iv) through (x).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design information.</I> Except as specified in this paragraph (a)(2), an application for a CP for a commercial nuclear plant must include the design information equivalent to that required for a standard design certification as defined in § 53.1239(a)(2) through (a)(21), (a)(23), and § 53.1239(a)(26) through (27).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Quality assurance program.</I> A description of the QAP to be applied to the design, fabrication, construction, and testing of the SSCs of the facility under § 53.610(a)(6), including a discussion of how the requirements of appendix B to part 50 of this chapter will be satisfied.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Preliminary design information.</I> The information provided in the application may include some aspects of the design that are not fully developed, and the information is therefore preliminary. The completed design, including any changes during construction, must be described in the FSAR required in § 53.1369 that supports an application for an OL.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Planned research or testing.</I> Descriptions of how design features and related functional design criteria will fulfill the safety criteria in subpart B and how that has been or will be demonstrated through either analysis, appropriate test programs, experience, or a combination thereof. Where any design feature has not been fully developed or demonstrated to fulfill the functional design criteria at the time of an application for a CP, the applicant must provide a plan for future analysis, research and development, test programs, gathering of experience, or a combination thereof to provide reasonable confidence that the required demonstration will be available for an application for an OL
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Programmatic controls.</I> Descriptions of the programmatic controls may include those to be provided in the FSAR or other licensing-basis documents because they are necessary to achieve and maintain the reliability and capability of SSCs relied upon to demonstrate compliance with the established safety criteria and functional design criteria required in subpart B, and to maintain consistency with analyses required by § 53.450.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Technical qualifications.</I> A description of the technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities under the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Emergency preparedness.</I> A description of the applicant's preliminary plans for coping with emergencies based on:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, the requirements in appendix E to part 50.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a commercial nuclear plant consisting of either small modular reactors or non-light-water reactors, the requirements in either § 50.160 or appendix E to part 50.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Physical security.</I> A report that provides a preliminary description of how the site characteristics support the development of adequate security plans and measures consistent with the requirements in § 53.540.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Fitness-for-duty program.</I> A description of the fitness-for-duty (FFD) program required by 10 CFR part 26 and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the program to protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1312" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1312   Contents of applications for construction permits; other application content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the PSAR, the application must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An environmental report either under § 51.50(a) of this chapter if an LWA under § 53.1130 is not requested in conjunction with the CP application, or under §§ 51.49 and 51.50(a) of this chapter if an LWA is requested in conjunction with the CP application; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant wishes to request that an LWA under § 53.1130 be issued before issuance of the CP, the information otherwise required by § 53.1130, in accordance with either § 2.101(a)(1) through (a)(5), or § 2.101(a)(9) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) If the CP application references an early site permit, standard design approval, standard design certification, or ML issued under this part, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The PSAR need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the referenced NRC approval, license,, or certification, provided, however, that the PSAR incorporates the material by reference and confirms that the site and design of the facility falls within parameter values postulated in the referenced NRC approval, license, or certification.
</P>
<P>(2) The PSAR must provide a means to demonstrate that all terms and conditions that have been included in the referenced NRC approval, license, or certification will be satisfied by the date of issuance of the OL, as appropriate. If the PSAR does not demonstrate that each site characteristic falls within the corresponding postulated site parameter and each design characteristic of the facility falls within the corresponding postulated design parameter, the application must justify a departure, variance, or exemption from the referenced NRC approval, license, or certification in regard to that particular site or design characteristic in compliance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) If a referenced early site permit approves complete and integrated emergency plans, or major features of emergency plans, then the PSAR must include any new or additional information that updates and corrects the information that was provided under § 53.1146(b)(2) and discuss whether the new or additional information materially changes the bases for compliance with the applicable requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1315" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1315   Review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for review of applications.</I> Applications filed under this part will be reviewed according to the standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 51, 53, 73, and 140.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative review of applications; hearings.</I> A proceeding on a CP application is subject to all applicable procedural requirements contained in 10 CFR part 2, including the requirements for docketing (§ 2.101 of this chapter) and issuance of a notice of hearing (§ 2.104 of this chapter). All contested hearings on CP applications are governed by the procedures contained in 10 CFR part 2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1318" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1318   Finality of referenced NRC approvals, permits, and certifications.</HEAD>
<P>If the application for a CP under this part references an early site permit, standard design approval, standard design certification, or ML, the scope and nature of matters resolved for the application are governed by the relevant provisions addressing finality, including §§ 53.1188, 53.1221, 53.1263, and 53.1288.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1324" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1324   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission must refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS must report on those portions of the application that concern safety and must apply the standards referenced in § 53.1315, in accordance with the finality provisions in § 53.1318.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1327" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1327   Authorization to conduct limited work authorization activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the application does not reference an early site permit which authorizes the holder to perform the activities under § 53.1130, the applicant may not perform those activities without obtaining the separate authorization required by § 53.1130. Authorization may be granted only after the presiding officer in a contested hearing on the application has made the findings and determination required by § 53.1130(b)(1)(iii), and the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation makes the determination required by § 53.1130(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) If, after an applicant has performed the activities permitted by paragraph (a) of this section, the application for the CP is withdrawn or denied, then the applicant must implement an approved site redress plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1330" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1330   Exemptions, departures, and variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applicants for a CP under this part, or any amendment to a CP, may include in the application a request for an exemption from one or more of the Commission's regulations. The Commission may grant a request if it determines that the exemption complies with § 53.080.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant for a CP who has filed an application referencing an NRC approval, license, or certification issued under this part may include in the application a request for exemptions, departures, or variances related to the subject referenced NRC approval, license, or certification. In determining whether to grant the departure, variance, or exemption, the Commission must apply the same technically relevant criteria as were applicable to the application for the original or renewed approval, license, or certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1333" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1333   Issuance of construction permits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may issue a CP only if the Commission finds that—
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant has described the proposed design of the facility and has identified the major features or components incorporated therein for the protection of the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(2) Such further technical or design information as may be required to complete the safety analysis, and which can reasonably be left for later consideration, will be supplied in the FSAR;
</P>
<P>(3) Safety features or components, if any, that require research and development have been described by the applicant and the applicant has identified, and there will be conducted, a research and development program reasonably designed to resolve any safety questions associated with such features or components; and
</P>
<P>(4) On the basis of the foregoing, there is reasonable assurance of the following—
</P>
<P>(i) Such safety questions will be satisfactorily resolved at or before the latest date stated in the application for completion of construction of the proposed facility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Taking into consideration the site criteria contained in subpart D to this part, the proposed facility can be constructed and operated at the proposed location without undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>(b) A CP must contain the terms and conditions for the permit, as the Commission deems necessary and appropriate. The Commission may, in its discretion, incorporate in any CP provisions requiring the applicant to furnish periodic reports of the progress and results of research and development programs designed to resolve safety questions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1336" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1336   Finality of construction permits.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any provision in § 53.1590, a CP constitutes an authorization to proceed with construction but does not constitute Commission approval of the safety of any design feature or specification unless the applicant specifically requests such approval and such approval is incorporated in the permit. The applicant, at its option, may request such approvals in the CP or by amendment to the CP. If approved by the NRC and included in the permit, the NRC will consider modifications to the approved design features or specifications in accordance with § 53.1590.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1342" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1342   Duration of construction permits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A CP will state the earliest and latest dates for completion of construction or alteration of the facility, not to exceed 40 years from date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(b) If the proposed construction or alteration of the facility is not completed by the latest completion date, the CP shall expire, and all rights are forfeited. However, upon good cause shown, the Commission will extend the completion date for a reasonable period of time. The Commission will recognize, among other things, developmental problems attributed to the experimental nature of the facility or fire, flood explosion, strike, sabotage, domestic violence, enemy action an act of the elements, and other acts beyond the control of the permit holder, as a basis for extending the completion date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1345" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1345   Transfer of construction permits.</HEAD>
<P>A CP may be transferred under § 53.1570.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1348" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1348   Termination of construction permits.</HEAD>
<P>When a permit holder has determined to permanently cease construction, the holder must, within 30 days, submit a written certification to the NRC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1360" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1360   Operating licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1360 through 53.1405 set out the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of an OL for a nuclear power facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1366" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1366   Contents of applications for operating licenses; general information.</HEAD>
<P>An application for an OL must include the information required by § 53.1109 and, except for an electric utility applicant, information sufficient to demonstrate to the Commission the financial qualification of the applicant to carry out, in accordance with the regulations in this chapter, the activities for which the license is sought. As applicable, the applicant must submit information that demonstrates the applicant appears to be financially qualified to cover estimated operation costs for the period of the license. The applicant must submit estimates for total annual operating costs for each of the first 5 years of operation of the facility and a financial capacity plan and must indicate any source(s) of funds available at the time of application to cover these costs. If available funding at the time of application is 50 percent or less, the applicant should include proposed license conditions to facilitate verification that funding is available prior to the start of operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1369" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1369   Contents of applications for operating licenses; technical information.</HEAD>
<P><I>Final Safety Analysis Report.</I> The application must contain an FSAR that describes the facility and the limits on its operation and presents a safety analysis of the SSCs of the facility as a whole. The FSAR must include the following information, at a level of detail sufficient to enable the Commission to reach a final conclusion on all safety matters that must be resolved by the Commission before issuance of an OL:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Site information.</I> An application for an OL for a commercial nuclear reactor must include the site information equivalent to that required for an early site permit in § 53.1146(a)(1)(iv) through (x), including all current information, such as the results of environmental and meteorological monitoring programs, which has been developed since issuance of the CP, relating to site evaluation factors identified in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Design information.</I> Except as specified in this paragraph (b), an FSAR for an OL for a commercial nuclear plant must include the final design information equivalent to that required for a standard design certification as defined in § 53.1239(a)(2) through (7), (a)(9), (a)(11) and (12), (a)(14) through (21), (a)(23), and (a)(25).
</P>
<P>(1) The completed design, including any changes during construction, must be described.
</P>
<P>(2) Where any design feature had not been fully developed or demonstrated at the time of application for the CP, the applicant must provide the analysis, research and development, test programs, gathering of experience, or a combination thereof to provide the required demonstration to fulfill the functional design criteria.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Integrity assessment program.</I> A description of an Integrity Assessment Program that addresses the elements described in § 53.870.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Safeguards information.</I> A description of the program to protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Emergency response facility or facilities.</I> Description of location and capabilities to be established for command and control, support, and coordination of onsite and offsite, as applicable, functions during reactor accident conditions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Role of personnel.</I> (1) A description of the completed assessments related to the role of personnel in ensuring safe operations considering the analyses required by § 53.730. These assessments must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Human factors engineering design requirements of § 53.730(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) Human system interface design requirements of § 53.730(b);
</P>
<P>(iii) Concept of operations of § 53.730(c);
</P>
<P>(iv) Functional requirements analysis and function allocation of § 53.730(d);
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the program to be used for evaluating and applying operating experience as required by § 53.730(e);
</P>
<P>(3) A staffing plan and supporting analyses as required by § 53.730(f).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Training, examination, and proficiency programs.</I> (1) A description of the training, examination, and proficiency programs required by § 53.730(g);
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the training programs required by § 53.830.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Emergency plan.</I> Emergency plans complying with the requirements of § 53.855.
</P>
<P>(1) Include all emergency plan certifications, as applicable, that have been obtained from the State, local, and participating Tribal governmental agencies with emergency planning responsibilities that are wholly or partially within the EPZ plume exposure pathway. These certifications must state that—
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed emergency plans are practicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) These agencies are committed to participating in any further development of the plans, including any required field demonstrations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) These agencies are committed to executing their responsibilities under the plans in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(2) If certifications cannot be obtained after sustained, good faith efforts by the applicant, then the application must contain information, including a utility plan, sufficient to show that the proposed plans provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency at the site.
</P>
<P>(3) If complete and integrated emergency plans were approved as part of an early site permit, or submitted, reviewed, and approved as part of the CP application, new certifications that demonstrate compliance with the requirements of paragraph (i)(1) of this section are not required.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Organization.</I> A description of the applicant's organizational structure, allocations of responsibilities and authorities, and personnel qualifications requirements for operation.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Maintenance program.</I> A description of a maintenance program under § 53.715.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Quality assurance.</I> A description of the QAP that demonstrates compliance with the requirements under § 53.865.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Radiation protection program.</I> A radiation protection program description under § 53.850.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Security program.</I> A physical security plan that describes how the applicant will comply with § 53.860 (and 10 CFR part 11, if applicable, including the identification and description of jobs as required by § 11.11(a) of this chapter, at the proposed facility). The plan must list tests, inspections, audits, and other means to be used to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of 10 CFR parts 11 and 73, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Safeguards contingency plan.</I> A safeguards contingency plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in appendix C to 10 CFR part 73. The safeguards contingency plan must include plans for dealing with threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage, as defined in 10 CFR part 73, relating to the SNM and nuclear facilities licensed under this chapter and in the applicant's possession and control. Each application for this type of license must include the information contained in the applicant's safeguards contingency plan. (Implementing procedures required for this plan need not be submitted for approval.) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A physical security plan that contains all the information required in both § 73.55 or § 73.100 of this chapter and appendix C to 10 CFR part 73 satisfies the requirement for a contingency plan.</P></FTNT>
<P>(p) <I>Security training and qualification.</I> A training and qualification plan that describes how the applicant will demonstrate compliance with the criteria set forth in § 73.100 of this chapter or appendix B to 10 CFR part 73.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Cybersecurity plan.</I> A cybersecurity plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 73.54 or § 73.110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Security, safeguards, and cybersecurity plan implementation.</I> A description of the implementation of the physical security plan, safeguards contingency plan, training and qualification plan, and cybersecurity plan. Each applicant who prepares a physical security plan, a safeguards contingency plan, a training and qualification plan, or a cybersecurity plan must protect the plans and other related Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements of §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Fire protection program.</I> A description of the fire protection program under § 53.875.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Inservice inspection/inservice testing program.</I> A description of the inservice inspection and inservice testing programs under § 53.880.
</P>
<P>(u)-(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(w) <I>General employee training.</I> A description of the training program required to demonstrate compliance with § 53.830 and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Fitness-for-duty program.</I> A description of the FFD program required by 10 CFR part 26 and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Other programs.</I> A description and evaluation of the results of the applicant's programs, including research and development, if any, to demonstrate that any safety questions identified at the CP stage have been resolved.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Safety design feature performance.</I> A description of how the performance of each safety design feature has been demonstrated capable of fulfilling functional design criteria considering interdependent effects through either analysis, appropriate test programs, prototype testing, operating experience, or a combination thereof, in accordance with § 53.440(a).
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Technical specifications.</I> Proposed technical specifications prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 53.710(a).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1372" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1372   Contents of applications for operating licenses; other application content.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the FSAR, the application must also include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Environmental report.</I> An environmental report in accordance with § 51.53(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability controls (if not included in the FSAR).</I> A description of the controls on plant operations, including availability controls, to provide reasonable confidence of safe operation and that the configurations and special treatments for SR and NSRSS SSCs provide the capabilities and reliabilities required to satisfy the safety criteria of § 53.220 if not addressed by Technical Specifications under § 53.1369(aa).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1375" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1375   Review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for review of applications.</I> Applications filed under this part will be reviewed according to the standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 26, 51, 53, 73, and 140.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative review of applications; hearings.</I> A proceeding on an OL is subject to all applicable procedural requirements contained in 10 CFR part 2, including the requirements for docketing (§ 2.101 of this chapter) and issuance of a notice of hearing (§ 2.104 of this chapter). All hearings on OLs are governed by the procedures contained in 10 CFR part 2.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1381" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1381   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission must refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS must report on those portions of the application that concern safety and must apply the standards referenced in § 53.1375.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1384" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1384   Exemptions, departures, and variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applicants for an OL under this part, or any amendment to an OL, may include in the application a request for an exemption from one or more of the Commission's regulations. The Commission may grant an exemption request if it determines that the exemption complies with § 53.080.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant for an OL who has filed an application referencing an NRC approval, permit, license, or certification issued under this part may include in the application a request for departures, variances, or exemptions related to the subject referenced NRC approval, permit, license, or certification. In determining whether to grant the departure, variance, or exemption, the Commission must apply the same technically relevant criteria as were applicable to the application for the original or renewed approval, license, or certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1387" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.80" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1387   Issuance of operating licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Upon completion of the construction or alteration of a facility, in compliance with the terms and conditions of the construction permit and subject to any necessary testing of the facility for health or safety purposes, the Commission will, in the absence of good cause shown to the contrary, issue an OL or an appropriate amendment of the license, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(a)(1) After receiving the report submitted by the ACRS, the Commission may issue an OL if the Commission finds that—
</P>
<P>(i) Construction of the facility has been substantially completed in conformity with the CP and the application as amended, the provisions of the Act, and the rules and regulations of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any required notifications to other agencies or bodies have been duly made;
</P>
<P>(iii) The facility will operate in conformity with the application as amended, the provisions of the Act, and the rules and regulations of the Commission;
</P>
<P>(iv) There is reasonable assurance that—
</P>
<P>(A) The activities authorized by the OL can be conducted without endangering the health and safety of the public; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such activities will be conducted in compliance with the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(v) The applicant is technically and financially qualified to engage in the activities authorized, however, no finding of financial qualification is necessary for an electric utility applicant for an OL;
</P>
<P>(vi) Issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(vii) The applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 140 have been satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The findings required by 10 CFR part 51 have been made.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) The OL will include appropriate provisions with respect to any uncompleted items of construction and such limitations or conditions as are required to assure that operation during the period of the completion of such items will not endanger public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission will issue an OL in such form and containing such conditions and limitations, including technical specifications, as it deems necessary and appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1390" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.81" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1390   Backfitting of operating licenses.</HEAD>
<P>After issuance of an OL, the Commission may not modify, add, or delete any term or condition of the OL, except in accordance with the provisions of § 53.1590.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1396" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.82" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1396   Duration of operating licenses.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will issue an OL under this part for the term requested by the applicant, not to exceed 40 years from the date of issuance, or for the estimated useful life of the facility if the Commission determines that the estimated useful life is less than the term requested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1399" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.83" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1399   Transfer of an operating license.</HEAD>
<P>An OL may be transferred under § 53.1570.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1402" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.84" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1402   Application for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>The filing of an application for a renewed license must be in accordance with § 53.1595.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1405" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.85" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1405   Continuation of an operating license.</HEAD>
<P>Each OL for a facility that has permanently ceased operations continues in effect beyond the expiration date to authorize ownership and possession of the facility until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this period of continued effectiveness, the licensee must—
</P>
<P>(a) Take actions necessary to decommission and decontaminate the facility and continue to maintain the facility, including, where applicable, the storage, control, and maintenance of the spent fuel in a safe condition; and
</P>
<P>(b) Conduct activities in accordance with all other restrictions applicable to the facility in accordance with the NRC's regulations and the provisions of the OL for the facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1410" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.86" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1410   Combined licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1410 through 53.1461 set out the requirements and procedures applicable to Commission issuance of COLs for commercial nuclear plants under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1413" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.87" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1413   Contents of applications for combined licenses; general information.</HEAD>
<P>An application for a COL must include the information required by § 53.1109 and, except for an electric utility applicant in regard to financial assurance required after a Commission finding under § 53.1452, the application must include information sufficient to demonstrate to the Commission the financial qualification of the applicant to carry out, in accordance with the regulations in this chapter, the activities for which the permit or license is sought. As applicable, the following should be provided:
</P>
<P>(a) The information that demonstrates that the applicant appears to be financially qualified to cover estimated construction costs and related fuel cycle costs, including estimates of the total construction costs and related fuel cycle costs of the facility, a financial capacity plan, and any source(s) of funds available at the time of application to cover these costs. If available funding at the time of application is 50 percent or less, the applicant should include proposed license conditions to facilitate verification that funding is available prior to the start of construction.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant must submit information that demonstrates the applicant appears to be financially qualified to cover estimated operation costs for the period of the license. The applicant must submit estimates for total annual operating costs for each of the first 5 years of operation of the facility, a financial capacity plan and indicate any source(s) of funds available at the time of application to cover these costs. If available funding at the time of application is 50 percent or less, the applicant should include proposed license conditions to facilitate verification that funding is available prior to the start of operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1416" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.88" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1416   Contents of applications for combined licenses; technical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application must contain an FSAR that describes the facility and the limits on its operation and presents a safety analysis of the SSCs of the facility as a whole. The Commission will require, before issuance of a COL, that information normally contained in engineering documents, such as analyses, drawings, procurement specifications, or construction and installation specifications, be completed and available for audit if the more detailed information is necessary for the Commission to verify the information in the application and make its safety determination. The FSAR must include the following information, at a level of detail sufficient to enable the Commission to reach a final conclusion on all safety matters that must be resolved by the Commission before issuance of a COL:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Site information.</I> An application for a COL for a commercial nuclear reactor must include the site information required for an early site permit in § 53.1146(a)(1)(iv) through (x).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Design information.</I> An application for a COL for a commercial nuclear plant must include the design information equivalent to that required for a standard design certification as defined in § 53.1239(a)(2) through (7), (a)(9), (a)(11), (a)(12), (a)(14) through (21), and (a)(23).


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Technical qualifications.</I> A description of the technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Integrity assessment program.</I> A description of an Integrity Assessment Program that addresses the elements described in § 53.870.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Safeguards information.</I> A description of the program to protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Emergency response facility or facilities.</I> Description of the locations and capabilities to be established for command and control, support, and coordination of onsite and offsite, as applicable, functions during reactor accident conditions.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Role of personnel.</I> (i) A description of the completed assessments related to the role of personnel in ensuring safe operations considering the analyses required by § 53.730. These assessments must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Human factors engineering design requirements of § 53.730(a);
</P>
<P>(B) Human system interface design requirements of § 53.730(b);
</P>
<P>(C) Concept of operations of § 53.730(c); and
</P>
<P>(D) Functional requirements analysis and function allocation of § 53.730(d);
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the program to be used for evaluating and applying operating experience as required by § 53.730(e);
</P>
<P>(iii) A staffing plan and supporting analyses as required by § 53.730(f).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Training, examination, and proficiency programs.</I> (i) A description of the training, examination, and proficiency programs required by § 53.730(g); and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the training programs required by § 53.830.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Emergency plan.</I> Emergency plans complying with the requirements of § 53.855.
</P>
<P>(i) The emergency plan must include, as applicable, all emergency plan certifications that have been obtained from the State, local, and participating Tribal governmental agencies with emergency planning responsibilities. The certifications must state that—
</P>
<P>(A) The proposed emergency plans are practicable;
</P>
<P>(B) These agencies are committed to participating in any further development of the plans, including any required field demonstrations; and
</P>
<P>(C) These agencies are committed to executing their responsibilities under the plans in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) If certifications cannot be obtained after sustained, good faith efforts by the applicant, then the application must contain information, including a utility plan, sufficient to show that the proposed plans provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency at the site.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Organization.</I> A description of the applicant's organizational structure, allocations of responsibilities and authorities, and personnel qualifications requirements for operation.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Maintenance program.</I> A description of a maintenance program under § 53.715.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Quality assurance.</I> A description of the QAP under § 53.865.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Radiation protection program.</I> A radiation protection program description under § 53.850.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Security program.</I> A physical security plan that describes how the applicant will comply with § 53.860 (and 10 CFR part 11, if applicable, including the identification and description of jobs as required by § 11.11(a) of this chapter, at the proposed facility). The plan must list tests, inspections, audits, and other means to be used to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of 10 CFR parts 11 and 73, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Safeguards contingency plan.</I> A safeguards contingency plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in appendix C to 10 CFR part 73. The safeguards contingency plan must include plans for dealing with threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage, as defined in 10 CFR part 73, relating to the SNM and nuclear facilities licensed under this chapter and in the applicant's possession and control. Each application for this type of license must include the information contained in the applicant's safeguards contingency plan.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (Implementing procedures required for this plan need not be submitted for approval.)


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A physical security plan that contains all the information required in both § 73.55 or § 73.100 of this chapter and appendix C to 10 CFR part 73 demonstrates compliance with the requirement for a contingency plan.</P></FTNT>
<P>(16) <I>Security training and qualification.</I> A training and qualification plan that describes how the applicant will demonstrate compliance with the criteria set forth in § 73.100 of this chapter or appendix B to 10 CFR part 73.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Cybersecurity plan.</I> A cybersecurity plan in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 73.54 or § 73.110 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Security, safeguards, and cybersecurity plan implementation.</I> A description of the implementation of the physical security plan, safeguards contingency plan, training and qualification plan, and cybersecurity plan. Each applicant who prepares a physical security plan, a safeguards contingency plan, a training and qualification plan, or a cybersecurity plan must protect the plans and other related Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements of §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Fire protection program.</I> A description of the fire protection program under § 53.875.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Inservice inspection/inservice testing program.</I> Descriptions of inservice inspection and inservice testing programs under § 53.880.
</P>
<P>(21)-(22) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(23) <I>General employee training.</I> A description of the training program required to demonstrate compliance with § 53.830 and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Fitness-for-duty program.</I> A description of the FFD program under part 26 of this chapter and its implementation.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Technical specifications.</I> Proposed technical specifications prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 53.710(a).
</P>
<P>(b) If there are SSCs of the plant for which research and development is necessary to confirm the adequacy of their design, a report which documents the resolution of any safety questions associated with such SSCs.
</P>
<P>(c) A description of how the performance of each safety design feature has been demonstrated capable of fulfilling functional design criteria considering interdependent effects through either analysis, appropriate test programs, prototype testing, operating experience, or a combination thereof, in accordance with § 53.440(a).
</P>
<P>(d) If the COL application references an early site permit, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The FSAR need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the early site permit provided that the FSAR must either include or incorporate by reference the early site permit Site Safety Analysis Report and contain, in addition to the information and analyses otherwise required, information sufficient to demonstrate that the design of the facility falls within the site characteristics and design parameters specified in the early site permit.
</P>
<P>(2) If the FSAR does not demonstrate that design of the facility falls within the site characteristics and design parameters, the application must include a request for a variance that complies with the requirements of §§ 53.1188(d) and 53.1437.
</P>
<P>(3) The FSAR must demonstrate that all terms and conditions that have been included in the early site permit will be satisfied by the date of issuance of the COL. Any terms or conditions of the early site permit that could not be met by the time of issuance of the COL must be set forth as terms or conditions of the COL.
</P>
<P>(4) If the early site permit approves complete and integrated emergency plans, or major features of emergency plans, then the FSAR must include any new or additional information that updates and corrects the information that was provided under § 53.1146(b)(2) and discuss whether the new or additional information materially changes the bases for compliance with the applicable requirements. The application must identify changes to the emergency plans or major features of emergency plans that have been incorporated into the proposed facility emergency plans and that constitute or would constitute a change in an emergency plan that results in reducing the licensee's capability to perform an emergency planning function in the event of a radiological emergency.
</P>
<P>(5) If complete and integrated emergency plans are approved as part of the early site permit, new certifications meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section are not required.
</P>
<P>(e) If the COL application references a standard design approval, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The FSAR need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the design approval, provided, however, that the FSAR must either include or incorporate by reference the standard design approval FSAR and must contain, in addition to the information and analyses otherwise required, information sufficient to demonstrate that the characteristics of the site fall within the site parameters specified in the design approval. In addition, the plant-specific information of the PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof must use the information of the PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof for the design approval and must be updated to account for site-specific design information and any design changes or departures.
</P>
<P>(2) The FSAR must demonstrate that all terms and conditions that have been included in the design approval will be satisfied by the date of issuance of the COL.
</P>
<P>(f) If the COL application references a standard design certification, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The FSAR need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the standard design certification, provided, however, that the FSAR must either include or incorporate by reference the standard design certification FSAR and must contain, in addition to the information and analyses otherwise required, information sufficient to demonstrate that the site characteristics fall within the site parameters specified in the standard design certification. In addition, the plant-specific information of the PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof must use the information of the PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof for the standard design certification and must be updated to account for site-specific design information and any design changes or departures.
</P>
<P>(2) The FSAR must demonstrate that the interface requirements established for the design under § 53.1239(a)(24) have been met.
</P>
<P>(3) The FSAR must demonstrate that all requirements and restrictions set forth in the referenced standard design certification rule must be satisfied by the date of issuance of the COL. Any requirements and restrictions set forth in the referenced standard design certification rule that could not be satisfied by the time of issuance of the COL, must be set forth as terms or conditions of the COL.
</P>
<P>(g) If the COL application references the use of one or more manufactured reactors licensed under § 53.1270, then the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The FSAR need not contain information or analyses submitted to the Commission in connection with the ML, provided, however, that the FSAR must either include or incorporate by reference the ML FSAR and must contain, in addition to the information and analyses otherwise required, information sufficient to demonstrate that the site characteristics fall within the site parameters specified in the ML. In addition, the plant-specific information of the PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof must use the information of the PRA, other SREs, or a combination thereof for the manufactured reactor and must be updated to account for site-specific design information and any design changes or departures.
</P>
<P>(2) The FSAR must demonstrate that the interface requirements established for the design have been met.
</P>
<P>(3) The FSAR must demonstrate that all terms and conditions that have been included in the ML will be satisfied by the date of issuance of the COL. Any terms or conditions of the ML that could not be met by the time of issuance of the COL, must be set forth as terms or conditions of the COL.


</P>
<P>(h) Each applicant for a COL under this part must protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1419" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.89" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1419   Contents of applications for combined licenses; other application content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the FSAR, the application must also include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Environmental report.</I> (i) An environmental report either in accordance with § 51.50(c) of this chapter if an LWA under § 53.1130 is not requested in conjunction with the COL application, or in accordance with §§ 51.49 and 51.50(c) of this chapter if an LWA is requested in conjunction with the COL application; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the applicant wishes to request that an LWA under § 53.1130 be issued before issuance of the COL, the information otherwise required by § 53.1130, in accordance with either § 2.101(a)(1) through (a)(4), or § 2.101(a)(9) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability controls (if not included in the FSAR).</I> A description of the controls on plant operations, including availability controls, to provide reasonable confidence of safe operation and that the configurations and special treatments for SR SSCs and NSRSS SSCs provide the capabilities and reliabilities required to satisfy the safety criteria of § 53.220 if not addressed by Technical Specifications under § 53.1416(a)(25); and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria.</I> The proposed inspections, tests, and analyses, including those applicable to emergency planning, that the licensee must perform, and the acceptance criteria that are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that, if the inspections, tests, and analyses are performed and the acceptance criteria met, the facility has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the COL, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(i) If the application references an early site permit with ITAAC, the early site permit ITAAC must apply to those aspects of the COL which are approved in the early site permit.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the application references a standard design certification, the ITAAC contained in the certified design must apply to those portions of the facility design which are approved in the standard design certification.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the application references an ML, the ITAAC contained in the ML must apply to those portions of the facility design which are approved in the ML.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the application references an early site permit with ITAAC, a standard design certification, an ML, or a combination thereof, the application may include a notification that a required inspection, test, or analysis in the ITAAC has been successfully completed and that the corresponding acceptance criterion has been met. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice required by § 53.1422 of this chapter must indicate that the application includes this notification.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1422" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.90" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1422   Review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for review of applications.</I> Applications filed under this part will be reviewed according to the standards set out in 10 CFR parts 20, 51, 53, 73, and 140.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative review of applications; hearings.</I> A proceeding on a COL is subject to all applicable procedural requirements contained in 10 CFR part 2, including the requirements for docketing (§ 2.101 of this chapter) and issuance of a notice of hearing (§ 2.104 of this chapter). If an applicant requests a Commission finding on certain ITAAC with the issuance of the COL, then those ITAAC will be identified in the notice of hearing. All contested hearings on COLs are governed by the procedures contained in 10 CFR part 2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1425" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.91" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1425   Finality of referenced NRC approvals.</HEAD>
<P>If the application for a COL under this part references an early site permit, standard design certification rule, standard design approval, or ML, issued under this part, the scope and nature of matters resolved for the application and any COL issued are governed by the relevant provisions addressing finality, including §§ 53.1188, 53.1221, 53.1263, and 53.1288.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1431" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.92" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1431   Referral to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission must refer a copy of the application to the ACRS. The ACRS must report on those portions of the application that concern safety and must apply the standards referenced in § 53.1422, in accordance with the finality provisions in § 53.1425.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1434" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.93" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1434   Authorization to conduct limited work authorization activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the application for a COL under this part does not reference an early site permit which authorizes the holder to perform the activities under § 53.1130(b), the applicant may not perform those activities without obtaining the separate authorization required by § 53.1130(a). Authorization may be granted only after the presiding officer in a contested hearing on the application has made the findings and determination required by § 53.1130(b)(1)(iii), and the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation makes the determination required by § 53.1130(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) If, after an applicant has performed the activities permitted by a LWA issued under § 53.1130, the application for the COL is withdrawn or denied, then the applicant must implement the approved site redress plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1437" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.94" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1437   Exemptions, departures, and variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant for a COL, or any amendment to a COL, may include in the application a request for an exemption from one or more of the Commission's regulations.
</P>
<P>(1) If the request is for an exemption from any part of a referenced standard design certification rule, the Commission may grant the request if it determines that the exemption complies with any exemption provisions of the referenced standard design certification rule, or with § 53.1263 if there are no applicable exemption provisions in the referenced standard design certification rule.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other requests for exemptions, the Commission may grant a request if it determines that the exemption complies with § 53.080.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant for a COL who has filed an application referencing an early site permit issued under § 53.1158 may include in the application a request for a variance from one or more site characteristics, design parameters, or terms and conditions of the permit, or from the Site Safety Analysis Report. In determining whether to grant the variance, the Commission must apply the same technically relevant criteria as were applicable to the application for the original or renewed site permit. Once a COL referencing an early site permit is issued, variances from the early site permit will not be granted for that CP or COL.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for a COL who has filed an application referencing use of a manufactured reactor may include in the application a request for a departure from one or more design characteristics, site parameters, terms and conditions, or approved design of the manufactured reactor under the ML issued under § 53.1287. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the departure will comply with the requirements of § 53.080, and that the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the departure.
</P>
<P>(d) Issuance of a variance under paragraph (b) of this section or a departure under paragraph (c) of this section is subject to litigation during the COL proceeding in the same manner as other issues material to that proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1440" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.95" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1440   Issuance of combined licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Commission may issue a COL if the Commission finds that—
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable standards and requirements of the Act and the Commission's regulations have been met;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any required notifications to other agencies or bodies have been duly made;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is reasonable assurance that the facility will be constructed and will operate in conformity with the license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's regulations;
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant is technically and financially qualified to engage in the activities authorized; however, no finding of financial qualification is necessary for an electric utility applicant for a COL;
</P>
<P>(v) Issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The findings required by 10 CFR part 51 have been made.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may also find, at the time it issues the COL, that certain acceptance criteria in one or more of the ITAAC in a referenced early site permit, standard design certification, or ML have been met. This finding will finally resolve that those acceptance criteria have been met, those acceptance criteria will be deemed to be excluded from the COL, and findings under § 53.1452(g) with respect to those acceptance criteria are unnecessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission must identify within the COL the inspections, tests, and analyses, including those applicable to emergency planning, that the licensee must perform, and the acceptance criteria that, if met, are necessary and sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the facility has been constructed and will be operated in conformity with the license, the provisions of the Act, and the Commission's rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) A COL must contain the terms and conditions, including technical specifications, as the Commission deems necessary and appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1443" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.96" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1443   Finality of combined licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After issuance of a COL, the Commission may not modify, add, or delete any term or condition of the COL, the design of the facility, the ITAAC contained in the license that are not derived from a referenced standard design certification or ML, except under the provisions of § 53.1452 or § 53.1590.
</P>
<P>(b) If the COL does not reference a standard design certification, then a licensee may make changes in the facility as described in the FSAR (as updated) and make changes in the procedures as described in the FSAR (as updated) under the applicable change processes in § 53.1550.
</P>
<P>(c) If the COL references a certified design, then—
</P>
<P>(1) Changes to or departures from information within the scope of the referenced standard design certification rule are subject to the applicable change processes in that rule; and
</P>
<P>(2) Changes that are not within the scope of the referenced standard design certification rule are subject to the applicable change processes in subpart I of this part, unless they also involve changes to or noncompliance with information within the scope of the referenced standard design certification rule. In these cases, the applicable provisions of this section and the standard design certification rule apply.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may issue and make immediately effective any amendment to a COL upon a determination by the Commission that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person. The amendment may be issued and made immediately effective in advance of the holding and completion of any required hearing. The amendment will be processed under the procedures specified in § 53.1515.
</P>
<P>(f) Any modification to, addition to, or deletion from the terms and conditions of a COL, including any modification to, addition to, or deletion from the inspections, tests, and analyses, or related acceptance criteria contained in the license is a proposed amendment to the license. There must be an opportunity for a hearing on the amendment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1449" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.97" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1449   Inspection during construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Licensee schedule for inspections, tests, or analyses.</I> The licensee must submit to the NRC, no later than 1 year after issuance of the COL or at the start of construction as defined at § 53.020, whichever is later, its schedule for completing the inspections, tests, or analyses in the ITAAC. The licensee must submit updates to the ITAAC schedules every 6 months thereafter and, within 1 year of its scheduled date for initial loading of fuel (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, within 1 year of its scheduled date for initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1)), the licensee must submit updates to the ITAAC schedule every 30 days until the final notification is provided to the NRC under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensee and applicant conduct of activities subject to ITAAC.</I> With respect to activities subject to an ITAAC, an applicant for a COL may proceed at its own risk with design and procurement activities, and a licensee may proceed at its own risk with design, procurement, construction, and preoperational activities, even though the NRC may not have found that any one of the prescribed acceptance criteria are met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Licensee notifications</I>—(1) <I>ITAAC closure notification.</I> The licensee must notify the NRC that prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses have been performed and that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met. The notification must contain sufficient information to demonstrate that the prescribed inspections, test, and analyses have been performed and that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ITAAC post-closure notifications.</I> Following the licensee's ITAAC closure notifications under paragraph (c)(1) of this section until the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g), the licensee must notify the NRC, in a timely manner, of new information that materially alters the basis for determining that either inspections, tests, or analyses were performed as required, or that acceptance criteria are met. The notification must contain sufficient information to demonstrate that, notwithstanding the new information, the prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses have been performed as required, and the prescribed acceptance criteria are met.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Uncompleted ITAAC notification.</I> If the licensee has not provided, by the date 225 days before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, by the date 225 days before the scheduled date for initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1)), the notification required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section for all ITAAC, then the licensee must notify the NRC that the prescribed inspections, tests, or analyses for all uncompleted ITAAC will be performed and that the prescribed acceptance criteria will be met prior to operation. The notification must be provided no later than the date 225 days before the scheduled date for initial loading of fuel (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, no later than the date 225 days before the scheduled date for initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1)), and must provide sufficient information to demonstrate that the prescribed inspections, tests, or analyses will be performed and the prescribed acceptance criteria for the uncompleted ITAAC will be met, including, but not limited to, a description of the specific procedures and analytical methods to be used for performing the prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses and determining that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>All ITAAC complete notification.</I> The licensee must notify the NRC that all ITAAC are complete.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Licensee determination of noncompliance with ITAAC.</I> (1) In the event that an activity is subject to an ITAAC derived from a referenced standard design certification and the licensee has not demonstrated that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met, the licensee may take corrective actions to successfully complete that ITAAC or request an exemption from the standard design certification ITAAC, as applicable. A request for an exemption must also be accompanied by a request for a license amendment under subpart I.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that an activity is subject to an ITAAC not derived from a referenced standard design certification and the licensee has not demonstrated that the prescribed acceptance criteria are met, the licensee may take corrective actions to successfully complete that ITAAC or request a license amendment under subpart I.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NRC inspection, publication of notices, and availability of licensee notifications.</I> The NRC must ensure that the prescribed inspections, tests, and analyses in the ITAAC are performed.
</P>
<P>(1) At appropriate intervals until the last date for submission of requests for hearing under § 53.1452, the NRC must publish notices in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the NRC staff's determination of the successful completion of inspections, tests, and analyses.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC must make publicly available the licensee notifications under paragraph (c) of this section. The NRC must, no later than the date of publication of the notice of intended operation required by § 53.1452(a), make publicly available those licensee notifications under paragraph (c) of this section that have been submitted to the NRC at least 7 days before that notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1452" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.98" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1452   Operation under a combined license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee must notify the NRC of its scheduled date for initial loading of fuel no later than 270 days before the scheduled date and must notify the NRC of updates to its schedule every 30 days thereafter.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Not less than 180 days before the date scheduled for initial loading of fuel into a plant by a licensee that has been issued a COL under this part, the Commission must publish notice of intended operation in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The notice must provide that any person whose interest may be affected by operation of the plant may, within 60 days, request that the Commission hold a hearing on whether the facility as constructed complies, or on completion will comply, with the acceptance criteria in the COL, except that a hearing must not be granted for those ITAAC that the Commission found were met under § 53.1440(a)(2).




</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For licensees installing fueled manufactured reactors under a COL, the COL holder must instead notify the NRC of its scheduled date for initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1) no later than 270 days before the scheduled date and must notify the NRC of updates to its schedule every 30 days thereafter.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For licensees installing fueled manufactured reactors under a COL, the Commission must instead publish notice of intended operation in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> not less than 180 days before the date scheduled for initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) A request for hearing under paragraph (a) of this section must show, <I>prima facie</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) That one or more of the acceptance criteria of the ITAAC in the COL have not been, or will not be, met; and
</P>
<P>(2) The specific operational consequences of nonconformance that would be contrary to providing reasonable assurance of adequate protection of the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission, acting as the presiding officer, must determine whether to grant or deny the request for hearing under the applicable requirements of § 2.309 of this chapter. If the Commission grants the request, the Commission, acting as the presiding officer, must determine whether during a period of interim operation there will be reasonable assurance of adequate protection to the public health and safety. The Commission's determination must consider the petitioner's <I>prima facie</I> showing and any answers thereto. If the Commission determines there is such reasonable assurance, it must allow operation during an interim period under the COL.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission, in its discretion, must determine appropriate hearing procedures, whether informal or formal adjudicatory, for any hearing under paragraph (a) of this section, and must state its reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission must, to the maximum possible extent, render a decision on issues raised by the hearing request within 180 days of the publication of the notice provided by paragraph (a) of this section or by the anticipated date for initial loading of fuel into the reactor, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(f) A petition to modify the terms and conditions of the COL will be processed as a request for action under § 2.206 of this chapter. The petitioner must file the petition with the Secretary of the Commission. Before the licensed activity allegedly affected by the petition (fuel loading, low power testing, etc.) commences, the Commission must determine whether any immediate action is required. If the petition is granted, then an appropriate order will be issued. Fuel loading and operation under the COL will not be affected by the granting of the petition unless the order is made immediately effective.
</P>
<P>(g) The licensee must not operate the facility until the Commission makes a finding that the acceptance criteria in the COL are met, except for those acceptance criteria that the Commission found were met under § 53.1440(a)(2). If the COL is for a modular design, each reactor unit may require a separate finding as construction proceeds.
</P>
<P>(h) After the Commission has made the finding in paragraph (g) of this section, the ITAAC do not, by virtue of their inclusion in the COL, constitute regulatory requirements either for licensees or for renewal of the license; except for the specific ITAAC for which the Commission has granted a hearing under paragraph (a) of this section, all ITAAC expire upon final Commission action in the proceeding. However, subsequent changes to the facility or procedures described in the FSAR (as updated) must comply with the requirements in § 53.1443(e) or (f), as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1455" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.99" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1455   Duration of combined license.</HEAD>
<P>A COL is issued for a specified period not to exceed 40 years from the date on which the Commission makes a finding that acceptance criteria are met under § 53.1452(g) or allowing operation during an interim period under the COL under § 53.1452(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1456" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.100" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1456   Transfer of a combined license.</HEAD>
<P>A COL may be transferred under § 53.1570.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1458" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.101" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1458   Application for renewal.</HEAD>
<P>The filing of an application for a renewed license must be in accordance with § 53.1595.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1461" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.102" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1461   Continuation of combined license.</HEAD>
<P>Each COL for a facility that has permanently ceased operations continues in effect beyond the expiration date to authorize ownership and possession of the facility until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this period of continued effectiveness, the licensee must—
</P>
<P>(a) Take actions necessary to decommission and decontaminate the facility and continue to maintain the facility, including, where applicable, the storage, control and maintenance of the spent fuel, in a safe condition; and
</P>
<P>(b) Conduct activities in accordance with all other restrictions applicable to the facility in accordance with the NRC's regulations and the provisions of the COL for the facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1470" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.8.62.103" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1470   Standardization of commercial nuclear plant designs: licenses to construct and operate nuclear power reactors of identical design at multiple sites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise specified in this section, the provisions of this section apply to CP, OL, and COL applications for commercial nuclear plants of identical design (the “common design”) under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application for a CP, OL, or COL submitted pursuant to this section must be submitted as specified in § 53.1300, § 53.1360, or § 53.1410, respectively, and § 2.101 of this chapter. Each application must state that the applicant wishes to construct a facility identical to a facility proposed for one or more sites other than the applicant's (the “common design”), and the applicant wishes to have the application considered under this section. Each application must list each of the other applications to be treated together under this section or specify that such other applications will be submitted to the NRC within 12 months of submittal of the first application.
</P>
<P>(c) Each application must include the information required by the applicable sections of this subpart, provided, however, that the application must identify the common design, and, if applicable, reference a standard design certification or standard design approval under this part, or the use of a reactor manufactured under this part. The FSAR for each application must either incorporate by reference or include the final safety analysis of the common design, including, if applicable, the FSAR for the referenced standard design certification, standard design approval, or the manufactured reactor.
</P>
<P>(d) Each application submitted pursuant to this section must contain an environmental report under § 53.1312(a)(1), § 53.1372(a), or § 53.1419(a)(1), as applicable, that complies with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 51, <I>provided, however,</I> that the application may incorporate by reference a single environmental report on the environmental impacts of the common design that are applicable to each site.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon a determination that each application is acceptable for docketing under § 2.101 of this chapter, each application will be docketed and a notice of docketing for each application will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> under § 2.104 of this chapter, <I>provided, however,</I> that the notice must state that the application will be processed under the provisions of this section and subpart D of 10 CFR part 2. At the discretion of the Commission, a single notice of docketing for multiple applications may be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC must prepare an environmental assessment or draft and final environmental impact statements for each of the applications under 10 CFR part 51. Scoping under §§ 51.28 and 51.29 of this chapter for each of the license applications may be conducted simultaneously and joint scoping may be conducted with respect to the environmental issues relevant to the common design. If the applications reference a standard design certification, then the environmental assessment or environmental impact statement for each of the applications must incorporate by reference the standard design certification environmental assessment. If the applications do not reference a standard design certification, then the NRC must prepare environmental assessments or draft and final supplemental environmental impact statements which address severe accident mitigation design alternatives for the common design, which must be incorporated by reference into the environmental assessment or environmental impact statement prepared for each application. Scoping under §§ 51.28 and 51.29 of this chapter for the supplemental environmental impact statement may be conducted simultaneously and may be part of the scoping for each of the applications.
</P>
<P>(g) The ACRS must report on each of the applications as required by the applicable sections of this subpart. Each report must be limited to those safety matters for each application that are not relevant to the common design. In addition, the ACRS must separately report on the safety of the common design, <I>provided, however,</I> that the report need not address the safety of a referenced standard design certification or reactor manufactured under this part.
</P>
<P>(h) If the design for the power reactor(s) proposed in a particular application is not identical to the others, that application may not be processed under this section and subpart D of 10 CFR part 2.
</P>
<P>(i) As used in this section, the design of a nuclear power reactor included in a single referenced Safety Analysis Report means the design of those SSCs important to radiological health and safety and the common defense and security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15794, Mar. 30, 2026, as amended at 91 FR 20068, Apr. 15, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Maintaining and Revising Licensing-Basis Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1500" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1500   Licensing-basis information.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides the requirements for each holder of a license for a commercial nuclear plant licensed under this part to maintain licensing-basis information as defined in § 53.020; evaluate changes to site characteristics, plant design features, and programmatic controls to determine needed approvals and revisions; and submit appropriate updates to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1502" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1502   Specific terms and conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each license issued under this part is subject to the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, (the Act) and to all rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission. The terms and conditions of the license will be subject to amendment, revision, or modification, by reason of amendments of the Act or by reason of rules, regulations, and orders issued in accordance with the terms of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Each license issued under this part must be subject to all conditions imposed as a matter of law by sections 401(a)(2) and 401(d) of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended (33 U.S.C.A. 1341(a)(2) and (d)).


</P>
<P>(c) A holder of an operating license (OL) or combined license (COL) under this part may take reasonable action that departs from a license condition or a technical specification included in a license issued under this part in a national security emergency established by a law enacted by the Congress or by an order or directive issued by the President pursuant to statutes or the Constitution of the United States. The authority under this paragraph (c) must be exercised in accordance with law, including section 57e of the Act, and is in addition to the authority granted under § 53.740(h), which remains in effect unless otherwise directed by the Commission during a national security emergency. The authority under this paragraph (c) may be exercised—
</P>
<P>(1) When this action is immediately needed to implement national security objectives as designated by the national command authority through the Commission; and
</P>
<P>(2) No action consistent with license conditions and technical specifications that can satisfy national security objectives is immediately apparent.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the NRC finds that the state of emergency preparedness does not provide reasonable assurance that adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency (including findings based on requirements of 10 CFR part 50, appendix E, section IV.D.3) and if the deficiencies (including deficiencies based on requirements of 10 CFR part 50, appendix E, section IV.D.3) are not corrected within 4 months of that finding, the Commission will determine whether the facility must be shut down or cease operations until such deficiencies are remedied or whether other enforcement action is appropriate. In determining whether a shutdown or other enforcement action is appropriate, the Commission will take into account, among other factors, whether the licensee can demonstrate to the Commission's satisfaction that the deficiencies in the plan are not significant for the plant in question, or that adequate interim compensating actions have been or will be taken promptly, or that that there are other compelling reasons for continued operation.
</P>
<P>(2) If the planning standards for radiological emergency preparedness apply to offsite emergency response plans, or if the planning activities in § 50.160(b)(1)(iv)(B) apply, then the NRC will base its finding on a review of the Federal Emergency Management Agency findings and determinations as to whether State, participating Tribal, and local emergency plans are adequate and capable of being implemented, and on the NRC assessment as to whether the licensee's emergency plans are adequate and capable of being implemented. Nothing in this paragraph (d)(2) must be construed as limiting the authority of the Commission to take action under any other regulation or authority of the Commission or at any time other than that specified in this paragraph (d)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1505" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1505   Changes to licensing-basis information requiring prior NRC approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sections 53.1510 through 53.1520 provide the process for a licensee to request and the NRC to issue amendments to licenses, including any conditions contained therein, technical specifications or other attachments to a license, and any orders issued by the NRC modifying a license. Sections 53.1525 and 53.1530 govern proposed changes to a commercial nuclear plant referencing a certified design or manufacturing license (ML).
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee may propose changing licensing-basis information established by NRC regulations by requesting an exemption in accordance with § 53.080.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1510" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1510   Application for amendment of license.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a holder of a license under this part desires to amend the license, an application for an amendment must be filed with the Commission, as specified in § 53.040, that fully describes the changes desired and, following as far as applicable, the form prescribed for original applications. Applications for amendments involving changes to plant structures, systems, and components (SSCs), programmatic controls, or the role of plant personnel must include an assessment of the changes in relation to the safety requirements in subpart B of this part and the analyses requirements of § 53.450 as applicable, an analysis of whether the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration using the standards in § 53.1520, and a consideration of environmental factors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1515" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1515   Public notices; State consultation.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will use the following procedures for an application requesting an amendment to an OL or COL issued under this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Public notices.</I> (1)(i) The Commission may publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under § 2.105 of this chapter an individual notice of proposed action for an amendment for which it makes a proposed determination that no significant hazards consideration is involved, or, at least once every 30 days, publish a periodic <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of proposed actions, which identifies each amendment issued and each amendment proposed to be issued since the last such periodic notice, or it may publish both such notices.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each amendment proposed to be issued, the notice will
</P>
<P>(A) Contain the staff's proposed determination under the standards in § 53.1520;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide a brief description of the amendment and of the facility involved;
</P>
<P>(C) Solicit public comments on the proposed determination; and
</P>
<P>(D) Provide for a 30-day comment period.
</P>
<P>(iii) The comment period will begin on the day after the date of the publication of the first notice, and, normally, the amendment will not be granted until after this comment period expires.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may inform the public about the final disposition of an amendment request for which it has made a proposed determination of no significant hazards consideration either by issuing an individual notice of issuance under § 2.106 of this chapter or by publishing such a notice in its periodic system of <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices. In either event, it will not make and will not publish a final determination of no significant hazards consideration unless it receives a request for a hearing on that amendment request.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the Commission makes a final determination that no significant hazards consideration is involved and that the amendment should be issued, the amendment will be effective on issuance, even if adverse public comments have been received and even if an interested person meeting the provisions for intervention called for in § 2.309 of this chapter has filed a request for a hearing. The Commission need hold any required hearing only after it issues an amendment, unless it determines that a significant hazards consideration is involved, in which case the Commission will provide an opportunity for a prior hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the Commission finds that an emergency situation exists, in that failure to act in a timely way would result in derating or shutdown of a commercial nuclear reactor, or in prevention of either resumption of operation or of increase in power output up to the plant's licensed power level, it may issue a license amendment involving no significant hazards consideration without prior notice and opportunity for a hearing or for public comment. In such a situation, the Commission will not publish a notice of proposed determination on no significant hazards consideration but will publish a notice of issuance under § 2.106 of this chapter providing for opportunity for a hearing and for public comment after issuance. The Commission expects its licensees to apply for license amendments in a timely fashion. It will decline to dispense with notice and comment on the determination of no significant hazards consideration if it determines that the licensee has abused the emergency provision by failing to make timely application for the amendment and thus itself creating the emergency. Whenever an emergency situation exists, a licensee requesting an amendment must explain why this emergency situation occurred and why it could not avoid this situation, and the Commission will assess the licensee's reasons for failing to file an application sufficiently in advance of that event.
</P>
<P>(5) Where the Commission finds that exigent circumstances exist, in that a licensee and the Commission must act quickly and that time does not permit the Commission to publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice allowing 30 days for prior public comment, and it also determines that the amendment involves no significant hazards considerations, it—
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Will either issue a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice providing notice of an opportunity for hearing and allowing at least 2 weeks from the date of the notice for prior public comment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Will use local media to provide reasonable notice to the public in the area surrounding a licensee's facility of the licensee's amendment and of its proposed determination as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, consulting with the licensee on the proposed media release and on the geographical area of its coverage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will provide for a reasonable opportunity for the public to comment, using its best efforts to make available to the public whatever means of communication it can for the public to respond quickly, and, in the case of telephone comments, have these comments recorded or transcribed, as necessary and appropriate;


</P>
<P>(iii) When it has issued a local media release, may inform the licensee of the public's comments, as necessary and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iv) Will publish a notice of issuance under § 2.106 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(v) Will provide a hearing after issuance, if one has been requested by a person who satisfies the provisions for intervention specified in § 2.309 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Will require the licensee to explain the exigency and why the licensee cannot avoid it and use its normal public notice and comment procedures in paragraph (a)(1) of this section if it determines that the licensee has failed to use its best efforts to make a timely application for the amendment in order to create the exigency and to take advantage of this procedure.
</P>
<P>(6) Where the Commission finds that significant hazards considerations are involved, it will issue a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice providing an opportunity for a prior hearing even in an emergency situation, unless it finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State consultation.</I> (1) At the time a licensee requests an amendment, it must notify the State in which its facility is located of its request by providing that State with a copy of its application and its reasoned analysis about no significant hazards considerations and indicate on the application that it has done so.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission will advise the State of its proposed determination about no significant hazards consideration normally by sending it a copy of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission will make the names of the Project Manager or other NRC personnel it designated to consult with the State available to the State official designated to consult about its proposed determination. The Commission will consider any comments of that State official. If it does not hear from the State in a timely manner, it will consider that the State has no interest in its determination; nonetheless, to ensure that the State is aware of the application, before it issues the amendment, it will make a good faith effort to communicate directly with that official. (Inability to consult with a responsible State official following good faith attempts will not prevent the Commission from making effective a license amendment involving no significant hazards consideration.)
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission will make a good faith attempt to consult with the State before it issues a license amendment involving no significant hazards consideration. If, however, it does not have time to use its normal consultation procedures because of an emergency situation, it will attempt to communicate directly with the appropriate State official. (Inability to consult with a responsible State official following good faith attempts will not prevent the Commission from making effective a license amendment involving no significant hazards consideration, if the Commission deems it necessary in an emergency situation.)
</P>
<P>(5) After the Commission issues the requested amendment, it will send a copy of its determination to the State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Caveats about State consultation.</I> (1) The State consultation procedures in paragraph (b) of this section do not give the State a right—
</P>
<P>(i) To veto the Commission's proposed or final determination;
</P>
<P>(ii) To a hearing on the determination before the amendment becomes effective; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To insist upon a postponement of the determination or upon issuance of the amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) These procedures do not alter present provisions of law that reserve to the Commission exclusive responsibility for setting and enforcing radiological health and safety requirements for commercial nuclear plants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1520" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1520   Issuance of amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining whether an amendment to a license will be issued to the applicant, the Commission will be guided by the considerations which govern the issuance of initial licenses to the extent applicable and appropriate. If the application is for amendment of an OL or COL and involves the material alteration of a commercial nuclear plant, a construction permit (CP) will be issued before the issuance of the amendment to the license, provided however, that if the application involves a material alteration to a manufactured reactor under this part before its installation at a site, or a COL before the date that the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g), no application for or issuance of a CP is required. If the amendment involves a significant hazards consideration, the Commission will give notice of its proposed action—
</P>
<P>(1) Under § 2.105 of this chapter before acting thereon; and
</P>
<P>(2) As soon as practicable after the application has been docketed.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will be particularly sensitive to a license amendment request that involves irreversible consequences (such as one that permits a significant increase in the amount of effluents or radiation emitted by a commercial nuclear plant).
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may make a final determination, under the procedures in § 53.1515, that a proposed amendment to an OL or a COL for a commercial nuclear plant under this part involves no significant hazards consideration, if operation of the plant in accordance with the proposed amendment would not—
</P>
<P>(1) Involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated; or
</P>
<P>(2) Create the possibility of a new or different kind of an accident from any accident previously evaluated; or
</P>
<P>(3) Involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1525" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1525   Revising certification information within a design certification rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A holder of an OL or COL who references a design certification rule issued under this part must request an exemption if proposing to change one or more elements of the certification information. The Commission may grant such a request only if it determines that the exemption will comply with the requirements of § 53.080 and that the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the departure.
</P>
<P>(b) The request for an exemption must be included with any associated license amendment request, which must be requested and processed in accordance with §§ 53.1510, 53.1515, and 53.1520.
</P>
<P>(c) Licensees must evaluate changes to the design as described in the Final Safety Analysis Report (FSAR) not involving changes to the certification information using the criteria in § 53.1550.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1530" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1530   Revising information within a Final Safety Analysis Report associated with a manufacturing license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The holder of an ML may make changes to the facility or procedures as described in the Final Safety Analysis Report (FSAR) associated with the ML without obtaining a license amendment pursuant to § 53.1510 if the change meets the criteria in § 53.1550(a)(1) and (2) using the specifications in § 53.1550(b). If needed, applications for amending an ML must be submitted and processed in accordance with §§ 53.1510, 53.1515, and 53.1520. In those cases where an ML references a design certification rule, the amendment application from the holder of the ML must also request an exemption from the design certification rule under § 53.1525 if proposing to change one or more elements of the certification information.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The holder of an ML must maintain records of changes to the facility or procedures made without a license amendment under paragraph (a) of this section. These records must include a written evaluation which provides the bases for the determination that the change does not require a license amendment under the criteria in paragraph § 53.1550(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) The records of changes in the facility must be maintained until the expiration of an ML issued under this part, or the expiration of a renewed license issued under § 53.1295—whichever is later. Records of changes in procedures must be maintained for a period of 5 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1535" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1535   Amendments during construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The holder of a CP or limited work authorization (LWA) under this part may request an amendment to the CP or LWA in order to gain Commission approval of the safety of selected design features or specifications, including proposed departures from a design certification rule or ML. Amendments to CPs or LWAs under this part must be requested and processed under §§ 53.1510 and 53.1520.
</P>
<P>(b) The holder of a COL under this part for which the NRC has not yet made a finding in accordance with § 53.1452(g) must request amendments required by § 53.1525 or § 53.1550 no later than 45 days from the date the licensee begins the construction of the SSCs to implement the change or departure requiring NRC approval. The licensee proceeds with such changes at its own risk recognizing that there is a possibility that the amendment will not be granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1540" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1540   Updating licensing-basis information and determining the need for NRC approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sections 53.1545 through 53.1565 provide the process for a holder of an OL or COL to modify licensing-basis information and to evaluate potential changes to its facilities, procedures, programs, and organizations to determine if NRC approval is required.
</P>
<P>(b) Definitions for the purposes of §§ 53.1545 through 53.1565—
</P>
<P><I>Change</I> means a modification or addition to, or removal from, the commercial nuclear plant or procedures that affects a design feature or related functional design criteria, method of performing or controlling the functions of design features, or an evaluation that demonstrates that intended functions will be accomplished.
</P>
<P><I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the Final Safety Analysis Report (FSAR) (as updated) used in establishing the functional design criteria for safety-related structures, systems, or components or in the safety analyses</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Changing any of the elements of the method described in the FSAR (as updated) unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Changing from a method described in the FSAR to another method unless that method has been approved by NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P><I>Facility as described in the FSAR (as updated)</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) The SSCs that are described in the FSAR (as updated),
</P>
<P>(ii) The design and performance requirements for such SSCs described in the FSAR (as updated), and
</P>
<P>(iii) The evaluations or methods of evaluation included in the FSAR (as updated) for such SSCs which demonstrate that their intended function(s) will be accomplished.
</P>
<P><I>Final Safety Analysis Report (as updated)</I> means the FSAR submitted under § 53.1279, § 53.1369 or § 53.1416, as amended and supplemented, and as updated under § 53.1545, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Procedures as described in the Final Safety Analysis Report (as updated)</I> means those procedures that contain information described in the FSAR (as updated) such as how SSCs are operated and controlled (including assumed operator actions and response times).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1545" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1545   Updating Final Safety Analysis Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of an OL or COL under this part for which the Commission has made the finding under § 53.1452(g) must update the FSAR originally submitted as part of the application for the license every 24 months or more frequently to assure that the information included in the report contains the latest information developed. The submittal must include the effects on the content of the FSAR of—
</P>
<P>(1) Changes made to the facility or procedures as described in the FSAR;
</P>
<P>(2) Safety analyses and evaluations performed by the licensee either in support of approved license amendments or in support of conclusions that changes did not require a license amendment under § 53.1550;
</P>
<P>(3) Updates to the probabilistic risk assessment (PRA), other systematic risk evaluations, or a combination thereof required under § 53.450(a);


</P>
<P>(4) The cumulative effects of the changes to the facility or procedures on the margins to the safety criteria in §§ 53.210, 53.220, and 53.450(e) since the last FSAR update; and
</P>
<P>(5) Analyses of new safety issues performed by or on behalf of the licensee at Commission request.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The licensee must submit revisions containing updated information to the Commission, under § 53.040, identifying the location of revised or new information.
</P>
<P>(2) The submittal must include—
</P>
<P>(i) A certification by a duly authorized officer of the licensee that either the information accurately presents changes made since the previous submittal, necessary to reflect information and analyses submitted to the Commission or prepared pursuant to Commission requirement, or that no such changes were made; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An identification of changes made under the provisions of § 53.1550 but not previously submitted to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) Each applicant for or holder of a COL under this part for which the Commission has not made the finding under § 53.1452(g) must submit an update to the FSAR annually by providing the information required in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section and meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Combined license applicants who have requested the NRC to suspend its review of the COL application and COL holders who have informed the NRC that they do not plan to pursue construction need not submit an annual update of the FSAR. If a COL applicant requests that the NRC resume its review, or a COL holder notifies the NRC that the COL holder plans to commence or resume construction, then the COL applicant or holder must submit to NRC an update to its FSAR within 90 days of the request or notification, as applicable, and annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(d) The FSAR (as updated) must be retained by the licensee until the Commission terminates its license.
</P>
<P>(e) Each holder of an ML under this part must submit an update of the FSAR every 24 months or more frequently as necessary to facilitate dependent COL or CP applications. The submittal must include the effects of changes on the content of the FSAR as described in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(3) through (a)(5), and (b) of this section and safety analyses and evaluations performed by the licensee either in support of approved license amendments or in support of conclusions that changes did not require a license amendment under § 53.1530.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1550" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1550   Evaluating changes to facility as described in Final Safety Analysis Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The holder of an OL or COL may make changes in the facility as described in the FSAR (as updated) and make changes in the procedures as described in the FSAR (as updated) without obtaining a license amendment pursuant to § 53.1510 only if—
</P>
<P>(1) A change to the technical specifications incorporated in the license is not required; and
</P>
<P>(2) The change meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not result in an increase to the frequency or consequences of an event sequence such that an event sequence not previously identified as risk significant becomes risk significant by the analyses performed in accordance with § 53.450(e).
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not result in an increase to the frequency or consequences of an event sequence such that an event sequence exceeds the licensing-basis event evaluation criteria required to be established in accordance with § 53.450(e).
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not involve either of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A change to the NRC-approved comprehensive risk metric(s) or associated risk performance objective under § 53.220(b); or
</P>
<P>(B) An increase to the frequency or consequences of one or more event sequences such that any calculated comprehensive risk metric exceeds the associated risk performance objective established in accordance with § 53.220.
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not involve a departure from a method of evaluation described in the FSAR (as updated) used in assessing design-basis accidents in accordance with § 53.450(f) unless the results of the analysis under § 53.450(f) are conservative or essentially the same, the revised method of evaluation has been previously approved by the NRC for the intended application, or the revised method of evaluation can be used under an NRC-endorsed consensus code or standard.
</P>
<P>(v) Does not result in a change to the safety classification of an SSC from safety-related to either non-safety-related but safety-significant or non-safety-related.
</P>
<P>(vi) Does not result in more than a minimal decrease in defense in depth.
</P>
<P>(vii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(viii) Does not result in the identification of a new design-basis accident in accordance with § 53.450(f).
</P>
<P>(ix) Does not result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of any design-basis accident.
</P>
<P>(3) In implementing this paragraph (a), the FSAR (as updated) is considered to include FSAR changes since submittal of the last update of the FSAR under § 53.1545.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions in this section do not apply to changes to the facility or procedures when the applicable regulations establish more specific criteria for accomplishing such changes.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A licensee who references a design certification rule may make departures from the standard design, without prior Commission approval, unless the proposed departure involves a change to the design as described in the rule certifying the design, in which case the requirements of § 53.1525 are applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must maintain records of all departures from the certified design of the facility and these records must be maintained and available for audit until the termination of the license. The licensee must identify the location and nature of departures from licensing-basis information within supporting documents for a certified design within the updates to the Safety Analysis Report required by § 53.1545.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees for which the NRC has docketed the certifications required under § 53.1070 need not retain records of departures from the design of the facility associated with SSCs that have been permanently removed from service using an NRC-approved change process.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The licensee must maintain records of changes in the facility and procedures made under paragraph (a) of this section. These records must include a written evaluation which provides the bases for the determination that the change does not require a license amendment under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must submit, as specified in § 53.040, a report containing a brief description of any departures and changes, including a summary of the evaluation of each. A report must be submitted at intervals not to exceed 24 months. For COLs, the report must be submitted at intervals not to exceed 6 months during the period from the date of application for a COL to the date the Commission makes its findings under § 53.1452(g).
</P>
<P>(3) The records of changes in the facility must be maintained until the termination of an OL or COL issued under this part, or the termination of a renewed license issued under § 53.1595—whichever is later. Records of changes in procedures must be maintained for a period of 5 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1560" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1560   Updating program documents included in licensing-basis information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder under this part of an OL or COL for which the Commission has made the finding under § 53.1452(g) must biennially or more frequently update the program documents submitted as part of an application to obtain or maintain the license to assure that the information included in the documents contains the latest information developed. The submittals must include the effects on the content of the program documents of—
</P>
<P>(1) Changes made in the facility, procedures, licensee's organization, or site environs;
</P>
<P>(2) Safety analyses and evaluations performed by the applicant or licensee either in support of approved license amendments or in support of conclusions that changes did not require a license amendment in accordance with § 53.1550;
</P>
<P>(3) Analyses of new safety issues performed by or on behalf of the licensee at Commission request; and
</P>
<P>(4) Changes to the programs as a result of operating experience, corrective actions, or other reasons deemed appropriate to ensure the programs serve their underlying purpose to support the requirements in subpart B of this part or other NRC regulations.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The licensee must submit revisions containing updated information to the Commission, as specified in § 53.040, identifying the location of revised or new information.
</P>
<P>(2) The submittal must include—
</P>
<P>(i) A certification by a duly authorized officer of the licensee that either the information accurately presents changes made since the previous submittals, necessary to reflect information and analyses submitted to the Commission or prepared pursuant to Commission requirement, or that no such changes were made; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An identification of changes made under the provisions of § 53.1550 but not previously submitted to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) The updated program documents must be retained by the licensee until the Commission terminates their license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1565" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1565   Evaluating changes to programs included in licensing-basis information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee may make changes to the facility, procedures, or organizations or address changes to site environs as described in the program documents included in licensing-basis information without obtaining prior NRC approval only if—
</P>
<P>(1) A change to the technical specifications incorporated in the license is not required;
</P>
<P>(2) An exemption from an NRC regulation is not required; and
</P>
<P>(3) The change conforms to program-specific requirements included in regulations in this part, technical specifications, or the NRC-approved program document included and reviewed as part of a license application under subpart H or an amendment under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) In implementing this section, the program documents (as updated) include changes since submittal of the last updates of the program documents pursuant to § 53.1560.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions in this section do not apply to changes to the program documents when the applicable regulations establish more specific criteria for accomplishing such changes.
</P>
<P>(d) To make changes to the facility, procedures, or organizations or to address changes to site environs as described in the program documents included in licensing-basis information for individual programs, the following requirements must be satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Quality assurance program—operation.</I> (i) Each holder under this part of an OL or COL, after the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g), may make a change to a previously accepted quality assurance program (QAP) description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report without prior NRC approval, provided the change does not reduce the commitments in the program description as accepted by the NRC. Changes to the QAP description that do not reduce the commitments must be submitted to the NRC in accordance with the requirements of § 53.1545. In addition to QAP changes involving administrative improvements and clarifications, spelling corrections, punctuation, or editorial items, the following changes are not considered to be reductions in commitment:
</P>
<P>(A) The use of a quality assurance (QA) standard approved by the NRC which is more recent than the QA standard in the licensee's QAP at the time of the change;
</P>
<P>(B) The use of a QA alternative or exception approved by an NRC safety evaluation, provided that the bases of the NRC approval are applicable to the licensee's facility;
</P>
<P>(C) The use of generic organizational position titles that clearly denote the position function, supplemented as necessary by descriptive text, rather than specific titles;
</P>
<P>(D) The use of generic organizational charts to indicate functional relationships, authorities, and responsibilities, or, alternately, the use of descriptive text;
</P>
<P>(E) The elimination of QAP information that duplicates language in QA regulatory guides and QA standards to which the licensee is committed; and
</P>
<P>(F) Organizational revisions that ensure that persons and organizations performing QA functions continue to have the requisite authority and organizational freedom, including sufficient independence from cost and schedule when opposed to safety considerations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes to the QAP description that do reduce the commitments must be submitted to the NRC and receive NRC approval prior to implementation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Changes made to the QAP description as presented in the Safety Analysis Report or in a topical report must be submitted as specified in § 53.040.
</P>
<P>(B) The submittal of a change to the Safety Analysis Report QAP description must include all pages affected by that change and must be accompanied by a forwarding letter identifying the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the revised program incorporating the change continues to satisfy the criteria of appendix B to part 50 of this chapter and the Safety Analysis Report QAP description commitments previously accepted by the NRC (the letter need not provide the basis for changes that correct spelling, punctuation, or editorial items).
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the forwarding letter identifying the change must be maintained as a facility record for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(D) Changes to the QAP description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report shall be regarded as accepted by the Commission upon receipt of a letter to this effect from the appropriate reviewing office of the Commission or 60 days after submittal to the Commission, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quality assurance program—siting, construction, and manufacturing.</I> Each holder of an LWA, early site permit, CP, ML, or COL, before the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g) of this chapter, under this part may make a change to a previously accepted QAP description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report without prior NRC approval, provided the change does not reduce the commitments in the program description previously accepted by the NRC. Changes to the QAP description that do not reduce the commitments must be submitted to NRC within 90 days. Changes to the QAP description that reduce the commitments must be submitted to NRC and receive NRC approval before implementation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes to the Safety Analysis Report must be submitted for review as specified in § 53.040. Changes made to NRC-accepted QA topical report descriptions must be submitted as specified in § 53.040.
</P>
<P>(ii) The submittal of a change to the Safety Analysis Report QAP description must include all pages affected by that change and must be accompanied by a forwarding letter identifying the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the revised program incorporating the change continues to satisfy the criteria of appendix B of part 50 of this chapter and the Safety Analysis Report QAP description commitments previously accepted by the NRC (the letter need not provide the basis for changes that correct spelling, punctuation, or editorial items).
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the forwarding letter identifying the changes must be maintained as a facility record for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes to the QAP description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report shall be regarded as accepted by the Commission upon receipt of a letter to this effect from the appropriate reviewing office of the Commission or 60 days after submittal to the Commission, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Emergency preparedness program.</I> (i) Definitions for the purpose of paragraph (d)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Change</I> means an action that results in modification or addition to, or removal from, the licensee's emergency plan. All such changes are subject to the provisions of this section except where the applicable regulations establish specific criteria for accomplishing a particular change.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Emergency plan</I> means the document(s), prepared and maintained by the licensee, that identify and describe the licensee's methods for maintaining emergency preparedness and responding to emergencies. An emergency plan includes the plan as originally approved by the NRC and all subsequent changes made by the licensee with, and without, prior NRC review and approval under paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Emergency planning function</I> means a capability or resource necessary to prepare for and respond to a radiological emergency.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Reduction in effectiveness</I> means a change in an emergency plan that results in reducing the licensee's capability to perform an emergency planning function in the event of a radiological emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, a holder of an OL under this part, or a COL under this part after the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g), must follow and maintain the effectiveness of an emergency plan that meets the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and the planning standards of § 50.47(b).
</P>
<P>(B) A holder of an OL under this part for a commercial nuclear plant consisting of small modular reactors (SMRs) or non-light-water reactors, or a holder of a COL under this part after the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g) for a commercial nuclear plant consisting of either SMRs or non-light-water reactors, must follow and maintain the effectiveness of either an emergency plan that meets the requirements in § 50.160 or an emergency plan that meets the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and the planning standards of § 50.47(b).
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) of this section, the licensee may make changes to its emergency plan without NRC approval only if the licensee performs and retains an analysis demonstrating that the changes do not reduce the effectiveness of the plan and the plan, as changed, continues to meet the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and the planning standards of § 50.47(b).
</P>
<P>(B) A license under this part for a commercial nuclear plant consisting of either SMRs or non-light-water reactors may make changes to its emergency plan without NRC approval only if the licensee performs and retains an analysis demonstrating that the changes do not reduce the effectiveness of the plan and the plan, as changed, continues to meet either the requirements in § 50.160 or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 and the planning standards of § 50.47(b).
</P>
<P>(iv) The changes to a licensee's emergency plan that reduce the effectiveness of the plan as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(D) of this section may not be implemented without prior approval by the NRC. A licensee desiring to make such a change must submit an application for an amendment to its license. In addition to the filing requirements of §§ 53.1510 and 53.1515, the request must include all emergency plan pages affected by that change and must be accompanied by a forwarding letter identifying the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the licensee's emergency plan, as revised, will continue to meet either the requirements in § 50.160 to this chapter or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and the planning standards of § 50.47(b) of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(v) The licensee must retain a record of each change to the emergency plan made without prior NRC approval for a period of three years from the date of the change and shall submit, as specified in § 53.040, a report of each such change, including a summary of its analysis, within 30 days after the change is put in effect.
</P>
<P>(vi) The licensee must retain the emergency plan and each change for which prior NRC approval was obtained pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(iv) of this section as a record until the Commission terminates the license for the nuclear power reactor.
</P>
<P>(vii)(A) The licensee must provide for the development, revision, implementation, and maintenance of its emergency preparedness program. The licensee must ensure that all program elements are reviewed by persons who have no direct responsibility for the implementation of the emergency preparedness program either—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) At intervals not to exceed 12 months; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As necessary, based on an assessment by the licensee against performance indicators, and as soon as reasonably practicable after a change occurs in personnel, procedures, equipment, or facilities that potentially could adversely affect emergency preparedness, but no longer than 12 months after the change. In any case, all elements of the emergency preparedness program must be reviewed at least once every 24 months.
</P>
<P>(B) The review must include an evaluation for adequacy of interfaces with State, participating Tribal, and local governments and of licensee drills, exercises, capabilities, and procedures. The results of the review, along with recommendations for improvements, must be documented, reported to the licensee's corporate and plant management, and retained for a period of 5 years. The part of the review involving the evaluation for adequacy of interface with State, participating Tribal, and local governments must be available to the appropriate State, participating Tribal, and local governments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security programs.</I> (i) The licensee must prepare and maintain safeguards contingency plan procedures in accordance with appendix C of part 73 of this chapter for affecting the actions and decisions contained in the Responsibility Matrix of the safeguards contingency plan. The licensee may not make a change that would decrease the safeguard effectiveness of a physical security plan, or guard training and qualification plan, or cybersecurity plan submitted under subpart H or part 73 of this chapter, or of the first four categories of information (Background, Generic Planning Base, Licensee Planning Base, Responsibility Matrix) contained in a licensee safeguards contingency plan submitted under subpart H or part 73 of this chapter, as applicable, without prior approval of the Commission. A licensee desiring to make such a change must submit an application for amendment to the licensee's license under §§ 53.1510, 53.1515, and 53.1520.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee may make changes to the plans referenced in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section without prior Commission approval if the changes do not decrease the safeguards effectiveness of the plan. The licensee must maintain records of changes to the plans made without prior Commission approval for a period of 3 years from the date of the change, and must submit, as specified in § 53.040, a report containing a description of each change within 2 months after the change is made. Prior to the safeguards contingency plan being put into effect, the licensee must have—
</P>
<P>(A) All safeguards capabilities specified in the safeguards contingency plan available and functional;
</P>
<P>(B) Detailed procedures developed according to appendix C to part 73 of this chapter available at the licensee's site; and
</P>
<P>(C) All appropriate personnel trained to respond to safeguards incidents as outlined in the plan and specified in the detailed procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee must provide for the development, revision, implementation, and maintenance of its safeguards contingency plan. The licensee must ensure that all program elements are reviewed by individuals independent of both security program management and personnel who have direct responsibility for implementation of the security program either—
</P>
<P>(A) At intervals not to exceed 12 months; or
</P>
<P>(B) As necessary, based on an assessment by the licensee against performance indicators, and as soon as reasonably practicable after a change occurs in personnel, procedures, equipment, or facilities that potentially could adversely affect security, but no longer than 12 months after the change. In any case, all elements of the safeguards contingency plan must be reviewed at least once every 24 months.
</P>
<P>(iv) The review must include a review and audit of safeguards contingency procedures and practices, an audit of the security system testing and maintenance program, and a test of the safeguards systems along with commitments established for response by local law enforcement authorities. The results of the review and audit, along with recommendations for improvements, must be documented, reported to the licensee's corporate and plant management, and kept available at the plant for inspection for a period of 3 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1570" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1570   Transfer of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No commercial nuclear plant license issued under this part, or any right thereunder, shall be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license to any person, unless the Commission gives its consent in writing.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An application for transfer of a license must include—
</P>
<P>(i) As much of the information described in §§ 53.1109, 53.1306, 53.1366, and 53.1413 with respect to the identity and technical and financial qualifications of the proposed transferee as would be required by those sections if the application were for an initial license. The Commission may require additional information such as data respecting proposed safeguards against hazards from radioactive materials and the applicant's qualifications to protect against such hazards.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the purposes for which the transfer of the license is requested, the nature of the transaction necessitating or making desirable the transfer of the license, and an agreement to limit access to Restricted Data or Classified National Security Information pursuant to § 53.1115. The Commission may require any person who submits an application for license pursuant to the provisions of this section to file a written consent from the existing licensee or a certified copy of an order or judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction attesting to the person's right (subject to the licensing requirements of the Act and these regulations) to possession of the facility or site involved.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) After appropriate notice to interested persons, including the existing licensee, and observance of such procedures as may be required by the Act or regulations or orders of the Commission, the Commission will approve an application for the transfer of a license, if the Commission determines—
</P>
<P>(1) That the proposed transferee is qualified to be the holder of the license; and
</P>
<P>(2) That transfer of the license is otherwise consistent with applicable provisions of law, regulations, and orders issued by the Commission pursuant thereto.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1575" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1575   Termination of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the holder of an OL or COL under this part has determined to permanently cease operations the licensee must, within 30 days, submit a written certification to the NRC, consistent with the requirements of § 53.1070.
</P>
<P>(b) Once fuel has been permanently removed from the reactor system, the licensee must submit a written certification to the NRC that meets the requirements of § 53.1070.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Upon docketing of the certifications for permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor system, or when a final legally effective order to permanently cease operations has come into effect, the license no longer authorizes operation of the reactor or emplacement or retention of fuel into the reactor system.
</P>
<P>(2) Activities associated with decommissioning will be carried out in accordance with the requirements and procedures in subpart G of this part.


</P>
<P>(3) The Commission shall terminate the license if it determines that—
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining dismantlement has been performed in accordance with the approved license termination plan required in subpart G of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The final radiation survey and associated documentation, including an assessment of dose contributions associated with parts released for use before approval of the license termination plan, demonstrate that the facility and site have met the criteria for decommissioning in subpart E of 10 CFR part 20.
</P>
<P>(d) A holder of a CP or COL under this part may request the termination of the license as well as licenses issued by the NRC under parts 30, 40, or 70 of this chapter prior to plant operations. Such requests may support an immediate NRC approval of the site for unrestricted use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1580" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1580   Information requests.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee under this part must at any time before termination of the license, upon request of the Commission, submit, as specified in § 53.040 written statements, signed under oath or affirmation, to enable the Commission to determine whether or not the license should be modified, suspended, or revoked. Except for information sought to verify licensee compliance with the current licensing basis for that facility, the NRC must prepare the reason or reasons for each information request prior to issuance to ensure that the burden to be imposed on respondents is justified in view of the potential safety significance of the issue to be addressed in the requested information. Each such justification provided for an evaluation performed by the NRC staff must be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee prior to issuance of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1585" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1585   Revocation, suspension, modification of licenses and approvals for cause.</HEAD>
<P>A license or standard design approval issued under this part may be revoked, suspended, or modified, in whole or in part, for any material false statement in the application or in the supplemental or other statement of fact required of the applicant; or because of conditions revealed by the application or statement of fact of any report, record, inspection, or other means which would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license or approval on an original application; or for failure to manufacture a reactor, or construct or operate a facility in accordance with the terms of the license, provided, however, that failure to make timely completion of the proposed construction or alteration of a facility under a CP under this part shall be governed by the provisions of § 53.1342(b); or for violation of, or failure to observe, any of the terms and provisions of the Act, regulations, license, approval, or order of the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1590" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1590   Backfitting.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Backfitting means the modification of or addition to systems, structures, components, or design of a facility; or the design approval for a facility; or the procedures or organization required to design, construct or operate a facility; any of which may result from a new or amended provision in the Commission's regulations or the imposition of a regulatory staff position interpreting the Commission's regulations that is either new or different from a previously applicable staff position after the date of the commercial nuclear plant license issued under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Commission shall require a systematic and documented analysis pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section for backfits which it seeks to impose.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Commission shall require the backfitting of a facility only when it determines, based on the analysis described in paragraph (b) of this section, that there is a substantial increase in the overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the backfit and that the direct and indirect costs of implementation for that facility are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions of paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section are inapplicable and, therefore, backfit analysis is not required and the standards in paragraph (a)(3) of this section do not apply where the Commission or staff, as appropriate, finds and declares, with appropriate documented evaluation for its finding, either—
</P>
<P>(i) That a modification is necessary to bring a facility into compliance with a license or the rules or orders of the Commission, or into conformance with written commitments by the licensee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That regulatory action is necessary to ensure that the facility provides adequate protection to the health and safety of the public and is in accord with the common defense and security; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That the regulatory action involves defining or redefining what level of protection to the public health and safety or common defense and security should be regarded as adequate.
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission must always require the backfitting of a facility if it determines that such regulatory action is necessary to ensure that the facility provides adequate protection to the health and safety of the public and is in accord with the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(6) The documented evaluation required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section must include a statement of the objectives of and reasons for the modification and the basis for invoking the exception. If immediately effective regulatory action is required, then the documented evaluation may follow rather than precede the regulatory action.
</P>
<P>(7) If there are two or more ways to achieve compliance with a license or the rules or orders of the Commission, or with written licensee commitments, or there are two or more ways to reach a level of protection which is adequate, then ordinarily the applicant or licensee is free to choose the way which best suits its purposes. However, should it be necessary or appropriate for the Commission to prescribe a specific way to comply with its requirements or to achieve adequate protection, then cost may be a factor in selecting the way, provided that the objective of compliance or adequate protection is met.
</P>
<P>(b) In reaching the determination required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Commission will consider how the backfit should be scheduled in light of other ongoing regulatory activities at the facility and, in addition, will consider information available concerning any of the following factors as may be appropriate and any other information relevant and material to the proposed backfit:
</P>
<P>(1) The statement of the specific objectives that the proposed backfit is designed to achieve;
</P>
<P>(2) The general description of the activity that would be required by the licensee or applicant in order to complete the backfit;
</P>
<P>(3) The potential change in the risk to the public from the accidental off-site release of radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(4) The potential impact on radiological exposure of facility employees;
</P>
<P>(5) The installation and continuing costs associated with the backfit, including the cost of facility downtime or the cost of construction delay;
</P>
<P>(6) The potential safety impact of changes in plant or operational complexity, including the relationship to proposed and existing regulatory requirements;
</P>
<P>(7) The estimated resource burden on the NRC associated with the proposed backfit and the availability of such resources;
</P>
<P>(8) The potential impact of differences in facility type, design or age on the relevancy and practicality of the proposed backfit;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the proposed backfit is interim or final and, if interim, the justification for imposing the proposed backfit on an interim basis.
</P>
<P>(c) No licensing action will be withheld during the pendency of backfit analyses required by the Commission's rules.
</P>
<P>(d) The Executive Director for Operations shall be responsible for implementation of this section, and all analyses required by this section shall be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1595" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.9.62.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1595   Renewal.</HEAD>
<P>Licenses may be renewed by the Commission upon expiration of the period of the license.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Reporting and Other Administrative Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1600" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1600   General information.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant and licensee under this part must ensure that U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) inspectors have unfettered access to sites and facilities licensed or proposed to be licensed in § 53.1610, must maintain records and make reports to the NRC in accordance with requirements in §§ 53.1620 through 53.1650, must satisfy financial qualification and reporting requirements in §§ 53.1660 through 53.1700, and must obtain and maintain required financial protections in case of an accident in §§ 53.1720 and 53.1730.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1610" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1610   Unfettered access for inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant for or holder of a manufacturing license (ML), operating license (OL), combined license (COL), construction permit (CP), or early site permit must permit inspection, by duly authorized representatives of the Commission, of its records, premises, activities, and of licensed materials in possession or use, related to the license or CP or early site permit as may be necessary to effectuate the purposes of the Atomic Energy Act of 1956, as amended, (the Act) and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each holder of an ML, OL, COL, or CP must, upon request by the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, provide rent-free office space for the exclusive use of the Commission inspection personnel. Heat, air conditioning, light, electrical outlets, and janitorial services must be furnished by each licensee and each holder of a CP. The office must be convenient to and have full access to the facility and must provide the inspectors both visual and acoustic privacy.
</P>
<P>(2) For a site or facility with an assigned resident inspector, the space provided must be adequate to accommodate a full-time inspector, a part-time secretary, and transient NRC personnel and must be generally commensurate with other office facilities at the site. For sites or facilities assigned multiple resident inspectors, additional space may be requested. The office space that is provided must be subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. All furniture, supplies, and communication equipment will be furnished by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) For a site or facility without an assigned resident inspector, temporary space to accommodate periodic or special inspections must be provided. The office space must be generally commensurate with other office accommodations at the site.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee or permit holder must afford any NRC resident inspector assigned to that site, or other NRC inspectors identified by the Regional Administrator as likely to inspect the facility, immediate unfettered access, equivalent to access provided regular plant employees, following proper identification and compliance with applicable access control measures for security, radiological protection, and personal safety.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee or permit holder must ensure that the arrival and presence of an NRC inspector, who has been properly authorized facility access as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, is not announced or otherwise communicated by its employees or contractors to other persons at the facility unless specifically requested by the NRC inspector.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1620" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1620   Maintenance of records, making of reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of an ML, OL, COL, CP, or early site permit must maintain all records and make all reports, in connection with the activity, as may be required by the conditions of the license or permit or by the regulations and orders of the Commission in effectuating the purposes of the Act and the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. Reports must be submitted in accordance with § 53.040.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Records that are required by the regulations in this part, by license condition, or by technical specifications must be retained for the period specified by the appropriate regulation, license condition, or technical specification. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, these records must be retained until the Commission terminates the facility license or, in the case of an early site permit, until the permit expires.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Records which must be retained under this part may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform if the reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability of producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee must maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with, and loss of records.
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a conflict between the Commission's regulations in this part, license condition, or technical specification, or other written Commission approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the retention period specified in the regulations in this part for such records shall apply unless the Commission, under § 53.080 of this part, has granted a specific exemption from the record retention requirements in the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Each licensee must notify the Commission as specified in § 53.040 of this part, of successfully completing power ascension testing or startup testing as applicable within 30 calendar days of completing the testing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1630" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1630   Immediate notification requirements for operating commercial nuclear plants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I>
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (1) Each holder of an OL under this part or a COL under this part after the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g), must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center via the Emergency Notification System (ENS) of—


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Other requirements for immediate notification of the NRC by licensed operating commercial nuclear plants are contained elsewhere in this chapter, in particular §§ 20.1906, 20.2202, 72.216, 73.77, and 73.1200 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The declaration of any of the Emergency Classes specified in the licensee's approved Emergency Plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Those non-emergency events specified in paragraph (b) of this section that occurred within 3 years of the date of discovery.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ENS is inoperative, the licensee must make the required notifications via commercial telephone service, other dedicated telephone system, or any other method which will ensure that a report is made as soon as practical to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee must notify the NRC immediately after notification of the appropriate State or local agencies and not later than 1 hour after the time the licensee declares one of the Emergency Classes.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee must activate the data links with the NRC as specified in their emergency plans after declaring an Emergency Class for events of actual or potential substantial degradation of plant safety or security, probable risk to site personnel life, or site equipment damage caused by hostile action. The data links may also be activated by the licensee during emergency drills or exercises if the licensee's computer system has the capability to transmit the exercise data.
</P>
<P>(5) When making a report under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the licensee must identify—
</P>
<P>(i) The Emergency Class declared; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (b)(1), “One-hour reports,” paragraph (b)(2), “Four-hour reports,” or paragraph (b)(3), “Eight-hour reports,” as the paragraph of this section requiring notification of the non-emergency event.
</P>
<P>(6) In lieu of submitting a report required under paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section through the Emergency Notification System, the licensee may submit the report using other methods, provided the licensee submits the report to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center within the required timeframe and confirms receipt of the report by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-emergency events</I>—(1) <I>One-hour reports.</I> If not reported as a declaration of an Emergency Class under paragraph (a) of this section, the licensee must notify the NRC as soon as practical and in all cases within one hour of the occurrence of any deviation from the plant's Technical Specifications authorized under § 53.740(h) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Four-hour reports.</I> If not reported under paragraphs (a) or (b)(1) of this section, the licensee must notify the NRC as soon as practical, and in all cases within 4 hours of the occurrence of any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The initiation of any commercial nuclear plant shutdown required by the plant's Technical Specifications.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any event or condition that results in actuation of the reactor protection system when the reactor is critical except when the actuation results from and is part of a pre-planned sequence during testing or reactor operation.
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) Any event or condition that results in an unplanned movement of, change of state in, or chemical interaction involving a significant amount of radioactive material within the commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P>(v) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eight-hour reports.</I> If not reported under paragraphs (a), (b)(1), or (b)(2) of this section, the licensee must notify the NRC as soon as practical and in all cases within 8 hours of the occurrence of any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any event or condition that results in—
</P>
<P>(A) The condition of the commercial nuclear plant, including its principal safety barriers, being seriously degraded; or
</P>
<P>(B) The commercial nuclear plant being in a condition not analyzed under § 53.450 that significantly degrades plant safety.
</P>
<P>(ii)-(iv) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(v) Any event that results in a major loss of emergency assessment capability, offsite response capability, or offsite communications capability (<I>e.g.,</I> significant portion of control room indication, ENS, or offsite notification system).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Follow-up notification:</I> With respect to the notifications made under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, in addition to making the required initial notification, each licensee, must during the course of the event—
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately report:
</P>
<P>(i) Any further degradation in the level of safety of the plant or other worsening plant conditions, including those that require the declaration of any of the Emergency Classes, if such a declaration has not been previously made; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any change from one Emergency Class to another; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A termination of the Emergency Class.
</P>
<P>(2) Immediately report:
</P>
<P>(i) The results of ensuing evaluations or assessments of plant conditions,
</P>
<P>(ii) The effectiveness of response or protective measures taken, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Important information related to plant behavior that is not understood.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain an open, continuous communication channel with the NRC Headquarters Operation Center upon request by the NRC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1640" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1640   Licensee event report system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reportable events.</I> (1) Each commercial nuclear plant licensee holding an OL under this part or a COL under this part after the Commission makes the finding under § 53.1452(g), must submit a Licensee Event Report (LER) for any event of the type described in this paragraph (a) within 60 days after discovery of the event. In the case of an invalid actuation reported under § 53.1640(a)(2), other than automatic reactor shutdown when the reactor is critical, the licensee may, at its option, provide a telephone notification to the NRC Operations Center within 60 days after discovery of the event instead of submitting a written LER. Unless otherwise specified in this section, the licensee must report an event if it occurred within 3 years of the date of discovery regardless of the plant mode or power level, and regardless of the significance of the structure, system, or component that initiated the event.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must report—
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The completion of any commercial nuclear plant shutdown required by the plant's Technical Specifications.
</P>
<P>(B) Any operation or condition which was prohibited by the plant's Technical Specifications except when—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Technical Specification is administrative in nature;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The event consisted solely of a case of a late surveillance test where the oversight was corrected, the test was performed, and the equipment was found to be capable of performing its specified safety functions; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Technical Specification was revised prior to discovery of the event such that the operation or condition was no longer prohibited at the time of the event.
</P>
<P>(C) Any deviation from the plant's Technical Specifications authorized under § 53.740(h).
</P>
<P>(ii) Any event or condition that resulted in—
</P>
<P>(A) The condition of the commercial nuclear plant, including its principal safety barriers, being seriously degraded; or
</P>
<P>(B) The commercial nuclear plant being in a condition not analyzed under § 53.450 that significantly degrades plant safety.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any natural phenomena or other external condition that posed an actual threat to the safety of the commercial nuclear plant or significantly hampered site personnel in the performance of duties necessary for the safe operation of the commercial nuclear plant.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any event or condition that resulted in inadvertent operation of any structures, systems, and component classified as safety-related (SR) for an identified safety function under § 53.460 or the unplanned sole reliance on an SR system for those systems that are in constant operation, except when—
</P>
<P>(A) The actuation resulted from and was part of a pre-planned sequence during testing; or
</P>
<P>(B) The actuation was invalid and—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Occurred while the system was properly removed from service; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Occurred after the safety function had been already completed.
</P>
<P>(v) Any event or condition that could have prevented the fulfillment of the safety functions identified under § 53.230.
</P>
<P>(vi) Events covered in paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section may include one or more procedural errors, equipment failures, and/or discovery of design, fabrication, construction, and/or procedural inadequacies. However, individual component failures need not be reported pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section if any other equipment was operable and available to perform the required safety function.
</P>
<P>(vii)(A) Any event or condition that as a result of a single cause could have prevented the fulfillment of any of the safety functions identified under § 53.230.
</P>
<P>(B) Events covered in paragraph (a)(2)(vii)(A) of this section may include cases of procedural error, equipment failure, and/or discovery of a design, analysis, fabrication, construction, and/or procedural inadequacy. However, licensees are not required to report an event pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(vii)(A) of this section if the event results from—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A shared dependency among trains or channels that is a natural or expected consequence of the approved plant design; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Normal and expected wear or degradation.
</P>
<P>(viii)(A) Any airborne radioactive release that, when averaged over a time period of 1-hour, resulted in airborne radionuclide concentrations in an unrestricted area that exceeds 20 times the applicable concentration limits specified in appendix B to 10 CFR part 20, table 2, column 1.
</P>
<P>(B) Any liquid effluent release that, when averaged over a time period of 1-hour, exceeds 20 times the applicable concentrations specified in appendix B to 10 CFR part 20, table 2, column 2, at the point of entry into the receiving waters (<I>i.e.,</I> unrestricted area) for all radionuclides except tritium and dissolved noble gases.
</P>
<P>(ix) Any event that posed an actual threat to the safety of the commercial nuclear plant or significantly hampered site personnel in the performance of duties necessary for the safe operation of the plant, including fires, toxic gas releases, or radioactive releases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The LER must contain—
</P>
<P>(1) A brief abstract describing the major occurrences during the event, including all component or system failures that contributed to the event and significant corrective action taken or planned to prevent recurrence.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A clear, specific narrative description of what occurred so that knowledgeable readers conversant with the design of commercial nuclear plants, but not familiar with the details of a particular plant, can understand the complete event.
</P>
<P>(ii) The narrative description must include the following specific information as appropriate for the particular event:
</P>
<P>(A) Plant operating conditions before the event.
</P>
<P>(B) Status of systems, structures, or components that were inoperable at the start of the event and that contributed to the event.
</P>
<P>(C) Dates and approximate time of the occurrences.
</P>
<P>(D) The cause of each component or system failure or personnel error, if known.
</P>
<P>(E) The failure mode, mechanism, and effect of each failed component, if known.
</P>
<P>(F) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(G) For failures of components with multiple functions, include a list of systems or secondary functions that were also affected.


</P>
<P>(H) For failure that rendered a component or system classified as SR or non-safety-related but safety-significant inoperable, an estimate of the elapsed time from the discovery of the failure until the component or system was returned to service.
</P>
<P>(I) The method of discovery of each component or system failure or procedural error.
</P>
<P>(J) For each human performance related root cause, the licensee must discuss the cause(s) and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(K) Automatically and manually initiated safety system responses.
</P>
<P>(L) The manufacturer and model number (or other identification) of each component that failed during the event.
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of the safety consequences and implications of the event. This assessment must include—
</P>
<P>(i) The availability of systems or components that could have performed the same function as the components and systems that failed during the event, and
</P>
<P>(ii) For events that occurred when the reactor was shut down, the availability of systems or components that are needed to shut down the reactor and maintain safe shutdown conditions, remove residual heat, control the release of radioactive material, or mitigate the consequences of an accident.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of any corrective actions planned as a result of the event, including those to reduce the probability of similar events occurring in the future.
</P>
<P>(5) Reference to any previous similar events at the same plant that are known to the licensee.
</P>
<P>(6) The name and contact information of a person within the licensee's organization who is knowledgeable about the event and can provide additional information concerning the event and the plant's characteristics.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplemental information.</I> The Commission may require the licensee to submit specific additional information beyond that required by paragraph (b) of this section if the Commission finds that supplemental material is necessary for complete understanding of an unusually complex or significant event. These requests for supplemental information will be made in writing and the licensee must submit, as specified in § 53.040, the requested information as a supplement to the initial LER.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of reports.</I> Licensee Event Reports must be prepared on NRC Form 366 and submitted to the NRC, as specified in § 53.040.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Report legibility.</I> The reports and copies that licensees are required to submit to the Commission under the provisions of this section must be of sufficient quality to permit legible reproduction and micrographic processing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1645" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1645   Reports of radiation exposure to members of the public.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of an OL, and each holder of a COL after the Commission has made the finding under § 53.1452(g), must submit radiological reports as required by 10 CFR part 20, as well as an Annual Radioactive Effluent Release Report and an Annual Radiological Environmental Operating Report. The Annual Radioactive Effluent Release Report must specify the quantity of each of the principal radionuclides released to unrestricted areas in liquid and in gaseous effluents and an estimate of the dose received by the maximally exposed member of the public in an unrestricted area from effluents and direct radiation from contained sources during the previous calendar year. The Annual Radiological Environmental Operating Report must provide data on measurable levels of radiation and radioactive materials in the environment, must include an evaluation of the relationship between quantities of radioactive material released in effluents and resultant radiation doses to individuals from principal pathways of exposure, and must include the results of environmental monitoring during the previous calendar year. These reports must also include any other information as may be required by the Commission to estimate maximum potential annual radiation doses to the public. The reports must be submitted as specified in § 53.040 by May 15 of each successive year. If the total effective dose equivalent to members of the public in unrestricted areas during the reporting period is greater than the design objectives established under § 53.425, the report must specify the causes for exceeding the design objective and describe any corrective actions. On the basis of these reports and any additional information the Commission may obtain from the licensee or others, the Commission may require the licensee to take action as the Commission deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) If during any calendar quarter the radiation exposure to a member of the public in the unrestricted areas, calculated on the same basis as the respective design objective exposure, exceeds one-half of the annual design objective exposure, the licensee must submit a report as specified in § 53.040. The report shall specify the causes for exceeding one-half the annual design objective exposure in a quarter and describe corrective actions that the licensee will take to maintain radiation exposure to levels within the design objectives for the remainder of the year. The report shall be submitted within 30 days from the end of the quarter when one-half of the annual design objective exposure was exceeded.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1650" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1650   Facility information and verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for a CP or license and each recipient of a CP or a license must submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Design Information Questionnaire forms and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(b) As required by the Additional Protocol, must submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; and
</P>
<P>(c) Must permit verification thereof by the IAEA and take other action as necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1660" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1660   Financial requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1670 through 53.1700 set out the requirements and procedures related to financial qualifications and related reporting requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1670" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1670   Financial qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>Except for an electric utility applicant for a license to operate a commercial nuclear plant, an applicant for a CP, OL, or COL under this part must appear to be financially qualified for the activities for which the permit or license is sought.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1680" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1680   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1690" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1690   Licensee's change of status; financial qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An electric utility licensee holding an OL or COL (including a renewed license) for a commercial nuclear plant, no later than seventy-five (75) days prior to ceasing to be an electric utility in any manner not involving a license transfer under § 53.1399 or § 53.1456 must provide the NRC with the financial qualifications information that would be required for obtaining an initial OL under this part. The financial qualifications information must address the first full 5 years of operation after the date the licensee ceases to be an electric utility.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any holder of a license issued under this part must notify the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any chapter of title 11 (Bankruptcy) of the United States Code by or against—
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee;
</P>
<P>(ii) An entity (as 11 U.S.C. 101(14) defines that term) controlling the licensee or listing the license or licensee as property of the estate; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An affiliate (as 11 U.S.C. 101(2) defines that term) of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) This notification must indicate—
</P>
<P>(i) The bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the filing of the petition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1700" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1700   Creditor regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 184 of the Act, the Commission consents, without individual application, to the creation of any mortgage, pledge, or other lien upon any facility not owned by the United States which is the subject of a license or upon any leasehold or other interest in such facility; provided—
</P>
<P>(1) That the rights of any creditor so secured may be exercised only in compliance with and subject to the same requirements and restrictions as would apply to the licensee pursuant to the provisions of the license, the Act, and regulations issued by the Commission under the Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) That no creditor so secured may take possession of the facility pursuant to the provisions of this section prior to either the issuance of a license from the Commission authorizing such possession or the transfer of the license.
</P>
<P>(b) Any creditor so secured may apply for transfer of the license covering such facility by filing an application for transfer of the license under § 53.1570. The Commission will act upon such application under subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing contained in this regulation shall be deemed to affect the means of acquiring, or the priority of, any tax lien or other lien provided by law.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this section—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>License</I> includes any license under this part, which may be issued by the Commission with regard to a facility.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Creditor</I> includes, without implied limitation, the trustee under any mortgage, pledge or lien on a facility made to secure any creditor, any trustee or receiver of the facility appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction in any action brought for the benefit of any creditor secured by such mortgage, pledge or lien, any purchaser of such facility at the sale thereof upon foreclosure of such mortgage, pledge, or lien or upon exercise of any power of sale contained therein, or any assignee of any such purchaser.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facility</I> includes, but is not limited to, a site which is the subject of an early site permit under this part, and a reactor manufactured under an ML under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1710" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1710   Financial protection.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 53.1720 and 53.1730 set out the requirements and procedures related to licensees obtaining and maintaining insurance to cover stabilization and decontamination activities in the event of an accident and financial protection in accordance with part 140, “Financial Protection Requirements and Indemnity Agreements,” of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1720" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1720   Insurance required to stabilize and decontaminate plant following an accident.</HEAD>
<P>Each commercial nuclear plant licensee under this part must take reasonable steps to obtain insurance available at reasonable costs and on reasonable terms from private sources or to demonstrate that it possesses an equivalent amount of protection covering the licensee's obligation, in the event of an accident at the licensee's commercial nuclear reactor, to stabilize and decontaminate the plant and the plant site at which such an accident may occur, provided that—
</P>
<P>(a) The insurance required by this section must have a minimum coverage limit for each commercial nuclear plant site of $1.06 billion, an amount based on plant-specific estimates of costs to stabilize and decontaminate a plant, or whatever amount of insurance is generally available from private sources, whichever is less. The required insurance must clearly state that, as and to the extent provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, any proceeds must be payable first for stabilization of the plant and next for decontamination of the plant and the plant site. If a licensee's coverage falls below the required minimum, the licensee must within 60 days take all reasonable steps to restore its coverage to the required minimum. The required insurance may, at the option of the licensee, be included within policies that also provide coverage for other risks, including, but not limited to, the risk of direct physical damage.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) With respect to policies issued or annually renewed, the proceeds of such required insurance must be dedicated, as and to the extent provided in this paragraph (b), to reimbursement or payment on behalf of the insured of reasonable expenses incurred or estimated to be incurred by the licensee in taking action to fulfill the licensee's obligation, in the event of an accident at the licensee's plant, to ensure that the plant is in, or is returned to, and maintained in, a safe and stable condition and that radioactive contamination is removed or controlled such that personnel exposures are consistent with the occupational exposure limits in 10 CFR part 20. These actions must be consistent with any other obligation the licensee may have under this chapter and must be subject to paragraph (d) of this section. As used in this section, an “accident” means an event that involves the release of radioactive material from its intended place of confinement within the commercial nuclear plant such that there is a present danger of release off site in amounts that would pose a threat to the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(2) The stabilization and decontamination requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section must apply uniformly to all insurance policies required under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall report to the NRC on April 1 of each year the current levels of this insurance or financial security it maintains and the sources of this insurance or financial security.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) In the event of an accident at the licensee's plant, whenever the estimated costs of stabilizing the licensed plant and of decontaminating the plant and the plant site exceed one tenth of the minimum insurance under paragraph (a) of this section, the proceeds of the insurance required by this section must be dedicated to and used, first, to ensure that the licensed plant is in, or is returned to, and can be maintained in, a safe and stable condition so as to prevent any significant risk to the public health and safety and, second, to decontaminate the plant and the plant site in accordance with the licensee's cleanup plan as approved by order of the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation. This priority on insurance proceeds must remain in effect for 60 days or, upon order of the Director, for such longer periods, in increments not to exceed 60 days except as provided for activities under the cleanup plan required in paragraphs (d)(3) and (d)(4) of this section, as the Director may find necessary to protect the public health and safety. Actions needed to bring the plant to and maintain the plant in a safe and stable condition may include one or more of the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Shutdown of the reactor(s) and other processes at the plant;


</P>
<P>(ii) Establishment and maintenance of long-term cooling with stable decay heat removal;
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintenance of sub-criticality;
</P>
<P>(iv) Control of radioactive releases; and
</P>
<P>(v) Securing of structures, systems, or components to minimize radiation exposure to onsite personnel or to the offsite public or to facilitate later decontamination or both.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must inform the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation in writing when the plant is and can be maintained in a safe and stable condition so as to prevent any significant risk to the public health and safety. Within 30 days after the licensee informs the Director that the plant is in this condition, or at such earlier time as the licensee may elect or the Director may for good cause direct, the licensee must prepare and submit a cleanup plan for the Director's approval. The cleanup plan must identify and contain an estimate of the cost of each cleanup operation that will be required to decontaminate the reactor sufficiently to permit the licensee either to resume operation of the reactor or to apply to the Commission under subpart G of this part for authority to decommission the reactor and to surrender the license voluntarily. Cleanup operations may include one or more of the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) Processing any contaminated materials generated by the accident and by decontamination operations to remove radioactive materials;
</P>
<P>(ii) Decontamination of surfaces inside the plant buildings to levels consistent with the Commission's occupational exposure limits in 10 CFR part 20, and decontamination or disposal of equipment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Decontamination or removal and disposal of internal parts, damaged fuel from the reactor coolant or fuel systems, or related process or waste systems; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Cleanup of the reactor coolant or fuel systems or related process or waste systems.
</P>
<P>(3) Following review of the licensee's cleanup plan, the Director will order the licensee to complete all operations that the Director finds are necessary to decontaminate the reactor sufficiently to permit the licensee either to resume operation of the reactor or to apply to the Commission under subpart G of this part for authority to decommission the reactor and to surrender the license voluntarily. The Director must approve or disapprove, in whole or in part for stated reasons, the licensee's estimate of cleanup costs for such operations. Such order may not be effective for more than one year, at which time it may be renewed. Each subsequent renewal order, if imposed, may be effective for not more than 6 months.
</P>
<P>(4) Of the balance of the proceeds of the required insurance not already expended to place the plant in a safe and stable condition under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an amount sufficient to cover the expenses of completion of those decontamination operations that are the subject of the Director's order must be dedicated to such use, provided that, upon certification to the Director of the amounts expended previously and from time to time for stabilization and decontamination and upon further certification to the Director as to the sufficiency of the dedicated amount remaining, policies of insurance may provide for payment to the licensee or other loss payees of amounts not so dedicated, and the licensee may proceed to use in parallel (and not in preference thereto) any insurance proceeds not so dedicated for other purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.1730" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.10.62.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1730   Financial protection requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Commercial nuclear plant licensees must satisfy the applicable provisions of part 140, “Financial Protection Requirements and Indemnity Agreements,” of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts K-L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.9000" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.12.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.9000   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act);
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued under those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under Section 234 of the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.9010" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.3.12.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.9010   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Act provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 53 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in 10 CFR part 53 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 53.000, 53.015, 53.020, 53.040, 53.080, 53.090, 53.100, 53.110, 53.120, 53.600, 53.725, 53.726, 53.735, 53.760, 53.775, 53.790, 53.795, 53.820, 53.910, 53.1000, 53.1050, 53.1100, 53.1103, 53.1106, 53.1109, 53.1112, 53.1115, 53.1118, 53.1120, 53.1121, 53.1124, 53.1140, 53.1144, 53.1146, 53.1149, 53.1155, 53.1158, 53.1164, 53.1170, 53.1173, 53.1176, 53.1179, 53.1188, 53.1200, 53.1206, 53.1209, 53.1210, 53.1212, 53.1215, 53.1218, 53.1221, 53.1230, 53.1236, 53.1239, 53.1241, 53.1242, 53.1245, 53.1248, 53.1251, 53.1254, 52.1257, 52.1260, 53.1263, 53.1270, 53.1276, 53.1279, 53.1282, 53.1285, 53.1286, 53.1287, 53.1288, 53.1291, 53.1293, 53.1295, 53.1300, 53.1306, 53.1309, 53.1312, 53.1315, 53.1318, 53.1324, 53.1330, 53.1333, 53.1336, 53.1348, 53.1360, 53.1366, 53.1369, 53.1372, 53.1375, 53.1381, 53.1384, 53.1387, 53.1390, 53.1396, 53.1401, 53.1405, 53.1410, 53.1416, 53.1419, 53.1422, 53.1425, 53.1431, 53.1437, 53.1440, 53.1443, 53.1452, 53.1455, 53.1456, 53.1458, 53.1461, 53.1470, 53.1500, 53.1510, 53.1515, 53.1520, 53.1525, 53.1530, 53.1535, 53.1540, 53.1560, 53.1585, 53.1590, 53.1595, 53.1600, 53.1660, 53.1670, 53.1700, 53.1710, 53.1730, 53.9000, 53.9010.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="54" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 54—REQUIREMENTS FOR RENEWAL OF OPERATING LICENSES FOR NUCLEAR POWER PLANTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 102, 103, 104, 161, 181, 182, 183, 186, 189, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2132, 2133, 2134, 2136, 2137, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2236, 2239, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note. Section 54.17 also issued under E.O. 12829, 58 FR 3479, 3 CFR, 1993 Comp., p. 570; E.O. 13526, 75 FR 707, 3 CFR, 2009 Comp., p. 298; E.O. 12968, 60 FR 40245, 3 CFR, 1995 Comp., p. 391; ADVANCE Act of 2024, sec. 301 (42 U.S.C. 2133 note).




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part governs the issuance of renewed operating licenses and renewed combined licenses for nuclear power plants licensed pursuant to Sections 103 or 104b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1242).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49560, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part, 
</P>
<P><I>Current licensing basis</I> (CLB) is the set of NRC requirements applicable to a specific plant and a licensee's written commitments for ensuring compliance with and operation within applicable NRC requirements and the plant-specific design basis (including all modifications and additions to such commitments over the life of the license) that are docketed and in effect. The CLB includes the NRC regulations contained in 10 CFR parts 2, 19, 20, 21, 26, 30, 40, 50, 51, 52, 54, 55, 70, 72, 73, 100 and appendices thereto; orders; license conditions; exemptions; and technical specifications. It also includes the plant-specific design-basis information defined in 10 CFR 50.2 as documented in the most recent final safety analysis report (FSAR) as required by 10 CFR 50.71 and the licensee's commitments remaining in effect that were made in docketed licensing correspondence such as licensee responses to NRC bulletins, generic letters, and enforcement actions, as well as licensee commitments documented in NRC safety evaluations or licensee event reports.
</P>
<P><I>Integrated plant assessment</I> (IPA) is a licensee assessment that demonstrates that a nuclear power plant facility's structures and components requiring aging management review in accordance with § 54.21(a) for license renewal have been identified and that the effects of aging on the functionality of such structures and components will be managed to maintain the CLB such that there is an acceptable level of safety during the period of extended operation. 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear power plant</I> means a nuclear power facility of a type described in 10 CFR 50.21(b) or 50.22.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed combined license</I> means a combined license originally issued under part 52 of this chapter for which an application for renewal is filed in accordance with 10 CFR 52.107 and issued under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Time-limited aging analyses,</I> for the purposes of this part, are those licensee calculations and analyses that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Involve systems, structures, and components within the scope of license renewal, as delineated in § 54.4(a); 
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the effects of aging; 
</P>
<P>(3) Involve time-limited assumptions defined by the current operating term, for example, 40 years; 
</P>
<P>(4) Were determined to be relevant by the licensee in making a safety determination; 
</P>
<P>(5) Involve conclusions or provide the basis for conclusions related to the capability of the system, structure, and component to perform its intended functions, as delineated in § 54.4(b); and 
</P>
<P>(6) Are contained or incorporated by reference in the CLB. 
</P>
<P>(b) All other terms in this part have the same meanings as set out in 10 CFR 50.2 or Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, as amended at 72 FR 49560, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.4   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Plant systems, structures, and components within the scope of this part are—
</P>
<P>(1) Safety-related systems, structures, and components which are those relied upon to remain functional during and following design-basis events (as defined in 10 CFR 50.49 (b)(1)) to ensure the following functions—
</P>
<P>(i) The integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents which could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to those referred to in § 50.34(a)(1), § 50.67(b)(2), or § 100.11 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) All nonsafety-related systems, structures, and components whose failure could prevent satisfactory accomplishment of any of the functions identified in paragraphs (a)(1) (i), (ii), or (iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) All systems, structures, and components relied on in safety analyses or plant evaluations to perform a function that demonstrates compliance with the Commission's regulations for fire protection (10 CFR 50.48), environmental qualification (10 CFR 50.49), pressurized thermal shock (10 CFR 50.61), anticipated transients without scram (10 CFR 50.62), and station blackout (10 CFR 50.63). 
</P>
<P>(b) The intended functions that these systems, structures, and components must be shown to fulfill in § 54.21 are those functions that are the bases for including them within the scope of license renewal as specified in paragraphs (a) (1)-(3) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, as amended at 61 FR 65175, Dec. 11, 1996; 64 FR 72002, Dec. 23, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, as amended at 90 FR 55631, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.7   Written communications.</HEAD>
<P>All applications, correspondence, reports, and other written communications shall be filed in accordance with applicable portions of 10 CFR 50.4. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.9   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501, <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0155.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 54.13, 54.15, 54.17, 54.19, 54.21, 54.22, 54.23, 54.33, and 54.37.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 52188, Oct. 6, 1997; 67 FR 67100, Nov. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.11   Public inspection of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications and documents submitted to the Commission in connection with renewal applications may be made available for public inspection in accordance with the provisions of the regulations contained in 10 CFR part 2. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.13   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a renewed license or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant must be complete and accurate in all material respects. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant as having, for the regulated activity, a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant violates this paragraph only if the applicant fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification must be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate regional office within 2 working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information that is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.15   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Exemptions from the requirements of this part may be granted by the Commission in accordance with 10 CFR 50.12. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.17   Filing of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The filing of an application for a renewed license must be in accordance with subpart A of 10 CFR part 2 and 10 CFR 50.4 and 50.30. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person, except one excluded by 10 CFR 50.38, may file an application for a renewed license under this subpart with the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) An application for a renewed license may not be submitted to the Commission earlier than 20 years before the expiration of the operating license or combined license currently in effect.
</P>
<P>(d) An applicant may combine an application for a renewed license with applications for other kinds of licenses. 
</P>
<P>(e) An application may incorporate by reference information contained in previous applications for licenses or license amendments, statements, correspondence, or reports filed with the Commission, provided that the references are clear and specific. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the application contains Restricted Data or classified National Security Information, it must be prepared in such a manner that all Restricted Data and classified National Security Information are separated from unclassified information in accordance with 10 CFR 50.33(j). 
</P>
<P>(g) As part of its application, and in any event before the receipt of Restricted Data or classified National Security Information or the issuance of a renewed license, the applicant shall agree in writing that it will not permit any individual to have access to or any facility to possess Restricted Data or classified National Security Information until the individual and/or facility has been approved for such access under the provisions of 10 CFR parts 25 and/or 95. The agreement of the applicant in this regard shall be deemed part of the renewed license, whether so stated therein or not.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 17690, Apr. 11, 1997; 72 FR 49560, Aug. 28, 2007; 89 FR 57721, July 16, 2024; 91 FR 21723, Apr. 23, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.19   Contents of application—general information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application must provide the information specified in 10 CFR 50.33 (a) through (e), (h), and (i). Alternatively, the application may incorporate by reference other documents that provide the information required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each application must include conforming changes to the standard indemnity agreement, 10 CFR 140.92, Appendix B, to account for the expiration term of the proposed renewed license. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.21   Contents of application—technical information.</HEAD>
<P>Each application must contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>An integrated plant assessment (IPA).</I> The IPA must—
</P>
<P>(1) For those systems, structures, and components within the scope of this part, as delineated in § 54.4, identify and list those structures and components subject to an aging management review. Structures and components subject to an aging management review shall encompass those structures and components—
</P>
<P>(i) That perform an intended function, as described in § 54.4, without moving parts or without a change in configuration or properties. These structures and components include, but are not limited to, the reactor vessel, the reactor coolant system pressure boundary, steam generators, the pressurizer, piping, pump casings, valve bodies, the core shroud, component supports, pressure retaining boundaries, heat exchangers, ventilation ducts, the containment, the containment liner, electrical and mechanical penetrations, equipment hatches, seismic Category I structures, electrical cables and connections, cable trays, and electrical cabinets, excluding, but not limited to, pumps (except casing), valves (except body), motors, diesel generators, air compressors, snubbers, the control rod drive, ventilation dampers, pressure transmitters, pressure indicators, water level indicators, switchgears, cooling fans, transistors, batteries, breakers, relays, switches, power inverters, circuit boards, battery chargers, and power supplies; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) That are not subject to replacement based on a qualified life or specified time period. 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe and justify the methods used in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) For each structure and component identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, demonstrate that the effects of aging will be adequately managed so that the intended function(s) will be maintained consistent with the CLB for the period of extended operation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CLB changes during NRC review of the application.</I> Each year following submittal of the license renewal application and at least 3 months before scheduled completion of the NRC review, an amendment to the renewal application must be submitted that identifies any change to the CLB of the facility that materially affects the contents of the license renewal application, including the FSAR supplement. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>An evaluation of time-limited aging analyses.</I> (1) A list of time-limited aging analyses, as defined in § 54.3, must be provided. The applicant shall demonstrate that—
</P>
<P>(i) The analyses remain valid for the period of extended operation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The analyses have been projected to the end of the period of extended operation; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The effects of aging on the intended function(s) will be adequately managed for the period of extended operation. 
</P>
<P>(2) A list must be provided of plant-specific exemptions granted pursuant to 10 CFR 50.12 and in effect that are based on time-limited aging analyses as defined in § 54.3. The applicant shall provide an evaluation that justifies the continuation of these exemptions for the period of extended operation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>An FSAR supplement.</I> The FSAR supplement for the facility must contain a summary description of the programs and activities for managing the effects of aging and the evaluation of time-limited aging analyses for the period of extended operation determined by paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, respectively. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.22   Contents of application—technical specifications.</HEAD>
<P>Each application must include any technical specification changes or additions necessary to manage the effects of aging during the period of extended operation as part of the renewal application. The justification for changes or additions to the technical specifications must be contained in the license renewal application. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.23   Contents of application—environmental information.</HEAD>
<P>Each application must include a supplement to the environmental report that complies with the requirements of subpart A of 10 CFR part 51. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.25   Report of the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>Each renewal application will be referred to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards for a review and report. Any report will be made part of the record of the application and made available to the public, except to the extent that security classification prevents disclosure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.27   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>A notice of an opportunity for a hearing will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with 10 CFR 2.105 and 2.309. In the absence of a request for a hearing filed within 60 days by a person whose interest may be affected, the Commission may issue a renewed operating license or renewed combined license without a hearing upon a 30-day notice and publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of its intent to do so.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 46600, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.29" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.29   Standards for issuance of a renewed license.</HEAD>
<P>A renewed license may be issued by the Commission up to the full term authorized by § 54.31 if the Commission finds that: 
</P>
<P>(a) Actions have been identified and have been or will be taken with respect to the matters identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, such that there is reasonable assurance that the activities authorized by the renewed license will continue to be conducted in accordance with the CLB, and that any changes made to the plant's CLB in order to comply with this paragraph are in accord with the Act and the Commission's regulations. These matters are: 
</P>
<P>(1) managing the effects of aging during the period of extended operation on the functionality of structures and components that have been identified to require review under § 54.21(a)(1); and 
</P>
<P>(2) time-limited aging analyses that have been identified to require review under § 54.21(c). 
</P>
<P>(b) Any applicable requirements of subpart A of 10 CFR part 51 have been satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any matters raised under § 2.335 have been addressed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 2279, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.30" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.30   Matters not subject to a renewal review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the reviews required by § 54.21 (a) or (c) show that there is not reasonable assurance during the current license term that licensed activities will be conducted in accordance with the CLB, then the licensee shall take measures under its current license, as appropriate, to ensure that the intended function of those systems, structures or components will be maintained in accordance with the CLB throughout the term of its current license. 
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee's compliance with the obligation under Paragraph (a) of this section to take measures under its current license is not within the scope of the license renewal review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.31   Issuance of a renewed license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A renewed license will be of the class for which the operating license or combined license currently in effect was issued.
</P>
<P>(b) A renewed license will be issued for a fixed period of time, which is the sum of the additional amount of time beyond the expiration of the operating license or combined license (not to exceed 20 years) that is requested in a renewal application plus the remaining number of years on the operating license or combined license currently in effect. The term of any renewed license may not exceed 40 years.
</P>
<P>(c) A renewed license will become effective immediately upon its issuance, thereby superseding the operating license or combined license previously in effect. If a renewed license is subsequently set aside upon further administrative or judicial appeal, the operating license or combined license previously in effect will be reinstated unless its term has expired and the renewal application was not filed in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(d) A renewed license may be subsequently renewed in accordance with all applicable requirements. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, as amended at 72 FR 49560, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.33   Continuation of CLB and conditions of renewed license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whether stated therein or not, each renewed license will contain and otherwise be subject to the conditions set forth in 10 CFR 50.54. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each renewed license will be issued in such form and contain such conditions and limitations, including technical specifications, as the Commission deems appropriate and necessary to help ensure that systems, structures, and components subject to review in accordance with § 54.21 will continue to perform their intended functions for the period of extended operation. In addition, the renewed license will be issued in such form and contain such conditions and limitations as the Commission deems appropriate and necessary to help ensure that systems, structures, and components associated with any time-limited aging analyses will continue to perform their intended functions for the period of extended operation. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each renewed license will include those conditions to protect the environment that were imposed pursuant to 10 CFR 50.36b and that are part of the CLB for the facility at the time of issuance of the renewed license. These conditions may be supplemented or amended as necessary to protect the environment during the term of the renewed license and will be derived from information contained in the supplement to the environmental report submitted pursuant to 10 CFR part 51, as analyzed and evaluated in the NRC record of decision. The conditions will identify the obligations of the licensee in the environmental area, including, as appropriate, requirements for reporting and recordkeeping of environmental data and any conditions and monitoring requirements for the protection of the nonaquatic environment. 
</P>
<P>(d) The licensing basis for the renewed license includes the CLB, as defined in § 54.3(a); the inclusion in the licensing basis of matters such as licensee commitments does not change the legal status of those matters unless specifically so ordered pursuant to paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.35   Requirements during term of renewed license.</HEAD>
<P>During the term of a renewed license, licensees shall be subject to and shall continue to comply with all Commission regulations contained in 10 CFR parts 2, 19, 20, 21, 26, 30, 40, 50, 51, 52, 54, 55, 70, 72, 73, and 100, and the appendices to these parts that are applicable to holders of operating licenses or combined licenses, respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49560, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.37" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.37   Additional records and recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall retain in an auditable and retrievable form for the term of the renewed operating license or renewed combined license all information and documentation required by, or otherwise necessary to document compliance with, the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) After the renewed license is issued, the FSAR update required by 10 CFR 50.71(e) must include any systems, structures, and components newly identified that would have been subject to an aging management review or evaluation of time-limited aging analyses in accordance with § 54.21. This FSAR update must describe how the effects of aging will be managed such that the intended function(s) in § 54.4(b) will be effectively maintained during the period of extended operation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 22491, May 8, 1995, as amended at 72 FR 49560, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.41   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of the following acts—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended or 
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those acts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act—
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of the following—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under Section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 54.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.4.0.62.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 54.43   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violations of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 54 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 54 that are not issued under Sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of Section 223 are as follows: §§ 54.1, 54.3, 54.4, 54.5, 54.7, 54.9, 54.11, 54.15, 54.17, 54.19, 54.21, 54.22, 54.23, 54.25, 54.27, 54.29, 54.31, 54.41, and 54.43.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 55—OPERATORS' LICENSES 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 107, 161, 181, 182, 183, 186, 187, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2137, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2236, 2237, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, sec. 306 (42 U.S.C. 10226); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 55 appear at 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish procedures and criteria for the issuance of licenses to operators and senior operators of utilization facilities licensed under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or Section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and part 50, part 52, or part 54 of this chapter,
</P>
<P>(b) Provide for the terms and conditions upon which the Commission will issue or modify these licenses, and
</P>
<P>(c) Provide for the terms and conditions to maintain and renew these licenses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 72 FR 49560, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to—
</P>
<P>(a) Any individual who manipulates the controls of any utilization facility licensed under parts 50, 52, or 54 of this chapter,
</P>
<P>(b) Any individual designated by a facility licensee to be responsible for directing any licensed activity of a licensed operator.
</P>
<P>(c) Any facility license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 5938, Feb. 9, 1994; 72 FR 49560, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.3   License requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A person must be authorized by a license issued by the Commission to perform the function of an operator or a senior operator as defined in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, including any amendments to the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Actively performing the functions of an operator or senior operator</I> means that an individual has a position on the shift crew that requires the individual to be licensed as defined in the facility's technical specifications, and that the individual carries out and is responsible for the duties covered by that position.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Controls</I> when used with respect to a nuclear reactor means apparatus and mechanisms the manipulation of which directly affects the reactivity or power level of the reactor.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means any utilization facility as defined in part 50 of this chapter. In cases for which a license is issued for operation of two or more facilities, <I>facility</I> means all facilities identified in the license.
</P>
<P><I>Facility licensee</I> means an applicant for or holder of a license for a facility.
</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means an individual licensed operator or senior operator.
</P>
<P><I>Operator</I> means any individual licensed under this part to manipulate a control of a facility.
</P>
<P><I>Performance testing</I> means testing conducted to verify a simulation facility's performance as compared to actual or predicted reference plant performance.
</P>
<P><I>Physician</I> means an individual licensed by a State or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico to dispense drugs in the practice of medicine.
</P>
<P><I>Plant-referenced simulator</I> means a simulator modeling the systems of the reference plant with which the operator interfaces in the control room, including operating consoles, and which permits use of the reference plant's procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Reference plant</I> means the specific nuclear power plant from which a simulation facility's control room configuration, system control arrangement, and design data are derived.
</P>
<P><I>Senior operator</I> means any individual licensed under this part to manipulate the controls of a facility and to direct the licensed activities of licensed operators.
</P>
<P><I>Simulation facility</I> means one or more of the following components, alone or in combination: used for either the partial conduct of operating tests for operators, senior operators, and license applicants, or to establish on-the-job training and experience prerequisites for operator license eligibility:
</P>
<P>(1) A plant-referenced simulator;
</P>
<P>(2) A Commission-approved simulator under § 55.46(b); or
</P>
<P>(3) Another simulation device, including part-task and limited scope simulation devices, approved under § 55.46(b).
</P>
<P><I>Systems approach to training</I> means a training program that includes the following five elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Systematic analysis of the jobs to be performed.
</P>
<P>(2) Learning objectives derived from the analysis which describe desired performance after training. 
</P>
<P>(3) Training design and implementation based on the learning objectives. 
</P>
<P>(4) Evaluation of trainee mastery of the objectives during training. 
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluation and revision of the training based on the performance of trained personnel in the job setting. 
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 66 FR 52667, Oct. 17, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided under a regional licensing program identified in paragraph (b) of this section, an applicant or licensee or facility licensee shall submit any communication or report concerning the regulations in this part and shall submit any application filed under these regulations to the Commission as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) By mail addressed to—Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; or
</P>
<P>(2) By delivery in person to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, or 
</P>
<P>(3) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I>; by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, has delegated to the Regional Administrators of Regions I, II, III, and IV authority and responsibility under the regulations in this part for the issuance and renewal of licenses for operators and senior operators of nuclear power reactors licensed under 10 CFR part 50 or part 52 of this chapter and located in these regions.
</P>
<P>(2) Any application for a license or license renewal filed under the regulations in this part involving a nuclear power reactor licensed under 10 CFR part 50 or part 52 of this chapter and any related inquiry, communication, information, or report must be submitted to the Regional Administrator by an appropriate method listed in paragraph (a) of this section. The Regional Administrator or the Administrator's designee will transmit to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, any matter that is not within the scope of the Regional Administrator's delegated authority.
</P>
<P>(i) If the nuclear power reactor is located in Region I, submissions must be made to the Regional Administrator of Region I. Submissions by mail or hand delivery must be addressed to the Administrator at U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415; where email is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn1MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) If the nuclear power reactor is located in Region II, submissions must be made to the Regional Administrator of Region II. Submissions by mail or hand delivery must be addressed to the Regional Administrator at U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 245 Peachtree Center Avenue, NE., Suite 1200, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-1257. Where e-mail is appropriate, it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn2MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) If the nuclear power reactor is located in Region III, submissions must be made to the Regional Administrator of Region III. Submissions by mail or hand delivery must be addressed to the Administrator at U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352; where e-mail is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn3MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) If the nuclear power reactor is located in Region IV, submissions must be made to the Regional Administrator of Region IV. Submission by mail or hand delivery must be addressed to the Administrator at U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511; where email is appropriate, it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Any application for a license or license renewal filed under the regulations in this part and all other submissions involving a utilization facility licensed under part 50 of this chapter that is not a power reactor and any related inquiry, communication, information, or report must be submitted to the Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, Director of the Division of Advanced Reactors and Non-Power Production and Utilization Facilities at the NRC's headquarters, by an appropriate method listed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 55.5, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.6   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 90 FR 55631, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.7   Additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, by rule, regulation, or order, impose upon any licensee such requirements, in addition to those established in the regulations in this part, as it deems appropriate or necessary to protect health and to minimize danger to life or property. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0018.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 55.11, 55.25, 55.27, 55.31, 55.35, 55.40, 55.41, 55.43, 55.45, 55.47, 55.53, 55.57, and 55.59. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In §§ 55.23, 55.25, 55.27, 55.31, NRC Form 396 is approved under control number 3150-0024.
</P>
<P>(2) In §§ 55.31, 55.35, 55.47, and 55.57, NRC Form 398 is approved under control number 3150-0090.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52188, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 19878, Apr. 23, 1999; 66 FR 52667, Oct. 17, 2001; 67 FR 67100, Nov. 4, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.1.63.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.9   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49372, Dec. 31, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.2.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.11   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application by an interested person, or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property and are otherwise in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.2.63.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.13   General exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part do not require a license for an individual who— 
</P>
<P>(a) Under the direction and in the presence of a licensed operator or senior operator, manipulates the controls of— 
</P>
<P>(1) A research or training reactor as part of the individual's training as a student, or 
</P>
<P>(2) A facility as a part of the individual's training in a facility licensee's training program as approved by the Commission to qualify for an operator license under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Under the direction and in the presence of a licensed senior operator, manipulates the controls of a facility to load or unload the fuel into, out of, or within the reactor vessel. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Medical Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.3.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.21   Medical examination.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant for a license shall have a medical examination by a physician. A licensee shall have a medical examination by a physician every two years. The physician shall determine that the applicant or licensee meets the requirements of § 55.33(a)(1). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.3.63.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.23   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>To certify the medical fitness of the applicant, an authorized representative of the facility licensee shall complete and sign NRC Form 396, “Certification of Medical Examination by Facility Licensee,” which can be obtained by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, by calling (301) 415-7232, or by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I> and selecting forms from the index found on the home page. 
</P>
<P>(a) Form NRC-396 must certify that a physician has conducted the medical examination of the applicant as required in § 55.21.
</P>
<P>(b) When the certification requests a conditional license based on medical evidence, the medical evidence must be submitted on NRC Form 396 to the Commission and the Commission then makes a determination in accordance with § 55.33.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 43421, Oct. 27, 1988; 68 FR 58813, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 30458, May 28, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.3.63.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.25   Incapacitation because of disability or illness.</HEAD>
<P>If, during the term of the license, the licensee develops a permanent physical or mental condition that causes the licensee to fail to meet the requirements of § 55.21 of this part, the facility licensee shall notify the Commission, within 30 days of learning of the diagnosis, in accordance with § 50.74(c). For conditions for which a conditional license (as described in § 55.33(b) of this part) is requested, the facility licensee shall provide medical certification on Form NRC 396 to the Commission (as described in § 55.23 of this part). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 13617, Mar. 14, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.3.63.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.27   Documentation.</HEAD>
<P>The facility licensee shall document and maintain the results of medical qualifications data, test results, and each operator's or senior operator's medical history for the current license period and provide the documentation to the Commission upon request. The facility licensee shall retain this documentation while an individual performs the functions of an operator or senior operator. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.4.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.31   How to apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Complete NRC Form 398, “Personal Qualification Statement—Licensee,” which can be obtained by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, by calling (301) 415-7232, or by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I> and selecting forms from the index found on the home page; 
</P>
<P>(2) File an original of NRC Form 398, together with the information required in paragraphs (a)(3), (4), (5) and (6) of this section, with the appropriate Regional Administrator; 
</P>
<P>(3) Submit a written request from an authorized representative of the facility licensee by which the applicant will be employed that the written examination and operating test be administered to the applicant;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide evidence that the applicant has successfully completed the facility licensee's requirements to be licensed as an operator or senior operator and of the facility licensee's need for an operator or a senior operator to perform assigned duties. An authorized representative of the facility licensee shall certify this evidence on Form NRC-398. This certification must include details of the applicant's qualifications, and details on courses of instruction administered by the facility licensee, and describe the nature of the training received at the facility, and the startup and shutdown experience received. In lieu of these details, the Commission may accept certification that the applicant has successfully completed a Commission-approved training program that is based on a systems approach to training and that uses a simulation facility acceptable to the Commission under § 55.45(b) of this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide evidence that the applicant, as a trainee, has successfully manipulated the controls of either the facility for which a license is sought or a plant-referenced simulator that meets the requirements of § 55.46(c). At a minimum, five significant control manipulations must be performed that affect reactivity or power level. Control manipulations performed on the plant-referenced simulator may be chosen from a representative sampling of the control manipulations and plant evolutions described in § 55.59(c)(3)(i)(A-F), (R), (T), (W), and (X) of this part, as applicable to the design of the plant for which the license application is submitted. For licensed operators applying for a senior operator license, certification that the operator has successfully operated the controls of the facility as a licensed operator shall be accepted; and
</P>
<P>(6) Provide certification by the facility licensee of medical condition and general health on Form NRC-396, to comply with §§ 55.21, 55.23 and 55.33(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may at any time after the application has been filed, and before the license has expired, require further information under oath or affirmation in order to enable it to determine whether to grant or deny the application or whether to revoke, modify, or suspend the license.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant whose application has been denied because of a medical condition or general health may submit a further medical report at any time as a supplement to the application.
</P>
<P>(d) Each application and statement must contain complete and accurate disclosure as to all matters required to be disclosed. The applicant shall sign statements required by paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 43421, Oct. 27, 1988; 66 FR 52667, Oct. 17, 2001; 68 FR 58813, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 30458, May 28, 2008; 86 FR 43403, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.4.63.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.33   Disposition of an initial application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for the approval of an initial application.</I> The Commission will approve an initial application for a license pursuant to the regulations in this part, if it finds that—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Health.</I> The applicant's medical condition and general health will not adversely affect the performance of assigned operator job duties or cause operational errors endangering public health and safety. The Commission will base its finding upon the certification by the facility licensee as detailed in § 55.23.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written examination and operating test.</I> The applicant has passed the requisite written examination and operating test in accordance with §§ 55.41 and 55.45 or 55.43 and 55.45. These examinations and tests determine whether the applicant for an operator's license has learned to operate a facility competently and safely, and additionally, in the case of a senior operator, whether the applicant has learned to direct the licensed activities of licensed operators competently and safely.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditional license.</I> If an applicant's general medical condition does not meet the minimum standards under § 55.33(a)(1) of this part, the Commission may approve the application and include conditions in the license to accommodate the medical defect. The Commission will consider the recommendations and supporting evidence of the facility licensee and of the examining physician (provided on Form NRC-396) in arriving at its decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 86 FR 67843, Nov. 30, 2021]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.4.63.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.35   Re-applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant whose application for a license has been denied because of failure to pass the written examination or operating test, or both, may file a new application two months after the date of denial. The application must be submitted on Form NRC-398 and include a statement signed by an authorized representative of the facility licensee by whom the applicant will be employed that states in detail the extent of the applicant's additional training since the denial and certifies that the applicant is ready for re-examination. An applicant may file a third application six months after the date of denial of the second application, and may file further successive applications two years after the date of denial of each prior application. The applicant shall submit each successive application on Form NRC-398 and include a statement of additional training.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant who has passed either the written examination or operating test and failed the other may request in a new application on Form NRC-398 to be excused from re-examination on the portions of the examination or test which the applicant has passed. The Commission may in its discretion grant the request, if it determines that sufficient justification is presented. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Written Examinations and Operating Tests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.5.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.40   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall use the criteria in NUREG-1021, “Operator Licensing Examination Standards for Power Reactors,” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in effect six months before the examination date to prepare the written examinations required by §§ 55.41 and 55.43 and the operating tests required by § 55.45. The Commission shall also use the criteria in NUREG-1021 to evaluate the written examinations and operating tests prepared by power reactor facility licensees pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of NUREGs may be purchased from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, P.O. Box 38082, Washington, DC 20402-9328. Copies are also available from the National Technical Information Service, 5301 Shawnee Road, Alexandria, VA 22312. A copy is available for inspection and/or copying in the NRC Public Document Room, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (O-1 F21), Rockville, MD.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Power reactor facility licensees may prepare, proctor, and grade the written examinations required by §§ 55.41 and 55.43 and may prepare the operating tests required by § 55.45, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Power reactor facility licensees shall prepare the required examinations and tests in accordance with the criteria in NUREG-1021 as described in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 55.49, power reactor facility licensees shall establish, implement, and maintain procedures to control examination security and integrity;
</P>
<P>(3) An authorized representative of the power reactor facility licensee shall approve the required examinations and tests before they are submitted to the Commission for review and approval; and
</P>
<P>(4) Power reactor facility licensees must receive Commission approval of their proposed written examinations and operating tests.
</P>
<P>(c) In lieu of paragraph (b) of this section and upon written request from a power reactor facility licensee pursuant to § 55.31(a)(3), the Commission shall, for that facility licensee, prepare, proctor, and grade, the written examinations required by §§ 55.41 and 55.43 and the operating tests required by § 55.45. In addition, the Commission may exercise its discretion and reject a power reactor facility licensee's determination to elect paragraph (b) of this section, in which case the Commission shall prepare, proctor, and grade the required written examinations and operating tests for that facility licensee.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission shall use the criteria in NUREG-1478, “Operator Licensing Examiner Standards for Research and Test Reactors,” for all non-power reactors to prepare, proctor, and grade the written examinations required by §§ 55.41 and 55.43 and the operating tests required by § 55.45 for non-power reactor facility licensees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 19878, Apr. 23, 1999, as amended at 69 FR 76600, Dec. 22, 2004; 79 FR 66604, Nov. 10, 2014; 80 FR 45844, Aug. 3, 2015; 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015; 89 FR 106252, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.5.63.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.41   Written examination: Operators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content.</I> The written examination for an operator will contain a representative selection of questions on the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform licensed operator duties. The knowledge, skills, and abilities will be identified, in part, from learning objectives derived from a systematic analysis of licensed operator duties performed by each facility licensee and contained in its training program and from information in the Final Safety Analysis Report, system description manuals and operating procedures, facility license and license amendments, Licensee Event Reports, and other materials requested from the facility licensee by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The written examination for an operator for a facility will include a representative sample from among the following 14 items, to the extent applicable to the facility.
</P>
<P>(1) Fundamentals of reactor theory, including fission process, neutron multiplication, source effects, control rod effects, criticality indications, reactivity coefficients, and poison effects.
</P>
<P>(2) General design features of the core, including core structure, fuel elements, control rods, core instrumentation, and coolant flow.
</P>
<P>(3) Mechanical components and design features of the reactor primary system.
</P>
<P>(4) Secondary coolant and auxiliary systems that affect the facility.
</P>
<P>(5) Facility operating characteristics during steady state and transient conditions, including coolant chemistry, causes and effects of temperature, pressure and reactivity changes, effects of load changes, and operating limitations and reasons for these operating characteristics. 
</P>
<P>(6) Design, components, and functions of reactivity control mechanisms and instrumentation. 
</P>
<P>(7) Design, components, and functions of control and safety systems, including instrumentation, signals, interlocks, failure modes, and automatic and manual features. 
</P>
<P>(8) Components, capacity, and functions of emergency systems. 
</P>
<P>(9) Shielding, isolation, and containment design features, including access limitations. 
</P>
<P>(10) Administrative, normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures for the facility. 
</P>
<P>(11) Purpose and operation of radiation monitoring systems, including alarms and survey equipment. 
</P>
<P>(12) Radiological safety principles and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(13) Procedures and equipment available for handling and disposal of radioactive materials and effluents. 
</P>
<P>(14) Principles of heat transfer thermodynamics and fluid mechanics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.5.63.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.43   Written examination: Senior operators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content.</I> The written examination for a senior operator will contain a representative selection of questions on the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform licensed senior operator duties. The knowledge, skills, and abilities will be identified, in part, from learning objectives derived from a systematic analysis of licensed senior operator duties performed by each facility licensee and contained in its training program and from information in the Final Safety Analysis Report, system description manuals and operating procedures, facility license and license amendments, Licensee Event Reports, and other materials requested from the facility licensee by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The written examination for a senior operator for a facility will include a representative sample from among the following seven items and the 14 items specified in § 55.41 of this part, to the extent applicable to the facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Conditions and limitations in the facility license. 
</P>
<P>(2) Facility operating limitations in the technical specifications and their bases. 
</P>
<P>(3) Facility licensee procedures required to obtain authority for design and operating changes in the facility. 
</P>
<P>(4) Radiation hazards that may arise during normal and abnormal situations, including maintenance activities and various contamination conditions. 
</P>
<P>(5) Assessment of facility conditions and selection of appropriate procedures during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(6) Procedures and limitations involved in initial core loading, alterations in core configuration, control rod programming, and determination of various internal and external effects on core reactivity. 
</P>
<P>(7) Fuel handling facilities and procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.5.63.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.45   Operating tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content.</I> The operating tests administered to applicants for operator and senior operator licenses in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section are generally similar in scope. The content will be identified, in part, from learning objectives derived from a systematic analysis of licensed operator or senior operator duties performed by each facility licensee and contained in its training program and from information in the Final Safety Analysis Report, system description manuals and operating procedures, facility license and license amendments, Licensee Event Reports, and other materials requested from the facility licensee by the Commission. The operating test, to the extent applicable, requires the applicant to demonstrate an understanding of and the ability to perform the actions necessary to accomplish a representative sample from among the following 13 items.
</P>
<P>(1) Perform pre-startup procedures for the facility, including operating of those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Manipulate the console controls as required to operate the facility between shutdown and designated power levels. 
</P>
<P>(3) Identify annunciators and condition-indicating signals and perform appropriate remedial actions where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) Identify the instrumentation systems and the significance of facility instrument readings. 
</P>
<P>(5) Observe and safely control the operating behavior characteristics of the facility.
</P>
<P>(6) Perform control manipulations required to obtain desired operating results during normal, abnormal, and emergency situations. 
</P>
<P>(7) Safely operate the facility's heat removal systems, including primary coolant, emergency coolant, and decay heat removal systems, and identify the relations of the proper operation of these systems to the operation of the facility.
</P>
<P>(8) Safely operate the facility's auxiliary and emergency systems, including operation of those controls associated with plant equipment that could affect reactivity or the release of radioactive materials to the environment.
</P>
<P>(9) Demonstrate or describe the use and function of the facility's radiation monitoring systems, including fixed radiation monitors and alarms, portable survey instruments, and personnel monitoring equipment.
</P>
<P>(10) Demonstrate knowledge of significant radiation hazards, including permissible levels in excess of those authorized, and ability to perform other procedures to reduce excessive levels of radiation and to guard against personnel exposure.
</P>
<P>(11) Demonstrate knowledge of the emergency plan for the facility, including, as appropriate, the operator's or senior operator's responsibility to decide whether the plan should be executed and the duties under the plan assigned.
</P>
<P>(12) Demonstrate the knowledge and ability as appropriate to the assigned position to assume the responsibilities associated with the safe operation of the facility.
</P>
<P>(13) Demonstrate the applicant's ability to function within the control room team as appropriate to the assigned position, in such a way that the facility licensee's procedures are adhered to and that the limitations in its license and amendments are not violated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation—Administration.</I> The operating test will be administered in a plant walkthrough and in either—
</P>
<P>(1) A simulation facility that the Commission has approved for use after application has been made by the facility licensee under § 55.46(b);
</P>
<P>(2) A plant-referenced simulator (§ 55.46(c)); or
</P>
<P>(3) The plant, if approved for use in the administration of the operating test by the Commission under § 55.46(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 43421, Oct. 27, 1988; 62 FR 59276, Nov. 3, 1997; 66 FR 52667, Oct. 17, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.5.63.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.46   Simulation facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section addresses the use of a simulation facility for the administration of the operating test and plant-referenced simulators to meet experience requirements for applicants for operator and senior operator licenses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commission-approved simulation facilities and Commission approval of use of the plant in the administration of the operating test.</I> (1) Facility licensees that propose to use a simulation facility, other than a plant-referenced simulator, or the plant in the administration of the operating test under §§ 55.45(b)(1) or 55.45(b)(3), shall request approval from the Commission. This request must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the components of the simulation facility intended to be used, or the way the plant would be used for each part of the operating test, unless previously approved; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the performance tests for the simulation facility as part of the request, and the results of these tests; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the procedures for maintaining examination and test integrity consistent with the requirements of § 55.49.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission will approve a simulation facility or use of the plant for administration of operating tests if it finds that the simulation facility and its proposed use, or the proposed use of the plant, are suitable for the conduct of operating tests for the facility licensee's reference plant under § 55.45(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plant-referenced simulators.</I> (1) A plant-referenced simulator used for the administration of the operating test or to meet experience requirements in § 55.31(a)(5) must demonstrate expected plant response to operator input and to normal, transient, and accident conditions to which the simulator has been designed to respond. The plant-referenced simulator must be designed and implemented so that it:
</P>
<P>(i) Is sufficient in scope and fidelity to allow conduct of the evolutions listed in §§ 55.45(a)(1) through (13), and 55.59(c)(3)(i)(A) through (AA), as applicable to the design of the reference plant.
</P>
<P>(ii) Allows for the completion of control manipulations for operator license applicants.
</P>
<P>(2) Facility licensees that propose to use a plant-referenced simulator to meet the control manipulation requirements in § 55.31(a)(5) must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) The plant-referenced simulator utilizes models relating to nuclear and thermal-hydraulic characteristics that replicate the most recent core load in the nuclear power reference plant for which a license is being sought; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Simulator fidelity has been demonstrated so that significant control manipulations are completed without procedural exceptions, simulator performance exceptions, or deviation from the approved training scenario sequence.
</P>
<P>(3) A simulation facility consisting solely of a plant-referenced simulator must meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section and the criteria in paragraphs (d)(1) and (4) of this section for the Commission to accept the plant-referenced simulator for conducting operating tests as described in § 55.45(a) of this part, requalification training as described in § 55.59(c)(3) of this part, or for performing control manipulations that affect reactivity to establish eligibility for an operator's license as described in § 55.31(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Continued assurance of simulator fidelity.</I> Facility licensees that maintain a simulation facility shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct performance testing throughout the life of the simulation facility in a manner sufficient to ensure that paragraphs (c)(2)(ii), as applicable, and (d)(3) of this section are met. The results of performance tests must be retained for four years after the completion of each performance test or until superseded by updated test results;
</P>
<P>(2) Correct modeling and hardware discrepancies and discrepancies identified from scenario validation and from performance testing;
</P>
<P>(3) Make results of any uncorrected performance test failures that may exist at the time of the operating test or requalification program inspection available for NRC review, prior to or concurrent with preparations for each operating test or requalification program inspection; and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain the provisions for license application, examination, and test integrity consistent with § 55.49.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 52667, Oct. 17, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.47" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.5.63.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.47   Waiver of examination and test requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On application, the Commission may waive any or all of the requirements for a written examination and operating test, if it finds that the applicant—
</P>
<P>(1) Has had extensive actual operating experience at a comparable facility, as determined by the Commission, within two years before the date of application;
</P>
<P>(2) Has discharged his or her responsibilities competently and safely and is capable of continuing to do so; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has learned the operating procedures for and is qualified to operate competently and safely the facility designated in the application. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may accept as proof of the applicant's past performance a certification of an authorized representative of the facility licensee or of a holder of an authorization by which the applicant was previously employed. The certification must contain a description of the applicant's operating experience, including an approximate number of hours the applicant operated the controls of the facility, the duties performed, and the extent of the applicant's responsibility. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may accept as proof of the applicant's current qualifications a certification of an authorized representative of the facility licensee or of a holder of an authorization where the applicant's services will be utilized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.49" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.5.63.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.49   Integrity of examinations and tests.</HEAD>
<P>Applicants, licensees, and facility licensees shall not engage in any activity that compromises the integrity of any application, test, or examination required by this part. The integrity of a test or examination is considered compromised if any activity, regardless of intent, affected, or, but for detection, would have affected the equitable and consistent administration of the test or examination. This includes activities related to the preparation and certification of license applications and all activities related to the preparation, administration, and grading of the tests and examinations required by this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 19878, Apr. 23, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.6.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.51   Issuance of licenses.</HEAD>
<P><I>Operator and senior operator licenses.</I> If the Commission determines that an applicant for an operator license or a senior operator license meets the requirements of the Act and its regulations, it will issue a license in the form and containing any conditions and limitations it considers appropriate and necessary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.6.63.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.53   Conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Each license contains and is subject to the following conditions whether stated in the license or not:
</P>
<P>(a) Neither the license nor any right under the license may be assigned or otherwise transferred. 
</P>
<P>(b) The license is limited to the facility for which it is issued.
</P>
<P>(c) The license is limited to those controls of the facility specified in the license.
</P>
<P>(d) The license is subject to, and the licensee shall observe, all applicable rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) If a licensee has not been actively performing the functions of an operator or senior operator, the licensee may not resume activities authorized by a license issued under this part except as permitted by paragraph (f) of this section. To maintain active status, the licensee shall actively perform the functions of an operator or senior operator on a minimum of seven 8-hour or five 12-hour shifts per calendar quarter. For non-power reactors, the licensee shall actively perform the functions of an operator or senior operator for a minimum of four hours per calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(f) If paragraph (e) of this section is not met, before resumption of functions authorized by a license issued under this part, an authorized representative of the facility licensee shall certify the following:
</P>
<P>(1) That the qualifications and status of the licensee are current and valid; and
</P>
<P>(2) That the licensee has completed a minimum of 40 hours of shift functions under the direction of an operator or senior operator as appropriate and in the position to which the individual will be assigned. The 40 hours must have included a complete tour of the plant and all required shift turnover procedures. For senior operators limited to fuel handling under paragraph (c) of this section, one shift must have been completed. For non-power reactors, a minimum of six hours must have been completed.
</P>
<P>(g) The licensee shall notify the Commission within 30 days about a conviction for a felony.
</P>
<P>(h) The licensee shall complete a requalification program as described by § 55.59.
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee shall have a biennial medical examination.
</P>
<P>(j) The licensee shall not consume or ingest alcoholic beverages within the protected area of power reactors, or the controlled access area of utilization facilities licensed under 10 CFR part 50 that are not power reactors. The licensee shall not use, possess, or sell any illegal drugs. The licensee shall not perform activities authorized by a license issued under this part while under the influence of alcohol or any prescription, over-the-counter, or illegal substance that could adversely affect his or her ability to safely and competently perform his or her licensed duties. For the purpose of this paragraph, with respect to alcoholic beverages and drugs, the term “under the influence” means the licensee exceeded, as evidenced by a confirmed test result, the lower of the cutoff levels for drugs or alcohol contained in subparts E, F, and G of part 26 of this chapter, or as established by the facility licensee. The term “under the influence” also means the licensee could be mentally or physically impaired as a result of substance use including prescription and over-the-counter drugs, as determined under the provisions, policies, and procedures established by the facility licensee for its fitness-for-duty program, in such a manner as to adversely affect his or her ability to safely and competently perform licensed duties.
</P>
<P>(k) Each licensee at power reactors shall participate in the drug and alcohol testing programs established pursuant to 10 CFR part 26. Each licensee at utilization facilities licensed under 10 CFR part 50 that are not power reactors shall participate in any drug and alcohol testing program that may be established for that facility.
</P>
<P>(l) The licensee shall comply with any other conditions that the Commission may impose to protect health or to minimize danger to life or property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 32070, July 15, 1991; 74 FR 45545, Sept. 3, 2009; 79 FR 66604, Nov. 10, 2014; 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.6.63.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.55   Expiration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each operator license and senior operator license expires six years after the date of issuance, upon termination of employment with the facility licensee, or upon determination by the facility licensee that the licensed individual no longer needs to maintain a license.
</P>
<P>(b) If a licensee files an application for renewal or an upgrade of an existing license on Form NRC-398 at least 30 days before the expiration of the existing license, it does not expire until disposition of the application for renewal or for an upgraded license has been finally determined by the Commission. Filing by mail will be deemed to be complete at the time the application is deposited in the mail.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 79 FR 66605, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.57" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.6.63.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.57   Renewal of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant for renewal of a license shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Complete and sign Form NRC-398 and include the number of the license for which renewal is sought.
</P>
<P>(2) File an original of NRC Form 398 with the appropriate Regional Administrator specified in § 55.5(b). 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide written evidence of the applicant's experience under the existing license and the approximate number of hours that the licensee has operated the facility.
</P>
<P>(4) Provide a statement by an authorized representative of the facility licensee that during the effective term of the current license the applicant has satisfactorily completed the requalification program for the facility for which operator or senior operator license renewal is sought.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide evidence that the applicant has discharged the license responsibilities competently and safely. The Commission may accept as evidence of the applicant's having met this requirement a certificate of an authorized representative of the facility licensee or holder of an authorization by which the licensee has been employed.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide certification by the facility licensee of medical condition and general health on Form NRC-396, to comply with §§ 55.21, 55.23 and 55.27.
</P>
<P>(b) The license will be renewed if the Commission finds that—
</P>
<P>(1) The medical condition and the general health of the licensee continue to be such as not to cause operational errors that endanger public health and safety. The Commission will base this finding upon the certification by the facility licensee as described in § 55.23.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee—
</P>
<P>(i) Is capable of continuing to competently and safely assume licensed duties;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has successfully completed a requalification program that has been approved by the Commission as required by § 55.59; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has passed the requalification examinations and annual operating tests as required by § 55.59.
</P>
<P>(3) There is a continued need for a licensee to operate or for a senior operator to direct operators at the facility designated in the application. 
</P>
<P>(4) The past performance of the licensee has been satisfactory to the Commission. In making its finding, the Commission will include in its evaluation information such as notices of violations or letters of reprimand in the licensee's docket. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 5938, Feb. 9, 1994; 68 FR 58813, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.6.63.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.59   Requalification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requalification requirements.</I> Each licensee shall— 
</P>
<P>(1) Successfully complete a requalification program developed by the facility licensee that has been approved by the Commission. This program shall be conducted for a continuous period not to exceed 24 months in duration. 
</P>
<P>(2) Pass a comprehensive requalification written examination and an annual operating test. 
</P>
<P>(i) The written examination will sample the items specified in §§ 55.41 and 55.43 of this part, to the extent applicable to the facility, the licensee, and any limitation of the license under § 55.53(c) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The operating test will require the operator or senior operator to demonstrate an understanding of and the ability to perform the actions necessary to accomplish a comprehensive sample of items specified in § 55.45(a) (2) through (13) inclusive to the extent applicable to the facility. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In lieu of the Commission accepting a certification by the facility licensee that the licensee has passed written examinations and operating tests administered by the facility licensee within its Commission-approved program developed by using a systems approach to training under paragraph (c) of this section, the Commission may administer a comprehensive requalification written examination and an annual operating test. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional training.</I> If the requirements of paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section are not met, the Commission may require the licensee to complete additional training and to submit evidence to the Commission of successful completion of this training before returning to licensed duties. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requalification program requirements.</I> A facility licensee shall have a requalification program reviewed and approved by the Commission and shall, upon request consistent with the Commission's inspection program needs, submit to the Commission a copy of its comprehensive requalification written examinations or annual operating tests. The requalification program must meet the requirements of paragraphs (c) (1) through (7) of this section. In lieu of paragraphs (c) (2), (3), and (4) of this section, the Commission may approve a program developed by using a systems approach to training. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Schedule.</I> The requalification program must be conducted for a continuous period not to exceed two years, and upon conclusion must be promptly followed, pursuant to a continuous schedule, by successive requalification programs. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lectures.</I> The requalification program must include preplanned lectures on a regular and continuing basis throughout the license period in those areas where operator and senior operator written examinations and facility operating experience indicate that emphasis in scope and depth of coverage is needed in the following subjects:
</P>
<P>(i) Theory and principles of operation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) General and specific plant operating characteristics. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Plant instrumentation and control systems. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Plant protection systems. 
</P>
<P>(v) Engineered safety systems. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Radiation control and safety. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Technical specifications. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Applicable portions of title 10, chapter I, Code of Federal Regulations. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>On-the-job training.</I> The requalification program must include on-the-job training so that— 
</P>
<P>(i) Each licensed operator of a utilization facility manipulates the plant controls and each licensed senior operator either manipulates the controls or directs the activities of individuals during plant control manipulations during the term of the licensed operator's or senior operator's license. For reactor operators and senior operators, these manipulations must consist of the following control manipulations and plant evolutions if they are applicable to the plant design. Items described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) (A) through (L) of this section must be performed annually; all other items must be performed on a two-year cycle. However, the requalification programs must contain a commitment that each individual shall perform or participate in a combination of reactivity control manipulations based on the availability of plant equipment and systems. Those control manipulations which are not performed at the plant may be performed on a simulator. The use of the Technical Specifications should be maximized during the simulator control manipulations. Senior operator licensees are credited with these activities if they direct control manipulations as they are performed. 
</P>
<P>(A) Plant or reactor startups to include a range that reactivity feedback from nuclear heat addition is noticeable and heatup rate is established. 
</P>
<P>(B) Plant shutdown. 
</P>
<P>(C) Manual control of steam generators or feedwater or both during startup and shutdown. 
</P>
<P>(D) Boration or dilution during power operation. 
</P>
<P>(E) Significant (≥10 percent) power changes in manual rod control or recirculation flow. 
</P>
<P>(F) Reactor power change of 10 percent or greater where load change is performed with load limit control or where flux, temperature, or speed control is on manual (for HTGR). 
</P>
<P>(G) Loss of coolant, including— 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Significant PWR steam generator leaks 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Inside and outside primary containment 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Large and small, including leak-rate determination 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Saturated reactor coolant response (PWR). 
</P>
<P>(H) Loss of instrument air (if simulated plant specific). 
</P>
<P>(I) Loss of electrical power (or degraded power sources). 
</P>
<P>(J) Loss of core coolant flow/natural circulation. 
</P>
<P>(K) Loss of feedwater (normal and emergency). 
</P>
<P>(L) Loss of service water, if required for safety. 
</P>
<P>(M) Loss of shutdown cooling. 
</P>
<P>(N) Loss of component cooling system or cooling to an individual component. 
</P>
<P>(O) Loss of normal feedwater or normal feedwater system failure. 
</P>
<P>(P) Loss of condenser vacuum. 
</P>
<P>(Q) Loss of protective system channel. 
</P>
<P>(R) Mispositioned control rod or rods (or rod drops). 
</P>
<P>(S) Inability to drive control rods. 
</P>
<P>(T) Conditions requiring use of emergency boration or standby liquid control system. 
</P>
<P>(U) Fuel cladding failure or high activity in reactor coolant or offgas. 
</P>
<P>(V) Turbine or generator trip. 
</P>
<P>(W) Malfunction of an automatic control system that affects reactivity. 
</P>
<P>(X) Malfunction of reactor coolant pressure/volume control system. 
</P>
<P>(Y) Reactor trip. 
</P>
<P>(Z) Main steam line break (inside or outside containment). 
</P>
<P>(AA) A nuclear instrumentation failure. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each licensed operator and senior operator has demonstrated satisfactory understanding of the operation of the apparatus and mechanisms associated with the control manipulations in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, and knows the operating procedures in each area for which the operator or senior operator is licensed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Each licensed operator and senior operator is cognizant of facility design changes, procedure changes, and facility license changes. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Each licensed operator and senior operator reviews the contents of all abnormal and emergency procedures on a regularly scheduled basis. 
</P>
<P>(v) A simulator may be used in meeting the requirements of paragraphs (c) (3)(i) and (3)(ii) of this section, if it reproduces the general operating characteristics of the facility involved and the arrangement of the instrumentation and controls of the simulator is similar to that of the facility involved. If the simulator or simulation device is used to administer operating tests for a facility, as provided in § 55.45(b)(1), the device approved to meet the requirements of § 55.45(b)(1) must be used for credit to be given for meeting the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3)(i) (G through AA) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Evaluation.</I> The requalification program must include— 
</P>
<P>(i) Comprehensive requalification written examinations and annual operating tests which determine areas in which retraining is needed to upgrade licensed operator and senior operator knowledge. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Written examinations which determine licensed operators' and senior operators' knowledge of subjects covered in the requalification program and provide a basis for evaluating their knowledge of abnormal and emergency procedures. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Systematic observation and evaluation of the performance and competency of licensed operators and senior operators by supervisors and/or training staff members, including evaluation of actions taken or to be taken during actual or simulated abnormal and emergency procedures. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Simulation of emergency or abnormal conditions that may be accomplished by using the control panel of the facility involved or by using a simulator. When the control panel of the facility is used for simulation, the actions taken or to be taken for the emergency or abnormal condition shall be discussed; actual manipulation of the plant controls is not required. If a simulator is used in meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section, it must accurately reproduce the operating characteristics of the facility involved and the arrangement of the instrumentation and controls of the simulator must closely parallel that of the facility involved. After the provisions of § 55.46 have been implemented at a facility, the Commission approved or plant-referenced simulator must be used to comply with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(v) Provisions for each licensed operator and senior operator to participate in an accelerated requalification program where performance evaluations conducted pursuant to paragraphs (c)(4) (i) through (iv) of this section clearly indicated the need. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Records.</I> The requalification program documentation must include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The facility licensee shall maintain records documenting the participation of each licensed operator and senior operator in the requalification program. The records must contain copies of written examinations administered, the answers given by the licensee, and the results of evaluations and documentation of operating tests and of any additional training administered in areas in which an operator or senior operator has exhibited deficiencies. The facility licensee shall retain these records until the operator's or senior operator's license is renewed. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If there is a conflict between the Commission's regulations in this part, and any license condition, or other written Commission approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the retention period specified for these records by the regulations in this part apply unless the Commission, pursuant to § 55.11, grants a specific exemption from this record retention requirement. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Alternative training programs.</I> The requirements of this section may be met by requalification programs conducted by persons other than the facility licensee if the requalification programs are similar to the program described in paragraphs (c) (1) through (5) of this section and the alternative program has been approved by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Applicability to utilization facilities licensed under 10 CFR part 50 that are not power reactors.</I> To accommodate specialized modes of operation and differences in control, equipment, and operator skills and knowledge, the requalification program for each licensed operator and senior operator of a utilization facility licensed under 10 CFR part 50 that is not a power reactor must conform generally but need not be identical to the requalification program outlined in paragraphs (c) (1) through (6) of this section. Significant deviations from the requirements of paragraphs (c) (1) through (6) of this section will be permitted only if supported by written justification and approved by the Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 59 FR 5938, Feb. 9, 1994; 66 FR 52668, Oct. 17, 2001, 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016; 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Modification and Revocation of Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.7.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.61   Modification and revocation of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms and conditions of all licenses are subject to amendment, revision, or modification by reason of rules, regulations, or orders issued in accordance with the Act or any amendments thereto. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any license may be revoked, suspended, or modified, in whole or in part:
</P>
<P>(1) For any material false statement in the application or in any statement of fact required under section 182 of the Act,
</P>
<P>(2) Because of conditions revealed by the application or statement of fact or any report, record, inspection or other means that would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license on an original application,
</P>
<P>(3) For willful violation of, or failure to observe any of the terms and conditions of the Act, or the license, or of any rule, regulation, or order of the Commission, or
</P>
<P>(4) For any conduct determined by the Commission to be a hazard to safe operation of the facility. 
</P>
<P>(5) For the sale, use or possession of illegal drugs, or refusal to participate in the facility drug and alcohol testing program, or a confirmed positive test for drugs, drug metabolites, or alcohol in violation of the conditions and cutoff levels established by § 55.53(j) or the consumption of alcoholic beverages within the protected area of power reactors or the controlled access area of utilization facilities licensed under 10 CFR part 50 that are not power reactors, or a determination of unfitness for scheduled work as a result of the consumption of alcoholic beverages.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9460, Mar. 25, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 32070, July 15, 1991; 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.8.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.71   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55076, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 55.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.5.8.63.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 55.73   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy of violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 55 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 55 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 55.1, 55.2, 55.4, 55.5, 55.6, 55.7, 55.8, 55.11. 55.13, 55.31, 55.33, 55.35, 55.41, 55.43, 55.47, 55.51, 55.55, 55.57, 55.61, 55.71, and 55.73.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55076, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="60" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 60—DISPOSAL OF HIGH-LEVEL RADIOACTIVE WASTES IN GEOLOGIC REPOSITORIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 51, 53, 62, 63, 65, 81, 161, 182, 183, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2071, 2073, 2092, 2093, 2095, 2111, 2201, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); 42 U.S.C. 2021a; National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 114, 117, 121 (42 U.S.C. 10134, 10137, 10141), 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes rules governing the licensing (including issuance of a construction authorization) of the U.S. Department of Energy to receive and possess source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area sited, constructed, or operated in accordance with the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended. This part does not apply to any activity licensed under another part of this chapter. This part does not apply to the licensing of the U.S. Department of Energy to receive and possess source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area sited, constructed, or operated at Yucca Mountain, Nevada, in accordance with the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1992, as amended, and the Energy Policy Act of 1992, subject to part 63 of this chapter. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 60.11.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2279, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accessible environment</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The atmosphere; 
</P>
<P>(2) The land surface; 
</P>
<P>(3) Surface water; 
</P>
<P>(4) Oceans; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The portion of the lithosphere that is outside the postclosure controlled area. 
</P>
<P><I>Affected Indian Tribe</I> means any Indian Tribe (1) within whose reservation boundaries a repository for high-level radioactive waste or spent fuel is proposed to be located; or (2) whose Federally defined possessory or usage rights to other lands outside of the reservation's boundaries arising out of Congressionally ratified treaties or other Federal law may be substantially and adversely affected by the locating of such a facility; <I>Provided,</I> That the Secretary of the Interior finds, upon the petition of the appropriate governmental officials of the Tribe, that such effects are both substantial and adverse to the Tribe.
</P>
<P><I>Anticipated processes and events</I> means those natural processes and events that are reasonably likely to occur during the period the intended performance objective must be achieved. To the extent reasonable in the light of the geologic record, it shall be assumed that those processes operating in the geologic setting during the Quaternary Period continue to operate but with the perturbations caused by the presence of emplaced radioactive waste superimposed thereon.
</P>
<P><I>Barrier</I> means any material or structure that prevents or substantially delays movement of water or radionuclides.
</P>
<P><I>Candidate area</I> means a geologic and hydrologic system within which a geologic repository may be located.
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means clearing of land, surface or subsurface excavation, or other substantial action that would adversely affect the environment of a site, but does not include changes desirable for the temporary use of the land for public recreational uses, site characterization activities, other preconstruction monitoring and investigation necessary to establish background information related to the suitability of a site or to the protection of environmental values, or procurement or manufacture of components of the geologic repository operations area.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Containment</I> means the confinement of radioactive waste within a designated boundary.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled area</I> means a surface location, to be marked by suitable monuments, extending horizontally no more than 10 kilometers in any direction from the outer boundary of the underground facility, and the underlying subsurface, which area has been committed to use as a geologic repository and from which incompatible activities would be restricted following permanent closure.
</P>
<P><I>Design bases means</I> that information that identifies the specific functions to be performed by a structure, system, or component of a facility and the specific values or ranges of values chosen for controlling parameters as reference bounds for design. These values may be restraints derived from generally accepted “state-of-the-art” practices for achieving functional goals or requirements derived from analysis (based on calculation or experiments) of the effects of a postulated event under which a structure, system, or component must meet its functional goals. The values for controlling parameters for external events include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Estimates of severe natural events to be used for deriving design bases that will be based on consideration of historical data on the associated parameters, physical data, or analysis of upper limits of the physical processes involved; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Estimates of severe external man-induced events, to be used for deriving design bases, that will be based on analysis of human activity in the region, taking into account the site characteristics and the risks associated with the event. 
</P>
<P><I>Design basis events</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Those natural and human-induced events that are reasonably likely to occur regularly, moderately frequently, or one or more times before permanent closure of the geologic repository operations area; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Other natural and man-induced events that are considered unlikely, but sufficiently credible to warrant consideration, taking into account the potential for significant radiological impacts on public health and safety. 
</P>
<P>(2) The events described in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition are referred to as “Category 1” design basis events. The events described in paragraph (1)(ii) of this definition are referred to as “Category 2” design basis events. 
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal</I> means the isolation of radioactive wastes from the accessible environment.
</P>
<P><I>Disturbed zone</I> means that portion of the postclosure controlled area, the physical or chemical properties of which have changed as a result of underground facility construction or as a result of heat generated by the emplaced radioactive wastes, such that the resultant change of properties may have a significant effect on the performance of the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Engineered barrier system</I> means the waste packages and the underground facility.
</P>
<P><I>Geologic repository</I> means a system which is intended to be used for, or may be used for, the disposal of radioactive wastes in excavated geologic media. A geologic repository includes: (1) The geologic repository operations area, and (2) the portion of the geologic setting that provides isolation of the radioactive waste.
</P>
<P><I>Geologic repository operations area</I> means a high-level radioactive waste facility that is part of a geologic repository, including both surface and subsurface areas, where waste handling activities are conducted.
</P>
<P><I>Geologic setting</I> means the geologic, hydrologic, and geochemical systems of the region in which a geologic repository operations area is or may be located.
</P>
<P><I>Groundwater</I> means all water which occurs below the land surface.
</P>
<P><I>High-level radioactive waste</I> or <I>HLW</I> means: (1) Irradiated reactor fuel, (2) liquid wastes resulting from the operation of the first cycle solvent extraction system, or equivalent, and the concentrated wastes from subsequent extraction cycles, or equivalent, in a facility for reprocessing irradiated reactor fuel, and (3) solids into which such liquid wastes have been converted.
</P>
<P><I>HLW facility</I> means a facility subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to Sections 202(3) and 202(4) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> These are DOE “facilities used primarily for the receipt and storage of high-level radioactive wastes resulting from activities licensed under such Act [the Atomic Energy Act]” and “Retrievable Surface Storage Facilities and other facilities authorized for the express purpose of subsequent long-term storage of high-level radioactive wastes generated by [DOE], which are not used for, or are part of, research and development activities.”</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Host rock</I> means the geologic medium in which the waste is emplaced.
</P>
<P><I>Important to safety,</I> with reference to structures, systems, and components, means those engineered features of the repository whose function is: 
</P>
<P>(1) To provide reasonable assurance that high-level waste can be received, handled, packaged, stored, emplaced, and retrieved without exceeding the requirements of § 60.111(a) for Category 1 design basis events; or 
</P>
<P>(2) To prevent or mitigate Category 2 design basis events that could result in doses equal to or greater than the values specified in § 60.136 to any individual located on or beyond any point on the boundary of the preclosure controlled area. 
</P>
<P><I>Isolation</I> means inhibiting the transport of radioactive material so that amounts and concentrations of this material entering the accessible environment will be kept within prescribed limits.
</P>
<P><I>NRC Public Document Room</I> means the facility at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Room 0-1F23, Rockville, Maryland 20852, where certain public records of the NRC that were made available for public inspection in paper or microfiche prior to the implementation of the NRC Agency wide Documents Access and Management System, commonly referred to as ADAMS, will remain available for public inspection. It is also the place where computer terminals are available to access the NRC Library components of ADAMS on the NRC Website, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> where copies can be made or ordered as set forth in § 9.35 of this chapter. The facility is staffed with reference librarians to assist the public in identifying and locating documents and in using the NRC Web site and ADAMS. The NRC Public Document Room is open from 7:30 am to 4:15 pm, Monday through Friday, except on Federal holidays, Reference service and access to documents may also be requested by telephone (1-800-397-4209) between 8:30 am and 4:15 pm, or by e-mail (<I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</I>), fax (301-415-3548), or letter (NRC Public Document Room, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Room 0-1F23, Rockville, Maryland 20852).
</P>
<P>NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov</I> is the Internet uniform resource locator name for the Internet address of the Web site where NRC will ordinarily make available its public records for inspection.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent closure</I> means final backfilling of the underground facility and the sealing of shafts and boreholes.
</P>
<P><I>Performance confirmation</I> means the program of tests, experiments, and analyses which is conducted to evaluate the accuracy and adequacy of the information used to determine with reasonable assurance that the performance objectives for the period after permanent closure will be met.
</P>
<P><I>Postclosure controlled area</I> means a surface location, to be marked by suitable monuments, extending horizontally no more than 10 kilometers in any direction from the outer boundary of the underground facility, and the underlying subsurface, which area has been committed to use as a geologic repository and from which incompatible activities would be restricted following permanent closure. 
</P>
<P><I>Preclosure controlled area</I> means that surface area surrounding the geologic repository operations area for which the licensee exercises authority over its use, in accordance with the provisions of this part, until permanent closure has been completed. 
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive waste</I> or <I>waste</I> means HLW and other radioactive materials other than HLW that are received for emplacement in a geologic repository.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted area</I> means an area, access to which is limited by the licensee for the purpose of protecting individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials. Restricted area does not include areas used as residential quarters, but separate rooms in a residential building may be set aside as a restricted area. 
</P>
<P><I>Retrieval</I> means the act of intentionally removing radioactive waste from the underground location at which the waste had been previously emplaced for disposal.
</P>
<P><I>Saturated zone</I> means that part of the earth's crust beneath the regional water table in which all voids, large and small, are ideally filled with water under pressure greater than atmospheric.
</P>
<P><I>Site</I> means the location of the preclosure controlled area, or of the postclosure controlled area, or both. 
</P>
<P><I>Site characterization</I> means the program of exploration and research, both in the laboratory and in the field, undertaken to establish the geologic conditions and the ranges of those parameters of a particular site relevant to the procedures under this part. Site characterization includes borings, surface excavations, excavation of exploratory shafts, limited subsurface lateral excavations and borings, and in situ testing at depth needed to determine the suitability of the site for a geologic repository, but does not include preliminary borings and geophysical testing needed to decide whether site characterization should be undertaken.
</P>
<P><I>Unanticipated processes and events</I> means those processes and events affecting the geologic setting that are judged not to be reasonably likely to occur during the period the intended performance objective must be achieved, but which are nevertheless sufficiently credible to warrant consideration. Unanticipated processes and events may be either natural processes or events or processes and events initiated by human activities other than those activities licensed under this part. Processes and events initiated by human activities may only be found to be sufficiently credible to warrant consideration if it is assumed that: (1) The monuments provided for by this part are sufficiently permanent to serve their intended purpose; (2) the value to future generations of potential resources within the site can be assessed adequately under the applicable provisions of this part; (3) an understanding of the nature of radioactivity, and an appreciation of its hazards, have been retained in some functioning institutions; (4) institutions are able to assess risk and to take remedial action at a level of social organization and technological competence equivalent to, or superior to, that which was applied in initiating the processes or events concerned; and (5) relevant records are preserved, and remain accessible, for several hundred years after permanent closure.
</P>
<P><I>Underground facility</I> means the underground structure, including openings and backfill materials, but excluding shafts, boreholes, and their seals.
</P>
<P><I>Unrestricted area</I> means an area, access to which is neither limited nor controlled by the licensee. 
</P>
<P><I>Unsaturated zone</I> means the zone between the land surface and the regional water table. Generally, fluid pressure in this zone is less than atmospheric pressure, and some of the voids may contain air or other gases at atmospheric pressure. Beneath flooded areas or in perched water bodies the fluid pressure locally may be greater than atmospheric.
</P>
<P><I>Waste form</I> means the radioactive waste materials and any encapsulating or stabilizing matrix. 
</P>
<P><I>Waste package</I> means the waste form and any containers, shielding, packing and other absorbent materials immediately surrounding an individual waste container.
</P>
<P><I>Water table</I> means that surface in a groundwater body at which the water pressure is atmospheric.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28217, June 21, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 29647, July 22, 1985; 51 FR 27162, July 30, 1986; 53 FR 43421, Oct. 27, 1988; 61 FR 64267, Dec. 4, 1996; 64 FR 48953, Sept. 9, 1999; 69 FR 76601, Dec. 22, 2004; 76 FR 72086, Nov. 22, 2011] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.3   License required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall not receive or possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area except as authorized by a license issued by the Commission pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall not commence construction of a geologic repository operations area unless it has filed an application with the Commission and has obtained construction authorization as provided in this part. Failure to comply with this requirement shall be grounds for denial of a license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.4   Communications and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk: Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I>; by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19251, May 27, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 43421, Oct. 27, 1988; 68 FR 58813, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62682, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission, in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be considered binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 90 FR 55631, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.6   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application by DOE, any interested person, or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law, will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.7   License not required for certain preliminary activities.</HEAD>
<P>The requirement for a license set forth in § 60.3(a) of this part is not applicable to the extent that DOE receives and possesses source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository: 
</P>
<P>(a) For purposes of site characterization; or
</P>
<P>(b) For use, during site characterization or construction, as components of radiographic, radiation monitoring, or similar equipment or instrumentation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.8   Information collection requirements: Approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0127.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 60.47, 60.62, 60.63, 60.65.
</P>
<P>(c) In § 60.47, IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms are approved under control number 3150-0056, and DOC/NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control number 0694-0135.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 64268, Dec. 4, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 52188, Oct. 6, 1997; 73 FR 78605, Dec. 23, 2008; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.9   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act. 
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text. 
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages. 
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraph (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant may be grounds for—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license. 
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each licensee and each applicant for a license shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(c). This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, and for 30 days following license termination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 52411, Oct. 8, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 61 FR 6765, Feb. 22, 1996; 68 FR 58813, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63974, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30459, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66605, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.10   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant or licensee shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant or licensee violates this paragraph only if the applicant or licensee fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant or licensee has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification shall be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within two working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49372, Dec. 31, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.1.76.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.11   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, applicant for a license, employee of a licensee or applicant; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or applicant for a license who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities in this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, an applicant, or a licensee's or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1898, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="76" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.76" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preapplication Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.76.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.15   Site characterization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to submittal of an application for a license to be issued under this part DOE shall conduct a program of site characterization with respect to the site to be described in such application.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless the Commission determines with respect to the site described in the application that it is not necessary, site characterization shall include a program of in situ exploration and testing at the depths that wastes would be emplaced.
</P>
<P>(c) The program of site characterization shall be conducted in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Investigations to obtain the required information shall be conducted in such a manner as to limit adverse effects on the long-term performance of the geologic repository to the extent practical.
</P>
<P>(2) The number of exploratory boreholes and shafts shall be limited to the extent practical consistent with obtaining the information needed for site characterization.
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent practical, exploratory boreholes and shafts in the geologic repository operations area shall be located where shafts are planned for underground facility construction and operation or where large unexcavated pillars are planned.
</P>
<P>(4) Subsurface exploratory drilling, excavation, and in situ testing before and during construction shall be planned and coordinated with geologic repository operations area design and construction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 28219, June 21, 1983. Redesignated and amended at 51 FR 27162, July 30, 1986; 54 FR 27871, July 3, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.76.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.16   Site characterization plan required.</HEAD>
<P>Before proceeding to sink shafts at any area which has been approved by the President for site characterization, DOE shall submit to the Director, for review and comment, a site characterization plan for such area. DOE shall defer the sinking of such shafts until such time as there has been an opportunity for Commission comments thereon to have been solicited and considered by DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 27162, July 30, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.76.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.17   Contents of site characterization plan.</HEAD>
<P>The site characterization plan shall contain—
</P>
<P>(a) A general plan for site characterization activities to be conducted at the area to be characterized, which general plan shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of such area, including information on quality assurance programs that have been applied to the collection, recording, and retention of information used in preparing such description.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of such site characterization activities, including the following—
</P>
<P>(i) The extent of planned excavations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Plans for any onsite testing with radioactive material, including radioactive tracers, or nonradioactive material;
</P>
<P>(iii) Plans for any investigation activities that may affect the capability of such area to isolate high-level radioactive waste;
</P>
<P>(iv) Plans to control any adverse impacts from such site characterization activities that are important to safety or that are important to waste isolation; and
</P>
<P>(v) Plans to apply quality assurance to data collection, recording, and retention.
</P>
<P>(3) Plans for the decontamination and decommissioning of such area, and for the mitigation of any significant adverse environmental impacts caused by site characterization activities, if such area is determined unsuitable for application for a construction authorization for a geologic repository operations area;
</P>
<P>(4) Criteria, developed pursuant to section 112(a) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, to be used to determine the suitability of such area for the location of a geologic repository; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other information which the Commission, by rule or order, requires.
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the possible waste form or waste package for the high-level radioactive waste to be emplaced in such geologic repository, a description (to the extent practicable) of the relationship between such waste form or waste package and the host rock at such area, and a description of the activities being conducted by DOE with respect to such possible waste form or waste package or their relationship; and 
</P>
<P>(c) A conceptual design for the geologic repository operations area that takes into account likely site-specific requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 27163, July 30, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.18" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.76.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.18   Review of site characterization activities. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> In addition to the review of site characterization activities specified in this section, the Commission contemplates an ongoing review of other information on site investigation and site characterization, in order to allow early identification of potential licensing issues for timely resolution. This activity will include, for example, a review of the environmental assessments prepared by DOE at the time of site nomination, and review of issues related to long lead time exploratory shaft planning and procurement actions by DOE prior to issuance of site characterization plans.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) The Director shall cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice that a site characterization plan has been received from DOE and that a staff review of such plan has begun. The notice shall identify the area to be characterized and the NRC staff members to be consulted for further information.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall make a copy of the site characterization plan available at the Public Document Room. The Director shall also transmit copies of the published notice of receipt to the Governor and legislature of the State in which the area to be characterized is located and to the governing body of any affected Indian Tribe. The Director shall provide an opportunity, with respect to any area to be characterized, for the State in which such area is located and for affected Indian Tribes to present their views on the site characterization plan and their suggestions with respect to comments thereon which may be made by NRC. In addition, the Director shall make NRC staff available to consult with States and affected Indian Tribes as provided in Subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director shall review the site characterization plan and prepare a site characterization analysis with respect to such plan. In the preparation of such site characterization analysis, the Director may invite and consider the views of interested persons on DOE's site characterization plan and may review and consider comments made in connection with public hearings held by DOE.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director shall provide to DOE the site characterization analysis together with such additional comments as may be warranted. These comments shall include either a statement that the Director has no objection to the DOE's site characterization program, if such a statement is appropriate, or specific objections with respect to DOE's program for characterization of the area concerned. In addition, the Director may make specific recommendations pertinent to DOE's site characterization program.
</P>
<P>(e) If DOE's planned site characterization activities include onsite testing with radioactive material, including radioactive tracers, the Director's comments shall include a determination regarding whether or not the Commission concurs that the proposed use of such radioactive material is necessary to provide data for the preparation of the environmental reports required by law and for an application to be submitted under § 60.22 of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) The Director shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of availability of the site characterization analysis and a request for public comment within a reasonable period, as specified (not less than 90 days). The notice along with copies of the site characterization analysis shall be available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and copies of any comments received will also be made available there.
</P>
<P>(g) During the conduct of site characterization activities, DOE shall report not less than once every six months to the Commission on the nature and extent of such activities and the information that has been developed, and on the progress of waste form and waste package research and development. The semiannual reports shall include the results of site characterization studies, the identification of new issues, plans for additional studies to resolve new issues, elimination of planned studies no longer necessary, identification of decision points reached and modifications to schedules where appropriate. DOE shall also report its progress in developing the design of a geologic repository operations area appropriate for the area being characterized, noting when key design parameters or features which depend upon the results of site characterization will be established. Other topics related to site characterization shall also be covered if requested by the Director.
</P>
<P>(h) During the conduct of site characterization activities, NRC staff shall be permitted to visit and inspect the locations at which such activities are carried out and to observe excavations, borings, and in situ tests as they are done.
</P>
<P>(i) The Director may comment at any time in writing to DOE, expressing current views on any aspect of site characterization. In particular, such comments shall be made whenever the Director, upon review of comments invited on the site characterization analysis or upon review of DOE's semiannual reports, determines that there are substantial new grounds for making recommendations or stating objections to DOE's site characterization program. The Director shall invite public comment on any comments which the Director makes to DOE upon review of the DOE semiannual reports or on any other comments which the Director makes to DOE on site characterization.
</P>
<P>(j) The Director shall transmit copies of the site characterization analysis and all comments to DOE made by the Director under this section to the Governor and legislature of the State in which the area to be characterized is located and to the governing body of any affected Indian Tribe. When transmitting the site characterization analysis under this paragraph, the Director shall invite the addressees to review and comment thereon.
</P>
<P>(k) All correspondence between DOE and the NRC under this section, including the reports described in paragraph (g), shall be placed in the Public Document Room.
</P>
<P>(l) The activities described in paragraphs (a) through (k) of this section constitute informal conference between a prospective applicant and the staff, as described in § 2.101(a)(1) of this chapter, and are not part of a proceeding under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. Accordingly, neither the issuance of a site characterization analysis nor any other comments of the Director made under this section constitutes a commitment to issue any authorization or license or in any way affect the authority of the Commission, the Atomic Safety and Licensing Appeal Board, Atomic Safety and Licensing Boards, other presiding officers, or the Director, in any such proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 27163, July 30, 1986, as amended at 64 FR 48954, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="77" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.77" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>License Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.21   Content of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application shall consist of general information and a Safety Analysis Report. An environmental impact statement shall be prepared in accordance with the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended, and shall accompany the application. Any Restricted Data or National Security Information shall be separated from unclassified information. 
</P>
<P>(b) The general information shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A general description of the proposed geologic repository identifying the location of the geologic repository operations area, the general character of the proposed activities, and the basis for the exercise of licensing authority by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed schedules for construction, receipt of waste, and emplacement of wastes at the proposed geologic repository operations area.
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed plan to provide physical protection of high-level radioactive waste in accordance with § 73.51 of this chapter. This plan must include the design for physical protection, the licensee's safeguards contingency plan, and security organization personnel training and qualification plan. The plan must list tests, inspections, audits, and other means to be used to demonstrate compliance with such requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the program to meet the requirements of § 60.78.
</P>
<P>(5) A description of site characterization work actually conducted by DOE at all sites considered in the application and, as appropriate, explanations of why such work differed from the description of the site characterization program described in the Site Characterization Report for each site.
</P>
<P>(c) The Safety Analysis Report shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description and assessment of the site at which the proposed geologic repository operations area is to be located with appropriate attention to those features of the site that might affect geologic repository operations area design and performance. The description of the site shall identify the location of the geologic repository operations area with respect to the boundary of the accessible environment.
</P>
<P>(i) The description of the site shall also include the following information regarding subsurface conditions. This description shall, in all cases, include this information with respect to the postclosure controlled area. In addition, where subsurface conditions outside the postclosure controlled area may affect isolation within the postclosure controlled area, the description shall include information with respect to subsurface conditions outside the postclosure controlled area to the extent the information is relevant and material. The detailed information referred to in this paragraph shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) The orientation, distribution, aperture in-filling and origin of fractures, discontinuities, and heterogeneities; 
</P>
<P>(B) The presence and characteristics of other potential pathways such as solution features, breccia pipes, or other potentially permeable features; 
</P>
<P>(C) The geomechanical properties and conditions, including pore pressure and ambient stress conditions; 
</P>
<P>(D) The hydrogeologic properties and conditions; 
</P>
<P>(E) The geochemical properties; and 
</P>
<P>(F) The anticipated response of the geomechanical, hydrogeologic, and geochemical systems to the maximum design thermal loading, given the pattern of fractures and other discontinuities and the heat transfer properties of the rock mass and groundwater. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The assessment shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(A) An analysis of the geology, geophysics, hydrogeology, geochemistry, climatology, and meteorology of the site,
</P>
<P>(B) Analyses to determine the degree to which each of the favorable and potentially adverse conditions, if present, has been characterized, and the extent to which it contributes to or detracts from isolation. For the purpose of determining the presence of the potentially adverse conditions, investigations shall extend from the surface to a depth sufficient to determine critical pathways for radionuclide migration from the underground facility to the accessible environment. Potentially adverse conditions shall be investigated outside of the postclosure controlled area if they affect isolation within the postclosure controlled area. 
</P>
<P>(C) An evaluation of the performance of the proposed geologic repository for the period after permanent closure, assuming anticipated processes and events, giving the rates and quantities of releases of radionuclides to the accessible environment as a function of time; and a similar evaluation which assumes the occurrence of unanticipated processes and events.
</P>
<P>(D) The effectiveness of engineered and natural barriers, including barriers that may not be themselves a part of the geologic repository operations area, against the release of radioactive material to the environment. The analysis shall also include a comparative evaluation of alternatives to the major design features that are important to waste isolation, with particular attention to the alternatives that would provide longer radionuclide containment and isolation. 
</P>
<P>(E) An analysis of the performance of the major design structures, systems, and components, both surface and subsurface, to identify those that are important to safety. For the purposes of this analysis, it shall be assumed that operations at the geologic repository operations area will be carried out at the maximum capacity and rate of receipt of radioactive waste stated in the application. 
</P>
<P>(F) An explanation of measures used to support the models used to perform the assessments required in paragraphs (A) through (D). Analyses and models that will be used to predict future conditions and changes in the geologic setting shall be supported by using an appropriate combination of such methods as field tests, in situ tests, laboratory tests which are representative of field conditions, monitoring data, and natural analog studies. 
</P>
<P>(2) A description and discussion of the design, both surface and subsurface, of the geologic repository operations area including: 
</P>
<P>(i) The principal design criteria and their relationship to any general performance objectives promulgated by the Commission, 
</P>
<P>(ii) The design bases and the relation of the design bases to the principal design criteria, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Information relative to materials of construction (including geologic media, general arrangement, and approximate dimensions), and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Codes and standards that DOE proposes to apply to the design and construction of the geologic repository operations area.
</P>
<P>(3) A description and analysis of the design and performance requirements for structures, systems, and components of the geologic repository that are important to safety. The analysis must include a demonstration that—
</P>
<P>(i) The requirements of § 60.111(a) will be met, assuming occurrence of Category 1 design basis events; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirements of § 60.136 will be met, assuming occurrence of Category 2 design basis events. 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the quality assurance program to be applied to the structures, systems, and components important to safety and to the engineered and natural barriers important to waste isolation. 
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the kind, amount, and specifications of the radioactive material proposed to be received and possessed at the geologic repository operations area.
</P>
<P>(6) An identification and justification for the selection of those variables, conditions, or other items which are determined to be probable subjects of license specifications. Special attention shall be given to those items that may significantly influence the final design.
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the program for control and monitoring of radioactive effluents and occupational radiation exposures to maintain such effluents and exposures in accordance with the requirements of part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the controls that the applicant will apply to restrict access and to regulate land use at the site and adjacent areas, including a conceptual design of monuments which would be used to identify the postclosure controlled area after permanent closure. 
</P>
<P>(9) Plans for coping with radiological emergencies at any time prior to permanent closure and decontamination or dismantlement of surface facilities. 
</P>
<P>(10) A description of the program to be used to maintain the records described in §§ 60.71 and 60.72.
</P>
<P>(11) A description of design considerations that are intended to facilitate permanent closure and decontamination or dismantlement of surface facilities. 
</P>
<P>(12) A description of plans for retrieval and alternate storage of the radioactive wastes should the geologic repository prove to be unsuitable for disposal of radioactive wastes.
</P>
<P>(13) An identification and evaluation of the natural resources of the geologic setting, including estimates as to undiscovered deposits, the exploitation of which could affect the ability of the geologic repository to isolate radioactive wastes. Undiscovered deposits of resources characteristic of the area shall be estimated by reasonable inference based on geological and geophysical evidence. This evaluation of resources, including undiscoverd deposits, shall be conducted for the site and for areas of similar size that are representative of and are within the geologic setting. For natural resources with current markets the resources shall be assessed, with estimates provided of both gross and net value. The estimate of net value shall take into account current development, extraction and marketing costs. For natural resources without current markets, but which would be marketable given credible projected changes in economic or technological factors, the resources shall be described by physical factors such as tonnage or other amount, grade, and quality. 
</P>
<P>(14) An identification of those structures, systems, and components of the geologic repository, both surface and subsurface, which require research and development to confirm the adequacy of design. For structures, systems, and components important to safety and for the engineered and natural barriers important to waste isolation, DOE shall provide a detailed description of the programs designed to resolve safety questions, including a schedule indicating when these questions would be resolved. 
</P>
<P>(15) The following information concerning activities at the geologic repository operations area: 
</P>
<P>(i) The organizational structure of DOE as it pertains to construction and operation of the geologic repository operations area including a description of any delegations of authority and assignments of responsibilities, whether in the form of regulations, administrative directives, contract provisions, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of key positions which are assigned responsibility for safety at and operation of the geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Personnel qualifications and training requirements. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Plans for startup activities and startup testing. 
</P>
<P>(v) Plans for conduct of normal activities, including maintenance, surveillance, and periodic testing of structures, systems, and components of the geologic repository operation area. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Plans for permanent closure and plans for the decontamination or dismantlement of surface facilities. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Plans for any uses of the geologic repository operations area for purposes other than disposal of radioactive wastes, with an analysis of the effects, if any, that such uses may have upon the operation of the structures, systems, and components important to safety and the engineered and natural barriers important to waste isolation. 
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant for a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area sited, constructed, or operated in accordance with the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 shall protect Safeguards Information in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements in § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable, and shall protect classified information in accordance with the requirements of parts 25 and 95 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 28219, June 21, 1983; 54 FR 27871, July 3, 1989; 61 FR 64268, Dec. 4, 1996; 63 FR 26961, May 15, 1998; 73 FR 63571, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.22   Filing and distribution of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area, and an application for a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area at a site which has been characterized, and any amendments thereto, and an accompanying environmental impact statement and any supplements, shall be signed by the Secretary of Energy or the Secretary's authorized representative and must be filed with the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies for distribution in accordance with written instructions from the Director or the Director's designee. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall, upon notification of the appointment of an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, update the application, eliminating all superseded information, and supplement the environmental impact statement if necessary, and serve the updated application and environmental impact statement (as it may have been supplemented) as directed by the Board. At that time DOE shall also serve one such copy of the application and environmental impact statement on the Atomic Safety and Licensing Appeal Panel. Any subsequent amendments to the application or supplements to the environmental impact statement shall be served in the same manner. 
</P>
<P>(d) At the time of filing of an application and any amendments thereto, one copy shall be made available in an appropriate location near the proposed geologic repository operations area (which shall be a public document room, if one has been established) for inspection by the public and updated as amendments to the application are made. The environmental impact statement and any supplements thereto shall be made available in the same manner. An updated copy of the application, and the environmental impact statement and supplements, shall be produced at any public hearing held by the Commission on the application, for use by any party to the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(e) The DOE shall certify that the updated copies of the application, and the environmental impact statement as it may have been supplemented, as referred to in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, contain the current contents of such documents submitted in accordance with the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 27871, July 3, 1989, as amended at 68 FR 58814, Oct. 10, 2003; 69 FR 2279, Jan. 14, 2004] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.23   Elimination of repetition.</HEAD>
<P>In its application, environmental report, or Site Characterization Report, the DOE may incorporate by reference information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission: <I>Provided,</I> That such references are clear and specific and that copies of the information so incorporated are available in the public document room located near the site of the proposed geologic repository.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.24   Updating of application and environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application shall be as complete as possible in the light of information that is reasonably available at the time of docketing. 
</P>
<P>(b) The DOE shall update its application in a timely manner so as to permit the Commission to review, prior to issuance of a license:
</P>
<P>(1) Additional geologic, geophysical, geochemical, hydrologic, meteorologic and other data obtained during construction. 
</P>
<P>(2) Conformance of construction of structures, systems, and components with the design.
</P>
<P>(3) Results of research programs carried out to confirm the adequacy of designs.
</P>
<P>(4) Other information bearing on the Commission's issuance of a license that was not available at the time a construction authorization was issued.
</P>
<P>(c) The DOE shall supplement its environmental impact statement in a timely manner so as to take into account the environmental impacts of any substantial changes in its proposed actions or any significant new circumstances or information relevant to environmental concerns and bearing on the proposed action or its impacts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 27872, July 3, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="78" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.78" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Construction Authorization</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.78.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.31   Construction authorization.</HEAD>
<P>Upon review and consideration of an application and environmental impact statement submitted under this part, the Commission may authorize construction if it determines: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Safety.</I> That there is reasonable assurance that the types and amounts of radioactive materials described in the application can be received, possessed, and disposed of in a geologic repository operations area of the design proposed without unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public. In arriving at this determination, the Commission shall consider whether: 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE has described the proposed geologic repository including but not limited to: (i) The geologic, geophysical, geochemical and hydrologic characteristics of the site; (ii) the kinds and quantities of radioactive waste to be received, possessed, stored, and disposed of in the geologic repository operations area; (iii) the principal architectural and engineering criteria for the design of the geologic repository operations area; (iv) construction procedures which may affect the capability of the geologic repository to serve its intended function; and (v) features or components incorporated in the design for the protection of the health and safety of the public. 
</P>
<P>(2) The site and design comply with the performance objectives and criteria contained in subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) The DOE's quality assurance program complies with the requirements of subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The DOE's personnel training program complies with the criteria contained in subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) The DOE's emergency plan complies with the criteria contained in subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) The DOE's proposed operating procedures to protect health and to minimize danger to life or property are adequate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Common defense and security.</I> That there is reasonable assurance that the activities proposed in the application will not be inimical to the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Environmental.</I> That, after weighing the environmental, economic, technical and other benefits against environmental costs and considering available alternatives, the action called for is issuance of the construction authorization, with any appropriate conditions to protect environmental values.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 28220, June 21, 1983; 54 FR 27872, July 3, 1989; 63 FR 26961, May 15, 1998] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.78.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.32   Conditions of construction authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A construction authorization shall include such conditions as the Commission finds to be necessary to protect the health and safety of the public, the common defense and security, or environmental values.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will incorporate in the construction authorization provisions requiring DOE to furnish periodic or special reports regarding: (1) Progress of construction, (2) any data about the site obtained during construction which are not within the predicted limits upon which the facility design was based, (3) any deficiencies in design and construction which, if uncorrected, could adversely affect safety at any future time, and (4) results of research and development programs being conducted to resolve safety questions. 
</P>
<P>(c) The construction authorization will include restrictions on subsequent changes to the features of the geologic repository and the procedures authorized. The restrictions that may be imposed under this paragraph can include measures to prevent adverse effects on the geologic setting as well as measures related to the design and construction of the geologic repository operations area. These restrictions will fall into three categories of descending importance to public health and safety as follows: (1) Those features and procedures which may not be changed without: (i) 60 days prior notice to the Commission (ii) 30 days notice of opportunity for a prior hearing, and (iii) prior Commission approval; (2) those features and procedures which may not be changed without (i) 60 days prior notice to the Commission, and (ii) prior Commission approval; and (3) those features and procedures which may not be changed without 60 days notice to the Commission. Features and procedures falling in paragraph (c)(3) of this section may not be changed without prior Commission approval if the Commission, after having received the required notice, so orders. 
</P>
<P>(d) A construction authorization shall be subject to the limitation that a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at the geologic repository operations area shall not be issued by the Commission until (1) the DOE has updated its application as specified in § 60.24, and (2) the Commission has made the findings stated in § 60.41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 28221, June 21, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.78.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.33   Amendment of construction authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for amendment of a construction authorization shall be filed with the Commission fully describing any changes desired and following as far as applicable the format prescribed in § 60.21.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether an amendment of a construction authorization will be approved, the Commission will be guided by the considerations which govern the issuance of the initial construction authorization, to the extent applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="79" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.79" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>License Issuance and Amendment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.79.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.41   Standards for issuance of a license.</HEAD>
<P>A license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area may be issued by the Commission upon finding that:
</P>
<P>(a) Construction of the geologic repository operations area has been substantially completed in conformity with the application as amended, the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act, and the rules and regulations of the Commission. Construction may be deemed to be substantially complete for the purposes of this paragraph if the construction of (1) surface and interconnecting structures, systems, and components, and (2) any underground storage space required for initial operation are substantially complete.
</P>
<P>(b) The activities to be conducted at the geologic repository operations area will be in conformity with the application as amended, the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act and the Energy Reorganization Act, and the rules and regulations of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) The issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security and will not constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>(d) All applicable requirements of part 51 have been satisfied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 63 FR 26961, May 15, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.42" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.79.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.42   Conditions of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A license issued pursuant to this part shall include such conditions, including license specifications, as the Commission finds to be necessary to protect the health and safety of the public, the common defense and security, and environmental values.
</P>
<P>(b) Whether stated therein or not, the following shall be deemed conditions in every license issued:
</P>
<P>(1) The license shall be subject to revocation, suspension, modification, or amendment for cause as provided by the Atomic Energy Act and the Commission's regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) The DOE shall at any time while the license is in effect, upon written request of the Commission, submit written statements to enable the Commission to determine whether or not the license should be modified, suspended or revoked.
</P>
<P>(3) The license shall be subject to the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act now or hereafter in effect and to all rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission. The terms and conditions of the license shall be subject to amendment, revision, or modification, by reason of amendments to or by reason of rules, regulations, and orders issued in accordance with the terms of the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Each license shall be deemed to contain the provisions set forth in Section 183 b-d, inclusive, of the Atomic Energy Act, whether or not these provisions are expressly set forth in the license. 
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee (Department of Energy) shall ensure that Safeguards Information is protected against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements in § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable. The licensee (Department of Energy) shall ensure that classified information is protected in accordance with the requirements of parts 25 and 95 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 73 FR 63571, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.79.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.43   License specification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A license issued under this part shall include license conditions derived from the analyses and evaluations included in the application, including amendments made before a license is issued, together with such additional conditions as the Commission finds appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) License conditions shall include items in the following categories:
</P>
<P>(1) Restrictions as to the physical and chemical form and radioisotopic content of radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(2) Restrictions as to size, shape, and materials and methods of construction of radioactive waste packaging.
</P>
<P>(3) Restrictions as to the amount of waste permitted per unit volume of storage space considering the physical characteristics of both the waste and the host rock.
</P>
<P>(4) Requirements relating to test, calibration, or inspection to assure that the foregoing restrictions are observed.
</P>
<P>(5) Controls to be applied to restricted access and to avoid disturbance to the postclosure controlled area and to areas outside the controlled area where conditions may affect isolation within the controlled area.
</P>
<P>(6) Administrative controls, which are the provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, recordkeeping, review and audit, and reporting necessary to assure that activities at the facility are conducted in a safe manner and in conformity with the other license specifications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 28221, June 21, 1983; 61 FR 64268, Dec. 4, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.44" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.79.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.44   Changes, tests, and experiments.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Following authorization to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area, the DOE may (i) make changes in the geologic repository operations area as described in the application, (ii) make changes in the procedures as described in the application, and (iii) conduct tests or experiments not described in the application, without prior Commission approval, provided the change, test, or experiment involves neither a change in the license conditions incorporated in the license nor an unreviewed safety question.
</P>
<P>(2) A proposed change, test, or experiment shall be deemed to involve an unreviewed safety question if (i) the likelihood of occurrence or the consequences of an accident or malfunction of equipment important to safety previously evaluated in the application is increased, (ii) the possibility of an accident or malfunction of a different type than any previously evaluated in the application is created, or (iii) the margin of safety as defined in the basis for any license condition is reduced.
</P>
<P>(b) The DOE shall maintain records of changes in the geologic repository operations area and of changes in procedures made pursuant to this section, to the extent that such changes constitute changes in the geologic repository operations area or procedures as described in the application. Records of tests and experiments carried out pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall also be maintained. These records shall include a written safety evaluation which provides the basis for the determination that the change, test, or experiment does not involve an unreviewed safety question. The DOE shall prepare annually, or at such shorter intervals as may be specified in the license, a report containing a brief description of such changes, tests, and experiments, including a summary of the safety evaluation of each. The DOE shall furnish the report to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, by an appropriate method listed in § 60.4(a), with a copy to the Director of the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. Any report submitted pursuant to this paragraph shall be made a part of the public record of the licensing proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 52 FR 31612, Aug. 21, 1987; 68 FR 58814, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.79.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.45   Amendment of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for amendment of a license may be filed with the Commission fully describing the changes desired and following as far as applicable the format prescribed for license applications.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether an amendment of a license will be approved, the Commission will be guided by the considerations that govern the issuance of the initial license, to the extent applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.79.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.46   Particular activities requiring license amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless expressly authorized in the license, an amendment of the license shall be required with respect to any of the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any action which would make emplaced high-level radioactive waste irretrievable or which would substantially increase the difficulty of retrieving such emplaced waste.
</P>
<P>(2) Dismantling of structures.
</P>
<P>(3) Removal or reduction of controls applied to restrict access to or avoid disturbance of the controlled area and to areas outside the postclosure controlled area where conditions may affect isolation within the controlled area.
</P>
<P>(4) Destruction or disposal of records required to be maintained under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Any substantial change to the design or operating procedures from that specified in the license.
</P>
<P>(6) Permanent closure.
</P>
<P>(7) Any other activity involving an unreviewed safety question.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for such an amendment shall be filed, and shall be reviewed, in accordance with the provisions of § 60.45.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 28221, June 21, 1983; 61 FR 64268, Dec. 4, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="80" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.80" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.47" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.80.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.47   Facility information and verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for a construction authorization or license and each recipient of a construction authorization or a license shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms, and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(b) As required by the Additional Protocol, applicants and licensees specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(c) Shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and take other action as necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78605, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.81" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Permanent Closure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.81.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.51   License amendment for permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall submit an application to amend the license prior to permanent closure. The submission shall consist of an update of the license application submitted under §§ 60.21 and 60.22, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the program for post-permanent closure monitoring of the geologic repository.
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description of the measures to be employed—such as land use controls, construction of monuments, and preservation of records—to regulate or prevent activities that could impair the long-term isolation of emplaced waste within the geologic repository and to assure that relevant information will be preserved for the use of future generations. As a minimum, such measures shall include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the postclosure controlled area and geologic repository operations area by monuments that have been designed, fabricated, and emplaced to be as permanent as is practicable; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Placement of records in the archives and land record systems of local State, and Federal government agencies, and archives elsewhere in the world, that would be likely to be consulted by potential human intruders—such records to identify the location of the geologic repository operations area, including the underground facility, boreholes and shafts, and the boundaries of the postclosure controlled area, and the nature and hazard of the waste.
</P>
<P>(3) Geologic, geophysical, geochemical, hydrologic, and other site data that are obtained during the operational period pertinent to the long-term isolation of emplaced radioactive wastes.
</P>
<P>(4) The results of tests, experiments, and any other analyses relating to backfill of excavated areas, shaft sealing, waste interaction with the host rock, and any other tests, experiments, or analyses pertinent to the long-term isolation of emplaced wastes within the geologic repository.
</P>
<P>(5) Any substantial revision of plans for permanent closure.
</P>
<P>(6) Other information bearing upon permanent closure that was not available at the time a license was issued.
</P>
<P>(b) If necessary, so as to take into account the environmental impact of any substantial changes in the permanent closure activities proposed to be carried out or any significant new information regarding the environmental impacts of such closure, DOE shall also supplement its environmental impact statement and submit such statement, as supplemented, with the application for license amendment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 28221, June 21, 1983; 54 FR 27872, July 3, 1989; 61 FR 64268, Dec. 4, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.2.81.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.52   Termination of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following permanent closure and the decontamination or dismantlement of surface facilities, DOE may apply for an amendment to terminate the license.
</P>
<P>(b) Such application shall be filed, and will be reviewed, in accordance with the provisions of § 60.45 and this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A license shall be terminated only when the Commission finds with respect to the geologic repository:
</P>
<P>(1) That the final disposition of radioactive wastes has been made in conformance with the DOE's plan, as amended and approved as part of the license.
</P>
<P>(2) That the final state of the geologic repository operations area conforms to DOE's plans for permanent closure and DOE's plans for the decontamination or dismantlement of surface facilities, as amended and approved as part of the license.
</P>
<P>(3) That the termination of the license is authorized by law, including sections 57, 62, and 81 of the Atomic Energy Act, as amended. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 13980, Feb. 25, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Participation by State Governments and Affected Indian Tribes</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 27164, July 30, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 60.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.3.82.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.61   Provision of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director shall provide to the Governor and legislature of any State in which a geologic repository operations area is or may be located, and to the governing body of any affected Indian Tribe, timely and complete information regarding determinations or plans made by the Commission with respect to the site characterization, siting, development, design, licensing, construction, operation, regulation, permanent closure, or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities, of such geologic repository operations area.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a geologic repository operations area shall be considered to be one which “may be located” in a State if the location thereof in such State has been described in a site characterization plan submitted to the Commission under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the Director is not required to distribute any document to any entity if, with respect to such document, that entity or its counsel is included on a service list prepared pursuant to part 2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Copies of all communications by the Director under this section are available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room, and copies are furnished to DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 27164, July 30, 1986, as amended at 64 FR 48954, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.3.82.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.62   Site review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever an area has been approved by the President for site characterization, and upon request of a State or an affected Indian Tribe, the Director shall make NRC staff available to consult with representatives of such States and Tribes.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for consultation shall be made in writing to the Director.
</P>
<P>(c) Consultation under this section may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Keeping the parties informed of the Director's views on the progress of site characterization.
</P>
<P>(2) Review of applicable NRC regulations, licensing procedures, schedules, and opportunities for State and Tribe participation in the Commission's regulatory activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Cooperation in development of proposals for State and Tribe participation in license reviews.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.63" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.3.82.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.63   Participation in license reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) State, local governmental bodies, and affected, Federally-recognized Indian Tribes may participate in license reviews as provided in subpart J of part 2 of this chapter. A State in which a repository for high-level radioactive waste is proposed to be located and any affected, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe shall have an unquestionable legal right to participate as a party in such proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, whenever an area has been approved by the President for site characterization, a State or an affected Indian Tribe may submit to the Director a proposal to facilitate its participation in the review of a site characterization plan and/or license application. The proposal may be submitted at any time and must contain a description and schedule of how the State or affected Indian Tribe wishes to participate in the review, or what services or activities the State or affected Indian Tribe wishes NRC to carry out, and how the services or activities proposed to be carried out by NRC would contribute to such participation. The proposal may include educational or information services (seminars, public meetings) or other actions on the part of NRC, such as employment or exchange of State personnel under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director shall arrange for a meeting between the representatives of the State or affected Indian Tribe and the NRC staff to discuss any proposal submitted under paragraph (b) of this section, with a view to identifying any modifications that may contribute to the effective participation by such State or Tribe.
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to the availability of funds, the Director shall approve all or any part of a proposal, as it may be modified through the meeting described above, if it is determined that:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed activities are suitable in light of the type and magnitude of impacts which the State or affected Indian Tribe may bear;
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed activities:
</P>
<P>(i) Will enhance communications between NRC and the State or affected Indian Tribe;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will make a productive and timely contribution to the review; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Are authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(e) The Director will advise the State or affected Indian Tribe whether its proposal has been accepted or denied, and if all or any part of proposal is denied, the Director shall state the reason for the denial.
</P>
<P>(f) Proposals submitted under this section, and responses thereto, shall be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 27164, July 30, 1986, as amended at 64 FR 48954, Sept. 9, 1999; 69 FR 2279, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.64" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.3.82.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.64   Notice to States.</HEAD>
<P>If the Governor and legislature of a State have jointly designated on their behalf a single person or entity to receive notice and information from the Commission under this part, the Commission will provide such notice and information to the jointly designated person or entity instead of the Governor and legislature separately.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.65" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.3.82.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.65   Representation.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who acts under this subpart as a representative for a State (or for the Governor or legislature thereof) or for an affected Indian Tribe shall include in the request or other submission, or at the request of the Commission, a statement of the basis of his or her authority to act in such representative capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records, Reports, Tests, and Inspections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.4.82.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.71   Records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall maintain such records and make such reports in connection with the licensed activity as may be required by the conditions of the license or by rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission as authorized by the Atomic Energy Act and the Energy Reorganization Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Records of the receipt, handling, and disposition of radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area shall contain sufficient information to provide a complete history of the movement of the waste from the shipper through all phases of storage and disposal. DOE shall retain these records in a manner that ensures their useability for future generations in accordance with § 60.51(a)(2). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 53 FR 19251, May 27, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.4.82.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.72   Construction records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall maintain records of construction of the geologic repository operations area in a manner that ensures their useability for future generations in accordance with § 60.51(a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(b) The records required under paragraph (a) shall include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Surveys of the underground facility excavations, shafts, and boreholes referenced to readily identifiable surface features or monuments;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the materials encountered;
</P>
<P>(3) Geologic maps and geologic cross sections;
</P>
<P>(4) Locations and amount of seepage;
</P>
<P>(5) Details of equipment, methods, progress, and sequence of work;
</P>
<P>(6) Construction problems;
</P>
<P>(7) Anomalous conditions encountered;
</P>
<P>(8) Instrument locations, readings, and analysis;
</P>
<P>(9) Location and description of structural support systems;
</P>
<P>(10) Location and description of dewatering systems; and
</P>
<P>(11) Details, methods of emplacement, and location of seals used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 53 FR 19251, May 27, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.4.82.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.73   Reports of deficiencies.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall promptly notify the Commission of each deficiency found in the characteristics of the site, and design and construction of the geologic repository operations area which, were it to remain uncorrected, could: (a) Be a substantial safety hazard, (b) represent a significant deviation from the design criteria and design bases stated in the application, or (c) represent a deviation from the conditions stated in the terms of a construction authorization or the license, including license specifications. The notification shall be in the form of a written report, copies of which shall be sent to the Director and to the appropriate Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.4.82.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.74   Tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, such tests as the Commission deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of the regulations in this part. These may include tests of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Radioactive waste, 
</P>
<P>(2) The geologic repository including its structures, systems, and components, 
</P>
<P>(3) Radiation detection and monitoring instruments, and 
</P>
<P>(4) Other equipment and devices used in connection with the receipt, handling, or storage of radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(b) The tests required under this section shall include a performance confirmation program carried out in accordance with subpart F of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.75" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.4.82.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.75   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall allow the Commission to inspect the premises of the geologic repository operations area and adjacent areas to which DOE has rights of access.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by DOE pertaining to activities under this part.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) DOE shall upon requests by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, provide rent-free office space for the exclusive use of the Commission inspection personnel. Heat, air-conditioning, light, electrical outlets and janitorial services shall be furnished by DOE. The office shall be convenient to and have full access to the facility and shall provide the inspector both visual and acoustic privacy.
</P>
<P>(2) The space provided shall be adequate to accommodate a full-time inspector, a part-time secretary and transient NRC personnel and will be generally commensurate with other office facilities at the geologic repository operations area. A space of 250 square feet either within the geologic repository operations area's office complex or in an office trailer or other onsite space at the geologic repository operations area is suggested as a guide. For locations at which activities are carried out under licenses issued under other parts of this chapter, additional space may be requested to accommodate additional full-time inspectors. The Office space that is provided shall be subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. All furniture, supplies and communication equipment will be furnished by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) DOE shall afford any NRC resident inspector assigned to that location, or other NRC inspectors identified by the Regional Administrator as likely to inspect the facility, immediate unfettered access, equivalent to access provided regular employees, following proper identification and compliance with applicable access control measures for security, radiological protection and personal safety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 31612, Aug. 21, 1987; 76 FR 72086, Nov. 22, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.78" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.4.82.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.78   Material control and accounting records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall implement a program of material control and accounting (and accidental criticality reporting) that is the same as that specified in §§ 72.72, 72.74, 72.76, and 72.78 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 26961, May 15, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Technical Criteria</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 60.101" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.82.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.101   Purpose and nature of findings.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Subpart B of this part prescribes the standards for issuance of a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area. In particular, § 60.41(c) requires a finding that the issuance of a license will not constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public. The purpose of this subpart is to set out performance objectives and site and design criteria which, if satisfied, will support such a finding of no unreasonable risk.
</P>
<P>(2) While these performance objectives and criteria are generally stated in unqualified terms, it is not expected that complete assurance that they will be met can be presented. A reasonable assurance, on the basis of the record before the Commission, that the objectives and criteria will be met is the general standard that is required. For § 60.112, and other portions of this subpart that impose objectives and criteria for repository performance over long times into the future, there will inevitably be greater uncertainties. Proof of the future performance of engineered barrier systems and the geologic setting over time periods of many hundreds or many thousands of years is not to be had in the ordinary sense of the word. For such long-term objectives and criteria, what is required is reasonable assurance, making allowance for the time period, hazards, and uncertainties involved, that the outcome will be in conformance with those objectives and criteria. Demonstration of compliance with such objectives and criteria will involve the use of data from accelerated tests and predictive models that are supported by such measures as field and laboratory tests, monitoring data and natural analog studies.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of this part also lists findings that must be made in support of an authorization to construct a geologic repository operations area. In particular, § 60.31(a) requires a finding that there is reasonable assurance that the types and amounts of radioactive materials described in the application can be received, possessed, and disposed of in a geologic repository operations area of the design proposed without unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public. As stated in that paragraph, in arriving at this determination, the Commission will consider whether the site and design comply with the criteria contained in this subpart. Once again, while the criteria may be written in unqualified terms, the demonstration of compliance may take uncertainties and gaps in knowledge into account, provided that the Commission can make the specified finding of reasonable assurance as specified in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.102" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.82.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.102   Concepts.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides a functional overview of subpart E. In the event of any inconsistency with definitions found in § 60.2, those definitions shall prevail.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>The HLW facility.</I> NRC exercises licensing and related regulatory authority over those facilities described in section 202 (3) and (4) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974. Any of these facilities is designated a <I>HLW facility.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The geologic repository operations area.</I> (1) This part deals with the exercise of authority with respect to a particular class of HLW facility—namely a <I>geologic repository operations area.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A geologic repository operations area</I> consists of those surface and subsurface areas that are part of a geologic repository where radioactive waste handling activities are conducted. The underground structure, including openings and backfill materials, but excluding shafts, boreholes, and their seals, is designated the <I>underground facility.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The exercise of Commission authority requires that the geologic repository operations area be used for <I>storage</I> (which includes <I>disposal</I>) of <I>high-level radioactive wastes (HLW).</I>
</P>
<P>(4) HLW includes irradiated reactor fuel as well as reprocessing wastes. However, if DOE proposes to use the geologic repository operations area for storage of <I>radioactive waste</I> other than HLW, the storage of this radioactive waste is subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Areas related to isolation.</I> Although the activities subject to regulation under this part are those to be carried out at the geologic repository operations area, the licensing process also considers characteristics of adjacent areas that are defined in other ways. There is to be an area surrounding the underground facility referred to above, which is designated the <I>postclosure controlled area,</I> within which DOE is to exercise specified controls to prevent adverse human actions following permanent closure. The location of the controlled area is the <I>site.</I> The <I>accessible environment</I> is the atmosphere, land surface, surface water, oceans, and the portion of the lithosphere that is outside the controlled area. There is an area, designated the <I>geologic setting,</I> which includes the geologic, hydrologic, and geochemical systems of the region in which a geologic repository operations area is or may be located. The geologic repository operations area plus the portion of the geologic setting that provides isolation of the radioactive waste make up the <I>geologic repository.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Stages in the licensing process.</I> There are several stages in the licensing process. The <I>site characterization</I> stage, though begun before submission of a license application, may result in consequences requiring evaluation in the license review. The <I>construction stage</I> would follow, after issuance of a construction authorization. A <I>period of operations</I> follows the issuance of a license by the Commission. The period of operations includes the time during which <I>emplacement</I> of wastes occurs; any subsequent period before permanent closure during which the emplaced wastes are <I>retrievable;</I> and <I>permanent closure,</I> which includes sealing of shafts. Permanent closure represents the end of active human intervention with respect to the engineered barrier system.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Isolation of waste.</I> (1) During the first several hundred years following permanent closure of a geologic repository, when radiation and thermal levels are high and the uncertainties in assessing repository performance are large, special emphasis is placed upon the ability to contain the wastes by waste packages within an <I>engineered barrier system.</I> This is known as the <I>containment period.</I> The <I>engineered barrier system</I> includes the waste packages and the underground facility. A <I>waste package</I> is composed of the waste form and any containers, shielding, packing, and absorbent materials immediately surrounding an individual waste container. The <I>underground facility</I> means the underground structure, including openings and backfill materials, but excluding, shafts, boreholes, and their seals.
</P>
<P>(2) Following the containment period special emphasis is placed upon the ability to achieve isolation of the wastes by virtue of the characteristics of the geologic repository. The engineered barrier system works to control the release of radioactive material to the geologic setting and the geologic setting works to control the release of radioactive material to the accessible environment. <I>Isolation</I> means inhibiting the transport of radioactive material so that amounts and concentrations of the materials entering the accessible environment will be kept within prescribed limits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 64268, Dec. 4, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="82" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.82" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Performance Objectives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.111" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.82.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.111   Performance of the geologic repository operations area through permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protection against radiation exposures and releases of radioactive material.</I> The geologic repository operations area shall be designed so that until permanent closure has been completed, radiation exposures and radiation levels, and releases of radioactive materials to unrestricted areas, will be maintained within the limits specified in part 20 of this chapter and such generally applicable environmental standards for radioactivity as may have been established by the Environmental Protection Agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retrievability of waste.</I> (1) The geologic repository operations area shall be designed to preserve the option of waste retrieval throughout the period during which wastes are being emplaced and, thereafter, until the completion of a preformance confirmation program and Commission review of the information obtained from such a program. To satisfy this objective, the geologic repository operations area shall be designed so that any or all of the emplaced waste could be retrieved on a reasonable schedule starting at any time up to 50 years after waste emplacement operations are initiated, unless a different time period is approved or specified by the Commission. This different time period may be established on a case-by-case basis consistent with the emplacement schedule and the planned performance confirmation program.
</P>
<P>(2) This requirement shall not preclude decisions by the Commission to allow backfilling part or all of, or permanent closure of, the geologic repository operations area prior to the end of the period of design for retrievability.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this paragraph, a reasonable schedule for retrieval is one that would permit retrieval in about the same time as that devoted to construction of the geologic repository operations area and the emplacement of wastes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 64268, Dec. 4, 1996; 62 FR 59276, Nov. 3, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.112" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.82.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.112   Overall system performance objective for the geologic repository after permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>The geologic setting shall be selected and the engineered barrier system and the shafts, boreholes and their seals shall be designed to assure that releases of radioactive materials to the accessible environment following permanent closure conform to such generally applicable environmental standards for radioactivity as may have been established by the Environmental Protection Agency with respect to both anticipated processes and events and unanticipated processes and events.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.113" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.82.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.113   Performance of particular barriers after permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions</I>—(1) <I>Engineered barrier system.</I> (i) The engineered barrier system shall be designed so that assuming anticipated processes and events: (A) Containment of HLW will be substantially complete during the period when radiation and thermal conditions in the engineered barrier system are dominated by fission product decay; and (B) any release of radionuclides from the engineered barrier system shall be a gradual process which results in small fractional releases to the geologic setting over long times. For disposal in the saturated zone, both the partial and complete filling with groundwater of available void spaces in the underground facility shall be appropriately considered and analysed among the anticipated processes and events in designing the engineered barrier system.
</P>
<P>(ii) In satisfying the preceding requirement, the engineered barrier system shall be designed, assuming anticipated processes and events, so that:
</P>
<P>(A) Containment of HLW within the waste packages will be substantially complete for a period to be determined by the Commission taking into account the factors specified in § 60.113(b) provided, that such period shall be not less than 300 years nor more than 1,000 years after permanent closure of the geologic repository; and
</P>
<P>(B) The release rate of any radionuclide from the engineered barrier system following the containment period shall not exceed one part in 100,000 per year of the inventory of that radionuclide calculated to be present at 1,000 years following permanent closure, or such other fraction of the inventory as may be approved or specified by the Commission; provided, that this requirement does not apply to any radionuclide which is released at a rate less than 0.1% of the calculated total release rate limit. The calculated total release rate limit shall be taken to be one part in 100,000 per year of the inventory of radioactive waste, originally emplaced in the underground facility, that remains after 1,000 years of radioactive decay.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geologic setting.</I> The geologic repository shall be located so that pre-waste-emplacement groundwater travel time along the fastest path of likely radionuclide travel from the disturbed zone to the accessible environment shall be at least 1,000 years or such other travel time as may be approved or specified by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) On a case-by-case basis, the Commission may approve or specify some other radionuclide release rate, designed containment period or pre-waste-emplacement groundwater travel time, provided that the overall system performance objective, as it relates to anticipated processes and events, is satisfied. Among the factors that the Commission may take into account are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any generally applicable environmental standard for radioactivity established by the Environmental Protection Agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The age and nature of the waste, and the design of the underground facility, particularly as these factors bear upon the time during which the thermal pulse is dominated by the decay heat from the fission products;
</P>
<P>(3) The geochemical characteristics of the host rock, surrounding strata and groundwater; and
</P>
<P>(4) Particular sources of uncertainty in predicting the performance of the geologic repository.
</P>
<P>(c) Additional requirements may be found to be necessary to satisfy the overall system performance objective as it relates to unanticipated processes and events.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="83" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.83" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Land Ownership and Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.121" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.83.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.121   Requirements for ownership and control of interests in land.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ownership of land.</I> (1) Both the geologic repository operations area and the postclosure controlled area shall be located in and on lands that are either acquired lands under the jurisdiction and control of DOE, or lands permanently withdrawn and reserved for its use.
</P>
<P>(2) These lands shall be held free and clear of all encumbrances, if significant, such as: (i) Rights arising under the general mining laws; (ii) easements for right-of-way; and (iii) all other rights arising under lease, rights of entry, deed, patent, mortgage, appropriation, prescription, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional controls.</I> Appropriate controls shall be established outside of the postclosure controlled area. DOE shall exercise any jurisdiction and control over surface and subsurface estates necessary to prevent adverse human actions that could significantly reduce the geologic repository's ability to achieve isolation. The rights of DOE may take the form of appropriate possessory interests, servitudes, or withdrawals from location or patent under the general mining laws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Water rights.</I> (1) DOE shall also have obtained such water rights as may be needed to accomplish the purpose of the geologic repository operations area.
</P>
<P>(2) Water rights are included in the additional controls to be established under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 64268, Dec. 4, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="84" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.84" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Siting Criteria</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.122" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.84.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.122   Siting criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A geologic setting shall exhibit an appropriate combination of the conditions specified in paragraph (b) of this section so that, together with the engineered barriers system, the favorable conditions present are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the performance objectives relating to isolation of the waste will be met.
</P>
<P>(2) If any of the potentially adverse conditions specified in paragraph (c) of this section is present, it may compromise the ability of the geologic repository to meet the performance objectives relating to isolation of the waste. In order to show that a potentially adverse condition does not so compromise the performance of the geologic repository the following must be demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(i) The potentially adverse human activity or natural condition has been adequately investigated, including the extent to which the condition may be present and still be undetected taking into account the degree of resolution achieved by the investigations; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The effect of the potentially adverse human activity or natural condition on the site has been adequately evaluated using analyses which are sensitive to the potentially adverse human activity or natural condition and assumptions which are not likely to underestimate its effect; and
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) The potentially adverse human activity or natural condition is shown by analysis pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section not to affect significantly the ability of the geologic repository to meet the performance objectives relating to isolation of the waste, or
</P>
<P>(B) The effect of the potentially adverse human activity or natural condition is compensated by the presence of a combination of the favorable characteristics so that the performance objectives relating to isolation of the waste are met, or
</P>
<P>(C) The potentially adverse human activity or natural condition can be remedied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) The nature and rates of tectonic, hydrogeologic, geochemical, and geomorphic processes (or any of such processes) operating within the geologic setting during the Quaternary Period, when projected, would not affect or would favorably affect the ability of the geologic repository to isolate the waste.
</P>
<P>(2) For disposal in the saturated zone, hydrogeologic conditions that provide:
</P>
<P>(i) A host rock with low horizontal and vertical permeability;
</P>
<P>(ii) Downward or dominantly horizontal hydraulic gradient in the host rock and immediately surrounding hydrogeologic units; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Low vertical permeability and low hydraulic gradient between the host rock and the surrounding hydrogeologic units.
</P>
<P>(3) Geochemical conditions that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Promote precipitation or sorption of radionuclides; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Inhibit the formation of particulates, colloids, and inorganic and organic complexes that increase the mobility of radionuclides; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Inhibit the transport of radionuclides by particulates, colloids, and complexes.
</P>
<P>(4) Mineral assemblages that, when subjected to anticipated thermal loading, will remain unaltered or alter to mineral assemblages having equal or increased capacity to inhibit radionuclide migration.
</P>
<P>(5) Conditions that permit the emplacement of waste at a minimum depth of 300 meters from the ground surface. (The ground surface shall be deemed to be the elevation of the lowest point on the surface above the disturbed zone.)
</P>
<P>(6) A low population density within the geologic setting and a postclosure controlled area that is remote from population centers.
</P>
<P>(7) Pre-waste-emplacement groundwater travel time along the fastest path of likely radionuclide travel from the disturbed zone to the accessible environment that substantially exceeds 1,000 years.
</P>
<P>(8) For disposal in the unsaturated zone, hydrogeologic conditions that provide—
</P>
<P>(i) Low moisture flux in the host rock and in the overlying and underlying hydrogeologic units;
</P>
<P>(ii) A water table sufficiently below the underground facility such that fully saturated voids contiguous with the water table do not encounter the underground facility;
</P>
<P>(iii) A laterally extensive low-permeability hydrogeologic unit above the host rock that would inhibit the downward movement of water or divert downward moving water to a location beyond the limits of the underground facility;
</P>
<P>(iv) A host rock that provides for free drainage; or
</P>
<P>(v) A climatic regime in which the average annual historic precipitation is a small percentage of the average annual potential evapotranspiration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> The following conditions are potentially adverse conditions if they are characteristic of the postclosure controlled area or may affect isolation within the controlled area.
</P>
<P>(1) Potential for flooding of the underground facility, whether resulting from the occupancy and modification of floodplains or from the failure of existing or planned man-made surface water impoundments.
</P>
<P>(2) Potential for foreseeable human activity to adversely affect the groundwater flow system, such as groundwater withdrawal, extensive irrigation, subsurface injection of fluids, underground pumped storage, military activity or construction of large scale surface water impoundments.
</P>
<P>(3) Potential for natural phenomena such as landslides, subsidence, or volcanic activity of such a magnitude that large-scale surface water impoundments could be created that could change the regional groundwater flow system and thereby adversely affect the performance of the geologic repository.
</P>
<P>(4) Structural deformation, such as uplift, subsidence, folding, or faulting that may adversely affect the regional groundwater flow system.
</P>
<P>(5) Potential for changes in hydrologic conditions that would affect the migration of radionuclides to the accessible environment, such as changes in hydraulic gradient, average interstitial velocity, storage coefficient, hydraulic conductivity, natural recharge, potentiometric levels, and discharge points.
</P>
<P>(6) Potential for changes in hydrologic conditions resulting from reasonably foreseeable climatic changes.
</P>
<P>(7) Groundwater conditions in the host rock, including chemical composition, high ionic strength or ranges of Eh-pH, that could increase the solubility or chemical reactivity of the engineered barrier system.
</P>
<P>(8) Geochemical processes that would reduce sorption of radionuclides, result in degradation of the rock strength, or adversely affect the performance of the engineered barrier system.
</P>
<P>(9) Groundwater conditions in the host rock that are not reducing.
</P>
<P>(10) Evidence of dissolutioning such as breccia pipes, dissolution cavities, or brine pockets.
</P>
<P>(11) Structural deformation such as uplift, subsidence, folding, and faulting during the Quaternary Period.
</P>
<P>(12) Earthquakes which have occurred historically that if they were to be repeated could affect the site significantly.
</P>
<P>(13) Indications, based on correlations of earthquakes with tectonic processes and features, that either the frequency of occurrence or magnitude of earthquakes may increase.
</P>
<P>(14) More frequent occurrence of earthquakes or earthquakes of higher magnitude than is typical of the area in which the geologic setting is located.
</P>
<P>(15) Evidence of igneous activity since the start of the Quaternary Period.
</P>
<P>(16) Evidence of extreme erosion during the Quaternary Period.
</P>
<P>(17) The presence of naturally occurring materials, whether identified or undiscovered, within the site, in such form that:
</P>
<P>(i) Economic extraction is currently feasible or potentially feasible during the foreseeable future; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such materials have greater gross value or net value than the average for other areas of similar size that are representative of and located within the geologic setting.
</P>
<P>(18) Evidence of subsurface mining for resources within the site.
</P>
<P>(19) Evidence of drilling for any purpose within the site.
</P>
<P>(20) Rock or groundwater conditions that would require complex engineering measures in the design and construction of the underground facility or in the sealing of boreholes and shafts.
</P>
<P>(21) Geomechanical properties that do not permit design of underground opening that will remain stable through permanent closure.
</P>
<P>(22) Potential for the water table to rise sufficiently so as to cause saturation of an underground facility located in the unsaturated zone.
</P>
<P>(23) Potential for existing or future perched water bodies that may saturate portions of the underground facility or provide a faster flow path from an underground facility located in the unsaturated zone to the accessible environment.
</P>
<P>(24) Potential for the movement of radionuclides in a gaseous state through air-filled pore spaces of an unsaturated geologic medium to the accessible environment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 29647, July 22, 1985; 61 FR 64269, Dec. 4, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="85" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.85" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Design Criteria for the Geologic Repository Operations Area</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.130" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.85.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.130   General considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to the provisions of § 60.21(c)(2)(i), an application for construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area, and an application for a license to receive, possess, store, and dispose of high-level radioactive waste in the geologic repository operations area, must include the principal design criteria for a proposed facility. The principal design criteria establish the necessary design, fabrication, construction, testing, maintenance, and performance requirements for structures, systems, and components important to safety and/or important to waste isolation. Sections 60.131 through 60.134 specify minimum requirements for the principal design criteria for the geologic repository operations area.
</P>
<P>(b) These design criteria are not intended to be exhaustive. However, omissions in §§ 60.131 through 60.134 do not relieve DOE from any obligation to provide such features in a specific facility needed to achieve the performance objectives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2280, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.131" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.85.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.131   General design criteria for the geologic repository operations area.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Radiological protection.</I> The geologic repository operations area shall be designed to maintain radiation doses, levels, and concentrations of radioactive material in air in restricted areas within the limits specified in part 20 of this chapter. Design shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Means to limit concentrations of radioactive material in air; 
</P>
<P>(2) Means to limit the time required to perform work in the vicinity of radioactive materials, including, as appropriate, designing equipment for ease of repair and replacement and providing adequate space for ease of operation;
</P>
<P>(3) Suitable shielding;
</P>
<P>(4) Means to monitor and control the dispersal of radioactive contamination;
</P>
<P>(5) Means to control access to high radiation areas or airborne radioactivity areas; and
</P>
<P>(6) A radiation alarm system to warn of significant increases in radiation levels, concentrations of radioactive material in air, and of increased radioactivity released in effluents. The alarm system shall be designed with provisions for calibration and for testing its operability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protection against design basis events.</I> The structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed so that they will perform their necessary safety functions, assuming occurrence of design basis events. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection against dynamic effects of equipment failure and similar events.</I> The structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed to withstand dynamic effects such as missile impacts, that could result from equipment failure, and similar events and conditions that could lead to loss of their safety functions. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Protection against fires and explosions.</I> (1) The structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed to perform their safety functions during and after credible fires or explosions in the geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent practicable, the geologic repository operations area shall be designed to incorporate the use of noncombustible and heat resistant materials. 
</P>
<P>(3) The geologic repository operations area shall be designed to include explosion and fire detection alarm systems and appropriate suppression systems with sufficient capacity and capability to reduce the adverse effects of fires and explosions on structures, systems, and components important to safety. 
</P>
<P>(4) The geologic repository operations area shall be designed to include means to protect systems, structures, and components important to safety against the adverse effects of either the operation or failure of the fire suppression systems. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Emergency capability.</I> (1) The structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed to maintain control of radioactive waste and radioactive effluents, and permit prompt termination of operations and evacuation of personnel during an emergency. 
</P>
<P>(2) The geologic repository operations area shall be designed to include onsite facilities and services that ensure a safe and timely response to emergency conditions and that facilitate the use of available offsite services (such as fire, police, medical, and ambulance service) that may aid in recovery from emergencies. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Utility services.</I> (1) Each utility service system that is important to safety shall be designed so that essential safety functions can be performed, assuming occurrence of the design basis events. 
</P>
<P>(2) The utility services important to safety shall include redundant systems to the extent necessary to maintain, with adequate capacity, the ability to perform their safety functions. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provisions shall be made so that, if there is a loss of the primary electric power source or circuit, reliable and timely emergency power can be provided to instruments, utility service systems, and operating systems, including alarm systems, important to safety. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Inspection, testing, and maintenance.</I> The structures, systems, and components important to safety shall be designed to permit periodic inspection, testing, and maintenance, as necessary, to ensure their continued functioning and readiness. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Criticality control.</I> All systems for processing, transporting, handling, storage, retrieval, emplacement, and isolation of radioactive waste shall be designed to ensure that nuclear criticality is not possible unless at least two unlikely, independent, and concurrent or sequential changes have occurred in the conditions essential to nuclear criticality safety. Each system must be designed for criticality safety assuming occurrence of design basis events. The calculated effective multiplication factor (k<E T="52">eff</E>) must be sufficiently below unity to show at least a 5 percent margin, after allowance for the bias in the method of calculation and the uncertainty in the experiments used to validate the method of calculation. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Instrumentation and control systems.</I> The design shall include provisions for instrumentation and control systems to monitor and control the behavior of systems important to safety, assuming occurrence of design basis events. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Compliance with mining regulations.</I> To the extent that DOE is not subject to the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977, as to the construction and operation of the geologic repository operations area, the design of the geologic repository operations area shall nevertheless include provisions for worker protection necessary to provide reasonable assurance that all structures, systems, and components important to safety can perform their intended functions. Any deviation from relevant design requirements in 30 CFR, chapter I, subchapters D, E, and N will give rise to a rebuttable presumption that this requirement has not been met. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Shaft conveyances used in radioactive waste handling.</I> (1) Hoists important to safety shall be designed to preclude cage free fall. 
</P>
<P>(2) Hoists important to safety shall be designed with a reliable cage location system. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loading and unloading systems for hoists important to safety shall be designed with a reliable system of interlocks that will fail safely upon malfunction. 
</P>
<P>(4) Hoists important to safety shall be designed to include two independent indicators to indicate when waste packages are in place and ready for transfer. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 64269, Dec. 4, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.132" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.132   Additional design criteria for surface facilities in the geologic repository operations area.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Facilities for receipt and retrieval of waste.</I> Surface facilities in the geologic repository operations area shall be designed to allow safe handling and storage of wastes at the geologic repository operations area, whether these wastes are on the surface before emplacement or as a result of retrieval from the underground facility. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Surface facility ventilation.</I> Surface facility ventilation systems supporting waste transfer, inspection, decontamination, processing, or packaging shall be designed to provide protection against radiation exposures and offsite releases as provided in § 60.111(a). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Radiation control and monitoring</I>—(1) <I>Effluent control.</I> The surface facilities shall be designed to control the release of radioactive materials in effluents during Category 1 design basis events so as to meet the performance objectives of § 60.111(a). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effluent monitoring.</I> The effluent monitoring systems shall be designed to measure the amount and concentration of radionuclides in any effluent with sufficient precision to determine whether releases conform to the design requirement for effluent control. The monitoring systems shall be designed to include alarms that can be periodically tested. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waste treatment.</I> Radioactive waste treatment facilities shall be designed to process any radioactive wastes generated at the geologic repository operations area into a form suitable to permit safe disposal at the geologic repository operations area or to permit safe transportation and conversion to a form suitable for disposal at an alternative site in accordance with any regulations that are applicable. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consideration of decommissioning.</I> The surface facility shall be designed to facilitate decontamination or dismantlement to the same extent as would be required, under other parts of this chapter, with respect to equivalent activities licensed thereunder. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 64270, Dec. 4, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.133" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.133   Additional design criteria for the underground facility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General criteria for the underground facility.</I> (1) The orientation, geometry, layout, and depth of the underground facility, and the design of any engineered barriers that are part of the underground facility shall contribute to the containment and isolation of radionuclides. 
</P>
<P>(2) The underground facility shall be designed so that the effects of credible disruptive events during the period of operations, such as flooding, fires and explosions, will not spread through the facility. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Flexibility of design.</I> The underground facility shall be designed with sufficient flexibility to allow adjustments where necessary to accommodate specific site conditions identified through in situ monitoring, testing, or excavation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retrieval of waste.</I> The underground facility shall be designed to permit retrieval of waste in accordance with the performance objectives of § 60.111.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Control of water and gas.</I> The design of the underground facility shall provide for control of water or gas intrusion. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Underground openings.</I> (1) Openings in the underground facility shall be designed so that operations can be carried out safely and the retrievability option maintained. 
</P>
<P>(2) Openings in the underground facility shall be designed to reduce the potential for deleterious rock movement or fracturing of overlying or surrounding rock. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rock excavation.</I> The design of the underground facility shall incorporate excavation methods that will limit the potential for creating a preferential pathway for groundwater to contact the waste packages or radionuclide migration to the accessible environment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Underground facility ventilation.</I> The ventilation system shall be designed to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Control the transport of radioactive particulates and gases within and releases from the underground facility in accordance with the performance objectives of § 60.111(a), 
</P>
<P>(2) Assure the ability to perform essential safety functions assuming occurrence of design basis events. 
</P>
<P>(3) Separate the ventilation of excavation and waste emplacement areas. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Engineered barriers.</I> Engineered barriers shall be designed to assist the geologic setting in meeting the performance objectives for the period following permanent closure. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Thermal loads.</I> The underground facility shall be designed so that the performance objectives will be met taking into account the predicted thermal and thermomechanical response of the host rock, and surrounding strata, groundwater system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 29648, July 22, 1985; 61 FR 64270, Dec. 4, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.134" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.85.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.134   Design of seals for shafts and boreholes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General design criterion.</I> Seals for shafts and boreholes shall be designed so that following permanent closure they do not become pathways that compromise the geologic repository's ability to meet the performance objectives or the period following permanent closure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Selection of materials and placement methods.</I> Materials and placement methods for seals shall be selected to reduce, to the extent practicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) The potential for creating a preferential pathway for groundwater to contact the waste packages or 
</P>
<P>(2) For radionuclide migration through existing pathways.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28222, June 21, 1983, as amended at 50 FR 29648, July 22, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="86" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.86" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Design Criteria for the Waste Package</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.135" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.86.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.135   Criteria for the waste package and its components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>High-level-waste package design in general.</I> (1) Packages for HLW shall be designed so that the in situ chemical, physical, and nuclear properties of the waste package and its interactions with the emplacement environment do not compromise the function of the waste packages or the performance of the underground facility or the geologic setting. 
</P>
<P>(2) The design shall include but not be limited to consideration of the following factors: solubility, oxidation/reduction reactions, corrosion, hydriding, gas generation, thermal effects, mechanical strength, mechanical stress, radiolysis, radiation damage, radionuclide retardation, leaching, fire and explosion hazards, thermal loads, and synergistic interactions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific criteria for HLW package design</I>—(1) <I>Explosive, pyrophoric, and chemically reactive materials.</I> The waste package shall not contain explosive or pyrophoric materials or chemically reactive materials in an amount that could compromise the ability of the underground facility to contribute to waste isolation or the ability of the geologic repository to satisfy the performance objectives. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Free liquids.</I> The waste package shall not contain free liquids in an amount that could compromise the ability of the waste packages to achieve the performance objectives relating to containment of HLW (because of chemical interactions or formation of pressurized vapor) or result in spillage and spread of contamination in the event of waste package perforation during the period through permanent closure. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Handling.</I> Waste packages shall be designed to maintain waste containment during transportation, emplacement, and retrieval. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unique identification.</I> A label or other means of identification shall be provided for each waste package. The identification shall not impair the integrity of the waste package and shall be applied in such a way that the information shall be legible at least to the end of the period of retrievability. Each waste package identification shall be consistent with the waste package's permanent written records. 
</P>
<P>(c) Waste form criteria for HLW. High-level radioactive waste that is emplaced in the underground facility shall be designed to meet the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Solidification.</I> All such radioactive wastes shall be in solid form and placed in sealed containers. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consolidation.</I> Particulate waste forms shall be consolidated (for example, by incorporation into an encapsulating matrix) to limit the availability and generation of particulates. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Combustibles.</I> All combustible radioactive wastes shall be reduced to a noncombustible form unless it can be demonstrated that a fire involving the waste packages containing combustibles will not compromise the integrity of other waste packages, adversely affect any structures, systems, or components important to safety, or compromise the ability of the underground facility to contribute to waste isolation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Design criteria for other radioactive wastes.</I> Design criteria for waste types other than HLW will be addressed on an individual basis if and when they are proposed for disposal in a geologic repository.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="87" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.87" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preclosure Controlled Area</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.136" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.87.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.136   Preclosure controlled area.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A preclosure controlled area must be established for the geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P>(b) The geologic repository operations area shall be designed so that, for Category 2 design basis events, no individual located on or beyond any point on the boundary of the preclosure controlled area will receive the more limiting of a total effective dose equivalent of 0.05 Sv (5 rem), or the sum of the deep-dose equivalent and the committed dose equivalent to any individual organ or tissue (other than the lens of the eye) of 0.5 Sv (50 rem). The eye dose equivalent shall not exceed 0.15 Sv (15 rem), and the shallow dose equivalent to skin shall not exceed 0.5 Sv (50 rem). The minimum distance from the surface facilities in the geologic repository operations area to the boundary of the preclosure controlled area must be at least 100 meters. 
</P>
<P>(c) The preclosure controlled area may be traversed by a highway, railroad, or waterway, so long as appropriate and effective arrangements are made to control traffic and to protect public health and safety. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 64270, Dec. 4, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="88" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.88" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Performance Confirmation Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.137" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.5.88.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.137   General requirements for performance confirmation.</HEAD>
<P>The geologic repository operations area shall be designed so as to permit implementation of a performance confirmation program that meets the requirements of subpart F of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Performance Confirmation Program</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 28228, June 21, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 60.140" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.6.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.140   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The performance confirmation program shall provide data which indicates, where practicable, whether: 
</P>
<P>(1) Actual subsurface conditions encountered and changes in those conditions during construction and waste emplacement operations are within the limits assumed in the licensing review; and
</P>
<P>(2) Natural and engineered systems and components required for repository operation, or which are designed or assumed to operate as barriers after permanent closure, are functioning as intended and anticipated.
</P>
<P>(b) The program shall have been started during site characterization and it will continue until permanent closure.
</P>
<P>(c) The program shall include in situ monitoring, laboratory and field testing, and in situ experiments, as may be appropriate to accomplish the objective as stated above.
</P>
<P>(d) The program shall be implemented so that:
</P>
<P>(1) It does not adversely affect the ability of the natural and engineered elements of the geologic repository to meet the performance objectives.
</P>
<P>(2) It provides baseline information and analysis of that information on those parameters and natural processes pertaining to the geologic setting that may be changed by site characterization, construction, and operational activities.
</P>
<P>(3) It monitors and analyzes changes from the baseline condition of parameters that could affect the performance of a geologic repository.
</P>
<P>(4) It provides an established plan for feedback and analysis of data, and implementation of appropriate action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.141" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.6.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.141   Confirmation of geotechnical and design parameters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During repository construction and operation, a continuing program of surveillance, measurement, testing, and geologic mapping shall be conducted to ensure that geotechnical and design parameters are confirmed and to ensure that appropriate action is taken to inform the Commission of changes needed in design to accommodate actual field conditions encountered.
</P>
<P>(b) Subsurface conditions shall be monitored and evaluated against design assumptions.
</P>
<P>(c) As a minimum, measurements shall be made of rock deformations and displacement, changes in rock stress and strain, rate and location of water inflow into subsurface areas, changes in groundwater conditions, rock pore water pressures including those along fractures and joints, and the thermal and thermomechanical response of the rock mass as a result of development and operations of the geologic repository.
</P>
<P>(d) These measurements and observations shall be compared with the original design bases and assumptions. If significant differences exist between the measurements and observations and the original design bases and assumptions, the need for modifications to the design or in construction methods shall be determined and these differences and the recommended changes reported to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) In situ monitoring of the thermomechanical response of the underground facility shall be conducted until permanent closure to ensure that the performance of the natural and engineering features are within design limits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.142" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.6.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.142   Design testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the early or developmental stages of construction, a program for in situ testing of such features as borehole and shaft seals, backfill, and the thermal interaction effects of the waste packages, backfill, rock, and groundwater shall be conducted.
</P>
<P>(b) The testing shall be initiated as early as is practicable. 
</P>
<P>(c) A backfill test section shall be constructed to test the effectiveness of backfill placement and compaction procedures against design requirements before permanent backfill placement is begun.
</P>
<P>(d) Test sections shall be established to test the effectiveness of borehole and shaft seals before full-scale operation proceeds to seal boreholes and shafts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.143" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.6.89.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.143   Monitoring and testing waste packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A program shall be established at the geologic repository operations area for monitoring the condition of the waste packages. Waste packages chosen for the program shall be representative of those to be emplaced in the underground facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Consistent with safe operation at the geologic repository operations area, the environment of the waste packages selected for the waste package monitoring program shall be representative of the environment in which the wastes are to be emplaced.
</P>
<P>(c) The waste package monitoring program shall include laboratory experiments which focus on the internal condition of the waste packages. To the extent practical, the environment experienced by the emplaced waste packages within the underground facility during the waste package monitoring program shall be duplicated in the laboratory experiments.
</P>
<P>(d) The waste package monitoring program shall continue as long as practical up to the time of permanent closure.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Quality Assurance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 28228, June 21, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 60.150" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.7.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.150   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, <I>quality assurance</I> comprises all those planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that the geologic repository and its subsystems or components will perform satisfactorily in service. Quality assurance includes quality control, which comprises those quality assurance actions related to the physical characteristics of a material, structure, component, or system which provide a means to control the quality of the material, structure, component, or system to predetermined requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.151" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.7.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.151   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The quality assurance program applies to all systems, structures and components important to safety, to design and characterization of barriers important to waste isolation and to activities related thereto. These activities include: site characterization, facility and equipment construction, facility operation, performance confirmation, permanent closure, and decontamination and dismantling of surface facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.152" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.7.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.152   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall implement a quality assurance program based on the criteria of appendix B of 10 CFR part 50 as applicable, and appropriately supplemented by additional criteria as required by § 60.151.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Training and Certification of Personnel</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 28229, June 21, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 60.160" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.8.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.160   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Operations of systems and components that have been identified as important to safety in the Safety Analysis Report and in the license shall be performed only by trained and certified personnel or by personnel under the direct visual supervision of an individual with training and certification in such operation. Supervisory personnel who direct operations that are important to safety must also be certified in such operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.161" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.8.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.161   Training and certification program.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall establish a program for training, proficiency testing, certification and requalification of operating and supervisory personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.162" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.8.89.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.162   Physical requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The physical condition and the general health of personnel certified for operations that are important to safety shall not be such as might cause operational errors that could endanger the public health and safety. Any condition which might cause impaired judgment or motor coordination must be considered in the selection of personnel for activities that are important to safety. These conditions need not categorically disqualify a person, so long as appropriate provisions are made to accommodate such conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Emergency Planning Criteria [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.181" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.10.89.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.181   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55076, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 60.183" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.6.10.89.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 60.183   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 60 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 60 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 60.1, 60.2, 60.3, 60.5, 60.6, 60.7, 60.8, 60.15, 60.16, 60.17, 60.18, 60.21, 60.22, 60.23, 60.24, 60.31, 60.32, 60.33, 60.41, 60.42, 60.43, 60.44, 60.45, 60.46, 60.51, 60.52, 60.61, 60.62, 60.63, 60.64, 60.65, 60.101, 60.102, 60.111, 60.112, 60.113, 60.121, 60.122, 60.130, 60.131, 60.132, 60.133, 60.134, 60.135, 60.137, 60.140, 60.141, 60.142, 60.143, 60.150, 60.151, 60.152, 60.162, 60.181, and 60.183.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55076, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 61—LICENSING REQUIREMENTS FOR LAND DISPOSAL OF RADIOACTIVE WASTE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 57, 62, 63, 65, 81, 161, 181, 182, 183, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2077, 2092, 2093, 2095, 2111, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846, 5851); Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985, sec. 2 (42 U.S.C. 2021b); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 61 appear at 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015, and at 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part establish, for land disposal of radioactive waste, the procedures, criteria, and terms and conditions upon which the Commission issues licenses for the disposal of radioactive wastes containing byproduct, source and special nuclear material received from other persons. Disposal of waste by an individual licensee is set forth in part 20 of this chapter. Applicability of the requirements in this part to Commission licenses for waste disposal facilities in effect on the effective date of this rule will be determined on a case-by-case basis and implemented through terms and conditions of the license or by orders issued by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in part 150 of this chapter, which addresses assumption of certain regulatory authority by Agreement States, and § 61.6 “Exemptions,” the regulations in this part apply to all persons in the United States. The regulations in this part do not apply to— 
</P>
<P>(1) Disposal of high-level waste as provided for in part 60 or 63 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(2) Disposal of uranium or thorium tailings or wastes (byproduct material as defined in § 40.4 (a-1) as provided for in part 40 of this chapter in quantities greater than 10,000 kilograms and containing more than 5 millicuries of radium-226; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Disposal of licensed material as provided for in part 20 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 61.9b.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 56 FR 40690, Aug. 15, 1991; 63 FR 1898, Jan. 13, 1998; 66 FR 55791, Nov. 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Active maintenance</I> means any significant remedial activity needed during the period of institutional control to maintain a reasonable assurance that the performance objectives in §§ 61.41 and 61.42 are met. Such active maintenance includes ongoing activities such as the pumping and treatment of water from a disposal unit or one-time measures such as replacement of a disposal unit cover. Active maintenance does not include custodial activities such as repair of fencing, repair or replacement of monitoring equipment, revegetation, minor additions to soil cover, minor repair of disposal unit covers, and general disposal site upkeep such as mowing grass.
</P>
<P><I>Buffer zone</I> is a portion of the disposal site that is controlled by the licensee and that lies under the disposal units and between the disposal units and the boundary of the site.
</P>
<P><I>Chelating agent</I> means amine polycarboxylic acids (e.g., EDTA, DTPA), hydroxy-carboxylic acids, and polycarboxylic acids (e.g., citric acid, carbolic acid, and glucinic acid).
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means any clearing of land, excavation, or other substantial action that would adversely affect the environment of a land disposal facility. The term does not mean disposal site exploration, necessary roads for disposal site exploration, borings to determine foundation conditions, or other preconstruction monitoring or testing to establish background information related to the suitability of the disposal site or the protection of environmental values.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Custodial Agency</I> means an agency of the government designated to act on behalf of the government owner of the disposal site.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal</I> means the isolation of radioactive wastes from the biosphere inhabited by man and containing his food chains by emplacement in a land disposal facility.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal site</I> means that portion of a land disposal facility which is used for disposal of waste. It consists of disposal units and a buffer zone.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal unit</I> means a discrete portion of the disposal site into which waste is placed for disposal. For near-surface disposal the unit is usually a trench.
</P>
<P><I>Engineered barrier</I> means a man-made structure or device that is intended to improve the land disposal facility's ability to meet the performance objectives in subpart C.
</P>
<P><I>Explosive material</I> means any chemical compound, mixture, or device, which produces a substantial instantaneous release of gas and heat spontaneously or by contact with sparks or flame.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, or corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States; or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the government.
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous waste</I> means those wastes designated as hazardous by Environmental Protection Agency regulations in 40 CFR part 261.
</P>
<P><I>Hydrogeologic unit</I> means any soil or rock unit or zone which by virtue of its porosity or permeability, or lack thereof, has a distinct influence on the storage or movement of groundwater.
</P>
<P><I>Inadvertent intruder</I> means a person who might occupy the disposal site after closure and engage in normal activities, such as agriculture, dwelling construction, or other pursuits in which the person might be unknowingly exposed to radiation from the waste.
</P>
<P><I>Indian Tribe</I> means an Indian Tribe as defined in the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5301).
</P>
<P><I>Intruder barrier</I> means a sufficient depth of cover over the waste that inhibits contact with waste and helps to ensure that radiation exposures to an inadvertent intruder will meet the performance objectives set forth in this part, or engineered structures that provide equivalent protection to the inadvertent intruder.
</P>
<P><I>Land disposal facility</I> means the land, building, and structures, and equipment which are intended to be used for the disposal of radioactive wastes. For purposes of this chapter, a “geologic repository” as defined in part 60 or 63 is not considered a land disposal facility. 
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a license issued under the regulations in part 61 of this chapter. <I>Licensee</I> means the holder of such a license.
</P>
<P><I>Monitoring</I> means observing and making measurements to provide data to evaluate the performance and characteristics of the disposal site.
</P>
<P><I>Near-surface disposal facility</I> means a land disposal facility in which radioactive waste is disposed of in or within the upper 30 meters of the earth's surface.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means (1) any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy (except that the Department of Energy is considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to law), any State or any political subdivision of or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P><I>Pyrophoric liquid</I> means any liquid that ignites spontaneously in dry or moist air at or below 130 °F (54.5 °C). A pyrophoric solid is any solid material, other than one classed as an explosive, which under normal conditions is liable to cause fires through friction, retained heat from manufacturing or processing, or which can be ignited readily and when ignited burns so vigorously and persistently as to create a serious transportation, handling, or disposal hazard. Included are spontaneously combustible and water-reactive materials.
</P>
<P><I>Site closure and stablization</I> means those actions that are taken upon completion of operations that prepare the disposal site for custodial care and that assure that the disposal site will remain stable and will not need ongoing active maintenance.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, Territory, or possession of the United States, Puerto Rico, and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Stability</I> means structural stabillity.
</P>
<P><I>Surveillance</I> means observation of the disposal site for purposes of visual detection of need for maintenance, custodial care, evidence of intrusion, and compliance with other license and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Tribal Governing Body</I> means a Tribal organization as defined in the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 5301).
</P>
<P><I>Waste</I> means those low-level radioactive wastes containing source, special nuclear, or byproduct material that are acceptable for disposal in a land disposal facility. For the purposes of this definition, low-level radioactive waste means radioactive waste not classified as high-level radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel, or byproduct material as defined in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of the definition of <I>Byproduct material</I> set forth in § 20.1003 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 22583, May 25, 1989; 58 FR 33891, June 22, 1993; 66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001; 72 FR 55933, Oct. 1, 2007; 73 FR 5725, Jan. 31, 2008; 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014; 82 FR 52825, Nov. 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.3   License required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person may receive, possess, and dispose of radioactive waste containing source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a land disposal facility unless authorized by a license issued by the Commission pursuant to this part, or unless exemption has been granted by the Commission under § 61.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person shall file an application with the Commission and obtain a license as provided in this part before commencing construction of a land disposal facility. Failure to comply with this requirement may be grounds for denial of a license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk; Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's Offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I>; by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5725, Jan. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 62683, Dec. 1, 2009; 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be considered binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 90 FR 55631, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.6   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application by any interested person, or upon its own initiative, grant any exemption from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines is authorized by law, will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and is otherwise in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.7   Concepts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The disposal facility.</I> (1) Part 61 is intended to apply to land disposal of radioactive waste and not to other methods such as sea or extraterrestrial disposal. Part 61 contains procedural requirements and performance objectives applicable to any method of land disposal. It contains specific technical requirements for near-surface disposal of radioactive waste, a subset of land disposal, which involves disposal in the uppermost portion of the earth, approximately 30 meters. Near-surface disposal includes disposal in engineered facilities which may be built totally or partially above-grade provided that such facilities have protective earthen covers. Near-surface disposal does not include disposal facilities which are partially or fully above-grade with no protective earthen cover, which are referred to as “above-ground disposal.” Burial deeper than 30 meters may also be satisfactory. Technical requirements for alternative methods may be added in the future. 
</P>
<P>(2) Near-surface disposal of radioactive waste takes place at a near-surface disposal facility, which includes all of the land and buildings necessary to carry out the disposal. The disposal site is that portion of the facility which is used for disposal of waste and consists of disposal units and a buffer zone. A disposal unit is a discrete portion of the disposal site into which waste is placed for disposal. For near-surface disposal, the disposal unit is usually a trench. A buffer zone is a portion of the disposal site that is controlled by the licensee and that lies under the site and between the boundary of the disposal site and any disposal unit. It provides controlled space to establish monitoring locations which are intended to provide an early warning of radionuclide movement, and to take mitigative measures if needed. In choosing a disposal site, site characteristics should be considered in terms of the indefinite future and evaluated for at least a 500-year timeframe.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waste classification and near-surface disposal.</I> (1) Disposal of radioactive waste in near-surface disposal facilities has the following safety objectives: protection of the general population from releases of radioactivity, protection of individuals from inadvertent intrusion, and protection of individuals during operations. A fourth objective is to ensure stability of the site after closure.
</P>
<P>(2) A cornerstone of the system is stability—stability of the waste and the disposal site so that once emplaced and covered, the access of water to the waste can be minimized. Migration of radionuclides is thus minimized, long-term active maintenance can be avoided, and potential exposures to intruders reduced. While stability is a desirable characteristic for all waste much radioactive waste does not contain sufficient amounts of radionuclides to be of great concern from these standpoints; this waste, however, tends to be unstable, such as ordinary trash type wastes. If mixed with the higher activity waste, their deterioration could lead to failure of the system and permit water to penetrate the disposal unit and cause problems with the higher activity waste. Therefore, in order to avoid placing requirements for a stable waste form on relatively innocuous waste, these wastes have been classed as Class A waste. The Class A waste will be disposed of in separate disposal units at the disposal site. However, Class A waste that is stable may be mixed with other classes of waste. Those higher activity wastes that should be stable for proper disposal are classed as Class B and C waste. To the extent that it is practicable, Class B and C waste forms or containers should be designed to be stable, <I>i.e.</I>, maintain gross physical properties and identity, over 300 years. For certain radionuclides prone to migration, a maximum disposal site inventory based on the characteristics of the disposal site may be established to limit potential exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) It is possible but unlikely that persons might occupy the site in the future and engage in normal pursuits without knowing that they were receiving radiation exposure. These persons are referred to as inadvertent intruders. Protection of such intruders can involve two principal controls: institutional control over the site after operations by the site owner to ensure that no such occupation or improper use of the site occurs; or, designating which waste could present an unacceptable risk to an intruder, and disposing of this waste in a manner that provides some form of intruder barrier that is intended to prevent contact with the waste. This regulation incorporates both types of protective controls.
</P>
<P>(4) Institutional control of access to the site is required for up to 100 years. This permits the disposal of Class A and Class B waste without special provisions for intrusion protection, since these classes of waste contain types and quantities of radioisotopes that will decay during the 100-year period and will present an acceptable hazard to an intruder. The government landowner administering the active institutional control program has flexibility in controlling site access which may include allowing productive uses of the land provided the integrity and long-term performance of the site are not affected.
</P>
<P>(5) Waste that will not decay to levels which present an acceptable hazard to an intruder within 100 years is designated as Class C waste. This waste is disposed of at a greater depth than the other classes of waste so that subsequent surface activities by an intruder will not disturb the waste. Where site conditions prevent deeper disposal, intruder barriers such as concrete covers may be used. The effective life of these intruder barriers should be 500 years. A maximum concentration of radionuclides is specified for all wastes so that at the end of the 500 year period, remaining radioactivity will be at a level that does not pose an unacceptable hazard to an intruder or public health and safety. Waste with concentrations above these limits is generally unacceptable for near-surface disposal. There may be some instances where waste with concentrations greater than permitted for Class C would be acceptable for near-surface disposal with special processing or design. These will be evaluated on a case-by-case basis. Class C waste must also be stable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The licensing process.</I> (1) During the preoperational phase, the potential applicant goes through a process of disposal site selection by selecting a region of interest, examining a number of possible disposal sites within the area of interest and narrowing the choice to the proposed site. Through a detailed investigation of the disposal site characteristics the potential applicant obtains data on which to base an analysis of the disposal site's suitability. Along with these data and analyses, the applicant submits other more general information to the Commission in the form of an application for a license for land disposal. The Commission's review of the application is in accordance with administrative procedures established by rule and may involve participation by affected State governments or Indian Tribes. While the proposed disposal site must be owned by a State or the Federal government before the Commission will issue a license, it may be privately owned during the preoperational phase if suitable arrangements have been made with a State or the Federal government to take ownership in fee of the land before the license is issued.
</P>
<P>(2) During the operational phase, the licensee carries out disposal activities in accordance with the requirements of this regulation and any conditions on the license. Periodically, the authority to conduct the above ground operations and dispose of waste will be subject to a license renewal, at which time the operating history will be reviewed and a decision made to permit or deny continued operation. When disposal operations are to cease, the licensee applies for an amendment to his license to permit site closure. After final review of the licensee's site closure and stabilization plan, the Commission may approve the final activities necessary to prepare the disposal site so that ongoing active maintenance of the site is not required during the period of institutional control.
</P>
<P>(3) During the period when the final site closure and stabilization activities are being carried out, the licensee is in a disposal site closure phase. Following that, for a period of 5 years, the licensee must remain at the disposal site for a period of post-closure observation and maintenance to assure that the disposal site is stable and ready for institutional control. The Commission may approve shorter or require longer periods if conditions warrant. At the end of this period, the licensee applies for a license transfer to the disposal site owner.
</P>
<P>(4) After a finding of satisfactory disposal site closure, the Commission will transfer the license to the State or Federal government that owns the disposal site. If the Department of Energy is the Federal agency administering the land on bahalf of the Federal government the license will be terminated because the Commission lacks regulatory authority over the Department for this activity. Under the conditions of the transferred license, the owner will carry out a program of monitoring to assure continued satisfactory disposal site performance, physical surveillance to restrict access to the site and carry out minor custodial activities. During this period, productive uses of the land might be permitted if those uses do not affect the stability of the site and its ability to meet the performance objectives. At the end of the prescribed period of institutional control, the license will be terminated by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 58 FR 33891, June 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0135.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this Part appear in §§ 61.3, 61.6, 61.9, 61.10, 61.11, 61.12, 61.13, 61.14, 61.15, 61.16, 61.20, 61.22, 61.24, 61.26, 61.27, 61.28, 61.30, 61.31, 61.32, 61.53, 61.55, 61.57, 61.58, 61.61, 61.62, 61.63, 61.72, and 61.80.
</P>
<P>(c) In § 61.32, IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms are approved under control number 3150-0056, and DOC/NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control numbers 0694-0135.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 33891, June 22, 1993, as amended at 62 FR 52188, Oct. 6, 1997; 73 FR 78606, Dec. 23, 2008; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.9   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act. 
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text of the section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text. 
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages. 
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraph (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant may be grounds for—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license. 
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each licensee and each applicant for a license shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(c). This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, and for 30 days following license termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC Form 3 can be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 52412, Oct. 8, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 61 FR 6765, Feb. 22, 1996; 68 FR 58814, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63974, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30459, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66605, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.9a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.9a   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant or licensee shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant or licensee violates this paragraph only if the applicant or licensee fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant or licensee has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification shall be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within two working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49372, Dec. 31, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.9b" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.1.90.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.9b   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, applicant for a license, employee of a licensee or applicant; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or applicant for a license, who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities in this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, an applicant, or a licensee's or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1898, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.10   Content of application.</HEAD>
<P>An application to receive from others, possess and dispose of wastes containing or contaminated with source, byproduct or special nuclear material by land disposal must consist of general information, specific technical information, institutional information, and financial information as set forth in §§ 61.11 through 61.16. An environmental report prepared in accordance with subpart A of part 51 of this chapter must accompany the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9405, Mar. 12, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.11   General information.</HEAD>
<P>The general information must include each of the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Identity of the applicant including: 
</P>
<P>(1) The full name, address, telephone number and description of the business or occupation of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant is a partnership, the name, and address of each partner and the principal location where the partnership does business; 
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant is a corporation or an unincorporated association, (i) the state where it is incorporated or organized and the principal location where it does business, and (ii) the names and addresses of its directors and principal officers; and 
</P>
<P>(4) If the applicant is acting as an agent or representative of another person in filing the application, all information required under this paragraph must be supplied with respect to the other person. 
</P>
<P>(b) Qualifications of the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(1) The organizational structure of the applicant, both offsite and onsite, including a description of lines of authority and assignments of responsibilities, whether in the form of administrative directives, contract provisions, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(2) The technical qualifications, including training and experience, of the applicant and members of the applicant's staff to engage in the proposed activities. Minimum training and experience requirements for personnel filling key positions described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be provided; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the applicant's personnel training program; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The plan to maintain an adequate complement of trained personnel to carry out waste receipt, handling, and disposal operations in a safe manner. 
</P>
<P>(c) A description of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The location of the proposed disposal site; 
</P>
<P>(2) The general character of the proposed activities; 
</P>
<P>(3) The types and quantities of radioactive waste to be received, possessed, and disposed of; 
</P>
<P>(4) Plans for use of the land disposal facility for purposes other than disposal of radioactive wastes; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed facilities and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(d) Proposed schedules for construction, receipt of waste, and first emplacement of waste at the proposed land disposal facility. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.12   Specific technical information.</HEAD>
<P>The specific technical information must include the following information needed for demonstration that the performance objectives of subpart C of this part and the applicable technical requirements of subpart D of this part will be met: 
</P>
<P>(a) A description of the natural and demographic disposal site characteristics as determined by disposal site selection and characterization activities. The description must include geologic, geotechnical, hydrologic, meteorologic, climatologic, and biotic features of the disposal site and vicinity. 
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the design features of the land disposal facility and the disposal units. For near-surface disposal, the description must include those design features related to infiltration of water; integrity of covers for disposal units; structural stability of backfill, wastes, and covers; contact of wastes with standing water; disposal site drainage; disposal site closure and stabilization; elimination to the extent practicable of long-term disposal site maintenance; inadvertent intrusion; occupational exposures; disposal site monitoring; and adequacy of the size of the buffer zone for monitoring and potential mitigative measures. 
</P>
<P>(c) A description of the principal design criteria and their relationship to the performance objectives.
</P>
<P>(d) A description of the design basis natural events or phenomena and their relationship to the principal design criteria.
</P>
<P>(e) A description of codes and standards which the applicant has applied to the design and which will apply to construction of the land disposal facilities.
</P>
<P>(f) A description of the construction and operation of the land disposal facility. The description must include as a minimum the methods of construction of disposal units; waste emplacement; the procedures for and areas of waste segregation; types of intruder barriers; onsite traffic and drainage systems; survey control program; methods and areas of waste storage; and methods to control surface water and groundwater access to the wastes. The description must also include a description of the methods to be employed in the handling and disposal of wastes containing chelating agents or other non-radiological substances that might affect meeting the performance objectives in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) A description of the disposal site closure plan, including those design features which are intended to facilitate disposal site closure and to eliminate the need for ongoing active maintenance.
</P>
<P>(h) An identification of the known natural resources at the disposal site, the exploitation of which could result in inadvertent intrusion into the low-level wastes after removal of active institutional control.
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the kind, amount, classification and specifications of the radioactive material proposed to be received, possessed, and disposed of at the land disposal facility.
</P>
<P>(j) A description of the quality assurance program, tailored to LLW disposal, developed and applied by the applicant for the determination of natural disposal site characteristics and for quality assurance during the design, construction, operation, and closure of the land disposal facility and the receipt, handling, and emplacement of waste. 
</P>
<P>(k) A description of the radiation safety program for control and monitoring of radioactive effluents to ensure compliance with the performance objective in § 61.41 of this part and occupational radiation exposure to ensure compliance with the requirements of part 20 of this chapter and to control contamination of personnel, vehicles, equipment, buildings, and the disposal site. Both routine operations and accidents must be addressed. The program description must include procedures, instrumentation, facilities, and equipment.
</P>
<P>(l) A description of the environmental monitoring program to provide data to evaluate potential health and environmental impacts and the plan for taking corrective measures if migration of radionuclides is indicated.
</P>
<P>(m) A description of the administrative procedures that the applicant will apply to control activities at the land disposal facility.
</P>
<P>(n) A description of the facility electronic recordkeeping system as required in § 61.80.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 58 FR 33891, June 22, 1993; 60 FR 15666, Mar. 27, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.13   Technical analyses.</HEAD>
<P>The specific technical information must also include the following analyses needed to demonstrate that the performance objectives of subpart C of this part will be met:
</P>
<P>(a) Pathways analyzed in demonstrating protection of the general population from releases of radioactivity must include air, soil, groundwater, surface water, plant uptake, and exhumation by burrowing animals. The analyses must clearly identify and differentiate between the roles performed by the natural disposal site characteristics and design features in isolating and segregating the wastes. The analyses must clearly demonstrate that there is reasonable assurance that the exposure to humans from the release of radioactivity will not exceed the limits set forth in § 61.41.
</P>
<P>(b) Analyses of the protection of individuals from inadvertent intrusion must include demonstration that there is reasonable assurance the waste classification and segregation requirements will be met and that adequate barriers to inadvertent intrusion will be provided.
</P>
<P>(c) Analyses of the protection of individuals during operations must include assessments of expected exposures due to routine operations and likely accidents during handling, storage, and disposal of waste. The analyses must provide reasonable assurance that exposures will be controlled to meet the requirements of part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) Analyses of the long-term stability of the disposal site and the need for ongoing active maintenance after closure must be based upon analyses of active natural processes such as erosion, mass wasting, slope failure, settlement of wastes and backfill, infiltration through covers over disposal areas and adjacent soils, and surface drainage of the disposal site. The analyses must provide reasonable assurance that there will not be a need for ongoing active maintenance of the disposal site following closure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.14" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.14   Institutional information.</HEAD>
<P>The institutional information must include:
</P>
<P>(a) A certification by the Federal or State government which owns the disposal site that the Federal or State government is prepared to accept transfer of the license when the provisions of § 61.30 are met, and will assume responsibility for custodial care after site closure and postclosure observation and maintenance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the proposed disposal site is on land not owned by the Federal or a State government, the applicant must submit evidence that arrangements have been made for assumption of ownership in fee by the Federal or a State government before the Commission issues a license.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.15   Financial information.</HEAD>
<P>The financial information must be sufficient to demonstrate that the financial qualifications of the applicant are adequate to carry out the activities for which the license is sought and meet other financial assurance requirements as specified in subpart E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.16   Other information.</HEAD>
<P>Depending upon the nature of the wastes to be disposed of, and the design and proposed operation of the land disposal facility, additional information may be requested by the Commission including the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Physical security measures, if appropriate.</I> Any application to receive and possess special nuclear material in quantities subject to the requirements of part 73 of this chapter shall demonstrate how the physical security requirements of part 73 will be met. In determining whether receipt and possession will be subject to the requirements of part 73, the applicant shall not consider the quantity of special nuclear material that has been disposed of.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safety information concerning criticality, if appropriate.</I> (1) Any application to receive and possess special nuclear material in quantities that would be subject to the requirements of § 70.24, “Criticality accident requirements” of part 70 of this chapter shall demonstrate how the requirements of that section will be met, unless the applicant requests an exemption pursuant to § 70.24(d). In determining whether receipt and possession would be subject to the requirements of § 70.24, the applicant shall not consider the quantity of special nuclear material that has been disposed of.
</P>
<P>(2) Any application to receive and possess special nuclear material shall describe proposed procedures for avoiding accidental criticality, which address both storage of special nuclear material prior to disposal and waste emplacement for disposal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.20   Filing and distribution of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a license under this part, and any amendments thereto, must be filed with the Director, must be signed by the applicant or the applicant's authorized representative under oath or affirmation, and, if the document is in paper form, must be the signed original. 
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies of the application for distribution in accordance with written instructions from the Director or the Director's designee. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees.</I> Application, amendment, and inspection fees applicable to a license covering the receipt and disposal of radioactive wastes in a land disposal facility are required by part 170 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 9405, Mar. 12, 1984; 68 FR 58814, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.21   Elimination of repetition.</HEAD>
<P>In its application, the applicant may incorporate by reference information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission if these references are clear and specific.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9405, Mar. 12, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.22   Updating of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application must be as complete as possible in the light of information that is available at the time of submittal.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant shall supplement its application in a timely manner, as necessary, to permit the Commission to review, prior to issuance of a license, any changes in the activities proposed to be carried out or new information regarding the proposed activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9405, Mar. 12, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.23   Standards for issuance of a license.</HEAD>
<P>A license for the receipt, possession, and disposal of waste containing or contaminated with source, special nuclear, or byproduct material will be issued by the Commission upon finding that the issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security and will not constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public, and:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant is qualified by reason of training and experience to carry out the disposal operations requested in a manner that protects health and minimizes danger to life or property.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant's proposed disposal site, disposal design, land disposal facility operations (including equipment, facilities, and procedures), disposal site closure, and postclosure institutional control are adequate to protect the public health and safety in that they provide reasonable assurance that the general population will be protected from releases of radioactivity as specified in the performance objective in § 61.41, Protection of the general population from releases of radioactivity.
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant's proposed disposal site, disposal site design, land disposal facility operations (including equipment, facilities, and procedures), disposal site closure, and postclosure institutional control are adequate to protect the public health and safety in that they will provide reasonable assurance that individual inadvertent intruders are protected in accordance with the performance objective in § 61.42, Protection of individuals from inadvertent intrusion.
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant's proposed land disposal facility operations, including equipment, facilities, and procedures, are adequate to protect the public health and safety in that they will provide reasonable assurance that the standards for radiation protection set out in part 20 of this chapter will be met.
</P>
<P>(e) The applicant's proposed disposal site, disposal site design, land disposal facility operations, disposal site closure, and postclosure institutional control are adequate to protect the public health and safety in that they will provide reasonable assurance that long-term stability of the disposed waste and the disposal site will be achieved and will eliminate to the extent practicable the need for ongoing active maintenance of the disposal site following closure.
</P>
<P>(f) The applicant's demonstration provides reasonable assurance that the applicable technical requirements of subpart D of this part will be met.
</P>
<P>(g) The applicant's proposal for institutional control provides reasonable assurance that institutional control will be provided for the length of time found necessary to ensure the findings in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section and that the institutional control meets the requirements of § 61.59, Institutional requirements.
</P>
<P>(h) The information on financial assurances meets the requirements of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant's physical security information provides reasonable assurance that the requirements of part 73 of this chapter will be met, insofar as they are applicable to special nuclear material to be possessed before disposal under the license.
</P>
<P>(j) The applicant's criticality safety procedures are adequate to protect the public health and safety and provide reasonable assurance that the requirements of § 70.24, Criticality accident requirements, of part 70 of this chapter will be met, insofar as they are applicable to special nuclear material to be possessed before disposal under the license.
</P>
<P>(k) Any additional information submitted as requested by the Commission pursuant to § 61.16, Other information, is adequate. 
</P>
<P>(l) The requirements of subpart A of part 51 of this chapter have been met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 9405, Mar. 12, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.24   Conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A license issued under this part, or any right thereunder, may be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license to any person, only if the Commission finds, after securing full information, that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act and gives its consent in writing in the form of a license amendment.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall submit written statements under oath upon request of the Commission, at any time before termination of the license, to enable the Commission to determine whether or not the license should be modified, suspended, or revoked.
</P>
<P>(c) The license will be transferred to the site owner only on the full implementation of the final closure plan as approved by the Commission, including post-closure observation and maintenance.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall be subject to the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act now or hereafter in effect, and to all rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission. The terms and conditions of the license are subject to amendment, revision, or modification, by reason of amendments to, or by reason of rules, regulations, and orders issued in accordance with the terms of the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P>(e) Any license may be revoked, suspended or modified in whole or in part for any material false statement in the application or any statement of fact required under Section 182 of the Act, or because of conditions revealed by any application or statement of fact or any report, record, or inspection or other means which would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license to the original application, or for failure to operate the facility in accordance with the terms of the license, or for any violation of, or failure to observe any of the terms and conditions of the Act, or any rule, regulation, license or order of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) Each person licensed by the Commission pursuant to the regulations in this part shall confine possession and use of materials to the locations and purposes authorized in the license.
</P>
<P>(g) No radioactive waste may be disposed of until the Commission has inspected the land disposal facility and has found it to be in conformance with the description, design, and construction described in the application for a license.
</P>
<P>(h) The Commission may incorporate in any license at the time of issuance, or thereafter, by appropriate rule, regulation or order, additional requirements and conditions with respect to the licensee's receipt, possession, and disposal of source, special nuclear or byproduct material as it deems appropriate or necessary in order to:
</P>
<P>(1) Promote the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(2) Protect health or to minimize danger to life or property;
</P>
<P>(3) Require reports and the keeping of records, and to provide for inspections of activities under the license that may be necessary or appropriate to effectuate the purposes of the Act and regulations thereunder.
</P>
<P>(i) Any licensee who receives and possesses special nuclear material under this part in quantities that would be subject to the requirements of § 70.24 of part 70 of this chapter shall comply with the requirements of that section. The licensee shall not consider the quantity of special nuclear material that has been disposed of.
</P>
<P>(j) The authority to dispose of wastes expires on the date stated in the license except as provided in § 61.27(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(k)(1) Each licensee shall notify the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any Chapter of Title 11 (Bankruptcy) of the United States Code by or against: 
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An entity (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(14)) controlling the licensee or listing the license or licensee as property of the estate; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) An affiliate (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(2)) of the licensee. 
</P>
<P>(2) This notification must indicate: 
</P>
<P>(i) The bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the filing of the petition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 1295, Jan. 12, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.25   Changes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided for in specific license conditions, the licensee shall not make changes in the land disposal facility or procedures described in the license application. The license will include conditions restricting subsequent changes to the facility and the procedures authorized which are important to public health and safety. These license restrictions will fall into three categories of descending importance to public health and safety as follows: (1) those features and procedures which may not be changed without (i) 60 days prior notice to the Commission, (ii) 30 days notice of opportunity for a prior hearing, and (iii) prior Commission approval; (2) those features and procedures which may not be changed without (i) 60 days prior notice to the Commisson, and (ii) prior Commission approval; and (3) those features and procedures which may not be changed without 60 days prior notice to the Commission. Features and procedures falling in paragraph (a)(3) of this section may not be changed without prior Commission approval if the Commission, after having received the required notice, so orders. 
</P>
<P>(b) Amendments authorizing site closure, license transfer, or license termination shall be included in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission shall provide a copy of the notices of opportunity for hearing provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to State and local officials or tribal governing bodies specified in § 2.104(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 77 FR 46600, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.26   Amendment of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for amendment of a license must be filed in accordance with § 61.20 and shall fully describe the changes desired.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether an amendment to a license will be approved, the Commission will apply the criteria set forth in § 61.23. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.27   Application for renewal or closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any expiration date on a license applies only to the above ground activities and to the authority to dispose of waste. Failure to renew the license shall not relieve the licensee of responsibility for carrying out site closure, postclosure observation and transfer of the license to the site owner. An application for renewal or an application for closure under § 61.28 must be filed at least 30 days prior to license expiration.
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for renewal of a license must be filed in accordance with §§ 61.10 through 61.16 and § 61.20. Applications for closure must be filed in accordance with §§ 61.20 and 61.28. Information contained in previous applications, statements or reports filed with the Commission under the license may be incorporated by reference if the references are clear and specific.
</P>
<P>(c) In any case in which a licensee has timely filed an application for renewal of a license, the license for continued receipt and disposal of licensed materials does not expire until the Commission has taken final action on the application for renewal.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether a license will be renewed, the Commission will apply the criteria set forth in § 61.23.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.28" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.28   Contents of application for closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to final closure of the disposal site, or as otherwise directed by the Commission, the applicant shall submit an application to amend the license for closure. This closure application must include a final revision and specific details of the disposal site closure plan included as part of the license application submitted under § 61.12(g) that includes each of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any additional geologic, hydrologic, or other disposal site data pertinent to the long-term containment of emplaced radioactive wastes obtained during the operational period.
</P>
<P>(2) The results of tests, experiments, or any other analyses relating to backfill of excavated areas, closure and sealing, waste migration and interaction with emplacement media, or any other tests, experiments, or analysis pertinent to the long-term containment of emplaced waste within the disposal site.
</P>
<P>(3) Any proposed revision of plans for:
</P>
<P>(i) Decontamination and/or dismantlement of surface facilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Backfilling of excavated areas; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Stabilization of the disposal site for post-closure care.
</P>
<P>(b) An environmental report or a supplement to an environmental report prepared in accordance with subpart A of part 51 of this chapter must accompany the application.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon review and consideration of an application to amend the license for closure submitted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the Commission shall issue an amendment authorizing closure if there is reasonable assurance that the long-term performance objectives of subpart C of this part will be met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 49 FR 9406, Mar. 12, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.29" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.29   Post-closure observation and maintenance.</HEAD>
<P>Following completion of closure authorized in § 61.28, the licensee shall observe, monitor, and carry out necessary maintenance and repairs at the disposal site until the license is transferred by the Commission in accordance with § 61.30. Responsibility for the disposal site must be maintained by the licensee for 5 years. A shorter or longer time period for post-closure observation and maintenance may be established and approved as part of the site closure plan, based on site-specific conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.30" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.30   Transfer of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following closure and the period of post-closure observation and maintenance, the licensee may apply for an amendment to transfer the license to the disposal site owner. The license shall be transferred when the Commission finds:
</P>
<P>(1) That the closure of the disposal site has been made in conformance with the licensee's disposal site closure plan, as amended and approved as part of the license;
</P>
<P>(2) That reasonable assurance has been provided by the licensee that the performance objectives of subpart C of this part are met;
</P>
<P>(3) That any funds for care and records required by § 61.80 (e) and (f) have been transferred to the disposal site owner; 
</P>
<P>(4) That the post-closure monitoring program is operational for implementation by the disposal site owner; and
</P>
<P>(5) That the Federal or State government agency which will assume responsibility for institutional control of the disposal site is prepared to assume responsibility and ensure that the institutional requirements found necessary under § 61.23(g) will be met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 24674, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.31   Termination of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following any period of institutional control needed to meet the requirements found necessary under § 61.23, the licensee may apply for an amendment to terminate the license.
</P>
<P>(b) This application must be filed, and will be reviewed, in accordance with the provision of § 61.20 and of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A license is terminated only when the Commission finds:
</P>
<P>(1) That the institutional control requirements found necessary under § 61.23(g) have been met; and
</P>
<P>(2) That any additional requirements resulting from new information developed during the institutional control period have been met, and that permanent monuments or markers warning against intrusion have been installed. 
</P>
<P>(3) That the records required by § 61.80 (e) and (f) have been sent to the party responsible for institutional control of the disposal site and a copy has been sent to the Commission immediately prior to license termination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 61 FR 24674, May 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="90" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.2.90.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.32   Facility information and verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for a license and each recipient of a license shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A, and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(b) As required by the Additional Protocol, applicants and licensees specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; and
</P>
<P>(c) Shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and take other action as necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in Part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78606, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]

]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Performance Objectives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.3.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.40   General requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Land disposal facilities must be sited, designed, operated, closed, and controlled after closure so that reasonable assurance exists that exposures to humans are within the limits established in the performance objectives in §§ 61.41 through 61.44.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.3.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.41   Protection of the general population from releases of radioactivity.</HEAD>
<P>Concentrations of radioactive material which may be released to the general environment in groundwater, surface water, air, soil, plants, or animals must not result in an annual dose exceeding an equivalent of 25 millirems to the whole body, 75 millirems to the thyroid, and 25 millirems to any other organ of any member of the public. Reasonable effort should be made to maintain releases of radioactivity in effluents to the general environment as low as is reasonably achievable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.42" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.3.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.42   Protection of individuals from inadvertent intrusion.</HEAD>
<P>Design, operation, and closure of the land disposal facility must ensure protection of any individual inadvertently intruding into the disposal site and occupying the site or contacting the waste at any time after active institutional controls over the disposal site are removed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.3.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.43   Protection of individuals during operations.</HEAD>
<P>Operations at the land disposal facility must be conducted in compliance with the standards for radiation protection set out in part 20 of this chapter, except for releases of radioactivity in effluents from the land disposal facility, which shall be governed by § 61.41 of this part. Every reasonable effort shall be made to maintain radiation exposures as low as is reasonably achievable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.44" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.3.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.44   Stability of the disposal site after closure.</HEAD>
<P>The disposal facility must be sited, designed, used, operated, and closed to achieve long-term stability of the disposal site and to eliminate to the extent practicable the need for ongoing active maintenance of the disposal site following closure so that only surveillance, monitoring, or minor custodial care are required.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Technical Requirements for Land Disposal Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.50" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.50   Disposal site suitability requirements for land disposal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disposal site suitability for near-surface disposal.</I> (1) The purpose of this section is to specify the minimum characteristics a disposal site must have to be acceptable for use as a near-surface disposal facility. The primary emphasis in disposal site suitability is given to isolation of wastes, a matter having long-term impacts, and to disposal site features that ensure that the long-term performance objectives of subpart C of this part are met, as opposed to short-term convenience or benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) The disposal site shall be capable of being characterized, modeled, analyzed and monitored.
</P>
<P>(3) Within the region or state where the facility is to be located, a disposal site should be selected so that projected population growth and future developments are not likely to affect the ability of the disposal facility to meet the performance objectives of subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Areas must be avoided having known natural resources which, if exploited, would result in failure to meet the performance objectives of subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) The disposal site must be generally well drained and free of areas of flooding or frequent ponding. Waste disposal shall not take place in a 100-year flood plain, coastal high-hazard area or wetland, as defined in Executive Order 11988, “Floodplain Management Guidelines.”
</P>
<P>(6) Upstream drainage areas must be minimized to decrease the amount of runoff which could erode or inundate waste disposal units.
</P>
<P>(7) The disposal site must provide sufficient depth to the water table that groundwater intrusion, perennial or otherwise, into the waste will not occur. The Commission will consider an exception to this requirement to allow disposal below the water table if it can be conclusively shown that disposal site characteristics will result in molecular diffusion being the predominant means of radionuclide movement and the rate of movement will result in the performance objectives of subpart C of this part being met. In no case will waste disposal be permitted in the zone of fluctuation of the water table.
</P>
<P>(8) The hydrogeologic unit used for disposal shall not discharge groundwater to the surface within the disposal site.
</P>
<P>(9) Areas must be avoided where tectonic processes such as faulting, folding, seismic activity, or vulcanism may occur with such frequency and extent to significantly affect the ability of the disposal site to meet the performance objectives of subpart C of this part, or may preclude defensible modeling and prediction of long-term impacts.
</P>
<P>(10) Areas must be avoided where surface geologic processes such as mass wasting, erosion, slumping, landsliding, or weathering occur with such frequency and extent to significantly affect the ability of the disposal site to meet the performance objectives of subpart C of this part, or may preclude defensible modeling and prediction of long-term impacts.
</P>
<P>(11) The disposal site must not be located where nearby facilities or activities could adversely impact the ability of the site to meet the performance objectives of subpart C of this part or significantly mask the environmental monitoring program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disposal site suitability requirements for land disposal other than near-surface.</I> [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.51   Disposal site design for land disposal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disposal site design for near-surface disposal.</I> (1) Site design features must be directed toward long-term isolation and avoidance of the need for continuing active maintenance after site closure.
</P>
<P>(2) The disposal site design and operation must be compatible with the disposal site closure and stabilization plan and lead to disposal site closure that provides reasonable assurance that the performance objectives of subpart C of this part will be met.
</P>
<P>(3) The disposal site must be designed to complement and improve, where appropriate, the ability of the disposal site's natural characteristics to assure that the performance objectives of subpart C of this part will be met.
</P>
<P>(4) Covers must be designed to minimize to the extent practicable water infiltration, to direct percolating or surface water away from the disposed waste, and to resist degradation by surface geologic processes and biotic activity.
</P>
<P>(5) Surface features must direct surface water drainage away from disposal units at velocities and gradients which will not result in erosion that will require ongoing active maintenance in the future.
</P>
<P>(6) The disposal site must be designed to minimize to the extent practicable the contact of water with waste during storage, the contact of standing water with waste during disposal, and the contact of percolating or standing water with wastes after disposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disposal site design for other than near-surface disposal.</I> [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.52   Land disposal facility operation and disposal site closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Near-surface disposal facility operation and disposal site closure.</I> (1) Wastes designated as Class A pursuant to § 61.55, must be segregated from other wastes by placing in disposal units which are sufficiently separated from disposal units for the other waste classes so that any interaction between Class A wastes and other wastes will not result in the failure to meet the performance objectives in subpart C of this Part. This segregation is not necessary for Class A wastes if they meet the stability requirements in § 61.56(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Wastes designated as Class C pursuant to § 61.55, must be disposed of so that the top of the waste is a minimum of 5 meters below the top surface of the cover or must be disposed of with intruder barriers that are designed to protect against an inadvertent intrusion for a least 500 years.
</P>
<P>(3) All wastes shall be disposed of in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (a) (4) through (11) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Wastes must be emplaced in a manner that maintains the package integrity during emplacement, minimizes the void spaces between packages, and permits the void spaces to be filled.
</P>
<P>(5) Void spaces between waste packages must be filled with earth or other material to reduce future subsidence within the fill.
</P>
<P>(6) Waste must be placed and covered in a manner that limits the radiation dose rate at the surface of the cover to levels that at a minimum will permit the licensee to comply with all provisions of §§ 20.1301 and 20.1302 of this chapter at the time the license is transferred pursuant to § 61.30 of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) The boundaries and locations of each disposal unit (e.g., trenches) must be accurately located and mapped by means of a land survey. Near-surface disposal units must be marked in such a way that the boundaries of each unit can be easily defined. Three permanent survey marker control points, referenced to United States Geological Survey (USGS) or National Geodetic Survey (NGS) survey control stations, must be established on the site to facilitate surveys. The USGS or NGS control stations must provide horizontal and vertical controls as checked against USGS or NGS record files.
</P>
<P>(8) A buffer zone of land must be maintained between any buried waste and the disposal site boundary and beneath the disposed waste. The buffer zone shall be of adequate dimensions to carry out environmental monitoring activities specified in § 61.53(d) of this part and take mitigative measures if needed.
</P>
<P>(9) Closure and stabilization measures as set forth in the approved site closure plan must be carried out as each disposal unit (e.g., each trench) is filled and covered.
</P>
<P>(10) Active waste disposal operations must not have an adverse effect on completed closure and stabilization measures.
</P>
<P>(11) Only wastes containing or contaminated with radioactive materials shall be disposed of at the disposal site.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facility operation and disposal site closure for land disposal facilities other than near-surface.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 56 FR 23474, May 21, 1991; 56 FR 61352, Dec. 3, 1991; 58 FR 67662, Dec. 22, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.53   Environmental monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the time a license application is submitted, the applicant shall have conducted a preoperational monitoring program to provide basic environmental data on the disposal site characteristics. The applicant shall obtain information about the ecology, meteorology, climate, hydrology, geology, geochemistry, and seismology of the disposal site. For those characteristics that are subject to seasonal variation, data must cover at least a twelve month period.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee must have plans for taking corrective measures if migration of radionuclides would indicate that the performance objectives of subpart C may not be met.
</P>
<P>(c) During the land disposal facility site construction and operation, the licensee shall maintain a monitoring program. Measurements and observations must be made and recorded to provide data to evaluate the potential health and environmental impacts during both the construction and the operation of the facility and to enable the evaluation of long-term effects and the need for mitigative measures. The monitoring system must be capable of providing early warning of releases of radionuclides from the disposal site before they leave the site boundary.
</P>
<P>(d) After the disposal site is closed, the licensee responsible for post-operational surveillance of the disposal site shall maintain a monitoring system based on the operating history and the closure and stabilization of the disposal site. The monitoring system must be capable of providing early warning of releases of radionuclides from the disposal site before they leave the site boundary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.54" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.54   Alternative requirements for design and operations.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon request or on its own initiative, authorize provisions other than those set forth in §§ 61.51 through 61.53 for the segregation and disposal of waste and for the design and operation of a land disposal facility on a specific basis, if it finds reasonable assurance of compliance with the performance objectives of subpart C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.55   Waste classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Classification of waste for near surface disposal</I>—(1) <I>Considerations.</I> Determination of the classification of radioactive waste involves two considerations. First, consideration must be given to the concentration of long-lived radionuclides (and their shorter-lived precursors) whose potential hazard will persist long after such precautions as institutional controls, improved waste form, and deeper disposal have ceased to be effective. These precautions delay the time when long-lived radionuclides could cause exposures. In addition, the magnitude of the potential dose is limited by the concentration and availability of the radionuclide at the time of exposure. Second, consideration must be given to the concentration of shorter-lived radionuclides for which requirements on institutional controls, waste form, and disposal methods are effective.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Classes of waste.</I> (i) Class A waste is waste that is usually segregated from other waste classes at the disposal site. The physical form and characteristics of Class A waste must meet the minimum requirements set forth in § 61.56(a). If Class A waste also meets the stability requirements set forth in § 61.56(b), it is not necessary to segregate the waste for disposal. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Class B waste is waste that must meet more rigorous requirements on waste form to ensure stability after disposal. The physical form and characteristics of Class B waste must meet both the minimum and stability requirements set forth in § 61.56.
</P>
<P>(iii) Class C waste is waste that not only must meet more rigorous requirements on waste form to ensure stability but also requires additional measures at the disposal facility to protect against inadvertent intrusion. The physical form and characteristics of Class C waste must meet both the minimum and stability requirements set forth in § 61.56.
</P>
<P>(iv) Waste that is not generally acceptable for near-surface disposal is waste for which form and disposal methods must be different, and in general more stringent, than those specified for Class C waste. In the absence of specific requirements in this part, such waste must be disposed of in a geologic repository as defined in part 60 or 63 of this chapter unless proposals for disposal of such waste in a disposal site licensed pursuant to this part are approved by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Classification determined by long-lived radionuclides.</I> If radioactive waste contains only radionuclides listed in Table 1, classification shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the concentration does not exceed 0.1 times the value in Table 1, the waste is Class A.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the concentration exceeds 0.1 times the value in Table 1 but does not exceed the value in Table 1, the waste is Class C.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the concentration exceeds the value in Table 1, the waste is not generally acceptable for near-surface disposal.
</P>
<P>(iv) For wastes containing mixtures of radionuclides listed in Table 1, the total concentration shall be determined by the sum of fractions rule described in paragraph (a)(7) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration curies per cubic meter
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-14 in activated metal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-59 in activated metal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-94 in activated metal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha emitting transuranic nuclides with half-life greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 3,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-242</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 20,000
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Units are nanocuries per gram.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Classification determined by short-lived radionuclides.</I> If radioactive waste does not contain any of the radionuclides listed in Table 1, classification shall be determined based on the concentrations shown in Table 2. However, as specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, if radioactive waste does not contain any nuclides listed in either Table 1 or 2, it is Class A.
</P>
<P>(i) If the concentration does not exceed the value in Column 1, the waste is Class A.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the concentration exceeds the value in Column 1, but does not exceed the value in Column 2, the waste is Class B. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the concentration exceeds the value in Column 2, but does not exceed the value in Column 3, the waste is Class C.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the concentration exceeds the value in Column 3, the waste is not generally acceptable for near-surface disposal.
</P>
<P>(v) For wastes containing mixtures of the nuclides listed in Table 2, the total concentration shall be determined by the sum of fractions rule described in paragraph (a)(7) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Concentration, curies per cubic meter
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Col. 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Col. 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Col. 3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total of all nuclides with less than 5 year half-life</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>1</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-63 in activated metal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4600
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> There are no limits established for these radionuclides in Class B or C wastes. Practical considerations such as the effects of external radiation and internal heat generation on transportation, handling, and disposal will limit the concentrations for these wastes. These wastes shall be Class B unless the concentrations of other nuclides in Table 2 determine the waste to be Class C independent of these nuclides.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) <I>Classification determined by both long- and short-lived radionuclides.</I> If radioactive waste contains a mixture of radionuclides, some of which are listed in Table 1, and some of which are listed in Table 2, classification shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the concentration of a nuclide listed in Table 1 does not exceed 0.1 times the value listed in Table 1, the class shall be that determined by the concentration of nuclides listed in Table 2.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the concentration of a nuclide listed in Table 1 exceeds 0.1 times the value listed in Table 1 but does not exceed the value in Table 1, the waste shall be Class C, provided the concentration of nuclides listed in Table 2 does not exceed the value shown in Column 3 of Table 2.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Classification of wastes with radionuclides other than those listed in Tables 1 and 2.</I> If radioactive waste does not contain any nuclides listed in either Table 1 or 2, it is Class A.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>The sum of the fractions rule for mixtures of radionuclides.</I> For determining classification for waste that contains a mixture of radionuclides, it is necessary to determine the sum of fractions by dividing each nuclide's concentration by the appropriate limit and adding the resulting values. The appropriate limits must all be taken from the same column of the same table. The sum of the fractions for the column must be less than 1.0 if the waste class is to be determined by that column. Example: A waste contains Sr-90 in a concentration of 50 Ci/m
<SU>3</SU> and Cs-137 in a concentration of 22 Ci/m
<SU>3</SU>. Since the concentrations both exceed the values in Column 1, Table 2, they must be compared to Column 2 values. For Sr-90 fraction 50/150 = 0.33; for Cs-137 fraction, 22/44 = 0.5; the sum of the fractions = 0.83. Since the sum is less than 1.0, the waste is Class B.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Determination of concentrations in wastes.</I> The concentration of a radionuclide may be determined by indirect methods such as use of scaling factors which relate the inferred concentration of one radionuclide to another that is measured, or radionuclide material accountability, if there is reasonable assurance that the indirect methods can be correlated with actual measurements. The concentration of a radionuclide may be averaged over the volume of the waste, or weight of the waste if the units are expressed as nanocuries per gram.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 54 FR 22583, May 25, 1989; 66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.56" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.56   Waste characteristics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following requirements are minimum requirements for all classes of waste and are intended to facilitate handling at the disposal site and provide protection of health and safety of personnel at the disposal site.
</P>
<P>(1) Waste must not be packaged for disposal in cardboard or fiberboard boxes.
</P>
<P>(2) Liquid waste must be solidified or packaged in sufficient absorbent material to absorb twice the volume of the liquid. 
</P>
<P>(3) Solid waste containing liquid shall contain as little free standing and noncorrosive liquid as is reasonably achievable, but in no case shall the liquid exceed 1% of the volume.
</P>
<P>(4) Waste must not be readily capable of detonation or of explosive decomposition or reaction at normal pressures and temperatures, or of explosive reaction with water.
</P>
<P>(5) Waste must not contain, or be capable of generating, quantities of toxic gases, vapors, or fumes harmful to persons transporting, handling, or disposing of the waste. This does not apply to radioactive gaseous waste packaged in accordance with paragraph (a)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Waste must not be pyrophoric. Pyrophoric materials contained in waste shall be treated, prepared, and packaged to be nonflammable.
</P>
<P>(7) Waste in a gaseous form must be packaged at a pressure that does not exceed 1.5 atmospheres at 20 °C. Total activity must not exceed 100 curies per container.
</P>
<P>(8) Waste containing hazardous, biological, pathogenic, or infectious material must be treated to reduce to the maximum extent practicable the potential hazard from the non-radiological materials.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements in this section are intended to provide stability of the waste. Stability is intended to ensure that the waste does not structurally degrade and affect overall stability of the site through slumping, collapse, or other failure of the disposal unit and thereby lead to water infiltration. Stability is also a factor in limiting exposure to an inadvertent intruder, since it provides a recognizable and nondispersible waste.
</P>
<P>(1) Waste must have structural stability. A structurally stable waste form will generally maintain its physical dimensions and its form, under the expected disposal conditions such as weight of overburden and compaction equipment, the presence of moisture, and microbial activity, and internal factors such as radiation effects and chemical changes. Structural stability can be provided by the waste form itself, processing the waste to a stable form, or placing the waste in a disposal container or structure that provides stability after disposal.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the provisions in § 61.56(a) (2) and (3), liquid wastes, or wastes containing liquid, must be converted into a form that contains as little free standing and noncorrosive liquid as is reasonably achievable, but in no case shall the liquid exceed 1% of the volume of the waste when the waste is in a disposal container designed to ensure stability, or 0.5% of the volume of the waste for waste processed to a stable form.
</P>
<P>(3) Void spaces within the waste and between the waste and its package must be reduced to the extent practicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.57" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.57   Labeling.</HEAD>
<P>Each package of waste must be clearly labeled to identify whether it is Class A waste, Class B waste, or Class C waste, in accordance with § 61.55.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.58" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.58   Alternative requirements for waste classification and characteristics.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon request or on its own initiative, authorize other provisions for the classification and characteristics of waste on a specific basis, if, after evaluation, of the specific characteristics of the waste, disposal site, and method of disposal, it finds reasonable assurance of compliance with the performance objectives in subpart C of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.4.91.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.59   Institutional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Land ownership.</I> Disposal of radioactive waste received from other persons may be permitted only on land owned in fee by the Federal or a State government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Institutional control.</I> The land owner or custodial agency shall carry out an institutional control program to physically control access to the disposal site following transfer of control of the disposal site from the disposal site operator. The institutional control program must also include, but not be limited to, carrying out an environmental monitoring program at the disposal site, periodic surveillance, minor custodial care, and other requirements as determined by the Commission; and administration of funds to cover the costs for these activities. The period of institutional controls will be determined by the Commission, but institutional controls may not be relied upon for more than 100 years following transfer of control of the disposal site to the owner. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Financial Assurances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.5.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.61   Applicant qualifications and assurances.</HEAD>
<P>Each applicant shall show that it either possesses the necessary funds or has reasonable assurance of obtaining the necessary funds, or by a combination of the two, to cover the estimated costs of conducting all licensed activities over the planned operating life of the project, including costs of construction and disposal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.5.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.62   Funding for disposal site closure and stabilization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant shall provide assurance that sufficient funds will be available to carry out disposal site closure and stabilization, including: (1) Decontamination or dismantlement of land disposal facility structures; and (2) closure and stabilization of the disposal site so that following transfer of the disposal site to the site owner, the need for ongoing active maintenance is eliminated to the extent practicable and only minor custodial care, surveillance, and monitoring are required. These assurances shall be based on Commission-approved cost estimates reflecting the Commission-approved plan for disposal site closure and stabilization. The applicant's cost estimates must take into account total capital costs that would be incurred if an independent contractor were hired to perform the closure and stabilization work.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to avoid unnecessary duplication and expense, the Commission will accept financial sureties that have been consolidated with earmarked financial or surety arrangements established to meet requirements of other Federal or State agencies and/or local governing bodies for such decontamination, closure and stabilization. The Commission will accept this arrangement only if they are considered adequate to satisfy these requirements and that the portion of the surety which covers the closure of the disposal site is clearly identified and committed for use in accomplishing these activities.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee's surety mechanism will be annually reviewed by the Commission to assure that sufficient funds are available for completion of the closure plan, assuming that the work has to be performed by an independent contractor.
</P>
<P>(d) The amount of surety liability should change in accordance with the predicted cost of future closure and stabilization. Factors affecting closure and stabilization cost estimates include: inflation; increases in the amount of disturbed land; changes in engineering plans; closure and stabilization that has already been accomplished and any other conditions affecting costs. This will yield a surety that is at least sufficient at all times to cover the costs of closure of the disposal units that are expected to be used before the next license renewal.
</P>
<P>(e) The term of the surety mechanism must be open ended unless it can be demonstrated that another arrangement would provide an equivalent level of assurance. This assurance could be provided with a surety mechanism which is written for a specified period of time (e.g., five years) yet which must be automatically renewed unless the party who issues the surety notifies the Commission and the beneficiary (the site owner) and the principal (the licensee) not less than 90 days prior to the renewal date of its intention not to renew. In such a situation the licensee must submit a replacement surety within 30 days after notification of cancellation. If the licensee fails to provide a replacement surety acceptable to the Commission, the site owner may collect on the original surety.
</P>
<P>(f) Proof of forfeiture must not be necessary to collect the surety so that in the event that the licensee could not provide an acceptable replacement surety within the required time, the surety shall be automatically collected prior to its expiration. The conditions described above would have to be clearly stated on any surety instrument which is not open-ended, and must be agreed to by all parties. Liability under the surety mechanism must remain in effect until the closure and stabilization program has been completed and approved by the Commission and the license has been transferred to the site owner.
</P>
<P>(g) Financial surety arrangements generally acceptable to the Commission include: surety bonds, cash deposits, certificates of deposits, deposits of government securities, escrow accounts, irrevocable letters or lines of credit, trust funds, and combinations of the above or such other types of arrangements as may be approved by the Commission. However, self-insurance, or any arrangement which essentially constitutes pledging the assets of the licensee, will not satisfy the surety requirement for private sector applicants since this provides no additional assurance other than that which already exists through license requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.63" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.5.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.63   Financial assurances for institutional controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to the issuance of the license, the applicant shall provide for Commission review and approval a copy of a binding arrangement, such as a lease, between the applicant and the disposal site owner that ensures that sufficient funds will be available to cover the costs of monitoring and any required maintenance during the institutional control period. The binding arrangement will be reviewed periodically by the Commission to ensure that changes in inflation, technology and disposal facility operations are reflected in the arrangements. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subsequent changes to the binding arrangement specified in paragraph (a) of this section relevant to institutional control shall be submitted to the Commission for approval. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Participation by State Governments and Indian Tribes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.70" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.6.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.70   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes mechanisms through which the Commission will implement a formal request from a State or tribal government to participate in the review of a license application for a land disposal facility. Nothing in this subpart may be construed to bar the State or tribal governing body from participating in subsequent Commission proceedings concerning the license application as provided under Federal law and regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.6.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.71   State and Tribal government consultation.</HEAD>
<P>Upon request of a State or tribal governing body, the Director shall make available Commission staff to discuss with representatives of the State or tribal governing body information submitted by the applicant, applicable Commission regulations, licensing procedures, potential schedules, and the type and scope of State activities in the license review permitted by law. In addition, staff shall be made available to consult and cooperate with the State or tribal governing body in developing proposals for participation in the license review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.6.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.72   Filing of proposals for State and Tribal participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State or tribal governing body whose interest is affected by a near-surface disposal facility at the proposed site may submit to the Director a proposal for participation in the review of a license application. Proposals must be submitted within the following time periods: 
</P>
<P>(1) For the State in which the disposal facility will be located, or any State that is member of an interstate compact that includes the State in which the disposal facility is located, no later than 45 days following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the notice of tendering of an application submitted under § 61.20. 
</P>
<P>(2) For any other State, or for a tribal governing body, no later than 120 days following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the notice of tendering of an application submitted under § 61.20. 
</P>
<P>(b) Proposals for participation in the licensing process must be made in writing and must be signed by the Governor of the State or the official otherwise provided for by State or tribal law. 
</P>
<P>(c) At a minimum, proposals must contain each of the following items of information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A general description of how the State or Tribe wishes to participate in the licensing process specifically identifying those issues it wishes to review. 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of material and information which the State or Tribe plans to submit to the Commission for consideration in the licensing process. A tentative schedule referencing steps in the review and calendar dates for planned submittals should be included. 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any work that the State or Tribe proposes to perform for the Commission in support of the licensing process. 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of State or Tribal plans to facilitate local government and citizen participation. 
</P>
<P>(5) A preliminary estimate of the types and extent of impacts which the State expects, should a disposal facility be located as proposed. 
</P>
<P>(6) If desired, any requests for educational or information services (seminars, public meetings) or other actions from the Commission such as establishment of additional Public Document Rooms or exchange of State personnel under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.6.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.73   Commission approval of proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a proposal submitted in accordance with § 61.72, the Director shall arrange for a meeting between the representatives of the State or Tribal governing body and the Commission staff to discuss the proposal and to ensure full and effective participation by the State or Tribe in the Commission's license review. 
</P>
<P>(b) If requested by a State or Tribal governing body, the Director may approve all or any part of a proposal if the Director determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed activities are within the scope of Commission statutory responsibility and the type and magnitude of impacts which the State or Tribe may bear are sufficient to justify their participation; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed activities will contribute productively to the licensing review.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Director will be transmitted in writing to the governor or the designated official of the Tribal governing body.
</P>
<P>(d) Participation by a State or Indian Tribe shall not affect their rights to participate in an adjudicatory hearing as provided by part 2 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Records, Reports, Tests, and Inspections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.80" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.7.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.80   Maintenance of records, reports, and transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain any records and make any reports in connection with the licensed activities as may be required by the conditions of the license or by the rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Records which are required by the regulations in this part or by license conditions must be maintained for a period specified by the appropriate regulations in this chapter or by license condition. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, these records must be maintained and transferred to the officials specified in paragraph (e) of this section as a condition of license termination unless the Commission otherwise authorizes their disposition.
</P>
<P>(c) Records which must be maintained pursuant to this part may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform if this reproduced copy or microform is capable of producing copy that is clear and legible at the end of the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. 
</P>
<P>(d) If there is a conflict between the Commission's regulations in this part, license condition, or other written Commission approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the longest retention period specified takes precedence.
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, the licensee shall record the location and the quantity of radioactive wastes contained in the disposal site and transfer these records upon license termination to the chief executive of the nearest municipality, the chief executive of the county in which the facility is located, the county zoning board or land development and planning agency, the State governor and other State, local, and Federal governmental agencies as designated by the Commission at the time of license termination. 
</P>
<P>(f) Following receipt and acceptance of a shipment of radioactive waste, the licensee shall record the date that the shipment is received at the disposal facility, the date of disposal of the waste, a traceable shipment manifest number, a description of any engineered barrier or structural overpack provided for disposal of the waste, the location of disposal at the disposal site, the containment integrity of the waste disposal containers as received, any discrepancies between materials listed on the manifest and those received, the volume of any pallets, bracing, or other shipping or onsite generated materials that are contaminated, and are disposed of as contaminated or suspect materials, and any evidence of leaking or damaged disposal containers or radiation or contamination levels in excess of limits specified in Department of Transportation and Commission regulations. The licensee shall briefly describe any repackaging operations of any of the disposal containers included in the shipment, plus any other information required by the Commission as a license condition. The licensee shall retain these records until the Commission transfers or terminates the license that authorizes the activities described in this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Each licensee shall comply with the safeguards reporting requirements of §§ 30.55, 40.64, 74.13, and 74.15 of this chapter if the quantities or activities of materials received or transferred exceed the limits of these sections. Inventory reports required by these sections are not required for materials after disposal. 
</P>
<P>(h) Each licensee authorized to dispose of radioactive waste received from other persons shall file a copy of its financial report or a certified financial statement annually with the Commission in order to update the information base for determining financial qualifications.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) Each licensee authorized to dispose of waste materials received from other persons under this part shall submit annual reports to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, by an appropriate method listed in § 60.4 of this chapter, with a copy to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. Reports must be submitted by the end of the first calendar quarter of each year for the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(2) The reports shall include (i) specification of the quantity of each of the principal radionuclides released to unrestricted areas in liquid and in airborne effluents during the preceding year, (ii) the results of the environmental monitoring program, (iii) a summary of licensee disposal unit survey and maintenance activities, (iv) a summary, by waste class, of activities and quantities of radionuclides disposed of, (v) any instances in which observed site characteristics were significantly different from those described in the application for a license; and (vi) any other information the Commission may require. If the quantities of radioactive materials released during the reporting period, monitoring results, or maintenance performed are significantly different from those expected in the materials previously reviewed as part of the licensing action, the report must cover this specifically.
</P>
<P>(j) Each licensee shall report in accordance with the requirements of § 70.52 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(k) Any transfer of byproduct, source, and special nuclear materials by the licensee is subject to the requirements in §§ 30.41, 40.51, and 70.42 of this chapter. Byproduct, source and special nuclear material means materials as defined in these parts, respectively.
</P>
<P>(l) In addition to the other requirements of this section, the licensee shall store, or have stored, manifest and other information pertaining to receipt and disposal of radioactive waste in an electronic recordkeeping system. 
</P>
<P>(1) The manifest information that must be electronically stored is—
</P>
<P>(i) That required in 10 CFR part 20, appendix G, with the exception of shipper and carrier telephone numbers and shipper and consignee certifications; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) That information required in paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) As specified in facility license conditions, the licensee shall report the stored information, or subsets of this information, on a computer-readable medium.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 57463, Dec. 27, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 31612, Aug. 21, 1987; 53 FR 19251, May 27, 1988; 58 FR 33891, June 22, 1993; 60 FR 15666, Mar. 27, 1995; 67 FR 78141, Dec. 23, 2002; 68 FR 58814, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5725, Jan. 31, 2008; 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.7.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.81   Tests at land disposal facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, any tests as the Commission deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of the regulations in this part, including tests of:
</P>
<P>(1) Radioactive wastes and facilities used for the receipt, storage, treatment, handling and disposal of radioactive wastes.
</P>
<P>(2) Radiation detection and monitoring instruments; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Other equipment and devices used in connection with the receipt, possession, handling, treatment, storage, or disposal of radioactive waste.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.82" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.7.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.82   Commission inspections of land disposal facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall afford to the Commission at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect radioactive waste not yet disposed of, and the premises, equipment, operations, and facilities in which radioactive wastes are received, possessed, handled, treated, stored, or disposed of.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by it pursuant to the regulations in this chapter. Authorized representatives of the Commission may copy and take away copies of, for the Commission's use, any record required to be kept pursuant to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.83" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.7.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.83   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55077, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 61.84" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.7.7.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 61.84   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 61 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 61 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of Section 223 are as follows: §§ 61.1, 61.2, 61.4, 61.5, 61.6, 61.7, 61.8, 61.10, 61.11, 61.12, 61.13, 61.14, 61.15, 61.16, 61.20, 61.21, 61.22, 61.23, 61.26, 61.30, 61.31, 61.50, 61.51, 61.54, 61.55, 61.58, 61.59, 61.61, 61.63, 61.70, 61.71, 61.72, 61.73, 61.83, and 61.84. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55077, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 62—CRITERIA AND PROCEDURES FOR EMERGENCY ACCESS TO NON-FEDERAL AND REGIONAL LOW-LEVEL WASTE DISPOSAL FACILITIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, sec. 161 (42 U.S.C. 2201); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985, secs. 2, 6 (42 U.S.C. 2021b, 2021f); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 5420, Feb. 3, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.1.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part establish for specific low-level radioactive waste: 
</P>
<P>(1) Criteria and procedures for granting emergency access under section 6 of the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985 (42 U.S.C. 2021) to any non-Federal or regional low-level radioactive waste (LLW) disposal facility or to any non-Federal disposal facility within a State that is not a member of a Compact, and 
</P>
<P>(2) The terms and conditions upon which the Commission will grant this emergency access. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part apply to all persons as defined by this regulation, who have been denied access to existing regional or non-Federal low-level radioactive waste disposal facilities and who submit a request to the Commission for a determination pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The regulations in this part apply only to the LLW that the States have the responsibility to dispose of pursuant to section 3(1)(a) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.1.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985 (Pub. L. 99-240). 
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means a State that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Has entered into an agreement with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under section 274 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2021); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Has authority to regulate the disposal of low-level radioactive waste under such agreement. 
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Compact</I> means a Compact entered into by two or more States pursuant to the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985. 
</P>
<P><I>Compact Commission</I> means the regional commission, committee, or board established in a Compact to administer such Compact. 
</P>
<P><I>Disposal</I> means the permanent isolation of low-level radioactive waste pursuant to the requirements established by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under applicable laws, or by an Agreement State if such isolation occurs in this Agreement State. 
</P>
<P><I>Emergency access</I> means access to an operating non-Federal or regional low-level radioactive waste disposal facility or facilities for a period not to exceed 180 days, which is granted by NRC to a generator of low-level radioactive waste who has been denied the use of those facilities. 
</P>
<P><I>Extension of emergency access</I> means an extension of the access that had been previously granted by NRC to an operating non-Federal or regional low-level radioactive waste disposal facility or facilities for a period not to exceed 180 days. 
</P>
<P><I>Low-level radioactive waste (LLW)</I> means radioactive material that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is not high-level radioactive waste, spent nuclear fuel, or byproduct material (as defined in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of the definition of <I>Byproduct Material</I> set forth in § 20.1003 of this chapter); and
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC, consistent with existing law and in accordance with paragraph (1) of this definition, classifies as low-level radioactive waste.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Federal disposal facility</I> means a low-level radioactive waste disposal facility that is commercially operated or is operated by a State. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, State, public or private institution, group or agency who is an NRC or NRC Agreement State licensed generator of low-level radioactive waste within the scope of § 62.1(c) of this part; any Governor (or for any <I>State</I> without a Governor, the chief executive officer of the <I>State</I>) on behalf of any NRC or NRC Agreement State licensed generator or generators of low-level radioactive waste within the scope of § 62.1(c) of this part located in his or her <I>State</I>; or their duly authorized representative, legal successor, or agent. 
</P>
<P><I>Regional disposal facility</I> means a non-Federal low-level radioactive waste disposal facility in operation on January 1, 1985, or subsequently established and operated under a compact.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P><I>Temporary emergency access</I> means access that is granted at NRC's discretion under § 62.23 of this part upon determining that access is necessary to eliminate an immediate and serious threat to the public health and safety or the common defense and security. Such access expires 45 days after the granting and cannot be extended. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 5420, Feb. 3, 1989, as amended at 72 FR 55933, Oct. 1, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.1.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.3   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I>; by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5725, Jan. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 62683, Dec. 1, 2009; 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74980, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.1.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.4   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be considered binding on the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 5420, Feb. 3, 1989, as amended at 90 FR 55631, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.1.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.5   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant an exemption from the requirements of the regulations in this part that it determines is authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and is otherwise in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.1.91.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0143. 
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 62.5, 62.11, 62.12, 62.13, 62.14, and 62.15. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 5420, Feb. 3, 1989, as amended at 62 FR 52188, Oct. 6, 1997;  85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Request for a Commission Determination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.11   Filing and distribution of a determination request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The person submitting a request for a Commission determination shall file a signed original of the request with the Commission at the address specified in § 62.3 of this part, with a copy also provided to the appropriate Regional Administrator at the address specified in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. The request must be signed by the person requesting the determination or the person's authorized representative under oath or affirmation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a request for a determination, the Secretary of the Commission shall publish a notice acknowledging receipt of the request in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice must require that public comment on the request be submitted within 10 days of the publication date of the notice. A copy of the request will be made available for inspection or copying at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room. The Secretary of the Commission shall also transmit a copy of the request to the U.S. Department of Energy, to the Governors of the States of the Compact region where the waste is generated, to the Governors of the States with operating non-Federal low-level radioactive waste disposal facilities, to the Compact Commissions with operating regional low-level radioactive waste disposal facilities, and to the Governors of the States in the Compact Commissions with operating disposal facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a request for a determination based on a serious and immediate threat to the common defense and security, the Commission will notify DOD and/or DOE and provide a copy of the request as needed for their consideration. 
</P>
<P>(d) Fees applicable to a request for a Commission determination under this part will be determined in accordance with the procedures set forth for special projects under category 12 of § 170.31 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) In the event that the allocations or limitations established in section 5(b) or 6(h) of the Act are met at all operating non-Federal or regional LLW disposal facilities, the Commission may suspend the processing or acceptance of requests for emergency access determinations until additional LLW disposal capacity is authorized by Congress. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 5420, Feb. 3, 1989, as amended at 64 FR 48954, Sept. 9, 1999; 68 FR 58814, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.12   Contents of a request for emergency access: General information.</HEAD>
<P>A request for a Commission determination under this part must include the following information for each generator to which the request applies: 
</P>
<P>(a) Name and address of the person making the request; 
</P>
<P>(b) Name and address of the person(s) or company(ies) generating the low-level radioactive waste for which the determination is sought; 
</P>
<P>(c) A statement indicating whether the generator is basing the request on the grounds of a serious and immediate threat to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; 
</P>
<P>(d) Certification that the radioactive waste for which emergency access is requested is low-level radioactive waste within § 62.1(c) of this part; 
</P>
<P>(e) The low-level waste generation facility(ies) producing the waste for which the request is being made; 
</P>
<P>(f) A description of the activity that generated the waste; 
</P>
<P>(g) Name of the disposal facility or facilities which had been receiving the waste stream of concern before the generator was denied access; 
</P>
<P>(h) A description of the low-level radioactive waste for which emergency access is requested, including— 
</P>
<P>(1) The characteristics and composition of the waste, including, but not limited to— 
</P>
<P>(i) Type of waste (e.g. solidified oil, scintillation fluid, failed equipment); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Principal chemical composition; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Physical state (solid, liquid, gas); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Type of solidification media; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Concentrations and percentages of any hazardous or toxic chemicals, chelating agents, or infectious or biological agents associated with the waste; 
</P>
<P>(2) The radiological characteristics of the waste such as— 
</P>
<P>(i) The classification of the waste in accordance with 61.55;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of the radionuclides present or potentially present in the waste, their concentration or contamination levels, and total quantity; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Distribution of the radionuclides within the waste (surface or volume distribution); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Amount of transuranics (nanocuries/gram); 
</P>
<P>(3) The minimum volume of the waste requiring emergency access to eliminate the threat to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; 
</P>
<P>(4) The time duration for which emergency access is requested (not to exceed 180 days); 
</P>
<P>(5) Type of disposal container or packaging (55 gallon drum, box, liner, etc.); and 
</P>
<P>(6) Description of the volume reduction and waste minimization techniques applied to the waste which assure that it is reduced to the maximum extent practicable, and the actual reduction in volume that occurred; 
</P>
<P>(i) Basis for requesting the determination set out in this part, including—
</P>
<P>(1) The circumstances that led to the denial of access to existing low-level radioactive waste disposal facilities; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the situation that is responsible for creating the serious and immediate threat to the public health and safety or the common defense and security, including the date when the need for emergency access was identified; 
</P>
<P>(3) A chronology and description of the actions taken by the person requesting emergency access to prevent the need for making such a request, including consideration of all alternatives set forth in § 62.13 of this part, and any supporting documentation as appropriate; 
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the impacts of the waste on the public health and safety or the common defense and security if emergency access is not granted, and the basis for concluding that these impacts constitute a serious and immediate threat to the public health and safety or the common defense and security. The impacts to the public health and safety or the common defense and security should also be addressed if the generator's services, including research activities, were to be curtailed, either for a limited period of time or indefinitely; 
</P>
<P>(5) Other consequences if emergency access is not granted; 
</P>
<P>(j) Steps taken by the person requesting emergency access to correct the situation requiring emergency access and the person's plans to eliminate the need for additional or future emergency access requests; 
</P>
<P>(k) Documentation certifying that access has been denied; 
</P>
<P>(l) Documentation that the waste for which emergency access is requested could not otherwise qualify for disposal pursuant to the Unusual Volumes provision (Section 5(c)(5) of the Act) or is not simultaneously under consideration by the Department of Energy (DOE) for access through the Unusual Volumes allocation; 
</P>
<P>(m) Date by which access is required; 
</P>
<P>(n) Any other information which the Commission should consider in making its determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.13   Contents of a request for emergency access: Alternatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request for emergency access under this part must include information on alternatives to emergency access. The request shall include a discussion of the consideration given to any alternatives, including, but not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Storage of low-level radioactive waste at the site of generation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Storage of low-level radioactive waste in a licensed storage facility; 
</P>
<P>(3) Obtaining access to a disposal facility by voluntary agreement; 
</P>
<P>(4) Purchasing disposal capacity available for assignment pursuant to the Act; 
</P>
<P>(5) Requesting disposal at a Federal low-level radioactive waste disposal facility in the case of a Federal or defense related generator of LLW; 
</P>
<P>(6) Reducing the volume of the waste; 
</P>
<P>(7) Ceasing activities that generate low-level radioactive waste; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Other alternatives identified under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The request must identify all of the alternatives to emergency access considered, including any that would require State or Compact action, or any others that are not specified in paragraph (a) of this section. The request should also include a description of the process used to identify the alternatives, a description of the factors that were considered in identifying and evaluating them, a chronology of actions taken to identify and implement alternatives during the process, and a discussion of any actions that were considered, but not implemented. 
</P>
<P>(c) The evaluation of each alternative must consider: 
</P>
<P>(1) Its potential for mitigating the serious and immediate threat to public health and safety or the common defense and security posed by lack of access to disposal;
</P>
<P>(2) The adverse effects on public health and safety and the common defense and security, if any, of implementing each alternative, including the curtailment or cessation of any essential services affecting the public health and safety or the common defense and security; 
</P>
<P>(3) The technical and economic feasibility of each alternative including the person's financial capability to implement the alternatives; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any other pertinent societal costs and benefits; 
</P>
<P>(5) Impacts to the environment; 
</P>
<P>(6) Any legal impediments to implementation of each alternative, including whether the alternatives will comply with applicable NRC and NRC Agreement States regulatory requirements; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The time required to develop and implement each alternative. 
</P>
<P>(d) The request must include the basis for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Rejecting each alternative; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Concluding that no alternative is available. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.14" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.14   Contents of a request for an extension of emergency access.</HEAD>
<P>A request for an extension of emergency access must include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Updates of the information required in §§ 62.12 and 62.13; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Documentation that the generator of the low-level radioactive waste granted emergency access and the State in which the low-level radioactive waste was generated have diligently, though unsuccessfully, acted during the period of the initial grant to eliminate the need for emergency access. Documentation must include:
</P>
<P>(1) An identification of additional alternatives that have been evaluated during the period of the initial grant, and 
</P>
<P>(2) A discussion of any reevaluation of previously considered alternatives, including verification of continued attempts to gain access to a disposal facility by voluntary agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.15   Additional information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may require additional information from a person making a request for a Commission determination under this part concerning any portion of the request. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall deny a request for a Commission determination under this part if the person making the request fails to respond to a request for additional information under paragraph (a) of this section within ten (10) days from the date of the request for additional information, or any other time that the Commission may specify. This denial will not prejudice the right of the person making the request to file another request for a Commission determination under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2.91.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.16   Withdrawal of a determination request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may withdraw a request for a Commission determination under this part without prejudice at any time prior to the issuance of an initial determination under § 62.21 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of the Commission will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the withdrawal of a request for a Commission determination under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2.91.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.17   Elimination of repetition.</HEAD>
<P>In any request under this part, the person making the request may incorporate by reference information contained in a previous application, Statement, or report filed with the Commission provided that these references are updated, clear, and specific. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.18" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.2.91.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.18   Denial of request.</HEAD>
<P>If a request for a determination is based on circumstances that are too remote and speculative to allow an informed determination, the Commission may deny the request. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Issuance of a Commission Determination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.3.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.21   Determination for granting emergency access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not later than (45) days after the receipt of a request for a Commission determination under this part from any generator of low-level radioactive waste, or any Governor on behalf of any generator or generators located in his or her State, the Commission shall determine whether—
</P>
<P>(1) Emergency access to a regional disposal facility or a non-Federal disposal facility within a State that is not a member of a Compact for specific low-level radioactive waste is necessary because of an immediate and serious threat— 
</P>
<P>(i) To the public health and safety or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The common defense and security; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The threat cannot be mitigated by any alternative consistent with the public health and safety, including those identified in § 62.13. 
</P>
<P>(b) In making a determination under this section, the Commission shall be guided by the criteria set forth in § 62.25 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) A determination under this section must be in writing and contain a full explanation of the facts upon which the determination is based and the reasons for granting or denying the request. An affirmative determination must designate an appropriate non-Federal or regional LLW disposal facility or facilities for the disposal of wastes, specifically describe the low-level radioactive waste as to source, physical and radiological characteristics, and the minimum volume and duration (not to exceed 180 days) necessary to eliminate the immediate threat to public health and safety or the common defense and security. It may also contain conditions upon which the determination is dependent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.3.91.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.22   Notice of issuance of a determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the issuance of a Commission determination the Secretary of the Commission will notify in writing the following persons of the final determination: The person making the request, the Governor of the State in which the low-level radioactive waste requiring emergency access was generated, the Governor of the State in which the designated disposal facility is located, and if pertinent, the appropriate Compact Commission for such approval as is specified as necessary in section 6(g) of the Act. For the Governor of the State in which the designated disposal facility is located and for the appropriate Compact Commission, the notification must set forth the reasons that emergency access was granted and specifically describe the low-level radioactive waste as to source, physical and radiological characteristics, and the minimum volume and duration (not to exceed 180 days) necessary to alleviate the immediate and serious threat to public health and safety or the common defense and security. For the Governor of the State in which the low-level waste was generated, the notification must indicate that no extension of emergency access will be granted under § 62.24 of this part absent diligent State and generator action during the period of the initial grant. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of the Commission will cause to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the issuance of the determination. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary of the Commission shall make a copy of the final determination available for inspection at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 5420, Feb. 3, 1989, as amended at 64 FR 48954, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.3.91.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.23   Determination for granting temporary emergency access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may grant temporary emergency access to an appropriate non-Federal or regional disposal facility or facilities provided that the determination required under § 62.21(a)(1) of this part is made; 
</P>
<P>(b) The notification procedures under § 62.22 of this part are complied with; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The temporary emergency access duration will not exceed forty-five (45) days. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.3.91.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.24   Extension of emergency access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the receipt of a request from any generator of low-level waste, or any Governor on behalf of any generator or generators in his or her State, for an extension of emergency access that was initially granted under § 62.21, the Commission shall make an initial determination of whether—
</P>
<P>(1) Emergency access continues to be necessary because of an immediate and serious threat to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; 
</P>
<P>(2) The threat cannot be mitigated by any alternative that is consistent with public health and safety; and
</P>
<P>(3) The generator of low-level waste and the State have diligently though unsuccessfully acted during the period of the initial grant to eliminate the need for emergency access.
</P>
<P>(b) After making a determination pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the requirements specified in §§ 62.21(c) and 62.22 of this part, must be followed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.3.91.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.25   Criteria for a Commission determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In making the determination required by § 62.21(a) of this part, the Commission will determine whether the circumstances described in the request for emergency access create a serious and immediate threat to the public health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(b) In making the determination that a serious and immediate threat exists to the public health and safety, the Commission will consider, notwithstanding the availability of any alternative identified in § 62.13 of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and extent of the radiation hazard that would result from the denial of emergency access, including consideration of—
</P>
<P>(i) The standards for radiation protection contained in part 20 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any standards governing the release of radioactive materials to the general environment that are applicable to the facility that generated the low level waste; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other Commission requirements specifically applicable to the facility or activity that is the subject of the emergency access request; and
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which essential services affecting the public health and safety (such as medical, therapeutic, diagnostic, or research activities) will be disrupted by the denial of emergency access.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of granting temporary emergency access under § 62.23 of this part, the Commission will consider the criteria contained in the Commission's Policy Statement (45 FR 10950, February 24, 1977) for determining whether an event at a facility or activity licensed or otherwise regulated by the Commission is an abnormal occurrence within the purview of section 208 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(d) In making the determination that a serious and immediate threat to the common defense and security exists, the Commission will consider, notwithstanding the availability of any alternative identified in § 62.13 of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the activity generating the wastes is necessary to the protection of the common defense and security, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the lack of access to a disposal site would result in a significant disruption in that activity that would seriously threaten the common defense and security.
</P>
<FP>The Commission will consider the views of the Department of Defense (DOD) and or the Department of Energy (DOE) regarding the importance of the activities responsible for generating the LLW to the common defense and security, when evaluating requests based all, or in part, on a serious and immediate threat to the common defense and security.
</FP>
<P>(e) In making the determination required by § 62.21(a)(2) of this part, the Commission will consider whether the person submitting the request—
</P>
<P>(1) Has identified and evaluated any alternative that could mitigate the need for emergency access; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has considered all pertinent factors in its evaluation of alternatives including state-of-the-art technology and impacts on public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(f) In making the determination required by § 62.21(a)(2) of this part, the Commission will consider implementation of an alternative to be unreasonable if:
</P>
<P>(1) It adversely affects public health and safety, the environment, or the common defense and security; or
</P>
<P>(2) It results in a significant curtailment or cessation of essential services, affecting public health and safety or the common defense and security; or
</P>
<P>(3) It is beyond the technical and economic capabilities of the person requesting emergency access; or
</P>
<P>(4) Implementation of the alternative would conflict with applicable State or local or Federal laws and regulations; or 
</P>
<P>(5) It cannot be implemented in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(g) The Commission shall make an affirmative determination under § 62.21(a) of this part only if all of the alternatives that were considered are found to be unreasonable.
</P>
<P>(h) As part of its mandated evaluation of the alternatives that were considered by the generator, the Commission shall consider the characteristics of the wastes (including: physical properties, chemical properties, radioactivity, pathogenicity, infectiousness, and toxicity, pyrophoricity, and explosive potential); condition of current container; potential for contaminating the disposal site; the technologies or combination of technologies available for treatment of the waste (including incinerators; evaporators-crystallizers; fluidized bed dryers; thin film evaporators; extruders, evaporators; and Compactors); the suitability of volume reduction equipment to the circumstances (specific activity considerations, actual volume reduction factors, generation of secondary wastes, equipment contamination, effluent releases, worker exposure, and equipment availability); and the administrative controls which could be applied, in making a determination whether waste to be delivered for disposal under this part has been reduced in volume to the maximum extent practicable using available technology.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.3.91.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.26   Criteria for designating a disposal facility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall designate an appropriate non-Federal or regional disposal facility if an affirmative determination is made pursuant to § 62.21, § 62.23, or § 62.24 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will exclude a disposal facility from consideration if:
</P>
<P>(1) The low-level radioactive wastes of the generator do not meet the criteria established by the license agreement or the license agreement of the facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) The disposal facility is in excess of its approved capacity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Granting emergency access would delay the closing of the disposal facility pursuant to plans established before the receipt of the request for emergency access; or
</P>
<P>(4) The volume of waste requiring emergency access exceeds 20 percent of the total volume of low-level radioactive waste accepted for disposal at the facility during the previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>(c) If, after applying the exclusionary criteria in paragraph (b) of this section, more than one disposal facility is identified as appropriate for designation, the Commission will then consider additional factors in designating a facility or facilities including—
</P>
<P>(1) Type of waste and its characteristics,
</P>
<P>(2) Previous disposal practices,
</P>
<P>(3) Transportation
</P>
<P>(4) Radiological effects,
</P>
<P>(5) Site capability for handling waste,
</P>
<P>(6) The volume of emergency access waste previously accepted by each site both for the particular year and overall, and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other considerations deemed appropriate by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission, in making its designation, will also consider any information submitted by the operating non-Federal or regional LLW disposal sites, or any information submitted by the public in response to a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice requesting comment, as provided in paragraph (b) of § 62.11 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Termination of Emergency Access</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 62.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.8.4.91.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 62.31   Termination of emergency access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may terminate a grant of emergency access when emergency access is no longer necessary to eliminate an immediate threat to public health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may terminate a grant of emergency access if an applicant has provided inaccurate information in its application for emergency access or if the applicant has failed to comply with this part or any conditions set by the Commission pursuant to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="63" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 63—DISPOSAL OF HIGH-LEVEL RADIOACTIVE WASTES IN A GEOLOGIC REPOSITORY AT YUCCA MOUNTAIN, NEVADA 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 51, 53, 62, 63, 65, 81, 161, 182, 183, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2071, 2073, 2092, 2093, 2095, 2111, 2201, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); 42 U.S.C. 2021a; National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 114, 117, 121 (42 U.S.C. 10134, 10137, 10141); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 63 appear at 81 FR 86909, Dec. 2, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes rules governing the licensing (including issuance of a construction authorization) of the U.S. Department of Energy to receive and possess source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area sited, constructed, or operated at Yucca Mountain, Nevada, in accordance with the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended, and the Energy Policy Act of 1992. As provided in 10 CFR 60.1, the regulations in part 60 of this chapter do not apply to any activity licensed under another part of this chapter. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 63.11.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2280, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affected Indian Tribe</I> means any Indian Tribe within whose reservation boundaries a repository for high-level radioactive waste or spent fuel is proposed to be located; or whose Federally-defined possessory or usage rights to other lands outside of the reservation's boundaries arising out of Congressionally-ratified treaties or other Federal law may be substantially and adversely affected by the location of the facility if the Secretary of the Interior finds, on the petition of the appropriate governmental officials of the Tribe, that the effects are both substantial and adverse to the Tribe. 
</P>
<P><I>Barrier</I> means any material, structure, or feature that, for a period to be determined by NRC, prevents or substantially reduces the rate of movement of water or radionuclides from the Yucca Mountain repository to the accessible environment, or prevents the release or substantially reduces the release rate of radionuclides from the waste. For example, a barrier may be a geologic feature, an engineered structure, a canister, a waste form with physical and chemical characteristics that significantly decrease the mobility of radionuclides, or a material placed over and around the waste, provided that the material substantially delays movement of water or radionuclides. 
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means clearing of land, surface or subsurface excavation, or other substantial action that would adversely affect the environment of a site. It does not include changes desirable for the temporary use of the land for public recreational uses, site characterization activities, other preconstruction monitoring and investigation necessary to establish background information related to the suitability of the Yucca Mountain site or to the protection of environmental values, or procurement or manufacture of components of the geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Containment</I> means the confinement of radioactive waste within a designated boundary. 
</P>
<P><I>Design bases</I> means that information that identifies the specific functions to be performed by a structure, system, or component of a facility and the specific values or ranges of values chosen for controlling parameters as reference bounds for design. These values may be constraints derived from generally accepted “state-of-the-art” practices for achieving functional goals or requirements derived from analysis (based on calculation or experiments) of the effects of a postulated event under which a structure, system, or component must meet its functional goals. The values for controlling parameters for external events include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Estimates of severe natural events to be used for deriving design bases that will be based on consideration of historical data on the associated parameters, physical data, or analysis of upper limits of the physical processes involved; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Estimates of severe external human-induced events to be used for deriving design bases, that will be based on analysis of human activity in the region, taking into account the site characteristics and the risks associated with the event. 
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. 
</P>
<P><I>Disposal</I> means the emplacement of radioactive waste in a geologic repository with the intent of leaving it there permanently. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Engineered barrier system</I> means the waste packages, including engineered components and systems other than the waste package (e.g., drip shields), and the underground facility. 
</P>
<P><I>Event sequence</I> means a series of actions and/or occurrences within the natural and engineered components of a geologic repository operations area that could potentially lead to exposure of individuals to radiation. An event sequence includes one or more initiating events and associated combinations of repository system component failures, including those produced by the action or inaction of operating personnel. Those event sequences that are expected to occur one or more times before permanent closure of the geologic repository operations area are referred to as Category 1 event sequences. Other event sequences that have at least one chance in 10,000 of occurring before permanent closure are referred to as Category 2 event sequences. 
</P>
<P><I>Geologic repository</I> means a system that is intended to be used for, or may be used for, the disposal of radioactive wastes in excavated geologic media. A geologic repository includes the engineered barrier system and the portion of the geologic setting that provides isolation of the radioactive waste. 
</P>
<P><I>Geologic repository operations area</I> means a high-level radioactive waste facility that is part of a geologic repository, including both surface and subsurface areas, where waste handling activities are conducted. 
</P>
<P><I>Geologic setting</I> means the geologic, hydrologic, and geochemical systems of the region in which a geologic repository is or may be located. 
</P>
<P><I>High-level radioactive waste</I> or <I>HLW</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The highly radioactive material resulting from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuel, including liquid waste produced directly in reprocessing and any solid material derived from such liquid waste that contains fission products in sufficient concentrations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Irradiated reactor fuel; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Other highly radioactive material that the Commission, consistent with existing law, determines by rule requires permanent isolation. 
</P>
<P><I>HLW facility</I> means a facility subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to sections 202(3) and 202(4) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> These are DOE “facilities used primarily for the receipt and storage of high-level radioactive wastes resulting from activities licensed under such Act (the Atomic Energy Act)” and “Retrievable Surface Storage Facilities and other facilities authorized for the express purpose of subsequent long-term storage of high-level radioactive wastes generated by (DOE), which are not used for, or are part of, research and development activities.”</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Host rock</I> means the geologic medium in which the waste is emplaced. 
</P>
<P><I>Important to safety,</I> with reference to structures, systems, and components, means those engineered features of the geologic repository operations area whose function is: 
</P>
<P>(1) To provide reasonable assurance that high-level waste can be received, handled, packaged, stored, emplaced, and retrieved without exceeding the requirements of § 63.111(b)(1) for Category 1 event sequences; or 
</P>
<P>(2) To prevent or mitigate Category 2 event sequences that could result in radiological exposures exceeding the values specified at § 63.111(b)(2) to any individual located on or beyond any point on the boundary of the site. 
</P>
<P><I>Important to waste isolation,</I> with reference to design of the engineered barrier system and characterization of natural barriers, means those engineered and natural barriers whose function is to provide a reasonable expectation that high-level waste can be disposed of without exceeding the requirements of § 63.113(b) and (c). 
</P>
<P><I>Initiating event</I> means a natural or human induced event that causes an event sequence. 
</P>
<P><I>Isolation</I> means inhibiting the transport of radioactive material to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The location of the reasonably maximally exposed individual so that radiological exposures will not exceed the requirements of § 63.113(b); and 
</P>
<P>(2) The accessible environment so that releases of radionuclides into the accessible environment will not exceed the requirements of § 63.113(c). 
</P>
<P><I>Performance assessment</I> means an analysis that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identifies the features, events, processes (except human intrusion), and sequences of events and processes (except human intrusion) that might affect the Yucca Mountain disposal system and their probabilities of occurring;
</P>
<P>(2) Examines the effects of those features, events, processes, and sequences of events and processes upon the performance of the Yucca Mountain disposal system; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Estimates the dose incurred by the reasonably maximally exposed individual, including the associated uncertainties, as a result of releases caused by all significant features, events, processes, and sequences of events and processes, weighted by their probability of occurrence. 
</P>
<P><I>Performance confirmation</I> means the program of tests, experiments, and analyses that is conducted to evaluate the adequacy of the information used to demonstrate compliance with the performance objectives in subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Permanent closure</I> means final backfilling of the underground facility, if appropriate, and the sealing of shafts, ramps, and boreholes. 
</P>
<P><I>Preclosure safety analysis</I> means a systematic examination of the site; the design; and the potential hazards, initiating events and event sequences and their consequences (e.g., radiological exposures to workers and the public). The analysis identifies structures, systems, and components important to safety. 
</P>
<P><I>Public Document Room</I> means the place at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Room O-1F13, Rockville, MD, at which records of the Commission will ordinarily be made available for public inspection and any other place, the location of which has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> at which public records of the Commission pertaining to a geologic repository at the Yucca Mountain site are made available for public inspection. 
</P>
<P><I>Publicly Available Records System (PARS) Library</I> means the electronic library generated by the NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) to provide access to public documents. PARS has full text documents which can be searched using specific fields and parameters. The public can search, download, print, create reports, and order documents online. The PARS Library contains publicly available documents created or received by NRC since November 1, 1999, as well as some older documents that the NRC has retrofit into the collection. PARS is accessible from the NRC Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm.html.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive waste</I> or <I>waste</I> means HLW and radioactive materials other than HLW that are received for emplacement in a geologic repository. 
</P>
<P><I>Reasonably maximally exposed individual</I> means the hypothetical person meeting the criteria specified at § 63.312. 
</P>
<P><I>Reference biosphere</I> means the description of the environment inhabited by the reasonably maximally exposed individual. The reference biosphere comprises the set of specific biotic and abiotic characteristics of the environment, including, but not necessarily limited to, climate, topography, soils, flora, fauna, and human activities. 
</P>
<P><I>Restricted area</I> means an area, access to which is limited by the licensee for the purpose of protecting individuals against undue risks from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials. Restricted area does not include areas used as residential quarters, but separate rooms in a residential building may be set aside as a restricted area. 
</P>
<P><I>Retrieval</I> means the act of permanently removing radioactive waste from the underground location at which the waste had been previously emplaced for disposal. 
</P>
<P><I>Saturated zone</I> means that part of the earth's crust beneath the regional water table in which statistically all voids, large and small, are filled with water under pressure greater than atmospheric. 
</P>
<P><I>Site</I> means that area surrounding the geologic repository operations area for which DOE exercises authority over its use in accordance with the provisions of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Site characterization</I> means the program of exploration and research, both in the laboratory and in the field, undertaken to establish the geologic conditions and the ranges of those parameters of the Yucca Mountain site, and the surrounding region to the extent necessary, relevant to the procedures under this part. Site characterization includes borings, surface excavations, excavation of exploratory shafts and/or ramps, limited subsurface lateral excavations and borings, and in situ testing at depth needed to determine the suitability of the site for a geologic repository. 
</P>
<P><I>Total effective dose equivalent (TEDE)</I> means the sum of the effective dose equivalent (for external exposures) and the committed effective dose equivalent (for internal exposures).
</P>
<P><I>Underground facility</I> means the underground structure, backfill materials, if any, and openings that penetrate the underground structure (e.g., ramps, shafts, and boreholes, including their seals). 
</P>
<P><I>Unrestricted area</I> means an area, access to which is neither limited nor controlled by the licensee. 
</P>
<P><I>Unsaturated zone</I> means the zone between the land surface and the regional water table. Generally, fluid pressure in this zone is less than atmospheric pressure, and some of the voids may contain air or other gases at atmospheric pressure. Beneath flooded areas or in perched water bodies, the fluid pressure locally may be greater than atmospheric. 
</P>
<P><I>Waste form</I> means the radioactive waste materials and any encapsulating or stabilizing matrix. 
</P>
<P><I>Waste package</I> means the waste form and any containers, shielding, packing, and other absorbent materials immediately surrounding an individual waste container. 
</P>
<P><I>Water table</I> means that surface in a groundwater body, separating the unsaturated zone from the saturated zone, at which the water pressure is atmospheric. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58815, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 10828, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.3   License required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may not receive nor possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site except as authorized by a license issued by the Commission under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may not begin construction of a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site unless it has filed an application with the Commission and has obtained construction authorization as provided in this part. Failure to comply with this requirement is grounds for denial of a license. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.4   Communications and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise specified, in this part or in subpart J of part 2 of this chapter, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent to the NRC as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) By mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk; Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; 
</P>
<P>(2) By hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; ATTN: Document Control Desk: Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; or, 
</P>
<P>(3) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I>; by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform if the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58815, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62683, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel is binding on the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 90 FR 55632, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.6   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application by DOE, any interested person, or upon its own initiative, grant an exemption from the requirements of this part if it determines that the exemption is authorized by law, does not endanger life nor property nor the common defense and security, and is otherwise in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.7   License not required for certain preliminary activities.</HEAD>
<P>The requirement for a license set forth in § 63.3(a) is not applicable to the extent that DOE receives and possesses source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository at the Yucca Mountain site: 
</P>
<P>(a) For purposes of site characterization; or 
</P>
<P>(b) For use, during site characterization or construction, as components of radiographic, radiation monitoring, or similar equipment or instrumentation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501, <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0199. 
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this Part appear in §§ 63.6, 63.47, 63.62, 63.63, and 63.65.
</P>
<P>(c) In § 63.47, IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms are approved under control number 3150-0056, and DOC/NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control numbers 0694-0135.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 73 FR 78606, Dec. 23, 2008; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]

IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.9   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant, against an employee, for engaging in certain protected activities, is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act. 
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission, or his or her employer, information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those aforementioned statutes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section, or under these requirements, if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not apply to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages. 
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraph (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant may be grounds for— 
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license; 
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, that adversely affect an employee, may be predicated on nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each licensee and each applicant for a license shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in § 19.11(c) of this chapter. This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, and for 30 days following license termination. 
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision that would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in a protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, including, but not limited to, providing information to NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58815, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63974, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30459, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66605, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.10   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee, or information required by statute, or required by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee must be complete and accurate in all material respects. 
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant or licensee shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having, for the regulated activity, a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant or licensee violates this paragraph only if the applicant or licensee fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant or licensee has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification must be provided to the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, within 2 working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information that is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.1.106.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.11   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, applicant for a license, employee of a licensee or applicant; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or applicant for a license, who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities in this part, may not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to NRC, a licensee, an applicant, or a licensee's or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to NRC. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B. 
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="106" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.106" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preapplication Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.106.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.15   Site characterization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall conduct a program of site characterization with respect to the Yucca Mountain site before it submits an application for a license to be issued under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall conduct the investigations to obtain the required information in a manner that limits adverse effects on the long-term performance of the geologic repository at Yucca Mountain to the extent practical.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.106.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.16   Review of site characterization activities. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> In addition to the review of site characterization activities specified in this section, the Commission contemplates an ongoing review of other information on site investigation and site characterization, to allow early identification of potential licensing issues for timely resolution at the staff level.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) If DOE's planned site characterization activities include onsite testing with radioactive material, including radioactive tracers, the Commission shall determine whether the proposed use of such radioactive material is necessary to provide data for the preparation of the environmental reports required by law and for an application to be submitted under § 63.22. 
</P>
<P>(b) During the conduct of site characterization activities at the Yucca Mountain site, DOE shall report the nature and extent of the activities, the information that has been developed, and the progress of waste form and waste package research and development to the Commission not less than once every 6 months. The semiannual reports must include the results of site characterization studies, the identification of new issues, plans for additional studies to resolve new issues, elimination of planned studies no longer necessary, identification of decision points reached, and modifications to schedules, where appropriate. DOE shall also report its progress in developing the design of a geologic repository operations area appropriate for the area being characterized, noting when key design parameters or features that depend on the results of site characterization will be established. Other topics related to site characterization must also be covered if requested by the Director. 
</P>
<P>(c) During the conduct of site characterization activities at the Yucca Mountain site, NRC staff shall be permitted to visit and inspect the locations at which such activities are carried out and to observe excavations, borings, and in situ tests, as they are done. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Director may comment at any time in writing to DOE, expressing current views on any aspect of site characterization or performance assessment at the Yucca Mountain site. In particular, the Director shall comment whenever he or she determines that there are substantial grounds for making recommendations or stating objections to DOE's site characterization program. The Director shall invite public comment on any comments that the Director makes to DOE on review of the DOE semiannual reports or on any other comments that the Director makes to DOE on site characterization and performance assessment by placing the comments in a public forum to allow the public to comment on them after the Director's comments are sent to DOE. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Director shall transmit copies of all comments to DOE made by the Director under this section to the Governor and legislature of the State of Nevada and to the governing body of any affected Indian Tribe. 
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC shall place all correspondence between DOE and NRC resulting from the requirements of this section, including the reports described in paragraph (b) of this section, in the Publicly Available Records System (PARS) Library. 
</P>
<P>(g) The activities described in paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section constitute informal conference between a prospective applicant and the NRC staff, as described in § 2.101(a)(1) of this chapter, and are not part of a proceeding under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. Accordingly, the issuance of the Director's comments made under this section does not constitute a commitment to issue any authorization or license, or in any way affect the authority of the Commission, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, other presiding officers, or the Director, in any such proceeding. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58815, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="107" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.107" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>License Application</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.107.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.21   Content of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application consists of general information and a Safety Analysis Report. An environmental impact statement must be prepared in accordance with the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended, and must accompany the application. Any Restricted Data or National Security Information must be separated from unclassified information. The application must be as complete as possible in the light of information that is reasonably available at the time of docketing. 
</P>
<P>(b) The general information must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A general description of the proposed geologic repository at the Yucca Mountain site, identifying the location of the geologic repository operations area, the general character of the proposed activities, and the basis for the exercise of the Commission's licensing authority. 
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed schedules for construction, receipt of waste, and emplacement of wastes at the proposed geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the detailed security measures for physical protection of high-level radioactive waste in accordance with § 73.51 of this chapter. This plan must include the design for physical protection, the licensee's safeguards contingency plan, and security organization personnel training and qualification plan. The plan must list tests, inspections, audits, and other means to be used to demonstrate compliance with such requirements. 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the material control and accounting program to meet the requirements of § 63.78. 
</P>
<P>(5) A description of work conducted to characterize the Yucca Mountain site. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Safety Analysis Report must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the Yucca Mountain site, with appropriate attention to those features, events, and processes of the site that might affect design of the geologic repository operations area and performance of the geologic repository. The description of the site must include information regarding features, events, and processes outside of the site to the extent the information is relevant and material to safety or performance of the geologic repository. The information referred to in this paragraph must include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The location of the geologic repository operations area with respect to the boundary of the site; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information regarding the geology, hydrology, and geochemistry of the site, including geomechanical properties and conditions of the host rock; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Information regarding surface water hydrology, climatology, and meteorology of the site; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Information regarding the location of the reasonably maximally exposed individual, and regarding local human behaviors and characteristics, as needed to support selection of conceptual models and parameters used for the reference biosphere and reasonably maximally exposed individual. 
</P>
<P>(2) Information relative to materials of construction of the geologic repository operations area (including geologic media, general arrangement, and approximate dimensions), and codes and standards that DOE proposes to apply to the design and construction of the geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P>(3) A description and discussion of the design of the various components of the geologic repository operations area and the engineered barrier system including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Dimensions, material properties, specifications, analytical and design methods used along with any applicable codes and standards; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The design criteria used and their relationships to the preclosure and postclosure performance objectives specified at §§ 63.111(b), 63.113(b), and 63.113(c); and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The design bases and their relation to the design criteria. 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the kind, amount, and specifications of the radioactive material proposed to be received and possessed at the geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site. 
</P>
<P>(5) A preclosure safety analysis of the geologic repository operations area, for the period before permanent closure, to ensure compliance with § 63.111(a), as required by § 63.111(c). For the purposes of this analysis, it is assumed that operations at the geologic repository operations area will be carried out at the maximum capacity and rate of receipt of radioactive waste stated in the application. 
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the program for control and monitoring of radioactive effluents and occupational radiological exposures to maintain such effluents and exposures in accordance with the requirements of § 63.111. 
</P>
<P>(7) A description of plans for retrieval and alternate storage of the radioactive wastes, should retrieval be necessary. 
</P>
<P>(8) A description of design considerations that are intended to facilitate permanent closure and decontamination or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities. 
</P>
<P>(9) An assessment to determine the degree to which those features, events, and processes of the site that are expected to materially affect compliance with § 63.113—whether beneficial or potentially adverse to performance of the geologic repository—have been characterized, and the extent to which they affect waste isolation. Investigations must extend from the surface to a depth sufficient to determine principal pathways for radionuclide migration from the underground facility. Specific features, events, and processes of the geologic setting must be investigated outside of the site if they affect performance of the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P>(10) An assessment of the anticipated response of the geomechanical, hydrogeologic, and geochemical systems to the range of design thermal loadings under consideration, given the pattern of fractures and other discontinuities and the heat transfer properties of the rock mass and water. 
</P>
<P>(11) An assessment of the ability of the proposed geologic repository to limit radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual for the period after permanent closure, as required by § 63.113(b). 
</P>
<P>(12) An assessment of the ability of the proposed geologic repository to limit releases of radionuclides into the accessible environment as required by § 63.113(c). 
</P>
<P>(13) An assessment of the ability of the proposed geologic repository to limit radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual for the period after permanent closure in the event of human intrusion into the engineered barrier system as required by § 63.113(d). 
</P>
<P>(14) An evaluation of the natural features of the geologic setting and design features of the engineered barrier system that are considered barriers important to waste isolation as required by § 63.115. 
</P>
<P>(15) An explanation of measures used to support the models used to provide the information required in paragraphs (c)(9) through (c)(14) of this section. Analyses and models that will be used to assess performance of the geologic repository must be supported by using an appropriate combination of such methods as field tests, in situ tests, laboratory tests that are representative of field conditions, monitoring data, and natural analog studies. 
</P>
<P>(16) An identification of those structures, systems, and components of the geologic repository, both surface and subsurface, that require research and development to confirm the adequacy of design. For structures, systems, and components important to safety and for the engineered and natural barriers important to waste isolation, DOE shall provide a detailed description of the programs designed to resolve safety questions, including a schedule indicating when these questions would be resolved. 
</P>
<P>(17) A description of the performance confirmation program that meets the requirements of subpart F of this part. 
</P>
<P>(18) An identification and justification for the selection of those variables, conditions, or other items that are determined to be probable subjects of license specifications. Special attention must be given to those items that may significantly influence the final design. 
</P>
<P>(19) An explanation of how expert elicitation was used. 
</P>
<P>(20) A description of the quality assurance program to be applied to the structures, systems, and components important to safety and to the engineered and natural barriers important to waste isolation. The description of the quality assurance program must include a discussion of how the applicable requirements of § 63.142 will be satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(21) A description of the plan for responding to, and recovering from, radiological emergencies that may occur at any time before permanent closure and decontamination or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities, as required by § 63.161. 
</P>
<P>(22) The following information concerning activities at the geologic repository operations area: 
</P>
<P>(i) The organizational structure of DOE as it pertains to construction and operation of the geologic repository operations area, including a description of any delegations of authority and assignments of responsibilities, whether in the form of regulations, administrative directives, contract provisions, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of key positions that are assigned responsibility for safety at and operation of the geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Personnel qualifications and training requirements. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Plans for startup activities and startup testing. 
</P>
<P>(v) Plans for conduct of normal activities, including maintenance, surveillance, and periodic testing of structures, systems, and components of the geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Plans for permanent closure and plans for the decontamination or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Plans for any uses of the geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site for purposes other than disposal of radioactive wastes, with an analysis of the effects, if any, that such uses may have on the operation of the structures, systems, and components important to safety and the engineered and natural barriers important to waste isolation. 
</P>
<P>(23) A description of the program to be used to maintain the records described in §§ 63.71 and 63.72. 
</P>
<P>(24) A description of the controls that DOE will apply to restrict access and to regulate land use at the Yucca Mountain site and adjacent areas, including a conceptual design of monuments that would be used to identify the site after permanent closure. 
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant for a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, and byproduct material at a geologic repository at Yucca Mountain, Nevada, shall protect Safeguards Information in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21, and the requirements in § 73.22, or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable, and shall protect classified information in accordance with the requirements of parts 25 and 95 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 73 FR 63572, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.107.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.22   Filing and distribution of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a construction authorization for a high-level radioactive waste repository at a geologic repository operations area at Yucca Mountain, and an application for a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site that has been characterized, any amendments to the application, and an accompanying environmental impact statement and any supplements, must be signed by the Secretary of Energy or the Secretary's authorized representative and must be filed with the Director in triplicate on paper and optical storage media.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall submit 30 additional copies, on paper and optical storage media, of each portion of the application and any amendments, and each environmental impact statement and any supplements. DOE shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies for distribution in accordance with written instructions from the Director or the Director's designee. 
</P>
<P>(c) On notification of the appointment of an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, DOE shall update the application, eliminating all superseded information, and supplement the environmental impact statement if necessary, and serve the updated application and environmental impact statement (as it may have been supplemented) as directed by the Board. Any subsequent amendments to the application or supplements to the environmental impact statement must be served in the same manner. 
</P>
<P>(d) When an application, and any amendment to it is filed, copies on paper and optical storage media must be made available in appropriate locations near the proposed geologic repository operations areas at the Yucca Mountain site for inspection by the public. These copies must be updated as amendments to the application are made. The environmental impact statement and any supplements to it must be made available in the same manner. An updated copy of the application, and the environmental impact statement and supplements, must be produced at any public hearing held by the Commission on the application for use by any party to the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(e) DOE shall certify that the updated copies of the application, and the environmental impact statement as it may have been supplemented, as referred to in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, contain the current contents of these documents submitted as required by this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58815, Oct. 10, 2003; 69 FR 2280, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.107.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.23   Elimination of repetition.</HEAD>
<P>In its application or environmental impact statement, DOE may incorporate, by reference, information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission, if the references are clear and specific and copies of the information incorporated are made available to the public locations near the site of the proposed geologic repository, as specified in § 63.22(d). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.107.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.24   Updating of application and environmental impact statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application must be as complete as possible in light of the information that is reasonably available at the time of docketing. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall update its application in a timely manner so as to permit the Commission to review, before issuance of a license— 
</P>
<P>(1) Additional geologic, geophysical, geochemical, hydrologic, meteorologic, materials, design, and other data obtained during construction; 
</P>
<P>(2) Conformance of construction of structures, systems, and components with the design; 
</P>
<P>(3) Results of research programs carried out to confirm the adequacy of designs, conceptual models, parameter values, and estimates of performance of the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P>(4) Other information bearing on the Commission's issuance of a license that was not available at the time a construction authorization was issued. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall supplement its environmental impact statement in a timely manner so as to take into account the environmental impacts of any substantial changes in its proposed actions or any significant new circumstances or information relevant to environmental concerns bearing on the proposed action or its impacts. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="108" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.108" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Construction Authorization</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.108.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.31   Construction authorization.</HEAD>
<P>On review and consideration of an application and environmental impact statement submitted under this part, the Commission may authorize construction of a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site if it determines: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Safety.</I> (1) That there is reasonable assurance that the types and amounts of radioactive materials described in the application can be received and possessed in a geologic repository operations area of the design proposed without unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That there is reasonable expectation that the materials can be disposed of without unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public. 
</P>
<P>(3) In arriving at these determinations, the Commission shall consider whether— 
</P>
<P>(i) DOE has described the proposed geologic repository as specified at § 63.21; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The site and design comply with the performance objectives and requirements contained in subpart E of this part; 
</P>
<P>(iii) DOE's quality assurance program complies with the requirements of subpart G of this part; 
</P>
<P>(iv) DOE's personnel training program complies with the criteria contained in subpart H of this part; 
</P>
<P>(v) DOE's emergency plan complies with the criteria contained in subpart I of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) DOE's proposed operating procedures to protect health and to minimize danger to life or property are adequate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Common defense and security.</I> That there is reasonable assurance that the activities proposed in the application will not be inimical to the common defense and security. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Environmental.</I> That, after weighing the environmental, economic, technical, and other benefits against environmental costs, and considering available alternatives, the action called for is the issuance of the construction authorization, with any appropriate conditions to protect environmental values. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.108.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.32   Conditions of construction authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In a construction authorization for a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site, the Commission shall include any conditions it considers necessary to protect the health and safety of the public, the common defense and security, or environmental values. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission shall incorporate provisions in the construction authorization requiring DOE to furnish periodic or special reports regarding: 
</P>
<P>(1) Progress of construction; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any data about the site, obtained during construction, that are not within the predicted limits on which the facility design was based; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any deficiencies, in design and construction, that, if uncorrected, could adversely affect safety at any future time; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Results of research and development programs being conducted to resolve safety questions. 
</P>
<P>(c) The construction authorization for a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site will include restrictions on subsequent changes to the features of the geologic repository and the procedures authorized. The restrictions that may be imposed under this paragraph can include measures to prevent adverse effects on the geologic setting as well as measures related to the design and construction of the geologic repository operations area. These restrictions will fall into three categories of descending importance to public health and safety, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Those features and procedures that may not be changed without— 
</P>
<P>(i) 60 days prior notice to the Commission; 
</P>
<P>(ii) 30 days notice of opportunity for a prior hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Prior Commission approval; 
</P>
<P>(2) Those features and procedures that may not be changed without— 
</P>
<P>(i) 60 days prior notice to the Commission; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior Commission approval; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Those features and procedures that may not be changed without 60 days notice to the Commission. Features and procedures falling in this paragraph section may not be changed without prior Commission approval if the Commission, after having received the required notice, so orders. 
</P>
<P>(d) A construction authorization must be subject to the limitation that a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at the Yucca Mountain site geologic repository operations area may not be issued by the Commission until; 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE has updated its application, as specified at § 63.24; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission has made the findings stated in § 63.41. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.108.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.33   Amendment of construction authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for amendment of a construction authorization must be filed with the Commission that fully describes any desired changes and follows, as far as applicable, the content requirements prescribed in § 63.21. 
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether an amendment of a construction authorization will be approved, the Commission will be guided by the considerations that govern the issuance of the initial construction authorization, to the extent applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="109" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.109" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>License Issuance and Amendment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.109.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.41   Standards for issuance of a license.</HEAD>
<P>A license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site may be issued by the Commission on finding that— 
</P>
<P>(a) Construction of the geologic repository operations area has been substantially completed in conformity with the application as amended, the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act, and the rules and regulations of the Commission. Construction may be considered substantially complete for the purposes of this paragraph if the construction of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Surface and interconnecting structures, systems, and components; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any underground storage space required for initial operation, are substantially complete. 
</P>
<P>(b) The activities to be conducted at the geologic repository operations area will be in conformity with the application as amended, the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act and the Energy Reorganization Act, and the rules and regulations of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(c) The issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security and will not constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public. 
</P>
<P>(d) Adequate protective measures can and will be taken in the event of a radiological emergency at any time before permanent closure and decontamination or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities. 
</P>
<P>(e) All applicable requirements of part 51 of this chapter have been satisfied. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.42" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.109.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.42   Conditions of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission shall include any conditions, including license specifications, it considers necessary to protect the health and safety of the public, the common defense and security, and environmental values in a license issued under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whether stated in the license or not, the following are considered to be conditions in every license issued: 
</P>
<P>(1) The license is subject to revocation, suspension, modification, or amendment for cause, as provided by the Atomic Energy Act and the Commission's regulations. 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall, at any time while the license is in effect, on written request of the Commission, submit written statements to enable the Commission to determine whether or not the license should be modified, suspended, or revoked. 
</P>
<P>(3) The license is subject to the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act now or hereafter in effect and to all rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission. The terms and conditions of the license are subject to amendment, revision, or modification, by reason of amendments to or by reason of rules, regulations, and orders issued in accordance with the terms of the Atomic Energy Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each license includes the provisions set forth in section 183 b-d, inclusive, of the Atomic Energy Act, whether or not these provisions are expressly set forth in the license. 
</P>
<P>(d) A license issued under this part includes the provisions set forth in section 114(d) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act, as amended, defining the quantity of solidified high-level radioactive waste and spent nuclear fuel, until such time as a second repository is in operation, whether or not these provisions are expressly set forth in the license. 
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee (Department of Energy) shall ensure that Safeguards Information is protected against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21, and the requirements in § 73.22, or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable, and shall protect classified information in accordance with the requirements of parts 25 and 95 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 73 FR 63572, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.109.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.43   License specification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A license issued under this part includes license conditions derived from the analyses and evaluations included in the application, including amendments made before a license is issued, together with any additional conditions the Commission finds appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) License conditions include items in the following categories: 
</P>
<P>(1) Restrictions as to the physical and chemical form and radioisotopic content of radioactive waste. 
</P>
<P>(2) Restrictions as to size, shape, and materials and methods of construction of radioactive waste packaging. 
</P>
<P>(3) Restrictions as to the amount of waste permitted per unit volume of storage space, considering the physical characteristics of both the waste and the host rock. 
</P>
<P>(4) Requirements relating to test, calibration, or inspection, to assure that the foregoing restrictions are observed. 
</P>
<P>(5) Controls to be applied to restrict access and to avoid disturbance to the site and to areas outside the site where conditions may affect compliance with §§ 63.111 and 63.113. 
</P>
<P>(6) Administrative controls, which are the provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, recordkeeping, review and audit, and reporting necessary to assure that activities at the facility are conducted in a safe manner and in conformity with the other license specifications. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.44" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.109.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.44   Changes, tests, and experiments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions for the purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Change</I> means a modification or addition to, or removal from, the geologic repository operations area design or procedures that affects a design function, event sequence, method of performing or controlling the function, or an evaluation that demonstrates that intended functions will be accomplished. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the Safety Analysis Report (SAR) (as updated) used in establishing the preclosure safety analyses or performance assessment</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Changing any of the elements of the method described in the SAR (as updated) unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Changing from a method described in the SAR to another method unless that method has been approved by NRC for the intended application, addition or removal. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safety Analysis Report (SAR) (as updated)</I> means the Safety Analysis Report for the geologic repository, submitted in accordance with § 63.21, as updated in accordance with § 63.24. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Geologic repository operations area as described in the SAR (as updated)</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) The structures, systems, and components important to safety or barriers important to waste isolation that are described in the SAR (as updated); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The design and performance requirements for such structures, systems, and components described in the SAR (as updated). 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Procedures as described in the SAR (as updated)</I> means those procedures that contain information described in the SAR (as updated) such as how structures, systems, and components important to safety, or important to waste isolation, are operated or controlled. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tests or experiments not described in the SAR (as updated)</I> means any condition where the geologic repository operations area or any of its structures, systems, and components important to safety, or important to waste isolation, are utilized, controlled, or altered in a manner which is either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Outside the reference bounds of the design bases as described in the SAR (as updated); or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Inconsistent with the analyses or descriptions in the SAR (as updated). 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) DOE may make changes in the geologic repository operations area as described in the SAR (as updated), make changes in the procedures as described in the SAR (as updated), and conduct tests or experiments not described in the SAR (as updated), without obtaining either an amendment of construction authorization under § 63.33 or a license amendment under § 63.45, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the conditions incorporated in the construction authorization or license is not required; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The change, test, or experiment does not meet any of the criteria in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall obtain an amendment of construction authorization under § 63.33 or a license amendment under § 63.45, before implementing a change, test, or experiment if it would: 
</P>
<P>(i) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an event sequence previously evaluated in the SAR (as updated); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of structures, systems, components important to safety, or important to waste isolation, which were previously evaluated in the SAR (as updated); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an event sequence previously evaluated in the SAR (as updated); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of malfunction of structures, systems, components important to safety, or important to waste isolation, which were previously evaluated in the SAR (as updated); 
</P>
<P>(v) Create the possibility for an event sequence, or of a pathway for release of radionuclides, of a different type than any evaluated previously in the SAR (as updated); 
</P>
<P>(vi) Create the possibility for a malfunction of structures, systems, and components important to safety, or important to waste isolation, with a different result than any evaluated previously in the SAR (as updated); 
</P>
<P>(vii) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the SAR (as updated) used in establishing the preclosure safety analysis or the performance assessment. 
</P>
<P>(3) In implementing this paragraph, the SAR (as updated) is considered to include SAR changes resulting from evaluations performed pursuant to this section and from safety analyses performed under § 63.33 or § 63.45, as applicable, after the last Safety Analysis Report was updated under § 63.24. 
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions in this section do not apply to changes to the geologic repository operations area or procedures when the applicable regulations establish more specific criteria for accomplishing such changes. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) DOE shall maintain records of changes in the geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site, of changes in procedures, and of tests and experiments made under paragraph (b) of this section. These records must include a written evaluation that provides the bases for the determination that the change, test, or experiment does not require an amendment of construction authorization or license amendment under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) No less frequently than every 24 months, DOE shall prepare a report containing a brief description of such changes, tests, and experiments, including a summary of the evaluation of each. These written reports must be sent to the NRC using an appropriate method listed in § 63.4; addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk; Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-001; and DOE shall furnish the report to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. Any report submitted under this paragraph must be made a part of the public record of the licensing proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(d) Changes to the quality assurance program description required by § 63.21(c)(20) must be processed in accordance with § 63.144. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58815, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.109.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.45   Amendment of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for amendment of a license may be filed with the Commission fully describing the changes desired and following as far as applicable the format prescribed for license applications. 
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether an amendment of a license will be approved, the Commission will be guided by the considerations that govern the issuance of the initial license, to the extent applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.109.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.46   Particular activities requiring license amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless expressly authorized in the license, a license amendment is required for any of the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any action that would make emplaced high-level radioactive waste irretrievable or that would substantially increase the difficulty of retrieving the emplaced waste; 
</P>
<P>(2) Dismantling of structures; 
</P>
<P>(3) Removal or reduction of controls applied to restrict access to or avoid disturbance of the site and to areas outside the site where conditions may affect compliance with §§ 63.111 and 63.113; 
</P>
<P>(4) Destruction or disposal of records required to be maintained under the provisions of this part; 
</P>
<P>(5) Any substantial change to the design or operating procedures from that specified in the license, except as authorized in § 63.44; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Permanent closure. 
</P>
<P>(b) An application for an amendment must be filed, and will be reviewed, as specified in § 63.45. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="110" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.110" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.47" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.110.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.47   Facility information and verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for a construction authorization or license and each recipient of a construction authorization or a license shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(b) As required by the Additional Protocol, applicants and licensees specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(c) Shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and take other action as necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78606, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="111" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.111" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Permanent Closure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.111.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.51   License amendment for permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall submit an application to amend the license before permanent closure of a geologic repository at the Yucca Mountain site. The submission must consist of an update of the license application submitted under §§ 63.21 and 63.22, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) An update of the assessment of the performance of the geologic repository for the period after permanent closure. The updated assessment must include any performance confirmation data collected under the program required by subpart F, and pertinent to compliance with § 63.113. 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the program for post-permanent closure monitoring of the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed description of the measures to be employed—such as land use controls, construction of monuments, and preservation of records—to regulate or prevent activities that could impair the long-term isolation of emplaced waste within the geologic repository and to assure that relevant information will be preserved for the use of future generations. As a minimum, these measures must include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Identification of the site and geologic repository operations area by monuments that have been designed, fabricated, and emplaced to be as permanent as is practicable; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Placement of records in the archives and land record systems of local, State, and Federal government agencies, and archives elsewhere in the world, that would be likely to be consulted by potential human intruders—such records to identify the location of the geologic repository operations area, including the underground facility, boreholes, shafts and ramps, and the boundaries of the site, and the nature and hazard of the waste; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A program for continued oversight, to prevent any activity at the site that poses an unreasonable risk of breaching the geologic repository's engineered barriers; or increasing the exposure of individual members of the public to radiation beyond allowable limits. 
</P>
<P>(4) Geologic, geophysical, geochemical, hydrologic, and other site data that are obtained during the operational period, pertinent to compliance with § 63.113. 
</P>
<P>(5) The results of tests, experiments, and any other analyses relating to backfill of excavated areas, shaft, borehole, or ramp sealing, drip shields, waste packages, interactions between natural and engineered systems, and any other tests, experiments, or analyses pertinent to compliance with § 63.113. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any substantial revision of plans for permanent closure. 
</P>
<P>(7) Other information bearing on permanent closure that was not available at the time a license was issued. 
</P>
<P>(b) If necessary, to take into account the environmental impact of any substantial changes in the permanent closure activities proposed to be carried out or any significant new information regarding the environmental impacts of permanent closure, DOE shall also supplement its environmental impact statement and submit this statement, as supplemented, with the application for license amendment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.2.111.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.52   Termination of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following permanent closure and the decontamination or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities at the Yucca Mountain site, DOE may apply for an amendment to terminate the license. 
</P>
<P>(b) The application must be filed and will be reviewed in accordance with the provisions of § 63.45 and this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) A license may be terminated only when the Commission finds with respect to the geologic repository: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the final disposition of radioactive wastes has been made in conformance with DOE's plan, as amended and approved as part of the license. 
</P>
<P>(2) That the final state of the geologic repository operations area conforms to DOE's plans for permanent closure and DOE's plans for the decontamination or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities, as amended and approved as part of the license. 
</P>
<P>(3) That the termination of the license is authorized by law, including sections 57, 62, and 81 of the Atomic Energy Act, as amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Participation by State Government, Affected Units of Local Government, and Affected Indian Tribes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.3.112.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.61   Provision of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director shall provide the Governor and the Nevada State legislature, affected units of local government, and the governing body of any affected Indian Tribe, with timely and complete information regarding determinations or plans made by the Commission with respect to the Yucca Mountain site. Information must be provided concerning the site characterization, siting, development, design, licensing, construction, operation, regulation, permanent closure, or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities of the geologic repository operations area at the site. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the Director is not required to distribute any document to any entity if, with respect to the document, that entity or its counsel is included on a service list prepared under part 2 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC shall place communications by the Director under this section in the Publicly Available Records System (PARS) Library and furnish copies to DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58815, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.3.112.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.62   Site review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director shall make the NRC staff available to consult with representatives of the State of Nevada, affected units of local government, and affected Indian Tribes regarding the status of site characterization at the Yucca Mountain site. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for consultation must be made in writing to the Director. 
</P>
<P>(c) Consultation under this section may include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Keeping the parties informed of the Director's views on the progress of site characterization. 
</P>
<P>(2) Review of applicable NRC regulations, licensing procedures, schedules, and opportunities for State, affected units of local government, and Tribe participation in the Commission's regulatory activities. 
</P>
<P>(3) Cooperation in development of proposals for State, affected units of local government, and Tribal participation in license reviews. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.63" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.3.112.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.63   Participation in license reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The State, affected units of local government, and affected Indian Tribes may participate in license reviews as provided in subpart J of part 2 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, a State, or an affected unit of local government, or an affected Indian Tribe may submit a proposal to the Director to facilitate its participation in the review of the license application. The proposal may be submitted at any time and must contain a description and schedule of how the State, or affected unit of local government, or affected Indian Tribe wishes to participate in the review, or what services or activities the State, or affected unit of local government, or affected Indian Tribe wishes the NRC to carry out, and how the services or activities proposed to be carried out by the NRC would contribute to this participation. The proposal may include educational or information services (seminars, public meetings) or other actions on the part of NRC, such as establishing additional public document rooms or employment or exchange of State personnel under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Director shall arrange for a meeting between the representatives of the State, or affected unit of local government, or affected Indian Tribe and the NRC staff, to discuss any proposal submitted under paragraph (b) of this section, with a view to identifying any modifications that may contribute to the effective participation by such State, or affected unit of local government, or Tribe. 
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to the availability of funds, the Director shall approve all or any part of a proposal, as it may be modified through the meeting described in paragraph (c) of this section, if it is determined that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed activities are suitable in light of the type and magnitude of impacts that the State, or affected unit of local government, or affected Indian Tribe may bear; 
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed activities— 
</P>
<P>(i) Will enhance communications between NRC and the State, or affected unit of local government, or affected Indian Tribe; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Will make a productive and timely contribution to the review; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Are authorized by law. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Director shall advise the State, or affected unit of local government, or affected Indian Tribe whether its proposal has been accepted or denied. If all or any part of a proposal is denied, the Director shall state the reason for the denial. 
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC shall place all proposals submitted under this section, and responses to them, in the Publicly Available Records System (PARS) Library.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58816, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.64" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.3.112.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.64   Notice to State.</HEAD>
<P>If the Governor and legislature of the State of Nevada have jointly designated, on their behalf, a single person or entity to receive notice and information from the Commission under this part, the Commission will provide the notice and information to the jointly designated person or entity instead of the Governor and legislature separately. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.65" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.3.112.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.65   Representation.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who acts under this subpart as a representative for the State of Nevada (or for the Governor or legislature of Nevada), for an affected unit of local government, or for an affected Indian Tribe shall include in the request or other submission, or at the request of the Commission, a statement of the basis of his or her authority to act in this capacity. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records, Reports, Tests, and Inspections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.4.112.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.71   Records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall maintain records and make reports in connection with the licensed activity that are required by the conditions of the license or by rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission, as authorized by the Atomic Energy Act and the Energy Reorganization Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Records of the receipt, handling, and disposition of radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site must contain sufficient information to provide a complete history of the movement of the waste from the shipper through all phases of storage and disposal. DOE shall retain these records in a manner that ensures their usability for future generations in accordance with § 63.51(a)(3). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.4.112.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.72   Construction records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall maintain records of construction of the geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site in a manner that ensures their usability for future generations in accordance with § 63.51(a)(3). 
</P>
<P>(b) The records required under paragraph (a) of this section must include at least the following— 
</P>
<P>(1) Surveys of the underground facility excavations, shafts, ramps, and boreholes referenced to readily identifiable surface features or monuments; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the materials encountered; 
</P>
<P>(3) Geologic maps and geologic cross-sections; 
</P>
<P>(4) Locations and amount of seepage; 
</P>
<P>(5) Details of equipment, methods, progress, and sequence of work; 
</P>
<P>(6) Construction problems; 
</P>
<P>(7) Anomalous conditions encountered; 
</P>
<P>(8) Instrument locations, readings, and analysis; 
</P>
<P>(9) Location and description of structural support systems; 
</P>
<P>(10) Location and description of dewatering systems; 
</P>
<P>(11) Details, methods of emplacement, and location of seals used; and 
</P>
<P>(12) Facility design records (e.g, design specifications and “as built” drawings). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.4.112.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.73   Reports of deficiencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall promptly notify the Commission of each deficiency found in the characteristics of the Yucca Mountain site, and design, and construction of the geologic repository operations area that, were it to remain uncorrected, could— 
</P>
<P>(1) Adversely affect safety at any future time; 
</P>
<P>(2) Represent a significant deviation from the design criteria and design basis stated in the design application; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Represent a deviation from the conditions stated in the terms of a construction authorization or the license, including license specifications. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall implement a program for evaluating and reporting deviations and failures to comply, to identify defects and failures to comply associated with substantial safety hazards, based on the applicable requirements in 10 CFR 50.55(e) as it applies to the construction authorization and design of the geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall implement a program of reporting specific events and conditions that is the same as that specified in 10 CFR 72.75. 
</P>
<P>(d) The requisite notification must be as specified in the applicable regulation. By an appropriate method listed in § 63.4 of this chapter, written reports must be submitted to NRC addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk; Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-001; and to the NRC onsite representative. DOE shall also furnish the report to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58815, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.4.112.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.74   Tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, those tests the Commission considers appropriate or necessary for the administration of the regulations in this part. This may include tests of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Radioactive waste, 
</P>
<P>(2) The geologic repository, including portions of the geologic setting and the structures, systems, and components constructed or placed therein, 
</P>
<P>(3) Radiation detection and monitoring instruments, and 
</P>
<P>(4) Other equipment and devices used in connection with the receipt, handling, or storage of radioactive waste. 
</P>
<P>(b) The tests required under this section must include a performance confirmation program carried out in accordance with subpart F of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.75" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.4.112.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.75   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall allow the Commission to inspect the premises of the geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site and adjacent areas to which DOE has rights of access. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall make available to the Commission for inspection, on reasonable notice, records kept by DOE pertaining to activities under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) DOE shall, on requests by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, provide rent-free office space for the exclusive use of the Commission inspection personnel. Heat, air-conditioning, light, electrical outlets, and janitorial services must be furnished by DOE. The office must be convenient to and have full access to the facility and must provide the inspector both visual and acoustic privacy. 
</P>
<P>(2) The space provided must be adequate to accommodate two full-time inspectors, and other transient NRC personnel and will be generally commensurate with other office facilities at the Yucca Mountain site geologic repository operations area. A space of 250 square feet either within the geologic repository operations area's office complex or in an office trailer or other onsite space at the geologic repository operations area is suggested as a guide. For locations at which activities are carried out under licenses issued under other parts of this chapter, additional space may be requested to accommodate additional full-time inspectors. The office space provided is subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. All furniture, supplies, and communication equipment will be furnished by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) DOE shall afford any NRC resident inspector assigned to the Yucca Mountain site or other NRC inspectors identified by the Regional Administrator as likely to inspect the Yucca Mountain facility, immediate unfettered access, equivalent to access provided regular employees, after proper identification and compliance with applicable access control measures for security, radiological protection, and personal safety. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.78" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.4.112.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.78   Material control and accounting records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall implement a program of material control and accounting (and accidental criticality reporting) that is the same as that specified in §§ 72.72, 72.74, 72.76, and 72.78 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Technical Criteria</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.101" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.112.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.101   Purpose and nature of findings.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Subpart B prescribes the standards for issuance of a license to receive and possess source, special nuclear, or byproduct material at a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site. In particular, § 63.41(c) requires a finding that the issuance of a license will not constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public. The purpose of this subpart is to set out the performance objectives for postclosure performance of the geologic repository and other criteria that, if satisfied, support a finding of no unreasonable risk. Postclosure performance objectives for the geologic repository include a requirement to limit radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual, a requirement to limit releases of radionuclides to the accessible environment to protect groundwater, and a requirement to limit radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual in the event of human intrusion (see § 63.113(b), (c), and (d), respectively). 
</P>
<P>(2) Although the postclosure performance objectives specified at § 63.113 are generally stated in unqualified terms, it is not expected that complete assurance that the requirements will be met can be presented. A reasonable expectation, on the basis of the record before the Commission, that the postclosure performance objectives will be met, is the general standard required. Proof that the geologic repository will conform with the objectives for postclosure performance is not to be had in the ordinary sense of the word because of the uncertainties inherent in the understanding of the evolution of the geologic setting, biosphere, and engineered barrier system. For such long-term performance, what is required is reasonable expectation, making allowance for the time period, hazards, and uncertainties involved, that the outcome will conform with the objectives for postclosure performance for the geologic repository. Demonstrating compliance will involve the use of complex predictive models that are supported by limited data from field and laboratory tests, site-specific monitoring, and natural analog studies that may be supplemented with prevalent expert judgment. Compliance demonstrations should not exclude important parameters from assessments and analyses simply because they are difficult to precisely quantify to a high degree of confidence. The performance assessments and analyses should focus upon the full range of defensible and reasonable parameter distributions rather than only upon extreme physical situations and parameter values. Further, in reaching a determination of reasonable expectation, the Commission may supplement numerical analyses with qualitative judgments including, for example, consideration of the degree of diversity among the multiple barriers as a measure of the resiliency of the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B lists findings that must be made in support of an authorization to construct a geologic repository operations area at the Yucca Mountain site. Prior to closure, § 63.31(a)(1) requires a finding that there is reasonable assurance that the types and amounts of radioactive materials described in the application can be received, possessed, and stored in a geologic repository operations area of the design proposed without unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public. After permanent closure, § 63.31(a)(2) requires the Commission to consider whether there is a reasonable expectation the site and design comply with the postclosure performance objectives. Once again, although the criteria may be written in unqualified terms, the demonstration of compliance must take uncertainties and gaps in knowledge into account so that the Commission can make the specified finding with respect to paragraph (a)(2) of § 63.31. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.102" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.112.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.102   Concepts.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides a functional overview of this Subpart E. In the event of any inconsistency, the definitions in § 63.2 prevail. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>The HLW facility at the Yucca Mountain site.</I> NRC exercises licensing and related regulatory authority over those facilities described in section 202 (3) and (4) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, including the site at Yucca Mountain, as designated by the Energy Policy Act of 1992. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The geologic repository operations area.</I> (1) These regulations deal with the exercise of authority with respect to a particular class of HLW facility—namely, a geologic repository operations area at Yucca Mountain. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A geologic repository operations area</I> consists of those surface and subsurface areas of the site that are part of a geologic repository where radioactive waste handling activities are conducted. The underground structure, backfill materials, if any, and openings that penetrate the underground structure (e.g., ramps, shafts and boreholes, including their seals), are designated the <I>underground facility.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) The exercise of Commission authority requires that the geologic repository operations area be used for storage (which includes disposal) of <I>high-level radioactive wastes</I> (HLW). 
</P>
<P>(4) HLW includes irradiated reactor fuel as well as reprocessing wastes. However, if DOE proposes to use the geologic repository operations area for storage of radioactive waste other than HLW, the storage of this radioactive waste is subject to the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stages in the licensing process.</I> There are several stages in the licensing process. The <I>site characterization</I> stage, when the performance confirmation program is started, begins before submission of a license application, and may result in consequences requiring evaluation in the license review. The construction stage would follow after the issuance of a construction authorization. A period of operations follows the Commission's issuance of a license. The period of operations includes the time during which <I>emplacement</I> of wastes occurs; any subsequent period before permanent closure during which the emplaced wastes are <I>retrievable</I>; and <I>permanent closure,</I> which includes sealing openings to the repository. Permanent closure represents the end of the performance confirmation program; final backfilling of the underground facility, if appropriate; and the sealing of shafts, ramps, and boreholes. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Areas related to isolation.</I> Although the activities subject to regulation under this part are those to be carried out at the geologic repository operations area, the licensing process also considers characteristics of adjacent areas that are defined in other ways. There must be an area surrounding the geologic repository operations area, that could include either a portion or all of the site, within which DOE shall exercise specified controls to prevent adverse human actions after permanent closure. There is an area, designated the geologic setting, which includes the geologic, hydrologic, and geochemical systems of the region in which the site and geologic repository operations area are located. The geologic repository operations area, plus the portion of the geologic setting that provides isolation of the radioactive waste, make up the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance objectives through permanent closure.</I> Before permanent closure, the geologic repository operations area is required to limit radiation levels and radiological exposures, in both restricted and unrestricted areas, and releases of radioactive materials to unrestricted areas, as specified at § 63.111(a). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Preclosure safety analysis.</I> Section 63.111 includes performance objectives for the geologic repository operations area for the period before permanent closure and decontamination or permanent closure, decontamination, and dismantlement of surface facilities. The preclosure safety analysis is a systematic examination of the site; the design; and the potential hazards, initiating events and their resulting event sequences and potential radiological exposures to workers and the public. Initiating events are to be considered for inclusion in the preclosure safety analysis for determining event sequences only if they are reasonable (<I>i.e.</I>, based on the characteristics of the geologic setting and the human environment, and consistent with precedents adopted for nuclear facilities with comparable or higher risks to workers and the public). The analysis identifies structures, systems, and components important to safety. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Performance objectives after permanent closure.</I> After permanent closure, the geologic repository is required to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Limit radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual, as specified at § 63.113(b); 
</P>
<P>(2) Limit releases of radionuclides to the accessible environment to protect groundwater, as specified at § 63.113(c); and 
</P>
<P>(3) Limit radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual in the event of human intrusion, as specified at § 63.113(d). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Multiple barriers.</I> Section 63.113(a) requires that the geologic repository include multiple barriers, both natural and engineered. Geologic disposal of HLW is predicated on the expectation that one or more aspects of the geologic setting will be capable of contributing to the isolation of radioactive waste and thus be a barrier important to waste isolation. Although there is an extensive geologic record ranging from thousands to millions of years, this record is subject to interpretation and includes many uncertainties. In addition, there are uncertainties in the isolation capability and performance of engineered barriers. Although the composition and configuration of engineered structures (barriers) can be defined with a degree of precision not possible for natural barriers, it is recognized that except for a few archaeologic and natural analogs, there is a limited experience base for the performance of complex, engineered structures over periods longer than a few hundred years, considering the uncertainty in characterizing and modeling individual barriers. These uncertainties are addressed by requiring the use of a multiple barrier approach; specifically, an engineered barrier system is required in addition to the natural barriers provided by the geologic setting. The performance assessment provides an evaluation of the repository performance based on credible models and parameters including the consideration of uncertainty in the behavior of the repository system. Thus the performance assessment results reflect the capability of each of the barriers to cope with a variety of challenges (e.g., combinations of parameters leading to less favorable performance for individual barriers and combinations of barriers). A description of each barrier's capability (e.g., retardation of radionuclides in the saturated zone, waste package lifetime, matrix diffusion in the unsaturated zone), as reflected in the performance assessment, provides an understanding of how the natural barriers and the engineered barrier system work in combination to enhance the resiliency of the geologic repository. The Commission believes that this understanding can increase confidence that the postclosure performance objectives specified at § 63.113(b) and (c) will be achieved and that DOE's design includes a system of multiple barriers. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reference biosphere and reasonably maximally exposed individual.</I> The performance assessment will estimate the amount of radioactive material released to water or air at various locations and times in the future. To estimate the potential for future human exposures resulting from release of radioactive material from a geologic repository at Yucca Mountain, it is necessary to make certain assumptions about the location and characteristics of the reasonably maximally exposed individual. The environment inhabited by the reasonably maximally exposed individual, along with associated human exposure pathways and parameters, make up the reference biosphere, as described in § 63.305. The reasonably maximally exposed individual, as a hypothetical person living in a community with characteristics of the Town of Amargosa Valley, is a representative person using water with average concentrations of radionuclides as described at § 63.312. The reasonably maximally exposed individual is selected to represent those persons in the vicinity of Yucca Mountain who are reasonably expected to receive the greatest exposure to radioactive material released from a geologic repository at Yucca Mountain. Characteristics of the reference biosphere and the reasonably maximally exposed individual are to be based on current human behavior and biospheric conditions in the region, as described in §§ 63.305 and 63.312. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Performance assessment.</I> Demonstrating compliance with the postclosure performance objective specified at § 63.113(b) requires a performance assessment to quantitatively estimate radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual at any time during the compliance period. The performance assessment is a systematic analysis that identifies the features, events, and processes (<I>i.e.</I>, specific conditions or attributes of the geologic setting, degradation, deterioration, or alteration processes of engineered barriers, and interactions between the natural and engineered barriers) that might affect performance of the geologic repository; examines their effects on performance; and estimates the radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual. The features, events, and processes considered in the performance assessment should represent a wide range of both beneficial and potentially adverse effects on performance (e.g., beneficial effects of radionuclide sorption; potentially adverse effects of fracture flow or a criticality event). Those features, events, and processes expected to materially affect compliance with § 63.113(b) or be potentially adverse to performance are included, while events (event classes or scenario classes) that are very unlikely (less than one chance in 10,000 over 10,000 years) can be excluded from the analysis. An event class consists of all possible specific initiating events that are caused by a common natural process (e.g., the event class for seismicity includes the range of credible earthquakes for the Yucca Mountain site). Radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual are estimated using the selected features, events, and processes, and incorporating the probability that the estimated exposures will occur. Additionally, performance assessment methods are appropriate for use in demonstrating compliance with the postclosure performance objectives for groundwater protection and human intrusion, and are subject to the requirements for performance assessments specified at § 63.114 and applicable criteria in subpart L (e.g., criteria for evaluating compliance with groundwater protection and individual protection standards). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Institutional controls.</I> Active and passive institutional controls will be maintained over the Yucca Mountain site, and are expected to reduce significantly, but not eliminate, the potential for human activity that could inadvertently cause or accelerate the release of radioactive material. However, because it is not possible to make scientifically sound forecasts of the long-term reliability of institutional controls, it is not appropriate to include consideration of human intrusion into a fully risk-based performance assessment for purposes of evaluating the ability of the geologic repository to achieve the performance objective at § 63.113(b). Hence, human intrusion is addressed in a stylized manner as described in paragraph (l) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Human intrusion.</I> In contrast to events unrelated to human activity, the probability and characteristics of human intrusion occurring many hundreds or thousands of years into the future cannot be estimated by examining either the historic or geologic record. Rather than speculating on the nature and probability of future intrusion, it is more useful to assess how resilient the geologic repository would be against a human intrusion event. Although the consequences of an assumed intrusion event would be a separate analysis, the analysis is similar to the performance assessment required by § 63.113(b) but subject to specific requirements for evaluation of human intrusion specified at §§ 63.321, 63.322 and 63.342 of subpart L of this part. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Performance confirmation.</I> A performance confirmation program will be conducted to evaluate the adequacy of assumptions, data, and analyses that led to the findings that permitted construction of the repository and subsequent emplacement of the wastes. Key geotechnical and design parameters, including any interactions between natural and engineered systems and components, will be monitored throughout site characterization, construction, emplacement, and operation to identify any significant changes in the conditions assumed in the license application that may affect compliance with the performance objectives specified at § 63.113(b) and (c). 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Groundwater protection.</I> Separate groundwater protection standards are designed to protect the groundwater resources in the vicinity of Yucca Mountain. These standards, specified at § 63.331, require the estimation of groundwater concentrations in the representative volume of water. Depending on the radionuclide, the estimated concentrations must either be below a specified concentration or result in an annual, drinking water dose to the whole body or any organ of no greater than 0.04 mSv (4 mrem). Although the estimation of radionuclide concentrations in the representative volume would be a separate analysis, the analysis is similar to the performance assessment required by § 63.113(b) but subject to specific requirements for evaluation of groundwater protection specified at §§ 63.331, 63.332 and 63.342 of subpart L of this part. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Implementation of TEDE.</I> When external exposure is determined by measurement with an external personal monitoring device, the deep-dose equivalent must be used in place of the effective dose equivalent, unless the effective dose equivalent is determined by a dosimetry method approved by the NRC. The assigned deep-dose equivalent must be for the part of the body receiving the highest exposure. The assigned shallow-dose equivalent must be the dose averaged over the contiguous 10 square centimeters of skin receiving the highest exposure. The radiation and organ or tissue weighting factors in Appendix A of 40 CFR part 197 are to be used to calculate TEDE. After the effective date of this regulation, the Commission may allow DOE to use updated factors, which have been issued by consensus scientific organizations and incorporated by EPA into Federal radiation guidance. Additionally, as scientific models and methodologies for estimating doses are updated, DOE may use the most current and appropriate (e.g., those accepted by the International Commission on Radiological Protection) scientific models and methodologies to calculate the TEDE. The weighting factors used in the calculation of TEDE must be consistent with the methodology used to perform the calculation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 74 FR 10828, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="112" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.112" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preclosure Performance Objectives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.111" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.112.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.111   Performance objectives for the geologic repository operations area through permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protection against radiation exposures and releases of radioactive material.</I> (1) The geologic repository operations area must meet the requirements of part 20 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) During normal operations, and for Category 1 event sequences, the annual TEDE (hereafter referred to as “dose”) to any real member of the public located beyond the boundary of the site may not exceed the preclosure standard specified at § 63.204. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Numerical guides for design objectives.</I> (1) The geologic repository operations area must be designed so that, taking into consideration Category 1 event sequences and until permanent closure has been completed, the aggregate radiation exposures and the aggregate radiation levels in both restricted and unrestricted areas, and the aggregate releases of radioactive materials to unrestricted areas, will be maintained within the limits specified in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The geologic repository operations area must be designed so that, taking into consideration any single Category 2 event sequence and until permanent closure has been completed, no individual located on, or beyond, any point on the boundary of the site will receive, as a result of the single Category 2 event sequence, the more limiting of a TEDE of 0.05 Sv (5 rem), or the sum of the deep dose equivalent and the committed dose equivalent to any individual organ or tissue (other than the lens of the eye) of 0.5 Sv (50 rem). The lens dose equivalent may not exceed 0.15 Sv (15 rem), and the shallow dose equivalent to skin may not exceed 0.5 Sv (50 rem). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preclosure safety analysis.</I> A preclosure safety analysis of the geologic repository operations area that meets the requirements specified at § 63.112 must be performed. This analysis must demonstrate that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of § 63.111(a) will be met; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The design meets the requirements of § 63.111(b). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance confirmation.</I> The geologic repository operations area must be designed so as to permit implementation of a performance confirmation program that meets the requirements of subpart F of this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retrievability of waste.</I> (1) The geologic repository operations area must be designed to preserve the option of waste retrieval throughout the period during which wastes are being emplaced and thereafter, until the completion of a performance confirmation program and Commission review of the information obtained from such a program. To satisfy this objective, the geologic repository operations area must be designed so that any or all of the emplaced waste could be retrieved on a reasonable schedule starting at any time up to 50 years after waste emplacement operations are initiated, unless a different time period is approved or specified by the Commission. This different time period may be established on a case-by-case basis consistent with the emplacement schedule and the planned performance confirmation program. 
</P>
<P>(2) This requirement may not preclude decisions by the Commission to allow backfilling part, or all of, or permanent closure of the geologic repository operations area, before the end of the period of design for retrievability. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, a reasonable schedule for retrieval is one that would permit retrieval in about the same time as that required to construct the geologic repository operations area and emplace waste. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="113" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.113" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preclosure Safety Analysis</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.112" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.113.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.112   Requirements for preclosure safety analysis of the geologic repository operations area.</HEAD>
<P>The preclosure safety analysis of the geologic repository operations area must include: 
</P>
<P>(a) A general description of the structures, systems, components, equipment, and process activities at the geologic repository operations area; 
</P>
<P>(b) An identification and systematic analysis of naturally occurring and human-induced hazards at the geologic repository operations area, including a comprehensive identification of potential event sequences; 
</P>
<P>(c) Data pertaining to the Yucca Mountain site, and the surrounding region to the extent necessary, used to identify naturally occurring and human-induced hazards at the geologic repository operations area; 
</P>
<P>(d) The technical basis for either inclusion or exclusion of specific, naturally occurring and human-induced hazards in the safety analysis; 
</P>
<P>(e) An analysis of the performance of the structures, systems, and components to identify those that are important to safety. This analysis identifies and describes the controls that are relied on to limit or prevent potential event sequences or mitigate their consequences. This analysis also identifies measures taken to ensure the availability of safety systems. The analysis required in this paragraph must include, but not necessarily be limited to, consideration of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Means to limit concentration of radioactive material in air; 
</P>
<P>(2) Means to limit the time required to perform work in the vicinity of radioactive materials; 
</P>
<P>(3) Suitable shielding; 
</P>
<P>(4) Means to monitor and control the dispersal of radioactive contamination; 
</P>
<P>(5) Means to control access to high radiation areas or airborne radioactivity areas; 
</P>
<P>(6) Means to prevent and control criticality; 
</P>
<P>(7) Radiation alarm system to warn of significant increases of radiation levels, concentrations of radioactive material in air, and increased radioactivity in effluents; 
</P>
<P>(8) Ability of structures, systems, and components to perform their intended safety functions, assuming the occurrence of event sequences; 
</P>
<P>(9) Explosion and fire detection systems and appropriate suppression systems; 
</P>
<P>(10) Means to control radioactive waste and radioactive effluents, and permit prompt termination of operations and evacuation of personnel during an emergency; 
</P>
<P>(11) Means to provide reliable and timely emergency power to instruments, utility service systems, and operating systems important to safety if there is a loss of primary electric power; 
</P>
<P>(12) Means to provide redundant systems necessary to maintain, with adequate capacity, the ability of utility services important to safety; and 
</P>
<P>(13) Means to inspect, test, and maintain structures, systems, and components important to safety, as necessary, to ensure their continued functioning and readiness. 
</P>
<P>(f) A description and discussion of the design, both surface and subsurface, of the geologic repository operations area, including— 
</P>
<P>(1) The relationship between design criteria and the requirements specified at § 63.111(a) and (b); and 
</P>
<P>(2) The design bases and their relation to the design criteria. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="114" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.114" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Postclosure Performance Objectives</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.113" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.114.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.113   Performance objectives for the geologic repository after permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The geologic repository must include multiple barriers, consisting of both natural barriers and an engineered barrier system. 
</P>
<P>(b) The engineered barrier system must be designed so that, working in combination with natural barriers, radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual are within the limits specified at § 63.311 of subpart L of this part. Compliance with this paragraph must be demonstrated through a performance assessment that meets the requirements specified at § 63.114 of this subpart, and §§ 63.303, 63.305, 63.312 and 63.342 of Subpart L of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The engineered barrier system must be designed so that, working in combination with natural barriers, releases of radionuclides into the accessible environment are within the limits specified at § 63.331 of subpart L of this part. Compliance with this paragraph must be demonstrated through a performance assessment that meets the requirements specified at § 63.114 of this subpart and §§ 63.303, 63.332 and 63.342 of subpart L of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ability of the geologic repository to limit radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual, in the event of human intrusion into the engineered barrier system, must be demonstrated through an analysis that meets the requirements at §§ 63.321 and 63.322 of subpart L of this part. Estimating radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual requires a performance assessment that meets the requirements specified at § 63.114 of this subpart, and §§ 63.303, 63.305, 63.312 and 63.342 of subpart L of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="115" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.115" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Postclosure Performance Assessment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.114" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.115.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.114   Requirements for performance assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any performance assessment used to demonstrate compliance with § 63.113 for 10,000 years after disposal must:
</P>
<P>(1) Include data related to the geology, hydrology, and geochemistry (including disruptive processes and events) of the Yucca Mountain site, and the surrounding region to the extent necessary, and information on the design of the engineered barrier system used to define, for 10,000 years after disposal, parameters and conceptual models used in the assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) Account for uncertainties and variabilities in parameter values, for 10,000 years after disposal, and provide for the technical basis for parameter ranges, probability distributions, or bounding values used in the performance assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) Consider alternative conceptual models of features and processes, for 10,000 years after disposal, that are consistent with available data and current scientific understanding and evaluate the effects that alternative conceptual models have on the performance of the geologic repository.
</P>
<P>(4) Consider only features, events, and processes consistent with the limits on performance assessment specified at § 63.342.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide the technical basis for either inclusion or exclusion of specific features, events, and processes in the performance assessment. Specific features, events, and processes must be evaluated in detail if the magnitude and time of the resulting radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual, or radionuclide releases to the accessible environment, for 10,000 years after disposal, would be significantly changed by their omission.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide the technical basis for either inclusion or exclusion of degradation, deterioration, or alteration processes of engineered barriers in the performance assessment, including those processes that would adversely affect the performance of natural barriers. Degradation, deterioration, or alteration processes of engineered barriers must be evaluated in detail if the magnitude and time of the resulting radiological exposures to the reasonably maximally exposed individual, or radionuclide releases to the accessible environment, for 10,000 years after disposal, would be significantly changed by their omission.
</P>
<P>(7) Provide the technical basis for models used to represent the 10,000 years after disposal in the performance assessment, such as comparisons made with outputs of detailed process-level models and/or empirical observations (e.g., laboratory testing, field investigations, and natural analogs).
</P>
<P>(b) The performance assessment methods used to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are considered sufficient for the performance assessment for the period of time after 10,000 years and through the period of geologic stability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 10828, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.115" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.115.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.115   Requirements for multiple barriers.</HEAD>
<P>Demonstration of compliance with § 63.113(a) must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Identify those design features of the engineered barrier system, and natural features of the geologic setting, that are considered barriers important to waste isolation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Describe the capability of barriers, identified as important to waste isolation, to isolate waste, taking into account uncertainties in characterizing and modeling the behavior of the barriers. 
</P>
<P>(c) Provide the technical basis for the description of the capability of barriers, identified as important to waste isolation, to isolate waste. The technical basis for each barrier's capability shall be based on and consistent with the technical basis for the performance assessments used to demonstrate compliance with § 63.113(b) and (c). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="116" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.116" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Land Ownership and Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.121" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.5.116.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.121   Requirements for ownership and control of interests in land.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ownership of land.</I> (1) The geologic repository operations area must be located in and on lands that are either acquired lands under the jurisdiction and control of DOE, or lands permanently withdrawn and reserved for its use. 
</P>
<P>(2) These lands must be held free and clear of all encumbrances, if significant, such as: 
</P>
<P>(i) Rights arising under the general mining laws; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Easements for right-of-way; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) All other rights arising under lease, rights of entry, deed, patent, mortgage, appropriation, prescription, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional controls for permanent closure.</I> Appropriate controls must be established outside of the geologic repository operations area. DOE shall exercise any jurisdiction and control over surface and subsurface estates necessary to prevent adverse human actions that could significantly reduce the geologic repository's ability to achieve isolation. The rights of DOE may take the form of appropriate possessory interests, servitudes, or withdrawals from location or patent under the general mining laws. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional controls through permanent closure.</I> Appropriate controls must be established outside the geologic repository operations area. DOE shall exercise any jurisdiction or control of activities necessary to ensure the requirements at § 63.111(a) and (b) are met. Control includes the authority to exclude members of the public, if necessary. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Water rights.</I> (1) DOE shall also have obtained such water rights as may be needed to accomplish the purpose of the geologic repository operations area. 
</P>
<P>(2) Water rights are included in the additional controls to be established under paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Performance Confirmation Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.131" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.6.117.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.131   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The performance confirmation program must provide data that indicate, where practicable, whether: 
</P>
<P>(1) Actual subsurface conditions encountered and changes in those conditions during construction and waste emplacement operations are within the limits assumed in the licensing review; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Natural and engineered systems and components required for repository operation, and that are designed or assumed to operate as barriers after permanent closure, are functioning as intended and anticipated. 
</P>
<P>(b) The program must have been started during site characterization, and it will continue until permanent closure. 
</P>
<P>(c) The program must include in situ monitoring, laboratory and field testing, and in situ experiments, as may be appropriate to provide the data required by paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) The program must be implemented so that: 
</P>
<P>(1) It does not adversely affect the ability of the geologic and engineered elements of the geologic repository to meet the performance objectives. 
</P>
<P>(2) It provides baseline information and analysis of that information on those parameters and natural processes pertaining to the geologic setting that may be changed by site characterization, construction, and operational activities. 
</P>
<P>(3) It monitors and analyzes changes from the baseline condition of parameters that could affect the performance of a geologic repository. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.132" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.6.117.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.132   Confirmation of geotechnical and design parameters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During repository construction and operation, a continuing program of surveillance, measurement, testing, and geologic mapping must be conducted to ensure that geotechnical and design parameters are confirmed and to ensure that appropriate action is taken to inform the Commission of design changes needed to accommodate actual field conditions encountered. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subsurface conditions must be monitored and evaluated against design assumptions. 
</P>
<P>(c) Specific geotechnical and design parameters to be measured or observed, including any interactions between natural and engineered systems and components, must be identified in the performance confirmation plan. 
</P>
<P>(d) These measurements and observations must be compared with the original design bases and assumptions. If significant differences exist between the measurements and observations and the original design bases and assumptions, the need for modifications to the design or in construction methods must be determined and these differences, their significance to repository performance, and the recommended changes reported to the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(e) In situ monitoring of the thermomechanical response of the underground facility must be conducted until permanent closure, to ensure that the performance of the geologic and engineering features is within design limits. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.133" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.6.117.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.133   Design testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During the early or developmental stages of construction, a program for testing of engineered systems and components used in the design, such as, for example, borehole and shaft seals, backfill, and drip shields, as well as the thermal interaction effects of the waste packages, backfill, drip shields, rock, and unsaturated zone and saturated zone water, must be conducted. 
</P>
<P>(b) The testing must be initiated as early as practicable. 
</P>
<P>(c) If backfill is included in the repository design, a test must be conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of backfill placement and compaction procedures against design requirements before permanent backfill placement is begun. 
</P>
<P>(d) Tests must be conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of borehole, shaft, and ramp seals before full-scale operation proceeds to seal boreholes, shafts, and ramps. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.134" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.6.117.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.134   Monitoring and testing waste packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A program must be established at the geologic repository operations area for monitoring the condition of the waste packages. Waste packages chosen for the program must be representative of those to be emplaced in the underground facility. 
</P>
<P>(b) Consistent with safe operation at the geologic repository operations area, the environment of the waste packages selected for the waste package monitoring program must be representative of the environment in which the wastes are to be emplaced. 
</P>
<P>(c) The waste package monitoring program must include laboratory experiments that focus on the internal condition of the waste packages. To the extent practical, the environment experienced by the emplaced waste packages within the underground facility during the waste package monitoring program must be duplicated in the laboratory experiments. 
</P>
<P>(d) The waste package monitoring program must continue as long as practical up to the time of permanent closure. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Quality Assurance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.141" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.7.117.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.141   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, <I>quality assurance</I> comprises all those planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that the geologic repository and its structures, systems, or components will perform satisfactorily in service. Quality assurance includes quality control, which comprises those quality assurance actions related to the physical characteristics of a material, structure, component, or system that provide a means to control the quality of the material, structure, component, or system to predetermined requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.142" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.7.117.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.142   Quality assurance criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction and Applicability.</I> DOE is required by § 63.21(c)(20) to include in its safety analysis report a description of the quality assurance program to be applied to all structures, systems, and components important to safety, to design and characterization of barriers important to waste isolation, and to related activities. These activities include: site characterization; acquisition, control, and analyses of samples and data; tests and experiments; scientific studies; facility and equipment design and construction; facility operation; performance confirmation; permanent closure; and decontamination and dismantling of surface facilities. The description must indicate how the applicable quality assurance requirements will be satisfied. DOE shall include information pertaining to the managerial and administrative controls to be used to ensure safe operation in its safety analysis report. High-level waste repositories include structures, systems, and components that prevent or mitigate the consequences of postulated event sequences or that are important to waste isolation capabilities that could cause undue risk to the health and safety of the public. The pertinent requirements of this subpart apply to all activities that are important to waste isolation and important to safety functions of those structures, systems, and components. These activities include designing, purchasing, fabricating, handling, shipping, storing, cleaning, erecting, installing, inspecting, testing, operating, maintaining, repairing, modifying, site characterization, performance confirmation, permanent closure, decontamination, and dismantling of surface facilities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Organization.</I> DOE shall establish and execute a quality assurance program. DOE may delegate to others, such as contractors, agents, or consultants, the work of establishing and executing the quality assurance program, or any part of it, but DOE retains responsibility for it. 
</P>
<P>(1) The authority and duties of persons and organizations performing activities affecting the functions of structures, systems, and components that are important to waste isolation and important to safety must be clearly established and delineated in writing. These activities include both the performing functions of attaining quality objectives and the quality assurance functions. The quality assurance functions are those of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Assuring that an appropriate quality assurance program is established and effectively executed; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Verifying that activities important to waste isolation and important to safety functions have been correctly performed by checking, auditing, and inspection of structures, systems, and components. 
</P>
<P>(2) The persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions shall have sufficient authority and organizational freedom to identify quality problems; to initiate, recommend, or provide solutions; and to verify implementation of solutions. The persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions shall report to a management level so that the required authority and organizational freedom, including sufficient independence from cost and schedule when opposed to safety considerations, are provided. 
</P>
<P>(3) Because of the many variables involved, such as the number of personnel, the type of activity being performed, and the location or locations where activities are performed, the organizational structure for executing the quality assurance program may take various forms provided that the persons and organizations assigned the quality assurance functions have this required authority and organizational freedom. Irrespective of the organizational structure, the individual(s) assigned the responsibility for assuring effective execution of any portion of the quality assurance program at any location where activities subject to 10 CFR part 63 are being performed must have direct access to the levels of management as may be necessary to perform this function. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quality assurance program.</I> DOE shall establish a quality assurance program that complies with the requirements of this subpart at the earliest practicable time, consistent with the schedule for accomplishing the activities. This program must be documented by written policies, procedures, or instructions and must be carried out throughout facility life in accordance with those policies, procedures, or instructions. 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE shall identify the structures, systems, and components to be covered by the quality assurance program and the major organizations participating in the program, together with the designated functions of these organizations. The quality assurance program must control activities affecting the quality of the identified structures, systems, and components, to an extent consistent with their importance to safety. 
</P>
<P>(2) Activities affecting quality must be accomplished under suitably controlled conditions. Controlled conditions include the use of appropriate equipment; suitable environmental conditions for accomplishing the activity, such as adequate cleanness; and assurance that all prerequisites for the given activity have been satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(3) The program must take into account the need for special controls, processes, test equipment, tools, and skills to attain the required quality, and the need for verification of quality by inspection and test. The program must provide for indoctrination and training of personnel performing activities affecting quality as necessary to assure that suitable proficiency is achieved and maintained. 
</P>
<P>(4) DOE shall regularly review the status and adequacy of the quality assurance program. Management of other organizations participating in the quality assurance program shall regularly review the status and adequacy of that part of the quality assurance program which they are executing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Design control.</I> (1) DOE shall establish measures to assure that applicable regulatory requirements and the design basis, as defined in § 63.2 and as specified in the license application, for those structures, systems, and components to which this subpart applies, are correctly translated into specifications, drawings, procedures, and instructions. These measures must assure that appropriate quality standards are specified and included in design documents and that deviations from such standards are controlled. Measures must also be established for the selection and review for suitability of application of materials, parts, equipment, and processes that are important to waste isolation and important to safety functions of the structures, systems and components. 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall establish measures to identify and control design interfaces and for coordination among participating design organizations. These measures must include the establishment of procedures among participating design organizations for the review, approval, release, distribution, and revision of documents involving design interfaces. 
</P>
<P>(i) The design control measures must provide for verifying or checking the adequacy of design, such as by the performance of design reviews, by the use of alternate or simplified calculational methods, or by the performance of a suitable testing program. The verifying or checking process must be performed by individuals or groups other than those who performed the original design. These individuals may be from the same organization. If a test program is used to verify the adequacy of a specific design feature in lieu of other verifying or checking processes, it must include suitable qualifications testing of a prototype unit under the most adverse design conditions. Design control measures must be applied to items such as: criticality physics, stress, thermal, hydraulic, and preclosure and postclosure analyses; compatibility of materials; accessibility for inservice inspection, maintenance and repair; and delineation of acceptance criteria for inspections and tests. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Design changes, including field changes, must be subject to design control measures commensurate with those applied to the original design and be approved by the organization that performed the original design unless the applicant designates another responsible organization. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procurement document control.</I> DOE shall establish measures to assure that applicable regulatory requirements, design bases, and other requirements necessary to assure adequate quality are suitably included or referenced in the documents for procurement of material, equipment, and services, whether purchased by the licensee or applicant or by its contractors or subcontractors. To the extent necessary, procurement documents must require contractors or subcontractors to provide a quality assurance program consistent with the pertinent provisions of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Instructions, procedures, and drawings.</I> Activities affecting quality must be prescribed by documented instructions, procedures, or drawings of a type appropriate to the circumstances and must be accomplished in accordance with these instructions, procedures, or drawings. Instructions, procedures, or drawings must include appropriate quantitative or qualitative acceptance criteria for determining that important activities have been satisfactorily accomplished. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Document control.</I> DOE shall establish measures to control the issuance of documents, such as instructions, procedures, and drawings, including changes to them that prescribe all activities affecting quality. These measures must assure that documents, including changes, are reviewed for adequacy and approved for release by authorized personnel and are distributed to and used at the location where the prescribed activity is performed. Changes to documents must be reviewed and approved by the same organizations that performed the original review and approval unless the applicant designates another responsible organization. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Control of purchased material, equipment, and services.</I> DOE shall establish measures to assure that purchased material, equipment, and services, whether purchased directly or through contractors and subcontractors, conform to the procurement documents. 
</P>
<P>(1) These measures must include appropriate provisions for source evaluation and selection, objective evidence of quality furnished by the contractor or subcontractor, inspection at the contractor or subcontractor source, and examination of products upon delivery. 
</P>
<P>(2) Documentary evidence that material and equipment conform to the procurement requirements must be available at the high-level waste repository site before the material and equipment are installed or used. This documentary evidence must be retained at the high-level waste repository site and be sufficient to identify the specific requirements, such as codes, standards, or specifications, met by the purchased material and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(3) The effectiveness of the control of quality by contractors and subcontractors must be assessed by the licensee or applicant or designee at intervals consistent with the importance, complexity, and quantity of the product or services. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Identification and control of materials, parts, and components.</I> Measures must be established for the identification and control of materials, parts, and components, including partially fabricated assemblies. These measures must assure that identification of the item is maintained by heat number, part number, serial number, or other appropriate means, either on the item or on records traceable to the item, as required throughout fabrication, erection, installation, and use of the item. These identification and control measures must be designed to prevent the use of incorrect or defective material, parts, and components. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Control of special processes.</I> DOE shall establish measures to assure that special processes, including welding, heat treating, and nondestructive testing, are controlled and accomplished by qualified personnel using qualified procedures in accordance with applicable codes, standards, specifications, criteria, and other special requirements. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Inspection.</I> DOE shall establish and execute a program for inspection of activities affecting quality to verify conformance with the documented instructions, procedures, and drawings for accomplishing the activity. The inspection must be performed by individuals other than those who performed the activity being inspected. 
</P>
<P>(1) Examinations, measurements, or tests of material or products processed must be performed for each work operation where necessary to assure quality. If inspection of processed material or products is impossible or disadvantageous, indirect control by monitoring processing methods, equipment, and personnel must be provided. Both inspection and process monitoring must be provided when control is inadequate without both. 
</P>
<P>(2) If mandatory inspection hold points that require witnessing or inspecting by the applicant's designated representative and beyond which work may not proceed without the consent of its designated representative are required, the specific hold points must be indicated in appropriate documents. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Test control.</I> DOE shall establish a test program to assure that all testing required to demonstrate that structures, systems, and components important to safety will perform satisfactorily in service is identified and performed in accordance with written test procedures which incorporate the requirements and acceptance limits contained in applicable design documents. 
</P>
<P>(1) The test program must include, as appropriate, proof tests prior to installation, preoperational tests, and operational tests during repository operation, of structures, systems, and components. 
</P>
<P>(2) Test procedures must include provisions for assuring that all prerequisites for the given test have been met, that adequate test instrumentation is available and used, and that the test is performed under suitable environmental conditions. 
</P>
<P>(3) Test results must be documented and evaluated to assure that test requirements have been satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Control of measuring and test equipment.</I> DOE shall establish measures to assure that tools, gages, instruments, and other measuring and testing devices used in activities affecting quality are properly controlled, calibrated, and adjusted at specified periods to maintain accuracy within necessary limits. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Handling, storage, and shipping.</I> DOE shall establish measures to control the handling, storage, shipping, cleaning and preservation of material and equipment in accordance with work and inspection instructions to prevent damage or deterioration. When necessary for particular products, special protective environments, such as inert gas atmosphere, specific moisture content levels, and temperature levels, must be specified and provided. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Inspection, test, and operating status.</I> DOE shall establish measures to indicate the status of inspections and tests performed on individual items of the high-level waste repository by markings such as stamps, tags, labels, routing cards, or other suitable means. These measures must provide for the identification of items that have satisfactorily passed required inspections and tests, where necessary to preclude inadvertent bypassing of such inspections and tests. Measures must also be established for indicating the operating status of structures, systems, and components of the high-level waste repository, such as by tagging valves and switches, to prevent inadvertent operation. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Nonconforming materials, parts, or components.</I> DOE shall establish measures to control materials, parts, or components which do not conform to requirements in order to prevent their inadvertent use or installation. These measures must include, as appropriate, procedures for identification, documentation, segregation, disposition, and notification to affected organizations. Nonconforming items must be reviewed and accepted, rejected, repaired or reworked in accordance with documented procedures. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Corrective action.</I> DOE shall establish measures to assure that conditions adverse to quality, such as failures, malfunctions, deficiencies, deviations, defective material and equipment, and nonconformances are promptly identified and corrected. If significant conditions are adverse to quality, the measures must assure that the cause of the condition is determined and corrective action taken to preclude repetition. The identification of the significant condition adverse to quality, the cause of the condition, and the corrective action taken must be documented and reported to appropriate levels of management. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Quality assurance records.</I> DOE shall maintain sufficient records to furnish evidence of activities affecting quality. 
</P>
<P>(1) The records must include at least the following: Operating logs and the results of reviews, inspections, tests, audits, monitoring of work performance, and materials analyses. 
</P>
<P>(2) The records must also include closely-related data such as qualifications of personnel, procedures, and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(3) Inspection and test records must, at a minimum, identify the inspector or data recorder, the type of observation, the results, the acceptability, and the action taken in connection with any deficiencies noted. 
</P>
<P>(4) Records must be identifiable and retrievable. Consistent with applicable regulatory requirements, the applicant shall establish requirements concerning record retention, such as duration, location, and assigned responsibility. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Audits.</I> DOE shall carry out a comprehensive system of planned and periodic audits to verify compliance with all aspects of the quality assurance program and to determine the effectiveness of the program. The audits must be performed in accordance with the written procedures or check lists by appropriately trained personnel not having direct responsibilities in the areas being audited. Audit results must be documented and reviewed by management having responsibility in the area audited. Followup action, including reaudit of deficient areas, must be taken where indicated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.143" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.7.117.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.143   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall implement a quality assurance program based on the criteria required by § 63.142. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.144" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.7.117.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.144   Quality assurance program change.</HEAD>
<P>Changes to DOE's NRC-approved Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description are processed as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) DOE may change a previously accepted quality assurance program description included or referenced in the Safety Analysis Report without prior NRC approval, if the change does not reduce the commitments in the program description previously accepted by the NRC. Changes to the quality assurance program description that do not reduce the commitments must be submitted every 24 months, in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section. In addition to quality assurance program changes involving administrative improvements and clarifications, spelling corrections, punctuation, or editorial items, the following changes are not considered reductions in commitment: 
</P>
<P>(1) The use of a quality assurance standard approved by the NRC which is more recent than the quality assurance standard in DOE's current quality assurance program at the time of the change; 
</P>
<P>(2) The use of generic organizational position titles that clearly denote the position function, supplemented as necessary by descriptive text, rather than specific titles; 
</P>
<P>(3) The use of generic organizational charts to indicate functional relationships, authorities, and responsibilities, or alternatively, the use of descriptive text; 
</P>
<P>(4) The elimination of quality assurance program information that duplicates language in quality assurance regulatory guides and quality assurance standards to which the licensee is committed; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Organizational revisions that ensure that persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions continue to have the requisite authority and organizational freedom, including sufficient independence from cost and schedule when opposed to safety considerations. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall submit changes made to the NRC-accepted Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description that do reduce the commitments to the NRC and receive NRC approval prior to implementation, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) By an appropriate method listed in § 63.4 of this chapter, the signed document must be submitted to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk; Director, Office of Nuclear Material and Safeguards; U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, and one copy to the appropriate NRC Resident Inspector, if one has been assigned to the site or facility. 
</P>
<P>(2) The submittal of a change to the Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description must include all pages affected by that change and must be accompanied by a forwarding letter identifying the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the revised program incorporating the change continues to describe how the requirements of § 63.142 will be satisfied and continues to satisfy the criteria of § 63.142 and the Safety Analysis Report quality assurance program description previously accepted by the NRC (the letter need not provide the basis for changes that correct spelling, punctuation, or editorial items). 
</P>
<P>(3) DOE shall maintain records of quality assurance program changes that do reduce commitments. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 58816, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Training and Certification of Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.151" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.8.117.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.151   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Operations of systems and components that have been identified as important to safety in the Safety Analysis Report and in the license must be performed only by trained and certified personnel or by personnel under the direct visual supervision of an individual with training and certification in such operation. Supervisory personnel who direct operations that are important to safety must also be certified in such operations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.152" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.8.117.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.152   Training and certification program.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall establish a program for training, proficiency testing, certification, and requalification of operating and supervisory personnel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.153" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.8.117.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.153   Physical requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The physical condition and the general health of personnel certified for operations that are important to safety may not be such as might cause operational errors that could endanger the public health and safety. Any condition that might cause impaired judgment or motor coordination must be considered in the selection of personnel for activities that are important to safety. These conditions need not categorically disqualify a person, so long as appropriate provisions are made to accommodate the conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Emergency Planning Criteria</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.161" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.9.117.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.161   Emergency plan for the geologic repository operations area through permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall develop and be prepared to implement a plan to cope with radiological accidents that may occur at the geologic repository operations area, at any time before permanent closure and decontamination or decontamination and dismantlement of surface facilities. The emergency plan must be based on the criteria of § 72.32(b) of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.171" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.10.117.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.171   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued under those Acts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of— 
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.172" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.10.117.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.172   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in this part 63 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part 63 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of Section 223 are as follows: §§ 63.1, 63.2, 63.5, 63.6, 63.7, 63.8, 63.15, 63.16, 63.21, 63.22, 63.23, 63.24, 63.31, 63.32, 63.33, 63.41, 63.42, 63.43, 63.45, 63.46, 63.51, 63.52, 63.61, 63.62, 63.63, 63.64, 63.65, 63.101, 63.102, 63.111, 63.112, 63.113, 63.114, 63.115, 63.121, 63.131, 63.132, 63.133, 63.134, 63.141, 63.142, 63.143, 63.153, 63.161, 63.171, 63.172, 63.201, 63.202, 63.203, 63.204, 63.301, 63.302, 63.303, 63.304, 63.305, 63.311, 63.312, 63.321, 63.322, 63.331, 63.332, 63.341, and 63.342. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Preclosure Public Health and Environmental Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.201" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.11.117.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.201   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart covers the storage of radioactive material by DOE in the Yucca Mountain repository and on the Yucca Mountain site. For the purposes of demonstrating compliance with this subpart, to the extent there may be any conflict with the requirements specified in this subpart and the requirements contained in subparts A-J of this regulation, including definitions, the requirements in this subpart shall take precedence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.202" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.11.117.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.202   Definitions for subpart K.</HEAD>
<P><I>General environment</I> means everywhere outside the Yucca Mountain site, the Nellis Air Force Range, and the Nevada Test Site. 
</P>
<P><I>Member of the public</I> means anyone who is not a radiation worker for purposes of worker protection. 
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive material</I> means matter composed of or containing radionuclides subject to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. sec. 2014 <I>et seq.</I>). Radioactive material includes, but is not limited to, high-level radioactive waste and spent nuclear fuel. 
</P>
<P><I>Spent nuclear fuel</I> means fuel that has been withdrawn from a nuclear reactor following irradiation, the constituent elements of which have not been separated by reprocessing. 
</P>
<P><I>Storage</I> means retention (and any associated activity, operation, or process necessary to carry out successful retention) of radioactive material with the intent or capability to readily access or retrieve such material. 
</P>
<P><I>Yucca Mountain repository</I> means the excavated portion of the facility constructed underground within the Yucca Mountain site. 
</P>
<P><I>Yucca Mountain site</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The site recommended by the Secretary of DOE to the President under section 112(b)(1)(B) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (42 U.S.C. 10132(b)(1)(B)) on May 27, 1986; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The area under the control of DOE for the use of Yucca Mountain activities at the time of licensing, if the site designated under the Nuclear Waste Policy Act is amended by Congress prior to the time of licensing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.203" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.11.117.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.203   Implementation of subpart K.</HEAD>
<P>DOE must demonstrate that normal operations at the Yucca Mountain site will and do occur in compliance with this subpart before the Commission grants or continues a license for DOE to receive and possess radioactive material within the Yucca Mountain site. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.204" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.11.117.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.204   Preclosure standard.</HEAD>
<P>DOE must ensure that no member of the public in the general environment receives more than an annual dose of 0.15 mSv (15 mrem) from the combination of: 
</P>
<P>(a) Management and storage (as defined in 40 CFR 191.2) of radioactive material that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to 40 CFR 191.3(a); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Occurs outside of the Yucca Mountain repository but within the Yucca Mountain site; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Storage (as defined in § 63.202) of radioactive material inside the Yucca Mountain repository. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Postclosure Public Health and Environmental Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.301" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.117.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.301   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart covers the disposal of radioactive material in the Yucca Mountain repository by DOE. For the purposes of demonstrating compliance with this subpart, to the extent that there may be any conflict with the requirements specified in this subpart and the requirements contained in subparts A-J of this part, including definitions, the requirements in this subpart shall take precedence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.302" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.117.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.302   Definitions for subpart L.</HEAD>
<P>All definitions in subpart K of this part, and the following: 
</P>
<P><I>Accessible environment</I> means any point outside of the controlled area, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) The atmosphere (including the atmosphere above the surface area of the controlled area); 
</P>
<P>(2) Land surfaces; 
</P>
<P>(3) Surface waters; 
</P>
<P>(4) Oceans; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The lithosphere. 
</P>
<P><I>Aquifer</I> means a water-bearing underground geological formation, group of formations, or part of a formation (excluding perched water bodies) that can yield a significant amount of groundwater to a well or spring. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlled area</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The surface area, identified by passive institutional controls, that encompasses no more than 300 square kilometers. It must not extend farther: 
</P>
<P>(i) South than 36°40′13.6661″ North latitude, in the predominant direction of groundwater flow; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Than five kilometers from the repository footprint in any other direction; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The subsurface underlying the surface area. 
</P>
<P><I>Disposal</I> means the emplacement of radioactive material into the Yucca Mountain disposal system with the intent of isolating it for as long as reasonably possible and with no intent of recovery, whether or not the design of the disposal system permits the ready recovery of the material. Disposal of radioactive material in the Yucca Mountain disposal system begins when all of the ramps and other openings into the Yucca Mountain repository are sealed. 
</P>
<P><I>Groundwater</I> means water that is below the land surface and in a saturated zone. 
</P>
<P><I>Human intrusion</I> means breaching of any portion of the Yucca Mountain disposal system, within the repository footprint, by any human activity. 
</P>
<P><I>Passive institutional controls</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Markers, as permanent as practicable, placed on the Earth's surface; 
</P>
<P>(2) Public records and archives; 
</P>
<P>(3) Government ownership and regulations regarding land or resource use; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Other reasonable methods of preserving knowledge about the location, design, and contents of the Yucca Mountain disposal system. 
</P>
<P><I>Peak dose</I> means the highest annual dose projected to be received by the reasonably maximally exposed individual. 
</P>
<P><I>Period of geologic stability</I> means the time during which the variability of geologic characteristics and their future behavior in and around the Yucca Mountain site can be bounded, that is, they can be projected within a reasonable range of possibilities. This period is defined to end at 1 million years after disposal.
</P>
<P><I>Plume of contamination</I> means that volume of groundwater in the predominant direction of groundwater flow that contains radioactive contamination from releases from the Yucca Mountain repository. It does not include releases from any other potential sources on or near the Nevada Test Site. 
</P>
<P><I>Repository footprint</I> means the outline of the outermost locations of where the waste is emplaced in the Yucca Mountain repository. 
</P>
<P><I>Slice of the plume</I> means a cross-section of the plume of contamination with sufficient thickness parallel to the prevalent direction of flow of the plume that it contains the representative volume. 
</P>
<P><I>Total dissolved solids</I> means the total dissolved (filterable) solids in water as determined by use of the method specified in 40 CFR part 136. 
</P>
<P><I>Undisturbed performance</I> means that human intrusion or the occurrence of unlikely natural features, events, and processes do not disturb the disposal system. 
</P>
<P><I>Undisturbed Yucca Mountain disposal system</I> means that the Yucca Mountain disposal system is not affected by human intrusion. 
</P>
<P><I>Waste</I> means any radioactive material emplaced for disposal into the Yucca Mountain repository. 
</P>
<P><I>Well-capture zone</I> means the volume from which a well pumping at a defined rate is withdrawing water from an aquifer. The dimensions of the well-capture zone are determined by the pumping rate in combination with aquifer characteristics assumed for calculations, such as hydraulic conductivity, gradient, and the screened interval. 
</P>
<P><I>Yucca Mountain disposal system</I> means the combination of underground engineered and natural barriers within the controlled area that prevents or substantially reduces releases from the waste. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 74 FR 10829, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.303" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.117.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.303   Implementation of subpart L.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Compliance is based upon the arithmetic mean of the projected doses from DOE's performance assessments for the period within 1 million years after disposal, with:
</P>
<P>(1) Sections 63.311(a)(1) and 63.311(a)(2); and
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 63.321(b)(1), 63.321(b)(2), and 63.331, if performance assessment is used to demonstrate compliance with either or both of these sections.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 10829, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.304" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.117.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.304   Reasonable expectation.</HEAD>
<P><I>Reasonable expectation</I> means that the Commission is satisfied that compliance will be achieved based upon the full record before it. Characteristics of reasonable expectation include that it: 
</P>
<P>(1) Requires less than absolute proof because absolute proof is impossible to attain for disposal due to the uncertainty of projecting long-term performance; 
</P>
<P>(2) Accounts for the inherently greater uncertainties in making long-term projections of the performance of the Yucca Mountain disposal system; 
</P>
<P>(3) Does not exclude important parameters from assessments and analyses simply because they are difficult to precisely quantify to a high degree of confidence; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Focuses performance assessments and analyses on the full range of defensible and reasonable parameter distributions rather than only upon extreme physical situations and parameter values. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.305" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.117.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.305   Required characteristics of the reference biosphere.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Features, events, and processes that describe the reference biosphere must be consistent with present knowledge of the conditions in the region surrounding the Yucca Mountain site. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE should not project changes in society, the biosphere (other than climate), human biology, or increases or decreases of human knowledge or technology. In all analyses done to demonstrate compliance with this part, DOE must assume that all of those factors remain constant as they are at the time of submission of the license application. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE must vary factors related to the geology, hydrology, and climate based upon cautious, but reasonable assumptions of the changes in these factors that could affect the Yucca Mountain disposal system during the period of geologic stability, consistent with the requirements for performance assessments specified at § 63.342.
</P>
<P>(d) Biosphere pathways must be consistent with arid or semi-arid conditions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 55792, Nov. 2, 2001, as amended at 74 FR 10829, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="117" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.117" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Postclosure Individual Protection Standard</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.311" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.117.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.311   Individual protection standard after permanent closure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE must demonstrate, using performance assessment, that there is a reasonable expectation that the reasonably maximally exposed individual receives no more than the following annual dose from releases from the undisturbed Yucca Mountain disposal system:
</P>
<P>(1) 0.15 mSv (15 mrem) for 10,000 years following disposal; and
</P>
<P>(2) 1.0 mSv (100 mrem) after 10,000 years, but within the period of geologic stability.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE's performance assessment must include all potential pathways of radionuclide transport and exposure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 10829, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.312" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.117.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.312   Required characteristics of the reasonably maximally exposed individual.</HEAD>
<P>The reasonably maximally exposed individual is a hypothetical person who meets the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(a) Lives in the accessible environment above the highest concentration of radionuclides in the plume of contamination; 
</P>
<P>(b) Has a diet and living style representative of the people who now reside in the Town of Amargosa Valley, Nevada. DOE must use projections based upon surveys of the people residing in the Town of Amargosa Valley, Nevada, to determine their current diets and living styles and use the mean values of these factors in the assessments conducted for §§ 63.311 and 63.321; 
</P>
<P>(c) Uses well water with average concentrations of radionuclides based on an annual water demand of 3000 acre-feet; 
</P>
<P>(d) Drinks 2 liters of water per day from wells drilled into the groundwater at the location specified in paragraph (a) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Is an adult with metabolic and physiological considerations consistent with present knowledge of adults. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="118" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.118" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Human Intrusion Standard</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.321" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.118.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.321   Individual protection standard for human intrusion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE must determine the earliest time after disposal that the waste package would degrade sufficiently that a human intrusion (see § 63.322) could occur without recognition by the drillers.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE must demonstrate that there is a reasonable expectation that the reasonably maximally exposed individual receives, as a result of the human intrusion, no more than the following annual dose:
</P>
<P>(1) 0.15 mSv (15 mrem) for 10,000 years following disposal; and
</P>
<P>(2) 1.0 mSv (100 mrem) after 10,000 years, but within the period of geologic stability.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE's analysis must include all potential environmental pathways of radionuclide transport and exposure, subject to the requirements of § 63.322.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 10829, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.322" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.118.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.322   Human intrusion scenario.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of the analysis of human intrusion, DOE must make the following assumptions: 
</P>
<P>(a) There is a single human intrusion as a result of exploratory drilling for groundwater; 
</P>
<P>(b) The intruders drill a borehole directly through a degraded waste package into the uppermost aquifer underlying the Yucca Mountain repository; 
</P>
<P>(c) The drillers use the common techniques and practices that are currently employed in exploratory drilling for groundwater in the region surrounding Yucca Mountain; 
</P>
<P>(d) Careful sealing of the borehole does not occur, instead natural degradation processes gradually modify the borehole; 
</P>
<P>(e) No particulate waste material falls into the borehole; 
</P>
<P>(f) The exposure scenario includes only those radionuclides transported to the saturated zone by water (e.g., water enters the waste package, releases radionuclides, and transports radionuclides by way of the borehole to the saturated zone); and 
</P>
<P>(g) No releases are included which are caused by unlikely natural processes and events. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="119" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.119" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Groundwater Protection Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.331" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.119.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.331   Separate standards for protection of groundwater.</HEAD>
<P>DOE must demonstrate that there is a reasonable expectation that, for 10,000 years of undisturbed performance after disposal, releases of radionuclides from waste in the Yucca Mountain disposal system into the accessible environment will not cause the level of radioactivity in the representative volume of groundwater to exceed the limits in the following Table 1: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Limits on Radionuclides in the Representative Volume 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radionuclide or type of radiation emitted 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Limit 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Is natural background
<br/>included? 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combined radium-226 and radium-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 picocuries per liter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gross alpha activity (including radium-226 but excluding radon and uranium)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 picocuries per liter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combined beta and photon emitting radionuclides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04 mSv (4 mrem) per year to the whole body or any organ, based on drinking 2 liters of water per day from the representative volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.332" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.119.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.332   Representative volume.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The representative volume is the volume of groundwater that would be withdrawn annually from an aquifer containing less than 10,000 milligrams of total dissolved solids per liter of water to supply a given water demand. DOE must project the concentration of radionuclides released from the Yucca Mountain disposal system that will be in the representative volume. DOE must use the projected concentrations to demonstrate a reasonable expectation that the Yucca Mountain disposal system complies with § 63.331. The DOE must make the following assumptions concerning the representative volume: 
</P>
<P>(1) It includes the highest concentration level in the plume of contamination in the accessible environment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Its position and dimensions in the aquifer are determined using average hydrologic characteristics which have cautious, but reasonable, values representative of the aquifers along the radionuclide migration path from the Yucca Mountain repository to the accessible environment as determined by site characterization; and 
</P>
<P>(3) It contains 3,000 acre-feet of water (about 3,714,450,000 liters or 977,486,000 gallons). 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE must use one of two alternative methods for determining the dimensions of the representative volume. The DOE must propose its chosen method, and any underlying assumptions, to NRC for approval. 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE may calculate the dimensions as a well-capture zone. If DOE uses this approach, it must assume that the: 
</P>
<P>(i) Water supply well(s) has (have) characteristics consistent with public water supply wells in the Town of Amargosa Valley, Nevada, for example, well-bore size and length of the screened intervals; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Screened interval(s) include(s) the highest concentration in the plume of contamination in the accessible environment; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Pumping rates and the placement of the well(s) must be set to produce an annual withdrawal equal to the representative volume and to tap the highest concentration within the plume of contamination. 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE may calculate the dimensions as a slice of the plume. If DOE uses this approach, it must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Propose, for approval, where the location of the edge of the plume of contamination occurs. For example, the place where the concentration of radionuclides reaches 0.1% of the level of the highest concentration in the accessible environment; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assume that the slice of the plume is perpendicular to the prevalent direction of flow of the aquifer; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assume that the volume of groundwater contained within the slice of the plume equals the representative volume. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="120" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.120" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Additional Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.342" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.120.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.342   Limits on performance assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE's performance assessments conducted to show compliance with §§ 63.311(a)(1), 63.321(b)(1), and 63.331 shall not include consideration of very unlikely features, events, or processes, <I>i.e.</I>, those that are estimated to have less than one chance in 100,000,000 per year of occurring. In addition, DOE's performance assessments need not evaluate the impacts resulting from any features, events, and processes or sequences of events and processes with a higher chance of occurring if the results of the performance assessments would not be changed significantly in the initial 10,000-year period after disposal.
</P>
<P>(b) For performance assessments conducted to show compliance with §§ 63.321(b)(1) and 63.331, DOE's performance assessments shall exclude the unlikely features, events, and processes, or sequences of events and processes, <I>i.e.</I>, those that are estimated to have less than one chance in 100,000 per year of occurring and at least one chance in 100,000,000 per year of occurring.
</P>
<P>(c) For performance assessments conducted to show compliance with §§ 63.311(a)(2) and 63.321(b)(2), DOE's performance assessments shall project the continued effects of the features, events, and processes included in paragraph (a) of this section beyond the 10,000-year post-disposal period through the period of geologic stability. DOE must evaluate all of the features, events, or processes included in paragraph (a) of this section, and also:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE must assess the effects of seismic and igneous activity scenarios, subject to the probability limits in paragraph (a) of this section for very unlikely features, events, and processes, or sequences of events and processes. Performance assessments conducted to show compliance with § 63.321(b)(2) are also subject to the probability limits in paragraph (b) of this section for unlikely features, events, and processes, or sequences of events and processes.
</P>
<P>(i) The seismic analysis may be limited to the effects caused by damage to the drifts in the repository, failure of the waste packages, and changes in the elevation of the water table under Yucca Mountain (<I>i.e.</I>, the magnitude of the water table rise under Yucca Mountain).
</P>
<P>(ii) The igneous activity analysis may be limited to the effects of a volcanic event directly intersecting the repository. The igneous event may be limited to that causing damage to the waste packages directly, causing releases of radionuclides to the biosphere, atmosphere, or groundwater.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE must assess the effects of climate change. The climate change analysis may be limited to the effects of increased water flow through the repository as a result of climate change, and the resulting transport and release of radionuclides to the accessible environment. The nature and degree of climate change may be represented by constant-in-time climate conditions. The analysis may commence at 10,000 years after disposal and shall extend through the period of geologic stability. The constant-in-time values to be used to represent climate change are to be the spatial average of the deep percolation rate within the area bounded by the repository footprint. The constant-in-time deep percolation rates to be used to represent climate change shall be based on a lognormal distribution with an arithmetic mean of 41 mm/year (1.6 in./year) and a standard deviation of 33 mm/year (1.3 in./year). The lognormal distribution is to be truncated so that the deep percolation rates vary between 10 and 100 mm/year (0.39 and 3.9 in./year).
</P>
<P>(3) DOE must assess the effects of general corrosion on engineered barriers. DOE may use a constant representative corrosion rate throughout the period of geologic stability or a distribution of corrosion rates correlated to other repository parameters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 10829, Mar. 13, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 63.343" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.9.12.120.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 63.343   Severability of individual protection and groundwater protection standards.</HEAD>
<P>The individual protection and groundwater protection standards are severable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="70" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 70—DOMESTIC LICENSING OF SPECIAL NUCLEAR MATERIAL 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 51, 53, 57(d), 108, 122, 161, 182, 183, 184, 186, 187, 193, 223, 234, 274, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2071, 2073, 2077(d), 2138, 2152, 2201, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2236, 2237, 2243, 2273, 2282, 2021, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 135, 141 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Sections 70.1(c) and 70.20a(b) also issued under secs. 135, 141, Pub. L. 97-425, 96 Stat. 2232, 2241 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161).
</P><P>Section 70.21(g) also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 122 (42 U.S.C. 2152). 
</P><P>Section 70.31 also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 57(d) (42 U.S.C. 2077(d)). 
</P><P>Sections 70.36 and 70.44 also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 184 (42 U.S.C. 2234). 
</P><P>Section 70.81 also issued under Atomic Energy Act secs. 186, 187 (42 U.S.C. 2236, 2237). 
</P><P>Section 70.82 also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 108 (42 U.S.C. 2138).
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 70 appear at 81 FR 86910, Dec. 2, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the regulations of this part establish procedures and criteria for the issuance of licenses to receive title to, own, acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, and transfer special nuclear material; and establish and provide for the terms and conditions upon which the Commission will issue such licenses.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations contained in this part are issued pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919) and Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1242). 
</P>
<P>(c) The regulations in part 72 of this chapter establish requirements, procedures, and criteria for the issuance of licenses to possess:
</P>
<P>(1) Spent fuel, power reactor-related Greater than Class C (GTCC) waste, and other radioactive materials associated with spent fuel storage in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI), or
</P>
<P>(2) Spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, power reactor-related GTCC waste, and other radioactive materials associated with the storage in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS), and the terms and conditions under which the Commission will issue such licenses.
</P>
<P>(d) As provided in part 76 of this chapter, the regulations of this part establish procedures and criteria for physical security and material control and accounting for the issuance of a certificate of compliance or the approval of a compliance plan.
</P>
<P>(e) As provided in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the regulations in this part establish requirements, procedures, and criteria for the issuance of licenses to uranium enrichment facilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, as amended at 32 FR 4056, Mar. 15, 1967; 40 FR 8791, Mar. 3, 1975; 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978; 45 FR 74712, Nov. 12, 1980; 53 FR 31682, Aug. 19, 1988; 59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994; 62 FR 6669, Feb. 12, 1997; 66 FR 51838, Oct. 11, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 70.11 to 70.13, inclusive, the regulations in this part apply to all persons in the United States. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 70.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1898, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.3   License requirements.</HEAD>
<P>No person subject to the regulations in this part shall receive title to, own, acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, or transfer special nuclear material except as authorized in a license issued by the Commission pursuant to these regulations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 2562, Feb. 7, 1967, as amended at 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat 919), including any amendments thereto; 
</P>
<P><I>Acute,</I> as used in this part, means a single radiation dose or chemical exposure event or multiple radiation dose or chemical exposure events occurring within a short time (24 hours or less). 
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> as designated in part 150 of this chapter means any State with which the Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b. of the Act. <I>Non-agreement State</I> means any other State. 
</P>
<P><I>Alert</I> means events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a release of radioactive material[s] but that the release is not expected to require a response by an offsite response organization to protect persons offsite. 
</P>
<P><I>Atomic energy</I> means all forms of energy released in the course of nuclear fission or nuclear transformation; 
</P>
<P><I>Atomic weapon</I> means any device utilizing atomic energy, exclusive of the means for transporting or propelling the device (where such means is a separable and divisible part of the device), the principal purpose of which is for use as, or for development of, a weapon, a weapon prototype, or a weapon test device; 
</P>
<P><I>Available and reliable to perform their function when needed,</I> as used in subpart H of this part, means that, based on the analyzed, credible conditions in the integrated safety analysis, items relied on for safety will perform their intended safety function when needed, and management measures will be implemented that ensure compliance with the performance requirements of § 70.61 of this part, considering factors such as necessary maintenance, operating limits, common-cause failures, and the likelihood and consequences of failure or degradation of the items and measures. 
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means taking any action defined as “construction” or any other activity at the site of a facility subject to the regulations in this part that has a reasonable nexus to:
</P>
<P>(1) Radiological health and safety; or
</P>
<P>(2) Common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives; 
</P>
<P><I>Common defense and security</I> means the common defense and security of the United States; 
</P>
<P><I>Configuration management (CM)</I> means a management measure that provides oversight and control of design information, safety information, and records of modifications (both temporary and permanent) that might impact the ability of items relied on for safety to perform their functions when needed. 
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the installation of foundations, or in-place assembly, erection, fabrication, or testing for any structure, system, or component of a facility or activity subject to the regulations in this part that are related to radiological safety or security. The term “construction” does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Changes for temporary use of the land for public recreational purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Site exploration, including necessary borings to determine foundation conditions or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site, the environmental impacts of construction or operation, or the protection of environmental values;
</P>
<P>(3) Preparation of the site for construction of the facility, including clearing of the site, grading, installation of drainage, erosion and other environmental mitigation measures, and construction of temporary roads and borrow areas;
</P>
<P>(4) Erection of fences and other access control measures that are not related to the safe use of, or security of, radiological materials subject to this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Excavation;
</P>
<P>(6) Erection of support buildings (e.g., construction equipment storage sheds, warehouse and shop facilities, utilities, concrete mixing plants, docking and unloading facilities, and office buildings) for use in connection with the construction of the facility;
</P>
<P>(7) Building of service facilities (e.g., paved roads, parking lots, railroad spurs, exterior utility and lighting systems, potable water systems, sanitary sewerage treatment facilities, and transmission lines);
</P>
<P>(8) Procurement or fabrication of components or portions of the proposed facility occurring at other than the final, in-place location at the facility; or
</P>
<P>(9) Taking any other action that has no reasonable nexus to:
</P>
<P>(i) Radiological health and safety, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Contiguous sites</I> means licensee controlled locations, deemed by the Commission to be in close enough proximity to each other, that the special nuclear material must be considered in the aggregate for the purpose of physical protection. 
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> means the United States Enrichment Corporation (USEC), or its successor, a Corporation that is authorized by statute to lease the gaseous diffusion enrichment plants in Paducah, Kentucky, and Piketon, Ohio, from the Department of Energy, or any person authorized to operate one or both of the gaseous diffusion plants, or other facilities, pursuant to a plan for the privatization of USEC that is approved by the President.
</P>
<P><I>Critical mass of special nuclear material (SNM),</I> as used in Subpart H, means special nuclear material in a quantity exceeding 700 grams of contained uranium-235; 520 grams of uranium-233; 450 grams of plutonium; 1500 grams of contained uranium-235, if no uranium enriched to more than 4 percent by weight of uranium-235 is present; 450 grams of any combination thereof; or one-half such quantities if massive moderators or reflectors made of graphite, heavy water, or beryllium may be present. 
</P>
<P><I>Decommission</I> means to remove a facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits—
</P>
<P>(1) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or
</P>
<P>(2) Release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> and <I>Department of Energy</I> means the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>), to the extent that the Department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the U.S. Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components and transferred to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104(b), (c) and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151). 
</P>
<P><I>Double contingency principle</I> means that process designs should incorporate sufficient factors of safety to require at least two unlikely, independent, and concurrent changes in process conditions before a criticality accident is possible. 
</P>
<P><I>Effective dose equivalent</I> means the sum of the products of the dose equivalent to the body organ or tissue and the weighting factors applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated. Weighting factors are: 0.25 for gonads, 0.15 for breast, 0.12 for red bone marrow, 0.12 for lungs, 0.03 for thyroid, 0.03 for bone surface, and 0.06 for each of the other five organs receiving the highest dose equivalent. 
</P>
<P><I>Effective kilograms of special nuclear material</I> means: (1) For plutonium and uranium-233 their weight in kilograms; (2) For uranium with an enrichment in the isotope U-235 of 0.01 (1%) and above, its element weight in kilograms multiplied by the square of its enrichment expressed as a decimal weight fraction; and (3) For uranium with an enrichment in the isotope U-235 below 0.01 (1%), by its element weight in kilograms multiplied by 0.0001. 
</P>
<P><I>Formula quantity</I> means strategic special nuclear material in any combination in a quantity of 5000 grams or more computed by the formula, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2.5 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium). This class of material is sometimes referred to as a Category I quantity of material. 
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government; 
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous chemicals produced from licensed materials</I> means substances having licensed material as precursor compound(s) or substances that physically or chemically interact with licensed materials; and that are toxic, explosive, flammable, corrosive, or reactive to the extent that they can endanger life or health if not adequately controlled. These include substances commingled with licensed material, and include substances such as hydrogen fluoride that is produced by the reaction of uranium hexafluoride and water, but do not include substances prior to process addition to licensed material or after process separation from licensed material.
</P>
<P><I>Integrated safety analysis (ISA)</I> means a systematic analysis to identify facility and external hazards and their potential for initiating accident sequences, the potential accident sequences, their likelihood and consequences, and the items relied on for safety. As used here, integrated means joint consideration of, and protection from, all relevant hazards, including radiological, nuclear criticality, fire, and chemical. However, with respect to compliance with the regulations of this part, the NRC requirement is limited to consideration of the effects of all relevant hazards on radiological safety, prevention of nuclear criticality accidents, or chemical hazards directly associated with NRC licensed radioactive material. An ISA can be performed process by process, but all processes must be integrated, and process interactions considered. 
</P>
<P><I>Integrated safety analysis summary</I> means a document or documents submitted with the license application, license amendment application, license renewal application, or pursuant to § 70.62(c)(3)(ii) that provides a synopsis of the results of the integrated safety analysis and contains the information specified in § 70.65(b). The ISA Summary can be submitted as one document for the entire facility, or as multiple documents that cover all portions and processes of the facility. 
</P>
<P><I>Items relied on for safety</I> mean structures, systems, equipment, components, and activities of personnel that are relied on to prevent potential accidents at a facility that could exceed the performance requirements in § 70.61 or to mitigate their potential consequences. This does not limit the licensee from identifying additional structures, systems, equipment, components, or activities of personnel (<I>i.e.,</I> beyond those in the minimum set necessary for compliance with the performance requirements) as items relied on for safety. 
</P>
<P><I>License,</I> except where otherwise specified, means a license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part; 
</P>
<P><I>Management measures</I> mean the functions performed by the licensee, generally on a continuing basis, that are applied to items relied on for safety, to ensure the items are available and reliable to perform their functions when needed. Management measures include configuration management, maintenance, training and qualifications, procedures, audits and assessments, incident investigations, records management, and other quality assurance elements. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means (1) any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission or the Department, except that the Department shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244), any State or any political subdivision of or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing; 


</P>
<P><I>Plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant</I> means a plant in which the following operations or activities are conducted: 
</P>
<P>(1) Operations for manufacture of reactor fuel containing plutonium including any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Preparation of fuel material; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Formation of fuel material into desired shapes; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Application of protective cladding; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Recovery of scrap material; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Storage associated with such operations; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Research and development activities involving any of the operations described in paragraph (1) of this definition except for research and development activities utilizing unsubstantial amounts of plutonium. 


</P>
<P><I>Principal activities,</I> as used in this part, means activities authorized by the license which are essential to achieving the purpose(s) for which the license was issued or amended. Storage during which no licensed material is accessed for use or disposal and activities incidental to decontamination or decommissioning are not principal activities. 


</P>
<P><I>Produce,</I> when used in relation to special nuclear material, means 
</P>
<P>(1) To manufacture, make, produce, or refine special nuclear material; </P>
<P>(2) To separate special nuclear material from other substances in which such material may be contained; or 
</P>
<P>(3) To make or to produce new special nuclear material; 




</P>
<P><I>Research and development</I> means (1) theoretical analysis, exploration, or experimentation; or (2) the extension of investigative findings and theories of a scientific or technical nature into practical application for experimental and demonstration purposes, including the experimental production and testing of models, devices, equipment, materials, and processes; 


</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data</I> means all data concerning 
</P>
<P>(1) Design, manufacture or utilization of atomic weapons; 
</P>
<P>(2) The production of special nuclear material; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but shall not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142 of the Act; 




</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any special nuclear material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P><I>Site Area emergency</I> means events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a significant release of radioactive material and that could require a response by offsite response organizations to protect persons offsite.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means source material as defined in section 11z. of the Act and in the regulations contained in part 40 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means (1) plutonium, uranium 233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the act, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or (2) any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing but does not include source material; 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material of low strategic significance</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Less than an amount of special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of strategic nuclear material of moderate strategic significance in this section, but more than 15 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in U-235 isotope) or 15 grams of uranium-233 or 15 grams of plutonium or the combination of 15 grams when computed by the equation, grams = (grams contained U-235) + (grams plutonium) + (grams U-233); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Less than 10,000 grams but more than 1,000 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 10 percent or more but less than 20 percent in the U-235 isotope); or 
</P>
<P>(3) 10,000 grams or more of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched above natural but less than 10 percent in the U-235 isotope). This class of material is sometimes referred to as a Category III quantity of material. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Less than a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material but more than 1,000 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope) or more than 500 grams of uranium-233 or plutonium, or in a combined quantity of more than 1,000 grams when computed by the equation, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium); or 
</P>
<P>(2) 10,000 grams or more of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 10 percent or more but less than 20 percent in the U-235 isotope). This class of material is sometimes referred to as a Category II quantity of material. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material scrap</I> means the various forms of special nuclear material generated during chemical and mechanical processing, other than recycle material and normal process intermediates, which are unsuitable for use in their present form, but all or part of which will be used after further processing. 
</P>
<P><I>Strategic special nuclear material</I> means uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope), uranium-233, or plutonium.
</P>
<P><I>Transient shipment</I> means a shipment of nuclear material, originating and terminating in foreign countries, on a vessel or aircraft which stops at a United States port.
</P>
<P><I>Unacceptable performance deficiencies</I> mean deficiencies in the items relied on for safety or the management measures that need to be corrected to ensure an adequate level of protection as defined in 10 CFR 70.61(b), (c), or (d). 
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Uranium enrichment facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any facility used for separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device, or important component part especially designed for such equipment or device, capable of separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235.
</P>
<P><I>Worker,</I> when used in subpart H of this part, means an individual who receives an occupational dose as defined in 10 CFR 20.1003.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 70.4, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise specified or covered under the regional licensing program as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, any communication or report concerning the regulations in this part and any application filed under these regulations may be submitted to the Commission as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. 
</P>
<P>(2) By hand delivery to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response at the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, and CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I>; by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. 
</P>
<P>(4) Classified communications shall be transmitted to the NRC Headquarters' classified mailing address as specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter or delivered by hand in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission has delegated to the four Regional Administrators licensing authority for selected parts of its decentralized licensing program for nuclear materials as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Any communication, report, or application covered under this licensing program must be submitted to the appropriate Regional Administrator. The Administrators' jurisdictions and mailing addresses are listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The delegated licensing program includes authority to issue, renew, amend, cancel, modify, suspend, or revoke licenses for nuclear materials issued pursuant to 10 CFR parts 30 through 36, 39, 40, and 70 to all persons for academic, medical, and industrial uses, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) Activities in the fuel cycle and special nuclear material in quantities sufficient to constitute a critical mass in any room or area. This exception does not apply to license modifications relating to termination of special nuclear material licenses that authorize possession of larger quantities when the case is referred for action from NRC's Headquarters to the Regional Administrators.
</P>
<P>(ii) Health and safety design review of sealed sources and devices and approval, for licensing purposes, of sealed sources and devices.
</P>
<P>(iii) Processing of source material for extracting of metallic compounds (including Zirconium, Hafnium, Tantalum, Titanium, Niobium, etc.).
</P>
<P>(iv) Distribution of products containing radioactive material under §§ 32.11 through 32.30 and 40.52 of this chapter to persons exempt from licensing requirements.
</P>
<P>(v) New uses or techniques for use of byproduct, source, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(vi) Reviews pursuant to § 70.32(c).
</P>
<P>(vii) Uranium enrichment facilities.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submissions</I>—(i) <I>Region I.</I> The regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region I non-Agreement States and the District of Columbia: Connecticut, Delaware, and Vermont. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region I, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415; where email is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn1MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Region II.</I> The regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region II non-Agreement States and territories: West Virginia, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region I, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415; where e-mail is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn1MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Region III.</I> (A) The regional licensing program for mining and milling involves all Federal facilities in the region, and non-Federal licensees in the Region III non-Agreement States of Indiana, Michigan, Missouri and Region III Agreement States of Minnesota, Wisconsin, and Iowa. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, renewal, or termination request of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region III, Material Licensing Section, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352; where e-mail is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn3MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Otherwise, the regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region III non-Agreement States: Indiana, Michigan, and Missouri. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment, or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region III, Material Licensing Section, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352; where e-mail is appropriate it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn3MailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> Outside of this jurisdiction, concerning the licensing program involving mining and milling, the Agreement States of Illinois and Ohio should be contacted.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Region IV.</I> (A) The regional licensing program for mining and milling involves all Federal facilities in the region, and non-Federal licensees in the Region IV non-Agreement States and territory of Alaska, Hawaii, Idaho, Montana, South Dakota, Wyoming and Guam and Region IV Agreement States of Oregon, California, Nevada, New Mexico, Louisiana, Mississippi, Arkansas, Oklahoma, Kansas, Nebraska, and North Dakota. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region IV, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511; where email is appropriate, it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Otherwise, the regional licensing program involves all Federal facilities in the region and non-Federal licensees in the following Region IV non-Agreement States and territory: Alaska, Hawaii, Idaho, Montana, South Dakota, Wyoming, and Guam. All mailed or hand-delivered inquiries, communications, and applications for a new license or an amendment or renewal of an existing license specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must use the following address: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region IV, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511; where email is appropriate, it should be addressed to <I>RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</I> Outside of this jurisdiction, concerning the licensing program involving mining and milling, the Agreement States of Colorado, Utah, Texas and Washington should be contacted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16032, Apr. 14, 1983]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 70.5, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.6   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, as amended at 90 FR 55632, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.7   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act. 
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text. 
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages. 
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraphs (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, an applicant for a Commission license, or a contractor or subcontractor of a Commission licensee or applicant may be grounds for—
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license. 
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each specific licensee, each applicant for a specific license, and each general licensee subject to part 19 shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(c). 
</P>
<P>(2) The posting of NRC Form 3 must be at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license, and for 30 days following license termination.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 52413, Oct. 8, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 61 FR 6765, Feb. 22, 1996; 68 FR 58816, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63974, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30459, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66605, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0009.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 70.9, 70.17, 70.19, 70.20a, 70.20b, 70.21, 70.22, 70.24, 70.25, 70.32, 70.33, 70.34, 70.38, 70.39, 70.42, 70.50, 70.51, 70.52, 70.59, 70.61, 70.62, 70.64, 70.65, 70.72, 70.73, 70.74, and appendix A. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) In § 70.21(g), Form N-71 and associated forms are approved under control number 3150-0056.
</P>
<P>(2) In § 70.38, NRC form 314 is approved under control number 3150-0028.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 70.21(g), DOC/NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control number 0694-0135.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19628, May 9, 1984, as amended at 52 FR 19305, May 22, 1987; 56 FR 40769, Aug. 16, 1991; 57 FR 18392, Apr. 30, 1992; 58 FR 39634, July 26, 1993; 62 FR 52189, Oct. 6, 1997; 65 FR 56225, Sept. 18, 2000; 67 FR 78142, Dec. 23, 2003; 73 FR 78606, Dec. 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.9   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant or licensee shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant or licensee violates this paragraph only if the applicant or licensee fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant or licensee has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification shall be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within two working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49373, Dec. 31, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.1.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.10   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, applicant for a license, employee of a licensee or applicant; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or applicant for a license, who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities in this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, an applicant, or a licensee's or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1899, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.2.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.11   Persons using special nuclear material under certain Department of Energy and Nuclear Regulatory Commission contracts.</HEAD>
<P>Except to the extent that Department facilities or activities of the types subject to licensing pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 are involved, any prime contractor of the Department is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 53 of the Act and from the regulations in this part to the extent that such contractor, under his prime contract with the Department receives title to, owns, acquires, delivers, receives, possesses, uses, or transfers special nuclear material for: 
</P>
<P>(a) The performance of work for the Department at a United States Government-owned or controlled site, including the transportation of special nuclear material to or from such site and the performance of contract services during temporary interruptions of such transportation; (b) research in, or development, manufacture, storage, testing or transportation of, atomic weapons or components thereof; or (c) the use or operation of nuclear reactors or other nuclear devices in a United States Government-owned vehicle or vessel. In addition to the foregoing exemptions, and subject to the requirement for licensing of Department facilities and activities pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, any prime contractor or subcontractor of the Department or the Commission is exempt from the requirements for a license set forth in section 53 of the Act and from the regulations in this part to the extent that such prime contractor or subcontractor receives title to, owns, acquires, delivers, receives, possesses, uses, or transfers special nuclear material under his prime contract or subcontract when the Commission determines that the exemption of the prime contractor or subcontractor is authorized by law; and that, under the terms of the contract or subcontract there is adequate assurance that the work thereunder can be accomplished without undue risk to the public health and safety. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 14085, Mar. 28, 1975; 40 FR 16047, Apr. 9, 1975, as amended at 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978; 65 FR 54950, Sept. 12, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.2.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.12   Carriers.</HEAD>
<P>Common and contract carriers, freight forwarders, warehousemen, and the U.S. Postal Service are exempt from the regulations in this part to the extent that they transport special nuclear material in the regular course of carriage for another or storage incident thereto. This exemption does not apply to the storage in transit or transport of material by persons covered by the general license issued under § 70.20a and § 70.20b.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 12696, Feb. 18, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.2.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.13   Department of Defense.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part do not apply to the Department of Defense to the extent that the Department receives, possesses and uses special nuclear material in accordance with the direction of the President pursuant to section 91 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.14" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.2.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.14   Foreign military aircraft.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part do not apply to persons who carry special nuclear material (other than plutonium) in aircraft of the armed forces of foreign nations subject to 49 U.S.C. 40103(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 15012, Mar. 27, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.2.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.17   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) The DOE is exempt from the requirements of the regulations in this part to the extent that its activities are subject to the requirements of part 60 or part 63 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) Except as specifically provided in part 61 of this chapter, any licensee is exempt from the requirements of the regulations in this part to the extent that its activities are subject to the requirements of part 61 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 5749, Mar. 21, 1972, as amended at 45 FR 65536, Oct. 3, 1980; 46 FR 13987, Feb. 25, 1981; 47 FR 57481, Dec. 27, 1982; Redesignated at 65 FR 56225, Sept. 18, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 55815, Nov. 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—General Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.18" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.3.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.18   Types of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Licenses for special nuclear material are of two types: general and specific. Any general license provided in this part is effective without the filing of applications with the Commission or the issuance of licensing documents to particular persons. Specific licenses are issued to named persons upon applications filed pursuant to the regulations in this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 5884, May 5, 1964] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.3.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.19   General license for calibration or reference sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to those persons listed below to receive title to, own, acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use and transfer in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, plutonium in the form of calibration or reference sources: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any person in a non-agreement State who holds a specific license issued by the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission which authorizes him to receive, possess, use and transfer byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any Government agency as defined in § 70.4 that holds a specific license issued by the Commission that authorizes it to receive, possess, use, or transfer byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any person in an agreement State who holds a specific license issued by the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission which authorizes him to receive, possess, use and transfer special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(b) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section applies only to calibration or reference sources which have been manufactured or initially transferred in accordance with the specifications contained in a specific license issued pursuant to § 70.39 or in accordance with the specifications contained in a specific license issued by an agreement State which authorizes manufacture of the sources for distribution to persons generally licensed by the agreement State. 
</P>
<P>(c) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section is subject to the provisions of §§ 70.32, 70.50, 70.55, 70.56, 70.91, 70.81, and 70.82; the provisions of §§ 74.11 and 74.19 of this chapter; and to the provisions of parts 19, 20, and 21 of this chapter. In addition, persons who receive title to own, acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use or transfer one or more calibration or reference sources under this general license:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not possess at any one time, at any one location of storage or use, more than 5 microcuries of plutonium in such sources; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not receive, possess, use or transfer such source unless the source, or the storage container, bears a label which includes the following statement or a substantially similar statement which contains the information called for in the following statement: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Sources generally licensed under this section prior to January 19, 1975 may bear labels authorized by the regulations in effect on January 1, 1975.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The receipt, possession, use and transfer of this source, Model ______, Serial No. ______, are subject to a general license and the regulations of the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission or of a State with which the Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label.
</P>
<HD1>caution—radioactive material—this source contains plutonium. do not touch radioactive portion of this source. 
</HD1>
<HD3>(Name of Manufacturer or Initial Transferor)</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Shall not transfer, abandon, or dispose of such source except by transfer to a person authorized by a license from the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission or an Agreement State to receive the source. 
</P>
<P>(4) Shall store such source, except when the source is being used, in a closed container adequately designed and constructed to contain plutonium which might otherwise escape during storage. 
</P>
<P>(5) Shall not use such source for any purpose other than the calibration of radiation detectors or the standardization of other sources. 
</P>
<P>(d) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section does not authorize the manufacture, import, or export of calibration or reference sources containing plutonium. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 5884, May 5, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 8124, June 7, 1967; 38 FR 22221, Aug. 17, 1973; 40 FR 8792, Mar. 3, 1975; 42 FR 28896, June 6, 1977; 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978; 48 FR 32329, July 15, 1983; 56 FR 40769, Aug. 16, 1991; 57 FR 33428, July 29, 1992; 67 FR 78142, Dec. 23, 2002; 72 FR 35145, June 27, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.3.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.20   General license to own special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>A general license is hereby issued to receive title to and own special nuclear material without regard to quantity. Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a general licensee under this section is not authorized to acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, transfer, import, or export special nuclear material, except as authorized in a specific license. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 9810, July 9, 1968] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.20a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.3.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.20a   General license to possess special nuclear material for transport.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to any person to possess formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material of the types and quantities subject to the requirements of §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26 and 73.27 of this chapter, and irradiated reactor fuel containing material of the types and quantities subject to the requirements of § 73.37 of this chapter, in the regular course of carriage for another or storage incident. Carriers generally licensed under § 70.20b are exempt from the requirements of this section. Carriers of irradiated reactor fuel for the United States Department of Energy are also exempt from the requirements of this section. The general license is subject to the applicable provisions of §§ 70.7 (a) through (e), 70.32 (a) and (b), and §§ 70.42, 70.52, 70.55, 70.91, 70.81, 70.82 and 10 CFR 74.11.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the general license issued under this section does not authorize any person to conduct any activity that would be authorized by a license issued pursuant to parts 30 through 36, 39, 40, 50, 53, 72, 110, or other sections of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the duties of a general licensee under this section while in possession of formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material or irradiated reactor fuel in the regular course of carriage for another or storage incident thereto shall be limited to providing for the physical protection of such material against theft or sabotage. Unless otherwise provided by this section, a general license under this section is not subject to the requirements of parts 19, 20, 70 and 73.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who possesses formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material under this general license: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall have submitted and received approval of a transportation security plan. The security plan shall outline the procedures that will be used to meet the requirements of §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26, 73.27 and 73.70(g) of this chapter including a plan for the selection, qualification, and training of armed escorts, or the specification and design of a specially designed truck or trailer as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall assure that the transportation is in accordance with the applicable physical protection requirements of §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26, 73.27 and 73.70(g) of this chapter and the applicable approved transportation security plan. 
</P>
<P>(3) Shall be subject to part 26 and § 73.80 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any person who possesses irradiated reactor fuel under this general license shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Assure or receive certification from the shipper that the transportation is in accordance with the applicable physical protection requirements of § 73.37 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the reporting requirements of § 73.1200 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 26851, May 8, 1979, as amended at 44 FR 68186, Nov. 28, 1979; 46 FR 12696, Feb. 18, 1981; 47 FR 30458, July 14, 1982; 53 FR 31682, Aug. 19, 1988; 58 FR 7737, Feb. 9, 1993; 58 FR 31471, June 3, 1993; 67 FR 78142, Dec. 23, 2002; 72 FR 35145, June 27, 2007; 88 FR 15881, Mar. 14, 2023; 91 FR 15868, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.20b" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.3.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.20b   General license for carriers of transient shipments of formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, special nuclear material of low strategic significance, and irradiated reactor fuel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is hereby issued to any person to possess transient shipments of the following kinds and quantities of special nuclear material: 
</P>
<P>(1) A formula quantity of special nuclear material of the types and quantities subject to the requirements of §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26, and 73.27 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) Special nuclear material of moderate and low strategic significance of the types and quantities subject to the requirements of § 73.67 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) Irradiated reactor fuel of the type and quantity subject to the requirements of § 73.37 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Persons generally licensed under this section are exempt from the requirements of parts 19 and 20 of this chapter and the requirements of this part, except §§ 70.32 (a) and (b), 70.52, 70.55, 70.91, 70.81, and 70.82.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons generally licensed under this section to possess a transient shipment of special nuclear material of the kind and quantity specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall provide physical protection for that shipment in accordance with or equivalent to §§ 73.20(a), 73.20(b), 73.25, and 73.1200 of this chapter from the time a shipment enters a United States port until it exits that or another United States port. 
</P>
<P>(d) Persons generally licensed under this section to possess a transient shipment of special nuclear material of moderate or low strategic significance of the kind and quantity specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall provide physical protection for that shipment in accordance with or equivalent to § 73.67 of this chapter and shall comply with the requirements of § 73.1200 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) Persons generally licensed under this section to possess a transient shipment of irradiated reactor fuel of the kind and quantity specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall provide physical protection for that shipment in accordance with or equivalent to § 73.37 of this chapter and shall comply with the requirements of § 73.1200 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Persons generally licensed under this section, who plan to carry transient shipments with scheduled stops at United States ports, shall notify in writing the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a). Classified notifications shall be sent to the NRC headquarters classified mailing address listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) A person generally licensed under this section shall assure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The notification will be received at least 10 days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipping facility; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The NRC Headquarters Operations Center shall be notified by telephone at least 2 days before commencement of the shipment at the numbers listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter. Classified notifications shall be made by secure telephone. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The NRC Headquarters Operations Center shall be notified by telephone of schedule changes greater than ±6 hours at the numbers listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter. Classified notifications shall be made by secure telephone. 
</P>
<P>(3) Persons who are generally licensed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include the information listed in paragraphs (f)(3)(i) through (ix) of this section. Persons who are generally licensed under § 70.20b(a)(2) and § 70.20b(a)(3) must include the information listed in paragraphs (f)(3) (i) through (viii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) Location of all scheduled stops in United States territory; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Arrival and departure times for all scheduled stops in United States territory; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of transport vehicle; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A physical description of the shipment (elements, isotopes, and enrichments); 
</P>
<P>(v) The number and types of containers; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The name and telephone number of the carrier's representative at each stopover location in United States territory; 
</P>
<P>(vii) The estimated time and date that shipment will commence and that each country (other than the United States) along the route is scheduled to be entered; 
</P>
<P>(viii) For shipments between countries that are not party to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material, provide assurances, as far as is practicable, that this nuclear material will be protected during international transport at levels described in Annex I to that Convention (see appendices E and F of part 73 of this chapter); and 
</P>
<P>(ix) A physical protection plan for implementing the requirement of § 70.20b(c), which will include the use of armed personnel to protect the shipment during the time the shipment is in a United States port. 
</P>
<P>(g) Persons generally licensed under this section making unscheduled stops at United States ports, immediately after the decision to make an unscheduled stop, shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide to the Director, Office of Security Policy and Incident Response, the information required under paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of persons generally licensed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, arrange for local law enforcement authorities or trained and qualified private guards to protect the shipment during the stop. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of persons generally licensed under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, arrange for the shipment to be protected as required in § 73.67(e) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of persons generally licensed under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, arrange for the shipment to be protected as required in § 73.37(e) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(5) Implement these arrangements within a reasonable time after the arrival of the shipment at a United States port to remain in effect until the shipment exits that or another United States port. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9652, Mar. 26, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 67 FR 3585, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 14529, Mar. 26, 2003; 68 FR 23575, May 5, 2003; 68 FR 58817, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 35145, June 27, 2007; 74 FR 62683, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 88 FR 15881, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—License Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.4.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.21   Filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A person may apply for a license to possess and use special nuclear material in a plutonium processing or fuel fabrication plant, or for a uranium enrichment facility license, by filing the application with the Director of the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards in accordance with the instructions in § 70.5(a). If the application is on paper or CD-ROM, only one copy need be provided. If the application is to be submitted electronically, see guidance for electronic submissions to the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(2) A person may apply for any other license issued under this part, by filing the application in accordance with the instructions in § 70.5(a). If the application is on paper, only one copy need be provided. If the application is to be submitted electronically, see guidance for electronic submissions to the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) Information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission may be incorporated by reference if the references are clear and specific. 
</P>
<P>(b) An application for license filed pursuant to the regulations in this part will be considered also as an application for licenses authorizing other activities for which licenses are required by the Act, provided the application specifies the additional activities for which licenses are requested and complies with regulations of the Commission as to applications for such licenses. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any application which contains Restricted Data shall be prepared in such manner that all Restricted Data are separated from the unclassified information. 
</P>
<P>(d) Applications and documents submitted to the Commission in connection with applications may be made available for public inspection in accordance with the provisions of the regulations contained in part 2 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) Each application for a special nuclear material license, other than a license exempted from part 170 of this chapter, shall be accompanied by the fee prescribed in § 170.31 of this chapter. No fee will be required to accompany an application for renewal or amendment of a license, except as provided in § 170.31 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f) An application for a license to possess and use special nuclear material for processing and fuel fabrication, scrap recovery or conversion of uranium hexafluoride, or for the conduct of any other activity which the Commission has determined pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter will significantly affect the quality of the environment shall be filed at least 9 months prior to commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted, and shall be accompanied by an Environmental Report required under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(g)(1) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for a construction authorization or license and each recipient of a construction authorization or a license to possess and use special nuclear material shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(2) As required by the Additional Protocol, applicants and licensees specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; and
</P>
<P>(3) Shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and take other action as necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in Part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) A license application for a uranium enrichment facility must be accompanied by an Environmental Report required under subpart A of part 51 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, as amended at 23 FR 1122, Feb. 21, 1958; 31 FR 4670, Mar. 19, 1966; 34 FR 19546, Dec. 11, 1969; 36 FR 146, Jan. 6, 1971; 37 FR 5749, Mar. 21, 1972; 49 FR 9406, Mar. 12, 1984; 49 FR 19628, 19632, May 9, 1984; 49 FR 21699, May 23, 1984; 57 FR 18392, Apr. 30, 1992; 68 FR 58817, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 78606, Dec. 23, 2008; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.4.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.22   Contents of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application for a license shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The full name, address, age (if an individual), and citizenship of the applicant and the names and addresses of three personal references. If the applicant is a corporation or other entity, it shall indicate the State where it was incorporated or organized, the location of the principal office, the names, addresses, and citizenship of its principal officers, and shall include information known to the applicant concerning the control or ownership, if any, exercised over the applicant by any alien, foreign corporation, or foreign government; 
</P>
<P>(2) The activity for which the special nuclear material is requested, or in which special nuclear material will be produced, the place at which the activity is to be performed and the general plan for carrying out the activity; 
</P>
<P>(3) The period of time for which the license is requested; 
</P>
<P>(4) The name, amount, and specifications (including the chemical and physical form and, where applicable, isotopic content) of the special nuclear material the applicant proposes to use or produce; 
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(6) The technical qualifications, including training and experience of the applicant and members of his staff to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(7) A description of equipment and facilities which will be used by the applicant to protect health and minimize danger to life or property (such as handling devices, working areas, shields, measuring and monitoring instruments, devices for the disposal of radioactive effluents and wastes, storage facilities, criticality accident alarm systems, etc.); 
</P>
<P>(8) Proposed procedures to protect health and minimize danger to life or property (such as procedures to avoid accidental criticality, procedures for personnel monitoring and waste disposal, post-criticality accident emergency procedures, etc.).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where the nature of the proposed activities is such as to require consideration of the applicant's financial qualifications to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this chapter, the Commission may request the applicant to submit information with respect to his financial qualifications.</P></NOTE>
<P>(9) As provided by § 70.25, certain applications for specific licenses filed under this part must contain a proposed decommissioning funding plan or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning. In the case of renewal applications submitted on or before July 27, 1990, this submittal may follow the renewal application but must be submitted on or before July 27, 1990.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application for a license to possess special nuclear material, to possess equipment capable of enriching uranium, to operate an uranium enrichment facility, to possess and use at any one time and location special nuclear material in a quantity exceeding one effective kilogram, except for applications for use as sealed sources and for those uses involved in the operation of a nuclear reactor licensed pursuant to part 50 or part 53 of this chapter and those involved in a waste disposal operation, must contain a full description of the applicant's program for control and accounting of such special nuclear material or enrichment equipment that will be in the applicant's possession under license to show how compliance with the requirements of §§ 74.31, 74.33, 74.41, or 74.51 of this chapter, as applicable, will be accomplished. 
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission may at any time after the filing of the original application, and before the expiration of the license, require further statements in order to enable the Commission to determine whether the application should be granted or denied or whether a license should be modified or revoked. All applications and statements shall be signed by the applicant or licensee or a corporate officer thereof. 
</P>
<P>(e) Each application and statement shall contain complete and accurate disclosure as to all matters and things required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(f) Each application for a license to possess and use special nuclear material in a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant shall contain, in addition to the other information required by this section, a description of the plantsite, a description and safety assessment of the design bases of the principal structure, systems, and components of the plant, including provisions for protection against natural phenomena, and a description of the quality assurance program to be applied to the design, fabrication, construction, testing and operation of the structures, systems, and components of the plant. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The description of the quality assurance program should include a discussion of how the criteria in appendix B of part 50 or part 53 of this chapter will be met.</P></FTNT>
<P>(g)(1) Each application for a license that would authorize the transport or delivery to a carrier for transport of special nuclear material in an amount specified in § 73.1(b)(2) of this chapter must include (i) a description of the plan for physical protection of special nuclear material in transit in accordance with §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26, 73.27, and 73.67 (a), (e), and (g) for 10 kg or more of special nuclear material of low strategic significance, and § 73.70(g) of this chapter including, as appropriate, a plan for the selection, qualification, and training of armed escorts, or the specification and design of a specially designed truck or trailer, and (ii) a licensee safeguards contingency plan or response procedures, as appropriate, for dealing with threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage relating to the special nuclear material in transit.
</P>
<P>(2) Each application for such a license involving formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material must include the first four categories of information contained in the applicant's safeguards contingency plan. (The first four categories of information, as set forth in appendix C to part 73 of this chapter, are Background, Generic Planning Base, Licensee Planning Base, and Responsibility Matrix. The fifth category of information, Procedures, does not have to be submitted for approval.)
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall retain this description of the plan for physical protection of special nuclear material in transit and the safeguards contingency plan or safeguards response procedures and each change to the plan or procedures as a record for a period of three years following the date on which the licensee last possessed the appropriate type and quantity of special nuclear material requiring this record under each license.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Each application for a license to possess or use, at any site or contiguous sites subject to licensee control, a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material, as defined in § 70.4, other than a license for possession or use of this material in the operation of a nuclear reactor licensed pursuant to part 50 or part 53 of this chapter, must include a physical security plan. The plan must describe how the applicant will meet the applicable requirements of part 73 of this chapter in the conduct of the activity to be licensed, including the identification and description of jobs as required by 10 CFR 11.11(a). The plan must list tests, inspections, audits, and other means to be used to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of 10 CFR parts 11 and 73, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall retain a copy of this physical security plan and each change to the plan as a record for a period of three years following the date on which the licensee last possessed the appropriate type and quantity of special nuclear material requiring this record under each license.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) Each application to possess enriched uranium or plutonium for which a criticality accident alarm system is required, uranium hexafluoride in excess of 50 kilograms in a single container or 1000 kilograms total, or in excess of 2 curies of plutonium in unsealed form or on foils or plated sources, must contain either: 
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation showing that the maximum dose to a member of the public offsite due to a release of radioactive materials would not exceed 1 rem effective dose equivalent or an intake of 2 milligrams of soluble uranium, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An emergency plan for responding to the radiological hazards of an accidental release of special nuclear material and to any associated chemical hazards directly incident thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the following factors may be used to support an evaluation submitted under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) The radioactive material is physically separated so that only a portion could be involved in an accident; 
</P>
<P>(ii) All or part of the radioactive material is not subject to release during an accident or to criticality because of the way it is stored or packaged;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of fires or explosions, the release fraction would be lower than 0.001 due to the chemical or physical form of the material; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The solubility of the material released would reduce the dose received; 
</P>
<P>(v) The facility design or engineered safety features in the facility would cause the release fraction to be lower than 0.001; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Operating restrictions or procedures would prevent a release large enough to cause a member of the public offsite to receive a dose exceeding 1 rem effective dose equivalent; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Other factors appropriate for the specific facility. 
</P>
<P>(3) Emergency plans submitted under paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section must include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Facility description.</I> A brief description of the licensee's facility and area near the site. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Types of accidents.</I> An identification of each type of radioactive materials accident for which protective actions may be needed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Classification of accidents.</I> A classification system for classifying accidents as alerts or site area emergencies. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Detection of accidents.</I> Identification of the means of detecting each type of accident in a timely manner. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Mitigation of consequences.</I> A brief description of the means and equipment for mitigating the consequences of each type of accident, including those provided to protect workers onsite, and a description of the program for maintaining the equipment. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Assessment of releases.</I> A brief description of the methods and equipment to assess releases of radioactive materials. 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Responsibilities.</I> A brief description of the responsibilities of licensee personnel should an accident occur, including identification of personnel responsible for promptly notifying offsite response organizations and the NRC; also responsibilities for developing, maintaining, and updating the plan. 


</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Notification and coordination.</I> A commitment to and a brief description of the means to promptly notify offsite response organizations and request offsite assistance, including medical assistance for the treatment of contaminated injured onsite workers when appropriate. A control point must be established. The notification and coordination must be planned so that unavailability of some personnel, parts of the facility, and some equipment will not prevent the notification and coordination. The licensee shall also commit to notify the NRC operations center immediately after notification of the appropriate offsite response organizations and not later than one hour after the licensee declares an emergency. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> These reporting requirements do not supersede or release licensees of complying with the requirements under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Public Law 99-499 or other state or Federal reporting requirements.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ix) Information to be communicated. A brief description of the types of information on facility status, radioactive releases, and recommended protective actions, if necessary, to be given to offsite response organizations and to the NRC. 
</P>
<P>(x) Training. A brief description of the frequency, performance objectives and plans for the training that the licensee will provide workers on how to respond to an emergency including any special instructions and orientation tours the licensee would offer to fire, police, medical and other emergency personnel. The training shall familiarize personnel with site-specific emergency procedures. Also, the training shall thoroughly prepare site personnel for their responsibilities in the event of accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site, including the use of team training for such scenarios. 
</P>
<P>(xi) Safe shutdown. A brief description of the means of restoring the facility to a safe condition after an accident. 
</P>
<P>(xii) Exercises. Provisions for conducting quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations and biennial onsite exercises to test response to simulated emergencies. Quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations must include the check and update of all necessary telephone numbers. The licensee shall invite offsite response organizations to participate in the biennial exercises. Participation of offsite response organizations in biennial exercises although recommended is not required. Exercises must use accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site and the scenarios shall not be known to most exercise participants. The licensee shall critique each exercise using individuals not having direct implementation responsibility for the plan. Critiques of exercises must evaluate the appropriateness of the plan, emergency procedures, facilities, equipment, training of personnel, and overall effectiveness of the response. Deficiencies found by the critiques must be corrected. 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Hazardous chemicals. A certification that the applicant has met its responsibilities under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Pub. L. 99-499, if applicable to the applicant's activities at the proposed place of use of the special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall allow the offsite response organizations expected to respond in case of an accident 60 days to comment on the licensee's emergency plan before submitting it to NRC. The licensee shall provide any comments received within the 60 days to the NRC with the emergency plan. 
</P>
<P>(j)(1) Each application for a license to possess or use at any site or contiguous sites subject to control by the licensee uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the uranium-235 isotope), uranium-233, or plutonium alone or in any combination in a quantity of 5,000 grams or more computed by the formula, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2.5 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium) other than a license for possession or use of this material in the operation of a nuclear reactor licensed pursuant to part 50 or part 53 of this chapter, must include a licensee safeguards contingency plan for dealing with threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage, as defined in part 73 of this chapter, relating to nuclear facilities licensed under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter or to the possession of special nuclear material licensed under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Each application for such a license must include the first four categories of information contained in the applicant's safeguards contingency plan. (The first four categories of information, as set forth in appendix C to part 73 of this chapter, are Background, Generic Planning Base, Licensee Planning Base, and Responsibility Matrix.) The fifth category of information, Procedures, does not have to be submitted for approval.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall retain a copy of this safeguards contingency plan as a record until the Commission terminates each license obtained by this application or any application for renewal of a license and retain each change to the plan as a record for three years after the date of the change.
</P>
<P>(k) Each application for a license to possess or use at any site or contiguous sites subject to licensee control, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance or 10 kg or more of special nuclear material of low strategic significance as defined under § 70.4, other than a license for possession or use of this material in the operation of a nuclear power reactor licensed pursuant to part 50 or part 53 of this chapter, must include a physical security plan that demonstrates how the applicant plans to meet the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (g) of § 73.67 of this chapter, as appropriate. The licensee shall retain a copy of this physical security plan as a record for the period during which the licensee possesses the appropriate type and quantity of special nuclear material under each license, and if any portion of the plan is superseded, retain that superseded portion of the plan for 3 years after the effective date of the change. 
</P>
<P>(l) Each applicant for a license shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22, or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable, and shall protect classified information in accordance with the requirements of parts 25 and 95 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(m) Each application for a license to possess equipment capable of enriching uranium or operate an enrichment facility, and produce, possess, or use more than one effective kilogram of special nuclear material at any site or contiguous sites subject to control by the applicant, must contain a full description of the applicant's security program to protect against theft, and to protect against unauthorized viewing of classified enrichment equipment, and unauthorized disclosure of classified matter in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR parts 25 and 95.
</P>
<P>(n) A license application that involves the use of special nuclear material in a uranium enrichment facility must include the applicant's provisions for liability insurance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 70.22, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.4.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.23   Requirements for the approval of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a license will be approved if the Commission determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The special nuclear material is to be used for the conduct of research or development activities of a type specified in section 31 of the Act, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in activities licensed by the Commission under section 103 or 104 of the Act, or for such other uses as the Commission determines to be appropriate to carry out the purposes of the Act; 


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The types of research and development activities specified in section 31 are those relating to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Nuclear processes; 
</P>
<P>(2) The theory and production of atomic energy, including processes, materials, and devices related to such production; 
</P>
<P>(3) Utilization of special nuclear material and radioactive material for medical, biological, agricultural, health or military purposes; 
</P>
<P>(4) Utilization of special nuclear material, atomic energy, and radioactive material and processes entailed in the utilization or production of atomic energy or such material for all other purposes, including industrial use, the generation of usable energy, and the demonstration of the practical value of utilization or production facilities for industrial or commercial purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The protection of health and the promotion of safety during research and production activities.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The applicant is qualified by reason of training and experience to use the material for the purpose requested in accordance with the regulations in this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's proposed equipment and facilities are adequate to protect health and minimize danger to life or property; 
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant's proposed procedures to protect health and to minimize danger to life or property are adequate; 
</P>
<P>(5) Where the nature of the proposed activities is such as to require consideration by the Commission, that the applicant appears to be financially qualified to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this part; 
</P>
<P>(6) Where the applicant is required to submit a summary description of the fundamental material controls provided in his procedures for the control of and accounting for special nuclear material pursuant to § 70.22 (b), the applicant's proposed controls are adequate; 
</P>
<P>(7) Where the proposed activity is processing and fuel fabrication, scrap recovery, conversion of uranium hexafluoride, uranium enrichment facility construction and operation, or any other activity which the NRC determines will significantly affect the quality of the environment, the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or his/her designee, before commencement of construction of the plant or facility in which the activity will be conducted, on the basis of information filed and evaluations made pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter, has concluded, after weighing the environmental, economic, technical, and other benefits against environmental costs and considering available alternatives, that the action called for is the issuance of the proposed license, with any appropriate conditions to protect environmental values. Commencement of construction prior to this conclusion is grounds for denial to possess and use special nuclear material in the plant or facility. Commencement of construction as defined in section 70.4 may include non-construction activities if the activity has a reasonable nexus to radiological safety and security.
</P>
<P>(8) Where the proposed activity is the operation of a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant, construction of the principal structures, systems, and components approved pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section has been completed in accordance with the application; 
</P>
<P>(9) Where the applicant is required to submit a plan for physical protection of special nuclear material in transit pursuant to § 70.22(g), of this chapter, the applicant's plan is adequate; 
</P>
<P>(10) Where the applicant is required to submit a physical security plan pursuant to § 70.22(h), the applicant's proposed plan is adequate; 
</P>
<P>(11) Where the proposed activity is processing and fuel fabrication, scrap recovery, conversion of uranium hexafluoride, or involves the use of special nuclear material in a uranium enrichment facility, the applicant's proposed emergency plan is adequate.
</P>
<P>(12) Where the proposed activity is use of special nuclear material in a uranium enrichment facility, the applicable provisions of part 140 of this chapter have been satisfied.


</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will approve construction of the principal structures, systems, and components of a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant on the basis of information filed pursuant to § 70.22(f) when the Commission has determined that the design bases of the principal structures, systems, and components, and the quality assurance program provide reasonable assurance of protection against natural phenomena and the consequences of potential accidents. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Failure to obtain Commission approval prior to beginning of such construction may be grounds for denial of a license to possess and use special nuclear material in a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The criteria in appendix B of part 50 of this chapter will be used by the Commission in determining the adequacy of the quality assurance program.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 17574, Sept. 2, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 5749, Mar. 21, 1972; 38 FR 30534, 30538, Nov. 6, 1973; 39 FR 26286, July 18, 1974; 42 FR 17126, Mar. 31, 1977; 43 FR 6924, Feb. 17, 1978; 49 FR 9406, Mar. 12, 1984; 54 FR 14064, Apr. 7, 1989; 57 FR 18392, Apr. 30, 1992; 67 FR 78142, Dec. 23, 2002; 76 FR 56966, Sept. 15, 2011; 88 FR 80950, Nov. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.23a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.4.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.23a   Hearing required for uranium enrichment facility.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will hold a hearing under 10 CFR part 2, subparts A, C, G, and I, on each application for issuance of a license for construction and operation of a uranium enrichment facility. The Commission will publish public notice of the hearing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least thirty (30) days before the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2280, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.4.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.24   Criticality accident requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee authorized to possess special nuclear material in a quantity exceeding 700 grams of contained uranium-235, 520 grams of uranium-233, 450 grams of plutonium, 1,500 grams of contained uranium-235 if no uranium enriched to more than 4 percent by weight of uranium-235 is present, 450 grams of any combination thereof, or one-half such quantities if massive moderators or reflectors made of graphite, heavy water or beryllium may be present, shall maintain in each area in which such licensed special nuclear material is handled, used, or stored, a monitoring system meeting the requirements of either paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2), as appropriate, and using gamma- or neutron-sensitive radiation detectors which will energize clearly audible alarm signals if accidental criticality occurs. This section is not intended to require underwater monitoring when special nuclear material is handled or stored beneath water shielding or to require monitoring systems when special nuclear material is being transported when packaged in accordance with the requirements of part 71 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(1) The monitoring system shall be capable of detecting a criticality that produces an absorbed dose in soft tissue of 20 rads of combined neutron and gamma radiation at an unshielded distance of 2 meters from the reacting material within one minute. Coverage of all areas shall be provided by two detectors. 
</P>
<P>(2) Persons licensed prior to December 6, 1974, to possess special nuclear material subject to this section may maintain a monitoring system capable of detecting a criticality which generates radiation levels of 300 rems per hour one foot from the source of the radiation. The monitoring devices in the system shall have a preset alarm point of not less than 5 millirems per hour (in order to avoid false alarms) nor more than 20 millirems per hour. In no event may any such device be farther than 120 feet from the special nuclear material being handled, used, or stored; lesser distances may be necessary to meet the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2) on account of intervening shielding or other pertinent factors. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall maintain emergency procedures for each area in which this licensed special nuclear material is handled, used, or stored to ensure that all personnel withdraw to an area of safety upon the sounding of the alarm. These procedures must include the conduct of drills to familiarize personnel with the evacuation plan, and designation of responsible individuals for determining the cause of the alarm, and placement of radiation survey instruments in accessible locations for use in such an emergency. The licensee shall retain a copy of current procedures for each area as a record for as long as licensed special nuclear material is handled, used, or stored in the area. The licensee shall retain any superseded portion of the procedures for three years after the portion is superseded.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee authorized to possess special nuclear material in quantities in excess of those specified in paragraph (a) shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the means for identifying quickly which individuals have received doses of 10 rads or more. 
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain facilities and supplies at the site for decontamination of personnel, arrangements for the services of a physician and other medical personnel qualified to handle radiation emergencies, arrangements for transportation of injured or contaminated individuals to treatment facilities, and arrangements for treatment of individuals at treatment facilities outside the site boundary. 
</P>
<P>(c) Holders of licenses for construction or operation of a nuclear reactor issued pursuant to part 50 of this chapter, except critical assembly reactors, are exempt for the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section with respect to special nuclear material used or to be used in the reactor. 


</P>
<P>(d)(1) The requirements in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section do not apply to a holder of a construction permit or operating license for a nuclear power reactor issued under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter or a combined license issued under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter, if the holder complies with the requirements of paragraph (b) of 10 CFR 50.68 or paragraph (m)(2) of 10 CFR 53.440, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) An exemption from § 70.24 held by a licensee who thereafter elects to comply with requirements of paragraph (b) of 10 CFR 50.68 or paragraph (m)(2) of 10 CFR 53.440 does not exempt that licensee from complying with any of the requirements in § 50.68 or § 53.440(m) of this chapter but will be ineffective so long as the licensee elects to comply with § 50.68(b) or § 53.440(m)(2) of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 39021, Nov. 5, 1974, as amended at 41 FR 31522, July 29, 1976; 53 FR 19252, May 27, 1988; 62 FR 63828, Dec. 3, 1997; 63 FR 9403, Feb. 25, 1998; 63 FR 63130, Nov. 12, 1998; 88 FR 80950, Nov. 21, 2023; 91 FR 15868, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.4.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.25   Financial assurance and recordkeeping for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant for a specific license of the types described in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section shall submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) A specific license for a uranium enrichment facility;
</P>
<P>(2) A specific license authorizing the possession and use of unsealed special nuclear material in quantities exceeding 10
<SU>5</SU> times the applicable quantities set forth in appendix B to part 30. A decommissioning funding plan must also be submitted when a combination of isotopes is involved if R divided by 10
<SU>5</SU> is greater than 1 (unity rule), where R is the sum of the ratios of the quantity of each isotope to the applicable value in appendix B to part 30.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant for a specific license authorizing possession and use of unsealed special nuclear material in quantities specified in paragraph (d) of this section shall either—
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (e) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Submit a certification that financial assurance for decommissioning has been provided in the amount prescribed by paragraph (d) of this section using one of the methods described in paragraph (f) of this section. For an applicant, this certification may state that the appropriate assurance will be obtained after the application has been approved and the license issued but before the receipt of licensed material. If the applicant defers execution of the financial instrument until after the license has been issued, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section must be submitted to NRC before receipt of licensed material. If the applicant does not defer execution of the financial instrument, the applicant shall submit to NRC, as part of the certification, a signed original of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each holder of a specific license issued on or after July 27, 1990, which is of a type described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, shall provide financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Each holder of a specific license issued before July 27, 1990, and of a type described in paragraph (a) of this section shall submit a decommissioning funding plan as described in paragraph (e) of this section or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning in an amount at least equal to $1,125,000 in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section. If the licensee submits the certification of financial assurance rather than a decommissioning funding plan, the licensee shall include a decommissioning funding plan in any application for license renewal. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each holder of a specific license issued before July 27, 1990, and of a type described in paragraph (b) of this section shall submit, on or before July 27, 1990, a decommissioning funding plan, described in paragraph (e) of this section, or a certification of financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with the criteria set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) Any licensee who has submitted an application before July 27, 1990, for renewal of license in accordance with § 70.33 shall provide financial assurance for decommissioning in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. This assurance must be submitted when this rule becomes effective November 24, 1995. 
</P>
<P>(5) If, in surveys made under 10 CFR 20.1501(a), residual radioactivity in the facility and environment, including the subsurface, is detected at levels that would, if left uncorrected, prevent the site from meeting the 10 CFR 20.1402 criteria for unrestricted use, the licensee must submit a decommissioning funding plan within one year of when the survey is completed.
</P>
<P>(d) Table of required amounts of financial assurance for decommissioning by quantity of material. Licensees required to submit the $1,125,000 amount must do so by December 2, 2004. Licensees required to submit the $225,000 amount must do so by June 2, 2005. Licensees having possession limits exceeding the upper bounds of this table must base financial assurance on a decommissioning funding plan. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 10
<sup>4</sup> but less than or equal to 10
<sup>5</sup> times the applicable quantities of appendix B to part 30. (For a combination of isotopes, if R, as defined in § 70.25(a), divided by 10
<sup>4</sup> is greater than 1 but R divided by 10
<sup>5</sup> is less than or equal to 1.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,125,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 10
<sup>3</sup> but less than or equal to 10
<sup>4</sup> times the applicable quantities of appendix B to part 30. (For a combination of isotopes, if R, as defined in § 70.25(a), divided by 10
<sup>3</sup> is greater than 1 but R divided by 10
<sup>4</sup> is less than or equal to 1.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$225,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e)(1) Each decommissioning funding plan must be submitted for review and approval and must contain—
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed cost estimate for decommissioning, in an amount reflecting:
</P>
<P>(A) The cost of an independent contractor to perform all decommissioning activities;
</P>
<P>(B) The cost of meeting the 10 CFR 20.1402 criteria for unrestricted use, provided that, if the applicant or licensee can demonstrate its ability to meet the provisions of 10 CFR 20.1403, the cost estimate may be based on meeting the 10 CFR 20.1403 criteria;
</P>
<P>(C) The volume of onsite subsurface material containing residual radioactivity that will require remediation; and
</P>
<P>(D) An adequate contingency factor.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of and justification for using the key assumptions contained in the DCE;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the method of assuring funds for decommissioning from paragraph (f) of this section, including means for adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels periodically over the life of the facility;
</P>
<P>(iv) A certification by the licensee that financial assurance for decommissioning has been provided in the amount of the cost estimate for decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(v) A signed original, or, if permitted, a copy, of the financial instrument obtained to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section (unless a previously submitted and accepted financial instrument continues to cover the cost estimate for decommissioning).
</P>
<P>(2) At the time of license renewal and at intervals not to exceed 3 years, the decommissioning funding plan must be resubmitted with adjustments as necessary to account for changes in costs and the extent of contamination. If the amount of financial assurance will be adjusted downward, this can not be done until the updated decommissioning funding plan is approved. The decommissioning funding plan must update the information submitted with the original or prior approved plan, and must specifically consider the effect of the following events on decommissioning costs:
</P>
<P>(i) Spills of radioactive material producing additional residual radioactivity in onsite subsurface material;
</P>
<P>(ii) Waste inventory increasing above the amount previously estimated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Waste disposal costs increasing above the amount previously estimated;
</P>
<P>(iv) Facility modifications;
</P>
<P>(v) Changes in authorized possession limits;
</P>
<P>(vi) Actual remediation costs that exceed the previous cost estimate;
</P>
<P>(vii) Onsite disposal; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Use of a settling pond.
</P>
<P>(f) The financial instrument must include the licensee's name, license number, and docket number; and the name, address, and other contact information of the issuer, and, if a trust is used, the trustee. When any of the foregoing information changes, the licensee must, within 30 days, submit financial instruments reflecting such changes. Financial assurance for decommissioning must be provided by one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prepayment.</I> Prepayment is the deposit before the start of operation into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. Prepayment must be made into a trust account, and the trustee and the trust must be acceptable to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method.</I> These methods guarantee that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, or letter of credit. A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix A to part 30 of this chapter. For commercial corporations that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix C to part 30 of this chapter. For commercial companies that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix D to part 30 of this chapter. For nonprofit entities, such as colleges, universities, and nonprofit hospitals, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix E to part 30 of this chapter. Except for an external sinking fund, a parent company guarantee or a guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in combination with any other financial methods used to satisfy the requirements of this section. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in any situation where the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of the voting stock of the company. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must contain the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The surety method or insurance must be open-ended or, if written for a specified term, such as five years, must be renewed automatically unless 90 days or more prior to the renewal date, the issurer notifies the Commission, the beneficiary, and the licensee of its intention not to renew. The surety method or insurance must also provide that the full face amount be paid to the beneficiary automatically prior to the expiration without proof of forfeiture if the licensee fails to provide a replacement acceptable to the Commission within 30 days after receipt of notification of cancellation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The surety method or insurance must be payable to a trust established for decommissioning costs. The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the Commission. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal government agency or an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) The surety method or insurance must remain in effect until the Commission has terminated the license.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>An external sinking fund in which deposits are made at least annually, coupled with a surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method, the value of which may decrease by the amount being accumulated in the sinking fund.</I> An external sinking fund is a fund established and maintained by setting aside funds periodically in an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control in which the total amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs at the time termination of operation is expected. An external sinking fund must be in the form of a trust. If the other guarantee method is used, no surety or insurance may be combined with the external sinking fund. The surety, insurance, or other guarantee provisions must be as stated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of Federal, State, or local government licensees, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning or an amount based on the Table in paragraph (d) of this section, and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary.
</P>
<P>(5) When a governmental entity is assuming custody and ownership of a site, an arrangement that is deemed acceptable by such governmental entity. 
</P>
<P>(g) Each person licensed under this part shall keep records of information important to the decommissioning of a facility in an identified location until the site is released for unrestricted use. If records important to the decommissioning of a facility are kept for other purposes, reference to these records and their locations may be used. Information the Commission considers important to decommissioning consists of— 
</P>
<P>(1) Records of spills or other unusual occurrences involving the spread of contamination in and around the facility, equipment, or site. These records may be limited to instances when contamination remains after any cleanup procedures or when there is reasonable likelihood that contaminants may have spread to inaccessible areas as in the case of possible seepage into porous materials such as concrete. These records must include any known information on identification of involved nuclides, quantities, forms, and concentrations.
</P>
<P>(2) As-built drawings and modifications of structures and equipment in restricted areas where radioactive materials are used and/or stored and of locations of possible inaccessible contamination such as buried pipes which may be subject to contamination. If required drawings are referenced, each relevant document need not be indexed individually. If drawings are not available, the licensee shall substitute appropriate records of available information concerning these areas and locations.
</P>
<P>(3) Except for areas containing only sealed sources (provided the sources have not leaked or no contamination remains after cleanup of any leak), a list contained in a single document and updated every 2 years, of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) All areas designated and formerly designated as restricted areas as defined under 10 CFR 20.1003 (For requirements prior to January 1, 1994, see 10 CFR 20.3 as contained in the CFR edition revised as of January 1, 1993.);
</P>
<P>(ii) All areas outside of restricted areas that require documentation under § 70.25(g)(1); 
</P>
<P>(iii) All areas outside of restricted areas where current and previous wastes have been buried as documented under 10 CFR 20.2108; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) All areas outside of restricted areas that contain material such that, if the license expired, the licensee would be required to either decontaminate the area to meet the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E, or apply for approval for disposal under 10 CFR 20.2002.
</P>
<P>(4) Records of the cost estimate performed for the decommissioning funding plan or of the amount certified for decommissioning, and records of the funding method used for assuring funds if either a funding plan or certification is used.
</P>
<P>(h) In providing financial assurance under this section, each licensee must use the financial assurance funds only for decommissioning activities and each licensee must monitor the balance of funds held to account for market variations. The licensee must replenish the funds, and report such actions to the NRC, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If, at the end of a calendar quarter, the fund balance is below the amount necessary to cover the cost of decommissioning, but is not below 75 percent of the cost, the licensee must increase the balance to cover the cost, and must do so within 30 days after the end of the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) If, at any time, the fund balance falls below 75 percent of the amount necessary to cover the cost of decommissioning, the licensee must increase the balance to cover the cost, and must do so within 30 days of the occurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 30 days of taking the actions required by paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this section, the licensee must provide a written report of such actions to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, and state the new balance of the fund.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 24053, June 27, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 23474, May 21, 1991; 57 FR 18393, Apr. 30, 1992; 58 FR 39634, July 26, 1993; 58 FR 67662, Dec. 22, 1993; 58 FR 68731, Dec. 29, 1993; 59 FR 1618, Jan. 12, 1994; 60 FR 38239, July 26, 1995; 61 FR 24675, May 16, 1996; 62 FR 39091, July 21, 1997; 63 FR 29544, June 1, 1998; 68 FR 57337, Oct. 3, 2003; 76 FR 35572, June 17, 2011; 78 FR 34250, June 7, 2013; 78 FR 75450, Dec. 12, 2013; 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.31   Issuance of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon a determination that an application meets the requirements of the act and of the regulations of the Commission, the Commission will issue a license in such form and containing such conditions and limitations as it deems appropriate or necessary to effectuate the purposes of the act. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(c) Each license issued to a person for use of special nuclear material in activities in which special nuclear material will be produced shall (subject to the provisions of § 70.41(b)) be deemed to authorize such person to receive title to, own, acquire, receive, possess, use, and transfer the special nuclear material produced in the course of such authorized activities. 
</P>
<P>(d) No license will be issued by the Commission to any person within the United States if the Commission finds that the issuance of such license would be inimical to the common defense and security or would constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public. 
</P>
<P>(e) No license to construct and operate a uranium enrichment facility may be issued until a hearing pursuant to 10 CFR part 2, subparts G and I, is completed and decision issued on the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, as amended at 32 FR 2563, Feb. 7, 1967; 32 FR 4056, Mar. 15, 1967; 43 FR 6925, Feb. 17, 1978; 57 FR 18393, Apr. 30, 1992] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.32   Conditions of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each license shall contain and be subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(2) No right to the special nuclear material shall be conferred by the license except as defined by the license; 
</P>
<P>(3) Neither the license nor any right under the license shall be assigned or otherwise transferred in violation of the provisions of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(4) All special nuclear material shall be subject to the right of recapture or control reserved by section 108 and to all other provisions of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(5) No special nuclear material may be used in any utilization or production facility except in accordance with the provisions of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall not use the special nuclear material to construct an atomic weapon or any component of an atomic weapon; 
</P>
<P>(7) Except to the extent that the indemnification and limitation of liability provisions of part 140 of this chapter apply, the licensee will hold the United States and the Department harmless from any damages resulting from the use or possession of special nuclear material leased from the Department by the licensee; 
</P>
<P>(8) The license shall be subject to and the licensee shall observe, all applicable rules, regulations and orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(9)(i) Each licensee shall notify the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any Chapter of Title 11 (Bankruptcy) of the United States Code by or against: 
</P>
<P>(A) The licensee; 
</P>
<P>(B) An entity (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(15)) controlling the licensee or listing the license or licensee as property of the estate; or 
</P>
<P>(C) An affiliate (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(2)) of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(ii) This notification must indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) The bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the filing of the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may incorporate in any license such additional conditions and requirements with respect to the licensee's ownership, receipt, possession, use, and transfer of special nuclear material as it deems appropriate or necessary in order to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Promote the common defense and security; 
</P>
<P>(2) Protect health or to minimize danger to life or property; 
</P>
<P>(3) Protect restricted data; 
</P>
<P>(4) Guard against the loss or diversion of special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(5) Require such reports and the keeping of such records, and to provide for such inspections, of activities under the license as may be necessary or appropriate to effectuate the purposes of the act and regulations thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each license authorizing the possession and use at any one time and location of uranium source material at an uranium enrichment facility or special nuclear material in a quantity exceeding one effective kilogram, except for use as sealed sources and those uses involved in the operation of a nuclear reactor licensed pursuant to part 50 or part 53 of this chapter and those involved in a waste disposal operation, shall contain and be subject to a condition requiring the licensee to maintain and follow:
</P>
<P>(i) The program for control and accounting of uranium source material at an uranium enrichment facility and special nuclear material at all applicable facilities as implemented pursuant to § 70.22(b), or § 74.31(b), § 74.33(b), § 74.41(b), or § 74.51(c) of this chapter, as appropriate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The measurement control program for uranium source material at an uranium enrichment facility and for special nuclear material at all applicable facilities as implemented pursuant to § 74.31(b), § 74.33(b), § 74.45(c), or § 74.59(e) of this chapter, as appropriate; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Other material control procedures as the Commission determines to be essential for the safeguarding of uranium source material at an uranium enrichment facility or of special nuclear material and providing that the licensee shall make no change that would decrease the effectiveness of the material control and accounting program implemented pursuant to § 70.22(b), or § 74.31(b), § 74.33(b), § 74.41(b), or § 74.51(c) of this chapter, and the measurement control program implemented pursuant to § 74.31(b), § 74.33(b), § 74.41(b), or § 74.59(e) of this chapter without the prior approval of the Commission. A licensee desiring to make changes that would decrease the effectiveness of its material control and accounting program or its measurement control program shall submit an application for amendment to its license pursuant to § 70.34. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall maintain records of changes to the material control and accounting program made without prior Commission approval for a period of 5 years from the date of the change. Licensees located in all four Regions as indicated in appendix A of part 73 of this chapter shall furnish to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a), a report containing a description of each change within:
</P>
<P>(i) Two months of the change if it pertains to uranium-233, uranium-235 contained in uranium enriched 20 percent or more in the uranium-235 isotope, or plutonium, except plutonium containing 80 percent or more by weight of the isotope Pu-238, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Six months of the change if it pertains to uranium enriched less than 20 percent in the uranium-235 isotope, or plutonium containing 80 percent or more by weight of the isotope Pu-238.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall make no change which would decrease the effectiveness of the plan for physical protection of special nuclear material in transit prepared pursuant to § 70.22(g) or § 73.20(c) of this chapter without the prior approval of the Commission. A licensee desiring to make such changes shall submit an application for a change in the technical specifications incorporated in his or her license, if any, or for an amendment to the license pursuant to § 50.90, § 70.34, or § 53.1510 of this chapter, as appropriate. The licensee may make changes to the plan for physical protection of special nuclear material without prior Commission approval if these changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan. The licensee shall retain a copy of the plan as a record for the period during which the licensee possesses a formula quantity of special nuclear material requiring this record under each license and each change to the plan for three years from the effective date of the change. Within two months after each change, a report containing a description of the change must be furnished to the Director of the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a); and a copy must be sent to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall make no change which would decrease the effectiveness of a security plan prepared pursuant to § 70.22(h), § 70.22(k), or § 73.20(c) without the prior approval of the Commission. A licensee desiring to make such a change shall submit an application for an amendment to its license pursuant to § 70.34. The licensee shall maintain records of changes to the plan made without prior Commission approval, for three years from the effective date of the change, and shall, within two months after the change is made, furnish a report containing a description of each change to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; the report may be sent using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a), and a copy of the report must be sent to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(g) The licensee shall prepare and maintain safeguards contingency plan procedures in accordance with appendix C to part 73 of this chapter for bringing about the actions and decisions contained in the Responsibility Matrix of its safeguards contingency plan. The licensee shall retain the current safeguards contingency plan procedures as a record for the entire period during which the licensee possesses the appropriate type and quantity of special nuclear material under each license for which the procedures were developed and, if any portion of the plan is superseded, retain that superseded portion for 3 years after the effective date of the change. The licensee shall not make a change that would decrease the safeguards effectiveness of the first four categories of information (<I>i.e.</I>, Background, Generic Planning Base, Licensee Planning Base, and Responsibility Matrix) contained in any licensee safeguards contingency plan prepared pursuant to § 70.22(g), § 70.22(j), § 72.184, § 73.20(c), § 73.26(e)(1), § 73.46(h)(1), or § 73.50(g)(1) of this chapter without the prior approval of the NRC. A licensee desiring to make such a change shall submit an application for an amendment to its license pursuant to § 70.34. The licensee may make changes to the licensee safeguards contingency plan without prior NRC approval if the changes do not decrease the safeguards effectiveness of the plan. The licensee shall maintain each change to the plan made without prior approval as a record during the period for which possession of a formula quantity of special nuclear material is authorized under a license and retain the superseded portion for 3 years after the effective date of the change, and shall, within 60 days after the change is made, furnish a report containing a description of each change to the Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; the report may be sent using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a), and a copy of the report must be sent to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office as specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees required to submit emergency plans in accordance with § 70.22(i) shall follow the emergency plan approved by the Commission. The licensee may change the approved plan without Commission approval if the changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan. Within six months after each change is made, the licensee shall, using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a), furnish the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, a copy of each change, with copies to the appropriate NRC Regional Office specified in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter and to affected offsite response organizations. Proposed changes that decrease the effectiveness of the approved emergency plan may not be implemented without prior application to and prior approval by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(j) Each licensee who possesses special nuclear material, or who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, or special nuclear material of low strategic significance, or more than 100 grams of irradiated reactor fuel shall ensure that Safeguards Information is protected against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable, and shall protect classified information in accordance with the requirements of parts 25 and 95 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(k) No person may commence operation of a uranium enrichment facility until the Commission verifies through inspection that the facility has been constructed in accordance with the requirements of the license. The Commission shall publish notice of the inspection results in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 70.32, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.33   Applications for renewal of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for renewal of a license should be filed in accordance with §§ 70.21 and 70.22. Information contained in previous applications, statements or reports filed with the Commission under the license may be incorporated by reference, provided that such references are clear and specific.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73944, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.34" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.34   Amendment of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for amendment of a license shall be filed in accordance with § 70.21(a) and shall specify the respects in which the licensee desires his license to be amended and the grounds for such amendment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.35   Commission action on applications to renew or amend.</HEAD>
<P>In considering an application by a licensee to renew or amend his license, the Commission will apply the criteria set forth in § 70.23. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.36" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.36   Inalienability of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No license granted under the regulations in this part and no right to possess or utilize special nuclear material granted by any license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part shall be transferred, assigned or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of any license to any person unless the Commission shall after securing full information, find that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of the Act, and shall give its consent in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for transfer of license must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The identity, technical and financial qualifications of the proposed transferee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Financial assurance for decommissioning information required by § 70.25.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, as amended at 35 FR 11461, July 17, 1970; 76 FR 35573, June 17, 2011] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.37" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.37   Disclaimer of warranties.</HEAD>
<P>Neither the Government nor the Commission makes any warranty or other representation that special nuclear material (a) will not result in injury or damage when used for purposes approved by the Commission, (b) will accomplish the results for which it is requested and approved by the Commission, or (c) is safe for any other use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.38" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.38   Expiration and termination of licenses and decommissioning of sites and separate buildings or outdoor areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each specific license expires at the end of the day on the expiration date stated in the license unless the licensee has filed an application for renewal under § 70.33 not less than 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license. If an application for renewal has been filed at least 30 days before the expiration date stated in the existing license, the existing license expires at the end of the day on which the Commission makes a final determination to deny the renewal application or, if the determination states an expiration date, the expiration date stated in the determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Each specific license revoked by the Commission expires at the end of the day on the date of the Commission's final determination to revoke the license, or on the expiration date stated in the determination, or as otherwise provided by Commission Order. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each specific license continues in effect, beyond the expiration date if necessary, with respect to possession of special nuclear material until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this time, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Limit actions involving special nuclear material to those related to decommissioning; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Continue to control entry to restricted areas until they are suitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements. 
</P>
<P>(d) Within 60 days of the occurrence of any of the following, consistent with the administrative directions in § 70.5, each licensee shall provide notification to the NRC in writing and either begin decommissioning its site, or any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity, so that the building or outdoor area is suitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements, or submit within 12 months of notification a decommissioning plan, if required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and begin decommissioning upon approval of that plan if—
</P>
<P>(1) The license has expired pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee has decided to permanently cease principal activities, as defined in this part, at the entire site or in any separate building or outdoor area; or 
</P>
<P>(3) No principal activities under the license have been conducted for a period of 24 months; or 
</P>
<P>(4) No principal activities have been conducted for a period of 24 months in any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity such that the building or outdoor area is unsuitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements. 
</P>
<P>(e) Coincident with the notification required by paragraph (d) of this section, the licensee shall maintain in effect all decommissioning financial assurances established by the licensee pursuant to § 70.25 in conjunction with a license issuance or renewal or as required by this section. The amount of the financial assurance must be increased, or may be decreased, as appropriate, to cover the detailed cost estimate for decommissioning established pursuant to paragraph (g)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Any licensee who has not provided financial assurance to cover the detailed cost estimate submitted with the decommissioning plan shall do so when this rule becomes effective November 24, 1995. 
</P>
<P>(2) Following approval of the decommissioning plan, a licensee may reduce the amount of the financial assurance as decommissioning proceeds and radiological contamination is reduced at the site with the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Commission may grant a request to delay or postpone initiation of the decommissioning process if the Commission determines that this relief is not detrimental to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest. The request must be submitted no later than 30 days before notification pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. The schedule for decommissioning set forth in paragraph (d) of this section may not commence until the Commission has made a determination on the request. 
</P>
<P>(g)(1) A decommissioning plan must be submitted if required by license condition or if the procedures and activities necessary to carry out decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area have not been previously approved by the Commission and these procedures could increase potential health and safety impacts to workers or to the public, such as in any of the following cases: 
</P>
<P>(i) Procedures would involve techniques not applied routinely during cleanup or maintenance operations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Workers would be entering areas not normally occupied where surface contamination and radiation levels are significantly higher than routinely encountered during operation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Procedures could result in significantly greater airborne concentrations of radioactive materials than are present during operation; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures could result in significantly greater releases of radioactive material to the environment than those associated with operation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may approve an alternate schedule for submittal of a decommissioning plan required pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section if the Commission determines that the alternative schedule is necessary to the effective conduct of decommissioning operations and presents no undue risk from radiation to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest. 
</P>
<P>(3) The procedures listed in paragraph (g)(1) of this section may not be carried out prior to approval of the decommissioning plan. 
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed decommissioning plan for the site or separate building or outdoor area must include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the conditions of the site or separate building or outdoor area sufficient to evaluate the acceptability of the plan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of planned decommissioning activities; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of methods used to ensure protection of workers and the environment against radiation hazards during decommissioning; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the planned final radiation survey; and 
</P>
<P>(v) An updated detailed cost estimate for decommissioning, comparison of that estimate with present funds set aside for decommissioning, and a plan for assuring the availability of adequate funds for completion of decommissioning. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the physical security plan and material control and accounting plan provisions in place during decommissioning. 
</P>
<P>(vii) For decommissioning plans calling for completion of decommissioning later than 24 months after plan approval, a justification for the delay based on the criteria in paragraph (i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) The proposed decommissioning plan will be approved by the Commission if the information therein demonstrates that the decommissioning will be completed as soon as practical and that the health and safety of workers and the public will be adequately protected. 
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, licensees shall complete decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area as soon as practicable but no later than 24 months following the initiation of decommissioning. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, when decommissioning involves the entire site, the licensee shall request license termination as soon as practicable but no later than 24 months following the initiation of decommissioning. 
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission may approve a request for an alternate schedule for completion of decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area, and license termination if appropriate, if the Commission determines that the alternative is warranted by consideration of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether it is technically feasible to complete decommissioning within the allotted 24-month period; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether sufficient waste disposal capacity is available to allow completion of decommissioning within the allotted 24-month period; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether a significant volume reduction in wastes requiring disposal will be achieved by allowing short-lived radionuclides to decay; 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether a significant reduction in radiation exposure to workers can be achieved by allowing short-lived radionuclides to decay; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Other site-specific factors which the Commission may consider appropriate on a case-by-case basis, such as regulatory requirements of other government agencies, lawsuits, groundwater treatment activities, monitored natural groundwater restoration, actions that could result in more environmental harm than deferred cleanup, and other factors beyond the control of the licensee. 
</P>
<P>(j) As the final step in decommissioning, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Certify the disposition of all licensed material, including accumulated wastes, by submitting a completed NRC Form 314 or equivalent information; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct a radiation survey of the premises where the licensed activities were carried out and submit a report of the results of this survey, unless the licensee demonstrates in some other manner that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E. The licensee shall, as appropriate—
</P>
<P>(i) Report levels of gamma radiation in units of millisieverts (microroentgen) per hour at one meter from surfaces, and report levels of radioactivity, including alpha and beta, in units of megabecquerels (disintegrations per minute or microcuries) per 100 square centimeters removable and fixed for surfaces, megabecquerels (microcuries) per milliliter for water, and becquerels (picocuries) per gram for solids such as soils or concrete; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the survey instrument(s) used and certify that each instrument is properly calibrated and tested. 
</P>
<P>(k) Specific licenses, including expired licenses, will be terminated by written notice to the licensee when the Commission determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Special nuclear material has been properly disposed; 
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable effort has been made to eliminate residual radioactive contamination, if present; and 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A radiation survey has been performed which demonstrates that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other information submitted by the licensee is sufficient to demonstrate that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(4) Records required by § 70.51(a) have been received. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 36037, July 15, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 38240, July 26, 1995; 61 FR 1115, Jan. 16, 1996; 61 FR 24675, May 16, 1996; 61 FR 29637, 29638, June 12, 1996; 62 FR 39091, July 21, 1997; 66 FR 24049, May 11, 2001; 73 FR 42675, July 23, 2008; 83 FR 58465, Nov. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.39" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.39   Specific licenses for the manufacture or initial transfer of calibration or reference sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a specific license to manufacture or initially transfer calibration or reference sources containing plutonium, for distribution to persons generally licensed under § 70.19, will be approved if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant satisfies the general requirements of § 70.23. 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant submits sufficient information regarding each type of calibration or reference source pertinent to evaluation of the potential radiation exposure, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Chemical and physical form and maximum quantity of plutonium in the source; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Details of construction and design; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Details of the method of incorporation and binding of the plutonium in the source; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Procedures for and results of prototype testing of sources, which are designed to contain more than 0.005 microcurie of plutonium, to demonstrate that the plutonium contained in each source will not be released or be removed from the source under normal conditions of use; 
</P>
<P>(v) Details of quality control procedures to be followed in manufacture of the source; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Description of labeling to be affixed to the source or the storage container for the source; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the Commission to facilitate a determination of the safety of the source. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each source will contain no more than 5 microcuries of plutonium. 
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission determines, with respect to any type of source containing more than 0.005 microcurie of plutonium, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The method of incorporation and binding of the plutonium in the source is such that the plutonium will not be released or be removed from the source under normal conditions of use and handling of the source; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The source has been subjected to and has satisfactorily passed the prototype tests prescribed by paragraph (a)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) For any type of source which is designed to contain more than 0.005 microcurie of plutonium, the applicant has conducted prototype tests, in the order listed, on each of five prototypes of such source, which contains more than 0.005 microcurie of plutonium, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Initial measurement.</I> The quantity of radioactive material deposited on the source shall be measured by direct counting of the source. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dry wipe test.</I> The entire radioactive surface of the source shall be wiped with filter paper with the application of moderate finger pressure. Removal of radioactive material from the source shall be determined by measuring the radioactivity on the filter paper or by direct measurement of the radioactivity on the source following the dry wipe. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Wet wipe test.</I> The entire radioactive surface of the source shall be wiped with filter paper, moistened with water, with the application of moderate finger pressure. Removal of radioactive material from the source shall be determined by measuring the radioactivity on the filter paper after it has dried or by direct measurement of the radioactivity on the source following the wet wipe. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Water soak test.</I> The source shall be immersed in water at room temperature for a period of 24 consecutive hours. The source shall then be removed from the water. Removal of radioactive material from the source shall be determined by direct measurement of the radioactivity on the source after it has dried or by measuring the radioactivity in the residue obtained by evaporation of the water in which the source was immersed. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dry wipe test.</I> On completion of the preceding tests in paragraphs (a)(5)(i) through (iv) of this section, the dry wipe test described in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section shall be repeated. 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Observations.</I> Removal of more than 0.005 microcurie of radioactivity in any test prescribed by this paragraph shall be cause for rejection of the source design. Results of prototype tests submitted to the Commission shall be given in terms of radioactivity in microcuries and percent of removal from the total amount of radioactive material deposited on the source. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person licensed under this section shall affix to each source, or storage container for the source, a label which shall contain sufficient information relative to safe use and storage of the source and shall include the following statement or a substantially similar statement which contains the information called for in the following statement. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Sources generally licensed under this section prior to January 19, 1975 may bear labels authorized by the regulations in effect on January 1, 1975.</P></FTNT>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The receipt, possession, use and transfer of this source, Model ______, Serial No. ______, are subject to a general license and the regulations of the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission or of a State with which the Commission has entered into an agreement for the exercise of regulatory authority. Do not remove this label.
</P>
<FP-2><E T="04">  caution—radioactive material—this source contains plutonium. do not touch radioactive portion of this source.</E> 
</FP-2>
<HD3>(Name of Manufacturer or Initial Transferor)</HD3></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Each person licensed under this section shall perform a dry wipe test upon each source containing more than 0.1 microcurie of plutonium prior to transferring the source to a general licensee under § 70.19. This test shall be performed by wiping the entire radioactive surface of the source with a filter paper with the application of moderate finger pressure. The radioactivity on the paper shall be measured by using radiation detection instrumentation capable of detecting 0.005 microcurie of plutonium. If any such test discloses more than 0.005 microcurie of radioactive material, the source shall be deemed to be leaking or losing plutonium and shall not be transferred to a general licensee under § 70.19.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 5884, May 5, 1964, as amended at 32 FR 2563, Feb. 7, 1967; 38 FR 1272, Jan. 11, 1973; 40 FR 8792, Mar. 3, 1975; 42 FR 43966, Sept. 1, 1977; 43 FR 6925, Feb. 17, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.5.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.40   Ineligibility of certain applicants.</HEAD>
<P>A license may not be issued to the Corporation if the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(a) The Corporation is owned, controlled, or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or a foreign government; or
</P>
<P>(b) The issuance of such a license would be inimical to—
</P>
<P>(1) The common defense and security of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) The maintenance of a reliable and economical domestic source of enrichment services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6669, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Acquisition, Use and Transfer of Special Nuclear Material, Creditors' Rights</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.6.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.41   Authorized use of special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall confine his possession and use of special nuclear material to the locations and purposes authorized in his license. Except as otherwise provided in the license, each license issued pursuant to the regulations in this part shall carry with it the right to receive title to, own, acquire, receive, possess and use special nuclear material. Preparation for shipment and transport of special nuclear material shall be in accordance with the provisions of part 71 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The possession, use and transfer of any special nuclear material produced by a licensee, in connection with or as a result of use of special nuclear material received under his license, shall be subject to the provisions of the license and the regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, as amended at 38 FR 33970, Dec. 10, 1973; 43 FR 6925, Feb. 17, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.42" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.6.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.42   Transfer of special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No licensee shall transfer special nuclear material except as authorized pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in his license and subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, any licensee may transfer special nuclear material: 
</P>
<P>(1) To the Department; 
</P>
<P>(2) To the agency in any Agreement State which regulates radioactive materials pursuant to an agreement with the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission under section 274 of the Act, if the quantity transferred is not sufficient to form a critical mass; 
</P>
<P>(3) To any person exempt from the licensing requirements of the Act and regulations in this part, to the extent permitted under such exemption; 
</P>
<P>(4) To any person in an Agreement State, subject to the jurisdiction of that State, who has been exempted from the licensing requirements and regulations of that State, to the extent permitted under such exemption; 
</P>
<P>(5) To any person authorized to receive such special nuclear material under terms of a specific license or a general license or their equivalents issued by the Commission or an Agreement State; 
</P>
<P>(6) To any person abroad pursuant to an export license issued under part 110 of this chapter; or 
</P>
<P>(7) As otherwise authorized by the Commission in writing. 
</P>
<P>(c) Before transferring special nuclear material to a specific licensee of the Commission or an Agreement State or to a general licensee who is required to register with the Commission or with an Agreement State prior to receipt of the special nuclear material, the licensee transferring the material shall verify that the transferee's license authorizes receipt of the type, form, and quantity of special nuclear material to be transferred. 
</P>
<P>(d) The following methods for the verification required by paragraph (c) of this section are acceptable: 
</P>
<P>(1) The transferor may have in his or her possession, and read, a current copy of the transferee's specific license or registration certificate. The transferor shall retain a copy of each license or certificate for three years from the date that it was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) The transferor may have in its possession a written certification by the transferee that the transferee is authorized by license or registration certificate to receive the type, form, and quantity of special nuclear material to be transferred, specifying the license or registration certificate number, issuing agency, and expiration date. The transferor shall retain the written certification as a record for three years from the date of receipt of the certification;
</P>
<P>(3) For emergency shipments the transferor may accept oral certification by the transferee that he or she is authorized by license or registration certification to receive the type, form, and quantity of special nuclear material to be transferred, specifying the license or registration certificate number, issuing agency, and expiration date, provided that the oral certification is confirmed in writing within ten days. The transferor shall retain the written confirmation of the oral certification for three years from the date of receipt of the confirmation;
</P>
<P>(4) The transferor may obtain other sources of information compiled by a reporting service from official records of the Commission or the licensing agency of an Agreement State as to the identity of licensees and the scope and expiration dates of licenses and registrations. The transferor shall retain the compilation of information as a record for three years from the date that it was obtained; or
</P>
<P>(5) When none of the methods of verification described in paragraphs (d) (1) to (4) of this section are readily available or when a transferor desires to verify that information received by one of these methods is correct or up-to-date, the transferor may obtain and record confirmation from the Commission or the licensing agency of an Agreement State that the transferee is licensed to receive the special nuclear material. The transferor shall retain the record of confirmation for three years from the date the record is made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 33970, Dec. 10, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8792, Mar. 3, 1975; 43 FR 6925, Feb. 21, 1978; 53 FR 19253, May 27, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.44" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.6.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.44   Creditor regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 184 of the Act, the Commission consents, without individual application, to the creation of any mortgage, pledge, or other lien upon any special nuclear material, not owned by the United States, which is subject to licensing: <I>Provided:</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) That the rights of any creditor so secured may be exercised only in compliance with and subject to the same requirements and restrictions as would apply to the licensee pursuant to the provisions of the license, the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant to said Act; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That no creditor so secured may take possession of the special nuclear material pursuant to the provisions of this section prior to either the issuance of a license by the Commission authorizing such possession or the transfer of a license pursuant to § 70.36. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing contained in this section shall be deemed to affect the means of acquiring, or the priority of, any tax lien or other lien provided by law. 
</P>
<P>(c) As used in this section, <I>creditor</I> includes, without implied limitation, the trustee under any mortgage, pledge, or lien on special nuclear material made to secure any creditor, any trustee or receiver of the special nuclear material appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction in any action brought for the benefit of any creditor secured by such mortgage, pledge, or lien, any purchaser of such special nuclear material at the sale thereof upon foreclosure of such mortgage, pledge, or lien or upon exercise of any power of sale contained therein, or any assignee of any such purchaser. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 2563, Feb. 7, 1967, as amended at 35 FR 11461, July 17, 1970] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Special Nuclear Material Control, Records, Reports and Inspections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.50" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.7.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.50   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Immediate report.</I> Each licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as possible but not later than 4 hours after the discovery of an event that prevents immediate protective actions necessary to avoid exposures to radiation or radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits or releases of licensed material that could exceed regulatory limits (events may include fires, explosions, toxic gas releases, etc.).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Twenty-four hour report.</I> Each licensee shall notify the NRC within 24 hours after the discovery of any of the following events involving licensed material:
</P>
<P>(1) An unplanned contamination event that:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires access to the contaminated area, by workers or the public, to be restricted for more than 24 hours by imposing additional radiological controls or by prohibiting entry into the area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves a quantity of material greater than five times the lowest annual limit on intake specified in Appendix B of §§ 20.1001-20.2401 of 10 CFR part 20 for the material; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has access to the area restricted for a reason other than to allow isotopes with a half-life of less than 24 hours to decay prior to decontamination.
</P>
<P>(2) An event in which equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when:
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment is required by regulation or licensee condition to prevent releases exceeding regulatory limits, to prevent exposures to radiation and radioactive materials exceeding regulatory limits, or to mitigate the consequences of an accident;
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment is required to be available and operable when it is disabled or fails to function; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No redundant equipment is available and operable to perform the required safety function.
</P>
<P>(3) An event that requires unplanned medical treatment at a medical facility of an individual with spreadable radioactive contamination on the individual's clothing or body.
</P>
<P>(4) An unplanned fire or explosion damaging any licensed material or any device, container, or equipment containing licensed material when:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of material involved is greater than five times the lowest annual limit on intake specified in appendix B of §§ 20.1001-20.2401 of 10 CFR part 20 for the material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The damage affects the integrity of the licensed material or its container.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preparation and submission of reports.</I> Reports made by licensees in response to the requirements of this section must be made as follows: 


</P>
<P>(1) Licensees shall make reports required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, and by § 70.74 and appendix A of this part, if applicable, by telephone to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.  To the extent that the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided in these reports must include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Caller's name, position title, and call-back telephone number; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Date, time, and exact location of the event; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Description of the event, including: 
</P>
<P>(A) Radiological or chemical hazards involved, including isotopes, quantities, and chemical and physical form of any material released; 
</P>
<P>(B) Actual or potential health and safety consequences to the workers, the public, and the environment, including relevant chemical and radiation data for actual personnel exposures to radiation or radioactive materials or hazardous chemicals produced from licensed materials (e.g., level of radiation exposure, concentration of chemicals, and duration of exposure); 
</P>
<P>(C) The sequence of occurrences leading to the event, including degradation or failure of structures, systems, equipment, components, and activities of personnel relied on to prevent potential accidents or mitigate their consequences; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the remaining structures, systems, equipment, components, and activities of personnel relied on to prevent potential accidents or mitigate their consequences are available and reliable to perform their function; 
</P>
<P>(iv) External conditions affecting the event; 
</P>
<P>(v) Additional actions taken by the licensee in response to the event; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Status of the event (e.g., whether the event is on-going or was terminated); 
</P>
<P>(vii) Current and planned site status, including any declared emergency class; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Notifications, related to the event, that were made or are planned to any local, State, or other Federal agencies; 
</P>
<P>(ix) Status of any press releases, related to the event, that were made or are planned. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written report.</I> Each licensee that makes a report required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall submit a written follow-up report within 30 days of the initial report. Written reports prepared pursuant to other regulations may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the report contains all the necessary information, and the appropriate distribution is made. These written reports must be sent to the NRC's Document Control Desk, using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a), with a copy to the appropriate NRC regional office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. The reports must include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Complete applicable information required by § 70.50(c)(1); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The probable cause of the event, including all factors that contributed to the event and the manufacturer and model number (if applicable) of any equipment that failed or malfunctioned; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Corrective actions taken or planned to prevent occurrence of similar or identical events in the future and the results of any evaluations or assessments; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) For licensees subject to Subpart H of this part, whether the event was identified and evaluated in the Integrated Safety Analysis.


</P>
<P>(d) The provisions of § 70.50 do not apply to licensees subject to § 50.72 or § 53.1630 of this chapter. They do apply to those 10 CFR parts 50 or 53 licensees possessing material licensed under 10 CFR part 70 that are not subject to the notification requirements in § 50.72 or § 53.1630 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 40769, Aug. 16, 1991; 56 FR 64980, Dec. 13, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 14087, Mar. 25, 1994; 65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000; 68 FR 58817, Oct. 10, 2003; 79 FR 57725, Sept. 26, 2014; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020; 91 FR 15868, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.7.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.51   Records requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before license termination, licensees shall forward the following records to the appropriate NRC Regional Office: 
</P>
<P>(1) Records of disposal of licensed material made under 10 CFR 20.2002 (including burials authorized before January 28, 1981 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>), 20.2003, 20.2004, 20.2005; 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A previous § 20.304 permitted burial of small quantities of licensed materials in soil before January 28, 1981, without specific Commission authorization. <I>See</I> § 20.304 contained in the 10 CFR, parts 0 to 199, edition revised as of January 1, 1981.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Records required by 10 CFR 20.2103(b)(4); and 
</P>
<P>(3) Records required by § 70.25(g).
</P>
<P>(b) If licensed activities are transferred or assigned in accordance with § 70.32(a)(3), the licensee shall transfer the following records to the new licensee and the new licensee will be responsible for maintaining these records until the license is terminated:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of disposal of licensed material made under 10 CFR 20.2002 (including burials authorized before January 28, 1981 
<SU>1</SU>), 20.2003, 20.2004, 20.2005;
</P>
<P>(2) Records required by 10 CFR 20.2103(b)(4); and 
</P>
<P>(3) Records required by § 70.25(g). 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Records which must be maintained pursuant to this part may be the original or a reproduced copy, or microform if the reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel, and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. 
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a conflict between the Commission's regulations in this part, license condition, or other written Commission approval or authorization pertaining to the retention period for the same type of record, the retention period specified in the regulations in this part for these records shall apply unless the Commission, under § 70.17 has granted a specific exemption from the record retention requirements specified in the regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78142, Dec. 23, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 35145, June 27, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.7.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.52   Reports of accidental criticality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter within 1 hour after discovery of any case of accidental criticality.
</P>
<P>(b) This notification must be made to the NRC Operations Center via the Emergency Notification System if the licensee is party to that system. If the Emergency Notification System is inoperative or unavailable, the licensee shall make the required notification via commercial telephonic service or other dedicated telephonic system or any other method that will ensure that a report is received by the NRC Operations Center within one hour.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78143, Dec. 23, 2002, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.7.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.55   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall afford to the Commission at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect special nuclear material and the premises and facilities wherein special nuclear material is used, produced, or stored. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by the licensee pertaining to his receipt, possession, use, acquisition, import, export, or transfer of special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In the case of fuel cycle facilities where nuclear reactor fuel is fabricated or processed each licensee shall upon request by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, provide rent-free office space for the exclusive use of Commission inspection personnel. Heat, air conditioning, light, electrical outlets and janitorial services shall be furnished by each licensee. The office shall be convenient to and have full access to the facility and, shall provide the inspector both visual and acoustic privacy. 
</P>
<P>(2) For a site with a single fuel facility licensed pursuant to part 70, the space provided shall be adequate to accommodate a full-time inspector, a part-time secretary and transient NRC personnel and will be generally commensurate with other office facilities at the site. A space of 250 square feet either within the site's office complex or in an office trailer or other on site space is suggested as a guide. For sites containing multiple fuel facilities, additional space may be requested to accommodate additional full-time inspector(s). The office space that is provided shall be subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator. All furniture, supplies and communication equipment will be furnished by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall afford any NRC resident inspector assigned to that site or other NRC inspectors identified by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as likely to inspect the facility, immediate unfettered access, equivalent to access provided regular plant employees, following proper identification and compliance with applicable access control measures for security, radiological protection, and personal safety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956. Redesignated at 25 FR 1607, Feb. 25, 1960, and 25 FR 12730, Dec. 13, 1960, and amended at 32 FR 2563, Feb. 7, 1967; 44 FR 47919, Aug. 16, 1979; 52 FR 31612, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 6877, Feb. 15, 1989; 55 FR 5979, Feb. 21, 1990] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.56" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.7.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.56   Tests.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, such tests as the Commission deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of the regulations in this part, including tests of (a) special nuclear material, (b) facilities wherein special nuclear material is utilized, produced or stored, (c) radiation detection and monitoring instruments, and (d) other equipment and devices used in connection with the production, utilization or storage of special nuclear material. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956. Redesignated at 25 FR 1607, Feb. 25, 1960, and 25 FR 12730, Dec. 13, 1960]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.7.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.59   Effluent monitoring reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Within 60 days after January 1 and July 1 of each year, and using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a), each licensee authorized to possess and use special nuclear material for processing and fuel fabrication, scrap recovery, conversion of uranium hexafluoride, or in a uranium enrichment facility shall submit a report addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, with a copy to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. The report must specify the quantity of each of the principal radionuclides released to unrestricted areas in liquid and gaseous effluents during the previous six months of operation, and such other information as the Commission may require to estimate maximum potential annual radiation doses to the public resulting from effluent releases. If quantities of radioactive materials released during the reporting periods are significantly above the licensee's design objectives previously reviewed as part of the licensing action, the report must cover this specifically. On the basis of these reports and any additional information the Commission may obtain from the licensee or others, the Commission may from time to time require the licensee to take such action as the Commission deems appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58817, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Additional Requirements for Certain Licensees Authorized To Possess a Critical Mass of Special Nuclear Material</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 70.60" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.60   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in § 70.61 through § 70.76 apply, in addition to other applicable Commission regulations, to each applicant or licensee that is or plans to be authorized to possess greater than a critical mass of special nuclear material, and engaged in enriched uranium processing, fabrication of uranium fuel or fuel assemblies, uranium enrichment, enriched uranium hexafluoride conversion, plutonium processing, fabrication of mixed-oxide fuel or fuel assemblies, scrap recovery of special nuclear material, or any other activity that the Commission determines could significantly affect public health and safety. The regulations in §§ 70.61 through 70.76 do not apply to decommissioning activities performed pursuant to other applicable Commission regulations including §§ 70.25 and 70.38 of this part. Also, the regulations in §§ 70.61 through 70.76 do not apply to activities that are certified by the Commission pursuant to part 76 of this chapter or licensed by the Commission pursuant to other parts of this chapter. Unless specifically addressed in §§ 70.61 through 70.76, implementation by current licensees of the subpart H requirements shall be completed no later than the time of the ISA Summary submittal required in § 70.62(c)(3)(ii). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.61   Performance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant or licensee shall evaluate, in the integrated safety analysis performed in accordance with § 70.62, its compliance with the performance requirements in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The risk of each credible high-consequence event must be limited. Engineered controls, administrative controls, or both, shall be applied to the extent needed to reduce the likelihood of occurrence of the event so that, upon implementation of such controls, the event is highly unlikely or its consequences are less severe than those in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section. High consequence events are those internally or externally initiated events that result in: 
</P>
<P>(1) An acute worker dose of 1 Sv (100 rem) or greater total effective dose equivalent; 
</P>
<P>(2) An acute dose of 0.25 Sv (25 rem) or greater total effective dose equivalent to any individual located outside the controlled area identified pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) An intake of 30 mg or greater of uranium in soluble form by any individual located outside the controlled area identified pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) An acute chemical exposure to an individual from licensed material or hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Could endanger the life of a worker, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Could lead to irreversible or other serious, long-lasting health effects to any individual located outside the controlled area identified pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section. If an applicant possesses or plans to possess quantities of material capable of such chemical exposures, then the applicant shall propose appropriate quantitative standards for these health effects, as part of the information submitted pursuant to § 70.65 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) The risk of each credible intermediate-consequence event must be limited. Engineered controls, administrative controls, or both shall be applied to the extent needed so that, upon implementation of such controls, the event is unlikely or its consequences are less than those in paragraphs (c)(1)-(4) of this section. Intermediate consequence events are those internally or externally initiated events that are not high consequence events, that result in: 
</P>
<P>(1) An acute worker dose of 0.25 Sv (25 rem) or greater total effective dose equivalent; 
</P>
<P>(2) An acute dose of 0.05 Sv (5 rem) or greater total effective dose equivalent to any individual located outside the controlled area identified pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) A 24-hour averaged release of radioactive material outside the restricted area in concentrations exceeding 5000 times the values in table 2 of appendix B to part 20; or 
</P>
<P>(4) An acute chemical exposure to an individual from licensed material or hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Could lead to irreversible or other serious, long-lasting health effects to a worker, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Could cause mild transient health effects to any individual located outside the controlled area as specified in paragraph (f) of this section. If an applicant possesses or plans to possess quantities of material capable of such chemical exposures, then the applicant shall propose appropriate quantitative standards for these health effects, as part of the information submitted pursuant to § 70.65 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to complying with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the risk of nuclear criticality accidents must be limited by assuring that under normal and credible abnormal conditions, all nuclear processes are subcritical, including use of an approved margin of subcriticality for safety. Preventive controls and measures must be the primary means of protection against nuclear criticality accidents. 
</P>
<P>(e) Each engineered or administrative control or control system necessary to comply with paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) of this section shall be designated as an item relied on for safety. The safety program, established and maintained pursuant to § 70.62 of this subpart, shall ensure that each item relied on for safety will be available and reliable to perform its intended function when needed and in the context of the performance requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) Each licensee must establish a controlled area, as defined in § 20.1003. In addition, the licensee must retain the authority to exclude or remove personnel and property from the area. For the purpose of complying with the performance requirements of this section, individuals who are not workers, as defined in § 70.4, may be permitted to perform ongoing activities (e.g., at a facility not related to the licensed activities) in the controlled area, if the licensee: 
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrates and documents, in the integrated safety analysis, that the risk for those individuals at the location of their activities does not exceed the performance requirements of paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4)(ii), (c)(2), and (c)(4)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provides training that satisfies 10 CFR 19.12(a)(1)-(5) to these individuals and ensures that they are aware of the risks associated with accidents involving the licensed activities as determined by the integrated safety analysis, and conspicuously posts and maintains notices stating where the information in 10 CFR 19.11(a) may be examined by these individuals. Under these conditions, the performance requirements for workers specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section may be applied to these individuals. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000, as amended at 87 FR 20697, Apr. 8, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.62   Safety program and integrated safety analysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Safety program.</I> (1) Each licensee or applicant shall establish and maintain a safety program that demonstrates compliance with the performance requirements of § 70.61. The safety program may be graded such that management measures applied are graded commensurate with the reduction of the risk attributable to that item. Three elements of this safety program; namely, process safety information, integrated safety analysis, and management measures, are described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee or applicant shall establish and maintain records that demonstrate compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee or applicant shall maintain records of failures readily retrievable and available for NRC inspection, documenting each discovery that an item relied on for safety or management measure has failed to perform its function upon demand or has degraded such that the performance requirements of § 70.61 are not satisfied. These records must identify the item relied on for safety or management measure that has failed and the safety function affected, the date of discovery, date (or estimated date) of the failure, duration (or estimated duration) of the time that the item was unable to perform its function, any other affected items relied on for safety or management measures and their safety function, affected processes, cause of the failure, whether the failure was in the context of the performance requirements or upon demand or both, and any corrective or compensatory action that was taken. A failure must be recorded at the time of discovery and the record of that failure updated promptly upon the conclusion of each failure investigation of an item relied on for safety or management measure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Process safety information.</I> Each licensee or applicant shall maintain process safety information to enable the performance and maintenance of an integrated safety analysis. This process safety information must include information pertaining to the hazards of the materials used or produced in the process, information pertaining to the technology of the process, and information pertaining to the equipment in the process. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Integrated safety analysis.</I> (1) Each licensee or applicant shall conduct and maintain an integrated safety analysis, that is of appropriate detail for the complexity of the process, that identifies: 
</P>
<P>(i) Radiological hazards related to possessing or processing licensed material at its facility; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Chemical hazards of licensed material and hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Facility hazards that could affect the safety of licensed materials and thus present an increased radiological risk; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Potential accident sequences caused by process deviations or other events internal to the facility and credible external events, including natural phenomena;
</P>
<P>(v) The consequence and the likelihood of occurrence of each potential accident sequence identified pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, and the methods used to determine the consequences and likelihoods; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Each item relied on for safety identified pursuant to § 70.61(e) of this subpart, the characteristics of its preventive, mitigative, or other safety function, and the assumptions and conditions under which the item is relied upon to support compliance with the performance requirements of § 70.61. 
</P>
<P>(2) Integrated safety analysis team qualifications. To assure the adequacy of the integrated safety analysis, the analysis must be performed by a team with expertise in engineering and process operations. The team shall include at least one person who has experience and knowledge specific to each process being evaluated, and persons who have experience in nuclear criticality safety, radiation safety, fire safety, and chemical process safety. One member of the team must be knowledgeable in the specific integrated safety analysis methodology being used. 
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements for existing licensees. Individuals holding an NRC license on September 18, 2000 shall, with regard to existing licensed activities: 
</P>
<P>(i) By April 18, 2001, submit for NRC approval, a plan that describes the integrated safety analysis approach that will be used, the processes that will be analyzed, and the schedule for completing the analysis of each process. 
</P>
<P>(ii) By October 18, 2004, or in accordance with the approved plan submitted under § 70.62(c)(3)(i), complete an integrated safety analysis, correct all unacceptable performance deficiencies, and submit, for NRC approval, an integrated safety analysis summary, including a description of the management measures, in accordance with § 70.65. The Commission may approve a request for an alternative schedule for completing the correction of unacceptable performance deficiencies if the Commission determines that the alternative is warranted by consideration of the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) Adequate compensatory measures have been established; 
</P>
<P>(B) Whether it is technically feasible to complete the correction of the unacceptable performance deficiency within the allotted 4-year period; 
</P>
<P>(C) Other site-specific factors which the Commission may consider appropriate on a case-by-case basis and that are beyond the control of the licensee. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Pending the correction of unacceptable performance deficiencies identified during the conduct of the integrated safety analysis, the licensee shall implement appropriate compensatory measures to ensure adequate protection. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Management measures.</I> Each applicant or licensee shall establish management measures to ensure compliance with the performance requirements of § 70.61. The measures applied to a particular engineered or administrative control or control system may be graded commensurate with the reduction of the risk attributable to that control or control system. The management measures shall ensure that engineered and administrative controls and control systems that are identified as items relied on for safety pursuant to § 70.61(e) of this subpart are designed, implemented, and maintained, as necessary, to ensure they are available and reliable to perform their function when needed, to comply with the performance requirements of § 70.61 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.64" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.64   Requirements for new facilities or new processes at existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Baseline design criteria.</I> Each prospective applicant or licensee shall address the following baseline design criteria in the design of new facilities. Each existing licensee shall address the following baseline design criteria in the design of new processes at existing facilities that require a license amendment under § 70.72. The baseline design criteria must be applied to the design of new facilities and new processes, but do not require retrofits to existing facilities or existing processes (e.g., those housing or adjacent to the new process); however, all facilities and processes must comply with the performance requirements in § 70.61. Licensees shall maintain the application of these criteria unless the analysis performed pursuant to § 70.62(c) demonstrates that a given item is not relied on for safety or does not require adherence to the specified criteria. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Quality standards and records.</I> The design must be developed and implemented in accordance with management measures, to provide adequate assurance that items relied on for safety will be available and reliable to perform their function when needed. Appropriate records of these items must be maintained by or under the control of the licensee throughout the life of the facility. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Natural phenomena hazards.</I> The design must provide for adequate protection against natural phenomena with consideration of the most severe documented historical events for the site. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fire protection.</I> The design must provide for adequate protection against fires and explosions. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Environmental and dynamic effects.</I> The design must provide for adequate protection from environmental conditions and dynamic effects associated with normal operations, maintenance, testing, and postulated accidents that could lead to loss of safety functions. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Chemical protection.</I> The design must provide for adequate protection against chemical risks produced from licensed material, facility conditions which affect the safety of licensed material, and hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Emergency capability.</I> The design must provide for emergency capability to maintain control of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Licensed material and hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Evacuation of on-site personnel; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Onsite emergency facilities and services that facilitate the use of available offsite services. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Utility services.</I> The design must provide for continued operation of essential utility services. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Inspection, testing, and maintenance.</I> The design of items relied on for safety must provide for adequate inspection, testing, and maintenance, to ensure their availability and reliability to perform their function when needed. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Criticality control.</I> The design must provide for criticality control including adherence to the double contingency principle. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Instrumentation and controls.</I> The design must provide for inclusion of instrumentation and control systems to monitor and control the behavior of items relied on for safety. 
</P>
<P>(b) Facility and system design and facility layout must be based on defense-in-depth practices. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The design must incorporate, to the extent practicable: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As used in § 70.64, Requirements for new facilities or new processes at existing facilities, defense-in-depth practices means a design philosophy, applied from the outset and through completion of the design, that is based on providing successive levels of protection such that health and safety will not be wholly dependent upon any single element of the design, construction, maintenance, or operation of the facility. The net effect of incorporating defense-in-depth practices is a conservatively designed facility and system that will exhibit greater tolerance to failures and external challenges. The risk insights obtained through performance of the integrated safety analysis can be then used to supplement the final design by focusing attention on the prevention and mitigation of the higher-risk potential accidents.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Preference for the selection of engineered controls over administrative controls to increase overall system reliability; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Features that enhance safety by reducing challenges to items relied on for safety. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.65" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.65   Additional content of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the contents required by § 70.22, each application must include a description of the applicant's safety program established under § 70.62. 
</P>
<P>(b) The integrated safety analysis summary must be submitted with the license or renewal application (and amendment application as necessary), but shall not be incorporated in the license. However, changes to the integrated safety analysis summary shall meet the conditions of § 70.72. The integrated safety analysis summary must contain: 
</P>
<P>(1) A general description of the site with emphasis on those factors that could affect safety (<I>i.e.,</I> meteorology, seismology); 
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the facility with emphasis on those areas that could affect safety, including an identification of the controlled area boundaries; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of each process (defined as a single reasonably simple integrated unit operation within an overall production line) analyzed in the integrated safety analysis in sufficient detail to understand the theory of operation; and, for each process, the hazards that were identified in the integrated safety analysis pursuant to § 70.62(c)(1)(i)-(iii) and a general description of the types of accident sequences;
</P>
<P>(4) Information that demonstrates the licensee's compliance with the performance requirements of § 70.61, including a description of the management measures; the requirements for criticality monitoring and alarms in § 70.24; and, if applicable, the requirements of § 70.64; 
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the team, qualifications, and the methods used to perform the integrated safety analysis; 
</P>
<P>(6) A list briefly describing each item relied on for safety which is identified pursuant to § 70.61(e) in sufficient detail to understand their functions in relation to the performance requirements of § 70.61; 
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the proposed quantitative standards used to assess the consequences to an individual from acute chemical exposure to licensed material or chemicals produced from licensed materials which are on-site, or expected to be on-site as described in § 70.61(b)(4) and (c)(4); 
</P>
<P>(8) A descriptive list that identifies all items relied on for safety that are the sole item preventing or mitigating an accident sequence that exceeds the performance requirements of § 70.61; and 
</P>
<P>(9) A description of the definitions of unlikely, highly unlikely, and credible as used in the evaluations in the integrated safety analysis. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.66" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.66   Additional requirements for approval of license application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a license from an applicant subject to subpart H will be approved if the Commission determines that the applicant has complied with the requirements of §§ 70.21, 70.22, 70.23, and 70.60 through 70.65. 
</P>
<P>(b) Submittals by existing licensees in accordance with § 70.62(c)(3)(i) will be approved if the Commission determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The integrated safety analysis approach is in accordance with the requirements of §§ 70.61, 70.62(c)(1), and 70.62(c)(2); and 
</P>
<P>(2) The schedule is in compliance with § 70.62(c)(3)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(c) Submittals by existing licensees in accordance with § 70.62(c)(3)(ii) will be approved if the Commission determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of § 70.65(b) are satisfied; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The performance requirements in § 70.61 (b), (c) and (d) are satisfied, based on the information in the ISA Summary, together with other information submitted to NRC or available to NRC at the licensee's site. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.72   Facility changes and change process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall establish a configuration management system to evaluate, implement, and track each change to the site, structures, processes, systems, equipment, components, computer programs, and activities of personnel. This system must be documented in written procedures and must assure that the following are addressed prior to implementing any change: 
</P>
<P>(1) The technical basis for the change; 
</P>
<P>(2) Impact of the change on safety and health or control of licensed material; 
</P>
<P>(3) Modifications to existing operating procedures including any necessary training or retraining before operation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Authorization requirements for the change; 
</P>
<P>(5) For temporary changes, the approved duration (e.g., expiration date) of the change; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The impacts or modifications to the integrated safety analysis, integrated safety analysis summary, or other safety program information, developed in accordance with § 70.62. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any change to site, structures, processes, systems, equipment, components, computer programs, and activities of personnel must be evaluated by the licensee as specified in paragraph (a) of this section, before the change is implemented. The evaluation of the change must determine, before the change is implemented, if an amendment to the license is required to be submitted in accordance with § 70.34. 
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee may make changes to the site, structures, processes, systems, equipment, components, computer programs, and activities of personnel, without prior Commission approval, if the change: 
</P>
<P>(1) Does not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Create new types of accident sequences that, unless mitigated or prevented, would exceed the performance requirements of § 70.61 and that have not previously been described in the integrated safety analysis summary; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Use new processes, technologies, or control systems for which the licensee has no prior experience; 
</P>
<P>(2) Does not remove, without at least an equivalent replacement of the safety function, an item relied on for safety that is listed in the integrated safety analysis summary and is necessary for compliance with the performance requirements of § 70.61; 
</P>
<P>(3) Does not alter any item relied on for safety, listed in the integrated safety analysis summary, that is the sole item preventing or mitigating an accident sequence that exceeds the performance requirements of § 70.61; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Is not otherwise prohibited by this section, license condition, or order. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) For changes that require pre-approval under § 70.72, the licensee shall submit an amendment request to the NRC in accordance with §§ 70.34 and 70.65 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) For changes that do not require pre-approval under § 70.72, the licensee shall submit to NRC annually, within 30 days after the end of the calendar year during which the changes occurred, a brief summary of all changes to the records required by § 70.62(a)(2) of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) For all changes that affect the integrated safety analysis summary, the licensee shall submit to NRC annually, within 30 days after the end of the calendar year during which the changes occurred, revised integrated safety analysis summary pages. 
</P>
<P>(e) If a change covered by § 70.72 is made, the affected on-site documentation must be updated promptly. 
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee shall maintain records of changes to its facility carried out under this section. These records must include a written evaluation that provides the bases for the determination that the changes do not require prior Commission approval under paragraph (c) or (d) of this section. These records must be maintained until termination of the license. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000, as amended at 71 FR 56346, Sept. 27, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.73   Renewal of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for renewal of a license must be filed in accordance with §§ 2.109, 70.21, 70.22, 70.33, 70.38, and 70.65 of this chapter. Information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission under the license may be incorporated by reference, provided that these references are clear and specific. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.74   Additional reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reports to NRC Operations Center.</I> (1) Each licensee shall report to the NRC Operations Center the events described in appendix A to part 70. 
</P>
<P>(2) Reports must be made by a knowledgeable licensee representative and by any method that will ensure compliance with the required time period for reporting. 
</P>
<P>(3) The information provided must include a description of the event and other related information as described in § 70.50(c)(1). 
</P>
<P>(4) Follow-up information to the reports must be provided until all information required to be reported in § 70.50(c)(1) of this subpart is complete. 
</P>
<P>(5) Each licensee shall provide reasonable assurance that reliable communication with the NRC Operations Center is available during each event. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written reports.</I> Each licensee that makes a report required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall submit a written follow-up report within 60 days of the initial report. The written report must be sent to the NRC's Document Control Desk, using an appropriate method listed in § 70.5(a), with a copy to the appropriate NRC regional office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. The reports must include the information as described in § 70.50(c)(2)(i) through (iv).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000, as amended at 79 FR 57725, Sept. 26, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.76" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.8.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.76   Backfitting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each licensee, this provision shall apply to Subpart H requirements as soon as the NRC approves that licensee's ISA Summary pursuant to § 70.66. For requirements other than Subpart H, this provision applies regardless of the status of the approval of a licensee's ISA Summary. 
</P>
<P>(1) Backfitting is defined as the modification of, or addition to, systems, structures, or components of a facility; or to the procedures or organization required to operate a facility; any of which may result from a new or amended provision in the Commission rules or the imposition of a regulatory staff position interpreting the Commission rules that is either new or different from a previous NRC staff position. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Commission shall require a systematic and documented analysis pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section for backfits which it seeks to impose. 
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Commission shall require the backfitting of a facility only when it determines, based on the analysis described in paragraph (b) of this section, that there is a substantial increase in the overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the backfit and that the direct and indirect costs of implementation for that facility are justified in view of this increased protection. 
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions of paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section are inapplicable and, therefore, backfit analysis is not required and the standards in paragraph (a)(3) of this section do not apply where the Commission finds and declares, with appropriately documented evaluation for its finding, any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) That a modification is necessary to bring a facility into compliance with subpart H of this part; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That a modification is necessary to bring a facility into compliance with a license or the rules or orders of the Commission, or into conformance with written commitments by the licensee; 
</P>
<P>(iii) That regulatory action is necessary to ensure that the facility provides adequate protection to the health and safety of the public and is in accord with the common defense and security; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) That the regulatory action involves defining or redefining what level of protection to the public health and safety or common defense and security should be regarded as adequate. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission shall always require the backfitting of a facility if it determines that the regulatory action is necessary to ensure that the facility provides adequate protection to the health and safety of the public and is in accord with the common defense and security. 
</P>
<P>(6) The documented evaluation required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section must include a statement of the objectives of and reasons for the modification and the basis for invoking the exception. If immediate effective regulatory action is required, then the documented evaluation may follow, rather than precede, the regulatory action. 
</P>
<P>(7) If there are two or more ways to achieve compliance with a license or the rules or orders of the Commission, or with written license commitments, or there are two or more ways to reach an adequate level of protection, then ordinarily the licensee is free to choose the way that best suits its purposes. However, should it be necessary or appropriate for the Commission to prescribe a specific way to comply with its requirements or to achieve adequate protection, then cost may be a factor in selecting the way, provided that the objective of compliance or adequate protection is met. 
</P>
<P>(b) In reaching the determination required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Commission will consider how the backfit should be scheduled in light of other ongoing regulatory activities at the facility and, in addition, will consider information available concerning any of the following factors as may be appropriate and any other information relevant and material to the proposed backfit: 
</P>
<P>(1) Statement of the specific objectives that the proposed backfit is designed to achieve; 
</P>
<P>(2) General description of the activity that would be required by the licensee in order to complete the backfit; 
</P>
<P>(3) Potential change in the risk to the public from the accidental release of radioactive material and hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material; 
</P>
<P>(4) Potential impact on radiological exposure or exposure to hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material of facility employees; 
</P>
<P>(5) Installation and continuing costs associated with the backfit, including the cost of facility downtime; 
</P>
<P>(6) The potential safety impact of changes in facility or operational complexity, including the relationship to proposed and existing regulatory requirements; 
</P>
<P>(7) The estimated resource burden on the NRC associated with the proposed backfit and the availability of such resources; 
</P>
<P>(8) The potential impact of differences in facility type, design, or age on the relevancy and practicality of the proposed backfit; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the proposed backfit is interim or final and, if interim, the justification for imposing the proposed backfit on an interim basis. 
</P>
<P>(c) No license will be withheld during the pendency of backfit analyses required by the Commission's rules. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Executive Director for Operations shall be responsible for implementation of this section, and all analyses required by this section shall be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Modification and Revocation of Licenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.9.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.81   Modification and revocation of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms and conditions of all licenses shall be subject to amendment, revision, or modification by reason of amendments to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or by reason of rules, regulations or orders issued in accordance with the Act or any amendments thereto; 
</P>
<P>(b) Any license may be revoked, suspended or modified for any material false statements in the application or any statement of fact required under section 182 of the Act or because of conditions revealed by such application or statement of fact or any report, record, or inspection or other means which would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license on an original application, or for failure to construct or operate a facility in accordance with the terms of the construction permit or license, the technical specifications in the application, or for violation of, or failure to observe any of the terms and conditions of the Act, or of any regulation of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon revocation, suspension or modification of a license, the Commission may immediately retake possession of all special nuclear material held by the licensee. In cases found by the Commission to be of extreme importance to the national defense or security, or to the health and safety of the public, the Commission may recapture any special nuclear material held by the licensee prior to any of the procedures provided under section 551-558 of title 5 of the United States Code. 
</P>
<P>(d) Except in cases of willfulness or those in which the public health, interest or safety requires otherwise, no license shall be modified, suspended or revoked unless, prior to the institution of proceedings therefor, facts or conduct which may warrant such action shall have been called to the attention of the licensee in writing and the licensee shall have been accorded opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance with all lawful requirements. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, as amended at 35 FR 11461, July 17, 1970. Redesignated at 65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.82" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.9.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.82   Suspension and operation in war or national emergency.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever Congress declares that a state of war or national emergency exists, the Commission, if it finds it necessary to the common defense and security may, 
</P>
<P>(a) Suspend any license it has issued. 
</P>
<P>(b) Order the recapture of special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(c) Order the operation of any licensed facility. 
</P>
<P>(d) Order entry into any plant or facility in order to recapture special nuclear material or to operate the facility. Just compensation shall be paid for any damages caused by recapture of special nuclear material or by operation of any facility, pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 764, Feb. 3, 1956, as amended at 32 FR 4056, Mar. 15, 1967; 35 FR 11461, July 17, 1970. Redesignated at 65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.91" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.10.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.91   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of— 
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of— 
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55077, Nov. 24, 1992. Redesignated at 65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 70.92" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.10.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 70.92   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 70 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 70 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 70.1, 70.2, 70.4, 70.5, 70.6, 70.8, 70.11, 70.12, 70.13, 70.14, 70.17, 70.18, 70.23, 70.31, 70.33, 70.34, 70.35, 70.37, 70.66, 70.73, 70.76, 70.81, 70.82, 70.63, 70.91, and 70.92.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55077, Nov. 24, 1992. Redesignated and amended at 65 FR 56226, Sept. 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.10.10.121.3.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 70—Reportable Safety Events 
</HEAD>
<P>Licensees must comply with reporting requirements in this appendix. As required by 10 CFR 70.74, licensees subject to the requirements in subpart H of part 70, shall report:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>One hour reports.</I> Events to be reported to the NRC Operations Center within 1 hour of discovery, supplemented with the information in 10 CFR 70.50(c)(1) as it becomes available, followed by a written report within 60 days: 
</P>
<P>(1) An inadvertent nuclear criticality. 
</P>
<P>(2) An acute intake by an individual of 30 mg or greater of uranium in a soluble form. 
</P>
<P>(3) An acute chemical exposure to an individual from licensed material or hazardous chemicals produced from licensed material that exceeds the quantitative standards established to satisfy the requirements in § 70.61(b)(4). 
</P>
<P>(4) An event or condition such that no items relied on for safety, as documented in the Integrated Safety Analysis summary, remain available and reliable, in an accident sequence evaluated in the Integrated Safety Analysis, to perform their function: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the context of the performance requirements in § 70.61(b) and § 70.61(c), or
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevent a nuclear criticality accident (<I>i.e.,</I> loss of all controls in a particular sequence). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Twenty-four hour reports.</I> Events to be reported to the NRC Operations Center within 24 hours of discovery, supplemented with the information in 10 CFR 70.50(c)(1) as it becomes available, followed by a written report within 60 days: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any event or condition that results in the facility being in a state that was not analyzed, was improperly analyzed, or is different from that analyzed in the Integrated Safety Analysis, and which results in failure to meet the performance requirements of § 70.61. 
</P>
<P>(2) Loss or degradation of items relied on for safety that results in failure to meet the performance requirement of § 70.61. 
</P>
<P>(3) An acute chemical exposure to an individual from licensed material or hazardous chemicals produced from licensed materials that exceeds the quantitative standards that satisfy the requirements of § 70.61(c)(4). 
</P>
<P>(4) Any natural phenomenon or other external event, including fires internal and external to the facility, that has affected or may have affected the intended safety function or availability or reliability of one or more items relied on for safety. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Concurrent Reports.</I> Any event or situation, related to the health and safety of the public or onsite personnel, or protection of the environment, for which a news release is planned or notification to other government agencies has been or will be made, shall be reported to the NRC Operations Center concurrent to the news release or other notification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 56231, Sept. 18, 2000, as amended at 75 FR 73944, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 57725, Sept. 26, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 71—PACKAGING AND TRANSPORTATION OF RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 161, 182, 183, 223, 234, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2077, 2092, 2093, 2111, 2201, 2232, 2233, 2273, 2282, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, sec. 180 (42 U.S.C. 10175); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Section 71.97 also issued under Sec. 301, Pub. L. 96-295, 94 Stat. 789 (42 U.S.C. 5841 note).
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 71.0" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.0   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes—
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements for packaging, preparation for shipment, and transportation of licensed material; and
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures and standards for NRC approval of packaging and shipping procedures for fissile material and for a quantity of other licensed material in excess of a Type A quantity.
</P>
<P>(b) The packaging and transport of licensed material are also subject to other parts of this chapter (e.g., 10 CFR parts 20, 21, 30, 40, 70, and 73) and to the regulations of other agencies (e.g., the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) and the U.S. Postal Service) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> having jurisdiction over means of transport. The requirements of this part are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other requirements.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Postal Service manual (Domestic Mail Manual), Section 124, which is incorporated by reference at 39 CFR 111.1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The regulations in this part apply to any licensee authorized by specific or general license issued by the Commission to receive, possess, use, or transfer licensed material, if the licensee delivers that material to a carrier for transport, transports the material outside the site of usage as specified in the NRC license, or transports that material on public highways. No provision of this part authorizes possession of licensed material.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Exemptions from the requirement for license in § 71.3 are specified in § 71.14. General licenses for which no NRC package approval is required are issued in §§ 71.21 through 71.23. The general license in § 71.17 requires that an NRC certificate of compliance or other package approval be issued for the package to be used under this general license.
</P>
<P>(2) Application for package approval must be completed in accordance with subpart D of this part, demonstrating that the design of the package to be used satisfies the package approval standards contained in subpart E of this part, as related to the tests of subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) A licensee transporting licensed material, or delivering licensed material to a carrier for transport, shall comply with the operating control requirements of subpart G of this part; the quality assurance requirements of subpart H of this part; and the general provisions of subpart A of this part, including DOT regulations referenced in § 71.5.
</P>
<P>(e) The regulations of this part apply to any person holding, or applying for, a certificate of compliance, issued pursuant to this part, for a package intended for the transportation of radioactive material, outside the confines of a licensee's facility or authorized place of use.
</P>
<P>(f) The regulations in this part apply to any person required to obtain a certificate of compliance, or an approved compliance plan, pursuant to part 76 of this chapter, if the person delivers radioactive material to a common or contract carrier for transport or transports the material outside the confines of the person's plant or other authorized place of use.
</P>
<P>(g) This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, certificate holder, quality assurance program approval holder, applicant for a license, certificate, or quality assurance program approval, or to a contractor, or subcontractor of any of them, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's, certificate holder's, quality assurance program approval holder's, or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 71.8.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 34011, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.1   Communications and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I>; by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov</I>; or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. If the submission date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, the next Federal working day becomes the official due date.
</P>
<P>(b) Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004; 69 FR 58038, Sept. 29, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 62683, Dec. 1, 2009; 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015; 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.2   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission, other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel, will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 90 FR 55632, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.3   Requirement for license.</HEAD>
<P>Except as authorized in a general license or a specific license issued by the Commission, or as exempted in this part, no licensee may—
</P>
<P>(a) Deliver licensed material to a carrier for transport; or
</P>
<P>(b) Transport licensed material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are as defined here for the purpose of this part. To ensure compatibility with international transportation standards, all limits in this part are given in terms of dual units: The International System of Units (SI) followed or preceded by U.S. standard or customary units. The U.S. customary units are not exact equivalents but are rounded to a convenient value, providing a functionally equivalent unit. For the purpose of this part, either unit may be used.
</P>
<P><I>A</I><E T="54">1</E> means the maximum activity of special form radioactive material permitted in a Type A package. This value is either listed in appendix A, table A-1, of this part, or may be derived in accordance with the procedures prescribed in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>A</I><E T="54">2</E> means the maximum activity of radioactive material, other than special form material, LSA, and SCO material, permitted in a Type A package. This value is either listed in appendix A, table A-1, of this part, or may be derived in accordance with the procedures prescribed in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Carrier</I> means a person engaged in the transportation of passengers or property by land or water as a common, contract, or private carrier, or by civil aircraft.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate holder</I> means a person who has been issued a certificate of compliance or other package approval by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate of Compliance (CoC)</I> means the certificate issued by the Commission under subpart D of this part which approves the design of a package for the transportation of radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>Close reflection by water</I> means immediate contact by water of sufficient thickness for maximum reflection of neutrons.
</P>
<P><I>Consignment</I> means each shipment of a package or groups of packages or load of radioactive material offered by a shipper for transport.
</P>
<P><I>Containment system</I> means the assembly of components of the packaging intended to retain the radioactive material during transport.
</P>
<P><I>Contamination</I> means the presence of a radioactive substance on a surface in quantities in excess of 0.4 Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (1 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> µCi/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for beta and gamma emitters and low toxicity alpha emitters, or 0.04 Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E> µCi/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for all other alpha emitters.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fixed contamination</I> means contamination that cannot be removed from a surface during normal conditions of transport.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-fixed contamination</I> means contamination that can be removed from a surface during normal conditions of transport.
</P>
<P><I>Conveyance means:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) For transport by public highway or rail any transport vehicle or large freight container;
</P>
<P>(2) For transport by water any vessel, or any hold, compartment, or defined deck area of a vessel including any transport vehicle on board the vessel; and
</P>
<P>(3) For transport by any aircraft.
</P>
<P><I>Criticality Safety Index (CSI)</I> means the dimensionless number (rounded up to the next tenth) assigned to and placed on the label of a fissile material package, to designate the degree of control of accumulation of packages, overpacks or freight containers containing fissile material during transportation. Determination of the criticality safety index is described in §§ 71.22, 71.23, and 71.59. The criticality safety index for an overpack, freight container, consignment or conveyance containing fissile material packages is the arithmetic sum of the criticality safety indices of all the fissile material packages contained within the overpack, freight container, consignment or conveyance.
</P>
<P><I>Deuterium</I> means, for the purposes of §§ 71.15 and 71.22, deuterium and any deuterium compounds, including heavy water, in which the ratio of deuterium atoms to hydrogen atoms exceeds 1:5000.
</P>
<P><I>DOT</I> means the U.S. Department of Transportation.
</P>
<P><I>Exclusive use</I> means the sole use by a single consignor of a conveyance for which all initial, intermediate, and final loading and unloading are carried out in accordance with the direction of the consignor or consignee. The consignor and the carrier must ensure that any loading or unloading is performed by personnel having radiological training and resources appropriate for safe handling of the consignment. The consignor must issue specific instructions, in writing, for maintenance of exclusive use shipment controls, and include them with the shipping paper information provided to the carrier by the consignor.
</P>
<P><I>Fissile material</I> means the radionuclides uranium-233, uranium-235, plutonium-239, and plutonium-241, or any combination of these radionuclides. Fissile material means the fissile nuclides themselves, not material containing fissile nuclides. Unirradiated natural uranium and depleted uranium and natural uranium or depleted uranium, that has been irradiated in thermal reactors only, are not included in this definition. Certain exclusions from fissile material controls are provided in § 71.15.
</P>
<P><I>Graphite</I> means, for the purposes of §§ 71.15 and 71.22, graphite with a boron equivalent content less than 5 parts per million and density greater than 1.5 grams per cubic centimeter.


</P>
<P><I>Indian tribe</I> means an Indian or Alaska Native Tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village, or community that the Secretary of the Interior acknowledges to exist as an Indian Tribe pursuant to the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994, 25 U.S.C. 5130.
</P>
<P><I>Licensed material</I> means byproduct, source, or special nuclear material received, possessed, used, or transferred under a general or specific license issued by the Commission pursuant to the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Low Specific Activity (LSA) material</I> means radioactive material with limited specific activity which is nonfissile or is excepted under § 71.15, and which satisfies the descriptions and limits set forth in the following section. Shielding materials surrounding the LSA material may not be considered in determining the estimated average specific activity of the package contents. The LSA material must be in one of three groups:
</P>
<P>(1) LSA-I.
</P>
<P>(i) Uranium and thorium ores, concentrates of uranium and thorium ores, and other ores containing naturally occurring radionuclides that are intended to be processed for the use of these radionuclides;
</P>
<P>(ii) Natural uranium, depleted uranium, natural thorium or their compounds or mixtures, provided they are unirradiated and in solid or liquid form;
</P>
<P>(iii) Radioactive material other than fissile material, for which the A<E T="52">2</E> value is unlimited; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Other radioactive material in which the activity is distributed throughout and the estimated average specific activity does not exceed 30 times the value for exempt material activity concentration determined in accordance with appendix A.
</P>
<P>(2) LSA-II.
</P>
<P>(i) Water with tritium concentration up to 0.8 TBq/liter (20.0 Ci/liter); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other radioactive material in which the activity is distributed throughout and the estimated average specific activity does not exceed 10<E T="51">−4</E> A<E T="52">2</E>/g for solids and gases, and 10<E T="51">−5</E> A<E T="52">2</E>/g for liquids.
</P>
<P>(3) LSA-III. Solids (e.g., consolidated wastes, activated materials), excluding powders, that satisfy the requirements of § 71.77, in which:
</P>
<P>(i) The radioactive material is distributed throughout a solid or a collection of solid objects, or is essentially uniformly distributed in a solid compact binding agent (such as concrete, bitumen, ceramic, etc.);
</P>
<P>(ii) The radioactive material is relatively insoluble, or it is intrinsically contained in a relatively insoluble material, so that even under loss of packaging, the loss of radioactive material per package by leaching when placed in water for 7 days will not exceed 0.1 A<E T="52">2</E>; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The estimated average specific activity of the solid, excluding any shielding material, does not exceed 2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> A<E T="52">2</E>/g.
</P>
<P><I>Low toxicity alpha emitters</I> means natural uranium, depleted uranium, natural thorium; uranium-235, uranium-238, thorium-232, thorium-228 or thorium-230 when contained in ores or physical or chemical concentrates or tailings; or alpha emitters with a half-life of less than 10 days.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum normal operating pressure</I> means the maximum gauge pressure that would develop in the containment system in a period of 1 year under the heat condition specified in § 71.71(c)(1), in the absence of venting, external cooling by an ancillary system, or operational controls during transport.
</P>
<P><I>Natural thorium</I> means thorium with the naturally occurring distribution of thorium isotopes (essentially 100 weight percent thorium-232).
</P>
<P><I>Normal form radioactive material</I> means radioactive material that has not been demonstrated to qualify as “special form radioactive material.”
</P>
<P><I>Optimum interspersed hydrogenous moderation</I> means the presence of hydrogenous material between packages to such an extent that the maximum nuclear reactivity results.
</P>
<P><I>Package</I> means the packaging together with its radioactive contents as presented for transport.
</P>
<P>(1) Fissile material package or Type AF package, Type BF package, Type B(U)F package, or Type B(M)F package means a fissile material packaging together with its fissile material contents.
</P>
<P>(2) Type A package means a Type A packaging together with its radioactive contents. A Type A package is defined and must comply with the DOT regulations in 49 CFR part 173.
</P>
<P>(3) Type B package means a Type B packaging together with its radioactive contents. On approval, a Type B package design is designated by NRC as B(U) unless the package has a maximum normal operating pressure of more than 700 kPa (100 lbs/in
<SU>2</SU>) gauge or a pressure relief device that would allow the release of radioactive material to the environment under the tests specified in § 71.73 (hypothetical accident conditions), in which case it will receive a designation B(M). B(U) refers to the need for unilateral approval of international shipments; B(M) refers to the need for multilateral approval of international shipments. There is no distinction made in how packages with these designations may be used in domestic transportation. To determine their distinction for international transportation, <I>see</I> DOT regulations in 49 CFR Part 173. A Type B package approved before September 6, 1983, was designated only as Type B. Limitations on its use are specified in § 71.19.
</P>
<P><I>Packaging</I> means the assembly of components necessary to ensure compliance with the packaging requirements of this part. It may consist of one or more receptacles, absorbent materials, spacing structures, thermal insulation, radiation shielding, and devices for cooling or absorbing mechanical shocks. The vehicle, tie-down system, and auxiliary equipment may be designated as part of the packaging.
</P>
<P><I>Special form radioactive material</I> means radioactive material that satisfies the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) It is either a single solid piece or is contained in a sealed capsule that can be opened only by destroying the capsule;
</P>
<P>(2) The piece or capsule has at least one dimension not less than 5 mm (0.2 in); and
</P>
<P>(3) It satisfies the requirements of § 71.75. A special form encapsulation designed in accordance with the requirements of § 71.4 in effect on June 30, 1983 (see 10 CFR part 71, revised as of January 1, 1983), and constructed before July 1, 1985; a special form encapsulation designed in accordance with the requirements of § 71.4 in effect on March 31, 1996 (see 10 CFR part 71, revised as of January 1, 1996), and constructed before April 1, 1998; and special form material that was successfully tested before September 10, 2015 in accordance with the requirements of § 71.75(d) of this section in effect before September 10, 2015 may continue to be used. Any other special form encapsulation must meet the specifications of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Specific activity of a radionuclide</I> means the radioactivity of the radionuclide per unit mass of that nuclide. The specific activity of a material in which the radionuclide is essentially uniformly distributed is the radioactivity per unit mass of the material.
</P>
<P><I>Spent nuclear fuel or Spent fuel</I> means fuel that has been withdrawn from a nuclear reactor following irradiation, has undergone at least 1 year's decay since being used as a source of energy in a power reactor, and has not been chemically separated into its constituent elements by reprocessing. Spent fuel includes the special nuclear material, byproduct material, source material, and other radioactive materials associated with fuel assemblies.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Surface Contaminated Object (SCO)</I> means a solid object that is not itself classed as radioactive material, but which has radioactive material distributed on any of its surfaces. SCO must be in one of two groups with surface activity not exceeding the following limits:
</P>
<P>(1) SCO-I: A solid object on which:
</P>
<P>(i) The nonfixed contamination on the accessible surface averaged over 300 cm
<SU>2</SU> (or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm
<SU>2</SU>) does not exceed 4 Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (10<E T="51">−4</E> microcurie/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha emitters, or 0.4 Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (10<E T="51">−5</E> microcurie/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for all other alpha emitters;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fixed contamination on the accessible surface averaged over 300 cm
<SU>2</SU> (or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm
<SU>2</SU>) does not exceed 4 × 10
<SU>4</SU> Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (1.0 microcurie/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha emitters, or 4 × 10
<SU>3</SU> Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (0.1 microcurie/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for all other alpha emitters; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The nonfixed contamination plus the fixed contamination on the inaccessible surface averaged over 300 cm
<SU>2</SU> (or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm
<SU>2</SU>) does not exceed 4 × 10
<SU>4</SU> Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (1 microcurie/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha emitters, or 4 × 10
<SU>3</SU> Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (0.1 microcurie/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for all other alpha emitters.
</P>
<P>(2) SCO-II: A solid object on which the limits for SCO-I are exceeded and on which:
</P>
<P>(i) The nonfixed contamination on the accessible surface averaged over 300 cm
<SU>2</SU> (or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm
<SU>2</SU>) does not exceed 400 Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (10<E T="51">−2</E> microcurie/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha emitters or 40 Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (10<E T="51">−3</E> microcurie/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for all other alpha emitters;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fixed contamination on the accessible surface averaged over 300 cm
<SU>2</SU> (or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm
<SU>2</SU>) does not exceed 8 × 10
<SU>5</SU> Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (20 microcuries/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha emitters, or 8 × 10
<SU>4</SU> Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (2 microcuries/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for all other alpha emitters; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The nonfixed contamination plus the fixed contamination on the inaccessible surface averaged over 300 cm
<SU>2</SU> (or the area of the surface if less than 300 cm
<SU>2</SU>) does not exceed 8 × 10
<SU>5</SU> Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (20 microcuries/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for beta and gamma and low toxicity alpha emitters, or 8 × 10
<SU>4</SU> Bq/cm
<SU>2</SU> (2 microcuries/cm
<SU>2</SU>) for all other alpha emitters.
</P>
<P><I>Transport index (TI)</I> means the dimensionless number (rounded up to the next tenth) placed on the label of a package, to designate the degree of control to be exercised by the carrier during transportation. The transport index is the number determined by multiplying the maximum radiation level in millisievert (mSv) per hour at 1 meter (3.3 ft) from the external surface of the package by 100 (equivalent to the maximum radiation level in millirem per hour at 1 meter (3.3 ft)).
</P>
<P><I>Tribal official</I> means the highest ranking individual that represents Tribal leadership, such as the Chief, President, or Tribal Council leadership.
</P>
<P><I>Type A quantity</I> means a quantity of radioactive material, the aggregate radioactivity of which does not exceed A<E T="52">1</E> for special form radioactive material, or A<E T="52">2</E>, for normal form radioactive material, where A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> are given in Table A-1 of this part, or may be determined by procedures described in Appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Type B quantity</I> means a quantity of radioactive material greater than a Type A quantity.
</P>
<P><I>Unirradiated uranium</I> means uranium containing not more than 2 × 10
<SU>3</SU> Bq of plutonium per gram of uranium-235, not more than 9 × 10
<SU>6</SU> Bq of fission products per gram of uranium-235, and not more than 5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> g of uranium-236 per gram of uranium-235.
</P>
<P><I>Uranium—natural, depleted, enriched.</I> (1) Natural uranium means uranium (which may be chemically separated) with the naturally occurring distribution of uranium isotopes (approximately 0.711 weight percent uranium-235, and the remainder by weight essentially uranium-238).
</P>
<P>(2) Depleted uranium means uranium containing less uranium-235 than the naturally occurring distribution of uranium isotopes.
</P>
<P>(3) Enriched uranium means uranium containing more uranium-235 than the naturally occurring distribution of uranium isotopes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 69 FR 58038, Sept. 29, 2004; 77 FR 34204, June 11, 2012; 80 FR 34011, June 12, 2015; 80 FR 48684, Aug. 14, 2015; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015; 82 FR 52825, Nov. 15, 2017; 86 FR 67843, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.5   Transportation of licensed material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee who transports licensed material outside the site of usage, as specified in the NRC license, or where transport is on public highways, or who delivers licensed material to a carrier for transport, shall comply with the applicable requirements of the DOT regulations in 49 CFR parts 107, 171 through 180, and 390 through 397, appropriate to the mode of transport.
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall particularly note DOT regulations in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(i) Packaging—49 CFR part 173: subparts A, B, and I.
</P>
<P>(ii) Marking and labeling—49 CFR part 172: subpart D; and §§ 172.400 through 172.407 and §§ 172.436 through 172.441 of subpart E.
</P>
<P>(iii) Placarding—49 CFR part 172: subpart F, especially §§ 172.500 through 172.519 and 172.556; and appendices B and C.
</P>
<P>(iv) Accident reporting—49 CFR part 171: §§ 171.15 and 171.16.
</P>
<P>(v) Shipping papers and emergency information—49 CFR part 172: subparts C and G.
</P>
<P>(vi) Hazardous material employee training—49 CFR part 172: subpart H.
</P>
<P>(vii) Security plans—49 CFR part 172: subpart I.
</P>
<P>(viii) Hazardous material shipper/carrier registration—49 CFR part 107: subpart G.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall also note DOT regulations pertaining to the following modes of transportation:
</P>
<P>(i) Rail—49 CFR part 174: subparts A through D and K.
</P>
<P>(ii) Air—49 CFR part 175.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vessel—49 CFR part 176: subparts A through F and M.
</P>
<P>(iv) Public Highway—49 CFR part 177 and parts 390 through 397.
</P>
<P>(b) If DOT regulations are not applicable to a shipment of licensed material, the licensee shall conform to the standards and requirements of the DOT specified in paragraph (a) of this section to the same extent as if the shipment or transportation were subject to DOT regulations. A request for modification, waiver, or exemption from those requirements, and any notification referred to in those requirements, must be filed with, or made to, the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004; 69 FR 58038, Sept. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.6   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0008.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 71.5, 71.7, 71.9, 71.12, 71.17, 71.19, 71.22, 71.23, 71.31, 71.33, 71.35, 71.37, 71.38, 71.39, 71.41, 71.47, 71.85, 71.87, 71.89, 71.91, 71.93, 71.95, 71.97, 71.101, 71.103, 71.105, 71.106, 71.107, 71.109, 71.111, 71.113, 71.115, 71.117, 71.119, 71.121, 71.123, 71.125, 71.127, 71.129, 71.131, 71.133, 71.135, 71.137, and appendix A, paragraph II.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 80 FR 34012, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.7   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by a licensee, certificate holder, or an applicant for a license or CoC; or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, license or CoC conditions, to be maintained by the licensee or certificate holder, must be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or CoC must notify the Commission of information identified by the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or CoC as having, for the regulated activity, a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. A licensee, certificate holder, or an applicant for a license or CoC violates this paragraph only if the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or CoC fails to notify the Commission of information that the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or CoC has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification must be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within 2 working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.8   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to any—
</P>
<P>(1) Licensee;
</P>
<P>(2) Certificate holder;
</P>
<P>(3) Quality assurance program approval holder;
</P>
<P>(4) Applicant for a license, certificate, or quality assurance program approval;
</P>
<P>(5) Contractor (including a supplier or consultant) or subcontractor, to any person identified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(6) Employees of any person identified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) A person identified in paragraph (a) of this section who knowingly provides to any entity, listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section, any components, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's, certificate holder's, quality assurance program approval holder's, or applicant's activities subject to this part may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee, certificate holder, quality assurance program approval holder, or any applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition or limitation of any license, certificate, or approval issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, a certificate holder, quality assurance program approval holder, an applicant for a license, certificate or quality assurance program approval, or a licensee's, applicant's, certificate holder's, or quality assurance program approval holder's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(c) A person who violates paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee, certificate holder, quality assurance program approval holder, or applicant for a license, certificate, or quality assurance program approval to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license or certificate issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, certificate holder, quality assurance program approval holder, applicant, or the contractor or subcontractor of any of them.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.9   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, certificate holder, an applicant for a Commission license or a CoC, or a contractor or subcontractor of any of these, against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities, is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended.
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee's assistance or participation.
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages.
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraph (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, certificate holder, applicant for a Commission license or a CoC, or a contractor or subcontractor of any of these may be grounds for:
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license or the CoC;
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a license or CoC must prominently post the current revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in § 19.11(c) of this chapter. This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. The premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license or CoC, and for 30 days following license or CoC termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in Appendix D to Part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in a protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 72 FR 63975, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30459, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66605, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.10   Public inspection of application.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for approval of a package design under this part, which are submitted to the Commission, may be made available for public inspection, in accordance with provisions of parts 2 and 9 of this chapter. This includes an application to amend or revise an existing package design, any associated documents and drawings submitted with the application, and any responses to NRC requests for additional information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.1.121.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.11   Protection of Safeguards Information.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a Certificate of Compliance for a transportation package for transport of irradiated reactor fuel, strategic special nuclear material, a critical mass of special nuclear material, or byproduct material in quantities determined by the Commission through order or regulation to be significant to the public health and safety or the common defense and security, shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 63572, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemptions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 71.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.2.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.12   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>On application of any interested person or on its own initiative, the Commission may grant any exemption from the requirements of the regulations in this part that it determines is authorized by law and will not endanger life or property nor the common defense and security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.2.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.13   Exemption of physicians.</HEAD>
<P>Any physician licensed by a State to dispense drugs in the practice of medicine is exempt from § 71.5 with respect to transport by the physician of licensed material for use in the practice of medicine. However, any physician operating under this exemption must be licensed under 10 CFR part 35 or the equivalent Agreement State regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.14" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.2.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.14   Exemption for low-level materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee is exempt from all the requirements of this part with respect to shipment or carriage of the following low-level materials:
</P>
<P>(1) Natural material and ores containing naturally occurring radionuclides that are either in their natural state, or have only been processed for purposes other than for the extraction of the radionuclides, and which are not intended to be processed for the use of these radionuclides, provided the activity concentration of the material does not exceed 10 times the applicable radionuclide activity concentration values specified in appendix A, Table A-2, or Table A-3 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Materials for which the activity concentration is not greater than the activity concentration values specified in appendix A, Table A-2, or Table A-3 of this part, or for which the consignment activity is not greater than the limit for an exempt consignment found in appendix A, Table A-2, or Table A-3 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Non-radioactive solid objects with radioactive substances present on any surfaces in quantities not in excess of the levels cited in the definition of contamination in § 71.4.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee is exempt from all the requirements of this part, other than §§ 71.5 and 71.88, with respect to shipment or carriage of the following packages, provided the packages do not contain any fissile material, or the material is exempt from classification as fissile material under § 71.15:
</P>
<P>(1) A package that contains no more than a Type A quantity of radioactive material; 
</P>
<P>(2) A package transported within the United States that contains no more than 0.74 TBq (20 Ci) of special form plutonium-244; or
</P>
<P>(3) The package contains only LSA or SCO radioactive material, provided— 
</P>
<P>(i) That the LSA or SCO material has an external radiation dose of less than or equal to 10 mSv/h (1 rem/h), at a distance of 3 m from the unshielded material; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That the package contains only LSA-I or SCO-I material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 34012, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.2.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.15   Exemption from classification as fissile material.</HEAD>
<P>Fissile material meeting the requirements of at least one of the paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section are exempt from classification as fissile material and from the fissile material package standards of §§ 71.55 and 71.59, but are subject to all other requirements of this part, except as noted.
</P>
<P>(a) Individual package containing 2 grams or less fissile material.
</P>
<P>(b) Individual or bulk packaging containing 15 grams or less of fissile material provided the package has at least 200 grams of solid nonfissile material for every gram of fissile material. Lead, beryllium, graphite, and hydrogenous material enriched in deuterium may be present in the package but must not be included in determining the required mass for solid nonfissile material.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Low concentrations of solid fissile material commingled with solid nonfissile material, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) There is at least 2000 grams of solid nonfissile material for every gram of fissile material, and
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no more than 180 grams of fissile material distributed within 360 kg of contiguous nonfissile material.
</P>
<P>(2) Lead, beryllium, graphite, and hydrogenous material enriched in deuterium may be present in the package but must not be included in determining the required mass of solid nonfissile material.
</P>
<P>(d) Uranium enriched in uranium-235 to a maximum of 1 percent by weight, and with total plutonium and uranium-233 content of up to 1 percent of the mass of uranium-235, provided that the mass of any beryllium, graphite, and hydrogenous material enriched in deuterium constitutes less than 5 percent of the uranium mass, and that the fissile material is distributed homogeneously and does not form a lattice arrangement within the package.
</P>
<P>(e) Liquid solutions of uranyl nitrate enriched in uranium-235 to a maximum of 2 percent by mass, with a total plutonium and uranium-233 content not exceeding 0.002 percent of the mass of uranium, and with a minimum nitrogen to uranium atomic ratio (N/U) of 2. The material must be contained in at least a DOT Type A package.
</P>
<P>(f) Packages containing, individually, a total plutonium mass of not more than 1000 grams, of which not more than 20 percent by mass may consist of plutonium-239, plutonium-241, or any combination of these radionuclides.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 34012, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.2.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.16   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—General Licenses</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 71.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.3.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.17   General license: NRC-approved package.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to any licensee of the Commission to transport, or to deliver to a carrier for transport, licensed material in a package for which a license, certificate of compliance (CoC), or other approval has been issued by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) This general license applies only to a licensee who has a quality assurance program approved by the Commission as satisfying the provisions of subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee issued a general license under paragraph (a) of this section shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain a copy of the Certificate of Compliance, or other approval of the package, and the drawings and other documents referenced in the approval relating to the use and maintenance of the packaging and to the actions to be taken before shipment;
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the terms and conditions of the license, certificate, or other approval, as applicable, and the applicable requirements of subparts A, G, and H of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Submit in writing before the first use of the package to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, using an appropriate method listed in § 71.1(a), the licensee's name and license number and the package identification number specified in the package approval.
</P>
<P>(d) This general license applies only when the package approval authorizes use of the package under this general license.
</P>
<P>(e) For a Type B or fissile material package, the design of which was approved by NRC before April 1, 1996, the general license is subject to the additional restrictions of § 71.19.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 34012, June 12, 2015; 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.18" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.3.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.18   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.3.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.19   Previously approved package.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Type B(U) package, a Type B(M) package, or a fissile material package, previously approved by the NRC but without the designation “-85” in the identification number of the NRC CoC, may be used under the general license of § 71.17 with the following additional conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Fabrication of the package is satisfactorily completed by April 1, 1999, as demonstrated by application of its model number in accordance with § 71.85(c); 
</P>
<P>(2) A package used for a shipment to a location outside the United States is subject to multilateral approval as defined in DOT regulations at 49 CFR 173.403; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A serial number which uniquely identifies each packaging which conforms to the approved design is assigned to and legibly and durably marked on the outside of each packaging. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Type B(U) package, a Type B(M) package, or a fissile material package previously approved by the NRC with the designation “-85” in the identification number of the NRC CoC, may be used under the general license of § 71.17 with the following additional conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Fabrication of the package must be satisfactorily completed by December 31, 2006, as demonstrated by application of its model number in accordance with § 71.85(c); and 
</P>
<P>(2) A package used for a shipment to a location outside the United States is subject to multilateral approval as defined in the DOT's regulations at 49 CFR 173.403.
</P>
<P>(c) NRC will approve modifications to the design and authorized contents of a Type B package, or a fissile material package, previously approved by NRC, provided— 
</P>
<P>(1) The modifications of a Type B package are not significant with respect to the design, operating characteristics, or safe performance of the containment system, when the package is subjected to the tests specified in §§ 71.71 and 71.73; 
</P>
<P>(2) The modifications of a fissile material package are not significant, with respect to the prevention of criticality, when the package is subjected to the tests specified in §§ 71.71 and 71.73; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The modifications to the package satisfy the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) NRC will revise the package identification number to designate previously approved package designs as B, BF, AF, B(U), B(M), B(U)F, B(M)F, B(U)-85, B(U)F-85, B(M)-85, B(M)F-85, or AF-85 as appropriate, and with the identification number suffix “-96” after receipt of an application demonstrating that the design meets the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004; 69 FR 6139, Feb. 10, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 34012, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.3.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.21   General license: Use of foreign approved package.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to any licensee of the Commission to transport, or to deliver to a carrier for transport, licensed material in a package, the design of which has been approved in a foreign national competent authority certificate, that has been revalidated by the DOT as meeting the applicable requirements of 49 CFR 171.23.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the general license applies only to a licensee who has a quality assurance program approved by the Commission as satisfying the applicable provisions of subpart H of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) This general license applies only to shipments made to or from locations outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) Each licensee issued a general license under paragraph (a) of this section shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain a copy of the applicable certificate, the revalidation, and the drawings and other documents referenced in the certificate, relating to the use and maintenance of the packaging and to the actions to be taken before shipment; and
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the terms and conditions of the certificate and revalidation, and with the applicable requirements of subparts A, G, and H of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 34012, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.3.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.22   General license: Fissile material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to any licensee of the Commission to transport fissile material, or to deliver fissile material to a carrier for transport, if the material is shipped in accordance with this section. The fissile material need not be contained in a package which meets the standards of subparts E and F of this part; however, the material must be contained in a Type A package. The Type A package must also meet the DOT requirements of 49 CFR 173.417(a).
</P>
<P>(b) The general license applies only to a licensee who has a quality assurance program approved by the Commission as satisfying the provisions of subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The general license applies only when a package's contents:
</P>
<P>(1) Contain no more than a Type A quantity of radioactive material; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Contain less than 500 total grams of beryllium, graphite, or hydrogenous material enriched in deuterium.
</P>
<P>(d) The general license applies only to packages containing fissile material that are labeled with a CSI which:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a value less than or equal to 10; and
</P>
<P>(3) For a shipment of multiple packages containing fissile material, the sum of the CSIs must be less than or equal to 50 (for shipment on a nonexclusive use conveyance) and less than or equal to 100 (for shipment on an exclusive use conveyance).
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The value for the CSI must be greater than or equal to the number calculated by the following equation:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="29" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er26ja04.012.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(2) The calculated CSI must be rounded up to the first decimal place;
</P>
<P>(3) The values of X, Y, and Z used in the CSI equation must be taken from Tables 71-1 or 71-2, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(4) If Table 71-2 is used to obtain the value of X, then the values for the terms in the equation for uranium-233 and plutonium must be assumed to be zero; and
</P>
<P>(5) Table 71-1 values for X, Y, and Z must be used to determine the CSI if:
</P>
<P>(i) Uranium-233 is present in the package;
</P>
<P>(ii) The mass of plutonium exceeds 1 percent of the mass of uranium-235;
</P>
<P>(iii) The uranium is of unknown uranium-235 enrichment or greater than 24 weight percent enrichment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Substances having a moderating effectiveness (<I>i.e.</I>, an average hydrogen density greater than H <E T="52">2</E>O) (e.g., certain hydrocarbon oils or plastics) are present in any form, except as polyethylene used for packing or wrapping.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 71-1—Mass Limits for General License Packages Containing Mixed Quantities of Fissile Material or Uranium-235 of Unknown Enrichment per § 71.22(<E T="01">e</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fissile material
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fissile material mass mixed with moderating substances having an average hydrogen density less than or equal to H <E T="52">2</E>O (grams)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fissile material mass mixed with moderating substances having an average hydrogen density greater than H <E T="52">2</E>O
<sup>a</sup> (grams)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>235</sup> U (X)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>233</sup> U (Y)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">
<sup>239</sup> Pu or 
<sup>241</sup> Pu (Z)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> When mixtures of moderating substances are present, the lower mass limits shall be used if more than 15 percent of the moderating substance has an average hydrogen density greater than H<E T="52">2</E>O.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 71-2—Mass Limits for General License Packages Containing Uranium-235 of Known Enrichment per § 71.22(<E T="01">e</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Uranium enrichment in weight percent of 
<sup>235</sup> U not exceeding
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fissile material mass of 
<sup>235</sup> U (X) (grams)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">93
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">97
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">102
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">108
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">246
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">408
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.35</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">480
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.92</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004; 69 FR 58038, Sept. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.3.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.23   General license: Plutonium-beryllium special form material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to any licensee of the Commission to transport fissile material in the form of plutonium-beryllium (Pu-Be) special form sealed sources, or to deliver Pu-Be sealed sources to a carrier for transport, if the material is shipped in accordance with this section. This material need not be contained in a package which meets the standards of subparts E and F of this part; however, the material must be contained in a Type A package. The Type A package must also meet the DOT requirements of 49 CFR 173.417(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) The general license applies only to a licensee who has a quality assurance program approved by the Commission as satisfying the provisions of subpart H of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The general license applies only when a package's contents: 
</P>
<P>(1) Contain no more than a Type A quantity of radioactive material; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Contain less than 1000 g of plutonium, provided that: plutonium-239, plutonium-241, or any combination of these radionuclides, constitutes less than 240 g of the total quantity of plutonium in the package. 
</P>
<P>(d) The general license applies only to packages labeled with a CSI which: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has been determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) Has a value less than or equal to 100; and 
</P>
<P>(3) For a shipment of multiple packages containing Pu-Be sealed sources, the sum of the CSIs must be less than or equal to 50 (for shipment on a nonexclusive use conveyance) and less than or equal to 100 (for shipment on an exclusive use conveyance). 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The value for the CSI must be greater than or equal to the number calculated by the following equation: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="29" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er26ja04.013.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(2) The calculated CSI must be rounded up to the first decimal place. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3786, Jan. 26, 2004; 69 FR 58038, Sept. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 71.24-71.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.3.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 71.24-71.25   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Application for Package Approval</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.4.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.31   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an approval under this part must include, for each proposed packaging design, the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A package description as required by § 71.33; 
</P>
<P>(2) A package evaluation as required by § 71.35; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A quality assurance program description, as required by § 71.37, or a reference to a previously approved quality assurance program. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 71.19, an application for modification of a package design, whether for modification of the packaging or authorized contents, must include sufficient information to demonstrate that the proposed design satisfies the package standards in effect at the time the application is filed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant shall identify any established codes and standards proposed for use in package design, fabrication, assembly, testing, maintenance, and use. In the absence of any codes and standards, the applicant shall describe and justify the basis and rationale used to formulate the package quality assurance program. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 80 FR 34012, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.4.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.33   Package description.</HEAD>
<P>The application must include a description of the proposed package in sufficient detail to identify the package accurately and provide a sufficient basis for evaluation of the package. The description must include—
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to the packaging— 
</P>
<P>(1) Classification as Type B(U), Type B(M), or fissile material packaging; 
</P>
<P>(2) Gross weight; 
</P>
<P>(3) Model number; 
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of the containment system; 
</P>
<P>(5) Specific materials of construction, weights, dimensions, and fabrication methods of—
</P>
<P>(i) Receptacles; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Materials specifically used as nonfissile neutron absorbers or moderators; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Internal and external structures supporting or protecting receptacles; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Valves, sampling ports, lifting devices, and tie-down devices; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Structural and mechanical means for the transfer and dissipation of heat; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Identification and volumes of any receptacles containing coolant. 
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to the contents of the package— 
</P>
<P>(1) Identification and maximum radioactivity of radioactive constituents; 
</P>
<P>(2) Identification and maximum quantities of fissile constituents; 
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical and physical form; 
</P>
<P>(4) Extent of reflection, the amount and identity of nonfissile materials used as neutron absorbers or moderators, and the atomic ratio of moderator to fissile constituents; 
</P>
<P>(5) Maximum normal operating pressure; 
</P>
<P>(6) Maximum weight; 
</P>
<P>(7) Maximum amount of decay heat; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Identification and volumes of any coolants. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.4.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.35   Package evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>The application must include the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) A demonstration that the package satisfies the standards specified in subparts E and F of this part; 
</P>
<P>(b) For a fissile material package, the allowable number of packages that may be transported in the same vehicle in accordance with § 71.59; and 
</P>
<P>(c) For a fissile material shipment, any proposed special controls and precautions for transport, loading, unloading, and handling and any proposed special controls in case of an accident or delay. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.37" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.4.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.37   Quality assurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant shall describe the quality assurance program (see Subpart H of this part) for the design, fabrication, assembly, testing, maintenance, repair, modification, and use of the proposed package. 
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant shall identify any specific provisions of the quality assurance program that are applicable to the particular package design under consideration, including a description of the leak testing procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.38" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.4.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.38   Renewal of a certificate of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each Certificate of Compliance expires at the end of the day, in the month and year stated in the approval.
</P>
<P>(b) In any case in which a person, not less than 30 days before the expiration of an existing Certificate of Compliance issued pursuant to the part, has filed an application in proper form for renewal, the existing Certificate of Compliance for which the renewal application was filed shall not be deemed to have expired until final action on the application for renewal has been taken by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) In applying for renewal of an existing Certificate of Compliance, an applicant may be required to submit a consolidated application that is comprised of as few documents as possible. The consolidated application should incorporate all changes to its certificate, including changes that are incorporated by reference in the existing certificate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 34012, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.39" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.4.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.39   Requirement for additional information.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may at any time require additional information in order to enable it to determine whether a license, certificate of compliance, or other approval should be granted, renewed, denied, modified, suspended, or revoked. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Package Approval Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.41   Demonstration of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The effects on a package of the tests specified in § 71.71 (“Normal conditions of transport”), and the tests specified in § 71.73 (“Hypothetical accident conditions”), and § 71.61 (“Special requirements for Type B packages containing more than 10
<SU>5</SU> A<E T="52">2</E>”), must be evaluated by subjecting a specimen or scale model to a specific test, or by another method of demonstration acceptable to the Commission, as appropriate for the particular feature being considered. 
</P>
<P>(b) Taking into account the type of vehicle, the method of securing or attaching the package, and the controls to be exercised by the shipper, the Commission may permit the shipment to be evaluated together with the transporting vehicle. 
</P>
<P>(c) Environmental and test conditions different from those specified in §§ 71.71 and 71.73 may be approved by the Commission if the controls proposed to be exercised by the shipper are demonstrated to be adequate to provide equivalent safety of the shipment. 
</P>
<P>(d) Packages for which compliance with the other provisions of these regulations is impracticable shall not be transported except under special package authorization. Provided the applicant demonstrates that compliance with the other provisions of the regulations is impracticable and that the requisite standards of safety established by these regulations have been demonstrated through means alternative to the other provisions, a special package authorization may be approved for one-time shipments. The applicant shall demonstrate that the overall level of safety in transport for these shipments is at least equivalent to that which would be provided if all the applicable requirements had been met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 3794, Jan. 26, 2004; 69 FR 58039, Sept. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.43   General standards for all packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The smallest overall dimension of a package may not be less than 10 cm (4 in). 
</P>
<P>(b) The outside of a package must incorporate a feature, such as a seal, that is not readily breakable and that, while intact, would be evidence that the package has not been opened by unauthorized persons. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each package must include a containment system securely closed by a positive fastening device that cannot be opened unintentionally or by a pressure that may arise within the package. 
</P>
<P>(d) A package must be made of materials and construction that assure that there will be no significant chemical, galvanic, or other reaction among the packaging components, among package contents, or between the packaging components and the package contents, including possible reaction resulting from inleakage of water, to the maximum credible extent. Account must be taken of the behavior of materials under irradiation. 
</P>
<P>(e) A package valve or other device, the failure of which would allow radioactive contents to escape, must be protected against unauthorized operation and, except for a pressure relief device, must be provided with an enclosure to retain any leakage. 
</P>
<P>(f) A package must be designed, constructed, and prepared for shipment so that under the tests specified in § 71.71 (“Normal conditions of transport”) there would be no loss or dispersal of radioactive contents, no significant increase in external surface radiation levels, and no substantial reduction in the effectiveness of the packaging. 
</P>
<P>(g) A package must be designed, constructed, and prepared for transport so that in still air at 38 °C (100 °F) and in the shade, no accessible surface of a package would have a temperature exceeding 50 °C (122 °F) in a nonexclusive use shipment, or 85 °C (185 °F) in an exclusive use shipment. 
</P>
<P>(h) A package may not incorporate a feature intended to allow continuous venting during transport. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.45   Lifting and tie-down standards for all packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any lifting attachment that is a structural part of a package must be designed with a minimum safety factor of three against yielding when used to lift the package in the intended manner, and it must be designed so that failure of any lifting device under excessive load would not impair the ability of the package to meet other requirements of this subpart. Any other structural part of the package that could be used to lift the package must be capable of being rendered inoperable for lifting the package during transport, or must be designed with strength equivalent to that required for lifting attachments. 
</P>
<P>(b) Tie-down devices: 
</P>
<P>(1) If there is a system of tie-down devices that is a structural part of the package, the system must be capable of withstanding, without generating stress in any material of the package in excess of its yield strength, a static force applied to the center of gravity of the package having a vertical component of 2 times the weight of the package with its contents, a horizontal component along the direction in which the vehicle travels of 10 times the weight of the package with its contents, and a horizontal component in the transverse direction of 5 times the weight of the package with its contents. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other structural part of the package that could be used to tie down the package must be capable of being rendered inoperable for tying down the package during transport, or must be designed with strength equivalent to that required for tie-down devices. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each tie-down device that is a structural part of a package must be designed so that failure of the device under excessive load would not impair the ability of the package to meet other requirements of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.47" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.47   External radiation standards for all packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each package of radioactive materials offered for transportation must be designed and prepared for shipment so that under conditions normally incident to transportation the radiation level does not exceed 2 mSv/h (200 mrem/h) at any point on the external surface of the package, and the transport index does not exceed 10. 
</P>
<P>(b) A package that exceeds the radiation level limits specified in paragraph (a) of this section must be transported by exclusive use shipment only, and the radiation levels for such shipment must not exceed the following during transportation: 
</P>
<P>(1) 2 mSv/h (200 mrem/h) on the external surface of the package, unless the following conditions are met, in which case the limit is 10 mSv/h (1000 mrem/h): 
</P>
<P>(i) The shipment is made in a closed transport vehicle; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The package is secured within the vehicle so that its position remains fixed during transportation; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) There are no loading or unloading operations between the beginning and end of the transportation; 
</P>
<P>(2) 2 mSv/h (200 mrem/h) at any point on the outer surface of the vehicle, including the top and underside of the vehicle; or in the case of a flat-bed style vehicle, at any point on the vertical planes projected from the outer edges of the vehicle, on the upper surface of the load or enclosure, if used, and on the lower external surface of the vehicle; and 
</P>
<P>(3) 0.1 mSv/h (10 mrem/h) at any point 2 meters (80 in) from the outer lateral surfaces of the vehicle (excluding the top and underside of the vehicle); or in the case of a flat-bed style vehicle, at any point 2 meters (6.6 feet) from the vertical planes projected by the outer edges of the vehicle (excluding the top and underside of the vehicle); and 
</P>
<P>(4) 0.02 mSv/h (2 mrem/h) in any normally occupied space, except that this provision does not apply to private carriers, if exposed personnel under their control wear radiation dosimetry devices in conformance with 10 CFR 20.1502. 
</P>
<P>(c) For shipments made under the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the shipper shall provide specific written instructions to the carrier for maintenance of the exclusive use shipment controls. The instructions must be included with the shipping paper information. 
</P>
<P>(d) The written instructions required for exclusive use shipments must be sufficient so that, when followed, they will cause the carrier to avoid actions that will unnecessarily delay delivery or unnecessarily result in increased radiation levels or radiation exposures to transport workers or members of the general public. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.51   Additional requirements for Type B packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Type B package, in addition to satisfying the requirements of §§ 71.41 through 71.47, must be designed, constructed, and prepared for shipment so that under the tests specified in: 
</P>
<P>(1) Section 71.71 (“Normal conditions of transport”), there would be no loss or dispersal of radioactive contents—as demonstrated to a sensitivity of 10<E T="51">−6</E> A<E T="52">2</E> per hour, no significant increase in external surface radiation levels, and no substantial reduction in the effectiveness of the packaging; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Section 71.73 (“Hypothetical accident conditions”), there would be no escape of krypton-85 exceeding 10 A<E T="52">2</E> in 1 week, no escape of other radioactive material exceeding a total amount A<E T="52">2</E> in 1 week, and no external radiation dose rate exceeding 10 mSv/h (1 rem/h) at 1 m (40 in) from the external surface of the package. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where mixtures of different radionuclides are present, the provisions of appendix A, paragraph IV of this part shall apply, except that for Krypton-85, an effective A<E T="52">2</E> value equal to 10 A<E T="52">2</E> may be used. 
</P>
<P>(c) Compliance with the permitted activity release limits of paragraph (a) of this section may not depend on filters or on a mechanical cooling system. 
</P>
<P>(d) For packages which contain radioactive contents with activity greater than 10
<SU>5</SU> A<E T="52">2</E>, the requirements of § 71.61 must be met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 3794, Jan. 26, 2004; 69 FR 58039, Sept. 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.53   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.55   General requirements for fissile material packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A package used for the shipment of fissile material must be designed and constructed in accordance with §§ 71.41 through 71.47. When required by the total amount of radioactive material, a package used for the shipment of fissile material must also be designed and constructed in accordance with § 71.51. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) or (g) of this section, a package used for the shipment of fissile material must be so designed and constructed and its contents so limited that it would be subcritical if water were to leak into the containment system, or liquid contents were to leak out of the containment system so that, under the following conditions, maximum reactivity of the fissile material would be attained: 
</P>
<P>(1) The most reactive credible configuration consistent with the chemical and physical form of the material; 
</P>
<P>(2) Moderation by water to the most reactive credible extent; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Close full reflection of the containment system by water on all sides, or such greater reflection of the containment system as may additionally be provided by the surrounding material of the packaging. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may approve exceptions to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if the package incorporates special design features that ensure that no single packaging error would permit leakage, and if appropriate measures are taken before each shipment to ensure that the containment system does not leak. 
</P>
<P>(d) A package used for the shipment of fissile material must be so designed and constructed and its contents so limited that under the tests specified in § 71.71 (“Normal conditions of transport”)—
</P>
<P>(1) The contents would be subcritical; 
</P>
<P>(2) The geometric form of the package contents would not be substantially altered; 
</P>
<P>(3) There would be no leakage of water into the containment system unless, in the evaluation of undamaged packages under § 71.59(a)(1), it has been assumed that moderation is present to such an extent as to cause maximum reactivity consistent with the chemical and physical form of the material; and 
</P>
<P>(4) There will be no substantial reduction in the effectiveness of the packaging, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) No more than 5 percent reduction in the total effective volume of the packaging on which nuclear safety is assessed; 
</P>
<P>(ii) No more than 5 percent reduction in the effective spacing between the fissile contents and the outer surface of the packaging; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) No occurrence of an aperture in the outer surface of the packaging large enough to permit the entry of a 10 cm (4 in) cube. 
</P>
<P>(e) A package used for the shipment of fissile material must be so designed and constructed and its contents so limited that under the tests specified in § 71.73 (“Hypothetical accident conditions”), the package would be subcritical. For this determination, it must be assumed that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The fissile material is in the most reactive credible configuration consistent with the damaged condition of the package and the chemical and physical form of the contents; 
</P>
<P>(2) Water moderation occurs to the most reactive credible extent consistent with the damaged condition of the package and the chemical and physical form of the contents; and 
</P>
<P>(3) There is full reflection by water on all sides, as close as is consistent with the damaged condition of the package. 
</P>
<P>(f) For fissile material package designs to be transported by air: 
</P>
<P>(1) The package must be designed and constructed, and its contents limited so that it would be subcritical, assuming reflection by 20 cm (7.9 in) of water but no water inleakage, when subjected to sequential application of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The free drop test in § 71.73(c)(1); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The crush test in § 71.73(c)(2); 
</P>
<P>(iii) A puncture test, for packages of 250 kg or more, consisting of a free drop of the specimen through a distance of 3 m (120 in) in a position for which maximum damage is expected at the conclusion of the test sequence, onto the upper end of a solid, vertical, cylindrical, mild steel probe mounted on an essentially unyielding, horizontal surface. The probe must be 20 cm (7.9 in) in diameter, with the striking end forming the frustum of a right circular cone with the dimensions of 30 cm height, 2.5 cm top diameter, and a top edge rounded to a radius of not more than 6 mm (0.25 in). For packages less than 250 kg, the puncture test must be the same, except that a 250 kg probe must be dropped onto the specimen which must be placed on the surface; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The thermal test in § 71.73(c)(4), except that the duration of the test must be 60 minutes. 
</P>
<P>(2) The package must be designed and constructed, and its contents limited, so that it would be subcritical, assuming reflection by 20 cm (7.9 in) of water but no water inleakage, when subjected to an impact on an unyielding surface at a velocity of 90 m/s normal to the surface, at such orientation so as to result in maximum damage. A separate, undamaged specimen can be used for this evaluation.
</P>
<P>(3) Allowance may not be made for the special design features in paragraph (c) of this section, unless water leakage into or out of void spaces is prevented following application of the tests in paragraphs (f)(1) and (f)(2) of this section, and subsequent application of the immersion test in § 71.73(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(g) Packages containing uranium hexafluoride only are excepted from the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) Following the tests specified in § 71.73 (“Hypothetical accident conditions”), there is no physical contact between the valve body and any other component of the packaging, other than at its original point of attachment, and the valve remains leak tight;
</P>
<P>(2) There is an adequate quality control in the manufacture, maintenance, and repair of packagings;
</P>
<P>(3) Each package is tested to demonstrate closure before each shipment; and
</P>
<P>(4) The uranium is enriched to not more than 5 weight percent uranium-235.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995; 61 FR 28724, June 6, 1996, as amended at 69 FR 3794, Jan. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.57" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.57   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.59   Standards for arrays of fissile material packages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A fissile material package must be controlled by either the shipper or the carrier during transport to assure that an array of such packages remains subcritical. To enable this control, the designer of a fissile material package shall derive a number “N” based on all the following conditions being satisfied, assuming packages are stacked together in any arrangement and with close full reflection on all sides of the stack by water: 
</P>
<P>(1) Five times “N” undamaged packages with nothing between the packages would be subcritical; 
</P>
<P>(2) Two times “N” damaged packages, if each package were subjected to the tests specified in § 71.73 (“Hypothetical accident conditions”) would be subcritical with optimum interspersed hydrogenous moderation; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The value of “N” cannot be less than 0.5. 
</P>
<P>(b) The CSI must be determined by dividing the number 50 by the value of “N” derived using the procedures specified in paragraph (a) of this section. The value of the CSI may be zero provided that an unlimited number of packages are subcritical, such that the value of “N” is effectively equal to infinity under the procedures specified in paragraph (a) of this section. Any CSI greater than zero must be rounded up to the first decimal place.
</P>
<P>(c) For a fissile material package which is assigned a CSI value—
</P>
<P>(1) Less than or equal to 50, that package may be shipped by a carrier in a nonexclusive use conveyance, provided the sum of the CSIs is limited to less than or equal to 50.
</P>
<P>(2) Less than or equal to 50, that package may be shipped by a carrier in an exclusive use conveyance, provided the sum of the CSIs is limited to less than or equal to 100.
</P>
<P>(3) Greater than 50, that package must be shipped by a carrier in an exclusive use conveyance, provided the sum of the CSIs is limited to less than or equal to 100.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 3795, Jan. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.61   Special requirements for Type B packages containing more than 10<E T="9141">5</E>A<E T="9145">2</E>.</HEAD>
<P>A Type B package containing more than 10
<SU>5</SU>A<E T="52">2</E> must be designed so that its undamaged containment system can withstand an external water pressure of 2 MPa (290 psi) for a period of not less than 1 hour without collapse, buckling, or inleakage of water.

 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3795, Jan. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.63" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.63   Special requirement for plutonium shipments.</HEAD>
<P>Shipments containing plutonium must be made with the contents in solid form, if the contents contain greater than 0.74 TBq (20 Ci) of plutonium.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3795, Jan. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.64" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.64   Special requirements for plutonium air shipments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A package for the shipment of plutonium by air subject to § 71.88(a)(4), in addition to satisfying the requirements of §§ 71.41 through 71.63, as applicable, must be designed, constructed, and prepared for shipment so that under the tests specified in—
</P>
<P>(1) Section 71.74 (“Accident conditions for air transport of plutonium”)—
</P>
<P>(i) The containment vessel would not be ruptured in its post-tested condition, and the package must provide a sufficient degree of containment to restrict accumulated loss of plutonium contents to not more than an A<E T="52">2</E> quantity in a period of 1 week; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The external radiation level would not exceed 10 mSv/h (1 rem/h) at a distance of 1 m (40 in) from the surface of the package in its post-tested condition in air; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A single package and an array of packages are demonstrated to be subcritical in accordance with this part, except that the damaged condition of the package must be considered to be that which results from the plutonium accident tests in § 71.74, rather than the hypothetical accident tests in § 71.73; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Section 71.74(c), there would be no detectable leakage of water into the containment vessel of the package. 
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to the package requirements of paragraph (a), there must be a demonstration or analytical assessment showing that—
</P>
<P>(1) The results of the physical testing for package qualification would not be adversely affected to a significant extent by—
</P>
<P>(i) The presence, during the tests, of the actual contents that will be transported in the package; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ambient water temperatures ranging from 0.6 °C ( + 33 °F) to 38 °C ( + 100 °F) for those qualification tests involving water, and ambient atmospheric temperatures ranging from −40 °C (−40 °F) to + 54 °C ( + 130°F) for the other qualification tests. 
</P>
<P>(2) The ability of the package to meet the acceptance standards prescribed for the accident condition sequential tests would not be adversely affected if one or more tests in the sequence were deleted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.65" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.5.121.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.65   Additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, by rule, regulation, or order, impose requirements on any licensee, in addition to those established in this part, as it deems necessary or appropriate to protect public health or to minimize danger to life or property. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Package, Special Form, and LSA-III Tests 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>

<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The package standards related to the tests in this subpart are contained in subpart E of this part.</P></FTNT>

<DIV8 N="§ 71.70" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.6.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.70   Incorporations by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The materials listed in this section are incorporated by reference in the corresponding sections noted and made a part of the regulations in part 71. These incorporations by reference were approved by the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. These materials are incorporated as they exist on the date of the approval. A notice of any changes made to the material incorporated by reference will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and the material must be available to the public. The materials can be examined, by appointment, at the NRC's Technical Library, which is located at Two White Flint North, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852; telephone: 301-415-7000; email: <I>Library.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> The materials are also available from the sources listed below. All approved material is available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 1-202-741-6030 or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) International Organization for Standardization, ISO Central Secretariat, Chemin de Blandonnet 8 CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland; email: <I>central@iso.org;</I> phone: + 41 22 749 01 11; Web site: <I>http://www.iso.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ISO 9978:1992(E), “Radiation protection—Sealed radioactive sources—Leakage test methods,” First Edition (February 15, 1992), incorporation by reference approved for § 71.75(a), is available for purchase from the American National Standards Institute, 25 West 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036, 212-642-4900, <I>http://www.ansi.org,</I> or <I>info@ansi.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) ISO 2919:1999(E), “Radiation protection—Sealed radioactive sources—General requirements and classification,” Second Edition (February 15, 1999), incorporation by reference approved for § 71.75(d), is available on <I>http://www.amazon.com.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 34013, June 12, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 48684, Aug. 14, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.6.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.71   Normal conditions of transport.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Evaluation.</I> Evaluation of each package design under normal conditions of transport must include a determination of the effect on that design of the conditions and tests specified in this section. Separate specimens may be used for the free drop test, the compression test, and the penetration test, if each specimen is subjected to the water spray test before being subjected to any of the other tests. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial conditions.</I> With respect to the initial conditions for the tests in this section, the demonstration of compliance with the requirements of this part must be based on the ambient temperature preceding and following the tests remaining constant at that value between −29 °C (−20 °F) and + 38 °C ( + 100 °F) which is most unfavorable for the feature under consideration. The initial internal pressure within the containment system must be considered to be the maximum normal operating pressure, unless a lower internal pressure consistent with the ambient temperature considered to precede and follow the tests is more unfavorable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions and tests</I>—(1) <I>Heat.</I> An ambient temperature of 38 °C (100 °F) in still air, and insolation according to the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Insolation Data
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Form and location of surface 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total insolation for a 12-hour period
<br/>(g cal/cm
<sup>2</sup>)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flat surfaces transported horizontally: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Base</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other surfaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flat surfaces not transported horizontally</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curved surfaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Cold.</I> An ambient temperature of −40 °C (−40 °F) in still air and shade. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reduced external pressure.</I> An external pressure of 25 kPa (3.5 lbf/in
<SU>2</SU>) absolute. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Increased external pressure.</I> An external pressure of 140 kPa (20 lbf/in
<SU>2</SU>) absolute. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Vibration.</I> Vibration normally incident to transport. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Water spray.</I> A water spray that simulates exposure to rainfall of approximately 5 cm/h (2 in/h) for at least 1 hour. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Free drop.</I> Between 1.5 and 2.5 hours after the conclusion of the water spray test, a free drop through the distance specified below onto a flat, essentially unyielding, horizontal surface, striking the surface in a position for which maximum damage is expected. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Criteria for Free Drop Test (Weight/Distance)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Package weight 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Free drop distance
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Kilograms 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(Pounds) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Meters 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(Feet)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 5,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Less than 11,000)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,000 to 10,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(11,000 to 22,000)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,000 to 15,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(22,000 to 33,100)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 15,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(More than 33,100)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(1)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) <I>Corner drop.</I> A free drop onto each corner of the package in succession, or in the case of a cylindrical package onto each quarter of each rim, from a height of 0.3 m (1 ft) onto a flat, essentially unyielding, horizontal surface. This test applies only to fiberboard, wood, or fissile material rectangular packages not exceeding 50 kg (110 lbs) and fiberboard, wood, or fissile material cylindrical packages not exceeding 100 kg (220 lbs). 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Compression.</I> For packages weighing up to 5000 kg (11,000 lbs), the package must be subjected, for a period of 24 hours, to a compressive load applied uniformly to the top and bottom of the package in the position in which the package would normally be transported. The compressive load must be the greater of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The equivalent of 5 times the weight of the package; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The equivalent of 13 kPa (2 lbf/in
<SU>2</SU>) multiplied by the vertically projected area of the package. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Penetration.</I> Impact of the hemispherical end of a vertical steel cylinder of 3.2 cm (1.25 in) diameter and 6 kg (13 lbs) mass, dropped from a height of 1 m (40 in) onto the exposed surface of the package that is expected to be most vulnerable to puncture. The long axis of the cylinder must be perpendicular to the package surface. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 81 FR 86910, Dec. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.6.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.73   Hypothetical accident conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Test procedures.</I> Evaluation for hypothetical accident conditions is to be based on sequential application of the tests specified in this section, in the order indicated, to determine their cumulative effect on a package or array of packages. An undamaged specimen may be used for the water immersion tests specified in paragraph (c)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test conditions.</I> With respect to the initial conditions for the tests, except for the water immersion tests, to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this part during testing, the ambient air temperature before and after the tests must remain constant at that value between −29 °C (−20 °F) and + 38 °C ( + 100 °F) which is most unfavorable for the feature under consideration. The initial internal pressure within the containment system must be the maximum normal operating pressure, unless a lower internal pressure, consistent with the ambient temperature assumed to precede and follow the tests, is more unfavorable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tests.</I> Tests for hypothetical accident conditions must be conducted as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Free drop.</I> A free drop of the specimen through a distance of 9 m (30 ft) onto a flat, essentially unyielding, horizontal surface, striking the surface in a position for which maximum damage is expected. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Crush.</I> Subjection of the specimen to a dynamic crush test by positioning the specimen on a flat, essentially unyielding horizontal surface so as to suffer maximum damage by the drop of a 500-kg (1100-lb) mass from 9 m (30 ft) onto the specimen. The mass must consist of a solid mild steel plate 1 m (40 in) by 1 m (40 in) and must fall in a horizontal attitude. The crush test is required only when the specimen has a mass not greater than 500 kg (1100 lb), an overall density not greater than 1000 kg/m 
<SU>3</SU> (62.4 lb/ft 
<SU>3</SU>) based on external dimension, and radioactive contents greater than 1000 A<E T="52">2</E> not as special form radioactive material. For packages containing fissile material, the radioactive contents greater than 1000 A<E T="52">2</E> criterion does not apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Puncture.</I> A free drop of the specimen through a distance of 1 m (40 in) in a position for which maximum damage is expected, onto the upper end of a solid, vertical, cylindrical, mild steel bar mounted on an essentially unyielding, horizontal surface. The bar must be 15 cm (6 in) in diameter, with the top horizontal and its edge rounded to a radius of not more than 6 mm (0.25 in), and of a length as to cause maximum damage to the package, but not less than 20 cm (8 in) long. The long axis of the bar must be vertical. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Thermal.</I> Exposure of the specimen fully engulfed, except for a simple support system, in a hydrocarbon fuel/air fire of sufficient extent, and in sufficiently quiescent ambient conditions, to provide an average emissivity coefficient of at least 0.9, with an average flame temperature of at least 800 °C (1475 °F) for a period of 30 minutes, or any other thermal test that provides the equivalent total heat input to the package and which provides a time averaged environmental temperature of 800 °C. The fuel source must extend horizontally at least 1 m (40 in), but may not extend more than 3 m (10 ft), beyond any external surface of the specimen, and the specimen must be positioned 1 m (40 in) above the surface of the fuel source. For purposes of calculation, the surface absorptivity coefficient must be either that value which the package may be expected to possess if exposed to the fire specified or 0.8, whichever is greater; and the convective coefficient must be that value which may be demonstrated to exist if the package were exposed to the fire specified. Artificial cooling may not be applied after cessation of external heat input, and any combustion of materials of construction, must be allowed to proceed until it terminates naturally. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Immersion—fissile material.</I> For fissile material subject to § 71.55, in those cases where water inleakage has not been assumed for criticality analysis, immersion under a head of water of at least 0.9 m (3 ft) in the attitude for which maximum leakage is expected. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Immersion—all packages.</I> A separate, undamaged specimen must be subjected to water pressure equivalent to immersion under a head of water of at least 15 m (50 ft). For test purposes, an external pressure of water of 150 kPa (21.7 lbf/in
<SU>2</SU>) gauge is considered to meet these conditions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 3795, Jan. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.6.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.74   Accident conditions for air transport of plutonium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Test conditions—Sequence of tests.</I> A package must be physically tested to the following conditions in the order indicated to determine their cumulative effect. 
</P>
<P>(1) Impact at a velocity of not less than 129 m/sec (422 ft/sec) at a right angle onto a flat, essentially unyielding, horizontal surface, in the orientation (e.g., side, end, corner) expected to result in maximum damage at the conclusion of the test sequence. 
</P>
<P>(2) A static compressive load of 31,800 kg (70,000 lbs) applied in the orientation expected to result in maximum damage at the conclusion of the test sequence. The force on the package must be developed between a flat steel surface and a 5 cm (2 in) wide, straight, solid, steel bar. The length of the bar must be at least as long as the diameter of the package, and the longitudinal axis of the bar must be parallel to the plane of the flat surface. The load must be applied to the bar in a manner that prevents any members or devices used to support the bar from contacting the package. 
</P>
<P>(3) Packages weighing less than 227 kg (500 lbs) must be placed on a flat, essentially unyielding, horizontal surface, and subjected to a weight of 227 kg (500 lbs) falling from a height of 3 m (10 ft) and striking in the position expected to result in maximum damage at the conclusion of the test sequence. The end of the weight contacting the package must be a solid probe made of mild steel. The probe must be the shape of the frustum of a right circular cone, 30 cm (12 in) long, 20 cm (8 in) in diameter at the base, and 2.5 cm (1 in) in diameter at the end. The longitudinal axis of the probe must be perpendicular to the horizontal surface. For packages weighing 227 kg (500 lbs) or more, the base of the probe must be placed on a flat, essentially unyielding horizontal surface, and the package dropped from a height of 3 m (10 ft) onto the probe, striking in the position expected to result in maximum damage at the conclusion of the test sequence. 
</P>
<P>(4) The package must be firmly restrained and supported such that its longitudinal axis is inclined approximately 45° to the horizontal. The area of the package that made first contact with the impact surface in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be in the lowermost position. The package must be struck at approximately the center of its vertical projection by the end of a structural steel angle section falling from a height of at least 46 m (150 ft). The angle section must be at least 1.8 m (6 ft) in length with equal legs at least 13 cm (5 in) long and 1.3 cm (0.5 in) thick. The angle section must be guided in such a way as to fall end-on, without tumbling. The package must be rotated approximately 90° about its longitudinal axis and struck by the steel angle section falling as before. 
</P>
<P>(5) The package must be exposed to luminous flames from a pool fire of JP-4 or JP-5 aviation fuel for a period of at least 60 minutes. The luminous flames must extend an average of at least 0.9 m (3 ft) and no more than 3 m (10 ft) beyond the package in all horizontal directions. The position and orientation of the package in relation to the fuel must be that which is expected to result in maximum damage at the conclusion of the test sequence. An alternate method of thermal testing may be substituted for this fire test, provided that the alternate test is not of shorter duration and would not result in a lower heating rate to the package. At the conclusion of the thermal test, the package must be allowed to cool naturally or must be cooled by water sprinkling, whichever is expected to result in maximum damage at the conclusion of the test sequence. 
</P>
<P>(6) Immersion under at least 0.9 m (3 ft) of water. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individual free-fall impact test.</I> (1) An undamaged package must be physically subjected to an impact at a velocity not less than the calculated terminal free-fall velocity, at mean sea level, at a right angle onto a flat, essentially unyielding, horizontal surface, in the orientation (e.g., side, end, corner) expected to result in maximum damage. 
</P>
<P>(2) This test is not required if the calculated terminal free-fall velocity of the package is less than 129 m/sec (422 ft/sec), or if a velocity not less than either 129 m/sec (422 ft/sec) or the calculated terminal free-fall velocity of the package is used in the sequential test of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual deep submersion test.</I> An undamaged package must be physically submerged and physically subjected to an external water pressure of at least 4 MPa (600 lbs/in 
<SU>2</SU>). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.75" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.6.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.75   Qualification of special form radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Special form radioactive materials must meet the test requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Each solid radioactive material or capsule specimen to be tested must be manufactured or fabricated so that it is representative of the actual solid material or capsule that will be transported, with the proposed radioactive content duplicated as closely as practicable. Any differences between the material to be transported and the test material, such as the use of non-radioactive contents, must be taken into account in determining whether the test requirements have been met. In addition: 
</P>
<P>(1) A different specimen may be used for each of the tests; 
</P>
<P>(2) The specimen may not break or shatter when subjected to the impact, percussion, or bending tests; 
</P>
<P>(3) The specimen may not melt or disperse when subjected to the heat test; 
</P>
<P>(4) After each test, leaktightness or indispersibility of the specimen must be determined by a method no less sensitive than the leaching assessment procedure prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section. For a capsule resistant to corrosion by water, and which has an internal void volume greater than 0.1 milliliter, an alternative to the leaching assessment is a demonstration of leaktightness of × 10<E T="51">−4</E> torr-liter/s (1.3 × × 10<E T="51">−4</E> atm-cm
<SU>3</SU>/s) based on air at 25 °C (77 °F) and one atmosphere differential pressure for solid radioactive content, or × 10<E T="51">−6</E> torr-liter/s (1.3 × × 10<E T="51">−6</E> atm−cm
<SU>3</SU>/s) for liquid or gaseous radioactive content; and 
</P>
<P>(5) A specimen that comprises or simulates radioactive material contained in a sealed capsule need not be subjected to the leaktightness procedure specified in this section, provided it is alternatively subjected to any of the tests prescribed in ISO 9978:1992(E), “Radiation protection—Sealed radioactive sources—Leakage test methods” (incorporated by reference, see § 71.70).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test methods</I>—(1) <I>Impact Test.</I> The specimen must fall onto the target from a height of 9 m (30 ft) or greater in the orientation expected to result in maximum damage. The target must be a flat, horizontal surface of such mass and rigidity that any increase in its resistance to displacement or deformation, on impact by the specimen, would not significantly increase the damage to the specimen.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Percussion Test.</I> (i) The specimen must be placed on a sheet of lead that is supported by a smooth solid surface, and struck by the flat face of a steel billet so as to produce an impact equivalent to that resulting from a free drop of 1.4 kg (3 lbs) through 1 m (40 in);
</P>
<P>(ii) The flat face of the billet must be 25 millimeters (mm) (1 inch) in diameter with the edge rounded off to a radius of 3 mm ±0.3 mm (0.12 in ±0.012 in);
</P>
<P>(iii) The lead must be hardness number 3.5 to 4.5 on the Vickers scale and not more than 25 mm (1 inch) thick, and must cover an area greater than that covered by the specimen;
</P>
<P>(iv) A fresh surface of lead must be used for each impact; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The billet must strike the specimen so as to cause maximum damage. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bending test.</I> (i) This test applies only to long, slender sources with a length of 10 cm (4 inches) or greater and a length to width ratio of 10 or greater; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The specimen must be rigidly clamped in a horizontal position so that one half of its length protrudes from the face of the clamp; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The orientation of the specimen must be such that the specimen will suffer maximum damage when its free end is struck by the flat face of a steel billet; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The billet must strike the specimen so as to produce an impact equivalent to that resulting from a free vertical drop of 1.4 kg (3 lbs) through 1 m (40 in); and 
</P>
<P>(v) The flat face of the billet must be 25 mm (1 inch) in diameter with the edges rounded off to a radius of 3 mm ±0.3 mm (.12 in ±0.012 in). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Heat test.</I> The specimen must be heated in air to a temperature of not less than 800 °C (1475 °F), held at that temperature for a period of 10 minutes, and then allowed to cool. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Leaching assessment methods.</I> (1) For indispersible solid material— 
</P>
<P>(i) The specimen must be immersed for 7 days in water at ambient temperature. The water must have a pH of 6-8 and a maximum conductivity of 10 micromho per centimeter at 20° (68 °F); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The water with specimen must then be heated to a temperature of 50 °C ±5 °C (122 °F ±9 °F) and maintained at this temperature for 4 hours. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The activity of the water must then be determined; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The specimen must then be stored for at least 7 days in still air of relative humidity not less than 90 percent at 30 °C (86 °F); 
</P>
<P>(v) The specimen must then be immersed in water under the same conditions as in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, and the water with specimen must be heated to 50 °C ±5 °C (122 °F ±9 °F) and maintained at that temperature for 4 hours; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The activity of the water must then be determined. The sum of the activities determined here and in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section must not exceed 2 kilobecquerels (kBq) (0.05 microcurie (µCi)). 
</P>
<P>(2) For encapsulated material—
</P>
<P>(i) The specimen must be immersed in water at ambient temperature. The water must have a pH of 6-8 and a maximum conductivity of 10 micromho per centimeter;
</P>
<P>(ii) The water and specimen must be heated to a temperature of 50 °C ±5 °C (122 °F ±9 °F) and maintained at this temperature for 4 hours; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The activity of the water must then be determined; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The specimen must then be stored for at least 7 days in still air at a temperature of 30 °C (86 °F) or greater; 
</P>
<P>(v) The process in paragraph (c)(2)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section must be repeated; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The activity of the water must then be determined. The sum of the activities determined here and in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section must not exceed 2 kilobecquerels (kBq) (0.05 microcurie (µCi)). 
</P>
<P>(d) A specimen that comprises or simulates radioactive material contained in a sealed capsule need not be subjected to—
</P>
<P>(1) The impact test and the percussion test of this section, provided that the specimen is:
</P>
<P>(i) Less than 200 grams and alternatively subjected to the Class 4 impact test prescribed in ISO 2919:1999(E), “Radiation protection—Sealed radioactive sources—General requirements and classification” (incorporated by reference, see § 71.70); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Less than 500 grams and alternatively subjected to the Class 5 impact test prescribed in ISO 2919:1999(E), “Radioactive protection—Sealed radioactive sources—General requirements and classification” (incorporated by reference, see § 71.70); and
</P>
<P>(2) The heat test of this section, provided the specimen is alternatively subjected to the Class 6 temperature test specified in ISO 2919:1999(E), “Radioactive protection—Sealed radioactive sources—General requirements and classification” (incorporated by reference, see § 71.70).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 80 FR 34013, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.77" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.6.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.77   Qualification of LSA-III Material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) LSA-III material must meet the test requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Any differences between the specimen to be tested and the material to be transported must be taken into account in determining whether the test requirements have been met. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Leaching test.</I> (1) The specimen, representing no less than the entire contents of the package, must be immersed for 7 days in water at ambient temperature; 
</P>
<P>(2) The volume of water to be used in the test must be sufficient to ensure that at the end of the test period the free volume of the unabsorbed and unreacted water remaining will be at least 10% of the volume of the specimen itself; 
</P>
<P>(3) The water must have an initial pH of 6-8 and a maximum conductivity 10 micromho/cm at 20 °C (68 °F); and 
</P>
<P>(4) The total activity of the free volume of water must be measured following the 7 day immersion test and must not exceed 0.1 A<E T="52">2</E>. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Operating Controls and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.81   Applicability of operating controls and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee subject to this part, who, under a general or specific license, transports licensed material or delivers licensed material to a carrier for transport, shall comply with the requirements of this subpart G, with the quality assurance requirements of subpart H of this part, and with the general provisions of subpart A of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.83" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.83   Assumptions as to unknown properties.</HEAD>
<P>When the isotopic abundance, mass, concentration, degree of irradiation, degree of moderation, or other pertinent property of fissile material in any package is not known, the licensee shall package the fissile material as if the unknown properties have credible values that will cause the maximum neutron multiplication. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.85" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.85   Preliminary determinations.</HEAD>
<P>Before the first use of any packaging for the shipment of licensed material— 
</P>
<P>(a) The certificate holder shall ascertain that there are no cracks, pinholes, uncontrolled voids, or other defects that could significantly reduce the effectiveness of the packaging;
</P>
<P>(b) Where the maximum normal operating pressure will exceed 35 kPa (5 lbf/in
<SU>2</SU>) gauge, the certificate holder shall test the containment system at an internal pressure at least 50 percent higher than the maximum normal operating pressure, to verify the capability of that system to maintain its structural integrity at that pressure;
</P>
<P>(c) The certificate holder shall conspicuously and durably mark the packaging with its model number, serial number, gross weight, and a package identification number assigned by the NRC. Before applying the model number, the certificate holder shall determine that the packaging has been fabricated in accordance with the design approved by the Commission; and
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee shall ascertain that the determinations in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section have been made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 80 FR 34013, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.87" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.87   Routine determinations.</HEAD>
<P>Before each shipment of licensed material, the licensee shall ensure that the package with its contents satisfies the applicable requirements of this part and of the license. The licensee shall determine that—
</P>
<P>(a) The package is proper for the contents to be shipped; 
</P>
<P>(b) The package is in unimpaired physical condition except for superficial defects such as marks or dents; 
</P>
<P>(c) Each closure device of the packaging, including any required gasket, is properly installed and secured and free of defects; 
</P>
<P>(d) Any system for containing liquid is adequately sealed and has adequate space or other specified provision for expansion of the liquid; 
</P>
<P>(e) Any pressure relief device is operable and set in accordance with written procedures; 
</P>
<P>(f) The package has been loaded and closed in accordance with written procedures; 
</P>
<P>(g) For fissile material, any moderator or neutron absorber, if required, is present and in proper condition; 
</P>
<P>(h) Any structural part of the package that could be used to lift or tie down the package during transport is rendered inoperable for that purpose, unless it satisfies the design requirements of § 71.45; 
</P>
<P>(i) The level of non-fixed (removable) radioactive contamination on the external surfaces of each package offered for shipment is as low as reasonably achievable, and within the limits specified in DOT regulations in 49 CFR 173.443;
</P>
<P>(j) External radiation levels around the package and around the vehicle, if applicable, will not exceed the limits specified in § 71.47 at any time during transportation; and 
</P>
<P>(k) Accessible package surface temperatures will not exceed the limits specified in § 71.43(g) at any time during transportation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.88" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.88   Air transport of plutonium.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of any general licenses and notwithstanding any exemptions stated directly in this part or included indirectly by citation of 49 CFR chapter I, as may be applicable, the licensee shall assure that plutonium in any form, whether for import, export, or domestic shipment, is not transported by air or delivered to a carrier for air transport unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The plutonium is contained in a medical device designed for individual human application; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The plutonium is contained in a material in which the specific activity is less than or equal to the activity concentration values for plutonium specified in appendix A, table A-2, of this part, and in which the radioactivity is essentially uniformly distributed; or
</P>
<P>(3) The plutonium is shipped in a single package containing no more than an A<E T="52">2</E> quantity of plutonium in any isotope or form, and is shipped in accordance with § 71.5; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The plutonium is shipped in a package specifically authorized for the shipment of plutonium by air in the Certificate of Compliance for that package issued by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in paragraph (a) of this section is to be interpreted as removing or diminishing the requirements of § 73.24 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) For a shipment of plutonium by air which is subject to paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the licensee shall, through special arrangement with the carrier, require compliance with 49 CFR 175.704, U.S. Department of Transportation regulations applicable to the air transport of plutonium. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 3795, Jan. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.89" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.89   Opening instructions.</HEAD>
<P>Before delivery of a package to a carrier for transport, the licensee shall ensure that any special instructions needed to safely open the package have been sent to, or otherwise made available to, the consignee for the consignee's use in accordance with 10 CFR 20.1906(e). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.91" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.91   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain, for a period of 3 years after shipment, a record of each shipment of licensed material not exempt under § 71.14, showing where applicable—
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the packaging by model number and serial number; 
</P>
<P>(2) Verification that there are no significant defects in the packaging, as shipped; 
</P>
<P>(3) Volume and identification of coolant; 
</P>
<P>(4) Type and quantity of licensed material in each package, and the total quantity of each shipment; 
</P>
<P>(5) For each item of irradiated fissile material—
</P>
<P>(i) Identification by model number and serial number; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Irradiation and decay history to the extent appropriate to demonstrate that its nuclear and thermal characteristics comply with license conditions; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any abnormal or unusual condition relevant to radiation safety; 
</P>
<P>(6) Date of the shipment; 
</P>
<P>(7) For fissile packages and for Type B packages, any special controls exercised; 
</P>
<P>(8) Name and address of the transferee; 
</P>
<P>(9) Address to which the shipment was made; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Results of the determinations required by § 71.87 and by the conditions of the package approval. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each certificate holder shall maintain, for a period of 3 years after the life of the packaging to which they apply, records identifying the packaging by model number, serial number, and date of manufacture.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee, certificate holder, and an applicant for a CoC, shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, all records required by this part. Records are only valid if stamped, initialed, or signed and dated by authorized personnel, or otherwise authenticated.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee, certificate holder, and an applicant for a CoC shall maintain sufficient written records to furnish evidence of the quality of packaging. The records to be maintained include results of the determinations required by § 71.85; design, fabrication, and assembly records; results of reviews, inspections, tests, and audits; results of monitoring work performance and materials analyses; and results of maintenance, modification, and repair activities. Inspection, test, and audit records must identify the inspector or data recorder, the type of observation, the results, the acceptability, and the action taken in connection with any deficiencies noted. These records must be retained for 3 years after the life of the packaging to which they apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 3795, Jan. 26, 2004; 80 FR 34013, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.93" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.93   Inspection and tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall permit the Commission, at all reasonable times, to inspect the licensed material, packaging, premises, and facilities in which the licensed material or packaging is used, provided, constructed, fabricated, tested, stored, or shipped.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall perform, and permit the Commission to perform, any tests the Commission deems necessary or appropriate for the administration of the regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC shall notify the NRC, in accordance with § 71.1, 45 days in advance of starting fabrication of the first packaging under a CoC. This paragraph applies to any packaging used for the shipment of licensed material which has either—
</P>
<P>(1) A decay heat load in excess of 5 kW; or
</P>
<P>(2) A maximum normal operating pressure in excess of 103 kPa (15 lbf/in 
<SU>2</SU>) gauge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3796, Jan. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.95" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.95   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, after requesting the certificate holder's input, shall submit a written report to the Commission of—
</P>
<P>(1) Instances in which there is a significant reduction in the effectiveness of any NRC-approved Type B or Type AF packaging during use; or
</P>
<P>(2) Details of any defects with safety significance in any NRC-approved Type B or fissile material packaging, after first use.
</P>
<P>(3) Instances in which the conditions of approval in the Certificate of Compliance were not observed in making a shipment.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall submit a written report to the Commission of instances in which the conditions in the certificate of compliance were not followed during a shipment.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee shall submit, in accordance with § 71.1, a written report required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section within 60 days of the event or discovery of the event. The licensee shall also provide a copy of each report submitted to the NRC to the applicable certificate holder. Written reports prepared under other regulations may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all the necessary information, and the appropriate distribution is made. Using an appropriate method listed in § 71.1(a), the licensee shall report to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. These written reports must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief abstract describing the major occurrences during the event, including all component or system failures that contributed to the event and significant corrective action taken or planned to prevent recurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) A clear, specific, narrative description of the event that occurred so that knowledgeable readers conversant with the requirements of part 71, but not familiar with the design of the packaging, can understand the complete event. The narrative description must include the following specific information as appropriate for the particular event.
</P>
<P>(i) Status of components or systems that were inoperable at the start of the event and that contributed to the event;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dates and approximate times of occurrences;
</P>
<P>(iii) The cause of each component or system failure or personnel error, if known;
</P>
<P>(iv) The failure mode, mechanism, and effect of each failed component, if known;
</P>
<P>(v) A list of systems or secondary functions that were also affected for failures of components with multiple functions;
</P>
<P>(vi) The method of discovery of each component or system failure or procedural error;
</P>
<P>(vii) For each human performance-related root cause, a discussion of the cause(s) and circumstances;
</P>
<P>(viii) The manufacturer and model number (or other identification) of each component that failed during the event; and
</P>
<P>(ix) For events occurring during use of a packaging, the quantities and chemical and physical form(s) of the package contents.
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of the safety consequences and implications of the event. This assessment must include the availability of other systems or components that could have performed the same function as the components and systems that failed during the event.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of any corrective actions planned as a result of the event, including the means employed to repair any defects, and actions taken to reduce the probability of similar events occurring in the future.
</P>
<P>(5) Reference to any previous similar events involving the same packaging that are known to the licensee or certificate holder.
</P>
<P>(6) The name and telephone number of a person within the licensee's organization who is knowledgeable about the event and can provide additional information.
</P>
<P>(7) The extent of exposure of individuals to radiation or to radioactive materials without identification of individuals by name.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report legibility.</I> The reports submitted by licensees and/or certificate holders under this section must be of sufficient quality to permit reproduction and micrographic processing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3796, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75740, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.97" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.97   Advance notification of shipment of irradiated reactor fuel and nuclear waste.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) As specified in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, each licensee shall provide advance notification to the governor of a State, or the governor's designee, of the shipment of licensed material, within or across the boundary of the State, before the transport, or delivery to a carrier, for transport, of licensed material outside the confines of the licensee's plant or other place of use or storage.
</P>
<P>(2) As specified in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, after June 11, 2013, each licensee shall provide advance notification to the Tribal official of participating Tribes referenced in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, or the official's designee, of the shipment of licensed material, within or across the boundary of the Tribe's reservation, before the transport, or delivery to a carrier, for transport, of licensed material outside the confines of the licensee's plant or other place of use or storage.
</P>
<P>(b) Advance notification is also required under this section for the shipment of licensed material, other than irradiated fuel, meeting the following three conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The licensed material is required by this part to be in Type B packaging for transportation; 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensed material is being transported to or across a State boundary en route to a disposal facility or to a collection point for transport to a disposal facility; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of licensed material in a single package exceeds the least of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) 3000 times the A<E T="52">1</E> value of the radionuclides as specified in appendix A, Table A-1 for special form radioactive material; 
</P>
<P>(ii) 3000 times the A<E T="52">2</E> value of the radionuclides as specified in appendix A, Table A-1 for normal form radioactive material; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) 1000 TBq (27,000 Ci). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for submitting advance notification.</I> (1) The notification must be made in writing to:
</P>
<P>(i) The office of each appropriate governor or governor's designee;
</P>
<P>(ii) The office of each appropriate Tribal official or Tribal official's designee; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response.
</P>
<P>(2) A notification delivered by mail must be postmarked at least 7 days before the beginning of the 7-day period during which departure of the shipment is estimated to occur. 
</P>
<P>(3) A notification delivered by any other means than mail must reach the office of the governor or of the governor's designee or the Tribal official or Tribal official's designee at least 4 days before the beginning of the 7-day period during which departure of the shipment is estimated to occur.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(ii) Contact information for each State, including telephone and mailing addresses of governors and governors' designees, and participating Tribes, including telephone and mailing addresses of Tribal officials and Tribal official's designees, is available on the NRC Web site at: <I>https://scp.nrc.gov/special/designee.pdf.</I>


</P>
<P>(iii) A list of the names and mailing addresses of the governors' designees and Tribal officials' designees of participating Tribes is available on request from the Director, Division of Materials Safety, Security, State, and Tribal Programs, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall retain a copy of the notification as a record for 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information to be furnished in advance notification of shipment.</I> Each advance notification of shipment of irradiated reactor fuel or nuclear waste must contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the shipper, carrier, and receiver of the irradiated reactor fuel or nuclear waste shipment; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the irradiated reactor fuel or nuclear waste contained in the shipment, as specified in the regulations of DOT in 49 CFR 172.202 and 172.203(d); 
</P>
<P>(3) The point of origin of the shipment and the 7-day period during which departure of the shipment is estimated to occur; 
</P>
<P>(4) The 7-day period during which arrival of the shipment at State boundaries or Tribal reservation boundaries is estimated to occur;
</P>
<P>(5) The destination of the shipment, and the 7-day period during which arrival of the shipment is estimated to occur; and 
</P>
<P>(6) A point of contact, with a telephone number, for current shipment information. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Revision notice.</I> A licensee who finds that schedule information previously furnished to a governor or governor's designee or a Tribal official or Tribal official's designee, in accordance with this section, will not be met, shall telephone a responsible individual in the office of the governor of the State or of the governor's designee or the Tribal official or the Tribal official's designee and inform that individual of the extent of the delay beyond the schedule originally reported. The licensee shall maintain a record of the name of the individual contacted for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cancellation notice.</I> (1) Each licensee who cancels an irradiated reactor fuel or nuclear waste shipment for which advance notification has been sent shall send a cancellation notice to the governor of each State or to the governor's designee previously notified, each Tribal official or to the Tribal official's designee previously notified, and to the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall state in the notice that it is a cancellation and identify the advance notification that is being canceled. The licensee shall retain a copy of the notice as a record for 3 years. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 14529, Mar. 26, 2003; 68 FR 23575, May 5, 2003; 68 FR 58818, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62683, Dec. 1, 2009; 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 77 FR 34204, June 11, 2012; 78 FR 17021, Mar. 19, 2013; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015; 83 FR 30288, June 28, 2018; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.99" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.99   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or (3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term , condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.100" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.7.121.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.100   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 71 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 71 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 71.0, 71.2, 71.4, 71.6, 71.7, 71.10, 71.31, 71.33, 71.35, 71.37, 71.38, 71.39, 71.40, 71.41, 71.43, 71.45, 71.47, 71.51, 71.55, 71.59, 71.65, 71.71, 71.73, 71.74, 71.75, 71.77, 71.99, and 71.100.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 50264, Sept. 28, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 3796, Jan. 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Quality Assurance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 3796, Jan. 26, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 71.101" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.101   Quality assurance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart describes quality assurance requirements applying to design, purchase, fabrication, handling, shipping, storing, cleaning, assembly, inspection, testing, operation, maintenance, repair, and modification of components of packaging that are important to safety. As used in this subpart, “quality assurance” comprises all those planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that a system or component will perform satisfactorily in service. Quality assurance includes quality control, which comprises those quality assurance actions related to control of the physical characteristics and quality of the material or component to predetermined requirements. Each certificate holder and applicant for a package approval is responsible for satisfying the quality assurance requirements that apply to design, fabrication, testing, and modification of packaging subject to this subpart. Each licensee is responsible for satisfying the quality assurance requirements that apply to its use of a packaging for the shipment of licensed material subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment of program.</I> Each licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish, maintain, and execute a quality assurance program satisfying each of the applicable criteria of §§ 71.101 through 71.137 and satisfying any specific provisions that are applicable to the licensee's activities including procurement of packaging. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall execute the applicable criteria in a graded approach to an extent that is commensurate with the quality assurance requirement's importance to safety.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approval of program.</I> (1) Before the use of any package for the shipment of licensed material subject to this subpart, each licensee shall obtain Commission approval of its quality assurance program. Using an appropriate method listed in § 71.1(a), each licensee shall file a description of its quality assurance program, including a discussion of which requirements of this subpart are applicable and how they will be satisfied, by submitting the description to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards.
</P>
<P>(2) Before the fabrication, testing, or modification of any package for the shipment of licensed material subject to this subpart, each certificate holder, or applicant for a Certificate of Compliance shall obtain Commission approval of its quality assurance program. Each certificate holder or applicant for a CoC shall, in accordance with § 71.1, file a description of its quality assurance program, including a discussion of which requirements of this subpart are applicable and how they will be satisfied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Existing package designs.</I> The provisions of this paragraph deal with packages that have been approved for use in accordance with this part before January 1, 1979, and which have been designed in accordance with the provisions of this part in effect at the time of application for package approval. Those packages will be accepted as having been designed in accordance with a quality assurance program that satisfies the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Existing packages.</I> The provisions of this paragraph deal with packages that have been approved for use in accordance with this part before January 1, 1979, have been at least partially fabricated before that date, and for which the fabrication is in accordance with the provisions of this part in effect at the time of application for approval of package design. These packages will be accepted as having been fabricated and assembled in accordance with a quality assurance program that satisfies the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Previously approved programs.</I> A Commission-approved quality assurance program that satisfies the applicable criteria of subpart H of this part, Appendix B of part 50 of this chapter, or subpart G of part 72 of this chapter, and that is established, maintained, and executed regarding transport packages, will be accepted as satisfying the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Before first use, the licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall notify the NRC, in accordance with § 71.1, of its intent to apply its previously approved subpart H, Appendix B, or subpart G quality assurance program to transportation activities. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall identify the program by date of submittal to the Commission, Docket Number, and date of Commission approval.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Radiography containers.</I> A program for transport container inspection and maintenance limited to radiographic exposure devices, source changers, or packages transporting these devices and meeting the requirements of § 34.31(b) of this chapter or equivalent Agreement State requirement, is deemed to satisfy the requirements of §§ 71.17(b) and 71.101(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3796, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 34013, June 12, 2015; 84 FR 65645, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.103" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.103   Quality assurance organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a Certificate of Compliance shall be responsible for the establishment and execution of the quality assurance program. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a Certificate of Compliance may delegate to others, such as contractors, agents, or consultants, the work of establishing and executing the quality assurance program, or any part of the quality assurance program, but shall retain responsibility for the program. These activities include performing the functions associated with attaining quality objectives and the quality assurance functions.
</P>
<P>(b) The quality assurance functions are—
</P>
<P>(1) Assuring that an appropriate quality assurance program is established and effectively executed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Verifying, by procedures such as checking, auditing, and inspection, that activities affecting the functions that are important to safety have been correctly performed.
</P>
<P>(c) The persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions must have sufficient authority and organizational freedom to—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify quality problems;
</P>
<P>(2) Initiate, recommend, or provide solutions; and
</P>
<P>(3) Verify implementation of solutions.
</P>
<P>(d) The persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions shall report to a management level that assures that the required authority and organizational freedom, including sufficient independence from cost and schedule, when opposed to safety considerations, are provided.
</P>
<P>(e) Because of the many variables involved, such as the number of personnel, the type of activity being performed, and the location or locations where activities are performed, the organizational structure for executing the quality assurance program may take various forms, provided that the persons and organizations assigned the quality assurance functions have the required authority and organizational freedom.
</P>
<P>(f) Irrespective of the organizational structure, the individual(s) assigned the responsibility for assuring effective execution of any portion of the quality assurance program, at any location where activities subject to this section are being performed, must have direct access to the levels of management necessary to perform this function.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3796, Jan. 26, 2004, as amended at 80 FR 34014, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.105" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.105   Quality assurance program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish, at the earliest practicable time consistent with the schedule for accomplishing the activities, a quality assurance program that complies with the requirements of §§ 71.101 through 71.137. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall document the quality assurance program by written procedures or instructions and shall carry out the program in accordance with those procedures throughout the period during which the packaging is used. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall identify the material and components to be covered by the quality assurance program, the major organizations participating in the program, and the designated functions of these organizations.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC, through its quality assurance program, shall provide control over activities affecting the quality of the identified materials and components to an extent consistent with their importance to safety, and as necessary to assure conformance to the approved design of each individual package used for the shipment of radioactive material. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall assure that activities affecting quality are accomplished under suitably controlled conditions. Controlled conditions include the use of appropriate equipment; suitable environmental conditions for accomplishing the activity, such as adequate cleanliness; and assurance that all prerequisites for the given activity have been satisfied. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall take into account the need for special controls, processes, test equipment, tools, and skills to attain the required quality, and the need for verification of quality by inspection and test.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall base the requirements and procedures of its quality assurance program on the following considerations concerning the complexity and proposed use of the package and its components:
</P>
<P>(1) The impact of malfunction or failure of the item to safety;
</P>
<P>(2) The design and fabrication complexity or uniqueness of the item;
</P>
<P>(3) The need for special controls and surveillance over processes and equipment;
</P>
<P>(4) The degree to which functional compliance can be demonstrated by inspection or test; and
</P>
<P>(5) The quality history and degree of standardization of the item.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall provide for indoctrination and training of personnel performing activities affecting quality, as necessary to assure that suitable proficiency is achieved and maintained. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall review the status and adequacy of the quality assurance program at established intervals. Management of other organizations participating in the quality assurance program shall review regularly the status and adequacy of that part of the quality assurance program they are executing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.106" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.106   Changes to quality assurance program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each quality assurance program approval holder shall submit, in accordance with § 71.1(a), a description of a proposed change to its NRC-approved quality assurance program that will reduce commitments in the program description as approved by the NRC. The quality assurance program approval holder shall not implement the change before receiving NRC approval.
</P>
<P>(1) The description of a proposed change to the NRC-approved quality assurance program must identify the change, the reason for the change, and the basis for concluding that the revised program incorporating the change continues to satisfy the applicable requirements of subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Each quality assurance program approval holder may change a previously approved quality assurance program without prior NRC approval, if the change does not reduce the commitments in the quality assurance program previously approved by the NRC. Changes to the quality assurance program that do not reduce the commitments shall be submitted to the NRC every 24 months, in accordance with § 71.1(a). In addition to quality assurance program changes involving administrative improvements and clarifications, spelling corrections, and non-substantive changes to punctuation or editorial items, the following changes are not considered reductions in commitment:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of a quality assurance standard approved by the NRC that is more recent than the quality assurance standard in the certificate holder's or applicant's current quality assurance program at the time of the change;
</P>
<P>(2) The use of generic organizational position titles that clearly denote the position function, supplemented as necessary by descriptive text, rather than specific titles, provided that there is no substantive change to either the functions of the position or reporting responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(3) The use of generic organizational charts to indicate functional relationships, authorities, and responsibilities, or alternatively, the use of descriptive text, provided that there is no substantive change to the functional relationships, authorities, or responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(4) The elimination of quality assurance program information that duplicates language in quality assurance regulatory guides and quality assurance standards to which the quality assurance program approval holder has committed to on record; and
</P>
<P>(5) Organizational revisions that ensure that persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions continue to have the requisite authority and organizational freedom, including sufficient independence from cost and schedule when opposed to safety considerations.
</P>
<P>(c) Each quality assurance program approval holder shall maintain records of quality assurance program changes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 34014, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.107" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.107   Package design control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to assure that applicable regulatory requirements and the package design, as specified in the license or CoC for those materials and components to which this section applies, are correctly translated into specifications, drawings, procedures, and instructions. These measures must include provisions to assure that appropriate quality standards are specified and included in design documents and that deviations from standards are controlled. Measures must be established for the selection and review for suitability of application of materials, parts, equipment, and processes that are essential to the functions of the materials, parts, and components of the packaging that are important to safety.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures for the identification and control of design interfaces and for coordination among participating design organizations. These measures must include the establishment of written procedures, among participating design organizations, for the review, approval, release, distribution, and revision of documents involving design interfaces. The design control measures must provide for verifying or checking the adequacy of design, by methods such as design reviews, alternate or simplified calculational methods, or by a suitable testing program. For the verifying or checking process, the licensee shall designate individuals or groups other than those who were responsible for the original design, but who may be from the same organization. Where a test program is used to verify the adequacy of a specific design feature in lieu of other verifying or checking processes, the licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall include suitable qualification testing of a prototype or sample unit under the most adverse design conditions. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall apply design control measures to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Criticality physics, radiation shielding, stress, thermal, hydraulic, and accident analyses;
</P>
<P>(2) Compatibility of materials;
</P>
<P>(3) Accessibility for inservice inspection, maintenance, and repair;
</P>
<P>(4) Features to facilitate decontamination; and
</P>
<P>(5) Delineation of acceptance criteria for inspections and tests.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall subject design changes, including field changes, to design control measures commensurate with those applied to the original design. Changes in the conditions specified in the CoC require prior NRC approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.109" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.109   Procurement document control.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to assure that adequate quality is required in the documents for procurement of material, equipment, and services, whether purchased by the licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC or by its contractors or subcontractors. To the extent necessary, the licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall require contractors or subcontractors to provide a quality assurance program consistent with the applicable provisions of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.111" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.111   Instructions, procedures, and drawings.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall prescribe activities affecting quality by documented instructions, procedures, or drawings of a type appropriate to the circumstances and shall require that these instructions, procedures, and drawings be followed. The instructions, procedures, and drawings must include appropriate quantitative or qualitative acceptance criteria for determining that important activities have been satisfactorily accomplished.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.113" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.113   Document control.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to control the issuance of documents such as instructions, procedures, and drawings, including changes, that prescribe all activities affecting quality. These measures must assure that documents, including changes, are reviewed for adequacy, approved for release by authorized personnel, and distributed and used at the location where the prescribed activity is performed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.115" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.115   Control of purchased material, equipment, and services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to assure that purchased material, equipment, and services, whether purchased directly or through contractors and subcontractors, conform to the procurement documents. These measures must include provisions, as appropriate, for source evaluation and selection, objective evidence of quality furnished by the contractor or subcontractor, inspection at the contractor or subcontractor source, and examination of products on delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall have available documentary evidence that material and equipment conform to the procurement specifications before installation or use of the material and equipment. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall retain, or have available, this documentary evidence for the life of the package to which it applies. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall assure that the evidence is sufficient to identify the specific requirements met by the purchased material and equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall assess the effectiveness of the control of quality by contractors and subcontractors at intervals consistent with the importance, complexity, and quantity of the product or services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.117" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.117   Identification and control of materials, parts, and components.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures for the identification and control of materials, parts, and components. These measures must assure that identification of the item is maintained by heat number, part number, or other appropriate means, either on the item or on records traceable to the item, as required throughout fabrication, installation, and use of the item. These identification and control measures must be designed to prevent the use of incorrect or defective materials, parts, and components.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.119" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.119   Control of special processes.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to assure that special processes, including welding, heat treating, and nondestructive testing are controlled and accomplished by qualified personnel using qualified procedures in accordance with applicable codes, standards, specifications, criteria, and other special requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.121" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.121   Internal inspection.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish and execute a program for inspection of activities affecting quality by or for the organization performing the activity, to verify conformance with the documented instructions, procedures, and drawings for accomplishing the activity. The inspection must be performed by individuals other than those who performed the activity being inspected. Examination, measurements, or tests of material or products processed must be performed for each work operation where necessary to assure quality. If direct inspection of processed material or products is not carried out, indirect control by monitoring processing methods, equipment, and personnel must be provided. Both inspection and process monitoring must be provided when quality control is inadequate without both. If mandatory inspection hold points, which require witnessing or inspecting by the licensee's designated representative and beyond which work should not proceed without the consent of its designated representative, are required, the specific hold points must be indicated in appropriate documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.123" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.123   Test control.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish a test program to assure that all testing required to demonstrate that the packaging components will perform satisfactorily in service is identified and performed in accordance with written test procedures that incorporate the requirements of this part and the requirements and acceptance limits contained in the package approval. The test procedures must include provisions for assuring that all prerequisites for the given test are met, that adequate test instrumentation is available and used, and that the test is performed under suitable environmental conditions. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall document and evaluate the test results to assure that test requirements have been satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.125" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.125   Control of measuring and test equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to assure that tools, gauges, instruments, and other measuring and testing devices used in activities affecting quality are properly controlled, calibrated, and adjusted at specified times to maintain accuracy within necessary limits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.127" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.127   Handling, storage, and shipping control.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to control, in accordance with instructions, the handling, storage, shipping, cleaning, and preservation of materials and equipment to be used in packaging to prevent damage or deterioration. When necessary for particular products, special protective environments, such as inert gas atmosphere, and specific moisture content and temperature levels must be specified and provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.129" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.129   Inspection, test, and operating status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to indicate, by the use of markings such as stamps, tags, labels, routing cards, or other suitable means, the status of inspections and tests performed upon individual items of the packaging. These measures must provide for the identification of items that have satisfactorily passed required inspections and tests, where necessary to preclude inadvertent bypassing of the inspections and tests.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall establish measures to identify the operating status of components of the packaging, such as tagging valves and switches, to prevent inadvertent operation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.131" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.131   Nonconforming materials, parts, or components.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to control materials, parts, or components that do not conform to the licensee's requirements to prevent their inadvertent use or installation. These measures must include, as appropriate, procedures for identification, documentation, segregation, disposition, and notification to affected organizations. Nonconforming items must be reviewed and accepted, rejected, repaired, or reworked in accordance with documented procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.133" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.133   Corrective action.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to assure that conditions adverse to quality, such as deficiencies, deviations, defective material and equipment, and nonconformances, are promptly identified and corrected. In the case of a significant condition adverse to quality, the measures must assure that the cause of the condition is determined and corrective action taken to preclude repetition. The identification of the significant condition adverse to quality, the cause of the condition, and the corrective action taken must be documented and reported to appropriate levels of management.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.135" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.135   Quality assurance records.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a Certificate of Compliance shall maintain sufficient written records to describe the activities affecting quality. These records must include changes to the quality assurance program as required by § 71.106, the instructions, procedures, and drawings required by § 71.111 to prescribe quality assurance activities, and closely related specifications such as required qualifications of personnel, procedures, and equipment. The records must include the instructions or procedures that establish a records retention program that is consistent with applicable regulations and designates factors such as duration, location, and assigned responsibility. The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a Certificate of Compliance shall retain these records for 3 years beyond the date when the licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a Certificate of Compliance last engage in the activity for which the quality assurance program was developed. If any portion of the quality assurance program, written procedures or instructions is superseded, the licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a Certificate of Compliance shall retain the superseded material for 3 years after it is superseded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 34014, June 12, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 71.137" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 71.137   Audits.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall carry out a comprehensive system of planned and periodic audits to verify compliance with all aspects of the quality assurance program and to determine the effectiveness of the program. The audits must be performed in accordance with written procedures or checklists by appropriately trained personnel not having direct responsibilities in the areas being audited. Audited results must be documented and reviewed by management having responsibility in the area audited. Followup action, including reaudit of deficient areas, must be taken where indicated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.11.8.121.21.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 71—Determination of A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E>
</HEAD>
<P>I. Values of A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> for individual radionuclides, which are the bases for many activity limits elsewhere in these regulations, are given in Table A-1. The curie (Ci) values specified are obtained by converting from the Terabecquerel (TBq) value. The Terabecquerel values are the regulatory standard. The curie values are for information only and are not intended to be the regulatory standard. Where values of A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> are unlimited, it is for radiation control purposes only. For nuclear criticality safety, some materials are subject to controls placed on fissile material.
</P>
<P>II. a. For individual radionuclides whose identities are known, but which are not listed in Table A-1, the A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> values contained in Table A-3 may be used. Otherwise, the licensee shall obtain prior Commission approval of the A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> values for radionuclides not listed in Table A-1, before shipping the material.
</P>
<P>b. For individual radionuclides whose identities are known, but which are not listed in Table A-2, the exempt material activity concentration and exempt consignment activity values contained in Table A-3 may be used. Otherwise, the licensee shall obtain prior Commission approval of the exempt material activity concentration and exempt consignment activity values for radionuclides not listed in Table A-2, before shipping the material.
</P>
<P>c. The licensee shall submit requests for prior approval, described under paragraphs II.a. and II.b. of this Appendix, to the Commission, in accordance with § 71.1 of this part.
</P>
<P>III. In the calculations of A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> for a radionuclide not in Table A-1, a single radioactive decay chain, in which radionuclides are present in their naturally occurring proportions, and in which no daughter radionuclide has a half-life either longer than 10 days, or longer than that of the parent radionuclide, shall be considered as a single radionuclide, and the activity to be taken into account, and the A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> value to be applied, shall be those corresponding to the parent radionuclide of that chain. In the case of radioactive decay chains in which any daughter radionuclide has a half-life either longer than 10 days, or greater than that of the parent radionuclide, the parent and those daughter radionuclides shall be considered as mixtures of different radionuclides.
</P>
<P>IV. For mixtures of radionuclides whose identities and respective activities are known, the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>a. For special form radioactive material, the maximum quantity transported in a Type A package is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12jn15.094.gif"/>
<FP>where B(i) is the activity of radionuclide i in special form, and A<E T="52">1</E>(i) is the A<E T="52">1</E> value for radionuclide i.
</FP>
<P>b. For normal form radioactive material, the maximum quantity transported in a Type A package is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12jn15.095.gif"/>
<FP>where B(i) is the activity of radionuclide i in normal form, and A<E T="52">2</E>(i) is the A<E T="52">2</E> value for radionuclide i.
</FP>
<P>c. If the package contains both special and normal form radioactive material, the activity that may be transported in a Type A package is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12jn15.096.gif"/>
<FP>where B(i) is the activity of radionuclide i as special form radioactive material, A<E T="52">1</E>(i) is the A<E T="52">1</E> value for radionuclide i, C(j) is the activity of radionuclide j as normal form radioactive material, and A<E T="52">2</E>(j) is the A<E T="52">2</E> value for radionuclide j.
</FP>
<P>d. Alternatively, the A<E T="52">1</E> value for mixtures of special form material may be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12jn15.097.gif"/>
<FP>where f(i) is the fraction of activity for radionuclide i in the mixture and A<E T="52">1</E>(i) is the appropriate A<E T="52">1</E> value for radionuclide i.
</FP>
<P>e. Alternatively, the A<E T="52">2</E> value for mixtures of normal form material may be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12jn15.098.gif"/>
<FP>where f(i) is the fraction of activity for radionuclide i in the mixture and A<E T="52">2</E>(i) is the appropriate A<E T="52">2</E> value for radionuclide i.
</FP>
<P>f. The exempt activity concentration for mixtures of nuclides may be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12jn15.099.gif"/>
<FP>where f(i) is the fraction of activity concentration of radionuclide i in the mixture and [A](i) is the activity concentration for exempt material containing radionuclide i.
</FP>
<P>g. The activity limit for an exempt consignment for mixtures of radionuclides may be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12jn15.100.gif"/>
<FP>where f(i) is the fraction of activity of radionuclide i in the mixture and A(i) is the activity limit for exempt consignments for radionuclide i.
</FP>
<P>V.a. When the identity of each radionuclide is known, but the individual activities of some of the radionuclides are not known, the radionuclides may be grouped, and the lowest A<E T="52">1</E> or A<E T="52">2</E> value, as appropriate, for the radionuclides in each group may be used in applying the formulas in paragraph IV. Groups may be based on the total alpha activity and the total beta/gamma activity when these are known, using the lowest A<E T="52">1</E> or A<E T="52">2</E> values for the alpha emitters and beta/gamma emitters.
</P>
<P>b. When the identity of each radionuclide is known but the individual activities of some of the radionuclides are not known, the radionuclides may be grouped and the lowest [A] (activity concentration for exempt material) or A (activity limit for exempt consignment) value, as appropriate, for the radionuclides in each group may be used in applying the formulas in paragraph IV of this appendix. Groups may be based on the total alpha activity and the total beta/gamma activity when these are known, using the lowest [A] or A values for the alpha emitters and beta/gamma emitters, respectively.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-1—A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> Values For Radionuclides
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Symbol of
<br/>radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Element and
<br/>atomic number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">A<E T="52">1</E> (TBq)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">A<E T="52">1</E> (Ci)
<sup>b</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">A<E T="52">2</E> (TBq)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">A<E T="52">2</E> (Ci)
<sup>b</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Specific activity
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(TBq/g)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(Ci/g)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-225 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Actinium (89)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-227 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Silver (47)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-108m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-110m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Al-26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aluminum (13)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Americium (95)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-242m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-243 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-37</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Argon (18)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arsenic (33)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At-211 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Astatine (85)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gold (79)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-195</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-131 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barium (56)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-133m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-140 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Be-7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beryllium (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Be-10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bismuth (83)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-210m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-212 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Berkelium (97)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-249 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bromine (35)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carbon (6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>8</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calcium (20)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-47 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium (48)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-115 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-115m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cerium (58)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-144 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Californium (98)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-251</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-252</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-253 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cl-36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chlorine (17)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cl-38</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>8</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curium (96)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-247 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cobalt (27)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-57</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-58</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-58m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cr-51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chromium (24)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cesium (55)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-134m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-136</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-137 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cu-64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper (29)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cu-67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dysprosium (66)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-166 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Erbium (68)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Europium (63)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-150 (short lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-150 (long lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-152m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-154</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-156</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F-18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fluorine (9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-52 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron (26)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.8 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-60 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gallium (31)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-146 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gadolinium (64)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-68 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Germanium (32)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-172 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hafnium (72)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-194 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mercury (80)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Holmium (67)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-166m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodine (53)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-135 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indium (49)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-114m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-115m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-189 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iridium (77)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-190</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-192</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>c</sup> 2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potassium (19)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Krypton (36)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.8 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-85m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lanthanum (57)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lutetium (71)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-173</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-174</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-174m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mg-28 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Magnesium (12)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese (25)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Molybdenum (42)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-99 
<sup>a</sup> 
<sup>h</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nitrogen (7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>9</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Na-22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sodium (11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Na-24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-93m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Niobium (41)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Neodymium (60)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nickel (28)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Neptunium (93)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-236 (short-lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-236 (long-lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10
<sup>0</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Osmium (76)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-191m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-194 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P-32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phosphorus (15)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P-33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-230 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Protactinium (91)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lead (82)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-210 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-212 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-103 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Palladium (46)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promethium (61)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-148m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Po-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polonium (84)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Praseodymium (59)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-188 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Platinum (78)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-193m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-195m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-197m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plutonium (94)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-241 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-244 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-223 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radium (88)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-224 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-225 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-226 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-228 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rubidium (37)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-83 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.6 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb(nat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>8</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-184</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rhenium (75)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-184m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-186</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-187</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-189 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re(nat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rhodium (45)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-102m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-103m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rn-222 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radon (86)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ruthenium (44)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-103 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-106 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">S-35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sulphur (16)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Antimony (51)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scandium (21)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Selenium (34)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Si-31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Silicon (14)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Si-32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Samarium (62)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup>


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-113 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tin (50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-117m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-119m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-121m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-126 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-82 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Strontium (38)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.8 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-85m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-87m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-90 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-91 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-92 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T(H-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tritium (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-178 (long-lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tantalum (73)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>8</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Terbium (65)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-95m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Technetium (43)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-96m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-97m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-98</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-99m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tellurium (52)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-123m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.9 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-125m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-131m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-132 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thorium (90)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-228 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-234 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th(nat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ti-44 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Titanium (22)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thallium (81)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-167</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thulium (69)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230 (fast lung absorption) (a)(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Uranium (92)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230 (medium lung absorption) (a)(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230 (slow lung absorption) (a)(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232 (fast lung absorption) (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-233 (fast lung absorption) (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-233 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-233 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-234 (fast lung absorption) (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-234 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-234 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-235 (all lung absorption types) (a),(d),(e),(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-236 (fast lung absorption) (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-236 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-236 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-238 (all lung absorption types) (d),(e),(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U (nat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U (enriched to 20% or less)(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Table A-4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Table A-4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U (dep)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Table A-4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Table A-4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V-48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vanadium (23)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V-49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-178 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tungsten (74)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-187</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-188 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-122 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Xenon (54)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-87 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yttrium (39)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-91m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ytterbium (70)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zinc (30)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2 × 10
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9 × 10
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-69m (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zirconium (40)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.6 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-95 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.9 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-97 (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × 10
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> A<E T="52">1</E> and/or A<E T="52">2</E> values include contributions from daughter nuclides with half-lives less than 10 days, as listed in the following:</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mg-28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Al-28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sc-47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ti-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sc-44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mn-52m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Co-60m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-69m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zn-69
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ga-68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kr-83m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rb-82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-91m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sr-87m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nb-95m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nb-97m, Nb-97
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc-99m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-95m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc-95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-96m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc-96
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rh-103m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rh-106
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rh-103m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-108m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ag-108
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-110m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ag-110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In-115m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-114m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In-114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In-113m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-121m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sn-121
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sb-126m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te-127
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te-129
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Te-131
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I-132
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Xe-135m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">I-122
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ba-137m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cs-131
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">La-140
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pr-144m, Pr-144
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-148m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pm-148
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eu-146
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ho-166
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lu-172
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-178</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ta-178
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Re-188
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-189</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Os-189m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ir-194
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-189</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Os-189m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ir-188
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Au-194
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hg-195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bi-210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bi-212, Tl-208, Po-212
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-210m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tl-206
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tl-208, Po-212
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At-211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Po-211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rn-222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Po-218, Pb-214, At-218, Bi-214, Po-214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rn-219, Po-215, Pb-211, Bi-211, Po-211, Tl-207
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-224</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rn-220, Po-216, Pb-212, Bi-212, Tl-208, Po-212
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ac-225, Fr-221, At-217, Bi-213, Tl-209, Po-213, Pb-209
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rn-222, Po-218, Pb-214, At-218, Bi-214, Po-214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ac-228
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fr-221, At-217, Bi-213, Tl-209, Po-213, Pb-209
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fr-223
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ra-224, Rn-220, Po-216, Pb-212, Bi-212, Tl-208, Po-212
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pa-234m, Pa-234
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ac-226, Th-226, Fr-222, Ra-222, Rn-218, Po-214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th-226, Ra-222, Rn-218, Po-214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th-231
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U-237
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U-240, Np-240m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-242m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Am-242, Np-238
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Np-239
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pu-243
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Am-245
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-253</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cm-249
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> The values of A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> in Curies (Ci) are approximate and for information only; the regulatory standard units are Terabecquerels (TBq) (see Appendix A to Part 71—Determination of A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E>, Section I).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> The activity of Ir-192 in special form may be determined from a measurement of the rate of decay or a measurement of the radiation level at a prescribed distance from the source.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> These values apply only to compounds of uranium that take the chemical form of UF<E T="52">6</E>, UO<E T="52">2</E>F<E T="52">2</E> and UO<E T="52">2</E>(NO<E T="52">3</E>)<E T="52">2</E> in both normal and accident conditions of transport.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> These values apply only to compounds of uranium that take the chemical form of UO<E T="52">3</E>, UF<E T="52">4</E>, UCl<E T="52">4</E> and hexavalent compounds in both normal and accident conditions of transport.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> These values apply to all compounds of uranium other than those specified in notes (d) and (e) of this table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> These values apply to unirradiated uranium only.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>h</sup> A<E T="52">2</E> = 0.74 TBq (20 Ci) for Mo-99 for domestic use.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-2—Exempt Material Activity Concentrations and Exempt Consignment Activity Limits for Radionuclides
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Symbol of
<br/>radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Element and atomic number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Activity concentration for exempt material
<br/>(Bq/g)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Activity concentration for exempt material
<br/>(Ci/g)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Activity limit for exempt consignment
<br/>(Bq)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Activity limit for exempt consignment
<br/>(Ci)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Actinium (89)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−12</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Silver (47)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-108m (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-110m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Al-26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aluminum (13)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Americium (95)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-242m (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-243 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-37</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Argon (18)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arsenic (33)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At-211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Astatine (85)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gold (79)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-195</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barium (56)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-133m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-140 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Be-7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beryllium (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Be-10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bismuth (83)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-210m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-212 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Berkelium (97)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bromine (35)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carbon (6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calcium (20)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cadmium (48)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-115m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cerium (58)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-144 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Californium (98)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-251</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-252</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-253</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cl-36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chlorine (17)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cl-38</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Curium (96)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cobalt (27)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-57</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-58</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-58m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cr-51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chromium (24)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cesium (55)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-134m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-136</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-137 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cu-64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Copper (29)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cu-67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dysprosium (66)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Erbium (68)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Europium (63)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-150 (short lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-150 (long lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-152m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-154</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-156</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F-18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fluorine (9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iron (26)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gallium (31)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gadolinium (64)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Germanium (32)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hafnium (72)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mercury (80)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Holmium (67)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-166m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iodine (53)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indium (49)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-114m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-115m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-189</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iridium (77)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-190</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-192</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potassium (19)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Krypton (36)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-85m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>10</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lanthanum (57)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lutetium (71)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-173</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-174</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-174m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mg-28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Magnesium (12)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manganese (25)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Molybdenum (42)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">N-13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nitrogen (7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Na-22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sodium (11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Na-24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-93m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Niobium (41)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Neodymium (60)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nickel (28)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Neptunium (93)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-236 (short-lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-236 (long-lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-237 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Osmium (76)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-191m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P-32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phosphorus (15)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P-33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Protactinium (91)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lead (82)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-210 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-212 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Palladium (46)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Promethium (61)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-148m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Po-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Polonium (84)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Praseodymium (59)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Platinum (78)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-193m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-195m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-197m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Plutonium (94)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-223 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radium (88)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-224 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-226 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-228 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rubidium (37)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb(nat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-184</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rhenium (75)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-184m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-186</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-187</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-189</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re(nat)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rhodium (45)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-102m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-103m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rn-222 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Radon (86)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ruthenium (44)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-106 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">S-35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sulphur (16)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Antimony (51)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Scandium (21)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Selenium (34)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Si-31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Silicon (14)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Si-32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Samarium (62)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tin (50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-117m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-119m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-121m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Strontium (38)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-85m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-87m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-90 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T(H-3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tritium (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-178 (long-lived)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tantalum (73)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Terbium (65)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-95m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Technetium (43)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-96m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-97m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-98</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-99m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tellurium (52)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-123m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-125m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thorium (90)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-228 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-229 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-234 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th (nat) (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ti-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Titanium (22)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thallium (81)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-167</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thulium (69)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>8</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230 (fast lung absorption) (b),(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Uranium (92)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232 (fast lung absorption) (b),(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-233 (fast lung absorption) (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-233 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-233 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-234 (fast lung absorption) (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-234 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-234 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-235 (all lung absorption types) (b),(d),(e),(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-236 (fast lung absorption) (d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-236 (medium lung absorption) (e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-236 (slow lung absorption) (f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-238 (all lung absorption types) (b),(d),(e),(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U (nat) (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U (enriched to 20% or less)(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U (dep)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−11</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V-48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vanadium (23)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V-49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-178</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tungsten (74)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-187</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Xenon (54)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>10</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yttrium (39)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-91m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ytterbium (70)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zinc (30)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-69m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Zirconium (40)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−9</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-93 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−4</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−5</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-97 (b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Parent nuclides and their progeny included in secular equilibrium are listed as follows:</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y-90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nb-93m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nb-97
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rh-106
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-108m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ag-108
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ba-137m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pr-144
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">La-140
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tl-208 (0.36), Po-212 (0.64)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bi-210, Po-210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bi-212, Tl-208 (0.36), Po-212 (0.64)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rn-222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Po-218, Pb-214, Bi-214, Po-214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rn-219, Po-215, Pb-211, Bi-211, Tl-207
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-224</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rn-220, Po-216, Pb-212, Bi-212, Tl-208 (0.36), Po-212 (0.64)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rn-222, Po-218, Pb-214, Bi-214, Po-214, Pb-210, Bi-210, Po-210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ac-228
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ra-224, Rn-220, Po-216, Pb-212, Bi-212, Tl-208 (0.36), Po-212(0.64)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ra-225, Ac-225, Fr-221, At-217, Bi-213, Po-213, Pb-209
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-nat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ra-228, Ac-228, Th-228, Ra-224, Rn-220, Po-216, Pb-212, Bi-212, Tl-208 (0.36), Po-212 (0.64)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pa-234m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th-226, Ra-222, Rn-218, Po-214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th-228, Ra-224, Rn-220, Po-216, Pb-212, Bi-212, Tl-208 (0.36), Po-212 (0.64)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th-231
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th-234, Pa-234m
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-nat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th-234, Pa-234m, U-234, Th-230, Ra-226, Rn-222, Po-218, Pb-214, Bi-214, Po-214, Pb-210, Bi-210, Po-210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pa-233
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-242m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Am-242
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Np-239
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> [Reserved]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> These values apply only to compounds of uranium that take the chemical form of UF<E T="52">6</E>, UO<E T="52">2</E>F<E T="52">2</E> and UO<E T="52">2</E>(NO<E T="52">3</E>)<E T="52">2</E> in both normal and accident conditions of transport.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> These values apply only to compounds of uranium that take the chemical form of UO<E T="52">3</E>, UF<E T="52">4</E>, UCl<E T="52">4</E> and hexavalent compounds in both normal and accident conditions of transport.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> These values apply to all compounds of uranium other than those specified in notes (d) and (e) of this table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>g</sup> These values apply to unirradiated uranium only.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-3—General Values for A<E T="52">1</E> and A<E T="52">2</E> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Contents 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">A<E T="52">1</E> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">A<E T="52">2</E> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Activity concentration for exempt material
<br/>(Bq/g) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Activity concentration for exempt material
<br/>(Ci/g) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Activity limits for exempt consignments
<br/>(Bq) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Activity limits for exempt consignments
<br/>(Ci) 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(TBq) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(Ci) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(TBq) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(Ci) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Only beta or gamma emitting radionuclides are known to be present</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10
<sup>0</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−10</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha emitting nuclides, but no neutron emitters, are known to be present (a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × 10
<sup>0</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−12</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neutron emitting nuclides are known to be present or no relevant data are available</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 × 10<E T="51">−5</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 × 10<E T="51">−3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10<E T="51">−1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−12</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × 10
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> If beta or gamma emitting nuclides are known to be present, the A<E T="52">1</E> value of 0.1 TBq (2.7 Ci) should be used.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-4—Activity-mass Relationships for Uranium 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Uranium Enrichment 
<sup>1</sup> wt % U-235 present 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Specific Activity 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TBq/g 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ci/g 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 × 10<E T="51">−7</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.1 × 10<E T="51">−7</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6 × 10<E T="51">−7</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10<E T="51">−8</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−6</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 × 10<E T="51">−6</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 × 10<E T="51">−6</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3 × 10<E T="51">−7</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4 × 10<E T="51">−6</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The figures for uranium include representative values for the activity of the uranium-234 that is concentrated during the enrichment process.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3800, Jan. 26, 2004; 69 FR 58039, Sept. 29, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 39908, July 6, 2012; 80 FR 34014, June 12, 2015; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 72—LICENSING REQUIREMENTS FOR THE INDEPENDENT STORAGE OF SPENT NUCLEAR FUEL, HIGH-LEVEL RADIOACTIVE WASTE, AND REACTOR-RELATED GREATER THAN CLASS C WASTE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 51, 53, 57, 62, 63, 65, 69, 81, 161, 182, 183, 184, 186, 187, 189, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2071, 2073, 2077, 2092, 2093, 2095, 2099, 2111, 2201, 2210e, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2236, 2237, 2238, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842, 5846, 5851); National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 117(a), 132, 133, 134, 135, 137, 141, 145(g), 148, 218(a) (42 U.S.C. 10137(a), 10152, 10153, 10154, 10155, 10157, 10161, 10165(g), 10168, 10198(a)); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 72 appear at 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015, and at 81 FR 86910, Dec. 2, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part establish requirements, procedures, and criteria for the issuance of licenses to receive, transfer, and possess power reactor spent fuel, power reactor-related Greater than Class C (GTCC) waste, and other radioactive materials associated with spent fuel storage in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) and the terms and conditions under which the Commission will issue these licenses. The regulations in this part also establish requirements, procedures, and criteria for the issuance of licenses to the Department of Energy (DOE) to receive, transfer, package, and possess power reactor spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, power reactor-related GTCC waste, and other radioactive materials associated with the storage of these materials in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS). The term Monitored Retrievable Storage Installation or MRS, as defined in § 72.3, is derived from the Nuclear Waste Policy Act (NWPA) and includes any installation that meets this definition. The regulations in this part also establish requirements, procedures, and criteria for the issuance of Certificates of Compliance approving spent fuel storage cask designs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 51838, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 72.6(b), licenses issued under this part are limited to the receipt, transfer, packaging, and possession of:
</P>
<P>(1) Power reactor spent fuel to be stored in a complex that is designed and constructed specifically for storage of power reactor spent fuel aged for at least one year, other radioactive materials associated with spent fuel storage, and power reactor-related GTCC waste in a solid form in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI); or
</P>
<P>(2) Power reactor spent fuel to be stored in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) owned by DOE that is designed and constructed specifically for the storage of spent fuel aged for at least one year, high-level radioactive waste that is in a solid form, other radioactive materials associated with storage of these materials, and power reactor-related GTCC waste that is in a solid form.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part pertaining to an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) and a spent fuel storage cask apply to all persons in the United States, including persons in Agreement States. The regulations in this part pertaining to a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) apply only to DOE.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this regulation are applicable, as appropriate, to both wet and dry modes of storage of—
</P>
<P>(1) Spent fuel and solid reactor-related GTCC waste in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI); and
</P>
<P>(2) Spent fuel, solid high-level radioactive waste, and solid reactor-related GTCC waste in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS).
</P>
<P>(d) Licenses covering the storage of spent fuel in an existing spent fuel storage installation shall be issued in accordance with the requirements of this part as stated in § 72.40, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(e) This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, certificate holder, applicant for a license or certificate, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's, certificate holder's, or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 72.12.
</P>
<P>(f) Certificates of Compliance approving spent fuel storage cask designs shall be issued in accordance with the requirements of subpart L of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 40692, Aug. 15, 1991; 63 FR 1900, Jan. 13, 1998; 64 FR 33183, June 22, 1999; 64 FR 56121, Oct. 15, 1999; 66 FR 51838, Oct. 11, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919) including any amendments thereto. 
</P>
<P><I>Affected Indian Tribe</I> means any Indian Tribe— 
</P>
<P>(1) Within whose reservation boundaries a monitored retrievable storage facility is proposed to be located; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whose federally defined possessory or usage rights to other lands outside of the reservation's boundaries arising out of congressionally ratified treaties may be substantially and adversely affected by the locating of such a facility: <I>Provided,</I> That the Secretary of the Interior finds, upon the petition of the appropriate governmental officials of the Tribe, that such effects are both substantial and adverse to the Tribe. 
</P>
<P><I>Affected unit of local government</I> means any unit of local government with jurisdiction over the site where an MRS is proposed to be located. 
</P>
<P><I>AMP,</I> for the purposes of this part, means a program for addressing aging effects that may include prevention, mitigation, condition monitoring, and performance monitoring.
</P>
<P><I>As low as is reasonably achievable (ALARA)</I> means as low as is reasonably achievable taking into account the state of technology, and the economics of improvement in relation to— 
</P>
<P>(1) Benefits to the public health and safety, 
</P>
<P>(2) Other societal and socioeconomic considerations, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The utilization of atomic energy in the public interest. 
</P>
<P><I>Atomic energy</I> means all forms of energy released in the course of nuclear fission or nuclear transformation. 
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate holder</I> means a person who has been issued a Certificate of Compliance by the Commission for a spent fuel storage cask design.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate of Compliance</I> or <I>CoC</I> means the certificate issued by the Commission that approves the design of a spent fuel storage cask in accordance with the provisions of subpart L of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means any clearing of land, excavation, or other substantial action that would adversely affect the natural environment of a site, but does not mean: 
</P>
<P>(1) Changes desirable for the temporary use of the land for public recreational uses, necessary borings or excavations to determine subsurface materials and foundation conditions, or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site or to the protection of environmental values; 
</P>
<P>(2) Construction of environmental monitoring facilities; 
</P>
<P>(3) Procurement or manufacture of components of the installation; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Construction of means of access to the site as may be necessary to accomplish the objectives of paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition. 
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Confinement systems</I> means those systems, including ventilation, that act as barriers between areas containing radioactive substances and the environment. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlled area</I> means that area immediately surrounding an ISFSI or MRS for which the licensee exercises authority over its use and within which ISFSI or MRS operations are performed. 
</P>
<P><I>Decommission</I> means to remove a facility or site safely from service and reduce residual radioactivity to a level that permits—
</P>
<P>(1) Release of the property for unrestricted use and termination of the license; or
</P>
<P>(2) Release of the property under restricted conditions and termination of the license.
</P>
<P><I>Design bases</I> means that information that identifies the specific functions to be performed by a structure, system, or component of a facility or of a spent fuel storage cask and the specific values or ranges of values chosen for controlling parameters as reference bounds for design. These values may be restraints derived from generally accepted state-of-the-art practices for achieving functional goals or requirements derived from analysis (based on calculation or experiments) of the effects of a postulated event under which a structure, system, or component must meet its functional goals. The values for controlling parameters for external events include—
</P>
<P>(1) Estimates of severe natural events to be used for deriving design bases that will be based on consideration of historical data on the associated parameters, physical data, or analysis of upper limits of the physical processes involved; and
</P>
<P>(2) Estimates of severe external man-induced events to be used for deriving design bases that will be based on analysis of human activity in the region, taking into account the site characteristics and the risks associated with the event.
</P>
<P><I>Design capacity</I> means the quantity of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste, the maximum burn up of the spent fuel in MWD/MTU, the terabequerel (curie) content of the waste, and the total heat generation in Watts (btu/hour) that the storage installation is designed to accommodate.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Floodplain</I> means the lowland and relatively flat areas adjoining inland and coastal waters including floodprone areas of offshore islands. Areas subject to a one percent or greater chance of flooding in any given year are included. 
</P>
<P><I>Greater than Class C waste or GTCC waste</I> means low-level radioactive waste that exceeds the concentration limits of radionuclides established for Class C waste in § 61.55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>High-level radioactive waste</I> or <I>HLW</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) the highly radioactive material resulting from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuel, including liquid waste produced directly in reprocessing and any solid material derived from such liquid waste that contains fission products in sufficient concentrations; and 
</P>
<P>(2) other highly radioactive material that the Commission, consistent with existing law, determines by rule requires permanent isolation. 
</P>
<P><I>Historical data</I> means a compilation of the available published and unpublished information concerning a particular type of event.


</P>
<P><I>Independent spent fuel storage installation or ISFSI</I> means a complex designed and constructed for the interim storage of spent nuclear fuel, solid reactor-related GTCC waste, and other radioactive materials associated with spent fuel and reactor-related GTCC waste storage. An ISFSI which is located on the site of another facility licensed under this part or a facility licensed under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter and which shares common utilities and services with that facility or is physically connected with that other facility may still be considered independent.
</P>
<P><I>Indian Tribe</I> means an Indian Tribe as defined in the Indian Self Determination and Education Assistance Act (Pub. L. 93-638). 
</P>
<P><I>Monitored Retrievable Storage Installation or MRS</I> means a complex designed, constructed, and operated by DOE for the receipt, transfer, handling, packaging, possession, safeguarding, and storage of spent nuclear fuel aged for at least one year, solidified high-level radioactive waste resulting from civilian nuclear activities, and solid reactor-related GTCC waste, pending shipment to a HLW repository or other disposal.
</P>
<P><I>NEPA</I> means the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 including any amendments thereto. 
</P>
<P><I>NWPA</I> means the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 including any amendments thereto. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy (DOE), except that the DOE shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended (88 Stat. 1244), and Sections 131, 132, 133, 135, 137, and 141 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (96 Stat. 2229, 2230, 2232, 2241); 
</P>
<P>(2) Any State, any political subdivision of a State, or any political entity within a State; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any foreign government or nation, or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P><I>Population</I> means the people that may be affected by the change in environmental conditions due to the construction, operation, or decommissioning of an ISFSI or MRS. 
</P>
<P><I>Principal activities,</I> as used in this part, means activities authorized by the license which are essential to achieving the purpose(s) for which the license was issued or amended, excluding activities incidental to decontamination or decommissioning. 
</P>
<P><I>Reconciliation</I> means the process of evaluating and comparing licensee reports required under this part to the projected material balances generated by the Nuclear Materials Management and Safeguards System. This process is considered complete when the licensee resolves any differences between the reported and projected balances, including those listed for foreign obligated materials.
</P>
<P><I>Region</I> means the geographical area surrounding and including the site, which is large enough to contain all the features related to a phenomenon or to a particular event that could potentially impact the safe or environmentally sound construction, operation, or decommissioning of an independent spent fuel storage or monitored retrievable storage installation. 
</P>
<P><I>Reservation</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) Any Indian reservation or dependent Indian community referred to in clause (a) or (b) of section 1151 of title 18, United States Code; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any land selected by an Alaska Native village or regional corporation under the provisions of the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P><I>Site</I> means the real property on which the ISFSI or MRS is located. 
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium or thorium, or any combination thereof, in any physical or chemical form or 
</P>
<P>(2) Ores that contain by weight one-twentieth of one percent (0.05%) or more of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Uranium, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Thorium, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any combination thereof. 
</P>
<FP>Source material does not include special nuclear material. 
</FP>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Act, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing but does not include source material. 
</P>
<P><I>Spent fuel storage cask</I> or <I>cask</I> means all the components and systems associated with the container in which spent fuel or other radioactive materials associated with spent fuel are stored in an ISFSI.
</P>
<P><I>Spent nuclear fuel</I> or <I>Spent fuel</I> means fuel that has been withdrawn from a nuclear reactor following irradiation, has undergone at least one year's decay since being used as a source of energy in a power reactor, and has not been chemically separated into its constituent elements by reprocessing. Spent fuel includes the special nuclear material, byproduct material, source material, and other radioactive materials associated with fuel assemblies. 
</P>
<P><I>Structures, systems, and components important to safety</I> means those features of the ISFSI, MRS, and spent fuel storage cask whose functions are—
</P>
<P>(1) To maintain the conditions required to store spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste safely;
</P>
<P>(2) To prevent damage to the spent fuel, the high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste container during handling and storage; or
</P>
<P>(3) To provide reasonable assurance that spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste can be received, handled, packaged, stored, and retrieved without undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P><I>Term certified by the cask's Certificate of Compliance,</I> for the purposes of this part, means, for an initial CoC, the period of time commencing with the CoC effective date and ending with the CoC expiration date, and for a renewed CoC, the period of time commencing with the most recent CoC renewal date and ending with the CoC expiration date.
</P>
<P><I>TLAAs,</I> for the purposes of this part, means those licensee or certificate holder calculations and analyses that:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve structures, systems, and components important to safety within the scope of the license renewal, as delineated in subpart F of this part, or within the scope of the spent fuel storage certificate renewal, as delineated in subpart L of this part, respectively;
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the effects of aging;
</P>
<P>(3) Involve time-limited assumptions defined by the current operating term, for example, 40 years;
</P>
<P>(4) Were determined to be relevant by the licensee or certificate holder in making a safety determination;
</P>
<P>(5) Involve conclusions or provide the basis for conclusions related to the capability of structures, systems, and components to perform their intended safety functions; and
</P>
<P>(6) Are contained or incorporated by reference in the design bases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 36038, July 15, 1994; 62 FR 39092, July 21, 1997; 64 FR 53614, Oct. 4, 1999; 64 FR 56121, Oct. 15, 1999; 66 FR 51839, Oct. 11, 2001; 72 FR 55933, Oct. 1, 2007; 73 FR 32462, June 9, 2008; 76 FR 8889, Feb. 16, 2011; 88 FR 57879, Aug. 24, 2023; 91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland between 7:30 a.m. and 4:15 p.m. eastern time; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. If the submission deadline date falls on a Saturday, or Sunday, or a Federal holiday, the next Federal working day becomes the official due date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58818, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009; 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by an officer or employee of the Commission, other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel, will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 90 FR 55632, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.6   License required; types of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licenses for the receipt, handling, storage, and transfer of spent fuel or high-level radioactive waste are of two types: general and specific. Licenses for the receipt, handling, storage, and transfer of reactor-related GTCC are specific licenses. Any general license provided in this part is effective without the filing of an application with the Commission or the issuance of a licensing document to a particular person. A specific license is issued to a named person upon application filed pursuant to regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A general license is hereby issued to receive title to and own spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste without regard to quantity. Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a general licensee under this paragraph is not authorized to acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, or transfer spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste except as authorized in a specific license.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as authorized in a specific license and in a general license under subpart K of this part issued by the Commission in accordance with the regulations in this part, no person may acquire, receive, or possess—
</P>
<P>(1) Spent fuel for the purpose of storage in an ISFSI; or
</P>
<P>(2) Spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or radioactive material associated with high-level radioactive waste for the purpose of storage in an MRS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 51839, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.7   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and are otherwise in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.8   Denial of licensing by Agreement States.</HEAD>
<P>Agreement States may not issue licenses covering the storage of spent fuel and reactor-related GTCC waste in an ISFSI or the storage of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste in an MRS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 51839, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.9   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0132.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 72.7, 72.11, 72.16, 72.22 through 72.34, 72.42, 72.44, 72.48 through 72.56, 72.62, 72.70, through 72.80, 72.90, 72.92, 72.94, 72.98, 72.100, 72.102, 72.103, 72.104, 72.108, 72.120, 72.126, 72.140 through 72.176, 72.180 through 72.186, 72.192, 72.206, 72.212, 72.218, 72.230, 72.232, 72.234, 72.236, 72.240, 72.242, 72.244, 72.248.
</P>
<P>(c) In § 72.79, Form N-71 and associated forms are approved under control number 3150-0056, and DOC/IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms, NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control number 0694-0135.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56122, Oct. 15, 1999, as amended at 67 FR 67101, Nov. 4, 2002; 68 FR 54149, Sept. 16, 2003; 73 FR 78607, Dec. 23, 2008; 77 FR 39909, July 6, 2012; 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.10   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by a Commission licensee, certificate holder, an applicant for a Commission license or a CoC, or a contractor or subcontractor of any of these, against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities, is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act.
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text of this section or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of those statutes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the statutes named in paragraph (a) introductory text. 
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or is about to assist or participate in, these activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs. The employee may do this by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages. 
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraph (a), (e), or (f) of this section by a Commission licensee, certificate holder, applicant for a Commission license or a CoC, or a contractor or subcontractor of any of these may be grounds for:
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the license or the CoC.
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the licensee, applicant, or a contractor or subcontractor of the licensee or applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer, or others, which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscriminatory grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Each licensee, certificate holder, and applicant for a license or CoC must prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(c). This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. The premises must be posted not later than 30 days after an application is docketed and remain posted while the application is pending before the Commission, during the term of the license or CoC, and for 30 days following license or CoC termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 52414, Oct. 8, 1993, as amended at 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 61 FR 6766, Feb. 22, 1996; 64 FR 56122, Oct. 15, 1999; 68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63975, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30460, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66606, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.11   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by a licensee, certificate holder, or an applicant for a license or CoC; or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, license or CoC conditions, to be maintained by the licensee or certificate holder, must be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or CoC must notify the Commission of information identified by the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or CoC as having, for the regulated activity, a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. A licensee, certificate holder, or an applicant for a license or CoC violates this paragraph only if the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or CoC fails to notify the Commission of information that the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or CoC has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification must be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within two working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56122, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.12   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, certificate holder, applicant for a license or certificate, employee of a licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or certificate; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant) or subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee, certificate holder, or applicant for a license or certificate who knowingly provides to any licensee, certificate holder, applicant for a license or certificate, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's, certificate holder's, or applicant's activities subject to this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee, certificate holder or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license or certificate issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, a certificate holder, an applicant for a license or certificate, or a licensee's, applicant's, or certificate holder's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee, certificate holder or applicant for a license or certificate to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license or certificate issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, certificate holder, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1900, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.1.121.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.13   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section identifies those sections, under this part, that apply to the activities associated with a specific license, a general license, or a certificate of compliance. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following sections apply to activities associated with a specific license: §§ 72.1; 72.2(a) through (e); 72.3 through 72.13(b); 72.16 through 72.34; 72.40 through 72.62; 72.70 through 72.86; 72.90 through 72.108; 72.120 through 72.130; 72.140 through 72.176; 72.180 through 72.186; 72.190 through 72.194; and 72.200 through 72.206. 
</P>
<P>(c) The following sections apply to activities associated with a general license: §§ 72.1; 72.2(a)(1), (b), (c), and (e); 72.3 through 72.6(c)(1); 72.7 through 72.13(a) and (c); 72.30(b), (c), (d), (e) and (f); 72.32(c) and (d); 72.44(b) and (f); 72.48; 72.50(a); 72.52(a), (b), (d), and (e); 72.60; 72.62; 72.72 through 72.80(f); 72.82 through 72.86; 72.104; 72.106; 72.122; 72.124; 72.126; 72.140 through 72.176; 72.190; 72.194; 72.210 through 72.220, and 72.240(a).
</P>
<P>(d) The following sections apply to activities associated with a certificate of compliance: §§ 72.1; 72.2(e) and (f); 72.3; 72.4; 72.5; 72.7; 72.9 through 72.13(a) and (d); 72.48; 72.84(a); 72.86; 72.124; 72.140 through 72.176; 72.214; and 72.230 through 72.248.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 50616, Aug. 21, 2000, as amended at 76 FR 35573, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—License Application, Form, and Contents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.16   Filing of application for specific license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Place of filing.</I> Each application for a license, or amendment thereof, under this part should be filed with the Director of the NRC's Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards in accordance with § 72.4. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oath or affirmation.</I> Each application for a license or license amendment (including amendments to such applications), except for those filed by DOE, must be executed in an original signed by the applicant or duly authorized officer thereof under oath or affirmation. Each application for a license or license amendment (including amendments to such applications) filed by DOE must be signed by the Secretary of Energy or the Secretary's authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Copies of application on paper or CD-ROM.</I> If the application is on paper, it must be the signed original. The applicant shall maintain the capability to generate additional copies for distribution in accordance with instruction from the Director or the Director's designee. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fees.</I> The application, amendment, and renewal fees applicable to a license covering an ISFSI are those shown in § 170.31 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of docketing.</I> Upon receipt of an application for a license or license amendment under this part, the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or the Director's designee will assign a docket number to the application, notify the applicant of the docket number, instruct the applicant to distribute copies retained by the applicant in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, and cause a notice of docketing to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice of docketing shall identify the site of the ISFSI or the MRS by locality and State and may include a notice of hearing or a notice of proposed action and opportunity for hearing as provided by § 72.46 of this part. In the case of an application for a license or an amendment to a license for an MRS, the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, or the Director's designee, in accordance with § 72.200 of this part, shall send a copy of the notice of docketing to the Governor and legislature of any State in which an MRS is or may be located, to the Chief Executive of the local municipality, to the Governors of any contiguous States and to the governing body of any affected Indian Tribe. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 43421, Oct. 27, 1988; 66 FR 51839, Oct. 11, 2001; 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003; 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.18" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.18   Elimination of repetition.</HEAD>
<P>In any application under this part, the applicant may incorporate by reference information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission: Provided, That such references are clear and specific. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.20   Public inspection of application.</HEAD>
<P>Applications and documents submitted to the Commission in connection with applications may be made available for public inspection in accordance with provisions of the regulations contained in parts 2 and 9 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.22   Contents of application: General and financial information.</HEAD>
<P>Each application must state: 
</P>
<P>(a) Full name of applicant;
</P>
<P>(b) Address of applicant; 
</P>
<P>(c) Description of business or occupation of applicant; 
</P>
<P>(d) If applicant is: 
</P>
<P>(1) An individual: Citizenship and age; 
</P>
<P>(2) A partnership: Name, citizenship, and address of each partner and the principal location at which the partnership does business; 
</P>
<P>(3) A corporation or an unincorporated association: 
</P>
<P>(i) The State in which it is incorporated or organized and the principal location at which it does business; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The names, addresses, and citizenship of its directors and principal officers; 
</P>
<P>(4) Acting as an agent or representative of another person in filing the application: The identification of the principal and the information required under this paragraph with respect to such principal. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Department of Energy: 
</P>
<P>(i) The identification of the DOE organization responsible for the construction and operation of the ISFSI or MRS, including a description of any delegations of authority and assignments of responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For each application for a license for an MRS, the provisions of the public law authorizing the construction and operation of the MRS. 
</P>
<P>(e) Except for DOE, information sufficient to demonstrate to the Commission the financial qualifications of the applicant to carry out, in accordance with the regulations in this chapter, the activities for which the license is sought. The information must state the place at which the activity is to be performed, the general plan for carrying out the activity, and the period of time for which the license is requested. The information must show that the applicant either possesses the necessary funds, or that the applicant has reasonable assurance of obtaining the necessary; funds or that by a combination of the two, the applicant will have the necessary funds available to cover the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Estimated construction costs; 
</P>
<P>(2) Estimated operating costs over the planned life of the ISFSI; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Estimated decommissioning costs, and the necessary financial arrangements to provide reasonable assurance before licensing, that decommissioning will be carried out after the removal of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and/or reactor-related GTCC waste from storage.
</P>
<P>(f) Each applicant for a license under this part to receive, transfer, and possess power reactor spent fuel, power reactor-related Greater than Class C (GTCC) waste, and other radioactive materials associated with spent fuel storage in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements in § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 51839, Oct. 11, 2001; 73 FR 63573, Oct. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.24   Contents of application: Technical information.</HEAD>
<P>Each application for a license under this part must include a Safety Analysis Report describing the proposed ISFSI or MRS for the receipt, handling, packaging, and storage of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and/or reactor-related GTCC waste as appropriate, including how the ISFSI or MRS will be operated. The minimum information to be included in this report must consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A description and safety assessment of the site on which the ISFSI or MRS is to be located, with appropriate attention to the design bases for external events. Such assessment must contain an analysis and evaluation of the major structures, systems, and components of the ISFSI or MRS that bear on the suitability of the site when the ISFSI or MRS is operated at its design capacity. If the proposed ISFSI or MRS is to be located on the site of a nuclear power plant or other licensed facility, the potential interactions between the ISFSI or MRS and such other facility—including shared common utilities and services—must be evaluated.
</P>
<P>(b) A description and discussion of the ISFSI or MRS structures with special attention to design and operating characteristics, unusual or novel design features, and principal safety considerations. 
</P>
<P>(c) The design of the ISFSI or MRS in sufficient detail to support the findings in § 72.40 for the term requested in the application, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The design criteria for the ISFSI or MRS pursuant to subpart F of this part, with identification and justification for any additions to or departures from the general design criteria;
</P>
<P>(2) the design bases and the relation of the design bases to the design criteria;
</P>
<P>(3) Information relative to materials of construction, general arrangement, dimensions of principal structures, and descriptions of all structures, systems, and components important to safety, in sufficient detail to support a finding that the ISFSI or MRS will satisfy the design bases with an adequate margin for safety; and
</P>
<P>(4) Applicable codes and standards.
</P>
<P>(d) An analysis and evaluation of the design and performance of structures, systems, and components important to safety, with the objective of assessing the impact on public health and safety resulting from operation of the ISFSI or MRS and including determination of:
</P>
<P>(1) The margins of safety during normal operations and expected operational occurrences during the life of the ISFSI or MRS; and
</P>
<P>(2) The adequacy of structures, systems, and components provided for the prevention of accidents and the mitigation of the consequences of accidents, including natural and manmade phenomena and events.
</P>
<P>(e) The means for controlling and limiting occupational radiation exposures within the limits given in part 20 of this chapter, and for meeting the objective of maintaining exposures as low as is reasonably achievable.
</P>
<P>(f) The features of ISFSI or MRS design and operating modes to reduce to the extent practicable radioactive waste volumes generated at the installation.
</P>
<P>(g) An identification and justification for the selection of those subjects that will be probable license conditions and technical specifications. These subjects must cover the design, construction, preoperational testing, operation, and decommissioning of the ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(h) A plan for the conduct of operations, including the planned managerial and administrative controls system, and the applicant's organization, and program for training of personnel pursuant to subpart I.
</P>
<P>(i) If the proposed ISFSI or MRS incorporates structures, systems, or components important to safety whose functional adequacy or reliability have not been demonstrated by prior use for that purpose or cannot be demonstrated by reference to performance data in related applications or to widely accepted engineering principles, an identification of these structures, systems, or components along with a schedule showing how safety questions will be resolved prior to the initial receipt of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and/or reactor-related GTCC waste as appropriate for storage at the ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(j) The technical qualifications of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities, as required by § 72.28.
</P>
<P>(k) A description of the applicant's plans for coping with emergencies, as required by § 72.32.
</P>
<P>(l) A description of the equipment to be installed to maintain control over radioactive materials in gaseous and liquid effluents produced during normal operations and expected operational occurrences. The description must identify the design objectives and the means to be used for keeping levels of radioactive material in effluents to the environment as low as is reasonably achievable and within the exposure limits stated in § 72.104. The description must include:
</P>
<P>(1) An estimate of the quantity of each of the principal radionuclides expected to be released annually to the environment in liquid and gaseous effluents produced during normal ISFSI or MRS operations;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the equipment and processes used in radioactive waste systems; and
</P>
<P>(3) A general description of the provisions for packaging, storage, and disposal of solid wastes containing radioactive materials resulting from treatment of gaseous and liquid effluents and from other sources.
</P>
<P>(m) An analysis of the potential dose equivalent or committed dose equivalent to an individual outside the controlled area from accidents or natural phenomena events that result in the release of radioactive material to the environment or direct radiation from the ISFSI or MRS. The calculations of individual dose equivalent or committed dose equivalent must be performed for direct exposure, inhalation, and ingestion occurring as a result of the postulated design basis event.
</P>
<P>(n) A description of the quality assurance program that satisfies the requirements of subpart G to be applied to the design, fabrication, construction, testing, operation, modification, and decommissioning of the structures, systems, and components of the ISFSI or MRS important to safety. The description must identify the structures, systems, and components important to safety. The program must also apply to managerial and administrative controls used to ensure safe operation of the ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(o) A description of the detailed security measures for physical protection, including design features and the plans required by subpart H. For an application from DOE for an ISFSI or MRS, DOE will provide a description of the physical protection plan for protection against radiological sabotage as required by subpart H.
</P>
<P>(p) A description of the program covering preoperational testing and initial operations.
</P>
<P>(q) A description of the decommissioning plan required under § 72.30.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 26961, May 15, 1998; 64 FR 53615, Oct. 4, 1999; 66 FR 51839, Oct. 11, 2001; 76 FR 8890, Feb. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.26   Contents of application: Technical specifications.</HEAD>
<P>Each application under this part shall include proposed technical specifications in accordance with the requirements of § 72.44 and a summary statement of the bases and justifications for these technical specifications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.28" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.28   Contents of application: Applicant's technical qualifications.</HEAD>
<P>Each application under this part must include:
</P>
<P>(a) The technical qualifications, including training and experience, of the applicant to engage in the proposed activities;
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the personnel training program required under subpart I;
</P>
<P>(c) A description of the applicant's operating organization, delegations of responsibility and authority and the minimum skills and experience qualifications relevant to the various levels of responsibility and authority; and
</P>
<P>(d) A commitment by the applicant to have and maintain an adequate complement of trained and certified installation personnel prior to the receipt of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and/or reactor-related GTCC waste as appropriate for storage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 51840, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.30" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.30   Financial assurance and recordkeeping for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application under this part must include a proposed decommissioning plan that contains sufficient information on proposed practices and procedures for the decontamination of the site and facilities and for disposal of residual radioactive materials after all spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste have been removed, in order to provide reasonable assurance that the decontamination and decommissioning of the ISFSI or MRS at the end of its useful life will provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public. This plan must identify and discuss those design features of the ISFSI or MRS that facilitate its decontamination and decommissioning at the end of its useful life.
</P>
<P>(b) Each holder of, or applicant for, a license under this part must submit for NRC review and approval a decommissioning funding plan that must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) Information on how reasonable assurance will be provided that funds will be available to decommission the ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed cost estimate for decommissioning, in an amount reflecting:
</P>
<P>(i) The cost of an independent contractor to perform all decommissioning activities;
</P>
<P>(ii) An adequate contingency factor; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The cost of meeting the § 20.1402 of this chapter criteria for unrestricted use, provided that, if the applicant or licensee can demonstrate its ability to meet the provisions of § 20.1403 of this chapter, the cost estimate may be based on meeting the § 20.1403 criteria.
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of and justification for using the key assumptions contained in the DCE.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the method of assuring funds for decommissioning from paragraph (e) of this section, including means for adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels periodically over the life of the facility.
</P>
<P>(5) The volume of onsite subsurface material containing residual radioactivity that will require remediation to meet the criteria for license termination.
</P>
<P>(6) A certification that financial assurance for decommissioning has been provided in the amount of the cost estimate for decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(c) At the time of license renewal and at intervals not to exceed 3 years, the decommissioning funding plan must be resubmitted with adjustments as necessary to account for changes in costs and the extent of contamination. If the amount of financial assurance will be adjusted downward, this can not be done until the updated decommissioning funding plan is approved. The decommissioning funding plan must update the information submitted with the original or prior approved plan and must specifically consider the effect of the following events on decommissioning costs:
</P>
<P>(1) Spills of radioactive material producing additional residual radioactivity in onsite subsurface material.
</P>
<P>(2) Facility modifications.
</P>
<P>(3) Changes in authorized possession limits.
</P>
<P>(4) Actual remediation costs that exceed the previous cost estimate.
</P>
<P>(d) If, in surveys made under 10 CFR 20.1501(a), residual radioactivity in soils or groundwater is detected at levels that would require such radioactivity to be reduced to a level permitting release of the property for unrestricted use under the decommissioning requirements in part 20 of this chapter, the licensee must submit a new or revised decommissioning funding plan within one year of when the survey is completed.
</P>
<P>(e) The financial instrument must include the licensee's name, license number, and docket number; and the name, address, and other contact information of the issuer, and, if a trust is used, the trustee. When any of the foregoing information changes, the licensee must, within 30 days, submit financial instruments reflecting such changes. Financial assurance for decommissioning must be provided by one or more of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prepayment.</I> Prepayment is the deposit before the start of operation into an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control of cash or liquid assets such that the amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs. Prepayment must be made into a trust account, and the trustee and the trust must be acceptable to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method.</I> These methods guarantee that decommissioning costs will be paid. A surety method may be in the form of a surety bond, or letter of credit. A parent company guarantee of funds for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix A to part 30 of this chapter. For commercial corporations that issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs based on a financial test may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix C to part 30 of this chapter. For commercial companies that do not issue bonds, a guarantee of funds by the applicant or licensee for decommissioning costs may be used if the guarantee and test are as contained in appendix D to part 30 of this chapter. Except for an external sinking fund, a parent company guarantee or a guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in combination with other financial methods to satisfy the requirements of this section. A guarantee by the applicant or licensee may not be used in any situation where the applicant or licensee has a parent company holding majority control of the voting stock of the company. Any surety method or insurance used to provide financial assurance for decommissioning must contain the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The surety method or insurance must be open-ended or, if written for a specified term, such as five years, must be renewed automatically unless 90 days or more prior to the renewal date, the issuer notifies the Commission, the beneficiary, and the licensee of its intention not to renew. The surety method or insurance must also provide that the full face amount be paid to the beneficiary automatically prior to the expiration without proof of forfeiture if the licensee fails to provide a replacement acceptable to the Commission withing 30 days after receipt of notification or cancellation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The surety method or insurance must be payable to a trust established for decommissioning costs. The trustee and trust must be acceptable to the Commission. An acceptable trustee includes an appropriate State or Federal government agency or an entity which has the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a Federal or State agency. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The surety or insurance must remain in effect until the Commission has terminated the license. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>An external sinking fund in which deposits are made at least annually, coupled with a surety method, insurance, or other guarantee method, the value of which may decrease by the amount being accumulated in the sinking fund.</I> An external sinking fund is a fund established and maintained by setting aside funds periodically in an account segregated from licensee assets and outside the licensee's administrative control in which the total amount of funds would be sufficient to pay decommissioning costs at the time termination of operation is expected. An external sinking fund must be in the form of a trust. If the other guarantee method is used, no surety or insurance may be combined with the external sinking fund. The surety, insurance, or other guarantee provisions must be as stated in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of Federal, State, or local government licensees, a statement of intent containing a cost estimate for decommissioning, and indicating that funds for decommissioning will be obtained when necessary. 


</P>
<P>(5) In the case of licensees who are issued a power reactor license under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter or ISFSI licensees who are an electric utility, as defined in part 50 or part 53 of this chapter, with a specific license issued under this part, the methods of § 50.75(b), (e), and (h) or § 53.1010, § 53.1040, § 53.1045(b), and § 53.1060 of this chapter, as applicable. In the event that funds remaining to be placed into the licensee's ISFSI decommissioning external sinking fund are no longer approved for recovery in rates by a competent rate making authority, the licensee must make changes to provide financial assurance using one or more of the methods stated in paragraphs (e)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) When a governmental entity is assuming ownership of a site, an arrangement that is deemed acceptable by such governmental entity.
</P>
<P>(f) Each person licensed under this part shall keep records of information important to the decommissioning of a facility in an identified location until the site is released for unrestricted use. If records important to the decommissioning of a facility are kept for other purposes, reference to these records and their locations may be used. Information the Commission considers important to decommissioning consists of—
</P>
<P>(1) Records of spills or other unusual occurrences involving the spread of contamination in and around the facility, equipment, or site. These records may be limited to instances when contamination remains after any cleanup procedures or when there is reasonable likelihood that contaminants may have spread to inaccessible areas as in the case of possible seepage into porous materials such as concrete. These records must include any known information on identification of involved nuclides, quantities, forms, and concentrations. 
</P>
<P>(2) As-built drawings and modifications of structures and equipment in restricted areas where radioactive materials are used and/or stored, and of locations of possible inaccessible contamination such as buried pipes which may be subject to contamination. If required drawings are referenced, each relevant document need not be indexed individually. If drawings are not available, the licensee shall substitute appropriate records of available information concerning these areas and locations. 
</P>
<P>(3) A list contained in a single document and updated no less than every 2 years of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) All areas designated and formerly designated as restricted areas as defined under 10 CFR 20.1003; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) All areas outside of restricted areas that require documentation under § 72.30(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) Records of the cost estimate performed for the decommissioning funding plan and records of the funding method used for assuring funds are available for decommissioning.
</P>
<P>(g) In providing financial assurance under this section, each licensee must use the financial assurance funds only for decommissioning activities and each licensee must monitor the balance of funds held to account for market variations. The licensee must replenish the funds, and report such actions to the NRC, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If, at the end of a calendar year, the fund balance is below the amount necessary to cover the cost of decommissioning, but is not below 75 percent of the cost, the licensee must increase the balance to cover the cost, and must do so within 30 days after the end of the calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) If, at any time, the fund balance falls below 75 percent of the amount necessary to cover the cost of decommissioning, the licensee must increase the balance to cover the cost, and must do so within 30 days of the occurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 30 days of taking the actions required by paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this section, the licensee must provide a written report of such actions to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, and state the new balance of the fund.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 55 FR 29191, July 18, 1990; 58 FR 39635, July 26, 1993; 58 FR 67662, Dec. 22, 1993; 58 FR 68732, Dec. 29, 1993; 59 FR 1618, Jan. 12, 1994; 61 FR 24675, May 16, 1996; 62 FR 39092, July 21, 1997; 63 FR 29544, June 1, 1998; 66 FR 51840, Oct. 11, 2001; 67 FR 78351, Dec. 24, 2002; 76 FR 35573, June 17, 2011; 79 FR 75741 Dec. 19, 2014; 91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.32   Emergency Plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application for an ISFSI that is licensed under this part which is: Not located on the site of a nuclear power reactor, or not located within the exclusion area as defined in 10 CFR part 100 of a nuclear power reactor, or located on the site of a nuclear power reactor which does not have an operating license, or located on the site of a nuclear power reactor that is not authorized to operate must be accompanied by an Emergency Plan that includes the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Facility description.</I> A brief description of the licensee's facility and area near the site. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of accidents.</I> An identification of each type of radioactive materials accident. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Classification of accidents.</I> A classification system for classifying accidents as “alerts.” 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Detection of accidents.</I> Identification of the means of detecting an accident condition. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mitigation of consequences.</I> A brief description of the means of mitigating the consequences of each type of accident, including those provided to protect workers onsite, and a description of the program for maintaining the equipment. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Assessment of releases.</I> A brief description of the methods and equipment to assess releases of radioactive materials. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Responsibilities.</I> A brief description of the responsibilities of licensee personnel should an accident occur, including identification of personnel responsible for promptly notifying offsite response organizations and the NRC; also responsibilities for developing, maintaining, and updating the plan. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Notification and coordination.</I> A commitment to and a brief description of the means to promptly notify offsite response organizations and request offsite assistance, including medical assistance for the treatment of contaminated injured onsite workers when appropriate. A control point must be established. The notification and coordination must be planned so that unavailability of some personnel, parts of the facility, and some equipment will not prevent the notification and coordination. The licensee shall also commit to notify the NRC operations center immediately after notifications of the appropriate offsite response organizations and not later than one hour after the licensee declares an emergency. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> These reporting requirements do not supersede or release licensees of complying with the requirements under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Pub. L. 99-499 or other State or Federal reporting requirements.</P></FTNT>
<P>(9) <I>Information to be communicated.</I> A brief description of the types of information on facility status; radioactive releases; and recommended protective actions, if necessary, to be given to offsite response organizations and to the NRC. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Training.</I> A brief description of the training the licensee will provide workers on how to respond to an emergency and any special instructions and orientation tours the licensee would offer to fire, police, medical and other emergency personnel. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Safe condition.</I> A brief description of the means of restoring the facility to a safe condition after an accident. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Exercises.</I> (i) Provisions for conducting semiannual communications checks with offsite response organizations and biennial onsite exercises to test response to simulated emergencies. Radiological/Health Physics, Medical, and Fire drills shall be conducted annually. Semiannual communications checks with offsite response organizations must include the check and update of all necessary telephone numbers. The licensee shall invite offsite response organizations to participate in the biennial exercise. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Participation of offsite response organizations in biennial exercises, although recommended, is not required. Exercises must use scenarios not known to most exercise participants. The licensee shall critique each exercise using individuals not having direct implementation responsibility for conducting the exercise. Critiques of exercises must evaluate the appropriateness of the plan, emergency procedures, facilities, equipment, training of personnel, and overall effectiveness of the response. Deficiencies found by the critiques must be corrected. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Hazardous chemicals.</I> A certification that the applicant has met its responsibilities under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Pub. L. 99-499, with respect to hazardous materials at the facility. 
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Comments on Plan.</I> The licensee shall allow the offsite response organizations expected to respond in case of an accident 60 days to comment on the initial submittal of the licensee's emergency plan before submitting it to NRC. Subsequent plan changes need not have the offsite comment period unless the plan changes affect the offsite response organizations. The licensee shall provide any comments received within the 60 days to the NRC with the emergency plan. 
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Offsite assistance.</I> The applicant's emergency plans shall include a brief description of the arrangements made for requesting and effectively using offsite assistance on site and provisions that exist for using other organizations capable of augmenting the planned onsite response. 
</P>
<P>(16) Arrangements made for providing information to the public. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each application for an MRS that is licensed under this part and each application for an ISFSI that is licensed under this part and that may process and/or repackage spent fuel, must be accompanied by an Emergency Plan that includes the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Facility description.</I> A brief description of the licensee facility and area near the site. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of accidents.</I> An identification of each type of radioactive materials accident. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Classification of accidents.</I> A classification system for classifying accidents as “alerts” or “site area emergencies.” 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Detection of accidents.</I> Identification of the means of detecting an accident condition. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mitigation of consequences.</I> A brief description of the means of mitigating the consequences of each type of accident, including those provided to protect workers on site, and a description of the program for maintaining the equipment. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Assessment of releases.</I> A brief description of the methods and equipment to assess releases of radioactive materials. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Responsibilities.</I> A brief description of the responsibilities of licensee personnel should an accident occur, including identification of personnel responsible for promptly notifying offsite response organizations and the NRC; also responsibilities for developing, maintaining, and updating the plan. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Notification and coordination.</I> A commitment to and a brief description of the means to promptly notify offsite response organizations and request offsite assistance, including medical assistance for the treatment of contaminated injured onsite workers when appropriate. A control point must be established. The notification and coordination must be planned so that unavailability of some personnel, parts of the facility, and some equipment will not prevent the notification and coordination. The licensee shall also commit to notify the NRC operations center immediately after notifications of the appropriate offsite response organizations and not later than one hour after the licensee declares an emergency. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> These reporting requirements do not supersede or release licensees of complying with the requirements under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Pub. L. 99-499 or other State or Federal reporting requirements.</P></FTNT>
<P>(9) <I>Information to be communicated.</I> A brief description of the types of information on facility status; radioactive releases; and recommended protective actions, if necessary, to be given to offsite response organizations and to the NRC. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Training.</I> A brief description of the training the licensee will provide workers on how to respond to an emergency and any special instructions and orientation tours the licensee would offer to fire, police, medical and other emergency personnel. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Safe condition.</I> A brief description of the means of restoring the facility to a safe condition after an accident. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Exercises.</I> (i) Provisions for conducting quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations and biennial onsite exercises to test response to simulated emergencies. Radiological/Health Physics, Medical, and Fire Drills shall be held semiannually. Quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations must include the check and update of all necessary telephone numbers. The licensee shall invite offsite response organizations to participate in the biennial exercises. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Participation of offsite response organizations in the biennial exercises, although recommended, is not required. Exercises must use scenarios not known to most exercise participants. The licensee shall critique each exercise using individuals not having direct implementation responsibility for conducting the exercise. Critiques of exercises must evaluate the appropriateness of the plan, emergency procedures, facilities, equipment, training of personnel, and overall effectiveness of the response. Deficiencies found by the critiques must be corrected. 
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Hazardous chemicals.</I> A certification that the applicant has met its responsibilities under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Pub. L. 99-499, with respect to hazardous materials at the facility. 
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Comments on Plan.</I> The licensee shall allow the offsite response organizations expected to respond in case of an accident 60 days to comment on the initial submittal of the licensee's emergency plan before submitting it to NRC. Subsequent plan changes need not have the offsite comment period unless the plan changes affect the offsite response organizations. The licensee shall provide any comments received within the 60 days to the NRC with the emergency plan. 
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Offsite assistance.</I> The applicant's emergency plans shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the arrangements made for requesting and effectively using offsite assistance on site and provisions that exist for using other organizations capable of augmenting the planned onsite response. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provisions that exist for prompt communications among principal response organizations to offsite emergency personnel who would be responding onsite. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate emergency facilities and equipment to support the emergency response onsite are provided and maintained. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Adequate methods, systems, and equipment for assessing and monitoring actual or potential consequences of a radiological emergency condition are available. 
</P>
<P>(v) Arrangements are made for medical services for contaminated and injured onsite individuals. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Radiological Emergency Response Training has been made available to those offsite who may be called to assist in an emergency onsite. 
</P>
<P>(16) Arrangements made for providing information to the public. 
</P>
<P>(c) For an ISFSI that is: 
</P>
<P>(1) located on the site, or 


</P>
<P>(2)(i) Located within the exclusion area as defined in 10 CFR part 100, of a nuclear power reactor licensed for operation by the Commission, the emergency plan that meets either the requirements in § 50.160 of this chapter or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and § 50.47(b) of this chapter shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Located within the exclusion area, as defined in 10 CFR part 53, of a commercial nuclear plant licensed for operation by the Commission, the emergency plan that meets either the requirements in § 50.160 of this chapter or the requirements in appendix E to part 50 of this chapter and § 50.47(b) of this chapter shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 32441, June 22, 1995, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020; 88 FR 80078, Nov. 16, 2023; 91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.34" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.2.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.34   Environmental report.</HEAD>
<P>Each application for an ISFSI or MRS license under this part must be accompanied by an Environmental Report which meets the requirements of subpart A of part 51 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Issuance and Conditions of License</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.40   Issuance of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the Commission will issue a license under this part upon a determination that the application for a license meets the standards and requirements of the Act and the regulations of the Commission, and upon finding that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant's proposed ISFSI or MRS design complies with subpart F; 
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed site complies with the criteria in subpart E; 
</P>
<P>(3) If on the site of a nuclear power plant or other licensed activity or facility, the proposed ISFSI would not pose an undue risk to the safe operation of such nuclear power plant or other licensed activity or facility; 
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant is qualified by reason of training and experience to conduct the operation covered by the regulations in this part; 
</P>
<P>(5) The applicant's proposed operating procedures to protect health and to minimize danger to life or property are adequate; 
</P>
<P>(6) Except for DOE, the applicant for an ISFSI or MRS is financially qualified to engage in the proposed activities in accordance with the regulations in this part;
</P>
<P>(7) The applicant's quality assurance plan complies with subpart G;
</P>
<P>(8) The applicant's physical protection provisions comply with subpart H. DOE has complied with the safeguards and physical security provisions identified in § 72.24(o);
</P>
<P>(9) The applicant's personnel training program complies with subpart I;
</P>
<P>(10) Except for DOE, the applicant's decommissioning plan and its financing pursuant to § 72.30 provide reasonable assurance that the decontamination and decommissioning of the ISFSI or MRS at the end of its useful life will provide adequate protection to the health and safety of the public;
</P>
<P>(11) The applicant's emergency plan complies with § 72.32; 
</P>
<P>(12) The applicable provisions of part 170 of this chapter have been satisfied;
</P>
<P>(13) There is reasonable assurance that: (i) The activities authorized by the license can be conducted without endangering the health and safety of the public and (ii) these activities will be conducted in compliance with the applicable regulations of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(14) The issuance of the license will not be inimical to the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(b) A license to store spent fuel and reactor-related GTCC waste in the proposed ISFSI or to store spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste in the proposed MRS may be denied if construction on the proposed facility begins before a finding approving issuance of the proposed license with any appropriate conditions to protect environmental values. Grounds for denial may be the commencement of construction prior to a finding by the Director, Office of Nuclear Materials Safety and Safeguards or designee or a finding after a public hearing by the presiding officer, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board, or the Commission acting as a collegial body, as appropriate, that the action called for is the issuance of the proposed license with any appropriate conditions to protect environmental values. This finding is to be made on the basis of information filed and evaluations made pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter or in the case of an MRS on the basis of evaluations made pursuant to sections 141(c) and (d) or 148(a) and (c) of NWPA (96 Stat. 2242, 2243, 42 U.S.C. 10161(c), (d); 101 Stat. 1330-235, 1330-236, 42 U.S.C. 10168(a), (c)), as appropriate, and after weighing the environmental, economic, technical and other benefits against environmental costs and considering available alternatives.
</P>
<P>(c) For facilities that have been covered under previous licensing actions including the issuance of a construction permit under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter, a reevaluation of the site is not required except where new information is discovered which could alter the original site evaluation findings. In this case, the site evaluation factors involved will be reevaluated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 51840, Oct. 11, 2001; 91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.42" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.42   Duration of license; renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each license issued under this part must be for a fixed period of time to be specified in the license. The license term for an ISFSI must not exceed 40 years from the date of issuance. The license term for an MRS must not exceed 40 years from the date of issuance. Licenses for either type of installation may be renewed by the Commission at the expiration of the license term upon application by the licensee for a period not to exceed 40 years and under the requirements of this rule. Application for ISFSI license renewals must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) TLAAs that demonstrate that structures, systems, and components important to safety will continue to perform their intended function for the requested period of extended operation; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the AMP for management of issues associated with aging that could adversely affect structures, systems, and components important to safety.
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for renewal of a license should be filed in accordance with the applicable provisions of subpart B of this part at least 2 years before the expiration of the existing license. The application must also include design bases information as documented in the most recently updated FSAR as required by § 72.70. Information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission under the license may be incorporated by reference provided that these references are clear and specific.
</P>
<P>(c) In any case in which a licensee, not less than two years prior to expiration of its existing license, has filed an application in proper form for renewal of a license, the existing license shall not expire until a final decision concerning the application for renewal has been made by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 76 FR 8890, Feb. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.44" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.44   License conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each license issued under this part shall include license conditions. The license conditions may be derived from the analyses and evaluations included in the Safety Analysis Report and amendments thereto submitted pursuant to § 72.24. License conditions pertain to design, construction and operation. The Commission may also include additional license conditions as it finds appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Each license issued under this part shall be subject to the following conditions, even if they are not explicitly stated therein;
</P>
<P>(1) Neither the license nor any right thereunder shall be transferred, assigned, or disposed of in any manner, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license to any person, unless the Commission shall, after securing full information, find that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and give its consent in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) The license shall be subject to revocation, suspension, modification, or amendment in accordance with the procedures provided by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and Commission regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon request of the Commission, the licensee shall, at any time before expiration of the license, submit written statements, signed under oath or affirmation if appropriate, to enable the Commission to determine whether or not the license should be modified, suspended, or revoked.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall have an NRC-approved program in effect that covers the training and certification of personnel that meets the requirements of subpart I before the licensee may receive spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste for storage at an ISFSI or the receipt of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and/or reactor-related GTCC waste for storage at an MRS.
</P>
<P>(5) The license shall permit the operation of the equipment and controls that are important to safety of the ISFSI or the MRS only by personnel whom the licensee has certified as being adequately trained to perform such operations, or by uncertified personnel who are under the direct visual supervision of a certified individual.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Each licensee shall notify the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy under any Chapter of Title II (Bankruptcy) of the United States Code by or against:
</P>
<P>(A) The licensee;
</P>
<P>(B) An entity (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(14)) controlling the licensee or listing the license or licensee as property of the estate; or 
</P>
<P>(C) An affiliate (as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(2)) of the licensee.
</P>
<P>(ii) This notification must indicate:
</P>
<P>(A) The bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed; and
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the filing of the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) Each license issued under this part must include technical specifications. Technical specifications must include requirements in the following categories:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Functional and operating limits and monitoring instruments and limiting control settings.</I> (i) Functional and operating limits for an ISFSI or MRS are limits on fuel or waste handling and storage conditions that are found to be necessary to protect the integrity of the stored fuel or waste container, to protect employees against occupational exposures and to guard against the uncontrolled release of radioactive materials; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitoring instruments and limiting control settings for an ISFSI or MRS are those related to fuel or waste handling and storage conditions having significant safety functions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limiting conditions.</I> Limiting conditions are the lowest functional capability or performance levels of equipment required for safe operation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Surveillance requirements.</I> Surveillance requirements include:
</P>
<P>(i) Inspection and monitoring of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste in storage;
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection, test and calibration activities to ensure that the necessary integrity of required systems and components is maintained;
</P>
<P>(iii) Confirmation that operation of the ISFSI or MRS is within the required functional and operating limits; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Confirmation that the limiting conditions required for safe storage are met.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Design features.</I> Design features include items that would have a significant effect on safety if altered or modified, such as materials of construction and geometric arrangements.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Administrative controls.</I> Administrative controls include the organization and management procedures, recordkeeping, review and audit, and reporting requirements necessary to assure that the operations involved in the storage of spent fuel and reactor-related GTCC waste in an ISFSI and the storage of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste in an MRS are performed in a safe manner.
</P>
<P>(d) Each license authorizing the receipt, handling, and storage of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and/or reactor-related GTCC waste under this part must include technical specifications that, in addition to stating the limits on the release of radioactive materials for compliance with limits of part 20 of this chapter and the “as low as is reasonably achievable” objectives for effluents, require that:
</P>
<P>(1) Operating procedures for control of effluents be established and followed, and equipment in the radioactive waste treatment systems be maintained and used, to meet the requirements of § 72.104;
</P>
<P>(2) An environmental monitoring program be established to ensure compliance with the technical specifications for effluents; and 
</P>
<P>(3) An annual report be submitted to the Commission in accordance with § 72.4, specifying the quantity of each of the principal radionuclides released to the environment in liquid and in gaseous effluents during the previous 12 months of operation and such other information as may be required by the Commission to estimate maximum potential radiation dose commitment to the public resulting from effluent releases. On the basis of this report and any additional information that the Commission may obtain from the licensee or others, the Commission may from time to time require the licensee to take such action as the Commission deems appropriate. The report must be submitted within 60 days after the end of the 12-month monitoring period.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall make no change that would decrease the effectiveness of the physical security plan prepared pursuant to § 72.180 without the prior approval of the Commission. A licensee desiring to make such a change shall submit an application for an amendment to the license pursuant to § 72.56. A licensee may make changes to the physical security plan without prior Commission approval, provided that such changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan. The licensee shall furnish to the Commission a report containing a description of each change within two months after the change is made, and shall maintain records of changes to the plan made without prior Commission approval for a period of 3 years from the date of the change.
</P>
<P>(f) A licensee shall follow and maintain in effect an emergency plan that is approved by the Commission. The licensee may make changes to the approved plan without Commission approval only if such changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan. Within six months after any change is made, the licensee shall submit, in accordance with § 72.4, a report containing a description of any changes made in the plan addressed to Director, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, with a copy to the appropriate NRC Regional Office shown in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter. Proposed changes that decrease the effectiveness of the approved emergency plan must not be implemented unless the licensee has received prior approval of such changes from the Commission.
</P>
<P>(g) A license issued to DOE under this part for an MRS authorized by section 142(b) of NWPA (101 Stat. 1330-232, 42 U.S.C. 10162(b)) must include the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Construction of the MRS may not begin until the Commission has authorized the construction of a repository under section 114(d) of NWPA (96 Stat. 2215, as amended by 101 Stat. 1330-230, 42 U.S.C. 10134 (d)) and part 60 or 63 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(2) Construction of the MRS or acceptance of spent nuclear fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and/or reactor-related GTCC waste at the MRS is prohibited during such time as the repository license is revoked by the Commission or construction of the repository ceases.
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste at the site of the MRS at any one time may not exceed 10,000 metric tons of heavy metal until a repository authorized under NWPA and part 60 or 63 of this chapter first accepts spent nuclear fuel or solidified high-level radioactive waste; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The quantity of spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste at the site of the MRS at any one time may not exceed 15,000 metric tons of heavy metal.
</P>
<P>(h) Each licensee shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements of § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 33183, June 22, 1999; 66 FR 51840, Oct. 11, 2001; 66 FR 55815, Nov. 2, 2001; 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 63573, Oct. 24, 2008; 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.46   Public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In connection with each application for a license under this part, the Commission shall issue or cause to be issued a notice of proposed action and opportunity for hearing in accordance with § 2.105 or § 2.1107 of this chapter, as appropriate, or, if the Commission finds that a hearing is required in the public interest, a notice of hearing in accordance with § 2.104 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) In connection with each application for an amendment to a license under this part, the Commission shall, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, issue or cause to be issued a notice of proposed action and opportunity for hearing in accordance with § 2.105 or § 2.1107 of this chapter, as appropriate, or, if the Commission finds that a hearing is required in the public interest, a notice of hearing in accordance with § 2.104 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, or the Director's designee may dispense with a notice of proposed action and opportunity for hearing or a notice of hearing and take immediate action on an amendment to a license issued under this part upon a determination that the amendment does not present a genuine issue as to whether the health and safety of the public will be significantly affected. After taking the action, the Director or the Director's designee shall promptly publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the action taken and of the right of interested persons to request a hearing on whether the action should be rescinded or modified. If the action taken amends an MRS license, the Director or the Director's designee shall also inform the appropriate State and local officials.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice of proposed action and opportunity for hearing or the notice of hearing may be included in the notice of docketing required to be published by § 72.16 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) If no request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene is filed within the time prescribed in the notice of proposed action and opportunity for hearing, the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or the Director's designee may take the proposed action, and thereafter shall promptly inform the appropriate State and local officials and publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the action taken. In accordance with § 2.764(c) of this chapter, the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards shall not issue an initial license for the construction and operation of an ISFSI located at a site other than a reactor site or an MRS until expressly authorized to do so by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) If an application for (or an amendment to) a specific license issued under this part incorporates by reference information on the design of a spent fuel storage cask for which NRC approval pursuant to subpart L of this part has been issued or is being sought, the scope of any public hearing held to consider the application will not include any cask design issues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 60 FR 20886, Apr. 28, 1995; 65 FR 50617, Aug. 21, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.48" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.48   Changes, tests, and experiments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions for the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Change</I> means a modification or addition to, or removal from, the facility or spent fuel storage cask design or procedures that affects a design function, method of performing or controlling the function, or an evaluation that demonstrates that intended functions will be accomplished.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Departure from a method of evaluation described in the FSAR (as updated) used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Changing any of the elements of the method described in the FSAR (as updated) unless the results of the analysis are conservative or essentially the same; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Changing from a method described in the FSAR to another method unless that method has been approved by NRC for the intended application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facility</I> means either an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or a Monitored Retrievable Storage facility (MRS).
</P>
<P>(4) The <I>facility or spent fuel storage cask design as described in the Final Safety Analysis Report (FSAR) (as updated)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The structures, systems, and components (SSC) that are described in the FSAR (as updated),
</P>
<P>(ii) The design and performance requirements for such SSCs described in the FSAR (as updated), and
</P>
<P>(iii) The evaluations or methods of evaluation included in the FSAR (as updated) for such SSCs which demonstrate that their intended function(s) will be accomplished.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Final Safety Analysis Report (as updated)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) For specific licensees, the Safety Analysis Report for a facility submitted and updated in accordance with § 72.70;
</P>
<P>(ii) For general licensees, the Safety Analysis Report for a spent fuel storage cask design, as amended and supplemented; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For certificate holders, the Safety Analysis Report for a spent fuel storage cask design submitted and updated in accordance with § 72.248.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Procedures as described in the Final Safety Analysis Report (as updated)</I> means those procedures that contain information described in the FSAR (as updated) such as how SSCs are operated and controlled (including assumed operator actions and response times).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Tests or experiments not described in the Final Safety Analysis Report (as updated)</I> means any activity where any SSC is utilized or controlled in a manner which is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Outside the reference bounds of the design bases as described in the FSAR (as updated) or
</P>
<P>(ii) Inconsistent with the analyses or descriptions in the FSAR (as updated).
</P>
<P>(b) This section applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) Each holder of a general or specific license issued under this part, and
</P>
<P>(2) Each holder of a Certificate of Compliance (CoC) issued under this part.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A licensee or certificate holder may make changes in the facility or spent fuel storage cask design as described in the FSAR (as updated), make changes in the procedures as described in the FSAR (as updated), and conduct tests or experiments not described in the FSAR (as updated), without obtaining either:
</P>
<P>(i) A license amendment pursuant to § 72.56 (for specific licensees) or
</P>
<P>(ii) A CoC amendment submitted by the certificate holder pursuant to § 72.244 (for general licensees and certificate holders) if:
</P>
<P>(A) A change to the technical specifications incorporated in the specific license is not required; or
</P>
<P>(B) A change in the terms, conditions, or specifications incorporated in the CoC is not required; and
</P>
<P>(C) The change, test, or experiment does not meet any of the criteria in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A specific licensee shall obtain a license amendment pursuant to § 72.56, a certificate holder shall obtain a CoC amendment pursuant to § 72.244, and a general licensee shall request that the certificate holder obtain a CoC amendment pursuant to § 72.244, prior to implementing a proposed change, test, or experiment if the change, test, or experiment would:
</P>
<P>(i) Result in more than a minimal increase in the frequency of occurrence of an accident previously evaluated in the FSAR (as updated);
</P>
<P>(ii) Result in more than a minimal increase in the likelihood of occurrence of a malfunction of a system, structure, or component (SSC) important to safety previously evaluated in the FSAR (as updated);
</P>
<P>(iii) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of an accident previously evaluated in the FSAR (as updated); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Result in more than a minimal increase in the consequences of a malfunction of an SSC important to safety previously evaluated in the FSAR (as updated);
</P>
<P>(v) Create a possibility for an accident of a different type than any previously evaluated in the FSAR (as updated);
</P>
<P>(vi) Create a possibility for a malfunction of an SSC important to safety with a different result than any previously evaluated in the FSAR (as updated);
</P>
<P>(vii) Result in a design basis limit for a fission product barrier as described in the FSAR (as updated) being exceeded or altered; or 
</P>
<P>(viii) Result in a departure from a method of evaluation described in the FSAR (as updated) used in establishing the design bases or in the safety analyses.
</P>
<P>(3) In implementing this paragraph, the FSAR (as updated) is considered to include FSAR changes resulting from evaluations performed pursuant to this section and analyses performed pursuant to § 72.56 or § 72.244 since the last update of the FSAR pursuant to § 72.70, or § 72.248 of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions in this section do not apply to changes to the facility or procedures when the applicable regulations establish more specific criteria for accomplishing such changes.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The licensee and certificate holder shall maintain records of changes in the facility or spent fuel storage cask design, of changes in procedures, and of tests and experiments made pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. These records must include a written evaluation which provides the bases for the determination that the change, test, or experiment does not require a license or CoC amendment pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee and certificate holder shall submit, as specified in § 72.4, a report containing a brief description of any changes, tests, and experiments, including a summary of the evaluation of each. A report shall be submitted at intervals not to exceed 24 months.
</P>
<P>(3) The records of changes in the facility or spent fuel storage cask design shall be maintained until:
</P>
<P>(i) Spent fuel is no longer stored in the facility or the spent fuel storage cask design is no longer being used, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission terminates the license or CoC issued pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The records of changes in procedures and of tests and experiments shall be maintained for a period of 5 years.
</P>
<P>(5) The holder of a spent fuel storage cask design CoC, who permanently ceases operation, shall provide the records of changes to the new certificate holder or to the Commission, as appropriate, in accordance with § 72.234(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(6)(i) A general licensee shall provide a copy of the record for any changes to a spent fuel storage cask design to the applicable certificate holder within 60 days of implementing the change.
</P>
<P>(ii) A specific licensee using a spent fuel storage cask design, approved pursuant to subpart L of this part, shall provide a copy of the record for any changes to a spent fuel storage cask design to the applicable certificate holder within 60 days of implementing the change.
</P>
<P>(iii) A certificate holder shall provide a copy of the record for any changes to a spent fuel storage cask design to any general or specific licensee using the cask design within 60 days of implementing the change.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53615, Oct. 4, 1999, as amended at 66 FR 11527, Feb. 26, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.50" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.50   Transfer of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No license or any part included in a license issued under this part for an ISFSI or MRS shall be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of the license to any person, unless the Commission gives its consent in writing.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An application for transfer of a license must include as much of the information described in §§ 72.22 and 72.28 with respect to the identity and the technical and financial qualifications of the proposed transferee as would be required by those sections if the application were for an initial license. The application must also include a statement of the purposes for which the transfer of the license is requested and the nature of the transaction necessitating or making desirable the transfer of the license.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may require any person who submits an application for the transfer of a license pursuant to the provisions of this section to file a written consent from the existing licensee, or a certified copy of an order or judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction, attesting to the person's right—subject to the licensing requirements of the Act and these regulations—to possession of the radioactive materials and the storage installation involved.
</P>
<P>(3) The application shall describe the financial assurance that will be provided for the decommissioning of the facility under § 72.30.
</P>
<P>(c) After appropriate notice to interested persons, including the existing licensee, and observance of such procedures as may be required by the Act or regulations or orders of the Commission, the Commission will approve an application for the transfer of a license, if the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed transferee is qualified to be the holder of the license; and
</P>
<P>(2) Transfer of the license is consistent with applicable provisions of the law, and the regulations and orders issued by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 76 FR 35574, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.52   Creditor regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section does not apply to an ISFSI or MRS constructed and operated by DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to section 184 of the Act, the Commission consents, without individual application, to the creation of any mortgage, pledge, or other lien on special nuclear material contained in spent fuel not owned by the United States that is the subject of a license or on any interest in special nuclear material in spent fuel; Provided:
</P>
<P>(1) That the rights of any creditor so secured may be exercised only in compliance with and subject to the same requirements and restrictions as would apply to the licensee pursuant to the provisions of the license, the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and regulations issued by the Commission pursuant to said Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) That no creditor so secured may take possession of the spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste under the provisions of this section before—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission issues a license authorizing possession; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The license is transferred.
</P>
<P>(c) Any creditor so secured may apply for transfer of the license covering spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste by filing an application for transfer of the license under § 72.50(b). The Commission will act upon the application under § 72.50(c).
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing contained in this regulation shall be deemed to affect the means of acquiring, or the priority of, any tax lien or other lien provided by law.
</P>
<P>(e) As used in this section, “creditor” includes, without implied limitation—
</P>
<P>(1) The trustee under any mortgage, pledge, or lien on spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste in storage made to secure any creditor;
</P>
<P>(2) Any trustee or receiver of spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction in any action brought for the benefit of any creditor secured by a mortgage, pledge, or lien;
</P>
<P>(3) Any purchaser of the spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste at the sale thereof upon foreclosure of the mortgage, pledge, or lien or upon exercise of any power of sale contained therein; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any assignee of any such purchaser.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 51840, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.54" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.54   Expiration and termination of licenses and decommissioning of sites and separate buildings or outdoor areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each specific license expires at the end of the day on the expiration date stated in the license except when a licensee has filed an application for renewal pursuant to § 72.42 not less than 24 months before the expiration of the existing license. If an application for renewal has been filed at least 24 months prior to the expiration date stated in the existing license, the existing license expires at the end of the day on which the Commission makes a final determination to deny the renewal application or, if the determination states an expiration date, the expiration date stated in the determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each specific license revoked by the Commission expires at the end of the day on the date of the Commission's final determination to revoke the license or on the expiration date stated in the determination or as otherwise provided by Commission Order. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each specific license continues in effect, beyond the expiration date if necessary, with respect to possession of licensed material until the Commission notifies the licensee in writing that the license is terminated. During this time, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Limit actions involving spent fuel, reactor-related GTCC waste, or other licensed material to those related to decommissioning; and
</P>
<P>(2) Continue to control entry to restricted areas until they are suitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements. 
</P>
<P>(d) As required by § 72.42(b), or within 60 days of the occurrence of any of the following, consistent with the administrative directions in § 72.4, each licensee shall notify the NRC in writing, and submit within 12 months of this notification, a final decommissioning plan and begin decommissioning upon approval of the plan if—
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee has decided to permanently cease principal activities, as defined in this part, at the entire site or any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity such that the building or outdoor area is unsuitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements; or 
</P>
<P>(2) No principal activities under the license have been conducted for a period of 24 months; or 
</P>
<P>(3) No principal activities have been conducted for a period of 24 months in any separate building or outdoor area that contains residual radioactivity such that the building or outdoor area is unsuitable for release in accordance with NRC requirements. 
</P>
<P>(e) Coincident with the notification required by paragraph (d) of this section, the licensee shall maintain in effect all decommissioning financial assurances established by the licensee pursuant to § 72.30 in conjunction with a license issuance or renewal or as required by this section. The amount of the financial assurance must be increased, or may be decreased, as appropriate, to cover the detailed cost estimate for decommissioning established pursuant to paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Any licensee who has not provided financial assurance to cover the detailed cost estimate submitted with the decommissioning plan shall do so when this rule becomes effective November 24, 1995. 
</P>
<P>(2) Following approval of the decommissioning plan, a licensee may reduce the amount of the financial assurance as decommissioning proceeds and radiological contamination is reduced at the site with the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) The Commission may grant a request to delay or postpone initiation of the decommissioning process if the Commission determines that this relief is not detrimental to the public health and safety and is otherwise in the public interest. The request must be submitted no later than 30 days before notification pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section. The schedule for decommissioning set forth in paragraph (d) of this section may not commence until the Commission has made a determination on the request. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may approve an alternate schedule for submittal of the final decommissioning plan required pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section if the Commission determines that the alternate schedule is necessary to the effective conduct of decommissioning operations and presents no undue risk from radiation to the public health and safety, and is otherwise to the public interest. 
</P>
<P>(g) The proposed final decommissioning plan must include—
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the current conditions of the site or separate building or outdoor area sufficient to evaluate the acceptability of the plan; 
</P>
<P>(2) The choice of the alternative for decommissioning with a description of the activities involved; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of controls and limits on procedures and equipment to protect occupational and public health and safety; 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the planned final radiation survey; and 
</P>
<P>(5) An updated detailed cost estimate for the chosen alternative for decommissioning, comparison of that estimate with present funds set aside for decommissioning, and plan for assuring the availability of adequate funds for completion of decommissioning including means for adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels over any storage or surveillance period; and 
</P>
<P>(6) A description of technical specifications and quality assurance provisions in place during decommissioning. 
</P>
<P>(h) For final decommissioning plans in which the major dismantlement activities are delayed by first placing the ISFSI or MRS in storage, planning for these delayed activities may be less detailed. Updated detailed plans must be submitted and approved prior to the start of these activities. 
</P>
<P>(i) If the final decommissioning plan demonstrates that the decommissioning will be completed as soon as practicable, performed in accordance with the regulations in this chapter, and will not be inimical to the common defense and security or to the health and safety of the public, and after notice to interested persons, the Commission will approve the plan subject to any appropriate conditions and limitations and issue an order authorizing decommissioning. 
</P>
<P>(j)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, each licensee shall complete decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area as soon as practicable but no later than 24 months following approval of the final decommissioning plan by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, when decommissioning involves the entire site, each licensee shall request license termination as soon as practicable but no later than 24 months following approval of the final decommissioning plan by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(k) The Commission may approve a request for an alternate schedule for completion of decommissioning of the site or separate building or outdoor area, and license termination if appropriate, if the Commission determines that the alternate schedule is warranted by consideration of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether it is technically feasible to complete decommissioning within the allotted 24-month period; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether sufficient waste disposal capacity is available to allow completion of decommissioning within the allotted 24-month period; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether a significant volume reduction in wastes requiring disposal will be achieved by allowing short-lived radionuclides to decay; 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether a significant reduction in radiation exposure to workers can be achieved by allowing short-lived radionuclides to decay; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Other site-specific factors that the Commission may consider appropriate on a case-by-case basis, such as regulatory requirements of other government agencies, lawsuits, groundwater treatment activities, monitored natural groundwater restoration, actions that could result in more environmental harm than deferred cleanup, and other factors beyond the control of the licensee. 
</P>
<P>(l) As the final step in decommissioning, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Certify the disposition of all licensed material, including accumulated wastes, by submitting a completed NRC Form 314 or equivalent information; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct a radiation survey of the premises where the licensed activities were conducted and submit a report of the results of this survey, unless the licensee demonstrates in some other manner that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E. The licensee shall, as appropriate—
</P>
<P>(i) Report levels of gamma radiation in units of millisieverts (microroentgen) per hour at one meter from surfaces, and report levels of radioactivity, including alpha and beta, in units of megabecquerels (disintegrations per minute or microcuries) per 100 square centimeters removable and fixed for surfaces, megabecquerels (microcuries) per milliliter for water, and becquerels (picocuries) per gram for solids such as soils or concrete; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the survey instrument(s) used and certify that each instrument is properly calibrated and tested. 
</P>
<P>(m) Specific licenses, including expired licenses, will be terminated by written notice to the licensee when the Commission determines that— 
</P>
<P>(1) The decommissioning has been performed in accordance with the approved final decommissioning plan and the order authorizing decommissioning; and 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A radiation survey has been performed which demonstrates that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other information submitted by the licensee is sufficient to demonstrate that the premises are suitable for release in accordance with the criteria for decommissioning in 10 CFR part 20, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(3) Records required by § 72.80(e) have been received. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 36038, July 15, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 38240, July 26, 1995; 61 FR 24675, May 16, 1996; 61 FR 29638, June 12, 1996; 62 FR 39092, July 21, 1997; 62 FR 59276, Nov. 3, 1997; 66 FR 51840, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.56" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.56   Application for amendment of license.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a holder of a specific license desires to amend the license (including a change to the license conditions), an application for an amendment shall be filed with the Commission fully describing the changes desired and the reasons for such changes, and following as far as applicable the form prescribed for original applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53616, Oct. 4, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.58" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.58   Issuance of amendment.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether an amendment to a license will be issued to the applicant, the Commission will be guided by the considerations that govern the issuance of initial licenses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.60" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.60   Modification, revocation, and suspension of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The terms and conditions of all licenses are subject to amendment, revision, or modification by reason of amendments to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or by reason or rules, regulations, or orders issued in accordance with the Act or any amendments thereto.
</P>
<P>(b) Any license may be modified, revoked, or suspended in whole or in part for any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any material false statement in the application or in any statement of fact required under section 182 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Conditions revealed by the application or statement of fact or any report, record, inspection or other means which would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a license on an original application;
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to operate an ISFSI or MRS in accordance with the terms of the license;
</P>
<P>(4) Violation of, or failure to observe, any of the terms and conditions of the Act, or of any applicable regulation, license, or order of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon revocation of a license, the Commission may immediately cause the retaking of possession of all special nuclear material contained in spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste held by the licensee. In cases found by the Commission to be of extreme importance to the national defense and security or to the health and safety of the public, the Commission may cause the taking of possession of any special nuclear material contained in spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste held by the licensee before following any of the procedures provided under sections 551-558 of title 5 of the United States Code.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 51841, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.3.121.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.62   Backfitting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this section, <I>backfitting</I> means the addition, elimination, or modification, after the license has been issued, of:
</P>
<P>(1) Structures, systems, or components of an ISFSI or MRS, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures or organization required to operate an ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will require backfitting of an ISFSI or MRS if it finds that such action is necessary to assure adequate protection to occupational or public health and safety, or to bring the ISFSI or MRS into compliance with a license or the rules or orders of the Commission, or into conformance with written commitments by a licensee.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may require the backfitting of an ISFSI or MRS if it finds:
</P>
<P>(1) That there is a substantial increase in the overall protection of the occupational or public health and safety to be derived from the backfit, and 
</P>
<P>(2) That the direct and indirect costs of implementation for that ISFSI or MRS are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission may at any time require a holder of a license to submit such information concerning the backfitting or the proposed backfitting of an ISFSI or MRS as it deems appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records, Reports, Inspections, and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.70" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.70   Safety analysis report updating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each specific licensee for an ISFSI or MRS shall update periodically, as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the final safety analysis report (FSAR) to assure that the information included in the report contains the latest information developed.
</P>
<P>(1) Each licensee shall submit an original FSAR to the Commission, in accordance with § 72.4, within 90 days after issuance of the license.
</P>
<P>(2) The original FSAR shall be based on the safety analysis report submitted with the application and reflect any changes and applicant commitments developed during the license approval and/or hearing process.
</P>
<P>(b) Each update shall contain all the changes necessary to reflect information and analyses submitted to the Commission by the licensee or prepared by the licensee pursuant to Commission requirement since the submission of the original FSAR or, as appropriate, the last update to the FSAR under this section. The update shall include the effects 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Effects of changes includes appropriate revisions of descriptions in the FSAR such that the FSAR (as updated) is complete and accurate.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) All changes made in the ISFSI or MRS or procedures as described in the FSAR;
</P>
<P>(2) All safety analyses and evaluations performed by the licensee either in support of approved license amendments, or in support of conclusions that changes did not require a license amendment in accordance with § 72.48;
</P>
<P>(3) All final analyses and evaluations of the design and performance of structures, systems, and components that are important to safety taking into account any pertinent information developed during final design, construction, and preoperational testing; and
</P>
<P>(4) All analyses of new safety issues performed by or on behalf of the licensee at Commission request. The information shall be appropriately located within the updated FSAR.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The update of the FSAR must be filed in accordance with § 72.4. If the update is filed on paper, it should be filed on a page-replacement basis; if filed electronically, it should be filed on a full replacement basis. See Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the Commission at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) A paper update filed on a page-replacement basis must include a list that identifies the current pages of the FSAR following page replacement. If the update is filed electronically on a full replacement basis, it must include a list of changed pages. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each replacement page shall include both a change indicator for the area changed, e.g., a bold line vertically drawn in the margin adjacent to the portion actually changed, and a page change identification (date of change or change number or both);
</P>
<P>(4) The update shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A certification by a duly authorized officer of the licensee that either the information accurately presents changes made since the previous submittal, or that no such changes were made; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An identification of changes made under the provisions of § 72.48, but not previously submitted to the Commission;
</P>
<P>(5) The update shall reflect all changes implemented up to a maximum of 6 months prior to the date of filing; and
</P>
<P>(6) Updates shall be filed every 24 months from the date of issuance of the license.
</P>
<P>(d) The updated FSAR shall be retained by the licensee until the Commission terminates the license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53616, Oct. 4, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.72   Material balance, inventory, and records requirements for stored materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall keep records showing the receipt, inventory (including location), disposal, acquisition, and transfer of all special nuclear material with quantities as specified in § 74.13(a) of this chapter and for source material as specified in § 40.64 of this chapter. The records must include as a minimum the name of shipper of the material to the ISFSI or MRS, the estimated quantity of radioactive material per item (including special nuclear material in spent fuel and reactor-related GTCC waste), item identification and seal number, storage location, onsite movements of each fuel assembly or storage canister, and ultimate disposal. These records for spent fuel and reactor-related GTCC waste at an ISFSI or for spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste at an MRS must be retained for as long as the material is stored and for a period of 5 years after the material is disposed of or transferred out of the ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall conduct a physical inventory of all spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste containing special nuclear material meeting the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section at intervals not to exceed 12 months unless otherwise directed by the Commission. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current inventory as a record until the Commission terminates the license.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow written material control and accounting procedures that are sufficient to enable the licensee to account for material in storage. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current material control and accounting procedures until the Commission terminates the license.
</P>
<P>(d) Records of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste containing special nuclear material meeting the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section must be kept in duplicate. The duplicate set of records must be kept at a separate location sufficiently remote from the original records that a single event would not destroy both sets of records. Records of spent fuel or reactor-related GTCC waste containing special nuclear material transferred out of an ISFSI or of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste containing special nuclear material transferred out of an MRS must be preserved for a period of five years after the date of transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 51841, Oct. 11, 2001; 73 FR 32462, June 9, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.74   Reports of accidental criticality or loss of special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter within 1 hour of discovery of accidental criticality or any loss of special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(b) This notification must be made to the NRC Operations Center via the Emergency Notification System if the licensee is party to that system. If the Emergency Notification System is inoperative or unavailable, the licensee shall make the required notification via commercial telephonic service or any other dedicated telephonic system or any other method that will ensure that a report is received by the NRC Operations Center within one hour. The exemption of § 73.22(f)(3) of this chapter applies to all telephonic reports required by this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Reports required under § 73.1200 of this chapter need not be duplicated under the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 14087, Mar. 25, 1994, 81 FR 86910, Dec. 2, 2016; 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020; 88 FR 15881, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.75" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.75   Reporting requirements for specific events and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Emergency notifications:</I> Each licensee shall notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center upon the declaration of an emergency as specified in the licensee's approved emergency plan addressed in § 72.32. The licensee shall notify the NRC immediately after notification of the appropriate State or local agencies, but not later than one hour after the time the licensee declares an emergency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-emergency notifications:</I> Four-hour reports. Each licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as possible but not later than four hours after the discovery of any of the following events or conditions involving spent fuel, HLW, or reactor-related GTCC waste: 
</P>
<P>(1) An action taken in an emergency that departs from a condition or a technical specification contained in a license or certificate of compliance issued under this part when the action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety, and no action consistent with license or certificate of compliance conditions or technical specifications that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any event or situation related to the health and safety of the public or onsite personnel, or protection of the environment, for which a news release is planned or notification to other Government agencies has been or will be made. Such an event may include an onsite fatality or inadvertent release of radioactively contaminated materials. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-emergency notifications:</I> Eight-hour reports. Each licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as possible but not later than eight hours after the discovery of any of the following events or conditions involving spent fuel, HLW, or reactor-related GTCC waste: 
</P>
<P>(1) A defect in any spent fuel, HLW, or reactor-related GTCC waste storage structure, system, or component that is important to safety. 
</P>
<P>(2) A significant reduction in the effectiveness of any spent fuel, HLW, or reactor-related GTCC waste storage confinement system during use. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any event requiring the transport of a radioactively contaminated person to an offsite medical facility for treatment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-emergency notifications:</I> 24-hour reports. Each licensee shall notify the NRC within 24 hours after the discovery of any of the following events involving spent fuel, HLW, or reactor-related GTCC waste: 
</P>
<P>(1) An event in which important to safety equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when: 
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment is required by regulation, license condition, or certificate of compliance to be available and operable to prevent releases that could exceed regulatory limits, to prevent exposures to radiation or radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits, or to mitigate the consequences of an accident; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) No redundant equipment was available and operable to perform the required safety function. 
</P>
<P>(2) For notifications made under this paragraph, the licensee may delay the notification to the NRC if the end of the 24-hour period occurs outside of the NRC's normal working day (<I>i.e.,</I> 7:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. Eastern time), on a weekend, or a Federal holiday. In these cases, the licensee shall notify the NRC before 8:00 a.m. Eastern time on the next working day. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Initial notification:</I> Reports made by licensees in response to the requirements of this section must be made as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees shall make reports required by paragraphs (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section by telephone to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Those licensees with an available Emergency Notification System (ENS) shall use the ENS to notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) When making a report under paragraphs (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section, the licensee shall identify: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Emergency Class declared; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (b), “four-hour reports,” paragraph (c), “eight-hour reports,” or paragraph (d), “24-hour reports,” as the paragraph of this section requiring notification of the non-emergency event. 
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided in these reports must include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The caller's name and call back telephone number; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the event, including date and time; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The exact location of the event; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The quantities and chemical and physical forms of the spent fuel, HLW, or reactor-related GTCC waste involved in the event; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Any personnel radiation exposure data. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Follow-up notification:</I> With respect to the telephone notifications made under paragraphs (a), (b), (c) or (d) of this section, in addition to making the required initial notification, each licensee shall during the course of the event: 
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately report any further degradation in the level of safety of the ISFSI or MRS or other worsening conditions, including those that require the declaration of any of the Emergency Classes, if such a declaration has not been previously made; or any change from one Emergency Class to another; or a termination of the Emergency Class. 
</P>
<P>(2) Immediately report the results of ensuing evaluations or assessments of ISFSI or MRS conditions; the effectiveness of response or protective measures taken; and information related to ISFSI or MRS behavior that is not understood. 
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain an open, continuous communication channel with the NRC Headquarters Operations Center upon request by the NRC. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Preparation and submission of written reports.</I> Each licensee who makes an initial notification required by paragraphs (b)(1), (c)(1), (c)(2), or (d)(1) of this section shall also submit a written follow-up report to the Commission within 60 days of the initial notification. Written reports prepared pursuant to other regulations may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all the necessary information and the appropriate distribution is made. These written reports must be of sufficient quality to permit legible reproduction and optical scanning and must be submitted to the NRC in accordance with § 72.4. These reports must include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A brief abstract describing the major occurrences during the event, including all component or system failures that contributed to the event and significant corrective action taken or planned to prevent recurrence; 
</P>
<P>(2) A clear, specific, narrative description of the event that occurred so that knowledgeable readers conversant with the design of an ISFSI or MRS, but not familiar with the details of a particular facility, can understand the complete event. The narrative description must include the following specific information as appropriate for the particular event: 
</P>
<P>(i) The ISFSI or MRS operating conditions before the event; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The status of structures, components, or systems that were inoperable at the start of the event and that contributed to the event; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The dates and approximate times of occurrences; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The cause of each component or system failure or personnel error, if known; 
</P>
<P>(v) The failure mode, mechanism, and effect of each failed component, if known; 
</P>
<P>(vi) A list of systems or secondary functions that were also affected for failures of components with multiple functions; 
</P>
<P>(vii) For wet spent fuel storage systems only, after the failure that rendered a train of a safety system inoperable, an estimate of the elapsed time from the discovery of the failure until the train was returned to service; 
</P>
<P>(viii) The method of discovery of each component or system failure or procedural error; 
</P>
<P>(ix) For each human performance related root cause, the licensee shall discuss the cause(s) and circumstances; 
</P>
<P>(x) For wet spent fuel storage systems only, any automatically and manually initiated safety system responses; 
</P>
<P>(xi) The manufacturer and model number (or other identification) of each component that failed during the event; and 
</P>
<P>(xii) The quantities and chemical and physical forms of the spent fuel, HLW, or reactor-related GTCC waste involved in the event; 
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of the safety consequences and implications of the event. This assessment must include the availability of other systems or components that could have performed the same function as the components and systems that failed during the event; 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of any corrective actions planned as a result of the event, including those to reduce the probability of similar events occurring in the future; 
</P>
<P>(5) Reference to any previous similar events at the same facility that are known to the licensee; 
</P>
<P>(6) The name and telephone number of a person within the licensee's organization who is knowledgeable about the event and can provide additional information concerning the event and the facility's characteristics; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The extent of exposure of individuals to radiation or to radioactive materials without identification of individuals by name. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Supplemental information:</I> The Commission may require the licensee to submit specific additional information beyond that required by paragraph (g) of this section if the Commission finds that supplemental material is necessary for complete understanding of an unusually complex or significant event. These requests for supplemental information will be made in writing, and the licensee shall submit, as specified in § 72.4, the requested information as a supplement to the initial written report. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicability:</I> The requirements of this section apply to:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Licensees issued a specific license under § 72.40; and 


</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees issued a general license under § 72.210, after the licensee has placed spent fuel on the ISFSI storage pad (if the ISFSI is located inside the collocated protected area, for a reactor licensed under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter) or after the licensee has transferred spent fuel waste outside the reactor licensee's protected area to the ISFSI storage pad (if the ISFSI is located outside the collocated protected area, for a reactor licensed under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter). 
</P>
<P>(2) Those non-emergency events specified in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section that occurred within 3 years of the date of discovery. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 33615, June 5, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020; 91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.76" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.76   Material status reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each licensee shall complete in computer-readable format and submit to the Commission a Material Balance Report and a Physical Inventory Listing Report as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0007 and NMMSS Report D-24 “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Copies of these instructions may be obtained either by writing to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> These reports, as specified by § 74.13 or § 40.64 of this chapter, provide information concerning the special nuclear material and/or source material possessed, received, transferred, disposed of, or lost by the licensee. Each report must be submitted within 60 days of the beginning of the physical inventory required by § 72.72(b). The Commission may, when good cause is shown, permit a licensee to submit Material Balance Reports and Physical Inventory Listing Reports at other times. Each licensee required to report material balance and inventory information as described in this part, shall resolve any discrepancies identified during the report review and reconciliation process within 30 calendar days of notification of a discrepancy identified by NRC. The Commission's copy of this report must be submitted to the address specified in the instructions. These prescribed, computer-readable forms replace the DOE/NRC Forms 742 and 742C previously submitted in paper form.
</P>
<P>(b) Any licensee who is required to submit routine material status reports pursuant to § 75.35 of this chapter (pertaining to implementation of the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement) shall prepare and submit such reports only as provided in that section instead of as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 35620, July 13, 1994; 66 FR 51841, Oct. 11, 2001; 67 FR 78143, Dec. 23, 2002; 68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 32462, June 9, 2008; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.78" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.78   Nuclear material transaction reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, whenever the licensee transfers or receives or adjusts the inventory, in any manner, of special nuclear material as specified by § 74.15 and/or source material as specified by § 40.64 of this chapter, the licensee shall complete in computer-readable format a Nuclear Material Transaction Report as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Copies of these instructions may be obtained either by writing to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> Each licensee who transfers the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format as specified in the instructions no later than the close of business the next working day. Each licensee who receives the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format in accordance with instructions within ten (10) days after the material is received. Each ISFSI licensee who receives spent fuel from a foreign source shall complete both the supplier's and the receiver's portion of the Nuclear Material Transaction Report, verify the identity of the spent fuel, and indicate the results on the receiver's portion of the form. These prescribed computer-readable forms replace the DOE/NRC Form 741 which have been previously submitted in paper form.
</P>
<P>(b) Any licensee who is required to submit Nuclear Material Transactions Reports pursuant to § 75.34 of this chapter (pertaining to implementation of the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement) shall prepare and submit the reports only as provided in that section instead of as provided in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 35621, July 13, 1994, as amended at 66 FR 51841, Oct. 11, 2001; 68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 32463, June 9, 2008; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.79" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.79   Facility information and verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for a certificate of compliance or license and each recipient of a certificate of compliance or specific or general license shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(b) Shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; and
</P>
<P>(c) Shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) and take other action as necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78607, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 65663, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.80" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.80   Other records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall maintain any records and make any reports that may be required by the conditions of the license or by the rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission in effectuating the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall furnish a copy of its annual financial report, including the certified financial statements, to the Commission. However, licensees who submit a Form 10-Q with the Securities and Exchange Commission or a Form 1 with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, need not submit the annual financial report or a certified financial statement under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) Records that are required by the regulations in this part or by the license conditions must be maintained for the period specified by the appropriate regulation or license condition. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, the above records must be maintained until the Commission terminates the license.
</P>
<P>(d) Any record that must be maintained pursuant to this part may be either the original or a reproduced copy by any state of the art method provided that any reproduced copy is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) Before license termination, the licensee shall forward records required by § 20.2103(b)(4), of this chapter, and § 72.30(f) to the appropriate NRC Regional Office.
</P>
<P>(f) If licensed activities are transferred or assigned in accordance with § 72.44(b)(1), the licensee shall transfer the records required by § 20.2103(b)(4), of this chapter, and § 72.30(f) to the new licensee and the new licensee will be responsible for maintaining these records until the license is terminated.
</P>
<P>(g) Each specific licensee shall notify the Commission, in accordance with § 72.4, of its readiness to begin operation at least 90 days prior to the first storage of spent fuel, high-level waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste in an ISFSI or an MRS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 24675, May 16, 1996; 64 FR 53616, Oct. 4, 1999; 66 FR 51841, Oct. 11, 2001; 71 FR 29247, May 22, 2006; 76 FR 35574, June 17, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.82" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.82   Inspections and tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee under this part shall permit duly authorized representatives of the Commission to inspect its records, premises, and activities and of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste in its possession related to the specific license as may be necessary to meet the objectives of the Act, including section 105 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee under this part shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by the licensee pertaining to its receipt, possession, packaging, or transfer of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each licensee under this part shall upon request by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator provide rent-free office space for the exclusive use of the Commission inspection personnel. Heat, air conditioning, light, electrical outlets and janitorial services shall be furnished by each licensee. The office shall be convenient to and have full access to the installation and shall provide the inspector both visual and acoustic privacy.
</P>
<P>(2) For a site with a single storage installation the space provided shall be adequate to accommodate a full-time inspector, a part-time secretary, and transient NRC personnel and will be generally commensurate with other office facilities at the site. A space of 250 sq. ft., either within the site's office complex or in an office trailer, or other onsite space, is suggested as a guide. For sites containing multiple facilities, additional space may be requested to accommodate additional full-time inspectors. The office space that is provided shall be subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator. All furniture, supplies and Commission equipment will be furnished by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee under this part shall afford any NRC resident inspector assigned to that site, or other NRC inspectors identified by the Regional Administrator as likely to inspect the installation, immediate unfettered access, equivalent to access provided regular plant employees, following proper identification and compliance with applicable access control measures for security, radiological protection, and personal safety.
</P>
<P>(d) Each licensee shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, such tests as the Commission deems appropriate or necessary for the administrator of the regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 17512, Apr. 12, 1999; 66 FR 51842, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.84" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.84   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under Section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55078, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.86" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.4.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.86   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 72 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in Part 72 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 72.1, 72.2, 72.3, 72.4, 72.5, 72.7, 72.8, 72.9, 72.13, 72.16, 72.18, 72.20, 72.22, 72.24, 72.26, 72.28, 72.32, 72.34, 72.40, 72.46, 72.56, 72.58, 72.60, 72.62, 72.84, 72.86, 72.90, 72.96, 72.108, 72.120, 72.122, 72.124, 72.126, 72.128, 72.130, 72.182, 72.194, 72.200, 72.202, 72.204, 72.206, 72.210, 72.214, 72.220, 72.230, 72.238, and 72.240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55078, Nov. 24, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 36040, July 13, 1994; 64 FR 53616, Oct. 4, 1999; 64 FR 56122, Oct. 15, 1999; 65 FR 50617, Aug. 21, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Siting Evaluation Factors</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.90" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.90   General considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Site characteristics that may directly affect the safety or environmental impact of the ISFSI or MRS must be investigated and assessed.
</P>
<P>(b) Proposed sites for the ISFSI or MRS must be examined with respect to the frequency and the severity of external natural and man-induced events that could affect the safe operation of the ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(c) Design basis external events must be determined for each combination of proposed site and proposed ISFSI or MRS design.
</P>
<P>(d) Proposed sites with design basis external events for which adequate protection cannot be provided through ISFSI or MRS design shall be deemed unsuitable for the location of the ISFSI or MRS. 
</P>
<P>(e) Pursuant to subpart A of part 51 of this chapter for each proposed site for an ISFSI and pursuant to sections 141 or 148 of NWPA, as appropriate (96 Stat. 2241, 101 Stat. 1330-235, 42 U.S.C. 10161, 10168) for each proposed site for an MRS, the potential for radiological and other environmental impacts on the region must be evaluated with due consideration of the characteristics of the population, including its distribution, and of the regional environs, including its historical and esthetic values. 
</P>
<P>(f) The facility must be sited so as to avoid to the extent possible the long-term and short-term adverse impacts associated with the occupancy and modification of floodplains. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.92" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.92   Design basis external natural events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Natural phenomena that may exist or that can occur in the region of a proposed site must be identified and assessed according to their potential effects on the safe operation of the ISFSI or MRS. The important natural phenomena that affect the ISFSI or MRS design must be identified. 
</P>
<P>(b) Records of the occurrence and severity of those important natural phenomena must be collected for the region and evaluated for reliability, accuracy, and completeness. The applicant shall retain these records until the license is issued. 
</P>
<P>(c) Appropriate methods must be adopted for evaluating the design basis external natural events based on the characteristics of the region and the current state of knowledge about such events. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.94" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.94   Design basis external man-induced events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The region must be examined for both past and present man-made facilities and activities that might endanger the proposed ISFSI or MRS. The important potential man-induced events that affect the ISFSI or MRS design must be identified. 
</P>
<P>(b) Information concerning the potential occurrence and severity of such events must be collected and evaluated for reliability, accuracy, and completeness. 
</P>
<P>(c) Appropriate methods must be adopted for evaluating the design basis external man-induced events, based on the current state of knowledge about such events. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.96" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.96   Siting limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An ISFSI which is owned and operated by DOE must not be located at any site within which there is a candidate site for a HLW repository. This limitation shall apply until such time as DOE decides that such candidate site is no longer a candidate site under consideration for development as a HLW repository. 
</P>
<P>(b) An MRS must not be sited in any State in which there is located any site approved for site characterization for a HLW repository. This limitation shall apply until such time as DOE decides that the candidate site is no longer a candidate site under consideration for development as a repository. This limitation shall continue to apply to any site selected for construction as a repository. 
</P>
<P>(c) If an MRS is located, or is planned to be located, within 50 miles of the first HLW repository, any Commission decision approving the first HLW repository application must limit the quantity of spent fuel or high-level radioactive waste that may be stored. This limitation shall prohibit the storage of a quantity of spent fuel containing in excess of 70,000 metric tons of heavy metal, or a quantity of solidified high-level radioactive waste resulting from the reprocessing of such a quantity of spent fuel, in both the repository and the MRS until such time as a second repository is in operation. 
</P>
<P>(d) An MRS authorized by section 142(b) of NWPA (101 Stat. 1330-232, 42 U.S.C. 10162(b)) may not be constructed in the State of Nevada. The quantity of spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste that may be stored at an MRS authorized by section 142(b) of NWPA shall be subject to the limitations in § 72.44(g) of this part instead of the limitations in paragraph (c) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.98" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.98   Identifying regions around an ISFSI or MRS site.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regional extent of external phenomena, man-made or natural, that are used as a basis for the design of the ISFSI or MRS must be identified. 
</P>
<P>(b) The potential regional impact due to the construction, operation or decommissioning of the ISFSI or MRS must be identified. The extent of regional impacts must be determined on the basis of potential measurable effects on the population or the environment from ISFSI or MRS activities. 
</P>
<P>(c) Those regions identified pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be investigated as appropriate with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The present and future character and the distribution of population, 
</P>
<P>(2) Consideration of present and projected future uses of land and water within the region, and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any special characteristics that may influence the potential consequences of a release of radioactive material during the operational lifetime of the ISFSI or MRS. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.100" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.100   Defining potential effects of the ISFSI or MRS on the region.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The proposed site must be evaluated with respect to the effects on populations in the region resulting from the release of radioactive materials under normal and accident conditions during operation and decommissioning of the ISFSI or MRS; in this evaluation both usual and unusual regional and site characteristics shall be taken into account. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each site must be evaluated with respect to the effects on the regional environment resulting from construction, operation, and decommissioning for the ISFSI or MRS; in this evaluation both usual and unusual regional and site characteristics must be taken into account. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.102" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.102   Geological and seismological characteristics for applications before October 16, 2003 and applications for other than dry cask modes of storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) East of the Rocky Mountain Front (east of approximately 104° west longitude), except in areas of known seismic activity including but not limited to the regions around New Madrid, MO, Charleston, SC, and Attica, NY, sites will be acceptable if the results from onsite foundation and geological investigation, literature review, and regional geological reconnaissance show no unstable geological characteristics, soil stability problems, or potential for vibratory ground motion at the site in excess of an appropriate response spectrum anchored at 0.2 g. 
</P>
<P>(2) For those sites that have been evaluated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are east of the Rocky Mountain Front, and that are not in areas of known seismic activity, a standardized design earthquake (DE) described by an appropriate response spectrum anchored at 0.25 g may be used. Alternatively, a site-specific DE may be determined by using the criteria and level of investigations required by appendix A of part 100 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) West of the Rocky Mountain Front (west of approximately 104° west longitude), and in other areas of known potential seismic activity, seismicity will be evaluated by the techniques of appendix A of part 100 of this chapter. Sites that lie within the range of strong near-field ground motion from historical earthquakes on large capable faults should be avoided. 
</P>
<P>(c) Sites other than bedrock sites must be evaluated for their liquefaction potential or other soil instability due to vibratory ground motion. 
</P>
<P>(d) Site-specific investigations and laboratory analyses must show that soil conditions are adequate for the proposed foundation loading. 
</P>
<P>(e) In an evaluation of alternative sites, those which require a minimum of engineered provisions to correct site deficiencies are preferred. Sites with unstable geologic characteristics should be avoided. 
</P>
<P>(f) The design earthquake (DE) for use in the design of structures must be determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) For sites that have been evaluated under the criteria of appendix A of 10 CFR part 100, the DE must be equivalent to the safe shutdown earthquake (SSE) for a nuclear power plant. 
</P>
<P>(2) Regardless of the results of the investigations anywhere in the continental U.S., the DE must have a value for the horizontal ground motion of no less than 0.10 g with the appropriate response spectrum.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.103" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.103   Geological and seismological characteristics for applications for dry cask modes of storage on or after October 16, 2003.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) East of the Rocky Mountain Front (east of approximately 104° west longitude), except in areas of known seismic activity including but not limited to the regions around New Madrid, MO; Charleston, SC; and Attica, NY; sites will be acceptable if the results from onsite foundation and geological investigation, literature review, and regional geological reconnaissance show no unstable geological characteristics, soil stability problems, or potential for vibratory ground motion at the site in excess of an appropriate response spectrum anchored at 0.2 g.
</P>
<P>(2) For those sites that have been evaluated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are east of the Rocky Mountain Front, and that are not in areas of known seismic activity, a standardized design earthquake ground motion (DE) described by an appropriate response spectrum anchored at 0.25 g may be used. Alternatively, a site-specific DE may be determined by using the criteria and level of investigations required by paragraph (f) of this section. For a site with a co-located nuclear power plant (NPP), the existing geological and seismological design criteria for the NPP may be used. If the existing design criteria for the NPP is used and the site has multiple NPPs, then the criteria for the most recent NPP must be used.
</P>
<P>(b) West of the Rocky Mountain Front (west of approximately 104° west longitude), and in other areas of known potential seismic activity east of the Rocky Mountain Front, seismicity must be evaluated by the techniques presented in paragraph (f) of this section. If an ISFSI or MRS is located on an NPP site, the existing geological and seismological design criteria for the NPP may be used. If the existing design criteria for the NPP is used and the site has multiple NPPs, then the criteria for the most recent NPP must be used.
</P>
<P>(c) Sites other than bedrock sites must be evaluated for their liquefaction potential or other soil instability due to vibratory ground motion.
</P>
<P>(d) Site-specific investigations and laboratory analyses must show that soil conditions are adequate for the proposed foundation loading.
</P>
<P>(e) In an evaluation of alternative sites, those which require a minimum of engineered provisions to correct site deficiencies are preferred. Sites with unstable geologic characteristics should be avoided.
</P>
<P>(f) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) and (b) of this section, the DE for use in the design of structures, systems, and components must be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Geological, seismological, and engineering characteristics.</I> The geological, seismological, and engineering characteristics of a site and its environs must be investigated in sufficient scope and detail to permit an adequate evaluation of the proposed site, to provide sufficient information to support evaluations performed to arrive at estimates of the DE, and to permit adequate engineering solutions to actual or potential geologic and seismic effects at the proposed site. The size of the region to be investigated and the type of data pertinent to the investigations must be determined based on the nature of the region surrounding the proposed site. Data on the vibratory ground motion, tectonic surface deformation, nontectonic deformation, earthquake recurrence rates, fault geometry and slip rates, site foundation material, and seismically induced floods and water waves must be obtained by reviewing pertinent literature and carrying out field investigations. However, each applicant shall investigate all geologic and seismic factors (for example, volcanic activity) that may affect the design and operation of the proposed ISFSI or MRS facility irrespective of whether these factors are explicitly included in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geologic and seismic siting factors.</I> The geologic and seismic siting factors considered for design must include a determination of the DE for the site, the potential for surface tectonic and nontectonic deformations, the design bases for seismically induced floods and water waves, and other design conditions as stated in paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Determination of the Design Earthquake Ground Motion (DE). The DE for the site is characterized by both horizontal and vertical free-field ground motion response spectra at the free ground surface. In view of the limited data available on vibratory ground motions for strong earthquakes, it usually will be appropriate that the design response spectra be smoothed spectra. The DE for the site is determined considering the results of the investigations required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section. Uncertainties are inherent in these estimates and must be addressed through an appropriate analysis, such as a probabilistic seismic hazard analysis (PSHA) or suitable sensitivity analyses.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determination of the potential for surface tectonic and nontectonic deformations. Sufficient geological, seismological, and geophysical data must be provided to clearly establish if there is a potential for surface deformation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Determination of design bases for seismically induced floods and water waves. The size of seismically induced floods and water waves that could affect a site from either locally or distantly generated seismic activity must be determined.
</P>
<P>(iv) Determination of siting factors for other design conditions. Siting factors for other design conditions that must be evaluated include soil and rock stability, liquefaction potential, and natural and artificial slope stability. Each applicant shall evaluate all siting factors and potential causes of failure, such as, the physical properties of the materials underlying the site, ground disruption, and the effects of vibratory ground motion that may affect the design and operation of the proposed ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(3) Regardless of the results of the investigations anywhere in the continental U.S., the DE must have a value for the horizontal ground motion of no less than 0.10 g with the appropriate response spectrum.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 54159, Sept. 16, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.104" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.104   Criteria for radioactive materials in effluents and direct radiation from an ISFSI or MRS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During normal operations and anticipated occurrences, the annual dose equivalent to any real individual who is located beyond the controlled area must not exceed 0.25 mSv (25 mrem) to the whole body, 0.75 mSv (75 mrem) to the thyroid and 0.25 mSv (25 mrem) to any other critical organ as a result of exposure to:
</P>
<P>(1) Planned discharges of radioactive materials, radon and its decay products excepted, to the general environment, 
</P>
<P>(2) Direct radiation from ISFSI or MRS operations, and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any other radiation from uranium fuel cycle operations within the region. 
</P>
<P>(b) Operational restrictions must be established to meet as low as is reasonably achievable objectives for radioactive materials in effluents and direct radiation levels associated with ISFSI or MRS operations. 
</P>
<P>(c) Operational limits must be established for radioactive materials in effluents and direct radiation levels associated with ISFSI or MRS operations to meet the limits given in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 54562, Oct. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.106" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.106   Controlled area of an ISFSI or MRS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each ISFSI or MRS site, a controlled area must be established. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any individual located on or beyond the nearest boundary of the controlled area may not receive from any design basis accident the more limiting of a total effective dose equivalent of 0.05 Sv (5 rem), or the sum of the deep-dose equivalent and the committed dose equivalent to any individual organ or tissue (other than the lens of the eye) of 0.5 Sv (50 rem). The lens dose equivalent may not exceed 0.15 Sv (15 rem) and the shallow dose equivalent to skin or any extremity may not exceed 0.5 Sv (50 rem). The minimum distance from the spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste handling and storage facilities to the nearest boundary of the controlled area must be at least 100 meters.
</P>
<P>(c) The controlled area may be traversed by a highway, railroad or waterway, so long as appropriate and effective arrangements are made to control traffic and to protect public health and safety. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 54562, Oct. 13, 1998; 66 FR 51842, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.108" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.5.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.108   Spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related greater than Class C waste transportation.</HEAD>
<P>The proposed ISFSI or MRS must be evaluated with respect to the potential impact on the environment of the transportation of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste within the region.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 51842, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—General Design Criteria</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.120" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.6.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.120   General considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As required by § 72.24, an application to store spent fuel or reactor-related GTCC waste in an ISFSI or to store spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste in an MRS must include the design criteria for the proposed storage installation. These design criteria establish the design, fabrication, construction, testing, maintenance and performance requirements for structures, systems, and components important to safety as defined in § 72.3. The general design criteria identified in this subpart establish minimum requirements for the design criteria for an ISFSI or an MRS. Any omissions in these general design criteria do not relieve the applicant from the requirement of providing the necessary safety features in the design of the ISFSI or MRS.
</P>
<P>(b) The ISFSI must be designed to store spent fuel and/or solid reactor-related GTCC waste.
</P>
<P>(1) Reactor-related GTCC waste may not be stored in a cask that also contains spent fuel. This restriction does not include radioactive materials that are associated with fuel assemblies (e.g., control rod blades or assemblies, thimble plugs, burnable poison rod assemblies, or fuel channels);
</P>
<P>(2) Liquid reactor-related GTCC wastes may not be received or stored in an ISFSI; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the ISFSI is a water-pool type facility, the reactor-related GTCC waste must be in a durable solid form with demonstrable leach resistance.
</P>
<P>(c) The MRS must be designed to store spent fuel, solid high-level radioactive waste, and/or solid reactor-related GTCC waste.
</P>
<P>(1) Reactor-related GTCC waste may not be stored in a cask that also contains spent fuel. This restriction does not include radioactive materials associated with fuel assemblies (e.g., control rod blades or assemblies, thimble plugs, burnable poison rod assemblies, or fuel channels);
</P>
<P>(2) Liquid high-level radioactive wastes or liquid reactor-related GTCC wastes may not be received or stored in an MRS; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the MRS is a water-pool type facility, the high-level waste and reactor-related GTCC waste must be in a durable solid form with demonstrable leach resistance.
</P>
<P>(d) The ISFSI or MRS must be designed, made of materials, and constructed to ensure that there will be no significant chemical, galvanic, or other reactions between or among the storage system components, spent fuel, reactor-related GTCC waste, and/or high level waste including possible reaction with water during wet loading and unloading operations or during storage in a water-pool type ISFSI or MRS. The behavior of materials under irradiation and thermal conditions must be taken into account.
</P>
<P>(e) The NRC may authorize exceptions, on a case-by-case basis, to the restrictions in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section regarding the commingling of spent fuel and reactor-related GTCC waste in the same cask.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 51842, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.122" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.6.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.122   Overall requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Quality Standards.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety must be designed, fabricated, erected, and tested to quality standards commensurate with the importance to safety of the function to be performed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Protection against environmental conditions and natural phenomena.</I> (1) Structures, systems, and components important to safety must be designed to accommodate the effects of, and to be compatible with, site characteristics and environmental conditions associated with normal operation, maintenance, and testing of the ISFSI or MRS and to withstand postulated accidents. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Structures, systems, and components important to safety must be designed to withstand the effects of natural phenomena such as earthquakes, tornadoes, lightning, hurricanes, floods, tsunami, and seiches, without impairing their capability to perform their intended design functions. The design bases for these structures, systems, and components must reflect:
</P>
<P>(A) Appropriate consideration of the most severe of the natural phenomena reported for the site and surrounding area, with appropriate margins to take into account the limitations of the data and the period of time in which the data have accumulated, and
</P>
<P>(B) Appropriate combinations of the effects of normal and accident conditions and the effects of natural phenomena.
</P>
<P>(ii) The ISFSI or MRS also should be designed to prevent massive collapse of building structures or the dropping of heavy objects as a result of building structural failure on the spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste or on to structures, systems, and components important to safety.
</P>
<P>(3) Capability must be provided for determining the intensity of natural phenomena that may occur for comparison with design bases of structures, systems, and components important to safety. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the ISFSI or MRS is located over an aquifer which is a major water resource, measures must be taken to preclude the transport of radioactive materials to the environment through this potential pathway. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection against fires and explosions.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety must be designed and located so that they can continue to perform their safety functions effectively under credible fire and explosion exposure conditions. Noncombustible and heat-resistant materials must be used wherever practical throughout the ISFSI or MRS, particularly in locations vital to the control of radioactive materials and to the maintenance of safety control functions. Explosion and fire detection, alarm, and suppression systems shall be designed and provided with sufficient capacity and capability to minimize the adverse effects of fires and explosions on structures, systems, and components important to safety. The design of the ISFSI or MRS must include provisions to protect against adverse effects that might result from either the operation or the failure of the fire suppression system. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sharing of structures, systems, and components.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety must not be shared between an ISFSI or MRS and other facilities unless it is shown that such sharing will not impair the capability of either facility to perform its safety functions, including the ability to return to a safe condition in the event of an accident. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Proximity of sites.</I> An ISFSI or MRS located near other nuclear facilities must be designed and operated to ensure that the cumulative effects of their combined operations will not constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Testing and maintenance of systems and components.</I> Systems and components that are important to safety must be designed to permit inspection, maintenance, and testing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Emergency capability.</I> Structures, systems, and components important to safety must be designed for emergencies. The design must provide for accessibility to the equipment of onsite and available offsite emergency facilities and services such as hospitals, fire and police departments, ambulance service, and other emergency agencies.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Confinement barriers and systems.</I> (1) The spent fuel cladding must be protected during storage against degradation that leads to gross ruptures or the fuel must be otherwise confined such that degradation of the fuel during storage will not pose operational safety problems with respect to its removal from storage. This may be accomplished by canning of consolidated fuel rods or unconsolidated assemblies or other means as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) For underwater storage of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste in which the pool water serves as a shield and a confinement medium for radioactive materials, systems for maintaining water purity and the pool water level must be designed so that any abnormal operations or failure in those systems from any cause will not cause the water level to fall below safe limits. The design must preclude installations of drains, permanently connected systems, and other features that could, by abnormal operations or failure, cause a significant loss of water. Pool water level equipment must be provided to alarm in a continuously manned location if the water level in the storage pools falls below a predetermined level.
</P>
<P>(3) Ventilation systems and off-gas systems must be provided where necessary to ensure the confinement of airborne radioactive particulate materials during normal or off-normal conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Storage confinement systems must have the capability for continuous monitoring in a manner such that the licensee will be able to determine when corrective action needs to be taken to maintain safe storage conditions. For dry spent fuel storage, periodic monitoring is sufficient provided that periodic monitoring is consistent with the dry spent fuel storage cask design requirements. The monitoring period must be based upon the spent fuel storage cask design requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) The high-level radioactive waste and reactor-related GTCC waste must be packaged in a manner that allows handling and retrievability without the release of radioactive materials to the environment or radiation exposures in excess of part 20 limits. The package must be designed to confine the high-level radioactive waste for the duration of the license.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Instrumentation and control systems.</I> Instrumentation and control systems for wet spent fuel and reactor-related GTCC waste storage must be provided to monitor systems that are important to safety over anticipated ranges for normal operation and off-normal operation. Those instruments and control systems that must remain operational under accident conditions must be identified in the Safety Analysis Report. Instrumentation systems for dry storage casks must be provided in accordance with cask design requirements to monitor conditions that are important to safety over anticipated ranges for normal conditions and off-normal conditions. Systems that are required under accident conditions must be identified in the Safety Analysis Report.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Control room or control area.</I> A control room or control area, if appropriate for the ISFSI or MRS design, must be designed to permit occupancy and actions to be taken to monitor the ISFSI or MRS safely under normal conditions, and to provide safe control of the ISFSI or MRS under off-normal or accident conditions.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Utility or other services.</I> (1) Each utility service system must be designed to meet emergency conditions. The design of utility services and distribution systems that are important to safety must include redundant systems to the extent necessary to maintain, with adequate capacity, the ability to perform safety functions assuming a single failure.
</P>
<P>(2) Emergency utility services must be designed to permit testing of the functional operability and capacity, including the full operational sequence, of each system for transfer between normal and emergency supply sources; and to permit the operation of associated safety systems.
</P>
<P>(3) Provisions must be made so that, in the event of a loss of the primary electric power source or circuit, reliable and timely emergency power will be provided to instruments, utility service systems, the central security alarm station, and operating systems, in amounts sufficient to allow safe storage conditions to be maintained and to permit continued functioning of all systems essential to safe storage.
</P>
<P>(4) An ISFSI or MRS which is located on the site of another facility may share common utilities and services with such a facility and be physically connected with the other facility; however, the sharing of utilities and services or the physical connection must not significantly:
</P>
<P>(i) Increase the probability or consequences of an accident or malfunction of components, structures, or systems that are important to safety; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Reduce the margin of safety as defined in the basis for any technical specifications of either facility.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Retrievability.</I> Storage systems must be designed to allow ready retrieval of spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste for further processing or disposal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 33184, June 22, 1999; 66 FR 51842, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.124" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.6.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.124   Criteria for nuclear criticality safety.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Design for criticality safety.</I> Spent fuel handling, packaging, transfer, and storage systems must be designed to be maintained subcritical and to ensure that, before a nuclear criticality accident is possible, at least two unlikely, independent, and concurrent or sequential changes have occurred in the conditions essential to nuclear criticality safety. The design of handling, packaging, transfer, and storage systems must include margins of safety for the nuclear criticality parameters that are commensurate with the uncertainties in the data and methods used in calculations and demonstrate safety for the handling, packaging, transfer and storage conditions and in the nature of the immediate environment under accident conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods of criticality control.</I> When practicable, the design of an ISFSI or MRS must be based on favorable geometry, permanently fixed neutron absorbing materials (poisons), or both. Where solid neutron absorbing materials are used, the design must provide for positive means of verifying their continued efficacy. For dry spent fuel storage systems, the continued efficacy may be confirmed by a demonstration or analysis before use, showing that significant degradation of the neutron absorbing materials cannot occur over the life of the facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criticality monitoring.</I> A criticality monitoring system shall be maintained in each area where special nuclear material is handled, used, or stored which will energize clearly audible alarm signals if accidental criticality occurs. Underwater monitoring is not required when special nuclear material is handled or stored beneath water shielding. Monitoring of dry storage areas where special nuclear material is packaged in its stored configuration under a license issued under this subpart is not required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 33184, June 22, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.126" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.6.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.126   Criteria for radiological protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exposure control.</I> Radiation protection systems must be provided for all areas and operations where onsite personnel may be exposed to radiation or airborne radioactive materials. Structures, systems, and components for which operation, maintenance, and required inspections may involve occupational exposure must be designed, fabricated, located, shielded, controlled, and tested so as to control external and internal radiation exposures to personnel. The design must include means to:
</P>
<P>(1) Prevent the accumulation of radioactive material in those systems requiring access;
</P>
<P>(2) Decontaminate those systems to which access is required;
</P>
<P>(3) Control access to areas of potential contamination or high radiation within the ISFSI or MRS;
</P>
<P>(4) Measure and control contamination of areas requiring access;
</P>
<P>(5) Minimize the time required to perform work in the vicinity of radioactive components; for example, by providing sufficient space for ease of operation and designing equipment for ease of repair and replacement; and
</P>
<P>(6) Shield personnel from radiation exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Radiological alarm systems.</I> Radiological alarm systems must be provided in accessible work areas as appropriate to warn operating personnel of radiation and airborne radioactive material concentrations above a given setpoint and of concentrations of radioactive material in effluents above control limits. Radiation alarm systems must be designed with provisions for calibration and testing their operability. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effluent and direct radiation monitoring.</I> (1) As appropriate for the handling and storage system, effluent systems must be provided. Means for measuring the amount of radionuclides in effluents during normal operations and under accident conditions must be provided for these systems. A means of measuring the flow of the diluting medium, either air or water, must also be provided. 
</P>
<P>(2) Areas containing radioactive materials must be provided with systems for measuring the direct radiation levels in and around these areas. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effluent control.</I> The ISFSI or MRS must be designed to provide means to limit to levels as low as is reasonably achievable the release of radioactive materials in effluents during normal operations; and control the release of radioactive materials under accident conditions. Analyses must be made to show that releases to the general environment during normal operations and anticipated occurrences will be within the exposure limit given in § 72.104. Analyses of design basis accidents must be made to show that releases to the general environment will be within the exposure limits given in § 72.106. Systems designed to monitor the release of radioactive materials must have means for calibration and testing their operability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.128" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.6.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.128   Criteria for spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, reactor-related greater than Class C waste, and other radioactive waste storage and handling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and reactor-related GTCC waste storage and handling systems.</I> Spent fuel storage, high-level radioactive waste storage, reactor-related GTCC waste storage and other systems that might contain or handle radioactive materials associated with spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, or reactor-related GTCC waste, must be designed to ensure adequate safety under normal and accident conditions. These systems must be designed with—
</P>
<P>(1) A capability to test and monitor components important to safety, 
</P>
<P>(2) Suitable shielding for radioactive protection under normal and accident conditions, 
</P>
<P>(3) Confinement structures and systems, 
</P>
<P>(4) A heat-removal capability having testability and reliability consistent with its importance to safety, and 
</P>
<P>(5) means to minimize the quantity of radioactive wastes generated. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waste treatment.</I> Radioactive waste treatment facilities must be provided. Provisions must be made for the packing of site-generated low-level wastes in a form suitable for storage onsite awaiting transfer to disposal sites.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 66 FR 51843, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.130" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.6.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.130   Criteria for decommissioning.</HEAD>
<P>The ISFSI or MRS must be designed for decommissioning. Provisions must be made to facilitate decontamination of structures and equipment, minimize the quantity of radioactive wastes and contaminated equipment, and facilitate the removal of radioactive wastes and contaminated materials at the time the ISFSI or MRS is permanently decommissioned. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Quality Assurance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 56122, Oct. 15, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 72.140" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.140   Quality assurance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart describes quality assurance requirements that apply to design, purchase, fabrication, handling, shipping, storing, cleaning, assembly, inspection, testing, operation, maintenance, repair, modification of structures, systems, and components, and decommissioning that are important to safety. As used in this subpart, “quality assurance” comprises all those planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that a structure, system, or component will perform satisfactorily in service. Quality assurance includes quality control, which comprises those quality assurance actions related to control of the physical characteristics and quality of the material or component to predetermined requirements. The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC are responsible for the quality assurance requirements as they apply to the design, fabrication, and testing of a spent fuel storage cask until possession of the spent fuel storage cask is transferred to the licensee. The licensee and the certificate holder are also simultaneously responsible for these quality assurance requirements through the oversight of contractors and subcontractors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment of program.</I> Each licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, applicant for a CoC shall establish, maintain, and execute a quality assurance program satisfying each of the applicable criteria of this subpart, and satisfying any specific provisions which are applicable to the licensee's, applicant's for a license, certificate holder's, and applicant's for a CoC activities. The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall execute the applicable criteria in a graded approach to an extent that is commensurate with the quality assurance requirements' importance to safety. The quality assurance program must cover the activities identified in this subpart throughout the life of the activity. For licensees, this includes activities from the site selection through decommissioning prior to termination of the license. For certificate holders, this includes activities from development of the spent fuel storage cask design through termination of the CoC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approval of program.</I> (1) Each licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, or applicant for a CoC shall file a description of its quality assurance program, including a discussion of which requirements of this subpart are applicable and how they will be satisfied, in accordance with § 72.4. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee shall obtain Commission approval of its quality assurance program prior to receipt of spent fuel and/or reactor-related GTCC waste at the ISFSI or spent fuel, high-level radioactive waste, and/or reactor-related GTCC waste at the MRS. Each licensee or applicant for a specific license shall obtain Commission approval of its quality assurance program before commencing fabrication or testing of a spent fuel storage cask.
</P>
<P>(3) Each certificate holder or applicant for a CoC shall obtain Commission approval of its quality assurance program before commencing fabrication or testing of a spent fuel storage cask. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Previously-approved programs.</I> A quality assurance program previously approved by the Commission as satisfying the requirements of appendix B to part 50 of this chapter, subpart H to part 71 of this chapter, or subpart G to this part will be accepted as satisfying the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, except that a licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC who is using an appendix B or subpart H quality assurance program shall also meet the recordkeeping requirements of § 72.174. In filing the description of the quality assurance program required by paragraph (c) of this section, each licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall notify the NRC, in accordance with § 72.4, of its intent to apply its previously-approved quality assurance program to ISFSI activities or spent fuel storage cask activities. The notification shall identify the previously-approved quality assurance program by date of submittal to the Commission, docket number, and date of Commission approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 50617, Aug. 21, 2000; 66 FR 51843, Oct. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.142" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.142   Quality assurance organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall be responsible for the establishment and execution of the quality assurance program. The licensee and certificate holder may delegate to others, such as contractors, agents, or consultants, the work of establishing and executing the quality assurance program, but the licensee and the certificate holder shall retain responsibility for the program. The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall clearly establish and delineate in writing the authority and duties of persons and organizations performing activities affecting the functions of structures, systems, and components which are important to safety. These activities include performing the functions associated with attaining quality objectives and the quality assurance functions.
</P>
<P>(b) The quality assurance functions are—
</P>
<P>(1) Assuring that an appropriate quality assurance program is established and effectively executed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Verifying, by procedures such as checking, auditing, and inspection, that activities affecting the functions that are important to safety have been correctly performed. The persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions shall have sufficient authority and organizational freedom to identify quality problems; to initiate, recommend, or provide solutions; and to verify implementation of solutions.
</P>
<P>(c) The persons and organizations performing quality assurance functions shall report to a management level that ensures that the required authority and organizational freedom, including sufficient independence from cost and schedule considerations when these considerations are opposed to safety considerations, are provided. Because of the many variables involved, such as the number of personnel, the type of activity being performed, and the location or locations where activities are performed, the organizational structure for executing the quality assurance program may take various forms, provided that the persons and organizations assigned the quality assurance functions have the required authority and organizational freedom. Irrespective of the organizational structure, the individual(s) assigned the responsibility for assuring effective execution of any portion of the quality assurance program, at any location where activities subject to this section are being performed, must have direct access to the levels of management necessary to perform this function.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.144" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.144   Quality assurance program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish, at the earliest practicable time consistent with the schedule for accomplishing the activities, a quality assurance program which complies with the requirements of this subpart. The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall document the quality assurance program by written procedures or instructions and shall carry out the program in accordance with these procedures throughout the period during which the ISFSI or MRS is licensed or the spent fuel storage cask is certified. The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall identify the structures, systems, and components to be covered by the quality assurance program, the major organizations participating in the program, and the designated functions of these organizations.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC, through their quality assurance program(s), shall provide control over activities affecting the quality of the identified structures, systems, and components to an extent commensurate with the importance to safety and, as necessary, to ensure conformance with the approved design of each ISFSI, MRS, or spent fuel storage cask. The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall ensure that activities affecting quality are accomplished under suitably controlled conditions. Controlled conditions include the use of appropriate equipment; suitable environmental conditions for accomplishing the activity, such as adequate cleanliness; and assurance that all prerequisites for the given activity have been satisfied. The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall take into account the need for special controls, processes, test equipment, tools and skills to attain the required quality and the need for verification of quality by inspection and test.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall base the requirements and procedures of their quality assurance program(s) on the following considerations concerning the complexity and proposed use of the structures, systems, or components:
</P>
<P>(1) The impact of malfunction or failure of the item on safety;
</P>
<P>(2) The design and fabrication complexity or uniqueness of the item;
</P>
<P>(3) The need for special controls and surveillance over processes and equipment;
</P>
<P>(4) The degree to which functional compliance can be demonstrated by inspection or test; and
</P>
<P>(5) The quality history and degree of standardization of the item.
</P>
<P>(d) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall provide for indoctrination and training of personnel performing activities affecting quality as necessary to ensure that suitable proficiency is achieved and maintained.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall review the status and adequacy of the quality assurance program at established intervals. Management of other organizations participating in the quality assurance program must regularly review the status and adequacy of that part of the quality assurance program which they are executing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.146" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.146   Design control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to ensure that applicable regulatory requirements and the design basis, as specified in the license or CoC application for those structures, systems, and components to which this section applies, are correctly translated into specifications, drawings, procedures, and instructions. These measures must include provisions to ensure that appropriate quality standards are specified and included in design documents and that deviations from standards are controlled. Measures must be established for the selection and review for suitability of application of materials, parts, equipment, and processes that are essential to the functions of the structures, systems, and components which are important to safety.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures for the identification and control of design interfaces and for coordination among participating design organizations. These measures must include the establishment of written procedures among participating design organizations for the review, approval, release, distribution, and revision of documents involving design interfaces. The design control measures must provide for verifying or checking the adequacy of design by methods such as design reviews, alternate or simplified calculational methods, or by a suitable testing program. For the verifying or checking process, the licensee and certificate holder shall designate individuals or groups other than those who were responsible for the original design, but who may be from the same organization. Where a test program is used to verify the adequacy of a specific design feature in lieu of other verifying or checking processes, the licensee and certificate holder shall include suitable qualification testing of a prototype or sample unit under the most adverse design conditions. The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall apply design control measures to items such as the following: criticality physics, radiation, shielding, stress, thermal, hydraulic, and accident analyses; compatibility of materials; accessibility for inservice inspection, maintenance, and repair; features to facilitate decontamination; and delineation of acceptance criteria for inspections and tests.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall subject design changes, including field changes, to design control measures commensurate with those applied to the original design. Changes in the conditions specified in the license or CoC require prior NRC approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.148" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.148   Procurement document control.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to assure that applicable regulatory requirements, design bases, and other requirements which are necessary to assure adequate quality are included or referenced in the documents for procurement of material, equipment, and services, whether purchased by the licensee, certificate holder, or by their contractors and subcontractors. To the extent necessary, the licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC, shall require contractors or subcontractors to provide a quality assurance program consistent with the applicable provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.150" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.150   Instructions, procedures, and drawings.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall prescribe activities affecting quality by documented instructions, procedures, or drawings of a type appropriate to the circumstances and shall require that these instructions, procedures, and drawings be followed. The instructions, procedures, and drawings must include appropriate quantitative or qualitative acceptance criteria for determining that important activities have been satisfactorily accomplished.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.152" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.152   Document control.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to control the issuance of documents such as instructions, procedures, and drawings, including changes, which prescribe all activities affecting quality. These measures must assure that documents, including changes, are reviewed for adequacy, approved for release by authorized personnel, and distributed and used at the location where the prescribed activity is performed. These measures must ensure that changes to documents are reviewed and approved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.154" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.154   Control of purchased material, equipment, and services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to ensure that purchased material, equipment, and services, whether purchased directly or through contractors and subcontractors, conform to the procurement documents. These measures must include provisions, as appropriate, for source evaluation and selection, objective evidence of quality furnished by the contractor or subcontractor, inspection at the contractor or subcontractor source, and examination of products upon delivery.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall have available documentary evidence that material and equipment conform to the procurement specifications prior to installation or use of the material and equipment. The licensee and certificate holder shall retain or have available this documentary evidence for the life of the ISFSI, MRS, or spent fuel storage cask. The licensee and certificate holder shall ensure that the evidence is sufficient to identify the specific requirements met by the purchased material and equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC, or a designee of either, shall assess the effectiveness of the control of quality by contractors and subcontractors at intervals consistent with the importance, complexity, and quantity of the product or services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.156" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.156   Identification and control of materials, parts, and components.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures for the identification and control of materials, parts, and components. These measures must ensure that identification of the item is maintained by heat number, part number, serial number, or other appropriate means, either on the item or on records traceable to the item as required, throughout fabrication, installation, and use of the item. These identification and control measures must be designed to prevent the use of incorrect or defective materials, parts, and components.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.158" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.158   Control of special processes.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to ensure that special processes, including welding, heat treating, and nondestructive testing, are controlled and accomplished by qualified personnel using qualified procedures in accordance with applicable codes, standards, specifications, criteria, and other special requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.160" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.160   Licensee and certificate holder inspection.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish and execute a program for inspection of activities affecting quality by or for the organization performing the activity to verify conformance with the documented instructions, procedures, and drawings for accomplishing the activity. The inspection must be performed by individuals other than those who performed the activity being inspected. Examinations, measurements, or tests of material or products processed must be performed for each work operation where necessary to assure quality. If direct inspection of processed material or products cannot be carried out, indirect control by monitoring processing methods, equipment, and personnel must be provided. Both inspection and process monitoring must be provided when quality control is inadequate without both. If mandatory inspection hold points that require witnessing or inspecting by the licensee's or certificate holder's designated representative, and beyond which work should not proceed without the consent of its designated representative, are required, the specific hold points must be indicated in appropriate documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.162" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.162   Test control.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish a test program to ensure that all testing, required to demonstrate that the structures, systems, and components will perform satisfactorily in service, is identified and performed in accordance with written test procedures that incorporate the requirements of this part and the requirements and acceptance limits contained in the ISFSI, MRS, or spent fuel storage cask license or CoC. The test procedures must include provisions to ensure that all prerequisites for the given test are met, that adequate test instrumentation is available and used, and that the test is performed under suitable environmental conditions. The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall document and evaluate the test results to ensure that test requirements have been satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.164" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.164   Control of measuring and test equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to ensure that tools, gauges, instruments, and other measuring and testing devices used in activities affecting quality are properly controlled, calibrated, and adjusted at specified periods to maintain accuracy within necessary limits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.166" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.166   Handling, storage, and shipping control.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to control, in accordance with work and inspection instructions, the handling, storage, shipping, cleaning, and preservation of materials and equipment to prevent damage or deterioration. When necessary for particular products, special protective environments, such as inert gas atmosphere, and specific moisture content and temperature levels must be specified and provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.168" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.168   Inspection, test, and operating status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to indicate, by the use of markings such as stamps, tags, labels, routing cards, or other suitable means, the status of inspections and tests performed upon individual items of the ISFSI, MRS, or spent fuel storage cask. These measures must provide for the identification of items which have satisfactorily passed required inspections and tests where necessary to preclude inadvertent bypassing of the inspections and tests.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall establish measures to identify the operating status of structures, systems, and components of the ISFSI or MRS, such as tagging valves and switches, to prevent inadvertent operation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.170" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.170   Nonconforming materials, parts, or components.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to control materials, parts, or components that do not conform to their requirements in order to prevent their inadvertent use or installation. These measures must include, as appropriate, procedures for identification, documentation, segregation, disposition, and notification to affected organizations. Nonconforming items must be reviewed and accepted, rejected, repaired, or reworked in accordance with documented procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.172" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.172   Corrective action.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall establish measures to ensure that conditions adverse to quality, such as failures, malfunctions, deficiencies, deviations, defective material and equipment, and nonconformances, are promptly identified and corrected. In the case of a significant condition identified as adverse to quality, the measures must ensure that the cause of the condition is determined and corrective action is taken to preclude repetition. The identification of the significant condition adverse to quality, the cause of the condition, and the corrective action taken must be documented and reported to appropriate levels of management.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.174" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.174   Quality assurance records.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall maintain sufficient records to furnish evidence of activities affecting quality. The records must include the following: design records, records of use, and the results of reviews, inspections, tests, audits, monitoring of work performance, and materials analyses. The records must include closely related data such as qualifications of personnel, procedures, and equipment. Inspection and test records must, at a minimum, identify the inspector or data recorder, the type of observation, the results, the acceptability, and the action taken in connection with any noted deficiencies. Records must be identifiable and retrievable. Records pertaining to the design, fabrication, erection, testing, maintenance, and use of structures, systems, and components important to safety must be maintained by or under the control of the licensee or certificate holder until the NRC terminates the license or CoC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.176" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.7.121.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.176   Audits.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee, applicant for a license, certificate holder, and applicant for a CoC shall carry out a comprehensive system of planned and periodic audits to verify compliance with all aspects of the quality assurance program and to determine the effectiveness of the program. The audits must be performed in accordance with written procedures or checklists by appropriately trained personnel not having direct responsibilities in the areas being audited. Audited results must be documented and reviewed by management having responsibility in the area audited. Follow-up action, including reaudit of deficient areas, must be taken where indicated.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Physical Protection</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.180" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.8.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.180   Physical protection plan.</HEAD>
<P>The licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow a detailed plan for physical protection as described in § 73.51 of this chapter. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current plan as a record until the Commission terminates the license for which the procedures were developed and, if any portion of the plan is superseded, retain the superseded material for 3 years after each change or until termination of the license. The plan must describe how the applicant will meet the requirements of § 73.51 of this chapter and provide physical protection during on-site transportation to and from the proposed ISFSI or MRS and include within the plan the design for physical protection, the licensee's safeguards contingency plan, and the security organization personnel training and qualification plan. The plan must list tests, inspections, audits, and other means to be used to demonstrate compliance with such requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 26961, May 15, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.182" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.8.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.182   Design for physical protection.</HEAD>
<P>The design for physical protection must show the site layout and the design features provided to protect the ISFSI or MRS from sabotage. It must include:
</P>
<P>(a) The design criteria for the physical protection of the proposed ISFSI or MRS;
</P>
<P>(b) The design bases and the relation of the design bases to the design criteria submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(c) Information relative to materials of construction, equipment, general arrangement, and proposed quality assurance program sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the final security system will conform to the design bases for the principal design criteria submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.184" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.8.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.184   Safeguards contingency plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of the licensee's safeguards contingency plan for responding to threats and radiological sabotage must be as defined in appendix C to part 73 of this chapter. This plan must include Background, Generic Planning Base, Licensee Planning Base, and Responsibility Matrix, the first four categories of information relating to nuclear facilities licensed under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter. (The fifth and last category of information, Procedures, does not have to be submitted for approval.) 
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall prepare and maintain safeguards contingency plan procedures in accordance with appendix C to 10 CFR part 73 for effecting the actions and decisions contained in the Responsibility Matrix of the licensee's safeguards contingency plan. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current procedures as a record until the Commission terminates the license for which the procedures were developed and, if any portion of the procedures is superseded, retain the superseded material for three years after each change.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 33429, July 29, 1992; 91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.186" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.8.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.186   Change to physical security and safeguards contingency plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The licensee shall make no change that would decrease the safeguards effectiveness of the physical security plan, guard training plan or the first four categories of information (Background, Generic Planning Base, Licensee Planning Base, and Responsibility Matrix) contained in the licensee safeguards contingency plan without prior approval of the Commission. A licensee desiring to make a change must submit an application for a license amendment pursuant to § 72.56.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee may, without prior Commission approval, make changes to the physical security plan, guard training plan, or the safeguards contingency plan, if the changes do not decrease the safeguards effectiveness of these plans. The licensee shall maintain records of changes to any such plan made without prior approval for a period of three years from the date of the change, and shall, within two months after the change is made, submit a report addressed to Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, in accordance with § 72.4, containing a description of each change. A copy of the report must be sent to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003; 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Training and Certification of Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.190" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.9.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.190   Operator requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Operation of equipment and controls that have been identified as important to safety in the Safety Analysis Report and in the license must be limited to trained and certified personnel or be under the direct visual supervision of an individual with training and certification in the operation. Supervisory personnel who personally direct the operation of equipment and controls that are important to safety must also be certified in such operations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.192" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.9.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.192   Operator training and certification program.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant for a license under this part shall establish a program for training, proficiency testing, and certification of ISFSI or MRS personnel. This program must be submitted to the Commission for approval with the license application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.194" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.9.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.194   Physical requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The physical condition and the general health of personnel certified for the operation of equipment and controls that are important to safety must not be such as might cause operational errors that could endanger other in-plant personnel or the public health and safety. Any condition that might cause impaired judgment or motor coordination must be considered in the selection of personnel for activities that are important to safety. These conditions need not categorically disqualify a person, if appropriate provisions are made to accommodate such defect.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Provision of MRS Information to State Governments and Indian Tribes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.200" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.10.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.200   Provision of MRS information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, or the Director's designee shall provide to the Governor and legislature of any State in which an MRS authorized under the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended, is or may be located, to the Governors of any contiguous States, to each affected unit of local government and to the governing body of any affected Indian Tribe, timely and complete information regarding determinations or plans made by the Commission with respect to siting, development, design, licensing, construction, operation, regulation or decommissioning of such monitored retrievable storage facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the Director or the Director's designee is not required to distribute any document to any entity if, with respect to such document, that entity or its counsel is included on a service list prepared pursuant to part 2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Copies of all communications by the Director or the Director's designee under this section must be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room, and must be furnished to DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 31658, Aug. 19, 1988, as amended at 64 FR 48954, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.202" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.10.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.202   Participation in license reviews.</HEAD>
<P>States, local governmental bodies and affected, Federally-recognized Indian Tribes may participate in license reviews as provided in subpart C of part 2 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 2280, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.204" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.10.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.204   Notice to States.</HEAD>
<P>If the Governor and legislature of a State have jointly designated on their behalf a single person or entity to receive notice and information from the Commission under this part, the Commission will provide such notice and information to the jointly designated person or entity instead of the Governor and the legislature separately.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.206" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.10.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.206   Representation.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who acts under this subpart as a representative for a State (or for the Governor or legislature thereof) or for an affected Indian Tribe shall include in the request or other submission, or at the request of the Commission, a statement of the basis of his or her authority to act in such representative capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—General License for Storage of Spent Fuel at Power Reactor Sites</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 29191, July 18, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 72.210" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.11.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.210   General license issued.</HEAD>
<P>A general license is hereby issued for the storage of spent fuel in an independent spent fuel storage installation at power reactor sites to persons authorized to possess or operate nuclear power reactors under 10 CFR part 50, part 52, or part 53.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.212" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.11.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.212   Conditions of general license issued under § 72.210.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The general license is limited to that spent fuel which the general licensee is authorized to possess at the site under the specific license for the site.
</P>
<P>(2) This general license is limited to storage of spent fuel in casks approved under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The general license for the storage of spent fuel in each cask fabricated under a Certificate of Compliance shall commence upon the date that the particular cask is first used by the general licensee to store spent fuel, shall continue through any renewals of the Certificate of Compliance, unless otherwise specified in the Certificate of Compliance, and shall terminate when the cask's Certificate of Compliance expires. For any cask placed into service during the final renewal term of a Certificate of Compliance, or during the term of a Certificate of Compliance that was not renewed, the general license for that cask shall terminate after a storage period not to exceed the length of the term certified by the cask's Certificate of Compliance. Upon expiration of the general license, all casks subject to that general license must be removed from service.
</P>
<P>(b) The general licensee must:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the Nuclear Regulatory Commission using instructions in § 72.4 at least 90 days before first storage of spent fuel under this general license. The notice may be in the form of a letter, but must contain the licensee's name, address, reactor license and docket numbers, and the name and means of contacting a person responsible for providing additional information concerning spent fuel under this general license. A copy of the submittal must be sent to the administrator of the appropriate Nuclear Regulatory Commission regional office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Register use of each cask with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission no later than 30 days after using that cask to store spent fuel. This registration may be accomplished by submitting a letter using instructions in § 72.4 containing the following information: the licensee's name and address, the licensee's reactor license and docket numbers, the name and title of a person responsible for providing additional information concerning spent fuel storage under this general license, the cask certificate number, the CoC amendment number to which the cask conforms, unless loaded under the initial certificate, cask model number, and the cask identification number. A copy of each submittal must be sent to the administrator of the appropriate Nuclear Regulatory Commission regional office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that each cask used by the general licensee conforms to the terms, conditions, and specifications of a CoC or an amended CoC listed in § 72.214.
</P>
<P>(4) In applying the changes authorized by an amended CoC to a cask loaded under the initial CoC or an earlier amended CoC, register each such cask with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission no later than 30 days after applying the changes authorized by the amended CoC. This registration may be accomplished by submitting a letter using instructions in § 72.4 containing the following information: the licensee's name and address, the licensee's reactor license and docket numbers, the name and title of a person responsible for providing additional information concerning spent fuel storage under this general license, the cask certificate number, the CoC amendment number to which the cask conforms, cask model number, and the cask identification number. A copy of each submittal must be sent to the administrator of the appropriate Nuclear Regulatory Commission regional office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Perform written evaluations, before use and before applying the changes authorized by an amended CoC to a cask loaded under the initial CoC or an earlier amended CoC, which establish that:
</P>
<P>(i) The cask, once loaded with spent fuel or once the changes authorized by an amended CoC have been applied, will conform to the terms, conditions, and specifications of a CoC or an amended CoC listed in § 72.214;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cask storage pads and areas have been designed to adequately support the static and dynamic loads of the stored casks, considering potential amplification of earthquakes through soil-structure interaction, and soil liquefaction potential or other soil instability due to vibratory ground motion; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The requirements of § 72.104 have been met. A copy of this record shall be retained until spent fuel is no longer stored under the general license issued under § 72.210.
</P>
<P>(6) Review the Safety Analysis Report referenced in the CoC or amended CoC and the related NRC Safety Evaluation Report, prior to use of the general license, to determine whether or not the reactor site parameters, including analyses of earthquake intensity and tornado missiles, are enveloped by the cask design bases considered in these reports. The results of this review must be documented in the evaluation made in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Evaluate any changes to the written evaluations required by paragraphs (b)(5) and (b)(6) of this section using the requirements of § 72.48(c). A copy of this record shall be retained until spent fuel is no longer stored under the general license issued under § 72.210.


</P>
<P>(8) Before use of the general license, determine whether activities related to storage of spent fuel under this general license involve a change in the facility Technical Specifications or require a license amendment for the facility pursuant to § 50.59(c) or § 53.1550 of this chapter. Results of this determination must be documented in the evaluations made in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) Protect the spent fuel against the design basis threat of radiological sabotage in accordance with the same provisions and requirements as are set forth in the licensee's physical security plan pursuant to § 73.55 of this chapter with the following additional conditions and exceptions:
</P>
<P>(i) The physical security organization and program for the facility must be modified as necessary to assure that activities conducted under this general license do not decrease the effectiveness of the protection of vital equipment in accordance with § 73.55 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Storage of spent fuel must be within a protected area, in accordance with § 73.55(e) of this chapter, but need not be within a separate vital area. Existing protected areas may be expanded or new protected areas added for the purpose of storage of spent fuel in accordance with this general license;
</P>
<P>(iii) For the purpose of this general license, personnel searches required by § 73.55(h) of this chapter before admission to a new protected area may be performed by physical pat-down searches of persons in lieu of firearms and explosives detection equipment;
</P>
<P>(iv) The observational capability required by § 73.55(i)(3) of this chapter as applied to a new protected area may be provided by a guard or watchman on patrol in lieu of video surveillance technology;
</P>
<P>(v) For the purpose of this general license, the licensee is exempt from requirements to interdict and neutralize threats in § 73.55 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Each general licensee that receives and possesses power reactor spent fuel and other radioactive materials associated with spent fuel storage shall protect Safeguards Information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements of § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(10) Review the reactor emergency plan, quality assurance program, training program, and radiation protection program to determine if their effectiveness is decreased and, if so, prepare the necessary changes and seek and obtain the necessary approvals.
</P>
<P>(11) Maintain a copy of the CoC and, for those casks to which the licensee has applied the changes of an amended CoC, the amended CoC, and the documents referenced in such Certificates, for each cask model used for storage of spent fuel, until use of the cask model is discontinued. The licensee shall comply with the terms, conditions, and specifications of the CoC and, for those casks to which the licensee has applied the changes of an amended CoC, the terms, conditions, and specifications of the amended CoC, including but not limited to, the requirements of any AMP put into effect as a condition of the NRC approval of a CoC renewal application in accordance with § 72.240.
</P>
<P>(12) Accurately maintain the record provided by the CoC holder for each cask that shows, in addition to the information provided by the CoC holder, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the CoC holder or lessor;
</P>
<P>(ii) The listing of spent fuel stored in the cask; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any maintenance performed on the cask.
</P>
<P>(13) Conduct activities related to storage of spent fuel under this general license only in accordance with written procedures.
</P>
<P>(14) Make records and casks available to the Commission for inspection.
</P>
<P>(c) The record described in paragraph (b)(12) of this section must include sufficient information to furnish documentary evidence that any testing and maintenance of the cask has been conducted under an NRC-approved quality assurance program.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that a cask is sold, leased, loaned, or otherwise transferred to another registered user, the record described in paragraph (b)(12) of this section must also be transferred to and must be accurately maintained by the new registered user. This record must be maintained by the current cask user during the period that the cask is used for storage of spent fuel and retained by the last user until decommissioning of the cask is complete.
</P>
<P>(e) Fees for inspections related to spent fuel storage under this general license are those shown in § 170.31 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 29191, July 18, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 53616, Oct. 4, 1999; 68 FR 54160, Sept. 16, 2003; 73 FR 63573, Oct. 24, 2008; 74 FR 13970, Mar. 27, 2009; 76 FR 8890, Feb. 16, 2011; 91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.214" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.11.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.214   List of approved spent fuel storage casks.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 39850, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>The following casks are approved for storage of spent fuel under the conditions specified in their Certificates of Compliance.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Certificate Number: 1004.
</P>
<P>Initial Certificate Effective Date: January 23, 1995, superseded by Initial Certificate, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Initial Certificate, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: April 27, 2000, superseded by Amendment Number 1, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 1, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 1, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date: September 5, 2000, superseded by Amendment Number 2, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 2, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 2, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date: September 12, 2001, superseded by Amendment Number 3, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 3, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 3, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date: February 12, 2002, superseded by Amendment Number 4, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 4, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 4, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date: January 7, 2004, superseded by Amendment Number 5, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 5, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 5, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 6 Effective Date: December 22, 2003, superseded by Amendment Number 6, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 6, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 6, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 7 Effective Date: March 2, 2004, superseded by Amendment Number 7, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 7, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 7, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 8 Effective Date: December 5, 2005, superseded by Amendment Number 8, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 8, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 8, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 9 Effective Date: April 17, 2007, superseded by Amendment Number 9, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 9, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 9, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 10 Effective Date: August 24, 2009, superseded by Amendment Number 10, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 10, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 10, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 11 Effective Date: January 7, 2014, superseded by Amendment Number 11, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 11, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 11, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017, as corrected (ADAMS Accession No. ML18018A043).
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 12 Effective Date: Amendment not issued by the NRC.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 13 Effective Date: May 24, 2014, superseded by Amendment Number 13, Revision 1, on April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 13, Revision 1, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 13, Revision 1, Effective Date: December 11, 2017, as corrected (ADAMS Accession No. ML18018A100).
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 14 Effective Date: April 25, 2017, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 14, on December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 14 Effective Date: December 11, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 15 Effective Date: January 22, 2019.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 16 Effective Date: September 14, 2020.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 17 Effective Date: June 7, 2021.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 18 Effective Date: December 18, 2023.
</P>
<P>SAR Submitted by: TN Americas LLC.
</P>
<P>SAR Title: Final Safety Analysis Report for the Standardized NUHOMS® Horizontal Modular Storage System for Irradiated Nuclear Fuel.
</P>
<P>Docket Number: 72-1004.
</P>
<P>Certificate Expiration Date: January 23, 2015.
</P>
<P>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date: January 23, 2055.
</P>
<P>Model Number: NUHOMS®-24P, -24PHB, -24PTH, -32PT, -32PTH1, -37PTH, -52B, -61BT, -61BTH, and -69BTH.






</P>
<P>Certificate Number: 1007.
</P>
<P>Initial Certificate Effective Date: May 7, 1993, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate, on September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Initial Certificate Effective Date: September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: May 30, 2000, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 1, on September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date: September 5, 2000, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 2, on September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 2 Effective Date: September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date: May 21, 2001, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 3, on September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 3 Effective Date: September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date: February 3, 2003, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 4, on September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 4 Effective Date: September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date: September 13, 2005, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 5, on September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 5 Effective Date: September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 6 Effective Date: June 5, 2006, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 6, on September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>Renewed Amendment Number 6 Effective Date: September 20, 2017.
</P>
<P>SAR Submitted by: EnergySolutions<E T="51">TM</E> Corporation.
</P>
<P>SAR Title: Final Safety Analysis Report for the VSC-24 Ventilated Storage Cask System.
</P>
<P>Docket Number: 72-1007.
</P>
<P>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date: May 7, 2053.
</P>
<P>Model Number: VSC-24<E T="52">.</E>


</P>
<P>Certificate Number: 1008.
</P>
<P>Initial Certificate Effective Date: October 4, 1999, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate, on December 15, 2021.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: December 26, 2000, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 1, on December 15, 2021.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date: May 29, 2001, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 2, on December 15, 2021.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date: November 5, 2019, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 3, on December 15, 2021.
</P>
<P>SAR Submitted by: Holtec International.
</P>
<P>SAR Title: Final Safety Analysis Report for the HI-STAR 100 Cask System.
</P>
<P>Docket Number: 72-1008.
</P>
<P>Certificate Expiration Date: October 4, 2019.
</P>
<P>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date: October 4, 2059.
</P>
<P>Model Number: HI-STAR 100 (MPC-24, MPC-32, MPC-68, MPC-68F).


</P>
<P>Certificate Number: 1014.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> May 31, 2000, superseded by <I>Renewed Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> July 15, 2002, superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> June 7, 2005, superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> May 29, 2007, superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> January 8, 2008, superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date:</I> July 14, 2008, superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 5 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 6 Effective Date:</I> August 17, 2009, superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 6 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 7 Effective Date:</I> December 28, 2009, superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 7 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 8 Effective Date:</I> May 2, 2012, as corrected on November 16, 2012 (ADAMS Accession No. ML12213A170); superseded by <I>Amendment Number 8, Revision 1, Effective Date:</I> February 16, 2016; superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 8, Revision 1 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 9 Effective Date:</I> March 11, 2014, superseded by <I>Amendment Number 9, Revision 1, Effective Date:</I> March 21, 2016, as corrected on August 25, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17236A451); superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 9, Revision 1 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 10 Effective Date:</I> May 31, 2016, as corrected on August 25, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17236A452); superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 10 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 11 Effective Date:</I> February 25, 2019, as corrected (ADAMS Accession No. ML19343B024); superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 11 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 12 Effective Date:</I> February 25, 2019, as corrected on May 30, 2019 (ADAMS Accession No. ML19109A111); further corrected December 23, 2019 (ADAMS Accession No. ML19343A908); superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 12 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 13 Effective Date:</I> May 13, 2019, as corrected on May 30, 2019 (ADAMS Accession No. ML19109A122); further corrected December 23, 2019 (ADAMS Accession No. ML19343B156); superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 13 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 14 Effective Date:</I> December 17, 2019, as corrected (ADAMS Accession No. ML19343B287); superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 14 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 15 Effective Date:</I> June 14, 2021, superseded by <I>Renewed Amendment Number 15 Effective Date:</I> August 2, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Amendment Number 16 Effective Date:</I> September 9, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Amendment Number 17 Effective Date:</I> January 16, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Amendment Number 18 Effective Date:</I> November 19, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Amendment Number 19 Effective Date:</I> May 27, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Safety Analysis Report (SAR) Submitted by:</I> Holtec International.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the HI-STORM 100 Cask System.
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1014.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Expiration Date:</I> May 31, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date:</I> May 31, 2060.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> HI-STORM 100.


</P>
<P><I>Certificate Number:</I> 1015.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> November 20, 2000, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate Effective Date: July 15, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> February 20, 2001, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: July 15, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> December 31, 2001, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 2 Effective Date: July 15, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> March 31, 2004, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 3 Effective Date: July 15, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> October 11, 2005, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 4 Effective Date: July 15, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date:</I> January 12, 2009, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 5 Effective Date: July 15, 2024, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 5, Revision 1 Effective Date: February 23, 2026.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 6 Effective Date:</I> January 7, 2019, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 6 Effective Date: July 15, 2024, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 6, Revision 1 Effective Date: February 23, 2026.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 7 Effective Date:</I> July 29, 2019, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 7 Effective Date: July 15, 2024, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 7, Revision 1 Effective Date: February 23, 2026.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 8 Effective Date:</I> October 19, 2021, as corrected (ADAMS Accession No. ML21312A499); superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 8 Effective Date: July 15, 2024; superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 8, Revision 1 Effective Date: February 23, 2026.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 9 Effective Date:</I> August 29, 2022, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 9 Effective Date: July 15, 2024, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 9, Revision 1 Effective Date: February 23, 2026.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Amendment Number 10 Effective Date:</I> February 23, 2026.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Submitted by:</I> NAC International, Inc.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the NAC-UMS® Universal Storage System.
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1015.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Expiration Date:</I> November 20, 2060.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> NAC-UMS.






</P>
<P>Certificate Number: 1021.
</P>
<P>Initial Certificate Effective Date: April 19, 2000, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate on January 19, 2022.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: February 20, 2001, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 1 on January 19, 2022.
</P>
<P>SAR Submitted by: Transnuclear, Inc., now TN Americas LLC.
</P>
<P>Renewal SAR Submitted by: TN Americas LLC.
</P>
<P>SAR Title: Final Safety Analysis Report for the TN-32 Dry Storage Cask.
</P>
<P>Docket Number: 72-1021.
</P>
<P>Certificate Expiration Date: April 19, 2020.
</P>
<P>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date: April 19, 2060.
</P>
<P>Model Number: TN-32, TN-32A, TN-32B.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Number:</I> 1025.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> April 10, 2000, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate Effective Date: October 17, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> November 13, 2001, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: October 17, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> May 29, 2002, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 2 Effective Date: October 17, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> October 1, 2003, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 3 Effective Date: October 17, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> October 27, 2004, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 4 Effective Date: October 17, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date:</I> July 24, 2007, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 5 Effective Date: October 17, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 6 Effective Date:</I> October 4, 2010, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 6 Effective Date: October 17, 2023, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 6, Revision 1 Effective Date May 13, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 7 Effective Date:</I> March 4, 2019, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 7 Effective Date: October 17, 2023, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 7, Revision 1 Effective Date May 13, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 8 Effective Date:</I> March 4, 2019, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 8 Effective Date: October 17, 2023, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 8, Revision 1 Effective Date May 13, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Amendment Number 9 Effective Date:</I> May 13, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Safety Analysis Report (SAR) Submitted by:</I> NAC International, Inc.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the NAC Multi-Purpose Canister System (NAC-MPC System).
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1025.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Expiration Date:</I> May 31, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date:</I> April 10, 2060.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> NAC-MPC System.


</P>
<P><I>Certificate Number:</I> 1026.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> February 15, 2001, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate on July 3, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> May 14, 2001, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 1 on July 3, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> January 28, 2002, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 2 on July 3, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> May 7, 2003, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 3 on July 3, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> July 3, 2006, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 4 on July 3, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Submitted by:</I> Westinghouse Electric Company LLC.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the FuelSolutions<E T="51">TM</E> Spent Fuel Management System.
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1026.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date:</I> February 15, 2061.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> WSNF-220, WSNF-221, and WSNF-223 systems; W150 storage cask; W100 transfer cask; and the W21 and W74 canisters.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Number:</I> 1027.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> May 30, 2000, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate on February 22, 2022.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> October 30, 2007, superseded by Renewed

Amendment Number 1 on February 22, 2022.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Submitted by:</I> Transnuclear, Inc., now TN Americas LLC.
</P>
<P><I>Renewal SAR Submitted by:</I> TN Americas LLC.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the TN-68 Dry Storage Cask.
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1027.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Expiration Date:</I> May 28, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date:</I> May 28, 2060.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> TN-68.
</P>
<P>Certificate Number: 1029.
</P>
<P>Initial Certificate Effective Date: February 5, 2003, superseded by Renewed Initial Certificate on October 27, 2021.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: May 16, 2005, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 1 on October 27, 2021.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date: Amendment not issued by the NRC.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date: February 23, 2015, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 3 on October 27, 2021.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date: March 12, 2019, superseded by Renewed Amendment Number 4 on October 27, 2021.
</P>
<P>SAR Submitted by: Transnuclear, Inc., now TN Americas, LLC.
</P>
<P>Renewal SAR Submitted by: TN Americas, LLC.
</P>
<P>SAR Title: Final Safety Analysis Report for the Standardized Advanced NUHOMS® Horizontal Modular Storage System for Irradiated Nuclear Fuel.
</P>
<P>Docket Number: 72-1029.
</P>
<P>Certificate Expiration Date: February 5, 2023.
</P>
<P>Renewed Certificate Expiration Date: February 5, 2063.
</P>
<P>Model Number: Standardized Advanced NUHOMS®-24PT1, -24PT4, and -32PTH2.
</P>
<P>Certificate Number: 1030.
</P>
<P>Initial Certificate Effective Date: January 10, 2007.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date: March 29, 2011.
</P>
<P>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date: October 14, 2014.
</P>
<P>SAR Submitted by: Transnuclear, Inc.
</P>
<P>SAR Title: Final Safety Analysis Report for the NUHOMS® HD Horizontal Modular Storage System for Irradiated Nuclear Fuel.
</P>
<P>Docket Number: 72-1030.
</P>
<P>Certificate Expiration Date: January 10, 2027.
</P>
<P>Model Number: NUHOMS® HD-32PTH.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Number:</I> 1031.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> February 4, 2009, superseded by Initial Certificate, Revision 1, on February 1, 2016, superseded by Initial Certificate, Revision 2, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Initial Certificate, Revision 3, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> August 30, 2010, superseded by Amendment Number 1, Revision 1, on February 1, 2016, superseded by Amendment Number 1, Revision 2, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 1, Revision 3, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> January 30, 2012, superseded by Amendment Number 2, Revision 1, on February 1, 2016, superseded by Amendment Number 2, Revision 2, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 2, Revision 3, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> July 25, 2013, superseded by Amendment Number 3, Revision 1, on February 1, 2016, superseded by Amendment Number 3, Revision 2, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 3, Revision 3, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> April 14, 2015, superseded by Amendment Number 4, Revision 1, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 4, Revision 2, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date:</I> June 29, 2015, superseded by Amendment Number 5, Revision 1, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 5, Revision 2, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 6 Effective Date:</I> December 21, 2016, superseded by Amendment Number 6, Revision 1, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 6, Revision 2, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 7 Effective Date:</I> August 21, 2017, as corrected (ADAMS Accession No. ML19045A346), superseded by Amendment Number 7, Revision 1, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 7, Revision 2, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 8 Effective Date:</I> March 24, 2020, superseded by Amendment Number 8, Revision 1, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 8, Revision 2, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 9 Effective Date:</I> December 7, 2020, superseded by Amendment Number 9, Revision 1, on October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 9, Revision 2, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 10 Effective Date:</I> January 18, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 10, Revision 1, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 11 Effective Date:</I> October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 11, Revision 1, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 12 Effective Date:</I> October 16, 2023, superseded by Amendment Number 12, Revision 1, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 13 Effective Date: November 19, 2024,</I> superseded by Amendment Number 13, Revision 1, on March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 14 Effective Date:</I> March 19, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 15 Effective Date:</I> June 3, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Submitted by:</I> NAC International, Inc.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the MAGNASTOR® System.
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1031.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Expiration Date:</I> February 4, 2029.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> MAGNASTOR®.




</P>
<P><I>Certificate Number:</I> 1032.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> June 13, 2011, superseded by Amendment Number 0, Revision 1, on April 25, 2016.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 0, Revision 1, Effective Date:</I> April 25, 2016.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> December 17, 2014, superseded by Amendment Number 1, Revision 1, on June 2, 2015.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1, Revision 1, Effective Date:</I> June 2, 2015.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> November 7, 2016.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> September 11, 2017.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> July 14, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date:</I> July 27, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 6 Effective Date:</I> March 22, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 7 Effective Date:</I> September 25, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 8 Effective Date:</I> October 11, 2022.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Submitted by:</I> Holtec International.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the HI-STORM FW System.
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1032.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Expiration Date:</I> June 12, 2031.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> HI-STORM FW MPC-32ML, MPC-37, MPC-37P, MPC-44, and MPC-89.


</P>
<P><I>Certificate Number:</I> 1040.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> April 6, 2015, superseded by Initial Certificate, Revision 1 Effective Date: April 21, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> September 8, 2015, superseded by Amendment Number 1, Revision 1 Effective Date: April 21, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> January 9, 2017, superseded by Amendment Number 2, Revision 1 Effective Date: April 21, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> [Reserved].
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> January 25, 2021.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date:</I> June 16, 2026.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Submitted by:</I> Holtec International, Inc.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the Holtec International HI-STORM UMAX Canister Storage System.
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1040.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Expiration Date:</I> April 6, 2035.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> MPC-37, MPC-89.




</P>
<P><I>Certificate Number:</I> 1042.
</P>
<P><I>Initial Certificate Effective Date:</I> June 7, 2017.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 1 Effective Date:</I> June 17, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 2 Effective Date:</I> October 26, 2021.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 3 Effective Date:</I> July 17, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 4 Effective Date:</I> October 14, 2025
</P>
<P><I>Amendment Number 5 Effective Date:</I> April 13, 2026.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Submitted by:</I> TN Americas LLC.
</P>
<P><I>SAR Title:</I> Final Safety Analysis Report for the NUHOMS® EOS Dry Spent Fuel Storage System.
</P>
<P><I>Docket Number:</I> 72-1042.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Expiration Date:</I> June 7, 2037.
</P>
<P><I>Model Number:</I> EOS-37PTH, EOS-89BTH, 61BTH Type 2.






</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 29191, July 18, 1990]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 72.214, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.216" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.11.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.216   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.218" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.11.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.218   Termination of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notification regarding the program for the management of spent fuel at the reactor required by § 50.54(bb) or § 53.1060 of this chapter must include a plan for removal of the spent fuel stored under this general license from the reactor site. The plan must show how the spent fuel will be managed before starting to decommission systems and components needed for moving, unloading, and shipping this spent fuel.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for termination of a reactor operating license issued under 10 CFR part 50 and submitted under § 50.82 of this chapter, or a combined license issued under 10 CFR part 52 and submitted under § 52.110 of this chapter, or a reactor operating or combined license under 10 CFR part 53 and submitted under § 53.1070 of this chapter must contain a description of how the spent fuel stored under this general license will be removed from the reactor site.
</P>
<P>(c) The reactor licensee shall send a copy of submittals under § 72.218(a) and (b) to the administrator of the appropriate Nuclear Regulatory Commission regional office shown in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 29191, July 18, 1990, as amended at 72 FR 49561, Aug. 28, 2007; 86 FR 43403, Aug. 9, 2021; 91 FR 15869, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.220" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.11.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.220   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>This general license is subject to the provisions of § 72.84 for violation of the regulations under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Approval of Spent Fuel Storage Casks</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 29193, July 18, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 72.230" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.230   Procedures for spent fuel storage cask submittals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for approval of a spent fuel storage cask design must be submitted in accordance with the instructions contained in § 72.4. A safety analysis report describing the proposed cask design and how the cask should be used to store spent fuel safely must be included with the application.
</P>
<P>(b) Casks that have been certified for transportation of spent fuel under part 71 of this chapter may be approved for storage of spent fuel under this subpart. An application must be submitted in accordance with the instructions contained in § 72.4, for a proposed term not to exceed 40 years. A copy of the CoC issued for the cask under part 71 of this chapter, and drawings and other documents referenced in the certificate, must be included with the application. A safety analysis report showing that the cask is suitable for storage of spent fuel, for the term proposed in the application, must also be included.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public inspection.</I> An application for the approval of a cask for storage of spent fuel may be made available for public inspection under § 72.20.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fees.</I> Fees for reviews and evaluations related to issuance of a spent fuel storage cask Certificate of Compliance and inspections related to storage cask fabrication are those shown in § 170.31 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 29193, July 18, 1990, as amended at 76 FR 8891, Feb. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.232" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.232   Inspection and tests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC shall permit, and make provisions for, the NRC to inspect the premises and facilities where a spent fuel storage cask is designed, fabricated, and tested.
</P>
<P>(b) The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC shall make available to the NRC for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by them pertaining to the design, fabrication, and testing of spent fuel storage casks.
</P>
<P>(c) The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC shall perform, and make provisions that permit the NRC to perform, tests that the Commission deems necessary or appropriate for the administration of the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC shall submit a notification under § 72.4 at least 45 days prior to starting fabrication of the first spent fuel storage cask under a Certificate of Compliance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56126, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.234" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.234   Conditions of approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC shall ensure that the design, fabrication, testing, and maintenance of a spent fuel storage cask comply with the requirements in § 72.236.
</P>
<P>(b) The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC shall ensure that the design, fabrication, testing, and maintenance of spent fuel storage casks are conducted under a quality assurance program that meets the requirements of subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for a CoC may begin fabrication of spent fuel storage casks before the Commission issues a CoC for the cask; however, applicants who begin fabrication of casks without a CoC do so at their own risk. A cask fabricated before the CoC is issued shall be made to conform to the issued CoC before being placed in service or before spent fuel is loaded. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The certificate holder shall ensure that a record is established and maintained for each spent fuel storage cask fabricated under the CoC.
</P>
<P>(2) This record must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The NRC CoC number;
</P>
<P>(ii) The spent fuel storage cask model number;
</P>
<P>(iii) The spent fuel storage cask identification number;
</P>
<P>(iv) Date fabrication was started;
</P>
<P>(v) Date fabrication was completed;
</P>
<P>(vi) Certification that the spent fuel storage cask was designed, fabricated, tested, and repaired in accordance with a quality assurance program accepted by NRC;
</P>
<P>(vii) Certification that inspections required by § 72.236(j) were performed and found satisfactory; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The name and address of the licensee using the spent fuel storage cask.
</P>
<P>(3) The certificate holder shall supply the original of this record to the licensees using the spent fuel storage cask. A current copy of a composite record of all spent fuel storage casks manufactured under a CoC, showing the information in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, must be initiated and maintained by the certificate holder for each model spent fuel storage cask. If the certificate holder permanently ceases production of spent fuel storage casks under a CoC, the certificate holder shall send this composite record to the Commission using instructions in § 72.4.
</P>
<P>(e) The certificate holder and the licensees using the spent fuel storage cask shall ensure that the composite record required by paragraph (d) of this section is available to the Commission for inspection.
</P>
<P>(f) The certificate holder shall ensure that written procedures and appropriate tests are established prior to use of the spent fuel storage casks. A copy of these procedures and tests must be provided to each licensee using the spent fuel storage cask.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56126, Oct. 15, 1999, as amended at 65 FR 50617, Aug. 21, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.236" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.236   Specific requirements for spent fuel storage cask approval and fabrication.</HEAD>
<P>The certificate holder and applicant for a CoC shall ensure that the requirements of this section are met. 
</P>
<P>(a) Specifications must be provided for the spent fuel to be stored in the spent fuel storage cask, such as, but not limited to, type of spent fuel (<I>i.e.,</I> BWR, PWR, both), maximum allowable enrichment of the fuel prior to any irradiation, burn-up (<I>i.e.,</I> megawatt-days/MTU), minimum acceptable cooling time of the spent fuel prior to storage in the spent fuel storage cask, maximum heat designed to be dissipated, maximum spent fuel loading limit, condition of the spent fuel (<I>i.e.,</I> intact assembly or consolidated fuel rods), the inerting atmosphere requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Design bases and design criteria must be provided for structures, systems, and components important to safety.
</P>
<P>(c) The spent fuel storage cask must be designed and fabricated so that the spent fuel is maintained in a subcritical condition under credible conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) Radiation shielding and confinement features must be provided sufficient to meet the requirements in §§ 72.104 and 72.106.
</P>
<P>(e) The spent fuel storage cask must be designed to provide redundant sealing of confinement systems.
</P>
<P>(f) The spent fuel storage cask must be designed to provide adequate heat removal capacity without active cooling systems.
</P>
<P>(g) The spent fuel storage cask must be designed to store the spent fuel safely for the term proposed in the application, and permit maintenance as required.
</P>
<P>(h) The spent fuel storage cask must be compatible with wet or dry spent fuel loading and unloading facilities.
</P>
<P>(i) The spent fuel storage cask must be designed to facilitate decontamination to the extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(j) The spent fuel storage cask must be inspected to ascertain that there are no cracks, pinholes, uncontrolled voids, or other defects that could significantly reduce its confinement effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(k) The spent fuel storage cask must be conspicuously and durably marked with—
</P>
<P>(1) A model number;
</P>
<P>(2) A unique identification number; and
</P>
<P>(3) An empty weight.
</P>
<P>(l) The spent fuel storage cask and its systems important to safety must be evaluated, by appropriate tests or by other means acceptable to the NRC, to demonstrate that they will reasonably maintain confinement of radioactive material under normal, off-normal, and credible accident conditions.
</P>
<P>(m) To the extent practicable in the design of spent fuel storage casks, consideration should be given to compatibility with removal of the stored spent fuel from a reactor site, transportation, and ultimate disposition by the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(n) Safeguards Information shall be protected against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements of § 73.21 and the requirements of § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56126, Oct. 15, 1999, as amended at 65 FR 50617, Aug. 21, 2000; 73 FR 63573, Oct. 24, 2008; 76 FR 8891, Feb. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.238" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.238   Issuance of an NRC Certificate of Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>A Certificate of Compliance for a cask model will be issued by NRC for a term not to exceed 40 years on a finding that the requirements in § 72.236(a) through (i) are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 8891, Feb. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.240" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.240   Conditions for spent fuel storage cask renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The certificate holder may apply for renewal of the design of a spent fuel storage cask for a term not to exceed 40 years. In the event that the certificate holder does not apply for a cask design renewal, any licensee using a spent fuel storage cask, a representative of such licensee, or another certificate holder may apply for a renewal of that cask design for a term not to exceed 40 years.
</P>
<P>(b) The application for renewal of the design of a spent fuel storage cask must be submitted not less than 30 days before the expiration date of the CoC. When the applicant has submitted a timely application for renewal, the existing CoC will not expire until the application for renewal has been determined by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(c) The application must be accompanied by a safety analysis report (SAR). The SAR must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Design bases information as documented in the most recently updated final safety analysis report (FSAR) as required by § 72.248;
</P>
<P>(2) Time-limited aging analyses that demonstrate that structures, systems, and components important to safety will continue to perform their intended function for the requested period of extended operation; and
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the AMP for management of issues associated with aging that could adversely affect structures, systems, and components important to safety.
</P>
<P>(d) The design of a spent fuel storage cask will be renewed if the conditions in subpart G of this part and § 72.238 are met, and the application includes a demonstration that the storage of spent fuel has not, in a significant manner, adversely affected structures, systems, and components important to safety.
</P>
<P>(e) In approving the renewal of the design of a spent fuel storage cask, the NRC may revise the CoC to include terms, conditions, and specifications that will ensure the safe operation of the cask during the renewal term, including but not limited to, terms, conditions, and specifications that will require the implementation of an AMP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 8891, Feb. 16, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.242" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.242   Recordkeeping and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each certificate holder or applicant shall maintain any records and produce any reports that may be required by the conditions of the CoC or by the rules, regulations, and orders of the NRC in effectuating the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Records that are required by the regulations in this part or by conditions of the CoC must be maintained for the period specified by the appropriate regulation or the CoC conditions. If a retention period is not specified, the records must be maintained until the NRC terminates the CoC.
</P>
<P>(c) Any record maintained under this part may be either the original or a reproduced copy by any state-of-the-art method provided that any reproduced copy is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by NRC regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) Each certificate holder shall submit a written report to the NRC within 30 days of discovery of a design or fabrication deficiency, for any spent fuel storage cask which has been delivered to a licensee, when the design or fabrication deficiency affects the ability of structures, systems, and components important to safety to perform their intended safety function. The written report shall be sent to the NRC in accordance with the requirements of § 72.4. The report shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief abstract describing the deficiency, including all component or system failures that contributed to the deficiency and corrective action taken or planned to prevent recurrence;
</P>
<P>(2) A clear, specific, narrative description of what occurred so that knowledgeable readers familiar with the design of the spent fuel storage cask, but not familiar with the details of a particular cask, can understand the deficiency. The narrative description shall include the following specific information as appropriate for the particular event:
</P>
<P>(i) Dates and approximate times of discovery;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cause of each component or system failure, if known;
</P>
<P>(iii) The failure mode, mechanism, and effect of each failed component, if known;
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of systems or secondary functions that were also affected for failures of components with multiple functions;
</P>
<P>(v) The method of discovery of each component or system failure;
</P>
<P>(vi) The manufacturer and model number (or other identification) of each component that failed during the event;
</P>
<P>(vii) The model and serial numbers of the affected spent fuel storage casks;
</P>
<P>(viii) The licensees that have affected spent fuel storage casks;
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of the safety consequences and implications of the deficiency. This assessment shall include the availability of other systems or components that could have performed the same function as the components and systems that were affected;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of any corrective actions planned as a result of the deficiency, including those to reduce the probability of similar occurrences in the future;
</P>
<P>(5) Reference to any previous similar deficiencies at the same facility that are known to the certificate holder; and
</P>
<P>(6) The name and telephone number of a person within the certificate holder's organization who is knowledgeable about the deficiency and can provide additional information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56127, Oct. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.244" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.244   Application for amendment of a certificate of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a certificate holder desires to amend the CoC (including a change to the terms, conditions or specifications of the CoC), an application for an amendment shall be filed with the Commission fully describing the changes desired and the reasons for such changes, and following as far as applicable the form prescribed for original applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53617, Oct. 4, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.246" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.246   Issuance of amendment to a certificate of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether an amendment to a CoC will be issued to the applicant, the Commission will be guided by the considerations that govern the issuance of an initial CoC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53617, Oct. 4, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 72.248" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.12.12.121.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 72.248   Safety analysis report updating.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each certificate holder for a spent fuel storage cask design shall update periodically, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the final safety analysis report (FSAR) to assure that the information included in the report contains the latest information developed.
</P>
<P>(1) Each certificate holder shall submit an original FSAR to the Commission, in accordance with § 72.4, within 90 days after the spent fuel storage cask design has been approved pursuant to § 72.238.
</P>
<P>(2) The original FSAR shall be based on the safety analysis report submitted with the application and reflect any changes and applicant commitments developed during the cask design review process. The original FSAR shall be updated to reflect any changes to requirements contained in the issued Certificate of Compliance (CoC).
</P>
<P>(b) Each update shall contain all the changes necessary to reflect information and analyses submitted to the Commission by the certificate holder or prepared by the certificate holder pursuant to Commission requirement since the submission of the original FSAR or, as appropriate, the last update to the FSAR under this section. The update shall include the effects 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Effects of changes includes appropriate revisions of descriptions in the FSAR such that the FSAR (as updated) is complete and accurate.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) All changes made in the spent fuel storage cask design or procedures as described in the FSAR;
</P>
<P>(2) All safety analyses and evaluations performed by the certificate holder either in support of approved CoC amendments, or in support of conclusions that changes did not require a CoC amendment in accordance with § 72.48; and
</P>
<P>(3) All analyses of new safety issues performed by or on behalf of the certificate holder at Commission request. The information shall be appropriately located within the updated FSAR.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The update of the FSAR must be filed in accordance with § 72.4. If the update is filed on paper, then it should be filed on a page-replacement basis; if filed electronically, it should be filed on a full replacement basis. See Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the Commission at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) A paper update filed on a page-replacement basis must include a list that identifies the current pages of the FSAR following page replacement. If the update is filed electronically on a full replacement basis, it must include a list of changed pages. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each replacement page shall include both a change indicator for the area changed, e.g., a bold line vertically drawn in the margin adjacent to the portion actually changed, and a page change identification (date of change or change number or both);
</P>
<P>(4) The update shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A certification by a duly authorized officer of the certificate holder that either the information accurately presents changes made since the previous submittal, or that no such changes were made; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An identification of changes made by the certificate holder under the provisions of § 72.48, but not previously submitted to the Commission;
</P>
<P>(5) The update shall reflect all changes implemented up to a maximum of 6 months prior to the date of filing;
</P>
<P>(6) Updates shall be filed every 24 months from the date of issuance of the CoC; and
</P>
<P>(7) The certificate holder shall provide a copy of the updated FSAR to each general and specific licensee using its cask design.
</P>
<P>(d) The updated FSAR shall be retained by the certificate holder until the Commission terminates the certificate.
</P>
<P>(e) A certificate holder who permanently ceases operation, shall provide the updated FSAR to the new certificate holder or to the Commission, as appropriate, in accordance with § 72.234(d)(3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 53617, Oct. 4, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 73—PHYSICAL PROTECTION OF PLANTS AND MATERIALS 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 147, 149, 161, 161A, 170D, 170E, 170H, 170I, 223, 229, 234, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2167, 2169, 2201, 2201a, 2210d, 2210e, 2210h, 2210i, 2273, 2278a, 2282, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 135, 141 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Section 73.37(b)(2) also issued under Sec. 301, Public Law 96-295, 94 Stat. 789 (42 U.S.C. 5841 note).
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 35430, Dec. 28, 1973, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.1.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes requirements for the establishment and maintenance of a physical protection system which will have capabilities for the protection of special nuclear material at fixed sites and in transit and of plants in which special nuclear material is used. The following design basis threats, where referenced in ensuing sections of this part, shall be used to design safeguards systems to protect against acts of radiological sabotage and to prevent the theft or diversion of special nuclear material. Licensees subject to the provisions of § 73.20 (except for fuel cycle licensees authorized under part 70 of this chapter to receive, acquire, possess, transfer, use, or deliver for transportation formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material), §§ 73.50, and 73.60 are exempt from §§ 73.1(a)(1)(i)(E), 73.1(a)(1)(iii), 73.1(a)(1)(iv), 73.1(a)(2)(iii), and 73.1(a)(2)(iv). Licensees subject to the provisions of § 72.212 are exempt from § 73.1(a)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Radiological sabotage.</I> (i) A determined violent external assault, attack by stealth, or deceptive actions, including diversionary actions, by an adversary force capable of operating in each of the following modes: A single group attacking through one entry point, multiple groups attacking through multiple entry points, a combination of one or more groups and one or more individuals attacking through multiple entry points, or individuals attacking through separate entry points, with the following attributes, assistance and equipment:
</P>
<P>(A) Well-trained (including military training and skills) and dedicated individuals, willing to kill or be killed, with sufficient knowledge to identify specific equipment or locations necessary for a successful attack;
</P>
<P>(B) Active (e.g., facilitate entrance and exit, disable alarms and communications, participate in violent attack) or passive (e.g., provide information), or both, knowledgeable inside assistance;
</P>
<P>(C) Suitable weapons, including hand-held automatic weapons, equipped with silencers and having effective long range accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Hand-carried equipment, including incapacitating agents and explosives for use as tools of entry or for otherwise destroying reactor, facility, transporter, or container integrity or features of the safeguards system; and
</P>
<P>(E) Land and water vehicles, which could be used for transporting personnel and their hand-carried equipment to the proximity of vital areas; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An internal threat; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A land vehicle bomb assault, which may be coordinated with an external assault; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A waterborne vehicle bomb assault, which may be coordinated with an external assault; and
</P>
<P>(v) A cyber attack.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Theft or diversion of formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material.</I> (i) A determined violent external assault, attack by stealth, or deceptive actions, including diversionary actions, by an adversary force capable of operating in each of the following modes: a single group attacking through one entry point, multiple groups attacking through multiple entry points, a combination of one or more groups and one or individuals attacking through multiple entry points, or individuals attacking through separate entry points, with the following attributes, assistance and equipment:
</P>
<P>(A) Well-trained (including military training and skills) and dedicated individuals, willing to kill or be killed, with sufficient knowledge to identify specific equipment or locations necessary for a successful attack;
</P>
<P>(B) Active (e.g., facilitate entrance and exit, disable alarms and communications, participate in violent attack) or passive (e.g., provide information), or both, knowledgeable inside assistance;
</P>
<P>(C) Suitable weapons, including hand-held automatic weapons, equipped with silencers and having effective long-range accuracy;
</P>
<P>(D) Hand-carried equipment, including incapacitating agents and explosives for use as tools of entry or for otherwise destroying reactor, facility, transporter, or container integrity or features of the safe-guards system;
</P>
<P>(E) Land and water vehicles, which could be used for transporting personnel and their hand-carried equipment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An internal threat; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A land vehicle bomb assault, which may be coordinated with an external assault; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A waterborne vehicle bomb assault, which may be coordinated with an external assault; and
</P>
<P>(v) A cyber attack.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part prescribes requirements for: 


</P>
<P>(i) The physical protection of production and utilization facilities licensed under part 50, part 52, or part 53 of this chapter,
</P>
<P>(ii) The physical protection of plants in which activities licensed pursuant to part 70 of this chapter are conducted, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The physical protection of special nuclear material by any person who, pursuant to the regulations in part 61 or 70 of this chapter, possesses or uses at any site or contiguous sites subject to the control by the licensee, formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material or special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance or special nuclear material of low strategic significance.
</P>
<P>(2) This part prescribes requirements for the physical protection of special nuclear material in transportation by any person who is licensed pursuant to the regulations in parts 70 and 110 of this chapter who imports, exports, transports, delivers to a carrier for transport in a single shipment, or takes delivery of a single shipment free on board (F.O.B.) where it is delivered to a carrier, formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance or special nuclear material of low strategic significance.
</P>
<P>(3) This part also applies to shipments by air of special nuclear material in quantities exceeding: (i) 20 grams or 20 curies, whichever is less, of plutonium or uranium-233, or (ii) 350 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope).
</P>
<P>(4) Special nuclear material subject to this part may also be protected pursuant to security procedures prescribed by the Commission or another Government agency for the protection of classified materials. The provisions and requirements of this part are in addition to, and not in substitution for, any such security procedures. Compliance with the requirements of this part does not relieve any licensee from any requirement or obligation to protect special nuclear material pursuant to security procedures prescribed by the Commission or other Government agency for the protection of classified materials.
</P>
<P>(5) This part also applies to the shipment of irradiated reactor fuel in quantities that in a single shipment both exceed 100 grams in net weight of irradiated fuel, exclusive of cladding or other structural or packaging material, and have a total external radiation level in excess of 1 gray (100 rad) per hour at a distance of 1 meter (3.3 feet) from any accessible surface without intervening shielding.
</P>
<P>(6) This part prescribes requirements for the physical protection of spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste stored in either an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or a monitored retrievable storage (MRS) installation licensed under part 72 of this chapter, or stored at the geologic repository operations area licensed under part 60 or part 63 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(7) This part prescribes requirements for the protection of Safeguards Information (including Safeguards Information with the designation or marking: Safeguards Information—Modified Handling) in the hands of any person, whether or not a licensee of the Commission, who produces, receives, or acquires that information.
</P>
<P>(8) This part prescribes requirements for advance notice of export and import shipments of special nuclear material, including irradiated reactor fuel. 
</P>
<P>(9) As provided in part 76 of this chapter, the regulations of this part establish procedures and criteria for physical security for the issuance of a certificate of compliance or the approval of a compliance plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 68186, Nov. 28, 1979]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 73.1, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.1.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) Terms defined in parts 50, 52, 53, 70, and 95 of this chapter have the same meaning when used in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse firearms background check</I> means a firearms background check that has resulted in a “denied” or “delayed” NICS response from the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix A</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) For domestic shipments—the Regional Office within whose region the licensee who is responsible for the physical protection arrangements of the shipment is located. 
</P>
<P>(2) For export shipments—the Regional Office within whose region the licensee who is responsible for the physical protection arrangements of the shipment is located, and the Regional Office for the region in which the last point of exit of the shipment from the U.S. is located. 
</P>
<P>(3) For import shipments—the Regional Office within whose region the licensee who is responsible for the physical protection arrangements of the shipment is located, and the Regional Office for the region in which the first point of entry of the shipment into the U.S. is located. 
</P>
<P><I>Armed escort</I> means an armed person, not necessarily uniformed, whose primary duty is to accompany shipments of special nuclear material for the protection of such shipments against theft or radiological sabotage. 
</P>
<P><I>Armed response personnel</I> means persons, not necessarily uniformed, whose primary duty in the event of attempted theft of special nuclear material or radiological sabotage shall be to respond, armed and equipped, to prevent or delay such actions. 
</P>
<P><I>Authorized individual</I> means any individual, including an employee, a student, a consultant, or an agent of a licensee who has been designated in writing by a licensee to have responsibility for surveillance of or control over special nuclear material or to have unescorted access to areas where special nuclear material is used or stored. 
</P>
<P><I>Background check</I> includes, at a minimum, a Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) criminal history records check (including verification of identity based on fingerprinting), employment history, education, and personal references. Individuals engaged in activities subject to regulation by the Commission, applicants for licenses to engage in Commission-regulated activities, and individuals who have notified the Commission in writing of an intent to file an application for licensing, certification, permitting, or approval of a product or activity subject to regulation by the Commission are required under § 73.57 to conduct fingerprinting and criminal history records checks before granting access to Safeguards Information. A background check must be sufficient to support the trustworthiness and reliability determination so that the person performing the check and the Commission have assurance that granting individuals access to Safeguards Information does not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P><I>Bullet/resisting</I> means protection against complete penetration, passage of fragments of projectiles, and spalling (fragmentation) of the protective material that could cause injury to a person standing directly behind the bullet-resisting barrier. 
</P>
<P><I>Combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority</I> means the authority granted to the Commission, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2201a, to authorize licensees or the designated security personnel of a licensee to transfer, receive, possess, transport, import, and use one or more categories of enhanced weapons, notwithstanding any State, local, or certain Federal firearms laws, including regulations, that prohibit or restrict such conduct.
</P>
<P><I>Contiguous sites</I> means licensee controlled locations, deemed by the Commission to be in close enough proximity to each other, that the special nuclear material must be considered in the aggregate for the purpose of physical protection. 
</P>
<P><I>Continuous visual surveillance</I> means unobstructed view at all times of a shipment of special nuclear material, and of all access to a temporary storage area or cargo compartment containing the shipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlled access area</I> means any temporarily or permanently established area which is clearly demarcated, access to which is controlled and which affords isolation of the material or persons within it. 
</P>
<P><I>Contraband</I> means unauthorized firearms, explosives, incendiaries, or other dangerous materials (e.g., disease causing agents), which are capable of causing acts of sabotage against a licensed facility or licensed radioactive material, as specified under 42 U.S.C. 2284. For licensees that possess or conduct activities involving classified national security information or classified Restricted Data (RD) as defined in § 95.5 of this chapter, contraband also means unauthorized electronic devices or unauthorized electronic media that are capable of facilitating acts of espionage; unauthorized communication, transmission, disclosure, or receipt of RD; or tampering with RD, pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 793 or 42 U.S.C. 2274-2276, respectively. Contraband items are banned from a licensee's protected area, vital area, materials access area, or controlled access area. 
</P>
<P><I>Covered weapon</I> means any handgun, rifle, shotgun, short-barreled shotgun, short-barreled rifle, semiautomatic assault weapon, machine gun, ammunition for any such weapons, or large capacity ammunition feeding device otherwise prohibited by State, local, or certain Federal firearms laws, including regulations, as specified under 42 U.S.C. 2201a(b).
</P>
<P><I>Deceit</I> means methods used to attempt to gain unauthorized access, introduce unauthorized materials, or remove strategic special nuclear materials, where the attempt involves falsification to present the appearance of authorized access. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> and <I>Department of Energy</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>), to the extent that the Department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the U.S. Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components and transfered to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104(b), (c) and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151).
</P>
<P><I>Enhanced weapon</I> means any short-barreled shotgun, short-barreled rifle, or machine gun. Enhanced weapons do not include destructive devices as defined in 18 U.S.C. 921(a).
</P>
<P><I>Firearms background check</I> means a background check by the U.S. Attorney General pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2201a that includes a check against the Federal Bureau of Investigation's (FBI's) fingerprint system and the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.
</P>
<P><I>Force</I> means violent methods used by an adversary to attempt to steal strategic special nuclear material or to sabotage a nuclear facility or violent methods used by response personnel to protect against such adversary actions. 
</P>
<P><I>Formula quantity</I> means strategic special nuclear material in any combination in a quantity of 5,000 grams or more computed by the formula, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2.5 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium). This class of material is sometimes referred to as a Category I quantity of material. 
</P>
<P><I>Greater than Class C waste</I> or <I>GTCC waste</I> has the same meaning as defined in § 72.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Guard</I> means a uniformed individual armed with a firearm whose primary duty is the protection of special nuclear material against theft, the protection of a plant against radiological sabotage, or both. 
</P>
<P><I>Incendiary device</I> means any self-contained device intended to create an intense fire that can damage normally flame-resistant or retardant materials. 
</P>
<P><I>High-level radioactive waste or HLW</I> has the same meaning as defined in § 72.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Independent spent fuel storage installation or ISFSI</I> has the same meaning as defined in § 72.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Indian Tribe</I> means an Indian or Alaska Native Tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village, or community that the Secretary of the Interior acknowledges to exist as an Indian Tribe pursuant to the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994, 25 U.S.C. 5130.
</P>
<P><I>Individual authorized access to Safeguards Information</I> is an individual authorized to have access to and handle such information pursuant to the requirements of §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Individual authorized access to Safeguards Information—Modified Handling</I> is an individual authorized to have access to and handle Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information—Modified Handling information pursuant to the requirements of §§ 73.21 and 73.23 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Intrusion alarm</I> means a tamper indicating electrical, electromechanical, electrooptical, electronic or similar device which will detect intrusion by an individual into a building, protected area, vital area, or material access area, and alert guards or watchmen by means of actuated visible and audible signals. 
</P>
<P><I>Isolation zone</I> means any area adjacent to a physical barrier, clear of all objects which could conceal or shield an individual. 
</P>
<P><I>Lock</I> in the case of vaults or vault type rooms means a three-position, manipulation resistant, dial type, built-in combination lock or combination padlock and in the case of fences, walls, and buildings means an integral door lock or padlock which provides protection equivalent to a six-tumbler cylinder lock. <I>Lock</I> in the case of a vault or vault type room also means any manipulation resistant, electromechanical device which provides the same function as a built-in combination lock or combination padlock, which can be operated remotely or by the <I>reading</I> or insertion of information, which can be uniquely characterized, and which allows operation of the device. <I>Locked</I> means protected by an operable lock. 
</P>
<P><I>Material access area</I> means any location which contains special nuclear material, within a vault or a building, the roof, walls, and floor of which each constitute a physical barrier. 
</P>
<P><I>Movement control center</I> means an operations center which is remote from the transport activity and which maintains position information on the movement of special nuclear material or radioactive material; receives reports of actual or attempted attacks, thefts, or sabotage; provides a means for notifying these and other problems to the NRC and appropriate agencies; and can request and coordinate appropriate aid.
</P>
<P><I>Need to know</I> means a determination by a person having responsibility for protecting Safeguards Information (including Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information—Modified Handling) that a proposed recipient's access to Safeguards Information is necessary in the performance of official, contractual, licensee, applicant, or certificate holder employment. In an adjudication, “need to know” means a determination by the originator of the information that the information is necessary to enable the proposed recipient to proffer and/or adjudicate a specific contention in that proceeding, and the proposed recipient of the specific Safeguards Information possesses demonstrable knowledge, skill, training, or education to effectively utilize the specific Safeguards Information in the proceeding. Where the information is in the possession of the originator and the NRC staff (dual possession), whether in its original form or incorporated into another document or other matter by the recipient, the NRC staff makes the determination. In the event of a dispute regarding the “need to know” determination, the presiding officer of the proceeding shall make the “need to know” determination.
</P>
<P><I>NICS</I> means the National Instant Criminal Background Check System established by Section 103(b) of the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act, Public Law 103-159 (107 Stat. 1536), that is operated by the FBI's Criminal Justice Information Services Division.
</P>
<P><I>NICS response</I> means a response provided by the FBI, as the result of a firearms background check against the NICS. A NICS response provided by the FBI may be “proceed,” “delayed,” or “denied.”
</P>
<P><I>NICS transaction number</I> or <I>NTN</I> means the identification number created by the FBI to track firearms background checks upon entry of the information into the FBI's system. The NICS response and the NTN are the information returned by the FBI, following a firearms background check.
</P>
<P><I>Non-power reactor</I> is defined at 10 CFR 50.2.


</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means (1) any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy (DOE), (except that the DOE shall be considered a person to the extent that its facilities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 and sections 104, 105, and 202 of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978), any state or political subdivision of a state, or any political subdivision of any government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Physical barrier</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Fences constructed of No. 11 American wire gauge, or heavier wire fabric, topped by three strands or more of barbed wire or similar material on brackets angled inward or outward between 30° and 45° from the vertical, with an overall height of not less than eight feet, including the barbed topping;
</P>
<P>(2) Building walls, ceilings and floors constructed of stone, brick, cinder block, concrete, steel or comparable materials (openings in which are secured by grates, doors, or covers of construction and fastening of sufficient strength such that the integrity of the wall is not lessened by any opening), or walls of similar construction, not part of a building, provided with a barbed topping described in paragraph (1) of this definition of a height of not less than 8 feet; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other physical obstruction constructed in a manner and of materials suitable for the purpose for which the obstruction is intended. 
</P>
<P><I>Protected area</I> means an area encompassed by physical barriers and to which access is controlled. 
</P>
<P><I>Radiological sabotage</I> means any deliberate act directed against a plant or transport in which an activity licensed pursuant to the regulations in this chapter is conducted, or against a component of such a plant or transport which could directly or indirectly endanger the public health and safety by exposure to radiation. 
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data or RD</I> has the same meaning as defined in § 95.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Safeguards Information</I> means information not classified as National Security Information or Restricted Data which specifically identifies a licensee's or applicant's detailed control and accounting procedures for the physical protection of special nuclear material in quantities determined by the Commission through order or regulation to be significant to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; detailed security measures (including security plans, procedures, and equipment) for the physical protection of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material in quantities determined by the Commission through order or regulation to be significant to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; security measures for the physical protection of and location of certain plant equipment vital to the safety of production or utilization facilities; and any other information within the scope of Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the unauthorized disclosure of which, as determined by the Commission through order or regulation, could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of sabotage or theft or diversion of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Safeguards Information—Modified Handling</I> is the designation or marking applied to Safeguards Information which the Commission has determined requires handling requirements modified from the specific Safeguards Information handling requirements that are applicable to Safeguards Information needing a higher level of protection.
</P>
<P><I>Satisfactory firearms background check</I> means a firearms background check that has resulted in a “proceed” NICS response.
</P>
<P><I>Security management</I> means persons responsible for security at the policy and general management level. 
</P>
<P><I>Security Storage Container</I> includes any of the following repositories: (1) For storage in a building located within a protected or controlled access area, a steel filing cabinet equipped with a steel locking bar and a three position, changeable combination, GSA approved padlock; (2) A security filing cabinet that bears a Test Certification Label on the side of the locking drawer, or interior plate, and is marked, <I>General Services Administration Approved Security Container</I> on the exterior of the top drawer or door; (3) A bank safe-deposit box; and (4) Other repositories which in the judgement of the NRC, would provide comparable physical protection. 
</P>
<P><I>Security supervision</I> means persons, not necessarily uniformed or armed, whose primary duties are supervision and direction of security at the day-to-day operating level. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material (SNM)</I> has the same meaning as defined in § 70.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material of low strategic significance</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Less than an amount of special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of strategic nuclear material of moderate strategic significance in this section, but more than 15 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in U-235 isotope) or 15 grams of uranium-233 or 15 grams of plutonium or the combination of 15 grams when computed by the equation, grams = (grams contained U-235) + (grams plutonium) + (grams U-233); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Less than 10,000 grams but more than 1,000 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 10 percent or more but less than 20 percent in the U-235 isotope); or 
</P>
<P>(3) 10,000 grams or more of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched above natural but less than 10 percent in the U-235 isotope). 
</P>
<FP>This class of material is sometimes referred to as a Category III quantity of material. 
</FP>
<P><I>Special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Less than a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material but more than 1,000 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope) or more than 500 grams of uranium-233 or plutonium, or in a combined quantity of more than 1,000 grams when computed by the equation, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium); or 
</P>
<P>(2) 10,000 grams or more of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 10 percent or more but less than 20 percent in the U-235 isotope). 
</P>
<FP>This class of material is sometimes referred to as a Category II quantity of material. 
</FP>
<P><I>Spent nuclear fuel (SNF) or spent fuel</I> means the fuel that has been withdrawn from a nuclear reactor following irradiation and has not been chemically separated into its constituent elements by reprocessing. Spent nuclear fuel includes the special nuclear material, byproduct material, source material, and other radioactive materials associated with a fuel assembly.
</P>
<P><I>Stand-alone preemption authority</I> means the authority granted to the Commission, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2201a, to authorize licensees or the designated security personnel of a licensee to transfer, receive, possess, transport, import, and use one or more categories of covered weapons, notwithstanding any State, local, or certain Federal firearms laws, including regulations, that prohibit or restrict such conduct. Such covered weapons do not include enhanced weapons as defined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Stealth</I> means methods used to attempt to gain unauthorized access, introduce unauthorized materials, or remove strategic special nuclear material, where the fact of such attempt is concealed or an attempt is made to conceal it. 
</P>
<P><I>Strategic special nuclear material</I> means uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope), uranium-233, or plutonium. 
</P>
<P><I>Tactical Response Team</I> means the primary response force for each shift which can be identified by a distinctive item of uniform, armed with specified weapons, and whose other duties permit immediate response.
</P>
<P><I>Time of discovery</I> means the time at which a cognizant individual observes, identifies, or is notified of a security-significant event or condition. A cognizant individual is considered anyone who, by position, experience, and/or training, is expected to understand that a particular condition or event adversely impacts security.
</P>
<P><I>Transport</I> means any land, sea, or air conveyance or modules for these conveyances such as rail cars or standardized cargo containers. 
</P>
<P><I>Tribal official</I> means the highest ranking individual that represents Tribal leadership, such as the Chief, President, or Tribal Council leadership.
</P>
<P><I>Trustworthiness and reliability</I> are characteristics of an individual considered dependable in judgment, character, and performance, such that disclosure of Safeguards Information (including Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information—Modified Handling) to that individual does not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety or common defense and security. A determination of trustworthiness and reliability for this purpose is based upon a background check.
</P>
<P><I>Undergoing processing</I> means performing active operations on material such as chemical transformation, physical transformation, or transit between such operations, to be differentiated from storage or packaging for shipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Vault</I> means a windowless enclosure with walls, floor, roof and door(s) designed and constructed to delay penetration from forced entry. 
</P>
<P><I>Vault-type room</I> means a room with one or more doors, all capable of being locked, protected by an intrusion alarm which creates an alarm upon the entry of a person anywhere into the room and upon exit from the room or upon movement of an individual within the room. 
</P>
<P><I>Vital area</I> means any area which contains vital equipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Vital equipment</I> means any equipment, system, device, or material, the failure, destruction, or release of which could directly or indirectly endanger the public health and safety by exposure to radiation. Equipment or systems which would be required to function to protect public health and safety following such failure, destruction, or release are also considered to be vital. 
</P>
<P><I>Watchman</I> means an individual, not necessarily uniformed or armed with a firearm, who provides protection for a plant and the special nuclear material therein in the course of performing other duties. 
</P>
<P>(b) The terms “ammunition,” “handgun,” “rifle,” “machine gun,” “large capacity ammunition feeding device,” “semiautomatic assault weapon,” “short-barreled shotgun,” “short-barreled rifle,” and “shotgun” specified in §§ 73.15 and 73.17 have the same meaning as provided for these terms in the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives' regulations at 27 CFR 478.11.
</P>
<P>(c) The terms “delayed,” “denied,” and “proceed” that are used in NICS responses specified in this section have the same meaning provided these terms in the FBI's regulations at 28 CFR 25.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 35430, Dec. 28, 1973]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 73.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.1.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.3   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretations of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized as binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 35430, Dec. 28, 1973, as amended at 90 FR 55632, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.1.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) By mail addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, or Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, as appropriate, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001;
</P>
<P>(b) By hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2783; 
</P>
<P>(c) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. 
</P>
<P>(d) Classified communications shall be transmitted to the NRC Headquarters' classified mailing address as specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter or delivered by hand in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58819, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 73 FR 5725, Jan. 31, 2008; 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019; 88 FR 57879, Aug. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.1.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.5   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.1.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.6   Exemptions for certain quantities and kinds of special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>A licensee is exempt from the requirements of 10 CFR part 26 and §§ 73.20, 73.25, 73.26, 73.27, 73.45, 73.46, 73.70 and 73.72 with respect to the following special nuclear material: 
</P>
<P>(a) Uranium-235 contained in uranium enriched to less than 20 percent in the U-235 isotope.
</P>
<P>(b) Special nuclear material which is not readily separable from other radioactive material and which has a total external radiation level in excess of 1 gray (100 rad) per hour at a distance of 1 meter (3.3 feet) from any accessible surface without intervening shielding.
</P>
<P>(c) Special nuclear material in a quantity not exceeding 350 grams of uranium-235, uranium-233, plutonium, or a combination thereof, possessed in any analytical, research, quality control, metallurgical or electronic laboratory. 
</P>
<P>(d) Special nuclear material that is being transported by the United States Department of Energy transport system. 
</P>
<P>(e) Special nuclear material at non-power reactors. 
</P>
<FP>Licensees subject to § 73.60 are not exempted from §§ 73.70 and 73.72, and licensees subject to § 73.67(e) are not exempted from § 73.72 of this part.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 52841, Nov. 13, 1975, as amended at 44 FR 68187, Nov. 28, 1979; 58 FR 31471, June 3, 1993; 78 FR 34250, June 7, 2013; 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.1.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information is it does not display a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0002.


</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 73.5, 73.15, 73.17, 73.20, 73.21, 73.24, 73.25, 73.26, 73.27, 73.37, 73.40, 73.45, 73.46, 73.50, 73.54, 73.55, 73.56, 73.57, 73.58, 73.60, 73.67, 73.70, 73.72, 73.73, 73.74, 73.77, 73.100, 73.110, 73.120, 73.1200, 73.1205, 73.1210, 73.1215, and appendices B and C to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 73.17, NRC Form 754 is approved under control number 3150-0204;
</P>
<P>(2) In §§ 73.17 and 73.57, Federal Bureau of Investigation Form FD-258 is approved under control number 1110-0046; and
</P>
<P>(3) In § 73.1205, NRC Form 366 is approved under control number 3150-0104.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52189, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 67101, Nov. 4, 2002; 73 FR 63574, Oct. 24, 2008; 74 FR 13970, Mar. 27, 2009; 77 FR 39909, July 6, 2012; 78 FR 29550, May 20, 2013; 80 FR 67275, Nov. 2, 2015; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015; 88 FR 15882, Mar. 14, 2023; 91 FR 15870, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enhanced Weapons, Preemption, and Firearms Background Checks</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 15882, Mar. 14, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.2.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.15   Authorization for use of enhanced weapons and preemption of firearms laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section presents the requirements for licensees to obtain approval to use the authority provided to the Commission under Section 161A of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (AEA), in protecting Commission-designated classes of facilities, radioactive material, or other property. This authority includes “stand-alone preemption authority” and “combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General Requirements.</I> (1) Licensees of facilities, activities, and other property listed in paragraph (c) of this section may apply to the NRC, in accordance with the provisions of this section, to receive stand-alone preemption authority or combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to the possession and use of firearms by all other NRC licensees, the Commission's requirements in effect before April 13, 2023 remain applicable, except to the extent that those requirements are modified by an NRC order or regulations applicable to these licensees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) Stand-alone preemption authority. The license holders for the following classes of facilities, radioactive material, or other property are designated by the Commission as eligible to apply for stand-alone preemption authority pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2201a—
</P>
<P>(i) Nuclear power reactor facilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilities authorized to possess or use a formula quantity or greater of strategic special nuclear material, where the material has a radiation level less than or equal to 1 gray (Gy) (100 Rad) per hour at a distance of 1 meter (m) (3.3 feet (ft)), without regard to any intervening shielding;
</P>
<P>(iii) Independent spent fuel storage installations; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Spent nuclear fuel transportation.
</P>
<P>(2) Combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority. The license holders for the following classes of facilities, radioactive material, or other property are designated by the Commission as eligible to apply for combined enhanced weapons authority and preemption authority pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2201a—
</P>
<P>(i) Nuclear power reactor facilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilities authorized to possess or use a formula quantity or greater of strategic special nuclear material, where the material has a radiation level less than or equal to 1 Gy (100 Rad) per hour at a distance of 1 m (3.3 ft), without regard to any intervening shielding;
</P>
<P>(iii) Independent spent fuel storage installations; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Spent nuclear fuel transportation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application process for stand-alone preemption authority.</I> (1) Only licensees included within the classes of facilities, radioactive material, and other property listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section may apply to the NRC for stand-alone preemption authority.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees applying for stand-alone preemption authority must submit an application to the NRC using the procedures specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The contents of the application must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement indicating that the licensee is applying for stand-alone preemption authority;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission-designated facility, radioactive material, or other property to be protected by the licensee's security personnel using the covered weapons;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the licensee's purposes and objectives in requesting stand-alone preemption authority. This description must include whether these covered weapons are currently employed as part of the licensee's existing protective strategy or whether these covered weapons will be used in a revised protective strategy; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the licensee's Firearms Background Check Plan, as required by § 73.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Once a licensee has been notified that its application for stand-alone preemption authority has been accepted for review by the NRC, the licensee must provide the following supplemental information once it becomes available:
</P>
<P>(i) A confirmation that a sufficient number of security personnel have completed a satisfactory firearms background check to meet the licensee's security personnel minimum staffing requirements, as specified in its physical security plan and any applicable fatigue requirements under part 26 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) A confirmation that the necessary training modules and notification procedures have been developed under its Firearms Background Check Plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A confirmation that all security personnel whose official duties require access to covered weapons have been trained on these modules and notification procedures.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee must submit both the application and the supplementary information to the NRC in writing, under oath or affirmation, and in accordance with § 73.4 of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Upon the effective date of the NRC's approval of its application for stand-alone preemption authority, the licensee must only assign security personnel who have completed a satisfactory firearms background check to duties requiring access to any covered weapons.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application process for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority.</I> (1) Only licensees included within the classes of facilities, radioactive material, and other property listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section may apply to the NRC for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees applying for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority must submit an application to the NRC using the procedures specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The contents of the application must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement indicating that the licensee is applying for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Commission-designated facility, radioactive material, or other property to be protected by the licensee's security personnel using the covered weapons, including enhanced weapons;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the licensee's purposes and objectives in requesting combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority. This must include whether these enhanced weapons are currently employed as part of the licensee's existing protective strategy or whether these enhanced weapons will be used in a revised protective strategy;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total quantities of enhanced weapons, including the types and calibers or gauges, requested; and
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the licensee's Firearms Background Check Plan, required by § 73.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the NRC has previously approved the licensee's application for stand-alone preemption authority under either paragraph (d) of this section or under an NRC Order issued before April 13, 2023, then the licensee must include the effective date of the NRC's approval for stand-alone preemption authority in its application for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee must include with its application the additional technical information required by paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Once a licensee has been notified that its application for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority has been accepted for review by the NRC, the licensee must provide the following supplemental information once it becomes available:
</P>
<P>(i) A confirmation that a sufficient number of security personnel have completed a satisfactory firearms background check to meet the licensee's security personnel minimum staffing requirements, as specified in its physical security plan, and any applicable fatigue requirements under part 26 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) A confirmation that the necessary training modules and notification procedures have been developed under its Firearms Background Check Plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A confirmation that security personnel, whose official duties require access to enhanced weapons, have been trained on these modules and notification procedures.
</P>
<P>(iv) Exceptions: Licensees that were previously approved by the NRC for stand-alone preemption authority do not have to submit the supplemental information required by paragraph (e)(5) since it has been previously submitted under paragraph (d)(4) of this section or in response to an NRC Order.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee must submit its application in accordance with the applicable license amendment provisions specified in § 50.90, § 70.34, or § 72.56 of this chapter. The licensee must submit both the application and the supplementary information to the NRC in writing, under oath or affirmation, and in accordance with § 73.4 of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) If a licensee wishes to use a different type or caliber or gauge of an enhanced weapon or obtain a different quantity of enhanced weapons from that previously approved by the Commission under this section, then the licensee must submit a new application to the NRC in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section (to address these different weapons or different quantities of weapons).
</P>
<P>(8) Upon the effective date of the NRC's approval of its application for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority, the licensee must only assign security personnel who have completed a satisfactory firearms background check to duties requiring access to any covered weapons.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority additional technical information.</I> (1) A licensee must also submit to the NRC for prior review and approval the following plans and assessments. These plans and assessments must be specific to the facility, radioactive material, or other property being protected.
</P>
<P>(i) A new or revised physical security plan, security personnel training and qualification plan, and safeguards contingency plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A new weapons safety assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to other requirements presented in this part, these plans and assessments must—
</P>
<P>(i) For the physical security plan, identify the quantities, types, and calibers or gauges of enhanced weapons that will be deployed;
</P>
<P>(ii) For the training and qualification plan, address the training and qualification requirements to use these specific enhanced weapons;
</P>
<P>(iii) For the safeguards contingency plan—
</P>
<P>(A) The licensee must address how these enhanced weapons will be employed by the security personnel in implementing the protective strategy, including tactical approaches and maneuvers;
</P>
<P>(B) In such instances where the addition of the enhanced weapons would not affect the content of the safeguards contingency plan, the required information on how the weapons will be employed may instead be incorporated into the licensee's physical security plan or an addendum thereto;
</P>
<P>(C) Furthermore, in such instances, the licensee's application shall indicate that the proposed enhanced weapons do not affect the content of the NRC-approved safeguards contingency plan and it remains unchanged; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For the weapons safety assessment, assess any potential safety impact by the use of enhanced weapons—
</P>
<P>(A) At the facility, radioactive material, or other property being protected;
</P>
<P>(B) On public or private facilities, public or private property, or on members of the public in areas outside of the site boundary; and
</P>
<P>(C) On public or private facilities, public or private property, or on members of the public from the use of these enhanced weapons at training facilities; and
</P>
<P>(D) Such assessments must consider both accidental and deliberate discharge of the enhanced weapons. However, licensees are not required to assess malevolent discharges of these enhanced weapons by trained and qualified security personnel, who have been screened and evaluated by the licensee's insider mitigation or human reliability programs.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee's training and qualification plan for enhanced weapons must be based upon applicable firearms standards developed by nationally-recognized firearms organizations or standard setting bodies or from standards developed by—
</P>
<P>(i) Federal agencies, such as the U.S. Department of Homeland Security's Federal Law Enforcement Training Center, the U.S. Department of Energy's National Training Center, and the U.S. Department of Defense;
</P>
<P>(ii) State law-enforcement training centers; or
</P>
<P>(iii) State Division (or Department) of Criminal Justice Services Training Academies.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conditions of approval.</I> (1) Licensees that have been approved by the NRC for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority must provide a copy of the NRC's authorization to the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives' (ATF) Federal firearms license (FFL) holder (<I>i.e.,</I> the transferor) for inclusion with the application to request ATF's pre-approval of the transfer and registration of the enhanced weapons to the NRC licensee (<I>i.e.,</I> the transferee).
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees receiving enhanced weapons must comply with applicable ATF regulations in 27 CFR part 479.
</P>
<P>(3) All enhanced weapons possessed by the licensee must be registered under the name of the licensee. Enhanced weapons may not be registered under the name of a licensee's security contractor.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees obtaining enhanced weapons may, at their discretion, also apply to ATF to obtain an FFL or a special occupational tax stamp, in conjunction with obtaining these enhanced weapons.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Completion of training and qualification before deployment of enhanced weapons.</I> (1) Licensees that have received combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority must ensure that their security personnel with access to enhanced weapons have completed the required firearms training and qualification, in accordance with the licensee's training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Initial training and qualification on enhanced weapons must be completed before the security personnel's deployment of enhanced weapons to implement the licensee's protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(3) Recurring training and qualification on enhanced weapons by security personnel must be completed in accordance with the licensee's training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(4) All training must be documented in accordance with the requirements of the licensee's training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Use of enhanced weapons.</I> The requirements regarding the use of force by the licensee's security personnel, in the performance of their official duties, are contained in §§ 73.46, 73.51, and 73.55 and in appendices B, C, and H of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notification of adverse ATF findings.</I> Requirements on notification of adverse ATF inspection or enforcement findings can be found under § 73.1200 of this part.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Transfer of enhanced weapons.</I> (1)(i) A licensee's issuance of enhanced weapons to its security personnel is not considered a transfer of those weapons as specified under ATF's regulations in 27 CFR part 479, provided the enhanced weapons remain within the site of a facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Remaining within the site of a facility means within the site boundary, as defined by the licensee's safety analysis report submitted to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee's issuance of enhanced weapons to its security personnel for the permissible reasons specified in paragraph (m)(3) of this section, for activities that are outside of the facility's site boundary, are not considered a transfer under the provisions of 26 U.S.C. chapter 53, as specified under ATF's regulations in 27 CFR part 479, provided—
</P>
<P>(i) The security personnel possessing the enhanced weapons are employees of the licensee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The security personnel possessing the enhanced weapons are employees of a contractor providing security services to the licensee and these contractor security personnel are under the direction of, and accompanied by, an authorized licensee employee.
</P>
<P>(3) Permissible reasons for removal of enhanced weapons from the licensee's facility include—
</P>
<P>(i) Removal of enhanced weapons for use at a firing range or training facility that is used by the licensee in accordance with its NRC-approved training and qualification plan for enhanced weapons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Removal of enhanced weapons for use in escorting shipments of radioactive material or other property designated under paragraph (c) of this section that are being transported to or from the licensee's facility; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Removal of an enhanced weapon from a licensee's facility to a gunsmith for the purposes of repair or maintenance and the subsequent return of the enhanced weapon to the licensee's facility.
</P>
<P>(4) A licensee that has authorized the removal of enhanced weapons from its facility for any of the permissible reasons listed under paragraph (m)(3) of this section must verify that these weapons are returned to the facility upon the completion of the authorized activity.
</P>
<P>(5) Removal of enhanced weapons from and/or return of these weapons to the licensee's facility must be documented in accordance with the records requirements of paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Removal of enhanced weapons from a licensee's facility for reasons other than those set forth in paragraph (m)(3) of this section are considered a transfer as specified under ATF's regulations in 27 CFR part 479.
</P>
<P>(7) The licensee may only transfer enhanced weapons pursuant to an ATF application to transfer and register the weapons that is approved by ATF in advance of the transfer, as required by ATF's regulations under 27 CFR part 479. Examples of transfers include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Sale or disposal of an enhanced weapon to another authorized NRC licensee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Sale or disposal of an enhanced weapon to an authorized Federal firearms license holder, government agency, or official police organization; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Abandonment of an enhanced weapon to ATF.
</P>
<P>(8) Following the completion of their official duties, security personnel must either—
</P>
<P>(i) Return issued enhanced weapons to a licensee's authorized enhanced weapons storage location, as specified in the licensee's physical security plan, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Turn over responsibility for the issued enhanced weapon to another on-shift security personnel authorized to use enhanced weapons as part of their official duties.
</P>
<P>(9) Enhanced weapons that are not returned to the licensee's facility, following permissible removal, must be considered a transfer of a weapon under this paragraph, or a stolen or lost weapon under paragraph (p) of this section, as applicable. Information on the transfer, theft, or loss of an enhanced weapon must be documented, as required under paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Transport of weapons.</I> (1) Security personnel transporting enhanced weapons to or from a firing range or training facility used by the licensee must ensure that these weapons are unloaded and locked in a secure container during transport. Unloaded weapons and ammunition may be transported in the same locked secure container.
</P>
<P>(2) Security personnel transporting enhanced weapons to or from a licensee's facility following the completion of, or in preparation for, escorting shipments of radioactive material or other property must ensure that these weapons are unloaded and locked in a secure container during transport. Security personnel may transport unloaded weapons and ammunition in the same locked secure container.
</P>
<P>(3) Security personnel using enhanced weapons to protect shipments of radioactive material or other property that are being transported to or from the licensee's facility must ensure that these weapons are maintained in a state of loaded readiness and available for immediate use, except when otherwise prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 922(q).
</P>
<P>(4) Security personnel transporting enhanced weapons to or from the licensee's facility must also comply with the requirements of § 73.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Situations where security personnel transport enhanced weapons to or from the licensee's facility are not considered transfers of these weapons under ATF's regulations in 27 CFR part 479, provided—
</P>
<P>(i) The security personnel transporting the enhanced weapons are employees of the licensee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The security personnel transporting the enhanced weapons are employees of a contractor providing security services to the licensee; and these contractor security personnel are under the direction of, and accompanied by, an authorized licensee employee.
</P>
<P>(6) For the interstate transportation of enhanced weapons, pursuant to this section, the licensee must obtain prior written approval from ATF, as required by 27 CFR part 478.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Periodic inventories of enhanced weapons.</I> (1) Licensees possessing enhanced weapons under this section must conduct the following periodic accountability inventories of the enhanced weapons in their possession to verify the continued presence of each enhanced weapon that the licensee is authorized to possess.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Licensees must conduct a monthly inventory to verify that the authorized quantity of enhanced weapons are present at the licensee's facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees must verify the presence of each individual enhanced weapon.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensees that store enhanced weapons in a locked secure weapons container (e.g., a ready-service arms locker) located within a protected area, vital area, or material access area may verify the presence of an intact tamper-indicating device (TID) on the locked secure weapons container, instead of verifying the presence of each individual weapon.
</P>
<P>(iv) Verification of the presence of enhanced weapons via the presence of an intact TID must be documented in the inventory records and include the serial number of the TID.
</P>
<P>(v) Licensees may use electronic technology (e.g., bar-codes on the weapons) in conducting such inventories.
</P>
<P>(vi) The time interval from the previous monthly inventory must not exceed 30 + 7 days.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Licensees must conduct an annual inventory to verify that each authorized enhanced weapon is present at the licensee's facility through the verification of the serial number of each enhanced weapon.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees must verify the presence of each enhanced weapon located in a locked secure weapons container (e.g., a ready-service arms locker) through the verification of the serial number of each enhanced weapon located within the container.
</P>
<P>(iii) The time interval from the previous annual inventory must not exceed 365 + 7 days.
</P>
<P>(iv) Licensees conducting an annual inventory may substitute this annual inventory in lieu of conducting the normal monthly inventory for that particular month, as required under paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees must conduct periodic inventories of enhanced weapons using either a two-person team or a single individual, provided the individual is subject to the licensee's behavioral observation or human reliability programs.
</P>
<P>(5) The results of any periodic inventories of enhanced weapons must be retained in accordance with the records requirements of paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Licensees must inventory any locked secure weapons container that was sealed with a TID and has subsequently been opened and must verify the serial number for each of the enhanced weapons stored in the weapons container. The inventoried weapons container must be relocked and resealed with a new TID and the new TID's serial number must be recorded in the periodic inventory records. The inventory must be conducted in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (o)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees must use TIDs with unique serial numbers on locked secure weapons containers containing enhanced weapons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees must store unused TIDs in a manner similar to other security access control devices (e.g., keys, lock cores, etc.) and must maintain a log of issued TID serial numbers.
</P>
<P>(7) Licensees must resolve any discrepancies identified during periodic inventories within 24 hours of their identification; otherwise, the discrepancy must be treated as a stolen or lost enhanced weapon and notifications must be made in accordance with paragraph (p) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) As an exception, enhanced weapons that are offsite for authorized purposes, in accordance with paragraphs (m) and (n) of this section, are required to be included in a periodic inventory but are not considered lost or stolen solely because they are offsite. The licensee must document the absence of these weapon(s) from the licensee's facility in the report of the results of a completed periodic enhanced weapons inventory, as required under paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Stolen or lost enhanced weapons.</I> (1) Licensees that discover that any enhanced weapons they are authorized to possess under this section are stolen or lost, must notify the NRC and local law enforcement officials in accordance with § 73.1200 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees that discover that any enhanced weapons they are authorized to possess under this section are stolen or lost are also required to notify ATF in accordance with ATF's regulations in 27 CFR part 479.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Records requirements.</I> (1) Licensees possessing enhanced weapons under this section must maintain records relating to the receipt, transfer, transportation, and inventory of such enhanced weapons.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees must maintain the following minimum records regarding the receipt of each enhanced weapon, including—
</P>
<P>(i) Date of receipt of the weapon;
</P>
<P>(ii) Name and address of the transferor who transferred the weapon to the licensee;
</P>
<P>(iii) Name of the manufacturer of the weapon, or the name of the importer (for weapons manufactured outside the U.S.); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Serial number, type, and caliber or gauge of the weapon.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees must maintain the following minimum records regarding the transfer of each enhanced weapon—
</P>
<P>(i) Date of shipment of the weapon;
</P>
<P>(ii) Name and address of the transferee who received the weapon; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Serial number, type, and caliber or gauge of the weapon.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees must maintain the following minimum records regarding the transportation of each enhanced weapon away from the licensee's facility—
</P>
<P>(i) Date of departure of the weapon;
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of return of the weapon;
</P>
<P>(iii) Purpose of the weapon's removal from the facility;
</P>
<P>(iv) Name(s) of the security personnel transporting the weapon;
</P>
<P>(v) Name(s) of the licensee employee accompanying and directing the transportation, where the security personnel transporting the weapons are employees of a security contractor providing security services to the licensee;
</P>
<P>(vi) Name of the person/facility to whom the weapon is being transported; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Serial number, type, and caliber or gauge of the weapon.
</P>
<P>(5) Licensees possessing enhanced weapons pursuant to this section must document in these records the discovery that any of these enhanced weapons are stolen or lost.
</P>
<P>(6) Licensees possessing enhanced weapons pursuant to this section must maintain records relating to the inventories of enhanced weapons for a period of up to one year after the licensee's authority to possess enhanced weapons is terminated, suspended, or revoked under paragraph (r) of this section and all enhanced weapons have been transferred from the licensee's facility.
</P>
<P>(7) Licensees may integrate any records required by this section with records maintained by the licensee pursuant to ATF's regulations.
</P>
<P>(8) Licensees must make any records required by this section available to NRC staff and ATF staff upon request.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Termination, modification, suspension, or revocation of Section 161A authority.</I>
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Licensees seeking to terminate their stand-alone preemption authority must apply to the NRC in writing, under oath or affirmation, and in accordance with § 73.4.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees seeking to terminate their combined enhanced weapons authority and preemption authority must apply to the NRC in writing, under oath or affirmation, and in accordance with § 73.4, and the license amendment provisions of § 50.90, § 70.34, or § 72.56 of this chapter, as applicable. These licensees must have transferred or disposed of any enhanced weapons, in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (m) of this section, prior to the NRC approval of a request for termination of their authority.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees seeking to modify their combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority, issued under this section, must apply to the NRC in writing, under oath or affirmation, and in accordance with § 73.4, and the license amendment provisions of § 50.90, § 70.34, or § 72.56 of this chapter, as applicable. Licensees' applications to modify their enhanced weapons authority must provide the information required under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees seeking to replace their enhanced weapons with different types of enhanced weapons must amend their original application to include the different quantities, types, and calibers or gauges of the new enhanced weapons. This amended application must include a plan to transfer or dispose of their existing enhanced weapons once the new weapons are deployed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees adding additional quantities or types of enhanced weapons do not require a transfer or disposal plan.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission may revoke, suspend, or modify, in whole or in part, any approval issued under this section for any material false statement in the application or other statement of fact required of the licensee; or because of conditions revealed by the application or statement of fact or any report, record, inspection, or other means that would warrant the Commission refusing to grant approval of an original application; or for violation of, or for failure to observe, any of the terms and provisions of the act, regulations, license, permit, approval, or order of the Commission, or for any other reason that the Commission determines is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees that have their stand-alone preemption authority or combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority terminated, suspended, or revoked may reapply for such authority by filing a new application under the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The NRC will notify ATF within 3 business days after taking action to terminate, modify, suspend, or revoke a licensee's stand-alone preemption authority or combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority issued under this section.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Withdrawal of orders.</I> For licensees that received an order issued under Section 161A (42 U.S.C. 2201a) prior to April 13, 2023, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees are not required to reapply for this authority.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of such orders are superseded in their entirety by the requirements of this section and § 73.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees must complete their transition from the confirmatory orders to the requirements of this rule by January 8, 2024.
</P>
<P>(4) On January 8, 2024 the following orders are withdrawn:
</P>
<P>(i) Order EA-13-092, “Order Designating an Interim Class of NRC-Licensed Facilities that are Eligible to Apply to the Commission for Authorization to Use the Authority Granted Under the Provisions of Section 161a of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as Amended” (78 FR 35984; June 14, 2013);
</P>
<P>(ii) Confirmatory Order EA-15-006, “In the Matter of BWXT Nuclear Operations Group, Inc.” (80 FR 53588; September 4, 2015);
</P>
<P>(iii) Confirmatory Orders EA-14-135 and EA-14-136, “In the Matter of Entergy Nuclear Operations Inc.; Entergy Nuclear Indian Point 2, LLC; and Entergy Nuclear Indian Point 3, LLC (Indian Point Nuclear Generating Unit (Nos. 1, 2, and 3)” (81 FR 2247; January 15, 2016);
</P>
<P>(iv) Confirmatory Order EA-14-137, “In the Matter of Entergy Nuclear Fitzpatrick, LLC and Entergy Nuclear Operations Inc. (James A. Fitzpatrick Nuclear Power Plant)” (81 FR 2247; January 15, 2016);
</P>
<P>(v) Confirmatory Order EA-14-138, “In the Matter of Exelon Generation Company, LLC (Nine Mile Point Nuclear Station Units 1 and 2)” (81 FR 2247; January 15, 2016);
</P>
<P>(vi) Confirmatory Order EA-14-139, “In the Matter of Exelon Generation Company, LLC (R.E. Ginna Nuclear Power Plant)” (81 FR 2247; January 15, 2016);
</P>
<P>(vii) Confirmatory Order EA-14-134, “In the Matter of Pacific Gas and Electric Company (Diablo Canyon Nuclear Power Plant, Units 1 and 2, and DCPP Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation)” (81 FR 2247; January 15, 2016); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Confirmatory Order EA-14-140, “In the Mater of Southern California Edison Company (San Onofre Nuclear Generating Station, Units 2 and 3, and Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation)” (81 FR 2247; January 15, 2016).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.2.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.17   Firearms background checks for armed security personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section presents the requirements for completion of firearms background checks pursuant to Section 161A of the Atomic Energy Act, as amended (AEA) (42 U.S.C. 2201a), for security personnel whose official duties require access to covered weapons at Commission-designated classes of facilities, radioactive material, or other property specified in § 73.15(c). Firearms background checks are intended to verify that such armed security personnel are not prohibited from receiving, possessing, transporting, importing, or using covered weapons under applicable Federal, State, or local law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General Requirements.</I> (1) Licensees that have applied to the NRC under § 73.15 of this part for stand-alone preemption authority or for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority must comply with the provisions of this section. Such licensees must establish a Firearms Background Check Plan. Licensees must establish this plan as part of their overall NRC-approved Training and Qualification plan for security personnel whose official duties require access to covered weapons.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of § 73.15 and this section only, the term security personnel whose official duties require access to covered weapons includes, but is not limited to, the following groups of individuals:
</P>
<P>(i) Security officers using covered weapons to protect a Commission-designated facility, radioactive material, or other property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Security officers undergoing firearms training on covered weapons;
</P>
<P>(iii) Firearms-training instructors conducting training on covered weapons;
</P>
<P>(iv) Armorers conducting maintenance, repair, and testing of covered weapons;
</P>
<P>(v) Individuals with access to armories and weapons storage lockers containing covered weapons;
</P>
<P>(vi) Individuals conducting inventories of enhanced weapons;
</P>
<P>(vii) Individuals removing enhanced weapons from the site for repair, training, and escort-duty purposes; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Individuals whose duties require access to covered weapons, whether the individuals are employed directly by the licensee or employed by a security contractor who provides security services to the licensee.
</P>
<P>(3) The Firearms Background Check Plan must describe how the licensee will accomplish the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(i) Completing firearms background checks for all security personnel whose duties require, or will require, access to covered weapons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishing a process for completing initial, periodic, and break-in-service firearms background checks;
</P>
<P>(iii) Defining the training objectives and modules for security personnel who are subject to firearms background checks;
</P>
<P>(iv) Completing the initial and periodic training for security personnel whose official duties require access to covered weapons;
</P>
<P>(v) Maintaining records of completed firearms background checks, required training, and any supporting documents;
</P>
<P>(vi) Maintaining records of a decision to remove security personnel from duties requiring access to covered weapons, due to the identification or occurrence of any Federal or State disqualifying status condition or disqualifying event; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Developing and implementing procedures for notifying the NRC of the removal of security personnel from access to covered weapons, due to the identification or occurrence of any Federal or State disqualifying status condition or disqualifying event.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Licensees that have applied to the NRC for stand-alone preemption authority or for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority under § 73.15 must ensure that a satisfactory firearms background check has been completed for all security personnel whose official duties require access to covered weapons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Security personal may continue to have access to covered weapons pending the results of the initial firearms background check.
</P>
<P>(5) Only licensees that have applied for Section 161A authority under § 73.15 may conduct the firearms background checks required by this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee must commence firearms background checks only after receiving notification from the NRC that the agency has accepted for review its application for stand-alone preemption authority or for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) Applicants for a license who have also submitted an application for Section 161A authority must only commence firearms background checks after:
</P>
<P>(A) The NRC has issued its license; and
</P>
<P>(B) The NRC has accepted its application for stand-alone preemption authority or for combined preemption authority and enhanced weapons authority for review.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subsequent to April 13, 2023, applicants for a license who have also applied for Section 161A authority and been issued their license must ensure that a satisfactory firearms background check (as defined in § 73.2) has been completed for all security personnel who require access to covered weapons, before the licensee's initial receipt of any source material, special nuclear material, or radioactive material specified under the license.
</P>
<P>(8) In response to an adverse firearms background check (as defined in § 73.2),
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee must remove, without delay, from duties requiring access to covered weapons, any security personnel who receive a “denied” or “delayed” NICS response.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the security personnel to be removed is on duty at the time of removal, then the licensee must fill the vacated position within the timeframe specified in its physical security plan.
</P>
<P>(9)(i) The licensee must complete a new satisfactory firearms background check for any of its security personnel that has had a break-in-service greater than 1 week.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee must complete a new satisfactory firearms background check if the security personnel has transferred from a different licensee.
</P>
<P>(iii) A break-in-service means the security personnel's cessation of employment with the licensee or its security contractor, notwithstanding that the previous licensee completed a satisfactory firearms background check on the individual within the last 5 years.
</P>
<P>(iv) Exceptions: (A) For the purposes of this section, a break-in-service does not include a security personnel's temporary active duty with the U.S. military reserves or National Guard.
</P>
<P>(B) The licensee, in lieu of completing a new satisfactory firearms background check, may instead verify, via an industry-wide information-sharing database, that the security personnel has completed a satisfactory firearms background check within the previous 12 months, provided that this previous firearms background check included a duty station location in the State or Territory where the licensee (who would otherwise be accomplishing the firearms background check) is located or the activity is solely occurring.
</P>
<P>(10) Changes in the licensee's ownership or its security contractor services are not considered a break-in-service for current security personnel whose duties require access to covered weapons. Licensees are not required to conduct a new firearms background check for these security personnel.
</P>
<P>(11) With regard to accomplishing the requirements for other background (e.g., criminal history records) checks or personnel security investigations under the NRC's access authorization or personal security clearance program requirements of this chapter, the licensee may not substitute a satisfactory firearms background check in lieu of completing these other required background checks or security investigations.
</P>
<P>(12) If a licensee has completed initial satisfactory firearms background checks pursuant to an NRC order issued before April 13, 2023, then the licensee is not required to conduct a new initial firearms background check for its current security personnel. However, the licensee must conduct initial firearms background checks on new security personnel and periodic and break-in-service firearms background checks on current security personnel in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) A licensee who withdraws its application for Section 161A authority or who has its application disapproved by the NRC, must discontinue conducting firearms background checks.
</P>
<P>(14) A licensee whose authority under Section 161A has been rescinded or whose authority has been revoked by the NRC must discontinue conducting firearms background checks.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Firearms background check requirements.</I> A firearms background check for security personnel must include—
</P>
<P>(1) A check of the individual's fingerprints against the Federal Bureau of Investigation's (FBI's) fingerprint system; and
</P>
<P>(2) A check of the individual's identifying information against the FBI's National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Firearms background check submittals.</I> (1) Licensees must submit to the NRC, in accordance with § 73.4, for all security personnel requiring a firearms background check under this section—
</P>
<P>(i) A set of fingerprint impressions, in accordance with paragraph (k) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A completed NRC Form 754.
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of submitting a copy of each individual completed NRC Form 754 to the NRC, licensees may submit a single document consolidating the NRC Forms 754 data for multiple security personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees submitting to the NRC via an electronic method an individual NRC Form 754 or consolidated data from multiple NRC Forms 754 must ensure that any personally identifiable information contained within these documents is protected in accordance with § 2.390 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees must retain a copy of all NRC Forms 754 submitted to the NRC for one year subsequent to the termination or denial of an individual's access to covered weapons.
</P>
<P>(5) Licensees that are Federal agencies with authority to submit fingerprints directly to the FBI may do so provided that they also include the requested information from NRC Form 754. However, such licensees are still required to comply with the other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Periodic firearms background checks.</I> (1) Licensees must complete a satisfactory periodic firearms background check at least once every 5 calendar years for security personnel whose continuing duties require access to covered weapons.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees must complete a periodic firearms background check within the same calendar month as the initial, or most recent, firearms background check with an allowance period to midnight (local time) of the last day of the calendar month of expiration.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee may conduct periodic firearms background checks at an interval of less than once every 5 calendar years, at its discretion.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Licensees may assign security personnel to duties requiring access to covered weapons while the results of the periodic firearms background check are pending.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees must remove security personnel from duties requiring access to covered weapons if the satisfactory completion of a periodic firearms background check does not occur before the expiration of the allowance period.
</P>
<P>(5) Licensees must remove, without delay, from duties requiring access to covered weapons, any security personnel who receive either a “denied” or “delayed” NICS response during a periodic firearms background check.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification of removal.</I> (1) Licensees must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone within 72 hours after removing security personnel from duties requiring access to covered weapons due to the identification or occurrence of any Federal or State disqualifying status condition or disqualifying event that would prohibit them from possessing, receiving, or using firearms or ammunition. Licensees must contact the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the phone numbers specified in Table 1 of appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC will subsequently inform the FBI of any notifications received under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Security personnel responsibilities.</I> Security personnel assigned to duties requiring access to covered weapons must notify the licensee's security management within 72 hours of the identification or occurrence of any Federal or State disqualifying status condition or disqualifying event that would prohibit the individual from possessing, receiving, or using firearms or ammunition. This requirement is applicable to security personnel directly employed by the licensee or employed by a contractor providing security services to the licensee.
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Training for security personnel subject to firearms background checks on disqualifying status conditions and disqualifying events.</I> (1) Licensees must include, within their Firearms Background Check Plan, training modules for security personnel assigned to official duties requiring access to covered weapons that provide training on the following topics:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal disqualifying status conditions or disqualifying events specified in 27 CFR 478.32;
</P>
<P>(ii) Applicable State disqualifying status conditions or disqualifying events;
</P>
<P>(iii) The responsibility of security personnel subject to a firearms background check and assigned to official duties that require access to covered weapons to promptly notify their employing licensee of the occurrence of any disqualifying status condition or disqualifying event; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information for appealing an adverse firearms background check (<I>i.e.,</I> a “denied” or “delayed” NICS response) to the FBI.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees must conduct periodic refresher training on these modules at an annual frequency for security personnel assigned official duties requiring access to covered weapons.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Procedures for processing fingerprint checks.</I> (1) Licensees, using an appropriate method listed in § 73.4, must manually or electronically submit to the NRC one completed, legible standard fingerprint card (FBI Form FD-258, ORIMDNRCOOOZ) or, where practicable, other electronic fingerprint records for each individual requiring a firearms background check. Information on how to obtain FBI Form FD-258 and the process for manual or electronic submission of fingerprint records to the NRC is on the NRC's public website at: <I>https://www.nrc.gov/security/chp.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees must indicate on the fingerprint card (or other electronic fingerprint records) that the submittal is part of a firearms background check for personnel whose duties require, or will require, access to covered weapons. Licensees must add the following information to the FBI Form FD-258 fingerprint card or the electronic fingerprint records submitted to the NRC:
</P>
<P>(i) For fingerprints submitted to the NRC for the completion of a firearms background check only, the licensee must enter the terms “MDNRCNICZ” in the “ORI” field and “Firearms” in the “Reasons Fingerprinted” field of the FBI Form FD-258 or the electronic fingerprint records submitted to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(ii) For fingerprints submitted to the NRC for the completion of both an access authorization check or personnel security clearance check and a firearms background check, the licensee must enter the terms “MDNRC000Z” in the “ORI” field and “Employment and Firearms” in the “Reasons Fingerprinted” field of the FBI Form FD-258 or the electronic fingerprint records submitted to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees must establish procedures that produce high-quality fingerprint images, cards, and records with a minimal rejection rate.
</P>
<P>(4) The NRC will review fingerprints for firearms background checks for completeness. Any FBI Form FD-258 or other electronic fingerprint records containing omissions or evident errors will be returned to the licensee for correction. The fee for processing fingerprint checks includes one free resubmission if the initial submission is returned by the FBI because the fingerprint impressions cannot be classified. The one free resubmission must have the FBI Transaction Control Number reflected on the resubmission. If additional submissions are necessary, they will be treated as an initial submittal and require a second payment of the processing fee. The payment of a new processing fee entitles the submitter to an additional free resubmittal, if necessary. Previously rejected submissions may not be included with the third submission because the submittal will be rejected automatically.
</P>
<P>(5) The NRC will forward to the submitting licensee all data received from the FBI as a result of the licensee's application(s) for a firearms background check. This will include the FBI's “proceed,” “delayed,” or “denied” NICS response and the NICS transaction number.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Fees.</I> (1) Fees for the processing of firearms background checks are due upon application. The fee for the processing of a firearms background check consists of a fingerprint fee and a NICS check fee. Licensees must submit payment with the application for the processing of fingerprints, and payment must be made payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The payments are to be made in U.S. funds using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I> Licensees can find fee information for firearms background checks on the NRC's public website at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/security/chp.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The application fee for the processing of fingerprint checks is the sum of the user fee charged by the FBI for each fingerprint card or other fingerprint records submitted by the NRC on behalf of a licensee, and an administrative processing fee assessed by the NRC. The NRC processing fee covers administrative costs associated with NRC handling of licensee fingerprint submissions.
</P>
<P>(3) The application fee for the processing of NICS checks is an administrative processing fee assessed by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees that are also Federal agencies and submit fingerprints and information contained in the NRC Form 754 directly to the FBI are not assessed an application fee by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Processing of the NICS portion of a firearms background check.</I> (1) The NRC will forward the information contained in the submitted NRC Form 754 to the FBI for evaluation against the NICS databases. Upon completion of the NICS portion of the firearms background check, the FBI will inform the NRC of the results with one of three responses under 28 CFR part 25; “proceed,” “delayed,” or “denied,” and the associated NICS transaction number (NTN). The NRC will forward these results and the associated NTN to the submitting licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees that are Federal agencies and submit fingerprints and information contained in the NRC Form 754 directly to the FBI for evaluation against the NICS databases will receive one of three responses under 28 CFR part 25; “proceed,” “delayed,” or “denied,” and the associated NTN.
</P>
<P>(3) The submitting licensee must provide these results to the individual who completed the NRC Form 754.
</P>
<P>(o) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Appeals and resolution of adverse firearms background checks.</I> (1) Licensees may not assign security personnel who have received a “denied” or a “delayed” NICS response to any official duties requiring access to covered weapons—
</P>
<P>(i) During the pendency of an appeal to the FBI of a “denied” NICS response; or
</P>
<P>(ii) During the pendency of providing to the FBI any necessary additional information to resolve a “delayed” NICS response.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees must provide the NICS Transaction Number (NTN) or NTNs associated with the adverse firearms background check to the affected individual. It is the affected individual's responsibility to initiate an appeal or resolution of a “delayed” or “denied” NICS response.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees may assign security personnel to official duties requiring access to covered weapons subsequent to the individual's satisfactorily resolving a “denied” or “delayed” NICS response.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Protection of information.</I> (1) Each licensee that obtains a firearms background check and NRC Form 754 information on individuals under this section shall establish and maintain a system of files and procedures to protect these records and any enclosed personally identifiable information (PII) from unauthorized disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee may not disclose these records or PII to persons other than the subject individual, his/her representative, or to those with a need to have access to the information in performing assigned duties in the process of granting access to covered weapons. No individual authorized to have access to this information may disseminate the information to any other individual who does not have a need to know.
</P>
<P>(3) The record or PII may be disclosed to an appropriate Federal or State agency in the performance of its official duties, in the course of an administrative or judicial proceeding, or in response to a Congressional inquiry.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee must make firearms background check records and NRC Forms 754 obtained under this section available for examination by an authorized representative of the NRC to determine compliance with applicable regulations and laws.
</P>
<P>(5) The record obtained on an individual from a firearms background check may be transferred to another licensee—
</P>
<P>(i) Upon an individual's written request to transfer the individual's record to the licensee identified in the written request; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon verification from the gaining licensee of the individual's name, date of birth, social security number, and sex.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Withdrawal of orders.</I> In accordance with the provisions of § 73.15(s), orders issued under Section 161A (42 U.S.C. 2201a) prior to April 13, 2023 are withdrawn. Accordingly, the requirements of those orders are superseded in their entirety by the requirements of §§ 73.15 and 73.17.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 15882, Mar. 14, 2023, as amended at 89 FR 51810, June 20, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—General Performance Objective for Protection of Strategic Special Nuclear Material</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.3.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.20   General performance objective and requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to any other requirements of this part, each licensee who is authorized to operate a fuel reprocessing plant pursuant to part 50 of this chapter; possesses or uses formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material at any site or contiguous sites subject to control by the licensee; is authorized to transport or deliver to a carrier for transportation pursuant to part 70 of this chapter formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material; takes delivery of formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material free on board (f.o.b.) the point at which it is delivered to a carrier for transportation; or imports or exports formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material, shall establish and maintain or make arrangements for a physical protection system which will have as its objective to provide high assurance that activities involving special nuclear material are not inimical to the common defense and security, and do not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety. The physical protection system shall be designed to protect against the design basis threats of theft or diversion of strategic special nuclear material and radiological sabotage as stated in § 73.1(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) To achieve the general performance objective of paragraph (a) of this section a licensee shall establish and maintain, or arrange for, a physical protection system that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provides the performance capabilities described in § 73.25 for in-transit protection or in § 73.45 for fixed site protection unless otherwise authorized by the Commission; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is designed with sufficient redundancy and diversity to ensure maintenance of the capabilities described in §§ 73.25 and 73.45; 
</P>
<P>(3) Includes a safeguards contingency capability that can meet the criteria in appendix C to this part “Licensee Safeguards Contingency Plans;” and 
</P>
<P>(4) Includes a testing and maintenance program to assure control over all activities and devices affecting the effectiveness, reliability, and availability of the physical protection system, including a demonstration that any defects of such activities and devices will be promptly detected and corrected for the total period of time they are required as a part of the physical protection system. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee subject to the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall establish, maintain, and follow NRC-approved safeguards physical protection and safeguards contingency plans that describe how the licensee will comply with the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 68188, Nov. 28, 1979, as amended at 57 FR 33430, July 29, 1992] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Protection of Safeguards Information</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 15890, Mar. 14, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.4.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.21   Protection of Safeguards Information: Performance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General performance requirement.</I> (1) Each licensee, certificate holder, applicant, or other person who produces, receives, or acquires Safeguards Information (including Safeguards Information with the designation or marking: Safeguards Information—Modified Handling) shall ensure that it is protected against unauthorized disclosure. To meet this general performance requirement, such licensees, certificate holders, applicants, or other persons subject to this section shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish, implement, and maintain an information protection system that includes the applicable measures for Safeguards Information specified in § 73.22 related to: Power reactors; a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material; transportation of or delivery to a carrier for transportation of a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material or more than 100 grams of irradiated reactor fuel; uranium hexafluoride production or conversion facilities; fuel fabrication facilities; uranium enrichment facilities; independent spent fuel storage installations; and geologic repository operations areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish, implement, and maintain an information protection system that includes the applicable measures for Safeguards Information specified in § 73.23 related to:  non-power reactors that possess special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance or special nuclear material of low strategic significance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Protect the information in accordance with the requirements of § 73.22 if the Safeguards Information is not described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Information protection procedures employed by Federal, State, Tribal, and local law enforcement agencies are presumed to meet the general performance requirement in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commission authority.</I> (1) Pursuant to Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the Commission may impose, by order or regulation, Safeguards Information protection requirements different from or in addition to those specified in this Part on any person who produces, receives, or acquires Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may require, by regulation or order, that information within the scope of Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, related to facilities or materials not specifically described in §§ 73.21, 73.22 or 73.23 be protected under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 63574, Oct. 24, 2008, as amended at 77 FR 34205, June 11, 2012; 79 FR 58671, Sept. 30, 2014; 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.4.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.22   Protection of Safeguards Information: Specific requirements.</HEAD>
<P>This section contains specific requirements for the protection of Safeguards Information in the hands of any person subject to the requirements of § 73.21(a)(1)(i) and related to power reactors; a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material; transportation of or delivery to a carrier for transportation of a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material or more than 100 grams of irradiated reactor fuel; uranium hexafluoride production or conversion facilities, fuel fabrication facilities, and uranium enrichment facilities; independent spent fuel storage installations; geologic repository operations areas and Safeguards Information in the hands of any person subject to the requirements of § 73.21(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Information to be protected.</I> The types of information and documents that must be protected as Safeguards Information include non-public security-related requirements such as:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical protection.</I> Information not classified as Restricted Data or National Security Information related to physical protection, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The composite physical security plan for the facility or site;
</P>
<P>(ii) Site-specific drawings, diagrams, sketches, or maps that substantially represent the final design features of the physical security system not easily discernible by members of the public;
</P>
<P>(iii) Alarm system layouts showing the location of intrusion detection devices, alarm assessment equipment, alarm system wiring, emergency power sources for security equipment, and duress alarms not easily discernible by members of the public;
</P>
<P>(iv) Physical security orders and procedures issued by the licensee for members of the security organization detailing duress codes, patrol routes and schedules, or responses to security contingency events;
</P>
<P>(v) Site-specific design features of plant security communications systems;
</P>
<P>(vi) Lock combinations, mechanical key design, or passwords integral to the physical security system;
</P>
<P>(vii) Documents and other matter that contain lists or locations of certain safety-related equipment explicitly identified in the documents or other matter as vital for purposes of physical protection, as contained in security plans, contingency measures, or plant specific safeguards analyses;
</P>
<P>(viii) The composite safeguards contingency plan/measures for the facility or site;
</P>
<P>(ix) The composite facility guard qualification and training plan/measures disclosing features of the physical security system or response procedures;
</P>
<P>(x) Information relating to on-site or off-site response forces, including size, armament of response forces, and arrival times of such forces committed to respond to security contingency events;
</P>
<P>(xi) The adversary characteristics document and related information, including implementing guidance associated with the Design Basis Threat in § 73.1(a)(1) or (a)(2); and
</P>
<P>(xii) Engineering and safety analyses, security-related procedures or scenarios, and other information revealing site-specific details of the facility or materials if the unauthorized disclosure of such analyses, procedures, scenarios, or other information could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of theft, diversion, or sabotage of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Physical protection in transit.</I> Information not classified as Restricted Data or National Security Information related to the transportation of, or delivery to a carrier for transportation of a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material or more than 100 grams of irradiated reactor fuel, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The composite physical security plan for transportation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Schedules and itineraries for specific shipments of source material, byproduct material, high-level nuclear waste, or irradiated reactor fuel. Schedules for shipments of source material, byproduct material, high-level nuclear waste, or irradiated reactor fuel are no longer controlled as Safeguards Information 10 days after the last shipment of a current series;
</P>
<P>(iii) Vehicle immobilization features, intrusion alarm devices, and communications systems;
</P>
<P>(iv) Arrangements with and capabilities of local police response forces, and locations of safe havens identified along the transportation route;
</P>
<P>(v) Limitations of communications during transport;
</P>
<P>(vi) Procedures for response to security contingency events;
</P>
<P>(vii) Information concerning the tactics and capabilities required to defend against attempted sabotage, or theft and diversion of formula quantities of special nuclear material, irradiated reactor fuel, or related information; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Engineering or safety analyses, security-related procedures or scenarios and other information related to the protection of the transported material if the unauthorized disclosure of such analyses, procedures, scenarios, or other information could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of theft, diversion, or sabotage of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inspections, audits and evaluations.</I> Information not classified as National Security Information or Restricted Data pertaining to safeguards and security inspections and reports, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Portions of inspection reports, evaluations, audits, or investigations that contain details of a licensee's or applicant's physical security system or that disclose uncorrected defects, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities in the system. Disclosure of corrected defects, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities is subject to an assessment taking into account such factors as trending analyses and the impacts of disclosure on licensees having similar physical security systems; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reports of investigations containing general information may be released after corrective actions have been completed, unless withheld pursuant to other authorities, e.g., the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Correspondence.</I> Portions of correspondence insofar as they contain Safeguards Information as set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Other information within the scope of Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, that the Commission determines by order or regulation could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of theft, diversion, or sabotage of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material or a facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions for access.</I> (1) Except as the Commission may otherwise authorize, no person may have access to Safeguards Information unless the person has an established “need to know” for the information and has undergone a Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) criminal history records check using the procedures set forth in § 73.57.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, a person to be granted access to Safeguards Information must be trustworthy and reliable, based on a background check or other means approved by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) The categories of individuals specified in 10 CFR 73.59 are exempt from the criminal history records check and background check requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section by virtue of their occupational status.
</P>
<P>(4) For persons participating in an NRC adjudicatory proceeding, the “need to know” determination shall be made by the originator of the Safeguards Information upon receipt of a request for access to the Safeguards Information. Where the information is in the possession of the originator and the NRC staff, whether in its original form or incorporated into another document or other matter by the recipient, the NRC staff shall make the determination. In the event of a dispute regarding the “need to know” determination, the presiding officer of the proceeding shall determine whether the “need to know” findings in § 73.2 can be made.
</P>
<P>(5) Except as the Commission may otherwise authorize, no person may disclose Safeguards Information to any other person except as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection while in use or storage.</I> (1) While in use, matter containing Safeguards Information must be under the control of an individual authorized access to Safeguards Information. This requirement is satisfied if the Safeguards Information is attended by such an individual even though the information is in fact not constantly being used. Safeguards Information within alarm stations, or rooms continuously occupied by authorized individuals need not be stored in a locked security storage container.
</P>
<P>(2) While unattended, Safeguards Information must be stored in a locked security storage container. The container shall not identify the contents of the matter contained and must preclude access by individuals not authorized access in accordance with the provisions of this section. Knowledge of lock combinations protecting Safeguards Information must be limited to a minimum number of personnel for operating purposes who have a “need to know” and are otherwise authorized access to Safeguards Information in accordance with the provisions of this Part. Access to lock combinations must be strictly controlled so as to prevent disclosure to an individual not authorized access to Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preparation and marking of documents or other matter.</I> (1) Each document or other matter that contains Safeguards Information as described in § 73.21(a)(1)(i) and this section must be marked to indicate the presence of such information in a conspicuous manner on the top and bottom of each page. The first page of the document or other matter must also contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, title, and organization of the individual authorized to make a Safeguards Information determination, and who has determined that the document or other matter contains Safeguards Information;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the determination was made; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An indication that unauthorized disclosure will be subject to civil and criminal sanctions.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the markings at the top and bottom of each page, any transmittal letters or memoranda to or from the NRC which do not in themselves contain Safeguards Information shall be marked to indicate that attachments or enclosures contain Safeguards Information but that the transmittal document or other matter does not (<I>i.e.</I>, “When separated from Safeguards Information enclosure(s), this document is decontrolled provided the transmittal document does not otherwise warrant protection from unauthorized disclosure”).
</P>
<P>(3) Any transmittal document or other matter forwarding Safeguards Information must alert the recipient that protected information is enclosed. Certification that a document or other matter contains Safeguards Information must include the name and title of the certifying official and date designated. Portion marking is required only for correspondence to and from the NRC (<I>i.e.</I>, cover letters, but not attachments) that contains Safeguards Information. The portion marking must be sufficient to allow the recipient to identify and distinguish those sections of the transmittal document or other information containing the Safeguards Information from non-Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(4) Marking of documents or other matter containing or transmitting Safeguards Information shall, at a minimum include the words “Safeguards Information” to ensure identification of protected information for the protection of facilities and material covered by § 73.22.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reproduction of matter containing Safeguards Information.</I> Safeguards Information may be reproduced to the minimum extent necessary consistent with need without permission of the originator. Equipment used to reproduce Safeguards Information must be evaluated to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot access Safeguards Information (e.g., unauthorized individuals cannot access Safeguards Information by gaining access to retained memory or network connectivity).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>External transmission of documents and material.</I> (1) Documents or other matter containing Safeguards Information, when transmitted outside an authorized place of use or storage, must be packaged in two sealed envelopes or wrappers to preclude disclosure of the presence of protected information. The inner envelope or wrapper must contain the name and address of the intended recipient and be marked on both sides, top and bottom, with the words “Safeguards Information.” The outer envelope or wrapper must be opaque, addressed to the intended recipient, must contain the address of the sender, and may not bear any markings or indication that the document or other matter contains Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(2) Safeguards Information may be transported by any commercial delivery company that provides service with computer tracking features, U.S. first class, registered, express, or certified mail, or by any individual authorized access pursuant to these requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Except under emergency or extraordinary conditions, Safeguards Information shall be transmitted outside an authorized place of use or storage only by NRC approved secure electronic devices, such as facsimiles or telephone devices, provided that transmitters and receivers implement processes that will provide high assurance that Safeguards Information is protected before and after the transmission or electronic mail through the internet, provided that the information is encrypted by a method (Federal Information Processing Standard [FIPS] 140-2 or later) approved by the appropriate NRC Office; the information is produced by a self contained secure automatic data process system; and transmitters and receivers implement the information handling processes that will provide high assurance that Safeguards Information is protected before and after transmission. Physical security events required to be reported pursuant to § 73.1200 are considered to be extraordinary conditions. Cyber security event notifications required to be reported pursuant to § 73.77 are considered to be extraordinary conditions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Processing of Safeguards Information on electronic systems.</I> (1) Safeguards Information may be stored, processed or produced on a stand-alone computer (or computer system) for processing of Safeguards Information. “Stand-alone” means a computer or computer system to which access is limited to individuals authorized access to Safeguards Information. A stand-alone computer or computer system shall not be physically or in any other way connected to a network accessible by users who are not authorized access to Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(2) Each computer not located within an approved and lockable security storage container that is used to process Safeguards Information must have a removable storage medium with a bootable operating system. The bootable operating system must be used to load and initialize the computer. The removable storage medium must also contain the software application programs. Data may be saved on either the removable storage medium that is used to boot the operating system, or on a different removable storage medium. The removable storage medium must be secured in a locked security storage container when not in use.
</P>
<P>(3) A mobile device (such as a laptop computer) may also be used for the processing of Safeguards Information provided the device is secured in a locked security storage container when not in use. Other systems may be used if approved for security by the appropriate NRC office.
</P>
<P>(4) Any electronic system that has been used for storage, processing or production of Safeguards Information must be free of recoverable Safeguards Information prior to being returned to nonexclusive use.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Removal from Safeguards Information category.</I> Documents or other matter originally containing Safeguards Information must be removed from the Safeguards Information category at such time as the information no longer meets the criteria contained in this part. Care must be exercised to ensure that any document or other matter decontrolled not disclose Safeguards Information in some other form or be combined with other unprotected information to disclose Safeguards Information. The authority to determine that a document or other matter may be decontrolled will only be exercised by the NRC, with NRC approval, or in consultation with the individual or organization that made the original determination.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Destruction of matter containing Safeguards Information.</I> Documents or other matter containing Safeguards Information shall be destroyed when no longer needed. The information can be destroyed by burning, shredding or any other method that precludes reconstruction by means available to the public at large. Piece sizes no wider than one quarter inch composed of several pages or documents and thoroughly mixed are considered completely destroyed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 63574, Oct. 24, 2008, as amended at 80 FR 67275, Nov. 2, 2015; 88 FR 15890, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.4.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.23   Protection of Safeguards Information—Modified Handling: Specific requirements.</HEAD>
<P>This section contains specific requirements for the protection of Safeguards Information in the hands of any person subject to the requirements of § 73.21(a)(1)(ii) and non-power reactors that possess special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance or special nuclear material of low strategic significance. The requirements of this section distinguish Safeguards Information requiring modified handling requirements (SGI-M) from the specific Safeguards Information handling requirements applicable to facilities and materials needing a higher level of protection, as set forth in § 73.22.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Information to be protected.</I> The types of information and documents that must be protected as Safeguards Information—Modified Handling include non-public security-related requirements such as protective measures, interim compensatory measures, additional security measures, and the following, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical protection.</I> Information not classified as Restricted Data or National Security Information related to physical protection, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The composite physical security plan for the facility or site;
</P>
<P>(ii) Site specific drawings, diagrams, sketches, or maps that substantially represent the final design features of the physical security system not easily discernible by members of the public;
</P>
<P>(iii) Alarm system layouts showing the location of intrusion detection devices, alarm assessment equipment, alarm system wiring, emergency power sources for security equipment, and duress alarms not easily discernible by members of the public;
</P>
<P>(iv) Physical security orders and procedures issued by the licensee for members of the security organization detailing duress codes, patrol routes and schedules, or responses to security contingency events;
</P>
<P>(v) Site specific design features of plant security communications systems;
</P>
<P>(vi) Lock combinations, mechanical key design, or passwords integral to the physical security system;
</P>
<P>(vii) The composite facility guard qualification and training plan/measures disclosing features of the physical security system or response procedures;
</P>
<P>(viii) Descriptions of security activities which disclose features of the physical security system or response measures;
</P>
<P>(ix) Information relating to onsite or offsite response forces, including size, armament of the response forces, and arrival times of such forces committed to respond to security contingency events; and
</P>
<P>(x) Engineering and safety analyses, security-related procedures or scenarios, and other information revealing site-specific details of the facility or materials if the unauthorized disclosure of such analyses, procedures, scenarios, or other information could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of theft, diversion, or sabotage of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Physical protection in transit.</I> Information not classified as Restricted Data or National Security Information related to the physical protection of shipments of special nuclear material in less than a formula quantity (except for those materials covered under § 73.22), including:
</P>
<P>(i) Information regarding transportation security measures, including physical security plans and procedures, immobilization devices, and escort requirements, more detailed than NRC regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Scheduling and itinerary information for shipments (scheduling and itinerary information for shipments that are inherently self-disclosing, such as a shipment that created extensive news coverage or an announcement by a public official confirming receipt, may be decontrolled after shipment departure). Scheduling and itinerary information for shipments that are not inherently self-disclosing may be decontrolled 2 days after the shipment is completed. Scheduling and itinerary information used for the purpose of preplanning, coordination, and advance notification may be shared with others on a “need to know” basis and need not be designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling);
</P>
<P>(iii) Arrangements with and capabilities of local police response forces, and locations of safe havens identified along the transportation route;
</P>
<P>(iv) Details of alarm and communication systems, communication procedures, and duress codes;
</P>
<P>(v) Procedures for response to security contingency events; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Engineering or safety analyses, security-related procedures or scenarios and other information related to the protection of the transported material if the unauthorized disclosure of such analyses, procedures, scenarios, or other information could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of theft, diversion, or sabotage of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Inspections, audits and evaluations.</I> Information not classified as National Security Information or Restricted Data pertaining to safeguards and security inspections and reports, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Portions of inspection reports, evaluations, audits, or investigations that contain details of a licensee's or applicant's physical security system or that disclose uncorrected defects, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities in the system. Disclosure of corrected defects, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities is subject to an assessment taking into account such factors as trending analyses and the impacts of disclosure on licensees having similar physical security systems; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reports of investigations containing general information may be released after the corrective actions have been completed, unless withheld pursuant to other authorities, e.g., the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Correspondence.</I> Portions of correspondence insofar as they contain Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling, as set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Other information within the scope of Section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, that the Commission determines by order or regulation could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of theft, diversion, or sabotage of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material or a facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions for access.</I> (1) Except as the Commission may otherwise authorize, no person may have access to Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling unless the person has an established “need to know” for the information and has undergone a Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records check using the procedures set forth in § 73.57.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, a person to be granted access to Safeguards Information must be trustworthy and reliable, based on a background check or other means approved by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) The categories of individuals specified in 10 CFR 73.59 are exempt from the criminal history records check and background check requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section by virtue of their occupational status:
</P>
<P>(4) For persons participating in an NRC adjudicatory proceeding, the “need to know” determination shall be made by the originator of the Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling upon receipt of a request for access to the Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling. Where the information is in the possession of the originator and the NRC staff, whether in its original form or incorporated into another document or other matter by the recipient, the NRC staff shall make the determination. In the event of a dispute regarding the “need to know” determination, the presiding officer of the proceeding shall determine whether the “need to know” findings in § 73.2 can be made.
</P>
<P>(5) Except as the Commission may otherwise authorize, no person may disclose Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling to any other person except as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Protection while in use or storage.</I> (1) While in use, matter containing Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling must be under the control of an individual authorized access to such information. This requirement is satisfied if the Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling is attended by such an individual even though the information is in fact not constantly being used. Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling within alarm stations, or rooms continuously occupied by authorized individuals, need not be locked in a file drawer or cabinet.
</P>
<P>(2) While unattended, Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling must be stored in a locked file drawer or cabinet. The container shall not identify the contents of the matter contained and must preclude access by individuals not authorized access in accordance with the provisions of this section. Knowledge of lock combinations or access to keys protecting Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling must be limited to a minimum number of personnel for operating purposes who have a “need to know” and are otherwise authorized access to Safeguards Information in accordance with the provisions of this Part. Access to lock combinations must be strictly controlled so as to prevent disclosure to an individual not authorized access to Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preparation and marking of documents or other matter.</I> (1) Each document or other matter that contains Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling as described in § 73.23(a) and in this section must be marked to indicate the presence of Safeguards Information with modified handling requirements in a conspicuous manner on the top and bottom of each page. The first page of the document or other matter must also contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, title, and organization of the individual authorized to make a “Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling” determination, and who has determined that the document or other matter contains Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the determination was made; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An indication that unauthorized disclosure will be subject to civil and criminal sanctions.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the markings at the top and bottom of each page, any transmittal letters or memoranda to or from the NRC which do not in themselves contain Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling shall be marked to indicate that attachments or enclosures contain Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling but that the transmittal document does not (<I>i.e.</I>, “When separated from Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling enclosure(s), this document is decontrolled provided the transmittal document does not otherwise warrant protection from unauthorized disclosure”).
</P>
<P>(3) Any transmittal document or other matter forwarding Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling must alert the recipient that protected information is enclosed. Certification that a document or other matter contains Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling must include the name and title of the certifying official and date designated. Portion marking is required only for correspondence to and from the NRC (<I>i.e.</I>, cover letters, but not attachments) that contains Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling. The portion marking must be sufficient to allow the recipient to identify and distinguish those sections of the transmittal document or other information containing the Safeguards Information from non-Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(4) Marking of documents or other matter containing or transmitting Safeguards Information with modified handling requirements shall, at a minimum include the words “Safeguards Information-Modified Handling” to ensure identification of protected information for the protection of facilities and material covered by § 73.23.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reproduction of matter containing Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling.</I> Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling may be reproduced to the minimum extent necessary, consistent with need, without permission of the originator. Equipment used to reproduce Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling must be evaluated to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot access the information (e.g. , unauthorized individuals cannot access Safeguards Information by gaining access to retained memory or network connectivity).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>External transmission of documents and material.</I> (1) Documents or other matter containing Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling, when transmitted outside an authorized place of use or storage, must be packaged in two sealed envelopes or wrappers to preclude disclosure of the presence of protected information. The inner envelope or wrapper must contain the name and address of the intended recipient and be marked on both sides, top and bottom, with the words “Safeguards Information-Modified Handling.” The outer envelope or wrapper must be opaque, addressed to the intended recipient, must contain the address of the sender, and may not bear any markings or indication that the document contains Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling.
</P>
<P>(2) Safeguards Information designated Safeguards Information-Modified Handling may be transported by any commercial delivery company that provides service with computer tracking features, U.S. first class, registered, express, or certified mail, or by any individual authorized access pursuant to these requirements.


</P>
<P>(3) Except under emergency or extraordinary conditions, Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling must be transmitted electronically only by protected telecommunications circuits (including facsimile) or encryption by a method (Federal Information Processing Standard [FIPS] 140-2 or later) approved by the appropriate NRC office. For the purpose of this section, emergency or extraordinary conditions are defined as any circumstances that require immediate communications in order to report, summon assistance for, or respond to a security contingency event or an event that has potential security significance. Physical security events required to be reported pursuant to §§ 73.1200 and 73.1205 are considered to be extraordinary conditions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Processing of Safeguards Information-Modified Handling on electronic systems.</I> (1) Safeguards Information designated for modified handling may be stored, processed or produced on a computer or computer system, provided that the system is assigned to the licensee's or contractor's facility. Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling files must be protected, either by a password or encryption, to prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access. Word processors such as typewriters are not subject to these requirements as long as they do not transmit information off-site.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>If Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling is produced on a typewriter, the ribbon must be properly marked and be removed and stored in the same manner as other Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling files may be transmitted over a network if the file is encrypted. In such cases, the licensee will select a commercially available encryption system that the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) has validated as conforming to Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) 140-2 or later. Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling files shall be properly labeled to indicate the presence of Safeguards Information with modified handling requirements and saved to removable matter and stored in a locked file drawer or cabinet.
</P>
<P>(3) A mobile device (such as a laptop computer) may also be used for the processing of Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling provided the device is secured in an appropriate locked storage container when not in use. Other systems may be used if approved for security by the appropriate NRC office.
</P>
<P>(4) Any electronic system that has been used for storage, processing or production of Safeguards Information must be free of recoverable Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling prior to being returned to nonexclusive use.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Removal from Safeguards Information-Modified Handling category.</I> Documents or other matter originally containing Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling must be removed from the Safeguards Information category at such time as the information no longer meets the criteria contained in this Part. Care must be exercised to ensure that any document or other matter decontrolled shall not disclose Safeguards Information in some other form or be combined with other unprotected information to disclose Safeguards Information. The authority to determine that a document or other matter may be decontrolled will only be exercised by the NRC, with NRC approval, or in consultation with the individual or organization that made the original determination.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Destruction of matter containing Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling.</I> Documents or other matter containing Safeguards Information shall be destroyed when no longer needed. The information can be destroyed by burning, shredding, or any other method that precludes reconstruction by means available to the public at large. Piece sizes no wider than one quarter inch composed of several pages or documents and thoroughly mixed are considered completely destroyed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 63577, Oct. 24, 2008, as amended at 88 FR 15890, Mar. 14, 2023; 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Physical Protection Requirements of Special Nuclear Material and Spent Nuclear Fuel in Transit</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 15890, Apr. 13, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.24   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specifically approved by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, no shipment of special nuclear material shall be made in passenger aircraft in excess of (1) 20 grams or 20 curies, whichever is less, of plutonium or uranium-233, or (2) 350 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope). 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise approved by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, no licensee may make shipments of special nuclear material in which individual shipments are less than a formula quantity, but the total quantity in shipments in transit at the same time could equal or exceed a formula quantity, unless either of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall confirm and log the arrival at the final destination of each individual shipment and retain the log for three years from the date of the last entry in the log. The licensee shall also schedule shipments to ensure that the total quantity for two or more shipments in transit at the same time does not equal or exceed the formula quantity, or
</P>
<P>(2) Physical protection in accordance with the requirements of §§ 73.20, 73.25, and 73.26 is provided by the licensee for such shipments as appropriate so that the total quantity of special nuclear material in the remaining shipments not so protected, and in transit at the same time, does not equal or exceed a formula quantity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 68188, Nov. 28, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 19257, May 27, 1988]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.25   Performance capabilities for physical protection of strategic special nuclear material in transit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To meet the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20 an in-transit physical protection system shall include the performance capabilities described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section unless otherwise authorized by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Restrict access to and activity in the vicinity of transports and strategic special nuclear material. To achieve this capability the physical protection system shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Minimize the vulnerability of the strategic special nuclear material by using the following subfunctions and procedures: 
</P>
<P>(i) Preplanning itineraries for the movement of strategic special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Periodically updating knowledge of route conditions for the movement of strategic special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintaining knowledge of the status and position of the strategic special nuclear material en route; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Determining and communicating alternative itineraries en route as conditions warrant. 
</P>
<P>(2) Detect and delay any unauthorized attempt to gain access or introduce unauthorized materials by stealth or force into the vicinity of transports and strategic special nuclear material using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Controlled access areas to isolate strategic special nuclear material and transports to assure that unauthorized persons shall not have direct access to, and unauthorized materials shall not be introduced into the vicinity of, the transports and strategic special nuclear material, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Access detection subsystems and procedures to detect, assess and communicate any unauthorized penetration (or such attempts) of a controlled access area by persons, vehicles or materials so that the response will satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a). 
</P>
<P>(3) Detect attempts to gain unauthorized access or introduce unauthorized materials into the vicinity of transports by deceit using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Access authorization controls and procedures to provide current authorization schedules and access criteria for persons, materials and vehicles; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Access controls and procedures to verify the identity of persons, materials and vehicles, to assess such identity against current authorization schedules and access criteria before permitting access, and to initiate response measures to deny unauthorized entries. 
</P>
<P>(c) Prevent or delay unauthorized entry or introduction of unauthorized materials into, and unauthorized removal of, strategic special nuclear material from transports. To achieve this capability the physical protection system shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Detect attempts to gain unauthorized entry or introduce unauthorized materials into transports by deceit using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Access authorization controls and procedures to provide current authorization schedules and entry criteria for access into transports for both persons and materials; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Entry controls and procedures to verify the identity of persons and materials and to permit transport entry only to those persons and materials specified by the current authorization schedules and entry criteria. 
</P>
<P>(2) Detect attempts to gain unauthorized entry or introduce unauthorized material into transports by stealth or force using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Transport features to delay access to strategic special nuclear material sufficient to permit the detection and response systems to function so as to satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection and detection subsystems and procedures to detect unauthorized tampering with transports and cargo containers; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Surveillance subsystems and procedures to detect, assess and communicate any unauthorized presence of persons or materials and any unauthorized attempt to penetrate the transport so that the response will satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a). 
</P>
<P>(3) Prevent unauthorized removal of strategic special nuclear material from transports by deceit using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Authorization controls and procedures to provide current schedules for authorized removal of strategic special nuclear material which specify the persons authorized to remove and receive the material, the authorized times for such removal and receipt and authorized places for such removal and receipt. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Removal controls and procedures to establish activities for transferring cargo in emergency situations; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Removal controls and procedures to permit removal of strategic special nuclear material only after verification of the identity of persons removing or receiving the strategic special nuclear material, and after verification of the identity and integrity of the strategic special nuclear material being removed from transports. 
</P>
<P>(4) Detect attempts to remove strategic special nuclear material from transports by stealth or force using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Transport features to delay unauthorized strategic special nuclear material removal attempts sufficient to assist detection and permit a response to satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Detection subsystems and procedures to detect, assess and communicate any attempts at unauthorized removal of strategic special nuclear material so that response to the attempt can be such as to satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a). 
</P>
<P>(d) Respond to safeguards contingencies and emergencies to assure that the two capabilities in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section are achieved, and to engage and impede adversary forces until local law enforcement forces arrive. To achieve this capability, the physical protection system shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Respond rapidly and effectively to safeguards contingencies and emergencies using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) A security organization composed of trained and qualifed personnel, including armed escorts, one of whom is designated as escort commander, with procedures for command and control, to execute response functions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessment procedures to assess the nature and extent of security related incidents. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A predetermined plan to respond to safeguards contingency events. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Equipment and procedures to enable responses to security related incidents sufficiently rapid and effective to achieve the predetermined objective of each action.
</P>
<P>(v) Equipment, vehicle design features, and procedures to protect security organization personnel, including those at the movement control center, in their performance of assessment and response related functions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Transmit detection, assessment and other response related information using the following subsystems and subfunctions:
</P>
<P>(i) Communications equipment and procedures to rapidly and accurately transmit security information among armed escorts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment and procedures for two-way communications between the escort commander and the movement control center to rapidly and accurately transmit assessment information and requests for assistance by local law enforcement forces, and to coordinate such assistance.
</P>
<P>(iii) Communications equipment and procedures for the armed escorts and the movement control center personnel to notify local law enforcement forces of the need for assistance. 
</P>
<P>(3) Establish liaisons with local law enforcement authorities to arrange for assistance en route. 
</P>
<P>(4) Assure that a single adversary action cannot destroy the capability of armed escorts to notify the local law enforcement forces of the need for assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 68188, Nov. 28, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.26   Transportation physical protection systems, subsystems, components, and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A transportation physical protection system established pursuant to the general performance objectives and requirements of § 73.20 and performance capability requirements of § 73.25 shall include, but are not necessarily limited to, the measures specified in paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section. The Commission may require, depending on the individual transportation conditions or circumstances, alternate or additional measures deemed necessary to meet the general performance objectives and requirements of § 73.20. The Commission also may authorize protection measures other than those required by this section if, in its opinion, the overall level of performance meets the general performance objectives and requirements of § 73.20 and the performance capability requirements of § 73.25. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Planning and scheduling.</I> (1) Shipments shall be scheduled to avoid regular patterns and preplanned to avoid areas of natural disaster or civil disorders, such as strikes or riots. Such shipments shall be planned in order to avoid storage times in excess of 24 hours and to assure that deliveries occur at a time when the receiver at the final delivery point is present to accept the shipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Arrangements shall be made with law enforcement authorities along the route of shipments for their response to an emergency or a call for assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) Security arrangements for each shipment shall be approved by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission prior to the time for the seven-day notice required by § 73.72. Information to be supplied to the Commission in addition to the general security plan information is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Shipper, consignee, carriers, transfer points, modes of shipment, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Point where escorts will relinquish responsibility or will accept responsibility for the shipment,
</P>
<P>(iii) Arrangements made for transfer of shipment security, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Security arrangements at point where escorts accept responsibility for an import shipment.
</P>
<P>(4) Hand-to-hand receipts shall be completed at origin and destination and at all points enroute where there is a transfer of custody. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Export/import shipments.</I> (1) A licensee who imports a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material shall make arrangements to assure that the material will be protected in transit as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual designated by the licensee or his agent, or as specified by a contract of carriage, shall confirm the container count and examine locks and/or seals for evidence of tampering, at the first place in the United States at which the shipment is discharged from the arriving carrier.
</P>
<P>(ii) The shipment must be protected at all times within the geographical limits of the United States as provided in this section and §§ 73.25 and 73.27. The licensee shall retain each record required by these sections for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license authorizing the licensee to ship this material, and superseded material for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee who exports a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material shall comply with the requirements of this section and §§ 73.25 and 73.27, as applicable, up to the first point where the shipment is taken off the transport outside the United States. The licensee shall retain each record required by these sections for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license authorizing the licensee to export this material, and superseded material for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Security organization.</I> (1) The licensee or his agent shall establish a transportation security organization, including armed escorts, armed response personnel or guards, and a movement control center manned and equipped to monitor and control shipments, to communicate with local law enforcement authorities, and to respond to safeguards contingencies. 
</P>
<P>(2) At least one full time member of the security organization who has the authority to direct the physical protection activities of the security organization shall be on duty at the movement control center during the course of any shipment. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee or the licensee's agent shall establish, maintain, and follow a written management system to provide for the development, revision, implementation, and enforcement of transportation physical protection procedures. The licensee or the agent shall retain as a record the current management system for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under the license for which the system was developed and, if any portion of the system is superseded, retain the superseded material for three years after each change. The system shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Written security procedures which document the structure of the transportation security organization and which detail the duties of drivers and escorts and other individuals responsible for security; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision for written approval of such procedures and any revisions thereto by the individual with overall responsibility for the security function. 
</P>
<P>(4) Neither the licensee nor the licensee's agent shall permit an individual to act as an escort or other security organization member unless the individual has been trained, equipped, and qualified to perform each assigned security job duty in accordance with appendix B, of this part, “General Criteria for Security Personnel.” Upon the request of an authorized representative of the Commission, the licensee or the agent shall demonstrate the ability of the physical security personnel to carry out their assigned duties and responsibilities. Armed escorts shall requalify in accordance with appendix B to this part at least every 12 months. Each requalification must be documented. The licensee or the agent shall retain documentation of the initial qualification for the term of employment and of each requalification as a record for three years from the date of the requalification.
</P>
<P>(5) Armed escort and armed response force personnel armament shall include handguns, shotguns, and semiautomatic rifles, as described in appendix B to this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contingency and Response Plans and Procedures.</I> (1) The licensee or the licensee's agent shall establish, maintain, and follow a written safeguards contingency plan for dealing with threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage related to strategic special nuclear material in transit subject to the provisions of this section. This safeguards contingency plan must be in accordance with the criteria in appendix C of this part, “Licensee Safeguards Contingency Plan.” The licensee or the agent shall retain the contingency plan as a record for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license for which the plan is used and superseded material for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon detection of abnormal presence or activity of persons or vehicles attempting to penetrate a moving convoy or persons attempting to gain access to a parked cargo vehicle or upon evidence or indication of penetration of the cargo vehicle the armed escorts or other armed response personnel shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether or not a threat exists; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess the extent of the threat, if any; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Take immediate concurrent measures to neutralize the threat by: 
</P>
<P>(A) Making the necessary tactical moves to prevent or impede acts of radiological sabotage or theft of strategic special nuclear material, and 
</P>
<P>(B) Informing local law enforcement agencies of the threat and requesting assistance. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee or his agent shall instruct every armed escort and all armed response personnel to prevent or impede acts of radiological sabotage or theft of strategic special material by using sufficient force to counter the force directed at him including the use of deadly force when armed escorts or armed response personnel have a reasonable belief that it is necessary in self-defense or in the defense of others. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transfer and storage of strategic special nuclear material for domestic shipments.</I> (1) Strategic special nuclear material shall be placed in a protected area at transfer points if transfer is not immediate from one transport to another. Where a protected area is not available a controlled access area shall be established for the shipment. The transport may serve as a controlled access area. 
</P>
<P>(2) All transfers shall be protected by at least seven armed escorts or other armed personnel—one of whom shall serve as commander. At least five of the armed personnel (including the commander) shall be available to protect the shipment and at least three of the five shall keep the strategic special nuclear material under continuous surveillance while it is at the transfer point. The two remaining armed personnel shall take up positions at a remote monitoring location. The remote location may be a radio-equipped vehicle or a nearby place, apart from the shipment area, so that a single act cannot remove the capability of the personnel protecting the shipment for calling for assistance. Each of the seven armed escorts or other armed personnel shall be capable of maintaining communication with each other. The commander shall have the capability to communicate with the personnel at the remote location and with local law enforcement agencies for emergency assistance. In addition, the armed escort personnel at the remote location shall have the capability to communicate with the law enforcement agencies and with the shipment movement control center. The commander shall call the remote location at least every 30 minutes to report the status of the shipment. If the calls are not received within the prescribed time, the personnel in the remote location shall request assistance from the law enforcement authorities, notify the shipment movement control center and initiate the appropriate contingency plans. Armed escorts or other armed personnel shall observe the opening of the cargo compartment of the incoming transport and ensure that the shipment is complete by checking locks and seals. A shipment loaded onto or transferred to another transport shall be checked to assure complete loading or transfer. Continuous visual surveillance of the cargo compartment shall be maintained up to the time the transport departs from the terminal. The escorts shall observe the transport until it has departed and shall notify the licensee or his agent of the latest status immediately thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Access control subsystems and procedures.</I> (1) A numbered picture badge identification procedure shall be used to identify all individuals who will have custody of a shipment. The identification procedure shall require that the individual who has possession of the strategic special nuclear material shall have, in advance, identification picture badges of all individuals who are to assume custody for the shipment. The shipment shall be released only when the individual who has possession of strategic special nuclear material has assured positive identification of all of the persons assuming custody for the shipment by comparing the copies of the identification badges that have been received in advance to the identification badges carried by the individuals who will assume custody of the shipment. 
</P>
<P>(2) Access to protected areas, controlled access areas, transports, escort vehicles, aircraft, rail cars, and containers where strategic special nuclear material is located shall be limited to individuals who have been properly identified and have been authorized access to these areas. 
</P>
<P>(3) Strategic special nuclear material shall be shipped in containers that are protected by tamper-indicating seals. The containers also shall be locked if they are not in another locked container or transport. The outermost container or transport also shall be protected by tamper-indicating seals. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Test and maintenance programs.</I> The licensee or his agent shall establish, maintain and follow a test and maintenance program for communications equipment and other physical protection related devices and equipment used pursuant to this section which shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Tests and inspections shall be conducted during the installation, and construction of physical protection related subsystems and components to assure that they comply with their respective design criteria and performance specifications. 
</P>
<P>(2) Preoperational tests and inspections shall be conducted for physical protection related subsystems and components to demonstrate their effectiveness, availability, and reliability with respect to their respective design criteria and performance specifications. 
</P>
<P>(3) Operational tests and inspections shall be conducted for physical protection related subsystems and components to assure their maintenance in an operable and effective condition. 
</P>
<P>(4) Preventive maintenance programs shall be established for physical protection related subsystems and components to assure their continued maintenance in an operable and effective condition. 
</P>
<P>(5) All physical protection related subsystems and components shall be maintained in operable condition. Corrective action procedures and compensatory measures shall be developed and employed to assure that the effectiveness of the physical protection system is not reduced by any single failure or other contingencies affecting the operation of the physical protection related equipment or structures. 
</P>
<P>(6) The transportation security program must be reviewed at least every 12 months by individuals independent of both security program management and personnel who have direct responsibility for implementation of the security program. The review must include an audit of transportation security procedures and practices, an evaluation of the effectiveness of the transportation physical protection system, an audit of the transportation physical protection system testing and maintenance program, and an audit of commitments established for response by local law enforcement authorities. The results and recommendations of the review, management's findings on whether the transportation security program is currently effective, and any actions taken as a result of recommendations from prior reviews, must be documented in a report to the responsible organization management and to corporate management at least one level higher than that having responsibility for the day-to-day plant operation. These reports must be maintained in an auditable form, available for inspection for a period of 3 years. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Shipment by road.</I> (1) A detailed route plan shall be prepared which shows the routes to be taken, the refueling and rest stops, and the call-in times to the movement control center. All shipments shall be made on primary highways with minimum use of secondary roads. All shipments shall be made without intermediate stops except for refueling, rest or emergency stops. 
</P>
<P>(2) Cargo compartments of the trucks or trailers shall be locked and protected by tamper-indicating seals. 
</P>
<P>(3) The shipment shall be protected by one of the following methods: 
</P>
<P>(i) A specially designed cargo vehicle truck or trailer that reduces the vulnerability to theft. Design features of the truck or trailer shall permit immobilization of the truck or of the cargo-carrying portion of the vehicle and shall provide a deterrent to physical penetration of the cargo compartment. Two separate escort vehicles shall accompany the cargo vehicle. There shall be a total of seven armed escorts with at least two in the cargo vehicle. Escorts may also operate the cargo and escort vehicles. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An armored car cargo vehicle. Three separate escort vehicles shall accompany such a cargo vehicle. There shall be a total of seven armed escorts, with at least two in the cargo vehicle. Escorts may also operate the cargo and escort vehicles. 
</P>
<P>(4) All escort vehicles shall be bullet-resisting. 
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures shall be established to assure that no unauthorized persons or materials are on the cargo vehicle before strategic special nuclear material is loaded, or on the escort vehicles, immediately before the trip begins.
</P>
<P>(6) Cargo and escort vehicles shall maintain continuous intraconvoy two-way communication. In addition at least two of the vehicles shall be equipped with radio telephones having the capability of communicating with the movement control center. A redundant means of communication shall also be available. Calls to the movement control center shall be made at least every half hour to convey the status and position of the shipment. In the event no call is received in accordance with these requirements, the licensee or his agent shall immediately notify the law enforcement authorities and the Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, and initiate the appropriate contingency plan. 
</P>
<P>(7) At refueling, rest, or emergency stops at least seven armed escorts or other armed personnel shall be available to protect the shipment and at least three armed escorts or other armed personnel shall maintain continuous visual surveillance of the cargo compartment. 
</P>
<P>(8) Transfers to and from other modes of transportation shall be in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Shipment by air.</I> (1) All shipments on commercial cargo aircraft shall be accompanied by two armed escorts who shall be able to converse in a common language with the captain of the aircraft. 
</P>
<P>(2) Transfers of these shipments shall be minimized and shall be conducted in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. Such shipments shall be scheduled so that the strategic special nuclear material is loaded last and unloaded first. 
</P>
<P>(3) At scheduled stops, at least seven armed escorts or other armed personnel shall be available to protect the shipment and at least three armed escorts or other armed personnel shall maintain continuous visual surveillance of the cargo compartment. 
</P>
<P>(4) Export shipments shall be accompanied by two armed escorts from the last terminal in the United States until the shipment is unloaded at a foreign terminal and primary responsibility for physical protection is assumed by agents of the consignee. While on foreign soil, the escorts may surrender their weapons to legally constituted local authorities. After leaving the last terminal in the United States the shipment shall be scheduled with no intermediate stops. 
</P>
<P>(5) Import shipments shall be accompanied by two armed escorts at all times within the geographical limits of the United States. These escorts shall provide physical protection for the shipment until relieved by verified agents of the U.S. consignee. 
</P>
<P>(6) Procedures shall be established to assure that no unauthorized persons or material are on the aircraft before strategic special nuclear material is loaded on board. 
</P>
<P>(7) Arrangements shall be made at all domestic airports to assure that the seven required armed escorts or other armed personnel are available and that the required security measures will be taken upon landing. 
</P>
<P>(8) Arrangements shall be made at the foreign terminal at which the shipment is to be unloaded to assure that security measures will be taken on arrival. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Shipment by rail.</I> (1) A shipment by rail shall be escorted by seven armed escorts in the shipment car or an escort car next to the shipment car of the train. At least three escorts shall keep the shipment car under continuous visual surveillance. Escorts shall detrain at stops when practicable and time permits to maintain the shipment cars under continuous visual surveillance and to check car or container locks and seals. 
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures shall be established to assure that no unauthorized persons or materials are on the shipment or escort car before strategic special nuclear material is loaded on board. 
</P>
<P>(3) Only containers weighing 5,000 lbs or more shall be shipped on open rail cars. 
</P>
<P>(4) A voice communication capability between the escorts and the movement control center shall be maintained. A redundant means of continuous communication also shall be available. Calls to the movement control center shall be made at least every half hour to convey the status and position of the shipment. In the event no call is received in accordance with these requirements, the licensee or his agent shall immediately notify the law enforcement authorities and the appropriate Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed in appendix A of this part and initiate their contingency plan. 
</P>
<P>(5) Transfer to and from other modes of transportation shall be in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Shipment by sea.</I> (1) Shipments shall be made only on container-ships. The strategic special nuclear material container(s) shall be loaded into exclusive use cargo containers conforming to American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Standard MH5.1—“Basic Requirements for Cargo Containers” (1971) or International Standards Organization (ISO) 1496, “General Cargo Containers” (1978). Locks and seals shall be inspected by the escorts whenever access is possible. The ANSI Standard MH5.1 (1971) and the (ISO) 1496 (1978), have been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of each of these standards is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. 
</P>
<P>(2) All shipments shall be accompanied by two armed escorts who shall be able to converse in a common language with the captain of the ship. 
</P>
<P>(3) Minimum domestic ports of call shall be scheduled and there shall be no scheduled transfer to other vessels after the shipment leaves the last port in the United States. Transfer to and from other modes of transportation shall be in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) At all ports of call the escorts shall ensure that the shipment is not removed. At least two armed escorts or other armed personnel shall maintain continuous visual surveillance of the cargo area where the container is stored up to the time the ship departs. 
</P>
<P>(5) Export shipments shall be accompanied by two armed escorts from the last port in the United States until the shipment is unloaded at a foreign terminal and prime responsibility for physical protection is assumed by agents of the consignee. While on foreign soil, the escorts may surrender their weapons to legally constituted local authorities. 
</P>
<P>(6) Import shipments shall be accompanied by two armed escorts at all times within the geographical limits of the United States. These escorts shall provide physical protection for the shipment until relieved by verified agents of the U.S. consignee.
</P>
<P>(7) Ship-to-shore communications shall be available, and a ship-to-shore contact shall be made every six hours to relay position information, and the status of the shipment. 
</P>
<P>(8) Arrangements shall be made at the foreign terminals at which the shipment is to be unloaded to assure that security measures will be taken upon arrival.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 68190, Nov. 28, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 2025, Jan. 8, 1981; 53 FR 19257, May 27, 1988; 57 FR 33430, July 29, 1992; 57 FR 61787, Dec. 29, 1992; 59 FR 50689, Oct. 5, 1994; 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 14530, Mar. 26, 2003; 68 FR 23575, May 5, 2003; 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.27   Notification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A licensee who delivers formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material to a carrier for transport shall immediately notify the consignee by telephone, telegraph, or teletype, of the time of departure of the shipment, and shall notify or confirm with the consignee the method of transportation, including the names of carriers, and the estimated time of arrival of the shipment at its destination. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a shipment (f.o.b.) the point where it is delivered to a carrier for transport, a licensee shall, before the shipment is delivered to the carrier, obtain written certification from the licensee who is to take delivery of the shipment at the f.o.b. point that the physical protection arrangements required by §§ 73.25 and 73.26 for licensed shipments have been made. When a contractor exempt from the requirements for a Commission license is the consignee of a shipment, the licensee shall, before the shipment is delivered to the carrier, obtain written certification from the contractor who is to take delivery of the shipment at the f.o.b. point that the physical protection arrangements required by the United States Department of Energy Order Nos. 5632.1 or 5632.2, as appropriate, have been made. 
</P>
<P>(3) A licensee who delivers formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material to a carrier for transport or releases such special nuclear material f.o.b. at the point where it is delivered to a carrier for transport shall also make arrangements with the consignee to be notified immediately by telephone and telegraph, teletype, or cable, of the arrival of the shipment at its destination or of any such shipment that is lost or unaccounted for after the estimated time of arrival at its destination. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee who receives a shipment of formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material shall immediately notify by telephone and telegraph or teletype, the person who delivered the material to a carrier for transport and the Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, of the arrival of the shipment at its destination. When a United States Department of Energy license-exempt contractor is the consignee, the licensee who is the consignor shall notify by telephone and telegraph, or teletype, the Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response of the arrival of the shipment at its destination immediately upon being notified of the receipt of the shipment by the license-exempt contractor as arranged pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section. In the event such a shipment fails to arrive at its destination at the estimated time, or in the case of an export shipment, the licensee who exported the shipment, shall immediately notify by telephone and telegraph or teletype, the Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, and the licensee or other person who delivered the material to a carrier for transport. The licensee who made the physical protection arrangements shall also immediately notify by telephone and telegraph, or teletype, the Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response of the action being taken to trace the shipment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee who makes arrangements for physical protection of a shipment of formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material as required by §§ 73.25 and 73.26 shall immediately conduct a trace investigation of any shipment that is lost or unaccounted for after the estimated arrival time and file a report with the Commission as specified in §§ 73.1200 and 73.1205.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 68192, Nov. 28, 1979, as amended at 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 14530, Mar. 26, 2003; 68 FR 23575, May 5, 2003; 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 88 FR 15890, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.28" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.28   Security background checks for secure transfer of nuclear materials.</HEAD>
<P>Licensees are excepted from the security background check provisions in Section 170I of the AEA if they have not received Orders from the Nuclear Regulatory Commission containing requirements for background checks for trustworthiness and reliability that include fingerprinting and criminal history record checks as a prerequisite for unescorted access to radioactive materials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 3027, Jan. 24, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.35   Requirements for physical protection of irradiated reactor fuel (100 grams or less) in transit.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a quantity of irradiated reactor fuel weighing 100 grams (0.22 pounds) or less in net weight of irradiated fuel, exclusive of cladding or other structural or packaging material, which has a total external radiation level in excess of 1 Gray (100 rad) per hour at a distance of 1 meter (3.3 feet) from any accessible surface without intervening shielding, shall follow the physical protection requirements for category 1 quantities of radioactive material in subpart D of part 37 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 17021, Mar. 19, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 43402, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.37" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.37   Requirements for physical protection of irradiated reactor fuel in transit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Performance objectives.</I> (1) Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a quantity of irradiated reactor fuel 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in excess of 100 grams (0.22 lbs) in net weight of irradiated fuel, exclusive of cladding or other structural or packaging material, which has a total external radiation level in excess of 1 gray (100 rad) per hour at a distance of 1 meter (3.3 feet) from any accessible surface without intervening shielding, shall establish and maintain, or make arrangements for, and assure the proper implementation of, a physical protection system for shipments of such material that will achieve the following objectives:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For purposes of 10 CFR 73.37, the terms “irradiated reactor fuel” and “spent nuclear fuel” are used interchangeably.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) Minimize the potential for theft, diversion, or radiological sabotage of spent nuclear fuel shipments; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilitate the location and recovery of spent nuclear fuel shipments that may have come under the control of unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(2) To achieve these objectives, the physical protection system shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide for early detection and assessment of attempts to gain unauthorized access to, or control over, spent nuclear fuel shipments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Delay and impede attempts at theft, diversion, or radiological sabotage of spent nuclear fuel shipments; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide for notification to the appropriate response forces of any attempts at theft, diversion, or radiological sabotage of a spent nuclear fuel shipment.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> To achieve the performance objectives of paragraph (a) of this section, a physical protection system established and maintained, or arranged for, by the licensee shall include the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Preplan and coordinate spent nuclear fuel shipments.</I> Each licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that each armed escort, as defined in § 73.2, is instructed on the use of force sufficient to counter the force directed at the person, including the use of deadly force when the armed escort has a reasonable belief that the use of deadly force is necessary in self-defense or in the defense of others, or any other circumstances, as authorized by applicable Federal and State laws. This deadly force training requirement does not apply to members of local law enforcement agencies (LLEAs) performing escort duties for spent nuclear fuel shipments.
</P>
<P>(ii) Preplan and coordinate shipment itineraries to ensure that the receiver at the final delivery point is present to accept the shipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure written certification of any transfer of custody.
</P>
<P>(iv) Preplan and coordinate shipment information no later than 2 weeks prior to the shipment or prior to the first shipment of a series of shipments with the governor of a State, or the governor's designee, of a shipment of spent nuclear fuel through or across the boundary of the State, in order to:
</P>
<P>(A) Minimize intermediate stops and delays;
</P>
<P>(B) Arrange for State law enforcement escorts;
</P>
<P>(C) Arrange for positional information sharing when requested; and
</P>
<P>(D) Develop route information, including the identification of safe havens.
</P>
<P>(v) Arrange with local law enforcement authorities along the shipment route, including U.S. ports where vessels carrying spent nuclear fuel shipments are docked, for their response to a security-related emergency or a call for assistance.
</P>
<P>(vi) Preplan and coordinate with the NRC to obtain advance approval of the routes used for road and rail shipments of spent nuclear fuel, and of any U.S. ports where vessels carrying spent nuclear fuel shipments are scheduled to stop. In addition to the requirements of this section, routes used for shipping spent nuclear fuel shall comply with the applicable requirements of the DOT regulations in Title 49 of the <I>Code of Federal Regulations</I> (49 CFR), in particular those identified in § 71.5 of this chapter. The advance approval application shall provide:
</P>
<P>(A) For road shipments, the route shall include locations of safe havens that have been coordinated with the appropriate State(s).
</P>
<P>(B) The NRC approval shall be obtained prior to the 10-day advance notification requirement in § 73.72 of this part.
</P>
<P>(C) Information to be supplied to the NRC shall include, but is not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Shipper, consignee, carriers, transfer points, modes of shipment; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A statement of shipment security arrangements, including, if applicable, points where armed escorts transfer responsibility for the shipment.
</P>
<P>(vii) Document the preplanning and coordination activities.
</P>
<P>(viii) Ensure the protection of Safeguards Information relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit in accordance with §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this part, especially the information described in § 73.22(a)(2), which would include, at a minimum, the protection of the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The preplanning and coordination activities;
</P>
<P>(B) Transportation physical security plan;
</P>
<P>(C) Schedules and itineraries for specific spent nuclear fuel shipments until the information is no longer controlled as Safeguards Information, that is until at least 10 days after the shipment has entered or originated within the state; or for the case of a shipment in a series of shipments whose schedules are related, a statement that schedule information must be protected until 10 days after the last shipment in the series has entered or originated within the state and an estimate of the date on which the last shipment in the series will enter or originate within the state;
</P>
<P>(D) Vehicle immobilization features, intrusion alarm devices, and communications;
</P>
<P>(E) Arrangements with and capabilities of local police response forces, and locations of safe havens identified along the transportation route;
</P>
<P>(F) Limitations of communications during transport;
</P>
<P>(G) Procedures for response to security contingency events;
</P>
<P>(H) Information concerning the tactics and capabilities required to defend against attempted sabotage, or theft and diversion of irradiated reactor fuel, or related information; and
</P>
<P>(I) Engineering or safety analyses, security-related procedures or scenarios and other information related to the protection of the transported material if the unauthorized disclosure of such analyses, procedures, scenarios, or other information could reasonably be expected to have a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of theft, diversion, or sabotage of spent nuclear fuel in transit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advance notifications.</I> Prior to the shipment of spent nuclear fuel moving through or across the boundary of any State, outside the confines of the licensee's facility or other place of use or storage, a licensee subject to this section shall provide notification to the NRC, under § 73.72 of this part, and the governor of the State(s), or the governor's designee(s), of the spent nuclear fuel shipment. After June 11, 2013, the compliance date of the Tribal notification final rule, a licensee subject to this section shall notify the Tribal official or Tribal official's designee of each participating Tribe referenced in § 71.97(c)(3) of this chapter prior to the transport of spent fuel within or across the Tribal reservation. Contact information for each State, including telephone and mailing addresses of governors and governors' designees, and participating Tribes, including telephone and mailing addresses of Tribal officials and Tribal official's designees, is available on the NRC Web site at: <I>https://scp.nrc.gov/special/designee.pdf”.</I> A list of the contact information is also available upon request from the Director, Division of Materials Safety, Security, State, and Tribal Programs, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555. The licensee shall comply with the following criteria in regard to each notification:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures for submitting advance notification.</I> (A) The notification must be in writing and sent to the office of each appropriate governor or the governor's designee and each appropriate Tribal official or the Tribal official's designee.
</P>
<P>(B) A notification delivered by mail must be postmarked at least 10 days before transport of a shipment within or through the State or Tribal reservation.
</P>
<P>(C) A notification delivered by any other method must reach the office of the governor or the governor's designee and any Tribal official or Tribal official's designee at least 7 days before transport of a shipment within or through the State.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information to be furnished in advance notification of shipment.</I> The notification must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name, address, and telephone number of the shipper, carrier and receiver of the shipment and the license number of the shipper and receiver;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the shipment as specified by DOT in 49 CFR 172.202 and 172.203(d); and
</P>
<P>(C) A listing of the routes to be used within the State or Tribal reservation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Separate enclosure.</I> The licensee shall provide the following information, under § 73.22(f)(1), in a separate enclosure to the written notification:
</P>
<P>(A) The estimated date and time of departure from the point of origin of the shipment;
</P>
<P>(B) The estimated date and time of entry into the State or Tribal reservation;
</P>
<P>(C) The estimated date and time of arrival of the shipment at the destination;
</P>
<P>(D) For the case of a single shipment whose schedule is not related to the schedule of any subsequent shipment, a statement that schedule information must be protected under the provisions of §§ 73.21 and 73.22 until at least 10 days after the shipment has entered or originated within the State or Tribal reservation; and
</P>
<P>(E) For the case of a shipment in a series of shipments whose schedules are related, a statement that schedule information must be protected under the provisions of §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this part until 10 days after the last shipment in the series has entered or originated within the State or Tribal reservation, and an estimate of the date on which the last shipment in the series will enter or originate within the State or Tribal reservation.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Revision notice.</I> A licensee shall notify by telephone a responsible individual in the office of the governor or in the office of the governor's designee and the office of the Tribal official or in the office of the Tribal official's designee of any schedule change that differs by more than 6 hours from the schedule information previously furnished under paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, and shall inform that individual of the number of hours of advance or delay relative to the written schedule information previously furnished.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Cancellation notice.</I> Each licensee who cancels a shipment for which advance notification has been sent shall send a cancellation notice to the governor or to the governor's designee of each State previously notified, each Tribal official or the Tribal official's designee previously notified, and to the NRC's Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555. The licensee shall state in the notice that it is a cancellation and identify the advance notification that is being canceled.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Records.</I> The licensee shall retain a copy of the preplanning and coordination activities, advance notification, and any revision or cancellation notice as a record for 3 years under § 73.70 of this part.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transportation physical protection program.</I> (i) The transportation physical protection program established under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall include armed escorts to protect spent nuclear fuel shipments and a movement control center, as defined in § 73.2 of this part, staffed and equipped to monitor and control spent nuclear fuel shipments, to communicate with local law enforcement authorities, and to respond to safeguards contingencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) The movement control center must be staffed continuously by at least one individual who will actively monitor the progress of the spent nuclear fuel shipment and who has the authority to coordinate the physical protection activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) The movement control center personnel must monitor the shipment continuously, <I>i.e.</I>, 24-hours per day, from the time the shipment commences, or if delivered to a carrier for transport, from the time of delivery of the shipment to the carrier, until safe delivery of the shipment at its final destination, and must immediately notify the appropriate agencies in the event of a safeguards event under the provisions of § 73.1200 of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) The movement control center personnel and the armed escorts must maintain a written log for each spent nuclear fuel shipment, which will include information describing the shipment and significant events that occur during the shipment. The log must be available for review by authorized NRC personnel for a period of at least 3 years following completion of the shipment.
</P>
<P>(v) The licensee shall develop, maintain, revise and implement written transportation physical protection procedures which address the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Access controls to ensure no unauthorized persons have access to the shipment and Safeguards Information;
</P>
<P>(B) Roles and responsibilities of the movement control center personnel, drivers, armed escorts and other individuals relative to the security of the shipment;
</P>
<P>(C) Reporting of safeguards events under § 73.1200 of this part;
</P>
<P>(D) Communications protocols that include a strategy for the use of authentication and duress codes, the management of refueling or other stops, detours, and the loss of communications, temporarily or otherwise; and
</P>
<P>(E) Normal conditions operating procedures.
</P>
<P>(vi) The licensee shall retain as a record the transportation physical protection procedures for 3 years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the spent nuclear fuel.
</P>
<P>(vii) The transportation physical protection program shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide that escorts (other than members of local law enforcement agencies serving as armed escorts, or ship's officers serving as unarmed escorts) have successfully completed the training required by appendix D of this part, including the equivalent of the weapons training and qualifications program required of guards, as described in sections III and IV of appendix B of this part, to assure that each such individual is fully qualified to use the assigned weapons;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide that shipment escorts communicate with the movement control center at random intervals, not to exceed 2 hours, to advise of the status of the shipment for road and rail shipments, and for sea shipments while shipment vessels are docked at U.S. ports; and
</P>
<P>(C) Provide that at least one armed escort remains alert at all times, maintains constant visual surveillance of the shipment, and periodically reports to the movement control center at regular intervals not to exceed 30 minutes during periods when the shipment vehicle is stopped, or the shipment vessel is docked.
</P>
<P>(viii)(A) The licensee must ensure that the firearms background check requirements of § 73.17 are met for all armed escorts whose official duties require access to covered weapons or who inventory enhanced weapons.
</P>
<P>(B) The provisions of this paragraph are only applicable to licensees subject to this section who are also subject to the firearms background check provisions of § 73.17.
</P>
<P>(C) The provisions of this paragraph are not applicable to members of local law enforcement agencies serving as armed escorts or ship's officers serving as unarmed escorts.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contingency and response procedures.</I> (i) In addition to the procedures established under paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section, the licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow written contingency and response procedures to address threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage related to spent nuclear fuel in transit.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall ensure that personnel associated with the shipment shall be appropriately trained regarding contingency and response procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee shall retain the contingency and response procedures as a record for 3 years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the spent nuclear fuel.
</P>
<P>(iv) The contingency and response procedures must direct that, upon detection of the abnormal presence of unauthorized persons, vehicles, or vessels in the vicinity of a spent nuclear fuel shipment or upon detection of a deliberately induced situation that has the potential for damaging a spent nuclear fuel shipment, the armed escort will:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine whether or not a threat exists;
</P>
<P>(B) Assess the extent of the threat, if any;
</P>
<P>(C) Implement the procedures developed under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Take the necessary steps to delay or impede threats, thefts, or radiological sabotage of spent nuclear fuel; and
</P>
<P>(E) Inform local law enforcement agencies of the threat and request assistance without delay, but not to exceed 15 minutes after discovery.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Shipments by road.</I> In addition to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the physical protection system for any portion of a spent nuclear fuel shipment by road shall provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) The transport vehicle is:
</P>
<P>(i) Occupied by at least two individuals, one of whom serves as an armed escort, and escorted by an armed member of the local law enforcement agency in a mobile unit of such agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Led by a separate vehicle occupied by at least one armed escort, and trailed by a third vehicle occupied by at least one armed escort.
</P>
<P>(2) As permitted by law, all armed escorts are equipped with a minimum of two weapons. This requirement does not apply to local law enforcement agency personnel who are performing escort duties.
</P>
<P>(3) The transport vehicle and each escort vehicle are equipped with redundant communication abilities that provide 2-way communications between the transport vehicle, the escort vehicle(s), the movement control center, local law enforcement agencies, and one another. To ensure that 2-way communication is possible at all times, alternate communications should not be subject to the same failure modes as the primary communication.
</P>
<P>(4) The transport vehicle is equipped with NRC-approved features that permit immobilization of the cab or cargo-carrying portion of the vehicle.
</P>
<P>(5) The transport vehicle driver has been familiarized with, and is capable of implementing, transport vehicle immobilization, communications, and other security procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) Shipments are continuously and actively monitored by a telemetric position monitoring system or an alternative tracking system reporting to a movement control center. A movement control center shall provide positive confirmation of the location, status, and control over the shipment. The movement control center shall implement preplanned procedures in response to deviations from the authorized route or a notification of actual, attempted, or suspicious activities related to the theft, loss, diversion, or radiological sabotage of a shipment. These procedures shall include, but not be limited to, the identification of and contact information for the appropriate local law enforcement agency along the shipment route.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Shipments by rail.</I> In addition to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the physical protection system for any portion of a spent nuclear fuel shipment by rail shall provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) A shipment car is accompanied by two armed escorts (who may be members of a local law enforcement agency), at least one of whom is stationed at a location on the train that will permit observation of the shipment car while in motion.
</P>
<P>(2) As permitted by law, all armed escorts are equipped with a minimum of two weapons. This requirement does not apply to local law enforcement agency personnel who are performing escort duties.
</P>
<P>(3) The train operator(s) and each escort are equipped with redundant communication abilities that provide 2-way communications between the transport, the escort vehicle(s), the movement control center, local law enforcement agencies, and one another. To ensure that 2-way communication is possible at all times, alternate communications should not be subject to the same failure modes as the primary communication.
</P>
<P>(4) Rail shipments are monitored by a telemetric position monitoring system or an alternative tracking system reporting to the licensee, third-party, or railroad movement control center. The movement control center shall provide positive confirmation of the location of the shipment and its status. The movement control center shall implement preplanned procedures in response to deviations from the authorized route or to a notification of actual, attempted, or suspicious activities related to the theft, diversion, or radiological sabotage of a shipment. These procedures shall include, but not be limited to, the identification of and contact information for the appropriate local law enforcement agency along the shipment route.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Shipments by U.S. waters.</I> In addition to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the physical protection system for any portion of a spent nuclear fuel shipment traveling on U.S. waters shall provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) A shipment vessel while docked at a U.S. port is protected by:
</P>
<P>(i) Two armed escorts stationed on board the shipment vessel, or stationed on the dock at a location that will permit observation of the shipment vessel; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A member of a local law enforcement agency, equipped with normal local law enforcement agency radio communications, who is stationed on board the shipment vessel, or on the dock at a location that will permit observation of the shipment vessel.
</P>
<P>(2) As permitted by law, all armed escorts are equipped with a minimum of two weapons. This requirement does not apply to local law enforcement agency personnel who are performing escort duties.
</P>
<P>(3) A shipment vessel while within U.S. territorial waters shall be accompanied by an individual, who may be an officer of the shipment vessel's crew, who will assure that the shipment is unloaded only as authorized by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(4) Each armed escort is equipped with redundant communication abilities that provide 2-way communications between the vessel, the movement control center, local law enforcement agencies, and one another. To ensure that 2-way communication is possible at all times, alternate communications should not be subject to the same failure modes as the primary communication.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investigations.</I> Each licensee who makes arrangements for the shipment of spent nuclear fuel shall immediately conduct an investigation, in coordination with the receiving licensee, of any shipment that is lost or unaccounted for after the designated no-later-than arrival time in the advance notification.
</P>
<P>(g) State officials, State employees, Tribal officials, Tribal employees, and other individuals, whether or not licensees of the NRC, who receive information of the kind specified in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section and any other Safeguards Information as defined in § 73.22(a) of this part shall protect that information against unauthorized disclosure as specified in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 29550, May 20, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015; 83 FR 30288, June 28, 2018; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 86 FR 43403, Aug. 9, 2021; 88 FR 15890, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.38" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.5.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.38   Personnel access authorization requirements for irradiated reactor fuel in transit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Each licensee who transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport, in a single shipment, a quantity of spent nuclear fuel as described in § 73.37(a)(1) of this part shall comply with the requirements of this section, as appropriate, before any spent nuclear fuel is transported or delivered to a carrier for transport.
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee shall establish, implement, and maintain its access authorization program under the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Each licensee shall be responsible for the continuing effectiveness of the access authorization program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each licensee shall ensure that the access authorization program is reviewed at an appropriate frequency to confirm compliance with the requirements of this section and that prompt comprehensive actions are taken to correct any noncompliance that is identified.
</P>
<P>(iii) The review shall evaluate all program performance objectives and requirements.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each review report must document conditions that are adverse to the proper performance of the access authorization program, the cause of the condition(s), and when appropriate, recommended corrective actions, and corrective actions taken. The licensee shall review the audit findings and take any additional corrective actions necessary to preclude repetition of the condition, including reassessment of the deficient areas where indicated.
</P>
<P>(3) By August 19, 2013, each licensee that is subject to this provision shall implement the requirements of this section through revisions to its physical security plan or transportation security plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General performance objective.</I> The licensee's access authorization program must ensure that the individuals specified in paragraph (c) of this section are trustworthy and reliable such that they do not constitute an unreasonable risk to public health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) Licensees shall subject the following individuals to an access authorization program:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual to whom a licensee intends to grant unescorted access to spent nuclear fuel in transit, including employees of a contractor or vendor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any individual whose duties and responsibilities permit the individual to take actions by physical or electronic means that could adversely impact the safety, security, or emergency response to spent nuclear fuel in transit (<I>i.e.</I>, movement control personnel, vehicle drivers, or other individuals accompanying spent nuclear fuel shipments);
</P>
<P>(iii) Any individual whose duties and responsibilities include implementing a licensee's physical protection program under § 73.37, including but not limited to, non-LLEA armed escorts;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any individual whose assigned duties and responsibilities provide access to spent nuclear fuel shipment information that is considered to be Safeguards Information under § 73.22(a)(2); and
</P>
<P>(v) The licensee access authorization program reviewing official.
</P>
<P>(2) Fingerprinting, and the identification and criminal history records checks required by Section 149 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and other elements of the background investigation are not required for the following individuals prior to granting access authorization relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit:
</P>
<P>(i) Persons identified in §§ 73.59 and 73.61 of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Federal, State, and local officials, including inspectors, whose occupational status are consistent with the promotion of common defense and security and the protection of public health and safety relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit;
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency response personnel who are responding to an emergency;
</P>
<P>(iv) An individual who has had a favorably adjudicated U.S. Government criminal history records check within the last 5 years, under a comparable U.S. Government program involving fingerprinting and an FBI identification and criminal history records check (e.g. National Agency Check, Transportation Worker Identification Credentials (TWIC) under 49 CFR part 1572, Bureau of Alcohol Tobacco Firearms and Explosives background check and clearances under 27 CFR part 555, Health and Human Services security risk assessments for possession and use of select agents and toxins under 42 CFR part 73, Hazardous Material security threat assessment for hazardous material endorsement to commercial drivers license under 49 CFR part 1572, Customs and Border Patrol's Free and Secure Trade (FAST) Program) provided that he or she makes available the appropriate documentation. Written confirmation from the agency/employer that granted the Federal security clearance or reviewed the criminal history records check must be provided to the licensee. The licensee shall retain this documentation for a period of 3 years from the date the individual no longer requires access authorization relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any individual who has an active Federal security clearance, provided that he or she makes available the appropriate documentation. Written confirmation from the agency/employer that granted the Federal security clearance or reviewed the criminal history records check must be provided to the licensee. The licensee shall retain this documentation for a period of 3 years from the date the individual no longer requires access authorization relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Background investigation.</I> Before allowing an individual to have unescorted access or access authorization relative to spent nuclear fuel 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> in transit the licensees shall complete a background investigation as defined in § 73.2 of this part of the individual seeking to have unescorted access or access authorization. The scope of the investigation must encompass at least the past 10 years, or if 10 years of information is not available then as many years in the past that information is available. The background investigation does not apply to Federal, State or local law enforcement personnel who are performing escort duties. The background investigation must include, but is not limited to, the following elements:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For purposes of 10 CFR 73.38, the terms “irradiated reactor fuel” as described in 10 CFR 73.37 and “spent nuclear fuel” are used interchangeably.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) <I>Informed consent.</I> Licensees shall not initiate any element of a background investigation without the informed and signed consent of the subject individual. This consent shall include authorization to share personal information with appropriate entities. The licensee to whom the individual is applying for access authorization shall inform the individual of his or her right to review information collected to assure its accuracy, and provide the individual with an opportunity to correct any inaccurate or incomplete information that is developed by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(i) The subject individual may withdraw his or her consent at any time. Licensees shall inform the individual that:
</P>
<P>(A) Withdrawal of his or her consent will remove the individual's application for access authorization under the licensee's access authorization program; and
</P>
<P>(B) Other licensees shall have access to information documenting the withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an individual withdraws his or her consent, licensees may not initiate any elements of the background investigation that were not in progress at the time the individual withdrew his or her consent, but shall complete any background investigation elements that are in progress at the time consent is withdrawn. The licensee shall record the status of the individual's application for access authorization. Additionally, licensees shall collect and maintain the individual's application for access authorization; his or her withdrawal of consent for the background investigation; the reason given by the individual for the withdrawal; and any pertinent information collected from the background investigation elements that were completed. This information must be shared with other licensees under paragraph (l)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensees shall inform, in writing, any individual who is applying for access authorization that the following actions are sufficient cause for denial or unfavorable termination of access authorization status:
</P>
<P>(A) Refusal to provide a signed consent for the background investigation;
</P>
<P>(B) Refusal to provide, or the falsification of, any personal history information required under this section, including the failure to report any previous denial or unfavorable termination of access authorization;
</P>
<P>(C) Refusal to provide signed consent for the sharing of personal information with other licensees under paragraph (d)(5)(v) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(D) Failure to report any arrests or legal actions specified in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personal history disclosure.</I> Any individual who is required to have a background investigation under this section shall disclose the personal history information that is required by the licensee's access authorization program for the reviewing official to make a determination of the individual's trustworthiness and reliability. Refusal to provide, or the falsification of, any personal history information required by this section is sufficient cause for denial or termination of access authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criminal history.</I> Fingerprinting and an FBI identification and criminal history records check under § 73.57 of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Verification of true identity.</I> Licensees shall verify the true identity of an individual who is applying to have access authorization to ensure that the applicant is who they claim to be. A licensee shall review official identification documents (e.g., driver's license, passport, government identification, State, province, or country of birth issued certificate of birth) and compare the documents to personal information data provided by the individual to identify any discrepancy in the information. Licensees shall document the type, expiration, and identification number of the identification, or maintain a photocopy of identifying documents on file under § 73.38(c). Licensees shall certify and affirm in writing that the identification was properly reviewed and maintain the certification and all related documents for review upon inspection.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Employment history evaluation.</I> Licensees shall ensure that an employment history evaluation has been completed on a best effort basis, by questioning the individual's present and former employers, and by determining the activities of the individual while unemployed.
</P>
<P>(i) For the claimed employment period, the individual must provide the reason for any termination, eligibility for rehire, and other information that could reflect on the individual's trustworthiness and reliability.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the claimed employment was military service the individual shall provide a characterization of service, reason for separation, and any disciplinary actions that could affect a trustworthiness and reliability determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) If education is claimed in lieu of employment, the individual shall provide any information related to the claimed education that could reflect on the individual's trustworthiness and reliability and, at a minimum, verify that the individual was registered for the classes and received grades that indicate that the individual participated in the educational process during the claimed period.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a previous employer, educational institution, or any other entity with which the individual claims to have been engaged fails to provide information or indicates an inability or unwillingness to provide information within 3 business days of the request, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Document this refusal or unwillingness in the licensee's record of the investigation; and
</P>
<P>(B) Obtain a confirmation of employment, educational enrollment and attendance, or other form of engagement claimed by the individual from at least one alternate source that has not been previously used.
</P>
<P>(v) When any licensee is seeking the information required for an access authorization decision under this section and has obtained a signed release from the subject individual authorizing the disclosure of such information, other licensees shall make available the personal or access authorization information requested regarding the denial or unfavorable termination of an access authorization.
</P>
<P>(vi) In conducting an employment history evaluation, the licensee may obtain information and documents by electronic means, including, but not limited to, telephone, facsimile, or email. Licensees shall make a record of the contents of the telephone call and shall retain that record, and any documents or electronic files obtained electronically, under paragraph (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Credit history evaluation.</I> Licensees shall ensure the evaluation of the full credit history of any individual who is applying for access authorization relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit. A full credit history evaluation must include, but is not limited to, an inquiry to detect potential fraud or misuse of social security numbers or other financial identifiers, and a review and evaluation of all of the information that is provided by a national credit-reporting agency about the individual's credit history. For foreign nationals and U.S. citizens who have resided outside the U.S. and do not have established credit history that covers at least the most recent 7 years in the U.S., the licensee must document all attempts to obtain information regarding the individual's credit history and financial responsibility from some relevant entity located in that other country or countries.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Criminal history review.</I> The licensee shall evaluate the entire criminal history record of an individual who is applying for access authorization to determine whether the individual has a record of criminal activity that may adversely impact his or her trustworthiness and reliability. The scope of the applicant's criminal history review must cover all residences of record for the 10-year period preceding the date of application for access authorization.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Character and reputation determination.</I> Licensees shall ascertain the character and reputation of an individual who has applied for access authorization relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit by conducting reference checks. Reference checks may not be conducted with any person who is known to be a close member of the individual's family, including but not limited to, the individual's spouse, parents, siblings, or children, or any individual who resides in the individual's permanent household. The reference checks must focus on the individual's reputation for trustworthiness and reliability.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Corroboration.</I> The licensee shall also, to the extent possible, obtain independent information to corroborate that provided by the individual (e.g., seek references not supplied by the individual).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination of trustworthiness and reliability; Documentation.</I> (1) The licensee shall determine whether to grant, deny, unfavorably terminate, maintain, or administratively withdraw an individual's access authorization based on an evaluation of all of the information required by this section. The licensee may terminate or administratively withdraw an individual's access authorization based on information obtained after the background investigation has been completed and the individual granted access authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee may not permit any individual to have unescorted access or access authorization until all of the information required by this section has been evaluated by the reviewing official and the reviewing official has determined that the individual is trustworthy and reliable. The licensee may deny unescorted access or access authorization to any individual based on disqualifying information obtained at any time during the background investigation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Protection of information.</I> (1) Licensees shall protect background investigation information from unauthorized disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees may not disclose the background investigation information collected and maintained to persons other than the subject individual, his/her representative, or to those who have a need to know in performing assigned duties related to the process of granting or denying unescorted access to spent nuclear fuel in transit. No individual authorized to have access to the information may re-disseminate the information to any other individual who does not have a need to know.
</P>
<P>(3) The personal information obtained on an individual from a background investigation may be transferred to another licensee:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon the individual's written request to the licensee holding the data to re-disseminate the information contained in his/her file; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquiring licensee verifies information such as name, date of birth, social security number, sex, and other applicable physical characteristics for identification.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall make background investigation records obtained under this section available for examination by an authorized representative of the NRC to determine compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee shall retain all fingerprint and criminal history records received from the FBI, or a copy if the file has been transferred, on an individual (including data indicating no record) for 5 years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access or access authorization relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Grandfathering.</I> For purposes of this section, licensees are not required to obtain the fingerprints of any person who has been fingerprinted, pursuant to an NRC order or regulation, for an FBI identification and criminal history records check within the 5 years of the effective date of this rule.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reinvestigations.</I> Licensees shall conduct fingerprinting and FBI identification and criminal history records check, a criminal history review, and credit history re-evaluation every 10 years for any individual who has unescorted access authorization to spent nuclear fuel in transit. The reinvestigations must be completed within 10 years of the date on which these elements were last completed and should address the 10 years following the previous investigation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Self-reporting of legal actions.</I> (1) Any individual who has applied for an access authorization or is maintaining an access authorization under this section shall promptly report to the reviewing official, his or her supervisor, or other management personnel designated in licensee procedures any legal action(s) taken by a law enforcement authority or court of law to which the individual has been subject that could result in incarceration or a court order or that requires a court appearance, including but not limited to an arrest, an indictment, the filing of charges, or a conviction, but excluding minor civil actions or misdemeanors such as parking violations or speeding tickets. The recipient of the report shall, if other than the reviewing official, promptly convey the report to the reviewing official. On the day that the report is received, the reviewing official shall evaluate the circumstances related to the reported legal action(s) and re-determine the reported individual's access authorization status.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall inform the individual of this obligation, in writing, prior to granting unescorted access or certifying access authorization.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Access authorization procedures.</I> (1) Licensees shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures for conducting background investigations for persons who are applying for unescorted access or access authorization for spent nuclear fuel in transit.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures for updating background investigations for persons who are applying for reinstatement of unescorted access or access authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures to ensure that persons who have been denied unescorted access or access authorization are not allowed access to spent nuclear fuel in transit or information relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees shall develop, implement, and maintain written procedures for the notification of individuals who are denied unescorted access or access authorization for spent nuclear fuel in transit. The procedures shall include provisions for the review, at the request of the affected individual, of a denial or termination of unescorted access or access authorization. The procedure must contain a provision to ensure that the individual is informed of the grounds for the denial or termination of unescorted access or access authorization and allow the individual an opportunity to provide additional relevant information.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Right to correct and complete information.</I> (1) Prior to any final adverse determination, licensees shall provide each individual subject to this section with the right to complete, correct, and explain information obtained as a result of the licensee's background investigation. Confirmation of receipt by the individual of this notification must be maintained by the licensee for a period of 1 year from the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(2) If after reviewing their criminal history record an individual believes that it is incorrect or incomplete in any respect and wishes to change, correct, update, or explain anything in the record, the individual may initiate challenge procedures.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Records.</I> (1) The licensee shall retain documentation regarding the trustworthiness and reliability of individual employees for 5 years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access or access authorization relative to spent nuclear fuel in transit.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall retain a copy of the current access authorization program procedures as a record for 5 years after the procedure is no longer needed or until the Commission terminates the license, if the license is terminated before the end of the retention period. If any portion of the procedure is superseded, the licensee shall retain the superseded material for 5 years after the record is superseded.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall retain the list of persons approved for unescorted access or access authorization and the list of those individuals that have been denied unescorted access or access authorization for 5 years after the list is superseded or replaced.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees who have been authorized to add or manipulate data that is shared with licensees subject to this section shall ensure that data linked to the information about individuals who have applied for unescorted access or access authorization, which is specified in the licensee's access authorization program documents, is retained.
</P>
<P>(i) If the shared information used for determining individual's trustworthiness and reliability changes or new or additional information is developed about the individual, the licensees that acquire this information shall correct or augment the data and ensure it is shared with licensees subject to this section. If the changed, additional or developed information has implications for adversely affecting an individual's trustworthiness and reliability, licensees who discovered or obtained the new, additional or changed information, shall, on the day of discovery, inform the reviewing official of any licensee access authorization program under which the individual is maintaining his or her unescorted access or access authorization status of the updated information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The reviewing official shall evaluate the shared information and take appropriate actions, which may include denial or unfavorable termination of the individual's unescorted access or access authorization. If the notification of change or updated information cannot be made through usual methods, licensees shall take manual actions to ensure that the information is shared as soon as reasonably possible. Records maintained in any database(s) must be available for the NRC review.
</P>
<P>(5) If a licensee administratively withdraws an individual's unescorted access or access authorization status caused by a delay in completing any portion of the background investigation or for a licensee initiated evaluation, or re-evaluation that is not under the individual's control, the licensee shall record this administrative action to withdraw the individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization and shall share this information with other licensees subject to this section. However, licensees shall not document this administrative withdrawal as denial or unfavorable termination and shall not respond to a suitable inquiry conducted under the provisions of 10 CFR part 26, a background investigation conducted under the provisions of this section, or any other inquiry or investigation as denial nor unfavorable termination. Upon favorable completion of the background investigation element that caused the administrative withdrawal, the licensee shall immediately ensure that any matter that could link the individual to the administrative action is eliminated from the subject individual's access authorization or personnel record and other records, except if a review of the information obtained or developed causes the reviewing official to unfavorably terminate or deny the individual's unescorted access.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 29553, May 20, 2013]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Physical Protection Requirements at Fixed Sites</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 15881, Mar. 14, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.6.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.40   Physical protection: General requirements at fixed sites.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall provide physical protection at a fixed site, or contiguous sites where licensed activities are conducted, against radiological sabotage, or against theft of special nuclear material, or against both, in accordance with the applicable sections of this Part for each specific class of facility or material license. If applicable, the licensee shall establish and maintain physical security in accordance with security plans approved by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 13700, Mar. 15, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.6.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.45   Performance capabilities for fixed site physical protection systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To meet the general performance requirements of § 73.20 a fixed site physical protection system shall include the performance capabilities described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section unless otherwise authorized by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prevent unauthorized access of persons, vehicles and materials into material access areas and vital areas. To achieve this capability the physical protection system shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Detect attempts to gain unauthorized access or introduce unauthorized material across material access or vital area boundaries by stealth or force using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Barriers to channel persons and material to material access and vital area entry control points and to delay any unauthorized penetration attempts by persons or materials sufficient to assist detection and permit a response that will prevent the penetration; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Access detection subsystems and procedures to detect, assess and communicate any unauthorized penetration attempts by persons or materials at the time of the attempt so that the response can prevent the unauthorized access or penetration. 
</P>
<P>(2) Detect attempts to gain unauthorized access or introduce unauthorized materials into material access areas or vital areas by deceit using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Access authorization controls and procedures to provide current authorization schedules and entry criteria for both persons and materials; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Entry controls and procedures to verify the identity of persons and materials and assess such identity against current authorization schedules and entry criteria before permitting entry and to initiate response measures to deny unauthorized entries. 
</P>
<P>(c) Permit only authorized activities and conditions within protected areas, material access areas, and vital areas. To achieve this capability the physical protection system shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Detect unauthorized activities or conditions within protected areas, material access areas and vital areas using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Controls and procedures that establish current schedules of authorized activities and conditions in defined areas; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Boundaries to define areas within which the authorized activities and conditions are permitted; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Detection and surveillance subsystems and procedures to discover and assess unauthorized activities and conditions and communicate them so that response can be such as to stop the activity or correct the conditions to satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a). 
</P>
<P>(d) Permit only authorized placement and movement of strategic special nuclear material within material access areas. To achieve this capability the physical protection system shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Detect unauthorized placement and movement of strategic special nuclear material within the material access area using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Controls and procedures to delineate authorized placement and control for strategic special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls and procedures to establish current authorized placement and movement of all strategic special nuclear material within material access areas; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Controls and procedures to maintain knowledge of the identity, quantity, placement, and movement of all strategic special nuclear material within material access areas; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Detection and monitoring subsystems and procedures to discover and assess unauthorized placement and movement of strategic special nuclear material and communicate them so that response can be such as to return the strategic special nuclear material to authorized placement or control. 
</P>
<P>(e) Permit removal of only authorized and confirmed forms and amounts of strategic special nuclear material from material access areas. To achieve this capability the physical protection system shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Detect attempts at unauthorized removal of strategic special nuclear material from material access areas by stealth or force using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Barriers to channel persons and materials exiting a material access area to exit control points and to delay any unauthorized strategic special nuclear material removal attempts sufficient to assist detection and assessment and permit a response that will prevent the removal; and satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Detection subsystems and procedures to detect, assess and communicate any attempts at unauthorized removal of strategic special nuclear material so that response to the attempt can be such as to prevent the removal and satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a). 
</P>
<P>(2) Confirm the identity and quantity of strategic special nuclear material presented for removal from a material access area and detect attempts at unauthorized removal of strategic special nuclear material from material access areas by deceit using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Authorization controls and procedures to provide current schedules for authorized removal of strategic special nuclear material which specify the authorized properties and quantities of material to be removed, the persons authorized to remove the material, and the authorized time schedule; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Removal controls and procedures to identify and confirm the properties and quantities of material being removed and verify the identity of the persons making the removal and time of removal and assess these against the current authorized removal schedule before permitting removal; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Communications subsystems and procedures to provide for notification of an attempted unauthorized or unconfirmed removal so that response can be such as to prevent the removal and satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a). 
</P>
<P>(f) Provide for authorized access and assure detection of and response to unauthorized penetrations of the protected area to satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a). To achieve this capability the physical protection system shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Detect attempts to gain unauthorized access or introduce unauthorized persons, vehicles, or materials into the protected area by stealth or force using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Barriers to channel persons, vehicles, and materials to protected area entry control points; and to delay any unauthorized penetration attempts or the introduction of unauthorized vehicles or materials sufficient to assist detection and assessment and permit a response that will prevent the penetration or prevent such penetration and satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Access detection subsystems and procedures to detect, assess and communicate any unauthorized access or penetrations or such attempts by persons, vehicles, or materials at the time of the act or the attempt so that the response can be such as to prevent the unauthorized access or penetration, and satisfy the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a). 
</P>
<P>(2) Detect attempts to gain unauthorized access or introduce unauthorized persons, vehicles, or materials into the protected area by deceit using the following subsystems and subfunctions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Access authorization controls and procedures to provide current authorization schedules and entry criteria for persons, vehicles, and materials; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Entry controls and procedures to verify the identity of persons, materials and vehicles and assess such identity against current authorization schedules before permitting entry and to initiate response measures to deny unauthorized access. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Response.</I> Each physical protection program shall provide a response capability to assure that the five capabilities described in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section are achieved and that adversary forces will be engaged and impeded until offsite assistance forces arrive. To achieve this capability a licensee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Establish a security organization to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide trained and qualified personnel to carry out assigned duties and responsibilities; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide for routine security operations and planned and predetermined response to emergencies and safeguards contingencies. 
</P>
<P>(2) Establish a predetermined plan to respond to safeguards contingency events. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide equipment for the security organization and facility design features to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide for rapid assessment of safeguards contingencies; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide for response by assigned security organization personnel which is sufficiently rapid and effective to achieve the predetermined objective of the response; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide protection for the assessment and response personnel so that they can complete their assigned duties. 
</P>
<P>(4) Provide communications networks to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Transmit rapid and accurate security information among onsite forces for routine security operation, assessment of a contingency, and response to a contingency; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Transmit rapid and accurate detection and assessment information to offsite assistance forces. 
</P>
<P>(5) Assure that a single adversary action cannot destroy the capability of the security organization to notify offsite response forces of the need for assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 68193, Nov. 28, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.6.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.46   Fixed site physical protection systems, subsystems, components, and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee physical protection system established pursuant to the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20(a) and the performance capability requirements of § 73.45 shall include, but are not necessarily limited to, the measures specified in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section. The Commission may require, depending on individual facility and site conditions, alternate or additional measures deemed necessary to meet the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20. The Commission also may authorize protection measures other than those required by this section if, in its opinion, the overall level of performance meets the general performance objective and requirements of § 73.20 and the performance capability requirements of § 73.45. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security organization.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish a security organization, including guards. If a contract guard force is utilized for site security, the licensee's written agreement with the contractor will clearly show that (i) the licensee is responsible to the Commission for maintaining safeguards in accordance with Commission regulations and the licensee's security plan, (ii) the NRC may inspect, copy, and take away copies of all reports and documents required to be kept by Commission regulations, orders, or applicable license conditions whether such reports and documents are kept by the licensee or the contractor, (iii) the requirement, in § 73.46(b)(4) of this section that the licensee demonstrate the ability of physical security personnel to perform their assigned duties and responsibilities, include demonstration of the ability of the contractor's physical security personnel to perform their assigned duties and responsibilities in carrying out the provisions of the Security Plan and these regulations, and (iv) the contractor will not assign any personnel to the site who have not first been made aware of these responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall have onsite at all times at least one full time member of the security organization with authority to direct the physical protection activities of the security organization. 
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<P>(3) The licensee shall have a management system to provide for the development, revision, implementation, and enforcement of security procedures. The system shall include: 
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<P>(i) Written security procedures which document the structure of the security organization and which detail the duties of the Tactical Response Team, guards, watchmen, and other individuals responsible for security. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current procedures as a record until the Commission terminates the license for which these procedures were developed and, if any portion of these procedures is superseded, retain the superseded material for three years after each change; and 
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<P>(ii) Provision for written approval of such procedures and any revisions thereto by the individual with overall responsibility for the security function. 
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<P>(4) The licensee may not permit an individual to act as a Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, guard, or other member of the security organization unless the individual has been trained, equipped, and qualified to perform each assigned security duty in accordance with Appendix B of this part, “General Criteria for Security Personnel.” In addition, Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall be trained, equipped, and qualified for use of their assigned weapons in accordance with paragraphs (b)(6) and (b)(7) of this section. Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall also be trained and qualified in accordance with either paragraphs (b)(10) and (b)(11) or paragraph (b)(12) of this section. Upon the request of an authorized representative of the Commission, the licensee shall demonstrate the ability of the physical security personnel, whether licensee or contractor employees, to carry out their assigned duties and responsibilities. Each Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, and guard, whether a licensee or contractor employee, shall requalify in accordance with appendix B of this part. Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall also requalify in accordance with paragraph (b)(7) of this section at least once every 12 months. The licensee shall document the results of the qualification and requalification. The licensee shall retain the documentation of each qualification and requalification as a record for 3 years after each qualification and requalification. 
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<P>(5) Within any given period of time, a member of the security organization may not be assigned to, or have direct operational control over, more than one of the redundant elements of a physical protection subsystem if such assignment or control could result in the loss of effectiveness of the subsystem. 
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<P>(6) Each guard shall be armed with a handgun, as described in appendix B of this part. Each Tactical Response Team member shall be armed with a 9mm semiautomatic pistol. All but one member of the Tactical Response Team shall be armed additionally with either a shotgun or semiautomatic rifle, as described in appendix B of this part. The remaining member of the Tactical Response Team shall carry, as an individually assigned weapon, a rifle of no less caliber than .30 inches or 7.62mm. 
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<P>(7) In addition to the weapons qualification and requalification criteria of appendix B of this part, Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall qualify and requalify, at least every 12 months, for day and night firing with assigned weapons in accordance with appendix H of this part. Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall be permitted to practice fire prior to qualification and requalification but shall be given only one opportunity to fire for record on the same calendar day. If a Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, or guard fails to qualify or requalify, the licensee shall remove the individual from security duties which require the use of firearms and retrain the individual prior to any subsequent attempt to qualify or requalify. If an individual fails to qualify or requalify on two successive attempts, he or she shall be required to receive additional training and successfully fire two consecutive qualifying scores prior to being reassigned to armed security duties.
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<P>(i) In addition, Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall be prepared to demonstrate day and night firing qualification with their assigned weapons at any time upon request by an authorized representative of the NRC. 
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<P>(ii) The licensee or the licensee's agent shall document the results of weapons qualification and requalification for day and night firing. The licensee shall retain the documentation of each qualification and requalification as a record for 3 years after each qualification and requalification. 
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<P>(8) In addition to the training requirements contained in appendix B of this part, Tactical Response Team members shall successfully complete training in response tactics. The licensee shall document the completion of training. The licensee shall retain the documentation of training as a record for three years after training is completed. 
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<P>(9) The licensee shall conduct Tactical Response Team and guard exercises to demonstrate the overall security system effectiveness and the ability of the security force to perform response and contingency plan responsibilities and to demonstrate individual skills in assigned team duties. During the first 12-month period following the date specified in paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section, an exercise must be carried out at least every three months for each shift, half of which are to be force-on-force. Subsequently, during each 12-month period commencing on the anniversary of the date specified in paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section, an exercise must be carried out at least every four months for each shift, one third of which are to be force-on-force. The licensee shall use these exercises to demonstrate its capability to respond to attempts to steal strategic special nuclear material. During each of the 12-month periods, the NRC shall observe one of the force-on-force exercises which demonstrates overall security system performance. The licensee shall notify the NRC of the scheduled exercise 60 days prior to that exercise. The licensee shall document the results of all exercises. The licensee shall retain the documentation of each exercise as a record for three years after each exercise is completed. 
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<P>(10) In addition to the medical examinations and physical fitness requirements of paragraph I.C of appendix B of this part, each Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, and guard, except as provided in paragraph (b)(10)(v) of this section, shall participate in a physical fitness training program on a continuing basis. 
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<P>(i) The elements of the physical fitness training program must include, but not necessarily be limited to, the following: 
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<P>(A) Training sessions of sufficient frequency, duration, and intensity to be of aerobic benefit, e.g., normally a frequency of three times per week, maintaining an intensity of approximately 75 percent of maximum heart rate for 20 minutes; 
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<P>(B) Activities that use large muscle groups, that can be maintained continuously, and that are rhythmical and aerobic in nature, e.g., running, bicycling, rowing, swimming, or cross-country skiing; and 
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<P>(C) Musculoskeletal training exercises that develop strength, flexibility, and endurance in the major muscle groups, e.g., legs, arms, and shoulders. 
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<P>(ii) The licensee shall assess Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards for general fitness once every 4 months to determine the effectiveness of the continuing physical fitness training program. Assessments must include a recent health history, measures of cardiovascular fitness, percent of body fat, flexibility, muscular strength, and endurance. Individual exercise programs must be modified to be consistent with the needs of each participating Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, and guard and consistent with the environments in which they must be prepared to perform their duties. Individuals who exceed 4 months without being assessed for general fitness due to excused time off from work must be assessed within 15 calendar days of returning to duty as a Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, or guard. 
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<P>(iii) Within 30 days prior to participation in the physical fitness training program, the licensee shall give Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards a medical examination including a determination and written certification by a licensed physician that there are no medical contraindications, as disclosed by the medical examination, to participation in the physical fitness training program. 
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<P>(iv) Licensees may temporarily waive an individual's participation in the physical fitness training program on the advice of the licensee's examining physician, during which time the individual may not be assigned duties as a Tactical Response Team member. 
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<P>(v) Guards whose duties are to staff the central or secondary alarm station and those who control exit or entry portals are exempt from the physical fitness training program specified in paragraph (b)(10) of this section, provided that they are not assigned temporary response guard duties. 
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<P>(11) In addition to the physical fitness demonstration contained in paragraph I.C of appendix B of this part, Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall meet or exceed the requirements in paragraphs (b)(11)(i) through (b)(11)(v) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (b)(11)(vi) of this section, initially and at least once every 12 months thereafter. 
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<P>(i) For Tactical Response Team members the criteria are a 1-mile run in 8 minutes and 30 seconds or less and a 40-yard dash starting from a prone position in 8 seconds or less. For armed response personnel and guards that are not members of the Tactical Response Team the criteria are a one-half mile run in 4 minutes and 40 seconds or less and a 40-yard dash starting from a prone position in 8.5 seconds or less. The test may be taken in ordinary athletic attire under the supervision of licensee designated personnel. The licensee shall retain a record of each individual's performance for 3 years. 
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<P>(ii) Incumbent Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall meet or exceed the qualification criteria within 12 months of NRC approval of the licensee's revised Fixed Site Physical Protection Plan. New employees hired after the approval date shall meet or exceed the qualification criteria prior to assignment as a Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, or guard. 
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<P>(iii) Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall be given a medical examination including a determination and written certification by a licensed physician that there are no medical contraindications, as disclosed by the medical examination, to participation in the physical fitness performance testing. The medical examination must be given within 30 days prior to the first administration of the physical fitness performance test, and on an annual basis thereafter. 
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<P>(iv) The licensee shall place Tactical Response Team members, armed response persons, and guards, who do not meet or exceed the qualification criteria, in a monitored remedial physical fitness training program and relieve them of security duties until they satisfactorily meet or exceed the qualification criteria. 
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<P>(v) Licensees may temporarily waive the annual performance testing for an individual on the advice of the licensee's examining physician, during which time the individual may not be assigned duties as a Tactical Response Team member. 
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<P>(vi) Guards whose duties are to staff the central or secondary alarm station and those who control exit or entry portals are exempt from the annual performance testing specified in paragraph (b)(11) of this section, provided that they are not assigned temporary response guard duties. 
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<P>(12) The licensee may elect to comply with the requirements of this paragraph instead of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(10) and (b)(11) of this section. In addition to the physical fitness qualifications of paragraph I.C of appendix B of this part, each licensee subject to the requirements of this section shall develop and submit to the NRC for approval site specific, content-based, physical fitness performance tests which will—when administered to each Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, or guard—duplicate the response duties these individuals may need to perform during a strenuous tactical engagement. 
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<P>(i) The test must be administered to each Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, and guard once every 3 months. The test must specifically address the physical capabilities needed by armed response personnel during a strenuous tactical engagement at the licensed facility. Individuals who exceed 3 months without having been administered the test due to excused time off from work must be tested within 15 calendar days of returning to duty as a Tactical Response Team member, armed response person, or guard. 
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<P>(ii) Within 30 days before the first administration of the physical fitness performance test, and on an annual basis thereafter, Tactical Response Team members, armed response personnel, and guards shall be given a medical examination including a determination and written certification by a licensed physician that there are no medical contraindications, as disclosed by the medical examination, to participation in the physical fitness performance test. 
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<P>(iii) Guards whose duties are to staff the central or secondary alarm station and those who control exit or entry portals are exempt from the performance test specified in paragraph (b)(12) of this section, provided that they are not assigned temporary response guard duties. 






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<P>(c) <I>Physical barrier subsystems.</I> (1) vital equipment must be located only within a vital area, and strategic special nuclear material must be stored or processed only in a material access area. Both vital areas and material access areas must be located within a protected area so that access to vital equipment and to strategic special nuclear material requires passage through at least three physical barriers. The perimeter of the protected area must be provided with two separated physical barriers with an intrusion detection system placed between the two. The inner barrier must be positioned and constructed to enhance assessment of penetration attempts and to delay attempts at unauthorized exit from the protected area. The perimeter of the protected area must also incorporate features and structures that prevent forcible vehicle entry. More than one vital area or material access area may be located within a single protected area. 
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<P>(2) The physical barriers at the perimeter of the protected area shall be separated from any other barrier designated as a physical barrier for a vital area or material access area within the protected area. 
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<P>(3) Isolation zones shall be maintained in outdoor areas adjacent to the physical barrier at the perimeter of the protected area and shall be large enough to permit observation of the activities of people on either side of that barrier in the event of its penetration. If parking facilities are provided for employees or visitors, they shall be located outside the isolation zone and exterior to the protected area. 
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<P>(4) Isolation zones and all exterior areas within the protected area shall be provided with illumination sufficient for the monitoring and observation requirements of paragraphs (c)(3), (e)(8), (h)(4) and (h)(6) of this section, but not less than 0.2 footcandle measured horizontally at ground level. 
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<P>(5) Strategic special nuclear material, other than alloys, fuel elements or fuel assemblies, shall: 
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<P>(i) Be stored in a vault when not undergoing processing if the material can be used directly in the manufacture of a nuclear explosive device. Vaults used to protect such material shall be capable of preventing entry to stored SSNM by a single action in a forced entry attempt, except as such single action would both destroy the barrier and render contained SSNM incapable of being removed, and shall provide sufficient delay to prevent removal of stored SSNM prior to arrival of response personnel capable of neutralizing the design basis threat stated in § 73.1. 
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<P>(ii) Be stored in tamper-indicating containers; 
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<P>(iii) Be processed only in material access areas constructed with barriers that provide significant delay to penetration; and 
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<P>(iv) Be kept in locked compartments or locked process equipment while undergoing processing except when personally attended. 
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<P>(6) Enriched uranium scrap (enriched to 20% or greater) in the form of small pieces, cuttings, chips, solutions or in other forms which result from a manufacturing process, contained in 30 gallon or larger containers with a uranium-235 content of less than 0.25 grams per liter, may be stored within a locked and separately fenced area within a larger protected area provided that the storage area fence is no closer than 25 feet to the perimeter of the protected area. The storage area when unoccupied shall be protected by a guard or watchman who shall patrol at intervals not exceeding 4 hours, or by intrusion alarms. 
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<P>(d) <I>Access control subsystems and procedures.</I> (1) A numbered picture badge identification subsystem shall be used for all individuals who are authorized access to protected areas without escort. An individual not employed by the licensee but who requires frequent and extended access to protected, material access, or vital areas may be authorized access to such areas without escort provided that he receives a picture badge upon entrance into the protected area and returns the badge upon exit from the protected area, and that the badge indicates, (i) Non-employee—no escort required; (ii) areas to which access is authorized and (iii) the period for which access has been authorized. Badges shall be displayed by all individuals while inside the protected areas. 
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<P>(2) Unescorted access to vital areas, material access areas and controlled access areas shall be limited to individuals who are authorized access to the material and equipment in such areas, and who require such access to perform their duties. Access to material access areas shall include at least two individuals. Authorization for such individuals shall be indicated by the issuance of specially coded numbered badges indicating vital areas, material access areas, and controlled access areas to which access is authorized. No activities other than those which require access to strategic special nuclear material or to equipment used in the processing, use, or storage of strategic special nuclear material, or necessary maintenance, shall be permitted within a material access area. 
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<P>(3) The licensee shall establish and follow written procedures that will permit access control personnel to identify those vehicles that are authorized and those materials that are not authorized entry to protected, material access, and vital areas. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current procedures as a record until the Commission terminates each license for which the procedures were developed and, if any portion of the procedures is superseded, retain the superseded material for three years after each change.
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<P>(4)(i) The licensee shall control all points of personnel and vehicle access into a protected area. Identification and search of all individuals for firearms, explosives, and incendiary devices must be made and authorization must be checked at these points except for Federal, State, and local law enforcement personnel on official duty and United States Department of Energy couriers engaged in the transport of special nuclear material. The search function for detection of firearms, explosives, and incendiary devices must be accomplished through the use of detection equipment capable of detecting both firearms and explosives. The individual responsible for the last access control function (controlling admission to the protected area) shall be isolated within a structure with bullet resisting walls, doors, ceiling, floor, and windows. 
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<P>(ii) When the licensee has cause to suspect that an individual is attempting to introduce firearms, explosives, or incendiary devices into a protected area, the licensee shall conduct a physical pat-down search of that individual. Whenever firearms or explosives detection equipment at a portal is out of service or not operating satisfactorily, the licensee shall conduct a physical pat-down search of all persons who would otherwise have been subject to search using the equipment. 
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<P>(5) At the point of personnel and vehicle access into a protected area, all hand-carried packages except those carried by individuals exempted from personal search under the provisions of paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this part must be searched for firearms, explosives, and incendiary devices. 
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<P>(6) All packages and material for delivery into a protected area must be checked for proper identification and authorization and searched for firearms, explosives, and incendiary devices prior to admittance into the protected area, except those Commission-approved delivery and inspection activities specifically designated by the licensee to be carried out within material access, vital, or protected areas for reasons of safety, security, or operational necessity. 
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<P>(7) All vehicles, except United States Department of Energy vehicles engaged in transporting special nuclear material and emergency vehicles under emergency conditions, shall be searched for firearms, explosives, and incendiary devices prior to entry into the protected area. Vehicle areas to be searched shall include the cab, engine compartment, undercarriage, and cargo area. 
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<P>(8) All vehicles, except designated licensee vehicles, requiring entry into the protected area shall be escorted by a member of the security organization while within the protected area, and to the extent practicable shall be off-loaded in an area that is not adjacent to a vital area. Designated licensee vehicles shall be limited in their use to onsite plant functions and shall remain in the protected area except for operational, maintenance, security and emergency purposes. The licensee shall exercise positive control over all such designated vehicles to assure that they are used only by authorized persons and for authorized purposes. 
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<P>(9) The licensee shall control all points of personnel and vehicle access to material access areas, vital areas, and controlled access areas. At least two armed guards trained in accordance with the provisions contained in paragraph (b)(7) of this section and appendix B of this part shall be posted at each material access area control point whenever in use. Identification and authorization of personnel and vehicles must be verified at the material access area control point. Prior to entry into a material access area, packages must be searched for firearms, explosives, and incendiary devices. All vehicles, materials and packages, including trash, wastes, tools, and equipment exiting from a material access area must be searched for concealed strategic special nuclear material by a team of at least two individuals who are not authorized access to that material access area. Each individual exiting a material access area shall undergo at least two separate searches for concealed strategic special nuclear material. For individuals exiting an area that contains only alloyed or encapsulated strategic special nuclear material, the second search may be conducted in a random manner. 
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<P>(10) Before exiting from a material access area, containers of contaminated wastes must be drum scanned and tamper sealed by at least two individuals, working and recording their findings as a team, who do not have access to material processing and storage areas. The licensee shall retain the records of these findings for three years after the record is made.
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<P>(11) Strategic special nuclear material being prepared for shipment offsite, including product, samples and scrap, shall be packed and placed in sealed containers in the presence of at least two individuals working as a team who shall verify and certify the content of each shipping container through the witnessing of gross weight measurements and nondestructive assay, and through the inspection of tamper seal integrity and associated seal records. 
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<P>(12) Areas used for preparing strategic special nuclear material for shipment and areas used for packaging and screening trash and wastes shall be controlled access areas and shall be separated from processing and storage areas. 
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<P>(13) Individuals not permitted by the licensee to enter protected areas without escort must be escorted by a watchman or other individual designated by the licensee while in a protected area and must be badged to indicate that an escort is required. In addition, the individual shall be required to register his or her name, date, time, purpose of visit and employment affiliation, citizenship, and name of the individual to be visited in a log. The licensee shall retain each log as a record for three years after the last entry is made in the log.
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<P>(14) All keys, locks, combinations and related equipment used to control access to protected, material access, vital, and controlled access areas shall be controlled to reduce the probability of compromise. Whenever there is evidence that a key, lock, combination, or related equipment may have been compromised it shall be changed. Upon termination of employment of any employee, keys, locks, combinations, and related equipment to which that employee had access, shall be changed. 
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<P>(15) The licensee may not announce or otherwise communicate to its employees or site contractors the arrival or presence of an NRC safeguards inspector unless specifically requested to do so by the NRC safeguards inspector. 
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<P>(e) <I>Detection, surveillance and alarm subsystems and procedures.</I> (1) The licensee shall provide an intrusion alarm subsystem with a capability to detect penetration through the isolation zone and to permit response action. 
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<P>(2) All emergency exits in each protected, material access, and vital area shall be locked to prevent entry from the outside and alarmed to provide local visible and audible alarm annunciation. 
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<P>(3) All unoccupied vital areas and material access areas shall be locked and protected by an intrusion alarm subsystem which will alarm upon the entry of a person anywhere into the area, upon exit from the area, and upon movement of an individual within the area, except that for process material access areas only the location of the strategic special nuclear material within the area is required to be so alarmed. Vaults and process areas that contain strategic special nuclear material that has not been alloyed or encapsulated shall also be under the surveillance of closed circuit television that is monitored in both alarm stations. Additionally, means shall be employed which require that an individual other than an alarm station operator be present at or have knowledge of access to such unoccupied vaults or process areas. 
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<P>(4) All manned access control points in the protected area barrier, all security patrols and guard stations within the protected area, and both alarm stations shall be provided with duress alarms. 
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<P>(5) All alarms required pursuant to this section shall annunciate in a continuously manned central alarm station located within the protected area and in at least one other independent continuously manned onsite station not necessarily within the protected area, so that a single act cannot remove the capability of calling for assistance or responding to an alarm. The alarm stations shall be controlled access areas and their walls, doors, ceiling, floor, and windows shall be bullet-resisting. The central alarm station shall be located within a building so that the interior of the central alarm station is not visible from the perimeter of the protected area. This station may not contain any operational activities that would interfere with the execution of the alarm response function. 
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<P>(6) All alarms required by this section shall remain operable from independent power sources in the event of the loss of normal power. Switchover to standby power shall be automatic and shall not cause false alarms on annunciator modules. 
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<P>(7) All alarm devices including transmission lines to annunciators shall be tamper indicating and self-checking e.g., an automatic indication shall be provided when a failure of the alarm system or a component occurs, when there is an attempt to compromise the system, or when the system is on standby power. The annunciation of an alarm at the alarm stations shall indicate the type of alarm (e.g., intrusion alarm, emergency exit alarm, etc.) and location. The status of all alarms and alarm zones shall be indicated in the alarm stations. 
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<P>(8) All exterior areas within the protected area shall be monitored or periodically checked to detect the presence of unauthorized persons, vehicles, materials, or unauthorized activities. 
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<P>(9) Methods to observe individuals within material access areas to assure that strategic special nuclear material is not moved to unauthorized locations or in an unauthorized manner shall be provided and used on a continuing basis. 
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<P>(f) <I>Communication subsystems.</I> (1) Each guard, watchman, or armed response individual on duty shall be capable of maintaining continuous communication with an individual in each continuously manned alarm station required by paragraph (e)(5) of this section, who shall be capable of calling for assistance from other guards, watchmen, and armed response personnel and from law enforcement authorities. 
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<P>(2) Each alarm station required by paragraph (e)(5) of this section shall have both conventional telephone service and radio or microwave transmitted two-way voice communication, either directly or through an intermediary, for the capability of communication with the law enforcement authorities. 
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<P>(3) Non-portable communications equipment controlled by the licensee and required by this section shall remain operable from independent power sources in the event of the loss of normal power. 
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<P>(g) <I>Test and maintenance programs.</I> The licensee shall have a test and maintenance program for intrusion alarms, emergency exit alarms, communications equipment, physical barriers, and other physical protection related devices and equipment used pursuant to this section that shall provide for the following: 
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<P>(1) Tests and inspections during the installation and construction of physical protection related subsystems and components to assure that they comply with their respective design criteria and performance specifications. 
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<P>(2) Preoperational tests and inspections of physical protection related subsystems and components to demonstrate their effectiveness and availability with respect to their respective design criteria and performance specifications. 
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<P>(3) Operational tests and inspections of physical protection related subsystems and components to assure their maintenance in an operable and effective condition, including: 
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<P>(i) Testing of each intrusion alarm at the beginning and end of any period that it is used. If the period of continuous use is longer than seven days, the intrusion alarm shall also be tested at least once every seven days. 
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<P>(ii) Testing of communications equipment required for communications onsite, including duress alarms, for performance not less frequently than once at the beginning of each security personnel work shift. Communications equipment required for communications offsite shall be tested for performance not less than once a day. 
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<P>(4) Preventive maintenance programs shall be established for physical protection related subsystems and components to assure their continued maintenance in an operable and effective condition. 
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<P>(5) All physical protection related subsystems and components shall be maintained in operable condition. The licensee shall develop and employ corrective action procedures and compensatory measures to assure that the effectiveness of the physical protection system is not reduced by failure or other contingencies affecting the operation of the security related equipment or structures. Repairs and maintenance shall be performed by at least two individuals working as a team who have been trained in the operation and performance of the equipment. The security organization shall be notified before and after service is performed and shall conduct performance verification tests after the service has been completed. 
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<P>(6) The security program must be reviewed at least every 12 months by individuals independent of both security program management and personnel who have direct responsibility for implementation of the security program. The security program review must include an audit of security procedures and practices, an evaluation of the effectiveness of the physical protection system, an audit of the physical protection system testing and maintenance program, and an audit of commitments established for response by local law enforcement authorities. The results and recommendations of the security program review, and any actions taken, must be documented in a report to the licensee's plant manager and to corporate management at least one level higher than that having responsibility for the day-to-day plant operations. These reports must be maintained in an auditable form, available for inspection for a period of 3 years. 
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<P>(h) <I>Contingency and response plans and procedures.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow an NRC-approved safeguards contingency plan for responding to threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage related to the strategic special nuclear material and nuclear facilities subject to the provisions of this section. Safeguards contingency plans must be in accordance with the criteria in appendix C to this part, “Licensee Safeguards Contingency Plans.” Contingency plans must include, but not limited to, the response requirements listed in paragraphs (h)(2) through (h)(5) of this section. The licensee shall retain the current safeguards contingency plan as a record until the Commission terminates the license and, if any portion of the plan is superseded, retain that superseded portion for 3 years after the effective date of change. 
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<P>(2) The licensee shall establish and document response arrangements that have been made with local law enforcement authorities. The licensee shall retain documentation of the current arrangements as a record until the Commission terminates each license requiring the arrangements and, if any arrangement is superseded, retain the superseded material for three years after each change.
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<P>(3) A Tactical Response Team consisting of a minimum of five (5) members must be available at the facility to fulfill assessment and response requirements. In addition, a force of guards or armed response personnel also must be available to provide assistance as necessary. The size and availability of the additional force must be determined on the basis of site-specific considerations that could affect the ability of the total onsite response force to engage and impede the adversary force until offsite assistance arrives. The rationale for the total number and availabiliy of onsite armed response personnel must be included in the physical protection plans submitted to the Commission for approval. 
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<P>(4) Upon detection of abnormal presence or activity of persons or vehicles within an isolation zone, a protected area, a material access area, or a vital area, or upon evidence or indication of intrusion into a protected area, a material access area, or a vital area, the licensee security organization shall: 
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<P>(i) Determine whether or not a threat exists, 
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<P>(ii) Assess the extent of the threat, if any, 
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<P>(iii) Take immediate concurrent measures to neutralize the threat by: 
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<P>(A) Requiring responding guards or other armed response personnel to interpose themselves between vital areas and material access areas and any adversary attempting entry for purposes of radiological sabotage or theft of strategic special nuclear material and to intercept any person exiting with special nuclear material, and 
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<P>(B) Informing local law enforcement agencies of the threat and requesting assistance. 
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<P>(5) The licensee shall instruct every guard and all armed response personnel to prevent or impede acts of radiological sabotage or theft of strategic special nuclear material by using force sufficient to counter the force directed at him including the use of deadly force when the guard or other armed response person has a reasonable belief that it is necessary in self-defense or in the defense of others. 
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<P>(6) To facilitate initial response to detection of penetration of the protected area and assessment of the existence of a threat, a capability of observing the isolation zones and the physical barrier at the perimeter of the protected area shall be provided, preferably by means of closed circuit television or by other suitable means which limit exposure of responding personnel to possible attack. 
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<P>(7) Alarms occurring within unoccupied vaults and unoccupied material access areas containing unalloyed or unencapsulated strategic special nuclear material shall be assessed by at least two security personnel using closed circuit television (CCTV) or other remote means. 
</P>
<P>(8) Alarms occurring within unoccupied material access areas that contain only alloyed or encapsulated strategic special nuclear material shall be assessed as in paragraph (h)(7) of this section or by at least two security personnel who shall undergo a search before exiting the material access area. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Implementation schedule for revisions to physical protection plans.</I> (1) By November 28, 1994, each licensee shall submit a revised Fixed Site Physical Protection Plan to the NRC for approval. The revised plan must describe how the licensee will comply with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(10) and (b)(11) of this section or the requirements of (b)(12) of this section. Revised plans must be mailed to the Director, Division of Fuel Management, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee shall implement the approved plan pursuant to paragraphs (b)(10) and (b)(11) of this section or (b)(12) of this section within 1 year after NRC approval of the revised Fixed Site Physical Protection Plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 68194, Nov. 28, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 19258, May 27, 1988; 53 FR 23383, June 22, 1988; 53 FR 45452, Nov. 10, 1988; 57 FR 33430, July 29, 1992; 58 FR 29522, May 21, 1993; 58 FR 45784, Aug. 31, 1993; 59 FR 38348, July 28, 1994; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.50" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.6.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.50   Requirements for physical protection of licensed activities.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee who is not subject to § 73.51, but who possesses, uses, or stores formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material that are not readily separable from other radioactive material and which have a total external radiation level in excess of 1 gray (100 rad) per hour at a distance of 1 meter (3.3 feet) from any accessible surfaces without intervening shielding other than at a nuclear reactor facility licensed under part 50, part 52, or part 53 of this chapter, shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Physical security organization.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish a security organization, including guards, to protect his facility against radiological sabotage and the special nuclear material in his possession against theft. 
</P>
<P>(2) At least one supervisor of the security organization shall be on site at all times. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow written security procedures that document the structure of the security organization and detail the duties of guards, watchmen, and other individuals responsible for security. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current procedures as a record until the Commission terminates each license for which the procedures were developed and, if any portion of the procedures is superseded, retain the superseded material for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee may not permit an individual to act as a guard, watchman, armed response person, or other member of the security organization unless the individual has been trained, equipped, and qualified to perform each assigned security job duty in accordance with appendix B, “General Criteria for Security Personnel,” to this part. Upon the request of an authorized representative of the Commission, the licensee shall demonstrate the ability of the physical security personnel to carry out their assigned duties and responsibilities. Each guard, watchman, armed response person, and other member of the security organization shall requalify in accordance with appendix B to this part at least every 12 months. This requalification must be documented. The licensee shall retain the documentation of each requalification as a record for three years after the requalification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Physical barriers.</I> (1) The licensee shall locate vital equipment only within a vital area, which, in turn, shall be located within a protected area such that access to vital equipment requires passage through at least two physical barriers. More than one vital area may be within a single protected area. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall locate material access areas only within protected areas such that access to the material access area requires passage through at least two physical barriers. More than one material access area may be within a single protected area. 
</P>
<P>(3) The physical barrier at the perimeter of the protected area shall be separated from any other barrier designated as a physical barrier within the protected area, and the intervening space monitored or periodically checked to detect the presence of persons or vehicles so that the facility security organization can respond to suspicious activity or to the breaching of any physical barrier. 
</P>
<P>(4) An isolation zone shall be maintained around the physical barrier at the perimeter of the protected area and any part of a building used as part of that physical barrier. The isolation zone shall be monitored to detect the presence of individuals or vehicles within the zone so as to allow response by armed members of the license security organization to be initiated at the time of penetration of the protected area. Parking facilities, both for employees and visitors, shall be located outside the isolation zone. 
</P>
<P>(5) Isolation zones and clear areas between barriers shall be provided with illumination sufficient for the monitoring required by paragraphs (b) (3) and (4) of this section, but not less than 0.2 foot candles. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access requirements.</I> The licensee shall control all points of personnel and vehicle access into a protected area, including shipping or receiving areas, and into each vital area. Identification of personnel and vehicles shall be made and authorization shall be checked at such points. 
</P>
<P>(1) At the point of personnel and vehicle access into a protected area, all individuals, except employees who possess a NRC or United States Department of Energy access authorization, and all hand-carried packages shall be searched for devices such as firearms, explosives, and incendiary devices, or other items which could be used for radiological sabotage. The search shall be conducted either by a physical search or by the use of equipment capable of detecting such devices. Employees who possess an NRC or Department of Energy access authorization shall be searched at random intervals. Subsequent to search, drivers of delivery and service vehicles shall be escorted at all times while within the protection area. 
</P>
<P>(2) All packages being delivered into the protected area shall be checked for proper identification and authorization. Packages other than hand-carried packages shall be searched at random intervals. 
</P>
<P>(3) A picture badge identification system shall be used for all individuals who are authorized access to protected areas without escort. 
</P>
<P>(4) Access to vital areas and material access areas shall be limited to individuals who are authorized access to vital equipment or special nuclear material and who require such access to perform their duties. Authorization for such individuals shall be provided by the issuance of specially coded numbered badges indicating vital areas and material access areas to which access is authorized. Unoccupied vital areas and material access areas shall be protected by an active intrusion alarm system. 
</P>
<P>(5) Individuals not employed by the licensee must be escorted by a watchman, or other individual designated by the licensee, while in a protected area and must be badged to indicate that an escort is required. In addition, the licensee shall require that each individual not employed by the licensee register his or her name, date, time, purpose of visit, employment affiliation, citizenship, name and badge number of the escort, and name of the individual to be visited. The licensee shall retain the register of information for three years after the last entry is made in the register. Except for a driver of a delivery or service vehicle, an individual not employed by the licensee who requires frequent and extended access to a protected area or a vital area need not be escorted if the individual is provided with a picture badge, which the individual must receive upon entrance into the protected area and return each time he or she leaves the protected area, that indicates—
</P>
<P>(i) Nonemployee-no escort required,
</P>
<P>(ii) Areas to which access is authorized, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The period for which access has been authorized.
</P>
<P>(6) No vehicles used primarily for the conveyance of individuals shall be permitted within a protected area except under emergency conditions. 
</P>
<P>(7) Keys, locks, combinations, and related equipment shall be controlled to minimize the possibility of compromise and promptly changed whenever there is evidence that they have been compromised. Upon termination of employment of any employee, keys, locks, combinations, and related equipment to which that employee had access shall be changed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Detection aids.</I> (1) All alarms required pursuant to this part shall annunciate in a continuously manned central alarm station located within the protected area and in at least one other continuously manned station, not necessarily within the protected area, such that a single act cannot remove the capability of calling for assistance or otherwise responding to an alarm. All alarms shall be self-checking and tamper indicating. The annunciation of an alarm at the onsite central alarm station shall indicate the type of alarm (e.g., intrusion alarm, emergency exit alarm, etc.) and location. All intrusion alarms, emergency exit alarms, alarm systems, and line supervisory systems shall at minimum meet the performance and reliability levels indicated by GSA Interim Federal Specification W-A-00450 B (GSA-FSS). The GSA Interim Federal Specification has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of the material is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738.
</P>
<P>(2) All emergency exits in each protected area and each vital area shall be alarmed. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Communication requirements.</I> (1) Each guard or watchman on duty shall be capable of maintaining continuous communication with an individual in a continuously manned central alarm station within the protected area, who shall be capable of calling for assistance from other guards and watchmen and from local law enforcement authorities. 
</P>
<P>(2) The alarm stations required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall have conventional telephone service for communication with the law enforcement authorities as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) To provide the capability of continuous communication, two-way radio voice communication shall be established in addition to conventional telephone service between local law enforcement authorities and the facility and shall terminate at the facility in a continuously manned central alarm station within the protected area. 
</P>
<P>(4) All communications equipment, including offsite equipment, shall remain operable from independent power sources in the event of loss of primary power. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Testing and maintenance.</I> Each licensee shall test and maintain intrusion alarms, emergency alarms, communications equipment, physical barriers, and other security related devices or equipment utilized pursuant to this section as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) All alarms, communications equipment, physical barriers, and other security related devices or equipment shall be maintained in operable and effective condition. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each intrusion alarm shall be functionally tested for operability and required performance at the beginning and end of each interval during which it is used for security, but not less frequently than once every seven (7) days. 
</P>
<P>(3) Communications equipment shall be tested for operability and performance not less frequently than once at the beginning of each security personnel work shift. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Response requirement.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow an NRC-approved safeguards contingency plan for responding to threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage related to the special nuclear material and nuclear facilities subject to the provisions of this section. Safeguards contingency plans must be in accordance with the criteria in appendix C to this part, “Licensee Safeguards Contingency Plans.” The licensee shall retain the current safeguards contingency plan as a record until the Commission terminates the license and, if any portion of the plan is superseded, retain the superseded portion for 3 years after the effective date of the change. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall establish and document liaison with law enforcement authorities. The licensee shall retain the documentation of the current liaison as a record until the Commission terminates each license for which the liaison was developed and, if any portion of the liaison documentation is superseded, retain the superseded material for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon detection of abnormal presence or activity of persons or vehicles within an isolation zone, a protected area, a material access area, or a vital area; or upon evidence or indication of intrusion into a protected area, material access area, or vital area, the licensee security organization shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Determine whether or not a threat exists, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess the extent of the threat, if any, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Take immediate concurrent measures to neutralize the threat, by: 
</P>
<P>(A) Requiring responding guards to interpose themselves between material access areas and vital areas and any adversary attempting entry for the purpose of theft of special nuclear material or radiological sabotage and to intercept any person exiting with special nuclear material, and, 
</P>
<P>(B) Informing local law enforcement agencies of the threat and requesting assistance. 
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall instruct every guard to prevent or impede attempted acts of theft or radiological sabotage by using force sufficient to counter the force directed at him including deadly force when the guard has a reasonable belief it is necessary in self-defense or in the defense of others. 
</P>
<P>(h) Each licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow an NRC-approved training and qualifications plan outlining the processes by which guards, watchmen, armed response persons, and other members of the security organization will be selected, trained, equipped, tested, and qualified to ensure that these individuals meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 161i, Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 948, Pub. L. 93-377, 88 Stat. 475; secs. 201, 204(b)(1), Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1242-1243, 1245, Pub. L. 94-79, 89 Stat. 413 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 5841, 5844)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 35430, Dec. 28, 1973, as amended at 42 FR 64103, Dec. 22, 1977; 43 FR 11965, Mar. 23, 1978; 43 FR 37426, Aug. 23, 1978; 44 FR 68198, Nov. 28, 1979; 53 FR 19259, May 27, 1988; 57 FR 33430, July 29, 1992; 57 FR 61787, Dec. 29, 1992; 59 FR 50689, Oct. 5, 1994; 63 FR 26962, May 15, 1998; 72 FR 49561, Aug. 28, 2007; 86 FR 43403, Aug. 9, 2021; 88 FR 57879, Aug. 24, 2023; 91 FR 15870, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.6.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.51   Requirements for the physical protection of stored spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.50, or § 73.67, the physical protection requirements of this section apply to each licensee that stores spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1)(i), (ii), and (2) of this section. This includes— 
</P>
<P>(1) Spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste stored under a specific license issued pursuant to part 72 of this chapter: 
</P>
<P>(i) At an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) or 
</P>
<P>(ii) At a monitored retrievable storage (MRS) installation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste at a geologic repository operations area (GROA) licensed pursuant to part 60 or 63 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General performance objectives.</I> (1) Each licensee subject to this section shall establish and maintain a physical protection system with the objective of providing high assurance that activities involving spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste do not constitute an unreasonable risk to public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(2) To meet the general objective of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, each licensee subject to this section shall meet the following performance capabilities.
</P>
<P>(i) Store spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste only within a protected area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Grant access to the protected area only to individuals who are authorized to enter the protected area;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detect and assess unauthorized penetration of, or activities within, the protected area;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide timely communication to a designated response force whenever necessary; and
</P>
<P>(v) Manage the physical protection organization in a manner that maintains its effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(3) The physical protection system must be designed to protect against loss of control of the facility that could be sufficient to cause a radiation exposure exceeding the dose as described in § 72.106 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The licensee must ensure that the firearms background check requirements of § 73.17 of this part are met for all members of the security organization whose official duties require access to covered weapons or who inventory enhanced weapons.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of this paragraph are only applicable to licensees subject to this section who are also subject to the firearms background check provisions of § 73.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plan retention.</I> Each licensee subject to this section shall retain a copy of the effective physical protection plan as a record for 3 years or until termination of the license for which procedures were developed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Physical protection systems, components, and procedures.</I> A licensee shall comply with the following provisions as methods acceptable to NRC for meeting the performance capabilities of § 73.51(b)(2). The Commission may, on a specific basis and upon request or on its own initiative, authorize other alternative measures for the protection of spent fuel and high-level radioactive waste subject to the requirements of this section, if after evaluation of the specific alternative measures, it finds reasonable assurance of compliance with the performance capabilities of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste must be stored only within a protected area so that access to this material requires passage through or penetration of two physical barriers, one barrier at the perimeter of the protected area and one barrier offering substantial penetration resistance. The physical barrier at the perimeter of the protected area must be as defined in § 73.2. Isolation zones, typically 20 feet wide each, on both sides of this barrier, must be provided to facilitate assessment. The barrier offering substantial resistance to penetration may be provided by an approved storage cask or building walls such as those of a reactor or fuel storage building.
</P>
<P>(2) Illumination must be sufficient to permit adequate assessment of unauthorized penetrations of or activities within the protected area.
</P>
<P>(3) The perimeter of the protected area must be subject to continual surveillance and be protected by an active intrusion alarm system which is capable of detecting penetrations through the isolation zone and that is monitored in a continually staffed primary alarm station and in one additional continually staffed location. The primary alarm station must be located within the protected area; have bullet-resisting walls, doors, ceiling, and floor; and the interior of the station must not be visible from outside the protected area. A timely means for assessment of alarms must also be provided. Regarding alarm monitoring, the redundant location need only provide a summary indication that an alarm has been generated.
</P>
<P>(4) The protected area must be monitored by daily random patrols.
</P>
<P>(5) A security organization with written procedures must be established. The security organization must include sufficient personnel per shift to provide for monitoring of detection systems and the conduct of surveillance, assessment, access control, and communications to assure adequate response. Members of the security organization must be trained, equipped, qualified, and requalified to perform assigned job duties in accordance with appendix B to part 73, sections I.A, (1) (a) and (b), B(1)(a), and the applicable portions of II.
</P>
<P>(6) Documented liaison with a designated response force or local law enforcement agency (LLEA) must be established to permit timely response to unauthorized penetration or activities.
</P>
<P>(7) A personnel identification system and a controlled lock system must be established and maintained to limit access to authorized individuals.
</P>
<P>(8) Redundant communications capability must be provided between onsite security force members and designated response force or LLEA.
</P>
<P>(9) All individuals, vehicles, and hand-carried packages entering the protected area must be checked for proper authorization and visually searched for explosives before entry.
</P>
<P>(10) Written response procedures must be established and maintained for addressing unauthorized penetration of, or activities within, the protected area including Category 5, “Procedures,” of appendix C to part 73. The licensee shall retain a copy of response procedures as a record for 3 years or until termination of the license for which the procedures were developed. Copies of superseded material must be retained for 3 years after each change or until termination of the license.
</P>
<P>(11) All detection systems and supporting subsystems must be tamper indicating with line supervision. These systems, as well as surveillance/assessment and illumination systems, must be maintained in operable condition. Timely compensatory measures must be taken after discovery of inoperability, to assure that the effectiveness of the of the security system is not reduced.
</P>
<P>(12) The physical protection program must be reviewed once every 24 months by individuals independent of both physical protection program management and personnel who have direct responsibility for implementation of the physical protection program. The physical protection program review must include an evaluation of the effectiveness of the physical protection system and a verification of the liaison established with the designated response force or LLEA.
</P>
<P>(13) The following documentation must be retained as a record for 3 years after the record is made or until termination of the license. Duplicate records to those required under § 72.180 of part 72 and § 73.1210 of this part need not be retained under the requirements of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A log of individuals granted access to the protected area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Screening records of members of the security organization;
</P>
<P>(iii) A log of all patrols;
</P>
<P>(iv) A record of each alarm received, identifying the type of alarm, location, date and time when received, and disposition of the alarm; and
</P>
<P>(v) The physical protection program review reports.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>GROA exemption.</I> A licensee that operates a GROA is exempt from the requirements of this section for that GROA after permanent closure of the GROA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Response requirements.</I> Licensees must train each armed member of the security organization with access to enhanced weapons on the use of deadly force when the armed member of the security organization has a reasonable belief that the use of deadly force is necessary in self-defense or in the defense of others, or any other circumstances as authorized by applicable State or Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 26962, May 15, 1998, as amended at 63 FR 49414, Sept. 16, 1998; 66 FR 55816, Nov. 2, 2001; 88 FR 15890, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.54" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.6.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.54   Protection of digital computer and communication systems and networks.</HEAD>
<P>By November 23, 2009 each licensee currently licensed to operate a nuclear power plant under part 50 of this chapter shall submit, as specified in § 50.4 and § 50.90 of this chapter, a cyber security plan that satisfies the requirements of this section for Commission review and approval. Each submittal must include a proposed implementation schedule. Implementation of the licensee's cyber security program must be consistent with the approved schedule. Current applicants for an operating license or combined license who have submitted their applications to the Commission prior to the effective date of this rule must amend their applications to include a cyber security plan consistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Each licensee subject to the requirements of this section shall provide high assurance that digital computer and communication systems and networks are adequately protected against cyber attacks, up to and including the design basis threat as described in § 73.1.
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall protect digital computer and communication systems and networks associated with:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety-related and important-to-safety functions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Security functions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Emergency preparedness functions, including offsite communications; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Support systems and equipment which, if compromised, would adversely impact safety, security, or emergency preparedness functions.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall protect the systems and networks identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section from cyber attacks that would:
</P>
<P>(i) Adversely impact the integrity or confidentiality of data and/or software;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deny access to systems, services, and/or data; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adversely impact the operation of systems, networks, and associated equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) To accomplish this, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Analyze digital computer and communication systems and networks and identify those assets that must be protected against cyber attacks to satisfy paragraph (a) of this section,
</P>
<P>(2) Establish, implement, and maintain a cyber security program for the protection of the assets identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Incorporate the cyber security program as a component of the physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(c) The cyber security program must be designed to:
</P>
<P>(1) Implement security controls to protect the assets identified by paragraph (b)(1) of this section from cyber attacks;
</P>
<P>(2) Apply and maintain defense-in-depth protective strategies to ensure the capability to detect, respond to, and recover from cyber attacks;
</P>
<P>(3) Mitigate the adverse affects of cyber attacks; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the functions of protected assets identified by paragraph (b)(1) of this section are not adversely impacted due to cyber attacks.
</P>
<P>(d) As part of the cyber security program, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that appropriate facility personnel, including contractors, are aware of cyber security requirements and receive the training necessary to perform their assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluate and manage cyber risks.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that modifications to assets, identified by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, are evaluated before implementation to ensure that the cyber security performance objectives identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) Conduct cyber security event notifications in accordance with the provisions of § 73.77.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall establish, implement, and maintain a cyber security plan that implements the cyber security program requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The cyber security plan must describe how the requirements of this section will be implemented and must account for the site-specific conditions that affect implementation.
</P>
<P>(2) The cyber security plan must include measures for incident response and recovery for cyber attacks. The cyber security plan must describe how the licensee will:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintain the capability for timely detection and response to cyber attacks;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mitigate the consequences of cyber attacks;
</P>
<P>(iii) Correct exploited vulnerabilities; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Restore affected systems, networks, and/or equipment affected by cyber attacks.
</P>
<P>(f) The licensee shall develop and maintain written policies and implementing procedures to implement the cyber security plan. Policies, implementing procedures, site-specific analysis, and other supporting technical information used by the licensee need not be submitted for Commission review and approval as part of the cyber security plan but are subject to inspection by NRC staff on a periodic basis.
</P>
<P>(g) The licensee shall review the cyber security program as a component of the physical security program in accordance with the requirements of § 73.55(m), including the periodicity requirements.
</P>
<P>(h) The licensee shall retain all records and supporting technical documentation required to satisfy the requirements of this section as a record until the Commission terminates the license for which the records were developed, and shall maintain superseded portions of these records for at least three (3) years after the record is superseded, unless otherwise specified by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 13970, Mar. 27, 2009, as amended at 80 FR 67275, Nov. 2, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.6.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.55   Requirements for physical protection of licensed activities in nuclear power reactors against radiological sabotage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> (1) By March 31, 2010, each nuclear power reactor licensee, licensed under 10 CFR part 50, shall implement the requirements of this section through its Commission-approved Physical Security Plan, Training and Qualification Plan, Safeguards Contingency Plan, and Cyber Security Plan referred to collectively hereafter as “security plans.” Current applicants for an operating license under 10 CFR part 50, or combined license under 10 CFR part 52 who have submitted their applications to the Commission prior to the effective date of this rule must amend their applications to include security plans consistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The security plans must identify, describe, and account for site-specific conditions that affect the licensee's capability to satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee is responsible for maintaining the onsite physical protection program in accordance with Commission regulations through the implementation of security plans and written security implementing procedures.


</P>
<P>(4) Applicants for an operating license under the provisions of part 50 or part 53 of this chapter or holders of a combined license under the provisions of part 52 or part 53 of this chapter shall implement the requirements of this section before fuel is allowed onsite (protected area).
</P>
<P>(5) The Tennessee Valley Authority Watts Bar Nuclear Plant, Unit 2, holding a current construction permit under the provisions of part 50 of this chapter, shall meet the revised requirements in paragraphs (a) through (r) of this section as applicable to operating nuclear power reactor facilities.


</P>
<P>(6) Applicants for an operating license under the provisions of part 50 or part 53 of this chapter, or holders of a combined license under the provisions of part 52 or part 53 of this chapter that do not reference a standard design certification or reference a standard design certification issued after May 26, 2009, shall meet the requirement of § 73.55(i)(4)(iii).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General performance objective and requirements.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish and maintain a physical protection program, to include a security organization, which will have as its objective to provide high assurance that activities involving special nuclear material are not inimical to the common defense and security and do not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(2) To satisfy the general performance objective of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the physical protection program must protect against the design basis threat of radiological sabotage as stated in § 73.1.
</P>
<P>(3) The physical protection program must be designed to prevent significant core damage and spent fuel sabotage. Specifically, the program must:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the capabilities to detect, assess, interdict, and neutralize threats up to and including the design basis threat of radiological sabotage as stated in § 73.1, are maintained at all times.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide defense-in-depth through the integration of systems, technologies, programs, equipment, supporting processes, and implementing procedures as needed to ensure the effectiveness of the physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall analyze and identify site-specific conditions, including target sets, that may affect the specific measures needed to implement the requirements of this section and shall account for these conditions in the design of the physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon the request of an authorized representative of the Commission, the licensee shall demonstrate the ability to meet Commission requirements through the implementation of the physical protection program, including the ability of armed and unarmed personnel to perform assigned duties and responsibilities required by the security plans and licensee procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement a performance evaluation program in accordance with appendix B to this part, to demonstrate and assess the effectiveness of armed responders and armed security officers to implement the licensee's protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(7) The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement an access authorization program in accordance with § 73.56 and shall describe the program in the Physical Security Plan.


</P>
<P>(8) The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement a cyber security program in accordance with § 73.54 or § 73.110, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(9) The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement an insider mitigation program and shall describe the program in the Physical Security Plan.
</P>
<P>(i) The insider mitigation program must monitor the initial and continuing trustworthiness and reliability of individuals granted or retaining unescorted access authorization to a protected or vital area, and implement defense-in-depth methodologies to minimize the potential for an insider to adversely affect, either directly or indirectly, the licensee's capability to prevent significant core damage and spent fuel sabotage.
</P>
<P>(ii) The insider mitigation program must contain elements from:
</P>
<P>(A) The access authorization program described in § 73.56;
</P>
<P>(B) The fitness-for-duty program described in part 26 of this chapter;


</P>
<P>(C) The cyber security program described in § 73.54 or § 73.110, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(D) The physical protection program described in this section.
</P>
<P>(10) The licensee shall use the site corrective action program to track, trend, correct and prevent recurrence of failures and deficiencies in the physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(11) Implementation of security plans and associated procedures must be coordinated with other onsite plans and procedures to preclude conflict during both normal and emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(12)(i) The licensee must ensure that the firearms background check requirements of § 73.17 of this part are met for all members of the security organization whose official duties require access to covered weapons or who inventory enhanced weapons.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of this paragraph are only applicable to licensees subject to this section that are also subject to the firearms background check provisions of § 73.17 of this part.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Security plans.</I> (1) Licensee security plans must describe:
</P>
<P>(i) How the licensee will implement requirements of this section through the establishment and maintenance of a security organization, the use of security equipment and technology, the training and qualification of security personnel, the implementation of predetermined response plans and strategies, and the protection of digital computer and communication systems and networks.
</P>
<P>(ii) Site-specific conditions that affect how the licensee implements Commission requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection of security plans.</I> The licensee shall protect the security plans and other security-related information against unauthorized disclosure in accordance with the requirements of § 73.21.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Physical Security Plan.</I> The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement a Physical Security Plan which describes how the performance objective and requirements set forth in this section will be implemented.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Training and Qualification Plan.</I> The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement, and follow a Training and Qualification Plan that describes how the criteria set forth in appendix B, section VI, to this part, “Nuclear Power Reactor Training and Qualification Plan for Personnel Performing Security Program Duties,” will be implemented.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Safeguards Contingency Plan.</I> The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement a Safeguards Contingency Plan that describes how the criteria set forth in appendix C, section II, to this part, “Nuclear Power Plant Safeguards Contingency Plans,” will be implemented.


</P>
<P>(6) Cyber Security Plan. The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement a Cyber Security Plan that describes how the criteria set forth in § 73.54 or § 73.110, as applicable, will be implemented.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Security implementing procedures.</I> (i) The licensee shall have a management system to provide for the development, implementation, revision, and oversight of security procedures that implement Commission requirements and the security plans.
</P>
<P>(ii) Implementing procedures must document the structure of the security organization and detail the types of duties, responsibilities, actions, and decisions to be performed or made by each position of the security organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide a process for the written approval of implementing procedures and revisions by the individual with overall responsibility for the security program.
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that revisions to security implementing procedures satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Implementing procedures need not be submitted to the Commission for approval, but are subject to inspection by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Security organization.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish and maintain a security organization that is designed, staffed, trained, qualified, and equipped to implement the physical protection program in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The security organization must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A management system that provides oversight of the onsite physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(ii) At least one member, onsite and available at all times, who has the authority to direct the activities of the security organization and who is assigned no other duties that would interfere with this individual's ability to perform these duties in accordance with the security plans and the licensee protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee may not permit any individual to implement any part of the physical protection program unless the individual has been trained, equipped, and qualified to perform their assigned duties and responsibilities in accordance with appendix B, section VI, to this part and the Training and Qualification Plan. Non-security personnel may be assigned duties and responsibilities required to implement the physical protection program and shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be trained through established licensee training programs to ensure each individual is trained, qualified, and periodically re-qualified to perform assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Be properly equipped to perform assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(iii) Possess the knowledge, skills, and abilities, to include physical attributes such as sight and hearing, required to perform their assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Physical barriers.</I> Each licensee shall identify and analyze site-specific conditions to determine the specific use, type, function, and placement of physical barriers needed to satisfy the physical protection program design requirements of § 73.55(b).
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Design, construct, install and maintain physical barriers as necessary to control access into facility areas for which access must be controlled or denied to satisfy the physical protection program design requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe in the physical security plan, physical barriers, barrier systems, and their functions within the physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall retain, in accordance with § 73.70, all analyses and descriptions of the physical barriers and barrier systems used to satisfy the requirements of this section, and shall protect these records in accordance with the requirements of § 73.21.
</P>
<P>(3) Physical barriers must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be designed and constructed to:
</P>
<P>(A) Protect against the design basis threat of radiological sabotage;
</P>
<P>(B) Account for site-specific conditions; and
</P>
<P>(C) Perform their required function in support of the licensee physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide deterrence, delay, or support access control.
</P>
<P>(iii) Support effective implementation of the licensee's protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(4) Consistent with the stated function to be performed, openings in any barrier or barrier system established to meet the requirements of this section must be secured and monitored to prevent exploitation of the opening.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Bullet resisting physical barriers.</I> The reactor control room, the central alarm station, and the location within which the last access control function for access to the protected area is performed, must be bullet-resisting.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Owner controlled area.</I> The licensee shall establish and maintain physical barriers in the owner controlled area as needed to satisfy the physical protection program design requirements of § 73.55(b).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Isolation zone.</I> (i) An isolation zone must be maintained in outdoor areas adjacent to the protected area perimeter barrier. The isolation zone shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) Designed and of sufficient size to permit observation and assessment of activities on either side of the protected area barrier;
</P>
<P>(B) Monitored with intrusion detection equipment designed to satisfy the requirements of § 73.55(i) and be capable of detecting both attempted and actual penetration of the protected area perimeter barrier before completed penetration of the protected area perimeter barrier; and
</P>
<P>(C) Monitored with assessment equipment designed to satisfy the requirements of § 73.55(i) and provide real-time and play-back/recorded video images of the detected activities before and after each alarm annunciation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Obstructions that could prevent the licensee's capability to meet the observation and assessment requirements of this section must be located outside of the isolation zone.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Protected area.</I> (i) The protected area perimeter must be protected by physical barriers that are designed and constructed to:
</P>
<P>(A) Limit access into the protected area to only those personnel, vehicles, and materials required to perform official duties;
</P>
<P>(B) Channel personnel, vehicles, and materials to designated access control portals; and
</P>
<P>(C) Be separated from any other barrier designated as a vital area physical barrier, unless otherwise identified in the Physical Security Plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Penetrations through the protected area barrier must be secured and monitored in a manner that prevents or delays, and detects the exploitation of any penetration.
</P>
<P>(iii) All emergency exits in the protected area must be alarmed and secured by locking devices that allow prompt egress during an emergency and satisfy the requirements of this section for access control into the protected area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where building walls or roofs comprise a portion of the protected area perimeter barrier, an isolation zone is not necessary provided that the detection and, assessment requirements of this section are met, appropriate barriers are installed, and the area is described in the security plans.
</P>
<P>(v) All exterior areas within the protected area, except for areas that must be excluded for safety reasons, must be periodically checked to detect and deter unauthorized personnel, vehicles, and materials.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Vital areas.</I> (i) Vital equipment must be located only within vital areas, which must be located within a protected area so that access to vital equipment requires passage through at least two physical barriers, except as otherwise approved by the Commission and identified in the security plans.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall protect all vital area access portals and vital area emergency exits with intrusion detection equipment and locking devices that allow rapid egress during an emergency and satisfy the vital area entry control requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unoccupied vital areas must be locked and alarmed.
</P>
<P>(iv) More than one vital area may be located within a single protected area.
</P>
<P>(v) At a minimum, the following shall be considered vital areas:
</P>
<P>(A) The reactor control room;
</P>
<P>(B) The spent fuel pool;
</P>
<P>(C) The central alarm station; and
</P>
<P>(D) The secondary alarm station in accordance with § 73.55(i)(4)(iii).
</P>
<P>(vi) At a minimum, the following shall be located within a vital area:
</P>
<P>(A) The secondary power supply systems for alarm annunciation equipment; and
</P>
<P>(B) The secondary power supply systems for non-portable communications equipment.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Vehicle control measures.</I> Consistent with the physical protection program design requirements of § 73.55(b), and in accordance with the site-specific analysis, the licensee shall establish and maintain vehicle control measures, as necessary, to protect against the design basis threat of radiological sabotage vehicle bomb assault.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Land vehicles.</I> Licensees shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Design, construct, install, and maintain a vehicle barrier system, to include passive and active barriers, at a stand-off distance adequate to protect personnel, equipment, and systems necessary to prevent significant core damage and spent fuel sabotage against the effects of the design basis threat of radiological sabotage land vehicle bomb assault.
</P>
<P>(B) Periodically check the operation of active vehicle barriers and provide a secondary power source, or a means of mechanical or manual operation in the event of a power failure, to ensure that the active barrier can be placed in the denial position to prevent unauthorized vehicle access beyond the required standoff distance.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide periodic surveillance and observation of vehicle barriers and barrier systems adequate to detect indications of tampering and degradation or to otherwise ensure that each vehicle barrier and barrier system is able to satisfy the intended function.
</P>
<P>(D) Where a site has rail access to the protected area, install a train derailer, remove a section of track, or restrict access to railroad sidings and provide periodic surveillance of these measures.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Waterborne vehicles.</I> Licensees shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify areas from which a waterborne vehicle must be restricted, and where possible, in coordination with local, State, and Federal agencies having jurisdiction over waterway approaches, deploy buoys, markers, or other equipment.
</P>
<P>(B) In accordance with the site-specific analysis, provide periodic surveillance and observation of waterway approaches and adjacent areas.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Target sets.</I> (1) The licensee shall document and maintain the process used to develop and identify target sets, to include the site-specific analyses and methodologies used to determine and group the target set equipment or elements.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall consider cyber attacks in the development and identification of target sets.
</P>
<P>(3) Target set equipment or elements that are not contained within a protected or vital area must be identified and documented consistent with the requirements in § 73.55(f)(1) and be accounted for in the licensee's protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall implement a process for the oversight of target set equipment and systems to ensure that changes to the configuration of the identified equipment and systems are considered in the licensee's protective strategy. Where appropriate, changes must be made to documented target sets.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Access controls.</I> (1) Consistent with the function of each barrier or barrier system, the licensee shall control personnel, vehicle, and material access, as applicable, at each access control point in accordance with the physical protection program design requirements of § 73.55(b).
</P>
<P>(i) To accomplish this, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Locate access control portals outside of, or concurrent with, the physical barrier system through which it controls access.
</P>
<P>(B) Equip access control portals with locking devices, intrusion detection equipment, and surveillance equipment consistent with the intended function.
</P>
<P>(C) Provide supervision and control over the badging process to prevent unauthorized bypass of access control equipment located at or outside of the protected area.
</P>
<P>(D) Limit unescorted access to the protected area and vital areas, during non-emergency conditions, to only those individuals who require unescorted access to perform assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(E) Assign an individual the responsibility for the last access control function (controlling admission to the protected area) and isolate the individual within a bullet-resisting structure to assure the ability of the individual to respond or summon assistance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where vehicle barriers are established, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Physically control vehicle barrier portals to ensure only authorized vehicles are granted access through the barrier.
</P>
<P>(B) Search vehicles and materials for contraband or other items which could be used to commit radiological sabotage in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Observe search functions to ensure a response can be initiated if needed.
</P>
<P>(2) Before granting access into the protected area, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Confirm the identity of individuals.
</P>
<P>(ii) Verify the authorization for access of individuals, vehicles, and materials.
</P>
<P>(iii) Confirm, in accordance with industry shared lists and databases that individuals are not currently denied access to another licensed facility.
</P>
<P>(iv) Search individuals, vehicles, and materials in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Vehicles in the protected area.</I> (i) The licensee shall exercise control over all vehicles inside the protected area to ensure that they are used only by authorized persons and for authorized purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Vehicles inside the protected area must be operated by an individual authorized unescorted access to the area, or must be escorted by an individual as required by paragraph (g)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vehicle use inside the protected area must be limited to plant functions or emergencies, and keys must be removed or the vehicle otherwise disabled when not in use.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vehicles transporting hazardous materials inside the protected area must be escorted by an armed member of the security organization.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Vital areas.</I> (i) Licensees shall control access into vital areas consistent with access authorization lists.
</P>
<P>(ii) In response to a site-specific credible threat or other credible information, implement a two-person (line-of-sight) rule for all personnel in vital areas so that no one individual is permitted access to a vital area.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Emergency conditions.</I> (i) The licensee shall design the access control system to accommodate the potential need for rapid ingress or egress of authorized individuals during emergency conditions or situations that could lead to emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) To satisfy the design criteria of paragraph (g)(5)(i) of this section during emergency conditions, the licensee shall implement security procedures to ensure that authorized emergency personnel are provided prompt access to affected areas and equipment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Access control devices.</I> (i) The licensee shall control all keys, locks, combinations, passwords and related access control devices used to control access to protected areas, vital areas and security systems to reduce the probability of compromise. To accomplish this, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Issue access control devices only to individuals who have unescorted access authorization and require access to perform official duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(B) Maintain a record, to include name and affiliation, of all individuals to whom access control devices have been issued, and implement a process to account for access control devices at least annually.
</P>
<P>(C) Implement compensatory measures upon discovery or suspicion that any access control device may have been compromised. Compensatory measures must remain in effect until the compromise is corrected.
</P>
<P>(D) Retrieve, change, rotate, deactivate, or otherwise disable access control devices that have been or may have been compromised or when a person with access to control devices has been terminated under less than favorable conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall implement a numbered photo identification badge system for all individuals authorized unescorted access to the protected area and vital areas.
</P>
<P>(A) Identification badges may be removed from the protected area only when measures are in place to confirm the true identity and authorization for unescorted access of the badge holder before allowing unescorted access to the protected area.
</P>
<P>(B) Except where operational safety concerns require otherwise, identification badges must be clearly displayed by all individuals while inside the protected area and vital areas.
</P>
<P>(C) The licensee shall maintain a record, to include the name and areas to which unescorted access is granted, of all individuals to whom photo identification badges have been issued.
</P>
<P>(iii) Access authorization program personnel shall be issued passwords and combinations to perform their assigned duties and may be excepted from the requirement of paragraph (g)(6)(i)(A) of this section provided they meet the background requirements of § 73.56.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Visitors.</I> (i) The licensee may permit escorted access to protected and vital areas to individuals who have not been granted unescorted access in accordance with the requirements of § 73.56 and part 26 of this chapter. The licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Implement procedures for processing, escorting, and controlling visitors.
</P>
<P>(B) Confirm the identity of each visitor through physical presentation of a recognized identification card issued by a local, State, or Federal government agency that includes a photo or contains physical characteristics of the individual requesting escorted access.
</P>
<P>(C) Maintain a visitor control register in which all visitors shall register their name, date, time, purpose of visit, employment affiliation, citizenship, and name of the individual to be visited before being escorted into any protected or vital area.
</P>
<P>(D) Issue a visitor badge to all visitors that clearly indicates an escort is required.
</P>
<P>(E) Escort all visitors, at all times, while inside the protected area and vital areas.
</P>
<P>(F) Deny escorted access to any individual who is currently denied access in industry shared data bases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals not employed by the licensee but who require frequent or extended unescorted access to the protected area and/or vital areas to perform duties and responsibilities required by the licensee at irregular or intermittent intervals, shall satisfy the access authorization requirements of § 73.56 and part 26 of this chapter, and shall be issued a non-employee photo identification badge that is easily distinguished from other identification badges before being allowed unescorted access to the protected and vital areas. Non-employee photo identification badges must visually reflect that the individual is a non-employee and that no escort is required.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Escorts.</I> The licensee shall ensure that all escorts are trained to perform escort duties in accordance with the requirements of this section and site training requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) Escorts shall be authorized unescorted access to all areas in which they will perform escort duties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals assigned to visitor escort duties shall be provided a means of timely communication with security personnel to summon assistance when needed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals assigned to vehicle escort duties shall be trained and qualified in accordance with appendix B, section VI, of this part and provided a means of continuous communication with security personnel to ensure the ability to summon assistance when needed.
</P>
<P>(iv) When visitors are performing work, escorts shall be generally knowledgeable of the activities to be performed by the visitor and report behaviors or activities that may constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public and common defense and security, including a potential threat to commit radiological sabotage, consistent with § 73.56(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(v) Each licensee shall describe visitor to escort ratios for the protected area and vital areas in physical security plans. Implementing procedures shall provide necessary observation and control requirements for all visitor activities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Search programs.</I> (1) The objective of the search program is to detect, deter, and prevent the introduction of firearms, explosives, incendiary devices, or other items which could be used to commit radiological sabotage. To accomplish this the licensee shall search individuals, vehicles, and materials consistent with the physical protection program design requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, and the function to be performed at each access control point or portal before granting access.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Owner controlled area searches.</I> (i) Where the licensee has established physical barriers in the owner controlled area, the licensee shall implement search procedures for access control points in the barrier.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each vehicle access control point, the licensee shall describe in implementing procedures areas of a vehicle to be searched, and the items for which the search is intended to detect and prevent access. Areas of the vehicle to be searched must include, but are not limited to, the cab, engine compartment, undercarriage, and cargo area.
</P>
<P>(iii) Vehicle searches must be performed by at least two (2) trained and equipped security personnel, one of which must be armed. The armed individual shall be positioned to observe the search process and provide immediate response.
</P>
<P>(iv) Vehicle searches must be accomplished through the use of equipment capable of detecting firearms, explosives, incendiary devices, or other items which could be used to commit radiological sabotage, or through visual and physical searches, or both, to ensure that all items are identified before granting access.
</P>
<P>(v) Vehicle access control points must be equipped with video surveillance equipment that is monitored by an individual capable of initiating a response.
</P>
<P>(3) Protected area searches. Licensees shall search all personnel, vehicles and materials requesting access to protected areas.
</P>
<P>(i) The search for firearms, explosives, incendiary devices, or other items which could be used to commit radiological sabotage shall be accomplished through the use of equipment capable of detecting these items, or through visual and physical searches, or both, to ensure that all items are clearly identified before granting access to protected areas. The licensee shall subject all persons except official Federal, state, and local law enforcement personnel on official duty to these searches upon entry to the protected area. Armed security officers who are on duty and have exited the protected area may re-enter the protected area without being searched for firearms.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever search equipment is out of service, is not operating satisfactorily, or cannot be used effectively to search individuals, vehicles, or materials, a visual and physical search shall be conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) When an attempt to introduce firearms, explosives, incendiary devices, or other items which could be used to commit radiological sabotage has occurred or is suspected, the licensee shall implement actions to ensure that the suspect individuals, vehicles, and materials are denied access and shall perform a visual and physical search to determine the absence or existence of a threat.
</P>
<P>(iv) For each vehicle access portal, the licensee shall describe in implementing procedures areas of a vehicle to be searched before access is granted. Areas of the vehicle to be searched must include, but are not limited to, the cab, engine compartment, undercarriage, and cargo area.
</P>
<P>(v) Exceptions to the protected area search requirements for materials may be granted for safety or operational reasons provided the design criteria of § 73.55(b) are satisfied, the materials are clearly identified, the types of exceptions to be granted are described in the security plans, and the specific security measures to be implemented for excepted items are detailed in site procedures.
</P>
<P>(vi) To the extent practicable, excepted materials must be positively controlled, stored in a locked area, and opened at the final destination by an individual familiar with the items.
</P>
<P>(vii) Bulk material excepted from the protected area search requirements must be escorted by an armed member of the security organization to its final destination or to a receiving area where the excepted items are offloaded and verified.
</P>
<P>(viii) To the extent practicable, bulk materials excepted from search shall not be offloaded adjacent to a vital area.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Detection and assessment systems.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish and maintain intrusion detection and assessment systems that satisfy the design requirements of § 73.55(b) and provide, at all times, the capability to detect and assess unauthorized persons and facilitate the effective implementation of the licensee's protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(2) Intrusion detection equipment must annunciate and video assessment equipment shall display concurrently, in at least two continuously staffed onsite alarm stations, at least one of which must be protected in accordance with the requirements of the central alarm station within this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee's intrusion detection and assessment systems must be designed to:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide visual and audible annunciation of the alarm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a visual display from which assessment of the detected activity can be made.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensure that annunciation of an alarm indicates the type and location of the alarm.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that alarm devices to include transmission lines to annunciators are tamper indicating and self-checking.
</P>
<P>(v) Provide an automatic indication when the alarm system or a component of the alarm system fails, or when the system is operating on the backup power supply.
</P>
<P>(vi) Support the initiation of a timely response in accordance with the security plans, licensee protective strategy, and associated implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Ensure intrusion detection and assessment equipment at the protected area perimeter remains operable from an uninterruptible power supply in the event of the loss of normal power.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alarm stations.</I> (i) Both alarm stations required by paragraph (i)(2) of this section must be designed and equipped to ensure that a single act, in accordance with the design basis threat of radiological sabotage defined in § 73.1(a)(1), cannot disable both alarm stations. The licensee shall ensure the survivability of at least one alarm station to maintain the ability to perform the following functions:
</P>
<P>(A) Detect and assess alarms;
</P>
<P>(B) Initiate and coordinate an adequate response to an alarm;
</P>
<P>(C) Summon offsite assistance; and
</P>
<P>(D) Provide command and control.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Locate the central alarm station inside a protected area. The interior of the central alarm station must not be visible from the perimeter of the protected area.
</P>
<P>(B) Continuously staff each alarm station with at least one trained and qualified alarm station operator. The alarm station operator must not be assigned other duties or responsibilities which would interfere with the ability to execute the functions described in § 73.55(i)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Not permit any activities to be performed within either alarm station that would interfere with an alarm station operator's ability to execute assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(D) Assess and initiate response to all alarms in accordance with the security plans and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(E) Assess and initiate response to other events as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(F) Ensure that an alarm station operator cannot change the status of a detection point or deactivate a locking or access control device at a protected or vital area portal, without the knowledge and concurrence of the alarm station operator in the other alarm station.
</P>
<P>(G) Ensure that operators in both alarm stations are knowledgeable of the final disposition of all alarms.
</P>
<P>(H) Maintain a record of all alarm annunciations, the cause of each alarm, and the disposition of each alarm.


</P>
<P>(iii) Applicants for an operating license under the provisions of part 50 of this chapter, or holders of a combined license under the provisions of part 52 of this chapter, or licensees under part 53 of this chapter that elect to demonstrate compliance with § 73.55, consistent with § 53.860(a)(2) of this chapter, shall construct, locate, protect, and equip both the central and secondary alarm stations to the standards for the central alarm station contained in this section. Both alarm stations shall be equal and redundant, such that all functions needed to satisfy the requirements of this section can be performed in both alarm stations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Surveillance, observation, and monitoring.</I> (i) The physical protection program must include surveillance, observation, and monitoring as needed to satisfy the design requirements of § 73.55(b), identify indications of tampering, or otherwise implement the site protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall provide continuous surveillance, observation, and monitoring of the owner controlled area as described in the security plans to detect and deter intruders and ensure the integrity of physical barriers or other components and functions of the onsite physical protection program. Continuous surveillance, observation, and monitoring responsibilities may be performed by security personnel during continuous patrols, through use of video technology, or by a combination of both.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unattended openings that intersect a security boundary such as underground pathways must be protected by a physical barrier and monitored by intrusion detection equipment or observed by security personnel at a frequency sufficient to detect exploitation.
</P>
<P>(iv) Armed security patrols shall periodically check external areas of the protected area to include physical barriers and vital area portals.
</P>
<P>(v) Armed security patrols shall periodically inspect vital areas to include the physical barriers used at all vital area portals.
</P>
<P>(vi) The licensee shall provide random patrols of all accessible areas containing target set equipment.
</P>
<P>(vii) Security personnel shall be trained to recognize obvious indications of tampering consistent with their assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(viii) Upon detection of tampering, or other threats, the licensee shall initiate response in accordance with the security plans and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Illumination.</I> (i) The licensee shall ensure that all areas of the facility are provided with illumination necessary to satisfy the design requirements of § 73.55(b) and implement the protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall provide a minimum illumination level of 0.2 foot-candles, measured horizontally at ground level, in the isolation zones and appropriate exterior areas within the protected area. Alternatively, the licensee may augment the facility illumination system by means of low-light technology to meet the requirements of this section or otherwise implement the protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee shall describe in the security plans how the lighting requirements of this section are met and, if used, the type(s) and application of low-light technology.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Communication requirements.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish and maintain continuous communication capability with onsite and offsite resources to ensure effective command and control during both normal and emergency situations.
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals assigned to each alarm station shall be capable of calling for assistance in accordance with the security plans and the licensee's procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) All on-duty security force personnel shall be capable of maintaining continuous communication with an individual in each alarm station, and vehicle escorts shall maintain continuous communication with security personnel. All personnel escorts shall maintain timely communication with the security personnel.
</P>
<P>(4) The following continuous communication capabilities must terminate in both alarm stations required by this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Radio or microwave transmitted two-way voice communication, either directly or through an intermediary, in addition to conventional telephone service between local law enforcement authorities and the site.
</P>
<P>(ii) A system for communication with the control room.
</P>
<P>(5) Non-portable communications equipment must remain operable from independent power sources in the event of the loss of normal power.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall identify site areas where communication could be interrupted or cannot be maintained, and shall establish alternative communication measures or otherwise account for these areas in implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Response requirements.</I> (1) The licensee shall establish and maintain, at all times, properly trained, qualified and equipped personnel required to interdict and neutralize threats up to and including the design basis threat of radiological sabotage as defined in § 73.1, to prevent significant core damage and spent fuel sabotage.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall ensure that all firearms, ammunition, and equipment necessary to implement the site security plans and protective strategy are in sufficient supply, are in working condition, and are readily available for use.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall train each armed member of the security organization to prevent or impede attempted acts of radiological sabotage by using force sufficient to counter the force directed at that person, including the use of deadly force when the armed member of the security organization has a reasonable belief that the use of deadly force is necessary in self-defense or in the defense of others, or any other circumstances as authorized by applicable State or Federal law.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall provide armed response personnel consisting of armed responders which may be augmented with armed security officers to carry out armed response duties within predetermined time lines specified by the site protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Armed responders.</I> (i) The licensee shall determine the minimum number of armed responders necessary to satisfy the design requirements of § 73.55(b) and implement the protective strategy. The licensee shall document this number in the security plans.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of armed responders shall not be less than ten (10).
</P>
<P>(iii) Armed responders shall be available at all times inside the protected area and may not be assigned other duties or responsibilities that could interfere with their assigned response duties.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Armed security officers.</I> (i) Armed security officers, designated to strengthen onsite response capabilities, shall be onsite and available at all times to carry out their assigned response duties.
</P>
<P>(ii) The minimum number of armed security officers designated to strengthen onsite response capabilities must be documented in the security plans.
</P>
<P>(7) The licensee shall have procedures to reconstitute the documented number of available armed response personnel required to implement the protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Protective strategy.</I> The licensee shall establish, maintain, and implement a written protective strategy in accordance with the requirements of this section and part 73, appendix C, Section II. Upon receipt of an alarm or other indication of a threat, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the existence and level of a threat in accordance with pre-established assessment methodologies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Initiate response actions to interdict and neutralize threats in accordance with the requirements of part 73, appendix C, section II, the safeguards contingency plan, and the licensee's response strategy.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notify law enforcement agencies (local, State, and Federal law enforcement agencies (LLEA)), in accordance with site procedures.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Law enforcement liaison.</I> To the extent practicable, licensees shall document and maintain current agreements with applicable law enforcement agencies to include estimated response times and capabilities.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Heightened security.</I> Licensees shall establish, maintain, and implement a threat warning system which identifies specific graduated protective measures and actions to be taken to increase licensee preparedness against a heightened security threat.
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees shall ensure that the specific protective measures and actions identified for each threat level are consistent with the security plans and other emergency plans and procedures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon notification by an authorized representative of the Commission, licensees shall implement the specific threat level indicated by the Commission representative.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Facilities using mixed-oxide (MOX) fuel assemblies containing up to 20 weight percent plutonium dioxide (PuO</I><E T="54">2</E>). (1) Commercial nuclear power reactors licensed under 10 CFR part 50, part 52, or part 53 and authorized to use special nuclear material in the form of MOX fuel assemblies containing up to 20 weight percent PuO<E T="52">2</E> shall, in addition to demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this section, protect un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies against theft or diversion as described in this paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(2) Commercial nuclear power reactors authorized to use MOX fuel assemblies containing up to 20 weight percent PuO<E T="52">2</E> are exempt from the requirements of §§ 73.20, 73.45, and 73.46 for the onsite physical protection of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Administrative controls.</I> (i) The licensee shall describe in the security plans the operational and administrative controls to be implemented for the receipt, inspection, movement, storage, and protection of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall implement the use of tamper-indicating devices for un-irradiated MOX fuel assembly transport and shall verify their use and integrity before receipt.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon receipt of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Inspect un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies for damage.
</P>
<P>(B) Search un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies for unauthorized materials.
</P>
<P>(iv) The licensee may conduct the required inspection and search functions simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(v) The licensee shall ensure the proper placement and control of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) At least one armed security officer shall be present during the receipt and inspection of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies. This armed security officer shall not be an armed responder as required by paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The licensee shall store un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies only within a spent fuel pool, located within a vital area, so that access to the un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies requires passage through at least two physical barriers and the water barrier combined with the additional measures detailed in this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The licensee shall implement a material control and accountability program that includes a predetermined and documented storage location for each un-irradiated MOX fuel assembly.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Physical controls.</I> (i) The licensee shall lock, lockout, or disable all equipment and power supplies to equipment required for the movement and handling of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies when movement activities are not authorized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee shall implement a two-person, line-of-sight rule within the spent fuel pool area whenever control systems or equipment required for the movement or handling of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies must be accessed.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee shall conduct random patrols of areas containing un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies to identify indications of tampering and ensure the integrity of barriers and locks.
</P>
<P>(iv) Locks, keys, and any other access control device used to secure equipment and power sources required for the movement of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies, or openings to areas containing un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies, must be controlled by the security organization.
</P>
<P>(v) Removal of locks used to secure equipment and power sources required for the movement of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies or openings to areas containing un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies must require approval by both the on-duty security shift supervisor and the operations shift manager.
</P>
<P>(A) At least one armed security officer shall be present to observe activities involving the movement of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies before the removal of the locks and providing power to equipment required for the movement or handling of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies.
</P>
<P>(B) At least one armed security officer shall be present at all times until power is removed from equipment and locks are secured.
</P>
<P>(C) Security officers shall be knowledgeable of authorized and unauthorized activities involving un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies.
</P>
<P>(5) At least one armed security officer shall be present and shall maintain constant surveillance of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies when the assemblies are not located in the spent fuel pool or reactor.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee shall maintain at all times the capability to detect, assess, interdict and neutralize threats to un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>MOX fuel assemblies containing greater than 20 weight percent</I> PuO<E T="52">2</E>. (i) Requests for the use of MOX fuel assemblies containing greater than 20 weight percent PuO<E T="52">2</E> shall be reviewed and approved by the Commission before receipt of MOX fuel assemblies.


</P>
<P>(ii) Additional measures for the physical protection of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies containing greater than 20 weight percent PuO<E T="52">2</E> shall be determined by the Commission on a case-by-case basis and documented through license amendment in accordance with § 50.90 or § 53.1510 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Security program reviews.</I> (1) As a minimum the licensee shall review each element of the physical protection program at least every 24 months. Reviews shall be conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) Within 12 months following initial implementation of the physical protection program or a change to personnel, procedures, equipment, or facilities that potentially could adversely affect security.
</P>
<P>(ii) As necessary based upon site-specific analyses, assessments, or other performance indicators.
</P>
<P>(iii) By individuals independent of those personnel responsible for program management and any individual who has direct responsibility for implementing the onsite physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(2) Reviews of the security program must include, but not limited to, an audit of the effectiveness of the physical security program, security plans, implementing procedures, cyber security programs, safety/security interface activities, the testing, maintenance, and calibration program, and response commitments by local, State, and Federal law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(3) The results and recommendations of the onsite physical protection program reviews, management's findings regarding program effectiveness, and any actions taken as a result of recommendations from prior program reviews, must be documented in a report to the licensee's plant manager and to corporate management at least one level higher than that having responsibility for day-to-day plant operations. These reports must be maintained in an auditable form and available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(4) Findings from onsite physical protection program reviews must be entered into the site corrective action program.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Maintenance, testing, and calibration.</I> (1) The licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish, maintain, and implement a maintenance, testing and calibration program to ensure that security systems and equipment, including secondary and uninterruptible power supplies, are tested for operability and performance at predetermined intervals, maintained in operable condition, and are capable of performing their intended functions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the maintenance, testing and calibration program in the physical security plan. Implementing procedures must specify operational and technical details required to perform maintenance, testing, and calibration activities to include, but not limited to, purpose of activity, actions to be taken, acceptance criteria, and the intervals or frequency at which the activity will be performed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify in procedures the criteria for determining when problems, failures, deficiencies, and other findings are documented in the site corrective action program for resolution.
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure that information documented in the site corrective action program is written in a manner that does not constitute safeguards information as defined in 10 CFR 73.21.
</P>
<P>(v) Implement compensatory measures that ensure the effectiveness of the onsite physical protection program when there is a failure or degraded operation of security-related components or equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall test each intrusion alarm for operability at the beginning and end of any period that it is used for security, or if the period of continuous use exceeds seven (7) days. The intrusion alarm must be tested at least once every seven (7) days.
</P>
<P>(3) Intrusion detection and access control equipment must be performance tested in accordance with the security plans and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(4) Equipment required for communications onsite must be tested for operability not less frequently than once at the beginning of each security personnel work shift.
</P>
<P>(5) Communication systems between the alarm stations and each control room, and between the alarm stations and local law enforcement agencies, to include backup communication equipment, must be tested for operability at least once each day.
</P>
<P>(6) Search equipment must be tested for operability at least once each day and tested for performance at least once during each seven (7) day period.
</P>
<P>(7) A program for testing or verifying the operability of devices or equipment located in hazardous areas must be specified in the implementing procedures and must define alternate measures to be taken to ensure the timely completion of testing or maintenance when the hazardous condition or other restrictions are no longer applicable.
</P>
<P>(8) Security equipment or systems shall be tested in accordance with the site maintenance, testing and calibration procedures before being placed back in service after each repair or inoperable state.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Compensatory measures.</I> (1) The licensee shall identify criteria and measures to compensate for degraded or inoperable equipment, systems, and components to meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Compensatory measures must provide a level of protection that is equivalent to the protection that was provided by the degraded or inoperable, equipment, system, or components.
</P>
<P>(3) Compensatory measures must be implemented within specific time frames necessary to meet the requirements stated in paragraph (b) of this section and described in the security plans.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Suspension of security measures.</I> (1) The licensee may suspend implementation of affected requirements of this section under the following conditions:


</P>
<P>(i) Under § 50.54 paragraphs (x) and (y) or § 53.740(h) of this chapter, the licensee may suspend any security measures under this section in an emergency when this action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety and no action consistent with license conditions and technical specifications that can provide adequate or equivalent protection is immediately apparent. This suspension of security measures must be approved as a minimum by a licensed senior operator or a generally licensed reactor operator, as applicable, before taking this action.
</P>
<P>(ii) During severe weather when the suspension of affected security measures is immediately needed to protect the personal health and safety of security force personnel and no other immediately apparent action consistent with the license conditions and technical specifications can provide adequate or equivalent protection. This suspension of security measures must be approved, as a minimum, by a licensed senior operator or a generally licensed reactor operator, as applicable, with input from the security supervisor or manager, before taking this action.
</P>
<P>(2) Suspended security measures must be reinstated as soon as conditions permit.
</P>
<P>(3) The suspension of security measures must be reported and documented in accordance with the provisions of §§ 73.1200 and 73.1205 of this part.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Records.</I> (1) The Commission may inspect, copy, retain, and remove all reports, records, and documents required to be kept by Commission regulations, orders, or license conditions, whether the reports, records, and documents are kept by the licensee or a contractor.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall maintain all records required to be kept by Commission regulations, orders, or license conditions, until the Commission terminates the license for which the records were developed, and shall maintain superseded portions of these records for at least three (3) years after the record is superseded, unless otherwise specified by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) If a contracted security force is used to implement the onsite physical protection program, the licensee's written agreement with the contractor must be retained by the licensee as a record for the duration of the contract.
</P>
<P>(4) Review and audit reports must be maintained and available for inspection, for a period of three (3) years.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Alternative measures.</I> (1) The Commission may authorize an applicant or licensee to provide a measure for protection against radiological sabotage other than one required by this section if the applicant or licensee demonstrates that:
</P>
<P>(i) The measure meets the same performance objectives and requirements specified in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed alternative measure provides protection against radiological sabotage or theft of un-irradiated MOX fuel assemblies, equivalent to that which would be provided by the specific requirement for which it would substitute.


</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall submit proposed alternative measure(s) to the Commission for review and approval under § 50.4 and § 50.90, or § 53.040 and § 53.1510 of this chapter, before implementation.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to fully describing the desired changes, the licensee shall submit a technical basis for each proposed alternative measure. The basis must include an analysis or assessment that demonstrates how the proposed alternative measure provides a level of protection that is at least equal to that which would otherwise be provided by the specific requirement of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Alternative vehicle barrier systems. In the case of vehicle barrier systems required by § 73.55(e)(10), the licensee shall demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(i) The alternative measure provides protection against the use of a vehicle as a means of transportation to gain proximity to vital areas;
</P>
<P>(ii) The alternative measure provides protection against the use of a vehicle as a vehicle bomb; and


</P>
<P>(iii) Based on comparison of the costs of the alternative measures to the costs of demonstrating compliance with the Commission's requirements using the essential elements of § 50.109 or § 53.1590 of this chapter, the costs of fully demonstrating compliance with the Commission's requirements are not justified by the protection that would be provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 13971, Mar. 27, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 39909, July 6, 2012; 88 FR 15891, Mar. 14, 2023; 91 FR 15870, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Access Authorization and Access Control Requirements for the Physical Protection of Special Nuclear Material</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 15891, Mar. 14, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.56" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.7.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.56   Personnel access authorization requirements for nuclear power plants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> (1) By March 31, 2010, each nuclear power reactor licensee, licensed under 10 CFR part 50, shall implement the requirements of this section through revisions to its Commission-approved Physical Security Plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall establish, implement and maintain its access authorization program in accordance with the requirements of this section.


</P>
<P>(3) Each applicant for an operating license under the provisions of part 50 of this chapter, each holder of a combined license under the provisions of part 52 of this chapter, and applicants for an operating license or holders of a combined license under part 53 of this chapter who do not demonstrate compliance with 10 CFR 73.100(a)(1)(i) shall implement the requirements of this section before fuel is allowed on site (protected area).
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee or applicant may accept, in part or whole, an access authorization program implemented by a contractor or vendor to satisfy appropriate elements of the licensee's access authorization program in accordance with the requirements of this section. Only a licensee shall grant an individual unescorted access. Licensees and applicants shall certify individuals' unescorted access authorization and are responsible to maintain, deny, terminate, or withdraw unescorted access authorization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The following individuals shall be subject to an access authorization program:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual to whom a licensee intends to grant unescorted access to nuclear power plant protected or vital areas or any individual for whom a licensee or an applicant intends to certify unescorted access authorization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any individual whose duties and responsibilities permit the individual to take actions by electronic means, either on site or remotely, that could adversely impact the licensee's or applicant's operational safety, security, or emergency preparedness;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any individual who has responsibilities for implementing a licensee's or applicant's protective strategy, including, but not limited to, armed security force officers, alarm station operators, and tactical response team leaders; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The licensee or applicant access authorization program reviewing official or contractor or vendor access authorization program reviewers.
</P>
<P>(2) Other individuals, at the licensee's or applicant's discretion, including employees of a contractor or a vendor who are designated in access authorization program procedures, are subject to an access authorization program that meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General performance objective.</I> The licensee's or applicant's access authorization program must provide high assurance that the individuals who are specified in paragraph (b)(1), and, if applicable, paragraph (b)(2) of this section are trustworthy and reliable, such that they do not constitute an unreasonable risk to public health and safety or the common defense and security, including the potential to commit radiological sabotage.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Background investigation.</I> In order to grant an individual unescorted access to the protected area or vital area of a nuclear power plant or certify an individual unescorted access authorization, licensees, applicants and contractors or vendors shall ensure that the individual has been subject to a background investigation. The background investigation must include, but is not limited to, the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Informed consent.</I> Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall not initiate any element of a background investigation without the informed and signed consent of the subject individual. This consent shall include authorization to share personal information with appropriate entities. The licensee or applicant to whom the individual is applying for unescorted access and unescorted access authorization, respectively, or the contractors or vendors supporting the licensee or applicant shall inform the individual of his or her right to review information collected to assure its accuracy, and provide the individual with an opportunity to correct any inaccurate or incomplete information that is developed by licensees, applicants, or contractors or vendors about the individual.
</P>
<P>(i) The subject individual may withdraw his or her consent at any time. Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall inform the individual that:
</P>
<P>(A) Withdrawal of his or her consent will remove the individual's application for access authorization under the licensee's or applicant's access authorization program or contractor or vendor access authorization program; and
</P>
<P>(B) Other licensees and applicants shall have access to information documenting the withdrawal. Additionally, the contractors or vendors may have the same access to the information, if such information is necessary for assisting licensees or applicants complying with requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an individual withdraws his or her consent, licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors may not initiate any elements of the background investigation that were not in progress at the time the individual withdrew his or her consent, but shall complete any background investigation elements that are in progress at the time consent is withdrawn. The licensee or applicant shall record the status of the individual's application for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, respectively. Contractors or vendors may record the status of the individual's application for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization for licensees or applicants. Additionally, licensees, applicants, or contractors or vendors shall collect and maintain the individual's application for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization; his or her withdrawal of consent for the background investigation; the reason given by the individual for the withdrawal; and any pertinent information collected from the background investigation elements that were completed. This information must be shared with other licensees in accordance with paragraph (o)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall inform, in writing, any individual who is applying for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization that the following actions are sufficient cause for denial or unfavorable termination of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status:
</P>
<P>(A) Refusal to provide a signed consent for the background investigation;
</P>
<P>(B) Refusal to provide, or the falsification of, any personal history information required under this section, including the failure to report any previous denial or unfavorable termination of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization;
</P>
<P>(C) Refusal to provide signed consent for the sharing of personal information with other licensees, applicants, or the contractor or vendors under paragraph (d)(4)(v) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(D) Failure to report any arrests or legal actions specified in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Personal history disclosure.</I> (i) Any individual who is applying for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization shall disclose the personal history information that is required by the licensee's or applicant's access authorization program, including any information that may be necessary for the reviewing official to make a determination of the individual's trustworthiness and reliability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall not require an individual to disclose an administrative withdrawal of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization under the requirements of § 73.56(g), (h)(7), or (i)(1)(v) of this section. However, the individual must disclose this information if the individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization is administratively withdrawn at the time he or she is seeking unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, or the individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization was subsequently denied or terminated unfavorably by a licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of true identity.</I> Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall verify the true identity of an individual who is applying for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization in order to ensure that the applicant is the person that he or she has claimed to be. At a minimum, licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall validate that the social security number that the individual has provided is his or hers, and, in the case of foreign nationals, validate the claimed non-immigration status that the individual has provided is correct. In addition, licensees and applicants shall also determine whether the results of the fingerprinting required under § 73.57 confirm the individual's claimed identity, if such results are available.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employment history evaluation.</I> Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall ensure that an employment history evaluation has been completed on a best effort basis, by questioning the individual's present and former employers, and by determining the activities of the individual while unemployed.
</P>
<P>(i) For the claimed employment period, the individual must provide the reason for any termination, eligibility for rehire, and other information that could reflect on the individual's trustworthiness and reliability.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the claimed employment was military service the individual shall provide a characterization of service, reason for separation, and any disciplinary actions that could affect a trustworthiness and reliability determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) If education is claimed in lieu of employment, the individual shall provide any information related to the claimed education that could reflect on the individual's trustworthiness and reliability and, at a minimum, verify that the individual was registered for the classes and received grades that indicate that the individual participated in the educational process during the claimed period.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a previous employer, educational institution, or any other entity with which the individual claims to have been engaged fails to provide information or indicates an inability or unwillingness to provide information within 3 business days of the request, the licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Document this refusal or unwillingness in the licensee's, applicant's, or contractor's or vendor's record of the investigation; and
</P>
<P>(B) Obtain a confirmation of employment, educational enrollment and attendance, or other form of engagement claimed by the individual from at least one alternate source that has not been previously used.
</P>
<P>(v) When any licensee, applicant, contractor, or vendor is seeking the information required for an unescorted access or unescorted access authorization decision under this section and has obtained a signed release from the subject individual authorizing the disclosure of such information, other licensees, applicants, contractors and vendors shall make available the personal or access authorization information requested regarding the denial or unfavorable termination of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization.
</P>
<P>(vi) In conducting an employment history evaluation, the licensee, applicant, contractor, or vendor may obtain information and documents by electronic means, including, but not limited to, telephone, facsimile, or e-mail. Licensees, applicants, contractors, or vendors shall make a record of the contents of the telephone call and shall retain that record, and any documents or electronic files obtained electronically, in accordance with paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Credit history evaluation.</I> Licensees, applicants, contractors and vendors shall ensure that the full credit history of any individual who is applying for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization is evaluated. A full credit history evaluation must include, but is not limited to, an inquiry to detect potential fraud or misuse of social security numbers or other financial identifiers, and a review and evaluation of all of the information that is provided by a national credit-reporting agency about the individual's credit history. For individuals including foreign nationals and United States citizens who have resided outside the United States and do not have established credit history that covers at least the most recent seven years in the United States, the licensee, applicant, contractor or vendor must document all attempts to obtain information regarding the individual's credit history and financial responsibility from some relevant entity located in that other country or countries.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Character and reputation evaluation.</I> Licensees, applicants, contractors, and vendors shall ascertain the character and reputation of an individual who has applied for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization by conducting reference checks. Reference checks may not be conducted with any person who is known to be a close member of the individual's family, including but not limited to, the individual's spouse, parents, siblings, or children, or any individual who resides in the individual's permanent household. The reference checks must focus on the individual's reputation for trustworthiness and reliability.
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<P>(7) <I>Criminal history review.</I> The licensee's or applicant's reviewing official shall evaluate the entire criminal history record of an individual who is applying for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization to determine whether the individual has a record of criminal activity that may adversely impact his or her trustworthiness and reliability. A criminal history record must be obtained in accordance with the requirements of § 73.57. For individuals who do not have or are not expected to have unescorted access, a criminal history record of the individual shall be obtained in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (k)(1)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(e) <I>Psychological assessment.</I> In order to assist in determining an individual's trustworthiness and reliability, licensees, applicants, contractors or vendors shall ensure that a psychological assessment has been completed before the individual is granted unescorted access or certified unescorted access authorization. Individuals who are applying for initial unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, or who have not maintained unescorted access or unescorted access authorization for greater than 365 days, shall be subject to a psychological assessment. The psychological assessment must be designed to evaluate the possible adverse impact of any noted psychological characteristics on the individual's trustworthiness and reliability.
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<P>(1) A licensed psychologist or psychiatrist with the appropriate training and experience shall conduct the psychological assessment.
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<P>(2) The psychological assessment must be conducted in accordance with the applicable ethical principles for conducting such assessments established by the American Psychological Association or American Psychiatric Association.
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<P>(3) At a minimum, the psychological assessment must include the administration and interpretation of a standardized, objective, professionally-accepted psychological test that provides information to identify indications of disturbances in personality or psychopathology that may have adverse implications for an individual's trustworthiness and reliability. A psychiatrist or psychologist specified in paragraph (e) of this section shall establish the predetermined thresholds for each scale, in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section, that must be applied in interpreting the results of the psychological test to determine whether an individual must be interviewed by a licensed psychiatrist or psychologist, under § 73.56(e)(4)(i) of this section.
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<P>(4) The psychological assessment must include a clinical interview:
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<P>(i) If an individual's scores on the psychological test in paragraph (e)(3) of this section identify indications of disturbances in personality or psychopathology that may have implications for an individual's trustworthiness and reliability; or
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<P>(ii) If the individual is a member of the population that performs one or more job functions that are critical to the safe and secure operation of the licensee's facility, as defined in paragraph (i)(1)(v)(B) of this section.
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<P>(5) In the course of conducting a psychological assessment for those individuals who are specified in paragraph (h) of this section for initial unescorted access or unescorted access authorization category, if the licensed psychologist or psychiatrist identifies or discovers any information, including a medical condition, that could adversely impact the individual's fitness for duty or trustworthiness and reliability, the licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall ensure that the psychologist or psychiatrist contact appropriate medical personnel to obtain further information as need for a determination. The results of the evaluation and a recommendation shall be provided to the licensee's or applicant's reviewing official.
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<P>(6) During psychological reassessments, if the licensed psychologist or psychiatrist identifies or discovers any information, including a medical condition, that could adversely impact the fitness for duty or trustworthiness and reliability of those individuals who are currently granted unescorted access or certified unescorted access authorization status, he or she shall inform (1) the reviewing official of the discovery within 24 hours of the discovery and (2) the medical personnel designated in the site implementing procedures, who shall ensure that an appropriate evaluation of the possible medical condition is conducted under the requirements of part 26 of this chapter. The results of the evaluation and a recommendation shall be provided to the licensee's or applicant's reviewing official.
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<P>(f) <I>Behavioral observation.</I> (1) Licensee and applicant access authorization programs must include a behavioral observation program that is designed to detect behaviors or activities that may constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public and common defense and security, including a potential threat to commit radiological sabotage. Licensees, applicants and contractors or vendors must ensure that the individuals specified in paragraph (b)(1) and, if applicable, (b)(2) of this section are subject to behavioral observation.
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<P>(2) Each person subject to the behavior observation program shall be responsible for communicating to the licensee or applicant observed behaviors of individuals subject to the requirements of this section. Such behaviors include any behavior of individuals that may adversely affect the safety or security of the licensee's facility or that may constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety or the common defense and security, including a potential threat to commit radiological sabotage.
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<P>(i) Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall ensure that individuals who are subject to this section also successfully complete initial behavioral observation training and requalification behavior observation training as required in paragraphs (f)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
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<P>(ii) Behavioral observation training must be:
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<P>(A) Completed before the licensee grants unescorted access or certifies unescorted access authorization or an applicant certifies unescorted access authorization, as defined in paragraph (h)(4)(ii) of this section,
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<P>(B) Current before the licensee grants unescorted access update or reinstatement or licensee or applicant certifies unescorted access authorization reinstatement as defined in paragraph (h)(4)(ii) of this section, and
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<P>(C) Maintained in a current status during any period of time an individual possesses unescorted access or unescorted access authorization in accordance with paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section.
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<P>(iii) For initial behavioral observation training, individuals shall demonstrate completion by passing a comprehensive examination that addresses the knowledge and abilities necessary to detect behavior or activities that have the potential to constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public and common defense and security, including a potential threat to commit radiological sabotage. Remedial training and re-testing are required for individuals who fail to satisfactorily complete the examination.
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<P>(iv) Individuals shall complete refresher training on a nominal 12-month frequency, or more frequently where the need is indicated. Individuals may take and pass a comprehensive examination that meets the requirements of paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section in lieu of completing annual refresher training.
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<P>(v) Initial and refresher training may be delivered using a variety of media, including, but not limited to, classroom lectures, required reading, video, or computer-based training systems. The licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall monitor the completion of training.
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<P>(3) Individuals who are subject to an access authorization program under this section shall at a minimum, report any concerns arising from behavioral observation, including, but not limited to, concerns related to any questionable behavior patterns or activities of others to the reviewing official, his or her supervisor, or other management personnel designated in their site procedures. The recipient of the report shall, if other than the reviewing official, promptly convey the report to the reviewing official, who shall reassess the reported individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status. The reviewing official shall determine the elements of the reassessment based on the accumulated information of the individual. If the reviewing official has a reason to believe that the reported individual's trustworthiness or reliability is questionable, the reviewing official shall either administratively withdraw or terminate the individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization while completing the re-evaluation or investigation. If the reviewing official determines from the information provided that there is cause for additional action, the reviewing official may inform the supervisor of the reported individual.
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<P>(g) <I>Self-reporting of legal actions.</I> (1) Any individual who has applied for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization or is maintaining unescorted access or unescorted access authorization under this section shall promptly report to the reviewing official, his or her supervisor, or other management personnel designated in site procedures any legal action(s) taken by a law enforcement authority or court of law to which the individual has been subject that could result in incarceration or a court order or that requires a court appearance, including but not limited to an arrest, an indictment, the filing of charges, or a conviction, but excluding minor civil actions or misdemeanors such as parking violations or speeding tickets. The recipient of the report shall, if other than the reviewing official, promptly convey the report to the reviewing official. On the day that the report is received, the reviewing official shall evaluate the circumstances related to the reported legal action(s) and re-determine the reported individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status.
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<P>(2) The licensee or applicant shall inform the individual of this obligation, in writing, prior to granting unescorted access or certifying unescorted access authorization.
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<P>(h) <I>Granting unescorted access and certifying unescorted access authorization.</I> Licensees and applicants shall implement the requirements of this paragraph for granting or certifying initial or reinstated unescorted access or unescorted access authorization. The investigatory information collected to satisfy the requirements of this section for individuals who are being considered for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization shall be valid for a trustworthiness and reliability determination by a licensee or applicant for 30 calendar days.
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<P>(1) <I>Determination basis.</I> (i) The licensee's or applicant's reviewing official shall determine whether to grant, certify, deny, unfavorably terminate, maintain, or administratively withdraw an individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status, based on an evaluation of all of the information required by this section.
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<P>(ii) The licensee's or applicant's reviewing official may not grant unescorted access or certify unescorted access authorization status to an individual until all of the information required by this section has been evaluated by the reviewing official and the reviewing official has determined that the accumulated information supports a determination of the individual's trustworthiness and reliability. However, the reviewing official may deny or terminate unescorted access or unescorted access authorization of any individual based on disqualifying information even if not all the information required by this section has been collected or evaluated.
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<P>(2) <I>Unescorted access for NRC-certified personnel.</I> Licensees and applicants shall grant unescorted access to any individual who has been certified by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission as suitable for such access.
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<P>(3) <I>Access denial.</I> Licensees or applicants may not permit an individual, who is identified as having an access-denied status by another licensee subject to this section, or has an access authorization status other than favorably terminated, to enter any nuclear power plant protected area or vital area, under escort or otherwise, or take actions by electronic means that could adversely impact the licensee's or applicant's safety, security, or emergency response or their facilities, under supervision or otherwise, except upon completion of the initial unescorted access authorization process.
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<P>(4) <I>Granting unescorted access and certifying unescorted access authorization</I>—(i) <I>Initial unescorted access or unescorted access authorization.</I> In satisfying the requirements of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, for individuals who have never held unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status or whose unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status has been interrupted for a period of 3 years or more, the licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (g) of this section. In meeting requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, the licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall evaluate the 3 years before the date on which the application for unescorted access was submitted, or since the individual's eighteenth birthday, whichever is shorter. For the 1-year period preceding the date upon which the individual applies for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, the licensee, applicant or contractor or vendor shall ensure that the employment history evaluation is conducted with every employer, regardless of the length of employment. For the remaining 2-year period, the licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall ensure that the employment history evaluation is conducted with the employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed the longest within each calendar month.
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<P>(ii) <I>Interruption of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization.</I> In satisfying the requirements of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, for individuals who have previously been granted unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, but whose access had been terminated under favorable conditions, licensees, applicants or contractors or vendors shall satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (g) of this section, with consideration of the specific requirements for periods of interruption described below in paragraphs (h)(4)(ii)(A) or (h)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, as applicable. However, for individuals whose unescorted access or unescorted access authorization was interrupted for less than or equal to 30 calendar days, licensees, applicants, or contractors or vendors must only satisfy the requirements set forth in paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2), and (d)(3) of this section. The applicable periods of interruption are determined by the number of calendar days between the day after the individual's access was terminated and the day upon which the individual applies for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization.
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<P>(A) <I>Update of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization.</I> For individuals whose last unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status has been interrupted for more than 30 calendar days but less than or equal to 365 calendar days, the licensee, applicant or contractor or vendor shall complete the individual's employment history evaluation in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d)(4) of this section, within 5 business days after reinstatement. The licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall ensure that the employment history evaluation has been conducted with the employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed the longest within the calendar month. However, if the employment history evaluation is not completed within 5 business days of reinstatement due to circumstances that are outside of the licensee's, applicant's, or contractor's or vendor's control and the licensee or applicant, contractor or vendor is not aware of any potentially disqualifying information regarding the individual within the past 5 years, the licensee may extend the individual's unescorted access an additional 5 business days. If the employment history evaluation is not completed within this extended 5 business days, the licensee shall administratively withdraw unescorted access and complete the employment history evaluation in accordance with § 73.56(d)(4) of this section. For re-certification of unescorted access authorization, prior to re-certification of unescorted access authorization status of an individual, the licensee or applicant shall complete all the elements stated above including drug screening and employment evaluation.
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<P>(B) <I>Reinstatement of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization.</I> For individuals whose last unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status has been interrupted for greater than 365 calendar days but fewer than 3 years the licensee, applicant or contractor or vendor shall evaluate the period of time since the individual last held unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status, up to and including the day the individual applies for re-instated unescorted access authorization. For the 1-year period preceding the date upon which the individual applies for unescorted access authorization, the licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall ensure that the employment history evaluation is conducted with every employer, regardless of the length of employment. For the remaining period, the licensee, applicant or contractor or vendor shall ensure that the employment history evaluation is conducted with the employer by whom the individual claims to have been employed the longest within each calendar month. In addition, the individual shall be subject to the psychological assessment required in § 73.56(e).
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<P>(5) <I>Accepting unescorted access authorization from other access authorization programs.</I> Licensees who are seeking to grant unescorted access or certify unescorted access authorization or applicants who are seeking to certify unescorted access authorization to an individual who is subject to another access authorization program or another access authorization program that complies with this section may rely on those access authorization programs or access authorization program elements to comply with the requirements of this section. However, the licensee who is seeking to grant unescorted access or the licensee or applicant who is seeking to certify unescorted access authorization shall ensure that the program elements to be accepted have been maintained consistent with the requirements of this section by the other access authorization program.
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<P>(6) <I>Information sharing.</I> To meet the requirements of this section, licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors may rely upon the information that other licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors who are also subject to this section, have gathered about individuals who have previously applied for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, and developed about individuals during periods in which the individuals maintained unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status.
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<P>(i) Maintaining unescorted access or unescorted access authorization.
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<P>(1) Individuals may maintain unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status under the following conditions:
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<P>(i) The individual remains subject to a behavioral observation program that complies with the requirements of § 73.56(f) of this section.
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<P>(ii) The individual successfully completes behavioral observation refresher training or testing on the nominal 12-month frequency required in § 73.56(f)(2)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(iii) The individual complies with the licensee's or applicant's access authorization program policies and procedures to which he or she is subject, including the self-reporting of legal actions responsibility specified in paragraph (g) of this section.
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<P>(iv) The individual is subject to an annual (within 365 calendar days) supervisory review conducted in accordance with the requirements of the licensee's or applicant's behavioral observation program. The individual shall be subject to a supervisory interview in accordance with the requirements of the licensee's or applicant's behavioral observation program, if the supervisor does not have the frequent interaction with the individual throughout the review period needed to form an informed and reasonable opinion regarding the individual's behavior, trustworthiness, and reliability.
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<P>(v) The licensee's or applicant's reviewing official determines that the individual continues to be trustworthy and reliable. This determination must, at a minimum, be based on the following:
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<P>(A) A criminal history update and credit history re-evaluation for any individual with unescorted access. The criminal history update and credit history re-evaluation must be completed within 5 years of the date on which these elements were last completed.
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<P>(B) For individuals who perform one or more of the job functions described in this paragraph, the trustworthiness and reliability determination must be based on a criminal history update and credit history re-evaluation within three years of the date on which these elements were last completed, or more frequently, based on job assignment as determined by the licensee or applicant, and a psychological re-assessment within 5 years of the date on which this element was last completed:
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<P>(<I>1</I>) Individuals who have extensive knowledge of defensive strategies and design and/or implementation of the plant's defense strategies, including—
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<P>(<I>i</I>) Site security supervisors;
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) Site security managers;
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<P>(<I>iii</I>) Security training instructors; and
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<P>(<I>iv</I>) Corporate security managers;
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<P>(<I>2</I>) Individuals in a position to grant an applicant unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, including site access authorization managers;
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<P>(<I>3</I>) Individuals assigned a duty to search for contraband or other items that could be used to commit radiological sabotage (<I>i.e.</I>, weapons, explosives, incendiary devices);
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<P>(<I>4</I>) Individuals who have access, extensive knowledge, or administrative control over plant digital computer and communication systems and networks as identified in § 73.54, including—
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<P>(<I>i</I>) Plant network systems administrators;
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<P>(<I>ii</I>) IT personnel who are responsible for securing plant networks; or
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<P>(<I>5</I>) Individuals qualified for and assigned duties as: armed security officers, armed responders, alarm station operators, response team leaders, and armorers as defined in the licensee's or applicant's Physical Security Plan; and reactor operators, senior reactor operators and non-licensed operators. Non-licensed operators include those individuals responsible for the operation of plant systems and components, as directed by a reactor operator or senior reactor operator. A non-licensed operator also includes individuals who monitor plant instrumentation and equipment and principally perform their duties outside of the control room.
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<P>(C) The criminal history update and the credit history re-evaluation shall be completed within 30 calendar days of each other.
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<P>(vi) If the criminal history update, credit history re-evaluation, psychological re-assessment, if required, and supervisory review and interview, if applicable, have not been completed and the information evaluated by the reviewing official within the time frame specified under paragraph (v) of this section, the licensee or applicant shall administratively withdraw the individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization until these requirements have been met.
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<P>(2) If an individual who has unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status is not subject to an access authorization program that meets the requirements of this part for more than 30 continuous days, then the licensee or applicant shall terminate the individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status and the individual shall meet the requirements in this section, as applicable, to regain unescorted access or unescorted access authorization.
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<P>(j) <I>Access to vital areas.</I> Licensees or applicants shall establish, implement, and maintain a list of individuals who are authorized to have unescorted access to specific nuclear power plant vital areas during non-emergency conditions. The list must include only those individuals who have a continued need for access to those specific vital areas in order to perform their duties and responsibilities. The list must be approved by a cognizant licensee or applicant manager or supervisor who is responsible for directing the work activities of the individual who is granted unescorted access to each vital area, and updated and re-approved no less frequently than every 31 days.
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<P>(k) <I>Trustworthiness and reliability of background screeners and access authorization program personnel.</I> Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall ensure that any individual who collects, processes, or has access to personal information that is used to make unescorted access or unescorted access authorization determinations under this section has been determined to be trustworthy and reliable.
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<P>(1) <I>Background screeners.</I> Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors who rely on individuals who are not directly under their control to collect and process information that will be used by a reviewing official to make unescorted access or unescorted access authorization determinations shall ensure that a trustworthiness and reliability evaluation of such individuals has been completed to support a determination that such individuals are trustworthy and reliable. At a minimum, the following checks are required:
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<P>(i) Verify the individual's true identity as specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section;
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<P>(ii) A local criminal history review and evaluation based on information obtained from an appropriate State or local court or agency in which the individual resided;
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<P>(iii) A credit history review and evaluation;
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<P>(iv) An employment history review and evaluation covering the past 3 years; and
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<P>(v) An evaluation of character and reputation.
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<P>(2) <I>Access authorization program personnel.</I> Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall ensure that any individual who evaluates personal information for the purpose of processing applications for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, including but not limited to a psychologist or psychiatrist who conducts psychological assessments under § 73.56(e), has access to the files, records, and personal information associated with individuals who have applied for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, or is responsible for managing any databases that contain such files, records, and personal information has been determined to be trustworthy and reliable, as follows:
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<P>(i) The individual is subject to an access authorization program that meets the requirements of this section; or
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<P>(ii) The licensee, applicant, and contractor or vendor determines that the individual is trustworthy and reliable based upon an evaluation that meets the requirements of § 73.56(d)(1) through (d)(6) and (e) and either a local criminal history review and evaluation as specified in § 73.56(k)(1)(ii) or a criminal history check that meets the requirements of § 73.56(d)(7).
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<P>(l) <I>Review procedures.</I> Each licensee and applicant shall include a procedure for the notification of individuals who are denied unescorted access, unescorted access authorization, or who are unfavorably terminated. Additionally, procedures must include provisions for the review, at the request of the affected individual, of a denial or unfavorable termination of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization that may adversely affect employment. The procedure must contain a provision to ensure the individual is informed of the grounds for the denial or unfavorable termination and allow the individual an opportunity to provide additional relevant information and an opportunity for an objective review of the information upon which the denial or unfavorable termination of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization was based. The procedure must provide for an impartial and independent internal management review. Licensees and applicants shall not grant unescorted access or certify unescorted access authorization, or permit the individual to maintain unescorted access or unescorted access authorization during the review process.
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<P>(m) <I>Protection of information.</I> Each licensee, applicant, contractor, or vendor shall establish and maintain a system of files and procedures to ensure personal information is not disclosed to unauthorized persons.
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<P>(1) Licensees, applicants and contractors or vendors shall obtain signed consent from the subject individual that authorizes the disclosure of any information collected and maintained under this section before disclosing the information, except for disclosures to the following individuals:
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<P>(i) The subject individual or his or her representative, when the individual has designated the representative in writing for specified unescorted access authorization matters;
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<P>(ii) NRC representatives;
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<P>(iii) Appropriate law enforcement officials under court order;
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<P>(iv) A licensee's, applicant's, or contractor's or vendor's representatives who have a need to have access to the information in performing assigned duties, including determinations of trustworthiness and reliability and audits of access authorization programs;
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<P>(v) The presiding officer in a judicial or administrative proceeding that is initiated by the subject individual;
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<P>(vi) Persons deciding matters under the review procedures in paragraph (k) of this section; or
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<P>(vii) Other persons pursuant to court order.
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<P>(2) All information pertaining to a denial or unfavorable termination of the individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization shall be promptly provided, upon receipt of a written request by the subject individual or his or her designated representative as designated in writing. The licensee or applicant may redact the information to be released to the extent that personal privacy information, including the name of the source of the information is withheld.
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<P>(3) A contract with any individual or organization who collects and maintains personal information that is relevant to an unescorted access or unescorted access authorization determination must require that such records be held in confidence, except as provided in paragraphs (m)(1) through (m)(2) of this section.
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<P>(4) Licensees, applicants, or contractors or vendors and any individual or organization who collects and maintains personal information on behalf of a licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor, shall establish, implement, and maintain a system and procedures for the secure storage and handling of the information collected.
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<P>(n) <I>Audits and corrective action.</I> Each licensee and applicant shall be responsible for the continuing effectiveness of the access authorization program, including access authorization program elements that are provided by the contractors or vendors, and the access authorization programs of any of the contractors or vendors that are accepted by the licensee or applicant. Each licensee, applicant, and contractor or vendor shall ensure that access authorization programs and program elements are audited to confirm compliance with the requirements of this section and those comprehensive actions are taken to correct any non-conformance that is identified.
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<P>(1) Each licensee and applicant shall ensure that its entire access authorization program is audited nominally every 24 months. Licensees, applicants and contractors or vendors are responsible for determining the appropriate frequency, scope, and depth of additional auditing activities within the nominal 24-month period based on the review of program performance indicators, such as the frequency, nature, and severity of discovered problems, personnel or procedural changes, and previous audit findings.
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<P>(2) Access authorization program services that are provided to a licensee or applicant by contractor or vendor personnel who are off site or are not under the direct daily supervision or observation of the licensee's or applicant's personnel must be audited by the licensee or applicant on a nominal 12-month frequency. In addition, any access authorization program services that are provided to contractors or vendors by subcontractor personnel who are off site or are not under the direct daily supervision or observation of the contractor's or vendor's personnel must be audited by the licensee or applicant on a nominal 12-month frequency.
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<P>(3) Licensee's and applicant's contracts with contractors or vendors must reserve the licensee's or applicant's right to audit the contractors or vendors and the contractor's or vendor's subcontractors providing access authorization program services at any time, including at unannounced times, as well as to review all information and documentation that is reasonably relevant to the performance of the program.
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<P>(4) Licensee's and applicant's contracts with the contractors or vendors, and contractors' or vendors' contracts with subcontractors, must also require that the licensee or applicant shall be provided access to and be permitted to take away copies of any documents or data that may be needed to assure that the contractor or vendor and its subcontractors are performing their functions properly and that staff and procedures meet applicable requirements.
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<P>(5) Audits must focus on the effectiveness of the access authorization program or program element(s), as appropriate. At least one member of the licensee or applicant audit team shall be a person who is knowledgeable of and practiced with meeting the performance objectives and requirements of the access authorization program or program elements being audited. The individuals performing the audit of the access authorization program or program element(s) shall be independent from both the subject access authorization programs' management and from personnel who are directly responsible for implementing the access authorization program or program elements being audited.
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<P>(6) The results of the audits, along with any recommendations, must be documented in the site corrective action program in accordance with § 73.55(b)(10) and reported to senior management having responsibility in the area audited and to management responsible for the access authorization program. Each audit report must identify conditions that are adverse to the proper performance of the access authorization program, the cause of the condition(s), and, when appropriate, recommended corrective actions, and corrective actions taken. The licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor shall review the audit findings and take any additional corrective actions, to include re-auditing of the deficient areas where indicated, to preclude repetition of the condition.
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<P>(7) Licensees and applicants may jointly conduct audits, or may accept audits of the contractors or vendors that were conducted by other licensees and applicants who are subject to this section, if the audit addresses the services obtained from the contractor or vendor by each of the sharing licensees and applicants. The contractors or vendors may jointly conduct audits, or may accept audits of its subcontractors that were conducted by other licensees, applicants, or contractors or vendors who are subject to this section, if the audit addresses the services obtained from the subcontractor by each of the sharing licensees, applicants, and the contractors or vendors.
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<P>(i) Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall review audit records and reports to identify any areas that were not covered by the shared or accepted audit and ensure that authorization program elements and services upon which the licensee, applicant, or contractor or vendor relies are audited, if the program elements and services were not addressed in the shared audit.
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<P>(ii) Sharing licensees and applicants need not re-audit the same contractor or vendor for the same time. Sharing contractors or vendors need not re-audit the same subcontractor for the same time.
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<P>(iii) Sharing licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall maintain a copy of the shared audits, including findings, recommendations, and corrective actions.
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<P>(o) <I>Records.</I> Licensee, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall maintain the records that are required by the regulations in this section for the period specified by the appropriate regulation. If a retention period is not otherwise specified, these records must be retained until the Commission terminates the facility's license, certificate, or other regulatory approval.
</P>
<P>(1) Records may be stored and archived electronically, provided that the method used to create the electronic records meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides an accurate representation of the original records;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prevents unauthorized access to the records;
</P>
<P>(iii) Prevents the alteration of any archived information and/or data once it has been committed to storage; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Permits easy retrieval and re-creation of the original records.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees and applicants who are subject to this section shall retain the following records:
</P>
<P>(i) Records of the information that must be collected under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section that results in the granting of unescorted access or certifying of unescorted access authorization for at least 5 years after the licensee or applicant terminates or denies an individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records pertaining to denial or unfavorable termination of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization and related management actions for at least 5 years after the licensee or applicant terminates or denies an individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation of the granting and termination of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization for at least 5 years after the licensee or applicant terminates or denies an individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization or until the completion of all related legal proceedings, whichever is later. Contractors or vendors may maintain the records that are or were pertinent to granting, certifying, denying, or terminating unescorted access or unescorted access authorization that they collected for licensees or applicants. If the contractors or vendors maintain the records on behalf of a licensee or an applicant, they shall follow the record retention requirement specified in this section. Upon termination of a contract between the contractor and vendor and a licensee or applicant, the contractor or vendor shall provide the licensee or applicant with all records collected for the licensee or applicant under this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall retain the following records for at least 3 years or until the completion of all related proceedings, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(i) Records of behavioral observation training conducted under paragraph (f)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Records of audits, audit findings, and corrective actions taken under paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall retain written agreements for the provision of services under this section, for three years after termination or completion of the agreement, or until completion of all proceedings related to a denial or unfavorable termination of unescorted access or unescorted access authorization that involved those services, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(5) Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors shall retain records of the background investigations, psychological assessments, supervisory reviews, and behavior observation program actions related to access authorization program personnel, conducted under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, for the length of the individual's employment by or contractual relationship with the licensee, applicant, or the contractor or vendor and three years after the termination of employment, or until the completion of any proceedings relating to the actions of such access authorization program personnel, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(6) Licensees, applicants, and the contractors or vendors who have been authorized to add or manipulate data that is shared with licensees subject to this section shall ensure that data linked to the information about individuals who have applied for unescorted access or unescorted access authorization, which is specified in the licensee's or applicant's access authorization program documents, is retained.
</P>
<P>(i) If the shared information used for determining individual's trustworthiness and reliability changes or new or additional information is developed about the individual, the licensees, applicants, and the contractors or vendors that acquire this information shall correct or augment the data and ensure it is shared with licensees subject to this section. If the changed, additional or developed information has implications for adversely affecting an individual's trustworthiness and reliability, the licensee, applicant, or the contractor or vendor who discovered or obtained the new, additional or changed information, shall, on the day of discovery, inform the reviewing official of any licensee or applicant access authorization program under which the individual is maintaining his or her unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status of the updated information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The reviewing official shall evaluate the shared information and take appropriate actions, which may include denial or unfavorable termination of the individual's unescorted access authorization. If the notification of change or updated information cannot be made through usual methods, licensees, applicants, and the contractors or vendors shall take manual actions to ensure that the information is shared as soon as reasonably possible. Records maintained in any database(s) must be available for NRC review.
</P>
<P>(7) If a licensee or applicant administratively withdraws an individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization status caused by a delay in completing any portion of the background investigation or for a licensee or applicant initiated evaluation, or re-evaluation that is not under the individual's control, the licensee or applicant shall record this administrative action to withdraw the individual's unescorted access or unescorted access authorization with other licensees subject to this section. However, licensees and applicants shall not document this administrative withdrawal as denial or unfavorable termination and shall not respond to a suitable inquiry conducted under the provisions of 10 CFR parts 26, a background investigation conducted under the provisions of this section, or any other inquiry or investigation as denial nor unfavorable termination. Upon favorable completion of the background investigation element that caused the administrative withdrawal, the licensee or applicant shall immediately ensure that any matter that could link the individual to the administrative action is eliminated from the subject individual's access authorization or personnel record and other records, except if a review of the information obtained or developed causes the reviewing official to unfavorably terminate or deny the individual's unescorted access.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 13979, Mar. 27, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 39909, July 6, 2012, 81 FR 86910, Dec. 2, 2016; 91 FR 15871, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.57" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.7.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.57   Requirements for criminal history records checks of individuals granted unescorted access to a nuclear power facility, a non-power reactor, or access to Safeguards Information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Each licensee who is authorized to engage in an activity subject to regulation by the Commission shall comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Each applicant for a license to engage in an activity subject to regulation by the Commission, as well as each entity who has provided written notice to the Commission of intent to file an application for licensing, certification, permitting, or approval of a product subject to regulation by the Commission shall submit fingerprints for those individuals who will have access to Safeguards Information.


</P>
<P>(3) Before receiving its operating license under 10 CFR part 50 or part 53 or before the Commission makes its finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter, each applicant for a license to operate a nuclear power reactor (including an applicant for a combined license) or a non-power reactor may submit fingerprints for those individuals who will require unescorted access to the nuclear power facility or non-power reactor facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General performance objective and requirements.</I> (1) Except those listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, each licensee subject to the provisions of this section shall fingerprint each individual who is permitted unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, the non-power reactor facility in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, or access to Safeguards Information. The licensee will then review and use the information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) and, based on the provisions contained in this section, determine either to continue to grant or to deny further unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, the non-power reactor facility, or access to Safeguards Information for that individual. Individuals who do not have unescorted access or access to Safeguards Information shall be fingerprinted by the licensee and the results of the criminal history records check shall be used before making a determination for granting unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, non-power reactor facility, or to Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees need not fingerprint in accordance with the requirements of this section for the following categories:
</P>
<P>(i) For unescorted access to the nuclear power facility or the non-power reactor facility (but must adhere to provisions contained in §§ 73.21 and 73.22): NRC employees and NRC contractors on official agency business; individuals responding to a site emergency in accordance with the provisions of § 73.55(a); offsite emergency response personnel who are responding to an emergency at a non-power reactor facility; a representative of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) engaged in activities associated with the U.S./IAEA Safeguards Agreement at designated facilities who has been certified by the NRC; law enforcement personnel acting in an official capacity; Federal, State or local government employees who have had equivalent reviews of FBI criminal history data; and individuals employed at a facility who possess “Q” or “L” clearances or possess another active government granted security clearance (<I>i.e.</I>, Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential);
</P>
<P>(ii) For access to Safeguards Information only but must adhere to provisions contained in §§ 73.21, 73.22, and 73.23: the categories of individuals specified in 10 CFR 73.59.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any licensee currently processing criminal history requests through the FBI pursuant to Executive Order 13467, as amended by Executive Order 13764, need not also submit such requests to the NRC under this section; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon further notice to licensees and without further rulemaking, the Commission may waive certain requirements of this section on a temporary basis. 
</P>
<P>(v) Individuals who have a valid unescorted access authorization to a non-power reactor facility on November 7, 2012 are not required to undergo a new fingerprint-based criminal history records check pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, until such time that the existing authorization expires, is terminated, or is otherwise to be renewed.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall notify each affected individual that the fingerprints will be used to secure a review of his/her criminal history record, and inform the individual of proper procedures for revising the record or including explanation in the record. 
</P>
<P>(4) Fingerprinting is not required if the licensee is reinstating the unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, the non-power reactor facility, or access to Safeguards Information granted an individual if:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual returns to the same nuclear power utility or non-power reactor facility that granted access and such access has not been interrupted for a continuous period of more than 365 days; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The previous access was terminated under favorable conditions. 
</P>
<P>(5) Fingerprints need not be taken, in the discretion of the licensee, if an individual who is an employee of a licensee, contractor, manufacturer, or supplier has been granted unescorted access to a nuclear power facility, a non-power reactor facility, or to Safeguards Information by another licensee, based in part on a criminal history records check under this section. The criminal history records check file may be transferred to the gaining licensee in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) All fingerprints obtained by the licensee under this section must be submitted to the Attorney General of the United States through the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(7) The licensee shall review the information received from the Attorney General and consider it in making a determination for granting unescorted access to the individual or access to Safeguards Information. 
</P>
<P>(8) A licensee shall use the information obtained as part of a criminal history records check solely for the purpose of determining an individual's suitability for unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, the non-power reactor facility, or access to Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibitions.</I> (1) A licensee may not base a final determination to deny an individual unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, the non-power reactor facility, or access to Safeguards Information solely on the basis of information received from the FBI involving:
</P>
<P>(i) An arrest more than 1 year old for which there is no information of the disposition of the case; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An arrest that resulted in dismissal of the charge or an acquittal. 
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee may not use information received from a criminal history check obtained under this section in a manner that would infringe upon the rights of any individual under the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States, nor shall the licensee use the information in any way which would discriminate among individuals on the basis of race, religion, national origin, sex, or age. 


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for processing of fingerprint checks.</I> (1) For the purpose of complying with this section, licensees shall, using an appropriate method listed in § 73.4, submit to the NRC's Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, Mail Stop T-07D04M , one completed, legible standard fingerprint card (Form FD-258, ORIMDNRCOOOZ) or, where practicable, other fingerprint records for each individual requiring unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, the non-power reactor facility, or access to Safeguards Information, to the Director of the NRC's Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, marked for the attention of the Division's Criminal History Check Section. Copies of these forms may be obtained by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, by calling 301-415-5877, or by email to <I>FORMS.Resource@nrc.gov.</I> Guidance on what alternative formats might be practicable is referenced in § 73.4. The licensee shall establish procedures to ensure that the quality of the fingerprints taken results in minimizing the rejection rate of fingerprint cards due to illegible or incomplete cards.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission will review applications for criminal history checks for completeness. Any Form FD-258 or other fingerprint record containing omissions or evident errors will be returned to the licensee for corrections. The fee for processing fingerprint checks includes one free resubmission if the initial submission is returned by the FBI because the fingerprint impressions cannot be classified. The one free resubmission must have the FBI Transaction Control Number reflected on the resubmission. If additional submissions are necessary, they will be treated as an initial submittal and require a second payment of the processing fee. The payment of a new processing fee entitles the submitter to an additional free resubmittal, if necessary. Previously rejected submissions may not be included with the third submission because the submittal will be rejected automatically.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Fees for the processing of fingerprint checks are due upon application. Licensees shall submit payment with the application for the processing of fingerprints, and payment must be made payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The payments are to be made in U.S. funds using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I> (For guidance on making payments, contact the Criminal history Program, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy at 301-415-7513). Combined payment for multiple applications is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(ii) The application fee is the sum of the user fee charged by the FBI for each fingerprint card or other fingerprint record submitted by the NRC on behalf of a licensee, and an administrative processing fee assessed by the NRC. The NRC processing fee covers administrative costs associated with NRC handling of licensee fingerprint submissions. The Commission publishes the amount of the fingerprint records check application fee on the NRC public Web site. (To find the current fee amount, go to the Electronic Submittals page at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</I> and see the link for the Criminal History Program.) The Commission will directly notify licensees who are subject to this regulation of any fee changes.
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission will forward to the submitting licensee all data received from the FBI as a result of the licensee's application(s) for criminal history checks, to include the FBI fingerprint record. 


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Right to correct and complete information.</I> (1) Prior to any final adverse determination, the licensee shall make available to the individual the contents of records obtained from the FBI for the purpose of assuring correct and complete information. Confirmation of receipt by the individual of this notification must be maintained by the licensee for a period of 1 year from the date of the notification.
</P>
<P>(2) If after reviewing the record, an individual believes that it is incorrect or incomplete in any respect and wishes changes, corrections, or updating (of the alleged deficiency), or to explain any matter in the record, the individual may initiate challenge procedures. These procedures include direct application by the individual challenging the record to the agency, <I>i.e.</I>, law enforcement agency, that contributed the questioned information or direct challenge as to the accuracy or completeness of any entry on the criminal history record to the Federal Bureau of Investigation Criminal Investigative Services Division, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, WV 26537-9700 as set forth in 28 CFR 16.30 through 16.34. In the latter case, the FBI then forwards the challenge to the agency that submitted the data requesting that agency to verify or correct the challenged entry. Upon receipt of an official communication directly from the agency that contributed the original information, the FBI Criminal Justice Information Services Division makes any changes necessary in accordance with the information supplied by that agency. Licensees must provide at least 10 days for an individual to initiate action to challenge the results of an FBI criminal history records check after the record being made available for his/her review. The licensee may make a final adverse determination based upon the criminal history record, if applicable, only upon receipt of the FBI's confirmation or correction of the record. 
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the right to obtain records from the FBI in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and the right to initiate challenge procedures in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, an individual participating in an NRC adjudication and seeking to obtain Safeguards Information for use in that adjudication may appeal a final adverse determination by the NRC Office of Administration to the presiding officer of the proceeding. The request may also seek to have the Chief Administrative Judge designate an officer other than the presiding officer of the proceeding to review the adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Protection of information.</I> (1) Each licensee who obtains a criminal history record on an individual under this section shall establish and maintain a system of files and procedures for protection of the record and the personal information from unauthorized disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee may not disclose the record or personal information collected and maintained to persons other than the subject individual, his/her representative, or to those who have a need to have access to the information in performing assigned duties in the process of granting or denying unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, the non-power reactor facility or access to Safeguards Information. No individual authorized to have access to the information may re-disseminate the information to any other individual who does not have a need to know.
</P>
<P>(3) The personal information obtained on an individual from a criminal history record check may be transferred to another licensee: 
</P>
<P>(i) Upon the individual's written request to the licensee holding the data to re-disseminate the information contained in his/her file; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The gaining licensee verifies information such as name, date of birth, social security number, sex, and other applicable physical characteristics for identification. 
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall make criminal history records obtained under this section available for examination by an authorized representative of the NRC to determine compliance with the regulations and laws. 
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee shall retain all fingerprint and criminal history records received from the FBI, or a copy if the individual's file has been transferred, on an individual (including data indicating no record) for one year after termination or denial of unescorted access to the nuclear power facility, the non-power reactor facility, or access to Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fingerprinting requirements for unescorted access for non-power reactor licensees.</I> (1) No person shall be permitted unescorted access to a non-power reactor facility unless that person has been determined by an NRC-approved reviewing official to be trustworthy and reliable based on the results of an FBI fingerprint-based criminal history records check obtained in accordance with this paragraph. The reviewing official is required to have unescorted access in accordance with this section or access to Safeguards Information.
</P>
<P>(2) Each non-power reactor licensee subject to the requirements of this section shall obtain the fingerprints for a criminal history records check for each individual who is seeking or permitted:
</P>
<P>(i) Unescorted access to vital areas of the non-power reactor facility; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Unescorted access to special nuclear material in the non-power reactor facility provided the individual who is seeking or permitted unescorted access possesses the capability and knowledge to make unauthorized use of the special nuclear material in the non-power reactor facility or to remove the special nuclear material from the non-power reactor in an unauthorized manner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 6314, Mar. 2, 1987; 52 FR 7821, Mar. 13, 1987]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 73.57, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.58" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.7.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.58   Safety/security interface requirements for nuclear power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each operating nuclear power reactor licensee with a license issued under part 50, part 52, or part 53 of this chapter shall comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall assess and manage the potential for adverse effects on safety and security, including the site emergency plan, before implementing changes to plant configurations, facility conditions, or security.
</P>
<P>(c) The scope of changes to be assessed and managed must include planned and emergent activities (such as, but not limited to, physical modifications, procedural changes, changes to operator actions or security assignments, maintenance activities, system reconfiguration, access modification or restrictions, and changes to the security plan and its implementation).
</P>
<P>(d) Where potential conflicts are identified, the licensee shall communicate them to appropriate licensee personnel and take compensatory and/or mitigative actions to maintain safety and security under applicable Commission regulations, requirements, and license conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 13987, Mar. 27, 2009, as amended at 91 FR 15871, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.7.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.59   Relief from fingerprinting, identification and criminal history records checks and other elements of background checks for designated categories of individuals.</HEAD>
<P>Fingerprinting, and the identification and criminal history records checks required by section 149 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and other elements of background checks are not required for the following individuals prior to granting access to Safeguards Information, including Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information-Modified Handling as defined in 10 CFR 73.2:
</P>
<P>(a) An employee of the Commission or the Executive Branch of the United States government who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. government criminal history records check;
</P>
<P>(b) A member of Congress;
</P>
<P>(c) An employee of a member of Congress or Congressional committee who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. government criminal history records check;
</P>
<P>(d) The Comptroller General or an employee of the Government Accountability Office who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. Government criminal history records check;
</P>
<P>(e) The Governor of a State or his or her designated State employee representative;
</P>
<P>(f) A representative of a foreign government organization that is involved in planning for, or responding to, nuclear or radiological emergencies or security incidents who the Commission approves for access to Safeguards Information, including Safeguards Information designated as Safeguards Information—Modified Handling;
</P>
<P>(g) Federal, State, or local law enforcement personnel;
</P>
<P>(h) State Radiation Control Program Directors and State Homeland Security Advisors or their designated State employee representatives;
</P>
<P>(i) Agreement State employees conducting security inspections on behalf of the NRC pursuant to an agreement executed under section 274.i. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(j) Representatives of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) engaged in activities associated with the U.S./IAEA Safeguards Agreement who have been certified by the NRC;
</P>
<P>(k) Any agent, contractor, or consultant of the aforementioned persons who has undergone equivalent criminal history records and background checks to those required by 10 CFR 73.22(b) or 73.23(b).
</P>
<P>(l) Tribal official or the Tribal official's designated representative, and Tribal law enforcement personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 63580, Oct. 24, 2008, as amended at 77 FR 34206, June 11, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.60" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.7.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.60   Additional requirements for physical protection at non-power reactors.</HEAD>
<P>Each non-power reactor licensee who, pursuant to the requirements of part 70 of this chapter, possesses at any site or contiguous sites subject to control by the licensee uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope), uranium-233, or plutonium, alone or in any combination in a quantity of 5000 grams or more computed by the formula, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2.5 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium), shall protect the special nuclear material from theft or diversion pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs 73.67 (a), (b), (c), and (d), in addition to this section, except that a licensee is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section to the extent that it possesses or uses special nuclear material that is not readily separable from other radioactive material and that has a total external radiation level in excess of 1 gray (100 rad) per hour at a distance of 1 meter (3.3 feet) from any accessible surface without intervening shielding. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Access requirements.</I> (1) Special nuclear material shall be stored or processed only in a material access area. No activities other than those which require access to special nuclear material or equipment employed in the process, use, or storage of special nuclear material, shall be permitted within a material access area. 
</P>
<P>(2) Material access areas shall be located only within a protected area to which access is controlled. 
</P>
<P>(3) Special nuclear material not in process shall be stored in a vault equipped with an intrusion alarm or in a vault-type room, and each such vault or vault-type room shall be controlled as a separate material access area. 
</P>
<P>(4) Enriched uranium scrap in the form of small pieces, cuttings, chips, solutions or in other forms which result from a manufacturing process, contained in 30-gallon or larger containers, with a uranium-235 content of less than 0.25 grams per liter, may be stored within a locked and separately fenced area which is within a larger protected area provided that the storage area is no closer than 25 feet to the perimeter of the protected area. The storage area when unoccupied shall be protected by a guard or watchman who shall patrol at intervals not exceeding 4 hours, or by intrusion alarms. 
</P>
<P>(5) Admittance to a material access area shall be under the control of authorized individuals and limited to individuals who require such access to perform their duties. 
</P>
<P>(6) Prior to entry into a material access area, packages shall be searched for devices such as firearms, explosives, incendiary devices, or counterfeit substitute items which could be used for theft or diversion of special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(7) Methods to observe individuals within material access areas to assure that special nuclear material is not diverted shall be provided and used on a continuing basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exit requirement.</I> Each individual, package, and vehicle shall be searched for concealed special nuclear material before exiting from a material access area unless exit is into a contiguous material access area. The search may be carried out by a physical search or by use of equipment capable of detecting the presence of concealed special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Detection aid requirement.</I> Each unoccupied material access area shall be locked and protected by an intrusion alarm on active status. All emergency exits shall be continuously alarmed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Testing and maintenance.</I> Each licensee shall test and maintain intrusion alarms, physical barriers, and other devices utilized pursuant to the requirements of this section as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Intrusion alarms, physical barriers, and other devices used for material protection shall be maintained in operable condition. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each intrusion alarm shall be inspected and tested for operability and required functional performance at the beginning and end of each interval during which it is used for material protection, but not less frequently than once every seven (7) days. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Response requirement.</I> Each licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow an NRC-approved safeguards contingency plan for responding to threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage related to the special nuclear material and nuclear facilities subject to the provisions of this section. Safeguards contingency plans must be in accordance with the criteria in Appendix C to this part, “Licensee Safeguards Contingency Plans.” 
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the fixed-site requirements set forth in this section and in § 73.67, the Commission may require, depending on the individual facility and site conditions, any alternate or additional measures deemed necessary to protect against radiological sabotage at non-power reactors licensed to operate at or above a power level of 2 megawatts thermal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 35430, Dec. 28, 1973, as amended at 44 FR 68199, Nov. 28, 1979; 57 FR 33431, July 29, 1992; 58 FR 13700, Mar. 15, 1993; 86 FR 43403, Aug. 9, 2021; 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.7.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.61   Relief from fingerprinting and criminal history records check for designated categories of individuals permitted unescorted access to certain radioactive materials or other property.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision of the Commission's regulations, fingerprinting and the identification and criminal history records checks required by section 149 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, are not required for the following individuals prior to granting unescorted access to radioactive materials or other property that the Commission determines by regulation or order to be of such significance to the public health and safety or the common defense and security as to warrant fingerprinting and background checks:
</P>
<P>(a) An employee of the Commission or of the Executive Branch of the U.S. Government who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. Government criminal history check;
</P>
<P>(b) A Member of Congress;
</P>
<P>(c) An employee of a member of Congress or Congressional committee who has undergone fingerprinting for a prior U.S. Government criminal history check;
</P>
<P>(d) The Governor of a State or his or her designated State employee representative;
</P>
<P>(e) Federal, State, or local law enforcement personnel;
</P>
<P>(f) State Radiation Control Program Directors and State Homeland Security Advisors or their designated State employee representatives;
</P>
<P>(g) Agreement State employees conducting security inspections on behalf of the NRC pursuant to an agreement executed under section 274.i. of the Atomic Energy Act;
</P>
<P>(h) Representatives of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) engaged in activities associated with the U.S./IAEA Safeguards Agreement who have been certified by the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 4948, Feb. 2, 2007]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.67" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.7.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.67   Licensee fixed site and in-transit requirements for the physical protection of special nuclear material of moderate and low strategic significance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General performance objectives.</I> (1) Each licensee who possesses, uses or transports special nuclear material of moderate or low strategic significance shall establish and maintain a physical protection system that will achieve the following objectives: 
</P>
<P>(i) Minimize the possibilities for unauthorized removal of special nuclear material consistent with the potential consequences of such actions; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilitate the location and recovery of missing special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(2) To achieve these objectives, the physical protection system shall provide: 
</P>
<P>(i) Early detection and assessment of unauthorized access or activities by an external adversary within the controlled access area containing special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Early detection of removal of special nuclear material by an external adversary from a controlled access area; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assure proper placement and transfer of custody of special nuclear material; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Respond to indications of an unauthorized removal of special nuclear material and then notify the appropriate response forces of its removal in order to facilitate its recovery. 


</P>
<P>(b)(1) A licensee is exempt from the requirements of this section to the extent that he possesses, uses, or transports: 


</P>
<P>(i) Special nuclear material which is not readily separable from other radioactive material and which has a total external radiation level in excess of 1 gray (100 rad) per hour at a distance of 1 meter (3.3 feet) from any accessible surface without intervening shielding, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Sealed plutonium-beryllium neutron sources totaling 500 grams or less contained plutonium at any one site or contiguous sites, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Plutonium with an isotopic concentration exceeding 80 percent in plutonium-238. 
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee who has quantities of special nuclear material equivalent to special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance distributed over several buildings may, for each building which contains a quantity of special nuclear material less than or equal to a level of special nuclear material of low strategic significance, protect the material in that building under the lower classification physical security requirements. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee who possesses, uses, transports, or delivers to a carrier for transport special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, or 10 kg or more of special nuclear material of low strategic significance shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a security plan or an amended security plan describing how the licensee will comply with all the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (g) of this section, as appropriate, including schedules of implementation. The licensee shall retain a copy of the effective security plan as a record for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license for which the original plan was submitted. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 days after the plan submitted pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section is approved, or when specified by the NRC in writing, implement the approved security plan. 


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fixed site requirements for special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance.</I> Each licensee who possesses, stores, or uses quantities and types of special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance at a fixed site or contiguous sites, except as allowed by paragraph (b)(2) of this section and except those who are licensed to operate a nuclear power reactor pursuant to part 50 or part 53, provided that the special nuclear material is located within a protected area and protected under § 73.55 or § 73.100, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Use the material only within a controlled access area which is illuminated sufficiently to allow detection and surveillance of unauthorized penetration or activities, 
</P>
<P>(2) Store the material only within a controlled access area such as a vault-type room or approved security cabinet or their equivalent which is illuminated sufficiently to allow detection and surveillance of unauthorized penetration or activities, 
</P>
<P>(3) Monitor with an intrusion alarm or other device or procedures the controlled access areas to detect unauthorized penetration or activities, 
</P>
<P>(4) Conduct screening prior to granting an individual unescorted access to the controlled access area where the material is used or stored, in order to obtain information on which to base a decision to permit such access, 
</P>
<P>(5) Develop and maintain a controlled badging and lock system to identify and limit access to the controlled access areas to authorized individuals, 
</P>
<P>(6) Limit access to the controlled access areas to authorized or escorted individuals who require such access in order to perform their duties, 
</P>
<P>(7) Assure that all visitors to the controlled access areas are under the constant escort of an individual who has been authorized access to the area, 
</P>
<P>(8) Establish a security organization or modify the current security organization to consist of at least one watchman per shift able to assess and respond to any unauthorized penetrations or activities in the controlled access areas, 
</P>
<P>(9) Provide a communication capability between the security organization and appropriate response force, 
</P>
<P>(10) Search on a random basis vehicles and packages leaving the controlled access areas, and 
</P>
<P>(11) Establish and maintain written response procedures for dealing with threats of thefts or thefts of these materials. The licensee shall retain a copy of the response procedures as a record for the period during which the licensee possesses the appropriate type and quantity of special nuclear material requiring this record under each license for which the original procedures were developed and, for three years thereafter. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>In-transit requirements for special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance.</I> (1) Each licensee who transports, exports or delivers to a carrier for transport special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide advance notification to the receiver of any planned shipments specifying the mode of transport, estimated time of arrival, location of the nuclear material transfer point, name of carrier and transport identification, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Receive confirmation from the receiver prior to the commencement of the planned shipment that the receiver will be ready to accept the shipment at the planned time and location and acknowledges the specified mode of transport, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Check the integrity of the container and locks or seals prior to shipment, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Arrange for the in-transit physical protection of the materials in accordance with the requirements of § 73.67(e)(3) unless the receiver is a licensee and has agreed in writing to arrange for the in-transit physical protection.
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee who receives special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Check the integrity of the containers and seals upon receipt of the shipment, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the shipper of receipt of the material as required in § 74.15 of this chapter, and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Arrange for the in-transit physical protection of the material in accordance with the requirements of § 73.67(e)(3) unless the shipper is a licensee and has agreed in writing to arrange for the in-transit physical protection. 


</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee who arranges for the in-transit physical protection of special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, or who takes delivery of this material free on board (f.o.b.) the point at which it is delivered to a carrier for transport shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Arrange for telephone or radio communications between the transport and the licensee or its designee: (A) To periodically confirm the status of the shipment (B) for notification of any delays in the scheduled shipment, and (C) to request appropriate local law enforcement agency response in the event of an emergency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimize the time that the material is in transit by reducing the number and duration of nuclear material transfers and by routing the material in the most safe and direct manner, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct screening of all licensee employees involved in the transportation of the material in order to obtain information on which to base a decision to permit them control over the material, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Establish and maintain written response procedures for dealing with threats of thefts or thefts of this material. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current response procedures as a record for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license for which the original procedures were developed and copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(v) Make arrangements to be notified immediately of the arrival of the shipment at its destination, or of any such shipment that is lost or unaccounted for after the estimated time of arrival at its destination, and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Initiate immediately a trace investigation of any shipment that is determined to be lost or unaccounted for after a reasonable time beyond the estimated arrival time.
</P>
<P>(vii) Notify the NRC Operations Center after the discovery of the loss of the shipment and after recovery of or accounting for such lost shipment, in accordance with the provisions of §§ 73.1200 and 73.1205 of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Each licensee who arranges the physical protection of strategic special nuclear material in quantities of moderate strategic significance while in transit or who takes delivery of this material free on board (f.o.b.) the point at which it is delivered to a carrier for transport shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (e) (1), (2), and (3) of this section. The licensee shall retain each record required by paragraphs (e) (1), (2), (3), and (4) (i) and (ii) of this section for three years after close of period licensee possesses special nuclear material under each license that authorizes these licensee activities. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change. In addition, the licensee shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Make all shipments of the material either (A) in dedicated transports with no intermediate stops to load or unload other cargo and with no carrier or vehicle transfers or temporary storage in-transit, or (B) under arrangements whereby the custody of the shipment and all custody transfers are acknowledged by signature, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintain the material under lock or under the control of an individual who has acknowledged acceptance of custody of the material by signature.
</P>
<P>(5) Each licensee who exports special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance shall comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (c) and (e) (1), (3), and (4) of this section. The licensee shall retain each record required by these sections for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license that authorizes the licensee to export this material. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(6) Each licensee who imports special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance shall,
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (c) and (e) (2), (3), and (4) of this section. The licensee shall retain each record required by these sections for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license that authorizes the licensee to import this material. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the exporter who delivered the material to a carrier for transport of the arrival of such material.
</P>
<P>(7) If, after receiving advance notice pursuant to § 73.72 from a licensee planning to import, export, transport, deliver to a carrier for transport in a single shipment, or take delivery at the point where it is delivered to a carrier, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance containing in any part strategic special nuclear material, it appears to the Commission that two or more shipments of special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, constituting in the aggregate an amount equal to or greater than a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material, may be en route at the same time, the Commission may order one or more of the shippers to delay shipment according to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) The shipper shall provide to the Commission, upon request, such additional information regarding a planned shipment as the Commission considers pertinent to the decision on whether to delay such shipment. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The receiver of each shipment, or the shipper if the receiver is not a licensee, shall notify the Director, Division of Physical and Cyber Security Policy, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, by telephone, no later than 24 hours after arrival of such shipment at its final destination, or after such shipment has left the United States as an export, to confirm the integrity of the shipment at the time of receipt or exit from the United States. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Commission shall notify the affected shippers no later than two days before the scheduled shipment date that a given shipment is to be delayed. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Shipments of special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance which are protected in accordance with the provisions of §§ 73.20, 73.25, and 73.26 shall not be subject to orders to delay shipment nor considered to constitute a portion of an aggregate formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material for the purposes of determining whether any shipments must delayed.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fixed site requirements for special nuclear material of low strategic significance.</I> Each licensee who possesses, stores, or uses special nuclear material of low strategic significance at a fixed site or contiguous sites, except those who are licensed to operate a nuclear power reactor pursuant to part 50 or part 53, provided that the special nuclear material is located within a protected area and protected under § 73.55 or § 73.100, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Store or use the material only within a controlled access area, 
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor with an intrusion alarm or other device or procedures the controlled access areas to detect unauthorized penetrations or activities, 
</P>
<P>(3) Assure that a watchman or offsite response force will respond to all unauthorized penetrations or activities, and 
</P>
<P>(4) Establish and maintain response procedures for dealing with threats of thefts or thefts of this material. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current response procedures as a record for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license for which the procedures were established. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>In-transit requirements for special nuclear material of low strategic significance.</I> (1) Each licensee who transports or who delivers to a carrier for transport special nuclear material of low strategic significance shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide advance notification to the receiver of any planned shipments specifying the mode of transport, estimated time of arrival, location of the nuclear material transfer point, name of carrier and transport identification, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Receive confirmation from the receiver prior to commencement of the planned shipment that the receiver will be ready to accept the shipment at the planned time and location and acknowledges the specified mode of transport, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Transport the material in a tamper indicating sealed container, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Check the integrity of the containers and seals prior to shipment, and 
</P>
<P>(v) Arrange for the in-transit physical protection of the material in accordance with the requirements of § 73.67(g)(3) of this part, unless the receiver is a licensee and has agreed in writing to arrange for the in-transit physical protection. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee who receives quantities and types of special nuclear material of low strategic significance shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Check the integrity of the containers and seals upon receipt of the shipment, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the shipper of receipt of the material as required in § 74.15 of this chapter, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Arrange for the in-transit physical protection of the material in accordance with the requirements of § 73.67(g)(3) of this part, unless the shipper is a licensee and has agreed in writing to arrange for the in-transit physical protection. 


</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee, either shipper or receiver, who arranges for the physical protection of special nuclear material of low strategic significance while in transit or who takes delivery of such material free on board (f.o.b.) the point at which it is delivered to a carrier for transport shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Establish and maintain response procedures for dealing with threats or thefts of this material. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current response procedures as a record for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license for which the procedures were established. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(ii) Make arrangements to be notified immediately of the arrival of the shipment at its destination, or of any such shipment that is lost or unaccounted for after the estimated time of arrival at its destination, and 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Immediately conduct a trace investigation of any shipment that is lost or unaccounted for after the estimated arrival time; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Notify the NRC Operations Center after the discovery of the loss of the shipment and after recovery of or accounting for such lost shipment, in accordance with the provisions of §§ 73.1200 and 73.1205 of this part. 


</P>
<P>(4) Each licensee who exports special nuclear material of low strategic significance shall comply with the appropriate requirements specified in paragraphs (c) and (g) (1) and (3) of this section. The licensee shall retain each record required by these sections for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license that authorizes the licensee to export this material. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(5) Each licensee who imports special nuclear material of low strategic significance shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (c) and (g) (2) and (3) of this section and retain each record required by these paragraphs for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license that authorizes the licensee to import this material. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the person who delivered the material to a carrier for transport of the arrival of such material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 43283, July 24, 1979. Redesignated at 44 FR 68198, Nov. 28, 1979] 


</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 73.67, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Records and Postings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 15801, Mar. 14, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.70" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.8.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.70   Records.</HEAD>
<P>Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.25, § 73.26, § 73.27, § 73.45, § 73.46, § 73.55, or § 73.60 shall keep the following records:
</P>
<P>(a) Names and addresses of all individuals who have been designated as authorized individuals. The licensee shall retain this record of currently designated authorized individuals for the period during which the licensee possesses the appropriate type and quantity of special nuclear material requiring this record under each license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the recordkeeping requirement and, for three years thereafter. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.
</P>
<P>(b) Names, addresses, and badge numbers of all individuals authorized to have access to vital equipment or special nuclear material, and the vital areas and material access areas to which authorization is granted. The licensee shall retain the record of individuals currently authorized this access for the period during which the licensee possesses the appropriate type and quantity of special nuclear material requiring this record under each license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the recordkeeping requirement and, for three years thereafter. Copies of superseded material must be retained for three years after each change.


</P>
<P>(c) A register of visitors, vendors, and other individuals not employed by the licensee pursuant to § 73.46(d)(13), § 73.55(g)(7), or § 73.60. The licensee shall retain this register as a record, available for inspection, for 3 years after the last entry is made in the register. 
</P>
<P>(d) A log indicating name, badge number, time of entry, and time of exit of all individuals granted access to a vital area except those individuals entering or exiting the reactor control room. The licensee shall retain this log as a record for three years after the last entry is made in the log.
</P>
<P>(e) Documentation of all routine security tours and inspections, and of all tests, inspections, and maintenance performed on physical barriers, intrusion alarms, communications equipment, and other security related equipment used pursuant to the requirements of this part. The licensee shall retain the documentation for these events for three years from the date of documenting each event.
</P>
<P>(f) A record at each onsite alarm annunciation location of each alarm, false alarm, alarm check, and tamper indication that identifies the type of alarm, location, alarm circuit, date, and time. In addition, details of response by facility guards and watchmen to each alarm, intrusion, or other security incident shall be recorded. The license shall retain each record for three years after the record is made.
</P>
<P>(g) Shipments of special nuclear material subject to the requirements of this part, including names of carriers, major roads to be used, flight numbers in the case of air shipments, dates and expected times of departure and arrival of shipments, verification of communication equipment on board the transfer vehicle, names of individuals who are to communicate with the transport vehicle, container seal descriptions and identification, and any other information to confirm the means utilized to comply with §§ 73.25, 73.26, and 73.27. This information must be recorded prior to shipment. Information obtained during the course of the shipment such as reports of all communications, change of shipping plan, including monitor changes, trace investigations, and others must also be recorded. The licensee shall retain each record about a shipment required by this paragraph (g) for three years after the record is made.
</P>
<P>(h) Procedures for controlling access to protected areas and for controlling access to keys for locks used to protect special nuclear material. The licensee shall retain a copy of the current procedures as a record until the Commission terminates each license for which the procedures were developed and, if any portion of the procedure is superseded, retain the superseded material for three years after each change. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19261, May 27, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 33431, July 29, 1992; 83 FR 30288, June 28, 2018; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.8.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.71   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.8.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.72   Requirement for advance notice of shipment of formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, or irradiated reactor fuel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee, other than one specified in paragraph (b) of this section, who, in a single shipment, plans to deliver to a carrier for transport, to take delivery at the point where a shipment is delivered to a carrier for transport, to import, to export, or to transport a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, or irradiated reactor fuel 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> required to be protected in accordance with § 73.37, shall:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For purposes of 10 CFR 73.72, the terms “irradiated reactor fuel” as described in 10 CFR 73.37 and “spent nuclear fuel” are used interchangeably.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Notify in writing by mail addressed to ATTN: Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, or by using any appropriate method listed in § 73.4 of this part. Classified notifications shall be sent to the NRC headquarters classified mailing address listed in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Assure that the notification will be received at least 10 days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipping facility; 
</P>
<P>(3) Include the following information in the notification: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name(s), address(es), and telephone number(s) of the shipper, receiver, and carrier(s); 
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical description of the shipment: 
</P>
<P>(A) For a shipment other than irradiated fuel, the elements, isotopes, enrichment, and quantity; 
</P>
<P>(B) For a shipment of irradiated fuel, the physical form, quantity, type of reactor, and original enrichment; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A listing of the mode(s) of shipment, transfer point(s), and route(s) to be used; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The estimated time and date that shipment will commence and that each country along the route is scheduled to be entered; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The estimated time and date of arrival of the shipment at the destination; 
</P>
<P>(4) The NRC Headquarters Operations Center shall be notified about the shipment status by telephone at the phone numbers listed in appendix A to this part. Classified and safeguards notifications shall be made by secure telephone. The notifications shall take place at the following intervals:
</P>
<P>(i) At least 2 days before commencement of the shipment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Two hours before commencement of the shipment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Once the shipment is received at its destination.
</P>
<P>(5) The NRC Headquarters Operations Center shall be notified by telephone of schedule changes of more than 6 hours at the phone numbers listed in appendix A to this part. Classified and safeguards notifications shall be made by secure telephone.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee who conducts an on-site transfer of spent nuclear fuel that does not travel upon or cross a public highway is exempt from the requirements of this section for that transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9653, Mar. 26, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 4111, Feb. 12, 1988; 60 FR 24552, May 9, 1995; 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 58820, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009; 78 FR 29557, May 20, 2013; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 84 FR 63568, Nov. 18, 2019; 84 FR 67659, Dec. 11, 2019; 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.8.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.73   Requirement for advance notice and protection of export shipments of special nuclear material of low strategic significance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee authorized to export special nuclear material of low strategic significance shall: 


</P>
<P>(1) Notify in writing the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, by email (preferred method) to <I>AdvanceNotifications.Resource@nrc.gov</I> or by using any appropriate method listed in § 73.4;


</P>
<P>(2) Assure that the notification will be received at least 10 days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipper's facility; 
</P>
<P>(3) Include the following information in the notification: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name(s), address(es), and telephone number(s) of the shipper, receiver, and carrier(s); 
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical description of the shipment (the elements, isotopes, form, etc.); 
</P>
<P>(iii) A listing of the mode(s) of shipment, transfer points, and routes to be used; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The estimated time and date that shipment will commence and that each country along the route is scheduled to be entered; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The estimated time and date of arrival of the shipment at the destination; 
</P>
<P>(4) Assure that during transport outside the United States, the shipment will be protected in accordance with Annex I to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material (see appendix E of this part). 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee who needs to amend a written advance notification required by paragraph (a) of this section may notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone at the numbers listed in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9653, Mar. 26, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 4112, Feb. 12, 1988; 60 FR 24553, May 9, 1995; 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 58820, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 86 FR 67843, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.8.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.74   Requirement for advance notice and protection of import shipments of nuclear material from countries that are not party to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee authorized to import special nuclear material of low strategic significance from a country not a party to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material (<I>i.e.</I>, not listed in appendix F of this part) shall: 


</P>
<P>(1) Notify in writing the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, by email (preferred method) to <I>AdvanceNotifications.Resource@nrc.gov</I> or by using any appropriate method listed in § 73.4;


</P>
<P>(2) Assure that the notification will be received at least 10 days before transport of the shipment commences at the shipper's facility; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Include the following information in the notification: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name(s), address(es) and telephone number(s) of the shipper, receiver, and carrier(s); 
</P>
<P>(ii) A physical description of the shipment (the isotopes, enrichment, quantity, etc.); 
</P>
<P>(iii) A listing of mode(s) of shipment, transfer points, and routes to be used;
</P>
<P>(iv) The estimated time and date that shipment will commence and that each country along the route is scheduled to be entered; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The estimated time and date of arrival of the shipment at the destination. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee who needs to amend a written advance notification required by paragraph (a) of this section may notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone at the numbers listed in appendix A to this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee authorized to import from a country not a party to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material (<I>i.e.</I>, not listed in appendix F of this part) a formula quantity of special nuclear material, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, special nuclear material of low strategic significance, or irradiated reactor fuel shall assure that during transport outside the United States the shipment will be protected in accordance with Annex I to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material (see appendix E of this part). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9654, Mar. 26, 1987, as amended at 53 FR 4112, Feb. 12, 1988; 60 FR 24553, May 9, 1995; 67 FR 3586, Jan. 25, 2002; 68 FR 58820, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62684, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018; 86 FR 67843, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.75" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.8.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.75   Posting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) Production or utilization facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) High-level waste storage or disposal facilities and independent spent fuel storage installations;
</P>
<P>(3) Uranium enrichment, uranium conversion, or nuclear fuel fabrication facilities.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Licensees or certificate holders operating facilities described in paragraph (a) of this section that have a protected area shall conspicuously post notices at every vehicle and pedestrian entrance to the protected area.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees or certificate holders operating facilities described in paragraph (a) of this section that include buildings not within a protected area that nonetheless contain special nuclear material, byproduct material, or source material shall conspicuously post notices at the personnel and vehicle entrances to each such building, except with respect to buildings for which no security plan is required under this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The required notices must state: “The willful unauthorized introduction of any dangerous weapon, explosive, or other dangerous instrument or material likely to produce substantial injury or damage to persons or property into or upon these premises is a Federal crime. (42 U.S.C. 2278a.)”
</P>
<P>(4) Every notice posted under this section must be easily readable day and night by both pedestrian and vehicular traffic entering the facility or installation.
</P>
<P>(5) These notices may be combined with other notices.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not apply to facilities that, in addition to being regulated by the NRC under a license or certificate of compliance issued by the Commission, are also covered by U.S. Department of Energy regulations imposing criminal penalties, and associated posting requirements, under section 229 of the Atomic Energy Act with respect to unauthorized introduction of dangerous weapons, explosives, or other dangerous instruments or materials likely to produce substantial injury or damage to persons or property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 52674, Oct. 14, 2009]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Enforcement</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 15891, Mar. 14, 2023, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.77" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.9.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.77   Cyber security event notifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.54 or § 73.110 shall notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center via the Emergency Notification System (ENS), under paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Within one hour after discovery of a cyberattack that adversely impacted:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety-related or important-to-safety functions, security functions, or emergency preparedness functions (including offsite communications); or that compromised support systems and equipment resulting in adverse impacts to safety, security, or emergency preparedness functions within the scope of § 73.54; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety, security, and emergency preparedness functions performed by digital assets that prevent a postulated fission product release resulting in offsite doses exceeding the values in § 53.210 of this chapter, or security functions performed by digital assets necessary for implementing the physical security requirements in § 53.860(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 4 hours:
</P>
<P>(i) After discovery of a cyberattack that could have caused an adverse impact to:
</P>
<P>(A) Safety-related or important-to-safety functions, security functions, or emergency preparedness functions (including offsite communications); or that could have compromised support systems and equipment, which if compromised, could have adversely impacted safety, security, or emergency preparedness functions within the scope of § 73.54; or,
</P>
<P>(B) Safety, security, and emergency preparedness functions performed by digital assets that prevent a postulated fission product release resulting in offsite doses exceeding the values in § 53.210 of this chapter, or security functions performed by digital assets necessary for implementing the physical security requirements in § 53.860(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) After discovery of a suspected or actual cyberattack initiated by personnel with physical or electronic access to digital computer and communication systems and networks within the scope of § 73.54 or § 73.110.
</P>
<P>(iii) After notification to a local, State, or other Federal agency (<I>e.g.,</I> law enforcement, Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), etc.) of an event related to the licensee's implementation of their cybersecurity program for digital computer and communication systems and networks within the scope of § 73.54 or § 73.110 that does not otherwise require a notification under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 8 hours after receipt or collection of information regarding observed behavior, activities, or statements that may indicate intelligence gathering or pre-operational planning related to a cyberattack against digital computer and communication systems and networks within the scope of § 73.54 or § 73.110.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Twenty-four hour recordable events.</I> (1) The licensee shall use the site corrective action program to record vulnerabilities, weaknesses, failures and deficiencies in their § 73.54 or § 73.110 cybersecurity program within 24 hours of their discovery.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall use the site corrective action program to record notifications made under paragraph (a) of this section within twenty-four hours of their discovery.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification process.</I> (1) Each licensee shall make telephonic notifications required by paragraph (a) of this section to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center via the ENS. If the ENS is inoperative or unavailable, the licensee shall make the notification via a commercial telephone service or other dedicated telephonic system or any other methods that will ensure a report is received by the NRC Headquarters Operations Center within the timeframe. Commercial telephone numbers for the NRC Headquarters Operations Center are specified in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications required by this section that contain Safeguards Information may be made to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center without using secure communications systems under the exception in § 73.22(f)(3) for emergency or extraordinary conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifications required by this section that contain Safeguards Information and/or classified national security information and/or restricted data must be made to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center using secure communications systems appropriate to the sensitivity/classification level of the message. Licensees making these types of telephonic notifications must contact the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the commercial numbers specified in appendix A to this part and request a transfer to a secure telephone.
</P>
<P>(i) If the licensee's secure communications capability is unavailable (e.g., due to the nature of the security event), the licensee must provide as much information to the NRC as is required by this section, without revealing or discussing any Safeguards Information and/or Classified Information, in order to meet the timeliness requirements of this section. The licensee must also indicate to the NRC that its secure communications capability is unavailable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees using a non-secure communications capability may be directed by the NRC Emergency Response management to provide classified information to the NRC over the non-secure system, due to the significance of the ongoing security event. In such circumstances, the licensee must document this direction and any information provided to the NRC over a non-secure communications capability in the written security follow-up report required in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) For events reported under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the NRC may request that the licensee maintain an open and continuous communication channel with the NRC Headquarters Operations Center.
</P>
<P>(5) Licensees desiring to retract a previous security event report that has been determined to not meet the threshold of a reportable event must telephonically notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center and indicate the report being retracted and basis for the retraction.


</P>
<P>(6) <I>Declaration of emergencies.</I> Notifications made to the NRC for the declaration of an emergency class shall be performed in accordance with § 50.72 or § 53.1630 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Elimination of duplication.</I> Separate notifications and reports are not required for events that are also reportable under §§ 50.72 and 50.73 or §§ 53.1630 and 53.1640 of this chapter. However, these notifications should also indicate the applicable § 73.77 reporting criteria.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Written security follow-up reports.</I> Each licensee making an initial telephonic notification of security events to the NRC according to the provisions of paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2)(i), and (a)(2)(ii) of this section must also submit a written security follow-up report to the NRC within 60 days of the telephonic notification in accordance with § 73.4.
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees are not required to submit a written security follow-up report following a telephonic notification made under § 73.77(a)(2)(iii) or (a)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) Each licensee shall submit to the NRC written security follow-up reports that are of a quality that will permit legible reproduction and processing.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees shall prepare the written security follow-up report on NRC Form 366.
</P>
<P>(4) In addition to the addressees specified in § 73.4, the licensee shall also provide one copy of the written security follow-up report addressed to the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, or the Director's designee. Any written security follow-up reports containing classified information shall be transmitted to the NRC Headquarters' classified mailing address as specified in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) The written security follow-up report must include sufficient information for NRC analysis and evaluation.
</P>
<P>(6) Significant supplemental information which becomes available after the initial telephonic notification to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center or after the submission of the written security follow-up report must be telephonically reported to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center under paragraph (c) of this section and also submitted in a revised written security follow-up report (with the revisions indicated) as required under this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Errors discovered in a written security follow-up report must be corrected in a revised written security follow-up report with the revision(s) indicated.
</P>
<P>(8) The revised written security follow-up report must replace the previous written security follow-up report; the update must be complete and not be limited to only supplementary or revised information.
</P>
<P>(9) If the licensee subsequently retracts a telephonic notification made under this section as not meeting the threshold of a reportable event, and has not yet submitted a written security follow-up report then submission of a written security follow-up report is not required.
</P>
<P>(10) If the licensee subsequently retracts a telephonic notification made under this section as not meeting the threshold of a reportable event after it has submitted a written security follow-up report required by this paragraph, then the licensee shall submit a revised written security follow-up report in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(11) Each written security follow-up report submitted containing Safeguards Information or Classified Information must be created, stored, marked, labeled, handled, and transmitted to the NRC according to the requirements of §§ 73.21 and 73.22 or with part 95 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(12) Each licensee shall maintain a copy of the written security follow-up report of an event submitted under this section as a record for a period of three years from the date of the report or until the Commission terminates the license for which the records were developed, whichever comes first.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 67275, Nov. 2, 2015, as amended at 91 FR 15871, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.80" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.9.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.80   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended:
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under Section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55078, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.9.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.81   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 73 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 73 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 73.1, 73.2, 73.3, 73.4, 73.5, 73.6, 73.8, 73.25, 73.45, 73.75, 73.80, and 73.81.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) No person without authorization may carry, transport, or otherwise introduce or cause to be introduced any dangerous weapon, explosive, or other dangerous instrument or material likely to produce substantial injury or damage to persons or property into or upon a protected facility or installation. Willful violations of this provision are punishable by the criminal penalties set forth in sections 229b and 229c of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(2) As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(i) “Protected facility or installation” means any production or utilization facility, high-level waste storage or disposal facility, independent spent fuel storage installation, uranium enrichment, uranium conversion, or nuclear fuel fabrication facility, but does not include those portions of such facilities that are not required under § 73.75(b) of this part to be identified by notices posted at their pedestrian and vehicle entrances, and does not include facilities described in § 73.75(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Without authorization” means not authorized as part of one's official duties to carry the weapon, explosive, or other instrument or material;
</P>
<P>(iii) “Dangerous weapon” includes any firearm, as defined in either 18 U.S.C. 921 or 26 U.S.C. 5845, or dangerous weapon, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 930;
</P>
<P>(iv) “Explosive” means any explosive as defined in 18 U.S.C. 844(j).
</P>
<P>(3) An item, such as a dangerous weapon, explosive, or other dangerous instrument or material, is considered to have been carried, transported, or otherwise introduced or caused to be introduced into or upon a protected facility or installation for purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section once the item has traveled past a notice posted pursuant to § 73.75 of this part at a vehicle or pedestrian entrance to the protected facility, or once the item has entered the protected facility or installation at a location that is not a vehicle or pedestrian entrance to the facility, whether such entry is accomplished through, over, under, or around a fence, wall, floor, roof, or other structural barrier enclosing the protected facility or installation or by any other means.
</P>
<P>(4) For all protected facilities or installations that do not possess special nuclear material, byproduct material, or source material as of the effective date of this rule, this provision shall take effect upon receipt of such material at the applicable facility or installation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55079, Nov. 24, 1992, as amended at 74 FR 52674, Oct. 14, 2009] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Security Requirements at Commercial Nuclear Plants</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>91 FR 15871, Mar. 30, 2026, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.100" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.10.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.100   Technology-inclusive requirements for physical protection of licensed activities at commercial nuclear plants against radiological sabotage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> (1) Each licensee that is licensed to operate a commercial nuclear plant under part 53 of this chapter and elects to implement the requirements of this section must identify achievable target sets in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section and develop, implement, and maintain a physical protection program under the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Each licensee that demonstrates no achievable target sets exist in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section, and does not credit any active measures (<I>e.g.,</I> operator action, mitigative action, detection, assessment, armed response) in making that demonstration, is exempt from the remaining requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each licensee that demonstrates no achievable target sets exist in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section, and credits active measures in making that demonstration, must implement the requirements of this section through its physical security plan, training and qualification plan, safeguards contingency plan, and cybersecurity plan, referred to collectively hereafter as “security plans,” before initial fuel load into the reactor (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, before initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1) of this chapter); for such licensees, the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) through (4) of this section will be deemed satisfied if the physical protection program is designed to ensure that the credited active measures will be implemented in response to threats up to and including the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each licensee that demonstrates achievable target sets exist, in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section, must implement the requirements of this section through its physical security plan, training and qualification plan, safeguards contingency plan, and cybersecurity plan, referred to collectively hereafter as “security plans,” before initial fuel load into the reactor (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, before initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(2) The security plans must identify, describe, and account for site-specific conditions that affect the licensee's capability to satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General performance objective and requirements.</I> (1) The licensee must establish, implement, and maintain a physical protection program and a security organization, which will have as their objective to provide reasonable assurance that activities involving special nuclear material are not inimical to the common defense and security and do not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(2) To satisfy the general performance objective of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the physical protection program must protect against the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage as stated in § 73.1. Specifically, the licensee must—
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the physical protection program capabilities to protect against the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage are maintained at all times; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide defense in depth in achieving performance requirements through the integration of engineered systems, administrative controls, and management measures.
</P>
<P>(3) The physical protection program must be designed to prevent the release of radionuclides from any source from exceeding the dose reference values defined in § 53.210 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The physical protection program must be designed and implemented to achieve and maintain the reliability and availability of structures, systems, and components (SSCs) required for demonstrating compliance with the following performance requirements at all times:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Intrusion detection.</I> The licensee must be capable of detecting attempted and actual unauthorized access to interior and exterior areas containing SSCs needed to implement safety and security functions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intrusion assessment.</I> The licensee must be capable of timely assessment for determining the cause of a detected intrusion.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Security communication.</I> The licensee must be capable of continuous security communications. Communication systems must account for design-basis threats that can interrupt or interfere with continuity or integrity of communications.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Security response.</I> The physical protection program must be designed to provide timely security response to interdict and neutralize adversary attacks up to and including the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage. The physical protection program must be designed to provide layers of security response, with each layer assuring that a single failure does not result in the loss of capability to neutralize the design-basis threat adversary. Structures, systems, and components relied on for delay functions must be designed to allow for timely security responses to adversary attacks with adequate defense in depth.
</P>
<P>(A) The security response may rely on the use of onsite responders, law enforcement or other offsite armed responders, or a combination thereof, to fulfill the interdiction and neutralization functions required by paragraph (b)(4)(iv) of this section. A licensee relying entirely or partially on law enforcement or other offsite armed responders must—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Maintain the capability to detect, assess, interdict, and neutralize threats as required by paragraphs (b)(4)(i), (b)(4)(ii), and (b)(4)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide adequate delay to enable law enforcement or other offsite armed responders to fulfill the interdiction and neutralization functions for threats up to and including the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Provide necessary information about the facility and make available periodic training to law enforcement or other offsite armed responders who will fulfill the interdiction and neutralization functions for threats up to and including the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Fully describe in the safeguards contingency plan the role that law enforcement or other offsite armed responders will play in the licensee's protective strategy. The description must provide sufficient detail to enable the NRC to determine that the licensee's physical protection program provides reasonable assurance of adequate protection against threats up to and including the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Identify criteria and measures to compensate for the degradation or absence of law enforcement or other offsite armed responders and propose suitable compensatory measures that meet the requirements of paragraph (h)(3) of this section to address this degradation.
</P>
<P>(B) For licensees relying entirely or partially on law enforcement responders to fulfill the interdiction and neutralization functions required by paragraph (b)(4)(iv) of this section, the training and qualification requirements related to armed response personnel in paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section do not apply to law enforcement responders. The licensee shall continue to satisfy the performance evaluation requirements in paragraph (g) of this section for all armed response personnel, including law enforcement.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Protecting against land and waterborne vehicle bomb assaults.</I> The licensee must be capable of protecting the plant against the design-basis threat vehicle bomb assault. The methods that are relied on to protect against a design-basis threat land vehicle and waterborne vehicle bomb assault must be designed to protect the reactor building and structures containing safety- or security-related systems, and components from explosive effects.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Access control portals.</I> The licensee must be capable of detecting and denying unauthorized access to persons and pass-through of contraband materials (<I>e.g.,</I> weapons, incendiary devices, explosives) to protected areas.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee must identify and document complete and accurate target sets in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Preventative operator actions may be credited as target set elements when: sufficient time to implement exists; environmental conditions allow operator actions to be completed successfully; adversary interference is precluded; all equipment required for operator actions is available, dedicated, staged, and maintained; approved procedures exist specific to the task being performed; and training is maintained for proficiency of the credited operator action.
</P>
<P>(ii) The identification of target sets must not assume the success of the security organization; except that licensees may consider delay provided by the security organization when assessing the availability of operator actions.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee must consider cyberattacks in the identification of target sets.
</P>
<P>(iv) The licensee must further identify achievable target sets through a site-specific analysis. Achievable target sets are those that are within the capabilities of the design-basis threat adversary to compromise, destroy, or render non-functional; cannot be mitigated after adversary interference is precluded and prior to a release of radionuclides exceeding dose reference values defined in 10 CFR 53.210; and, if defeated, result irreversibly in exceedance of the dose reference values in 10 CFR 53.210.
</P>
<P>(v) The licensee must document and maintain the process used to identify achievable target sets, to include the site-specific analyses and methodologies used to determine and group the target set equipment or elements, including elements not contained in a protected or vital area.
</P>
<P>(vi) The licensee must implement a process for the oversight of target set equipment and systems to ensure that changes to the configuration of the identified equipment and systems are considered in the licensee's protective strategy. Where appropriate, changes must be made to documented target sets.
</P>
<P>(vii) The licensee must maintain records in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section and, in addition, must maintain site-specific analyses until submittal of the licensee's certifications required by § 53.1070 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee must identify and analyze site-specific conditions, including achievable target sets, that may affect the physical protection program needed to implement the requirements of this section. The licensee must account for these conditions in demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) The licensee must establish, implement, and maintain a performance evaluation program to assess the effectiveness of the licensee's implementation of the physical protection program to protect against the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage.
</P>
<P>(8) The licensee must establish, implement, and maintain an access authorization program under § 73.56, and must describe the program in the physical security plan.
</P>
<P>(9) The licensee must establish, implement, and maintain a cybersecurity program under § 73.54 or § 73.110 and must describe the program in the cybersecurity plan.
</P>
<P>(10) The licensee must establish, implement, and maintain an insider mitigation program and must describe the program in the physical security plan.
</P>
<P>(i) The insider mitigation program must monitor the initial and continuing trustworthiness and reliability of individuals granted or retaining unescorted access or unescorted access authorization to a protected or vital area, and implement defense-in-depth methodologies to minimize the potential for an insider (active, passive, or both) to adversely affect, either directly or indirectly, the licensee's capability to protect against radiological sabotage.
</P>
<P>(ii) The insider mitigation program must integrate elements of—
</P>
<P>(A) The access authorization program under § 73.56 or § 73.120;
</P>
<P>(B) The fitness-for-duty program under 10 CFR part 26;
</P>
<P>(C) The cybersecurity program under § 73.54 or § 73.110; and
</P>
<P>(D) The physical protection program under this section.
</P>
<P>(11) The licensee must have the capability to track, trend, correct, and prevent recurrence of failures and deficiencies in the implementation of the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(12) Implementation of security plans and associated procedures must be coordinated with other onsite plans and procedures to preclude conflict during both normal and emergency conditions and ensure the adequate management of the safety and security interface.
</P>
<P>(13)(i) The licensee must ensure that the firearms background check requirements of § 73.17 of this part are met for all members of the security organization whose official duties require access to covered weapons or who inventory enhanced weapons.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (b)(13) are only applicable to licensees subject to this section that are also subject to the firearms background check provisions of § 73.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Security organization.</I> The licensee must establish and maintain a security organization that is staffed, trained, qualified, and equipped to implement the physical protection program under the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee must establish a management system for maintaining and implementing security policies and procedures to implement the requirements of this section and the security plans.
</P>
<P>(2) Implementing procedures must document the conduct of security operations, security design and configuration controls, maintenance, training and qualification, and contingency responses.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee must—
</P>
<P>(i) Establish a process for the approval of designs, policies, processes, and procedures and changes by the individual with overall responsibility for the physical protection program; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that revisions and changes to the physical protection program and implementing policies, processes, and procedures satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee must retain, in accordance with § 73.70, all analyses, assessments, calculations, and descriptions of the technical basis for demonstrating compliance with the performance requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. The licensee must protect these records in accordance with the requirements for protecting safeguards information in §§ 73.21 and 73.22.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee may not permit any individual to implement any part of the physical protection program unless the individual has been trained, equipped, and qualified to perform their assigned duties and responsibilities in accordance with the training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Search requirements.</I> The licensee must establish and implement searches of individuals, vehicles, and materials to detect and prevent the introduction into the protected area of firearms, explosives, incendiary devices, or other items and material which could be used to commit radiological sabotage.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Training and qualification program.</I> The licensee must establish and maintain a training and qualification program that ensures personnel who are responsible for the physical protection of the facility against radiological sabotage are able to effectively perform their assigned security-related job duties for implementing the requirements of this section and must describe the program in the training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Security reviews.</I> The licensee must establish and implement security reviews to assess the effectiveness of the implementation of the physical protection program. Security reviews must be performed by individuals independent of those personnel responsible for program management and any individual who has direct responsibility for implementing the onsite physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee must review each element of the physical protection program at a frequency commensurate with the importance or significance to safety of plant operations to ensure timely identification and documentation of vulnerabilities, improvements, and corrective actions. The objective of these reviews must be maintaining effective implementation of the engineered and administrative controls required to achieve the physical protection program functions and the management system required to implement programs and requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must establish and perform self-assessments to ensure the effective implementation of the physical protection program functions of detection, assessment, communication, delay, and interdiction and neutralization to protect against the design-basis threat of radiological sabotage. The licensee must perform design verification and assessments of the capabilities of active and passive engineering systems relied on to protect against the design-basis threat.
</P>
<P>(3) Reviews of the security program must include, but are not limited to, an audit of the effectiveness of the physical protection program, security plans, implementing procedures, cybersecurity programs, safety/security interface activities, the testing, maintenance, and calibration program, and response commitments by local, State, and Federal law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(4) The results and recommendations of the onsite physical protection program reviews, management's findings regarding program effectiveness, and any actions taken as a result of recommendations from prior program reviews, must be documented in a report and must be maintained in an auditable form and available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Performance evaluation.</I> Licensee performance evaluations must include methods appropriate and necessary to assess, test, and challenge the integration of the physical protection program's functions to protect against the design-basis threat, including measures to protect against cyberattack and engineered systems designed to protect against the design-basis threat standalone ground vehicle bomb attack.
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee must establish the frequencies for performance evaluations commensurate with the security significance of the physical protection program.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must document processes and procedures for implementing the performance evaluations. The licensee must maintain records, including results, findings, and corrective actions identified during the performance evaluations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Maintenance, testing, and calibration and corrective actions.</I> (1) The licensee must ensure that security SSCs, including supporting systems, are inspected, tested, and calibrated for operability and performance at intervals necessary and sufficient to meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must implement corrective actions to ensure resolution of identified vulnerabilities and deficiencies to meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee must establish and implement timely compensatory measures for degraded or inoperable security SSCs to meet the requirements of this section. Compensatory measures must provide a level of protection that is equivalent to the protection that was provided prior to the degradation or inoperability of the security structures, systems, or components.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee must document processes and procedures and maintain records for implementing the corrective actions, compensatory measures, and maintenance, inspection, testing, and calibration of security SSCs.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Suspension of security measures.</I> (1) The licensee may suspend implementation of affected requirements of this section in accordance with § 53.740(h) of this chapter under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) In an emergency, when action is immediately needed to protect the public health and safety; and
</P>
<P>(ii) During severe weather, when the suspension of affected security measures is immediately needed to protect the personal health and safety of personnel.
</P>
<P>(2) Suspended security measures must be reinstated as soon as conditions permit.
</P>
<P>(3) The suspension of security measures must be reported and documented in accordance with the provisions of §§ 73.1200 and 73.1205.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Records.</I> (1) The Commission may inspect, copy, retain, and remove all reports, records, and documents required to be kept by Commission regulations, orders, or license conditions, whether the reports, records, and documents are kept by the licensee or a contractor.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must maintain all records required to be kept by Commission regulations, orders, or license conditions, until the Commission terminates the license for which the records were developed and must maintain superseded portions of these records for at least 3 years after the record is superseded, unless otherwise specified by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) If a contracted security force is used to implement the onsite physical protection program, the licensee's written agreement with the contractor must be retained by the licensee as a record for the duration of the contract.
</P>
<P>(4) Review and audit reports must be available for inspection, for a period of 3 years.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.110" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.10.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.110   Technology-inclusive requirements for protection of digital computer and communication systems and networks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee that is licensed to operate a commercial nuclear plant under 10 CFR part 53 and elects to implement the requirements of this section must establish, implement, and maintain a cybersecurity program that is commensurate with the potential consequences resulting from cyberattacks, up to and including the design-basis threat as described in § 73.1. The cybersecurity program must provide reasonable assurance that digital computer and communication systems and networks are adequately protected against cyberattacks that are capable of causing the following consequences:
</P>
<P>(1) Adversely impacting the safety, security, and emergency preparedness functions performed by digital assets that prevent a postulated fission product release resulting in offsite doses exceeding the values in § 53.210 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Adversely impacting the security functions performed by digital assets necessary for implementing the physical security requirements in § 53.860(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) To protect digital computer and communication systems and networks associated with the functions described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, the licensee must—
</P>
<P>(1) Analyze the potential consequences resulting from cyberattacks on digital computer and communication systems and networks and identify those assets that must be protected to demonstrate compliance with paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Implement the cybersecurity program in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee must protect the systems and networks identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section in a manner that is commensurate with the potential consequences resulting from cyberattacks that:
</P>
<P>(1) Adversely impact the integrity or confidentiality of data and/or software;
</P>
<P>(2) Deny access to systems, services, and/or data; and
</P>
<P>(3) Adversely impact the operation of systems, networks, and associated equipment.
</P>
<P>(d) The cybersecurity program must be designed in a manner that is commensurate with the potential consequences resulting from cyberattacks through the following steps:
</P>
<P>(1) Implement security controls to protect the assets identified under paragraph (b)(1) of this section from cyberattacks, commensurate with their safety and security significance;
</P>
<P>(2) Apply and maintain defense-in-depth protective strategies to ensure the capability to detect, delay, respond to, and recover from cyberattacks capable of causing the consequences identified in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Mitigate the adverse effects of cyberattacks capable of causing the consequences identified in paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the functions of protected assets identified under paragraph (b)(1) of this section are not adversely impacted due to cyberattacks.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee must implement the following requirements in a manner that is commensurate with the potential consequences resulting from cyberattacks:
</P>
<P>(1) As part of the cybersecurity program, the licensee must comply with the requirements in § 73.54(d)(1), (2), and (4), and must ensure that modifications to assets, identified under paragraph (b)(1) of this section are evaluated before implementation to ensure that the cybersecurity performance objectives identified in paragraph (a) of this section are maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee must establish, implement, and maintain a cybersecurity plan that implements the cybersecurity program requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The cybersecurity plan must describe how the requirements of this section will be implemented and must account for the site-specific conditions that affect implementation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The cybersecurity plan must include measures for incident response and recovery for cyberattacks. The cybersecurity plan must include the analysis identified under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and describe how the licensee will—
</P>
<P>(A) Apply and maintain defense-in-depth protective strategies as required in paragraph (d)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Maintain the capability for timely detection and response to cyberattacks;
</P>
<P>(C) Mitigate the consequences of cyberattacks;
</P>
<P>(D) Correct exploited vulnerabilities; and
</P>
<P>(E) Restore affected systems, networks, and/or equipment affected by cyberattacks.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee must develop and maintain written policies and implementing procedures to implement the cybersecurity plan. Policies, implementing procedures, and other supporting technical information used by the licensee need not be submitted for Commission review and approval as part of the cybersecurity plan but are subject to inspection by NRC staff on a periodic basis.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee must establish and implement cybersecurity reviews to assess the effectiveness of the implementation of the cybersecurity program.
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee must review each element of the cybersecurity program at a frequency commensurate with the importance or significance to safety of plant operations to ensure timely identification and documentation of vulnerabilities, improvements, and corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cybersecurity reviews must be performed by individuals independent of those personnel responsible for program management and any individual who has direct responsibility for implementing the cybersecurity program.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee must establish and perform self-assessments to ensure the effective implementation of the cybersecurity program.
</P>
<P>(iv) The results and recommendations of the cybersecurity program reviews, management's findings regarding program effectiveness, and any actions taken as a result of recommendations from prior program reviews, must be documented in a report and must be maintained in an auditable form and available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee must retain all records and supporting technical documentation required to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this section as a record until the Commission terminates the license for which the records were developed and must maintain superseded portions of these records for at least three (3) years after the record is superseded, unless otherwise specified by the Commission.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.120" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.10.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.120   Access authorization program for commercial nuclear plants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction and scope.</I> Each applicant for an operating license or a holder of a combined license under 10 CFR part 53 must establish, maintain, and implement an access authorization program before initial fuel load into the reactor (or, for a fueled manufactured reactor, before initiating the removal of the features to prevent criticality required under § 53.620(d)(1) of this chapter). The requirements in this section apply to applicants and licensees who demonstrate compliance with 10 CFR 73.100(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) The following individuals must be subject to an access authorization program under this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual to whom a licensee intends to grant unescorted access to a commercial nuclear plant protected area, vital area, or controlled access area where licensed material is used or stored;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any individual whose duties and responsibilities permit the individual to take actions by electronic means, either on site or remotely, that could adversely impact the licensee's or applicant's operational safety, security, or emergency preparedness;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any individual who has responsibilities for implementing a licensee's or applicant's protective strategy, including armed security force officers, alarm station operators, and tactical response team leaders but not including Federal, State, or local law enforcement personnel; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The licensee or applicant access authorization program reviewing official or contractor or vendor access authorization program reviewers.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee or applicant may subject other individuals, including employees of a contractor or a vendor who are designated in access authorization program procedures, to an access authorization program that demonstrates compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General performance objectives and requirements.</I> Each licensee's or applicant's access authorization program under this section must demonstrate that the individuals who are specified in paragraph (b) of this section are trustworthy and reliable, such that they do not constitute an unreasonable risk to public health and safety or the common defense and security. The licensee's access authorization program must maintain the capabilities for demonstrating compliance with the following performance requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Background investigation.</I> (i)(A) Licensees and applicants must ensure that any individual seeking initial unescorted access or to maintain unescorted access is subject to a background investigation.
</P>
<P>(B) Background investigations must include the program elements contained under § 37.25 of this chapter and must also include a credit history evaluation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Background investigations must include fingerprinting and an FBI identification and criminal history records check in accordance with § 37.27 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensees must have the informed and signed consent of the subject individual to initiate a background investigation. This consent must include authorization to share personal information with other individuals or organizations as necessary to complete the background investigation. A signed consent must be obtained prior to any reinvestigation. The subject individual may withdraw his or her consent at any time. Licensees must inform the individual that—
</P>
<P>(A) If an individual withdraws his or her consent, the licensee may not initiate any elements of the background investigation that were not in progress at the time the individual withdrew his or her consent; and
</P>
<P>(B) The withdrawal of consent for the background investigation is sufficient cause for denial or termination of unescorted access authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Behavioral observation.</I> Licensees, applicants, contractors, and vendors must ensure the access authorization program includes provisions that the individuals specified in paragraph (b) of this section are subject to behavioral observation.
</P>
<P>(i) Each person subject to behavioral observation must communicate to the licensee or applicant observed behaviors or activities of individuals that may constitute an unreasonable risk to the health and safety of the public and common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(ii) Behavioral observation must include visual observation, in person or remotely by video, to detect and promptly report to plant supervision any concerns arising from behavioral observation, including, but not limited to, concerns related to any questionable behavior patterns or activities of others.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Self-reporting of legal actions.</I> Licensees or applicants must inform personnel who are granted and who maintain unescorted access of their responsibilities to self-report to plant supervision legal actions taken by a law enforcement authority or court of law against the individual that could result in incarceration or a court order or that requires a court appearance, including but not limited to an arrest, an indictment, the filing of charges, or a conviction, but excluding minor civil actions or misdemeanors such as parking violations or speeding tickets, for any individual who has applied for unescorted access or who maintains unescorted access.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unescorted access.</I> Licensees or applicants must grant unescorted access only after the licensee has verified an individual is trustworthy and reliable. A list of persons currently approved for unescorted access to a protected area, vital area, or controlled access area must be maintained at all times. Unescorted access determinations must be reviewed annually by the reviewing official. Licensees and applicants must complete an FBI criminal history record check update for each individual maintaining unescorted access, within 10 years of the last review.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Termination of unescorted access.</I> Licensees and applicants must promptly terminate unescorted access when this access is no longer required or a reviewing official determines an individual is no longer trustworthy and reliable in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Determination basis for access.</I> (i) The licensee's or applicant's reviewing official must determine whether to permit, deny, unfavorably terminate, maintain, or administratively withdraw an individual's unescorted access based on an evaluation of all of the information collected to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees and applicants must provide individuals subject to this section, prior to any final adverse determination, the right to complete, correct, and explain information obtained as a result of the licensee's background investigation pursuant to § 37.23(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee's or applicant's reviewing officials are the only individuals authorized to make unescorted access determination decisions. Each licensee or applicant must name one or more individuals to be reviewing officials pursuant to the requirements of § 37.23(b)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Review procedures.</I> Review procedures must be established in accordance with § 37.23(f) of this chapter, to include provisions for the notification in writing of individuals who are denied unescorted access or who are unfavorably terminated.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Protection of information.</I> Licensees, applicants, contractors, or vendors must establish and maintain a system of files and procedures in accordance with § 37.31 of this chapter, to ensure personal information is not disclosed to unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Access authorization reviews and corrective action.</I> Licensees and applicants must develop, implement, and maintain procedures for conduct of access authorization reviews and corrective actions in accordance with § 37.33 of this chapter to ensure the continuing effectiveness of the access authorization program and to ensure that the access authorization program and program elements are in compliance with the requirements of this section. Each licensee and applicant must be responsible for the continuing effectiveness of the access authorization program, including access authorization program elements that are provided by the contractors or vendors, and the access authorization programs of any of the contractors or vendors that are accepted by the licensee or applicant.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Records.</I> Licensees, applicants, and contractors or vendors must document the processes and procedures for maintaining records used or created to establish an individual's trustworthiness and reliability or to document access determinations. Licensees, applicants, and contractor or vendors must—
</P>
<P>(i) Retain documentation regarding the trustworthiness and reliability of individual employees for 3 years from the date the individual no longer requires unescorted access;
</P>
<P>(ii) Retain a copy of the current access authorization program procedures as a record for 3 years after the procedure is no longer needed. If any portion of the procedure is superseded, retain the superseded material for 3 years after the record is superseded; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Retain the list of persons approved for unescorted access for 3 years after the list is superseded or replaced. Records maintained in any database(s) must be available for NRC review.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts K-S [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="T" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart T—Security Notifications, Reports, and Recordkeeping</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 15891, Mar. 14, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 73.1200" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1200   Notification of physical security events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>15-minute notifications—facilities.</I> Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.45, § 73.46, § 73.51, § 73.55, or § 73.100 must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center, as soon as possible but within 15 minutes after—
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee's initiation of a security response in accordance with its safeguards contingency plan or protective strategy, based on an imminent or actual hostile action against a licensee's facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee's notification by law enforcement or government officials of a potential hostile action or act of sabotage anticipated within the next 12 hours against a licensee's facility.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensee notifications to the NRC must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the facility's name; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Briefly describe the nature of the hostile action or event, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The type of hostile action or event (e.g., armed assault, vehicle bomb, bomb threat, sabotage, etc.); and
</P>
<P>(B) The current status (<I>i.e.,</I> imminent, in progress, or neutralized).
</P>
<P>(4) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee is not required to notify the NRC of security responses initiated as a result of threat or warning information communicated to the licensee from the NRC.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee's request for immediate local law enforcement agency (LLEA) assistance or initiation of a contingency response may take precedence over the notification to the NRC. However, in such instances, the licensee must notify the NRC as soon as possible thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>15-minute notifications—shipments.</I> Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.25, § 73.26, or § 73.37 or its designated movement control center must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center, as soon as possible but within 15 minutes after—
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee's initiation of a security response in accordance with its safeguards contingency plan or protective strategy, based on an imminent or actual hostile action against a shipment of Category I SSNM, spent nuclear fuel (SNF), or high-level radioactive waste (HLW); or
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee's notification by law enforcement or government officials of a potential hostile action or attempted act of sabotage anticipated within less than the next 12 hours against a shipment of Category I SSNM, SNF, or HLW.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensee notifications to the NRC must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the name of the facility making the shipment, the material being shipped, and the last known location of the shipment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Briefly describe the nature of the threat or event, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Type of hostile threat or event (e.g., armed assault, vehicle bomb, theft of shipment, sabotage, etc.); and
</P>
<P>(B) Threat or event status (<I>i.e.,</I> imminent, in progress, or neutralized).
</P>
<P>(4) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee is not required to notify the NRC of security responses initiated as a result of threat or warning information communicated to the licensee from the NRC.
</P>
<P>(6) The licensee's request for immediate LLEA assistance may take precedence over the notification to the NRC. However, in such instances, the licensee must notify the NRC as soon as possible thereafter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>One-hour notifications—facilities.</I> (1) Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.45, § 73.46, § 73.50, § 73.51, § 73.55, § 73.60, § 73.67, or § 73.100 must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center as soon as possible but no later than 1 hour after the time of discovery of the following significant facility security events involving—
</P>
<P>(i) Any event in which there is reason to believe that a person has committed or caused, or attempted to commit or cause, or has made a threat to commit or cause:
</P>
<P>(A) The theft or diversion of a Category I, II, or III quantity of SSNM or a Category II or III quantity of special nuclear material (SNM);
</P>
<P>(B) Significant physical damage to any nuclear power reactor, to a facility possessing a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, or to a facility storing or disposing of SNF and/or HLW;
</P>
<P>(C) The unauthorized operation, manipulation, or tampering with any nuclear power reactor's controls or with structures, systems, and components (SSCs) that results in the interruption of normal operation of the reactor; or
</P>
<P>(D) The unauthorized operation, manipulation, or tampering with any Category I SSNM facility's SSCs that results in an accidental criticality.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) For licensees required to have a vehicle barrier system protecting their facility, the introduction beyond the vehicle barrier of a quantity of unauthorized explosives that meets or exceeds the relevant facility's adversary characteristics.
</P>
<P>(B) This provision is applicable to facilities where the vehicle barrier system protecting the facility is located at the Protected Area boundary.
</P>
<P>(iii) The licensee's notification by law enforcement or government officials of a potential hostile action or act of sabotage anticipated within greater than 12 hours against a licensee's facility.
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifications made under paragraph (a) of this section are not required to be repeated under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) As an exemption, licensees subject to § 73.50, § 73.60, or § 73.67 are not required to make notifications for events listed under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>One-hour notifications—shipments.</I> (1) Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.25, § 73.26, § 73.27, § 73.37, or § 73.67 or its designated movement control center must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center as soon as possible but no later than 1 hour after the time of discovery of the following significant transportation security events involving—
</P>
<P>(i) Any event in which there is reason to believe that a person has committed or caused, or attempted to commit or cause, or has made a threat to commit or cause:
</P>
<P>(A) The theft or diversion of the Category I, II, or III quantity of SSNM; a Category II or III quantity of SNM; SNF; or HLW being transported;
</P>
<P>(B) Significant physical damage to any vehicle transporting a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, a Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW; or
</P>
<P>(C) Significant physical damage to the Category I or II quantity of SSNM, a Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW being transported.
</P>
<P>(ii) The discovery of the loss of a shipment of Category I SSNM.
</P>
<P>(iii) The recovery of, or accounting for, a lost shipment of Category I SSNM.
</P>
<P>(iv) The licensee's notification by law enforcement or government officials of a potential hostile action or attempted act of sabotage anticipated within greater than the next 12 hours against a shipment of Category I quantities of SSNM, SNF, or HLW.
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifications made under paragraph (b) of this section are not required to be repeated under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Four-hour notifications—facilities.</I> (1) Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.45, § 73.46, § 73.50, § 73.51, § 73.55, § 73.60, § 73.67, or § 73.100 must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center within 4 hours after time of discovery of the following facility security events involving—
</P>
<P>(i) The actual access of an unauthorized person into a facility's protected area (PA), vital area (VA), material access area (MAA), or controlled access area (CAA);
</P>
<P>(ii) The attempted access of an unauthorized person into a PA, VA, MAA, or CAA;
</P>
<P>(iii) The actual introduction of contraband into a PA, VA, or MAA;
</P>
<P>(iv) The attempted introduction of contraband into a PA, VA, or MAA.
</P>
<P>(v)(A) The discovery that a weapon that is authorized by the licensee's security plan is lost or uncontrolled within a PA, VA, or MAA;
</P>
<P>(B) Uncontrolled authorized weapons are defined as weapons that are authorized by the licensee's security plan and are not in the possession of authorized personnel or are not in an authorized weapons storage location;
</P>
<P>(vi) The unauthorized operation, manipulation, or tampering with any nuclear reactor or Category I SSNM facility's controls or SSCs that could prevent the implementation of the licensee's protective strategy for protecting any target set;
</P>
<P>(vii) The identification or discovery of a previously unrecognized or unidentified vulnerability that could prevent the implementation of the licensee's protective strategy for protecting any target set; or
</P>
<P>(viii)(A) For licensees required to have a vehicle barrier system protecting their facility, the identification or discovery at or beyond the vehicle barrier of unauthorized explosives.
</P>
<P>(B) This provision is applicable to facilities where the vehicle barrier system protecting the facility is located at a distance from the Protected Area boundary greater than that assumed in the facility's blast analysis.
</P>
<P>(2) An event related to the licensee's implementation of their security program for which a notification was made to local, State, or Federal law enforcement officials provided that the event does not otherwise require a notification under paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An event involving a law enforcement response to the facility that could reasonably be expected to result in public or media inquiries and that does not otherwise require a notification under paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section, or in other NRC regulations such as § 50.72(b)(2)(xi) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) As an exemption, licensees need not report law enforcement responses to minor incidents, such as traffic accidents.


</P>
<P>(4) For licensees subject to the provisions of § 73.55 or § 73.100, an event involving the licensee's suspension of security measures.
</P>
<P>(5) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(6) Notifications made under paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section are not required to be repeated under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Four-hour notifications—shipments.</I> (1) Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.25, § 73.26, § 73.27, § 73.37, or § 73.67 or its designated movement control center must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center within 4 hours after time of discovery of the following transportation security events involving—
</P>
<P>(i) The actual access of an unauthorized person into a transport vehicle transporting a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, a Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW;
</P>
<P>(ii) The attempted access of an unauthorized person into a transport vehicle transporting a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, a Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW;
</P>
<P>(iii) The actual access of an unauthorized person into the Category I or II quantity of SSNM, Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW being transported;
</P>
<P>(iv) The attempted access of an unauthorized person into the Category I or II quantity of SSNM, Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW being transported;
</P>
<P>(v) The actual introduction of contraband into a transport vehicle transporting a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, a Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW;
</P>
<P>(vi) The attempted introduction of contraband into a transport vehicle transporting a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, a Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW;
</P>
<P>(vii) The actual introduction of contraband into the Category I or II quantity of SSNM, Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW being transported;
</P>
<P>(viii) The attempted introduction of contraband into the Category I or II quantity of SSNM, Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW being transported;
</P>
<P>(ix) The discovery of the loss of a shipment of Category II or III quantities of SSNM, Category II or III quantities of SNM, SNF, or HLW; or
</P>
<P>(x) The recovery of or accounting for a lost shipment of Category II or III quantities of SSNM, Category II or III quantities of SNM, SNF, or HLW.
</P>
<P>(2) An event related to the licensee's implementation of their security program for which a notification was made to local, State, or Federal law enforcement officials, provided that the event does not otherwise require a notification under paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) Notifications made under paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section are not required to be repeated under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Eight-hour notifications—facilities.</I> (1) Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.45, § 73.46, § 73.50, § 73.51, § 73.55, § 73.60, § 73.67, or § 73.100 must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center within 8 hours after time of discovery of the following facility security program failures involving—
</P>
<P>(i) Any failure, degradation, or vulnerability in a security or safeguards system, for which compensatory measures have not been employed within the required timeframe, that could allow unauthorized or undetected access of—
</P>
<P>(A) Unauthorized personnel into a PA, VA, MAA, or CAA; or
</P>
<P>(B) Contraband into a PA, VA, or MAA;
</P>
<P>(ii) The unauthorized operation, manipulation, or tampering with any nuclear power reactor's controls or with SSCs that does not result in the interruption of normal operation of the reactor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The unauthorized operation, manipulation, or tampering with any Category I SSNM facility's SSCs that does not result in the interruption of normal operation of the facility or an accidental criticality.
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifications made under paragraphs (a), (c), and (e) of this section are not required to be repeated under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Eight-hour notifications—shipments.</I> (1) Each licensee subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.25, § 73.26, § 73.27, § 73.37, or § 73.67 or its designated movement control center must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center within 8 hours after time of discovery of the following transportation security program failures involving any failure, degradation, or vulnerability in a security or safeguards system, for which compensatory measures have not been employed within the required timeframe, that could allow unauthorized or undetected access of—
</P>
<P>(i) Personnel or contraband into a transport vehicle transporting a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, a Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Personnel or contraband into the Category I or II quantity of SSNM, Category II quantity of SNM, SNF, or HLW being transported;
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifications made under paragraphs (b), (d), and (f) of this section are not required to be repeated under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) through (l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Enhanced weapons notifications—stolen or lost.</I> (1) Each licensee possessing enhanced weapons in accordance with § 73.15 must—
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately notify the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) upon discovery of any stolen or lost enhanced weapons (see 27 CFR 479.141).
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center as soon as possible, but not later than 1 hour, after notification to the ATF of the discovery of any stolen or lost enhanced weapons possessed by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notify the appropriate local law enforcement agency (LLEA) officials as soon as possible, but not later than 48 hours, after the discovery of stolen or lost enhanced weapons. This notification must be made by telephone or in person to the appropriate LLEA officials. Licensees must include appropriate point of contact information in their security event notification procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications to the NRC must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Enhanced weapons—adverse ATF findings.</I> (1) Each licensee possessing enhanced weapons in accordance with § 73.15 must—
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center as soon as possible, but not later than 24 hours, after receipt of an adverse inspection finding, enforcement finding, or other adverse notice from the ATF regarding the licensee's possession, receipt, transfer, transportation, or storage of enhanced weapons; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center as soon as possible, but not later than 24 hours after receipt of an adverse inspection finding, enforcement finding or other adverse notice from the ATF regarding any ATF issued Federal firearms license to the NRC licensee.
</P>
<P>(2) Notifications must be made according to paragraph (o) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Notification process.</I> (1) Each licensee must make the telephonic notifications to the NRC required by paragraphs (a) through (n) of this section to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center via any available telephone system. Commercial telephone numbers for the NRC Headquarters Operations Center are specified in Table 1 of appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees must make required telephonic notifications via any method that will ensure that a report is received by the NRC Headquarters Operations Center or other specified government officials within the timeliness requirements of paragraphs (a) through (n) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifications required by this section that contain Safeguards Information may be made to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center without using secure communications systems under the exception of § 73.22(f)(3) for the communication of emergency or extraordinary conditions.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Notifications required by this section that contain classified national security information and/or classified restricted data must be made to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center using secure communications systems appropriate to the classification level of the message. Licensees making classified telephonic notifications must contact the NRC Headquarters Operations Center at the commercial numbers specified in Table 1 of appendix A to this part and request a transfer to a secure telephone, as specified in paragraph III of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the licensee's secure communications capability is unavailable (e.g., due to the nature of the security event), the licensee must provide to the NRC the information required by this section, without revealing or discussing any classified information, in order to meet the timeliness requirements of this section. The licensee must also indicate to the NRC that its secure communications capability is unavailable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensees using a non-secure communications capability may be directed by the NRC emergency response management, in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.52(a), to provide classified national security information to the NRC over the non-secure system, due to the significance of the ongoing security event. In such circumstances, the licensee must document this direction and any information provided to the NRC over a non-secure communications capability in the follow-up written report required in accordance with § 73.1205.
</P>
<P>(5) For events reported under paragraph (a) of this section, the NRC may request that the licensee establish and maintain an open and continuous communications channel with the NRC Headquarters Operations Center as soon as possible.


</P>
<P>(i) Licensees must establish the requested continuous communications channel once the licensee has completed other required notifications under this section, § 50.72 of this chapter, appendix E to part 50 of this chapter, § 53.1630 of this chapter, § 70.50 of this chapter; or § 72.75 of this chapter; as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees must complete any immediate actions required to stabilize the plant, to place the plant in a safe condition, to implement defensive measures, or to request assistance from the LLEA.
</P>
<P>(iii) When established, the continuous communications channel must be staffed by a knowledgeable individual in the licensee's security, operations, or emergency response organizations from a location deemed appropriate by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(iv) The continuous communications channel may be established via any available telephone system.
</P>
<P>(6) For events reported under paragraph (b) of this section, the NRC may request that the licensee or its movement control center establish and maintain an open and continuous communications channel with the NRC Headquarters Operations Center as soon as possible.


</P>
<P>(i) Licensees must establish the requested continuous communications channel once the licensee or the movement control center has completed other required notifications under this section, § 50.72 of this chapter, appendix E to part 50 of this chapter, § 53.1630 of this chapter, § 70.50 of this chapter; § 72.75 of this chapter; or requested assistance from the LLEA, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) When established, the continuous communications channel must be staffed by a knowledgeable individual in the licensee's security, operations, or emergency response organizations or the movement control center monitoring the shipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The continuous communications channel may be established via any available telephone system.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) For events reported under paragraphs (c), (e), (g), and (m) of this section, the NRC may request that the licensee establish and maintain an open and continuous communications channel with the NRC Headquarters Operations Center.
</P>
<P>(ii) When established, the continuous communications channel must be staffed by a knowledgeable individual in the licensee's security, operations, or emergency response organizations from a location deemed appropriate by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(iii) The continuous communications channel may be established via any available telephone system.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) For events reported under paragraphs (d), (f), and (h) of this section, the NRC may request that the licensee or the movement control center establish and maintain an open and continuous communications channel with the NRC Headquarters Operations Center.
</P>
<P>(ii) When established, the continuous communications channel must be staffed by a knowledgeable individual in the movement control center monitoring the shipment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The continuous communications channel may be established via any available telephone system.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Significant supplemental information.</I> Licensees identifying significant supplemental information for events reported under paragraphs (a) through (h), (m), and (n) of this section, subsequent to the initial telephonic notification to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center, must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center of such supplemental information under paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Retraction of previous security event reports.</I> (1) Licensees desiring to retract a previous physical security event notification made under paragraphs (a) through (h), (m), and (n) of this section, which have been determined to be invalid, not reportable in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (h), (m), and (n) of this section, or recharacterized as recordable under § 73.1210 of this part (instead of reportable under § 73.1200), must telephonically notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center in accordance with paragraph (o) of this section and indicate the report that is being retracted and the basis for the retraction.
</P>
<P>(2) Invalid, not reportable, or recharacterized events include, but are not limited to, events for which the licensee subsequently receives new information regarding the event or relevant information from an external entity (e.g., the initial information on a reportable event is subsequently determined to be incorrect or a law enforcement determination is made on the absence of a malevolent intent).


</P>
<P>(r) <I>Declaration of emergencies.</I> Licensees notifying the NRC of the declaration of an emergency class must do so in accordance with §§ 50.72, 53.1630, 63.73, 70.50, and 72.75 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Elimination of duplication.</I> Licensees with notification obligations under paragraphs (a) through (h), (m), and (n) of this section and §§ 50.72, 53.1630, 63.73, 70.50, and 72.75 of this chapter may notify the NRC of events in a single communication. This communication must identify each regulation under which the licensee is reporting.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Classified information.</I> Licensee notifications regarding security events associated with the deliberate disclosure, theft, loss, compromise, or possible compromise of classified documents, information, or material must comply with the requirements found in § 95.57 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 15891, Mar. 14, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 15877, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1205" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1205   Written follow-up reports of physical security events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Licensees making a telephonic notification under § 73.1200 of this part must also submit a written follow-up report to the NRC within 60 days of such notifications, in accordance with § 73.4.
</P>
<P>(2) As an exemption, licensees are not required to submit a written follow-up report subsequent to a telephonic notification made—
</P>
<P>(i) Under the provisions of § 73.1200(e) and (f) regarding interactions with a Federal, State, or local law-enforcement agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the provisions of § 73.1200(m) regarding lost or stolen enhanced weapons; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the provisions of § 73.1200(n) regarding adverse findings from the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) for enhanced weapons possessed by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Licensees are not required to submit a written follow-up report if the licensee subsequently retracts a telephonic notification made under § 73.1200 as invalid, not reportable under § 73.1200, or recharacterized as recordable under § 73.1210 (instead of reportable under § 73.1200), and has not yet submitted a written follow-up report under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the licensee subsequently retracts a telephonic notification made under § 73.1200 after it has submitted a written follow-up report under this section, then the licensee must submit a revised written follow-up report documenting the retraction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission criteria.</I> (1) Each licensee must submit to the NRC written follow-up reports that contain sufficient information for NRC analysis and evaluation and are of a quality that will permit legible reproduction and processing.


</P>
<P>(2)(i) Licensees subject to § 50.73 or § 53.1640 of this chapter must prepare the written follow-up report on NRC Form 366.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees not subject to § 50.73 or § 53.1640 of this chapter must prepare the written follow-up report in a letter format.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) If significant supplemental information becomes available after the submission of the initial written follow-up report, then the licensee must submit a revised report with the revisions indicated.
</P>
<P>(ii) The revised written follow-up report must replace the previous written report in its entirety. The update must be complete and not be limited to only supplementary or revised information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Errors discovered in a written follow-up report must be corrected in a revised report with the revisions indicated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> A written follow-up report must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief abstract describing the major occurrences during the event or condition, including all component or system failures that contributed to the event or condition, and significant corrective actions taken or planned to prevent recurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) A clear, specific, narrative description of what occurred so that a knowledgeable reader conversant with general security program requirements, but not familiar with the security requirements for the specific facility or activity, can understand the complete event.
</P>
<P>(3) The narrative description must include, as a minimum, the following information, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(i) The date and time the event or condition was discovered;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date and time the event or condition occurred;
</P>
<P>(iii) The affected structures, systems, components, equipment, or procedures;
</P>
<P>(iv) The environmental conditions at the time of the event or occurrence, if relevant;
</P>
<P>(v) The root cause of the event or condition;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether any human performance errors were the cause or were a contributing factor to the event or condition, including: personnel errors, inadequate procedures, or inadequate training;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether previous events or conditions are relevant to the current event or condition and whether corrective actions to prevent recurrence were ineffective or insufficient;
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether this event or condition is a recurring failure of a structure, system, component, or procedure important to security;
</P>
<P>(ix) What compensatory measures, if any, were implemented in response to the event or condition;
</P>
<P>(x) What corrective actions, if any, were taken in response to the event or condition; and
</P>
<P>(xi) When corrective actions, if any, were taken or will be completed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transmission criteria.</I> (1) In addition to the addressees specified in § 73.4, the licensee must also provide one copy of the written follow-up report addressed to the Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response (NSIR).
</P>
<P>(2) For copies of a classified written follow-up report, the licensee must transmit them to the NRC via either the NRC Headquarters classified mailing address specified in Table 2 of appendix A to this part or via the NRC's secure email address specified in Table 1 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Each written follow-up report containing classified information must be created, stored, marked, labeled, handled, transmitted to the NRC, and destroyed in accordance with the requirements of part 95 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Each written follow-up report containing Safeguards Information must be created, stored, marked, labeled, handled, transmitted to the NRC, and destroyed in accordance with the requirements of §§ 73.21 and 73.22.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records retention.</I> Licensees must maintain a copy of a written follow-up report as a record for a period of 3 years from the date of the report or until termination of the license, whichever is later.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 15891, Mar. 14, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 15877, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1210" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1210   Recordkeeping of physical security events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Objective and purpose.</I> (1) Licensees with facilities or shipment activities subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.25, § 73.26, § 73.27, § 73.37, § 73.45, § 73.46, § 73.50, § 73.51, § 73.55, § 73.60, § 73.67, or § 73.100, must record the physical security events and conditions adverse to security that are specified in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) These records facilitate the licensee's monitoring of the effectiveness of its physical security program. These records also facilitate the licensee's effective tracking, trending, and performance monitoring of these security events and conditions adverse to security; and the subsequent identification and implementation of corrective actions to prevent recurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) These physical security events and conditions adverse to security include, but are not limited to, human performance security errors; failure to comply with security procedures; insufficient or inadequate security procedures; security equipment failures and malfunctions; security structures, systems, and components design deficiencies; and inadequate or insufficient security structures, systems, and components. This includes events or conditions where the licensee has implemented compensatory measures within the required timeframe specified in its physical security plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) Licensees must record within 24 hours of the time of discovery the physical security events and conditions adverse to security specified in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensees must retain these records for a period up to 3 years after the last entry is recorded, or until their license is terminated, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Licensees must record these physical security events and conditions adverse to security in either a stand-alone safeguards event log or as part of the licensee's corrective action program, as specified under the applicable quality assurance program provisions of parts 50, 52, 53, 60, 63, 70, and 72 of this chapter, or both.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees choosing to use their corrective action program to record these physical security events and conditions adverse to security must ensure that the records contain sufficient information to permit the effective tracking, trending, and performance monitoring of these events and conditions and the implementation of corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensees must ensure that Safeguards Information or classified security information associated with these records is created, stored, and handled in accordance with the provisions of § 73.21, or of part 95 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) Licensees choosing to use their corrective action program for these records may also choose to bifurcate the information in such records systems so as to maximize the use and advantages of their corrective action programs' tracking, trending, and performance monitoring capabilities while simultaneously compartmenting sensitive security information and security vulnerabilities (<I>i.e.,</I> by controlling access and limiting need to know to necessary personnel), in order to ensure information protection requirements are effectively implemented.
</P>
<P>(4) These records must include, but are not limited to, information on the following data elements, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(i) The date and time the event or condition was discovered;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date and time the event or condition occurred;
</P>
<P>(iii) The affected structures, systems, components, equipment, or procedures;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the event or condition;
</P>
<P>(v) The environmental conditions at the time of the event or occurrence, if relevant;
</P>
<P>(vi) The root cause of the event or condition;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether any human performance errors were the cause or were a contributing factor of the event or condition, including: personnel errors, inadequate procedures, or inadequate training;
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether previous events or conditions are relevant to the current event or condition and whether corrective actions were ineffective or insufficient;
</P>
<P>(ix) Whether this event or condition is a recurring failure of a structure, system, component, or procedure;
</P>
<P>(x) What compensatory measures, if any, were implemented in response to the event or condition;
</P>
<P>(xi) What corrective actions, if any, were taken in response to the event or condition; and
</P>
<P>(xii) When corrective actions, if any, were taken or will be completed.
</P>
<P>(5) Physical security events and conditions adverse to security for which notifications were made to the NRC under § 73.1200 are not required to be recorded under this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Suspicious activities that are reported under § 73.1215 are not required to be recorded under this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Enhanced weapons events that are reported under § 73.1200 are not required to be recorded under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compensated security events.</I> The requirements of this section apply to any failure, degradation, or discovered vulnerability in a security or safeguards system for which compensatory measures were established within the required timeframe and for which the following could have resulted in—
</P>
<P>(1) Undetected access of unauthorized explosives beyond a required vehicle barrier;
</P>
<P>(2) Unauthorized personnel gaining access into a protected area (PA), vital area (VA), material access area (MAA), or controlled access area (CAA);
</P>
<P>(3) Undetected access of contraband into a PA, VA, or MAA;
</P>
<P>(4) Unauthorized personnel accessing a vehicle transporting a Category I or II quantity of strategic special nuclear material (SSNM), spent nuclear fuel (SNF), or high-level radioactive waste (HLW);
</P>
<P>(5) Unauthorized personnel accessing a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, SNF, or HLW being transported;
</P>
<P>(6) Undetected introduction of contraband into a vehicle transporting a Category I or II quantity of SSNM, SNF, or HLW; or
</P>
<P>(7) Undetected introduction of contraband into the Category I or II quantity of SSNM, SNF, or HLW being transported.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ammunition events.</I> (1) For licensees with armed security personnel, the discovery that greater than a small quantity of live ammunition authorized by the licensee's security plan:
</P>
<P>(i) Has been lost inside a PA, VA, or MAA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been found uncontrolled inside a PA, VA, or MAA.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The discovery that greater than a small quantity of unauthorized live ammunition is inside a PA, VA, or MAA.
</P>
<P>(ii) A small quantity of live ammunition means five rounds or fewer of ammunition.
</P>
<P>(iii) Uncontrolled authorized ammunition means ammunition authorized by the licensee's security plans that is not in the possession of authorized personnel or is not in an authorized ammunition storage location.
</P>
<P>(iv) Unauthorized ammunition means ammunition that is not authorized by the licensee's security plans.
</P>
<P>(3) As exemptions, licensees are not required to record:
</P>
<P>(i) Ammunition that is in the possession of Federal, State, or local law-enforcement personnel performing official duties inside a PA, VA, or MAA is considered controlled and authorized; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Blank ammunition used for training purposes by the licensee.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decreases in the effectiveness of the physical security program.</I> The requirements of this section apply to any other threatened, attempted, or committed act not previously defined in this section that has resulted in or has the potential for decreasing the effectiveness of the licensee's physical security program below that committed to in a licensee's NRC-approved physical security plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Classified Information.</I> Licensee recordkeeping requirements regarding any security events or conditions adverse to security involving any infractions, losses, compromises, or possible compromise of classified information or classified documents are found in § 95.57 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recordkeeping—exemptions.</I> Licensees subject to § 73.67 who possess or transport SSNM or special nuclear material (SNM) in the following categories are exempt from the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Category III quantity of SSNM;
</P>
<P>(2) Category II quantity of SNM; or
</P>
<P>(3) Category III quantity of SNM.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 15891, Mar. 14, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 15877, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 73.1215" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 73.1215   Suspicious activity reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section sets forth the reporting criteria and process for licensees to use in reporting suspicious activities. Licensees are required to report suspicious activities to the local law enforcement agency (LLEA), the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) local field office, the NRC, and the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) local control tower if aircraft are a part of the suspicious activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objective.</I> (1) A licensee's timely submission of suspicious activity reports (SARs) to Federal and local law enforcement agencies is an important part of the U.S. government's efforts to disrupt or dissuade malevolent acts against the nation's critical infrastructure. Despite the increasingly fluid and unpredictable nature of the threat environment, some elements of terrorist tactics, techniques, and procedures remain constant. For example, attack planning and preparation generally proceed through several predictable stages, including intelligence gathering and preattack surveillance or reconnaissance. These preattack stages, in particular, offer law enforcement and security personnel a significant opportunity to identify and disrupt or dissuade acts of terrorism before they occur. However, to use this information most effectively, timely reporting of suspicious activities by licensees to both Federal and local law enforcement is of vital importance.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensee's timely submission of SARs to the NRC supports one of the agency's primary mission essential functions of threat assessment for licensed facilities, materials, and shipping activities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements.</I> (1)(i) Licensees subject to paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section must report suspicious activities that are applicable to their facility, material, or shipping activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a suspicious activity requires a physical security event notification pursuant to § 73.1200, then the licensee is not required to also report the occurrence as a suspicious activity pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a suspicious activity report results in a LLEA response the licensee must notify the NRC in accordance with the requirements of § 73.1200.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Licensees must promptly assess whether an activity is suspicious. Licensees may review additional information as part of an assessment process, including interactions with their LLEA. However, such assessments and any subsequent reporting must be completed as soon as possible, but within 4 hours of the time of discovery. The licensee must base its assessment upon its best available information on the activity, which may include its knowledge of its locale and the local population.
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee's assessment of a potential suspicious activity, and any discussion of this activity with its LLEA, does not constitute a conclusion, in and of itself, that the activity is suspicious.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensees are not required to report activities that, based on their assessment, appear to be innocent or innocuous.
</P>
<P>(3) For a suspicious activity specified under paragraph (d) of this section, the licensee must make the following reports:
</P>
<P>(i) First, to their LLEA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Second, to their applicable FBI local field office;
</P>
<P>(iii) Third, to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Lastly, to the local FAA control tower if the suspicious activity involves aircraft overflights in proximity to the licensee's facility.
</P>
<P>(4) For a suspicious activity specified under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, the licensee or its designated movement control center must make the following reports, in the order indicated:
</P>
<P>(i) First, to the applicable LLEA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Second, to the applicable FBI local field office; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Lastly, to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center.
</P>
<P>(iv) For licensees making such reports related to shipping activities, the licensee responsible for the security of the shipment must contact the applicable FBI local field office.
</P>
<P>(v) For a movement control center making such reports related to shipping activities, the applicable FBI local field office is as requested by the FBI. As such, the FBI may direct the use of the FBI local field office applicable to the movement control center itself or to the FBI local field office applicable to the licensee responsible for the security of the shipment.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Licensees subject to paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section must establish a point of contact with their local FBI field office.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees subject to paragraph (d) of this section must establish a point of contact with their local FAA control tower.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) For licensees subject to paragraph (e) of this section who are responsible for the security of the shipment(s), the licensee must establish a point of contact with their local FBI field office.
</P>
<P>(ii) For licensees subject to paragraph (e) of this section who are employing the services of a movement control center, the movement control center must establish a point of contact with its local FBI field office.
</P>
<P>(7) Licensees and movement control centers reporting suspicious activities to the NRC must notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center via the telephone number specified in Table 1 of appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Licensees and movement control centers reporting suspicious activities must document the LLEA and FBI points of contact in written security communication procedures or route approvals, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees reporting suspicious aircraft overflight activities must document the FAA point of contact in written communication procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspicious activities—facilities and materials.</I> (1) For licensees subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.45, § 73.46, § 73.50, § 73.51, § 73.55, § 73.60, § 73.67, or § 73.100, the licensees must report activities they assess are suspicious. Examples include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Challenges to the licensee's security systems and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Elicitation of non-public information from knowledgeable licensee or contractor personnel regarding the licensee's security or emergency response programs;
</P>
<P>(iii) Observed surveillance or reconnaissance activity from within posted or restricted areas (<I>i.e.,</I> non-public areas), including surface activity, underwater activity, manned aerial activity, and unmanned aerial activity;
</P>
<P>(iv) Observed surveillance activity from public spaces outside of the licensee's control; or
</P>
<P>(v) Unauthorized aircraft activities in close proximity to the facility (<I>i.e.,</I> above or near), involving either manned or unmanned aircraft, operating in a manner potentially indicative of surveillance or reconnaissance activity.
</P>
<P>(2) As an exemption, this paragraph does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees who are subject to the provisions of § 73.67, and who are also engaged in the enrichment of special nuclear material using Restricted Data (RD) information, technology, or materials.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees who are subject to the provisions of § 73.67 of this part, and who are also engaged in the fabrication of new fuel assemblies.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees are not required to report commercial or military aircraft activity that is assessed as routine or non-threatening.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Suspicious activity—shipping activities.</I> (1) For licensees subject to the provisions of § 73.20, § 73.25, § 73.26, § 73.27, or § 73.37, the licensee must report activities they assess are suspicious. Examples include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Challenges to the licensee's or its transportation contractor's communications subsystems regarding the transport system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Challenges to the licensee's or its transportation contractor's security subsystems for the transport system;
</P>
<P>(iii) Interference with or harassment of in-progress shipments;
</P>
<P>(iv) Elicitation of non-public information from knowledgeable licensee personnel or the licensee's transportation contractor personnel regarding transportation program elements, including: security programs, operations programs, communication protocols, shipment routes, safe haven locations, and emergency response programs; or
</P>
<P>(v) Observed surveillance or reconnaissance activity of ongoing shipments.
</P>
<P>(2) For licensees using a movement control center for shipments of radioactive material or special nuclear material (SNM), the movement control center may report suspicious activities to LLEA, the FBI, and the NRC, in lieu of the licensee making such reports.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Suspicious activities—enrichment facilities.</I> (1) For licensees subject to the provisions of § 73.67, who are also engaged in the enrichment of SNM using RD information, technology, or materials; the licensee must report activities they assess are suspicious. Examples include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Aggressive noncompliance by visitors to the licensee's facility involving willful unauthorized departure from a tour group or willful unauthorized entry into restricted areas;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unauthorized recording or imaging of sensitive technology, equipment, or materials; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Elicitation of non-public information from knowledgeable licensee or contractor personnel regarding physical or information security programs intended to protect RD information, technology, or materials.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Licensees must report, in accordance with § 95.57 of this chapter, alleged or suspected activities involving actual, attempted, or conspiracies to obtain RD, communicate RD, remove RD, or disclose RD in potential violation of Sections 224, 225, 226, and 227 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2274, 2275, 2276, and 2277).
</P>
<P>(ii) As an exemption, the licensee is not required to also report such actual, attempted, or conspiracies to obtain RD, communicate RD, remove RD, or disclose RD as suspicious activities pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Suspicious activities—exemptions.</I> (1) Licensees subject to § 73.67 who possess strategic special nuclear material in quantities greater than 15 grams but less than the quantity necessary to form a critical mass, as specified in § 150.11(a) of this chapter, are exempt from the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The following licensees are exempt from the provisions of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Docket number 70-7020; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Docket number 70-7028.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 15891, Mar. 14, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 15877, Mar. 30, 2026]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.5.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 73—U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Offices and Classified Mailing Addresses





</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Mailing Addresses, Telephone Numbers, and Email Addresses
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Address
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Telephone


<br/>(24-hour)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Email
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NRC Headquarters Operations Center</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Division of Preparedness and Response, Washington, DC 20555-0001</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(301) 816-5100; (301) 816-5151 (fax)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Hoo.Hoc@nrc.gov; Hoo1@nrc.sgov.gov</E> (secure).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region I: Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, and Vermont
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Region I, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(610) 337-5000, (800) 432-1156 TDD: (301) 415-5575</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">RidsRgn1MailCenter@nrc.gov.</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region II: Alabama, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, North Carolina, Puerto Rico, South Carolina, Tennessee, Virginia, Virgin Islands, and West Virginia
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Region II, 245 Peachtree Center Avenue, NE., Suite 1200, Atlanta, GA 30303-1257</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(404) 997-4000, (800) 877-8510, TDD: (301) 415-5575</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">RidsRgn2Mail Center@nrc.gov</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region III: Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio and Wisconsin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Region III, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(630) 829-9500, (800) 522-3025, TDD: (301) 415-5575</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">RidsRgn3MailCenter@nrc.gov</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region IV: Alaska, Arizona, Arkansas, California, Colorado, Hawaii, Idaho, Kansas, Louisiana, Mississippi, Montana, Nebraska, Nevada, New Mexico, North Dakota, Oklahoma, Oregon, South Dakota, Texas, Utah, Washington, Wyoming, and the U.S. territories and possessions in the Pacific</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">US NRC, Region IV, 1600 E Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(817) 200-1100, (800) 952-9677, TDD: (301) 415-5575</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">RidsRgn4MailCenter@nrc.gov.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Classified Mailing Addresses
</P><P class="gpotbl_title">Classified Mailing Addresses 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Address 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NRC Headquarters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. NRC, Caller Box 2500, Rockville, MD 20852. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. NRC, 475 Allendale Road, Suite 102, King of Prussia, PA 19406-1415.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, P.O. Box 56267, Atlanta, GA 30343. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USNRC, Region III, 2443 Warrenville Road, Suite 210, Lisle, IL 60532-4352.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Region IV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">US NRC, Region IV, 1600 E. Lamar Blvd., Arlington, TX 76011-4511.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>I. Classified mail shall be transmitted in accordance with § 95.39 of this chapter to the appropriate NRC classified mailing address listed in this appendix.
</P>
<P>II. Classified documents may be hand delivered to the NRC to the appropriate NRC street address listed in this appendix. Hand delivered classified documents shall be transmitted in accordance with § 95.39 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>III. Classified telephone calls must be made to the telephone numbers for the NRC Headquarters Operations Center in Table 1 of this appendix and the caller must request transfer to a secure telephone to communicate the classified information.
</P>
<P>IV. Classified emails must be sent to the secure email address specified in Table 1 of this appendix.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58820, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 71 FR 15012, Mar. 27, 2006; 73 FR 30460, May 28, 2008; 75 FR 21981, Apr. 27, 2010; 76 FR 72086, Nov. 22, 2011; 77 FR 39909, July 6, 2012; 79 FR 66606, Nov. 10, 2014; 82 FR 52825, Nov. 15, 2017; 87 FR 20698, Apr. 8, 2022; 87 FR 68032, Nov. 14, 2022; 88 FR 15898, Mar. 14, 2023; 91 FR 15877, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.5.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 73—General Criteria for Security Personnel


</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP>Introduction.
</FP>
<FP>Definitions.
</FP>
<FP>Criteria.
</FP>
<P-3>I. Employment suitability and qualification.
</P-3>
<FP2-3>A. Suitability.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>B. Physical and mental qualifications.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>C. Medical examination and physical fitness qualifications.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>D. Contract security personnel.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>E. Physical and medical requalification.
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>F. Documentation.
</FP2-3>
<P-3>II. Training and qualifications. 
</P-3>
<FP2-3>A. Training requirements. 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>B. Qualification requirements. 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>C. Contract personnel. 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>D. Security knowledge, skills, and abilities. 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>E. Requalification. 
</FP2-3>
<P-3>III. Weapons training and qualification. 


</P-3>
<P-3>IV. Weapons qualification and requalification program. 


</P-3>
<P-3>V. Guard, armed response personnel, and armed escort equipment. 
</P-3>
<FP2-3>A. Fixed site. 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>B. Transportation. 
</FP2-3>
<P-3>VI. Nuclear Power Reactor Training and Qualification Plan for Personnel Performing Security Program Duties 
</P-3>
<FP2-3>A. General Requirements and Introduction 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>B. Employment Suitability and Qualification 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>C. Duty Training 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>D. Duty Qualification and Requalification 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>E. Weapons Training 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>F. Weapons Qualification and Requalification Program 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>G. Weapons, Personal Equipment and Maintenance 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>H. Records 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>I. Reviews 
</FP2-3>
<FP2-3>J. Definitions 
</FP2-3>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Applicants and power reactor licensees subject to the requirements of § 73.55 shall comply only with the requirements of section VI of this appendix. All other licensees, applicants, or certificate holders shall comply only with sections I through V of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Security personnel who are responsible for the protection of special nuclear material on site or in transit and for the protection of the facility or shipment vehicle against radiological sabotage should, like other elements of the physical security system, be required to meet minimum criteria to ensure that they will effectively perform their assigned security-related job duties. In order to ensure that those individuals responsible for security are properly equipped and qualified to execute the job duties prescribed for them, the NRC has developed general criteria that specify security personnel qualification requirements. 
</P>
<P>These general criteria establish requirements for the selection, training, equipping, testing, and qualification of individuals who will be responsible for protecting special nuclear materials, nuclear facilities, and nuclear shipments. 
</P>
<P>When required to have security personnel that have been trained, equipped, and qualified to perform assigned security job duties in accordance with the criteria in this appendix, the licensee must establish, maintain, and follow a plan that shows how the criteria will be met. The plan must be submitted to the NRC for approval and must be implemented within 30 days after approval by the NRC unless otherwise specified by the NRC in writing. 
</P>
<HD1>Definitions 


</HD1>
<P>Terms defined in parts 50, 53, 70, and 73 of this chapter have the same meaning when used in this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>Criteria 
</HD1>
<P>A. Employment Suitability and Qualification.
</P>
<P>1. Suitability.
</P>
<P>(a) Before employment, or assignment to the security organization, an individual shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Possess a high school diploma or pass an equivalent performance examination designed to measure basic mathematical, language, and reasoning skills, abilities, and knowledge required to perform security duties and responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Have attained the age of 21 for an armed capacity or the age of 18 for an unarmed capacity;
</P>
<P>(3) Not have any felony convictions that reflect on the individual's reliability; and
</P>
<P>(4) Not be disqualified, in accordance with applicable state or Federal law from possessing or using firearms or ammunition.
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees may use the information that has been obtained during the completion of the individual's background investigation for unescorted access to determine suitability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees may use the satisfactory completion of a firearms background check for the individual under § 73.17 of this part to also fulfill this requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) The qualification of each individual to perform assigned duties and responsibilities must be documented by a qualified training instructor and attested to by a security supervisor.
</P>
<P>B. Physical and mental qualifications. 1. Physical qualifications: 
</P>
<P>a. Individuals whose security tasks and job duties are directly associated with the effective implementation of the licensee physical security and contingency plans shall have no physical weaknesses or abnormalities that would adversely affect their performance of assigned security job duties. 
</P>
<P>b. In addition to a. above, guards, armed response personnel, armed escorts, and central alarm station operators shall successfully pass a physical examination administered by a licensed physician. The examination shall be designed to measure the individual's physical ability to perform assigned security job duties as identified in the licensee physical security and contingency plans. Armed personnel shall meet the following additional physical requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) Vision: (a) For each individual, distant visual acuity in each eye shall be correctable to 20/30 (Snellen or equivalent) in the better eye and 20/40 in the other eye with eyeglasses or contact lenses. If uncorrected distance vision is not at least 20/40 in the better eye, the individual shall carry an extra pair of corrective lenses. Near visual acuity, corrected or uncorrected, shall be at least 20/40 in the better eye. Field of vision must be at least 70° horizontal meridian in each eye. The ability to distinguish red, green, and yellow colors is required. Loss of vision in one eye is disqualifying. Glaucoma shall be disqualifying, unless controlled by acceptable medical or surgical means, provided such medications as may be used for controlling glaucoma do not cause undesirable side effects which adversely affect the individual's ability to perform assigned security job duties, and provided the visual acuity and field of vision requirements stated above are met. On-the-job evaluation shall be used for individuals who exhibit a mild color vision defect. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where corrective eyeglasses are required, they shall be of the safety glass type. 
</P>
<P>(c) The use of corrective eyeglasses or contact lenses shall not interfere with an individual's ability to effectively perform assigned security job duties during normal or emergency operations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Hearing: (a) Individuals shall have no hearing loss in the better ear greater than 30 decibels average at 500 Hz, 1,000 Hz, and 2,000 Hz with no level greater that 40 decibels at any one frequency (by ISO 389 “Standard Reference Zero for the Calibration of Puritone Audiometer” (1975) or ANSI S3.6-1969 (R. 1973) “Specifications for Audiometers”). ISO 389 and ANSI S3.6-1969 have been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of each standard is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738. 
</P>
<P>(b) A hearing aid is acceptable provided suitable testing procedures demonstrate auditory acuity equivalent to the above stated requirement. 
</P>
<P>(c) The use of a hearing aid shall not decrease the effective performance of the individual's assigned security job duties during normal or emergency operations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Diseases—Individuals shall have no established medical history or medical diagnosis of epilepsy or diabetes, or, where such a condition exists, the individual shall provide medical evidence that the condition can be controlled with proper medication so that the individual will not lapse into a coma or unconscious state while performing assigned security job duties. 
</P>
<P>(4) Addiction—Individuals shall have no established medical history or medical diagnosis of habitual alcoholism or drug addiction, or, where such a condition has existed, the individual shall provide certified documentation of having completed a rehabilitation program which would give a reasonable degree of confidence that the individual would be capable of performing assigned security job duties. 
</P>
<P>(5) Other physical requirements—An individual who has been incapacitated due to a serious illness, injury, disease, or operation, which could interfere with the effective performance of assigned security job duties shall, prior to resumption of such duties, provide medical evidence of recovery and ability to perform such security job duties. 
</P>
<P>2. Mental qualifications: a. Individuals whose security tasks and job duties are directly associated with the effective implementation of the licensee physical security and contingency plans shall demonstrate mental alertness and the capability to exercise good judgment, implement instructions, assimilate assigned security tasks, and possess the acuity of senses and ability of expression sufficient to permit accurate communication by written, spoken, audible, visible, or other signals required by assigned job duties. 
</P>
<P>b. Armed individuals, and central alarm station operators, in addition to meeting the requirement stated in paragraph a. above, shall have no emotional instability that would interfere with the effective performance of assigned security job duties. The determination shall be made by a licensed psychologist or psychiatrist, or physician, or other person professionally trained to identify emotional instability. 
</P>
<P>c. The licensee shall arrange for continued observation of security personnel and for appropriate corrective measures by responsible supervisors for indications of emotional instability of individuals in the course of performing assigned security job duties. Identification of emotional instability by responsible supervisors shall be subject to verification by a licensed, trained person. 
</P>
<P>C. Medical examinations and physical fitness qualifications—Guards, armed response personnel, armed escorts and other armed security force members shall be given a medical examination including a determination and written certification by a licensed physician that there are no medical contraindications as disclosed by the medical examination to participation by the individual in physical fitness tests. Subsequent to this medical examination, guards, armed response personnel, armed escorts and other armed security force members shall demonstrate physical fitness for assigned security job duties by performing a practical physical exercise program within a specific time period. The exercise program performance objectives shall be described in the license training and qualifications plan and shall consider job-related functions such as strenuous activity, physical exertion, levels of stress, and exposure to the elements as they pertain to each individual's assigned security job duties for both normal and emergency operations. The physical fitness qualification of each guard, armed response person, armed escort, and other security force member shall be documented and attested to by a licensee security supervisor. The licensee shall retain this documentation as a record for three years from the date of each qualification. 
</P>
<P>D. Contract security personnel—Contract security personnel shall be required to meet the suitability, physical, and mental requirements as appropriate to their assigned security job duties in accordance with section I of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>E. Physical requalification—At least every 12 months, central alarm station operators shall be required to meet the physical requirements of B.1.b of this section, and guards, armed response personnel, and armed escorts shall be required to meet the physical requirements of paragraphs B.1.b (1) and (2), and C of this section. The licensee shall document each individual's physical requalification and shall retain this documentation of requalification as a record for three years from the date of each requalification. 
</P>
<P>F. Documentation—The results of suitability, physical, and mental qualifications data and test results must be documented by the licensee or the licensee's agent. The licensee or the agent shall retain this documentation as a record for three years from the date of obtaining and recording these results. 
</P>
<P>G. Nothing herein authorizes or requires a licensee to investigate into or judge the reading habits, political or religious beliefs, or attitudes on social, economic, or political issues of any person. 
</P>
<FP-2>II. Training and qualifications. 
</FP-2>
<P>A. Training requirements—Each individual who requires training to perform assigned security-related job tasks or job duties as identified in the licensee physical security or contingency plans shall, prior to assignment, be trained to perform these tasks and duties in accordance with the licensee or the licensee's agent's documented training and qualifications plan. The licensee or the agent shall maintain documentation of the current plan and retain this documentation of the plan as a record for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license for which the plan was developed and, if any portion of the plan is superseded, retain the material that is superseded for three years after each change. 
</P>
<P>B. Qualification requirements—Each person who performs security-related job tasks or job duties required to implement the licensee physical security or contingency plan shall, prior to being assigned to these tasks or duties, be qualified in accordance with the licensee's NRC-approved training and qualifications plan. The qualifications of each individual must be documented and attested by a licensee security supervisor. The licensee shall retain this documentation of each individual's qualifications as a record for three years after the employee ends employment in the security-related capacity and for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license, and superseded material for three years after each change. 
</P>
<P>C. Contract personnel—Contract personnel shall be trained, equipped, and qualified as appropriate to their assigned security-related job tasks or job duties, in accordance with sections II, III, IV, and V of this appendix. The qualifications of each individual must be documented and attested by a licensee security supervisor. The licensee shall retain this documentation of each individual's qualifications as a record for three years after the employee ends employment in the security-related capacity and for three years after the close of period for which the licensee possesses the special nuclear material under each license, and superseded material for three years after each change. 
</P>
<P>D. Security knowledge, skills, and abilities—Each individual assigned to perform the security related task identified in the licensee physical security or contingency plan shall demonstrate the required knowledge, skill, and ability in accordance with the specified standards for each task as stated in the NRC approved licensee training and qualifications plan. The areas of knowledge, skills, and abilities that shall be considered in the licensee's training and qualifications plan are as follows: 
</P>
<P>1. Protection of nuclear facilities, transport vehicles, and special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>2. NRC requirements and guidance for physical security at nuclear facilities and for transportation. 
</P>
<P>3. The private security guard's role in providing physical protection for the nuclear industry. 
</P>
<P>4. The authority of private guards. 
</P>
<P>5. The use of nonlethal weapons. 
</P>
<P>6. The use of deadly force. 
</P>
<P>7. Power of arrest and authority to detain individuals. 
</P>
<P>8. Authority to search individuals and seize property. 
</P>
<P>9. Adversary group operations. 
</P>
<P>10. Motivation and objectives of adversary groups. 
</P>
<P>11. Tactics and force that might be used by adversary groups to achieve their objectives. 
</P>
<P>12. Recognition of sabotage related devices and equipment that might be used against the licensee's facility or shipment vehicle. 
</P>
<P>13. Facility security organization and operation. 
</P>
<P>14. Types of physical barriers. 
</P>
<P>15. Weapons, lock and key control system operation. 
</P>
<P>16. Location of SNM and/or vital areas within a facility. 
</P>
<P>17. Protected area security and vulnerability. 
</P>
<P>18. Types of alarm systems used. 
</P>
<P>19. Response and assessment to alarm annunciations and other indications of intrusion. 
</P>
<P>20. Familiarization with types of special nuclear material processed. 
</P>
<P>21. General concepts of fixed site security systems. 
</P>
<P>22. Vulnerabilities and consequences of theft of special nuclear material or radiological sabotage of a facility. 
</P>
<P>23. Protection of security system information. 
</P>
<P>24. Personal equipment use and operation for normal and contingency operations. 
</P>
<P>25. Surveillance and assessment systems and techniques. 
</P>
<P>26. Communications systems operation, fixed site. 
</P>
<P>27. Access control systems and operation for individuals, packages, and vehicles. 
</P>
<P>28. Contraband detection systems and techniques. 
</P>
<P>29. Barriers and other delay systems around material access or vital areas. 
</P>
<P>30. Exterior and interior alarm systems operation. 
</P>
<P>31. Duress alarm operation. 
</P>
<P>32. Alarm stations operation. 
</P>
<P>33. Response force organization. 
</P>
<P>34. Response force mission. 
</P>
<P>35. Response force operation. 
</P>
<P>36. Response force engagement. 
</P>
<P>37. Security command and control system during normal operation. 
</P>
<P>38. Security command and control system during contingency operation. 
</P>
<P>39. Transportation systems security organization and operation. 
</P>
<P>40. Types of SNM transport vehicles. 
</P>
<P>41. Types of SNM escort vehicles. 
</P>
<P>42. Modes of transportation for SNM. 
</P>
<P>43. Road transport security system command and control structure. 
</P>
<P>44. Use of weapons. 
</P>
<P>45. Communications systems operation for transportation, shipment to control center and intraconvoy. 
</P>
<P>46. Vulnerabilities and consequences of theft of special nuclear material or radiological sabotage of a transport vehicle. 
</P>
<P>47. Protection of transport system security information. 
</P>
<P>48. Control of area around transport vehicle. 
</P>
<P>49. Normal convoy techniques and operations. 
</P>
<P>50. Familiarization with types of special nuclear materials shipped. 
</P>
<P>51. Fixed post station operations. 
</P>
<P>52. Access control system operation. 
</P>
<P>53. Search techniques and systems for individuals, packages and vehicles. 
</P>
<P>54. Escort and patrol responsibilities and operation. 
</P>
<P>55. Contengency response to confirmed intrusion or attempted intrusion. 
</P>
<P>56. Security system operation after component failure. 
</P>
<P>57. Fixed site security information protection. 
</P>
<P>58. Security coordination with local law enforcement agencies. 
</P>
<P>59. Security and situation reporting, documentation and report writing. 
</P>
<P>60. Contingency duties. 
</P>
<P>61. Self defense. 
</P>
<P>62. Use of and defenses against incapacitating agents. 
</P>
<P>63. Security equipment testing. 
</P>
<P>64. Contingency procedures. 
</P>
<P>65. Night vision devices and systems. 
</P>
<P>66. Mechanics of detention. 
</P>
<P>67. Basic armed and unarmed defensive tactics. 
</P>
<P>68. Response force deployment. 
</P>
<P>69. Security alert procedures. 
</P>
<P>70. Security briefing procedures. 
</P>
<P>71. Response force tactical movement. 
</P>
<P>72. Response force withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>73. Reponse force use of support fire. 
</P>
<P>74. Response to bomb and attack threats. 
</P>
<P>75. Response to civil disturbances (e.g., strikes, demonstrators). 
</P>
<P>76. Response to confirmed attempted theft of special nuclear material and/or radiological sabotage of facilities. 
</P>
<P>77. Response to hostage situations. 
</P>
<P>78. Site specific armed tactical procedures and operation. 
</P>
<P>79. Security response to emergency situations other than security incidents. 
</P>
<P>80. Basic transportation defensive response tactics. 
</P>
<P>81. Armed escort deployment. 
</P>
<P>82. Armed escort adversary engagement. 
</P>
<P>83. Armed escort formations. 
</P>
<P>84. Armed escort use of weapons fire (tactical and combat). 
</P>
<P>85. Armed escort and shipment movement under fire. 
</P>
<P>86. Tactical convoying techniques and operations. 
</P>
<P>87. Armed escort tactical exercises. 
</P>
<P>88. Armed escort response to bomb and attack threats. 
</P>
<P>89. Verification of shipment documentation and contents. 
</P>
<P>90. Continuous surveillance of shipment vehicle. 
</P>
<P>91. Normal and contingency operation for shipment mode transfer. 
</P>
<P>92. Armed personnel procedures and operation during temporary storage between mode transfers of shipments. 
</P>
<P>93. Armed escort threat assessment and response. 
</P>
<P>94. System for and operation of shipment vehicle lock and key control. 
</P>
<P>95. Techniques and procedures for isolation of shipment vehicle during a contingency situation. 
</P>
<P>96. Transportation coordination with local law enforcement agencies. 
</P>
<P>97. Procedures for verification of shipment locks and seals. 
</P>
<P>98. Transportation security and situation reporting, documentation, and report writing. 
</P>
<P>99. Procedures for shipment delivery and pickup. 
</P>
<P>100. Transportation security system for escort by road, rail, air and sea. 
</P>
<P>E. Requalification—Security personnel shall be requalified at least every 12 months to perform assigned security-related job tasks and duties for both normal and contingency operations. Requalification shall be in accordance with the NRC-approved licensee training and qualifications plan. The results of requalification must be documented and attested by a licensee security supervisor. The licensee shall retain this documentation of each individual's requalification as a record for three years from the date of each requalification. 
</P>
<FP-2>III. Weapons training. 
</FP-2>
<P>A. Guards, armed response personnel and armed escorts requiring weapons training to perform assigned security related job tasks or job duties shall be trained in accordance with the licensees' documented weapons training programs. Each individual shall be proficient in the use of his assigned weapon(s) and shall meet prescribed standards in the following areas: 
</P>
<P>1. Mechanical assembly, dissasembly, range penetration capability of weapon, and bullseye firing. 
</P>
<P>2. Weapons cleaning and storage. 
</P>
<P>3. Combat firing, day and night. 
</P>
<P>4. Safe weapons handling. 
</P>
<P>5. Clearing, loading, unloading, and reloading. 
</P>
<P>6. When to draw and point a weapon. 
</P>
<P>7. Rapid fire techniques. 
</P>
<P>8. Close quarter firing. 
</P>
<P>9. Stress firing. 
</P>
<P>10. Zeroing assigned weapon(s). 
</P>
<FP-2>IV. Weapons qualification and requalification program. 
</FP-2>
<P>Qualification firing for the handgun and the rifle must be for daylight firing, and each individual shall perform night firing for familiarization with assigned weapon(s). The results of weapons qualification and requalification must be documented by the licensee or the licensee's agent. Each individual shall be requalified at least every 12 months. The licensee shall retain this documentation of each qualification and requalification as a record for three years from the date of the qualification or requalification, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>A. Handgun—Guards, armed escorts and armed response personnel shall qualify with a revolver or semiautomatic pistol firing the national police course, or an equivalent nationally recognized course. Qualifying score shall be an accumulated total of 70 percent of the maximum obtainable score. 
</P>
<P>B. Semiautomatic Rifle—Guards, armed escorts and armed response personnel, assigned to use the semiautomatic rifle by the licensee training and qualifications plan, shall qualify with a semiautomatic rifle by firing the 100-yard course of fire specified in section 17.5(1) of the National Rifle Association, High Power Rifle Rules book (effective March 15, 1976), 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or a nationally recognized equivalent course of fire. Targets used shall be as stated in section 17.5 for the 100-yard course. Time limits for individuals shall be as specified in section 8.2 of the NRA rule book, regardless of the course fired. Qualifying score shall be an accumulated total of 80 percent of the maximum obtainable score.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Copies of the “NRA High Power Rifle Rules” may be examined at, or obtained from, the National Rifle Association, 1600 Rhode Island Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20036.</P></FTNT>
<P>C. Shotgun—Guards, armed escorts, and armed response personnel assigned to use the 12 gauge shotgun by the licensee training and qualifications plan shall qualify with a full choke or improved modified choke 12 gauge shotgun firing the following course:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Range
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Position
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No. Rounds 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Target 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hip fire point</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">B-27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shoulder</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">B-27
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The 4 rounds shall be fired at 4 separate targets within 10 seconds using 00 gauge (9 pellet) shotgun shells.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> As set forth by the National Rifle Association (NRA) in its official rules and regulations, “NRA Target Manufacturers Index,” December 1976. The Index has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register. A copy of the index is available for inspection at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>To qualify the individual shall be required to place 50 percent of all pellets (36 pellets) within the black silhouette. 
</P>
<P>D. Requalification—Individuals shall be weapons requalified at least every 12 months in accordance with the NRC approved licensee training and qualifications plan, and in accordance with the requirements stated in A, B, and C of this section. 
</P>
<FP-2>V. Guard, armed response personnel, and armed escort equipment. 
</FP-2>
<P>A. Fixed Site—Fixed site guards and armed response personnel shall either be equipped with or have available the following security equipment appropriate to the individual's assigned contingency security related tasks or job duties as described in the licensee physical security and contingency plans: 
</P>
<P>1. Semiautomatic rifles with following nominal minimum specifications: 
</P>
<P>(a) .223 caliber. 
</P>
<P>(b) Muzzle velocity, 1980 ft/sec. 
</P>
<P>(c) Muzzle energy, 955 foot-pounds. 
</P>
<P>(d) Magazine or clip load of 10 rounds. 
</P>
<P>(e) Magazine reload, &lt;10 seconds. 
</P>
<P>(f) Operable in any environment in which it will be used. 
</P>
<P>2. 12 gauge shotguns with the following capabilities: 
</P>
<P>(a) 4 round pump or semiautomatic. 
</P>
<P>(b) Operable in any environment in which it will be used. 
</P>
<P>(c) Full or modified choke. 
</P>
<P>3. Semiautomatic pistols or revolvers with the following nominal minimum specifications: 
</P>
<P>(a) .354 caliber. 
</P>
<P>(b) Muzzle energy, 250 foot-pounds. 
</P>
<P>(c) Full magazine or cylinder reload capability &lt;6 seconds. 
</P>
<P>(d) Muzzle velocity, 850 ft/sec. 
</P>
<P>(e) Full cylinder or magazine capacity, 6 rounds. 
</P>
<P>(f) Operable in any environment in which it will be used. 
</P>
<P>4. Ammunition: 
</P>
<P>(a) For each assigned weapon as appropriate to the individual's assigned contingency security job duties and as readily available as the weapon: 
</P>
<P>(1) 18 rounds per handgun. 
</P>
<P>(2) 100 rounds per semiautomatic rifle. 
</P>
<P>(3) 12 rounds each per shotgun (00 gauge and slug). 
</P>
<P>(b) Ammunition available on site—two (2) times the amount stated in (a) above for each weapon. 
</P>
<P>5. Personal equipment to be readily available for individuals whose assigned contingency security job duties, as described in the licensee physical security and contingency plans, warrant such equipment: 
</P>
<P>(a) Helmet, combat. 
</P>
<P>(b) Gas mask, full face. 
</P>
<P>(c) Body armor (bullet-resistant vest). 
</P>
<P>(d) Flashlights and batteries. 
</P>
<P>(e) Baton. 
</P>
<P>(f) Handcuffs. 
</P>
<P>(g) Ammunition/equipment belt. 
</P>
<P>6. Binoculars. 
</P>
<P>7. Night vision aids, <I>i.e.</I>, hand-fired illumination flares or equivalent. 
</P>
<P>8. Tear gas or other nonlethal gas. 
</P>
<P>9. Duress alarms. 
</P>
<P>10. Two-way portable radios (handi-talkie) 2 channels minimum, 1 operating and 1 emergency. 
</P>
<P>B. Transportation—Armed escorts shall either be equipped with or have readily available the following security equipment appropriate to the individual's assigned contingency security related tasks or job duties, as described in the licensee physical security and contingency plans: 
</P>
<P>1. Semiautomatic rifles with the following nominal minimum specifications: 
</P>
<P>(a) .223 caliber. 
</P>
<P>(b) Muzzle velocity, 1,980 ft/sec. 
</P>
<P>(c) Muzzle energy, 955 foot-pounds. 
</P>
<P>(d) Magazine or clip of 10 rounds. 
</P>
<P>(e) Reload capability, 10 seconds. 
</P>
<P>(f) Operable in any environment in which it will be used. 
</P>
<P>2. 12 gauge shotguns. 
</P>
<P>(a) 4 round pump or semiautomatic. 
</P>
<P>(b) Operable in any environment in which it will be used. 
</P>
<P>(c) Full or modified choke. 
</P>
<P>3. Semiautomatic pistols or revolvers with the following nominal minimum specifications: 
</P>
<P>(a) .354 caliber. 
</P>
<P>(b) Muzzle energy, 250 foot-pounds. 
</P>
<P>(c) Full magazine or cylinder reload capability 6 seconds. 
</P>
<P>(d) Muzzle velocity, 850 ft/sec. 
</P>
<P>(e) Full cylinder or magazine capacity, 6 rounds. 
</P>
<P>(f) Operable in any environment in which it will be used. 


</P>
<P>4. Ammunition for each shipment. 
</P>
<P>(a) For each assigned weapon as appropriate to the individual's assigned contingency security job duties and as readily available as the weapon: 
</P>
<P>(1) 36 rounds per handgun. 
</P>
<P>(2) 120 rounds per semiautomatic rifle. 
</P>
<P>(3) 12 rounds each per shotgun (00 gauge and slug). 
</P>
<P>5. Escort vehicles, bullet resisting, equipped with communications systems, red flares, first aid kit, emergency tool kit, tire changing equipment, battery chargers for radios (where appropriate, for recharging portable radio batteries). 
</P>
<P>6. Personal equipment to be readily available for individuals whose assigned contingency security job duties, as described in the licensee physical security and contingency plans, warrant such equipment: 
</P>
<P>(a) Helmet, combat. 
</P>
<P>(b) Gas mask, full face. 
</P>
<P>(c) Body armor (bullet-resistant vest). 
</P>
<P>(d) Flashlights and batteries. 
</P>
<P>(e) Baton. 
</P>
<P>(f) Ammunition/equipment belt. 
</P>
<P>(g) Pager/duress alarms. 
</P>
<P>7. Binoculars. 
</P>
<P>8. Night vision aids, <I>i.e.</I>, hand-fired illumination flares or equivalent. 
</P>
<P>9. Tear gas or other nonlethal gas.
</P>
<FP-2>VI. Nuclear Power Reactor Training and Qualification Plan for Personnel Performing Security Program Duties 
</FP-2>
<P>A. General Requirements and Introduction
</P>
<P>1. The licensee shall ensure that all individuals who are assigned duties and responsibilities required to prevent significant core damage and spent fuel sabotage, implement the Commission-approved security plans, licensee response strategy, and implementing procedures, meet minimum training and qualification requirements to ensure each individual possesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively perform the assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>2. To ensure that those individuals who are assigned to perform duties and responsibilities required for the implementation of the Commission-approved security plans, licensee response strategy, and implementing procedures are properly suited, trained, equipped, and qualified to perform their assigned duties and responsibilities, the Commission has developed minimum training and qualification requirements that must be implemented through a Commission-approved training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>3. The licensee shall establish, maintain, and follow a Commission-approved training and qualification plan, describing how the minimum training and qualification requirements set forth in this appendix will be met, to include the processes by which all individuals, will be selected, trained, equipped, tested, and qualified.
</P>
<P>4. Each individual assigned to perform security program duties and responsibilities required to effectively implement the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and the licensee implementing procedures, shall demonstrate the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively perform the assigned duties and responsibilities before the individual is assigned the duty or responsibility.
</P>
<P>5. The licensee shall ensure that the training and qualification program simulates, as closely as practicable, the specific conditions under which the individual shall be required to perform assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>6. The licensee may not allow any individual to perform any security function, assume any security duties or responsibilities, or return to security duty, until that individual satisfies the training and qualification requirements of this appendix and the Commission-approved training and qualification plan, unless specifically authorized by the Commission.
</P>
<P>7. Annual requirements must be scheduled at a nominal twelve (12) month periodicity. Annual requirements may be completed up to three (3) months before or three (3) months after the scheduled date. However, the next annual training must be scheduled twelve (12) months from the previously scheduled date rather than the date the training was actually completed.
</P>
<P>B. Employment Suitability and Qualification
</P>
<P>1. Suitability.
</P>
<P>(a) Before employment, or assignment to the security organization, an individual shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Possess a high school diploma or pass an equivalent performance examination designed to measure basic mathematical, language, and reasoning skills, abilities, and knowledge required to perform security duties and responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Have attained the age of 21 for an armed capacity or the age of 18 for an unarmed capacity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Not have any felony convictions that reflect on the individual's reliability.
</P>
<P>(4) Individuals in an armed capacity, would not be disqualified from possessing or using firearms or ammunition in accordance with applicable state or Federal law, to include 18 U.S.C. 922. Licensees shall use information that has been obtained during the completion of the individual's background investigation for unescorted access to determine suitability. 
</P>
<P>(b) The qualification of each individual to perform assigned duties and responsibilities must be documented by a qualified training instructor and attested to by a security supervisor.
</P>
<P>2. Physical qualifications.
</P>
<P>(a) General physical qualifications.
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals whose duties and responsibilities are directly associated with the effective implementation of the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures, may not have any physical conditions that would adversely affect their performance of assigned security duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Armed and unarmed individuals assigned security duties and responsibilities shall be subject to a physical examination designed to measure the individual's physical ability to perform assigned duties and responsibilities as identified in the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) This physical examination must be administered by a licensed health professional with the final determination being made by a licensed physician to verify the individual's physical capability to perform assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall ensure that both armed and unarmed individuals who are assigned security duties and responsibilities identified in the Commission-approved security plans, the licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures, meet the following minimum physical requirements, as required to effectively perform their assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Vision.
</P>
<P>(1) For each individual, distant visual acuity in each eye shall be correctable to 20/30 (Snellen or equivalent) in the better eye and 20/40 in the other eye with eyeglasses or contact lenses.
</P>
<P>(2) Near visual acuity, corrected or uncorrected, shall be at least 20/40 in the better eye.
</P>
<P>(3) Field of vision must be at least 70 degrees horizontal meridian in each eye.
</P>
<P>(4) The ability to distinguish red, green, and yellow colors is required.
</P>
<P>(5) Loss of vision in one eye is disqualifying.
</P>
<P>(6) Glaucoma is disqualifying, unless controlled by acceptable medical or surgical means, provided that medications used for controlling glaucoma do not cause undesirable side effects which adversely affect the individual's ability to perform assigned security duties, and provided the visual acuity and field of vision requirements stated previously are met.
</P>
<P>(7) On-the-job evaluation must be used for individuals who exhibit a mild color vision defect.
</P>
<P>(8) If uncorrected distance vision is not at least 20/40 in the better eye, the individual shall carry an extra pair of corrective lenses in the event that the primaries are damaged. Corrective eyeglasses must be of the safety glass type.
</P>
<P>(9) The use of corrective eyeglasses or contact lenses may not interfere with an individual's ability to effectively perform assigned duties and responsibilities during normal or emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(c) Hearing.
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals may not have hearing loss in the better ear greater than 30 decibels average at 500 Hz, 1,000 Hz, and 2,000 Hz with no level greater than 40 decibels at any one frequency.
</P>
<P>(2) A hearing aid is acceptable provided suitable testing procedures demonstrate auditory acuity equivalent to the hearing requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) The use of a hearing aid may not decrease the effective performance of the individual's assigned security duties during normal or emergency operations.
</P>
<P>(d) Existing medical conditions.
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals may not have an established medical history or medical diagnosis of existing medical conditions which could interfere with or prevent the individual from effectively performing assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) If a medical condition exists, the individual shall provide medical evidence that the condition can be controlled with medical treatment in a manner which does not adversely affect the individual's fitness-for-duty, mental alertness, physical condition, or capability to otherwise effectively perform assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(e) Addiction. Individuals may not have any established medical history or medical diagnosis of habitual alcoholism or drug addiction, or, where this type of condition has existed, the individual shall provide certified documentation of having completed a rehabilitation program which would give a reasonable degree of confidence that the individual would be capable of effectively performing assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(f) Other physical requirements. An individual who has been incapacitated due to a serious illness, injury, disease, or operation, which could interfere with the effective performance of assigned duties and responsibilities shall, before resumption of assigned duties and responsibilities, provide medical evidence of recovery and ability to perform these duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>3. Psychological qualifications.
</P>
<P>(a) Armed and unarmed individuals shall demonstrate the ability to apply good judgment, mental alertness, the capability to implement instructions and assigned tasks, and possess the acuity of senses and ability of expression sufficient to permit accurate communication by written, spoken, audible, visible, or other signals required by assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensed psychologist, psychiatrist, or physician trained in part to identify emotional instability shall determine whether armed members of the security organization and alarm station operators in addition to meeting the requirement stated in paragraph (a) of this section, have no emotional instability that would interfere with the effective performance of assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(c) A person professionally trained to identify emotional instability shall determine whether unarmed individuals in addition to meeting the requirement stated in paragraph (a) of this section, have no emotional instability that would interfere with the effective performance of assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>4. Medical examinations and physical fitness qualifications.
</P>
<P>(a) Armed members of the security organization shall be subject to a medical examination by a licensed physician, to determine the individual's fitness to participate in physical fitness tests.
</P>
<P>(1) The licensee shall obtain and retain a written certification from the licensed physician that no medical conditions were disclosed by the medical examination that would preclude the individual's ability to participate in the physical fitness tests or meet the physical fitness attributes or objectives associated with assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Before assignment, armed members of the security organization shall demonstrate physical fitness for assigned duties and responsibilities by performing a practical physical fitness test.
</P>
<P>(1) The physical fitness test must consider physical conditions such as strenuous activity, physical exertion, levels of stress, and exposure to the elements as they pertain to each individual's assigned security duties for both normal and emergency operations and must simulate site specific conditions under which the individual will be required to perform assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall describe the physical fitness test in the Commission-approved training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(3) The physical fitness test must include physical attributes and performance objectives which demonstrate the strength, endurance, and agility, consistent with assigned duties in the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures during normal and emergency conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) The physical fitness qualification of each armed member of the security organization must be documented by a qualified training instructor and attested to by a security supervisor.
</P>
<P>5. Physical requalification.
</P>
<P>(a) At least annually, armed and unarmed individuals shall be required to demonstrate the capability to meet the physical requirements of this appendix and the licensee training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(b) The physical requalification of each armed and unarmed individual must be documented by a qualified training instructor and attested to by a security supervisor.
</P>
<P>C. Duty Training
</P>
<P>1. Duty training and qualification requirements. All personnel who are assigned to perform any security-related duty or responsibility shall be trained and qualified to perform assigned duties and responsibilities to ensure that each individual possesses the minimum knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively carry out those assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(a) The areas of knowledge, skills, and abilities that are required to perform assigned duties and responsibilities must be identified in the licensee's Commission-approved training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Each individual who is assigned duties and responsibilities identified in the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures shall, before assignment:
</P>
<P>(1) Be trained to perform assigned duties and responsibilities in accordance with the requirements of this appendix and the Commission-approved training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Meet the minimum qualification requirements of this appendix and the Commission-approved training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(3) Be trained and qualified in the use of all equipment or devices required to effectively perform all assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>2. On-the-job training.
</P>
<P>(a) The licensee training and qualification program must include on-the-job training performance standards and criteria to ensure that each individual demonstrates the requisite knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to effectively carry-out assigned duties and responsibilities in accordance with the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures, before the individual is assigned the duty or responsibility.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to meeting the requirement stated in paragraph C.2.(a) of this appendix, before assignment, individuals (e.g., response team leaders, alarm station operators, armed responders, and armed security officers designated as a component of the protective strategy) assigned duties and responsibilities to implement the Safeguards Contingency Plan shall complete a minimum of 40 hours of on-the-job training to demonstrate their ability to effectively apply the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively perform assigned <I>contingency</I> duties and responsibilities in accordance with the approved safeguards contingency plan, other security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures. On-the-job training must be documented by a qualified training instructor and attested to by a security supervisor.
</P>
<P>(c) On-the-job training for contingency activities and drills must include, but is not limited to, hands-on application of knowledge, skills, and abilities related to:
</P>
<P>(1) Response team duties.
</P>
<P>(2) Use of force.
</P>
<P>(3) Tactical movement.
</P>
<P>(4) Cover and concealment.
</P>
<P>(5) Defensive positions.
</P>
<P>(6) Fields-of-fire.
</P>
<P>(7) Re-deployment.
</P>
<P>(8) Communications (primary and alternate).
</P>
<P>(9) Use of assigned equipment.
</P>
<P>(10) Target sets.
</P>
<P>(11) Table top drills.
</P>
<P>(12) Command and control duties.
</P>
<P>(13) Licensee Protective Strategy.
</P>
<P>3. Performance Evaluation Program.
</P>
<P>(a) Licensees shall develop, implement and maintain a Performance Evaluation Program that is documented in procedures which describes how the licensee will demonstrate and assess the effectiveness of their onsite physical protection program and protective strategy, including the capability of the armed response team to carry out their assigned duties and responsibilities during safeguards contingency events. The Performance Evaluation Program and procedures shall be referenced in the licensee's Training and Qualifications Plan.
</P>
<P>(b) The Performance Evaluation Program shall include procedures for the conduct of tactical response drills and force-on-force exercises designed to demonstrate and assess the effectiveness of the licensee's physical protection program, protective strategy and contingency event response by all individuals with responsibilities for implementing the safeguards contingency plan.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall conduct tactical response drills and force-on-force exercises in accordance with Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) Tactical response drills and force-on-force exercises must be designed to challenge the site protective strategy against elements of the design basis threat and ensure each participant assigned security duties and responsibilities identified in the Commission-approved security plans, the licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures demonstrate the requisite knowledge, skills, and abilities.
</P>
<P>(e) Tactical response drills, force-on-force exercises, and associated contingency response training shall be conducted under conditions that simulate, as closely as practicable, the site-specific conditions under which each member will, or may be, required to perform assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(f) The scope of tactical response drills conducted for training purposes shall be determined by the licensee and must address site-specific, individual or programmatic elements, and may be limited to specific portions of the site protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(g) Each tactical response drill and force-on-force exercise shall include a documented post-exercise critique in which participants identify failures, deficiencies or other findings in performance, plans, equipment or strategies.
</P>
<P>(h) Licensees shall document scenarios and participants for all tactical response drills and annual force-on-force exercises conducted.
</P>
<P>(i) Findings, deficiencies and failures identified during tactical response drills and force-on-force exercises that adversely affect or decrease the effectiveness of the protective strategy and physical protection program shall be entered into the licensee's corrective action program to ensure that timely corrections are made to the appropriate program areas.
</P>
<P>(j) Findings, deficiencies and failures associated with the onsite physical protection program and protective strategy shall be protected as necessary in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR 73.21.
</P>
<P>(k) For the purpose of tactical response drills and force-on-force exercises, licensees shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Use no more than the total number of armed responders and armed security officers documented in the security plans.
</P>
<P>(2) Minimize the number and effects of artificialities associated with tactical response drills and force-on-force exercises.
</P>
<P>(3) Implement the use of systems or methodologies that simulate the realities of armed engagement through visual and audible means, and reflect the capabilities of armed personnel to neutralize a target through the use of firearms.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that each scenario used provides a credible, realistic challenge to the protective strategy and the capabilities of the security response organization.
</P>
<P>(l) The Performance Evaluation Program must be designed to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Each member of each shift who is assigned duties and responsibilities required to implement the safeguards contingency plan and licensee protective strategy participates in at least one (1) tactical response drill on a quarterly basis and one (1) force-on-force exercise on an annual basis. Force-on-force exercises conducted to satisfy the NRC triennial evaluation requirement can be used to satisfy the annual force-on-force requirement for the personnel that participate in the capacity of the security response organization.
</P>
<P>(2) The mock adversary force replicates, as closely as possible, adversary characteristics and capabilities of the design basis threat described in 10 CFR 73.1(a)(1), and is capable of exploiting and challenging the licensees protective strategy, personnel, command and control, and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(3) Protective strategies can be evaluated and challenged through the conduct of tactical response tabletop demonstrations.
</P>
<P>(4) Drill and exercise controllers are trained and qualified to ensure that each controller has the requisite knowledge and experience to control and evaluate exercises.
</P>
<P>(5) Tactical response drills and force-on-force exercises are conducted safely and in accordance with site safety plans.
</P>
<P>(m) Scenarios.
</P>
<P>(1) Licensees shall develop and document multiple scenarios for use in conducting quarterly tactical response drills and annual force-on-force exercises.
</P>
<P>(2) Licensee scenarios must be designed to test and challenge any components or combination of components, of the onsite physical protection program and protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(3) Each scenario must use a unique target set or target sets, and varying combinations of adversary equipment, strategies, and tactics, to ensure that the combination of all scenarios challenges every component of the onsite physical protection program and protective strategy to include, but not limited to, equipment, implementing procedures, and personnel.
</P>
<P>D. Duty Qualification and Requalification
</P>
<P>1. Qualification demonstration.
</P>
<P>(a) Armed and unarmed individuals shall demonstrate the required knowledge, skills, and abilities to carry out assigned duties and responsibilities as stated in the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) This demonstration must include written exams and hands-on performance demonstrations.
</P>
<P>(1) Written Exams. The written exams must include those elements listed in the Commission-approved training and qualification plan and shall require a minimum score of 80 percent to demonstrate an acceptable understanding of assigned duties and responsibilities, to include the recognition of potential tampering involving both safety and security equipment and systems.
</P>
<P>(2) Hands-on Performance Demonstrations. Armed and unarmed individuals shall demonstrate hands-on performance for assigned duties and responsibilities by performing a practical hands-on demonstration for required tasks. The hands-on demonstration must ensure that theory and associated learning objectives for each required task are considered and each individual demonstrates the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to effectively perform the task.
</P>
<P>(3) Annual Written Exam. Armed individuals shall be administered an annual written exam that demonstrates the required knowledge, skills, and abilities to carry out assigned duties and responsibilities as an armed member of the security organization. The annual written exam must include those elements listed in the Commission-approved training and qualification plan and shall require a minimum score of 80 percent to demonstrate an acceptable understanding of assigned duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon request by an authorized representative of the Commission, any individual assigned to perform any security-related duty or responsibility shall demonstrate the required knowledge, skills, and abilities for each assigned duty and responsibility, as stated in the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, or implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>2. Requalification.
</P>
<P>(a) Armed and unarmed individuals shall be requalified at least annually in accordance with the requirements of this appendix and the Commission-approved training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(b) The results of requalification must be documented by a qualified training instructor and attested by a security supervisor.
</P>
<P>E. Weapons Training
</P>
<P>1. General firearms training.
</P>
<P>(a) Armed members of the security organization shall be trained and qualified in accordance with the requirements of this appendix and the Commission-approved training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Firearms instructors.
</P>
<P>(1) Each armed member of the security organization shall be trained and qualified by a certified firearms instructor for the use and maintenance of each assigned weapon to include but not limited to, marksmanship, assembly, disassembly, cleaning, storage, handling, clearing, loading, unloading, and reloading, for each assigned weapon.
</P>
<P>(2) Firearms instructors shall be certified from a national or state recognized entity.
</P>
<P>(3) Certification must specify the weapon or weapon type(s) for which the instructor is qualified to teach.
</P>
<P>(4) Firearms instructors shall be recertified in accordance with the standards recognized by the certifying national or state entity, but in no case shall recertification exceed three (3) years.
</P>
<P>(c) Annual firearms familiarization. The licensee shall conduct annual firearms familiarization training in accordance with the Commission-approved training and qualification plan.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission-approved training and qualification plan shall include, but is not limited to, the following areas:
</P>
<P>(1) Mechanical assembly, disassembly, weapons capabilities and fundamentals of marksmanship.
</P>
<P>(2) Weapons cleaning and storage.
</P>
<P>(3) Combat firing, day and night.
</P>
<P>(4) Safe weapons handling.
</P>
<P>(5) Clearing, loading, unloading, and reloading.
</P>
<P>(6) Firing under stress.
</P>
<P>(7) Zeroing duty weapon(s) and weapons sighting adjustments.
</P>
<P>(8) Target identification and engagement.
</P>
<P>(9) Weapon malfunctions.
</P>
<P>(10) Cover and concealment.
</P>
<P>(11) Weapon familiarization.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall ensure that each armed member of the security organization is instructed on the use of deadly force as authorized by applicable state law.
</P>
<P>(f) Armed members of the security organization shall participate in weapons range activities on a nominal four (4) month periodicity. Performance may be conducted up to five (5) weeks before, to five (5) weeks after, the scheduled date. The next scheduled date must be four (4) months from the originally scheduled date.
</P>
<P>F. Weapons Qualification and Requalification Program
</P>
<P>1. General weapons qualification requirements.
</P>
<P>(a) Qualification firing must be accomplished in accordance with Commission requirements and the Commission-approved training and qualification plan for assigned weapons.
</P>
<P>(b) The results of weapons qualification and requalification must be documented and retained as a record.
</P>
<P>2. Tactical weapons qualification. The licensee Training and Qualification Plan must describe the firearms used, the firearms qualification program, and other tactical training required to implement the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures. Licensee developed tactical qualification and re-qualification courses must describe the performance criteria needed to include the site specific conditions (such as lighting, elevation, fields-of-fire) under which assigned personnel shall be required to carry-out their assigned duties.
</P>
<P>3. Firearms qualification courses. The licensee shall conduct the following qualification courses for each weapon used.
</P>
<P>(a) Annual daylight qualification course. Qualifying score must be an accumulated total of 70 percent with handgun and shotgun, and 80 percent with semiautomatic rifle and/or enhanced weapons, of the maximum obtainable target score.
</P>
<P>(b) Annual night fire qualification course. Qualifying score must be an accumulated total of 70 percent with handgun and shotgun, and 80 percent with semiautomatic rifle and/or enhanced weapons, of the maximum obtainable target score.
</P>
<P>(c) Annual tactical qualification course. Qualifying score must be an accumulated total of 80 percent of the maximum obtainable score.
</P>
<P>4. Courses of fire.
</P>
<P>(a) Handgun. Armed members of the security organization, assigned duties and responsibilities involving the use of a revolver or semiautomatic pistol shall qualify in accordance with standards established by a law enforcement course, or an equivalent nationally recognized course.
</P>
<P>(b) Semiautomatic rifle. Armed members of the security organization, assigned duties and responsibilities involving the use of a semiautomatic rifle shall qualify in accordance with the standards established by a law enforcement course, or an equivalent nationally recognized course.
</P>
<P>(c) Shotgun. Armed members of the security organization, assigned duties and responsibilities involving the use of a shotgun shall qualify in accordance with standards established by a law enforcement course, or an equivalent nationally recognized course.
</P>
<P>(d) Enhanced weapons. Armed members of the security organization, assigned duties and responsibilities involving the use of any weapon or weapons not described previously shall qualify in accordance with applicable standards established by a law enforcement course or an equivalent nationally recognized course for these weapons.
</P>
<P>5. Firearms requalification.
</P>
<P>(a) Armed members of the security organization shall be re-qualified for each assigned weapon at least annually in accordance with Commission requirements and the Commission-approved training and qualification plan, and the results documented and retained as a record.
</P>
<P>(b) Firearms requalification must be conducted using the courses of fire outlined in paragraphs F.2, F.3, and F.4 of this section.
</P>
<P>G. Weapons, Personal Equipment and Maintenance
</P>
<P>1. Weapons. The licensee shall provide armed personnel with weapons that are capable of performing the function stated in the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>2. Personal equipment.
</P>
<P>(a) The licensee shall ensure that each individual is equipped or has ready access to all personal equipment or devices required for the effective implementation of the Commission-approved security plans, licensee protective strategy, and implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall provide armed security personnel, required for the effective implementation of the Commission-approved Safeguards Contingency Plan and implementing procedures, at a minimum, but is not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Gas mask, full face.
</P>
<P>(2) Body armor (bullet-resistant vest).
</P>
<P>(3) Ammunition/equipment belt.
</P>
<P>(4) Two-way portable radios, 2 channels minimum, 1 operating and 1 emergency.
</P>
<P>(c) Based upon the licensee protective strategy and the specific duties and responsibilities assigned to each individual, the licensee should provide, as appropriate, but is not limited to, the following.
</P>
<P>(1) Flashlights and batteries.
</P>
<P>(2) Baton or other non-lethal weapons.
</P>
<P>(3) Handcuffs.
</P>
<P>(4) Binoculars.
</P>
<P>(5) Night vision aids (e.g., goggles, weapons sights).
</P>
<P>(6) Hand-fired illumination flares or equivalent.
</P>
<P>(7) Duress alarms.
</P>
<P>3. Maintenance.
</P>
<P>(a) Firearms maintenance program. Each licensee shall implement a firearms maintenance and accountability program in accordance with the Commission regulations and the Commission-approved training and qualification plan. The program must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Semiannual test firing for accuracy and functionality.
</P>
<P>(2) Firearms maintenance procedures that include cleaning schedules and cleaning requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Program activity documentation.
</P>
<P>(4) Control and accountability (weapons and ammunition).
</P>
<P>(5) Firearm storage requirements.
</P>
<P>(6) Armorer certification.
</P>
<P>H. Records
</P>
<P>1. The licensee shall retain all reports, records, or other documentation required by this appendix in accordance with the requirements of § 73.55(q).
</P>
<P>2. The licensee shall retain each individual's initial qualification record for three (3) years after termination of the individual's employment and shall retain each re-qualification record for three (3) years after it is superseded.
</P>
<P>3. The licensee shall document data and test results from each individual's suitability, physical, and psychological qualification and shall retain this documentation as a record for three (3) years from the date of obtaining and recording these results.
</P>
<P>I. Reviews
</P>
<P>The licensee shall review the Commission-approved training and qualification program in accordance with the requirements of § 73.55(m).
</P>
<P>J. Definitions
</P>
<P>Terms defined in parts 50, 70, and 73 of this chapter have the same meaning when used in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 37426, Aug. 23, 1978, as amended at 46 FR 2026, Jan. 8, 1981; 53 FR 405, Jan. 7, 1988; 53 FR 19261, May 27, 1988; 57 FR 33432, July 29, 1992; 57 FR 61787, Dec. 29, 1992; 59 FR 50689, Oct. 5, 1994; 74 FR 13987, Mar. 27, 2009; 77 FR 39910, July 6, 2012; 84 FR 63569, Nov. 18, 2019; 88 FR 15898, Mar. 14, 2023; 91 FR 15877, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.5.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 73—Licensee Safeguards Contingency Plans


</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Safeguards Contingency Plan
</HD1>
<P>Licensees, applicants, and certificate holders, with the exception of those who are subject to the requirements of § 73.55 shall comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>A licensee safeguards contingency plan is a documented plan to give guidance to licensee personnel in order to accomplish specific defined objectives in the event of threats, thefts, or radiological sabotage relating to special nuclear material or nuclear facilities licensed under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. An acceptable safeguards contingency plan must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A predetermined set of decisions and actions to satisfy stated objectives;
</P>
<P>(2) An identification of the data, criteria, procedures, and mechanisms necessary to efficiently implement the decisions; and
</P>
<P>(3) A stipulation of the individual, group, or organizational entity responsible for each decision and action.
</P>
<P>The goals of licensee safeguards contingency plans for responding to threats, thefts, and radiological sabotage are:
</P>
<P>(1) To organize the response effort at the licensee level;
</P>
<P>(2) To provide predetermined, structured responses by licensees to safeguards contingencies;
</P>
<P>(3) To ensure the integration of the licensee response with the responses by other entities; and
</P>
<P>(4) To achieve a measurable performance in response capability.
</P>
<P>Licensee safeguards contingency planning should result in organizing the licensee's resources in such a way that the participants will be identified, their several responsibilities specified, and the responses coordinated. The responses should be timely.
</P>
<P>It is important to note that a licensee's safeguards contingency plan is intended to be complementary to any emergency plans developed under appendix E to part 50 of this chapter, § 52.17 or § 52.79, or to § 70.22(i) of this chapter.
</P>
<HD1>contents of the plan 
</HD1>
<P>Each licensee safeguards contingency plan shall include five categories of information:
</P>
<P2>1. Background 
</P2>
<P2>2. Generic Planning Base 
</P2>
<P2>3. Licensee Planning Base 
</P2>
<P2>4. Responsibility Matrix 
</P2>
<P2>5. Procedures
</P2>
<P>Although the implementing procedures (the fifth category of Plan information) are the culmination of the planning process, and therefore are an integral and important part of the safeguards contingency plan, they entail operating details subject to frequent changes. They need not be submitted to the Commission for approval, but will be inspected by NRC staff on a periodic basis. The licensee is responsible for ensuring that the implementing procedures reflect the information in the Responsibility Matrix, appropriately summarized and suitably presented for effective use by the responding entities. 
</P>
<P>The following paragraphs describe the contents of the safeguards contingency plan. 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Background.</I> Under the following topics, this category of information shall identify and define the perceived dangers and incidents with which the plan will deal and the general way it will handle these: 
</P>
<P>a. Perceived Danger—A statement of the perceived danger to the security of special nuclear material, licensee personnel, and licensee property, including covert diversion of special nuclear material, radiological sabotage, and overt attacks. The statement of perceived danger should conform with that promulgated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. (The statement contained in 10 CFR 73.55(a) or subsequent Commission statements will suffice.) 
</P>
<P>b. Purpose of the Plan—A discussion of the general aims and operational concepts underlying implementation of the plan. 
</P>
<P>c. Scope of the Plan—A delineation of the types of incidents covered in the plan. 
</P>
<P>d. Definitions—A list of terms and their definitions used in describing operational and technical aspects of the plan. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Generic Planning Base.</I> Under the following topics, this category of information shall define the criteria for initiation and termination of responses to safeguards contingencies together with the specific decisions, actions, and supporting information needed to bring about such responses: 
</P>
<P>a. Identification of those events that will be used for signaling the beginning or aggravation of a safeguards contingency according to how they are perceived initially by licensee's personnel. Such events may include alarms or other indications signaling penetration of a protected area, vital area, or material access area; material control or material accounting indications of material missing or unaccounted for; or threat indications—either verbal, such as telephoned threats, or implied, such as escalating civil disturbances. 
</P>
<P>b. Definition of the specific objective to be accomplished relative to each identified event. The objective may be to obtain a level of awareness about the nature and severity of the safeguards contingency in order to prepare for further responses; to establish a level of response preparedness; or to successfully nullify or reduce any adverse safeguards consequences arising from the contingency. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Licensee Planning Base.</I> This category of information shall include the factors affecting contingency planning that are specific for each facility or means of transportation. To the extent that the topics are treated in adequate detail in the licensee's approved physical security plan, they may be incorporated by cross reference to that plan. The following topics should be addressed: 
</P>
<P>a. Licensee's Organizational Structure for Contingency Responses—A delineation of the organization's chain of command and delegation of authority as these apply to safeguards contingencies. 
</P>
<P>b. Physical Layout—(i) Fixed Sites—A description of the physical structures and their location on the site, and a description of the site in relation to nearby town, roads, and other environmental features important to the effective coordination of response operations. Particular emphasis should be placed on main and alternate entry routes for law-enforcement assistance forces and the location of control points for marshalling and coordinating response activities. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Transportation—A description of the vehicles, shipping routes, preplanned alternate routes, and related features. 
</P>
<P>c. Safeguards Systems Hardware—A description of the physical security and accounting system hardware that influence how the licensee will respond to an event. Examples of systems to be discussed are communications, alarms, locks, seals, area access, armaments, and surveillance. 
</P>
<P>d. Law Enforcement Assistance—A listing of available local law enforcement agencies and a description of their response capabilities and their criteria for response; and a discussion of working agreements or arrangements for communicating with these agencies. 
</P>
<P>e. Policy Constraints and Assumptions—A discussion of State laws, local ordinances, and company policies and practices that govern licensee response to incidents. Examples that may be discussed include: 
</P>
<P2>Use of deadly force; 
</P2>
<P2>Use of employee property; 
</P2>
<P2>Use of off-duty employees; 
</P2>
<P2>Site security jurisdictional boundaries.
</P2>
<P>f. Administrative and Logistical Considerations—Descriptions of licensee practices that may have an influence on the response to safeguards contingency events. The considerations shall include a description of the procedures that will be used for ensuring that all equipment needed to effect a successful response to a safeguards contingency will be easily accessible, in good working order, and in sufficient supply to provide redundancy in case of equipment failure. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Responsibility Matrix.</I> This category of information consists of detailed identification of the organizational entities responsible for each decision and action associated with specific responses to safeguards contingencies. For each initiating event, a tabulation shall be made for each response entity depicting the assignment of responsibilities for all decisions and actions to be taken in response to the initiating event. (Not all entities will have assigned responsibilities for any given initiating event.) The tabulations in the Responsibility Matrix shall provide an overall picture of the response actions and their interrelationships. Safeguards responsibilities shall be assigned in a manner that precludes conflict in duties or responsibilities that would prevent the execution of the plan in any safeguards contingency. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Procedures.</I> In order to aid execution of the detailed plan as developed in the Responsibility Matrix, this category of information shall detail the actions to be taken and decisions to be made by each member or unit of the organization as planned in the Responsibility Matrix.
</P>
<HD1>Audit and Review
</HD1>
<P>(1) For nuclear facilities subject to the requirements of § 73.46, the licensee shall provide for a review of the safeguards contingency plan at intervals not to exceed 12 months. For nuclear power reactor licensees subject to the requirements of § 73.55, the licensee shall provide for a review of the safeguards contingency plan either:
</P>
<P>(i) At intervals not to exceed 12 months, or
</P>
<P>(ii) As necessary, based on an assessment by the licensee against performance indicators, and as soon as reasonably practicable after a change occurs in personnel, procedures, equipment, or facilities that potentially could adversely affect security, but no longer than 12 months after the change. In any case, each element of the safeguards contingency plan must be reviewed at least every 24 months.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee subject to the requirements of either § 73.46 or § 73.55 shall ensure that the review of the safeguards contingency plan is by individuals independent of both security program management and personnel who have direct responsibility for implementation of the security program. The review must include an audit of safeguards contingency procedures and practices, and an audit of commitments established for response by local law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall document the results and the recommendations of the safeguards contingency plan review, management findings on whether the safeguards contingency plan is currently effective, and any actions taken as a result of recommendations from prior reviews in a report to the licensee's plant manager and to corporate management at least one level higher than that having responsibility for the day-to-day plant operation. The report must be maintained in an auditable form, available for inspection for a period of 3 years. 


</P>
<HD1>II. Nuclear Power Plant Safeguards Contingency Plans 
</HD1>
<HD1>A. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>The safeguards contingency plan is a documented plan that describes how licensee personnel implement their physical protection program to defend against threats to their facility, up to and including the design basis threat of radiological sabotage. The goals of licensee safeguards contingency plans are:
</P>
<P>(1) To organize the response effort at the licensee level;
</P>
<P>(2) To provide predetermined, structured response by licensees to safeguards contingencies;
</P>
<P>(3) To ensure the integration of the licensee response by other entities; and
</P>
<P>(4) To achieve a measurable performance in response capability.
</P>
<P>Licensee safeguards contingency planning should result in organizing the licensee's resources in such a way that the participants will be identified, their responsibilities specified, and the responses coordinated. The responses should be timely, and include personnel who are trained and qualified to respond in accordance with a documented training and qualification program.
</P>
<P>The evaluation, validation, and testing of this portion of the program shall be conducted in accordance with appendix B, section VI of this part, Nuclear Power Reactor Training and Qualification Plan for Personnel Performing Security Program Duties. The licensee's safeguards contingency plan is intended to maintain effectiveness during the implementation of emergency plans developed under appendix E to part 50 of this chapter.
</P>
<HD1>B. Contents of the Plan
</HD1>
<P>Each safeguards contingency plan shall include five (5) categories of information:
</P>
<P>(1) Background.
</P>
<P>(2) Generic planning base.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensee planning base.
</P>
<P>(4) Responsibility matrix.
</P>
<P>(5) Implementing procedures.
</P>
<P>Although the implementing procedures (the fifth category of plan information) are the culmination of the planning process, and are an integral and important part of the safeguards contingency plan, they entail operating details subject to frequent changes. They need not be submitted to the Commission for approval, but are subject to inspection by NRC staff on a periodic basis.
</P>
<P>1. Background. This category of information shall identify the perceived dangers and incidents that the plan will address and a general description of how the response is organized.
</P>
<P>a. Perceived Danger—Consistent with the design basis threat specified in § 73.1(a)(1), licensees shall identify and describe the perceived dangers, threats, and incidents against which the safeguards contingency plan is designed to protect.
</P>
<P>b. Purpose of the Plan—Licensees shall describe the general goals, objectives and operational concepts underlying the implementation of the approved safeguards contingency plan.
</P>
<P>c. Scope of the Plan—A delineation of the types of incidents covered by the plan.
</P>
<P>(i) How the onsite response effort is organized and coordinated to effectively respond to a safeguards contingency event.
</P>
<P>(ii) How the onsite response for safeguards contingency events has been integrated in other site emergency response procedures.
</P>
<P>d. Definitions—A list of terms and their definitions used in describing operational and technical aspects of the approved safeguards contingency plan.
</P>
<P>2. Generic Planning Base. Licensees shall define the criteria for initiation and termination of responses to security events to include the specific decisions, actions, and supporting information needed to respond to each type of incident covered by the approved safeguards contingency plan. To achieve this result the generic planning base must:
</P>
<P>a. Identify those events that will be used for signaling the beginning or aggravation of a safeguards contingency event according to how they are perceived initially by licensee's personnel. Licensees shall ensure detection of unauthorized activities and shall respond to all alarms or other indications signaling a security event, such as penetration of a protected area, vital area, or unauthorized barrier penetration (vehicle or personnel); tampering, bomb threats, or other threat warnings—either verbal, such as telephoned threats, or implied, such as escalating civil disturbances.
</P>
<P>b. Define the specific objective to be accomplished relative to each identified safeguards contingency event. The objective may be to obtain a level of awareness about the nature and severity of the safeguards contingency to prepare for further responses; to establish a level of response preparedness; or to successfully nullify or reduce any adverse safeguards consequences arising from the contingency.
</P>
<P>c. Identify the data, criteria, procedures, mechanisms and logistical support necessary to achieve the objectives identified.
</P>
<P>3. Licensee Planning Base. This category of information shall include factors affecting safeguards contingency planning that are specific for each facility. To the extent that the topics are treated in adequate detail in the licensee's approved physical security plan, they may be incorporated by reference in the Safeguards Contingency Plan. The following topics must be addressed:
</P>
<P>a. Organizational Structure. The safeguards contingency plan must describe the organization's chain of command and delegation of authority during safeguards contingency events, to include a general description of how command and control functions will be coordinated and maintained.
</P>
<P>b. Physical Layout. The safeguards contingency plan must include a site map depicting the physical structures located on the site, including onsite independent spent fuel storage installations, and a description of the structures depicted on the map. Plans must also include a description and map of the site in relation to nearby towns, transportation routes (e.g., rail, water, and roads), pipelines, airports, hazardous material facilities, and pertinent environmental features that may have an effect upon coordination of response activities. Descriptions and maps must indicate main and alternate entry routes for law enforcement or other offsite response and support agencies and the location for marshaling and coordinating response activities.
</P>
<P>c. Safeguards Systems. The safeguards contingency plan must include a description of the physical security systems that support and influence how the licensee will respond to an event in accordance with the design basis threat described in § 73.1(a). The licensee's description shall begin with onsite physical protection measures implemented at the outermost facility perimeter, and must move inward through those measures implemented to protect target set equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) Physical security systems and security systems hardware to be discussed include security systems and measures that provide defense-in-depth, such as physical barriers, alarm systems, locks, area access, armaments, surveillance, and communications systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific structure of the security response organization to include the total number of armed responders and armed security officers documented in the approved security plans as a component of the protective strategy and a general description of response capabilities shall also be included in the safeguards contingency plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licensees shall ensure that individuals assigned duties and responsibilities to implement the safeguards contingency plan are trained and qualified in those duties according to the Commission approved security plans, and the performance evaluation program.
</P>
<P>(iv) Armed responders shall be available to respond from designated areas inside the protected area at all times and may not be assigned any other duties or responsibilities that could interfere with assigned armed response team duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(v) Licensees shall develop, implement, and maintain a written protective strategy to be documented in procedures that describe in detail the physical protection measures, security systems and deployment of the armed response team relative to site specific conditions, to include but not be limited to, facility layout, and the location of target set equipment and elements. The protective strategy should support the general goals, operational concepts, and performance objectives identified in the licensee's safeguards contingency plan. The protective strategy shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be designed to meet the performance requirements and objectives of § 73.55(a) through (k).
</P>
<P>(2) Identify predetermined actions, areas of responsibility and timelines for the deployment of armed personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) Contain measures that limit the exposure of security personnel to possible attack, including incorporation of bullet resisting protected positions.
</P>
<P>(4) Contain a description of the physical security systems and measures that provide defense-in-depth such as physical barriers, alarm systems, locks, area access, armaments, surveillance, and communications systems.
</P>
<P>(5) Describe the specific structure and responsibilities of the armed response organization to include:
</P>
<P>The authorized minimum number of armed responders, available at all times inside the protected area.
</P>
<P>The authorized minimum number of armed security officers, available onsite at all times.
</P>
<P>The total number of armed responders and armed security officers documented in the approved security plans as a component of the protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(6) Provide a command and control structure, to include response by off-site law enforcement agencies, which ensures that decisions and actions are coordinated and communicated in a timely manner to facilitate response.
</P>
<P>d. Law Enforcement Assistance. Provide a listing of available law enforcement agencies and a general description of their response capabilities and their criteria for response and a discussion of working agreements or arrangements for communicating with these agencies.
</P>
<P>e. Policy Constraints and Assumptions. The safeguards contingency plan shall contain a discussion of State laws, local ordinances, and company policies and practices that govern licensee response to incidents and must include, but is not limited to, the following.
</P>
<P>(i) Use of deadly force.
</P>
<P>(ii) Recall of off-duty employees.
</P>
<P>(iii) Site jurisdictional boundaries.
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of enhanced weapons, if applicable.
</P>
<P>f. Administrative and Logistical Considerations. Descriptions of licensee practices which influence how the security organization responds to a safeguards contingency event to include, but not limited to, a description of the procedures that will be used for ensuring that equipment needed to facilitate response will be readily accessible, in good working order, and in sufficient supply.
</P>
<P>4. Responsibility Matrix. This category of information consists of the detailed identification of responsibilities and specific actions to be taken by licensee organizations and/or personnel in response to safeguards contingency events.
</P>
<P>a. Licensees shall develop site procedures that consist of matrixes detailing the organization and/or personnel responsible for decisions and actions associated with specific responses to safeguards contingency events. The responsibility matrix and procedures shall be referenced in the licensee's safeguards contingency plan.
</P>
<P>b. Responsibility matrix procedures shall be based on the events outlined in the licensee's Generic Planning Base and must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The definition of the specific objective to be accomplished relative to each identified safeguards contingency event. The objective may be to obtain a level of awareness about the nature and severity of the safeguards contingency to prepare for further responses, to establish a level of response preparedness, or to successfully nullify or reduce any adverse safeguards consequences arising from the contingency.
</P>
<P>(ii) A tabulation for each identified initiating event and each response entity which depicts the assignment of responsibilities for decisions and actions to be taken in response to the initiating event.
</P>
<P>(iii) An overall description of response actions and interrelationships specifically associated with each responsible entity must be included.
</P>
<P>c. Responsibilities shall be assigned in a manner that precludes conflict of duties and responsibilities that would prevent the execution of the safeguards contingency plan and emergency response plans.
</P>
<P>d. Licensees shall ensure that predetermined actions can be completed under the postulated conditions.
</P>
<P>5. Implementing Procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) Licensees shall establish and maintain written implementing procedures that provide specific guidance and operating details that identify the actions to be taken and decisions to be made by each member of the security organization who is assigned duties and responsibilities required for the effective implementation of the security plans and the site protective strategy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Licensees shall ensure that implementing procedures accurately reflect the information contained in the Responsibility Matrix required by this appendix, the security plans, and other site plans.
</P>
<P>(iii) Implementing procedures need not be submitted to the Commission for approval but are subject to inspection.


</P>
<HD1>C. Records and Reviews
</HD1>
<P>1. Licensees shall review the safeguards contingency plan in accordance with the requirements of § 73.55(m).
</P>
<P>2. The safeguards contingency plan audit must include a review of applicable elements of the Physical Security Plan, Training and Qualification Plan, implementing procedures and practices, the site protective strategy, and response agreements made by local, State, and Federal law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>3. Licensees shall retain all reports, records, or other documentation required by this appendix in accordance with the requirements of § 73.55(q).
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 161i, Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 948, secs. 201, 204(b)(1), Pub L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1243, 1245 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 5841, 5844)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 11965, Mar. 23, 1978; 43 FR 14007, Apr. 4, 1978, as amended at 57 FR 33432, July 29, 1992; 64 FR 14818, Mar. 29, 1999; 72 FR 49562, Aug. 28, 2007; 74 FR 13991, Mar. 27, 2009; 77 FR 39910, July 6, 2012] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.5.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 73—Physical Protection of Irradiated Reactor Fuel in Transit, Training Program Subject Schedule


</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to the provision of § 73.37 of 10 CFR part 73, each licensee who transports or delivers to a carrier for transport irradiated reactor fuel is required to assure that individuals used as shipment escorts have completed a training program. The subjects that are to be included in this training program are as follows:
</P>
<HD2>Security Enroute
</HD2>
<FP-2>—Route planning and selection
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Vehicle operation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Procedures at stops
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Detours and use of alternate routes
</FP-2>
<HD2>Communications
</HD2>
<FP-2>—Equipment operation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Status reporting
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Contacts with law enforcement units
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Communications discipline
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Procedures for reporting incidents
</FP-2>
<HD2>Radiological Considerations
</HD2>
<FP-2>—Description of the radioactive cargo
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Function and characteristics of the shipping casks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Radiation hazards
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Federal, State and local ordinances relative to the shipment of radioactive materials
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Responsible agencies
</FP-2>
<HD2>Response to Contingencies
</HD2>
<FP-2>—Accidents
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Severe weather conditions
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Vehicle breakdown
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Communications problems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Radioactive “spills”
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Use of special equipment (flares, emergency lighting, etc.)
</FP-2>
<HD2>Response to Threats
</HD2>
<FP-2>—Reporting
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Calling for assistance
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Use of immobilization features
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Hostage situations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>—Avoiding suspicious situations
</FP-2>
<P>The licensee is also required to assure that armed individuals serving as shipment escorts, other than members of local law enforcement agencies, have completed a weapons training and qualifications program equivalent to that required of guards, as described in III and IV of appendix B of this part, to assure that each such individual is fully qualified to use weapons assigned him.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 34468, June 15, 1979, as amended at 45 FR 34710, June 3, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.5.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 73—Levels of Physical Protection To Be Applied in International Transport of Nuclear Material 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> See appendix C to part 110 of this chapter from the physical description of the categories of nuclear material as set forth in Annex I to the Convention. For the purposes of this part, the following categories of nuclear material are synonymous: 
</P>
<P>Category I is a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>Category II is special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance or irradiated fuel; and 
</P>
<P>Category III is special nuclear material of low strategic significance.</P></FTNT>
<P>(Verbatim from Annex I to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material) 
</P>
<P>(a) Levels of physical protection for nuclear material during storage incidental to international nuclear transport include: 
</P>
<P>(1) For Category III materials, storage within an area to which access is controlled; 
</P>
<P>(2) For Category II materials, storage within an area under constant surveillance by guards or electronic devices, surrounded by a physical barrier with a limited number of points of entry under appropriate control or any area with an equivalent level of physical protection; 
</P>
<P>(3) For Category I material, storage within a protected area as defined for Category II, to which, in addition, access is restricted to persons whose trustworthiness has been determined, and which is under surveillance by guards who are in close communication with appropriate response forces. Specific measures taken in this context should have as their objective the detection and prevention of any assault, unauthorized access, or unauthorized removal of material. 
</P>
<P>(b) Levels of physical protection for nuclear material during international transport include: 
</P>
<P>(1) For Category II and III materials, transportation shall take place under special precautions including prior arrangements among sender, receiver, and carrier, and prior agreement between natural or legal persons subject to the jurisdiction and regulation of exporting and importing States, specifying time, place and procedures for transferring transport responsibility; 
</P>
<P>(2) For Category I materials, transportation shall take place under special precautions identified for transportation of Category II and III materials, and in addition, under constant surveillance by escorts and under conditions which assure close communication with appropriate response forces; 
</P>
<P>(3) For natural uranium other than in the form of ore or ore residue, transportation protection for quantities exceeding 500 kilograms U shall include advance notification of shipment specifying mode of transport, expected time of arrival and [shall provide for] confirmation of receipt of shipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 9654, Mar. 26, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.5.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 73—Countries and Organizations That Are Parties to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> An updated list of party countries and organizations will appear annually in the International Atomic Energy Agency's publication, Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material, at <I>https://www-legacy.iaea.org/Publications/Documents/Conventions/cppnm_status.pdf</I>. Appendix F will be amended as required to maintain its currency.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>Countries/Organizations
</HD1>
<FP-1>Afghanistan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Albania
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Algeria
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Andorra
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Antigua and Barbuda
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Argentina
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Armenia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Australia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Austria
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Azerbaijan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bahamas
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bahrain
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bangladesh
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Belarus
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Belgium
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bolivia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bosnia and Herzegovina
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Botswana
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brazil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bulgaria
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Burkina Faso
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cabo Verde
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cambodia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cameroon
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Canada
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Central African Republic
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chile
</FP-1>
<FP-1>China
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Colombia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Comoros
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Costa Rica
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Côte d'Ivoire
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Croatia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cuba
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cyprus
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Czech Republic
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Democratic Rep. of the Congo
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Denmark
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Djibouti
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dominica
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dominican Republic
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ecuador
</FP-1>
<FP-1>El Salvador
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Equatorial Guinea
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estonia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eswatini
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fiji
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Finland
</FP-1>
<FP-1>France
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gabon
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Georgia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Germany
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ghana
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Greece
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Grenada
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guatemala
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guinea
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guinea-Bissau
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guyana
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Haiti
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Honduras
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hungary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iceland
</FP-1>
<FP-1>India
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Indonesia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Iraq
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ireland
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Israel
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Italy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jamaica
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Japan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jordan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kazakhstan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kenya
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Korea, Republic of
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kuwait
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kyrgyzstan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lao P.D.R.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Latvia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lebanon
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lesotho
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Libya
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Liechtenstein
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lithuania
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Luxembourg
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Madagascar
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Malawi
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mali
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Malta
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Marshall Islands
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mauritania
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mexico
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monaco
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mongolia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Montenegro
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Morocco
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mozambique
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Myanmar
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Namibia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nauru
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Netherlands
</FP-1>
<FP-1>New Zealand
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nicaragua
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Niger
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nigeria
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Niue
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Norway
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oman
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pakistan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Palau
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Panama
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Paraguay
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peru
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Philippines
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poland
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Portugal
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Qatar
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Republic of Moldova
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Romania
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Russian Federation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rwanda
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saint Kitts and Nevis
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saint Lucia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>San Marino
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saudi Arabia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Senegal
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Serbia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Seychelles
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Singapore
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Slovakia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Slovenia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>South Africa
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Spain
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sudan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sweden
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Switzerland
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tajikistan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thailand
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The frmr. Yug. Rep. of Macedonia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Togo
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tonga
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trinidad and Tobago
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tunisia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turkey
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turkmenistan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uganda
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ukraine
</FP-1>
<FP-1>United Arab Emirates
</FP-1>
<FP-1>United Kingdom
</FP-1>
<FP-1>United Republic of Tanzania
</FP-1>
<FP-1>United States of America
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uruguay
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uzbekistan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Viet Nam
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Yemen
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Zambia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>EURATOM
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 58465, Nov. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.5.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 73 [Reserved]



</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.13.12.121.5.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 73—Weapons Qualification Criteria
</HEAD>
<P>The B-27 Target or a target of equivalent difficulty will be used for all weapon qualification testing.

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-1—Minimum Day Firing Criteria 
<sup>1</sup>
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[see footnotes at end of Table H-1] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weapon 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Stage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">String 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of rounds 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Timing 
<sup>3</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Position 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Scoring 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Handgun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2
<br/>3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw and fire 2 rounds (repeat 2 times) 3 seconds each string</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum qualifying = 70%. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw and fire 2 rounds at center mass and 1 round at the head (repeat once) 5 seconds each string 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2
<br/>3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 seconds (4 seconds each string)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Using weaker hand only, from the low ready position, fire 2 rounds (repeat twice) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw and fire 2 rounds, come to low ready position 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fire 2 rounds from low ready position and reholster 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 seconds (revolver) 10 seconds (semiautomatic)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw and fire 2 rounds, reload, fire 2 rounds and reholster 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw and fire 2 rounds, come to low ready position 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fire 2 rounds from low ready position and reholster 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing, draw weapon, move to kneeling position, then fire 2 rounds and reholster 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing, draw weapon, move to kneeling position, then fire 2 rounds and reholster 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14 seconds (revolver) 12 seconds (semiautomatic)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing, draw weapon, fire 2 rounds, move to kneeling position and fire 2 rounds, reload and reholster</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum qualifying = 70%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw weapon and fire 2 rounds standing, come to low ready position and...
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fire 2 rounds from low ready 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw and fire 2 rounds, standing, left side of barricade 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw and fire 2 rounds, right side of barricade (standing) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 seconds (revolver) 12 seconds (semi-automatic)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw weapon and move from standing to kneeling position, fire 2 rounds, left side of barricade, reload, and from the kneeling position, fire 2 rounds, right side of barricade 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw weapon and move from standing to prone, fire 2 rounds 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw weapon and move from standing to prone, fire 2 rounds 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw weapon and fire 2 rounds from a standing barricade position (right or left side, shooter's option) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw weapon and fire 2 rounds from a kneeling barricade position (right or left side, shooter's option) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draw weapon and fire 2 rounds from prone position 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shotgun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Double 0 buck-shot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At low ready position fire 2 rounds standing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum qualifying = 70%. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 Double 0 buck-shot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At low ready position fire 2 rounds standing, reload and fire 2 rounds 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 rifled slugs or 00 buck-shot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">On command, load 4 rounds and fire 2 rounds standing and 2 rounds kneeling 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rifle</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2
<br/>3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 seconds (4 seconds for 1st string, 3 seconds for each of 2nd and 3rd string)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing in low ready position, move to standing point shoulder position (1 magazine loaded with 6 rounds, weapon in half-load configuration), fire 2 rounds per string</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum qualifying = 70%. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2
<br/>3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11 seconds (5 seconds for 1st string, 3 seconds for each of 2nd and 3rd string)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing in low ready position, move to standing point shoulder position (1 magazine loaded with 6 rounds, weapon in half-load configuration), fire 2 rounds per string 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2
<br/>3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">17 seconds (7 seconds for 1st string, 5 seconds for each of 2nd and 3rd string)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing in low ready position, move to kneeling point shoulder position (1 magazine loaded with 6 rounds, weapon in half-load configuration), fire 2 rounds per string
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
<br/>2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16 seconds (9 seconds for 1st string, 7 second for 2nd string)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing in low ready position, move to kneeling point shoulder position (1 magazine loaded with 4 rounds, weapon in half-load configuration), fire 2 rounds per string 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>4</sup>5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing in low ready position, move to prone (weapon in half-load configuration) with two magazines each loaded with 2 rounds, fire 2 rounds, reload with 2nd magazine and fire 2 rounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum qualifying = 70%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>4</sup>6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 yards</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing in low ready position, move to prone (weapon in half-load configuration) two magazines each loaded with 2 rounds, fire 2 rounds, reload with 2nd magazine and fire 2 rounds
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Footnotes:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This day firing qualifications course is to be used by all TRT members, armed response personnel, and guards. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> A string is one of the different phases within a single stage. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Security personnel will be timed as shown. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Stages 5 and 6 are to be used for .30 caliber or larger rifles.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table H-2—Minimum Night Firing Criteria
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weapon 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Stage 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distance 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No. of rounds 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Timing 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Position 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Scoring 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lighting
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Handgun (Rev.)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing-no artificial support</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum qualifying = 70%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For all courses 0.2 footcandles at center mass of target area.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 seconds 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Handgun (Semi-)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 + clip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing-no artificial support 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 + clip</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 seconds 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shotgun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 rifled slugs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 seconds (Load 2 slugs—chamber empty—Time starts—Commence firing)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing-strong shoulder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rifled slug hits = strike area on target (10, 9, 7) 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 Double 0 buckshot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 seconds (Load 5rds Buckshot—chamber, empty—Time starts—Commence firing)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing-strong shoulder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Double 0 Buckshot: Hits in black = 2 pts (5rds × 9 pellets/rd × 2 pts = 90) Minimum qualifying = 70%
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rifle</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-5rd mag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 sec</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing-barricade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum qualifying = 70% 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-5rd mag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 sec</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standing 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-5rd mag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 sec</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kneeling 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 yds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-5rd mag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45 sec</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prone 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Note. All firing is to be done only at night. Use of night simulation equipment during daylight is not allowable. Use of site specific devices (<E T="03">i.e.</E>, laser, etc.) should be included in the licensee amended security plan for NRC approval.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 45785, Aug. 31, 1993]























</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 74—MATERIAL CONTROL AND ACCOUNTING OF SPECIAL NUCLEAR MATERIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 57, 161, 182, 223, 234, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2077, 2201, 2232, 2273, 2282, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 7579, Feb. 25, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.1.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part has been established to contain the requirements for the control and accounting of special nuclear material at fixed sites and for documenting the transfer of special nuclear material. General reporting requirements as well as specific requirements for certain licensees possessing special nuclear material of low strategic significance, special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, and formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material are included. Requirements for the control and accounting of source material at enrichment facilities are also included. 
</P>
<P>(b) The general conditions and procedures for the submittal of a license application for the activities covered in this part are detailed in § 70.22 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7579, Feb. 25, 1985, as amended at 56 FR 55998, Oct. 31, 1991; 67 FR 78144, Dec. 23, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.1.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The general reporting and recordkeeping requirements of subpart B of this part apply to each person licensed under this chapter who possesses special nuclear material in a quantity of one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium; or who transfers or receives a quantity of special nuclear material of one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium. The general reporting and recordkeeping requirements of subpart B of this part do not apply to licensees whose MC&amp;A reporting and recordkeeping requirements are covered by §§ 72.72, 72.76, and 72.78 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, specific control and accounting requirements are included in subparts C, D, and E for certain licensees who: 
</P>
<P>(1) Possess and use formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(2) Possess and use special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance; 
</P>
<P>(3) Possess and use special nuclear material of low strategic significance; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Possess uranium source material and equipment capable of producing enriched uranium. 
</P>
<P>(c) As provided in part 76 of this chapter, the regulations of this part establish procedures and criteria for material control and accounting for the issuance of a certificate of compliance or the approval of a compliance plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78144, Dec. 23, 2002, as amended at 73 FR 32463, June 9, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.1.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Abrupt loss</I> means a loss occurring in the time interval between consecutive sequential performances of a material control test which is designed to detect anomalies potentially indicative of a loss of strategic special nuclear material from a specific unit of SSNM (<I>i.e.</I>, a quantity characterized by a unique measurement) introduced into a process.
</P>
<P><I>Accessible location</I> means a process location at which SSNM could be acquired without leaving evidence of the acquisition, <I>i.e.</I>, without tools or other equipment to obviously violate the integrity of the containment. 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919), including any amendments thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Active inventory</I> means the sum of additions to inventory, beginning inventory, ending inventory, and removals from inventory, after all common terms have been excluded. Common terms are any material values which appear in the active inventory calculation more than once and come from the same measurement.
</P>
<P><I>Additions to material in process</I> means: (1) Receipts that are opened, except for receipts opened only for sampling and subsequently maintained under tamper-safing; (2) opened sealed sources; and (3) material removed from process for nonconformance with chemical or physical specifications that is subsequently reprocessed, measured for contained SSNM, and reintroduced to process. 
</P>
<P><I>Alarm Threshold</I> means a predetermined quantity of SSNM calculated from the specified probability of detection for a given loss and the standard deviation associated with a material control test. An alarm threshold serves to trigger a response action.
</P>
<P><I>Batch</I> means a portion of source material or special nuclear material handled as a unit for accounting purposes at a key measurement point and for which the composition and quantity are defined by a single set of measurements. The source material or special nuclear material may be in bulk form or contained in a number of separate items.
</P>
<P><I>Beginning inventory (BI)</I> means the book inventory quantity at the beginning of an inventory period, and is the reconciled physical inventory entered into the books as an adjusted inventory at the completion of the prior inventory period. 
</P>
<P><I>Bias</I> means the deviation of the expected value of a random variable from the corresponding correct or assigned value.
</P>
<P><I>Calibration</I> means the process of determining the numerical relationship between the observed output of a measurement system and the value, based upon reference standards, of the characteristic being measured. 
</P>
<P><I>Category IA material</I> means SSNM directly useable in the manufacture of a nuclear explosive device, except if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The dimensions are large enough (at least two meters in one dimension, greater than one meter in each of two dimensions, or greater than 25cm in each of three dimensions) to preclude hiding the item on an individual; 
</P>
<P>(2) The total weight of an encapsulated item of SSNM is such that it cannot be carried inconspicuously by one person (<I>i.e.,</I> at least 50 kilograms gross weight); or 
</P>
<P>(3) The quantity of SSNM (less than 0.05 formula kilograms) in each container requires protracted diversions to accumulate five formula kilograms. 
</P>
<P><I>Category IB material</I> means all SSNM material other than Category IA. 
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Continuous process</I> means a unit process in which feed material must be introduced in a systematic manner in order to maintain equilibrium conditions. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlled access area</I> means any temporarily or permanently established area which is clearly demarcated, access to which is controlled, and which affords isolation of the material or persons within it.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Effective kilograms of special nuclear material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For plutonium and uranium-233 their weight in kilograms;
</P>
<P>(2) For uranium with an enrichment in the isotope U
<SU>235</SU> of 0.01 (1 percent) and above, its element weight in kilograms multiplied by the square of its enrichment expressed as a decimal weight fraction; and
</P>
<P>(3) For uranium with an enrichment in the isotope U
<SU>235</SU> below 0.01 (1 percent), its element weight in kilograms multiplied by 0.0001.
</P>
<P><I>Element</I> means uranium or plutonium. 
</P>
<P><I>Estimate</I> means a specific numerical value arrived at by the application of an estimator. 
</P>
<P><I>Estimator</I> means a function of a sample measurement used to estimate a population parameter.
</P>
<P><I>Fissile isotope</I> means: (1) Uranium U-233, or (2) uranium-235 by enrichment category, (3) plutonium-239, and (4) plutonium-241.
</P>
<P><I>Formula kilogram</I> means SSNM in any combination in a quantity of 1000 grams computed by the formula, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2.5 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium).
</P>
<P><I>Formula quantity</I> means strategic special nuclear material in any combination in a quantity of 5,000 grams or more computed by the formula, grams = (grams contained U
<SU>235</SU>) + 2.5 (grams U
<SU>233</SU> + grams plutonium).
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America, which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government.
</P>
<P><I>High enriched uranium</I> means uranium enriched to 20 percent or greater in the isotope uranium-235.
</P>
<P><I>Inventory difference (ID)</I> means the arithmetic difference obtained by subtracting the quantity of SNM tabulated from a physical inventory from the book inventory quantity. Book inventory quantity is equivalent to the beginning inventory (BI) plus additions to inventory (A) minus removals from inventory (R), while the physical inventory quantity is the ending inventory (EI) for the material balance period in question (as physically determined). Thus mathematically, ID = (BI + A−R) −EI or ID = BI + A−R−EI 
</P>
<P><I>Item</I> means any discrete quantity or container of special nuclear material or source material, not undergoing processing, having an unique identity and also having an assigned element and isotope quantity.
</P>
<P><I>License,</I> except where otherwise specified, means a license issued pursuant to part 70 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Low enriched uranium</I> means uranium enriched below 20 percent in the isotope uranium-235.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Material access area</I> means any location which contains special nuclear material, within a vault or a building, the roof, walls, and floor of which constitute a physical barrier.
</P>
<P><I>Material balance</I> means the determination of an inventory difference (ID). 
</P>
<P><I>MC&amp;A alarm</I> means a situation in which there is: (1) an out-of-location item or an item whose integrity has been violated, (2) an indication of a flow of SSNM where there should be none, or (3) a difference between a measured or observed amount or property of material and its corresponding predicted or property value that exceeds a threshold established to provide the detection capability required by § 74.53.
</P>
<P><I>Material control test</I> means a comparison of a pre-established alarm threshold with the results of a process difference or process yield performed on a unit process.
</P>
<P><I>Material in process</I> means any special nuclear material possessed by the licensee except in unopened receipts, sealed sources, measured waste discards, and ultimate product maintained under tamper-safing.
</P>
<P><I>Measurement</I> includes sampling and means the determination of mass, volume, quantity, composition or other property of a material where such determinations are used for special nuclear material control and accounting purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Measurement system</I> means all of the apparatus, equipment, instruments and procedures used in performing a measurement.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy, except that the Department of Energy shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244), any state or any political subdivision of or any political entity within a state, any foreign government or nation or political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P><I>Physical inventory</I> means determination on a measured basis of the quantity of special nuclear material on hand at a given time. The methods of physical inventory and associated measurements will vary depending on the material to be inventoried and the process involved. 
</P>
<P><I>Plant</I> means a set of processes or operations (on the same site, but not necessarily all in the same building) coordinated into a single manufacturing, R&amp;D, or testing effort. A scrap recovery operation, or an analytical laboratory, serving both onsite and offsite customers (or more than one onsite manufacturing effort) should be treated as a separate plant. 
</P>
<P><I>Power of detection</I> means the probability that the critical value of a statistical test will be exceeded when there is an actual loss of a specific SSNM quantity.
</P>
<P><I>Process difference</I> (PD) means the determination of an ID on a unit process level with the additional qualification that difficult to measure components may be modeled.
</P>
<P><I>Process yield</I> means the quantity of SSNM actually removed from a unit process compared with the quantity predicted (based on a measured input) to be available for removal. Process yield differs from a process difference in that holdup and sidestreams are not measured or modeled.
</P>
<P><I>Produce</I> when used in relation to special nuclear material, means: (1) To manufacture, make, produce, or refine special nuclear material; (2) to separate special nuclear material from other substances in which such material may be contained; or (3) to make or to produce new special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Random error</I> means the deviation of a random variable from its expected value.
</P>
<P><I>Receipt</I> means special nuclear material received by a licensee from an off-site source.
</P>
<P><I>Reconciliation</I> means the process of evaluating and comparing licensee reports required under this part to the projected material balances generated by the Nuclear Materials Management and Safeguards System. This process is considered complete when the licensee resolves any differences between the reported and projected balances, including those listed for foreign obligated materials.
</P>
<P><I>Reference standard</I> means a material, device, or instrument whose assigned value is known relative to national standards or nationally accepted measurement systems. This is also commonly referred to as a traceable standard.
</P>
<P><I>Removals from inventory</I> means measured quantities of special nuclear material contained in: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shipments; 
</P>
<P>(2) Waste materials transferred to an onsite holding account via a DOE/NRC Form 741 transaction; 
</P>
<P>(3) Measured discards transported offsite; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Effluents released to the environment. 
</P>
<P><I>Removals of material from process</I> (or <I>removals from process</I>) means measured quantities of special nuclear material contained in: 
</P>
<P>(1) Effluents released to the environment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Previously unencapsulated materials that have been encapsulated as sealed sources; 
</P>
<P>(3) Waste materials that will not be subject to further onsite processing and which are under tamper-safing; 
</P>
<P>(4) Ultimate product placed under tamper-safing; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any materials (not previously designated as removals from process) shipped offsite. 
</P>
<P><I>Research and development</I> means: (1) Theoretical analysis, exploration, or experimentation; or (2) the extension of investigative findings and theories of a scientific or technical nature into practical application for experimental and demonstration purposes, including the experimental production and testing of models, devices, equipment, materials, and processes.
</P>
<P><I>Scrap</I> means the various forms of special nuclear material generated during chemical and mechanical processing, other than recycle material and normal process intermediates, which are unsuitable for continued processing, but all or part of which will be converted to useable material by appropriate recovery operations.
</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any special nuclear material that is physically encased in a capsule, rod, element, etc. that prevents the leakage or escape of the special nuclear material and that prevents removal of the special nuclear material without penetration of the casing.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means source material as defined in section 11z. of the Act and in the regulations contained in part 40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope U
<SU>233</SU> or in the isotope U
<SU>235</SU>, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, but does not include source material. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material of low strategic significance</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Less than an amount of special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, but more than 15 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope) or 15 grams of uranium-233 or 15 grams of plutonium or the combination of 15 grams when computed by the equation, grams = grams contained U
<SU>235</SU> + grams plutonium + grams U
<SU>233</SU>; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Less than 10,000 grams but more than 1,000 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 10 percent or more, but less than 20 percent in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope); or 
</P>
<P>(3) 10,000 grams or more of uranium-235 contained in uranium enriched above natural, but less than 10 percent in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Less than a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material but more than 1,000 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope) or more than 500 grams of uranium-233 or plutonium or in a combined quantity of more than 1,000 grams when computed by the equation, grams = (grams contained U
<SU>235</SU>) + 2 (grams U
<SU>233</SU> + grams plutonium); or 
</P>
<P>(2) 10,000 grams or more or uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 10 percent or more but less than 20 percent in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope). 
</P>
<P><I>Standard Error of the Inventory Difference</I> (SEID) means the standard deviation of an inventory difference that takes into account all measurement error contributions to the components of the ID.
</P>
<P><I>Standard Error of the Process Difference</I> means the standard deviation of a process difference value that takes into account both measurement and nonmeasurement contributions to the components of PD.
</P>
<P><I>Strategic special nuclear material</I> means uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope), uranium-233, or plutonium. 
</P>
<P><I>Tamper-safing</I> means the use of devices on containers or vaults in a manner and at a time that ensures a clear indication of any violation of the integrity of previously made measurements of special nuclear material within the container or vault.
</P>
<P><I>Traceability</I> means the ability to relate individual measurement results to national standards or nationally accepted measurement systems through an unbroken chain of comparisons.
</P>
<P><I>Ultimate product</I> means any special nuclear material in the form of a product that would not be further processed at that licensed location.
</P>
<P><I>Unit process</I> means an identifiable segment or segments of processing activities for which the amounts of input and output SSNM are based on measurements.
</P>
<P><I>Unopened receipts</I> means receipts not opened by the licensee, including receipts of sealed sources, and receipts opened only for sampling and subsequently maintained under tamper-safing.
</P>
<P><I>Vault</I> means a windowless enclosure with walls, floor, roof and door(s) designed and constructed to delay penetration from forced entry.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7579, Feb. 25, 1985, as amended at 52 FR 10039, Mar. 30, 1987; 56 FR 55998, Oct. 31, 1991; 67 FR 78144, Dec. 23, 2002; 73 FR 32463, June 9, 2008; 80 FR 45844, Aug. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.1.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretations of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized as binding on the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7579, Feb. 25, 1985, as amended at 90 FR 55633, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.1.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.6   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Any communication or report concerning the regulations in this part and any application filed under these regulations may be submitted to the Commission as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) By mail addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. 
</P>
<P>(b) By hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7579, Feb. 25, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 4112, Feb. 12, 1988; 53 FR 43422, Oct. 27, 1988; 68 FR 58821, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62685, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74981, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.1.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.7   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.1.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information if it does not display a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0123. 
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 74.7, 74.11, 74.13, 74.15, 74.17, 74.19, 74.31, 74.33, 74.41, 74.43, 74.45, 74.51, 74.57, and 74.59. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) In § 74.15, DOE/NRC Form-741 is approved under Control No. 3150-0003.
</P>
<P>(2) In § 74.13, DOE/NRC Form-742 is approved under Control No. 3150-0004.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 74.13, DOE/NRC Form-742C is approved under Control No. 3150-0058.
</P>
<P>(4) In § 74.17, NRC Form 327 is approved under Control No. 3150-0139. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7579, Feb. 25, 1985, as amended at 52 FR 10040, Mar. 30, 1987; 52 FR 19305, May 22, 1987; 56 FR 55998, Oct. 31, 1991; 62 FR 52189, Oct. 6, 1997; 67 FR 78144, Dec. 23, 2002; 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.2.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.11   Reports of loss or theft or attempted theft or unauthorized production of special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee who possesses one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium shall notify the NRC Operations Center within 1 hour of discovery of any loss or theft or other unlawful diversion of special nuclear material which the licensee is licensed to possess, or any incident in which an attempt has been made to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of special nuclear material. The requirement to report within 1 hour of discovery does not pertain to measured quantities of special nuclear material disposed of as discards or inventory difference quantities. Each licensee who operates an uranium enrichment facility shall notify the NRC Operations Center within 1 hour of discovery of any unauthorized production of enriched uranium. For centrifuge enrichment facilities the requirement to report enrichment levels greater than that authorized by license within 1 hour does not apply to each cascade during its start-up process, not to exceed the first 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(b) This notification must be made to the NRC Operations Center via the Emergency Notification System if the licensee is party to that system. If the Emergency Notification System is inoperative or unavailable, the licensee shall make the required notification via commercial telephonic service or other dedicated telephonic system or any other method that will ensure that a report is received by the NRC Operations Center within one hour. The exemption of § 73.22(f)(3) applies to all telephonic reports required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notifications required under § 73.1200 of this chapter need not be duplicated under the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 21659, June 9, 1987; 52 FR 23257, June 18, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 55998, Oct. 31, 1991, 81 FR 86910, Dec. 2, 2016; 88 FR 15899, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.2.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.13   Material status reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee, including nuclear reactor licensees as defined in §§ 50.21 and 50.22 of this chapter, possessing, or who had possessed in the previous reporting period, at any one time and location, special nuclear material in a quantity totaling one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium shall complete and submit, in computer-readable format Material Balance Reports concerning special nuclear material that the licensee has received, produced, possessed, transferred, consumed, disposed, or lost. This prescribed computer-readable report replaces the DOE/NRC form 742 which has been previously submitted in paper form. The Physical Inventory Listing Report must be submitted with each Material Balance Report. This prescribed computer-readable report replaces the DOE/NRC Form 742C which has been previously submitted in paper form. Reports must be submitted for each Reporting Identification Symbol (RIS) account including all holding accounts. Each licensee shall prepare and submit the reports described in this paragraph as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0007 and NMMSS Report D-24 “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Copies of these instructions may be obtained from the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> Each licensee subject to the requirements of § 74.51 shall compile a report as of March 31 and September 30 of each year and file it within 30 days after the end of the period covered by the report. Licensees subject to the requirements of §§ 74.19(c), 74.31(c)(5), 74.33(c)(4), or 74.43(c)(6) shall submit a report within 60 calendar days of the beginning of the physical inventory. All other licensees shall submit a report no later than March 31 of each year. The Commission may permit a licensee to submit the reports at other times for good cause. Each licensee required to report material balance, and inventory information, as detailed in this part, shall resolve any discrepancies identified during the report review and reconciliation process within 30 calendar days of notification of a discrepancy identified by NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) Any licensee who is required to submit routine Material Status Reports pursuant to § 75.35 of this chapter (pertaining to implementation of the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement) shall prepare and submit these reports only as provided in that section (instead of as provided in paragraph (a) of this section).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78144, Dec. 23, 2002, as amended at 73 FR 32463, June 9, 2008; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.2.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.15   Nuclear material transaction reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee who transfers or receives special nuclear material in a quantity of one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium shall complete in computer-readable format a Nuclear Material Transaction Report. In addition, each licensee who adjusts the inventory in any manner, other than for transfers and receipts, shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report, in computer-readable format, to coincide with the submission of the Material Balance report. This shall be done as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Copies of these instructions NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees” may be obtained either by writing the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> Each licensee who transfers the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format as specified in the instructions no later than the close of business the next working day. Each licensee who receives the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format in accordance with instructions within ten (10) days after the material is received. This prescribed computer-readable format replaces the DOE/NRC Form 741 which has been previously submitted in paper form.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee who receives 1 gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium from a foreign source shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Complete in computer-readable format both the supplier's and receiver's portion of the Nuclear Material Transaction Report; 
</P>
<P>(2) Perform independent tests to assure the accurate identification and measurement of the material received, including its weight and enrichment; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Indicate the results of these tests on the receiver's portion of the form. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee who ships special nuclear material in a quantity of one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium to foreign recipient shall complete in computer-readable format the supplier's portion of the Nuclear Material Transaction Report. The licensee shall complete the receiver's portion of the Nuclear Material Transaction Report only if a significant shipper-receiver difference as described in § 74.31, § 74.43, or § 74.59, as applicable, is identified.
</P>
<P>(d) Any licensee who is required to submit inventory change reports pursuant to § 75.34 of this chapter (pertaining to implementation of the US/International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Safeguards Agreement) shall prepare and submit these reports only as provided in that section (instead of as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 35621, July 13, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 58821, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 32464, June 9, 2008; 79 FR 75741, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.2.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.17   Special nuclear material physical inventory summary report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee subject to the requirements of § 74.31 or § 74.33 of this part shall submit a completed Special Nuclear Material Physical Inventory Summary Report on NRC Form 327 not later than 60 calendar days from the start of each physical inventory required by § 74.31(c)(5) or § 74.33(c)(4). Using an appropriate method listed in § 74.6, the licensee shall report the inventory results by plant and total facility to the Director of the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee subject to the requirements of § 74.41(a) of this part shall submit a completed Special Nuclear Material Physical Inventory Summary Report on NRC form 327 not later than 60 calendar days from the start of each physical inventory required by § 74.43(c)(7). Using an appropriate method listed in § 74.6, the licensee shall report the inventory results by plant and total facility to the Director of the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee subject to the requirements of § 74.51 shall submit a completed Special Nuclear Material Physical Inventory Summary Report on NRC form 327 not later than 45 calendar days from the start of each physical inventory required by § 74.59(f). The licensee shall report the physical inventory results by plant and total facility to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78145, Dec. 23, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 58821, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.2.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.19   Recordkeeping</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 74.31, § 74.33, § 74.43, or § 74.59 of this part are exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section. Otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each licensee shall keep records showing the receipt, inventory (including location and unique identity), acquisition, transfer, and disposal of all special nuclear material in its possession regardless of its origin or method of acquisition. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each record relating to material control or material accounting that is required by the regulations in this chapter or by license condition must be maintained and retained for the period specified by the appropriate regulation or license condition. If a retention period is not otherwise specified by regulation or license condition, the licensee shall retain the record until the Commission terminates the license that authorizes the activity that is subject to the recordkeeping requirement. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each record of receipt, acquisition, or physical inventory of special nuclear material that must be maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be retained as long as the licensee retains possession of the material and for 3 years following transfer or disposal of the material. 
</P>
<P>(4) Each record of transfer of special nuclear material to other persons must be retained by the licensee who transferred the material until the Commission terminates the license authorizing the licensee's possession of the material. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee that is authorized to possess special nuclear material in a quantity exceeding one effective kilogram at any one time shall establish, maintain, and follow written material control and accounting procedures that are sufficient to enable the licensee to account for the special nuclear material in its possession under license. The licensee shall retain these procedures until the Commission terminates the license that authorizes possession of the material and retain any superseded portion of the procedures for 3 years after the portion is superseded. 
</P>
<P>(c) Other than licensees subject to § 74.31, § 74.33, § 74.41, or § 74.51, each licensee who is authorized to possess special nuclear material, at any one time and site location, in a quantity greater than 350 grams of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium, or any combination thereof, shall conduct a physical inventory of all special nuclear material in its possession under license at intervals not to exceed 12 months. The results of these physical inventories need not be reported to the Commission, but the licensee shall retain the records associated with each physical inventory until the Commission terminates the license that authorized the possession of special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(d) Records that must be maintained pursuant to this part may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform if the reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, or specifications must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78145, Dec. 23, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Special Nuclear Material of Low Strategic Significance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.3.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.31   Nuclear material control and accounting for special nuclear material of low strategic significance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General performance objectives.</I> Each licensee who is authorized to possess and use more than one effective kilogram of special nuclear material of low strategic significance, excluding sealed sources, at any site or contiguous sites subject to control by the licensee, other than a production or utilization facility licensed pursuant to part 50, part 53, or part 70 of this chapter, or operations involved in waste disposal, shall implement and maintain a Commission-approved material control and accounting system that will achieve the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(1) Confirm the presence of special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2) Resolve indications of missing material; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Aid in the investigation and recovery of missing material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation.</I> Each applicant for a license, and each licensee that, upon application for modification of its license, would become newly subject to the performance objectives of paragraph (a) of this section, shall submit a fundamental nuclear material control (FNMC) plan describing how the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section will be met. The FNMC plan shall be implemented when a license is issued or modified to authorize the activities being addressed in paragraph (a) of this section, or by the date specified in a license condition. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System capabilities.</I> To meet the general performance objectives of paragraph (a) of this section, the material control and accounting system must include the capabilities described in paragraph (c) (1) through (8) of this section. The licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish, document, and maintain a management structure which assures clear overall responsibility for material control and accounting functions, independence from production responsibilities, separation of key responsibilities, and adequate review and use of critical material control and accounting procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain a measurement system which assures that all quantities in the material accounting records are based on measured values;
</P>
<P>(3) Follow a measurement control program which assures that measurement bias is estimated and significant biases are eliminated from inventory difference values of record;
</P>
<P>(4) In each inventory period, control total material control and accounting measurement uncertainty so that twice its standard error is less than the greater of 9,000 grams of U-235 or 0.25 percent of the active inventory, and assure that any measurement performed under contract is controlled so that the licensee can satisfy this requirement;
</P>
<P>(5) Unless otherwise required to satisfy part 75 of this chapter, perform a physical inventory at least every 12 months and, within 60 days after the start of the inventory, reconcile and adjust the book inventory to the results of the physical inventory, and resolve, or report an inability to resolve, any inventory difference which is rejected by a statistical test which has a 90 percent power of detecting a discrepancy of a quantity of uranium-235 established by NRC on a site-specific basis;
</P>
<P>(6) Maintain current knowledge of items when the sum of the time of existence of an item, the time to make a record of the item, and the time necessary to locate the item exceeds 14 days. Store and handle, or subsequently measure, items in a manner so that unauthorized removals of substantial quantities of material from items will be detected. Exempted are items individually containing less than 500 grams of U
<SU>235</SU> up to a total of 50 kilograms of U
<SU>235</SU>, solutions with a concentration of less than 5 grams of U
<SU>235</SU> per liter, and items of waste destined for burial or incineration;
</P>
<P>(7) Resolve, on a shipment basis and when required to satisfy part 75 of this chapter, on a batch basis, shipper/receiver differences that exceed both twice the combined measurement standard error for that shipment and 500 grams of U
<SU>235</SU>; and
</P>
<P>(8) Independently assess the effectiveness of the material control and accounting system at least every 24 months, and document management's action on prior assessment recommendations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) Each licensee shall establish records that will demonstrate that the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section have been met and maintain these records for at least 3 years, unless a longer retention time is required by part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Records which must be maintained pursuant to this part may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform if such reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. 
</P>
<P>The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7579, Feb. 25, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 19262, May 27, 1988; 56 FR 55998, Oct. 31, 1991; 67 FR 78145, Dec. 23, 2002; 91 FR 15877, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.3.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.33   Nuclear material control and accounting for uranium enrichment facilities authorized to produce special nuclear material of low strategic significance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General performance objectives.</I> Each licensee who is authorized by this chapter to possess equipment capable of enriching uranium or operate an enrichment facility, and produce, possess, or use more than one effective kilogram of special nuclear material of low strategic significance at any site or contiguous sites, subject to control by the licensee, shall establish, implement, and maintain a NRC-approved material control and accounting system that will achieve the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain accurate, current, and reliable information of and periodically confirm the quantities and locations of source material and special nuclear material in the licensee's possession;
</P>
<P>(2) Protect against and detect production of uranium enriched to 10 percent or more in the isotope U
<SU>235</SU>;
</P>
<P>(3) Protect against and detect unauthorized production of uranium of low strategic significance;
</P>
<P>(4) Resolve indications of missing uranium;
</P>
<P>(5) Resolve indications of production of uranium enriched to 10 percent or more in the isotope U
<SU>235</SU> (for centrifuge enrichment facilities this requirement does not apply to each cascade during its start-up process, not to exceed the first 24 hours);
</P>
<P>(6) Resolve indications of unauthorized production of uranium of low strategic significance;
</P>
<P>(7) Provide information to aid in the investigation of missing uranium;
</P>
<P>(8) Provide information to aid in the investigation of the production of uranium enriched to 10 percent or more in the isotope U
<SU>235</SU>; and
</P>
<P>(9) Provide information to aid in the investigation of unauthorized production of uranium of low strategic significance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation dates.</I> Each applicant for a license who would, upon issuance of a license pursuant to any part of this chapter, be subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a fundamental nuclear material control plan describing how the performance objectives of § 74.33(a), the system features and capabilities of § 74.33(c), and the recordkeeping requirements of § 74.33(d) will be met; and
</P>
<P>(2) Implement the NRC approved plan submitted pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section prior to:
</P>
<P>(i) The cumulative receipt of 5,000 grams of U
<SU>235</SU> contained in any combination of natural, depleted, or enriched uranium or
</P>
<P>(ii) NRC's issuance of a license to test or operate the enrichment facility; whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System features and capabilities.</I> To meet the general performance objectives of paragraph (a) of this section, the Material Control and Accounting (MC&amp;A) system must include the features and capabilities described in paragraphs (c) (1) through (8) of this section. The licensee shall establish, document, and maintain:
</P>
<P>(1) A management structure that ensures:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear overall responsibility for MC&amp;A functions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Independence of MC&amp;A management from production responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Separation of key MC&amp;A responsibilities from each other; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of approved written MC&amp;A procedures and periodic review of those procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) A measurement program that ensures that all quantities of source material and special nuclear material in the accounting records are based on measured values;
</P>
<P>(3) A measurement control program that ensures that:
</P>
<P>(i) Measurement bias is estimated and minimized through the measurement control program, and any significant biases are eliminated from inventory difference values of record;
</P>
<P>(ii) All MC&amp;A measurement systems are controlled so that twice the standard error of the inventory difference, based on all measurement error contributions, is less than the greater of 5,000 grams of U
<SU>235</SU> or 0.25 percent of the U
<SU>235</SU> of the active inventory for each total plant material balance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any measurements performed under contract are controlled so that the licensee can satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) A physical inventory program that provides for:
</P>
<P>(i) Performing, unless otherwise required to satisfy part 75 of this chapter, a dynamic (nonshutdown) physical inventory of in-process (e.g., in the enrichment equipment) uranium and U
<SU>235</SU> at least every 65 days, and performing a static physical inventory of all other uranium and total U
<SU>235</SU> contained in natural, depleted, and enriched uranium located outside of the enrichment processing equipment at least every 370 calendar days, with static physical inventories being conducted in conjunction with a dynamic physical inventory of in-process uranium and U
<SU>235</SU> so as to provide a total plant material balance at least every 370 calendar days; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reconciling and adjusting the book inventory to the results of the static physical inventory and resolving, or reporting an inability to resolve, any inventory difference that is rejected by a statistical test which has a 90 percent power of detecting a discrepancy of a quantity of U
<SU>235</SU>, established by NRC on a site-specific basis, within 60 days after the start of each static physical inventory;
</P>
<P>(5) A detection program, independent of production, that provides high assurance of detecting:
</P>
<P>(i) Production of uranium enriched to 10 percent or more in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope, to the extent that SNM of moderate strategic significance could be produced within any 370 calendar day period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Production of uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Unauthorized production of uranium of low strategic significance;
</P>
<P>(6) An item control program that ensures that:
</P>
<P>(i) Current knowledge is maintained of items with respect to identity, uranium and U
<SU>235</SU> content, and stored location; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Items are stored and handled, or subsequently measured, in a manner so that unauthorized removal of 500 grams or more of U
<SU>235</SU>, as individual items or as uranium contained in items, will be detected. Exempted from the requirements of paragraph (c)(6) (i) and (ii) of this section are licensed-identified items each containing less than 500 grams U
<SU>235</SU> up to a cumulative total of 50 kilograms of U
<SU>235</SU> and items that exist for less than 14 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(7) A resolution program that ensures that any shipper-receiver differences are resolved that are statistically significant and exceed 500 grams U
<SU>235</SU> on:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual batch basis; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A total shipment basis for all source material and special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(8) An assessment program that:
</P>
<P>(i) Independently assesses the effectiveness of the MC&amp;A system at least every 24 months;
</P>
<P>(ii) Documents the results of the above assessment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents management's findings on whether the MC&amp;A system is currently effective; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Documents any actions taken on recommendations from prior assessments.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> (1) Each licensee shall establish records that will demonstrate that the performance objectives of paragraph (a) of this section and the system features and capabilities of paragraph (c) of this section have been met and maintain these records in an auditable form, available for inspection, for at least 3 years, unless a longer retention time is required by part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Records that must be maintained pursuant to this part may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform if such reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing, on demand, legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, and specifications must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures.
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 55999, Oct. 31, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Special Nuclear Material of Moderate Strategic Significance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.4.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.41   Nuclear material control and accounting for special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General performance objectives.</I> Each licensee who is authorized to possess special nuclear material (SNM) of moderate strategic significance or SNM in a quantity exceeding one effective kilogram of strategic special nuclear material in irradiated fuel reprocessing operations other than as sealed sources and to use this material at any site other than a nuclear reactor licensed pursuant to part 50 or part 53 of this chapter; or as reactor irradiated fuels involved in research, development, and evaluation programs in facilities other than irradiated fuel reprocessing plants; or an operation involved with waste disposal, shall establish, implement, and maintain a Commission-approved material control and accounting (MC&amp;A) system that will achieve the following performance objectives:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain accurate, current, and reliable information on, and confirm, the quantities and locations of SNM in the licensee's possession; 
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct investigations and resolve any anomalies indicating a possible loss of special nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(3) Permit rapid determination of whether an actual loss of a significant quantity of SNM has occurred, with significant quantity being either: 
</P>
<P>(i) More than one formula kilogram of strategic SNM; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) 10,000 grams or more of uranium-235 contained in uranium enriched up to 20.00 percent. 
</P>
<P>(4) Generate information to aid in the investigation and recovery of missing SNM in the event of an actual loss. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation schedule.</I> Each applicant for a license, and each licensee that, upon application for modification of its license, would become newly subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a fundamental nuclear material control (FNMC) plan describing how the performance objectives of § 74.41(a) will be achieved, and how the system capabilities required by § 74.41(c) will be met; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Implement the NRC-approved FNMC plan submitted pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section upon the Commission's issuance or modification of a license or by the date specified in a license condition. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System capabilities.</I> To achieve the performance objectives specified in § 74.41(a), the MC&amp;A system must include the capabilities described in §§ 74.43 and 74.45, and must incorporate checks and balances that are sufficient to detect falsification of data and reports that could conceal diversion of SNM by: 
</P>
<P>(1) A single individual, including an employee in any position; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Collusion between two individuals, one or both of whom have authorized access to SNM. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78146, Dec. 23, 2002, as amended at 91 FR 15878, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.4.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.43   Internal controls, inventory, and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Licensees subject to § 74.41 shall maintain the internal control, inventory, and recordkeeping capabilities required in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Internal controls. 
</P>
<P>(1) A management structure shall be established, documented, and maintained that assures: 
</P>
<P>(i) Clear overall responsibility for material control and accounting (MC&amp;A) functions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Independence from production and manufacturing responsibilities; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Separation of key responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) The overall planning, coordination, and administration of the MC&amp;A functions for special nuclear material (SNM) shall be vested in a single individual at an organizational level sufficient to assure independence of action and objectiveness of decisions. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall provide for the adequate review, approval, and use of written MC&amp;A procedures that are identified in the approved FNMC plan as being critical to the effectiveness of the described system. 
</P>
<P>(4) The licensee shall assure that personnel who work in key positions where mistakes could degrade the effectiveness of the MC&amp;A system are trained to maintain a high level of safeguards awareness and are qualified to perform their duties and/or responsibilities. 
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee shall establish, document, and maintain an item control program that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provides current knowledge of SNM items with respect to identity, element and isotope content, and stored location; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assures that SNM items are stored and handled, or subsequently measured, in a manner such that unauthorized removal of 200 grams or more of plutonium or uranium-233 or 300 grams or more of uranium-235, as one or more whole items and/or as SNM removed from containers, will be detected. 
</P>
<P>(6) Exempted from the requirements of paragraph (b)(5) of this section are items that exist for less than 14 calendar days and licensee-identified items each containing less than 200 grams of plutonium or uranium-233 or 300 grams or more of uranium-235 up to a cumulative total of one formula kilogram of strategic SNM or 17 kilograms of uranium-235 contained in uranium enriched to 10.00 percent or more but less than 20.00 percent in the uranium-235 isotope. 
</P>
<P>(7) Conduct and document shipper-receiver comparisons for all SNM receipts, both on an individual batch basis and a total shipment basis, and ensure that any shipper-receiver difference that is statistically significant and exceeds twice the estimated standard deviation of the difference estimator and 200 grams of plutonium or uranium-233 or 300 grams of uranium-235 is investigated and resolved; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Perform independent assessments of the total MC&amp;A system, at intervals not to exceed 18 months, that assess the performance of the system, review its effectiveness, and document management's action on prior assessment recommendations and identified deficiencies. These assessments must include a review and evaluation of any contractor who performs SNM accountability measurements for the licensee. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inventory control and physical inventories.</I> The licensee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide unique identification for each item on inventory and maintain inventory records showing the identity, location, and quantity of SNM for these items; 
</P>
<P>(2) Document all transfers of SNM between designated internal control areas within the licensee's site; 
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain and follow procedures for tamper-safing of containers or vaults containing SNM, if tamper-safe seals are to be used for assuring the validity of prior measurements, which include control of access to, and distribution of, unused seals and to records showing the date and time of seal application; 
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain and follow procedures for confirming the validity of prior measurements associated with unencapsulated and unsealed items on ending inventory; 
</P>
<P>(5) Maintain and follow physical inventory procedures to assure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of SNM associated with each item on ending inventory is a measured value; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each item on ending inventory is listed and identified to assure that all items are listed and no item is listed more than once; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Cutoff procedures for transfers and processing are established so that all quantities are inventoried and none are inventoried more than once; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Cutoff procedures for records and reports are established so that only transfers for the inventory and material balance interval are included in the records for the material balance period in question; 
</P>
<P>(v) Upon completion of the physical inventory, all book and inventory records, for total plant and individual internal control areas, are reconciled with and adjusted to the results of the physical inventory; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Measurements will be performed for element and isotope content on all quantities of SNM not previously measured. 
</P>
<P>(6) Conduct physical inventories according to written instructions for each physical inventory which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Assign inventory duties and responsibilities; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the extent to which each internal control area and process is to be shut down, cleaned out, and/or remain static; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the basis for accepting previously made measurements and their limits of error; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Designate measurements to be made for physical inventory purposes and the procedures for making these measurements. 
</P>
<P>(7) Conduct physical inventories of all possessed SNM for each plant at intervals not to exceed 9 calendar months; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Within 60 calendar days after the start of each physical inventory required by paragraph (c)(7) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate, for the material balance period terminated by the physical inventory, the inventory difference (ID) and its associated standard error of inventory difference (SEID) for both element and isotope; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Reconcile and adjust the book record of quantity of element and isotope content, as appropriate, to the results of the physical inventory; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Investigate and report to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, any occurrence of SEID exceeding 0.125 percent of active inventory, and any occurrence of ID exceeding both three times SEID and 200 grams of plutonium or uranium-233 or 300 grams of uranium-235 contained in high enriched uranium, or 9000 grams of uranium-235 contained in low enriched uranium. The report shall include a statement of the probable reasons for the excessive inventory difference and the corrective actions taken or planned. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> The licensee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain records of the receipt, shipment, disposal, and current inventory associated with all possessed SNM; 
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain records of the quantities of SNM added to and removed from process; 
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain records of all shipper-receiver evaluations associated with SNM receipts; 
</P>
<P>(4) Retain each record pertaining to receipt and disposal of SNM until the Commission terminates the license; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Establish records that will demonstrate that the performance objectives of § 74.41(a)(1) through (4), the system capabilities of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and § 74.45(b) and (c) have been met, and maintain these records in an auditable form, available for inspection, for at least 3 years, unless a longer retention time is specified by § 74.19(b), part 75 of this chapter, or by a specific license condition. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78146, Dec. 23, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.4.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.45   Measurements and measurement control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Licensees subject to § 74.41 of this part shall establish and maintain the measurement and measurement control capabilities required by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Measurements.</I> The licensee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Establish, maintain, and use a program for the measurement of all SNM received, produced, transferred between internal control areas, on inventory, or shipped, discarded, or otherwise removed from inventory, except for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Sealed sources that have been determined by other means to contain less than 10 grams of uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium each; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Samples received, transferred between internal control areas, or on inventory that have been determined by other means to contain less than 10 grams of uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium each; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Receipt of sealed sources, of any quantity, previously manufactured and shipped by the licensee and which are returned to the licensee, provided the unique identity and encapsulation integrity have not been compromised, and the booked receipt quantity equals the previously shipped quantity for the involved sealed sources; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Heterogeneous scrap that cannot be accurately measured in its as received form, provided this scrap is measured after dissolution within 18 months of receipt. The after dissolution measurement must include measurement of both the resulting solution and any undissolved residues, before any co-mingling with other scrap solutions or residues. 
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain and follow a program for the development and use of written procedures that includes documented review and approval of these procedures, and any revisions thereof, before use, for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Preparing or acquiring, maintaining, storing, and using reference standards; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Calibrating measurement systems, performing bulk mass and volume measurements, conducting nondestructive assay measurements, obtaining samples, and performing laboratory analyses for element concentration and isotope abundance; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Recording, reviewing, and reporting measurements. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Measurement control.</I> To maintain measurement quality and to estimate measurement uncertainty values, the licensee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Assign responsibility for planning, developing, coordinating, and administering a measurement control program to an individual who has no direct responsibility for performing measurements or for SNM processing or handling, and who holds a position at an organizational level which permits independence of action and has adequate authority to obtain all the information required to monitor and evaluate measurement quality as required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that any contractor who performs MC&amp;A measurements services conforms with applicable requirements in paragraphs (c)(5), (6), (7), (10) and (11) of this section. Conformance must include reporting by the contractor of sufficient measurement control data to allow the licensee to calculate bias corrections and measurement limits of error. 
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that potential sources of sampling error are identified and that samples are representative by performing process sampling tests using well characterized materials to establish or verify the applicability of utilized procedures for sampling SNM and for maintaining sample integrity during transport and storage. These sampling tests or sample integrity tests, as appropriate, shall be conducted whenever: 
</P>
<P>(i) A new sampling procedure or technique is used, or new sampling equipment is installed; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A sampling procedure, technique, or sampling equipment is modified to the extent that a systematic sampling error could be introduced; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Sample containers, sample transport methods, or sample storage conditions are changed or modified to the extent that a systematic sampling error could be introduced. 
</P>
<P>(4) Establish and maintain a measurement control program so that for each inventory period the SEID is less than 0.125 percent of the active inventory, and assure that any MC&amp;A measurements performed under contract are controlled so that the licensee can satisfy this requirement. 
</P>
<P>(5) Generate current data on the performance of each measurement system used during each material balance period for the establishment of measured values and estimated measurement uncertainties, including estimates of bias, variance components for calibration, sampling, and repeat measurements. The program data must reflect the current process and measurement conditions existing at the time the control measurements are made. 
</P>
<P>(6) Use standards on an ongoing basis for the calibration and control of all measurement systems used for SNM accountability. Calibrations shall be repeated whenever any significant change occurs in a measurement system or when program data indicate a need for recalibration. Calibrations and control standard measurements shall be based on standards whose assigned values are traceable to certified reference standards or certified standard reference materials. Additionally, control standards shall be representative of the process material or items being measured by the measurement system in question. 
</P>
<P>(7) Conduct control measurements to provide current data for the determination of random error behavior. On a predetermined schedule, the program shall include, as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(i) Replicate analyses of individual samples; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Analysis of replicate process samples; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Replicate volume measurements of bulk process batches; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Replicate weight measurements of process items and bulk batches, or alternatively, the use of data generated from the replicate weighings of control standard weights as derived from the control standard program; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Replicate NDA measurements of individual process containers (items), or alternatively, the use of data generated from the replicate measurements of NDA control standards as derived from the control standard program. 
</P>
<P>(8) Use all measurements and measurement controls generated during the current material balance period for the estimation of the SEID. 
</P>
<P>(9) Evaluate with appropriate statistical methods all measurement system data generated in paragraph (c)(5) of this section to determine significant contributors to the measurement uncertainties associated with inventory differences and shipper-receiver differences, so that if SEID exceeds the limits established in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the cause of the excessive SEID can be identified for corrective action with respect to controlling the standard error within applicable limits. 
</P>
<P>(10) Establish and maintain a statistical control system, including control charts and formal statistical procedures, designed to monitor the quality of each measurement device or system. Control chart limits must be established to be equivalent to levels of significance of 0.05 and 0.001. 
</P>
<P>(11) Promptly investigate and take any appropriate corrective action whenever a control datum exceeds an 0.05 control limit, and whenever a control datum exceeds an 0.001 control limit, the measurement system that generated the datum shall immediately be placed out-of-service with respect to MC&amp;A measurements until the deficiency has been corrected and the system brought into control within the 0.05 control limits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 78146, Dec. 23, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Formula Quantities of Strategic Special Nuclear Material</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 10040, Mar. 30, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 74.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.5.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.51   Nuclear material control and accounting for strategic special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General performance objectives.</I> Each licensee who is authorized to possess five or more formula kilograms of strategic special nuclear material (SSNM) and to use such material at any site, other than a nuclear reactor licensed pursuant to part 50 or 53 of this chapter, an irradiated fuel reprocessing plant, an operation involved with waste disposal, or an independent spent fuel storage facility licensed pursuant to part 72 of this chapter shall establish, implement, and maintain a Commission-approved material control and accounting (MC&amp;A) system that will achieve the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(1) Prompt investigation of anomalies potentially indicative of SSNM losses;
</P>
<P>(2) Timely detection of the possible abrupt loss of five or more formula kilograms of SSNM from an individual unit process;
</P>
<P>(3) Rapid determination of whether an actual loss of five or more formula kilograms occurred;
</P>
<P>(4) Ongoing confirmation of the presence of SSNM in assigned locations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Timely generation of information to aid in the recovery of SSNM in the event of an actual loss.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>System capabilities.</I> To achieve the general performance objectives specified in § 74.51(a), the MC&amp;A system must provide the capabilities described in §§ 74.53, 74.55, 74.57 and 74.59 and must incorporate checks and balances that are sufficient to detect falsification of data and reports that could conceal diversion by:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual, including an employee in any position; or
</P>
<P>(2) Collusion between an individual with MC&amp;A responsibilities and another individual who has responsibility or control within both the physical protection and the MC&amp;A systems.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Implementation dates.</I> Each applicant for a license, and each licensee that, upon application for modification of a license, would become newly subject to paragraph (a) of this section, shall submit a fundamental nuclear material control (FNMC) plan describing how the MC&amp;A system shall satisfy the requirement of paragraph (b) of this section. The FNMC plan shall be implemented when a license is issued or modified to authorize the activities being addressed in paragraph (a) of this section, or by the date specified in a license condition. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inventories.</I> Notwithstanding § 74.59(f)(1), licensees shall perform at least three bimonthly physical inventories after implementation of the NRC approved FNMC Plan and shall continue to perform bimonthly inventories until performance acceptable to the NRC has been demonstrated and the Commission has issued formal approval to perform semiannual inventories. Licensees who have prior experience with process monitoring and/or can demonstrate acceptable performance against all Plan commitments may request authorization to perform semiannual inventories at an earlier date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 10040, Mar. 30, 1987, as amended at 63 FR 26963, May 15, 1998; 67 FR 78148, Dec. 23, 2002; 91 FR 15878, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.5.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.53   Process monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees subject to § 74.51 shall monitor internal transfers, storage, and processing of SSNM. The process monitoring must achieve the detection capabilities described in paragraph (b) of this section for all SSNM except:
</P>
<P>(1) SSNM that is subject to the item loss detection requirements of § 74.55;
</P>
<P>(2) Scrap in the form of small pieces, cuttings, chips, solutions, or in other forms that result from a manufacturing process, held in containers of 30 gallons or larger, with an SSNM content of less than 0.25 grams per liter;
</P>
<P>(3) SSNM with an estimated measurement standard deviation greater than five percent that is either input or output material associated with a unit that processes less than five formula kilograms over a consecutive three-month period; and
</P>
<P>(4) SSNM involved in research and development operations that process less than five formula kilograms during any seven-consecutive-day period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unit process detection capability.</I> For each unit process, a licensee shall establish a production quality control program capable of monitoring the status of material in process. The program shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statistical test that has at least a 95 percent power of detecting an abrupt loss of five formula kilograms within three working days of a loss of Category IA material from any accessible process location and within seven calendar days of a loss of Category IB material from any accessible process location;
</P>
<P>(2) A quality control test whereby process differences greater than three times the estimated standard deviation of the process difference estimator and 25 grams of SSNM are investigated; and
</P>
<P>(3) A trend analysis for monitoring and evaluating sequences of material control test results from each unit process to determine if they indicate a pattern of losses or gains that are of safeguards significance.
</P>
<P>(c) For research and development operations exempt from the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Perform material balance tests on a lot or a batch basis, as appropriate, or monthly, whichever is sooner, and investigate any difference greater than 200 grams of plutonium or U-233 or 300 grams of U-235 that exceeds three times the estimated standard error of the inventory difference estimator;
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluate material balance results generated during an inventory period for indications of measurement biases or unidentified loss streams and investigate, determine the cause(s) of, and institute corrective action for cumulative inventory differences generated during an inventory period that exceed three formula kilograms of SSNM.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.5.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.55   Item monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees subject to § 74.51 shall provide the detection capability described in paragraph (b) of this section for laboratory samples containing less than 0.05 formula kilograms of SSNM and any uniquely identified items of SSNM that have been quantitatively measured, the validity of that measurement independently confirmed, and that additionally have been either:
</P>
<P>(1) Tamper-safed or placed in a vault or controlled access area that provides protection at least equivalent to tamper-safing; or
</P>
<P>(2) Sealed such that removal of SSNM would be readily and permanently apparent (e.g., encapsulated).
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall verify on a statistical sampling basis, the presence and integrity of SSNM items. The statistical sampling plan must have at least 99 percent power of detecting item losses that total five formula kilograms or more, plant-wide, within:
</P>
<P>(1) Thirty calendar days for Category IA items and 60 calendar days for Category IB items contained in a vault or in a permanently controlled access area isolated from the rest of the material access area (MAA);
</P>
<P>(2) Three working days for Category IA items and seven calendar days for Category IB items located elsewhere in the MAA, except for reactor components measuring at least one meter in length and weighing in excess of 30 kilograms for which the time interval shall be 30 days;
</P>
<P>(3) Sixty calendar days for items in a permanently controlled access area outside of an MAA; or
</P>
<P>(4) Sixty calendar days for samples in a vault or permanently controlled access area and 30 calendar days for samples elsewhere in the MAA for samples each containing less than 0.05 formula kilograms of SSNM.
</P>
<P>(c) Items containing scrap in the form of small pieces, cuttings, chips, solutions, or in other forms that result from a manufacturing process, held in containers of 30 gallon or larger, with an SSNM concentration of less than 0.25 grams per liter are exempt from the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 10040, Mar. 30, 1987, as amended at 80 FR 45844, Aug. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.57" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.5.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.57   Alarm resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees subject to § 74.51 shall provide the MC&amp;A alarm resolution capabilities described in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Licensees shall resolve the nature and cause of any MC&amp;A alarm within approved time periods.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee shall notify the NRC Operations Center by telephone of any MC&amp;A alarm that remains unresolved beyond the time period specified for its resolution in the licensee's fundamental nuclear material control plan. Notification must occur within 24 hours except when a holiday or weekend intervenes in which case the notification must occur on the next scheduled workday. The licensee may consider an alarm to be resolved if: 
</P>
<P>(1) Clerical or computational error is found that clearly was the cause for the alarm; or
</P>
<P>(2) An assignable cause for the alarm is identified or it is substantiated that no material loss has occurred.
</P>
<P>(d) If a material loss has occurred, the licensee shall determine the amount of SSNM lost and take corrective action to:
</P>
<P>(1) Return out-of-place SSNM, if possible, to its appropriate place;
</P>
<P>(2) Update and correct associated records; and
</P>
<P>(3) Modify the MC&amp;A system, if appropriate, to prevent similar future occurrences.
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall provide an ability to rapidly assess the validity of alleged thefts.
</P>
<P>(f) If an abrupt loss detection estimate exceeds five formula kilograms of SSNM:
</P>
<P>(1) Material processing operations related to the alarm must be suspended until completion of planned alarm resolution activities, unless the suspension of operations will adversely affect the ability to resolve the alarm. Operation of continuous processes may continue for 24 hours from the time of the occurrence of the alarm during which time checks shall be made for mistakes in records or calculations that could have caused the alarm.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 24 hours, the licensee shall notify the NRC Operations Center by telephone that an MC&amp;A alarm resolution procedure has been initiated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 10040, Mar. 30, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 6877, Feb. 15, 1989; 55 FR 5979, Feb. 21, 1990; 60 FR 24553, May 9, 1995; 67 FR 78148, Dec. 23, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.5.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.59   Quality assurance and accounting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Licensees subject to § 74.51 shall provide the quality assurance and accounting capabilities described in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management structure.</I> The licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish and maintain a management structure that includes clear overall responsibility for planning, coordinating, and administering material control and accounting functions, independence of material control and accounting functions from production responsibilities, and separation of functions such that the activities of one individual or organizational unit serve as controls over and checks of the activities of others; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for the adequate review, approval, and use of those material control and accounting procedures that are identified in the approved FNMC plan as being critical to the effectiveness of the described system.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Personnel qualification and training.</I> The licensee shall assure that personnel who work in key positions where mistakes could degrade the effectiveness of the material control and accounting system are trained to maintain a high level of safeguards awareness and are qualified to perform their duties and/or responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Measurements.</I> The licensee shall establish and maintain a system of measurements sufficient to:
</P>
<P>(1) Substantiate the plutonium element and uranium element and isotope content of all SSNM received, produced, transferred between areas of custodial responsibility, on inventory, or shipped, discarded, or otherwise removed from inventory; 
</P>
<P>(2) Enable the estimation of the standard deviation associated with each measured quantity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the data necessary for performance of the material control tests required by § 74.53(b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Measurement control.</I> The licensee shall assure that the quality of SSNM measurement systems and material processing practices is continually controlled to a level of effectiveness sufficient to satisfy the capabilities required for detection, response, and accounting. To achieve this objective the licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Perform engineering analyses and evaluations of the design, installation, preoperational tests, calibration, and operation of all measurement systems to be used for MC&amp;A purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Perform process and engineering tests using well characterized materials to establish or to verify the applicability of existing procedures for mixing and sampling SSNM and maintaining sample integrity during transport and storage. Tests must be repeated at least every three years, at any time there is a process modification that alters the physical or chemical composition of the SSNM, or whenever there is a change in the sampling technique or equipment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Generate current data on the performance of measurement processes, including, as appropriate, values for bias corrections, uncertainties on calibration factors, and random error standard deviations. The program must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The onging use of standards for calibration and control of all applicable measurement systems. Calibrations must be repeated whenever any change in a measurement system occurs which has the potential to affect a measurement result or when program data, generated by tests performed at a pre-determined frequency, indicate a need for recalibration. Calibrations and tests must be based on standards with traceability to national standards or nationally accepted measurement systems; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A system of control measurements to provide current data for the estimation of the standard deviations that are significant contributors to the measurement uncertainties associated with shipper/receiver differences, inventory differences, and process differences.
</P>
<P>(4) Utilize the data generated during the current material balance period for the estimation of the standard error of the inventory difference (SEID) and the standard error of the process differences. Calibration and measurement error data collected and used during immediately preceding material balance periods may be combined with current data provided that the measurement systems are in statistical control and the combined data are utilized in characterizing the unknowns.
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluate all program data and information to assure that measurement performance is so controlled that the SEID estimator is less than 0.1 percent of active inventory.
</P>
<P>(6) Apply bias corrections by an appropriate procedure whereby:
</P>
<P>(i) Bias corrections are applied to individual items if for any measurement system the relative bias estimate exceeds twice the standard deviation of its estimator, the absolute bias estimate exceeds 50 grams of SSNM when applied across all affected items, and the absolute bias estimate on an individual item basis exceeds the rounding error of affected items; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All biases (regardless of significance) that are not applied as corrections to individual items are applied as a correction to the inventory difference.
</P>
<P>(7) Investigate and take corrective action, as appropriate, to identify and reduce associated measurement biases when, for like material types (<I>i.e.</I>, measured by the same measurement system), the net cumulative shipper/receiver differences accumulated over a six-month period exceed the larger of one formula kilogram or 0.1 percent of the total amount received.
</P>
<P>(8) Establish and maintain a statistical control system designed to monitor the quality of each type of program measurement. Control limits must be established to be equivalent to levels of significance of 0.05 and 0.001. Control data exceeding the 0.05 limits must be investigated and corrective action taken in a timely manner. Whenever a single data point exceeds the 0.001 control limit, the measurement system in question must not be used for material control and accounting purposes until it has been brought into control at the 0.05 level.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Physical inventory.</I> The licensee shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as required by part 75 of this Chapter, perform a physical inventory at least every six calendar months and within 45 days after the start of the ending inventory:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate the inventory difference (ID); estimate the standard error of the inventory difference (SEID); and investigate and report any SEID estimate of 0.1 percent or more of active inventory, and any ID that exceeds both three times SEID and 200 grams of plutonium or uranium-233, or 300 grams of uranium-235 contained in high enriched uranium. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If required to perform an investigation pursuant to paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, evaluate the significance of the inventory difference relative to expected performance as determined from an analysis of an appropriate sequence of historical inventory differences;
</P>
<P>(iii) Investigate and report, by an appropriate method listed in § 74.6, to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, any difference that exceeds three times the standard deviation determined from the sequential analysis; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Perform a reinventory if directed to do so by the Commission; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Reconcile and adjust the plant and subsidiary book records to the results of the physical inventory.
</P>
<P>(2) Implement policies, practices, and procedures designed to ensure the quality of physical inventories. These must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Development of procedures for tamper-safing of containers or vaults containing SSNM not in process that include adequate controls to assure the validity of assigned SSNM values;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintenance of records of the quantities of SSNM added to and removed from process;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requirements for signed documentation of all SSNM transfers between areas with different custodial responsibility that reflect all quantities of SSNM transferred;
</P>
<P>(iv) Means for control of and accounting for internal transfer documents;
</P>
<P>(v) Cutoff procedures for transfers and processing so that all quantities of SSNM are inventoried and none are inventoried more than once; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Cutoff procedures for records and reports so that all transfers for the inventory and material balance interval and no others are included in the records; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Inventory procedures for sealed sources and containers or vaults containing SSNM that assure reliable identification and quantification of contained SSNM;
</P>
<P>(viii) Inventory procedures for in-process SSNM that provide for measurement of quantities not previously measured for element and isotope, as appropriate, and remeasurement of material previously measured but whose validity has not been assured by tamper-safing or equivalent protection; and 
</P>
<P>(ix) Written instructions for conducting physical inventories that detail assignments, responsibilities, and preparation for and performance of an inventory.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Accounting.</I> The licensee shall establish auditable records sufficient to demonstrate that the requirements of §§ 74.53, 74.55, 74.57, and 74.59 have been met and retain those records for at least three years unless a longer retention period is required by part 75 of this Chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Internal control.</I> The licensee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for shipping and receiving SSNM that provide for:
</P>
<P>(i) Accurate identification and measurement of the quantities shipped and received;
</P>
<P>(ii) Review and evaluation of shipper/receiver differences on an individual container or lot basis, as appropriate, on a shipment basis, and on a batch basis when required by part 75 of this Chapter; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Investigation and corrective action when shipper/receiver differences exceed twice the estimated standard deviation of the difference estimator and the larger of 0.5 percent of the amount of SSNM in the container, lot, or shipment, as appropriate, or 50 grams of SSNM; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation of shipper/receiver difference evaluations, investigations, and corrective actions.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish a scrap control program that assures that:
</P>
<P>(i) Internally generated scrap and scrap from other licensees or contractors is segregated until accountability is established; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any scrap measured with a standard deviation greater than five percent of the measured amount is recovered so that the results are segregated by inventory period and recovered within six months of the end of the inventory period in which the scrap was generated except where it can be demonstrated that the scrap measurement uncertainty will not cause noncompliance with § 74.59(e)(5). 
</P>
<P>(3) Incorporate checks and balances in the MC&amp;A system sufficient to control the rate of human errors in material control and accounting information. 
</P>
<P>(4) Perform independent assessments at least every 12 months that assess the performance of the MC&amp;A system, review its effectiveness, and document management's action on prior assessment recommendations. Assessments must include an evaluation of the measurement control program of any outside contractor laboratory performing MC&amp;A measurements for a licensee, unless the contractor is also subject to the requirements of § 74.59(e).
</P>
<P>(5) Assign custodial responsibility in a manner that ensures that such responsibility can be effectively executed for all SSNM possessed under license.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 10040, Mar. 30, 1987, as amended at 54 FR 6878, Feb. 15, 1989; 55 FR 5979, Feb. 21, 1990; 60 FR 24553, May 9, 1995; 67 FR 78148, Dec. 23, 2002; 68 FR 58822, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.6.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.81   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee shall afford to the Commission at all reasonable times opportunity to inspect special nuclear material and the premises and facilities wherein special nuclear material is used, produced, or stored.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee shall make available to the Commission for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records kept by the licensee pertaining to its receipt, possession, use, acquisition, import, export, or transfer of special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In the case of fuel cycle facilities where nuclear reactor fuel is fabricated or processed, each licensee shall upon request by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator, provide rent-free office space for the exclusive use of Commission inspection personnel. Heat, air conditioning, light, electrical outlets, and janitorial services shall be furnished by each licensee. The office shall be convenient to and have full access to the facility, and shall provide the inspector both visual and acoustic privacy. 
</P>
<P>(2) For a site with a single fuel facility licensed pursuant to part 70 of this chapter, the space provided shall be adequate to accommodate a full-time inspector, a part-time secretary, and transient NRC personnel. It will be generally commensurate with other office facilities at the site. A space of 250 square feet either within the site's office complex or in an office trailer or other on-site space is suggested as a guide. For sites containing multiple fuel facilities, additional space may be requested to accommodate additional full-time inspector(s). The office space that is provided shall be subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards or the appropriate NRC Regional Administrator. All furniture, supplies, and communication equipment will be furnished by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) The licensee shall afford any NRC resident inspector assigned to their site, or other NRC inspectors identified by the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards as likely to inspect the facility, immediate unfettered access, equivalent to access provided regular plant employees, following proper identification and compliance with applicable access control measures for security, radiological protection, and personal safety.
</P>
<P>(d) At a facility using and possessing a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material in unirradiated form, the licensee may not announce or otherwise communicate to its employees or site contractors the arrival or presence of an NRC safeguards inspector unless specifically requested to do so by the safeguards inspector. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 7579, Feb. 25, 1985, as amended at 52 FR 31613, Aug. 21, 1987; 54 FR 6878, Feb. 15, 1989; 55 FR 5979, Feb. 21, 1990; 58 FR 29522, May 21, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.82" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.6.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.82   Tests.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, any tests that the Commission deems appropriate or necessary for the administration of the regulations in this part, including tests of:
</P>
<P>(a) Special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(b) Facilities where special nuclear material is utilized, produced, or stored; and
</P>
<P>(c) Other equipment and devices used in connection with the production, utilization, or storage of special nuclear material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.83" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.6.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.83   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55079, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 74.84" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.14.6.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 74.84   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 74 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 74 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 74.1, 74.2, 74.4, 74.5, 74.6, 74.7, 74.8, 74.83 and 74.84.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55079, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="75" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 75—SAFEGUARDS ON NUCLEAR MATERIAL—IMPLEMENTATION OF SAFEGUARDS AGREEMENTS BETWEEN THE UNITED STATES AND THE INTERNATIONAL ATOMIC ENERGY AGENCY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 53, 63, 103, 104, 122, 161, 223, 234, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2073, 2093, 2133, 2134, 2152, 2201, 2273, 2282, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 135, 141 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Section 75.4 also issued under Nuclear Waste Policy Act secs. 135 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161).
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 50711, July 31, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="121" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement the requirements established by the safeguards agreements between the United States (U.S.) and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). This part contains requirements to ensure that the U.S. meets its nuclear non-proliferation obligations under the safeguards agreements. These obligations include providing information to the IAEA on the physical location of applicant, licensee, or certificate holder activities; information on source and special nuclear materials; and access to the physical location of applicant, licensee, or certificate holder activities. These obligations are similar to the obligations accepted by other countries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19609, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part apply to all persons licensed by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) or an Agreement State; who hold a certificate of compliance, construction permit or authorization issued by the NRC; who have filed an application with the NRC to construct a facility or to receive source or special nuclear material; or who possess source or special nuclear material subject to NRC regulation under 10 CFR Chapter I.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part do not apply to facilities or locations determined by the U.S. Government to be associated with activities or information of direct national security significance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19609, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.3   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of this part that it determines are authorized by law and consistent with the safeguards agreements, are not inimical to the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19609, May 4 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>Unless otherwise defined in this section, the terms defined in §§ 40.4, 50.2, 53.020, and 70.4 of this chapter have the same meaning when used in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Additional Protocol</I> means the Protocol Additional to the Agreement Between the United States of America and the International Atomic Energy Agency for the Application of Safeguards in the United States of America, concluded between the United States and the IAEA in Vienna, Austria, on June 12, 1998, that follows the provisions of INFCIRC/540.
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> as designated in part 150 of this chapter means any State with which the Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b. of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Batch</I> means a portion of nuclear material handled as a unit for accounting purposes at a key measurement point and for which the composition and quantity are defined by a single set of specifications or measurements. The nuclear material may be in bulk form or contained in a number of separate items.
</P>
<P><I>Complementary access</I> means access provided to IAEA inspectors in accordance with the provisions of the Additional Protocol.
</P>
<P><I>Containment</I> (with respect to IAEA safeguards) means containers, devices, or structures that are used to prevent undetected access to or movement of nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Effective kilogram</I> means a unit used in safeguarding nuclear material. The quantity is:
</P>
<P>(1) For special nuclear material: The amount specified in § 70.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For source material: The amount specified in § 40.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Facilities List</I> means the list of facilities that are eligible for IAEA safeguards inspections under the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, which the Secretary of State or his designee last submitted for Congressional review and which was not disapproved. A copy of this list is available for inspection at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room. In accordance with the provisions of the Safeguards Agreement, facilities of direct national security significance are excluded from the Eligible Facilities List.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental sampling</I> (with respect to IAEA Safeguards) means the collection of environmental samples (e.g., air, water, vegetation, soil, or smears from surfaces) at a location specified by the IAEA for the purpose of assisting the IAEA to draw a conclusion about the absence of undeclared nuclear material or nuclear activities.


</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(6) Any plant or location where the possession of more than 1 effective kilogram of nuclear material is licensed pursuant to 10 CFR part 40, 50, 53, 60, 61, 63, 70, 72, 76, or 150 of this chapter or an Agreement State license.
</P>
<P><I>Facility attachment</I> means a document negotiated between the U.S. and the IAEA that establishes safeguards commitments for a particular facility.
</P>
<P><I>IAEA</I> means the International Atomic Energy Agency or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>IAEA material balance area</I> means an area established for IAEA accounting purposes, such that:
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity of nuclear material in each transfer into or out of each material balance area can be determined; and
</P>
<P>(2) The physical inventory of nuclear material in each material balance area can be determined when necessary in accordance with specified procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Initial protocol</I> means the protocol to the <I>Agreement Between the United States of America and the International Atomic Energy Agency for the Application of Safeguards in the United States of America</I> that was concluded with the IAEA and provides the IAEA the right to select a facility for material accounting reporting only without the right to conduct inspections.
</P>
<P><I>Inventory change</I> means an increase or decrease in the quantity of nuclear material in an IAEA material balance area.
</P>
<P><I>Key measurement point</I> means a physical location where nuclear material appears in such a form that it may be measured to determine material flow or inventory. Key measurement points include, but are not limited to, inputs and outputs (including measured discards) and storages in IAEA material balance areas.
</P>
<P><I>Location</I> means any geographical point or area subject to IAEA safeguards under the Additional Protocol because it was identified either by the U.S. in its declarations, or by the IAEA resulting from a question.
</P>
<P><I>Managed access</I> means procedures to protect sensitive or classified information or, to meet safety or physical protection requirements, while allowing the IAEA to accomplish the purpose of a complementary access request.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear fuel cycle-related manufacturing and construction</I> means those activities related to the manufacture or construction of any of the following: Components for separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235, zirconium tubes, heavy water or deuterium, nuclear-grade graphite, irradiated fuel casks and canisters, reactor control rods, criticality safe tanks and vessels, irradiated fuel element chopping machines, and hot cells.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear fuel cycle-related research and development</I> means those activities specifically related to any process or system development aspect of any of the following: Conversion of nuclear material; enrichment of nuclear material; nuclear fuel fabrication; reactors; critical facilities; reprocessing of nuclear fuel; and processing of intermediate or high-level waste containing plutonium, high-enriched uranium, or uranium-233.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear material</I> means any source material or any special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear material outside facilities</I> means nuclear material in the U.S. Caribbean Territories that is not in a facility, and is customarily used in amounts of one effective kilogram or less.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, government agency other than the Commission or the U.S. Department of Energy (except that the Department shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to law) any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Physical location</I> means a specific geographical point or area, where either nuclear material subject to Safeguards Agreements resides or an activity subject to the Safeguards Agreements occurs.
</P>
<P><I>Safeguards Agreements</I> means the Agreement between the United States of America and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards in the United States (INFCIRC/288) and all protocols and subsidiary arrangements thereto, and the Agreement between the United States and the International Atomic Energy Agency for the Application of Safeguards in Connection with the Treaty for the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons in Latin America (INFCIRC/366) and all protocols and subsidiary arrangements thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Small Quantities Protocol</I> means the Small Quantities Protocol to the Agreement between the United States of America and the International Atomic Energy Agency for the Application of Safeguards in Connection with the Treaty for the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons in Latin America (INFCIRC/366).
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary Arrangement</I> means a document, negotiated between the U.S. and the IAEA, that formally defines the technical and administrative procedures to implement the measures contained in the Safeguards Agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Surveillance</I> (with respect to IAEA Safeguards) means instrumental or human observation aimed at detecting the movement of nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Transitional Facility Attachment</I> means that portion of the “Transitional Subsidiary Arrangements to the Protocol to the Safeguards Agreement” that pertains to a particular facility that has been identified under the Initial Protocol.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Caribbean Territories</I> means those territories for which, de jure or de facto, the U.S. is internationally responsible and which lie within the limits of the geographical zone established in Article 4 of the Treaty for the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons in Latin America and the Caribbean (Tlatelolco Treaty), which includes: Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Navassa Island, Serranilla Bank, Baja Nuevo (Petrel Island), and the Guantanamo Bay Naval Base.
</P>
<P><I>U.S.-IAEA Caribbean Territories Safeguards Agreement</I> means the Agreement between the United States of America and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards in Connection with the Treaty for the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons in Latin America (INFCIRC/366), and all protocols and subsidiary arrangements thereto.
</P>
<P><I>U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement</I> means the Agreement between the United States of America and the International Atomic Energy Agency for the Application of Safeguards in the United States (INFCIRC/288), and all protocols and subsidiary arrangements thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 50711, July 13, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 58283, Dec. 1, 1981; 53 FR 31683, Aug. 19, 1988; 57 FR 18393, Apr. 30, 1992; 57 FR 33432, July 29, 1992; 63 FR 26963, May 15, 1998; 66 FR 55816, Nov. 2, 2001; 73 FR 78608, Dec. 23, 2008; 83 FR 19609, May 4, 2018; 91 FR 15878, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as authorized specifically by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 50711, July 31, 1980, as amended at 90 FR 55633, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.6   Reporting requirements for facilities, locations, and nuclear material outside facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where otherwise specified, all communications concerning the regulations in this part shall be addressed to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, ATTN: Document Control Desk, Washington, DC 20555-0001. Written communications may be delivered in person to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20852-2738 between 7:30 a.m. and 4:15 p.m. eastern time. If a submittal deadline falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, the next Federal working day becomes the official due date.
</P>
<P>(b) Each applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities, who has been given notice by the NRC in writing that it is required to report under Safeguards Agreements for its facility, nuclear material outside facilities, or location, shall make its initial and subsequent reports, including attachments, in an appropriate format defined in the instructions. The DOE/NRC forms and their instructions may be accessed at <I>https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms.</I> The AP-A and associated forms may be accessed at <I>www.AP.gov.</I>

</P>
<P>(c) Facilities—Specific information regarding facilities is to be reported as follows:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Section
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Manner of delivery
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Inventory Report</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOE/NRC Form-742C.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inventory Change Reports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOE/NRC Form-741 and Form-740M.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Material Status Reports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOE/NRC Form-742, Form-742C, and Form-740M.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Special Reports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">To the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Advance Notification of Import and Exports or of Domestic Transfers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In writing to the NRC, as specified in 75.6(a), 75.44, and 75.45.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Facility information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.10(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Site information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.10(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Locations—Specific information regarding locations is to be reported as follows:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Section
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Manner of delivery
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel cycle-related research and development information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.11(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel cycle-related manufacturing and construction information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.11(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mines and concentration plant information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.11(b)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Impure source material possession information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.11(b)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Imports and exports of source material for non-nuclear end uses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.11(b)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IAEA safeguards-exempted and terminated nuclear material information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.11(b)(6)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Imports and exports of non-nuclear material and equipment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.11(b)(7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) Nuclear material outside facilities—Specific information regarding nuclear material outside facilities in the U.S. Caribbean Territories is to be reported as follows:

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Section
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Manner of delivery
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Inventory Report</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOE/NRC Form-742C and DOE/NRC Form 740M.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inventory Change Reports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOE/NRC Form-741 and DOE/NRC Form-740M.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Material Status Reports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOE/NRC Form-742, DOE/NRC Form-742C, and DOE/NRC Form-740M.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Special Reports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">To the NRC Headquarters Operations Center (commercial telephone number 301-816-5100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Advance Notification of Import and Exports or of Domestic Transfers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In writing to the NRC, as specified in 75.6(a), 75.43, 75.44, and 75.45.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nuclear Material Outside Facilities Information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As specified by printed instructions for preparation of DOE/NRC Form 740M.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78609, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 80 FR 45844, Aug. 3, 2015; 83 FR 19610, May 4, 2018, 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.7   Notification of IAEA safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NRC, by written notice, will inform the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder of those facilities subject to the application of IAEA safeguards under the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee must inform the NRC in accordance with § 75.6(c):
</P>
<P>(1) Before the licensee begins an activity that may be subject to the U.S-IAEA Safeguards Agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Within 30 days of beginning an activity subject to the Additional Protocol.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice provided under paragraph (a) of this section is effective until the NRC informs the licensee or certificate holder, in writing, that its facility is no longer so designated. Whenever a previously designated facility is no longer subject to the application of IAEA safeguards under the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement, the NRC will give the licensee or certificate holder prompt notice to that effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19610, May 4, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.8   IAEA inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As provided in the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement and Additional Protocol, inspections may be ad hoc, routine, special, or a complementary access (or a combination of the foregoing). As provided in the Small Quantities Protocol of the U.S.-IAEA Caribbean Territories Safeguards Agreement, inspections may be ad hoc or special. The objectives of the IAEA inspectors in the performance of inspections are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Ad hoc inspections to verify information contained in the licensee's, applicant's, certificate holder's, or possessor's of nuclear material outside facilities facility information or initial inventory report, or to identify and verify changes in the situation that have occurred after the inventory date under § 75.32(a) or (b) at any physical location where the initial inventory report or any inspections carried out indicate that nuclear material subject to safeguards pursuant to the Safeguards Agreements may be present;
</P>
<P>(2) Ad hoc inspections to identify and, if possible, verify the quantity and composition of the nuclear material referred to in notifications specified under § 75.43(b) (pertaining to exports) or § 75.43(c) (pertaining to imports) at any place where nuclear material may be located;
</P>
<P>(3) Routine inspections are conducted as specified by the facility attachments referred to in § 75.15 to verify nuclear material and as-built facility design at the strategic points and the records maintained under this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Special inspections may be conducted at any of the physical locations specified above and any additional places where the NRC (in coordination with other Federal agencies), in response to an IAEA request, finds access to be necessary;
</P>
<P>(5) Complementary access may be conducted at a location, using measures permitted under the Additional Protocol and as specified by managed access procedures, for the IAEA inspectors to verify the completeness and accuracy of the information provided on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 or AP-A and associated forms; and
</P>
<P>(6) Complementary access must be provided at any additional locations where the Commission (in coordination with other Federal agencies), in response to an IAEA request, finds access to be necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC will notify the applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities of each such inspection or complementary access in writing as soon as possible after receiving the IAEA's notice from the U.S. Department of State. The applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities should consult with the NRC immediately if the inspection or complementary access would unduly interfere with its activities or if its key personnel cannot be available.
</P>
<P>(c) Each applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities subject to the provisions of this part shall recognize as a duly authorized representative of the IAEA any person bearing IAEA credentials for whom the NRC has provided written or electronic authorization that the IAEA representative is permitted to conduct inspection activities on specified dates. If the IAEA representative's credentials have not been confirmed by the NRC, the applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall not admit the person until the NRC has confirmed the person's credentials. The applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall notify the NRC promptly, by telephone, whenever an IAEA representative arrives at a facility, nuclear material outside facilities, or location without advance notification. The applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall also contact the NRC, by telephone, within 1 hour with respect to the credentials of any person who claims to be an IAEA representative and shall accept written or electronic confirmation of the credentials from the NRC. Confirmation may be requested through the NRC Operations Center (commercial telephone number 301-816-5100).
</P>
<P>(d) Each applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities subject to the provisions of this part shall allow the IAEA opportunity to conduct an NRC-approved inspection or complementary access of the facility, nuclear material outside facilities, or location to verify the information submitted under §§ 75.10 through 75.12 and 75.31 through 75.43. The NRC will assign an employee to accompany IAEA representative(s) at all times during the inspection or complementary access. The applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities may accompany IAEA representatives who inspect or access the facility, nuclear material outside facilities, or location. The IAEA representatives should not be delayed or otherwise impeded in the exercise of their duties.
</P>
<P>(e) Each applicant, licensee, or certificate holder shall permit the IAEA, in conducting an ad hoc, routine, or special inspection at a facility, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Examine records kept under § 75.21;
</P>
<P>(2) Observe that the measurements of nuclear material at key measurement points for material balance accounting are representative;
</P>
<P>(3) Verify the function and calibration of instruments and other measurement control equipment;
</P>
<P>(4) Observe that samples at key measurement points for material balance accounting are taken in accordance with procedures that produce representative samples, observe the treatment and analysis of the samples, and obtain duplicates of these samples;
</P>
<P>(5) Arrange to use the IAEA's own equipment for independent measurement and surveillance; and
</P>
<P>(6) Perform other measures requested by the IAEA and approved by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(f) Each applicant, licensee, or certificate holder shall, at the request of an IAEA inspector during an ad hoc, routine, or special inspection at a facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Ship material accountancy samples taken for the IAEA's use, in accordance with applicable packaging and export licensing regulations, by the method of carriage and to the address specified by the inspector; and
</P>
<P>(2) Take other actions contemplated by the Safeguards Agreement, and included in the safeguards approach approved by the United States and the IAEA, including but not limited to the following examples:
</P>
<P>(i) Enabling the IAEA to arrange to install its equipment for measurement and surveillance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enabling the IAEA to apply its seals and other identifying and tamper-indicating devices to containers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Making additional measurements and taking additional samples for the IAEA's use;
</P>
<P>(iv) Analyzing the IAEA's standard analytical samples;
</P>
<P>(v) Using appropriate standards in calibrating instruments and other equipment; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Carrying out other calibrations.
</P>
<P>(g) Each applicant, licensee, or certificate holder shall permit the IAEA, in conducting complementary access at a location, under the provisions of the Additional Protocol and subsidiary arrangements, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Perform visual observations and record observations as photographs;
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct environmental sampling, when authorized by the U.S. Government;
</P>
<P>(3) Use radiation detection and measurement devices;
</P>
<P>(4) Apply seals and other identifying and tamper-indicating devices;
</P>
<P>(5) Perform nondestructive measurements and sampling;
</P>
<P>(6) Examine records relevant to quantities, origin, and disposition of materials to confirm the accuracy of the information provided under § 75.11;
</P>
<P>(7) Examine safeguards-relevant production and shipping records; and
</P>
<P>(8) Other objective measures that have been demonstrated to be technically feasible and the use of which has been agreed upon by the IAEA Board of Governors and following consultations between the IAEA and U.S. Government.
</P>
<P>(h) Each possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall permit the IAEA, in conducting an ad hoc or special inspection for nuclear material outside facilities, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Observe that the measurements of nuclear material at key measurement points for material balance accounting are representative;
</P>
<P>(2) Verify the function and calibration of instruments and other measurement control equipment;
</P>
<P>(3) Observe that samples at key measurement points for material balance accounting are taken in accordance with procedures that produce representative samples, observe the treatment and analysis of the samples, and obtain duplicates of these samples;
</P>
<P>(4) Arrange to use the IAEA's own equipment for independent measurement and surveillance; and
</P>
<P>(5) Perform other measures requested by the IAEA and approved by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(i) Each possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall, at the request of an IAEA inspector during an ad hoc or special inspection for nuclear material outside facilities:
</P>
<P>(1) Ship material accountancy samples taken for the IAEA's use, in accordance with applicable packaging and export licensing regulations, by the method of carriage and to the address specified by the inspector; and
</P>
<P>(2) Take other actions contemplated by the U.S.-IAEA Caribbean Territories Safeguards Agreement and included in the safeguards approach approved by the United States and the IAEA, including but not limited to the following examples:
</P>
<P>(i) Enabling the IAEA to arrange to install its equipment for measurement and surveillance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enabling the IAEA to apply its seals and other identifying and tamper-indicating devices to containers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Making additional measurements and taking additional samples for the IAEA's use;
</P>
<P>(iv) Analyzing the IAEA's standard analytical samples;
</P>
<P>(v) Using appropriate standards in calibrating instruments and other equipment; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Carrying out other calibrations.
</P>
<P>(j) Nothing in this section requires or authorizes an applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities to carry out any operation that would otherwise constitute a violation of the terms of any applicable license, regulation, or order of the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78609, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 19610, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.0.121.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.9   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission, or another U.S. Government agency, has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this Part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this Part under control number 3150-0055.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this Part appear in §§ 75.3, 75.6, 75.7a, 75.10, 75.11, 75.12, 75.21, 75.22, 75.23, 75.24, 75.31, 75.32, 75.33, 75.34, 75.35, 75.36, 75.43, 75.44, and 75.45.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 75.10, Design Information Questionnaire forms are approved under control number 3150-0056.
</P>
<P>(2) In §§ 75.31, 75.32, 75.33, and 75.35, DOE/NRC Form 742 is approved under control number 3150-0004.
</P>
<P>(3) In §§ 75.33 and 75.34, DOE/NRC Form 741 is approved under control number 3150-0003.
</P>
<P>(4) In §§ 75.34 and 75.35, DOE/NRC Form 740M is approved under OMB control number 3150-0057. 
</P>
<P>(5) In § 75.35, DOE/NRC Form 742C is approved under control number 3150-0058.
</P>
<P>(6) In §§ 75.10 and 75.11, DOC/NRC Forms AP-1, AP-A, and associated forms are approved under control number 0694-0135.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19628, May 9, 1984, as amended at 62 FR 52189, Oct. 6, 1997; 67 FR 67101, Nov. 4, 2002; 73 FR 78610, Dec. 23, 2008; 83 FR 19611, May 4, 2018; 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Information for Facilities, Locations, and Nuclear Material Outside Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.10   Facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant, licensee, or certificate holder subject to the provisions of this Part shall submit facility information, in response to written notification from the NRC, with respect to any facility that the NRC indicates has been identified under the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement, the Initial Protocol to the Agreement, or meets the Additional Protocol reporting criteria, and in which the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder carries out licensed activities. (The NRC request must state whether the facility has been identified under Article 39(b) of the principal text of the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement or Article 2(a) of the Initial protocol.) The applicant, licensee, or certificate holder shall submit the requested information to the NRC within the period specified in the NRC's request.
</P>
<P>(b) Facility information includes:
</P>
<P>(1) The identification of the facility, stating its general character, purpose, nominal capacity (thermal power level, in the case of power reactors), and geographic physical location, and the name and address to be used for routine purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the general arrangement of the facility with reference, to the extent feasible, to the form, physical location and flow of nuclear material, and to the general layout of important items of equipment which use, produce, or process nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of features of the facility relating to material accounting, containment, and surveillance;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the existing and proposed procedures at the facility for nuclear material accounting and control, with special reference to material balance areas established by the licensee, measurement of flow, and procedures for physical inventory taking (As part of this description, the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder may identify a process step involving information that it deems to be commercially sensitive and for which it proposes that a special material balance area be established so as to restrict IAEA access to this information); and
</P>
<P>(5) A map of the site and information on the size of the buildings and on the general nature of the activities conducted in each building.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee or certificate holder shall thereafter submit to the NRC information with respect to any modification at the facility affecting the information referred to in paragraph (a) of this section. The following information must be submitted:
</P>
<P>(1) Regarding a modification of a type described in the license or certificate conditions: At least 180 days before the modification is scheduled to be started, except that in an emergency or other unforeseen situation a shorter period may be approved by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(2) Regarding any other modification relevant to the application of the provisions of the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement: At the time the first inventory change report is submitted after the modification is completed.
</P>
<P>(d) The information specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, except for the information specified in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, must be prepared on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms or other forms supplied by the NRC. The information must be sufficiently detailed to enable knowledgeable determinations to be made in the development of Facility Attachments or amendments thereto, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the features of facilities and nuclear material relevant to the application of safeguards to nuclear material in sufficient detail to facilitate verification;
</P>
<P>(2) Determination of IAEA material balance areas to be used for IAEA accounting purposes and selection of those strategic points which are key measurement points and which will be used to determine flow and inventory of nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(3) Establishment of the nominal timing and procedures for taking of physical inventories of nuclear material for IAEA accounting purposes;
</P>
<P>(4) Establishment of the records and reports requirements and records evaluation procedures;
</P>
<P>(5) Establishment of requirements and procedures for verification of the quantity and physical location of nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(6) Selection of appropriate combinations of containment and surveillance methods and techniques at the strategic points at which they are to be applied; and
</P>
<P>(7) Information on organizational responsibility for material accounting and control.
</P>
<P>(e) Information specified in paragraph (b)(5) of this section must be submitted as specified by instructions for DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms and shall contain a site map drawn to scale as an attachment.
</P>
<P>(f) The applicant's, licensee's, or certificate holder's security rules for physical protection that will impact the IAEA inspectors at the facility must be included in the facility information only when and to the extent specifically requested by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(g) Health and safety rules that are to be observed by the IAEA inspectors at the facility must be included in the facility information.
</P>
<P>(h) Information must be provided on the need to manage IAEA access to the facility to protect health and safety or to protect classified, proprietary, or other sensitive information, and on other protective measures that should be implemented should an IAEA access be requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78611, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 19611, May 4, 2018; 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.11   Locations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As required by the Additional Protocol, each applicant, licensee, or certificate holder shall submit location information to the NRC as specified in the instructions for DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms.
</P>
<P>(b) Location information includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Nuclear fuel cycle-related research and development information including a general description of the activity and information specifying the physical location of the activity.
</P>
<P>(2) Nuclear fuel cycle-related manufacturing or construction information including a description of the scale of operations for the activity.
</P>
<P>(3) Uranium and thorium mine and concentration plant information including information on the physical location, operational status, and the estimated annual production capacity and current annual production of the activity.
</P>
<P>(4) Impure source material possession information including the quantities, the chemical composition, and the use or intended use of the material (e.g., nuclear or non-nuclear use).
</P>
<P>(5) Imports and exports of source material for non-nuclear end uses including the physical location, quantities, chemical compositions, and use of the imported or exported material.
</P>
<P>(6) IAEA-exempted and -terminated nuclear material information including information regarding the quantities, uses, and physical location of the nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(7) Imports and exports of non-nuclear material and equipment including the physical location, quantity and description of the materials and equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) Information specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(7) of this section must be supplied as specified in the instructions for DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms. The Information provided on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms must be submitted annually. If the information has not changed, a “No change” report must be provided. NRC should also be notified when the activity is no longer performed. The annual report must be submitted by January 31 of each succeeding year after the initial report. The initial report must be submitted no later than 30 calendar days following the date of publication of this rule.
</P>
<P>(d) Information must be provided on the need to manage IAEA access to the location to protect health and safety or to protect classified, proprietary, or other sensitive information, and on other protective measures that should be implemented should an IAEA access be requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78611, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 19611, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.12   Nuclear material outside facilities.</HEAD>
<P>A possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall provide to the NRC the possessor's name and mailing address, physical location of the nuclear material, use of nuclear material, and nuclear material accounting and control procedures, including organizational responsibilities for accountancy and control. This information must be provided annually with the material status report in accordance with §§ 75.6(e) and 75.35(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19611, May 4, 2018]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.13   Communication of information to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the NRC will furnish to the IAEA all information submitted under §§ 75.10, 75.11, 75.12, and 75.31 through 75.43.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities may request that information of particular sensitivity, that it customarily holds in confidence, not be transmitted physically to the IAEA. An applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities who makes this request shall, at the time the information is submitted, identify the pertinent document or part thereof and make a full statement of the reasons supporting the request.
</P>
<P>(2) In considering such a request, it is the policy of the NRC to achieve an effective balance between legitimate concerns of licensees, applicants, certificate holders, or possessors of nuclear material outside facilities, including protection of the competitive position of the owner of the information, and the undertaking of the United States to cooperate with the IAEA to facilitate the implementation of the safeguards provided for in the Safeguards Agreements. The NRC will take into account the obligation of the IAEA to take every precaution to protect commercial and industrial secrets and other confidential information coming to its knowledge in the implementation of the safeguards agreements.
</P>
<P>(3) A request made under § 2.390 of this chapter will not be treated as a request under this section unless the application makes specific reference to this section, nor shall a determination to withhold information from public disclosure necessarily require a determination that such information not be transmitted physically to the IAEA.
</P>
<P>(4) If a request is granted, the NRC will determine a physical location where the information will remain readily available for examination by the IAEA and will so inform the applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) A request made under § 2.390(b) of this chapter will not be treated as a request under this section unless the application makes specific reference to this section, nor shall a determination to withhold information from public disclosure necessarily require a determination that this information not be transmitted physically to the IAEA.
</P>
<P>(d) Where consistent with the Safeguards Agreements, the NRC may at its own initiative, or at the request of a licensee, determine that any information submitted under §§ 75.10, 75.11, and 75.12 shall not be physically transmitted to, or made available for examination by, the IAEA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19611, May 4, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="122" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Material Accounting and Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.15   Facility attachments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Facility Attachment or Transitional Facility Attachment will document the determinations referred to in § 75.10 and will contain other appropriate provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC will issue license or certificate amendments, as necessary, to implement the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement and the Facility Attachment (as amended from time to time). The license or certificate amendments through reference to the Facility Attachment or Transitional Facility Attachment, or otherwise, will specify:
</P>
<P>(1) IAEA material balance areas;
</P>
<P>(2) Types of modifications for which information is required, under § 75.10, to be submitted in advance;
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures, as referred to in § 75.21;
</P>
<P>(4) The extent to which isotopic composition must be included in batch data (under § 75.22) and advance notification (§ 75.45);
</P>
<P>(5) Items to be reported in the concise notes accompanying inventory change reports, as referred to in § 75.34;
</P>
<P>(6) Loss limits and changes in containment, as referred to in § 75.36 (pertaining to special reports);
</P>
<P>(7) Actions required to be taken under § 75.8(f) at the request of an IAEA inspector;
</P>
<P>(8) Procedures to be used for documentation of requests under § 75.46 (pertaining to expenses); and
</P>
<P>(9) Other appropriate matters.
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC will also issue license or certificate amendments, as necessary, for implementing the Initial Protocol to the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement and the Transitional Facility Attachment (as amended from time to time).
</P>
<P>(d) License or certificate amendments will be made under the NRC's rules of practice (part 2 of this chapter). Specifically, if the licensee or certificate holder does not agree to an amendment, an order modifying the license would be issued under § 2.204 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Subject to constraints imposed by the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement, the NRC will afford the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder a reasonable opportunity to participate in the development of the Facility Attachment or Transitional Facility Attachment applicable to the facility, and any amendments thereto, and to review and comment upon any instrument before it has been agreed to by the United States. The NRC will provide to the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder a copy of any such instrument that has been completed under the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement.
</P>
<P>(f) Locations reporting under the Additional Protocol, unless located in a facility selected under Article 39(b) of the main text of the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement, do not have Facility Attachments or Transitional Facility Attachments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78612, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 19612, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.21   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee or certificate holder who has been given notice by the NRC in writing that its facility has been identified under the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement shall establish, maintain, and follow written material accounting and control procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) Each possessor of nuclear material outside facilities in the U.S. Caribbean Territories shall establish, maintain, and follow written material accounting and control procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) The material accounting and control procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section shall include, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) A measurement system for the determination of the quantities of nuclear material received, produced, shipped, lost or otherwise removed from inventory, and the quantities on inventory; 
</P>
<P>(2) The evaluation of precision and accuracy of measurements and the estimation of measurement uncertainty; 
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures for identifying, reviewing and evaluating differences in shipper/receiver measurements; 
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures, including frequency, for taking a physical inventory; 
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures for the evaluation of accumulations of unmeasured inventory and unmeasured losses; and 
</P>
<P>(6) A system of accounting and operating records. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The procedures must, unless otherwise specified in license or certificate conditions, conform to the facility information submitted by the licensee under § 75.10.
</P>
<P>(2) Until facility information has been submitted by the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder, the procedures must be sufficient to document changes in the quantity of nuclear material in or at its facility. Observance of the procedures described in § 40.61 or § 74.15 of this chapter (or the corresponding provisions of the regulations of an Agreement State) by any applicant, licensee, or certificate holder subject thereto constitutes compliance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(e) The requirements of this section are in addition to any other requirements of this chapter, relating to material accounting and control, that may apply to the licensee. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 50711, July 31, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 19263, May 27, 1988; 67 FR 78149, Dec. 23, 2002; 73 FR 78613, Dec. 23, 2008; 83 FR 19612, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.22   Accounting records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The accounting records required by § 75.21 shall include, for each IAEA material balance area: 
</P>
<P>(1) All inventory changes, so as to permit a determination of the book inventory at any time; 
</P>
<P>(2) All measurement results that are used for determination of nuclear material quantities; and 
</P>
<P>(3) All adjustments and corrections that have been made with respect to inventory changes, book inventories and physical inventories. 
</P>
<P>(b) The records shall show, for each batch of nuclear material: material identification, batch data and source data. The <I>batch data</I> means a separate listing of the total weight of each element of nuclear material (including, as specified in the license conditions, isotopic composition for special nuclear material) with plutonium and enriched uranium measured in grams and natural or depleted uranium and thorium measured in kilograms. The <I>source data</I> are the data, recorded during measurement or calibration or used to derive empirical relationships, which identify nuclear material and provide batch data. 
</P>
<P>(c) For each inventory change, the records shall show the date of the inventory change and, when appropriate, (1) the originating IAEA material balance area or the shipper, and (2) the receiving IAEA material balance area or the recipient. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.23   Operating records.</HEAD>
<P>The operating records required by § 75.21 shall include, as appropriate, for each IAEA material balance area: 
</P>
<P>(a) Those operating data which are used to establish changes in the quantities and composition of nuclear material; 
</P>
<P>(b) The data obtained from the calibration of tanks and instruments and from sampling and analyses, the procedures employed to control the quality of measurements, and the derived estimates of random and systematic error; 
</P>
<P>(c) A description of the sequence of the actions taken in preparing for, and in taking, a physical inventory, to ensure that it is correct and complete; and 
</P>
<P>(d) A description of the actions taken to ascertain the magnitude and cause of any accidental or unmeasured loss that might occur. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.122.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.24   Retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall retain as a record any request made pursuant to §§ 75.13(b)(1), 75.13(b)(4), and 75.21 and documents related to that request, which are either prepared or received by that entity, until the NRC terminates the license or certificate, or until the entity no longer possesses nuclear material, whichever occurs later. When records required by these sections are superseded, these records must be retained for 3 years after each change is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall retain the records referred to in §§ 75.22 and 75.23 for at least 5 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19612, May 4, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="123" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.123" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>IAEA Nuclear Material Exemptions and Terminations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 19612, May 4, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 75.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.123.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.26   Exemption from IAEA safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The U.S. Government may request from the IAEA an exemption from IAEA safeguards with respect to nuclear material of the following types:
</P>
<P>(1) Source and special nuclear material in gram quantities or less as a sensing component in instruments;
</P>
<P>(2) Nuclear material used in nonnuclear activities; and
</P>
<P>(3) Plutonium with an isotopic concentration of plutonium-238 exceeding 80 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) Nuclear material exempted under paragraph (a) of this section must not exceed the quantity limits specified in the Safeguards Agreements.
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC shall provide a prompt notification of an exemption issued by the IAEA to the applicable licensee, certificate holder, or nuclear material outside facilities.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.123.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.27   Requirements for facilities, locations, and nuclear material outside facilities after issuance of IAEA exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Licensees of facilities.</I> After the NRC has notified a licensee of a facility under § 75.26(c) that the IAEA has approved the exemption requested under § 75.26(a) of this part, the licensee:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall submit reports to the NRC pursuant to §§ 75.6(c) and 75.31(a); and
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not export any nuclear material identified under § 75.26 until the NRC notifies the licensee that IAEA safeguards under the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement have been re-applied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensees of locations.</I> A licensee of a location shall provide annual updates pursuant to § 75.11(c) following notification from the NRC that the IAEA has approved the exemption requested under § 75.26.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Possessors of nuclear material outside facilities.</I> After the NRC has notified a possessor of nuclear material outside facilities under § 75.6(c) that the IAEA has approved the exemption requested under § 75.26(a), a possessor of nuclear material outside facilities:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall submit reports to the NRC pursuant to §§ 75.6(e) and 75.31(b); and
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not export out of the U.S. Caribbean Territories any nuclear material identified under § 75.26 until the NRC notifies the possessor that IAEA safeguards under the U.S.-IAEA Caribbean Territories Safeguards Agreement have been re-applied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition against commingling of nuclear material in storage.</I> Licensees of facilities, licensees of locations, and possessors of nuclear material outside facilities shall not store nuclear material exempted under § 75.26 together with nuclear material subject to Safeguards Agreements.
</P>
<P>(e) Nuclear material exempted from IAEA safeguards under § 75.26 is not subject to inspections by the IAEA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.28" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.123.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.28   Termination from IAEA safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon request of the U.S. Government, the IAEA may terminate IAEA safeguards on nuclear material that has been consumed, or has been diluted in such a way that it is no longer usable for any nuclear activity relevant from the point of view of safeguards, or has become practicably irrecoverable.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC will notify the affected licensees, certificate holders, and nuclear material outside facilities of the IAEA's termination of IAEA safeguards.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.29" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.123.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.29   Requirements for facilities, locations, and nuclear material outside facilities after termination from IAEA safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Licensees of facilities.</I> A licensee of a facility shall submit an Inventory Change Report pursuant to §§ 75.6(c) and 75.31(a) following notification from the NRC that IAEA safeguards have been terminated as described in § 75.28.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensees of locations.</I> A licensee of a location shall provide annual updates pursuant to § 75.11(c) following notification from the NRC that IAEA safeguards have been terminated as described in § 75.28.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Possessors of nuclear material outside facilities.</I> A possessor of nuclear material outside facilities shall submit an Inventory Change Report pursuant to §§ 75.6(e) and 75.31(b) following notification from the NRC that IAEA safeguards have been terminated as described in § 75.28.
</P>
<P>(d) Nuclear material that has had IAEA safeguards terminated as described in § 75.28 is not subject to inspections by the IAEA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="124" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.124" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.124.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.31   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee or certificate holder who has been given notice by the NRC under § 75.7 that its facility has been identified under the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement shall make, in an appropriate computer-readable format, an initial inventory report, and thereafter shall make accounting reports, with respect to the facility and, in addition, licensees or certificate holders who have been given notice, under § 75.7 that their facilities are subject to the application of IAEA safeguards, shall make the special reports described in § 75.36. These reports must be based on the records kept under § 75.21. At the request of the NRC, the licensee or certificate holder shall amplify or clarify any report with respect to any matter relevant to implementation of the U.S.-IAEA Safeguards Agreement. Any amplification or clarification must be in writing and must be submitted, to the address specified in the request, within 20 days of the date of the request or other time as may be specified by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) Each possessor of nuclear material outside facilities (possessor) subject to the U.S.-IAEA Caribbean Territories Safeguards Agreement shall make, in an appropriate computer-readable format, an initial inventory report in accordance with § 75.32 of this report. Thereafter, that possessor shall make accounting reports as described in §§ 75.33 through 75.35 and special reports as described in § 75.36. These reports must be based on the records kept under § 75.21(b). At the request of the NRC, the possessor shall amplify or clarify any report with respect to any matter relevant to implementation of the U.S.-IAEA Caribbean Territories Safeguards Agreement. Any amplification or clarification must be in writing and must be submitted, to the address specified in the request, within 20 days of the date of the request or other time as may be specified by the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19613, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.124.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.32   Initial inventory report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Licensees of facilities.</I> The initial inventory report must show the quantities of nuclear material at a facility. The quantities reported in the initial inventory report must be accurate as of the last day of the calendar month in which the NRC gives notice to the licensee or certificate holder that an initial inventory report is required (the “inventory date” on DOE/NRC Form 742C).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Possessors of nuclear material outside facilities.</I> The initial inventory report must show the quantities of nuclear material outside facilities. The quantities reported in the initial inventory report must be accurate as of the last day of the calendar month in which the possessor of nuclear material outside facilities becomes subject to the requirements of this part (the “inventory date” on DOE/NRC Form 742C).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial inventory report.</I> The information in the initial inventory report may be based upon the accounting records. The initial inventory report must be submitted to the NRC on DOE/NRC Form 742C in accordance with the instructions in NUREG/BR-0007 and NMMSS Report D-24 “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Copies of the instructions for completing DOE/NRC Form 742C and DOE/NRC Form 740M may be obtained from the following websites: <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/nuregs/brochures</I> and <I>https://nnsa.energy.gov/aboutus/ourprograms/nuclearsecurity/nmmsshome/nmmssinfo/nmmssreports.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report forms.</I> DOE/NRC Form 742C must be accompanied by DOE/NRC Form 740M if any batch of source material reported in DOE/NRC Form 742C is equal to or less than 0.4 kg.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Report submission.</I> The initial inventory report must be submitted to the NRC no later than 20 days after the inventory date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19613, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.124.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.33   Accounting reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The accounting reports for each IAEA material balance area must consist of:
</P>
<P>(i) Inventory Change Reports (Nuclear Material Transaction Report); and


</P>
<P>(ii) Material status reports showing the material balance based on a physical inventory of nuclear material actually present.
</P>
<P>(2) These prescribed computer-readable forms replace the following forms which have been submitted in paper form: 
</P>
<P>(i) The DOE/NRC Form 741; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The DOE/NRC Form 742. 
</P>
<P>(b) The reports shall be based on data available as of the date of reporting and may be corrected at a later date, as required. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 50711, July 31, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 19629, May 9, 1984; 59 FR 35622, July 13, 1994; 73 FR 78613, Dec. 23, 2008; 83 FR 19613, May 4, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.34" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.124.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.34   Inventory change reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee of a facility, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities who transfers nuclear material subject to IAEA safeguards shall submit an Inventory Change Report (Nuclear Material Transaction Report) to the NRC no later than the close of business the next working day after each transfer, in accordance with the instructions in NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24 “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Each licensee of a facility, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities who receives nuclear material subject to IAEA safeguards shall submit an Inventory Change Report to the NRC. Inventory Change Reports for receipts must be submitted within 10 days after the material is received, in accordance with the instructions in NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24 “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Copies of the instructions for completing DOE/NRC Form 741 and DOE/NRC Form 740M may be obtained from the following websites: <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/nuregs/brochures</I> and <I>https://nnsa.energy.gov/aboutus/ourprograms/nuclearsecurity/nmmsshome/nmmssinfo/nmmssreports.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) An Inventory Change Report (Nuclear Material Transaction Report) must specify identification and batch data for each batch of nuclear material, the date of the inventory change, and, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The originating IAEA material balance area or the shipper; and
</P>
<P>(2) The receiving IAEA material balance area or the recipient.
</P>
<P>(3) Each person who receives any nuclear material from a foreign source shall complete both the supplier's and receiver's portion of DOE/NRC Form 741.
</P>
<P>(4) Each person in the U.S. Caribbean Territories who receives nuclear material from the U.S. outside the U.S. Caribbean Territories shall complete both the supplier's and receiver's portion of DOE/NRC Form 741.
</P>
<P>(c) An Inventory Change Report must be accompanied by DOE/NRC Form 740M whenever it is necessary to:
</P>
<P>(1) Explain the inventory changes set forth in the operating records required by § 75.23; or
</P>
<P>(2) Describe, to the extent specified in the license conditions, the anticipated operational program for the facility, including, but not limited to, the schedule for taking physical inventory.
</P>
<P>(d) Copies of the instructions for completing DOE/NRC Form 741 and DOE/NRC Form 740M may be obtained from the following websites: <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/nuregs/brochures</I> and <I>https://nnsa.energy.gov/aboutus/ourprograms/nuclearsecurity/nmmsshome/nmmssinfo/nmmssreports.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19613, May 4, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.124.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.35   Material status reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee of a facility, certificate holder, or possessor of nuclear material outside facilities with nuclear materials subject to IAEA safeguards shall submit a material status report for each physical inventory taken in accordance with the material accounting and control procedures required by § 75.21. The material status report must include a DOE/NRC Form 742 and a DOE/NRC Form 742C, which lists all batches separately and specifies material identification and batch data for each batch. The reports described in this section must be prepared and submitted in accordance with instructions in NUREG/BR-0006, NUREG/BR-0007, and NMMSS Report D-24.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified in the license conditions, material status reports shall be submitted to the NRC as soon as possible, but in any event no later than 30 days after the start of the physical inventory.
</P>
<P>(c) Possessors of nuclear material outside facilities must submit a material status report to the NRC every 12 calendar months, for a reporting period that commences on May 1st and concludes on April 30th of the next calendar year. The annual inventory report must be dated April 30th.
</P>
<P>(d) A material status report must be accompanied by DOE/NRC Form 740M whenever it is necessary to:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the anticipated operational program;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide additional explanation and clarification at the country, facility material balance area, report, or entry level;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide additional explanation not accommodated in any of the data elements of DOE/NRC Form 742 or DOE/NRC Form 742C; or
</P>
<P>(4) Report actual inventory values equal to or less than 0.4 kg of source material.
</P>
<P>(e) Copies of the instructions for completing DOE/NRC Form 742, DOE/NRC Form 742C, and DOE/NRC Form 740M may be obtained from the following websites: <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/nuregs/brochures</I> and <I>https://nnsa.energy.gov/aboutus/ourprograms/nuclearsecurity/nmmsshome/nmmssinfo/nmmssreports.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19614, May 4, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.36" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.124.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.36   Special reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to licensees, certificate holders, and possessors of nuclear material outside facilities who:
</P>
<P>(1) Have been given notice under § 75.7(a) that their facilities are subject to the application of IAEA safeguards, or
</P>
<P>(2) Are subject to the U.S.-IAEA Caribbean Territories Safeguards Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Each entity subject to this section shall immediately make a special report to the NRC, by telephone, if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is a loss of nuclear material:
</P>
<P>(i) In excess of specified limits, as stated in license conditions, for those entities described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In any amount, for those entities described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section,
</P>
<P>(2) There are unexpected changes in containment to the extent that unauthorized removal of nuclear material has become possible, or
</P>
<P>(3) Reporting is required under a license condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 19614, May 4, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="125" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.125" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Advanced Notification and Expenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.125.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.43   Circumstances requiring advance notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person subject to the Safeguards Agreements shall give advance written notification to the NRC regarding the international and domestic transfers specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exports.</I> Notification shall be given of any proposed shipment of nuclear material for peaceful purposes under an export license issued pursuant to part 110 of this chapter, in an amount exceeding one effective kilogram, directly or indirectly to any non-nuclear-weapon state (as referred to in Article III(2) of the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, 21 U.S.T. 483). If the licensee anticipates that it will make two or more shipments for peaceful purposes, within any period of 90 days, directly or indirectly to destinations in the same non-nuclear-weapon state, notification shall be given of each shipment if the aggregate quantity of nuclear material to be transferred exceeds one effective kilogram. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> All foreign countries, with the exception of the People's Republic of China, France, the Soviet Union, and the United Kingdom, are non-nuclear-weapon states. Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, Article IX(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Imports.</I> (1) Notification shall be given (to the fullest extent possible on the basis of available information) with respect to nuclear material which immediately prior to export is subject to safeguards, under an agreement with the IAEA, in the country from which the material, directly or indirectly, is being exported. Such notification is only required, however, if the quantities of nuclear material are as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Notification shall be given with respect to any proposed import of nuclear material described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in an amount exceeding one effective kilogram. If the licensee anticipates that it will receive two or more shipments of such nuclear material, within any 90-day period from points of origin in the same country, notification shall be given with respect to each shipment if the aggregate quantity of such nuclear material to be received exceeds one effective kilogram.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Domestic transfers.</I> Notification must be given regarding any shipments of nuclear material (other than small quantities in the form of samples containing less than 0.01 effective kilogram per sample) to a non-eligible destination. As used in this paragraph, a <I>non-eligible destination</I> means any destination in the United States other than a facility on the Eligible Facilities List.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 50711, July 31, 1980, as amended at 73 FR 78613, Dec. 23, 2008; 83 FR 19614, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.44" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.125.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.44   Timing of advance notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, notification to the Commission, when required by § 75.43, must be given:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of exports and domestic transfers, at least 20 days in advance of the preparation of the nuclear material for shipment from the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of imports, at least 12 days in advance of the unpacking of nuclear material at the facility.
</P>
<P>(b) For a particular receipt or shipment of nuclear material, the Commission will approve a shorter notice period than that specified by paragraph (a) of this section, for good cause, if it determines that observing the specified notification period would result in delay in shipment or unpackaging.
</P>
<P>(c) The licensee shall inform the Commission, by phone, as soon as possible, with respect to any delay in the receipt (or unpackaging) or the shipment (or preparation for shipment) of nuclear material for which advance notification is required. New dates should be provided, if known.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 50711, July 31, 1980, as amended at 73 FR 78614, Dec. 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.125.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.45   Content of advance notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notifications required by § 75.43 must include the element weight of nuclear material being received or shipped, the chemical composition and physical form, the isotopic composition (to the extent specified by license conditions), the estimated date and place at the reporting facility where the nuclear material is to be unpackaged or prepared for shipment (and where the quantity and composition can be verified), the applicable IAEA material balance area at the reporting facility, the approximate number of items to be received or shipped, and the probable dates of receipt or shipment. The notification must indicate that the information is being supplied under § 75.43.
</P>
<P>(b) The notifications required with respect to export and import shipments shall also include 
</P>
<P>(1) If available, a general description of containers (including, in the case of exports, features that would permit sealing);
</P>
<P>(2) Destination of export as authorized under an export license issued pursuant to part 110 of this chapter, or origin of import (by country and, if known, place);
</P>
<P>(3) Means of transport; and
</P>
<P>(4) Expected date and place of arrival in the destination country (for exports) or in the United States (for imports).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 50711, July 31, 1980, as amended at 73 FR 78614, Dec. 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.125.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.46   Expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the Safeguards Agreements, the IAEA undertakes to reimburse any person subject to this part for extraordinary expenses incurred as a result of its specific request provided that the IAEA has agreed in advance to do so. The Safeguards Agreements also provide that the IAEA will reimburse that person for the cost of making additional measurements or taking samples at the specific request of an IAEA inspector.
</P>
<P>(b) The NRC will inform persons subject to this part, by license condition or by other means (e.g., written communication), of those items of extraordinary expense that the IAEA has agreed in advance to reimburse.
</P>
<P>(c) The NRC will inform persons subject to this part, by license condition or by other means (e.g., written communication), of the procedures to be used to document:
</P>
<P>(1) An IAEA inspector's request for making additional measurements or taking additional samples; and 
</P>
<P>(2) An IAEA request for a particular action by the licensee that will give rise to reimbursable extraordinary expense. 
</P>
<P>(d) The NRC will take appropriate action to assist persons subject to this part regarding the reimbursement of any expense that, under the Safeguards Agreements, is to be borne by the IAEA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 50711, July 31, 1980, as amended at 73 FR 78614, Dec. 23, 2008; 83 FR 19614, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="126" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.126" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.126.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.51   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(l)(i) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may issue orders to secure compliance with the provisions of this part or to prohibit any violation of such provisions as may be proper to protect the common defense and security. Enforcement actions, including proceedings instituted with respect to Agreement State licensees, will be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in part 2, subpart B of this chapter. Only NRC licensees, however, are subject to license modification, suspension, or revocation as a result of enforcement action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55079, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 75.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.15.1.126.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 75.53   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b., 161i., or 161o. of the Act. For purposes of criminal sanctions under section 223, all the regulations in part 75 are issued under one or more of sections 161b., 161i., or 161o., except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 75 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 75.1, 75.2, 75.3, 75.4, 75.5, 75.7, 75.9, 75.12, 75.13, 75.15, 75.26, 75.27, 75.28, 75.29, 75.46, 75.51, and 75.53.
</P>
<P>(c) Any provision in part 75 that implements the “Protocol Additional to the Agreement between the United States of America and the International Atomic Energy Agency for the Application of Safeguards in the United States of America,” known as the “Additional Protocol,” signed by the United States on June 12, 1998, is not issued under sections 161b., 161i., or 161o, for the purposes of criminal sanctions under section 223.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78614, Dec. 23, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 19614, May 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="76" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 76—CERTIFICATION OF GASEOUS DIFFUSION PLANTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 122, 161, 193(f), 223, 234, 1701 (42 U.S.C. 2152, 2201, 2243(f), 2273, 2282, 2297f); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206, 211 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846, 5851); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Section 76.22 is also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 193(f) (42 U.S.C. 2243(f)). 
</P><P>Section 76.35(j) also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 122 (42 U.S.C. 2152).
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes requirements that will govern the operation of those portions of the Portsmouth and Paducah Gaseous Diffusion Plants located in Piketon, Ohio, and Paducah, Kentucky, respectively, that are leased by the United States Enrichment Corporation. These requirements are promulgated to protect the public health and safety from radiological hazards and provide for the common defense and security. This part also establishes the certification process that will be used to ensure compliance with the established requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations contained in this part are issued pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919); Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended (88 Stat. 1242); and Titles IX and XI of the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (106 Stat. 2923, 2951).
</P>
<P>(c) The regulations contained in this part shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this part and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this part accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 90 FR 55633, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply only to those portions of the Portsmouth and Paducah Gaseous Diffusion Plants leased by the Corporation, per the Lease Agreement between the Department of Energy and the United States Enrichment Corporation. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to the Corporation or any contractor, or subcontractor any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to the activities subject to this part that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 76.10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat 919), and includes any amendments to the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Administrative controls</I> means the provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, recordkeeping, review and audit, and reporting necessary to ensure operation of the plant in a safe manner.
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means any State with which the Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b. of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Non-Agreement State</I> means any other State.
</P>
<P><I>Alert</I> means events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a release of radioactive material[s] but that the release is not expected to require a response by an offsite response organization to protect persons offsite.
</P>
<P><I>Atomic energy</I> means all forms of energy released in the course of nuclear fission or nuclear transformation.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate of compliance or certificate</I> means a certificate of compliance issued pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Classified matter</I> means documents or material revealing classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Common defense and security</I> means the common defense and security of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Compliance plan</I> means a plan for achieving compliance approved pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> means the United States Enrichment Corporation (USEC), or its successor, a Corporation that is authorized by statute to lease the gaseous diffusion enrichment plants in Paducah, Kentucky, and Piketon, Ohio, from the department of Energy, or any person authorized to operate one or both of the gaseous diffusion plants, or other facilities, pursuant to a plan for the privatization of USEC that is approved by the President.
</P>
<P><I>Department and Department of Energy (DOE)</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>), to the extent that the Department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the U.S. Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components and transferred to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to Sections 104(b), (c), and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to Section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151).
</P>
<P><I>Depleted uranium</I> means the byproduct residues from the uranium enrichment process in which the concentration of the isotope U<E T="52">235</E> is less than that occurring in natural uranium.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, or his or her designee, of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Effective dose equivalent</I> means the sum of the products of the dose equivalent to the body organ or tissue and the weighting factors applicable to each of the body organs or tissues that are irradiated, as defined in 10 CFR Part 20 (§§ 20.1001 through 20.2402).
</P>
<P><I>Effective kilograms of special nuclear material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For uranium with an enrichment in the isotope U-235 of 0.01 (1 percent) and above, its element weight in kilograms multiplied by the square of its enrichment expressed as a decimal weight fraction; and
</P>
<P>(2) For uranium with an enrichment in the isotope U-235 below 0.01 (1 percent), its element weight in kilograms multiplied by 0.0001.
</P>
<P><I>Formula quantity</I> means strategic special nuclear material in any combination in a quantity of 5000 grams or more computed by the formula, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2.5(grams U-233 + grams plutonium).
</P>
<P><I>Lease Agreement</I> means the agreement entered into as of July 1, 1993, and any subsequent revisions between the United States Department of Energy and the United States Enrichment Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Limiting conditions for operation</I> means the lowest functional capability or performance levels of structures, systems, components, and their support systems required for normal safe operation of the plant.
</P>
<P><I>Limiting control settings</I> means settings for automatic alarm or protective devices related to those variables having significant safety functions. 
</P>
<P><I>National Security Information</I> means information that has been determined pursuant to Executive Order 12356 or any predecessor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and that is so designated.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government Agency other than the Commission or the Department, except that the Department shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to Section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, (88 Stat. 1244); any State or any political subdivision of or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Process</I> means a series of actions that achieves an end or result.
</P>
<P><I>Produce,</I> when used in relation to special nuclear material, means:
</P>
<P>(1) To manufacture, make, produce, or refine special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2) To separate special nuclear material from other substances in which such material may be contained; or
</P>
<P>(3) To make or to produce new special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive material</I> means source material, special nuclear material, or byproduct material, possessed, used, transferred, or disposed of under part 76.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data</I> means all data concerning design, manufacture or utilization of atomic weapons, the production of special nuclear material, or the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but does not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to Section 142 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Safety limits</I> means those bounds within which the process variables must be maintained for adequate control of the operation and that must not be exceeded in order to protect the integrity of the physical system that is designed to guard against the uncontrolled release of radioactivity.
</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any radioactive material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>Security facility approval</I> means that a determination has been made by the NRC that a facility is eligible to use, process, store, reproduce, transmit, or handle classified matter.
</P>
<P><I>Site area emergency</I> means events may occur, are in progress, or have occurred that could lead to a significant release of radioactive material and that could require a response by offsite response organizations to protect persons offsite. 
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means source material as defined in Section 11z. of the Act and in the regulations contained in part 40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium 233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of Section 51 of the Act, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched in any of the foregoing, but does not include source material.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material of low strategic significance</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Less than an amount of special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance, as defined in this section, but more than 15 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope), or 15 grams of uranium-233, or 15 grams of plutonium, or the combination of 15 grams when computed by the equation, grams = (grams contained U-235) + (grams plutonium) + (grams U-233); or
</P>
<P>(2) Less than 10,000 grams but more than 1000 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 10 percent or more but less than 20 percent in the U-235 isotope), or
</P>
<P>(3) 10,000 grams or more of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched above natural but less than 10 percent in the U-235 isotope). 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Less than a formula quantity of strategic special nuclear material but more than 1000 grams of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope), or more than 500 grams of uranium-233 or plutonium, or in a combined quantity of more than 1000 grams when computed by the equation, grams = (grams contained U-235) + 2 (grams U-233 + grams plutonium); or
</P>
<P>(2) 10,000 grams or more of uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 10 percent or more but less than 20 percent in the U-235 isotope).
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material scrap</I> means the various forms of special nuclear material generated during chemical and mechanical processing, other than recycle material and normal process intermediates, which are unsuitable for use in their present form, but all or part of which will be used after further processing.
</P>
<P><I>Strategic special nuclear material</I> means uranium-235 (contained in uranium enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope), uranium-233, or plutonium.
</P>
<P><I>Surveillance requirements</I> means requirements relating to test, calibration, or inspection to ensure that the necessary quality of systems and components is maintained, that plant operation will be within the safety limits, and that the limiting conditions of operation will be met. 
</P>
<P><I>Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information</I> is information whose unauthorized dissemination is prohibited under Section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Unreviewed safety question</I> means a change which involves any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The probability of occurrence or the consequences of an accident or malfunction of equipment important to safety previously evaluated in the safety analysis report may be increased;
</P>
<P>(2) A possibility for an accident or malfunction of a different type than any evaluated previously in the safety analysis report may be created; or
</P>
<P>(3) The margin of safety as defined in the basis for any technical safety requirement is reduced.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6669, Feb. 12, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) By mail addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; 
</P>
<P>(b) By hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. 
</P>
<P>(d) Classified communications shall be transmitted in accordance with § 95.39 of this chapter to the NRC Headquarters' classified mailing address listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter or delivered by hand in accordance with § 95.39 of this chapter to the NRC Headquarters' street address listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58822, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62685, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74981 Dec. 1, 2015; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.6   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.7   Employee protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Discrimination by the Corporation, a contractor, or a subcontractor of the Corporation against an employee for engaging in certain protected activities is prohibited. Discrimination includes discharge and other actions that relate to compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. The protected activities are established in Section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, and in general are related to the administration or enforcement of a requirement imposed under the Atomic Energy Act or the Energy Reorganization Act.
</P>
<P>(1) The protected activities include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the Commission or his or her employer information about alleged violations of either of the above statutes or possible violations of requirements imposed under either of the above statutes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Refusing to engage in any practice made unlawful under either of the above statutes or under these requirements if the employee has identified the alleged illegality to the employer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesting the Commission to institute action against his or her employer for the administration or enforcement of these requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Testifying in any Commission proceeding, or before Congress, or at any Federal or State proceeding regarding any provision (or proposed provision) of either of the above statutes; and
</P>
<P>(v) Assisting or participating in, or attempting to assist or participate in, the protected activities.
</P>
<P>(2) These activities are protected even if no formal proceeding is actually initiated as a result of the employee assistance or participation.
</P>
<P>(3) This section has no application to any employee alleging discrimination prohibited by this section who, acting without direction from his or her employer (or the employer's agent), deliberately causes a violation of any requirement of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, or the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee who believes that he or she has been discharged or otherwise discriminated against by any person for engaging in protected activities specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may seek a remedy for the discharge or discrimination through an administrative proceeding in the Department of Labor. The administrative proceeding must be initiated within 180 days after an alleged violation occurs by filing a complaint alleging the violation with the Department of Labor, Employment Standards Administration, Wage and Hour Division. The Department of Labor may order reinstatement, back pay, and compensatory damages.
</P>
<P>(c) A violation of paragraphs (a), (e), or (f) of this section by the Corporation, or a contractor or subcontractor of the Corporation may be grounds for:
</P>
<P>(1) Denial, revocation, or suspension of the certificate.
</P>
<P>(2) Imposition of a civil penalty on the Corporation or a contractor or subcontractor of the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(3) Other enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(d) Actions taken by an employer or others which adversely affect an employee may be predicated upon nondiscrimination grounds. The prohibition applies when the adverse action occurs because the employee has engaged in protected activities. An employee's engagement in protected activities does not automatically render him or her immune from discharge or discipline for legitimate reasons or from adverse action dictated by nonprohibited considerations.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The Corporation shall prominently post the revision of NRC Form 3, “Notice to Employees,” referenced in 10 CFR 19.11(c). This form must be posted at locations sufficient to permit employees protected by this section to observe a copy on the way to or from their place of work. Premises must be posted during the term of the certificate and for 30 days following certificate termination.
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation shall notify its contractors of the prohibition against discrimination for engaging in protected activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of NRC Form 3 may be obtained by writing to the NRC Region III Office listed in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter, via email to <I>Forms.Resource@nrc.gov,</I> or by visiting the NRC's online library at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/doc-collections/forms/.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) No agreement affecting the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, including an agreement to settle a complaint filed by an employee with the Department of Labor pursuant to Section 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, may contain any provision which would prohibit, restrict, or otherwise discourage an employee from participating in protected activity as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section including, but not limited to, providing information to the NRC or to his or her employer on potential violations or other matters within NRC's regulatory responsibilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 24553, May 9, 1995; 63 FR 15744, Apr. 1, 1998; 64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999; 68 FR 58822, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 63975, Nov. 14, 2007; 73 FR 30460, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 66606, Nov. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval not required.</HEAD>
<P>The information collection requirements contained in this part of limited applicability apply to a wholly-owned instrumentality of the United States and affect fewer than ten respondents. Therefore, Office of Management and Budget clearance is not required pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52190, Oct. 6, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.9   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission or information required by statute or by the Commission's rules, regulations, standards, orders, or other conditions to be maintained by the Corporation must be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) The Corporation shall notify the Commission of information identified as having for the regulated activity a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. The Corporation violates this paragraph only if the Corporation fails to notify the Commission of information that the Corporation has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification must be provided to the Administrator of NRC's Region III Office within 2 working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.10   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation or any employee of the Corporation and any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, or any employee of a contractor or subcontractor, who knowingly provides to the Corporation, or any contractor or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to the Corporation's activities subject to this part; may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or, but for detection, would have caused, the Corporation to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order, or any term, condition, or limitation of a certificate or approval issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, the Corporation, or its contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause the Corporation to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order, or any term, condition, or limitation of a certificate or approved compliance plan issued by the Director; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order or policy of the Corporation, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6669, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.21   Certificate required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation or its contractors may not operate the gaseous diffusion plants at Piketon, Ohio, and Paducah, Kentucky, unless an appropriate certificate of compliance, and/or an approved compliance plan is in effect under this part. Unless authorized by the NRC under other provisions of this chapter, a person other than the Corporation or its contractors may not acquire, deliver, receive, possess, use, or transfer radioactive material at the gaseous diffusion plants at Piketon, Ohio, and Paducah, Kentucky.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of §§ 30.41, 40.51, and 70.42 of this chapter, the Corporation shall be authorized to receive, and licensees shall be authorized to transfer to the Corporation, byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material to the extent permitted under the certificate of compliance issued, and/or the compliance plan approved, pursuant to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6669, Feb. 12, 1997; 64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.22   Ineligibility of certain applicants.</HEAD>
<P>A certificate of compliance may not be issued to the Corporation if the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(a) The Corporation is owned, controlled, or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or a foreign government; or
</P>
<P>(b) The issuance of such a certificate of compliance would be inimical to—
</P>
<P>(1) The common defense and security of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) The maintenance of a reliable and economical domestic source of enrichment services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.1.127.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.23   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon its own initiative or upon application of the Corporation, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the certification regulations as it determines are authorized by law and will not endanger life, or property, or the common defense and security, and are otherwise in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Application</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.31   Periodic application requirement.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation shall periodically apply to the Commission for a certificate of compliance, in accordance with § 76.36, on or before April 15 of the year specified in an existing certificate of compliance as determined by the Commission, but not less frequently than every 5 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.33   Application procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirements.</I> (1) An application for a certificate of compliance must be tendered by filing the application with the Director of the NRC's Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, with copies sent to the NRC Region III Office and appropriate resident inspector, in accordance with § 76.5. If the application is to be submitted electronically, see Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the Commission at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The application must include the full name, address, age (if an individual), and citizenship of the applicant. If the applicant is a corporation or other entity, the application must indicate the State where it was incorporated or organized; the location of the principal office; and the names, addresses, and citizenship of its principal officers. The applicant shall include any known information concerning the control or ownership, if any, exercised over the applicant by any alien, foreign corporation, or foreign government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oath or affirmation.</I> An application for a certificate of compliance must be executed in a signed original by a duly authorized officer of the Corporation under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pre-filing consultation.</I> The Corporation may confer with the Commission's staff before filing an application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> At any time during the review of an application, the Corporation may be required to supply additional information to the Commission's staff to enable the Commission or the Director, as appropriate, to determine whether the certificate should be issued or denied, or to determine whether a compliance plan should be approved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withholdable information.</I> If an application contains Restricted Data, National Security Information, Safeguards Information, Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information, proprietary data, or other withholdable information, the applicant shall ensure that the withholdable information is separate from the information to be made publicly available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 58822, Oct. 10, 2003; 74 FR 62685, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.35   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>The application for a certificate of compliance must include the information identified in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) A safety analysis report which must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The activities and locations involving special nuclear material and the general plan for carrying out these activities;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, amount, and specifications (including the chemical and physical form and, where applicable, isotopic content) of the special nuclear material, source and byproduct material the Corporation proposes to use, possess or produce, including any material held up in equipment from previous operations;
</P>
<P>(3) The qualifications requirements, including training and experience, of the Corporation's management organization and key individuals responsible for safety in accordance with the regulations in this chapter;
</P>
<P>(4) An assessment of accidents based on the requirements of § 76.85;
</P>
<P>(5) A training program that meets the requirements of § 76.95;
</P>
<P>(6) A description of equipment and facilities which will be used by the Corporation to protect health and minimize danger to life or property (such as handling devices, working areas, shields, measuring and monitoring instruments, devices for the treatment and disposal of radioactive effluent and wastes, storage facilities, provisions for protection against natural phenomena, fire protection systems, criticality accident alarm systems, etc.);
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the management controls and oversight program to ensure that activities directly relevant to nuclear safety and safeguards and security are conducted in an appropriately controlled manner that ensures protection of employee and public health and safety and protection of the national security interests; and
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the plant site, and a description of the principal structures, systems, and components of the plant.
</P>
<P>(b) A plan prepared and approved by DOE for achieving compliance with respect to any areas of noncompliance with the NRC's regulations that are identified by the Corporation as of the date of the application that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the areas of noncompliance;
</P>
<P>(2) A plan of actions and schedules for achieving compliance; and
</P>
<P>(3) A justification for continued operation with adequate safety and safeguards.
</P>
<P>(c) Any relevant information concerning deviations from the published Environmental Impact Statement, Environmental Assessments, or environmental permits under which the plants currently operate from which the Commission can prepare an environmental assessment related to the compliance plan.
</P>
<P>(d) A quality assurance program that meets the requirements of § 76.93.
</P>
<P>(e) Technical safety requirements in accordance with § 76.87. A summary statement of the bases or reasons for the requirements, other than those covering administrative controls, must also be included in the application, but will not be considered part of the technical safety requirements.
</P>
<P>(f) An emergency plan that meets the requirements of § 76.91.
</P>
<P>(g) A compliance status report that includes the status of various State, local and Federal permits, licenses, approvals, and other entitlements, as described in § 51.45(d) of this chapter. The report must include environmental and effluent monitoring data.
</P>
<P>(h) A fundamental nuclear material control plan which describes the measures used to control and account for special nuclear material that the Corporation uses, possesses, or has access to. The plan must describe, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) How formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material will be controlled and accounted for in accordance with the relevant requirements of subpart E;
</P>
<P>(2) How special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance will be controlled and accounted for in accordance with the relevant requirements of subpart E; and
</P>
<P>(3) How special nuclear material of low strategic significance will be controlled and accounted for in accordance with the relevant requirements of subpart E.
</P>
<P>(i) A transportation protection plan which describes the measures used to protect shipments of special nuclear material of low strategic significance in accordance with the relevant requirements of subpart E when in transit offsite.
</P>
<P>(j) A physical protection plan which describes the measures used to protect special nuclear material that the Corporation uses, possesses, or has access to at fixed sites. The plan must describe, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) How formula quantities of special nuclear material will be protected against both theft and radiological sabotage in accordance with the relevant requirements of subpart E;
</P>
<P>(2) How special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance will be protected in accordance with the relevant requirements of subpart E;
</P>
<P>(3) How special nuclear material of low strategic significance will be protected in accordance with the relevant requirements of subpart E; and
</P>
<P>(4) The measures used to protect special nuclear material while in transit between protected areas, all of which are located on a single fixed site under the control of the applicant. The level of protection afforded the material while in transit may not be less than that afforded the same material while it was within the protected area from which transit began.
</P>
<P>(k) A plan describing the facility's proposed security procedures and controls as set forth in § 95.15(b) of this chapter for protection of classified matter.
</P>
<P>(l)(1) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for a certificate and each recipient of a certificate shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on IAEA Design Information Questionnaire forms and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(2) As required by the Additional Protocol, shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; and
</P>
<P>(3) Shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA); and shall take other action as may be necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(m) A description of the program, as appropriate, for processing, management, and disposal of mixed and radioactive wastes and depleted uranium generated by operations. This description must be limited to processing, management, and disposal activities conducted during operation of the facilities while under lease to the Corporation. The application must also include a description of the waste streams generated by enrichment operations, annual volumes of depleted uranium and waste expected, identification of radioisotopes contained in the waste, physical and chemical forms of the depleted uranium and waste, plans for managing the depleted uranium and waste, and plans for ultimate disposition of the waste and depleted uranium before turnover of the facilities to the Department of Energy under the terms of the lease agreement between the United States Enrichment Corporation and the Department.
</P>
<P>(n) A description of the funding program to be established to ensure that funds will be set aside and available for those aspects of the ultimate disposal of waste and depleted uranium, decontamination and decommissioning, relating to the gaseous diffusion plants leased to the Corporation by the Department of Energy, which are the financial responsibility of the Corporation. The Corporation shall establish financial surety arrangements to ensure that sufficient funds will be available for the ultimate disposal of waste and depleted uranium, and decontamination and decommissioning activities which are the financial responsibility of the Corporation. The funding mechanism, such as prepayment, surety, insurance, or external sinking fund, must ensure availability of funds for any activities which are required to be completed both before or after the return of the gaseous diffusion facilities to the department of Energy in accordance with the lease between the Department and the Corporation. The funding program must contain a basis for cost estimates used to establish funding levels and must contain means of adjusting cost estimates and associated funding levels over the duration of the lease. The funding program need not address funding for those aspects of decontamination and decommissioning of the gaseous diffusion plants assigned to the Department of Energy under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. The Corporation should address the adequacy of the financing mechanism selected in its periodic application for certification. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997; 64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999; 73 FR 78614, Dec. 23, 2008; 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.36" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.36   Renewals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation shall file periodic applications for renewal, as required by § 76.31.
</P>
<P>(b) Information contained in previous applications, statements, or reports filed with the Commission may be referenced as part of the application, provided that the reference is clear and specific.
</P>
<P>(c) An application for renewal is subject to the requirements in § 76.33 and must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The information specified in § 76.35; or,
</P>
<P>(2) A statement by the Corporation that the NRC may rely upon the information provided in the previous application(s) upon which the existing certificate is based, except for:
</P>
<P>(i) Any proposed changes in the existing certificate of compliance conditions or technical safety requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any proposed changes to the documents submitted with the previous application in accordance with § 76.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any changes which the Corporation has made without prior NRC approval pursuant to § 76.68; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) Any changes to certificate conditions or technical safety requirements for which the Corporation has sought and received Commission approval pursuant to § 76.45.
</P>
<P>(d) The changes which are submitted as part of an application for renewal in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, must be in the form of specific changes to the documentation specified in § 76.35. The changes must be marked and dated for easy identification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997; 64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.37" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.37   Federal Register notice.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may, at his or her discretion, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>:
</P>
<P>(a) A notice of the filing of an application specifying that copies of the application, except for Restricted Data, Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information, Classified National Security Information, Safeguards Information, Proprietary Data, or other withholdable information will be made available for the public inspection at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov;</I>
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of opportunity for written public comment on the application for renewal; and
</P>
<P>(c) The date of any scheduled public meeting regarding the application for renewal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999, as amended at 64 FR 48955, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.39" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.39   Public meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A public meeting will be held on an application for renewal if the Director, in his or her discretion, determines that a meeting is in the public interest with respect to a decision on the application for renewal.
</P>
<P>(b) Conduct of public meeting.
</P>
<P>(1) The Director shall conduct any public meeting held on the application for renewal.
</P>
<P>(2) Public meetings will take place near the locale of the subject plant, unless otherwise specified by the Director.
</P>
<P>(3) A public meeting will be open to all interested members of the public and be conducted as deemed appropriate by the Director.
</P>
<P>(4) Members of the public will be given an opportunity during a public meeting to make their views regarding the application for renewal known to the Director.
</P>
<P>(5) A transcript will be kept of each public meeting.
</P>
<P>(6) No Restricted Data, Classified National Security Information, Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information, Safeguards Information, Proprietary Data, or other withholdable information may be introduced at the meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.41   Record underlying decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any decision of the Commission or its designee under this part in any proceeding regarding an application for a certificate must be based on information in the record and facts officially noticed in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) All public comments and correspondence in any proceeding regarding an application for a certificate must be made a part of the public docket of the proceeding, except as provided under 10 CFR 2.390.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 69 FR 2281, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.43   Date for decision.</HEAD>
<P>The Director will render a decision on an application within 6 months of the receipt of the application unless the Director alters the date for decisions and publishes notice of the new date in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.2.127.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.45   Application for amendment of certificate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of an amendment application.</I> In addition to the application for certification submitted under § 76.31, the Corporation may at any time apply for an amendment of the certificate to cover proposed new or modified activities. The amendment application should contain sufficient information for the NRC to make findings of compliance or acceptability for the proposed activities in the same manner as was required for the original certificate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oath or affirmation.</I> An application for an amendment of the certificate of compliance must be executed in a signed original by the Corporation under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amendment application determinations.</I> If the NRC staff approves an application for a certificate amendment, it will be effective on a date specified by the NRC staff. If an application for a certificate amendment is not approved by the NRC staff, the Corporation will be informed in writing. The NRC staff may, at its discretion, publish notice of its determination on an amendment application in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for review of staff's determination on an amendment application.</I> The Corporation, or any person whose interest may be affected, may file a petition requesting the Director's review of an NRC staff determination on an amendment application. A petition requesting the Director's review may not exceed 30 pages and must be filed within 30 days after the date of the NRC staff's determination. Any person described in this paragraph may file a written response to a petition requesting the Director's review. This response may not exceed 30 pages and must be filed within 15 days after the filing date of the petition requesting the Director's review. The Director may adopt, modify, or set aside the findings, conclusions, conditions, or terms in the NRC staff's amendment determination by providing a written basis for the action. If the Director does not issue a decision or take other appropriate action within 60 days after receiving the petition for review, the NRC staff's determination on the amendment application remains in effect.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for review of a Director's decision.</I> The Corporation, or any person whose interest may be affected and who filed a petition for review or filed a response to a petition for review under § 76.45(d), may file a petition requesting the Commission's review of a Director's decision on an amendment application.
</P>
<P>(1) A petition requesting the Commission's review may not exceed 30 pages and must be filed within 30 days after the date of the Director's decision. A petition requesting the Commission's review may be either:
</P>
<P>(i) Delivered to the Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff of the Office of the Secretary at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20852; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Sent by mail or telegram to the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person described in paragraph (e) of this section may file a written response to a petition requesting the Commission's review. This response may not exceed 30 pages and must be filed within 15 days after the filing date of the petition requesting the Commission's review.
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission may adopt, by order, further procedures that, in its judgment, would serve the purpose of review of the Director's decision. The Commission may adopt, modify, or set aside the findings, conclusions, conditions, or terms in the Director's amendment review decision and will state the basis of its action in writing. If the Commission does not issue a decision or take other appropriate action within 90 days after receiving the petition for review, the Director's decision, under § 76.45(d), on the amendment application remains in effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 44649, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Certification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.51   Conditions of certification.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation shall comply with the certificate of compliance, any approved compliance plan, and the requirements set forth and referenced in this part, except as may be modified by the certificate or approved compliance plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.53   Consultation with Environmental Protection Agency.</HEAD>
<P>In reviewing an application for a certificate, including the provisions of any compliance plan, the Director shall consult with the Environmental Protection Agency and solicit the Environmental Protection Agency's written comments on the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.55   Timely renewal.</HEAD>
<P>In any case in which the Corporation has timely filed a sufficient application for a certificate of compliance, the existing certificate of compliance or approved compliance plan does not expire until the application for a certificate of compliance has been finally determined by the NRC. For purposes of this rule, a sufficient application is one that addresses all elements of § 76.36.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.60" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.60   Regulatory requirements which apply.</HEAD>
<P>The Nuclear Regulatory Commission will use the following requirements for certification of the Corporation for operation of the gaseous diffusion plants:
</P>
<P>(a) The Corporation shall provide for adequate protection of the public health and safety and common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(b) The Corporation shall comply with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation shall comply with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 19, “Notices, Instructions and Reports to Workers: Inspection and Investigations,” with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation shall post NRC Form 3 during the term of the certificate and for 30 days following certificate termination.
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation shall comply with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 20, “Standards for Protection Against Radiation,” with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation shall comply with the requirements in this part or as specified in an approved plan for achieving compliance.
</P>
<P>(e) The Corporation shall comply with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 21, “Reporting of Defects and Noncompliance,” with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The Corporation shall comply with the requirements in §§ 21.6 and 21.21.
</P>
<P>(2) Under § 21.31, procurement documents issued by the Corporation must specify that the provisions of 10 CFR part 21 apply.
</P>
<P>(f) The Corporation shall comply with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 26, “Fitness-for-Duty Programs.” The requirements of this section apply only if the Corporation elects to engage in activities involving formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material. When applicable, the requirements apply only to the Corporation and personnel carrying out the activities specified in § 26.4(d)(1) through (5), of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) The Corporation shall comply with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 71, “Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material.”
</P>
<P>(h) The Corporation shall comply with the applicable provisions for physical security and material control and accounting as specified in subpart E to this part and contained in 10 CFR part 70, “Domestic Licensing of Special Nuclear Material,” part 73, “Physical Protection of Plants and Materials,” and part 74, “Material Control and Accounting of Special Nuclear Material.” The requirements in these parts address safeguards for three different kinds of nuclear material: Special nuclear material of low strategic significance (Category III), special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance (Category II), and formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material (Category I). The requirements for Category III material apply to the production of low enriched uranium. The requirements for Category II and Category I material apply only if the Corporation elects to engage in activities that involve these kinds of material and then only to the situations and locations that involve these kinds of material.
</P>
<P>(i) The Corporation shall comply with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 95, “Security Facility Approval and Safeguarding of National Security Information and Restricted Data,” as specified in subpart E to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997; 64 FR 44650, Aug. 17, 1999; 74 FR 45545, Sept. 3, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.62   Issuance of certificate and/or approval of compliance plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon a finding of compliance with the Commission's regulations for issuance of a certificate and/or approval of a compliance plan, the Director shall issue a written decision explaining the decision. The Director may issue a certificate of compliance covering those areas where the Corporation is in compliance with applicable Commission requirements and approve a compliance plan for the remaining areas, if any, of noncompliance. The Director may impose any appropriate terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall publish notice of the decision in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation, or any person whose interest may be affected, may file a petition, not to exceed 30 pages, requesting review of the Director's decision. This petition must be filed with the Commission not later than 30 days after publication of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice. Any person described in this paragraph may file a response to any petition for review, not to exceed 30 pages, within 15 days after the filing of the petition. If the Commission does not issue a decision or take other appropriate action within 90 days after the publication of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice, the Director's decision remains in effect. The Commission may adopt, by order, further procedures that, in its judgment, would serve the purpose of review of the Director's decision.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission may adopt, modify, or set aside the findings, conclusions, conditions, or terms in the Director's decision and will state the basis of its action in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 44650, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.64" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.64   Denial of certificate or compliance plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may deny an application for a certificate of compliance or not approve a compliance plan upon a written finding that the application is in noncompliance with one or more of the Commission's requirements for the plant, or that the compliance plan is inadequate to protect the public health and safety or the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall publish notice of the decision in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(c) Before a denial of an application for a certificate of compliance, the Director shall advise the Corporation and the Department in writing of any areas of noncompliance with the Commission's regulations and offer the Department or the Corporation an opportunity to submit a proposed compliance plan prepared by the Department regarding the identified areas of noncompliance. The Director shall take this action even if the Department or the Corporation has previously submitted a proposed compliance plan addressing in whole or in part the identified areas of noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation, or any person whose interest may be affected, may file a petition for review, not to exceed 30 pages, requesting review of the Director's decision. This petition for review must be filed with the Commission not later than 30 days after publication of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice. Any person described in this paragraph may file a response to any petition for review, not to exceed 30 pages, within 15 days after the filing of the petition for review. If the Commission does not issue a decision or take other appropriate action within 90 days after the publication of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice, the Director's decision remains in effect. The Commission may adopt, by order, further procedures that, in its judgment, would serve the purpose of review of the Director's decision.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may adopt, modify, or set aside the findings, conclusions, conditions, or terms in the Director's decision and will state the basis of its action in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 44650, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.65" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.65   Inalienability of certificates.</HEAD>
<P>The certificate granted under the regulations in this part may not be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of any certificate to any person unless the Commission, after securing full information, finds that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of the Act, and consents in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.66" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.66   Expiration and termination of certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 76.55, each certificate or approval issued pursuant to this part expires at the end of the day, in the month and year stated in the certificate or approval.
</P>
<P>(b) The Corporation shall notify the Commission promptly, in writing under § 76.5, when the Corporation decides to terminate operation at either of the gaseous diffusion plants and other activities authorized under the certificate.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Corporation does not submit a renewal application under § 76.36, the Corporation shall, on or before the expiration date specified in the existing certificate, terminate operation of the gaseous diffusion plants.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.68" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.68   Plant changes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation may make changes to the plant or to the plant's operations as described in the safety analysis report without prior Commission approval provided all the provisions of this section are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The Corporation shall conduct a written safety analysis which demonstrates that the changes would not result in undue risk to public health and safety, the common defense and security, or to the environment.
</P>
<P>(2) The changes must be authorized by responsible management and approved by a safety review committee.
</P>
<P>(3) The changes may not decrease effectiveness of the plant's safety, safeguards, and security programs.
</P>
<P>(4) The changes may not involve a change in any condition to the certificate of compliance.
</P>
<P>(5) The changes may not involve a change to any condition to the approved compliance plan.
</P>
<P>(6) The changes may not involve an unreviewed safety question.
</P>
<P>(b) To ensure that the approved application remains current with respect to the actual site description and that the plant's programs, plans, policies, and operations are in place, the Corporation shall submit revised pages to the approved application and safety analysis report, marked and dated to indicate each change. The Corporation shall evaluate any as-found conditions that do not agree with the plant's programs, plans, policies, and operations in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. These revisions must be submitted before April 15 of each calendar year, or at a shorter interval as may be specified in the certificate. If a renewal application for a certificate is filed in accordance with § 76.36 of this part, the revisions shall be incorporated into the application.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation shall maintain records of changes in the plant and of changes in the programs, plans, policies, procedures and operations described in the approved application, and copies of the safety analyses on which the changes were based. The records of plant changes must be retained until the end of the duration of the lease. The records of changes in programs, plans, policies, procedures, and operations and copies of the safety analysis on which the changes were based must be retained for a period of 2 years.
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation may at any time apply under § 76.45 for amendment of the certificate to cover proposed new or modified activities not permitted by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.70" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.70   Post issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendment of certificate terms and conditions.</I> The terms and conditions of a certificate of compliance or an approved compliance plan are subject to modification by reason of amendments to the Act, or by reason of rules, regulations, or orders issued in accordance with the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revocation, suspension, or amendments for cause.</I> A certificate of compliance or a compliance plan may be revoked, suspended, or amended, in whole or in part for:
</P>
<P>(1) Any material false statement in the application or statement of fact required by the Commission in connection with the application;
</P>
<P>(2) Conditions revealed by the application, or any report, record, inspection, or other means which would warrant the Commission to refuse to grant a certificate or approve a compliance plan on an original application; and
</P>
<P>(3) Violation of, or failure to observe any of, the applicable terms and conditions of the Act, or the certificate of compliance, the compliance plan, or any rule, regulation, or order of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures governing amendment, revocation, suspension, or imposing requirements by order.</I> (1) Except in cases of willfulness or those in which the public health interest, common defense and security, or safety requires otherwise, no certificate of compliance or compliance plan may be amended, suspended, or revoked unless before the institution of proceedings therefore, facts or conduct which may warrant the action must have been called to the attention of the Corporation in writing and the Corporation shall have been accorded an opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance with the lawful requirements related to such action.
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission may institute a proceeding to modify, suspend, or revoke a certificate or take such other action as may be proper by serving on the Corporation or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission an order that will:
</P>
<P>(i) Allege the violations with which the Corporation or other person subject to the Commission's jurisdiction is charged, or the potentially hazardous conditions or other facts deemed to be sufficient ground for the proposed action, and specify the action proposed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide that the Corporation or other person who is charged must, and other interested persons may, submit a written response to the order within a reasonable period after publication of the order as may be specified in the order;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specify the issues for resolution should the order be contested;
</P>
<P>(iv) State the effective date of the order; if the Commission finds the public health, common defense and security, or safety, so require or that the violation or conduct causing the violation is willful, the order may provide that the proposed action be immediately effective pending further order and include a statement of reasons for making the proposed action immediately effective;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide that the Commission may make a final decision after consideration of the written submissions or may in its discretion adopt by order, upon the Commission's own initiative or at the request of the Corporation or an interested person, further procedures for a hearing of the issues before making a final enforcement decision. These procedures may include requirements for further participation in the proceeding, such as the requirements for intervention under part 2, subparts C, G or L of this chapter. Submission of written comments by interested persons do not constitute entitlement to further participation in the proceeding. Further procedures will not normally be provided for at the request of an interested person unless the person is adversely affected by the order.
</P>
<P>(3) The Corporation or other person to whom the Commission has issued an immediately effective order may, in addition to submitting a written response, move the Commission to set aside the immediate effectiveness of the order on the ground that the order, including the need for immediate effectiveness, is not based on adequate evidence but on mere suspicion, unfounded allegations, or error. The motion must state with particularity the reasons why the order is not based on adequate evidence and must be accompanied by affidavits or other evidence relied on. The NRC staff shall respond within 5 days of the receipt of the motion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of violation.</I> (1) In response to an alleged violation of any provision of the Act or NRC regulations or the conditions of a certificate, compliance plan, or an order issued by the Commission, the Commission may serve on the Corporation or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission a written notice of violation. A separate notice may be omitted if an order or demand for information pursuant to this section is issued that otherwise identifies the apparent violation. The notice of violation will concisely state the alleged violation and will require the Corporation or other person subject to it, within twenty (20) days of the date of the notice or other specified time, to submit a written explanation or statement in reply including:
</P>
<P>(i) Corrective steps which have been taken by the Corporation or other person and the results achieved;
</P>
<P>(ii) Corrective steps which will be taken; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The date when full compliance will be achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice may require the Corporation or other person subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission to admit or deny the violation and to state the reasons for the violation, if admitted. It may provide that, if an adequate reply is not received within the time specified in the notice, the Commission may issue an order or a demand for information as to why the certificate should not be modified, suspended, or revoked or why such other action as may be proper should not be taken.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional information.</I> At any time after the granting of a certificate of compliance or approval of a compliance plan, the Commission may require further statements from the Corporation, signed under oath or affirmation, in order to enable the Commission to determine whether the certificate or approved compliance plan should be modified or revoked.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 69 FR 2281, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.72   Miscellaneous procedural matters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The filing of any petitions for review or any responses to these petitions are governed by the procedural requirements set forth in 10 CFR 2.302(a) and (c), 2.304, 2.305, 2.306, and 2.307. Additional guidance regarding the filing and service of petitions for review of the Director's decision and responses to these petitions may be provided in the Director's decision or by order of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary of the Commission has the authority to rule on procedural matters set forth in 10 CFR 2.346.
</P>
<P>(c) There are no restrictions on ex parte communications or on the ability of the NRC staff and the Commission to communicate with one another at any stage of the regulatory process, with the exception that the rules on ex parte communications and separation of functions set forth in 10 CFR 2.347 and 2.348 apply to proceedings under 10 CFR Part 2 for imposition of a civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(d) The procedures set forth in 10 CFR 2.205, and in 10 CFR part 2, subparts C, G, L and N will be applied in connection with NRC action to impose a civil penalty pursuant to Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 and the implementing regulations in 10 CFR part 21 (Reporting of Defects and Noncompliance), as authorized by section 1312(e) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(e) The procedures set forth in 10 CFR 2.206 apply to a request by any person to institute a proceeding pursuant to § 76.70 to amend, revoke, or suspend a certificate of compliance or approved compliance plan, or for such other action as may be proper.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6670, Feb. 12, 1997; 69 FR 2281, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.74" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.74   Computation and extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time, the day of the act, event or default after which the designated period of time begins to run is not included. The last day of the period so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday at the place where the action or event is to occur, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday, nor holiday.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided by law, whenever an act is required or allowed to be done at or within a specified time, the time fixed or the period of time prescribed may for good cause be extended or shortened by the Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.76" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.3.127.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.76   Backfitting.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Backfitting is defined as the modification of, or addition to, systems, structures, or components of a plant; or to the procedures or organization required to operate a plant; any of which may result from a new or amended provision in the Commission rules or the imposition of a regulatory staff position interpreting the Commission rules that is either new or different from a previous NRC staff position.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Commission shall require a systematic and documented analysis pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section for backfits which it seeks to impose.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Commission shall require the backfitting of a plant only when it determines, based on the analysis described in paragraph (b) of this section, that there is a substantial increase in the overall protection of the public health and safety or the common defense and security to be derived from the backfit and that the direct and indirect costs of implementation for that plant are justified in view of this increased protection.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions of paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section are inapplicable and, therefore, backfit analysis is not required and the standards in paragraph (a)(3) of this section do not apply where the Commission or staff, as appropriate, finds and declares, with appropriately documented evaluation for its finding, any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) That a modification is necessary to bring a plant into compliance with a certificate or the rules or orders of the Commission, or into conformance with written commitments by the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That regulatory action is necessary to ensure that the plant provides adequate protection to the health and safety of the public and is in accord with the common defense and security; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That the regulatory action involves defining or redefining what level of protection to the public health and safety or common defense and security should be regarded as adequate.
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission shall always require the backfitting of a plant if it determines that the regulatory action is necessary to ensure that the plant provides adequate protection to the health and safety of the public and is in accord with the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(6) The documented evaluation required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section must include a statement of the objectives of and reasons for the modification and the basis for invoking the exception. If immediate effective regulatory action is required, then the documented evaluation may follow, rather than precede, the regulatory action.
</P>
<P>(7) If there are two or more ways to achieve compliance with a certificate or the rules or orders of the Commission, or with written Corporation commitments, or there are two or more ways to reach a level of protection which is adequate, then ordinarily the Corporation is free to choose the way which best suits its purposes. However, should it be necessary or appropriate for the Commission to prescribe a specific way to comply with its requirements or to achieve adequate protection, then cost may be a factor in selecting the way, provided that the objective of compliance or adequate protection is met.
</P>
<P>(b) In reaching the determination required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Commission will consider how the backfit should be scheduled in light of other ongoing regulatory activities at the plant and, in addition, will consider information available concerning any of the following factors as may be appropriate and any other information relevant and material to the proposed backfit:
</P>
<P>(1) Statement of the specific objectives that the proposed backfit is designed to achieve;
</P>
<P>(2) General description of the activity that would be required by the Corporation in order to complete the backfit;
</P>
<P>(3) Potential change in the risk to the public from the accidental release of radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(4) Potential impact on radiological exposure of facility employees;
</P>
<P>(5) Installation and continuing costs associated with the backfit, including the cost of plant downtime;
</P>
<P>(6) The potential safety impact of changes in plant or operational complexity, including the relationship to proposed and existing regulatory requirements;
</P>
<P>(7) The estimated resource burden on the NRC associated with the proposed backfit and the availability of such resources;
</P>
<P>(8) The potential impact of differences in plant type, design, or age on the relevancy and practicality of the proposed backfit; and
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the proposed backfit is interim or final and, if interim, the justification for imposing the proposed backfit on an interim basis.
</P>
<P>(c) No certificate will be withheld during the pendency of backfit analyses required by the Commission's rules.
</P>
<P>(d) The Executive Director for Operations shall be responsible for implementation of this section, and all analyses required by this section shall be approved by the Executive Director for Operations or his or her designee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6671, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Safety</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4.127.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.81   Authorized use of radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise authorized by law, the Corporation shall confine its possession and use of radioactive material to the locations and purposes covered by the certificate and/or approved compliance plan. Except as otherwise provided, the certificate or approved compliance plan issued pursuant to the requirements in this part entitles the Corporation to receive title to, own, acquire, receive, possess, and use radioactive material in accordance with the certificate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.83" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4.127.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.83   Transfer of radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation may not transfer radioactive material except as authorized pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided and subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the Corporation may transfer radioactive material:
</P>
<P>(1) From one component of the Corporation to another;
</P>
<P>(2) To the Department;
</P>
<P>(3) To the agency in any Agreement State which regulates radioactive materials pursuant to an agreement with the Commission under Section 274 of the Act, if the quantity transferred is not sufficient to form a critical mass;
</P>
<P>(4) To any person exempt from the licensing requirements of the Act and requirements in this part, to the extent permitted under the exemption;
</P>
<P>(5) To any person in an Agreement State, subject to the jurisdiction of that State, who has been exempted from the licensing requirements and regulations of that State, to the extent permitted under the exemption;
</P>
<P>(6) To any person authorized to receive the radioactive material under terms of a specific license or a general license or their equivalents issued by the Commission or an Agreement State;
</P>
<P>(7) To any person abroad pursuant to an export license issued under part 110 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(8) As otherwise authorized by the Commission in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) Before transferring radioactive material to any party specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the Corporation shall verify that the transferee is authorized to receive the type, form, and quantity of radioactive material to be transferred.
</P>
<P>(d) The following methods for the verification required by paragraph (c) of this section are acceptable:
</P>
<P>(1) The Corporation may have in its possession and read a current copy of the transferee's specific license or confirmation of registration. The Corporation shall retain a copy of each license or confirmation for 3 years from the date that it was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation may have in its possession a written confirmation by the transferee that the transferee is authorized by license or registration confirmation to receive the type, form, and quantity of special nuclear material to be transferred, specifying the license or registration confirmation number, issuing agency, and expiration date. The Corporation shall retain the written confirmation as a record for 3 years from the date of receipt of the confirmation;
</P>
<P>(3) For emergency shipments, the Corporation may accept a certification by the transferee that he or she is authorized by license or registration certification to receive the type, form, and quantity of special nuclear material to be transferred, specifying the license or registration number, issuing agency, and expiration date, provided that the oral confirmation is confirmed in writing within 10 days. The Corporation shall retain the written confirmation of the oral certification for 3 years from the date of receipt of the confirmation;
</P>
<P>(4) The Corporation may obtain other sources of information compiled by a reporting service from official records of the Commission or the licensing agency of an Agreement State as to the identity of licensees and the scope and expiration dates of licenses and registrations. The Corporation shall retain the compilation of information as a record for 3 years from the date that it was obtained; or
</P>
<P>(5) When none of the methods of verification described in paragraphs (d) (1) to (4) of this section are readily available or when the Corporation desires to verify that information received by one of these methods is correct or up to date, the Corporation may obtain and record confirmation from the Commission or the licensing agency of an Agreement State that the transferee is licensed to receive the special nuclear material. The Corporation shall retain the record of confirmation for 3 years from the date the record is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.85" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4.127.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.85   Assessment of accidents.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation shall perform an analysis of potential accidents and consequences to establish the basis for limiting conditions for operation of the plant with respect to the potential for releases of radioactive material. Special attention must be directed to assurance that plant operation will be conducted in a manner to prevent or to mitigate the consequences from a reasonable spectrum of postulated accidents which include internal and external events and natural phenomena in order to ensure adequate protection of the public health and safety. Plant operating history relevant to the assessment should be included. In performing this assessment, the full range of operations should be considered including, but not necessarily limited to, operation at the maximum capacity contemplated. The assessment must be performed using an expected release rate resulting from anticipated operational occurrences and accidents with existing systems and procedures intended to mitigate the release consequences, along with site characteristics, including meteorology, to evaluate the offsite radiological consequences.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.87" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4.127.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.87   Technical safety requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation shall establish technical safety requirements. In establishing the requirements, the Corporation shall consider the analyses and results of the safety analysis report submitted pursuant to § 76.35.
</P>
<P>(b) The format for the technical safety requirements must be appropriate for each individual requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) Appropriate references to established procedures and/or equipment to address each of the following safety topics must be included in technical safety requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Effects of natural phenomena;
</P>
<P>(2) Building and process ventilation and offgas;
</P>
<P>(3) Criticality prevention;
</P>
<P>(4) Fire prevention;
</P>
<P>(5) Radiation protection;
</P>
<P>(6) Radioactive waste management;
</P>
<P>(7) Maintenance;
</P>
<P>(8) Environmental protection;
</P>
<P>(9) Packaging and transporting nuclear materials;
</P>
<P>(10) Accident analysis;
</P>
<P>(11) Chemical safety;
</P>
<P>(12) Sharing of facilities, structures, systems and components;
</P>
<P>(13) Utilities essential to radiological safety; and
</P>
<P>(14) Operations.
</P>
<P>(d) Technical safety requirements must include items in the following categories:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Safety limits.</I> (i) If any safety limit is exceeded, corrective action must be taken as stated in the response procedures associated with the technical safety requirements or the affected part of the process must be shut down unless this action would increase the risk to the health and safety of the public or plant personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) If any safety limit is exceeded, the Corporation shall notify the Commission if required by § 76.120, review the matter, and record the results of the review, including the cause of the condition and the basis for corrective action taken to preclude recurrence.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Corporation shall retain the record of the results of each review until the Commission no longer has certification authority.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limiting control settings.</I> (i) Where a limiting control setting is specified for a variable on which a safety limit has been placed, the setting must be so chosen that protective action, either automatic or manual, will correct the abnormal situation before a safety limit is exceeded. If, during operation, the automatic alarm or protective devices do not function as required, appropriate action must be taken to maintain the variables within the limiting control-setting values and to repair promptly the automatic devices or to shut down the affected part of the process.
</P>
<P>(ii) If, during operation, an automatic alarm or protective device does not function as required, the Corporation shall notify the Commission if required by 76.120, review the matter, and record the results of the review, including the cause of the condition and the basis for corrective action taken to preclude recurrence.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Corporation shall retain the record of the results of each review until the Commission no longer has certification authority.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limiting conditions for operation.</I> When a limiting condition for operation of any process step in the system is not met, the Corporation shall shut down that part of the operation or follow any remedial action permitted by the technical safety requirements until the condition can be met.
</P>
<P>(i) If a limiting condition for operation of any process step in the system is not met, the Corporation shall notify the Commission if required by § 76.120, review the matter, and record the results of the review, including the cause of the condition and the basis for corrective action taken to preclude recurrence.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Corporation shall retain the record of the results of each review until the Commission no longer has certification authority. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Design features.</I> Design features to be included are those systems, components, or structures of the plant which, if altered or modified, would have a significant effect on safety and are not covered in categories described in paragraphs (d) (1), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Surveillance requirement.
</P>
<P>(6) Administrative controls.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.89" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4.127.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.89   Criticality accident requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation must maintain and operate a criticality monitoring and audible alarm system meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section in all areas of the facility. The Corporation may describe for the approval of the Commission defined areas to be excluded from the monitoring requirement. This submittal must describe the measures that will be used to ensure against criticality, including kinds and quantities of material that will be permitted and measures that will be used to control those kinds and quantities of material.
</P>
<P>(b) The system must detect and annunciate a criticality that produces an absorbed dose in soft tissue of 20 rads of combined neutron and gamma radiation at an unshielded distance of 2 meters from the reacting material within 1 minute. Coverage of all monitored areas must be provided by two detectors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.91" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4.127.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.91   Emergency planning.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation shall establish, maintain, and be prepared to follow a written emergency plan. The emergency plan submitted under § 76.35(f) must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Plant description.</I> A brief description of the plant and area near the plant site.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of accidents.</I> An identification of each type of radioactive materials accident for which protective actions may be needed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification of accidents.</I> A system for classifying accidents as alerts or site area emergencies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Detection of accidents.</I> Identification of the means of detecting each type of accident in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Mitigation of consequences.</I> A brief description of the means and equipment for mitigating the consequences of each type of accident, including those provided to protect workers onsite, and a description of the program for maintaining the equipment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Assessment of releases.</I> A brief description of the methods and equipment to assess releases of radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Responsibilities.</I> A brief description of the responsibilities of all individuals supporting emergency response should an accident occur, including identification of personnel responsible for promptly notifying offsite response organizations and the NRC, as well as a brief description of responsibilities for developing, maintaining, and updating the plan.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notification and coordination.</I> A commitment to and a brief description of the means to promptly notify offsite response organizations, including the request for offsite assistance and medical assistance for the treatment of contaminated injured onsite workers when appropriate. A control point must be established. The notification and coordination must be planned so that unavailability of some personnel, parts of the plant, and some equipment does not prevent the notification and coordination. The Corporation shall also commit to notify the NRC Operations Center immediately after notification of the appropriate offsite response organizations and not later than 1 hour after the Corporation declares an emergency. These reporting requirements do not supersede or release the Corporation from complying with the requirements under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Public Law 99-499, or other State or Federal reporting requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Information to be communicated.</I> A brief description of the plant status, radioactive releases, and recommended protective actions, if necessary, to be provided to offsite response organizations and to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Training.</I> A brief description of the frequency, performance objectives, and plans for the training that the Corporation will provide workers on how to respond to an emergency including any special instructions, briefings, and orientation tours the Corporation would offer to fire, police, medical, and other emergency personnel. The training must familiarize personnel with site-specific emergency procedures. The training must also prepare site personnel for their responsibilities for the accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site, including the use of team training for these accident scenarios.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Safe shutdown.</I> A brief description of the means of restoring the plant to a safe condition after an accident.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Exercises.</I> Provisions for conducting quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations and biennial onsite exercises to test response to simulated emergencies. Quarterly communications checks with offsite response organizations must include the check and update of all necessary telephone numbers. The Corporation shall invite offsite response organizations to participate in the biennial exercises. Participation of offsite response organizations in biennial exercises, although recommended, is not required. Exercises must use accident scenarios postulated as most probable for the specific site and the accident scenarios must not be made known to most exercise participants. The Corporation shall critique each exercise using individuals that do not have direct implementation responsibility for the plan. Critiques of exercises must evaluate the appropriateness of the plan, emergency procedures, facilities, equipment, training of personnel, and overall effectiveness of the response. Deficiencies found by the critiques must be corrected.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Hazardous chemicals.</I> Confirmation that the Corporation has met its responsibilities under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986, Title III, Public Law 99-499, if applicable to the Corporation's activities at the proposed place of use of the special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Comment from offsite response organizations.</I> The Corporation shall allow the offsite response organizations that are expected to respond in case of an accident 60 days to comment on the emergency plan before submitting it to NRC. The Corporation shall provide any comments received within the 60 days to the NRC with the emergency plan.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Changes to emergency plan.</I> The Corporation may make changes to the emergency plan without prior Commission approval if the changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the plan. The Corporation shall furnish these changes to the NRC in accordance with § 76.5 and to affected offsite response organizations within 6 months after the change is made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 44650, Aug. 17, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.93" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4.127.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.93   Quality assurance.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation shall establish, maintain, and execute a quality assurance program satisfying each of the applicable requirements of ASME NQA-1-1989, “Quality Assurance Program Requirements for Nuclear Facilities,” or satisfying acceptable alternatives to the applicable requirements. The Corporation shall execute the criteria in a graded approach to an extent that is commensurate with the importance to safety. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.95" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.4.127.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.95   Training.</HEAD>
<P>A training program must be established, implemented, and maintained for individuals relied upon to operate, maintain, or modify the GDPs in a safe manner. The training program shall be based on a systems approach to training that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Systematic analysis of the jobs to be performed.
</P>
<P>(b) Learning objectives derived from the analysis which describe desired performance after training.
</P>
<P>(c) Training design and implementation based on the learning objectives.
</P>
<P>(d) Evaluation of trainee mastery of the objectives during training.
</P>
<P>(e) Evaluation and revision of the training based on the performance of trained personnel in the job setting.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Safeguards and Security</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.111" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.5.127.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.111   Physical security, material control and accounting, and protection of certain information.</HEAD>
<P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission regulations that will be used for certification of the Corporation 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> for physical security and material control and accounting are contained in title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations as described in this subpart. The regulations referenced in this subpart contain requirements for physical security and material control and accounting for formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material (Category I), special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance (Category II), and special nuclear material of low strategic significance (Category III), and for protection of Restricted Data, National Security Information, Safeguards Information, and information designated by the U.S. Department of Energy as Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For the purpose of this subpart, the terms “licensee” or “license” used in parts 70, 73, and 74 of this chapter, mean, respectively, the Corporation, or the certificate of compliance or approved compliance plan.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6671, Feb. 12, 1997, as amended at 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.113" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.5.127.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.113   Formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material—Category I.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements for material control and accounting for formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material (Category I) are contained in §§ 74.11, 74.13, 74.15, 74.17, 74.19, 74.51, 74.53, 74.55, 74.57, 74.59, 74.81, and 74.82 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements for physical security for formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material (Category I) are contained in §§ 70.22(h), 73.20, 73.40, 73.45, 73.46, 73.70, and 73.1200.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements for the protection of Safeguards Information pertaining to formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material (Category I) are contained in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter. Information designated by the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) as Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information must be protected in accordance with DOE requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation may neither transport Category I material offsite nor deliver Category I material to a carrier for transport offsite.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 6671, Feb. 12, 1997; 67 FR 78149, Dec. 23, 2002; 73 FR 63581, Oct. 24, 2008; 88 FR 15899, Mar. 14, 2023] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.115" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.5.127.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.115   Special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance—Category II.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements for material control and accounting for special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance (Category II) are contained in §§ 74.11. 74.13, 74.15, 74.17, 74.19, 74.41, 74.43, 74.45, 74.81, and 74.82 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements for physical security for special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance (Category II) are contained in §§ 73.67, and 73.1200 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation may neither transport Category II material offsite nor deliver Category II material to a carrier for transport offsite.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements for the protection of Safeguards Information pertaining to special nuclear material of moderate strategic significance—Category II are contained in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter. Information designated by the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) as Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information must be protected in accordance with DOE requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 67 FR 78149, Dec. 23, 2002; 73 FR 63581, Oct. 24, 2008; 88 FR 15899, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.117" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.5.127.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.117   Special nuclear material of low strategic significance—Category III.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements for material control and accounting for special nuclear material of low strategic significance (Category III) are contained in §§ 74.11, 74.13, 74.15, 74.17, 74.19, 74.33, 74.81, and 74.82 of this chapter. However, inventories of uranium outside of the enrichment processing equipment conducted at least every 370 days are deemed to satisfy the requirements of § 74.19(c). 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements for physical security for special nuclear material of low strategic significance (Category III) are contained in §§ 73.67, 73.74, and 73.1200 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements for the protection of Safeguards Information pertaining to special nuclear material of low strategic significance—Category III are contained in §§ 73.21 and 73.22 of this chapter. Information designated by the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) as Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information must be protected in accordance with DOE requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 67 FR 78149, Dec. 23, 2002; 73 FR 63581, Oct. 24, 2008; 88 FR 15899, Mar. 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.119" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.5.127.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.119   Security facility approval and safeguarding of National Security Information and Restricted Data.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements for security facility approval and for safeguarding of classified matter are contained in part 95 of this chapter. For the purpose of this subpart, the term “licensee” or “license” used in part 95 of this chapter means, respectively, the corporation, or the certificate of compliance or approved compliance plan.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Reports and Inspections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.120" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.6.127.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.120   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Immediate report.</I> The Corporation shall notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone at the numbers specified in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter within 1 hour after discovery of:
</P>
<P>(1) A criticality event;
</P>
<P>(2) Any loss, other than normal operating loss, of special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(3) Any theft or unlawful diversion of special nuclear material which the Corporation is authorized to possess or any incident in which an attempt has been made or is believed to have been made to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of special nuclear material; or 
</P>
<P>(4) An emergency condition that has been declared an alert or site area emergency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Four-hour report.</I> The Corporation shall notify the NRC Operations Center as soon as possible but not later than 4 hours after discovery of an event 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> that prevents immediate protective actions necessary to avoid releases or exposures to radiation or radioactive materials that could exceed regulatory limits.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Events may include fires, explosions, radiological releases, etc.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Twenty-four hour report.</I> The Corporation shall notify the NRC Operations Center within 24 hours after the discovery of any of the following events involving radioactive material:
</P>
<P>(1) An unplanned contamination event that:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires access to the contaminated area, by workers or the public, to be restricted for more than 24 hours by imposing additional radiological controls or by prohibiting entry into the area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves a quantity of material greater than five times the lowest annual limit on intake specified in appendix B to §§ 20.1001 through 20.2402 of 10 CFR part 20 for the material; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Causes access to the contaminated area to be restricted for any reason other than to allow isotopes with a half-life of less than 24 hours to decay prior to decontamination.
</P>
<P>(2) An event in which equipment is disabled or fails to function as designed when: 
</P>
<P>(i) The equipment is required by a Technical Safety Requirement to prevent releases, prevent exposures to radiation and radioactive materials exceeding specified limits, mitigate the consequences of an accident, or restore this facility to a preestablished safe condition after an accident;
</P>
<P>(ii) The equipment is required by a Technical Safety Requirement to be available and operable and either should have been operating or should have operated on demand; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No redundant equipment is available and operable to perform the required safety function.
</P>
<P>(3) An event that requires unplanned medical treatment at a medical facility of an individual with radioactive contamination on the individual's clothing or body.
</P>
<P>(4) A fire or explosion damaging any radioactive material or any device, container, or equipment containing radioactive material when:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantity of material involved is greater than five times the lowest annual limit on intake specified in appendix B to §§ 20.1001 through 20.2402 of 10 CFR part 20 for the material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The damage affects the integrity of the radioactive material or its container.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preparation and submission of reports.</I> Reports made by the Corporation in response to the requirements of this section must be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Operations Center reports.</I> The Corporation shall make reports required by paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section by telephone to the NRC Operations Center. To the extent that the information is available at the time of notification, the information provided in these reports must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The caller's name and call back telephone number;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the event, including date and time;
</P>
<P>(iii) The exact location of the event;
</P>
<P>(iv) The isotopes, quantities, and chemical and physical form of the material involved;
</P>
<P>(v) Any personnel radiation exposure data available; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of any actions taken in response to the event.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written report.</I> A report required by paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of this section must be followed by a written report within 30 days of the initial report. Written reports prepared pursuant to other regulations may be submitted to fulfill this requirement if the reports contain all of the necessary information and the appropriate distribution is made. These written reports must be sent to the NRC by an appropriate method listed in § 76.5. The reports must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the event, including the probable cause and the manufacturer and model number (if applicable) of any equipment that failed or malfunctioned;
</P>
<P>(ii) The exact location of the event; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of isotopes, quantities and chemical and physical form of the material involved;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date and time of the event;
</P>
<P>(v) The causes, including the direct cause, the contributing cause, and the root cause;
</P>
<P>(vi) Corrective actions taken or planned and the results of any evaluations or assessments;
</P>
<P>(vii) The extent of exposure of individuals to radiation or to radioactive materials without identification of individuals by name; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Lessons learned from the event.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48960, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 58822, Oct. 10, 2003; 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.121" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.6.127.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.121   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation shall afford to the Commission opportunity to inspect the premises and plants under the Corporation's control where radioactive material is used, produced, or stored.
</P>
<P>(b) The Corporation shall make available to the Commission for inspection records kept pertaining to receipt, possession, use, acquisition, import, export, or transfer of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Corporation shall provide rent-free office space for the exclusive use of Commission inspection personnel upon request by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, or the NRC Region III Administrator. Heat, air conditioning, light, electrical outlets, and janitorial services must be furnished by the Corporation. The office must be convenient to and have full access to the plant, and must provide the inspector both visual and acoustic privacy.
</P>
<P>(2) The space provided must be adequate to accommodate the NRC resident inspection staff, a part-time secretary, and transient NRC personnel. Space must be generally commensurate with other office facilities at the site. The office space that is provided must be subject to the approval of the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, or the NRC Region III Office. All furniture, supplies, and communication equipment will be furnished by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) The Corporation shall afford any NRC resident inspector assigned to that site or other NRC inspectors identified by the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, or the NRC Region III Administrator, as likely to inspect the plant, immediate, unfettered access equivalent to access provided regular plant employees, following proper identification and compliance with applicable access control measures for security, radiological protection, and personal safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.123" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.6.127.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.123   Tests.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation shall perform, or permit the Commission to perform, any tests the Commission deems appropriate or necessary for administration of the requirements in this part. These tests include tests of:
</P>
<P>(a) Radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(b) Facilities where radioactive material is utilized, produced or stored;
</P>
<P>(c) Radiation detection and monitoring instruments; and
</P>
<P>(d) Other equipment and devices used in connection with the production, utilization, or storage of radioactive material.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.131" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.7.127.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.131   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended;
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under Section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or under Section 1312(e) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, for violations of:
</P>
<P>(1) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, 109, or 1701 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(2) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Any term, condition, or limitation of any certificate of compliance or approved compliance plan issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6671, Feb. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 76.133" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.16.7.127.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 76.133   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under Section 161b or 161i of the Act. For purposes of Section 223, all the regulations in part 76 are issued under Section 161b or 161i except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 76 that are not issued under Section 161b or 161i for the purposes of Section 223 are as follows: §§ 76.1, 76.2, 76.4, 76.5, 76.6, 76.23, 76.33, 76.35, 76.37, 76.39, 76.41, 76.43, 76.45, 76.53, 76.55, 76.60, 76.62, 76.64, 76.70, 76.72, 76.131, and 76.133.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 81—STANDARD SPECIFICATIONS FOR THE GRANTING OF PATENT LICENSES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 156, 161 (42 U.S.C. 2186, 2201); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 7318, Mar. 20, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="127" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.127" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.127.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations of this part establish the standard specifications for the issuance of licenses to rights in inventions covered by patents or patent applications vested in the United States of America, as represented by or in the custody of the Commission and other patents in which the Commission has the right to accord or require the grant of licenses. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8793, Mar. 3, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.127.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 619), including any amendments thereto; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission as established by the Act, or its duly authorized designee. The Assistant General Counsel for Patents is the designee of the Commission under this subpart; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NRC invention</I> means an invention covered by a U.S. patent or patent application that is vested in the Government of the United States, as represented by or in the custody of the Commission, or in which the Government of the United States of America, as represented by the Commission, has the right to accord or require the grant of licenses where such invention is designated by the Commission as appropriate for the grant of a nonexclusive or exclusive license; and 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>To the point of practical application</I> means to manufacture in the case of composition, machine or product, to practice in the case of a process, or to operate in the case of a machine, under such conditions as to establish that the invention is being worked and that its benefits are reasonably accessible to the public. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NRC foreign invention</I> means an invention covered by a patent, or an application for a patent, issued by a government or authority of a country other than the United States that is vested in the Government of the United States, as represented by the Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 7318, Mar. 20, 1973, as amended at 38 FR 8241, Mar. 30, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.127.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.3   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>All communications concerning the regulations in this part, including applications for licenses, should be sent to the NRC either by mail addressed to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58823, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62685, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74982, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.127.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.4   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing and by § 81.53, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by an officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 7318, Mar. 20, 1973, as amended at 90 FR 55633, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.127.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0121.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 81.20, 81.32, and 81.40.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 23422, June 8, 1990, as amended at 62 FR 52190, Oct. 6, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="128" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>NRC-Owned Inventions—Patents and Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.10   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations of this subpart governing the licensing or rights in NRC inventions are issued pursuant to the authority of the Commission under 42 U.S.C. 2186 (sec. 156 of the Act), 42 U.S.C. 2201g (sec. 161g. of the Act), and according to regulations issued by the Administrator of General Services pursuant to the Memorandum and Statement of Government Patent Policy issued by President Nixon on August 23, 1971 (36 FR 16887). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.11   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The inventions covered by the U.S. patents and patent applications vested in the Government of the United States of America, as represented by or in the custody of the Commission, normally will best serve the public interest when they are developed to the point of practical application and made available to the public in the shortest time possible. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission generally prefers to make these inventions available to all interested parties through the granting of nonexclusive licenses. However, the Commission recognizes that to obtain commercial utilization of an invention, it may be necessary to grant an exclusive license for a limited period of time as an incentive for the investment of risk capital to achieve practical application of an invention. 
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the Commission deems it appropriate to grant an exclusive license, the license will be negotiated on terms and conditions most favorable to the interests of the public and the Government. In considering the accord of such a license, due weight will be given to assisting small business and minority business enterprises, as well as economically depressed, low income and labor surplus areas within the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) All licenses shall be by express written instruments. No license shall be granted or implied in an NRC invention except as provided for in these regulations or in patent rights articles under Commission procurement regulations, pursuant to the Act, or pursuant to any existing or future treaty or agreement between the United States and any foreign government or intergovernmental organization. 
</P>
<P>(e) No grant of a license under this subpart shall be construed to confer upon any licensee any immunity from the antitrust laws or from liability for patent misuse, and the acquisition and use of rights pursuant to this subpart shall not be immunized from the operation of State or Federal law by reason of the source of the grant. 
</P>
<P>(f) No grant of a license under this subpart shall be construed to confer any authorization under chapters 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, or any other chapter or section of the Act (42 U.S.C., sec. 2011-2296) for which separate application for a license must be made in accordance with the Act or other Commission regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.13   Publication of NRC inventions available for licensing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will have published periodically a list of the NRC inventions available for licensing under this subpart in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the U.S. Patent Office Official Gazette, and in one other publication which it is determined will best serve the public interest and, where advisable, in other publications. 
</P>
<P>(b) Interested persons may obtain copies of such lists by communicating with the Commission, Washington, DC 20555. Copies of U.S. patents may be obtained from the U.S. Patent Office. Copies of U.S. patent application specifications, or microfiche reproductions thereof, may be secured at reasonable cost from the National Technical Information Service (NTIS) or from the U.S. Patent Office with Commission approval. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 7318, Mar. 20, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 8793, Mar. 3, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.20   Nonexclusive licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NRC inventions will normally be made available for the grant of nonexclusive licenses to responsible applicants who will practice the invention and make its benefits reasonably accessible to the public. 
</P>
<P>(1) The nonexclusive license will be revocable, at the option of the Commission, if the licensee does not comply with all the terms and conditions of the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(2) The duration of the license shall be for a specified period and/or such additional period as may be provided for in the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(3) The license shall require the licensee to bring the invention to the point of practical application within a period specified in the license agreement, or as the period may be extended by the Commission, and then to continue to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public. 
</P>
<P>(4) The license shall be granted for all of the fields of use of the invention, or only such fields of use as may be specified in the license agreement, and throughout the United States of America, its territories and possessions, Puerto Rico, and the District of Columbia or in any lesser geographic portion thereof as may be specified in the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(5) The licensee shall be required to submit periodic reports on his efforts to bring the invention to a point of practical application and the extent to which he continues to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public. Unless otherwise specified in the license, such periodic reports will be required annually prior to the anniversary date of the grant of the license. The reports shall contain information within the licensee's knowledge, or which the licensee may acquire under normal business practices, pertaining to the commercial use being made of the invention, and other information which the Commission may determine to be pertinent to the licensing activity of the Commission and specified in the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(6) Normally a royalty shall not be charged U.S. citizens and U.S. corporations for nonexclusive licenses on NRC inventions. 
</P>
<P>(7) The license may extend to wholly-owned subsidiaries of the licensee but shall be nonassignable, or otherwise nontransferable, without approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(8) The Commission may revoke the license (i) for failure of the licensee to bring the invention to the point of practical application or to continue to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public, (ii) if the licensee defaults in making any periodic report required by the license, or (iii) if the licensee commits any breach of any covenant or agreement therein contained, or (iv) if the licensee willfully makes, or has made, a false statement of a material fact or omitted a material fact in the license application submitted pursuant to § 81.40(a) or in any report required by the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(9) The Commission may restrict the licensee to the particular fields of use and/or geographical areas in which the licensee has brought the invention to the point of practical application and continue to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public. 
</P>
<P>(10) Before revoking or restricting any license granted pursuant to this subpart, the Commission shall mail to the licensee and any sublicensee of record, at the last address filed with the Commission, a written notice of the Commission's intention to revoke or restrict the license, and the licensee and any sublicensee shall be allowed thirty (30) days after the mailing of such notice, or within such period as may be granted by the Commission, to remedy any breach of any covenant or agreement as referred to in paragraph (a)(8)(iii) of this section, or to show cause why the license should not be revoked or restricted. 
</P>
<P>(11) Subject to the rights reserved to the Government in this section, the licensee shall be granted the nonexclusive rights to make, use, and/or sell the invention in accordance with the terms and conditions specified in the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(12) The license may be subject to such other terms and conditions as the Commission may deem in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.30" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.30   Limited exclusive licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An NRC invention may be made available for the grant of a limited exclusive license provided that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The invention has been published as available for licensing pursuant to § 81.13 for a period of at least six (6) months. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission has determined that (i) the invention may be brought to the point of practical application in certain fields of use or in certain geographical locations by exclusive licensing, (ii) the desired practical application has not been achieved under any nonexclusive license granted on the invention, and (iii) the desired practical application is not likely to be achieved expeditiously in the public interest under a nonexclusive license or as a result of further Government-funded research or development. 
</P>
<P>(3) Notice of the selection of a prospective licensee to be granted a limited exclusive license of a specified duration and scope shall have been transmitted to the Attorney General of the United States and shall have been published for at least sixty (60) days in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> with a statement advising of the rights of license applicants or third parties to apply for nonexclusive licenses or bring information to the attention of the Commission under the next paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(4) After expiration of the period in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Commission has determined (i) that no applicant for a nonexclusive license has brought or will bring the invention to the point of practical application as specified in the prospective exclusive license within a reasonable period under a nonexclusive license, and (ii) that the granting of the license would be in the public interest and not be inconsistent with the Act after consideration of all the facts and any written evidence and argument which third parties may present to the Commission within sixty (60) days of the publication of the notices of the selection of the licensee under paragraph (a)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Commission shall record and make available for public inspection, upon request, all decisions and the basis thereof under this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.31   Selection of an exclusive licensee.</HEAD>
<P>An exclusive licensee will be selected by the Commission on bases consistent with the policy set forth in § 81.11 of this subpart in accordance with the procedures herein, based upon the information supplied to the Commission in a license application under § 81.40. Consideration will be given to: (a) The capabilities of the applicant to further the technical and market development of the invention to bring the same to the point of practical application, (b) the applicant's plan to undertake development of the invention, (c) the projected impact on competition, (d) the benefit to the Government and the public, as well as (e) assistance to small business and minority business enterprises and economically depressed, low income and labor surplus areas, and (f) whether the applicant is a U.S. citizen or corporation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.32   Terms of exclusive license grant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NRC inventions may be made available for the grant of limited exclusive licenses to responsible applicants who will bring the invention to the point of practical application and make its benefits reasonably accessible to the public. 
</P>
<P>(1) The license may be granted for all or less than all fields of use of the invention, and throughout the United States of America, its territories and possessions, Puerto Rico, and the District of Columbia, or any lesser geographical portion thereof. 
</P>
<P>(2) The duration of the license will be negotiated and shall include (i) a period of exclusivity specified in the license, which shall be related to the period necessary to provide a reasonable incentive for the licensee to invest the necessary risk capital to bring the invention to the point of practical application and which shall not exceed 5 years or be extended unless the Commission determines on the basis of a written submission supported by a factual showing that a longer period is reasonably necessary to permit the licensee to enter the market and recoup his investment in bringing the invention to the point of practical application; and (ii) a terminal portion, sufficient to make the invention reasonably available for the granting of nonexclusive licenses under § 81.20, during which the licensee may have a nonexclusive license if the licensee continues to make the invention reasonably accessible to the public. 
</P>
<P>(3) The license shall require the licensee to bring the invention to the point of practical application within a period specified in the license agreement, or, subject to the approval of the Commission, within a longer period, and then to continue to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public. 
</P>
<P>(4) The license shall require the licensee to expand a specified minimum sum of money and/or to take other specified action, within indicated periods as specified in the license, in an effort to bring the invention to the point of practical application. Reasonable royalties shall be charged by the Commission, as specified in the license agreement, unless the Commission determines that it would not be in the public interest to charge royalties. 
</P>
<P>(5) The license shall be subject to an irrevocable, royalty-free right of the Government of the United States to practice and have practiced the invention by or on behalf of the Government of the United States and on behalf of any foreign Government or intergovernmental organization pursuant to any existing or future treaty or agreement with the United States. 
</P>
<P>(6) The license shall reserve to the Commission the right to require the licensee to grant sublicenses to responsible applicants to practice the invention on terms that are reasonable under the circumstances, (i) to the extent that the invention is required for public use by governmental regulations, or (ii) as may be necessary to fulfill health or safety needs, or (iii) if the invention is useful in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy and the licensing of such invention is of importance to effectuate the policies and purposes of the Act, (iv) for other public purposes as stipulated in the license agreement. In the event that the licensee and the Commission cannot agree upon reasonable terms for such sublicenses, the terms, including a reasonable royalty, may be fixed pursuant to the procedure set forth in section 157(c) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(7) Subject to the right reserved to the Government in paragraphs (a) (5) and (6) of this section, the licensee shall be granted the exclusive right to make, use, and/or sell the invention in accordance with the terms and conditions specified in the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(8) The license may extend to wholly owned subsidiaries of the licensee but shall be nonassignable and otherwise nontransferable without approval of the Commission, except assignment may be made, upon notice to the Commission, to successors of that part of the licensee's business to which the invention pertains. 
</P>
<P>(9) An exclusive licensee may grant sublicenses under his license only with the approval of the Commission. Any sublicense or assignment granted by an exclusive licensee shall be subject to the terms and conditions of the exclusive license, including the rights retained by the Government thereunder, and a copy of each such sublicense or assignment shall be furnished to the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(10) The license shall require the licensee to submit periodic reports on his efforts to achieve practical application of the invention and the extent to which he continues to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public. Unless otherwise specified in the license, such reports will be required annually on the anniversary date of the grant of the license. The report shall contain information within the licensee's knowledge, or which the licensee may acquire under normal business practices, pertaining to the commercial use being made of the invention, and other information which the Commission may determine to be pertinent to the licensing activity of the Commission as is specified in the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(11) The Commission may modify or revoke the license (i) for failure of the licensee to bring the invention to the point of practical application within the period specified in the license agreement or to continue to make the benefits of the invention reasonably accessible to the public; (ii) if the licensee fails to expend the minimum sum of money or to take any other action specified in the license agreement within the periods specified in the license agreement in an effort to bring the invention to the point of practical application; (iii) if the licensee defaults in making any payments or periodic reports required by the license; or (iv) if the licensee commits any breach of any covenant or agreement therein contained; or (v) if the licensee willfully makes, or has made, a false statement of a material fact or willfully omitted a material fact in the license application submitted pursuant to § 81.40 or in any report required by the license agreement. 
</P>
<P>(12) Before modifying or revoking any license granted pursuant to this subpart for any cause, the Commission shall mail to the licensee and any sublicensee of record at the last address filed with the Commission a written notice of the Commission's intention to modify or revoke the license, and the licensee and any sublicensee shall be allowed thirty (30) days after the mailing of such notice, or within such period as may be granted by the Commission, to remedy any breach of any covenant or agreement referred to in paragraph (a)(11)(iv) of this section or to show cause why the license should not be modified or revoked. 
</P>
<P>(13) An exclusive licensee shall be granted the right to sue at his own expense any party who infringes the rights set forth in his license and covered by the licensed patent. The licensee may join the Government of the United States, upon consent of the Attorney General, as a party complainant in such suit, but without expense to the Government and the licensee shall pay costs and any final judgment or decree that may be rendered against the Government in such suit. The Government shall have an absolute right to intervene in any such suit at its own expense. The licensee shall be obligated to furnish promptly to the Government, upon request, copies of all pleadings and other papers filed in any such suit and of evidence adduced in proceedings relating to the licensed patent, including, but not limited to, negotiations or settlements and agreements settling claims by a licensee based on the licensed patent, and all other books, documents, papers, and records pertaining to such suit. If, as a result of any such litigation, the patent shall be declared invalid, the licensee shall have the right to surrender his license and be relieved from any further obligation thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(14) A licensee may surrender his license at any time prior to termination of the license upon notice thereof to the Commission, and upon approval of the Commission, but the licensee shall not be relieved of the obligations thereunder without specific approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(15) The license may be subject to such other terms and conditions as the Commission may deem in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.35   Notices to public of exclusive licenses.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will have published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices of the granting, revocation, or modification in duration and/or scope, of limited exclusive licenses under these regulations. Such notices shall identify the invention and shall include, directly, or by reference to previous notice(s) in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to § 81.13 or § 81.30(a)(3) the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Identification of the licensee. 
</P>
<P>(b) Duration and scope of the exclusive license. 
</P>
<P>(c) That such a license is being granted or revoked, or the nature of the modification of the license. 
</P>
<P>(d) The effective date of the grant, modification, or revocation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.40   Contents of a license application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nonexclusive license application.</I> An application for a nonexclusive license under an NRC invention should be accompanied by a fee of ten dollars ($10) for processing the application and must include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the invention for which the license is desired, including the patent application serial number or the patent number, title, and date, if known, and any other identification of the invention; 
</P>
<P>(2) Name and address of the person, company, or organization applying for a license and the citizenship or State of incorporation thereof; 
</P>
<P>(3) Name and address of a representative of applicant to whom correspondence should be sent and any notices served; 
</P>
<P>(4) Nature and type of applicant's business; 
</P>
<P>(5) Identification of the source of applicant's information concerning the availability of a license on the invention; 
</P>
<P>(6) Purpose for which the license is desired, and a brief description of applicant's plan to achieve that purpose; 
</P>
<P>(7) A statement of the field and the field(s) of use in which applicant intends to practice the invention; and 
</P>
<P>(8) A statement of the geographical area(s) in which the applicant will practice the invention. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusive license application.</I> An application for a limited exclusive license should include, in addition to the information indicated above for a nonexclusive license application, the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Applicant's status, if any, in any one or more of the following categories: 
</P>
<P>(i) Small business firm; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Minority business enterprise; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Location in a surplus labor area; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Location in a low income area; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Location in an economically depressed area. 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement describing the time, expenditure, and other acts which the applicant considers necessary to bring the invention to a point of practical application, and the applicant's offer to invest that time and sum, and to perform such acts, if the license is granted. 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of applicant's capability to undertake the development and/or marketing required to bring the invention to the point of practical application. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that contains applicant's best knowledge of the extent to which the invention is being practiced by private industry and the Government; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other facts which the applicant believes to show it to be in the public interest for the Commission to grant an exclusive license rather than a nonexclusive license and that such exclusive license should be granted to the applicant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.50" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.50   Additional licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to any outstanding licenses, nothing in this subpart shall preclude the Commission from granting additional nonexclusive and limited exclusive licenses for inventions covered by this subpart when the Commission determines that to do so would provide for an equitable exchange of patent rights. The following exemplify circumstances wherein such licenses may be granted: 
</P>
<P>(a) In consideration of the settlement of interferences; 
</P>
<P>(b) In consideration of a release of any claims; 
</P>
<P>(c) In exchange for or as part of the consideration for a license under adversely held patent(s); or 
</P>
<P>(d) In consideration for the settlement or resolution of any proceeding under the Act or other statute. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.51   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant for a license, a licensee, or a third party who has participated under § 81.30(a)(3) shall have the right to appeal in accordance with the appeal procedures of this subpart any decision of the Commission concerning the grant, denial, interpretation, modification, or revocation of a license under this subpart, by filing a notice of appeal with the Commission within thirty (30) days from the date of the mailing of a notice by the Commission of the decision or, if no such notice to the person desiring to appeal, then thirty (30) days from publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the facts which show such a decision. The notice of appeal shall specify the portion of the decision from which the appeal is taken, and the reasons why the decision is erroneous. A statement of fact and argument in the form of a brief in support of the appeal may be submitted with the notice of appeal or, if the appellant prefers, may be filed with the Commission within fifteen (15) days after the filing of the notice of appeal. If a statement of fact and argument in the form of a brief in support of the appeal is not submitted with the notice, the appellant shall state in the notice whether such a statement of fact and argument in the form of a brief in support of the appeal will be filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.52   Appeals Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>NRC Invention Licensing Appeal Board.</I> Upon notice of an appeal in accordance with § 81.51, the Executive Director for Operations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission will designate within thirty (30) days an Invention Licensing Appeal Board (hereinafter, Board) to decide such an appeal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Composition of the Board.</I> The Invention Licensing Appeal Board shall consist of three members having equal voting power, one of whom will be designated as Chairman. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of designation of the Board.</I> The Executive Director for Operations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission will advise the appellant of the designation of the Board, its composition, and Chairman. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8793, Mar. 3, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 81.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.17.0.128.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 81.53   Review by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall determine the propriety of any decision concerning the grant, denial, interpretation, modification, or revocation of a license according to the policy and criteria of these regulations, including § 81.11, on the record and evidence submitted by an appellant and the Commission to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) A hearing may be requested by the Commission or an appellant within fifteen (15) days after the notice set forth under § 81.52(c). An appellant and the Commission shall be given a minimum of fifteen (15) days' notice of the time and place of a hearing. The Commission and the appellant shall have an opportunity to make oral arguments before the Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board shall make findings of fact and reach a conclusion with respect to the propriety of the decision of the Commission, which conclusion shall constitute the final action of the Commission. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="95" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 95—FACILITY SECURITY CLEARANCE AND SAFEGUARDING OF NATIONAL SECURITY INFORMATION AND RESTRICTED DATA
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 145, 161, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2165, 2201, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note; E.O. 10865, as amended, 25 FR 1583, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 398; E.O. 12829, 58 FR 3479, 3 CFR, 1993 Comp., p. 570; E.O. 12968, 60 FR 40245, 3 CFR, 1995 Comp., p. 391; E.O. 13526, 75 FR 707, 3 CFR, 2009 Comp., p. 298.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 14483, Mar. 5, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="129" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part establish procedures for obtaining facility security clearance and for safeguarding Secret and Confidential National Security Information and Restricted Data received or developed in conjunction with activities licensed, certified or regulated by the Commission. This part does not apply to Top Secret information because Top Secret information may not be forwarded to licensees, certificate holders, or others within the scope of an NRC license or certificate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17690, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 41222, July 11, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.3   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to licensees, certificate holders and others who may require access to classified National Security Information and/or Restricted Data and/or Formerly Restricted Data (FRD) that is used, processed, stored, reproduced, transmitted, transported, or handled in connection with a license or certificate or an application for a license or certificate, or other activities as the Commission may determine.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 32227, June 2, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Access authorization</I> means an administrative determination that an individual (including a consultant) who is employed by or an applicant for employment with the NRC, NRC contractors, agents, licensees and certificate holders, or other persons designated by the Executive Director for Operations, is eligible for a security clearance for access to classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Classified mail address</I> means a mail address established for each facility approved by the NRC, to which all classified information for the facility is to be sent.
</P>
<P><I>Classified matter</I> means documents or material containing classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Classified National Security Information</I> means information that has been determined under E.O. 13526, as amended, or any predecessor or successor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and that is so designated.
</P>
<P><I>Classified shipping address</I> means an address established for a facility, approved by the NRC to which classified material that cannot be transmitted as normal mail is to be sent.
</P>
<P><I>Closed area</I> means an area that meets the requirements of the CSA, for the purpose of safeguarding classified material that, because of its size, nature, or operational necessity, cannot be adequately protected by the normal safeguards or stored during nonworking hours in approved containers.
</P>
<P><I>Cognizant Security Agency (CSA)</I> means agencies of the Executive Branch that have been authorized by E.O. 12829 to establish an industrial security program for the purpose of safeguarding classified information under the jurisdiction of those agencies when disclosed or released or released to U.S. industry. These agencies are the Department of Defense, the department of Energy, the Central Intelligence Agency, and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. A facility has a CSA which exercises primary authority for the protection of classified information at the facility. The CSA for the facility provides security representation for other government agencies with security interests at the facility. The Secretary of Defense has been as Executive Agent for the National Industrial Security Program.
</P>
<P><I>Combination lock</I> means a three position, manipulation resistant, dial type lock bearing an Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc. certification that it is a Group 1 or Group IR unit.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Facility (Security) Clearance (FCL)</I> means an administrative determination that, from a security viewpoint, a facility is eligible for access to classified information of a certain category (and all lower categories).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign ownership, control, or influence (FOCI)</I> means a foreign interest that has the power, direct or indirect, whether or not exercised, and whether or not exercisable through the ownership of a U.S. company's securities, by contractual arrangements or other means, to direct or decide matters affecting the management or operations of that company in a manner which may result in unauthorized access to classified information or may affect adversely the performance of classified contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Infraction</I> means any knowing, willful, or negligent action contrary to the requirements of E.O. 13526, as amended, or any predecessor or successor order, or its implementing directives that does not comprise a “violation,” as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Intrusion alarm</I> means a tamper-indicating electrical, electro-mechanical, electro-optical, electronic or similar device which will detect unauthorized intrusion by an individual into a building, protected area, security area, vital area, or material access area, and alert guards or watchmen by means of actuated visible and audible signals.


</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a license issued under 10 CFR part 50, 52, 53, 54, 60, 63, 70, or 72.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means chemical substance without regard to form; fabricated or processed item; or assembly, machinery or equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Matter</I> means documents or material.
</P>
<P><I>National security</I> means the national defense or foreign relations of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Need-to-know</I> means a determination made by an authorized holder of classified information that a prospective recipient requires access to specific classified information in order to perform or assist in a lawful and authorized governmental function under the cognizance of the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>NRC “L” access authorization</I> means an access authorization granted by the Commission that is normally based on a Tier 3 (T3) investigation or a Tier 3 reinvestigation (T3R) conducted by the Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency.
</P>
<P><I>NRC “Q” access authorization</I> means an access authorization granted by the Commission normally based on a Tier 5 (T5) investigation conducted by the Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency, the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or other U.S. Government agency that conducts personnel security investigations.


</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means (1) any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, government agency other than the Commission or the Department of Energy (DOE), except that the DOE shall be considered a person to the extent that its facilities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 and sections 104, 105 and 202 of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Protective personnel</I> means guards or watchmen as defined in 10 CFR part 73 or other persons designated responsibility for the protection of classified matter.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted area</I> means a controlled access area established to safeguard classified material, that, because of its size or nature, cannot be adequately protected during working hours by the usual safeguards, but that is capable of being stored during non-working hours in an approved repository or secured by other methods approved by the CSA.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted data</I> means all data concerning design, manufacture or utilization of atomic weapons, the production of special nuclear material, or the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but shall not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Security area</I> means a physically defined space containing classified matter and subject to physical protection and personnel access controls.
</P>
<P><I>Security container</I> includes any of the following repositories:
</P>
<P>(1) A security filing cabinet—one that bears a Test Certification Label on the side of the locking drawer, inside wall adjacent to the locking drawer, or interior door plate, or is marked, “General Services Administration Approved Security Container” on the exterior of the top drawer or door.
</P>
<P>(2) A safe—burglar-resistive cabinet or chest which bears a label of the Underwriters' Laboratories, Inc., certifying the unit to be a TL-15, TL-30, or TRTL-30, and has a body fabricated of not less than 1 inch of steel and a door fabricated of not less than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches of steel exclusive of the combination lock and bolt work; or bears a Test Certification Label on the inside of the door, or is marked “General Services Administration Approved Security Container” and has a body of steel at least 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch thick, and a combination locked steel door at least 1 inch thick, exclusive of bolt work and locking devices; and an automatic unit locking mechanism.
</P>
<P>(3) A vault—a windowless enclosure constructed with walls, floor, roof, and door(s) that will delay penetration sufficient to enable the arrival of emergency response forces capable of preventing theft, diversion, damage, or compromise of classified information or matter, when delay time is assessed in conjunction with detection and communication subsystems of the physical protection system.
</P>
<P>(4) A vault-type room—a room that has a combination lock door and is protected by an intrusion alarm system that alarms upon the unauthorized penetration of a person anywhere into the room.
</P>
<P>(5) Other repositories that would provide comparable physical protection in the judgment of the Division of Facilities and Security.
</P>
<P><I>Security facility</I>—any facility which has been approved by NRC for using, processing, storing, reproducing, transmitting or handling classified matter. 
</P>
<P><I>Security reviews</I> means aperiodic security reviews of cleared facilities conducted to ensure that safeguards employed by licensees and others are adequate for the protection of classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Supplemental protection</I> means additional security procedures such as intrusion detection systems, security guards, and access control systems.
</P>
<P><I>Violation</I> means any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information or any knowing, willful, or negligent action to classify or continue the classification of information contrary to the requirements of E.O. 12958, as amended, or its implementing directives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14483, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 58284, Dec. 1, 1981; 47 FR 38683, Sept. 2, 1982; 48 FR 24320, June 1, 1983; 50 FR 36984, Sept. 11, 1985; 55 FR 11575, Mar. 29, 1990; 55 FR 14379, Apr. 17, 1990; 59 FR 48974, Sept. 23, 1994; 62 FR 17691, Apr. 11, 1997; 64 FR 15649, Apr. 1, 1999; 70 FR 32227, June 2, 2005; 72 FR 49562, Aug. 28, 2007; 75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010; 86 FR 43403, Aug. 9, 2021; 87 FR 45242, July 28, 2022; 91 FR 15878, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.7   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14483, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 90 FR 55633, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0047. 
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 95.11, 95.15, 95.17, 95.18, 95.21, 95.25, 95.33, 95.34, 95.36, 95.37, 95.39, 95.41, 95.43, 95.45, 95.47, 95.53, and 95.57.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52190, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15650, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.9   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part should be submitted as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) By mail addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director,  Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; 
</P>
<P>(b) By hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. 
</P>
<P>(d) Classified communications shall be transmitted in accordance with § 95.39 of this chapter to the NRC Headquarters' classified mailing address listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter or delivered by hand in accordance with § 95.39 of this chapter to the NRC Headquarters' street address listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58823, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62685, Dec. 1, 2009; 83 FR 58723, Nov. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.11   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The NRC may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of the regulations of this part, that are—
</P>
<P>(a) Authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and are consistent with the common defense and security; or
</P>
<P>(b) Coincidental with one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An application of the regulation in the particular circumstances conflicts with other rules or requirements of the NRC;
</P>
<P>(2) An application of the regulation in the particular circumstances would not serve the underlying purpose of the rule or is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule;
</P>
<P>(3) When compliance would result in undue hardship or other costs that are significantly in excess of those contemplated when the regulation was adopted, or that are significantly in excess of those incurred by others similarly situated;
</P>
<P>(4) When the exemption would result in benefit to the common defense and security that compensates for any decrease in security that may result from the grant of the exemption;
</P>
<P>(5) When the exemption would provide only temporary relief from the applicable regulation and the licensee or applicant has made good faith efforts to comply with the regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) When there is any other material circumstance not considered when the regulation was adopted for which it would be in the public interest to grant an exemption. If such a condition is relied on exclusively for satisfying paragraph (b) of this section, the exemption may not be granted until the Executive Director for Operations has consulted with the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15650, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.129.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.13   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee, certificate holder or other person granted facility clearance under this part shall maintain records as prescribed within the part. These records are subject to review and inspection by CSA representatives during security reviews.
</P>
<P>(b) Each record required by this part must be legible throughout the retention period specified by each Commission regulation. The record may be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of producing a clear copy throughout the required retention period. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, or specifications must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee, certificate holder, or other person shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19263, May 27, 1988, as amended at 62 FR 17691, Apr. 11, 1997; 72 FR 49562, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="130" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Physical Security</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.15   Approval for processing licensees and others for facility clearance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A licensee, certificate holder, or other person who has a need to use, process, store, reproduce, transmit, transport, or handle NRC classified information at any location in connection with Commission-related activities shall promptly request an NRC facility clearance. This specifically includes situations where a licensee, certificate holder, or other person needs a contractor or consultant to have access to NRC classified information. Also included are others who require access to classified information in connection with NRC regulated activities but do not require use, storage, or possession of classified information outside of NRC facilities. However, it is not necessary for a licensee, certificate holder, or other person to request an NRC facility clearance for access to another agency's classified information at that agency's facilities or to store that agency's classified information at their facility, provided no NRC classified information is involved and they meet the security requirements of the other agency. If NRC classified information is involved, the requirements of § 95.17 apply.
</P>
<P>(b) The request must include the name of the facility, the location of the facility and an identification of any facility clearance issued by another government agency. If there is no existing facility clearance, the request must include a security Standard Practice Procedures Plan that outlines the facility's proposed security procedures and controls for the protection of classified information, a floor plan of the area in which the matter is to be used, processed, stored, reproduced, transmitted, transported or handled; and Foreign Ownership, Control or Influence information. 
</P>
<P>(c) NRC will promptly inform applicants of the acceptability of the request for further processing and will notify the licensee or other person of their decision in writing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14483, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 24321, June 1, 1983; 50 FR 36984, Sept. 11, 1985; 59 FR 48974, Sept. 23, 1994; 62 FR 17691, Apr. 11, 1997; 64 FR 15650, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.17   Processing facility clearance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following the receipt of an acceptable request for facility clearance, the NRC will either accept an existing facility clearance granted by a current CSA and authorize possession of license or certificate related classified information, or process the facility for a facility clearance. Processing will include—
</P>
<P>(1) A determination based on review and approval of a Standard Practice Procedures Plan that granting of the Facility Clearance would not be inconsistent with the national interest, including a finding that the facility is not under foreign ownership, control, or influence to such a degree that a determination could not be made. An NRC finding of foreign ownership, control, or influence is based on factors concerning the foreign intelligence threat, risk of unauthorized technology transfer, type and sensitivity of the information that requires protection, the extent of foreign influence, record of compliance with pertinent laws, and the nature of international security and information exchange agreements. The licensee, certificate holder, or other person must advise the NRC within 30 days of any significant events or changes that may affect its status concerning foreign ownership, control, or influence (e.g., changes in ownership; changes that affect the company's answers to original FOCI questions; indebtedness; and changes in the required form that identifies owners, officers, directors, and executive personnel).
</P>
<P>(2) An acceptable security review conducted by the NRC; 
</P>
<P>(3) Submitting key management personnel for personnel clearances (PCLs); and 
</P>
<P>(4) Appointing a U.S. citizen employee as the facility security officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) An interim Facility Clearance may be granted by the CSA on a temporary basis pending completion of the full investigative requirements. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17692, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15650, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.18" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.18   Key personnel.</HEAD>
<P>The senior management official and the Facility Security Officer must always be cleared to a level commensurate with the Facility Clearance. Other key management officials, as determined by the CSA, must be granted an access authorization or be excluded from classified access. When formal exclusion action is required, the organization's board of directors or similar executive body shall affirm the following, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(a) Officers, directors, partners, regents, or trustees (designated by name) that are excluded may not require, may not have, and can be effectively excluded from access to all classified information disclosed to the organization. These individuals also may not occupy positions that would enable them to adversely affect the organization's policies or practices in the performance of activities involving classified information. This action will be made a matter of record by the organization's executive body. A copy of the resolution must be furnished to the CSA. 
</P>
<P>(b) Officers, directors, partners, regents, or trustees (designated by name) that are excluded may not require, may not have, and can be effectively denied access to higher-level classified information (specify which higher level(s)). These individuals may not occupy positions that would enable them to adversely affect the organization's policies or practices in the protection of classified information. This action will be made a matter of record by the organization's executive body. A copy of the resolution must be furnished to the CSA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17692, Apr. 11, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.19   Changes to security practices and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, each licensee, certificate holder, or other person shall obtain prior CSA approval for any proposed change to the name, location, security procedures and controls, or floor plan of the approved facility. A written description of the proposed change must be furnished to the CSA and the NRC Regional Administrator of the cognizant Regional Office listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter, and, if the NRC is not the CSA, also to the Director, Division of Security Operations, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response; the communications to NRC personnel should be by an appropriate method listed in § 95.9. These substantive changes to the Standard Practice Procedures Plan that affect the security of the facility must be submitted to the NRC Division of Security Operations, or CSA, at least 30 days prior to the change so that they may be evaluated. The CSA shall promptly respond in writing to all such proposals. Some examples of substantive changes requiring prior CSA approval include—
</P>
<P>(1) A change in the approved facility's classified mail address; or
</P>
<P>(2) A temporary or permanent change in the location of the approved facility (e.g., moving or relocating NRC's classified interest from one room or building to another). Approved changes will be reflected in a revised Standard Practice Procedures Plan submission within 30 days of approval. Page changes rather than a complete rewrite of the plan may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee, certificate holder, or other person may effect a minor, non-substantive change to an approved Standard Practice Procedures Plan for the safeguarding of classified information without receiving prior CSA approval. These minor changes that do not affect the security of the facility may be submitted to the addressees noted in paragraph (a) of this section within 30 days of the change. Page changes rather than a complete rewrite of the plan may be submitted. Some examples of minor, non-substantive changes to the Standard Practice Procedures Plan include—
</P>
<P>(1) The designation/appointment of a new facility security officer; or
</P>
<P>(2) A revision to a protective personnel patrol routine, provided the new routine continues to meet the minimum requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee, certificate holder, or other person must update its NRC facility clearance every five years either by submitting a complete Standard Practice Procedures Plan or a certification that the existing plan is fully current to the Division of Security Operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15650, Apr. 1, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 41222, July 11, 2003; 68 FR 58823, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 49562, Aug. 28, 2007; 74 FR 62685, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.20   Grant, denial or termination of facility clearance.</HEAD>
<P>The Division of Security Operations shall provide notification in writing (or orally with written confirmation) to the licensee, certificate holder, or other person of the Commission's grant, acceptance of another agency's facility clearance, denial, or termination of facility clearance. This information must also be furnished to representatives of the NRC, NRC contractors, licensees, certificate holders, or other person, or other Federal agencies having a need to transmit classified information to the licensees or other person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49562, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 62685, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.21   Withdrawal of requests for facility security clearance.</HEAD>
<P>When a request for facility clearance is to be withdrawn or canceled, the requester shall notify the NRC Division of Security Operations in the most expeditious manner so that processing for this approval may be terminated. The notification must identify the full name of the individual requesting discontinuance, his or her position with the facility, and the full identification of the facility. The requestor shall confirm the telephone notification promptly in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15651, Apr. 1, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 41222, July 11, 2003; 74 FR 62685, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.23   Termination of facility clearance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Facility clearance will be terminated when— 
</P>
<P>(1) There is no longer a need to use, process, store, reproduce, transmit, transport or handle classified matter at the facility; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission makes a determination that continued facility clearance is not in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P>(b) When facility clearance is terminated, the licensee, certificate holder, or other person will be notified in writing of the determination and the procedures outlined in § 95.53 apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17692, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 72 FR 49562, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.25   Protection of National Security Information and Restricted Data in storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Secret matter, while unattended or not in actual use, must be stored in—
</P>
<P>(1) A safe, steel file cabinet, or safe-type steel file container that has an automatic unit locking mechanism. All such receptacles will be accorded supplemental protection during non-working hours; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any steel file cabinet that has four sides and a top and bottom (all permanently attached by welding, rivets, or peened bolts so the contents cannot be removed without leaving visible evidence of entry) and is secured by a rigid metal lock bar and an approved key operated or combination padlock. The keepers of the rigid metal lock bar must be secured to the cabinet by welding, rivets, or bolts, so they cannot be removed and replaced without leaving evidence of the entry. The drawers of the container must be held securely so their contents cannot be removed without forcing open the drawer. This type of cabinet will be accorded supplemental protection during non-working hours.
</P>
<P>(b) Confidential matter while unattended or not in use must be stored in the same manner as SECRET matter except that no supplemental protection is required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classified lock combinations.</I> (1) A minimum number of authorized persons may know the combinations to authorized storage containers. Security containers, vaults, cabinets, and other authorized storage containers must be kept locked when not under the direct supervision of an authorized person entrusted with the contents. 
</P>
<P>(2) Combinations must be changed by a person authorized access to the contents of the container, by the Facility Security Officer, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records of combinations.</I> If a record is made of a combination, the record must be marked with the highest classification of material authorized for storage in the container. Superseded combinations must be destroyed. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Selections of combinations.</I> Each combination must be randomly selected and require the use of at least three different numbers. In selecting combinations, multiples, simple arithmetical ascending or descending series, telephone numbers, social security numbers, car license numbers, and calendar dates such as birthdates and anniversaries, shall be avoided.
</P>
<P>(f) Combinations will be changed only by persons authorized access to Secret or Confidential National Security Information and/or Restricted Data depending upon the matter authorized to be stored in the security container.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Posted information.</I> Containers may not bear external markings indicating the level of classified matter authorized for storage. A record of the names of persons having knowledge of the combination must be posted inside the container.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>End of day security checks.</I> (1) Facilities that store classified matter shall establish a system of security checks at the close of each working day to ensure that all classified matter and security repositories have been appropriately secured.
</P>
<P>(2) Facilities operating with multiple work shifts shall perform the security checks at the end of the last working shift in which classified matter had been removed from storage for use. The checks are not required during continuous 24-hour operations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Unattended security container found opened.</I> If an unattended security container housing classified matter is found unlocked, the custodian or an alternate must be notified immediately. Also, the container must be secured by protective personnel. An effort must be made to determine if the contents were compromised not later than the next day.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Supervision of keys and padlocks.</I> Use of key-operated padlocks are subject to the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) A key and lock custodian shall be appointed to ensure proper custody and handling of keys and locks used for protection of classified matter;
</P>
<P>(2) A key and lock control register must be maintained to identify keys for each lock and their current location and custody; 
</P>
<P>(3) Keys and locks must be audited each month; 
</P>
<P>(4) Keys must be inventoried with each change of custody; 
</P>
<P>(5) Keys must not be removed from the premises; 
</P>
<P>(6) Keys and spare locks must be protected equivalent to the level of classified matter involved;
</P>
<P>(7) Locks must be changed or rotated at least every 12 months, and must be replaced after loss or compromise of their operable keys; and
</P>
<P>(8) Master keys may not be made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 14483, Mar. 5, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 9196, Mar. 4, 1982; 50 FR 36985, Sept. 11, 1985; 53 FR 19263, May 27, 1988; 59 FR 48975, Sept. 23, 1994; 62 FR 17693, Apr. 11, 1997; 64 FR 15651, Apr. 1, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.27   Protection while in use.</HEAD>
<P>While in use, classified matter must be under the direct control of an authorized individual to preclude physical, audio, and visual access by persons who do not have the prescribed access authorization or other written CSA disclosure authorization (see § 95.36 for additional information concerning disclosure authorizations).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15651, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.29" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.29   Establishment of Restricted or Closed areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, because of its nature, sensitivity or importance, classified matter cannot otherwise be effectively controlled in accordance with the provisions of §§ 95.25 and 95.27, a Restricted or Closed area must be established to protect this matter.
</P>
<P>(b) The following measures apply to Restricted Areas: 
</P>
<P>(1) Restricted areas must be separated from adjacent areas by a physical barrier designed to prevent unauthorized access (physical, audio, and visual) into these areas. 
</P>
<P>(2) Controls must be established to prevent unauthorized access to and removal of classified matter. 
</P>
<P>(3) Access to classified matter must be limited to persons who possess appropriate access authorization or other written CSA disclosure authorization and who require access in the performance of their official duties or regulatory obligations. 
</P>
<P>(4) Persons without appropriate access authorization for the area visited must be escorted by an appropriate CSA access authorized person at all times while within Restricted or Closed Areas. 
</P>
<P>(5) Each individual authorized to enter a Restricted or Closed Area must be issued a distinctive form of identification (e.g., badge) when the number of employees assigned to the area exceeds thirty per shift. 
</P>
<P>(6) During nonworking hours, admittance must be controlled by protective personnel. Protective personnel shall conduct patrols during nonworking hours at least every 8 hours and more frequently if necessary to maintain a commensurate level of protection. Entrances must be continuously monitored by protective personnel or by an approved alarm system. 
</P>
<P>(c) Due to the size and nature of the classified material, or operational necessity, it may be necessary to construct Closed Areas for storage because GSA-approved containers or vaults are unsuitable or impractical. Closed Areas must be approved by the CSA. The following measures apply to Closed Areas: 
</P>
<P>(1) Access to Closed Areas must be controlled to preclude unauthorized access. This may be accomplished through the use of a cleared employee or by a CSA approved access control device or system. 
</P>
<P>(2) Access must be limited to authorized persons who have an appropriate security clearance and a need-to-know for the classified matter within the area. Persons without the appropriate level of clearance and/or need-to-know must be escorted at all times by an authorized person where inadvertent or unauthorized exposure to classified information cannot otherwise be effectively prevented.
</P>
<P>(3) The Closed Area must be accorded supplemental protection during non-working hours. During these hours, admittance to the area must be controlled by locked entrances and exits secured by either an approved built-in combination lock or an approved combination or key-operated padlock. However, doors secured from the inside with a panic bolt (for example, actuated by a panic bar), a dead bolt, a rigid wood or metal bar, or other means approved by the CSA, do not require additional locking devices. 
</P>
<P>(4) Open shelf or bin storage of classified matter in Closed Areas requires CSA approval. Only areas protected by an approved intrusion detection system will qualify for approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17693, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15652, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.31   Protective personnel.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever protective personnel are used to protect classified information they shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Possess an “L” access authorization (or CSA equivalent) if the licensee, certificate holder, or other person possesses information classified Confidential National Security Information, Confidential Restricted Data or Secret National Security Information.
</P>
<P>(b) Possess a “Q” access authorization (or CSA equivalent) if the licensee, certificate holder, or other person possesses Secret Restricted Data related to nuclear weapons design, manufacturing and vulnerability information; and certain particularly sensitive Naval Nuclear Propulsion Program information (e.g., fuel manufacturing technology) and the protective personnel require access as part of their regular duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49562, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.33   Security education.</HEAD>
<P>All cleared employees must be provided with security training and briefings commensurate with their involvement with classified information. The facility official(s) responsible for the program shall determine the means and methods for providing security education and training. A licensee or other entity subject to part 95 may obtain defensive security, threat awareness, and other education and training information and material from their Cognizant Security Agency (CSA) or other appropriate sources.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Facility Security Officer training.</I> Licensees or other entities subject to part 95 are responsible for ensuring that the Facility Security Officer, and other personnel performing security duties, complete security training deemed appropriate by the CSA. Training requirements must be based on the facility's involvement with classified information and may include a Facility Security Officer Orientation Course and, for Facility Security Officers at facilities with safeguarding capability, a Facility Security Officer Program Management Course. Training, if required, should be completed within 1 year of appointment to the position of Facility Security Officer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Government-provided briefings.</I> The CSA is responsible for providing initial security briefings to the Facility Security Officer, and for ensuring that other briefings required for special categories of information are provided.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Temporary help suppliers.</I> A temporary help supplier, or other contractor who employs cleared individuals solely for dispatch elsewhere, is responsible for ensuring that required briefings are provided to their cleared personnel. The temporary help supplier or the using licensee's, certificate holder's, or other person's facility may conduct these briefings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement (SF-312).</I> The SF-312 is an agreement between the United States and an individual who is cleared for access to classified information. An employee issued an initial access authorization must, in accordance with the requirements of § 25.23 of this chapter, execute an SF-312 before being granted access to classified information. The Facility Security Officer shall forward the executed SF-312 to the CSA for retention. If the employee refuses to execute the SF-312, the licensee or other facility shall deny the employee access to classified information and submit a report to the CSA. The SF-312 must be signed and dated by the employee and witnessed. The employee's and witness' signatures must bear the same date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access to classified information.</I> Employees may have access to classified information only if:
</P>
<P>(1) A favorable determination of eligibility for access has been made with respect to such employee by the CSA;
</P>
<P>(2) The employee has signed an approved non-disclosure agreement; and
</P>
<P>(3) The employee has a need-to-know the information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Initial security briefings.</I> Initial training shall be provided to every employee who has met the standards for access to classified information in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section before the employee is granted access to classified information. The initial training shall include the following topics:
</P>
<P>(1) A Threat Awareness Briefing;
</P>
<P>(2) A Defensive Security Briefing;
</P>
<P>(3) An overview of the security classification system;
</P>
<P>(4) Employee reporting obligations and requirements; and
</P>
<P>(5) Security procedures and duties applicable to the employee's job.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Refresher briefings.</I> The licensee or other entities subject to part 95 shall conduct refresher briefings for all cleared employees at least annually. As a minimum, the refresher briefing must reinforce the information provided during the initial briefing and inform employees of appropriate changes in security regulations. This requirement may be satisfied by use of audio/video materials and/or by issuing written materials to cleared employees.
</P>
<P>(h) Persons who apply derivative classification markings shall receive training specific to the proper application of the derivative classification principles of Executive Order 13526, <I>Classified National Security Information</I> (75 FR 707; January 5, 2010), before derivatively classifying information and at least once every 2 years thereafter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Debriefings.</I> Licensee and other facilities shall debrief cleared employees at the time of termination of employment (discharge, resignation, or retirement); when an employee's access authorization is terminated, suspended, or revoked; and upon termination of the Facility Clearance.
</P>
<P>(j) Records reflecting an individual's initial and refresher security orientations and security termination must be maintained for 3 years after termination of the individual's access authorization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 48041, Aug. 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.34" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.130.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.34   Control of visitors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Uncleared visitors.</I> Licensees, certificate holders, or other persons subject to this part shall take measures to preclude access to classified information by uncleared visitors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign visitors.</I> Licensees, certificate holders, or other persons subject to this part shall take measures as may be necessary to preclude access to classified information by foreign visitors. The licensee, certificate holder, or other person shall retain records of visits for 5 years beyond the date of the visit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49563, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="131" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Control of Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.35" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.35   Access to matter classified as National Security Information and Restricted Data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as the Commission may authorize, no licensee, certificate holder or other person subject to the regulations in this part may receive or may permit any other licensee, certificate holder, or other person to have access to matter revealing Secret or Confidential National Security Information or Restricted Data unless the individual has:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A “Q” access authorization which permits access to matter classified as Secret and Confidential Restricted Data or Secret and Confidential National Security Information which includes intelligence information, CRYPTO (<I>i.e.</I>, cryptographic information) or other classified communications security (COMSEC) information, or
</P>
<P>(ii) An “L” access authorization which permits access to matter classified as Confidential Restricted Data and Secret and Confidential National Security Information other than that noted in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section except that access to certain Confidential COMSEC information is permitted as authorized by a National Communications Security Committee waiver dated February 14, 1984.
</P>
<P>(2) An established “need-to-know” for the matter (See Definitions, § 95.5).
</P>
<P>(3) NRC-approved storage facilities if classified documents or material are to be transmitted to the licensee, certificate holder, or other person.
</P>
<P>(b) Matter classified as National Security Information or Restricted Data shall not be released by a licensee or other person subject to part 95 to any personnel other than properly access authorized Commission licensee employees, or other individuals authorized access by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) Access to matter which is National Security Information at NRC-licensed facilities or NRC-certified facilities by authorized representatives of IAEA is permitted in accordance with § 95.36.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48975, Sept. 23, 1994, as amended at 72 FR 49563, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.36" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.36   Access by representatives of the International Atomic Energy Agency or by participants in other international agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Based upon written disclosure authorization from the NRC Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards that an individual is an authorized representative of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) or other international organization and that the individual is authorized to make visits under an established agreement with the United States Government, an applicant, licensee, certificate holder, or other person subject to this part shall permit the individual (upon presentation of the credentials specified in § 75.8(c) of this chapter and any other credentials identified in the disclosure authorization) to have access to matter classified as National Security Information that is relevant to the conduct of a visit or inspection. A disclosure authorization under this section does not authorize a licensee, certificate holder, or other person subject to this part to provide access to Restricted Data.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, classified National Security Information is relevant to the conduct of a visit or inspection if—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a visit, this information is needed to verify information according to § 75.8 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an inspection, an inspector is entitled to have access to the information under § 75.8 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with the specific disclosure authorization provided by the Division of Security Operations, licensees, certificate holders, or other persons subject to this part are authorized to release (<I>i.e.</I>, transfer possession of) copies of documents that contain classified National Security Information directly to IAEA inspectors and other representatives officially designated to request and receive classified National Security Information documents. These documents must be marked specifically for release to IAEA or other international organizations in accordance with instructions contained in the NRC's disclosure authorization letter. Licensees, certificate holders, and other persons subject to this part may also forward these documents through the NRC to the international organization's headquarters in accordance with the NRC disclosure authorization. Licensees, certificate holders, and other persons may not reproduce documents containing classified National Security Information except as provided in § 95.43.
</P>
<P>(d) Records regarding these visits and inspections must be maintained for 5 years beyond the date of the visit or inspection. These records must specifically identify each document released to an authorized representative and indicate the date of the release. These records must also identify (in such detail as the Division of Security Operations, by letter, may require) the categories of documents that the authorized representative has had access and the date of this access. A licensee, certificate holder, or other person subject to this part shall also retain Division of Security Operations disclosure authorizations for 5 years beyond the date of any visit or inspection when access to classified information was permitted.
</P>
<P>(e) Licensees, certificate holders, or other persons subject to this part shall take such measures as may be necessary to preclude access to classified matter by participants of other international agreements unless specifically provided for under the terms of a specific agreement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17694, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15652, Apr. 1, 1999; 68 FR 41222, July 11, 2003; 72 FR 49563, Aug. 28, 2007; 73 FR 78614, Dec. 23, 2008; 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.37" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.37   Classification and preparation of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Classification.</I> Classified information generated or possessed by a licensee, certificate holder, or other person must be appropriately marked. Classified material which is not conducive to markings (e.g., equipment) may be exempt from this requirement. These exemptions are subject to the approval of the CSA on a case-by-case basis. If a person or facility generates or possesses information that is believed to be classified based on guidance provided by the NRC or by derivation from classified documents, but which no authorized classifier has determined to be classified, the information must be protected and marked with the appropriate classification markings pending review and signature of an NRC authorized classifier. This information shall be protected as classified information pending final determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification consistent with content.</I> Each document containing classified information shall be classified Secret or Confidential according to its content. NRC licensees, certificate holders, or other persons subject to the requirements of 10 CFR part 95 may not make original classification decisions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Markings required on face of documents.</I> (1) For derivative classification of classified National Security Information: 
</P>
<P>(i) Derivative classifications of classified National Security Information must contain the identity of the source document or the classification guide, including the agency and office of origin, on the “Derived From” line and its classification date. If more than one source is cited, the “Derived From” line should indicate “Multiple Sources.” The derivative classifier shall maintain the identification of each source with the file or record copy of the derivatively classified document.
</P>
<P>(ii) Declassification instructions. When marking derivatively classified documents, the “DECLASSIFY ON” line must carry forward the declassification instructions as reflected in the original document. If multiple sources are used, the instructions will carry forward the longest duration. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An example of the marking stamp is as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>Derived from 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>      (Source/Date) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Reason: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Declassify On: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>      (Date/Event/Exemption) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Classifier: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>      (Name/Title/Number)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) For Restricted Data documents: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Identity of the classifier.</I> The identity of the classifier must be shown by completion of the “Derivative Classifier” line. The “Derivative Classifier” line must show the name of the person classifying the document and the basis for the classification. Dates for downgrading or declassification do not apply. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Classification designation (e.g., Secret, Confidential) and Restricted Data.</I> NOTE: No “Declassification” instructions will be placed on documents containing Restricted Data. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Placement of markings.</I> The highest classification marking assigned to a document must be placed in a conspicuous fashion in letters at the top and bottom of the outside of the front covers and title pages, if any, and first and last pages on which text appears, on both bound and unbound documents, and on the outside of back covers of bound documents. The balance of the pages must be marked at the top and bottom with: 
</P>
<P>(1) The overall classification marking assigned to the document; 
</P>
<P>(2) The highest classification marking required by content of the page; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The marking UNCLASSIFIED if they have no classified content. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional markings.</I> (1) If the document contains any form of Restricted Data, it must bear the appropriate marking on the first page of text, on the front cover and title page, if any. For example: “This document contains Restricted Data as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954. Unauthorized disclosure subject to Administrative and Criminal Sanctions.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitation on reproduction or dissemination.</I> If the originator or classifier determines that reproduction or further dissemination of a document should be restricted, the following additional wording may be placed on the face of the document: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Reproduction or Further Dissemination Requires Approval of 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>If any portion of this additional marking does not apply, it should be crossed out.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Portion markings.</I> In addition to the information required on the face of the document, each classified document is required, by marking or other means, to indicate clearly which portions are classified (e.g., paragraphs or pages) and which portions are not classified. The symbols (S) for Secret, (C) for Confidential, (U) for Unclassified, or (RD) for Restricted Data may be used immediately preceding or following the text to which it applies, except that the designation must follow titles or subjects. (Portion marking of paragraphs is not required for documents containing Restricted Data.) If this type of portion marking is not practicable, the document must contain a description sufficient to identify the classified information and the unclassified information. 
</P>
<HD3>Example 
</HD3>
<FP-2>Pages 1-3 Secret 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Pages 4-19 Unclassified 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Pages 20-26 Secret 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Pages 27-32 Confidential
</FP-2>
<P>(g) <I>Transmittal document.</I> If a document transmitting classified information contains no classified information or the classification level of the transmittal document is not as high as the highest classification level of its enclosures, then the document must be marked at the top and bottom with a classification at least as high as its highest classified enclosure. The classification may be higher if the enclosures, when combined, warrant a higher classification than any individual enclosure. When the contents of the transmittal document warrants a lower classification than the highest classified enclosure(s) or combination of enclosures or requires no classification, a stamp or marking such as the following must also be used on the transmittal document: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>UPON REMOVAL OF ATTACHMENTS THIS DOCUMENT IS:
</P>
<FP>(Classification level of transmittal document standing alone or the word “UNCLASSIFIED” if the transmittal document contains no classified information.)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) <I>Classification challenges.</I> Licensees, certificate holders, or other persons in authorized possession of classified National Security Information who in good faith believe that the information's classification status (<I>i.e.</I>, that the document), is classified at either too high a level for its content (overclassification) or too low for its content (underclassification) are expected to challenge its classification status. Licensees, certificate holders, or other persons who wish to challenge a classification status shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Refer the document or information to the originator or to an authorized NRC classifier for review. The authorized classifier shall review the document and render a written classification decision to the holder of the information.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of a question regarding classification review, the holder of the information or the authorized classifier shall consult the NRC Division of Facilities and Security, Information Security Branch, for assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) Licensees, certificate holders, or other persons who challenge classification decisions have the right to appeal the classification decision to the Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel.
</P>
<P>(4) Licensees, certificate holders, or other persons seeking to challenge the classification of information will not be the subject of retribution.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Files, folders or group of documents.</I> Files, folders, binders, or groups of physically connected documents must be marked at least as high as the highest classified document which they contain. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Drafts and working papers.</I> Drafts of documents and working papers which contain, or which are believed to contain, classified information must be marked as classified information. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Classification guidance.</I> Licensees, certificate holders, or other persons subject to this part shall classify and mark classified matter as National Security Information or Restricted Data, as appropriate, in accordance with classification guidance provided by the NRC as part of the facility clearance process. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17695, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15652, Apr. 1, 1999; 68 FR 41222, July 11, 2003; 72 FR 49563, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.39" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.39   External transmission of documents and material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restrictions.</I> Documents and material containing classified information received or originated in connection with an NRC license, certificate, or standard design approval or standard design certification under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter must be transmitted only to CSA approved security facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preparation of documents.</I> Documents containing classified information must be prepared in accordance with the following when transmitted outside an individual installation. 
</P>
<P>(1) The documents must be enclosed in two sealed opaque envelopes or wrappers. 
</P>
<P>(2) The inner envelope or wrapper must contain the addressee's classified mail address and the name of the intended recipient. The appropriate classification must be placed on both sides of the envelope (top and bottom) and the additional markings, as appropriate, referred to in § 95.37(e) must be placed on the side bearing the address. 
</P>
<P>(3) The outer envelope or wrapper must contain the addressee's classified mailing address. The outer envelope or wrapper may not contain any classification, additional marking or other notation that indicate that the enclosed document contains classified information. The Classified Mailing Address shall be uniquely designated for the receipt of classified information. The classified shipping address for the receipt of material (e.g., equipment) should be different from the classified mailing address for the receipt of classified documents.
</P>
<P>(4) A receipt that contains an unclassified description of the document, the document number, if any, date of the document, classification, the date of transfer, the recipient and the person transferring the document must be enclosed within the inner envelope containing the document and be signed by the recipient and returned to the sender whenever the custody of a Secret document is transferred. This receipt process is at the option of the sender for Confidential information. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Methods of transportation.</I> (1) Secret matter may be transported only by one of the following methods within and directly between the U.S., Puerto Rico, or a U.S. possession or trust territory: 
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and U.S. Postal Service Registered Mail.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The “Waiver of Signature and Indemnity” block on the U.S. Postal Service Express Mail Label 11-B may not be executed and the use of external (street side) express mail collection boxes is prohibited.</P></NOTE>
<P>(ii) A cleared “Commercial Carrier.” 
</P>
<P>(iii) A cleared commercial messenger service engaged in the intracity/local area delivery (same day delivery only) of classified material. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A commercial delivery company, approved by the CSA, that provides nationwide, overnight service with computer tracing and reporting features. These companies need not be security cleared. 
</P>
<P>(v) Other methods as directed, in writing, by the CSA. 
</P>
<P>(2) Confidential matter may be transported by one of the methods set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, by U.S. express or certified mail. Express or certified mail may be used in transmission of Confidential documents to Puerto Rico or any United States territory or possession.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Telecommunication of classified information.</I> Classified information may not be telecommunicated unless the telecommunication system has been approved by the CSA. Licensees, certificate holders or other persons who may require a secure telecommunication system shall submit a telecommunication plan as part of their request for facility clearance, as outlined in § 95.15, or as an amendment to their existing Standard Practice Procedures Plan for the protection of classified information. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Security of classified information in transit.</I> Classified matter that, because of its nature, cannot be transported in accordance with § 95.39(c), may only be transported in accordance with procedures approved by the CSA. Procedures for transporting classified matter are based on a satisfactory transportation plan submitted as part of the licensee's, certificate holder, or other person's request for facility clearance or submitted as an amendment to its existing Standard Practice Procedures Plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17696, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15652, Apr. 1, 1999; 72 FR 49564, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15878, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.41   External receipt and dispatch records.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee, certificate holder or other person possessing classified information shall maintain a record that reflects:
</P>
<P>(a) The date of the material;
</P>
<P>(b) The date of receipt or dispatch;
</P>
<P>(c) The classification;
</P>
<P>(d) An unclassified description of the material; and
</P>
<P>(e) The identity of the sender from which the material was received or recipient to which the material was dispatched. receipt and dispatch records must be retained for 2 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17697, Apr. 11, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.43   Authority to reproduce.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee, certificate holder, or other person possessing classified information shall establish a reproduction control system to ensure that reproduction of classified material is held to the minimum consistent with operational requirements. Classified reproduction must be accomplished by authorized employees knowledgeable of the procedures for classified reproduction. The use of technology that prevents, discourages, or detects the unauthorized reproduction of classified documents is encouraged.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless restricted by the CSA, Secret and Confidential documents may be reproduced. Reproduced copies of classified documents are subject to the same protection as the original documents.
</P>
<P>(c) All reproductions of classified material must be conspicuously marked with the same classification markings as the material being reproduced. Copies of classified material must be reviewed after the reproduction process to ensure that these markings are visible.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17697, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 72 FR 49564, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.45   Changes in classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Documents containing classified National Security Information must be downgraded or declassified as authorized by the NRC classification guides or as determined by the NRC. Requests for downgrading or declassifying any NRC classified information should be forwarded to the NRC's Division of Security Operations, Nuclear Security and Incident Response, using an appropriate method listed in § 95.9. Requests for downgrading or declassifying of Restricted Data will be forwarded to the NRC Division of Security Operations for coordination with the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(b) If a change of classification or declassification is approved, the previous classification marking must be canceled and the following statement, properly completed, must be placed on the first page of the document: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Classification canceled (or changed to) 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>(Insert appropriate classification) 
</FP-1>
<P>By authority of 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>(Person authorizing change in classification) 
</FP-1>
<P>By 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of person making change and date thereof)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) New markings reflecting the current classification status of the document will be applied in accordance with the requirements of § 95.37. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any licensee, certificate holder, or other person making a change in classification or receiving notice of such a change shall forward notice of the change in classification to holders of all copies as shown on their records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17697, Apr. 11, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 15653, Apr. 1, 1999; 68 FR 41222, July 11, 2003; 68 FR 58823, Oct. 10, 2003; 72 FR 49564, Aug. 28, 2007; 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.47" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.47   Destruction of matter containing classified information.</HEAD>
<P>Documents containing classified information may be destroyed by burning, pulping, or another method that ensures complete destruction of the information that they contain. The method of destruction must preclude recognition or reconstruction of the classified information. Any doubts on methods should be referred to the CSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15653, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.49" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.49   Security of automatic data processing (ADP) systems.</HEAD>
<P>Classified data or information may not be processed or produced on an ADP system unless the system and procedures to protect the classified data or information have been approved by the CSA. Approval of the ADP system and procedures is based on a satisfactory ADP security proposal submitted as part of the licensee's, certificate holder's, or other person's request for facility clearance outlined in § 95.15 or submitted as an amendment to its existing Standard Practice Procedures Plan for the protection of classified information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49564, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.51   Retrieval of classified matter following suspension or revocation of access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where the access authorization of an individual is suspended or revoked in accordance with the procedures set forth in part 25 of this chapter, or other relevant CSA procedures, the licensee, certificate holder, or other person shall, upon due notice from the Commission of such suspension or revocation, retrieve all classified information possessed by the individual and take the action necessary to preclude that individual having further access to the information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49564, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.53   Termination of facility clearance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the need to use, process, store, reproduce, transmit, transport, or handle classified matter no longer exists, the facility clearance will be terminated. The licensee, certificate holder, or other person for the facility may deliver all documents and matter containing classified information to the Commission, or to a person authorized to receive them, or must destroy all classified documents and matter. In either case, the licensee, certificate holder, or other person for the facility shall submit a certification of nonpossession of classified information to the NRC Division of Security Operations within 30 days of the termination of the facility clearance.
</P>
<P>(b) In any instance where a facility clearance has been terminated based on a determination of the CSA that further possession of classified matter by the facility would not be in the interest of the national security, the licensee, certificate holder, or other person for the facility shall, upon notice from the CSA, dispose of classified documents in a manner specified by the CSA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49564, Aug. 28, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.55" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.55   Continued applicability of the regulations in this part.</HEAD>
<P>The suspension, revocation or other termination of access authorization or the termination of facility clearance does not relieve any person from compliance with the regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 17698, Apr. 11, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.57" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.57   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee, certificate holder, or other person having a facility clearance shall report to the CSA and the Regional Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in 10 CFR part 73, appendix A:
</P>
<P>(a) Any alleged or suspected violation of the Atomic Energy Act, Espionage Act, or other Federal statutes related to classified information (e.g., deliberate disclosure of classified information to persons not authorized to receive it, theft of classified information). Incidents such as this must be reported within 1 hour of the event followed by written confirmation within 30 days of the incident; and
</P>
<P>(b) Any infractions, losses, compromises, or possible compromise of classified information or classified documents not falling within paragraph (a) of this section. Incidents such as these must be entered into a written log. A copy of the log must be provided to the NRC on a monthly basis. Details of security infractions including corrective action taken must be available to the CSA upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition, NRC requires records for all classification actions (documents classified, declassified, or downgraded) to be submitted to the NRC Division of Security Operations. These may be submitted either on an “as completed” basis or monthly. The information may be submitted either electronically by an on-line system (NRC prefers the use of a dial-in automated system connected to the Division of Security Operations) or by paper copy using NRC Form 790. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 15653, Apr. 1, 1999, as amended at 68 FR 41222, July 11, 2003; 72 FR 49564, Aug. 28, 2007; 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.59" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.131.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.59   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall make inspections and reviews of the premises, activities, records and procedures of any licensee, certificate holder, or other person subject to the regulations in this part as the Commission and CSA deem necessary to effect the purposes of the Act, E.O. 13526, as amended, or any predecessor or successor order, and/or NRC rules.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73945, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="132" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.132" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.132.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.61   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under Section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55080, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 95.63" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.18.0.132.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 95.63   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 95 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 95 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 95.1, 95.3, 95.5, 95.7, 95.8, 95.9, 95.11, 95.17, 95.19, 95.21, 95.23, 95.55, 95.59, 95.61, and 95.63.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55080, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="100" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 100—REACTOR SITE CRITERIA


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 103, 104, 161, 182 (42 U.S.C. 2133, 2134, 2201, 2232); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>27 FR 3509, Apr. 12, 1962, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 100 appear at 81 FR 86910, Dec. 2, 2016.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 100.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.0.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to establish approval requirements for proposed sites for stationary power and testing reactors subject to part 50 or part 52 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) There exists a substantial base of knowledge regarding power reactor siting, design, construction and operation. This base reflects that the primary factors that determine public health and safety are the reactor design, construction and operation. 
</P>
<P>(c) Siting factors and criteria are important in assuring that radiological doses from normal operation and postulated accidents will be acceptably low, that natural phenomena and potential man-made hazards will be appropriately accounted for in the design of the plant, that site characteristics are such that adequate security measures to protect the plant can be developed, and that physical characteristics unique to the proposed site that could pose a significant impediment to the development of emergency plans are identified. 
</P>
<P>(d) This approach incorporates the appropriate standards and criteria for approval of stationary power and testing reactor sites. The Commission intends to carry out a traditional defense-in-depth approach with regard to reactor siting to ensure public safety. Siting away from densely populated centers has been and will continue to be an important factor in evaluating applications for site approval. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65175, Dec. 11, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.0.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The siting requirements contained in this part apply to applications for site approval for the purpose of constructing and operating stationary power and testing reactors pursuant to the provisions of part 50 or part 52 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65175, Dec. 11, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.0.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Combined license</I> means a combined construction permit and operating license with conditions for a nuclear power facility issued pursuant to subpart C of part 52 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Early Site Permit</I> means a Commission approval, issued pursuant to subpart A of part 52 of this chapter, for a site or sites for one or more nuclear power facilities. 
</P>
<P><I>Exclusion area</I> means that area surrounding the reactor, in which the reactor licensee has the authority to determine all activities including exclusion or removal of personnel and property from the area. This area may be traversed by a highway, railroad, or waterway, provided these are not so close to the facility as to interfere with normal operations of the facility and provided appropriate and effective arrangements are made to control traffic on the highway, railroad, or waterway, in case of emergency, to protect the public health and safety. Residence within the exclusion area shall normally be prohibited. In any event, residents shall be subject to ready removal in case of necessity. Activities unrelated to operation of the reactor may be permitted in an exclusion area under appropriate limitations, provided that no significant hazards to the public health and safety will result. 
</P>
<P><I>Low population zone</I> means the area immediately surrounding the exclusion area which contains residents, the total number and density of which are such that there is a reasonable probability that appropriate protective measures could be taken in their behalf in the event of a serious accident. These guides do not specify a permissible population density or total population within this zone because the situation may vary from case to case. Whether a specific number of people can, for example, be evacuated from a specific area, or instructed to take shelter, on a timely basis will depend on many factors such as location, number and size of highways, scope and extent of advance planning, and actual distribution of residents within the area. 
</P>
<P><I>Population center distance</I> means the distance from the reactor to the nearest boundary of a densely populated center containing more than about 25,000 residents. 
</P>
<P><I>Power reactor</I> means a nuclear reactor of a type described in § 50.21(b) or § 50.22 of this chapter designed to produce electrical or heat energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Response spectrum</I> is a plot of the maximum responses (acceleration, velocity, or displacement) of idealized single-degree-of-freedom oscillators as a function of the natural frequencies of the oscillators for a given damping value. The response spectrum is calculated for a specified vibratory motion input at the oscillators' supports. 
</P>
<P><I>Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion</I> is the vibratory ground motion for which certain structures, systems, and components must be designed pursuant to appendix S to part 50 of this chapter to remain functional. 
</P>
<P><I>Surface deformation</I> is distortion of geologic strata at or near the ground surface by the processes of folding or faulting as a result of various earth forces. Tectonic surface deformation is associated with earthquake processes. 
</P>
<P><I>Testing reactor</I> means a <I>testing facility</I> as defined in § 50.2 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65175, Dec. 11, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.0.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent by mail addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information. Copies should be sent to the appropriate Regional Office and Resident Inspector.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5726, Jan. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74982, Dec. 1, 2015; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.0.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conductor sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0093. 
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 100.21, 100.23 and appendix A to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65176, Dec. 11, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 52190, Oct. 6, 1997; 67 FR 67101, Nov. 4, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Evaluation Factors for Stationary Power Reactor Site Applications Before January 10, 1997 and for Testing Reactors</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.1.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.10   Factors to be considered when evaluating sites.</HEAD>
<P>Factors considered in the evaluation of sites include those relating both to the proposed reactor design and the characteristics peculiar to the site. It is expected that reactors will reflect through their design, construction and operation an extremely low probability for accidents that could result in release of significant quantities of radioactive fission products. In addition, the site location and the engineered features included as safeguards against the hazardous consequences of an accident, should one occur, should insure a low risk of public exposure. In particular, the Commission will take the following factors into consideration in determining the acceptability of a site for a power or testing reactor: 
</P>
<P>(a) Characteristics of reactor design and proposed operation including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Intended use of the reactor including the proposed maximum power level and the nature and inventory of contained radioactive materials; 
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which generally accepted engineering standards are applied to the design of the reactor; 
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the reactor incorporates unique or unusual features having a significant bearing on the probability or consequences of accidental release of radioactive materials; 
</P>
<P>(4) The safety features that are to be engineered into the facility and those barriers that must be breached as a result of an accident before a release of radioactive material to the environment can occur. 
</P>
<P>(b) Population density and use characteristics of the site environs, including the exclusion area, low population zone, and population center distance. 
</P>
<P>(c) Physical characteristics of the site, including seismology, meteorology, geology, and hydrology. 
</P>
<P>(1) Appendix A, “Seismic and Geologic Siting Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants,” describes the nature of investigations required to obtain the geologic and seismic data necessary to determine site suitability and to provide reasonable assurance that a nuclear power plant can be constructed and operated at a proposed site without undue risk to the health and safety of the public. It describes procedures for determining the quantitative vibratory ground motion design basis at a site due to earthquakes and describes information needed to determine whether and to what extent a nuclear power plant need be designed to withstand the effects of surface faulting. 
</P>
<P>(2) Meteorological conditions at the site and in the surrounding area should be considered. 
</P>
<P>(3) Geological and hydrological characteristics of the proposed site may have a bearing on the consequences of an escape of radioactive material from the facility. Special precautions should be planned if a reactor is to be located at a site where a significant quantity of radioactive effluent might accidentally flow into nearby streams or rivers or might find ready access to underground water tables. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where unfavorable physical characteristics of the site exist, the proposed site may nevertheless be found to be acceptable if the design of the facility includes appropriate and adequate compensating engineering safeguards. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 3509, Apr. 12, 1962, as amended at 38 FR 31281, Nov. 13, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.1.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.11   Determination of exclusion area, low population zone, and population center distance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As an aid in evaluating a proposed site, an applicant should assume a fission produce release 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> from the core, the expected demonstrable leak rate from the containment and the meteorological conditions pertinent to his site to derive an exclusion area, a low population zone and population center distance. For the purpose of this analysis, which shall set forth the basis for the numerical values used, the applicant should determine the following: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The fission product release assumed for these calculations should be based upon a major accident, hypothesized for purposes of site analysis or postulated from considerations of possible accidental events, that would result in potential hazards not exceeded by those from any accident considered credible. Such accidents have generally been assumed to result in substantial meltdown of the core with subsequent release of appreciable quantities of fission products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) An exclusion area of such size that an individual located at any point on its boundary for two hours immediately following onset of the postulated fission product release would not receive a total radiation dose to the whole body in excess of 25 rem 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> or a total radiation dose in excess of 300 rem 
<SU>2</SU> to the thyroid from iodine exposure. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The whole body dose of 25 rem referred to above corresponds numerically to the once in a lifetime accidental or emergency dose for radiation workers which, according to NCRP recommendations may be disregarded in the determination of their radiation exposure status (see NBS Handbook 69 dated June 5, 1959). However, neither its use nor that of the 300 rem value for thyroid exposure as set forth in these site criteria guides are intended to imply that these numbers constitute acceptable limits for emergency doses to the public under accident conditions. Rather, this 25 rem whole body value and the 300 rem thyroid value have been set forth in these guides as reference values, which can be used in the evaluation of reactor sites with respect to potential reactor accidents of exceedingly low probability of occurrence, and low risk of public exposure to radiation.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) A low population zone of such size that an individual located at any point on its outer boundary who is exposed to the radioactive cloud resulting from the postulated fission product release (during the entire period of its passage) would not receive a total radiation dose to the whole body in excess of 25 rem or a total radiation dose in excess of 300 rem to the thyroid from iodine exposure. 
</P>
<P>(3) A population center distance of at least one and one-third times the distance from the reactor to the outer boundary of the low population zone. In applying this guide, the boundary of the population center shall be determined upon consideration of population distribution. Political boundaries are not controlling in the application of this guide. Where very large cities are involved, a greater distance may be necessary because of total integrated population dose consideration. 
</P>
<P>(b) For sites for multiple reactor facilities consideration should be given to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the reactors are independent to the extent that an accident in one reactor would not initiate an accident in another, the size of the exclusion area, low population zone and population center distance shall be fulfilled with respect to each reactor individually. The envelopes of the plan overlay of the areas so calculated shall then be taken as their respective boundaries. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the reactors are interconnected to the extent that an accident in one reactor could affect the safety of operation of any other, the size of the exclusion area, low population zone and population center distance shall be based upon the assumption that all interconnected reactors emit their postulated fission product releases simultaneously. This requirement may be reduced in relation to the degree of coupling between reactors, the probability of concomitant accidents and the probability that an individual would not be exposed to the radiation effects from simultaneous releases. The applicant would be expected to justify to the satisfaction of the Commission the basis for such a reduction in the source term. 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant is expected to show that the simultaneous operation of multiple reactors at a site will not result in total radioactive effluent releases beyond the allowable limits of applicable regulations. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For further guidance in developing the exclusion area, the low population zone, and the population center distance, reference is made to Technical Information Document 14844, dated March 23, 1962, which contains a procedural method and a sample calculation that result in distances roughly reflecting current siting practices of the Commission. The calculations described in Technical Information Document 14844 may be used as a point of departure for consideration of particular site requirements which may result from evaluation of the characteristics of a particular reactor, its purpose and method of operation.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 3509, Apr. 12, 1962, as amended at 31 FR 4670, Mar. 19, 1966; 38 FR 1273, Jan. 11, 1973; 40 FR 8793, Mar. 3, 1975; 40 FR 26527, June 24, 1975; 53 FR 43422, Oct. 27, 1988; 64 FR 48955, Sept. 9, 1999; 67 FR 67101, Nov. 4, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Evaluation Factors for Stationary Power Reactor Site Applications on or After January 10, 1997</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 65176, Dec. 11, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 100.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.2.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.20   Factors to be considered when evaluating sites.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will take the following factors into consideration in determining the acceptability of a site for a stationary power reactor: 
</P>
<P>(a) Population density and use characteristics of the site environs, including the exclusion area, the population distribution, and site-related characteristics must be evaluated to determine whether individual as well as societal risk of potential plant accidents is low, and that physical characteristics unique to the proposed site that could pose a significant impediment to the development of emergency plans are identified. 
</P>
<P>(b) The nature and proximity of man-related hazards (e.g., airports, dams, transportation routes, military and chemical facilities) must be evaluated to establish site characteristics for use in determining whether a plant design can accommodate commonly occurring hazards, and whether the risk of other hazards is very low.
</P>
<P>(c) Physical characteristics of the site, including seismology, meteorology, geology, and hydrology. 
</P>
<P>(1) Section 100.23, “Geologic and seismic siting factors,” describes the criteria and nature of investigations required to obtain the geologic and seismic data necessary to determine the suitability of the proposed site and the plant design bases. 
</P>
<P>(2) Meteorological characteristics of the site that are necessary for safety analysis or that may have an impact upon plant design (such as maximum probable wind speed and precipitation) must be identified and characterized. 
</P>
<P>(3) Factors important to hydrological radionuclide transport (such as soil, sediment, and rock characteristics, adsorption and retention coefficients, groundwater velocity, and distances to the nearest surface body of water) must be obtained from on-site measurements. The maximum probable flood along with the potential for seismically induced floods discussed in § 100.23 (d)(3) must be estimated using historical data. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65176, Dec. 11, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 34250, June 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.2.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.21   Non-seismic siting criteria.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for site approval for commercial power reactors shall demonstrate that the proposed site meets the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(a) Every site must have an exclusion area and a low population zone, as defined in § 100.3; 
</P>
<P>(b) The population center distance, as defined in § 100.3, must be at least one and one-third times the distance from the reactor to the outer boundary of the low population zone. In applying this guide, the boundary of the population center shall be determined upon consideration of population distribution. Political boundaries are not controlling in the application of this guide; 
</P>
<P>(c) Site atmospheric dispersion characteristics must be evaluated and dispersion parameters established such that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Radiological effluent release limits associated with normal operation from the type of facility proposed to be located at the site can be met for any individual located offsite; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Radiological dose consequences of postulated accidents shall meet the criteria set forth in § 50.34(a)(1) of this chapter for the type of facility proposed to be located at the site; 
</P>
<P>(d) The physical characteristics of the site, including meteorology, geology, seismology, and hydrology must be evaluated and site characteristics established such that potential threats from such physical characteristics will pose no undue risk to the type of facility proposed to be located at the site;
</P>
<P>(e) Potential hazards associated with nearby transportation routes, industrial and military facilities must be evaluated and site characteristics established such that potential hazards from such routes and facilities will pose no undue risk to the type of facility proposed to be located at the site;
</P>
<P>(f) Site characteristics must be such that adequate security plans and measures can be developed; 
</P>
<P>(g) Physical characteristics unique to the proposed site that could pose a significant impediment to the development of emergency plans must be identified; 
</P>
<P>(h) Reactor sites should be located away from very densely populated centers. Areas of low population density are, generally, preferred. However, in determining the acceptability of a particular site located away from a very densely populated center but not in an area of low density, consideration will be given to safety, environmental, economic, or other factors, which may result in the site being found acceptable 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Examples of these factors include, but are not limited to, such factors as the higher population density site having superior seismic characteristics, better access to skilled labor for construction, better rail and highway access, shorter transmission line requirements, or less environmental impact on undeveloped areas, wetlands or endangered species, etc. Some of these factors are included in, or impact, the other criteria included in this section.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65176, Dec. 11, 1996, as amended at 78 FR 34250, June 7, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.2.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.23   Geologic and seismic siting criteria.</HEAD>
<P>This section sets forth the principal geologic and seismic considerations that guide the Commission in its evaluation of the suitability of a proposed site and adequacy of the design bases established in consideration of the geologic and seismic characteristics of the proposed site, such that, there is a reasonable assurance that a nuclear power plant can be constructed and operated at the proposed site without undue risk to the health and safety of the public. Applications to engineering design are contained in appendix S to part 50 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section apply to applicants for an early site permit or combined license pursuant to part 52 of this chapter, or a construction permit or operating license for a nuclear power plant pursuant to Part 50 of this chapter on or after January 10, 1997. However, for either an operating license applicant or holder whose construction permit was issued prior to January 10, 1997, the seismic and geologic siting criteria in appendix A to part 100 of this chapter continues to apply. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commencement of construction.</I> The investigations required in paragraph (c) of this section are not considered “construction” as defined in 10 CFR 50.10(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Geological, seismological, and engineering characteristics.</I> The geological, seismological, and engineering characteristics of a site and its environs must be investigated in sufficient scope and detail to permit an adequate evaluation of the proposed site, to provide sufficient information to support evaluations performed to arrive at estimates of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion, and to permit adequate engineering solutions to actual or potential geologic and seismic effects at the proposed site. The size of the region to be investigated and the type of data pertinent to the investigations must be determined based on the nature of the region surrounding the proposed site. Data on the vibratory ground motion, tectonic surface deformation, nontectonic deformation, earthquake recurrence rates, fault geometry and slip rates, site foundation material, and seismically induced floods and water waves must be obtained by reviewing pertinent literature and carrying out field investigations. However, each applicant shall investigate all geologic and seismic factors (for example, volcanic activity) that may affect the design and operation of the proposed nuclear power plant irrespective of whether such factors are explicitly included in this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Geologic and seismic siting factors.</I> The geologic and seismic siting factors considered for design must include a determination of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion for the site, the potential for surface tectonic and nontectonic deformations, the design bases for seismically induced floods and water waves, and other design conditions as stated in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion. The Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion for the site is characterized by both horizontal and vertical free-field ground motion response spectra at the free ground surface. The Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion for the site is determined considering the results of the investigations required by paragraph (c) of this section. Uncertainties are inherent in such estimates. These uncertainties must be addressed through an appropriate analysis, such as a probabilistic seismic hazard analysis or suitable sensitivity analyses. Paragraph IV(a)(1) of appendix S to part 50 of this chapter defines the minimum Safe Shutdown Earthquake Ground Motion for design. 
</P>
<P>(2) Determination of the potential for surface tectonic and nontectonic deformations. Sufficient geological, seismological, and geophysical data must be provided to clearly establish whether there is a potential for surface deformation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Determination of design bases for seismically induced floods and water waves. The size of seismically induced floods and water waves that could affect a site from either locally or distantly generated seismic activity must be determined. 
</P>
<P>(4) Determination of siting factors for other design conditions. Siting factors for other design conditions that must be evaluated include soil and rock stability, liquefaction potential, natural and artificial slope stability, cooling water supply, and remote safety-related structure siting. Each applicant shall evaluate all siting factors and potential causes of failure, such as, the physical properties of the materials underlying the site, ground disruption, and the effects of vibratory ground motion that may affect the design and operation of the proposed nuclear power plant. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 65176, Dec. 11, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 57447, Oct. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.19.2.133.4.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 100—Seismic and Geologic Siting Criteria for Nuclear Power Plants
</HEAD>
<HD1>i. purpose
</HD1>
<P>General Design Criterion 2 of Appendix A to part 50 of this chapter requires that nuclear power plant structures, systems, and components important to safety be designed to withstand the effects of natural phenomena such as earthquakes, tornadoes, hurricanes, floods, tsunami, and seiches without loss of capability to perform their safety functions. It is the purpose of these criteria to set forth the principal seismic and geologic considerations which guide the Commission in its evaluation of the suitability of proposed sites for nuclear power plants and the suitability of the plant design bases established in consideration of the seismic and geologic characteristics of the proposed sites. 
</P>
<P>These criteria are based on the limited geophysical and geological information available to date concerning faults and earthquake occurrence and effect. They will be revised as necessary when more complete information becomes available. 
</P>
<HD1>ii. scope 
</HD1>
<P>These criteria, which apply to nuclear power plants, describe the nature of the investigations required to obtain the geologic and seismic data necessary to determine site suitability and provide reasonable assurance that a nuclear power plant can be constructed and operated at a proposed site without undue risk to the health and safety of the public. They describe procedures for determining the quantitative vibratory ground motion design basis at a site due to earthquakes and describe information needed to determine whether and to what extent a nuclear power plant need be designed to withstand the effects of surface faulting. Other geologic and seismic factors required to be taken into account in the siting and design of nuclear power plants are identified. 
</P>
<P>The investigations described in this appendix are within the scope of investigations permitted by § 50.10(a)(2)(ii) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Each applicant for a construction permit shall investigate all seismic and geologic factors that may affect the design and operation of the proposed nuclear power plant irrespective of whether such factors are explicitly included in these criteria. Additional investigations and/or more conservative determinations than those included in these criteria may be required for sites located in areas having complex geology or in areas of high seismicity. If an applicant believes that the particular seismology and geology of a site indicate that some of these criteria, or portions thereof, need not be satisfied, the specific sections of these criteria should be identified in the license application, and supporting data to justify clearly such departures should be presented. 
</P>
<P>These criteria do not address investigations of volcanic phenomena required for sites located in areas of volcanic activity. Investigations of the volcanic aspects of such sites will be determined on a case-by-case basis. 
</P>
<HD1>iii. definitions 
</HD1>
<P>As used in these criteria: 
</P>
<P>(a) The <I>magnitude</I> of an earthquake is a measure of the size of an earthquake and is related to the energy released in the form of seismic waves. <I>Magnitude</I> means the numerical value on a Richter scale. 
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>intensity</I> of an earthquake is a measure of its effects on man, on man-built structures, and on the earth's surface at a particular location. <I>Intensity</I> means the numerical value on the Modified Mercalli scale. 
</P>
<P>(c) The <I>Safe Shutdown Earthquake</I> 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> is that earthquake which is based upon an evaluation of the maximum earthquake potential considering the regional and local geology and seismology and specific characteristics of local subsurface material. It is that earthquake which produces the maximum vibratory ground motion for which certain structures, systems, and components are designed to remain functional. These structures, systems, and components are those necessary to assure:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The <I>Safe Shutdown Earthquake</I> defines that earthquake which has commonly been referred to as the <I>Design Basis Earthquake.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary, 
</P>
<P>(2) The capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition, or 
</P>
<P>(3) The capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents which could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to the guideline exposures of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The <I>Operating Basis Earthquake</I> is that earthquake which, considering the regional and local geology and seismology and specific characteristics of local subsurface material, could reasonably be expected to affect the plant site during the operating life of the plant; it is that earthquake which produces the vibratory ground motion for which those features of the nuclear power plant necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public are designed to remain functional. 
</P>
<P>(e) A <I>fault</I> is a tectonic structure along which differential slippage of the adjacent earth materials has occurred parallel to the fracture plane. It is distinct from other types of ground disruptions such as landslides, fissures, and craters. A fault may have gouge or breccia between its two walls and includes any associated monoclinal flexure or other similar geologic structural feature. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Surface faulting</I> is differential ground displacement at or near the surface caused directly by fault movement and is distinct from nontectonic types of ground disruptions, such as landslides, fissures, and craters. 
</P>
<P>(g) A <I>capable fault</I> is a fault which has exhibited one or more of the following characteristics: 
</P>
<P>(1) Movement at or near the ground surface at least once within the past 35,000 years or movement of a recurring nature within the past 500,000 years. 
</P>
<P>(2) Macro-seismicity instrumentally determined with records of sufficient precision to demonstrate a direct relationship with the fault. 
</P>
<P>(3) A structural relationship to a capable fault according to characteristics (1) or (2) of this paragraph such that movement on one could be reasonably expected to be accompanied by movement on the other. 
</P>
<P>In some cases, the geologic evidence of past activity at or near the ground surface along a particular fault may be obscured at a particular site. This might occur, for example, at a site having a deep overburden. For these cases, evidence may exist elsewhere along the fault from which an evaluation of its characteristics in the vicinity of the site can be reasonably based. Such evidence shall be used in determining whether the fault is a capable fault within this definition. 
</P>
<P>Notwithstanding the foregoing paragraphs III(g) (1), (2) and (3), structural association of a fault with geologic structural features which are geologically old (at least pre-Quaternary) such as many of those found in the Eastern region of the United States shall, in the absence of conflicting evidence, demonstrate that the fault is not a capable fault within this definition. 
</P>
<P>(h) A <I>tectonic province</I> is a region of the North American continent characterized by a relative consistency of the geologic structural features contained therein. 
</P>
<P>(i) A <I>tectonic structure</I> is a large scale dislocation or distortion within the earth's crust. Its extent is measured in miles. 
</P>
<P>(j) A <I>zone requiring detailed faulting investigation</I> is a zone within which a nuclear power reactor may not be located unless a detailed investigation of the regional and local geologic and seismic characteristics of the site demonstrates that the need to design for surface faulting has been properly determined. 
</P>
<P>(k) The <I>control width</I> of a fault is the maximum width of the zone containing mapped fault traces, including all faults which can be reasonably inferred to have experienced differential movement during Quaternary times and which join or can reasonably be inferred to join the main fault trace, measured within 10 miles along the fault's trend in both directions from the point of nearest approach to the site. (See Figure 1 of this appendix.) 
</P>
<P>(l) A <I>response spectrum</I> is a plot of the maximum responses (acceleration, velocity or displacement) of a family of idealized single-degree-of-freedom damped oscillators against natural frequencies (or periods) of the oscillators to a specified vibratory motion input at their supports. 
</P>
<HD1>iv. required investigations
</HD1>
<P>The geologic, seismic and engineering characteristics of a site and its environs shall be investigated in sufficient scope and detail to provide reasonable assurance that they are sufficiently well understood to permit an adequate evaluation of the proposed site, and to provide sufficient information to support the determinations required by these criteria and to permit adequate engineering solutions to actual or potential geologic and seismic effects at the proposed site. The size of the region to be investigated and the type of data pertinent to the investigations shall be determined by the nature of the region surrounding the proposed site. The investigations shall be carried out by a review of the pertinent literature and field investigations and shall include the steps outlined in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Required Investigation for Vibratory Ground Motion.</I> The purpose of the investigations required by this paragraph is to obtain information needed to describe the vibratory ground motion produced by the Safe Shutdown Earthquake. All of the steps in paragraphs (a)(5) through (a)(8) of this section need not be carried out if the Safe Shutdown Earthquake can be clearly established by investigations and determinations of a lesser scope. The investigations required by this paragraph provide an adequate basis for selection of an Operating Basis Earthquake. The investigations shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of the lithologic, stratigraphic, hydrologic, and structural geologic conditions of the site and the region surrounding the site, including its geologic history; 
</P>
<P>(2) Identification and evaluation of tectonic structures underlying the site and the region surrounding the site, whether buried or expressed at the surface. The evaluation should consider the possible effects caused by man's activities such as withdrawal of fluid from or addition of fluid to the subsurface, extraction of minerals, or the loading effects of dams or reservoirs; 
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluation of physical evidence concerning the behavior during prior earthquakes of the surficial geologic materials and the substrata underlying the site from the lithologic, stratigraphic, and structural geologic studies; 
</P>
<P>(4) Determination of the static and dynamic engineering properties of the materials underlying the site. Included should be properties needed to determine the behavior of the underlying material during earthquakes and the characteristics of the underlying material in transmitting earthquake-induced motions to the foundations of the plant, such as seismic wave velocities, density, water content, porosity, and strength; 
</P>
<P>(5) Listing of all historically reported earthquakes which have affected or which could reasonably be expected to have affected the site, including the date of occurrence and the following measured or estimated data: magnitude or highest intensity, and a plot of the epicenter or location of highest intensity. Where historically reported earthquakes could have caused a maximum ground acceleration of at least one-tenth the acceleration of gravity (0.1g) at the foundations of the proposed nuclear power plant structures, the acceleration or intensity and duration of ground shaking at these foundations shall also be estimated. Since earthquakes have been reported in terms of various parameters such as magnitude, intensity at a given location, and effect on ground, structures, and people at a specific location, some of these data may have to be estimated by use of appropriate empirical relationships. The comparative characteristics of the material underlying the epicentral location or region of highest intensity and of the material underlying the site in transmitting earthquake vibratory motion shall be considered; 
</P>
<P>(6) Correlation of epicenters or locations of highest intensity of historically reported earthquakes, where possible, with tectonic structures any part of which is located within 200 miles of the site. Epicenters or locations of highest intensity which cannot be reasonably correlated with tectonic structures shall be identified with tectonic provinces any part of which is located within 200 miles of the site; 
</P>
<P>(7) For faults, any part of which is within 200 miles 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> of the site and which may be of significance in establishing the Safe Shutdown Earthquake, determination of whether these faults are to be considered as capable faults. 
<SU>3 4</SU>
<FTREF/> This determination is required in order to permit appropriate consideration of the geologic history of such faults in establishing the Safe Shutdown Earthquake. For guidance in determining which faults may be of significance in determining the Safe Shutdown Earthquake, table 1 of this appendix presents the minimum length of fault to be considered versus distance from site. Capable faults of lesser length than those indicated in table 1 and faults which are not capable faults need not be considered in determining the Safe Shutdown Earthquake, except where unusual circumstances indicate such consideration is appropriate;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> If the Safe Shutdown Earthquake can be associated with a fault closer than 200 miles to the site, the procedures of paragraphs (a)(7) and (a)(8) of this section need not be carried out for successively more remote faults.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> In the absence of absolute dating, evidence of recency of movement may be obtained by applying relative dating technique to ruptured, offset, warped or otherwise structurally disturbed surface or near surface materials or geomorphic features.
</P>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The applicant shall evaluate whether or not a fault is a capable fault with respect to the characteristics outlined in paragraphs III(g)(1), (2), and (3) by conducting a reasonable investigation using suitable geologic and geophysical techniques.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum length 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distance from the site (miles):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0 to 20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Greater than 20 to 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Greater than 50 to 100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Greater than 100 to 150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Greater than 150 to 200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Minimum length of fault (miles) which shall be considered in establishing Safe Shutdown Earthquake.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) For capable faults, any part of which is within 200 miles 
<SU>2</SU> of the site and which may be of significance in establishing the Safe Shutdown Earthquake, determination of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The length of the fault; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The relationship of the fault to regional tectonic structures; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The nature, amount, and geologic history of displacements along the fault, including particularly the estimated amount of the maximum Quaternary displacement related to any one earthquake along the fault. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required Investigation for Surface Faulting.</I> The purpose of the investigations required by this paragraph is to obtain information to determine whether and to what extent the nuclear power plant need be designed for surface faulting. If the design basis for surface faulting can be clearly established by investigations of a lesser scope, not all of the steps in paragraphs (b)(4) through (b)(7) of this section need be carried out. The investigations shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of the lithologic, stratigraphic, hydrologic, and structural geologic conditions of the site and the area surrounding the site, including its geologic history; 
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluation of tectonic structures underlying the site, whether buried or expressed at the surface, with regard to their potential for causing surface displacement at or near the site. The evaluation shall consider the possible effects caused by man's activities such as withdrawal of fluid from or addition of fluid to the subsurface, extraction of minerals, or the loading effects of dams or reservoirs; 
</P>
<P>(3) Determination of geologic evidence of fault offset at or near the ground surface at or near the site; 
</P>
<P>(4) For faults greater than 1000 feet long, any part of which is within 5 miles 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> of the site, determination of whether these faults are to be considered as capable faults; 
<SU>6 7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> If the design basis for surface faulting can be determined from a fault closer than 5 miles to the site, the procedures of paragraphs (b)(4) through (b)(7) of this section need not be carried out for successively more remote faults.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> In the absence of absolute dating, evidence of recency of movement may be obtained by applying relative dating techniques to ruptured, offset, warped or otherwise structurally disturbed surface of near-surface materials or geomorphic features.
</P>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The applicant shall evaluate whether or not a fault is a capable fault with respect to the characteristics outlined in paragraphs III(g)(1), (2), and (3) by conducting a reasonable investigation using suitable geological and geophysical techniques.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) Listing of all historically reported earthquakes which can reasonably be associated with capable faults greater than 1000 feet long, any part of which is within 5 miles 
<SU>5</SU> of the site, including the date of occurrence and the following measured or estimated data: magnitude or highest intensity, and a plot of the epicenter or region of highest intensity; 
</P>
<P>(6) Correlation of epicenters or locations of highest intensity of historically reported earthquakes with capable faults greater than 1000 feet long, any part of which is located within 5 miles 
<SU>5</SU> of the site; 
</P>
<P>(7) For capable faults greater than 1000 feet long, any part of which is within 5 miles 
<SU>5</SU> of the site, determination of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The length of the fault; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The relationship of the fault to regional tectonic structures; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The nature, amount, and geologic history of displacements along the fault, including particularly the estimated amount of the maximum Quaternary displacement related to any one earthquake along the fault; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The outer limits of the fault established by mapping Quaternary fault traces for 10 miles along its trend in both directions from the point of its nearest approach to the site. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required Investigation for Seismically Induced Floods and Water Waves.</I> (1) For coastal sites, the investigations shall include the determination of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Information regarding distantly and locally generated waves or tsunami which have affected or could have affected the site. Available evidence regarding the runup and drawdown associated with historic tsunami in the same coastal region as the site shall also be included; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Local features of coastal topography which might tend to modify tsunami runup or drawdown. Appropriate available evidence regarding historic local modifications in tsunami runup or drawndown at coastal locations having topography similar to that of the site shall also be obtained; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate geologic and seismic evidence to provide information for establishing the design basis for seismically induced floods or water waves from a local offshore earthquake, from local offshore effects of an onshore earthquake, or from coastal subsidence. This evidence shall be determined, to the extent practical, by a procedure similar to that required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. The probable slip characteristics of offshore faults shall also be considered as well as the potential for offshore slides in submarine material. 
</P>
<P>(2) For sites located near lakes and rivers, investigations similar to those required in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be carried out, as appropriate, to determine the potential for the nuclear power plant to be exposed to seismically induced floods and water waves as, for example, from the failure during an earthquake of an upstream dam or from slides of earth or debris into a nearby lake. 
</P>
<HD1>v. seismic and geologic design bases
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of Design Basis for Vibratory Ground Motion.</I> The design of each nuclear power plant shall take into account the potential effects of vibratory ground motion caused by earthquakes. The design basis for the maximum vibratory ground motion and the expected vibratory ground motion should be determined through evaluation of the seismology, geology, and the seismic and geologic history of the site and the surrounding region. The most severe earthquakes associated with tectonic structures or tectonic provinces in the region surrounding the site should be identified, considering those historically reported earthquakes that can be associated with these structures or provinces and other relevant factors. If faults in the region surrounding the site are capable faults, the most severe earthquakes associated with these faults should be determined by also considering their geologic history. The vibratory ground motion at the site should be then determined by assuming that the epicenters or locations of highest intensity of the earthquakes are situated at the point on the tectonic structures or tectonic provinces nearest to the site. The earthquake which could cause the maximum vibratory ground motion at the site should be designated the Safe Shutdown Earthquake. The specific procedures for determining the design basis for vibratory ground motion are given in the following paragraphs. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Determination of Safe Shutdown Earthquake.</I> The Safe Shutdown Earthquake shall be identified through evaluation of seismic and geologic information developed pursuant to the requirements of paragraph IV(a), as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The historic earthquakes of greatest magnitude or intensity which have been correlated with tectonic structures pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (a)(6) of section IV shall be determined. In addition, for capable faults, the information required by paragraph (a)(8) of section IV shall also be taken into account in determining the earthquakes of greatest magnitude related to the faults. The magnitude or intensity of earthquakes based on geologic evidence may be larger than that of the maximum earthquakes historically recorded. The accelerations at the site shall be determined assuming that the epicenters of the earthquakes of greatest magnitude or the locations of highest intensity related to the tectonic structures are situated at the point on the structures closest to the site; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where epicenters or locations of highest intensity of historically reported earthquakes cannot be reasonably related to tectonic structures but are identified pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (a)(6) of section IV with tectonic provinces in which the site is located, the accelerations at the site shall be determined assuming that these earthquakes occur at the site; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where epicenters or locations of the highest intensity of historically reported earthquakes cannot be reasonably related to tectonic structures but are identified pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (a)(6) of section IV with tectonic provinces in which the site is not located, the accelerations at the site shall be determined assuming that the epicenters or locations of highest intensity of these earthquakes are at the closest point to the site on the boundary of the tectonic province; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The earthquake producing the maximum vibratory acceleration at the site, as determined from paragraph (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section shall be designated the Safe Shutdown Earthquake for vibratory ground motion, except as noted in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section. The characteristics of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake shall be derived from more than one earthquake determined from paragraph (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, where necessary to assure that the maximum vibratory acceleration at the site throughout the frequency range of interest is included. In the case where a causative fault is near the site, the effect of proximity of an earthquake on the spectral characteristics of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake shall be taken into account. The procedures in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iii) of this section shall be applied in a conservative manner. The determinations carried out in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1)(ii) and (a)(1)(iii) shall assure that the safe shutdown earthquake intensity is, as a minimum, equal to the maximum historic earthquake intensity experienced within the tectonic province in which the site is located. In the event that geological and seismological data warrant, the Safe Shutdown Earthquake shall be larger than that derived by use of the procedures set forth in section IV and V of the appendix. The maximum vibratory accelerations of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake at each of the various foundation locations of the nuclear power plant structures at a given site shall be determined taking into account the characteristics of the underlying soil material in transmitting the earthquake-induced motions, obtained pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1), (3), and (4) of section IV. The Safe Shutdown Earthquake shall be defined by response spectra corresponding to the maximum vibratory accelerations as outlined in paragraph (a) of section VI; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Where the maximum vibratory accelerations of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake at the foundations of the nuclear power plant structures are determined to be less than one-tenth the acceleration of gravity (0.1 g) as a result of the steps required in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section, it shall be assumed that the maximum vibratory accelerations of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake at these foundations are at least 0.1 g. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of Operating Basis Earthquake.</I> The Operating Basis Earthquake shall be specified by the applicant after considering the seismology and geology of the region surrounding the site. If vibratory ground motion exceeding that of the Operating Basis Earthquake occurs, shutdown of the nuclear power plant will be required. Prior to resuming operations, the licensee will be required to demonstrate to the Commission that no functional damage has occurred to those features necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public. 
</P>
<P>The maximum vibratory ground acceleration of the Operating Basis Earthquake shall be at least one-half the maximum vibratory ground acceleration of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of Need to Design for Surface Faulting.</I> In order to determine whether a nuclear power plant is required to be designed to withstand the effects of surface faulting, the location of the nuclear power plant with respect to capable faults shall be considered. The area over which each of these faults has caused surface faulting in the past is identified by mapping its fault traces in the vicinity of the site. The fault traces are mapped along the trend of the fault for 10 miles in both directions from the point of its nearest approach to the nuclear power plant because, for example, traces may be obscured along portions of the fault. The maximum width of the mapped fault traces, called the control width, is then determined from this map. Because surface faulting has sometimes occurred beyond the limit of mapped fault traces or where fault traces have not been previously recognized, the control width of the fault is increased by a factor which is dependent upon the largest potential earthquake related to the fault. This larger width delineates a zone, called the zone requiring detailed faulting investigation, in which the possibility of surface faulting is to be determined. The following paragraphs outline the specific procedures for determining the zone requiring detailed faulting investigation for a capable fault. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Determination of Zone Requiring Detailed Faulting Investigation.</I> The zone requiring detailed faulting investigation for a capable fault which was investigated pursuant to the requirement of paragraph (b)(7) of section IV shall be determined through use of the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Determination of Zone Requiring Detailed Faulting Investigation
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Magnitude of earthquake
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Width of zone requiring detailed faulting investigation (See fig. 1)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 5.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 × control width.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.5-6.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 × control width.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5-7.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 × control width.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 7.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 × control width.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The largest magnitude earthquake related to the fault shall be used in table 2. This earthquake shall be determined from the information developed pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (b) of Section IV for the fault, taking into account the information required by paragraph (b)(7) of section IV. The control width used in table 2 is determined by mapping the outer limits of the fault traces from information developed pursuant to paragraph (b)(7)(iv) of section IV. The control width shall be used in table 2 unless the characteristics of the fault are obscured for a significant portion of the 10 miles on either side of the point of nearest approach to the nuclear power plant. In this event, the use in table 2 of the width of mapped fault traces more than 10 miles from the point of nearest approach to the nuclear power plant may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>The zone requiring detailed faulting investigation, as determined from table 2, shall be used for the fault except where: 
</P>
<P>(i) The zone requiring detailed faulting investigation from table 2 is less than one-half mile in width. In this case the zone shall be at least one-half mile in width; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Definitive evidence concerning the regional and local characteristics of the fault justifies use of a different value. For example, thrust or bedding-plane faults may require an increase in width of the zone to account for the projected dip of the fault plane; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) More detailed three-dimensional information, such as that obtained from precise investigative techniques, may justify the use of a narrower zone. Possible examples of such techniques are the use of accurate records from closely spaced drill holes or from closely spaced, high-resolution offshore geophysical surveys. 
</P>
<P>In delineating the zone requiring detailed faulting investigation for a fault, the center of the zone shall coincide with the center of the fault at the point of nearest approach of the fault to the nuclear power plant as illustrated in figure 1. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of Design Bases for Seismically Induced Floods and Water Waves.</I> The size of seismically induced floods and water waves which could affect a site from either locally or distantly generated seismic activity shall be determined, taking into consideration the results of the investigation required by paragraph (c) of section IV. Local topographic characteristics which might tend to modify the possible runup and drawdown at the site shall be considered. Adverse tide conditions shall also be taken into account in determining the effect of the floods and waves on the site. The characteristics of the earthquake to be used in evaluating the offshore effects of local earthquakes shall be determined by a procedure similar to that used to determine the characteristics of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake in paragraph V(a). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of Other Design Conditions</I>—(1) <I>Soil Stability.</I> Vibratory ground motion associated with the Safe Shutdown Earthquake can cause soil instability due to ground disruption such as fissuring, differential consolidation, liquefaction, and cratering which is not directly related to surface faulting. The following geologic features which could affect the foundations of the proposed nuclear power plant structures shall be evaluated, taking into account the information concerning the physical properties of materials underlying the site developed pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1), (3), and (4) of section IV and the effects of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake: 
</P>
<P>(i) Areas of actual or potential surface or subsurface subsidence, uplift, or collapse resulting from: 
</P>
<P>(<I>a</I>) Natural features such as tectonic depressions and cavernous or karst terrains, particularly those underlain by calcareous or other soluble deposits; 
</P>
<P>(<I>b</I>) Man's activities such as withdrawal of fluid from or addition of fluid to the subsurface, extraction of minerals, or the loading effects of dams or reservoirs; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>c</I>) Regional deformation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Deformational zones such as shears, joints, fractures, folds, or combinations of these features. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Zones of alteration or irregular weathering profiles and zones of structural weakness composed of crushed or disturbed materials. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Unrelieved residual stresses in bedrock. 
</P>
<P>(v) Rocks or soils that might be unstable because of their mineralogy, lack of consolidation, water content, or potentially undesirable response to seismic or other events. Seismic response characteristics to be considered shall include liquefaction, thixotropy, differential consolidation, cratering, and fissuring. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Slope stability.</I> Stability of all slopes, both natural and artificial, the failure of which could adversely affect the nuclear power plant, shall be considered. An assessment shall be made of the potential effects of erosion or deposition and of combinations of erosion or deposition with seismic activity, taking into account information concerning the physical property of the materials underlying the site developed pursuant to paragraph (a)(1), (3), and (4) of section IV and the effects of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cooling water supply.</I> Assurance of adequate cooling water supply for emergency and long-term shutdown decay heat removal shall be considered in the design of the nuclear power plant, taking in to account information concerning the physical properties of the materials underlying the site developed pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1), (3), and (4) of section IV and the effects of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake and the design basis for surface faulting. Consideration of river blockage or diversion or other failures which may block the flow of cooling water, coastal uplift or subsidence, or tsunami runup and drawdown, and failure of dams and intake structures shall be included in the evaluation, where appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Distant structures.</I> Those structures which are not located in the immediate vicinity of the site but which are safety related shall be designed to withstand the effect of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake and the design basis for surface faulting determined on a comparable basis to that of the nuclear power plant, taking into account the material underlying the structures and the different location with respect to that of the site. 
</P>
<HD1>vi. application to engineering design
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Vibratory ground motion</I>—(1) <I>Safe Shutdown Earthquake.</I> The vibratory ground motion produced by the Safe Shutdown Earthquake shall be defined by response spectra corresponding to the maximum vibratory accelerations at the elevations of the foundations of the nuclear power plant structures determine pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of section V. The response spectra shall relate the response of the foundations of the nuclear power plant structures to the vibratory ground motion, considering such foundations to be single-degree-of-freedom damped oscillators and neglecting soil-structure interaction effects. In view of the limited data available on vibratory ground motions of strong earthquakes, it usually will be appropriate that the response spectra be smoothed design spectra developed from a series of response spectra related to the vibratory motions caused by more than one earthquake. 
</P>
<P>The nuclear power plant shall be designed so that, if the Safe Shutdown Earthquake occurs, certain structures, systems, and components will remain functional. These structures, systems, and components are those necessary to assure (i) the integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary, (ii) the capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe condition, or (iii) the capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents which could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to the guideline exposures of this part. In addition to seismic loads, including aftershocks, applicable concurrent functional and accident-induced loads shall be taken into account in the design of these safety-related structures, systems, and components. The design of the nuclear power plant shall also take into account the possible effects of the Safe Shutdown Earthquake on the facility foundations by ground disruption, such as fissuring, differential consolidation, cratering, liquefaction, and landsliding, as required in paragraph (d) of section V. 
</P>
<P>The engineering method used to insure that the required safety functions are maintained during and after the vibratory ground motion associated with the Safe Shutdown Earthquake shall involve the use of either a suitable dynamic analysis or a suitable qualification test to demonstrate that structures, systems and components can withstand the seismic and other concurrent loads, except where it can be demonstrated that the use of an equivalent static load method provides adequate conservatism. 
</P>
<P>The analysis or test shall take into account soil-structure interaction effects and the expected duration of vibratory motion. It is permissible to design for strain limits in excess of yield strain in some of these safety-related structures, systems, and components during the Safe Shutdown Earthquake and under the postulated concurrent conditions, provided that the necessary safety functions are maintained. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operating Basis Earthquake.</I> The Operating Basis Earthquake shall be defined by response spectra. All structures, systems, and components of the nuclear power plant necessary for continued operation without undue risk to the health and safety of the public shall be designed to remain functional and within applicable stress and deformation limits when subjected to the effects of the vibratory motion of the Operating Basis Earthquake in combination with normal operating loads. The engineering method used to insure that these structures, systems, and components are capable of withstanding the effects of the Operating Basis Earthquake shall involve the use of either a suitable dynamic analysis or a suitable qualification test to demonstrate that the structures, systems and components can withstand the seismic and other concurrent loads, except where it can be demonstrated that the use of an equivalent static load method provides adequate conservatism. The analysis or test shall take into account soil-structure interaction effects and the expected duration of vibratory motion. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Required Seismic instrumentation.</I> Suitable instrumentation shall be provided so that the seismic response of nuclear power plant features important to safety can be determined promptly to permit comparison of such response with that used as the design basis. Such a comparison is needed to decide whether the plant can continue to be operated safely and to permit such timely action as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>These criteria do not address the need for instrumentation that would automatically shut down a nuclear power plant when an earthquake occurs which exceeds a predetermined intensity. The need for such instrumentation is under consideration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Surface Faulting.</I> (1) If the nuclear power plant is to be located within the zone requiring detailed faulting investigation, a detailed investigation of the regional and local geologic and seismic characteristics of the site shall be carried out to determine the need to take into account surface faulting in the design of the nuclear power plant. Where it is determined that surface faulting need not be taken into account, sufficient data to clearly justify the determination shall be presented in the license application. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where it is determined that surface faulting must be taken into account, the applicant shall, in establishing the design basis for surface faulting on a site take into account evidence concerning the regional and local geologic and seismic characteristics of the site and from any other relevant data. 
</P>
<P>(3) The design basis for surface faulting shall be taken into account in the design of the nuclear power plant by providing reasonable assurance that in the event of such displacement during faulting certain structures, systems, and components will remain functional. These structures, systems, and components are those necessary to assure (i) the integrity of the reactor coolant pressure boundary, (ii) the capability to shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition, or (iii) the capability to prevent or mitigate the consequences of accidents which could result in potential offsite exposures comparable to the guideline exposures of this part. In addition to seismic loads, including aftershocks, applicable concurrent functional and accident-induced loads shall be taken into account in the design of such safety features. The design provisions shall be based on an assumption that the design basis for surface faulting can occur in any direction and azimuth and under any part of the nuclear power plant unless evidence indicates this assumption is not appropriate, and shall take into account the estimated rate at which the surface faulting may occur. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Seismically Induced Floods and Water Waves and Other Design Conditions.</I> The design basis for seismically induced floods and water waves from either locally or distantly generated seismic activity and other design conditions determined pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of section V, shall be taken into account in the design of the nuclear power plant so as to prevent undue risk to the health and safety of the public.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec22se91.002.gif"/>
<BCAP><E T="15">Figure 1—Diagrammatic Illustration of Delineation of Width of Zone Requiring Detailed Faulting Investigations For Specific Nuclear Power Plant Location.</E></BCAP>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 201, Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1243 (42 U.S.C. 5841)) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 31281, Nov. 13, 1973, as amended at 38 FR 32575, Nov. 27, 1973; 42 FR 2052, Jan. 10, 1977; 78 FR 34250, June 7, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="110" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 110—EXPORT AND IMPORT OF NUCLEAR EQUIPMENT AND MATERIAL 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 51, 53, 54, 57, 62, 63, 64, 65, 81, 82, 103, 104, 109, 111, 121, 122, 123, 124, 126, 127, 128, 129, 133, 134, 161, 170H, 181, 182, 183, 184, 186, 187, 189, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2071, 2073, 2074, 2077, 2092, 2093, 2094, 2095, 2111, 2112, 2133, 2134, 2139, 2141, 2151, 2152, 2153, 2154, 2155, 2156, 2157, 2158, 2160c, 2160d, 2201, 2210h, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2236, 2237, 2239, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 552, 553); 42 U.S.C. 2139a, 2155a; 44 U.S.C. 3504 note. 
</PSPACE><P>Section 110.1(b) also issued under 22 U.S.C. 2403; 22 U.S.C. 2778a; 50 App. U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.</I> 




</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part prescribe licensing, enforcement, and rulemaking procedures and criteria, under the Atomic Energy Act, for the export of nuclear equipment and material, as set out in §§ 110.8 and 110.9, and the import of nuclear equipment and material, as set out in § 110.9a. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services, that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of § 110.7b.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part apply to all persons in the United States except:
</P>
<P>(1) Persons who import or export U.S. Munitions List nuclear items such as uranium depleted in the isotope-235 and incorporated in defense articles. These persons are subject to the regulations promulgated pursuant to the Arms Export Control Act and administered by the Department of State, Directorate of Defense Trade Controls, and the Department of Justice, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, as authorized by section 110 of the International Security and Development Cooperation Act of 1980.
</P>
<P>(2) Persons who export uranium depleted in the isotope-235 and incorporated in commodities solely to take advantage of high density or pyrophoric characteristics. These persons are subject to the controls of the Department of Commerce under the Export Administration Act, as continued in force under Executive Order 13222 (August 22, 2001), as extended;
</P>
<P>(3) Persons who export nuclear referral list commodities such as bulk zirconium, rotor and bellows equipment, maraging steel, nuclear reactor related equipment, including process control systems and simulators. These persons are subject to the licensing authority of the Department of Commerce pursuant to 15 CFR part 730 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(4) Persons who import deuterium, nuclear grade graphite, or nuclear equipment other than production or utilization facilities. A uranium enrichment facility is not a production facility for the purposes of import; and
</P>
<P>(5) Shipments which are only passing through the U.S. (in bond shipments) do not require an NRC import or export license; however, they must comply with the Department of Transportation/IAEA packaging, and State transportation requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47197, Dec. 3, 1984; 49 FR 49841, Dec. 24, 1984, as amended at 55 FR 34519, Aug. 23, 1990; 56 FR 40692, Aug. 15, 1991; 58 FR 13001, Mar. 9, 1993; 61 FR 35602, July 8, 1996; 63 FR 1900, Jan. 13, 1998; 65 FR 70289, Nov. 22, 2000; 75 FR 44085, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, 
</P>
<P><I>Accelerator-produced radioactive material</I> means any material made radioactive by a particle accelerator.
</P>
<P><I>Agreement for cooperation</I> means any agreement with another nation or group of nations concluded under section 123 of the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Atomic Energy Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Bulk material</I> means any quantity of any one or more of the radionuclides listed in table 1 of appendix P to this part in a form that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Not a Category 1 radioactive source;
</P>
<P>(2) Not a Category 2 radioactive source;
</P>
<P>(3) Not plutonium-238; and
</P>
<P>(4) Deemed to pose a risk similar to or greater than a Category 2 radioactive source.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or utilizing special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2) The tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from ore (see 10 CFR 20.1003);
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator and is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005 for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005 is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Classified Information</I> means Classified National Security Information under Executive Order 13526, as amended, or any predecessor or successor Executive Order and Restricted Data under the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Common defense and security</I> means the common defense and security of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Conversion facility</I> means any facility for the transformation from one uranium chemical species to another, including conversion of uranium ore concentrates to uranium trioxide (UO3), conversion of UO3 to uranium dioxide (UO2), conversion of uranium oxides to uranium tetrafluoride (UF4) or uranium hexafluoride (UF6), conversion of UF4 to UF6, conversion of UF6 to UF4, conversion of UF4 to uranium metal, and conversion of uranium fluorides to UO2.
</P>
<P><I>Depleted uranium</I> means uranium having a percentage of uranium-235 less than the naturally occurring distribution of uranium-235 found in natural uranium (less than 0.711 weight percent uranium-235). It is obtained from spent (used) fuel elements or as byproduct tails or residues from uranium isotope separation.
</P>
<P><I>Deuterium</I> means deuterium and any deuterium compound, including heavy water, in which the ratio of deuterium atoms to hydrogen atoms exceeds 1:5000; and <I>deuterium for nuclear end use</I> means deuterium and any deuterium compound, including heavy water, in which the ratio of deuterium atoms to hydrogen atoms exceeds 1:5000, that is intended for use in a nuclear reactor. Export of deuterium and deuterium compounds, including heavy water, for non-nuclear end use is regulated by the Department of Commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Discrete source</I> means a radionuclide that has been processed so that its concentration within a material has been purposely increased for use for commercial, medical, or research activities.
</P>
<P><I>Disposal</I> means permanent isolation of radioactive material from the surrounding environment. 
</P>
<P><I>Dual-use</I> means equipment and materials that may be used in nuclear or non-nuclear applications.
</P>
<P><I>Effective kilograms of special nuclear material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For plutonium and uranium-233, their weight in kilograms;
</P>
<P>(2) For uranium enriched 1 percent or greater in the isotope uranium-235, its element weight in kilograms multiplied by the square of its enrichment expressed as a decimal weight fraction; and
</P>
<P>(3) For uranium enriched below 1 percent in the isotope uranium-235, its element weight in kilograms multiplied by 0.0001.
</P>
<P><I>Embargoed</I> means that no nuclear material or equipment can be exported to certain countries under an NRC general license. Exports to embargoed countries must be pursuant to a specific license issued by the NRC and require Executive Branch review pursuant to § 110.41.
</P>
<P><I>Exceptional circumstances</I> means, with respect to exports from the United States of radioactive material listed in Table 1 of Appendix P of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Cases of considerable health or medical need as acknowledged by the U.S. Government and the government of the importing country;
</P>
<P>(2) Cases where there is an imminent radiological hazard or security threat presented by one or more radioactive sources; and
</P>
<P>(3) Cases in which the exporting facility or U.S. Government maintains control of the radioactive material throughout the period the material is outside of the U.S. and removes the material at the conclusion of this period.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Branch</I> means the Departments of State, Energy, Defense and Commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Export</I> means to physically transfer nuclear equipment or material to a person or an international organization in a foreign country, except DOE distributions as authorized in Section 111 of the Atomic Energy Act or Section 110 of the International Security and Development Cooperation Act of 1980. 
</P>
<P><I>General license</I> means an export or import license effective without the filing of a specific application with the Commission or the issuance of licensing documents to a particular person. A general license is a type of license issued through rulemaking by the NRC and is not an exemption from the requirements in this part. A general license does not relieve a person from complying with other applicable NRC, Federal, and State requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Heels</I> means small quantities of natural, depleted or low-enriched uranium (to a maximum of 20 percent), in the form of uranium hexafluoride (UF6) left in emptied transport cylinders being returned to suppliers after delivery of the product.
</P>
<P><I>High-enriched uranium</I> means uranium enriched to 20 percent or greater in the isotope uranium-235. 
</P>
<P><I>IAEA</I> means the International Atomic Energy Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Import</I> means import into the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Individual shipment</I> means a shipment consisting of one lot of freight tendered to a carrier by one consignor at one place at one time for delivery to one consignee on one bill of lading. This lot may consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) Only one item or 
</P>
<P>(2) A number of containers all listed on the same set of shipping documents. This one lot of freight or “distinct” shipment can be transported on the same carrier with other distinct shipments containing the same items as long as each shipment is covered by separate sets of shipping documents.
</P>
<P>The phrase <I>introduced into a hearing</I> means the introduction or incorporation of testimony or documentary matter into the record of a hearing. 
</P>
<P><I>License</I> means a general or specific export or import license issued pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means a person authorized by a specific or a general license to export or import nuclear equipment or material pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Low-enriched uranium</I> means uranium enriched below 20 percent in the isotope uranium-235. 
</P>
<P><I>Low-level waste compact,</I> as used in this part, means a compact entered into by two or more States pursuant to the Low-Level Radioactive Waste Policy Amendments Act of 1985.
</P>
<P><I>Management</I> means storage, packaging, or treatment of radioactive waste.




</P>
<P><I>Medical isotope,</I> for the purposes of § 110.42(a)(9), includes molybdenum-99, iodine-131, xenon-133, and other radioactive materials used to produce a radiopharmaceutical for diagnostic or therapeutic procedures or for research and development.
</P>
<P><I>Natural uranium</I> means uranium as found in nature, containing about 0.711 percent of uranium-235, 99.283 percent of uranium-238, and a trace (0.006 percent) of uranium-234.
</P>
<P><I>NPT</I> means the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (TIAS 6839).
</P>
<P><I>Non-nuclear weapon State</I> means any State not a nuclear weapon State as defined in the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons. <I>Nuclear weapon state</I> means any State which has manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to January 1, 1967 (China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, United States).
</P>
<P><I>Non-Proliferation Act</I> means the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-242).


</P>
<P><I>NRC Public Document Room</I> means the facility at One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland, where certain public records of the NRC that were made available for public inspection in paper or microfiche prior to the implementation of the NRC Agencywide Documents Access and Management System, commonly referred to as ADAMS, will remain available for public inspection. It is also the place where NRC makes computer terminals available to access the Publicly Available Records System (PARS) component of ADAMS on the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and where copies can be viewed or ordered for a fee as set forth in § 9.35 of this chapter. The facility is staffed with reference librarians to assist the public in identifying and locating documents and in using the NRC Website and ADAMS. The NRC Public Document Room is open from 7:45 a.m. to 4:15 p.m., Monday through Friday, except on Federal holidays. Reference service and access to documents may also be requested by telephone (301-415-4737 or 800-397-4209) between 8:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m., or by e-mail (<I>PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</I>), facsimile (301-415-3548), or letter (NRC Public Document Room, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738).
</P>
<P><I>NRC records</I> means any documentary material made by, in the possession of, or under the control of the Commission under Federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business as evidence of any of the Commission's activities. 
</P>
<P>NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> is the Internet uniform resource locator name for the Internet address of the Web site where NRC will ordinarily make available its public records for inspection.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear grade graphite for nuclear end use</I> means graphite having a purity level better than (<I>i.e.</I>, less than) 5 parts per million boron equivalent, as measured according to ASTM standard C1233-98 and intended for use in a nuclear reactor. (Nuclear grade graphite for non-nuclear end use is regulated by the Department of Commerce.) 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means an apparatus, other than an atomic weapon or nuclear explosive device, designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-supporting chain reaction. 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor internals</I> means the major structures within a reactor vessel that have one or more functions such as supporting the core, maintaining fuel alignment, directing primary coolant flow, providing radiation shields for the reactor vessel, and guiding in-core instrumentation. 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear Referral List</I> (NRL) means the nuclear-related, dual-use commodities on the Commerce Control List that are subject to the nuclear non-proliferation export licensing controls of the Department of Commerce. They are contained in 15 CFR part 774 of the Department of Commerce's Export Administration Regulations and are designated by the symbol (NP) as the reason for control. 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear Suppliers Group</I> (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries which seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports.
</P>
<P><I>Obligations</I> means the commitments undertaken by the U.S. Government or by foreign governments or groups of nations with respect to imports or exports of nuclear material (except byproduct material) and equipment listed in §§ 110.8 and 110.9. Imports and exports of material or equipment subject to these commitments involve conditions placed on the transfer of the material or equipment, such as peaceful end-use assurances, prior consent for retransfer, and exchanges of information on the import or export. The U.S. Government informs the licensee of obligations attached to material or equipment being imported into the United States and approves changes to those obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Packaging</I> means one or more receptacles and wrappers and their contents, excluding any special nuclear material, source material or byproduct material, but including absorbent material, spacing structures, thermal insulation, radiation shielding, devices for cooling and for absorbing mechanical shock, external fittings, neutron moderators, nonfissile neutron absorbers and other supplementary equipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means a person, identified in a hearing notice or other Commission order, who takes part in a hearing conducted by the Commission under this part, including any person to whom the Commission grants a hearing or leave to intervene in an export or import licensing hearing, either as a matter of right or as a matter of discretion. 
</P>
<P><I>Particle accelerator</I> means any machine capable of accelerating electrons, protons, deuterons, or other charged particles in a vacuum and of discharging the resultant particulate or other radiation into a medium at energies usually in excess of 1 megaelectron volt. For purposes of this definition, “accelerator” is an equivalent term.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency, other than the Commission or the Department of Energy, except that the Department of Energy shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 111 of the Atomic Energy Act; any State or political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Physical security</I> or <I>Physical protection</I> means measures to reasonably ensure that source or special nuclear material will only be used for authorized purposes and to prevent theft or sabotage.
</P>
<P><I>Production facility</I> means any nuclear reactor or plant specially designed or used to produce special nuclear material through the irradiation of source material or special nuclear material, the chemical reprocessing of irradiated source or special nuclear material, or the separation of isotopes, other than a uranium enrichment facility for purposes of import.
</P>
<P><I>Public health and safety</I> means the public health and safety of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive material</I> means source, byproduct, or special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive waste,</I> for the purposes of this part, means any material that contains or is contaminated with source, byproduct, or special nuclear material that by its possession would require a specific radioactive material license in accordance with this Chapter and is imported or exported for the purposes of disposal in a land disposal facility as defined in 10 CFR part 61, a disposal area as defined in appendix A to 10 CFR part 40, or an equivalent facility; or recycling, waste treatment or other waste management process that generates radioactive material for disposal in a land disposal facility as defined in 10 CFR part 61, a disposal area as defined in appendix A to 10 CFR part 40, or an equivalent facility. Radioactive waste does not include radioactive material that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Of U.S. origin and contained in a sealed source, or device containing a sealed source, that is being returned to a manufacturer, distributor or other entity which is authorized to receive and possess the sealed source or the device containing a sealed source;
</P>
<P>(2) A contaminant on any non-radioactive material (including service tools and protective clothing) used in a nuclear facility (an NRC- or Agreement State-licensed facility (or equivalent facility) or activity authorized to possess or use radioactive material), if the material is being shipped solely for recovery and beneficial reuse of the non-radioactive material in a nuclear facility and not for waste management purposes or disposal;
</P>
<P>(3) Exempted from regulation by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or equivalent Agreement State regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) Generated or used in a U.S. Government waste research and development testing program under international arrangements;
</P>
<P>(5) Being returned by or for the U.S. Government or military to a facility that is authorized to possess the material; or
</P>
<P>(6) Imported solely for the purposes of recycling and not for waste management or disposal where there is a market for the recycled material and evidence of a contract or business agreement can be produced upon request by the NRC.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The definition of <I>radioactive waste</I> in this part does not include spent or irradiated fuel.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Radiopharmaceutical,</I> for the purposes of § 110.42(a)(9), means a radioactive isotope that contains byproduct material combined with chemical or biological material and is designed to accumulate temporarily in a part of the body for therapeutic purposes or for enabling the production of a useful image for use in a diagnosis of a medical condition.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient country,</I> for the purposes of § 110.42(a)(9), means Canada, Belgium, France, Germany, and the Netherlands.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted destinations</I> means countries that are listed in § 110.29 based on recommendations from the Executive Branch. These countries may receive exports of certain materials and quantities under a general license, but some exports to restricted destinations will require issuance of a specific license by the NRC including Executive Branch review pursuant to § 110.41.
</P>
<P><I>Retransfer</I> means the transport from one foreign country to another of nuclear equipment or nuclear material previously exported from the United States, or of special nuclear material produced through the use of source material or special nuclear material previously exported from the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any special nuclear material or byproduct material encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of that nuclear material. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Commission. 
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Natural or depleted uranium, or thorium, other than special nuclear material; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Ores that contain by weight 0.05 percent or more of uranium, thorium or depleted uranium. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means plutonium, uranium-233, or uranium enriched above 0.711 percent by weight in the isotope uranium-235. 


</P>
<P><I>Specific activity</I> means the radioactivity of a radionuclide per unit mass of that nuclide, expressed in the SI unit of terabecquerels per gram (TBq/g). Values of specific activity are found in appendix A to part 71 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Specific license</I> means an export or import license document issued to a named person and authorizing the export or import of specified nuclear equipment or materials based upon the review and approval of an NRC Form 7 application filed pursuant to this part and other related submittals in support of the application.
</P>
<P><I>Storage</I> means the temporary holding of radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>Target</I> means material subjected to irradiation in an accelerator or nuclear reactor to induce a reaction or produce nuclear material. 
</P>
<P><I>Transfer</I> means the transfer of possession from one person to another person. 
</P>
<P><I>Transport</I> means the physical movement of material from one location to another. 
</P>
<P><I>Treatment</I> means any method, technique, or process, including storage for radioactive decay, designed to change the physical, chemical or biological characteristics or composition of any radioactive material. 
</P>
<P><I>Tritium</I> means not only tritium but also includes compounds and mixtures containing tritium in which the ratio of tritium to hydrogen by atoms exceeds one part in 1,000.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Uranium enrichment facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any facility used for separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device, or important component part especially designed for such equipment or device, capable of separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235. 
</P>
<P><I>Utilization facility</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any nuclear reactor, other than one that is a production facility and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any of the following major components of a nuclear reactor:
</P>
<P>(i) Reactor pressure vessel (designed to contain the core of a nuclear reactor);
</P>
<P>(ii) Reactor primary coolant pump or circulator;
</P>
<P>(iii) “On-line” reactor fuel charging and discharging machine; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Complete reactor control rod system.
</P>
<P>(3) A utilization facility does not include the steam turbine generator portion of a nuclear power plant. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21691, May 19, 1978]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 110.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.3   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part other than a written interpretation by the Commission's General Counsel is binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 90 FR 55633, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified in this part, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part should be addressed to the Deputy Director of the NRC's Office of International Programs, either by telephone to 301-287-9057; by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58824, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74982, Dec. 1, 2015; 83 FR 58466, Nov. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.5   Licensing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided under subpart B of this part, no person may export any nuclear equipment or material listed in § 110.8 and § 110.9, or import any nuclear equipment or material listed in § 110.9a, unless authorized by a general or specific license issued under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 24684, May 31, 1991, as amended at 58 FR 13002, Mar. 9, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.6   Retransfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Retransfer of any nuclear equipment or material listed in §§ 110.8 and 110.9 (except byproduct material), including special nuclear material produced through the use of equipment, source material, or special nuclear material bearing obligations to the United States pursuant to an agreement for cooperation, requires authorization by the Department of Energy, unless the export to the new destination is authorized by the NRC under a specific or general license or an exemption from licensing requirements. See definition of “obligations” in § 110.2.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for authority to retransfer are processed by the Department of Energy, National Nuclear Security Administration, Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control, Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44087, July 28, 2010, as amended at 83 FR 58466, Nov. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.7   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control numbers 3150-0036.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 110.7a, 110.10, 110.27, 110.32, 110.50, 110.52, 110.53, and 110.54.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. The information collection requirements contained in §§ 110.19, 110.20, 110.21, 110.22, 110.23, 110.31, 110.32, and 110.51, and NRC Form 7 are approved under control number 3150-0027.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52190, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 70290, Nov. 22, 2000; 67 FR 67101, Nov. 4, 2002; 71 FR 19104, Apr. 13, 2006; 75 FR 44087, July 28, 2010; 76 FR 72087, Nov. 22, 2011; 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.7a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.7a   Completeness and accuracy of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information provided to the Commission by an applicant for a license or by a licensee or information required by statute or by the Commission's regulations, orders, or license conditions to be maintained by the applicant or the licensee shall be complete and accurate in all material respects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each licensee or applicant for a license shall notify the Commission of information identified by the applicant or licensee as having, for the regulated activity, a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. An applicant or licensee violates this paragraph if the applicant or licensee fails to notify the Commission of information that the applicant or licensee has identified as having a significant implication for public health and safety or common defense and security. Notification shall be provided to the Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office within two working days of identifying the information. This requirement is not applicable to information which is already required to be provided to the Commission by other reporting or updating requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 49374, Dec. 31, 1987, as amended at 75 FR 44087, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.7b" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.7b   Deliberate misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee, applicant for a license, employee of a licensee or applicant; or any contractor (including a supplier or consultant), subcontractor, employee of a contractor or subcontractor of any licensee or applicant for a license, who knowingly provides to any licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's or applicant's activities in this part, may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Deliberately submit to the NRC, a licensee, an applicant, or a licensee's or applicant's contractor or subcontractor, information that the person submitting the information knows to be incomplete or inaccurate in some respect material to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) A person who violates paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may be subject to enforcement action in accordance with the procedures in 10 CFR part 2, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, deliberate misconduct by a person means an intentional act or omission that the person knows:
</P>
<P>(1) Would cause a licensee or applicant to be in violation of any rule, regulation, or order; or any term, condition, or limitation, of any license issued by the Commission; or
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a violation of a requirement, procedure, instruction, contract, purchase order, or policy of a licensee, applicant, contractor, or subcontractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1900, Jan. 13, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.8   List of nuclear facilities and equipment under NRC export licensing authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nuclear reactors and especially designed or prepared equipment and components for nuclear reactors. (See appendix A to this part.) 
</P>
<P>(b) Plants for the separation of isotopes of uranium (source material or special nuclear material) including gas centrifuge plants, gaseous diffusion plants, aerodynamic enrichment plants, chemical exchange or ion exchange enrichment plants, laser based enrichment plants, plasma separation enrichment plants, electromagnetic enrichment plants, and especially designed or prepared equipment, other than analytical instruments, for the separation of isotopes of uranium. (See appendices to this part for lists of: gas centrifuge equipment—appendix B; gaseous diffusion equipment—appendix C; aerodynamic enrichment equipment—appendix D; chemical exchange or ion exchange enrichment equipment—appendix E; laser based enrichment equipment—appendix F; plasma separation enrichment equipment—appendix G; and electromagnetic enrichment equipment—appendix H.) 
</P>
<P>(c) Plants for the separation of the isotopes of lithium and especially designed or prepared assemblies and components for these plants. (See appendix N to this part.)
</P>
<P>(d) Plants for the reprocessing of irradiated nuclear reactor fuel elements and especially designed or prepared assemblies and components for these plants. (See appendix I to this part.) 
</P>
<P>(e) Plants for the fabrication of nuclear reactor fuel elements and especially designed or prepared assemblies and components for these plants. (See appendix O to this part.)
</P>
<P>(f) Plants for the conversion of uranium and plutonium and especially designed or prepared assemblies and components for these plants. (See appendix J to this part.) 
</P>
<P>(g) Plants for the production, separation, or purification of heavy water, deuterium, and deuterium compounds and especially designed or prepared assemblies and components for these plants. (See appendix K to this part.) 
</P>
<P>(h) Plants for the production of special nuclear material using accelerator-driven subcritical assembly systems capable of continuous operation above 5 MW thermal. 
</P>
<P>(i) Other nuclear-related commodities are under the export licensing authority of the Department of Commerce. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35602, July 8, 1996, as amended at 65 FR 70290, Nov. 22, 2000; 86 FR 43404, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.9   List of Nuclear Material under NRC export licensing authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Special Nuclear Material.
</P>
<P>(b) Source Material.
</P>
<P>(c) Byproduct Material.
</P>
<P>(d) Deuterium for nuclear end use.
</P>
<P>(e) Nuclear grade graphite for nuclear end use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 30450, July 26, 1990, as amended at 70 FR 41939, July 21, 2005; 86 FR 55479, Oct. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.9a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.1.133.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.9a   List of nuclear equipment and material under NRC import licensing authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Production and utilization facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) Special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(c) Source material.
</P>
<P>(d) Byproduct material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47198, Dec. 3, 1984. Redesignated at 55 FR 30450, July 26, 1990, and amended at 57 FR 18393, Apr. 30, 1992; 58 FR 13003, Mar. 9, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.2.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.10   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a request or on its own initiative, the Commission may grant an exemption from the regulations in this part, if it determines that the exemption:
</P>
<P>(1) Is authorized by law;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not inimical to the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(b) An exemption from statutory licensing requirements, as authorized by sections 57d, 62, and 81 of the Atomic Energy Act, will be granted only after coordination with the Executive Branch. 
</P>
<P>(c) The granting of an exemption does not relieve any person from complying with the regulations of other U.S. Federal and/or State government agencies applicable to exports or imports under their authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47198, Dec. 3, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 13003, Mar. 9, 1993; 65 FR 70290, Nov. 22, 2000; 75 FR 44087, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.2.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.11   Export of IAEA safeguards samples.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person is exempt from the requirements for a license to export special nuclear, source, and byproduct material set forth in sections 53, 54d, 64, 81 and 82 of the Atomic Energy Act and from the regulations in this part to the extent that the person exports special nuclear, source, or byproduct material in IAEA safeguards samples. The samples must be exported in accordance with § 75.8 of this chapter, or a comparable U.S. Department of Energy order, and:
</P>
<P>(1) For special nuclear material, be in quantities not exceeding a combined total of 100 grams of contained plutonium, uranium-233, and uranium-235 per facility per year;
</P>
<P>(2) For source material, be in quantities not exceeding 5 kilograms per facility per year; and
</P>
<P>(3) For byproduct material, be in quantities not exceeding the values in § 30.71 of this chapter per shipment.
</P>
<P>(b) This exemption does not relieve any person from complying with parts 71 or 73 of this chapter or any Commission order under section 201(a) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5841(a)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 27114, May 9, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Licenses</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 47198, Dec. 3, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 110.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.19   Types of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Licenses for the export and import of nuclear equipment and material in this part consist of general licenses and specific licenses. A general license is effective without the filing of an application with the Commission or the issuance of licensing documents to a particular person. A specific license is issued to a named person and is effective upon approval by the Commission of an application filed pursuant to the regulations in this part and issuance of licensing documents to the applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44087, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.20   General license information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may use an NRC general license as authority to export or import nuclear equipment or material, if the nuclear equipment or material to be exported or imported is covered by the NRC general licenses described in §§ 110.21 through 110.27. If an export or import is not covered by the NRC general licenses described in §§ 110.21 through 110.27, a person must file an application with the Commission for a specific license in accordance with §§ 110.31 through 110.32.
</P>
<P>(b) In response to a petition or on its own initiative, the Commission may issue a general license for export or import if it determines that any exports or imports made under the general license will not be inimical to the common defense and security or constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety and otherwise meet applicable statutory requirements. A general license is issued as a regulation after a rulemaking proceeding under subpart K of this part. Issuance of a general license is coordinated with the Executive Branch.
</P>
<P>(c) A general license does not relieve a person from complying with the regulations of other Government agencies applicable to exports or imports under their authority.
</P>
<P>(d) A general license for export may not be used if the exporter knows, or has reason to believe, that the material will be used in any illegal activity or any activity related to isotope separation, chemical reprocessing, heavy water production or the fabrication of nuclear fuel containing plutonium, unless these activities are generically authorized under an appropriate agreement for cooperation.
</P>
<P>(e) A person who uses an NRC general license as the authority to export or import may cite on the shipping documents the section of this part which authorizes the described export or import under general license, as a means of expediting U.S. Customs and Border Protection's processing of the shipment.
</P>
<P>(f) As specified in §§ 110.21 through 110.26, 110.28, 110.29, and 110.30 only certain countries are eligible recipients of equipment or material under NRC general licenses to export. The Commission will closely monitor these countries and may at any time remove a country from a general license in response to significant adverse developments in the country involved. A key factor in this regard is the nonproliferation credentials of the importing country.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47198, Dec. 3, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 13003, Mar. 9, 1993; 59 FR 48997, Sept. 26, 1994; 60 FR 37563, July 21, 1995; 75 FR 44087, July 28, 2010; 86 FR 43404, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.21   General license for the export of special nuclear material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a general license is issued to any person to export the following to any country not listed in § 110.28:
</P>
<P>(1) Low-enriched uranium as residual contamination (17.5 parts per million or less) in any item or substance.
</P>
<P>(2) Plutonium containing 80 percent or more by weight of plutonium-238 in cardiac pacemakers.
</P>
<P>(3) Special nuclear material, other than plutonium-236 and plutonium-238, in sensing components in instruments, if no more than 3 grams of enriched uranium or 0.1 gram of plutonium or uranium-233 are contained in each sensing component.
</P>
<P>(4) Plutonium-236 and plutonium-238 when contained in a device, or a source for use in a device, in quantities of less than 3.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> TBq (100 millicuries) of alpha activity (189 micrograms plutonium-236, 5.88 milligrams plutonium-238) per device or source.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a general license is issued to any person to export the following to any country not listed in § 110.28 or § 110.29:
</P>
<P>(1) Special nuclear material, other than plutonium-236 and plutonium-238, in individual shipments of 0.001 effective kilogram or less (e.g., 1.0 gram of plutonium, uranium-233 or uranium-235, or 10 kilograms of 1 percent enriched uranium), not to exceed 0.1 effective kilogram per calendar year to any one country.
</P>
<P>(2) Special nuclear material in fuel elements as replacements for damaged or defective unirradiated fuel elements previously exported under a specific license, subject to the same terms as the original export license and the condition that the replaced fuel elements must be returned to the United States within a reasonable time period.


</P>
<P>(3) Uranium, enriched to less than 20 percent in uranium-235, in the form of uranium hexafluoride (UF6) heels in cylinders being returned to suppliers in EURATOM or the United Kingdom.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a general license is issued to any person to export plutonium-236 or plutonium-238 to any country listed in § 110.30 in individual shipments of 1 gram or less, not to exceed 100 grams per calendar year to any one country.
</P>
<P>(d) The general licenses in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section do not authorize the export of special nuclear material in radioactive waste. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47198, Dec. 3, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 13003, Mar. 9, 1993; 59 FR 48997, Sept. 26, 1994; 60 FR 37563, July 21, 1995; 65 FR 70290, Nov. 22, 2000; 70 FR 46066, Aug. 9, 2005; 75 FR 44087, July 28, 2010; 85 FR 86795, Dec. 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.22   General license for the export of source material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a general license is issued to any person to export the following to any country not listed in § 110.28:
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium or thorium, other than uranium-230, uranium-232, thorium-227, and thorium-228, in any substance in concentrations of less than 0.05 percent by weight.
</P>
<P>(2) Thorium, other than thorium-227 and thorium-228, in incandescent gas mantles or in alloys in concentrations of 5 percent or less.
</P>
<P>(3) Thorium-227, thorium-228, uranium-230, and uranium-232 when contained in a device, or a source for use in a device, in quantities of less than 3.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> TBq (100 millicuries) of alpha activity (3.12 micrograms thorium-227, 122 micrograms thorium-228, 3.7 micrograms uranium-230, 4.7 milligrams uranium-232) per device or source.
</P>
<P>(4) A general license is issued to any person to export uranium, enriched to less than 20 percent in U-235, in the form of UF6 heels in cylinders being returned to suppliers in EURATOM or the United Kingdom.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a general license is issued to any person to export uranium or thorium, other than uranium-230, uranium-232, thorium-227, or thorium-228, in individual shipments of 10 kilograms or less to any country not listed in § 110.28 or § 110.29, not to exceed 1,000 kilograms per calendar year to any one country or 500 kilograms per calendar year to any one country when the uranium or thorium is Canadian-obligated.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a general license is issued to any person to export uranium or thorium, other than uranium-230, uranium-232, thorium-227, or thorium-228, in individual shipments of 1 kilogram or less to any country listed in § 110.29, not to exceed 100 kilograms per calendar year to any one country.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a general license is issued to any person to export uranium-230, uranium-232, thorium-227, or thorium-228 in individual shipments of 10 kilograms or less to any country listed in § 110.30, not to exceed 1,000 kilograms per calendar year to any one country or 500 kilograms per calendar year to any one country when the uranium or thorium is Canadian-obligated.
</P>
<P>(e) Paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section do not authorize the export under general license of source material in radioactive waste.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44088, July 28, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 27114, May 9, 2012; 87 FR 68032, Nov. 14, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.23   General license for the export of byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to any person to export byproduct material (see appendix L to this part) to any country not listed in § 110.28 and subject to the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) The general license in this section does not authorize the export of byproduct material in the form of radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(2) The general license in this section does not authorize the export of the following radionuclides:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Americium-242m
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Californium-249
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Californium-251
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curium-245
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curium-247</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) For byproduct materials listed in table 1 of appendix P to this part, individual shipments under a general license for export must be less than the terabecquerel (TBq) values specified in Category 2 of Table 1 unless a more restrictive requirement applies.
</P>
<P>(4) The general license authorizes exports of the following radionuclides when contained in a device, or a source for use in a device, in quantities less than 3.7 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> TBq (100 millicuries) of alpha activity per device or source, unless the export is to a country listed in § 110.30:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Actinium-225
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Actinium-227
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Californium-248
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Californium-250
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Californium-252
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Californium-253
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Californium-254
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curium-240
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curium-241
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curium-242
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curium-243
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Curium-244
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Einsteinium-252
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Einsteinium-253
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Einsteinium-254
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Einsteinium-255
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fermium-257
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gadolinium-148
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mendelevium-258
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Neptunium-235
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polonium-208
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polonium-209
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Polonium-210
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Radium-223</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(5)(i) For americium-241, exports under the general license to a country listed in § 110.29 must not exceed 3.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E> TBq (one curie) per shipment.
</P>
<P>(ii) For americium-241, exports under the general license to a country listed in § 110.29 that exceed 3.7 × 10<E T="51">−2</E> TBq (one curie) per shipment, must be contained in industrial process control equipment or petroleum exploration equipment in quantities not exceeding 0.60 TBq (16 curies) per device and not exceeding 7.4 TBq/calendar year (200 curies/calendar year) to any one country.
</P>
<P>(iii) All exports of americium are subject to the reporting requirements listed in § 110.54(b).
</P>
<P>(6) For neptunium-235 and -237, exports under the general license must not exceed one gram for individual shipment and must not exceed a cumulative total of 10 grams per calendar year to any one country. All exports of neptunium are subject to the reporting requirements listed in § 110.54(b).
</P>
<P>(7) For polonium-210, exports under the general license, when contained in static eliminators, must not exceed 3.7 TBq (100 curies) per individual shipment.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) For tritium in any dispersed form (e.g., luminescent light sources and paint, accelerator targets, calibration standards, labeled compounds), exports under the general license must not exceed 0.37 TBq (10 curies (1.03 milligrams)) per item, not to exceed 37 TBq (1,000 curies (103 milligrams)) per shipment, or 370 TBq (10,000 curies (1.03 grams)) per calendar year to any one country.
</P>
<P>(ii) For tritium in any dispersed form (e.g., luminescent light sources and paint, accelerator targets, calibration standards, labeled compounds), exports under the general license to the countries listed in § 110.30 must not exceed the quantity of 1.48 TBq (40 curies (4.12 milligrams)) per item, not to exceed 37 TBq (1,000 curies (103 milligrams)) per shipment or 370 TBq (10,000 curies (1.03 grams)) per calendar year to any one country.
</P>
<P>(iii) For tritium in luminescent safety devices installed in an aircraft, exports under the general license must not exceed 1.48 TBq (40 curies (4.12 milligrams)) per light source.
</P>
<P>(iv) The general license in this section does not authorize the export of tritium for recovery or recycle purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44088, July 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 52826, Nov. 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.24" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.24   General license for the export of deuterium for nuclear end use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to any person to export to any country not listed in § 110.28 or § 110.29:
</P>
<P>(1) Deuterium and deuterium compounds (other than heavy water) for nuclear end use in individual shipments of 10 kilograms or less, not to exceed 200 kilograms per calendar year to any one country; and
</P>
<P>(2) Heavy water for nuclear end use in individual shipments of 50 kilograms or less, not to exceed 1,000 kilograms per calendar year to any one country.
</P>
<P>(b) A general license is issued to any person to export to any country listed in § 110.29:
</P>
<P>(1) Deuterium and deuterium compounds (other than heavy water) for nuclear end use in individual shipments of 1 kilogram or less, not to exceed 5 kilograms per calendar year to any one country listed in § 110.29; and
</P>
<P>(2) Heavy water for nuclear end use in individual shipment of 5 kilograms or less, not to exceed 25 kilograms per calendar year to any one country listed in § 110.29.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 55479, Oct. 6, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.25   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.26   General license for the export of nuclear reactor components.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general license is issued to any person to export to a destination listed in paragraph (b) of this section any nuclear reactor component of U.S. origin described in paragraphs (5) through (11) of appendix A to this part if—
</P>
<P>(1) The component will be used in a light or heavy water-moderated power or research reactor; or
</P>
<P>(2) The component is in semifabricated form and will be undergoing final fabrication or repair in those countries for either subsequent return to the United States for use in a nuclear power or research reactor in the United States or in one of the destinations listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The export of nuclear reactor components under the general license established in paragraph (a) of this section is approved to the following destinations:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Austria</LI>
<LI>Belgium</LI>
<LI>Bulgaria</LI>
<LI>Canada</LI>
<LI>Cyprus</LI>
<LI>Czech Republic</LI>
<LI>Denmark</LI>
<LI>Estonia</LI>
<LI>Finland</LI>
<LI>France</LI>
<LI>Germany</LI>
<LI>Greece</LI>
<LI>Hungary</LI>
<LI>Indonesia</LI>
<LI>Ireland</LI>
<LI>Italy</LI>
<LI>Japan</LI>
<LI>Latvia</LI>
<LI>Lithuania</LI>
<LI>Luxembourg</LI>
<LI>Malta</LI>
<LI>Netherlands</LI>
<LI>New Zealand</LI>
<LI>Philippines</LI>
<LI>Poland</LI>
<LI>Portugal</LI>
<LI>Republic of Korea</LI>
<LI>Romania</LI>
<LI>Slovak Republic</LI>
<LI>Slovenia</LI>
<LI>Spain</LI>
<LI>Sweden</LI>
<LI>Switzerland</LI>
<LI>Taiwan</LI>
<LI>United Kingdom</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) This general license does not authorize the export of components, in final or semi-fabricated form, for research reactors capable of continuous operation above 5 MW thermal.
</P>
<P>(d) This general license does not authorize the export of essentially complete reactors through piecemeal exports of facility components. When individual exports of components would amount in the aggregate to export of an essentially complete nuclear reactor, a facility export license is required.
</P>
<P>(e) All exports under paragraph (a) of this section are subject to the reporting requirements in § 110.54(c).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 110.26:</HED>
<P>U.S. Origin includes components produced or finished in the United States, even with non-U.S. content unless the foreign content is obligated by supplier government conditions, such as a prior consent for retransfer condition.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44089, July 28, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 39291, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.27" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.27   General license for imports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a general license is issued to any person to import byproduct, source, or special nuclear material if the U.S. consignee is authorized to receive and possess the material under the relevant NRC or Agreement State regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) The general license in paragraph (a) of this section does not authorize the import of more than 100 kilograms per shipment of source and/or special nuclear material in the form of irradiated fuel.
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph (a) of this section does not authorize the import under a general license of radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(d) A person importing formula quantities of strategic special nuclear material (as defined in § 73.2 of this chapter) under this general license shall provide the notifications required by § 73.27 and § 73.72 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) A general license is issued to any person to import the major components of a utilization facility as defined in § 110.2 for end-use at a utilization facility licensed by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) Importers of radioactive material listed in appendix P to this part must provide the notifications required by § 110.50.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 47208, Dec. 31, 1986, as amended at 56 FR 38336, Aug. 13, 1991; 58 FR 13003, Mar. 9, 1993; 60 FR 37564, July 21, 1995; 61 FR 35602, July 8, 1996; 65 FR 70291, Nov. 22, 2000; 68 FR 31589, May 28, 2003; 70 FR 37991, July 1, 2005; 75 FR 44089, July 28, 2010; 77 FR 27114, May 9, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.28" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.28   Embargoed destinations.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Cuba</LI>
<LI>Iran</LI>
<LI>Iraq</LI>
<LI>North Korea</LI>
<LI>Syria</LI>
<LI>Sudan</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 13003, Mar. 9, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 35602, July 8, 1996; 65 FR 70291, Nov. 22, 2000; 70 FR 29936, May 25, 2005; 72 FR 1427, Jan. 12, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.29" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.29   Restricted destinations.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Afghanistan</LI>
<LI>Andorra</LI>
<LI>Angola</LI>
<LI>Burma (Myanmar)</LI>
<LI>Djibouti</LI>
<LI>India</LI>
<LI>Israel</LI>
<LI>Libya</LI>
<LI>Pakistan</LI>
<LI>South Sudan</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 13003, Mar. 9, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 48998, Sept. 26, 1994; 61 FR 35602, July 8, 1996; 70 FR 29936, May 25, 2005; 72 FR 1427, Jan. 12, 2007; 77 FR 11385, Feb. 27, 2012; 78 FR 8361, Feb. 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.30" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.30   Members of the Nuclear Suppliers Group.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Argentina</LI>
<LI>Australia</LI>
<LI>Austria</LI>
<LI>Belarus</LI>
<LI>Belgium</LI>
<LI>Brazil</LI>
<LI>Bulgaria</LI>
<LI>Canada</LI>
<LI>China</LI>
<LI>Croatia</LI>
<LI>Cyprus</LI>
<LI>Czech Republic</LI>
<LI>Denmark</LI>
<LI>Estonia</LI>
<LI>Finland</LI>
<LI>France</LI>
<LI>Germany</LI>
<LI>Greece</LI>
<LI>Hungary</LI>
<LI>Iceland</LI>
<LI>Ireland</LI>
<LI>Italy</LI>
<LI>Japan</LI>
<LI>Kazakhstan</LI>
<LI>Latvia</LI>
<LI>Lithuania</LI>
<LI>Luxembourg</LI>
<LI>Malta</LI>
<LI>Mexico</LI>
<LI>Netherlands</LI>
<LI>New Zealand</LI>
<LI>Norway</LI>
<LI>Poland</LI>
<LI>Portugal</LI>
<LI>Republic of Korea</LI>
<LI>Romania</LI>
<LI>Russia</LI>
<LI>Serbia</LI>
<LI>Slovak Republic</LI>
<LI>Slovenia</LI>
<LI>South Africa</LI>
<LI>Spain</LI>
<LI>Sweden</LI>
<LI>Switzerland</LI>
<LI>Turkey</LI>
<LI>Ukraine</LI>
<LI>United Kingdom</LI></SCOL2></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 48998, Sept. 26, 1994, as amended at 61 FR 35602, July 8, 1996; 65 FR 70291, Nov. 22, 2000; 75 FR 44089, July 28, 2010; 79 FR 39291, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.31   Application for a specific license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person shall file an application for a specific license to export or import with the Deputy Director of the NRC's Office of International Programs, using an appropriate method listed in § 110.4.
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for an export, import, amendment or renewal licenses or a request for an exemption from a licensing requirement under this part shall be filed on NRC Form 7.
</P>
<P>(c) An application for a specific license to export or import or a request for an exemption from a licensing requirement must be accompanied by the appropriate fee in accordance with the fee schedules in §  170.21 and 170.31 of this chapter. A license application will not be processed unless the specified fee is received.
</P>
<P>(d) Each application on NRC Form 7 shall be signed by the applicant or licensee or a person duly authorized to act for and on behalf of the applicant or licensee.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person shall provide in the license application, as appropriate, the information specified in § 110.32. The Commission also may require the submission of additional information if necessary to complete its review.
</P>
<P>(f) An application may cover multiple shipments and destinations.
</P>
<P>(g) The applicant shall withdraw an application when it is no longer needed. The Commission's official files retain all documents related to a withdrawn application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44089, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.3.133.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.32   Information required in an application for a specific license/NRC Form 7.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Name and address of applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) Name and address of any other party, including the supplier of equipment or material, if different from the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) Country of origin of equipment or material, and any other countries that have processed the material prior to its import into the U.S.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This is meant to include all obligations attached to the material, according to the definition of <I>obligations</I> in § 110.2. Licensees must keep records of obligations attached to material which they own or is in their possession.</P></NOTE>
<P>(d) Names and addresses of all intermediate and ultimate consignees, other than intermediate consignees performing shipping services only.
</P>
<P>(e) Dates of proposed first and last shipments.
</P>
<P>(f) Description of the equipment or material including, as appropriate, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Maximum quantity of material in grams or kilograms (terabecquerels  or TBq for byproduct material) and its chemical and physical form.
</P>
<P>(2) For enriched uranium, the maximum weight percentage of enrichment and maximum weight of contained uranium-235.
</P>
<P>(3) For nuclear equipment, the name of the facility and its total dollar value.
</P>
<P>(4) For nuclear reactors, the name of the facility, its design power level and its total dollar value.
</P>
<P>(5) For proposed exports or imports of radioactive waste, the volume, physical and chemical characteristics, route of transit of shipment, classification (as defined in § 61.55 of this chapter) if imported or exported for direct disposal at part 61 or equivalent Agreement State licensed facility, and ultimate disposition (including forms of management or treatment) of the waste.
</P>
<P>(6) For proposed imports of radioactive waste, the industrial or other process responsible for generation of the waste, and the status of the arrangements for disposition, including pertinent documentation of these arrangements.
</P>
<P>(7) Description of end use by all consignees in sufficient detail to permit accurate evaluation of the justification for the proposed export or import, including the need for shipment by the dates specified.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) For proposed exports of Category 1 quantities of material listed in Table 1 of appendix P to this part, pertinent documentation that the recipient of the material has the necessary authorization under the laws and regulations of the importing country to receive and possess the material.
</P>
<P>(2) For proposed exports of Category 2 quantities of material listed in Table 1 of appendix P to this part, pertinent documentation that the recipient of the material has the necessary authorization under the laws and regulations of the importing country to receive and possess the material. This documentation must be provided to the NRC at least 24 hours prior to the shipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Pertinent documentation shall consist of a copy of the recipient's authorization to receive and possess the material to be exported or a confirmation from the government of the importing country that the recipient is so authorized. The recipient authorization shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Name of the recipient;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recipient location and legal address or principal place of business;
</P>
<P>(iii) Relevant radionuclides and radioactivity being imported or that the recipient is authorized to receive and possess;
</P>
<P>(iv) Uses, if appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(v) The expiration date of the recipient's authorization (if any).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44089, July 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 52826, Nov. 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Review of License Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.40" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.4.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.40   Commission review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately after receipt of a license application for an export or import requiring a specific license under this part, the Commission will initiate its licensing review and, to the maximum extent feasible, will expeditiously process the application concurrently with any applicable review by the Executive Branch.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commissioners shall review a license application for export of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A production or utilization facility.
</P>
<P>(2) More than 5 effective kilograms of high-enriched uranium, plutonium or uranium-233.
</P>
<P>(3) An export involving assistance to end uses related to isotope separation, chemical reprocessing, heavy water production, advanced reactors, or the fabrication of nuclear fuel containing plutonium, except for exports of source material or low-enriched uranium to EURATOM, the United Kingdom, or Japan for enrichment up to 5 percent in the isotope uranium-235, and those categories of exports which the Commission has approved in advance as constituting permitted incidental assistance.
</P>
<P>(4) The initial export to a country since March 10, 1978 of source or special nuclear material for nuclear end use.
</P>
<P>(5) An initial export to any country listed in § 110.28 or § 110.29 involving over:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 grams of plutonium, uranium-233 or high-enriched uranium;
</P>
<P>(ii) 1 effective kilogram of low-enriched uranium;
</P>
<P>(iii) 250 kilograms of source material;
</P>
<P>(iv) 250 kilograms of heavy water for nuclear end use; or
</P>
<P>(v) 37 TBq (1,000 curies) of tritium.
</P>
<P>(6) The export of radioactive material listed in Table 1 of Appendix P of this part involving:
</P>
<P>(i) Exceptional circumstances in § 110.42(e); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Category 1 quantities of material to any country listed in § 110.28.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will review export and import license applications raising significant policy issues.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Commission has not completed action on a license application within 60 days after receipt of the Executive Branch judgment, as provided for in § 110.41, or the license application when an Executive Branch judgment is not required, it will inform the applicant in writing of the reason for delay and, as appropriate, provide follow-up reports.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44090, July 28, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 86795, Dec. 31, 2020; 86 FR 55479, Oct. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.4.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.41   Executive Branch review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for a license to export the following will be promptly forwarded to the Executive Branch for review: 
</P>
<P>(1) A production or utilization facility.
</P>
<P>(2) More than one effective kilogram of high-enriched uranium or 10 grams of plutonium or uranium-233.
</P>
<P>(3) Nuclear grade graphite for nuclear end use.
</P>
<P>(4) More than 3.7 TBq (100 Curies) of tritium;
</P>
<P>(5) Deuterium for nuclear end use, other than exports of deuterium to Canada;
</P>
<P>(6) One kilogram or more of source or special nuclear material to be exported under the US-IAEA Agreement for Cooperation.
</P>
<P>(7) An export involving assistance to end uses related to isotope separation, chemical reprocessing, heavy water production, advanced reactors, or the fabrication of nuclear fuel containing plutonium, except for exports of source material or low-enriched uranium to EURATOM, the United Kingdom, or Japan for enrichment up to 5 percent in the isotope uranium-235, and those categories of exports approved in advance by the Executive Branch as constituting permitted incidental assistance.
</P>
<P>(8) The initial export of nuclear material or equipment to a foreign reactor.
</P>
<P>(9) An export involving radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(10) An export to any country listed in § 110.28 or § 110.29.
</P>
<P>(11) An export raising significant policy issues or subject to special limitations as determined by the Commission or the Executive Branch, including exports of radioactive material listed in Table 1 of appendix P to this part involving exceptional circumstances in § 110.42(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The Executive Branch will be requested to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide its judgment as to whether the proposed export would be inimical to the common defense and security, along with supporting rationale and information. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where applicable, confirm that the proposed export would be under the terms of an agreement for cooperation; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Address the extent to which the export criteria in § 110.42 are met, if applicable, and the extent to which the recipient country or group of countries has adhered to the provisions of any applicable agreement for cooperation. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may request the Executive Branch to address specific concerns and provide additional data and recommendations as necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 47200, Dec. 3, 1984; 58 FR 13004, Mar. 9, 1993; 60 FR 37564, July 21, 1995; 61 FR 35602, July 8, 1996; 70 FR 41939, July 21, 2005; 70 FR 37992, July 1, 2005; 70 FR 46066, Aug. 9, 2005; 75 FR 44090, July 28, 2010; 85 FR 86795, Dec. 31, 2020; 86 FR 55479, Oct. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.42" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.4.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.42   Export licensing criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The review of license applications for export for peaceful nuclear uses of production or utilization facilities 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or for export for peaceful nuclear uses of special nuclear or source material requiring a specific license under this part is governed by the following criteria: 


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Export of nuclear reactors, reactor pressure vessels, reactor primary coolant pumps and circulators, “on-line” reactor fuel charging and discharging machines, and complete reactor control rod systems, as specified in paragraphs (1) through (4) of appendix A to this part, are subject to the export licensing criteria in § 110.42(a). Exports of nuclear reactor components, as specified in paragraphs (5) through (11) of appendix A to this part, when exported separately from the items described in paragraphs (1) through (4) of appendix A to this part, are subject to the export licensing criteria in § 110.42(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) IAEA safeguards as required by Article III (2) of the NPT will be applied with respect to any such facilities or material proposed to be exported, to any such material or facilities previously exported and subject to the applicable agreement for cooperation, and to any special nuclear material used in or produced through the use thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) No such material or facilities proposed to be exported or previously exported and subject to the applicable agreement for cooperation, and no special nuclear material produced through the use of such material or facilities, will be used for any nuclear explosive device or for research on or development of any nuclear explosive device.
</P>
<P>(3) Adequate physical security measures will be maintained with respect to such material or facilities proposed to be exported and to any special nuclear material used in or produced through the use thereof. Physical security measures will be deemed adequate if such measures provide a level of protection equivalent to that set forth in § 110.44. 
</P>
<P>(4) No such material or facilities proposed to be exported, and no special nuclear material produced through the use of such material, will be retransferred to the jurisdiction of any other country or group of countries unless the prior approval of the United States is obtained for such retransfer.
</P>
<P>(5) No such material proposed to be exported and no special nuclear material produced through the use of such material will be reprocessed, and no irradiated fuel elements containing such material removed from a reactor will be altered in form or content, unless the prior approval of the United States is obtained for such reprocessing or alteration.
</P>
<P>(6) With respect to exports of such material or facilities to nonnuclear weapon states, IAEA safeguards will be maintained with respect to all peaceful activities in, under the jurisdiction of, or carried out under the control of such state at the time of export. This criterion will not be applied if the Commission has been notified by the President in writing that failure to approve an export because this criterion has not been met would be seriously prejudicial to the achievement of United States nonproliferation objectives or otherwise jeopardize the common defense and security, in which case the provisions of section 128 of the Atomic Energy Act regarding Congressional review will apply.
</P>
<P>(7) The proposed export of a facility or of more than 0.003 effective kilograms of special nuclear material, other than plutonium containing 80 percent or more by weight of plutonium-238, would be under the terms of an agreement for cooperation.
</P>
<P>(8) The proposed export is not inimical to the common defense and security and, in the case of facility exports, does not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety in the United States.
</P>
<P>(9)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section, with respect to exports of high-enriched uranium to be used as a fuel or target in a nuclear research or test reactor, the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(A) There is no alternative nuclear reactor fuel or target enriched to less than 20 percent in the isotope U-235 that can be used in that reactor;
</P>
<P>(B) The proposed recipient of the uranium has provided assurances that, whenever an alternative nuclear reactor fuel or target can be used in that reactor, it will use that alternative fuel or target in lieu of highly-enriched uranium; and
</P>
<P>(C) The United States Government is actively developing an alternative nuclear reactor fuel or target that can be used in that reactor.
</P>
<P>(ii) With regard to a Recipient Country, the Commission may issue a license authorizing the export of high-enriched uranium for medical isotope production, including shipment to and use at intermediate and ultimate consignees, if the Commission determines that:
</P>
<P>(A) The Recipient Country that supplies an assurance letter to the United States Government in connection with the consideration by the Commission of the export license application has informed the United States Government that any intermediate consignees and the ultimate consignee specified in the export license application are required to use the high-enriched uranium solely for the production of medical isotopes; and
</P>
<P>(B) The high-enriched uranium will be irradiated only in a reactor in the Recipient Country that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Uses an alternative nuclear fuel; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is the subject of an agreement with the United States Government to convert to an alternative nuclear reactor fuel when alternative nuclear reactor fuel can be used in the reactor.
</P>
<P>(iii) A fuel or target “can be used” in a nuclear research or test reactor if—
</P>
<P>(A) The fuel or target has been qualified by the Reduced Enrichment Research and Test Reactor Program of the Department of Energy; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Use of the fuel or target will permit the large majority of ongoing and planned experiments and isotope production to be conducted in the reactor without a large percentage increase in the total cost of operating the reactor. 
</P>
<P>(b) The review of license applications for the export of nuclear equipment, other than a production or utilization facility, and for deuterium for nuclear end use and nuclear grade graphite for nuclear end use is governed by the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) IAEA safeguards as required by Article III (2) of the NPT will be applied with respect to such equipment or material.
</P>
<P>(2) No such equipment or material will be used for any nuclear explosive device or for research on or development of any nuclear explosive device.
</P>
<P>(3) No such equipment or material will be retransferred to the jurisdiction of any other country or group of countries without the prior consent of the United States.
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed export is not inimical to the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(c) Except where paragraph (d) is applicable, the review of license applications for export of byproduct material or for export of source material for non-nuclear end uses requiring a specific license under this part is governed by the criterion that the proposed export is not inimical to the common defense and security. 
</P>
<P>(d) The review of license applications for the export of radioactive waste requiring a specific license under this part is governed by the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed export is not inimical to the common defense and security. 
</P>
<P>(2) The receiving country, after being advised of the information required by § 110.32(f)(5), finds that it has the administrative and technical capacity and regulatory structure to manage and dispose of the waste and consents to the receipt of the radioactive waste. In the case of radioactive waste containing a nuclear material to which paragraph (a) or (b) of this section is applicable, the criteria in this paragraph (d) shall be in addition to the criteria provided in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section. 


</P>
<P>(e) In making its findings under paragraphs (a)(8) and (c) of this section for proposed exports of radioactive material listed in appendix P to this part, the NRC shall consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the foreign recipient is authorized based on the authorization or confirmation required by § 110.32(g) to receive and possess the material under the laws and regulations of the importing country;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the importing country has the appropriate technical and administrative capability, resources and regulatory structure to manage the material in a safe and secure manner;
</P>
<P>(3) For proposed exports of Category 1 amounts of radioactive material listed in table 1 of appendix P to this part, whether the government of the importing country provides consent to the United States Government for the import of the material;
</P>
<P>(4) In cases where the importing country does not have the technical and administrative capability described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, and in cases where there is insufficient evidence of the recipient's authorization to receive and possess the material to be exported, described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, whether exceptional circumstances exist, and if so, whether the export should be licensed in light of those exceptional circumstances and the risks, if any, to the common defense and security of the proposed export;
</P>
<P>(5) For proposed exports under exceptional circumstances of Category 1 or Category 2 amounts of radioactive material listed in table 1 of appendix P to this part, whether the government of the importing country provides consent to the United States Government for the import of the material;
</P>
<P>(6) For proposed exports of radioactive material listed in table 1 of appendix P to this part under the exceptional circumstance in which there is a considerable health or medical need as acknowledged by the U.S. Government and the importing country, whether the United States and the importing country have, to the extent practicable, made arrangements for the safe and secure management of the radioactive sources during and at the end of their useful life;
</P>
<P>(7) Based upon the available information, whether the foreign recipient has engaged in clandestine or illegal procurement of radioactive material listed in table 1 of appendix P to the part;
</P>
<P>(8) Based upon available information, whether an import or export authorization for radioactive material listed in table 1 of appendix P to this part has been denied to the recipient or importing country, or whether the recipient or importing country has diverted any import or export of radioactive material previously authorized; and
</P>
<P>(9) Based upon available information, whether there is a risk of diversion or malicious acts involving radioactive material in table 1 of appendix P to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47200, Dec. 3, 1984, as amended at 55 FR 34519, Aug. 23, 1990; 58 FR 13004, Mar. 9, 1993; 58 FR 57964, Oct. 28, 1993; 60 FR 37564, July 21, 1995; 70 FR 37992, July 1, 2005; 70 FR 41939, July 21, 2005; 70 FR 46066, Aug. 9, 2005; 71 FR 20339, Apr. 20, 2006; 71 FR 40003, July 14, 2006; 79 FR 39291, July 10, 2014; 84 FR 63569, Nov. 18, 2019; 86 FR 55479, Oct. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.43" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.4.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.43   Import licensing criteria.</HEAD>
<P>The review of license applications for imports requiring a specific license under this part is governed by the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(a) The proposed import is not inimical to the common defense and security. 
</P>
<P>(b) The proposed import does not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any applicable requirements of subpart A of part 51 of this chapter are satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to the import of radioactive waste, an appropriate facility has agreed to accept and is authorized to possess the waste for management or disposal as confirmed by NRC consultations with, as applicable, the Agreement State in which the facility is located and low-level waste compact commission(s).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 37565, July 21, 1995, as amended at 70 FR 37992, July 1, 2005; 75 FR 44090, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.44" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.4.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.44   Physical security standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Physical security measures in recipient countries must provide protection at least comparable to the recommendations in the current version of IAEA publication, “Nuclear Security Recommendations on Physical Protection of Nuclear Material and Nuclear Facilities” (INFCIRC/225/Revision 5), January 2011, which is incorporated by reference in this part. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Office of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Notice of any changes made to the material incorporated by reference will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Copies of INFCIRC/225/Revision 5 may be obtained from the Marketing and Sales Unit, Publishing Section, IAEA, Vienna International Centre, P.O. Box 100, 1400 Vienna Austria; Fax: 43 1 2600 29302; telephone: 43 1 2600 22417; email: <I>sales.publications@iaea.org</I>; Web site: <I>http://www.iaea.org/books.</I> You may inspect a copy at the NRC Library, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738, telephone: 301-415-4737 or 1-800-397-4209, between 8:30 a.m. and 4:15 p.m.; or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Commission determinations on the adequacy of physical security measures are based on:
</P>
<P>(1) Receipt by the appropriate U.S. Executive Branch Agency of written assurances from the relevant recipient country government that physical security measures providing protection at least comparable to the recommendations set forth in INFCIRC/225/Revision 5.
</P>
<P>(2) Information obtained through country visits, information exchanges, or other sources. Determinations are made on a country-wide basis and are subject to continuing review. Appendix M to this part describes the different categories of nuclear material to which physical security measures are applied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44090, July 28, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 39291, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.45" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.4.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.45   Issuance or denial of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will issue an export license if it has been notified by the State Department that it is the judgment of the Executive Branch that the proposed export will not be inimical to the common defense and security, and:
</P>
<P>(1) Finds, based upon a reasonable judgment of the assurances provided and other information available to the Federal government, that the applicable criteria in § 110.42, or their equivalent, are met.
</P>
<P>(2) Finds that there are no material changed circumstances associated with an export license application (except for byproduct material applications) from those existing at the time of issuance of a prior license to export to the same country, if the prior license was issued under the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will issue an import license if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed import will not be inimical to the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed import will not constitute an unreasonable risk to the public health and safety;
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements of subpart A of part 51 of this chapter (to the extent applicable to the proposed import) have been satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a proposed import of radioactive waste, an appropriate facility has agreed to accept and is authorized to posses the waste for management or disposal as confirmed by NRC consultations with, as applicable, the Agreement State(s) in which the facility is located and the low-level waste compact commission(s).
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to a proposed import of radioactive material listed in Table 1 of Appendix P to this part:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Commission authorizes a proposed import of Category 1 or Category 2 amounts of radioactive material, it will take appropriate steps to ensure that a copy of the recipient authorization, or confirmation by the U.S. Government that the recipient is authorized to receive and possess the source or sources to be exported, is provided to the Government of the exporting country or to the exporting facility.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Commission authorizes a proposed import of Category 1 amounts of radioactive material, it will take appropriate steps to ensure that a copy of the consent of the United States Government to the import is provided to the government of the exporting country in cases where it is requested by such government.
</P>
<P>(d) If, after receiving the Executive Branch judgment that the issuance of a proposed export license will not be inimical to the common defense and security, the Commission does not issue the proposed license on a timely basis because it is unable to make the statutory determinations required under the Atomic Energy Act, the Commission will publicly issue a decision to that effect and will submit the license application to the President. The Commission's decision will include an explanation of the basis for the decision and any dissenting or separate views. The provisions in this paragraph do not apply to Commission decisions regarding applications for specific licenses to export byproduct material, including radioactive material listed in Table 1 of appendix P to this part, or radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission will deny: (1) Any export license application for which the Executive Branch judgment does not recommend approval; (2) any byproduct material export license application for which the Commission is unable to make the finding in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; or (3) any import license application for which the Commission is unable to make the finding in paragraph (b) of this section. The applicant will be notified in writing of the reason for denial.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47201, Dec. 3, 1984. Redesignated and amended at 60 FR 37565, July 21, 1995; 70 FR 37992, July 1, 2005; 75 FR 44091, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.46" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.4.133.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.46   Conduct resulting in termination of nuclear exports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no license will be issued to export nuclear equipment or material, other than byproduct material, to any non-nuclear weapon state that is found by the President to have, after March 10, 1978:
</P>
<P>(1) Detonated a nuclear explosive device; 
</P>
<P>(2) Terminated or abrogated IAEA safeguards; 
</P>
<P>(3) Materially violated an IAEA safeguards agreement; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Engaged in activities involving source or special nuclear material and having direct significance for the manufacture or acquisition of nuclear explosive devices, and failed to take steps which represent sufficient progress toward terminating such activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no license will be issued to export nuclear equipment or material, other than byproduct material, to any country or group of countries that is found by the President to have, after March 10, 1978:
</P>
<P>(1) Materially violated an agreement for cooperation with the United States or the terms of any other agreement under which nuclear equipment or material has been exported; 
</P>
<P>(2) Assisted, encouraged or induced any non-nuclear weapon state to engage in activities involving source or special nuclear material and having direct significance for the manufacture or acquistion of nuclear explosive devices, and failed to take steps which represent sufficient progress toward terminating such assistance, encouragement or inducement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Entered into an agreement for the transfer of reprocessing equipment, materials or technology to the sovereign control of a non-nuclear weapon state, except in connection with an international fuel cycle evaluation in which the United States is a participant or pursuant to an international agreement or understanding to which the United States subscribes. 
</P>
<P>(c) Under section 129 of the Atomic Energy Act, the President may waive the requirement for the termination of exports to a country described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section after determining in writing that the cessation of exports would seriously prejudice the achievement of United States nonproliferation objectives or otherwise jeopardize the common defense and security. If the President makes this determination, the Commission will issue licenses to export to that country, if other applicable statutory provisions are met.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 47202, Dec. 3, 1984. Redesignated at 60 FR 37565, July 21, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—License Terms and Related Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.50" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.5.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.50   Terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General and specific licenses.</I> (1) Each license is subject to all applicable provisions of the Atomic Energy Act and other applicable law and to all applicable rules, regulations, decisions and orders of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) Each license is subject to amendment, suspension, revocation or incorporation of separate conditions when required by amendments of the Atomic Energy Act or other applicable law, or by other rules, regulations, decisions or orders issued in accordance with the terms of the Atomic Energy Act or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) A licensee authorized to export or import nuclear material is responsible for compliance with applicable requirements of this chapter, unless a domestic licensee of the Commission has assumed that responsibility and the Commission has been so notified.
</P>
<P>(4) Each license authorizes export or import only and does not authorize any person to receive title to, acquire, receive, possess, deliver, use, transport or transfer any nuclear equipment or material subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Each license issued by the NRC for the export or import of nuclear material authorizes only the export or import of that nuclear material and accompanying packaging, fuel element, hardware, or other associated devices or products.
</P>
<P>(6) No nuclear equipment license confers authority to export or import nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(7) Each nuclear equipment export license authorizes the export of only those items required for use in the foreign nuclear installation for which the items are intended.
</P>
<P>(8) A licensee shall not proceed to export or import and shall notify the Commission promptly if he knows or has reason to believe that the packaging requirements of part 71 of this chapter have not been met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific licenses.</I> (1) Each specific license will have an expiration date.
</P>
<P>(2) A licensee may export or import only for the purpose(s) and/or end-use(s) stated in the specific export or import license issued by NRC.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless a license specifically authorizes the export of certain foreign-obligated nuclear material or equipment, a licensee may not ship such material or equipment until:
</P>
<P>(i) The licensee has requested and the Commission has issued an amendment to the license authorizing such shipment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The licensee has given at least 40 days advance notice of the intended shipment in writing to the Deputy Director, Office of International Programs (OIP); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Deputy Director, OIP has:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtained confirmation, through either the Department of Energy or State, that the foreign government in question has given its consent to the intended shipment pursuant to its agreement for cooperation with the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Communicated this in writing to the licensee.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advanced notification.</I> (1) A licensee authorized to export or import the radioactive material listed in Appendix P to this part is responsible for notifying NRC and, in cases of exports, the government of the importing country in advance of each shipment. A list of points of contact in importing countries is available at NRC's Office of International Programs Web site, accessible on the NRC Public Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC's office responsible for receiving advance notifications for all export and import shipments is the NRC Headquarters Operations Center. Notifications to the NRC Headquarters Operations Center are to be submitted by email (preferred method) or faxed using the contact information specified in appendix A to 10 CFR part 73 of this chapter. In the subject line of the email or on the fax cover page include “10 CFR 110.50(c) Notification.” To contact the NRC Operations Center, use the same email address or call the telephone number in appendix A to 10 CFR part 73. For questions or concerns on submitting these advance notifications to the NRC, please contact the Office of International Programs at 301-287-9056.
</P>
<P>(3) Notifications may be electronic or in writing on business stationery, and must contain or be accompanied by the information which follows.
</P>
<P>(i) For export notifications:
</P>
<P>(A) 10 CFR part 110 export license number and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(B) Name of the individual and licensee making the notification, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(C) Foreign recipient name, address, and end use location(s) (if different than recipient's address);
</P>
<P>(D) Radionuclides and activity level in TBq, both for single and aggregate shipments;
</P>
<P>(E) Make, model and serial number, for any Category 1 and 2 sealed sources, if available;
</P>
<P>(F) End use in the importing country, if known;
</P>
<P>(G) Shipment date; and
</P>
<P>(H) A copy of the foreign recipient's authorization or confirmation of that authorization from the government of the importing country as required by § 110.32(g) unless the authorization has already been provided to the NRC.
</P>
<P>(ii) For import notifications:
</P>
<P>(A) Name of individual and licensee making the notification, address, and telephone number;
</P>
<P>(B) Recipient name, location, and address (if different than above);
</P>
<P>(C) Name, location, address, contact name and telephone number for exporting facility;
</P>
<P>(D) Radionuclides and activity level in TBq, both for single and aggregate shipments;
</P>
<P>(E) Make, model and serial number, radionuclide, and activity level for any Category 1 and 2 sealed sources, if available;
</P>
<P>(F) End use in the U.S.;
</P>
<P>(G) Shipment date from exporting facility and estimated arrival date at the end use location; and
</P>
<P>(H) NRC or Agreement State license number to possess the import in the U.S. and expiration date.
</P>
<P>(4) Export notifications must be received by the NRC at least 7 days in advance of each shipment, to the extent practical, but in no case less than 24 hours in advance of each shipment. Import notifications must be received by the NRC at least 7 days in advance of each shipment.
</P>
<P>(5) Advance notifications containing the above information must be controlled, handled, and transmitted in accordance with § 2.390 of this chapter and other applicable NRC requirements governing protection of sensitive information.
</P>
<P>(d) A specific license may be transferred, disposed of or assigned to another person only with the approval of the Commission by license amendment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44091, July 28, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020; 86 FR 43404, Aug. 9, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.5.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.51   Amendment and renewal of licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> (1) Applications for amendment of a specific license shall be filed on NRC Form 7 in accordance with §§ 110.31 and 110.32 and shall specify the respects in which the licensee desires the license to be amended and the grounds for such amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) An amendment is not required for:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes in monetary value (but not amount or quantity);
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in the names and/or mailing addresses within the same countries of the intermediate or ultimate consignees listed on the license; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The addition of intermediate consignees in any of the importing countries specified in the license (for a nuclear equipment license only).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Renewals.</I> (1) Applications for renewal of a specific license shall be filed on NRC Form 7 in accordance with §§ 110.31 and 110.32.
</P>
<P>(2) If an application to renew a license is submitted 30 days or more before the license expires, the license remains valid until the Commission acts on the renewal application. An expired license is not renewable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General.</I> In considering an application by a licensee to renew or amend a license, the Commission will apply, as appropriate, the same procedures and criteria it uses for initial license applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44092, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.5.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.52   Revocation, suspension, and modification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A license may be revoked, suspended, or modified for a condition which would warrant denial of the original license application. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may require further information from a licensee to determine whether a license should be revoked, suspended, or modified. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except when the common defense and security or public health and safety requires otherwise, no license will be revoked, suspended, or modified before the licensee is informed in writing of the grounds for such action and afforded the opportunity to reply and be heard under procedures patterned on those in subpart I. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 62 FR 59277, Nov. 3, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.53" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.5.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.53   United States address, records, and inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee (general or specific) shall have an office in the United States where papers may be served and where records required by the Commission will be maintained.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each license applicant or licensee (general or specific) shall maintain records concerning his exports or imports. The licensee shall retain these records for five years after each export or import except that byproduct material records must be retained for three years after the date of each export or import shipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Records which must be maintained pursuant to this part may be the original or a reproduced copy or microform if such reproduced copy or microform is duly authenticated by authorized personnel and the microform is capable of producing a clear and legible copy after storage for the period specified by Commission regulations. The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period. Records such as letters, drawings, specifications, must include all pertinent information such as stamps, initials, and signatures. The licensee shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.
</P>
<P>(c) Each licensee shall permit the Commission to inspect his records, premises, and activities pertaining to his exports and imports when necessary to fulfill the requirements of the Atomic Energy Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 53 FR 19263, May 27, 1988; 75 FR 44092, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.54" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.5.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.54   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Reports of exports of nuclear facilities and equipment, nuclear grade graphite for nuclear end use, and deuterium for nuclear end use  shipped during the previous quarter must be submitted by licensees making exports under the general license or specific license of this part by January 15, April 15, July 15, and October 15 of each year on DOC/NRC Forms AP-M or AP-13, and associated forms. The reports must contain information on all nuclear facilities, equipment, and non-nuclear materials (nuclear grade graphite for nuclear end use and deuterium for nuclear end use) listed in Annex II of the Additional Protocol.
</P>
<P>(2) These required reports must be sent via facsimile to (202) 482-1731, emailed to <I>aprp@bis.doc.gov,</I> or hand-delivered or submitted by courier to the Bureau of Industry and Security, in hard copy, to the following address: Treaty Compliance Division, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, Attn: AP Reports, 14th Street and Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Room 4515, Washington, DC 20230. Telephone: (202) 482-1001.
</P>
<P>(b) Persons making exports under the general license established by § 110.23(a) or under a specific license shall submit by February 1 of each year one copy of a report of all americium and neptunium shipments during the previous calendar year. This report shall be submitted to the Deputy Director, Office of International Programs at the address provided in § 110.4 or by electronic submission at <I>110.23reports@nrc.gov</I>. The report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the material, including quantity in TBq and gram;
</P>
<P>(2) Approximate shipment dates; and
</P>
<P>(3) A list of recipient countries, end users, and intended use keyed to the items shipped.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons making exports under the general license established by § 110.26(a) shall submit by February 1 of each year one copy of a report of all components shipped during the previous calendar year. This report shall be submitted to the Deputy Director, Office of International Programs at the address provided in § 110.4 or by electronic submission at <I>110.26reports@nrc.gov</I>. This report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the components keyed to the categories listed in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Approximate shipment dates.
</P>
<P>(3) A list of recipient countries and end users keyed to the items shipped.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44092, July 28, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 27114, May 9, 2012; 86 FR 55479, Oct. 6, 2021; 88 FR 80950, Nov. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Violations and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.60" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.60   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of:
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44092, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.61" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.61   Notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before instituting any enforcement action the Commission will serve on the licensee written notice of violation, except as provided in paragraph (d). 
</P>
<P>(b) The notice will state the alleged violation; require the licensee to respond in writing, within 20 days or other specified time; and may also require the licensee to state the corrective steps taken or to be taken and the date when full compliance will be achieved. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notice may provide that, if an adequate and timely reply is not received, an order to show cause may be issued pursuant to § 110.62 or a proceeding instituted to impose a civil penalty pursuant to § 110.64. 
</P>
<P>(d) The notice may be omitted and an order to show cause issued when the Commission determines that the violation is willful or that the public health, safety, or interest so requires. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.62" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.62   Order to show cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to an alleged violation, described in § 110.60, the Commission may institute a proceeding to revoke, suspend, or modify a license by issuing an order to show cause: 
</P>
<P>(1) Stating the alleged violation and proposed enforcement action; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Informing the licensee of his right, within 20 days or other specified time, to file a written answer and demand a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) An answer consenting to the proposed enforcement action shall constitute a waiver by the licensee of a hearing and of all rights to seek further Commission or judicial review. 
</P>
<P>(c) The order to show cause may be omitted and an order issued to revoke, suspend, or modify the license in cases where the Commission determines that the violation is willful or that the public health, safety, or interest so requires. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.63" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.63   Order for revocation, suspension, or modification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to an alleged violation described in § 110.60, the Commission may revoke, suspend, or modify a license by issuing an order: 
</P>
<P>(1) Stating the violation and the effective date of the proposed enforcement action; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Informing the licensee of his right, within 20 days or other specified time, to file a written answer and demand a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) If an answer is not filed within the time specified, the enforcement action will become effective and permanent as proposed. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely answer is filed, the Commission, after considering the answer, will issue an order dismissing the proceeding, staying the effectiveness of the order or taking other appropriate action. 
</P>
<P>(d) The order may be made effective immediately, with reasons stated, pending further hearing and order, when the Commission determines that the violation is willful or that the public health, safety, or interest so requires. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.64" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.64   Civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a violation, the Commission may institute a proceeding to impose a civil penalty under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act by issuing a notice to the licensee: 
</P>
<P>(1) Stating the alleged violation and the amount of the proposed penalty; 
</P>
<P>(2) Informing the licensee of his right, within 20 days or other specified time, to file a written answer; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Advising that a delinquent payment for a subsequently imposed penalty may be referred to the Attorney General for collection pursuant to section 234c. of the Atomic Energy Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) If an answer is not filed within the time specified, the Commission will issue an order imposing the proposed penalty. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a timely answer is filed, the Commission, after considering the answer, will issue an order dismissing the proceeding or imposing a penalty subject to any required hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) If an order imposing a civil penalty is issued, the licensee may request a hearing within 20 days or other specified time. 
</P>
<P>(e) Except when the matter has been referred to the Attorney General for collection, payment of penalties shall be made in U.S. funds using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) An enforcement action to impose a civil penalty will not itself revoke, modify, or suspend any license under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 62 FR 27495, May 20, 1997; 89 FR 51810, June 20, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.65" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.65   Settlement and compromise.</HEAD>
<P>At any time after issuance of an order for any enforcement action under this subpart, an agreement may be entered into for settlement of the proceeding or compromise of a penalty. Upon approval by the Commission, or presiding officer if a hearing has been requested, the terms of the settlement or compromise will be embodied in the order disposing of the enforcement action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.66" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6.133.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.66   Enforcement hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the licensee demands a hearing, the Commission will issue an order specifying the time and place. 
</P>
<P>(b) A hearing pursuant to this subpart will be conducted under the procedures in subpart G of part 2 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 75 FR 44093, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.67" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.6.133.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.67   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b., 161i., or 161o. of the Atomic Energy Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in 10 CFR part 110 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 110 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 110.1, 110.2, 110.3, 110.4, 110.7, 110.10, 110.11, 110.30, 110.31, 110.32, 110.40, 110.41, 110.42, 110.43, 110.44, 110.45, 110.46, 110.51, 110.52, 110.60, 110.61, 110.62, 110.63, 110.64, 110.65, 110.66, 110.67, 110.70, 110.71, 110.72, 110.73, 110.80, 110.81, 110.82, 110.83, 110.84, 110.85, 110.86, 110.87, 110.88, 110.89, 110.90, 110.91, 110.100, 110.101, 110.102, 110.103, 110.104, 110.105, 110.106, 110.107, 110.108, 110.109, 110.110, 110.111, 110.112, 110.113, 110.120, 110.122, 110.124, 110.130, 110.131, 110.132, 110.133, 110.134, and 110.135. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55080, Nov. 24, 1992; 57 FR 62605, Dec. 31, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 37565, July 21, 1995; 75 FR 44093, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Public Notification and Availability of Documents and Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.70" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.7.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.70   Public notice of receipt of an application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will notice the receipt of each license application, including applications for amendment or renewal, for an export or import for which a specific license is required by making a copy available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission will also publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of receipt of each license application, including applications for amendment or renewal, to export the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A production or utilization facility.
</P>
<P>(2) Five effective kilograms or more of plutonium, high-enriched uranium or uranium-233.
</P>
<P>(3) 10,000 kilograms or more of heavy water for nuclear end use. (Note: Does not apply to exports of heavy water to Canada for nuclear end use.)
</P>
<P>(4) Nuclear grade graphite for nuclear end use.
</P>
<P>(5) Radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will also publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of receipt of a license application, including applications for amendment or renewal, for an import of radioactive waste for which a specific license is required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44093, July 28, 2010, as amended at 86 FR 55479, Oct. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.7.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.71   Notice of withdrawal of an application.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will notice the withdrawal of an application by making a copy available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 48955, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.7.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.72   Public availability of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Unless exempt from disclosure under part 9 of this chapter, the following documents pertaining to each license and license application for an import or export requiring a specific license under this part will be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room:
</P>
<P>(a) The license application and any requests for amendments; 
</P>
<P>(b) Commission correspondence with the applicant or licensee; 
</P>
<P>(c) <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices; 
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission letter requesting Executive Branch views; 
</P>
<P>(e) Correspondence from the State Department with Executive Branch views; 
</P>
<P>(f) Correspondence from foreign governments and international organizations; 
</P>
<P>(g) Filings pursuant to subpart I and Commission and Executive Branch responses, if any; 
</P>
<P>(h) If a hearing is held, the hearing record and decision; 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of staff conclusions; and 
</P>
<P>(j) The license, requests for license amendments and amendments. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 60 FR 37565, July 21, 1995; 64 FR 48955, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.73" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.7.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.73   Availability of NRC records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commission records under this part will be made available to the public only in accordance with part 9 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Proprietary information provided under this part may be protected under Part 9 and § 2.390(b), (c), and (d) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 69 FR 2281, Jan. 14, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Public Participation Procedures Concerning License Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.80" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.80   Basis for hearings.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures in this part will constitute the exclusive basis for hearings on export and import license applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44093, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.81   Written comments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission encourages written comments from the public regarding export and import license applications. The Commission will consider and, if appropriate, respond to these comments. 
</P>
<P>(b) These comments should be submitted within 30 days after public notice of receipt of the application on the NRC Web site or in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and addressed to the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff.
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission will provide the applicant with a copy of the comments and, if appropriate, a reasonable opportunity for response. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 62 FR 27495, May 20, 1997; 75 FR 44093, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.82" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.82   Hearing request or intervention petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may request a hearing or petition for leave to intervene on a license application for an import or export requiring a specific license.
</P>
<P>(b) Hearing requests and intervention petitions must:
</P>
<P>(1) State the name, address and telephone number of the requestor or petitioner; 
</P>
<P>(2) Set forth the issues sought to be raised; 
</P>
<P>(3) Explain why a hearing or an intervention would be in the public interest and how a hearing or intervention would assist the Commission in making the determinations required by § 110.45.
</P>
<P>(4) Specify, when a person asserts that his interest may be affected, both the facts pertaining to his interest and how it may be affected, with particular reference to the factors in § 110.84. 
</P>
<P>(c) Hearing requests and intervention petitions will be considered timely only if filed not later than:
</P>
<P>(1) 30 days after notice of receipt in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> for those applications published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(2) 30 days after publication of notice on the NRC Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov;</I>
</P>
<P>(3) 30 days after notice of receipt in the Public Document Room; or
</P>
<P>(4) Such other time as may be provided by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 47202, Dec. 3, 1984; 60 FR 37565, July 21, 1995; 60 FR 55183, Oct. 30, 1995; 65 FR 70291, Nov. 22, 2000; 75 FR 44093, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.83" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.83   Answers and replies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise specified by the Commission, an answer to a hearing request or intervention petition may be filed within 30 days after the request or petition has been served.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified by the Commission, a reply to an answer may be filed within 10 days after all timely answers have been filed. 
</P>
<P>(c) Answers and replies should address the factors in § 110.84. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 47203, Dec. 3, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.84" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.84   Commission action on a hearing request or intervention petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In an export licensing proceeding, or in an import licensing proceeding in which a hearing request or intervention petition does not assert or establish an interest which may be affected, the Commission will consider: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether a hearing would be in the public interest; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether a hearing would assist the Commission in making the statutory determinations required by the Atomic Energy Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a hearing request or intervention petition asserts an interest which may be affected, the Commission will consider: 
</P>
<P>(1) The nature of the alleged interest; 
</P>
<P>(2) How that interest relates to issuance or denial; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The possible effect of any order on that interest, including whether the relief requested is within the Commission's authority, and, if so, whether granting relief would redress the alleged injury. 
</P>
<P>(c) Untimely hearing requests or intervention petitions may be denied unless good cause for failure to file on time is established. In reviewing untimely requests or petitions, the Commission will also consider: 
</P>
<P>(1) The availability of other means by which the requestor's or petitioner's interest, if any, will be protected or represented by other participants in a hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which the issues will be broadened or action on the application delayed. 
</P>
<P>(d) Before granting or denying a hearing request or intervention petition, the Commission will review the Executive Branch's views on the license application and may request further information from the petitioner, requester, the Commission staff, the Executive Branch or others.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission will deny a request or petition that pertains solely to matters outside its jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(f) If an issue has been adequately explored in a previous licensing hearing conducted pursuant to this part, a request for a new hearing in connection with that issue will be denied unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) A hearing request or intervention petition establishes that an interest may be affected; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission determines that changed circumstances or new information warrant a new hearing. 
</P>
<P>(g) After consideration of the factors covered by paragraphs (a) through (f), the Commission will issue a notice or order granting or denying a hearing request or intervention petition. Upon the affirmative vote of two Commissioners a hearing will be ordered. A notice granting a hearing will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and will specify whether the hearing will be oral or consist of written comments. A denial notice will set forth the reasons for denial. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 49 FR 47203, Dec. 3, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.85" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.85   Notice of hearing consisting of written comments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice of hearing consisting of written comments will: 
</P>
<P>(1) State the issues to be considered; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the names and addresses of participants; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the time limits for participants and others to submit written views and respond to any written comments; and 
</P>
<P>(4) State any other instructions the Commission deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will give notice of any hearing under this section and § 110.86 to any person who so requests. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.86" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.86   Notice of oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice of oral hearing will: 
</P>
<P>(1) State the time, place and issues to be considered; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide names and addresses of participants; 
</P>
<P>(3) Designate the presiding officer; 
</P>
<P>(4) Specify the time limit for participants and others to indicate whether they wish to present views; and 
</P>
<P>(5) State any other instructions the Commission deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the Commission is not the presiding officer, the notice of oral hearing will also state: 
</P>
<P>(1) When the jurisdiction of the presiding officer commences and terminates; 
</P>
<P>(2) The powers of the presiding officer; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions to the presiding officer to certify promptly the completed hearing record to the Commission without preliminary decision or findings, unless the Commission directs otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.87" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.87   Conditions in a notice or order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice or order granting a hearing or permitting intervention may restrict irrelevant or duplicative testimony, or require common interests to be represented by a single spokesman. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a participant's interests do not extend to all the issues in the hearing, the notice or order may limit his participation accordingly. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless authorized by the Commission, the granting of participation will not broaden the hearing issues. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.88" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.88   Authority of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary is authorized to prescribe time schedules and other procedural arrangements, when not covered by this part, and rule on related procedural requests. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.89" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.89   Filing and service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hearing requests, intervention petitions, answers, replies and accompanying documents must be filed with the Commission by delivery or by mail to the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff or via the E-Filing system, following the procedure set forth in 10 CFR 2.302. Filing by mail is complete upon deposit in the mail. Filing via the E-Filing system is completed by following the requirements described in 10 CFR 2.302(d).
</P>
<P>(b) All filing and Commission notices and orders must be served upon the applicant; the General Counsel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555; the Executive Secretary, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520; and participants if any. Hearing requests, intervention petitions, and answers and replies must be served by the person filing those pleadings.
</P>
<P>(c) Service is completed by:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivering the paper to the person; or leaving it in his office with someone in charge; or, if there is no one in charge, leaving it in a conspicuous place in the office; or, if he has no office or it is closed, leaving it at his usual place of residence with some occupant of suitable age and discretion;
</P>
<P>(2) Following the requirements for E-Filing in 10 CFR 2.305;
</P>
<P>(3) Depositing it in the United States mail, express mail, or expedited delivery service, properly stamped and addressed; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other manner authorized by law, when service cannot be made as provided in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person served and the manner and date of service, shall be shown, and may be made by:
</P>
<P>(1) Written acknowledgment of the person served or an authorized representative;
</P>
<P>(2) The certificate or affidavit of the person making the service; or
</P>
<P>(3) Following the requirements for E-Filing in 10 CFR 2.305.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may make special provisions for service when circumstances warrant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49154, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.90" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.90   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time, the day of the act, event, or default after which the designated period of time begins to run is not included. The last day of the period so computed is included unless it is a Saturday or Sunday, a Federal legal holiday at the place where the action or event is to occur, or a day upon which, because of an emergency closure of the Federal government in Washington, DC, NRC Headquarters does not open for business, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, holiday, or emergency closure.
</P>
<P>(b) In time periods of less than seven (7) days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, Federal legal holidays, and emergency closures are not counted.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever an action is required within a prescribed period by a document served under § 110.89 of this part, no additional time is added to the prescribed period except as set forth in 10 CFR 2.306(b).
</P>
<P>(d) To be considered timely, a document must be served:
</P>
<P>(1) By 5 p.m. Eastern Time for a document served in person or by expedited service; and
</P>
<P>(2) By 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time for a document served by the E-Filing system.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49154, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.91" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.8.133.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.91   Commission consultations.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may consult at any time on a license application with the staff, the Executive Branch or other persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47203, Dec. 3, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.100" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.100   Public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>Hearings under this part will be public unless the Commission directs otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.101" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.101   Filing and service.</HEAD>
<P>Filing and service of hearing documents shall be pursuant to § 110.89. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.102" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.102   Hearing docket.</HEAD>
<P>For each hearing, the Secretary will maintain a docket which will include the hearing transcript, exhibits and all papers filed or issued pursuant to the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.103" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.103   Acceptance of hearing documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each document filed or issued must be clearly legible and bear the docket number, license application number, and hearing title.
</P>
<P>(b) Each document shall be filed in one original and signed by the participant or their authorized representative, with their address and date of signature indicated. The signature is a representation that the document is submitted with full authority, the signer knows its contents, and that, to the best of his knowledge, the statements made in it are true.
</P>
<P>(c) Filings submitted using the E-filing system must follow the requirements outlined in 10 CFR 2.304.
</P>
<P>(d) A document not meeting the requirements of this section may be returned with an explanation for nonacceptance and, if so, will not be docketed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49154, Aug. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.104" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.104   Presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The full Commission will ordinarily be the presiding officer at a hearing under this part. However, the Commission may provide in a hearing notice that one or more Commissioners, or any other person as provided by law, will preside. 
</P>
<P>(b) A participant may submit a written motion for the disqualification of any person presiding. The motion shall be supported by affidavit setting forth the alleged grounds for disqualification. If the presiding officer does not grant the motion or the person does not disqualify himself, the Commission will decide the matter. 
</P>
<P>(c) If any presiding officer designated by the Commission deems himself disqualified, he shall withdraw by notice on the record after notifying the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a presiding officer becomes unavailable, the Commission will designate a replacement. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any motion concerning the designation of a replacement presiding officer shall be made within 5 days after the designation. 
</P>
<P>(f) Unless otherwise ordered by the Commission, the jurisdiction of a presiding officer other than the Commission commences as designated in the hearing notice and terminates upon certification of the hearing record to the Commission, or when the presiding officer is disqualified. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.105" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.105   Responsibility and power of the presiding officer in an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The presiding officer in any oral hearing shall conduct a fair hearing, develop a record that will contribute to informed decisionmaking, and, within the framework of the Commission's orders, have the power necessary to achieve these ends, including the power to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Take action to avoid unnecessary delay and maintain order; 
</P>
<P>(2) Dispose of procedural requests; 
</P>
<P>(3) Question participants and witnesses, and entertain suggestions as to questions which may be asked of participants and witnessess; 
</P>
<P>(4) Order consolidation of participants; 
</P>
<P>(5) Establish the order of presentation; 
</P>
<P>(6) Hold conferences before or during the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(7) Establish reasonable time limits; 
</P>
<P>(8) Limit the number of witnesses; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Strike or reject duplicative or irrelevant presentations. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Commission itself does not preside: 
</P>
<P>(1) The presiding officer may certify questions or refer rulings to the Commission for decision; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any hearing order may be modified by the Commission; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer will certify the completed hearing record to the Commission, which may then issue its opinion on the hearing or provide that additional testimony be presented. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.106" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.106   Participation in a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise limited by this part or by the Commission, participants in a hearing may submit: 
</P>
<P>(1) Initial and concluding written statements of position on the issues; 
</P>
<P>(2) Written questions to the presiding officer; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Written responses and rebuttal testimony to the statements of other participants. 
</P>
<P>(b) Participants in an oral hearing may also submit oral statements, questions, responses and rebuttal testimony. 
</P>
<P>(c) A participant in an import licensing hearing establishing that his interest may be affected, may be accorded additional procedural rights under subpart G of part 2 with respect to resolution of domestic factual issues regarding the public health, safety and environment of the United States, and the protection of the United States public against domestic theft, diversion or sabotage, to the extent that such issues are separable from the nondomestic issues associated with the license application. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.107" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.107   Presentation of testimony in an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All direct testimony in an oral hearing shall be filed no later than 7 days before the hearing or as otherwise ordered or allowed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Written testimony will be received into evidence in exhibit form. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless proscribed under § 110.87, members of groups which are designated as participants may testify in their individual capacities. 
</P>
<P>(d) Participants may present their own witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(e) Testimony by the Commission and the Executive Branch will be presented only by persons officially designated for that purpose. 
</P>
<P>(f) Participants and witnesses will be questioned orally or in writing and only by the presiding officer. Questions may be addressed to individuals or to panels of participants or witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(g) The presiding officer may accept written testimony from a person unable to appear at the hearing, and may request him to respond to questions. 
</P>
<P>(h) No subpoenas will be granted at the request of participants for attendance and testimony of participants or witnesses or the production of evidence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.108" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.108   Appearance in an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant may appear in a hearing on his own behalf or be represented by an authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person appearing shall file a written notice stating his name, address and telephone number, and if an authorized representative, the basis of his eligibility and the name and address of the participant on whose behalf he appears. 
</P>
<P>(c) A person may be excluded from a hearing for disorderly, dilatory or contemptuous conduct, provided he is informed of the grounds and given an opportunity to respond. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.109" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.109   Motions and requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Motions and requests shall be addressed to the presiding officer, and, if written, also filed with the Secretary and served on other participants. 
</P>
<P>(b) Other participants may respond to the motion or request. Responses to written motions or requests shall be filed within 5 days after service. 
</P>
<P>(c) When the Commission does not preside, in response to a motion or request, the presiding officer may refer a ruling or certify a question to the Commission for decision and notify the participants. 
</P>
<P>(d) Unless otherwise ordered by the Commission, a motion or request, or the certification of a question or referral of a ruling, shall not stay or extend any aspect of the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.110" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.110   Default.</HEAD>
<P>When a participant fails to act within a specified time, the presiding officer may consider him in default, issue an appropriate ruling and proceed without further notice to the defaulting participant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.111" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.111   Waiver of a rule or regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant may petition that a Commission rule or regulation be waived with respect to the license application under consideration. 
</P>
<P>(b) The sole ground for a waiver shall be that, because of special circumstances concerning the subject of the hearing, application of a rule or regulation would not serve the purposes for which it was adopted. 
</P>
<P>(c) Waiver petition shall specify why application of the rule or regulation would not serve the purposes for which it was adopted. 
</P>
<P>(d) Other participants may, within 10 days, file a response to a waiver petition. 
</P>
<P>(e) When the Commission does not preside, the presiding officer will certify the waiver petition to the Commission, which, in response, will grant or deny the waiver or direct any further proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(f) Regardless of whether a waiver is granted or denied, a separate petition for rulemaking may be filed pursuant to subpart K of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 62 FR 59277, Nov. 3, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.112" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.112   Reporter and transcript for an oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A reporter designated by the Commission will record an oral hearing and prepare the official hearing transcript. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except for any portions containing classified information, Restricted Data, Safeguards Information, proprietary information, or other sensitive unclassified information, transcripts will be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and/or at the NRC Public Document Room.
</P>
<P>(c) Corrections of the official transcript may be made only as specified by the Secretary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 64 FR 48955, Sept. 9, 1999; 75 FR 44093, July 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.113" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.9.133.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.113   Commission action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon completion of a hearing, the Commission will issue a written opinion including its decision on the license application, the reasons for the decision and any dissenting views. 
</P>
<P>(b) While the Commission will consider fully the hearing record, the licensing decision will be based on all relevant information, including information which might go beyond that in the hearing record. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the Commission considers information not in the hearing record in reaching its licensing decision, the hearing participants will be informed and, if not classified or otherwise privileged, the information will be made available at the NRC Web site, <I>http://www.nrc.gov,</I> and furnished to the participants.
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission may issue a license before completion of a hearing if it finds that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Prompt issuance is required in the public interest, particularly the common defense and security; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A participant establishing that his interest may be affected has been provided a fair opportunity to present his views. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Defer any hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Consolidate applications for hearing; 
</P>
<P>(3) Narrow or broaden the hearing issues; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Take other action, as appropriate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 64 FR 48955, Sept. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Special Procedures for Classified Information in Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.120" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.10.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.120   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart contains special procedures concerning access to, and introduction of, classified information into hearings under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) These procedures do not in any way apply to classified information exchanged between the Executive Branch and the Commission not introduced into a hearing. Such information will be declassified to the maximum extent feasible. The public statements of the Commission staff and Executive Branch will, to the extent consistent with classification requirements, reflect consideration of any such classified information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.121" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.10.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.121   Security clearances and access to classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person without a security clearance will have access to classified information. 
</P>
<P>(b) Only the Commission will act upon an application for access to classified information. 
</P>
<P>(c) To the extent practicable, applications for access to classified information shall describe the information to which access is desired and its level of classification (confidential, secret or other); the reasons for requesting access; the names of individuals for whom access is requested; and the reasons why access is requested for those individuals. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Commission will consider requests for appropriate security clearances in reasonable numbers; conduct its review and grant or deny these in accordance with part 10 of this chapter; and make a reasonable charge to cover costs. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission will not grant security clearances for access to classified information, unless it determines that the available unclassified information is inadequate on the subject matter involved. 
</P>
<P>(f) When an application demonstrates that access to classified information not introduced into a hearing may be needed to prepare a participant's position on the hearing issues, the Commission may issue an order granting access to this information to the participant, his authorized representative or other persons. Access will be subject to the conditions in paragraphs (e) and (j) and will not be granted unless required security clearances have been obtained. 
</P>
<P>(g) Once classified information has been introduced into a hearing, the Commission will grant access to a participant, his authorized representative or such other persons as the Commission determines may be needed by the participant to prepare his position on the hearing issues. Access will be subject to the conditions in paragraphs (e) and (j) of this section and will not be granted unless required security clearances have been obtained. 
</P>
<P>(h) For good cause, the Commission may postpone action upon an application for access to classified information. 
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission will grant access to classified information only up to the level for which the persons described in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section are cleared and only upon an adequate commitment by them not to disclose such information subject to penalties as provided by law. 
</P>
<P>(j) The Commission will not in any circumstances grant access to classified information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Unless it determines that the grant is not inimical to the common defense and security; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Which it has received from another Government agency, without the prior consent of the originating agency. 
</P>
<P>(k) Upon completion of a hearing, the Commission will terminate all security clearances granted pursuant to the hearing and may require the disposal of classified information to which access has been granted or the observance of other procedures to safeguard this information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.122" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.10.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.122   Classification assistance.</HEAD>
<P>On the request of any hearing participant or the presiding officer (if other than the Commission), the Commission will designate a representative to advise and assist the presiding officer or the participants with respect to security classification of information and the protective requirements to be observed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.123" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.10.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.123   Notice of intent to introduce classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant shall seek the required security clearances, where necessary, and file with the Secretary a notice of intent to introduce classified information into a hearing at the earliest possible time after the notice of hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a participant has not filed a notice of intent in accordance with this section, he may introduce classified information only if he gives to the other participants and the Commission prompt written notice of intent and only as permitted by the Commission when it determines that the public interest will not be prejudiced. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notice of intent shall be unclassified and, to the extent consistent with classification requirements, state: 
</P>
<P>(1) The subject matter of the classified information, which it is anticipated will be involved; 
</P>
<P>(2) The highest level of classification of the information (confidential, secret or other); 
</P>
<P>(3) When it is anticipated that the information would be introduced; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The relevance and materiality of the information to the hearing issues. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.124" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.10.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.124   Rearrangement or suspension of a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>When a participant gives notice of intent to introduce classified information and other participants do not have the required security clearances, subject to § 110.121, the Commission may: 
</P>
<P>(a) Suspend or rearrange the normal order of the hearing to give other participants an opportunity to obtain the required security clearances with minimum delay in the conduct of the hearing; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Take such other action as it determines to be in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.125" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.10.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.125   Unclassified statements required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the obligation of hearing participants to introduce information in unclassified form wherever possible, and to declassify, to the maximum extent feasible, any classified information introduced into the hearing. This obligation rests on each participant whether or not any other participant has the required security clearances. 
</P>
<P>(b) When classified information is offered for introduction into a hearing: 
</P>
<P>(1) The participant offering it shall, to the extent consistent with classification requirements, submit to the presiding officer and other participants an unclassified statement describing the substance of the classified information as accurately and completely as possible; 
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with procedures agreed upon by the participants or prescribed by the presiding officer, and after notice to all participants and opportunity to be heard on the notice, the presiding officer will determine whether an unclassified statement may be substituted for the classified information in the hearing record without prejudice to the interest of any participant or the public; 
</P>
<P>(3) If the Commission determines that the unclassified statement (together with such unclassified modifications as it finds are necessary or appropriate to protect the interest of other participants and the public) adequately sets forth information in the classified matter which is relevant and material to the issues in the hearing, it will direct that the classified matter be excluded from the record of the hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The Commission may postpone any of the procedures in this section until all other evidence has been received. However, a participant shall not postpone service of any unclassified statement required in this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.126" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.10.133.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.126   Protection of classified information.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart shall relieve any person from safeguarding classified information as required by law and rules, regulations or orders of any Government agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Rulemaking</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.130" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.130   Initiation of rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may initiate action to amend the regulations in this part on its own initiative or in response to a petition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.131" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.131   Petition for rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for rulemaking should be addressed to the Secretary of the Commission, for the attention of the Secretary's Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff. The petition should be sent using an appropriate method listed in § 110.4. 
</P>
<P>(b) The petition shall state the basis for the requested amendment. 
</P>
<P>(c) The petition may request the Commission to suspend all or part of any licensing proceeding under this part pending disposition of the petition. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary will assign a docket number to the petition, place a copy in the Public Document Room and notice its receipt in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(e) Publication may be limited by order of the Commission to the extent required by section 181 of the Atomic Energy Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978, as amended at 63 FR 15744, Apr. 1, 1998; 68 FR 58824, Oct. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.132" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.132   Commission action on a petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may grant or deny the petition in whole or in part. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the petition is granted, a notice of proposed rulemaking or a notice of rulemaking will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) If the petition is denied, the petitioner will be informed of the grounds. 
</P>
<P>(d) Commission action on a petition will normally follow, whenever appropriate, receipt and evaluation of Executive Branch views. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission, in exercising the discretion authorized by section 4(a)(1) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553(a)(1)), will decide what, if any, public rulemaking procedures will be followed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.133" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.133   Notice of proposed rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Commission proposes to amend the regulations in this part, it will normally publish a notice of proposed rulemaking in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of proposed rulemaking will include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The authority for the proposed rule; 
</P>
<P>(2) The substance and purpose of the proposed rule; 
</P>
<P>(3) Directions for public participation; 
</P>
<P>(4) The time and place of any public hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(5) If a hearing is to be held by other than the Commission, designating of a presiding officer and instructions for the conduct of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of proposed rulemaking will be published not less than 15 days before any hearing, unless the Commission for good cause provides otherwise in the notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.134" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.134   Public participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may hold an oral hearing on a proposed rule or permit any person to participate in a rulemaking proceeding through the submission of written comments. 
</P>
<P>(b) When it is in the public interest and is authorized by law, public rule-making procedures may be omitted and a notice of rulemaking published pursuant to § 110.135. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 110.135" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 110.135   Notice of rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon approval of an amendment, the Commission will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of rule-making which includes a statement of its basis and purpose, effective date and, where appropriate, any significant variations from the amendment as proposed in any notice of proposed rulemaking. 
</P>
<P>(b) The effective date of an amendment will normally be no earlier than 30 days after publication of the notice of rulemaking, unless the Commission for good cause provides otherwise in the notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 110—Illustrative List of Nuclear Reactor Equipment Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>A nuclear reactor basically includes the items within or attached directly to the reactor vessel, the equipment which controls the level of power in the core, and the components which normally contain or come in direct contact with or control the primary coolant of the reactor core.</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) Reactor pressure vessels, <I>i.e.</I>, metal vessels, as complete units or major shop-fabricated parts, especially designed or prepared to contain the core of a nuclear reactor and capable of withstanding the operating pressure of the primary coolant.
</P>
<P>(2) On-line (e.g., CANDU) reactor fuel charging and discharging machines, <I>i.e.</I>, manipulative equipment especially designed for inserting or removing fuel in an operating nuclear reactor.
</P>
<P>(3) Complete reactor control rod system, <I>i.e.</I>, rods especially designed or prepared for the control of the reaction rate in a nuclear reactor, including the neutron absorbing part and the support or suspension structures therefor.
</P>
<P>(4) Reactor primary coolant pumps or circulators, <I>i.e.</I>, pumps or circulators especially designed or prepared for circulating the primary coolant in a nuclear reactor.
</P>
<P>(5) Reactor pressure tubes, <I>i.e.</I>, tubes especially designed or prepared to contain both fuel elements and the primary coolant in a nuclear reactor.
</P>
<P>(6) Zirconium tubes, <I>i.e.</I>, zirconium metal and alloys in the form of tubes or assemblies of tubes especially designed or prepared for use as fuel cladding in a nuclear reactor.
</P>
<P>(7) Reactor internals, e.g., core support structures, control and rod guide tubes, fuel channels, calandria tubes, thermal shields, baffles, core grid plates, and diffuser plates especially designed or prepared for use in a nuclear reactor.
</P>
<P>(8) Reactor control rod drive mechanisms, including detection and measuring equipment to determine neutron flux levels within the core of a nuclear reactor.
</P>
<P>(9) Heat exchangers, e.g., steam generators especially designed or prepared for the primary, or intermediate, coolant circuit of a nuclear reactor or heat exchangers especially designed or prepared for use in the primary coolant circuit of a nuclear reactor.
</P>
<P>(10) External thermal shields especially designed or prepared for use in a nuclear reactor for reduction of heat loss and also for containment vessel protection.
</P>
<P>(11) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a nuclear reactor or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39291, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 110—Illustrative List of Gas Centrifuge Enrichment Plant Components Under NRC's Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Assemblies and components especially designed or prepared for use in gas centrifuges.</I>


</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The gas centrifuge normally consists of a thin-walled cylinder(s) of between 75 mm and 650 mm diameter contained in a vacuum environment and spun at high peripheral speed (of the order of 300 m/per second and more) with the central axis vertical. In order to achieve high speed, the materials of construction for the rotating rotor assembly, and hence its individual components, have to be manufactured to very close tolerances in order to minimize the unbalance. In contrast to other centrifuges, the gas centrifuge for uranium enrichment is characterized by having within the rotor chamber a rotating disc-shaped baffle(s) and a stationary tube arrangement for feeding and extracting uranium hexafluoride (UF<E T="52">6</E>) gas and featuring at least three separate channels of which two are connected to scoops extending from the rotor axis towards the periphery of the rotor chamber. Also contained within the vacuum environment are a number of critical items which do not rotate and which, although they are especially designed, are not difficult to fabricate nor are they fabricated out of unique materials. A centrifuge facility, however, requires a large number of these components so that quantities can provide an important indication of end use.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>1.1 Rotating Components
</HD3>
<P>(a) Complete Rotor Assemblies: Thin-walled cylinders, or a number of interconnected thin-walled cylinders, manufactured from one of the high strength-to-density ratio materials described in the footnote to this section.
</P>
<P>If interconnected, the cylinders are joined together by flexible bellows or rings as described in § 1.1(c) of this appendix. The rotor is fitted with an internal baffle(s) and end caps, as described in § 1.1(d) and (e) of this appendix, if in final form. However, the complete assembly may be delivered only partly assembled.
</P>
<P>(b) Rotor Tubes: Especially designed or prepared thin-walled cylinders with thickness of 12 mm or less, a diameter of between 75 mm and 650 mm, and manufactured from one of the high strength-to-density ratio materials described in the footnote to this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Rings or Bellows: Components especially designed or prepared to give localized support to the rotor tube or to join together a number of rotor tubes. The bellows in a short cylinder of wall thickness 3 mm or less, a diameter of between 75 mm and 650 mm, having a convolute, and manufactured from one of the high strength-to-density ratio materials described in the footnote to this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Baffles: Disc shaped components of between 75 mm and 650 mm diameter especially designed or prepared to be mounted inside the centrifuge rotor tube, in order to isolate the take-off chamber from the main separation chamber and, in some cases, to assist the UF<E T="52">6</E> gas circulation within the main separation chamber of the rotor tube, and manufactured from one of the high strength-to-density ratio materials described in the footnote to this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Top Caps/Bottom Caps: Disc shaped components of between 75 mm and 650 mm diameter especially designed or prepared to fit to the ends of the rotor tube, and so contain the UF<E T="52">6</E> within the rotor tube, and in some cases to support, retain or contain as an integrated part, an element of the upper bearing (top cap) or to carry the rotating elements of the motor and lower bearing (bottom cap), and manufactured from one of the high strength-to-density ratio materials described in the footnote to this section.
</P>
<HD3>Footnote
</HD3>
<P>The materials used for centrifuge rotating components include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Maraging steel capable of an ultimate tensile strength of 1.95 GPa or more.
</P>
<P>(b) Aluminum alloys capable of an ultimate tensile strength of 0.46 GPa or more.
</P>
<P>(c) Filamentary materials suitable for use in composite structures and having a specific modulus of 3.18 × 10
<SU>6</SU> m or greater and a specific ultimate tensile strength of 7.62 × 10
<SU>4</SU> m or greater.
</P>
<FP>(“Specific Modulus” is the Young's modulus in N/m
<SU>2</SU> divided by the specific weight inN/m
<SU>3</SU> when measured at a temperature of 23 ±20 °C and a relative humidity of 50 ±5 percent. “Specific tensile strength” is the ultimate tensile strength in N/m
<SU>2</SU> divided by the specific weight in N/m
<SU>3</SU> when measured at a temperature of 23 ±20 °C and a relative humidity of 50 ±5 percent.)
</FP>
<HD3>1.2 Static Components
</HD3>
<P>(a) Magnetic Suspension Bearings: 1. Especially designed or prepared bearing assemblies consisting of an annular magnet suspended within a housing containing a damping medium. The housing will be manufactured from a UF<E T="52">6</E> resistant material (see footnote to § 2 of this appendix). The magnet couples with a pole piece or a second magnet fitted to the top cap described in § 1.1(e) of this appendix. The magnet may be ring-shaped with a relation between outer and inner diameter smaller or equal to 1.6:1. The magnet may be in a form having an initial permeability of 0.15 Henry/meter or more, or a remanence of 98.5 percent or more, or an energy product of greater than 80,000 joules/m
<SU>3</SU>. In addition to the usual material properties, it is a prerequisite that the deviation of the magnetic axes from the geometrical axes is limited to very small tolerances (lower than 0.1 mm) or that homogeneity of the material of the magnet is specially called for.
</P>
<P>2. Active magnetic bearings especially designed or prepared for use with gas centrifuges. These bearings usually have the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) Designed to keep centred a rotor spinning at 600 Hz or more; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Associated to a reliable electrical power supply and/or to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit in order to function for more than 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(b) Bearings/Dampers: Especially designed or prepared bearings comprising a pivot/cup assembly mounted on a damper. The pivot is normally a hardened steel shaft polished into a hemisphere at one end with a means of attachment to the bottom cap described in § 1.1(e) of this appendix at the other. The shaft may, however, have a hydrodynamic bearing attached. The cup is pellet-shaped with hemispherical indentation in one surface. These components are often supplied separately to the damper.
</P>
<P>(c) Molecular Pumps: Especially designed or prepared cylinders having internally machined or extruded helical grooves and internally machined bores. Typical dimensions are as follows: 75 mm to 650 mm internal diameter, 10 mm or more wall thickness, with a length equal to or greater than the diameter. The grooves are typically rectangular in cross-section and 2 mm or more in depth.
</P>
<P>(d) Motor Stators: Especially designed or prepared ring shaped stators for high speed multi-phase alternating current (AC) hysteresis (or reluctance) motors for synchronous operation within a vacuum at a frequency of 600 Hz or greater and a power of 40 volts amps or greater. The stators may consist of multi-phase windings on a laminated low loss iron core comprised of thin layers typically 2.0 mm thick or less.
</P>
<P>(e) Centrifuge housing/recipients: Components especially designed or prepared to contain the rotor tube assembly of a gas centrifuge. The housing consists of a rigid cylinder of wall thickness up to 30 mm with precision machined ends to locate the bearings and with one or more flanges for mounting. The machined ends are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the cylinder's longitudinal axis to within 0.05 degrees or less. The housing may also be a honeycomb type structure to accommodate several rotor tubes.
</P>
<P>(f) Scoops: Especially designed or prepared tubes for the extraction of UF<E T="52">6</E> gas from within the rotor tube by a Pitot tube action (that is, with an aperture facing into the circumferential gas flow within the rotor tube, for example by bending the end of a radially disposed tube) and capable of being fixed to the central gas extraction system.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Especially designed or prepared auxiliary systems, equipment, and components for gas centrifuge enrichment plants.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The auxiliary systems, equipment, and components for a gas centrifuge enrichment plant are the systems of the plant needed to feed UF<E T="52">6</E> to the centrifuges to link the individual centrifuges to each other to form cascades (or stages) to allow for progressively higher enrichments and to extract the product and tails of UF<E T="52">6</E> from the centrifuges, together with the equipment required to drive the centrifuges or to control the plant.</P></NOTE>
<P>Normally UF<E T="52">6</E> is evaporated from the solid using heated autoclaves and is distributed in gaseous form to the centrifuges by way of cascade header pipework. The “product” and “tails” of UF<E T="52">6</E> gaseous streams flowing from the centrifuges are also passed by way of cascade header pipework to cold traps (operating at about 203 K (−70 °C)) where they are condensed prior to onward transfer into suitable containers for transportation or storage. Because an enrichment plant consists of many thousands of centrifuges arranged in cascades, there are many kilometers of cascade header pipework incorporating thousands of welds with a substantial amount of repetition of layout. The equipment, component and piping systems are fabricated to very high vacuum and cleanliness standards.
</P>
<P>Some of the items listed below either come into direct contact with the UF<E T="52">6</E> process gas or directly control the centrifuges and the passage of the gas from centrifuge to centrifuge and cascade to cascade. Materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> include copper, copper alloys, stainless steel, aluminum, aluminum oxide, aluminum alloys, nickel or alloys containing 60 percent or more nickel, and fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers.
</P>
<P>(a) Feed Systems/Product and Tails Withdrawal Systems: Especially designed or prepared process systems or equipment for enrichment plants made of or protected by materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> including:
</P>
<P>1. Feed autoclaves, ovens, or systems used for passing UF<E T="52">6</E> to the enrichment process.
</P>
<P>2. Desublimers, cold traps, or pumps used to remove UF<E T="52">6</E> from the enrichment process for subsequent transfer upon heating.
</P>
<P>3. Solidification or liquefaction stations used to remove UF<E T="52">6</E> from the enrichment process by compressing and converting UF<E T="52">6</E> to a liquid or solid form.
</P>
<P>4. “Product” and “tails” stations used for transferring UF<E T="52">6</E> into containers.
</P>
<P>(b) Machine Header Piping Systems: Especially designed or prepared piping systems and header systems for handling UF<E T="52">6</E> within the centrifuge cascades.
</P>
<P>This piping network is normally of the “triple” header system with each centrifuge connected to each of the headers. There is therefore a substantial amount of repetition in its form. It is wholly made of or protected by UF<E T="52">6</E> resistant materials (see Note to this section) and is fabricated to very high vacuum and cleanliness standards.
</P>
<P>(c) Special shut-off and control valves:
</P>
<P>1. Shut-off valves especially designed or prepared to act on the feed, “product” or “tails” UF<E T="52">6</E> gaseous streams of an individual gas centrifuge.
</P>
<P>2. Bellows-sealed valves, manual or automated, shut-off or control, made of or protected by materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>, with an inside diameter of 10 to 160 mm, especially designed or prepared for use in main or auxiliary systems of gas centrifuge enrichment plants.
</P>
<P>Typical especially designed or prepared valves include bellow-sealed valves, fast acting closure-types, fast acting valves, and others.
</P>
<P>(d) UF<E T="52">6</E> Mass Spectrometers/Ion Sources: Especially designed or prepared mass spectrometers capable of taking on-line samples from UF<E T="52">6</E> gas streams and having all of the following:
</P>
<P>1. Capable of measuring ions of 320 atomic mass units or greater and having a resolution of better than 1 part in 320.
</P>
<P>2. Ion sources constructed of or protected by nickel, nickel-copper alloys with a nickel content of 60 percent or more by weight, or nickel-chrome alloys.
</P>
<P>3. Electron bombardment ionization sources.
</P>
<P>4. Having a collector system suitable for isotope analysis.
</P>
<P>(e) Frequency Changers: Frequency changers (also known as converters or inverters) especially designed or prepared to supply motor stators as defined under § 1.2(d) of this appendix, or parts, components, and subassemblies of such frequency changers having all of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>1. A multiphase output of 600 Hz or greater; and
</P>
<P>2. High stability (with frequency control better than 0.2 percent).
</P>
<P>(f) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a gas centrifuge enrichment plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39291, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 110—Illustrative List of Gaseous Diffusion Enrichment Plant Assemblies and Components Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In the gaseous diffusion method of uranium isotope separation, the main technological assembly is a special porous gaseous diffusion barrier, heat exchanger for cooling the gas (which is heated by the process of compression), seal valves and control valves, and pipelines. Inasmuch as gaseous diffusion technology uses uranium hexafluoride (UF<E T="52">6</E>), all equipment, pipeline and instrumentation surfaces (that come in contact with the gas) must be made of materials that remain stable in contact with UF<E T="52">6</E>. A gaseous diffusion facility requires a number of these assemblies, so that quantities can provide an important indication of end use.</P></NOTE>
<P>The auxiliary systems, equipment, and components for gaseous diffusion enrichment plants are the systems of plant needed to feed UF<E T="52">6</E> to the gaseous diffusion assembly to link the individual assemblies to each other to form cascades (or stages) to allow for progressively higher enrichments and to extract the “product” and “tails” UF<E T="52">6</E> from the diffusion cascades. Because of the high inertial properties of diffusion cascades, any interruption in their operation, and especially their shut-down, leads to serious consequences. Therefore, a strict and constant maintenance of vacuum in all technological systems, automatic protection for accidents, and precise automated regulation of the gas flow is of importance in a gaseous diffusion plant. All this leads to a need to equip the plant with a large number of special measuring, regulating, and controlling systems.
</P>
<P>Normally UF<E T="52">6</E> is evaporated from cylinders placed within autoclaves and is distributed in gaseous form to the entry point by way of cascade header pipework. The “product” and “tails” UF<E T="52">6</E> gaseous streams flowing from exit points are passed by way of cascade header pipework to either cold traps or to compression stations where the UF<E T="52">6</E> gas is liquified prior to onward transfer into suitable containers for transportation or storage. Because a gaseous diffusion enrichment plant consists of a large number of gaseous diffusion assemblies arranged in cascades, there are many kilometers of cascade header pipework, incorporating thousands of welds with substantial amounts of repetition of layout. The equipment, components, and piping systems are fabricated to very high vacuum and cleanliness standards.
</P>
<P>The items listed below either come into direct contact with the UF<E T="52">6</E> process gas or directly control the flow within the cascade. All surfaces which come into contact with the process gas are wholly made of, or lined with, UF<E T="52">6</E>-resistant materials. For the purposes of this appendix, the materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> include copper, copper alloys, stainless steel, aluminum, aluminum oxide, aluminum alloys, nickel or alloys containing 60 percent or more nickel and fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers.
</P>
<P>1. Assemblies and components especially designed or prepared for use in gaseous diffusion enrichment.
</P>
<HD3>1.1 Gaseous Diffusion Barriers and Barrier Materials
</HD3>
<P>(a) Especially designed or prepared thin, porous filters, with a pore size of 10-100 nm, a thickness of 5 mm or less, and for tubular forms, a diameter of 25 mm or less, made of metallic, polymer or ceramic materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> (See Note in § 2 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>(b) Especially prepared compounds or powders for the manufacture of such filters. Such compounds and powders include nickel or alloys containing 60 percent or more nickel, aluminum oxide, or UF<E T="52">6</E>-resistant fully fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers having a purity of 99.9 percent by weight or more, a particle size less than 10 µm, and a high degree of particle size uniformity, which are especially prepared for the manufacture of gaseous diffusion barriers.
</P>
<HD3>1.2 Diffuser Housings
</HD3>
<P>Especially designed or prepared hermetically sealed vessels for containing the gaseous diffusion barrier, made of or protected by UF<E T="52">6</E>-resistant materials (See Note in § 2 of this appendix).
</P>
<HD3>1.3 Compressors and Gas Blowers
</HD3>
<P>Especially designed or prepared compressors or gas blowers with a suction volume capacity of 1 m
<SU>3</SU> per minute or more of UF<E T="52">6</E>, and with a discharge pressure of up to 500 kPa, designed for long-term operation in the UF<E T="52">6</E> environment, as well as separate assemblies of such compressors and gas blowers. These compressors and gas blowers have a pressure ratio of 10:1 or less and are made of, or protected by, materials resistant to UF<E T="52">6</E> (See Note in § 2 of this appendix).
</P>
<HD3>1.4 Rotary Shaft Seals
</HD3>
<P>Especially designed or prepared vacuum seals, with seal feed and seal exhaust connections, for sealing the shaft connecting the compressor or the gas blower rotor with the driver motor so as to ensure a reliable seal against in-leaking of air into the inner chamber of the compressor or gas blower which is filled with UF<E T="52">6</E>. Such seals are normally designed for a buffer gas in-leakage rate of less than 1000 cm
<SU>3</SU> per minute.
</P>
<HD3>1.5 Heat Exchangers for Cooling UF<E T="52">6</E>
</HD3>
<P>Especially designed or prepared heat exchangers made of or protected by UF<E T="52">6</E> resistant materials (see Note to § 2 of this appendix) and intended for a leakage pressure change rate of less than 10 Pa per hour under a pressure difference of 100 kPa.
</P>
<P>2. Auxiliary systems, equipment, and components especially designed or prepared for use in gaseous diffusion enrichment.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The items listed below either come into direct contact with the UF<E T="52">6</E> process gas or directly control the flow within the cascade. Materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> include copper, copper alloys, stainless steel, aluminum, aluminum oxide, aluminum alloys, nickel or alloys containing 60 percent or more nickel, and fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>2.1 Feed Systems/Product and Tails Withdrawal Systems
</HD3>
<P>Especially designed or prepared process systems or equipment for enrichment plants made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Feed autoclaves, ovens, or systems used for passing UF<E T="52">6</E> to the enrichment process;
</P>
<P>(2) Desublimers, cold traps, or pumps used to remove UF<E T="52">6</E> from the enrichment process for subsequent transfer upon heating;
</P>
<P>(3) Solidification or liquefaction stations used to remove UF<E T="52">6</E> from the enrichment process by compressing and converting UF<E T="52">6</E> to a liquid or solid form;
</P>
<P>(4) “Product” or “tails” stations used for transferring UF<E T="52">6</E> into containers.
</P>
<HD3>2.2 Header Piping Systems
</HD3>
<P>Especially designed or prepared piping systems and header systems for handling UF<E T="52">6</E> within the gaseous diffusion cascades. This piping network is normally of the “double” header system with each cell connected to each of the headers.
</P>
<HD3>2.3 Vacuum Systems
</HD3>
<P>(a) Especially designed or prepared vacuum manifolds, vacuum headers and vacuum pumps having a suction capacity of 5 m
<SU>3</SU> per minute or more.
</P>
<P>(b) Vacuum pumps especially designed for service in UF<E T="52">6</E>-bearing atmospheres made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> (See Note to this section). These pumps may be either rotary or positive displacement, may have fluorocarbon seals, and may have special working fluids present.
</P>
<HD3>2.4 Special Shut-Off and Control Valves
</HD3>
<P>Especially designed or prepared bellows-sealed valves, manual or automated, shut-off or control valves, made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>, for installation in main and auxiliary systems of gaseous diffusion enrichment plants.
</P>
<HD3>2.5 UF<E T="52">6</E> Mass Spectrometers/Ion Sources
</HD3>
<P>Especially designed or prepared mass spectrometers capable of taking on-line samples from UF<E T="52">6</E> gas streams and having all of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Capable of measuring ions of 320 atomic mass units or greater and having a resolution of better than 1 part in 320;
</P>
<P>(b) ion sources constructed of or protected by nickel, nickel-copper alloys with a nickel content of 60 percent or more by weight, or nickel-chrome alloys;
</P>
<P>(c) electron bombardment ionization sources; and
</P>
<P>(d) having a collector system suitable for isotopic analysis.
</P>
<P>3. Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a gaseous diffusion enrichment plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39293, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 110—Illustrative List of Aerodynamic Enrichment Plant Equipment and Components Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In aerodynamic enrichment processes, a mixture of gaseous UF<E T="52">6</E> and light gas (hydrogen or helium) is compressed and then passed through separating elements wherein isotopic separation is accomplished by the generation of high centrifugal forces over a curved-wall geometry. Two processes of this type have been successfully developed: The separation nozzle process and the vortex tube process. For both processes, the main components of a separation stage included cylindrical vessels housing the special separation elements (nozzles or vortex tubes), gas compressors, and heat exchangers to remove the heat of compression. An aerodynamic plant requires a number of these stages, so that quantities can provide an important indication of end use. Because aerodynamic processes use UF<E T="52">6</E>, all equipment, pipeline and instrumentation surfaces (that come in contact with the gas) must be made of, or protected by, materials that remain stable in contact with UF<E T="52">6</E>. All surfaces which come into contact with the process gas are made of, or protected by, UF<E T="52">6</E>-resistant materials; including copper, copper alloys, stainless steel, aluminum, aluminum oxide, aluminum alloys, nickel or alloys containing 60 percent or more nickel by weight, and fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers.</P></NOTE>
<P>The following items either come into direct contact with the UF<E T="52">6</E> process gas or directly control the flow within the cascade:
</P>
<P>(1) Separation nozzles and assemblies.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared separation nozzles and assemblies thereof. The separation nozzles consist of slit-shaped, curved channels having a radius of curvature less than 1 mm, resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> and having a knife-edge within the nozzle that separates the gas flowing through the nozzle into two fractions.
</P>
<P>(2) Vortex tubes and assemblies.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared vortex tubes and assemblies thereof. The vortex tubes are cylindrical or tapered, made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>, and with one or more tangential inlets. The tubes may be equipped with nozzle-type appendages at either or both ends.
</P>
<P>The feed gas enters the vortex tube tangentially at one end or through swirl vanes or at numerous tangential positions along the periphery of the tube.
</P>
<P>(3) Compressors and gas blowers.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared compressors or gas blowers made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by the UF<E T="52">6</E>/carrier gas (hydrogen or helium) mixture.
</P>
<P>(4) Rotary shaft seals.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared rotary shaft seals, with seal feed and seal exhaust connections, for sealing the shaft connecting the compressor rotor or the gas blower rotor with the driver motor to ensure a reliable seal against out-leakage of process gas or in-leakage of air or seal gas into the inner chamber of the compressor or gas blower which is filled with a UF<E T="52">6</E>/carrier gas mixture.
</P>
<P>(5) Heat exchangers for gas cooling.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared heat exchangers, made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>.
</P>
<P>(6) Separation element housings.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared separation element housings, made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>, for containing vortex tubes or separation nozzles.
</P>
<P>(7) Feed systems/product and tails withdrawal systems.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared process systems or equipment for enrichment plants made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Feed autoclaves, ovens, or systems used for passing UF<E T="52">6</E> to the enrichment process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Desublimers (or cold traps) used to remove UF<E T="52">6</E> from the enrichment process for subsequent transfer upon heating;
</P>
<P>(iii) Solidification or liquefaction stations used to remove UF<E T="52">6</E> from the enrichment process by compressing and converting UF<E T="52">6</E> to a liquid or solid form; and
</P>
<P>(iv) “Product” or “tails” stations used for transferring UF<E T="52">6</E> into containers.
</P>
<P>(8) Header piping systems.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared header piping systems, made of or protected by materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>, for handling UF<E T="52">6</E> within the aerodynamic cascades. The piping network is normally of the “double” header design with each stage or group of stages connected to each of the headers.
</P>
<P>(9) Vacuum systems and pumps.
</P>
<P>(i) Especially designed or prepared vacuum systems consisting of vacuum manifolds, vacuum headers and vacuum pumps, and designed for service in UF<E T="52">6</E>-bearing atmospheres.
</P>
<P>(ii) Especially designed or prepared vacuum pumps for service in UF<E T="52">6</E>-bearing atmospheres and made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>. These pumps may use fluorocarbon seals and special working fluids.
</P>
<P>(10) Special shut-off and control valves.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared bellows-sealed valves, manual or automated, shut-off or control valves made of, or protected by, materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> with a diameter of 40 mm or greater for installation in main and auxiliary systems of aerodynamic enrichment plants.
</P>
<P>(11) UF<E T="52">6</E> mass spectrometers/ion sources.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared mass spectrometers capable of taking on-line samples from UF<E T="52">6</E> gas streams and having all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Capable of measuring ions of 320 atomic mass units or greater and having a resolution of better than 1 part in 320;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ion sources constructed of or protected by nickel, nickel-copper alloys with a nickel content of 60 percent or more by weight, or nickel-chrome alloys;
</P>
<P>(iii) Electron bombardment ionization sources; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Collector system suitable for isotopic analysis.
</P>
<P>(12) UF<E T="52">6</E>/carrier gas separation systems.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared process systems for separating UF<E T="52">6</E> from carrier gas (hydrogen or helium).
</P>
<P>These systems are designed to reduce the UF<E T="52">6</E> content in the carrier gas to 1 ppm or less and may incorporate equipment such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Cryogenic heat exchangers and cryoseparators capable of temperatures of 153 K (-120 °C) or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cryogenic refrigeration units capable of temperatures of 153 K (-120 °C) or less;
</P>
<P>(iii) Separation nozzle or vortex tube units for the separation of UF<E T="52">6</E> from carrier gas; or
</P>
<P>(iv) UF6 cold traps capable of freezing out UF<E T="52">6</E>.
</P>
<P>(13) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in an aerodynamic enrichment plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39294, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 110—Illustrative List of Chemical Exchange or Ion Exchange Enrichment Plant Equipment and Components Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The slight difference in mass between the isotopes of uranium causes small changes in chemical reaction equilibria that can be used as a basis for separation of the isotopes. Two processes have been successfully developed: Liquid-liquid chemical exchange and solid-liquid ion exchange.</P></NOTE>
<P>A. In the liquid-liquid chemical exchange process, immiscible liquid phases (aqueous and organic) are countercurrently contacted to give the cascading effect of thousands of separation stages. The aqueous phase consists of uranium chloride in hydrochloric acid solution; the organic phase consists of an extractant containing uranium chloride in an organic solvent. The contactors employed in the separation cascade can be liquid-liquid exchange columns (such as pulsed columns with sieve plates) or liquid centrifugal contactors. Chemical conversions (oxidation and reduction) are required at both ends of the separation cascade in order to provide for the reflux requirements at each end. A major design concern is to avoid contamination of the process streams with certain metal ions. Plastic, plastic-lined (including use of fluorocarbon polymers) and/or glass-lined columns and piping are therefore used.
</P>
<P>(1) Liquid-liquid exchange columns.
</P>
<P>Countercurrent liquid-liquid exchange columns having mechanical power input especially designed or prepared for uranium enrichment using the chemical exchange process. For corrosion resistance to concentrated hydrochloric acid solutions, these columns and their internals are normally made of, or protected by, suitable plastic materials (such as fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers) or glass. The stage residence time of the columns is normally designed to be 30 seconds or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Liquid-liquid centrifugal contactors.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared for uranium enrichment using the chemical exchange process. These contactors use rotation to achieve dispersion of the organic and aqueous streams and then centrifugal force to separate the phases. For corrosion resistance to concentrated hydrochloric acid solutions, the contactors are normally made of, or protected by, suitable plastic materials (such as fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers) or glass. The stage residence time of the centrifugal contactors is designed to be short (30 seconds or less).
</P>
<P>(3) Uranium reduction systems and equipment.
</P>
<P>(i) Especially designed or prepared electrochemical reduction cells to reduce uranium from one valence state to another for uranium enrichment using the chemical exchange process. The cell materials in contact with process solutions must be corrosion resistant to concentrated hydrochloric acid solutions.
</P>
<P>The cell cathodic compartment must be designed to prevent re-oxidation of uranium to its higher valence state. To keep the uranium in the cathodic compartment, the cell may have an impervious diaphragm membrane constructed of special cation exchange material. The cathode consists of a suitable solid conductor such as graphite.
</P>
<P>These systems consist of solvent extraction equipment for stripping the U<E T="51">+4</E> from the organic stream into an aqueous solution, evaporation and/or other equipment to accomplish solution pH adjustment and control, and pumps or other transfer devices for feeding to the electrochemical reduction cells. A major design concern is to avoid contamination of the aqueous stream with certain metal ions. For those parts in contact with the process stream, the system is constructed of equipment made of, or protected by, materials such as glass, fluorocarbon polymers, polyphenyl sulfate, polyether sulfone, and resin-impregnated graphite.
</P>
<P>(ii) Especially designed or prepared systems at the product end of the cascade for taking the U<E T="51">+4</E> out of the organic stream, adjusting the acid concentration, and feeding to the electrochemical reduction cells.
</P>
<P>These systems consist of solvent extraction equipment for stripping the U<E T="51">+4</E> from the organic stream into an aqueous solution, evaporation and/or other equipment to accomplish solution pH adjustment and control, and pumps or other transfer devices for feeding to the electrochemical reduction cells. A major design concern is to avoid contamination of the aqueous stream with certain metal ions. For those parts in contact with the process stream, the system is constructed of equipment made of, or protected by, materials such as glass, fluorocarbon polymers, polyphenyl sulfate, polyether sulfone, and resin-impregnated graphite.
</P>
<P>(4) Feed preparation systems.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared systems for producing high-purity uranium chloride feed solutions for chemical exchange uranium isotope separation plants.
</P>
<P>These systems consist of dissolution, solvent extraction and/or ion exchange equipment for purification and electrolytic cells for reducing the uranium U<E T="51">+6</E> or U<E T="51">+4</E> to U<E T="51">+3</E>. These systems produce uranium chloride solutions having only a few parts per million of metallic impurities such as chromium, iron, vanadium, molybdenum, and other bivalent or higher multi-valent cations. Materials of construction for portions of the system processing high-purity U<E T="51">+3</E> include glass, fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers, polyphenyl sulfate or polyether sulfone plastic-lined and resin-impregnated graphite.
</P>
<P>(5) Uranium oxidation systems.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared systems for oxidation of U<E T="51">+3</E> to U<E T="51">+4</E> for return to the uranium isotope separation cascade in the chemical exchange enrichment process.
</P>
<P>These systems may incorporate equipment such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Equipment for contacting chlorine and oxygen with the aqueous effluent from the isotope separation equipment and extracting the resultant U<E T="51">+4</E> into the stripped organic stream returning from the product end of the cascade; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment that separates water from hydrochloric acid so that the water and the concentrated hydrochloric acid may be reintroduced to the process at the proper locations.
</P>
<P>B. In the solid-liquid ion-exchange process, enrichment is accomplished by uranium adsorption/desorption on a special, fast-acting, ion-exchange resin or adsorbent. A solution of uranium in hydrochloric acid and other chemical agents is passed through cylindrical enrichment columns containing packed beds of the adsorbent. For a continuous process, a reflux system is necessary to release the uranium from the adsorbent back in the liquid flow so that “product” and “tails” can be collected. This is accomplished with the use of suitable reduction/oxidation chemical agents that are fully regenerated in separate external circuits and that may be partially regenerated within the isotopic separation columns themselves. The presence of hot concentrated hydrochloric acid solutions in the process requires that the equipment be made of, or protected by, special corrosion-resistant materials.
</P>
<P>(1) Fast reacting ion exchange resins/adsorbents.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared for uranium enrichment using the ion exchange process, including porous macroreticular resins, and/or pellicular structures in which the active chemical exchange groups are limited to a coating on the surface of an inactive porous support structure, and other composite structures in any suitable form including particles or fibers. These ion exchange resins/adsorbents have diameters of 0.2 mm or less and must be chemically resistant to concentrated hydrochloric acid solutions as well as physically strong enough so as not to degrade in the exchange columns. The resins/adsorbents are especially designed to achieve very fast uranium isotope exchange kinetics (exchange rate half-time of less than 10 seconds) and are capable of operating at a temperature in the range of 373 K (100 °C) to 473 K (200 °C).
</P>
<P>(2) Ion exchange columns.
</P>
<P>Cylindrical columns greater than 1000 mm in diameter for containing and supporting packed beds of ion exchange resin/adsorbent, especially designed or prepared for uranium enrichment using the ion exchange process. These columns are made of, or protected by, materials (such as titanium or fluorocarbon plastics) resistant to corrosion by concentrated hydrochloric acid solutions and are capable of operating at a temperature in the range of 373 K (100 °C) to 473 K (200 °C) and pressures above 0.7 MPa.
</P>
<P>(3) Ion exchange reflux systems.
</P>
<P>(i) Especially designed or prepared chemical or electrochemical reduction systems for regeneration of the chemical reducing agent(s) used in ion exchange uranium enrichment cascades.
</P>
<P>The ion exchange enrichment process may use, for example, trivalent titanium (Ti<E T="51">+3</E>) as a reducing cation in which case the reduction system would regenerate Ti<E T="51">+3</E> by reducing Ti<E T="51">+4</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) Especially designed or prepared chemical or electrochemical oxidation systems for regeneration of the chemical oxidizing agent(s) used in ion exchange uranium enrichment cascades.
</P>
<P>The ion exchange enrichment process may use, for example, trivalent iron (Fe<E T="51">+3</E>) as an oxidant in which case the oxidation system would regenerate Fe<E T="51">+3</E> by oxidizing Fe<E T="51">+2</E>.
</P>
<P>C. Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a chemical exchange or ion exchange enrichment plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39295, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 110—Illustrative List of Laser-Based Enrichment Plant Equipment and Components Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Present systems for enrichment processes using lasers fall into two categories: The process medium is atomic uranium vapor and the process medium is the vapor of a uranium compound, sometimes mixed with another gas or gases. Common nomenclature for these processes include: First category-atomic vapor laser isotope separation; and second category-molecular laser isotope separation including chemical reaction by isotope selective laser activation. The systems, equipment, and components for laser enrichment plants include: (a) Devices to feed uranium-metal vapor for selective photo-ionization or devices to feed the vapor of a uranium compound (for selective photo-dissociation or selective excitation/activation); (b) devices to collect enriched and depleted uranium metal as “product” and “tails” in the first category, and devices to collect enriched and depleted uranium compounds as “product” and “tails” in the second category; (c) process laser systems to selectively excite the uranium-235 species; and (d) feed preparation and product conversion equipment. The complexity of the spectroscopy of uranium atoms and compounds may require incorporation of a number of available laser and laser optics technologies.</P></NOTE>
<P>All surfaces that come into direct contact with the uranium or UF<E T="52">6</E> are wholly made of, or protected by, corrosion-resistant materials. For laser-based enrichment items, the materials resistant to corrosion by the vapor or liquid of uranium metal or uranium alloys include yttria-coated graphite and tantalum; and the materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E> include copper, copper alloys, stainless steel, aluminum, aluminum oxide, aluminum alloys, nickel or alloys containing 60 percent or more nickel by weight, and fluorinated hydrocarbon polymers. Many of the following items come into direct contact with uranium metal vapor or liquid or with process gas consisting of UF<E T="52">6</E> or a mixture of UF<E T="52">6</E> and other gases:
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium vaporization systems (atomic vapor based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared uranium metal vaporization systems for use in laser enrichment.
</P>
<P>These systems may contain electron beam guns and are designed to achieve a delivered power (1 kW or greater) on the target sufficient to generate uranium metal vapour at a rate required for the laser enrichment function.
</P>
<P>(2) Liquid or vapor uranium metal handling systems and components (atomic vapor based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared systems for handling molten uranium, molten uranium alloys, or uranium metal vapor.
</P>
<P>The liquid uranium metal handling systems may consist of crucibles and cooling equipment for the crucibles. The crucibles and other system parts that come into contact with molten uranium, molten uranium alloys, or uranium metal vapor are made of, or protected by, materials of suitable corrosion and heat resistance, such as tantalum, yttria-coated graphite, graphite coated with other rare earth oxides, or mixtures thereof.
</P>
<P>(3) Uranium metal “product” and “tails” collector assemblies (atomic vapor based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared “product” and “tails” collector assemblies for uranium metal in liquid or solid form.
</P>
<P>Components for these assemblies are made of or protected by materials resistant to the heat and corrosion of uranium metal vapor or liquid, such as yttria-coated graphite or tantalum, and may include pipes, valves, fittings, “gutters,” feed-throughs, heat exchangers and collector plates for magnetic, electrostatic, or other separation methods.
</P>
<P>(4) Separator module housings (atomic vapor based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared cylindrical or rectangular vessels for containing the uranium metal vapor source, the electron beam gun, and the “product” and “tails” collectors. These housings have multiplicity of ports for electrical and water feed-throughs, laser beam windows, vacuum pump connections, and instrumentation diagnostics and monitoring with opening and closure provisions to allow refurbishment of internal components.
</P>
<P>(5) Supersonic expansion nozzles (molecular based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared supersonic expansion nozzles for cooling mixtures of UF<E T="52">6</E> and carrier gas to 150 K (−123 °C) or less which are corrosion resistant to UF<E T="52">6</E>.
</P>
<P>(6) “Product” or “tails” collectors (molecular based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared components or devices for collecting uranium product material or uranium tails material following illumination with laser light.
</P>
<P>In one example of molecular laser isotope separation, the product collectors serve to collect enriched uranium pentafluoride (UF<E T="52">5</E>) solid material. The product collectors may consist of filter, impact, or cyclone-type collectors, or combinations thereof, and must be corrosion resistant to the UF<E T="52">5</E>/UF<E T="52">6</E> environment.
</P>
<P>(7) UF<E T="52">6</E>/carrier gas compressors (molecular based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared compressors for UF<E T="52">6</E>/carrier gas mixtures, designed for long term operation in a UF<E T="52">6</E> environment. Components of these compressors that come into contact with process gas are made of, or protected by, materials resistant to UF<E T="52">6</E> corrosion.
</P>
<P>(8) Rotary shaft seals (molecular based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared rotary shaft seals, with seal feed and seal exhaust connections, for sealing the shaft connecting the compressor rotor with the driver motor to ensure a reliable seal against out-leakage of process gas or in-leakage of air or seal gas into the inner chamber of the compressor which is filled with a UF<E T="52">6</E>/carrier gas mixture.
</P>
<P>(9) Fluorination systems (molecular based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared systems for fluorinating UF<E T="52">5</E> (solid) to UF<E T="52">6</E> (gas).
</P>
<P>These systems are designed to fluorinate the collected UF<E T="52">5</E> powder to UF<E T="52">6</E> for subsequent collection in product containers or for transfer as feed for additional enrichment. In one approach, the fluorination reaction may be accomplished within the isotope separation system to react and recover directly off the “product” collectors. In another approach, the UF<E T="52">5</E> powder may be removed/transferred from the “product” collectors into a suitable reaction vessel (e.g., fluidized-bed reactor, screw reactor or flame tower) for fluorination. In both approaches, equipment is used for storage and transfer of fluorine (or other suitable fluorinating agents) and for collection and transfer of UF<E T="52">6</E>.
</P>
<P>(10) UF<E T="52">6</E> mass spectrometers/ion sources (molecular based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared mass spectrometers capable of taking on-line samples from UF<E T="52">6</E> gas streams and having all of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) Capable of measuring ions of 320 atomic mass units or greater and having a resolution of better than 1 part in 320;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ion sources constructed of or protected by nickel, nickel-copper alloys with a nickel content of 60 percent or more by weight, or nickel-chrome alloys;
</P>
<P>(iii) Electron bombardment ionization sources; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Collector system suitable for isotopic analysis.
</P>
<P>(11) Feed systems/product and tails withdrawal systems (molecular based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared process systems or equipment for enrichment plants made of or protected by materials resistant to corrosion by UF<E T="52">6</E>, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Feed autoclaves, ovens, or systems used for passing UF<E T="52">6</E> to the enrichment process;
</P>
<P>(ii) Desublimers (or cold traps) used to remove UF<E T="52">6</E> from the enrichment process for subsequent transfer upon heating;
</P>
<P>(iii) Solidification or liquefaction stations used to remove UF<E T="52">6</E> from the enrichment process by compressing and converting UF<E T="52">6</E> to a liquid or solid; and
</P>
<P>(iv) “Product” or “tails” stations used to transfer UF<E T="52">6</E> into containers.
</P>
<P>(12) UF<E T="52">6</E>/carrier gas separation systems (molecular based methods).
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared process systems for separating UF<E T="52">6</E> from carrier gas.
</P>
<P>These systems may incorporate equipment such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Cryogenic heat exchangers or cryoseparators capable of temperatures of 153 K (−120 °C) or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cryogenic refrigeration units capable of temperatures of 153 K (−120 °C) or less; or
</P>
<P>(iii) UF<E T="52">6</E> cold traps capable of freezing out UF<E T="52">6</E>.
</P>
<P>(13) Lasers or Laser systems.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared for the separation of uranium isotopes.
</P>
<P>The laser system typically contains both optical and electronic components for the management of the laser beam (or beams) and the transmission to the isotope separation chamber. The laser system for atomic vapor based methods usually consists of tunable dye lasers pumped by another type of laser (e.g., copper vapor lasers or certain solid-state lasers). The laser system for molecular based methods may consist of CO<E T="52">2</E> lasers or excimer lasers and a multi-pass optical cell. Lasers or laser systems for both methods require spectrum frequency stabilization for operation over extended periods of time.
</P>
<P>(14) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a laser-based enrichment plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39296, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 110—Illustrative List of Plasma Separation Enrichment Plant Equipment and Components Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In the plasma separation process, a plasma of uranium ions passes through an electric field tuned to the 
<SU>235</SU>U ion resonance frequency so that they preferentially absorb energy and increase the diameter of their corkscrew-like orbits. Ions with a large-diameter path are trapped to produce a product enriched in 
<SU>235</SU>U. The plasma, made by ionizing uranium vapor, is contained in a vacuum chamber with a high-strength magnetic field produced by a superconducting magnet. The main technological systems of the process include the uranium plasma generation system, the separator module with superconducting magnet, and metal removal systems for the collection of “product” and “tails.”</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) Microwave power sources and antennae.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared microwave power sources and antennae for producing or accelerating ions having the following characteristics: Greater than 30 GHz frequency and greater than 50 kW mean power output for ion production.
</P>
<P>(2) Ion excitation coils.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared radio frequency ion excitation coils for frequencies of more than 100 kHz and capable of handling more than 40 kW mean power.
</P>
<P>(3) Uranium plasma generation systems.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared systems for the generation of uranium plasma for use in plasma separation plants.
</P>
<P>(4) Uranium metal “product” and “tails” collector assemblies.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared “product” and “tails” collector assemblies for uranium metal in solid form. These collector assemblies are made of, or protected by, materials resistant to the heat and corrosion of uranium metal vapor, such as yttria-coated graphite or tantalum.
</P>
<P>(5) Separator module housings.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared cylindrical vessels for use in plasma separation enrichment plants for containing the uranium plasma source, radio-frequency drive coil, and the “product” and “tails” collectors.
</P>
<P>These housings have a multiplicity of ports for electrical feed-throughs, diffusion pump connections, and instrumentation diagnostics and monitoring. They have provisions for opening and closure to allow for refurbishment of internal components and are constructed of a suitable non-magnetic material such as stainless steel.
</P>
<P>(6) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a plasma separation enrichment plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39297, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 110—Illustrative List of Electromagnetic Enrichment Plant Equipment and Components Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In the electromagnetic process, uranium metal ions produced by ionization of a salt feed material (typically UCL4) are accelerated and passed through a magnetic field that has the effect of causing the ions of different isotopes to follow different paths. The major components of an electromagnetic isotope separator include: a magnetic field for ion-beam diversion/separation of the isotopes, an ion source with its acceleration system, and a collection system for the separated ions. Auxiliary systems for the process include the magnet power supply system, the ion source high-voltage power supply system, the vacuum system, and extensive chemical handling systems for recovery of product and cleaning/recycling of components.</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) Electromagnetic isotope separators. 
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared for the separation of uranium isotopes, and equipment and components therefor, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ion Sources—especially designed or prepared single or multiple uranium ion sources consisting of a vapor source, ionizer, and beam accelerator, constructed of materials such as graphite, stainless steel, or copper, and capable of providing a total ion beam current of 50 mA or greater; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ion collectors—collector plates consisting of two or more slits and pockets especially designed or prepared for collection of enriched and depleted uranium ion beams and constructed of materials such as graphite or stainless steel; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Vacuum housings—especially designed or prepared vacuum housings for uranium electromagnetic separators, constructed of suitable non-magnetic materials such as stainless steel and designed for operation at pressures of 0.1 Pa or lower. 
</P>
<P>The housings are specially designed to contain the ion sources, collector plates and water-cooled liners and have provision for diffusion pump connections and opening and closure for removal and reinstallation of these components; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Magnet pole pieces—especially designed or prepared magnet pole pieces having a diameter greater than 2 m used to maintain a constant magnetic field within an electromagnetic isotope separator and to transfer the magnetic field between adjoining separators. 
</P>
<P>(2) High voltage power supplies. 
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared high-voltage power supplies for ion sources, having all of the following characteristics: 
</P>
<P>(i) Capable of continuous operation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Output voltage of 20,000 V or greater; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Output current of 1 A or greater; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Voltage regulation of better than 0.01% over an 8 hour time period. 
</P>
<P>(3) Magnet power supplies. 
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared high-power, direct current magnet power supplies having all of the following characteristics: 
</P>
<P>(i) Capable of continuously producing a current output of 500 A or greater at a voltage of 100 V or greater; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A current or voltage regulation better than 0.01% over an 8 hour time period.
</P>
<P>(4) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in an electromagnetic enrichment plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35606, July 8, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 39297, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 110—Illustrative List of Reprocessing Plant Components Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Reprocessing irradiated nuclear fuel separates plutonium and uranium from intensely radioactive fission products and other transuranic elements. Different technical processes can accomplish this separation. However, over the years Purex has become the most commonly used and accepted process. Purex involves the dissolution of irradiated nuclear fuel in nitric acid, followed by separation of the uranium, plutonium, and fission products by solvent extraction using a mixture of tributyl phosphate in an organic diluent.</P></NOTE>
<P>Purex facilities have process functions similar to each other, including: Irradiated fuel element chopping, fuel dissolution, solvent extraction, and process liquor storage. There may also be equipment for thermal denitration of uranium nitrate, conversion of plutonium nitrate to oxide metal, and treatment of fission product waste liquor to a form suitable for long term storage or disposal. However, the specific type and configuration of the equipment performing these functions may differ between Purex facilities for several reasons, including the type and quantity of irradiated nuclear fuel to be reprocessed and the intended disposition of the recovered materials, and the safety and maintenance philosophy incorporated into the design of the facility. A plant for the reprocessing of irradiated fuel elements includes the equipment and components which normally come in direct contact with and directly control the irradiated fuel and the major nuclear material and fission product processing streams.
</P>
<P>(1) Irradiated fuel element decladding equipment and chopping machines.
</P>
<P>Remotely operated equipment especially designed or prepared for use in a reprocessing plant and intended to expose or prepare the irradiated nuclear fuel assemblies, bundles, or rods for processing. This equipment cuts, chops, shears, or otherwise breaches the cladding of the fuel to expose the irradiated nuclear material for processing or prepares the fuel for processing. Especially designed cutting shears are most commonly employed, although advanced equipment, such as lasers, peeling machines, or other techniques, may be used. Decladding involves removing the cladding of the irradiated nuclear fuel prior to its dissolution.
</P>
<P>(2) Dissolvers.
</P>
<P>Dissolver vessels or dissolvers employing mechanical devices especially designed or prepared for use in a reprocessing plant, intended for dissolution of irradiated nuclear fuel and which are capable of withstanding hot, highly corrosive liquid, and which can be remotely loaded, operated and maintained.
</P>
<P>Dissolvers normally receive the solid, irradiated nuclear fuel. Nuclear fuels with cladding made of material including zirconium, stainless steel, or alloys of such materials must be decladded and/or sheared or chopped prior to being charged to the dissolver to allow the acid to reach the fuel matrix. The irradiated nuclear fuel is typically dissolved in strong mineral acids, such as nitric acid, and any undissolved cladding removed. While certain design features, such as small diameter, annular, or slab tanks may be used to ensure criticality safety, they are not a necessity. Administrative controls, such as small batch size or low fissile material content, may be used instead. Dissolver vessels and dissolvers employing mechanical devices are normally fabricated of material such as low carbon stainless steel, titanium or zirconium, or other high-quality materials. Dissolvers may include systems for the removal of cladding or cladding waste and systems for the control and treatment of radioactive off-gases. These dissolvers may have features for remote placement since they are normally loaded, operated, and maintained behind thick shielding.
</P>
<P>(3) Solvent extractors and solvent extraction equipment.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared solvent extractors such as packed or pulse columns, mixer settlers, or centrifugal contactors for use in a plant for the reprocessing of irradiated fuel. Solvent extractors must be resistant to the corrosive effect of nitric acid. Solvent extractors are normally fabricated to extremely high standards (including special welding and inspection and quality assurance and quality control techniques) out of low carbon stainless steels, titanium, zirconium, or other high quality materials.
</P>
<P>Solvent extractors both receive the solution of irradiated fuel from the dissolvers and the organic solution which separates the uranium, plutonium, and fission products. Solvent extraction equipment is normally designed to meet strict operating parameters, such as long operating lifetimes with no maintenance requirements or adaptability to easy replacement, simplicity of operation and control, and flexibility for variations in process conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Chemical holding or storage vessels.
</P>
<P>Especially designed or prepared holding or storage vessels for use in a plant for the reprocessing of irradiated fuel. The holding or storage vessels must be resistant to the corrosive effect of nitric acid. The holding or storage vessels are normally fabricated of materials such as low carbon stainless steels, titanium or zirconium, or other high quality materials. Holding or storage vessels may be designed for remote operation and maintenance and may have the following features for control of nuclear criticality:
</P>
<P>(i) Walls or internal structures with a boron equivalent of at least 2 percent, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A maximum diameter of 175 mm (7 in) for cylindrical vessels, or
</P>
<P>(iii) A maximum width of 75 mm (3 in) for either a slab or annular vessel.
</P>
<P>(5) Neutron measurement systems for process control.
</P>
<P>Neutron measurement systems especially designed or prepared for integration and use with automated process control systems in a plant for the reprocessing of irradiated fuel elements. These systems involve the capability of active and passive neutron measurement and discrimination in order to determine the fissile material quantity and composition. The complete system is composed of a neutron generator, a neutron detector, amplifiers, and signal processing electronics.
</P>
<P>The scope of this entry does not include neutron detection and measurement instruments that are designed for nuclear material accountancy and safeguarding or any other application not related to integration and use with automated process control systems in a plant for the reprocessing of irradiated fuel elements.
</P>
<P>(6) Plutonium nitrate to plutonium oxide conversion systems. Complete systems especially designed or prepared for the conversion of plutonium nitrate to plutonium oxide, in particular adapted so as to avoid criticality and radiation effects and to minimize toxicity hazards.
</P>
<P>(7) Plutonium metal production systems. Complete systems especially designed or prepared for the production of plutonium metal, in particular adapted so as to avoid criticality and radiation effects and to minimize toxicity hazards.
</P>
<P>(8) Process control instrumentation specially designed or prepared for monitoring or controlling the processing of material in a reprocessing plant.
</P>
<P>(9) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a reprocessing plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39297, July 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 40142, July 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 110—Illustrative List of Uranium Conversion Plant Equipment and Plutonium Conversion Plant Equipment Under NRC Export Licensing Authority
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Uranium conversion plants and systems may perform one or more transformations from one uranium chemical species to another, including: conversion of uranium ore concentrates to UO3, conversion of UO3 to UO2, conversion of uranium oxides to UF4 or UF6, conversion of UF4 to UF6, conversion of UF6 to UF4, conversion of UF4 to uranium metal, and conversion of uranium fluorides to UO2. Many key equipment items for uranium conversion plants are common to several segments of the chemical process industry, including furnaces, rotary kilns, fluidized bed reactors, flame tower reactors, liquid centrifuges, distillation columns and liquid-liquid extraction columns. However, few of the items are available “off-the-shelf”; most would be prepared according to customer requirements and specifications. Some require special design and construction considerations to address the corrosive properties of the chemicals handled (HF, F2, CLF3, and uranium fluorides). In all of the uranium conversion processes, equipment which individually is not especially designed or prepared for uranium conversion can be assembled into systems which are especially designed or prepared for uranium conversion.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) Uranium Conversion Plant Equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) Especially designed or prepared systems for the conversion of uranium ore concentrates to UO3. 
</P>
<P>Conversion of uranium ore concentrates to UO3 can be performed by first dissolving the ore in nitric acid and extracting purified uranyl nitrate using a solvent such as tributyl phosphate. Next, the uranyl nitrate is converted to UO3 either by concentration and denitration or by neutralization with gaseous ammonia to produce ammonium diuranate with subsequent filtering, drying, and calcining. 
</P>
<P>(2) Especially designed or prepared systems for the conversion of UO3 to UF6. 
</P>
<P>Conversion of UO3 to UF6 can be performed directly by fluorination. The process requires a source of fluorine gas or chlorine trifluoride. 
</P>
<P>(3) Especially Designed or Prepared Systems for the conversion of UO3 to UO2. 
</P>
<P>Conversion of UO3 to UO2 can be performed through reduction of UO3 with cracked ammonia gas or hydrogen. 
</P>
<P>(4) Especially Designed or Prepared Systems for the conversion of UO2 to UF4. 
</P>
<P>Conversion of UO2 to UF4 can be performed by reacting UO2 with hydrogen fluoride gas (HF) at 300-500 °C. 
</P>
<P>(5) Especially Designed or Prepared Systems for the conversion of UF4 to UF6. 
</P>
<P>Conversion of UF4 to UF6 is performed by exothermic reaction with fluorine in a tower reactor. UF6 is condensed from the hot effluent gases by passing the effluent stream through a cold trap cooled to −10 °C. The process requires a source of fluorine gas. 
</P>
<P>(6) Especially Designed or Prepared Systems for the conversion of UF4 to U metal. 
</P>
<P>Conversion of UF4 to U metal is performed by reduction with magnesium (large batches) or calcium (small batches). The reaction is carried out at temperatures above the melting point of uranium (1130 °C). 
</P>
<P>(7) Especially designed or prepared systems for the conversion of UF6 to UO2. 
</P>
<P>Conversion of UF6 to UO2 can be performed by one of three processes. In the first, UF6 is reduced and hydrolyzed to UO2 using hydrogen and steam. In the second, UF6 is hydrolyzed by solution in water, ammonia is added to precipitate ammonium diuranate, and the diuranate is reduced to UO2 with hydrogen at 820 °C. In the third process, gaseous UF6, CO2, and NH3 are combined in water, precipitating ammonium uranyl carbonate. The ammonium uranyl carbonate is combined with steam and hydrogen at 500-600 °C to yield UO2. UF6 to UO2 conversion is often performed as the first stage of a fuel fabrication plant. 
</P>
<P>(8) Especially Designed or Prepared Systems for the conversion of UF6 to UF4. Conversion of UF6 to UF4 is performed by reduction with hydrogen.
</P>
<P>(9) Especially designed or prepared systems for the conversion of UO<E T="52">2</E> to UCl<E T="52">4</E> as feed for electromagnetic enrichment. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Plutonium conversion plants and systems may perform one or more transformations from one plutonium chemical species to another, including: conversion of plutonium nitrate to PuO<E T="52">2</E>, conversion of PuO<E T="52">2</E> to PuF<E T="52">4</E> and conversion of PuF<E T="52">4</E> to plutonium metal. Plutonium conversion plants are usually associated with reprocessing facilities, but may also be associated with plutonium fuel fabrication facilities. Many of the key equipment items for plutonium conversion plants are common to several segments of the chemical process industry. For example, the types of equipment employed in these processes may include the following items: furnaces, rotary kilns, fluidized bed reactors, flame tower reactors, liquid centrifuges, distillation columns and liquid-liquid extraction columns. Hot cells, glove boxes and remote manipulators may also be required. However, few of the items are available off-the-shelf; most would be prepared according to the requirements and specifications of the customer. Particular care is essential in designing for the special radiological, toxicity and criticality hazards associated with plutonium. In some circumstances, special design and construction considerations are required to address the corrosive properties of some of the chemicals handled (e.g., HF). Finally, it should be noted that, for all plutonium conversion processes, items of equipment which individually are not especially designed or prepared for plutonium conversion can be assembled into systems that are especially designed or prepared for use in plutonium conversion.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) Plutonium Conversion Plant Equipment 
</P>
<P>(1) Especially designed or prepared systems for the conversion of plutonium nitrate to oxide. 
</P>
<P>The main functions involved in this process are: process feed storage and adjustment, precipitation and solid/liquor separation, calcination, product handling, ventilation, waste management, and process control. The process systems are particularly adapted so as to avoid criticality and radiation effects and to minimize toxicity hazards. In most reprocessing facilities, this process involves the conversion of plutonium nitrate to plutonium dioxide. Other processes can involve the precipitation of plutonium oxalate or plutonium peroxide. 
</P>
<P>(2) Especially designed or prepared systems for plutonium metal production. 
</P>
<P>This process usually involves the fluorination of plutonium dioxide, normally with highly corrosive hydrogen fluoride, to produce plutonium fluoride, which is subsequently reduced using high purity calcium metal to produce metallic plutonium and a calcium fluoride slag. The main functions involved in this process are the following: fluorination (e.g., involving equipment fabricated or lined with a precious metal), metal reduction (e.g., employing ceramic crucibles), slag recovery, product handling, ventilation, waste management and process control. The process systems are particularly adapted so as to avoid criticality and radiation effects and to minimize toxicity hazards. Other processes include the fluorination of plutonium oxalate or plutonium peroxide followed by reduction to metal. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a uranium conversion plant or plutonium conversion plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35606, July 8, 1996, as amended at 65 FR 70291, Nov. 22, 2000; 79 FR 39298, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix K" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix K to Part 110—Illustrative List of Equipment and Components Under NRC Export Licensing Authority for Use in a Plant for the Production of Heavy Water, Deuterium and Deuterium Compounds
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Heavy water can be produced by a variety of processes. However, two processes have proven to be commercially viable: The water-hydrogen sulphide exchange process (GS process) and the ammonia-hydrogen exchange process.</P></NOTE>
<P>A. The GS process is based upon the exchange of hydrogen and deuterium between water and hydrogen sulphide within a series of towers which are operated with the top section cold and the bottom section hot. Water flows down the towers while the hydrogen sulphide gas circulates from the bottom to the top of the towers. A series of perforated trays are used to promote mixing between the gas and the water. Deuterium migrates to the water at low temperatures and to the hydrogen sulphide at high temperatures. Gas or water, enriched in deuterium, is removed from the first stage towers at the junction of the hot and cold sections and the process is repeated in subsequent stage towers. The product of the last stage, water enriched up to 30 percent in deuterium, is sent to a distillation unit to produce reactor grade heavy water; <I>i.e.</I>, 99.75 percent deuterium oxide.
</P>
<P>B. The ammonia-hydrogen exchange process can extract deuterium from synthesis gas through contact with liquid ammonia in the presence of a catalyst. The synthesis gas is fed into exchange towers and then to an ammonia converter. Inside the towers the gas flows from the bottom to the top while the liquid ammonia flows from the top to the bottom. The deuterium is stripped from the hydrogen in the synthesis gas and concentrated in the ammonia. The ammonia then flows into an ammonia cracker at the bottom of the tower while the gas flows into an ammonia converter at the top. Further enrichment takes place in subsequent stages and reactor-grade heavy water is produced through final distillation. The synthesis gas feed can be provided by an ammonia plant that can be constructed in association with a heavy water ammonia-hydrogen exchange plant. The ammonia-hydrogen exchange process can also use ordinary water as a feed source of deuterium.
</P>
<P>C.1. Much of the key equipment for heavy water production plants using either the GS process or the ammonia-hydrogen exchange process are common to several segments of the chemical and petroleum industries; particularly in small plants using the GS process. However, few items are available “off-the-shelf.” Both processes require the handling of large quantities of flammable, corrosive, and toxic fluids at elevated pressures. Therefore, in establishing the design and operating standards for plants and equipment using these processes, careful attention to materials selection and specifications is required to ensure long service life with high safety and reliability factors. The choice is primarily a function of economics and need. Most equipment, therefore, is prepared to customer requirements.
</P>
<P>In both processes, equipment which individually is not especially designed or prepared for heavy water production can be assembled into especially designed or prepared systems for producing heavy water. Examples of such systems are the catalyst production system used in the ammonia-hydrogen exchange process and the water distillation systems used for the final concentration of heavy water to reactor-grade in either process.
</P>
<P>C.2. Equipment especially designed or prepared for the production of heavy water utilizing either the water-hydrogen sulphide exchange process or the ammonia-hydrogen exchange process:
</P>
<P>(i) Water-hydrogen Sulphide Exchange Towers.
</P>
<P>Exchange towers with diameters of 1.5 m or greater and capable of operating at pressures greater than or equal to 2 MPa (300 psi) especially designed or prepared for heavy water production utilizing the water-hydrogen sulphide exchange process.
</P>
<P>(ii) Blowers and Compressors.
</P>
<P>Single stage, low head (<I>i.e.</I>, 0.2 MPa or 30 psi) centrifugal blowers or compressors for hydrogen-sulphide gas circulation (<I>i.e.</I>, gas containing more than 70 percent H2S). The blowers or compressors have a throughput capacity greater than or equal to 56 m
<SU>3</SU>/second (120,000 standard cubic feet per minute) while operating at pressures greater than or equal to 1.8 MPa (260 psi) suction and have seals designed for wet H2S service.
</P>
<P>(iii) Ammonia-Hydrogen Exchange Towers.
</P>
<P>Ammonia-hydrogen exchange towers greater than or equal to 35 m (114.3 ft) in height with diameters of 1.5 m (4.9 ft) to 2.5 m (8.2 ft) capable of operating at pressures greater than 15 MPa (2225 psi). The towers have at least one flanged, axial opening of the same diameter as the cylindrical part through which the tower internals can be inserted or withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(iv) Tower Internals and Stage Pumps Used in the Ammonia-hydrogen Exchange Process.
</P>
<P>Tower internals include especially designed stage contactors which promote intimate gas/liquid contact. Stage pumps include especially designed submersible pumps for circulation of liquid ammonia within a contacting stage internal to the stage towers.
</P>
<P>(v) Ammonia Crackers Utilizing the Ammonia-hydrogen Exchange Process.
</P>
<P>Ammonia crackers with operating pressures greater than or equal to 3 MPa (450 psi) especially designed or prepared for heavy water production utilizing the ammonia-hydrogen exchange process.
</P>
<P>(vi) Ammonia Synthesis Converters or Synthesis Units.
</P>
<P>Ammonia synthesis converters or synthesis units especially designed or prepared for heavy water production utilizing the ammonia-hydrogen exchange process.
</P>
<P>These converters or units take synthesis gas (nitrogen and hydrogen) from an ammonia/hydrogen high-pressure exchange column (or columns), and the synthesized ammonia is returned to the exchange column (or columns).
</P>
<P>(vii) Infrared Absorption Analyzers.
</P>
<P>Infrared absorption analyzers capable of “on-line” hydrogen/deuterium ratio analysis where deuterium concentrations are equal to or greater than 90 percent.
</P>
<P>(viii) Catalytic Burners Used in the Ammonia-hydrogen Exchange Process.
</P>
<P>Catalytic burners for the conversion of enriched deuterium gas into heavy water especially designed or prepared for heavy water production utilizing the ammonia-hydrogen exchange process.
</P>
<P>(ix) Complete Heavy Water Upgrade Systems or Columns.
</P>
<P>Complete heavy water upgrade systems or columns especially designed or prepared for the upgrade of heavy water to reactor-grade deuterium concentration. These systems, which usually employ water distillation to separate heavy water from light water, are especially designed or prepared to produce reactor-grade heavy water (<I>i.e.</I>, typically 99.75 percent deuterium oxide) from heavy water feedstock of lesser concentration.
</P>
<P>D. Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a plant for the production of heavy water, deuterium, and deuterium compounds or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39298, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix L" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix L to Part 110—Illustrative List of Byproduct Materials Under NRC Export/Import Licensing Authority 
<SU>a</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>a</SU> Any accelerator-produced material produced, extracted, or converted for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity.</P></FTNT>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Actinium 225 (Ac 225)</LI>
<LI>Actinium 227 (Ac 227)</LI>
<LI>Actinium 228 (Ac 228)</LI>
<LI>Americium 241 (Am 241)</LI>
<LI>Americium 242m (Am 242m)</LI>
<LI>Americium 242 (Am 242)</LI>
<LI>Americium 243 (Am 243)</LI>
<LI>Antimony 124 (Sb 124)</LI>
<LI>Antimony 125 (Sb 125)</LI>
<LI>Antimony 126 (Sb 126)</LI>
<LI>Arsenic 73 (As 73)</LI>
<LI>Arsenic 74 (As 74)</LI>
<LI>Arsenic 76 (As 76)</LI>
<LI>Arsenic 77 (As 77)</LI>
<LI>Barium 131 (Ba 131)</LI>
<LI>Barium 133 (Ba 133)</LI>
<LI>Barium 140 (Ba 140)</LI>
<LI>Bismuth 207 (Bi 207)</LI>
<LI>Bismuth 210 (Bi 210)</LI>
<LI>Bromine 82 (Br 82)</LI>
<LI>Cadmium 109 (Cd 109)</LI>
<LI>Cadmium 113 (Cd 113)</LI>
<LI>Cadmium 115m (Cd 115m)</LI>
<LI>Cadmium 115 (Cd 115)</LI>
<LI>Calcium 45 (Ca 45)</LI>
<LI>Calcium 47 (Ca 47)</LI>
<LI>Californium 248 (Cf 248)</LI>
<LI>Californium 249 (Cf 249)</LI>
<LI>Californium 250 (Cf 250)</LI>
<LI>Californium 251 (Cf 251)</LI>
<LI>Californium 252 (Cf 252)</LI>
<LI>Californium 253 (Cf 253)</LI>
<LI>Californium 254 (Cf 254)</LI>
<LI>Carbon 11 (C 11)</LI>
<LI>Carbon 14 (C 14)</LI>
<LI>Cerium 141 (Ce 141)</LI>
<LI>Cerium 143 (Ce 143)</LI>
<LI>Cerium 144 (Ce 144)</LI>
<LI>Cesium 129 (Cs 129)</LI>
<LI>Cesium 131 (Cs 131)</LI>
<LI>Cesium 134m (Cs 134m)</LI>
<LI>Cesium 134 (Cs 134)</LI>
<LI>Cesium 135 (Cs 135)</LI>
<LI>Cesium 136 (Cs 136)</LI>
<LI>Cesium 137 (Cs 137)</LI>
<LI>Chlorine 36 (Cl 36)</LI>
<LI>Chlorine 38 (Cl 38)</LI>
<LI>Chromium 51 (Cr 51)</LI>
<LI>Cobalt 57 (Co 57)</LI>
<LI>Cobalt 58m (Co 58m)</LI>
<LI>Cobalt 58 (Co 58)</LI>
<LI>Cobalt 60 (Co 60)</LI>
<LI>Copper 64 (Cu 64)</LI>
<LI>Curium 240 (Cm 240)</LI>
<LI>Curium 241 (Cm 241)</LI>
<LI>Curium 242 (Cm 242)</LI>
<LI>Curium 243 (Cm 243)</LI>
<LI>Curium 244 (Cm 244)</LI>
<LI>Curium 245 (Cm 245)</LI>
<LI>Curium 247 (Cm 247)</LI>
<LI>Dysprosium 165 (Dy 165)</LI>
<LI>Dysprosium 166 (Dy 166)</LI>
<LI>Einsteinium 252 (Es 252)</LI>
<LI>Einsteinium 253 (Es 253)</LI>
<LI>Einsteinium 254 (Es 254)</LI>
<LI>Einsteinium 255 (Es 255)</LI>
<LI>Erbium 169 (Er 169)</LI>
<LI>Erbium 171 (Er 171)</LI>
<LI>Europium 152 (Eu 152)</LI>
<LI>Europium 152 9.2 h</LI>
<LI> (Eu 152 9.2 h)</LI>
<LI>Europium 152 13 yr</LI>
<LI> (Eu 152 13 yr)</LI>
<LI>Europium 154 (Eu 154)</LI>
<LI>Europium 155 (Eu 155)</LI>
<LI>Fermium 257 (Fm 257)</LI>
<LI>Fluorine 18 (F 18)</LI>
<LI>Gadolinium 148 (Gd 148)</LI>
<LI>Gadolinium 153 (Gd 153)</LI>
<LI>Gadolinium 159 (Gd 159)</LI>
<LI>Gallium 67 (Ga 67)</LI>
<LI>Gallium 72 (Ga 72)</LI>
<LI>Germanium 68 (Ge 68)</LI>
<LI>Germanium 71 (Ge 71)</LI>
<LI>Gold 195 (Au 195)</LI>
<LI>Gold 198 (Au 198)</LI>
<LI>Gold 199 (Au 199)</LI>
<LI>Hafnium 172 (Hf 172)</LI>
<LI>Hafnium 181 (Hf 181)</LI>
<LI>Holmium 166m (Ho 166m)</LI>
<LI>Holmium 166 (Ho 166)</LI>
<LI>Hydrogen 3 (H 3)</LI>
<LI>Indium 111 (In 111)</LI>
<LI>Indium 113m (In 113m)</LI>
<LI>Indium 114m (In 114m)</LI>
<LI>Indium 115m (In 115m)</LI>
<LI>Indium 115 (In 115)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 123 (I 123)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 125 (I 125)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 126 (I 126)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 129 (I 129)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 131 (I 131)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 132 (I 132)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 133 (I 133)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 134 (I 134)</LI>
<LI>Iodine 135 (I 135)</LI>
<LI>Iridium 192 (Ir 192)</LI>
<LI>Iridium 194 (Ir 194)</LI>
<LI>Iron 52 (Fe 52)</LI>
<LI>Iron 55 (Fe 55)</LI>
<LI>Iron 59 (Fe 59)</LI>
<LI>Krypton 85 (Kr 85)</LI>
<LI>Krypton 87 (Kr 87)</LI>
<LI>Lanthanum 140 (La 140)</LI>
<LI>Lead 210 (Pb 210)</LI>
<LI>Lutetium 177 (Lu 177)</LI>
<LI>Manganese 52 (Mn 52)</LI>
<LI>Manganese 54 (Mn 54)</LI>
<LI>Manganese 56 (Mn 56)</LI>
<LI>Mendelevium 258 (Md 258)</LI>
<LI>Mercury 197m (Hg 197m)</LI>
<LI>Mercury 197 (Hg 197)</LI>
<LI>Mercury 203 (Hg 203)</LI>
<LI>Molybdenum 99 (Mo 99)</LI>
<LI>Neodymium 147 (Nd 147)</LI>
<LI>Neodymium 149 (Nd 149)</LI>
<LI>Neptunium 235 (Np 235)</LI>
<LI>Neptunium 237 (Np 237)</LI>
<LI>Nickel 59 (Ni 59)</LI>
<LI>Nickel 63 (Ni 63)</LI>
<LI>Nickel 65 (Ni 65)</LI>
<LI>Niobium 93m (Nb 93m)</LI>
<LI>Niobium 94 (Nb 94)</LI>
<LI>Niobium 95 (Nb 95)</LI>
<LI>Niobium 97 (Nb 97)</LI>
<LI>Nitrogen 13 (N 13)</LI>
<LI>Osmium 185 (Os 185)</LI>
<LI>Osmium 191m (Os 191m)</LI>
<LI>Osmium 191 (Os 191)</LI>
<LI>Osmium 193 (Os 193)</LI>
<LI>Oxygen 15 (O 15)</LI>
<LI>Palladium 103 (Pd 103)</LI>
<LI>Palladium 109 (Pd 109)</LI>
<LI>Phosphorus 32 (P 32)</LI>
<LI>Phosphorus 33 (P 33)</LI>
<LI>Platinum 191 (Pt 191)</LI>
<LI>Platinum 193m (Pt 193m)</LI>
<LI>Platinum 193 (Pt 193)</LI>
<LI>Platinum 197m (Pt 197m)</LI>
<LI>Platinum 197 (Pt 197)</LI>
<LI>Polonium 208 (Po 208)</LI>
<LI>Polonium 209 (Po 209)</LI>
<LI>Polonium 210 (Po 210)</LI>
<LI>Potassium 42 (K 42)</LI>
<LI>Potassium 43 (K 43)</LI>
<LI>Praseodymium 142 (Pr 142)</LI>
<LI>Praseodymium 143 (Pr 143)</LI>
<LI>Promethium 145 (Pm 145)</LI>
<LI>Promethium 147 (Pm 147)</LI>
<LI>Promethium 149 (Pm 149)</LI>
<LI>Radium 223 (Ra 223)</LI>
<LI>Radium 226 (Ra 226) 
<SU>b</SU></LI>
<LI>Rhenium 186 (Re 186)</LI>
<LI>Rhenium 188 (Re 188)</LI>
<LI>Rhodium 103m (Rh 103m)</LI>
<LI>Rhodium 105 (Rh 105)</LI>
<LI>Rubidium 81 (Rb 81)</LI>
<LI>Rubidium 86 (Rb 86)</LI>
<LI>Rubidium 87 (Rb 87)</LI>
<LI>Ruthenium 97 (Ru 97)</LI>
<LI>Ruthenium 103 (Ru 103)</LI>
<LI>Ruthenium 105 (Ru 105)</LI>
<LI>Ruthenium 106 (Ru 106)</LI>
<LI>Samarium 151 (Sm 151)</LI>
<LI>Samarium 153 (Sm 153)</LI>
<LI>Scandium 46 (Sc 46)</LI>
<LI>Scandium 47 (Sc 47)</LI>
<LI>Scandium 48 (Sc 48)</LI>
<LI>Selenium 75 (Se 75)</LI>
<LI>Silicon 31 (Si 31)</LI>
<LI>Silver 105 (Ag 105)</LI>
<LI>Silver 110m (Ag 110m)</LI>
<LI>Silver 111 (Ag 111)</LI>
<LI>Sodium 22 (Na 22)</LI>
<LI>Sodium 24 (Na 24)</LI>
<LI>Strontium 85 (Sr 85)</LI>
<LI>Strontium 89 (Sr 89)</LI>
<LI>Strontium 90 (Sr 90)</LI>
<LI>Strontium 91 (Sr 91)</LI>
<LI>Strontium 92 (Sr 92)</LI>
<LI>Sulphur 35 (S 35)</LI>
<LI>Tantalum 182 (Ta 182)</LI>
<LI>Technetium 96 (Tc 96)</LI>
<LI>Technetium 97m (Tc 97m)</LI>
<LI>Technetium 97 (Tc 97)</LI>
<LI>Technetium 99m (Tc 99m)</LI>
<LI>Technetium 99 (Tc 99)</LI>
<LI>Tellurium 125m (Te 125m)</LI>
<LI>Tellurium 127m (Te 127m)</LI>
<LI>Tellurium 127 (Te 127)</LI>
<LI>Tellurium 129m (Te 129m)</LI>
<LI>Tellurium 129 (Te 129)</LI>
<LI>Tellurium 131m (Te 131m)</LI>
<LI>Tellurium 132 (Te 132)</LI>
<LI>Terbium 160 (Tb 160)</LI>
<LI>Thallium 200 (Tl 200)</LI>
<LI>Thallium 201 (Tl 201)</LI>
<LI>Thallium 202 (Tl 202)</LI>
<LI>Thallium 204 (Tl 204)</LI>
<LI>Thulium 170 (Tm 170)</LI>
<LI>Thulium 171 (Tm 171)</LI>
<LI>Tin 113 (Sn 113)</LI>
<LI>Tin 123 (Sn 123)</LI>
<LI>Tin 125 (Sn 125)</LI>
<LI>Tin 126 (Sn 126)</LI>
<LI>Titanium 44 (Ti 44)</LI>
<LI>Tritium (H3)</LI>
<LI>Tungsten 181 (W 181)</LI>
<LI>Tungsten 185 (W 185)</LI>
<LI>Tungsten 187 (W 187)</LI>
<LI>Vanadium 48 (V 48)</LI>
<LI>Xenon 131m (Xe 131m)</LI>
<LI>Xenon 133 (Xe 133)</LI>
<LI>Xenon 135 (Xe 135)</LI>
<LI>Ytterbium 175 (Yb 175)</LI>
<LI>Yttrium 87 (Y 87)</LI>
<LI>Yttrium 88 (Y 88)</LI>
<LI>Yttrium 90 (Y 90)</LI>
<LI>Yttrium 91 (Y 91)</LI>
<LI>Yttrium 92 (Y 92)</LI>
<LI>Yttrium 93 (Y 93)</LI>
<LI>Zinc 65 (Zn 65)</LI>
<LI>Zinc 69m (Zn 69m)</LI>
<LI>Zinc 69 (Zn 69)</LI>
<LI>Zirconium 93 (Zr 93)</LI>
<LI>Zirconium 95 (Zr 95)</LI>
<LI>Zirconium 97 (Zr 97)
</LI></SCOL2>
<EFTNT>
<P>
<SU>b</SU> Discrete sources of radium-226 (Ra-226).</P></EFTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 13005, Mar. 9, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 48998, Sept. 26, 1994. Redesignated and amended at 61 FR 35603, 35607, July 8, 1996; 65 FR 70292, Nov. 22, 2000; 71 FR 20339, Apr. 20, 2006; 75 FR 44093, July 28, 2010]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.36" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M to Part 110—Categorization of Nuclear Material 
<SU>d</SU>

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_description">[From IAEA INFCIRC/225, Rev. 1]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Material
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Form
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Category
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">III 
<sup>e</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Plutonium 
<sup>a</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unirradiated 
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 kg or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 2 kg but more than 500 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 g or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Uranium-235 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unirradiated: 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Uranium enriched to 20 pct U 
<sup>235</sup> or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 kg or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 5 kg but more than 1 kg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 kg or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Uranium enriched to 10 pct U 
<sup>235</sup> but less than 20 pct</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 kg or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 10 kg.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Uranium enriched above natural, but less than 10 pct U 
<sup>235</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 kg or more.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Uranium-233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unirradiated 
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 kg or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 2 kg but more than 500 g</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 g or less.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> All plutonium except that with isotopic concentration exceeding 80 pct in plutonium-238.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Material not irradiated in a reactor or material irradiated in a reactor but with a radiation level equal to or less than 100 rd/h at 1 m unshielded.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Natural uranium, depleted uranium, thorium and quantities of uranium enriched to less than 10% not falling into Category III should be protected in accordance with prudent management practice.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> Irradiated fuel should be protected as category I, II, or III nuclear material depending on the category of the fresh fuel. However, fuel which by virtue of its original fissile material content is included as category I or II before irradiation should only be reduced one category level, while the radiation level from the fuel exceeds 100 rd/h at 1 m unshielded.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> Physical security determinations will not be required for 15 g or less of plutonium, uranium-233 or high-enriched uranium, or for 1 kg or less of uranium with an enrichment between 10 and 20 pct in uranium-235.</P></DIV></DIV>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 161, as amended, Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 948 (42 U.S.C. 2201); sec. 201, as amended, Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1243 (42 U.S.C. 5841))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21641, May 19, 1978. Redesignated and amended at 49 FR 47204, Dec. 3, 1984. Further redesignated at 55 FR 30450, July 26, 1990; 58 FR 13005, Mar. 9, 1993; 61 FR 35603, July 8, 1996]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix N" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.37" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix N to Part 110—Illustrative List of Lithium Isotope Separation Facilities, Plants and Equipment Under NRC's Export Licensing Authority 
</HEAD>
<P>a. Facilities or plants for the separation of lithium isotopes. 
</P>
<P>b. Equipment for the separation of lithium isotopes, such as: 
</P>
<P>(1) Packed liquid-liquid exchange columns especially designed for lithium amalgams; 
</P>
<P>(2) Mercury and/or lithium amalgam pumps; 
</P>
<P>(3) Lithium amalgam electrolysis cells; 
</P>
<P>(4) Evaporators for concentrated lithium hydroxide solution.
</P>
<P>c. Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a reprocessing plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 70292, Nov. 22, 2000, as amended at 79 FR 39299, July 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix O" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.38" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix O to Part 110—Illustrative List of Fuel Element Fabrication Plant Equipment and Components Under NRC's Export Licensing Authority 
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Nuclear fuel elements are manufactured from source or special nuclear material. For oxide fuels, the most common type of fuel equipment for pressing pellets, sintering, grinding and grading will be present. Mixed oxide fuels are handled in glove boxes (or equivalent containment) until they are sealed in the cladding. In all cases, the fuel is hermetically sealed inside a suitable cladding which is designed to be the primary envelope encasing the fuel so as to provide suitable performance and safety during reactor operation. Also, in all cases, precise control of processes, procedures and equipment to extremely high standards is necessary in order to ensure predictable and safe fuel performance.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) Items that are considered especially designed or prepared for the fabrication of fuel elements include equipment that:
</P>
<P>(1) Normally comes in direct contact with, or directly processes or controls, the production flow of nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2) Seals the nuclear material within the cladding;
</P>
<P>(3) Checks the integrity of the cladding or the seal;
</P>
<P>(4) Checks the finished treatment of the sealed fuel; or
</P>
<P>(5) Is used for assembling reactor fuel elements.
</P>
<P>(b) This equipment or systems of equipment may include, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Fully automatic pellet inspection stations especially designed or prepared for checking final dimensions and surface defects of fuel pellets;
</P>
<P>(2) Automatic welding machines especially designed or prepared for welding end caps onto the fuel pins (or rods);
</P>
<P>(3) Automatic test and inspection stations especially designed or prepared for checking the integrity of completed fuel pins (or rods). This item typically includes equipment for:
</P>
<P>(i) X-ray examination of pin (or rod) end cap welds;
</P>
<P>(ii) Helium leak detection from pressurized pins (or rods); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Gamma-ray scanning of the pins (or rods) to check for correct loading of the fuel pellets inside.
</P>
<P>(4) Systems especially designed or prepared to manufacture nuclear fuel cladding.
</P>
<P>(c) Any other components especially designed or prepared for use in a fuel element fabrication plant or in any of the components described in this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 39299, July 10, 2014]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix P" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.20.11.133.7.39" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix P to Part 110—Category 1 and 2 Radioactive Material 

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Import and Export Threshold Limits 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Radioactive material 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Category 1 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Category 2 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Terabecquerels
<br/>(TBq) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Curies
<br/>(Ci) 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Terabecquerels
<br/>(TBq) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Curies
<br/>(Ci) 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Americium-241/Be</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Californium-252</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Curium-244</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cobalt-60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">810</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cesium-137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gadolinium-153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iridium-192</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-238
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plutonium-239/Be 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Promethium-147</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Radium-226 
<sup>a</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Selenium-75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strontium-90 (Y-90)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thulium-170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,400 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ytterbium-169</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The values to be used to determine whether a license is required are given in TBq. Curie (Ci) values are provided for practical usefulness only and are rounded after conversion.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The limits for Pu-238 and Pu-239/Be in this table apply for imports to the U.S. The limits for exports of Pu-238 and Pu-239/Be can be found in § 110.21.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Discrete sources of radium-226.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>Calculation of Shipments Containing Multiple Sources or Radionuclides
</HD2>
<P>The “sum of fractions” methodology for evaluating combinations of radionuclides being transported, is to be used when import or export shipments contain multiple sources or multiple radionuclides. The threshold limit values used in a sum of the fractions calculation must be the metric values (<I>i.e.</I>, TBq).
</P>
<P>I. If multiple sources and/or multiple radionuclides are present in an import or export shipment, the sum of the fractions of the activity of each radionuclides must be determined to verify the shipment is less than the Category 1 or 2 limits of Table 1, as appropriate. If the calculated sum of the fractions ratio, using the following equation, is greater than or equal to 1.0, then the import or export shipment exceeds the threshold limits of Table 1 and the applicable security provisions of this part apply.
</P>
<P>II. Use the equation below to calculate the sum of the fractions ratio by inserting the actual activity of the applicable radionuclides or of the individual sources (of the same radionuclides) in the numerator of the equation and the corresponding threshold activity limit from the Table 1 in the denominator of the equation. Ensure the numerator and denominator values are in the same units and all calculations must be performed using the TBq (<I>i.e.</I>, metric) values of Table 1.
</P>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">1</E> = activity for radionuclides or source number 1 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">2</E> = activity for radionuclides or source number 2 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">N</E> = activity for radionuclides or source number n 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR<E T="52">1</E> = activity limit for radionuclides or source number 1 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR<E T="52">2</E> = activity limit for radionuclides or source number 2 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AR<E T="52">N</E> = activity limit for radionuclides or source number n 


</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er30no21.047.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 37993, July 1, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 20339, Apr. 20, 2006; 82 FR 52826, Nov. 15, 2017; 86 FR 67843, Nov. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="140" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 140—FINANCIAL PROTECTION REQUIREMENTS AND INDEMNITY AGREEMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 161, 170, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 2210, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are issued to provide appropriate procedures and requirements for determining: 
</P>
<P>(a) The financial protection required of licensees and for the indemnification and limitation of liability of certain licensees and other persons pursuant to section 170 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; and 
</P>
<P>(b) The liability insurance required of uranium enrichment facility licensees pursuant to section 193 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 18394, Apr. 30, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) To each person who is an applicant for or holder of a license issued under 10 CFR part 50, 52, 53, or 54 to operate a nuclear reactor; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to an extraordinary nuclear occurrence, to each person who is an applicant for or holder of a license to operate a production facility or a utilization facility (including an operating license issued under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter and a combined license under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter), and to other persons indemnified with respect to the involved facilities.
</P>
<P>(3) To each person licensed pursuant to part 70 of this chapter to possess and use plutonium in a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant. 
</P>
<P>(4) To each person licensed pursuant to parts 40 and 70 of this chapter to construct and operate a uranium enrichment facility. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Subpart B of this part does not apply to any person subject to subparts C or D of this part. Subpart C of this part applies only to persons found by the Commission to be Federal agencies. Subpart D of this part applies only to persons found by the Commission to be nonprofit educational institutions with respect to licenses and applications for licenses for the conduct of educational activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any applicant or licensee subject to this part may apply for a finding that such applicant or licensee is subject to the provisions of subparts C or D of this part. The application should state the grounds for the requested finding. Any application for a finding pursuant to this paragraph may be included in an application for a license. 
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart E of this part sets forth the procedures the Commission will follow and the criteria the Commission will apply in making a determination as to whether or not there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. The form of nuclear energy liability policy for facilities (appendix A) and the forms of indemnity agreements with licensees (appendices B, C, D, and E) include provisions requiring the waiver of certain defenses with respect to an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. These provisions and subpart E are incorporated in this part pursuant to Pub. L. 89-645 (80 Stat. 891). They provide additional assurance of prompt compensation under available indemnity and underlying financial protection for injury or damage resulting from the hazardous properties of radioactive materials or radiation, and they in no way detract from the protection to the public otherwise provided under this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, as amended at 33 FR 15998, Oct. 31, 1968; 42 FR 48, Jan. 3, 1977; 56 FR 64980, Dec. 13, 1991; 57 FR 18394, Apr. 30, 1992; 72 FR 49564, Aug. 28, 2007; 83 FR 30288, June 28, 2018; 91 FR 15878, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919) including any amendments thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>), to the extent that the Department, or its duly authorized representatives, exercises functions formerly vested in the U.S. Atomic Energy Commission, its Chairman, members, officers and components and transferred to the U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration and to the Administrator thereof pursuant to sections 104 (b), (c) and (d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 at 1237, 42 U.S.C. 5814) and retransferred to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to section 301(a) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 at 577-578, 42 U.S.C. 7151).
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means a Government agency such that any liability in tort based on the activities of such agency would be satisfied by funds appropriated by the Congress and paid out of the United States Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Financial protection</I> means the ability to respond in damages for public liability and to meet the cost of investigating and defending claims and settling suits for such damages.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means any apparatus, other than an atomic weapon, designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-supporting chain reaction.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission or the Department, except that the Department shall be considered a person within the meaning of the regulations in this part to the extent that its facilities and activities are subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the Commission pursuant to section 202 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244), any State or any political subdivision thereof, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant</I> means a plant in which the following operations or activities are conducted:
</P>
<P>(1) Operations for manufacture of reactor fuel containing plutonium, where the license or licenses authorize the possession of either five or more kilograms of plutonium, excluding that contained in sealed sources and welded or otherwise sealed unirradiated or irradiated fuel rods, at the site of the plant or authorize the processing of one or more kilograms of plutonium, excluding that contained in sealed sources and welded or otherwise sealed unirradiated or irradiated fuel rods, at the plant, including any of the following processes:
</P>
<P>(i) Preparation of fuel material;
</P>
<P>(ii) Formation of fuel material into desired shapes;
</P>
<P>(iii) Application of protective cladding;
</P>
<P>(iv) Recovery of scrap material; and
</P>
<P>(v) Storage associated with such operations; or
</P>
<P>(2) Research and development activities involving any of the operations described in paragraph (1) of this definition, except for research and development activities where the operator is licensed to possess or use plutonium in amounts less than those specified in paragraph (1).
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means source material as defined in the regulations contained in part 40 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium 233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Act, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, but does not include source material.


</P>
<P><I>Testing facility</I> is defined at 10 CFR 50.2.




</P>
<P><I>Uranium enrichment facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any facility used for separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device, or important component part especially designed for such equipment or device, capable of separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 30288, June 28, 2018, as amended at 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.4   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretations of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, as amended at 90 FR 55634, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part and applications filed under them should be sent by mail addressed to: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5726, Jan. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009; 79 FR 75742, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74982, Dec. 1, 2015; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.6   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event of bodily injury or property damage arising out of or in connection with the possession or use of the radioactive material at the location or in the course of transportation, or in the event any claim is made therefor, written notice containing particulars sufficient to identify the licensee and reasonably obtainable information with respect to the time, place, and circumstances thereof, or to the nature of the claim, shall be furnished by or for the licensee to the Director, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, or Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, as appropriate, using an appropriate method listed in § 140.5, but in any case as promptly as practicable. The terms the radioactive material, the location, and in the course of transportation as used in this section shall have the meanings defined in the applicable indemnity agreement between the licensee and the Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may require any person subject to this part to keep such records and furnish such reports to the Commission as the Commission deems necessary for the administration of the regulations in this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, as amended at 41 FR 16447, Apr. 19, 1976; 42 FR 49, Jan. 3, 1977; 68 FR 58824, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5726, Jan. 31, 2008; 79 FR 75742, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.7   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each reactor licensee shall pay a fee to the Commission based on the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(i) For indemnification from $500 million to $400 million inclusive, a fee of $30 per year per thousand kilowatts of thermal capacity authorized in the license;
</P>
<P>(ii) For indemnification from $399 million to $300 million inclusive, a fee of $24 per year per thousand kilowatts of thermal capacity authorized in the license;
</P>
<P>(iii) For indemnification from $299 million to $200 million inclusive, a fee of $18 per year per thousand kilowatts of thermal capacity authorized in the license;
</P>
<P>(iv) For indemnification from $199 million to $100 million inclusive, a fee of $12 per year per thousand kilowatts of thermal capacity authorized in the license; and
</P>
<P>(v) For indemnification from $99 million to $1 million inclusive, a fee of $6 per year per thousand kilowatts of thermal capacity authorized in the license.
</P>
<P>(2) No fee will be less than $100 per annum for any nuclear reactor. This fee is for the period beginning with the date on which the applicable indemnity agreement is effective. The various levels of indemnity fees are set forth in the schedule in this paragraph. The amount of indemnification for determining indemnity fees will be computed by subtracting from the statutory limit of liability the amount of financial protection required of the licensee. In the case of licensees subject to the provision of § 140.11(a)(4), this total amount will be the amount, as determined by the Commission, of the financial protection available to licensees at the close of the calendar year preceding the one in which the fee becomes due. For those instances in which a certified financial statement is provided as a guarantee of payment of deferred premiums in accordance with § 140.21(e), a fee of $1,000 or the indemnity fee, whichever is greater, is required.
</P>
<P>(b) Where a licensee manufactures a number of nuclear reactors each having a power level not exceeding 3
<FR>1/3</FR> megawatts, for sale to others and operates them at the licensee's location temporarily prior to delivery, the licensee shall report to the Commission the maximum number of such reactors to be operated at that location at any one time. In such cases, the fee shall equal $100 multiplied by the number of reactors reported by the licensee. In the event the number of reactors operated at any one time exceed the estimate so reported, the licensee shall report the additional number of reactors to the Commission and additional charges will be made. If experience shows that less than the estimated number of reactors have been operated, appropriate adjustment in subsequent bills will be made by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each person licensed to possess and use plutonium in a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant shall pay to the Commission a fee of $5,000 per year for indemnification. This fee is for the period beginning with the date on which the applicable indemnity agreement is effective.
</P>
<P>(d) Indemnity fee payments are to made payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The payments are to be made in U.S. funds using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I> Federal agencies may also make payments by Intra-Governmental Payment and Collection (IPAC). Specific instructions for making payments may be obtained by contacting the Office of the Chief Financial Officer at 301-415-7554.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, as amended at 42 FR 49, Jan. 3, 1977; 63 FR 31851, June 10, 1998; 89 FR 51811, June 20, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.8   Specific exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission may, upon application of any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of the regulations in this part as it determines are authorized by law and are otherwise in the public interest. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[34 FR 19546, Dec. 11, 1969] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.9   Modification of indemnity agreements.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of its intent to enter into an indemnity agreement, or agreement amending an indemnity agreement, which contains provisions different from the form of the applicable indemnity agreement set forth in the appendices to this part, as such appendices may be amended from time to time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 1030, Jan. 10, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.9a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.1.134.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.9a   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0039.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 140.6, 140.7, 140.8, 140.13, 140.13a, 140.13b, 140.15, 140.17, 140.20, and 140.21.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52190, Oct. 6, 1997, as amended at 85 FR 65664, Oct. 16, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Provisions Applicable Only to Applicants and Licensees Other Than Federal Agencies and Nonprofit Educational Institutions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.10   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to each person who is an applicant for or holder of a license issued under 10 CFR part 50, 53 or 54 to operate a nuclear reactor, or is the applicant for or holder of a combined license issued under 10 CFR part 52, 53, or 54, except licenses held by persons found by the Commission to be Federal agencies or nonprofit educational institutions licensed to conduct educational activities. This subpart also applies to persons licensed to possess and use plutonium in a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15878, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.11   Amounts of financial protection for certain reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee is required to have and maintain financial protection:
</P>
<P>(1) In the amount of $1,000,000 for each nuclear reactor he is authorized to operate at a thermal power level not exceeding ten kilowatts; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the amount of $1,500,000 for each nuclear reactor he is authorized to operate at a thermal power level in excess of ten kilowatts but not in excess of one megawatt; 
</P>
<P>(3) In the amount of $2,500,000 for each nuclear reactor other than a testing facility or a reactor licensed under section 104b of the Act which he is authorized to operate at a thermal power level exceeding one megawatt but not in excess of ten megawatts; and 
</P>
<P>(4) In an amount equal to the sum of $500,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection (in the form of private liability insurance available under an industry retrospective rating plan providing for deferred premium charges equal to the pro rata share of the aggregate public liability claims and costs, excluding costs payment of which is not authorized by section 170o.(1)(D) of the Act, in excess of that covered by primary financial protection) for each nuclear reactor which is licensed to operate and which is designed for the production of electrical energy and has a rated capacity of 100,000 electrical kilowatts or more: Provided, however, that under such a plan for deferred premium charges for each nuclear reactor that is licensed to operate, no more than $158,026,000 with respect to any nuclear incident (plus any surcharge assessed under subsection 170o.(1)(E) of the Act) and no more than $24,714,000 per incident within one calendar year shall be charged. <I>Except that,</I> where a person is authorized to operate a combination of 2 or more nuclear reactors located at a single site, each of which has a rated capacity of 100,000 or more electrical kilowatts but not more than 300,000 electrical kilowatts with a combined rated capacity of not more than 1,300,000 electrical kilowatts, each such combination of reactors shall be considered to be a single nuclear reactor for the sole purpose of assessing the applicable financial protection required under this section.


</P>
<P>(b) In any case where a person is authorized under 10 CFR part 50, 52, 53, or 54 to operate two or more nuclear reactors at the same location, the total primary financial protection required of the licensee for all such reactors is the highest amount which would otherwise be required for any one of those reactors; provided, that such primary financial protection covers all reactors at the location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, as amended at 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 140.11, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.12   Amount of financial protection required for other reactors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each licensee is required to have and maintain financial protection for each nuclear reactor for which the amount of financial protection is not determined in § 140.11, in an amount determined pursuant to the formula and other provisions of this section: <I>Provided,</I> That in no event shall the amount of financial protection required for any nuclear reactor under this section be less than $4,500,000 or more than $74,000,000. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The formula is: 
</P>
<FP-2>x = B times P
</FP-2>
<P>(2) In the formula: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>x = Amount of financial protection in dollars. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = Base amount of financial protection. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P = Population factor.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The base amount of financial protection is equal to $185 times the maximum power level, expressed in thermal kilowatts, as authorized by the applicable license. 
</P>
<P>(4) The population factor (P) shall be determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Step 1.</I> The area to be considered includes all minor civil divisions (as shown in the 1950 Census of Population, Bureau of the Census, or later data available from the Bureau) which are wholly or partly within a circle with the facility at its center and having a radius in miles equal to the square root of the maximum authorized power level in thermal megawatts. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Step 2.</I> Identify all minor civil divisions according to the same census which are in whole or in part within the circle determined in Step 1. Determine the population of each such minor civil division (according to the same census or later data available from the Bureau of the Census). For each minor civil division, divide its population by the square of the estimated distance to the nearest mile from the reactor to the geographic center of the minor civil division: <I>Provided,</I> That no such distance shall be deemed to be less than one mile. If the sum of the quotients thus obtained for all minor civil divisions wholly or partly within the circle is 1,000 or less, the population factor is 1. If the sum of these quotients is more than 1,000 but not more than 3,000, the population factor is 1.2. If the sum of these quotients is more than 3,000 but not more than 5,000, the population factor is 1.4. If the sum of these quotients is more than 5,000 but not more than 7,000, the population factor is 1.6. If the sum of these quotients is more than 7,000 but not more than 9,000, the population factor is 1.8. If the sum of these quotients is more than 9,000 the population factor is 2.0. 


</P>
<P>(c) In any case where a person is authorized under 10 CFR part 50, 52, 53, or 54 to operate two or more nuclear reactors at the same location, the total financial protection required of the licensee for all such reactors is the highest amount which would otherwise be required for any one of those reactors; provided, that such financial protection covers all reactors at the location.
</P>
<P>(d) Except in cases where the amount of financial protection calculated under this section is a multiple of $100,000, amounts determined pursuant to this section shall be adjusted to the next highest multiple of $100,000. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, as amended at 26 FR 1397, Feb. 17, 1961; 32 FR 8125, June 7, 1967; 72 FR 49565, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15879, Mar. 30, 2026] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.13   Amount of financial protection required of certain holders of construction permits and combined licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Each holder of a 10 CFR part 50 or 10 CFR part 53 construction permit, or a holder of a combined license under part 52 or part 53 of this chapter before the date that the Commission had made the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter, who also holds a license under part 70 of this chapter authorizing ownership, possession and storage only of special nuclear material at the site of the nuclear reactor for use as fuel in operation of the nuclear reactor after issuance of either an operating license under 10 CFR part 50 or 53, or a combined license under 10 CFR part 52 or 53, shall, during the period before issuance of a license authorizing operation under 10 CFR part 50 or 53, or the period before the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter, as applicable, have and maintain financial protection in the amount of $1,000,000. Proof of financial protection shall be filed with the Commission in the manner specified in § 140.15 before issuance of the license under part 70 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15879, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.13a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.13a   Amount of financial protection required for plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each holder of a license issued pursuant to part 70 of this chapter to possess and use plutonium at a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant is required to have and maintain financial protection in the form specified in § 140.14 in the amount of $200,000,000. Proof of financial protection shall be filed with the Commission in the manner specified in § 140.15 prior to issuance of the license under part 70 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any case, when a person is authorized pursuant to part 70 of this chapter to possess and use plutonium at two or more plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plants at the same location, the total financial protection required of the licensee for all such plants is the highest amount which would otherwise be required for any one of those plants: <I>Provided, however,</I> That such financial protection covers all such plants at the location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 49, Jan. 3, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 20140, Apr. 18, 1977; 44 FR 20632, Apr. 6, 1979; 54 FR 24158, June 6, 1989; 83 FR 30289, June 28, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.13b" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.13b   Amount of liability insurance required for uranium enrichment facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Each holder of a license issued under parts 40 or 70 of this chapter for a uranium enrichment facility that involves the use of source material or special nuclear material is required to have and maintain liability insurance. The liability insurance must be the type and in the amounts the Commission considers appropriate to cover liability claims arising out of any occurrence within the United States that causes, within or outside the United States, bodily injury, sickness, disease, death, loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of chemical compounds containing source material or special nuclear material. Proof of liability insurance must be filed with the Commission as required by § 140.15 before issuance of a license for a uranium enrichment facility under parts 40 and 70 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 18394, Apr. 30, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.14" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.14   Types of financial protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amounts of financial protection required under this part may be furnished and maintained in the form of: 
</P>
<P>(1) An effective policy of liability insurance from private sources; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate resources to provide the financial protection required by § 140.11, § 140.12; § 140.13 or § 140.13a; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Such other type of financial protection as the Commission may approve; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any combination of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any case where the Commission has approved proof of financial protection filed by a licensee the licensee shall not substitute one type of financial protection for another type without first obtaining the written approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, as amended at 42 FR 49, Jan. 3, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.15   Proof of financial protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Licensees who maintain financial protection in whole or in part in the form of liability insurance shall provide proof of financial protection that consists of a copy of the liability policy (or policies) together with a certificate by the insurers issuing the policy stating that the copy is a true copy of the currently effective policy issued to the licensee. The licensee may furnish proof of financial protection in the form of the nuclear energy liability insurance policy set forth in § 140.91 or in any other form acceptable to the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) Such proof may alternatively, consist of a copy of the declarations page of a nuclear energy liability policy in the form set forth in § 140.91 and issued to the licensee: <I>Provided,</I> That such policy form has been filed by the insurers with the Commission. The declarations page shall be accompanied by a certificate by the insurers stating that said copy is a true copy of the declarations page of a currently effective policy and identifying the policy (including endorsements) by reference to the policy form which has been filed by them with the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission will accept any other form of nuclear energy liability insurance as proof of financial protection if it determines that the provisions of such insurance provide financial protection under the requirements of the Commission's regulations and the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of financial protection in the case of licensees who maintain financial protection in whole or in part in the form specified in § 140.14(a)(2) shall consist of a showing that the licensee clearly has adequate resources to provide the financial protection required under this part. For this purpose the applicant or licensee shall file with the Commission: 
</P>
<P>(1) Annual financial statements for the three complete calendar or fiscal years preceding the date of filing, together with an opinion thereon by a certified public accountant. The financial statements shall include balance sheets, operating statements and such supporting schedules as may be needed for interpretation of the balance sheets and operating statements. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the most recent statements required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section have been prepared as of a date more than 90 days prior to the date of filing, similar financial statements, prepared as of a date not more than 90 days prior to the date of filing, should be included. These statements need not be reviewed by a certified public accountant. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may require any licensee to file with the Commission such additional proof of financial protection or other financial information as the Commission determines to be appropriate for the purpose of determining whether the licensee is maintaining financial protection as required under this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) Proof of financial protection shall be subject to the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(e) The licensee shall promptly notify the Commission of any material change in proof of financial protection or in other financial information filed with the Commission under this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2944, Apr. 7, 1960, as amended at 33 FR 15999, Oct. 31, 1968; 49 FR 11148, Mar. 26, 1984] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.16   Commission review of proof of financial protection.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will review proof of financial protection filed by any licensee or applicant for license. If the Commission finds that the licensee or applicant for license is maintaining financial protection in accordance with the requirements of this part, approval of the financial protection will be evidenced by incorporation of appropriate provision in the license. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.17   Special provisions applicable to licensees furnishing financial protection in whole or in part in the form of liability insurance.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where a licensee undertakes to maintain financial protection in the form of liability insurance for all or part of the financial protection required by this part, 
</P>
<P>(a) The Commission may require proof that the organization or organizations which have issued such policies are legally authorized to issue them and do business in the United States and have clear ability to meet their obligations; and 
</P>
<P>(b) At least 30 days prior to the termination of any such policy, the licensee shall notify the Commission of the renewal of such policy or shall file other proof of financial protection. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.18" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.18   Special provisions applicable to licensees furnishing financial protection in whole or in part in the form of adequate resources.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where a licensee undertakes to maintain financial protection in the form specified in § 140.14(a)(2) for all or part of the financial protection required by this part, the Commission may require such licensee to file with the Commission such financial information as the Commission determines to be appropriate for the purpose of determining whether the licensee is maintaining financial protection as required by this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 43385, Aug. 29, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.19   Failure by licensees to maintain financial protection.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where the Commission finds that the financial protection maintained by a licensee is not adequate to meet the requirements of this part, the Commission may suspend or revoke the license or may issue such order with respect to licensed activities as the Commission determines to be appropriate or necessary in order to carry out the provisions of this part and of section 170 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.20   Indemnity agreements and liens.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will execute and issue agreements of indemnity pursuant to the regulations in this part or such other regulations as may be issued by the Commission. Such agreements, as to any licensee, shall be effective on: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The effective date of the license (issued under part 50 or part 53 of this chapter) authorizing the licensee to operate the nuclear reactor involved; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date that the Commission makes the finding under § 52.103(g) or § 53.1452(g) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The effective date of the license (issued under part 70 of this chapter) authorizing the licensee to possess and store special nuclear material at the site of the nuclear reactor for use as fuel in operation of the nuclear reactor after issuance of an operating license for the reactor, whichever is earlier. No such agreement, however, shall be effective prior to September 26, 1957; or
</P>
<P>(2) August 1, 1977 or the effective date of the license (issued pursuant to part 70 of this chapter) authorizing the licensee to possess and use plutonium at the site of the plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant for processing in that plant, whichever date is later. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the licensee fails to pay assessed deferred premiums, the Commission reserves the right to pay those premiums on behalf of the licensee and to recover the amount of such premiums from the licensee. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission shall require the immediate submission of financial statements by those licensees who indicate, after an assessment of the retrospective premium by the insurance pools, that they will not pay the assessment. Such financial statements shall include, as a minimum, exhibits indicating internally generated funds from operations and accumulated retained earnings. Subsequent submission of financial statements by such licensees may be requested by the Commission, as required. 
</P>
<P>(d) If premiums are paid by the Commission as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, payment by the Commission shall create a lien in the amount paid in favor of the United States upon all property and rights to property, whether real or personal, belonging to such licensee. The lien shall arise at the time payment is made by the Commission and shall continue until the liability for the amount (or a judgment against the licensee arising out of such liability) is satisfied or becomes unenforceable. The Commission will issue a certificate of release of any such lien if it finds that the liability for the amount has been fully satisfied or has become legally unenforceable. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the Commission determines that the licensee is financially able to reimburse the Commission for a deferred premium payment made in its behalf, and the licensee, after notice of such determination by the Commission fails to make such reimbursement within 120 days, the Commission will take appropriate steps to suspend the license for 30 days. The Commission may take such further action as is necessary if reimbursement is not made within the 30-day suspension period including but not limited to termination of the operating license. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1)(i) The general form of indemnity agreement to be entered into by the Commission with reactor licensees who furnish financial protection in the form of the nuclear energy liability insurance policy set forth in appendix A is contained in § 140.92, appendix B. The general form of indemnity agreement to be entered into by the Commission with reactor licensees who furnish financial protection in the form specified in § 140.14(a)(2) is set forth in § 140.93, appendix C. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The general form of indemnity agreement to be entered into by the Commission with persons licensed to possess and use plutonium in a plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant and who furnish financial protection in the form of the nuclear energy liability insurance policy set forth in appendix A 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> is contained in § 140.107, appendix G. The general form of indemnity agreement to be entered into by the Commission with such licensees who furnish financial protection in the form specified in § 140.14(a)(2) is set forth in § 140.108, appendix H.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The form of the nuclear energy liability insurance policy for these licensees will be the subject of pertinent endorsements after discussion with the insurance pools.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The form of indemnity agreement to be entered into by the Commission with any particular licensee under this subpart shall contain such modifications of the applicable form in §§ 140.92, 140.93, 140.107 and 140.108, appendices A, B, C, G and H, as are provided for in applicable licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee who has executed an indemnity agreement under this subpart shall enter into such agreements amending such indemnity agreement as are required by applicable licenses, regulations, or orders of the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 49, Jan. 3, 1977, as amended at 72 FR 49565, Aug. 28, 2007; 91 FR 15879, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.21   Licensee guarantees of payment of deferred premiums.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee required to have and maintain financial protection for each nuclear reactor as determined in § 140.11(a)(4) shall at the issuance of the license and annually, on the anniversary of the date on which the indemnity agreement is effective, provide evidence to the Commission that it maintains one of the following types of guarantee of payment of deferred premium in the amount specified in § 140.11(a)(4) for each reactor it is licensed to operate:
</P>
<P>(a) Surety bond, 
</P>
<P>(b) Letter of credit, 
</P>
<P>(c) Revolving credit/term loan arrangement, 
</P>
<P>(d) Maintenance of escrow deposits of government securities, 
</P>
<P>(e) Annual certified financial statement showing either that a cash flow (<I>i.e.</I>, cash available to a company after all operating expenses, taxes, interest charges, and dividends have been paid) can be generated and would be available for payment of retrospective premiums within three (3) months after submission of the statement, or a cash reserve or a combination of cash flow and cash reserve, or 
</P>
<P>(f) Such other type of guarantee as may be approved by the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 50, Jan. 3, 1977, as amended at 71 FR 15012, Mar. 27, 2006; 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009; 79 FR 38769, July 9, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.22" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.2.134.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.22   Commission guarantee and reimbursement agreements.</HEAD>
<P>Each licensee required to have and maintain financial protection for each nuclear reactor as determined in § 140.11(a)(4) shall execute an indemnity agreement with the Commission that provides for the payment by the Commission of deferred premiums not paid by the licensee and reimbursement of the Commission by the licensee. The general forms of agreement to be entered into by the Commission and licensees are set forth in § 140.92, appendix B and § 140.93, appendix C.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 50, Jan. 3, 1977, as amended at 83 FR 30289, June 28, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Provisions Applicable Only to Federal Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.3.134.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.51   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies only to persons found by the Commission to be Federal agencies, which have applied for or are holders of licenses issued pursuant to part 50 of this chapter authorizing operation of nuclear reactors. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Federal agencies are not required to furnish financial protection.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.52" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.3.134.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.52   Indemnity agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will execute and issue agreements of indemnity with each Federal agency subject to this subpart pursuant to the regulations in this part or such other regulations as may be issued by the Commission. Such agreements, as to any licensee, shall be effective on: 
</P>
<P>(1) The effective date of the license (issued pursuant to part 50 of this chapter) authorizing the licensee to operate the nuclear reactor involved; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The effective date of the license (issued pursuant to part 70 of this chapter) authorizing the licensee to possess and store special nuclear material at the site of the nuclear reactor for use as fuel in operation of the nuclear reactor after issuance of an operating license for the reactor, whichever is earlier. No such agreement, however, shall be effective prior to September 26, 1957. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The general form of indemnity agreement to be entered into with licensees subject to this subpart is contained in § 140.94 appendix D. 
</P>
<P>(2) The form of indemnity agreement to be entered into by the Commission with any particular licensee under this subpart shall contain such modifications of the form in § 140.94, as are provided for in applicable licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee who has executed an indemnity agreement under this subpart shall enter into such agreements amending such indemnity agreement as are required by applicable licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 2885, Mar. 29, 1962, as amended at 33 FR 15999, Oct. 31, 1968] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Provisions Applicable Only to Nonprofit Educational Institutions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.71" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.4.134.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.71   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies only to applicants for and holders of licenses issued for the conduct of educational activities to persons found by the Commission to be nonprofit educational institutions, except that this subpart does not apply to Federal agencies. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Financial protection is not required with respect to licenses issued for the conduct of educational activities to persons found by the Commission to be non-profit educational institutions.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.72" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.4.134.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.72   Indemnity agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission will execute and issue agreements of indemnity with each non-profit educational institution subject to this subpart pursuant to the regulations in this part or such other regulations as may be issued by the Commission. Such agreements, as to any licensee, shall be effective on: 
</P>
<P>(1) The effective date of the license (issued pursuant to part 50 of this chapter) authorizing the licensee to operate the nuclear reactor involved; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The effective date of the license (issued pursuant to part 70 of this chapter) authorizing the licensee to possess and store special nuclear material at the site of the nuclear reactor for use as fuel in operation of the nuclear reactor after issuance of an operating license for the reactor, whichever is earlier. No such agreement, however, shall be effective prior to September 26, 1957. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The general form of indemnity agreement to be entered into with licensees subject to this subpart is contained in § 140.95 appendix E. 
</P>
<P>(2) The form of indemnity agreement to be entered into by the Commission with any particular licensee under this subpart shall contain such modifications of the form in § 140.95 appendix E, as are provided for in applicable licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each licensee who has executed an indemnity agreement under this subpart shall enter into such agreements amending such indemnity agreement as are required by applicable licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 2885, Mar. 29, 1962, as amended at 33 FR 15999, Oct. 31, 1968] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Extraordinary Nuclear Occurrences</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.81" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.5.134.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.81   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to applicants for and holders of licenses authorizing operation of production facilities and utilization facilities, including combined licenses under part 52 of this chapter, and to other persons indemnified with respect to such facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> One purpose of this subpart is to set forth the criteria which the Commission proposes to follow in order to determine whether there has been an “extraordinary nuclear occurrence.” The other purpose is to establish the conditions of the waivers of defenses proposed for incorporation in indemnity agreements and insurance policies or contracts furnished as proof of financial protection. 
</P>
<P>(1) The system is to come into effect only where the discharge or dispersal constitutes a substantial amount of source, special nuclear or byproduct material, or has caused substantial radiation levels offsite. The various limits in present NRC regulations are not appropriate for direct application in the determination of an “extraordinary nuclear occurrence,” for they were arrived at with other purposes in mind, and those limits have been set at a level which is conservatively arrived at by incorporating a significant safety factor. Thus, a discharge or dispersal which exceeds the limits in NRC regulations, or in license conditions, although possible cause for concern, is not one which would be expected to cause substantial injury or damage unless it exceeds by some significant multiple the appropriate regulatory limit. Accordingly, in arriving at the values in the criteria to be deemed “substantial” it is more appropriate to adopt values separate from NRC health and safety regulations, and, of course, the selection of these values will not in any way affect such regulations. A substantial discharge, for purposes of the criteria, represents a perturbation of the environment which is clearly above that which could be anticipated from the conduct of normal activities. The criteria are intended solely for the purposes of administration of the Commission's statutory responsibilities under Pub. L. 89-645, and are not intended to indicate a level of discharge or dispersal at which damage to persons or property necessarily will occur, or a level at which damage is likely to occur, or even a level at which some type of protective action is indicated. It should be clearly understood that the criteria in no way establish or indicate that there is a specific threshold of exposure at which biological damage from radiation will take place. It cannot be emphasized too frequently that the levels set to be used as criteria for the first part of the determination, that is, the criteria for amounts offsite or radiation levels offsite which are substantial, are not meant to indicate that, because such amounts or levels are determined to be substantial for purposes of administration, they are “substantial” in terms of their propensity for causing injury or damage. 
</P>
<P>(2) It is the purpose of the second part of the determination that the Commission decide whether there have in fact been or will probably be substantial damages to persons offsite or property offsite. The criteria for substantial damages were formulated, and the numerical values selected, on a wholly different basis from that on which the criteria used for the first part of the determination with respect to substantial discharge were derived. The only interrelation between the values selected for the discharge criteria and the damage criteria is that the discharge values are set so low that it is extremely unlikely the damage criteria could be satisfied unless the discharge values have been exceeded. 
</P>
<P>(3) The first part of the test is designed so that the Commission can assure itself that something exceptional has occurred; that something untoward and unexpected has in fact taken place and that this event is of sufficient significance to raise the possibility that some damage to persons or property offsite has resulted or may result. If there appears to be no damage, the waivers will not apply because the Commission will be unable, under the second part of the test, to make a determination that “substantial damages” have resulted or will probably result. If damages have resulted or will probably result, they could vary from de minimis to serious, and the waivers will not apply until the damages, both actual and probable, are determined to be “substantial” within the second part of the test. 
</P>
<P>(4) The presence or absence of an extraordinary nuclear occurrence determination does not concomitantly determine whether or not a particular claimant will recover on his claim. In effect, it is intended primarily to determine whether certain potential obstacles to recovery are to be removed from the route the claimant would ordinarily follow to seek compensation for his injury or damage. If there has not been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence determination, the claimant must proceed (in the absence of settlement) with a tort action subject to whatever issues must be met, and whatever defenses are available to the defendant, under the law applicable in the relevant jurisdiction. If there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence determination, the claimant must still proceed (in the absence of settlement) with a tort action, but the claimant's burden is substantially eased by the elimination of certain issues which may be involved and certain defenses which may be available to the defendant. In either case the defendant may defend with respect to such of the following matters as are in issue in any given claim: The nature of the claimant's alleged damages, the causal relationship between the event and the alleged damages, and the amount of the alleged damages. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 15999, Oct. 31, 1968, as amended at 40 FR 8793, Mar. 3, 1975; 72 FR 49565, Aug. 28, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.82" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.5.134.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.82   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may initiate, on its own motion, the making of a determination as to whether or not there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. In the event the Commission does not so initiate the making of a determination, any affected person, or any licensee or person with whom an indemnity agreement is executed or a person providing financial protection may petition the Commission for a determination of whether or not there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. If the Commission does not have, or does not expect to have, within 7 days after it has received notification of an alleged event, enough information available to make a determination that there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence, the Commission will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth the date and place of the alleged event and requesting any persons having knowledge thereof to submit their information to the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a procedure is initiated under paragraph (a) of this section, the Commission will designate members of the principal staff to begin immediately to assemble the relevant information and prepare a report on which the Commission can make its determination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 15999, Oct. 31, 1968, as amended at 40 FR 8794, Mar. 3, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.83" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.5.134.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.83   Determination of extraordinary nuclear occurrence.</HEAD>
<P>If the Commission determines that both of the criteria set forth in §§ 140.84 and 140.85 have been met, it will make the determination that there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. If the Commission publishes a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 140.82(a) and does not make a determination within 90 days thereafter that there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence, the alleged event will be deemed not to be an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. The time for the making of a determination may be extended by the Commission by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 15999, Oct. 31, 1968]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.84" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.5.134.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.84   Criterion I—Substantial discharge of radioactive material or substantial radiation levels offsite.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission will determine that there has been a substantial discharge or dispersal of radioactive material offsite, or that there have been substantial levels of radiation offsite, when, as a result of an event comprised of one or more related happenings, radioactive material is released from its intended place of confinement or radiation levels occur offsite and either of the following findings are also made: 
</P>
<P>(a) The Commission finds that one or more persons offsite were, could have been, or might be exposed to radiation or to radioactive material, resulting in a dose or in a projected dose in excess of one of the levels in the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Total Projected Radiation Doses
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Critical organ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dose (rems)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyroid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole body</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bone marrow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other organs or tissues</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Exposures from the following types of sources of radiation shall be included: 
</FP>
<P>(1) Radiation from sources external to the body; 
</P>
<P>(2) Radioactive material that may be taken into the body from its occurrence in air or water; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Radioactive material that may be taken into the body from its occurrence in food or on terrestrial surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) Surface contamination of at least a total of any 100 square meters of offsite property has occurred as the result of a release of radioactive material from a production or utilization facility and such contamination is characterized by levels of radiation in excess of one of the values listed in Column 1 or Column 2 of the following table, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Surface contamination of any offsite property has occurred as the result of a release of radioactive material in the course of transportation and such contamination is characterized by levels of radiation in excess of one of the values listed in column 2 of the following table: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Total Surface Contamination Levels 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of emitter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column 1 Offsite property, contiguous to site, owned or leased by person with whom an indemnity agreement is executed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column 2 Other offsite property
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha emission from transuranic isotopes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 microcuries per square meter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 microcuries per square meter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha emission from isotopes other than transuranic isotopes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35 microcuries per square meter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 microcuries per square meter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beta or gamma mission</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 millirads/hour @ 1 cm.
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 millirads/hour @ 1 cm.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The maximum levels (above background), observed or projected, 8 or more hours after initial deposition.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Measured through not more than 7 milligrams per square centimeter of total absorber.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 15999, Oct. 31, 1968, as amended at 40 FR 8794, Mar. 3, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.85" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.5.134.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.85   Criterion II—Substantial damages to persons offsite or property offsite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the Commission has determined that an event has satisfied Criterion I, the Commission will determine that the event has resulted or will probably result in substantial damages to persons offsite or property offsite if any of the following findings are made: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission finds that such event has resulted in the death or hospitalization, within 30 days of the event, of five or more people located offsite showing objective clinical evidence of physical injury from exposure to the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of source, special nuclear, or byproduct material; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission finds that $2,500,000 or more of damage offsite has been or will probably be sustained by any one person, or $5 million or more of such damage in the aggregate has been or will probably be sustained, as the result of such event; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The Commission finds that $5,000 or more of damage offsite has been or will probably be sustained by each of 50 or more persons, provided that $1 million or more of such damage in the aggregate has been or will probably be sustained, as the result of such event. 
</P>
<P>(b) As used in paragraphs (a) (2) and (3) of this section, “damage” shall be that arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of source, special nuclear, or byproduct material, and shall be based upon estimates of one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Total cost necessary to put affected property back into use, 
</P>
<P>(2) Loss of use of affected property, 
</P>
<P>(3) Value of affected property where not practical to restore to use, 
</P>
<P>(4) Financial loss resulting from protective actions appropriate to reduce or avoid exposure to radiation or to radioactive materials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 15999, Oct. 31, 1968] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.87" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.87   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55080, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.89" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.89   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 140 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for the sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 140 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 140.1, 140.2, 140.3, 140.4, 140.5, 140.7, 140.8, 140.9, 140.9a, 140.10, 140.14, 140.16, 140.18, 140.19, 140.20, 140.51, 140.52, 140.71, 140.72, 140.81, 140.82, 140.83, 140.84, 140.85, 140.87, 140.89, 140.91, 140.92, 140.93, 140.94, 140.95, 140.96, 140.107, 140.108, and 140.109.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55080, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="134" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Appendixes to Part 140</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.91" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.91   Appendix A—Form of nuclear energy liability policy for facilities.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>While the text of the policy which follows is exemplary of a contract acceptable to the Commission as evidence of the financial protection required of the licensee by section 170 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, variations on this text submitted by the licensee also will be considered by the Commission in determining whether the licensee meets the financial protection requirements of the Act. The full text of the policy is published solely for the purpose of completeness. Publication of this text should not be construed as a Commission endorsement of any particular provision pertaining solely to the business relationship between the insurers and the insureds or to any other matter not within the Commission's statutory jurisdiction under the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form)
</HD1>
<P>The undersigned members of __________, hereinafter called the “companies,” each for itself, severally and not jointly, and in the respective proportions hereinafter set forth, agree with the insured, named in the declarations made a part hereof, in consideration of the premium and in reliance upon the statements in the declarations and subject to the limit of liability, exclusions, conditions and other terms of this policy; 
</P>
<HD1>insuring agreements
</HD1>
<P>I. <I>Coverage A—Bodily injury and property damage liability.</I> To pay on behalf of the insured: 
</P>
<P>(1) All sums which the insured shall become legally obligated to pay as damages because of bodily injury or property damage caused by the nuclear energy hazard, and the companies shall defend any suit against the insured alleging such bodily injury or property damage and seeking damages which are payable under the terms of this policy; but the companies may make such investigation, negotiation and settlement of any claim or suit as they deem expedient; 
</P>
<P>(2) Costs taxed against the insured in any such suit and interest on any judgment therein; 
</P>
<P>(3) Premiums on appeal bonds and on bonds to release attachments in any such suit, but without obligation to apply for or furnish such bonds; 
</P>
<P>(4) Reasonable expenses, other than loss of earnings, incurred by the insured at the companies' request. 
</P>
<P><I>Coverage B—Damage to property of an insured away from the facility.</I> With respect to property damage caused by the nuclear energy hazard to property of an insured which is away from the facility, to pay to such insured those sums which such insured would have been legally obligated to pay as damages therefor, had such property belonged to another. 
</P>
<P><I>Coverage C—Subrogation—Offsite employees.</I> With respect to bodily injury sustained by any employee of an insured and caused by the nuclear energy hazard, to pay to the workmen's compensation carrier of such insured all sums which such carrier would have been entitled to recover and retain as damages from another person or organization, had such person or organization alone been legally responsible for such bodily injury, by reason of the rights acquired by subrogation by the payment of the benefits required of such carrier under the applicable workmen's compensation or occupational disease law. An employer who is a duly qualified self-insurer under such law shall be deemed to be a workmen's compensation carrier within the meaning of this coverage. This Coverage C does not apply to bodily injury sustained by any person who is employed at and in connection with the facility. This Coverage C shall not constitute workmen's compensation insurance as required under the laws of any state. 
</P>
<P>II. <I>Definition of insured.</I> The unqualified word <I>insured</I> includes (a) the named insured and (b) any other person or organization with respect to his legal responsibility for damages because of bodily injury or property damage caused by the nuclear energy hazard. 
</P>
<P>Subdivision (b) above does not include as an insured the United States of America or any of its agencies. 
</P>
<P>Subject to Condition 3 and the other provisions of this policy, the insurance applies separately to each insured against whom claim is made or suit is brought. 
</P>
<P>III. <I>Definitions.</I> Wherever used in this policy: 
</P>
<P><I>Bodily injury</I> means bodily injury, sickness or disease, including death resulting therefrom, sustained by any person; 
</P>
<P><I>Property damage</I> means physical injury to or destruction or radioactive contamination of property, and loss of use of property so injured, destroyed or contaminated, and loss of use of property while evacuated or withdrawn from use because possibly so contaminated or because of imminent danger of such contamination; 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear material</I> means source material, special nuclear material or byproduct material; 
</P>
<P><I>Source material, special nuclear material,</I> and <I>byproduct material</I> have the meanings given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof; 
</P>
<P><I>Spent fuel</I> means any fuel element or fuel component, solid or liquid, which has been used or exposed to radiation in any nuclear reactor; 
</P>
<P><I>Waste</I> means any waste material (1) containing byproduct material and (2) resulting from the operation by any person or organization of any nuclear facility included within the definition of nuclear facility under paragraph (1) or (2) thereof; 
</P>
<P><I>The facility</I> means the facility described in the declarations and includes the location designated in Item 3 of the declarations and all property and operations at such location; 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear facility</I> means <I>the facility</I> as defined in any Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued by the companies or by __________________________________.
</P>
<FP>The term <I>nuclear facility</I> also means 
</FP>
<P>(1) Any nuclear reactor, 
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device designed or used for (a) separating the isotopes of uranium or plutonium, (b) processing or utilizing spent fuel, or (c) handling, processing or packaging waste, 
</P>
<P>(3) Any equipment or device used for the processing, fabricating or alloying of special nuclear material if at any time the total amount of such material in the custody of the insured at the premises where such equipment or device is located consists of or contains more than 25 grams of plutonium or uranium-233 or any combination thereof, or more than 250 grams of uranium-235, 
</P>
<P>(4) Any structure, basin, excavation, premises or place prepared or used for the storage or disposal of waste, and includes the site on which any of the foregoing is located, all operations conducted on such site and all premises used for such operations; 
</P>
<P><I>Indemnified nuclear facility</I> means 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The facility</I> as defined in any Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued by the companies or by ______________________________________________,
</P>
<P>(2) Any other nuclear facility,
</P>
<FP>if financial protection is required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or any law amendatory thereof, with respect to any activities or operations conducted thereat; 
</FP>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means any apparatus designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-supporting chain reaction or to contain a critical mass of fissionable material; 
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear energy hazard</I> means the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of nuclear material, but only if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The nuclear material is at the facility or has been discharged or dispersed therefrom without intent to relinquish possession or custody thereof to any person or organization, or 
</P>
<P>(2) The nuclear material is in an insured shipment which is (a) in the course of transportation, including handling and temporary storage incidental thereto, within the territorial limits of the United States of America, its territories or possessions, Puerto Rico or the Canal Zone and (b) away from any other nuclear facility; 
</P>
<P><I>Insured shipment</I> means a shipment of source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel of waste, herein called <I>material,</I> (1) to the facility from a nuclear facility owned by the United States of America, but only if the transportation of the material is not by predetermination to be interrupted by the removal of the material from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation, or (2) from the facility to any other location except an indemnified nuclear facility, but only until the material is removed from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation. 
</P>
<P>IV. <I>Application of policy.</I> This policy applies only to bodily injury or property damage (1) which is caused during the policy period by the nuclear energy hazard and (2) which is discovered and for which written claim is made against the insured, not later than two years after the end of the policy period. 
</P>
<HD1>Exclusions
</HD1>
<P>This policy does not apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) To any obligation for which the insured or any carrier as his insurer may be held liable under any workmen's compensation, unemployment compensation or disability benefits law, or under any similar law; 
</P>
<P>(b) Except with respect to liability of another assumed by the insured under contract, to bodily injury to any employee of the insured arising out of and in the course of his employment by the insured; but this exclusion does not apply to bodily injury to any person who is not employed at and in connection with the facility if the insured has complied with the requirements of the applicable workmen's compensation or occupational disease law respecting the securing of compensation benefits thereunder to his employees; 
</P>
<P>(c) To liability assumed by the insured under contract, other than an assumption in a contract with another of the liability of any person or organization which would be imposed by law on such person or organization in the absence of an express assumption of liability; 
</P>
<P>(d) To bodily injury or property damage due to the manufacturing, handling or use at the location designated in Item 3 of the declarations, in time of peace or war, of any nuclear weapon or other instrument of war utilizing special nuclear material or byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(e) To bodily injury or property damage due to war, whether or not declared, civil war, insurrection, rebellion or revolution, or to any act or conditions incident to any of the foregoing; 
</P>
<P>(f) To property damage to any property at the location designated in Item 3 of the declarations, other than aircraft, watercraft or vehicles licensed for highway use, provided such aircraft, watercraft or vehicles are not used in connection with the operation of the facility; 
</P>
<P>(g) To property damage to nuclear material in the course of transportation to or from the facility including handling or storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(h) Under Coverage B, to property damage due to neglect of the insured to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of the occurrence resulting in such property damage. 
</P>
<HD1>Conditions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Premium</I>—(1) <I>Definitions.</I> With reference to the premium for this policy: <I>advance premium,</I> for any calendar year, is the estimated standard premium for that calendar year; 
</P>
<P><I>Standard premium,</I> for any calendar year, is the premium for that calendar year computed in accordance with the companies' rules, rates, rating plans (other than the Industry Credit Rating Plan), premiums and minimum premiums applicable to this insurance; 
</P>
<P><I>Reserve premium</I> means that portion of the standard premium paid to the companies and specifically allocated under the Industry Credit Rating Plan for incurred losses. The amount of the <I>reserve premium</I> for this policy for any calendar year during which this policy is in force is the amount designated as such in the Standard Premium Endorsement for that calendar year; 
</P>
<P><I>Industry reserve premium,</I> for any calendar year, is the sum of the reserve premiums for that calendar year for all Nuclear Energy Liability Policies issued by the Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters and subject to the Industry Credit Rating Plan; 
</P>
<P><I>Policy refund ratio,</I> for any calendar year, is the ratio of the named insured's reserve premium for that calendar year to the industry reserve premium for that calendar year; 
</P>
<P><I>Incurred losses</I> means the sum of: 
</P>
<P>(1) All losses and expenses by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters, and 
</P>
<P>(2) All reserves for unpaid losses and expenses as estimated by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters because of obligations assumed and the expenses incurred in connection with such obligations by members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters under all Nuclear Energy Liability Policies issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters and subject to the Industry Credit Rating Plan; 
</P>
<P><I>Reserve for refunds,</I> at the end of any calendar year, is the amount by which (1) the sum of all industry reserve premiums for the period from January 1, 1957 through the end of such calendar year exceeds (2) the total for the same period of (a) all incurred losses, valued as of the next following July 1, and (b) all reserve premium refunds made under the Industry Credit Rating Plan by members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters; 
</P>
<P><I>Industry reserve premium refund,</I> for any calendar year, is determined by multiplying the reserve for refunds at the end of the ninth calendar year thereafter by the ratio of the industry reserve premium for the calendar year for which the premium refund is being determined to the sum of such amount and the total industry reserve premiums for the next nine calendar years thereafter, provided that the industry reserve premium refund for any calendar year shall in no event be greater than the industry reserve premium for such calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment of advance and standard premiums.</I> The named insured shall pay the companies the advance premium stated in the declarations, for the period from the effective date of this policy through December 31 following. Thereafter, at the beginning of each calendar year while this policy is in force, the named insured shall pay the advance premium for such year to the companies. The advance premium for each calendar year shall be stated in the Advance Premium Endorsement for such calendar year issued to the named insured as soon as practicable prior to or after the beginning of such year. 
</P>
<P>As soon as practicable after each December 31 and after the termination of this policy, the standard premium for the preceding calendar year shall be finally determined and stated in the Standard Premium Endorsement for that calendar year. If the standard premium so determined exceeds the advance premium previously paid for such calendar year, the named insured shall pay the excess to the companies; if less, the companies shall return to the named insured the excess portion paid by such insured. 
</P>
<P>The named insured shall maintain records of the information necessary for premium computation and shall send copies of such records to the companies as directed, at the end of each calendar year, at the end of the policy period and at such other times during the policy period as the companies may direct. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of reserve premiums.</I> All reserve premiums paid or payable for this policy may be used by the members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters to discharge their obligations with respect to incurred losses whether such losses are incurred under this policy or under any other policy issued by the Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reserve premium refunds.</I> A portion of the reserve premium for this policy for the first calendar year of any group of ten consecutive calendar years shall be returnable to the named insured provided there is a reserve for refunds at the end of the tenth calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Computation of reserve premium refunds.</I> The reserve premium refund due the named insured for any calendar year shall be determined by multiplying any industry reserve premium refund for such calendar year by the policy refund ratio for such calendar year. The reserve premium refund for any calendar year shall be finally determined as soon as practicable after July 1 of the tenth calendar year thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Final premium.</I> The final premium for this policy shall be the sum of the standard premiums for each calendar year, or portion thereof, during which this policy remains in force less the sum of all refunds of reserve premiums due the named insured under the provisions of this Condition 1. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Reserve premium refund agreement.</I> Each member of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters subscribing this policy for any calendar year, or portion thereof, thereby agrees for itself, severally and not jointly, and in the respective proportion of its liability assumed under this policy for that calendar year, to return to the named insured that portion of any reserve premium refund due the named insured for that calendar year, determined in accordance with the provisions of this Condition 1. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Inspection; suspension.</I> The companies shall be permitted to inspect the facility and to examine the insured's books and records at any time, as far as they relate to the subject-matter of this insurance. 
</P>
<P>If a representative of the companies discovers a condition which he believes to be unduly dangerous with respect to the nuclear energy hazard, a representative of the companies may request that such condition be corrected without delay. In the event of noncompliance with such request, a representative of the companies may, by notice to the named insured, to any other person or organization considered by the companies to be responsible for the continuance of such dangerous condition, and to the United States Atomic Energy Commission, suspend the insurance with respect to the named insured and such other person or organization effective 12:00 midnight of the next business day of such Commission following the date that such Commission receives such notice. The period of such suspension shall terminate as of the time stated in a written notice from the companies to the named insured and to each such person or organization that such condition has been corrected. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Limit of liability; termination of policy upon exhaustion of limit.</I> Regardless of the number of persons and organizations who are insureds under this policy, and regardless of the number of claims made and suits brought against any or all insureds because of one or more occurrences resulting in bodily injury or property damage caused during the policy period by the nuclear energy hazard, the limit of the companies' liability stated in the declarations is the total liability of the companies for their obligations under this policy and the expenses incurred by the companies in connection with such obligations, including. 
</P>
<P>(a) Payments in settlement of claims and in satisfaction of judgments against the insureds for damages because of bodily injury or property damage, payments made under parts (2), (3) and (4) of Coverage A and payments made in settlement of claims under Coverages B and C; 
</P>
<P>(b) Payments for expenses incurred in the investigation, negotiation, settlement and defense of any claim or suit, including, but not limited to, the cost of such services by salaried employees of the companies, fees and expenses of independent adjusters, attorneys' fees and disbursements, expenses for expert testimony, inspection and appraisal of property, examination, X-ray or autopsy or medical expenses of any kind; 
</P>
<P>(c) Payments for expenses incurred by the companies in investigating an occurrence resulting in bodily injury or property damage or in minimizing its effects. 
</P>
<FP>Each payment made by the companies in discharge of their obligations under this policy or for expenses incurred in connection with such obligations shall reduce by the amount of such payment the limit of the companies' liability under this policy. 
</FP>
<P>If, during the policy period or subsequent thereto, the total of such payments made by the companies shall exhaust the limit of the companies' liability under this policy, all liability and obligations of the companies under this policy shall thereupon terminate and shall be conclusively presumed to have been discharged. This policy, if not theretofore canceled, shall thereupon automatically terminate. 
</P>
<P>Regardless of the number of years this policy shall continue in force and the number of premiums which shall be payable or paid, the limit of the companies' liability stated in the declarations shall not be cumulative from year to year. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Limitation of liability; common occurrence.</I> Any occurrence or series of occurrences resulting in bodily injury or property damage arising out of the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of 
</P>
<P>(a) Nuclear material discharged or dispersed from the facility over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of other nuclear material so discharged or dispersed from one or more other nuclear facilities insured by the companies under a Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form), or 
</P>
<P>(b) Source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste in the course of transportation for which insurance is afforded under this policy and also arising out of such properties of other source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste in the course of transportation for which insurance is afforded under one or more other Nuclear Energy Liability Policies (Facility Form) issued by the companies, shall be deemed to be a common occurrence resulting in bodily injury or property damage caused by the nuclear energy hazard. 
</P>
<P>With respect to such bodily injury and property damage (1) the total aggregate liability of the companies under all Nuclear Energy Liability Policies (Facility Form), including this policy, applicable to such common occurrence shall be the sum of the limits of liability of all such policies, the limit of liability of each such policy being as determined by Condition 3 thereof, but in no event shall such total aggregate liability of the companies exceed $______________;
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (2) the total liability of the companies under this policy shall not exceed that proportion of the total aggregate liability of the companies, as stated in clause (1) above, which (a) the limit of liability of this policy, as determined by Condition 3, bears to (b) the sum of the limits of liability of all such policies issued by the companies, the limit of liability of each such policy being as determined by Condition 3, thereof.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For policies issued by Nuclear Energy Liability-Property Insurance Association the amount will be “$124,000,000,” for policies issued by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters, the amount will be “$36,000,000.”</P></FTNT>
<P>The provisions of this condition shall not operate to increase the limit of the companies' liability under this policy. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Notice of occurrence, claim, or suit.</I> In the event of bodily injury or property damage to which this policy applies or of an occurrence which may give rise to claims therefor, written notice containing particulars sufficient to identify the insured and also reasonably obtainable information with respect to the time, place and circumstances thereof, and the names and addresses of the injured and of available witnesses, shall be given by or for the insured to ____________or the companies as soon as practicable. If claim is made or suit is brought against the insured, he shall immediately forward to __________ or the companies every demand, notice, summons or other process received by him or his representative. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Assistance and cooperation of the insured.</I> The insured shall cooperate with the companies and, upon the companies' request, attend hearings and trials and assist in making settlements, securing and giving evidence, obtaining the attendance of witnesses and in the conduct of any legal proceedings in connection with the subject matter of this insurance. The insured shall not, except at his own cost, make any payment, assume any obligation or incur any expense. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Action against companies—Coverages A and C.</I> No action shall lie against the companies or any of them unless, as a condition precedent thereto, the insured shall have fully complied with all the terms of this policy, nor until the amount of the insured's obligation to pay shall have been finally determined either by judgment against the insured after actual trial or by written agreement of the insured, the claimant and the companies. 
</P>
<P>Any person or organization or the legal representative thereof who has secured such judgment or written agreement shall thereafter be entitled to recover under this policy to the extent of the insurance afforded by this policy. No person or organization shall have any right under this policy to join the companies or any of them as parties to any action against the insured to determine the insured's liability, nor shall the companies or any of them be impleaded by the insured or his legal representative. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the insured or of the insured's estate shall not relieve the companies of any of their obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Action against companies—Coverage B.</I> No suit or action on this policy for the recovery of any claim for property damage to which Coverage B applies shall be sustainable in any court of law or equity unless all the requirements of this policy shall have been complied with and unless commenced within two years after the occurrence resulting in such property damage. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Insured's duties when loss occurs—Coverage B.</I> In the event of property damage to which Coverage B applies, the insured shall furnish a complete inventory of the property damage claimed, showing in detail the amount thereof. Within ninety-one days after the occurrence resulting in such property damage, unless such time is extended in writing by the companies, the insured shall render to the companies a proof of loss, signed and sworn to by the insured, stating the knowledge and belief of the insured as to the following: identification of such occurrence; the interest of the insured in the property destroyed or damaged, and the amount of each item of property damage claimed; all encumbrances on such property; and all other contracts of insurance, whether valid or not, covering any of such property. The insured shall include in the proof of loss a copy of all descriptions and schedules in all policies. Upon the companies' request, the insured shall furnish verified plans and specifications of any such property. The insured, as often as may be reasonably required, shall exhibit to any person designated by the companies any of such property, and submit to examinations under oath by any person named by the companies and subscribe the same; and, as often as may be reasonably required, shall produce for examination all books of account, records, bills, invoices and other vouchers, or certified copies thereof if originals be lost, at such reasonable time and place as may be designated by the companies or their representatives, and shall permit extracts and copies thereof to be made. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Appraisal—Coverage B.</I> In case the insured and the companies shall fail to agree as to the amount of property damage, then, on the written demand of either, each shall select a competent and disinterested appraiser and notify the other of the appraiser selected within twenty days of such demand. The appraisers shall first select a competent and disinterested umpire and, failing for fifteen days to agree upon such umpire, then, on request of the insured or the companies, such umpire shall be selected by a judge of a court of record in the state in which the property is located. The appraisers shall then appraise each item of property damage and, failing to agree, shall submit their differences only to the umpire. An award in writing, so itemized, of any two when filed with the companies shall determine the amount of property damage. Each appraiser shall be paid by the party selecting him and the expenses of the appraisal and umpire shall be paid by the parties equally. The companies shall not be held to have waived any of their rights by any act relating to appraisal. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Subrogation.</I> In the event of any payment under this policy, the companies shall be subrogated to all the insured's rights of recovery therefor against any person or organization, and the insured shall execute and deliver instruments and papers and do whatever else is necessary to secure such rights. Prior to knowledge of bodily injury or property damage caused by the nuclear energy hazard the insured may waive in writing any right or recovery against any person or organization, but after such knowledge the insured shall not waive or otherwise prejudice any such right of recovery. 
</P>
<P>The companies hereby waive any rights of subrogation acquired against the United States of America or any of its agencies by reason of any payment under this policy. 
</P>
<P>The companies do not relinquish, by the foregoing provisions, any right to restitution from the insured out of any recoveries made by the insured on account of a loss covered by this policy of any amounts to which the companies would be entitled had such provisions, or any of them, not been included in this policy. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Other insurance.</I> If the insurance afforded by this policy for loss or expense is concurrent with insurance afforded for such loss or expense by a Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued to the named insured by __________ hereinafter called “concurrent insurance,” the companies shall not be liable under this policy for a greater proportion of such loss or expense than the limit of liability stated in the declarations of this policy bears to the sum of such limit and the limit of liability stated in the declarations of such concurrent policy. 
</P>
<P>If the insured has other valid and collectible insurance (other than such concurrent insurance or any other nuclear energy liability insurance issued by the companies or __________ to any person or organization) applicable to loss or expense covered by this policy, the insurance afforded by this policy shall be excess insurance over such other insurance; provided, with respect to any person who is not employed at and in connection with the facility, such insurance as is afforded by this policy for bodily injury to an employee of the insured arising out of and in the course of his employment shall be primary insurance under such other insurance. 
</P>
<P>13. <I>Changes.</I> Notice to any agent or knowledge possessed by any agent or by any other person shall not effect a waiver or a change in any part of this policy or stop the companies from asserting any right under the terms of this policy; nor shall the terms of this policy be waived or changed except by endorsement issued to form a part of this policy executed by __________ on behalf of the companies. 
</P>
<P>14. <I>Assignment.</I> Assignment of interest by the named insured shall not bind the companies until their consent is endorsed hereon; if, however, the named insured shall die or be declared bankrupt or insolvent, this policy shall cover such insured's legal representative, receiver or trustee as an insured under this policy, but only with respect to his liability as such, and then only provided written notice of his appointment as legal representative, receiver or trustee is given to the companies within ten days after such appointment. 
</P>
<P>15. <I>Cancellation.</I> This policy may be canceled by the named insured by mailing to the companies and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission written notice stating when, not less than thirty days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective. This policy may be canceled by the companies by mailing to the named insured at the address shown in this policy and to the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission written notice stating when, not less than ninety days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective; provided in the event of non-payment of premium or if the operator of the facility, as designated in the declarations, is replaced by another person or organization, this policy may be canceled by the companies by mailing to the named insured at the address shown in this policy and to the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission written notice stating when, not less than thirty days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective. The mailing of notice as aforesaid shall be sufficient proof of notice. The effective date and hour of cancellation stated in the notice shall become the end of the policy period. Delivery of such written notice either by the named insured or by the companies shall be equivalent to mailing. 
</P>
<P>Upon termination or cancellation of this policy, other than as of the end of December 31 in any year, the earned premium for the period this policy has been in force since the preceding December 31 shall be computed in accordance with the following provisions: 
</P>
<P>(a) If this policy is terminated, pursuant to Condition 3, by reason of the exhaustion of the limit of the companies' liability, all premium theretofore paid or payable shall be fully earned; 
</P>
<P>(b) If the named insured cancels, the earned premium for such period shall be computed in accordance with the customary annual short rate table and procedure, provided if the named insured cancels after knowledge of bodily injury or property damage caused by the nuclear energy hazard, all premiums theretofore paid or payable shall be fully earned; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the companies cancel, the earned premium for such period shall be computed pro rata. 
</P>
<FP>Premium adjustment, if any, may be made either at the time cancellation is effected or as soon as practicable after cancellation becomes effective, but payment or tender of unearned premium is not a condition of cancellation. 
</FP>
<P>16. <I>Company representation.</I> (a) Any notice, sworn statement or proof of loss which may be required by the provisions of this policy may be given to any one of the companies, and such notice, statement or proof of loss so given shall be valid and binding as to all companies. 
</P>
<P>(b) In any action or suit against the companies, service of process may be made on any one of them, and such service shall be deemed valid and binding service on all companies. 
</P>
<P>(c) __________ is the agent of the companies with respect to all matters pertaining to this insurance. All notices or other communications required by this policy to be given to the companies may be given to such agent, at its office at __________ with the same force and effect as if given directly to the companies. Any requests, demands or agreements made by such agent shall be deemed to have been made directly by the companies. 
</P>
<P>17. <I>Authorization of named insured.</I> Except with respect to compliance with the obligations imposed on the insured by Conditions 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 and 11 of this policy, the named insured is authorized to act for every other insured in all matters pertaining to this insurance. 
</P>
<P>18. <I>Changes in subscribing companies and in their proportionate liability.</I> By acceptance of this policy the named insured agrees that the members of __________ liable under this policy, and the proportionate liability of each such member, may change from year to year, and further agrees that regardless of such changes: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each company subscribing this policy upon its issuance shall be liable only for its stated proportion of any obligation assumed or expense incurred under this policy because of bodily injury or property damage caused, during the period from the effective date of this policy to the close of December 31 next following, by the nuclear energy hazard; for each subsequent calendar year, beginning January 1 next following the effective date of this policy, the subscribing companies and the proportionate liability of each such company shall be stated in an endorsement issued to form a part of this policy, duly executed and attested by the __________ of ________________________ on behalf of each such company, and mailed or delivered to the named insured; 
</P>
<P>(2) This policy shall remain continuously in effect from the effective date stated in the declarations until terminated in accordance with Condition 3 or Condition 15; 
</P>
<P>(3) Neither the liability of any company nor the limit of liability stated in the declarations shall be cumulative from year to year. 
</P>
<P>19. <I>Declarations.</I> By acceptance of this policy the named insured agrees that the statements in the declarations are the agreements and representations of the named insured, that this policy is issued in reliance upon the truth of such representations and that this policy embodies all agreements between the named insured and the companies or any of their agents relating to this insurance. 
</P>
<P>In Witness Whereof, each of the subscribing companies has caused this policy to be executed and attested on its behalf by the ________ of ____________________ and duly countersigned on the declarations page by an authorized representative. 
</P>
<P>For the subscribing companies.
</P>
<FRP>By __________________________
</FRP>
<HD2>Subscribing Companies Proportion of 100%
</HD2>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy No.________ (Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<HD1>Declarations
</HD1>
<P>Item 1. Named Insured ________________. 
</P>
<FP>Address ________________________________.
</FP>
<P2>(No. Street Town or City State)
</P2>
<P>Item 2. Policy Period: Beginning at 12:01 a.m. on the __________ day of ______________, 19____, and continuing through the effective date of the cancellation or termination of this policy, standard time at the address of the named insured as stated herein. 
</P>
<P>Item 3. Description of the Facility:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Location 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Type 
</FP-DASH>
<P>The Operator of the facility is ________. 
</P>
<P>Item 4. The limit of the companies' liability is $______ subject to all the terms of this policy having reference thereto. 
</P>
<P>Item 5. Advance Premium $______. 
</P>
<P>Item 6. These declarations and the schedules forming a part hereof give a complete description of the facility, insofar as it relates to the nuclear energy hazard, except as noted ____________________________________
</P>
<P>Date of Issue ____________, 19____. 
</P>
<FP>Countersigned by __________________________
</FP>
<FRP>(Authorized representative) 
</FRP>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form)
</HD1>
<HD1>Amendment of Transportation Coverage (Indemnified Nuclear Facility)
</HD1>
<P>It is agreed that the definition of <I>insured shipment</I> in Insuring Agreement III is amended to read: <I>insured shipment</I> means a shipment of source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste, herein called <I>material,</I> (1) to the facility from any location except an indemnified nuclear facility, but only if the transportation of the material is not by predetermination to be interrupted by removal of the material from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation, or (2) from the facility to any other location, but only until the material is removed from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation. 
</P>
<P>Effective date of this endorsement ______ to form a part of Policy No. ______. 
</P>
<FP>Issued to ______________________________
</FP>
<FP>Date of Issue __________________________. 
</FP>
<P>For the subscribing companies. 
</P>
<P-DASH>
</P-DASH>
<FRP>By ______________________________
</FRP>
<FP>Countersigned by __________________________
</FP>
<FP>Endorsement No. ______________. 
</FP>
<HD1>Optional Amendatory Endorsement
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<P>It is agreed that: 
</P>
<P>I. The first sentence of the definition of nuclear facility is amended to read: 
</P>
<FP><I>nuclear facility</I> means <I>the facility</I> as defined in any Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued by __________ or by ________________. 
</FP>
<P>II. The definition of <I>indemnified nuclear facility</I> is replaced by the following: 
</P>
<FP><I>indemnified nuclear facility</I> means 
</FP>
<P>(1) <I>the facility</I> as defined in any Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued by ________ or by ________ or 
</P>
<P>(2) any other nuclear facility, 
</P>
<FP>if financial protection is required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or any law amendatory thereof; with respect to any activities or operations conducted thereat: 
</FP>
<P>III. Condition 4 is replaced by the following: 
</P>
<P>Limitation of liability; common occurrence. Any occurrence or series of occurrences resulting in bodily injury or property damage arising out of the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of 
</P>
<P>(a) nuclear material discharged or dispersed from the facility over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of other nuclear material so discharged or dispersed from one or more other nuclear facilities insured under any Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued by ____________ or, 
</P>
<P>(b) source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste in the course of transportation for which insurance is afforded under this policy and also arising out of such properties of other source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste in the course of transportation for which insurance is afforded under one or more other Nuclear Energy Liability Policies (Facility Form) issued by ________________. 
</P>
<FP>shall be deemed to be a common occurrence resulting in bodily injury or property damage caused by the nuclear energy hazard. 
</FP>
<P>With respect to such bodily injury and property damage (1) the total aggregate liability of the members of ________, under all Nuclear Energy Liability Policies (Facility Form), including this policy, applicable to such common occurrence shall be the sum of the limits of liability of all such policies, the limit of liability of each such policy being as determined by Condition 3 thereof, but in no event shall such total aggregate liability of such members exceed $________;
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (2) the total liability of the companies under this policy shall not exceed that proportion of the total aggregate liability of the members of ________, as stated in clause (1) above, which (a) the limit of liability of this policy, as determined by Condition 3, bears to (b) the sum of the limits of liability of all such policies issued by such members the limit of liability of each such policy being as determined by Condition 3 thereof. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For policies issued by Nuclear Energy Liability-Property Insurance Association the amount will be “$124,000,000,” for policies issued by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters, the amount will be “$36,000,000.”</P></FTNT>
<P>The provisions of this condition shall not operate to increase the limit of the companies' liability under this policy. 
</P>
<P>IV. The second paragraph of Condition 12 <I>Other Insurance</I> is amended to read: 
</P>
<P><I>If the insured has other valid and collectible insurance (other than such concurrent insurance or any other nuclear energy liability insurance issued by ________ or to any person or organization) applicable to loss or expense covered by this policy the insurance afforded by this policy shall be excess insurance over such other insurance; provided, with respect to any person who is not employed at and in connection with the facility, such insurance as is afforded by this policy for bodily injury to an employee of the insured arising out of and in the course of his employment shall be primary insurance under such other insurance.</I> 
</P>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<HD1>Restoration of Limit of Liability Endorsement
</HD1>
<P>It is agreed that: 
</P>
<P>1. Payments made by the companies under this policy have reduced the limit of the companies' liability, stated in Item 4 of the declarations, to $________. 
</P>
<P>2. Such reduced limit is restored to the amount stated in Item 4 of the declarations. Such restored limit applies to obligations assumed or expenses incurred because of bodily injury or property damage caused during the period from the effective date of this endorsement to the termination of the policy, by the nuclear energy hazard. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When the reduction of the limit of liability results from a clearly identifiable nuclear event and restoration is offered retroactive to the effective date of the policy for claims other than those resulting from said event, above paragraph 2 will be replaced by the following: 
</P>
<P>2. Such reduced limit is restored to the amount stated in Item 4 of the declarations, except with respect to bodily injury or property damage resulting from (describe nuclear event).</P></NOTE>
<P>3. The reduced limit of liability stated in paragraph 1 above, and the limit of liability stated in Item 4 of the declarations, as restored by this endorsement, shall not be cumulative; and each payment made by the companies after the effective date of this endorsement for any loss or expense covered by the policy shall reduce by the amount of such payment both the reduced limit of liability stated in paragraph 1 above and the limit of liability stated in Item 4 of the declarations, as restored by this endorsement, regardless of which limit of liability applies with respect to bodily injury or property damage out of which such loss or expense arises. 
</P>
<P>Effective date of this endorsement ______to form a part of Policy No. ________
</P>
<P>Issued to ____________. 
</P>
<P>Date of Issue ____________. 
</P>
<P>For the subscribing companies
</P>
<P-DASH>
</P-DASH>
<FRP>By ________________
</FRP>
<FP>Countersigned by __________________________
</FP>
<FP>Endorsement No. ______. 
</FP>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<HD1>Amendatory Endorsement
</HD1>
<P>This policy does not apply to bodily injury or property damage with respect to which the insured is entitled to indemnity from the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission under the provisions of Indemnity Agreement No. ______ between the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission and __________, dated __________, as now in effect or as hereafter amended. 
</P><STARS/>
<P>Effective date of this endorsement to form a part of Policy No. 
</P>
<P>Issued to __________. 
</P>
<P>Date of issue __________. 
</P>
<P>For the subscribing companies ________
</P>
<FRP>By __________________________
</FRP>
<FP>Countersigned by ____________________________
</FP>
<FP>Endorsement No. ______. 
</FP>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<HD1>Waiver of Defenses Endorsement
</HD1>
<HD2>(Extraordinary Nuclear Occurrence) 
</HD2>
<P>The named insured, acting for himself and every other insured under the policy, and the members of ________________________ agree as follows: 
</P>
<P>1. With respect to any extraordinary nuclear occurrence to which the policy applies as proof of financial protection and which—
</P>
<P>(a) Arises out of or results from or occurs in the course of the construction, possession, or operation of the facility, or 
</P>
<P>(b) Arises out of or results from or occurs in the course of the transportation of nuclear material to or from the facility, the insureds and the companies agree to waive 
</P>
<P>(1) Any issue or defense as to the conduct of the claimant or the fault of the insureds, including, but not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Negligence, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contributory negligence, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assumption of risk, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Unforeseeable intervening causes whether involving the conduct of a third person or an act of God, 
</P>
<P>(2) Any issue or defense as to charitable or governmental immunity, and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any issue or defense based on any statue of limitations if suit is instituted within 3 years from the date on which the claimant first knew, or reasonably could have known, of his bodily injury or property damage and the cause thereof, but in no event more than 10 years after the date of the nuclear incident.
</P>
<FP>The waiver of any such issue or defense shall be effective regardless of whether such issue or defense may otherwise be deemed jurisdictional or relating to an element in the cause of action. 
</FP>
<P>2. The waivers set forth in paragraph 1 above do not apply to 
</P>
<P>(a) Bodily injury or property damage which is intentionally sustained by the claimant or which results from a nuclear incident intentionally and wrongfully caused by the claimant; 
</P>
<P>(b) Bodily injury sustained by any claimant who is employed at the site of and in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if benefits therefor are either payable or required to be provided under any workmen's compensation or occupational disease law; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any claim for punitive or exemplary damages, provided, with respect to any claim for wrongful death under any State law which provides for damages only punitive in nature, this exclusion does not apply to the extent that the claimant has sustained actual damages, measured by the pecuniary injuries resulting from such death but not to exceed the maximum amount otherwise recoverable under such law. 
</P>
<P>3. The waivers set forth in paragraph 1 above shall be effective only with respect to bodily injury or property damage to which the policy applies under its terms other than this endorsement. 
</P>
<P>Such waivers shall not apply to, or prejudice the prosecution or defense of any claim or portion of claim which is not within the protection afforded under—
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of the policy applicable to the financial protection required of the named insured, 
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement of indemnification between the named insured and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission made pursuant to section 170 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The limit of liability provisions of subsection 170 e. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<FP>Such waivers shall not preclude a defense based upon the failure of the claimant to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages. 
</FP>
<P>4. Subject to all of the limitations stated in this endorsement and in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the waivers set forth in paragraph 1 above shall be judicially enforceable in accordance with their terms against any insured in an action to recover damages because of bodily injury or property damage to which the policy applies as proof of financial protection. 
</P>
<P>5. As used herein: 
</P>
<P><I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has determined to be an extraordinary nuclear occurrence as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, <I>financial protection</I> and <I>nuclear incident</I> have the meanings given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Claimant</I> means the person or organization actually sustaining the bodily injury or property damage and also includes his assignees, legal representatives and other persons or organizations entitled to bring an action for damages on account of such injury or damage. 
</P>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<HD1>Amendatory Endorsement
</HD1>
<HD2>(Application of Policy) 
</HD2>
<P>It is agreed that insuring agreement IV of the policy, captioned <I>Application of Policy</I> is amended to read as follows: Application of Policy. This policy applies only to bodily injury or property damage: (1) Which is caused during the policy period by the nuclear energy hazard, and (2) which is discovered and for which written claim is made against the insured, not later than 10 years after the end of the policy period. 
</P>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<HD1>Waiver of Defense Endorsement 
</HD1>
<HD2>(Extraordinary Nuclear Occurrence)
</HD2>
<P-DASH>The named insured, acting for himself and every other insured under the policy, and the members of 
</P-DASH>
<FP>agree as follows:
</FP>
<P>1. With respect to any extraordinary nuclear occurrence to which the policy applies as proof of financial protection and which 
</P>
<P>(a) Arises out of or results from or occurs in the course the construction, possession, or operation of the facility, or 
</P>
<P>(b) Arises out of or results from or occurs in the course of the transportation of nuclear material to or from the facility.
</P>
<FP>the insured and the companies agree to waive. 
</FP>
<P>(1) Any issue or defense as to the conduct of the claimant or the fault of the insureds, including but not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Negligence, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contributory negligence, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assumption of risk, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Unforeseeable intervening causes, whether involving the conduct of a third person, or an act of God, 
</P>
<P>(2) Any issue or defense as to charitable or governmental immunity, and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any issue or defense based on any statute of limitations if suit is instituted within three (3) years from the date on which the claimant first knew, or reasonably could have known, of his bodily injury or property damage and the cause thereof, but in no event more than twenty (20) years after the date of the nuclear incident.
</P>
<FP>The waiver of any such issue or defense shall be effective regardless of whether such issue or defense may otherwise be deemed jurisdictional or relating to an element in the cause of action. 
</FP>
<P>2. The waivers set forth in paragraph 1. above do not apply to 
</P>
<P>(a) Bodily injury or property damage which is intentionally sustained by the claimant or which results from a nuclear incident intentionally and wrongfully caused by the claimant; 
</P>
<P>(b) Bodily injury sustained by any claimant who is employed at the site of and in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if benefits therefor are either payable or required to be provided under any workmen's compensation or occupational disease law; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any claim for punitive or exemplary damages, provided, with respect to any claim for wrongful death under any State law which provides for damages only punitive in nature, this exclusion does not apply to the extent that the claimant has sustained actual damages, measured by the pecuniary injuries resulting from such death but not to exceed the maximum amount otherwise recoverable under such law. 
</P>
<P>3. The waivers set forth in paragraph 1. above shall be effective only with respect to bodily injury or property damage to which the policy applies under its terms other than this endorsement; provided, however, that with respect to bodily injury or property damage resulting from an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. Insuring Agreement IV, “Application of Policy,” shall not operate to bar coverage for bodily injury or property damage (a) which is caused during the policy period by the nuclear energy hazard and (b) which is discovered and for which written claim is made against the insured not later than twenty (20) years after the date of the extraordinary nuclear occurrence. 
</P>
<P>Such waivers shall not apply to, or prejudice the prosecution or defense of any claim or portion of claim which is not within the protection afforded under 
</P>
<P>(a) The provisions of the policy applicable to the financial protection required of the named insured; 
</P>
<P>(b) The agreement of indemnification between the named insured and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission made pursuant to section 170 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The limit of liability provisions of Subsection 170e. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>Such waivers shall not preclude a defense based upon the failure of the claimant to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages. 
</P>
<P>4. Subject to all of the limitations stated in this endorsement and in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the waivers set forth in paragraph 1. above shall be judicially enforceable in accordance with their terms against any insured in an action to recover damages because of bodily injury or property damage to which the policy applies as proof of financial protection. 
</P>
<P>5. As used herein: 
</P>
<P><I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the Nuclear Regulatory Commission has determined to be an extraordinary nuclear occurrence as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Financial protection</I> and <I>nuclear incident</I> have the meanings given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Claimant</I> means the person or organization actually sustaining the bodily injury or property damage and also includes his assignees, legal representatives and other persons or organizations entitled to bring an action for damages on account of such injury or damage. 
</P>
<P>Effective date of this endorsement ________________________ to form a part of Policy No. ______________, 
</P>
<FP> 12:01 A.M. Standard Time
</FP>
<P>Issued to __________________________________. 
</P>
<P>Date of issue ______________.
</P>
<P>Endorsement No. ______________.
</P>
<P>For the subscribing companies:
</P>
<P>       By ______________________,
</P>
<P>         General Manager
</P>
<P> Countersigned by ________________________.
</P>
<HD1>Supplementary Endorsement Waiver of Defenses 
</HD1>
<HD1>Reactor Construction at the Facility 
</HD1>
<P>It is agreed that in construing the application of paragraph 2.(b) of the Waiver of Defenses Endorsement (NE-33a) with respect to an extraordinary nuclear occurrence occurring at the facility, a claimant who is employed at the facility in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor with respect to which no operating license has been issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission shall not be considered as employed in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The claimant is employed exclusively in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor, including all related equipment and installations at the facility and 
</P>
<P>(2) No operating license has been issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission with respect to the nuclear reactor, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The claimant is not employed in connection with the possession, storage, use or transfer of nuclear material at the facility. 
</P>
<P>Effective date of this endorsement ________________________ to form a part of Policy No. ______________. 
</P>
<FP> 12:01 A.M. Standard Time
</FP>
<P>Issued to __________________________________. 
</P>
<P>Date of issue ______________. 
</P>
<P>Endorsement No ______________.
</P>
<P>For the subscribing companies:
</P>
<P>       By ______________________,
</P>
<P>         General Manager
</P>
<P> Countersigned by ______________________.
</P>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<HD1>Amendment of Definition of <I>Nuclear Energy Hazard</I> (Indemnified Nuclear Facility) 
</HD1>
<P>It is agreed that: 1. Solely with respect to an <I>insured shipment</I> to which the policy applies as proof of financial protection required by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, subdivision (2) of the definition of <I>nuclear energy hazard</I> is amended to read: 
</P>
<P>(2) The nuclear material is in an insured shipment which is away from any other nuclear facility and is in the course of transportation, including handling and temporary storage incidental thereto, within 
</P>
<P>(a) The territorial limits of the United States of America, its territories or possessions, Puerto Rico or the Canal Zone; or 
</P>
<P>(b) International waters or airspace, provided that the nuclear material is in the course of transportation between two points located within the territorial limits described in (a) above and there are no deviations in the course of the transportation for the purpose of going to any other country, state or nation, except a deviation in the course of said transportation for the purpose of going to or returning from a port or place of refuge as the result of an emergency. 
</P>
<P>2. As used herein, <I>financial protection</I> has the meaning given it in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P><E T="04">Instructions</E>—This form is to be used to modify all Nuclear Energy Liability Facility Forms in force on January 1, 1977 which were issued to become effective prior to January 1, 1977 and which are offered by the named insured as proof of financial protection being maintained as required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>Effective date of this Endorsement ________________________ To form a part of Policy No. ______________.
</P>
<FP>12:01 A.M. Standard Time 
</FP>
<P>Issued to __________________________________
</P>
<P>Date of issue ______________.
</P>
<P>Endorsement No. ______________.
</P>
<P>For the subscribing companies:
</P>
<P>       By ______________________, 
</P>
<P>         General Manager
</P>
<P> Countersigned by ________________________.
</P>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form) 
</HD1>
<HD1>Amendment of Definitions of <I>Nuclear Energy Hazard</I> and <I>Insured Shipment</I> (Indemnified Nuclear Facility) 
</HD1>
<P>It is agreed that: I. In Insuring Agreement III, <I>DEFINITIONS</I> 
</P>
<P>A. Solely with respect to an <I>insured shipment</I> to which this policy applies as proof of financial protection required by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Subdivision (2) of the definition of <I>nuclear energy hazard</I> is amended to read: 
</P>
<P>(2) The nuclear material is in an insured shipment which is away from any other nuclear facility and is in the course of transportation, including the handling and temporary storage incidental thereto, within 
</P>
<P>(a) The territorial limits of the United States of America, its territories or possessions, Puerto Rico or the Canal Zone; or 
</P>
<P>(b) International waters or airspace, provided that the nuclear material is in the course of transportation between two points located within the territorial limits described in (a) above and there are no deviations in the course of the transportation for the purpose of going to any other country, state or nation, except for a deviation in the course of said transportation for the purpose of going to or returning from a port or place of refuge as the result of an emergency. 
</P>
<P>B. The definition of <I>insured shipment</I> is replaced with the following: 
</P>
<P><I>Insured shipment</I> means a shipment of source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste, herein called <I>material,</I> (1) to the facility from any location except an indemnified nuclear facility, but only if the transportation of the material is not by predetermination to be interrupted by removal of the material from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation, or (2) from the facility to any other location, but only until the material is removed from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation. 
</P>
<P>II. As used herein, <I>financial protection</I> has the meaning given it in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P><E T="04">Instructions</E>—This form is to be used to modify all Nuclear Energy Liability Facility Forms which are issued to become effective on or after January 1, 1977 and which are offered by the named insured as proof of financial protection being maintained as required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>Effective date of this endorsement ____________________ To form a part of Policy No. ______________.
</P>
<FP>12:01 A.M. standard time 
</FP>
<P>Issued to ________________________. 
</P>
<P>Date of issue ______________.
</P>
<P>Endorsement No. ______________.
</P>
<P>For the subscribing companies:
</P>
<P>      By ________________________,
</P>
<P>         General Manager.
</P>
<P>Countersigned by ______________________. 
</P>
<HD1>NE-50 (1/1/80), Amendatory Endorsement
</HD1>
<HD2>(Indemnified Nuclear Facility)
</HD2>
<P>It is agreed that:
</P>
<P>I. In Insuring Agreement III:
</P>
<P><I>DEFINITIONS</I>
</P>
<P>A. The first sentence of the definition of <I>nuclear facility</I> is amended to read: <I>nuclear facility</I> means <I>the facility</I> as defined in any Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters.
</P>
<P>B. The definition of <I>indemnified nuclear facility</I> is replaced by the following: <I>indemnified nuclear facility</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) <I>the facility</I> as defined in any Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters, or
</P>
<P>(2) any other nuclear facility, if financial protection is required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or any law amendatory thereof, with respect to any activities or operations conducted thereat;
</P>
<P>C. Solely with respect to an <I>insured shipment</I> to which this policy applies as proof of financial protection required by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. Subdivision (2) of the definition of <I>nuclear energy hazard</I> is amended to read:
</P>
<P>(2) The nuclear material is in an insured shipment which is away from any other nuclear facility and is in the course of transportation, including the handling and temporary storage incidental thereto, within
</P>
<P>(a) The territorial limits of the United States of America, its territories or possessions, or Puerto Rico; or Canal Zone; or
</P>
<P>(b) International waters or airspace, provided that the nuclear material is in the course of transportation between two points located within the territorial limits described in (a) above and there are no deviations in the course of the transportation for the purpose of going to any other country, state or nation, except a deviation in the course of said transportation for the purpose of going to or returning from a port or place of refuge as the result of an emergency.
</P>
<P>D. The definition of <I>insured shipment</I> is replaced with the following:
</P>
<P><I>insured shipment</I> means shipment of source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste, or tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from any ore processed primarily for its source material content, herein called <I>material,</I> (1) to the facility from any location except an indemnified nuclear facility, but only if the transportation of the material is not by predetermination to be interrupted by removal of the material from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation, or (2) from the facility to any other location, but only until the material is removed from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation.
</P>
<P>E. As used herein, <I>financial protection</I> has the meaning given it in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>II. Insuring Agreement IV is replaced by the following:
</P>
<P>IV. APPLICATION OF POLICY. This policy applies only to bodily injury or property damage (1) which is caused during the policy period by the nuclear energy hazard and (2) which is discovered and for which written claim is made against the insured, not later than ten years after the end of the policy period.
</P>
<P>III. Condition 2 is replaced by the following:
</P>
<P>2. INSPECTION: SUSPENSION. The companies shall at any time be permitted but not obligated to inspect the facility and all operations relating thereto and to examine the insured's books and records as far as they relate to the subject of this insurance and any property insurance afforded the insured through American Nuclear Insurers. If a representative of the companies discovers a condition which he believes to be unduly dangerous with respect to the nuclear energy hazard, a representative of the companies may request that such condition be corrected without delay. In the event of noncompliance with such request, a representative of the companies may, by notice to the named insured, to any other person or organization considered by the companies to be responsible for the continuation of such dangerous condition, and to the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission, suspend this insurance with respect to named insured and such other person or organization effective 12:00 midnight of the next business day of such Commission following the date that such Commission receives such notice. The period of such suspension shall terminate as of the time stated in a written notice from the companies to the named insured and to each such person or organization that such condition has been corrected.
</P>
<P>Neither the right to make such inspections and examinations nor the making thereof nor any advice or report resulting therefrom shall constitute an undertaking, on behalf of or for the benefit of the insured or others, to determine or warrant that such facility or operations are safe or healthful, or are in compliance with any law, rule or regulation. In consideration of the issuance or continuation of this policy, the insured agrees that neither the companies nor any pesons or organizations making such inspections or exminations on their behalf shall be liable with respect to injury to or destruction of property at the facility, or any consequential loss or expense resulting therefrom, or any loss resulting from interruption of business or manufacture, arising out of the making of or a failure to make any such inspection or examination, or any report thereon, or any such suspension of insurance, but this provision does not limit the contractual obligations of the companies under this policy or any policy affording the insured property insurance through American Nuclear Insurers.
</P>
<P>IV. Condition 4 is replaced by the following:
</P>
<P>4. LIMITATION OF LIABILITY: COMMON OCCURRENCE. Any occurrence or series of occurrences resulting in bodily injury or property damage arising out of the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of 
</P>
<P>(a) nuclear material discharged or dispersed from the facility over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of the properties of other nuclear material so discharged or dispersed from one or more other nuclear facilities insured under any Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Form) issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association, or 
</P>
<P>(b) source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste in the course of transportation for which insurance is afforded under this policy and also arising out of such properties of other source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste in the course of transportation for which insurance is afforded under one or more other Nuclear Energy Liability Policies (Facility Form) issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association, shall be deemed to be a common occurrence resulting in bodily injury or property damage caused by the nuclear energy hazard.
</P>
<P>With respect to such bodily injury and property damage (1) the total aggregate liability of the members of the Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association under all Nuclear Energy Liability Policies (Facility Form), including this policy, applicable to such common occurrence shall be the sum of the limits of liability of all such policies, the limit of liability of each such policy being as determined by Condition 3 thereof, but in no event shall such total aggregate liability of such members exceed $124,000,000; (2) the total liability of the companies under this policy shall not exceed that proportion of the total aggregate liability of the members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association, as stated in clause (1) above, which (a) the limit of liability of this policy, as determined by Condition 3, bears to (b) the sum of the limits of liability of all such policies issued by such members, the limit of liability of each such policy being as determined by Condition 3 thereof.
</P>
<P>The provisions of this condition shall not operate to increase the limit of the companies' liability under this policy.
</P>
<P>V. The second paragraph of Condition 12, <I>Other Insurance,</I> is amended to read:
</P>
<P>If the insured has other valid and collectible insurance (other than such concurrent insurance or any other nuclear energy liability insurance issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters to any person or organization) applicable to loss or expense covered by this policy, the insurance afforded by this policy shall be excess insurance over such other insurance; provided, with respect to any person who is not employed at and in connection with the facility, such insurance as is afforded by this policy for bodily injury to an employee of the insured arising out of and in the course of his employment shall be primary insurance under such other insurance.
</P>
<P>VI. Paragraph (c) of Condition 16, <I>Company Representation,</I> is amended to read:
</P>
<P>(c) Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association is the agent of the companies with respect to all matters pertaining to this insurance. All notices or other communications required by this policy to be given to the companies may be given to such agent, at its office at the Exchange, Suite 245, 270 Farmington Avenue, Farmington, Connecticut 06032, with the same force and effect as if given directly to the companies. Any requests, demand or agreements made by such agent shall be deemed to have been made directly by the companies.
</P>
<P>Effective Date of this Endorsement ________ 12:01 a.m. Standard Time to form a part of policy No. ______.
</P>
<P>Issued to ________ For the subscribing companies.
</P>
<P>Date of Issue ________.
</P>
<P>By ________ General Manager.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Endorsement No.
</FP-DASH>
<FP>NE-50 (1/1/81)
</FP>
<HD1>NE-51 (1/1/81)—Amendment of Definition of Condition 2 <I>Inspection; Suspension</I> and <I>Insured Shipment</I>
</HD1>
<HD2>(Indemnified Nuclear Facility)
</HD2>
<P>It is agreed that:
</P>
<P>(1) Condition 2 <I>Inspection; Suspension</I> is replaced by the following:
</P>
<P>2. Inspection; Suspension. The companies shall at any time be permitted but not obligated to inspect the facility and all operations relating thereto and to examine the insured's books and records as far as they relate to the subject of this insurance and any property insurance afforded the insured through American Nuclear Insurers. If a representative of the companies discovers a condition which he believes to be unduly dangerous with respect to the nuclear energy hazard, a representative of the companies may request that such conditions be corrected without delay. In the event of noncompliance with such requests, a representative of the companies may, by notice to the named insured, to any other person or organization considered by the companies to be responsible for the continuation of such dangerous condition, and to the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission, suspend this insurance with respect to the named insured and such other person or organization effective 12:00 midnight of the next business day of such Commission following the date that such Commission receives such notice. The period of such suspension shall terminate as of the time stated in a written notice from the companies to the named insured and to each such person or organization that such condition has been corrected.
</P>
<P>Neither the right to make such inspections and examinations nor the making thereof nor advice or report resulting therefrom shall constitute an undertaking, on behalf of or for the benefit of the insured or others, to determine or warrant that such facility or operations are safe or healthful, or are in compliance with any law, rule or regulation. In consideration of the issuance or continuation of this policy, the insured agrees that neither the companies nor any persons or organizations making such inspections or examinations on their behalf shall be liable with respect to injury to or destruction of property at the facility, or any consequential loss or expense resulting therefrom, or any loss resulting from interruption of business or manufacture, arising out of the making of or a failure to make any such inspection or examination, or any report thereon, or any such suspension of insurance, but this provision does not limit the contractual obligations of the companies under this policy or any policy affording the insured property insurance through American Nuclear Insurers.
</P>
<P>(2) The definition of <I>insured shipment</I> in Insuring Agreement III, <I>Definitions,</I> is replaced by the following: <I>insured shipment</I> means a shipment of source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel, waste, or tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from any ore processed primarily for its source material content herein called <I>material,</I> (1) to the facility from any location except an indemnified nuclear facility, but only if the transportation of the material is not by predetermination to be interrupted by removal from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation, or (2) from the facility to any other location, but only until the material is removed from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation.
</P>
<P>Effective Date of this Endorsement ________ 12:01 a.m. Standard Time to form a part of Policy No. ______
</P>
<P>Issued to ________ For the subscribing companies.
</P>
<P>Date of Issue ________.
</P>
<P>By ________ General Manager.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Endorsement No.
</FP-DASH>
<FP>NE-51 (1/1/81)
</FP>
<HD1>Amendment of Coverage Endorsement for Workers Claims 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Facility Form)
</HD1>
<HD3>NE-64(1/1/88)
</HD3>
<HD2>Preamble
</HD2>
<P>1. The insurance and rating plan presently used by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association (<I>NELIA</I>) and Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters (<I>MAELU</I>) do not make a distinction between workers claims arising from catastrophic events and those arising from lesser events;
</P>
<P>2. NELIA and MAELU believe that the lack of such a distinction will adversely affect their ability to continue to attract from world markets very large amounts of nuclear energy liability insurance for the nuclear industry;
</P>
<P>3. NELIA and MAELU want to avoid this potential loss of capacity and to continue to provide nuclear energy liability insurance for workers claims. Accordingly NELIA and MAELU desire to restructure their present insurance programs, including this policy, effective January 1, 1988.
</P>
<P>Now, Therefore, the Named Insured and the companies do hereby agree as follows:
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>When used in reference to this endorsement:
</P>
<P><I>This policy</I> means the policy of which this endorsement forms a part;
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear related employment</I> means all work performed at one or more than one nuclear facility in the United States of America or in connection with the transportation of nuclear material to or from any such facility. All of a worker's nuclear related employment shall be considered as having begun on the first day of such employment, regardless of the number of employers involved or interruptions in such employment;
</P>
<P><I>Worker</I> refers to a person who is or was engaged in nuclear related employment;
</P>
<P><I>Workers claims</I> means claims for damages because of bodily injury to a worker caused by the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of nuclear material and arising out of or in the course of the worker's nuclear related employment;
</P>
<P><I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission has determined to be an <I>extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof.
</P>
<HD2>2. Application of This Endorsement
</HD2>
<P>This endorsement applies only to such insurance as is afforded by this policy for workers claims which do not arise in whole or in part out of an extraordinary nuclear occurrence.
</P>
<HD2>3. Exclusion of New Workers Claims
</HD2>
<P>This policy does not apply to bodily injury to a worker which arises in whole or in part out of nuclear related employment that begins on or after January 1, 1988.
</P>
<HD2>4. Application of Policy to Workers Claims Not Excluded
</HD2>
<P>With respect to such insurance as is afforded by this policy for workers claims which are not excluded, Insuring Agreement IV does not apply and the following Insuring Agreement IV-A does apply:
</P>
<P><I>IV-A Application of Policy to Workers Claims.</I> This policy applies only to bodily injury (1) which is caused during the policy period by the nuclear energy hazard and (2) which is discovered and for which written claim is made against the insured not later than the close of December 31, 1997.
</P>
<HD2>5. Availability of Supplemental Insurance
</HD2>
<P>NELIA and MAELU are offering to make insurance under one or more Master Worker Policies available to all holders of Nuclear Energy Liability Policies (Facility Form). <I>This offer is contingent on sufficient support from policy holders, and may be withdrawn or modified by Nelia or Maelu as they deem necessary or appropriate.</I>
</P>
<P>The Master Workers Policies will provide, under their separate terms and conditions, coverage for new workers claims. Premiums will be subject to a separate Industry Retrospective Rating Plan.
</P>
<P><I>Coverage under the new master worker policies is not automatic. A written request must be submitted to Nelia or Maelu through regular market channels.</I>
</P>
<P>It is understood and agreed that all of the provisions of this endorsement shall remain in full force and effect without regard to this section 5, and without regard to whether or not the Named Insureds become insureds under the Master Worker Policies, or whether or not NELIA or MAELU terminate such policies or withdraw or modify their offer to underwrite such policies.
</P>
<FP>Executed for the companies
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>By
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature or Authorized Officer)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Print or Type Name and Title of Officer)
</FP>
<FP>Executed for the Named Insured
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Named Insured—Type or Print)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>By
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of Authorized Officer)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Print or Type Name and Title of Officer)
</FP>
<FP>Effective Date of this Endorsement
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>12:01 a.m. Standard Time
</FP>
<FP-DASH>To form a part of Policy No.
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issued to
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Issue
</FP-DASH>
<FP>For the subscribing companies
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By
</FP-DASH>
<FP>General Manager
</FP>
<FP>Endorsement No.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Countersigned by
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>AMENDMENT OF COVERAGE ENDORSEMENT FOR WORKERS CLAIMS (Facility Form) NE-66(1/1/88)
</HD1>
<P>It is agreed that:
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>When used in reference to this endorsement:
</P>
<P><I>This policy</I> means the policy of which this endorsement forms a part;
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear related employment</I> means all work performed at one or more than one nuclear facility in the United States of America or in connection with the transportation of nuclear material to or from any such facility. All of a worker's nuclear related employment shall be considered as having begun on the first day of such employment, regardless of the number of employers involved or interruptions in such employment;
</P>
<P><I>Worker</I> refers to a person who is or was engaged in nuclear related employment;
</P>
<P><I>Workers claims</I> means claims for damages because of bodily injury to a worker caused by the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of nuclear material and arising out of or in the course of the worker's nuclear related employment;
</P>
<P><I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission has determined to be an <I>extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof.
</P>
<HD2>2. Application of This Endorsement
</HD2>
<P>This endorsement applies only to such insurance as is afforded by this policy for workers claims which do not arise in whole or in part out of an extraordinary nuclear occurrence.
</P>
<HD2>3. Exclusion of New Workers Claims
</HD2>
<P>This policy does not apply to bodily injury to a worker which arises in whole or in part out of nuclear related employment that begins on or after January 1, 1988.
</P>
<HD2>4. Application of Policy to Workers Claims Not Excluded
</HD2>
<P>With respect to such insurance as is afforded by this policy for workers claims which are not excluded, Insuring Agreement IV does not apply and the following Insuring Agreement IV-A does apply:
</P>
<HD1>IV-A Application of Policy to Workers Claims
</HD1>
<P>This policy applies only to bodily injury (1) which is caused during the policy period by the nuclear energy hazard and (2) which is discovered and for which written claim is made against the insured not later that the close of December 31, 1997.
</P>
<HD2>5. Availability of Supplemental Insurance
</HD2>
<P>NELIA and MAELU are offering to make insurance under one or more Master Worker Policies available to all holders of Nuclear Energy Liability Policies (Facility Form). <I>This offer is contingent on sufficient support from policyholders, and may be withdrawn or modified by NELIA or MAELU as they deem necessary or appropriate.</I>
</P>
<P>The Master Worker Policies will provide, under their separate terms and conditions, coverage for new workers claims. Premiums will be subject to a separate Industry Retrospective Rating Plan.
</P>
<P><I>Coverage under the new master worker policies is not automatic. A written request must be submitted to NELIA or MAELU through regular market channels.</I>
</P>
<P>It is understood and agreed that all of the provisions of this endorsement shall remain in full force and effect without regard to this Section 5, and without regard to whether or not the Named Insureds become insureds under the Master Worker Policies, or whether or not NELIA or MAELU terminate such policies or withdraw or modify their offer to underwrite such policies.
</P>
<P><I>Explanation of Use of This Endorsement:</I> This endorsement is a mandatory endorsement which is to be attached to new Facility Form Policies issued on or after January 1, 1988.
</P>
<FP>Effective Date of this Endorsement
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>12:01 a.m. Standard Time
</FP>
<FP-DASH>To form a part of Policy No.
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issued to
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Issue
</FP-DASH>
<FP>For the subscribing companies
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By
</FP-DASH>
<FP>General Manager
</FP>
<FP>Endorsement No.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Countersigned by
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>NUCLEAR ENERGY LIABILITY INSURANCE ASSOCIATION
</HD1>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy
</HD1>
<HD3>Facility Worker Form, herein called Master Worker Policy, NMWP-1(1/1/88)
</HD3>
<P>The undersigned members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association, hereinafter called the <I>companies,</I> each itself severally and not jointly, and in the respective proportion hereinafter set forth, agree with the insureds named in Item 1 of the Declarations of each Certificate, hereinafter called the <I>Named Insureds,</I> in consideration of the payment of the premium, and subject to all of the provisions of the applicable Certificate and of this policy, as follows:
</P>
<HD2>I—Relation Between the Master Worker Policy and Certificates
</HD2>
<P>No insurance is provided by this policy except through a Certificate issued to form a part hereof. The insurance then applies separately to the persons and organizations who are defined in Section IV as insureds under each such Certificate, except with respect to the Amount of Insurance Available.
</P>
<P>The Amount of Insurance Available through such a Certificate to any person or organization who is an insured thereunder is limited as provided in Section VIII of this policy.
</P>
<HD2>II—Definitions
</HD2>
<P>When used in reference to this policy:
</P>
<P><I>Bodily injury</I> means bodily injury, sickness or disease, including death resulting therefrom;
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> has the meaning given in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof;
</P>
<P><I>Certificate,</I> unless qualified, refers to a Certificate of Insurance (including Declarations and endorsements forming a part thereof) issued to form a part of this policy or of a MAELU Policy;
</P>
<P><I>Claims costs</I> means, with reference to claims or suits the companies have the right and duty to defend under this policy;
</P>
<P>(1) Cost taxed against the insured in such suits and interest on any judgments therein;
</P>
<P>(2) Premiums on appeal bonds and on bonds to release attachments in such suits (but the companies have no obligation to apply for or furnish such bonds;
</P>
<P>(3) Reasonable expenses, other than loss of earnings, incurred by the insured at the companies' request;
</P>
<P>(4) Payments for expenses incurred in the investigation, negotiation, settlement and defense of such claims or suits, including, but not limited to, the cost of such allocated claims services by employees of the companies, fees and expenses of independent adjusters, attorneys' fees and disbursements, expenses for expert testimony, examination, x-ray or autopsy or medical expenses of any kind;
</P>
<P>(5) Payments for expenses incurred by the companies in investigating an occurrence resulting in bodily injury or in minimizing its effects;
</P>
<P><I>Discovery period</I> means the period defined in Section VI B hereof;
</P>
<P><I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission has determined to be an <I>extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof;
</P>
<P><I>Insured contract</I> means that part of a contract or agreement made prior to bodily injury to a new worker under which the insured assumes the tort liability of a third person to pay damages because of such bodily injury. <I>Tort liability</I> means a liability that would be imposed by law on the third person in the absence of an express assumption of liability by the third person;
</P>
<P><I>Insured facility</I> means a facility with respect to which insurance is provided through a Certificate;
</P>
<P><I>Insured shipment</I> means a shipment of source material, special nuclear material, spent fuel or waste (herein called <I>material</I>):
</P>
<P>(1) To the facility from any location other than an insured facility, but only if the transportation of the material is not by predetermination to be interrupted by removal of the material from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation; or
</P>
<P>(2) From the facility to any other location, but only until the material is removed from a transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of its transportation;
</P>
<P><I>MAELU</I> means Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters;
</P>
<P><I>MAELU Policy</I> means a Nuclear Energy Liability Policy (Facility Worker Form) written by members of MAELU;
</P>
<P><I>NELIA</I> means Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association;
</P>
<P><I>New worker</I> refers to a person who is or was engaged in nuclear related employment that begins on or after January 1, 1988;
</P>
<P><I>New worker's claim</I> means a claim for damages because of bodily injury to a new worker caused by the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of nuclear material and arising out of or in the course of the new worker's nuclear related employment;
</P>
<P><I>Non-ratable incurred losses</I> has the meaning given in Attachment 1 to this policy;
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear energy hazard</I> means the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of nuclear material which is:
</P>
<P>(1) At the facility as described in the applicable Certificate issued to form a part of this policy or has been discharged or dispersed therefrom without intent to relinquish possession of custody thereof to any other person or organization; or
</P>
<P>(2) In an insured shipment that is away from any other insured nuclear facility and is in the course of transportation, including handling and temporary storage incidental thereto within:
</P>
<P>(a) The territorial limits of the United States of America, its territories or possessions or Puerto Rico; or
</P>
<P>(b) International waters or airspace, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The nuclear material is in the course of transportation between two points located within the territorial limits described in (a) above; and
</P>
<P>(ii) There are no deviations in the course of the transportation for the purpose of going to any other country, state or nation, except to a port or place of refuge in an emergency;
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear facility</I> means any of the following and includes the site on which any of them is located, all operations conducted on such site and all premises used for such operations:
</P>
<P>(1) The facility as described in any Certificate;
</P>
<P>(2) Any nuclear reactor;
</P>
<P>(3) Any equipment or device designed or used for:
</P>
<P>(a) Separating the isotopes of uranium or plutonium;
</P>
<P>(b) Processing or utilizing spent fuel; or
</P>
<P>(c) Handling, processing or packaging waste;
</P>
<P>(4) Any equipment or device used for the processing, fabricating or alloying of special nuclear material if at any time the total amount of such material in the custody of the insured at the premises where such equipment of device is located consists of or contains more than 25 grams of plutonium or uranium 233 or any combination thereof, or more than 250 grams of uranium 235;
</P>
<P>(5) Any structure, basin, excavation, premises or place prepared or used for the storage or disposal of waste;
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear material</I> means source material, special nuclear material or byproduct material;
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means any apparatus designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-supporting chain reaction or to contain a critical mass of fissionable material;
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear related employment</I> means all work performed at one or more than one nuclear facility in the United States of America or in connection with the transportation of nuclear material to or from any such facility.
</P>
<P>All of a new worker's nuclear related employment shall be considered as having begun on the first day of such employment, regardless of the number of employers involved or interruptions in such employment;
</P>
<P><I>Policy period</I> means the period defined in Section VI A hereof;
</P>
<P><I>Ratable incurred losses</I> has the meaning given in Attachment 1 to this policy;
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> has the meaning given in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof, and also includes tailings or wastes produced by the extraction of uranium or thorium from ore processed primarily for its source material content;
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> has the meaning given in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof;
</P>
<P><I>Spent fuel</I> means any fuel element or fuel component, solid or liquid, which has been used or exposed to radiation in any nuclear reactor;
</P>
<P><I>The facility</I> refers to the facility described in the Declarations of a Certificate. It includes the location described in Item 3 thereof and all property and operations at such location;
</P>
<P><I>Waste</I> means any waste material that contains byproduct material and results from the operation by any person or organization of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any nuclear reactor; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device designed or used for:
</P>
<P>(a) Separating the isotopes of uranium or plutonium;
</P>
<P>(b) Processing or utilizing spent fuel; or
</P>
<P>(c) Handling, processing or packaging such waste material.
</P>
<HD2>III—Coverage
</HD2>
<P>In the event that a new worker's claim is made against a person or organization who is an insured under a Certificate issued to form a part of this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) The companies shall pay on behalf of the insured all sums which the insured shall become legally obligated to pay as damages because of bodily injury to which this policy applies, sustained by a new worker and caused by the nuclear energy hazard.
</P>
<P>The companies shall have the right and duty to defend any suit against the insured alleging such injury and seeking damages payable under the terms of this policy. But the companies may make such investigation and settlement of any claim or suit seeking such damages as they deem appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) The companies shall also pay, as part of the Amount of Insurance Available under this policy, the claims costs relating to any such claim or suit. 
</P>
<P>(3) The companies' obligation to pay damages and claims costs, and to defend any claim and suit ends when the Policy Aggregrate Limit has been exhausted pursuant to the provisions of Section VIII. 
</P>
<HD2>IV—Definition of Insured 
</HD2>
<P>When used in reference to a Certificate issued to form a part of this policy, the unqualified word <I>insured</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) each insured named in Item 1 of the Declarations of the Certificate; and 
</P>
<P>(2) any other person or organization with respect to legal responsibility for damages because of bodily injury to a new worker caused by the nuclear energy hazard applicable to the Certificate. This subsection (2) does not include as an insured the United States of America or any of its agencies except the Tennessee Valley Authority. 
</P>
<HD2>V—Exclusions 
</HD2>
<P>This policy does not apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) To any obligation for which the insured or any carrier as his insurer may be held liable under any worker's compensation, unemployment compensation or disability benefits law, or under any similar law; 
</P>
<P>(2) To bodily injury to any employee of the insured arising out of or in the course of employment by the insured; but this exclusion (2) does not apply to liability assumed by the insured under an insured contract; 
</P>
<P>(3) To liability assumed by the insured under contract, other than an insured contract; 
</P>
<P>(4) To bodily injury to a new worker due to the manufacturing, handling or use at the location designated in Item 3 of the Declarations of any Certificate, in time of peace or war, of any nuclear weapon or other instrument of war utilizing special nuclear material or byproduct material; 
</P>
<P>(5) To bodily injury to a new worker due to war, whether or not declared, civil war, insurrection, rebellion or revolution, or to any act or condition incident to any of the foregoing; 
</P>
<P>(6) To bodily injury to a new worker arising in whole or in part out of an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. 
</P>
<HD2>VI—Policy Period; Discovery Period; Application of Policy 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Policy Period 
</HD3>
<P>The policy period of this policy begins at 12:01 a.m. on January 1, 1988 and ends at the close of December 31, 1992, Eastern Standard Time, or when all Certificates issued to form a part hereof have been cancelled, whichever first occurs. 
</P>
<HD3>B. Discovery Period 
</HD3>
<P>The discovery period for claims made under this policy begins at 12:01 a.m. on January 1, 1988 and ends at the close of December 31, 1997, Eastern Standard Time. 
</P>
<HD3>C. Application of Policy 
</HD3>
<P>This policy applies only to bodily injury to a new worker (1) which is caused during the policy period by the nuclear energy hazard and (2) which is discovered and for which written claim is first made against the insured within the discovery period. 
</P>
<HD2>VII—Other Insurance 
</HD2>
<P>A. This insurance is primary insurance under any insurance afforded by a Master Policy-Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance (Secondary Financial Protection) issued by NELIA or MAELU. 
</P>
<P>B. If an insured has other valid and collectible insurance, except under a MAELU Policy, for loss or expense covered by this policy, this shall be excess insurance over such other insurance. If the insured has insurance under a MAELU Policy, whether the insurance is collectible or not, the companies shall then be liable under this policy only for such proportion of loss or expense as the amount stated as the Policy Aggregate Limit in Section VIII of this policy bears to the sum of such amount and the corresponding amount stated in the MAELU Policy. 
</P>
<HD2>VIII—Amount of Insurance Available 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Policy Aggregate Limit 
</HD3>
<P>1. The Policy Aggregate Limit is $124 million. This limit is not cumulative from year to year. The limit applies to all new worker's claims that qualify for coverage under this policy (herein called <I>qualified claims</I>). 
</P>
<P>2. The Policy Aggregate Limit applies collectively to all new worker's claims. Such claims may be paid by NELIA on behalf of the companies as the claims, in NELIA's discretion, become ready for disposition, and claims costs may be paid as they become due, all without regard to the order in which such claims were made and without any obligation to maintain, reserve or use any portion of the Policy Aggregate Limit for claims reported under any particular Certificate. 
</P>
<HD3>B. Limitation of the Companies' Liability 
</HD3>
<P>1. Regardless of the number of (a) Certificates issued to form a part of this policy, (b) persons and organizations who are insureds under such Certificates, (c) qualified claims, or (d) years this policy or any such Certificates shall continue in force, the Policy Aggregate Limit is the total liability of the companies for all of their obligations under this policy, including the defense of suits and the payment of damages and claims costs. 
</P>
<P>2. This policy provides for certain automatic reinstatements of the Policy Aggregate Limit. Regardless of such provision, if, during the policy period or thereafter, the total payments of the companies for 
</P>
<P>(a) Non-ratable incurred losses, and 
</P>
<P>(b) Those ratable incurred losses for which the companies have not been reimbursed under the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan Premium Endorsement described in Attachment 1 to this policy, 
</P>
<FP>equal $124 million, the Policy Aggregate Limit shall be deemed to be exhausted, and shall not be further reinstated except by an endorsement issued to form a part of this policy for additional premium as determined by the companies. 
</FP>
<P>C. Reduction and Reinstatement of the Policy Aggregate Limit 
</P>
<P>1. Each payment made by the companies in discharge of their obligations under this policy shall reduce the Policy Aggregate Limit by the amount of such payment. 
</P>
<P>2. The companies shall, however, automatically reinstate the policy aggregate limit until the total amount of such reinstatements equals $124 million, but in no event shall there be any automatic reinstatements after the Policy Aggregate Limit is exhausted pursuant to the provisions of subsection B.2. above. Thereafter, there shall be no further reinstatement of the Policy Aggregate Limit except by an endorsement issued to form a part of this policy for additional premium as determined by the companies. 
</P>
<P>3. It is a condition of this insurance that the companies shall have the right to reimburse themselves, as a matter of first priority, from funds held by NELIA in the Special Reserve Account described in Attachment 1 to this policy or from retrospective premiums received by NELIA for this insurance. The amount of reimbursement shall be equal to 95% of each payment made by the companies with respect to their obligations under this policy. 
</P>
<HD2>IX—Insured's Duties in Case of Claims or Suits 
</HD2>
<P>A. Notice of Claims or Suits
</P>
<P>In the event of any claim or suit involving bodily injury to which a Certificate issued to form a part of this policy applies, written notice containing particulars sufficient to identify the insured and also reasonably obtainable information with respect to the time, place and circumstances thereof shall be given by or for the insured to the companies as soon as practicable. The insured shall immediately forward to the companies every demand, notice, summons or other process received relating to claims or suits against the insured. 
</P>
<P>B. Assistance and Cooperation 
</P>
<P>The insured shall cooperate with the companies and, upon their request, shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Attend hearings and trials; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Assist in making settlements, securing and giving evidence, obtaining the attendance of witnesses and in the conduct of any legal proceedings in connection with the subject matter of this insurance. 
</P>
<P>The insured shall not, except at the insured's own cost, make any payment, assume any obligation or incur any expense. 
</P>
<HD2>X—Subrogation 
</HD2>
<P>In the event of any payment through a Certificate to form a part of this policy, the companies shall be subrogated to all the insured's rights of recovery therefor against any person or organization, and the insured shall execute and deliver instruments and papers, and so whatever else is necessary to secure such rights. Prior to knowledge of bodily injury caused by the nuclear energy hazard the insured may waive in writing any or all right of recovery against any person or organization, but after such knowledge the insured shall not waive or otherwise prejudice any such right of recovery. 
</P>
<P>The companies hereby waive any right of subrogation against (1) any other insured of (2) the United States of America or any of its agencies acquired by reason of any payment under this policy. 
</P>
<P>It is a condition of this policy that if an insured makes a recovery on account of any such injury, the insured shall repay to the companies the amount to which the companies would have been entitled had the foregoing provisions, or any of them, not been included in the policy. 
</P>
<HD2>XI—Inspection and Suspension 
</HD2>
<P>The companies shall be permitted, but not obligated, to inspect at any time the facility as described in any Certificate and all books, records and operation relating thereto, both with respect to this insurance, and any other nuclear energy liability insurance and property insurance also afford with respect thereto by members of NELIA, American Nuclear Insurers, MAELU or MAERP Reinsurance Association. 
</P>
<P>If a representative of the companies discovers a condition which he or she believes to be unduly dangerous with respect to the risks insured under the Certificate, a representative of the companies may request such condition to be corrected without delay. In the event of noncompliance with the request, an officer of NELIA may, by written notice mailed or delivered to the first Named Insured, with similar notice to the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission, suspend the insurance afforded by a Certificate issued by NELIA effective 12:00 midnight of the next business day of such Commission following the date that such Commission receives such notice. The period of such suspension shall terminate as of the time stated in a written notice from NELIA to the first Named Insured that such condition has been corrected.
</P>
<P>Neither the right to make such inspections or suspensions nor the making thereof nor any advice or report resulting therefrom shall constitute an undertaking, on behalf of or for the benefit of the Named Insureds or others to determine or warrant that the facility or operations relating thereto are safe or healthful, or are in compliance with any law, rule or regulation.
</P>
<P>In consideration of the issuance or continuation of a Certificate, the Named Insureds agree that neither the companies nor any persons or organizations making such inspections on their behalf shall be liable for damage to the facility or any consequential damage or cost resulting therefrom, including but not limited to any such damage or cost relating to interruption of business or manufacture, arising out of the making of or failure to make any such inspection of the facility, any report thereon, or any such suspension of insurance, but this provision does not limit the companies' contractual obligations under a Certificate issued by NELIA or any policy issued by NELIA or American Nuclear Insurers affording the insured nuclear energy liability or property insurance.
</P>
<HD2>XII—Cancellation of Certificates 
</HD2>
<P>The first Named Insured designated in a Certificate issued to from a part of this policy any cancel such Certificate by mailing to the companies and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission written notice stating when, not less than 30 days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective.
</P>
<P>The companies may cancel any such Certificate by mailing to the first Named Insured designated therein at the address shown in such Certificate and to the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission written notice, stating when, not less than 90 days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective; provided in the event of non-payment of premium, or if the operator of the facility, as designated in the Declarations of the Certificate, is replaced by another person or organization, such Certificate may be cancelled by the companies by mailing to the first Named Insured at the address shown therein and to the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission written notice, stating when, not less than 30 days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective.
</P>
<P>The mailing of notice as aforesaid shall be sufficient proof of notice. The effective date and hour of cancellation stated in the notice shall become the end of the Certificate period. Delivery of such written notice either by the first Named Insured or the companies shall be equivalent to mailing.
</P>
<P>Upon cancellation of a Certificate, other than as of the end of December 31 in any year, the earned standard premium for the period such Certificate has been in force since the preceding December 31 shall be computed in accordance with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) If the first Named Insured cancels, the earned standard premium for such period shall be computed in accordance with the customary annual short rate table and procedure; provided, however, that if the first Named Insured cancels after knowledge of bodily injury caused by the nuclear energy hazard, all premiums theretofore paid or payable shall be fully earned;
</P>
<P>(2) If the companies cancel, the earned standard premium for such period shall be computed pro rata.
</P>
<P>Premium adjustment, if any, may be made either at the time of cancellation or as soon as practicable after cancellation becomes effective, but payment of tender of unearned premium is not a condition of cancellation.
</P>
<P>Cancellation of a Certificate shall not affect the rights and obligations of the Named Insureds under the Insureds under the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan Premium Endorsement forming a part of the Certificate.
</P>
<HD2>XIII—General Conditions
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Premium
</HD3>
<P>The Named Insureds designated in a Certificate issued by NELIA shall pay the companies the premiums for the Certificate in accordance with the provisions of the <I>Industry Retrospective Rating Plan Premium Endorsement</I> described in Attachment 1 to this policy.
</P>
<HD3>B. Modifications, Waiver
</HD3>
<P>The provisions of this policy or a Certificate issued to form a part hereof shall not be changed or waived except by an endorsement issued by the companies to form a part of the policy or Certificate.
</P>
<HD3>C. Assignment
</HD3>
<P>Assignment of interest under a Certificate issued to form a part of this policy shall not bind the companies until their consent is endorsed thereon. If, however, a Named Insured shall die or be declared bankrupt or insolvent, the Certificate shall cover the Named Insured's legal representative, receiver or trustee as an insured, but only with respect to liability as such, and then only provided written notice of the appointment as legal representative, receiver or trustee is given to the companies within 10 days after such appointment.
</P>
<HD3>D. Suit
</HD3>
<P>No suit or action on a Certificate issued to form a part of this policy shall lie against the companies or any of them unless, as a condition precedent thereto, the insured shall have fully complied with all the terms of the policy, nor until the amount of the insured's obligation to pay shall have been finally determined either by judgment against the insured after actual trial or by written agreement of the insured, the claimant and the companies.
</P>
<P>Any person or organization or the legal representative thereof who has secured such judgment of written agreement shall thereafter be entitled to recover under the Certificate to the extent of the insurance afforded by this policy through the Certificate. No person or organization shall have any right under the Certificate to join the companies or any of them as parties to any action against the insured to determine the insured's liability, nor shall the companies or any of them be impleaded by the insured or the insured's legal representative.
</P>
<P>Bankruptcy or insolvency of the insured or the insured's estate shall not relieve the companies of any of their obligations under this policy.
</P>
<HD3>E. Authorization of The First Named Insured
</HD3>
<P>Except with respect to compliance with the obligations imposed on the insured by the Sections of this policy entitled <I>Insured's Duties in Case of Claims or Suits,</I> Subrogation and <I>Suit,</I> the first Named Insured designated in the Declarations of a Certificate issued to form a part of this policy is authorized to act for every other insured in all matters pertaining to this insurance.
</P>
<HD3>F. Insured Representation
</HD3>
<P>Any notice, sworn statement of proof of Loss which may be required by the provisions of this policy may be given to any one of the companies specified in the Schedule of Subscribing Companies attached hereto. Such notice, statement or proof of Loss so given shall be valid and binding on all such companies.
</P>
<P>In any action or suit against such companies, service of process may be made on any one of them and such service shall be valid and binding service on all such companies.
</P>
<P>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association is the agent of the companies with respect to all matters pertaining to this insurance. All notices or other communications required by this policy may be given to such agent at its office at: Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association, The Exchange, Suite 245, 270 Farmington Avenue, Farmington, Connecticut 06032, with the same force and effect as if given directly to the companies. Any requests, demands or agreements made by such agent shall be deemed to have been made directly by the companies.
</P>
<HD3>G. Changes in Subscribing Companies and Their Proportionate Liability 
</HD3>
<P>By acceptance of this policy the Named Insureds agree that the members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association liable under this policy, and the proportionate liability of each such member, may change from year to year, and further agree that regardless of such changes:
</P>
<P>(1) Each company subscribing this policy upon its issuance shall be liable only for its stated proportion of any obligation assumed or expense incurred under this policy because of bodily injury to new workers caused, during the period from the effective date of this policy to the close of December 31 next following, by the nuclear energy hazard; for each subsequent calendar year, beginning January 1 next following the effective date of this policy, any change in the subscribing companies and the proportionate liability of each such company shall be stated in an endorsement issued to form a part of this policy, duly executed and attested by the President of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association on behalf of each such company, and a copy of which will be mailed or delivered to the first Named Insured of each Certificate.
</P>
<P>(2) The liability of any subscribing company shall not be cumulative from year to year.
</P>
<HD3>H. Declarations
</HD3>
<P>By acceptance of this Master Worker Policy, the Named Insureds designated in a Certificate agree that the statements in such Certificate are their agreements and representations, that this Master Worker Policy and such Certificate are issued in reliance upon the truth of such representations and that this Master Worker Policy and such Certificate embody all agreements between such Named Insureds and the companies or any of their agents relating to this insurance.
</P>
<P><I>In Witness Whereof,</I> the companies subscribing this policy have caused the policy to be executed and attested on their behalf by the President of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and duly countersigned by an authorized representative, but this policy shall be binding on each company only to the extent of its designated proportion of any obligation assumed or expense incurred under this policy.
</P>
<FP>For the Subscribing Companies:
</FP>
<FP>Date of Issue: ________ 19____
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Countersigned by: (Authorized Representative)
</FP>
<HD1>NUCLEAR ENERGY LIABILITY INSURANCE ASSOCIATION
</HD1>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Policy
</HD1>
<HD3>(Facility Worker Form) herein called the Master Worker Policy
</HD3>
<HD3>Certificate of Insurance, NMWPC-1(1/1/88)
</HD3>
<P>Certificate No. ______
</P>
<P>This is to certify that the insured named in Item 1 of the Declarations hereof, hereinafter called the <I>Named Insureds,</I> have obtained insurance under the Master Worker Policy issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association on behalf of its members. The insurance is subject to all of the provisions of the <I>Certificate</I> and the Master Worker Policy.
</P>
<HD2>1—Declarations
</HD2>
<HD2>Item 1.—Named Insureds and Addresses:
</HD2>
<HD2>Item 2.—Certificate Coverage Period:
</HD2>
<P>Beginning at 12:01 a.m. January 1, 1988 and ending at the close of December 31, 1992, Eastern Standard Time, or at the time and date this Certificate is cancelled or terminated, whichever first occurs.
</P>
<HD2>Item 3.—Description of the Facility:
</HD2>
<P><I>Location:</I>
</P>
<P><I>Type:</I>
</P>
<P><I>Operator of the Facility:</I>
</P>
<HD2>Item 4.—Amount of Insurance Available:
</HD2>
<P>The amount of insurance afforded by the Master Worker Policy through this Certificate shall be determined by Section VIII of the Master Worker Policy and all of the other provisions of the policy relating thereto.
</P>
<HD2>Item 5.—Advance Premium: $
</HD2>
<HD2>2—Application of Certificate
</HD2>
<P>This Certificate applies only to bodily injury to a new worker (1) which is caused, during the Certificate Coverage Period, by the nuclear energy hazard and (2) which is discovered and for which written claim is first made against an insured under the Certificate within the discovery period of the Master Worker Policy.
</P>
<HD2>3—Industry Retrospective Rating Plan
</HD2>
<P>All insurance under the Master Worker Policy is subject to the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan in use by the companies. No insurance is provided under this Certificate unless and until the first Named Insured has accepted in writing the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan Premium Endorsement and a copy of the signed endorsement has been issued by the companies to form a part of this Certificate.
</P>
<P><I>In Witness Whereof,</I> the companies subscribing the Master Worker Policy have caused this Certificate to be executed and attested on their behalf by the President of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and duly countersigned by an authorized representative.
</P>
<P>For the Subscribing Companies:
</P>
<P>Date of Issue __________ 19 ______
</P>
<FP-DASH>Countersigned by:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Authorized Representative)
</FP>
<HD1>NUCLEAR ENERGY LIABILITY INSURANCE ASSOCIATION
</HD1>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance
</HD1>
<HD3>Industry Retrospective Rating Plan Premium Endorsement, NE-W-1(1/1/88)
</HD3>
<P>It is agreed that:
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>With reference to the premium for the Certificate of which this endorsement forms a part:
</P>
<P><I>Master Worker Policy</I> means the Master Worker Policy issued by NELIA;
</P>
<P><I>Certificate Holder</I> means the first Named Insured in a Certificate issued to form a part of the Master Worker Policy;
</P>
<P><I>Advance premium,</I> for any calendar year, is the estimated standard premium for that calendar year;
</P>
<P><I>Standard premium,</I> for any calendar year, is the premium for that calendar year computed in accordance with the companies' rules, rates, rating plans (other than the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan), premiums and minimum premiums applicable to this insurance. Standard premium includes elements for premium taxes, expenses, profit and contingencies, guaranteed cost insurance and estimated reserve premium. The elements of standard premium, other than for premium taxes and estimated reserve premium, are not subject to retrospective adjustment;
</P>
<P><I>Reserve premium</I> means that portion of the premium for a Certificate (including reserve premium charges paid) that is specifically allocated under the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan for ratable incurred losses;
</P>
<P><I>Industry reserve premium,</I> for any period, is the sum of the reserve premiums for that period for all Certificates issued to form a part of the Master Worker Policy;
</P>
<P><I>Retrospective adjustment ratio,</I> for any period, is the ratio of the reserve premium for this Certificate for that period to the industry reserve premium for the same period;
</P>
<P><I>Incurred losses</I> means the sum of all:
</P>
<P>(1) Losses and expenses paid by NELIA, and
</P>
<P>(2) Reserves for losses and expenses as estimated by NELIA, because of obligations assumed and expenses incurred in connection with such obligations by the members of NELIA under the Master Worker Policy;
</P>
<P><I>Ratable incurred losses</I> means 95% of incurred losses. Ratable incurred losses are the portion of incurred losses which are not covered by the guaranteed cost insurance element of standard premiums;
</P>
<P><I>Non-ratable incurred losses</I> means 5% of incurred losses. Nonratable incurred losses are the portion of incurred losses which are covered by the guaranteed cost insurance element of standard premiums;
</P>
<P><I>Reserve for refunds,</I> as of any date, is the algebraic difference between:
</P>
<P>(1) All industry reserve premium for the period from January 1, 1988 through such date, minus
</P>
<P>(2) The total for the same period of (a) all ratable incurred losses and (b) all industry reserve premium refunds made under the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan by members of NELIA;
</P>
<P><I>Industry reserve premium charge,</I> for any period, means the amount determined pursuant to the provisions of Section 4 of this endorsement for payment by the Named Insureds under Certificates;
</P>
<P><I>Reserve premium charge</I> means the portion of an industry reserve premium charge payable by the Named Insureds under Certificates;
</P>
<P><I>Industry reserve premium refund</I> for any period, means the amount determined pursuant to the provisions of Section 4 of this endorsement for return to the Named Insureds under Certificates;
</P>
<P><I>Reserve premium refund</I> means the portion of an industry reserve premium refund returnable to the Named Insureds under this Certificate.
</P>
<HD2>2. Payment of Advance and Standard Premiums
</HD2>
<P>The Named Insureds shall pay the companies the advance premium stated in the declarations, for the period from the effective date of this Certificate through December 31 following. Thereafter, at the beginning of each calendar year while this Certificate is in force, the Named Insureds shall pay the advance premium for such year to the companies.
</P>
<P>The advance premium for each calendar year shall be stated in the Advance and Standard Premium Endorsement for the year issued by the companies as soon as practicable prior to or after the beginning of the year.
</P>
<P>As soon as practicable after the end of a calendar year or the Certificate Coverage Period, the standard premium for the preceding year shall be finally determined and stated in the Advance and Standard Premium Endorsement for that year. If the Standard Premium exceeds the Advance Premium paid for that year, the Named Insureds shall pay the excess to the companies; if less, the companies shall return to the Named Insureds the excess portion paid.
</P>
<P>The Named Insureds shall maintain records of the information necessary for premium computation and shall send copies of such records to the companies as directed, at the end of each calendar year, at the end of the Certificate Coverage Period and at such other times as the companies may direct.
</P>
<HD2>3. Special Reserve Account; Use of Reserve Premiums
</HD2>
<P>NELIA shall maintain on behalf of its members a Special Reserve Account for holding collectively all reserve premiums paid for all Certificates issued to form a part of the Master Worker Policy. Such premiums, together with any undistributed net income realized thereon after taxes and investment expenses, shall be used for the following purposes only:
</P>
<P>(1) To pay ratable incurred losses or, in the event ratable incurred losses are paid under the Master Worker Policy from funds advanced by the members of NELIA subscribing the policy, to reimburse such members as a matter of first priority for the funds advanced;
</P>
<P>(2) To refund any amounts so held to the Named Insureds, as provided in Section 4.
</P>
<P>No members of NELIA and no Named Insureds shall have any individual interest in or claim upon amounts held in the special Reserve Account, except to participate proportionally in any refund or reimbursement provided for above.
</P>
<P>All reserve premiums paid or payable for this certificate may be used by NELIA to discharge the obligations of its members under the Master Worker Policy with respect to the above purposes and arising out of claims made under any Certificate issued to form a part of the Master Worker Policy.
</P>
<HD2>4. Payment of Reserve Premium Charges and Refunds
</HD2>
<P>As soon as practicable after each December 31 the companies will review the status of the reserve for refunds and report their findings to all Certificate Holders.
</P>
<P>If, at any time, the companies find that there is negative balance in the reserve for refunds and that such condition is likely to prevail, they shall determine an appropriate industry reserve premium charge. Similarly, if the companies find that there is a surplus positive balance, they shall determine an appropriate industry reserve premium refund.
</P>
<P>The portion of an industry reserve premium charge or an industry reserve premium refund that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Payable by the Named Insureds as a reserve premium charge, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Due such insureds as reserve premium refund, shall be determined by multiplying the industry reserve premium charge or the industry reserve premium refund by the retrospective adjustment ratio applicable to this Certificate.
</P>
<P>The amount of any reserve premium charge shall be stated in a Retrospective Reserve Premium Charge Endorsement. The charge shall be paid promptly after receipt of the endorsement.
</P>
<P>When all claims covered by the Master Worker Policy are closed the companies shall make a final review and report, and shall determine a final industry reserve premium charge or industry reserve premium refund equal to the amount of the balance.
</P>
<HD2>5. Final Premium 
</HD2>
<P>The final premium for this Certificate shall be (a) the sum of the standard premiums for each calendar year, or portion thereof, during which the Certificate remains in force plus (b) the sum of all reserve premiums, including all reserve premium charges, minus (c) the sum of all reserve premium refunds.
</P>
<HD2>6. Reserve Premium Charge Agreement
</HD2>
<P>In consideration of (a) the participation of Named Insureds in other Certificates subject to the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan, (b) the undertaking of such Named Insureds to pay their appropriate share of any industry reserve premium charge and (c) the obligations assumed by the members of NELIA under the Master Worker Policy, the Named Insureds, by acceptance of the Master Worker Policy, agree:
</P>
<P>(1) That the insurance provided by the Master Policy applies collectively to all claims covered by the policy through any and all Certificates issued to form a part of the policy. 
</P>
<P>(2) That the right of each Named Insured under a Certificate to receive reserve premium refunds and the obligation of each such insured to pay reserve premiums charges applies to all claims covered by the Master Worker Policy and continues until all such claims are closed, whether or not such claims were before the inception of the Certificate or after its termination. 
</P>
<P>(3) To pay all reserve premium charges due promptly after receipt of the Retrospective Reserve Premium Charge Endorsement, whether or not the Certificate is terminated. Any reserve premium charge shall be overdue if not paid within 60 days of the date of the invoice for the charge. 
</P>
<P>Overdue reserve premium charges shall bear interest from the due date until paid at an annual rate equal to the sum of (a) 3% plus (b) a rate of interest equal to Moody's Average Public Utility Bond Yield described in the issue of Moody's Bond Survey current on the due date. Any reserve premium refund due to Named Insureds under a Certificate shall be used to pay any overdue reserve premium charges to such Named Insureds. 
</P>
<HD2>7. Reserve Premium Refund Agreement
</HD2>
<P>Each member of NELIA subscribing the Master Worker Policy for any calendar year, or portion thereof, with respect to which an industry reserve premium refund is determined to be payable thereby agrees for itself, severally and not jointly, and in the respective proportion of its liability assumed under the Master Worker Policy for that calendar year, to return promptly to the Named Insureds that portion of such refund due such Insureds, as determined in accordance with the provisions of this endorsement. 
</P>
<P>Accepted and agreed by the first Named Insured in behalf of itself and every other Named Insured stated in the Declarations of the Certificate of which this endorsement forms a part. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(First Named Insured—Type or Print
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>By 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of Authorized Officer)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Type of Print Named and Title of Officer)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Effective Date of this Endorsement 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>12:01 a.m. Standard Time
</FP>
<FP-DASH>To form a part of Policy No 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issued to 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Issue
</FP-DASH>
<P>For the subscribing companies:
</P>
<FP-DASH>By 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>General Manager 
</FP>
<P>Endorsement No:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Countersigned by
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>NUCLEAR ENERGY LIABILITY INSURANCE ASSOCIATION
</HD1>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance
</HD1>
<HD3>Advance Premium and Standard Premium Endorsement, NE-W-2(1/1/88)
</HD3>
<HD2>Calendar Year 1988
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Advance Premium
</HD3>
<P>It is agreed that the Advance Premium due the companies for the period designated above is:
</P>
<FP-DASH>$
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>2. Standard Premium and Reserve Premium
</HD3>
<P>In the absence of a change in the Advance Premium indicated above, it is agreed that, subject to the previsions of the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan, the Standard Premium is said Advance Premium and the estimated reserve Premium element of the Standard Premium is:
</P>
<FP-DASH>$
</FP-DASH>
<P>Explanation of Use of this Endorsement: This endorsement will be used in the first year of the Master Worker Policy. It states the Advance Premium and the estimated Reserve Premium for the year for the Certificate to which the endorsement is attached. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Effective Date of this Endorsement
</FP-DASH>
<FP>12:01 a.m. Standard Time
</FP>
<FP-DASH>To form a part of Policy No 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issued to 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Issue
</FP-DASH>
<P>For the subscribing companies:
</P>
<FP-DASH>By 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>General Manager
</FP>
<P>Endorsement No:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Countersigned by 
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>NUCLEAR ENERGY LIABILITY INSURANCE ASSOCIATION
</HD1>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance
</HD1>
<HD3>Advance Premium and Standard Premium Endorsement, NE-W-3 (1/1/88)
</HD3>
<HD2>Calendar Year ________
</HD2>
<P>It is agreed that Items 1 and 2 of Endorsement No.   are amended to read:
</P>
<HD3>1. Advance Premium
</HD3>
<P>It is agreed that the Advance Premium due the companies for the period designated above is:
</P>
<FP-DASH>$ 
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>2. Standard Premium and Reserve Premium
</HD3>
<P>In the absence of a change in the advance premium indicated above, it is agreed that, subject to the provisions of the Industry Retrospective Rating Plan, the Standard Premium is said Advance Premium and the estimated Reserve Premium element of the Standard Premium is:
</P>
<FP-DASH>$
</FP-DASH>
<P><I>Explanation of Use of this Endorsement:</I> This endorsement will be used for calendar years of the Master Worker Policy after the 1988 calendar year. It states the Advance Premium and the estimated Reserve Premium for the year for the Certificate to which the endorsement is attached.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Effective Date of this Endorsement 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>12:01 a.m. Standard Time
</FP>
<FP-DASH>To form a part of Policy No 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issued to 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Issue 
</FP-DASH>
<P>For the subscribing companies:
</P>
<FP-DASH>By 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>General Manager
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Endorsement No. 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Countersigned by 
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>NUCLEAR ENERGY LIABILITY INSURANCE ASSOCIATION
</HD1>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance
</HD1>
<HD3>Retrospective Reserve Premium Charge Endorsement, NE-W-dash;5 (1/1/88)
</HD3>
<HD3>1. Industry Reserve Premium Charge
</HD3>
<P>In accordance with Section 4 of the Industry Retrospective Rating Plant Premium Endorsement attached to each Certificate to this policy, the companies have reviewed the status of the reserve for refunds, found that there is a negative balance in the reserve for refunds and have determined that an industry reserve premium charge, as indicated below, is appropriate:
</P>
<FP-DASH>$ 
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>2. Retrospective Adjustment Ratio
</HD3>
<P>The portion of the industry reserve premium charge payable by the Named Insureds under this Certificate is determined by multiplying such charge by this Certificate's retrospective adjustment ratio, which is:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>3. Reserve Premium Charge
</HD3>
<P>The Named Insureds' portion of the industry reserve premium charge, as calculated above, is:
</P>
<FP-DASH>$ 
</FP-DASH>
<P><I>Explanation of Use of this Endorsement:</I> This endorsement will be issued by the companies under the Master Worker Policy after an industry reserve premium charge has been determined because there is a negative balance in the reserve for refunds. It states the reserve premium charge applicable to the Certificate to which the endorsement is attached.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Effective Date of this Endorsement 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>12:01 a.m. Standard Time
</FP>
<FP-DASH>To form a part of Policy No. 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issued to 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Issue 
</FP-DASH>
<P>For the subscribing companies
</P>
<FP-DASH>By 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>General Manager
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Endorsement No. 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Countersigned by </FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 2948, Apr. 7, 1960]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 140.91, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.92" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.92   Appendix B—Form of indemnity agreement with licensees furnishing insurance policies as proof of financial protection.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This indemnity agreement ________ is entered into by and between the ________ (hereinafter referred to as the <I>licensee</I>) and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (hereinafter referred to as the <I>Commission</I>) pursuant to subsection 170c of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (hereinafter referred to as <I>the Act</I>). 
</P>
<HD1>Article I
</HD1>
<P>As used in this agreement, 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Nuclear reactor, byproduct material, person, source material, special nuclear material,</I> and <I>precautionary evacuation</I> shall have the meanings given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the regulations issued by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>2.(a) For facilities designed for producing substantial amounts of electricity and having a rated capacity of 100,000 electrical kilowatts or more, and except when otherwise specifically provided, <I>amount of financial protection</I> means the amount specified in Item 2a. and b. of the Attachment annexed hereto, as modified by paragraph 8, Article II, with respect to common occurrences, and the amount available as secondary financial protection (in the form of private liability insurance available under an industry retrospective rating plan for deferred retrospective premium charges).
</P>
<P>(b) For all other facilities, and except where otherwise specifically provided, <I>amount of financial protection</I> means the amount specified in Item 2a. and b., of the Attachment annexed hereto, as modified by paragraph 8, Article II, with respect to common occurrences.
</P>
<P>3. (a) <I>Nuclear incident</I> means any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence or series of occurrences at the location or in the course of transportation causing bodily injury, sickness, disease, or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence or series of occurrences causing bodily injury, sickness, disease or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of 
</P>
<P>i. The radioactive material discharged or dispersed from the location over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of other material defined as <I>the radioactive material</I> in any other agreement or agreements entered into by the Commission under subsection 170 c or k of the Act and so discharged or dispersed from <I>the location</I> as defined in any such other agreement, or 
</P>
<P>ii. The radioactive material in the course of transportation and also arising out of such properties of other material defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170 c or k of the Act as <I>the radioactive material</I> and which is in the course of transportation, 
</P>
<FP>shall be deemed to be a common occurrence. A common occurrence shall be deemed to constitute a single nuclear incident. 
</FP>
<P>4. <I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the Commission has determined to be an extraordinary nuclear occurrence as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>In the course of transportation</I> means in the course of transportation within the United States, or in the course of transportation outside the United States and any other nation, and moving from one person licensed by the Commission to another person licensed by the Commission, including handling or temporary storage incidental thereto, of the radioactive material to the location or from the location provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to transportation of the radioactive material to the location, such transportation is not by pre-determination to be interrupted by the removal of the material from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of such transportation to the location or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(b) The transportation of the radioactive material from the location shall be deemed to end when the radioactive material is removed from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of transportation or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In the course of transportation</I> as used in this agreement shall not include transportation of the radioactive material to the location if the material is also <I>in the course of transportation</I> from any other <I>location</I> as defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170 c or k of the Act. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Person indemnified</I> means the licensee and any other person who may be liable for public liability. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Public liability</I> means any legal liability arising out of or resulting from a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation (including all reasonable additional costs incurred by a State, or a political subdivision of a State, in the course of responding to a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation), except (1) claims under State or Federal Workmen's Compensation Acts of employees of persons indemnified who are employed (a) at the location or, if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, on the transporting vehicle, and (b) in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; (2) claims arising out of an act of war; and (3) claims for loss of, or damage to, or loss of use of (a) property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use, or transfer of the radioactive material, and (b) if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle, containers used in such transportation, and the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>The location</I> means the location described in Item 4 of the Attachment hereto. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>The radioactive material</I> means source, special nuclear, and byproduct material which (1) is used or to be used in, or is irradiated or to be irradiated by, the nuclear reactor or reactors subject to the license or licenses designated in the Attachment hereto, or (2) which is produced as the result of operation of said reactor(s). 
</P>
<P>10. <I>United States</I> when used in a geographical sense includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<HD1>Article II
</HD1>
<P>1. At all times during the term of the license or licenses designated in Item 3 of the Attachment hereto, the licensee will maintain financial protection in the amount specified in Item 2 of the Attachment and in the form of the nuclear energy liability insurance policy designated in the Attachment. If more than one license is designated in Item 3 of the Attachment, the licensee agrees to maintain such financial protection until the end of the term of that license which will be the last to expire. The licensee shall, notwithstanding the expiration, termination, modification, amendment, suspension or revocation of any license or licenses designated in Item 3 of the Attachment, maintain such financial protection in effect until all the radioactive material has been removed from the location and transportation of the radioactive material from the location has ended as defined in paragraph 5(b), Article I of this section, or until the Commission authorizes the termination or the modification of such financial protection. The Commission will not unreasonably withhold such authorization. 
</P>
<P>2. In the event of any payment by the insurer or insurers under a policy or policies specified in Item 5 of the Attachment hereto which reduces the aggregate limit of such policy or policies below the amount of financial protection, the licensee will promptly apply to his insurers for reinstatement of the amount specified in Item 2a of the Attachment (without reference to paragraph b of Item 2) and will make all reasonable efforts to obtain such reinstatement. In the event that the licensee has not obtained reinstatement of such amount within ninety days after the date of such reduction, and in the absence of good cause shown to the contrary, the Commission may issue an order requiring the licensee to furnish financial protection for such amount in another form. 
</P>
<P>3. Any obligations of the licensee under subsection 53e(8) of the Act to indemnify the United States and the Commission from public liability, together with any public liability satisfied by the insurers under the policy or policies designated in the Attachment hereto, shall not in the aggregate exceed the amount of financial protection with respect to any nuclear incident, including the reasonable costs of investigating and settling claims and defending suits for damage. 
</P>
<P>4. With respect to any extraordinary nuclear occurrence to which this agreement applies, the Commission, and the licensee on behalf of itself and other persons indemnified, insofar as their interests appear, each agree to waive:
</P>
<P>(a) Any issue or defense as to the conduct of the claimant or fault of persons indemnified, including, but not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Negligence; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contributory negligence; 
</P>
<P>(3) Assumption of the risk; 
</P>
<P>(4) Unforeseeable intervening causes, whether involving the conduct of a third person or an act of God. 
</P>
<FP>As used herein, <I>conduct of the claimant</I> includes conduct of persons through whom the claimant derives his cause of action; 
</FP>
<P>(b) Any issue or defense as to charitable or governmental immunity; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any issue or defense based on any statute of limitations if suit is instituted within 3 years from the date on which the claimant first knew, or reasonably could have known, of his injury or damage and the cause thereof.
</P>
<P>The waiver of any such issue or defense shall be effective regardless of whether such issue or defense may otherwise be deemed jurisdictional or relating to an element in the cause of action. The waivers shall be judicially enforceable in accordance with their terms by the claimant against the person indemnified.
</P>
<P>5. The waivers set forth in paragraph 4 of this article:
</P>
<P>(a) Shall not preclude a defense based upon a failure to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages; 
</P>
<P>(b) Shall not apply to injury or damage to a claimant or to a claimant's property which is intentionally sustained by the claimant or which results from a nuclear incident intentionally and wrongfully caused by the claimant; 
</P>
<P>(c) Shall not apply to injury to a claimant who is employed at the site of and in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if benefits therefore are either payable or required to be provided under any workmen's compensation or occupational disease law: <I>Provided, however,</I> That with respect to an extraordinary nuclear occurrence occurring at the facility, a claimant who is employed at the facility in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor with respect to which no operating license has been issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission shall not be considered as employed in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The claimant is employed exclusively in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor, including all related equipment and installations at the facility, and 
</P>
<P>(2) No operating license has been issued by the NRC with respect to the nuclear reactor, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The claimant is not employed in connection with the possession, storage, use or transfer of nuclear material at the facility; 
</P>
<P>(d) Shall not apply to any claim for punitive or exemplary damages, provided, with respect to any claim for wrongful death under any State law which provides for damages only punitive in nature, this exclusion does not apply to the extent that the claimant has sustained actual damages, measured by the pecuniary injuries resulting from such death but not to exceed the maximum amount otherwise recoverable under such law; 
</P>
<P>(e) Shall be effective only with respect to those obligations set forth in this agreement; 
</P>
<P>(f) Shall not apply to, or prejudice the prosecution or defense of, any claim or portion of claim which is not within the protection afforded under (1) the limit of liability provisions under subsection 170(e) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and (2) the terms of this agreement and the terms of the nuclear energy liability insurance policy or policies designated in the attachment hereto. 
</P>
<P>6. The obligations of the licensee under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>7. Upon the expiration or revocation of any license designated in Item 3 of the Attachment, the Commission will enter into an appropriate amendment of this agreement with the licensee reducing the amount of financial protection required under this Article; provided, that the licensee is then entitled to a reduction in the amount of financial protection under applicable Commission regulations and orders. 
</P>
<P>8. With respect to any common occurrence,
</P>
<P>(a) If the sum of limit of liability of any Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment and the limits of liability of all other nuclear energy liability insurance policies (facility form) applicable to such common occurrence and issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association exceeds $155,000,000 the amount of financial protection specified in Item 2 a and b of the Attachment shall be deemed to be reduced by that proportion of the difference between said sum and $155,000,000 as the limit of liability of the Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment bears to the sum of the limits of liability of all nuclear energy liability insurance policies (facility form) applicable to such common occurrence and issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association;
</P>
<P>(b) If the sum of the limit of liability of any Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment and the limits of liability of all other nuclear energy liability insurance policies (facility form) applicable to such common occurrence and issued by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters exceeds $45,000,000, the amount of financial protection specified in Item 2 a and b of the Attachment shall be deemed to be reduced by that proportion of the difference between said sum and $45,000,000 as the limit of liability of the Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment bears to the sum of the limits of liability of all nuclear energy liability insurance policies (facility form) applicable to such common occurrence and issued by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters;
</P>
<P>(c) If any of the other applicable agreements is with a person who has furnished financial protection in a form other than a nuclear energy liability insurance policy (facility form) issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters, and if also the sum of the amount of financial protection established under this agreement and the amounts of financial protection established under all other applicable agreements exceeds an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection, the obligations of the licensee shall not exceed a greater proportion of an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection, than the amount of financial protection established under this agreement bears to the sum of such amount and the amounts of financial protection established under all other applicable agreements.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this paragraph 8., Article II, and in Article III, <I>other applicable agreements</I> means each other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) of the Act in which agreement the nuclear incident is defined as a <I>common occurrence.</I> As used in this paragraph 8., Article II, <I>the obligations of the licensee</I> means the obligations of the licensee under subsection 53e(8) of the Act to indemnify the United States and the Commission from public liability, together with any public liability satisfied by the insurers under the policy or policies designated in the Attachment, and the reasonable costs incurred by the insurers in investigating and settling claims and defending suits for damage.
</P>
<P>9. The obligations of the licensee under this Article shall not be affected by any failure or default on the part of the Commission or the Government of the United States to fulfill any or all of its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of any person indemnified other than the licensee, or the estate of any person indemnified other than the licensee, shall not relieve the licensee of any of his obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article III
</HD1>
<P>1. The Commission undertakes and agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the licensee and other persons indemnified, as their interest may appear from public liability. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to damage caused by a nuclear incident to property of any person legally liable for the nuclear incident, the Commission agrees to pay to such person those sums which such person would have been obligated to pay if such property had belonged to another; provided, that the obligation of the Commission under this paragraph 2 does not apply with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Property which is located at the location described in Item 4 of the Attachment or at the location described in Item 3 of the declarations attached to any nuclear energy liability insurance policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment; 
</P>
<P>(b) Property damage due to the neglect of the person indemnified to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of a nuclear incident; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle and containers used in such transportation; 
</P>
<P>(d) The radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>3. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>4. (a) The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed the amount of financial protection.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to a common occurrence, the obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is lower: (1) The sum of the amounts of financial protection established under this agreement and all other applicable agreements; or (2) an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection.
</P>
<P>5. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>6. The obligations of the Commission under this and all other agreements and contracts to which the Commission is a party shall not with respect to any nuclear incident, in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is the lowest: (a) $500,000,000; (b) $560,000,000 less the amount of financial protection required under this agreement; or (c) with respect to a common occurrence, $560,000,000 less the sum of the amounts of financial protection established under this agreement and all other applicable agreements. 
</P>
<P>7. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement, except to the licensee for damage to property of the licensee, shall not be affected by any failure on the part of the licensee to fulfill its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the licensee or any other person indemnified or of the estate of the licensee or any other person indemnified shall not relieve the Commission of any of its obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article IV
</HD1>
<P>1. When the Commission determines that the United States will probably be required to make indemnity payments under the provisions of this agreement, the Commission shall have the right to collaborate with the licensee and other persons indemnified in the settlement and defense of any claim (provided that no government indemnity that would otherwise be available to pay public liability claims is used for these purposes) and shall have the right (a) to require the prior approval of the Commission for the settlement or payment of any claim or action asserted against the licensee or other person indemnified for public liability or damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident which claim or action the licensee or the Commission may be required to indemnify under this agreement; and (b) to appear through the Attorney General of the United States on behalf of the licensee or other person indemnified, take charge of such action and settle or defend any such action. If the settlement or defense of any such action or claim is undertaken by the Commission, the licensee shall furnish all reasonable assistance in effecting a settlement or asserting a defense.
</P>
<P>2. Neither this agreement nor any interest therein nor claim thereunder may be assigned or transferred without the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article V
</HD1>
<P>The parties agree that they will enter into appropriate amendments of this agreement to the extent that such amendments are required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VI
</HD1>
<P>The licensee agrees to pay to the Commission such fees as are established by the Commission pursuant to regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VII
</HD1>
<P>The term of this agreement shall commence as of the date and time specified in Item 6 of the Attachment and shall terminate at the time of expiration of that license specified in Item 3 of the Attachment, which is the last to expire; provided that, except as may otherwise be provided in applicable regulations or orders of the Commission, the term of this agreement shall not terminate until all the radioactive material has been removed from the location and transportation of the radioactive material from the location has ended as defined in paragraph 5(b), Article I of this section. Termination of the term of this agreement shall not affect any obligation of the licensee or any obligation of the Commission under this agreement with respect to any nuclear incident occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VIII 
</HD1>
<P>The following provisions are applicable to each licensee operating a facility designed for producing substantial amounts of electricity and having a rated capacity of 100,000 electrical kilowatts or more;
</P>
<P>1. Each licensee is required to have and maintain financial protection in an amount specified in Item 2 a and b of the Attachment annexed hereto, and the amount available as secondary financial protection (in the form of private liability insurance available under an industry retrospective rating plan providing for deferred premium charges); Provided, however, That under such a plan for deferred premium charges, such charges for each nuclear reactor which is licensed to operate shall not exceed $63,000,000 with respect to any single nuclear incident (plus any surcharge assessed under subsection 170o.(1)(E) of the Act) nor exceed $10,000,000 per incident within one calendar year. If the licensee fails to pay assessed deferred premiums, the Commission reserves the right to pay those premiums on behalf of the licensee and to recover the amount of such premiums from the licensee.
</P>
<P>2. The Commission shall require the immediate submission of financial statements by those licensees who indicate, after an assessment of the retrospective premium by the insurance pools, that they will not pay the assessment. Such financial statements shall include, as a minimum, exhibits indicating internally generated funds from operations and accumulated retained earnings. Subsequent submission of financial statements by such licensees may be requested by the Commission, as required. 
</P>
<P>3. If premiums are paid by the Commission as provided in paragraph 1, payment by the Commission shall create a lien in the amount paid in favor of the United States upon all property and rights to property, whether real or personal, belonging to such licensee. The lien shall arise at the time payment is made by the Commission and shall continue until the liability for the amount (or a judgment against the licensee arising out of such liability) is satisfied or becomes unenforceable. The Commission will issue a certificate of release of any such lien if it finds that the liability for the amount has been fully satisfied or has become legally unenforceable. 
</P>
<P>4. If the Commission determines that the licensee is financially able to reimburse the Commission for a deferred premium payment made in its behalf, and the licensee, after notice of such determination by the Commission fails to make such reimbursement within 120 days, the Commission will take appropriate steps to suspend the license for 30 days. The Commission may take any further action as necessary if reimbursement is not made within the 30-day suspension period including, but not limited to termination of the operating license. 
</P>
<HD1>United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Indemnity Agreement No. 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 1—Licensee 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 2—a. Amount of financial protection 
</FP-DASH>
<P>b. With respect to any nuclear incident, the amount specified in Item 2a of this Attachment shall be deemed to be (i) reduced to the extent that any payment made by the insurer or insurers under a policy or policies specified in Item 5 of this Attachment reduces the aggregate amount of such insurance policies below the amount specified in Item 2a and (ii) restored to the extent that, following such reduction, the aggregate amount of such insurance policies is reinstated. 
</P>
<P-DASH>Item 3—License number or numbers 
</P-DASH>
<P-DASH>Item 4—Location 
</P-DASH>
<P-DASH>Item 5—Insurance Policy No.(s) 
</P-DASH>
<FP-1>Item 6—The indemnity agreement designated above, of which this Attachment is a part, is effective as of __ m., on the __ day of ____________, 19____. 
</FP-1>
<P>For the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<FRP>By __________________
</FRP>
<FRP>For the __________________
</FRP>
<FRP>(Name of licensee) 
</FRP>
<FRP>By __________________
</FRP>
<P>Dated at Bethesda, MD, the ______________ day of ____________, 19____.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 3457, Apr. 22, 1961]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 140.92, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.93" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.93   Appendix C—Form of indemnity agreement with licensees furnishing proof of financial protection in the form of licensee's resources.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This indemnity agreement No. __________ is entered into by and between the ________ (hereinafter referred to as the <I>licensee</I>) and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (hereinafter referred to as the <I>Commission</I> pursuant to subsection 170(c) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (hereinafter referred to as <I>the Act</I>). 
</P>
<HD1>Article I
</HD1>
<P>As used in this agreement, 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Nuclear reactor, byproduct material, person, source material, special nuclear material,</I> and <I>precautionary evacuation</I> shall have the meanings given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the regulations issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P>2.(a) For facilities designed for producing substantial amounts of electricity and having a rated capacity of 100,000 electrical kilowatts or more, and except where otherwise specifically provided, <I>amount of financial protection</I> means the amount specified in Item 2 of the Attachment annexed hereto, as modified by paragraph 8, Article II, with respect to common occurrences, and the amount available as secondary financial protection (in the form of private liability insurance available under an industry retrospective rating plan providing for deferred retrospective premium charges).
</P>
<P>(b) For all other facilities, and except where otherwise specifically provided, <I>amount of financial protection</I> means the amount specified in Item 2 of the Attachment annexed hereto, as modified by paragraph 8, Article II, with respect to common occurrences.
</P>
<P>3. (a) <I>Nuclear incident</I> means any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence or series of occurrences at the location or in the course of transportation causing bodily injury, sickness, disease, or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence or series of occurrences causing bodily injury, sickness, disease or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of—
</P>
<P>i. The radioactive material discharged or dispersed from the location over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of other material defined as <I>the radioactive material</I> in any other agreement or agreements entered into by the Commission under subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act and so discharged or dispersed from <I>the location</I> as defined in any such other agreement; or 
</P>
<P>ii. The radioactive material in the course of transportation and also arising out of such properties of other material defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act as <I>the radioactive material</I> and which is in the course of transportation shall be deemed to be a common occurrence. A common occurrence shall be deemed to constitute a single nuclear incident. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the Commission has determined to be an extraordinary nuclear occurrence as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>In the course of transportation</I> means in the course of transportation within the United States, or in the course of transportation outside the United States and any other nation, and moving from one person licensed by the Commission to another person licensed by the Commission, including handling or temporary storage incidental thereto, of the radioactive material to the location or from the location provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to transportation of the radioactive material to the location, such transportation is not by pre-determination to be interrupted by the removal of the material from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of such transportation to the location or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(b) The transportation of the radioactive material from the location shall be deemed to end when the radioactive material is removed from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of transportation or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In the course of transportation</I> as used in this agreement shall not include transportation of the radioactive material to the location if the material is also <I>in the course of transportation</I> from any other <I>location</I> as defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Person indemnified</I> means the licensee and any other person who may be liable for public liability. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Public liability</I> means any legal liability arising out of or resulting from a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation (including all reasonable additional costs incurred by a State, or a political sudivision of a State, in the course of responding to a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation), except (1) claims under State or Federal Workmen's Compensation Acts of employees of persons indemnified who are employed (a) at the location or, if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, on the transporting vehicle, and (b) in connection with the licensee's possession, use, or transfer of the radioactive material; (2) claims arising out of an act of war; and (3) claims for loss of, or damage to, or loss of use of (a) property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material, and (b), if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle, containers used in such transportation, and the radioactive material.
</P>
<P>8. <I>The location</I> means the location described in Item 4 of the Attachment hereto. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>The radioactive material</I> means source, special nuclear, and byproduct material which (1) is used or to be used in, or is irradiated or to be irradiated by, the nuclear reactor or reactors subject to the license or licenses designated in the Attachment hereto, or (2) which is produced as the result of operation of said reactor(s). 
</P>
<P>10. <I>United States</I> when used in a geographical sense includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<HD1>Article II
</HD1>
<P>1. The licensee undertakes and agrees to indemnify and hold harmless all persons indemnified, as their interest may appear, from public liability. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to damage caused by a nuclear incident to property of any person legally liable for the incident, the licensee agrees to pay to such person those sums which such person would have been obligated to pay if such property had belonged to another, provided, that the obligation of the licensee under this paragraph 2 does not apply with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; 
</P>
<P>(b) Property damage due to neglect of the person indemnified to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of a nuclear incident; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle and containers used in such transportation; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>3. Any obligations of the licensee under paragraphs 1 and 2 of this Article, and under subsection 53e(8) of the Act to indemnify the United States and the Commission from public liability shall not in the aggregate exceed the amount of financial protection with respect to any nuclear incident, including the reasonable costs of investigating and settling claims and defending suits for damage. 
</P>
<P>4. With respect to any extraordinary nuclear occurrence to which this agreement applies, the Commission, and the licensee on behalf of itself and other persons indemnified, insofar as their interests appear, each agree to waive:
</P>
<P>(a) Any issue or defense as to the conduct of the claimant or fault of persons indemnified, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Negligence; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contributory negligence; 
</P>
<P>(3) Assumption of the risk; 
</P>
<P>(4) Unforeseeable intervening causes, whether involving the conduct of a third person or an act of God. 
</P>
<FP>As used herein, <I>conduct of the claimant</I> includes conduct of persons through whom the claimant derives his cause of action; 
</FP>
<P>(b) Any issue or defense as to charitable or governmental immunity; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any issue or defense based on any statute of limitations if suit is instituted within 3 years from the date on which the claimant first knew, or reasonably could have known, of his injury or damage and the cause thereof.
</P>
<P>The waiver of any such issue or defense shall be effective regardless of whether such issue or defense may otherwise be deemed jurisdictional or relating to an element in the cause of action. The waivers shall be judicially enforceable in accordance with their terms by the claimant against the person indemnified.
</P>
<P>5. The waivers set forth in paragraph 4, of this article:
</P>
<P>(a) Shall not preclude a defense based upon a failure to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages; 
</P>
<P>(b) Shall not apply to injury or damage to a claimant or to a claimant's property which is intentionally sustained by the claimant or which results from a nuclear incident intentionally and wrongfully caused by the claimant; 
</P>
<P>(c) Shall not apply to injury to a claimant who is employed at the site of and in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if benefits therefor are either payable or required to be provided under any workmen's compensation or occupational disease law: <I>Provided, however,</I> That with respect to an extraordinary nuclear occurrence occurring at the facility, a claimant who is employed at the facility in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor with respect to which no operating license has been issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission shall not be considered as employed in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The claimant is employed exclusively in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor, including all related equipment and installations at the facility, and 
</P>
<P>(2) No operating license has been issued by the NRC with respect to the nuclear reactor, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The claimant is not employed in connection with the possession, storage, use or transfer of nuclear material at the facility; 
</P>
<P>(d) Shall not apply to any claim for punitive or exemplary damages, provided, with respect to any claim for wrongful death under any State law which provides for damages only punitive in nature, this exclusion does not apply to the extent that the claimant has sustained actual damages, measured by the pecuniary injuries resulting from such death but not to exceed the maximum amount otherwise recoverable under such law; 
</P>
<P>(e) Shall be effective only with respect to those obligations set forth in this agreement and in contracts or other proof of financial protection; 
</P>
<P>(f) Shall not apply to, or prejudice the prosecution or defense of, any claim or portion of claim which is not within the protection afforded under (1) the limit of liability provisions under subsection 170(e), of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and (2) the terms of this agreement and the terms of contracts or other proof of financial protection. 
</P>
<P>6. The obligations of the licensee under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>7. Upon the expiration or revocation of any license designated in Item 3 of the Attachment, the Commission will enter into an appropriate amendment of this agreement with the licensee reducing the amount of financial protection required under this Article; provided, that the licensee is then entitled to a reduction in the amount of financial protection under applicable Commission regulations and orders. 
</P>
<P>8. With respect to a common occurrence, if the sum of the amount of financial protection established under this agreement and the amount of financial protection established under all other applicable agreements exceeds an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection, the obligations of the licensee described in paragraph 3 of this Article shall not exceed a greater proportion of an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection than the amount of financial protection established under this agreement bears to the sum of such amount and the amounts of financial protection established under all other applicable agreements. As used in this paragraph, and in Article III, <I>other applicable agreements</I> means each other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act in which agreement the nuclear incident is defined as a <I>common occurrence.</I>
</P>
<P>9. The obligations of the licensee under this Article shall not be affected by any failure or default on the part of the Commission or the Government of the United States to fulfill any or all of its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of any person indemnified other than the licensee, or the estate of any person indemnified other than the licensee, shall not relieve the licensee of any of his obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article III
</HD1>
<P>1. The Commission undertakes and agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the licensee and other persons indemnified, as their interest may appear, from public liability. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to damage caused by a nuclear incident to property of any person legally liable for the nuclear incident, the Commission agrees to pay to such person those sums which such person would have been obligated to pay if such property had belonged to another; provided, that the obligation of the Commission under this paragraph 2 does not apply with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; 
</P>
<P>(b) Property damage due to the neglect of the person indemnified to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of a nuclear incident; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle and containers used in such transportation; 
</P>
<P>(d) The radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>3. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>4. (a) The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed the amount of financial protection.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to a common occurrence, the obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to Paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is lower: (1) The sum of the amount of financial protection established under this agreement and to all other applicable agreements; or (2) an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection.
</P>
<P>5. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>6. The obligations of the Commission under this and all other agreements and contracts to which the Commission is a party shall not with respect to any nuclear incident, in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is the lowest: (a) $500,000,000; (b) $560,000,000 less the amount of financial protection required under this agreement; or (c) with respect to a common occurrence, $560,000,000 less the sum of the amounts of financial protection established under this agreement and all other applicable agreements. 
</P>
<P>7. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement, except to the licensee for damage to property of the licensee, shall not be affected by any failure on the part of the licensee to fulfill its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the licensee or any other person indemnified shall not relieve the Commission of any of its obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article IV
</HD1>
<P>1. When the Commission determines that the United States will probably be required to make indemnity payments under the provisions of this agreement, the Commission shall have the right to collaborate with the licensee and other persons indemnified in the settlement and defense of any claim (provided that no government indemnity that would otherwise be available to pay public liability claims is used for these purposes) and shall have the right (a) to require the prior approval of the Commission for the settlement or payment of any claim or action asserted against the licensee or other person indemnified for public liability or damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident which claim or action the licensee or the Commission may be required to indemnify under this agreement; and (b) to appear through the Attorney General of the United States on behalf of the licensee or other person indemnified, take charge of such action and settle or defend any such action. If the settlement or defense of any such action or claim is undertaken by the Commission, the licensee shall furnish all reasonable assistance in effecting a settlement or asserting a defense.
</P>
<P>2. Neither this agreement nor any interest therein nor claim thereunder may be assigned or transferred without the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article V
</HD1>
<P>The parties agree that they will enter into appropriate amendments of this agreement to the extent that such amendments are required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VI
</HD1>
<P>The licensee agrees to pay to the Commission such fees as are established by the Commission pursuant to regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VII
</HD1>
<P>The term of this agreement shall commence as of the date and time specified in Item 6 of the attachment and shall terminate at the time of expiration of that license specified in Item 3 of the attachment, which is last to expire; provided that, except as may otherwise be provided in applicable regulations or orders of the Commission, the term of this agreement shall not terminate until all the radioactive material has been removed from the location and transportation of the radioactive material from the location has ended as defined in subparagraph 5(b), Article I. Termination of the term of this agreement shall not affect any obligation of the licensee or any obligation of the Commission under this agreement with respect to any nuclear incident occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VIII 
</HD1>
<P>The following provisions are applicable to each licensee operating a facility designed for producing substantial amounts of electricity and having a rated capacity of 100,000 electrical kilowatts or more:
</P>
<P>1. Each licensee is required to have and maintain financial protection in an amount specified in Item 2 annexed hereto, and the amount available as secondary financial protection (in the form of private liability insurance available under an industry retrospective rating plan providing for deferred premium charges): Provided, however, That under such a plan for deferred premium charges, such charges for each nuclear reactor which is licensed to operate shall not exceed $63,000,000 with respect to any single nuclear incident (plus any surcharge assessed under subsection 170o.(1)(E) of the Act) nor exceed $10,000,000 per incident within one calendar year. If the licensee fails to pay assessed deferred premiums, the Commission reserves the right to pay those premiums on behalf of the licensee and to recover the amount of such premiums from the licensee.
</P>
<P>2. The Commission shall require the immediate submission of financial statements by those licensees who indicate, after an assessment of the restrospective premium by the insurance pools, that they will not pay the assessment. Such financial statements shall include, as a minimum, exhibits indicating internally generated funds from operations and accumulated retained earnings. Subsequent submission of financial statements by such licensees may be requested by the Commission, as required. 
</P>
<P>3. If premiums are paid by the Commission as provided in paragraph 1, payment by the Commission shall create a lien in the amount paid in favor of the United States upon all property and rights to property, whether real or personal, belonging to such licensee. The lien shall arise at the time payment is made by the Commission and shall continue until the liability for the amount (or a judgment against the licensee arising out of such liability) is satisfied or becomes unenforceable. The Commission will issue a certificate of release of any such lien if it finds that the liability for the amount has been fully satisfied or has become legally unenforceable. 
</P>
<P>4. If the Commission determines that the licensee is financially able to reimburse the Commission for a deferred premium payment made in its behalf, and the licensee, after notice of such determination by the Commission fails to make such reimbursement within 120 days, the Commission will take appropriate steps to suspend the license for 30 days. The Commission may take any further action as necessary if reimbursement is not made within the 30-day suspension period including, but not limited to, termination of the operating license or combined license.
</P>
<HD1>United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission
</HD1>
<FRP>Indemnity Agreement No. ______
</FRP>
<HD2>Attachment
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>Item 1—Licensee 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 2—Amount of financial protection 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 3—License number or numbers 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 4—Location 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>Item 5—The Indemnity Agreement designated above, of which this Attachment is a part, is effective as of ______M., on the ____________ day of __________, 19____.
</FP-1>
<P>For the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<FRP>By ________________________
</FRP>
<FRP>For the ________________________
</FRP>
<FRP>(Name of licensee) 
</FRP>
<FRP>By ________________________
</FRP>
<P>Dated at Bethesda, MD, the ____________ day of __________, 19____.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 3459, Apr. 22, 1961]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 140.93, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.94" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.94   Appendix D—Form of indemnity agreement with Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This indemnity agreement No. D______ is entered into by and between the ________ (hereinafter referred to as the <I>licensee</I>) and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (hereinafter referred to as the <I>Commission</I>) pursuant to subsection 170(c) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (hereinafter referred to as <I>the Act</I>). 
</P>
<HD1>Article I
</HD1>
<P>As used in this agreement, 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Nuclear reactor, byproduct material, person, source material, special nuclear material,</I> and <I>precautionary evacuation</I> shall have the meanings given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the regulations issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P>2. (a) <I>Nuclear incident</I> means any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence or series of occurrences at the location or in the course of transportation causing bodily injury, sickness, disease, or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence or series of occurrences causing bodily injury, sickness, disease, or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive or other hazardous properties of 
</P>
<P>(i) The radioactive material discharged or dispersed from the location over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of other material defined as <I>the radioactive material</I> in any other agreement or agreements entered into by the Commission under subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act and so discharged or dispersed from <I>the location</I> as defined in any such other agreement, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The radioactive material in the course of transportation and also arising out of such properties of other material defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act as <I>the radioactive material</I> and which is in the course of transportation shall be deemed to be a common occurrence. A common occurrence shall be deemed to constitute a single nuclear incident. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the Commission has determined to be an extraordinary nuclear occurrence as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>In the course of transportation</I> means in the course of transportation within the United States, or in the course of transportation outside the United States and any other nation, and moving from one person licensed by the Commission to another person licensed by the Commission, including handling or temporary storage incidental thereto, of the radioactive material to the location or from the location provided that: 
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to transportation of the radioactive material to the location, such transportation is not by predetermination to be interrupted by the removal of the material from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of such transportation to the location or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(b) The transportation of the radioactive material from the location shall be deemed to end when the radioactive material is removed from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of transportation or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In the course of transportation</I> as used in this agreement shall not include transportation of the radioactive material to the location if the material is also <I>in the course of transportation</I> from any other <I>location</I> as defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Person indemnified</I> means the licensee and any other person who may be liable for public liability. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Public liability</I> means any legal liability arising out of or resulting from a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation (including all reasonable additional costs incurred by a State, or a political subdivision of a State, in the course of responding to a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation), except (1) claims under State of Federal Workmen's Compensation Acts of employees of persons indemnified who are employed (a) at the location or, if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, on the transporting vehicle, and (b) in connection with the licensee's possession, use, or transfer of the radioactive material; (2) claims arising out of an act of war; and (3) claims for loss of, or damage to, or loss of use of (a) property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use, or transfer of the radioactive material, and (b) if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle, containers used in such transportation, and the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>The location</I> means the location described in Item 3 of the Attachment hereto. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>The radioactive material</I> means source, special nuclear, and byproduct material which (1) is used or to be used in, or is irradiated or to be irradiated by, the nuclear reactor or reactors subject to the license or licenses designated in the Attachment hereto, or (2) is produced as the result of operation of said reactor(s). 
</P>
<P>9. <I>United States</I> when used in a geographical sense includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<HD1>Article II
</HD1>
<P>1. The Commission undertakes and agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the licensee and other persons indemnified, as their interest may appear, from public liability. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to damage caused by a nuclear incident to property of any person legally liable for the nuclear incident, the Commission agrees to pay to such person those sums which such person would have been obligated to pay if such property had belonged to another; provided, that the obligation of the Commission under this paragraph 2 does not apply with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; 
</P>
<P>(b) Property damage due to the neglect of the person indemnified to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of a nuclear incident; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle and containers used in such transportation; 
</P>
<P>(d) The radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>3. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>4. With respect to any extraordinary nuclear occurrence to which this agreement applies, the Commission, and the licensee on behalf of itself and other persons indemnified, insofar as their interests appear, each agree to waive:
</P>
<P>(a) Any issue or defense as to the conduct of the claimant or fault of persons indemnified, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Negligence; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contributory negligence; 
</P>
<P>(3) Assumption of the risk; 
</P>
<P>(4) Unforeseeable intervening causes, whether involving the conduct of a third person or an act of God. 
</P>
<FP>As used herein, <I>conduct of the claimant</I> includes conduct of persons through whom the claimant derives his cause of action; 
</FP>
<P>(b) Any issue or defense as to charitable or governmental immunity; 
</P>
<P>(c) Any issue or defense based on any statute of limitations if suit is instituted within 3 years from the date on which the claimant first knew, or reasonably could have known, of his injury or damage and the cause thereof.
</P>
<P>The waiver of any such issue or defense shall be effective regardless of whether such issue or defense may otherwise be deemed jurisdictional or relating to an element in the cause of action. The waivers shall be judicially enforceable in accordance with their terms by the claimant against the person indemnified.
</P>
<P>5. The waivers set forth in paragraph 4 of this article:
</P>
<P>(a) Shall not preclude a defense based upon a failure to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages; 
</P>
<P>(b) Shall not apply to injury or damage to a claimant or to a claimant's property which is intentionally sustained by the claimant or which results from a nuclear incident intentionally and wrongfully caused by the claimant; 
</P>
<P>(c) Shall not apply to injury to a claimant who is employed at the site of and in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if benefits therefor are either payable or required to be provided under any workmen's compensation or occupational disease law: <I>Provided, however,</I> That with respect to an extraordinary nuclear occurrence occurring at the facility, a claimant who is employed at the facility in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor with respect to which no operating license has been issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission shall not be considered as employed in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The claimant is employed exclusively in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor, including all related equipment and installations at the facility, and 
</P>
<P>(2) No operating license has been issued by the NRC with respect to the nuclear reactor, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The claimant is not employed in connection with the possession, storage, use or transfer of nuclear material at the facility; 
</P>
<P>(d) Shall not apply to any claim for punitive or exemplary damages, provided, with respect to any claim for wrongful death under any State law which provides for damages only punitive in nature, this exclusion does not apply to the extent that the claimant has sustained actual damages, measured by the pecuniary injuries resulting from such death but not to exceed the maximum amount otherwise recoverable under such law; 
</P>
<P>(e) Shall be effective only with respect to those obligations set forth in this agreement; 
</P>
<P>(f) Shall not apply to, or prejudice the prosecution or defense of, any claim or portion of claim which is not within the protection afforded under (1) the limit of liability provisions under subsection 170(e), of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and (2) the terms of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>6. With respect to a common occurrence, the obligations of the Commission under this Article shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is lower: (1) The sum of the amount of financial protection established under all applicable agreements; or (2) an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection. As used in this Article <I>applicable agreements</I> means each agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act in which agreement the nuclear incident is defined as <I>common occurrence.</I>
</P>
<P>7. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>8. The obligations of the Commission under this and all other agreements and contracts to which the Commission is a party shall not with respect to any nuclear incident, in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is the lower: (a) $500,000,000 or (b) with respect to a common occurrence, $560,000,000 less the sum of the amounts of financial protection established under all applicable agreements. 
</P>
<P>9. Bankruptcy or insolvency of any person indemnified or of the estate of any person indemnified shall not relieve the Commission of any of its obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article III
</HD1>
<P>1. When the Commission determines that the United States will probably be required to make indemnity payments under the provisions of this agreement, the Commission shall have the right to collaborate with the licensee and other persons indemnified in the settlement and defense of any claim (provided that no government indemnity that would otherwise be available to pay public liability claims is used for these purposes) and shall have the right (a) to require the prior approval of the Commission for the settlement or payment of any claim or action asserted against the licensee or other persons indemnified for public liability or damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident which claim or action the licensee or the Commission may be required to indemnify under this agreement; and (b) to appear through the Attorney General of the United States on behalf of the licensee or other person indemnified, take charge of such action and settle or defend any such action. If the settlement or defense of any such action or claim is undertaken by the Commission, the licensee shall furnish all reasonable assistance in effecting a settlement or asserting a defense.
</P>
<P>2. Neither this agreement nor any interest therein nor claim thereunder may be assigned or transferred without the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article IV
</HD1>
<P>The parties agree that they will enter into appropriate amendments of this agreement to the extent that such amendments are required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article V
</HD1>
<P>The licensee agrees to pay to the Commission such fees as are established by the Commission pursuant to regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VI
</HD1>
<P>The term of this agreement shall commence as of the date and time specified in Item 4 of the attachment and shall terminate at the time of expiration of that license specified in Item 2 of the Attachment, which is the last to expire; provided that, except as may otherwise be provided in applicable regulations or orders of the Commission, the term of this agreement shall not terminate until all the radioactive material has been removed from the location and transportation of the radioactive material from the location has ended as defined in paragraph 4(b), Article I of this section. Termination of the term of this agreement shall not affect any obligation of the licensee or any obligation of the Commission under this agreement with respect to any nuclear incident occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<HD1>United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission
</HD1>
<FRP>Indemnity Agreement No. D-______
</FRP>
<HD1>attachment
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Item 1—Licensee 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 2—License number or numbers 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 3—Location 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>Item 4—The indemnity agreement designated above, of which this Attachment is a part, is effective as of ______ m., on the ______________ day of __________, 19____. 
</FP-1>
<P>For the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<FRP>By ________________________
</FRP>
<FRP>For the ________________________
</FRP>
<FRP>(Name of licensee) 
</FRP>
<FRP>By ________________________
</FRP>
<P>Dated at Bethesda, MD, the ______________ day of __________, 19____.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 2886, Mar. 29, 1962]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 140.94, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.95" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.95   Appendix E—Form of indemnity agreement with nonprofit educational institutions.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This indemnity agreement No. E-______ is entered into by and between the ________ (hereinafter referred to as the <I>licensee</I>) and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (hereinafter referred to as the <I>Commission</I>) pursuant to subsection 170(k) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (hereinafter referred to as <I>the Act</I>). 
</P>
<HD1>Article I
</HD1>
<P>As used in this agreement, 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Nuclear reactor, byproduct material, person, source material, special nuclear material,</I> and <I>precautionary evacuation</I> shall have the meanings given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the regulations issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P>2. (a) <I>Nuclear incident</I> means any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence or series of occurrences at the location or in the course of transportation causing bodily injury, sickness, disease, or death, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence or series of occurrences causing bodily injury, sickness, disease or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of 
</P>
<P>i. The radioactive material discharged or dispersed from the location over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of other material defined as <I>the radioactive material</I> in any other agreement or agreements entered into by the Commission under subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act and so discharged or dispersed from <I>the location</I> as defined in any such other agreement; or 
</P>
<P>ii. The radioactive material in the course of transportation and also arising out of such properties of other material defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act as <I>the radioactive material</I> and which is in the course of transportation shall be deemed to be a common occurrence. A common occurrence shall be deemed to constitute a single nuclear incident. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> means an event which the Commission has determined to be an extraordinary nuclear occurrence as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>In the course of transportation</I> means in the course of transportation within the United States, or in the course of transportation outside the United States and any other nation, and moving from one person licensed by the Commission to another person licensed by the Commission, including handling or temporary storage incidental thereto, of the radioactive material to the location or from the location provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to transportation of the radioactive material to the location, such transportation is not by predetermination to be interrupted by the removal of the material from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of such transportation to the location or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(b) The transportation of the radioactive material from the location shall be deemed to end when the radioactive material is removed from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of transportation or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In the course of transportation</I> as used in this agreement shall not include transportation of the radioactive material to the location if the material is also <I>in the course of transportation</I> from any other <I>location</I> as defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Person indemnified</I> means the licensee and any other person who may be liable for public liability. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Public liability</I> means are legal liability arising out of or resulting from a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation (including all reasonable additional costs incurred by a State, or a political subdivision of a State, in the course of responding to a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation), except (1) claims under State or Federal Workmen's Compensation Act of employees of persons indemnified who are employed (a) at the location or, if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, or the transporting vehicle, and (b) in connection with the licensee's possession, use, or transfer of the radioactive material; (2) claims arising out of an act of war; and (3) claims for loss of, or damage to, or loss of use of (a) property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use, or transfer of the radioactive material, and (b) if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle, containers used in such transportation, and the radioactive material.
</P>
<P>7. <I>The location</I> means the location described in Item 3 of the Attachment hereto. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>The radioactive material</I> means source, special nuclear, and byproduct material which (1) is used or to be used in, or is irradiated or to be irradiated by, the nuclear reactor or reactors subject to the license or licenses designated in the Attachment hereto, or (2) which is produced as the result of operation of said reactor(s). 
</P>
<P>9. <I>United States</I> when used in a geographical sense includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<HD1>Article II
</HD1>
<P>1. Any obligations of the licensee under subsection 53e(8) of the Act to indemnify the United States and the Commission from public liability shall not in the aggregate exceed $250,000 with respect to any nuclear incident. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to any extraordinary nuclear occurrence to which this agreement applies, the Commission, and the licensee on behalf of itself and other persons indemnified, insofar as their interests appear, each agree to waive:
</P>
<P>(a) Any issue or defense as to the conduct of the claimant or fault of persons indemnified, including, but not limited to 
</P>
<P>(1) Negligence; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contributory negligence; 
</P>
<P>(3) Assumption of the risk; 
</P>
<P>(4) Unforeseeable intervening causes, whether involving the conduct of a third person or an act of God. 
</P>
<FP>As used herein, <I>conduct of the claimant</I> includes conduct of persons through whom the claimant derives his cause of action; 
</FP>
<P>(b) Any issue or defense as to charitable or governmental immunity: 
</P>
<P>(c) Any issue or defense based on any statute of limitations if suit is instituted within 3 years from the date on which the claimant first knew, or reasonably could have known, of his injury or damage and the cause thereof.
</P>
<P>The waiver of any such issue or defense shall be effective regardless of whether such issue or defense may otherwise be deemed jurisdictional or relating to an element in the cause of action. The waivers shall be judicially enforceable in accordance with their terms by the claimant against the person indemnified.
</P>
<P>3. The waivers set forth in paragraph 2 of this article:
</P>
<P>(a) Shall not preclude a defense based upon a failure to take reasonable steps to mitigate damages; 
</P>
<P>(b) Shall not apply to injury or damage to a claimant or to a claimant's property which is intentionally sustained by the claimant or which results from a nuclear incident intentionally and wrongfully caused by the claimant; 
</P>
<P>(c) Shall not apply to injury to a claimant who is employed at the site of and in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if benefits therefor are either payable or required to be provided under any workmen's compensation or occupational disease law: <I>Provided, however,</I> That with respect to an extraordinary nuclear occurrence occurring at the facility, a claimant who is employed at the facility in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor with respect to which no operating license has been issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission shall not be considered as employed in connection with the activity where the extraordinary nuclear occurrence takes place if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The claimant is employed exclusively in connection with the construction of a nuclear reactor, including all related equipment and installations at the facility, and 
</P>
<P>(2) No operating license has been issued by the NRC with respect to the nuclear reactor, and 
</P>
<P>(3) The claimant is not employed in connection with the possession, storage, use, or transfer of nuclear material at the facility; 
</P>
<P>(d) Shall not apply to any claim for punitive or exemplary damages, provided, with respect to any claim for wrongful death under any State law which provides for damages only punitive in nature, this exclusion does not apply to the extent that the claimant has sustained actual damages, measured by the pecuniary injuries resulting from such death but not to exceed the maximum amount otherwise recoverable under such law; 
</P>
<P>(e) Shall be effective only with respect to those obligations set forth in this agreement; 
</P>
<P>(f) Shall not apply to, or prejudice the prosecution or defense of, any claim or portion of claim which is not within the protection afforded under (1) the limit of liability provisions under subsection 170(e) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and (b) the terms of this agreement. 
</P>
<HD1>Article III
</HD1>
<P>1. The Commission undertakes and agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the licensee and other persons indemnified, as their interest may appear, from public liability. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to damage caused by a nuclear incident to property of any person legally liable for the nuclear incident, the Commission agrees to pay to such person those sums which such person would have been obligated to pay if such property had belonged to another; provided, that the obligation of the Commission under this paragraph 2 does not apply with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; 
</P>
<P>(b) Property damage due to the neglect of the person indemnified to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of a nuclear incident; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle and containers used in such transportation; 
</P>
<P>(d) The radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>3. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>4. (a) The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed $250,000.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to a common occurrence, the obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is lower: (1) The sum of the amounts of financial protection established under all applicable agreements; or (2) an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection. As used in this Article <I>applicable agreements</I> means each agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act in which agreement the nuclear incident is defined as a <I>common occurrence.</I>
</P>
<P>5. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>6. The obligations of the Commission under this and all other agreements and contracts to which the Commission is a party shall not with respect to any nuclear incident, in the aggregate exceed which ever of the following is the lower: (a) $500,000,000 or (b) with respect to a common occurrence, $560,000,000 less the sum of the amounts of financial protection established under all applicable agreements. 
</P>
<P>7. If the licensee is immune from public liability because it is a state agency, the Commission shall make payments under the agreement in the same manner and to the same extent as the Commission would be required to do if the licensee were not such a state agency. 
</P>
<P>8. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement, except to the licensee for damage to property of the licensee, shall not be affected by any failure on the part of the licensee to fulfill its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the licensee or any other person indemnified or of the estate of the licensee or any other person indemnified shall not relieve the Commission of any of its obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article IV
</HD1>
<P>1. When the Commission determines that the United States will probably be required to make indemnity payments under the provisions of this agreement, the Commission shall have the right to collaborate with the licensee and other persons indemnified in the settlement and defense of any claim including such legal costs of the licensee as are approved by the Commission and shall have the right (a) to require the prior approval of the Commission for the settlement or payment of any claim or action asserted against the licensee or other person indemnified for public liability or damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident which claim or action the licensee or the Commission may be required to indemnify under this agreement; and (b) to appear through the Attorney General of the United States on behalf of the licensee or other person indemnified, take charge of such action or defend any such action. If the settlement or defense of any such action or claim is undertaken by the Commission, the licensee shall furnish all reasonable assistance in effecting a settlement or asserting a defense.
</P>
<P>2. Neither this agreement nor any interest therein nor claim thereunder may be assigned or transferred without the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article V
</HD1>
<P>The parties agree that they will enter into appropriate amendments of this agreement to the extent that such amendments are required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VI
</HD1>
<P>The licensee agrees to pay to the Commission such fees as are established by the Commission pursuant to regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VII
</HD1>
<P>The term of this agreement shall commence as of the date and time specified in Item 4 of the Attachment and shall terminate at the time of expiration of that license specified in Item 2 of the Attachment, which is the last to expire; provided that, except as may otherwise be provided in applicable regulations or orders of the Commission, the term of this agreement shall not terminate until all the radioactive material has been removed from the location and transportation of the radioactive material from the location has ended as defined in subparagraph 4(b), Article I. Termination of the term of this agreement shall not affect any obligation of the licensee or any obligation of the Commission under this agreement with respect to any nuclear incident occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<HD1>United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>     Indemnity Agreement No. E-____
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>attachment
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Item 1—Licensee __________________________
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address __________________________
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 2—License number or numbers ______
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Item 3—Location __________________________
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>Item 4—The indemnity agreement designated above, of which this Attachment is a part, is effective as of ______ m., on the ______________ day of ____________________, 19____. 
</FP-1>
<P>For the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<FRP>By ____________________________
</FRP>
<FRP>For the ____________________________
</FRP>
<FRP>By ____________________________
</FRP>
<FRP>(Name of licensee) 
</FRP>
<P>Dated at Bethesda, MD, the ____________ day of ________________, 19____.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 2887, Mar. 29, 1962]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 140.95, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.96" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.96   Appendix F—Indemnity locations.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(a) <I>Geographical boundaries of indemnity locations.</I> (1) In every indemnity agreement between the Commission and a licensee which affords indemnity protection for the preoperational storage of fuel at the site of a nuclear power reactor under construction, the geographical boundaries of the indemnity location will include the entire construction area of the nuclear power reactor, as determined by the Commission. Such area will not necessarily be coextensive with the indemnity location which will be established at the time an operating license or combined license under 10 CFR part 52 is issued for such additional nuclear power reactors.
</P>
<P>(2) In every indemnity agreement between the Commission and a licensee which affords indemnity protection for an existing nuclear power reactor, the geographical boundaries of the indemnity location shall include the entire construction area of any additional nuclear power reactor as determined by the Commission, built as part of the same power station by the same licensee. Such area will not necessarily be coextensive with the indemnity location which will be established at the time an operating license or combined license is issued for such additional nuclear power reactors.
</P>
<P>(3) This section is effective May 1, 1973, as to construction permits issued before March 2, 1973, and, as to construction permits and combined licenses issued on or after March 2, 1973, the provisions of this section will apply no later than such time as a construction permit or combined license is issued authorizing construction of any additional nuclear power reactor.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 49565, Aug. 28, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.107" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.107   Appendix G—Form of indemnity agreement with licensees processing plutonium for use in plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plants and furnishing insurance policies as proof of financial protection.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This Indemnity Agreement No. ______ is entered into by and between ______________ (hereinafter referred to as the <I>licensee</I>) and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (hereinafter referred to as the <I>Commission</I>) pursuant to subsection 170(c) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (hereinafter referred to as <I>the Act</I>), and section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. 
</P>
<HD1>Article I 
</HD1>
<P>As used in this agreement: 
</P>
<P>1. <I>By product material, person, source material, special nuclear material, precautionary evacuation,</I> and <I>extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> shall have the meaning given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the regulations issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P>2. Except where otherwise specifically provided, <I>amount of financial protection</I> means the amount specified in Item 2a and b, of the Attachment annexed hereto as modified by paragraph 6, Article II, with respect to common occurrences. 
</P>
<P>3. (a) <I>Nuclear incident</I> means any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence, or series of occurrences at the location or in the course of transportation causing bodily injury, sickness, disease, or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any occurrence, including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence, or series of occurrences causing bodily injury, sickness, disease or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The radioactive material discharged or dispersed from the location over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of other material defined as <I>the radioactive material</I> in any other agreement or agreements entered into by the Commission under subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act and so discharged or dispersed from <I>the location</I> as defined in any such other agreement, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The radioactive material in the course of transportation and also arising out of such properties of other material defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act as <I>the radioactive material</I> and which is in the course of transportation shall be deemed to be a common occurrence. A common occurrence shall be deemed to constitute a single nuclear incident. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>In the course of transportation</I> means in the course of transportation within the United States, or in the course of transportation outside the United States and any other nation, and moving from one person licensed by the Commission to another person licensed by the Commission, including handling or temporary storage incidental thereto, of the radioactive material to the location or from the location provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to transportation of the radioactive material to the location, such transportation is not by predetermination to be interrupted by the removal of the material from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of such transportation to the location or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(b) The transportation of the radioactive material from the location shall be deemed to end when the radioactive material is removed from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of transportation or temporary storage incidental thereto; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In the course of transportation</I> as used in this agreement shall not include transportation of the radioactive material to the location if the material is also <I>in the course of transportation</I> from any other <I>location</I> as defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Person indemnified</I> means the licensee and any other person who may be liable for public liability. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Public liability</I> means any legal liability arising out of or resulting from a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation (including all reasonable additional costs incurred by a State, or a political subdivision of a State, in the course of responding to a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation), except (1) claims under State or Federal Workmen's Compensation Acts of employees of persons indemnified who are employed (a) at the location or, if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, on the transporting vehicle, and (b) in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; (2) claims arising out of an act of war; and (3) claims for loss of or damage to, or loss of use of (a) property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use, or transfer of the radioactive material, and (b) if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle, containers used in such transportation, and the radioactive material.
</P>
<P>7. <I>The location</I> means the location described in Item 4 of the Attachment hereto. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>The radioactive material</I> means (a) any source, special nuclear, or byproduct material which (1) is both used or to be used in, or is processed or to be processed by, the licensee's plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant or plants and is subject to the license or licenses designated in the Attachment hereto, or (2) is produces as the result of the operation of said plant or plants or (b) any source, special nuclear, or byproduct material which is waste or contamination from material described in paragraph 8(a). The words <I>used or to be used</I> and <I>processed or to be processed</I> in this paragraph cover source, special nuclear or byproduct material which is <I>in the course of transportation</I> as used in the agreement or is received at the plant for use or processing in the plant but which is, in fact, for any reason, not so used or processed. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>United States</I> when used in a geographical sense includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<HD1>Article II 
</HD1>
<P>1. At all times during the term of the license or licenses designated in Item 3 of the Attachment hereto, the licensee will maintain financial protection in the amount specified in Item 2 of the Attachment and in the form of the nuclear energy liability insurance policy designated in the Attachment. If more than one license is designated in Item 3 of the Attachment, the licensee agrees to maintain such financial protection until the end of the term of that license which will be the last to expire. The licensee shall, notwithstanding the expiration, termination, modification, amendment, suspension of revocation of any license or licenses designated in Item 3 of the Attachment, maintain such financial protection in effect until all the radioactive material has been removed from the location and transportation of the radioactive material from the location has ended as defined in subparagraph 4(b), Article I, or until the Commission authorizes the termination or the modification of such financial protection. The Commission will not unreasonably withhold such authorization. 
</P>
<P>2. In the event of any payment by the insurer or insurers under a policy or policies specified in Item 5 of the Attachment hereto which reduces the aggregate limit of such policy or policies below the amount of financial protection, the licensee will promptly apply to his insurers for reinstatement of the amount specified in Item 2a of the Attachment (without reference to paragraph b of Item 2) and will make all reasonable efforts to obtain such reinstatement. In the event that the licensee has not obtained reinstatement of such amount within ninety days after the date of such reduction, and in the absence of good cause shown to the contrary, the Commission may issue an order requiring the licensee to furnish financial protection for such amount in another form. 
</P>
<P>3. Any obligations of the licensee under subsection 53e(8) of the Act to indemnify the United States and the Commission from public liability, together with any public liability satisfied by the insurers under the policy or policies designated in the Attachment hereto, shall not in the aggregate exceed the amount of financial protection with respect to any nuclear incident, including the reasonable costs of investigating and settling claims and defending suits for damage. 
</P>
<P>4. The obligations of the licensee under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>5. Upon the expiration or revocation of any license designated in Item 3 of the Attachment, the Commission will enter into an appropriate amendment of this agreement with the licensee reducing the amount of financial protection required under this Article: provided, that the licensee is then entitled to a reduction in the amount of financial protection under applicable Commission regulations and orders. 
</P>
<P>6. With respect to any common occurrence,
</P>
<P>(a) If the sum of the limit of liability of any Nuclear Energy Liability-Property Insurance Association policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment and the limits of liability of all other nuclear energy liability insurance policies (facility form) applicable to such common occurrence and issued by Nuclear Energy Liability-Property Insurance Association exceeds $155,000,000, the amount of financial protection specified in Item 2 a and b of the Attachment shall be deemed to be reduced by that proportion of the difference between said sum and $155,000,000 as the limit of liability of the Nuclear Energy Liability-Property Insurance Association policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment bears to the sum of the limits of liability of all nuclear energy liability insurance policies (facility form) applicable to such common occurrence and issued by Nuclear Energy Liability-Property Insurance Association;
</P>
<P>(b) If the sum of the limit of liability of any Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment and the limits of liability of all other nuclear energy liability insurance policies (facility form) applicable to such common occurrence and issued by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters exceeds $45,000,000, the amount of financial protection specified in Item 2 a and b of the Attachment shall be deemed to be reduced by that proportion of the difference between said sum and $45,000,000 as the limit of liability of the Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment bears to the sum of the limits of liability of all nuclear energy liability insurance policies (facility form) applicable to such common occurrence and issued by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters; 
</P>
<P>(c) If any of the other applicable agreements is with a person who has furnished financial protection in a form other than a nuclear energy liability insurance policy (facility form) issued by Nuclear Energy Liability-Property Insurance Association or Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters, and if also the sum of the amount of financial protection established under this agreement and the amounts of financial protection established under all other applicable agreements exceeds an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection, the obligations of the licensee shall not exceed a greater proportion of an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection than the amount of financial protection established under this agreement bears to the sum of such amount and the amounts of financial protection established under all other applicable agreements.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this paragraph 6., Article II and in Article III, <I>other applicable agreements</I> means each other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c). of the Act in which agreement the nuclear incident is defined as a <I>common occurrence.</I> As used in this paragraph 6., Article II, <I>the obligations of the licensee</I> means the obligations of the licensee under subsection 53e(8) of the Act to indemnify the United States and the Commission from public liability, together with any public liability satisfied by the insurers under the policy or policies designated in the Attachment, and the reasonable costs incurred by the insurers in investigating and settling claims and defending suits for damage.
</P>
<P>7. The obligations of the licensee under this Article shall not be affected by any failure or default on the part of the Commission or the Government of the United States to fulfill any or all of its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of any person indemnified other than the licensee, or of the estate of any person indemnified other than the licensee, shall not relieve the licensee of any of its obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article III 
</HD1>
<P>1. The Commission undertakes and agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the licensee and other persons indemnified, as their interest may appear, from public liability. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to damage caused by a nuclear incident to property of any person legally liable for the nuclear incident, the Commission agrees to pay to such person those sums which such person would have been obligated to pay if such property had belonged to another; provided, that the obligation of the Commission under this paragraph 2 does not apply with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Property which is located at the location described in Item 4 of the Attachment or at the location described in Item 3 of the declarations attached to any nuclear energy liability insurance policy designated in Item 5 of the Attachment; 
</P>
<P>(b) Property damage due to the neglect of the person indemnified to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of a nuclear incident; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the raidoactive material, the transporting vehicle and containers used in such transportation; 
</P>
<P>(d) The radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>3. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>4. (a) The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed the amount of financial protection.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to a common occurrence, the obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed $200,000,000.
</P>
<P>5. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>6. The obligations of the Commission under this and all other agreements and contracts to which the Commission is a party shall not, with respect to any nuclear incident, in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is the lowest: (a) $500,000,000; (b) $560,000,000 less the amount of financial protection required under this agreement; or (c) with respect to a common occurrence, $560,000,000 less the sum of the amounts of financial protection established under this agreement and all other applicable agreements. 
</P>
<P>7. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement, except to the licensee for damage to property of the licensee, shall not be affected by any failure on the part of the licensee to fulfill its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the licensee or any other person indemnified, or of the estate of the licensee or any other person indemnified, shall not relieve the Commission of any of its obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article IV 
</HD1>
<P>1. When the Commission determines that the United States will probably be required to make indemnity payments under the provisions of this agreement, the Commission shall have the right to collaborate with the licensee and other persons indemnified in the settlement and defense of any claim (provided that no government indemnity that would otherwise be available to pay public liability claims is used for these purposes) and shall have the right (a) to require the prior approval of the Commission for the settlement or payment of any claim or action asserted against the licensee or other person indemnified for public liability or damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident which claim or action the licensee or the Commission may be required to indemnify under this agreement; and (b) to appear through the Attorney General of the United States on behalf of the licensee or other person indemnified, take charge of such action and settle or defend any such action. If the settlement or defense of any such action or claim is undertaken by the Commission, the licensee shall furnish all reasonable assistance in effecting a settlement or asserting a defense.
</P>
<P>2. Neither this agreement nor any interest therein nor claim thereunder may be assigned or transferred without the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article V 
</HD1>
<P>The parties agree that they will enter into appropriate amendments of this agreement to the extent that such amendments are required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VI 
</HD1>
<P>The licensee agrees to pay the Commission such fees as are established by the Commission pursuant to regulations or others of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VII 
</HD1>
<P>The term of this agreement shall commence as of the date and time specified in Item 6 of the Attachment and shall terminate at the time of expiration of that license specified in Item 3 of the Attachment, which is the last to expire; provided that, except as may otherwise be provided in applicable regulations or orders of the Commission, the term of this agreement shall not terminate until all the radioactive material has been removed from the location and transportation of the radioactive material from the location has ended as defined in paragraph 4(b), Article I. Termination of the term of this agreement shall not affect any obligation of the licensee or the Commission under this agreement with respect to any nuclear incident occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<HD1>United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission 
</HD1>
<HD1>attachment 
</HD1>
<P>Indemnity Agreement No. ________________
</P>
<P>Item 1—Licensee. __________________________
</P>
<P>Item 2—
</P>
<P>a. Amount of financial protection ________
</P>
<P>b. With respect to any nuclear incident, the amount specified in Item 2a of this Attachment shall be deemed to be (i) reduced to the extent that any payment made by the insurer or insurers under a policy or policies specified in Item 5 of this Attachment reduces the aggregate amount of such insurance policies below the amount specified in Item 2a and (ii) restored to the extent that, following such reduction, the aggregate amount of such insurance polices is reinstated. 
</P>
<P>Item 3—License number or numbers______
</P>
<P>Item 4—Location __________________________
</P>
<P>Item 5—Insurance Policy No.(s)____________
</P>
<P>Item 6—The indemnity agreement designated above, of which this Attachment is a part, is effective as of 12:01 a.m., on the ______________ day of ______________, 19____. 
</P>
<P>For the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<FP-DASH>  For 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>  By
</FP-DASH>
<P>Dated at Bethesda, MD, the ________
</P>
<FP>day of __________ 19____.</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 51, Jan. 3, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 20141, Apr. 18, 1977; 44 FR 20633, Apr. 6, 1979; 44 FR 24045, Apr. 24, 1979; 45 FR 37410, June 3, 1980; 49 FR 11152, Mar. 26, 1984; 54 FR 24160, June 6, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.108" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.108   Appendix H—Form of indemnity agreement with licensees possessing plutonium for use in plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plants and furnishing proof of financial protection in the form of the licensee's resources.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>This Indemnity Agreement No. ______ is entered into by and between ______ (hereinafter referred to as the <I>licensee</I>) and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (hereinafter referred to as the <I>Commission</I>) pursuant to subsection 170(c) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (hereinafter referred to as <I>the Act</I>), and Section 201 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended. 
</P>
<HD1>Article I 
</HD1>
<P>As used in this agreement: 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Byproduct material, person, source material, special nuclear material, precautionary evacuation,</I> and <I>extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> shall have the meaning given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the regulations issued by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amount of financial protection</I> means the amount specified in Item 2 or the Attachment annexed hereto. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Nuclear incident</I> means any occurrence including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence, or series of occurrences at the location or in the course of transportation causing bodily injury, sickness, disease, or death, or loss of or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any occurrence, including an extraordinary nuclear occurrence of series of occurrences causing bodily injury, sickness, disease or death, or loss or damage to property, or loss of use of property, arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of 
</P>
<P>i. The radioactive material discharged or dispersed from the location over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of other material defined as <I>the radioactive material</I> in any other agreement or agreements entered into by the Commission under subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act and so discharged or dispersed from <I>the location</I> as defined in any such other agreement, or 
</P>
<P>ii. The radioactive material in the course of transportation and also arising out of such properties of other material defined in any other agreement entered into the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act as <I>the radioactive material</I> and which is in the course of transportation shall be deemed to be a common occurrence. A common occurrence whall be deemed to constitute a single nuclear incident. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>In the course of transportation</I> means in the course of transportation within the United States, or in the course of transportation outside the United States and any other nation, and moving from one person licensed by the Commission to another person licensed by the Commission, including handling or temporary storage incidental thereto, of the radioactive material to the location or from the location provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to transportation of the radioactive material to the location, such transportation is not be predetermination to be interrupted by the removal of the material from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of such transportation to the location or temporary storage incidental thereto: 
</P>
<P>(b) The transportation of the radioactive material from the location shall be deemed to end when the radioactive material is removed from the transporting conveyance for any purpose other than the continuation of transportation or temporary storage incidental thereto: 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In the course of transportation</I> as used in this agreement shall not include transportation of the radioactive material to the location if the material is also <I>in the course of transportation</I> from any other <I>location</I> as defined in any other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Person indemnified</I> means the licensee and any other person who may be liable for public liability. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Public liability</I> means any legal liability arising out of or resulting from a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation (including all reasonable additional costs incurred by a State, or a political subdivision of a State, in the course of responding to a nuclear incident or precautionary evacuation), except (1) claims under State or Federal Workmen's Compensation Acts of employees of persons indemnified who are employed (a) at the location or, if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, on the transporting vehicle, and (b) in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; (2) claims arising out of an act of war; and (3) claims for loss of, or damage to, or loss of use of (a) property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use, or transfer of the radioactive material, and (b) if the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle, containers used in such transportation, and the radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>The location</I> means the location described in Item 4 of the Attachment hereto. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>The radioactive material</I> means (a) any source, special nuclear, or byproduct material which (1) is both used or to be used in, or is processed or to be processed by, the licensee's plutonium processing and fuel fabrication plant or plants and is subject to the license or licenses designated in the Attachment hereto, or (2) is produced as the result of the operation of said plant or plants or (b) any source special nuclear, or byproduct material which is waste or contamination from material described in paragraph 8(a). The words <I>used or to be used</I> and <I>processed or to be processed</I> in this paragraph cover source, special nuclear or byproduct material which is <I>in the course of transportation</I> as used in the agreement or is received at the plant for use or processing in the plant but which is, in fact, for any reason, not so used or processed. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>United States</I> when used in a geographical sense includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<HD1>Article II 
</HD1>
<P>1. The licensee undertakes and agrees to indemnify and hold harmless all persons indemnified, as their interest may appear, from public liability. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to damage caused by a nuclear incident to property of any person legally liable for the incident, the licensee agrees to pay to such person those sums which such person would have been obligated to pay if such property had belonged to another; provided, that the obligation of the licensee under this paragraph 2 does not apply with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; 
</P>
<P>(b) Property damage due to neglect of the person indemnified to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of a nuclear incident; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle and containers used in such transportation; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>3. Any obligations of the licensee under paragraphs 1 and 2 of this Article, and subsection 53e(8) of the Act to indemnify the United States and the Commission from public liability shall not in the aggregate exceed the amount of financial protection with respect to any nuclear incident.
</P>
<P>4. The obligations of the licensee under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>5. Upon the expiration or revocation of any license designated in Item 3 of the Attachment, the Commission will enter into an appropriate amendment of this agreement with the licensee reducing the amount of financial protection required under this Article; provided, that the licensee is then entitled to a reduction in the amount of financial protection under applicable Commission regulations and orders. 
</P>
<P>6. With respect to any common occurrence, if the sum of the amount of financial protection established under this agreement and the amount of financial protection established under all other applicable agreements exceeds an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection, the obligations of the licensee described in paragraph 3 of this Article shall not exceed a greater proportion of an amount equal to the sum of $200,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection than the amount of financial protection established under this agreement bears to the sum of such amount and the amounts of financial protection established under all other applicable agreements. As used in this paragraph, and in Article III, <I>other applicable agreements</I> means each other agreement entered into by the Commission pursuant to subsection 170(c) or (k) of the Act in which agreement the nuclear incident is defined as a <I>common occurrence.</I> 
</P>
<P>7. The obligations of the licensee under this Article shall not be affected by any failure or default on the part of the Commission or the Government or the United States to fulfill any or all of its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of any person indemnified other than the licensee, or of the estate of any person indemnified other than the licensee shall not relieve the licensee of any of its obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article III 
</HD1>
<P>1. The Commission undertakes and agrees to indemnify and hold harmless the licensee and other persons indemnified, as their interest may appear, from public liability. 
</P>
<P>2. With respect to damage caused by a nuclear incident to property of any person legally liable for the nuclear incident, the Commission agrees to pay to such person those sums which such person would have been obligated to pay if such property had belonged to another; provided, that the obligation of the Commission under this paragraph 2 does not apply with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Property which is located at the location and used in connection with the licensee's possession, use or transfer of the radioactive material; 
</P>
<P>(b) Property damage due to the neglect of the person indemnified to use all reasonable means to save and preserve the property after knowledge of a nuclear incident; 
</P>
<P>(c) If the nuclear incident occurs in the course of transportation of the radioactive material, the transporting vehicle and containers used in such transportation; 
</P>
<P>(d) The radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>3. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>4. (a) The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed the amount of financial protection.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to a common occurrence, the obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to such public liability and such damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident (other than such property described in the proviso to paragraph 2 of this Article) as in the aggregate exceed $200,000,000. 
</P>
<P>5. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement shall apply only with respect to nuclear incidents occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<P>6. The obligations of the Commission under this and all other agreements and contracts to which the Commission is a party shall not, with respect to any nuclear incident, in the aggregate exceed whichever of the following is the lowest; (a) $500,000,000; (b) $560,000,000 less the amount of financial protection required under this agreement; or (c) with respect to a common occurrence, $560,000,000 less the sum of the amounts of financial protection established under this agreement and all other applicable agreements. 
</P>
<P>7. The obligations of the Commission under this agreement, except to the licensee for damage to property of the licensee, shall not be affected by any failure on the part of the licensee to fulfill its obligations under this agreement. Bankruptcy or insolvency of the licensee or any other person indemnified, or of the estate of the licensee or any other person indemnified shall not relieve the Commission of any of its obligations hereunder. 
</P>
<HD1>Article IV
</HD1>
<P>1. When the Commission determines that the United States will probably be required to make indemnity payments under the provisions of this agreement, the Commission shall have the right to collaborate with the licensee and other persons indemnified in the settlement and defense of any claim (provided that no government indemnity that would otherwise be available to pay public liability claims is used for these purposes) and shall have the right (a) to require the prior approval of the Commission for the settlement or payment of any claim or action asserted against the licensee or other persons indemnified for public liability or damage to property of persons legally liable for the nuclear incident which claim or action the licensee or the Commission may be required to indemnify under this agreement; and (b) to appear through the Attorney General of the United States on behalf of the licensee or other person indemnified, take charge of such action and settle or defend any such action. If the settlement or defense of any such action or claim is undertaken by the Commission, the licensee shall furnish all reasonable assistance in effecting a settlement or asserting defense.
</P>
<P>2. Neither this agreement nor any interest therein nor claim thereunder may be assigned or transferred without the approval of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article V
</HD1>
<P>The parties agree that they will enter into appropriate amendments of this agreement to the extent that such amendments are required pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, or licenses, regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VI
</HD1>
<P>The licensee agrees to pay the Commission such fees as are established by the Commission pursuant to regulations or orders of the Commission. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VII
</HD1>
<P>The term of this agreement shall commence as of the date and time specified in Item 5 of the Attachment and shall terminate at the time of expiration of that license specified in Item 3 of the Attachment, which is the last to expire; provided that, except as may otherwise be provided in applicable regulations or orders of the Commission, the term of this agreement shall not terminate until all the radioactive material has been removed from the location and transportation of the radioactive material from the location has ended as defined in paragraph 4(b), Article I. Termination of the term of this agreement shall not affect any obligation of the licensee or the Commission under this agreement with respect to any nuclear incident occurring during the term of this agreement. 
</P>
<HD1>United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission 
</HD1>
<HD1>attachment 
</HD1>
<P>Indemnity Agreement No. ________________
</P>
<P>Item 1—Licensee __________________________
</P>
<P>Item 2—Amount of financial protection—
</P>
<P>Item 3—License number or numbers______
</P>
<P>Item 4—Location __________________________
</P>
<P>Item 5—The indemnity agreement designated above, of which this Attachment is a part, is effective as of 12:01 a.m., on the 
</P>
<FP>______________ day of ________________ 19____. 
</FP>
<P>Dated at Bethesda, MD, the ____________ day of __________ 19____. 
</P>
<FP2-3>For the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 
</FP2-3>
<FP-DASH>  For 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>  By</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 53, Jan. 3, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 20142, Apr. 18, 1977; 42 FR 23501, May 9, 1977; 44 FR 20633, Apr. 6, 1979; 44 FR 24045, Apr. 24, 1979; 45 FR 37410, June 3, 1980; 49 FR 11152, Mar. 26, 1984; 54 FR 24161, June 6, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 140.109" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.21.6.134.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 140.109   Appendix I.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association
</HD1>
<HD1>master policy no. ____
</HD1>
<HD2>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance
</HD2>
<HD3>(Secondary Financial Protection)
</HD3>
<P>Named Insured: Each person or organization designated in Item 1 of a <I>certificate.</I>
</P>
<P>Policy Period: Beginning on the first day of August, 1977, and continuing to the effective date and time of the cancellation or other termination of this policy, eastern standard time.
</P>
<P>Limits of Liability: The amount of retrospective premium actually received by the companies plus the amount of the companies' contingent liability, if any, pursuant to Conditions 2, 3, and 4.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date of Issue 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Authorized Representative
</FP-DASH>
<P>In consideration of the payment of the annual premium, in reliance upon the statements in the <I>certificates</I> and subject to the limits of liability, conditions and other terms of this Master Policy, the undersigned members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association (hereinafter called the <I>companies</I>), each for itself, severally and not jointly, and in the respective proportions herein set forth, and the <I>insureds</I> named in the <I>certificates,</I> agree as follows:
</P>
<HD1>Insuring Agreements
</HD1>
<HD1>i. nuclear energy liability insurance
</HD1>
<HD2>(Secondary Financial Protection)
</HD2>
<P>To pay on behalf of or to the <I>insured</I> or to the <I>insured's</I> workers' compensation carrier all sums payable as <I>excess losses</I> to which this Master Policy applies.
</P>
<HD1>ii. definitions
</HD1>
<P><I>Bodily injury</I> means bodily injury, sickness or disease, including death resulting therefrom, sustained by any person.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate</I> means a Certificate of Insurance, including Declarations and Bond for Payment of Retrospective Premiums, issued to be a part of this Master Policy.
</P>
<P><I>Common nuclear occurrence</I> means any occurrence or series of occurrences causing <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> arising out of the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of <I>nuclear material</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Discharged or dispersed from a nuclear reactor described in Item 3 of a <I>certificate</I> over a period of days, weeks, months, or longer, or
</P>
<P>(b) Discharged or dispersed from a nuclear reactor described in Item 3 of a <I>certificate</I> over a period of days, weeks, months or longer and also arising out of such properties of <I>nuclear material</I> so discharged or dispersed from one or more other nuclear reactors described in Item 3 of other <I>certificates,</I> or
</P>
<P>(c) In the course of transportation for which protection is afforded (or would be afforded but for exhaustion of its limit of liability) under the <I>primary financial protection</I> described in Item 4 of a <I>certificate</I> and also arising out of such properties of nuclear material in the course of transportation for which protection is afforded (or would be afforded but for exhaustion of its limit of liability) under the <I>primary financial protection</I> described in Item 4 of one or more other <I>certificates.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Damages and claim expenses</I> includes sums estimated by the companies to be payable under this policy and payments made by the companies under this Master Policy:
</P>
<P>(a) In settlement of claims and in satisfaction of judgments against the <I>insureds</I> for damages because of <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage;</I>
</P>
<P>(b) For (1) costs taxed against an <I>insured</I> in any suit against the <I>insured</I> seeking damages payable under the terms of this Master Policy and interest on any judgment therein, (2) premiums on appeal bonds and bonds to release attachments in any such suit and (3) reasonable expenses, other than loss of earnings, incurred by the <I>insured</I> at the companies' request;
</P>
<P>(c) For expenses incurred in the investigation, negotiation, settlement and defense of any claim or suit including, but not limited to, the cost of such services by salaried employees of the companies, fees and expenses of independent adjusters, attorneys' fees and disbursements, expenses for expert testimony, inspection and appraisal of property, examination, X-ray or autopsy or medical expenses of any kind;
</P>
<P>(d) For expenses incurred by the companies in investigating a <I>nuclear incident</I> or in minimizing its effects;
</P>
<P>(e) For all other expenses of the companies in fulfilling their obligations under this Master Policy, provided that such expenses are reasonable and necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Excess losses</I> means all <I>damages and claim expenses</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Because of <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> to which a <I>certificate</I> applies, and
</P>
<P>(b) Which are excess of all sums paid or payable as estimated by the companies under all applicable <I>primary financial protection.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> has the meaning given it in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Insured</I> means any person or organization identified in Item 1 or 2 of a <I>certificate.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear incident</I> means
</P>
<P>(a) An <I>extraordinary nuclear occurrence,</I> or
</P>
<P>(b) A <I>common nuclear occurrence,</I> or if neither of these,
</P>
<P>(c) An occurrence or series of occurrences, including continuous or repeated exposure to substantially the same general conditions, causing <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> arising out of the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of <I>nuclear material.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear material</I> means <I>source material, special nuclear material</I> or <I>byproduct material.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Primary financial protection</I> means the insurance policies or other contracts identified in Item 4 of a <I>certificate</I> and includes any amendment thereto which is consented to by the companies pursuant to Condition 6 of this Master Policy.
</P>
<P><I>Property damage</I> means physical injury to or destruction or radioactive contamination of property, and loss of use of property so injured, destroyed or contaminated, and loss of use of property while evacuated or withdrawn from use because possibly so contaminated or because of imminent danger of such contamination.
</P>
<P><I>Source material, special nuclear material,</I> and <I>byproduct material</I> have the meanings given them in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or in any law amendatory thereof.
</P>
<HD1>iii. application of policy
</HD1>
<P>Insurance is provided by this Master Policy only through a <I>certificate.</I> No insurance is afforded with respect to <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> caused prior to August 1, 1977 by a <I>nuclear incident.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Conditions
</HD1>
<HD1>1. annual premium
</HD1>
<P>The named insureds designated in a <I>certificate</I> shall pay to the companies the annual premium for each calendar year or part thereof.
</P>
<P>Such annual premium shall be determined by the companies and stated in a written notice mailed to the first named insured shown in Item 1 of a <I>certificate,</I> and shall be due and payable as stated in such notice.
</P>
<HD1>2. retrospective premium
</HD1>
<P>The named insureds designated in a <I>certificate</I> shall pay to the companies retrospective premium in the event of <I>excess losses</I> due to <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> caused during their <I>certificate</I> period by a <I>nuclear incident</I> arising out of or in connection with a nuclear reactor described in Item 3 of the <I>certificate</I> or in Item 3 of any other <I>certificate.</I> The amount of retrospective premium-due under each <I>certificate</I> shall be determined by multiplying such <I>excess losses</I> by the ratio of the maximum retrospective premium payable with respect to the <I>nuclear incident</I> under the <I>certificate</I> to the total of the maximum retrospective premiums payable with respect to the <I>nuclear incident</I> under all such <I>certificates.</I>
</P>
<P>If any portion of the <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> to which this Master Policy applies is caused during any portion of a <I>certificate</I> period by a <I>nuclear incident,</I> the retrospective premium the named insureds designated in such <I>certificate</I> are obligated to pay shall be determined as if all <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> to which this Master Policy applies caused by the <I>nuclear incident</I> had been caused during the <I>certificate</I> period of such <I>certificate.</I>
</P>
<P>The maximum retrospective premium that the named insureds designated in a <I>certificate</I> shall pay to the companies for all <I>excess losses</I> arising out of any one <I>nuclear incident</I> is the amount stated in Item 7 of their <I>certificate.</I>
</P>
<P>In the event of two more <I>nuclear incidents,</I> the maximum amount of retrospective premium that shall be due from and payable by the named insureds in one calendar year shall not exceed twice the amount stated in Item 7 of their <I>certificate.</I> Any amount in excess thereof shall be paid in subsequent calendar years as billed by the companies.
</P>
<P>In addition, an allowance for applicable premium taxes shall be determined by the companies and paid to them by the named insureds at the time retrospective premiums are due and payable.
</P>
<P>After a <I>nuclear incident</I> resulting in <I>excess losses,</I> the companies shall mail to the first named insured designated in Item 1 of a <I>certificate</I> written notice of the retrospective premium and allowance for premium taxes then due under such <I>certificate.</I> Such notice shall also constitute notice to all other named insureds designated in such <I>certificate.</I> The named insureds shall pay directly to the Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association the retrospective premium and allowance for premium taxes stated in the notice. The notice shall specify a date no earlier than 60 days after mailing by which time payment is to be received by the Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association.
</P>
<P>The companies shall at least annually review their estimate of <I>excess losses</I> arising out of the <I>nuclear incident</I> and shall adjust the retrospective premium and allowance for premium taxes accordingly. If the amount due from the named insureds is increased, written notice shall be mailed to the first named insured in accordance with the foregoing paragraph; if deceased the companies shall return the excess to the first named insured.
</P>
<P>The obligation of the named insureds to pay retrospective premium and the allowance for premium taxes for <I>excess losses</I> arising out of a <I>nuclear incident</I> shall continue until the named insureds have paid the maximum retrospective premium stated in Item 7 of their <I>certificate</I> plus allowance for premium taxes.
</P>
<P>The companies shall send to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission summaries of their estimates of <I>excess losses</I> arising out of the <I>nuclear incident</I> and their computations of retrospective premium and the allowance for premium taxes due.
</P>
<P>All retrospective premium (but not the allowance for premium taxes) received by the companies is to be held by the companies separate from the companies' other assets and is to be used by the companies only for the purpose of paying <I>excess losses.</I> Any investment income received by the companies from such retrospective premium shall accrue to the benefit of the named insureds. This paragraph shall not apply to any retrospective premium received by the companies as reimbursement for any funds expended pursuant to Condition 4. 
</P>
<P>No commission will be paid with respect to retrospective premium and allowance for premium taxes.
</P>
<HD1>3. limit of liability
</HD1>
<P>Regardless of the number of
</P>
<P>(a) Persons or organizations who are <I>insureds</I> under this Master Policy, or
</P>
<P>(b) Claims made and suits brought against any and all <I>insureds,</I> or 
</P>
<P>(c) Policies or contracts of <I>primary financial protection</I> or <I>certificates</I> which apply to the <I>nuclear incident,</I> or
</P>
<P>(d) Years this Master Policy and any <I>certificate</I> shall continue in force,
</P>
<FP>The total liability of the companies under this Master Policy for all <I>excess losses</I> arising out of any <I>nuclear incident</I> shall not exceed the amount of retrospective premium actually received by the companies pursuant to Condition 2 with respect to such <I>nuclear incident</I> plus the companies' contingent liability, if any, as determined by Condition 4. Reimbursement of the companies for funds expended pursuant to Condition 4 shall not operate to increase the total liability of the companies.
</FP>
<HD1>4. contingent liability of the companies
</HD1>
<P>The companies have a contingent liability under this Master Policy for payment of <I>excess losses</I> but only if, and to the extent that, the retrospective premium due under one or more <I>certificates</I> is not paid. In the event of any such failure to pay retrospective premiums, the companies' obligations under this Condition 4 are limited as follows:
</P>
<P>Regardless of the number of <I>nuclear incidents</I> which cause <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> to which this Master Policy applies, the number of years this Master Policy is in force, the number of <I>certificates</I> issued or in effect, or the number of annual premiums paid or payable.
</P>
<P>(a) The total contingent liability of the companies for all <I>excess losses</I> arising out of two or more <I>nuclear incidents</I> shall not exceed $46,500,000;
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the above provision (a), the total contingent liability of the companies for all <I>excess losses</I> arising out of any one <I>nuclear incident</I> shall not exceed $23,250,000;
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to the above provisions (a) and (b), the maximum amount to be paid by the companies in any one calendar year because of contingent liability for <I>excess losses</I> shall not exceed $23,250,000.
</P>
<P>If a named insured designated in a <I>certificate</I> shall become insolvent or be adjudged bankrupt, the companies' obligation under this Condition 4 shall not apply to the failure of any named insured designated in such <I>certificate</I> to pay retrospective premium with respect to <I>excess losses</I> because of <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> caused after the date of such insolvency or bankruptcy.
</P>
<HD1>5. investigation, defense or settlement of claims or suits
</HD1>
<P>Subject to the provisions of any written agreement between the companies and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, the companies shall defend any claim or suit alleging <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> caused by a <I>nuclear incident</I> and seeking damages which are payable under this Master Policy, and may make such investigation and settlement of any claim or suit as they deem expedient. In no event shall the companies be obligated to pay any claim or judgment or to defend any claim or suit after the companies have paid the amount of retrospective premium actually received for <I>excess losses</I> arising out of the <I>nuclear incident</I> plus the amount of their contingent liability, if any.
</P>
<HD1>6. primary financial protection
</HD1>
<P>Regardless of the number of policies or contracts of <I>primary financial protection</I> applicable to a <I>nuclear incident,</I> the limit of liability of all such policies or contracts shall be deemed to be exhausted when the sums paid under all such policies or contracts are equal to the lesser of (1) the sum of the limits of liability available under all such primary financial protection or (2) one hundred forty million dollars.
</P>
<P>The named insured designated in a <I>certificate</I> shall maintain in full effect during the currency of such <I>certificate</I> the <I>primary financial protection</I> described therein, except for any reduction of the limit of liability of such <I>primary financial protection</I> solely as the result of sums paid thereunder. Failure of the named insureds to comply with the foregoing shall not invalidate this Master Policy, but in the event of such failure the companies shall be liable only to the extent that they would have been liable and the named insureds complied therewith.
</P>
<P>In the event that the limit of liability of the <I>primary financial protection</I> is reduced, such names insureds shall immediately inform the companies thereof and make all reasonable efforts to reinstate such limit.
</P>
<P>Upon the companies' request the named insureds shall provide the companies with a certified copy of any policy or other contract of <I>primary financial protection.</I> No amendment of the <I>primary financial protection</I> shall increase, extend or broaden the insurance provided by this Master Policy unless the companies agree to the amendment by an endorsement issued to form a part of this Master Policy.
</P>
<HD1>7. interest to be paid by named insured on retrospective premium and allowance for premium taxes in default
</HD1>
<P>If retrospective premium or allowance for premium taxes is not paid when due by the named insureds designated in Item 1 of a <I>certificate,</I> such named insureds shall be obligated to pay, in addition to the amount in default, interest thereon during the period of default. Such interest shall be computed at an annual rate equal to the sum of (a) three percent plus (b) a rate of interest equal to Moody's Average Public Utility Bond Yield described in the issue of Moody's Bond Survey current on the date that the retrospective premium and allowance for premium taxes were due. The annual rate of interest shall be adjusted monthly during the period of default to reflect any revisions of Moody's Average Public Utility Bond Yield described in the issue of Moody's Bond Survey current on the first business day of each such month.
</P>
<P>The interest so received shall be used to pay to the companies interest at the annual rate described above for any funds the companies have paid pursuant to Condition 4. Any balance remaining shall accrue to the benefit of named insureds not in default as if it were investment income on retrospective premium.
</P>
<HD1>8. notice of nuclear incident, claim or suit
</HD1>
<P>In the event of <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> to which this Master Policy applies or of a <I>nuclear incident</I> which may give rise to claims therefor, written notice containing particulars sufficient to identify the <I>insured</I> and also reasonably obtainable information with respect to the time, place and circumstances thereof, and the names and addresses of the injured and of available witnesses, shall be given by or for the <I>insured</I> to Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or the companies as soon as practicable. If claim is made or suit is brought against the <I>insured,</I> the <I>insured</I> shall immediately forward to Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association or the companies every demand, notice, summons or other process received by or on behalf of the <I>insured.</I>
</P>
<HD1>9. assistance and cooperation of the insured
</HD1>
<P>The <I>insured</I> shall cooperate with the companies and, upon the companies' request, attend hearings and trials and assist in making settlements, in securing and giving evidence, in obtaining the attendance of witnesses and in the conduct of any legal proceedings in connection with the subject matter of this insurance. The <I>insured</I> shall not, except at the <I>insured's</I> own cost, make any payment, assume any obligation or incur any expense.
</P>
<HD1>10. action against companies
</HD1>
<P>No action shall lie against the companies or any of them unless, as a condition precedent thereto, the <I>insured</I> shall have fully complied with all the terms of this Master Policy, nor until the amount of the <I>insured's</I> obligation to pay shall have been finally determined either by judgment against the <I>insured</I> after actual trial or by written agreement of the <I>insured,</I> the claimant and the companies.
</P>
<P>Any person or organization or the legal representative thereof who has secured such judgment or written agreement shall thereafter be entitled to recover under this Master Policy to the extent of the insurance afforded by this Master Policy. No person or organization shall have any right under this Master Policy to join the companies or any of them as parties to any action against the <I>insured</I> to determine the <I>insured's</I> liability, nor shall the companies or any of them be impleaded by the <I>insured</I> or the <I>insured's</I> legal representative. Except as provided in Condition 4, bankruptcy or insolvency of the <I>insured</I> or of the <I>insured's</I> estate shall not relieve the companies of any of their obligations hereunder.
</P>
<HD1>11. subrogation
</HD1>
<P>In the event of any payment under this Master Policy, the companies may participate with the <I>insured</I> and any underlying insurer in the exercise of all the <I>insured's</I> rights of recovery against any person or organization liable therefor. Prior to knowledge of <I>bodiliy injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> to which this Master Policy applies or of a <I>nuclear incident</I> which may give rise to claims therefor, the <I>insured</I> may waive in writing any right of recovery against any person or organization. After such knowledge, the <I>insured</I> shall not waive or otherwise prejudice any such right of recovery but shall do everything necessary to secure such rights. Recoveries shall be applied first to reimburse any person or organization (including the <I>insured)</I> that may have paid any amount with respect to liability in excess of the limit of the companies' liability hereunder; then to reimburse the companies up to the amount paid hereunder; and lastly to reimburse anyone entitiled to claim the residue, if any. A different apportionment maybe made by agreement signed by all parties affected.
</P>
<P>Reasonable expenses incurred in the exercise of rights of recovery shall be apportioned in the ratio of the respective losses for which recovery is sought. The companies shall, after deducting all of their expenses in securing recovery, apply the net amount of recoveries made by the companies as a credit in determining the amount of <I>excess</I> losses.
</P>
<HD1>12. other insurance
</HD1>
<P>This insurance shall be excess insurance over <I>primary financial protection.</I>
</P>
<P>This insurance is concurrent with insurance afforded by a Master Policy—Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance (Secondary Financial Protection) issued to the named insured by Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters, hereinafter called <I>concurrent insurance.</I> The companies shall not be liable under this Master Policy for a greater proportion of <I>excess losses</I> than the applicable limit of liability described in Condition 3 bears to the sum of (a) such limit plus (b) the applicable limit of liability of such concurrent insurance.
</P>
<P>If the <I>insured</I> has other valid and collectible insurance (other than <I>primary financial protection</I> or concurrent insurance) applicable to <I>excess losses</I> covered by this Master Policy, the insurance afforded by this Master Policy shall be primary insurance under such other insurance.
</P>
<HD1>13. changes
</HD1>
<P>Notice to any agent or knowledge possessed by any agent or by any other person shall not effect a waiver or a change in any part of this Master Policy or estop the companies from asserting any right under the terms of this Master Policy; nor shall the terms of this Master Policy be waived or changed, except by endorsement executed by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association on behalf of the companies and issued to form a part of this Master Policy.
</P>
<HD1>14. assignment
</HD1>
<P>Assignment of interest by the named insured shall not bind the companies until their consent is endorsed hereon; if, however, the named insured shall die or be declared bankrupt or insolvent, this Master Policy shall cover such named insured's legal representative, receiver or trustee as an <I>insured</I> under this Master Policy, but only with respect to such legal representative's, receiver's or trustee's liability as such, and then only provided written notice of the legal representative's, receiver's or trustee's appointment as such is given to the companies within ten days after such appointment.
</P>
<HD1>15. custodian of the policy—nuclear regulatory commission
</HD1>
<P>The named insureds have designated the Nuclear Regulatory Commission as the custodian of this Master Policy and any endorsements thereto.
</P>
<HD1>16. cancellation
</HD1>
<P>The first named insured designated in Item 1 of a <I>certificate</I> may cancel such <I>certificate</I> by mailing to the companies and the Nuclear Regulatory Commission written notice stating when, not less than thirty days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective.
</P>
<P>The companies may cancel any <I>certificate</I> by mailing to the first named insured designated in Item 1 of such <I>certificate</I> written notice stating when, not less than ninety days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective; provided that in the event of non-payment of any annual premium, retrospective premium or allowance for premium taxes due under a <I>certificate,</I> such <I>certificate</I> may be canceled by the companies by mailing to the first named insured designated therein written notice stating when, not less than thirty days thereafter, such cancellation shall be effective.
</P>
<P>The mailing of notice as aforesaid shall be sufficient proof of notice. The effective date and time of cancellation stated in the notice shall become the end of the <I>certificate</I> period. Delivery of such written notice, either by the first named insured designated in Item 1 of a <I>certificate</I> or by the companies, shall be equivalent to mailing.
</P>
<P>A copy of the companies' cancellation notice shall be mailed to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, but mailing such copy is not a condition of cancellation.
</P>
<P>If a <I>certificate</I> is canceled, the earned portion of the annual premium shall be computed pro-rata. Adjustment of the annual premium, if any, may be made either at the time cancellation is effective or as soon as practicable after cancellation becomes effective, but payment or tender of unearned premium is not a condition of cancellation.
</P>
<P>Cancellation or termination of any <I>certificate</I> shall not terminate the obligation of a named insured to pay retrospective premium and the allowance for premium taxes as provided in such named insured's <I>certificate</I> and Condition 2 of this Master Policy.
</P>
<P>This Master Policy shall terminate automatically on the effective date and time of cancellation or termination of the last <I>certificate</I> in effect.
</P>
<HD1>17. company representation
</HD1>
<P>(a) Any notice, sworn statement or proof of loss which may be required by the provisions of this Master Policy may be given to any one of the companies, and such notice, statement or proof of loss so given shall be valid and binding as to all companies.
</P>
<P>(b) In any action or suit against the companies, service of process may be made on any one of them and such service shall be deemed valid and binding service on all companies.
</P>
<P>(c) Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association is the agent of the companies with respect to all matters pertaining to this insurance. All notices or other communications required by this Master Policy to be given to the companies may be given to such agent, at its office at The Exchange, Suite 245, 270 Farmington Avenue, Farmington, Connecticut—06032 with the same force and effect as if given directly to the companies. Any requests, demands or agreements made by such agent shall be deemed to have been made directly by the companies.
</P>
<HD1>18. authorization of first named insured
</HD1>
<P>Except with respect to compliance with the obligations imposed on the <I>insured</I> by Conditions 8, 9, 10 and 11 of this Master Policy, the first named insured designated in Item 1 of a <I>certificate</I> is authorized to act for every other person and organization insured under such <I>certificate</I> in all matters pertaining to this insurance.
</P>
<HD1>19. changes in subscribing companies and in their proportionate liability
</HD1>
<P>The members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association subscribing this Master Policy, and the proportionate liability of each, may change from time to time.
</P>
<P>Each company subscribing this Master Policy upon its issuance shall be liable only for its stated proportion of any obligation assumed or expense incurred under this Master Policy because of <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> caused during the period from the effective date of this Master Policy to the close of December 31 next following. For each subsequent calendar year, beginning January 1 next following the effective date of this Master Policy, the subscribing companies and the proportionate liability of each such company shall be stated in an endorsement issued to form a part of this Master Policy, duly executed by the President of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association on behalf of each such company, and mailed or delivered to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<HD1>20. declarations
</HD1>
<P>By acceptance of this Master Policy, the named insureds designated in a <I>certificate</I> agree that the statements in such <I>certificate</I> are their agreements and representations, that this Master Policy and such <I>certificate</I> are issued in reliance upon the truth of such representations and that this Master Policy and such <I>certificate</I> embody all agreements between such named insureds and the companies or any of their agents relating to this insurance.
</P>
<P>In witness whereof each of the subscribing companies has caused this Master Policy to be executed on its behalf by the Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association and duly countersigned on the first page by an authorized representative.
</P>
<P>For the Subscribing Companies of NUCLEAR ENERGY LIABILITY INSURANCE ASSOCIATION
</P>
<FP>By:
</FP>
<FP>Burt C. Proom,
</FP>
<FP>President.
</FP>
<HD1>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Certificate No. 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Forming Part of Master Policy No. 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>certificate of insurance declarations and bond for payment of retrospective premiums
</HD1>
<HD2>Certificate of Insurance
</HD2>
<P>This is to certify that the persons and organizations designated in Item 1 of the Declarations are named insureds under the Master Policy—Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance (Secondary Financial Protection), herein called the <I>Master Policy,</I> issued by Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association.
</P>
<P>Such insurance as is provided by the Master Policy applies, through this <I>certificate,</I> only:
</P>
<P>(a) to the <I>insureds</I> identified in Items 1 and 2 of the Declarations,
</P>
<P>(b) for the <I>certificate</I> period stated in Item 6 of the Declarations,
</P>
<P>(c) to <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I>
</P>
<P>(1) with respect to which the <I>primary financial protection</I> described in Item 4 of the Declarations would apply but for exhaustion of its limit of liability as described in Condition 6 of the Master Policy, and 
</P>
<P>(2) which is caused during the <I>certificate</I> period stated in Item 6 of the Declarations by a <I>nuclear incident</I> arising out of or in connection with the nuclear reactor described in Item 3 of the Declarations, and
</P>
<P>(3) which is discovered and for which written claim is made against the <I>injured</I> not later than ten years after the end of the <I>certificate</I> period stated in Item 6 of the Declarations. However, with respect to <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> caused by an <I>extraordinary nuclear occurrence</I> this subparagraph (3) shall not operate to bar coverage for <I>bodily injury</I> or <I>property damage</I> which is discovered and for which written claim is made against the <I>insured</I> not later than twenty years after the date of the <I>extraordinary nuclear occurrence.</I>
</P>
<HD1>declarations
</HD1>
<P>Item 1. Named insureds and addresses:
</P>
<P>(a) 
</P>
<P>(b) 
</P>
<P>Item 2. Additional <I>insureds:</I>
</P>
<P>Any other person or organization who would be insured under the <I>primary financial protection</I> identified in Item 4 of the Declarations but for exhaustion of the limit of liability of such <I>primary financial protection.</I>
</P>
<P>Item 3. Description and location of nuclear reactor:
</P>
<P>Item 4. (a) Identification of <I>primary financial protection</I> applicable to the nuclear reactor and limit(s) of liability thereof: 
</P>
<FP-1>Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association's Policy NF-  $108,500,000
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mutual Atomic Energy Liability Underwriters' Policy MF-  $31,500,000
</FP-1>
<P>(b) The following endorsements, attached to the <I>primary financial protection</I> policies listed in Item 4(a) also apply to the insurance afforded by the Master Policy through this <I>certificate</I> as though they were attached hereto:
</P>
<P>(1) Waiver of Defense Endorsement (Extraordinary Nuclear Occurrence) and
</P>
<P>(2) Supplementary Endorsement—Waiver of Defenses—Reactor Construction at the Facility,
</P>
<P>(c) The limits of liability provided under the <I>primary financial protection</I> specified in Item 4(a) above are not shared with any other reactor except as follows:
</P>
<P>Item 5. Limits of Liability: The amount of retrospective premium actually received by the companies plus the amount of the companies' contingent liability, if any, pursuant to Conditions 2, 3, and 4 of the Master Policy.
</P>
<P>Item 6. <I>Certificate</I> Period: Beginning at 12:01 a.m. on ____________ and continuing to the effective date and time of cancellation or termination of the Master Policy or this <I>certificate,</I> whichever first occurs, eastern standard time.
</P>
<P>Item 7. Maximum retrospective premium (exclusive of allowance for premium taxes) payable pursuant to Condition 2 of the Master Policy with respect to each <I>nuclear incident:</I> $3,875,000.
</P>
<P>Item 8. Premium payable pursuant to Condition 1 of the Master Policy for the period from ____________ through December 31 following: $______.
</P>
<HD1>Bond for Payment of Retrospective Premiums
</HD1>
<P>Know All Men By These Presents, that the undersigned do hereby acknowledge that they are named insureds under the Master Policy described in the above Certificate of Insurance and Declarations. The named insureds do hereby convenant with and are held and are firmly bound to the members of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association subscribing the Master Policy (hereinafter called the <I>companies</I>) to pay the companies all retrospective premiums and allowances for premium taxes which shall become due and payable in accordance with the Master Policy, as it may be changed from time to time, with interest on such premiums and allowances for taxes to be computed at the rate provided in the Master Policy from the date payment thereof is specified to be due the companies in written notice to the first named insured as provided in Condition 2 of the Master Policy until paid;
</P>
<P>And it is hereby expressly agreed that copies of written notices of retrospective premiums and allowances for premium taxes due and payable or other evidence of such amounts due and payable sworn to by a duly authorized representative of the companies shall be prima facie evidence of the fact and extent of the liability of the named insureds for such amounts;
</P>
<P>And it is further expressly agreed that the named insureds will indemnify the companies against any and all liability, losses and expenses of whatsoever kind or nature (including but not limited to interest, court cost, and counsel fees) which the companies may sustain or incur (1) by reason of the failure of the named insureds to comply with the convenants and provisions of this Bond and (2) in enforcing any of the convenants or provisions of this Bond, or any provisions of the Master Policy relating to such convenants or provisions; 
</P>
<P>For the purpose of recording this agreement, a photocopy acknowledged before a Notary Public to be a true copy hereof shall be regarded as an original. 
</P>
<P>The preceding Certificate of Insurance, Declarations and Bond form a part of the Master Policy. Cancellation or termination of the Master Policy or the Certificate of Insurance shall not affect the named insured's obligations under the policy or the Bond to pay the retrospective premiums and allowances for premium taxes, as provided in this <I>Certificate</I> and Condition 2 of the Master Policy.
</P>
<P>In witness whereof, the named insureds have caused the Declaration and the Bond for Payment of Retrospective Premiums to be signed and sealed by a duly authorized officer, to be effective ____________ eastern standard time.
</P>
<FP>Attest or Witness
</FP>
<FP>Named Insureds:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Seal)
</FP>
<FP>(Signature of Officer)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(type or print Name &amp; Title of Officer)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>In witness whereof, the companies subscribing the Master Policy have caused the Certificate of Insurance and the Declarations to be signed on their behalf by the President of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association to be effective __________ eastern standard time, and countersigned below by a duly authorized representative.
</P>
<P>For the Subscribing Companies of Nuclear Energy Liability Insurance Association.
</P>
<FP-DASH>By: President
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Countersigned by
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Authorized Representative)</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 11153, Mar. 26, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="150" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 150—EXEMPTIONS AND CONTINUED REGULATORY AUTHORITY IN AGREEMENT STATES AND IN OFFSHORE WATERS UNDER SECTION 274 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 53, 81, 83, 84, 122, 161, 181, 223, 234, 274 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2201, 2231, 2273, 2282, 2021); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 135, 141 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
</PSPACE><P>Sections 150.3, 150.15, 150.15a, 150.31, 150.32 also issued under Atomic Energy Act secs. 11e(2), 81, 83, 84 (42 U.S.C. 2014e(2), 2111, 2113, 2114). 
</P><P>Section 150.14 also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 53 (42 U.S.C. 2073).
</P><P>Section 150.15 also issued under Nuclear Waste Policy Act sec. 135 (42 U.S.C. 10155, 10161). 
</P><P>Section 150.17a also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 122 (42 U.S.C. 2152). 
</P><P>Section 150.30 also issued under Atomic Energy Act sec. 234 (42 U.S.C. 2282).
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>27 FR 1352, Feb. 14, 1962, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="135" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.135" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.135.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part provide certain exemptions to persons in Agreement States from the licensing requirements contained in chapters 6, 7, and 8 of the Act and from the regulations of the Commission imposing requirements upon persons who receive, possess, use or transfer byproduct material, source, or special nuclear material in quantities not sufficient to form a critical mass; and to define activities in Agreement States and in offshore waters over which the regulatory authority of the Commission continues. The provisions of the Act, and regulations of the Commission apply to all persons in Agreement States and in offshore waters engaging in activities over which the regulatory authority of the Commission continues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44151, Sept. 3, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.135.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to all States that have entered into agreements with the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission pursuant to subsection 274b of the Act. This part also gives notice to all persons who knowingly provide to any licensee, applicant for a license or certificate or quality assurance program approval, holder of a certificate or quality assurance program approval, contractor, or subcontractor, any components, equipment, materials, or other goods or services that relate to a licensee's, certificate holder's, quality assurance program approval holder's or applicant's activities subject to this part, that they may be individually subject to NRC enforcement action for violation of §§ 30.10, 40.10, 61.9b, 70.10, and 71.8.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 1901, Jan. 13, 1998, as amended at 80 FR 63419, Oct. 20, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.135.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919) including any amendments thereto; 
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means any State with which the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b of the Act. <I>Nonagreement State</I> means any other State. 
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2) The tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from ore processed primarily for its source material content, including discrete surface wastes resulting from uranium solution extraction processes. Underground ore bodies depleted by these solution extraction operations do not constitute “byproduct material” within this definition;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives; 
</P>
<P><I>Discrete source</I> means a radionuclide that has been processed so that its concentration within a material has been purposely increased for use for commercial, medical, or research activities.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign obligations</I> means the commitments entered into by the U.S. Government under Atomic Energy Act (AEA) section 123 agreements for cooperation in the peaceful uses of atomic energy. Imports and exports of material or equipment pursuant to such agreements are subject to these commitments, which in some cases involve an exchange of information on imports, exports, retransfers with foreign governments, peaceful end-use assurances, and other conditions placed on the transfer of the material or equipment. The U.S. Government informs the licensee of obligations attached to material. 
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government. 
</P>
<P><I>Offshore waters</I> means that area of land and water, beyond Agreement States' Submerged Lands Act jurisdiction, on or above the U.S. Outer Continental Shelf.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means: (1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, agency, and State or any political subdivision of any political entity within a State, and any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing other than Government agencies; 
</P>
<P><I>Production facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any equipment or device determined by rule of the Commission to be capable of the production of special nuclear material in such quantity as to be of significance to the common defense and security, or in such manner as to affect the health and safety of the public, including a uranium enrichment facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any important component part especially designed for such equipment or device as determined by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Reconciliation</I> means the process of evaluating and comparing licensee reports required under this part to the projected material balances generated by the Nuclear Materials Management and Safeguards System. This process is considered complete when the licensee resolves any differences between the reported and projected balances, including those listed for foreign obligated materials.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium, thorium, or any other material which is determined by the Commission pursuant to the provisions of section 61 of the Act to be source material; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Ores containing one or more of the foregoing materials, in such concentration as the Commission may by regulation determine from time to time; 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium 233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Act, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing but does not include source material; 
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States; and 
</P>
<P><I>Utilization facility</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any equipment or device, except an atomic weapon, determined by rule of the Commission to be capable of making use of special nuclear material in such quantity as to be of significance to the common defense and security, or in such manner as to affect the health and safety of the public, or peculiarly adapted for making use of atomic energy in such quantity as to be of significance to the common defense and security, or in such manner as to affect the health and safety of the public; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any important component part especially designed for such equipment or device as determined by the Commission. 
</P>
<P><I>Uranium enrichment facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any facility used for separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device, or important component part especially designed for such equipment or device, capable of separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 1352, Feb. 14, 1962, as amended at 31 FR 15145, Dec. 2, 1966; 40 FR 8794, Mar. 3, 1975; 44 FR 55327, Sept. 26, 1979; 45 FR 18906, Mar. 24, 1980; 46 FR 44152, Sept. 3, 1981; 57 FR 18394, Apr. 30, 1992; 68 FR 10365, Mar. 5, 2003; 72 FR 55934, Oct. 1, 2007; 73 FR 32464, June 9, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.135.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Except where otherwise specified in this part, all communications and reports concerning the regulations in this part should be sent by mail addressed: ATTN: Document Control Desk, Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, and sent either by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of Information Services, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 5727, Jan. 31, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009; 79 FR 75742, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 74982, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.135.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by an officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 1352, Feb. 14, 1962, as amended at 90 FR 55634, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="136" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.136" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Continued Commission Regulatory Authority in Offshore Waters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.136.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.7   Persons in offshore waters not exempt.</HEAD>
<P>Persons in offshore waters are not exempt from the Commission's licensing and regulatory requirements with respect to byproduct, source, and special nuclear materials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44152, Sept. 3, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.136.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission has submitted the information collection requirements contained in this part to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has approved the information collection requirements contained in this part under control number 3150-0032.
</P>
<P>(b) The approved information collection requirements contained in this part appear in §§ 150.16, 150.17, 150.17a, 150.19, 150.20, and 150.31.
</P>
<P>(c) This part contains information collection requirements in addition to those approved under the control number specified in paragraph (a) of this section. These information collection requirements and the control numbers under which they are approved are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In § 150.16, DOE/NRC FORM 741 and its computer-readable format are approved under control number 3150-0003.
</P>
<P>(2) In § 150.17, DOE/NRC Form 742 and its computer-readable format are approved under control number 3150-0004, and DOE/NRC Form 742C and its computer-readable format are approved under control number 3150-0058.
</P>
<P>(3) In § 150.17a, Form N-71 and associated forms are approved under OMB control number 3150-0056 and DOC/NRC Forms AP-1 or AP-A and associated forms are approved under OMB control number 0694-0135.
</P>
<P>(4) In § 150.20, NRC Form 241 is approved under control number 3150-0013.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 19629, May 9, 1984, as amended at 62 FR 52190, Oct. 6, 1997; 73 FR 32464, June 9, 2008; 73 FR 78615, Dec. 23, 2008; 74 FR 1872, Jan. 14, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="137" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.137" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Exemptions in Agreement States</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.10" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.137.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.10   Persons exempt.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 150.15, 150.16, 150.17, 150.17a, and 150.19, any person in an Agreement State who manufactures, produces, receives, possesses, uses, or transfers byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in quantities not sufficient to form a critical mass is exempt from the requirements for a license contained in Chapters 6, 7, and 8 of the Act, regulations of the Commission imposing licensing requirements upon persons who manufacture, produce, receive, possess, use, or transfer such materials, and from regulations of the Commission applicable to licensees. The exemptions in this section do not apply to agencies of the Federal government as defined in § 150.3. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9208, May 6, 1972, as amended at 45 FR 50718, July 31, 1980; 75 FR 73946, Nov. 30, 2010] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.137.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.11   Critical mass.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this part, special nuclear material in quantities not sufficient to form a critical mass means uranium enriched in the isotope U-235 in quantities not exceeding 350 grams of contained U-235; uranium-233 in quantities not exceeding 200 grams; plutonium in quantities not exceeding 200 grams; or any combination of them in accordance with the following formula: For each kind of special nuclear material, determine the ratio between the quantity of that special nuclear material and the quantity specified above for the same kind of special nuclear material. The sum of such ratios for all kinds of special nuclear materials in combination shall not exceed unity. For example, the following quantities in combination would not exceed the limitation and are within the formula, as follows: 
</P>
<FP-2>(175 (grams contained U-235 / 350) + (50 grams U-233) / 200) + (50 grams Pu / 200) = 1
</FP-2>
<P>(b) To determine whether the exemption granted in § 150.10 applies to the receipt, possession or use of special nuclear material at any particular plant or other authorized location of use, a person shall include in the quantity computed according to paragraph (a) of this section the total quantity of special nuclear material which he is authorized to receive, possess or use at the plant or other location of use at any one time. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 1352, Feb. 14, 1962, as amended at 30 FR 12069, Sept. 22, 1965] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="138" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.138" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Continued Commission Regulatory Authority in Agreement States</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.14" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.138.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.14   Commission regulatory authority for physical protection.</HEAD>
<P>Persons in Agreement States possessing, using or transporting special nuclear material of low strategic significance in quantities greater than 15 grams of plutonium or uranium-233 or uranium-235 (enriched to 20 percent or more in the U-235 isotope) or any combination greater than 15 grams when computed by the equation grams = grams uranium-235 + grams plutonium + grams uranium-233 shall meet the physical protection requirements of § 73.67 of 10 CFR part 73. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 43285, July 24, 1979, as amended at 44 FR 68199, Nov. 28, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.138.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.15   Persons not exempt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons in agreement States are not exempt from the Commission's licensing and regulatory requirements with respect to the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(1) The construction and operation of any production or utilization facility. As used in this subparagraph, <I>operation</I> of a facility includes, but is not limited to (i) the storage and handling of radioactive wastes at the facility site by the person licensed to operate the facility, and (ii) the discharge of radioactive effluents from the facility site. 
</P>
<P>(2) The export from or import into the United States of byproduct, source, or special nuclear material, or of any production or utilization facility. 
</P>
<P>(3) The disposal into the ocean or sea of byproduct, source, or special nuclear waste materials, as defined in regulations or orders of the Commission. For purposes of this part, ocean or sea means any part of the territorial waters of the United States and any part of the international waters. 
</P>
<P>(4) The transfer, storage or disposal of radioactive waste material resulting from the separation in a production facility of special nuclear material from irradiated nuclear reactor fuel. This subparagraph does not apply to the transfer, storage or disposal of contaminated equipment. 
</P>
<P>(5) The disposal of such other byproduct, source, or special nuclear material as the Commission determines by regulation or order should, because of the hazards or potential hazards thereof, not be so disposed of without a license from the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(6) The transfer of possession or control by the manufacturer, processor, or producer of any equipment, device, commodity, or other product containing source material or byproduct material whose subsequent possession, use, transfer, and disposal by all other persons are exempted from licensing and regulatory requirements of the Commission under Parts 30 and 40 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(7) The storage of:
</P>
<P>(i) Spent fuel in an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) licensed under part 72 of this chapter,
</P>
<P>(ii) Spent fuel and high-level radioactive waste in a monitored retrievable storage installation (MRS) licensed under part 72 of this chapter, or


</P>
<P>(iii) Greater than Class C (GTCC) waste, as defined in part 72 of this chapter, in an ISFSI or an MRS licensed under part 72 of this chapter; the GTCC waste must originate in, or be used by, a facility licensed under part 50, part 52, or part 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(8) Greater than Class C waste, as defined in part 72 of this chapter, that originates in, or is used by, a facility licensed under part 50, part 52, or part 53 of this chapter and is licensed under part 30 and/or part 70 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(9) The requirements for the protection of Safeguards information in § 73.21 of this chapter and the requirements in § 73.22 or § 73.23 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding any exemptions provided in this part, the Commission may from time to time by rule, regulation, or order, require that the manufacturer, processor, or producer of any equipment, device, commodity, or other product containing source, byproduct, or special nuclear material shall not transfer possession or control of such product except pursuant to a license or an exemption from licensing issued by the Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 1352, Feb. 14, 1962, as amended at 34 FR 7369, May 7, 1969; 53 FR 31683, Aug. 19, 1988; 66 FR 51843, Oct. 11, 2001; 73 FR 63582, Oct. 24, 2008; 79 FR 58672, Sept. 30, 2014; 87 FR 68032, Nov. 14, 2022; 91 FR 15879, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.15a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.138.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.15a   Continued Commission authority pertaining to byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to the termination of any Agreement State license for byproduct material as defined in § 150.3(c)(2) of this part, or for any activity that results in the production of such material, the Commission shall have made a determination that all applicable standards and requirements pertaining to such material have been met. 
</P>
<P>(b) After November 8, 1981, the Commission reserves the authority to establish minimum standards regarding reclamation, long term surveillance (<I>i.e.</I>, continued site observation, monitoring and, where necessary, maintenance), and ownership of byproduct material as defined in § 150.3(c)(2) of this part and of land used as a disposal site for such material. Such reserved authority includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) Authority to establish such terms and conditions as the Commission determines necessary to assure that, prior to termination of any license for byproduct material as defined in § 150.3(c)(2) of this part, or for any activity that results in the production of such material, the licensee shall comply with decontamination, decommissioning, and reclamation standards prescribed by the Commission; and with ownership requirements for such materials and its disposal site; 
</P>
<P>(2) The authority to require that prior to termination of any license for byproduct material as defined in § 150.3(c)(2) of this part, or for any activity that results in the production of such material, that title to such byproduct material and its disposal site be transferred to the United States or the State in which such material and land is located, at the option of the State (provided such option is exercised prior to termination of the license); 
</P>
<P>(3) The authority to permit use of the surface or subsurface estates, or both, of the land transferred to the United States or a State pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section in a manner consistent with the provisions of the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, provided that the Commission determines that such use would not endanger the public health, safety, welfare, or the environment;
</P>
<P>(4) The authority to require, in the case of a license for any activity that produces such byproduct material (which license was in effect on November 8, 1981) transfer of land and material pursuant to paragraph (b)(2), of this section, taking into consideration the status of such material and land and interests therein, and the ability of the licensee to transfer title and custody thereof to the United States or a State.
</P>
<P>(5) The authority to require the Secretary of the Department of Energy, other Federal agency, or State, whichever has custody of such property and materials, to undertake such monitoring, maintenance and emergency measures as are necessary to protect the public health and safety and other actions at the Commission deems necessary to comply with the standards promulgated pursuant to the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978; and
</P>
<P>(6) The authority to enter into arrangements as may be appropriate to assure Federal long term surveillance (<I>i.e.</I>, continued site observation, monitoring, and where necessary, maintenance) of such disposal sites on land held in trust by the United States for any Indian Tribe or land owned by an Indian Tribe and subject to a restriction against alienation imposed by the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65536, Oct. 3, 1980, as amended at 80 FR 74982, Dec. 1, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="139" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.139" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Continued Commission Authority in Agreement States</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.139.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.16   Submission to Commission of nuclear material transaction reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each person who transfers or receives special nuclear material in a quantity of one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium under an Agreement State license shall complete and submit in computer-readable format Nuclear Material Transaction Reports as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” In addition, each person who adjusts the inventory in any manner, other than for transfers and receipts, shall submit in computer-readable format Nuclear Material Transaction Reports as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Each licensee who receives special nuclear material in a quantity of one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium from a foreign source, or who ships special nuclear material in a quantity of one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium to a foreign source, shall submit the licensee portion of this information as specified in the instructions in this part. The applicable foreign facility portion of the form must be completed and submitted for imports. The foreign facility portion of the form must be completed for exports only if a significant shipper-receiver difference as described in § 74.31, § 74.43, or § 74.59 of this part, as applicable, is identified. Each person who transfers the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format as specified in the instructions no later than the close of business the next working day. Each person who receives special nuclear material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in the computer-readable format as specified in the instructions within ten (10) days after the special nuclear material is received. Copies of these instructions may be obtained either by writing to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> These prescribed computer-readable formats replace the DOE/NRC Form 741 which have been previously submitted in paper form.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as specified in §§ 150.17(d) and 150.17a, each person who, under an Agreement State specific license transfers, receives, or adjusts the inventory in any manner, of uranium or thorium source material with foreign obligations by one kilogram or more; imports or exports one kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material; or uses one kilogram or more of any uranium or thorium source material in enrichment services, downblending uranium that has an initial enrichment of the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope of 10 percent or more, or in the fabrication of mixed-oxide fuels, shall complete and submit in computer-readable format Nuclear Material Transaction Reports as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0006 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Each person who, under an Agreement State specific license exports one kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material shall complete in the format listed above the licensee's portion of the Nuclear Material Transaction Report unless there is indication of loss, theft, or diversion as discussed in § 40.64(c)(1) of this chapter is identified, in which case both the licensee's and the foreign facility's information shall be reported. For imports, the shipper's portion of the form must also be completed. Copies of the instructions may be obtained either by writing to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> Each licensee who transfers the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format as specified in the instructions no later than the close of business the next working day. Each licensee who receives the material shall submit a Nuclear Material Transaction Report in computer-readable format in accordance with instructions within ten (10) days after the material is received. The Commission's copy of the report must be submitted to the address specified in the instructions. These prescribed computer-readable forms replace the DOE/NRC Form 741 which have been previously submitted in paper form.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each person who, pursuant to an Agreement State License, possesses 1 gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium shall report immediately to the Regional Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office listed in appendix A of part 73 of this chapter, by telephone, any theft or other unlawful diversion of special nuclear material which the licensee is licensed to possess or any incident in which an attempt has been made, or is believed to have been made, to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 15 days, the licensee shall follow the initial report with a written report that sets forth the details of the incident. The report must be sent by an appropriate method listed in § 150.4 to the Director, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, with a copy to the appropriate NRC Regional Office, shown in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent to the submission of the written report required by this paragraph, each licensee shall promptly inform the Regional Administrator of the appropriate NRC Regional Office by means of a written report of any substantive additional information which becomes available to the licensee concerning an attempted or apparent theft or unlawful diversion of special nuclear material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 39559, Nov. 8, 1974, as amended at 41 FR 16447, Apr. 19, 1976; 52 FR 31613, Aug. 21, 1987; 59 FR 35622, July 13, 1994; 68 FR 58825, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5727, Jan. 31, 2008; 73 FR 32464, June 9, 2008; 79 FR 75742, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.139.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.17   Submission to Commission of nuclear material status reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section and § 150.17a, each person possessing, or who had possessed in the previous reporting period, at any one time and location, under an Agreement State license, special nuclear material in a quantity totaling one gram or more of contained uranium-235, uranium-233, or plutonium, shall complete and submit, in computer-readable format Material Balance Reports concerning special nuclear material that the licensee has received, produced, possessed, transferred, consumed, disposed of, or lost. This prescribed computer-readable report replaces the DOE/NRC Form 742 which has been previously submitted in paper form. The Physical Inventory Listing Report must be submitted with each Material Balance Report. This prescribed computer-readable report replaces the DOE/NRC Form 742C which has been previously submitted in paper form. Each licensee shall prepare and submit the reports described in this paragraph as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0007 and NMMSS Report D-24 “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” Copies of these instructions may be obtained from the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> Each person subject to this requirement shall submit a report no later than March 31 of each year. The Commission may, when good cause is shown, permit a licensee to submit Material Balance Reports and Physical Inventory Listing Reports at other times. Each licensee required to report material balance, and inventory information, as described in this part, shall resolve any discrepancies identified during the report review and reconciliation process within 30 calendar days of notification of a discrepancy identified by NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section and § 150.17a, each person possessing, or who had possessed in the previous reporting period, at any one time and location, under an Agreement State license:
</P>
<P>(1) One kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material with foreign obligations, shall document holdings as of September 30 of each year and submit to the Commission within 30 days. Alternatively, these reports may be submitted with the licensee's material status reports on special nuclear material filed under part 72 or 74 of this chapter. This statement must be submitted to the address specified in the reporting instructions in NUREG/BR-0007, and include the Reporting Identification Symbol (RIS) assigned by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) One kilogram or more of uranium or thorium source material in the operation of enrichment services, downblending uranium that has an initial enrichment of the U
<SU>235</SU> isotope of 10 percent or more, or in the fabrication of mixed-oxide fuels shall complete and submit, in computer-readable format, Material Balance and Physical Inventory Listing Reports concerning source material that the licensee has received, produced, possessed, transferred, consumed, disposed, or lost. Reports must be submitted for each Reporting Identification Symbol (RIS) account including all holding accounts. Each licensee shall prepare and submit these reports as specified in the instructions in NUREG/BR-0007 and NMMSS Report D-24, “Personal Computer Data Input for NRC Licensees.” These reports must document holdings as of September 30 of each year and submitted to the Commission within 30 days. Alternatively, these reports may be submitted with the licensee's material status reports on special nuclear material filed under part 72 or 74 of this chapter. Copies of the reporting instructions may be obtained by writing to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Division of Fuel Management, Washington, DC 20555-0001, or by e-mail to <I>RidsNmssFcss@nrc.gov.</I> Each licensee required to report material balance, and inventory information, as described in this part, shall resolve any discrepancies identified during the report review and reconciliation process within 30 calendar days of the notification of a discrepancy identified by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, each licensee who is authorized to possess uranium or thorium pursuant to a specific license shall notify the NRC Headquarters Operations Center by telephone, at the numbers listed in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter, of any incident in which an attempt has been made or is believed to have been made to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of more than 6.8 kilograms (kg) [15 pounds] of such material at any one time or more than 68 kg [150 pounds] of such material in any one calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee shall notify the NRC as soon as possible, but within 4 hours, of discovery of any incident in which an attempt has been made or is believed to have been made to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of such material. 
</P>
<P>(3) The initial notification shall be followed within a period of sixty (60) days by a written followup notification submitted in accordance with § 150.4. A copy of the written followup notification shall also be sent to the appropriate NRC Regional Office as shown in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter and to Director, Division of Security Policy, Office of Nuclear Security and Incident Response, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent to the submission of the written followup notification required by this paragraph, the licensee shall promptly update the written followup notification, in accordance with this paragraph, with any substantive additional information, which becomes available to the licensee, concerning an attempted or apparent theft or unlawful diversion of source material.
</P>
<P>(d) The reports described in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section are not required for:
</P>
<P>(1) Processed ores containing less than five (5) percent of uranium or thorium, or any combination of uranium and thorium, by dry weight;
</P>
<P>(2) Thorium contained in magnesium-thorium and tungsten-thorium alloys, if the thorium content in the alloys does not exceed 4 percent by weight;
</P>
<P>(3) Chemical catalysts containing uranium depleted in the U-235 isotope to 0.4 percent or less, if the uranium content of the catalyst does not exceed 15 percent by weight; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any source material contained in non-nuclear end use devices or components, including but not limited to permanently installed shielding, teletherapy, radiography, X-ray, accelerator devices, or munitions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 12196, July 30, 1970, as amended at 36 FR 10938, June 5, 1971; 41 FR 16448, Apr. 19, 1976; 49 FR 24708, June 15, 1984; 51 FR 9767, Mar. 21, 1986; 52 FR 31613, Aug. 21, 1987; 59 FR 35622, July 13, 1994; 60 FR 24553, May 9, 1995; 68 FR 10365, Mar. 5, 2003; 68 FR 58825, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 32465, June 9, 2008; 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009; 75 FR 73946, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 75742, Dec. 19, 2014; 84 FR 65646, Nov. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.17a" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.139.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.17a   Compliance with requirements of US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, the terms <I>facility, location</I>, and <I>Eligible Facilities List</I> have the meanings set forth in § 75.4 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person who, under an Agreement State license, is authorized to possess byproduct, source, or special nuclear material is subject to the provisions of Part 75 of this chapter and shall comply with its applicable provisions. However, regarding these persons, the Commission will issue orders under section 274m of the Act instead of making license amendments; and, to the extent Part 75 of this chapter refers to license amendments and license conditions, these references shall be deemed, for purposes of this paragraph, to refer to orders under section 274m of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for an Agreement State license or certificate, and each recipient of an Agreement State license or certificate shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on Form N-71 and associated forms, and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms;
</P>
<P>(2) As required by the Additional Protocol, shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 and associated forms; and
</P>
<P>(3) Shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA); and shall take other action as may be necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in Part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) In response to a written request by the Commission, each applicant for an Agreement State license or certificate, and each recipient of an Agreement State license or certificate shall submit facility information, as described in § 75.10 of this chapter, on Form N-71 and associated forms, and site information on DOC/NRC Form AP-A and associated forms; shall submit location information described in § 75.11 of this chapter on DOC/NRC Form AP-1 or AP-A and associated forms; shall permit verification thereof by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA); and shall take other action as may be necessary to implement the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement, as described in part 75 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 78615, Dec. 23, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.139.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.19   Submission to Commission of tritium reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a)-(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, each person who, pursuant to an Agreement State license, is authorized to possess tritium shall report promptly to the appropriate NRC Regional Office as shown in appendix D of part 20 of this chapter by telephone and telegraph, mailgram, or facsimile any incident in which an attempt has been made or is believed to have been made to commit a theft or unlawful diversion of more than 10 curies of such material at any one time or 100 curies of such material in any one calendar year. The initial report must be followed within a period of fifteen days by a written report that sets forth the details of the incident and its consequences. The report must be submitted to the Director, Office of Nuclear material Safety and Safeguards, using an appropriate method listed in § 150.4, with a copy to the appropriate NRC Regional Office as shown in appendix A to part 73 of this chapter. Subsequent to the submission of the written report required by this paragraph, each person subject to the provisions of this paragraph shall promptly inform the appropriate NRC Regional Office by means of a written report of any substantive additional information, which becomes available to such person, concerning an attempted or apparent theft or unlawful diversion of tritium.
</P>
<P>(d) The reports described in this section are not required for tritium possessed pursuant to a general license issued pursuant to regulations of an Agreement State equivalent to part 31 of this chapter or for tritium in spent fuel. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 9208, May 6, 1972, as amended at 41 FR 16448, Apr. 19, 1976; 46 FR 55085, Nov. 6, 1981; 49 FR 24708, June 15, 1984; 52 FR 31613, Aug. 21, 1987; 68 FR 58825, Oct. 10, 2003; 73 FR 5727, Jan. 31, 2008; 79 FR 75742, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="140" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.140" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Reciprocity</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.140.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.20   Recognition of Agreement State licenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Provided that the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section have been met, any person who holds a specific license from an Agreement State, where the licensee maintains an office for directing the licensed activity and retaining radiation safety records, is granted a general license to conduct the same activity in—
</P>
<P>(i) Non-Agreement States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Areas of Exclusive Federal jurisdiction within Agreement States; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Offshore waters.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply if the specific Agreement State license limits the authorized activity to a specific installation or location.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in any specific license issued by an Agreement State to a person engaging in activities in a non-Agreement State, in an area of exclusive Federal jurisdiction within an Agreement State, or in offshore waters under the general licenses provided in this section, the general licenses provided in this section are subject to all the provisions of the Act, now or hereafter in effect, and to all applicable rules, regulations, and orders of the Commission including the provisions of §§ 30.7(a) through (f), 30.9, 30.10, 30.34, 30.41, and 30.51 through 30.63 of this chapter; §§ 40.7(a) through (f), 40.9, 40.10, 40.41, 40.51, 40.61 through 40.63, 40.71, and 40.81 of this chapter; §§ 70.7(a) through (f), 70.9, 70.10, 70.32, 70.42, 70.52, 70.55, 70.56, 70.60 through 70.62 of this chapter; §§ 74.11, 74.15, and 74.19 of this chapter; and to the provisions of 10 CFR parts 19, 20 and 71 and subparts C through H of part 34, §§ 39.15 and 39.31 through 39.77 of this chapter. In addition, any person engaging in activities in non-Agreement States, in areas of exclusive Federal jurisdiction within Agreement States, or in offshore waters under the general licenses provided in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall, at least 3 days before engaging in each activity for the first time in a calendar year, file a submittal containing an NRC Form 241, “Report of Proposed Activities in Non-Agreement States,” a copy of its Agreement State specific license, and the appropriate fee as prescribed in § 170.31 of this chapter with the Regional Administrator of the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regional Office listed on the NRC Form 241 and in appendix D to part 20 of this chapter for the Region in which the Agreement State that issued the license is located. If a submittal cannot be filed 3 days before engaging in activities under reciprocity, because of an emergency or other reason, the Regional Administrator may waive the 3-day time requirement provided the licensee:
</P>
<P>(i) Informs the Region by telephone, facsimile, an NRC Form 241, or a letter of initial activities or revisions to the information submitted on the initial NRC Form 241;
</P>
<P>(ii) Receives oral or written authorization for the activity from the region; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 3 days after the notification, files an NRC Form 241, a copy of the Agreement State license, and the fee payment. 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall file an amended NRC Form 241 or letter with the Regional Administrator to request approval for changes in work locations, radioactive material, or work activities different from the information contained on the initial NRC Form 241. 
</P>
<P>(3) Shall not, in any non-Agreement State, in an area of exclusive Federal jurisdiction within an Agreement State, or in offshore waters, transfer or dispose of radioactive material possessed or used under the general licenses provided in this section, except by transfer to a person who is specifically licensed by the Commission to receive this material.
</P>
<P>(4) Shall not, under the general license concerning activities in non-Agreement States or in areas of exclusive Federal jurisdiction within Agreement States, possess or use radioactive materials, or engage in the activities authorized in paragraph (a) of this section, for more than 180 days in any calendar year, except that the general license in paragraph (a) of this section concerning activities in offshore waters authorizes that person to possess or use radioactive materials, or engage in the activities authorized, for an unlimited period of time.
</P>
<P>(5) Shall comply with all terms and conditions of the specific license issued by an Agreement State except such terms or conditions as are contrary to the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 7725, May 20, 1970]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 150.20, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.140.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.21   Transportation of special nuclear material by aircraft.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically approved by the Commission no shipment of special nuclear material in excess of 20 grams or 20 curies whichever is less of plutonium or uranium-233 shall be made by a licensee of an Agreement State in passenger aircraft. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 3039, Feb. 1, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="141" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.141" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.30" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.141.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.30   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Commission may obtain an injunction or other court order to prevent a violation of the provisions of—
</P>
<P>(1) The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Title II of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A regulation or order issued pursuant to those Acts.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may obtain a court order for the payment of a civil penalty imposed under section 234 of the Atomic Energy Act:
</P>
<P>(1) For violations of—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 53, 57, 62, 63, 81, 82, 101, 103, 104, 107, or 109 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 206 of the Energy Reorganization Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued under the sections specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For any violation for which a license may be revoked under section 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55081, Nov. 24, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.141.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.31   Requirements for Agreement State regulation of byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to November 8, 1981, in the licensing and regulation of byproduct material, as defined in § 150.3(c)(2) of this part, or of any activity which results in the production of such byproduct material, an Agreement State shall require compliance with the requirements in appendix A of 10 CFR part 40 of this chapter to the maximum extent practicable.
</P>
<P>(b) After November 8, 1981, in the licensing and regulation of byproduct material, as defined in § 150.3(c)(2) of this part, or of any activity which results in the production of such byproduct material, an Agreement State shall require:
</P>
<P>(1) Compliance with requirements in appendix A of 10 CFR part 40 of this chapter established by the Commission pertaining to ownership of such byproduct material and disposal sites for such material; and
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance with standards which shall be adopted by the Agreement State for the protection of the public health, safety, and the environment from hazards associated with such material which are equivalent, to the extent practicable, or more stringent than, standards in appendix A of 10 CFR part 40 of this chapter adopted and enforced by the Commission for the same purposes, including requirements and standards subsequently promulgated by the Commission and the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency pursuant to the Uranium Mill Tailing Radiation Control Act of 1978; and
</P>
<P>(3) Compliance with procedures which:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of licenses, under State law include:
</P>
<P>(A) An opportunity, after public notice, for written comments and a public hearing, with a transcript;
</P>
<P>(B) An opportunity for cross examination; and
</P>
<P>(C) A written determination by the appropriate State official which is based upon findings included in such determination and upon the evidence presented during the public comment period and which is subject to judicial review;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of rulemaking, provide an opportunity for public participation through written comments or a public hearing and provide for judicial review of the rule;
</P>
<P>(iii) Require for each licensing action which has a significant impact on the human environment a written analysis by the appropriate State agency (which shall be available to the public before the commencement of any such proceedings) of the impact of such licensing action, including any activities conducted pursuant thereto, on the environment. Such analysis shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) An assessment of the radiological and nonradiological impacts to the public health of the activities to be conducted pursuant to such licenses;
</P>
<P>(B) An assessment of any impact on any waterway and groundwater resulting from such activities;
</P>
<P>(C) Consideration of alternatives, including alternative sites and engineering methods, to the activities to be conducted pursuant to such license; and
</P>
<P>(D) Consideration of the long term impacts, including decommissioning, decontamination, and reclamation impacts associated with activities to be conducted pursuant to such license, including the management of any byproduct material, as defined in § 150.3(c)(2) of this part; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Prohibit commencement of construction with respect to such material prior to complying with the provisions of paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section. As used in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(A) The term <I>commencement of construction</I> means taking any action defined as “construction” or any other activity at the site of a facility subject to the regulations in this part that has a reasonable nexus to radiological health and safety.
</P>
<P>(B) The term <I>construction</I> means the installation of foundations, or in-place assembly, erection, fabrication, or testing for any structure, system, or component of a facility or activity subject to the regulations in this part that have a reasonable nexus to radiological safety or security. The term “construction” does not include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Changes for temporary use of the land for public recreational purposes;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Site exploration, including necessary borings to determine foundation conditions or other preconstruction monitoring to establish background information related to the suitability of the site, the environmental impacts of construction or operation, or the protection of environmental values;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Preparation of the site for construction of the facility, including clearing of the site, grading, installation of drainage, erosion and other environmental mitigation measures, and construction of temporary roads and borrow areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Erection of fences and other access control measures that are not related to the safe use of or security of radiological materials subject to this part;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Excavation;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Erection of support buildings (e.g., construction equipment storage sheds, warehouse and shop facilities, utilities, concrete mixing plants, docking and unloading facilities, and office buildings) for use in connection with the construction of the facility;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Building of service facilities (e.g., paved roads, parking lots, railroad spurs, exterior utility and lighting systems, potable water systems, sanitary sewerage treatment facilities, and transmission lines);
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Procurement or fabrication of components or portions of the proposed facility occurring at other than the final, in-place location at the facility; or
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Taking any other action which has no reasonable nexus to radiological health and safety.
</P>
<P>(c) No Agreement State shall be required under paragraph (b) to conduct proceedings concerning any license or regulation which would duplicate proceedings conducted by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) In adopting requirements pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the State may adopt alternatives (including, where appropriate, site-specific alternatives) to the requirements adopted and enforced by the Commission for the same purpose if, after notice and opportunity for public hearing, the Commission determines that the alternatives will achieve a level of stabilization and containment of the sites concerned, and a level of protection for public health, safety and the environment from radiological and nonradiological hazards associated with the sites, which is equivalent to, to the extent practicable, or more stringent than the level which would be achieved by standards and requirements adopted and enforced by the Commission for the same purpose and any final standards promulgated by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency in accordance with section 275. Alternative State requirements may take into account local or regional conditions, including geology, topography, hydrology and meteorology. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65537, Oct. 3, 1980; 50 FR 41866, Oct. 16, 1985, as amended at 76 FR 56966, Sept. 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.141.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.32   Funds for reclamation or maintenance of byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The total amount of funds an Agreement State collects, pursuant to a license for byproduct material as defined in § 150.3(c)(2) of this part or for any activity that results in the production of such material, for reclamation or long term maintenance and monitoring of such material, shall after November 8, 1981, be transferred to the United States if title and custody of such material and its disposal site is transferred to the United States upon termination of such license. Such funds include, but are not limited to, sums collected for long term surveillance (<I>i.e.</I>, continued site observation, monitoring and, where necessary, maintenance). Such funds do not however, include monies held as surety where no default has occurred and the reclamation or other bonded activity has been performed.
</P>
<P>(b) If an Agreement State requires such payments for reclamation or long term surveillance (<I>i.e.</I>, continued site observation, monitoring and, where necessary, maintenance), the payments must, after November 8, 1981, be sufficient to ensure compliance with those standards established by the Commission pertaining to bonds, sureties, and financial arrangements to ensure adequate reclamation and long term management of such byproduct material and its disposal site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 65537, Oct. 3, 1980; 48 FR 40882, Sept. 12, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.22.0.141.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.33   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, provides for criminal sanctions for willful violation of, attempted violation of, or conspiracy to violate, any regulation issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o of the Act. For purposes of section 223, all the regulations in part 150 are issued under one or more of sections 161b, 161i, or 161o, except for sections listed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in part 150 that are not issued under sections 161b, 161i, or 161o for the purposes of section 223 are as follows: §§ 150.1, 150.2, 150.3, 150.4, 150.5, 150.7, 150.8, 150.10, 150.11, 150.15, 150.15a, 150.30, 150.31, 150.32, and 150.33.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 55081, Nov. 24, 1992] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="160" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 160—TRESPASSING ON COMMISSION PROPERTY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 161, 223, 229, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 2273, 2278a, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>28 FR 8400, Aug. 16, 1963, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 160.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23.0.142.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are issued for the protection and security of facilities, installations and real property subject to the proprietory jurisdiction or administration, or in the custody of, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The regulations in this part shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this part and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this part accordingly.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 8400, Aug. 16, 1963, as amended at 40 FR 8794, Mar. 3, 1975; 90 FR 55634, Dec. 3, 2025] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23.0.142.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to all facilities, installations, and real property subject to the jurisdiction or administration of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or in its custody which have been posted with a notice of the prohibitions and penalties set forth in this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 8794, Mar. 3, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23.0.142.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.3   Trespass.</HEAD>
<P>Unauthorized entry upon any facility, installation or real property subject to this part is prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23.0.142.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.4   Unauthorized introduction of weapons or dangerous materials.</HEAD>
<P>Unauthorized carrying, transporting, or otherwise introducing or causing to be introduced any dangerous weapon, explosive, or other dangerous instrument or material likely to produce substantial injury or damage to persons or property, into or upon any facility, installation or real property subject to this part, is prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23.0.142.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.5   Violations and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whoever willfully violates either §§ 160.3 or 160.4 shall, upon conviction, be punishable by a fine of not more than $1,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whoever willfully violates either §§ 160.3 or 160.4 with respect to any facility, installation or real property enclosed by a fence, wall, floor, roof, or other structural barrier shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, shall be punished by a fine of not to exceed $5,000 or imprisonment for not more than one year, or both. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.6" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23.0.142.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.6   Posting.</HEAD>
<P>Notices stating the pertinent prohibitions of §§ 160.3 and 160.4 and penalties of § 160.5 will be conspicuously posted at all entrances of each designated facility, installation or parcel of real property and at such intervals along the perimeter as will provide reasonable assurance of notice to persons about to enter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23.0.142.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.7   Effective date of prohibition on designated locations.</HEAD>
<P>The prohibitions in §§ 160.3 and 160.4 shall take effect as to any facility, installation or real property on publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the notice designating the facility, installation or real property and posting in accordance with § 160.6. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.23.0.142.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.8   Applicability of other laws.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to affect the applicability of the provisions of State or other Federal laws.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="170" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 170—FEES FOR FACILITIES, MATERIALS, IMPORT AND EXPORT LICENSES, AND OTHER REGULATORY SERVICES UNDER THE ATOMIC ENERGY ACT OF 1954, AS AMENDED 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 161(w) (42

U.S.C. 2014, 2201(w)); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 42 U.S.C. 2215; 31 U.S.C. 901, 902, 9701; 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>33 FR 10924, Aug. 1, 1968; 33 FR 11587, Aug. 15, 1968, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="142" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part set out fees charged for licensing services, inspection services, and special projects rendered by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission as authorized under title V of the Independent Offices Appropriation Act, 1952 (31 U.S.C. 9701(a)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32170, June 16, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.2" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Except for persons who apply for or hold the permits, licenses, or approvals exempted in § 170.11, the regulations in this part apply to a person who is:
</P>
<P>(a) An applicant for or holder of a specific byproduct material license issued pursuant to parts 30 and 32 through 36 and 39 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant for or holder of a specific source material license issued pursuant to part 40 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for or holder of a specific special nuclear material license issued pursuant to part 70 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(d) An applicant for or holder of specific approval of spent fuel casks and shipping containers issued pursuant to part 71 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(e) An applicant for or holder of a specific license to possess power reactor spent fuel and other radioactive materials associated with spent fuel storage in an independent spent fuel storage installation issued pursuant to part 72 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(f) An applicant for or holder of a specific approval of sealed sources and devices containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(g) An applicant for or holder of a production or utilization facility construction permit or operating license issued under 10 CFR part 50, or an early site permit, standard design certification, standard design approval, manufacturing license, or combined license issued under 10 CFR part 52;
</P>
<P>(h) Required to have examinations and tests performed to qualify or requalify individuals as part 55 reactor operators;
</P>
<P>(i) Required to have routine and non-routine safety and safeguards inspections of activities licensed pursuant to the requirements of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(j) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(k) Applying for or already has applied for review, under appendix Q to 10 CFR part 50 of a facility site before the submission of an application for a construction permit;
</P>
<P>(l) Applying for or already has applied for review of a standardized spent fuel facility design; or
</P>
<P>(m) Applying for or has applied for since March 23, 1978, review of an item under the category of special projects in this chapter that the Commission completes or makes whether or not in conjunction with a license application on file or that may be filed.
</P>
<P>(n) An applicant for or holder of a license, approval, determination, or other authorization issued by the Commission pursuant to 10 CFR part 61.
</P>
<P>(o) Requesting preapplication/licensing review assistance by consulting with the NRC and/or by filing preliminary analyses, documents, or reports. 
</P>
<P>(p) An applicant for or a holder of a specific import or export license issued pursuant to 10 CFR part 110. 
</P>
<P>(q) An Agreement State licensee who files for or is holder of a general license under the reciprocity provisions of 10 CFR 150.20. 
</P>
<P>(r) An applicant for or a holder of a certificate of compliance issued under 10 CFR Part 76.
</P>
<P>(s) A holder of a general license granted by 10 CFR Part 31 who is required to register a device(s).
</P>
<P>(t) An owner or operator of an unlicensed site in decommissioning being conducted under NRC oversight.
</P>
<P>(u) Submitting a Touhy request, pursuant to 10 CFR 9.200 through 9.204, as defined in § 170.3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 21301, May 21, 1984, as amended at 52 FR 8242, Mar. 17, 1987; 54 FR 15399, Apr. 18, 1989; 56 FR 31499, July 10, 1991; 58 FR 7737, Feb. 9, 1993; 64 FR 31469, June 10, 1999; 66 FR 32469, June 14, 2001; 70 FR 30543, May 26, 2005; 72 FR 49565, Aug. 28, 2007; 81 FR 41186, June 24, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="16">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36495, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919) including any amendments thereto; 
</P>
<P><I>Advanced nuclear reactor applicant</I> means an entity that has submitted to the Commission a “qualifying application,” as defined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced nuclear reactor pre-applicant</I> means an entity that has submitted to the Commission a licensing project plan for the purposes of submitting a future “qualifying application,” as defined in this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Agency support (corporate support and the IG)</I> means resources located in executive, administrative, and other support offices such as the Office of the Commission, the Office of the Secretary, the Office of the Executive Director for Operations, the Offices of Congressional and Public Affairs, the Office of the Inspector General, the Office of Administration, the Office of the Chief Financial Officer, the Office of the Chief Information Officer, the Office of the Chief Human Capital Officer and the Office of Small Business and Civil Rights. These resources administer the corporate or shared efforts that more broadly support the activities of the agency. These resources also include information technology services, human capital services, financial management, and administrative support.
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means any State with which the Commission or the Atomic Energy Commission has entered into an effective agreement under subsection 274b of the Act. “Nonagreement State” means any other State. 
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means any request filed with the Commission for a permit, license, approval, exemption, certificate, other permission, or for any other service.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Government. 
</P>
<P><I>Greater Than Class C Waste</I> or <I>GTCC Waste</I> means low-level radioactive waste that exceeds the concentration limits of radionuclides established for Class C waste in 10 CFR 61.55. 
</P>
<P><I>High Enriched Uranium</I> means uranium enriched to 20 percent or greater in the isotope uranium-235. 
</P>
<P><I>Human use</I> means the internal or external administration of byproduct, source, or special nuclear material, or the radiation therefrom, to human beings. 
</P>
<P><I>Inspections</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Routine inspections designed to evaluate the licensee's activities within the context of the licensee having primary responsibility for protection of the public and environment;
</P>
<P>(2) Non-routine inspections in response or reaction to an incident, allegation, follow up to inspection deficiencies or inspections to determine implementation of safety issues. A non-routine or reactive inspection has the same purpose as the routine inspection;
</P>
<P>(3) Reviews and assessments of licensee performance;
</P>
<P>(4) Evaluations, such as those performed by Diagnostic Evaluation Teams; or
</P>
<P>(5) Incident investigations.
</P>
<P><I>Low Enriched Uranium</I> means uranium enriched below 20 percent in the isotope uranium-235.


</P>
<P><I>Manufacturing license</I> means a license under subpart F of part 52 of this chapter or subpart H of part 53 of this chapter to manufacture a nuclear power reactor(s) to be operated at sites not identified in the license application.
</P>
<P><I>Materials license</I> means a license, certificate, approval, registration, or other form of permission issued or granted by the NRC under the regulations in 10 CFR parts 30, 31 through 36, 39, 40, 61, 70, 72, and 76. 
</P>
<P><I>Mission-direct program salaries and benefits</I> means resources that are allocated to perform core work activities committed to fulfilling the agency's mission of protecting the public health and safety, promoting the common defense and security, and protecting the environment. These resources include the core work activities assigned within the major program business lines (Operating Reactors, New Reactors, Fuel Facilities, Nuclear Materials Users, Decommissioning and Low-Level Waste, and Spent Fuel Storage and Transportation).
</P>
<P><I>Mission-indirect program support</I> means resources that support the core mission-direct activities. These resources include supervisory and nonsupervisory support and mission travel and training. Supervisory and nonsupervisory support and mission travel and training resources assigned under direct business line structure are considered mission-indirect due to their supporting role of the core mission activities.
</P>
<P><I>Non-power production or utilization facility</I> means a production or utilization facility licensed under 10 CFR 50.21(a) or (c), or 10 CFR 50.22, as applicable, that is not a nuclear power reactor or production facility as defined under paragraphs (1) and (2) of the definition of “production facility” in 10 CFR 50.2.
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit educational institution</I> means a public or nonprofit educational institution whose primary function is education, whose programs are accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association, who is legally authorized to provide a program of organized instruction or study, who provides an educational program for which it awards academic degrees, and whose educational programs are available to the public.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means an apparatus, other than an atomic weapon, designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-supporting chain reaction. 
</P>
<P><I>Other production or utilization facility</I> means a facility other than a nuclear reactor licensed by the Commission under the authority of section 103 or 104 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and pursuant to the provisions of part 50 of this chapter. 


</P>
<P><I>Part 55 Reviews</I> as used in this part means those services provided by the Commission to administer requalification and replacement examinations and tests for reactor operators licensed under 10 CFR part 55 or part 53 of the Commission's regulations and employed by part 50 or part 53 licensees. These services also include related items such as the preparation, review, and grading of the examinations and tests.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> as used in this part has the same meaning as found in parts 30, 40, 50, and 70 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations.


</P>
<P><I>Power reactor</I> means a nuclear reactor designed to produce electrical or heat energy licensed by the Commission under the authority of section 103 or subsection 104b of the Act, and under the provisions of § 50.21(b), § 50.22, or part 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Production facility</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any nuclear reactor designed or used primarily for the formation of plutonium or uranium-233; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any facility designed or used for the separation of the isotopes of plutonium, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any facility designed or used for the processing of irradiated materials containing special nuclear material except: 
</P>
<P>(i) Laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilities in which the only special nuclear materials contained in the irradiated material to be processed are uranium enriched in the isotope U
<SU>235</SU> and plutonium produced by the irradiation, if the material processed contains not more than 10<E T="51">−6</E> grams of plutonium per gram of U
<SU>235</SU> and has fission product activity not in excess of 0.25 millicurie of fission products per gram of U
<SU>235</SU>; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Facilities in which processing is conducted pursuant to a license issued under parts 30 and 70 of this chapter, or equivalent regulations of an Agreement State, for the receipt, possession, use, and transfer of irradiated special nuclear material, which authorizes the processing of the irradiated material on a batch basis for the separation of selected fission products and limits the process batch to not more than 100 grams of uranium enriched in the isotope 235 and not more than 15 grams of any other special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying application</I> means an application that:
</P>
<P>(1) is for an advanced nuclear reactor as defined in section 3 of the Nuclear Energy Innovation and Modernization Act (42 U.S.C. 2215 note); and
</P>
<P>(2) is for an operating license, combined license, manufacturing license, construction permit, early site permit, limited work authorization, design certification, or standard design approval.
</P>
<P><I>Research reactor</I> means a non-power production or utilization facility, as defined in 10 CFR 50.2, that is a nuclear reactor licensed under 10 CFR 50.21(c):
</P>
<P>(i) For which a safety assessment demonstrates accident radiation doses consistent with 10 CFR 50.34(a)(1)(i); and
</P>
<P>(ii) That is not a testing facility.


</P>
<P><I>Sealed source</I> means any byproduct material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the byproduct material. 
</P>
<P><I>Small modular reactor (SMR)</I> for the purposes of calculating fees, means the class of power reactors having a licensed thermal power rating less than or equal to 1,000 MWt per module. This rating is based on the thermal power equivalent of an SMR with an electrical power generating capacity of 300 MWe or less per module.
</P>
<P><I>Small modular reactor site (SMR site)</I> is the geographically bounded location of one or more SMRs and a basis on which SMR fees are calculated.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium or thorium, or any combination thereof, in any physical or chemical form; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Ores which contain by weight one-twentieth of one percent (0.05%) or more of
</P>
<P>(i) Uranium, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Thorium, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any combination thereof. Source material does not include special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Act, determines to be special nuclear material but does not include source material; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, but does not include source material. 


</P>
<P><I>Special projects</I> means specific services provided by the Commission for which fees are not otherwise specified in this chapter. This includes, but is not limited to, contested hearings on licensing actions directly related to U.S. Government national security initiatives (as determined by the NRC), topical report reviews, early site reviews, waste solidification activities, activities related to the tracking and monitoring of shipment of classified matter, services provided to certify licensee, vendor, or other private industry personnel as instructors for 10 CFR part 55 or part 53 reactor operators, reviews of financial assurance submittals that do not require a license amendment, reviews of responses to Confirmatory Action Letters, reviews of uranium recovery licensees' land-use survey reports, and reviews of § 50.71 or § 53.1545 of this chapter Final Safety Analysis Reports. Special projects does not include activities otherwise exempt from fees under this part. It also does not include those contested hearings for which a fee exemption is granted in § 170.11(a)(2), including those related to individual plant security modifications.
</P>
<P><I>Testing facility</I> is defined at 10 CFR 50.2.


</P>
<P><I>Touhy request</I> means a request for NRC records or NRC testimony that is made pursuant to the NRC's regulations at 10 CFR 9.200 through 9.204.
</P>
<P><I>Uranium enrichment facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any facility used for separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235, except laboratory scale facilities designed or used for experimental or analytical purposes only; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device, or important component part especially designed for this equipment or device, capable of separating the isotopes of uranium or enriching uranium in the isotope 235.
</P>
<P><I>Utilization</I> facility means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any nuclear reactor other than one designed or used primarily for the formation of plutonium or U-233; or
</P>
<P>(2) An accelerator-driven subcritical operating assembly used for the irradiation of materials containing special nuclear material and described in the application assigned docket number 50-608.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 10924, Aug. 1, 1968]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 170.3, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.4" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.4   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by an officer or employee of the Commission other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 10924, Aug. 1, 1968; 33 FR 11587, Aug. 15, 1968, as amended at 90 FR 55634, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>All communications concerning the regulations in this part should be addressed to the NRC's Chief Financial Officer, either by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58825, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62686, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74982, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval</HEAD>
<P>This part contains no information collection requirements and therefore is not subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52191, Oct. 6, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.11   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="17">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36496, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) No application fees, license fees, renewal fees, inspection fees, or special project fees shall be required for: 
</P>
<P>(1) A special project that is a request/report submitted to the NRC—
</P>
<P>(i) In response to a generic letter or NRC bulletin, where the request/report does not result in an amendment to the license, does not result in the review of an alternate method or reanalysis to meet the requirements of the generic letter, or does not involve an unreviewed safety issue;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the NRC, at the time the request/report is submitted, plans to use the information to assist the NRC in generic regulatory improvements or efforts (e.g., rules, regulatory guides, regulations, policy statements, generic letters, or bulletins); or
</P>
<P>(iii) When the NRC, at the time the request/report is submitted, plans to use the information in response to an NRC request from the Office Director level or above to resolve an identified safety, safeguards, or environmental issue.
</P>
<P>(2) A contested hearing conducted by the NRC on a specific application or the authorizations and conditions of a specific NRC license, certificate, or other authorization, including those involving individual plant security modifications. This exemption does not apply to a contested hearing on a licensing action that the NRC determines directly involves a U.S. Government national security-related initiative, including those specifically associated with Presidentially-directed national security programs. 
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) A construction permit or license applied for by, or issued to, a non-profit educational institution for a production or utilization facility, other than a power reactor, or for the possession and use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material. This exemption does not apply to those byproduct, source or special nuclear material licenses which authorize:
</P>
<P>(i) Human use;
</P>
<P>(ii) Remunerated services to other persons;
</P>
<P>(iii) Distribution of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material or products containing byproduct material, source material or special nuclear material; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Activities performed under a Government agency contract.
</P>
<P>(5)-(8) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(9) Federally-owned and State-owned research reactors used primarily for educational training and academic research purposes. For purposes of this exemption, the term research reactor means a nuclear reactor that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is licensed by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under section 104c. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2134(c)) at a thermal power level of 10 megawatts or less; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If so licensed at a thermal power level of more than 1 megawatt, does not contain— 
</P>
<P>(A) A circulating loop through the core in which the licensee conducts fuel experiments; 
</P>
<P>(B) A liquid fuel loading; or 
</P>
<P>(C) An experimental facility in the core in excess of 16 square inches in cross-section. 
</P>
<P>(10) Activities of the Commission undertaken, pursuant to part 75 of this chapter, solely for the purpose of implementation of the US/IAEA Safeguards Agreement. 
</P>
<P>(11) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(12) A performance assessment or evaluation for which the licensee volunteers at the NRC's request and which is selected by the NRC.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may, upon application by an interested person, or upon its own initiative, grant such exemptions from the requirements of this part as it determines are authorized by law and are otherwise in the public interest. Applications for exemption under this paragraph may include activities such as, but not limited to, the use of licensed materials for educational or noncommercial public displays or scientific collections.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a request for a fee exemption must be submitted to the Chief Financial Officer within 90 days of the date of the NRC's receipt of the request/report.
</P>
<P>(d) All fee exemption requests must be submitted in writing to the Chief Financial Officer in accordance with § 170.5, and the Chief Financial Officer will grant or deny such requests in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 10924, Aug. 1, 1968]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 170.11, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.12" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.12   Payment of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application and registration fees.</I> Each application or registration for which a fee is prescribed must be accompanied by a remittance for the full amount of the fee. The NRC will not issue a new license or an amendment increasing the scope of an existing license to a higher fee category before receiving the prescribed application fee. The application or registration fee(s) is charged whether the Commission approves the application or not. The application or registration fee(s) is also charged if the applicant withdraws the application or registration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing fees.</I> (1) Licensing fees will be assessed to recover full costs for—
</P>
<P>(i) The review of applications for new licenses and approvals;
</P>
<P>(ii) The review of applications for amendments to and renewal of existing licenses or approvals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Preapplication consultations and reviews; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The full cost for project managers assigned to a specific plant or facility, excluding leave time and time spent on generic activities (such as rulemaking).
</P>
<P>(2) Full cost fees will be determined based on the professional staff time and appropriate contractual support services expended. The full cost fees for professional staff time will be determined at the professional hourly rates in effect the time the service was provided. The full cost fees are payable upon notification by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC intends to bill each applicant or licensee at quarterly intervals for all accumulated costs for each application the applicant or licensee has on file for NRC review, until the review has been brought to an end, whether by issuance of a permit, license, approval, certificate, exemption, or other form of permission; by denial, withdrawal, or suspension of review of the application; or by postponement of action on the application by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) The NRC intends to bill each applicant or licensee for costs related to project manager time on a quarterly basis. Each bill will identify the costs related to project manager time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inspection fees.</I> (1) Inspection fees will be assessed to recover full cost for each resident inspector (including the senior resident inspector), assigned to a specific plant or facility. The fees assessed will be based on the number of hours that each inspector assigned to the plant or facility is in an official duty status (<I>i.e.,</I> all time in a non-leave status), excluding time spent by a resident inspector in support of activities at another site. The hours will be billed at the appropriate hourly rate established in 10 CFR 170.20. Resident inspectors' time related to a specific inspection will be included in the fee assessed for the specific inspection in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Inspection fees will be assessed to recover the full cost for each specific inspection, including plant- or licensee-specific performance reviews and assessments, evaluations, and incident investigations. For inspections that result in the issuance of an inspection report, fees will be assessed for costs incurred up to approximately 30 days after the inspection report is issued. The costs for these inspections include preparation time, time on site, documentation time, and follow-up activities and any associated contractual service costs, but exclude the time involved in the processing and issuance of a notice of violation or civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(3) The NRC intends to bill for resident inspectors' time and for specific inspections subject to full cost recovery on a quarterly basis. The fees are payable upon notification by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special project fees.</I> (1) All special projects performed by the Commission, unless otherwise exempt from fees or for which fees are otherwise specified in this part, will be assessed fees to recover the full cost of the service provided. Special projects means specific services provided by the Commission, including but not limited to—
</P>
<P>(i) Topical reports;
</P>
<P>(ii) Financial assurance submittals that do not require a license amendment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Responses to Confirmatory Action Letters;
</P>
<P>(iv) Uranium recovery licensees' land-use survey reports;
</P>
<P>(v) 10 CFR 50.71 or 53.1545 Final Safety Analysis Reports;
</P>
<P>(vi) Contested hearings on licensing actions directly involving U.S Government national security initiatives, as determined by the NRC; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Responses to Touhy requests that require the NRC staff to expend more than 50 hours of official time. Fees for Touhy requests will be billed at the appropriate hourly rate established in § 170.20.
</P>
<P>(2) The NRC intends to bill each applicant or licensee at quarterly intervals until the special project is completed. Each bill will identify the special project, including any documents submitted for review or the specific contested hearing, and the related costs. The fees are payable upon notification by the Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Part 55 review fees.</I> Fees for part 55 review services are based on NRC time spent in administering the examinations and tests and any related contractual costs. The fees assessed will also include related activities such as preparing, reviewing, and grading of the examinations and tests. The NRC intends to bill the costs at quarterly intervals to the licensee employing the operators.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Method of payment.</I> All fee payments under this part are to be made payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The payments are to be made in U.S. funds using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I> Specific instructions for making payments may be obtained by contacting the Office of the Chief Financial Officer at 301-415-7554. In accordance with Department of the Treasury requirements, refunds will only be made upon receipt of information on the payee's financial institution and bank accounts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Collection of underpayment of fees.</I> The NRC is entitled to collect any underpayment of fees as a result of an error by the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 31469, June 10, 1999, as amended at 65 FR 11204, Mar. 2, 2000; 65 FR 36959, June 12, 2000; 66 FR 32469, June 14, 2001; 67 FR 64037, Oct. 17, 2002; 72 FR 31420, June 6, 2007; 79 FR 37144, June 30, 2014; 81 FR 41186, June 24, 2016; 87 FR 37214, June 22, 2022; 88 FR 39140, June 15, 2023; 89 FR 51811, June 20, 2024; 91 FR 15879, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.20" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.142.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.20   Average cost per professional staff-hour.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="18">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36496, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, fees for permits, licenses, amendments, renewals, special projects, 10 CFR part 55 re-qualification and replacement examinations and tests, other required reviews, approvals, and inspections under §§ 170.21 and 170.31 will be calculated using the professional staff-hour rate of $318 per hour.
</P>
<P>(b) For advanced nuclear reactor applicants:
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to October 1, 2025, fees under § 170.21 will be calculated using the professional staff-hour rate of $318 per hour.
</P>
<P>(2) Effective on October 1, 2025, fees under § 170.21 relating to the review of the submitted application for the advanced nuclear reactor applicant will be calculated using the reduced hourly rate of $148 per hour.
</P>
<P>(c) For advanced nuclear reactor pre-applicants:
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to October 1, 2025, fees under § 170.21 will be calculated using the professional staff-hour rate of $318 per hour.
</P>
<P>(2) Effective on October 1, 2025, fees under § 170.21 relating to the review of submitted materials as described in the licensing project plan will be calculated using the reduced hourly rate of $148 per hour.
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (c) of this section shall cease to be effective on September 30, 2030.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 26753, June 24, 2025]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="143" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.143" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Schedule of Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.143.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.21   Schedule of fees for production and utilization facilities, review of standard referenced design approvals, special projects, inspections and import and export licenses.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="19">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36496, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Applicants for construction permits, manufacturing licenses, operating licenses, import and export licenses, approvals of facility standard reference designs, re-qualification and replacement examinations for reactor operators, and special projects and holders of construction permits, licenses, and other approvals shall pay fees for the following categories of services: 

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 170.21—Schedule of Facility Fees
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[See footnotes at end of table]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Facility categories and type of fees
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fees 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A. Nuclear Power Reactors:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Application for Construction Permit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Early Site Permit, Construction Permit, Combined License, Operating License</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Amendment, Renewal, Dismantling-Decommissioning and Termination, Other Approvals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inspections 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B. Standard Reference Design Review:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Standard Design Approvals, Certification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Amendment, Renewal, Other Approvals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C. Test Facility/Research Reactor/Critical Facility:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Application for Construction Permit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Construction Permit, Operating License</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Amendment, Renewal, Dismantling-Decommissioning and Termination, Other Approvals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inspections 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D. Manufacturing License:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Application for Construction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Standard Design Approval</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Amendment, Renewal, Other Approvals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inspections 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E. [Reserved]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F. [Reserved]
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">G. Other Production or Utilization Facility:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Application for Construction Permit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Construction Permit, Operating License</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Amendment, Renewal, Other Approvals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inspections 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H. Production or Utilization Facility Permanently Closed Down:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inspections 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I. Part 55 Reviews:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Requalification and Replacement Examinations for Reactors Operators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">J. Special Projects:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Approvals and preapplication/licensing activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inspections 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Contested hearings on licensing actions directly related to U.S. Government national security initiatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Touhy requests 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K. Import and export licenses: 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Licenses for the import and export only of production or utilization facilities or the export only of components for production or utilization facilities issued under 10 CFR part 110
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1. Application for import or export of production or utilization facilities 
<sup>4</sup> (including reactors and other facilities) and exports of components requiring Commission and Executive Branch review, for example, actions under 10 CFR 110.40(b)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2. Application for export of reactor and other components requiring Executive Branch review, for example, those actions under 10 CFR 110.41(a).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3. Application for export of components requiring the assistance of the Executive Branch to obtain foreign government assurances
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4. Application for export of facility components and equipment not requiring Commission or Executive Branch review, or obtaining foreign government assurances
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">5. Minor amendment of any active export or import license, for example, to extend the expiration date, change domestic information, or make other revisions which do not involve any substantive changes to license terms or conditions or to the type of facility or component authorized for export and, therefore, do not require in-depth analysis or review or consultation with the Executive Branch, U.S. host state, or foreign government authorities
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Minor amendment to license</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Fees will be charged for approvals issued under a specific exemption provision of the Commission's regulations under title 10 of the <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E> (e.g., 10 CFR 50.12, 10 CFR 53.080, 10 CFR 73.5) and any other sections in effect now or in the future, regardless of whether the approval is in the form of a license amendment, letter of approval, safety evaluation report, or other form.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Full cost fees will be determined based on the professional staff time and appropriate contractual support services expended. For applications currently on file and for which fees are determined based on the full cost expended for the review, the professional staff hours expended for the review of the application up to August 25, 2025, will be determined at the professional hourly rate in effect when the service was provided. Effective October 1, 2025, the “full cost fees” described in the table for advanced nuclear reactor applicants and advanced nuclear reactor pre-applicants will be assessed consistent with § 170.20(b) and (c).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Inspections covered by this schedule are both routine and non-routine safety and safeguards inspections performed by the NRC for the purpose of review or follow-up of a licensed program. Inspections are performed through the full term of the license to ensure that the authorized activities are being conducted in accordance with the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, other legislation, Commission regulations or orders, and the terms and conditions of the license. Non-routine inspections that result from third-party allegations will not be subject to fees.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Imports only of major components for end-use at NRC-licensed reactors are authorized under NRC general import license in 10 CFR 110.27.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Full cost fees will be assessed once NRC work on a Touhy request exceeds 50 hours, in accordance with § 170.12(d).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Because the resources for import and export licensing activities are identified as a fee-relief activity to be excluded from the fee-recoverable budget, import and export licensing actions will not incur fees.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 52648, Dec. 29, 1988]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 170.21, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.31" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.143.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.31   Schedule of fees for materials licenses and other regulatory services, including inspections, and import and export licenses.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="20">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36496, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Applicants for materials licenses, import and export licenses, and other regulatory services, and holders of materials licenses or import and export licenses shall pay fees for the following categories of services. For those fee categories identified to be subject to full cost fees, full cost fees will be assessed for all licensing and inspection activities, unless otherwise indicated.

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 170.31—Schedule of Materials Fees
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[See footnotes at end of table]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of materials licenses and type of fees <E T="0731">1</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fees <E T="0731">2 3</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Special nuclear material:<E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. (1) Licenses for possession and use of U-235 or plutonium for fuel fabrication activities
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(a) Strategic Special Nuclear Material (High Enriched Uranium) <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 21213]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(b) Low Enriched Uranium in Dispersible Form Used for Fabrication of Power Reactor Fuel <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 21210]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) All other special nuclear materials licenses not included in Category 1.A. (1) which are licensed for fuel cycle activities. <E T="0731">6</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(a) Facilities with limited operations <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 21240, 21310, 21320]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(b) Gas centrifuge enrichment demonstration facilities. <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 21205]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(c) Others, including hot cell facilities. <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 21130, 21131, 21133]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses for receipt and storage of spent fuel and reactor-related Greater than Class C (GTCC) waste at an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI). <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 23200]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Licenses for possession and use of special nuclear material of less than a critical mass as defined in § 70.4 of this chapter in sealed sources contained in devices used in industrial measuring systems, including x-ray fluorescence analyzers. <E T="0731">4</E> Application [Program Code(s): 22140]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. All other special nuclear material licenses, except licenses authorizing special nuclear material in sealed or unsealed form in combination that would constitute a critical mass, as defined in § 70.4 of this chapter, for which the licensee shall pay the same fees as those under Category 1.A. <E T="0731">4</E> Application [Program Code(s): 22110, 22111, 22120, 22131, 22136, 22150, 22151, 22161, 22170, 23100, 23300, 23310]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">E. Licenses or certificates for construction and operation of a uranium enrichment facility <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 21200]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">F. Licenses for possession and use of special nuclear material greater than critical mass as defined in § 70.4 of this chapter, for development and testing of commercial products, and other non-fuel-cycle activities. <E T="0731">4 6</E> [Program Code(s): 22155]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Source material: <E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. (1) Licenses for possession and use of source material for refining uranium mill concentrates to uranium hexafluoride or for deconverting uranium hexafluoride in the production of uranium oxides for disposal. <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11400]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Licenses for possession and use of source material in recovery operations such as milling, <E T="03">in situ</E> recovery, heap-leaching, ore buying stations, ion-exchange facilities, and in processing of ores containing source material for extraction of metals other than uranium or thorium, including licenses authorizing the possession of byproduct waste material (tailings) from source material recovery operations, as well as licenses authorizing the possession and maintenance of a facility in a standby mode. <E T="0731">6</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(a) Conventional and Heap Leach facilities <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11100]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(b) Basic <E T="03">In Situ</E> Recovery facilities <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11500]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(c) Expanded <E T="03">In Situ</E> Recovery facilities <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11510]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(d) <E T="03">In Situ</E> Recovery Resin facilities <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11550]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(e) Resin Toll Milling facilities <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11555]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(f) Other facilities <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11700]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Licenses that authorize the receipt of byproduct material, as defined in section 11e.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act, from other persons for possession and disposal, except those licenses subject to the fees in Category 2.A.(2) or Category 2.A.(4) <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11600, 12000]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(4) Licenses that authorize the receipt of byproduct material, as defined in section 11e.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act, from other persons for possession and disposal incidental to the disposal of the uranium waste tailings generated by the licensee's milling operations, except those licenses subject to the fees in Category 2.A.(2) <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 12010]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses which authorize the possession, use, and/or installation of source material for shielding. <E T="0731">7 8</E> Application [Program Code(s): 11210]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,400.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Licenses to distribute items containing source material to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 40 of this chapter. Application [Program Code(s): 11240]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$6,800.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. Licenses to distribute source material to persons generally licensed under part 40 of this chapter. Application [Program Code(s): 11230, 11231]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,100.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">E. Licenses for possession and use of source material for processing or manufacturing of products or materials containing source material for commercial distribution. Application [Program Code(s): 11710]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">F. All other source material licenses. Application [Program Code(s): 11200, 11220, 11221, 11300, 11800, 11810, 11820]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Byproduct material: <E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses of broad scope for the possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 03211, 03212, 03213]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$14,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1). Licenses of broad scope for the possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04010, 04012, 04014]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$19,800.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2). Licenses of broad scope for the possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04011, 04013, 04015]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$24,700.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Other licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 30 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 03214, 03215, 22135, 22162]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$4,100.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1). Other licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 30 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04110, 04112, 04114, 04116]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2). Other licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 30 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04111, 04113, 04115, 04117]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$6,800.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Licenses issued under §§ 32.72 and/or 32.74 of this chapter that authorize the processing or manufacturing and distribution or redistribution of radiopharmaceuticals, generators, reagent kits, and/or sources and devices containing byproduct material. This category does not apply to licenses issued to nonprofit educational institutions whose processing or manufacturing is exempt under § 170.11(a)(4). Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 02500, 02511, 02513]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1). Licenses issued under §§ 32.72 and/or 32.74 of this chapter that authorize the processing or manufacturing and distribution or redistribution of radiopharmaceuticals, generators, reagent kits, and/or sources and devices containing byproduct material. This category does not apply to licenses issued to nonprofit educational institutions whose processing or manufacturing is exempt under § 170.11(a)(4). Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04210, 04212, 04214]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$7,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2). Licenses issued under §§ 32.72 and/or 32.74 of this chapter that authorize the processing or manufacturing and distribution or redistribution of radiopharmaceuticals, generators, reagent kits, and/or sources and devices containing byproduct material. This category does not apply to licenses issued to nonprofit educational institutions whose processing or manufacturing is exempt under § 170.11(a)(4). Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04211, 04213, 04215]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$9,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">E. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material in sealed sources for irradiation of materials in which the source is not removed from its shield (self-shielded units). Application [Program Code(s): 03510, 03520]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,700.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">F. Licenses for possession and use of less than or equal to 10,000 curies of byproduct material in sealed sources for irradiation of materials in which the source is exposed for irradiation purposes. This category also includes underwater irradiators for irradiation of materials where the source is not exposed for irradiation purposes. Application [Program Code(s): 03511]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$7,400.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">G. Licenses for possession and use of greater than 10,000 curies of byproduct material in sealed sources for irradiation of materials in which the source is exposed for irradiation purposes. This category also includes underwater irradiators for irradiation of materials where the source is not exposed for irradiation purposes. Application [Program Code(s): 03521]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$70,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">H. Licenses issued under subpart A of part 32 of this chapter to distribute items containing byproduct material that require device review to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter. The category does not include specific licenses authorizing redistribution of items that have been authorized for distribution to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter. Application [Program Code(s): 03254, 03255, 03257]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$7,600.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">I. Licenses issued under subpart A of part 32 of this chapter to distribute items containing byproduct material or quantities of byproduct material that do not require device evaluation to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter. This category does not include specific licenses authorizing redistribution of items that have been authorized for distribution to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter. Application [Program Code(s): 03250, 03251, 03253, 03256]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$11,700.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">J. Licenses issued under subpart B of part 32 of this chapter to distribute items containing byproduct material that require sealed source and/or device review to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter. This category does not include specific licenses authorizing redistribution of items that have been authorized for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter. Application [Program Code(s): 03240, 03241, 03243]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,300.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">K. Licenses issued under subpart B of part 32 of this chapter to distribute items containing byproduct material or quantities of byproduct material that do not require sealed source and/or device review to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter. This category does not include specific licenses authorizing redistribution of items that have been authorized for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter. Application [Program Code(s): 03242, 03244]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,300.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">L. Licenses of broad scope for possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for research and development that do not authorize commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 01100, 01110, 01120, 03610, 03611, 03612, 03613]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$6,300.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Licenses of broad scope for possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for research and development that do not authorize commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04610, 04612, 04614, 04616, 04618, 04620, 04622]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$8,300.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Licenses of broad scope for possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for research and development that do not authorize commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04611, 04613, 04615, 04617, 04619, 04621, 04623]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,400.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">M. Other licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 30 of this chapter for research and development that do not authorize commercial distribution. Application [Program Code(s): 03620]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$9,500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">N. Licenses that authorize services for other licensees, except:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Licenses that authorize only calibration and/or leak testing services are subject to the fees specified in fee Category 3.P.; and
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Licenses that authorize waste disposal services are subject to the fees specified in fee Categories 4.A., 4.B., and 4.C. <E T="0731">13</E> Application [Program Code(s): 03219, 03225, 03226]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">O. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 34 of this chapter for industrial radiography operations. Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 03310, 03320]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$11,600.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1). Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 34 of this chapter for industrial radiography operations. Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04310, 04312]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$15,400.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2). Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 34 of this chapter for industrial radiography operations. Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04311, 04313]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$19,300.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">P. All other specific byproduct material licenses, except those in Categories 4.A. through 9.D. <E T="0731">9</E> Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 02400, 02410, 03120, 03121, 03122, 03123, 03124, 03130, 03140, 03220, 03221, 03222, 03800, 03810, 22130]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$7,700.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1). All other specific byproduct material licenses, except those in Categories 4.A. through 9.D. <E T="0731">9</E> Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04410, 04412, 04414, 04416, 04418, 04420, 04422, 04424, 04426, 04428, 04430, 04432, 04434, 04436, 04438]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2). All other specific byproduct material licenses, except those in Categories 4.A. through 9.D. <E T="0731">9</E> Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04411, 04413, 04415, 04417, 04419, 04421, 04423, 04425, 04427, 04429, 04431, 04433, 04435, 04437, 04439]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$13,100.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Q. Registration of a device(s) generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter. Registration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">R. Possession of items or products containing radium-226 identified in § 31.12 of this chapter which exceed the number of items or limits specified in that section. <E T="0731">5</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">1. Possession of quantities exceeding the number of items or limits in § 31.12(a)(4) or (5) of this chapter but less than or equal to 10 times the number of items or limits specified. Application [Program Code(s): 02700]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">2. Possession of quantities exceeding 10 times the number of items or limits specified in § 31.12(a)(4) or (5) of this chapter. Application [Program Code(s): 02710]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">S. Licenses for production of accelerator-produced radionuclides. Application [Program Code(s): 03210]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$16,200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Waste disposal and processing: <E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses specifically authorizing the receipt of waste byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material from other persons for the purpose of contingency storage or commercial land disposal by the licensee; or licenses authorizing contingency storage of low-level radioactive waste at the site of nuclear power reactors; or licenses for receipt of waste from other persons for incineration or other treatment, packaging of resulting waste and residues, and transfer of packages to another person authorized to receive or dispose of waste material. Application [Program Code(s): 03231, 03233, 03236, 06100, 06101]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses specifically authorizing the receipt of waste byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material from other persons for the purpose of packaging or repackaging the material. The licensee will dispose of the material by transfer to another person authorized to receive or dispose of the material. Application [Program Code(s): 03234]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$7,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Licenses specifically authorizing the receipt of prepackaged waste byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material from other persons. The licensee will dispose of the material by transfer to another person authorized to receive or dispose of the material. Application [Program Code(s): 03232]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,700.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Well logging: <E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material for well logging, well surveys, and tracer studies other than field flooding tracer studies. Application [Program Code(s): 03110, 03111, 03112]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material for field flooding tracer studies. Licensing [Program Code(s): 03113]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Nuclear laundries: <E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses for commercial collection and laundry of items contaminated with byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material. Application [Program Code(s): 03218]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$25,300.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Medical licenses: <E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units, teletherapy devices, or similar beam therapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 02300, 02310]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$12,700.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1). Licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units, teletherapy devices, or similar beam therapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04510, 04512]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$16,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2). Licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units, teletherapy devices, or similar beam therapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04511, 04513]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$21,100.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses of broad scope issued to medical institutions or two or more physicians under parts 30, 33, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter authorizing research and development, including human use of byproduct material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 02110]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$9,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1). Licenses of broad scope issued to medical institutions or two or more physicians under parts 30, 33, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter authorizing research and development, including human use of byproduct material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04710]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$13,200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2). Licenses of broad scope issued to medical institutions or two or more physicians under parts 30, 33, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter authorizing research and development, including human use of byproduct material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04711]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$16,500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Other licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">10</E> Number of locations of use: 1-5. Application [Program Code(s): 02120, 02121, 02200, 02201, 02210, 02220, 02230, 02231, 02240, 22160]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$9,800.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1). Other licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">10</E> Number of locations of use: 6-20. Application [Program Code(s): 04810, 04812, 04814, 04816, 04818, 04820, 04822, 04824, 04826, 04828]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$14,500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2). Other licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">10</E> Number of locations of use: more than 20. Application [Program Code(s): 04811,04813, 04815, 04817, 04819, 04821,04823, 04825, 04827, 04829]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$18,100.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Civil defense: <E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material for civil defense activities. Application [Program Code(s): 03710]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,900.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Device, product, or sealed source safety evaluation:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Safety evaluation of devices or products containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material, except reactor fuel devices, for commercial distribution. Application—each device</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$19,800.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Safety evaluation of devices or products containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material manufactured in accordance with the unique specifications of, and for use by, a single applicant, except reactor fuel devices. Application—each device</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,300.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Safety evaluation of sealed sources containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material, except reactor fuel, for commercial distribution. Application—each source</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$6,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. Safety evaluation of sealed sources containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material, manufactured in accordance with the unique specifications of, and for use by, a single applicant, except reactor fuel. Application—each source</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,200.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Transportation of radioactive material:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Evaluation of casks, packages, and shipping containers
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">1. Spent Fuel, High-Level Waste, and plutonium air packages</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">2. Other Casks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Quality assurance program approvals issued under part 71 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">1. Users and Fabricators
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 12em">Application</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$4,400.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 12em">Inspections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">2. Users
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 12em">Application</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$4,400.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 12em">Inspections</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Evaluation of security plans, route approvals, route surveys, and transportation security devices (including immobilization devices)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Review of standardized spent fuel facilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Special projects:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Including approvals, pre-application/licensing activities, and inspections. Application [Program Code: 25110]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. A. Spent fuel storage cask Certificate of Compliance\</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Inspections related to storage of spent fuel under § 72.210 of this chapter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. Decommissioning/Reclamation: <E T="0731">11</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Byproduct, source, or special nuclear material licenses and other approvals authorizing decommissioning, decontamination, reclamation, or site restoration activities under parts 30, 40, 70, 72, and 76 of this chapter, including master materials licenses (MMLs). The transition to this fee category occurs when a licensee has permanently ceased principal activities. [Program Code(s): 03900, 11900, 21135, 21215, 21325, 22200]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Site-specific decommissioning activities associated with unlicensed sites, including MMLs, regardless of whether or not the sites have been previously licensed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Import and Export licenses: <E T="0731">12</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Licenses issued under part 110 of this chapter for the import and export only of special nuclear material, source material, tritium and other byproduct material, and the export only of heavy water, or nuclear grade graphite (fee categories 15.A. through 15.E.).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Application for export or import of nuclear materials, including radioactive waste requiring Commission and Executive Branch review, for example, those actions under § 110.40(b) of this chapter. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Application for export or import of nuclear material, including radioactive waste, requiring Executive Branch review, but not Commission review. This category includes applications for the export and import of radioactive waste and requires the NRC to consult with domestic host state authorities (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact Commission, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, etc.). Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Application for export of nuclear material, for example, routine reloads of low enriched uranium reactor fuel and/or natural uranium source material requiring the assistance of the Executive Branch to obtain foreign government assurances. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. Application for export or import of nuclear material not requiring Commission or Executive Branch review, or obtaining foreign government assurances. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">E. Minor amendment of any active export or import license, for example, to extend the expiration date, change domestic information, or make other revisions which do not involve any substantive changes to license terms and conditions or to the type/quantity/chemical composition of the material authorized for export and, therefore, do not require in-depth analysis, review, or consultations with other Executive Branch, U.S. host state, or foreign government authorities. Minor amendment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Licenses issued under part 110 of this chapter for the import and export only of Category 1 and Category 2 quantities of radioactive material listed in appendix P to part 110 of this chapter (fee categories 15.F. through 15.R.)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Category 1 (Appendix P, 10 CFR Part 110) Exports:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">F. Application for export of appendix P Category 1 materials requiring Commission review (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> exceptional circumstance review under § 110.42(e)(4) of this chapter) and to obtain one government-to-government consent for this process. For additional consent see fee category 15.I. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">G. Application for export of appendix P Category 1 materials requiring Executive Branch review and to obtain one government-to-government consent for this process. For additional consents see fee category 15.I. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">H. Application for export of appendix P Category 1 materials and to obtain one government-to-government consent for this process. For additional consents see fee category 15.I. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">I. Requests for each additional government-to-government consent in support of an export license application or active export license. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Category 2 (Appendix P, 10 CFR Part 110) Exports:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">J. Application for export of appendix P Category 2 materials requiring Commission review (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> exceptional circumstance review under § 110.42(e)(4) of this chapter). Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">K. Applications for export of appendix P Category 2 materials requiring Executive Branch review. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">L. Application for the export of Category 2 materials. Application—new license, or amendment; or license exemption request</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">M. [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">N. [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">O. [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">P. [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Q. [Reserved]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Minor Amendments (Category 1 and 2, Appendix P, 10 CFR Part 110, Export):</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">R. Minor amendment of any active export license, for example, to extend the expiration date, change domestic information, or make other revisions which do not involve any substantive changes to license terms and conditions or to the type/quantity/chemical composition of the material authorized for export and, therefore, do not require in-depth analysis, review, or consultations with other Executive Branch, U.S. host state, or foreign authorities. Minor amendment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Reciprocity:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Agreement State licensees who conduct activities under the reciprocity provisions of § 150.20 of this chapter. Application</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,700.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. Master materials licenses of broad scope issued to Government agencies. Application [Program Code(s): 03614]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. Department of Energy:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Certificates of Compliance. Evaluation of casks, packages, and shipping containers (including spent fuel, high-level waste, and other casks, and plutonium air packages).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act (UMTRCA) activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Cost.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> <E T="03">Types of fees</E>—Separate charges, as shown in the schedule, will be assessed for pre-application consultations and reviews; applications for new licenses, approvals, or license terminations; possession-only licenses; issuances of new licenses and approvals; certain amendments and renewals to existing licenses and approvals; safety evaluations of sealed sources and devices; generally licensed device registrations; and certain inspections. The following guidelines apply to these charges:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) <E T="03">Application and registration fees.</E> Applications for new materials licenses and export and import licenses; applications to reinstate expired, terminated, or inactive licenses, except those subject to fees assessed at full costs; applications filed by Agreement State licensees to register under the general license provisions of 10 CFR 150.20; and applications for amendments to materials licenses that would place the license in a higher fee category or add a new fee category must be accompanied by the prescribed application fee for each category.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(i) Applications for licenses covering more than one fee category of special nuclear material or source material must be accompanied by the prescribed application fee for the highest fee category.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(ii) Applications for new licenses that cover both byproduct material and special nuclear material in sealed sources for use in gauging devices will pay the appropriate application fee for fee category 1.C. only.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) <E T="03">Licensing fees.</E> Fees for reviews of applications for new licenses, renewals, and amendments to existing licenses, pre-application consultations and other documents submitted to the NRC for review, and project manager time for fee categories subject to full cost fees are due upon notification by the Commission in accordance with § 170.12(b).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(3) <E T="03">Amendment fees.</E> Applications for amendments to export and import licenses must be accompanied by the prescribed amendment fee for each license affected. An application for an amendment to an export or import license or approval classified in more than one fee category must be accompanied by the prescribed amendment fee for the category affected by the amendment, unless the amendment is applicable to two or more fee categories, in which case the amendment fee for the highest fee category would apply.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(4) <E T="03">Inspection fees.</E> Inspections resulting from investigations conducted by the Office of Investigations and nonroutine inspections that result from third-party allegations are not subject to fees. Inspection fees are due upon notification by the Commission in accordance with § 170.12(c).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(5) <E T="03">Generally licensed device registrations under 10 CFR 31.5.</E> Submittals of registration information must be accompanied by the prescribed fee.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Fees will be charged for approvals issued under a specific exemption provision of the Commission's regulations under title 10 of the <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E> (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> 10 CFR 30.11, 40.14, 70.14, 73.5, and any other sections in effect now or in the future), regardless of whether the approval is in the form of a license amendment, letter of approval, safety evaluation report, or other form. In addition to the fee shown, an applicant may be assessed an additional fee for sealed source and device evaluations as shown in fee categories 9.A. through 9.D.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Full cost fees will be determined based on the professional staff time multiplied by the appropriate professional hourly rate established in § 170.20 in effect when the service is provided, and the appropriate contractual support services expended.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Licensees paying fees under categories 1.A., 1.B., and 1.E. are not subject to fees under categories 1.C., 1.D. and 1.F. for sealed sources authorized in the same license, except for an application that deals only with the sealed sources authorized by the license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Persons who possess radium sources that are used for operational purposes in another fee category are not also subject to the fees in this category. (This exception does not apply if the radium sources are possessed for storage only.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Licensees subject to fees under fee categories 1.A., 1.B., 1.E., or 2.A. must pay the largest applicable fee and are not subject to additional fees listed in this table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Licensees paying fees under 3.C., 3.C.1, or 3.C.2 are not subject to fees under 2.B. for possession and shielding authorized on the same license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> Licensees paying fees under 7.C. are not subject to fees under 2.B. for possession and shielding authorized on the same license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>9</sup> Licensees paying fees under 3.N. are not subject to paying fees under 3.P., 3.P.1, or 3.P.2 for calibration or leak testing services authorized on the same license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>10</sup> Licensees paying fees under 7.B., 7.B.1, or 7.B.2 are not subject to paying fees under 7.C., 7.C.1, or 7.C.2. for broad scope licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices authorized on the same license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>11</sup> A materials license (or part of a materials license) that transitions to fee category 14.A is assessed full-cost fees under 10 CFR part 170, but is not assessed an annual fee under 10 CFR part 171. If only part of a materials license is transitioned to fee category 14.A, the licensee may be charged annual fees (and any applicable 10 CFR part 170 fees) for other activities authorized under the license that are not in decommissioning status.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>12</sup> Because the resources for import and export licensing activities are identified as a fee-relief activity to be excluded from the fee-recoverable budget, import and export licensing actions will not incur fees.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>13</sup> Licensees paying fees under 4.A., 4.B. or 4.C. are not subject to paying fees under 3.N. licenses that authorize services for other licensees authorized on the same license.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 30747, July 31, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 34235, June 16, 2010; 76 FR 36797, June 22, 2011; 76 FR 72087, Nov. 22, 2011; 77 FR 35827, June 13, 2012; 78 FR 32341, May 29, 2013; 78 FR 39428, July 1, 2013; 78 FR 54959, Sept. 9, 2013; 79 FR 37145, June 30, 2014; 79 FR 51471, Aug. 29, 2014; 80 FR 37455, June 30, 2015; 81 FR 41186, June 24, 2016; 82 FR 30699, June 30, 2017; 83 FR 29646, June 25, 2018; 84 FR 22350, May 17, 2019; 85 FR 37271, June 19, 2020; 86 FR 32171, June 16, 2021; 87 FR 37215, June 22, 2022; 88 FR 39140, June 15, 2023; 89 FR 51811, June 20, 2024; 90 FR 26754, June 24, 2025]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.32" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.143.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.32   Schedule of fees for health and safety, and safeguards inspections for materials licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Materials licensees shall pay inspection fees as set forth in § 170.31.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 52652, Dec. 29, 1988]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.33" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.143.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.33   xxx</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="21">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36501, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="144" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.144" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.41" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.144.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.41   Failure by an applicant or licensee to pay prescribed fees.</HEAD>
<P>If the Commission determines that an applicant or a licensee has failed to pay a prescribed fee required in this part, the Commission will not process any application and may suspend or revoke any license or approval issued to the applicant or licensee. The Commission may issue an order with respect to licensed activities that the Commission determines to be appropriate or necessary to carry out the provisions of this part, parts 30, 31, 32 through 35, 40, 50, 53, 61, 70, 71, 72, 73, and 76 of this chapter, and of the Act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15880, Mar. 30, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 170.51" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.24.0.144.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 170.51   Right to dispute assessed fees.</HEAD>
<P>All debtors' disputes of fees assessed must be submitted in accordance with 10 CFR 15.31.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32176, June 16, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="171" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 171—ANNUAL FEES FOR REACTOR LICENSES AND FUEL CYCLE LICENSES AND MATERIALS LICENSES, INCLUDING HOLDERS OF CERTIFICATES OF COMPLIANCE, REGISTRATIONS, AND QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAM APPROVALS AND GOVERNMENT AGENCIES LICENSED BY THE NRC
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 161(w), 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2201(w), 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 42 U.S.C. 2215; 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 33230, Sept. 18, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 171.1" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part set out the annual fees charged to persons who hold licenses, Certificates of Compliance, sealed source and device registrations, and quality assurance program approvals issued by the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission, including licenses, registrations, approvals, and certificates issued to a Government agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 31504, July 10, 1991]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.3" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.3   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to any person holding an operating license for a test reactor or research reactor issued under part 50 of this chapter, and to any person holding an operating license for a power reactor licensed under 10 CFR part 50 or part 53, or a combined license issued under 10 CFR part 52 or part 53, that has provided notification to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) that the licensee has successfully completed power ascension testing. The regulations in this part also apply to any person holding a materials license as defined in this part, a Certificate of Compliance, a sealed source or device registration, a quality assurance program approval, and to a Government agency as defined in this part. Notwithstanding the other provisions in this section, the regulations in this part do not apply to uranium recovery and fuel facility licensees until after the Commission verifies through inspection that the facility has been constructed in accordance with the requirements of the license.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 15880, Mar. 30, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.5" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Budget</I> means the funds appropriated by Congress for the NRC for each fiscal year, and if that appropriation is not passed on or before September 1 for that fiscal year, the funds most recently appropriated by Congress for the most recent fiscal year. 
</P>
<P><I>Budget authority</I> means the authority, in the form of an appropriation, provided by law and becoming available during the year, to enter into obligations that will result in immediate or future outlays involving Federal Government funds. The appropriation is an authorization by an Act of Congress that permits the NRC to incur obligations and to make payments out of the Treasury for specified purposes. Fees assessed pursuant to Public Law 115-439 are based on the NRC's budget authority.
</P>
<P><I>Bundled unit</I> means multiple SMRs on a single site that are considered a single unit for the purpose of assessing an annual fee. A bundled unit is assessed an annual fee based on the cumulative licensed thermal power rating of all licensed SMRs on the same site. The maximum capacity of a bundled unit is a cumulative licensed thermal power rating of 4,500 MWt. A single SMR can be part of two bundled units if it completes the capacity of one unit and begins the capacity of an additional unit. For a given site, the use of the bundled unit concept is independent of the number of SMR plants, the number of SMR licenses issued, or the sequencing of the SMR licenses that have been issued. Bundled units with capacities greater than 2,000 MWt and less than or equal to 4,500 MWt are assessed a maximum fee that is equivalent to the annual fee paid by the current reactor fleet. Above 4,500 MWt establishes an additional bundled unit.
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in, or made radioactive by, exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or using special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Any discrete source of radium-226 that is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any material that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been made radioactive by use of a particle accelerator; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is produced, extracted, or converted after extraction, before, on, or after August 8, 2005, for use for a commercial, medical, or research activity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any discrete source of naturally occurring radioactive material, other than source material, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Commission, in consultation with the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the head of any other appropriate Federal agency, determines would pose a threat similar to the threat posed by a discrete source of radium-226 to the public health and safety or the common defense and security; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before, on, or after August 8, 2005, is extracted or converted after extraction for use in a commercial, medical, or research activity.
</P>
<P><I>Certificate holder</I> means a person who holds a certificate of compliance, or other package approval issued by the Commission. 
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal fiscal year</I> means a year that begins on October 1 of each calendar year and ends on September 30 of the following calendar year. Federal fiscal years are identified by the year in which they end (e.g., fiscal year 1987 begins in 1986 and ends in 1987). 
</P>
<P><I>Government agency</I> means any executive department, commission, independent establishment, corporation, wholly or partly owned by the United States of America which is an instrumentality of the United States, or any board, bureau, division, service, office, officer, authority, administration, or other establishment in the executive branch of the government. 
</P>
<P><I>Greater Than Class C Waste</I> or <I>GTCC Waste</I> means low-level radioactive waste that exceeds the concentration limits of radionuclides established for Class C waste in 10 CFR 61.55. 
</P>
<P><I>High enriched uranium fuel</I> means uranium enriched to 20 percent or greater in the isotope uranium-235. 
</P>
<P><I>Low enriched uranium fuel</I> means uranium enriched below 20 percent in the isotope uranium-235. 
</P>
<P><I>Materials license</I> means a license, certificate, approval, registration or other form of permission issued or granted by the NRC under the regulations in 10 CFR parts 30, 31 through 36, 39, 40, 61, 70, 71, 72, and 76. 
</P>
<P><I>Maximum fee</I> is the highest fee paid by a single bundled unit. It is applied to all bundled units on an SMR site with a licensed thermal power rating greater than 2,000 MWt and less than or equal to 4,500 MWt and is equal to the flat annual fee paid by existing fleet power reactors.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum fee</I> means the lowest annual fee assessed for an SMR or a bundled unit in a thermal power rating fee assessment tier.
</P>
<P><I>Non-power production or utilization facility</I> means a production or utilization facility licensed under 10 CFR 50.21(a) or (c), or 10 CFR 50.22, as applicable, that is not a nuclear power reactor or production facility as defined under paragraphs (1) and (2) of the definition of “production facility” in 10 CFR 50.2.
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit educational institution</I> means a public or nonprofit educational institution whose primary function is education, whose programs are accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association, who is legally authorized to provide a program of organized instruction or study, who provides an educational program for which it awards academic degrees, and whose educational programs are available to the public.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means an apparatus, other than an atomic weapon, used to sustain fission in a self-supporting chain reaction. 


</P>
<P><I>Operating license</I> means having a license issued under § 50.57 or § 53.1387 of this chapter. It does not include licenses that only authorize possession of special nuclear material after the Commission has received a request from the licensee to amend its licensee to permanently withdraw its authority to operate or the Commission has permanently revoked such authority.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission; any state or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within, a state; any foreign Government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation; or other entity; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing. 


</P>
<P><I>Power reactor</I> means a nuclear reactor designed to produce electrical or heat energy and licensed by the Commission under the authority of section 103 or subsection 104b of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and under the provisions of § 50.21(b) or § 50.22, or part 53 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Quality assurance program approval</I> is the document issued by the NRC to approve the quality assurance program submitted to the NRC as meeting the requirements of § 71.101 of this chapter. Activities covered by the quality assurance program may be divided into two major groups: those activities including design, fabrication and use of packaging and those activities for use only of packaging. 
</P>
<P><I>Registration holder</I> as used in this part means any manufacturer or initial distributor of a sealed source or device containing a sealed source that holds a certificate of registration issued by the NRC or a holder of a registration for a sealed source or device manufactured in accordance with the unique specifications of, and for use by, a single applicant. 
</P>
<P><I>Research reactor</I> is defined at 10 CFR 170.3.


</P>
<P><I>Small modular reactor (SMR)</I> for the purposes of calculating fees means the class of power reactors having a licensed thermal power rating less than or equal to 1,000 MWt per module. This rating is based on the thermal power equivalent of an SMR with an electrical power generating capacity of 300 MWe or less per module.
</P>
<P><I>Small modular reactor site (SMR site)</I> is the geographically bounded location of one or more SMRs and a basis on which SMR fees are calculated.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium or thorium, or any combination thereof, in any physical or chemical form; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Ores which contain by weight one-twentieth of one percent (0.05%) or more of 
</P>
<P>(i) Uranium, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Thorium, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any combination thereof. 
</P>
<P>Source material does not include special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium-233, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which the Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, but does not include source material. 
</P>
<P><I>Testing facility</I> is defined at 10 CFR 50.2.


</P>
<P><I>Variable fee</I> means an annual fee component that is added to the minimum fee. The variable fee is designed to gradually increase as licensed thermal power capacity is added within the bundled unit fee assessment tier. The variable fee is calculated as the product of the incremental increase in the thermal power rating multiplied by the variable rate.
</P>
<P><I>Variable rate</I> means the factor used to calculate the variable fee component of the annual fee. To determine the total annual fee, the incremental increase in the licensed thermal power rating within the fee assessment tier is multiplied by the variable rate resulting in a variable fee that is added to the minimum fee. There is a different factor for each SMR or bundled unit fee assessment tier. Each factor represents the difference between the lower licensed thermal power rating within each tier and the actual thermal power rating for the unit or site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 33230, Sept. 18, 1986, as amended at 53 FR 52652, Dec. 29, 1988; 56 FR 31505, July 10, 1991; 57 FR 32714, July 23, 1992; 58 FR 38695, July 20, 1993; 65 FR 36964, June 12, 2000; 66 FR 32474, June 14, 2001; 67 FR 42634, June 24, 2002; 71 FR 30752, May 30, 2006; 72 FR 35936, Oct. 1, 2007; 81 FR 32627, May 24, 2016; 81 FR 45964, July 15, 2016; 83 FR 29652, June 25, 2018; 86 FR 32177, June 16, 2021; 88 FR 39145, June 15, 2023; 89 FR 106253, Dec. 30, 2024; 91 FR 15880, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.7" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.7   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Commission in writing, no interpretation of the regulations in this part by an officer or employee of the Commission, other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel, will be recognized as binding on the Commission. This section shall cease to have effect on January 8, 2027, unless the NRC determines that the cessation deadline should be extended to a date not more than 5 years in the future after offering the public an opportunity to provide input on the costs and benefits of this section and considering that input. The NRC will publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcing its determination and revising or removing this section accordingly.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 33230, Sept. 18, 1986, as amended at 90 FR 55634, Dec. 3, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.8" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.8   Information collection requirements: OMB approval</HEAD>
<P>This part contains no information collection requirements and therefore is not subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 52191, Oct. 6, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.9" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.9   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>All communications concerning the regulations in this part should be addressed to the NRC's Chief Financial Officer, either by mail to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; by hand delivery to the NRC's offices at 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland; or, where practicable, by electronic submission, for example, via Electronic Information Exchange, or CD-ROM. Electronic submissions must be made in a manner that enables the NRC to receive, read, authenticate, distribute, and archive the submission, and process and retrieve it a single page at a time. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions can be obtained by visiting the NRC's Web site at <I>http://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html;</I> by e-mail to <I>MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov;</I> or by writing the Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The guidance discusses, among other topics, the formats the NRC can accept, the use of electronic signatures, and the treatment of nonpublic information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 58826, Oct. 10, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 62687, Dec. 1, 2009; 80 FR 74982, Dec. 1, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.11" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.11   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="22">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36503, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) All requests for exemptions must be filed with the NRC within 90 days from the effective date of the final rule establishing the annual fees for which the exemption is sought in order to be considered. Absent extraordinary circumstances, any exemption requests filed beyond that date will not be considered. The filing of an exemption request does not extend the date on which the bill is payable. Only timely payment in full ensures avoidance of interest and penalty charges. If a partial or full exemption is granted, any overpayment will be refunded. Requests for clarification of or questions relating to an annual fee bill must also be filed within 90 days from the date of the initial invoice to be considered.
</P>
<P>(b) An annual fee is not required for: 
</P>
<P>(1) A construction permit or license applied for by, or issued to, a nonprofit educational institution for a production or utilization facility, other than a power reactor, or for the possession and use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material. This exemption does not apply to those byproduct, source, or special nuclear material licenses which authorize: 
</P>
<P>(i) Human use; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Remunerated services to other persons; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Distribution of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material or products containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Activities performed under a Government contract. 
</P>
<P>(2) Federally-owned and State-owned research reactors used primarily for educational training and academic research purposes. For purposes of this exemption, the term research reactor means a nuclear reactor that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is licensed by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under section 104c. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2134(c)) for operation at a thermal power level of 10 megawatts or less; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) If so licensed for operation at a thermal power level of more than 1 megawatt, does not contain—
</P>
<P>(A) A circulating loop through the core in which the licensee conducts fuel experiments; 
</P>
<P>(B) A liquid fuel loading; or 
</P>
<P>(C) An experimental facility in the core in excess of 16 square inches in cross-section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission may, upon application by an interested person or on its own initiative, grant an exemption from the requirements of this part that it determines is authorized by law and otherwise in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) An exemption for reactors licensed to operate may be granted by the Commission taking into consideration each of the following factors: 
</P>
<P>(1) Age of the reactor; 
</P>
<P>(2) Number of customers in rate base; 
</P>
<P>(3) Net increase in KWh cost for each customer directly related to the annual fee assessed under this part; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any other relevant matter which the licensee believes justifies the reduction of the annual fee.
</P>
<P>(e) The Commission may grant a materials licensee an exemption from the annual fee if it determines that the annual fee is not based on a fair and equitable allocation of the NRC costs. The following factors must be fulfilled as determined by the Commission for an exemption to be granted: 
</P>
<P>(1) There are data specifically indicating that the assessment of the annual fee will result in a significantly disproportionate allocation of costs to the licensee, or class of licensees; or 
</P>
<P>(2) There is clear and convincing evidence that the budgeted generic costs attributable to the class of licensees are neither directly or indirectly related to the specific class of licensee nor explicitly allocated to the licensee by Commission policy decisions; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any other relevant matter that the licensee believes shows that the annual fee was not based on a fair and equitable allocation of NRC costs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 31505, July 10, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 32714, July 23, 1992; 58 FR 38695, July 20, 1993; 59 FR 12543, Mar. 17, 1994; 59 FR 36924, July 20, 1994; 67 FR 42634, June 24, 2002; 70 FR 30548, May 29, 2005; 79 FR 37150, June 30, 2014; 86 FR 32177, June 16, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.13" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.13   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The annual fees applicable to any NRC licensee subject to this part and calculated in accordance with §§ 171.15 and 171.16, will be published as a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as soon as possible but no later than the third quarter of the fiscal year. The annual fees will become due and payable to the NRC as indicated in § 171.19. Quarterly payments of the annual fee of $100,000 or more will continue during the fiscal year and be based on the applicable annual fees as shown in §§ 171.15 and 171.16 until a notice concerning the revised amount of the fees for the fiscal year is published by the NRC. If the NRC is unable to publish a final fee rule that becomes effective during the current fiscal year, fees would be assessed based on the rates in effect for the previous fiscal year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 31475, June 10, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.15" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.15   Annual fees: Non-power production or utilization licenses, reactor licenses, and independent spent fuel storage licenses.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="23">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36503, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) Each person holding an operating license for one or more non-power production or utilization facilities under 10 CFR part 50 that has provided notification to the NRC of the successful completion of startup testing; each person holding an operating license for a power reactor licensed under 10 CFR part 50 or a combined license under 10 CFR part 52, or an operating license or combined license for a commercial nuclear plant under 10 CFR part 53, that has provided notification to the NRC of the successful completion of power ascension testing; each person holding a 10 CFR part 50 or part 52, power reactor license, or a 10 CFR part 53 commercial nuclear plant license that is in decommissioning or possession only status, except those that have no spent fuel onsite; and each person holding a 10 CFR part 72 license who does not hold a 10 CFR part 50, part 52, or part 53 license and provides notification under § 72.80(g) of this chapter, shall pay the annual fee for each license held during the Federal fiscal year in which the fee is due. This paragraph (a) does not apply to test or research reactors exempted under § 171.11(b).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The FY 2025 annual fee for each operating power reactor that must be collected by September 30, 2025, is $5,319,000.


</P>
<P>(2) The FY 2025 annual fees are comprised of a base annual fee for power reactors licensed to operate, a base spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning annual fee and associated additional charges. The activities comprising the spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning base annual fee are shown in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. The activities comprising the FY 2025 base annual fee for operating power reactors are as follows:


</P>
<P>(i) Power reactor safety and safeguards regulation except licensing and inspection activities recovered under part 170 of this chapter and generic reactor decommissioning activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Research activities directly related to the regulation of power reactors, except those activities specifically related to reactor decommissioning.


</P>
<P>(iii) Generic activities required largely for NRC to regulate power reactors (<I>e.g.,</I> updating part 50, part 52, or part 53 of this chapter, operating the Incident Response Center, new reactor regulatory infrastructure). The base annual fee for operating power reactors does not include generic activities specifically related to reactor decommissioning.


</P>
<P>(c)(1) The FY 2025 annual fee for each power reactor holding a 10 CFR part 50 or part 53 operating license or combined license issued under 10 CFR part 52 or part 53 that is in a decommissioning or possession-only status and has spent fuel onsite, and for each independent spent fuel storage 10 CFR part 72 licensee who does not hold a 10 CFR part 50 or part 53 operating license, or a 10 CFR part 52 or part 53 combined license, is $326,000.
</P>
<P>(2) The FY 2025 annual fee is comprised of a base spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning annual fee (which is also included in the operating power reactor annual fee shown in paragraph (b) of this section). The activities comprising the FY 2025 spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning rebaselined annual fee are:


</P>
<P>(i) Generic and other research activities directly related to reactor decommissioning and spent fuel storage; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other safety, environmental, and safeguards activities related to reactor decommissioning and spent fuel storage, except costs for licensing and inspection activities that are recovered under part 170 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(d)(1) Each person holding an operating license for an SMR issued under 10 CFR part 50 or part 53, or a combined license issued under 10 CFR part 52 or part 53, that has provided notification to the NRC of the successful completion startup testing, shall pay the annual fee for all licenses held for an SMR site. The annual fee will be determined using the cumulative licensed thermal power rating of all SMR units and the bundled unit concept, during the fiscal year in which the fee is due. For a given site, the use of the bundled unit concept is independent of the number of SMR plants, the number of SMR licenses issued, or the sequencing of the SMR licenses that have been issued.
</P>
<P>(2) The annual fees for a small modular reactor(s) located on a single site to be collected by September 30 of each year, are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(2)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bundled unit thermal power rating
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variable fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum fee
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">First Bundled Unit(s)—cumulative MWt:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">0 MWt ≤ 20 MWt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TBD 
<sup>a</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&gt;20 MWt ≤ 250 MWt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TBD 
<sup>a</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TBD 
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&gt;250 MWt ≤ 2,000 MWt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TBD 
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TBD 
<sup>e</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&gt;2,000 MWt ≤ 4,500 MWt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TBD.
<sup>c</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Additional Bundled Unit(s)—cumulative MWt (above the first bundled unit of 4,500 MWt):
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">0 MWt ≤ 2,000 MWt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TBD 
<sup>f</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&gt;2,000 MWt ≤ 4,500 MWt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TBD.
<sup>c</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Annual fee paid by the non-power production or utilization facilities fee class.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Average of the annual fees for the spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning and the non-power production or utilization facilities fee classes.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Annual fee paid by the operating power reactors fee class.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> [((b)−(a))/230] × the difference between 20 MWt for the first bundled unit(s) and the actual cumulative licensed thermal power rating up to 250 MWt.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> [((c)−(b))/1,750] × the difference between 250 MWt for the first bundled unit(s) and the actual cumulative licensed thermal power rating up to 2,000 MWt.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>f</sup> [((c)−(b))/2,000] × the difference between 4,500 MWt for the first bundled unit(s) and the total actual cumulative licensed thermal power rating up to 2,000 MWt.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The annual fee for an SMR collected under this paragraph (d) is in lieu of any fee otherwise required under paragraph (b) of this section. The annual fee under this paragraph (d) covers the same activities listed for the power reactor base annual fee and the spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning reactor fee.
</P>
<P>(e) The FY 2025 annual fee for licensees authorized to operate one or more non-power production or utilization facilities under a single 10 CFR part 50 license, unless the reactor is exempted from fees under § 171.11(b), is $96,800.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31426, June 6, 2007]


</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 171.15, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.16" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.16   Annual fees: Materials licensees, holders of certificates of compliance, holders of sealed source and device registrations, holders of quality assurance program approvals, and government agencies licensed by the NRC.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260616" REFID="24">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36504, June 16, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a)(1) The provisions of this section apply to person(s) who are authorized to conduct activities under—
</P>
<P>(i) 10 CFR part 30 for byproduct material;
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 CFR part 40 for source material;
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 CFR part 70 for special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(iv) 10 CFR part 71 for packaging and transportation of radioactive material; and
</P>
<P>(v) 10 CFR part 76 for uranium enrichment.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the other provisions in this section, the regulations in this part do not apply to uranium recovery and fuel facility licensees until after the Commission verifies through inspection that the facility has been constructed in accordance with the requirements of the license.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with § 171.17, each person identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall pay the applicable annual fee for each license the person holds during the FY. Annual fees will be prorated for new licenses issued and for licenses for which termination is requested and activities permanently ceased during the FY as provided in § 171.17. If a single license authorizes more than one activity (e.g., human use and irradiator activities), annual fees will be assessed for each fee category applicable to the license. If a person holds more than one license, the total annual fee assessed will be the cumulative total of the annual fees applicable to each license held.
</P>
<P>(b) The FY 2025 annual fee is comprised of a base annual fee and associated additional charges. The base FY 2025 annual fee is the sum of budgeted costs for the following activities:


</P>
<P>(1) Generic and other research activities directly related to the regulation of materials licenses as defined in this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Other safety, environmental, and safeguards activities for materials licenses, except costs for licensing and inspection activities that are recovered under Part 170 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A licensee who is required to pay an annual fee under this section, in addition to 10 CFR part 72 licenses, may qualify as a small entity. If a licensee qualifies as a small entity and provides the Commission with the proper certification along with its annual fee payment, the licensee may pay reduced annual fees as shown in table 1 to this paragraph (c). Failure to file a small entity certification in a timely manner could result in the receipt of a delinquent invoice requesting the outstanding balance due and/or denial of any refund that might otherwise be due. The small entity fees are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NRC small entity classification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum annual fee per licensed category
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Businesses Not Engaged in Manufacturing (Average gross receipts over the last 5 completed fiscal years):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">$555,000 to $8 million</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Less than $555,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Not-For-Profit Organizations (Annual Gross Receipts):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">$555,000 to $8 million</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Less than $555,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manufacturing Entities that Have an Average of 500 Employees or Fewer:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">35 to 500 employees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fewer than 35 employees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Governmental Jurisdictions (Including publicly supported educational institutions) (Population):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">20,000 to 49,999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fewer than 20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Educational Institutions that are not State or Publicly Supported, and have 500 Employees or Fewer:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">35 to 500 employees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fewer than 35 employees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,100</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) The FY 2025 annual fees for materials licensees and holders of certificates, registrations, or approvals subject to fees under this section are shown in table 2 to this paragraph (d):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)—Schedule of Materials Annual Fees and Fees for Government Agencies Licensed by NRC
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[See footnotes at end of table]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of materials licenses
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual fees <E T="0731">1 2 3</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Special nuclear material:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. (1) Licenses for possession and use of U-235 or plutonium for fuel fabrication activities.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(a) Strategic Special Nuclear Material (High Enriched Uranium) <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 21213]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$6,101,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(b) Low Enriched Uranium in Dispersible Form Used for Fabrication of Power Reactor Fuel <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 21210]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,068,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) All other special nuclear materials licenses not included in Category 1.A.(1) which are licensed for fuel cycle activities
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(a) Facilities with limited operations <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 21310, 21320]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,704,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(b) Gas centrifuge enrichment demonstration facility <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 21205]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(c) Others, including hot cell facility <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 21130, 21131, 21133]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses for receipt and storage of spent fuel and reactor-related Greater than Class C (GTCC) waste at an independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) <E T="0731">11 15</E> [Program Code(s): 23200]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Licenses for possession and use of special nuclear material of less than a critical mass, as defined in § 70.4 of this chapter, in sealed sources contained in devices used in industrial measuring systems, including x-ray fluorescence analyzers. [Program Code(s): 22140]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. All other special nuclear material licenses, except licenses authorizing special nuclear material in sealed or unsealed form in combination that would constitute a critical mass, as defined in § 70.4 of this chapter, for which the licensee shall pay the same fees as those under Category 1.A. [Program Code(s): 22110, 22111, 22120, 22131, 22136, 22150, 22151, 22161, 22170, 23100, 23300, 23310]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">E. Licenses or certificates for the operation of a uranium enrichment facility <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 21200]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,659,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">F. Licenses for possession and use of special nuclear materials greater than critical mass, as defined in § 70.4 of this chapter, for development and testing of commercial products, and other non-fuel cycle activities. <E T="0731">4</E> [Program Code: 22155]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Source material:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. (1) Licenses for possession and use of source material for refining uranium mill concentrates to uranium hexafluoride or for deconverting uranium hexafluoride in the production of uranium oxides for disposal. <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code: 11400]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,295,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Licenses for possession and use of source material in recovery operations such as milling, in situ recovery, heap-leaching, ore buying stations, ion-exchange facilities and in-processing of ores containing source material for extraction of metals other than uranium or thorium, including licenses authorizing the possession of byproduct waste material (tailings) from source material recovery operations, as well as licenses authorizing the possession and maintenance of a facility in a standby mode
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(a) Conventional and Heap Leach facilities. <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 11100]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(b) Basic <E T="03">In Situ</E> Recovery facilities. <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 11500]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(c) Expanded <E T="03">In Situ</E> Recovery facilities <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 11510]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(d) <E T="03">In Situ</E> Recovery Resin facilities. <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 11550]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">5</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(e) Resin Toll Milling facilities. <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 11555]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">5</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(f) Other facilities <E T="0731">6</E> [Program Code(s): 11700]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">5</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Licenses that authorize the receipt of byproduct material, as defined in section 11e.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act, from other persons for possession and disposal, except those licenses subject to the fees in Category 2.A.(2) or Category 2.A.(4) <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 11600, 12000]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">5</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(4) Licenses that authorize the receipt of byproduct material, as defined in section 11e.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act, from other persons for possession and disposal incidental to the disposal of the uranium waste tailings generated by the licensee's milling operations, except those licenses subject to the fees in Category 2.A.(2) <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 12010]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses which authorize the possession, use, and/or installation of source material for shielding. <E T="0731">16 17</E> Application [Program Code(s): 11210]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Licenses to distribute items containing source material to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 40 of this chapter. [Program Code: 11240]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. Licenses to distribute source material to persons generally licensed under part 40 of this chapter. [Program Code(s): 11230 and 11231]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">E. Licenses for possession and use of source material for processing or manufacturing of products or materials containing source material for commercial distribution. [Program Code: 11710]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">F. All other source material licenses. [Program Code(s): 11200, 11220, 11221, 11300, 11800, 11810, 11820]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Byproduct material:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses of broad scope for possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 03211, 03212, 03213]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Licenses of broad scope for the possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04010, 04012, 04014]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Licenses of broad scope for the possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04011, 04013, 04015]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Other licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 30 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 03214, 03215, 22135, 22162]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Other licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 30 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04110, 04112, 04114, 04116]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Other licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 30 of this chapter for processing or manufacturing of items containing byproduct material for commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04111, 04113, 04115, 04117]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Licenses issued under §§ 32.72 and/or 32.74 of this chapter that authorize the processing or manufacturing and distribution or redistribution of radiopharmaceuticals, generators, reagent kits, and/or sources and devices containing byproduct material. This category does not apply to licenses issued to nonprofit educational institutions whose processing or manufacturing is exempt under § 170.11(a)(4) of this chapter. Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 02500, 02511, 02513]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Licenses issued under §§ 32.72 and/or 32.74 of this chapter that authorize the processing or manufacturing and distribution or redistribution of radiopharmaceuticals, generators, reagent kits, and/or sources and devices containing byproduct material. This category does not apply to licenses issued to nonprofit educational institutions whose processing or manufacturing is exempt under § 170.11(a)(4). Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04210, 04212, 04214]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Licenses issued under §§ 32.72 and/or 32.74 of this chapter that authorize the processing or manufacturing and distribution or redistribution of radiopharmaceuticals, generators, reagent kits, and/or sources and devices containing byproduct material. This category does not apply to licenses issued to nonprofit educational institutions whose processing or manufacturing is exempt under § 170.11(a)(4). Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04211, 04213, 04215]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. [Reserved]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">5</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">E. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material in sealed sources for irradiation of materials in which the source is not removed from its shield (self-shielded units). [Program Code(s): 03510, 03520]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">F. Licenses for possession and use of less than or equal to 10,000 curies of byproduct material in sealed sources for irradiation of materials in which the source is exposed for irradiation purposes. This category also includes underwater irradiators for irradiation of materials in which the source is not exposed for irradiation purposes. [Program Code(s): 03511]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">G. Licenses for possession and use of greater than 10,000 curies of byproduct material in sealed sources for irradiation of materials in which the source is exposed for irradiation purposes. This category also includes underwater irradiators for irradiation of materials in which the source is not exposed for irradiation purposes. [Program Code(s): 03521]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">113,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">H. Licenses issued under subpart A of part 32 of this chapter to distribute items containing byproduct material that require device review to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter, except specific licenses authorizing redistribution of items that have been authorized for distribution to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter. [Program Code(s): 03254, 03255, 03257]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">I. Licenses issued under subpart A of part 32 of this chapter to distribute items containing byproduct material or quantities of byproduct material that do not require device evaluation to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter, except for specific licenses authorizing redistribution of items that have been authorized for distribution to persons exempt from the licensing requirements of part 30 of this chapter. [Program Code(s): 03250, 03251, 03253, 03256]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">J. Licenses issued under subpart B of part 32 of this chapter to distribute items containing byproduct material that require sealed source and/or device review to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter, except specific licenses authorizing redistribution of items that have been authorized for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter. [Program Code(s): 03240, 03241, 03243]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">K. Licenses issued under subpart B of part 32 of this chapter to distribute items containing byproduct material or quantities of byproduct material that do not require sealed source and/or device review to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter, except specific licenses authorizing redistribution of items that have been authorized for distribution to persons generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter. [Program Code(s): 03242, 03244]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">L. Licenses of broad scope for possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for research and development that do not authorize commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 01100, 01110, 01120, 03610, 03611, 03612, 03613]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Licenses of broad scope for possession and use of product material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for research and development that do not authorize commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04610, 04612, 04614, 04616, 04618, 04620, 04622]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Licenses of broad scope for possession and use of byproduct material issued under parts 30 and 33 of this chapter for research and development that do not authorize commercial distribution. Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04611, 04613, 04615, 04617, 04619, 04621, 04623]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">M. Other licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 30 of this chapter for research and development that do not authorize commercial distribution. [Program Code(s): 03620]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">N. Licenses that authorize services for other licensees, except: (1) Licenses that authorize only calibration and/or leak testing services are subject to the fees specified in fee Category 3.P.; and (2) Licenses that authorize waste disposal services are subject to the fees specified in fee categories 4.A., 4.B., and 4.C. <E T="0731">21</E> [Program Code(s): 03219, 03225, 03226]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">O. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 34 of this chapter for industrial radiography operations. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding authorized under part 40 of this chapter when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 03310, 03320]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31,700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 34 of this chapter for industrial radiography operations. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding authorized under part 40 of this chapter when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04310, 04312]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material issued under part 34 of this chapter for industrial radiography operations. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding authorized under part 40 of this chapter when authorized on the same license. Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04311, 04313]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">P. All other specific byproduct material licenses, except those in Categories 4.A. through 9.D. <E T="0731">18</E> Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 02400, 02410, 03120, 03121, 03122, 03123, 03124, 03140, 03130, 03220, 03221, 03222, 03800, 03810, 22130]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) All other specific byproduct material licenses, except those in Categories 4.A. through 9.D. <E T="0731">18</E> Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04410, 04412, 04414, 04416, 04418, 04420, 04422, 04424, 04426, 04428, 04430, 04432, 04434, 04436, 04438]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) All other specific byproduct material licenses, except those in Categories 4.A. through 9.D. <E T="0731">18</E> Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04411, 04413, 04415, 04417, 04419, 04421, 04423, 04425, 04427, 04429, 04431, 04433, 04435, 04437, 04439]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Q. Registration of devices generally licensed under part 31 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">13</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">R. Possession of items or products containing radium-226 identified in § 31.12 of this chapter which exceed the number of items or limits specified in that section: <E T="0731">14</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Possession of quantities exceeding the number of items or limits in § 31.12(a)(4), or (5) of this chapter but less than or equal to 10 times the number of items or limits specified. [Program Code(s): 02700]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Possession of quantities exceeding 10 times the number of items or limits specified in § 31.12(a)(4) or (5) of this chapter. [Program Code(s): 02710]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">S. Licenses for production of accelerator-produced radionuclides. [Program Code(s): 03210]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37,900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Waste disposal and processing:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses specifically authorizing the receipt of waste byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material from other persons for the purpose of contingency storage or commercial land disposal by the licensee; or licenses authorizing contingency storage of low-level radioactive waste at the site of nuclear power reactors; or licenses for receipt of waste from other persons for incineration or other treatment, packaging of resulting waste and residues, and transfer of packages to another person authorized to receive or dispose of waste material. [Program Code(s): 03231, 03233, 03236, 06100, 06101]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33,900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses specifically authorizing the receipt of waste byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material from other persons for the purpose of packaging or repackaging the material. The licensee will dispose of the material by transfer to another person authorized to receive or dispose of the material. [Program Code(s): 03234]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Licenses specifically authorizing the receipt of prepackaged waste byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material from other persons. The licensee will dispose of the material by transfer to another person authorized to receive or dispose of the material. [Program Code(s): 03232]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Well logging:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material for well logging, well surveys, and tracer studies other than field flooding tracer studies. [Program Code(s): 03110, 03111, 03112]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material for field flooding tracer studies. [Program Code(s): 03113]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">5</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Nuclear laundries:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses for commercial collection and laundry of items contaminated with byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material. [Program Code(s): 03218]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Medical licenses:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units, teletherapy devices, or similar beam therapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17</E> Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 02300, 02310]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units, teletherapy devices, or similar beam therapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17</E> Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04510, 04512]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54,100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in gamma stereotactic radiosurgery units, teletherapy devices, or similar beam therapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17</E> Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04511, 04513]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Licenses of broad scope issued to medical institutions or two or more physicians under parts 30, 33, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter authorizing research and development, including human use of byproduct material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17</E> Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 02110]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Licenses of broad scope issued to medical institutions or two or more physicians under parts 30, 33, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter authorizing research and development, including human use of byproduct material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17</E> Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04710]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Licenses of broad scope issued to medical institutions or two or more physicians under parts 30, 33, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter authorizing research and development, including human use of byproduct material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17</E> Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04711]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Other licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17 19</E> Number of locations of use: 1-5. [Program Code(s): 02120, 02121, 02200, 02201, 02210, 02220, 02230, 02231, 02240, 22160]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,600
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(1) Other licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17 19</E> Number of locations of use: 6-20. [Program Code(s): 04810, 04812, 04814, 04816, 04818, 04820, 04822, 04824, 04826, 04828]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">(2) Other licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices. This category also includes the possession and use of source material for shielding when authorized on the same license. <E T="0731">9 17 19</E> Number of locations of use: more than 20. [Program Code(s): 04811, 04813, 04815, 04817, 04819, 04821, 04823, 04825, 04827, 04829]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Civil defense:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Licenses for possession and use of byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material for civil defense activities. [Program Code(s): 03710]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Device, product, or sealed source safety evaluation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Registrations issued for the safety evaluation of devices or products containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material, except reactor fuel devices, for commercial distribution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Registrations issued for the safety evaluation of devices or products containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material manufactured in accordance with the unique specifications of, and for use by, a single applicant, except reactor fuel devices</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Registrations issued for the safety evaluation of sealed sources containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material, except reactor fuel, for commercial distribution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">D. Registrations issued for the safety evaluation of sealed sources containing byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material, manufactured in accordance with the unique specifications of, and for use by, a single applicant, except reactor fuel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Transportation of radioactive material:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Certificates of Compliance or other package approvals issued for design of casks, packages, and shipping containers
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">1. Spent Fuel, High-Level Waste, and plutonium air packages</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">6</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">2. Other Casks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">6</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Quality assurance program approvals issued under part 71 of this chapter
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">1. Users and Fabricators</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">6</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">2. Users</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">6</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">C. Evaluation of security plans, route approvals, route surveys, and transportation security devices (including immobilization devices)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">6</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Standardized spent fuel facilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">6</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Special Projects [Program Code(s): 25110]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">6</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. A. Spent fuel storage cask Certificate of Compliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">6</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. General licenses for storage of spent fuel under § 72.210 of this chapter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">12</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. Decommissioning/Reclamation:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Byproduct, source, or special nuclear material licenses and other approvals authorizing decommissioning, decontamination, reclamation, or site restoration activities under parts 30, 40, 70, 72, and 76 of this chapter, including master materials licenses (MMLs). The transition to this fee category occurs when a licensee has permanently ceased principal activities. [Program Code(s): 03900, 11900, 21135, 21215, 21325, 22200]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">7 20</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Site-specific decommissioning activities associated with unlicensed sites, including MMLs, whether or not the sites have been previously licensed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">7</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Import and Export licenses</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">8</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Reciprocity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">8</E> N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. Master materials licenses of broad scope issued to Government agencies. <E T="0731">15</E> [Program Code(s): 03614]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">494,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. Department of Energy:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">A. Certificates of Compliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="0731">10</E> 1,952,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">B. Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act (UMTRCA) activities [Program Code(s): 03237, 03238]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">156,000
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Annual fees will be assessed based on whether a licensee held a valid license with the NRC authorizing possession and use of radioactive material during the current FY. The annual fee is waived for those materials licenses and holders of certificates, registrations, and approvals who either filed for termination of their licenses or approvals or filed for possession only/storage licenses before October 1 of the current FY and permanently ceased licensed activities entirely before this date. Annual fees for licensees who filed for termination of a license, downgrade of a license, or for a possession-only license during the FY and for new licenses issued during the FY will be prorated in accordance with the provisions of § 171.17. If a person holds more than one license, certificate, registration, or approval, the annual fee(s) will be assessed for each license, certificate, registration, or approval held by that person. For licenses that authorize more than one activity on a single license (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> human use and irradiator activities), annual fees will be assessed for each category applicable to the license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Payment of the prescribed annual fee does not automatically renew the license, certificate, registration, or approval for which the fee is paid. Renewal applications must be filed in accordance with the requirements of parts 30, 40, 70, 71, 72, or 76 of this chapter.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Each FY, fees for these materials licenses will be calculated and assessed in accordance with § 171.13 and will be published in the <E T="02">Federal Register</E> for notice and comment.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Other facilities include licenses for extraction of metals, heavy metals, and rare earths.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> There are no existing NRC licenses in these fee categories. If NRC issues a license for these categories, the Commission will consider establishing an annual fee for this type of license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Standardized spent fuel facilities, 10 CFR parts 71 and 72 Certificates of Compliance and related Quality Assurance program approvals, and special reviews, such as topical reports, are not assessed an annual fee because the generic costs of regulating these activities are primarily attributable to users of the designs, certificates, and topical reports.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Licensees in this category are not assessed an annual fee because they are charged an annual fee in other categories while they are licensed to operate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> No annual fee is charged because it is not practical to administer due to the relatively short life or temporary nature of the license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>9</sup> Separate annual fees will not be assessed for pacemaker licenses issued to medical institutions that also hold nuclear medicine licenses under fee categories 7.A, 7.A.1, 7.A.2, 7.B., 7.B.1, 7.B.2, 7.C, 7.C.1, or 7.C.2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>10</sup> This includes Certificates of Compliance issued to the DOE that are not funded from the Nuclear Waste Fund.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>11</sup> See § 171.15(c).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>12</sup> See § 171.15(c).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>13</sup> No annual fee is charged for this category because the cost of the general license registration program applicable to licenses in this category will be recovered through 10 CFR part 170 fees.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>14</sup> Persons who possess radium sources that are used for operational purposes in another fee category are not also subject to the fees in this category. (This exception does not apply if the radium sources are possessed for storage only.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>15</sup> Licensees subject to fees under categories 1.A., 1.B., 1.E., 2.A., and licensees paying fees under fee category 17 must pay the largest applicable fee and are not subject to additional fees listed in this table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>16</sup> Licensees paying fees under 3.C. are not subject to fees under 2.B. for possession and shielding authorized on the same license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>17</sup> Licensees paying fees under 7.A, 7.A.1, 7.A.2, 7.B, 7.B.1, 7.B.2, 7.C, 7.C.1, or 7.C.2 are not subject to fees under 2.B. for possession and shielding authorized on the same license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>18</sup> Licensees paying fees under 3.N. are not subject to paying fees under 3.P., 3.P.1, or 3.P.2 for calibration or leak testing services authorized on the same license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>19</sup> Licensees paying fees under 7.B., 7.B.1, or 7.B.2 are not subject to paying fees under 7.C., 7.C.1, or 7.C.2 for broad scope license licenses issued under parts 30, 35, 40, and 70 of this chapter for human use of byproduct material, source material, and/or special nuclear material, except licenses for byproduct material, source material, or special nuclear material in sealed sources contained in teletherapy devices authorized on the same license.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>20</sup> No annual fee is charged for a materials license (or part of a materials license) that has transitioned to this fee category because the decommissioning costs will be recovered through 10 CFR part 170 fees, but annual fees may be charged for other activities authorized under the license that are not in decommissioning status.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>21</sup> Licensees paying fees under 4.A., 4.B. or 4.C. are not subject to paying fees under 3.N. licenses that authorize services for other licensees authorized on the same license.</P></DIV></DIV>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 171.16, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.17" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.17   Proration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reactors,</I> 10 CFR part 72 licensees who do not hold 10 CFR part 50, 10 CFR part 52, or 10 CFR part 53 licenses, and materials licenses with annual fees of $100,000 or greater for a single fee category. The NRC will base the proration of annual fees for terminated and downgraded licenses on the fee rule in effect at the time the action is official. The NRC will base the determinations on the proration requirements under paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>New licenses.</I> (i) The annual fees for new licenses for power reactors and small modular reactors that are subject to fees under this part, for which the licensee has notified the NRC on or after October 1 of a fiscal year (FY) that the licensee has successfully completed power ascension testing, are prorated on the basis of the number of days remaining in the FY. Thereafter, the full annual fee is due and payable each subsequent FY.


</P>
<P>(ii) The annual fees for new licenses for non-power production or utilization facilities, 10 CFR part 72 licensees who do not hold 10 CFR part 50, part 52, or part 53 licenses, and materials licenses with annual fees of $100,000 or greater for a single fee category for the current FY, that are subject to fees under this part and are granted a license to operate on or after October 1 of a FY, are prorated on the basis of the number of days remaining in the FY. Thereafter, the full annual fee is due and payable each subsequent FY.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Terminations.</I> The base operating power reactor annual fee for operating reactor licensees or the annual fee for small modular reactor licensees, who have requested amendment to withdraw operating authority permanently during the FY will be prorated based on the number of days during the FY the license was in effect before docketing of the certifications for permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the reactor vessel or when a final legally effective order to permanently cease operations has come into effect. The spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning annual fee for reactor licensees who permanently cease operations and have permanently removed fuel from the site during the FY will be prorated on the basis of the number of days remaining in the FY after docketing of both the certifications of permanent cessation of operations and permanent removal of fuel from the site. The spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning annual fee will be prorated for those 10 CFR part 72 licensees who do not hold a 10 CFR part 50, part 52, or part 53 license who request termination of the 10 CFR part 72 license and permanently cease activities authorized by the license during the FY based on the number of days the license was in effect before receipt of the termination request. The annual fee for materials licenses with annual fees of $100,000 or greater for a single fee category for the current FY will be prorated based on the number of days remaining in the FY when a termination request or a request for a possession-only license is received by the NRC, provided the licensee permanently ceased licensed activities during the specified period. The annual fee for non-power production or utilization facilities will be prorated based on the number of days remaining in the FY when the authorization to operate the facility has been permanently removed from the license during the FY.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Downgraded licenses.</I> The annual fee for a materials license with an annual fee of $100,000 or greater for a single fee category for the current FY, that is subject to fees under this part and downgraded on or after October 1 of a FY, is automatically prorated by the agency on the basis of the number of days remaining in the FY when the application for downgrade is received and approved by the NRC, provided the licensee permanently ceased the stated activities during the specified period.
</P>
<P>(b) Materials licenses (excluding 10 CFR part 72 licenses and materials license with annual fees of $100,000 or greater for a single fee category, included in § 171.17(a)).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>New licenses.</I> The annual fee for a materials license that is subject to fees under this part and issued on or after October 1 of the FY is prorated on the basis of when the NRC issues the new license. New licenses issued during the period October 1 through March 31 of the FY will be assessed one-half the annual fee for that FY. New licenses issued on or after April 1 of the FY will not be assessed an annual fee for that FY. Thereafter, the full fee is due and payable each subsequent FY.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Terminations.</I> The annual fee will be prorated for licenses for which a termination request or a request for a POL has been received on or after October 1 of a FY on the basis of when the application for termination or POL is received by the NRC provided the licensee permanently ceased licensed activities during the specified period. Licenses for which applications for termination or POL are filed during the period October 1 through March 31 of the FY are assessed one-half the annual fee for the applicable category(ies) for that FY. Licenses for which applications for termination or POL are filed on or after April 1 of the FY are assessed the full annual fee for that FY. Materials licenses transferred to a new Agreement State during the FY are considered terminated by the NRC, for annual fee purposes, on the date that the Agreement with the State becomes effective; therefore, the same proration provisions will apply as if the licenses were terminated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Downgraded licenses.</I> (i) The annual fee for a materials license that is subject to fees under this part and downgraded on or after October 1 of a FY is automatically prorated on the basis of the date when the application for downgrade is received and approved by the NRC, provided the licensee permanently ceased the stated activities during the specified period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Annual fees for licenses for which applications to downgrade are filed during the period October 1 through March 31 of the FY will be prorated as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Licenses for which applications have been filed to reduce the scope of the license from a higher fee category(ies) to a lower fee category(ies) will be assessed one-half the annual fee for the higher fee category and one-half the annual fee for the lower fee category(ies), and, if applicable, the full annual fee for fee categories not affected by the downgrade; and
</P>
<P>(B) Licenses with multiple fee categories for which applications have been filed to downgrade by deleting a fee category will be assessed one-half the annual fee for the fee category being deleted and the full annual fee for the remaining categories.
</P>
<P>(iii) Licenses for which applications to downgrade are filed on or after April 1 of the FY are assessed the full fee for that FY.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31431, June 6, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 35835, June 15, 2012; 83 FR 29657, June 25, 2018; 85 FR 37277, June 19, 2020; 86 FR 32183, June 16, 2021; 91 FR 15880, Mar. 30, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.19" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.19   Payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of payment.</I> All annual fee payments under this part are to be made payable to the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The payments are to be made in U.S. funds using the electronic payment methods accepted at <I>www.Pay.gov.</I> Federal agencies may also make payment by IntraGovernmental Payment and Collection (IPAC). Specific instructions for making payments may be obtained by contacting the Office of the Chief Financial Officer at 301-415-7554. In accordance with Department of the Treasury requirements, refunds will only be made upon receipt of information on the payee's financial institution and bank accounts.
</P>
<P>(b) Annual fees in the amount of $100,000 or more and described in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> document issued under § 171.13, must be paid in quarterly installments of 25 percent as billed by the NRC. The quarters begin on October 1, January 1, April 1, and July 1 of each fiscal year. The NRC will adjust the fourth quarterly invoice to recover the full amount of the revised annual fee. If the amounts collected in the first three quarters exceed the amount of the revised annual fee, the overpayment will be refunded. Licensees whose annual fee for the previous fiscal year was less than $100,000 (billed on the anniversary date of the license), and whose revised annual fee for the current fiscal year is $100,000 or greater (subject to quarterly billing), will be issued a bill upon publication of the final rule for the full amount of the revised annual fee for the current fiscal year, less any payments received for the current fiscal year based on the anniversary date billing process.
</P>
<P>(c) Annual fees that are less than $100,000 are billed on the anniversary date of the license. For annual fee purposes, the anniversary date of the license is considered to be the first day of the month in which the original license was issued by the NRC. Licensees that are billed on the license anniversary date will be assessed the annual fee in effect on the anniversary date of the license. Materials licenses subject to the annual fee that are terminated during the fiscal year but before the anniversary month of the license will be billed upon termination for the fee in effect at the time of the billing. New materials licenses subject to the annual fee will be billed in the month the license is issued or in the next available monthly billing for the fee in effect on the anniversary date of the license. Thereafter, annual fees for new licenses will be assessed in the anniversary month of the license.
</P>
<P>(d) Annual fees of less than $100,000 must be paid as billed by the NRC. Materials license annual fees that are less than $100,000 are billed on the anniversary date of the license. The materials licensees that are billed on the anniversary date of the license are those covered by fee categories 1.C., 1.D., 1.F., and 2.A.(2) through 9.D.
</P>
<P>(e) Payment is due on the invoice date and interest accrues from the date of the invoice. However, interest will be waived if payment is received within 30 days from the invoice date.
</P>
<P>(f) The NRC is entitled to collect any underpayment of fees as a result of an error by the NRC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 36968, June 12, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 32478, June 14, 2001; 71 FR 30755, May 30, 2006; 71 FR 33190, June 8, 2006; 72 FR 31432, June 6, 2007; 78 FR 39491, July 1, 2013; 79 FR 37154, June 30, 2014; 82 FR 30708, June 30, 2017; 89 FR 51822, June 20, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.21" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.21   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.23" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.23   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>If any person required to pay the annual fee fails to pay when the fee is due, or files a false certification with respect to qualifying as a small entity under the Regulatory Flexibility Criteria, the Commission may refuse to process any application submitted by or on behalf of the person with respect to any license issued to the person and may suspend or revoke any licenses held by the person. The filing of a false certification to qualify as a small entity under § 171.16(c) of this part may also result in punitive action pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 1001. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 31510, July 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.25" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.25   Collection, interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>All annual fees in §§ 171.15 and 171.16 will be collected pursuant to the procedures of 10 CFR part 15. Interest, penalties and administrative costs for late payments will be assessed in accordance with 10 CFR part 15, of this chapter, 4 CFR part 102, and other relevant regulations of the United States Government, as appropriate. In the event a quarterly installment is not made by the appropriate due date specified in § 171.19, the full fee becomes due and payable, with interest, penalties, and administrative costs of collection calculated from the date that quarterly installment was due.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 31511, July 10, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 171.26" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.25.0.145.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 171.26   Right to dispute assessed fees.</HEAD>
<P>All debtors' disputes of fees assessed must be submitted in accordance with 10 CFR 15.31.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 32183, June 16, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="172-199" NODE="10:2.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 172-199 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 9, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="3" NODE="10:3" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 10—Energy--Volume 3</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ii</E>—Department of Energy 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>202


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="II" NODE="10:3.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER II—DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—OIL 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="200-201" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 200-201 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="202" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 202—PRODUCTION OR DISCLOSURE OF MATERIAL OR INFORMATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552; Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159; Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Production or Disclosure in Response to Subpoenas or Demands of Courts or Other Authorities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 35472, Mar. 13, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 202.21" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.21   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures to be followed when a subpoena, order, or other demand (hereinafter referred to as a “demand”) of a court or other authority is issued for the production or disclosure of (1) any material contained in the files of the Department of Energy (DOE), (2) any information relating to material contained in the files of the DOE, or (3) any information or material acquired by any person while such person was an employee of the DOE as a part of the performance of his official duties or because of his official status. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this subpart, the term “Employee of the DOE” includes all officers and employees of the United States appointed by, or subject to the supervision, jurisdiction, or control of, the Administrator of DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.22" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.22   Production or disclosure prohibited unless approved by appropriate DOE official.</HEAD>
<P>No employee or former employee of the DOE shall, in response to a demand of a court or other authority, produce any material contained in the file of the DOE or disclose any information relating to material contained in the files of the DOE, or disclose any information or produce any material acquired as part of the performance of his official duties or because of his official status without prior approval of the General Counsel of DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.23" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.23   Procedure in the event of a demand for production or disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a demand is made upon an employee or former employee of the DOE for the production of material or the disclosure of information described in § 202.21(a), he shall immediately notify the Regional Counsel for the region where the issuing authority is located. The Regional Counsel shall immediately request instructions from the General Counsel of DOE. 
</P>
<P>(b) If oral testimony is sought by the demand, an affidavit, or, if that is not feasible, a statement by the party seeking the testimony or his attorney, setting forth a summary of the testimony desired, must be furnished for submission by the Regional Counsel to the General Counsel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.24" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.24   Final action by the appropriate DOE official.</HEAD>
<P>If the General Counsel approves a demand for the production of material or disclosure of information, he shall so notify the Regional Counsel and such other persons as circumstances may warrant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.25" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.25   Procedure where a decision concerning a demand is not made prior to the time a response to the demand is required.</HEAD>
<P>If response to the demand is required before the instructions from the General Counsel are received, a U.S. attorney or DOE attorney designated for the purpose shall appear with the employee or former employee of the DOE upon whom the demand has been made, and shall furnish the court or other authority with a copy of the regulations contained in this subpart and inform the court or other authority that the demand has been, or is being, as the case may be, referred for the prompt consideration of the appropriate DOE official and shall respectfully request the court or authority to stay the demand pending receipt of the requested instructions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.26" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.2.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.26   Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.</HEAD>
<P>If the court or other authority declines to stay the effect of the demand in response to a request made in accordance with § 202.25 pending receipt of instructions, of if the court or other authority rules that the demand must be complied with irrespective of instructions not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the employee or former employee upon whom the demand has been made shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand. “United States ex rel Touhy v. Ragen,” 340 U.S. 462. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="205" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 205—ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES AND SANCTIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Federal Power Act, Pub. L. 66-280, 41 Stat. 1063 (16 U.S.C. 792 <I>et seq.</I>); E.O. 10485, 18 FR 5397, 3 CFR, 1949-1953, Comp., p. 970 as amended by E.O. 12038, 43 FR 4957, 3 CFR 1978 Comp., p. 136; E.O. 14154, 90 FR 8353.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 35489, Oct. 1, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the procedures to be utilized and identifies the sanctions that are available in proceedings before the Department of Energy and State Offices, in accordance with parts 209 through 214 of this chapter. Any exception, exemption, appeal, stay, modification, recession, redress or resolution of private grievance sought under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 7194 shall be governed by the procedural rules set forth in 10 CFR part 1003. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35114, July 5, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions set forth in other parts of this chapter shall apply to this part, unless otherwise provided. In addition, as used in this part, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Action</I> means an order, interpretation, notice of probable violation or ruling issued, or a rulemaking undertaken by the DOE or, as appropriate, by a State Office. 
</P>
<P><I>Adjustment</I> means a modification of the base period volume or other measure of allocation entitlement in accordance with part 211 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Aggrieved,</I> for purposes of administrative proceedings, describes and means a person with an interest sought to be protected under the FEAA, EPAA, or Proclamation No. 3279, as amended, who is adversely affected by an order or interpretation issued by the DOE or a State Office. 
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Regional Office or appropriate State Office</I> means the office located in the State or DOE region in which the product will be physically delivered. 
</P>
<P><I>Assignment</I> means an action designating that an authorized purchaser be supplied at a specified entitlement level by a specified supplier. 
</P>
<P><I>Conference</I> means an informal meeting, incident to any proceeding, between DOE or State officials and any person aggrieved by that proceeding. 
</P>
<P><I>Consent order</I> means a document of agreement between DOE and a person prohibiting certain acts, requiring the performance of specific acts or including any acts which DOE could prohibit or require pursuant to § 205.195. 
</P>
<P><I>Duly authorized representative</I> means a person who has been designated to appear before the DOE or a State Office in connection with a proceeding on behalf of a person interested in or aggrieved by that proceeding. Such appearance may consist of the submission of applications, petitions, requests, statements, memoranda of law, other documents, or of a personal appearance, verbal communication, or any other participation in the proceeding. 
</P>
<P><I>EPAA</I> means the Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-159). 
</P>
<P><I>EPCA</I> means the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (Pub. L. 94-163). 
</P>
<P><I>Exception</I> means the waiver or modification of the requirements of a regulation, ruling or generally applicable requirement under a specific set of facts. 
</P>
<P><I>Exemption</I> means the release from the obligation to comply with any part or parts, or any subpart thereof, of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy, created by the FEAA and includes the DOE National Office and Regional Offices. 
</P>
<P><I>FEAA</I> means the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-275). 
</P>
<P><I>Federal legal holiday</I> means New Year's Day, Washington's Birthday, Memorial Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Columbus Day, Veterans' Day, Thanksgiving Day, Christmas Day, and any other day appointed as a national holiday by the President or the Congress of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Interpretation</I> means a written statement issued by the General Counsel or his delegate or Regional Counsel, in response to a written request, that applies the regulations, rulings, and other precedents previously issued, to the particular facts of a prospective or completed act or transaction. 
</P>
<P><I>Notice of probable violation</I> means a written statement issued to a person by the DOE that states one or more alleged violations of the provisions of this chapter or any order issued pursuant thereto. 
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means a written directive or verbal communication of a written directive, if promptly confirmed in writing, issued by the DOE or a State Office. It may be issued in response to an application, petition or request for DOE action or in response to an appeal from an order, or it may be a remedial order or other directive issued by the DOE or a State Office on its own initiative. A notice of probable violation is not an order. For purposes of this definition a “written directive” shall include telegrams, telecopies and similar transcriptions. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, firm, estate, trust, sole proprietorship, partnership, association, company, joint-venture, corporation, governmental unit or instrumentality thereof, or a charitable, educational or other institution, and includes any officer, director, owner or duly authorized representative thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Proceeding</I> means the process and activity, and any part thereof, instituted by the DOE or a State Office, either on its own initiative or in response to an application, complaint, petition or request submitted by a person, that may lead to an action by the DOE or a State Office. 
</P>
<P><I>Remedial order</I> means a directive issued by the DOE requiring a person to cease a violation or to eliminate or to compensate for the effects of a violation, or both. 
</P>
<P><I>Ruling</I> means an official interpretative statement of general applicability issued by the DOE General Counsel and published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that applies the DOE regulations to a specific set of circumstances. 
</P>
<P><I>State Office</I> means a State Office of Petroleum Allocation certified by the DOE upon application pursuant to part 211 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>Throughout this part the use of a word or term in the singular shall include the plural and the use of the male gender shall include the female gender. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385; Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35489, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 36555, Aug. 21, 1975; 40 FR 36761, Aug. 22, 1975; 41 FR 36647, Aug. 31, 1976; 43 FR 14437, Apr. 6, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.3   Appearance before the DOE or a State Office.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may make an appearance, including personal appearances in the discretion of the DOE, and participate in any proceeding described in this part on his own behalf or by a duly authorized representative. Any application, appeal, petition, request or complaint filed by a duly authorized representative shall contain a statement by such person certifying that he is a duly authorized representative, unless a DOE form requires otherwise. Falsification of such certification will subject such person to the sanctions stated in 18 U.S.C. 1001 (1970). 
</P>
<P>(b) Suspension and disqualification: The DOE or a State Office may deny, temporarily or permanently, the privilege of participating in proceedings, including oral presentation, to any individual who is found by the DOE—
</P>
<P>(1) To have made false or misleading statements, either verbally or in writing; 
</P>
<P>(2) To have filed false or materially altered documents, affidavits or other writings; 
</P>
<P>(3) To lack the specific authority to represent the person seeking a DOE or State Office action; or 
</P>
<P>(4) To have engaged in or to be engaged in contumacious conduct that substantially disrupts a proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.4" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.4   Filing of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any document, including, but not limited to, an application, request, complaint, petition and other documents submitted in connection therewith, filed with the DOE or a State Office under this chapter is considered to be filed when it has been received by the DOE National Office, a Regional Office or a State Office. Documents transmitted to the DOE must be addressed as required by § 205.12. All documents and exhibits submitted become part of an DOE or a State Office file and will not be returned. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, an appeal, a response to a denial of an appeal or application for modification or recision in accordance with §§ 205.106(a)(3) and 205.135(a)(3), respectively, a reply to a notice of probable violation, the appeal of a remedial order or remedial order for immediate compliance, a response to denial of a claim of confidentiality, or a comment submitted in connection with any proceeding transmitted by registered or certified mail and addressed to the appropriate office is considered to be filed upon mailing. 
</P>
<P>(c) Hand-delivered documents to be filed with the Office of Exceptions and Appeals shall be submitted to Room 8002 at 2000 M Street, NW., Washington, D.C. All other hand-delivered documents to be filed with the DOE National Office shall be submitted to the Executive Secretariat at 12th and Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington, D.C. Hand-delivered documents to be filed with a Regional Office shall be submitted to the Office of the Regional Administrator. Hand-delivered documents to be filed with a State Office shall be submitted to the office of the chief executive officer of such office. 
</P>
<P>(d) Documents received after regular business hours are deemed filed on the next regular business day. Regular business hours for the DOE National Office are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Regular business hours for a Regional Office or a State Office shall be established independently by each. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.5" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.5   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Days.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, in computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by these regulations or by an order of the DOE or a State Office, the day of the act, event, or default from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal legal holiday in which event the period runs until the end of the next day that is neither a Saturday, Sunday, nor a Federal legal holiday. 
</P>
<P>(2) Saturdays, Sundays or intervening Federal legal holidays shall be excluded from the computation of time when the period of time allowed or prescribed is 7 days or less. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hours.</I> If the period of time prescribed in an order issued by the DOE or a State Office is stated in hours rather than days, the period of time shall begin to run upon actual notice of such order, whether by verbal or written communication, to the person directly affected, and shall run without interruption, unless otherwise provided in the order, or unless the order is stayed, modified, suspended or rescinded. When a written order is transmitted by verbal communication, the written order shall be served as soon thereafter as is feasible. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional time after service by mail.</I> Whenever a person is required to perform an act, to cease and desist therefrom, or to initiate a proceeding under this part within a prescribed period of time after issuance to such person of an order, notice, interpretation or other document and the order, notice, interpretation or other document is served by mail, 3 days shall be added to the prescribed period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.6" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.6   Extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>When a document is required to be filed within a prescribed time, an extension of time to file may be granted by the office with which the document is required to be filed upon good cause shown. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.7" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.7   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All orders, notices, interpretations or other documents required to be served under this part shall be served personally or by registered or certified mail or by regular United States mail (only when service is effected by the DOE or a State Office), except as otherwise provided. 
</P>
<P>(b) Service upon a person's duly authorized representative shall constitute service upon that person. 
</P>
<P>(c) Service by registered or certified mail is complete upon mailing. Official United States Postal Service receipts from such registered or certified mailing shall constitute <I>prima facie</I> evidence of service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.8" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.8   Subpoenas, special report orders, oaths, witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In this section the following terms have the definitions indicated unless otherwise provided. 
</P>
<P>(1) “DOE Official” means the Secretary of the Department of Energy, the Administrator of the Economic Regulatory Administration, the Administrator of Energy Information Administration, the General Counsel of the Department of Energy, the Special Counsel for Compliance, the Assistant Administrator for Enforcement, the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals, or the duly authorized delegate of any of the foregoing officials. 
</P>
<P>(2) “SRO” means a Special Report Order issued pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) (1) In accordance with the provisions of this section and as otherwise authorized by law, a DOE Official may sign, issue and serve subpoenas; administer oaths and affirmations; take sworn testimony; compel attendance of and sequester witnesses; control dissemination of any record of testimony taken pursuant to this section; subpoena and reproduce books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, contracts agreements, or other relevant records or tangible evidence including, but not limited to, information retained in computerized or other automated systems in possession of the subpoenaed person. Unless otherwise provided by subpart O, the provisions of this section apply to subpoenas issued by the office of Hearings and Appeals with respect to matters in proceedings before it. 
</P>
<P>(2) A DOE Official may issue a Special Report Order requiring any person subject to the jurisdiction of the ERA to file a special report providing information relating to DOE regulations, including but not limited to written answers to specific questions. The SRO may be in addition to any other reports required by this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) The DOE Official who issues a subpoena or SRO pursuant to this section, for good cause shown, may extend the time prescribed for compliance with the subpoena or SRO and negotiate and approve the terms of satisfactory compliance. 
</P>
<P>(4) Prior to the time specified for compliance, but in no event more than 10 days after the date of service of the subpoena or SRO, the person upon whom the document was served may file a request for review of the subpoena or SRO with the DOE Official who issued the document. The DOE Official then shall forward the request to his supervisor who shall provide notice of receipt to the person requesting review. The supervisor or his designee may extend the time prescribed for compliance with the subpoena or SRO and negotiate and approve the terms of satisfactory compliance. 
</P>
<P>(5) If the subpoena or SRO is not modified or rescinded within 10 days of the date of the supervisor's notice of receipt, 
</P>
<P>(i) the subpoena or SRO shall be effective as issued; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) the person upon whom the document was served shall comply with the subpoena or SRO within 20 days of the date of the supervisor's notice of receipt, unless otherwise notified in writing by the supervisor or his designee. 
</P>
<P>(6) There is no administrative appeal of a subpoena or SRO. 
</P>
<P>(c) (1) A subpoena or SRO shall be served upon a person named in the document by delivering a copy of the document to the person named. 
</P>
<P>(2) Delivery of a copy of the document to a natural person may be made by: 
</P>
<P>(i) Handing it to the person; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Leaving it at the person's office with the person in charge of the office; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Leaving it at the person's dwelling or usual place of abode with a person of suitable age and discretion who resides there; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Mailing it to the person by registered or certified mail, at his last known address; or 
</P>
<P>(v) Any method that provides the person with actual notice prior to the return date of the document. 
</P>
<P>(3) Delivery of a copy of the document to a person who is not a natural person may be made by: 
</P>
<P>(i) Handing it to a registered agent of the person; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Handing it to any officer, director, or agent in charge of any office of such person; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Mailing it to the last known address of any registered agent, officer, director, or agent in charge of any office of the person by registered or certified mail, or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any method that provides any registered agent, officer, director, or agent in charge of any office of the person with actual notice of the document prior to the return date of the document. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A witness subpoenaed by the DOE shall be paid the same fees and mileage as paid to a witness in the district courts of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(2) If in the course of a proceeding conducted pursuant to subpart M or O, a subpoena is issued at the request of a person other than an officer or agency of the United States, the witness fees and mileage shall be paid by the person who requested the subpoena. However, at the request of the person, the witness fees and mileage shall be paid by the DOE if the person shows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The presence of the subpoenaed witness will materially advance the proceeding; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The person who requested that the subpoena be issued would suffer a serious hardship if required to pay the witness fees and mileage. The DOE Official issuing the subpoena shall make the determination required by this subsection. 
</P>
<P>(e) If any person upon whom a subpoena or SRO is served pursuant to this section, refuses or fails to comply with any provision of the subpoena or SRO, an action may be commenced in the United States District Court to enforce the subpoena or SRO. 
</P>
<P>(f) (1) Documents produced in response to a subpoena shall be accompanied by the sworn certification, under penalty of perjury, of the person to whom the subpoena was directed or his authorized agent that (i) a diligent search has been made for each document responsive to the subpoena, and (ii) to the best of his knowledge, information, and belief each document responsive to the subpoena is being produced unless withheld on the grounds of privilege pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any information furnished in response to an SRO shall be accompanied by the sworn certification under penalty of perjury of the person to whom it was directed or his authorized agent who actually provides the information that (i) a diligent effort has been made to provide all information required by the SRO, and (ii) all information furnished is true, complete, and correct unless withheld on grounds of privilege pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) If any document responsive to a subpoena is not produced or any information required by an SRO is not furnished, the certification shall include a statement setting forth every reason for failing to comply with the subpoena or SRO. 
</P>
<P>(g) If a person to whom a subpoena or SRO is directed withholds any document or information because of a claim of attorney-client or other privilege, the person submitting the certification required by paragraph (f) of this section also shall submit a written list of the documents or the information withheld indicating a description of each document or information, the date of the document, each person shown on the document as having received a copy of the document, each person shown on the document as having prepared or been sent the document, the privilege relied upon as the basis for withholding the document or information, and an identification of the person whose privilege is being asserted. 
</P>
<P>(h)(1) If testimony is taken pursuant to a subpoena, the DOE Official shall determine whether the testimony shall be recorded and the means by which the testimony is recorded. 
</P>
<P>(2) A witness whose testimony is recorded may procure a copy of his testimony by making a written request for a copy and paying the appropriate fees. However, the DOE official may deny the request for good cause. Upon proper identification, any witness or his attorney has the right to inspect the official transcript of the witness' own testimony. 
</P>
<P>(i) The DOE Official may sequester any person subpoenaed to furnish documents or give testimony. Unless permitted by the DOE Official, neither a witness nor his attorney shall be present during the examination of any other witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(j)(1) Any witness whose testimony is taken may be accompanied, represented and advised by his attorney as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Upon the initiative of the attorney or witness, the attorney may advise his client, in confidence, with respect to the question asked his client, and if the witness refuses to answer any question, the witness or his attorney is required to briefly state the legal grounds for such refusal; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the witness claims a privilege to refuse to answer a question on the grounds of self-incrimination, the witness must assert the privilege personally. 
</P>
<P>(k) The DOE Official shall take all necessary action to regulate the course of testimony and to avoid delay and prevent or restrain contemptuous or obstructionist conduct or contemptuous language. DOE may take actions as the circumstances may warrant in regard to any instances where any attorney refuses to comply with directions or provisions of this section.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385; Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-332, Pub. L. 94-385, Pub. L. 95-70, and Pub. L. 95-91; Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-319, as amended; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385, and Pub. L. 95-70; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 23201, Apr. 19, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.9" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.9   General filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> The provisions of this section shall apply to all documents required or permitted to be filed with the DOE or with a State Office. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signing.</I> All applications, petitions, requests, appeals, comments or any other documents that are required to be signed, shall be signed by the person filing the document or a duly authorized representative. Any application, appeal, petition, request, complaint or other document filed by a duly authorized representative shall contain a statement by such person certifying that he is a duly authorized representative, unless an DOE form other wise requires. (A false certification is unlawful under the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 1001 (1970)). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> An application, petition, or other request for action by the DOE or a State Office should be clearly labeled according to the nature of the action involved (<I>e.g.,</I> “Application for Assignment”) both on the document and on the outside of the envelope in which the document is transmitted. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Obligation to supply information.</I> A person who files an application, petition, complaint, appeal or other request for action is under a continuing obligation during the proceeding to provide the DOE or a State Office with any new or newly discovered information that is relevant to that proceeding. Such information includes, but is not limited to, information regarding any other application, petition, complaint, appeal or request for action that is subsequently filed by that person with any DOE office or State Office. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>The same or related matters.</I> A person who files an application, petition, complaint, appeal or other request for action by the DOE or a State Office shall state whether, to the best knowledge of that person, the same or related issue, act or transaction has been or presently is being considered or investigated by any DOE office, other Federal agency, department or instrumentality; or by a State Office, a state or municipal agency or court; or by any law enforcement agency; including, but not limited to, a consideration or investigation in connection with any proceeding described in this part. In addition, the person shall state whether contact has been made by the person or one acting on his behalf with any person who is employed by the DOE or any State Office with regard to the same issue, act or transaction or a related issue, act or transaction arising out of the same factual situation; the name of the person contacted; whether the contact was verbal or in writing; the nature and substance of the contact; and the date or dates of the contact. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for confidential treatment.</I> (1) If any person filing a document with the DOE or a State Office claims that some or all the information contained in the document is exempt from the mandatory public disclosure requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 (1970)), is information referred to in 18 U.S.C. 1905 (1970), or is otherwise exempt by law from public disclosure, and if such person requests the DOE or a State Office not to disclose such information, such person shall file together with the document a second copy of the document from which has been deleted the information for which such person wishes to claim confidential treatment. The person shall indicate in the original document that it is confidential or contains confidential information and may file a statement specifying the justification for non-disclosure of the information for which confidential treatment is claimed. If the person states that the information comes within the exception in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) for trade secrets and commercial or financial information, such person shall include a statement specifying why such information is privileged or confidential. If the person filing a document does not submit a second copy of the document with the confidential information deleted, the DOE or a State Office may assume that there is no objection to public disclosure of the document in its entirety. 
</P>
<P>(2) The DOE or a State Office retains the right to make its own determination with regard to any claim of confidentiality. Notice of the decision by the DOE or a State Office to deny such claim, in whole or in part, and an opportunity to respond shall be given to a person claiming confidentiality of information no less than five days prior to its public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Separate applications, petitions or requests.</I> Each application, petition or request for DOE action shall be submitted as a separate document, even if the applications, petitions, or requests deal with the same or a related issue, act or transaction, or are submitted in connection with the same proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.10" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.10   Effective date of orders.</HEAD>
<P>Any order issued by the DOE or a State Office under this chapter is effective as against all persons having actual notice thereof upon issuance, in accordance with its terms, unless and until it is stayed, modified, suspended, or rescinded. An order is deemed to be issued on the date, as specified in the order, on which it is signed by an authorized representative of the DOE or a State Office, unless the order provides otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.11" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.11   Order of precedence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If there is any conflict or inconsistency between the provisions of this part and any other provision of this chapter, the provisions of this part shall control with respect to procedure. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, subpart I of part 212 of this chapter shall control with respect to prenotification and reporting and subpart J of part 212 of this chapter shall control with respect to accounting and financial reporting requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.12" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.12   Addresses for filing documents with the DOE.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All applications, requests, petitions, appeals, reports, DOE or FEO forms, written communications and other documents to be submitted to or filed with the DOE National Office in accordance with this chapter shall be addressed as provided in this section. The DOE National Office has facilities for the receipt of transmissions via TWX and FAX. The FAX is a 3M full duplex 4 or 6 minute (automatic) machine.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FAX Numbers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TWX Numbers
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(202) 254-6175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(701) 822-9454
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(202) 254-6461</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(701) 822-9459</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(1) Documents for which a specific address and/or code number is not provided in accordance with paragraphs (a)(2) through (7) of this section, shall be addressed as follows: Department of Energy, Attn: (name of person to receive document, if known, or subject), Washington, DC 20461. 
</P>
<P>(2) Documents to be filed with the Office of Exceptions and Appeals, as provided in this part or otherwise, shall be addressed as follows. Office of Exceptions and Appeals, Department of Energy, Attn: (name of person to receive document, if known, and/or labeling as specified in § 205.9(c)), Washington, DC 20461. 
</P>
<P>(3) Documents to be filed with the Office of General Counsel, as provided in this part or otherwise, shall be addressed as follows: Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Department of Energy, Attn: (name of person to receive document, if known, and labeling as specified in § 205.9(c)), 1000 Independence Avenue, Washington, DC 20585. 
</P>
<P>(4) Documents to be filed with the Office of Private Grievances and Redress, as provided in this part or otherwise, shall be addressed as follows: Office of Private Grievances and Redress, Department of Energy, Attn: (name of person to receive document, if known and/or labeling as specified in § 205.9(c)), Washington, DC 20461. 
</P>
<P>(5) All other documents filed, except those concerning price (see paragraph (a)(6) of this section), those designated as DOE or FEO forms (see paragraph (a)(7) of this section), and “Surplus Product Reports” (see paragraph (a)(8) of this section), but including those pertaining to compliance and allocation (adjustment and assignment) of allocated products, are to be identified by one of the code numbers stated below and addressed as follows: Department of Energy, Code____, labeling as specified in § 205.9(c), Washington, DC 20461. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Code Numbers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Code
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Product:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Crude oil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Naphtha and gas oil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Propane, butane and natural gasoline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Other products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Bunker fuel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Residual fuel (nonutility)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Motor gasoline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Middle distillates</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aviation fuels</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Submissions by specific entities:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Electric utilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Department of Defense</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) Documents pertaining to the price of covered products, except those to be submitted to other offices as provided in this part, shall be addressed to the Department of Energy, Code 1000, Attn: (name of person to receive document, if known, and/or labeling as specified in § 205.9(c)), Washington, DC 20461. 
</P>
<P>(7) Documents designated as DOE or FEO forms shall be submitted in accordance with the instructions stated in the form. 
</P>
<P>(8) “Surplus Product Reports” shall be submitted to the Department of Energy, Post Office Box 19407, Washington, DC 20036. 
</P>
<P>(9) Documents to be filed with the Director of Oil Imports, as provided in this part or otherwise, shall be addressed as follows: Director of Oil Imports, Department of Energy, P.O. Box 7414, Washington, DC 20044. 
</P>
<P>(10) Petitions for rulemaking to be filed with the Economic Regulatory Administration National Office shall be addressed as follows: Economic Regulatory Administration, Attn: Assistant Administrator for Regulations and Emergency Planning (labeled as “Petition for Rulemaking,”) 2000 M Street, N.W., Washington, DC 20461. 
</P>
<P>(b) All reports, applications, requests, notices, complaints, written communications and other documents to be submitted to or filed with an DOE Regional Office in accordance with this chapter shall be directed to one of the following addresses, as appropriate: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Region 1
</HD1>
<FP-1>Connecticut, Maine, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, Rhode Island, Vermont; Regional Office, Department of Energy, 150 Causeway Street, Boston, Massachusetts 02114. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 2 
</HD1>
<FP-1>New Jersey, New York, Puerto Rico, Virgin Islands; Regional Office, Department of Energy, 26 Federal Plaza, New York, New York 10007. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 3 
</HD1>
<FP-1>Delaware, District of Columbia, Maryland, Pennsylvania, Virginia, West Virginia; Regional Office, Department of Energy, Federal Office Building, 1421 Cherry Street, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 19102. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 4 
</HD1>
<FP-1>Alabama, Canal Zone, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, Mississippi, North Carolina, South Carolina; Regional Office, Department of Energy, 1655 Peachtree Street NW., Atlanta, Georgia 30309. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 5 
</HD1>
<FP-1>Illinois, Indiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Ohio, Wisconsin; Regional Office, Department of Energy, 175 West Jackson Street, Chicago, Illinois 60604. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 6 
</HD1>
<FP-1>Arkansas, Louisiana, New Mexico, Oklahoma, Texas; Regional Office, Department of Energy, 212 North Saint Paul Street, Dallas, Texas 75201. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 7 
</HD1>
<FP-1>Iowa, Kansas, Missouri, Nebraska; Regional Office, Department of Energy, Federal Office Building, P.O. Box 15000, 112 East 12th Street, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 8 
</HD1>
<FP-1>Colorado, Montana, North Dakota, South Dakota, Utah, Wyoming; Regional Office, Department of Energy, Post Office Box 26247, Belmar Branch, Denver, Colorado 80226. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 9 
</HD1>
<FP-1>American Samoa, Arizona, California, Guam, Hawaii, Nevada, Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands; Regional Office, Department of Energy, 111 Pine Street, San Francisco, California 94111. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Region 10 
</HD1>
<FP-1>Alaska, Idaho, Oregon, Washington; Regional Office, Department of Energy, Federal Office Building, 909 First Avenue, Room 3098, Seattle, Washington 98104.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, 15 U.S.C. 751 <I>et seq.,</I> Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385; Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, 15 U.S.C. 787 <I>et seq.,</I> Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-332, Pub. L. 94-385, Pub. L. 95-70, and Pub. L. 95-91; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, 42 U.S.C. 6201 <I>et seq.,</I> Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385, and Pub. L. 95-70; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.,</I> Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35489, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 36555, Aug. 21, 1975; 45 FR 37684, June 4, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.13" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.13   Where to file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise specifically provided in other subparts of this part, all documents to be filed with the ERA pursuant to this part shall be filed with the appropriate ERA Regional Office (unless otherwise specified in part 211 of this chapter), except that all documents shall be filed with the ERA National Office that relate to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The allocation and pricing of crude oil pursuant to subpart C of part 211 and part 212 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(2) Refinery yield controls pursuant to subpart C of part 211 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(3) The pricing of propane, butane and natural gasoline pursuant to part 212 of this chapter and the allocation of butane and natural gasoline pursuant to part 211 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(4) The allocation and pricing of middle distillate fuels pursuant to subpart G of part 211 and part 212 of this chapter, filed by electric utilities; 
</P>
<P>(5) The allocation and pricing of aviation fuel pursuant to subpart H of part 211 and part 212 of this chapter, filed by civil air carriers (except air taxi/commercial operators); 
</P>
<P>(6) The allocation and pricing of residual fuel oil pursuant to subpart I of part 211 and part 212 of this chapter, filed by electric utilities; 
</P>
<P>(7) The allocation and pricing of naphtha and gas oil pursuant to subpart J of part 211 and part 212 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(8) The allocation and pricing of other products pursuant to subpart K of part 211 and part 212 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(9) An application for an exemption under subpart E of this part; requests for a rulemaking proceeding under subpart L of this part or for the issuance of a ruling under subpart K of this part; and petitions to the Office of Private Grievances and Redress under subpart R of this part; 
</P>
<P>(10) The pricing of products pursuant to part 212 of this chapter, filed by a refiner; and 
</P>
<P>(11) The allocation of crude oil and other allocated products to meet Department of Defense needs pursuant to part 211 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(12) The allocation of crude oil and other allocated products to be utilized as feedstock in a synthetic natural gas plant, pursuant to § 211.29. 
</P>
<P>(13) Allocations, fee-paid and fee-exempt licenses issued pursuant to part 213 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Applications by end-users and wholesale purchasers for an allocation under the state set-aside system in accordance with § 211.17 shall be filed with the appropriate State Office. 
</P>
<P>(c) Applications to a State Office or a DOE Regional Office shall be directed to the office located in the state or region in which the allocated product will be physically delivered. An applicant doing business in more than one state or region must apply separately to each State or region in which a product will be physically delivered, unless the State Offices or Regional Offices involved agree otherwise. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35489, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended at 39 FR 36571, Oct. 11, 1974; 39 FR 39022, Nov. 5, 1974; 40 FR 28446, July 7, 1975; 40 FR 36555, Aug. 21, 1975; 44 FR 60648, Oct. 19, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.14" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.14   Ratification of prior directives, orders, and actions.</HEAD>
<P>All interpretations, orders, notices of probable violation or other directives issued, all proceedings initiated, and all other actions taken in accordance with part 205 as it existed prior to the effective date of this amendment, are hereby confirmed and ratified, and shall remain in full force and effect as if issued under this amended part 205, unless or until they are altered, amended, modified or rescinded in accordance with the provisions of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.15" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.1.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.15   Public docket room.</HEAD>
<P>There shall be established at the DOE National Office, 12th and Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington, DC, a public docket room in which shall be made available for public inspection and copying: 
</P>
<P>(a) A list of all persons who have applied for an exception, an exemption, or an appeal, and a digest of each application; 
</P>
<P>(b) Each decision and statement setting forth the relevant facts and legal basis of an order, with confidential information deleted, issued in response to an application for an exception or exemption or at the conclusion of an appeal; 
</P>
<P>(c) The comments received during each rulemaking proceeding, with a verbatim transcript of the public hearing if such a public hearing was held; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Any other information required by statute to be made available for public inspection and copying, and any information that the DOE determines should be made available to the public. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts B-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Interpretation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.80" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.80   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes the procedures for the filing of a formal request for an interpretation and for the consideration of such request. Responses, which may include verbal or written responses to general inquiries or to other than formal written requests for interpretation filed with the General Counsel or his delegate or a Regional Counsel, are not interpretations and merely provide general information. 
</P>
<P>(b) A request for interpretation that includes, or could be construed to include an application for an exception or an exemption may be treated solely as a request for interpretation and processed as such. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385, Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385, Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35489, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 14437, Apr. 6, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.81" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.81   What to file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person filing under this subpart shall file a “Request for Interpretation,” which should be clearly labeled as such both on the request and on the outside of the envelope in which the request is transmitted, and shall be in writing and signed by the person filing the request. The person filing the request shall comply with the general filing requirements stated in § 205.9 in addition to the requirements stated in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the person filing the request wishes to claim confidential treatment for any information contained in the request or other documents submitted under this subpart, the procedures set out in § 205.9(f) shall apply. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.82" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.82   Where to file.</HEAD>
<P>A request for interpretation shall be filed with the General Counsel or his delegate or with the appropriate Regional Counsel at the address provided in § 205.12. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385; Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35489, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 14437, Apr. 6, 1978; 43 FR 17803, Apr. 26, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.83" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.83   Contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The request shall contain a full and complete statement of all relevant facts pertaining to the circumstances, act or transaction that is the subject of the request and to the DOE action sought. Such facts shall include the names and addresses of all affected persons (if reasonably ascertainable) and a full discussion of the pertinent provisions and relevant facts contained in the documents submitted with the request. Copies of all relevant contracts, agreements, leases, instruments, and other documents shall be submitted with the request. When the request pertains to only one step of a larger integrated transaction, the facts, circumstances, and other relevant information pertaining to the entire transaction must be submitted. 
</P>
<P>(b) The request for interpretation shall include a discussion of all relevant authorities, including, but not limited to, DOE rulings, regulations, interpretations and decisions on appeals and exceptions relied upon to support the particular interpretation sought therein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.84" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.84   DOE evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing.</I> (1) The DOE may initiate an investigation of any statement in a request and utilize in its evaluation any relevant facts obtained by such investigation. The DOE may accept submissions from third persons relevant to any request for interpretation provided that the person making the request is afforded an opportunity to respond to all third person submissions. In evaluating a request for interpretation, the DOE may consider any other source of information. The DOE on its own initiative may convene a conference, if, in its discretion, it considers that such conference will advance its evaluation of the request. 
</P>
<P>(2) The DOE shall issue its interpretation on the basis of the information provided in the request, unless that information is supplemented by other information brought to the attention of the General Counsel or a Regional Counsel during the proceeding. The interpretation shall, therefore, depend for its authority on the accuracy of the factual statement and may be relied upon only to the extent that the facts of the actual situation correspond to those upon which the interpretation was based. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the DOE determines that there is insufficient information upon which to base a decision and if upon request additional information is not submitted by the person requesting the interpretation, the DOE may refuse to issue an interpretation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> (1) The DOE shall base an interpretation on the FEA and EPAA and the regulations and published rulings of the DOE as applied to the specific factual situation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The DOE shall take into consideration previously issued interpretations dealing with the same or a related issue. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.85" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.85   Decision and effect.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An interpretation may be issued after consideration of the request for interpretation and other relevant information received or obtained during the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) The interpretation shall contain a statement of the information upon which it is based and a legal analysis of and conclusions regarding the application of rulings, regulations and other precedent to the situation presented in the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) Only those persons to whom an interpretation is specifically addressed and other persons upon whom the DOE serves the interpretation and who are directly involved in the same transaction or act may rely upon it. No person entitled to rely upon an interpretation shall be subject to civil or criminal penalties stated in subpart P of this part for any act taken in reliance upon the interpretation, notwithstanding that the interpretation shall thereafter be declared by judicial or other competent authority to be invalid. 
</P>
<P>(d) An interpretation may be rescinded or modified at any time. Rescission or modification may be effected by notifying persons entitled to rely on the interpretation that it is rescinded or modified. This notification shall include a statement of the reasons for the recision or modification and, in the case of a modification, a restatement of the interpretation as modified. 
</P>
<P>(e) An interpretation is modified by a subsequent amendment to the regulations or ruling to the extent that it is inconsistent with the amended regulation or ruling. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Any person aggrieved by an interpretation may submit a petition for reconsideration to the General Counsel within 30 days of service of the interpretation from which the reconsideration is sought. There has not been an exhaustion of administrative remedies until a period of 30 days from the date of service of the interpretation has elapsed without receipt by the General Counsel of a petition for reconsideration or, if a petition for reconsideration of the interpretation has been filed in a timely manner, until that petition has been acted on by the General Counsel. However, a petition to which the General Counsel does not respond within 60 days of the date of receipt thereof, or within such extended time as the General Counsel may prescribe by written notice to the petitioner concerned within that 60 day period, shall be considered denied. 
</P>
<P>(2) A petition for reconsideration may be summarily denied if—
</P>
<P>(i) It is not filed in a timely manner, unless good cause is shown; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) It is defective on its face for failure to state, and to present facts and legal argument in support thereof, that the interpretation was erroneous in fact or in law, or that it was arbitrary or capricious. 
</P>
<P>(3) The General Counsel may deny any petition for reconsideration if the petitioner does not establish that—
</P>
<P>(i) The petition was filed by a person aggrieved by an interpretation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The interpretation was erroneous in fact or in law; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The interpretation was arbitrary or capricious. The denial of a petition shall be a final order of which the petitioner may seek judicial review. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385, Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385, Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35489, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 14437, Apr. 6, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.86" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.86   Appeal.</HEAD>
<P>There is no administrative appeal of an interpretation. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385, Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385, Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 14437, Apr. 6, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts G-J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Rulings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.150" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.150   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes the criteria for the issuance of interpretative rulings by the General Counsel. All rulings shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Any person is entitled to rely upon such ruling, to the extent provided in this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.151" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.5.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.151   Criteria for issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A ruling may be issued, in the discretion of the General Counsel, whenever there have been a substantial number of inquiries with regard to similar factual situations or a particular section of the regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel may issue a ruling whenever it is determined that it will be of assistance to the public in applying the regulations to a specific situation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.152" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.5.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.152   Modification or rescission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A ruling may be modified or rescinded by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Publication of the modification or rescission in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A rulemaking proceeding in accordance with subpart L of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless and until a ruling is modified or rescinded as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, no person shall be subject to the sanctions or penalties stated in subpart P of this part for actions taken in reliance upon the ruling, notwithstanding that the ruling shall thereafter be declared by judicial or other competent authority to be invalid. Upon such declaration, no person shall be entitled to rely upon the ruling. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.153" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.5.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.153   Comments.</HEAD>
<P>A written comment on or objection to a published ruling may be filed at any time with the General Counsel at the address specified in § 205.12. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.154" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.5.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.154   Appeal.</HEAD>
<P>There is no administrative appeal of a ruling. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Conferences, Hearings, and Public Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.170" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.7.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.170   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes the procedures for requesting and conducting a DOE conference, hearing, or public hearing. Such proceedings shall be convened in the discretion of the DOE, consistent with the requirements of the FEAA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.171" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.7.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.171   Conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DOE in its discretion may direct that a conference be convened, on its own initiative or upon request by a person, when it appears that such conference will materially advance the proceeding. The determination as to who may attend a conference convened under this subpart shall be in the discretion of the DOE, but a conference will usually not be open to the public. 
</P>
<P>(b) A conference may be requested in connection with any proceeding of the DOE by any person who might be aggrieved by that proceeding. The request may be made in writing or verbally, but must include a specific showing as to why such conference will materially advance the proceeding. The request shall be addressed to the DOE office that is conducting the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) A conference may only be convened after actual notice of the time, place, and nature of the conference is provided to the person who requested the conference. 
</P>
<P>(d) When a conference is convened in accordance with this section, each person may present views as to the issue or issues involved. Documentary evidence may be presented at the conference, but will be treated as if submitted in the regular course of the proceedings. A transcript of the conference will not usually be prepared. However, the DOE in its discretion may have a verbatim transcript prepared. 
</P>
<P>(e) Because a conference is solely for the exchange of views incident to a proceeding, there will be no formal reports or findings unless the DOE in its discretion determines that such would be advisable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.172" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.7.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.172   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DOE in its discretion may direct that a hearing be convened on its own initiative or upon request by a person, when it appears that such hearing will materially advance the proceedings. The determination as to who may attend a hearing convened under this subpart shall be in the discretion of DOE, but a hearing will usually not be open to the public. Where the hearing involves a matter arising under part 213, the Director of Oil Imports shall be notified as to its time and place, in order that he or his representative may present views as to the issue or issues involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) A hearing may only be requested in connection with an application for an exception or an appeal. Such request may be by the applicant, appellant, or any other person who might be aggrieved by the DOE action sought. The request shall be in writing and shall include a specific showing as to why such hearing will materially advance the proceeding. The request shall be addressed to the DOE office that is considering the application for an exception or the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(c) The DOE will designate an agency official to conduct the hearing, and will specify the time and place for the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) A hearing may only be convened after actual notice of the time, place, and nature of the hearing is provided both to the applicant or appellant and to any other person readily identifiable by the DOE as one who will be aggrieved by the DOE action involved. The notice shall include, as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that such person may participate in the hearing; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that such person may request a separate conference or hearing regarding the application or appeal. 
</P>
<P>(e) When a hearing is convened in accordance with this section, each person may present views as to the issue or issues involved. Documentary evidence may be presented at the hearing, but will be treated as if submitted in the regular course of the proceedings. A transcript of the hearing will not usually be prepared. However, the DOE in its discretion may have a verbatim transcript prepared. 
</P>
<P>(f) The official conducting the hearing may administer oaths and affirmations, rule on the presentation of information, receive relevant information, dispose of procedural requests, determine the format of the hearing, and otherwise regulate the course of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(g) Because a hearing is solely for the exchange of views incident to a proceeding, there will be no formal reports or findings unless the DOE in its discretion determines that such would be advisable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35489, Oct. 1, 1974, as amended at 40 FR 36557, Aug. 21, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.173" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.7.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.173   Public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A public hearing shall be convened incident to a rulemaking: 
</P>
<P>(1) When the proposed rule or regulation is likely to have a substantial impact on the Nation's economy or large numbers of individuals or businesses; or 
</P>
<P>(2) When the DOE determines that a public hearing would materially advance the consideration of the issue. A public hearing may be requested by any interested person in connection with a rulemaking proceeding, but shall only be convened on the initiative of the DOE unless otherwise required by statute. 
</P>
<P>(b) A public hearing may be convened incident to any proceeding when the DOE in its discretion determines that such public hearing would materially advance the consideration of the issue. 
</P>
<P>(c) A public hearing may only be convened after publication of a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> which shall include a statement of the time, place, and nature of the public hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) Interested persons may file a request to participate in the public hearing in accordance with the instructions in the notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The request shall be in writing and signed by the person making the request. It shall include a description of the person's interest in the issue or issues involved and of the anticipated content of the presentation. It shall also contain a statement explaining why the person would be an appropriate spokesperson for the particular view expressed. 
</P>
<P>(e) The DOE shall appoint a presiding officer to conduct the public hearing. An agenda shall be prepared that shall provide, to the extent practicable, for the presentation of all relevant views by competent spokespersons. 
</P>
<P>(f) A verbatim transcript shall be made of the hearing. The transcript, together with any written comments submitted in the course of the proceeding, shall be made available for public inspection and copying in the public docket room, as provided in § 205.15. 
</P>
<P>(g) The information presented at the public hearing, together with the written comments submitted and other relevant information developed during the course of the proceeding, shall provide the basis for the DOE decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Notice of Probable Violation, Remedial Order, Notice of Proposed Disallowance, and Order of Disallowance</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385, Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-332, Pub. L. 94-385, Pub. L. 95-70, Pub. L. 95-91; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385, Pub. L. 95-70, Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, as amended, Pub. L. 95-620; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 7924, Feb. 7, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 205.190" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.190   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes the procedures for determining the nature and extent of violations of the DOE regulations in parts 210, 211, and 212 and the procedures for issuance of a Notice of Probable Violation, a Proposed Remedial Order, a Remedial Order, an Interim Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance, a Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance, a Notice of Probable Disallowance, a Proposed Order of Disallowance, an Order of Disallowance, or a Consent Order. Nothing in these regulations shall affect the authority of DOE enforcement officials in coordination with the Department of Justice to initiate appropriate civil or criminal enforcement actions in court at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) When any report required by the ERA or any audit or investigation discloses, or the ERA otherwise discovers, that there is reason to believe a violation of any provision of this chapter, or any order issued thereunder, has occurred, is continuing or is about to occur, the ERA may conduct an inquiry to determine the nature and extent of the violation. A Remedial Order or Order of Disallowance may be issued thereafter by the Office of Hearings and Appeals. The ERA may commence enforcement proceedings by serving a Notice of Probable Violation, a Notice of Probable Disallowance, a Proposed Remedial Order, a Proposed Order of Disallowance, or an Interim Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.191" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.191   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.192" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.192   Proposed remedial order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the ERA finds, after the 30-day or other period authorized for reply to the Notice of Probable Violation, that a violation has occurred, is continuing, or is about to occur, it may issue a Proposed Remedial Order, which shall set forth the relevant facts and law. 
</P>
<P>(b) The ERA may issue a Proposed Remedial Order at any time it finds that a violation has occurred, is continuing, or is about to occur even if it has not previously issued a Notice of Probable Violation. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ERA shall serve a copy of the Proposed Remedial Order upon the person to whom it is directed. The ERA shall promptly publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> which states the person to whom the Proposed Remedial Order is directed, his address, and the products, dollar amounts, time period, and geographical area specified in the Proposed Remedial Order. The notice shall indicate that a copy of the Proposed Remedial Order with confidential information, if any, deleted may be obtained from the ERA and that within 15 days after the date of publication any aggrieved person may file a Notice of Objection with the Office of Hearings and Appeals of accordance with § 205.193. The ERA shall mail copies of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice to all readily identifiable persons who are likely to be aggrieved by issuance of the Proposed Remedial Order as a final order. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Proposed Remedial Order shall set forth the proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which it is based. It shall also include a discussion of the relevant authorities which support the position asserted, including rules, regulations, rulings, interpretations and previous decisions issued by DOE or its predecessor agencies. The Proposed Remedial Order shall be accompanied by a declaration executed by the DOE employee primarily knowledgeable about the facts of the case stating that, to the best of declarant's knowledge and belief, the findings of fact are correct. 
</P>
<P>(e) The ERA may amend or withdraw a Proposed Remedial Order at its discretion prior to the date of service of a Statement of Objections in that proceeding. The date of service of the amended documents shall be considered the date of service of the Proposed Remedial Order in calculating the time periods specified in this part 205. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.192A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.192A   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In a Proposed Remedial Order proceeding the ERA has the burden of establishing a prima facie case as to the validity of the findings of fact and conclusions of law asserted therein. The ERA shall be deemed to meet this burden by the service of a Proposed Remedial Order that meets the requirements of § 205.192(d) and any supplemental information that may be made available under § 205.193A. 
</P>
<P>(b) Once a prima facie case has been established, a person who objects to a finding of fact or conclusion of law in the Proposed Remedial Order has the burden of going forward with the evidence. Furthermore, the proponent of additional factual representations has the burden of going forward with the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless otherwise specified by the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee, the proponent of an order or a motion or additional factual representations has the ultimate burden of persuasion. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.193" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.193   Notice of Objection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 15 days after publication of the notice of a Proposed Remedial Order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> any aggrieved person may file a Notice of Objection to the Proposed Remedial Order with the Office of Hearings and Appeals. The Notice shall be filed in duplicate, shall briefly describe how the person would be aggrieved by issuance of the Proposed Remedial Order as a final order and shall state the person's intention to file a Statement of Objections. No confidential information shall be included in a Notice of Objection. The DOE shall place one copy of the Notice in the Office of Hearings and Appeals Public Docket Room. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person who fails to file a timely Notice of Objection shall be deemed to have admitted the findings of fact and conclusions of law as stated in the Proposed Remedial Order. If a Notice of Objection is not filed as provided by paragraph (a) of this section, the Proposed Remedial Order may be issued as a final order. 
</P>
<P>(c) A person who files a Notice of Objection shall on the same day serve a copy of the Notice upon the person to whom the Proposed Remedial Order is directed, the DOE Office that issued the Proposed Remedial Order, and the DOE Assistant General Counsel for Administrative Litigation. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Notice shall include a certification of compliance with the provisions of this section, the names and addresses of each person served with a copy of the Notice, and the date and manner of service. 
</P>
<P>(e) If no person files a timely Notice of Objection, ERA may request the Office of Hearings and Appeals to issue the Proposed Remedial Order as a final Remedial Order. 
</P>
<P>(f) In order to exhaust administrative remedies with respect to a Remedial Order proceeding, a person must file a timely Notice of Objection and Statement of Objections with the Office of Hearings and Appeals. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.193A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.193A   Submission of ERA supplemental information.</HEAD>
<P>Within 20 days after service of a Notice of Objection to a Proposed Remedial Order the ERA may serve, upon the person to whom the Proposed Remedial Order was directed, supplemental information relating to the calculations and determinations which support the findings of fact set forth in the Proposed Remedial Order. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.194" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.194   Participants; official service list.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a Notice of Objection, the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> which states the person to whom the Proposed Remedial Order is directed, his address and the products, dollar amounts, time period, and geographical area specified in the Proposed Remedial Order. The notice shall state that any person who wishes to participate in the proceeding must file an appropriate request with the Office of Hearings and Appeals. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Office that issued the Proposed Remedial Order and the person to whom the Order is directed shall be considered participants before the Office of Hearings and Appeals at all stages of an enforcement proceeding. Any other person whose interest may be affected by the proceeding may file a request to participate in the proceeding with the Office of Hearings and Appeals within 20 days after publication of the notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section. The request shall contain 
</P>
<P>(1) The person's name, address, and telephone number and similar information concerning his duly authorized representative, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description of the person's interest in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) The specific reasons why the person's active involvement in the proceeding will substantially contribute to a complete resolution of the issues to be considered in the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the position which the person intends to adopt in the proceeding; and 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of the particular aspects of the proceeding, e.g. oral argument, submission of briefs, or discovery, in which the person wishes to actively participate. 
</P>
<P>(c) After considering the requests submitted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall determine those persons who may participate on an active basis in the proceeding and the nature of their participation. Participants with similar interests may be required to consolidate their submissions and to appear in the proceeding through a common representative. 
</P>
<P>(d) Within 30 days after publication of the notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall prepare an official service list for the proceeding. Within the same 30 day period the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall mail the official service list to all persons who filed requests to participate. For good cause shown a person may be placed on the official service list as a non-participant, for the receipt of documents only. An opportunity shall be afforded to participants to oppose the placement of a non-participant on the official service list. 
</P>
<P>(e) A person requesting to participate after the period for submitting requests has expired must show good cause for failure to file a request within the prescribed time period. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Office of Hearings and Appeals may limit the nature of a person's participation in the proceeding, if it finds that the facts upon which the person's request was based have changed or were incorrect when stated or that the person has not been actively participating or has engaged in disruptive or dilatory conduct. The action referred to in this provision shall be taken only after notice and an opportunity to be heard are afforded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.195" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.195   Filing and service of all submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Statements of Objections, Responses to such Statements, and any motions or other documents filed in connection with a proceeding shall meet the requirements of § 205.9 and shall be filed with the Office of Hearings and Appeals in accordance with § 205.4. Unless otherwise specified, any participant may file a response to a motion within five days of service. 
</P>
<P>(2) All documents shall be filed in duplicate, unless they contain confidential information, in which case they must be filed in triplicate. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a person claims that any portion of a document which he is filing contains confidential information, such information should be deleted from two of the three copies which are filed. One copy from which confidential information has been deleted will be placed in the Office of Hearings and Appeals Public Docket Room. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Persons other than DOE offices shall on the date a submission is filed serve each person on the official service list. Service shall be made in accordance with § 205.7 and may also be made by deposit in the regular United States mail, properly stamped and addressed, when accompanied by proof of service consisting of a certificate of counsel or an affidavit of the person making the service. If any filing arguably contains confidential information, a person may serve copies with the confidential information deleted upon all persons on the official service list except DOE offices, which shall be served both an original filing and one with deletions. 
</P>
<P>(2) A DOE office shall on the date it files a submission serve all persons on the official service list, unless the filing arguably contains confidential information. In that case the DOE office shall notify the person to whom the information relates of the opportunity to identify and delete the confidential information. The DOE Office may delay the service of a submission containing arguably confidential information upon all persons other than the possessor of the confidential information and other DOE offices up to 14 days. The possessor of the confidential information shall serve the filing with any deletions upon all persons on the official service list within such time period. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any filing made under this section shall include a certification of compliance by the filer with the provisions of this subpart. The person serving a document shall file a certificate of service, which includes the date and manner of service for each person on the official service list. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.196" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.196   Statement of objections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person who has filed a Notice of Objection shall file a Statement of Objections to a Proposed Remedial Order within 40 days after service of the Notice of Objection. A request for an extension of time for filing must be submitted in writing and may be granted for good cause shown. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Statement of Objections shall set forth the bases for the objections to the issuance of the Proposed Remedial Order as a final order, including a specification of the issues of fact or law which the person intends to contest in any further proceeding involving the compliance matter which is the subject of the Proposed Remedial Order. The Statement shall set forth the findings of fact contained in the Proposed Remedial Order which are alleged to be erroneous, the factual basis for such allegations, and any alternative findings which are sought. The Statement shall include a discussion of all relevant authorities which support the position asserted. The Statement may include additional factual representations which are not referred to in the Proposed Remedial Order and which the person contends are material and relevant to the compliance proceeding. For each additional factual representation which the person asserts should be made, the Statement shall include reasons why the factual representation is relevant and material, and the manner in which its validity is or will be established. The person shall also specify the manner in which each additional issue of fact was raised in any prior administrative proceeding which led to issuance of the Proposed Remedial Order, or the reasons why it was not raised. 
</P>
<P>(c) A Statement of Objections that is filed by the person to whom a Proposed Remedial Order is directed shall include a copy of any relevant Notice of Probable Violation, each Response thereto, the Proposed Remedial Order, and any relevant work papers or supplemental information previously provided by ERA. Copies of this material must also be included with the copy of the Statement of Objections served upon the DOE Assistant General Counsel for Administrative Litigation. All other persons on the official service list must be notified that such materials are available from the notifier upon written request. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.197" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.197   Response to statement of objections; reply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service of a Statement of Objections each participant may file a Response. If any motions are served with the Statement of Objections, a participant shall have 30 days from the date of service to respond to such submissions, notwithstanding any shorter time periods otherwise required in this subpart. The Response shall contain a full discussion of the position asserted and a discussion of the legal and factual bases which support that position. The Response may also contain a request that any issue of fact or law advanced in a Statement of Objections be dismissed. Any such request shall be accompanied by a full discussion of the reasons supporting the dismissal. 
</P>
<P>(b) A participant may submit a Reply to any Response within 10 days after the date of service of the Response. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.198" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.198   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person intends to file a Motion for Discovery, he must file it at the same time that he files his Statement of Objections or at the same time he files his Response to a Statement of Objections, whichever is earlier. All Motions for Discovery and related filings must be served upon the person to whom the discovery is directed. If the person to whom the discovery is directed is not on the official service list, the documents served upon him shall include a copy of this section, the address of the Office of Hearings and Appeals and a statement that objections to the Motion may be filed with the Office of Hearings and Appeals. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Motion for Discovery may request that: 
</P>
<P>(1) A person produce for inspection and photocopying non-privileged written material in his possession; 
</P>
<P>(2) A person respond to written interrogatories; 
</P>
<P>(3) A person admit to the genuineness of any relevant document or the truth of any relevant fact; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The deposition of a material witness be taken. 
</P>
<P>(c) A Motion for Discovery shall set forth the reasons why the particular discovery is necessary in order to obtain relevant and material evidence and shall explain why such discovery would not unduly delay the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(d) Within 20 days after a Motion for Discovery is served, a participant or a person to whom the discovery is directed may file a request that the Motion be denied in whole or in part, stating the reasons which support the request. 
</P>
<P>(e) Discovery may be conducted only pursuant to an Order issued by the Office of Hearings and Appeals. A Motion for Discovery will be granted if it is concluded that discovery is necessary for the party to obtain relevant and material evidence and that discovery will not unduly delay the proceeding. Depositions will be permitted if a convincing showing is made that the participant cannot obtain the material sought through one of the other discovery means specified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee may issue subpoenas in accordance with § 205.8 in support of Discovery Orders, except that § 205.8 (h)(2), (3), and (4) shall not apply to such subpoenas. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Office of Hearings and Appeals may order that any direct expenses incurred by a person to produce evidence pursuant to a Motion for Discovery be charged to the person who filed the Motion.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) If a person fails to comply with an order relating to discovery, the Office of Hearings and Appeals may order appropriate sanctions. 
</P>
<P>(2) It shall be the duty of aggrieved participants to request that appropriate relief be fashioned in such situations. 
</P>
<P>(i) Any order issued by the Office of Hearings and Appeals with respect to discovery shall be subject to further administrative review or appeal only upon issuance of the determination referred to in § 205.199B. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.198A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.198A   Protective order.</HEAD>
<P>A participant who has unsuccessfully attempted in writing to obtain information that another participant claims is confidential may file a Motion for Discovery and Protective Order. This motion shall meet the requirements of § 205.198 and shall specify the particular confidential information that the movant seeks and the reasons why the information is necessary to adequately present the movant's position in the proceeding. A copy of the written request for information, a certification concerning when and to whom it was served and a copy of the response, if any, shall be appended to the motion. The motion must give the possessor of the information notice that a Response to the Motion must be filed within ten days. The Response shall specify the safeguards, if any, that should be imposed if the information is ordered to be released. The Office of Hearings and Appeals may issue a Protective Order upon consideration of the Motion and the Response. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199   Evidentiary hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing Requirements.</I> At the time a person files a Statement of Objections he may also file a motion requesting an evidentiary hearing be convened. A motion requesting an evidentiary hearing may be filed by any other participant within 30 days after that participant is served with a Statement of Objections. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of Motion for Evidentiary Hearing.</I> A Motion for Evidentiary Hearing shall specify each disputed issue of fact and the bases for the alternative findings the movant asserts. The movant shall also describe the manner in which each disputed issue of fact was raised in any prior administrative proceeding which led to issuance of the Proposed Remedial Order, or why it was not raised. The movant shall with respect to each disputed or alternative finding of fact: 
</P>
<P>(1) As specifically as possible, identify the witnesses whose testimony is required; 
</P>
<P>(2) State the reasons why the testimony of the witnesses is necessary; and 
</P>
<P>(3) State the reasons why the asserted position can be effectively established only through the direct questioning of witnesses at an evidentiary hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to Motion for Evidentiary Hearing.</I> Within 20 days after service of any Motion for Evidentiary Hearing, the Office that issued the Proposed Remedial Order shall, and any other participant may file a Response with the Office of Hearings and Appeals. The Response shall specify: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each particular factual representation which is accepted as correct for purposes of the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(2) Each particular factual representation which is denied; 
</P>
<P>(3) Each particular factual representation which the participant is not in a position to accept or deny; 
</P>
<P>(4) Each particular factual representation which is not accepted and the participant wishes proven by the submission of evidence; 
</P>
<P>(5) Each particular factual representation which the participant is prepared to dispute through the testimony of witnesses or the submission of verified documents; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Each particular factual representation which the participant asserts should be dismissed as immaterial or irrelevant. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prehearing Conferences.</I> After all submissions with respect to a Motion for Evidentiary Hearing are filed, the Office of Hearings and Appeals may conduct conferences or hearings to resolve differences of view among the participants. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decision on Motion for Evidentiary Hearing.</I> After considering all relevant information received in connection with the Motion, the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall enter an Order. In the Order the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall direct that an evidentiary hearing be convened if it concludes that a genuine dispute exists as to relevant and material issues of fact and an evidentiary hearing would substantially assist it in making findings of fact in an effective manner. If the Motion for Evidentiary Hearing is granted in whole or in part, the Order shall specify the parties to the hearing, any limitations on the participation of a party, and the issues of fact set forth for the evidentiary hearing. The Order may also require parties that have adopted similar positions to consolidate their presentations and to appear at the evidentiary hearing through a common representative. If the Motion is denied, the Order may allow the movant to file affidavits and other documents in support of his asserted findings of fact. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review of Decision.</I> The Order of the Office of Hearings and Appeals with respect to a Motion for Evidentiary Hearing shall be subject to further administrative review or appeal only upon issuance of the determination referred to in § 205.199B. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conduct of Evidentiary Hearing.</I> All evidentiary hearings convened pursuant to this section shall be conducted by the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee. At any evidentiary hearing the parties shall have the opportunity to present material evidence which directly relates to a particular issue of fact set forth for hearing. The presiding officer shall afford the parties an opportunity to cross examine all witnesses. The presiding officer may administer oaths and affirmations, rule on objections to the presentation of evidence, receive relevant material, rule on any motion to conform the Proposed Remedial Order to the evidence presented, rule on motions for continuance, dispose of procedural requests, determine the format of the hearing, modify any order granting a Motion for Evidentiary Hearing, direct that written motions or briefs be provided with respect to issues raised during the course of the hearing, issue subpoenas, and otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing. The presiding officer may take reasonable measures to exclude duplicative material from the hearing, and may place appropriate limitations on the number of witnesses that may be called by a party. The presiding officer may also require that evidence be submitted through affidavits or other documents if the direct testimony of witnesses will unduly delay the orderly progress of the hearing and would not contribute to resolving the issues involved in the hearing. The provisions of § 205.8 which relate to subpoenas and witness fees shall apply to any evidentiary hearing, except that subsection § 205.8(h) (2), (3), and (4) shall not apply. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199A   Hearing for the purpose of oral argument only.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant is entitled upon timely request to a hearing to present oral argument with respect to the Proposed Remedial Order, whether or not an evidentiary hearing is requested or convened. A participant's request shall normally be considered untimely, if made more than 10 days after service of a determination regarding any motion filed by the requestor or, if no motions were filed by him, if made after the date for filing his Reply or his Response to a Statement of Objections. 
</P>
<P>(b) If an evidentiary hearing is convened, and a hearing for oral argument is requested, the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall determine whether the hearing for oral argument shall be held in conjunction with the evidentiary hearing or at a separate time. 
</P>
<P>(c) A hearing for the purpose of receiving oral argument will generally be conducted only after the issues involved in the proceeding have been delineated, and any written material which the Office of Hearings and Appeals has requested to supplement a Statement of Objections or Responses has been submitted. The presiding officer may require further written submissions in support of any position advanced or issued at the hearing, and shall allow responses any such submissions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199B" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199B   Remedial order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering all information received during the proceeding, the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee may issue a final Remedial Order. The Remedial Order may adopt the findings and conclusions contained in the Proposed Remedial Order or may modify or rescind any such finding or conclusion to conform the Order to the evidence or on the basis of a determination that the finding or conclusion is erroneous in fact or law or is arbitrary or capricious. In the alternative, the Office of Hearings and Appeals may determine that no Remedial Order should be issued or may remand all or a portion of the Proposed Remedial Order to the issuing DOE office for further consideration or modification. Every determination made pursuant to this section shall state the relevant facts and legal bases supporting the determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) The DOE shall serve a copy of any determination issued pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section upon the person to whom it is directed, any person who was served with a copy of the Proposed Remedial Order, the DOE office that issued the Proposed Remedial Order, the DOE Assistant General Counsel for Administrative Litigation and any other person on the official service list. Appropriate deletions may be made in the determinations to ensure that confidentiality of information protected from disclosure under 18 U.S.C. 1905 and 5 U.S.C. 552. A copy of the determination with appropriate deletions to protect confidential and proprietary data shall be placed in the Office of Hearings and Appeals Public Docket Room. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199C" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199C   Appeals of remedial order to FERC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The person to whom a Remedial Order is issued by the Office of Hearings and Appeals may file an administrative appeal if the Remedial Order proceeding was initiated by a Notice of Probable Violation issued after October 1, 1977, or, in those situations in which no Notice of Probable Violation was issued, if the proceeding was initiated by a Proposed Remedial Order issued after October 1, 1977. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any such appeal must be initiated within 30 days after service of the Order by giving written notice to the Office of Hearings and Appeals that the person to whom a Remedial Order is issued wishes to contest the Order. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Office of Hearings and Appeals shall promptly advise the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission of its receipt of a notice described in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Office of Hearings and Appeals may, on a case by case basis, set reasonable time limits for the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission to complete its action on such an appeal proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(e) In order to exhaust administrative remedies, a person who is entitled to appeal a Remedial Order issued by the Office of Hearings and Appeals must file a timely appeal and await a decision on the merits. Any Remedial Order that is not appealed within the 30-day period shall become effective as a final Order of the DOE and is not subject to review by any court. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 205.199D-205.199E" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 205.199D-205.199E   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199F" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199F   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person who is not employed or otherwise supervised by the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall submit ex parte communications to the Director or any person employed or otherwise supervised by the Office with respect to any matter involved in Remedial Order or Order of Disallowance proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(1) Ex parte communications include any ex parte oral or written communications relative to the merits of a Proposed Remedial Order, Interim Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance, or Proposed Order of Disallowance proceeding pending before the Office of Hearings and Appeals. The term shall not, however, include requests for status reports, inquiries as to procedures, or the submission of proprietary or confidential information. Notice that proprietary or confidential submissions have been made shall be given to all persons on the official service list. 
</P>
<P>(b) If any communication occurs that violates the provisions of this section, the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall promptly make the substance of the communication available to the public and serve a copy of a written communication or a memorandum summarizing an oral communication to all participants in the affected proceeding. The Office of Hearings and Appeals may also take any other appropriate action to mitigate the adverse impact to any person whose interest may be affected by the ex parte contact. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199G" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199G   Extension of time; Interim and Ancillary Orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee may permit upon motion any document or submission referred to in this subpart other than appeals to FERC to be amended or withdrawn after it has been filed or to be filed within a time period different from that specified in this subpart. The Director or his designee may upon motion or on his own initiative issue any interim or ancillary Orders, reconsider any determinations, or make any rulings or determinations that are deemed necessary to ensure that the proceedings specified in this subpart are conducted in an appropriate manner and are not unduly delayed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199H" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199H   Actions not subject to administrative appeal.</HEAD>
<P>A Notice of Probable Violation, Notice of Proposed Disallowance, Proposed Remedial Order or Interim Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance issued pursuant to this subpart shall not be an action from which there may be an administrative appeal pursuant to subpart H. In addition, a determination by the Office of Hearings and Appeals that a Remedial Order, an Order of Disallowance, or a Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance should not be issued shall not be appealable pursuant to subpart H. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199I" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199I   Remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Remedial Order, a Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance, an Order of Disallowance, or a Consent Order may require the person to whom it is directed to roll back prices, to make refunds equal to the amount (plus interest) charged in excess of those amounts permitted under DOE Regulations, to make appropriate compensation to third persons for administrative expenses of effectuating appropriate remedies, and to take such other action as the DOE determines is necessary to eliminate or to compensate for the effects of a violation or any cost disallowance pursuant to § 212.83 or § 212.84. Such action may include a direction to the person to whom the Order is issued to establish an escrow account or take other measures to make refunds directly to purchasers of the products involved, notwithstanding the fact that those purchasers obtained such products from an intermediate distributor of such person's products, and may require as part of the remedy that the person to whom the Order is issued maintain his prices at certain designated levels, notwithstanding the presence or absence of other regulatory controls on such person's prices. In cases where purchasers cannot be reasonably identified or paid or where the amount of each purchaser's overcharge is incapable of reasonable determination, the DOE may refund the amounts received in such cases directly to the Treasury of the United States on behalf of such purchasers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The DOE may, when appropriate, issue final Orders ancillary to a Remedial Order, Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance, Order of Disallowance, or Consent Order requiring that a direct or indirect recipient of a refund pass through, by such means as the DOE deems appropriate, including those described in paragraph (a) of this section, all or a portion of the refund, on a pro rata basis, to those customers of the recipient who were adversely affected by the initial overcharge. Ancillary Orders may be appealed to the Office of Hearings and Appeals only pursuant to subpart H. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.199J" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.9.5.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.199J   Consent order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, the DOE may at any time resolve an outstanding compliance investigation or proceeding, or a proceeding involving the disallowance of costs pursuant to § 205.199E with a Consent Order. A Consent Order must be signed by the person to whom it is issued, or a duly authorized representative, and must indicate agreement to the terms contained therein. A Consent Order need not constitute an admission by any person that DOE regulations have been violated, nor need it constitute a finding by the DOE that such person has violated DOE regulations. A Consent Order shall, however, set forth the relevant facts which form the basis for the Order. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Consent Order is a final Order of the DOE having the same force and effect as a Remedial Order issued pursuant to § 205.199B or an Order of Disallowance issued pursuant to § 205.199E, and may require one or more of the remedies authorized by § 205.199I and § 212.84(d)(3). A Consent Order becomes effective no sooner than 30 days after publication under paragraph (c) of this section, unless (1) the DOE makes a Consent Order effective immediately, because it expressly deems it necessary in the public interest, or (2) the Consent Order involves a sum of less than $500,000 in the aggregate, excluding penalties and interest, in which case it will be effective when signed both by the person to whom it is issued and the DOE, and will not be subject to the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section unless the DOE determines otherwise. A Consent Order shall not be appealable pursuant to the provisions of § 205.199C or § 205.199D and subpart H, and shall contain an express waiver of such appeal or judicial review rights as might otherwise attach to a final Order of the DOE. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a Consent Order has been signed, both by the person to whom it is issued and the DOE, the DOE will publish notice of such Consent Order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in a press release to be issued simultaneously therewith. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice and the press release will state at a minimum the name of the company concerned, a brief summary of the Consent Order and other facts or allegations relevant thereto, the address and telephone number of the DOE office at which copies of the Consent Order will be available free of charge, the address to which comments on the Consent Order will be received by the DOE, and the date by which such comments should be submitted, which date will not be less than 30 days after publication of the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice. After the expiration of the comment period the DOE may withdraw its agreement to the Consent Order, attempt to negotiate a modification of the Consent Order, or issue the Consent Order as signed. The DOE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and by press release, notice of any action taken on a Consent Order and such explanation of the action taken as deemed appropriate. The provisions of this paragraph shall be applicable notwithstanding the fact that a Consent Order may have been made immediately effective pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section (except in cases where the Consent Order involves sums of less than $500,000 in the aggregate, excluding penalties and interest). 
</P>
<P>(d) At any time and in accordance with the procedures of subpart J, a Consent Order may be modified or rescinded, upon petition by the person to whom the Consent Order was issued, and may be rescinded by the DOE upon discovery of new evidence which is materially inconsistent with evidence upon which the DOE's acceptance of the Consent Order was based. Modifications of a Consent Order which is subject to public comment under the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, which in the opinion of the DOE significantly change the terms or the impact of the original Order, shall be republished under the provisions of that paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding the issuance of a Consent Order, the DOE may seek civil or criminal penalties or compromise civil penalties pursuant to subpart P concerning matters encompassed by the Consent Order, unless the Consent Order by its terms expressly precludes the DOE from so doing. 
</P>
<P>(f) If at any time after a Consent Order becomes effective it appears to the DOE that the terms of the Consent Order have been violated, the DOE may refer such violations to the Department of Justice for appropriate action in accordance with subpart P. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts P-T [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="U" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart U—Procedures for Electricity Export Cases</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Federal Power Act, 41 Stat. 1063, as amended; Executive Order 10485, as amended by Executive Order 12038; Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended; Pub. L. 94-332, Pub. L. 94-385, Pub. L. 95-70, and Pub. L. 95-91; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 95-70; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 35315, Sept. 6, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 205.260" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.11.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.260   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this section is to state the procedures that will be followed by the Economic Regulatory Administration of the Department of Energy in electricity export adjudications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Economic Regulatory Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Decisional employees</I> means the Administrator, presiding officers at adjudicatory hearings, and other employees of the Department, including consultants and contractors, who are, or may reasonably be expected to be, involved in the decision-making process, which includes advising the Administrator in resolving the issues in an adjudication. The term does not include those employees of the Department performing investigative or trial functions in an adjudication, unless they are specifically requested by the Administrator or his delegate to participate in the decision-making process.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Off-the-record communication</I> means an <I>ex parte</I> communication, which is an oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudication and not on the record and with respect to which reasonable prior notice to all participants and opportunity to be present at, or respond to, the communication is not given, but does not include a communication relating solely to procedures which are not relevant to the merits of the adjudication.
</P>
<P><I>Interested person</I> means a person outside the Department whose interest in the adjudication goes beyond the general interest of the public as a whole and includes applicants, intervenors, competitors of applicants, non-profit and public interest organizations, and other individuals and organizations, including state, local and other public officials, with a proprietary, financial or other special interest in the outcome of the adjudication. The term does not include other federal agencies, unless an agency is a participant in the adjudication.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means any applicant or intervenor participating in the adjudication.
</P>
<P><I>Adjudication</I> means a formal proceeding employing procedures identical or similar to those required by the Administrative Procedure Act, as codified in 5 U.S.C. 551, 556, and 557, to consider an application to export electricity.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable prior notice</I> means 7 days' written notice stating the nature and purpose of the communication.
</P>
<P><I>Relevant to the merits</I> means a communication directly related to the merits of a specific adjudication but does not include general background discussions about an entire industry or communications of a general nature made in the course of developing agency policy for future general application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 205.261-205.269" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.11.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 205.261-205.269   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.270" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.11.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.270   Off-the-record communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any proceeding which is subject to this subpart—
</P>
<P>(1) No interested person shall make an off-the-record communication or knowingly cause an off-the-record communication to be made to any decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) No decisional employee shall make an off-the-record communication or knowingly cause an off-the-record communication to be made to any interested person.
</P>
<P>(3) A decisional employee who receives, makes, or knowingly causes to be made an oral communication prohibited by this section shall prepare a memorandum stating the substance of the communication and any responses made to it.
</P>
<P>(4) With 48 hours of receiving, making or knowingly causing to be made a communication prohibited by this section, a decisional employee shall deliver all written off-the-record communications and all memoranda prepared in compliance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section to the Director of the Coal and Electricity Division, ERA, who will immediately place the materials described above in the public record associated with the adjudication, available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon receipt of a communication knowingly made or knowingly caused to be made by a participant in violation of this section, the Administrator or presiding officer may, to the extent consistent with the interests of justice and the applicable statutory policy, require the participant to show cause why his or her claim or interest in the adjudication should not be dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of the violation.
</P>
<P>(6) The prohibitions of this section shall apply beginning at the time an adjudication is noticed for hearing (or the person responsible for the communication acquires knowledge that it will be noticed), a protest is filed, or a petition or notice to intervene in opposition to the requested Department action is filed, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(b) The prohibition, cited at 18 CFR 1.30(f), against participation in the decision-making process by Department employees who perform investigative or trial functions in an adjudication, shall no longer be applicable to ERA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="V" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart V—Special Procedures for Distribution of Refunds</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Economic Stabilization Act of 1970, Pub. L. 92-210; Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133, Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385, Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-332, Pub. L. 94-332, Pub. L. 94-385, Pub. L. 95-70, Pub. L. 95-91, Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385, Pub. L. 95-70; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 8566, Feb. 9, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 205.280" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.280   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes special procedures pursuant to which refunds may be made to injured persons in order to remedy the effects of a violation of the regulations of the Department of Energy. This subpart shall be applicable to those situations in which the Department of Energy is unable to readily identify persons who are entitled to refunds specified in a Remedial Order, a Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance, an Order of Disallowance or a Consent Order, or to readily ascertain the amounts that such persons are entitled to receive. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.281" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.281   Petition for implementation of special refund procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time after the issuance of a Remedial Order (including for purposes of this subpart a Remedial Order for Immediate Compliance and an Order of Disallowance), or a Consent Order, the Special Counsel of the Department of Energy, the ERA Office of Enforcement, or any other enforcement official of the Department of Energy may file with the Office of Hearings and Appeals a Petition for the Implementation of Special Refund Procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Petition shall state that the person filing it has been unable readily either to identify the persons who are entitled to refunds to be remitted pursuant to a Remedial Order or a Consent Order or to ascertain the amounts of refunds that such persons are entitled to receive. The Petition shall request that the Office of Hearings and Appeals institute appropriate proceedings under this subpart to distribute the funds referred to in the enforcement documents. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Petition shall contain a copy of each relevant enforcement document, shall be filed in duplicate, and shall meet the requirements of § 205.9 of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.282" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.282   Evaluation of petition by the Office of Hearings and Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After considering the Petition, the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee shall issue a Proposed Decision and Order. The Proposed Decision and Order shall generally describe the nature of the particular refund proceeding and shall set forth the standards and procedures that the Office of Hearings and Appeals intends to apply in evaluating refund claims. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Proposed Decision and Order shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> together with a statement that any member of the public may submit written comments to the Office of Hearings and Appeals with respect to the matter. At least 30 days following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> shall be provided for the submission of comments. 
</P>
<P>(c) After considering the comments submitted, the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee shall issue a final Decision and Order which shall govern the disposition of the refunds. The final Decision and Order shall also be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(d) The final Decision and Order shall set forth the standards and procedures that will be used in evaluating individual Applications for Refunds and distributing the refund amount. Those standards and procedures shall be consistent with the provisions of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(e) In establishing standards and procedures for implementing refund distributions, the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall take into account the desirability of distributing the refunds in an efficient, effective and equitable manner and resolving to the maximum extent practicable all outstanding claims. In order to do so, the standards for evaluation of individual claims may be based upon appropriate presumptions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.283" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.283   Applications for refund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person entitled to a refund pursuant to a final Decision and Order issued pursuant to § 205.282 may file an Application for Refund. All Applications must be signed by the applicant and specify the DOE order to which they pertain. Any Application for a refund in excess of $100 must be file in duplicate, and a copy of that Application will be available for public inspection in the DOE Public Docket Room at 2000 M Street, NW., Washington, DC. Any applicant who believes that his Application contains confidential information must so indicate on the first page of his Application and submit two additional copies of his Application from which the information that the applicant claims is confidential has been deleted, together with a statement specifying why any such information is privileged or confidential. 
</P>
<P>(b) The contents of an Application for Refund shall be specified in the final Decision and Order referred to in § 205.282(c). A filing deadline for Applications shall also be specified in the final Decision and Order, and shall be no less than 90 days after the publication of the Order in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) Each Application shall be in writing and signed by the applicant, and shall indicate whether the applicant or any person acting on his instructions has filed or intends to file any other Application or claim of whatever nature regarding the matters at issue in the underlying enforcement proceeding. Each Application shall also include a sworn statement by the applicant that all information in his Application is true and correct to the best of his knowledge and belief. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.284" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.284   Processing of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals may appoint an administrator to evaluate Applications under guidelines established by the Office of Hearings and Appeals. The administrator, if he is not a Federal Government employee, may be compensated from the funds referred to in the Remedial Order or Consent Order. The administrator may design and distribute an optional application form for the convenience of the applicants. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of Hearings and Appeals or its designee may initiate an investigation of any statement made in an Application and may require verification of any document submitted in support of a claim. In evaluating an Application, the Office of Hearings and Appeals or its designee may solicit and consider information obtained from any source and may on its own initiative convene a hearing or conference, if it determines that a hearing or conference will advance its evaluation of an Application. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee shall conduct any hearing or conference convened with respect to an Application for Refund and shall specify the time and place for the hearing or conference and notify the applicant. The official conducting the hearing may administer oaths and affirmations, rule on the presentation of information, receive relevant information, dispose of procedural requests, determine the format of the hearing and otherwise regulate the course of the hearing. The provisions of § 205.8 of this part which relate to subpoenas and witness fees shall apply to any hearing convened with respect to an application for refund, except that § 205.8(h) (2), (3) and (4) shall not apply. 
</P>
<P>(d) Upon consideration of an Application and other relevant information received during the course of a refund proceeding, the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee shall issue an order granting or denying the Application. The order shall contain a concise statement of the relevant facts and the legal basis for the order. A copy of the order, with such modification as is necessary to ensure the confidentiality of information protected from public disclosure by 18 U.S.C. 1905, may be obtained upon request by an applicant or any other person who participated in the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.285" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.285   Effect of failure to file a timely application.</HEAD>
<P>An Application for Refund must be filed no later than the date that the Office of Hearings and Appeals establishes pursuant to § 205.283(b). Any Application that is not filed on a timely basis may be summarily dismissed. The Office of Hearings and Appeals or its designee may, however, grant extensions of time for good cause shown. Any request for an extension of time must generally be submitted in writing prior to the deadline. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.286" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.286   Limitations on amount of refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The aggregate amount of all refunds approved by the Office of Hearings and Appeals or its designee in a given case shall not exceed the amount to be remitted pursuant to the relevant DOE enforcement order, plus any accumulated interest, reduced by the amount of any administrative costs approved by the Office of Hearings and Appeals. In the event that the aggregate amount of approved claims exceeds the aggregate amount of funds specified above, the Office of Hearings and Appeals may make refunds on a pro rata basis. The Office of Hearings and Appeals may delay payment of any refunds until all Applications have been processed. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of Hearings and Appeals may decline to consider Applications for refund amounts that, in view of the direct administrative costs involved, are too small to warrant individual consideration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.287" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.287   Escrow accounts, segregated funds and other guarantees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In implementing the refund procedures specified in this subpart, the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee shall issue an order providing for the custody of the funds to be tendered pursuant to the Remedial Order or Consent Order. This Order may require placement of the funds in an appropriate interest-bearing escrow account, retention of the funds by the firm in a segregated account under such terms and conditions as are specified by the DOE, or the posting of a sufficient bond or other guarantee to ensure payment. 
</P>
<P>(b) All costs and charges approved by the Office of Hearings and Appeals and incurred in connection with the processing of Applications for Refund or incurred by an escrow agent shall be paid from the amount of funds, including any accumulated interest, to be remitted pursuant to the Remedial Order or Consent Order. 
</P>
<P>(c) After the expenses referred to in paragraph (b) of this section have been satisfied and refunds distributed to successful applicants, any remaining funds remitted pursuant to the Remedial Order or Consent Order shall be deposited in the United States Treasury or distributed in any other manner specified in the Decision and Order referred to in § 205.282(c). 
</P>
<P>(d) Funds contained in an escrow account, segregated fund, or guaranteed by other approved means shall be disbursed only upon written order of the Office of Hearings and Appeals. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.288" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.12.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.288   Interim and ancillary orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or his designee may issue any interim or ancillary orders, or make any rulings or determinations to ensure that refund proceedings, including the actions of the administrator and the custodian of the funds involved in a refund proceeding, are conducted in an appropriate manner and are not unduly delayed. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="W" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart W—Electric Power System Permits and Reports; Applications; Administrative Procedures and Sanctions; Grid Security Emergency Orders</HEAD>

</DIV6>

<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control No. 1901-0245)
</APPRO>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101); Pub. L. 66-280, 41 Stat. 1063 (16 U.S.C. Section 792 <I>et seq.</I>); E.O. 10485, 18 FR 5397, 3 CFR, 1949-1953, Comp., p. 970 as amended by E.O. 12038, 43 FR 4957, 3 CFR 1978 Comp., p. 136; Department of Energy Delegation Order No. 00-002.00Q (Nov. 1, 2018).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 71560, Oct. 28, 1980; 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="5" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Application for Authorization to Transmit Electric Energy to a Foreign Country</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.300" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.300   Who shall apply.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="5">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) An electric utility or other entity subject to DOE jurisdiction under part II of the Federal Power Act who proposes to transmit any electricity from the United States to a foreign country must submit an application or be a party to an application submitted by another entity. The application shall be submitted to the Office of Utility Systems of the Economic Regulatory Administration (EPA).
</P>
<P>(b) In connection with an application under §§ 205.300 through 205.309, attention is directed to the provisions of §§ 205.320 through 205.327, below, concerning applications for Presidential Permits for the construction, connection, operation, or maintenance, at the borders of the United States, of facilities for the transmission of electric energy between the United States and a foreign country in compliance with Executive Order 10485, as amended by Executive Order 12038.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.301" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.301   Time of filing.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Each application should be made at least six months in advance of the initiation of the proposed electricity export, except when otherwise permitted by the ERA to resolve an emergency situation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.302" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.302   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Every application shall contain the following information set forth in the order indicated below:
</P>
<P>(a) The exact legal name of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) The exact legal name of all partners.
</P>
<P>(c) The name, title, post office address, and telephone number of the person to whom correspondence in regard to the application shall be addressed.
</P>
<P>(d) The state or territory under the laws of which the applicant is organized or incorporated, or authorized to operate. If the applicant is authorized to operate in more than one state, all pertinent facts shall be included.
</P>
<P>(e) The name and address of any known Federal, State or local government agency which may have any jurisdiction over the action to be taken in this application and a brief description of that authority.
</P>
<P>(f) A description of the transmission facilities through which the electric energy will be delivered to the foreign country, including the name of the owners and the location of any remote facilities.
</P>
<P>(g) A technical discussion of the proposed electricity export's reliability, fuel use and system stability impact on the applicant's present and prospective electric power supply system. Applicant must explain why the proposed electricity export will not impair the sufficiency of electric supply on its system and why the export will not impede or tend to impede the regional coordination of electric utility planning or operation. 
</P>
<P>(h) The original application shall be signed and verified under oath by an officer of the applicant having knowledge of the matters set forth therein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.303" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.303   Required exhibits.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>There shall be filed with the application and as a part thereof the following exhibits:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Exhibit A.</I> A copy of the agreement or proposed agreement under which the electricity is to be transmitted including a listing of the terms and conditions. If this agreement contains proprietary information that should not be released to the general public, the applicant must identify such data and include a statement explaining why proprietary treatment is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exhibit B.</I> A showing, including a signed opinion of counsel, that the proposed export of electricity is within the corporate power of the applicant, and that the applicant has complied or will comply with all pertinent Federal and State laws. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exhibit C.</I> A general map showing the applicant's overall electric system and a detailed map highlighting the location of the facilities or the proposed facilities to be used for the generation and transmission of the electric energy to be exported. The detailed map shall identify the location of the proposed border crossing point(s) or power transfer point(s) by Presidential Permit number whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exhibit D.</I> If an applicant resides or has its principal office outside the United States, such applicant shall designate, by irrevocable power of attorney, an agent residing within the United States. A verified copy of such power of attorney shall be furnished with the application.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exhibit E.</I> A statement of any corporate relationship or existing contract between the applicant and any other person, corporation, or foreign government, which in any way relates to the control or fixing of rates for the purchase, sale or transmission of electric energy.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exhibit F.</I> An explanation of the methodology (Operating Procedures) to inform neighboring electric utilities in the United States of the available capacity and energy which may be in excess of the applicant's requirements before delivery of such capacity to the foreign purchaser. Approved firm export, diversity exchange and emergency exports are exempted from this requirement. Those materials required by this section which have been filed previously with the ERA may be incorporated by reference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.304" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.304   Other information.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Where the application is for authority to export less than 1,000,000 kilowatt hours annually, applicants need not furnish the information called for in §§ 205.302(g) and 205.303 (Exhibit C). Applicants, regardless of the amount of electric energy to be exported, may be required to furnish such supplemental information as the ERA may deem pertinent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.305" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.305   Transferability.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) An authorization to transmit electric energy from the United States to a foreign country granted by order of the ERA under section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act shall not be transferable or assignable. Provided written notice is given to the ERA within 30 days, the authorization may continue in effect temporarily in the event of the involuntary transfer of this authority by operation of law (including transfers to receivers, trustees, or purchasers under foreclosure or judicial sale). This continuance is contingent on the filing of an application for permanent authorization and may be effective until a decision is made thereon.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event of a proposed voluntary transfer of this authority to export electricity, the transferee and the transferor shall file jointly an application pursuant to this subsection, setting forth such information as required by §§ 205.300 through 205.304, together with a statement of reasons for the transfer.
</P>
<P>(c) The ERA may at any time subsequent to the original order of authorization, after opportunity for hearing, issue such supplemental orders as it may find necessary or appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.306" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.306   Authorization not exclusive.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>No authorization granted pursuant to section 202(e) of the Act shall be deemed to prevent an authorization from being granted to any other person or entity to export electric energy or to prevent any other person or entity from making application for an export authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.307" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.307   Form and style; number of copies.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>An original and two conformed copies of an application containing the information required under §§ 205.300 through 205.309 must be filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.308" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.308   Filing schedule and annual reports.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) Persons authorized to transmit electric energy from the United States shall promptly file all supplements, notices of succession in ownership or operation, notices of cancellation, and certificates of concurrence. In general, these documents should be filed at least 30 days prior to the effective date of any change. 
</P>
<P>(b) A change in the tariff arrangement does not require an amendment to the authorization. However, any entity with an authorization to export electric energy shall file with the ERA, and the appropriate state regulatory agency, a certified copy of any changed rate schedule and terms. Such changes may take effect upon the date of filing of informational data with the ERA.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons receiving authorization to transmit electric energy from the United States shall submit to the ERA, by February 15 each year, a report covering each month of the preceding calendar year detailing the gross amount of kilowatt-hours of energy, by authorized category, received or delivered, and the cost and revenue associated with each category.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control No. 1901-0245)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 71560, Oct. 28, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.309" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.309   Filing procedures and fees.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260622" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 36975, June 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Applications shall be addressed to the Office of Utility Systems of the Economic Regulatory Administration. Every application shall be accompanied by a fee of $500.00. Fee payment shall be by check, draft, or money order payable to the Treasurer of the United States. Copies of applications and notifications of rate changes shall be furnished to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and all affected State public utility regulatory agencies.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 205.320-205.329" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 205.320-205.329   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Report of Major Electric Utility System Emergencies</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91 (42 U.S.C. 7101); Federal Power Act, Pub. L. 66-280 (16 U.S.C. 791 <I>et seq.</I>)
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 205.350 through 205.353 appear at 51 FR 39745, Oct. 31, 1986, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 205.350" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.350   General purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this rule is to establish a procedure for the Office of International Affairs and Energy Emergencies (IE) to obtain current information regarding emergency situations on the electric energy supply systems in the United States so that appropriate Federal emergency response measures can be implemented in a timely and effective manner. The data also may be utilized in developing legislative recommendations and reports to the Congress.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1901-0288)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.351" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.351   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this section, a report or a part of a report may be made jointly by two or more entities. Every electric utility or other entity engaged in the generation, transmission or distribution of electric energy for delivery and/or sale to the public shall report promptly, through the DOE Emergency Operations Center, by telephone, the occurrence of any event such as described in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. These reporting procedures are mandatory. Entities that fail to comply within 24 hours will be contacted and reminded of their reporting obligation.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Loss of Firm System Loads,</I> caused by:
</P>
<P>(1) Any load shedding actions resulting in the reduction of over 100 megawatts (MW) of <I>firm</I> customer load for reasons of maintaining the <I>continuity</I> of the bulk electric power supply system.
</P>
<P>(2) Equipment failures/system operational actions attributable to the loss of <I>firm</I> system loads for a period in excess of 15 minutes, as described below:
</P>
<P>(i) Reports from entities with a previous year recorded peak load of over 3000 MW are required for all such losses of <I>firm</I> loads which total over 300 MW.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reports from all other entities are required for all such losses of <I>firm</I> loads which total over 200 MW or 50 percent of the system load being supplied immediately prior to the incident, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(3) Other events or occurrences which result in a continuous interruption for 3 hours or longer to over 50,000 customers, or more than 50 percent of the total customers being served immediately prior to the interruption, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voltage Reductions or Public Appeals:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Reports are required for any anticipated or actual system voltage reductions of 3 percent or greater for purposes of maintaining the <I>continuity</I> of the bulk electric power supply system.
</P>
<P>(2) Reports are required for any issuance of a public appeal to reduce the use of electricity for purposes of maintaining the <I>continuity</I> of the bulk electric power system.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vulnerabilities that could Impact System Reliability:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Reports are required for any actual or suspected act(s) of physical sabotage (not vandalism) or terrorism directed at an electric power supply system, local or regional, in an attempt to either:
</P>
<P>(i) Disrupt or degrade the service reliability of the local or regional bulk electric power supply system, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Disrupt, degrade, or deny bulk electric power service to:
</P>
<P>(A) A specific facility (industrial, military, governmental, private), or
</P>
<P>(B) A specific service (transportation, communications), or
</P>
<P>(C) A specific locality (town, city, county).
</P>
<P>(2) Reports are required for any abnormal emergency system operating condition(s) or other event(s) which in the judgment of the reporting entity could or would constitute a hazard to maintaining the <I>continuity</I> of the bulk electric power supply system. Examples will be provided in the DOE pamphlet on reporting procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fuel Supply Emergencies:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Reports are required for any anticipated or existing fuel supply emergency situation which would threaten the <I>continuity</I> of the bulk electric power supply system, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Fuel stocks or hydro project water storage levels are at 50 percent (or less) of normal for that time of the year, and a continued downward trend is projected.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unscheduled emergency generation is dispatched causing an abnormal use of a particular fuel type, such that the future supply or stocks of that fuel could reach a level which threatens the reliability or adequacy of electric service.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1901-0288)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.352" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.6.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.352   Information to be reported.</HEAD>
<P>The emergency situation data shall be supplied to the DOE Emergency Operations Center in accordance with the current DOE pamphlet on reporting procedures. The initial report shall include the utility name; the area affected; the time of occurrence of the initiating event; the duration or an estimate of the likely duration; an estimate of the number of customers and amount of load involved; and whether any known critical services such as hospitals, military installations, pumping stations or air traffic control systems, were or are interrupted. To the extent known or reasonably suspected, the report shall include a description of the events initiating the disturbance. The DOE may require further clarification during or after restoration of service.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1901-0288)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.353" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.6.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.353   Special investigation and reports.</HEAD>
<P>If directed by the Director, Office of Energy Emergency Operations in writing and noticed in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a utility or other subject entity experiencing a condition described in § 205.351 above shall submit a full report of the technical circumstances surrounding a specific power system disturbance, including the restoration procedures utilized. The report shall be filed at such times as may be directed by the Director, Office of Energy Emergency Operations.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1901-0288)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="7" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Emergency Interconnection of Electric Facilities and the Transfer of Electricity To Alleviate an Emergency Shortage of Electric Power</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101). Federal Power Act, Pub. L. 66-280, 41 Stat. 1063 (16 U.S.C. 791(a))
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 205.370 through 205.379 appear at 46 FR 39987, Aug. 6, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 205.370" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.370   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 202(c) and 202(d) of the Federal Power Act are applicable to any “entity” which owns or operates electric power generation, transmission or distribution facilities. An “entity” is a private or public corporation (utility), a governmental agency, a municipality, a cooperative or a lawful association of the foregoing. Under this section, the DOE has the authority to order the temporary connection of facilities, or the generation or delivery of electricity, which it deems necessary to alleviate an emergency. Such orders shall be effective for the time specified and will be subject to the terms and conditions the DOE specifies. The DOE retains the right to cancel, modify or otherwise change any order, with or without notice, hearing, or report. Requests for action under these regulations will be accepted from any “entity,” State Public Utility Commission, State Energy Agency, or State Governor. Actions under these regulations also may be initiated by the DOE on its own motion. Orders under this authority may be made effective without prior notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.371" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.371   Definition of emergency.</HEAD>
<P>“Emergency,” as used herein, is defined as an unexpected inadequate supply of electric energy which may result from the unexpected outage or breakdown of facilities for the generation, transmission or distribution of electric power. Such events may be the result of weather conditions, acts of God, or unforeseen occurrences not reasonably within the power of the affected “entity” to prevent. An emergency also can result from a sudden increase in customer demand, an inability to obtain adequate amounts of the necessary fuels to generate electricity, or a regulatory action which prohibits the use of certain electric power supply facilities. Actions under this authority are envisioned as meeting a specific inadequate power supply situation. Extended periods of insufficient power supply as a result of inadequate planning or the failure to construct necessary facilities can result in an emergency as contemplated in these regulations. In such cases, the impacted “entity” will be expected to make firm arrangements to resolve the problem until new facilities become available, so that a continuing emergency order is not needed. Situations where a shortage of electric energy is projected due solely to the failure of parties to agree to terms, conditions or other economic factors relating to service, generally will not be considered as emergencies unless the inability to supply electric service is imminent. Where an electricity outage or service inadequacy qualifies for a section 202(c) order, contractual difficulties alone will not be sufficient to preclude the issuance of an emergency order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.372" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.372   Filing procedures; number of copies.</HEAD>
<P>An original and two conformed copies of the applications and reports required under §§ 205.370 through 205.379 shall be filed with the Division of Power Supply and Reliability, Department of Energy. Copies of all documents also shall be served on: 
</P>
<P>(a) The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission; 
</P>
<P>(b) Any State Regulatory Agency having responsibility for service standards, or rates of the “entities” that are affected by the requested order; 
</P>
<P>(c) Each “entity” suggested as a potential source for the requested emergency assistance; 
</P>
<P>(d) Any “entity” that may be a potential supplier of transmission services; 
</P>
<P>(e) All other “entities” not covered under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section which may be directly affected by the requested order; and 
</P>
<P>(f) The appropriate Regional Reliability Council.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.373" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.373   Application procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Every application for an emergency order shall set forth the following information as required. This information shall be considered by the DOE in determining that an emergency exists and in deciding to issue an order pursuant to sections 202(c) and 202(d) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P>(a) The exact legal name of the applicant and of all other “entities” named in the application.
</P>
<P>(b) The name, title, post office address, and telephone number of the person to whom correspondence in regard to the application shall be addressed.
</P>
<P>(c) The political subdivision in which each “entity” named in the application operates, together with a brief description of the area served and the business conducted in each location.
</P>
<P>(d) Each application for a section 202(c) order shall include the following baseline data:
</P>
<P>(1) Daily peak load and energy requirements for each of the past 30 days and projections for each day of the expected duration of the emergency;
</P>
<P>(2) All capacity and energy receipts or deliveries to other electric utilities for each of the past 30 days, indicating the classification for each transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) The status of all interruptible customers for each of the past 30 days and the anticipated status of these customers for each day of the expected duration of the emergency, assuming both the granting and the denial of the relief requested herein;
</P>
<P>(4) All scheduled capacity and energy receipts or deliveries to other electric utilities for each day of the expected duration of the emergency.
</P>
<P>(e) A description of the situation and a discussion of why this is an emergency, including any necessary background information. This should include any contingency plan of the applicant and the current level of implementation.
</P>
<P>(f) A showing that adequate electric service to firm customers cannot be maintained without additional power transfers.
</P>
<P>(g) A description of any conservation or load reduction actions that have been implemented. A discussion of the achieved or expected results or these actions should be included.
</P>
<P>(h) A description of efforts made to obtain additional power through voluntary means and the results of such efforts; and a showing that the potential sources of power and/or transmission services designated pursuant to paragraphs (i) through (k) of this section informed that the applicant believed that an emergency existed within the meaning of § 205.371.
</P>
<P>(i) A listing of proposed sources and amounts of power necessary from each source to alleviate the emergency and a listing of any other “entities” that may be directly affected by the requested order.
</P>
<P>(j) Specific proposals to compensate the supplying “entities” for the emergency services requested and to compensate any transmitting “entities” for services necessary to deliver such power.
</P>
<P>(k) A showing that, to the best of the applicant's knowledge, the requested relief will not unreasonably impair the reliability of any “entity” directly affected by the requested order to render adequate service to its customers.
</P>
<P>(l) Description of the facilities to be used to transfer the requested emergency service to the applicant's system.
</P>
<P>(1) If a temporary interconnection under the provisions of section 202(c) is proposed independently, the following additional information shall be supplied for each such interconnection: 
</P>
<P>(i) Proposed location; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Required thermal capacity or power transfer capability of the interconnection; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Type of emergency services requested, including anticipated duration; 
</P>
<P>(iv) An electrical one line diagram; 
</P>
<P>(v) A description of all necessary materials and equipment; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The projected length of time necessary to complete the interconnection.
</P>
<P>(2) If the requested emergency assistance is to be supplied over existing facilities, the following information shall be supplied for each existing interconnection: 
</P>
<P>(i) Location; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Thermal capacity of power transfer capability of interconnection facilities; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Type and duration of emergency services requested.
</P>
<P>(m) A general or key map on a scale not greater than 100 kilometers to the centimeter showing, in separate colors, the territory serviced by each “entity” named in the application; the location of the facilities to be used for the generation and transmission of the requested emergency service; and all connection points between systems.
</P>
<P>(n) An estimate of the construction costs of any proposed temporary facilities and a statement estimating the expected operation and maintenance costs on an annualized basis. (Not required on section 202(d) applications.)
</P>
<P>(o) Applicants may be required to furnish such supplemental information as the DOE may deem pertinent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.374" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.374   Responses from “entities” designated in the application.</HEAD>
<P>Each “entity” designated as a potential source of emergency assistance or as a potential supplier of transmission services and which has received a copy of the application under § 205.373, shall have three (3) calendar days from the time of receipt of the application to file the information designated below with the DOE. The DOE will grant extensions of the filing period when appropriate. The designated “entities” shall provide an analysis of the impact the requested action would have on its system reliability and its ability to supply its own interruptible and firm customers. The effects of the requested action on the ability to serve firm loads shall be clearly distinguished from the ability to serve contractually interruptible loads. The designated “entity” also may provide other information relevant to the requested action, which is not included in the reliability analysis. Copies of any response shall be provided to the applicant, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, any State Regulatory Agency having responsibility for service standards or rates of any “entity” that may be directly involved in the proposed action, and the appropriate Regional Electric Reliability Council. Pursuant to section 202(c) of the Federal Power Act, DOE may issue an emergency order even though a designated “entity” has failed to file a timely response.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.375" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.375   Guidelines defining inadequate fuel or energy supply.</HEAD>
<P>An inadequate utility system fuel inventory or energy supply is a matter of managerial and engineering judgment based on such factors as fuels in stock, fuels en route, transportation time, and constraints on available storage facilities. A system may be considered to have an inadequate fuel or energy supply capability when, combined with other conditions, the projected energy deficiency upon the applicant's system without emergency action by the DOE, will equal or exceed 10 percent of the applicant's then normal daily net energy for load, or will cause the applicant to be unable to meet its normal peak load requirements based upon use of all of its otherwise available resources so that it is unable to supply adequate electric service to its ultimate customers. The following conditions will be considered in determining that a system has inadequate fuel or energy supply capability:
</P>
<P>(1) System coal stocks are reduced to 30 days (or less) of normal burn days and a continued downward trend in stock is projected;
</P>
<P>(2) System residual oil stocks are reduced to 15 days (or less) of normal burn days and a continued downward trend in stocks is projected;
</P>
<P>(3) System distillate oil stocks which cannot be replaced by alternate fuels are reduced to 15 days (or less) of normal burn days and a continued downward trend in stocks is projected;
</P>
<P>(4) System natural gas deliveries which cannot be replaced by alternate fuels have been or will be reduced 20 percent below normal requirements and no improvement in natural gas deliveries is projected within 30 days;
</P>
<P>(5) Delays in nuclear fuel deliveries will extend a scheduled refueling shutdown by more than 30 days; and
</P>
<P>(6) Water supplies required for power generation have been reduced to the level where the future adequacy of the power supply may be endangered and no near term improvement in water supplies is projected.
</P>
<FP>The use of the prescribed criteria does not preclude an applicant from claiming the existence of an emergency when its stocks of fuel or water exceed the amounts and time frames specified above.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.376" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.376   Rates and charges.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and the generating or transmitting systems from which emergency service is requested are encouraged to utilize the rates and charges contained in approved existing rate schedules or to negotiate mutually satisfactory rates for the proposed transactions. In the event that the DOE determines that an emergency exists under section 202(c), and the “entities” are unable to agree on the rates to be charged, the DOE shall prescribe the conditions of service and refer the rate issues to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission for determination by that agency in accordance with its standards and procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.377" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.377   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the information specified below, the DOE may require additional reports as it deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(a) Where the DOE has authorized the temporary connection of transmission facilities, all “entities” whose transmission facilities are thus temporarily interconnected shall report the following information to the DOE within 15 days following completion of the interconnection:
</P>
<P>(1) The date the temporary interconnection was completed;
</P>
<P>(2) The location of the interconnection;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the interconnection; and
</P>
<P>(4) A one-line electric diagram of the interconnection.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the DOE orders the transfer of power, the “entity” receiving such service shall report the following information to the DOE by the 10th of each month for the preceding month's activity for as long as such order shall remain in effect:
</P>
<P>(1) Amounts of capacity and/or energy received each day;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the supplier;
</P>
<P>(3) The name of any “entity” supplying transmission services; and
</P>
<P>(4) Preliminary estimates of the associated costs.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the DOE has approved the installation of permanent facilities that will be used only during emergencies, any use of such facilities shall be reported to the DOE within 24 hours. Details of such usage shall be furnished as deemed appropriate by the DOE after such notification.
</P>
<P>(d) Any substantial change in the information provided under § 205.373 shall be promptly reported to the DOE.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control No. 1904-0066)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 39989, Aug. 6, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.378" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.378   Disconnection of temporary facilities.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the termination of any emergency for the mitigation of which the DOE ordered the construction of temporary facilities, such facilities shall be disconnected and any temporary construction removed or otherwise disposed of, unless application is made as provided in § 205.379 for permanent connection for emergency use. This disconnection and removal of temporary facilities shall be accomplished within 30 days of the termination of the emergency unless an extension is granted by the DOE. The DOE shall be notified promptly when such removal of facilities is completed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.379" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.7.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.379   Application for approval of the installation of permanent facilities for emergency use only.</HEAD>
<P>Application for DOE approval of a permanent connection for emergency use only shall conform with the requirements in § 205.373. However, the baseline data specified in § 205.373(d) need not be included in an application made under this section. In addition, the application shall state in full the reasons why such permanent connection for emergency use is in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Internal Procedures for Issuance of a Grid Security Emergency Order</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 205.380 through 205.391 were added at 83 FR 1180, Jan. 10, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 205.380" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.380   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Bulk-power system</I> means the same as the definition of such term in paragraph (1) of section 215(a) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P><I>Critical electric infrastructure</I> means the same as the definition of such term in paragraph (2) of section 215A(a) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P><I>Defense critical electric infrastructure</I> means the same as the definition of such term in paragraph (4) of section 215A(a) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Electric Reliability Organization</I> means the same as the definition of such term in paragraph (2) of section 215(a) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P><I>Electricity Information Sharing and Analysis Center</I> (E-ISAC) means the organization, operated on behalf of the electricity subsector by the Electric Reliability Organization, that gathers and analyzes security information, coordinates incident management, and communicates mitigation strategies with stakeholders within the electricity subsector, across interdependent sectors, and with government partners. The E-ISAC, in collaboration with the Department of Energy and the Electricity Subsector Coordinating Council, serves as the primary security communications channel for the electricity subsector and enhances the subsector's ability to prepare for and respond to cyber and physical threats, vulnerabilities, and incidents.
</P>
<P><I>Electricity subsector</I> means both commercial and industrial actors who generate and deliver electric power.
</P>
<P><I>Electricity Subsector Coordinating Council</I> (ESCC) means the organization that aims to foster and facilitate the coordination of sector-wide, policy-related activities and initiatives designed to improve the reliability and resilience of the electricity subsector, including physical and cyber security infrastructure.
</P>
<P><I>Electromagnetic pulse</I> means the same as the definition of such term in paragraph (5) of section 215A(a) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency &amp; Incident Management Council</I> (EIMC) means the organization, internal to the Department of Energy and chaired by the Deputy Secretary of Energy, designed to increase cooperation and coordination across the Department to prepare for, mitigate, respond to, and recover from emergencies.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency measures</I> means measures necessary in the judgment of the Secretary to protect or restore the reliability of critical electric infrastructure or of defense critical electric infrastructure during a grid security emergency as defined in section 215A(a) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency order</I> means an order for emergency measures under section 215A(b) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P><I>Geomagnetic storm</I> means a temporary disturbance of the Earth's magnetic field resulting from solar activity.
</P>
<P><I>Grid security emergency</I> means the same as the definition of such term in paragraph (7) of section 215A(a) of the Federal Power Act. A grid security emergency is “declared” once the President of the United States has issued and provided to the Secretary a written directive or determination identifying the emergency.
</P>
<P><I>Regional entity</I> means an entity having enforcement authority under section 215(e)(4) of the Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 824o(e)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.381" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.381   Applicability of emergency orders.</HEAD>
<P>An order for emergency measures under section 215A(b) of the Federal Power Act (emergency order) may apply to the Electric Reliability Organization, a regional entity or entities, or any owner, user, or operator of critical electric infrastructure or of defense critical electric infrastructure within the United States. Emergency measures may be issued if deemed necessary in the judgment of the Secretary to protect or restore the reliability of critical electric infrastructure or of defense critical electric infrastructure during a presidentially-declared grid security emergency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.382" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.382   Issuing an emergency order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary will use the procedures outlined in this section in issuing emergency orders, unless the Secretary determines that alternative procedures are more appropriate for the unique circumstances presented by the emergency. In all instances, the Secretary has final authority on the procedures to be used in issuing an emergency order.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the Department's receipt of the President's written directive or determination identifying a grid security emergency, the Emergency &amp; Incident Management Council (EIMC) will convene at least one emergency meeting. Resulting from this meeting, the EIMC's responsibilities will include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Assigning consultation and situational awareness tasks;
</P>
<P>(2) Creating ad hoc task groups;
</P>
<P>(3) Assigning recommendation development tasks to the ad hoc task groups it has created; and
</P>
<P>(4) Presenting its recommendations to the Secretary as expeditiously as possible and practicable.
</P>
<P>(c) Following receipt of the EIMC's recommendations, unless the Secretary has determined alternative procedures are appropriate, the Secretary will issue an emergency order as quickly as the Secretary determines that the situation requires.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.383" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.383   Consultation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To obtain information related to a particular grid security emergency and recommended emergency measures from those government entities, electric reliability organizations, and private sector companies, and their respective associations where applicable, affected by the emergency, the office that is delegated the authority by the Secretary will conduct consultation related to each emergency order. Before an emergency order is put into effect and, to the extent practicable in light of the nature of the grid security emergency and the urgency of the need for action, efforts will be made to consult with at least the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The Electricity Subsector Coordinating Council;
</P>
<P>(2) The Electricity Information Sharing and Analysis Center;
</P>
<P>(3) The Electric Reliability Organization;
</P>
<P>(4) Regional entities; and
</P>
<P>(5) Owners, users, or operators of critical electric infrastructure or of defense critical electric infrastructure within the United States; and
</P>
<P>(6) At least the following government entities:
</P>
<P>(i) Authorities in the government of Canada;
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorities in the government of Mexico;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate Federal and State agencies including, but not limited to, those supporting Emergency Support Function No. 12;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission; and
</P>
<P>(v) The Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department recognizes the expertise of electric grid owners and operators and other consulted entities in seeking to ensure that emergency orders result in the safe and effective operation of the electric grid, align with additional priorities including evidence collection, and comply with existing regulatory requirements, where required. The Department will endeavor, to the extent practicable, to conduct consultation in alignment with the existing Emergency Support Function No. 12 structure and established emergency management processes under the National Response Framework.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 1180, Jan. 10, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 3232, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.384" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.384   Communication of orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Department will communicate the contents of an emergency order to the entities subject to the order, utilizing the most expedient form or forms of communication under the circumstances. The Department will attempt to conduct communication of emergency orders in alignment with the existing Emergency Support Function No. 12 structure and established emergency management procedures under the National Response Framework by relying on existing coordinating bodies, such as the ESCC and the E-ISAC, and, recognizing the existence of established crisis communication procedures, any other form or forms of communication most expedient under the particular circumstances. To the extent practicable under the particular circumstances, efforts will be made to declassify eligible information to ensure maximum distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.385" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.385   Clarification or reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any entity subject to an emergency order may request clarification or reconsideration of the emergency order. All such requests must be submitted in writing to the Secretary. The Department will post all such requests on the DOE website consistent with 10 CFR part 1004. To the extent the ordered entity believes the grid security emergency order lacks necessary clarity for implementation, or conflicts with the technically feasible operations of the electric grid or existing regulatory requirements, the ordered entity should seek immediate clarification from the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a request for clarification or reconsideration, the Secretary may, in his or her sole discretion, order a stay of the emergency order for which such clarification or rehearing is sought. The Secretary will act as soon as practicable on each request, with or without further proceedings. Such responsive actions may include granting or denying the request or abrogating or modifying the order, in whole or in part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.386" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.386   Temporary access to classified and sensitive information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent practicable, and consistent with obligations to protect classified and sensitive information, the Secretary may provide temporary access to classified and sensitive information, at the level necessary in light of the conditions of the incident, related to a grid security emergency for which emergency measures are issued to key personnel of any entity subject to such emergency measures, to the extent the Secretary deems necessary under the circumstances. The purpose of this access, as defined under section 215A(b)(7) of the Federal Power Act, is to enable optimum communication between the entity and the Secretary and other appropriate Federal agencies regarding the grid security emergency.
</P>
<P>(b) CEII will be shared, where deemed necessary by the Secretary, in accordance with 10 CFR part 1004.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.387" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.387   Tracking compliance.</HEAD>
<P>Beginning at the time the Secretary issues an emergency order, the Department may, at the discretion of the Secretary, require the entity or entities subject to an emergency order to provide a detailed account of actions taken to comply with the terms of the emergency order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.388" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.388   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with available enforcement authorities, the Secretary may take or seek enforcement action against any entity subject to an emergency order who fails to comply with the terms of that emergency order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.389" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.389   Rehearing and judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures of Part III of the Federal Power Act apply to motions for rehearing of an emergency order. A request for clarification or reconsideration filed under § 205.385 of this subpart, if the filling entity so designates, may serve as a request for rehearing pursuant to section 313(a) of the Federal Power Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.390" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.390   Liability exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent any action or omission taken by an entity that is necessary to comply with an emergency order issued pursuant to section 215A(b)(1) of the Federal Power Act and this Part, including any action or omission taken to voluntarily comply with such order, results in noncompliance with, or causes such entity not to comply with any rule, order, regulation, or provision of or under the Federal Power Act, including any reliability standard approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to section 215 of the Federal Power Act, the Department will not consider such action or omission to be a violation of such rule, order, regulation, or provision.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department will treat an action or omission by an owner, operator, or user of critical electric infrastructure or of defense critical electric infrastructure to comply with an emergency order issued pursuant to section 215A(b)(1) of the Federal Power Act as the functional equivalent of an action or omission taken to comply with an order issued under section 202(c) of the Federal Power Act for purposes of section 202(c).
</P>
<P>(c) The liability exemptions specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to an entity that, in the course of complying with an emergency order by taking an action or omission for which the entity would otherwise be liable, takes such action or omission in a grossly negligent manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.391" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.3.14.8.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.391   Termination of an emergency order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An emergency order will expire no later than 15 days after its issuance. The Secretary may reissue an emergency order for subsequent periods, not to exceed 15 days for each such period, provided that the President, for each such period, issues and provides to the Secretary a written directive or determination that the grid security emergency for which the Secretary intends to reissue an emergency order continues to exist or that the emergency measures continue to be required.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary may rescind an emergency order after finding that the grid security emergency for which that order was issued has ended, and that protective or mitigation measures required by that order have been sufficiently taken.
</P>
<P>(c) An entity or entities subject to an emergency order issued under this subpart may, at any time, request termination of the emergency order by demonstrating, in a petition to the Secretary, that the emergency no longer exists and that protective or mitigation measures required by the order have been sufficiently taken.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="207" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 207—COLLECTION OF INFORMATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 787 <I>et seq.;</I> 15 U.S.C. 791 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 18409, Apr. 28, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Collection of Information Under the Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to set forth the manner of enforcement regarding the collection of energy information which the Administrator is authorized to obtain by sections 11 (a) and (b) of ESECA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 20758, May 16, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Federal Energy Administrator of his delegate. 
</P>
<P><I>Energy information</I> includes all information in whatever form on (1) fuel reserves, exploration, extraction, and energy resources (including petrochemical feedstocks) wherever located; (2) production, distribution, and consumption of energy and fuels, wherever carried on; and (3) matters relating to energy and fuels such as corporate structure and proprietary relationships, costs, prices, capital investment, and assets, and other matters directly related thereto, wherever they exist. 
</P>
<P><I>ESECA</I> means the Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-319). 
</P>
<P><I>EPAA</I> means the Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-159). 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any natural person, corporation, partnership, association, consortium, or any entity organized for a common business purpose, wherever situated, domiciled, or doing business, who directly or through other persons subject to their control does business in any part of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in the geographical sense, means the States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the territories and possessions of the United States. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 207.3-207.4" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 207.3-207.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.5" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.5   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Any practice that circumvents or contravenes or results in a circumvention or contravention of the requirements outlined in the ESECA or any order issued pursuant thereto is a violation of the DOE regulations stated in this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 20758, May 16, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.6" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.6   Notice of probable violation and remedial order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) This section establishes the procedures for determining the nature and extent of violations of this subpart and the procedures for issuance of a notice of probable violation, a remedial order or a remedial order for immediate compliance. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the DOE discovers that there is reason to believe a violation of any provision of this subpart, or any order issued thereunder, has occurred, is continuing or is about to occur, the DOE may conduct proceedings to determine the nature and extent of the violation and may issue a remedial order thereafter. The DOE may commence such proceeding by serving a notice of probable violation or by issuing a remedial order for immediate compliance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of probable violation.</I> (1) The DOE may begin a proceeding under this subpart by issuing a notice of probable violation if the DOE has reason to believe that a violation has occurred, is continuing, or is about to occur. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 days of the service of a notice of probable violation, the person upon whom the notice is served may file a reply with the DOE office that issued the notice of probable violation at the address provided in § 205.12 of this chapter. The DOE may extend the 10-day period for good cause shown. 
</P>
<P>(3) The reply shall be in writing and signed by the person filing it. The reply shall contain a full and complete statement of all relevant facts pertaining to the act or transaction that is the subject of the notice of probable violation. Such facts shall include a complete statement of the business or other reasons that justify the act or transaction, it appropriate; a detailed description of the act or transaction; and a full discussion of the pertinent provisions and relevant facts reflected in any documents submitted with the reply. Copies of all relevant documents shall be submitted with the reply. 
</P>
<P>(4) The reply shall include a discussion of all relevant authorities, including, but not limited to, DOE rulings, regulations, interpretations, and decisions on appeals and exceptions relied upon to support the particular position taken. 
</P>
<P>(5) The reply should indicate whether the person requests or intends to request a conference regarding the notice. Any request not made at the time of the reply shall be made as soon thereafter as possible to insure that the conference is held when it will be most beneficial. A request for a conference must conform to the requirements of subpart M of part 205 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(6) If a person has not filed a reply with the DOE within the 10-day period provided, and the DOE has not extended the 10-day period, the person shall be deemed to have conceded the accuracy of the factual allegations and legal conclusions stated in the notice of probable violation. 
</P>
<P>(7) If the DOE finds, after the 10-day period provided in § 207.6(b)(2), that no violation has occurred, is continuing, or is about to occur, or that for any reason the issuance of a remedial order would not be appropriate, it shall notify, in writing, the person to whom a notice of probable violation has been issued that the notice is rescinded. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remedial order.</I> (1) If the DOE finds, after the 10-day period provided in § 207.6(b)(2), that a violation has occurred, is continuing, or is about to occur, the DOE may issue a remedial order. The order shall include a written opinion setting forth the relevant facts and the legal basis of the remedial order. 
</P>
<P>(2) A remedial order issued under this subpart shall be effective upon issuance, in accordance with its terms, until stayed, suspended, modified or rescinded. The DOE may stay, suspend, modify or rescind a remedial order on its own initiative or upon application by the person to whom the remedial order is issued. Such action and application shall be in accordance with the procedures for such proceedings provided for in part 205 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) A remedial order may be referred at any time to the Department of Justice for appropriate action in accordance with § 207.7. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Remedial order for immediate compliance.</I> (1) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the DOE may issue a remedial order for immediate compliance, which shall be effective upon issuance and until rescinded or suspended, if it finds: 
</P>
<P>(i) There is a strong probability that a violation has occurred, is continuing or is about to occur; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Irreparable harm will occur unless the violation is remedied immediately; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The public interest requires the avoidance of such irreparable harm through immediate compliance and waiver of the procedures afforded under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) A remedial order for immediate compliance shall be served promptly upon the person against whom such order is issued by telex or telegram, with a copy served by registered or certified mail. The copy shall contain a written statement of the relevant facts and the legal basis for the remedial order for immediate compliance, including the findings required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) The DOE may rescind or suspend a remedial order for immediate compliance if it appears that the criteria set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section are no longer satisfied. When appropriate, however, such a suspension or rescission may be accompanied by a notice of probable violation issued under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) If at any time in the course of a proceeding commenced by a notice of probable violation the criteria set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section are satisfied, the DOE may issue a remedial order for immediate compliance, even if the 10-day period for reply specified in § 207.6(b)(2) of this part has not expired. 
</P>
<P>(5) At any time after a remedial order for immediate compliance has become effective the DOE may refer such order to the Department of Justice for appropriate action in accordance with § 207.7 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Remedies.</I> A remedial order or a remedial order for immediate compliance may require the person to whom it is directed to take such action as the DOE determines is necessary to eliminate or to compensate for the effects of a violation. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appeal.</I> (1) No notice of probable violation issued pursuant to this subpart shall be deemed to be an action of which there may be an administrative appeal. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any person to whom a remedial order or a remedial order for immediate compliance is issued under this subpart may file an appeal with the DOE Office of Exceptions and Appeals in accordance with the procedures for such appeal provided in subpart H of part 205 of this chapter. The appeal must be filed within 10 days of service of the order from which the appeal is taken. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.7" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.7   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Penalties and sanctions shall be deemed cumulative and not mutually exclusive. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each day that a violation of the provisions of this subpart or any order issued pursuant thereto continues shall be deemed to constitute a separate violation within the meaning of the provisions of this subpart relating to criminal fines and civil penalties. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criminal penalties.</I> Any person who willfully violates any provision of this subpart or any order issued pursuant thereto shall be subject to a fine of not more than $5,000 for each violation. Criminal violations are prosecuted by the Department of Justice upon referral by the DOE. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Civil penalties.</I> (1) Any person who violates any provision of this subpart or any order issued pursuant thereto shall be subject to a civil penalty of not more than $13,273 for each violation.  Actions for civil penalties are prosecuted by the Department of Justice upon referral by the DOE. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the DOE considers it to be appropriate or advisable, the DOE may compromise and settle, and collect civil penalties. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 18409, Apr. 28, 1975, as amended at 62 FR 46183, Sept. 2, 1997; 74 FR 66032, Dec. 14, 2009; 81 FR 41793, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96351, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1291, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66082, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 829, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2955, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1063, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2192, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1027, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105405, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.8" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.8   Judicial actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement of subpoenas; contempt.</I> Any United States district court within the jurisdiction of which any inquiry is carried on may, upon petition by the Attorney General at the request of the Administrator, in the case of refusal to obey a subpoena or order of the Administrator issued under this subpart, issue an order requiring compliance. Any failure to obey such an order of the court may be punished by the court as contempt. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Injunctions.</I> Whenever it appears to the Administrator that any person has engaged, is engaged, or is about to engage in any act or practice constituting a violation of any regulation or order issued under this subpart, the Administrator may request the Attorney General to bring a civil action in the appropriate district court of the United States to enjoin such acts or practices and, upon a proper showing, a temporary restraining order or preliminary or permanent injunction shall be granted without bond. The relief sought may include a mandatory injunction commanding any person to comply with any provision of such order or regulation, the violation of which is prohibited by section 12(a) of ESECA, as implemented by this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.9" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.4.1.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.9   Exceptions, exemptions, interpretations, rulings and rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for exceptions, exemptions or requests for interpretations relating to this subpart shall be filed in accordance with the procedures provided in subparts D, E and F, respectively, of part 205 of this chapter. Rulings shall be issued in accordance with the procedures of subpart K of part 205 of this chapter. Rulemakings shall be undertaken in accordance with the procedures provided in subpart L of part 205 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="209" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 209—INTERNATIONAL VOLUNTARY AGREEMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 6754, Feb. 13, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements the provisions of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA) authorizing the Administrator to prescribe standards and procedures by which persons engaged in the business of producing, transporting, refining, distributing, or storing petroleum may develop and carry out voluntary agreements, and plans of action which are required to implement the information and allocation provisions of the International Energy Program (IEP). The requirements of this part do not apply to activities other than those for which section 252 of EPCA makes available a defense to the antitrust laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.1.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.2   Delegation.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent otherwise permitted by law, any authority, duty, or responsibility vested in DOE or the Administrator under these regulations may be delegated to any regular full-time employee of the Department of Energy, and, by agreement, to any regular full-time employee of the Department of Justice or the Department of State. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.1.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information and allocation provisions of the International Energy Program</I> means the provisions of chapter V of the Program relating to the Information System, and the provisions at chapters III and IV thereof relating to the international allocation of petroleum. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>International Energy Agency</I> (IEA) means the International Energy Agency established by Decision of the Council of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development, dated November 15, 1974. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International Energy Program</I> (IEP) means the program established pursuant to the Agreement on an International Energy Program signed at Paris on November 18, 1974, including (1) the Annex entitled “Emergency Reserves”, (2) any amendment to such Agreement which includes another nation as a Party to such Agreement, and (3) any technical or clerical amendment to such Agreement. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>International energy supply emergency</I> means any period (1) beginning on any date which the President determines allocation of petroleum products to nations participating in the international energy program is required by chapters III and IV of such program, and (2) ending on a date on which he determines such allocation is no longer required. Such a period shall not exceed 90 days, except where the President establishes one or more additional periods by making the determination under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Potential participant</I> means any person engaged in the business of producing, transporting, refining, distributing, or storing petroleum products; “participant” means any such person who agrees to participate in a voluntary agreement pursuant to a request to do so by the Administrator. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Petroleum</I> or <I>petroleum products</I> means crude oil, residual fuel oil, or any refined petroleum product (including any natural gas liquid and any natural gas liquid product). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Development of Voluntary Agreements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.21" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.21   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes the standards and procedures by which persons engaged in the business of producing, transporting, refining, distributing. or storing petroleum products shall develop voluntary agreements which are required to implement the allocation and information provisions of the International Energy Program. 
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart does not apply to meetings of bodies created by the International Energy Agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.22" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.2.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.22   Initiation of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any meeting held for the purpose of developing a voluntary agreement involving two or more potential participants shall be initiated and chaired by the Administrator or other regular full-time Federal employee designated by him. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall provide notice of meetings held pursuant to this subpart, in writing, to the Attorney General, the Federal Trade Commission, and to the Speaker of the House and the President of the Senate for delivery to the appropriate committees of Congress, and to the public through publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such notice shall identify the time, place, and agenda of the meeting, and such other matters as the Administrator deems appropriate. Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> shall be published at least seven days prior to the date of the meeting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.23" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.2.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.23   Conduct of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Meetings to develop a voluntary agreement held pursuant to this subpart shall be open to all interested persons. Interested persons desiring to attend meetings under this subpart may be required pursuant to notice to advise the Administrator in advance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Interested persons may, as set out in notice provided by the Administrator, present data, views, and arguments orally and in writing, subject to such reasonable limitations with respect to the manner of presentation as the Administrator may impose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.24" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.2.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.24   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall keep a verbatim transcript of any meeting held pursuant to this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) (2) through (4) of this section, potential participants shall keep a full and complete record of any communications (other than in a meeting held pursuant to this subpart) between or among themselves for the purpose of developing a voluntary agreement under this part. When two or more potential participants are involved in such a communication, they may agree among themselves who shall keep such record. Such record shall include the names of the parties to the communication and the organizations, if any, which they represent; the date of the communication; the means of communication; and a description of the communication in sufficient detail to convey adequately its substance. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where any communication is written (including, but not limited to, telex, telegraphic, telecopied, microfilmed and computer printout material), and where such communication demonstrates on it face that the originator or some other source furnished a copy of the communication to the Office of International Affairs, Department of Energy with the notation “Voluntary Agreement” marked on the first page of the document, no participant need record such a communication or send a further copy to the Department of Energy. The Department of Energy may, upon written notice to potential participants, from time to time, or with reference to particular types of documents, require deposit with other offices or officials of the Department of Energy. Where such communication demonstrates that it was sent to the Office of International Affairs, Department of Energy with the notation “Voluntary Agreement” marked on the first page of the document, or such other offices or officials in the Department of Energy has designated pursuant to this section it shall satisfy paragraph (c) of this section, for the purpose of deposit with the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that any communication is procedural, administrative or ministerial (for example, if it involves the location of a record, the place of a meeting, travel arrangements, or similar matters), only a brief notation of the date, time, persons involved and description of the communication need be recorded. 
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent that any communication involves matters which recapitulate matters already contained in a full and complete record, the substance of such matters shall be identified, but need not be recorded in detail, provided that reference is made to the record and the portion thereof in which the substance is fully set out. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except where the Department of Energy otherwise provides, all records and transcripts prepared pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, shall be deposited within fifteen (15) days after the close of the month of their preparation together with any agreement resulting therefrom, with the Department of Energy, and shall be available to the Department of Justice, the Federal Trade Commission, and the Department of State. Such records and transcripts shall be available for public inspection and copying to the extent set forth in subpart D. Any person depositing material pursuant to this section shall indicate with particularity what portions, if any, the person believes are subject to disclosure to the public pursuant to subpart D and the reasons for such belief. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any meeting between a potential participant and an official of DOE for the purpose of developing a voluntary agreement shall, if not otherwise required to be recorded pursuant to this section, be recorded by such official as provided in § 204.5. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control No. 1905-0079)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; E. O. 11930, 41 FR 32397; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163; E.O. 11912, 41 FR 15825; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; 91 Stat. 565; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6754, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 43 FR 12854, Mar. 28, 1978; 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Carrying Out of Voluntary Agreements and Developing and Carrying Out of Plans of Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.31" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.3.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.31   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes the standards and procedures by which persons engaged in the business of producing, transporting, refining, distributing, or storing petroleum products shall carry out voluntary agreements and develop and carry out plans of action which are required to implement the allocation and information provisions of the International Energy Program. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.32" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.3.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.32   Initiation of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for meetings of bodies created by the International Energy Agency, any meeting among participants in a voluntary agreement pursuant to this subpart, for the purpose of carrying out such voluntary agreement or developing or carrying out a plan of action pursuant thereto, shall be initiated and chaired by a full-time Federal employee designated by the Administrator. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the Administrator shall provide notice of meetings held pursuant to this subpart, in writing, to the Attorney General, the Federal Trade Commission, and to the Speaker of the House and the President of the Senate for delivery to the appropriate committees of Congress. Except during an international energy supply emergency, notice shall also be provided to the public through publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such notice shall identify the time, place, and agenda of the meeting. Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> shall be published at least seven days prior to the date of the meeting unless emergency circumstances, IEP requirements or other unanticipated circumstances require the period to be shortened. 
</P>
<P>(c) During an international energy supply emergency, advance notice shall be given to the Attorney General, the Federal Trade Commission and to the Speaker of the House and the President of the Senate for delivery to the appropriate committees of Congress. Such notice may be telephonic or by such other means as practicable, and shall be confirmed in writing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.33" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.3.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.33   Conduct of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, meetings held to carry out a voluntary agreement, or to develop or carry out a plan of action pursuant to this subpart, shall be open to all interested persons, subject to limitations of space. Interested persons desiring to attend meetings under this subpart may be required to advise the Administrator in advance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Interested persons permitted to attend meetings under this section may present data, views, and arguments orally and in writing, subject to such limitations with respect to the manner of presentation as the Administrator may impose. 
</P>
<P>(c) Meetings held pursuant to this subpart shall not be open to the public to the extent that the President or his delegate finds that disclosure of the proceedings beyond those authorized to attend would be detrimental to the foreign policy interests of the United States, and determines, in consultation with the Administrator, the Secretary of State, and the Attorney General, that a meeting shall not be open to interested persons or that attendance by interested persons shall be limited. 
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of this section do not apply to meetings of bodies created by the International Energy Agency except that no participant in a voluntary agreement may attend any meeting of any such body held to carry out a voluntary agreement or to develop or to carry out a plan of action unless a full-time Federal employee is present. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.34" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.3.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.34   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator or his delegate shall keep a verbatim transcript of any meeting held pursuant to this subpart except where (1) due to considerations of time or other overriding circumstances, the keeping of a verbatim transcript is not practicable, or (2) principal participants in the meeting are representatives of foreign governments. If any such record other than a verbatim transcript, is kept by a designee who is not a full-time Federal employee, that record shall be submitted to the full-time Federal employee in attendance at the meeting who shall review the record, promptly make any changes he deems necessary to make the record full and complete, and shall notify the designee of such changes. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) (2) through (4) of this section, participants shall keep a full and complete record of any communication (other than in a meeting held pursuant to this subpart) between or among themselves or with any other member of a petroleum industry group created by the International Energy Agency, or subgroup thereof for the purpose of carrying out a voluntary agreement or developing or carrying out a plan of action under this subpart, except that where there are several communications within the same day involving the same participants, they may keep a cumulative record for the day. The parties to a communication may agree among themselves who shall keep such record. Such record shall include the names of the parties to the communication and the organizations, if any, which they represent; the date of communication; the means of communication, and a description of the communication in sufficient detail to convey adequately its substance. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where any communication is written (including, but not limited to, telex, telegraphic, telecopied, microfilmed and computer printout material), and where such communication demonstrates on its face that the originator or some other source furnished a copy of the communication to the Office of International Affairs, Department of Energy with the notation “Voluntary Agreement” on the first page of the document, no participants need record such a communication or send a further copy to the Department of Energy. The Department of Energy may, upon written notice to participants, from time to time, or with reference to particular types of documents, require deposit with other offices or officials of the Department of Energy. Where such communication demonstrates that it was sent to the Office of International Affairs, Department of Energy with the notation “Voluntary Agreement” on the first page of the document, or such other offices or officials as the Department of Energy has designated pursuant to this section, it shall satisfy paragraph (c) of this section, for the purpose of deposit with the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that any communication is procedural, administrative or ministerial (for example, if it involves the location of a record, the place of a meeting, travel arrangements, or similar matters) only a brief notation of the date, time, persons involved and description of the communication need be recorded; except that during an IEA emergency allocation exercise or an allocation systems test such a non-substantive communication between members of the Industry Supply Advisory Group (ISAG) which occur within IEA headquarters need not be recorded. 
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent that any communication involves matters which recapitulate matters already contained in a full and complete record, the substance of such matters shall be identified, but need not be recorded in detail, provided that reference is made to the record and the portion thereof in which the substance is fully set out. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except where the Department of Energy otherwise provides, all records and transcripts prepared pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, shall be deposited within seven (7) days after the close of the week (ending Saturday) of their preparation during an international energy supply emergency or a test of the IEA emergency allocation system, and within fifteen (15) days after the close of the month of their preparation during periods of non-emergency, together with any agreement resulting therefrom, with the Department of Energy and shall be available to the Department of Justice, the Federal Trade Commission, and the Department of State. Such records and transcripts shall be available for public inspection and copying to the extent set forth in subpart D. Any person depositing materials pursuant to this section shall indicate with particularity what portions, if any, the person believes are not subject to disclosure to the public pursuant to subpart D and the reasons for such belief. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any meeting between a participant and an official of DOE for the purpose of carrying out a voluntary agreement or developing or carrying out a plan of action shall, if not otherwise required to be recorded pursuant to this section, be recorded by such official as provided in § 204.5. 
</P>
<P>(e) During international oil allocation under chapters III and IV of the IEP or during an IEA allocation systems test, the Department of Energy may issue such additional guidelines amplifying the requirements of these regulations as the Department of Energy determines to be necessary and appropriate. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control No. 1905-0067)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; E.O. 11930, 41 FR 32397; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163; E.O. 11912, 41 FR 15825; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 6754, Feb. 13, 1976, as amended at 43 FR 12854, Mar. 28, 1978; 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Availability of Information Relating to Meetings and Communications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.41" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.5.4.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.41   Availability of information relating to meetings and communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, records or transcripts prepared pursuant to this subpart shall be available for public inspection and copying in accordance with section 552 of title 5, United States Code and part 202 of this title. 
</P>
<P>(b) Matter may be withheld from disclosure under section 552(b) of title 5 only on the grounds specified in: 
</P>
<P>(1) Section 552(b)(1), applicable to matter specifically required by Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of the national defense or foreign policy. This section shall be interpreted to include matter protected under Executive Order No. 11652 of March 8, 1972, establishing categories and criteria for classification, as well as any other such orders dealing specifically with disclosure of IEP related materials; 
</P>
<P>(2) Section 552(b)(3), applicable to matter specifically exempted from disclosure by statute; and 
</P>
<P>(3) So much of section 552(b)(4) as relates to trade secrets. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="210" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 210—GENERAL ALLOCATION AND PRICE RULES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, E.O. 11748, 38 FR 33577; Economic Stabilization Act of 1970, as amended, Pub. L. 92-210, 85 Stat. 743; Pub. L. 93-28, 87 Stat. 27; E.O. 11748, 38 FR 33575; Cost of Living Council Order Number 47, 39 FR 24. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.6.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.1   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The recordkeeping requirements that were in effect on January 27, 1981, in parts 210, 211, and 212 will remain in effect for (1) all transactions prior to February 1, 1981; and (2) all allowed expenses incurred and paid prior to April 1, 1981 under § 212.78 of part 212. These requirements include, but are not limited to, the requirements that were in effect on January 27, 1981, in § 210.92 of this part; in §§ 211.67(a)(5)(ii); 211.89; 211.109, 211.127; and 211.223 of part 211; and in §§ 212.78(h)(5)(ii); 212.78(h)(6); 212.83(c)(2)(iii)(E)(I); 212.83(c)(2)(iii)(E)(II); 212.83(c)(2)(iii); “F<E T="52">i</E> t”; 212.83(i); 212.93(a); 212.93(b)(4)(iii)(B)(I); 212.93(i)(4); 212.94(b)(2)(iii); 212.128; 212.132; 212.172; and § 212.187 of part 212.
</P>
<P>(b) Effective February 5, 1985, paragraph (a) of this section shall apply, to the extent indicated, only to firms in the following categories. A firm may be included in more than one category, and a firm may move from one category to another. The fact that a firm becomes no longer subject to the recordkeeping requirements of one category shall not relieve that firm of compliance with the recordkeeping requirements of any other category in which the firm is still included.
</P>
<P>(1) Those firms which are or become parties in litigation with DOE, as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Any such firm shall remain subject to paragraph (a) of this section. DOE shall notify the firm in writing of the final resolution of the litigation and whether or not any of its records must be maintained for a further period. DOE shall notify a firm which must maintain any records for a further period when such records are no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Those firms which as of November 30 1984, have completed making all restitutionary payments required by an administrative or judicial order, consent order, or other settlement or order but which payments are on February 5, 1985, still subject to distribution by DOE. This requirement is applicable to only those firms listed in appendix B. Any such firm shall maintain all records for the time period covered by the administrative or judicial order, consent order, or other settlement or order requiring the payments, evidencing sales volume data for each product subject to controls and customers' names and addresses, until one of the following: June 30, 1985, unless this period is extended on a firm-by-firm basis; the end of the individual firm's extension; or the firm is notified in writing that its records are no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Those firms which as of November 30, 1984, are required to make restitutionary or other payments pursuant to an administrative or judicial order, consent order, or other settlement or order. Any such firm shall remain subject to paragraph (a) of this section until the firm completes all restitutionary payments required by the administrative or judicial order, consent order, or other settlement or order. However, after completing all such payments, a firm shall maintain all records described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section until one of the following: Six months after the firm completes all such payments, unless this period is extended on a firm-by-firm basis; the end of the individual firm's extension; or the firm is notified in writing that its records are no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Those firms with completed audits in which DOE has not yet made a determination to initiate a formal enforcement action and firms under audit which do not have outstanding subpoenas. Any such firm shall maintain all records for the period covered by the audit including all records necessary to establish historical prices or volumes which serve as the basis for determining the lawful prices or volumes for any subsequent regulated transaction which is subject to audit, until one of the following: June 30, 1985, unless this period is extended on a firm-by-firm basis; the end of the individual firm's extension; or the firm is notified in writing by DOE that its records are no longer needed. However, if a firm in this group shall become a party in litigation, the firm shall then be subject to the recordkeeping requirements for firms in litigation set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Those firms under audit which have outstanding subpoenas on February 5, 1985, or which receive subpoenas at any time thereafter or which have supplied records for an audit as the result of a subpoena enforced after November 1, 1983. Any such firm shall remain subject to paragraph (a) of this section until two years after ERA has notified the firm in writing that is in full compliance with the subpoena or until ERA has received from the firm a sworn certification of compliance with the subpoena as required by 10 CFR 205.8. However, if a firm in this group shall become a party in litigation, the firm shall then be subject to the recordkeeping requirements for firms in litigation set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Those firms which are subject to requests for data necessary to verify that crude oil qualifies as “newly discovered” crude oil under 10 CFR 212.79. Any such firm shall maintain the records evidencing such data until one of the following: June 30, 1985, unless this period is extended on a firm-by-firm basis; the end of an individual firm's extension; or the firm is notified in writing by DOE that its records are no longer needed. However, if a firm in this group shall become a party in litigation, the firm shall then be subject to the recordkeeping requirements for firms in litigation set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Those firms whose records are determined by DOE as necessary to complete the enforcement activity relating to another firm which is also subject to paragraph (a) of this section unless such firms required to keep records have received certified notice letters specifically describing the records determined as necessary. At that time, the specific notice will control the recordkeeping requirements. These firms have been identified in appendix A. Any such firm shall maintain these records until one of the following: June 30, 1985, unless this period is extended on a firm-by-firm basis; the end of the individual firm's extension; or the firm is notified in writing by DOE that its records are no longer needed.
</P>
<P>(6) Those firms which participated in the Entitlements program. Any such firm shall maintain its Entitlements-related records until six months after the final judicial resolution (including any and all appeals) of <I>Texaco</I> v. <I>DOE,</I> Nos. 84-391, 84-410, and 84-456 (D. Del.), or the firm is notified by DOE that its records are no longer needed, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A firm is “a party in litigation” if:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The firm has received a Notice of Probable Violation, a Notice of Probable Disallowance, a Proposed Remedial Order, or a Proposed Order of Disallowance; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The firm and DOE are parties in a lawsuit arising under the Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, as amended (15 U.S.C. 751 <I>et seq.</I>) or 10 CFR parts 205, 210, 211, or 212; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) There has been no final (that is, non-appealable) administrative or judicial resolution, or
</P>
<P>(B) DOE has not informed the firm in writing that the Department has completed its review of the matter.
</P>
<P>(2) A firm means any association, company, corporation, estate, individual, joint-venture, partnership, or sole proprietorship, or any other entity, however organized, including charitable, educational, or other eleemosynary institutions, and state and local governments. A firm includes a parent and the consolidated and unconsolidated entities (if any) which it directly or indirectly controls. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to 10 CFR 210.1—Third Party Firms
</HD1>
<HD2>Name of Firm
</HD2>
<FP-1>A &amp; R, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>A. J. Petroleum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ADA Resources, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ATC Petroleum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Abbco Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ada Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Adams Grocery
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Advanced Petroleum Distributing Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Agway Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allegheny Petroleum Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Alliance Oil and Refining Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allied Chemical Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allied Transport
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amerada Hess Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Natural Crude Oil Assoc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amoco Production Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Amorient Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>An-Son Transportation Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Anadarko Products Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Andrus Energy Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Antler Petroleum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arco Pipeline Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Armada Petroleum Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Armour Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Arnold Brooks Const. Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ashland Oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Asiatic Petroleum Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Aspen Energy, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Athens General Hospital
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Atlantic Pacific Energy, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Atlas Processing Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B &amp; B Trading Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BLT, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BPM, Ltd.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Baker Services, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Basin Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Basin Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Beacon Hill Mobil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Belcher Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bighart Pipeline Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bigheart Pipeline Corp
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bowdoin Square Exxon
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bowdoin Super Service (Sunoco)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brio Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Brixon
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C.E. Norman
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CPI Oil &amp; Refining
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CRA-Farmland Industries, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Calcaseiu Refining, Ltd.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carbonit Houston, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Carr Oil Company, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Castle Coal &amp; Oil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Central Crude Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Century Trading Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Charter Crude Oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chastain Vineyard
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chevron USA, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cibro Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cirillo Brothers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cities Service (Citgo) Station
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cities Service Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cities Service Midland
</FP-1>
<FP-1>City of Athens
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Clarke County Board of Education
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Claude E. Silvey
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coastal Corporation (The)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coastal Petroleum and Supply Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coastal States Trading Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Commonwealth Oil Refining Co., Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coral Petroleum Canada, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Coral Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Corex of Georgia
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cothran Interstate Exxon
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Couch's Standard Chevron
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cougar Oil Marketers Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Crude Company (The)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Crystal Energy Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Crystal Refining
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D &amp; E Logging
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DDC Corporation of America
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Darrell Williamson
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Davis Ellis
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Days Inn of America, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Delta Petroleum &amp; Energy Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Derby &amp; Company, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Derby Refining Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dewveall Petroleum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dixie Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dixon Oil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Don Hardy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Donald Childs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dow Chemical Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dr. Joe L. Griffeth
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Driver Construction Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Drummond Brothers, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Duffie Monroe &amp; Sons Co., Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ECI (A/K/A Energy Cooperative Inc.)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Earnest Dalton
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Earth Resources Trading
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eastern Seaboard Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Elmer Hammon
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Elvin Knight
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Empire Marketing, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Encorp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Energy Cooperative, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Energy Distribution Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Englehard Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Englehard Oil Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Entex
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Evans Oil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Exxon Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>F &amp; S Trading Company, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Farmers Union Central Exchange, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Farmland Industries Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fasgo, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fedco Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Employees Distributing Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fitzpatrick Spreader
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Flutz Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Flying J. Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Foremost Petroleum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Four Corners Pipe Line
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Frank Katz
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Frank W. Abrahamsen
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Frank's Butane, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Friendswood Refinery
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Frontier Manor Collection
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fuel Oil Supply &amp; Terminaling, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>G. C. Clark Company 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>GPC Marketing Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gary Refining Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geer Tank Trucks, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gene Clary
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gene McDonald
</FP-1>
<FP-1>General Crude Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Geodynamics Oil &amp; Gas Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>George Kennedy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>George Smith Chevron
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gleason Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Glenn Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Globe Oil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Godfrey's Standard Service
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Good Hope Industries, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Good Hope Refineries, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Granite Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guam Oil &amp; Refining Co., Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gulf States Oil &amp; Refining Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H. D. Adkinson
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H. H. Dunson
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H.S. &amp; L, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>HNG Oil Company 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Harbor Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Harbor Trading
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Harmony Grove Mills, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Harry Rosser
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hast Oil, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Heet Gas Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Henry Alva Mercer
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Herndon Oil &amp; Gas Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Horizon Petroleum Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Houston Oil &amp; Minerals Products Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Houston Oil &amp; Refining
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Howell Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hurricane Trading Company, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hydrocarbon Trading and Transport Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Inco Trading
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Independent Refining Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Independent Trading Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Indiana Refining, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Intercontinental Petroleum Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>International Crude Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>International Petro
</FP-1>
<FP-1>International Petroleum Trading, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>International Processors
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Isthmus Trading Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J &amp; M Transport
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J. &amp; J.'s Fast Stop
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J. A. Rackerby Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J. H. Baccus
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J. H. Baccus &amp; Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J. J. Williamson
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J. M. Petroleum Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>JPK Industries
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jack W. Grigsby
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jaguar Petroleum, Inc. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>James L. Bush
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jay Petroleum Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jay-Ed Petroleum Company 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>John W. McGowan
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kalama Chemical, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kelly Trading Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kenco Refining
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kerr-McGee Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Koch Fuel
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Koch Industries, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kocolene Oil
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kocolene Station
</FP-1>
<FP-1>L &amp; L Resources, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>L.S. Parker
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LaGloria Oil &amp; Gas 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>LaJet, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lamar Refining Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Langham Petroleum Corp. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Larry Roberts
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Laurel Oil, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lee Allen
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lincoln Land Sales Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Listo Petroleum Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Longview Refining Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Love's Standard
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lucky Stores Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>M.L. Morrow
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magna Energy Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Magnolia Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mansfield Oil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mapco Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mapco, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Marion Trading Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Marlex Oil &amp; Refining, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Marlin Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Martin Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mathew's Grocery
</FP-1>
<FP-1>McAuleep Oil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>McAuley Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Meadows Gathering, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mellon Energy Products Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Merit Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Metro Wash, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Miller Oil Purchasing Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Minor Oil, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Minro Oil, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mitchell Oil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mitsui &amp; Co. (USA) Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mobil Bay Refining Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Montgomery Well Drilling
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mundy Food Market
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Munford, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mutual Petroleum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NRG Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Convenience Stores 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Cooperative Refinery
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nicholson Grocery and Gas 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>North American Petroleum
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Northeast Petroleum Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Northeast Petroleum Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Northgate Auto Center
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Northwest Crude, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nova Refining Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Occidental Petroleum Corp. (includes Permia)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ocean Drilling and Exploration Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oil Exchange, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oilco
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Omega Petroleum Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Otoe Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oxxo Energy Group, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P &amp; O Falco, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P. L. Heatley Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PEH, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PIB, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PSW Distributors Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pacific Refinery, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pacific Resources, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pan American Products Corp. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Par Brothers Food Store
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pauley Petroleum Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pennzoil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Permian Corporation (The)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pescar International Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pescar International Trading Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petraco (U.S.A.) Inc. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petrade International
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Petrol Products, Inc. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phillips Petroleum Company 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phoenis Petroleum Co. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phoenix Petroleum Co. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pine Mountains
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Poole Petroleum 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Port Petroleum 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Presley Oil Co. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Procoil Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Publiker Industries, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pyramid Dist. Co., Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Questor Crude Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Quitman Refining Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R. H. Garrett Paving
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ra-Gan Fuel, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reeder Distributing Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reeder Distributors 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reese Exploration Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Research Fuels Inc. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Revere Petroleum Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Richardson-Ayres, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Robert Bishop 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Robert Patrick
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Roberts Grocery 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rock Island Refining Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rogers Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Roy Baerne 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Russell Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>S. G. Coplen 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>SECO (Scruggs Energy)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saber Crude Oil, Inc. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saber Refining Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salem Ventures, Inc. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Samson Resources Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Santa Fe Energy Products Co. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saye's Truck Stop
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Scandix Oil Limited 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Score, Inc. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Scruggs Energy Company 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Scurlock Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Scurry Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Seamount Petroleum Company 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Seaview Petroleum Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sector Refining, Inc. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Selfton Miller 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shepherd Trading Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shulze Processing
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sigmor Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Skelly Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>South Hampton Refining Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>South Texas LP Gas Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Southern Crude Oil Resources
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Southern Terminal &amp; Transport, Ltd.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Southern Union Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Southwest Petro. Energy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Southwest Petrochem
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Standard Oil Co. (Ohio)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Standard Oil Co. of California
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Standard Oil Company (Indiana)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Standard Oil Company (Ohio)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sterling Energy Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Steve Childs
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stix Gas Company, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sunset Grocery
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sunset Oil &amp; Refining, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Swanee Petroleum Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T &amp; P Enterprises
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T. B. Eley
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T. E. Jawell
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tauber Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tenneco, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tesoro Crude Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Texana Oil &amp; Gas Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Texas American Petrochemicals (TAP)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Texas City Refining
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Texas Eastern Transmission Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Texas Energy Reserve Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Texas Pacific Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thomas Cockvell
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thomas Petroleum Products, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thorton Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thyssen Incorporated
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tiger Petroleum Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Time Oil Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tipperary Refining Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tom Banks
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tom Smith
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tomlinson Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tosco Corporation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total Petroleum, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Trans-Texas Petroleum Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Transco Trading Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Turboil Oil and Refining
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Two Rivers Oil &amp; Gas Co., Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>U-Fill 'er Up
</FP-1>
<FP-1>USA Gas, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Uni Oil Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Union Oil of California
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Doram Energy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>United Petroleum Marketing
</FP-1>
<FP-1>United Refining Company
</FP-1>
<FP-1>United Refining, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Universal Rundle
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Val-Cap, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vedetta Oil Trading, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vedette Oil Trading, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Vickers Energy Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>W. C. Colquitt
</FP-1>
<FP-1>W. T. Strickland
</FP-1>
<FP-1>W. W. Blanton
</FP-1>
<FP-1>W.A. Nunnally, Jr., Construction Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>W.D. Porterfiled
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wellven, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>West Texas Marketing Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Western Crude Oil, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Western Fuels, Inc.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wight Nurseries of Oglethorpe Co.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>William Seabolt
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wilson's Used Tractors
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Windsor Gas Corp.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wyoming Refining</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to 10 CFR 210.1—Firms With Completed Payments Subject to Distribution
</HD1>
<P>The following firms have completed making restitutionary payments to DOE but their payments are still subject to distribution by DOE. Each such firm must maintain relevant records until June 30, 1985, unless this period is extended on a firm-by-firm basis. Relevant records are all records of the firm, including any affiliates, subsidiaries or predecessors in interest, for the time period covered by the judicial or administrative order, consent order, or other settlement or order requiring the payments, evidencing sales volume data for each product subject to controls and customers' names and addresses.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of firm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Location
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A. Tarricone Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yonkers, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Adolph Coors Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Golden, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Allied Materials Corp &amp; Excel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oklahoma City, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aminoil USA, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amtel, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Providence, RI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apache Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minneapolis, MN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">APCO Oil Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oklahoma City, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arapaho Petroleum, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Breckenridge, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arkansas Louisiana Gas Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shreveport, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arkla Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shreveport, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Armour Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">San Diego, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Associated Programs Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boca Raton, FL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Atlanta Petroleum Production</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fort Worth, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automatic Heat, Inc
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ayers Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Canton, MD.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aztex Energy Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Knoxville, TN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bak Ltd</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Narbeth, PA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bayou State Oil/IDA Gasoline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shreveport, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bayside Fuel Oil Depot Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Brooklyn, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Belridge Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Los Angeles, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blaylock Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Homestead, FL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Blex Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minneapolis, MN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boswell Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cincinnati, OH.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Box, Cloyce K</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Breckenridge Gasoline Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kansas City, KS.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brownlie, Wallace, Armstrong</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Denver, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bucks Butane &amp; Propane Service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">San Jose, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Budget Airport Associates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Los Angeles, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Busler Enterprises Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evansville, IN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butler Petroleum Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Butler, PA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C.K. Smith &amp; Company, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Worcester, MA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cap Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tulsa, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Champlain Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">South Burlington, VT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chapman, H.A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tulsa, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cibro Gasoline Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bronx, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">City Service Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kalispell, MT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coastal Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coline Gasoline Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Santa Fe Springs, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Collins Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aurora, IL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Columbia Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hamilton, OH.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Conlo Service Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">East Farmingdale, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Conoco, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Consolidated Gas Supply Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hastings, WV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Consolidated Leasing Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Los Angeles, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Consumers Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rosemead, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Continental Resources Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Winter Park, FL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cordele Operating Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corsicana, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cosby Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Whittier, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cougar Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Selma, AL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wellstone, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crystal Oil Company (formerly Vallery Corp.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shreveport, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Crystal Petroleum Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corpus Christi, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Devon Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oklahoma City, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dorchester Gas Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E.B. Lynn Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allentown, PA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E.M. Bailey Distributing Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paducah, KY. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eagle Petroleum Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wichita Falls, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Earls Broadmoor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houma, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Earth Resources Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eastern Petroleum Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annapolis, MD.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Edington Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Los Angeles, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elias Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">West Palm Beach, FL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elm City Filling Stations, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New Haven, CT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Empire Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bloomington, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Endicott, Eugene</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Redmond, OR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Enserch Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Enterprise Oil &amp; Gas Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Detroit, MI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F.O. Fletcher, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tacoma, WA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fagadau Energy Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Farstad Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minot, ND.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Field Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ogden, UT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fine Petroleum Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Norfolk, VA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foster Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Richmond, MI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Franks Petroleum Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shreveport, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Froesel Oil Co
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Systems Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ft. Worth, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gate Petroleum Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jacksonville, FL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GCO Minerals Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Getty Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Los Angeles, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gibbs Industries, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Revere, MA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glaser Gas Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calhoun, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glover, Lawrence H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Patchogue, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Goodman Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boise, ID.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grant Rent a Car Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Los Angeles, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grimes Gasoline Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tulsa, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gulf Energy &amp; Development Corp. (also known as Gulf Energy Development Corp.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">San Antonio, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gulf Oil Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gull Industries, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seattle, WA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H.C. Lewis Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Welch, WV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hamilton Brothers Petroleum Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Denver, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Harris Enterprise Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Portland, OR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heller, Glenn Martin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boston, MA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hendel's Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Waterford, CT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Henry H. Gungoll Associates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enid, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hertz Corporation, The</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hines Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Murphysboro, IL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Horner &amp; Smith, A Partnership</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Houston Natural Gas Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Howell Corporation/Quintana Refinery Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hunt Industries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hunt Petroleum Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Husky Oil Company of Delaware</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cody, WY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ideal Gas Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nyassa, OR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Independent Oil &amp; Tire Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Elyria, OH.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inland USA, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St. Louis, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inman Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salem, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Internorth, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Omaha, NE.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">J.E. DeWitt, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">South El Monte, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">J.M. Huber Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">James Petroleum Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bakersfield, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jay Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fort Smith, AR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jimmys Gas Stations Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Auburn, ME.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jones Drilling Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Duncan, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Juniper Petroleum Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Denver, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kansas-Nebraska Natural Gas Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hastings, NE.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Keller Oil Company, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Effingham, IL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kenny Larson Oil Co., Inc
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kent Oil &amp; Trading Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Key Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tuscaloosa, AL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Key Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bowling Green, KY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kiesel Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St. Louis, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">King &amp; King Enterprise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kansas City, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kingston Oil Supply Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Port Ewen, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kirby Oil Company
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L &amp; L Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Belle Chasse, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L.P. Rech Distributing Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Roundup, MT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La Gloria Oil and Gas Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lakes Gas Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Forest Lake, MN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lakeside Refining Co./Crystal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Southfield, MI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Landsea Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Irvine, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leathers Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Portland, OR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leese Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pocatello, ID.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leonard E. Belcher, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Springfield, MA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lincoln Land Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Springfield, IL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquid Products Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Little America Refining Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salt Lake City, UT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lockheed Air Terminal Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Burbank, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lowe Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clinton, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lucia Lodge Arco</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Big Sur, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Luke Brothers Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calera, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lunday Thargard Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">South Gate, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Malco Industries Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cleveland, OH.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mapco, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tulsa, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marine Petroleum Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St. Louis, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marlen L. Knutson Dist. Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stanwood, WA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Martin Oil Service, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Blue Island, IL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Martinoil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fresno, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marvel Fuel Oil and Gas Co
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">McCarty Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wapakoneta, OH.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">McCleary Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chambersburg, OH.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">McClure's Service Station</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salisbury, PA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">McTan Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abilene, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mesa Petroleum Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amarillo, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Midway Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rock Island, IL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Midwest Industrial Fuels, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">La Crosse, WI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mississippi River Transmission</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St. Louis, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mitchell Energy Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Woodlands, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Montana Power Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Butte, MT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Moore Terminal and Barge Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monroe, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mountain Fuel Supply Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salt Lake City, UT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Moyle Petroleum Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rapid City, SD.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mustang Fuel Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oklahoma City, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Naphsol Refining Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Muskegon, MI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Helium Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Liberal, KS.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Propane Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wyandanch, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Navajo Refining Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nielson Oil &amp; Propane, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">West Point, NE.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Northeast Petroleum Industries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chelsea, MA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Northeastern Oil Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gillette, WY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Northwest Pipeline Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salt Lake City, UT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">O'Connell Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pittsfield, MA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oceana Terminal Corp. et al</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bronx, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OKC Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Olin Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stamford, CT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oneok Incorporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tulsa, OK.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ozona Gas Processing Plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tyler, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pacer Oil Co. of Florida, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ormond Beach, FL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pacific Northern Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seattle, WA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Panhandle Eastern (Century)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parade Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shreveport, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Parham Oil Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nashville, TN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pasco Petroleum Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Phoenix, AZ.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pedersen Oil, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Silverdale, WA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pennzoil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perry Gas Processors, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Odessa, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peoples Energy Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chicago, IL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Perta Oil Marketing Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beverly Hills, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Peterson Petroleum Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hudson, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petro-Lewis Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Denver, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petrolane-Lomita Gasoline Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Long Beach, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum Heat &amp; Power Co. Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Stamford, CT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Petroleum Sales/Services Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Buffalo, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pioneer Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amarillo, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Planet Engineers Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Denver, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plateau, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Albuquerque, NM.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Plaquemines Oil Sales</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Belle Chasse, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Point Landing Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hanrahan, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Port Oil Company, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mobile, AL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Post Petroleum Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">West Sacramento, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Power Pak Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pride Refining, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abilene, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pronto Gas Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Abilene, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propane Gas &amp; Appliance Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New Brockton, AL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Prosper Energy Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pyro Energy Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evansville, IN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pyrofax Gas Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quaker State Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil City, PA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quarles Petroleum, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fredericksburg, VA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Resources Extraction Process</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reynolds Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kremling, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Richardson Ayers Jobbers, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alexandria, LA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Riverside Oil, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evansville, IN.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Roberts Oil Co. Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Albuquerque, NM.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rookwood Oil Terminals Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cincinnati, OH.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saber Energy, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sanesco Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Escondido, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schroeder Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carroll, IA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Seminole Refining Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St. Marks, FL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sid Richardson Carbon &amp; Gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ft. Worth, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sigmore Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">San Antonio, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Southwestern Refining Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Salt Lake City, UT.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Speedway Petroleum Co., Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fitchburg, MA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">St. James Resources Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Boston, MA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard Oil Co. (Indiana)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chicago, IL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stinnes Inter Oil Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tenneco Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas/Arkansas/Colorado/Oklahoma/Oil Purchasing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas Gas &amp; Exploration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas Oil &amp; Gas Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas Pacific Oil Company, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The True Companies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Casper, WY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thompson Oil Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Purcellville, VA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tiger Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yakima, WA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Seattle, WA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tipperary Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Midland, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tippins Oil &amp; Gas Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Richmond, MO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Triton Oil &amp; Gas Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dallas, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Compressed Gas Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">King of Prussia, PA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Combined Locks, WI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S.A. Petroleum, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Santa Monica, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Union Texas Petroleum Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Houston, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">United Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hillside, NJ.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Upham Oil &amp; Gas Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mineral Wells, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vangas Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fresno, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VGS Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jackson, MS.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waller Petroleum Company, Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Towson, MD.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warren Holding Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Providence, RI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warrior Asphalt Co. of Alabama</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tuscaloosa, AL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Webco Southern Oil Inc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Smyrna, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wellen Oil Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jersey City, NJ
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wiesehan Oil Co
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Willis Distributing Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Erie, PA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Winston Refining Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fort Worth, TX.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Witco Chemical Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, NY.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">World Oil Company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Los Angeles, CA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Worldwide Energy Corp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Denver, CO.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Young Refining Corporation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Douglasville, GA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zia Fuels (G.G.C. Corp.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hobbs, NM.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1903-0073) 
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 4962, Feb. 5, 1985] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts B-D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="212" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 212—MANDATORY PETROLEUM PRICE REGULATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-159, E.O. 11748, 38 FR 33577; Economic Stabilization Act of 1970, as amended, Pub. L. 92-210, 85 Stat. 743; Pub. L. 93-28, 87 Stat. 27; E.O. 11748, 38 FR 33575; Cost of Living Council Order Number 47, FR 24.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts A-C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Producers of Crude Oil</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.78" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.7.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.78   Tertiary incentive crude oil.</HEAD>
<P><I>Annual prepaid expenses report.</I> By January 31 of each year after 1980, the project operator with respect to any enhanced oil recovery project for which a report had been filed previously with DOE pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(i) of this section as that paragraph was in effect on January 27, 1981, shall file with DOE a report in which the operator shall certify to DOE (a) which of the expenses that had been reported previously to DOE pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(i) of this section as that paragraph was in effect on January 27, 1981, were prepaid expenses; (b) the goods or services for which such expenses had been incurred and paid; (c) the dates on which such goods or services are intended to be used; (d) the dates on which such goods or services actually are used; (e) the identity of each qualified producer to which such prepaid expenses had been attributed; and (f) the percentage of such prepaid expenses attributed to each such qualified producer. An operator shall file an annual prepaid expenses report each year until it has reported the actual use of all the goods and services for which a prepaid expense had been incurred and paid. For purposes of this paragraph, a prepaid expense is an expense for any injectant or fuel used after September 30, 1981, or an expense for any other item to the extent that IRS would allocate the deductions (including depreciation) for that item to the period after September 30, 1981.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under OMB Control No.: 1903-0069)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 43654, Aug. 31, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts E-I [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="215" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 215—COLLECTION OF FOREIGN OIL SUPPLY AGREEMENT INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-519, as amended, Pub. L. 93-511, Pub. L. 94-99, Pub. L. 94-133 and Pub. L. 94-163, and Pub. L. 94-385; Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended, Pub. L. 94-385; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 48330, Sept. 23, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 215.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.8.0.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set forth certain requirements pursuant to section 13 of the Federal Energy Administration Act to furnish information concerning foreign crude oil supply arrangements. The authority set out in this section is not exclusive. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.8.0.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Federal Energy Administrator or his delegate. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Host government</I> means the government of the country in which crude oil is produced and includes any entity which it controls, directly or indirectly. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any natural person, corporation, partnership, association, consortium, or any other entity doing business or domiciled in the U.S. and includes (a) any entity controlled directly or indirectly by such a person and (b) the interest of such a person in any joint venture, consortium or other entity to the extent of entitlement to crude oil by reason of such interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.8.0.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.3   Supply reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person having the right to lift for export by virtue of any equity interest, reimbursement for services, exchange or purchase, from any country, from fields actually in production, (1) an average of 150,000 barrels per day or more of crude oil for a period of at least one year, or (2) a total of 55,000,000 barrels of crude oil for a period of less than one year, or (3) a total of 150,000,000 barrels of crude oil for the period specified in the agreement, pursuant to supply arrangements with the host government, shall report the following information. 
</P>
<P>(1) Parties (including partners and percentage interest, where applicable). 
</P>
<P>(2) Grade or grades available; loading terminal or terminals. 
</P>
<P>(3) Government imposed production limits, if any. 
</P>
<P>(4) Minimum lifting obligation and maximum lifting rights. 
</P>
<P>(5) Details of lifting options within the above limits. 
</P>
<P>(6) Expiration and renegotiation dates. 
</P>
<P>(7) Price terms including terms of rebates, discounts, and number of days of credit calculated from the date of loading. 
</P>
<P>(8) Other payments to or interests retained by the host government (i.e. taxes, royalties, and any other payment to the host government) expressed in terms of the applicable rates or payment or preemption terms, or the base to which those rates or terms are applied. 
</P>
<P>(9) Related service or other fees and cost of providing services. 
</P>
<P>(10) Restrictions on shipping or disposition. 
</P>
<P>(11) Other material contract terms. 
</P>
<P>(b) Reports under this section shall be made no later than (1) 60 days after final issuance of reporting forms implementing this regulation, as announced in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> (2) fourteen days after the date when supply arrangements are entered into, or (3) fourteen days after the initial lifting under an agreement in which the parties have tentatively concurred but not signed, whichever occurs first. Reporting shall be based on actual practice between the parties. Material changes in any item which must be reported pursuant to this section shall be reported no later than 30 days after a person receives actual notice of such changes. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where reports under this section by each participant in a joint operation would be impracticable, or would result in the submission of inaccurate or misleading information, the participants acting together may designate a single participant to report on any of the rights, obligations, or limitations affecting the operation as a whole. Any such designation shall be signed by a duly authorized representative of each participant, and shall specify: 
</P>
<P>(1) The precise rights, obligations, or limitations to be covered by the designation; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons for the designation. Such designations shall be submitted to the Assistant Administrator for International Energy Affairs, and shall take effect only upon his written approval, which may at any time be revoked. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.4" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.8.0.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.4   Production of contracts and documents.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the Administrator determines that certain foreign crude oil supply information is necessary to assist in the formulation of energy policy or to carry out any other function of the Administrator, he may require the production by any person of any agreement or document relating to foreign oil supply arrangements or reports related thereto. Such material shall be provided pursuant to the conditions prescribed by the Administrator at the time of such order or subsequently. As used in this section, the term “agreement” includes proposed or draft agreements, and agreements in which the parties have tentatively concurred but have not yet signed, between or among persons and a host country. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.5" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.8.0.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.5   Pricing and volume reports.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent not reported pursuant to § 215.3, any person lifting for export crude oil from a country shall report to the DOE within 30 days of the date on which he receives actual notice: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any change (including changes in the timing of collection) by the host government in official selling prices, royalties, host government taxes, service fees, quality or port differentials, or any other payments made directly or indirectly for crude oil; changes in participation ratios; changes in concessionary arrangements; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Any changes in restrictions on lifting, production, or disposition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.6" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.8.0.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.6   Notice of negotiations.</HEAD>
<P>Any person conducting negotiations with a host government which may reasonably lead to the establishment of any supply arrangement subject to reporting pursuant to § 215.3(a), or may reasonably have a significant effect on the terms and conditions of an arrangement subject to § 215.3(a), shall notify DOE of such negotiations. Such notice shall be made no later than the later of 30 days after the effective date of this regulation or within 14 days after such negotiations meet the conditions of this section, and shall specify all persons involved and the host government affected. Notice must be in writing to the Assistant Administrator for International Energy Affairs. Where this notice pertains to negotiations to modify a supply agreement previously reported to the Department of Energy under this part, such notice shall include the agreement serial number assigned to the basic agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="216" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 216—MATERIALS ALLOCATION AND PRIORITY PERFORMANCE UNDER CONTRACTS OR ORDERS TO MAXIMIZE DOMESTIC ENERGY SUPPLIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 104 of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA), Pub. L. 94-163, 89 Stat. 871; section 101(c) of the Defense Production Act of 1950, 50 U.S.C. 4511(c); E.O. 12919, 59 FR 29525 (June 7, 1994); E.O. 13286, 68 FR 10619 (March 5, 2003); 15 CFR part 700; Defense Priorities and Allocations System Delegation No. 2 (Aug. 6, 2002), as amended at 15 CFR part 700.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 6212, Feb. 14, 1978, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 216.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.1   Introduction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part describes and establishes the procedures to be used by the Department of Energy (DOE) in considering and making certain findings required by section 101(c)(2)(A) of the Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended, 50 U.S.C. app. 2071(c)(2)(A) (DPA). Section 101(c) authorizes the allocation of, or priority performance under contracts or orders (other than contracts of employment) relating to, materials and equipment, services, or facilities in order to maximize domestic energy supplies if the findings described in section 101(c)(2) are made. Among these findings are that such supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities are critical and essential to maintain or further exploration, production, refining, transportation or the conservation of energy supplies or for the construction or maintenance of energy facilities. The function of finding that supplies are critical and essential was delegated to the Secretary of Energy pursuant to E.O. 12919 (59 FR 29525, June 7, 1994) and Department of Commerce Defense Priorities and Allocations System Delegation No. 2, 15 CFR part 700.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of these regulations is to establish the procedures and criteria to be used by DOE in determining whether programs or projects maximize domestic energy supplies and whether or not supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities are critical and essential, as required by DPA section 101(c)(2)(A). The critical and essential finding will be made only for supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities related to those programs or projects determined by DOE to maximize domestic energy supplies. These regulations do not require or imply that the findings, on which the exercise of such authority is conditioned, will be made in any particular case.
</P>
<P>(c) If DOE determines that a program or project maximizes domestic energy supplies and finds that supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities are critical and essential to maintain or further the exploration, production, refining, transportation or conservation of energy supplies or for the construction or maintenance of energy facilities, such determination and finding will be communicated to the Department of Commerce (DOC). If not, the applicant will be so informed. If the determination and finding described in this paragraph are made, DOC, pursuant to DPA section 101(c) and section 203 of E.O. 12919, will find whether or not: The supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities in question are scarce; and maintenance or furtherance of exploration, production, refining, transportation, or conservation of energy supplies or the construction or maintenance of energy facilities cannot be reasonably accomplished without exercising the authority specified in DPA section 101(c). If these additional two findings are made, DOC will notify DOE, and DOE will inform the applicant that it has been granted the right to use priority ratings under the Defense Priorities and Allocations System (DPAS) regulation established by the DOC, 15 CFR part 700.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 10983, Feb. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in these regulations: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicant</I> means a person requesting priorities or allocation assistance in connection with an energy program or project. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application</I> means the written request of an applicant for assistance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assistance</I> means use of the authority vested in the President by DPA section 101(c) to implement priorities and allocation support. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>DHS</I> means the Department of Homeland Security.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>DOC</I> means the Department of Commerce.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Defense Priorities and Allocations System Coordination Office</I> means the Department of Energy, Office of Electricity.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible energy program or project</I> means a designated activity which maximizes domestic energy supplies by furthering the exploration, production, refining, transportation or conservation of energy supplies or construction or maintenance of energy facilities within the meaning of DPA section 101(c), as determined by DOE.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Facilities</I> means all types of buildings, structures, or other improvements to real property (but excluding farms, churches or other places of worship, and private dwelling houses), and services relating to the use of any such building, structure, or other improvement.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Materials and equipment</I> means: (1) Any raw materials (including minerals, metals, and advanced processed materials), commodities, articles, components (including critical components), products, and items of supply; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any technical information or services ancillary to the use of such raw materials, commodities, articles, components, products, or items.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>National Defense</I> means programs for military and energy production or construction, military assistance to any foreign nation, stockpiling, space, and any directly related activity. Such term also includes emergency preparedness activities conducted pursuant to title VI of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5195, <I>et seq.</I>) and critical infrastructure protection and restoration.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, partnership, association, or any other organized group of persons, or legal successor or representative thereof, or any state or local government or agency thereof.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Services</I> include any effort that is needed for or incidental to:
</P>
<P>(1) The development, production, processing, distribution, delivery, or use of an industrial resource, or critical technology item; or
</P>
<P>(2) The construction of facilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 6212, Feb. 14, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 8311, Mar. 11, 1986; 73 FR 10983, Feb. 29, 2008; 85 FR 31669, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.3   Requests for assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons who believe that they perform work associated with a program or project which may qualify as an eligible energy program or project and wishing to receive assistance as authorized by DPA section 101(c)(1) may submit an application to DOE requesting DOE to determine whether a program or project maximizes domestic energy supplies and to find whether or not specific supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities identified in the application are critical and essential for a purpose identified in section 101(c). The application shall be sent to: U.S. Department of Energy, Attn: Office of Electricity, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. The application shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the applicant and of its duly authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the energy program or project for which assistance is requested and an assessment of its impact on the maximization of domestic energy supplies.
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of energy to be produced by the program or project which is directly affected by the supplies of the materials and equipment, services, or facilities in question.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement explaining why the materials and equipment, services, or facilities for which assistance is requested are critical and essential to the construction or operation of the energy project or program.
</P>
<P>(5) A detailed description of the specific supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities in connection with which assistance is requested, including: Components, performance data (capacity, life duration, etc.), standards, acceptable tolerances in dimensions and specifications, current inventory, present and expected rates of use, anticipated deliveries and substitution possibilities (feasibility of using other materials and equipment, services, or facilities).
</P>
<P>(6) A detailed description of the sources of supply, including: The name of the regular supplying company or companies, other companies capable of supplying the materials and equipment, services, or facilities; location of supplying plants or plants capable of supplying the needed materials and equipment, services, or facilities; possible suppliers for identical or substitutable materials and equipment, services, or facilities and possible foreign sources of supply.
</P>
<P>(7) A detailed description of the delivery situation, including: Normal delivery times, promised delivery time without priorities assistance, and delivery time required for expeditious fulfillment or completion of the program or project.
</P>
<P>(8) Evidence of the applicant's unsuccessful efforts to obtain on a timely basis the materials and equipment, services, or facilities in question through normal business channels from current or other known suppliers.
</P>
<P>(9) A detailed estimate of the delay in fulfilling or completing the energy program or project which will be caused by inability to obtain the specified materials and equipment, services, or facilities in the usual course of business.
</P>
<P>(10) Any known conflicts with rated orders already issued pursuant to the DPA for supplies of the described materials and equipment, services, or facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE, on consultation with the DOC, may prescribe standard forms of application or letters of instruction for use by all persons seeking assistance.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the information described above, DOE may from time to time request whatever additional information it reasonably believes is relevant to the discharge of its functions pursuant to DPA section 101(c). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 6212, Feb. 14, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 8311, Mar. 11, 1986; 73 FR 10983, Feb. 29, 2008; 85 FR 31669, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.4" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.4   Evaluation by DOE of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Based on the information provided by the applicant and other available information, DOE will:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether or not the energy program or project in connection with which the application is made maximizes domestic energy supplies and should be designated an eligible energy program or project; and
</P>
<P>(2) Find whether the described supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities are critical and essential to the eligible energy program or project.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether the program or project referred to in the application should be designated an eligible energy program or project, DOE will consider all factors which it considers relevant including, but not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Quantity of energy involved; 
</P>
<P>(2) Benefits of timely energy program furtherance or project completion; 
</P>
<P>(3) Socioeconomic impact; 
</P>
<P>(4) The need for the end product for which the materials and equipment, services, or facilities are allegedly required; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Established national energy policies. 
</P>
<P>(c) In finding whether the supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities described in the application are critical and essential to an eligible energy program or project, DOE will consider all factors which it considers relevant including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Availability and utility of substitute materials and equipment, services, or facilities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Impact of the nonavailability of the specific supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities on the furtherance or timely completion of the approved energy program or project.
</P>
<P>(d) Increased costs which may be associated with obtaining materials and equipment, services, or facilities without assistance shall not be considered a valid reason for finding the materials and equipment, services, or facilities to be critical and essential.
</P>
<P>(e) After DOE has determined a program or project to be an eligible energy program or project, this determination shall be deemed made with regard to subsequent applications involving the same program or project unless and until DOE announces otherwise. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 6212, Feb. 14, 1978, as amended at 73 FR 10984, Feb. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.5" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.5   Notification of findings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE will notify DOC if it finds that supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities for which an applicant requested assistance are critical and essential to an eligible energy program or project, and in such cases will forward to DOC the application and whatever information or comments DOE believes appropriate. If DOE believes at any time that findings previously made may no longer be valid, it will immediately notify the DOC and the affected applicant(s) and afford such applicant(s) an opportunity to show cause why such findings should not be withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(b) If DOC notifies DOE that DOC has found that supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities for which the applicant requested assistance are scarce and that the related eligible energy program or project cannot reasonably be accomplished without exercising the authority specified in DPA section 101(c)(1), DOE will notify the applicant that the applicant is authorized to place rated orders for specific materials and equipment, services, or facilities pursuant to the provisions of the DOC's DPAS regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 10984, Feb. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.6" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.6   Petition for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>If DOE, after evaluating an application in accordance with § 216.4, does not determine that the energy program or project maximizes domestic energy supplies or does not find that the supplies of materials and equipment, services, or facilities described in the application are critical and essential to an eligible energy program or project, it will so notify the applicant and the applicant may petition DOE for reconsideration. If DOE concludes at any time that findings previously made are no longer valid and should be withdrawn, DOE will so notify the affected applicant(s), and such applicant(s) may petition DOE for reconsideration of the withdrawal decision. A petition is deemed accepted when received by DOE at the address stated in § 216.8. DOE will consider the petition for reconsideration and either grant or deny the relief requested. Written notice of the decision and of the reasons for the decision will be provided to the applicant. There has not been an exhaustion of administrative remedies until a petition for reconsideration has been submitted and the review procedure completed by grant or denial of the relief requested. The denial of relief requested in a petition for reconsideration is a final administrative decision. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 6212, Feb. 14, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 8312, Mar. 11, 1986; 73 FR 10984, Feb. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.7" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.7   Conflict in priority orders.</HEAD>
<P>If it appears that the use of assistance pursuant to DPA section 101(c) creates or threatens to create a conflict with priorities and allocation support provided in connection with the national defense pursuant to DPA section 101(a), DOE will work with the DOC and other claimant agencies affected by the conflict to reschedule deliveries or otherwise accommodate the competing demands. If acceptable solutions cannot be agreed upon by the claimant agencies DHS will attempt to resolve the conflicts. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 6212, Feb. 14, 1978, as amended at 51 FR 8312, Mar. 11, 1986; 73 FR 10984, Feb. 29, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.8" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.8   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>All written communications concerning these regulations shall be addressed to: U.S. Department of Energy, Attention: Office of Electricity, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 10984, Feb. 29, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 31669, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 216.9" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.9.0.9.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 216.9   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who willfully furnishes false information or conceals any material fact in the course of the application process or in a petition for reconsideration is guilty of a crime, and upon conviction may be punished by fine or imprisonment or both. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="217" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 217—ENERGY PRIORITIES AND ALLOCATIONS SYSTEM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended, 50 U.S.C. 4501-4568; E.O. 12919, as amended, (59 FR 29525 June 7, 1994).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 33619, June 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.1   Purpose of this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides guidance and procedures for use of the Defense Production Act section 101(a) priorities and allocations authority with respect to all forms of energy necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense. (The guidance and procedures in this part are consistent with the guidance and procedures provided in other regulations that, as a whole, form the Federal Priorities and Allocations System. Guidance and procedures for use of the Defense Production Act priorities and allocations authority with respect to other types of resources are provided for: Food resources, food resource facilities, and the domestic distribution of farm equipment and commercial fertilizer; health resources; all forms of civil transportation (49 CFR Part 33); water resources; and all other materials, services, and facilities, including construction materials in the Defense Priorities and Allocations System (DPAS) regulation (15 CFR Part 700).) Department of Energy (DOE) regulations at 10 CFR Part 216 describe and establish the procedures to be used by DOE in considering and making certain findings required by section 101(c)(2)(A) of the Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.1.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.2   Priorities and allocations authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 201 of E.O. 12919 (59 FR 29525) delegates the President's authority under section 101 of the Defense Production Act to require acceptance and priority performance of contracts and orders (other than contracts of employment) to promote the national defense over performance of any other contracts or orders, and to allocate materials, services, and facilities as deemed necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Agriculture with respect to food resources, food resource facilities, and the domestic distribution of farm equipment and commercial fertilizer;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Energy with respect to all forms of energy;
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary of Health and Human Services with respect to health resources;
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary of Transportation with respect to all forms of civil transportation;
</P>
<P>(5) The Secretary of Defense with respect to water resources; and
</P>
<P>(6) The Secretary of Commerce for all other materials, services, and facilities, including construction materials.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 202 of E.O. 12919 states that the priorities and allocations authority delegated in section 201 of this order may be used only to support programs that have been determined in writing as necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense:
</P>
<P>(1) By the Secretary of Defense with respect to military production and construction, military assistance to foreign nations, stockpiling, outer space, and directly related activities;
</P>
<P>(2) By the Secretary of Energy with respect to energy production and construction, distribution and use, and directly related activities; and
</P>
<P>(3) By the Secretary of Homeland Security with respect to essential civilian needs supporting national defense, including civil defense and continuity of government and directly related activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.1.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.3   Program eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>Certain programs to promote the national defense are eligible for priorities and allocations support. These include programs for military and energy production or construction, military or critical infrastructure assistance to any foreign nation, deploying and sustaining military forces, homeland security, stockpiling, space, and any directly related activity. Other eligible programs include emergency preparedness activities conducted pursuant to title VI of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5195 <I>et seq.</I>) and critical infrastructure protection and restoration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.20" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions pertain to all sections of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Allocation order</I> means an official action to control the distribution of materials, services, or facilities for a purpose deemed necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense.
</P>
<P><I>Allotment</I> means an official action that specifies the maximum quantity or use of a material, service, or facility authorized for a specific use to promote the national defense.
</P>
<P><I>Approved program</I> means a program determined by the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of Energy, or the Secretary of Homeland Security to be necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense, in accordance with section 202 of E.O. 12919.
</P>
<P><I>Civil transportation</I> includes movement of persons and property by all modes of transportation in interstate, intrastate, or foreign commerce within the United States, its territories and possessions, and the District of Columbia, and, without limitation, related public storage and warehousing, ports, services, equipment and facilities, such as transportation carrier shop and repair facilities. However, “civil transportation” shall not include transportation owned or controlled by the Department of Defense, use of petroleum and gas pipelines, and coal slurry pipelines used only to supply energy production facilities directly. As applied herein, “civil transportation” shall include direction, control, and coordination of civil transportation capacity regardless of ownership.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the erection, addition, extension, or alteration of any building, structure, or project, using materials or products which are to be an integral and permanent part of the building, structure, or project. Construction does not include maintenance and repair.
</P>
<P><I>Critical infrastructure</I> means any systems and assets, whether physical or cyber-based, so vital to the United States that the degradation or destruction of such systems and assets would have a debilitating impact on national security, including, but not limited to, national economic security and national public health or safety.
</P>
<P><I>Defense Production Act</I> means the Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended (50 U.S.C. App. 2061 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Delegate Agency</I> means a Federal government agency authorized by delegation from the Department of Energy to place priority ratings on contracts or orders needed to support approved programs.
</P>
<P><I>Directive</I> means an official action that requires a person to take or refrain from taking certain actions in accordance with its provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency preparedness</I> means all those activities and measures designed or undertaken to prepare for or minimize the effects of a hazard upon the civilian population, to deal with the immediate emergency conditions which would be created by the hazard, and to effectuate emergency repairs to, or the emergency restoration of, vital utilities and facilities destroyed or damaged by the hazard. Such term includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Measures to be undertaken in preparation for anticipated hazards (including the establishment of appropriate organizations, operational plans, and supporting agreements, the recruitment and training of personnel, the conduct of research, the procurement and stockpiling of necessary materials and supplies, the provision of suitable warning systems, the construction or preparation of shelters, shelter areas, and control centers, and, when appropriate, the nonmilitary evacuation of the civilian population).
</P>
<P>(2) Measures to be undertaken during a hazard (including the enforcement of passive defense regulations prescribed by duly established military or civil authorities, the evacuation of personnel to shelter areas, the control of traffic and panic, and the control and use of lighting and civil communications).
</P>
<P>(3) Measures to be undertaken following a hazard (including activities for fire fighting, rescue, emergency medical, health and sanitation services, monitoring for specific dangers of special weapons, unexploded bomb reconnaissance, essential debris clearance, emergency welfare measures, and immediately essential emergency repair or restoration of damaged vital facilities).
</P>
<P><I>Energy</I> means all forms of energy including petroleum, gas (both natural and manufactured), electricity, solid fuels (including all forms of coal, coke, coal chemicals, coal liquification, and coal gasification), and atomic energy, and the production, conservation, use, control, and distribution (including pipelines) of all of these forms of energy.
</P>
<P><I>Facilities</I> includes all types of buildings, structures, or other improvements to real property (but excluding farms, churches or other places of worship, and private dwelling houses), and services relating to the use of any such building, structure, or other improvement.
</P>
<P><I>Farm equipment</I> means equipment, machinery, and repair parts manufactured for use on farms in connection with the production or preparation for market use of food resources.
</P>
<P><I>Fertilizer</I> means any product or combination of products that contain one or more of the elements—nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium—for use as a plant nutrient.
</P>
<P><I>Food resources</I> means all commodities and products, simple, mixed, or compound, or complements to such commodities or products, that are capable of being ingested by either human beings or animals, irrespective of other uses to which such commodities or products may be put, at all stages of processing from the raw commodity to the products thereof in vendible form for human or animal consumption. “Food resources” also means all starches, sugars, vegetable and animal or marine fats and oils, cotton, tobacco, wool, mohair, hemp, flax fiber, and naval stores, but does not mean any such material after it loses its identity as an agricultural commodity or agricultural product.
</P>
<P><I>Food resource facilities</I> means plants, machinery, vehicles (including on-farm), and other facilities required for the production, processing, distribution, and storage (including cold storage) of food resources, livestock and poultry feed and seed, and for the domestic distribution of farm equipment and fertilizer (excluding transportation thereof).
</P>
<P><I>Hazard</I> means an emergency or disaster resulting from:
</P>
<P>(1) A natural disaster; or
</P>
<P>(2) An accidental or human-caused event.
</P>
<P><I>Health resources</I> means drugs, biological products, medical devices, diagnostics, materials, facilities, health supplies, services and equipment required to diagnose, prevent the impairment of, improve, or restore the physical or mental health conditions of the population.
</P>
<P><I>Homeland security</I> includes efforts—
</P>
<P>(1) To prevent terrorist attacks within the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) To reduce the vulnerability of the United States to terrorism;
</P>
<P>(3) To minimize damage from a terrorist attack in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(4) To recover from a terrorist attack in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial resources</I> means all materials, services, and facilities, including construction materials, but not including: food resources, food resource facilities, and the domestic distribution of farm equipment and commercial fertilizer; all forms of energy; health resources; all forms of civil transportation; and water resources.
</P>
<P><I>Item</I> means any raw, in process, or manufactured material, article, commodity, supply, equipment, component, accessory, part, assembly, or product of any kind, technical information, process, or service.
</P>
<P><I>Maintenance and repair and operating supplies</I> or <I>MRO</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) “Maintenance” is the upkeep necessary to continue any plant, facility, or equipment in working condition.
</P>
<P>(2) “Repair” is the restoration of any plant, facility, or equipment to working condition when it has been rendered unsafe or unfit for service by wear and tear, damage, or failure of parts.
</P>
<P>(3) “Operating supplies” are any resources carried as operating supplies according to a person's established accounting practice. Operating supplies may include hand tools and expendable tools, jigs, dies, fixtures used on production equipment, lubricants, cleaners, chemicals and other expendable items.
</P>
<P>(4) MRO does not include items produced or obtained for sale to other persons or for installation upon or attachment to the property of another person, or items required for the production of such items; items needed for the replacement of any plant, facility, or equipment; or items for the improvement of any plant, facility, or equipment by replacing items which are still in working condition with items of a new or different kind, quality, or design.
</P>
<P><I>Materials</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(1) Any raw materials (including minerals, metals, and advanced processed materials), commodities, articles, components (including critical components), products, and items of supply; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any technical information or services ancillary to the use of any such materials, commodities, articles, components, products, or items.
</P>
<P>(3) Natural resources such as oil and gas.
</P>
<P><I>National defense</I> means programs for military and energy production or construction, military or critical infrastructure assistance to any foreign nation, homeland security, stockpiling, space, and any directly related activity. Such term includes emergency preparedness activities conducted pursuant to title VI of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5195, <I>et seq.</I>) and critical infrastructure protection and restoration.
</P>
<P><I>Official action</I> means an action taken by the Department of Energy or another resource agency under the authority of the Defense Production Act, E.O. 12919, and this part or another regulation under the Federal Priorities and Allocations System. Such actions include the issuance of Rating Authorizations, Directives, Set Asides, Allotments, Letters of Understanding, Memoranda of Understanding, Demands for Information, Inspection Authorizations, and Administrative Subpoenas.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes an individual, corporation, partnership, association, or any other organized group of persons, or legal successor or representative thereof, or any State or local government or agency thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Rated order</I> means a prime contract, a subcontract, or a purchase order in support of an approved program issued in accordance with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Resource agency</I> means any agency delegated priorities and allocations authority as specified in § 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Services</I> includes any effort that is needed for or incidental to—
</P>
<P>(1) The development, production, processing, distribution, delivery, or use of an industrial resource or a critical technology item;
</P>
<P>(2) The construction of facilities;
</P>
<P>(3) The movement of individuals and property by all modes of civil transportation; or
</P>
<P>(4) Other national defense programs and activities.
</P>
<P><I>Set-aside</I> means an official action that requires a person to reserve materials, services, or facilities capacity in anticipation of the receipt of rated orders.
</P>
<P><I>Stafford Act</I> means title VI (Emergency Preparedness) of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 5195-5197g).
</P>
<P><I>Water resources</I> means all usable water, from all sources, within the jurisdiction of the United States, which can be managed, controlled, and allocated to meet emergency requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Placement of Rated Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.30" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.30   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The priorities and allocations authorities of the President under Title I of the Defense Production Act with respect to all forms of energy have been delegated to the Secretary of Energy under E.O. 12919 of June 3, 1994 (59 FR 29525).
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Commerce has delegated authority to the Department of Energy to provide for extension of priority ratings for “industrial resources,” as provided in § 261.35 of this part, to support rated orders for all forms of energy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.31" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.31   Priority ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Levels of priority.
</P>
<P>(1) There are two levels of priority established by the Energy Priorities and Allocations System regulations, identified by the rating symbols “DO” and “DX”.
</P>
<P>(2) All DO-rated orders have equal priority with each other and take precedence over unrated orders. All DX-rated orders have equal priority with each other and take precedence over DO-rated orders and unrated orders. (For resolution of conflicts among rated orders of equal priority, see § 217.34(c).)
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, a Directive regarding priority treatment for a given item issued by the Department of Energy for that item takes precedence over any DX-rated order, DO-rated order, or unrated order, as stipulated in the Directive. (For a full discussion of Directives, see § 217.62.)
</P>
<P>(b) Program identification symbols. Program identification symbols indicate which approved program is being supported by a rated order. The list of currently approved programs and their identification symbols are listed in Schedule 1, set forth as an appendix to 15 CFR part 700. For example, DO-F3 identifies a domestic energy construction program. Additional programs may be approved under the procedures of E.O. 12919 at any time. Program identification symbols do not connote any priority.
</P>
<P>(c) Priority ratings. A priority rating consists of the rating symbol—DO or DX—and the program identification symbol, such as F1, F2, or F3. Thus, a contract for a domestic energy construction program will contain a DO-F3 or DX-F3 priority rating.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.32" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.32   Elements of a rated order.</HEAD>
<P>Each rated order must include:
</P>
<P>(a) The appropriate priority rating (<I>e.g.</I> DO-F1 or DX-F1)
</P>
<P>(b) A required delivery date or dates. The words “immediately” or “as soon as possible” do not constitute a delivery date. A “requirements contract”, “basic ordering agreement”, “prime vendor contract”, or similar procurement document bearing a priority rating may contain no specific delivery date or dates and may provide for the furnishing of items or service from time to time or within a stated period against specific purchase orders, such as “calls”, “requisitions”, and “delivery orders”. These purchase orders must specify a required delivery date or dates and are to be considered as rated as of the date of their receipt by the supplier and not as of the date of the original procurement document;
</P>
<P>(c) The written signature on a manually placed order, or the digital signature or name on an electronically placed order, of an individual authorized to sign rated orders for the person placing the order. The signature or use of the name certifies that the rated order is authorized under this part and that the requirements of this part are being followed; and
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A statement that reads in substance:
</P>
<P>This is a rated order certified for national defense use, and you are required to follow all the provisions of the Energy Priorities and Allocations System regulation at 10 CFR part 217.
</P>
<P>(2) If the rated order is placed in support of emergency preparedness requirements and expedited action is necessary and appropriate to meet these requirements, the following sentences should be added following the statement set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>This rated order is placed for the purpose of emergency preparedness. It must be accepted or rejected within 2 days after receipt of the order if (1) The order is issued in response to a hazard that has occurred; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the order is issued to prepare for an imminent hazard, as specified in EPAS Section 217.33(e), 10 CFR 217.33(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.33" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.33   Acceptance and rejection of rated orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory acceptance.</I> (1) Except as otherwise specified in this section, a person shall accept every rated order received and must fill such orders regardless of any other rated or unrated orders that have been accepted.
</P>
<P>(2) A person shall not discriminate against rated orders in any manner such as by charging higher prices or by imposing different terms and conditions than for comparable unrated orders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory rejection.</I> Unless otherwise directed by the Department of Energy for a rated order involving all forms of energy:
</P>
<P>(1) A person shall not accept a rated order for delivery on a specific date if unable to fill the order by that date. However, the person must inform the customer of the earliest date on which delivery can be made and offer to accept the order on the basis of that date. Scheduling conflicts with previously accepted lower rated or unrated orders are not sufficient reason for rejection under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A person shall not accept a DO-rated order for delivery on a date which would interfere with delivery of any previously accepted DO- or DX-rated orders. However, the person must offer to accept the order based on the earliest delivery date otherwise possible.
</P>
<P>(3) A person shall not accept a DX-rated order for delivery on a date which would interfere with delivery of any previously accepted DX-rated orders, but must offer to accept the order based on the earliest delivery date otherwise possible.
</P>
<P>(4) If a person is unable to fill all of the rated orders of equal priority status received on the same day, the person must accept, based upon the earliest delivery dates, only those orders which can be filled, and reject the other orders. For example, a person must accept order A requiring delivery on December 15 before accepting order B requiring delivery on December 31. However, the person must offer to accept the rejected orders based on the earliest delivery dates otherwise possible.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional rejection.</I> Unless otherwise directed by the Department of Energy for a rated order involving all forms of energy, rated orders may be rejected in any of the following cases as long as a supplier does not discriminate among customers:
</P>
<P>(1) If the person placing the order is unwilling or unable to meet regularly established terms of sale or payment;
</P>
<P>(2) If the order is for an item not supplied or for a service not capable of being performed;
</P>
<P>(3) If the order is for an item or service produced, acquired, or provided only for the supplier's own use for which no orders have been filled for two years prior to the date of receipt of the rated order. If, however, a supplier has sold some of these items or provided similar services, the supplier is obligated to accept rated orders up to that quantity or portion of production or service, whichever is greater, sold or provided within the past two years;
</P>
<P>(4) If the person placing the rated order, other than the U.S. Government, makes the item or performs the service being ordered;
</P>
<P>(5) If acceptance of a rated order or performance against a rated order would violate any other regulation, official action, or order of the Department of Energy, issued under the authority of the Defense Production Act or another relevant statute.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Customer notification requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided in this paragraph, a person must accept or reject a rated order in writing or electronically within fifteen (15) working days after receipt of a DO rated order and within ten (10) working days after receipt of a DX rated order. If the order is rejected, the person must give reasons in writing or electronically for the rejection.
</P>
<P>(2) If a person has accepted a rated order and subsequently finds that shipment or performance will be delayed, the person must notify the customer immediately, give the reasons for the delay, and advise of a new shipment or performance date. If notification is given verbally, written or electronic confirmation must be provided within five (5) working days.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception for emergency preparedness conditions.</I> If the rated order is placed for the purpose of emergency preparedness, a person must accept or reject a rated order and transmit the acceptance or rejection in writing or in an electronic format within 2 days after receipt of the order if:
</P>
<P>(1) The order is issued in response to a hazard that has occurred; or
</P>
<P>(2) The order is issued to prepare for an imminent hazard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.34" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.34   Preferential scheduling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person must schedule operations, including the acquisition of all needed production items or services, in a timely manner to satisfy the delivery requirements of each rated order. Modifying production or delivery schedules is necessary only when required delivery dates for rated orders cannot otherwise be met.
</P>
<P>(b) DO-rated orders must be given production preference over unrated orders, if necessary to meet required delivery dates, even if this requires the diversion of items being processed or ready for delivery or services being performed against unrated orders. Similarly, DX-rated orders must be given preference over DO-rated orders and unrated orders. (Examples: If a person receives a DO-rated order with a delivery date of June 3 and if meeting that date would mean delaying production or delivery of an item for an unrated order, the unrated order must be delayed. If a DX-rated order is received calling for delivery on July 15 and a person has a DO-rated order requiring delivery on June 2 and operations can be scheduled to meet both deliveries, there is no need to alter production schedules to give any additional preference to the DX-rated order.)
</P>
<P>(c) Conflicting rated orders.
</P>
<P>(1) If a person finds that delivery or performance against any accepted rated orders conflicts with the delivery or performance against other accepted rated orders of equal priority status, the person shall give precedence to the conflicting orders in the sequence in which they are to be delivered or performed (not to the receipt dates). If the conflicting orders are scheduled to be delivered or performed on the same day, the person shall give precedence to those orders that have the earliest receipt dates.
</P>
<P>(2) If a person is unable to resolve rated order delivery or performance conflicts under this section, the person should promptly seek special priorities assistance as provided in §§ 217.40 through 217.44. If the person's customer objects to the rescheduling of delivery or performance of a rated order, the customer should promptly seek special priorities assistance as provided in §§ 217.40 through 217.44. For any rated order against which delivery or performance will be delayed, the person must notify the customer as provided in § 217.33.
</P>
<P>(d) If a person is unable to purchase needed production items in time to fill a rated order by its required delivery date, the person must fill the rated order by using inventoried production items. A person who uses inventoried items to fill a rated order may replace those items with the use of a rated order as provided in § 217.37(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.35" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.35   Extension of priority ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person must use rated orders with suppliers to obtain items or services needed to fill a rated order. The person must use the priority rating indicated on the customer's rated order, except as otherwise provided in this part or as directed by the Department of Energy. For example, if a person is in receipt of a DO-F1 rated order for an electric power sub-station, and needs to purchase a transformer for its manufacture, that person must use a DO-F1 rated order to obtain the needed transformer.
</P>
<P>(b) The priority rating must be included on each successive order placed to obtain items or services needed to fill a customer's rated order. This continues from contractor to subcontractor to supplier throughout the entire procurement chain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.36" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.36   Changes or cancellations of priority ratings and rated orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The priority rating on a rated order may be changed or canceled by:
</P>
<P>(1) An official action of the Department of Energy; or
</P>
<P>(2) Written notification from the person who placed the rated order.
</P>
<P>(b) If an unrated order is amended so as to make it a rated order, or a DO rating is changed to a DX rating, the supplier must give the appropriate preferential treatment to the order as of the date the change is received by the supplier.
</P>
<P>(c) An amendment to a rated order that significantly alters a supplier's original production or delivery schedule shall constitute a new rated order as of the date of its receipt. The supplier must accept or reject the amended order according to the provisions of § 217.33.
</P>
<P>(d) The following amendments do not constitute a new rated order: a change in shipping destination; a reduction in the total amount of the order; an increase in the total amount of the order which has negligible impact upon deliveries; a minor variation in size or design; or a change which is agreed upon between the supplier and the customer.
</P>
<P>(e) If a person no longer needs items or services to fill a rated order, any rated orders placed with suppliers for the items or services, or the priority rating on those orders, must be canceled.
</P>
<P>(f) When a priority rating is added to an unrated order, or is changed or canceled, all suppliers must be promptly notified in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.37" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.37   Use of rated orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person must use rated orders to obtain:
</P>
<P>(1) Items which will be physically incorporated into other items to fill rated orders, including that portion of such items normally consumed or converted into scrap or by-products in the course of processing;
</P>
<P>(2) Containers or other packaging materials required to make delivery of the finished items against rated orders;
</P>
<P>(3) Services, other than contracts of employment, needed to fill rated orders; and
</P>
<P>(4) MRO needed to produce the finished items to fill rated orders.
</P>
<P>(b) A person may use a rated order to replace inventoried items (including finished items) if such items were used to fill rated orders, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The order must be placed within 90 days of the date of use of the inventory.
</P>
<P>(2) A DO rating and the program identification symbol indicated on the customer's rated order must be used on the order. A DX rating may not be used even if the inventory was used to fill a DX-rated order.
</P>
<P>(3) If the priority ratings on rated orders from one customer or several customers contain different program identification symbols, the rated orders may be combined. In this case, the program identification symbol “H1” must be used (<I>i.e.,</I> DO-H1).
</P>
<P>(c) A person may combine DX- and DO-rated orders from one customer or several customers if the items or services covered by each level of priority are identified separately and clearly. If different program identification symbols are indicated on those rated orders of equal priority, the person must use the program identification symbol “H1” (<I>i.e.,</I> DO-H1 or DX-H1).
</P>
<P>(d) Combining rated and unrated orders.
</P>
<P>(1) A person may combine rated and unrated order quantities on one purchase order provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The rated quantities are separately and clearly identified; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The four elements of a rated order, as required by § 217.32, are included on the order with the statement required in § 217.32(d) modified to read in substance:
</P>
<P>This purchase order contains rated order quantities certified for national defense use, and you are required to follow all applicable provisions of the Energy Priorities and Allocations System regulations at 10 CFR part 217 only as it pertains to the rated quantities.
</P>
<P>(2) A supplier must accept or reject the rated portion of the purchase order as provided in § 217.33 and give preferential treatment only to the rated quantities as required by this part. This part may not be used to require preferential treatment for the unrated portion of the order.
</P>
<P>(3) Any supplier who believes that rated and unrated orders are being combined in a manner contrary to the intent of this part or in a fashion that causes undue or exceptional hardship may submit a request for adjustment or exception under § 217.80.
</P>
<P>(e) A person may place a rated order for the minimum commercially procurable quantity even if the quantity needed to fill a rated order is less than that minimum. However, a person must combine rated orders as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, if possible, to obtain minimum procurable quantities.
</P>
<P>(f) A person is not required to place a priority rating on an order for less than $50,000, or one-half of the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (as established in the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) (see FAR section 2.101) or in other authorized acquisition regulatory or management systems) whichever amount is greater, provided that delivery can be obtained in a timely fashion without the use of the priority rating.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.38" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.3.9.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.38   Limitations on placing rated orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) General limitations.
</P>
<P>(1) A person may not place a DO- or DX-rated order unless entitled to do so under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Rated orders may not be used to obtain:
</P>
<P>(i) Delivery on a date earlier than needed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A greater quantity of the item or services than needed, except to obtain a minimum procurable quantity. Separate rated orders may not be placed solely for the purpose of obtaining minimum procurable quantities on each order;
</P>
<P>(iii) Items or services in advance of the receipt of a rated order, except as specifically authorized by the Department of Energy (see § 217.41(c) for information on obtaining authorization for a priority rating in advance of a rated order);
</P>
<P>(iv) Items that are not needed to fill a rated order, except as specifically authorized by the Department of Energy, or as otherwise permitted by this part; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any of the following items unless specific priority rating authority has been obtained from the Department of Energy, a Delegate Agency, or the Department of Commerce, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) Items for plant improvement, expansion, or construction, unless they will be physically incorporated into a construction project covered by a rated order; and
</P>
<P>(B) Production or construction equipment or items to be used for the manufacture of production equipment. [For information on requesting priority rating authority, see § 217.21.]
</P>
<P>(vi) Any items related to the development of chemical or biological warfare capabilities or the production of chemical or biological weapons, unless such development or production has been authorized by the President or the Secretary of Defense.
</P>
<P>(b) Jurisdictional limitations.
</P>
<P>(1) Unless authorized by the resource agency with jurisdiction, the provisions of this part are not applicable to the following resources:
</P>
<P>(i) Food resources, food resource facilities, and the domestic distribution of farm equipment and commercial fertilizer (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Agriculture);
</P>
<P>(ii) Health resources (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Health and Human Services);
</P>
<P>(iii) All forms of civil transportation (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Transportation);
</P>
<P>(iv) Water resources (Resource agency with jurisdiction—Department of Defense/U.S. Army Corps of Engineers); and
</P>
<P>(v) Communications services (Resource agency with jurisdiction—National Communications System under E. O. 12472 of April 3, 1984).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Special Priorities Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.40" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.4.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.40   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The EPAS is designed to be largely self-executing. However, from time-to-time production or delivery problems will arise. In this event, a person should immediately contact the Office of Electricity, for guidance or assistance (Contact the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93). If the problem(s) cannot otherwise be resolved, special priorities assistance should be sought from the Department of Energy through the Office of Electricity (Contact the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93). If the Department of Energy is unable to resolve the problem or to authorize the use of a priority rating and believes additional assistance is warranted, the Department of Energy may forward the request to another agency with resource jurisdiction, as appropriate, for action. Special priorities assistance is provided to alleviate problems that do arise.
</P>
<P>(b) Special priorities assistance is available for any reason consistent with this part. Generally, special priorities assistance is provided to expedite deliveries, resolve delivery conflicts, place rated orders, locate suppliers, or to verify information supplied by customers and vendors. Special priorities assistance may also be used to request rating authority for items that are not normally eligible for priority treatment.
</P>
<P>(c) A request for special priorities assistance or priority rating authority must be submitted on Form DOE F 544 (05-11) (OMB control number 1910-5159) to the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93. Form DOE F 544 (05-11) may be obtained from the Department of Energy or a Delegate Agency. A sample Form DOE F 544 (05-11) is attached at appendix I to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 33619, June 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 31670, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.41" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.4.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.41   Requests for priority rating authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a rated order is likely to be delayed because a person is unable to obtain items or services not normally rated under this part, the person may request the authority to use a priority rating in ordering the needed items or services.
</P>
<P>(b) Rating authority for production or construction equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) A request for priority rating authority for production or construction equipment must be submitted to the U.S. Department of Commerce on Form BIS-999.
</P>
<P>(2) When the use of a priority rating is authorized for the procurement of production or construction equipment, a rated order may be used either to purchase or to lease such equipment. However, in the latter case, the equipment may be leased only from a person engaged in the business of leasing such equipment or from a person willing to lease rather than sell.
</P>
<P>(c) Rating authority in advance of a rated prime contract. (1) In certain cases and upon specific request, the Department of Energy, in order to promote the national defense, may authorize or request the Department of Commerce to authorize, as appropriate, a person to place a priority rating on an order to a supplier in advance of the issuance of a rated prime contract. In these instances, the person requesting advance rating authority must obtain sponsorship of the request from the Department of Energy or the appropriate Delegate Agency. The person shall also assume any business risk associated with the placing of rated orders in the event the rated prime contract is not issued.
</P>
<P>(2) The person must state the following in the request:
</P>
<P>It is understood that the authorization of a priority rating in advance of our receiving a rated prime contract from the Department of Energy and our use of that priority rating with our suppliers in no way commits the Department of Energy, the Department of Commerce, or any other government agency to enter into a contract or order or to expend funds. Further, we understand that the Federal Government shall not be liable for any cancellation charges, termination costs, or other damages that may accrue if a rated prime contract is not eventually placed and, as a result, we must subsequently cancel orders placed with the use of the priority rating authorized as a result of this request.
</P>
<P>(3) In reviewing requests for rating authority in advance of a rated prime contract, the Department of Energy or the Department of Commerce, as appropriate, will consider, among other things, the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The probability that the prime contract will be awarded;
</P>
<P>(ii) The impact of the resulting rated orders on suppliers and on other authorized programs;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the contractor is the sole source;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the item being produced has a long lead time;
</P>
<P>(v) The time period for which the rating is being requested.
</P>
<P>(4) The Department of Energy or the Department of Commerce, as appropriate, may require periodic reports on the use of the rating authority granted under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a rated prime contract is not issued, the person shall promptly notify all suppliers who have received rated orders pursuant to the advanced rating authority that the priority rating on those orders is cancelled.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.42" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.4.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.42   Examples of assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) While special priorities assistance may be provided for any reason in support of this part, it is usually provided in situations where:
</P>
<P>(1) A person is experiencing difficulty in obtaining delivery against a rated order by the required delivery date; or
</P>
<P>(2) A person cannot locate a supplier for an item or service needed to fill a rated order.
</P>
<P>(b) Other examples of special priorities assistance include:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensuring that rated orders receive preferential treatment by suppliers;
</P>
<P>(2) Resolving production or delivery conflicts between various rated orders;
</P>
<P>(3) Assisting in placing rated orders with suppliers;
</P>
<P>(4) Verifying the urgency of rated orders; and
</P>
<P>(5) Determining the validity of rated orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.43" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.4.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.43   Criteria for assistance.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for special priorities assistance should be timely, <I>i.e.,</I> the request has been submitted promptly and enough time exists for the Department of Energy, the Delegate Agency, or the Department of Commerce for industrial resources to effect a meaningful resolution to the problem, and must establish that:
</P>
<P>(a) There is an urgent need for the item; and
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant has made a reasonable effort to resolve the problem.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.44" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.4.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.44   Instances where assistance may not be provided.</HEAD>
<P>Special priorities assistance is provided at the discretion of the Department of Energy, the Delegate Agencies, or the Department of Commerce when it is determined that such assistance is warranted to meet the objectives of this part. Examples where assistance may not be provided include situations when a person is attempting to:
</P>
<P>(a) Secure a price advantage;
</P>
<P>(b) Obtain delivery prior to the time required to fill a rated order;
</P>
<P>(c) Gain competitive advantage;
</P>
<P>(d) Disrupt an industry apportionment program in a manner designed to provide a person with an unwarranted share of scarce items; or
</P>
<P>(e) Overcome a supplier's regularly established terms of sale or conditions of doing business.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Allocation Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.50" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.5.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.50   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of the Federal Government that the allocations authority under title I of the Defense Production Act may:
</P>
<P>(1) Only be used when there is insufficient supply of a material, service, or facility to satisfy national defense supply requirements through the use of the priorities authority or when the use of the priorities authority would cause a severe and prolonged disruption in the supply of materials, services, or facilities available to support normal U.S. economic activities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not be used to ration materials or services at the retail level.
</P>
<P>(b) Allocation orders, when used, will be distributed equitably among the suppliers of the materials, services, or facilities being allocated and not require any person to relinquish a disproportionate share of the civilian market.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.51" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.5.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.51   General procedures.</HEAD>
<P>When the Department of Energy plans to execute its allocations authority to address a supply problem within its resource jurisdiction, the Department shall develop a plan that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the written determination made, in accordance with section 202 of E.O. 12919, that the program or programs that would be supported by the allocation action are necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense;
</P>
<P>(b) A detailed description of the situation to include any unusual events or circumstances that have created the requirement for an allocation action;
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of the specific objective(s) of the allocation action;
</P>
<P>(d) A list of the materials, services, or facilities to be allocated;
</P>
<P>(e) A list of the sources of the materials, services, or facilities that will be subject to the allocation action;
</P>
<P>(f) A detailed description of the provisions that will be included in the allocation orders, including the type(s) of allocation orders, the percentages or quantity of capacity or output to be allocated for each purpose, and the duration of the allocation action (<I>i.e.,</I> anticipated start and end dates);
</P>
<P>(g) An evaluation of the impact of the proposed allocation action on the civilian market; and
</P>
<P>(h) Proposed actions, if any, to mitigate disruptions to civilian market operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.52" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.5.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.52   Controlling the general distribution of a material in the civilian market.</HEAD>
<P>No allocation action by the Department of Energy may be used to control the general distribution of a material in the civilian market, unless the Secretary of the Department of Energy has:
</P>
<P>(a) Made a written finding that:
</P>
<P>(1) Such material is a scarce and critical material essential to the national defense, and
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of the national defense for such material cannot otherwise be met without creating a significant dislocation of the normal distribution of such material in the civilian market to such a degree as to create appreciable hardship;
</P>
<P>(b) Submitted the finding for the President's approval through the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs; and
</P>
<P>(c) The President has approved the finding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.53" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.5.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.53   Types of allocation orders.</HEAD>
<P>There are three types of allocation orders available for communicating allocation actions. These are:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Set-aside:</I> an official action that requires a person to reserve materials, services, or facilities capacity in anticipation of the receipt of rated orders;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Directive:</I> an official action that requires a person to take or refrain from taking certain actions in accordance with its provisions. For example, a directive can require a person to: stop or reduce production of an item; prohibit the use of selected materials, services, or facilities; or divert the use of materials, services, or facilities from one purpose to another; and
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Allotment:</I> an official action that specifies the maximum quantity of a material, service, or facility authorized for a specific use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.54" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.5.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.54   Elements of an allocation order.</HEAD>
<P>Each allocation order must include:
</P>
<P>(a) A detailed description of the required allocation action(s);
</P>
<P>(b) Specific start and end calendar dates for each required allocation action;
</P>
<P>(c) The written signature on a manually placed order, or the digital signature or name on an electronically placed order, of the Secretary of Energy. The signature or use of the name certifies that the order is authorized under this part and that the requirements of this part are being followed;
</P>
<P>(d) A statement that reads in substance: “This is an allocation order certified for national defense use. [Insert the legal name of the person receiving the order] is required to comply with this order, in accordance with the provisions of the Energy Priorities and Allocations System regulation (10 CFR part 217), which is part of the Federal Priorities and Allocations System”; and
</P>
<P>(e) A current copy of the Energy Priorities and Allocations System regulation (10 CFR part 217).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.55" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.5.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.55   Mandatory acceptance of an allocation order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise specified in this section, a person shall accept and comply with every allocation order received.
</P>
<P>(b) A person shall not discriminate against an allocation order in any manner such as by charging higher prices for materials, services, or facilities covered by the order or by imposing terms and conditions for contracts and orders involving allocated materials, services, or facilities that differ from the person's terms and conditions for contracts and orders for the materials, services, or facilities prior to receiving the allocation order.
</P>
<P>(c) If a person is unable to comply fully with the required action(s) specified in an allocation order, the person must notify the Department of Energy immediately, explain the extent to which compliance is possible, and give the reasons why full compliance is not possible. If notification is given verbally, written or electronic confirmation must be provided within five (5) working days. Such notification does not release the person from complying with the order to the fullest extent possible, until the person is notified by the Department of Energy that the order has been changed or cancelled.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.56" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.5.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.56   Changes or cancellations of an allocation order.</HEAD>
<P>An allocation order may be changed or canceled by an official action of the Department of Energy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Official Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.60" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.6.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.60   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Energy may take specific official actions to implement the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) These official actions include Rating Authorizations, Directives, and Memoranda of Understanding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.61" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.6.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.61   Rating Authorizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Rating Authorization is an official action granting specific priority rating authority that:
</P>
<P>(1) Permits a person to place a priority rating on an order for an item or service not normally ratable under this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) Authorizes a person to modify a priority rating on a specific order or series of contracts or orders.
</P>
<P>(b) To request priority rating authority, see § 217.41.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.62" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.6.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.62   Directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Directive is an official action that requires a person to take or refrain from taking certain actions in accordance with its provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) A person must comply with each Directive issued. However, a person may not use or extend a Directive to obtain any items from a supplier, unless expressly authorized to do so in the Directive.
</P>
<P>(c) A Priorities Directive takes precedence over all DX-rated orders, DO-rated orders, and unrated orders previously or subsequently received, unless a contrary instruction appears in the Directive.
</P>
<P>(d) An Allocations Directive takes precedence over all Priorities Directives, DX-rated orders, DO-rated orders, and unrated orders previously or subsequently received, unless a contrary instruction appears in the Directive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.63" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.6.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.63   Letters and Memoranda of Understanding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Letter or Memorandum of Understanding is an official action that may be issued in resolving special priorities assistance cases to reflect an agreement reached by all parties (the Department of Energy, the Department of Commerce (if applicable), a Delegate Agency (if applicable), the supplier, and the customer).
</P>
<P>(b) A Letter or Memorandum of Understanding is not used to alter scheduling between rated orders, to authorize the use of priority ratings, to impose restrictions under this part. Rather, Letters or Memoranda of Understanding are used to confirm production or shipping schedules that do not require modifications to other rated orders.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.70" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.7.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.70   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department of Energy may take specific official actions for any reason necessary or appropriate to the enforcement or the administration of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action. Such actions include Administrative Subpoenas, Demands for Information, and Inspection Authorizations.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who places or receives a rated order or an allocation order must comply with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Willful violation of the provisions of title I or section 705 of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action of the Department of Energy is a criminal act, punishable as provided in the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, and as set forth in § 217.74 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.71" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.7.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.71   Audits and investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Audits and investigations are official examinations of books, records, documents, other writings and information to ensure that the provisions of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, and official actions have been properly followed. An audit or investigation may also include interviews and a systems evaluation to detect problems or failures in the implementation of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) When undertaking an audit or investigation, the Department of Energy shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Define the scope and purpose in the official action given to the person under investigation, and
</P>
<P>(2) Have ascertained that the information sought or other adequate and authoritative data are not available from any Federal or other responsible agency.
</P>
<P>(c) In administering this part, the Department of Energy may issue the following documents that constitute official actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Administrative Subpoenas. An Administrative Subpoena requires a person to appear as a witness before an official designated by the Department of Energy to testify under oath on matters of which that person has knowledge relating to the enforcement or the administration of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or official actions. An Administrative Subpoena may also require the production of books, papers, records, documents and physical objects or property.
</P>
<P>(2) Demands for Information. A Demand for Information requires a person to furnish to a duly authorized representative of the Department of Energy any information necessary or appropriate to the enforcement or the administration of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or official actions.
</P>
<P>(3) Inspection Authorizations. An Inspection Authorization requires a person to permit a duly authorized representative of the Department of Energy to interview the person's employees or agents, to inspect books, records, documents, other writings, and information, including electronically-stored information, in the person's possession or control at the place where that person usually keeps them or otherwise, and to inspect a person's property when such interviews and inspections are necessary or appropriate to the enforcement or the administration of the Defense Production Act and related statutes, this part, or official actions.
</P>
<P>(d) The production of books, records, documents, other writings, and information will not be required at any place other than where they are usually kept if, prior to the return date specified in the Administrative Subpoena or Demand for Information, a duly authorized official of the Department of Energy is furnished with copies of such material that are certified under oath to be true copies. As an alternative, a person may enter into a stipulation with a duly authorized official of Department of Energy as to the content of the material.
</P>
<P>(e) An Administrative Subpoena, Demand for Information, or Inspection Authorization, shall include the name, title, or official position of the person to be served, the evidence sought to be adduced, and its general relevance to the scope and purpose of the audit, investigation, or other inquiry. If employees or agents are to be interviewed; if books, records, documents, other writings, or information are to be produced; or if property is to be inspected; the Administrative Subpoena, Demand for Information, or Inspection Authorization will describe them with particularity.
</P>
<P>(f) Service of documents shall be made in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) Service of a Demand for Information or Inspection Authorization shall be made personally, or by Certified Mail-Return Receipt Requested at the person's last known address. Service of an Administrative Subpoena shall be made personally. Personal service may also be made by leaving a copy of the document with someone at least 18 years old at the person's last known dwelling or place of business.
</P>
<P>(2) Service upon other than an individual may be made by serving a partner, corporate officer, or a managing or general agent authorized by appointment or by law to accept service of process. If an agent is served, a copy of the document shall be mailed to the person named in the document.
</P>
<P>(3) Any individual 18 years of age or over may serve an Administrative Subpoena, Demand for Information, or Inspection Authorization. When personal service is made, the individual making the service shall prepare an affidavit as to the manner in which service was made and the identity of the person served, and return the affidavit, and in the case of subpoenas, the original document, to the issuing officer. In case of failure to make service, the reasons for the failure shall be stated on the original document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.72" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.7.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.72   Compulsory process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person refuses to permit a duly authorized representative of the Department of Energy to have access to any premises or source of information necessary to the administration or the enforcement of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or official actions, the Department of Energy representative may seek compulsory process. Compulsory process means the institution of appropriate legal action, including ex parte application for an inspection warrant or its equivalent, in any forum of appropriate jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) Compulsory process may be sought in advance of an audit, investigation, or other inquiry, if, in the judgment of the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93, there is reason to believe that a person will refuse to permit an audit, investigation, or other inquiry, or that other circumstances exist which make such process desirable or necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 33619, June 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 31670, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.73" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.7.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.73   Notification of failure to comply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the conclusion of an audit, investigation, or other inquiry, or at any other time, the Department of Energy may inform the person in writing where compliance with the requirements of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action were not met.
</P>
<P>(b) In cases where the Department of Energy determines that failure to comply with the provisions of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action was inadvertent, the person may be informed in writing of the particulars involved and the corrective action to be taken. Failure to take corrective action may then be construed as a willful violation of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.74" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.7.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.74   Violations, penalties, and remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Willful violation of the provisions of title I or sections 705 or 707 of the Defense Production Act, the priorities provisions of the Selective Service Act and related statutes (when applicable), this part, or an official action, is a crime and upon conviction, a person may be punished by fine or imprisonment, or both. The maximum penalties provided by the Defense Production Act are a $10,000 fine, or one year in prison, or both. The maximum penalties provided by the Selective Service Act and related statutes are a $50,000 fine, or three years in prison, or both.
</P>
<P>(b) The Government may also seek an injunction from a court of appropriate jurisdiction to prohibit the continuance of any violation of, or to enforce compliance with, the Defense Production Act, this part, or an official action.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to secure the effective enforcement of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, and official actions, the following are prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) No person may solicit, influence or permit another person to perform any act prohibited by, or to omit any act required by, the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action.
</P>
<P>(2) No person may conspire or act in concert with any other person to perform any act prohibited by, or to omit any act required by, the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action.
</P>
<P>(3) No person shall deliver any item if the person knows or has reason to believe that the item will be accepted, redelivered, held, or used in violation of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action. In such instances, the person must immediately notify the Department of Energy that, in accordance with this provision, delivery has not been made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.75" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.7.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.75   Compliance conflicts.</HEAD>
<P>If compliance with any provision of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action would prevent a person from filling a rated order or from complying with another provision of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, this part, or an official action, the person must immediately notify the Department of Energy for resolution of the conflict.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Adjustments, Exceptions, and Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.80" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.8.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.80   Adjustments or exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may submit a request to the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93, for an adjustment or exception on the ground that:
</P>
<P>(1) A provision of this part or an official action results in an undue or exceptional hardship on that person not suffered generally by others in similar situations and circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(2) The consequences of following a provision of this part or an official action is contrary to the intent of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Each request for adjustment or exception must be in writing and contain a complete statement of all the facts and circumstances related to the provision of this part or official action from which adjustment is sought and a full and precise statement of the reasons why relief should be provided.
</P>
<P>(c) The submission of a request for adjustment or exception shall not relieve any person from the obligation of complying with the provision of this part or official action in question while the request is being considered unless such interim relief is granted in writing by the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93.
</P>
<P>(d) A decision of the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93, under this section may be appealed to the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity (For information on the appeal procedure, see § 217.81.)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 33619, June 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 31670, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.81" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.8.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.81   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who has had a request for adjustment or exception denied by the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in section 217.93, under § 217.80, may appeal to the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity who shall review and reconsider the denial.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Except as provided in this paragraph (b)(2), an appeal must be received by the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity no later than 45 days after receipt of a written notice of denial from the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93. After this 45-day period, an appeal may be accepted at the discretion of the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(2) For requests for adjustment or exception involving rated orders placed for the purpose of emergency preparedness (see 217.14(d)), an appeal must be received by the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity, no later than 15 days after receipt of a written notice of denial from the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, as listed in § 217.93. Contract performance under the order shall not be stayed pending resolution of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) Each appeal must be in writing and contain a complete statement of all the facts and circumstances related to the action appealed from and a full and precise statement of the reasons the decision should be modified or reversed.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the written materials submitted in support of an appeal, an appellant may request, in writing, an opportunity for an informal hearing. This request may be granted or denied at the discretion of the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity.
</P>
<P>(e) When a hearing is granted, the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity may designate an employee to conduct the hearing and to prepare a report. The hearing officer shall determine all procedural questions and impose such time or other limitations deemed reasonable. In the event that the hearing officer decides that a printed transcript is necessary, all expenses shall be borne by the appellant.
</P>
<P>(f) When determining an appeal, the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity may consider all information submitted during the appeal as well as any recommendations, reports, or other relevant information and documents available to the Department of Energy or consult with any other persons or groups.
</P>
<P>(g) The submission of an appeal under this section shall not relieve any person from the obligation of complying with the provision of this part or official action in question while the appeal is being considered unless such relief is granted in writing by the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity.
</P>
<P>(h) The decision of the Assistant Secretary, Office of Electricity shall be made within five (5) days after receipt of the appeal, or within one (1) day for appeals pertaining to emergency preparedness and shall be the final administrative action. It shall be issued to the appellant in writing with a statement of the reasons for the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 33619, June 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 31670, May 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.90" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.9.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.90   Protection against claims.</HEAD>
<P>A person shall not be held liable for damages or penalties for any act or failure to act resulting directly or indirectly from compliance with any provision of this part, or an official action, notwithstanding that such provision or action shall subsequently be declared invalid by judicial or other competent authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.91" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.9.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.91   Records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons are required to make and preserve for at least three years, accurate and complete records of any transaction covered by this part or an official action.
</P>
<P>(b) Records must be maintained in sufficient detail to permit the determination, upon examination, of whether each transaction complies with the provisions of this part or any official action. However, this part does not specify any particular method or system to be used.
</P>
<P>(c) Records required to be maintained by this part must be made available for examination on demand by duly authorized representatives of the Department of Energy as provided in § 217.71.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition, persons must develop, maintain, and submit any other records and reports to the Department of Energy that may be required for the administration of the Defense Production Act and other applicable statutes, and this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 705(d) of the Defense Production Act, as implemented by E.O. 12919, provides that information obtained under this section which the Secretary deems confidential, or with reference to which a request for confidential treatment is made by the person furnishing such information, shall not be published or disclosed unless the Secretary determines that the withholding of this information is contrary to the interest of the national defense. Information required to be submitted to the Department of Energy in connection with the enforcement or administration of the Defense Production Act, this part, or an official action, is deemed to be confidential under section 705(d) of the Defense Production Act and shall be handled in accordance with applicable Federal law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.92" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.9.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.92   Applicability of this part and official actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part and all official actions, unless specifically stated otherwise, apply to transactions in any state, territory, or possession of the United States and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(b) This part and all official actions apply not only to deliveries to other persons but also include deliveries to affiliates and subsidiaries of a person and deliveries from one branch, division, or section of a single entity to another branch, division, or section under common ownership or control.
</P>
<P>(c) This part and its schedules shall not be construed to affect any administrative actions taken by the Department of Energy, or any outstanding contracts or orders placed pursuant to any of the regulations, orders, schedules or delegations of authority previously issued by the Department of Energy pursuant to authority granted to the President in the Defense Production Act. Such actions, contracts, or orders shall continue in full force and effect under this part unless modified or terminated by proper authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.93" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.9.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.93   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>All communications concerning this part, including requests for copies of the regulation and explanatory information, requests for guidance or clarification, and requests for adjustment or exception shall be addressed to the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Department of Energy overseeing the Defense Production Act program, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585; (202) 586-1411 (<I>AskOE@hq.doe.gov</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 31670, May 27, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.10.9.9.5.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 217—Sample Form DOE F 544 (05-11)

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er09jn11.049.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="218" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 218—STANDBY MANDATORY INTERNATIONAL OIL ALLOCATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 751 <I>et seq.;</I> 15 U.S.C. 787 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 6201 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 27972, May 14, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements section 251 of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (Pub. L. 94-163) (42 U.S.C. 6271), as amended, which authorizes the President to take such action as he determines to be necessary for performance of the obligations of the United States under chapters III and IV of the Agreement on an International Energy Program (TIAS 8278), insofar as such obligations relate to the mandatory international allocation of oil by International Energy Program participating countries. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to any firm engaged in producing, transporting, refining, distributing or storing oil which is subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.1.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.2   Activation/Deactivation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This rule shall take effect providing: 
</P>
<P>(1) The International Energy Program has been activated; and, 
</P>
<P>(2) The President has transmitted this rule to Congress, has found putting such rule into effect is required in order to fulfill obligations of the United States under the International Energy Program and has transmitted such a finding to the Congress together with a statement of the effective date and manner for exercise of such rule. 
</P>
<P>(b) This rule shall revert to standby status no later than 60 days after the deactivation of the emergency allocation system activated to implement the International Energy Program. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.1.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91), and includes the Secretary of Energy or his delegate. 
</P>
<P><I>EPCA</I> means the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (Pub. L. 94-163), as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Firm</I> means any association, company, corporation, estate, individual, joint-venture, partnership, or sole proprietorship or any other entity however organized including charitable, educational, or other eleemosynary institutions, and the Federal Government including corporations, departments, Federal agencies, and other instrumentalities, and State and local governments. The ERA may, in regulations and forms issued in this part, treat as a firm: (a) A parent and the consolidated and unconsolidated entities (if any) which it directly or indirectly controls, (b) a parent and its consolidated entities, (c) an unconsolidated entity, or (d) any part of a firm. 
</P>
<P><I>IEA</I> means the International Energy Agency established to implement the IEP. 
</P>
<P><I>IEP</I> means the International Energy Program established pursuant to the Agreement on an International Energy Program signed at Paris, France, on November 18, 1974, including (a) the Annex entitled “Emergency Reserves”, (b) any amendment to such Agreement that includes another nation as a Party to such Agreement, and (c) any technical or clerical amendment to such Agreement.
</P>
<P><I>International energy supply emergency</I> means any period (a) beginning on any date that the President determines allocation of petroleum products to nations participating in the IEP is required by chapters III and IV of the IEP and (b) ending on a date on which he determines such allocation is no longer required. 
</P>
<P><I>Oil</I> means crude oil, residual fuel oil, unfinished oil, refined petroleum product and natural gas liquids, which is owned or controlled by a firm, including any petroleum product destined, directly or indirectly, for import into the United States or any foreign country, or produced in the United States but excludes any oil stored in or owned and controlled by the United States Government in connection with the Strategic Petroleum Reserve authorized in section 151, <I>et seq.,</I> of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (Pub. L. 94-163). 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, firm, estate, trust, sole proprietorship, partnership, association, company, joint-venture, corporation, governmental unit or instrumentality thereof, or a charitable, educational or other institution, and includes any officer, director, owner or duly authorized representative thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Supply order</I> means a written directive or a verbal communication of a written directive, if promptly confirmed in writing, issued by the DOE pursuant to subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> when used in the geographic sense means the several States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the territories and possessions of the United States, and the outer continental shelf as defined in 43 U.S.C. 1331. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Supply Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.10" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.10   Rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the determination by the President that an international energy supply emergency exists, firms engaged in producing, transporting, refining, distributing, or storing oil shall take such actions as are determined by the DOE to be necessary for implementation of the obligations of the United States under chapters III and IV of the IEP that relate to the mandatory international allocation of oil by IEP participating countries. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any actions required in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section shall be stated in supply orders issued by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(c) No firm to which a supply order is issued shall be required to comply with such order unless the firm to which the oil is to be provided in accordance with such supply order has agreed to a procedure for the resolution of any dispute related to the terms and conditions of the sale undertaken pursuant to the supply order. The means for resolving any such disputes may include any procedures that are mutually acceptable to the parties, including arbitration before the IEA if the IEA has established arbitration procedures, arbitration or adjudication before an appropriate body, or any other similar procedure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.11" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.2.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.11   Supply orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A supply order shall require that the firm to which it is issued take actions specified therein relating to supplying the stated volume of oil to a specified recipient including, but not limited to, distributing, producing, storing, transporting or refining oil. A supply order shall include a concise statement of the pertinent facts and of the legal basis on which it is issued, and shall describe the action to be taken. 
</P>
<P>(b) The DOE shall serve a copy of the supply order on the firm directed to act as stated therein. 
</P>
<P>(c) The DOE may modify or rescind a supply order on its own motion or pursuant to an application filed in accordance with § 218.32 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) A supply order shall be effective in accordance with its terms, and when served upon a firm directed to act thereunder, except that a supply order shall not remain in effect (1) upon reversion of this rule to standby status or (2) twelve months after the rule has been transmitted to Congress (whichever occurs first) or (3) to the extent that DOE or a court of competent jurisdiction directs that it be stayed, modified, or rescinded. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any firm issued a supply order pursuant to this subpart may seek modification or rescission of the supply order in accordance with procedures provided in § 218.32 of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.12" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.2.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.12   Pricing.</HEAD>
<P>The price for oil subject to a supply order issued pursuant to this subpart shall be based on the price conditions prevailing for comparable commercial transactions at the time the supply order is served. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.30" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.4.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.30   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes the administrative procedures applicable to supply orders. They shall be exclusive of any other procedures contained in this chapter, unless such other procedures are specifically made applicable hereto by this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.31" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.4.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.31   Incorporated procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The following subparts of part 205 of this chapter are, as appropriate, hereby made applicable to this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Subpart A—</I> General Provisions; <I>Provided,</I> that § 205.11 shall not apply; <I>and Provided further,</I> that in addition to the methods of service specified in § 205.7 of this chapter, service shall be effective if a supply order is transmitted by telex, telecopies or other similar means of electronic transmission of a writing and received by the firm to which the supply order is addressed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subpart F—</I> Interpretation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subpart K—</I> Rulings. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpart M—</I> Conferences, Hearings and Public Hearings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.32" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.4.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.32   Review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart establishes the procedures for the filing of an application for review of a supply order. An application for review is a summary proceeding which will be initiated only if the criteria described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section are satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What to file.</I> (1) A firm filing under this subpart shall file an “Application for Review” which should be clearly labeled as such both on the application and on the outside of the envelope in which the application is transmitted, and shall be in writing and signed by the firm filing the application. The applicant shall comply with the general filing requirements stated in 10 CFR 205.9 in addition to the requirements stated in this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant wishes to claim confidential treatment for any information contained in the application or other documents submitted under this subpart, the procedures set out in 10 CFR 205.9(f) shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to file.</I> An application for review should be filed no later than 5 days after the receipt by the applicant of the supply order that is the subject of the application, or no later than 2 days after the occurrence of an event that results in a substantial change in the facts or circumstances affecting the applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where to file.</I> The application for review shall be filed with DOE Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA), 2000 M Street, NW., Washington, DC 20461. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice.</I> The applicant shall send by United States mail or deliver by hand a copy of the application and any subsequent amendments or other documents relating to the application to the Administrator of the Economic Regulatory Administration of DOE, 2000 M Street, NW., Washington, DC 20461. Service shall be made on the ERA at same time the document is filed with OHA and each document filed with the OHA shall include certification that the applicant has complied with the requirements of this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contents.</I> (1) The application shall contain a full and complete statement of all relevant facts pertaining to the application and to the DOE action sought. Such facts shall include a complete statement of the business or other reasons that justify review of the supply order and a full description of the pertinent provisions and relevant facts contained in any relevant documents. Copies of all contracts, agreements, leases, instruments, and other documents relevant to the application shall be submitted with the application. A copy of the order of which review is sought shall be included with the application. When the application pertains to only one step of a larger integrated transaction, the facts, circumstances, and other relevant information pertaining to the entire transaction shall be submitted. 
</P>
<P>(2) The application shall include a discussion of all relevant authorities, including, but not limited to, DOE and DOE rulings, regulations, interpretations and decisions on appeal and exception relied upon to support the action sought therein. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>DOE evaluation</I>—(1) <I>Processing.</I> (i) The DOE may initiate an investigation of any statement in an application and utilize in its evaluation any relevant facts obtained by such investigation. The DOE may solicit and accept submissions from third parties relevant to any application for review provided that the applicant is afforded an opportunity to respond to all third party submissions. In evaluating an application for review, the DOE may convene a conference, on its own initiative, if, in its discretion, it considers that a conference will advance its evaluation of the application. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the DOE determines that there is insufficient information upon which to base a decision and if upon request the necessary additional information is not submitted, the DOE may dismiss the application without prejudice. If the failure to supply additional information is repeated or willful, the DOE may dismiss the application with prejudice. If the applicant fails to provide the notice required by paragraph (e) of this section, the DOE may dismiss the application without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(iii) An order dismissing an application for any of the reasons specified in paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section shall contain a statement of the grounds for the dismissal. The order shall become final within 5 days of its service upon the applicant, unless within such 5-day period the applicant files an amendment correcting the deficiencies identified in the order. Within 5 days of the filing of such amendment, the DOE shall notify the applicant whether the amendment corrects the specified deficiencies. If the amendment does not correct the deficiencies specified in the order, the order shall become a final order of the DOE of which the applicant may seek judicial review. 
</P>
<P>(2) An application for review of an order shall be processed only if the applicant demonstrates that—
</P>
<P>(i) There is probable cause to believe that the supply order is erroneous, inequitable, or unduly burdensome; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) There has been discovered a law, regulation, interpretation, ruling, order or decision that was in effect at the time of the application which, if it had been made known to the DOE, would have been relevant to the supply order and would have substantially altered the supply order; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) There has been a substantial change in the facts or circumstances affecting the applicant, which change has occurred during the interval between issuance of the supply order and the date of the application and was caused by forces or circumstances beyond the control of the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Decision.</I> (1) Upon consideration of the application and other relevant information received or obtained during the proceeding, the DOE shall issue an order granting or denying the modification or rescission of the supply order requested in the application for review. 
</P>
<P>(2) The DOE shall process applications for review as expeditiously as possible. When administratively feasible, the DOE shall issue an order granting or denying the application within 20 business days after receipt of the application. 
</P>
<P>(3) The order shall include a written statement setting forth the relevant facts and the legal basis of the order. The order shall state that it is a final order of which the applicant may seek judicial review. 
</P>
<P>(4) The DOE shall serve a copy of the order upon the applicant and any other party who participated in the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.33" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.4.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.33   Stay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DOE may issue an order granting a stay if the DOE determines that an applicant has made a compelling showing that it would incur serious and irreparable injury unless immediate stay relief is granted pending determination of an application for review pursuant to this subpart. An application for a stay shall be labeled as such on the application and on the outside of the envelope in which the application is transmitted, and shall be in writing and signed by the firm filing the application. It shall include a description of the proceeding incident to which the stay is being sought and of the facts and circumstances which support the applicant's claim that it will incur irreparable injury unless immediate stay relief is granted. The applicant shall comply with the general filing requirements stated in 10 CFR 205.9 in addition to the requirements stated in this section. The DOE on its own initiative may also issue an order granting a stay upon a finding that a firm will incur irreparable injury if such an order is not granted. 
</P>
<P>(b) An order granting a stay shall expire by its terms within such time after issuance, not to exceed 30 days as the DOE specifies in the order, except that it shall expire automatically 5 days following its issuance if the applicant fails within that period to file an application for review unless within that period the DOE for good cause shown, extends the time during which the applicant may file an application for review. 
</P>
<P>(c) The order granting or denying a stay is not an order of the DOE subject to administrative review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.34" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.4.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.34   Addresses.</HEAD>
<P>All correspondence, petitions, and any information required by this part shall be submitted to: Administrator, Economic Regulatory Administration, Department of Energy, 2000 M Street, NW., Washington, DC 20461, and to the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals, Department of Energy, 2000 M Street, NW., Washington, DC 20461. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Investigations, Violations, Sanctions and Judicial Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.40" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.5.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.40   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DOE may initiate and conduct investigations relating to the scope, nature and extent of compliance by any person with the rules, regulations or statutes of the DOE or any order promulgated by the DOE under the authority of section 251 of EPCA, or any court decree. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any duly designated and authorized representative of DOE has the authority to conduct an investigation and to take such action as he deems necessary and appropriate to the conduct of the investigation including any action pursuant to § 205.8. 
</P>
<P>(c) There are no parties, as that term is used in adjudicative proceedings, in an investigation under this subpart, and no person may intervene or participate as a matter of right in any investigation under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person may request the DOE to initiate an investigation pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. A request for an investigation shall set forth the subject matter to be investigated as fully as possible and include supporting documentation and information. No particular forms or procedures are required. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any person who is requested to furnish documentary evidence or testimony in an investigation, upon written request, shall be informed of the general purpose of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(f) DOE shall not disclose information or documents that are obtained during any investigation unless (1) DOE directs or authorizes the public disclosure of the investigation; (2) the information or documents are a matter of public record; or (3) disclosure is not precluded by the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 and 10 CFR part 1004. 
</P>
<P>(g) During the course of an investigation any person may submit at any time any document, statement of facts or memorandum of law for the purpose of explaining the person's position or furnish evidence which the person considers relevant to a matter under investigation. 
</P>
<P>(h) If facts disclosed by an investigation indicate that further action is unnecessary or unwarranted, the investigative file may be closed without prejudice to further investigation by the DOE at any time that circumstances so warrant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.41" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.5.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.41   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Any practice that circumvents, contravenes or results in the circumvention or contravention of the requirements of any provision of this part 218 or any order issued pursuant thereto is a violation of the DOE regulations stated in this part and is unlawful. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.42" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.5.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.42   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any person who violates any provisions of this part 218 or any order issued pursuant thereto shall be subject to penalties and sanctions as provided herein. 
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions herein for penalties and sanctions shall be deemed cumulative and not mutually exclusive. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each day that a violation of the provisions of this part 218 or any order issued pursuant thereto continues shall be deemed to constitute a separate violation within the meaning of the provisions of this part relating to fines and civil penalties. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Penalties.</I> (1) Any person who violates any provision of this part or any order issued pursuant thereto shall be subject to a civil penalty of not more than $28,748 for each violation.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person who willfully violates any provision of this part 218 or any order issued pursuant thereto shall be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000 for each violation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this part 218 or any order issued pursuant thereto with respect to the sale, offer of sale, or distribution in commerce of oil in commerce after having been subject to a sanction under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section for a prior violation of the provisions of this part 218 or any order issued pursuant thereto with respect to the sale, offer of sale, or distribution in commerce of oil shall be subject to a fine of not more than $50,000 or imprisonment for not more than six months, or both, for each violation. 
</P>
<P>(4) Actions for penalties under this section are prosecuted by the Department of Justice upon referral by the DOE. 
</P>
<P>(5) When the DOE considers it to be appropriate or advisable, the DOE may compromise and settle any action under this paragraph, and collect civil penalties. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other Penalties.</I> Willful concealment of material facts, or making of false, fictitious or fraudulent statements or representations, or submission of a document containing false, fictitious or fraudulent statements pertaining to matters within the scope of this part 218 by any person shall subject such persons to the criminal penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 1001 (1970). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 27972, May 14, 1979, as amended at 62 FR 46183, Sept. 2, 1997; 74 FR 66032, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41793, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96351, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1291, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2955, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1063, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1027, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105406, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.43" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.11.5.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.43   Injunctions.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever it appears to the DOE that any firm has engaged, is engaging, or is about to engage in any act or practice constituting a violation of any regulation or order issued under this part 218, the DOE may request the Attorney General to bring a civil action in the appropriate district court of the United States to enjoin such acts or practices and, upon a proper showing, a temporary restraining order or a preliminary or permanent injunction shall be granted without bond. The relief sought may include a mandatory injunction commanding any firm to comply with any provision of such order or regulation, the violation of which is prohibited by section 524 of the EPCA. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="220" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 220 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="221" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 221—PRIORITY SUPPLY OF CRUDE OIL AND PETROLEUM PRODUCTS TO THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE UNDER THE DEFENSE PRODUCTION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Defense Production Act, 50 U.S.C. App. 2061 <I>et seq.,</I> E.O. 10480 (18 FR 4939, Aug. 18, 1953) as amended by E.O. 12038 (43 FR 4957, Feb. 7, 1978), and E.O. 11790 (39 FR 23785, June 27, 1974).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 76433, Nov. 19, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the procedures to be utilized by the Economic Regulatory Administration of the Department of Energy and the Department of Defense whenever the priority supply of crude oil and petroleum products is necessary or appropriate to meet national defense needs. The procedures available in this part are intended to supplement but not to supplant other regulations of the ERA regarding the allocation of crude oil, residual fuel oil and refined petroleum products.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.1.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the mandatory supply of crude oil, refined petroleum products (including liquefied petroleum gases) and lubricants to the Department of Defense for its own use or for purchases made by the Department of Defense on behalf of other Federal Government agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exclusions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.11" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.11   Natural gas and ethane.</HEAD>
<P>The supply of natural gas and ethane are excluded from this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.21" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.3.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.21   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P><I>Directive</I> means an official action taken by ERA which requires a named person to take an action in accordance with its provisions.
</P>
<P><I>DOD</I> means the Department of Defense, including Military Departments and Defense Agencies, acting through either the Secretary of Defense or the designee of the Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>ERA</I> means the Economic Regulatory Administration of the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>National defense</I> means programs for military and atomic energy production or construction, military assistance to any foreign nation, stockpiling and space, or activities directly related to any of the above.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, association or any other organized group of persons, and includes any agency of the United States Government or any other government.
</P>
<P><I>Priority-rated supply order</I> means any delivery order for crude oil or petroleum products issued by DOD bearing a priority rating issued by ERA under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Supplier</I> means any person other than the DOD which supplies, sells, transfers, or otherwise furnishes (as by consignment) crude oil or petroleum product to any other person. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Administrative Procedures and Sanctions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.31" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.4.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.31   Requests by DOD.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When DOD finds that (1) a fuel supply shortage for DOD exists or is anticipated which would have a substantial negative impact on the national defense, and (2) the defense activity for which fuel is required cannot be postponed until after the fuel supply shortage is likely to terminate, DOD may submit a written request to ERA for the issuance to it of a priority rating for the supply of crude oil and petroleum products.
</P>
<P>(b) Not later than the transmittal date of its request to ERA, DOD shall notify the Federal Emergency Management Agency that it has requested a priority rating from ERA.
</P>
<P>(c) Requests from DOD shall set forth the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The quantity and quality of crude oil or petroleum products determined by DOD to be required to meet national defense requirements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The required delivery dates; 
</P>
<P>(3) The defense-related activity and the supply location for which the crude oil or petroleum product is to be delivered; 
</P>
<P>(4) The current or most recent suppliers of the crude oil or petroleum product and the reasons, if known, why the suppliers will not supply the requested crude oil or petroleum product; 
</P>
<P>(5) The degree to which it is feasible for DOD to use an alternate product in lieu of that requested and, if such an alternative product can be used, the efforts which have been made to obtain the alternate product; 
</P>
<P>(6) The period during which the shortage of crude oil or petroleum products is expected to exist; 
</P>
<P>(7) The proposed supply source for the additional crude oil or petroleum products required, which shall, if practicable, be the historical supplier of such crude oil or product to DOD; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Certification that DOD has made each of the findings required by paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.32" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.4.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.32   Evaluation of DOD request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a request from DOD for a priority rating as provided in § 221.31, it shall be reviewed promptly by ERA. The ERA will assess the request in terms of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The information provided under § 221.31; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether DOD's national defense needs for crude oil or petroleum products can reasonably be satisfied without exercising the authority specified in this part; 
</P>
<P>(3) The capability of the proposed supplier to supply the crude oil or petroleum product in the amounts required; 
</P>
<P>(4) The known capabilities of alternative suppliers; 
</P>
<P>(5) The feasibility to DOD of converting to and using a product other than that requested; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(b) The ERA promptly shall notify the proposed supplier of DOD's request for a priority rating specified under this part. The proposed supplier shall have a period specified in the notice, not to exceed fifteen (15) days from the date it is notified of DOD's request, to show cause in writing why it cannot supply the requested quantity and quality of crude oil or petroleum products. ERA shall consider this information in determining whether to issue the priority rating.
</P>
<P>(c) If acceptance by a supplier of a rated order would create a conflict with another rated order of the supplier, it shall include all pertinent information regarding such conflict in its response to the show cause order provided for in subsection (b), and ERA, in consultation with DOD and the Federal Emergency Management Agency shall determine the priorities for meeting all such requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) ERA may waive some or all of the requirements of § 221.31 or this section where the Secretary of Defense or his designee certifies, and has so notified the Federal Emergency Management Agency, that a fuel shortage for DOD exists or is imminent and that compliance with such requirements would have a substantial negative impact on the national defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.33" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.4.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.33   Order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> If ERA determines that issuance of a priority rating for a crude oil or refined petroleum product is necessary to provide the crude oil or petroleum products needed to meet the national defense requirement established by DOD, it shall issue such a rating to DOD for delivery of specified qualities and quantities of the crude oil or refined petroleum products on or during specified delivery dates or periods. In accordance with the terms of the order, DOD may then place such priority rating on a supply order. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance.</I> Each person who receives a priority-rated supply order pursuant to this part shall supply the specified crude oil or petroleum products to DOD in accordance with the terms of that order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ERA directives.</I> Notwithstanding any other provisions of this part, where necessary or appropriate to promote the national defense ERA is authorized to issue a directive to a supplier of crude oil or petroleum product requiring delivery of specified qualities and quantities of such crude oil or petroleum products to DOD at or during specified delivery dates or periods.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of ratings by suppliers.</I> No supplier who receives a priority-rated supply order or directive issued under the authority of this section may use such priority order or directive in order to obtain materials necessary to meet its supply obligations thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.34" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.4.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.34   Effect of order.</HEAD>
<P><I>Defense against claims for damages.</I> No person shall be liable for damages or penalties for any act or failure to act resulting directly or indirectly from compliance with any ERA authorized priority-rated supply order or ERA directive issued pursuant to this part, notwithstanding that such priority-rated supply order or directive thereafter be declared by judicial or other competent authority to be invalid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.35" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.4.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.35   Contractual requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No supplier may discriminate against an order or contract on which a priority rating has been placed under this part by charging higher prices, by imposing terms and conditions for such orders or contracts different from other generally comparable orders or contracts, or by any other means.
</P>
<P>(b) Contracts with priority ratings shall be subject to all applicable laws and regulations which govern the making of such contracts, including those specified in 10 CFR 211.26(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.36" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.4.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.36   Records and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person receiving an order or directive under this part shall keep for at least two years from the date of full compliance with such order or directive accurate and complete records of crude oil and petroleum product deliveries made in accordance with such order or directive.
</P>
<P>(b) All records required to be maintained shall be made available upon request for inspection and audit by duly authorized representatives of the ERA.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1903-0073)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 76433, Nov. 19, 1980, as amended at 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.37" NODE="10:3.0.1.1.13.4.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.37   Violations and sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any practice that circumvents or contravenes the requirements of this part or any order or directive issued under this part is a violation of the regulations provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criminal penalties.</I> Any person who willfully performs any act prohibited, or willfully fails to perform any act required by this part or any order or directive issued under this part shall be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000 for each violation or imprisoned for not more than one year for each violation, or both.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever in the judgment of the Administrator of ERA any person has engaged or is about to engage in any acts or practices which constitute or will constitute a violation of any provision of these regulations, the Administrator may make application to the appropriate court for an order enjoining such acts or practices, or for an order enforcing compliance with such provision.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—CLIMATE CHANGE


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="300" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 300—VOLUNTARY GREENHOUSE GAS REPORTING PROGRAM: GENERAL GUIDELINES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101, <I>et seq.,</I> and 42 U.S.C. 13385(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 20805, Apr. 21, 2006, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 300.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The General Guidelines in this part and the Technical Guidelines incorporated by reference in § 300.13 govern the Voluntary Reporting of Greenhouse Gases Program authorized by section 1605(b) of the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (42 U.S.C. 13385(b)). The purpose of the guidelines is to establish the procedures and requirements for filing voluntary reports, and to encourage corporations, government agencies, non-profit organizations, households and other private and public entities to submit annual reports of their greenhouse gas emissions, emission reductions, and sequestration activities that are complete, reliable and consistent. Over time, it is anticipated that these reports will provide a reliable record of the contributions reporting entities have made toward reducing their greenhouse gas emissions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting under the program.</I> (1) Each reporting entity, whether or not it intends to register emissions as described in paragraph (c) of this section, must:
</P>
<P>(i) File an entity statement that meets the appropriate requirements in § 300.5(d) through (f) of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Use appropriate emission inventory and emission reduction calculation methods specified in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13), and calculate and report the weighted average quality rating of any emission inventories it reports;
</P>
<P>(iii) Comply with the record keeping requirements in § 300.9 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Comply with the certification requirements in § 300.10 of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Each reporting entity, whether or not it intends to register emissions as described in paragraph (c) of this section, may report offset reductions achieved by other entities outside their boundaries as long as such reductions are reported separately and calculated in accordance with methods specified in the Technical Guidelines. The third-party entity that achieved these reductions must agree to their being reported as offset reductions, and must also meet all of the requirements of reporting that would apply if the third-party entity reported directly under the 1605(b) program.
</P>
<P>(3) An entity that intends to register emissions and emission reductions must meet the additional requirements referenced in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) An entity that does not intend to register emissions and emission reductions may choose to report its emissions and/or emission reductions on an entity-wide basis or for selected elements of the entity, selected gases or selected sources.
</P>
<P>(5) An entity that does not intend to register emissions may report emission inventories for any year back to 1990 and may report emission reductions for any year back to 1991, relative to a base period of one to four years, ending no earlier than 1990.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Registration requirements.</I> Entities that seek to register reductions must meet the additional requirements in this paragraph; although these requirements differ depending on whether the entity is a large or small emitter.
</P>
<P>(1) To be eligible for registration, a reduction must have been achieved after 2002, unless the entity has committed under the Climate Leaders or Climate VISION programs to reduce its entity-wide emissions relative to a base period that ends earlier 2002, but no earlier than 2000.
</P>
<P>(2) A large emitter must submit an entity-wide emission inventory that meets or exceeds the minimum quality requirements specified in § 300.6(b) and the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13). Registered reductions of a large emitter must be based on an entity-wide assessment of net emission reductions, determined in accordance with § 300.8 and the Technical Guidelines.
</P>
<P>(3) A small emitter must also submit an emission inventory that meets minimum quality requirements specified in § 300.6(b) and the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) and base its registered reductions on an assessment of annual changes in net emissions. A small emitter, however, may restrict its inventory and assessment to a single type of activity, such as forest management, building operations or agricultural tillage.
</P>
<P>(4) Reporting entities may, under certain conditions, register reductions achieved by other entities:
</P>
<P>(i) Reporting entities that have met the requirements for registering their own reductions may also register offset reductions achieved by other entities if:
</P>
<P>(A) They have an agreement with the third-party entities to do so and these third-party entities have met all of the requirements for registration; or
</P>
<P>(B) They were the result of qualified demand management or other programs and are calculated in accordance with the action-specific method identified in § 300.8(h)(5).
</P>
<P>(ii) Small emitters that serve as an aggregator may register offset reductions achieved by non-reporting entities without reporting on their own emissions, as long as they have an agreement with the third-party entities to do so and these third-party entities have met all of the requirements for registration.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Forms.</I> Annual reports of greenhouse gas emissions, emission reductions, and sequestration must be made on forms or software made available by the Energy Information Administration of the Department of Energy (EIA).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Status of reports under previous guidelines.</I> EIA continues to maintain in its Voluntary Reporting of Greenhouse Gases database all reports received pursuant to DOE's October 1994 guidelines. Those guidelines are available from EIA at <I>http://www.eia.doe.gov/oiaf/1605/guidelns.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Periodic review and updating of General and Technical Guidelines.</I> DOE intends periodically to review the General Guidelines and the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) to determine whether any changes are warranted; DOE anticipates these reviews will occur approximately once every three years. These reviews will consider any new developments in climate science or policy, the participation rates of large and small emitters in the 1605(b) program, the general quality of the data submitted by different participants, and any changes to other emissions reporting protocols. Possible changes may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The addition of greenhouse gases that have been demonstrated to have significant, quantifiable climate forcing effects when released to the atmosphere in significant quantities;
</P>
<P>(2) Changes to the minimum, quantity-weighted quality rating for emission inventories;
</P>
<P>(3) Updates to emission inventory methods, emission factors and other provisions that are contained in industry protocols or standards. The review may also consider updates to any government-developed and consensus-based emission factors for which automatic updating is not provided in the Technical Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(4) Modifications to the benchmarks or emission conversion factors used to calculate avoided and indirect emissions; and
</P>
<P>(5) Changes in the minimum requirements for registered emission reductions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides definitions for commonly used terms in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Activity of a small emitter</I> means, with respect to a small emitter, any single category of anthropogenic production, consumption or other action that releases emissions or results in sequestration, the annual changes of which can be assessed generally by using a single calculation method.
</P>
<P><I>Aggregator</I> means an entity that reports to the 1605(b) program on behalf of non-reporting entities. An aggregator may be a large or small emitter, such as a trade association, non-profit organization or public agency.
</P>
<P><I>Anthropogenic</I> means greenhouse gas emissions and removals that are a direct result of human activities or are the result of natural processes that have been affected by human activities.
</P>
<P><I>Avoided emissions</I> means the greenhouse gas emission reductions that occur outside the organizational boundary of the reporting entity as a direct consequence of changes in the entity's activity, including but not necessarily limited to the emission reductions associated with increases in the generation and sale of electricity, steam, hot water or chilled water produced from energy sources that emit fewer greenhouse gases per unit than other competing sources of these forms of distributed energy.
</P>
<P><I>Base period</I> means a period of 1-4 years used to derive the average annual base emissions, emissions intensity or other values from which emission reductions are calculated.
</P>
<P><I>Base value</I> means the value from which emission reductions are calculated for an entity or subentity. The value may be annual emissions, emissions intensity, kilowatt-hours generated, or other value specified in the 1605(b) guidelines. It is usually derived from actual emissions and/or activity data derived from the base period.
</P>
<P><I>Biogenic emissions</I> mean emissions that are naturally occurring and are not significantly affected by human actions or activity.
</P>
<P><I>Boundary</I> means the actual or virtual line that encompasses all the emissions and carbon stocks that are to be quantified and reported in an entity's greenhouse gas inventory, including <I>de minimis</I> emissions. Entities may use financial control or another classification method based on ownership or control as the means of determining which sources or carbon stocks fall within this organizational boundary.
</P>
<P><I>Carbon dioxide equivalent</I> means the amount of carbon dioxide by weight emitted into the atmosphere that would produce the same estimated radiative forcing as a given weight of another radiatively active gas. Carbon dioxide equivalents are computed by multiplying the weight of the gas being measured by its estimated global warming potential.
</P>
<P><I>Carbon stocks</I> mean the quantity of carbon stored in biological and physical systems including: trees, products of harvested trees, agricultural crops, plants, wood and paper products and other terrestrial biosphere sinks, soils, oceans, and sedimentary and geological sinks.
</P>
<P><I>Climate Leaders</I> means the EPA sponsored industry-government partnership that works with individual companies to develop long-term comprehensive climate change strategies. Certain Climate Leaders Partners have, working with EPA, set a corporate-wide greenhouse gas reduction goal and have inventoried their emissions to measure progress towards their goal.
</P>
<P><I>Climate VISION</I> means the public-private partnership initiated pursuant to a Presidential directive issued in 2002 that aims to contribute to the President's goal of reducing greenhouse gas intensity through voluntary frameworks with industry. Climate VISION partners have signed an agreement with DOE to implement various climate-related actions to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
</P>
<P><I>De minimis emissions</I> means emissions from one or more sources and of one or more greenhouse gases that, in aggregate, are less than or equal to 3 percent of the total annual carbon dioxide (CO<E T="52">2</E>) equivalent emissions of a reporting entity.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> or <I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Direct emissions</I> are emissions from sources within the organizational boundaries of an entity.
</P>
<P><I>Distributed energy</I> means electrical or thermal energy generated by an entity that is sold or otherwise exported outside of the entity's boundaries for use by another entity.
</P>
<P><I>EIA</I> means the Energy Information Administration within the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Emissions</I> means the direct release of greenhouse gases to the atmosphere from any anthropogenic (human induced) source and certain indirect emissions (releases) specified in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Emissions intensity</I> means emissions per unit of output, where output is defined as the quantity of physical output, or a non-physical indicator of an entity's or subentity's productive activity.
</P>
<P><I>Entity</I> means the whole or part of any business, institution, organization, government agency or corporation, or household that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is recognized under any U.S. Federal, State or local law that applies to it;
</P>
<P>(2) Is located and operates, at least in part, in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(3) The emissions of such operations are released, at least in part, in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>First reduction year</I> means the first year for which an entity intends to register emission reductions; it is the year that immediately follows the start year.
</P>
<P><I>Fugitive emissions</I> means uncontrolled releases to the atmosphere of greenhouse gases from the processing, transmission, and/or transportation of fossil fuels or other materials, such as HFC leaks from refrigeration, SF6 from electrical power distributors, and methane from solid waste landfills, among others, that are not emitted via an exhaust pipe(s) or stack(s).
</P>
<P><I>Greenhouse gases</I> means the gases that may be reported to the Department of Energy under this program. They are:
</P>
<P>(1) Carbon dioxide (CO<E T="52">2</E>) 
</P>
<P>(2) Methane (CH<E T="52">4</E>) 
</P>
<P>(3) Nitrous oxide (N<E T="52">2</E>O) 
</P>
<P>(4) HydrofluorocarbonsHFC-23 [trifluoromethane-(CHF<E T="52">3</E>]HFC-32 [trifluoromethane-CH<E T="52">2</E>F<E T="52">2</E>], CH<E T="52">2</E>CF<E T="52">3</E>, CH<E T="52">3</E>F, CHF<E T="52">2</E>CF<E T="52">3</E>, CH<E T="52">2</E>FCF<E T="52">3</E>, CH<E T="52">3</E>FCF<E T="52">3</E>, CHF<E T="52">2</E>CH<E T="52">2</E>F, CF<E T="52">3</E>CH<E T="52">3</E>, CH<E T="52">2</E>FCH<E T="52">2</E>F, CH<E T="52">3</E>CHF<E T="52">2</E>, CH<E T="52">3</E>CH<E T="52">2</E>F, CF<E T="52">3</E>CHFCF<E T="52">3</E>, CH<E T="52">2</E>FCF<E T="52">3</E>CF<E T="52">3</E>, CHF<E T="52">2</E>CHFCF<E T="52">3</E>, CF<E T="52">3</E>CH<E T="52">2</E>CF<E T="52">3</E>, CH<E T="52">2</E>FCF<E T="52">2</E>CHF<E T="52">2</E>, CHF<E T="52">2</E>CH<E T="52">2</E>CF<E T="52">3</E>, CF<E T="52">3</E>CH<E T="52">2</E>CF<E T="52">2</E>CH<E T="52">3</E>, CH<E T="52">3</E> CHFCHFCF<E T="52">2</E>)
</P>
<P>(5) Perfluorocarbons (perfluoromethane-CF<E T="52">4</E>, perfluoroethane-C<E T="52">2</E>F<E T="52">6</E>, C<E T="52">3</E>F<E T="52">8</E>, C<E T="52">4</E>F<E T="52">10</E>, c-C<E T="52">4</E>F<E T="52">8</E>, C<E T="52">5</E>F<E T="52">12</E>, C<E T="52">6</E>F<E T="52">14</E>) 
</P>
<P>(6) Sulfur hexafluoride (SF<E T="52">6</E>) 
</P>
<P>(7) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC-11 [trichlorofluoromethane-CCl<E T="52">3</E>F], CCl<E T="52">2</E>F<E T="52">2</E>, CClF<E T="52">3</E>, CCl<E T="52">2</E>FCClF<E T="52">2</E>, CClF<E T="52">2</E>CClF<E T="52">2</E>, ClF<E T="52">3</E>CClF<E T="52">2</E>,) 
</P>
<P>(8) Other gases or particles that have been demonstrated to have significant, quantifiable climate forcing effects when released to the atmosphere in significant quantities and for which DOE has established or approved methods for estimating emissions and reductions. (<E T="04">Note:</E> As provided in § 300.6(i), chlorofluorcarbons and other gases with quantifiable climate forcing effects may be reported to the 1605(b) program if DOE has established an appropriate emission inventory or emission reduction calculation method, but reductions of these gases may not be registered.)
</P>
<P><I>Incidental lands</I> are entity landholdings that are a minor component of an entity's operations and are not actively managed for production of goods and services, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Transmission, pipeline, or transportation right of ways that are not managed for timber production;
</P>
<P>(2) Land surrounding commercial enterprises or facilities; and
</P>
<P>(3) Land where carbon stock changes are determined by natural factors.
</P>
<P><I>Indirect emissions</I> means greenhouse gas emissions from stationary or mobile sources outside the organizational boundary that occur as a direct consequence of an entity's activity, including but not necessarily limited to the emissions associated with the generation of electricity, steam and hot/chilled water used by the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Large emitter</I> means an entity whose annual emissions are more than 10,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent, as determined in accordance with § 300.5(c).
</P>
<P><I>Net emission reductions</I> means the sum of all annual changes in emissions, eligible avoided emissions and sequestration of the greenhouse gases specifically identified in § 300.6(i), and determined to be in conformance with §§ 300.7 and 300.8 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Offset</I> means an emission reduction that is included in a 1605(b) report and meets the requirements of this part, but is achieved by an entity other than the reporting entity. Offset reductions must not be reported or registered by any other entity and must appear as a separate and distinct component of an entity's report. Offsets are not integrated into the reporting entity's emissions or net emission reductions.
</P>
<P><I>Registration</I> means the reporting of emission reductions that the EIA has determined meet the qualifications for registered emission reductions set forth in the guidelines.
</P>
<P><I>Reporting entity</I> means an entity that has submitted a report under the 1605(b) program that has been accepted by the Energy Information Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Reporting year</I> means the year that is the subject of a report to DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Sequestration</I> means the process by which CO<E T="52">2</E> is removed from the atmosphere, either through biologic processes or physical processes.
</P>
<P><I>Simplified Emission Inventory Tool (SEIT)</I> is a computer-based method, to be developed and made readily accessible by EIA, for translating common physical indicators into an estimate of greenhouse gas emissions.
</P>
<P><I>Sink</I> means an identifiable discrete location, set of locations, or area in which CO<E T="52">2</E> or some other greenhouse gas is sequestered.
</P>
<P><I>Small emitter</I> means an entity whose annual emissions are less than or equal to 10,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent, as determined in accordance with § 300.5(c), and that chooses to be treated as a small emitter under the guidelines.
</P>
<P><I>Source</I> means any land, facility, process, vehicle or activity that releases a greenhouse gas.
</P>
<P><I>Start year</I> means the year upon which the initial entity statement is based and the last year of the initial base period(s).
</P>
<P><I>Subentity</I> means a component of any entity, such as a discrete business line, facility, plant, vehicle fleet, or energy using system, which has associated with it emissions of greenhouse gases that can be distinguished from the emissions of all other components of the same entity and, when summed with the emissions of all other subentities, equal the entity's total emissions.
</P>
<P><I>Total emissions</I> means the total annual contribution of the greenhouse gases (as defined in this section) to the atmosphere by an entity, including both direct and indirect entity-wide emissions.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> or <I>U.S.</I> means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and any other territory of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.3   Guidance for defining and naming the reporting entity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A reporting entity must be composed of one or more businesses, public or private institutions or organizations, households, or other entities having operations that annually release emissions, at least in part, in the United States. Entities may be defined by, as appropriate, a certificate of incorporation, corporate charter, corporate filings, tax identification number, or other legal basis of identification recognized under any Federal, State or local law or regulation. If a reporting entity is composed of more than one entity, all of the entities included must be responsible to the same management hierarchy and all entities that have the same management hierarchy must be included in the reporting entity.
</P>
<P>(b) All reporting entities are strongly encouraged to define themselves at the highest level of aggregation. To achieve this objective, DOE suggests the use of a corporate-level definition of the entity, based on filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission or institutional charters. While reporting at the highest level of aggregation is encouraged, DOE recognizes that certain businesses and institutions may conclude that reporting at some lower level is desirable. Federal agencies are encouraged to report at the agency or departmental level, but distinct organizational units (such as a Department of the Interior Fish and Wildlife Service National Wildlife Refuge) may report directly if authorized by their department or agency. Once an entity has determined the level of corporate or institutional management at which it will report (<I>e.g.</I>, the holding company, subsidiary, regulated stationary source, state government, agency, refuge, etc.), the entity must include all elements of the organization encompassed by that management level and exclude any organizations that are managed separately. For example, if two subsidiaries of a parent company are to be covered by a single report, then all subsidiaries of that parent company must also be included. Similarly, if a company decides to report on the U.S. and Canadian subsidiaries of its North American operations unit, it must also report on any other subsidiaries of its North American unit, such as a Mexican subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) A name for the defined entity must be specified by all reporters. For entities that intend to register reductions, this should be the name commonly used to represent the activities being reported, as long as it is not also used to refer to substantial activities not covered by the entity's reports. While DOE believes entities should be given considerable flexibility in defining themselves at an appropriate level of aggregation, it is essential that the name assigned to an entity that intends to register reductions corresponds closely to the scope of the operations and emissions covered by its report. If, for example, an individual plant or operating unit is reporting as an entity, it should be given a name that corresponds to the specific plant or unit, and not to the responsible subsidiary or corporate entity. In order to distinguish a parent company from its subsidiaries, the name of the parent company generally should not be incorporated into the name of the reporting subsidiary, but if it is, the name of the parent company usually should be secondary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.4" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.4   Selecting organizational boundaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each reporting entity must disclose in its entity statement the approach used to establish its organizational boundaries, which should be consistent with the following guidelines:
</P>
<P>(1) In general, entities should use financial control as the primary basis for determining their organizational boundaries, with financial control meaning the ability to direct the financial and operating policies of all elements of the entity with a view to gaining economic or other benefits from its activities over a period of many years. This approach should ensure that all sources, including those controlled by subsidiaries, that are wholly or largely owned by the entity are covered by its reports. Sources that are under long-term lease of the entity may, depending on the provisions of such leases, also be considered to be under the entity's financial control. Sources that are temporarily leased or operated by an entity generally would not be considered to be under its financial control.
</P>
<P>(2) Entities may establish organizational boundaries using approaches other than financial control, such as equity share or operational control, but must disclose how the use of these other approaches results in organizational boundaries that differ from those resulting from using the financial control approach.
</P>
<P>(3) Emissions from facilities or vehicles that are partially-owned or leased may be included at the entity's discretion, provided that the entity has taken reasonable steps to assure that doing so does not result in the double counting of emissions, sequestration or emission reductions. Emissions reductions or sequestration associated with land, facilities or other sources not owned or leased by an entity may not be included in the entity's reports under the program unless the entity has long-term control over the emissions or sequestration of the source and the owner of the source has agreed that the emissions or sequestration may be included in the entity's report.
</P>
<P>(4) If the scope of a defined entity extends beyond the United States, the reporting entity should use the same approach to determining its organizational boundaries in the U.S. and outside the U.S.
</P>
<P>(b) Each reporting entity must keep separate reports on emissions or emission reductions that occur within its defined boundaries and those that occur outside its defined boundaries. Entities must also keep separate reports on emissions and emission reductions that occur outside the United States and those that occur within the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) An entity that intends to register its entity-wide emissions reductions must document and maintain its organizational boundary for accounting and reporting purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.5" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.5   Submission of an entity statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determining the type of reporting entity.</I> The entity statement requirements vary by type of reporting entity. For the purposes of these guidelines, there are three types of entities:
</P>
<P>(1) Large emitters that intend to register emission reductions;
</P>
<P>(2) Small emitters that intend to register emission reductions; and
</P>
<P>(3) Emitters that intend to report, but not register emission reductions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Choosing a start year.</I> The first entity statement describes the make-up, operations and boundaries of the entity, as they existed in the start year.
</P>
<P>(1) For all entities, it is the year immediately preceding the first year for which the entity intends to register emission reductions and the last year of the initial base period(s).
</P>
<P>(2) For entities intending to register emission reductions, the start year may be no earlier than 2002, unless the entity has made a commitment to reduce its entity-wide emissions under the Climate Leaders or Climate VISION program. An entity that has made such a commitment may establish a start year derived from the base period of the commitment, as long as it is no earlier than 2000.
</P>
<P>(i) For a large emitter, the start year is the first year for which the entity submits a complete emissions inventory under the 1605(b) program.
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity's emissions in its start year or its average annual emissions over a period of up to four years ending in the start year determine whether it qualifies to begin reporting as a small emitter.
</P>
<P>(3) For entities not intending to register reductions, the start year may be no earlier than 1990.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determining and maintaining large or small emitter reporting status.</I> (1) Any entity that intends to register emission reductions can choose to participate as a large emitter, but only an entity that has demonstrated that its annual emissions are less than or equal to 10,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent may participate as a small emitter. To demonstrate that its annual emissions are less than or equal to 10,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent, an entity must submit either an estimate of its emissions during its chosen start year or an estimate of its average annual emissions over a continuous period not to exceed four years of time ending in its chosen start year, as long as the operations and boundaries of the entity have not changed significantly during that period.
</P>
<P>(2) An entity must estimate its total emissions using methods specified in Chapter 1 of the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) or by using the Simplified Emission Inventory Tool (SEIT) provided by EIA and also discussed in Chapter 1. The results of this estimate must be reported to EIA. [<E T="04">Note:</E> emission estimates developed using SEIT may not be used to prepare, in whole or part, entity-wide emission inventories required for the registration of reductions.]
</P>
<P>(3) After starting to report, each small emitter must annually certify that the emissions-related operations and boundaries of the entity have not changed significantly since the previous report. A new estimate of total emissions must be submitted after any significant increase in emissions, any change in the operations or boundaries of the small emitter, or every five years, whichever occurs first. Small emitters with estimated annual emissions of over 9,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent should re-estimate and submit their emissions annually. If an entity determines that it must report as a large emitter, then it must continue to report as a large emitter in all future years in order to ensure a consistent time series of reports. Once a small emitter becomes a large emitter, it must begin reporting in conformity with the reporting requirements for large emitters.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Entity statements for large emitters intending to register reductions.</I> When a large emitter intending to register emission reductions first reports under these guidelines, it must provide the following information in its entity statement:
</P>
<P>(1) The name to be used to identify the participating entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal basis of the named entity;
</P>
<P>(3) The criteria used to determine:
</P>
<P>(i) The organizational boundaries of the entity, if other than financial control; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The sources of emissions included or excluded from the entity's reports, such as sources excluded as <I>de minimis</I> emissions;
</P>
<P>(4) The names of any parent or holding companies the activities of which will not be covered comprehensively by the entity's reports;
</P>
<P>(5) The names of any large subsidiaries or organizational units covered comprehensively by the entity's reports. All subsidiaries of the entity must be covered by the entity's reports, but only large subsidiaries must be specifically identified in the entity statement;
</P>
<P>(6) A list of each country where operations occur, if the entity is including any non-U.S. operations in its report;
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the entity and its primary U.S. economic activities, such as electricity generation, product manufacturing, service provider or freight transport; for each country listed under paragraph (d)(6) of this section, the large emitter should describe the economic activity in that country.
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the types of emission sources or sinks to be covered in the entity's emission inventories, such as fossil fuel power plants, manufacturing facilities, commercial office buildings or heavy-duty vehicles;
</P>
<P>(9) The names of other entities that substantially share the ownership or operational control of sources that represent a significant part of the reporting entity's emission inventories, and a certification that, to the best of the certifier's knowledge, the direct greenhouse gas emissions and sequestration in the entity's report are not included in reports filed by any of these other entities to the 1605(b) program; and
</P>
<P>(10) Identification of the start year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Entity statements for small emitters intending to register reductions.</I> When a small emitter intending to register emission reductions first reports under these guidelines, it must provide the following information in its entity statement:
</P>
<P>(1) The name to be used to identify the participating entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal basis of the named entity;
</P>
<P>(3) An identification of the entity's control over the activities covered by the entity's reports, if other than financial control;
</P>
<P>(4) The names of any parent or holding companies the activities of which will not be covered comprehensively by the entity's reports;
</P>
<P>(5) An identification or description of the primary economic activities of the entity, such as agricultural production, forest management or household operation; if any of the economic activities covered by the entity's reports occur outside the U.S., a listing of each country in which such activities occur;
</P>
<P>(6) An identification or description of the specific activity (or activities) and the emissions, avoided emissions or sequestration covered by the entity's report, such as landfill gas recovery or forest sequestration;
</P>
<P>(7) A certification that, to the best of the certifier's knowledge, the direct greenhouse gas emissions and sequestration in the entity's report are not included in reports filed by any other entities reporting to the 1605(b) program; and
</P>
<P>(8) Identification of the start year.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Entity statements for reporting entities not registering reductions.</I> When a participant not intending to register emission reductions first reports under this part, it must, at a minimum, provide the following information in its entity statement:
</P>
<P>(1) The name to be used to identify the reporting entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal basis of the entity;
</P>
<P>(3) An identification of the entity's control over the activities covered by the entity's reports, if other than financial control;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the entity and its primary economic activities, such as electricity generation, product manufacturing, service provider, freight transport, agricultural production, forest management or household operation; if any of the economic activities covered by the entity's reports occur outside the United States, a listing of each country in which such activities occur; and
</P>
<P>(5) A description of the types of emission sources or sinks, such as fossil fuel power plants, manufacturing facilities, commercial office buildings or heavy-duty vehicles, covered in the entity's reports of emissions or emission reductions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Changing entity statements.</I> (1) Reporting entities are required to annually review and, if necessary, update their entity statements.
</P>
<P>(2) From time to time, a reporting entity may choose to change the scope of activities included within the entity's reports or the level at which the entity wishes to report. A reporting entity may also choose to change its organizational boundaries, its base period, or other elements of its entity statement. For example, companies buy and sell business units, or equity share arrangements may change. In general, DOE encourages changes in the scope of reporting that expand the coverage of an entity's report and discourages changes that reduce the coverage of such reports unless they are caused by divestitures or plant closures. Any such changes should be reported in amendments to the entity statement, and major changes may warrant or require changes in the base values used to calculate emission reductions and, in some cases, the entity's base periods. Changes in the scope of reporting made on or before May 31 of a given calendar year must be reflected in the report submitted covering emissions and reductions for the following calendar year. Reporting entities may choose to postpone incorporating changes in the scope of reporting made after May 31 until submitting the report covering emissions and reductions for the year after the following calendar year. However, in no case should there be an interruption in the annual reports of entities registering emission reductions. Chapter 2 of the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) provides more specific guidance on how such changes should be reflected in entity statements, reports, and emission reduction calculations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Documenting changes in amended entity statements.</I> A reporting entity's entity statement in subsequent reports should focus primarily on changes since the previous report. Specifically, the subsequent entity statement should report the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) For significant changes in the reporting entity's scope or organizational boundaries, the entity should document:
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition or divestiture of discrete business units, subsidiaries, facilities, and plants;
</P>
<P>(ii) The closure or opening of significant facilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) The transfer of economic activity to or from specific subentities covered by the entity's reports, such as the transfer of operations to non-U.S. subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(iv) Significant changes in land holdings (applies to entities reporting on greenhouse gas emissions or sequestration related to land use, land use change, or forestry);
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the reporting entity is reporting at a higher level of aggregation than it did in the previous report, and if so, a listing of the subsidiary entities that are now aggregated under a revised conglomerated entity, including a listing of any non-U.S. operations to be added and the specific countries in which these operations are located; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Changes in its activities or operations (<I>e.g.</I>, changes in output, contractual arrangements, equipment and processes, outsourcing or insourcing of significant activities) that are likely to have a significant effect on emissions, together with an explanation of how it believes the changes in economic activity influenced its reported emissions or sequestrations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.6" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.6   Emissions inventories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The objective of an emission inventory is to provide a full accounting of an entity's emissions for a particular year, including direct emissions of the first six categories of gases listed in the definition of “greenhouse gases” in § 300.2, indirect emissions specified in paragraph (e) of this section, and all sequestration or other changes in carbon stocks. An emission inventory must be prepared in accordance with Chapter 1 of the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13). An inventory does not include avoided emissions or any offset reductions, and is not subsequently adjusted to reflect future acquisitions, divestitures or other changes to the reporting entity (although a reporting entity often makes these types of adjustments when calculating emission reductions under the guidelines). Entity-wide inventories are a prerequisite for the registration of emission reductions by entities with average annual emissions of more than 10,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent. Entities that have average annual emissions of less than or equal to 10,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent are eligible to register emission reductions associated with specific activities without also reporting an inventory of the total emissions, but such entities should inventory and report the emissions associated with the specific activity(ies) they do cover in their reports.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quality requirements for emission inventories.</I> The Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) usually identify more than one acceptable method of measuring or estimating greenhouse gas emissions. Each acceptable method is rated A, B, C or D, with A methods usually corresponding to the highest quality method available and D methods representing the lowest quality method that may be used. Each letter is assigned a numerical rating reflecting its relative quality, 4 for A methods, 3 for B methods, 2 for C methods and 1 for D methods. Entities that intend to register emission reductions must use emission inventory methods that result in a quantity-weighted average quality rating of at least 3.0.
</P>
<P>(1) Entities may at any time choose to modify the measurement or estimation methods that they use for their current or future year emission inventories. Such modifications would enable entities to gradually improve the quality of the ratings over time, but prior year inventories may be modified only to correct significant errors.
</P>
<P>(2) Entities that have had their emission quantities and the quantity-weighted quality rating of their emissions inventory independently verified may report their emissions and average quality ratings by greenhouse gas, indirect emissions and sequestration, rather than by source or sink category.
</P>
<P>(3) Entities that certify that they have used only A or B methods, may forego indicating in their reports the quality ratings of the methods used and may forego calculating the quantity-weighted average quality of their emission inventories.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Using estimation methods not included in the Technical Guidelines.</I> An entity may obtain DOE approval for the use of an estimation method not included in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) if the method covers sources not described in the Technical Guidelines, or if the method provides more accurate results for the entity's specific circumstances than the methods described in the Technical Guidelines. If an entity wishes to propose the use of a method that is not described in the Technical Guidelines, the entity must provide a written description of the method, an explanation of how the method is implemented (including data requirements), empirical evidence of the method's validity and accuracy, and a suggested rating for the method to DOE's Office of Policy and International Affairs (with a copy to EIA). DOE reserves the right to deny the request, or to assign its own rating to the method. By submitting this information, the entity grants permission to DOE to incorporate the method in a future revision of the Technical Guidelines.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Direct emissions inventories.</I> Direct greenhouse gas emissions that must be reported are the emissions resulting from stationary or mobile sources within the organizational boundaries of an entity, including but not limited to emissions resulting from combustion of fossil fuels, process emissions, and fugitive emissions. Process emissions (<I>e.g.</I>, PFC emissions from aluminum production) must be reported along with fugitive emissions (<I>e.g.</I>, leakage of greenhouse gases from equipment).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inventories of indirect emissions associated with purchased energy.</I> (1) To provide a clear incentive for the users of electricity and other forms of purchased energy to reduce demand, an entity must include the indirect emissions from the consumption of purchased electricity, steam, and hot or chilled water in the entity's inventory as indirect emissions. To avoid double counting among entities, the entity must report all indirect emissions separately from its direct emissions. Entities should use the methods for quantifying indirect emissions specified in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13).
</P>
<P>(2) Entities may choose to report other forms of indirect emissions, such as emissions associated with employee commuting, materials consumed or products produced, although such other indirect emissions may not be included in the entity's emission inventory and may not be the basis for registered emission reductions. All such reports of other forms of indirect emissions must be distinct from reports of indirect emissions associated with purchased energy and must be based on emission measurement or estimation methods identified in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) or approved by DOE.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Entity-level inventories of changes in terrestrial carbon stocks.</I> Annual changes in managed terrestrial carbon stocks should be comprehensively assessed and reported across the entity, and the net emissions resulting from such changes included in the entity's emissions inventory. Entities should use the methods for estimating changes in managed terrestrial carbon stocks specified in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Treatment of de minimis emissions and sequestration.</I> (1) Although the goal of the entity-wide reporting requirement is to provide an accurate and comprehensive estimate of total emissions, there may be small emissions from certain sources that are unduly costly or otherwise difficult to measure or reliably estimate annually. An entity may exclude particular sources of emissions or sequestration if the total quantities excluded represent less than or equal to 3 percent of the total annual CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent emissions of the entity. The entity must identify the types of emissions excluded and provide an estimate of the annual quantity of such emissions using methods specified in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) or by using the Simplified Emissions Inventory Tool (SEIT). The results of this estimate of the entity's total excluded annual emissions must be reported to DOE together with the entity's initial entity statement.
</P>
<P>(2) After starting to report, each reporting entity that excludes from its annual reports any <I>de minimis</I> emissions must re-estimate the quantity of excluded emissions after any significant increase in such emissions, or every five years, whichever occurs sooner.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Separate reporting of domestic and international emissions.</I> Non-U.S. emissions included in an entity's emission inventory must be separately reported and clearly distinguished from emissions originating in the U.S. Entities must identify any country-specific factors used in the preparation of such reports.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Covered gases.</I> Entity-wide emissions inventories must include the emissions of the first six categories of named gases listed in the definition of “greenhouse gases” in § 300.2. Entities may report chlorofluorocarbons and other greenhouse gases with quantifiable climate forcing effects as long as DOE has established a method for doing so, but such gases must be reported separately and emission reductions, if any, associated with such other gases are not eligible for registration.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Units for reporting.</I> Emissions and sequestration should be reported in terms of the mass (not volume) of each gas, using metric units (<I>e.g.</I>, metric tons of methane). Entity-wide and subentity summations of emissions and reductions from multiple sources must be converted into CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent units using the global warming potentials for each gas in the International Panel on Climate Change's Third Assessment (or most recent) Report, as specified in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13). Entities should specify the units used (<I>e.g.</I>, kilograms, or metric tons). Entities may need to use the standard conversion factors specified in the Technical Guidelines to convert existing data into the common units required in the entity-level report. Emissions from the consumption of purchased electricity must be calculated by region (from the list provided by DOE in the Technical Guidelines) or country, if outside the United States. Consumption of purchased steam or chilled/hot water must be reported according to the type of system and fuel used to generate it (from the list provided by DOE in the Technical Guidelines). Entities must convert purchased energy to CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalents using the conversion factors in the Technical Guidelines. Entities should also provide the physical quantities of each type of purchased energy covered by their reports.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.7" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.7   Net emission reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Entities that intend to register emission reductions achieved must comply with the requirements of this section. Entities may voluntarily follow these procedures if they want to demonstrate the achievement of net, entity-wide reductions for years prior to the earliest year permitted for registration. Only large emitters must follow the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, but small emitters may do so voluntarily. Only entities that qualify as small emitters may use the special procedures in paragraph (c) of this section. Entities seeking to register emission reductions achieved by other entities (offsets) must certify that these emission reductions were calculated in a manner consistent with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section and use the emission reduction calculation methods identified in § 300.8. All entities seeking to register emission reductions must comply with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. Only reductions in the emissions of the first six categories of gases listed in the definition of “greenhouse gases” in § 300.2 are eligible for registration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessing net emission reductions for large emitters.</I> (1) Entity-wide reporting is a prerequisite for registering emission reductions by entities with average annual emissions of more than 10,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent. Net annual entity-wide emission reductions must be based, to the maximum extent practicable, on a full assessment and sum total of all changes in an entity's emissions, eligible avoided emissions and sequestration relative to the entity's established base period(s). This assessment must include all entity emissions, including the emissions associated with any non-U.S. operations covered by the entity statement, although the reductions achieved by non-U.S. operations must be separately totaled prior to being integrated with the net emission reductions achieved by U.S. operations. It must include the annual changes in the total emissions of the entity, including the total emissions of each of the subentities identified in its entity statement. All changes in emissions, avoided emissions, and sequestration must be determined using methods that are consistent with the guidelines described in § 300.8 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) If it is not practicable to assess the changes in net emissions resulting from certain entity activities using at least one of the methods described in § 300.8 of this part, the entity may exclude them from its estimate of net emission reductions. The entity must identify as one or more distinct subentities the sources of emissions excluded for this reason and describe the reasons why it was not practicable to assess the changes that had occurred. DOE believes that few emission sources will be excluded for this reason, but has identified at least two situations where such an exclusion would be warranted. For example, it is likely to be impossible to assess the emission changes associated with a new manufacturing plant that produces a product for which the entity has no historical record of emissions or emissions intensity (emissions per unit of product output). However, once the new plant has been operational for at least a full year, a base period and base value(s) for the new plant could be established and its emission changes assessed in the following year. Until the emission changes of this new subentity can be assessed, it should be identified in the entity's report as a subentity for which no assessment of emission changes is practicable. The other example involves a subentity that has reduced its output below the levels of its base period. In such a case, the subentity could not use the absolute emissions method and may also be unable to identify an effective intensity metric or other method.
</P>
<P>(3) In calculating its net annual emission reductions, an entity should exclude any emissions or sequestration that have been excluded from the entity's inventory. The entity should also exclude all <I>de minimis</I> and biogenic emissions that are excluded from the entity's inventory of greenhouse gas emissions from its assessments of emission changes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessing emission reductions for entities with small emissions.</I> (1) Entities with average annual emissions of less than or equal to 10,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent are not required to inventory their total emissions or assess all changes in their emissions, eligible avoided emissions and sequestration to qualify for registered reductions. These entities may register emission reductions that have occurred since 2002 and that are associated with one or more specific activities, as long as they:
</P>
<P>(i) Perform a complete assessment of the annual emissions and sequestration associated with each of the activities upon which they report, using methods that meet the same quality requirements applicable to entity-wide emission inventories; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine the changes in the emissions, eligible avoided emissions or sequestration associated with each of these activities.
</P>
<P>(2) An entity reporting as a small emitter must report on one or more specific activities and is encouraged, but not required to report on all activities occurring within the entity boundary. Examples of small emitter activities include: vehicle operations; product manufacturing processes; building operations or a distinct part thereof, such as lighting; livestock operations; crop management; and power generation. For example, a farmer managing several woodlots and also producing a wheat crop may report emission reductions associated with managing an individual woodlot. However, the farmer must also assess and report the net sequestration resulting from managing all the woodlots within the entity's boundary. The small emitter is not required to report on emissions or reductions associated with growing the wheat crop.
</P>
<P>(3) A small emitter must certify that the reductions reported were not caused by actions likely to cause increases in emissions elsewhere within the entity's operations. This certification should be based on an assessment of the likely direct and indirect effects of the actions taken to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Net emission reductions achieved by other entities (offset reductions or emission reductions submitted by aggregators).</I> A reporting entity or aggregator under certain conditions may report or register all or some of the net emission reductions achieved by entities that choose not to report under the section 1605(b) program. In all cases, an agreement must exist between the reporting entity or aggregator and the other entity that specifies the quantity of the emission reductions (or increases) achieved by the other entity that may be reported or registered as an offset reduction by the reporting entity or aggregator. A large emitter that is reporting on behalf of other entities must meet all of the requirements applicable to large emitters, including submission of an entity statement, an emissions inventory, and an entity-wide assessment of emission reductions. If an aggregator is a small emitter, it may choose to report only on the activities, emissions and emission reductions of the entities on behalf of which it is reporting and not to report on any of its own activities or emission reductions. The reporting entity or aggregator must include in its report all of the information on the other entity, including an entity statement, an emissions inventory (when required), and an assessment of emission reductions that would be required if the other entity were directly reporting to EIA. The net emissions reductions (or increases) of each other entity will be evaluated separately by EIA to determine whether they are eligible for registration in accordance with the guidelines of this part. Those registered reductions (or increases) assigned by the other entity, by agreement, to a reporting entity or aggregator will be included in EIA's summary of all registered offset reductions for that entity or aggregator. If the agreement between the reporting entity and other entity is discontinued, for any reason, the reporting entity must inform EIA and must identify any emission reductions previously reported that could be attributable to an increase in the carbon stocks of the other entity. Such reductions will be removed by EIA from the records of the reporting entity's offset reductions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Net emission reductions to be reported by other entities as offset reductions.</I> Entities must identify in their report the quantity of any net emission reductions covered by the report, if any, that another entity will report as an offset reduction, including the name of the other entity;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Adjusting for year-to-year increases in net emissions.</I> (1) Normally, net annual emission reductions for an entity are calculated by summing the net annual changes in emissions, eligible avoided emissions and sequestration, as determined using the calculation methods identified in § 300.8 and according to the procedures described in paragraph (b) of this section for large emitters, paragraph (c) for small emitters of this section for small emitters, and paragraph (d) of this section for offsets. However, if the entity experienced a net increase in emissions for one or more years, these increases must be reported and taken into account in calculating any future year reductions. If the entity subsequently achieves net annual emission reductions, the net increases experienced in the preceding year(s) must be more than offset by these reductions before the entity can once again register emission reductions. For example, if an entity achieved a net emission reduction of 5,000 metric tons of CO<E T="52">2</E> equivalent in its first year, a net increase of 2,000 metric tons in its second year, and a net reduction of 3,000 metric tons in its third year, it would be able to register a 5,000 metric ton reduction in its first year, no reduction in its second year, and a 1,000 metric ton reduction in its third year (3,000-2,000). The entity must file full reports for each of these three years. Its report for the second year would indicate the net increase in emissions and this increase would be noted in EIA's summary of the entity's report for that year and for any future year, until the emissions increase was entirely offset by subsequent emission reductions. If this same entity achieved a net reduction of only 1,000 metric tons in its third year, it would not be able to register additional reductions until it had, in some future year, offset more than its second year increase of 2,000 metric tons.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.8" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.8   Calculating emission reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Choosing appropriate emission reduction calculation methods.</I> (1) An entity must choose the method or methods it will use to calculate emission reductions from the list provided in paragraph (h) of this section. Each of the calculation methods has special characteristics that make it applicable to only certain types of emissions and activities. An entity should select the appropriate calculation method based on several factors, including:
</P>
<P>(i) How the entity's subentities are defined;
</P>
<P>(ii) How the reporter will gather and report emissions data; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The availability of other types of data that might be needed, such as production or output data.
</P>
<P>(2) For some entities, a single calculation method will be sufficient, but many entities may need to apply more than one method because discrete components of the entity require different calculation methods. In such a case, the entity will need to select a method for each subentity (or discrete component of the entity with identifiable emission or reductions). The emissions and output measure (generally a physical measure) of each subentity must be clearly distinguished and reported separately. Guidance on the selection and specification of calculation methods is provided in Chapter 2 of the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identifying subentities for calculating reductions.</I> If more than one calculation method is to be used, an entity must specify the portion of the entity (the subentity) to which each method will be applied. Each subentity must be clearly identified. From time to time, it may be necessary to modify existing or create new subentities. The entity must provide to EIA a full description of such changes, together with an explanation of why they were required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Choosing a base period for calculating reductions.</I> In general, the base period used in calculating emission reductions is the single year or up to four-year period average immediately preceding the first year of calculated emission reductions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establishing base values.</I> To calculate emission reductions, an entity must establish a base value against which to compare reporting year performance. The minimum requirements for base values for each type of calculation method are specified in Chapter 2 of the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13). In most cases, an historic base value, derived from emissions or other data gathered during the base period, is the minimum requirement specified. Entities may, however, choose to establish base values that are more stringent than the base values derived from the methods specified in Chapter 2 of the Technical Guidelines as long as their report indicates the rationale for the alternative base value and demonstrates that it would result in a smaller quantity of emission reductions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Emission reduction and subentity statements.</I> For each subentity, an entity must submit to EIA the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) An identification and description of the method used to calculate emission reductions, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The type of calculation method;
</P>
<P>(ii) The measure of output used (if any); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The method-specific base period for which any required base value will be calculated.
</P>
<P>(2) The base period used in calculating reductions. When an entity starts to report, the base period used in calculating reductions must end in the start year. However, over time the reporting entity may find it necessary to revise or establish new base periods and base values in response to significant changes in processes or output of the subentity.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the subentity and its primary economic activity or activities, such as electricity generation, product manufacturing, service provider, freight transport, or household operation; and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the emission sources or sinks covered, such as fossil fuel power plants, manufacturing facilities, commercial office buildings or heavy-duty vehicles.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Changes in calculation methods, base periods and base values.</I> When significant changes occur in the composition or output of reporting entities, a reporting entity may need to change previously specified calculation methods, base periods or base values. A reporting entity should make such changes only if necessary and it should fully document the reasons for any changes. The Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) describe when such changes should be made and what information on such changes must be provided to DOE. In general, such changes should not result in any alterations to previously reported or registered emission reductions. A reporting entity may alter previously reported or registered emission reductions only if necessary to correct significant errors.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Continuous reporting.</I> To ensure that the summation of entity annual reports accurately represents net, multi-year emission reductions, an entity must submit a report every year, beginning with the first reduction year. An entity may use a specific base period to determine emission reductions in a given future year only if the entity has submitted qualified reports for each intervening year. If an interruption occurs in the annual reports of an entity, the entity must subsequently report on all missing years prior to qualifying for the registration of additional emission reductions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calculation methods.</I> An entity must calculate any change in emissions, avoided emissions or sequestration using one or more of the methods described in this paragraph and in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Changes in emissions intensity.</I> An entity may use emissions intensity as a basis for determining emission reductions as long as the entity selects a measure of output that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable indicator of the output produced by the entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reliable indicator of changes in the entity's activities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Related to emissions levels; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any appropriate adjustments for acquisitions, divestitures, insourcing, outsourcing, or changes in products have been made, as described in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes in absolute emissions.</I> An entity may use changes in the absolute (actual) emissions (direct and/or indirect) as a basis for determining net emission reductions as long as the entity makes only those adjustments required by the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13). An entity intending to register emission reductions may use this method only if the entity demonstrates in its report that any reductions derived from such changes were not achieved as a result of reductions in the output of the entity, and certifies that emission reductions are not the result of major shifts in the types of products or services produced. Entities may report, but not register, such reductions even if the output associated with such emissions is declining.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Changes in carbon storage (for actions within entity boundaries).</I> An entity may use changes in carbon storage as a basis for determining net emission reductions as long as the entity uses estimation and measurement methods that comply with the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13), and has included an assessment of the net changes in all sinks in its inventory.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Changes in avoided emissions (for actions within entity boundaries).</I> An entity may use changes in avoided emissions to determine its emission reductions. Avoided emissions eligible to be included in the calculation of net emission reductions that qualify for registration include those associated with the sale of electricity, steam, hot water or chilled water generated from non-emitting or low-emitting sources as a basis for determining net emission reductions as long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The measurement and calculation methods used comply with the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13);
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity certifies that any increased sales were not attributable to the acquisition of a generating facility that had been previously operated, unless the entity's base period includes generation values from the acquired facility's operation prior to its acquisition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Generators of distributed energy that have net emissions in their base period and intend to report reductions resulting from changes in eligible avoided emissions, use a method specified in the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13) that integrates the calculation of reductions resulting from both changes in emissions intensity and changes in avoided emissions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Action-specific emission reductions (for actions within entity boundaries).</I> A number of source- or situation-specific methods are provided in the Technical Guidelines and these methods must be used to assess the annual changes in emissions for the specific sources or situation addressed by these methods. In addition, a generic action-specific method is identified in the Technical Guidelines. An entity intending to register reductions may use the generic action-specific approach only if it is not possible to measure accurately emission changes by using one of the methods identified in paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(4) of this section. Entities that intend to register reductions and that use the generic action-specific approach must explain why it is not possible to use any of these other methods. An entity not intending to register reductions may use the generic action-specific method to determine emission reductions, as long as the entity demonstrates that the estimate is based on analysis that:
</P>
<P>(i) Uses output, utilization and other factors that are consistent, to the maximum extent practicable, with the action's actual performance in the year for which reductions are being reported;
</P>
<P>(ii) Excludes any emission reductions that might have resulted from reduced output or were caused by actions likely to be associated with increases in emissions elsewhere within the entity's operations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Uses methods that are in compliance with the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Summary description of actions taken to reduce emissions.</I> Each reported emission reduction must be accompanied by an identification of the types of actions that were the likely cause of the reductions achieved. Entities are also encouraged to include in their reports information on the benefits and costs of the actions taken to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, such as the expected rates of return, life cycle costs or benefit to cost ratios, using appropriate discount rates.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Emission reductions associated with plant closings, voluntary actions and government (including non-U.S. regulatory regimes) requirements.</I> (1) Each report of emission reductions must indicate whether the reported emission reductions were the result, in whole or in part, of plant closings, voluntary actions, or government requirements. EIA will presume that reductions that were not the result of plant closings or government requirements are the result of voluntary actions.
</P>
<P>(2) If emission reductions were, in whole or in part, the direct result of plant closings that caused a decline in output, the report must identify the reductions as such; these reductions do not qualify for registration. EIA will presume that reductions calculated using the emissions intensity method do not result from a decline in output.
</P>
<P>(3) If the reductions were associated, in whole or part, with U.S. or non-U.S. government requirements, the report should identify the government requirement involved and the effect these requirements had on the reported emission reductions. If, as a result of the reduction, a non-U.S. government issued to the reporting entity a credit or other financial benefit or regulatory relief, the report should identify the government requirement involved and describe the specific form of benefit or relief provided.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Determining the entity responsible for emission reductions.</I> The entity that EIA will presume to be responsible for emission reduction, avoided emission or sequestered carbon is the entity with financial control of the facility, land or vehicle which generated the reported emissions, generated the energy that was sold so as to avoid other emissions, or was the place where the sequestration action occurred. If control is shared, reporting of the associated emission reductions should be determined by agreement between the entities involved so as to avoid double-counting; this agreement must be reflected in the entity statement and in any report of emission reductions. EIA will presume that an entity is not responsible for any emission reductions associated with a facility, property or vehicle excluded from its entity statement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.9" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.9   Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Starting to report under the guidelines.</I> An entity may report emissions and sequestration on an annual basis beginning in any year, but no earlier than the base period of 1987-1990 specified in the Energy Policy Act of 1992. To be recognized under these guidelines, all reports must conform to the measurement methods established by the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revisions to reports submitted under the guidelines.</I> (1) Once EIA has accepted a report under this part, it may be revised by the reporting entity only under the circumstances specified in this paragraph and related provisions of the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13). In general:
</P>
<P>(i) Revised reports may be submitted to correct errors that have a significant effect on previously estimated emissions or emission reductions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Emission inventories may be revised in order to create a consistent time series based on improvements in the emission estimation or measurement techniques used.
</P>
<P>(2) Reporting entities must provide the corrected or improved data to EIA, together with an explanation of the significance of the change and its justification.
</P>
<P>(3) If a change in calculation methods (for inventories or reductions) is made for a particular year, the reporting entity must, if feasible, revise its base value to assure methodological consistency with the reporting year value.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition and deadline for annual reports.</I> Entities must report emissions on a calendar year basis, from January 1 to December 31. To be included in the earliest possible EIA annual report of greenhouse gas emissions reported under this part, entity reports that have not been independently verified must be submitted to DOE no later than July 1 for emissions occurring during the previous calendar year. Reports that have been independently verified must be submitted by September 1 for emissions occurring during the previous year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Entities intending to register reductions must maintain adequate supporting records of base period data for the duration of their participation in the 1605(b) program. Supporting records for all reporting year data must be maintained for at least three years subsequent to the relevant reporting year to enable verification of all information reported. The records should document the basis for the entity's report to EIA, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The content of entity statements, including the identification of the specific facilities, buildings, land holding and other operations or emission sources covered by the entity's reports and the legal, equity, operational and other bases for their inclusion;
</P>
<P>(2) Information on the identification and assessment of changes in entity boundaries, processes or products that might have to be reported to EIA;
</P>
<P>(3) Any agreements or relevant communications with other entities or third parties regarding the reporting of emissions or emission reductions associated with sources the ownership or operational control of which is shared;
</P>
<P>(4) Information on the methods used to measure or estimate emissions, and the data collection and management systems used to gather and prepare this data for inclusion in reports;
</P>
<P>(5) Information on the methods used to calculate emission reductions, including the basis for:
</P>
<P>(i) The selection of the specific output measures used, and the data collection and management systems used to gather and prepare output data for use in the calculation of emission reductions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The selection and modification of all base years, base periods and baselines used in the calculation of emission reductions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any baseline adjustments made to reflect acquisitions, divestitures or other changes;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any models or other estimation methods used; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any internal or independent verification procedures undertaken.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confidentiality.</I> DOE will protect trade secret and commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4). An entity must clearly indicate in its 1605(b) report the information for which it requests confidentiality. DOE will handle requests for confidentiality of information submitted in 1605(b) reports in accordance with the process established in DOE's Freedom of Information regulations at 10 CFR § 1004.11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.10" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.10   Certification of reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement and certifying official</I>: All reports submitted to EIA must include a certification statement, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, signed by a certifying official of the reporting entity. A household report may be certified by one of its members. All other reports must be certified by the chief executive officer, agency head, or an officer or employee of the entity who is responsible for reporting the entity's compliance with environmental regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification statement requirements.</I> All entities, whether reporting or registering reductions, must certify the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The information reported is accurate and complete;
</P>
<P>(2) The information reported has been compiled in accordance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) The information reported is consistent with information submitted in prior years, if any, or any inconsistencies with prior year's information are documented and explained in the entity statement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional requirements for registering.</I> The certification statement of an entity registering reductions must also certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) The entity took reasonable steps to ensure that direct emissions, emission reductions, and/or sequestration reported are neither double counted nor reported by any other entity. Reasonable steps include telephone, fax, letter, or e-mail communications to ensure that another entity does not intend to report the same emissions, emission reductions, and/or sequestration to DOE. Direct communications of this kind with participants in demand-side management or other programs directed at very small emitters are not required;
</P>
<P>(2) Any emission reductions reported or registered by the entity that were achieved by another entity (other than a very small emitter that participated in a demand-side management or other program) are included in the entity's report only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The other entity does not intend to report or register theses reductions directly;
</P>
<P>(ii) There exists a written agreement with each other entity providing that the reporting entity is the entity entitled to report or register these emission reductions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The information reported on the other entity would meet the requirements of this part if the entity were reporting directly to DOE;
</P>
<P>(3) None of the emissions, emission reductions, or sequestration reported were produced by shifting emissions to other entities or to non-reporting parts of the entity;
</P>
<P>(4) None of any reported changes in avoided emissions associated with the sale of electricity, steam, hot or chilled water generated from non-emitting or low-emitting sources are attributable to the acquisition of a generating facility that has been previously operated, unless the entity's base period includes generation values from the acquiring facility's operation prior to its acquisition;
</P>
<P>(5) The entity maintains records documenting the analysis and calculations underpinning the data reported on this form and records documenting the analysis and calculations underpinning the base values used in calculating annual reductions are maintained in accordance with § 300.9(d) of this part; and
</P>
<P>(6) The entity has, or has not, obtained independent verification of the report, as described in § 300.11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.11" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.11   Independent verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Entities are encouraged to have their annual reports reviewed by independent and qualified auditors, as described in paragraphs (b), (c), and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifications of verifiers.</I> (1) DOE envisions that independent verification will be performed by professional verifiers (<I>i.e.,</I> individuals or companies that provide verification or “attestation” services). EIA will consider a report to the program to be independently verified if:
</P>
<P>(i) The lead individual verifier and other members of the verification team are accredited by one or more independent and nationally-recognized accreditation programs, described in paragraph (c) of this section, for the types of professionals needed to determine compliance with DOE's 1605(b) guidelines;
</P>
<P>(ii) The lead verifier has experience managing an auditing or verification process, including the recruitment and allocation of other individual verifiers, and has been empowered to make decisions relevant to the provision of a verification statement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All members of a verification team have education, training and/or professional experience that matches the tasks performed by the individual verifiers, as deemed necessary by the verifier accreditation program.
</P>
<P>(2) As further guidance, all members of the verification team should be familiar with:
</P>
<P>(i) The subject matter covered by the scope of the verification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Greenhouse gas emission and emission reduction quantification;
</P>
<P>(iv) Data and information auditing sampling methods; and
</P>
<P>(v) Risk assessment and methodologies and materiality analysis procedures outlined by other domestic and international standards.
</P>
<P>(3) An individual verifier should have a professional degree or accreditation in engineering (environmental, industrial, chemical), accounting, economics, or a related field, supplemented by specific training and/or experience in emissions reporting and accounting, and should have his or her qualifications and continuing education periodically reviewed by an accreditation program. The skills required for verification are often cross-disciplinary. For example, an individual verifier reviewing a coal electric utility should be knowledgeable about mass balance calculations, fuel purchasing accounting, flows and stocks of coals, coal-fired boiler operation, and issues of entity definition.
</P>
<P>(4) Companies that provide verification services must use professionals that possess the necessary skills and proficiency levels for the types of entities for which they provide verification services. Continuing training may be required to ensure all individuals have up-to-date knowledge regarding the tasks they perform.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualifications of organizations accrediting verifiers.</I> Organizations that accredit individual verifiers must be nationally recognized certification programs. They may include, but are not limited to the: American Institute of Certified Public Accountants; American National Standards Institute's Registrar Accreditation Board program for Environmental Management System auditors (ANSI-RAB-EMS); Board of Environmental, Health and Safety Auditor Certification: California Climate Action Registry; Clean Development Mechanism Executive Board; and the United Kingdom Accreditation Scheme.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of verification.</I> (1) As part of any independent verification, qualified verifiers must use their expertise and professional judgment to verify for accuracy, completeness and consistency with DOE's guidelines of:
</P>
<P>(i) The content of entity statements, annual reports and the supporting records maintained by the entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The representation in entity statements (or lack thereof) of any significant changes in entity boundaries, products, or processes;
</P>
<P>(iii) The procedures and methods used to collect emissions and output data, and calculate emission reductions (for entities with widely dispersed operations, this process should include on-site reviews of a sample of the facilities);
</P>
<P>(iv) Relevant personnel training and management systems; and
</P>
<P>(v) Relevant quality assurance/quality control procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE expects qualified verifiers to refer to the growing body of literature on methods of evaluating the elements listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, such as the California Climate Action Registry Certification Protocol, the Climate Leaders Inventory Management Plan Checklist, and the draft ISO 14064.3 Protocol for Validation, Verification and Certification.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Verification statement.</I> Both the verifier and, if relevant, an officer of the company providing the verification service must sign the verification statement. The verification statement shall attest to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The verifier has examined all components listed in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The information reported in the verified entity report and this verification statement is accurate and complete;
</P>
<P>(3) The information reported by the entity has been compiled in accordance with this part;
</P>
<P>(4) The information reported on the entity report is consistent with information submitted in prior years, if any, or any inconsistencies with prior year's information are documented and explained in the entity statement;
</P>
<P>(5) The verifier used due diligence to assure that direct emissions, emission reductions, and/or sequestration reported are not reported by any other entity;
</P>
<P>(6) Any emissions, emission reductions, or sequestration that were achieved by a third-party entity are included in this report only if there exists a written agreement with each third party indicating that they have agreed that the reporting entity should be recognized as the entity entitled to report these emissions, emission reductions, or sequestration;
</P>
<P>(7) None of the emissions, emission reductions, or sequestration reported was produced by shifting emissions to other entities or to non-reporting parts of the entity;
</P>
<P>(8) No reported changes in avoided emissions associated with the sale of electricity, steam, hot or chilled water generated from non-emitting or low-emitting sources are attributable to the acquisition of a generating facility that has been previously operated, unless the base year generation values are derived from records of the facility's operation prior to its acquisition;
</P>
<P>(9) The verifying entity has procedures in place for the maintenance of records that are sufficient to document the analysis and calculations underpinning this verification. The verifying entity shall maintain such records related to base period data submitted by the reporting entity for the duration of the reporting entity's participation in the 1605(b) program and records related to all other verified data for a period of no less than three years; and
</P>
<P>(10) The independent verifier is not owned in whole or part by the reporting entity, nor provides any ongoing operational or support services to the entity, except services consistent with independent financial accounting or independent certification of compliance with government or private standards.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Qualifying as an independent verifier.</I> An independent verifier may not be owned in whole or part by the reporting entity, nor may it provide any ongoing operational or support services to the entity, except services consistent with independent financial accounting or independent certification of compliance with government or private standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.12" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.12   Acceptance of reports and registration of entity emission reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptance of reports.</I> EIA will review all reports to ensure they are consistent with this part and with the Technical Guidelines (incorporated by reference, see § 300.13). EIA will also review all reports for completeness, internal consistency, arithmetic accuracy and plausibility. Subject to the availability of adequate resources, EIA intends to notify entities of the acceptance or rejection of any report within six months of its receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Registration of emission reductions.</I> EIA will review each accepted report to determine if emission reductions were calculated using an acceptable base period (usually ending no earlier than 2002), and to confirm that the report complies with the other provisions of this part. EIA will also review its records to verify that the reporting entity has submitted accepted annual reports for each year between the establishment of its base period and the year covered by the current report. EIA will notify the entity that reductions meeting these requirements have been credited to the entity as “registered reductions” which can be held by the reporting entity for use (including transfer to other entities) in the event a future program that recognizes such reductions is enacted into law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rejection of reports.</I> If EIA does not accept a report or if it determines that emission reductions intended for registration do not qualify, EIA will return the report to the sender with an explanation of its inadequacies. The reporting entity may resubmit a modified report for further consideration at any time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>EIA database and summary reports.</I> The Administrator of EIA will establish a publicly accessible database composed of all reports that meet the definitional, measurement, calculation, and certification requirements of these guidelines. EIA will maintain separate subtotals of direct emissions, indirect emissions and carbon fluxes. A portion of the database will provide summary information on the emissions and registered emission reductions of each reporting entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 300.13" NODE="10:3.0.1.2.14.0.9.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 300.13   Incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>The Technical Guidelines for the Voluntary Reporting of Greenhouse Gases (1605(b)) Program (January 2007), referred to throughout this part as the “Technical Guidelines,” have been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy of the Technical Guidelines from the Office of Policy and International Affairs, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585, or by visiting the following Web site: <I>http://www.policy.energy.gov/enhancingGHGregistry/technicalguidelines/.</I> The Technical Guidelines also are available for inspection at the National Archives and Record Administration (NARA). For more information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 20805, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 4413, Jan. 31, 2007]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C [RESERVED]    " NODE="10:3.0.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="10:3.0.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—ENERGY CONSERVATION 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="400-417" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 400-417 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="420" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 420—STATE ENERGY PROGRAM 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Title III, part B, as amended, of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (42 U.S.C. 6321 <I>et seq.</I>); Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>)


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 420 appear at 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions for State Energy Program Financial Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>It is the purpose of this part to promote the conservation of energy, to reduce the rate of growth of energy demand, and to reduce dependence on imported oil through the development and implementation of a comprehensive State Energy Program and the provision of Federal financial and technical assistance to States in support of such program. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.1.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means title III, part D, as amended, of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, 42 U.S.C. 6321 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Alternative transportation fuel</I> means methanol, denatured ethanol, and other alcohols; mixtures containing 85 percent or more by volume of methanol, denatured ethanol, and other alcohols with gasoline or other fuels; natural gas; liquified petroleum gas; hydrogen; coal-derived liquid fuels; fuels (other than alcohol) derived from biological materials (including neat biodiesel); and electricity (including electricity from solar energy). 
</P>
<P><I>ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-1989,</I> as amended means the building design standard published in December 1989 by the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, and the Illuminating Engineering Society of North America titled “Energy Efficient Design of New Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings,” with Addenda 90.1b-1992; Addenda 90.1d-1992; Addenda 90.1e-1992; Addenda 90.1g-1993; and Addenda 90.1i-1993, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in § 420.6(b). 
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy or any official to whom the Assistant Secretary's functions may be redelegated by the Secretary. 
</P>
<P><I>British thermal unit (Btu)</I> means the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit at 39.2 degrees Fahrenheit and at one atmosphere of pressure. 
</P>
<P><I>Building</I> means any structure which includes provision for a heating or cooling system, or both, or for a hot water system.
</P>
<P><I>Carpool</I> means the sharing of a ride by two or more people in an automobile. 
</P>
<P><I>Carpool matching and promotion campaign</I> means a campaign to coordinate riders with drivers to form carpools and/or vanpools. 
</P>
<P><I>Commercial building</I> means any building other than a residential building, including any building constructed for industrial or public purposes. 
</P>
<P><I>Commercially available</I> means available for purchase by the general public or target audience in the State. 
</P>
<P><I>Deputy Assistant Secretary</I> means the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Building Technology, State and Community Programs or any official to whom the Deputy Assistant Secretary's functions may be redelegated by the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P><I>Director, Office of State and Community Programs</I> means the official responsible for DOE's formula grant programs to States, or any official to whom the Director's functions may be redelegated by the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Energy audit</I> means any process which identifies and specifies the energy and cost savings which are likely to be realized through the purchase and installation of particular energy efficiency measures or renewable energy measures.
</P>
<P><I>Energy efficiency measure</I> means any capital investment that reduces energy costs in an amount sufficient to recover the total cost of purchasing and installing such measure over an appropriate period of time and maintains or reduces non-renewable energy consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental residual</I> means any pollutant or pollution causing factor which results from any activity. 
</P>
<P><I>Exterior envelope physical characteristics</I> means the physical nature of those elements of a building which enclose conditioned spaces through which thermal energy may be transferred to or from the exterior. 
</P>
<P><I>Governor</I> means the chief executive officer of a State, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States, or a person duly designated in writing by the Governor to act upon his or her behalf. 
</P>
<P><I>Grantee</I> means the State or other entity named in the notice of grant award as the recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>HVAC</I> means heating, ventilating and air-conditioning. 
</P>
<P><I>IBR</I> means incorporation by reference.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial facility</I> means any fixed equipment or facility which is used in connection with, or as part of, any process or system for industrial production or output.
</P>
<P><I>Institution of higher education</I> has the same meaning as such term is defined in section 1201(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1141(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Manufactured home</I> means any dwelling covered by the Federal Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards, 24 CFR part 3280.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan Planning Organization</I> means that organization required by the Department of Transportation, and designated by the Governor as being responsible for coordination within the State, to carry out transportation planning provisions in a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area.
</P>
<P><I>Model Energy Code, 1993,</I> including Errata, means the model building code published by the Council of American Building Officials, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in § 420.6(b).
</P>
<P><I>Park-and-ride lot</I> means a parking facility generally located at or near the trip origin of carpools, vanpools and/or mass transit.
</P>
<P><I>Petroleum violation escrow funds.</I> For purposes both of exempting petroleum violation escrow funds from the matching requirements of § 420.12 and of applying the limitations specified under § 420.18(b), this term means any funds distributed to the States by the Department of Energy or any court and identified as Alleged Crude Oil Violation funds, together with any interest earned thereon by the States, but excludes any funds designated as “excess funds” under section 3003(d) of the Petroleum Overcharge Distribution and Restitution Act, subtitle A of title III of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1986, Public Law 99-509, and the funds distributed under the “Warner Amendment,” section 155 of Public Law 97-377.
</P>
<P><I>Plan</I> means a State Energy Program plan including required program activities in accordance with § 420.15 and otherwise meeting the applicable provisions of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Political subdivision</I> means a unit of government within a State, including a county, municipality, city, town, township, parish, village, local public authority, school district, special district, council of governments, or any other regional or intrastate governmental entity or instrumentality of a local government exclusive of institutions of higher learning and hospitals.
</P>
<P><I>Preferential traffic control</I> means any one of a variety of traffic control techniques used to give carpools, vanpools and public transportation vehicles priority treatment over single occupant vehicles other than bicycles and other two-wheeled motorized vehicles.
</P>
<P><I>Program activity</I> means one or more State actions, in a particular area, designed to promote energy efficiency, renewable energy and alternative transportation fuel.
</P>
<P><I>Public building</I> means any building which is open to the public during normal business hours, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Any building which provides facilities or shelter for public assembly, or which is used for educational office or institutional purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Any inn, hotel, motel, sports arena, supermarket, transportation terminal, retail store, restaurant, or other commercial establishment which provides services or retail merchandise;
</P>
<P>(3) Any general office space and any portion of an industrial facility used primarily as office space;
</P>
<P>(4) Any building owned by a State or political subdivision thereof, including libraries, museums, schools, hospitals, auditoriums, sport arenas, and university buildings; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any public or private non-profit school or hospital.
</P>
<P><I>Public transportation</I> means any scheduled or nonscheduled transportation service for public use.
</P>
<P><I>Regional Office Director</I> means the director of a DOE Regional Office with responsibility for grants administration or any official to whom that function may be redelegated.
</P>
<P><I>Renewable energy</I> means a non-depletable source of energy.
</P>
<P><I>Renewable energy measure</I> means any capital investment that reduces energy costs in an amount sufficient to recover the total cost of purchasing and installing such measure over an appropriate period of time and that results in the use of renewable energy to replace the use of non-renewable energy.
</P>
<P><I>Residential building</I> means any building which is constructed for residential occupancy.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary mean the Secretary of DOE.</I>
</P>
<P><I>SEP</I> means the State Energy Program under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a private firm that does not exceed the numerical size standard promulgated by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632) for the Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) codes designated by the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Start-up business</I> means a small business which has been in existence for 5 years or less.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a State, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>State or local government building</I> means any building owned and primarily occupied by offices or agencies of a State; and any building of a unit of local government or a public care institution which could be covered by part H, title III, of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, 42 U.S.C. 6372-6372i.
</P>
<P><I>Transit level of service</I> means characteristics of transit service provided which indicate its quantity, geographic area of coverage, frequency and quality (comfort, travel, time, fare and image).
</P>
<P><I>Urban area traffic restriction</I> means a setting aside of certain portions of an urban area as restricted zones where varying degrees of limitation are placed on general traffic usage and/or parking.
</P>
<P><I>Vanpool</I> means a group of riders using a vehicle, with a seating capacity of not less than eight individuals and not more than fifteen individuals, for transportation to and from their residence or other designated locations and their place of employment, provided the vehicle is driven by one of the pool members.
</P>
<P><I>Variable working schedule</I> means a flexible working schedule to facilitate activities such as carpools, vanpools, public transportation usage, and/or telecommuting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 26726, May 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.1.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.3   Administration of financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Financial assistance under this part shall comply with applicable laws and regulations including, but without limitation, the requirements of:
</P>
<P>(1) Executive Order 12372, Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs, as implemented by 10 CFR part 1005.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE Financial Assistance Rules (10 CFR part 600); and
</P>
<P>(3) Other procedures which DOE may from time to time prescribe for the administration of financial assistance under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The budget period(s) covered by the financial assistance provided to a State according to § 420.11(b) or § 420.33 shall be consistent with 10 CFR part 600.
</P>
<P>(c) Subawards are authorized under this part and are subject to the requirements of this part and 10 CFR part 600.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.4" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.1.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.4   Technical assistance.</HEAD>
<P>At the request of the Governor of any State to DOE and subject to the availability of personnel and funds, DOE will provide information and technical assistance to the State in connection with effectuating the purposes of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.5" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.1.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.5   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each State receiving financial assistance under this part shall submit to the cognizant Regional Office Director a quarterly program performance report and a quarterly financial status report.
</P>
<P>(b) Reports under this section shall contain such information as the Secretary may prescribe in order to monitor effectively the implementation of a State's activities under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The reports shall be submitted within 30 days following the end of each calendar year quarter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.6" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.1.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.6   Reference standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following standards which are not otherwise set forth in this part are incorporated by reference and made a part of this part. The following standards have been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. A notice of any change in these materials will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The standards incorporated by reference are available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The following standards are incorporated by reference in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) The American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE), 1791 Tullie Circle, N.E., Atlanta, Georgia 30329, (404) 636-8400/The Illuminating Engineering Society of North America (IESNA), 345 East 47th Street, New York, New York 10017, (212) 705-7913: (i) ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-1989, entitled “Energy Efficient Design of New Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings,” with Addenda 90.1b-1992; Addenda 90.1d-1992; Addenda 90.1e-1992; Addenda 90.1g-1993; and Addenda 90.1i-1993, IBR approved for § 420.2 and § 420.15.
</P>
<P>(2) The Council of American Building Officials (CABO), 5203 Leesburg Pike, Suite 708, Falls Church, Virginia 22041, (703) 931-4533: (i) The Model Energy Code, 1993, including Errata, IBR approved for § 420.2 and § 420.15.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Formula Grant Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.10" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.10   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart specifies the procedures that apply to the Formula Grant part of the State Energy Program, which allows States to apply for financial assistance to undertake a wide range of required and optional energy-related activities provided for under § 420.15 and § 420.17. Funding for these activities is allocated to the States based on funds available for any fiscal year, as described under § 420.11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.11" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.11   Allocation of funds among the States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The cognizant Regional Office Director shall provide financial assistance to each State having an approved annual application from funds available for any fiscal year to develop, modify, or implement a plan.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall allocate financial assistance to develop, implement or modify plans among the States from funds available for any fiscal year, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the available funds equal $25.5 million, such funds shall be allocated to the States according to Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The base allocation for each State is listed in Table 1. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Base Allocation by State
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">State/Territory 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alabama</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$381,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alaska</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arizona</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">344,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arkansas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">307,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">California</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,602,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorado</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">399,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Connecticut</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">397,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Delaware</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">District of Columbia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">158,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Florida</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">831,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Georgia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">534,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hawaii</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Idaho</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Illinois</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,150,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indiana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">631,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iowa</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">373,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kansas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">327,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kentucky</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">411,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Louisiana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">446,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">231,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maryland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">486,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Massachusetts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">617,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Michigan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">973,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Minnesota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">584,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mississippi</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">279,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Missouri</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">518,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Montana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">182,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nebraska</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">246,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nevada</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">196,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Hampshire</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">216,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Jersey</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">783,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Mexico</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">219,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New York</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,633,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">North Carolina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">564,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">North Dakota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ohio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,073,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oklahoma</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">352,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oregon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">325,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pennsylvania</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,090,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhode Island</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">199,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">South Carolina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">340,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">South Dakota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">168,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tennessee</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">476,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,322,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Utah</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">242,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vermont</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">172,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Virginia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">571,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Washington</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">438,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">West Virginia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">286,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wisconsin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">604,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wyoming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">155,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">American Samoa</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">115,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Northern Marianas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">114,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Puerto Rico</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">322,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Virgin Islands</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">122,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,500,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) If the available funds for any fiscal year are less than $25.5 million, then the base allocation for each State shall be reduced proportionally. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the available funds exceed $25.5 million, $25.5 million shall be allocated as specified in Table 1 and any in excess of $25.5 million shall be allocated as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) One-third of the available funds is divided among the States equally; 
</P>
<P>(ii) One-third of the available funds is divided on the basis of the population of the participating States as contained in the most recent reliable census data available from the Bureau of the Census, Department of Commerce, for all participating States at the time DOE needs to compute State formula shares; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) One-third of the available funds is divided on the basis of the energy consumption of the participating States as contained in the most recent State Energy Data Report available from DOE's Energy Information Administration. 
</P>
<P>(c) The budget period covered by the financial assistance provided to a State according to § 420.11(b) shall be consistent with 10 CFR part 600. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.12" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.12   State matching contribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each State shall provide cash, in kind contributions, or both for SEP activities in an amount totaling not less than 20 percent of the financial assistance allocated to the State under § 420.11(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) Cash and in-kind contributions used to meet this State matching requirement are subject to the limitations on expenditures described in § 420.18(a), but are not subject to the 20 percent limitation in § 420.18(b). 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be read to require a match for petroleum violation escrow funds used under this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.13" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.13   Annual State applications and amendments to State plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for financial assistance under this subpart, a State shall submit to the cognizant Regional Office Director an original and two copies of the annual application executed by the Governor, including an amended State plan or any amendments to the State plan needed to reflect changes in the activities the State is planning to undertake for the fiscal year concerned. The date for submission of the annual State application shall be set by DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) An application shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A face sheet containing basic identifying information, on Standard Form (SF) 424; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the energy efficiency, renewable energy, and alternative transportation fuel goals to be achieved, including wherever practicable: 
</P>
<P>(i) An estimate of the energy to be saved by implementation of the State plan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Why the goals were selected; 
</P>
<P>(iii) How the attainment of the goals will be measured by the State; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) How the program activities included in the State plan represent a strategy to achieve these goals; 
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to financial assistance under this subpart, a goal, consisting of an improvement of 25 percent or more in the efficiency of use of energy in the State concerned in the calendar year 2012, as compared to the calendar year 1990, and may contain interim goals;
</P>
<P>(4) For the budget period for which financial assistance will be provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) A total program budget with supporting justification, broken out by object category and by source of funding; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The source and amount of State matching contribution; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A narrative statement detailing the nature of State plan amendments and of new program activities.
</P>
<P>(iv) For each program activity, a budget and listing of milestones; and 
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of how the minimum criteria for required program activities prescribed in § 420.15 have been implemented and are being maintained.
</P>
<P>(5) If any of the activities being undertaken by the State in its plan have environmental impacts, a detailed description of the increase or decrease in environmental residuals expected from implementation of a plan defined insofar as possible through the use of information to be provided by DOE and an indication of how these environmental factors were considered in the selection of program activities.
</P>
<P>(6) If a State is undertaking program activities involving purchase or installation of materials or equipment for weatherization of low-income housing, an explanation of how these activities would supplement and not supplant the existing DOE program under 10 CFR part 440.
</P>
<P>(7) A reasonable assurance to DOE that it has established policies and procedures designed to assure that Federal financial assistance under this subpart will be used to supplement, and not to supplant, State and local funds, and to the extent practicable, to increase the amount of such funds that otherwise would be available, in the absence of such Federal financial assistance, for those activities set forth in the State Energy Program plan approved pursuant to this subpart; 
</P>
<P>(8) An assurance that the State shall comply with all applicable statutes and regulations in effect with respect to the periods for which it receives grant funding; and 
</P>
<P>(9) For informational purposes only, and not subject to DOE review, an energy emergency plan for an energy supply disruption, as designed by the State consistent with applicable Federal and State law including an implementation strategy or strategies (including regional coordination) for dealing with energy emergencies. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Governor may request an extension of the annual submission date by submitting a written request to the cognizant Regional Office Director not less than 15 days prior to the annual submission date. The extension shall be granted only if, in the cognizant Regional Office Director's judgment, acceptable and substantial justification is shown, and the extension would further objectives of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary, or a designee, shall, at least once every three years from the submission date of each State plan, invite the Governor of the State to review and, if necessary, revise the energy conservation plan of such State. Such reviews should consider the energy conservation plans of other States within the region, and identify opportunities and actions that may be carried out in pursuit of common energy conservation goals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 26727, May 14, 1997; 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999; 71 FR 57887, Oct. 2, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.14" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.14   Review and approval of annual State applications and amendments to State plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After receipt of an application for financial assistance under this subpart and for approval of an amendment, if any, to a State plan, the cognizant Regional Office Director may request the State to submit within a reasonable period of time any revisions necessary to make the application complete and to bring the application into compliance with the requirements of subparts A and B of this part. The cognizant Regional Office Director shall attempt to resolve any dispute over the application informally and to seek voluntary compliance. If a State fails to submit timely appropriate revisions to complete an application or to bring it into compliance, the cognizant Regional Office Director may reject the application in a written decision, including a statement of reasons, which shall be subject to administrative review under § 420.19 of subparts A and B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) On or before 60 days from the date that a timely filed application is complete, the cognizant Regional Office Director shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Approve the application in whole or in part to the extent that— 
</P>
<P>(i) The application conforms to the requirements of subparts A and B of this part; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed program activities are consistent with a State's achievement of its energy conservation goals in accordance with § 420.13; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The provisions of the application regarding program activities satisfy the minimum requirements prescribed by § 420.15 and § 420.17 as applicable; 
</P>
<P>(2) Approve the application in whole or in part subject to special conditions designed to ensure compliance with the requirements of subparts A and B of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Disapprove the application if it does not conform to the requirements of subparts A and B of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 26727, May 14, 1997; 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.15" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.15   Annual State applications and amendments to State plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Mandatory lighting efficiency standards for public buildings shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be implemented throughout the State, except that the standards shall be adopted by the State as a model code for those local governments of the State for which the State's constitution reserves the exclusive authority to adopt and implement building standards within their jurisdictions; 
</P>
<P>(2) Apply to all public buildings (except for public buildings owned or leased by the United States), above a certain size, as determined by the State;
</P>
<P>(3) For new public buildings, be no less stringent than the provisions of ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-1989, and should be updated by enactment of, or support for the enactment into local codes or standards, which, at a minimum, are comparable to provisions of ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-1989 which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552 (a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in § 420.6; and 
</P>
<P>(4) For existing public buildings, contain the elements deemed appropriate by the State. 
</P>
<P>(b) Program activities to promote the availability and use of carpools, vanpools, and public transportation shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Have at least one of the following actions under implementation in at least one urbanized area with a population of 50,000 or more within the State or in the largest urbanized area within the State if that State does not have an urbanized area with a population of 50,000 or more: 
</P>
<P>(i) A carpool/vanpool matching and promotion campaign; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Park-and-ride lots; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Preferential traffic control for carpoolers and public transportation patrons; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Preferential parking for carpools and vanpools; 
</P>
<P>(v) Variable working schedules; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Improvement in transit level of service for public transportation; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Exemption of carpools and vanpools from regulated carrier status; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Parking taxes, parking fee regulations or surcharge on parking costs; 
</P>
<P>(ix) Full-cost parking fees for State and/or local government employees; 
</P>
<P>(x) Urban area traffic restrictions; 
</P>
<P>(xi) Geographical or time restrictions on automobile use; or 
</P>
<P>(xii) Area or facility tolls; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Be coordinated with the relevant Metropolitan Planning Organization, unless no Metropolitan Planning Organization exists in the urbanized area, and not be inconsistent with any applicable Federal requirements. 
</P>
<P>(c) Mandatory standards and policies affecting the procurement practices of the State and its political subdivisions to improve energy efficiency shall—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to all State procurement and with respect to procurement of political subdivisions to the extent determined feasible by the State, be under implementation; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Contain the elements deemed appropriate by the State to improve energy efficiency through the procurement practices of the State and its political subdivisions. 
</P>
<P>(d) Mandatory thermal efficiency standards for new and renovated buildings shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be implemented throughout the State, with respect to all buildings (other than buildings owned or leased by the United States, buildings whose peak design rate of energy usage for all purposes is less than one watt (3.4 Btu's per hour) per square foot of floor space for all purposes, or manufactured homes), except that the standards shall be adopted by the State as a model code for those local governments of the State for which the State's law reserves the exclusive authority to adopt and implement building standards within their jurisdictions;
</P>
<P>(2) Take into account the exterior envelope physical characteristics, HVAC system selection and configuration, HVAC equipment performance and service water heating design and equipment selection; 
</P>
<P>(3) For all new commercial and multifamily high-rise buildings, be no less stringent than provisions of sections 7-12 of ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-1989, and should be updated by enactment of, or support for the enactment into local codes or standards, which, at a minimum, are comparable to provisions of ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-1989; and 
</P>
<P>(4) For all new single-family and multifamily low-rise residential buildings, be no less stringent than the Model Energy Code, 1993, and should be updated by enactment of, or support for the enactment into local codes or standards, which, at a minimum, are comparable to the Model Energy Code, 1993, which is incorporated by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. The availability of this incorporation by reference is given in § 420.6; 
</P>
<P>(5) For renovated buildings: 
</P>
<P>(i) Apply to those buildings determined by the State to be renovated buildings; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain the elements deemed appropriate by the State regarding thermal efficiency standards for renovated buildings. 
</P>
<P>(e) A traffic law or regulation which permits the operator of a motor vehicle to make a turn at a red light after stopping shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be in a State's motor vehicle code and under implementation throughout all political subdivisions of the State; 
</P>
<P>(2) Permit the operator of a motor vehicle to make a right turn (left turn with respect to the Virgin Islands) at a red traffic light after stopping except where specifically prohibited by a traffic sign for reasons of safety or except where generally prohibited in an urban enclave for reasons of safety; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Permit the operator of a motor vehicle to make a left turn from a one-way street to a one-way street (right turn with respect to the Virgin Islands) at a red traffic light after stopping except where specifically prohibited by a traffic sign for reasons of safety or except where generally prohibited in an urban enclave for reasons of safety. 
</P>
<P>(f) Procedures must exist for ensuring effective coordination among various local, State, and Federal energy efficiency, renewable energy and alternative transportation fuel programs within the State, including any program administered within the Office of Building Technology, State and Community Programs of the Department of Energy and the Low Income Home Energy Assistance Program administered by the Department of Health and Human Services.



 </P>
<P>(g) The mandatory conduct of activities to support transmission and distribution planning, including—
</P>
<P>(1) Support for local governments and Indian Tribes;
</P>
<P>(2) Feasibility studies for transmission line routes and alternatives;
</P>
<P>(3) Preparation of necessary project design and permits; and
</P>
<P>(4) Outreach to affected stakeholders.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 26727, May 14, 1997; 89 FR 33196, Apr. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.16" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.16   Extensions for compliance with required program activities.</HEAD>
<P>An extension of time by which a required program activity must be ready for implementation may be granted if DOE determines that the extension is justified. A written request for an extension, with accompanying justification and an action plan acceptable to DOE for achieving compliance in the shortest reasonable time, shall be made to the cognizant Regional Office Director. Any extension shall be only for the shortest reasonable time that DOE determines necessary to achieve compliance. The action plan shall contain a schedule for full compliance and shall identify and make the most reasonable commitment possible to provision of the resources necessary for achieving the scheduled compliance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.17" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.17   Optional elements of State Energy Program plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Other appropriate activities or programs may be included in the State plan. These activities may include, but are not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Program activities of public education to promote energy efficiency, renewable energy, and alternative transportation fuels; 
</P>
<P>(2) Program activities to increase transportation energy efficiency, including programs to accelerate the use of alternative transportation fuels for government vehicles, fleet vehicles, taxis, mass transit, and privately owned vehicles; 
</P>
<P>(3) Program activities for financing energy efficiency measures and renewable energy measures—
</P>
<P>(i) Which may include loan programs and performance contracting programs for leveraging of additional public and private sector funds and program activities which allow rebates, grants, or other incentives for the purchase of energy efficiency measures and renewable energy measures; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to or in lieu of program activities described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, which may be used in connection with public or nonprofit buildings owned and operated by a State, a political subdivision of a State or an agency or instrumentality of a State, or an organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 including public and private non-profit schools and hospitals, and local government buildings; 
</P>
<P>(4) Program activities for encouraging and for carrying out energy audits with respect to buildings and industrial facilities (including industrial processes) within the State; 
</P>
<P>(5) Program activities to promote the adoption of integrated energy plans which provide for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Periodic evaluation of a State's energy needs, available energy resources (including greater energy efficiency), and energy costs; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Utilization of adequate and reliable energy supplies, including greater energy efficiency, that meet applicable safety, environmental, and policy requirements at the lowest cost; 
</P>
<P>(6) Program activities to promote energy efficiency in residential housing, such as: 
</P>
<P>(i) Program activities for development and promotion of energy efficiency rating systems for newly constructed housing and existing housing so that consumers can compare the energy efficiency of different housing; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Program activities for the adoption of incentives for builders, utilities, and mortgage lenders to build, service, or finance energy efficient housing; 
</P>
<P>(7) Program activities to identify unfair or deceptive acts or practices which relate to the implementation of energy efficiency measures and renewable energy measures and to educate consumers concerning such acts or practices;
</P>
<P>(8) Program activities to modify patterns of energy consumption so as to reduce peak demands for energy and improve the efficiency of energy supply systems, including electricity supply systems; 
</P>
<P>(9) Program activities to promote energy efficiency as an integral component of economic development planning conducted by State, local, or other governmental entities or by energy utilities; 
</P>
<P>(10) Program activities (enlisting appropriate trade and professional organizations in the development and financing of such programs) to provide training and education (including, if appropriate, training workshops, practice manuals, and testing for each area of energy efficiency technology) to building designers and contractors involved in building design and construction or in the sale, installation, and maintenance of energy systems and equipment to promote building energy efficiency; 
</P>
<P>(11) Program activities for the development of building retrofit standards and regulations, including retrofit ordinances enforced at the time of the sale of a building; 
</P>
<P>(12) Program activities to provide support for prefeasibility and feasibility studies for projects that utilize renewable energy and energy efficiency resource technologies in order to facilitate access to capital and credit for such projects; 
</P>
<P>(13) Program activities to facilitate and encourage the voluntary use of renewable energy technologies for eligible participants in Federal agency programs, including the Rural Electrification Administration and the Farmers Home Administration; and 
</P>
<P>(14) In accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, program activities to implement the Energy Technology Commercialization Services Program. 
</P>
<P>(b) This section prescribes requirements for establishing State-level Energy Technology Commercialization Services Program as an optional element of State plans. 
</P>
<P>(1) The program activities to implement the functions of the Energy Technology Commercialization Services Program shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Aid small and start-up businesses in discovering useful and practical information relating to manufacturing and commercial production techniques and costs associated with new energy technologies; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Encourage the application of such information in order to solve energy technology product development and manufacturing problems; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish an Energy Technology Commercialization Services Program affiliated with an existing entity in each State; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Coordinate engineers and manufacturers to aid small and start-up businesses in solving specific technical problems and improving the cost effectiveness of methods for manufacturing new energy technologies; 
</P>
<P>(v) Assist small and start-up businesses in preparing the technical portions of proposals seeking financial assistance for new energy technology commercialization; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Facilitate contract research between university faculty and students and small start-up businesses, in order to improve energy technology product development and independent quality control testing. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each State Energy Technology Commercialization Services Program shall develop and maintain a data base of engineering and scientific experts in energy technologies and product commercialization interested in participating in the service. Such data base shall, at a minimum, include faculty of institutions of higher education, retired manufacturing experts, and National Laboratory personnel. 
</P>
<P>(3) The services provided by the Energy Technology Commercialization Services Program established under this subpart shall be available to any small or start-up business. Such service programs shall charge fees which are affordable to a party eligible for assistance, which shall be determined by examining factors, including the following: the costs of the services received; the need of the recipient for the services; and the ability of the recipient to pay for the services. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 26727, May 14, 1997; 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.18" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.18   Expenditure prohibitions and limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No financial assistance provided to a State under this subpart shall be used: 
</P>
<P>(1) For construction, such as construction of mass transit systems and exclusive bus lanes, or for construction or repair of buildings or structures; 
</P>
<P>(2) To purchase land, a building or structure or any interest therein; 
</P>
<P>(3) To subsidize fares for public transportation; 
</P>
<P>(4) To subsidize utility rate demonstrations or State tax credits for energy conservation measures or renewable energy measures; or 
</P>
<P>(5) To conduct, or purchase equipment to conduct, research, development or demonstration of energy efficiency or renewable energy techniques and technologies not commercially available. 
</P>
<P>(b) No more than 20 percent of the financial assistance awarded to the State for this program shall be used to purchase office supplies, library materials, or other equipment whose purchase is not otherwise prohibited by this section. Nothing in this paragraph shall be read to apply this 20 percent limitation to petroleum violation escrow funds used under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) Demonstrations of commercially available energy efficiency or renewable energy techniques and technologies are permitted, and are not subject to the prohibitions of § 420.18(a)(1), or to the limitation on equipment purchases of § 420.18(b). 
</P>
<P>(d) A State may use regular or revolving loan mechanisms to fund SEP services which are consistent with this subpart and which are included in the State's approved SEP plan. The State may use loan repayments and any interest on the loan funds only for activities which are consistent with this subpart and which are included in the State's approved SEP plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) A State may use funds under this subpart for the purchase and installation of equipment and materials for energy efficiency measures and renewable energy measures, including reasonable design costs, subject to the following terms and conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Such use must be included in the State's approved plan and, if funded by petroleum violation escrow funds, must be consistent with any judicial or administrative terms and conditions imposed upon State use of such funds; 
</P>
<P>(2) A State may use for these purposes no more than 50 percent of all funds allocated by the State to SEP in a given year, regardless of source, except that this limitation shall not include regular and revolving loan programs funded with petroleum violation escrow funds, and is subject to waiver by DOE for good cause. Loan documents shall ensure repayment of principal and interest within a reasonable period of time, and shall not include provisions of loan forgiveness. 
</P>
<P>(3) Buildings owned or leased by the United States are not eligible for energy efficiency measures or renewable energy measures under paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Funds must be used to supplement and no funds may be used to supplant weatherization activities under the Weatherization Assistance Program for Low-Income Persons, under 10 CFR part 440; 
</P>
<P>(5) Subject to paragraph (f) of this section, a State may use a variety of financial incentives to fund purchases and installation of materials and equipment under paragraph (e) of this section including, but not limited to, regular loans, revolving loans, loan buy-downs, performance contracting, rebates and grants.
</P>
<P>(f) The following mechanisms are not allowed for funding the purchase and installation of materials and equipment under paragraph (e) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Rebates for more than 50 percent of the total cost of purchasing and installing materials and equipment (States shall set appropriate restrictions and limits to insure the most efficient use of rebates); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Loan guarantees. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 26727, May 14, 1997; 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.19" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.2.9.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.19   Administrative review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State shall have 20 days from the date of receipt of a decision under § 420.14 to file a notice requesting administrative review in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. If an applicant does not timely file such a notice, the decision under § 420.14 shall become final for DOE. 
</P>
<P>(b) A notice requesting administrative review shall be filed with the cognizant Regional Office Director and shall be accompanied by a written statement containing supporting arguments. If the cognizant Regional Office Director has disapproved an entire application for financial assistance, the State may request a public hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) A notice or any other document shall be deemed filed under this section upon receipt. 
</P>
<P>(d) On or before 15 days from receipt of a notice requesting administrative review which is timely filed, the cognizant Regional Office Director shall forward to the Deputy Assistant Secretary, the notice requesting administrative review, the decision under § 420.14 as to which administrative review is sought, a draft recommended final decision for concurrence, and any other relevant material. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the State requests a public hearing on the disapproval of an entire application for financial assistance under this subpart, the Deputy Assistant Secretary, within 15 days, shall give actual notice to the State and <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the date, place, time, and procedures which shall apply to the public hearing. Any public hearing under this section shall be informal and legislative in nature. 
</P>
<P>(f) On or before 45 days from receipt of documents under paragraph (d) of this section or the conclusion of the public hearing, whichever is later, the Deputy Assistant Secretary shall concur in, concur in as modified, or issue a substitute for the recommended decision of the cognizant Regional Office Director. 
</P>
<P>(g) On or before 15 days from the date of receipt of the determination under paragraph (f) of this section, the Governor may file an application for discretionary review by the Assistant Secretary. On or before 15 days from filing, the Assistant Secretary shall send a notice to the Governor stating whether the Deputy Assistant Secretary's determination will be reviewed. If the Assistant Secretary grants a review, a decision shall be issued no later than 60 days from the date review is granted. The Assistant Secretary may not issue a notice or decision under this paragraph without the concurrence of the DOE Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(h) A decision under paragraph (f) of this section shall be final for DOE if there is no review under paragraph (g) of this section. If there is review under paragraph (g) of this section, the decision thereunder shall be final for DOE and no appeal shall lie elsewhere in DOE. 
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to the effective date of the termination or suspension of a grant award for failure to implement an approved State plan in compliance with the requirements of this subpart, a grantee shall have the right to written notice of the basis for the enforcement action and of the opportunity for public hearing before the DOE Financial Assistance Appeals Board notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary of 10 CFR 600.22, 600.24, 600.25, and 600.243. To obtain a public hearing, the grantee must request an evidentiary hearing, with prior <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice, in the election letter submitted under Rule 2 of 10 CFR 1024.4 and the request shall be granted notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary of Rule 2. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Implementation of Special Projects Financial Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.30" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.30   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth DOE's policies and procedures for implementing special projects financial assistance under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) For years in which such funding is available, States may apply for financial assistance to undertake a variety of State-oriented energy-related special projects activities in addition to the funds provided under the regular SEP grants. 
</P>
<P>(c) The types of funded activities may vary from year to year, and from State to State, depending upon funds available for each type of activity and DOE and State priorities. 
</P>
<P>(d) A number of end-use sector programs in the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy participate in the funding of these activities, and the projects must meet the requirements of those programs. 
</P>
<P>(e) The purposes of the special project activities are: 
</P>
<P>(1) To utilize States to accelerate deployment of energy efficiency, renewable energy, and alternative transportation fuel technologies; 
</P>
<P>(2) To facilitate the commercialization of emerging and underutilized energy efficiency and renewable energy technologies; and 
</P>
<P>(3) To increase the responsiveness of Federally funded technology development efforts to the needs of the marketplace. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.31" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.31   Notice of availability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If in any fiscal year DOE has funds available for special projects, DOE shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> one or more notice(s) of availability of SEP special projects financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each notice of availability shall cite this part and shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Brief descriptions of the activities for which funding is available; 
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of money DOE has available or estimates it will have available for award for each type of activity, and the total amount available; 
</P>
<P>(3) The program official to contact for additional information, application forms, and the program guidance/solicitation document; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The dates when: 
</P>
<P>(i) The program guidance/solicitation will be available; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The applications for financial assistance must be received by DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.32" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.32   Program guidance/solicitation.</HEAD>
<P>After the publication of the notice of availability in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> DOE shall, upon request, provide States interested in applying for one or more project(s) under the special projects financial assistance with a detailed program guidance/solicitation that will include: 
</P>
<P>(a) The control number of the program; 
</P>
<P>(b) The expected duration of DOE support or period of performance; 
</P>
<P>(c) An application form or the format to be used, location for application submission, and number of copies required; 
</P>
<P>(d) The name of the DOE program office contact from whom to seek additional information; 
</P>
<P>(e) Detailed descriptions of each type of program activity for which financial assistance is being offered; 
</P>
<P>(f) The amount of money available for award, together with any limitations as to maximum or minimum amounts expected to be awarded; 
</P>
<P>(g) Deadlines for submitting applications; 
</P>
<P>(h) Evaluation criteria that DOE will apply in the selection and ranking process for applications for each program activity; 
</P>
<P>(i) The evaluation process to be applied to each type of program activity; 
</P>
<P>(j) A listing of program policy factors if any that DOE may use in the final selection process, in addition to the results of the evaluations, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) The importance and relevance of the proposed applications to SEP and the participating programs in the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Geographical diversity; 
</P>
<P>(k) Reporting requirements; 
</P>
<P>(l) References to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Statutory authority for the program; 
</P>
<P>(2) Applicable rules; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Other terms and conditions applicable to awards made under the program guidance/solicitation; and 
</P>
<P>(m) A statement that DOE reserves the right to fund in whole or in part, any, all, or none of the applications submitted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.33" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.33   Application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Consistent with § 420.32 of this part, DOE shall set forth general and special project activity-specific requirements for applications for special projects financial assistance in the program guidance/solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to any other requirements, all applications shall provide: 
</P>
<P>(1) A detailed description of the proposed project, including the objectives of the project in relationship to DOE's program and the State's plan for carrying it out; 
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed budget for the entire proposed period of support, with written justification sufficient to evaluate the itemized list of costs provided on the entire project; and 
</P>
<P>(3) An implementation schedule for carrying out the project. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE may, subsequent to receipt of an application, request additional budgetary information from a State when necessary for clarification or to make informed preaward determinations. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE may return an application which does not include all information and documentation required by this subpart, 10 CFR part 600, or the program guidance/solicitation, when the nature of the omission precludes review of the application. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.34" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.34   Matching contributions or cost-sharing.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may require (as set forth in the program guidance/solicitation) States to provide either: 
</P>
<P>(a) A matching contribution of at least a specified percentage of the Federal financial assistance award; or 
</P>
<P>(b) A specified share of the total cost of the project for which financial assistance is provided. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.35" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.35   Application evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE staff at the cognizant Regional Office shall perform an initial review of all applications to ensure that the State has provided the information required by this subpart, 10 CFR part 600, and the program guidance/solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall group, and technically evaluate according to program activity, all applications determined to be complete and satisfactory. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall select evaluators on the basis of their professional qualifications and expertise relating to the particular program activity being evaluated. 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE anticipates that evaluators will primarily be DOE employees; but 
</P>
<P>(2) If DOE uses non-DOE evaluators, DOE shall require them to comply with all applicable DOE rules or directives concerning the use of outside evaluators. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35895, July 8, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.36" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.36   Evaluation criteria.</HEAD>
<P>The evaluation criteria, including program activity-specific criteria, will be set forth in the program guidance/solicitation document. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.37" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.37   Selection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may make selection of applications for award based on: 
</P>
<P>(1) The findings of the technical evaluations; 
</P>
<P>(2) The priorities of DOE, SEP, and the participating program offices; 
</P>
<P>(3) The availability of funds for the various special project activities; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any program policy factors set forth in the program guidance/solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of State and Community Programs makes the final selections of projects to be awarded financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 420.38" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.16.3.9.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 420.38   Special projects expenditure prohibitions and limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Expenditures under the special projects are subject to 10 CFR part 600 and to any prohibitions and limitations required by the DOE programs that are providing the special projects funding.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE must state any expenditure prohibitions or limitations specific to a particular category of special projects in the annual SEP special projects solicitation/guidance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 46114, Aug. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="429" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 429—CERTIFICATION, COMPLIANCE, AND ENFORCEMENT FOR CONSUMER PRODUCTS AND COMMERCIAL AND INDUSTRIAL EQUIPMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6291-6317; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 90 FR 43371, Sept. 9, 2025, as required by the Congressional Review Act and Pub. L. 119-8, the Department of Energy removed the amendments to several sections in part 429 made effective on Dec. 23, 2024, at 89 FR 91163, Oct. 9, 2024. As of Sept. 9, 2025, the affected sections reverted to the Dec. 22, 2024 version.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1.10.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the procedures for certification, determination and enforcement of compliance of covered products and covered equipment with the applicable energy conservation standards set forth in parts 430 and 431 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63646, Oct. 19, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1.10.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The definitions found in 10 CFR parts 430 and 431 apply for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions apply for the purposes of this part. Any words or terms defined in this section or elsewhere in this part shall be defined as provided in sections 321 and 340 of the Energy Policy Conservation Act, as amended, hereinafter referred to as “the Act.”
</P>
<P><I>Energy conservation standard</I> means any standards meeting the definitions of that term in 42 U.S.C. 6291(6) and 42 U.S.C. 6311(18) as well as any other water conservation standards and design requirements found in this part or parts 430 or 431.
</P>
<P><I>Engineered-to-order</I> means a basic model of commercial water heating equipment, commercial packaged boiler, commercial heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) equipment, or commercial refrigeration equipment that is: Not listed in any catalogs or marketing literature and designed and built to specific customer requirements. A unit of an engineered-to-order basic model is not offered as a set of options (e.g., configure-to-order, menu-system).
</P>
<P><I>Independent</I> means, in the context of a nationally recognized certification program, or accreditation program for electric motors, an entity that is not controlled by, or under common control with, electric motor manufacturers, importers, private labelers, or vendors, and that has no affiliation, financial ties, or contractual agreements, apparently or otherwise, with such entities that would:
</P>
<P>(i) Hinder the ability of the program to evaluate fully or report the measured or calculated energy efficiency of any electric motor, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Create any potential or actual conflict of interest that would undermine the validity of said evaluation. For purposes of this definition, financial ties or contractual agreements between an electric motor manufacturer, importer, private labeler or vendor and a nationally recognized certification program, or accreditation program exclusively for certification or accreditation services does not negate an otherwise independent relationship.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer's model number</I> means the identifier used by a manufacturer to uniquely identify the group of identical or essentially identical covered products or covered equipment to which a particular unit belongs. The manufacturer's model number typically appears on the product nameplates, in product catalogs and in other product advertising literature.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 25499, May 5, 2014; 81 FR 4144, Jan. 25, 2016; 82 FR 1099, Jan. 4, 2017; 87 FR 63646, Oct. 19, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1.10.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.3   Sources for information and guidance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The standards listed in this paragraph are referred to in §§ 429.73 and 429.74 and are not incorporated by reference. These sources are provided here for information and guidance only.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ISO/IEC.</I> International Organization for Standardization (ISO), 1, ch. de la Voie-Creuse, CP 56, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland/International Electrotechnical Commission, 3, rue de Varembé, P.O. Box 131, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland.
</P>
<P>(1) International Organization for Standardization (ISO)/International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC), (“ISO/IEC”) 17025, “General requirements for the competence of calibration and testing laboratories,” November 2017.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NVLAP.</I> National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive, M/S 2140, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-2140, 301-975-4016, or go to <I>www.nist.gov/nvlap/.</I> Also see <I>http://www.nist.gov/nvlap/nvlap-handbooks.cfm.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Handbook 150, “NVLAP Procedures and General Requirements,” 2000 edition, August 2020.
</P>
<P>(2) National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Handbook 150-10, “Efficiency of Electric Motors,” 2020 edition, April 2020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63646, Oct. 19, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.4" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1.10.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.4   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Department of Energy (DOE) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: The U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585-0121; (202) 586-9127; <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov; www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/appliance-and-equipment-standards-program.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.








</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHAM.</I> Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers, 1111 19th Street, NW., Suite 402, Washington, DC 20036, 202-872-5955, or go to <I>www.aham.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AHAM DW-1-2010, <I>Household Electric Dishwashers,</I> (ANSI approved September 18, 2010), IBR approved for § 429.19.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015 (“ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015”), Portable Air Conditioners, June 19, 2015, IBR approved for § 429.62.
</P>
<P>(3) AHAM PAC-1-2022, <I>Energy Measurement Test Procedure for Portable Air Conditioners,</I> Copyright 2022. IBR approved for § 429.62.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>AHRI.</I> Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute, 2311 Wilson Blvd., Suite 400, Arlington, VA 22201, (703) 524-8800, or go to: <I>www.ahrinet.org.</I>




</P>
<P>(1) AHRI Standard 210/240-2023, (“AHRI 210/240-2023”), <I>2023 Standard for Performance Rating of Unitary Air-conditioning &amp; Air-source Heat Pump Equipment,</I> copyright 2020; IBR approved for § 429.67.
</P>
<P>(2) AHRI Standard 210/240-2024 (I-P), (“AHRI 210/240-2024”), Performance Rating of Unitary Air-conditioning and Air-source Heat Pump Equipment, copyright 2024; IBR approved for § 429.134.




</P>
<P>(3) AHRI Standard 390 (I-P)-2021, (“AHRI 390-2021”), <I>2021 Standard for Performance Rating of Single Package Vertical Air-conditioners And Heat Pumps,</I> IBR approved for § 429.134.


</P>
<P>(4) AHRI Standard 600-2023 (I-P) (“AHRI 600-2023”), <I>2023 Standard for Performance Rating of Water/Brine to Air Heat Pump Equipment,</I> approved September 11, 2023; IBR approved for § 429.43.


</P>
<P>(5) AHRI Standard 1230(I-P) (“AHRI 1230-2021”), <I>2021 Standard for Performance Rating of Variable Refrigerant Flow (VRF) Multi-Split Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> copyright 2021; IBR approved for §§ 429.43; 429.134.
</P>
<P>(6) AHRI Standard 1340-2023 (I-P) (“AHRI 1340-2023”), <I>2023 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial and Industrial Unitary Air-conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> approved November 16, 2023; IBR approved for §§ 429.43; 429.134.


</P>
<P>(7) AHRI Standard 1360-2022 (I-P) (“AHRI 1360-2022”), <I>2022 Standard for Performance Rating of Computer and Data Processing Room Air Conditioners,</I> copyright 2022; IBR approved for § 429.43.


</P>
<P>(8) AHRI Standard 1500-2015, (“ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015”), “2015 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial Space Heating Boilers,” ANSI approved November 28, 2014: Figure C9, Suggested Piping Arrangement for Hot Water Boilers; IBR approved for § 429.60.
</P>
<P>(9) AHRI Standard 1600-2024 (I-P), (“AHRI 1600-2024”), Performance Rating of Unitary Air-conditioning and Air-source Heat Pump Equipment, copyright 2024; IBR approved for § 429.134.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASHRAE.</I> The American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers. 180 Technology Parkway NW, Peachtree Corners, GA 30092; (404) 636-8400, <I>www.ashrae.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009 (“ASHRAE 37-2009”), <I>Methods of Testing for Rating Electrically Driven Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> ASHRAE approved June 24, 2009; IBR approved for § 429.134.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 92) (“ASHRAE 41.2-1987”), <I>Standard Methods For Laboratory Airflow Measurement,</I> ANSI reaffirmed April 22, 1992; IBR approved for § 429.134.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>HI.</I> Hydraulic Institute, 6 Campus Drive, First Floor North, Parsippany, NJ 07054-4406, 973-267-9700. <I>www.Pumps.org</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) HI 40.6-2014, (“HI 40.6-2014-B”), “Methods for Rotodynamic Pump Efficiency Testing,”, (except for sections 40.6.4.1 “Vertically suspended pumps”, 40.6.4.2 “Submersible pumps”,40.6.5.3 “Test report”, 40.6.5.5 “Test conditions”, 40.6.5.5.2 “Speed of rotation during testing”, and 40.6.6.1 “Translation of test results to rated speed of rotation”, and Appendix A “Testing arrangements (normative)”: A.7 “Testing at temperatures exceeding 30 °C (86  °F)”, and Appendix B “Reporting of test results (normative)”), copyright 2014, IBR approved for § 429.134.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ISO.</I> International Organization for Standardization, ch. de la Voie-Creuse CP 56 CH-1211 Geneva 20 Switzerland, telephone + 41 22 749 01 11, or go to <I>www.iso.org/iso.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) International Organization for Standardization (ISO)/International Electrotechnical Commission, (“ISO/IEC 17025:2005(E)”), “General requirements for the competence of testing and calibration laboratories”, Second edition, May 15, 2005, IBR approved for § 429.110.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) <I>NSF.</I> NSF International. 789 N. Dixboro Road, Ann Arbor, MI 48105, (743) 769-8010. <I>www.nsf.org</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) NSF/ANSI 50-2015, “Equipment for Swimming Pools, Spas, Hot Tubs and Other Recreational Water Facilities,” Annex C—“Test methods for the evaluation of centrifugal pumps,” Section C.3, “self-priming capability,” ANSI approved January 26, 2015, IBR approved for §§ 429.59 and 429.134.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) <I>UL.</I> Underwriters Laboratories, 333 Pfingsten Road, Northbrook, IL 60062; (841) 272-8800; <I>www.ul.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) UL 1004-10 (“UL 1004-10:2022”), <I>Standard for Safety for Pool Pump Motors,</I> Revised First Edition, Dated March 24, 2022; IBR approved for § 429.134.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 65977, Oct. 31, 2012; 80 FR 79668, Dec. 23, 2015; 81 FR 35264, June 1, 2016; 81 FR 89303, Dec. 9, 2016; 81 FR 90118, Dec. 13, 2016; 82 FR 36917, Aug. 7, 2017; 87 FR 63891, Oct. 20, 2022; 87 FR 75166, Dec. 7, 2022; 87 FR 77317, Dec. 16, 2022; 88 FR 21836, Apr. 11, 2023; 88 FR 31126, May 15, 2023; 88 FR 67040, Sept. 28, 2023; 88 FR 84226, Dec. 4, 2023; 89 FR 44032, May 20, 2024; 89 FR 82059, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 1272, Jan. 7, 2025; 90 FR 43377, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.5" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1.10.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.5   Imported products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person importing any covered product or covered equipment into the United States shall comply with the provisions of this part, and parts 430 and 431, and is subject to the remedies of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any covered product or covered equipment offered for importation in violation of this part, or part 430 or 431, shall be refused admission into the customs territory of the United States under rules issued by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) and subject to further remedies as provided by law, except that CBP may, by such rules, authorize the importation of such covered product or covered equipment upon such terms and conditions (including the furnishing of a bond) as may appear to CBP appropriate to ensure that such covered product or covered equipment will not violate this part, or part 430 or 431, or will be exported or abandoned to the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.6" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1.10.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.6   Exported products.</HEAD>
<P>This part, and parts 430 and 431, shall not apply to any covered product or covered equipment if:
</P>
<P>(a) Such covered product or covered equipment is manufactured, sold, or held for sale for export from the United States or is imported for export;
</P>
<P>(b) Such covered product or covered equipment or any container in which it is enclosed, when distributed in commerce, bears a stamp or label stating “NOT FOR SALE FOR USE IN THE UNITED STATES”; and
</P>
<P>(c) Such product is, in fact, not distributed in commerce for use in the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.7" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1.10.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.7   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following records are not exempt from public disclosure: Product or equipment type; product or equipment class; private labeler name; brand name; applicable model number(s) unless that information meets the criteria specified in paragraph (b) of this section; energy or water ratings submitted by manufacturers to DOE pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13); whether the certification was based on a test procedure waiver and the date of such waiver; and whether the certification was based on exception relief from the Office of Hearing and Appeals and the date of such relief.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual, manufacturer model number is public information unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual, manufacturer model number is a unique model number of a commercial packaged boiler, commercial water heating equipment, commercial HVAC equipment or commercial refrigeration equipment that was developed for an individual customer,
</P>
<P>(2) The individual, manufacturer model number is not displayed on product literature, and
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the individual, manufacturer model number would reveal confidential business information as described at § 1004.11 of this title—in which case, under these limited circumstances, a manufacturer may identify the individual manufacturer model number as a private model number on a certification report submitted pursuant to § 429.12(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 1004.11(e), any person submitting information or data which the person believes to be confidential and exempt by law from public disclosure should—at the time of submission—submit:
</P>
<P>(1) One complete copy, and one copy from which the information believed to be confidential has been deleted.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for confidentiality containing the submitter's views on the reasons for withholding the information from disclosure, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the items sought to be withheld from public disclosure,
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether and why such items are customarily treated as confidential within the industry,
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the information is generally known by or available from other sources,
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the information has previously been made available to others without obligation concerning its confidentiality,
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of the competitive injury to the submitting person which would result from public disclosure,
</P>
<P>(vi) A date upon which such information might lose its confidential nature due to the passage of time, and
</P>
<P>(vii) Why disclosure of the information would be contrary to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) In accordance with the procedures established in 10 CFR 1004.11(e), DOE shall make its own determination with regard to any claim that information submitted be exempt from public disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 25499, May 5, 2014; 80 FR 151, Jan. 5, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.8" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.1.10.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.8   Subpoena.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of carrying out parts 429, 430, and 431, the General Counsel (or delegee), may sign and issue subpoenas for the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of relevant books, records, papers, and other documents, and administer oaths. Witnesses summoned under the provisions of this section shall be paid the same fees and mileage as are paid to witnesses in the courts of the United States. In case of contumacy by, or refusal to obey a subpoena served, upon any persons subject to parts 429, 430, or 431, the General Counsel (or delegee) may seek an order from the District Court of the United States for any District in which such person is found or resides or transacts business requiring such person to appear and give testimony, or to appear and produce documents. Failure to obey such order is punishable by such court as contempt thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Certification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.10" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.10   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the procedures for manufacturers to certify that their covered products and covered equipment comply with the applicable energy conservation standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.11" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.11   General sampling requirements for selecting units to be tested.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When testing of covered products or covered equipment is required to comply with section 323(c) of the Act, or to comply with rules prescribed under sections 324, 325, 342, 344, 345 or 346 of the Act, a sample comprised of production units (or units representative of production units) of the basic model being tested must be selected at random and tested and must meet the criteria found in §§ 429.14 through 429.69 and § 429.76. Components of similar design may be substituted without additional testing if the substitution does not affect energy or water consumption. Any represented values of measures of energy efficiency, water efficiency, energy consumption, or water consumption for all individual models represented by a given basic model must be the same, except for central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps, as specified in § 429.16; and
</P>
<P>(b) The minimum number of units tested shall be no less than two, except where:
</P>
<P>(1) A different minimum limit is specified in §§ 429.14 through 429.69 and § 429.76; or
</P>
<P>(2) Only one unit of the basic model is produced, in which case, that unit must be tested and the test results must demonstrate that the basic model performs at or better than the applicable standard(s). If one or more units of the basic model are manufactured subsequently, compliance with the default sampling and representations provisions is required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63646, Oct. 19, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 14043, Mar. 6, 2023; 88 FR 27387, May 1, 2023; 88 FR 38626, June 13, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.12" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.12   General requirements applicable to certification reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification.</I> Each manufacturer, before distributing in commerce any basic model of a covered product or covered equipment subject to an applicable energy conservation standard set forth in parts 430 or 431, and annually thereafter on or before the dates provided in paragraph (d) of this section, shall submit a certification report to DOE certifying that each basic model meets the applicable energy conservation standard(s). The certification report(s) must be submitted to DOE in accordance with the submission procedures of paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification report.</I> A certification report shall include a compliance statement (see paragraph (c) of this section), and for each basic model, the information listed in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(1) Product or equipment type;
</P>
<P>(2) Product or equipment class (as denoted in the provisions of part 430 or 431 of this chapter containing the applicable energy conservation standard);
</P>
<P>(3) Manufacturer's name and address;
</P>
<P>(4) Private labeler's name(s) and address(es) (if applicable);
</P>
<P>(5) Brand name;
</P>
<P>(6) For each brand, the basic model number and the manufacturer's individual model number(s) in that basic model with the following exceptions: For external power supplies that are certified based on design families, the design family model number and the individual manufacturer's model numbers covered by that design family must be submitted for each brand. For distribution transformers, the basic model number or kVA grouping model number (depending on the certification method) for each brand must be submitted. For commercial HVAC, WH, and refrigeration equipment, an individual manufacturer model number may be identified as a “private model number” if it meets the requirements of § 429.7(b).
</P>
<P>(7) Whether the submission is for a new model, a discontinued model, a correction to a previously submitted model, data on a carryover model, or a model that has been found in violation of a voluntary industry certification program;
</P>
<P>(8) The test sample size as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of units tested for the basic model; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of single-split system or single-package central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps; air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h; air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h; or multi-split, multi-circuit, or multi-head mini-split systems other than the “tested combination,” the number of units tested for each individual combination or individual model; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If an AEDM was used in lieu of testing, enter “0” (and in the case of central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps, this must be indicated separately for each metric);
</P>
<P>(9) The certifying party's U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) importer identification numbers assigned by CBP pursuant to 19 CFR 24.5, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(10) Whether certification is based upon any waiver of test procedure requirements under § 430.27 or § 431.401 of this chapter and the date(s) of such waiver(s);
</P>
<P>(11) Whether certification is based upon any exception relief from an applicable energy conservation standard and the date such relief was issued by DOE's Office of Hearings and Appeals;
</P>
<P>(12) If the test sample size is listed as “0” to indicate the certification is based upon the use of an alternate way of determining measures of energy conservation, identify the method used for determining measures of energy conservation (such as “AEDM,” or linear interpolation). Manufacturers of commercial packaged boilers, commercial water heating equipment, commercial refrigeration equipment, commercial HVAC equipment, and central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps must provide the manufacturer's designation (name or other identifier) of the AEDM used; and
</P>
<P>(13) Product specific information listed in §§ 429.14 through 429.63 of this chapter.










</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance statement.</I> The compliance statement required by paragraph (b) of this section shall include the date, the name of the company official signing the statement, and his or her signature, title, address, telephone number, and facsimile number and shall certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) The basic model(s) complies with the applicable energy conservation standard(s);
</P>
<P>(2) All required testing has been conducted in conformance with the applicable test requirements prescribed in parts 429, 430 and 431, as appropriate, or in accordance with the terms of an applicable test procedure waiver;
</P>
<P>(3) All information reported in the certification report is true, accurate, and complete; and
</P>
<P>(4) The manufacturer is aware of the penalties associated with violations of the Act, the regulations thereunder, and 18 U.S.C. 1001 which prohibits knowingly making false statements to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual filing.</I> All data required by paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section shall be submitted to DOE annually, on or before the following dates:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Deadline for data submission
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Portable air conditioners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fluorescent lamp ballasts; Compact fluorescent lamps; General service fluorescent lamps, general service incandescent lamps, and incandescent reflector lamps; Candelabra base incandescent lamps and intermediate base incandescent lamps; Ceiling fans; Ceiling fan light kits; Showerheads; Faucets; Water closets; and Urinals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">March 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water heaters; Consumer furnaces; Pool heaters; Commercial water heating equipment; Commercial packaged boilers; Commercial warm air furnaces; Commercial unit heaters; and Furnace fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dishwashers; Commercial pre-rinse spray valves; Illuminated exit signs; Traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules; and Distribution transformers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Room air conditioners; Central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps; and Commercial heating, ventilating, air conditioning (HVAC) equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">July 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Consumer refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers, and freezers; Commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers; Automatic commercial ice makers; Refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines; Walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers; and Consumer miscellaneous refrigeration products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">August 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Torchieres; Dehumidifiers; Metal halide lamp ballasts and fixtures; External power supplies; Pumps; and Battery chargers.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">September 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Residential clothes washers; Residential clothes dryers; Direct heating equipment; Cooking products; and Commercial clothes washers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 1.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>New model filing.</I> (1) In addition to the annual filing schedule in paragraph (d) of this section, any new basic models must be certified pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section before distribution in commerce. A modification to a model that increases the model's energy or water consumption or decreases its efficiency resulting in re-rating must be certified as a new basic model pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For distribution transformers, the manufacturer shall submit all information required in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section for the new basic model, unless the manufacturer has previously submitted to the Department a certification report for a basic model of distribution transformer that is in the same kVA grouping as the new basic model.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discontinued model filing.</I> When production of a basic model has ceased and it is no longer being sold or offered for sale by the manufacturer or private labeler, the manufacturer must report this discontinued status to DOE as part of the next annual certification report following such cessation. For each basic model, the report must include the information specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (7) of this section, except that for integrated light-emitting diode lamps and for compact fluorescent lamps, the manufacturer must submit a full certification report, including all of the information required by paragraph (b) of this section and the product-specific information required by § 429.56(b)(2) or § 429.35(b)(2), respectively.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Third party submitters.</I> A manufacturer may elect to use a third party to submit the certification report to DOE (for example, a trade association, independent test lab, or other authorized representative, including a private labeler acting as a third party submitter on behalf of a manufacturer); however, the manufacturer is responsible for submission of the certification report to DOE. DOE may refuse to accept certification reports from third party submitters who have failed to submit reports in accordance with the rules of this part. The third party submitter must complete the compliance statement as part of the certification report. Each manufacturer using a third party submitter must have an authorization form on file with DOE. The authorization form includes a compliance statement, specifies the third party authorized to submit certification reports on the manufacturer's behalf and provides the contact information and signature of a company official.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Method of submission.</I> Reports required by this section must be submitted to DOE electronically at <I>http://www.regulations.doe.gov/ccms</I> (CCMS). A manufacturer or third party submitter can find product-specific templates for each covered product or covered equipment with certification requirements online at <I>https://www.regulations.doe.gov/ccms/templates.html.</I> Manufacturers and third party submitters must submit a registration form, signed by an officer of the company, in order to obtain access to CCMS.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compliance dates.</I> For any product subject to an applicable energy conservation standard for which the compliance date has not yet occurred, a certification report must be submitted not later than the compliance date for the applicable energy conservation standard. The covered products enumerated below are subject to the stated compliance dates for initial certification:
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial warm air furnaces, packaged terminal air conditioners, and packaged terminal heat pumps, July 1, 2014;
</P>
<P>(2) Commercial gas-fired and oil-fired instantaneous water heaters less than 10 gallons and commercial gas-fired and oil-fired hot water supply boilers less than 10 gallons, October 1, 2014;
</P>
<P>(3) All other types of covered commercial water heaters except those specified in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, commercial packaged boilers with input capacities less than or equal to 2.5 million Btu/h, and self-contained commercial refrigeration equipment with solid or transparent doors, December 31, 2014;
</P>
<P>(4) Variable refrigerant flow air conditioners and heat pumps, March 31, 2015;
</P>
<P>(5) Small, large, and very large air-cooled, water-cooled, evaporatively-cooled, and water-source commercial air conditioning and heating equipment, single package vertical units, computer room air conditioners, commercial package boilers with input capacities greater than 2.5 million Btu/h, and all other types of commercial refrigeration equipment except those specified in paragraph (i)(3) of this section, July 1, 2015.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24762, May 2, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 38292, June 30, 2011; 76 FR 65365, Oct. 21, 2011; 77 FR 76830, Dec. 31, 2012; 78 FR 79593, Dec. 31, 2013; 79 FR 25500, May 5, 2014; 79 FR 38208, July 3, 2014; 81 FR 4430, Jan. 26, 2016; 81 FR 37049, June 8, 2016; 81 FR 43425, July 1, 2016; 81 FR 46789, July 18, 2016; 81 FR 59415, Aug. 29, 2016; 81 FR 95798, Dec. 28, 2016; 85 FR 1446, 1591, Jan. 10, 2020; 87 FR 43976, July 22, 2022; 87 FR 53637, Aug. 31, 2022; 87 FR 77317, Dec. 16, 2022; 89 FR 82059, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43377, Sept. 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.13" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.13   Testing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The determination that a basic model complies with an applicable energy conservation standard shall be determined from the values derived pursuant to the applicable testing and sampling requirements set forth in parts 429, 430 and 431. The determination that a basic model complies with the applicable design standard shall be based upon the incorporation of specific design requirements in parts 430 and 431 or as specified in section 325 and 342 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Where DOE has determined a particular entity is in noncompliance with an applicable standard or certification requirement, DOE may impose additional testing requirements as a remedial measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.14" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.14   Consumer refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers and freezers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to residential refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers and freezers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of residential refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers, and freezers, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.003.gif"/>
<FP>or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.026.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the energy factor or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.005.gif"/>
<FP>or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.027.gif"/>
<P>(3) The value of total refrigerated volume of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the total refrigerated volumes measured for each tested unit of the basic model or the total refrigerated volume of the basic model as calculated in accordance with § 429.72(c). The value of adjusted total volume of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the adjusted total volumes measured for each tested unit of the basic model or the adjusted total volume of the basic model as calculated in accordance with § 429.72(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to residential refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers and freezers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The annual energy use in kilowatt hours per year (kWh/yr); the total refrigerated volume in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>); and the adjusted total volume in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>).
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following additional product-specific information: Whether the basic model has variable defrost control (in which case, manufacturers must also report the values, if any, of CT<E T="52">L</E> and CT<E T="52">M</E> (See section 5.3 of appendix A and appendix B to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430) used in the calculation of energy consumption), whether the basic model has variable anti-sweat heater control (in which case, manufacturers must also report the values of heater Watts at the ten humidity levels (5%, 15%, 25%, 35%, 45%, 55%, 65%, 75%, 85%, and 95%) used to calculate the variable anti-sweat heater “Correction Factor”), and whether testing has been conducted with modifications to the standard temperature sensor locations, as specified in section 5.1(g) of appendices A and B to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding requirements for representative values, including certified and rated values.</I> (1) The represented value of annual energy use must be rounded to the nearest kilowatt hour per year.
</P>
<P>(2) The represented value of total refrigerated volume must be rounded to the nearest 0.1 cubic foot.
</P>
<P>(3) The represented value of adjusted total volume must be rounded to the nearest 0.1 cubic foot.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Product category determination.</I> Each basic model shall be certified according to the appropriate product category as defined in § 430.2 of this chapter based on compartment volumes and compartment temperatures. If one or more compartments could be classified as both a fresh food compartment and a freezer compartment, the model must be certified to each applicable product category based on the operation of the compartment(s) as both fresh food and freezer compartments.
</P>
<P>(1) Compartment volume used to determine product category shall be, for each compartment, the mean of the volumes of that specific compartment for the sample of tested units of the basic model, measured according to the provisions in section 4.1 of appendix A of subpart B of part 430 of this chapter for refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers and section 4.1 of appendix B of subpart B of part 430 of this chapter for freezers, or, for each compartment, the volume of that specific compartment calculated for the basic model in accordance with § 429.72(c).
</P>
<P>(2) Determination of the compartment temperature ranges shall be based on operation under the conditions specified and using measurement of compartment temperature as specified in appendix A of subpart B of part 430 of this chapter for refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers and appendix B of subpart B of part 430 of this chapter for freezers. The determination of compartment status may require evaluation of a model at the extremes of the range of user-selectable temperature control settings. If the temperature ranges for the same compartment of multiple units of a sample are different, the maximum and minimum compartment temperatures for compartment status determination shall be based on the mean measurements for the units in the sample.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24762, May 2, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 22348, Apr. 21, 2014; 81 FR 46789, July 18, 2016; 86 FR 56819, Oct. 12, 2021; 88 FR 7845, Feb. 7, 2023]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 81 FR 46789, July 18, 2016, § 429.14(c)(2) and (3) were stayed indefinitely.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.15" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.15   Room air conditioners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to room air conditioners; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of room air conditioners, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.007.gif"/>
<FP>or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.028.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the combined energy efficiency ratio (CEER) (determined in § 430.23(f)(3) for each unit in the sample) or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.009.gif"/>
<FP>or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.029.gif"/>
<P>(3) The cooling capacity of a basic model is the mean of the measured cooling capacities for each tested unit of the basic model, as determined in § 430.23(f)(1) of this chapter. Round the cooling capacity value to the nearest hundred.
</P>
<P>(4) The electrical power input of a basic model is the mean of the measured electrical power inputs for each tested unit of the basic model, as determined in § 430.23(f)(2) of this chapter. Round the electrical power input to the nearest ten.
</P>
<P>(5) Round the value of CEER for a basic model to one decimal place.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to room air conditioners; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The combined energy efficiency ratio in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the electrical power input in watts (W).
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report for a variable-speed room air conditioner basic model must include supplemental information and instructions in PDF format that include—
</P>
<P>(i) The mean measured cooling capacity for the units tested at each additional test condition (<I>i.e.,</I> respectively, the mean of Capacity<E T="52">2</E>, Capacity<E T="52">3</E>, and Capacity<E T="52">4</E>, each expressed in Btu/h and rounded to the nearest 100 Btu/h, as determined in accordance with section 4.1.2 of appendix F of subpart B of part 430 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(ii) The mean electrical power input at each additional test condition (respectively, the mean of Power<E T="52">2</E>, Power<E T="52">3</E>, and Power<E T="52">4</E>, each expressed in W and rounded to the nearest 10 W, as determined in accordance with section 4.1.2 of appendix F of subpart B of part 430 of this chapter); and
</P>
<P>(iii) All additional testing and testing set up instructions (<I>e.g.,</I> specific operational or control codes or settings) necessary to operate the basic model under the required conditions specified by the relevant test procedure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24763, May 2, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 16475, Mar. 29, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.16" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.16   Central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps.</HEAD>
<P>(1) <I>Required represented values.</I> Determine the represented values (including as applicable, SEER2, EER2, HSPF2, P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>, SCORE, SHORE, EER, cooling capacity, and heating capacity) for the individual models/combinations (or “tested combinations”) specified in the following table.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required represented values
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-Package Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package Air Conditioner (AC) (including space-constrained)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual model distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package Heat Pump (HP) (including space-constrained)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual model distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor Unit and Indoor Unit (Distributed in Commerce by Outdoor Unit Manufacturer (OUM))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System AC with Single-Stage or Two-Stage Compressor (including Space-Constrained and Small-Duct, High Velocity Systems (SDHV))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual combination distributed in commerce. Each model of outdoor unit must include a represented value for at least one coil-only individual combination that is distributed in commerce and which is representative of the least efficient combination distributed in commerce with that particular model of outdoor unit. For that particular model of outdoor unit, additional represented values for coil-only and blower-coil individual combinations are allowed, if distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split System AC with Other Than Single-Stage or Two-Stage Compressor (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual combination distributed in commerce, including all coil-only and blower-coil combinations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System HP (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual combination distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—non-SDHV (including Space-Constrained)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each model of outdoor unit, at a minimum, a non-ducted “tested combination.” For any model of outdoor unit also sold with models of ducted indoor units, a ducted “tested combination.” The ducted “tested combination” must comprise the highest static variety of ducted indoor unit distributed in commerce (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> conventional, mid-static, or low-static). Additional representations are allowed, as described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, respectively.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—SDHV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each model of outdoor unit, an SDHV “tested combination.” Additional representations are allowed, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor Unit Only Distributed in Commerce by Independent Coil Manufacturer (ICM)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System Air Conditioner (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)


<br/>Single-Split-System Heat Pump (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual combination distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—SDHV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For a model of indoor unit within each basic model, an SDHV “tested combination.” Additional representations are allowed, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Outdoor Unit with no Match</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every model of outdoor unit distributed in commerce (tested with a model of coil-only indoor unit as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>P</I><E T="52">W,OFF</E>. Represented values of <I>P</I><E T="52">W,OFF</E> are only required when determining represented values in accordance with 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, appendix M1. If individual models of single-package systems or individual combinations (or “tested combinations”) of split systems that are otherwise identical are offered with multiple options for off-mode-related components, determine the represented value for the individual model/combination with the crankcase heater and controls that are the most consumptive. A manufacturer may also determine represented values for individual models/combinations with less consumptive off-mode options; however, all such options must be identified with different model numbers for single-package systems or for outdoor units (in the case of split systems).


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Refrigerants.</I> (i) If a model of outdoor unit (used in a single-split, multi-split, multi-circuit, multi-head mini-split, and/or outdoor unit with no match system) is distributed in commerce and approved for use with multiple refrigerants, a manufacturer must determine all represented values for that model using each refrigerant that can be used in an individual combination of the basic model (including outdoor units with no match or “tested combinations”). This requirement may apply across the listed categories in the table 1 to paragraph (a)(1) of this section. A refrigerant is considered approved for use if it is listed on the nameplate of the outdoor unit. 


</P>
<P>(ii) If a model is approved for use with multiple refrigerants, a manufacturer may make multiple separate representations for the performance of that model (all within the same individual combination or outdoor unit with no match) using the multiple approved refrigerants. In the alternative, manufacturers may certify the model (all within the same individual combination or outdoor unit with no match) with a single representation, provided that the represented value is no more efficient than its performance using the least-efficient refrigerant. If a manufacturer certifies a single model with multiple representations for the different approved refrigerants, it may use an AEDM to determine the represented values for all other refrigerants besides the refrigerant used for testing. A single representation made for multiple refrigerants may not include equipment in multiple categories or equipment subcategories listed in the table in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limitations for represented values of individual combinations.</I> The following paragraphs explains the limitations for represented values of individual combinations (or “tested combinations”).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Regional.</I> A basic model (model of outdoor unit) may only be certified as compliant with a regional standard if all individual combinations within that basic model meet the regional standard for which it is certified, including the coil-only combination as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, as applicable. A model of outdoor unit that is certified below a regional standard can only be rated and certified as compliant with a regional standard if the model of outdoor unit has a unique model number and has been certified as a different basic model for distribution in each region, where the basic model(s) certified as compliant with a regional standard meet the requirements of the first sentence. An ICM cannot certify an individual combination with a rating that is compliant with a regional standard if the individual combination includes a model of outdoor unit that the OUM has certified with a rating that is not compliant with a regional standard. Conversely, an ICM cannot certify an individual combination with a rating that is not compliant with a regional standard if the individual combination includes a model of outdoor unit that an OUM has certified with a rating that is compliant with a regional standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Multiple product classes.</I> Models of outdoor units that are rated and distributed in individual combinations that span multiple product classes must be tested, rated, and certified pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section as compliant with the applicable standard for each product class. This includes multi-split systems, multi-circuit systems, and multi-head mini-split systems with a represented value for a mixed combination including both SDHV and either non-ducted or ducted indoor units.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requirements.</I> All represented values under paragraph (a) of this section must be based on testing in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section or the application of an AEDM or other methodology as allowed in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Units tested</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The general requirements of § 429.11 apply to central air conditioners and heat pumps; and


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Individual model/combination selection for testing.</I> (i) Table 2 to this paragraph (b)(2)(i) identifies the minimum testing requirements for each basic model that includes multiple individual models/combinations; if a basic model spans multiple categories or subcategories listed in table 2, multiple testing requirements apply. For each basic model that includes only one individual model/combination, test that individual model/combination.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Must test:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">With:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-Package Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package AC (including Space-Constrained)


<br/>Single-Package HP (including Space-Constrained)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The individual model with the lowest seasonal


<br/>energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2)

<br/>(when testing in accordance with appendix M1

<br/>to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430)

<br/>or seasonal cooling and off-mode rating

<br/>efficiency (SCORE) (when testing

<br/>in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart.

<br/>B of 10 CFR part 430)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor Unit and Indoor Unit (Distributed in Commerce by OUM)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System AC with Single-Stage or Two-Stage Compressor (including Space-Constrained and Small-Duct, High Velocity Systems (SDHV))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The model of outdoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A model of coil-only indoor unit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System HP with Single-Stage or Two-Stage Compressor (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The model of outdoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A model of indoor unit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split System AC or HP with Other Than Single-Stage or Two-Stage Compressor having a coil-only individual combination (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The model of outdoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A model of coil-only indoor unit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split System AC or HP with Other Than Single-Stage or Two-Stage Compressor without a coil-only individual combination (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The model of outdoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A model of indoor unit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—non-SDHV (including Space-Constrained)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The model of outdoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At a minimum, a “tested combination” composed entirely of non-ducted indoor units. For any models of outdoor units also sold with models of ducted indoor units, test a second “tested combination” composed entirely of ducted indoor units (in addition to the non-ducted combination). The ducted “tested combination” must comprise the highest static variety of ducted indoor unit distributed in commerce (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> conventional, mid-static, or low-static).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—SDHV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The model of outdoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A “tested combination” composed entirely of SDHV indoor units.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor Unit Only (Distributed in Commerce by ICM)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System Air Conditioner (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A model of indoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The least efficient model of outdoor unit with which it will be paired where the least efficient model of outdoor unit is the model of outdoor unit in the lowest SEER2 combination (when testing under appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430) or SCORE combination (when testing under appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430) as certified by the OUM. If there are multiple models of outdoor unit with the same lowest SEER2 (when testing under appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430) or SCORE (when testing under appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430) represented value, the ICM may select one for testing purposes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System Heat Pump (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nothing, as long as an equivalent air conditioner basic model has been tested. If an equivalent air conditioner basic model has not been tested, must test a model of indoor unit
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—SDHV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A model of indoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A “tested combination” composed entirely of SDHV indoor units, where the outdoor unit is the least efficient model of outdoor unit with which the SDHV indoor unit will be paired. The least efficient model of outdoor unit is the model of outdoor unit in the lowest SEER2 combination (when testing under appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430) or SCORE combination (when testing under appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430) as certified by the OUM. If there are multiple models of outdoor unit with the same lowest SEER2 represented value (when testing under appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430) or SCORE represented value (when testing under appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430), the ICM may select one for testing purposes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor Unit with No Match</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The model of outdoor unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A model of coil-only indoor unit meeting the requirements of section 4 of appendix M1 (when testing under appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430); or meeting the requirements of section 3 of appendix M2 (when testing under appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) When testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, each individual model/combination (or “tested combination”) identified in table 2 to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section is not required to be tested for P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>. Instead, at a minimum, among individual models/combinations with similar off-mode construction (even spanning different models of outdoor units), a manufacturer must test at least one individual model/combination for P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>.
</P>
<P>(iii) When testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 and determining SCORE and SHORE, each individual model/combination (or “tested combination”) identified in table 2 to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section is not required to be tested for values of P<E T="52">1</E> (off-mode power in shoulder season) and P<E T="52">2</E> (off-mode power in heating Season). Instead, at a minimum, among individual models/combinations with similar off-mode construction (even spanning different models of outdoor units), a manufacturer must test at least one individual model/combination, for which P<E T="52">1</E> and P<E T="52">2</E> are the most consumptive.










</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sampling plans and represented values.</I> For individual models (for single-package systems) or individual combinations (for split-systems, including “tested combinations” for multi-split, multi-circuit, and multi-head mini-split systems) with represented values determined through testing, each individual model/combination (or “tested combination”) must have a sample of sufficient size tested in accordance with the applicable provisions of this subpart. For heat pumps (other than heating-only heat pumps), all units of the sample population must be tested in both the cooling and heating modes and the results used for determining all representations. The represented values for any individual model/combination must be assigned such that:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Off-Mode.</I> Any represented value of power consumption or other measure of energy consumption for which consumers would favor lower values must be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08jn16.000.gif"/>
<FP>and, <E T="7503">x</E> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 90 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09se25.002.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="52">0.90</E> is the t statistic for a 90 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from appendix D). Round represented values of off-mode power consumption to the nearest watt.




</FP>
<P>(ii) <I>EER2, SEER2, HSPF2, SCORE, EER, and SHORE.</I> Any represented value of the energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.014.gif"/>
<FP>and, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 90 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09se25.003.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="52">0.90</E> is the t statistic for a 90 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from appendix D). Round represented values of EER2, SEER2, HSPF2, EER, SCORE, and SHORE to the nearest 0.05.












</FP>
<P>(iii) <I>Cooling Capacity and Heating Capacity.</I> The represented values of cooling capacity and heating capacity must each be a self-declared value that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.002.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and x<E T="54">i</E> is the ith sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 90 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09se25.004.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="52">0.90</E> is the t statistic for a 90 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from appendix D).






</FP>
<P>(B) Rounded according to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) To the nearest 100 Btu/h if cooling capacity or heating capacity is less than 20,000 Btu/h,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To the nearest 200 Btu/h if cooling capacity or heating capacity is greater than or equal to 20,000 Btu/h but less than 38,000 Btu/h, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) To the nearest 500 Btu/h if cooling capacity or heating capacity is greater than or equal to 38,000 Btu/h and less than 65,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of represented values for all other individual models/combinations besides those specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section</I>—(1) <I>All basic models except outdoor units with no match and multi-split systems, multi-circuit systems, and multi-head mini-split systems.</I> (i) For every individual model/combination within a basic model other than the individual model/combination required to be tested pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, either—
</P>
<P>(A) A sample of sufficient size, comprised of production units or representing production units, must be tested as complete systems with the resulting represented values for the individual model/combination obtained in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) and (3) of this section; or


</P>
<P>(B) The represented values of the measures of energy efficiency or energy consumption through the application of an AEDM in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and § 429.70. An AEDM may only be used to determine represented values for individual models or combinations in a basic model (or separate approved refrigerants within an individual combination) other than the individual model or combination(s) required for mandatory testing under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(ii) When testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, for every individual model/combination within a basic model tested pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, but for which <I>P</I><E T="52">W,OFF</E> testing was not conducted, the represented value of <I>P</I><E T="52">W,OFF</E> may be assigned through, either:
</P>
<P>(A) The testing result from an individual model/combination of similar off-mode construction; or
</P>
<P>(B) The application of an AEDM in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and § 429.70.




</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outdoor units with no match.</I> All models of outdoor units with no match within a basic model must be tested. No model of outdoor unit with no match may be rated with an AEDM, other than to determine the represented values for models using approved refrigerants other than the one used in testing.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>For multi-split systems, multi-circuit systems, and multi-head mini-split systems.</I> The following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) When testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, or appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, for basic models that include additional varieties of ducted indoor units (<I>i.e.,</I> conventional, low-static, or mid-static) other than the one for which representation is required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if a manufacturer chooses to make a representation, the manufacturer must conduct testing of a tested combination according to the requirements in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) When testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, or appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, for basic models that include mixed combinations of indoor units (any two kinds of non-ducted, low-static, mid-static, and conventional ducted indoor units), the represented value for the mixed combination is the mean of the represented values for the individual component combinations as determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) When testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, or appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, for basic models including mixed combinations of SDHV and another kind of indoor unit (any of non-ducted, low-static, mid-static, and conventional ducted), the represented value for the mixed SDHV/other combination is the mean of the represented values for the SDHV and other tested combination as determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) All other individual combinations of models of indoor units for the same model of outdoor unit for which the manufacturer chooses to make representations must be rated as separate basic models, and the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) and (c)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(v) When testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, and with respect to P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> only, for every individual combination (or “tested combination”) within a basic model tested pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, but for which P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> testing was not conducted, the representative values of P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> may be assigned through either:
</P>
<P>(A) The testing result from an individual model or combination of similar off-mode construction, or
</P>
<P>(B) Application of an AEDM in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and § 429.70.






</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, represented values of efficiency or consumption may be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(e) and the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Power or energy consumption.</I> Any represented value of the average off mode power consumption or other measure of energy consumption of an individual model/combination for which consumers would favor lower values must be greater than or equal to the output of the AEDM but no greater than the standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Energy efficiency.</I> Any represented value of the EER2, SEER2, HSPF2, EER, SCORE and SHORE, or other measure of energy efficiency of an individual model/combination for which consumers would favor higher values must be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM but no less than the standard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cooling capacity.</I> The represented value of cooling capacity of an individual model/combination must be no greater than the cooling capacity output simulated by the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Heating capacity.</I> The represented value of heating capacity of an individual model/combination must be no greater than the heating capacity output simulated by the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certification reports.</I> This paragraph specifies the information that must be included in a certification report.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> The requirements of § 429.12 apply to central air conditioners and heat pumps.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public product-specific information.</I> Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), for each individual model (for single-package systems) or individual combination (for split-systems, including outdoor units with no match and “tested combinations” for multi-split, multi-circuit, and multi-head mini-split systems), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information: When certifying compliance with January 1, 2015, energy conservation standards, the seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/W-h)) or when certifying compliance with January 1, 2023, energy conservation standards, seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2 in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/W-h)); the average off mode power consumption (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> in Watts); the cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); the region(s) in which the basic model can be sold; when certifying compliance with January 1, 2023, energy conservation standards, the kind(s) of air conditioner or heat pump associated with the minimum external static pressure used in testing or rating (ceiling-mount, wall-mount, mobile home, low-static, mid-static, small duct high velocity, space-constrained, or conventional/not otherwise listed); and
</P>
<P>(i) For heat pumps, when certifying compliance with January 1, 2015, energy conservation standards, the heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/W-h)) or, when certifying compliance with January 1, 2023, energy conservation standards, heating seasonal performance factor 2 (HSPF2 in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/W-h));
</P>
<P>(ii) For central air conditioners (excluding space-constrained products), when certifying compliance with January 1, 2015, energy conservation standards, the energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/W-h)) from the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test, whichever applies, or when certifying compliance with January 1, 2023, energy conservation standards, the energy efficiency ratio 2 (EER2 in Btu/W-h);
</P>
<P>(iii) For single-split-systems, whether the represented value is for a coil-only or blower coil system;
</P>
<P>(iv) For multi-split, multiple-circuit, and multi-head mini-split systems (including VRF and SDHV), when certifying compliance with January 1, 2015, energy conservation standards, whether the represented value is for a non-ducted, ducted, mixed non-ducted/ducted system, SDHV, mixed non-ducted/SDHV system, or mixed ducted/SDHV system;
</P>
<P>(v) For all split systems including outdoor units with no match, the refrigerant.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Basic and individual model numbers.</I> The basic model number and individual model number(s) required to be reported under § 429.12(b)(6) must consist of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Basic model number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Individual model number(s)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-Package (including Space-Constrained)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Number unique to the basic model</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-Split System (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Number unique to the basic model</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outdoor Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoor Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If applicable—Air Mover (could be same as indoor unit if fan is part of indoor unit model number).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, and Multi-Head Mini-Split System (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Number unique to the basic model</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outdoor Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When certifying a basic model based on tested combination(s): * * *
<br/>When certifying an individual combination: Indoor Unit(s)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If applicable—When certifying a basic model based on tested combination(s): * * *.
<br/>When certifying an individual combination: Air Mover(s).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor Unit with No Match</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Number unique to the basic model</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outdoor Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Additional product-specific information.</I> Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), for each individual model/combination (including outdoor units with no match and “tested combinations”), a certification report must include the following additional product-specific information: The cooling full load air volume rate for the system or for each indoor unit as applicable (in cubic feet per minute of standard air (scfm)); the air volume rates that represent normal operation for other test conditions including minimum cooling air volume rate, intermediate cooling air volume rate, full load heating air volume rate, minimum heating air volume rate, intermediate heating air volume rate, and nominal heating air volume rate (scfm) for the system or for each indoor unit as applicable, if different from the cooling full load air volume rate; whether the individual model uses a fixed orifice, thermostatic expansion valve, electronic expansion valve, or other type of metering device; the duration of the compressor break-in period, if used; whether the optional tests were conducted to determine the <I>C</I><E T="54">D</E><E T="53">c</E> value used to represent cooling mode cycling losses or whether the default value was used; the temperature at which the crankcase heater with controls is designed to turn on, if applicable; whether an inlet plenum was installed during testing; the duration of the indoor fan time delay, if used; and
</P>
<P>(i) For heat pumps, whether the optional tests were conducted to determine the <I>C</I><E T="54">D</E><E T="53">h</E> value or whether the default value was used; and the maximum time between defrosts as allowed by the controls (in hours);
</P>
<P>(ii) For multi-split, multiple-circuit, and multi-head mini-split systems, the number of indoor units tested with the outdoor unit; the nominal cooling capacity of each indoor unit and outdoor unit in the combination; and the indoor units that are not providing heating or cooling for part-load tests;
</P>
<P>(iii) For ducted systems having multiple indoor fans within a single indoor unit, the number of indoor fans; the nominal cooling capacity of the indoor unit and outdoor unit; which fan(s) operate to attain the full-load air volume rate when controls limit the simultaneous operation of all fans within the single indoor unit; and the allocation of the full-load air volume rate to each operational fan when different capacity blowers are connected to the common duct;
</P>
<P>(iv) For blower coil systems, the airflow-control settings associated with full load cooling operation; and the airflow-control settings or alternative instructions for setting fan speed to the speed upon which the rating is based;


</P>
<P>(v) For models with time-adaptive defrost control, the frosting interval to be used during Frost Accumulation tests and the procedure for manually initiating the defrost at the specified time;


</P>
<P>(vii) For variable-speed models, the compressor frequency set points, and the required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components;
</P>
<P>(viii) For variable-speed heat pumps, whether the H1<E T="52">N</E> or H1<E T="52">2</E> test speed is the same as the H3<E T="52">2</E> test speed; the compressor frequency that corresponds to maximum speed at which the system controls would operate the compressor in normal operation in a 17 °F ambient temperature; and when certifying compliance with January 1, 2023, energy conservation standards, whether the optional 5 °F very low temperature heating mode test was used to characterize performance at temperatures below 17 °F (except for triple-capacity northern heat pumps, for which the very low temperature test is required,) and whether the alternative test required for minimum-speed-limiting variable-speed heat pumps was used;
</P>
<P>(ix) For models of outdoor units with no match, the following characteristics of the indoor coil: The face area, the coil depth in the direction of airflow, the fin density (fins per inch), the fin material, the fin style, the tube diameter, the tube material, and the numbers of tubes high and deep; and
</P>
<P>(x) For central air conditioners and heat pumps that have two-capacity compressors that lock out low capacity operation for cooling at higher outdoor temperatures and/or heating at lower outdoor temperatures, the outdoor temperature(s) at which the unit locks out low capacity operation.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Represented values for the Federal Trade Commission.</I> Use the following represented value determinations to meet the requirements of the Federal Trade Commission.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual operating cost—cooling.</I> Determine the represented value of estimated annual operating cost for cooling-only units or the cooling portion of the estimated annual operating cost for air-source heat pumps that provide both heating and cooling, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When using appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The quotient of the represented value of cooling capacity, in Btu's per hour as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, and multiplied by 0.93 for variable speed heat pumps only, divided by the represented value of SEER2, in Btu's per watt-hour, as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The representative average use cycle for cooling of 1,000 hours per year;
</P>
<P>(C) A conversion factor of 0.001 kilowatt per watt; and
</P>
<P>(D) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) When using appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The quotient of the represented value of cooling capacity, in Btu's per hour as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, and multiplied by 0.93 for variable speed heat pumps only, divided by the represented value of SCORE, in Btu's per watt-hour, as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The representative average use cycle for cooling of 1,457 hours per year;
</P>
<P>(C) A conversion factor of 0.001 kilowatt per watt; and
</P>
<P>(D) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual operating cost—heating.</I> Determine the represented value of estimated annual operating cost for air-source heat pumps that provide only heating or for the heating portion of the estimated annual operating cost for air-source heat pumps that provide both heating and cooling, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When using appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The quotient of the represented value of cooling capacity (for air-source heat pumps that provide both cooling and heating) in Btu's per hour, as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, or the represented value of heating capacity (for air-source heat pumps that provide only heating), as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, divided by the represented value of HSPF2, in Btu's per watt-hour, calculated for Region IV, as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The representative average use cycle for heating of 1,572 hours per year;
</P>
<P>(C) The adjustment factor of 1.15 (for heat pumps that are not variable speed) or 1.07 (for heat pumps that are variable speed), which serves to adjust the calculated design heating requirement and heating load hours to the actual load experienced by a heating system;
</P>
<P>(D) A conversion factor of 0.001 kilowatt per watt; and
</P>
<P>(E) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) When using appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The quotient of the represented value of cooling capacity (for air-source heat pumps that provide both cooling and heating) in Btu's per hour, as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, or the represented value of heating capacity (for air-source heat pumps that provide only heating), as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, divided by the represented value of SHORE, in Btu's per watt-hour, as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The representative average use cycle for heating of 972 hours per year;
</P>
<P>(C) The adjustment factor of 1.15 (for heat pumps that are not variable speed) or 1.07 (for heat pumps that are variable speed), which serves to adjust the calculated design heating requirement and heating load hours to the actual load experienced by a heating system;
</P>
<P>(D) A conversion factor of 0.001 kilowatt per watt; and
</P>
<P>(E) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Annual operating cost—total.</I> Determine the represented value of estimated annual operating cost for air-source heat pumps that provide both heating and cooling by calculating the sum of the quantity determined in paragraph (f)(1) of this section added to the quantity determined in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Regional annual operating cost—cooling.</I> Determine the represented value of estimated regional annual operating cost for cooling-only units or the cooling portion of the estimated regional annual operating cost for air-source heat pumps that provide both heating and cooling as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When using appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The quotient of the represented value of cooling capacity, in Btu's per hour as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, and multiplied by 0.93 for variable speed heat pumps only, divided by the represented value of SEER2, in Btu's per watt-hour, as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The estimated number of regional cooling load hours per year determined from the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(4)(<E T="01">i</E>)(B)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climatic region
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Regional cooling


<br/>load hours
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">III</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) A conversion factor of 0.001 kilowatts per watt; and
</P>
<P>(D) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) When using appendix M2 to subpart B of part 430, regional annual operating cost for cooling-only units or the cooling portion of the estimated regional annual operating cost air-source heat pumps that provide both heating and cooling, does not apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Regional annual operating cost—heating.</I> Determine the represented value of estimated regional annual operating cost for air-source heat pumps that provide only heating or for the heating portion of the estimated regional annual operating cost for air-source heat pumps that provide both heating and cooling as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When using appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The estimated number of regional heating load hours per year determined from the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)(5)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climatic region
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Regional cooling


<br/>load hours
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">493
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">857
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">III</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,247
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,701
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,202
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,842</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) The quotient of the represented value of cooling capacity (for air-source heat pumps that provide both cooling and heating) in Btu's per hour, as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(C) of this section, or the represented value of heating capacity (for air-source heat pumps that provide only heating), as determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, divided by the represented value of HSPF2, in Btu's per watt-hour, calculated for the appropriate generalized climatic region of interest, and determined in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) The adjustment factor of 1.15 (for heat pumps that are not variable speed) or 1.07 (for heat pumps that are variable speed), which serves to adjust the calculated design heating requirement and heating load hours to the actual load experienced by a heating system;
</P>
<P>(D) A conversion factor of 0.001 kilowatts per watt; and
</P>
<P>(E) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) When using appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, regional annual operating cost for air-source heat pumps that provide only heating or for the heating portion, does not apply.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Regional annual operating cost—total.</I> For air-source heat pumps that provide both heating and cooling, the estimated regional annual operating cost is the sum of the quantity determined in paragraph (f)(4) of this section added to the quantity determined in paragraph (f)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Annual operating cost—rounding.</I> Round any represented values of estimated annual operating cost determined in paragraphs (f)(1) through (6) of this section to the nearest dollar per year.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 37049, June 8, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 55112, Aug. 18, 2016; 82 FR 1468, Jan. 5, 2017; 86 FR 68393, Dec. 2, 2021; 87 FR 64583, Oct. 25, 2022; 89 FR 82060, Oct. 9, 2024]; 90 FR 1273, Jan. 7, 2025; 90 FR 43378, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.17" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.17   Water heaters.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.17:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.17 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> (1) Manufacturers must determine the represented value for each water heater by applying an AEDM in accordance with 10 CFR 429.70 or by testing for the uniform energy factor, in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the represented value is determined through testing, the general requirements of 10 CFR 429.11 are applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of the estimated annual operating cost or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29de16.013.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample;
</FP>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 95-percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29de16.014.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95-percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A).
</P>
<P>(B) Any represented value of the uniform energy factor, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29de16.015.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x</I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample;
</FP>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95-percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29de16.016.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95-percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A).
</P>
<P>(C) Any represented value of the rated storage volume must be equal to the mean of the measured storage volumes of all the units within the sample. Any represented value of the effective storage volume must be equal to the mean of the effective storage volumes of all the units within the sample.


</P>
<P>(D) Any represented value of first-hour rating or maximum gallons per minute (GPM) must be equal to the mean of the measured first-hour ratings or measured maximum GPM ratings, respectively, of all the units within the sample.


</P>
<P>(E) For an electric storage water heater that has a permanent mode or setting in which it is capable of heating and storing water above 135 °F, where permanent mode or setting means a mode of operation that is continuous and does not require any external consumer intervention to maintain for longer than 120 hours, except for those that meet the definition of “heat pump-type” water heater at § 430.2 of this chapter, whose rated storage volumes are less than 20 gallons or greater than 55 gallons, or that are only capable of heating the stored water above 135 °F in response to instructions received from a utility or third-party demand-response program, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) To demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards in § 430.32(d)(1) of this chapter, any represented value of uniform energy factor shall be determined based on testing in accordance with section 5.1.1 of appendix E to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards in § 430.32(d)(2) of this chapter, any represented value of uniform energy factor shall be determined based on high temperature testing in accordance with section 5.1.2 of appendix E to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of 10 CFR 429.12 are applicable to water heaters; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to 10 CFR 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public, product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For storage-type water heater basic models: The uniform energy factor (UEF, rounded to the nearest 0.01), the rated storage volume in gallons (rounded to the nearest 1 gal), the first-hour rating in gallons (gal, rounded to the nearest 1 gal), and the recovery efficiency in percent (%, rounded to the nearest 1%);
</P>
<P>(ii) For instantaneous-type water heater basic models: The uniform energy factor (UEF, rounded to the nearest 0.01), the rated storage volume in gallons (gal, rounded to the nearest 1 gal), the maximum gallons per minute (gpm, rounded to the nearest 0.1 gpm), and the recovery efficiency in percent (%, rounded to the nearest 1%); and
</P>
<P>(iii) For grid-enabled water heater basic models: The uniform energy factor (UEF, rounded to the nearest 0.01), the rated storage volume in gallons (gal, rounded to the nearest 1 gal), the first-hour rating in gallons (gal, rounded to the nearest 1 gal), the recovery efficiency in percent (%, rounded to the nearest 1%), a declaration that the model is a grid-enabled water heater, whether it is equipped at the point of manufacture with an activation lock, and whether it bears a permanent label applied by the manufacturer that advises purchasers and end-users of the intended and appropriate use of the product.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting of annual shipments for grid-enabled water heaters.</I> Pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 6295(e)(6)(C)(i), manufacturers of grid-enabled water heaters must report the total number of grid-enabled water heater units shipped for sale in the U.S. by the manufacturer for the previous calendar year (<I>i.e.,</I> January 1st through December 31st), as well as the calendar year that the shipments cover, starting on or before May 1, 2023, and annually on or before May 1 each year thereafter. This information shall be reported separately from the certification report required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and must be submitted to DOE in accordance with the submission procedures set forth in § 429.12(h). DOE will consider the annual reported shipments to be confidential business information without the need for the manufacturer to request confidential treatment of the information pursuant to § 429.7(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 96235, Dec. 29, 2016, as amended at 87 FR 43977, July 22, 2022; 89 FR 37941 May 6, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.18" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.18   Consumer furnaces.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.18:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.18 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to residential furnaces; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) For each basic model of furnaces, other than basic models of those sectional cast-iron boilers (which may be aggregated into groups having identical intermediate sections and combustion chambers) a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.019.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.020.gif"/>
<P>and
</P>
<P>(B) Any represented value of the annual fuel utilization efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.021.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.034.gif"/>
<P>(ii) For the lowest capacity basic model of a group of basic models of those sectional cast-iron boilers having identical intermediate sections and combustion chambers, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.023.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.035.gif"/>
<FP>and 
</FP>
<P>(B) Any represented value of the fuel utilization efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.025.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.036.gif"/>
<P>(iii) For the highest capacity basic model of a group of basic models of those sectional cast-iron boilers having identical intermediate sections and combustion chambers, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.027.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.037.gif"/>
<FP>and 
</FP>
<P>(B) Any represented value of the fuel utilization efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.029.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.038.gif"/>
<P>(iv) For each basic model or capacity other than the highest or lowest of the group of basic models of sectional cast-iron boilers having identical intermediate sections and combustion chambers, represented values of measures of energy consumption shall be determined by either—
</P>
<P>(A) A linear interpolation of data obtained for the smallest and largest capacity units of the family, or
</P>
<P>(B) Testing a sample of sufficient size to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.031.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.039.gif"/>
<FP>and 
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any represented value of the energy factor or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.033.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.040.gif"/>
<P>(v) Whenever measures of energy consumption determined by linear interpolation do not agree with measures of energy consumption determined by actual testing, the values determined by testing must be used for certification.
</P>
<P>(vi) In calculating the measures of energy consumption for each unit tested, use the design heating requirement corresponding to the mean of the capacities of the units of the sample.
</P>
<P>(vii) The represented value of annual fuel utilization efficiency must be rounded to the nearest one-tenth of a percentage point. The represented values of standby mode power and off mode power must be rounded to the nearest one-tenth of a watt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to residential furnaces; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For consumer furnaces and boilers: The annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) in percent (%) and the input capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(ii) For non-weatherized oil-fired furnaces (including mobile home furnaces), electric furnaces, and boilers: The standby mode power consumption (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) and off mode power consumption (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) in watts.
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following additional product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For cast-iron sectional boilers: A declaration of whether certification is based on linear interpolation or testing.
</P>
<P>(ii) For gas-fired hot water boilers and gas-fired steam boilers: A declaration that the manufacturer has not incorporated a constant-burning pilot.
</P>
<P>(iii) For gas-fired hot water boilers, oil-fired hot water boilers, and electric hot water boilers: Whether the boiler is equipped with tankless domestic water heating coils, and if not, a declaration that the manufacturer has incorporated an automatic means for adjusting water temperature).
</P>
<P>(4) For multi-position furnaces, the annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) reported for each basic model must be based on testing in the least efficient configuration. Manufacturers may also report and make representations of additional AFUE values based on testing in other configurations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24765, May 2, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 38292, June 30, 2011; 81 FR 2646, Jan. 15, 2016; 87 FR 43977, July 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.19" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.19   Dishwashers.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.19:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.19 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to dishwashers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of dishwashers, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy or water consumption or other measure of energy or water consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.035.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.041.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the energy or water factor or other measure of energy or water consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.037.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.042.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to dishwashers; and




</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The estimated annual energy use in kilowatt hours per year (kWh/yr), the water consumption in gallons per cycle, and the capacity in number of place settings as specified in ANSI/AHAM DW-1-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4).


</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following additional product-specific information—
</P>
<P>(i) The presence of a soil sensor, and if yes, the number of cycles required to reach calibration;
</P>
<P>(ii) The water inlet temperature used for testing in degrees Fahrenheit ( °F);
</P>
<P>(iii) The cycle selected for the energy test and whether that cycle is soil-sensing;
</P>
<P>(iv) The options selected for the energy test;
</P>
<P>(v) Presence of a built-in water softening system, and if yes, the energy use in kilowatt-hours and the water use in gallons required for each regeneration of the water softening system, the number of regeneration cycles per year, and data and calculations used to derive these values; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Indication of whether Cascade Complete Powder or Cascade with the Grease Fighting Power of Dawn was used as the detergent formulation. When certifying dishwashers, other than water re-use dishwashers, according to appendix C1 to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(A) Before July 17, 2023, Cascade Complete Powder detergent may be used as the basis for certification in conjunction with the detergent dosing methods specified in either section 2.5.2.1.1 or section 2.5.2.1.2 of appendix C1 to subpart B of part 430. Cascade with the Grease Fighting Power of Dawn detergent may be used as the basis for certification only in conjunction with the detergent dosing specified in section 2.5.2.1.1 of appendix C1.
</P>
<P>(B) Beginning July 17, 2023, Cascade Complete Powder detergent may be used as the basis for certification of newly certified basic models only in conjunction with the detergent dosing method specified in section 2.5.2.1.2 of appendix C1 to subpart B of part 430. Cascade with the Grease Fighting Power of Dawn detergent may be used as the basis for certification only in conjunction with the detergent dosing specified in section 2.5.2.1.1 of appendix C1. Manufacturers may maintain existing basic model certifications made prior to July 17, 2023, consistent with the provisions of paragraph (b)(3)(vi)(A) of this chapter.














</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24766, May 2, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 31962, May 30, 2012; 77 FR 65977, Oct. 31, 2012; 81 FR 90118, Dec. 13, 2016; 87 FR 43977, July 22, 2022; 88 FR 48357, July 27, 2023; 89 FR 82061, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43379, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.20" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.20   Residential clothes washers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to residential clothes washers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of residential clothes washers, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of the integrated water factor, the estimated annual operating cost, the energy or water consumption, or other measure of energy or water consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.039.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.043.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the integrated modified energy factor, energy efficiency ratio, water efficiency ratio, or other measure of energy or water consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.041.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.044.gif"/>
<P>(3) The clothes container capacity of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the measured clothes container capacity, C, of all tested units of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(4) The remaining moisture content (RMC) of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the final RMC value measured for all tested units of the basic model.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to residential clothes washers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall contain the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For residential clothes washers tested in accordance with appendix J1: The modified energy factor (MEF) in cubic feet per kilowatt hour per cycle (cu ft/kWh/cycle), the capacity in cubic feet (cu ft), the corrected remaining moisture content (RMC) expressed as a percentage, and, for standard-size residential clothes washers, a water factor (WF) in gallons per cycle per cubic foot (gal/cycle/cu ft).
</P>
<P>(ii) For residential clothes washers tested in accordance with appendix J2: The integrated modified energy factor (IMEF) in cu ft/kWh/cycle, the integrated water factor (IWF) in gal/cycle/cu ft, the capacity in cu ft, the corrected remaining moisture content (RMC) expressed as a percentage, and the type of loading (top-loading or front-loading).
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following additional product-specific information: A list of all cycle selections comprising the complete energy test cycle for each basic model.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reported values.</I> Values reported pursuant to this subsection must be rounded as follows: MEF and IMEF to the nearest 0.01 cu ft/kWh/cycle; WF and IWF to the nearest 0.1 gal/cycle/cu ft; RMC to the nearest 0.1 percentage point; and clothes container capacity to the nearest 0.1 cu ft.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24767, May 2, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 13936, Mar. 7, 2012; 77 FR 32379, May 31, 2012; 80 FR 46760, Aug. 5, 2015; 87 FR 33379, June 1, 2022; 89 FR 82061, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43379, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.21" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.21   Residential clothes dryers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to clothes dryers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of clothes dryers a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.043.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.045.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the energy factor, combined energy factor, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.045.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.046.gif"/>
<P>(3) The capacity of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the capacities measured for each tested unit of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to clothes dryers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: When using appendix D1 to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter, the combined energy factor in pounds per kilowatt hours (lb/kWh), the capacity in cubic feet (cu ft), the voltage in volts (V) (for electric dryers only), an indication if the dryer has automatic termination controls, and the hourly Btu rating of the burner (for gas dryers only); when using appendix D2 to subpart B of part 430, the combined energy factor in pounds per kilowatt hours (lb/kWh), the capacity in cubic feet (cu ft), the voltage in volts (V) (for electric dryers only), an indication if the dryer has automatic termination controls, the hourly Btu rating of the burner (for gas dryers only), and a list of the cycle setting selections for the energy test cycle as recorded in section 3.4.7 of appendix D2 to subpart B of part 430.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reported values.</I> Values reported pursuant to this section must be rounded as follows: CEF to the nearest 0.01 lb/kWh, capacity to the nearest 0.1 cu ft, voltage to the nearest V, and hourly Btu rating to the nearest Btu.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24767, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 49644, Aug. 14, 2013; 86 FR 56638, Oct. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.22" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.22   Direct heating equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to direct heating equipment; and
</P>
<P>(2) (i) For each basic model of direct heating equipment (not including furnaces) a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.047.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.047.gif"/>
<FP>and 
</FP>
<P>(B) Any represented value of the fuel utilization efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.049.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.048.gif"/>
<P>(ii) In calculating the measures of energy consumption for each unit tested, use the design heating requirement corresponding to the mean of the capacities of the units of the sample.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to direct heating equipment; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: Direct heating equipment, the annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) in percent (%), the mean input capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the mean output capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24768, May 2, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 38292, June 30, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.23" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.23   Cooking products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to cooking products; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of cooking products a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, standby mode power consumption, off mode power consumption, annual energy consumption, integrated annual energy consumption, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16de16.028.gif"/>
<FP>and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample;
</FP>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(ii) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16de16.041.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="52">0.975</E> is the t statistic for a 97.5% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A).
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to conventional cooking tops, conventional ovens and microwave ovens; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: For conventional cooking tops and conventional ovens: the type of pilot light and a declaration that the manufacturer has incorporated the applicable design requirements. For microwave ovens, the average standby power in watts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24769, May 2, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 65977, Oct. 31, 2012; 78 FR 4025, Jan. 18, 2013; 78 FR 36368, June 17, 2013; 81 FR 91445, Dec. 16, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.24" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.24   Pool heaters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to pool heaters; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of pool heater, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of the thermal efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.055.gif"/>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(ii) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.051.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to pool heaters; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The thermal efficiency in percent (%) and the input capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24769, May 2, 2011; 89 FR 82061, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43379, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.25" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.25   Television sets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to televisions; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of television, samples shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of power consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc13.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>and x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>x</I><E T="52">i</E> is the <I>i</I>
<SU>th</SU> sample; 
</FP-2>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) For on mode power consumption, the upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc13.008.gif"/>
<FP-2>and x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="52">0.95</E> is the t-statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).
</FP-2>
<FP>And
</FP>
<P>(C) For standby mode power consumption and power consumption measurements in modes other than on mode, the upper 90 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc13.009.gif"/>
<FP-2>and x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.90</E> is the t-statistic for a 90% one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).
</FP-2>
<P>(ii) Any represented annual energy consumption of a basic model shall be determined by applying the AEC calculation in section 4 of appendix H to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter to the represented values of power consumption as calculated pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Rounding requirements.</I> The represented value of power consumption and the represented annual energy consumption shall be rounded as follows:


</P>
<P>(A) For power consumption in the on and standby modes, the represented value shall be rounded according to the requirements specified in sections 4.1 and 4.3 of appendix H to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(B) For annual energy consumption, the represented value shall be rounded according to the requirements specified in section 3.4 of appendix H to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 63840, Oct. 25, 2013, as amended at 88 FR 16109, Mar. 15, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.26" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.26   Fluorescent lamp ballasts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to fluorescent lamp ballasts; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of fluorescent lamp ballasts, a sample of sufficient size, not less than four, shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of the energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.057.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 99 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.01, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.052.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the ballast luminous efficiency, power factor, or other measure of the energy efficiency or energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor a higher value must be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.059.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 99 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.99, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.053.gif"/>
<P>(iii) The represented value of average total lamp arc power must be equal to the mean of the sample,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14se20.005.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<P>x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean;
</P>
<P>n is the number of units in the sample; and
</P>
<P>x<E T="52">i</E> is the i<E T="51">th</E> unit.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to fluorescent lamp ballasts; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information: The ballast luminous efficiency, the average total lamp arc power, the power factor, the number of lamps operated by the ballast, and the type of lamps operated by the ballast (<I>i.e.,</I> wattage, base, shape, diameter, and length).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding requirements.</I> (1) Round ballast luminous efficiency to the nearest thousandths place.
</P>
<P>(2) Round power factor to the nearest hundredths place.
</P>
<P>(3) Round average total lamp arc power to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24769, May 2, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 25600, Apr. 29, 2016; 85 FR 56493, Sept. 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.27" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.27   General service fluorescent lamps.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.27:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.27 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of Represented Value.</I> Each manufacturer must determine represented values, which include certified ratings, for each basic model by testing, in accordance with the following sampling provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) Units to be tested.
</P>
<P>(i) When testing, use a sample comprised of production units. The same sample of units must be tested and used as the basis for representations for rated wattage, average lamp efficacy, color rendering index (CRI), and correlated color temperature (CCT).
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model, randomly select and test a sample of sufficient size, but not less than 10 units, to ensure that represented values of average lamp efficacy are less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The arithmetic mean of the sample: or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by .97, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31au22.000.gif"/>
<P>(2) Any represented values of measures of energy efficiency or energy consumption for all individual models represented by a given basic model must be the same.
</P>
<P>(3) Represented values of CCT, CRI and rated wattage must be equal to the arithmetic mean of the sample.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 apply to general service fluorescent lamps; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The testing laboratory's ILAC accreditation body's identification number or other approved identification assigned by the ILAC accreditation body, average lamp efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W), rated wattage in watts (W), CCT in Kelvin (K), and CRI.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding Requirements.</I> (1) Round rated wattage to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<P>(2) Round average lamp efficacy to the nearest tenth of a lumen per watt.
</P>
<P>(3) Round CCT to the nearest 100 kelvin (K).
</P>
<P>(4) Round CRI to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 53637, Aug. 31, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.28" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.28   Faucets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to faucets; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of faucet, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of water consumption of a basic model for which consumers favor lower values shall be no less than the higher of the higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.065.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(ii) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.056.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to faucets; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: For non-metering faucets, the maximum water use in gallons per minute (gpm) rounded to the nearest 0.1 gallon; for metering faucets, the maximum water use in gallons per cycle (gal/cycle) rounded to the nearest 0.01 gallon; and for all faucet types, the flow water pressure in pounds per square inch (psi).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24771, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 62985, Oct. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.29" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.29   Showerheads.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to showerheads; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of a showerhead, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of water consumption of a basic model for which consumers favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.067.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(ii) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.057.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to showerheads; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The maximum water use in gallons per minute (gpm) rounded to the nearest 0.1 gallon, the maximum flow water pressure in pounds per square inch (psi), and a declaration that the showerhead meets the requirements of § 430.32(p) pertaining to mechanical retention of the flow-restricting insert, if applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24771, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 62985, Oct. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.30" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.30   Water closets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to water closets; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of water closet, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of water consumption of a basic model for which consumers favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.069.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(ii) The upper 90 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.1, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.058.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to water closets; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The maximum water use in gallons per flush (gpf), rounded to the nearest 0.01 gallon. For dual-flush water closets, the maximum water use to be reported is the flush volume observed when tested in the full-flush mode.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24771, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 62986, Oct. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.31" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.31   Urinals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to urinals; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of urinal, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of water consumption of a basic model for which consumers favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.071.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(ii) The upper 90 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.1, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.059.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to urinals; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The maximum water use in gallons per flush (gpf), rounded to the nearest 0.01 gallon, and for trough-type urinals, the maximum flow rate in gallons per minute (gpm), rounded to the nearest 0.01 gallon, and the length of the trough in inches (in).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24771, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 62986, Oct. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.32" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.32   Ceiling fans.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.32:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.32 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented value, which includes the certified rating, for each basic model of ceiling fan by testing, in conjunction with the following sampling provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to ceiling fans; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of ceiling fan, a sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of the efficiency or airflow is less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25jy16.001.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 90 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.9, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25jy16.002.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.90</E> is the t statistic for a 90% one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to subpart B); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the wattage is greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25jy16.003.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.1, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.003.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to this subpart); and
</P>
<P>(3) For each basic model of ceiling fan,
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of blade span, as defined in section 1.4 of appendix U to subpart B of part 430, is the mean of the blade spans measured for the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, rounded to the nearest inch;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of blade revolutions per minute (RPM) is the mean of the blade RPM measurements measured for the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, rounded to the nearest RPM;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any represented value of blade edge thickness is the mean of the blade edge thicknesses measured for the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, rounded to the nearest 0.01 inch;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any represented value of the distance between the ceiling and the lowest point on the fan blades is the mean of the distances measured for the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, rounded to the nearest quarter of an inch;
</P>
<P>(v) Any represented value of tip speed is pi multiplied by represented value of blade span divided by twelve multiplied by the represented value of RPM, rounded to the nearest foot per minute; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any represented value of airflow (CFM) at high speed, including the value used to determine whether a ceiling fan is a highly-decorative ceiling fan as defined in section 1.10 of appendix U to subpart B of part 430, is determined pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) and rounded to the nearest CFM.
</P>
<P>(4) To determine representative values of airflow, energy use, and estimated yearly energy cost of an LSSD or VSD ceiling fan basic model, use the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(i) Airflow. Determine the represented value for airflow by calculating the weighted-average airflow of an LSSD or VSD ceiling fan basic model at low and high fan speed as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.004.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CFM<E T="52">ave</E> = represented value of ceiling fan airflow, rounded to the nearest CFM.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CFM<E T="52">Low</E> = represented value of measured airflow, in cubic feet per minute, at low fan speed, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CFM<E T="52">High</E> = represented value of measured airflow, in cubic feet per minute, at high fan speed, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.0 = average daily operating hours at low fan speed, pursuant to Table 3 in appendix U to subpart B of part 430.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.4 = average daily operating hours at high fan speed, pursuant to Table 3 in appendix U to subpart B of part 430.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>6.4 = total average daily operating hours.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Energy Use. Determine represented value for energy use by calculating the weighted-average power consumption of an LSSD or VSD ceiling fan basic model at low and high fan speed as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.005.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">ave</E> = represented value power consumption, rounded to the nearest watt,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">Low</E> = represented value of measured power consumption, in watts, at low fan speed, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">High</E> = represented value of measured power consumption, in watts, at high fan speed, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">Sb</E> = represented value of measured power consumption, in watts, in standby mode, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.0 = average daily operating hours at low fan speed, pursuant to Table 3 in appendix U to subpart B of part 430.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.4 = average daily operating hours at high fan speed, pursuant to Table 3 in appendix U to subpart B of part 430.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>17.6 = average daily standby mode hours, pursuant to Table 3 in appendix U to subpart B of part 430.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>6.4 = total average daily operating hours.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Estimated Yearly Energy Cost. Determine the represented value for estimated yearly energy cost of an LSSD or VSD ceiling fan basic model at low and high fan speed as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.006.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EYEC = represented value for estimated yearly energy cost, rounded to the nearest dollar,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">Low</E> = represented value of measured power consumption, in watts, at low fan speed, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">High</E> = represented value of measured power consumption, in watts, at high fan speed, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">Sb</E> = represented value of measured power consumption, in watts, in standby mode, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">KWH</E> = representative average unit cost of electrical energy in dollars per kilowatt-hour pursuant to 16 CFR part 305.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.0 = average daily operating hours at low fan speed, pursuant to Table 3 in appendix U to subpart B of part 430
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.4 = average daily operating hours at high fan speed, pursuant to Table 3 in appendix U to subpart B of part 430.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>17.6 = average daily standby mode hours, pursuant to Table 3 in appendix U to subpart B of part 430.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>365 = number of days per year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1000 = conversion factor from watts to kilowatts.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to ceiling fans; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For all ceiling fans: Blade span (in), and the number of speed control settings.
</P>
<P>(ii) For small-diameter ceiling fans: A declaration of whether the ceiling fan is a multi-head ceiling fan, and the ceiling fan efficiency (CFM/W).
</P>
<P>(iii) For large-diameter ceiling fans: Ceiling fan energy index (CFEI) for high speed, and 40 percent speed or the nearest speed that is not less than 40 percent speed.
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following additional product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For all ceiling fans: A declaration that the manufacturer has incorporated the applicable design requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) For small-diameter ceiling fans: Standby power, blade edge thickness (in), airflow (CFM) at high speed, and blade revolutions per minute (RPM) at high speed.
</P>
<P>(iii) For low-speed small-diameter ceiling fans: The distance (in) between the ceiling and the lowest point on the fan blades (in both hugger and standard configurations for multi-mount fans).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding requirements.</I> Any represented value of ceiling fan efficiency, as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, must be expressed in cubic feet per minute per watt (CFM/W) and rounded to the nearest whole number. Any represented value of ceiling fan energy index, as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, must be expressed in CFEI and rounded to the nearest hundredth.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 48639, July 25, 2016; 87 FR 43978, July 22, 2022; 87 FR 50422, Aug. 16, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.33" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.33   Ceiling fan light kits.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.33:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.33 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine represented values, which includes certified ratings, for each basic model of ceiling fan light kit in accordance with following sampling provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to ceiling fan light kits, and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of ceiling fan light kit, the following sample size requirements are applicable to demonstrate compliance with the January 1, 2007 energy conservation standards:
</P>
<P>(i) For ceiling fan light kits with medium screw base sockets that are packaged with compact fluorescent lamps, determine the represented values of each basic model of lamp packaged with the ceiling fan light kit in accordance with § 429.35.
</P>
<P>(ii) For ceiling fan light kits with medium screw base sockets that are packaged with integrated light-emitting diode lamps, determine the represented values of each basic model of lamp packaged with the ceiling fan light kit in accordance with § 429.56.
</P>
<P>(iii) For ceiling fan light kits with pin-based sockets that are packaged with fluorescent lamps, determine the represented values of each basic model of lamp packaged with the ceiling fan light kit in accordance with the sampling requirements in § 429.35.
</P>
<P>(iv) For ceiling fan light kits with medium screw base sockets that are packaged with incandescent lamps, determine the represented values of each basic model of lamp packaged with the ceiling fan light kit in accordance with § 429.40, § 429.55 or § 429.66, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) For ceiling fan light kits with sockets or packaged with lamps other than those described in paragraphs (a)(2)(i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section, each unit must comply with the applicable design standard in § 430.32(s)(5) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) For ceiling fan light kits that require compliance with the January 21, 2020 energy conservation standards:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the represented values of each basic model of lamp packaged with each basic model of ceiling fan light kit, in accordance with the specified section:
</P>
<P>(A) For compact fluorescent lamps, § 429.35;
</P>
<P>(B) For general service fluorescent lamps, § 429.27;
</P>
<P>(C) For incandescent lamps, § 429.40, § 429.55 or § 429.66, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) For integrated LED lamps, § 429.56.
</P>
<P>(E) For other fluorescent lamps (not compact fluorescent lamps or general service fluorescent lamps), § 429.35; and
</P>
<P>(F) For consumer-replaceable SSL (not integrated LED lamps) and other SSL lamps that have an ANSI standard base and are not integrated LED lamps, § 429.56.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine the represented value of each basic model of non-consumer-replaceable SSL that is incorporated into each basic model of ceiling fan light kit by randomly selecting a sample of sufficient size and testing to ensure that any represented value of the energy efficiency of the integrated SSL circuitry basic model is less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24de15.000.gif"/>
<P>and, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24de15.001.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to subpart B).




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to ceiling fan light kits; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For ceiling fan light kits manufactured prior to January 21, 2020:
</P>
<P>(A) For ceiling fan light kits with sockets for medium screw base lamps: The rated wattage in watts (W) and the system's efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W).
</P>
<P>(B) For ceiling fan light kits with pin-based sockets for fluorescent lamps: The rated wattage in watts (W), the system's efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W), and the length of the lamp in inches (in).
</P>
<P>(C) For ceiling fan light kits with any other socket type: The rated wattage in watts (W) and the number of individual sockets.
</P>
<P>(ii) For ceiling fan light kits manufactured on or after January 21, 2020:


</P>
<P>(A) For each basic model of lamp and/or each basic model of non-consumer-replaceable SSL packaged with the ceiling fan light kit, the brand, basic model number, test sample size, kind of lamp (<I>i.e.,</I> general service fluorescent lamp (GSFL); fluorescent lamp with a pin base that is not a GSFL; compact fluorescent lamp (CFL) with a medium screw base; CFL with a base that is not medium screw base [<I>e.g.,</I> candelabra base]; other fluorescent lamp [not GSFL or CFL]; general service incandescent lamp (GSIL); candelabra base incandescent lamp; intermediate base incandescent lamp; incandescent reflector lamp; other incandescent lamp [not GSIL, IRL, candelabra base or intermediate base incandescent lamp]; integrated LED lamp; non-consumer-replaceable SSL; consumer-replaceable SSL [not integrated LED lamps] and other SSL lamps that have an ANSI standard base and are not integrated LED lamps; other lamp not specified), lumen output in lumens (lm), and efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W).








</P>
<P>(B) For each lamp basic model identified in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section that is a compact fluorescent lamp with a medium screw base, the lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime in percent (%) (and whether the value is estimated), the lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours in percent (%), the lifetime in hours (h) (and whether the value is estimated), and the sample size for rapid cycle stress testing and results in number of units passed (and whether the value is estimated). Estimates of lifetime, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, and rapid cycle stress test surviving units may be reported until testing is complete. Manufacturers are required to maintain records of the development of all estimated values and any associated initial test data in accordance with § 429.71.
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following additional product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For ceiling fan light kits with any other socket type manufactured prior to January 21, 2020, a declaration that the basic model meets the applicable design requirement, and the features that have been incorporated into the ceiling fan light kit to meet the applicable design requirement (<I>e.g.,</I> circuit breaker, fuse, ballast).
</P>
<P>(ii) For ceiling fan light kits manufactured on or after January 21, 2020:
</P>
<P>(A) A declaration that the ceiling fan light kit is packaged with lamps sufficient to fill all of the lamp sockets;
</P>
<P>(B) For each basic model of lamp and/or each basic model of non-consumer-replaceable SSL packaged with the ceiling fan light kit, a declaration that, where applicable, the lamp basic model was tested by a laboratory accredited as required under § 430.25 of this chapter; and


</P>
<P>(C) For ceiling fan light kits with pin-based sockets for fluorescent lamps, a declaration that each ballast for such lamps is an electronic ballast.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding requirements.</I> (1) Any represented value of efficacy of ceiling fan light kits as described in paragraph (a) of this section must be expressed in lumens per watt and rounded to the nearest tenth of a lumen per watt.
</P>
<P>(2) Round lumen output to three significant digits.
</P>
<P>(3) Round lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours to the nearest tenth of a percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Round lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime to the nearest tenth of a percent.
</P>
<P>(5) Round lifetime to the nearest whole hour.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24772, May 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 80225, Dec. 24, 2015; 81 FR 632, Jan. 6, 2016; 81 FR 43425, July 1, 2016; 84 FR 8413, Mar. 8, 2019; 87 FR 43978, July 22, 2022; 87 FR 54330, Sept. 6, 2022; 87 FR 53638, Aug. 31, 2022; 88 FR 21072, Apr. 10, 2023; 89 FR 82062, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43379, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.34" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.34   Torchieres.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to torchieres; and
</P>
<P>(2) Reserved
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to torchieres; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following additional product-specific information: A declaration that the basic model meets the applicable design requirement and the features that have been incorporated into the torchiere to meet the applicable design requirement (<I>e.g.,</I> circuit breaker, fuse, ballast).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.35" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.35   Compact fluorescent lamps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of Represented Value.</I> Manufacturers must determine represented values, which include the certified ratings, for each basic model of compact fluorescent lamp by testing, in conjunction with the following sampling provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Units to be tested.</I> (i) The requirements of § 429.11(a) are applicable except that the sample must be comprised of production units; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) For each basic model of integrated compact fluorescent lamp, the minimum number of units tested shall be no less than 10 units when testing for the initial lumen output, input power, initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, lifetime, CCT, CRI, power factor, and standby mode power. If more than 10 units are tested as part of the sample, the total number of units must be a multiple of 2. The same sample of units must be used as the basis for representations for initial lumen output, input power, initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, lifetime, CCT, CRI, power factor, and standby mode power. No less than three units from the same sample of units must be used when testing for the start time. Exactly six unique units (<I>i.e.,</I> units that have not previously been tested under this paragraph (a)(1)(ii) but are representative of the same basic model tested under this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)) must be used for rapid cycle stress testing.
</P>
<P>(B) For each basic model of non-integrated compact fluorescent lamp, the minimum number of units tested shall be no less than 10 units when testing for the initial lumen output, input power, initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, lifetime, CCT, and CRI. If more than 10 units are tested as part of the sample, the total number of units must be a multiple of 2. The same sample of units must be used as the basis for representations for initial lumen output, input power, initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, lifetime, CCT, and CRI.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each basic model, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(A) Represented values of initial lumen output, initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, CRI, power factor, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values must be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29au16.014.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><E T="7503">x</E> is the sample mean,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> is the number of units in the sample, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>x</I><E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> unit;</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 97.5-percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29au16.015.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><E T="7503">x</E> is the sample mean of the characteristic value;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> is the number of units in the sample, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I>
<AC T="g"/><E T="52">0.975</E> is the t statistic for a 97.5% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Represented values of input power, standby mode power, start time or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values must be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29au16.016.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n
<AC T="g"/> is the number of units in the sample, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>x
<AC T="g"/><E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> unit;</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 97.5-percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29au16.017.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean of the characteristic value;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>s
<AC T="g"/> is the sample standard deviation;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n
<AC T="g"/> is the number of units in the sample, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t
<AC T="g"/><E T="52">0.975</E> is the t statistic for a 97.5% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) The represented value of CCT must be equal to the mean of the sample,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29au16.018.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n
<AC T="g"/> is the number of units in the sample, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>x
<AC T="g"/><E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> unit.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(D) The represented value of lifetime must be equal to or less than the median time to failure of the sample (calculated as the arithmetic mean of the time to failure of the two middle sample units when the numbers are sorted in value order).
</P>
<P>(E) The represented value of the results of rapid cycle stress testing must be
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Expressed in the number of surviving units and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Based on a lifetime value that is equal to or greater than the represented value of lifetime.
</P>
<P>(2) The represented value of life (in years) of a compact fluorescent lamp must be calculated by dividing the represented lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp as determined in (a)(1) of this section by the estimated annual operating hours as specified in 16 CFR 305.15(b)(3)(iii).
</P>
<P>(3) The represented value of the estimated annual energy cost for a compact fluorescent lamp, expressed in dollars per year, must be the product of the input power in kilowatts, an electricity cost rate as specified in 16 CFR 305.15(b)(1)(ii), and an estimated average annual use as specified in 16 CFR 305.15(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(4) For compliance with standards specified in § 430.32(u) as it appeared in 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2016, initial lamp efficacy may include a 3 percent tolerance added to the value determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The represented value of lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime must be based on a lifetime value that is equal to or greater than the represented value of lifetime.
</P>
<P>(6) Estimated values may be used for representations when initially testing a new basic model or when new/additional testing is required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to compact fluorescent lamps; and
</P>
<P>(2) Values reported in certification reports are represented values. Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For each basic model of medium base CFL when certifying compliance to the standards in § 430.32(u) as it appeared in 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2016, the testing laboratory's ILAC accreditation body's identification number or other approved identification assigned by the ILAC accreditation body, the date of first manufacture, the seasoning time in hours (h), the initial lumen output in lumens (lm), the input power in watts (W), the initial lamp efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W), the number of sample units replaced during the seasoning period within each unique sample set used in determining the represented value, the lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime in percent (%) (and whether value is estimated), the lifetime in hours (h) (and whether value is estimated), life in years (and whether value is estimated), the lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours in percent (%), and the results of rapid cycle stress testing in number of units passed. or the initial certification of new basic models or any subsequent certification based on new testing, estimates of lifetime, life, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, and rapid cycle stress test surviving units may be reported (if indicated in the certification report) until testing is complete. When reporting estimated values, the certification report must specifically describe the prediction method, which must be generally representative of the methods specified in appendix W. Manufacturers are required to maintain records in accordance with § 429.71 of the development of all estimated values and any associated initial test data.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model of integrated CFL when certifying compliance with general service lamp energy conservation standards, the testing laboratory's ILAC accreditation body's identification number or other identification assigned by the ILAC accreditation body, the date of first manufacture, a statement that the compact fluorescent lamp is integrated, the seasoning time in hours (h), the initial lumen output in lumens (lm), the input power in watts (W), the initial lamp efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W), the CCT in kelvin (K), CRI, the lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours in percent (%), the lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime in percent (%) (and whether value is estimated), start time in milliseconds, power factor, standby mode energy consumption in watts (W), the results of rapid cycle stress testing in number of units passed, the lifetime in hours (h) (and whether value is estimated), life in years (and whether value is estimated), and the number of sample units replaced during the seasoning period within the sample set used in determining the represented value. Estimates of lifetime, life, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, and rapid cycle stress test surviving units may be reported (if indicated in the certification report) until testing is complete. When reporting estimated values, the certification report must specifically describe the prediction method, which must be generally representative of the methods specified in appendix W. Manufacturers are required to maintain records in accordance with § 429.71 of the development of all estimated values and any associated initial test data.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each basic model of non-integrated CFL when certifying compliance with general service lamp energy conservation standards, the testing laboratory's ILAC accreditation body's identification number or other identification assigned by the ILAC accreditation body, the date of first manufacture, a statement that the compact fluorescent lamp is non-integrated, the initial lumen output in lumens (lm), the input power in watts (W), the initial lamp efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W), the CCT in kelvin (K), CRI, the lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime in percent (%) (and whether value is estimated), the lifetime in hours (h) (and whether value is estimated), and the number of sample units replaced during the seasoning period within each unique sample set used in determining the represented value. Estimates of lifetime and lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime may be reported (if indicated in the certification report) until testing is complete. When reporting estimated values, the certification report must specifically describe the prediction method, which must be generally representative of the methods specified in appendix W. Manufacturers are required to maintain records in accordance with § 429.71 of the development of all estimated values and any associated initial test data.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding requirements.</I> For represented values,
</P>
<P>(1) Round input power to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<P>(2) Round lumen output to three significant digits.
</P>
<P>(3) Round initial lamp efficacy to the nearest tenth of a lumen per watt.
</P>
<P>(4) Round lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours to the nearest tenth of a percent.
</P>
<P>(5) Round lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime to the nearest tenth of a percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Round CRI to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<P>(7) Round power factor to the nearest hundredths place.
</P>
<P>(8) Round lifetime to the nearest whole hour.
</P>
<P>(9) Round CCT to the nearest 100 kelvin (K).
</P>
<P>(10) Round standby mode power to the nearest tenth of a watt; and
</P>
<P>(11) Round start time to the nearest whole millisecond.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 59415, Aug. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.36" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.36   Dehumidifiers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to dehumidifiers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of dehumidifier selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.079.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.063.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the energy factor, integrated energy factor, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.081.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.064.gif"/>
<P>(3) The capacity of a basic model is the mean of the measured capacities for each tested unit of the basic model. Round the mean capacity value to two decimal places.
</P>
<P>(4) For whole-home dehumidifiers, the case volume of a basic model is the mean of the measured case volumes for each tested unit of the basic model. Round the mean case volume value to one decimal place.
</P>
<P>(5) Round the value of energy factor or integrated energy factor for a basic model to two decimal places.
</P>
<P>(6) Dehumidifiers distributed in commerce by the manufacturer with the ability to operate as both a portable and whole-home dehumidifier by means of installation or removal of an optional ducting kit, must be rated and certified under both configurations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to dehumidifiers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information:


</P>
<P>(i) For dehumidifiers tested in accordance with appendix X: The energy factor in liters per kilowatt hour (liters/kWh) and capacity in pints per day.


</P>
<P>(ii) For dehumidifiers tested in accordance with appendix X1: The integrated energy factor in liters per kilowatt (liters/kWh), capacity in pints per day, and for whole-home dehumidifiers, case volume in cubic feet.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24773, May 2, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 65977, Oct. 31, 2012; 80 FR 45824, July 31, 2015; 81 FR 38395, June 13, 2016; 89 FR 82062, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43380, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.37" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.37   External power supplies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to external power supplies; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of external power supply selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of the estimated energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.083.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 97.5 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.065.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the estimated energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.085.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 97.5 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.066.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to external power supplies except that required information may be reported on the basis of a basic model or a design family. If certifying using a design family, for § 429.12(b)(6), report the individual manufacturer's model numbers covered by the design family.
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>External power supplies:</I> The average active mode efficiency as a percentage (%), no-load mode power consumption in watts (W), nameplate output power in watts (W), and, if missing from the nameplate, the output current in amperes (A) of the basic model or the output current in amperes (A) of the highest- and lowest-voltage models within the external power supply design family.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Switch-selectable single-voltage external power supplies:</I> The average active mode efficiency as a percentage (%) value, no-load mode power consumption in watts (W) using the lowest and highest selectable output voltages, nameplate output power in watts (W), and, if missing from the nameplate, the output current in amperes (A).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adaptive single-voltage external power supplies:</I> The average active-mode efficiency as a percentage (%) at the highest and lowest nameplate output voltages, no-load mode power consumption in watts (W), nameplate output power in watts (W) at the highest and lowest nameplate output voltages, and, if missing from the nameplate, the output current in amperes (A) at the highest and lowest nameplate output voltages.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>External power supplies that are exempt from no-load mode requirements under § 430.32(w)(5) of this chapter:</I> A statement that the product is designed to be connected to a security or life safety alarm or surveillance system component, the average active-mode efficiency as a percentage (%), the nameplate output power in watts (W), and, if missing from the nameplate, the certification report must also include the output current in amperes (A) of the basic model or the output current in amperes (A) of the highest- and lowest-voltage models within the external power supply design family.












</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24773, May 2, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 57899, Sept. 19, 2011; 80 FR 51440, Aug. 25, 2015; 81 FR 30163, May 16, 2016; 84 FR 442, Jan. 29, 2019; 89 FR 82062, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43380, Sept. 9, 2025; 91 FR 22710, Apr. 28, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.38" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.38   Non-class A external power supplies. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.39" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.39   Battery chargers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine represented values, which include certified ratings, for each basic model of battery charger in accordance with the following sampling provisions.


</P>
<P>(1) <I>Represented values</I> include: The unit energy consumption (UEC) in kilowatt-hours per year (kWh/yr), battery discharge energy (E<E T="52">batt</E>) in watt hours (Wh), 24-hour energy consumption (E<E T="52">24</E>) in watt hours (Wh), maintenance mode power (P<E T="52">m</E>) in watts (W), standby mode power (P<E T="52">sb</E>) in watts (W), off mode power (P<E T="52">off</E>) in watts (W), and duration of the charge and maintenance mode test (t<E T="52">cd</E>) in hours (hrs) for all battery chargers other than uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs); and average load adjusted efficiency (Eff<E T="52">avg</E>) for UPSs.






</P>
<P>(2) <I>Units to be tested.</I> (i) The general requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to all battery chargers; and


</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model of battery chargers other than UPSs, a sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that the represented value of UEC is greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.015.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>x</I><E T="52">i</E> is the UEC of the <I>i</I>th sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 97.5-percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.016.gif"/>
<FP>and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="52">0.975</E> is the t-statistic for a 97.5-percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).
</FP>
<P>(iii) For each basic model of battery chargers other than UPSs, using the sample from paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, calculate the represented values of each metric (<I>i.e.,</I> maintenance mode power (P<E T="52">m</E>), standby power (P<E T="52">sb</E>), off mode power (P<E T="52">off</E>), battery discharge energy (E<E T="52">batt</E>), 24-hour energy consumption (E<E T="52">24</E>), and duration of the charge and maintenance mode test (t<E T="52">cd</E>)), where the represented value of the metric is:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.017.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean, <I>n</I> is the number of samples, and <I>x</I><E T="52">i</E> is the measured value of the <I>i</I>th sample for the metric.
</FP>
<P>(iv) For each basic model of UPSs, the represented value of Eff<E T="52">avg</E> must be calculated using one of the following two methods:
</P>
<P>(A) A sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that the represented value of Eff<E T="52">avg</E> is less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.018.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>x</I><E T="52">i</E> is the Eff<E T="52">avg</E> of the <I>i</I>th sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 97.5-percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.019.gif"/>
<FP>and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="52">0.975</E> is the t-statistic for a 97.5-percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).
</FP>
<P>(B) The represented value of Eff<E T="52">avg</E> is equal to the Eff<E T="52">avg</E> of the single unit tested.








</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to all battery chargers.






</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following product-specific information for all battery chargers other than UPSs: The nameplate battery voltage of the test battery in volts (V), the nameplate battery charge capacity of the test battery in ampere-hours (Ah), and the nameplate battery energy capacity of the test battery in watt-hours (Wh). A certification report must also include the represented values, as determined in paragraph (a) of this section for the maintenance mode power (P<E T="52">m</E>), standby mode power (P<E T="52">sb</E>), off mode power (P<E T="52">off</E>), battery discharge energy (E<E T="52">batt</E>), 24-hour energy consumption (E<E T="52">24</E>), duration of the charge and maintenance mode test (t<E T="52">cd</E>), and unit energy consumption (UEC).


</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following product-specific information for all battery chargers other than UPSs: The manufacturer and model of the test battery, and the manufacturer and model, when applicable, of the external power supply.


</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following product-specific information for all UPSs: Supported input dependency mode(s); active power in watts (W); apparent power in volt-amperes (VA); rated input and output voltages in volts (V); efficiencies at 25 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent and 100 percent of the reference test load; and average load adjusted efficiency of the lowest and highest input dependency modes.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 89821, Dec. 12, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 82063, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43380, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.40" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.40   Candelabra base incandescent lamps and intermediate base incandescent lamps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to candelabra base incandescent lamps; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of candelabra base incandescent lamp and intermediate base incandescent lamp, a minimum sample of 21 lamps shall be randomly selected and tested. Any represented value of lamp wattage of a basic model shall be based on the sample and shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.091.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(ii) The lower 97.5 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.069.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to candelabra base and intermediate base incandescent lamps; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Candelabra base incandescent lamp: The rated wattage in watts (W).
</P>
<P>(ii) Intermediate base incandescent lamp: The rated wattage in watts (W).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24774, May 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.41" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.41   Commercial warm air furnaces.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented value, which includes the certified rating, for each basic model of commercial warm air furnace either by testing, in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions, or by applying an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Units to be tested.</I> (i) If the represented value is determined through testing, the general requirements of § 429.11 are applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05my14.000.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; Or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05my14.001.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A to subpart B of part 429). And,
</FP>
<P>(B) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05my14.002.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; Or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05my14.003.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A to subpart B of part 429).
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, a represented value of efficiency or consumption for a basic model of commercial warm air furnace must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the output of the AEDM and less than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM and greater than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to commercial warm air furnaces; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public, equipment-specific information: The thermal efficiency in percent (%), and the maximum rated input capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following additional equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the basic model is engineered-to-order; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For any basic model rated with an AEDM, whether the manufacturer elects the witness test option for verification testing. (See § 429.70(c)(5)(iii) for options). However, the manufacturer may not select more than 10% of AEDM-rated basic models.
</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report may include supplemental testing instructions in PDF format. If necessary to run a valid test, the equipment-specific, supplemental information must include any additional testing and testing set up instructions (<I>e.g.,</I> specific operational or control codes or settings), which would be necessary to operate the basic model under the required conditions specified by the relevant test procedure. A manufacturer may also include with a certification report other supplementary items in PDF format (<I>e.g.,</I> manuals) for DOE consideration in performing testing under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 25500, May 5, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 151, Jan. 5, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.42" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.42   Commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented value, which includes the certified rating, for each basic model of commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer either by testing, in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions, or by applying an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Units to be tested.</I> (i) If the represented value for a given basic model is determined through testing, the general requirements of § 429.11 are applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.157.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.158.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A to subpart B of part 429); And,
</FP>
<P>(B) Any represented value of the energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.159.gif"/>
<FP>And, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.160.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A to subpart B of part 429).
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, a represented value of efficiency or consumption for a basic model of commercial refrigerator, freezer or refrigerator-freezer must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the output of the AEDM and less than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM and greater than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Represented value calculations.</I> The volume and total display area (TDA) of a basic model, as applicable, is the mean of the measured volumes and the mean of the measured TDAs, as applicable, for the tested units of the basic model, based on the same tests used to determine energy consumption.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Convertible equipment.</I> Each basic model of commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer that is capable of operating at integrated average temperatures that spans the operating temperature range of multiple equipment classes, either by adjusting a thermostat for a basic model or by the marketed, designed, or intended operation for a basic model with a remote condensing unit but without a thermostat, must determine the represented values, which includes the certified ratings, either by testing, in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions, or by applying an AEDM to comply with the requirements necessary to certify to each equipment class that the basic model is capable of operating within.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Customer order storage cabinets.</I> For customer order storage cabinets that have individual-secured compartments that are convertible between the ≥32 °F and &lt;32 °F operating temperatures, the customer order storage cabinets must determine the represented values, which includes the certified ratings, either by testing, in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions, or by applying an AEDM, with all convertible compartments operating either as medium temperature refrigerators or all convertible compartments as low-temperature freezers, or at the lowest application product temperature for each equipment class as specified in § 431.64 of this chapter, to comply with the requirements necessary to certify to each equipment class that the basic model is capable of operating within.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public, equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) The daily energy consumption in kilowatt hours per day (kWh/day);
</P>
<P>(ii) The rating temperature (e.g. lowest product application temperature, if applicable) in degrees Fahrenheit ( °F); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The chilled or frozen compartment volume in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>), the adjusted volume in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>), or the total display area (TDA) in feet squared (ft
<SU>2</SU>) (as appropriate for the equipment class).
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following additional, equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the basic model is engineered-to-order; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For any basic model rated with an AEDM, whether the manufacturer elects the witness test option for verification testing. (See § 429.70(c)(5)(iii) for options). However, the manufacturer may not select more than 10% of AEDM-rated basic models.
</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include supplemental information submitted in PDF format. The equipment-specific, supplemental information must include any additional testing and testing set up instructions (<I>e.g.,</I> charging instructions) for the basic model; identification of all special features that were included in rating the basic model; and all other information (<I>e.g.,</I> any specific settings or controls) necessary to operate the basic model under the required conditions specified by the relevant test procedure. A manufacturer may also include with a certification report other supplementary items in PDF format (<I>e.g.,</I> manuals) for DOE to consider when performing testing under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24775, May 2, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 38292, June 30, 2011; 78 FR 79593, Dec. 31, 2013; 79 FR 22307, Apr. 21, 2014; 79 FR 25501, May 5, 2014; 80 FR 151, Jan. 5, 2015; 88 FR 66221, Sept. 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.43" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.43   Commercial heating, ventilating, air conditioning (HVAC) equipment (excluding air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 British thermal units per hour and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with less than 65,000 British thermal units per hour cooling capacity).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Determination of represented values. Manufacturers must determine the represented values, which include the certified ratings, for each basic model of commercial HVAC equipment either by testing, in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions, or by applying an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Units to be tested.</I> (i) If the represented value is determined through testing, the general requirements of § 429.11 are applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model, or of a tested combination for variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps certified to standards in terms of IEER as provided at paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.161.gif"/>
<FP>And, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.162.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A to subpart B of part 429). And,
</FP>
<P>(B) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model, or of a tested combination for variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps certified to standards in terms of IEER as provided at paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.163.gif"/>
<FP>And, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.164.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A to subpart B of part 429).
</FP>
<P>(iii) For packaged terminal air conditioners and packaged terminal heat pumps, the represented value of cooling capacity shall be the average of the capacities measured for the sample selected as described in (a)(1)(ii) of this section, rounded to the nearest 100 Btu/h.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> (i) In lieu of testing, a represented value of efficiency or consumption for a basic model of commercial HVAC equipment must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the output of the AEDM and less than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM and greater than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Product-specific provisions for determination of represented values.</I> (i) Direct-expansion-dedicated outdoor air systems (DX-DOASes):
</P>
<P>(A) Individual model selection:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Representations for a basic model must be based on the least efficient individual model(s) distributed in commerce among all otherwise comparable model groups comprising the basic model, considering only individual models as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section. For the purpose of this paragraph (a)(3), an “otherwise comparable model group” means a group of individual models distributed in commerce within the basic model that do not differ in components that affect energy consumption as measured according to the applicable test procedure specified at 10 CFR 431.96 other than those listed in table 1 to paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section. An otherwise comparable model group may include individual models distributed in commerce with any combination of the components listed in table 1 (or none of the components listed in table 1). An otherwise comparable model group may consist of only one individual model.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a basic model that includes individual models distributed in commerce with components listed in table 1 to paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section, the requirements for determining representations apply only to the individual model(s) of a specific otherwise comparable model group distributed in commerce with the least number (which could be zero) of components listed in table 1 included in individual models of the group. Testing under this paragraph shall be consistent with any component-specific test provisions specified in section 2.2.2 of appendix B to subpart F of part 431.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)(A)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furnaces and Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furnaces and steam/hydronic heat coils used to provide primary or supplementary heating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ducted Condenser Fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A condenser fan/motor assembly designed for optional external ducting of condenser air that provides greater pressure rise and has a higher rated motor horsepower than the condenser fan provided as a standard component with the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sound Traps/Sound Attenuators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly of structures through which the supply air passes before leaving the equipment or through which the return air from the building passes immediately after entering the equipment, for which the sound insertion loss is at least 6 dB for the 125 Hz octave band frequency range.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VERS Preheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric resistance, hydronic, or steam heating coils used for preheating outdoor air entering a VERS.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) When certifying, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For ratings based on tested samples, the represented value of moisture removal capacity shall be between 95 and 100 percent of the mean of the moisture removal capacities measured for the units in the sample selected, as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, rounded to the nearest lb/hr multiple specified in table 2 to paragraph (a)(3)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For ratings based on an AEDM, the represented value of moisture removal capacity shall be the moisture removal capacity output simulated by the AEDM, as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, rounded to the nearest lb/hr multiple specified in table 2 to paragraph (a)(3)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">i</E>)(B)—Rounding Requirements for Rated Moisture Removal Capacity
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Moisture removal capacity (MRC), lb/hr
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rounding multiples,
<br/>lb/hr
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 &lt; MRC ≤ 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30 &lt; MRC ≤ 60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60 &lt; MRC ≤ 180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">180 &lt; MRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h).</I> When certifying to standards in terms of IEER, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Outdoor Unit Model Selection.</I> All representations for basic models of VRF multi-split systems must be based on the least-efficient outdoor unit model(s) distributed in commerce within the basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Indoor Unit Model Selection.</I> A manufacturer must determine represented values for basic models of VRF multi-split systems based on the following provisions regarding selection of indoor units:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The combination of indoor unit models shall be selected per the certified tested combination in the STI, subject to the provisions in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For each indoor unit model identified in the tested combination for which the model number certified in the STI does not fully specify the presence or absence of all components, a fully-specified indoor unit model shall be selected that meets the following qualifications:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Is distributed in commerce; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Has a model number consistent with the certified indoor unit model number (<I>i.e.,</I> shares all digits of the model number that are specified in the certified indoor unit model number); and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Among the group of all indoor models meeting the criteria from paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) and (<I>ii</I>) of this section, has the least number (which could be zero) of components listed in Table 2 to paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(B)(<E T="03">2</E>)—Specific Components for Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply and use outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mild or cold weather.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dehumidification Components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that reduced the moisture content of the supply air through moisture transfer with solid or liquid desiccants.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) <I>Represented Values for Different Indoor Unit Combinations.</I> (<I>1</I>) If a basic model includes only one type of indoor unit combination (<I>i.e.,</I> ducted, non-ducted, or SDHV), a manufacturer must determine the represented values for the basic model in accordance with the sampling plan set forth in § 429.11 and paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the represented values are determined through testing, or in accordance with the provisions for applying an AEDM set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and § 429.70. Indoor unit models must be selected in accordance with paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a basic model includes more than one type of indoor unit combination (<I>i.e.,</I> ducted, non-ducted, and/or SDHV):
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A manufacturer must determine separate represented values for each type of indoor unit combination. If the represented values are determined through testing, a manufacturer must test, at a minimum, a single tested combination that represents each type of indoor unit combination included in that basic model. A manufacturer may alternatively determine separate represented values through application of an AEDM as set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and § 429.70. Indoor unit models within the indoor unit combination must be selected in accordance with paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A manufacturer may also determine optional “mixed” representations by calculating the mean value across any two required representations described in the paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section (<I>i.e.,</I> a representation for “mixed ducted/non-ducted” would be determined by averaging the ducted representation and the non-ducted representation; a representation for “mixed ducted/SDHV” would be determined by averaging the ducted representation and the SDHV representation, and a representation for “mixed non-ducted/SDHV” would be determined by averaging the non-ducted representation and the SDHV representation).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Single package vertical units.</I> When certifying to standards in terms of IEER, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(A) For individual model selection:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Representations for a basic model must be based on the least efficient individual model(s) distributed in commerce among all otherwise comparable model groups comprising the basic model, except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section for individual models that include components listed in table 4 to this paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A). For the purpose of this paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>), “otherwise comparable model group” means a group of individual models distributed in commerce within the basic model that do not differ in components that affect energy consumption as measured according to the applicable test procedure specified at 10 CFR 431.96 other than those listed in table 4 to this paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A). An otherwise comparable model group may include individual models distributed in commerce with any combination of the components listed in table 4 (or none of the components listed in table 4). An otherwise comparable model group may consist of only one individual model.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a basic model that includes individual models distributed in commerce with components listed in table 4 to this paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A), the requirements for determining representations apply only to the individual model(s) of a specific otherwise comparable model group distributed in commerce with the least number (which could be zero) of components listed in table 4 included in individual models of the group. Testing under this paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) shall be consistent with any component-specific test provisions specified in section 4 of appendix G1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">iii</E>)(A)—Specific Components for Single Package Vertical Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desiccant Dehumidification Components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that reduces the moisture content of the supply air through moisture transfer with solid or liquid desiccants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mid or cold weather.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilation Energy Recovery System (VERS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that preconditions outdoor air entering the equipment through direct or indirect thermal and/or moisture exchange with the exhaust air, which is defined as the building air being exhausted to the outside from the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coils used to provide supplemental heating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Gas Reheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the Supply Air during cooling operation using high pressure refrigerant in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to Cooling Capacity provided by the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Powered Exhaust/Powered Return Air Fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A powered exhaust fan is a fan that transfers directly to the outside a portion of the building air that is returning to the unit, rather than allowing it to recirculate to the indoor coil and back to the building. A powered return fan is a fan that draws building air into the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sound Traps/Sound Attenuators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly of structures through which the supply air passes before leaving the equipment or through which the return air from the building passes immediately after entering the equipment for which the sound insertion loss is at least 6 dB for the 125 Hz octave band frequency range.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Gas Bypass</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A method to adjust the cooling delivered by the equipment in which some portion of the hot high-pressure refrigerant from the discharge of the compressor(s) is diverted from its normal flow to the outdoor coil and is instead allowed to enter the indoor coil to modulate the capacity of a refrigeration circuit or to prevent evaporator coil freezing.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) The represented value of cooling capacity must be between 95 percent and 100 percent of the mean of the capacities measured for the units in the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, or between 95 percent and 100 percent of the net sensible cooling capacity output simulated by the alternative energy-efficiency determination method (AEDM) as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Represented values must be based on performance (either through testing or by applying an AEDM) of individual models with components and features that are selected in accordance with section 4 of appendix G1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431.


</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Computer room air conditioners.</I> When certifying to standards in terms of net sensible coefficient of performance (NSenCOP), the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(A) For individual model selection:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Representations for a basic model must be based on the least-efficient individual model(s) distributed in commerce among all otherwise comparable model groups comprising the basic model, except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section for individual models that include components listed in table 5 to paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section. For the purpose of this paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>), <I>otherwise comparable model group</I> means a group of individual models distributed in commerce within the basic model that do not differ in components that affect energy consumption as measured according to the applicable test procedure specified at 10 CFR 431.96 other than those listed in table 5 to paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section. An otherwise comparable model group may include individual models distributed in commerce with any combination of the components listed in table 5 (or none of the components listed in table 5). An otherwise comparable model group may consist of only one individual model.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a basic model that includes individual models distributed in commerce, with components listed in table 5 to paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section, the requirements for determining representations apply only to the individual model(s) of a specific otherwise comparable model group distributed in commerce with the least number (which could be zero) of components listed in table 5 to paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) included in individual models of the group. Testing under this paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>) shall be consistent with any component-specific test provisions specified in section 4 of appendix E1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph <E T="01">(a)(3)(iv)(A)</E>—Specific Components for Computer Room Air Conditioners
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply and use outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mild or cold weather.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Process Heat Recovery/Reclaim Coils/Thermal Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located inside the unit that conditions the equipment's supply air using energy transferred from an external source using a vapor, gas, or liquid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Evaporative Pre-cooling of Air-cooled Condenser Intake Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water is evaporated into the air entering the air-cooled condenser to lower the dry-bulb temperature and thereby increase efficiency of the refrigeration cycle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coils used to provide supplemental heat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerant Reheat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the supply air during cooling operation using high pressure refrigerant in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to cooling capacity provided by the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Powered Exhaust/Powered Return Air Fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A powered exhaust fan is a fan that transfers directly to the outside a portion of the building air that is returning to the unit, rather than allowing it to recirculate to the indoor coil and back to the building. A powered return air fan is a fan that draws building air into the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Compressor Variable Frequency Drive (VFD)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A device connected electrically between the equipment's power supply connection and the compressor that can vary the frequency of power supplied to the compressor in order to allow variation of the compressor's rotational speed. If the manufacturer chooses to make representations for performance at part-load and/or low-ambient conditions, compressor VFDs must be treated consistently for all cooling capacity tests for the basic model (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> if the compressor VFD is installed and active for the part-load and/or low-ambient tests, it must also be installed and active for the NSenCOP test).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-Standard Indoor Fan Motors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The standard indoor fan motor is the motor specified in the manufacturer's installation instructions for testing and shall be distributed in commerce as part of a particular model. A non-standard motor is an indoor fan motor that is not the standard indoor fan motor and that is distributed in commerce as part of an individual model within the same basic model.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For a non-standard indoor fan motor(s) to be considered a specific component for a basic model (and thus subject to the provisions of paragraph (a)(3)(iv)(A) of this section), the following provisions must be met:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Non-standard indoor fan motor(s) must meet the minimum allowable efficiency determined per section D.2.1 of AHRI 1360-2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4) (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> for non-standard indoor fan motors) or per section D.2.2 of AHRI 1360-2022 for non-standard indoor integrated fan and motor combinations).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the standard indoor fan motor can vary fan speed through control system adjustment of motor speed, all non-standard indoor fan motors must also allow speed control (including with the use of VFD).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Humidifiers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A device placed in the supply air stream for moisture evaporation and distribution. The device may require building steam or water, hot water, electricity, or gas to operate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flooded Condenser Head Pressure Controls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly, including a receiver and head pressure control valve, used to allow for unit operation at lower outdoor ambient temperatures than the standard operating control system.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chilled Water Dual Cooling Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A secondary chilled water coil added in the indoor air stream for use as the primary or secondary cooling circuit in conjunction with a separate chiller.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condensate Pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A device used to pump condensate and/or humidifier drain water from inside the unit to a customer drain outside the unit.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) The represented value of net sensible cooling capacity must be between 95 percent and 100 percent of the mean of the capacities measured for the units in the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, or between 95 percent and 100 percent of the net sensible cooling capacity output simulated by the AEDM as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) Water-Source Heat Pumps. When certifying to standards in terms of IEER and ACOP, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(A) Individual model selection:
</P>
<P><I>(1)</I> Representations for a basic model must be based on the least efficient individual model(s) distributed in commerce among all otherwise comparable model groups comprising the basic model, except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section for individual models that include components listed in table 6 to paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A) of this section. For the purpose of this paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>), “otherwise comparable model group” means a group of individual models distributed in commerce within the basic model that do not differ in components that affect energy consumption as measured according to the applicable test procedure specified at 10 CFR 431.96 other than those listed in table 6 to paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A) of this section. An otherwise comparable model group may include individual models distributed in commerce with any combination of the components listed in table 6 (or none of the components listed in table 6) to paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A) of this section. An otherwise comparable model group may consist of only one individual model.
</P>
<P><I>(2)</I> For a basic model that includes individual models distributed in commerce with components listed in table 6 to paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A) of this section, the requirements for determining representations apply only to the individual model(s) of a specific otherwise comparable model group distributed in commerce with the least number (which could be zero) of components listed in table 6 to paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A) of this section included in individual models of the group. Testing under this paragraph shall be consistent with any component-specific test provisions specified in section 3 of appendix C1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph <E T="01">(a)(3)(v)(A)</E>—Specific Components for Water Source Heat Pumps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mild or cold weather.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condenser Pumps/Valves/Fittings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Additional components in the water circuit for water control or filtering.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condenser Water Reheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the supply air during cooling operation using water from the condenser coil in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to cooling capacity provided by the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desiccant Dehumidification Components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that reduces the moisture content of the supply air through moisture transfer with solid or liquid desiccants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desuperheater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the compressor on the high-pressure vapor line that moves heat to an external source, such as potable water.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grill Options</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Special grills used to direct airflow in unique applications (such as up and away from a rear wall).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indirect/Direct Evaporative Cooling of Ventilation Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water is used indirectly or directly to cool ventilation air. In a direct system the water is introduced directly into the ventilation air and in an indirect system the water is evaporated in secondary air stream and the heat is removed through a heat exchanger.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-Standard High-Static Indoor Fan Motors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The standard indoor fan motor is the motor specified in the manufacturer's installation instructions for testing and shall be distributed in commerce as part of a particular model. A non-standard high-static motor is an indoor fan motor that is not the standard indoor fan motor and that is distributed in commerce as part of an individual model within the same basic model.


<br/>For a non-standard high-static indoor fan motor(s) to be considered a specific component for a basic model (and thus subject to the provisions of paragraph (a)(3)(v)(A)(<E T="03">2</E>) of this section), the following 2 provisions must be met:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Non-standard high-static indoor fan motor(s) must meet the minimum allowable efficiency determined per section D.4.1 of AHRI 600-2023 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4) for non-standard high-static indoor fan motors, or per section D.4.2 of AHRI 600-2023 for non-standard high-static indoor integrated fan and motor combinations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. If the standard indoor fan motor can vary fan speed through control system adjustment of motor speed, all non-standard high-static indoor fan motors must also allow speed control (including with the use of a variable-frequency drive).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Powered Exhaust/Powered Return Air Fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A powered exhaust fan is a fan that transfers directly to the outside a portion of the building air that is returning to the unit, rather than allowing it to recirculate to the indoor coil and back to the building. A powered return fan is a fan that draws building air into the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Process Heat Recovery/Reclaim Coils/Thermal Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located inside the unit that conditions the equipment's supply air using energy transferred from an external source using a vapor, gas, or liquid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerant Reheat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the supply air during cooling operation using high-pressure refrigerant in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to cooling capacity provided by the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sound Traps/Sound Attenuators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly of structures through which the supply air passes before leaving the equipment or through which the return air from the building passes immediately after entering the equipment for which the sound insertion loss is at least 6 dB for the 125 Hz octave band frequency range.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coils used to provide supplemental heating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilation Energy Recovery System (VERS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that preconditions outdoor air entering the equipment through direct or indirect thermal and/or moisture exchange with the exhaust air, which is defined as the building air being exhausted to the outside from the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterside Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located upstream of the indoor coil that conditions the supply air when system water loop conditions are favorable so as not to utilize compressor operation.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) The represented value of cooling capacity must be between 95 percent and 100 percent of the mean of the cooling capacities measured for the units in the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, or between 95 percent and 100 percent of the cooling capacity output simulated by the AEDM as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h).</I> Before May 15, 2025, the provisions in 10 CFR 429.43, revised as of January 1, 2024, are applicable. On and after May 15, 2025, when certifying to energy conservation standards in terms of EER or IEER and (as applicable) COP, the provisions in paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(B) of this section apply. When certifying to energy conservation standards in terms of IVEC and (as applicable) IVHE, all provisions in this paragraph (a)(3)(vi) apply.
</P>
<P>(A) For individual model selection when certifying to energy conservation standards in terms of IVEC and (as applicable) IVHE:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Representations for a basic model must be based on the least-efficient individual model(s) distributed in commerce among all otherwise comparable model groups comprising the basic model, with selection of the least-efficient individual model considering all options for factory-installed components and manufacturer-supplied components for field installation, except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section for individual models that include components listed in table 7 to paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(A) of this section. For the purpose of this paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(A)(<I>1</I>), “otherwise comparable model group” means a group of individual models distributed in commerce within the basic model that do not differ in components that affect energy consumption as measured according to the applicable test procedure specified at 10 CFR 431.96 other than those listed in table 7 to paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(A) of this section. An otherwise comparable model group may include individual models distributed in commerce with any combination of the components listed in table 7 (or none of the components listed in table 7). An otherwise comparable model group may consist of only one individual model.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a basic model that includes individual models distributed in commerce with components listed in table 7 to paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(A) of this section, the requirements for determining representations apply only to the individual model(s) of a specific otherwise comparable model group distributed in commerce with the least number (which could be zero) of components listed in table 7 to paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(A) included in individual models of the group. Testing under this paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(A)(<I>2</I>) shall be consistent with any component-specific test provisions specified in section 6 of appendix A1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)(<E T="01">vi</E>)(A)—Specific Components for Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mild or cold weather.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desiccant Dehumidification Components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that reduces the moisture content of the supply air through moisture transfer with solid or liquid desiccants.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Evaporative Pre-cooling of Air-cooled Condenser Intake Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water is evaporated into the air entering the air-cooled condenser to lower the dry-bulb temperature and thereby increase efficiency of the refrigeration cycle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indirect/Direct Evaporative Cooling of Ventilation Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water is used indirectly or directly to cool ventilation air. In a direct system, the water is introduced directly into the ventilation air, and in an indirect system, the water is evaporated in secondary air stream, and the heat is removed through a heat exchanger.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-Standard Ducted Condenser Fans (not applicable to Double-duct Systems)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A higher-static condenser fan/motor assembly designed for external ducting of condenser air that provides greater pressure rise and has a higher rated motor horsepower than the condenser fan provided as a standard component with the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-Standard High-Static Indoor Fan Motors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The standard indoor fan motor is the motor specified in the manufacturer's installation instructions for testing and shall be distributed in commerce as part of a particular model. A non-standard motor is an indoor fan motor that is not the standard indoor fan motor and that is distributed in commerce as part of an individual model within the same basic model.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For a non-standard high-static indoor fan motor(s) to be considered a specific component for a basic model (and thus subject to the provisions of paragraph (a)(3)(vi)(A)(<E T="03">2</E>) of this section), the following provisions must be met:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Non-standard high-static indoor fan motor(s) must meet the minimum allowable efficiency determined per section D.3.1 of AHRI 1340-2023 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4) for non-standard high-static indoor fan motors or per section D.3.2 of AHRI 1340-2023 for non-standard high-static indoor integrated fan and motor combinations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) If the standard indoor fan motor can vary fan speed through control system adjustment of motor speed, all non-standard high-static indoor fan motors must also allow speed control (including with the use of variable-frequency drive).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Powered Exhaust/Powered Return Air Fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A powered exhaust fan is a fan that transfers directly to the outside a portion of the building air that is returning to the unit, rather than allowing it to recirculate to the indoor coil and back to the building. A powered return fan is a fan that draws building air into the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Process Heat recovery/Reclaim Coils/Thermal Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located inside the unit that conditions the equipment's supply air using energy transferred from an external source using a vapor, gas, or liquid.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerant Reheat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the supply air during cooling operation using high pressure refrigerant in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to cooling capacity provided by the equipment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sound Traps/Sound Attenuators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly of structures through which the supply air passes before leaving the equipment or through which the return air from the building passes immediately after entering the equipment for which the sound insertion loss is at least 6 dB for the 125 Hz octave band frequency range.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coils used to provide supplemental heating.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilation Energy Recovery System (VERS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that preconditions outdoor air entering the equipment through direct or indirect thermal and/or moisture exchange with the exhaust air, which is defined as the building air being exhausted to the outside from the equipment.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) The represented value of total cooling capacity must be between 95 percent and 100 percent of the mean of the total cooling capacities measured for the units in the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, or between 95 percent and 100 percent of the total cooling capacity output simulated by the AEDM as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Representations of IVEC and IVHE (including IVHE<E T="52">c</E>, as applicable) must be determined using a minimum part-load airflow that is no lower than the highest of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The minimum part-load airflow obtained using the as-shipped system control settings;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The minimum part-load airflow obtained using the default system control settings specified in the manufacturer installation instructions (as applicable); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The minimum airflow rate specified in section 5.18.2 of AHRI 1340-2023.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to commercial HVAC equipment; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Commercial package air-conditioning equipment (except commercial package air conditioning equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h):
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with an EER standard: the energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the type(s) of heating used by the basic model (<I>e.g.,</I> electric, gas, hydronic, none).
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with an IEER standard: the integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the type(s) of heating used by the basic model (<I>e.g.,</I> electric, gas, hydronic, none).
</P>
<P>(ii) Commercial package heating equipment (except commercial package heating equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h):
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with an EER standard: the energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the coefficient of performance (COP), the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the type(s) of heating used by the basic model (<I>e.g.,</I> electric, gas, hydronic, none).
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance an IEER standard: the integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the coefficient of performance (COP), the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the type(s) of heating used by the basic model (<I>e.g.,</I> electric, gas, hydronic, none).
</P>
<P>(iii) Packaged terminal air conditioners: The energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), the wall sleeve dimensions in inches (in), and the duration of the break-in period (hours).
</P>
<P>(iv) Packaged terminal heat pumps: The energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/W-h)), the coefficient of performance (COP), the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), the wall sleeve dimensions in inches (in), and the duration of the break-in period (hours).
</P>
<P>(v) Single package vertical air conditioners: The energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)) and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(vi) Single package vertical heat pumps: The energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the coefficient of performance (COP), and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).




</P>
<P>(vii) Variable refrigerant flow multi-split air-cooled air conditioners (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h):
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with an EER standard: The energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the type(s) of heating used by the basic model (e.g., electric, gas, hydronic, none).
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with an IEER standard, the following must be certified for each tested combination as required under paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section: The integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)); the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); whether the represented values are for a non-ducted, ducted, or SDHV tested combination, or for a mixed representation of any two of the tested combinations; and the outdoor unit(s) and indoor units identified in the tested combination. The following must be certified for each basic model: the type(s) of heating used (<I>i.e.,</I> electric, gas, hydronic, none); and the refrigerant used to determine the represented values.
</P>
<P>(viii) Variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h):
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with an EER standard: The energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the coefficient of performance (COP), rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the type(s) of heating used by the basic model (e.g., electric, gas, hydronic, none).
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with an IEER standard, the following must be certified for each tested combination as required under paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section: The integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh); the coefficient of performance (COP); the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); the rated heating capacity (Btu/h); whether the represented values are for a non-ducted, ducted, or SDHV tested combination, or for a mixed representation of any two of the tested combinations; and the outdoor unit(s) and indoor units identified in the tested combination. The following must be certified for each basic model: the type(s) of heating used (<I>i.e.,</I> electric, gas, hydronic, none); and the refrigerant used to determine the represented values.


</P>
<P>(ix) Computer room air-conditioners: The net sensible cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), the net cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), the configuration (upflow/downflow), economizer presence (yes or no), condenser medium (air, water, or glycol-cooled), sensible coefficient of performance (SCOP), and rated airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (SCFM).






</P>
<P>(x) Water source heat pumps (other than variable refrigerant flow): The energy efficiency ratio (EER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the coefficient of performance (COP), the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the type(s) of heating used by the basic model (e.g., electric, gas, hydronic, none).




</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following additional equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the basic model is engineered-to-order; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For any basic model rated with an AEDM, whether the manufacturer elects the witness test option for verification testing. (See § 429.70(c)(5)(iii) for options). However, the manufacturer may not select more than 10% of AEDM-rated basic models.


</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include supplemental information submitted in PDF format. The equipment-specific, supplemental information must include any additional testing and testing set up instructions (<I>e.g.,</I> charging instructions) for the basic model; identification of all special features that were included in rating the basic model; and all other information (<I>e.g.,</I> operational codes or component settings) necessary to operate the basic model under the required conditions specified by the relevant test procedure. A manufacturer may also include with a certification report other supplementary items in PDF format (<I>e.g.,</I> manuals) for DOE consideration in performing testing under subpart C of this part. The equipment-specific, supplemental information must include at least the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Commercial package air-conditioning equipment (except commercial package air conditioning equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h): rated indoor airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (SCFM) for each fan coil; water flow rate in gallons per minute (gpm) for water-cooled units only; rated external static pressure in inches of water; frequency or control set points for variable speed components (<I>e.g.,</I> compressors, VFDs); required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions, if applicable; and if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating. When certifying compliance with an IEER standard, rated indoor airflow in SCFM for each part-load point used in the IEER calculation and any special instructions required to obtain operation at each part-load point, such as frequency or control set points for variable speed components (<I>e.g.,</I> compressors, VFDs), dip switch/control settings for step or variable components, or any additional applicable testing instructions, are also required.
</P>
<P>(ii) Commercial package heating equipment (except commercial package heating equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h): The rated heating capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); rated indoor airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (SCFM) for each fan coil (in cooling mode); rated airflow in SCFM for each fan coil in heating mode if the unit is designed to operate with different airflow rates for cooling and heating mode; water flow rate in gallons per minute (gpm) for water cooled units only; rated external static pressure in inches of water; frequency or control set points for variable speed components (<I>e.g.,</I> compressors, VFDs); required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions, if applicable; and if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating. When certifying compliance with an IEER standard, rated indoor airflow in SCFM for each part-load point used in the IEER calculation and any special instructions required to obtain operation at each part-load point, such as frequency or control set points for variable speed components (<I>e.g.,</I> compressors, VFDs), dip switch/control settings for step or variable components, or any additional applicable testing instructions, are also required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Variable refrigerant flow multi-split air-cooled air conditioners (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h):
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with an EER standard: The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); outdoor unit(s) and indoor units identified in the tested combination; components needed for heat recovery, if applicable; rated airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (scfm) for each indoor unit; rated static pressure in inches of water; compressor frequency setpoints; required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model. Additionally, upon DOE request, the manufacturer must provide a layout of the system set-up for testing including charging instructions consistent with the installation manual.
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with an IEER standard (for requirements in this list pertaining to or affected by indoor units, the requirements must be certified for each tested combination as required under paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section): The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h) for each indoor and outdoor unit; identification of the indoor units to be thermally active for each IEER test point; the rated indoor airflow for the full-load cooling and all part-load cooling tests (for each indoor unit) in standard cubic feet per minute (scfm); the indoor airflow-control setting to be used in the full-load cooling test (for each indoor unit); system start-up or initialization procedures, including conditions and duration; compressor break-in period duration of 20 hours or less; the frequency of oil recovery cycles; operational settings for all critical parameters to be controlled at each of the four IEER cooling test conditions; all dip switch/control settings used for the full-load cooling test; identification of any system control device required for testing; a hierarchy of instructions for adjustment of critical parameters to reduce cooling capacity during IEER cooling tests (to be used if, using initial critical parameter settings, the measured cooling capacity is more than 3 percent above the target cooling capacity); any additional testing instructions if applicable; and if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating. Instructions for conducting a controls verification procedure (as described in Appendix C of AHRI 1230-2021, (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 429.4) at each of the four IEER cooling test conditions must also be provided, including: the required thermostat setpoints to ensure control for 80 °F dry-bulb temperature when accounting for setpoint bias, the starting indoor dry-bulb temperature, and the indoor dry-bulb temperature ramp rate (R2). Additionally, the manufacturer must provide a layout of the system set-up for testing (including a piping diagram, a power wiring diagram, a control wiring diagram, and identification of the location of the component(s) corresponding to each critical parameter to be controlled), set-up instructions for indoor units and outdoor units, and charging instructions consistent with the installation manual.
</P>
<P>(iv) Variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h):
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with an EER standard: The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); rated heating capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); outdoor unit(s) and indoor units identified in the tested combination; components needed for heat recovery, if applicable; rated airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (scfm) for each indoor unit; water flow rate in gallons per minute (gpm) for water-cooled units only; rated static pressure in inches of water; compressor frequency setpoints; required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model. Additionally, upon DOE request, the manufacturer must provide a layout of the system set-up for testing including charging instructions consistent with the installation manual.
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with an IEER standard (for requirements in this list pertaining to or affected by indoor units, the requirements must be certified for each tested combination as required under paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section): The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h) for each indoor and outdoor unit; the nominal heating capacity (Btu/h) for each indoor and outdoor unit; components needed for heat recovery, if applicable; identification of the indoor units to be thermally active for each IEER test point; the rated indoor airflow for the full-load cooling, full-load heating, and all part-load cooling tests (for each indoor unit) in standard cubic feet per minute (scfm); the indoor airflow-control setting to be used in the full-load cooling test (for each indoor unit); the airflow-control setting to be used in the full-load heating test (for each indoor unit); for water-cooled units—the rated water flow rate in gallons per minute (gpm); system start-up or initialization procedures, including conditions and duration; compressor break-in period duration of 20 hours or less; the frequency of oil-recovery cycles; operational settings for all critical parameters to be controlled at each of the four IEER cooling test conditions; operational settings for all critical parameters to be controlled for the heating test; all dip switch/control settings used for the full-load cooling and full-load heating tests; identification of any system control device required for testing; a hierarchy of instructions for adjustment of critical parameters to reduce cooling capacity during IEER cooling tests (to be used if, using initial critical parameter settings, the measured cooling capacity is more than 3 percent above the target cooling capacity); any additional testing instructions if applicable; and if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating. Instructions for conducting a controls verification procedure (as described in Appendix C of AHRI 1230-2021) at each of the four IEER cooling test conditions must also be provided, including the required thermostat setpoints to ensure control for 80 °F dry-bulb temperature when accounting for setpoint bias, the starting indoor dry-bulb temperature, and the indoor dry-bulb temperature ramp rate (R2). Additionally, the manufacturer must provide a layout of the system set-up for testing (including a piping diagram, a power wiring diagram, a control wiring diagram, and identification of the location of the component(s) corresponding to each critical parameter to be adjusted), set-up instructions for indoor units and outdoor units, and charging instructions consistent with the installation manual.
</P>
<P>(v) Water source heat pumps: The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); rated heating capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); rated airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (SCFM) for each indoor unit; water flow rate in gallons per minute (gpm); rated static pressure in inches of water; refrigerant charging instructions, (e.g., refrigerant charge, superheat and/or subcooling temperatures); frequency set points for variable speed components (e.g., compressors, VFDs), including the required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model.
</P>
<P>(vi) Single package vertical air-conditioners: Any additional testing instructions, if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model.




</P>
<P>(vii) Single package vertical heat pumps: Any additional testing instructions, if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model.
</P>
<P>(viii) Computer room air-conditioners: Any additional testing instructions, if applicable; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model.




</P>
<P>(ix) Package terminal air conditioners and package terminal heat pumps: Any additional testing instructions, if applicable.






</P>
<P>(5) For variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h), if a manufacturer has knowledge that any of its certified operational settings for critical parameters to be controlled during IEER tests (per paragraph (b)(4)(vii)(B) or (b)(4)(viii)(B) of this section) are invalid according to the results of a controls verification procedure conducted according to § 429.134(v)(3), then the manufacturer must re-rate and re-certify using valid operational settings for critical parameters for all affected basic models.




</P>
<P>(c) Alternative methods for determining efficiency or energy use for commercial HVAC equipment can be found in § 429.70 of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24775, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 79594, Dec. 31, 2013; 79 FR 25501, May 5, 2014; 80 FR 151, Jan. 5, 2015; 80 FR 37147, June 30, 2015; 80 FR 79668, Dec. 23, 2015; 87 FR 45195, July 27, 2022; 87 FR 63892, Oct. 20, 2022; 87 FR 65667, Nov. 1, 2022; 87 FR 75166, Dec. 7, 2022; 87 FR 77317, Dec. 16, 2022; 88 FR 21836, Apr. 11, 2023; 88 FR 84226, Dec.4, 2023; 89 FR 44033, May 20, 2024; 89 FR 82064, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43381, Sept. 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.44" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.44   Commercial water heating equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For residential-duty commercial water heaters, all represented values must be determined in accordance with § 429.17.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of represented values for all types of commercial water heaters except residential-duty commercial water heaters.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented values, which includes the certified ratings, for each basic model of commercial water heating equipment except residential-duty commercial water heaters, either by testing, in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions, or by applying an AEDM as set forth in § 429.70.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Units to be tested.</I> If the represented value for a given basic model is determined through testing:
</P>
<P>(i) The general requirements of § 429.11 apply; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values must be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.008.gif"/>
<P>And, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample; or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 95-percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.009.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95-percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to subpart B of this part). And,
</P>
<P>(B) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values must be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.010.gif"/>
<P>And, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample; or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95-percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.011.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95-percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to subpart B of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, a represented value of efficiency or consumption for a basic model must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values must be greater than or equal to the output of the AEDM and less than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values must be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM and greater than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rated input.</I> The rated input for a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section must be the maximum rated input listed on the nameplate for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification reports.</I> For commercial water heating equipment other than residential-duty commercial water heaters:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of § 429.12 apply; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commercial electric storage water heaters with storage capacity less than or equal to 140 gallons:</I> The standby loss in percent per hour (%/h) and the measured storage volume in gallons (gal).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Commercial gas-fired and oil-fired storage water heaters with storage capacity less than or equal to 140 gallons:</I> The thermal efficiency in percent (%), the standby loss in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), the rated storage volume in gallons (gal), and the rated input in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Commercial water heaters and hot water supply boilers with storage capacity greater than 140 gallons:</I> The thermal efficiency in percent (%); whether the storage volume is greater than 140 gallons (Yes/No); whether the tank surface area is insulated with at least R-12.5 (Yes/No); whether a standing pilot light is used (Yes/No); for gas or oil-fired water heaters, whether the basic model has a fire damper or fan-assisted combustion (Yes/No); and, if applicable, pursuant to § 431.110 of this chapter, the standby loss in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); the measured storage volume in gallons (gal); and the rated input in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Commercial gas-fired and oil-fired instantaneous water heaters with storage capacity greater than or equal to 10 gallons and gas-fired and oil-fired hot water supply boilers with storage capacity greater than or equal to 10 gallons:</I> The thermal efficiency in percent (%); the standby loss in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); the rated storage volume in gallons (gal); the rated input in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); whether the water heater includes a storage tank with a storage volume greater than or equal to 10 gallons (Yes/No). For equipment that does not meet the definition of storage-type instantaneous water heaters (as set forth in 10 CFR 431.102), in addition to the requirements discussed previously in this paragraph (c)(2)(iv), the following must also be included in the certification report: whether the measured storage volume is determined using weight-based test in accordance with § 431.106 of this chapter or the calculation-based method in accordance with § 429.72; whether the water heater will initiate main burner operation based on a temperature-controlled call for heating that is internal to the water heater (Yes/No); whether the water heater is equipped with an integral pump purge functionality (Yes/No); if the water heater is equipped with integral pump purge, the default duration of the pump off delay (minutes).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Commercial gas-fired and oil-fired instantaneous water heaters with storage capacity less than 10 gallons and gas-fired and oil-fired hot water supply boilers with storage capacity less than 10 gallons:</I> The thermal efficiency in percent (%); the rated storage volume in gallons (gal), the rated input in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); and whether the measured storage volume is determined using weight-based test in accordance with § 431.106 of this chapter or the calculation-based method in accordance with § 429.72.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Commercial unfired hot water storage tanks:</I> The thermal insulation (<I>i.e.,</I> R-value) and stored volume in gallons (gal).


</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following additional, equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the basic model is engineered-to-order; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For any basic model rated with an AEDM, whether the manufacturer elects the witness test option for verification testing. (See § 429.70(c)(5)(iii) for options.) However, the manufacturer may not select more than 10 percent of AEDM-rated basic models to be eligible for witness testing.
</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report may include supplemental testing instructions in PDF format. If necessary to run a valid test, the equipment-specific, supplemental information must include any additional testing and testing set-up instructions (e.g., whether a bypass loop was used for testing) for the basic model and all other information (e.g., operational codes or overrides for the control settings) necessary to operate the basic model under the required conditions specified by the relevant test procedure. A manufacturer may also include with a certification report other supplementary items in PDF format for DOE's consideration in performing testing under subpart C of this part. For example, for oil-fired commercial water heating equipment (other than residential-duty commercial water heaters): The allowable range for CO<E T="52">2</E> reading in percent (%) and the fuel pump pressure in pounds per square inch gauge (psig).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification reports for residential-duty commercial water heaters.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 apply; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report for equipment must include the following public, equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Residential-duty commercial gas-fired and oil-fired storage water heaters: The uniform energy factor (UEF, rounded to the nearest 0.01), the rated storage volume in gallons (gal, rounded to the nearest 1 gal), the first-hour rating in gallons (gal, rounded to the nearest 1 gal), and the recovery efficiency in percent (%, rounded to the nearest 1%).
</P>
<P>(ii) Residential-duty commercial electric instantaneous water heaters: The uniform energy factor (UEF, rounded to the nearest 0.01), the rated storage volume in gallons (gal, rounded to the nearest 1 gal), the maximum gallons per minute (gpm, rounded to the nearest 0.1 gpm), and the recovery efficiency in percent (%, rounded to the nearest 1%).
</P>
<P>(e) Alternative methods for determining efficiency or energy use for commercial water heating equipment can be found in § 429.70 of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24776, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 79594, Dec. 31, 2013; 79 FR 25504, May 5, 2014; 80 FR 151, Jan. 5, 2015; 79 FR 40565, July 11, 2014; 81 FR 79318, Nov. 10, 2016; 81 FR 96236, Dec. 29, 2016; 81 FR 96236, Dec. 29, 2016; 89 FR 82066, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43381, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.45" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.45   Automatic commercial ice makers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to automatic commercial ice makers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of automatic commercial ice maker selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of energy use, condenser water use, or other measure of consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:




</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01no22.001.gif"/>
<P>And, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i<E T="51">th</E> sample; or,


</P>
<P>(ii) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21ja25.084.gif"/>
<FP>And <E T="7503">x</E> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="54">0.95</E> is the Student's t-Distribution Values for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to this subpart).




</FP>
<P>(3) The harvest rate of a basic model is the mean of the measured harvest rates for each tested unit of the basic model, based on the same tests to determine energy use and condenser water use, if applicable. Round the mean harvest rate to the nearest pound of ice per 24 hours (lb/24 h) for harvest rates above 50 lb/24 h; round the mean harvest rate to the nearest 0.1 lb/24 h for harvest rates less than or equal to 50 lb/24 h.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to automatic commercial ice makers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The maximum energy use in kilowatt hours per 100 pounds of ice (kWh/100 lb ice), the maximum condenser water use in gallons per 100 pounds of ice (gal/100 lbs. ice), the harvest rate in pounds of ice per 24 hours (lbs. ice/24 hours), the type of cooling, and the equipment type.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24776, May 2, 2011, as amended at 87 FR 65899, Nov. 1, 2022; 89 FR 82067, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 6789, Jan. 21, 2025; 90 FR 43381, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.46" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.46   Commercial clothes washers.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.46:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.46 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to commercial clothes washers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of commercial clothes washers, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of the integrated water factor or other measure of energy or water consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.109.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.078.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the modified energy factor, active-mode energy efficiency ratio, water efficiency ratio, or other measure of energy or water consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.111.gif"/>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 97
<FR>1/2</FR> percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.079.gif"/>
<P>(3) The clothes container capacity of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the measured clothes container capacity (C) of all tested units of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(4) The corrected remaining moisture content (RMC) of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the final RMC value measured for all tested units of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to commercial clothes washers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) The modified energy factor (MEF<E T="52">J2</E>), in cubic feet per kilowatt-hour per cycle (cu ft/kWh/cycle);
</P>
<P>(ii) The integrated water factor (IWF), in gallons per cycle per cubic feet (gal/cycle/cu ft);
</P>
<P>(iii) The clothes container capacity, in cubic feet (cu ft);
</P>
<P>(iv) The type of loading (top-loading or front-loading); and
</P>
<P>(v) The corrected RMC (expressed as a percentage).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reported values.</I> Values reported pursuant to this section must be rounded as follows: Clothes container capacity to the nearest 0.1 cu ft, and corrected RMC to the nearest 0.1 percentage point.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24777, May 2, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 71630, Dec. 3, 2014; 87 FR 33379, June 1, 2022; 87 FR 43979, July 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.47" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.47   Distribution transformers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to distribution transformers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of distribution transformer, efficiency must be determined either by testing, in accordance with § 431.193 and the provisions of this section, or by application of an AEDM that meets the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) For each basic model selected for testing:
</P>
<P>(A) If the manufacturer produces five or fewer units of a basic model over 6 months, each unit must be tested. A manufacturer may not use a basic model with a sample size of fewer than five units to substantiate an AEDM pursuant to § 429.70.
</P>
<P>(B) If the manufacturer produces more than five units over 6 months, a sample of at least five units must be selected and tested.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of efficiency of a basic model must satisfy the condition:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.113.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to distribution transformers except that required information in paragraph (b) of this section may be reported by kVA grouping instead of by basic model and paragraph (b)(6) of this section does not apply; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: For the most and least efficient basic models within each “kVA grouping” for which part 431 prescribes an efficiency standard, the kVA rating, the insulation type (<I>i.e.,</I> low-voltage dry-type, medium-voltage dry-type or liquid-immersed), the number of phases (<I>i.e.,</I> single-phase or three-phase), and the basic impulse insulation level (BIL) group rating (for medium-voltage dry-types).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative methods for determining efficiency or energy use</I> for distribution transformers can be found in § 429.70 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Kilovolt ampere (kVA) grouping.</I> As used in this section, a “kVA grouping” is a group of basic models which all have the same kVA rating, have the same insulation type (<I>i.e.,</I> low-voltage dry-type, medium-voltage dry-type or liquid-immersed), have the same number of phases (<I>i.e.,</I> single-phase or three-phase), and, for medium-voltage dry-types, have the same BIL group rating (<I>i.e.,</I> 20-45 kV BIL, 46-95 kV BIL or greater than or equal to96 kV BIL).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.48" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.48   Illuminated exit signs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to illuminated exit signs; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of illuminated exit sign selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of input power demand or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.114.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.080.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.116.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.081.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to illuminated exit signs; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The input power demand in watts (W) and the number of faces.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24778, May 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.49" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.49   Traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of traffic signal module or pedestrian module selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of estimated maximum and nominal wattage or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.118.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.082.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.120.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.083.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The maximum wattage at 74 degrees Celsius (°C) in watts (W), the nominal wattage at 25 degrees Celsius (°C) in watts (W), and the signal type.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24778, May 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.50" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.50   Commercial unit heaters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to commercial unit heaters; and
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to commercial unit heaters; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The type of ignition system and a declaration that the manufacturer has incorporated the applicable design requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.51" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.51   Commercial pre-rinse spray valves.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 apply to commercial prerinse spray valves; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of commercial prerinse spray valve, a sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of flow rate must be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30de15.002.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>and, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n is the number of samples; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; Or,</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The upper 95-percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30de15.003.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>and, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>s is the sample standard deviation;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n is the number of samples; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95-percent two-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A of this subpart).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to commercial prerinse spray valves; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information: The flow rate, in gallons per minute (gpm), rounded to the nearest 0.01 gpm, and the corresponding spray force, in ounce-force (ozf), rounded to the nearest 0.1 ozf.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24779, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 62986, Oct. 23, 2013; 80 FR 81453, Dec. 30, 2015; 81 FR 4801, Jan. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.52" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.52   Refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.126.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.086.gif"/>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.128.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.087.gif"/>
<P>(3) The representative value of refrigerated volume of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the refrigerated volumes measured for each tested unit of the basic model and determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.296.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following additional public, equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) When using appendix A of subpart Q of part 431of this chapter, the daily energy consumption in kilowatt hours per day (kWh/day), the refrigerated volume (V) in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>), whether testing was conducted with payment mechanism in place and operational, and, if applicable, the lowest application product temperature in degrees Fahrenheit ( °F), if applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) When using appendix B of subpart Q of part 431of this chapter, the daily energy consumption in kilowatt hours per day (kWh/day), the refrigerated volume (V) in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>), whether testing was conducted with payment mechanism in place and operational, whether testing was conducted using an accessory low power mode, whether rating was based on the presence of a refrigeration low power mode, and, if applicable, the lowest application product temperature in degrees Fahrenheit ( °F).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24779, May 2, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 38292, June 30, 2011; 80 FR 45792, July 31, 2015; 81 FR 1112, Jan. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.53" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.53   Walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 apply to walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration system, the annual walk-in energy factor (AWEF) must be determined either by testing, in accordance with § 431.304 of this chapter and the provisions of this section, or by application of an AEDM that meets the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicable test procedure.</I> If AWEF or AWEF2 is determined by testing, test according to the applicable provisions of § 431.304(b) of this chapter with the following equipment-specific provisions.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Dedicated condensing units.</I> Outdoor dedicated condensing refrigeration systems that are also designated for use in indoor applications must be tested and rated as both an outdoor dedicated condensing refrigeration system and an indoor dedicated refrigeration system.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Matched refrigeration systems.</I> A matched refrigeration system is not required to be rated if the constituent unit cooler(s) and dedicated condensing unit have been tested as specified in § 431.304(b)(4) of this chapter. However, if a manufacturer wishes to represent the efficiency of the matched refrigeration system as distinct from the efficiency of either constituent component, or if the manufacturer cannot rate one or both of the constituent components using the specified method, the manufacturer must test and rate the matched refrigeration system as specified in § 431.304(b)(4) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Detachable single-packaged dedicated systems.</I> Detachable single-packaged dedicated systems must be tested and rated as a single-packaged dedicated systems using the test procedure in § 431.304(b)(4) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Attached split systems.</I> Attached split systems must be tested and rated as dedicated condensing units and unit coolers using the test procedure in § 431.304(b)(4) of this chapter.




</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Units to be tested.</I> (A) If the represented value for a given refrigeration system basic model is determined through testing, the general requirements of § 429.11 apply; and
</P>
<P>(B) For each basic model, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of AWEF or other measure of energy efficiency of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er28de16.000.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample, or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er28de16.001.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to subpart B).
</P>
<P>(C) The represented value of net capacity shall be the average of the capacities measured for the sample selected.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section, a represented value of AWEF for a basic model of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer refrigeration system may be determined through the application of an AEDM, where:
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of AWEF or other measure of energy efficiency of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM and greater than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) The represented value of net capacity must be the net capacity simulated by the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(3) For each basic model of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer display and non-display door, the daily energy consumption must be determined by testing, in accordance with § 431.304 of this chapter and the provisions of this section, or by application of an AEDM that meets the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicable test procedure.</I> Prior to October 31, 2023 use the test procedure for walk-ins in 10 CFR part 431, subpart R, appendix A, revised as of January 1, 2022, to determine daily energy consumption. Beginning October 31, 2023, use the test procedure in part 431, subpart R, appendix A of this chapter to determine daily energy consumption.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Units to be tested.</I> For each basic model, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of daily energy consumption of a basic model or other measure of energy use for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<HD1>Equation 3 to Paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(A)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.000.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean, <I>n</I> is the number of samples, and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I><E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample; or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<HD1>Equation 4 to Paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.001.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean, <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples, and t<E T="52">−0.95</E> is the statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to this subpart).








</P>
<P>(4) For each basic model of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer panel and non-display door, the R-value must be determined by testing, in accordance with § 431.304 of this chapter and the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Applicable test procedure.</I> Prior to October 31, 2023, use the test procedure for walk-ins in 10 CFR part 431, subpart R, appendix B, revised as of January 1, 2022, to determine R-value. Beginning October 31, 2023, use the test procedure in appendix B to subpart R of part 431 of this chapter to determine R-value.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Units to be tested.</I> For each basic model, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of R-value or other measure of efficiency of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<HD1>Equation 5 to Paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.002.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean, <I>n</I> is the number of samples, and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I><E T="52">i</E> is the i<E T="51">th</E> sample; or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<HD1>Equation 6 to Paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.003.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean, <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples, and t<E T="52">−0.95</E> is the statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degree of freedom (from appendix A to this subpart).






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 apply to manufacturers of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer panels, doors, and refrigeration systems, and;
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For doors: The door type, R-value of the door insulation, and a declaration that the manufacturer has incorporated the applicable design requirements. In addition, for those walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers with transparent reach-in doors and windows, the glass type of the doors and windows (<I>e.g.,</I> double-pane with heat reflective treatment, triple-pane glass with gas fill), and the power draw of the anti-sweat heater in watts per square foot of door opening must also be included.
</P>
<P>(ii) For walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer panels: The R-value of the insulation.
</P>
<P>(iii) For walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems: The installed motor's functional purpose (<I>i.e.,</I> evaporator fan motor or condenser fan motor), its rated horsepower, and a declaration that the manufacturer has incorporated the applicable walk-in-specific design requirements into the motor;
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), starting on June 5, 2017, a certification report must include the following public product-specific information in addition to the information listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer doors: The door energy consumption and rated surface area in square feet.
</P>
<P>(ii) For refrigeration systems that are medium-temperature dedicated condensing units, medium-temperature single-package dedicated systems, or medium-temperature matched systems: The refrigeration system AWEF, net capacity, the configuration tested for certification (<I>e.g.,</I> condensing unit only, unit cooler only, single-package dedicated system, or matched-pair), and if an indoor dedicated condensing unit is also certified as an outdoor dedicated condensing unit and, if so, the basic model number for the outdoor dedicated condensing unit.
</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), starting on June 5, 2017, a certification report must include the following product-specific information in addition to the information listed in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer doors: the rated power of each light, heater wire, and/or other electricity-consuming device associated with each basic model of display and non-display door; and whether such device(s) has a timer, control system, or other demand-based control reducing the device's power consumption.
</P>
<P>(5) When certifying compliance to the AWEF refrigeration standards for WICF refrigeration systems except those specified in (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a certification report must include the following public product-specific information in addition to the information listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section: For refrigeration systems that are low-temperature dedicated condensing units, low-temperature matched systems, low-temperature single-package dedicated systems, or medium and low-temperature unit coolers: The refrigeration system AWEF, net capacity, the configuration tested for certification (<I>e.g.,</I> condensing unit only, unit cooler only, single-package dedicated system, or matched-pair), and if an indoor dedicated condensing unit is also certified as an outdoor dedicated condensing unit and, if so, the basic model number for the outdoor dedicated condensing unit.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95799, Dec. 28, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 28835, May 4, 2023; 89 FR 82067, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43382, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.54" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.54   Metal halide lamp ballasts and fixtures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to metal halide lamp ballasts; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of metal halide lamp ballast selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size, not less than four, shall be selected at random and tested to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of estimated energy efficiency calculated as the measured output power to the lamp divided by the measured input power to the ballast (P<E T="52">out</E>/P<E T="52">in</E>), of a basic model is less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.130.gif"/>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(B) The lower 99-percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.99.

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02au11.090.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.99</E> is the t statistic for a 99% two-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to metal halide lamp ballasts; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The minimum ballast efficiency in percent (%), the lamp wattage in watts (W), and the type of ballast (<I>e.g.,</I> pulse-start, magnetic probe-start, and non-pulse start electronic).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24780, May 2, 2011; 76 FR 46202, Aug. 2, 2011]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.55" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.55   Incandescent reflector lamps.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.55:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.27 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of Represented Value.</I> Each manufacturer must determine represented values, which include the certified ratings, for each basic model, in accordance with the following sampling provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) Units to be tested.
</P>
<P>(i) When testing, use a sample comprised of production units. The same sample of units must be tested and used as the basis for representations for initial lumen output, rated wattage, lamp efficacy, color rendering index (CRI), correlated color temperature (CCT), and lifetime.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model, randomly select and test a sample of sufficient size, but not less than 10 units, to ensure that represented values of average lamp efficacy, CRI and initial lumen output are less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The arithmetic mean of the sample; or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by .97, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31au22.001.gif"/>
<P>(2) Any represented values of measures of energy efficiency or energy consumption for all individual models represented by a given basic model must be the same.
</P>
<P>(3) Represented values of CCT and rated wattage must be equal to the arithmetic mean of the sample.
</P>
<P>(4) Represented values of lifetime must be equal to or less than the median time to failure of the sample (calculated as the arithmetic mean of the time to failure of the two middle sample units (or the value of the middle sample unit if there are an odd number of units) when the measured values are sorted in value order).
</P>
<P>(5) Calculate represented values of life (in years) by dividing the represented lifetime of these lamps as determined in paragraph (a)(4) of this section by the estimated daily operating hours as specified in 16 CFR 305.23(b)(3)(iii) multiplied by 365.
</P>
<P>(6) Represented values of the estimated annual energy cost, expressed in dollars per year, must be the product of the rated wattage in kilowatts, an electricity cost rate as specified in 16 CFR 305.23(b)(1)(ii), and an estimated average daily use as specified in 16 CFR 305.23(b)(1)(ii) multiplied by 365.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 apply to incandescent reflector lamps; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The testing laboratory's ILAC accreditation body's identification number or other approved identification assigned by the ILAC accreditation body, average lamp efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W), rated wattage in watts (W), rated voltage (V), diameter in inches, and CRI.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding Requirements.</I> (1) Round rated wattage to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<P>(2) Round initial lumen output to three significant digits.
</P>
<P>(3) Round average lamp efficacy to the nearest tenth of a lumen per watt.
</P>
<P>(4) Round CCT to the nearest 100 kelvin (K).
</P>
<P>(5) Round CRI to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<P>(6) Round lifetime to the nearest whole hour.
</P>
<P>(7) Round life (in years) to the nearest tenth.
</P>
<P>(8) Round annual energy cost to the nearest cent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 53638, Aug. 31, 2022]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.56" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.56   Integrated light-emitting diode lamps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of Represented Value.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented value, which includes the certified rating, for each basic model of integrated light-emitting diode lamps by testing, in conjunction with the sampling provisions in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Units to be tested.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The general requirements of § 429.11 (a) are applicable except that the sample must be comprised of production units; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model of integrated light-emitting diode lamp, the minimum number of units tested must be no less than 10 and the same sample comprised of the same units must be used for testing all metrics. If more than 10 units are tested as part of the sample, the total number of units must be a multiple of two. For each basic model, a sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(A) Represented values of initial lumen output, lamp efficacy, color rendering index (CRI), power factor, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values are less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jy16.009.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of units; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the measured value for the i
<SU>th</SU> unit; Or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 99 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.96; or the lower 99 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.98 for CRI and power factor, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jy16.010.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.99</E> is the t statistic for a 99 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to this subpart).
</FP>
<P>(B) Represented values of input power, standby mode power or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values are greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jy16.011.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of units; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the measured value for the i
<SU>th</SU> unit;
</FP>
<FP>Or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 99 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.02, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jy16.012.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.99</E> is the t statistic for a 99 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to this subpart);
</FP>
<P>(C) Represented values of correlated color temperature (CCT) of a basic model must be equal to the mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jy16.013.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of units in the sample; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the measured CCT for the i
<SU>th</SU> unit.
</FP>
<P>(D) The represented value of lifetime of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be equal to or less than the median time to failure of the sample (calculated as the arithmetic mean of the time to failure of the two middle sample units when the numbers are sorted in value order) rounded to the nearest hour.
</P>
<P>(2) The represented value of life (in years) of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be calculated by dividing the lifetime of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp by the estimated annual operating hours as specified in 16 CFR 305.15(b)(3)(iii).
</P>
<P>(3) The represented value of estimated annual energy cost for an integrated light-emitting diode lamp, expressed in dollars per year, must be the product of the input power in kilowatts, an electricity cost rate as specified in 16 CFR 305.15(b)(1)(ii), and an estimated average annual use as specified in 16 CFR 305.15(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to integrated light-emitting diode lamps;
</P>
<P>(2) Values reported in certification reports are represented values. Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information: The testing laboratory's ILAC accreditation body's identification number or other approved identification assigned by the ILAC accreditation body, the date of manufacture, initial lumen output in lumens (lm), input power in watts (W), lamp efficacy in lumens per watt (lm/W), CCT in kelvin (K), power factor, lifetime in hours (and whether value is estimated), and life in years (and whether value is estimated). For lamps with multiple modes of operation (such as variable CCT or CRI), the certification report must also list which mode was selected for testing and include detail such that another laboratory could operate the lamp in the same mode. Lifetime and life are estimated values until testing is complete. When reporting estimated values, the certification report must specifically describe the prediction method, which must be generally representative of the methods specified in appendix BB. Manufacturers are required to maintain records per § 429.71 of the development of all estimated values and any associated initial test data.






</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding requirements.</I> (1) Round input power to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<P>(2) Round lumen output to three significant digits.
</P>
<P>(3) Round lamp efficacy to the nearest tenth of a lumen per watt.
</P>
<P>(4) Round correlated color temperature to the nearest 100 Kelvin.
</P>
<P>(5) Round color rendering index to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<P>(6) Round power factor to the nearest hundredths place.
</P>
<P>(7) Round lifetime to the nearest whole hour.
</P>
<P>(8) Round standby mode power to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 43425, July 1, 2016, as amended at 90 FR 6789, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.57" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.57   General service lamps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine represented values, which includes certified ratings, for each basic model of general service lamp in accordance with following sampling provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to general service lamps, and
</P>
<P>(2) For general service incandescent lamps, use § 429.66(a);
</P>
<P>(3) For compact fluorescent lamps, use § 429.35(a);
</P>
<P>(4) For integrated LED lamps, use § 429.56(a);
</P>
<P>(5) For other incandescent lamps, use § 429.66(a);
</P>
<P>(6) For other fluorescent lamps, use § 429.35(a); and
</P>
<P>(7) For OLED lamps and non-integrated LED lamps, use § 429.56(a).




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to general service lamps;
</P>
<P>(2) Values reported in certification reports are represented values;
</P>
<P>(3) For general service incandescent lamps, use § 429.66(b);
</P>
<P>(4) For compact fluorescent lamps, use § 429.35(b);
</P>
<P>(5) For integrated LED lamps, use § 429.56(b); and
</P>
<P>(6) For other incandescent lamps, for other fluorescent lamps, for OLED lamps and non-integrated LED lamps, pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information: The testing laboratory's ILAC accreditation body's identification number or other approved identification assigned by the ILAC accreditation body, initial lumen output, input power, lamp efficacy, and power factor. For non-integrated LED lamps, the certification report must also include the input voltage and current used for testing.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding requirements.</I> (1) Round input power to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<P>(2) Round initial lumen output to three significant digits.
</P>
<P>(3) Round lamp efficacy to the nearest tenth of a lumen per watt.
</P>
<P>(4) Round power factor to the nearest hundredths place.
</P>
<P>(5) Round standby mode power to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 72503, Oct. 20, 2016, as amended at 90 FR 6789, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.58" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.58   Furnace fans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to furnace fans; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of furnace fan within the scope of appendix AA of subpart B of part 430, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any represented value of fan energy rating (FER), rounded to the nearest integer, shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03ja14.005.gif"/>
<P>And, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>x</I><E T="54">i</E> is the measured value for the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; Or,
</P>
<P>(ii) The upper 90 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03ja14.006.gif"/>
<P>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="54">0.90</E> is the t statistic for a 90% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to residential furnace fans; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The fan energy rating (FER) in watts per thousand cubic feet per minute (W/1000 cfm); the calculated maximum airflow at the reference system external static pressure (ESP) in cubic feet per minute (cfm); the control system configuration for achieving the heating and constant-circulation airflow-control settings required for determining FER as specified in the furnace fan test procedure (10 CFR part 430, subpart B, appendix AA); the measured steady-state gas, oil, or electric heat input rate (Q<E T="52">IN</E>) in the heating setting required for determining FER; and for modular blowers, the manufacturer and model number of the electric heat resistance kit with which it is equipped for certification testing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 520, Jan. 3, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 38208, July 3, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.59" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.59   Pumps.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.59:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.59 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented value, which includes the certified rating, for each basic model of general purpose pump either by testing (which includes the calculation-based methods in the test procedure), in conjunction with the following sampling provisions, or by application of an AEDM that meets the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section. Manufacturers must determine the represented value, which includes the certified rating, for each basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump by testing, in conjunction with the following sampling provisions. Manufacturers must update represented values to account for any change in the applicable motor standards in subpart B of part 431 of this chapter and certify amended values as of the next annual certification.


</P>
<P>(1) Units to be tested. The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to pumps; and for each basic model, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any representation of the constant load pump energy index (PEI<E T="52">CL</E>), variable load pump energy index (PEI<E T="52">VL</E>), circulator energy index (CEI), or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample,
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er19se22.031.gif"/>
<FP>and x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean, n is the number of samples, and x<E T="52">i</E> is the maximum of the ith sample;</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05,
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er19se22.032.gif"/>
<FP>and x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean, <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation, n is the number of samples, and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of subpart B of part 429).</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Any representation of weighted energy factor of a basic model must be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.008.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the maximum of the ith sample; or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.009.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other representations</I>—(i) <I>Rated hydraulic horsepower.</I> The representative value of rated hydraulic horsepower of a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump or circulator pump must be the mean of the rated hydraulic horsepower for each tested unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower.</I> The representative value of dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower of a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump must be the mean of the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower for each tested unit.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>True power factor (PF</I><E T="52">i</E><I>).</I> The representative value of true power factor at each load point i of a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump must be the mean of the true power factors at that load point for each tested unit of dedicated-purpose pool pump.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>General pumps.</I> The representative values for pump total head in feet at BEP and nominal speed, volume per unit time in gallons per minute at BEP and nominal speed, and calculated driver power input at each load point must be the arithmetic mean of the value determined for each tested unit of general pump.


</P>
<P>(v) <I>Input power.</I> The representative value(s) of input power of a basic model of circulator pump at a load point(s) used in the calculation of CEI must be determined based on the mean of the input power at measured data point(s) for each tested unit.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Flow at BEP and maximum speed.</I> The representative value of flow at BEP and maximum speed of a basic model of circulator pump must be determined based on the mean of the flow at BEP and maximum speed for each tested unit.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Head at BEP and maximum speed.</I> The representative value of head at BEP and maximum speed of a basic model of circulator pump must be determined based on the mean of the head at BEP and maximum speed for each tested unit.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Other reported values.</I> The representative value of any other reported value of a basic model of circulator pump must be determined based on the mean of that value for each tested unit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, a represented value of efficiency or consumption for a basic model of pump must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the output of the AEDM and less than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM and greater than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to pumps; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information:


</P>
<P>(i) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section III of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: PEI<E T="52">CL</E>; pump total head in feet (ft.) at BEP and nominal speed; volume per unit time (flow rate) in gallons per minute (gpm) at BEP and nominal speed; the nominal speed of rotation in revolutions per minute (rpm); calculated driver power input at each load point <I>i</I> (<I>P</I><E T="53">in</E><E T="54">i</E>), corrected to nominal speed, in horsepower (hp); full impeller diameter in inches (in.); and for RSV and ST pumps, the number of stages tested.


</P>
<P>(ii) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section IV or V of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: PEI<E T="52">CL</E>; pump total head in feet (ft.) at BEP and nominal speed; volume per unit time (flow rate) in gallons per minute (gpm) at BEP and nominal speed; the nominal speed of rotation in revolutions per minute (rpm); driver power input at each load point <I>i</I> (<I>P</I><E T="53">in</E><E T="54">i</E>), corrected to nominal speed, in horsepower (hp); full impeller diameter in inches (in.); whether the PEI<E T="52">CL</E> is calculated or tested; and for RSV and ST pumps, number of stages tested.




</P>
<P>(iii) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section VI or VII of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: PEI<E T="52">VL</E>; pump total head in feet (ft.) at BEP and nominal speed; volume per unit time (flow rate) in gallons per minute (gpm) at BEP and nominal speed; the nominal speed of rotation in revolutions per minute (rpm); driver power input (measured as the input power to the driver and controls) at each load point <I>i</I> (<I>P</I><E T="53">in</E><E T="54">i</E>), corrected to nominal speed, in horsepower (hp); full impeller diameter in inches (in.); whether the PEI<E T="52">VL</E> is calculated or tested; and for RSV and ST pumps, the number of stages tested.








</P>
<P>(iv) For a dedicated-purpose pool pump (other than an integral cartridge-filter or sand-filter pool pump): weighted energy factor (WEF) in kilogallons per kilowatt-hour (kgal/kWh); rated hydraulic horsepower in horsepower (hp); the speed configuration for which the pump is being rated (<I>i.e.,</I> single-speed, two-speed, multi-speed, or variable-speed); true power factor at all applicable test procedure load points i (dimensionless), as specified in Table 1 of appendix B or C to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter, as applicable; dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal motor horsepower in horsepower (hp); dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower in horsepower (hp); dedicated-purpose pool pump service factor (dimensionless); for self-priming pool filter pumps and non-self-priming pool filter pumps: the maximum head (in feet) which is based on the mean of the units in the tested sample; a statement regarding whether freeze protection is shipped enabled or disabled; for dedicated-purpose pool pumps (DPPPs) distributed in commerce with freeze protection controls enabled: the default dry-bulb air temperature setting (in °F), default run time setting (in minutes), and default motor speed (in rpm); for self-priming pool filter pumps a statement regarding whether the pump is certified with NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4) as self-priming; and, for self-priming pool filter pumps that are not certified with NSF/ANSI 50-2015 as self-priming: the vertical lift (in feet) and true priming time (in minutes) for the DPPP model.
</P>
<P>(v) For integral cartridge-filter and sand-filter pool pumps, the maximum run-time (in hours) of the pool pump control with which the integral cartridge-filter or sand-filter pump is distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report may include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section III of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: Pump efficiency at BEP in percent (%) and PER<E T="52">CL</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section IV or V of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: Pump efficiency at BEP in percent (%) and PER<E T="52">CL</E>.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section VI or VII of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: Pump efficiency at BEP in percent (%) and PER<E T="52">VL</E>.
</P>
<P>(iv) For a dedicated-purpose pool pump (other than an integral cartridge-filter or sand-filter pool pump): Calculated driver power input and flow rate at each load point i (P<E T="52">i</E> and Q<E T="52">i</E>), in horsepower (hp) and gallons per minute (gpm), respectively.
</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report will include the following product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section III of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: The pump configuration (<I>i.e.,</I> bare pump); and for ST pumps, the bowl diameter in inches (in.).
</P>
<P>(ii) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section IV or V of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: The pump configuration (<I>i.e.,</I> pump sold with an electric motor); for pumps sold with electric motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards for electric motors at § 431.25, the nominal motor efficiency in percent (%) and the motor horsepower (hp) for the motor with which the pump is being rated; and for ST pumps, the bowl diameter in inches (in.).
</P>
<P>(iii) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in section VI or VII of appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter: The pump configuration (<I>i.e.,</I> pump sold with a motor and continuous or non-continuous controls); for pumps sold with electric motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards for electric motors at § 431.25, the nominal motor efficiency in percent (%) and the motor horsepower (hp) for the motor with which the pump is being rated; and for ST pumps, the bowl diameter in inches (in.).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual model numbers.</I> (1) For a pump subject to the test methods prescribed in appendix A to subpart Y of part 431 of this chapter, each individual model number required to be reported pursuant to § 429.12(b)(6) must consist of the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Equipment configuration
<br/>(as distributed in commerce)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Basic model number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Individual model number(s)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bare pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Number unique to the basic model</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bare pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bare pump with driver</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Number unique to the basic model</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bare pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driver</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bare pump with driver and controls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Number unique to the basic model</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bare pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Driver</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Controls.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Or must otherwise provide sufficient information to identify the specific driver model and/or controls model(s) with which a bare pump is distributed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 4144, Jan. 25, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 4430, Jan. 26, 2016; 82 FR 36918, Aug. 7, 2017; 87 FR 43979, July 22, 2022; 87 FR 57297, Sept. 19, 2022; 88 FR 17973, Mar. 24, 2023; 88 FR 24471, Apr. 21, 2023; 89 FR 82067, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43382, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.60" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.60   Commercial packaged boilers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented value, which includes the certified rating, for each basic model of commercial packaged boilers either by testing in accordance with § 431.86 of this chapter, in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions, or by applying an AEDM.</P>
<P>(1) <I>Units to be tested.</I> (i) If the represented value is determined through testing, the general requirements of § 429.11 are applicable, except that, if the represented value is determined through testing pursuant to § 431.86(c) of this chapter, the number of units selected for testing may be one; and</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05my14.004.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; Or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05my14.005.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A to subpart B of part 429). And,
</FP>
<P>(B) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05my14.006.gif"/>
<FP>and, <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; Or,
</FP>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05my14.007.gif"/>
<FP>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from Appendix A to subpart B of part 429).
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, a represented value of efficiency or consumption for a basic model of commercial packaged boiler must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy use of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the output of the AEDM and less than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM and greater than or equal to the Federal standard for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(3) The rated input for a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section must be the maximum rated input listed on the nameplate and in manufacturer literature for the commercial packaged boiler basic model. In the case where the nameplate and the manufacturer literature are not identical, DOE will use the nameplate on the unit for determining the rated input.
</P>
<P>(4) For a model of commercial packaged boiler capable of supplying either steam or hot water, representative values for steam mode must be based on efficiency in steam mode and representative values for hot water mode must be based on either the efficiency in hot water mode or steam mode in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.86 of this chapter and the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to commercial packaged boilers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public, equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) If oil-fired, the manufacturer (including brand, if applicable) and model number of the burner;
</P>
<P>(ii) The rated input in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h);
</P>
<P>(iii) The combustion efficiency in percent (%) to the nearest tenth of one percent or thermal efficiency in percent (%) to the nearest one tenth of one percent, as specified in § 431.87 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For a basic model of commercial packaged boiler that cannot be tested using the standard inlet temperatures required in appendix A to subpart E of part 431, the average inlet water temperature measured at Point B in Figure C9 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4) at which the model was tested.
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following additional equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the basic model is engineered-to-order; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For any basic model rated with an AEDM, whether the manufacturer elects the witness test option for verification testing. (See § 429.70(c)(5)(iii) for options). However, the manufacturer may not select more than 10% of AEDM-rated basic models to be eligible for witness testing.
</P>
<P>(iii) For basic models of commercial packaged boilers that have a rated input greater than 5,000,000 Btu/h, a declaration about whether the certified efficiency rating is based on testing conducted pursuant to § 431.86(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report may include supplemental testing instructions in PDF format. If necessary to run a valid test, the equipment-specific, supplemental information must include any additional testing and testing set up instructions (<I>e.g.,</I> specific operational or control codes or settings), which would be necessary to operate the basic model under the required conditions specified by the relevant test procedure. A manufacturer may also include with a certification report other supplementary items in PDF format (<I>e.g.,</I> manuals) for DOE consideration in performing testing under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) Any field tested pursuant to § 431.86(c) of this chapter basic model of a commercial packaged boiler that has not been previously certified through testing or an AEDM must be certified within 15 days of commissioning.
</P>
<P>(c) Alternative methods for determining efficiency or energy use for commercial packaged boilers can be found in § 429.70.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 25504, May 5, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 151, Jan. 5, 2015; 81 FR 89303, Dec. 9, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.61" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.61   Consumer miscellaneous refrigeration products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to miscellaneous refrigeration products; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of miscellaneous refrigeration product, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of estimated annual operating cost, energy consumption, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18jy16.000.gif"/>
<P>And, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample; or
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18jy16.001.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).
</P>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the energy factor or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18jy16.002.gif"/>
<P>And, x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample; or
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18jy16.003.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart).
</P>
<P>(3) The value of total refrigerated volume of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the total refrigerated volumes measured for each tested unit of the basic model or the total refrigerated volume of the basic model as calculated in accordance with § 429.72(d). The value of adjusted total volume of a basic model reported in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the mean of the adjusted total volumes measured for each tested unit of the basic model or the adjusted total volume of the basic model as calculated in accordance with § 429.72(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to miscellaneous refrigeration products; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report must include the following public product-specific information: The annual energy use in kilowatt hours per year (kWh/yr); the total refrigerated volume in cubic feet (cu ft) and the total adjusted volume in cubic feet (cu ft).
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report coolers or combination cooler refrigeration products shall include the following additional product-specific information: Whether the basic model has variable defrost control (in which case, manufacturers must also report the values, if any, of CT<E T="52">L</E> and CT<E T="52">M</E> (See section 5.3 in appendix A to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter) used in the calculation of energy consumption), whether the basic model has variable anti-sweat heater control (in which case, manufacturers must also report the values of heater Watts at the ten humidity levels (5%, 15%, 25%, 35%, 45%, 55%, 65%, 75%, 85%, and 95%) used to calculate the variable anti-sweat heater “Correction Factor”), and whether testing has been conducted with modifications to the standard temperature sensor locations, as specified in section 5.1(g) of appendix A to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding requirements for representative values, including certified and rated values.</I> (1) The represented value of annual energy use must be rounded to the nearest kilowatt hour per year.
</P>
<P>(2) The represented value of total refrigerated volume must be rounded to the nearest 0.1 cubic foot.
</P>
<P>(3) The represented value of adjusted total volume must be rounded to the nearest 0.1 cubic foot.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Product category determination.</I> Each basic model of miscellaneous refrigeration product must be certified according to the appropriate product category as defined in § 430.2 of this chapter based on compartment volumes and compartment temperatures. If one or more compartments could be classified as both a fresh food compartment and a freezer compartment, the model must be certified to each applicable product category based on the operation of the compartment(s) as both fresh food and freezer compartments.
</P>
<P>(1) Compartment volume used to determine product category shall be, for each compartment, the mean of the volumes of that specific compartment for the sample of tested units of the basic model, measured according to the provisions in section 4.1 of appendix A of subpart B of part 430 of this chapter, or, for each compartment, the volume of that specific compartment calculated for the basic model in accordance with § 429.72(d).
</P>
<P>(2) For compartments other than cooler compartments, determination of the compartment temperature ranges shall be based on operation of the product under the conditions specified in appendix A to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter for miscellaneous refrigeration products. The determination of compartment status may require evaluation of a model at the extremes of the range of user-selectable temperature control settings. If the temperature ranges for the same compartment of multiple units of a sample are different, the maximum and minimum compartment temperatures for compartment status determination shall be based on the mean measurements for the units in the sample.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 46790, July 18, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 56819, Oct. 12, 2021; 88 FR 7845, Feb. 7, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.62" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.62   Portable air conditioners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to portable air conditioners; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic model of portable air conditioner, a sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values is greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn16.001.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n is the number of units in the test sample.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn16.002.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>s is the sample standard deviation;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n is the number of units in the test sample; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>And,
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the combined energy efficiency ratio or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values is less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn16.003.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>x<E T="52">i</E> is the ith sample; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n is the number of units in the test sample.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn16.004.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>s is the sample standard deviation;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n is the number of units in the test sample; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>And,
</P>
<P>(3) When testing in accordance with appendix CC of subpart B of part 430 of this chapter, the represented value of cooling capacity for a single-speed portable AC shall be seasonally adjusted cooling capacity (“SACC”) and the represented value of cooling capacity for a variable-speed portable AC shall be full-load seasonally adjusted cooling capacity (“SACC<E T="52">Full</E>”), as determined in appendix CC to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter. When testing in accordance with appendix CC1 to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter, the represented value of cooling capacity for both single-speed and variable-speed portable ACs shall be SACC, as determined in appendix CC1 to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Where SACC is used for representation, the represented value of SACC of a basic model must be the mean of the SACC for each tested unit of the basic model. Likewise, where SACC<E T="52">Full</E> is used for representation, the represented value of SACC<E T="52">Full</E> of a basic model must be the mean of the SACC<E T="52">Full</E> for each tested unit of the basic model. When using appendix CC to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter, round the mean SACC or SACC<E T="52">Full</E> value to the nearest 50, 100, 200, or 500 Btu/h, depending on the magnitude of the calculated SACC or SACC<E T="52">Full</E>, as applicable, in accordance with Table 1 of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015, (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4), “Multiples for reporting Dual Duct Cooling Capacity, Single Duct Cooling Capacity, Spot Cooling Capacity, Water Cooled Condenser Capacity and Power Input Ratings”. When using appendix CC1 to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter, round SACC to the nearest 50, 100, 200, or 500 Btu/h, depending on the magnitude of the calculated SACC, in accordance with Table 1 of AHAM PAC-1-2022, (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4), “Multiples for reporting Dual Duct Cooling Capacity, Single Duct Cooling Capacity, Spot Cooling Capacity, Water Cooled Condenser Capacity and Power Input Ratings”.


</P>
<P>(5) The represented value of combined energy efficiency ratio or annualized energy efficiency ratio of a basic model must be rounded to the nearest 0.1 Btu/Wh.


</P>
<P>(6) Single-duct and dual-duct portable air conditioners distributed in commerce by the manufacturer with multiple duct configuration options that meet DOE's definitions for single-duct portable AC and dual-duct portable AC, must be rated and certified under both applicable duct configurations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to single-duct and dual-duct portable air conditioners; and


</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The combined energy efficiency ratio (CEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh), the seasonally adjusted cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), the duct configuration (single-duct, dual-duct, or ability to operate in both duct configurations), presence of heating function, and primary condensate removal feature (auto-evaporation, gravity drain, removable internal collection bucket, or condensate pump).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 35264, June 1, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 1446, Jan. 10, 2020; 88 FR 31126, May 15, 2023; 89 FR 82068, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43382, Sept. 9, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.63" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.63   Compressors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented value, which includes the certified rating, for each basic model of compressor either by testing in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions or by applying an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Units to be tested.</I> (i) If the represented value is determined through testing, the general requirements of § 429.11 apply; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model selected for testing, a sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Measures of energy efficiency.</I> Any represented value of the full- or part-load package isentropic efficiency or other measure of energy efficiency of a basic model for which customers would favor higher values is less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04ja17.007.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples; and x<E T="52">i</E> is the measured value for the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04ja17.008.gif"/>
<P>And x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart); and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Package specific power.</I> The representative value(s) of package specific power of a basic model must be the mean of the package specific power measurement(s) for each tested unit of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, any represented value of efficiency, consumption, or other non-energy metrics listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section for a basic model may be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70 and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented values of package isentropic efficiency or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which customers would favor higher values must be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented values of package specific power, pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure, full-load actual volume flow rate, or full-load operating pressure must be the output of the AEDM corresponding to the represented value of package isentropic efficiency determined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Representations of non-energy metrics</I>—(i) <I>Full-load actual volume flow rate.</I> The representative value of full-load actual volume flow rate of a basic model must be either—
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the full-load actual volume flow rate for the units in the sample; or
</P>
<P>(B) As determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70.
</P>
<P>(ii)<I> Full-load operating pressure.</I> The representative value of full-load operating pressure of a basic model must be less than or equal to the maximum full-flow operating pressure and greater than or equal to the lesser of—
</P>
<P>(A) 90 percent of the maximum full-flow operating pressure; or
</P>
<P>(B) 10 psig less than the maximum full-flow operating pressure, where the maximum full-flow operating pressure must either be determined as the mean of the maximum full-flow operating pressure values for the units in the sample or through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70.
</P>
<P>(iii)<I> Pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure.</I> The representative value of pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure of a basic model must be either be determined as the mean of the pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure for the units in the sample or through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 are applicable to compressors; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report will include the following public product-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Full-load package isentropic efficiency or part-load package isentropic efficiency, as applicable (dimensionless).
</P>
<P>(ii) Full-load actual volume flow rate (in cubic feet per minute).
</P>
<P>(iii) Compressor motor nominal horsepower (in horsepower).
</P>
<P>(iv) Full-load operating pressure (in pounds per square inch, gauge).
</P>
<P>(v) Maximum full-flow operating pressure (in pounds per square inch, gauge).
</P>
<P>(vi) Pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure (dimensionless).
</P>
<P>(vii) For any ancillary equipment that is installed for test, but is not part of the compressor package as distributed in commerce (per the requirements of 10 CFR part 431, subpart T, appendix A, section I(B)(4)), the following must be reported:
</P>
<P>(A) A general description of the ancillary equipment, based on the list provided in the first column of Table 1 of 10 CFR part 431, subpart T, appendix A, section I(B)(4).
</P>
<P>(B) The manufacturer of the ancillary equipment.
</P>
<P>(C) The brand of the ancillary equipment (if different from the manufacturer).
</P>
<P>(D) The model number of the ancillary equipment.
</P>
<P>(E) The serial number of the ancillary equipment (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(F) The following electrical characteristics, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Input Voltage.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Number of Phases.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Input Frequency.
</P>
<P>(G) The following mechanical characteristics, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Size of any connections.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Type of any connections.
</P>
<P>(H) Installation instructions for the ancillary equipment, accompanied by photos that clearly illustrate the ancillary equipment, as installed on compressor package. Instructions and photo(s) to be provided in portable document format (<I>i.e.,</I> a PDF file).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1099, Jan. 4, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 1591, Jan. 10, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.64" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.64   Electric motors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> When a party determines the energy efficiency of an electric motor in order to comply with an obligation imposed on it by or pursuant to Part C of Title III of EPCA, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6316, this section applies. This section does not apply to enforcement testing conducted pursuant to § 431.383 of this subchapter. This section applies to electric motors that are subject to requirements in subpart B of part 431 of this subchapter and does not apply to dedicated-purpose pool pump motors subject to requirements in subpart Z of part 431.
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to the date described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, manufacturers of electric motors subject to energy conservation standards in subpart B of part 431 must make representations of energy efficiency, including representations for certification of compliance, in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) On and after the compliance date for any new or amended standards for electric motors published after January 1, 2021, manufacturers of electric motors subject to energy conservation standards in subpart B of part 431 of this subchapter must make representations of energy efficiency, including representations for certification of compliance, in accordance with paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) On or after April 17, 2023, manufacturers of electric motors subject to the test procedures in appendix B of subpart B of part 431 but are subject to the energy conservation standards in subpart B of part 431 of this subchapter, must, if they chose to voluntarily make representations of energy efficiency, follow the provisions in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance certification</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The represented value of nominal full-load efficiency of each basic model of electric motor must be determined either by testing in accordance with § 431.16 of this subchapter, or by application of an alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method.</I> In lieu of testing, the represented value of nominal full-load efficiency for a basic model of electric motor must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(j) and the provisions of this paragraph (b) and paragraph (c) of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) The average full-load efficiency of any basic model used to validate an AEDM must be calculated under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The represented value is the nominal full-load efficiency of a basic model of electric motor and is to be used in marketing materials and all public representations, as the certified value of efficiency, and on the nameplate. (<I>See</I> § 431.31(a) of this subchapter.) Determine the nominal full-load efficiency by selecting a value from the “Nominal Full-Load Efficiency” table in appendix B to subpart B of this part that is no greater than the simulated full-load efficiency predicted by the AEDM for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of a certification program or accredited laboratory.</I> (i) A manufacturer may have a certification program, that DOE has classified as nationally recognized under § 429.73, certify the nominal full-load efficiency of a basic model of electric motor, and issue a certificate of conformity for the motor.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model for which a certification program is not used as described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, any testing of the motor pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section to determine its energy efficiency must be carried out in an accredited laboratory that meets the requirements of § 431.18 of this subchapter;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional testing requirements applicable when a certification program is not used</I>—(1) <I>Selection of units for testing.</I> For each basic model selected for testing, a sample of units shall be selected at random and tested. Components of similar design may be substituted without requiring additional testing if the represented measures of energy consumption continue to satisfy the applicable sampling provision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sampling requirements.</I> The sample shall be comprised of production units of the basic model, or units that are representative of such production units. The sample size shall be not fewer than five units, except that when fewer than five units of a basic model would be produced over a reasonable period of time (approximately 180 days), then each unit shall be tested. In a test of compliance with a represented average or nominal efficiency:
</P>
<P>(i) The average full-load efficiency of the sample, which is defined by:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc22.000.gif"/>
<P>where <I>x</I><E T="52">i</E> is the measured full-load efficiency of unit <I>i</I> and n is the number of units tested, shall satisfy the condition:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc22.001.gif"/>
<P>where RE is the represented nominal full-load efficiency, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The lowest full-load efficiency in the sample <I>x</I><E T="52">min</E>, which is defined by:
</P>
<P><I>x</I><E T="52">min</E> = min (<I>x</I><E T="52">i</E>)
</P>
<P>shall satisfy the condition:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc22.002.gif"/>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance certification.</I> A manufacturer may not certify the compliance of an electric motor pursuant to § 429.12 unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Testing of the electric motor basic model was conducted using an accredited laboratory that meets the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Testing was conducted using a laboratory other than an accredited laboratory that meets the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section, or the nominal full-load efficiency of the electric motor basic model was determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(j), and a third-party certification organization that is nationally recognized in the United States under § 429.73 has certified the nominal full-load efficiency of the electric motor basic model through issuance of a certificate of conformity for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> A manufacturer must determine the represented value of nominal full-load efficiency (inclusive of the inverter for inverter-only electric motors) for each basic model of electric motor either by testing in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions or by applying an AEDM as set forth in this section and in § 429.70(j).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Testing</I>—(i) <I>Units to be tested.</I> If the represented value for a given basic model is determined through testing, the requirements of § 429.11 apply except that, for electric motors, the minimum sample size is five units. If fewer units than the minimum sample size are produced, each unit produced must be tested and the test results must demonstrate that the basic model performs at or better than the applicable standard(s). If one or more units of the basic model are manufactured subsequently, compliance with the default sampling and representations provisions is required.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Average Full-load Efficiency:</I> Determine the average full-load efficiency for the basic model <E T="7503">x</E>, for the units in the sample as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc22.003.gif"/>
<P>Where x<E T="52">i</E> is the measured full-load efficiency of unit i and n is the number of units tested.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Represented value.</I> The represented value is the nominal full-load efficiency of a basic model of electric motor and is to be used in marketing materials and all public representations, as the certified value of efficiency, and on the nameplate. (<I>See</I> § 431.31(a) of this subchapter.) Determine the nominal full-load efficiency by selecting an efficiency from the “Nominal Full-load Efficiency” table in appendix B that is no greater than the average full-load efficiency of the basic model as calculated in § 429.64(e)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Minimum full-load efficiency:</I> To ensure a high level of quality control and consistency of performance within the basic model, the lowest full-load efficiency in the sample X<E T="52">min</E>, must satisfy the condition:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc22.004.gif"/>
<P>where <I>Std</I> is the value of the applicable energy conservation standard. If the lowest measured full-load efficiency of a unit in the tested sample does not satisfy the condition in this section, then the basic model cannot be certified as compliant with the applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, the represented value of nominal full-load efficiency for a basic model of electric motor must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(j) and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) The average full-load efficiency of any basic model used to validate an AEDM must be calculated under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The represented value is the nominal full-load efficiency of a basic model of electric motor and is to be used in marketing materials and all public representations, as the certified value of efficiency, and on the nameplate. (See § 431.31(a) of this subchapter) Determine the nominal full-load efficiency by selecting a value from the “Nominal Full-Load Efficiency” table in appendix B to subpart B of this part, that is no greater than the simulated full-load efficiency predicted by the AEDM for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accredited laboratory.</I> (1) Testing pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (d)(1) of this section must be conducted in an accredited laboratory for which the accreditation body was:
</P>
<P>(i) The National Institute of Standards and Technology/National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NIST/NVLAP); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A laboratory accreditation body having a mutual recognition arrangement with NIST/NVLAP; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An organization classified by the Department, pursuant to § 429.74, as an accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(2) NIST/NVLAP is under the auspices of the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)/National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP), which is part of the U.S. Department of Commerce. NIST/NVLAP accreditation is granted on the basis of conformance with criteria published in 15 CFR part 285. The National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program, “Procedures and General Requirements,” NIST Handbook 150-10, April 2020 (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3) present the technical requirements of NVLAP for the Efficiency of Electric Motors field of accreditation. This handbook supplements NIST Handbook 150, National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program “Procedures and General Requirements,” which contains 15 CFR part 285 plus all general NIST/NVLAP procedures, criteria, and policies. Information regarding NIST/NVLAP and its Efficiency of Electric Motors Program (EEM) can be obtained from NIST/NVLAP, 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 2140, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-2140, (301) 975-4016 (telephone), or (301) 926-2884 (fax).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63647, Oct. 19, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.65" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.65   Dedicated-purpose pool pump motors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to dedicated purpose motors that are subject to requirements in subpart Z of part 431 of this subchapter. Starting on the compliance date for any standards for dedicated-purpose pool pump motors published after January 1, 2021, manufacturers of dedicated-purpose pool pump motors subject to such standards must make representations of energy efficiency, including representations for certification of compliance, in accordance with this section. Prior to the compliance date for any standards for dedicated-purpose pool pump motors published after January 1, 2021, and on or after April 17, 2023, manufacturers of dedicated-purpose pool pump motors subject to test procedures in subpart Z of part 431 of this subchapter choosing to make representations of energy efficiency must follow the provisions in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance certification.</I> A manufacturer may not certify the compliance of a dedicated-purpose pool pump motor pursuant to 10 CFR 429.12 unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Testing of the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor basic model was conducted using an accredited laboratory that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Testing was conducted using a laboratory other than an accredited laboratory that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, or the full-load efficiency of the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor basic model was determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(k), and a third-party certification organization that is nationally recognized in the United States under § 429.73 has certified the full-load efficiency of the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor basic model through issuance of a certificate of conformity for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of represented value.</I> A manufacturer must determine the represented value of full-load efficiency (inclusive of the drive, if the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor basic model is placed into commerce with a drive, or is unable to operate without the presence of a drive) for each basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump motor either by testing in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions or by applying an AEDM as set forth in this section and in § 429.70(k).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Testing</I>—(i) <I>Units to be tested.</I> If the represented value for a given basic model is determined through testing, the requirements of § 429.11 apply except that, for dedicated-purpose pool pump motors, the minimum sample size is five units. If fewer units than the minimum sample size are produced, each unit produced must be tested and the test results must demonstrate that the basic model performs at or better than the applicable standard(s). If one or more units of the basic model are manufactured subsequently, compliance with the default sampling and representations provisions is required.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Full-load efficiency.</I> Any value of full-load efficiency must be lower than or equal to the average of the sample <E T="7503">x</E>, calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc22.005.gif"/>
<P>Where x<E T="52">i</E> is the measured full-load efficiency of unit i and n is the number of units tested in the sample.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Represented value.</I> The represented value is the full-load efficiency of a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump motor and is to be used in marketing materials and all public representations, as the certified value of efficiency, and on the nameplate. (<I>See</I> § 431.486 of this subchapter). Alternatively, a manufacturer may make representations using the nominal full-load efficiency of a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump motor provided that the manufacturer uses the nominal full-load efficiency consistently on all marketing materials, and as the value on the nameplate. Determine the nominal full-load efficiency by selecting an efficiency from the “Nominal Full-load Efficiency” table in appendix B to subpart B of this part, that is no greater than the full-load efficiency of the basic model as calculated in § 429.65(c)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Minimum full-load efficiency:</I> To ensure quality control and consistency of performance within the basic model, the lowest full-load efficiency in the sample X<E T="52">min</E>, must satisfy the condition:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc22.006.gif"/>
<P>where <I>Std</I> is the value of any applicable energy conservation standard. If the lowest measured full-load efficiency of a motor in the tested sample does not satisfy the condition in this section, then the basic model cannot be certified as compliant with the applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower.</I> The represented value of the total horsepower of a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump motor must be the mean of the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower for each tested unit in the sample.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, the represented value of full-load efficiency for a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump motor must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(k) and the provisions of this section, where:
</P>
<P>(i) The full-load efficiency of any basic model used to validate an AEDM must be calculated under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The represented value is the full-load efficiency of a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump motor and is to be used in marketing materials and all public representations, as the certified value of efficiency, and on the nameplate. (<I>See</I> § 431.485 of this subchapter). Alternatively, a manufacturer may make representations using the nominal full-load efficiency of a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump motor provided that the manufacturer uses the nominal full-load efficiency consistently on all marketing materials, and as the value on the nameplate. Determine the nominal full-load efficiency by selecting an efficiency from the “Nominal Full-load Efficiency” table in appendix B to subpart B of this part, that is no greater than the full-load efficiency of the basic model as calculated in § 429.65(c)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accredited laboratory.</I> (1) Testing pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section must be conducted in an accredited laboratory for which the accreditation body was:
</P>
<P>(i) The National Institute of Standards and Technology/National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NIST/NVLAP); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A laboratory accreditation body having a mutual recognition arrangement with NIST/NVLAP; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An organization classified by the Department, pursuant to § 429.74, as an accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(2) NIST/NVLAP is under the auspices of the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)/National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP), which is part of the U.S. Department of Commerce. NIST/NVLAP accreditation is granted on the basis of conformance with criteria published in 15 CFR part 285. The National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program, “Procedures and General Requirements,” NIST Handbook 150-10, April 2020, (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3) present the technical requirements of NVLAP for the Efficiency of Electric Motors field of accreditation. This handbook supplements NIST Handbook 150, National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program “Procedures and General Requirements,” which contains 15 CFR part 285 plus all general NIST/NVLAP procedures, criteria, and policies. Information regarding NIST/NVLAP and its Efficiency of Electric Motors Program (EEM) can be obtained from NIST/NVLAP, 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 2140, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-2140, (301) 975-4016 (telephone), or (301) 926-2884 (fax).






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63648, Oct. 19, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 82068, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43382, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.66" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.66   General service incandescent lamps.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 429.66:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required either in this section or 10 CFR 429.27 as it appears in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after February 17, 2023, certification reports must be submitted as required in this section.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of Represented Value.</I> Each manufacturer must determine represented values, which include certified ratings, for each basic model by testing in accordance with the following sampling provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) Units to be tested.
</P>
<P>(i) When testing, use a sample comprised of production units. The same sample of units must be tested and used as the basis for representations for initial lumen output, rated wattage, color rendering index (CRI), correlated color temperature (CCT), and lifetime.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model, randomly select and test a sample of sufficient size, but not less than 10 units, to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(A) Represented values of initial lumen output and CRI are less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The arithmetic mean of the sample: or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by .97, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31au22.002.gif"/>
<P>(B) Represented values of rated wattage are greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The arithmetic mean of the sample: or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.03, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31au22.003.gif"/>
<FP>and x
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95% one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A to this subpart).
</FP>
<P>(2) Any represented values of measures of energy efficiency or energy consumption for all individual models represented by a given basic model must be the same.
</P>
<P>(3) Represented values of CCT must be equal to the arithmetic mean of the sample.
</P>
<P>(4) Represented values of lifetime must be equal to or less than the median time to failure of the sample (calculated as the arithmetic mean of the time to failure of the two middle sample units (or the value of the middle sample unit if there are an odd number of units) when the measured values are sorted in value order).
</P>
<P>(5) Calculate represented values of life (in years) by dividing the represented lifetime of these lamps as determined in paragraph (a)(4) of this section by the estimated daily operating hours as specified in 16 CFR 305.23(b)(3)(iii) multiplied by 365.
</P>
<P>(6) Represented values of the estimated annual energy cost, expressed in dollars per year, must be the product of the rated wattage in kilowatts, an electricity cost rate as specified in 16 CFR 305.23(b)(1)(ii), and an estimated average daily use as specified in 16 CFR 305.23(b)(1)(ii) multiplied by 365.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification reports.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.12 apply to general service incandescent lamps; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), a certification report shall include the following public product-specific information: The testing laboratory's ILAC accreditation body's identification number or other approved identification assigned by the ILAC accreditation body, rated wattage in watts (W), the lifetime in hours, CRI, and initial lumen output in lumens (lm).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rounding Requirements.</I> (1) Round rated wattage to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<P>(2) Round initial lumen output to three significant digits.
</P>
<P>(3) Round CCT to the nearest 100 kelvin (K).
</P>
<P>(4) Round CRI to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<P>(5) Round lifetime to the nearest whole hour.
</P>
<P>(6) Round life (in years) to the nearest tenth.
</P>
<P>(7) Round annual energy cost to the nearest cent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 53639, Aug. 31, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.67" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.67   Air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 British thermal units per hour and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 British thermal units per hour.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) For air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h subject to standards in terms of seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER) and heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF), representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency, including compliance certifications, are subject to the requirements in § 429.43 of this title as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) For air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h subject to standards in terms of seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2) and heating seasonal performance factor 2 (HSPF2) metrics, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency, including compliance certifications, are subject to the requirements in this section. If manufacturers choose to certify compliance with any standards in terms of SEER2 and HSPF2 prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards, the requirements of this section must be followed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of Represented Value</I>—(1) <I>Required represented values.</I> Determine the represented values (including SEER2, HSPF2, cooling capacity, and heating capacity, as applicable) for the individual models/combinations (or “tested combinations”) specified in table 1 to this paragraph (b)(1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required represented values
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-Package unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package AC (including Space-Constrained)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual model distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package HP (including Space-Constrained)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor Unit and Indoor Unit (Distributed in Commerce by OUM (Outdoor Unit Manufacturer))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System AC with Single-Stage or Two-Stage Compressor (including Space-Constrained and Small-Duct, High Velocity Systems (SDHV))</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual combination distributed in commerce. Each model of outdoor unit must include a represented value for at least one coil-only individual combination that is distributed in commerce and which is representative of the least efficient combination distributed in commerce with that particular model of outdoor unit. For that particular model of outdoor unit, additional represented values for coil-only and blower-coil individual combinations are allowed, if distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System AC with Other Than Single-Stage or Two-Stage Compressor (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual combination distributed in commerce, including all coil-only and blower coil combinations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System HP (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual combination distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—non-SDHV (including Space-Constrained)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each model of outdoor unit, at a minimum, a non-ducted “tested combination.” For any model of outdoor unit also sold with models of ducted indoor units, a ducted “tested combination.” When determining represented values on or after the compliance date of any amended energy conservation standards, the ducted “tested combination” must comprise the highest static variety of ducted indoor unit distributed in commerce (i.e., conventional, mid-static, or low-static). Additional representations are allowed, as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—SDHV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each model of outdoor unit, an SDHV “tested combination.” Additional representations are allowed, as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor Unit Only Distributed in Commerce by ICM (Independent Coil Manufacturer)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System Air Conditioner (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every individual combination distributed in commerce.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Split-System Heat Pump (including Space-Constrained and SDHV)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-Split, Multi-Circuit, or Multi-Head Mini-Split Split System—SDHV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For a model of indoor unit within each basic model, a SDHV “tested combination.” Additional representations are allowed, as described in section (d)(3)(ii) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Outdoor Unit with no Match</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Every model of outdoor unit distributed in commerce (tested with a model of coil-only indoor unit as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Refrigerants.</I> (i) If a model of outdoor unit (used in a single-split, multi-split, multi-circuit, multi-head mini-split, and/or outdoor unit with no match system) is distributed in commerce and approved for use with multiple refrigerants, a manufacturer must determine all represented values for that model using each refrigerant that can be used in an individual combination of the basic model (including outdoor units with no match or “tested combinations”). This requirement may apply across the listed categories in table 1 to paragraph (b)(1) of this section. A refrigerant is considered approved for use if it is listed on the nameplate of the outdoor unit. If any of the refrigerants approved for use is HCFC-22 or has a 95 °F midpoint saturation absolute pressure that is ±18 percent of the 95 °F saturation absolute pressure for HCFC-22, or if there are no refrigerants designated as approved for use, a manufacturer must determine represented values (including SEER2, HSPF2, cooling capacity, and heating capacity, as applicable) for, at a minimum, an outdoor unit with no match. If a model of outdoor unit is not charged with a specified refrigerant from the point of manufacture or if the unit is shipped requiring the addition of more than two pounds of refrigerant to meet the charge required for testing per Section 5.1.8 of AHRI 210/240-2023 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4) (unless either {a} the factory charge is equal to or greater than 70 percent of the outdoor unit internal volume multiplied by the liquid density of refrigerant at 95 °F or {b} an A2L refrigerant is approved for use and listed in the certification report), a manufacturer must determine represented values (including SEER2, HSPF2, cooling capacity, and heating capacity, as applicable) for, at a minimum, an outdoor unit with no match.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a model is approved for use with multiple refrigerants, a manufacturer may make multiple separate representations for the performance of that model (all within the same individual combination or outdoor unit with no match) using the multiple approved refrigerants. In the alternative, manufacturers may certify the model (all within the same individual combination or outdoor unit with no match) with a single representation, provided that the represented value is no more efficient than its performance using the least-efficient refrigerant. A single representation made for multiple refrigerants may not include equipment in multiple categories or equipment subcategories listed in table 1 to paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations for represented values of individual combinations.</I> Paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section explains the limitations for represented values of individual combinations (or “tested combinations”).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Multiple product classes.</I> Models of outdoor units that are rated and distributed in individual combinations that span multiple product classes must be tested, rated, and certified pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section as compliant with the applicable standard for each product class.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reserved.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requirements.</I> All represented values under paragraph (b) of this section must be based on testing in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (c) of this section or the application of an AEDM or other methodology as allowed in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Units tested</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The general requirements of § 429.11 apply to air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h, and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sampling plans and represented values.</I> For individual models (for single-package systems) or individual combinations (for split-systems, including “tested combinations” for multi-split, multi-circuit, and multi-head mini-split systems) with represented values determined through testing, each individual model/combination (or “tested combination”) must have a sample of sufficient size tested in accordance with the applicable provisions of this subpart. For heat pumps (other than heating-only heat pumps), all units of the sample population must be tested in both the cooling and heating modes and the results used for determining all representations. The represented values for any individual model/combination must be assigned such that:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SEER2 and HSPF2.</I> Any represented value of the energy efficiency or other measure of energy consumption for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16de22.014.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>and, <I>x</I>
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and x<E T="54">i</E> is the ith sample; or,</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) The lower 90 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16de22.015.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>And <I>x</I>
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="52">0.90</E> is the t statistic for a 90 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of this subpart). Round represented values of SEER2 and HSPF2 to the nearest 0.05.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Cooling Capacity and Heating Capacity.</I> The represented values of cooling capacity and heating capacity must each be a self-declared value that is:


</P>
<P>(A) Less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16de22.016.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>and, <I>x</I>
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and x<E T="54">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or,</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The lower 90 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09se25.005.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>And <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; <I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation; <I>n</I> is the number of samples; and <I>t</I><E T="54">0.90</E> is the t statistic for a 90 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n−1 degrees of freedom (from appendix D to this subpart).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Rounded

 according to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The nearest 100 Btu/h if cooling capacity or heating capacity is less than 20,000 Btu/h,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The nearest 200 Btu/h if cooling capacity or heating capacity is greater than or equal to 20,000 Btu/h but less than 38,000 Btu/h, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The nearest 500 Btu/h if cooling capacity or heating capacity is greater than or equal to 38,000 Btu/h and less than 65,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of represented values</I>—(1) <I>All basic models except outdoor units with no match and multi-split systems, multi-circuit systems, and multi-head mini-split systems.</I> For every individual model/combination within a basic model, either—
</P>
<P>(i) A sample of sufficient size, comprised of production units or representing production units, must be tested as complete systems with the resulting represented values for the individual model/combination obtained in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The represented values of the measures of energy efficiency or energy consumption through the application of an AEDM in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section and § 429.70.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outdoor units with no match.</I> All models of outdoor units with no match within a basic model must be tested with a model of coil-only indoor unit meeting the requirements of Section 5.1.6.2 of AHRI 210/240-2023. Models of outdoor units with no match may not be rated with an AEDM, other than to determine the represented values for models using approved refrigerants other than the one used in testing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For multi-split systems, multi-circuit systems, and multi-head mini-split systems.</I> The following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) For each non-SDHV basic model, at a minimum, a manufacturer must test the model of outdoor unit with a “tested combination” composed entirely of non-ducted indoor units. For any models of outdoor units also sold with models of ducted indoor units, a manufacturer must test a second “tested combination” composed entirely of ducted indoor units (in addition to the non-ducted combination). The ducted “tested combination” must comprise the highest static variety of ducted indoor unit distributed in commerce (<I>i.e.,</I> conventional, mid-static, or low-static).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a manufacturer chooses to make representations of a variety of a basic model (<I>i.e.,</I> conventional, low static, or mid-static) other than a variety for which a representation is required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section the manufacturer must conduct testing of a tested combination according to the requirements in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For basic models that include mixed combinations of indoor units (<I>i.e.,</I> combinations that are comprised of any two of the following varieties—non-ducted, low-static, mid-static, and conventional ducted indoor units), the represented value for the mixed combination is the mean of the represented values for the individual component combinations as determined in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) and (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For each SDHV basic model distributed in commerce by an OUM, the OUM must, at a minimum, test the model of outdoor unit with a “tested combination” composed entirely of SDHV indoor units. For each SDHV basic model distributed in commerce by an ICM, the ICM must test the model of indoor unit with a “tested combination” composed entirely of SDHV indoor units, where the outdoor unit is the least efficient model of outdoor unit with which the SDHV indoor unit will be paired. The least efficient model of outdoor unit is the model of outdoor unit in the lowest SEER2 combination as certified by the outdoor unit manufacturer. If there are multiple outdoor unit models with the same lowest SEER2 represented value, the indoor coil manufacturer may select one for testing purposes.
</P>
<P>(v) For basic models that include SDHV and an indoor unit of another variety (<I>i.e.,</I> non-ducted, low-static, mid-static, and conventional ducted), the represented value for the mixed SDHV/other combination is the mean of the represented values for the SDHV and other tested combination as determined in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) and paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) All other individual combinations of models of indoor units for the same model of outdoor unit for which the manufacturer chooses to make representations must be rated as separate basic models, and the provisions of paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) and (d)(3)(i) through (v) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, represented values of efficiency or consumption may be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(l) and the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Energy efficiency.</I> Any represented value of the SEER2, HSPF2, or other measure of energy efficiency of an individual model/combination for which consumers would favor higher values must be less than or equal to the output of the AEDM but no less than the standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cooling capacity.</I> The represented value of cooling capacity of an individual model/combination must be no greater than the cooling capacity output simulated by the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Heating capacity.</I> The represented value of heating capacity of an individual model/combination must be no greater than the heating capacity output simulated by the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Certification reports.</I> This paragraph specifies the information that must be included in a certification report.
</P>
<P>(1) The requirements of § 429.12; and
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), for each individual model (for single-package systems) or individual combination (for split-systems, including outdoor units with no match and “tested combinations” for multi-split, multi-circuit, and multi-head mini-split systems), a certification report must include the following public equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commercial package air conditioning equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-Phase):</I> The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Commercial package heating equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-Phase):</I> The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners that are air-cooled with rated cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-Phase):</I> The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)) and rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat pumps that are air-cooled with rated cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-Phase):</I> The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER) in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh), the heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF) in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh), and rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).


</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), for each individual model (for single-package systems) or individual combination (for split-systems, including outdoor units with no match and “tested combinations” for multi-split, multi-circuit, and multi-head mini-split systems), a certification report must include the following public equipment-specific information:
</P>
<P>(i) Commercial package air conditioning equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-Phase):
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with a SEER standard: The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with a SEER2 standard: the seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2 in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)) and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(ii) Commercial package heating equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-Phase):
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with an HSPF standard: The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with an HSPF2 standard: the seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2 in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the heating seasonal performance factor 2 (HSPF2 in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)) and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).


</P>
<P>(iii) Air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h:
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with a SEER standard: The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with a SEER2 standard: the seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2 in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)) and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(iv) Air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h:
</P>
<P>(A) When certifying compliance with an HSPF standard: The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).
</P>
<P>(B) When certifying compliance with an HSPF2 standard: the seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2 in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)), the heating seasonal performance factor 2 (HSPF2 in British thermal units per Watt-hour (Btu/Wh)) and the rated cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h).




</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to § 429.12(b)(13), for each individual model/combination (including outdoor units with no match and “tested combinations”), a certification report must include supplemental information submitted in PDF format. The equipment-specific, supplemental information must include any additional testing and testing set up instructions (e.g., charging instructions) for the basic model; identification of all special features that were included in rating the basic model; and all other information (e.g., operational codes or component settings) necessary to operate the basic model under the required conditions specified by the relevant test procedure. A manufacturer may also include with a certification report other supplementary items in PDF format (e.g., manuals) for DOE consideration in performing testing under subpart C of this part. The equipment-specific, supplemental information must include at least the following:






</P>
<P>(i) Air cooled commercial package air conditioning equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-phase): The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); rated airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (SCFM) for each fan coil; rated static pressure in inches of water; refrigeration charging instructions (<I>e.g.,</I> refrigerant charge, superheat and/or subcooling temperatures); frequency or control set points for variable-speed components (<I>e.g.,</I> compressors, VFDs); required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions, if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model.




</P>
<P>(ii) Commercial package heating equipment that is air-cooled with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-phase): The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); rated heating capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); rated airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (SCFM) for each fan coil; rated static pressure in inches of water; refrigeration charging instructions (<I>e.g.,</I> refrigerant charge, superheat and/or subcooling temperatures); frequency or control set points for variable-speed components (<I>e.g.,</I> compressors, VFDs); required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions, if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model.










</P>
<P>(iii) Variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners that are air-cooled with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-Phase): The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); outdoor unit(s) and indoor units identified in the tested combination; components needed for heat recovery, if applicable; rated airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (SCFM) for each indoor unit; rated static pressure in inches of water; compressor frequency set points; required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions, if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model. Additionally, upon DOE request, the manufacturer must provide a layout of the system set-up for testing including charging instructions consistent with the installation manual.
</P>
<P>(iv) Variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat pumps that are air-cooled with a rated cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h (3-Phase): The nominal cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); rated heating capacity in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h); outdoor unit(s) and indoor units identified in the tested combination; components needed for heat recovery, if applicable; rated airflow in standard cubic feet per minute (SCFM) for each indoor unit; rated static pressure in inches of water; compressor frequency set points; required dip switch/control settings for step or variable components; a statement whether the model will operate at test conditions without manufacturer programming; any additional testing instructions, if applicable; if a variety of motors/drive kits are offered for sale as options in the basic model to account for varying installation requirements, the model number and specifications of the motor (to include efficiency, horsepower, open/closed, and number of poles) and the drive kit, including settings, associated with that specific motor that were used to determine the certified rating; and which, if any, special features were included in rating the basic model. Additionally, upon DOE request, the manufacturer must provide a layout of the system set-up for testing including charging instructions consistent with the installation manual.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 77317, Dec. 16, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 82068, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43382, Sept. 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.68" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.68   Air cleaners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sampling plan for selection of units for testing.</I> (1) The requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to air cleaners; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each basic mode of air cleaners, a sample of sufficient size shall be randomly selected and tested to ensure that—
</P>
<P>(i) Any represented value of annual energy consumption or other measure of energy consumption of a basic mode for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:


</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06mr23.005.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>x</I>
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> is the number of samples; and,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>x</I><E T="54">i</E> is the <I>i</I><E T="53">th</E> sample.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.10:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06mr23.006.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>x</I>
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> is the number of samples; and,
</FP-2>
<P><I>t</I><E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A).</P></EXTRACT>
<P>And
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of the integrated energy factor or other measure of energy consumption of a basic mode for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the high:




</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06mr23.007.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>x</I>
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<P><I>n</I> is the number of samples; and,
</P>
<FP-2><I>x</I><E T="54">i</E> is the <I>i</I><E T="53">th</E> sample.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.90:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06mr23.008.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>x</I>
<AC T="8"/> is the sample mean;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>s</I> is the sample standard deviation;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> is the number of samples; and,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>And
</P>
<P>(3) Any represented value of the pollen, smoke, dust, and PM<E T="52">2.5</E> clean air delivery rate (CADR) of a basic model must be the mean of the CADR for each tested unit of the basic model. Round the mean clean air delivery rate value to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<P>(4) Any represented value of the effective room size, in square feet, of a basic model must be calculated as the product of 1.55 and the represented smoke CADR value of the basic model as determined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Round the value of the effective room size, in square feet, to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<P>(5) Round the value of the annual energy consumption, in kWh/year, of a basic model to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<P>(6) Round the value of the integrated energy factor of a basic model to the nearest 0.1 CADR/W.
</P>
<P>(b)[Reserved]




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 14043, Mar. 6, 2023, as amended at 89 FR 82069, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43383, Sept. 9, 2025]



]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.69" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.69   Fans and blowers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented values of fans and blowers other than air circulating fans.</I> A manufacturer must determine the represented values for each basic model, either by testing in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions or by applying an AEDM as set forth in this section and in § 429.70(n). Manufacturers must update represented values to account for any change in the applicable motor standards in Table 5 of § 431.25 of this chapter and certify amended values as of the next annual certification (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Testing.</I> (i) If the represented values for a given basic model are determined through testing, a sample of at least one unit must be selected and the requirements of § 429.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) If only one unit is tested, at each duty point characterized by a flow and speed value, any represented value of fan electrical power (“FEP”), fan shaft input power, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the tested value. Represented values other than FEP must be rounded to the nearest hundredth. FEP must be rounded to three significant figures.
</P>
<P>(iii) If only one unit is tested, at each duty point characterized by a flow and speed value, any represented value of fan energy index (“FEI”), or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the tested value. Represented values must be rounded to the nearest hundredth.




</P>
<P>(iv) If more than one unit is tested, at each duty point characterized by a flow and speed value, any represented value of fan electrical input power (“FEP”), fan shaft input power, or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my23.374.gif"/>
<P>Where is <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> the sample mean; n is the number of samples, and <I>x</I><E T="54">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample. Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my23.375.gif"/>
<P>and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of subpart B of this part). Represented values other than FEP must be rounded to the nearest hundredth. FEP must be rounded to three significant figures.
</P>
<P>(v) If more than one unit is tested, any represented value of the fan energy index (“FEI”), or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my23.376.gif"/>
<P>Where <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples, and <I>x</I><E T="54">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample. Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my23.377.gif"/>
<P>and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of subpart B of this part). Represented values must be rounded to the nearest hundredth.
</P>
<P>(vi) At each duty point characterized by a flow and speed value, the representative value of static or total pressure of a basic model of must be the mean of the tested static or total pressure for each tested unit. If only one unit is tested, the representative value of static or total pressure at the duty point of a basic model is the tested value.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, the represented values for a basic model must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(n) and the provisions of this section, where: the represented values of any basic model used to validate an AEDM must be calculated under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of represented values for air circulating fans.</I> A manufacturer must determine the represented values for each basic model, either by testing in conjunction with the applicable sampling provisions or by applying an AEDM as set forth in this section and in § 429.70(n).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Testing.</I> (i) If the represented values for a given basic model are determined through testing, the requirements of § 429.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any represented value of fan electrical input power (“W<E T="52">E</E>”), or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my23.378.gif"/>
<P>Where <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples, and x<E T="54">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample. Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my23.379.gif"/>
<P>and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of subpart B of this part). Represented values must be rounded to the nearest hundredth.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any represented value of efficacy (Eff<E T="52">circ</E>) or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor higher values shall be less than or equal to the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The mean of the sample, where
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my23.380.gif"/>
<P>Where <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; n is the number of samples, and x<E T="54">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample. Or,
</P>
<P>(B) The lower 95 percent confidence limit (LCL) of the true mean divided by 0.95, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my23.381.gif"/>
<P>and <I>x
<AC T="8"/></I> is the sample mean; s is the sample standard deviation; n is the number of samples; and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of subpart B of this part). Represented values must be rounded to the nearest hundredth.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination methods.</I> In lieu of testing, the represented values for a basic model must be determined through the application of an AEDM pursuant to the requirements of § 429.70(n) and the provisions of this section, where: the represented values of any basic model used to validate an AEDM must be calculated under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 27387, May 1, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 53375, Aug. 8, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.70" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.70   Alternative methods for determining energy efficiency and energy use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A manufacturer of covered products or covered equipment explicitly authorized to use an AEDM in §§ 429.14 through 429.69 may not distribute any basic model of such product or equipment in commerce unless the manufacturer has determined the energy consumption or energy efficiency of the basic model, either from testing the basic model in conjunction with DOE's certification sampling plans and statistics or from applying an alternative method for determining energy efficiency or energy use (<I>i.e.,</I> AEDM) to the basic model, in accordance with the requirements of this section. In instances where a manufacturer has tested a basic model to validate the AEDM, the represented value of energy consumption or efficiency of that basic model must be determined and certified according to results from actual testing in conjunction with 10 CFR part 429, subpart B certification sampling plans and statistics. In addition, a manufacturer may not knowingly use an AEDM to overrate the efficiency of a basic model.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing.</I> Testing for each covered product or covered equipment must be done in accordance with the sampling plan provisions established in § 429.11 and the testing procedures in parts 430 and 431 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) for commercial HVAC &amp; WH products (excluding air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with less than 65,000 Btu/h cooling capacity), and commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers</I>—(1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer may not apply an AEDM to a basic model to determine its efficiency pursuant to this section unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy efficiency or energy consumption characteristics of the basic model as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure;
</P>
<P>(ii) The AEDM is based on engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytic evaluation of performance data; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM, in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section with basic models that meet the current Federal energy conservation standards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The manufacturer must select at least the minimum number of basic models for each validation class specified in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section to which the particular AEDM applies. Using the AEDM, calculate the energy use or efficiency for each of the selected basic models.
</P>
<P>(A) Except for variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h) when certifying to standards in terms of IEER, test a single unit of each selected basic model in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section. Compare the results from the single unit test and the AEDM energy use or efficiency output according to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section. The manufacturer is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(B) For variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h) when certifying to standards in terms of IEER, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If a manufacturer makes representations for a single type of indoor unit combination (<I>i.e.,</I> only ducted, non-ducted, or SDHV indoor unit combinations) across all the basic models for which an AEDM applies, the manufacturer must test at least a single tested combination of that type of indoor unit combination for each selected basic model in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a manufacturer makes representations for two types of indoor unit combinations (<I>i.e.,</I> ducted, non-ducted, and/or SDHV) within or across all the basic models for which the AEDM applies, the manufacturer must test at least a single tested combination of a selected basic model for one of those two types of indoor unit combination, and at least a single tested combination of a different selected basic model for the other of those two types of indoor unit combination, each tested in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If a manufacturer makes representations for all three types of indoor unit combinations (<I>i.e.,</I> ducted, non-ducted, and SDHV) within or across basic models for which the AEDM applies, the manufacturer must test at least a single tested combination of a selected basic model as a non-ducted tested combination and a single tested combination of a different selected basic model as a ducted tested combination, each in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) In all cases, compare the results from each tested basic model and the AEDM energy use or efficiency output according to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section. The manufacturer is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Individual model tolerances.</I> (A) For those covered products with an energy-efficiency metric, the predicted efficiency for each model calculated by applying the AEDM may not be more than five percent greater than the efficiency determined from the corresponding test of the model.
</P>
<P>(B) For those covered products with an energy-consumption metric, the predicted energy consumption for each model, calculated by applying the AEDM, may not be more than five percent less than the energy consumption determined from the corresponding test of the model.
</P>
<P>(C) For all covered products, the predicted energy efficiency or consumption for each model calculated by applying the AEDM must meet or exceed the applicable federal energy conservation performance standard.
</P>
<P>(D) An AEDM that is validated based on test results obtained from one or more field tests (pursuant to § 431.86(c)) can only be used to certify the performance of basic models of commercial packaged boilers with a certified rated input greater than 5,000,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional test unit requirements.</I> (A) Each AEDM must be supported by test data obtained from physical tests of current models; and
</P>
<P>(B) Test results used to validate the AEDM must meet or exceed current, applicable Federal standards as specified in part 431 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(C) Each test must have been performed in accordance with the DOE test procedure specified in parts 430 or 431 of this chapter or test procedure waiver for which compliance is required at the time the basic model is distributed in commerce.

</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Validation classes.</I> 





</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(c)(2)(iv)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of distinct models that must be tested per AEDM
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">(A) Commercial HVAC Validation Classes</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled, Split and Packaged ACs and HPs Greater than or Equal to 65,000 Btu/h Cooling Capacity and Less than 760,000 Btu/h Cooling Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled, Split and Packaged ACs and HPs, All Cooling Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Evaporatively-Cooled, Split and Packaged ACs and HPs, All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Source HPs, All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single Package Vertical ACs and HPs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Packaged Terminal ACs and HPs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled, Variable Refrigerant Flow ACs and HPs Greater than or Equal to 65,000 Btu/h Cooling Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled, Variable Refrigerant Flow ACs and HPs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Computer Room Air Conditioners, Air Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Computer Room Air Conditioners, Water-Cooled and Glycol-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems, Air-cooled or Air-source Heat Pump, Without Ventilation Energy Recovery Systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems, Air-cooled or Air-source Heat Pump, With Ventilation Energy Recovery Systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems, Water-cooled, Water-source Heat Pump, or Ground Source Closed-loop Heat Pump, Without Ventilation Energy Recovery Systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems, Water-cooled, Water-source Heat Pump, or Ground Source Closed-loop Heat Pump, With Ventilation Energy Recovery Systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">(B) Commercial Water Heater Validation Classes</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired Water Heaters and Hot Water Supply Boilers Less than 10 Gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired Water Heaters and Hot Water Supply Boilers Greater than or Equal to 10 Gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired Water Heaters and Hot Water Supply Boilers Less than 10 Gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired Water Heaters and Hot Water Supply Boilers Greater than or Equal to 10 Gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric Water Heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat Pump Water Heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unfired Hot Water Storage Tanks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">(C) Commercial Packaged Boilers Validation Classes</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired, Hot Water Only Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired, Steam Only Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired Hot Water/Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired, Hot Water Only Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired, Steam Only Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired Hot Water/Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">(D) Commercial Furnace Validation Classes</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired Furnaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired Furnaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">(E) Commercial Refrigeration Equipment Validation Classes</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained Open Refrigerators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained Open Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing Open Refrigerators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing Open Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained Closed Refrigerators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained Closed Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing Closed Refrigerators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing Closed Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The minimum number of tests indicated above must be comprised of a transparent model, a solid model, a vertical model, a semi-vertical model, a horizontal model, and a service-over-the counter model, as applicable based on the equipment offering. However, manufacturers do not need to include all types of these models if it will increase the minimum number of tests that need to be conducted.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>AEDM records retention requirements.</I> If a manufacturer has used an AEDM to determine representative values pursuant to this section, the manufacturer must have available upon request for inspection by the Department records showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM, including the mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, and/or computer simulation or modeling that is the basis of the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(ii) Product information, complete test data, AEDM calculations, and the statistical comparisons from the units tested that were used to validate the AEDM pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Product information and AEDM calculations for each basic model to which the AEDM has been applied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional AEDM requirements.</I> If requested by the Department and at DOE's discretion, the manufacturer must perform at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct simulations before representatives of the Department to predict the performance of particular basic models of the product to which the AEDM was applied;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct certification testing of basic models selected by the Department.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>AEDM verification testing.</I> DOE may use the test data for a given individual model generated pursuant to § 429.104 to verify the certified rating determined by an AEDM as long as the following process is followed:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Selection of units.</I> DOE will obtain units for test from retail, where available. If units cannot be obtained from retail, DOE will request that a unit be provided by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lab requirements.</I> DOE will conduct testing at an independent, third-party testing facility of its choosing. In cases where no third-party laboratory is capable of testing the equipment, it may be tested at a manufacturer's facility upon DOE's request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Manufacturer participation.</I> (A) Except when testing variable refrigerant flow systems (which are governed by the rules found at § 431.96(f)), testing will be completed without a manufacturer representative on-site. In limited instances further described in paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, a manufacturer and DOE representative may be present to witness the test set-up.
</P>
<P>(B) A manufacturer's representative may request to be on-site to witness the test set-up if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The installation manual for the basic model specifically requires it to be started only by a factory-trained installer; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The manufacturer has elected, as part of the certification of that basic model, to have the opportunity to witness the test set-up. A manufacturer may elect to witness the test set-up for the initial verification test for no more than 10 percent of the manufacturer's basic models submitted for certification and rated with an AEDM per validation class specified in section (c)(2)(iv) of this paragraph. The 10-percent limit applies to all of the eligible basic models submitted for certification by a given manufacturer no matter how many AEDMs a manufacturer has used to develop its ratings. The 10-percent limit is determined by first calculating 10 percent of the total number of basic models rated with an AEDM per validation class, and then truncating the resulting product. Manufacturers who have submitted fewer than 10 basic models rated with an AEDM for certification may elect to have the opportunity to witness the test set-up of one basic model. A manufacturer must identify the basic models it wishes to witness as part of its certification report(s) prior to the basic model being selected for verification testing.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In those instances in which a manufacturer has not provided the required information as specified in § 429.12(b)(13) for a given basic model that has been rated and certified as compliant with the applicable standards, a manufacturer is precluded from witnessing the testing set up for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(C) A DOE representative will be present for the test set-up in all cases where a manufacturer representative requests to be on-site for the test set-up. The manufacturer's representative cannot communicate with a lab representative outside of the DOE representative's presence.
</P>
<P>(D) If DOE has obtained through retail channels a unit for test that meets either of the conditions in paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, DOE will notify the manufacturer that the basic model was selected for testing and that the manufacturer may have a representative present for the test set-up. If the manufacturer does not respond within five calendar days of receipt of that notification, the manufacturer waives the option to be present for test set-up, and DOE will proceed with the test set-up without a manufacturer's representative present.
</P>
<P>(E) If DOE has obtained directly from the manufacturer a unit for test that meets either of the conditions in paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, DOE will notify the manufacturer of the option to be present for the test set-up at the time the unit is purchased. DOE will specify the date (not less than five calendar days) by which the manufacturer must notify DOE whether a manufacturer's representative will be present. If the manufacturer does not notify DOE by the date specified, the manufacturer waives the option to be present for the test set-up, and DOE will proceed with the test set-up without a manufacturer's representative present.
</P>
<P>(F) DOE will review the certification submissions from the manufacturer that were on file as of the date DOE purchased a basic model (under paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(D) of this section) or the date DOE notifies the manufacturer that the basic model has been selected for testing (under paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(E) of this section) to determine if the manufacturer has indicated that it intends to witness the test set-up of the selected basic model. DOE will also verify that the manufacturer has not exceeded the allowable limit of witness testing selections as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section. If DOE discovers that the manufacturer exceeded the limits specified in paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>), DOE will notify the manufacturer of this fact and deny its request to be present for the test set-up of the selected basic model. The manufacturer must update its certification submission to ensure it has not exceeded the allowable limit of witness testing selections as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) to be present at set-up for future selections. At this time DOE will also review the supplemental PDF submission(s) for the selected basic model to determine that all necessary information has been provided to the Department.
</P>
<P>(G) If DOE determines, pursuant to paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section, that the model should be tested at the manufacturer's facility, a DOE representative will be present on site to observe the test set-up and testing with the manufacturer's representative. All testing will be conducted at DOE's direction, which may include DOE-contracted personnel from a third-party lab, as well as the manufacturer's technicians.
</P>
<P>(H) As further explained in paragraph (c)(5)(v)(B) of this section, if a manufacturer's representative is present for the initial test set-up for any reason, the manufacturer forfeits any opportunity to request a retest of the basic model. Furthermore, if the manufacturer requests to be on-site for test set-up pursuant to paragraph (c)(5)(iii)(B) of this section but is not present on site, the manufacturer forfeits any opportunity to request a retest of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Testing.</I> At no time during verification testing may the lab and the manufacturer communicate without DOE authorization. All verification testing will be conducted in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure, as well as each of the following to the extent that they apply:
</P>
<P>(A) Any active test procedure waivers that have been granted for the basic model;
</P>
<P>(B) Any test procedure guidance that has been issued by DOE;
</P>
<P>(C) The installation and operations manual that is shipped with the unit;
</P>
<P>(D) Any additional information that was provided by the manufacturer at the time of certification (prior to DOE obtaining the unit for test); and
</P>
<P>(E) If during test set-up or testing, the lab indicates to DOE that it needs additional information regarding a given basic model in order to test in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure, DOE may organize a meeting between DOE, the manufacturer and the lab to provide such information.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Failure to meet certified rating.</I> If a model tests worse than its certified rating by an amount exceeding the tolerance prescribed in paragraph (c)(5)(vi) of this section, DOE will notify the manufacturer. DOE will provide the manufacturer with all documentation related to the test set up, test conditions, and test results for the unit. Within the timeframe allotted by DOE, the manufacturer may then:
</P>
<P>(A) Present all claims regarding testing validity; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the manufacturer was not on site for the initial test set-up, request a retest of the previously tested unit with manufacturer and DOE representatives on-site for the test set-up. DOE will not conduct the retest using a different unit of the same basic model unless DOE and the manufacturer determine it is necessary based on the test results, claims presented, and DOE regulations.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Tolerances.</I> (A) For consumption metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be less than or equal to the certified rating × (1 + the applicable tolerance).
</P>
<P>(B) For efficiency metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be greater than or equal to the certified rating × (1 − the applicable tolerance).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(5)(<E T="01">vi</E>)(B)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Metric
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applicable


<br/>tolerance
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Combustion Efficiency


<br/>Thermal Efficiency

<br/>Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)


<br/>5% (0.05)

<br/>5% (0.05)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Water Heaters or Hot Water Supply Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standby Loss</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10% (0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unfired Storage Tanks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-Value</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10% (0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled, Split and Packaged ACs and HPs Greater Than or Equal to 65,000 Btu/h Cooling Capacity and Less Than 760,000 Btu/h Cooling Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Efficiency Ratio


<br/>Energy Efficiency Ratio 2

<br/>Coefficient of Performance

<br/>Coefficient of Performance 2

<br/>Integrated Energy Efficiency Ratio

<br/>Integrated Ventilation, Economizing, and Cooling

<br/>Integrated Ventilation and Heating Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)


<br/>5% (0.05)

<br/>5% (0.05)

<br/>5% (0.05)

<br/>10% (0.1)

<br/>10% (0.1)

<br/>10% (0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled, Split and Packaged ACs, All Cooling Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Efficiency Ratio


<br/>Energy Efficiency Ratio 2

<br/>Integrated Energy Efficiency Ratio

<br/>Integrated Ventilation, Economizing, and Cooling</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)


<br/>5% (0.05)

<br/>10% (0.1)

<br/>10% (0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Evaporatively-Cooled, Split and Packaged ACs, All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Efficiency Ratio


<br/>Energy Efficiency Ratio 2

<br/>Integrated Energy Efficiency Ratio

<br/>Integrated Ventilation, Economizing, and Cooling</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)


<br/>5% (0.05)

<br/>10% (0.1)

<br/>10% (0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Source HPs, All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Efficiency Ratio


<br/>Coefficient of Performance

<br/>Integrated Energy Efficiency Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)


<br/>5% (0.05)

<br/>10% (0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single Package Vertical ACs and HPs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Efficiency Ratio


<br/>Coefficient of Performance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)


<br/>5% (0.05)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Packaged Terminal ACs and HPs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Efficiency Ratio


<br/>Coefficient of Performance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)


<br/>5% (0.05)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow ACs and HPs (Excluding Air-Cooled, Three-phase with Less Than 65,000 Btu/h Cooling Capacity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Efficiency Ratio


<br/>Coefficient of Performance

<br/>Integrated Energy Efficiency Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)


<br/>5% (0.05)

<br/>10% (0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Computer Room Air Conditioners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sensible Coefficient of Performance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Integrated Seasonal Coefficient of Performance 2


<br/>Integrated Seasonal Moisture Removal Efficiency 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10% (0.1)


<br/>10% (0.1)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Warm-Air Furnaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Refrigeration Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Daily Energy Consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5% (0.05)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vii) <I>Invalid rating.</I> If, following discussions with the manufacturer and a retest where applicable, DOE determines that the verification testing was conducted appropriately in accordance with the DOE test procedure, DOE will issue a determination that the rating for the model is invalid. The manufacturer must elect, within 15 days, one of the following to be completed in a time frame specified by DOE, which is never to exceed 180 days:
</P>
<P>(A) Re-rate and re-certify the model based on DOE's test data alone; or
</P>
<P>(B) Discontinue the model through the certification process; or
</P>
<P>(C) Conduct additional testing and re-rate and re-certify the basic model based on all test data collected, including DOE's test data.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>AEDM use.</I> (A) If DOE has determined that a manufacturer made invalid ratings on two or more models rated using the same AEDM within a 24 month period, the manufacturer must take the action listed in the table corresponding to the number of invalid certified ratings. The twenty-four month period begins with a DOE determination that a rating is invalid through the process outlined above. Additional invalid ratings apply for the purposes of determining the appropriate consequences if the subsequent determination(s) is based on selection of a unit for testing within the twenty-four month period (i.e., subsequent determinations need not be made within 24 months).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (c)(5)(viii)(A)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of invalid certified ratings from the same AEDM 
<sup>2</sup> within a rolling 24 month period 
<sup>3</sup></TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required manufacturer actions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Submit different test data and reports from testing to validate that AEDM within the validation classes to which it is applied.
<sup>1</sup> Adjust the ratings as appropriate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conduct double the minimum number of validation tests for the validation classes to which the AEDM is applied. Note, the tests required under this paragraph (c)(5)(viii) must be performed on different models than the original tests required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conduct the minimum number of validation tests for the validation classes to which the AEDM is applied at a third-part test facility; And
<br/>Conduct addition testing, which is equal to 
<fr>1/2</fr> the minimum number of validation tests for the validation classes to which the AEDM is applied , at either the manufacturer's facility or a third-party test facility, at the manufacturer's discretion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note, the tests required under this paragraph (c)(5)(viii) must be performed on different models than the original tests performed under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt; = 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manufacturer has lost privilege to use AEDM. All ratings for models within the validation classes to which the AEDM applied should be rated via testing. Distribution cannot continue until certification(s) are corrected to reflect actual test data.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> A manufacturer may discuss with DOE's Office of Enforcement whether existing test data on different basic models within the validation classes to which that specific AEDM was applied may be used to meet this requirement.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The “same AEDM” means a computer simulation or mathematical model that is identified by the manufacturer at the time of certification as having been used to rate a model or group of models.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The twenty-four month period begins with a DOE determination that a rating is invalid through the process outlined above. Additional invalid ratings apply for the purposes of determining the appropriate consequences if the subsequent determination(s) is based on testing of a unit that was selected for testing within the twenty-four month period (i.e., subsequent determinations need not be made within 24 months).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) If, as a result of eight or more invalid ratings, a manufacturer has lost the privilege of using an AEDM for rating, the manufacturer may regain the ability to use an AEDM by:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Investigating and identifying cause(s) for failures;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Taking corrective action to address cause(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performing six new tests per validation class, a minimum of two of which must be performed by an independent, third-party laboratory to validate the AEDM; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Obtaining DOE authorization to resume use of the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method for distribution transformers.</I> A manufacturer may use an AEDM to determine the efficiency of one or more of its untested basic models only if it determines the efficiency of at least five of its other basic models (selected in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section) through actual testing.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> (i) The AEDM has been derived from a mathematical model that represents the electrical characteristics of that basic model;
</P>
<P>(ii) The AEDM is based on engineering and statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytic evaluation of performance data; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has substantiated the AEDM, in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section, by applying it to, and testing, at least five other basic models of the same type, <I>i.e.,</I> low-voltage dry-type distribution transformers, medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformers, or liquid-immersed distribution transformers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Substantiation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must substantiate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Apply the AEDM to at least five of the manufacturer's basic models that have been selected for testing in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section, and calculate the power loss for each of these basic models;
</P>
<P>(ii) Test at least five units of each of these basic models in accordance with the applicable test procedure and § 429.47, and determine the power loss for each of these basic models;
</P>
<P>(iii) The predicted total power loss for each of these basic models, calculated by applying the AEDM pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, must be within plus or minus five percent of the mean total power loss determined from the testing of that basic model pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Calculate for each of these basic models the percentage that its power loss calculated pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section is of its power loss determined from testing pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, compute the average of these percentages, and that calculated average power loss, expressed as a percentage of the average power loss determined from testing, must be no less than 97 percent and no greater than 103 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional testing requirements.</I> (i) A manufacturer must select basic models for testing in accordance with the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Two of the basic models must be among the five basic models with the highest unit volumes of production by the manufacturer in the prior year, or during the prior 12-calendar-month period beginning in 2003,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> whichever is later;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> When identifying these five basic models, any basic model that does not comply with Federal energy conservation standards for distribution transformers that may be in effect shall be excluded from consideration.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) No two basic models should have the same combination of power and voltage ratings; and
</P>
<P>(C) At least one basic model should be single-phase and at least one should be three-phase.
</P>
<P>(ii) In any instance where it is impossible for a manufacturer to select basic models for testing in accordance with all of these criteria, the criteria shall be given priority in the order in which they are listed. Within the limits imposed by the criteria, basic models shall be selected randomly.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subsequent verification of an AEDM.</I> (i) Each manufacturer that has used an AEDM under this section shall have available for inspection by the Department of Energy records showing:
</P>
<P>(A) The method or methods used;
</P>
<P>(B) The mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, and other analytic evaluation of performance data on which the AEDM is based;
</P>
<P>(C) Complete test data, product information, and related information that the manufacturer has generated or acquired pursuant to paragraph (d)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) The calculations used to determine the efficiency and total power losses of each basic model to which the AEDM was applied.
</P>
<P>(ii) If requested by the Department, the manufacturer must perform at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Conduct simulations to predict the performance of particular basic models of distribution transformers specified by the Department;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(C) Conduct sample testing of basic models selected by the Department; or
</P>
<P>(D) Conduct a combination of these.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternate Efficiency Determination Method (AEDM) for central air conditioners and heat pumps.</I> This paragraph (e) sets forth the requirements for a manufacturer to use an AEDM to rate central air conditioners and heat pumps.


</P>
<P>(1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer may not apply an AEDM to an individual model/combination to determine its represented values (EER2, SEER2, HSPF2, SCORE, EER, SHORE and/or P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) pursuant to this section unless authorized pursuant to § 429.16(d) and:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy efficiency or energy consumption characteristics of the individual model or combination (EER2, SEER2, HSPF2, EER, SCORE, SHORE and/or P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section.












</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Follow paragraph (e)(2)(i)(A) of this section for requirements on minimum testing. Follow paragraph (e)(2)(i)(B) of this section for requirements on ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the AEDM.


</P>
<P>(A) <I>Minimum testing.</I> The manufacturer must test each basic model as required under § 429.16(b)(2).






</P>
<P>(B) Using the AEDM, calculate the energy use or efficiency for each of the tested individual models/combinations within each basic model. Compare the represented value based on testing and the AEDM energy use or efficiency output according to paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section. The manufacturer is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the AEDM and that their representations are appropriate and the models being distributed in commerce meet the applicable standards, regardless of the amount of testing required in paragraphs (e)(2)(i)(A) and (e)(2)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Individual model/combination tolerances.</I> This paragraph (e)(2)(ii) provides the tolerances applicable to individual models/combinations rated using an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(A) The predicted represented values for each individual model/combination calculated by applying the AEDM may not be more than four percent greater (for measures of efficiency) or less (for measures of consumption) than the values determined from the corresponding test of the individual model/combination.
</P>
<P>(B) The predicted energy efficiency or consumption for each individual model/combination calculated by applying the AEDM must meet or exceed the applicable federal energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional test unit requirements.</I> (A) Each AEDM must be supported by test data obtained from physical tests of current individual models/combinations; and
</P>
<P>(B) Test results used to validate the AEDM must meet or exceed current, applicable Federal standards as specified in part 430 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(C) Each test must have been performed in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure with which compliance is required at the time the individual models/combinations used for validation are distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>AEDM records retention requirements.</I> If a manufacturer has used an AEDM to determine representative values pursuant to this section, the manufacturer must have available upon request for inspection by the Department records showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM, including the mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, and/or computer simulation or modeling that is the basis of the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(ii) Product information, complete test data, AEDM calculations, and the statistical comparisons from the units tested that were used to validate the AEDM pursuant to paragraph (e)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Product information and AEDM calculations for each individual model/combination to which the AEDM has been applied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional AEDM requirements.</I> If requested by the Department, the manufacturer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct simulations before representatives of the Department to predict the performance of particular individual models/combinations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer; and/or
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct certification testing of individual models or combinations selected by the Department.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>AEDM verification testing.</I> DOE may use the test data for a given individual model/combination generated pursuant to § 429.104 to verify the represented value determined by an AEDM as long as the following process is followed:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Selection of units.</I> DOE will obtain one or more units for test from retail, if available. If units cannot be obtained from retail, DOE will request that a unit be provided by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lab requirements.</I> DOE will conduct testing at an independent, third-party testing facility of its choosing. In cases where no third-party laboratory is capable of testing the equipment, testing may be conducted at a manufacturer's facility upon DOE's request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Testing.</I> At no time during verification testing may the lab and the manufacturer communicate without DOE authorization. If during test set-up or testing, the lab indicates to DOE that it needs additional information regarding a given individual model or combination in order to test in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure, DOE may organize a meeting between DOE, the manufacturer and the lab to provide such information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Failure to meet certified value.</I> If an individual model/combination tests worse than its certified value (<I>i.e.,</I> lower than the certified efficiency value or higher than the certified consumption value) by more than 5 percent, or the test results in cooling capacity that is lower than its certified cooling capacity, DOE will notify the manufacturer. DOE will provide the manufacturer with all documentation related to the test set up, test conditions, and test results for the unit. Within the timeframe allotted by DOE, the manufacturer may present any and all claims regarding testing validity.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Tolerances.</I> This paragraph specifies the tolerances DOE will permit when conducting verification testing.
</P>
<P>(A) For consumption metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be less than or equal to 1.05 multiplied by the certified represented value.
</P>
<P>(B) For efficiency metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be greater than or equal to 0.95 multiplied by the certified represented value.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Invalid represented value.</I> If, following discussions with the manufacturer and a retest where applicable, DOE determines that the verification testing was conducted appropriately in accordance with the DOE test procedure, DOE will issue a determination that the represented values for the basic model are invalid. The manufacturer must conduct additional testing and re-rate and re-certify the individual models/combinations within the basic model that were rated using the AEDM based on all test data collected, including DOE's test data.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>AEDM use.</I> This paragraph (e)(5)(vii) specifies when a manufacturer's use of an AEDM may be restricted due to prior invalid represented values.
</P>
<P>(A) If DOE has determined that a manufacturer made invalid represented values on individual models/combinations within two or more basic models rated using the manufacturer's AEDM within a 24 month period, the manufacturer must test the least efficient and most efficient individual model/combination within each basic model in addition to the individual model/combination specified in § 429.16(b)(2). The twenty-four month period begins with a DOE determination that a represented value is invalid through the process outlined above.
</P>
<P>(B) If DOE has determined that a manufacturer made invalid represented values on more than four basic models rated using the manufacturer's AEDM within a 24-month period, the manufacturer may no longer use an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(C) If a manufacturer has lost the privilege of using an AEDM, the manufacturer may regain the ability to use an AEDM by:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Investigating and identifying cause(s) for failures;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Taking corrective action to address cause(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performing six new tests per basic model, a minimum of two of which must be performed by an independent, third-party laboratory from units obtained from retail to validate the AEDM; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Obtaining DOE authorization to resume use of an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) for walk-in refrigeration systems and doors</I>—

(1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer may not apply an AEDM to a basic model to determine its efficiency pursuant to this section unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy efficiency or energy consumption characteristics of the basic model as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure;
</P>
<P>(ii) The AEDM is based on engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytical evaluation of performance data; and




</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM, in accordance with paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The manufacturer must select at least the minimum number of basic models for each validation class specified in paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section to which the particular AEDM applies. Test a single unit of each basic model in accordance with paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section. Using the AEDM, calculate the energy use or energy efficiency for each of the selected basic models. Compare the results from the single unit test and the AEDM output according to paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section. The manufacturer is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and repeatability of the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Individual model tolerances.</I> 
</P>
<P>(A) For refrigeration systems, which are subject to an energy efficiency metric, the predicted efficiency for each model calculated by applying the AEDM may not be more than five percent greater than the efficiency determined from the corresponding test of the model.
</P>
<P>(B) For doors, which are subject to an energy consumption metric the predicted daily energy consumption for each model calculated by applying the AEDM may not be more than five percent less than the daily energy consumption determined from the corresponding test of the model.


</P>
<P>(C) The predicted energy efficiency or energy consumption for each model calculated by applying the AEDM must meet or exceed the applicable federal energy conservation standard.


</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional test unit requirements.</I> (A) Each AEDM must be supported by test data obtained from physical tests of current models; and
</P>
<P>(B) Test results used to validate the AEDM must meet or exceed current, applicable Federal standards as specified in part 431 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(C) Each test must have been performed in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure with which compliance is required at the time the basic model is distributed in commerce; and
</P>
<P>(D) For rating WICF refrigeration system components, an AEDM may not simulate or model portions of the system that are not required to be tested by the DOE test procedure. That is, if the test results used to validate the AEDM are for either a unit cooler only or a condensing unit only, the AEDM must estimate the system rating using the nominal values specified in the DOE test procedure for the other part of the refrigeration system.


</P>
<P>(E) For rating doors, an AEDM may not simulate or model components of the door that are not required to be tested by the DOE test procedure. That is, if the test results used to validate the AEDM are for the U-factor test of the door, the AEDM must estimate the daily energy consumption, specifically the conduction thermal load, and the direct and indirect electrical energy consumption, using the nominal values and calculation procedure specified in the DOE test procedure.






</P>
<P>(iv) <I>WICF validation classes</I>—(A) <I>Doors.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph <E T="01">(f)(2)(iv)(A)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of distinct models that must be tested
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Display Doors, Medium Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Display Doors, Low Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-display Doors, Medium Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-display Doors, Low Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) <I>Refrigeration systems.</I> (<I>1</I>) For representations made prior to the compliance date of revised energy conservation standards for walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems, use the following validation classes.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph <E T="01">(f)(2)(iv)(B)</E>(<E T="03">1</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of distinct models that must be tested
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing, Medium Temperature, Matched Pair Indoor System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing, Medium Temperature, Matched Pair Outdoor System 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing, Low Temperature, Matched Pair Indoor System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing, Low Temperature, Matched Pair Outdoor System 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Cooler, High-temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Cooler, Medium Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Cooler, Low Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium Temperature, Indoor Condensing Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium Temperature, Outdoor Condensing Unit 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Temperature, Indoor Condensing Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Temperature, Outdoor Condensing Unit 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> AEDMs validated for an outdoor class by testing only outdoor models of that class may be used to determine representative values for the corresponding indoor class, and additional validation testing is not required. AEDMs validated only for a given indoor class by testing indoor models or a mix of indoor and outdoor models may not be used to determine representative values for the corresponding outdoor class.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For representations made on or after the compliance date of revised energy conservation standards for walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems, use the following validation classes.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph <E T="01">(f)(2)(iv)(B)</E>(<E T="03">2</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of distinct models that must be tested
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing Unit, Medium Temperature, Indoor System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing Unit, Medium Temperature, Outdoor System 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing Unit, Low Temperature, Indoor System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing Unit, Low Temperature, Outdoor System 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-packaged Dedicated Condensing, High-temperature, Indoor System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-packaged Dedicated Condensing, High-temperature, Outdoor System 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-packaged Dedicated Condensing, Medium Temperature, Indoor System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-packaged Dedicated Condensing, Medium Temperature, Outdoor System 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-packaged Dedicated Condensing, Low Temperature, Indoor System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single-packaged Dedicated Condensing, Low Temperature, Indoor System 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matched Pair, High-temperature, Indoor Condensing Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matched Pair, High-temperature, Outdoor Condensing Unit 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matched Pair, Medium Temperature, Indoor Condensing Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matched Pair, Medium Temperature, Outdoor Condensing Unit 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matched Pair, Low Temperature, Indoor Condensing Unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Matched Pair, Low Temperature, Outdoor Condensing Unit 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Cooler, High-temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Cooler, Medium Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Cooler, Low Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> AEDMs validated for an outdoor class by testing only outdoor models of that class may be used to determine representative values for the corresponding indoor class, and additional validation testing is not required. AEDMs validated only for a given indoor class by testing indoor models or a mix of indoor and outdoor models may not be used to determine representative values for the corresponding outdoor class.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>AEDM records retention requirements.</I> If a manufacturer has used an AEDM to determine representative values pursuant to this section, the manufacturer must have available upon request for inspection by the Department records showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM, including the mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, and/or computer simulation or modeling that is the basis of the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment information, complete test data, AEDM calculations, and the statistical comparisons from the units tested that were used to validate the AEDM pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment information and AEDM calculations for each basic model to which the AEDM has been applied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional AEDM requirements.</I> If requested by the Department the manufacturer must perform at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct simulations before representatives of the Department to predict the performance of particular basic models of the product to which the AEDM was applied;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct certification testing of basic models selected by the Department.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>AEDM verification testing.</I> DOE may use the test data for a given individual model generated pursuant to § 429.104 to verify the certified rating determined by an AEDM as long as the following process is followed:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Selection of units.</I> DOE will obtain units for test from retail, where available. If units cannot be obtained from retail, DOE will request that a unit be provided by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lab requirements.</I> DOE will conduct testing at an independent, third-party testing facility of its choosing. In cases where no third-party laboratory is capable of testing the equipment, it may be tested at a manufacturer's facility upon DOE's request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Manufacturer participation.</I> Testing will be performed without manufacturer representatives on-site.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Testing.</I> All verification testing will be conducted in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure, as well as each of the following to the extent that they apply:
</P>
<P>(A) Any active test procedure waivers that have been granted for the basic model;
</P>
<P>(B) Any test procedure guidance that has been issued by DOE;
</P>
<P>(C) If during test set-up or testing, the lab indicates to DOE that it needs additional information regarding a given basic model in order to test in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure, DOE may organize a meeting between DOE, the manufacturer and the lab to provide such information.
</P>
<P>(D) At no time during the process may the lab communicate directly with the manufacturer without DOE present.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Failure to meet certified rating.</I> If a model tests worse than its certified rating by an amount exceeding the tolerance prescribed in paragraph (f)(5)(vi) of this section, DOE will notify the manufacturer. DOE will provide the manufacturer with all documentation related to the test set up, test conditions, and test results for the unit. Within the timeframe allotted by DOE, the manufacturer may then present all claims regarding testing validity.


</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Tolerances.</I> For efficiency metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be greater than or equal to the certified rating × (1−the applicable tolerance). For energy consumption metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be less than or equal to the certified rating × (1 + the applicable tolerance).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Paragraph (f)(5)(vi)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Metric
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applicable


<br/>tolerance

<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration systems (including components)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AWEF/AWEF2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Daily Energy Consumption</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vii) <I>Invalid rating.</I> If, following discussions with the manufacturer and a retest where applicable, DOE determines that the testing was conducted appropriately in accordance with the DOE test procedure, the rating for the model will be considered invalid. Pursuant to 10 CFR 429.13(b), DOE may require a manufacturer to conduct additional testing as a remedial measure.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Alternative determination of ratings for untested basic models of residential water heaters and residential-duty commercial water heaters.</I> For models of water heaters that differ only in fuel type or power input, ratings for untested basic models may be established in accordance with the following procedures in lieu of testing. This method allows only for the use of ratings identical to those of a tested basic model as provided below; simulations or other modeling predictions for ratings of the uniform energy factor, volume, first-hour rating, or maximum gallons per minute (GPM) are not permitted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Gas Water Heaters.</I> For untested basic models of gas-fired water heaters that differ from tested basic models only in whether the basic models use natural gas or propane gas, the represented value of uniform energy factor, first-hour rating, and maximum gallons per minute for an untested basic model is the same as that for a tested basic model, as long as the input ratings of the tested and untested basic models are within ±10%, that is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11jy14.066.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Electric Storage Water Heaters.</I> Rate an untested basic model of an electric storage-type water heater using the first-hour rating or maximum GPM (whichever is applicable under section 5.3.1 of appendix E to subpart B of this part) and uniform energy factor obtained from a tested basic model as the basis for ratings of basic models with other input ratings, provided that certain conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) For an untested basic model, the represented value of the first-hour rating or maximum GPM and the uniform energy factor is the same as that of a tested basic model, provided that each heating element of the untested basic model is rated at or above the input rating for the corresponding heating element of the tested basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an untested basic model having any heating element with an input rating that is lower than that of the corresponding heating element in the tested basic model, the represented value of the first-hour rating or maximum GPM and the uniform energy factor is the same as that of a tested basic model, provided that the first-hour rating for the untested basic model results in the same draw pattern specified in Table I of appendix E for the simulated-use test as was applied to the tested basic model. To establish whether this condition is met, determine the first-hour ratings or maximum GPMs for the tested and the untested basic models in accordance with the procedure described in section 5.3 of 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, appendix E, then compare the appropriate draw pattern specified in Table I of appendix E for the first-hour rating of the tested basic model with that for the untested basic model. If this condition is not met, then the untested basic model must be tested, and the appropriate sampling provisions must be applied to determine its uniform energy factor in accordance with appendix E and this part.








</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electric Instantaneous Water Heaters.</I> Rate an untested basic model of an electric instantaneous-type water heater using the first-hour rating or maximum GPM and the uniform energy factor obtained from a tested basic model as a basis for ratings of basic models with other input ratings, provided that certain conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) For an untested basic model, the represented value of the first-hour rating or maximum GPM and the uniform energy factor is the same as that of a tested basic model, provided that the untested basic model's input is rated at or above the input rating for the corresponding tested basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an untested basic model having an input rating that is lower than that of the corresponding tested basic model, the represented value of the first-hour rating or maximum GPM and the uniform energy factor is the same as that of a tested basic model, provided that the first-hour rating or maximum GPM for the untested basic model results in the same draw pattern specified in Table II of appendix E for the 24-hour simulated-use test as was applied to the tested basic model. To establish whether this condition is met, determine the first-hour rating or maximum GPM for the tested and the untested basic models in accordance with the procedure described in section 5.3 of 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, appendix E, then compare the appropriate draw pattern specified in Table II of appendix E for the first-hour rating or maximum GPM of the tested basic model with that for the untested basic model. If this condition is not met, then the untested basic model must be tested, and the appropriate sampling provisions must be applied to determine its uniform energy factor in accordance with appendix E and this part.


</P>
<P>(h) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) for compressors</I>—(1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer may not apply an AEDM to a basic model to determine its efficiency pursuant to this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy efficiency or energy consumption characteristics of the basic model as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure;
</P>
<P>(ii) The AEDM is based on engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytic evaluation of performance data; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM, in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>AEDM overview.</I> The manufacturer must select at least the minimum number of basic models for each validation class specified in paragraph (h)(2)(iv) of this section to which the particular AEDM applies. Using the AEDM, calculate the energy use or energy efficiency for each of the selected basic models. Test each basic model and determine the represented value(s) in accordance with § 429.63(a). Compare the results from the testing and the AEDM output according to paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section. The manufacturer is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and repeatability of the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>AEDM basic model tolerances.</I> (A) The predicted representative values for each basic model calculated by applying the AEDM may not be more than five percent greater (for measures of efficiency) or less (for measures of consumption) than the represented values determined from the corresponding test of the model.
</P>
<P>(B) The predicted package isentropic efficiency for each basic model calculated by applying the AEDM must meet or exceed the applicable federal energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional test unit requirements.</I> (A) Each AEDM must be supported by test data obtained from physical tests of current models; and
</P>
<P>(B) Test results used to validate the AEDM must meet or exceed current, applicable Federal standards as specified in part 431 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(C) Each test must have been performed in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure with which compliance is required at the time the basic models used for validation are distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Compressor validation classes.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to Paragraph (h)(2)(iv)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of distinct basic models that must be tested
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rotary, Fixed-speed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rotary, Variable-speed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>AEDM Records Retention Requirements.</I> If a manufacturer has used an AEDM to determine representative values pursuant to this section, the manufacturer must have available upon request for inspection by the Department records showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM, including the mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, and/or computer simulation or modeling that is the basis of the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(ii) Equipment information, complete test data, AEDM calculations, and the statistical comparisons from the units tested that were used to validate the AEDM pursuant to paragraph (h)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Equipment information and AEDM calculations for each basic model to which the AEDM was applied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional AEDM requirements.</I> If requested by the Department, the manufacturer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct simulations before representatives of the Department to predict the performance of particular basic models of the equipment to which the AEDM was applied;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer; and/or
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct certification testing of basic models selected by the Department.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Alternative determination of standby mode and off mode power consumption for untested basic models of consumer furnaces and consumer boilers.</I> For models of consumer furnaces or consumer boilers that have identical standby mode and off mode power consuming components, ratings for untested basic models may be established in accordance with the following procedures in lieu of testing. This method allows only for the use of ratings identical to those of a tested basic model as provided in paragraphs (i)(1) and (2) of this section; simulations or other modeling predictions for ratings for standby mode power consumption and off mode power consumption are not permitted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consumer furnaces.</I> Rate the standby mode and off mode power consumption of an untested basic model of a consumer furnace using the standby mode and off mode power consumption obtained from a tested basic model as a basis for ratings if all aspects of the electrical components, controls, and design that impact the standby mode power consumption and off mode power consumption are identical.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer boilers.</I> Rate the standby mode and off mode power consumption of an untested basic model of a consumer boiler using the standby mode and off mode power consumption obtained from a tested basic model as a basis for ratings if all aspects of the electrical components, controls, and design that impact the standby mode power consumption and off mode power consumption are identical.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) for electric motors subject to requirements in subpart B of part 431 of this subchapter</I>—(1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer is not permitted to apply an AEDM to a basic model of electric motor to determine its efficiency pursuant to this section unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy efficiency characteristics and losses of the basic model as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure and accurately represents the mechanical and electrical characteristics of that basic model; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The AEDM is based on engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytic evaluation of actual performance data.
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM in accordance with paragraph (i)(2) of this section with basic models that meet the current Federal energy conservation standards (if any).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability by comparing the simulated full-load losses to tested average full-load losses as follows.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Select basic models.</I> A manufacturer must select at least five basic models compliant with the energy conservation standards at § 431.25 of this subchapter (if any), in accordance with the criteria paragraphs (i)(2)(i)(A) through (D) of this section. In any instance where it is impossible for a manufacturer to select basic models for testing in accordance with all of these criteria, prioritize the criteria in the order in which they are listed. Within the limits imposed by the criteria, select basic models randomly. In addition, a basic model with a sample size of fewer than five units may not be selected to validate an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(A) Two of the basic models must be among the five basic models with the highest unit volumes of production by the manufacturer in the prior 5 years;
</P>
<P>(B) No two basic models may have the same horsepower rating;
</P>
<P>(C) No two basic models may have the same frame number series; and
</P>
<P>(D) Each basic model must have the lowest nominal full-load efficiency among the basic models within the same equipment class.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Apply the AEDM to the selected basic models.</I> Using the AEDM, calculate the simulated full-load losses for each of the selected basic models as follows: hp × (1/simulated full-load efficiency−1), where hp is the horsepower of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Test at least five units of each of the selected basic models in accordance with § 431.16 of this subchapter.</I> Use the measured full-load losses for each of the tested units to determine the average of the measured full-load losses for each of the selected basic models.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Compare.</I> The simulated full-load losses for each basic model (as determined under paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section) must be greater than or equal to 90 percent of the average of the measured full-load losses (as determined under paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section) (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.90 × average of the measured full-load losses ≤ simulated full-load losses).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of an AEDM.</I> (i) Each manufacturer must periodically select basic models representative of those to which it has applied an AEDM. The manufacturer must select a sufficient number of basic models to ensure the AEDM maintains its accuracy and reliability. For each basic model selected for verification:
</P>
<P>(A) Subject at least one unit for each basic model to test in accordance with § 431.16 of this subchapter by an accredited laboratory that meets the requirements of § 429.65(f). If one unit per basic model is selected, the simulated full-load losses for each basic model must be greater than or equal to 90 percent of the measured full-load losses (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.90 × the measured full-load losses ≤ simulated full-load losses). If more than one unit per basic model is selected, the simulated full-load losses for each basic model must be greater than or equal to 90 percent of the average of the measured full-load losses (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.90 × average of the measured full-load losses ≤ simulated full-load losses); or
</P>
<P>(B) Have a certification body recognized under § 429.73 certify the results of the AEDM as accurately representing the basic model's average full-load efficiency. The simulated full-load efficiency for each basic model must be greater than or equal to 90 percent of the certified full-load losses (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.90 × certified full-load losses ≤ simulated full-load losses).
</P>
<P>(ii) Each manufacturer that has used an AEDM under this section must have available for inspection by the Department of Energy records showing:
</P>
<P>(A) The method or methods used to develop the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(B) The mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, and other analytic evaluation of performance data on which the AEDM is based;
</P>
<P>(C) Complete test data, product information, and related information that the manufacturer has generated or acquired pursuant to paragraphs (i)(2) and (3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) The calculations used to determine the simulated full-load efficiency of each basic model to which the AEDM was applied.
</P>
<P>(iii) If requested by the Department, the manufacturer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Conduct simulations to predict the performance of particular basic models of electric motors specified by the Department;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer; and/or
</P>
<P>(C) Conduct testing of basic models selected by the Department.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) for dedicated-purpose pool pump motors subject to requirements in subpart Z of part 431 of this subchapter</I>—(1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer is not permitted to apply an AEDM to a basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump motors, to determine its efficiency pursuant to this section unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy efficiency characteristics and losses of the basic model as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure and accurately represents the mechanical and electrical characteristics of that basic model;
</P>
<P>(ii) The AEDM is based on engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytic evaluation of actual performance data; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM in accordance with paragraph (i)(2) of this section with basic models that meet the current Federal energy conservation standards (if any).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability by comparing the simulated full-load losses to tested full-load losses as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Select basic models.</I> A manufacturer must select at least five basic models compliant with any relevant energy conservation standards at § 431.485 of this subchapter (if any), in accordance with the criteria paragraphs (j)(2)(i)(A) through (D) of this section. In any instance where it is impossible for a manufacturer to select basic models for testing in accordance with all of these criteria, prioritize the criteria in the order in which they are listed. Within the limits imposed by the criteria, select basic models randomly. In addition, a basic model with a sample size of fewer than five units may not be selected to validate an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(A) Two of the basic models must be among the five basic models with the highest unit volumes of production by the manufacturer in the prior 5 years.
</P>
<P>(B) No two basic models may have the same total horsepower rating;
</P>
<P>(C) No two basic models may have the same speed configuration; and
</P>
<P>(D) Each basic model must have the lowest full-load efficiency among the basic models within the same equipment class.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Apply the AEDM</I> to the selected basic models. Using the AEDM, calculate the simulated full-load losses for each of the selected basic models as follows: THP × (1/simulated full-load efficiency−1), where THP is the total horsepower of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Test at least five units of each of the selected basic models in accordance with § 431.483 of this subchapter.</I> Use the measured full-load losses for each of the tested units to determine the average of the measured full-load losses for each of the selected basic models.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Compare.</I> The simulated full-load losses for each basic model (paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section) must be greater than or equal to 90 percent of the average of the measured full-load losses (paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section) (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.90 × average of the measured full-load losses ≤ simulated full-load losses).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of an AEDM.</I> (i) Each manufacturer must periodically select basic models representative of those to which it has applied an AEDM. The manufacturer must select a sufficient number of basic models to ensure the AEDM maintains its accuracy and reliability. For each basic model selected for verification:
</P>
<P>(A) Subject at least one unit to testing in accordance with § 431.483 of this subchapter by an accredited laboratory that meets the requirements of § 429.65(d). If one unit per basic model is selected, the simulated full-load losses for each basic model must be greater than or equal to 90 percent of the measured full-load losses (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.90 × the measured full-load losses ≤ simulated full-load losses). If more than one unit per basic model is selected, the simulated full-load losses for each basic model must be greater than or equal to 90 percent of the average measured full-load losses (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.90 × average of the measured full-load losses ≤ simulated full-load losses); or
</P>
<P>(B) Have a certification body recognized under § 429.73 certify the results of the AEDM accurately represent the basic model's full-load efficiency. The simulated full-load efficiency for each basic model must be greater than or equal to 90 percent of the certified full-load losses (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.90 × certified full-load losses ≤ simulated full-load losses).
</P>
<P>(ii) Each manufacturer that has used an AEDM under this section must have available for inspection by the Department of Energy records showing:
</P>
<P>(A) The method or methods used to develop the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(B) The mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, and other analytic evaluation of performance data on which the AEDM is based;
</P>
<P>(C) Complete test data, product information, and related information that the manufacturer has generated or acquired pursuant to paragraphs (i)(2) and (3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) The calculations used to determine the simulated full-load efficiency of each basic model to which the AEDM was applied.
</P>
<P>(iii) If requested by the Department, the manufacturer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Conduct simulations to predict the performance of particular basic models of dedicated-purpose pool pump motors specified by the Department;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(C) Conduct testing of basic models selected by the Department; or
</P>
<P>(D) A combination of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Alternate Efficiency Determination Method (AEDM) for air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with less than 65,000 Btu/h cooling capacity</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> (i) For air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h subject to standards in terms of seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER) and heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF), representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency, including compliance certifications, are subject to the requirements in § 429.70(c) of this title as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(ii) For air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h subject to standards in terms of seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2) and heating seasonal performance factor 2 (HSPF2) metrics, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency, including compliance certifications, are subject to the requirements in this section. If manufacturers choose to certify compliance with any standards in terms of SEER2 and HSPF2 prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards, the requirements of this section must be followed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer may not apply an AEDM to an individual model/combination to determine its represented values (SEER2 and HSPF2, as applicable) pursuant to this section unless authorized pursuant to § 429.67(e) and:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy efficiency or energy consumption characteristics of the individual model or combination (SEER2 and HSPF2, as applicable) as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM in accordance with paragraph (i)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> For manufacturers whose models of air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h or air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h are otherwise identical to their central air conditioner and heat pump models (meaning differing only in phase or voltage of the electrical system and the phase or voltage of power input for which the motors and compressors are designed) and who have validated an AEDM for the otherwise identical central air conditioners and heat pumps under § 429.70(e)(2), no additional validation is required. For manufacturers whose models of air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h or air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h who have not validated an AEDM for otherwise identical central air conditioners and heat pumps under § 429.70(e)(2) must, before using an AEDM, validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Minimum testing.</I> The manufacturer must test a single unit each of two basic models in accordance with paragraph (i)(3)(iii) of this section. Using the AEDM, calculate the energy use or efficiency for each of the tested individual models/combinations within each basic model. Compare the represented value based on testing and the AEDM energy use or efficiency output according to paragraph (i)(3)(ii) of this section. The manufacturer is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the AEDM and that their representations are appropriate and the models being distributed in commerce meet the applicable standards, regardless of the amount of testing required in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Individual model/combination tolerances.</I> This paragraph (i)(3)(ii) provides the tolerances applicable to individual models/combinations rated using an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(A) The predicted represented values for each individual model/combination calculated by applying the AEDM may not be more than four percent greater (for measures of efficiency) or less (for measures of consumption) than the values determined from the corresponding test of the individual model/combination.
</P>
<P>(B) The predicted energy efficiency or consumption for each individual model/combination calculated by applying the AEDM must meet or exceed the applicable federal energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional test unit requirements.</I> (A) Each AEDM must be supported by test data obtained from physical tests of current individual models/combinations; and
</P>
<P>(B) Test results used to validate the AEDM must meet or exceed current, applicable Federal standards as specified in part 431 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(C) Each test must have been performed in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure with which compliance is required at the time the individual models/combinations used for validation are distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>AEDM records retention requirements.</I> If a manufacturer has used an AEDM to determine representative values pursuant to this section, the manufacturer must have available upon request for inspection by the Department records showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM, including the mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, and/or computer simulation or modeling that is the basis of the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(ii) Product information, complete test data, AEDM calculations, and the statistical comparisons from the units tested that were used to validate the AEDM pursuant to paragraph (i)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Product information and AEDM calculations for each individual model/combination to which the AEDM has been applied.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional AEDM requirements.</I> If requested by the Department, the manufacturer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct simulations before representatives of the Department to predict the performance of particular individual models/combinations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer; and/or
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct certification testing of individual models or combinations selected by the Department.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>AEDM verification testing.</I> DOE may use the test data for a given individual model/combination generated pursuant to § 429.104 to verify the represented value determined by an AEDM as long as the following process is followed:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Selection of units.</I> DOE will obtain one or more units for test from retail, if available. If units cannot be obtained from retail, DOE will request that a unit be provided by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lab requirements.</I> DOE will conduct testing at an independent, third-party testing facility of its choosing. In cases where no third-party laboratory is capable of testing the equipment, testing may be conducted at a manufacturer's facility upon DOE's request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Testing.</I> At no time during verification testing may the lab and the manufacturer communicate without DOE authorization. If, during test set-up or testing, the lab indicates to DOE that it needs additional information regarding a given individual model or combination in order to test in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure, DOE may organize a meeting between DOE, the manufacturer, and the lab to provide such information.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Failure to meet certified value.</I> If an individual model/combination tests worse than its certified value (<I>i.e.,</I> lower than the certified efficiency value or higher than the certified consumption value) by more than 5 percent, or the test results in cooling capacity that is lower than its certified cooling capacity, DOE will notify the manufacturer. DOE will provide the manufacturer with all documentation related to the test set up, test conditions, and test results for the unit. Within the timeframe allotted by DOE, the manufacturer may present any and all claims regarding testing validity.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Tolerances.</I> This paragraph specifies the tolerances DOE will permit when conducting verification testing.
</P>
<P>(A) For consumption metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be less than or equal to 1.05 multiplied by the certified represented value.
</P>
<P>(B) For efficiency metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be greater than or equal to 0.95 multiplied by the certified represented value.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Invalid represented value.</I> If, following discussions with the manufacturer and a retest where applicable, DOE determines that the verification testing was conducted appropriately in accordance with the DOE test procedure, DOE will issue a determination that the represented values for the basic model are invalid. The manufacturer must conduct additional testing and re-rate and re-certify the individual models/combinations within the basic model that were rated using the AEDM based on all test data collected, including DOE's test data.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>AEDM use.</I> This paragraph (i)(6)(vii) specifies when a manufacturer's use of an AEDM may be restricted due to prior invalid represented values.
</P>
<P>(A) If DOE has determined that a manufacturer made invalid represented values on individual models/combinations within two or more basic models rated using the manufacturer's AEDM within a 24-month period, the manufacturer must test the least efficient and most efficient individual model/combination within each basic model in addition to the individual model/combination specified in § 429.16(b)(2). The 24-month period begins with a DOE determination that a represented value is invalid through the process outlined in paragraphs (i)(6)(i) through (vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If DOE has determined that a manufacturer made invalid represented values on more than four basic models rated using the manufacturer's AEDM within a 24-month period, the manufacturer may no longer use an AEDM.
</P>
<P>(C) If a manufacturer has lost the privilege of using an AEDM, the manufacturer may regain the ability to use an AEDM by:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Investigating and identifying cause(s) for failures;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Taking corrective action to address cause(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performing six new tests per basic model, a minimum of two of which must be performed by an independent, third-party laboratory from units obtained from retail to validate the AEDM; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Obtaining DOE authorization to resume use of an AEDM.


</P>
<P>(m) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) for general pumps</I>—(1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer may not apply an AEDM to a basic model to determine its efficiency pursuant to this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy efficiency or energy consumption characteristics of the basic model as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure;
</P>
<P>(ii) The AEDM is based on engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytic evaluation of performance data; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM, in accordance with paragraph (m)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>AEDM overview.</I> The manufacturer must select at least the minimum number of basic models for each validation class specified in paragraph (m)(2)(iv) of this section to which the particular AEDM applies. Using the AEDM, calculate the PEI for each of the selected basic models. Test each basic model and determine the represented value(s) in accordance with § 429.63(a). Compare the results from the testing and the AEDM output according to paragraph (m)(2)(ii) of this section. The manufacturer is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and repeatability of the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>AEDM basic model tolerances.</I> (A) The predicted representative PEI for each basic model calculated by applying the AEDM may not be more than five percent less than the represented PEI determined from the corresponding test of the model.
</P>
<P>(B) The predicted constant or variable load pump energy index for each basic model calculated by applying the AEDM must meet or exceed the applicable federal energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional test unit requirements.</I> (A) Each AEDM must be supported by test data obtained from physical tests of current models; and
</P>
<P>(B) Test results used to validate the AEDM must meet or exceed current, applicable Federal standards as specified in part 431 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(C) Each test must have been performed in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure with which compliance is required at the time the basic models used for validation are distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Pump validation classes.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum number of distinct basic models that must be tested
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Constant Load End-suction Closed-Coupled Pumps and Constant Load End-suction Frame-Mounted Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Variable Load End-suction Closed-Coupled Pumps and Variable Load End-suction Frame-Mounted Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Constant Load Inline Pumps and Constant Load Small Vertical Inline Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Variable Load Inline Pumps and Variable Load Small Vertical Inline Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) Constant Load Radially-Split Multi-Stage Vertical Pumps and Constant Load Radially-Split Multi-Stage Horizonal Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(F) Variable Load Radially-Split Multi-Stage Vertical Pumps and Variable Load Radially-Split Multi-Stage Horizontal Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(G) Constant Load Submersible Turbine Pumps and Constant Load Vertical Turbine Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(H) Variable Load Submersible Turbine Pumps and Variable Load Vertical Turbine Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 Basic Models.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>AEDM records retention requirements.</I> If a manufacturer has used an AEDM to determine representative values pursuant to this section, the manufacturer must have available upon request for inspection by the Department records showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM, including the mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, and/or computer simulation or modeling that is the basis of the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(ii) Regarding the units tested that were used to validate the AEDM pursuant to paragraph (m)(2) of this section, equipment information, complete test data, AEDM calculations, and the statistical comparisons; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For each basic model to which the AEDM was applied, equipment information and AEDM calculations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional AEDM requirements.</I> If requested by the Department, the manufacturer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct simulations before representatives of the Department to predict the performance of particular basic models of the equipment to which the AEDM was applied;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer; and/or
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct certification testing of basic models selected by the Department.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>AEDM verification testing.</I> DOE may use the test data for a given individual model generated pursuant to § 429.104 to verify the certified rating determined by an AEDM as long as the following process is followed:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Selection of units.</I> DOE will obtain units for test from retail, where available. If units cannot be obtained from retail, DOE will request that a unit be provided by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lab requirements.</I> DOE will conduct testing at an independent, third-party testing facility of its choosing. In cases where no third-party laboratory is capable of testing the equipment, it may be tested at a manufacturer's facility upon DOE's request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Manufacturer participation.</I> Testing will be performed without manufacturer representatives on-site.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Testing.</I> All verification testing will be conducted in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure, as well as each of the following to the extent that they apply:
</P>
<P>(A) Any active test procedure waivers that have been granted for the basic model;
</P>
<P>(B) Any test procedure guidance that has been issued by DOE;
</P>
<P>(C) If during test set-up or testing, the lab indicates to DOE that it needs additional information regarding a given basic model in order to test in accordance with the applicable DOE test procedure, DOE may organize a meeting between DOE, the manufacturer and the lab to provide such information.
</P>
<P>(D) At no time during the process may the lab communicate directly with the manufacturer without DOE present.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Failure to meet certified rating.</I> If a model's test results are worse than its certified rating by an amount exceeding the tolerance prescribed in paragraph (f)(5)(vi) of this section, DOE will notify the manufacturer. DOE will provide the manufacturer with all documentation related to the test set up, test conditions, and test results for the unit. Within the timeframe allotted by DOE, the manufacturer may then present all claims regarding testing validity.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Tolerances.</I> For consumption metrics, the result from a DOE verification test must be less than or equal to the certified rating × (1 + the applicable tolerance).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Paragraph (<E T="01">m</E>)(5)(<E T="01">vi</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Metric
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applicable


<br/>tolerance

<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Constant or Variable Load Pump Energy Index</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vii) <I>Invalid rating.</I> If, following discussions with the manufacturer and a retest where applicable, DOE determines that the testing was conducted appropriately in accordance with the DOE test procedure, the rating for the model will be considered invalid. The manufacturer must conduct additional testing and re-rate and re-certify the basic models that were rated using the AEDM based on all test data collected, including DOE's test data.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>AEDM use.</I> This paragraph (m)(5)(viii) specifies when a manufacturer's use of an AEDM may be restricted due to prior invalid represented values.
</P>
<P>(A) If DOE has determined that a manufacturer made invalid ratings on two or more models rated using the same AEDM within a 24-month period, the manufacturer must take the action listed in the table corresponding to the number of invalid certified ratings. The twenty-four month period begins with a DOE determination that a rating is invalid through the process outlined previously. Additional invalid ratings apply for the purposes of determining the appropriate consequences if the subsequent determination(s) is based on selection of a unit for testing within the twenty-four-month period (<I>i.e.,</I> subsequent determinations need not be made within 24 months).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Paragraph (<E T="01">m</E>)(5)(<E T="01">viii</E>)(A)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of invalid certified ratings from the same AEDM 
<sup>1</sup> within a


<br/>rolling 24-month period 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required manufacturer actions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Submit different test data and reports from testing to validate that AEDM within the validation classes to which it is applied.
<sup>3</sup> Adjust the ratings as appropriate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conduct double the minimum number of validation tests for the validation classes to which the AEDM is applied. Note, the tests required under this paragraph (m)(5)(viii) must be performed on different models than the original tests required under paragraph (m)(2) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conduct the minimum number of validation tests for the validation classes to which the AEDM is applied at a third-party test facility; And
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conduct additional testing, which is equal to 
<fr>1/2</fr> the minimum number of validation tests for the validation classes to which the AEDM is applied, at either the manufacturer's facility or a third-party test facility, at the manufacturer's discretion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note, the tests required under this paragraph (m)(5)(viii) must be performed on different models than the original tests performed under paragraph (m)(2) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt; = 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manufacturer has lost privilege to use AEDM. All ratings for models within the validation classes to which the AEDM applied should be rated via testing. Distribution cannot continue until certification(s) are corrected to reflect actual test data.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The “same AEDM” means a computer simulation or mathematical model that is identified by the manufacturer at the time of certification as having been used to rate a model or group of models.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The twenty-four month period begins with a DOE determination that a rating is invalid through the process outlined above. Additional invalid ratings apply for the purposes of determining the appropriate consequences if the subsequent determination(s) is based on testing of a unit that was selected for testing within the twenty-four month period (i.e., subsequent determinations need not be made within 24 months).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A manufacturer may discuss with DOE's Office of Enforcement whether existing test data on different basic models within the validation classes to which that specific AEDM was applied may be used to meet this requirement.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) If, as a result of eight or more invalid ratings, a manufacturer has lost the privilege of using an AEDM for rating, the manufacturer may regain the ability to use an AEDM by:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Investigating and identifying cause(s) for failures;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Taking corrective action to address cause(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performing six new tests per validation class, a minimum of two of which must be performed by an independent, third-party laboratory to validate the AEDM; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Obtaining DOE authorization to resume use of the AEDM.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) for fans and blowers.</I> (1) <I>Criteria an AEDM must satisfy.</I> A manufacturer is not permitted to apply an AEDM to a basic model of fan or blower to determine represented values pursuant to this section unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM is derived from a mathematical model that estimates the energy use characteristics of the basic model as measured by the applicable DOE test procedure and accurately represents the performance characteristics of that basic model;
</P>
<P>(ii) The AEDM is based on engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytic evaluation of actual performance data; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The manufacturer has validated the AEDM in accordance with paragraph (n)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation of an AEDM.</I> Before using an AEDM, the manufacturer must validate the AEDM's accuracy and reliability by comparing the simulated FEI, or simulated efficacy, as applicable, to the tested FEI or tested efficacy, as applicable (determined by testing), as follows.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Select basic models.</I> For each fan or blower validation class listed as follows: centrifugal housed fan; radial housed fan; centrifugal inline fan; centrifugal unhoused fan; centrifugal power roof ventilator exhaust fan; centrifugal power roof ventilator supply fan; axial inline fan; axial panel fan; axial power roof ventilator; unhoused ACFH; axial housed ACFH; and housed centrifugal air circulating fan to which the AEDM is applied, a manufacturer must select at least two basic models compliant with any energy conservation standards in subpart J of part 431 of this chapter. In addition, at least one basic model selected for validation testing should include a motor, or a motor and controller if the AEDM is applied to a basic model with a motor or to a basic model with a motor and controller.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Apply the AEDM</I> to the selected basic models. Using the AEDM, calculate the simulated FEI, or efficacy, as applicable, for each of the selected basic models.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Testing.</I> Test a sample of units of each of the selected basic models in accordance with 10 CFR 431.174 and determine the FEI or efficacy, as applicable, in accordance with § 429.69(a)(1) and (b)(1) as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Compare.</I> The simulated FEI or simulated efficacy, as applicable, for each basic model must be less than or equal to 105 percent of the FEI or efficacy, as applicable, determined in paragraph (n)(2)(iii) of this section through testing.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Additional AEDM requirements.</I> When making representations of values other than FEI (<I>e.g.,</I> FEP, fan shaft power) or efficacy (as applicable) for a basic model that relies on an AEDM, all other representations are required to be based on the same AEDM results used to generate the represented value of FEI or efficacy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of an AEDM</I>—(i) <I>Periodic review</I>s. Each manufacturer must periodically select basic models representative of those to which it has applied an AEDM. The manufacturer must select a sufficient number of basic models to ensure the AEDM maintains its accuracy and reliability. For each basic model selected for verification: subject at least one unit to testing in accordance with 10 CFR 431.174. The provisions in paragraph (n)(2)(iv) of this section must be met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inspection records.</I> Each manufacturer that has used an AEDM under this section must have available for inspection by the Department of Energy records showing:
</P>
<P>(A) The method or methods used to develop the AEDM;
</P>
<P>(B) The mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, and other analytic evaluation of performance data on which the AEDM is based;
</P>
<P>(C) Complete test data, equipment information, and related information that the manufacturer has generated or acquired pursuant to paragraphs (n)(2) and (3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) The calculations used to determine the simulated FEI or simulated weighted-average FEI, as applicable, of each basic model to which the AEDM was applied.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Simulations.</I> If requested by the Department, the manufacturer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Conduct simulations to predict the performance of particular basic models of electric motors specified by the Department;
</P>
<P>(B) Provide analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer; and/or
</P>
<P>(C) Conduct testing of basic models selected by the Department.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24780, May 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 79595, Dec. 31, 2013; 79 FR 25505, May 5, 2014; 79 FR 27410, May 13, 2014; 80 FR 152, Jan. 5, 2015; 79 FR 40565, July 11, 2014; 81 FR 4145, Jan. 25, 2016; 81 FR 37054, June 8, 2016; 81 FR 89304, Dec. 9, 2016; 82 FR 1100, Jan. 4, 2017; 82 FR 1475, Jan. 5, 2017; 87 FR 43979, July 22, 2022; 87 FR 45195, July 27, 2022; 87 FR 63649, Oct. 19, 2022; 87 FR 63894, Oct. 20, 2022; 87 FR 77321, Dec. 16, 2022; 88 FR 17973, Mar. 24, 2023; 88 FR 21837 Apr. 11, 2023; 88 FR 27388, May 1, 2023; 88 FR 28835, May 4, 2023; 88 FR 40472, June 21, 2023; 88 FR 53375, Aug. 8, 2023; 89 FR 44034, May 20, 2024; 89 FR 82070, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 1277, Jan. 7, 2025; 90 FR 43383, Sept. 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.71" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.71   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The manufacturer of any covered product or covered equipment shall establish, maintain, and retain the records of certification reports, of the underlying test data for all certification testing, and of any other testing conducted to satisfy the requirements of this part, part 430, and part 431. Any manufacturer who chooses to use an alternative method for determining energy efficiency or energy use in accordance with § 429.70 must retain the records required by that section, any other records of any testing performed to support the use of the alternative method, and any certifications required by that section, on file for review by DOE for two years following the discontinuance of all models or combinations whose ratings were based on the alternative method.
</P>
<P>(b) Such records shall be organized and indexed in a fashion that makes them readily accessible for review by DOE upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) The records shall be retained by the manufacturer for a period of two years from the date that the manufacturer or third party submitter has notified DOE that the model has been discontinued in commerce.
</P>
<P>(d) When considering if a pump is subject to energy conservation standards under part 431 of this chapter, DOE may need to determine if a pump was designed and constructed to the requirements set forth in Military Specifications: MIL-P-17639F, MIL-P-17881D, MIL-P-17840C, MIL-P-18682D, or MIL-P-18472G. In this case, a manufacturer must provide DOE with copies of the original design and test data that were submitted to appropriate design review agencies, as required by MIL-P-17639F, MIL-P-17881D, MIL-P-17840C, MIL-P-18682D, or MIL-P-18472G. Military specifications and standards are available for review at <I>http://everyspec.com/MIL-SPECS</I>.
</P>
<P>(e) When considering if a compressor is subject to energy conservation standards under part 431, DOE may need to determine if a compressors was designed and tested to the requirements set forth in the American Petroleum Institute standard 619, “Rotary-Type Positive-Displacement Compressors for Petroleum, Petrochemical, and Natural Gas Industries” (API 619). In this case, DOE may request that a manufacturer provide DOE with copies of the original requirements and test data that were submitted to the purchaser of the compressor, in accordance with API 619.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 4145, Jan. 25, 2016; 85 FR 1591, Jan. 10, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.72" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.72   Alternative methods for determining non-energy ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Where § 429.14 through § 429.562 authorize the use of an alternative method for determining a physical or operating characteristic other than the energy consumption or efficiency, such characteristics must be determined either by testing in accordance with the applicable test procedure and applying the specified sampling plan provisions established in those sections or as described in the appropriate product-specific paragraph below. In all cases, the computer-aided design (CAD) models, measurements, and calculations used to determine the rating for the physical or operating characteristic shall be retained as part of the test records underlying the certification of the basic model in accordance with § 429.71.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Residential refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers, and freezers.</I> The total refrigerated volume of a basic model of refrigerator, refrigerator-freezer, or freezer may be determined by performing a calculation of the volume based upon computer-aided design (CAD) models of the basic model in lieu of physical measurements of a production unit of the basic model. Any value of total refrigerated volume of a basic model reported to DOE in a certification of compliance in accordance with § 429.14(b)(2) must be calculated using the CAD-derived volume(s) and the applicable provisions in the test procedures in 10 CFR part 430 for measuring volume, and must be within two percent, or 0.5 cubic feet (0.2 cubic feet for compact products), whichever is greater, of the volume of a production unit of the basic model measured in accordance with the applicable test procedure in 10 CFR part 430.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Miscellaneous refrigeration products.</I> The total refrigerated volume of a miscellaneous refrigeration product basic model may be determined by performing a calculation of the volume based upon computer-aided design (CAD) models of the basic model in lieu of physical measurements of a production unit of the basic model. Any value of total adjusted volume and value of total refrigerated volume of a basic model reported to DOE in a certification of compliance in accordance with § 429.61(b)(2) must be calculated using the CAD-derived volume(s) and the applicable provisions in the test procedures in part 430 of this chapter for measuring volume. The calculated value must be within two percent, or 0.5 cubic feet (0.2 cubic feet for products with total refrigerated volume less than 7.75 cubic feet (220 liters)), whichever is greater, of the volume of a production unit of the basic model measured in accordance with the applicable test procedure in part 430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial gas-fired and oil-fired instantaneous water heaters and hot water supply boilers.</I> The storage volume of a commercial gas-fired or oil-fired instantaneous water heater or a commercial gas-fired or oil-fired hot water supply boiler basic model may be determined by performing a calculation of the stored water volume based upon design drawings (including computer-aided design (CAD) models) or physical dimensions of the basic model. Any value of storage volume of a basic model reported to DOE in a certification of compliance in accordance with § 429.44(c)(2)(iv) and (v) must be calculated using the design drawings or physical dimensions, or measured as per the applicable provisions in the test procedures in 10 CFR 431.106. The storage volume determination must include all water contained within the water heater from the inlet connection to the outlet connection(s). The storage volume of water contained in the water heater must then be computed in gallons.






</P>
<P>(f) <I>Commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers.</I> The volume of a basic model of a commercial refrigerator, refrigerator-freezer, or freezer may be determined by performing a calculation of the volume based upon computer-aided design (CAD) models of the basic model in lieu of physical measurements of a production unit of the basic model. If volume is determined by performing a calculation of volume based on CAD drawings, any value of volume of the basic model reported to DOE in a certification of compliance in accordance with § 429.42(b)(2)(iii) must be calculated using the CAD-derived volume(s) and the applicable provisions in the test procedures in 10 CFR part 431.64 for measuring volume.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 22348, Apr. 21, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 4145, Jan. 25, 2016; 81 FR 46790, July 18, 2016; 81 FR 79320, Nov. 10, 2016; 88 FR 66222, Sept. 26, 2023; 89 FR 82070, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43384, Sept. 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.73" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.73   Department of Energy recognition of nationally recognized certification programs for electric motors, including dedicated-purpose pool pump motors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition.</I> For a certification program to be classified by the Department of Energy as being nationally recognized in the United States for the purposes of §§ 429.64 and 429.65, the organization operating the program must submit a petition to the Department requesting such classification, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and § 429.75. The petition must demonstrate that the program meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation criteria.</I> For a certification program to be classified by the Department as nationally recognized, it must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It must have satisfactory standards and procedures for conducting and administering a certification system, including periodic follow up activities to assure that basic models of electric motors continue to conform to the efficiency levels for which they were certified, and for granting a certificate of conformity;
</P>
<P>(2) For certification of electric motors, including dedicated-purpose pool pump motors, it must be independent (as defined at § 429.2) of electric motor (including dedicated-purpose pool pump motor) manufacturers, importers, distributors, private labelers or vendors for which it is providing certification;
</P>
<P>(3) It must be qualified to operate a certification system in a highly competent manner; and
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of electric motors subject to requirements in subpart B of part 431 of this subchapter, the certification program must have expertise in the content and application of the test procedures at § 431.16 of this subchapter and must apply the provisions at §§ 429.64 and 429.70(j); or
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of dedicated-purpose pool pump motors subject to requirements in subpart Z of part 431 of this subchapter, the certification program must have expertise in the content and application of the test procedures at § 431.484 of this subchapter and must apply the provisions at §§ 429.65 and 429.70(k).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petition format.</I> Each petition requesting classification as a nationally recognized certification program must contain a narrative statement as to why the program meets the criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section, must be signed on behalf of the organization operating the program by an authorized representative, and must be accompanied by documentation that supports the narrative statement. The following provides additional guidance as to the specific criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standards and procedures.</I> A copy of the standards and procedures for operating a certification system and for granting a certificate of conformity should accompany the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Independent status.</I> The petitioning organization must describe how it is independent (as defined at § 429.2) from electric motor, including dedicated-purpose pool pump motor manufacturers, importers, distributors, private labelers, vendors, and trade associations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualifications to operate a certification system.</I> Experience in operating a certification system should be described and substantiated by supporting documents within the petition. Of particular relevance would be documentary evidence that establishes experience in the application of guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 65, “General requirements for bodies operating product certification systems” (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3), ISO/IEC Guide 27, “Guidelines for corrective action to be taken by a certification body in the event of either misapplication of its mark of conformity to a product, or products which bear the mark of the certification body being found to subject persons or property to risk” (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3), and ISO/IEC Guide 28, “General rules for a model third-party certification system for products” (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3), as well as experience in overseeing compliance with the guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 25, “General requirements for the competence of calibration and testing laboratories” (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expertise in test procedures</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> This part of the petition should include items such as, but not limited to, a description of prior projects and qualifications of staff members. Of particular relevance would be documentary evidence that establishes experience in applying guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 25, “General Requirements for the Competence of Calibration and Testing Laboratories” (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3), and with energy efficiency testing of the equipment to be certified.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Electric motors subject to requirements in subpart B of part 431 of this subchapter.</I> The petition should set forth the program's experience with the test procedures detailed in § 431.16 of this subchapter and the provisions in §§ 429.64 and 429.70(j).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Dedicated-purpose pool pump motors subject to requirements in subpart Z of part 431 of this subchapter.</I> The petition should set forth the program's experience with the test procedures detailed in § 431.484 of this subchapter and the provisions in §§ 429.65 and 429.70(k).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> The Department will evaluate the petition in accordance with § 429.75, and will determine whether the applicant meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section for classification as a nationally recognized certification program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Periodic evaluation.</I> Within one year after publication of any final rule regarding electric motors, a nationally recognized certification program must evaluate whether they meet the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section and must either submit a letter to DOE certifying that no change to its program is needed to continue to meet the criteria in paragraph (b) or submit a letter describing the measures implemented to ensure the criteria in paragraph (b) are met. A certification program will continue to be classified by the Department of Energy as being nationally recognized in the United States until DOE concludes otherwise.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63651, Oct. 19, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.74" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.74   Department of Energy recognition of accreditation bodies for electric motors, including dedicated-purpose pool pump motors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition.</I> To be classified by the Department of Energy as an accreditation body, an organization must submit a petition to the Department requesting such classification, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and § 429.75. The petition must demonstrate that the organization meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation criteria.</I> To be classified as an accreditation body by the Department, the organization must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It must have satisfactory standards and procedures for conducting and administering an accreditation system and for granting accreditation. This must include provisions for periodic audits to verify that the laboratories receiving its accreditation continue to conform to the criteria by which they were initially accredited, and for withdrawal of accreditation where such conformance does not occur, including failure to provide accurate test results.
</P>
<P>(2) It must be independent (as defined at § 429.2) of electric motor manufacturers, importers, distributors, private labelers or vendors for which it is providing accreditation.
</P>
<P>(3) It must be qualified to perform the accrediting function in a highly competent manner.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) In the case of electric motors subject to requirements in subpart B of part 431 of this subchapter, the organization must be an expert in the content and application of the test procedures and methodologies at § 431.16 of this subchapter and § 429.64.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of dedicated-purpose pool pump motors subject to requirements in subpart Z of part 431 of this subchapter, the organization must be an expert in the content and application of the test procedures and methodologies at § 431.484 of this subchapter and § 429.65.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petition format.</I> Each petition requesting classification as an accreditation body must contain a narrative statement as to why the program meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, must be signed on behalf of the organization operating the program by an authorized representative, and must be accompanied by documentation that supports the narrative statement. The following provides additional guidance:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standards and procedures.</I> A copy of the organization's standards and procedures for operating an accreditation system and for granting accreditation should accompany the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Independent status.</I> The petitioning organization must describe how it is independent (as defined at § 429.2) from electric motor manufacturers, importers, distributors, private labelers, vendors, and trade associations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualifications to do accrediting.</I> Experience in accrediting should be discussed and substantiated by supporting documents. Of particular relevance would be documentary evidence that establishes experience in the application of guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 58, “Calibration and testing laboratory accreditation systems—General requirements for operation and recognition” (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3), as well as experience in overseeing compliance with the guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 25, “General Requirements for the Competence of Calibration and Testing Laboratories” (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expertise in test procedures.</I> The petition should set forth the organization's experience with the test procedures and methodologies test procedures and methodologies at § 431.16 of this subchapter and § 429.64. This part of the petition should include items such as, but not limited to, a description of prior projects and qualifications of staff members. Of particular relevance would be documentary evidence that establishes experience in applying the guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 25, “General Requirements for the Competence of Calibration and Testing Laboratories,” (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3) to energy efficiency testing for electric motors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> The Department will evaluate the petition in accordance with § 429.75, and will determine whether the applicant meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section for classification as an accrediting body.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63652, Oct. 19, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.75" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.75   Procedures for recognition and withdrawal of recognition of accreditation bodies or certification programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of petition.</I> Any petition submitted to the Department pursuant to § 429.73(a) or § 429.74(a), shall be entitled “Petition for Recognition” (“Petition”) and must be submitted to the Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, Appliance and Equipment Standards Program, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585-0121, or via email (preferred submittal method) to <I>AS_Motor_Petitions@ee.doe.gov.</I> In accordance with the provisions set forth in 10 CFR 1004.11, any request for confidential treatment of any information contained in such a Petition or in supporting documentation must be accompanied by a copy of the Petition or supporting documentation from which the information claimed to be confidential has been deleted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public notice and solicitation of comments.</I> DOE shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the Petition from which confidential information, as determined by DOE, has been deleted in accordance with 10 CFR 1004.11 and shall solicit comments, data and information on whether the Petition should be granted. The Department shall also make available for inspection and copying the Petition's supporting documentation from which confidential information, as determined by DOE, has been deleted in accordance with 10 CFR 1004.11. Any person submitting written comments to DOE with respect to a Petition shall also send a copy of such comments to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsive statement by the petitioner.</I> A petitioner may, within 10 working days of receipt of a copy of any comments submitted in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, respond to such comments in a written statement submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy. A petitioner may address more than one set of comments in a single responsive statement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public announcement of interim determination and solicitation of comments.</I> The Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy shall issue an interim determination on the Petition as soon as is practicable following receipt and review of the Petition and other applicable documents, including, but not limited to, comments and responses to comments. The petitioner shall be notified in writing of the interim determination. DOE shall also publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the interim determination and shall solicit comments, data, and information with respect to that interim determination. Written comments and responsive statements may be submitted as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public announcement of final determination.</I> The Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy shall as soon as practicable, following receipt and review of comments and responsive statements on the interim determination, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notification of final determination on the Petition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional information.</I> The Department may, at any time during the recognition process, request additional relevant information or conduct an investigation concerning the Petition. The Department's determination on a Petition may be based solely on the Petition and supporting documents, or may also be based on such additional information as the Department deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Withdrawal of recognition</I>—(1) <I>Withdrawal by the Department.</I> If DOE believes that an accreditation body or certification program that has been recognized under § 429.73 or § 429.74, respectively, is failing to meet the criteria of paragraph (b) of the section under which it is recognized, or if the certification program fails to meet the provisions at § 429.73(e), the Department will issue a Notice of Withdrawal (“Notice”) to inform such entity and request that it take appropriate corrective action(s) specified in the Notice. The Department will give the entity an opportunity to respond. In no case shall the time allowed for corrective action exceed 180 days from the date of the notice (inclusive of the 30 days allowed for disputing the bases for DOE's notification of withdrawal). If the entity wishes to dispute any bases identified in the Notice, the entity must respond to DOE within 30 days of receipt of the Notice. If after receiving such response, or no response, the Department believes satisfactory correction has not been made, the Department will withdraw its recognition from that entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Voluntary withdrawal.</I> An accreditation body or certification program may withdraw itself from recognition by the Department by advising the Department in writing of such withdrawal. It must also advise those that use it (for an accreditation body, the testing laboratories, and for a certification organization, the manufacturers) of such withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of withdrawal of recognition.</I> The Department will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notification of any withdrawal of recognition that occurs pursuant to this paragraph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63652, Oct. 19, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.76" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.76   Portable electric spas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of represented values.</I> Manufacturers must determine the represented values for each basic model of portable electric spas by testing in conjunction with the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(1) For spa covers:
</P>
<P>(i) If a basic model is distributed in commerce with multiple covers designated by the spa manufacturer for use with the basic model, a manufacturer must determine all represented values for that basic model based on the cover that results in the highest standby loss, except that the manufacturer may choose to identify specific individual combinations of spa and cover as additional basic models.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a basic model is distributed in commerce with no cover designated by the spa manufacturer for use with the basic model, a manufacturer must determine all represented values for that basic model by testing as specified in section 3.1.5.2 of appendix GG to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The sampling requirements of § 429.11 are applicable to portable electric spas; and
</P>
<P>(3) For each basic model of portable electric spas, a sample of sufficient size must be randomly selected and tested to ensure that any representation of standby loss or other measure of energy consumption of a basic model for which consumers would favor lower values shall be greater than or equal to the higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the sample, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13jn23.005.gif"/>
<FP>and <E T="7501">x</E> is the sample mean, n is the number of samples, and x<E T="52">i</E> is the i
<SU>th</SU> sample; or,
</FP>
<P>(ii) The upper 95 percent confidence limit (UCL) of the true mean divided by 1.05, where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13jn23.006.gif"/>
<FP>and <E T="7501">x</E> is the sample mean, s is the sample standard deviation, n is the number of samples, and t<E T="52">0.95</E> is the t statistic for a 95 percent one-tailed confidence interval with n-1 degrees of freedom (from appendix A of subpart B of part 429).
</FP>
<P>(4) The represented value of standby loss must be a whole number of watts.
</P>
<P>(5) The represented value of fill volume of a basic model must be a whole number of gallons that is within 5 gallons of the mean of the fill volumes measured for the units in the sample selected as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 38627, June 13, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.68.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 429—Student's t-Distribution Values for Certification Testing
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Figure 1—t-Distribution Values for Certification Testing
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[One-Sided]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Degrees of freedom
<br/>(from Appendix A)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Confidence Interval
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">90%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">95%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">97.5%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">99%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.078</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.314</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.886</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.920</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.303</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.965
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.638</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.353</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.182</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.541
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.533</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.776</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.747
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.476</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.571</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.365
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.440</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.943</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.447</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.143
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.415</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.895</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.365</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.998
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.397</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.860</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.306</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.896
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.383</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.262</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.821
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.372</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.812</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.228</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.764
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.363</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.796</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.201</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.718
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.356</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.782</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.681
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.771</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.650
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.345</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.761</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.145</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.624
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.341</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.753</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.131</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.602
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.337</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.746</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.583
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.740</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.567
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.330</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.734</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.552
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.328</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.729</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.093</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.539
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.325</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.725</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.086</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.528</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24780, May 2, 2011]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.2.10.68.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart B of Part 429—Nominal Full-Load Efficiency Table for Electric Motors

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">99.0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">96.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">36.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">34.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">64</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">59.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">57.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">52.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">93</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97.8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">77</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97.6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97.4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">91</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">74</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">43.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96.8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">38.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63653, Oct. 19, 2022]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.100" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes the enforcement authority of DOE to ensure compliance with the conservation standards and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.102" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.102   Prohibited acts subjecting persons to enforcement action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the following actions is prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) Failure of a manufacturer to provide, maintain, permit access to, or copying of records required to be supplied under the Act and this part or failure to make reports or provide other information required to be supplied under the Act and this part, including but not limited to failure to properly certify covered products and covered equipment in accordance with § 429.12 and §§ 429.14 through 429.66;
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to test any covered product or covered equipment subject to an applicable energy conservation standard in conformance with the applicable test requirements prescribed in 10 CFR parts 430 or 431;
</P>
<P>(3) Deliberate use of controls or features in a covered product or covered equipment to circumvent the requirements of a test procedure and produce test results that are unrepresentative of a product's energy or water consumption if measured pursuant to DOE's required test procedure;
</P>
<P>(4) Failure of a manufacturer to supply at the manufacturer's expense a requested number of covered products or covered equipment to a designated test laboratory in accordance with a test notice issued by DOE;
</P>
<P>(5) Failure of a manufacturer to permit a DOE representative to observe any testing required by the Act and this part and inspect the results of such testing;
</P>
<P>(6) Distribution in commerce by a manufacturer or private labeler of any new covered product or covered equipment that is not in compliance with an applicable energy conservation standard prescribed under the Act;
</P>
<P>(7) Distribution in commerce by a manufacturer or private labeler of a basic model of covered product or covered equipment after a notice of noncompliance determination has been issued to the manufacturer or private labeler;
</P>
<P>(8) Knowing misrepresentation by a manufacturer or private labeler by certifying an energy use or efficiency rating of any covered product or covered equipment distributed in commerce in a manner that is not supported by test data;
</P>
<P>(9) For any manufacturer, distributor, retailer, or private labeler to distribute in commerce an adapter that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is designed to allow an incandescent lamp that does not have a medium screw base to be installed into a fixture or lamp holder with a medium screw base socket; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is capable of being operated at a voltage range at least partially within 110 and 130 volts; or
</P>
<P>(10) For any manufacturer or private labeler to knowingly sell a product to a distributor, contractor, or dealer with knowledge that the entity routinely violates any regional standard applicable to the product.
</P>
<P>(b) When DOE has reason to believe that a manufacturer or private labeler has undertaken a prohibited act listed in paragraph (a) of this section, DOE may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue a notice of noncompliance determination;
</P>
<P>(2) Impose additional certification testing requirements;
</P>
<P>(3) Seek injunctive relief;
</P>
<P>(4) Assess a civil penalty for knowing violations; or
</P>
<P>(5) Undertake any combination of the above.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Violations of regional standards.</I> (1) It is a violation for a distributor to knowingly sell a product to a contractor or dealer with knowledge that the entity will sell and/or install the product in violation of any regional standard applicable to the product.
</P>
<P>(2) It is a violation for a distributor to knowingly sell a product to a contractor or dealer with knowledge that the entity routinely violates any regional standard applicable to the product.
</P>
<P>(3) It is a violation for a contractor or dealer to knowingly sell to and/or install for an end user a central air conditioner subject to regional standards with the knowledge that such product will be installed in violation of any regional standard applicable to the product.
</P>
<P>(4) A “product installed in violation” includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A complete central air conditioning system that is not certified as a complete system that meets the applicable standard. Combinations that were previously validly certified may be installed after the manufacturer has discontinued the combination, provided all combinations within the basic model, including for single-split-system AC with single-stage or two-stage compressor at least one coil-only combination as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, comply with the regional standard applicable at the time of installation.
</P>
<P>(ii) An outdoor unit with no match (<I>i.e.</I>, that is not offered for sale with an indoor unit) that is not certified as part of a combination that meets the applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) An outdoor unit that is part of a certified combination rated less than the standard applicable in the region in which it is installed or, where applicable, an outdoor unit with no certified coil-only combination as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that meets the standard applicable in the region in which it is installed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 4145, Jan. 25, 2016; 81 FR 45402, July 14, 2016; 87 FR 53639, Aug. 31, 2022; 87 FR 64586, Oct. 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.104" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.104   Assessment testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may, at any time, test a basic model to assess whether the basic model is in compliance with the applicable energy conservation standard(s).
</P>
<P>(b) For variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h), when DOE may require that the manufacturer of a basic model ship at its expense any means of control for the basic model necessary for conducting testing in accordance with Appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431 of this subchapter.</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63895, Oct. 20, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.106" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.106   Investigation of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may initiate an investigation that a basic model may not be compliant with an applicable conservation standard, certification requirement or other regulation at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may, at any time, request any information relevant to determining compliance with any requirement under parts 429, 430 and 431, including the data underlying certification of a basic model. Such data may be used by DOE to make a determination of compliance or noncompliance with an applicable standard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.110" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.110   Enforcement testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions.</I> (1) If DOE has reason to believe that a basic model is not in compliance it may test for enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) For variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), when determining compliance with an energy conservation standard based on IEER, DOE may test for enforcement if DOE has reason to believe that a basic model is not in compliance, has invalid certified operational settings for critical parameter values, or has an otherwise invalid certified rating.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE will select and test units pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Testing will be conducted at a laboratory accredited to the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)/International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC), “General requirements for the competence of testing and calibration laboratories,” ISO/IEC 17025:2005(E) (incorporated by reference; see § 429.4). If testing cannot be completed at an independent laboratory, DOE, at its discretion, may allow enforcement testing at a manufacturer's laboratory, so long as the lab is accredited to ISO/IEC 17025:2005(E) and DOE representatives witness the testing. In addition, for commercial packaged boilers with rated input greater than 5,000,000 Btu/h, DOE, at its discretion, may allow enforcement testing of a commissioned commercial packaged boiler in the location in which it was commissioned for use, pursuant to the test provisions at § 431.86(c) of this chapter, for which accreditation to ISO/IEC 17025:2005(E) would not be required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test notice.</I> (1) To obtain units for enforcement testing to determine compliance with an applicable standard, DOE will issue a test notice addressed to the manufacturer in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) DOE will send the test notice to the manufacturer's certifying official or other company official.
</P>
<P>(ii) The test notice will specify the basic model that will be selected for testing, the method of selecting the test sample, the maximum size of the sample and the size of the initial test sample, the dates at which testing is scheduled to be started and completed, and the facility at which testing will be conducted. The test notice may also provide for situations in which the selected basic model is unavailable for testing and may include alternative models or basic models.
</P>
<P>(iii) DOE will state in the test notice that it will select the units of a basic model to be tested from the manufacturer, from one or more distributors, and/or from one or more retailers. If any unit is selected from a distributor or retailer, the manufacturer shall make arrangements with the distributor or retailer for compensation for or replacement of any such units.
</P>
<P>(iv) DOE may require in the test notice that the manufacturer of a basic model ship or cause to be shipped from a retailer or distributor at its expense the requested number of units of a basic model specified in such test notice to the testing laboratory specified in the test notice. The manufacturer shall ship the specified initial test unit(s) of the basic model to the testing laboratory within 5 working days from the time unit(s) are selected. For variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h) the manufacturer shall also ship any means of control necessary for conducting testing in accordance with appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431 of this subchapter. The manufacturer may ship the means of control separately from the system(s) selected for testing.
</P>
<P>(v) If DOE determines that the units identified are low-volume or built-to-order products, DOE will contact the manufacturer to develop a plan for enforcement testing in lieu of paragraphs (ii)-(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Test unit selection.</I> (1) To select units for testing from a:
</P>
<P>(i) Manufacturer's warehouse, distributor, or other facility affiliated with the manufacturer. DOE will select a batch sample at random in accordance with the provisions in paragraph (e) of this section and the conditions specified in the test notice. DOE will randomly select an initial test sample of units from the batch sample for testing in accordance with appendices A through C of this subpart. DOE will make a determination whether an alternative sample size will be used in accordance with the provisions in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Retailer or other facility not affiliated with the manufacturer. DOE will select an initial test sample of units at random that satisfies the minimum units necessary for testing in accordance with the provisions in appendices A through C of this subpart and the conditions specified in the test notice. Depending on the results of the testing, DOE may select additional units for testing from a retailer in accordance with appendices A through C of this subpart. If the full sample is not available from a retailer, DOE will make a determination whether an alternative sample size will be used in accordance with the provisions in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Previously commissioned commercial packaged boilers with a rated input greater than 5,000,000 Btu/h. DOE may test a sample of at least one unit in the location in which it was commissioned for use.
</P>
<P>(2) Units tested in accordance with the applicable test procedure under this part by DOE or another Federal agency, pursuant to other provisions or programs, may count toward units in the test sample.
</P>
<P>(3) The resulting test data shall constitute official test data for the basic model. Such test data will be used by DOE to make a determination of compliance or noncompliance if a sufficient number of tests have been conducted to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section and appendices A through C of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Test unit preparation.</I> (1) Prior to and during testing, a test unit selected for enforcement testing shall not be prepared, modified, or adjusted in any manner unless such preparation, modification, or adjustment is allowed by the applicable DOE test procedure. One test shall be conducted for each test unit in accordance with the applicable test procedures prescribed in parts 430 and 431.
</P>
<P>(2) No quality control, testing or assembly procedures shall be performed on a test unit, or any parts and subassemblies thereof, that is not performed during the production and assembly of all other units included in the basic model.
</P>
<P>(3) A test unit shall be considered defective if such unit is inoperative or is found to be in noncompliance due to failure of the unit to operate according to the manufacturer's design and operating instructions. Defective units, including those damaged due to shipping or handling, shall be reported immediately to DOE. DOE may authorize testing of an additional unit on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Basic model compliance.</I> DOE will evaluate whether a basic model complies with the applicable energy conservation standard(s) based on testing conducted in accordance with the applicable test procedures specified in parts 430 and 431 of this chapter, and with the following statistical sampling procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) For products with applicable energy conservation standard(s) in § 430.32 of this chapter, and commercial prerinse spray valves, illuminated exit signs, traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules, commercial clothes washers, dedicated-purpose pool pumps, circulator pumps, and metal halide lamp ballasts, DOE will use a sample size of not more than 21 units and follow the sampling plans in appendix A of this subpart (Sampling for Enforcement Testing of Covered Consumer Products and Certain High-Volume Commercial Equipment).
</P>
<P>(2) For automatic commercial ice makers; commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers; refrigerated bottled or canned vending machines; commercial air conditioners and heat pumps; commercial packaged boilers; commercial warm air furnaces; commercial water heating equipment; and walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer doors, panels, and refrigeration systems, DOE will use an initial sample size of not more than four units and follow the sampling plans in appendix B to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(3) If fewer than four units of a basic model are available for testing (under paragraphs (e)(1) or (2) of this section) when the manufacturer receives the notice, then:
</P>
<P>(i) DOE will test the available unit(s); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If one or more other units of the basic model are expected to become available within 30 calendar days, DOE may instead, at its discretion, test either:
</P>
<P>(A) The available unit(s) and one or more of the other units that subsequently become available (up to a maximum of four); or
</P>
<P>(B) Up to four of the other units that subsequently become available.
</P>
<P>(4) For distribution transformers, DOE will use an initial sample size of not more than five units and follow the sampling plans in appendix C of this subpart (Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Distribution Transformers). If fewer than five units of a basic model are available for testing when the manufacturer receives the test notice, then:
</P>
<P>(i) DOE will test the available unit(s); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If one or more other units of the basic model are expected to become available within 30 calendar days, DOE may instead, at its discretion, test either:
</P>
<P>(A) The available unit(s) and one or more of the other units that subsequently become available (up to a maximum of five); or
</P>
<P>(B) Up to five of the other units that subsequently become available.
</P>
<P>(5) For pumps subject to the test procedures specified in § 431.464(a) of this chapter, DOE will use an initial sample size of not more than four units and will determine compliance based on the arithmetic mean of the sample.
</P>
<P>(6) For uninterruptible power supplies, if a basic model is certified for compliance to the applicable energy conservation standard(s) in § 430.32 of this chapter according to the sampling plan in § 429.39(a)(2)(iv)(A) of this chapter, DOE will use a sample size of not more than 21 units and follow the sampling plan in appendix A of this subpart (Sampling for Enforcement Testing of Covered Consumer Products and Certain High-Volume Commercial Equipment). If a basic model is certified for compliance to the applicable energy conservation standard(s) in § 430.32 of this chapter according to the sampling plan in § 429.39(a)(2)(iv)(B) of this chapter, DOE will use a sample size of at least one unit and follow the sampling plan in appendix D of this subpart (Sampling for Enforcement Testing of Uninterruptible Power Supplies).
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(1) through (6) of this section, if testing of the available or subsequently available units of a basic model would be impractical, as for example when a basic model has unusual testing requirements or has limited production, DOE may in its discretion decide to base the determination of compliance on the testing of fewer than the otherwise required number of units.
</P>
<P>(8) When DOE makes a determination in accordance with paragraph (e)(7) of this section to test less than the number of units specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (6) of this section, DOE will base the compliance determination on the results of such testing in accordance with appendix B of this subpart (Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Covered Equipment and Certain Low-Volume Covered Products) using a sample size (n<E T="52">1</E>) equal to the number of units tested.
</P>
<P>(9) For the purposes of this section, available units are those that are available for distribution in commerce within the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 4145, Jan. 25, 2016; 81 FR 31841, May 20, 2016; 81 FR 89304, Dec. 9, 2016; 81 FR 89822, Dec. 12, 2016; 81 FR 95800, Dec. 28, 2016; 82 FR 36918, Aug. 7, 2017; 87 FR 57298, Sept. 19, 2022; 87 FR 63895, Oct. 20, 2022; 88 FR 28837, May 4, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.114" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.114   Notice of noncompliance and notice to cease distribution of a basic model.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that DOE determines a basic model is noncompliant with an applicable energy conservation standard, or if a manufacturer or private labeler determines a basic model to be in noncompliance, DOE may issue a notice of noncompliance determination to the manufacturer or private labeler. This notice of noncompliance determination will notify the manufacturer or private labeler of its obligation to:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately cease distribution in commerce of the basic model;
</P>
<P>(2) Give immediate written notification of the determination of noncompliance to all persons to whom the manufacturer has distributed units of the basic model manufactured since the date of the last determination of compliance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide DOE, within 30 calendar days of the request, records, reports and other documentation pertaining to the acquisition, ordering, storage, shipment, or sale of a basic model determined to be in noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that DOE determines a manufacturer has failed to comply with an applicable certification requirement with respect to a particular basic model, DOE may issue a notice of noncompliance determination to the manufacturer or private labeler. This notice of noncompliance determination will notify the manufacturer or private labeler of its obligation to:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately cease distribution in commerce of the basic model;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediately comply with the applicable certification requirement; and/or
</P>
<P>(3) Provide DOE within 30 days of the request, records, reports and other documentation pertaining to the acquisition, ordering, storage, shipment, or sale of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(c) If a manufacturer or private labeler fails to comply with the required actions in the notice of noncompliance determination as set forth in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, the General Counsel (or delegee) may seek, among other remedies, injunctive action and civil penalties, where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The manufacturer may modify a basic model determined to be noncompliant with an applicable energy conservation standard in such manner as to make it comply with the applicable standard. Such modified basic model shall then be treated as a new basic model and must be certified in accordance with the provisions of this part; except that in addition to satisfying all requirements of this part, any models within the basic model must be assigned new model numbers and the manufacturer shall also maintain, and provide upon request to DOE, records that demonstrate that modifications have been made to all units of the new basic model prior to distribution in commerce.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.116" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.116   Additional certification testing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to § 429.102(b)(2), if DOE determines that independent, third-party testing is necessary to ensure a manufacturer's compliance with the rules of this part, part 430, or part 431, a manufacturer must base its certification of a basic model under subpart B of this part on independent, third-party laboratory testing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.118" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.118   Injunctions.</HEAD>
<P>If DOE has reason to seek an injunction under the Act:
</P>
<P>(a) DOE will notify the manufacturer, private labeler or any other person as required, of the prohibited act at issue and DOE's intent to seek a judicial order enjoining the prohibited act unless the manufacturer, private labeler or other person, delivers to DOE within 15 calendar days a corrective action and compliance plan, satisfactory to DOE, of the steps it will take to ensure that the prohibited act ceases. DOE will monitor the implementation of such plan.
</P>
<P>(b) If the manufacturer, private labeler or any other person as required, fails to cease engaging in the prohibited act or fails to provide a satisfactory corrective action and compliance plan, DOE may seek an injunction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.120" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.120   Maximum civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who knowingly violates any provision of § 429.102(a) may be subject to assessment of a civil penalty of no more than $575 for each violation. As to § 429.102(a)(1) with respect to failure to certify, and as to § 429.102(a)(2), (5) through (9), each unit of a covered product or covered equipment distributed in violation of such paragraph shall constitute a separate violation. For violations of § 429.102(a)(1), (3), and (4), each day of noncompliance shall constitute a separate violation for each basic model at issue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96351, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1291, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2955, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1063, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1028, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105406, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.122" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.122   Notice of proposed civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel (or delegee) shall provide notice of any proposed civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice of proposed penalty shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include the amount of the proposed penalty;
</P>
<P>(2) Include a statement of the material facts constituting the alleged violation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the person of the opportunity to elect in writing within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notice to have the procedures of § 429.128 (in lieu of those of § 429.126) apply with respect to the penalty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.124" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.124   Election of procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In responding to a notice of proposed civil penalty, the respondent may request:
</P>
<P>(1) An administrative hearing before an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) under § 429.126 of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) Elect to have the procedures of § 429.128 apply.
</P>
<P>(b) Any election to have the procedures of § 429.128 apply may not be revoked except with the consent of the General Counsel (or delegee).
</P>
<P>(c) If the respondent fails to respond to a notice issued under § 429.120 or otherwise fails to indicate its election of procedures, DOE shall refer the civil penalty action to an ALJ for a hearing under § 429.126.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.126" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.126   Administrative law judge hearing and appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When elected pursuant to § 429.124, DOE shall refer a civil penalty action brought under § 429.122 of this part to an ALJ, who shall afford the respondent an opportunity for an agency hearing on the record.
</P>
<P>(b) After consideration of all matters of record in the proceeding, the ALJ will issue a recommended decision, if appropriate, recommending a civil penalty. The decision will include a statement of the findings and conclusions, and the reasons therefore, on all material issues of fact, law, and discretion.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The General Counsel (or delegee) shall adopt, modify, or set aside the conclusions of law or discretion contained in the ALJ's recommended decision and shall set forth a final order assessing a civil penalty. The General Counsel (or delegee) shall include in the final order the ALJ's findings of fact and the reasons for the final agency actions.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person against whom a penalty is assessed under this section may, within 60 calendar days after the date of the final order assessing such penalty, institute an action in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate judicial circuit for judicial review of such order in accordance with chapter 7 of title 5, United States Code. The court shall have jurisdiction to enter a judgment affirming, modifying, or setting aside in whole or in part, the final order, or the court may remand the proceeding to the Department for such further action as the court may direct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.128" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.128   Immediate issuance of order assessing civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the respondent elects to forgo an agency hearing pursuant to § 429.124, the General Counsel (or delegee) shall issue an order assessing the civil penalty proposed in the notice of proposed penalty under § 429.122, 30 calendar days after the respondent's receipt of the notice of proposed penalty.
</P>
<P>(b) If within 60 calendar days of receiving the assessment order in paragraph (a) of this section the respondent does not pay the civil penalty amount, DOE shall institute an action in the appropriate United States District Court for an order affirming the assessment of the civil penalty. The court shall have authority to review de novo the law and the facts involved and shall have jurisdiction to enter a judgment enforcing, modifying, and enforcing as so modified, or setting aside in whole or in part, such assessment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.130" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.130   Collection of civil penalties.</HEAD>
<P>If any person fails to pay an assessment of a civil penalty after it has become a final and unappealable order under § 429.126 or after the appropriate District Court has entered final judgment in favor of the Department under § 429.128, the General Counsel (or delegee) shall institute an action to recover the amount of such penalty in any appropriate District Court of the United States. In such action, the validity and appropriateness of such final assessment order or judgment shall not be subject to review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.132" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.132   Compromise and settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may compromise, modify, or remit, with or without conditions, any civil penalty (with leave of court if necessary).
</P>
<P>(b) In exercising its authority under paragraph (a) of this section, DOE may consider the nature and seriousness of the violation, the efforts of the respondent to remedy the violation in a timely manner, and other factors as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE's authority to compromise, modify or remit a civil penalty may be exercised at any time prior to a final decision by the United States Court of Appeals if § 429.126 procedures are utilized, or prior to a final decision by the United States District Court, if § 429.128 procedures are utilized.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, DOE or the respondent may propose to settle the case. If a settlement is agreed to by the parties, the respondent is notified and the case is closed in accordance with the terms of the settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.134" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.134   Product-specific enforcement provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The following provisions apply to assessment and enforcement testing of the relevant products and equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers, and freezers</I>—(1) <I>Verification of total refrigerated volume.</I> The total refrigerated volume of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of total refrigerated volume certified by the manufacturer. The certified total refrigerated volume will be considered valid only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The measurement is within two percent, or 0.5 cubic feet (0.2 cubic feet for compact products), whichever is greater, of the certified total refrigerated volume, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The measurement is greater than the certified total refrigerated volume.
</P>
<P>(A) If the certified total refrigerated volume is found to be valid, the certified adjusted total volume will be used as the basis for calculation of maximum allowed energy use for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) If the certified total refrigerated volume is found to be invalid, the average measured adjusted total volume, rounded to the nearest 0.1 cubic foot, will serve as the basis for calculation of maximum allowed energy use for the tested basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test for models with two compartments, each having its own user-operable temperature control.</I> The test described in section 5.2(b) of the applicable test procedure for refrigerators or refrigerator-freezers in appendix A to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 shall be used for all units of a tested basic model before DOE makes a determination of noncompliance with respect to the basic model.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clothes washers</I>—(1) <I>Determination of Remaining Moisture Content.</I> These provisions address anomalous remaining moisture content (RMC) results that are not representative of a basic model's performance, as well as differences in RMC values that may result from DOE using a different test cloth lot than was used by the manufacturer for testing and certifying the basic model.
</P>
<P>(i) When testing according to appendix J to subpart B of part 430:
</P>
<P>(A) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is equal to or lower than the certified RMC value of the basic model (expressed as a percentage), then the measured RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value and will be used as the basis for the calculation of per-cycle energy consumption for removal of moisture from the test load for that unit.
</P>
<P>(B) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model but the difference between the measured and certified RMC values would not affect the unit's compliance with the applicable standards, then the measured RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(C) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model and the difference between the measured and certified RMC values would affect the unit's compliance with the applicable standards, then:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If DOE used the same test cloth lot that was used by the manufacturer for testing and certifying the basic model, then the measured RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If DOE used a different test cloth lot than was used by the manufacturer for testing and certifying the basic model, then:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model by more than three RMC percentage points, then a value three RMC percentage points less than the measured RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model, but by no more than three RMC percentage points, then the certified RMC value of the basic model will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(ii) When testing according to appendix J2 to subpart B of part 430:
</P>
<P>(A) The procedure for determining remaining moisture content (RMC) will be performed once in its entirety, pursuant to the test requirements of section 3.8 of appendix J2 to subpart B of part 430, for each unit tested.
</P>
<P>(B) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is equal to or lower than the certified RMC value of the basic model (expressed as a percentage), then the measured RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value and will be used as the basis for the calculation of per-cycle energy consumption for removal of moisture from the test load for that unit.
</P>
<P>(C) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model but by no more than two RMC percentage points and the difference between the measured and certified RMC values would not affect the unit's compliance with the applicable standards, then the measured RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(D) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model but by no more than two RMC percentage points and the difference between the measured and certified RMC values would affect the unit's compliance with the applicable standards, then:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If DOE used the same test cloth lot that was used by the manufacturer for testing and certifying the basic model, then the measured RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If DOE used a different test cloth lot than was used by the manufacturer for testing and certifying the basic model, then the certified RMC value of the basic model would be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(E) If the measured RMC value of a tested unit is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model by more than two RMC percentage points, then DOE will perform two replications of the RMC measurement procedure, each pursuant to the provisions of section 3.8.5 of appendix J2 to subpart B of part 430, for a total of three independent RMC measurements of the tested unit. The average of the three RMC measurements will be calculated.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the average of the three RMC measurements is equal to or lower than the certified RMC value of the basic model, then the average RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the average of the three RMC measurements is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model but the difference between the measured and certified RMC values would not affect the unit's compliance with the applicable standards, then the average RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the average of the three RMC measurements is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model and the difference between the measured and certified RMC values would affect the unit's compliance with the applicable standards, then DOE will apply paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) If the average of the three RMC measurements is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model and the difference between the measured and certified RMC values would affect the unit's compliance with the applicable standards, then:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If DOE used the same test cloth lot that was used by the manufacturer for testing and certifying the basic model, then the average RMC pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(E) of this section will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If DOE used a different test cloth lot than was used by the manufacturer for testing and certifying the basic model, then:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the average RMC value pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(D) of this section is higher than the certified valued of the basic model by more than three RMC percentage points, then a value three RMC percentage points less than the average RMC value will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If the average RMC value pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(D) of this section is higher than the certified RMC value of the basic model, but by no more than three RMC percentage points, then the certified RMC value of the basic model will be considered the tested unit's final RMC value.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Residential Water Heaters and Residential-Duty Commercial Water Heaters</I>—(1) <I>Verification of first-hour rating and maximum GPM rating.</I> The first-hour rating or maximum gallons per minute (GPM) rating of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 for each unit tested. The mean of the measured values will be compared to the rated values of first-hour rating or maximum GPM rating as certified by the manufacturer. The certified rating will be considered valid only if the measurement is within five percent of the certified rating.
</P>
<P>(i) If the rated value of first-hour rating or maximum GPM rating is found to be within 5 percent of the mean of the measured values, then the rated value will be used as the basis for determining the applicable draw pattern pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 for each unit tested.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the rated value of first-hour rating or maximum GPM rating is found to vary more than 5 percent from the measured values, then the mean of the measured values will serve as the basis for determining the applicable draw pattern pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 for each unit tested.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of rated storage volume.</I> The storage volume of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of appendix E to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 for each unit tested. The mean of the measured values will be compared to the rated storage volume as certified by the manufacturer. The rated value will be considered valid only if the measurement is within 3 percent of the certified rating.
</P>
<P>(i) If the rated storage volume is found to be within 3 percent of the mean of the measured value of storage volume, then the rated value will be used as the basis for calculation of the required uniform energy factor for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the rated storage volume is found to vary more than 3 percent from the mean of the measured values, then the mean of the measured values will be used as the basis for calculation of the required uniform energy factor for the basic model.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of fuel input rate.</I> The fuel input rate of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of section 5.2.3 of 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, appendix E. The measured fuel input rate (either the measured fuel input rate for a single unit sample or the average of the measured fuel input rates for a multiple unit sample) will be compared to the rated input certified by the manufacturer. The certified rated input will be considered valid only if the measured fuel input rate is within ±2 percent of the certified rated input.
</P>
<P>(i) If the certified rated input is found to be valid, then the certified rated input will be used to determine compliance with the associated energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the measured fuel input rate for gas-fired or oil-fired water heating products is not within ±2 percent of the certified rated input, the measured fuel input rate will be used to determine compliance with the associated energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Circulating water heaters.</I> A storage tank for testing will be selected as described in paragraphs (d)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section. The effective storage volume of the circulating water heater determined in testing will be measured in accordance with appendix E to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 with the storage tank that is used for testing.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Electric heat pump circulating water heaters.</I> For UEF and first-hour rating testing, electric heat pump circulating water heaters will be tested with a minimally-compliant electric storage water heater (as defined at § 430.2 of this chapter) that has a rated storage volume of between 25 and 35 gallons, and is in the low draw pattern, as determined in accordance with appendix E to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 and the standards set at § 430.32(d) of this chapter. If the manufacturer certifies the specific model of electric storage water heater used for testing to determine the certified UEF and first-hour rating of the electric heat pump circulating water heater, that model of electric storage water heater will be used for testing. If this is not possible (such as if the electric storage water heater model is no longer available or has been discontinued), testing will be performed with an electric storage water heater that has a minimally-compliant UEF rating, in the low draw pattern, and a rated storage volume that is within ± 3 gallons of the rated storage volume of the electric storage water heater used to determine the certified ratings of the electric heat pump circulating water heater (but not less than 25 gallons and not greater than 35 gallons). If no such model is available, then testing will be performed with a minimally-compliant electric storage water heater that has a rated storage volume of between 25 and 35 gallons and is in the low draw pattern.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>All other circulating water heaters.</I> For UEF and first-hour rating testing, circulating water heaters are paired with unfired hot water storage tanks (“UFHWSTs”) that have certified storage volumes between 80 and 120 gallons and are at exactly the minimum thermal insulation standard, in terms of R-value, for UFHWSTs, as per the standards set at § 431.110(a) of this chapter. Testing will be performed as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the manufacturer certifies the specific model of UFHWST used for testing to determine the certified UEF and first-hour rating of the circulating water heater, that model of UFHWST will be used for testing.
</P>
<P>(B) If it is not possible to perform testing with the same model of UFHWST certified by the manufacturer, testing will be carried out with a different model of UFHWST accordingly:
</P>
<P>(1) Testing will be performed with an UFHWST from the same manufacturer as the certified UFHWST, with the same certified storage volume as the certified UFHWST, and with a certified R-value that meets but does not exceed the standard set at § 431.110(a) of this chapter. If this is not possible,
</P>
<P>(2) Testing will be performed with an UFHWST from a different manufacturer than the certified UFHWST, with the same certified storage volume as the certified UFHWST, and with a certified R-value that meets but does not exceed the standard set at § 431.110(a) of this chapter. If this is not possible,
</P>
<P>(3) Testing will be performed with an UFHWST from the same manufacturer as the certified UFHWST, having a certified storage volume within ±5 gallons of the certified UFHWST, and with a certified R-value that meets but does not exceed the standard set at § 431.110(a) of this chapter. If this is not possible,
</P>
<P>(4) Testing will be performed with an UFHWST from a different manufacturer than the certified UFHWST, having a certified storage volume within ±5 gallons of the certified UFHWST, and with a certified R-value that meets but does not exceed the standard set at § 431.110(a) of this chapter. If this is not possible,
</P>
<P>(5) Testing will be performed with an UFHWST having a certified storage volume between 80 gallons and 120 gallons and with a certified R-value that meets but does not exceed the standard set at § 431.110(a) of this chapter.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Packaged terminal air conditioners and packaged terminal heat pumps</I>—(1) <I>Verification of cooling capacity.</I> The total cooling capacity of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 431 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of cooling capacity certified by the manufacturer. The certified cooling capacity will be considered valid only if the average measured cooling capacity is within five percent of the certified cooling capacity.
</P>
<P>(i) If the certified cooling capacity is found to be valid, that cooling capacity will be used as the basis for calculation of minimum allowed EER (and minimum allowed COP for PTHP models) for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the certified cooling capacity is found to be invalid, the average measured cooling capacity will serve as the basis for calculation of minimum allowed EER (and minimum allowed COP for PTHP models) for the tested basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dehumidifiers</I>—(1) <I>Verification of capacity.</I> The capacity will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of part 430 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of capacity certified by the manufacturer for the basic model. The certified capacity will be considered valid only if the measurement is within five percent, or 1.00 pint per day, whichever is greater, of the certified capacity.
</P>
<P>(i) If the certified capacity is found to be valid, the certified capacity will be used as the basis for determining the minimum energy factor or integrated energy factor allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the certified capacity is found to be invalid, the average measured capacity of the units in the sample will be used as the basis for determining the minimum energy factor or integrated energy factor allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of whole-home dehumidifier case volume.</I> The case volume will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of part 430 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of case volume certified by the manufacturer for the basic model. The certified case volume will be considered valid only if the measurement is within two percent, or 0.2 cubic feet, whichever is greater, of the certified case volume.
</P>
<P>(i) If the certified case volume is found to be valid, the certified case volume will be used as the basis for determining the minimum integrated energy factor allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the certified case volume is found to be invalid, the average measured case volume of the units in the sample will be used as the basis for determining the minimum integrated energy factor allowed for the basic model.




</P>
<P>(g) <I>Commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h).</I> Before May 15, 2025, the provisions in 10 CFR 429.134, revised as of January 1, 2024, are applicable. On and after May 15, 2025, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Verification of cooling capacity.</I> The cooling capacity of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of appendix A or appendix A1 to subpart F of part 431. The mean of the cooling capacity measurement(s) will be used to determine the applicable standards for purposes of compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific components.</I> For assessment and enforcement testing of models subject to energy conservation standards denominated in terms of IVEC and IVHE, if a basic model includes individual models with components listed at table 7 to § 429.43(a)(3)(vi)(A) and DOE is not able to obtain an individual model with the least number (which could be zero) of those components within an otherwise comparable model group (as defined in § 429.43(a)(3)(vi)(A)(<I>1</I>)), DOE may test any individual model within the otherwise comparable model group.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of cut-out and cut-in temperatures.</I> For assessment and enforcement testing of models of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment subject to energy conservation standards denominated in terms of IVHE, the cut-out and cut-in temperatures may be verified using the method in appendix H to AHRI 1340-2023 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4). If this method is conducted, the cut-in and cut-out temperatures determined using this method will be used to calculate IVHE for purposes of compliance.




</P>
<P>(h) <I>Residential boilers—test protocols for functional verification of automatic means for adjusting water temperature.</I> These tests are intended to verify the functionality of the design requirement that a boiler has an automatic means for adjusting water temperature for single-stage, two-stage, and modulating boilers. These test methods are intended to permit the functional testing of a range of control strategies used to fulfill this design requirement. Section 2, <I>Definitions,</I> and paragraph 6.1.a of appendix EE to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter apply for the purposes of this paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Test protocol for all products other than single-stage products employing burner delay.</I> This test is intended to verify whether an automatic means for adjusting water temperature other than burner delay produces an incremental change in water supply temperature in response to an incremental change in inferred heat load.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Boiler setup</I>—(A) <I>Boiler installation.</I> Boiler installation in the test room shall be in accordance with the setup and apparatus requirements of section 6 of appendix EE to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Establishing flow rate and temperature rise.</I> Start the boiler without enabling the means for adjusting water temperature. Establish a water flow rate that allows for a water temperature rise of greater than or equal to 20 °F at maximum input rate.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Temperature stabilization.</I> Temperature stabilization is deemed to be obtained when the boiler supply water temperature does not vary by more than ±3 °F over a period of five minutes.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Adjust the inferential load controller.</I> (<I>1</I>) Adjust the boiler controls (in accordance with the I&amp;O manual) to the default setting that allows for activation of the means for adjusting water temperature. For boiler controls that do not allow for control adjustment during active mode operation, terminate call for heat and adjust the inferential load controller in accordance with the I&amp;O manual and then reinitiate call for heat.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the means for adjusting water temperature uses outdoor temperature reset, the maximum outdoor temperature setting (if equipped) should be set to a temperature high enough that the boiler operates continuously during the duration of this test (<I>i.e.,</I> if the conditions in paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(A) of this section equal room ambient temperature, then the maximum outdoor temperature should be set at a temperature greater than the ambient air temperature during the test).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Establish low inferred load conditions at minimum boiler supply water temperature</I>—(A) <I>Establish low inferred load conditions.</I> (<I>1</I>) Establish the inferred load conditions (simulated using a controlling parameter, such as outdoor temperature, thermostat patterns, or boiler cycling) so that the supply water temperature is maintained at the minimum supply water temperature prescribed by the boiler manufacturer's temperature reset control strategy found in the I&amp;O manual.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The minimum supply water temperature of the default temperature reset curve is usually provided in the I&amp;O manual. If there is no recommended minimum supply water temperature, set the minimum supply water temperature equal to 20 °F less than the high supply water temperature specified in paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Supply water temperature stabilization at low inferred load.</I> (<I>1</I>) Maintain the call for heat until the boiler supply water temperature has stabilized. Temperature stabilization is deemed to be obtained when the boiler supply water temperature does not vary by more than ±3 °F over a period of five minutes. The duration of time required to stabilize the supply water, following the procedure in paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, is dependent on the reset strategy and may vary from model to model.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Record the boiler supply water temperature while the temperature is stabilized.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Establish high inferred load conditions at maximum boiler supply water temperature</I>—(A) <I>Establish high inferred load conditions.</I> Establish the inferred load conditions so that the supply water temperature is set to the maximum allowable supply water temperature as prescribed in the I&amp;O manual, or if there is no recommendation, set to a temperature greater than 170 °F.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Supply water temperature stabilization at high inferred load.</I> (<I>1</I>) Maintain the call for heat until the boiler supply water temperature has stabilized. Temperature stabilization is deemed to be obtained when the boiler supply water temperature does not vary by more than ±3 °F over a period of five minutes. The duration of time required to stabilize the supply water, following the procedure in paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A) of this section, is dependent on the reset strategy and may vary from model to model.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Record the boiler supply water temperature while the temperature is stabilized.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Terminate the call for heat.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test protocol for single-stage products employing burner delay.</I> This test will be used in place of paragraph (h)(1) of this section for products manufacturers have certified to DOE under § 429.18(b)(3) as employing a burner delay automatic means strategy. This test verifies whether the automatic means in single-stage boiler products establishes a burner delay upon a call for heat until the means has determined that the inferred heat load cannot be met by the residual heat of the water in the system.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Boiler setup</I>—(A) <I>Boiler installation.</I> Boiler installation in the test room shall be in accordance with the setup and apparatus requirements by section 6.0 of appendix EE to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Activation of controls.</I> Adjust the boiler controls in accordance with the I&amp;O manual at the default setting that allows for activation of the means for adjusting water temperature.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Adjustment of water flow and temperature.</I> The flow and temperature of inlet water to the boiler shall be capable of being adjusted manually.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Boiler heat-up</I>—(A) <I>Boiler start-up.</I> Power up the boiler and initiate a call for heat.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Adjustment of firing rate.</I> Adjust the boiler's firing rate to within ±5% of its maximum rated input.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Establishing flow rate and temperature rise.</I> Adjust the water flow through the boiler to achieve a ΔT of 20 °F (±2 °F) or greater with an inlet water temperature equal to 140 °F (±2 °F).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Terminate the call for heating.</I> Terminate the call for heat, stop the flow of water through the boiler, and record the time at termination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Verify burner delay</I>—(A) <I>Reinitiate call for heat.</I> Within three (3) minutes of termination (paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(D) of this section) and without adjusting the inlet water flow rate or temperature as specified in paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(C) of this section, reinitiate the call for heat and water flow and record the time.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Verify burner ignition.</I> At 15-second intervals, record time and supply water temperature until the main burner ignites.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Terminate the call for heat.</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Pumps</I>—(1) <I>General purpose pumps.</I> (i) The volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 431.464 of this chapter, where the value of volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation certified by the manufacturer will be treated as the expected BEP flow rate. The results of the measurement(s) will be compared to the value of volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation certified by the manufacturer. The certified volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation for a single unit sample or the average of the measured flow rates for a multiple unit sample) is within five percent of the certified volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation.
</P>
<P>(A) If the representative value of volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation is found to be valid, the measured volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation will be used in subsequent calculations of constant load pump energy rating (PER<E T="52">CL</E>) and constant load pump energy index (PEI<E T="52">CL</E>) or variable load pump energy rating (PER<E T="52">VL</E>) and variable load pump energy index (PEI<E T="52">VL</E>) for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) If the representative value of volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation is found to be invalid, the mean of all the measured volume rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation values determined from the tested unit(s) will serve as the new expected BEP flow rate and the unit(s) will be retested until such time as the measured rate of flow (flow rate) at BEP and nominal speed of rotation is within 5 percent of the expected BEP flow rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE will test each pump unit according to the test method specified by the manufacturer in the certification report submitted pursuant to § 429.59(b); if the model of pump unit was rated using an AEDM, DOE may use either a testing approach or calculation approach.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dedicated-purpose pool pumps.</I> (i) The rated hydraulic horsepower of each tested unit of the basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 431.464(b) of this chapter and the result of the measurement(s) will be compared to the value of rated hydraulic horsepower certified by the manufacturer. The certified rated hydraulic horsepower will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured rated hydraulic horsepower for a single unit sample or the average of the measured rated hydraulic horsepower values for a multiple unit sample) is within 5 percent of the certified rated hydraulic horsepower.
</P>
<P>(A) If the representative value of rated hydraulic horsepower is found to be valid, the value of rated hydraulic horsepower certified by the manufacturer will be used to determine the standard level for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) If the representative value of rated hydraulic horsepower is found to be invalid, the mean of all the measured rated hydraulic horsepower values determined from the tested unit(s) will be used to determine the standard level for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) To verify the self-priming capability of non-self-priming pool filter pumps and of self-priming pool filter pumps that are not certified with NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4) as self-priming, the vertical lift and true priming time of each tested unit of the basic model of self-priming or non-self-priming pool filter pump will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 431.464(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(A) For self-priming pool filter pumps that are not certified with NSF/ANSI 50-2015 as self-priming, at a vertical lift of 5.0 feet, the result of the true priming time measurement(s) will be compared to the value of true priming time certified by the manufacturer. The certified value of true priming time will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured true priming time for a single unit sample or the average of true priming time values for a multiple unit sample) is within 5 percent of the certified value of true priming time.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the representative value of true priming time is found to be valid, the value of true priming time certified by the manufacturer will be used to determine the appropriate equipment class and standard level for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the representative value of true priming time is found to be invalid, the mean of the values of true priming time determined from the tested unit(s) will be used to determine the appropriate equipment class and standard level for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) For non-self-priming pool filter pumps, at a vertical lift of 5.0 feet, the result of the true priming time measurement(s) (either the measured true priming time for a single unit sample or the average of true priming time values, for a multiple unit sample) will be compared to the value of true priming time referenced in the definition of non-self-priming pool filter pump at § 431.462 (10.0 minutes).
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the measurement(s) of true priming time are greater than 95 percent of the value of true priming time referenced in the definition of non-self-priming pool filter pump at § 431.462 with a vertical lift of 5.0 feet, the DPPP model will be considered a non-self-priming pool filter pump for the purposes of determining the appropriate equipment class and standard level for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the conditions specified in paragraph (i)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section are not satisfied, then the DPPP model will be considered a self-priming pool filter pump for the purposes of determining the appropriate equipment class and standard level for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(iii) To verify the maximum head of self-priming pool filter pump, non-self-priming pool filter pumps, and waterfall pumps, the maximum head of each tested unit of the basic model of self-priming pool filter pump, non-self-priming pool filter pump, or waterfall pump will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 431.464(b) of this chapter and the result of the measurement(s) will be compared to the value of maximum head certified by the manufacturer. The certified value of maximum head will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured maximum head for a single unit sample or the average of the maximum head values for a multiple unit sample) is within 5 percent of the certified values of maximum head.
</P>
<P>(A) If the representative value of maximum head is found to be valid, the value of maximum head certified by the manufacturer will be used to determine the appropriate equipment class and standard level for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) If the representative value of maximum head is found to be invalid, the measured value(s) of maximum head determined from the tested unit(s) will be used to determine the appropriate equipment class and standard level for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(iv) To verify that a DPPP model complies with the applicable freeze protection control design requirements, the initiation temperature, run-time, and speed of rotation of the default control configuration of each tested unit of the basic model of dedicated-purpose pool pump will be evaluated according to the procedure specified in paragraph (i)(2)(iv)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Set up and configure the dedicated-purpose pool pump under test according to the manufacturer instructions, including any necessary initial priming, in a test apparatus as described in appendix A of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4), except that the ambient temperature registered by the freeze protection ambient temperature sensor will be able to be measured and controlled by, for example, exposing the freeze protection temperature sensor to a specific temperature by submerging the sensor in a water bath of known temperature, by adjusting the actual ambient air temperature of the test chamber and measuring the temperature at the freeze protection ambient temperature sensor location, or by other means that allows the ambient temperature registered by the freeze protection temperature sensor to be reliably simulated, varied, and measured. Do not adjust the default freeze protection control settings or enable the freeze protection control if it is shipped disabled.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Activate power to the pump with the flow rate set to zero (<I>i.e.,</I> the pump is energized but not circulating water). Set the ambient temperature to 42.0 ± 0.5  °F and allow the temperature to stabilize, where stability is determined in accordance with section 40.6.3.2.2 of HI 40.6-2014-B. After 5 minutes, decrease the temperature measured by the freeze protection temperature sensor by 1.0 ± 0.5  °F and allow the temperature to stabilize. After each reduction in ambient temperature and subsequent stabilization, record the DPPP rotating speed, if any, and freeze protection ambient temperature reading, where the “freeze protection ambient temperature reading” is representative of the temperature measured by the freeze protection ambient temperature sensor, which may be recorded by a variety of means depending on how the temperature is being simulated and controlled. If no flow is initiated, record zero rpm or no flow. Continue decreasing the temperature measured by the freeze protection temperature sensor by 1.0 ± 0.5  °F after 5.0 minutes of stable operation at the previous temperature reading until the pump freeze protection initiates water circulation or until the ambient temperature of 38.0 ± 0.5  °F has been evaluated (<I>i.e.,</I> the end of the 5.0 minute interval of 38.0  °F), whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If and when the DPPP freeze protection controls initiate water circulation, increase the ambient temperature reading registered by the freeze protection temperature sensor to a temperature of 42.0 ± 0.5  °F and maintain that temperature for 60.0 minutes. Do not modify or interfere with the operation of the DPPP freeze protection operating cycle. After 60.0 minutes, record the freeze protection ambient temperature and rotating speed, if any, of the dedicated-purpose pool pump under test.
</P>
<P>(B) If the dedicated-purpose pool pump initiates water circulation at a temperature greater than 40.0  °F; if the dedicated-purpose pool pump was still circulating water after 60.0 minutes of operation at 42.0 ± 0.5  °F; or if rotating speed measured at any point during the DPPP freeze protection control test in paragraph (i)(2)(iii)(A) of this section was greater than one-half of the maximum rotating speed of the DPPP model certified by the manufacturer, that DPPP model is deemed to not comply with the design requirement for freeze protection controls.
</P>
<P>(C) If none of the conditions specified in paragraph (i)(2)(iv)(B) of this section are met, including if the DPPP freeze protection control does not initiate water circulation at all during the test, the dedicated-purpose pool pump under test is deemed compliant with the design requirement for freeze protection controls.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Circulator pumps.</I> (i) The flow rate at BEP and maximum speed of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 431.464(c) of this chapter, where the value of flow rate at BEP and maximum speed certified by the manufacturer will be treated as the expected BEP flow rate at maximum speed. The resulting measurement(s) will be compared to the value of flow rate at BEP and maximum speed certified by the manufacturer. The certified flow rate at BEP and maximum speed will be considered valid only if the measurement (either the measured flow rate at BEP and maximum speed for a single unit sample or the average of the measured flow rates for a multiple unit sample) is within 5 percent of the certified flow rate at BEP and maximum speed.
</P>
<P>(A) If the representative value of flow rate is found to be valid, the measured flow rate at BEP and maximum speed will be used in subsequent calculations of circulator energy rating (CER) and circulator energy index (CEI) for that basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) If the representative value of flow rate at BEP and maximum speed is found to be invalid, the mean of all the measured values of flow rate at BEP and maximum speed determined from the tested unit(s) will serve as the new expected BEP flow rate and the unit(s) will be retested until such time as the measured flow rate at BEP and maximum speed is within 5 percent of the expected BEP flow rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The rated hydraulic horsepower of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 431.464(c) of this chapter. The resulting measurement will be compared to the rated hydraulic horsepower certified by the manufacturer. The certified rated hydraulic horsepower will be considered valid only if the measurement (either the measured rated hydraulic horsepower for a single unit sample or the average of the measured rated hydraulic horsepower values for a multiple unit sample) is within 5 percent of the certified rated hydraulic horsepower.
</P>
<P>(A) If the certified rated hydraulic horsepower is found to be valid, the certified rated hydraulic horsepower will be used as the basis for determining scope of applicability for that model.
</P>
<P>(B) If the certified rated hydraulic horsepower is found to be invalid, the arithmetic mean of all the hydraulic horsepower values resulting from DOE's testing will be used as the basis for determining scope of applicability for that model.
</P>
<P>(iii) DOE will test each circulator pump unit according to the control setting with which the unit was rated. If no control setting is specified and no controls were available, DOE will test using the full speed test. If no control setting is specified and a variety of controls are available, DOE will test using the test method for any one of the control varieties available on board.
</P>
<P>(iv) DOE will test each circulator pump using the description and equation for the control curve with which it was rated, if available.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines</I>—(1) <I>Verification of refrigerated volume.</I> The refrigerated volume (V) of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR 431.296. The results of the measurement(s) will be compared to the representative value of refrigerated volume certified by the manufacturer. The certified refrigerated volume will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured refrigerated volume for a single unit sample or the average of the measured refrigerated volumes for a multiple unit sample) is within five percent of the certified refrigerated volume.
</P>
<P>(i) If the representative value of refrigerated volume is found to be valid, the certified refrigerated volume will be used as the basis for calculation of maximum daily energy consumption for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the representative value of refrigerated volume is found to be invalid, the average measured refrigerated volume determined from the tested unit(s) will serve as the basis for calculation of maximum daily energy consumption for the tested basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of surface area, transparent, and non-transparent areas.</I> The percent transparent surface area on the front side of the basic model will be measured pursuant to these requirements for the purposes of determining whether a given basic model meets the definition of Class A or Combination A, as presented at 10 CFR 431.292. The transparent and non-transparent surface areas shall be determined on the front side of the beverage vending machine at the outermost surfaces of the beverage vending machine cabinet, from edge to edge, excluding any legs or other protrusions that extend beyond the dimensions of the primary cabinet. Determine the transparent and non-transparent areas on each side of a beverage vending machine as described in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. For combination vending machines, disregard the surface area surrounding any refrigerated compartments that are not designed to be refrigerated (as demonstrated by the presence of temperature controls), whether or not it is transparent. Determine the percent transparent surface area on the front side of the beverage vending machine as a ratio of the measured transparent area on that side divided by the sum of the measured transparent and non-transparent areas, multiplying the result by 100.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <I>Determination of transparent area.</I> Determine the total surface area that is transparent as the sum of all surface areas on the front side of a beverage vending machine that meet the definition of transparent at 10 CFR 431.292. When determining whether or not a particular wall segment is transparent, transparency should be determined for the aggregate performance of all the materials between the refrigerated volume and the ambient environment; the composite performance of all those materials in a particular wall segment must meet the definition of transparent for that area be treated as transparent.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Determination of non-transparent area.</I> Determine the total surface area that is not transparent as the sum of all surface areas on the front side of a beverage vending machine that are not considered part of the transparent area, as determined in accordance with paragraph (j)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Central air conditioners and heat pumps.</I> Before July 7, 2025, the provisions in this section of this title as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2023 are applicable. On and after July 7, 2025, provisions in paragraphs (k)(1), (2) and (3) of this section shall apply. On and after July 7, 2026, provisions in paragraph (k)(4) of this section shall also apply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Verification of cooling capacity.</I> The cooling capacity of each tested unit of the individual model (for single-package systems) or individual combination (for split systems) will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 430.23(m) of this chapter. The mean of the measurement(s) (either the measured cooling capacity for a single unit sample or the average of the measured cooling capacities for a multiple unit sample) will be used to determine the applicable standards for purposes of compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of C</I><E T="52">D</E><I> value.</I> (i) For central air conditioners and heat pumps other than models of outdoor units with no match, if manufacturers certify that they did not conduct the optional tests to determine the C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> and/or C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> value for an individual model (for single-package systems) or individual combination (for split systems), as applicable, for each unit tested, the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> and/or C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> value will be used as the basis for the calculation of SEER2 or HSPF2 when testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, or SCORE or SHORE when testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430. If manufacturers certify that they conducted the optional tests to determine the C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> and/or C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> value for an individual model (for single-package systems) or individual combination (for split systems), as applicable, the following provisions apply.
</P>
<P>(A) If testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> and/or C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> value will be measured for each unit tested pursuant to appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 and the result for each unit tested (either the tested value or the default value, as selected according to the criteria for the cyclic test in section E17 of AHRI 210/240-2024 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) will be used as the basis for calculation of SEER2 or HSPF2.
</P>
<P>(B) If testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> and/or C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> value will be measured for each unit tested pursuant to appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 and the result for each unit tested (either the tested value or the default value, as selected according to the criteria for the cyclic test in section E17 of AHRI 1600-2024 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) will be used as the basis for calculation of SCORE or SHORE.
</P>
<P>(ii) For models of outdoor units with no match, DOE will use the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> and/or C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> pursuant to appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 or appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of cut-out and cut-in temperatures for central heat pumps.</I> (i) When testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the cut-out and cut-in temperatures may be verified using the method in appendix J of AHRI 210/240-2024 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4). If this method is conducted, the tested T<E T="52">OFF,T</E> and T<E T="52">ON,T</E> values determined in the test shall be used as the cut-out and cut-in temperatures, respectively, to calculate HSPF2.
</P>
<P>(ii) When testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, the cut-out and cut-in temperatures may be verified using the method in appendix J of AHRI 1600-2024 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4). If this method is conducted, the tested T<E T="52">OFF,T</E> and T<E T="52">ON,T</E> values determined in the test shall be used as the cut-out and cut-in temperatures, respectively, to calculate SHORE.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Verification of Variable Capacity Operation and of Fixed Settings for the Compressor and the Indoor Fan when Testing Variable Capacity Compressor Systems</I>—(i) <I>Conducting the controls verification procedure (CVP).</I> A CVP may be performed for any model certified as a variable capacity compressor system for the purposes of assessment or enforcement testing conducted according to appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 or appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 (<I>i.e.,</I> the certification tests), as applicable. For a heat pump, either a cooling mode CVP, a heating mode CVP, or both may be conducted, as elected by DOE. If a CVP is not conducted, the override instructions for the compressor and indoor fan, as specified by the manufacturer, will be used to conduct the tests per appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430 or, appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>When testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.</I> The CVP will be conducted per appendix I of AHRI 210/240-2024 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>When testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.</I> The CVP will be conducted per appendix I of AHRI 1600-2024 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Variable capacity certified, single capacity systems.</I> For systems determined to be variable capacity certified, single capacity systems as described in paragraph (k)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, the CVP cooling and heating minimum intervals may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Variable capacity determination.</I> (A) If the unit tested does meet the definition of a variable capacity compressor system based on performance of the CVP per paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or paragraph (k)(4)(i)(B) of this section, the efficiency metrics (SEER2, HSPF2, EER2, SCORE, SHORE, EER as applicable) shall be determined using the certification test applicable to variable capacity compressor systems.
</P>
<P>(B) If the unit tested does not meet the definition of a variable capacity compressor system based on performance of the CVP per paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, and the tested unit is instead determined to be a variable capacity certified, single capacity system, the efficiency metrics (SEER2, HSPF2, EER2, SCORE, SHORE, EER as applicable) shall be determined using the certification test applicable to variable capacity certified, single capacity systems.
</P>
<P>(C) If the unit tested does not meet the definition of a variable capacity compressor system based on performance of the CVP per paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, and the tested unit is instead determined to be a variable capacity certified, two capacity system, the efficiency metrics (SEER2, HSPF2, EER2, SCORE, SHORE, EER as applicable) shall be determined using the certification test applicable to variable capacity certified, two capacity systems.
</P>
<P>(D) If, for a heat pump, a CVP is conducted for just one of the operating modes (heating or cooling), the system classifications for both modes will be based on the results of the one CVP conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CVP tolerance evaluation for full and minimum load intervals.</I> (A) The data collected in the CVP per paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section shall be evaluated for the duration of the individual CVP full or minimum load interval excluding the preliminary 30 minutes of equilibrium data, to determine compliance with test condition tolerances and test operating tolerances listed in section I5.1 of appendix I of AHRI 210/240-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) or of AHRI 1600-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)), with the exception that indoor entering wet bulb deviation in I5.1 and test operating tolerance in I5.1.3 is applicable only for cooling mode CVP.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the specified tolerances are met under system operation for 60 minutes, the average capacity and average power measured over this 60-minute test interval shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the four-hour time limit is reached by the system without maintaining the tolerances for a 60-minute period, but two successive test period sub-intervals are identified, each a minimum of 30 minutes, and comprised of a whole number of compressor cycles (either compressor on-off cycles or speed/capacity cycles) or in which minimal fluctuations of the compressor speed/capacity level are observed, where both the time averaged integrated capacity and time averaged integrated power of the two successive test period sub-intervals are observed to be within two percent of each other, a single capacity average and a single power average shall be recorded, both averaged over compressor-on periods of the two successive test period sub-intervals. These average capacity and power values shall be considered the capacity and power values recorded for the test interval.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the four-hour time limit is reached by the system without complying with either paragraph (k)(4)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this section, the time averaged integrated capacity and time averaged integrated power shall be recorded for only the compressor-on periods over the final 120 minutes of the test interval.
</P>
<P>(B) Determine whether the measured capacity for each full load interval, as evaluated per the CVP conducted in paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, is no more than 6% less than the corresponding certification test capacity, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.016.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">A,Full</E> = Certification test capacity at A<E T="52">Full</E> condition,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">CVP,A,Full</E> = CVP test capacity at A<E T="52">Full</E> condition,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">H3,Full</E> = Certification test capacity at H3<E T="52">Full</E> condition,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">CVP,H3,Full</E> = CVP test capacity at H3<E T="52">Full</E> condition,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">H4,Full</E> = Certification test capacity at H4<E T="52">Full</E> condition,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">CVP,H4,Full</E>= CVP test capacity at H4<E T="52">Full</E> condition,</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) Determine whether the measured capacity for each minimum load interval, as evaluated per the CVP conducted in paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, is no more than 6% less than the corresponding certification test capacity, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.017.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">CVP,F,Low</E>= CVP test capacity at F<E T="52">Low</E> condition,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">F,Low</E> = Certification test capacity at F<E T="52">Low</E> condition,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">CVP,H1,Low</E> = CVP test capacity at H1<E T="52">Low</E> condition,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">H1,Low</E>= Certification test capacity at H1<E T="52">Low</E> condition,</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(D) Determine whether the measured efficiency for the full and minimum load interval, as evaluated per the CVP conducted in paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, is no more than 10% less than the corresponding certification test efficiency, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.018.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.019.gif"/>
<P>(E) Cooling and heating efficiency requirements are shown using EER2 and COP2 to align with testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430. When testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430, replace EER2 with EER, and COP2 with COP.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Evaluation of results when CVP tolerances are met.</I> If the tolerances for capacity and efficiency are met by the applicable full and minimum load intervals as per paragraphs (k)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section, the certified override instructions for the compressor and indoor fan, as specified by the manufacturer, shall be deemed valid, and the efficiency metrics (SEER2, HSPF2, EER2, SCORE, SHORE, EER as applicable), shall be determined based on these certification tests with no adjustments determined based on the CVP results.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Evaluation of results when CVP tolerances are not met.</I> If the tolerances for capacity and efficiency are not met by the applicable full and minimum load intervals as per paragraphs (k)(4)(iii)(B) through (D) of this section, the unit shall be tested per instructions in paragraphs (k)(4)(v)(A) through (C) of this section, as applicable. The instructions in paragraphs (k)(4)(v)(A) through (C) shall be followed, as applicable, only for the certification tests corresponding to the out of tolerance compressor speed interval based on the evaluations of paragraphs (k)(4)(iii)(B) through (D). For all compressor speed intervals for which the capacity and EER2/COP2/EER/COP are in tolerance as per paragraphs (k)(4)(iii)(B) through (D), the corresponding certification tests shall be used without adjustments.
</P>
<P>(A) The instructions of this paragraph shall be applied to systems for which the same control device used as per the CVP conducted in paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section is used as the means for overriding the controls, and both of the following are supported by the control device: monitoring of the compressor and indoor blower speed during native-control operation without otherwise impacting the control of the system; and monitoring and adjustment of the compressor and indoor blower speed during certification tests, where monitoring and adjustment means the control device has the ability to display and make discrete adjustments, as required, to the compressor and indoor blower speeds without additional hardware or non-publicly available software.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The compressor and indoor blower speed shall be monitored during the CVP conducted in paragraph (k)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. The average compressor and indoor blower speeds and indoor air volume rate shall be evaluated for the same time period(s) used as described in paragraph (k)(4)(iii)(A) of this section to determine average capacity and power for the CVP test. The compressor speed for the certification test shall be set at this average value observed during the corresponding CVP test interval. The indoor blower speed shall be set as described in section 6.1.5 of AHRI 210/240-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) or of AHRI 1600-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)), except the “specified airflow” shall be set as the average value observed during the corresponding CVP test interval. The same adjusted compressor speed shall be used for the other certification tests that require the same speed, as applicable, as detailed in table 1 to this paragraph (k)(4)(v)(A). Specifically, for each of the CVP tests listed in the first column for which either the capacity tolerances of paragraph (k)(4)(iii)(B) or (C) of this section are not met or the efficiency tolerances of paragraph (k)(4)(iii)(D) of this section are not met, the certification tests to be conducted again using the compressor speed determined in the corresponding CVP test are listed in the last three columns of the table, depending on which of the three kinds of system the model is designated.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If required, the adjusted q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">H3,Full</E> and P<E T="54">H3,Full</E> shall be used to calculate q
<AC T="b"/><E T="53">k=2</E><E T="54">hcalc</E>(47) and P<E T="53">k=2</E><E T="54">hcalc</E>(47), respectively, to represent performance at 47 °F as described in section 11.2.2.4 of AHRI 210/240-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) or of AHRI 1600-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) and for use in calculating performance at 35 °F. If required, the adjusted <I>H</I>1<E T="54">Low</E> and <I>H</I>3<E T="54">Low</E> tests shall be used to calculate q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">thi,H2,Low</E> and P<E T="54">H2,Low</E>, respectively, as described in section 6.1.3.4 of AHRI 210/240-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) or of AHRI 1600-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)). No adjustments are required for intermediate or nominal compressor speed tests or, if cyclic tests are conducted, for the degradation coefficient(s).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">k</E>)(4)(<E T="01">v</E>)(A)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">CVP test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Certification tests that use the indicated CVP test compressor speed or would have certification test


<br/>results adjusted per paragraph (k)(4)(v)(B) of this section, if the CVP test is out of capacity or EER/COP

<br/>tolerance per paragraph (k)(4)(iii) of this section
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variable capacity certified, single capacity system
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variable capacity certified,


<br/>two capacity system
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variable capacity system
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A<E T="0732">Full</E>, B<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A<E T="0732">Full</E>, B<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A<E T="0732">Full</E>, B<E T="0732">Full</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F<E T="0732">Low</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B<E T="0732">Low</E>, F<E T="0732">Low</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B<E T="0732">Low</E>, F<E T="0732">Low</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="0732">Low</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H0<E T="0732">Low</E>, H1<E T="0732">Low</E>, H3<E T="0732">Low</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H0<E T="0732">Low</E>, H1<E T="0732">Low</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H2<E T="0732">Full</E>, H3<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H3<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H3<E T="0732">Full</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H4<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H4<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H4<E T="0732">Full</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H4<E T="0732">Full</E>.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) The instructions of this paragraph shall be applied to systems for which the means for overriding the compressor and indoor blower speed as discussed in paragraph (k)(4)(v)(A) of this section is not provided by the control used for conducting the CVP. For each of the CVP tests listed in the first column of table 1 to paragraph (k)(4)(v)(A) of this section for which either the capacity tolerances of paragraph (k)(4)(iii)(B) or (C) of this section are not met or the efficiency tolerances of paragraph (k)(4)(iii)(D) of this section are not met, depending on which of the three kinds of system the model is designated, the certification test results to be adjusted based on the results of the CVP test are indicated by the last three columns of the table for each CVP test listed in the first column.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The average capacities and power(s) measured during the CVP time period(s) described in paragraph (k)(4)(iii)(A) of this section shall be used (with no adjustment for tests having a CVP interval). For the certification tests requiring adjustment with no CVP interval (any required certification test in column 2, 3, or 4 of table 1 to paragraph (k)(4)(v)(A) of this section other than A<E T="52">Full</E>, F<E T="52">Low</E>, H1<E T="52">Low</E>, H3<E T="52">Full</E> and H4<E T="52">Full</E> for which the column 1 CVP interval did not meet capacity or EER2/COP2/EER/COP tolerances), the capacity and power shall be adjusted. The capacity shall be adjusted by applying the ratio of the capacity measured during the CVP test interval divided by the capacity measured during the certification test (for the corresponding CVP interval). The power shall be adjusted by applying the ratio of the power measured during the CVP test interval divided by the power measured during the certification test (for the corresponding CVP interval), as follows:
</P>
<P>Cooling full capacity:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.020.gif"/>
<P>Cooling full power:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.021.gif"/>
<P>Cooling minimum capacity:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.022.gif"/>
<P>Cooling minimum power:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.023.gif"/>
<P>Heating minimum capacity:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.024.gif"/>
<P>Heating minimum power:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07ja25.025.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CSF = 0.0204/ °F, capacity slope factor for Split Systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CSF = 0.0262/ °F, capacity slope factor for Single Package Units
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PSF = 0.00455/ °F, power slope factor for all products</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If required, the measured Q<E T="54">H3,Full</E> and E<E T="54">H3,Full</E> from the CVP shall be used to calculate q
<AC T="b"/><E T="53">k=2</E><E T="54">hcalc</E>(47) and P<E T="53">k=2</E><E T="54">hcalc</E>(47), respectively, to represent performance at 47 °F as described in section 11.2.2.4 of AHRI 210/240-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) or of AHRI 1600-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M2; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)), and for use in calculating performance at 35 °F. If required, the measured <I>H</I>1<E T="54">Low</E> from the CVP and the adjusted <I>H</I>3<E T="54">Low</E> tests shall be used to calculate q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">thi,H2,Low</E> and P<E T="54">H2,Low</E>, respectively, as described in section 6.1.3.4 of AHRI 210/240-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)) or of AHRI 1600-2024 (if testing in accordance with appendix M2 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430; (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4)). No adjustments are required for intermediate or nominal compressor speed tests or, if cyclic tests are conducted, the degradation coefficient(s).
</P>
<P>(C) If the test unit is determined to be variable capacity certified, single capacity system, or variable capacity certified, two capacity system and is not certified or marketed for use with only a proprietary control device, the same simulated thermostat low voltage signal that resulted in full speed compressor operation for the full load intervals shall be used for all certification full load tests. If the test unit is determined to be variable capacity certified, two capacity system and is not certified or marketed for use with only a proprietary control device the same simulated thermostat low voltage signal that resulted in low-speed compressor operation for the low load intervals shall be used for all certification low load tests.








</P>
<P>(l) <I>Miscellaneous refrigeration products</I>—(1) <I>Verification of total refrigerated volume.</I> For all miscellaneous refrigeration products, the total refrigerated volume of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of part 430 of this chapter for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of total refrigerated volume certified by the manufacturer. The certified total refrigerated volume will be considered valid only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The measurement is within two percent, or 0.5 cubic feet (0.2 cubic feet for products with total refrigerated volume less than 7.75 cubic feet (220 liters)), whichever is greater, of the certified total refrigerated volume; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The measurement is greater than the certified total refrigerated volume.
</P>
<P>(A) If the certified total refrigerated volume is found to be valid, the certified adjusted total volume will be used as the basis for calculating the maximum allowed energy use for the tested basic model.
</P>
<P>(B) If the certified total refrigerated volume is found to be invalid, the average measured adjusted total volume, rounded to the nearest 0.1 cubic foot, will serve as the basis for calculating the maximum allowed energy use for the tested basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test for models with two compartments, each having its own user-operable temperature control.</I> The test described in section 5.2(b) of the applicable test procedure in appendix A to subpart B part 430 of this chapter shall be used for all units of a tested basic model before DOE makes a determination of noncompliance with respect to the basic model.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Commercial packaged boilers</I>—(1) <I>Verification of fuel input rate.</I> The fuel input rate of each tested unit will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 431.86 of this chapter. The results of the measurement(s) will be compared to the value of rated input certified by the manufacturer. The certified rated input will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured fuel input rate for a single unit sample or the average of the measured fuel input rates for a multiple unit sample) is within two percent of the certified rated input.
</P>
<P>(i) If the measured fuel input rate is within two-percent of the certified rated input, the certified rated input will serve as the basis for determination of the appropriate equipment class(es) and the mean measured fuel input rate will be used as the basis for calculation of combustion and/or thermal efficiency for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the measured fuel input rate for a gas-fired commercial packaged boiler is not within two-percent of the certified rated input, DOE will first attempt to increase or decrease the gas manifold pressure within the range specified in manufacturer's installation and operation manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler being tested (or, if not provided in the manual, in supplemental instructions provided by the manufacturer pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4) of this chapter) to achieve the certified rated input (within two-percent). If the fuel input rate is still not within two-percent of the certified rated input, DOE will attempt to increase or decrease the gas inlet pressure within the range specified in manufacturer's installation and operation manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler being tested (or, if not provided in the manual, in supplemental instructions provided by the manufacturer pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4)) to achieve the certified rated input (within two-percent). If the fuel input rate is still not within two-percent of the certified rated input, DOE will attempt to modify the gas inlet orifice if the unit is equipped with one. If the fuel input rate still is not within two percent of the certified rated input, the mean measured fuel input rate (either for a single unit sample or the average of the measured fuel input rates for a multiple unit sample) will serve as the basis for determination of the appropriate equipment class(es) and calculation of combustion and/or thermal efficiency for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the measured fuel input rate for an oil-fired commercial packaged boiler is not within two-percent of the certified rated input, the mean measured fuel input rate (either for a single unit sample or the average of the measured fuel input rates for a multiple unit sample) will serve as the basis for determination of the appropriate equipment class(es) and calculation of combustion and/or thermal efficiency for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Models capable of producing both hot water and steam.</I> For a model of commercial packaged boiler that is capable of producing both hot water and steam, DOE may measure the thermal or combustion efficiency as applicable (see § 431.87 of this chapter) for steam and/or hot water modes. DOE will evaluate compliance based on the measured thermal or combustion efficiency in steam and hot water modes, independently.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Commercial water heating equipment other than residential-duty commercial water heaters</I>—(1) <I>Verification of fuel input rate.</I> The fuel input rate of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 431.106 of this chapter. The measured fuel input rate (either the measured fuel input rate for a single unit sample or the average of the measured fuel input rates for a multiple unit sample) will be compared to the rated input certified by the manufacturer. The certified rated input will be considered valid only if the measured fuel input rate is within two percent of the certified rated input.
</P>
<P>(i) If the certified rated input is found to be valid, then the certified rated input will serve as the basis for determination of the appropriate equipment class and calculation of the standby loss standard (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(ii) If the measured fuel input rate for gas-fired commercial water heating equipment is not within two percent of the certified rated input, DOE will first attempt to increase or decrease the gas outlet pressure within 10 percent of the value specified on the nameplate of the model of commercial water heating equipment being tested to achieve the certified rated input (within 2 percent). If the fuel input rate is still not within two percent of the certified rated input, DOE will attempt to increase or decrease the gas supply pressure within the range specified on the nameplate of the model of commercial water heating equipment being tested. If the measured fuel input rate is still not within two percent of the certified rated input, DOE will attempt to modify the gas inlet orifice, if the unit is equipped with one. If the measured fuel input rate still is not within two percent of the certified rated input, the measured fuel input rate will serve as the basis for determination of the appropriate equipment class and calculation of the standby loss standard (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(iii) If the measured fuel input rate for oil-fired commercial water heating equipment is not within two percent of the certified rated input, the measured fuel input rate will serve as the basis for determination of the appropriate equipment class and calculation of the standby loss standard (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Uninterruptible power supplies.</I> (1) To determine the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) architecture:
</P>
<P>(i) When testing according to appendix Y to subpart B of part 430, perform the UPS architecture tests specified in the definitions of VI, VFD, and VFI in sections 2.27.1 through 2.27.3 of appendix Y to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
</P>
<P>(ii) When testing according to appendix Y1 to subpart B of part 430, perform the UPS architecture tests specified in the definitions of VI, VFD, and VFI in sections 2.28.1 through 2.28.3 of appendix Y1 to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.


</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Compressors</I>—(1) <I>Verification of full-load operating pressure.</I> (i) The maximum full-flow operating pressure of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of appendix A to subpart T of part 431 of this chapter, where 90 percent of the value of full-load operating pressure certified by the manufacturer will be the starting point of the test method prior to increasing discharge pressure. The measured maximum full-flow operating pressure (either the single measured value for a single unit sample or the mean of the measured maximum full-flow operating pressures for a multiple unit sample) will be compared to the certified rating for full-load operating pressure to determine if the certified rating is valid or not. The certified rating for full-load operating pressure will be considered valid only if the certified rating for full-load operating pressure is less than or equal to the measured maximum full-flow operating pressure and greater than or equal to the lesser of—
</P>
<P>(A) 90 percent of the measured maximum full-flow operating pressure; or
</P>
<P>(B) 10 psig less than the measured maximum full-flow operating pressure.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the certified full-load operating pressure is found to be valid, then the certified value will be used as the full-load operating pressure and will be the basis for determination of full-load actual volume flow rate, pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure, specific power, and package isentropic efficiency.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the certified full-load operating pressure is found to be invalid, then the measured maximum full-flow operating pressure will be used as the full-load operating pressure and will be the basis for determination of full-load actual volume flow rate, pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure, specific power, and package isentropic efficiency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of full-load actual volume flow rate.</I> The measured full-load actual volume flow rate will be measured, pursuant to the test requirements of appendix A to subpart T of part 431 of this chapter, at the full-load operating pressure determined in paragraph (p)(1) of this section. The certified full-load actual volume flow rate will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured full-load actual volume flow rate for a single unit sample or the mean of the measured values for a multiple unit sample) are within the percentage of the certified full-load actual volume flow rate specified in Table 1 of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 of § 429.134—Allowable Percentage Deviation From the Certified Full-Load Actual Volume Flow Rate
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Manufacturer certified full-load actual volume flow rate
<br/>(m
<sup>3</sup>/s) × 10<E T="51">−3</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allowable
<br/>percent of the certified
<br/>full-load
<br/>actual volume
<br/>flow rate
<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 &lt; and ≤ 8.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">±7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.3 &lt; and ≤ 25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">±6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25 &lt; and ≤ 250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">±5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt; 250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">±4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) If the certified value of full-load actual volume flow rate is found to be valid, the full-load actual volume flow rate certified by the manufacturer will be used as the basis for determination of the applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the certified value of full-load actual volume flow rate is found to be invalid, the entire sample (one or multiple units) will be considered as failing the enforcement test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ancillary equipment.</I> Prior to testing each compressor, DOE will install any required ancillary equipment specified by the manufacturer in the certification report submitted pursuant to § 429.63(b).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers.</I> Prior to October 31, 2023, the provisions in 10 CFR 429.134, revised as of January 1, 2022, are applicable. On and after October 31, 2023, the following provisions apply.(1) If DOE determines that a basic model of a panel, door, or refrigeration system for walk-in coolers or walk-in freezers fails to meet an applicable energy conservation standard, then the manufacturer of that basic model is responsible for the noncompliance. If DOE determines that a complete walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer or component thereof fails to meet an applicable energy conservation standard, then the manufacturer of that walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer is responsible for the noncompliance with the applicable standard, except that the manufacturer of a complete walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer is not responsible for the use of components that were certified and labeled (in accordance with DOE labeling requirements) as compliant by another party and later found to be noncompliant with the applicable standard(s).


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of refrigeration system net capacity.</I> The net capacity of the refrigeration system basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of part 431, subpart R, appendix C of this chapter for each unit tested on and after October 31, 2023, but before the compliance date of revised energy conservation standards for walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems. The net capacity of the refrigeration system basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of part 431, subpart R, appendix C1 of this chapter for each unit tested on and after the compliance date of revised energy conservation standards for walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of net capacity certified by the manufacturer. The certified net capacity will be considered valid only if the average measured net capacity is within plus or minus five percent of the certified net capacity.




</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of door surface area.</I> The surface area of a display door or non-display door basic model will be measured pursuant to the requirements of 10 CFR part 431, subpart R, appendix A for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of the surface area certified by the manufacturer. The certified surface area will be considered valid only if the average measured surface area is within plus or minus three percent of the certified surface area.
</P>
<P>(i) If the certified surface area is found to be valid, the certified surface area will be used as the basis for calculating the maximum energy consumption (kWh/day) of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the certified surface area is found to be invalid, the average measured surface area will serve as the basis for calculating the maximum energy consumption (kWh/day) of the basic model.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Verification of door electricity-consuming device power.</I> For each basic model of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer door, DOE will calculate the door's energy consumption using the input power listed on the nameplate of each electricity-consuming device shipped with the door. If an electricity-consuming device shipped with a walk-in door does not have a nameplate or the nameplate does not list the device's input power, then DOE will use the device's rated input power included in the door's certification report. If the door is not certified or if the certification does not include a rated input power for an electricity-consuming device shipped with a walk-in door, DOE will use the measured input power. DOE also may validate the power listed on the nameplate or the rated input power by measuring it when energized using a power supply that provides power within the allowable voltage range listed on the component nameplate or the door nameplate, whichever is available. If the measured input power is more than 10 percent higher than the input power listed on the nameplate or the rated input power, as appropriate, then the measured input power shall be used in the door's energy consumption calculation.
</P>
<P>(i) For electricity-consuming devices with controls, the maximum input wattage observed while energizing the device and activating the control shall be considered the measured input power. For anti-sweat heaters that are controlled based on humidity levels, the control may be activated by increasing relative humidity in the region of the controls without damaging the sensor. For lighting fixtures that are controlled with motion sensors, the control may be activated by simulating motion in the vicinity of the sensor. Other kinds of controls may be activated based on the functions of their sensor.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]








</P>
<P>(r) <I>Portable air conditioners. Verification of seasonally adjusted cooling capacity.</I> The seasonally adjusted cooling capacity will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of seasonally adjusted cooling capacity certified by the manufacturer. The certified seasonally adjusted cooling capacity will be considered valid only if the average measured seasonally adjusted cooling capacity is within five percent of the certified seasonally adjusted cooling capacity.
</P>
<P>(1) If the certified seasonally adjusted cooling capacity is found to be valid, the certified value will be used as the basis for determining the minimum allowed combined energy efficiency ratio for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) If the certified seasonally adjusted cooling capacity is found to be invalid, the average measured seasonally adjusted cooling capacity will be used to determine the minimum allowed combined energy efficiency ratio for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems.</I> (1) If a basic model includes individual models with components listed at table 1 to § 429.43(a)(3)(i)(A) and DOE is not able to obtain an individual model with the least number (which could be zero) of those components within an otherwise comparable model group (as defined in § 429.43(a)(3)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>)), DOE may test any individual model within the otherwise comparable model group.
</P>
<P>(2) If the manufacturer certified testing in accordance with Option 1 using default VERS exhaust air transfer ratio (EATR) values or Option 2 using default VERS effectiveness and EATR values, DOE may determine the integrated seasonal moisture removal efficiency 2 (ISMRE2) and/or the integrated seasonal coefficient of performance 2 (ISCOP2) using the default values or by conducting testing to determine VERS performance according to the DOE test procedure in appendix B to subpart F of part 431 of this chapter (with the minimum purge angle and zero pressure differential between supply and return air).
</P>
<P>(3) If the manufacturer certified testing in accordance with Option 1 using VERS exhaust air transfer ratio (EATR) values or Option 2 using VERS effectiveness and EATR values determined using an analysis tool certified in accordance with the DOE test procedure in appendix B to subpart F of part 431 of this chapter, DOE may conduct its own testing to determine VERS performance in accordance with the DOE test procedure in appendix B to subpart F of part 431 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) DOE would use the values of VERS performance certified to DOE (<I>i.e.</I> EATR, sensible effectiveness, and latent effectiveness) as the basis for determining the ISMRE2 and/or ISCOP2 of the basic model only if, for Option 1, the certified EATR is found to be no more than one percentage point less than the mean of the measured values (<I>i.e.</I> the difference between the measured EATR and the certified EATR is no more than 0.01), or for Option 2, all certified values of sensible effectiveness are found to be no greater than 105 percent of the mean of the measured values (<I>i.e.</I> the certified effectiveness divided by the measured effectiveness is no greater than 1.05), all certified values of latent effectiveness are found to be no greater than 107 percent of the mean of the measured values, and the certified EATR is found to be no more than one percentage point less than the mean of the measured values.
</P>
<P>(ii) If any of the conditions in paragraph (s)(2)(i) of this section do not hold true, then the mean of the measured values will be used as the basis for determining the ISMRE2 and/or ISCOP2 of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Ceiling Fans</I>—(1) <I>Verification of blade span.</I> DOE will measure the blade span and round the measurement pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 of this chapter for each unit tested. DOE will consider the represented blade span valid only if the rounded measurement(s) (either the rounded measured value for a single unit, or the mean of the rounded measured values for a multiple unit sample, rounded to the nearest inch) is the same as the represented blade span.
</P>
<P>(i) If DOE determines that the represented blade span is valid, that blade span will be used as the basis for determining the product class and calculating the minimum allowable ceiling fan efficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) If DOE determines that the represented blade span is invalid, DOE will use the rounded measured blade span(s) as the basis for determining the product class, and calculating the minimum allowable ceiling fan efficiency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of the distance between the ceiling and lowest point of fan blades.</I> DOE will measure the distance between the ceiling and lowest point of the fan blades and round the measurement pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 of this chapter for each unit tested. DOE will consider the represented distance valid only if the rounded measurement(s) (either the measured value for a single unit, or the mean of the measured values for a multiple unit sample, rounded to the nearest quarter inch) are the same as the represented distance.
</P>
<P>(i) If DOE determines that the represented distance is valid, that distance will be used as the basis for determining the product class.
</P>
<P>(ii) If DOE determines that the represented distance is invalid, DOE will use the rounded measured distance(s) as the basis for determining the product class.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification of blade revolutions per minute (RPM) measured at high speed.</I> DOE will measure the blade RPM at high speed pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 of this chapter for each unit tested. DOE will consider the represented blade RPM measured at high speed valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured value for a single unit, or the mean of the measured values for a multiple unit sample, rounded to the nearest RPM) are within 2 percent of the represented blade RPM at high speed.
</P>
<P>(i) If DOE determines that the represented RPM is valid, that RPM will be used as the basis for determining the product class.
</P>
<P>(ii) If DOE determines that the represented RPM is invalid, DOE will use the rounded measured RPM(s) as the basis for determining the product class.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Verification of blade edge thickness.</I> DOE will measure the blade edge thickness and round the measurement pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 for each unit tested. DOE will consider the represented blade edge thickness valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured value for a single unit, or the mean of the measured values for a multiple unit sample, rounded to the nearest 0.01 inch) are the same as the represented blade edge thickness.
</P>
<P>(i) If DOE determines that the represented blade edge thickness is valid, that blade edge thickness will be used for determining product class.
</P>
<P>(ii) If DOE determines that the represented blade edge thickness is invalid, DOE will use the rounded measured blade edge thickness(es) as the basis for determining the product class.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Battery chargers</I>—<I>verification of reported represented value obtained from testing in accordance with appendix Y1 of 10 CFR part 430 subpart B when using an external power supply.</I> If the battery charger basic model requires the use of an external power supply (“EPS”), and the manufacturer reported EPS is no longer available on the market, then DOE will test the battery charger with any compatible EPS that is minimally compliant with DOE's energy conservation standards for EPSs as prescribed in § 430.32(w) of this subchapter and that meets the battery charger input power criteria.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 btu/h).</I> The following provisions apply for assessment and enforcement testing of models subject to standards in terms of IEER:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Specific components.</I> For each indoor unit model identified in the tested combination for which the model number certified in the STI does not fully specify the presence or absence of components listed at table 2 to 10 CFR 429.43(a)(3)(ii)(B), the following provision applies. If DOE is not able to obtain an individual model with the least number of those components, then DOE may test a system that includes any individual indoor unit model that has a model number consistent with the certified indoor unit model number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Manufacturer involvement in assessment or enforcement testing.</I> A manufacturer's representative will be allowed to support commissioning and witness assessment and/or enforcement testing for variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps, including during the controls verification procedures (CVPs) specified in paragraph (v)(3) of this section, with allowance for additional involvement as described in the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Manufacturer involvement in CVP.</I> Control settings must be set by a member of the third-party laboratory consistent with the provisions in section 5.1 of appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431. Critical parameters must operate automatically from the system controls and must not be manually controlled or adjusted at any point by any party during the CVP.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Manufacturer involvement in heating tests and IEER cooling tests.</I> All control settings other than critical parameters must be set by a member of the third-party laboratory consistent with the provisions of section 5.1 of appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431. In heating tests and IEER cooling tests, critical parameters may be manually controlled by a manufacturer's representative and initially set to their certified values as described in section 5.1 of appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431. During IEER cooling mode tests only, a manufacturer's representative may also make additional adjustments to the critical parameters as described in section 5.2 of appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431. Setting and adjustment of critical parameters by a manufacturer's representative must be monitored by third-party laboratory personnel using a service tool. Other than critical parameter adjustments made in accordance with section 5.3 of appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431, the manufacturer's representative must not make any other adjustments to the VRF multi-split system under test. If a manufacturer's representative is not present for testing, a member of the third-party laboratory must set and adjust critical parameters using the means of control provided by the manufacturer, as described in § 429.110(b)(1)(iv) for enforcement testing and § 429.104 for assessment testing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Controls Verification Procedure (CVP).</I> This procedure validates the certified values of critical parameters for which positions may be manually set during the full- and part-load IEER cooling test conditions specified at appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431. The CVP will only be conducted for a single system.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conducting the CVP</I>—The CVP will be conducted at all of the four IEER cooling test conditions as specified in appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431; the CVP is not conducted at any heating test conditions. The CVP will first be performed at the full-load cooling condition before being conducted at part-load cooling conditions and must be conducted per Appendix C of AHRI 1230-2021 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Validating critical parameters</I>—At each load point, certified critical parameter values will be validated or invalidated according to Section C6 of AHRI 1230-2021 with the following amendments:
</P>
<P>(A) The duration of the period used for validating certified critical parameter values must be whichever of the following is longer: three minutes, or the time period needed to obtain five sample readings while meeting the minimum data collection interval requirements of Table C2 of AHRI 1230-2021.
</P>
<P>(B) If at least one measurement period with duration identified in paragraph (v)(3)(ii)(A) of this section exists before t<E T="52">OFF</E> that has an average root-sum-square (“RSS”) points total (as defined in Section 3.27 of AHRI 1230-2021) over the measurement period that is less than or equal to 70 points, the certified critical parameter values are valid.
</P>
<P>(C) If no measurement period with duration identified in paragraph (v)(3)(ii)(A) of this section exists before t<E T="52">OFF</E> that has an average RSS points total over the measurement period that is less than or equal to 70 points, the certified critical parameter values are invalid.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determining critical parameters for use in steady-state IEER cooling tests.</I> If, following a CVP, IEER testing is conducted per appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431, the following provisions apply:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Validated critical parameter settings.</I> At each load point, if certified critical parameter values are found to be valid according to the results of the CVP, initially set critical parameters to their certified values for the IEER test at the corresponding full- or part-load cooling condition. Perform additional adjustments to critical parameters as described in section 5.2 of appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Invalidated critical parameter settings.</I> At each load point, if certified critical parameter values identified pursuant to paragraph (v)(3) of this section are found to be invalid according to the results of the CVP, determine alternate critical parameter values for use in the corresponding IEER test (as specified in appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431) as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Select the CVP measurement period—this period must have duration determined per paragraph (v)(3)(ii)(A) of this section and must be the period where the RSS points total has a lower average value over the measurement period than over any other time period in the CVP of the same duration. If multiple periods exist with the same RSS points total, select the measurement period closest to but before the time that the first indoor unit switches to thermally inactive (denoted as “t<E T="52">off</E>” in AHRI 1230-2021).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Determine alternate critical parameters—calculate the average position for each critical parameter during the measurement period selected in paragraph (v)(3)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section. When initially setting critical parameters per section 5.1 of appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431, instead of using the certified critical parameter values, use the alternate critical parameter values as control inputs. The same initial alternate critical parameter values must be used for all systems in the assessment/enforcement sample (though critical parameter adjustments as needed to achieve target capacity or sensible heat ratio (SHR) limits are made independently for each tested system, per paragraph (v)(3)(iii)(B)(<I>3)</I> of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For each system, determine whether critical parameter adjustments are needed to achieve the target capacity or SHR limit for an IEER cooling test. Perform critical parameter adjustments independently on each system as described in section 5.2 of appendix D1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Replace all references to “certified critical parameter values” with “alternate critical parameter values” as determined in paragraph (v)(3)(iii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Determine <I>CP</I><E T="54">Max</E> from a CVP conducted at full-load cooling conditions as the maximum value observed during the R2 period as described in Section C.4.4.2.3 of AHRI 1230-2021. If multiple components corresponding to a single parameter are present, determine <I>CP</I><E T="54">Max</E> at the point during the R2 period at which the average value across all components corresponding to that critical parameter is maximized.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Break-in period.</I> DOE will perform a compressor break-in period during assessment or enforcement testing using a duration specified by the manufacturer only if a break-in period duration is provided in the supplemental testing instructions.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Automatic commercial ice makers—verification of harvest rate.</I> The harvest rate will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 431 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of harvest rate certified by the manufacturer of the basic model. The certified harvest rate will be considered valid only if the average measured harvest rate is within five percent of the certified harvest rate.
</P>
<P>(1) If the certified harvest rate is found to be valid, the certified harvest rate will be used as the basis for determining the maximum energy use and maximum condenser water use, if applicable, allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) If the certified harvest rate is found to be invalid, the average measured harvest rate of the units in the sample will be used as the basis for determining the maximum energy use and maximum condenser water use, if applicable, allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Single package vertical air conditioners and heat pumps.</I> The following provisions apply for assessment and enforcement testing of models subject to standards in terms of IEER.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Verification of cooling capacity.</I> The cooling capacity of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of appendix G1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431. The mean of the measurement(s) will be used to determine the applicable standards for purposes of compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific components.</I> If a basic model includes individual models with components listed at table 4 to § 429.43(a)(3)(iii)(A) and DOE is not able to obtain an individual model with the least number (which could be zero) of those components within an otherwise comparable model group (as defined in § 429.43(a)(3)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>)), DOE may test any individual model within the otherwise comparable model group.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Validation of outdoor ventilation airflow rate.</I> The outdoor ventilation airflow rate in cubic feet per minute (“CFM”) of the basic model will be measured in accordance with ASHRAE 41.2-1987 and Section 6.4 of ASHRAE 37-2009 (both incorporated by reference, see § 429.4). All references to the inlet shall be determined to mean the outdoor air inlet.
</P>
<P>(i) The outdoor ventilation airflow rate validation shall be conducted at the conditions specified in Table 3 of AHRI 390-2021 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4), Full Load Standard Rating Capacity Test, Cooling, except for the following:
</P>
<P>The outdoor ventilation airflow rate shall be determined at 0 in. H<E T="52">2</E>O external static pressure with a tolerance of −0.00/+0.05 in. H<E T="52">2</E>O.
</P>
<P>(ii) When validating the outdoor ventilation airflow rate, the outdoor air inlet pressure shall be 0.00 in. H<E T="52">2</E>O, with a tolerance of −0.00/+0.05 in. H<E T="52">2</E>O when measured against the room ambient pressure.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h.</I> The following provisions apply for assessment and enforcement testing of models subject to standards in terms of SEER2 and HSPF2 (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Verification of cooling capacity.</I> The cooling capacity of each tested unit of the individual model (for single-package units) or individual combination (for split systems) will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of appendix F1 to subpart F of part 431. The mean of the cooling capacity measurement(s) (either the measured cooling capacity for a single unit sample or the average of the measured cooling capacities for a multiple unit sample) will be used to determine the applicable standards for purposes of compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of C</I><E T="54">D</E><I> value.</I> (i) For models other than models of outdoor units with no match, if manufacturers certify that they did not conduct the optional tests to determine the C
<SU>c</SU> and/or C
<SU>h</SU> value for an individual model (for single-package systems) or individual combination (for split systems), as applicable, the default value of C
<SU>c</SU> and/or C
<SU>h</SU> will be used as the basis for calculation of SEER2 or HSPF2 for each unit tested. If manufacturers certify that they conducted the optional tests to determine the value of C
<SU>c</SU> and/or C
<SU>h</SU> for an individual model (for single-package systems) or individual combination (for split systems), as applicable, the value of C
<SU>c</SU> and/or C
<SU>h</SU> will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of appendix F1 to subpart F of part 431 for each unit tested. The result for each unit tested (either the tested value or the default value, as selected according to the criteria for the cyclic test in section 4 of appendix F1 to subpart F of part 431) will be used as the basis for calculation of SEER2 or HSPF2 for that unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) For models of outdoor units with no match, DOE will use the default value of Cc and/or Ch specified in the test procedure in appendix F1 to subpart F of part 431.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Dishwashers</I>—(1) <I>Determination of Most Energy-Intensive Cycle.</I> For any dishwasher basic model that does not meet the specified cleaning index threshold at a given soil load, the most energy-intensive cycle will be determined through testing as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 5.2 of appendix C2 to subpart B of part 430.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Detergent dosing requirement.</I> For any dishwasher basic model certified in accordance with the test procedure at appendix C1 to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter, DOE will conduct enforcement testing using the detergent dosing requirement that was used by the manufacturer as the basis for certifying compliance with the applicable energy conservation standard, in accordance with the applicable test procedure and certification reporting requirements.


</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Computer room air conditioners.</I> The following provisions apply for assessment and enforcement testing of models subject to energy conservation standards denominated in terms of NSenCOP.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Verification of net sensible cooling capacity.</I> The net sensible cooling capacity of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 431, subpart F, appendix E1. The mean of the net sensible cooling capacity measurement(s) will be used to determine the applicable energy conservation standards for purposes of compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific components.</I> If a basic model includes individual models with components listed at table 5 to § 429.43(a)(3)(iv)(A) and DOE is not able to obtain an individual model with the least number (which could be zero) of those components within an otherwise comparable model group (as defined in § 429.43(a)(3)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>)), DOE may test any individual model within the otherwise comparable model group.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Room air conditioners.</I> The cooling capacity will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 430 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of cooling capacity certified by the manufacturer for the basic model. The certified cooling capacity will be considered valid only if the measurement is within five percent of the certified cooling capacity.
</P>
<P>(1) If the certified cooling capacity is found to be valid, the certified cooling capacity will be used as the basis for determining the minimum combined energy efficiency ratio allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) If the certified cooling capacity is found to be invalid, the average measured cooling capacity of the units in the sample will be used as the basis for determining the minimum combined energy efficiency ratio allowed for the basic model.


</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Pool heaters.</I> Beginning on May 30, 2028:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Verification of input capacity for gas-fired pool heaters.</I> The input capacity of each tested unit will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 430.23(p) of this subchapter. The results of the measurement(s) will be compared to the represented value of input capacity certified by the manufacturer for the basic model. The certified input capacity will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured input capacity for a single unit sample or the average of the measured input capacity for a multiple unit sample) is within two percent of the certified input capacity.
</P>
<P>(i) If the representative value of input capacity is found to be valid, the certified input capacity will serve as the basis for determination of the applicable standard and the mean measured input capacity will be used as the basis for calculation of the integrated thermal efficiency standard for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the representative value of input capacity is not within two percent of the certified input capacity, DOE will first attempt to increase or decrease the gas pressure within the range specified in manufacturer's installation and operation manual shipped with the gas-fired pool heater being tested to achieve the certified input capacity (within two percent). If the input capacity is still not within two percent of the certified input capacity, DOE will attempt to modify the gas inlet orifice. If the input capacity still is not within two percent of the certified input capacity, the mean measured input capacity (either for a single unit sample or the average for a multiple unit sample) determined from the tested units will serve as the basis for calculation of the integrated thermal efficiency standard for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of active electrical power for electric pool heaters.</I> The active electrical power of each tested unit will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of § 430.23 of this subchapter. The results of the measurement(s) will be compared to the represented value of active electrical power city certified by the manufacturer for the basic model. The certified active electrical power will be considered valid only if the measurement(s) (either the measured active electrical power for a single unit sample or the average of the measured active electrical power for a multiple unit sample) is within five percent of the certified active electrical power.
</P>
<P>(i) If the representative value of active electrical power is found to be valid, the certified active electrical power will serve as the basis for determination of the applicable standard and the mean measured active electrical power will be used as the basis for calculation of the integrated thermal efficiency standard for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the representative value of active electrical power is not within five percent of the certified active electrical power, the mean measured active electrical power (either for a single unit sample or the average for a multiple unit sample) determined from the tested units will serve as the basis for calculation of the integrated thermal efficiency standard for the basic model.


</P>
<P>(dd)<I> Water-Source Heat Pumps.</I> The following provisions apply for assessment and enforcement testing of models subject to standards in terms of IEER and ACOP.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Verification of Cooling Capacity.</I> The cooling capacity of each tested unit of the basic model will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of appendix C1 to subpart F of 10 CFR part 431. The mean of the measurements will be used to determine the applicable standards for purposes of compliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific Components.</I> If a basic model includes individual models with components listed at table 6 to § 429.43(a)(3)(v)(A) and DOE is not able to obtain an individual model with the least number (which could be zero) of those components within an otherwise comparable model group (as defined in § 429.43(a)(3)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>)), DOE may test any individual model within the otherwise comparable model group.


</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Dedicated-purpose pool pump motors.</I> (1) To verify the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor variable speed capability, a test in accordance with section 5 of UL 1004-10:2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 429.4) will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(2) To verify that dedicated-purpose pool pump motor comply with the applicable freeze protection design requirements, a test in accordance with section 6 of UL 1004-10:2022 will be conducted.


</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers</I>—(1) <I>Verification of volume.</I> The volume will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 431 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of the certified volume of the basic model. The certified volume will be considered valid only if the average measured volume is within five percent of the certified volume.
</P>
<P>(i) If the certified volume is found to be valid, the certified volume will be used as the basis for determining the maximum daily energy consumption allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the certified volume is found to be invalid, the average measured volume of the units in the sample will be used as the basis for determining the maximum daily energy consumption allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of total display area.</I> The total display area will be measured pursuant to the test requirements of 10 CFR part 431 for each unit tested. The results of the measurement(s) will be averaged and compared to the value of the certified total display area of the basic model. The certified total display area will be considered valid only if the average measured total display area is within five percent of the certified total display area.
</P>
<P>(i) If the certified total display area is found to be valid, the certified total display area will be used as the basis for determining the maximum daily energy consumption allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the certified total display area is found to be invalid, the average measured total display area of the units in the sample will be used as the basis for determining the maximum daily energy consumption allowed for the basic model.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determination of pull-down temperature application.</I> A classification of a basic model as pull-down temperature application will be considered valid only if a model meets the definition of “pull-down temperature application” specified in § 431.62 of this chapter as follows.
</P>
<P>(i) 12-ounce beverage can temperatures will be measured for 12-ounce beverage cans loaded at the locations within the commercial refrigerator that are as close as possible to the locations that would be measured by test simulators according to the test procedure for commercial refrigerators specified in § 431.64 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) The commercial refrigerator will be operated at ambient conditions consistent with those specified for commercial refrigerators in § 431.64 of this chapter and at the control setting necessary to achieve a stable integrated average temperature of 38 °F, prior to loading.
</P>
<P>(iii) 12-ounce beverage cans to be fully loaded into the commercial refrigerator (with and without temperature measurements) will be maintained at 90 °F ±2 °F based on the average measured 12-ounce beverage can temperatures prior to loading into the commercial refrigerator.
</P>
<P>(iv) The duration of pull-down (which must be 12 hours or less) will be determined starting from closing the commercial refrigerator door after completing the 12-ounce beverage can loading until the integrated average temperature reaches 38 °F ±2 °F.
</P>
<P>(v) An average stable temperature of 38 °F will be determined by operating the commercial refrigerator for an additional 12 hours after initially reaching 38 °F ±2 °F with no changes to control settings, and determining an integrated average temperature of 38 °F ±2 °F at the end of the 12 hour stability period.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 22348, Apr. 21, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 40566, July 11, 2014; 80 FR 37148, June 30, 2015; 80 FR 45824, July 31, 2015; 80 FR 46760, Aug. 5, 2015; 80 FR 79669, Dec. 23, 2015; 81 FR 2646, Jan. 15, 2016; 81 FR 15426, Mar. 23, 2016; 81 FR 24009, Apr. 25, 2016; 81 FR 37055, June 8, 2016; 81 FR 38395, June 13, 2016; 81 FR 46791, July 18, 2016; 81 FR 79320, Nov. 10, 2016; 81 FR 96236, Dec. 29, 2016; 81 FR 89304, Dec. 9, 2016; 81 FR 89822, Dec. 12, 2016; 81 FR 95800, Dec. 28, 2016; 82 FR 1100, Jan. 4, 2017; 82 FR 36919, Aug. 7, 2017; 85 FR 1446, Jan. 10, 2020; 86 FR 56820, Oct. 12, 2021; 87 FR 33379, June 1, 2022; 87 FR 45197, July 27, 2022; 87 FR 50423, Aug. 16, 2022; 87 FR 55122, Sept. 8, 2022; 87 FR 57298, Sept. 19, 2022; 87 FR 63895, Oct. 20, 2022; 87 FR 65667, 65899, Nov. 1, 2022; 87 FR 75167, Dec. 7, 2022; 87 FR 77324, Dec. 16, 2022; 88 FR 3276, Jan. 18, 2023; 88 FR 15537, Mar. 13, 2023; 88 FR 17975, Mar. 24, 2023; 88 FR 21838, Apr. 11, 2023; 88 FR 28837, May 4, 2023; 88 FR 40472, June 21, 2023; 88 FR 34362, May 26, 2023; 88 FR 34702, May 30, 2023; 88 FR 48357, July 27, 2023; 88 FR 66222, Sept. 26, 2023; 88 FR 67041, Sept. 28, 2023; 88 FR 84228, Dec. 4, 2023; 89 FR 37942, May 6, 2024; 89 FR 44035, May 20, 2024; 89 FR 82070, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 6790, Jan. 21, 2025; 90 FR 1278, Jan. 7, 2025; 90 FR 43371, 43384, Sept. 9, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Regional Standards Enforcement Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.140" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.140   Regional standards enforcement procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 429.140 through 429.158 provide enforcement procedures specific to the violations enumerated in § 429.102(c). These provisions explain the responsibilities of manufacturers, private labelers, distributors, contractors and dealers with respect to central air conditioners subject to regional standards; however, these provisions do not limit the responsibilities of parties otherwise subject to 10 CFR parts 429 and 430.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45402, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.142" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.142   Records retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Record retention.</I> The following entities must maintain the specified records—(1) <I>Contractors and dealers.</I> (i) Contractors and dealers must retain the following records for at least 48 months from the date of installation of a central air conditioner in the states of Alabama, Arizona, Arkansas, California, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Hawaii, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maryland, Mississippi, Nevada, New Mexico, North Carolina, Oklahoma, South Carolina, Tennessee, Texas, or Virginia or in the District of Columbia:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>For split-system central air conditioner outdoor units:</I> The manufacturer name, model number, serial number, location of installation (including street address, city, state, and zip code), date of installation, and party from whom the unit was purchased (including person's name, full address, and phone number); and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>For split-system central air conditioner indoor units:</I> The manufacturer name, model number, location of installation (including street address, city, state, and zip code), date of installation, and party from whom the unit was purchased (including person's name, full address, and phone number).
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractors and dealers must retain the following, additional records for at least 48 months from the date of installation of a central air conditioner in the states of Arizona, California, Nevada, and New Mexico:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>For single-package central air conditioners:</I> The manufacturer name, model number, serial number, location of installation (including street address, city, state, and zip code), date of installation, and party from whom the unit was purchased (including person's name, full address, and phone number).
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Distributors.</I> Beginning July 1, 2016, all distributors must retain the following records for no less than 54 months from the date of sale:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For split-system central air conditioner outdoor units:</I> The outdoor unit manufacturer, outdoor unit model number, outdoor unit serial number, date unit was purchased from manufacturer, party from whom the unit was purchased (including company or individual's name, full address, and phone number), date unit was sold to contractor or dealer, party to whom the unit was sold (including company or individual's name, full address, and phone number), and, if delivered, delivery address.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For single-package air conditioners:</I> The manufacturer, model number, serial number, date unit was purchased from manufacturer, party from whom the unit was purchased (including company or individual's name, full address, and phone number), date unit was sold to a contractor or dealer, party to whom the unit was sold (including company or individual's name, full address, and phone number), and, if delivered, delivery address.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Manufacturers and private labelers.</I> All manufacturers and private labelers must retain the following records for no less than 60 months from the date of sale:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For split system air conditioner outdoor units:</I> The model number, serial number, date of manufacture, date of sale, and party to whom the unit was sold (including person's name, full address, and phone number);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For split system central air conditioner indoor units:</I> The model number, date of manufacture, date of sale, and party to whom the unit was sold (including person's name, full address, and phone number); and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For single-package central air conditioners:</I> The model number, serial number, date of manufacture, date of sale, and party to whom the unit was sold (including person's name, full address, and phone number).
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45402, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.144" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.144   Records request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE must have reasonable belief a violation has occurred to request records specific to an on-going investigation of a violation of central air conditioner regional standards.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request, the manufacturer, private labeler, distributor, dealer, or contractor must provide to DOE the relevant records within 30 calendar days of the request.
</P>
<P>(1) DOE, at its discretion, may grant additional time for records production if the party from whom records have been requested has made a good faith effort to produce records.
</P>
<P>(2) To request additional time, the party from whom records have been requested must produce all records gathered in 30 days and provide to DOE a written explanation of the need for additional time with the requested date for completing the production of records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45402, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.146" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.146   Notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If DOE determines a party has committed a violation of regional standards, DOE will issue a Notice of Violation advising that party of DOE's determination.
</P>
<P>(b) If, however, DOE determines a noncompliant installation occurred in only one instance, the noncompliant installation is remediated prior to DOE issuing a Notice of Violation, and the party has no history of prior violations, DOE will not issue such notice.
</P>
<P>(c) If DOE does not find a violation of regional standards, DOE will notify the party under investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45403, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.148" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.148   Routine violator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE will consider, <I>inter alia,</I> the following factors in determining if a person is a routine violator: Number of violations in current and past cases, length of time over which violations occurred, ratio of compliant to noncompliant installations or sales, percentage of employees committing violations, evidence of intent, evidence of training or education provided, and subsequent remedial actions.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that DOE determines a person to be a routine violator, DOE will issue a Notice of Finding of Routine Violation.
</P>
<P>(c) In making a finding of Routine Violation, DOE will consider whether the Routine Violation was limited to a specific location. If DOE finds that the routine violation was so limited, DOE may, in its discretion, in the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation limit the prohibition on manufacturer and/or private labeler sales to a particular contractor or distribution location.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45403, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.150" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.150   Appealing a finding of routine violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person found to be a routine violator may, within 30 calendar days after the date of Notice of Finding of Routine Violation, request an administrative appeal to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(b) The appeal must present information rebutting the finding of violation(s).
</P>
<P>(c) The Office of Hearings and Appeals will issue a decision on the appeal within 45 days of receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) A routine violator must file a Notice of Intent to Appeal with the Office of Hearings and Appeals within three business days of the date of the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation, serving a copy on the Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Enforcement to retain the ability to buy central air conditioners during the pendency of the appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45403, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.152" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.152   Removal of finding of “routine violator”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A routine violator may be removed from DOE's list of routine violators through completion of remediation in accordance with the requirements in § 429.154.
</P>
<P>(b) A routine violator that wants to remediate must contact the Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Enforcement via the point of contact listed in the Notice of Finding of Routine Violation and identify the distributor(s), manufacturer(s), or private labeler(s) from whom it wishes to buy compliant replacement product.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE will contact the distributor(s), manufacturer(s), or private labeler(s) and authorize sale of central air conditioner units to the routine violator for purposes of remediation within 3 business days of receipt of the request for remediation. DOE will provide the manufacturer(s), distributor(s), and/or private labeler(s) with an official letter authorizing the sale of units for purposes of remediation.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE will contact routine violators that requested units for remediation within 30 days of sending the official letter to the manufacturer(s), distributor(s), and/or private labeler(s) to determine the status of the remediation.
</P>
<P>(e) If remediation is successfully completed, DOE will issue a Notice indicating a person is no longer considered to be a routine violator. The Notice will be issued no more than 30 days after DOE has received documentation demonstrating that remediation is complete.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45403, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.154" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.154   Remediation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party found to be in violation of the regional standards may remediate by replacing the noncompliant unit at cost to the violator; the end user cannot be charged for any costs of remediation.
</P>
<P>(1) If a violator is unable to replace all noncompliant installations, then the Department may, in its discretion, consider the remediation complete if the violator satisfactorily demonstrates to the Department that it attempted to replace all noncompliant installations.
</P>
<P>(2) The Department will scrutinize any “failed” attempts at replacement to ensure that there was indeed a good faith effort to complete remediation of the noncompliant unit.
</P>
<P>(b) The violator must provide to DOE the serial number of any outdoor unit and/or indoor unit installed not in compliance with the applicable regional standard as well as the serial number(s) of the replacement unit(s) to be checked by the Department against warranty and other replacement claims.
</P>
<P>(c) If the remediation is approved by the Department, then DOE will issue a Notice of Remediation and the violation will not count towards a finding of “routine violator”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45403, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.156" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.156   Manufacturer and private labeler liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with § 429.102, paragraphs (a)(10) and (c), manufacturers and private labelers are prohibited from selling central air conditioners and heat pumps to a routine violator.
</P>
<P>(1) To avoid financial penalties, manufacturers and/or private labelers must cease sales to a routine violator within 3 business days from the date of issuance of a Notice of Finding of Routine Violation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a Routine Violator files a Notice of Intent to Appeal pursuant to § 429.150, then a manufacturer and/or private labeler may assume the risk of selling central air conditioners to the Routine Violator during the pendency of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) If the appeal of the Finding of Routine Violator is denied, then the manufacturer and/or private labeler may be fined in accordance with § 429.120, for sale of any units to a routine violator during the pendency of the appeal that do not meet the applicable regional standard.
</P>
<P>(b) If a manufacturer and/or private labeler has knowledge of routine violation, then the manufacturer can be held liable for all sales that occurred after the date the manufacturer had knowledge of the routine violation. However, if the manufacturer and/or private labeler reports its suspicion of a routine violation to DOE within 15 days of receipt of such knowledge, then it will not be liable for product sold to the suspected routine violator prior to reporting the routine violation to DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45403, July 14, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 429.158" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.10.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 429.158   Product determined noncompliant with regional standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If DOE determines a model of outdoor unit fails to meet the applicable regional standard(s) when tested in a combination certified by the same manufacturer, then the outdoor unit basic model will be deemed noncompliant with the regional standard(s). In accordance with § 429.102(a)(10), the outdoor unit manufacturer and/or private labeler is liable for distribution of noncompliant units in commerce.
</P>
<P>(b) If DOE determines a combination fails to meet the applicable regional standard(s) when tested in a combination certified by a manufacturer other than the outdoor unit manufacturer (e.g., ICM), then that combination is deemed noncompliant with the regional standard(s). In accordance with § 429.102(a)(10), the certifying manufacturer is liable for distribution of noncompliant units in commerce.
</P>
<P>(c) All such units manufactured and distributed in commerce are presumed to have been installed in a region where they would not comply with the applicable energy conservation standard; however, a manufacturer and/or private labeler may demonstrate through installer records that individual units were installed in a region where the unit is compliant with the applicable standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 45404, July 14, 2016, as amended at 87 FR 64586, Oct. 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.11.27.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart C of Part 429—Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Covered Consumer Products and Certain High-Volume Commercial Equipment
</HEAD>
<P>(a) The first sample size (<I>n</I><E T="52">1</E>) for enforcement testing must be four or more units, except as provided by § 429.57(e)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(b) Compute the mean of the measured energy performance (x<E T="52">1</E>) for all tests as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.132.gif"/>
<FP-2>where x<E T="52">i</E> is the measured energy or water efficiency or consumption from test i, and n<E T="52">1</E> is the total number of tests.
</FP-2>
<P>(c) Compute the standard deviation (s<E T="52">1</E>) of the measured energy performance from the n<E T="52">1</E> tests as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.133.gif"/>
<P>(d) Compute the standard error (s<E T="52">x1</E>) of the measured energy performance from the n<E T="52">1</E> tests as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.134.gif"/>
<P>(e)(1) Compute the upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">1</E>) and lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) for the mean of the first sample using the applicable DOE energy efficiency standard (EES) as the desired mean and a probability level of 95 percent (two-tailed test) as follows:
</P>
<FP-1>LCL<E T="52">1</E> EES — <I>ts</I> <E T="52">X</E><E T="52">1</E> <E T="52">X</E>
</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.135.gif"/>
<FP-2>where t is the statistic based on a 95 percent two-tailed probability level with degrees of freedom (n<E T="52">1</E>−1).
</FP-2>
<P>(2) For an energy efficiency or water efficiency standard, compare the mean of the first sample (x<E T="52">1</E>) with the upper and lower control limits (UCL<E T="52">1</E> and LCL<E T="52">1</E>) to determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the mean of the first sample is below the lower control limit, then the basic model is in noncompliance and testing is at an end. (Do not go on to any of the steps below.)
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mean of the first sample is equal to or greater than the upper control limit, then the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end. (Do not go on to any of the steps below.)
</P>
<P>(iii) If the sample mean is equal to or greater than the lower control limit but less than the upper control limit, then no determination of compliance or noncompliance can be made and a second sample size is determined by Step (e)(3).
</P>
<P>(3) For an energy efficiency or water efficiency standard, determine the second sample size (n<E T="52">2</E>) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.136.gif"/>
<FP-2>where s<E T="52">1</E> and t have the values used in equations 2 and 4, respectively. The term “0.05 EES” is the difference between the applicable energy efficiency or water efficiency standard and 95 percent of the standard, where 95 percent of the standard is taken as the lower control limit. This procedure yields a sufficient combined sample size (n<E T="52">1</E> + n<E T="52">2</E>) to give an estimated 97.5 percent probability of obtaining a determination of compliance when the true mean efficiency is equal to the applicable standard. Given the solution value of n<E T="52">2</E>, determine one of the following:
</FP-2>
<P>(i) If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> is less than or equal to zero and if the mean energy or water efficiency of the first sample (x<E T="52">1</E>) is either equal to or greater than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) or equal to or greater than 95 percent of the applicable energy efficiency or water efficiency standard (EES), whichever is greater, <I>i.e.,</I> if n<E T="52">2</E>≤0 and x<E T="52">1</E>≥max (LCL<E T="52">1</E>, 0.95 EES), the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> is less than or equal to zero and the mean energy efficiency of the first sample (x<E T="52">1</E>) is less than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) or less than 95 percent of the applicable energy or water efficiency standard (EES), whichever is greater, <I>i.e.,</I> if n<E T="52">2</E>≤0 and x<E T="52">1</E>≤max (LCL<E T="52">1</E>, 0.95 EES), the basic model is not in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> is greater than zero, then, the value of the second sample size is determined to be the smallest integer equal to or greater than the solution value of n<E T="52">2</E> for equation (6). If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> so calculated is greater than 21− n<E T="52">1</E>, set n<E T="52">2</E> equal to 21− n<E T="52">1</E>.
</P>
<P>(4) Compute the combined mean (x<E T="52">2</E>) of the measured energy or water efficiency of the n<E T="52">1</E> and n<E T="52">2</E> units of the combined first and second samples as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.137.gif"/>
<P>(5) Compute the standard error (S<E T="52">x2</E>) of the measured energy or water performance of the n<E T="52">1</E> and n<E T="52">2</E> units in the combined first and second samples as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.138.gif"/>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>s<E T="52">1</E> is the value obtained in Step (c).</P></NOTE>
<P>(6) For an energy efficiency standard (EES), compute the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) for the mean of the combined first and second samples using the DOE EES as the desired mean and a one-tailed probability level of 97.5 percent (equivalent to the two-tailed probability level of 95 percent used in Step (e)(1)) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.139.gif"/>
<FP>where the t-statistic has the value obtained in Step (e)(1) and s<E T="52">x2</E> is the value obtained in Step (e)(5).
</FP>
<P>(7) For an energy efficiency standard (EES), compare the combined sample mean (x<E T="52">2</E>) to the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) to determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the mean of the combined sample (x<E T="52">2</E>) is less than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) or 95 percent of the applicable energy efficiency standard (EES), whichever is greater, <I>i.e.,</I> if x<E T="52">2</E>&lt;max (LCL<E T="52">2</E>, 0.95 EES), the basic model is not compliant and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the mean of the combined sample (x<E T="52">2</E>) is equal to or greater than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) or 95 percent of the applicable energy efficiency standard (EES), whichever is greater, <I>i.e.,</I> if x<E T="52">2</E>≥max (LCL<E T="52">2</E>, 0.95 EES), the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Compute the upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">1</E>) and lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) for the mean of the first sample using the applicable DOE energy consumption standard (ECS) as the desired mean and a probability level of 95 percent (two-tailed test) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.140.gif"/>
<FP>where t is the statistic based on a 95 percent two-tailed probability level with degrees of freedom (n<E T="52">1</E> − 1).
</FP>
<P>(2) For an energy or water consumption standard, compare the mean of the first sample (x<E T="52">1</E>) with the upper and lower control limits (UCL<E T="52">1</E> and LCL<E T="52">1</E>) to determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the mean of the first sample is above the upper control limit, then the basic model is in noncompliance and testing is at an end. (Do not go on to any of the steps below.)
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mean of the first sample is equal to or less than the lower control limit, then the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end. (Do not go on to any of the steps below.)
</P>
<P>(iii) If the sample mean is equal to or less than the upper control limit but greater than the lower control limit, then no determination of compliance or noncompliance can be made and a second sample size is determined by Step (f)(3).
</P>
<P>(3) For an Energy or Water Consumption Standard, determine the second sample size (n<E T="52">2</E>) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.141.gif"/>
<FP>where s<E T="52">1</E>and t have the values used in equations (2) and (10), respectively. The term “0.05 ECS” is the difference between the applicable energy or water consumption standard and 105 percent of the standard, where 105 percent of the standard is taken as the upper control limit. This procedure yields a sufficient combined sample size (n<E T="52">1</E> + n<E T="52">2</E>) to give an estimated 97.5 percent probability of obtaining a determination of compliance when the true mean consumption is equal to the applicable standard. Given the solution value of n<E T="52">2</E>, determine one of the following:
</FP>
<P>(i) If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> is less than or equal to zero and if the mean energy or water consumption of the first sample (x<E T="52">1</E>) is either equal to or less than the upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">1</E>) or equal to or less than 105 percent of the applicable energy or water consumption standard (ECS), whichever is less, <I>i.e.,</I> if n<E T="52">2</E> ≤0 and x<E T="52">1</E> ≤min (UCL<E T="52">1</E>, 1.05 ECS), the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> is less than or equal to zero and the mean energy or water consumption of the first sample (x<E T="52">1</E>) is greater than the upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">1</E>) or more than 105 percent of the applicable energy or water consumption standard (ECS), whichever is less, <I>i.e.,</I> if n<E T="52">2</E> ≤0 and x<E T="52">1</E> &gt;min (UCL<E T="52">1</E>, 1.05 EPS), the basic model is not compliant and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> is greater than zero, then the value of the second sample size is determined to be the smallest integer equal to or greater than the solution value of n<E T="52">2</E> for equation (11). If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> so calculated is greater than 21−n<E T="52">1</E>, set n<E T="52">2</E> equal to 21−n<E T="52">1</E>.
</P>
<P>(4) Compute the combined mean (x<E T="52">2</E>) of the measured energy or water consumption of the n<E T="52">1</E> and n<E T="52">2</E> units of the combined first and second samples as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.142.gif"/>
<P>(5) Compute the standard error (S<E T="52">x2</E>) of the measured energy or water consumption of the n<E T="52">1</E> and n<E T="52">2</E> units in the combined first and second samples as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.143.gif"/>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>s<E T="52">1</E> is the value obtained in Step (c).</P></NOTE>
<P>(6) For an energy or water consumption standard (ECS), compute the upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">2</E>) for the mean of the combined first and second samples using the DOE ECS as the desired mean and a one-tailed probability level of 97.5 percent (equivalent to the two-tailed probability level of 95 percent used in Step (f)(1)) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.144.gif"/>
<FP>where the t-statistic has the value obtained in (f)(1).
</FP>
<P>(7) For an energy or water consumption standard (ECS), compare the combined sample mean (x<E T="52">2</E>) to the upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">2</E>) to determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the mean of the combined sample (x<E T="52">2</E>) is greater than the upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">2</E>) or 105 percent of the ECS whichever is less, <I>i.e.,</I> if x<E T="52">2</E> &gt;min (UCL<E T="52">2</E>, 1.05 ECS), the basic model is not compliant and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mean of the combined sample (x<E T="52">2</E>) is equal to or less than the upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">2</E>) or 105 percent of the applicable energy or water performance standard (ECS), whichever is less, <I>i.e.,</I> if x <E T="52">2</E>≤min (UCL<E T="52">2</E>, 1.05 ECS), the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.11.27.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart C of Part 429—Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Covered Equipment and Certain Low-Volume Covered Products
</HEAD>
<P>The Department will determine compliance as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The first sample size (n<E T="52">1</E>) must be four or more units, except as provided by § 429.57(e)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) Compute the mean of the measured energy performance (x<E T="52">1</E>) for all tests as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.145.gif"/>
<FP>where x<E T="52">i</E> is the measured energy efficiency or consumption from test i, and n<E T="52">1</E> is the total number of tests.
</FP>
<P>(c) Compute the standard deviation (s<E T="52">1</E>) of the measured energy performance from the n<E T="52">1</E> tests as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.146.gif"/>
<P>(d) Compute the standard error (s<E T="52">x1</E>) of the measured energy performance from the n<E T="52">1</E> tests as follows:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.147.gif"/>
<P>(e)(1) For an energy efficiency standard (EES), determine the appropriate lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) according to:

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.148.gif"/>
<P>And use whichever is greater. Where EES is the energy efficiency standard and t is a statistic based on a 97.5 percent, one-sided confidence limit and a sample size of n<E T="52">1</E>.
</P>
<P>(2) For an energy consumption standard (ECS), determine the appropriate upper control limit (UCL<E T="52">1</E>) according to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.149.gif"/>
<P>And use whichever is less, where ECS is the energy consumption standard and t is a statistic based on a 97.5 percent, one-sided confidence limit and a sample size of n<E T="52">1</E>.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Compare the sample mean to the control limit.
</P>
<P>(i) The basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end if:
</P>
<P>(A) For an energy or water efficiency standard, the sample mean is equal to or greater than the lower control limit, or
</P>
<P>(B) For an energy or water consumption standard, the sample mean is equal to or less than the upper control limit.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.11.27.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart C of Part 429—Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Distribution Transformers
</HEAD>
<P>(a) When testing distribution transformers, the number of units in the sample (m<E T="52">1</E>) shall be in accordance with § 429.47(a) and DOE shall perform the following number of tests:
</P>
<P>(1) If DOE tests four or more units, it will test each unit once;
</P>
<P>(2) If DOE tests two or three units, it will test each unit twice; or
</P>
<P>(3) If DOE tests one unit, it will test that unit four times.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall determine compliance as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Compute the mean (X<E T="52">1</E>) of the measured energy performance of the n<E T="52">1</E> tests in the first sample as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.150.gif"/>
<FP>where X<E T="52">i</E> is the measured efficiency of test i.
</FP>
<P>(2) Compute the sample standard deviation (S<E T="52">1</E>) of the measured efficiency of the n<E T="52">1</E> tests in the first sample as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.151.gif"/>
<P>(3) Compute the standard error (SE(X<E T="52">1</E>)) of the mean efficiency of the first sample as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.152.gif"/>
<P>(4) Compute the sample size discount (SSD(m<E T="52">1</E>)) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.153.gif"/>
<FP>where m<E T="52">1</E> is the number of units in the sample, and RE is the applicable DOE efficiency when the test is to determine compliance with the applicable energy conservation standard, or is the labeled efficiency when the test is to determine compliance with the labeled efficiency value.
</FP>
<P>(5) Compute the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) for the mean of
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02my11.089.gif"/>
<P>(6) Compare the mean of the first sample (X<E T="52">1</E>) with the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) to determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the mean of the first sample is below the lower control limit, then the basic model is not compliant and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mean is equal to or greater than the lower control limit, no final determination of compliance or noncompliance can be made; proceed to Step (7).
</P>
<P>(7) Determine the recommended sample size (n) as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.155.gif"/>
<P>Given the value of n, determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the value of n is less than or equal to n<E T="52">1</E> and if the mean energy efficiency of the first sample (X<E T="52">1</E>) is equal to or greater than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>), the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the value of n is greater than n<E T="52">1</E>, the basic model is not compliant. The size of a second sample n<E T="52">2</E> is determined to be the smallest integer equal to or greater than the difference n−n<E T="52">1</E>. If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> so calculated is greater than 21−n<E T="52">1</E>, set n<E T="52">2</E> equal to 21−n<E T="52">1</E>.
</P>
<P>(8) Compute the combined (X<E T="52">2</E>) mean of the measured energy performance of the n<E T="52">1</E> and n<E T="52">2</E> units of the combined first and second samples as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.156.gif"/>
<P>(9) Compute the standard error (SE(X<E T="52">2</E>)) of the mean full-load efficiency of the n<E T="52">1</E> and n<E T="52">2</E> units in the combined first and second samples as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.157.gif"/>
<P>(Note that S<E T="52">1</E> is the value obtained above in (2).)
</P>
<P>(10) Set the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) to,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07mr11.158.gif"/>
<FP>where t has the value obtained in (5) and SSD(m<E T="52">1</E>) is sample size discount determined in (4), and compare the combined sample mean (X<E T="52">2</E>) to the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) to determine one of the following:
</FP>
<P>(i) If the mean of the combined sample (X<E T="52">2</E>) is less than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>), the basic model is not compliant and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mean of the combined sample (X<E T="52">2</E>) is equal to or greater than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>), the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12451, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 24781, May 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.17.3.11.27.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart C of Part 429—Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Uninterruptible Power Supplies
</HEAD>
<P>(a) The minimum sample size for enforcement testing will be one unit.
</P>
<P>(b) Compute the average load adjusted efficiency (<I>Eff</I><E T="54">avg</E>) of the unit in the sample.
</P>
<P>(c) Determine the applicable DOE energy efficiency standard (EES).
</P>
<P>(d) If all <I>Eff</I><E T="54">avg</E> are equal to or greater than EES, then the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(e) If any <I>Eff</I><E T="54">avg</E> is less than EES, then the basic model is in noncompliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 89822, Dec. 12, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="430" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 430—ENERGY CONSERVATION PROGRAM FOR CONSUMER PRODUCTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6291-6309; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 27898, June 1, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the regulations for the implementation of part B of title III (42 U.S.C. 6291-6309) of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (Pub. L. 94-163), as amended by Pub. L. 95-619, Pub. L. 100-12, Pub. L. 100-357, and Pub. L. 102-486 which establishes an energy conservation program for consumer products other than automobiles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 29237, May 29, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.2" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, words shall be defined as provided for in section 321 of the Act and as follows—
</P>
<P><I>3-Way incandescent lamp</I> means an incandescent lamp that—
</P>
<P>(1) Employs two filaments, operated separately and in combination, to provide three light levels; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is designated on the lamp packaging and marketing materials as being a 3-way incandescent lamp.
</P>
<P><I>700 series fluorescent lamp</I> means a fluorescent lamp with a color rendering index (measured according to the test procedures outlined in Appendix R to subpart B of this part) that is in the range (inclusive) of 70 to 79.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6316.
</P>
<P><I>Activation lock</I> means a control mechanism (either by a physical device directly on the water heater or a control system integrated into the water heater) that is locked by default and contains a physical, software, or digital communication that must be activated with an activation key to enable to the product to operate at its designed specifications and capabilities and without which the activation of the product will provide not greater than 50 percent of the rated first hour delivery of hot water certified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means the condition in which an energy-using product—
</P>
<P>(1) Is connected to a main power source;
</P>
<P>(2) Has been activated; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provides one or more main functions.
</P>
<P><I>Air cleaner</I> means a product for improving indoor air quality, other than a central air conditioner, room air conditioner, portable air conditioner, dehumidifier, or furnace, that is an electrically-powered, self-contained, mechanically encased assembly that contains means to remove, destroy, or deactivate particulates, VOC, and/or microorganisms from the air. It excludes products that operate solely by means of ultraviolet light without a fan for air circulation.
</P>
<P><I>All-refrigerator</I> means a refrigerator that does not include a compartment capable of maintaining compartment temperatures below 32 °F (0 °C) as determined according to the provisions in § 429.14(d)(2) of this chapter. It may include a compartment of 0.50 cubic-foot capacity (14.2 liters) or less for the freezing and storage of ice.
</P>
<P><I>Annual fuel utilization efficiency</I> means the efficiency descriptor for furnaces and boilers, determined using test procedures prescribed under section 323 and based on the assumption that all— 
</P>
<P>(1) Weatherized warm air furnaces or boilers are located out-of-doors; 
</P>
<P>(2) Warm air furnaces which are not weatherized are located indoors and all combustion and ventilation air is admitted through grill or ducts from the outdoors and does not communicate with air in the conditioned space; 
</P>
<P>(3) Boilers which are not weatherized are located within the heated space. 
</P>
<P><I>ANSI</I> means the American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P><I>Appliance lamp</I> means any lamp that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is specifically designed to operate in a household appliance and has a maximum wattage of 40 watts (including an oven lamp, refrigerator lamp, and vacuum cleaner lamp); and
</P>
<P>(2) When sold at retail, is designated and marketed for the intended application, with
</P>
<P>(i) The designation on the lamp packaging; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Marketing materials that identify the lamp as being for appliance use.
</P>
<P><I>ASME</I> means the American Society of Mechanical Engineers.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic clothes washer</I> means a class of clothes washer which has a control system which is capable of scheduling a preselected combination of operations, such as regulation of water temperature, regulation of the water fill level, and performance of wash, rinse, drain, and spin functions without the need for user intervention subsequent to the initiation of machine operation. Some models may require user intervention to initiate these different segments of the cycle after the machine has begun operation, but they do not require the user to intervene to regulate the water temperature by adjusting the external water faucet valves. 
</P>
<P><I>Back-up battery charger</I> means a battery charger excluding UPSs:
</P>
<P>(1) That is embedded in a separate end-use product that is designed to continuously operate using mains power (including end-use products that use external power supplies); and
</P>
<P>(2) Whose sole purpose is to recharge a battery used to maintain continuity of power in order to provide normal or partial operation of a product in case of input power failure.
</P>
<P><I>Ballast</I> means a device used with an electric discharge lamp to obtain necessary circuit conditions (voltage, current, and waveform) for starting and operating.
</P>
<P><I>Ballast efficacy factor</I> means the relative light output divided by the power input of a fluorescent lamp ballast, as measured under test conditions specified in ANSI Standard C82.2-1984. 
</P>
<P><I>Ballast luminous efficiency</I> means the total fluorescent lamp arc power divided by the fluorescent lamp ballast input power multiplied by the appropriate frequency adjustment factor, as defined in appendix Q of subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Baseboard electric heater</I> means an electric heater which is intended to be recessed in or surface mounted on walls at floor level, which is characterized by long, low physical dimensions, and which transfers heat by natural convection and/or radiation. 
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given type of covered product (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer; having the same primary energy source; and, which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency; and
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to general service fluorescent lamps, general service incandescent lamps, and incandescent reflector lamps: Lamps that have essentially identical light output and electrical characteristics—including lamp efficacy and color rendering index (CRI).
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to faucets and showerheads: Have the identical flow control mechanism attached to or installed within the fixture fittings, or the identical water-passage design features that use the same path of water in the highest flow mode.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to furnace fans: Are marketed and/or designed to be installed in the same type of installation; and
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics means:
</P>
<P>(i) For split systems manufactured by outdoor unit manufacturers (OUMs): all individual combinations having the same model of outdoor unit, which means comparably performing compressor(s) [a variation of no more than five percent in displacement rate (volume per time) as rated by the compressor manufacturer, and no more than five percent in capacity and power input for the same operating conditions as rated by the compressor manufacturer], outdoor coil(s) [no more than five percent variation in face area and total fin surface area; same fin material; same tube material], and outdoor fan(s) [no more than ten percent variation in air flow and no more than twenty percent variation in power input];
</P>
<P>(ii) For split systems having indoor units manufactured by independent coil manufacturers (ICMs): all individual combinations having comparably performing indoor coil(s) [plus or minus one square foot face area, plus or minus one fin per inch fin density, and the same fin material, tube material, number of tube rows, tube pattern, and tube size]; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For single-package systems: all individual models having comparably performing compressor(s) [no more than five percent variation in displacement rate (volume per time) rated by the compressor manufacturer, and no more than five percent variations in capacity and power input rated by the compressor manufacturer corresponding to the same compressor rating conditions], outdoor coil(s) and indoor coil(s) [no more than five percent variation in face area and total fin surface area; same fin material; same tube material], outdoor fan(s) [no more than ten percent variation in outdoor air flow], and indoor blower(s) [no more than ten percent variation in indoor air flow, with no more than twenty percent variation in fan motor power input];
</P>
<P>(iv) Except that,
</P>
<P>(A) for single-package systems and single-split systems, manufacturers may instead choose to make each individual model/combination its own basic model provided the testing and represented value requirements in 10 CFR 429.16 of this chapter are met; and
</P>
<P>(B) For multi-split, multi-circuit, and multi-head mini-split combinations, a basic model may not include both individual small-duct, high velocity (SDHV) combinations and non-SDHV combinations even when they include the same model of outdoor unit. The manufacturer may choose to identify specific individual combinations as additional basic models.
</P>
<P><I>Basic-voltage external power supply</I> means an external power supply that is not a low-voltage external power supply.
</P>
<P><I>Batch</I> means a collection of production units of a basic model from which a batch sample is selected. 
</P>
<P><I>Batch sample</I> means the collection of units of the same basic model from which test units are selected. 
</P>
<P><I>Batch sample size</I> means the number of units in a batch sample. 
</P>
<P><I>Batch size</I> means the number of units in a batch. 
</P>
<P><I>Battery charger</I> means a device that charges batteries for consumer products, including battery chargers embedded in other consumer products.
</P>
<P><I>Black light lamp</I> means a lamp that is designed and marketed as a black light lamp and is an ultraviolet lamp with the highest radiant power peaks in the UV-A band (315 to 400 nm) of the electromagnetic spectrum.
</P>
<P><I>Blowout action</I> means a means of flushing a water closet whereby a jet of water directed at the bowl outlet opening pushes the bowl contents into the upleg, over the weir, and into the gravity drainage system.
</P>
<P><I>Blowout bowl</I> means a non-siphonic water closet bowl with an integral flushing rim, a trap at the rear of the bowl, and a visible or concealed jet that operates with a blowout action.
</P>
<P><I>BPAR incandescent reflector lamp</I> means a reflector lamp as shown in figure C78.21-278 of ANSI C78.21-2016 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>BR30</I> means a BR incandescent reflector lamp with a diameter of 30/8ths of an inch.
</P>
<P><I>BR40</I> means a BR incandescent reflector lamp with a diameter of 40/8ths of an inch.
</P>
<P><I>BR incandescent reflector lamp</I> means a reflector lamp that has a bulged section below the bulb's major diameter and above its approximate base line as shown in Figure 1 (RB) of ANSI C78.79-2020. A BR30 lamp has a lamp wattage of 85 or less than 66 and a BR40 lamp has a lamp wattage of 120 or less.
</P>
<P><I>Btu</I> means British thermal unit, which is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. 
</P>
<P><I>Bug lamp</I> means a lamp that is designed and marketed as a bug lamp, has radiant power peaks above 550 nm on the electromagnetic spectrum, and has a visible yellow coating.
</P>
<P><I>Built-in compact cooler</I> means any cooler with a total refrigerated volume less than 7.75 cubic feet and no more than 24 inches in depth, excluding doors, handles, and custom front panels, that is designed, intended, and marketed exclusively to be:
</P>
<P>(1) Installed totally encased by cabinetry or panels that are attached during installation;
</P>
<P>(2) Securely fastened to adjacent cabinetry, walls or floor;
</P>
<P>(3) Equipped with unfinished sides that are not visible after installation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Equipped with an integral factory-finished face or built to accept a custom front panel.
</P>
<P><I>Built-in cooler</I> means any cooler with a total refrigerated volume of 7.75 cubic feet or greater and no more than 24 inches in depth, excluding doors, handles, and custom front panels; that is designed, intended, and marketed exclusively to be:
</P>
<P>(1) Installed totally encased by cabinetry or panels that are attached during installation;
</P>
<P>(2) Securely fastened to adjacent cabinetry, walls or floor;
</P>
<P>(3) Equipped with unfinished sides that are not visible after installation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Equipped with an integral factory-finished face or built to accept a custom front panel.
</P>
<P><I>Built-in refrigerator/refrigerator-freezer/freezer</I> means any refrigerator, refrigerator-freezer or freezer with 7.75 cubic feet or greater total volume and 24 inches or less depth not including doors, handles, and custom front panels; with sides which are not finished and not designed to be visible after installation; and that is designed, intended, and marketed exclusively (1) To be installed totally encased by cabinetry or panels that are attached during installation, (2) to be securely fastened to adjacent cabinetry, walls or floor, and (3) to either be equipped with an integral factory-finished face or accept a custom front panel.
</P>
<P><I>Candelabra base incandescent lamp</I> means a lamp that uses a candelabra screw base as described in ANSI C81.61, Specifications for Electric Bases, common designations E11 and E12 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>Casement-only</I> means a room air conditioner designed for mounting in a casement window with an encased assembly with a width of 14.8 inches or less and a height of 11.2 inches or less.
</P>
<P><I>Casement-slider</I> means a room air conditioner with an encased assembly designed for mounting in a sliding or casement window with a width of 15.5 inches or less.
</P>
<P><I>Ceiling electric heater</I> means an electric heater which is intended to be recessed in, surface mounted on, or hung from a ceiling, and which transfers heat by radiation and/or convection (either natural or forced). 
</P>
<P><I>Ceiling fan</I> means a nonportable device that is suspended from a ceiling for circulating air via the rotation of fan blades. For the purpose of this definition:
</P>
<P>(1) Circulating air means the discharge of air in an upward or downward direction. A ceiling fan that has a ratio of fan blade span (in inches) to maximum rotation rate (in revolutions per minute) greater than 0.06 provides circulating air.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other ceiling fan related definitions, see appendix U to this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Ceiling fan light kit</I> means equipment designed to provide light from a ceiling fan that can be—
</P>
<P>(1) Integral, such that the equipment is attached to the ceiling fan prior to the time of retail sale; or
</P>
<P>(2) Attachable, such that at the time of retail sale the equipment is not physically attached to the ceiling fan, but may be included inside the ceiling fan at the time of sale or sold separately for subsequent attachment to the fan.


</P>
<P><I>Central air conditioner or central air conditioning heat pump</I> means a product, other than a packaged terminal air conditioner, packaged terminal heat pump, single-phase single-package vertical air conditioner with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h, single-phase single-package vertical heat pump with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h, computer room air conditioner, or unitary dedicated outdoor air system as these equipment categories are defined at § 431.92 of this chapter, which is powered by single phase electric current, air cooled, rated below 65,000 Btu per hour, not contained within the same cabinet as a furnace, the rated capacity of which is above 225,000 Btu per hour, and is a heat pump or a cooling unit only. A central air conditioner or central air conditioning heat pump may consist of: A single-package unit; an outdoor unit and one or more indoor units; an indoor unit only; or an outdoor unit with no match. In the case of an indoor unit only or an outdoor unit with no match, the unit must be tested and rated as a system (combination of both an indoor and an outdoor unit).






</P>
<P><I>Central system humidifier</I> means a class of humidifier designed to add moisture into the air stream of a heating system. 
</P>
<P><I>Circulating water heater</I> means a water heater that does not have an operational scheme in which the burner, heating element, or compressor initiates and/or terminates heating based on sensing flow; has a water temperature sensor located at the inlet or the outlet of the water heater or in a separate storage tank that is the primary means of initiating and terminating heating; and must be used in combination with a recirculating pump to circulate water and either a separate storage tank or water circulation loop in order to achieve the water flow and temperature conditions recommended in the manufacturer's installation and operation instructions. A circulating water heater constitutes a storage-type water heater.




</P>
<P><I>Class A external power supply</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) Means a device that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is designed to convert line voltage AC input into lower voltage AC or DC output;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is able to convert to only one AC or DC output voltage at a time;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is sold with, or intended to be used with, a separate end-use product that constitutes the primary load;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is contained in a separate physical enclosure from the end-use product;
</P>
<P>(v) Is connected to the end-use product via a removable or hard-wired male/female electrical connection, cable, cord, or other wiring; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Has nameplate output power that is less than or equal to 250 watts;
</P>
<P>(2) But, does not include any device that—
</P>
<P>(i) Requires Federal Food and Drug Administration listing and approval as a medical device in accordance with section 513 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360(c)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Powers the charger of a detachable battery pack or charges the battery of a product that is fully or primarily motor operated.
</P>
<P><I>Clothes washer</I> means a consumer product designed to clean clothes, utilizing a water solution of soap and/or detergent and mechanical agitation or other movement, and must be one of the following classes: automatic clothes washers, semi-automatic clothes washers, and other clothes washers. 
</P>
<P><I>Cold temperature fluorescent lamp</I> means a fluorescent lamp specifically designed to start at −20 °F when used with a ballast conforming to the requirements of ANSI C78.81 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and ANSI C78.901 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), and is expressly designated as a cold temperature lamp both in markings on the lamp and in marketing materials, including catalogs, sales literature, and promotional material.
</P>
<P><I>Color Rendering Index or CRI</I> means the measured degree of color shift objects undergo when illuminated by a light source as compared with the color of those same objects when illuminated by a reference source of comparable color temperature. 
</P>
<P><I>Colored fluorescent lamp</I> means a fluorescent lamp designated and marketed as a colored lamp and not designed or marketed for general illumination applications with either of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) A CRI less than 40, as determined according to the method set forth in CIE Publication 13.3 (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 430.3); or
</P>
<P>(2) A correlated color temperature less than 2,500K or greater than 7,000K as determined according to the method set forth in IES LM-9 (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 430.3). 
</P>
<P><I>Colored incandescent lamp</I> means an incandescent lamp designated and marketed as a colored lamp that has—
</P>
<P>(1) A color rendering index of less than 50, as determined according to the test method given in CIE 13.3 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3); or
</P>
<P>(2) A correlated color temperature of less than 2,500K, or greater than 4,600K, where correlated temperature is computed according to the “Computation of Correlated Color Temperature and Distribution Temperature,” Journal of the Optical Society of America, (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>Colored lamp</I> means a colored fluorescent lamp, a colored incandescent lamp, or a lamp designed and marketed as a colored lamp with either of the following characteristics (if multiple modes of operation are possible [such as variable CCT], either of the below characteristics must be maintained throughout all modes of operation):
</P>
<P>(1) A CRI less than 40, as determined according to the method set forth in CIE 13.3 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3); or
</P>
<P>(2) A CCT less than 2,500 K or greater than 7,000 K.
</P>
<P><I>Combination cooler refrigeration product</I> means any cooler-refrigerator, cooler-refrigerator-freezer, or cooler-freezer.
</P>
<P><I>Combined-duct portable air conditioner</I> means a portable air conditioner for which condenser inlet and outlet air streams flow through separate ducts housed in a single duct structure.


</P>
<P><I>Commercial and industrial power supply</I> means a power supply that is used to convert electric current into DC or lower-voltage AC current, is not distributed in commerce for use with a consumer product, and may include any of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) A power supply that requires 3-phase input power and that is incapable of operating on household mains electricity;
</P>
<P>(2) A DC-DC-only power supply that is incapable of operating on household mains electricity;
</P>
<P>(3) A power supply with a fixed, non-removable connection to an end-use device that is not a consumer product as defined under the Act;
</P>
<P>(4) A power supply whose output connector is uniquely shaped to fit only an end-use device that is not a consumer product;
</P>
<P>(5) A power supply that cannot be readily connected to an end-use device that is a consumer product without significant modification or customization of the power supply itself or the end-use device;
</P>
<P>(6) A power supply packaged with an end-use device that is not a consumer product, as evidenced by either:
</P>
<P>(i) Such device being certified as, or declared to be in conformance with, a specific standard applicable only to non-consumer products. For example, a power supply model intended for use with an end-use device that is certified to the following standards would not meet the EPCA definition of an EPS:
</P>
<P>(A) CISPR 11 (Class A Equipment), “Industrial, scientific and medical equipment—Radio-frequency disturbance—Limits and methods of measurement”;
</P>
<P>(B) UL 1480A, “Standard for Speakers for Commercial and Professional Use”;
</P>
<P>(C) UL 813, “Standard for Commercial Audio Equipment”; and
</P>
<P>(D) UL 1727, “Standard for Commercial Electric Personal Grooming Appliances”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such device being excluded or exempted from inclusion within, or conformance with, a law, regulation, or broadly-accepted industry standard where such exclusion or exemption applies only to non-consumer products;
</P>
<P>(7) A power supply distributed in commerce for use with an end-use device where:
</P>
<P>(i) The end-use device is not a consumer product, as evidenced by either the circumstances in paragraph (6)(i) or (ii) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The end-use device for which the power supply is distributed in commerce is reasonably disclosed to the public, such as by identification of the end-use device on the packaging for the power supply, documentation physically present with the power supply, or on the manufacturer's or private labeler's public website; or
</P>
<P>(8) A power supply that is not marketed for residential or consumer use, and that is clearly marked (or, alternatively, the packaging of the individual power supply, the shipping container of multiple such power supplies, or associated documentation physically present with the power supply when distributed in commerce is clearly marked) “FOR USE WITH COMMERCIAL OR INDUSTRIAL EQUIPMENT ONLY” or “NOT FOR RESIDENTIAL OR CONSUMER USE,” with the marking designed and applied so that the marking will be visible and legible during customary conditions for the item on which the marking is placed.
</P>
<P><I>Compact fluorescent lamp (CFL)</I> means an integrated or non-integrated single-base, low-pressure mercury, electric-discharge source in which a fluorescing coating transforms some of the ultraviolet energy generated by the mercury discharge into light; the term does not include circline or U-shaped lamps.
</P>
<P><I>Compact refrigerator/refrigerator-freezer/freezer</I> means any refrigerator, refrigerator-freezer or freezer with a total refrigerated volume of less than 7.75 cubic feet (220 liters). (Total refrigerated volume shall be determined using the applicable test procedure appendix prescribed in subpart B of this part.)
</P>
<P><I>Component video</I> means a video display interface as defined in the Consumer Electronics Association's (CEA) standard, CEA-770.3-D (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>Composite video</I> means a video display interface that uses Radio Corporation of America (RCA) connections carrying a signal defined by the Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers' (SMPTE) standard, SMPTE 170M-2004 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) for regions that support a power frequency of 59.94 Hz or International Telecommunication Union's (ITU) standard, ITU-R BT 470-6 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) for regions that support a power frequency of 50 Hz.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer product</I> means any article (other than an automobile, as defined in Section 501(1) of the Motor Vehicle Information and Cost Savings Act):
</P>
<P>(1) Of a type—
</P>
<P>(i) Which in operation consumes, or is designed to consume, energy or, with respect to showerheads, faucets, water closets, and urinals, water; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which, to any significant extent, is distributed in commerce for personal use or consumption by individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Without regard to whether such article of such type is in fact distributed in commerce for personal use or consumption by an individual, except that such term includes fluorescent lamp ballasts, general service fluorescent lamps, incandescent reflector lamps, showerheads, faucets, water closets, and urinals distributed in commerce for personal or commercial use or consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer refrigeration product</I> means a refrigerator, refrigerator-freezer, freezer, or miscellaneous refrigeration product.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means a person (other than the manufacturer or distributor) who sells to and/or installs for an end user a central air conditioner subject to regional standards. The term “end user” means the entity that purchases or selects for purchase the central air conditioner. Some examples of typical “end users” are homeowners, building owners, building managers, and property developers.
</P>
<P><I>Controlling parameter</I> means a measurable quantity or an algorithm (such as temperature or usage pattern) used for inferring heating load to a residential boiler, which would then result in incremental changes in boiler supply water temperature.
</P>
<P><I>Convection microwave oven</I> means a microwave oven that incorporates convection features and any other means of cooking in a single compartment.




</P>
<P><I>Conventional cooking top</I> means a category of cooking products which is a household cooking appliance consisting of a horizontal surface containing one or more surface units that utilize a gas flame, electric resistance heating, or electric inductive heating. This includes any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product.
</P>
<P><I>Conventional oven</I> means a category of cooking products which is a household cooking appliance consisting of one or more compartments intended for the cooking or heating of food by means of either a gas flame or electric resistance heating. It does not include portable or countertop ovens which use electric resistance heating for the cooking or heating of food and are designed for an electrical supply of approximately 120 volts. This includes any conventional oven(s) component of a combined cooking product.


</P>
<P><I>Conventional room air cleaner</I> means an air cleaner that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is a portable or wall mounted (fixed) unit, excluding ceiling mounted unit, that plugs into an electrical outlet;
</P>
<P>(2) Operates with a fan for air circulation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Contains means to remove, destroy, and/or deactivate particulates. The term portable is as defined in section 2.1.3.1 of AHAM AC-7-2022 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and fixed is as defined in section 2.1.3.2 of AHAM AC-7-2022.


</P>
<P><I>Cooking products</I> means consumer products that are used as the major household cooking appliances. They are designed to cook or heat different types of food by one or more of the following sources of heat: Gas, electricity, or microwave energy. Each product may consist of a horizontal cooking top containing one or more surface units and/or one or more heating compartments.
</P>
<P><I>Cooler</I> means a cabinet, used with one or more doors, that has a source of refrigeration capable of operating on single-phase, alternating current and is capable of maintaining compartment temperatures either:
</P>
<P>(1) No lower than 39 °F (3.9 °C); or
</P>
<P>(2) In a range that extends no lower than 37 °F (2.8 °C) but at least as high as 60 °F (15.6 °C) as determined according to the applicable provisions in § 429.61(d)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Cooler-all-refrigerator</I> means a cooler-refrigerator that does not include a compartment capable of maintaining compartment temperatures below 32 °F (0 °C) as determined according to the provisions in § 429.61(d)(2) of this chapter. It may include a compartment of 0.50 cubic-foot capacity (14.2 liters) or less for the freezing and storage of ice.
</P>
<P><I>Cooler-freezer</I> means a cabinet, used with one or more doors, that has a source of refrigeration that requires single-phase, alternating current electric energy input only, and consists of two or more compartments, including at least one cooler compartment as defined in appendix A of subpart B of this part, where the remaining compartment(s) are capable of maintaining compartment temperatures at 0 °F (−17.8 °C) or below as determined according to the provisions in § 429.61(d)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Cooler-refrigerator</I> means a cabinet, used with one or more doors, that has a source of refrigeration that requires single-phase, alternating current electric energy input only, and consists of two or more compartments, including at least one cooler compartment as defined in appendix A of subpart B of this part, where:
</P>
<P>(1) At least one of the remaining compartments is not a cooler compartment as defined in appendix A of subpart B of this part and is capable of maintaining compartment temperatures above 32 °F (0 °C) and below 39 °F (3.9 °C) as determined according to § 429.61(d)(2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The cabinet may also include a compartment capable of maintaining compartment temperatures below 32 °F (0 °C) as determined according to § 429.61(d)(2) of this chapter; but
</P>
<P>(3) The cabinet does not provide a separate low temperature compartment capable of maintaining compartment temperatures below 8 °F (−13.3 °C) as determined according to § 429.61(d)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Cooler-refrigerator-freezer</I> means a cabinet, used with one or more doors, that has a source of refrigeration that requires single-phase, alternating current electric energy input only, and consists of three or more compartments, including at least one cooler compartment as defined in appendix A of subpart B of this part, where:
</P>
<P>(1) At least one of the remaining compartments is not a cooler compartment as defined in appendix A of subpart B of this part and is capable of maintaining compartment temperatures above 32 °F (0 °C) and below 39 °F (3.9 °C) as determined according to § 429.61(d)(2) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) At least one other compartment is capable of maintaining compartment temperatures below 8 °F (−13.3 °C) and may be adjusted by the user to a temperature of 0 °F (−17.8 °C) or below as determined according to § 429.61(d)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Correlated color temperature (CCT)</I> means the absolute temperature of a blackbody whose chromaticity most nearly resembles that of the light source.
</P>
<P><I>Covered product</I> means a consumer product—
</P>
<P>(1) Of a type specified in section 322 of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) That is an air cleaner, battery charger, ceiling fan, ceiling fan light kit, dehumidifier, external power supply, medium base compact fluorescent lamp, miscellaneous refrigeration product, portable air conditioner, portable electric spa, or torchiere.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer</I> means a type of contractor, generally with a relationship with one or more specific manufacturers.


</P>
<P><I>Dehumidifier</I> means a product, other than a portable air conditioner, room air conditioner, or packaged terminal air conditioner, that is a self-contained, electrically operated, and mechanically encased assembly consisting of—
</P>
<P>(1) A refrigerated surface (evaporator) that condenses moisture from the atmosphere;
</P>
<P>(2) A refrigerating system, including an electric motor;
</P>
<P>(3) An air-circulating fan; and
</P>
<P>(4) A means for collecting or disposing of the condensate.
</P>
<P><I>Design voltage</I> with respect to an incandescent lamp means:
</P>
<P>(1) The voltage marked as the intended operating voltage;
</P>
<P>(2) The mid-point of the voltage range if the lamp is marked with a voltage range; or
</P>
<P>(3) 120 V if the lamp is not marked with a voltage or voltage range.
</P>
<P><I>Designed and marketed</I> means exclusively designed to fulfill the indicated application and, when distributed in commerce, designated and marketed solely for that application, with the designation prominently displayed on the packaging and all publicly available documents (<I>e.g.,</I> product literature, catalogs, and packaging labels). This definition applies to the following covered lighting products: Fluorescent lamp ballasts; fluorescent lamps; general service fluorescent lamps; general service incandescent lamps; general service lamps; incandescent lamps; incandescent reflector lamps; compact fluorescent lamps (including medium base compact fluorescent lamps); LED lamps; and specialty application mercury vapor lamp ballasts.
</P>
<P><I>Detachable battery</I> means a battery that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Contained in a separate enclosure from the product; and
</P>
<P>(2) Intended to be removed or disconnected from the product for recharging.
</P>
<P><I>Direct heating equipment</I> means vented home heating equipment and unvented home heating equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Direct operation external power supply</I> means an external power supply that can operate a consumer product that is not a battery charger without the assistance of a battery.
</P>
<P><I>Direct vent system</I> means a system supplied by a manufacturer which provides outdoor air or air from an unheated space (such as an attic or crawl space) directly to a furnace or vented heater for combustion and for draft relief if the unit is equipped with a draft control device. 
</P>
<P><I>Dishwasher</I> means a cabinet-like appliance which with the aid of water and detergent, washes, rinses, and dries (when a drying process is included) dishware, glassware, eating utensils, and most cooking utensils by chemical, mechanical and/or electrical means and discharges to the plumbing drainage system. 
</P>
<P><I>Distributor</I> means a person (other than a manufacturer or retailer) to whom a consumer appliance product is delivered or sold for purposes of distribution in commerce.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Dual-duct portable air conditioner</I> means a portable air conditioner that draws some or all of the condenser inlet air from outside the conditioned space through a duct attached to an adjustable window bracket, may draw additional condenser inlet air from the conditioned space, and discharges the condenser outlet air outside the conditioned space by means of a separate duct attached to an adjustable window bracket.
</P>
<P><I>Dual-flush water closet</I> means a water closet incorporating a feature that allows the user to flush the water closet with either a reduced or a full volume of water.
</P>
<P><I>Electric boiler</I> means an electrically powered furnace designed to supply low pressure steam or hot water for space heating application. A low pressure steam boiler operates at or below 15 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) steam pressure; a hot water boiler operates at or below 160 psig water pressure and 250 °F. water temperature. 
</P>
<P><I>Electric central furnace</I> means a furnace designed to supply heat through a system of ducts with air as the heating medium, in which heat is generated by one or more electric resistance heating elements and the heated air is circulated by means of a fan or blower. 
</P>
<P><I>Electric circulating water heater</I> means a circulating water heater with an input of 12 kW or less (including heat pump-only units with power inputs of no more than 24 A at 250 V).




</P>
<P><I>Electric clothes dryer</I> means a cabinet-like appliance designed to dry fabrics in a tumble-type drum with forced air circulation. The heat source is electricity and the drum and blower(s) are driven by an electric motor(s). 
</P>
<P><I>Electric heater</I> means an electric appliance which is a class of unvented home heating equipment in which heat is generated from electrical energy and dissipated by convection and radiation and includes baseboard electric heaters, ceiling electric heaters, floor electric heaters, portable electric heaters, and wall electric heaters. 
</P>
<P><I>Electric instantaneous water heater</I> means a water heater that uses electricity as the energy source, has a nameplate input rating of 12 kW or less, and contains no more than one gallon of water per 4,000 Btu per hour of input.


</P>
<P><I>Electric pool heater</I> means a pool heater other than an electric spa heater that uses electricity as its primary energy source.


</P>
<P><I>Electric spa heater</I> means a pool heater that—
</P>
<P>(1) Uses electricity as its primary energy source;
</P>
<P>(2) Has an output capacity (as measured according to appendix P to subpart B of part 430) of 11 kW or less; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is designed to be installed within a portable electric spa.


</P>
<P><I>Electric storage water heater</I> means a water heater that uses electricity as the energy source, has a nameplate input rating of 12 kW or less, and contains more than one gallon of water per 4,000 Btu per hour of input.
</P>
<P><I>Electromechanical hydraulic water closet</I> means any water closet that utilizes electrically operated devices, such as, but not limited to, air compressors, pumps, solenoids, motors, or macerators in place of or to aid gravity in evacuating waste from the toilet bowl.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic ballast</I> means a device that uses semiconductors as the primary means to control lamp starting and operation.
</P>
<P><I>Energy conservation standard</I> means any standards meeting the definitions of that term in 42 U.S.C. 6291(6) and 42 U.S.C. 6311(18) as well as any other water conservation standards and design requirements found in this part or parts 430 or 431.
</P>
<P><I>Energy use of a type of consumer product which is used by households</I> means the energy consumed by such product within housing units occupied by households (such as energy for space heating and cooling, water heating, the operation of appliances, or other activities of the households), and includes energy consumed on any property that is contiguous with a housing unit and that is used primarily by the household occupying the housing unit (such as energy for exterior lights or heating a pool).
</P>
<P><I>ER incandescent reflector lamp</I> means a reflector lamp that has an elliptical section below the major diameter of the bulb and above the approximate base line of the bulb, as shown in Figure 1 (RE) of ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and product space drawings shown in ANSI C78.21-2016 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>ER30</I> means an ER incandescent reflector lamp with a diameter of 30/8ths of an inch.
</P>
<P><I>ER40</I> means an ER incandescent reflector lamp with a diameter of 40/8ths of an inch.
</P>
<P><I>Estimated annual operating cost</I> means the aggregate retail cost of the energy which is likely to be consumed annually, and in the case of showerheads, faucets, water closets, and urinals, the aggregate retail cost of water and wastewater treatment services likely to be incurred annually, in representative use of a consumer product, determined in accordance with Section 323 of EPCA (42 U.S.C. 6293).
</P>
<P><I>External power supply</I> means an external power supply circuit that is used to convert household electric current into DC current or lower-voltage AC current to operate a consumer product. However, the term does not include any “commercial and industrial power supply” as defined in this section, or a power supply circuit, driver, or device that is designed exclusively to be connected to, and power—
</P>
<P>(1) Light-emitting diodes providing illumination;
</P>
<P>(2) Organic light-emitting diodes providing illumination; or
</P>
<P>(3) Ceiling fans using direct current motors.
</P>
<P><I>External power supply design family</I> means a set of external power supply basic models, produced by the same manufacturer, which share the same circuit layout, output power, and output cord resistance, but differ in output voltage.
</P>
<P><I>Faucet</I> means a lavatory faucet, kitchen faucet, metering faucet, or replacement aerator for a lavatory or kitchen faucet, excluding low-pressure water dispensers and pot fillers.


</P>
<P><I>Fitting</I> means a device that controls and guides the flow of water.
</P>
<P><I>Floor electric heater</I> means an electric heater which is intended to be recessed in a floor, and which transfers heat by radiation and/or convection (either natural or forced). 
</P>
<P><I>Fluorescent lamp</I> means a low pressure mercury electric-discharge source in which a fluorescing coating transforms some of the ultraviolet energy generated by the mercury discharge into light, including only the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any straight-shaped lamp (commonly referred to as 4-foot medium bipin lamps) with medium bipin bases of nominal overall length of 48 inches and rated wattage of 25 or more;
</P>
<P>(2) Any U-shaped lamp (commonly referred to as 2-foot U-shaped lamps) with medium bipin bases of nominal overall length between 22 and 25 inches and rated wattage of 25 or more;
</P>
<P>(3) Any rapid start lamp (commonly referred to as 8-foot high output lamps) with recessed double contact bases of nominal overall length of 96 inches;
</P>
<P>(4) Any instant start lamp (commonly referred to as 8-foot slimline lamps) with single pin bases of nominal overall length of 96 inches and rated wattage of 49 or more;
</P>
<P>(5) Any straight-shaped lamp (commonly referred to as 4-foot miniature bipin standard output lamps) with miniature bipin bases of nominal overall length between 45 and 48 inches and rated wattage of 25 or more; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any straight-shaped lamp (commonly referred to 4-foot miniature bipin high output lamps) with miniature bipin bases of nominal overall length between 45 and 48 inches and rated wattage of 44 or more.
</P>
<P><I>Fluorescent lamp ballast</I> means a device which is used to start and operate fluorescent lamps by providing a starting voltage and current and limiting the current during normal operation. 
</P>
<P><I>Fluorescent lamp designed for use in reprographic equipment</I> means a fluorescent lamp intended for use in equipment used to reproduce, reprint, or copy graphic material.
</P>
<P><I>Flushometer tank</I> means a device whose function is defined in flushometer valve, but integrated within an accumulator vessel affixed and adjacent to the fixture inlet so as to cause an effective enlargement of the supply line immediately before the unit.
</P>
<P><I>Flushometer valve</I> means a valve attached to a pressurized water supply pipe and so designed that when actuated, it opens the line for direct flow into the fixture at a rate and quantity to properly operate the fixture, and then gradually closes to provide trap reseal in the fixture in order to avoid water hammer. The pipe to which this device is connected is in itself of sufficient size, that when open, will allow the device to deliver water at a sufficient rate of flow for flushing purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Forced air central furnace</I> means a gas or oil burning furnace designed to supply heat through a system of ducts with air as the heating medium. The heat generated by combustion of gas or oil is transferred to the air within a casing by conduction through heat exchange surfaces and is circulated through the duct system by means of a fan or blower. 
</P>
<P><I>Freestanding compact cooler</I> means any cooler, excluding built-in compact coolers, with a total refrigerated volume less than 7.75 cubic feet.
</P>
<P><I>Freestanding cooler</I> means any cooler, excluding built-in coolers, with a total refrigerated volume of 7.75 cubic feet or greater.
</P>
<P><I>Freezer</I> means a cabinet, used with one or more doors, that has a source of refrigeration that requires single-phase, alternating current electric energy input only and is capable of maintaining compartment temperatures of 0 °F (−17.8 °C) or below as determined according to the provisions in § 429.14(d)(2) of this chapter. It does not include any refrigerated cabinet that consists solely of an automatic ice maker and an ice storage bin arranged so that operation of the automatic icemaker fills the bin to its capacity. However, the term does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any product that does not include a compressor and condenser unit as an integral part of the cabinet assembly; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any miscellaneous refrigeration product that must comply with an applicable miscellaneous refrigeration product energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P><I>Furnace</I> means a product which utilizes only single-phase electric current, or single-phase electric current or DC current in conjunction with natural gas, propane, or home heating oil, and which—
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed to be the principal heating source for the living space of a residence;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not contained within the same cabinet with a central air conditioner whose rated cooling capacity is above 65,000 Btu per hour;
</P>
<P>(3) Is an electric central furnace, electric boiler, forced-air central furnace, gravity central furnace, or low-pressure steam or hot water boiler; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has a heat input rate of less than 300,000 Btu per hour for electric boilers and low-pressure steam or hot water boilers and less than 225,000 Btu per hour for forced-air central furnaces, gravity central furnaces, and electric central furnaces.
</P>
<P><I>Furnace fan</I> means an electrically-powered device used in a consumer product for the purpose of circulating air through ductwork.
</P>
<P><I>Gas</I> means either natural gas or propane. 
</P>
<P><I>Gas clothes dryer</I> means a cabinet-like appliance designed to dry fabrics in a tumble-type drum with forced air circulation. The heat source is gas and the drum and blower(s) are driven by an electric motor(s).
</P>
<P><I>Gas-fired circulating water heater</I> means a circulating water heater with a nominal input of 75,000 Btu/h or less.


</P>
<P><I>Gas-fired instantaneous water heater</I> means a water heater that uses gas as the main energy source, has a nameplate input rating less than 200,000 Btu/h, and contains no more than one gallon of water per 4,000 Btu per hour of input.
</P>
<P><I>Gas-fired pool heater</I> means a pool heater that uses gas as its primary energy source.
</P>
<P><I>Gas-fired storage water heater</I> means a water heater that uses gas as the main energy source, has a nameplate input rating of 75,000 Btu/h or less, and contains more than one gallon of water per 4,000 Btu per hour of input.
</P>
<P><I>General lighting application</I> means lighting that provides an interior or exterior area with overall illumination.
</P>
<P><I>General service fluorescent lamp</I> means any fluorescent lamp which can be used to satisfy the majority of fluorescent lighting applications, but does not include any lamp designed and marketed for the following nongeneral application:
</P>
<P>(1) Fluorescent lamps designed to promote plant growth;
</P>
<P>(2) Fluorescent lamps specifically designed for cold temperature applications;
</P>
<P>(3) Colored fluorescent lamps;
</P>
<P>(4) Impact-resistant fluorescent lamps;
</P>
<P>(5) Reflectorized or aperture lamps;
</P>
<P>(6) Fluorescent lamps designed for use in reprographic equipment;
</P>
<P>(7) Lamps primarily designed to produce radiation in the ultra-violet region of the spectrum; and
</P>
<P>(8) Lamps with a Color Rendering Index of 87 or greater.






</P>
<P><I>General service incandescent lamp</I> means a standard incandescent or halogen type lamp that is intended for general service applications; has a medium screw base; has a lumen range of not less than 310 lumens and not more than 2,600 lumens or, in the case of a modified spectrum lamp, not less than 232 lumens and not more than 1,950 lumens; and is capable of being operated at a voltage range at least partially within 110 and 130 volts; however, this definition does not apply to the following incandescent lamps—
</P>
<P>(1) An appliance lamp;
</P>
<P>(2) A black light lamp;
</P>
<P>(3) A bug lamp;
</P>
<P>(4) A colored lamp;
</P>
<P>(5) A G shape lamp with a diameter of 5 inches or more as defined in ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3);
</P>
<P>(6) An infrared lamp;
</P>
<P>(7) A left-hand thread lamp;
</P>
<P>(8) A marine lamp;
</P>
<P>(9) A marine signal service lamp;
</P>
<P>(10) A mine service lamp;
</P>
<P>(11) A plant light lamp;
</P>
<P>(12) An R20 short lamp;
</P>
<P>(13) A sign service lamp;
</P>
<P>(14) A silver bowl lamp;
</P>
<P>(15) A showcase lamp; and
</P>
<P>(16) A traffic signal lamp.








</P>
<P><I>General service lamp</I> means a lamp that has an ANSI base; is able to operate at a voltage of 12 volts or 24 volts, at or between 100 to 130 volts, at or between 220 to 240 volts, or of 277 volts for integrated lamps (as set out in this definition), or is able to operate at any voltage for non-integrated lamps (as set out in this definition); has an initial lumen output of greater than or equal to 310 lumens (or 232 lumens for modified spectrum general service incandescent lamps) and less than or equal to 3,300 lumens; is not a light fixture; is not an LED downlight retrofit kit; and is used in general lighting applications. General service lamps include, but are not limited to, general service incandescent lamps, compact fluorescent lamps, general service light-emitting diode lamps, and general service organic light emitting diode lamps. General service lamps do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Appliance lamps;
</P>
<P>(2) Black light lamps;
</P>
<P>(3) Bug lamps;
</P>
<P>(4) Colored lamps;
</P>
<P>(5) G shape lamps with a diameter of 5 inches or more as defined in ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3);
</P>
<P>(6) General service fluorescent lamps;
</P>
<P>(7) High intensity discharge lamps;
</P>
<P>(8) Infrared lamps;
</P>
<P>(9) J, JC, JCD, JCS, JCV, JCX, JD, JS, and JT shape lamps that do not have Edison screw bases;
</P>
<P>(10) Lamps that have a wedge base or prefocus base;
</P>
<P>(11) Left-hand thread lamps;
</P>
<P>(12) Marine lamps;
</P>
<P>(13) Marine signal service lamps;
</P>
<P>(14) Mine service lamps;
</P>
<P>(15) MR shape lamps that have a first number symbol equal to 16 (diameter equal to 2 inches) as defined in ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), operate at 12 volts, and have a lumen output greater than or equal to 800;
</P>
<P>(16) Other fluorescent lamps;
</P>
<P>(17) Plant light lamps;
</P>
<P>(18) R20 short lamps;
</P>
<P>(19) Reflector lamps (as set out in this definition) that have a first number symbol less than 16 (diameter less than 2 inches) as defined in ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and that do not have E26/E24, E26d, E26/50x39, E26/53x39, E29/28, E29/53x39, E39, E39d, EP39, or EX39 bases;
</P>
<P>(20) S shape or G shape lamps that have a first number symbol less than or equal to 12.5 (diameter less than or equal to 1.5625 inches) as defined in ANSI C78.79-2014 (R2020) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3);
</P>
<P>(21) Sign service lamps;
</P>
<P>(22) Silver bowl lamps;
</P>
<P>(23) Showcase lamps;
</P>
<P>(24) Specialty MR lamps;
</P>
<P>(25) T shape lamps that have a first number symbol less than or equal to 8 (diameter less than or equal to 1 inch) as defined in ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), nominal overall length less than 12 inches, and that are not compact fluorescent lamps (as set out in this definition);
</P>
<P>(26) Traffic signal lamps.


</P>
<P><I>General service light-emitting diode (LED) lamp</I> means an integrated or non-integrated LED lamp designed for use in general lighting applications (as defined in this section) and that uses light-emitting diodes as the primary source of light.
</P>
<P><I>General service organic light-emitting diode (OLED) lamp</I> means an integrated or non- integrated OLED lamp designed for use in general lighting applications (as defined in this section) and that uses organic light-emitting diodes as the primary source of light.
</P>
<P><I>Gravity central furnace</I> means a gas fueled furnace which depends primarily on natural convection for circulation of heated air and which is designed to be used in conjunction with a system of ducts. 
</P>
<P><I>Gravity flush tank water closet</I> means a water closet designed to flush the bowl with water supplied by gravity only.
</P>
<P><I>Grid-enabled water heater</I> means an electric resistance water heater that—
</P>
<P>(1) Has a rated storage tank volume of more than 75 gallons;
</P>
<P>(2) Is manufactured on or after April 16, 2015;
</P>
<P>(3) Is equipped at the point of manufacture with an activation lock and;
</P>
<P>(4) Bears a permanent label applied by the manufacturer that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is made of material not adversely affected by water;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is attached by means of non-water-soluble adhesive; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Advises purchasers and end-users of the intended and appropriate use of the product with the following notice printed in 16.5 point Arial Narrow Bold font: “IMPORTANT INFORMATION: This water heater is intended only for use as part of an electric thermal storage or demand response program. It will not provide adequate hot water unless enrolled in such a program and activated by your utility company or another program operator. Confirm the availability of a program in your local area before purchasing or installing this product.”
</P>
<P><I>Hand-held showerhead</I> means a showerhead that can be held or fixed in place for the purpose of spraying water onto a bather and that is connected to a flexible hose.
</P>
<P><I>High-definition multimedia interface or HDMI®</I> means an audio and video interface as defined by HDMI® Specification Informational Version 1.0 or greater (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>Home heating equipment, not including furnaces</I> means vented home heating equipment and unvented home heating equipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Household</I> means an entity consisting of either an individual, a family, or a group of unrelated individuals, who reside in a particular housing unit. For the purpose of this definition:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Group quarters</I> means living quarters that are occupied by an institutional group of 10 or more unrelated persons, such as a nursing home, military barracks, halfway house, college dormitory, fraternity or sorority house, convent, shelter, jail or correctional institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Housing unit</I> means a house, an apartment, a group of rooms, or a single room occupied as separate living quarters, but does not include group quarters.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Separate living quarters</I> means living quarters:
</P>
<P>(i) To which the occupants have access either:
</P>
<P>(A) Directly from outside of the building, or
</P>
<P>(B) Through a common hall that is accessible to other living quarters and that does not go through someone else's living quarters, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Occupied by one or more persons who live and eat separately from occupant(s) of other living quarters, if any, in the same building.
</P>
<P><I>Immersed heating element</I> means an electrically powered heating device which is designed to operate while totally immersed in water in such a manner that the heat generated by the device is imparted directly to the water. 
</P>
<P><I>Impact-resistant fluorescent lamp</I> means a lamp that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a coating or equivalent technology that is compliant with NSF/ANSI 51 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and is designed to contain the glass if the glass envelope of the lamp is broken; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is designated and marketed for the intended application, with:
</P>
<P>(i) The designation on the lamp packaging; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Marketing materials that identify the lamp as being impact-resistant, shatter-resistant, shatter-proof, or shatter-protected.
</P>
<P><I>Import</I> means to import into the customs territory of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Incandescent lamp</I> means a lamp in which light is produced by a filament heated to incandescence by an electric current, including only the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any lamp (commonly referred to as lower wattage non-reflector general service lamps, including any tungsten halogen lamp) that has a rated wattage between 30 and 199, has an E26 medium screw base, has a rated voltage or voltage range that lies at least partially in the range of 115 and 130 volts, and is not a reflector lamp.
</P>
<P>(2) Any incandescent reflector lamp.
</P>
<P>(3) Any general service incandescent lamp (commonly referred to as a high-or higher-wattage lamp) that has a rated wattage above 199 (above 205 for a high wattage reflector lamp).
</P>
<P><I>Incandescent reflector lamp</I> (commonly referred to as a reflector lamp) means any lamp in which light is produced by a filament heated to incandescence by an electric current, which: contains an inner reflective coating on the outer bulb to direct the light; is not colored; is not designed for rough or vibration service applications; is not an R20 short lamp; has an R, PAR, ER, BR, BPAR, or similar bulb shapes with an E26 medium screw base; has a rated voltage or voltage range that lies at least partially in the range of 115 and 130 volts; has a diameter that exceeds 2.25 inches; and has a rated wattage that is 40 watts or higher.
</P>
<P><I>Indirect operation external power supply</I> means an external power supply that cannot operate a consumer product that is not a battery charger without the assistance of a battery as determined by the steps in paragraphs (1)(i) through (v) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(1) If the external power supply (EPS) can be connected to an end-use consumer product and that consumer product can be operated using battery power, the method for determining whether that EPS is incapable of operating that consumer product directly is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the end-use product has a removable battery, remove it for the remainder of the test and proceed to the step in paragraph (1)(v) of this definition. If not, proceed to the step in paragraph (1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(ii) Charge the battery in the application via the EPS such that the application can operate as intended before taking any additional steps.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disconnect the EPS from the application. From an off mode state, turn on the application and record the time necessary for it to become operational to the nearest five second increment (5 sec, 10 sec, etc.).
</P>
<P>(iv) Operate the application using power only from the battery until the application stops functioning due to the battery discharging.
</P>
<P>(v) Connect the EPS first to mains and then to the application. Immediately attempt to operate the application. If the battery was removed for testing and the end-use product operates as intended, the EPS is not an indirect operation EPS and paragraph 2 of this definition does not apply. If the battery could not be removed for testing, record the time for the application to become operational to the nearest five second increment (5 seconds, 10 seconds, etc.).
</P>
<P>(2) If the time recorded in paragraph (1)(v) of this definition is greater than the summation of the time recorded in paragraph (1)(iii) of this definition and five seconds, the EPS cannot operate the application directly and is an indirect operation EPS.
</P>
<P><I>Infrared lamp</I> means a lamp that is designed and marketed as an infrared lamp; has its highest radiant power peaks in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum (770 nm to 1 mm); has a rated wattage of 125 watts or greater; and which has a primary purpose of providing heat.
</P>
<P><I>Installation of a central air conditioner</I> means the connection of the refrigerant lines and/or electrical systems to make the central air conditioner operational.
</P>
<P><I>Integrated lamp</I> means a lamp that contains all components necessary for the starting and stable operation of the lamp, does not include any replaceable or interchangeable parts, and is connected directly to a branch circuit through an ANSI base and corresponding ANSI standard lamp-holder (socket).
</P>
<P><I>Integrated light-emitting diode lamp</I> means an integrated LED lamp as defined in ANSI/IES RP-16 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate base incandescent lamp</I> means a lamp that uses an intermediate screw base as described in ANSI C81.61, Specifications for Electric Bases, common designation E17 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>Kerosene</I> means No. 1 fuel oil with a viscosity meeting the specifications as specified in UL-730-1974, section 36.9 and in tables 2 and 3 of ANSI Standard Z91.1-1972.
</P>
<P><I>Lamp Efficacy (LE)</I> means the measured lumen output of a lamp in lumens divided by the measured lamp electrical power input in watts expressed in units of lumens per watt (LPW). 
</P>
<P><I>Lamps primarily designed to produce radiation in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum</I> means fluorescent lamps that primarily emit light in the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum where light has a wavelength between 10 and 400 nanometers.


</P>
<P><I>LED downlight retrofit kit</I> means a product designed and marketed to install into an existing downlight, replacing the existing light source and related electrical components, typically employing an ANSI standard lamp base, either integrated or connected to the downlight retrofit by wire leads, and is a retrofit kit classified or certified to UL 1598C-2016 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). LED downlight retrofit kit does not include integrated lamps or non-integrated lamps.


</P>
<P><I>Left-hand thread lamp</I> means a lamp with direction of threads on the lamp base oriented in the left-hand direction.
</P>
<P><I>Lifetime</I> with respect to an incandescent reflector lamp or general service incandescent lamp means the length of operating time between first use and failure of 50 percent of the sample units (as specified in 10 CFR 429.55 and 429.66), determined in accordance with the test procedures described in appendix R to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp</I> means the length of operating time between first use and failure of 50 percent of the sample units (as specified in § 429.35(a)(1) of this chapter), determined in accordance with the test procedures described in section 3.3 of appendix W to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Lifetime of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp</I> means the length of operating time between first use and failure of 50 percent of the sample units (as required by § 429.56(a)(1) of this chapter), when measured in accordance with the test procedures described in section 4 of appendix BB to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Light-emitting diode</I> or <I>LED</I> means a p-n junction solid state device of which the radiated output, either in the infrared region, the visible region, or the ultraviolet region, is a function of the physical construction, material used, and exciting current of the device.
</P>
<P><I>Light fixture</I> means a complete lighting unit consisting of light source(s) and ballast(s) or driver(s) (when applicable) together with the parts designed to distribute the light, to position and protect the light source, and to connect the light source(s) to the power supply.
</P>
<P><I>Low consumption</I> has the meaning given such a term in ASME A112.19.2-2008. (<I>see</I> § 430.3)


</P>
<P><I>Low pressure steam or hot water boiler</I> means an electric, gas or oil burning furnace designed to supply low pressure steam or hot water for space heating application. A low pressure steam boiler operates at or below 15 pounds psig steam pressure; a hot water boiler operates at or below 160 psig water pressure and 250 °F. water temperature. 
</P>
<P><I>Low-pressure water dispenser</I> means a terminal fitting that dispenses drinking water at a pressure of 105 kPA (15 psi) or less.


</P>
<P><I>Low-temperature water heater</I> means an electric instantaneous water heater that is not a circulating water heater and cannot deliver water at a temperature greater than or equal to the set point temperature specified in section 2.5 of appendix E to subpart B of this part when supplied with water at the supply water temperature specified in section 2.3 of appendix E to subpart B of this part and the flow rate specified in section 5.2.2.1 of appendix E to subpart B of this part.


</P>
<P><I>Low-voltage external power supply</I> means an external power supply with a nameplate output voltage less than 6 volts and nameplate output current greater than or equal to 550 milliamps.
</P>
<P><I>LP-gas</I> means liquified petroleum gas, and includes propane, butane, and propane/butane mixtures. 
</P>
<P><I>Major cooking component</I> means either a conventional cooking top, a conventional oven or a microwave oven. 
</P>
<P><I>Manufacture</I> means to manufacture, produce, assemble, or import.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means any person who manufactures a consumer product.
</P>
<P><I>Marine lamp</I> means a lamp that is designed and marketed for use on boats and can operate at or between 12 volts and 13.5 volts.
</P>
<P><I>Marine signal service lamp</I> means a lamp that is designed and marketed for marine signal service applications.
</P>
<P><I>Medium base compact fluorescent lamp</I> means an integrally ballasted fluorescent lamp with a medium screw base, a rated input voltage range of 115 to 130 volts and which is designed as a direct replacement for a general service incandescent lamp; however, the term does not include—
</P>
<P>(1) Any lamp that is—
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically designed to be used for special purpose applications; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Unlikely to be used in general purpose applications, such as the applications described in the definition of “General Service Incandescent Lamp” in this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any lamp not described in the definition of “General Service Incandescent Lamp” in this section that is excluded by the Secretary, by rule, because the lamp is—
</P>
<P>(i) Designed for special applications; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Unlikely to be used in general purpose applications.
</P>
<P><I>Medium screw base</I> means an Edison screw base identified with the prefix E-26 in the “American National Standard for Electric Lamp Bases”, ANSI__IEC C81.61-2003, published by the American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P><I>Microwave oven</I> means a category of cooking products which is a household cooking appliance consisting of a compartment designed to cook or heat food by means of microwave energy, including microwave ovens with or without thermal elements designed for surface browning of food and convection microwave ovens. This includes any microwave oven(s) component of a combined cooking product.
</P>
<P><I>Mine service lamp</I> means a lamp that is designed and marketed for mine service applications.


</P>
<P><I>Miscellaneous refrigeration product</I> means a consumer refrigeration product other than a refrigerator, refrigerator-freezer, or freezer, which includes coolers and combination cooler refrigeration products.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile home furnace</I> means a direct vent furnace that is designed for use only in mobile homes.
</P>
<P><I>Modified spectrum</I> means, with respect to an incandescent lamp, an incandescent lamp that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is not a colored incandescent lamp; and
</P>
<P>(2) When operated at the rated voltage and wattage of the incandescent lamp—
</P>
<P>(A) Has a color point with (x,y) chromaticity coordinates on the C.I.E. 1931 chromaticity diagram, figure 2, page 3 of IESNA LM-16 (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 430.3) that lies below the black-body locus; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has a color point with (x,y) chromaticity coordinates on the C.I.E. 1931 chromaticity diagram, figure 2, page 3 of IESNA LM-16 (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 430.3) that lies at least 4 MacAdam steps, as referenced in IESNA LM-16, distant from the color point of a clear lamp with the same filament and bulb shape, operated at the same rated voltage and wattage.
</P>
<P><I>Natural gas</I> means natural gas as defined by the Federal Power Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Non-integrated lamp</I> means a lamp that is not an integrated lamp. 
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means the condition in which an energy using product—
</P>
<P>(1) Is connected to a main power source; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not providing any stand-by or active mode function.
</P>
<P><I>Oil</I> means heating oil grade No. 2 as defined in American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) D396-71. 
</P>
<P><I>Oil-fired circulating water heater</I> means a circulating water heater with a nominal input of 105,000 Btu/h or less.


</P>
<P><I>Oil-fired instantaneous water heater</I> means a water heater that uses oil as the main energy source, has a nameplate input rating of 210,000 Btu/h or less, and contains no more than one gallon of water per 4,000 Btu per hour of input.
</P>
<P><I>Oil-fired pool heater</I> means a pool heater that uses oil as its primary energy source.
</P>
<P><I>Oil-fired storage water heater</I> means a water heater that uses oil as the main energy source, has a nameplate input rating of 105,000 Btu/h or less, and contains more than one gallon of water per 4,000 Btu per hour of input.
</P>
<P><I>Organic light-emitting diode</I> or O<I>LED</I> means a thin-film light-emitting device that typically consists of a series of organic layers between 2 electrical contacts (electrodes).
</P>
<P><I>Other clothes washer</I> means a class of clothes washer which is not an automatic or semi-automatic clothes washer. 
</P>
<P><I>Other cooking products</I> means any category of cooking products other than conventional cooking tops, conventional ovens, and microwave ovens.
</P>
<P><I>Other fluorescent lamp</I> means low pressure mercury electric-discharge sources in which a fluorescing coating transforms some of the ultraviolet energy generated by the mercury discharge into light and include circline lamps and include double-ended lamps with the following characteristics: Lengths from one to eight feet; designed for cold temperature applications; designed for use in reprographic equipment; designed to produce radiation in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum; impact-resistant; reflectorized or aperture; or a CRI of 87 or greater.


</P>
<P><I>Packaged terminal air conditioner</I> means a wall sleeve and a separate unencased combination of heating and cooling assemblies specified by the builder and intended for mounting through the wall. It includes a prime source of refrigeration, separable outdoor louvers, forced ventilation, and heating availability energy.
</P>
<P><I>Packaged terminal heat pump</I> means a packaged terminal air conditioner that utilizes reverse cycle refrigeration as its prime heat source and should have supplementary heating availability by builder's choice of energy. 
</P>
<P><I>PAR incandescent reflector lamp</I> means a reflector lamp formed by the sealing together during the lamp-making process of a pressed glass parabolic section and a pressed lens section as shown in Figure 1 (PAR) of ANSI C78.79-2020, (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). The pressed lens section may be either plain or configured.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes any individual, corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, society, trust, joint venture or joint stock company, the government, and any agency of the United States or any State or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Pin base lamp</I> means a lamp that uses a base type designated as a single pin base or multiple pin base system.
</P>
<P><I>Pin-based</I> means (1) the base of a fluorescent lamp, that is not integrally ballasted and that has a plug-in lamp base, including multi-tube, multibend, spiral, and circline types, or (2) a socket that holds such a lamp.
</P>
<P><I>Plant light lamp</I> means a lamp that is designed to promote plant growth by emitting its highest radiant power peaks in the regions of the electromagnetic spectrum that promote photosynthesis: Blue (440 nm to 490 nm) and/or red (620 to 740 nm), and is designed and marketed for plant growing applications.
</P>
<P><I>Pool heater</I> means an appliance designed for heating nonpotable water contained at atmospheric pressure, including heating water in swimming pools, spas, hot tubs and similar applications. 
</P>
<P><I>Portable air conditioner</I> means a portable encased assembly, other than a “packaged terminal air conditioner,” “room air conditioner,” or “dehumidifier,” that delivers cooled, conditioned air to an enclosed space, and is powered by single-phase electric current. It includes a source of refrigeration and may include additional means for air circulation and heating.
</P>
<P><I>Portable dehumidifier</I> means a dehumidifier that, in accordance with any manufacturer instructions available to a consumer, operates within the dehumidified space without the attachment of additional ducting, although means may be provided for optional duct attachment.


</P>
<P><I>Portable electric heater</I> means an electric heater which is intended to stand unsupported, and can be moved from place to place within a structure. It is connected to electric supply by means of a cord and plug, and transfers heat by radiation and/or convention (either natural or forced). 
</P>
<P><I>Portable electric spa</I> means a factory-built electric spa or hot tub, supplied with equipment for heating and circulating water at the time of sale or sold separately for subsequent attachment.


</P>
<P><I>Portable indoor conventional cooking top</I> means a conventional cooking top designed—
</P>
<P>(1) For indoor use; and
</P>
<P>(2) To be moved from place to place.


</P>
<P><I>Pot filler</I> means a terminal fitting that can accommodate only a single supply water inlet, with an articulated arm or the equivalent that allows the product to reach to fill vessels when in use and allows the product to be retracted when not in use.


</P>
<P><I>Primary electric heater</I> means an electric heater that is the principal source of heat for a structure and includes baseboard electric heaters, ceiling electric heaters, floor electric heaters, and wall electric heaters. 
</P>
<P><I>Private labeler</I> means an owner of a brand or trademark on the label of a consumer product which bears a private label. A consumer product bears a private label if:
</P>
<P>(1) Such product (or its container) is labeled with the brand or trademark of a person other than a manufacturer of such product;
</P>
<P>(2) The person with whose brand or trademark such product (or container) is labeled has authorized or caused such product to be so labeled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The brand or trademark of a manufacturer of such product does not appear on such label.
</P>
<P><I>Propane</I> means a hydrocarbon whose chemical composition is predominantly C<E T="52">3</E>H<E T="52">8</E>, whether recovered from natural gas or crude oil. 
</P>
<P><I>R incandescent reflector lamp</I> means a reflector lamp that includes a parabolic or elliptical section below the major diameter as shown in Figure 1 (R) of ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>R20 incandescent reflector lamp</I> means an R incandescent reflector lamp that has a face diameter of approximately 2.5 inches, as shown in Figure C78.21-254 of ANSI C78.21-2016 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>R20 short lamp</I> means a lamp that is an R20 incandescent reflector lamp that has a rated wattage of 100 watts; has a maximum overall length of 3 and 5/8, or 3.625, inches; and is designed, labeled, and marketed specifically for pool and spa applications.
</P>
<P><I>Rated voltage</I> with respect to incandescent lamps means:
</P>
<P>(1) The design voltage if the design voltage is 115 V, 130 V or between 115V and 130 V:
</P>
<P>(2) 115 V if the design voltage is less than 115 V and greater than or equal to 100 V and the lamp can operate at 115 V; and
</P>
<P>(3) 130 V if the design voltage is greater than 130 V and less than or equal to 150 V and the lamp can operate at 130 V.
</P>
<P><I>Rated wattage</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to fluorescent lamps and general service fluorescent lamps:
</P>
<P>(i) If the lamp is listed in ANSI C78.81 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) or ANSI C78.901 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), the rated wattage of a lamp determined by the lamp designation of Clause 11.1 of ANSI C78.81 or ANSI C78.901;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the lamp is a residential straight-shaped lamp, and not listed in ANSI C78.81 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), the wattage of a lamp when operated on a reference ballast for which the lamp is designed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the lamp is neither listed in one of the ANSI standards referenced in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, nor a residential straight-shaped lamp, a represented value of electrical power for a basic model, determined according to 10 CFR 429.27, and derived from the measured initial input power of a lamp tested according to appendix R to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to general service incandescent lamps, a represented value of electrical power for a basic model, determined according to 10 CFR 429.66, and derived from the measured initial input power of a lamp tested according to appendix R to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to incandescent reflector lamps, a represented value of electrical power for a basic model, determined according to 10 CFR 429.55, and derived from the measured initial input power of a lamp tested according to appendix R to subpart B of this part.




</P>
<P><I>Reflector lamp</I> means a lamp that has an R, PAR, BPAR, BR, ER, MR, or similar bulb shape as defined in ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and is used to provide directional light.
</P>
<P><I>Reflectorized or aperture lamp</I> means a fluorescent lamp that contains an inner reflective coating on the bulb to direct light.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifier</I> means a whole-home dehumidifier that removes moisture from the process air by means of a desiccant material in addition to a refrigeration system.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigerator</I> means a cabinet, used with one or more doors, that has a source of refrigeration that requires single-phase, alternating current electric energy input only and is capable of maintaining compartment temperatures above 32 °F (0 °C) and below 39 °F (3.9 °C) as determined according to § 429.14(d)(2) of this chapter. A refrigerator may include a compartment capable of maintaining compartment temperatures below 32 °F (0 °C), but does not provide a separate low temperature compartment capable of maintaining compartment temperatures below

8 °F (−13.3 °C) as determined according to § 429.14(d)(2). However, the term does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any product that does not include a compressor and condenser unit as an integral part of the cabinet assembly;
</P>
<P>(2) A cooler; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any miscellaneous refrigeration product that must comply with an applicable miscellaneous refrigeration product energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigerator-freezer</I> means a cabinet, used with one or more doors, that has a source of refrigeration that requires single-phase, alternating current electric energy input only and consists of two or more compartments where at least one of the compartments is capable of maintaining compartment temperatures above 32 °F (0 °C) and below 39 °F (3.9 °C) as determined according to § 429.14(d)(2) of this chapter, and at least one other compartment is capable of maintaining compartment temperatures of 8 °F (−13.3 °C) and may be adjusted by the user to a temperature of 0 °F (−17.8 °C) or below as determined according to § 429.14(d)(2). However, the term does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any product that does not include a compressor and condenser unit as an integral part of the cabinet assembly; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any miscellaneous refrigeration product that must comply with an applicable miscellaneous refrigeration product energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement ballast</I> means a ballast that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed for use to replace an existing fluorescent lamp ballast in a previously installed luminaire;
</P>
<P>(2) Is marked “FOR REPLACEMENT USE ONLY”;
</P>
<P>(3) Is shipped by the manufacturer in packages containing not more than 10 fluorescent lamp ballasts; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has output leads that when fully extended are a total length that is less than the length of the lamp with which the ballast is intended to be operated.
</P>
<P><I>Residential straight-shaped lamp</I> means a low pressure mercury electric-discharge source in which a fluorescing coating transforms some of the ultraviolet energy generated by the mercury discharge into light, including a straight-shaped fluorescent lamp with medium bi-pin bases of nominal overall length of 48 inches and is either designed exclusively for residential applications; or designed primarily and marketed exclusively for residential applications.
</P>
<P>(1) A lamp is designed exclusively for residential applications if it will not function for more than 100 hours with a commercial high-power-factor ballast.
</P>
<P>(2) A lamp is designed primarily and marketed exclusively for residential applications if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Is permanently and clearly marked as being for residential use only;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a life of 6,000 hours or less when used with a commercial high-power-factor ballast;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not labeled or represented as a replacement for a fluorescent lamp that is a covered product; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is marketed and distributed in a manner designed to minimize use of the lamp with commercial high-power-factor ballasts.
</P>
<P>(3) A manufacturer may market and distribute a lamp in a manner designed to minimize use of the lamp with commercial high-power-factor ballasts by:
</P>
<P>(i) Packaging and labeling the lamp in a manner that clearly indicates the lamp is for residential use only and includes appropriate instructions concerning proper and improper use; if the lamp is included in a catalog or price list that also includes commercial/industrial lamps, listing the lamp in a separate residential section accompanied by notes about proper use on the same page; and providing as part of any express warranty accompanying the lamp that improper use voids such warranty; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Using other comparably effective measures to minimize use with commercial high-power-factor ballasts.
</P>
<P><I>Room air conditioner</I> means a window-mounted or through-the-wall-mounted encased assembly, other than a “packaged terminal air conditioner,” that delivers cooled, conditioned air to an enclosed space, and is powered by single-phase electric current. It includes a source of refrigeration and may include additional means for ventilating and heating. 
</P>
<P><I>Rough or vibration service incandescent reflector lamp</I> means a reflector lamp: in which a C-11 (5 support), C-17 (8 support), or C-22 (16 support) filament is mounted (the number of support excludes lead wires); in which the filament configuration is as shown in Chapter 6 of the 1993 <I>Illuminating Engineering Society of North America Lighting Handbook,</I> 8th Edition (see 10 CFR 430.22); and that is designated and marketed specifically for rough or vibration service applications.
</P>
<P><I>Rough service lamp</I> means a lamp that—
</P>
<P>(1) Has a minimum of 5 supports with filament configurations that are C-7A, C-11, C-17, and C-22 as listed in Figure 6-12 of the IESNA Lighting Handbook (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 430.3), or similar configurations where lead wires are not counted as supports; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is designated and marketed specifically for ‘rough service’ applications, with
</P>
<P>(i) The designation appearing on the lamp packaging; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Marketing materials that identify the lamp as being for rough service.
</P>
<P><I>S-video</I> means a video display interface that transmits analog video over two channels: luma and chroma as defined by IEC 60933-5 Ed. 1.0 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>Safety shower showerhead</I> means a showerhead designed to meet the requirements of ISEA Z358.1 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Security or life safety alarm or surveillance system</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Equipment designed and marketed to perform any of the following functions (on a continuous basis):
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor, detect, record, or provide notification of intrusion or access to real property or physical assets or notification of threats to life safety.
</P>
<P>(ii) Deter or control access to real property or physical assets, or prevent the unauthorized removal of physical assets.
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitor, detect, record, or provide notification of fire, gas, smoke, flooding, or other physical threats to real property, physical assets, or life safety.
</P>
<P>(2) This term does not include any product with a principal function other than life safety, security, or surveillance that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is designed and marketed with a built-in alarm or theft-deterrent feature; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not operate necessarily and continuously in active mode.
</P>
<P><I>Semi-automatic clothes washer</I> means a class of clothes washer that is the same as an automatic clothes washer except that user intervention is required to regulate the water temperature by adjusting the external water faucet valves. 
</P>
<P><I>Shatter-resistant lamp, shatter-proof lamp,</I> or <I>shatter-protected lamp</I> means a lamp that—
</P>
<P>(1) Has a coating or equivalent technology that is compliant with NSF/ANSI 51 (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 430.3) and is designed to contain the glass if the glass envelope of the lamp is broken; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is designated and marketed for the intended application, with
</P>
<P>(i) The designation on the lamp packaging; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Marketing materials that identify the lamp as being shatter-resistant, shatter-proof, or shatter-protected.
</P>
<P><I>Showcase lamp</I> means a lamp that has a T shape as specified in ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), is designed and marketed as a showcase lamp, and has a maximum rated wattage of 75 watts.




</P>
<P><I>Sign service lamp</I> means a vacuum type or gas-filled lamp that has sufficiently low bulb temperature to permit exposed outdoor use on high-speed flashing circuits, is designed and marketed as a sign service lamp, and has a maximum rated wattage of 15 watts. 
</P>
<P><I>Silver bowl lamp</I> means a lamp that has an opaque reflective coating applied directly to part of the bulb surface that reflects light toward the lamp base and that is designed and marketed as a silver bowl lamp.
</P>
<P><I>Single-duct portable air conditioner</I> means a portable air conditioner that draws all of the condenser inlet air from the conditioned space without the means of a duct, and discharges the condenser outlet air outside the conditioned space through a single duct attached to an adjustable window bracket.
</P>
<P><I>Siphonic action</I> means the movement of water through a flushing fixture by creating a siphon to remove waste material.
</P>
<P><I>Siphonic bowl</I> means a water closet bowl that has an integral flushing rim, a trap at the front or rear, and a floor or wall outlet, and operates with a siphonic action (with or without a jet).
</P>
<P><I>Small-duct high-velocity (SDHV) electric furnace</I> means an electric furnace that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed for, and produces, at least 1.2 inches of external static pressure when operated at the certified air volume rate of 220-350 CFM per rated ton of cooling in the highest default cooling airflow-control setting; and
</P>
<P>(2) When applied in the field, uses high velocity room outlets generally greater than 1,000 fpm that have less than 6.0 square inches of free area.
</P>
<P><I>Small-duct high-velocity (SDHV) modular blower</I> means a modular blower that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed for, and produces, at least 1.2 inches of external static pressure when operated at the certified air volume rate of 220-350 CFM per rated ton of cooling in the highest default cooling airflow-controls setting; and
</P>
<P>(2) When applied in the field, uses high velocity room outlets generally greater than 1,000 fpm that have less than 6.0 square inches of free area.
</P>
<P><I>Space constrained product</I> means a central air conditioner or heat pump:
</P>
<P>(1) That has rated cooling capacities no greater than 30,000 BTU/hr;
</P>
<P>(2) That has an outdoor or indoor unit having at least two overall exterior dimensions or an overall displacement that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is substantially smaller than those of other units that are:
</P>
<P>(A) Currently usually installed in site-built single family homes; and
</P>
<P>(B) Of a similar cooling, and, if a heat pump, heating capacity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If increased, would certainly result in a considerable increase in the usual cost of installation or would certainly result in a significant loss in the utility of the product to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(3) Of a product type that was available for purchase in the United States as of December 1, 2000.
</P>
<P><I>Specialty application mercury vapor lamp ballast</I> means a mercury vapor lamp ballast that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed and marketed for operation of mercury vapor lamps used in quality inspection, industrial processing, or scientific use, including fluorescent microscopy and ultraviolet curing; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a specialty application mercury vapor lamp ballast, the label of which—
</P>
<P>(i) Provides that the specialty application mercury vapor lamp ballast is ‘For specialty applications only, not for general illumination’; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Specifies the specific applications for which the ballast is designed.
</P>
<P><I>Specialty MR lamp</I> means a lamp that has an MR shape as defined in ANSI C78.79-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), a diameter of less than or equal to 2.25 inches, a lifetime of less than or equal to 300 hours, and that is designed and marketed for a specialty application.


</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means the condition in which an energy-using product—
</P>
<P>(1) Is connected to a main power source; and
</P>
<P>(2) Offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions:
</P>
<P>(i) To facilitate the activation or deactivation of other functions (including active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a State, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>State regulation</I> means a law or regulation of a State or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Supplementary electric heater</I> means an electric heater that provides heat to a space in addition to that which is supplied by a primary electric heater and includes portable electric heaters. 
</P>
<P><I>Surface unit</I> means either a heating unit mounted in a cooking top, or a heating source and its associated heated area of the cooking top, on which vessels are placed for the cooking or heating of food. 




</P>
<P><I>Tabletop water heater</I> means a water heater in a rectangular box enclosure designed to slide into a kitchen countertop space with typical dimensions of 36 inches high, 25 inches deep, and 24 inches wide, and with a certified first-hour rating that results in either the very small draw pattern or the low draw pattern, as specified in Table I in section 5.4.1 of appendix E to subpart B of this part.


</P>
<P><I>Television set or TV</I> means a product designed to produce dynamic video, contains an internal TV tuner encased within the product housing, and that is capable of receiving dynamic visual content from wired or wireless sources including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Broadcast and similar services for terrestrial, cable, satellite, and/or broadband transmission of analog and/or digital signals; and/or
</P>
<P>(2) Display-specific data connections, such as HDMI, Component video, S-video, Composite video; and/or
</P>
<P>(3) Media storage devices such as a USB flash drive, memory card, or a DVD; and/or
</P>
<P>(4) Network connections, usually using Internet Protocol, typically carried over Ethernet or Wi-Fi.
</P>
<P><I>Through-the-wall central air conditioner</I> means a central air conditioner that is designed to be installed totally or partially within a fixed-size opening in an exterior wall, and:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not weatherized;
</P>
<P>(2) Is clearly and permanently marked for installation only through an exterior wall;
</P>
<P>(3) Has a rated cooling capacity no greater than 30,000 Btu/hr;
</P>
<P>(4) Exchanges all of its outdoor air across a single surface of the equipment cabinet; and
</P>
<P>(5) Has a combined outdoor air exchange area of less than 800 square inches (split systems) or less than 1,210 square inches (single packaged systems) as measured on the surface described in paragraph (4) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Through-the-wall central air conditioning heat pump</I> means a heat pump that is designed to be installed totally or partially within a fixed-size opening in an exterior wall, and:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not weatherized;
</P>
<P>(2) Is clearly and permanently marked for installation only through an exterior wall;
</P>
<P>(3) Has a rated cooling capacity no greater than 30,000 Btu/hr;
</P>
<P>(4) Exchanges all of its outdoor air across a single surface of the equipment cabinet; and
</P>
<P>(5) Has a combined outdoor air exchange area of less than 800 square inches (split systems) or less than 1,210 square inches (single packaged systems) as measured on the surface described in paragraph (4) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Torchiere</I> means a portable electric lamp with a reflector bowl that directs light upward to give indirect illumination.
</P>
<P><I>Traffic signal lamp</I> means a lamp that is designed and marketed for traffic signal applications and has a lifetime of 8,000 hours or greater.
</P>
<P><I>Trough-type urinal</I> means a urinal designed for simultaneous use by two or more people.
</P>
<P><I>Unvented gas heater</I> means a class of unvented home heating equipment which is a self-contained, free-standing, nonrecessed gas-burning appliance that furnishes heated air by gravity or fan circulation.
</P>
<P><I>Unvented home heating equipment or unvented heater</I> means a class of home heating equipment, not including furnaces, designed to furnish heated air to a space proximate to such heater, directly from the heater, without inlet duct connections and without exhaust venting, and includes: Electric heater, unvented gas heater, and unvented oil heater.
</P>
<P><I>Unvented oil heater</I> means a class of unvented home heating equipment which is a self-contained, free-standing, nonrecessed oil-burning appliance that furnishes heated air by gravity or fan circulation.
</P>
<P><I>Urinal</I> means a plumbing fixture which receives only liquid body waste and, on demand, conveys the waste through a trap seal into a gravity drainage system, except such term does not include fixtures designed for installations in prisons.
</P>
<P><I>Vented floor furnace</I> means a self-contained vented heater suspended from the floor of the space being heated, taking air for combustion from outside this space. The vented floor furnace supplies heated air circulated by gravity or by a fan directly into the space to be heated through openings in the casing. 
</P>
<P><I>Vented home heating equipment or vented heater</I> means a class of home heating equipment, not including furnaces, designed to furnish heated air to a space proximate to such heater, directly from the heater, without inlet duct connections (except that boots not to exceed 10 inches beyond the casing may be permitted), and with exhaust venting, and includes: Vented wall furnace, vented floor furnace, and vented room heater.
</P>
<P><I>Vented room heater</I> means a self-contained, free standing, nonrecessed, vented heater for furnishing heated air to the space in which it is installed. The vented room heater supplies heated air circulated by gravity or by a fan directly into the space to be heated through openings in the casing. 
</P>
<P><I>Vented wall furnace</I> means a self-contained vented heater complete with grilles or the equivalent, designed for incorporation in, or permanent attachment to, a wall of a residence and furnishing heated air circulated by gravity or by a fan directly into the space to be heated through openings in the casing.
</P>
<P><I>Vibration service lamp</I> means a lamp that—
</P>
<P>(1) Has filament configurations that are C-5, C-7A, or C-9, as listed in Figure 6-12 of the IESNA Lighting Handbook (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 430.3) or similar configurations;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a maximum wattage of 60 watts;
</P>
<P>(3) Is sold at retail in packages of 2 lamps or less; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is designated and marketed specifically for vibration service or vibration-resistant applications, with—
</P>
<P>(i) The designation appearing on the lamp packaging; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Marketing materials that identify the lamp as being vibration service only.
</P>
<P><I>Voltage range</I> means a band of operating voltages as marked on an incandescent lamp, indicating that the lamp is designed to operate at any voltage within the band.
</P>
<P><I>Wall electric heater</I> means an electric heater (excluding baseboard electric heaters) which is intended to be recessed in or surface mounted on walls, which transfers heat by radiation and/or convection (either natural or forced) and which includes forced convectors, natural convectors, radiant heaters, high wall or valance heaters. 
</P>
<P><I>Water closet</I> means a plumbing fixture that has a water-containing receptor which receives liquid and solid body waste, and upon actuation, conveys the waste through an exposed integral trap seal into a gravity drainage system, except such term does not include fixtures designed for installation in prisons.
</P>
<P><I>Water heater</I> means a product which utilizes oil, gas, or electricity to heat potable water for use outside the heater upon demand, including—
</P>
<P>(1) Storage type units which heat and store water at a thermostatically controlled temperature, including gas storage water heaters with an input of 75,000 Btu per hour or less, oil storage water heaters with an input of 105,000 Btu per hour or less, and electric storage water heaters with an input of 12 kilowatts or less;
</P>
<P>(2) Instantaneous type units which heat water but contain no more than one gallon of water per 4,000 Btu per hour of input, including gas instantaneous water heaters with an input of 200,000 Btu per hour or less, oil instantaneous water heaters with an input of 210,000 Btu per hour or less, and electric instantaneous water heaters with an input of 12 kilowatts or less; and
</P>
<P>(3) Heat pump type units, with a maximum current rating of 24 amperes at a voltage no greater than 250 volts, which are products designed to transfer thermal energy from one temperature level to a higher temperature level for the purpose of heating water, including all ancillary equipment such as fans, storage tanks, pumps, or controls necessary for the device to perform its function.
</P>
<P><I>Water use</I> means the quantity of water flowing through a showerhead, faucet, water closet, or urinal at point of use, determined in accordance with test procedures under appendices S and T of subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Weatherized warm air furnace or boiler</I> means a furnace or boiler designed for installation outdoors, approved for resistance to wind, rain, and snow, and supplied with its own venting system.
</P>
<P><I>Whole-home dehumidifier</I> means a dehumidifier that, in accordance with any manufacturer instructions available to a consumer, operates with ducting to deliver return process air to its inlet and to supply dehumidified process air from its outlet to one or more locations in the dehumidified space.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27898, June 1, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 430.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.3" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.3   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Department of Energy (DOE) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: The U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585-0121, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/appliance-and-equipment-standards-program.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Air Movement and Control Association International, Inc. (AMCA), 30 West University Drive, Arlington Heights, IL 60004, (847) 394-0150, or by going to <I>https://www.amca.org/store/item.aspx?ItemId=81.</I>




</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AMCA 210-99, <I>Laboratory Methods of Testing Fans for Aerodynamic Performance Rating,</I> ANSI-approved December 2, 1999; IBR approved for appendices CC and CC1 to subpart B. (Co-published as ANSI/ASHRAE 51-1999.)


</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ASHRAE 51-07/ANSI/AMCA 210-07 (“ANSI/AMCA 210”), Laboratory Methods of Testing Fans for Certified Aerodynamic Performance Rating, AMCA approved July 28, 2006; IBR approved for appendix X1 to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI/AMCA Standard 208-18, (“AMCA 208-18”), Calculation of the Fan Energy Index, ANSI approved January 24, 2018, IBR approved for appendix U to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/AMCA 210-07, ANSI/ASHRAE 51-07 (“AMCA 210-2007”), Laboratory Methods of Testing Fans for Certified Aerodynamic Performance Rating, ANSI approved August 17, 2007, Section 8—Report and Results of Test, Section 8.2—Performance graphical representation of test results, IBR approved for appendix M  to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Figure 2A—Static Pressure Tap, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Figure 12—Outlet Chamber Setup—Multiple Nozzles in Chamber.
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI/AMCA Standard 230-15 (“AMCA 230-15”), <I>Laboratory Methods of Testing Air Circulating Fans for Rating and Certification,</I> ANSI-approved October 16, 2015; IBR approved for appendix U of subpart B.
</P>
<P>(6) AMCA 230-15 Technical Errata 2021-05-05 (“AMCA 260-15 TE), <I>Technical Errata Sheet for ANSI/AMCA Standard 230-15: Density Corrections,</I> dated May 5, 2021; IBR approved for appendix U of subpart B.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>AHRI.</I> Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute, 2311 Wilson Blvd., Suite 400, Arlington, VA 22201, (703) 524-8800, or go to: <I>www.ahrinet.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AHRI 210/240-2008 with Addenda 1 and 2 (“AHRI 210/240-2008”), 2008 Standard for Performance Rating of Unitary Air-Conditioning &amp; Air-Source Heat Pump Equipment, ANSI approved October 27, 2011 (Addendum 1 dated June 2011 and Addendum 2 dated March 2012); IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 6—Rating Requirements, Section 6.1—Standard Ratings, 6.1.3—Standard Rating Tests, 6.1.3.2—Electrical Conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 6—Rating Requirements, Section 6.1—Standard Ratings, 6.1.3—Standard Rating Tests, 6.1.3.4—Outdoor-Coil Airflow Rate;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6—Rating Requirements, Section 6.1—Standard Ratings, 6.1.3—Standard Rating Tests, 6.1.3.5—Requirements for Separated Assemblies;
</P>
<P>(iv) Figure D1—Tunnel Air Enthalpy Test Method Arrangement;
</P>
<P>(v) Figure D2—Loop Air Enthalpy Test Method Arrangement; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Figure D4—Room Air Enthalpy Test Method Arrangement.
</P>
<P>(2) AHRI Standard 210/240-2024 (I-P), (“AHRI 210/240-2024”), Performance Rating of Unitary Air-conditioning and Air-source Heat Pump Equipment; IBR approved for appendix M1 to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(3) AHRI Standard 1160-2009 (“AHRI 1160”), Performance Rating of Heat Pump Pool Heaters, 2009; IBR approved for appendix P to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010 with Addendum 2 (“AHRI 1230-2010”), 2010 Standard for Performance Rating of Variable Refrigerant Flow (VRF) Multi-Split Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment (including Addendum 1 dated March 2011), ANSI approved August 2, 2010 (Addendum 2 dated June 2014); IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3—Definitions (except 3.8, 3.9, 3.13, 3.14, 3.15, 3.16, 3.23, 3.24, 3.26, 3.27, 3.28, 3.29, 3.30, and 3.31);
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5—Test Requirements, Section 5.1 (untitled), 5.1.3-5.1.4;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6—Rating Requirements, Section 6.1—Standard Ratings, 6.1.5—Airflow Requirements for Systems with Capacities &lt;65,000 Btu/h [19,000 W];
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 6—Rating Requirements, Section 6.1—Standard Ratings, 6.1.6—Outdoor-Coil Airflow Rate (Applies to all Air-to-Air Systems);
</P>
<P>(v) Section 6—Rating Requirements, Section 6.2—Conditions for Standard Rating Test for Air-cooled Systems &lt;65,000 Btu/h [19,000W] (except table 8); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Table 4—Refrigerant Line Length Correction Factors.
</P>
<P>(5) AHRI Standard 1600-2024 (I-P) (“AHRI 1600-2024”), Performance Rating of Unitary Air-conditioning and Air-source Heat Pump Equipment; IBR approved for appendix M2 to subpart B.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>AATCC.</I> American Association of Textile Chemists and Colorists, P.O. Box 12215, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709, (919) 549-3526, or go to <I>www.aatcc.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) AATCC Test Method 79-2010, Absorbency of Textiles, Revised 2010, IBR approved for Appendix J3 to Subpart B.
</P>
<P>(2) AATCC Test Method 118-2007, Oil Repellency: Hydrocarbon Resistance Test, Revised 2007, IBR approved for Appendix J3 to Subpart B.
</P>
<P>(3) AATCC Test Method 135-2010, Dimensional Changes of Fabrics after Home Laundering, Revised 2010, IBR approved for Appendix J3 to Subpart B.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>ANSI.</I> American National Standards Institute, 25 W. 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036, 212-642-4900, or go to <I>https://www.ansi.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI C78.3-1991 (“ANSI C78.3”), American National Standard for Fluorescent Lamps-Instant-start and Cold-Cathode Types-Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics, approved July 15, 1991; IBR approved for § 430.32. 
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI C78.20-2003, Revision of ANSI C78.20-1995 (“ANSI C78.20”), American National Standard for electric lamps—A, G, PS, and Similar Shapes with E26 Medium Screw Bases, approved October 30, 2003; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI C78.21-1989, American National Standard for Electric Lamps—PAR and R Shapes, approved March 3, 1989, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI C78.21-2011 (R2016) (“ANSI C78.21-2016”), <I>American National Standard for Electric Lamps—PAR and R Shapes,</I> ANSI-approved August 23, 2016; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI C78.79-2014 (R2020) (“ANSI C78.79-2020”), <I>American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Nomenclature for Envelope Shapes Intended for Use with Electric Lamps,</I> ANSI-approved January 17, 2020; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI__ANSLG C78.81-2010, (“ANSI C78.81-2010”), American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Double-Capped Fluorescent Lamps— Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics, approved January 14, 2010, IBR approved for §§ 430.2 and 430.32 and appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(7) ANSI C78.81-2016, American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Double-Capped Fluorescent Lamps—Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics, approved June 29, 2016, IBR approved for appendices Q and R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(8) ANSI C78.375-1997, Revision of ANSI C78.375-1991 (“ANSI C78.375”), American National Standard for Fluorescent Lamps—Guide for Electrical Measurements, first edition, approved September 25, 1997; IBR approved for appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(9) ANSI C78.375A-2014 (R2020) (“ANSI C78.375A-2020”) <I>American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Fluorescent Lamps—Guide for Electrical Measures,</I> ANSI-approved January 17, 2020; IBR approved for appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(10) ANSI__IEC C78.901-2005, (“ANSI C78.901-2005”), American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Single-Based Fluorescent Lamps—Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics, approved March 23, 2005; IBR approved for § 430.2 and appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(11) ANSI C78.901-2014, American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Single-Based Fluorescent Lamps—Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics, ANSI approved July 2, 2014; IBR approved for appendix W to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(12) ANSI/NEMA C78.901-2016 (“ANSI C78.901-2016”), American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Single-Based Fluorescent Lamps—Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics, ANSI approved August 23, 2016, IBR approved for appendices Q and R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(13) ANSI C79.1-1994, American National Standard for Nomenclature for Glass Bulbs—Intended for Use with Electric Lamps, approved March 24, 1994, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(14) ANSI C79.1-2002, American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Nomenclature for Glass Bulbs Intended for Use with Electric Lamps, approved September 16, 2002, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(15) ANSI__ANSLG__ C81.61-2006, Revision of ANSI C81.61-2005, (“ANSI C81.61”), American National Standard for electrical lamp bases—Specifications for Bases (Caps) for Electric Lamps, approved August 25, 2006, IBR approved for §§ 430.2; 430.32.
</P>
<P>(16) ANSI C82.1-2004 (R2008, R2015), (“ANSI C82.1”), American National Standard for Lamp Ballasts—Line Frequency Fluorescent Lamp Ballasts, approved November 20, 2015; IBR approved for appendix Q to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(17) ANSI C82.2-2002 (R2007, R2016), (“ANSI C82.2”), American National Standard for Lamp Ballasts—Method of Measurement of Fluorescent Lamp Ballasts, approved July 12, 2016, IBR approved for appendix Q to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(18) ANSI C82.3-2016, (“ANSI C82.3”), American National Standard for Reference Ballasts for Fluorescent Lamps, approved April 8, 2016; IBR approved for appendices Q and R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(19) ANSI/NEMA C82.11-2017, (“ANSI C82.11”), American National Standard for Lamp Ballasts—High-Frequency Fluorescent Lamp Ballasts, approved January 23, 2017; IBR approved for appendix Q to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(20) ANSI C82.13-2002 (“ANSI C82.13”), American National Standard for Lamp Ballasts—Definitions for Fluorescent Lamps and Ballasts, approved July 23, 2002; IBR approved for appendix Q to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(21) ANSI C82.77-2002, (“ANSI C82.77”) Harmonic Emission Limits—Related Power Quality Requirements for Lighting Equipment, approved January 17, 2002; IBR approved for appendix Q to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(22) ANSI/NEMA WD 6-2016, <I>Wiring Devices—Dimensional Specifications,</I> ANSI approved February 11, 2016, IBR approved for appendices Y and Y1 to subpart B; as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Figure 1-15—Plug and Receptacle; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Figure 5-15—Plug and Receptacle.
</P>
<P>(23) ANSI Z21.56-2006, section 2.10 (“ANSI Z21.56”), Standard for Gas-Fired Pool Heaters, approved December 13, 2005, IBR approved for appendix P to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(24) ANSI Z21.50-2007 (CSA 2.22-2007), (“ANSI Z21.50”), Vented Gas Fireplaces, Fifth Edition, Approved February 22, 2007, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(25) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(26) ANSI Z21.88-2009 (CSA 2.33-2009), (“ANSI Z21.88”), Vented Gas Fireplace Heaters, Fifth Edition, Approved March 26, 2009, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>):</HED>
<P>The standards referenced in paragraphs (e)(4), (5), (7), (9), (12), (16), (17), (18), (19), and (21) of this section were all published by National Electrical Manufacturers Association (NEMA) and are also available from National Electrical Manufacturers Association, 1300 North 17th Street, Suite 900, Rosslyn, Virginia 22209, <I>https://www.nema.org/Standards/Pages/default.aspx.</I></P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>AS/NZS.</I> Australian/New Zealand Standard, GPO Box 476, Sydney NSW 2001, (02) 9237-6000 or (12) 0065-4646, or go to <I>www.standards.org.au/</I>Standards New Zealand, Level 10 Radio New Zealand House 144 The Terrace Wellington 6001 (Private Bag 2439 Wellington 6020), (04) 498-5990 or (04) 498-5991, or go to <I>www.standards.co.nz.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) AS/NZS 4474.1:2007, Performance of Household Electrical Appliances—Refrigerating Appliances; Part 1: Energy Consumption and Performance, Second edition, published August 15, 2007, IBR approved for Appendix A to Subpart B.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]




</P>
<P>(g) <I>ASHRAE.</I> American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 180 Technology Parkway NW, Peachtree Corners, GA 30092; (800) 527-4723 or (404) 636-8400; <I>www.ashrae.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 16-2016 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 16”), Method of Testing for Rating Room Air Conditioners, Packaged Terminal Air Conditioners, and Packaged Terminal Heat Pumps for Cooling and Heating Capacity, ANSI approved November 1, 2016; IBR approved for appendices F, M1, and M2 to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ASHRAE 23.1-2010 (“ASHRAE 23.1-2010”), Methods of Testing for Rating the Performance of Positive Displacement Refrigerant Compressors and Condensing Units that Operate at Subcritical Temperatures of the Refrigerant, ANSI approved January 28, 2010; IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5—Requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 6—Instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 7—Methods of Testing; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 8—Compressor Testing.






</P>
<P>(3) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009, (“ASHRAE 37-2009”), Methods of Testing for Rating Electrically Driven Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment, ANSI approved June 25, 2009; IBR approved for appendices CC, CC1, M1, and M2 to subpart B.






</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009, (“ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009”), Methods of Testing for Rating Electrically Driven Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment, ANSI approved June 25, 2009, IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5—Instruments, Section 5.1—Temperature Measuring Instruments: 5.1.1;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5—Instruments, Section 5.2—Refrigerant, Liquid, and Barometric Pressure Measuring Instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 5—Instruments, Section 5.5—Volatile Refrigerant Flow Measurement;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 6—Airflow and Air Differential Pressure Measurement Apparatus, Section 6.1—Enthalpy Apparatus (Excluding Figure 3): 6.1.1-6.1.2 and 6.1.4;
</P>
<P>(v) Section 6—Airflow and Air Differential Pressure Measurement Apparatus, Section 6.2—Nozzle Airflow Measuring Apparatus (Excluding Figure 5);
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 6—Airflow and Air Differential Pressure Measurement Apparatus, Section 6.3—Nozzles (Excluding Figure 6);
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 6—Airflow and Air Differential Pressure Measurement Apparatus, Section 6.4—External Static Pressure Measurements;
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 6—Airflow and Air Differential Pressure Measurement Apparatus, Section 6.5—Recommended Practices for Static Pressure Measurements;
</P>
<P>(ix) Section 7—Methods of Testing and Calculation, Section 7.3—Indoor and Outdoor Air Enthalpy Methods (Excluding Table 1);
</P>
<P>(x) Section 7—Methods of Testing and Calculation, Section 7.4—Compressor Calibration Method;
</P>
<P>(xi) Section 7—Methods of Testing and Calculation, Section 7.5—Refrigerant Enthalpy Method;
</P>
<P>(xii) Section 7—Methods of Testing and Calculation, Section 7.7—Airflow Rate Measurement, Section 7.7.2—Calculations—Nozzle Airflow Measuring Apparatus (Excluding Figure 10), 7.7.2.1-7.7.2.2;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.1—Test Room Requirements: 8.1.2-8.1.3;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.2—Equipment Installation;
</P>
<P>(xv) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.6—Additional Requirements for the Outdoor Air Enthalpy Method, Section 8.6.2;
</P>
<P>(xvii) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.6—Additional Requirements for the Outdoor Air Enthalpy Method, Table 2a—Test Tolerances (SI Units), and
</P>
<P>(xviii) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.6—Additional Requirements for the Outdoor Air Enthalpy Method, Table 2b—Test Tolerances (I-P Units);
</P>
<P>(xix) Section 9—Data to be Recorded, Section 9.2—Test Tolerances; and
</P>
<P>(xx) Section 9—Data to be Recorded, Table 3—Data to be Recorded.
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009 (RA 2019) (“ASHRAE 37-2009 (RA 2019)”), <I>Methods of Testing for Rating Electrically Driven Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> ASHRAE-approved June 21, 2019; IBR approved for appendix AA to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(6) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009 Errata Sheet (“ASHRAE 37-2009 Errata Sheet”), <I>Errata Sheet for ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009—Methods of Testing for Rating Electrically Driven Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> ASHRAE-approved March 27, 2019; IBR approved for appendix AA to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(7) ASHRAE 41.1-1986 (Reaffirmed 2006) (“ASHRAE 41.1-1986”), <I>Standard Method for Temperature Measurement,</I> approved February 18, 1987; IBR approved for appendices AA, CC, and CC1 to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(8) ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1”), Standard Method for Temperature Measurement, ANSI approved January 30, 2013; IBR approved for appendices F and X1 to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(9) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.1-2013, (“ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013”), Standard Method for Temperature Measurement, ANSI approved January 30, 2013, IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4—Classifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5—Requirements, Section 5.3—Airstream Temperature Measurements;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6—Instruments; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 7—Temperature Test Methods (Informative).
</P>
<P>(10) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.1-2020 (“ASHRAE 41.1-2020”), <I>Standard Methods for Temperature Measurement,</I> ANSI-approved June 30, 2020; IBR approved for appendix E to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(11) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.2-1987 (RA 92), (“ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992)”), Standard Methods for Laboratory Airflow Measurement, ANSI reaffirmed April 20, 1992, IBR approved for appendix F to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(12) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.2-1987 (RA 1992), (“ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992)”), Standard Methods for Laboratory Airflow Measurement, ANSI reaffirmed April 20, 1992, Section 5—Section of Airflow-Measuring Equipment and Systems, IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5.2—Test Ducts,, Section 5.2.2—Mixers, 5.2.2.1—Performance of Mixers (excluding Figures 11 and 12 and Table 1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Figure 14—Outlet Chamber Setup for Multiple Nozzles in Chamber.
</P>
<P>(13) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.3-2014, (“ASHRAE 41.3-2014”), Standard Methods for Pressure Measurement, ANSI approved July 3, 2014, IBR approved for appendix F to subpart B.




</P>
<P>(14) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.6-1994 (RA 2006) (“ASHRAE 41.6-1994”), <I>Standard Method for Measurement of Moist Air Properties,</I> ANSI-reaffirmed January 27, 2006; IBR approved for appendices CC and CC1 to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(15) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.6-2014, (“ASHRAE 41.6-2014”), Standard Method for Humidity Measurement, ANSI approved July 3, 2014, IBR approved for appendices E, F, and EE to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(16) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.6-2014, (“ASHRAE 41.6-2014”), Standard Method for Humidity Measurement, ANSI approved July 3, 2014, IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4—Classifications;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5—Requirements;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6—Instruments and Calibration; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 7—Humidity Measurement Methods.
</P>
<P>(17) ANSI/ASHRAE 41.9-2011, (“ASHRAE 41.9-2011”), Standard Methods for Volatile-Refrigerant Mass Flow Measurements Using Calorimeters, ANSI approved February 3, 2011, IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5—Requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 6—Instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 7—Secondary Refrigerant Calorimeter Method;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 8—Secondary Fluid Calorimeter Method;
</P>
<P>(v) Section 9—Primary Refrigerant Calorimeter Method; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 11—Lubrication Circulation Measurements.
</P>
<P>(18) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.11-2014, (“ASHRAE 41.11-2014”), Standard Methods for Power Measurement, ANSI approved July 3, 2014, IBR approved for appendix F to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(19) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 103-1993, (“ASHRAE 103-1993”), Methods of Testing for Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency of Residential Central Furnaces and Boilers, (with Errata of October 24, 1996), except for sections 7.1, 7.2.2.2, 7.2.2.5, 7.2.3.1, 7.8, 8.2.1.3, 8.3.3.1, 8.4.1.1, 8.4.1.1.2, 8.4.1.2, 8.4.2.1.4, 8.4.2.1.6, 8.6.1.1, 8.7.2, 8.8.3, 9.1.2.2.1, 9.1.2.2.2, 9.5.1.1, 9.5.1.2.1, 9.5.1.2.2, 9.5.2.1, 9.7.1, 9.7.4, 9.7.6, 9.10, 11.5.11.1, 11.5.11.2 and appendices B and C, approved October 4, 1993, IBR approved for § 430.23 and appendix N to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(20) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 103-2017 (“ASHRAE 103-2017”), Method of Testing for Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency of Residential Central Furnaces and Boilers, ANSI-approved July 3, 2017; IBR approved for § 430.23 and appendices O, AA, and EE to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(21) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 116-2010, (“ASHRAE 116-2010”), Methods of Testing for Rating Seasonal Efficiency of Unitary Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps, ANSI approved February 24, 2010, Section 7—Methods of Test, Section 7.4—Air Enthalpy Method—Indoor Side (Primary Method), Section 7.4.3—Measurements, Section 7.4.3.4—Temperature, Section 7.4.3.4.5, IBR approved for appendix M to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(22) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 116-2010, (“ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010”), Methods of Testing for Rating Seasonal Efficiency of Unitary Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps, ANSI approved February 24, 2010, IBR approved for appendices M1 and M2 to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(23) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 118.2-2022 (“ASHRAE 118.2-2022”), <I>Method of Testing for Rating Residential Water Heaters and Residential-Duty Commercial Water Heaters,</I> ANSI-approved March 1, 2022; IBR approved for appendix E to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(24) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 146-2011 (“ASHRAE 146”), Method of Testing and Rating Pool Heaters, ASHRAE approved February 2, 2011, IBR approved for appendix P to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(25) 2021 ASHRAE Handbook—Fundamentals Inch-Pound Edition, Chapter 1, “Psychrometrics” (“2021 ASHRAE Handbook”), copyright 2021; IBR approved for appendix AA to subpart B.




</P>
<P>(h) <I>ASME.</I> American Society of Mechanical Engineers, Three Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016-5990, 1-800 843-2763, or go to <I>www.asme.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASME A112.18.1-2018/CSA B125.1-2018, (“ASME A112.18.1”), Plumbing supply fittings, CSA-published July 2018; IBR approved for appendix S to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(2) ASME A112.19.2-2008, (“ASME A112.19.2-2008”), “Ceramic plumbing fixtures,” sections 7.1, 7.1.1, 7.1.2, 7.1.3, 7.1.4, 7.1.5, 7.4, 8.2, 8.2.1, 8.2.2, 8.2.3, 8.6, Table 5, and Table 6 approved August 2008, including Update No. 1, dated August 2009, and Update No. 2, dated March 2011, IBR approved for § 430.2 and appendix T to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(3) ASME A112.19.2-2018/CSA B45.1-18 (“ASME A112.19.2-2018”), “Ceramic plumbing fixtures”, July 2018 (including Errata—October 2018); IBR approved for appendix T to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(i) <I>AHAM.</I> Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers, 1111 19th Street NW, Suite 402, Washington, DC 20036, 202-872-5955, or go to <I>https:////www.aham.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AHAM AC-1-2020, (“AHAM AC-1-2020”), <I>Method for Measuring Performance of Portable Household Electric Room Air Cleaners,</I> ANSI-approved December 14, 2020, including AHAM Standard Interpretation dated September 19, 2022; IBR approved for appendix FF to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(2) AHAM AC-7-2022, <I>Energy Test Method for Consumer Room Air Cleaners,</I> copyright 2022; IBR approved for § 430.2 and appendix FF to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(3) AHAM DH-1-2022, <I>Energy Measurement Test Procedure for Dehumidifiers,</I> copyright 2022; IBR approved for appendix X1 to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(4) AHAM DW-1-2020, Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Dishwashers, copyright 2020; IBR approved for § 430.32; appendices C1 and C2 to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(5) AHAM DW-2-2020, Household Electric Dishwashers, copyright 2020; IBR approved for appendices C1 and C2 to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI/AHAM HLD-1-2010 (“AHAM HLD-1”), Household Tumble Type Clothes Dryers, ANSI-approved June 11, 2010, IBR approved for appendices D1 and D2 to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) AHAM HRF-1-2019 (“HRF-1-2019”), Energy and Internal Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products, Copyright © 2019, IBR approved for appendices A and B to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(8) ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015, (“ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015”), Portable Air Conditioners, June 19, 2015, IBR approved for appendix CC to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(9) AHAM PAC-1-2022, <I>Energy Measurement Test Procedure for Portable Air Conditioners,</I> Copyright 2022; IBR approved for appendix CC1 to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(10) AHAM RAC-1-2020 (“AHAM RAC-1”), Energy Measurement Test Procedure for Room Air Conditioners, approved 2020, IBR approved for appendix F to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(j) <I>ASTM.</I> ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; 877-909-2786; <I>service@astm.org; www.astm.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM D2156-09 (Reapproved 2013) (“ASTM D2156R13”), <I>Standard Test Method for Smoke Density in Flue Gases from Burning Distillate Fuels,</I> approved October 1, 2013; IBR approved for appendix N to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM D2156-09 (Reapproved 2018) (“ASTM D2156 (R2018)”), <I>Standard Test Method for Smoke Density in Flue Gases from Burning Distillate Fuels,</I> approved October 1, 2018; IBR approved for appendices E, O, and EE to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(3) ASTM E97-82 (Reapproved 1987) (“ASTM E97-1987”), <I>Standard Test Method for Directional Reflectance Factor, 45-deg 0-deg, of Opaque Specimens by Broad-Band Filter Reflectometry,</I> ASTM-approved October 29, 1982; IBR approved for appendix E to subpart B.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (j)(3):
</HED>
<P>ASTM E97-1987 was withdrawn in 1991. It is reasonably available from standards resellers including GlobalSpec's Engineering 360 (<I>https://standards.globalspec.com/std/3801495/astm-e97-82-1987</I>) and IHS Markit (<I>https://global.ihs.com/doc_detail.cfm?document_name=ASTM%20E97&amp;item_s_key=00020483</I>).</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) ASTM E741-11 (Reapproved 2017) (“ASTM E741-11(2017)”), Standard Test Method for Determining Air Change in a Single Zone Means of a Tracer Gas Dilution Approved Sept. 1, 2017; IBR approved for appendix FF to subpart B.




</P>
<P>(k) <I>CSA.</I> CSA Group, 178 Rexdale Blvd., Toronto, ON, Canada M9W 1R3, 1-800-463-6727 or 416-747-4044, <I>www.csagroup.org.</I>


</P>
<P>(1) ANSI Z21.86-2016 • CSA 2.32-2016 (“ANSI Z21.86-2016”), Vented gas-fired space heating appliances, ANSI-approved December 21, 2016; IBR approved for appendix O to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(2) CSA C374:11 (R2021), Energy performance of hot tubs and spas, published November 2011, Update No. 1—National Standard of Canada—April 2012; IBR approved for appendix GG to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>CEA.</I> Consumer Electronics Association, Technology &amp; Standards Department, 1919 S. Eads Street, Arlington, VA 22202, 703-907-7600, or go to <I>www.CE.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) CEA Standard, CEA-770.3-D, <I>High Definition TV Analog Component Video Interface,</I> published February 2008; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>CIE.</I> Commission Internationale de l'Eclairage (CIE), Central Bureau, Kegelgasse 27, A-1030, Vienna, Austria, 011 + 43 1 714 31 87 0, or go to <I>https://www.cie.co.at.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) CIE 13.3-1995 (“CIE 13.3”), Technical Report: Method of Measuring and Specifying Colour Rendering Properties of Light Sources, 1995, ISBN 3 900 734 57 7; IBR approved for § 430.2 and appendices R and W to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(2) CIE 15:2004 (“CIE 15”), Technical Report: Colorimetry, 3rd edition, 2004, ISBN 978 3 901906 33 6; IBR approved for appendix W to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(3) CIE 015:2018 (“CIE 15:2018”), <I>Colorimetry,</I> 4th edition, copyright 2018; IBR approved for the appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(n) CTA. Consumer Technology Association, 1919 S. Eads Street, Arlington, VA 22202; 703-907-7600; <I>www.cta.tech.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/CTA-2037-D, Determination of Television Set Power Consumption, September 2022; IBR approved for appendix H to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(o) <I>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA),</I> ENERGY STAR documents published by the Environmental Protection Agency are available online at <I>https://www.energystar.gov</I> or by contacting the Energy Star hotline at 1-888-782-7937.
</P>
<P>(1) ENERGY STAR Testing Facility Guidance Manual: Building a Testing Facility and Performing the Solid State Test Method for ENERGY STAR Qualified Ceiling Fans, Version 1.1, approved December 9, 2002, IBR approved for appendix U to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(2) Energy Star Program Requirements for Single Voltage External Ac-Dc and Ac-Ac Power Supplies, Eligibility Criteria (Version 2.0), effective date for EPS Manufacturers November 1, 2008, IBR approved for subpart C, § 430.32.


</P>
<P>(p) <I>HDMI</I>®. High-Definition Multimedia Interface Licensing, LLC, 1140 East Arques Avenue, Suite 100, Sunnyvale, CA 94085, 408-616-1542, or go to <I>www.hdmi.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) HDMI Specification Informational Version 1.0, <I>High-Definition Multimedia Interface Specification,</I> published September 4, 2003; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>IEC.</I> International Electrotechnical Commission, 3 Rue de Varembe, Case Postale 131, 1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland; <I>https://webstore.iec.ch/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEC Standard 933-5:1992, (“IEC 60933-5 Ed. 1.0”), <I>Audio, video and audiovisual systems—Interconnections and matching values—Part 5: Y/C connector for video systems—Electrical matching values and description of the connector,</I> First Edition, 1992-12; IBR approved for § 430.2. (Note: IEC 933-5 is also known as IEC 60933-5.)
</P>
<P>(2) IEC 60081:1997/AMD6, (“IEC 60081”), Double-capped fluorescent lamps—Performance specifications (Amendment 6, Edition 5.0, August 2017); IBR approved for appendix Q to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(3) IEC 60350-2, (“IEC 60350-2”), <I>Household electric cooking appliances Part 2: Hobs—Methods for measuring performance,</I> Edition 2.1, 2021-05; IBR approved for appendix I1 to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(4) IEC 62040-3:2021 (“IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0”) <I>Uninterruptible power systems (UPS)—Part 3: Method of specifying the performance and test requirements,</I> Edition 3.0, 2021-04; IBR approved for appendices Y and Y1 to subpart B.






</P>
<P>(5) IEC 62301, <I>Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power,</I> first edition, June 2005; IBR approved for appendices I, I1 to subpart B.




</P>
<P>(6) IEC 62301 (“IEC 62301”), <I>Household electrical appliances</I>—<I>Measurement of standby power,</I> (Edition 2.0, 2011-01); IBR approved for appendices C1, C2, D1, D2, F, G, I, I1, J, J2, N, O, P, Q, U, X1, Y, Y1, Z, BB, CC, CC1, EE, and FF to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(7) IEC 62301, (“IEC 62301-DD”), Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power, (Edition 2.0, 2011-01); Section 5—Measurements, IBR approved for appendix DD to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(8) IEC 62301, (“IEC 62301-W”), Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power, (Edition 2.0, 2011-01), Section 5—Measurements, IBR approved for appendix W to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(r) <I>IES.</I> Illuminating Engineering Society (formerly Illuminating Engineering Society of North America—IESNA), 120 Wall Street, Floor 17, New York, NY 10005-4001, 212-248-5000, or go to <I>www.ies.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The IESNA Lighting Handbook, Reference &amp; Application,</I> (“The IESNA Lighting Handbook”), 9th ed., Chapter 6, “Light Sources,” July 2000, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(2) IES LM-9-09, (“IES LM-9”), IES Approved Method for the Electrical and Photometric Measurement of Fluorescent Lamps, approved January 31, 2009; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(3) IES LM-9-09 (“IES LM-9-09-DD”), IES Approved Method for the Electrical and Photometric Measurement of Fluorescent Lamps, approved January 31, 2009; IBR approved for appendix DD to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4.0—Ambient and Physical Conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5.0—Electrical Conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6.0—Lamp Test Procedures; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 7.0—Photometric Test Procedures: Section 7.5—Integrating Sphere Measurement.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/IES LM-9-20 (“IES LM-9-20”), <I>Approved Method: Electrical and Photometric Measurements of Fluorescent Lamps,</I> ANSI-approved February 7, 2020; IBR approved for appendices R and V to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(5) IESNA LM-16-1993 (“IESNA LM-16”), IESNA Practical Guide to Colorimetry of Light Sources, December 1993, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(6) IES LM-20-13, IES Approved Method for Photometry of Reflector Type Lamps, approved February 4, 2013; IBR approved for appendix DD to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4.0—Ambient and Physical Conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5.0—Electrical and Photometric Test Conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6.0—Lamp Test Procedures; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 8.0—Total Flux Measurements by Integrating Sphere Method.
</P>
<P>(7) ANSI/IES LM-20-20 (“IES LM-20-20”), <I>Approved Method: Photometry of Reflector Type Lamps,</I> ANSI-approved February 7, 2020; IBR approved for appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(8) IES LM-45-15, IES Approved Method for the Electrical and Photometric Measurement of General Service Incandescent Filament Lamps, approved August 8, 2015; IBR approved for appendix DD to subpart B as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4.0—Ambient and Physical Conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5.0—Electrical Conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6.0—Lamp Test Procedures; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 7.0—Photometric Test Procedures: Section 7.1—Total Luminous Flux Measurements with an Integrating Sphere.
</P>
<P>(9) IES LM-45-20 (“IES LM-45-20”), <I>Approved Method: Electrical and Photometric Measurement of General Service Incandescent Filament Lamps,</I> ANSI-approved February 7, 2020; IBR approved for appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(10) ANSI/IES LM-49-20 (“IES LM-49-20”), <I>Approved Method: Life Testing of Incandescent Filament Lamps,</I> ANSI-approved February 7, 2020; IBR approved for appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(11) IES LM-54-12, IES Guide to Lamp Seasoning, approved October 22, 2012; IBR approved for appendix W to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4—Physical/Environmental Test Conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5—Electrical Test Conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6—Test Procedure Requirements: Section 6.1—Test Preparation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 6—Test Procedure Requirements, Section 6.2—Seasoning Test Procedures: Section 6.2.2.1—Discharge Lamps: Discharge Lamps except T5 fluorescent.
</P>
<P>(12) ANSI/IES LM-54-20 (“IES LM-54-20”), <I>Approved Method: IES Guide to Lamp Seasoning,</I> ANSI-approved February 7, 2020; IBR approved for appendices R and V to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(13) ANSI/IES LM-58-20 (“IES LM-58-20”), <I>Approved Method: Spectroradiometric Measurement Methods for Light Sources;</I> ANSI-approved February 7, 2020; IBR approved for appendix R to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(14) IES LM-65-14, IES Approved Method for Life Testing of Single-Based Fluorescent Lamps, approved December 30, 2014; IBR approved for appendix W to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4.0—Ambient and Physical Conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5.0—Electrical Conditions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6.0—Lamp Test Procedures


</P>
<P>(15) IES LM-66-14, (“IES LM-66”), IES Approved Method for the Electrical and Photometric Measurements of Single-Based Fluorescent Lamps, approved December 30, 2014; IBR approved for appendix W to subpart B, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4.0—Ambient and Physical Conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5.0—Power Source Characteristics; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6.0—Testing Procedures Requirements.


</P>
<P>(16) ANSI/IES LM-75-19 (“IES LM-75-19”), Approved Method: Guide to Goniophotometer Measurements and Types, and Photometric Coordinate Systems, ANSI-approved November 22, 2019; IBR approved for appendix V to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(17) IESNA LM-78-07, IESNA Approved Method for Total Luminous Flux Measurement of Lamps Using an Integrating Sphere Photometer, approved January 28, 2007; IBR approved for appendix W to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(18) ANSI/IES LM-78-20 (“IES LM-78-20”) <I>Approved Method: Total Luminous Flux Measurement of Lamps Using an Integrating Sphere Photometer,</I> ANSI-approved February 7, 2020; IBR approved for appendices R and V to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(19) IES LM-79-08, (“IES LM-79-08”), IES Approved Method for the Electrical and Photometric Measurements of Solid-State Lighting Products, approved December 31, 2007; IBR approved for appendix BB to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(20) IES LM-79-08 (“IES LM-79-08-DD”), Approved Method: Electrical and Photometric Measurements of Solid-State Lighting Products, approved December 31, 2007; IBR approved for appendix DD to subpart B as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 1.0 Introduction: Section 1.3—Nomenclature and Definitions (except section 1.3f);
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 2.0—Ambient Conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 3.0—Power Supply Characteristics;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 5.0—Stabilization of SSL Product;
</P>
<P>(v) Section 7.0—Electrical Settings;
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 8.0—Electrical Instrumentation;
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 9.0—Test Methods for Total Luminous Flux measurement: Section 9.1 Integrating sphere with a spectroradiometer (Sphere-spectroradiometer system); and Section 9.2—Integrating sphere with a photometer head (Sphere-photometer system).




</P>
<P>(21) ANSI/IES LM-79-19 (“IES LM-79-19”), Approved Method: Optical and Electrical Measurements of Solid-State Lighting Products, ANSI-approved May 14, 2019; IBR approved for appendix V to subpart B.


</P>
<P>(22) IES LM-84-14, (“IES LM-84”), Approved Method: Measuring Luminous Flux and Color Maintenance of LED Lamps, Light Engines, and Luminaires, approved March 31, 2014; IBR approved for appendix BB to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(23) ANSI/IES RP-16-10 (“ANSI/IES RP-16”), Nomenclature and Definitions for Illuminating Engineering, approved October 15, 2005; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(24) IES TM-28-14, (“IES TM-28”), Projecting Long-Term Luminous Flux Maintenance of LED Lamps and Luminaires, approved May 20, 2014; IBR approved for appendix BB to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(s) International Safety Equipment Association, 1901 North Moore Street, Suite 808, Arlington, Virginia 22209, (703) 525-1695, <I>www.safetyequipment.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ISEA Z358.1-2014 (“ISEA Z358.1”), American National Standard for Emergency Eyewash and Shower Equipment, ANSI-approved January 8, 2015, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(t) <I>U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy.</I> Resource Room of the Building Technologies Program, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW., 6th Floor, Washington, DC 20024, 202-586-2945, (Energy Star materials are also found at <I>https://www.energystar.gov.</I>)
</P>
<P>(1) ITU-R BT.470-6, Conventional Television Systems, published November 1998; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(3) International Efficiency Marking Protocol for External Power Supplies, Version 3.0, September 2013, IBR approved for § 430.32.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>NSF International.</I> NSF International, P.O. Box 130140, 789 North Dixboro Road, Ann Arbor, MI 48113-0140, 1-800-673-6275, or go to <I>https://www.nsf.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NSF/ANSI 51-2007 (“NSF/ANSI 51”), Food equipment materials, revised and adopted April 2007, IBR approved for §§ 430.2 and 430.32.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Optical Society of America. Optical Society of America,</I> 2010 Massachusetts Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20036-1012, 202-223-8130, or go to <I>https://www.opticsinfobase.org;</I>
</P>
<P>(1) “Computation of Correlated Color Temperature and Distribution Temperature,” A.R. Robertson, Journal of the Optical Society of America, Volume 58, Number 11, November 1968, pages 1528-1535, IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(w) <I>PHTA.</I> Pool &amp; Hot Tub Alliance, 2111 Eisenhower Avenue, Suite 500, Alexandria, VA 22314 (<I>www.phta.org</I>), (703) 838-0083.
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019, American National Standard for Portable Electric Spa Energy Efficiency, ANSI-approved November 19, 2019; IBR approved for appendix GG to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(x) <I>SMPTE.</I> Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers, 3 Barker Ave., 5th Floor, White Plains, NY 10601, 914-761-1100, or go to <I>https://standards.smpte.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) SMPTE 170M-2004, (“SMPTE 170M-2004”), <I>SMPTE Standard for Television—Composite Analog Video Signal—NTSC for Studio Applications,</I> approved November 30, 2004; IBR approved for § 430.2.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 


</P>
<P>(y) <I>UL.</I> Underwriters Laboratories, Inc., 2600 NW. Lake Rd., Camas, WA 98607-8542 (<I>www.UL.com</I>)
</P>
<P>(1) UL 729 (“UL 729-2016”), Standard for Safety for Oil-Fired Floor Furnaces, Sixth Edition, dated August 29, 2003, including revisions through November 22, 2016; IBR approved for appendix O to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(2) UL 730 (“UL 730-2016”), Standard for Safety for Oil-Fired Wall Furnaces, Fifth Edition, dated August 29, 2003, including revisions through November 22, 2016; IBR approved for appendix O to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(3) UL 896 (“UL 896-2016”), Standard for Safety for Oil-Burning Stoves, Fifth Edition, dated July 29, 1993; including revisions through November 22, 2016, IBR approved for appendix O to subpart B.
</P>
<P>(4) UL 1598C (“UL 1598C-2016”), <I>Standard for Safety for Light-Emitting Diode (LED) Retrofit Luminaire Conversion Kits,</I> First edition, dated January 16, 2014 (including revisions through November 17, 2016); IBR approved for § 430.2.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12066, Mar. 23, 2009] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 430.3, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.4" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.4   Sources for information and guidance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The standards listed in this paragraph are referred to in the DOE test procedures and elsewhere in this part but are not incorporated by reference. These sources are given here for information and guidance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>IESNA.</I> Illuminating Engineering Society of North America, 120 Wall Street, Floor 17, New York, NY 10005-4001, 212-248-5000, or go to <I>http://www.iesna.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Illuminating Engineering Society of North America Lighting Handbook,</I> 8th Edition, 1993.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IEEE.</I> Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Inc., 3 Park Avenue, 17th Floor, New York, NY, 10016-5997, 212-419-7900, or go to <I>http://www.ieee.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEEE 1515-2000, IEEE Recommended Practice for Electronic Power Subsystems: Parameter Definitions, Test Conditions, and Test Methods, March 30, 2000.
</P>
<P>(2) IEEE 100, Authoritative Dictionary of IEEE Standards Terms, 7th Edition, January 1, 2006.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>IEC.</I> International Electrotechnical Commission, available from the American National Standards Institute, 11 W. 42nd Street, New York, NY 10036, 212-642-4936, or go to <I>http://www.iec.ch.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEC 62301, Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power, First Edition, June 13, 2005.
</P>
<P>(2) IEC 60050, International Electrotechnical Vocabulary.
</P>
<P>(e) National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program, Standards Services Division, NIST, 100 Bureau Drive, Stop 2140, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-2140, 301-975-4016, or go to <I>http://ts.nist.gov/standards/accreditation.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program Handbook 150-01, Energy Efficient Lighting Products, Lamps and Luminaires, August 1993.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12066, Mar. 23, 2009]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.5" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.5   Error correction procedures for energy conservation standards rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> The regulations in this section describe an optional procedure through which the Department of Energy may accept and consider submissions regarding possible Errors in its rules under the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6291-6317). This section applies to rules establishing or amending energy conservation standards under the Act, except that this section does not apply to direct final rules issued pursuant to section 325(p)(4) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 6295(p)(4)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6291-6317).
</P>
<P><I>Error</I> means an aspect of the regulatory text of a rule that is inconsistent with what the Secretary intended regarding the rule at the time of posting. Examples of possible mistakes that might give rise to Errors include:
</P>
<P>(i) A typographical mistake that causes the regulatory text to differ from how the preamble to the rule describes the rule;
</P>
<P>(ii) A calculation mistake that causes the numerical value of an energy conservation standard to differ from what technical support documents would justify; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A numbering mistake that causes a cross-reference to lead to the wrong text.
</P>
<P><I>Rule</I> means a rule establishing or amending an energy conservation standard under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy or an official with delegated authority to perform a function of the Secretary of Energy under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Posting of rules.</I> (1) It is within in the sole discretion of the Secretary to make a rule available to the public to review for Errors in the document's regulatory text.
</P>
<P>(2) If a rule is made available for review, the Secretary ordinarily will keep the document posted for a period of 45 calendar days, but the Secretary in his or her discretion (while remaining consistent with his or her statutory obligations under EPCA and other legal obligations when promulgating an energy conservation standard) may shorten or lengthen the time period during which the rule document is posted.
</P>
<P>(3) Any rule document posted pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall bear the following disclaimer: <I>Notice:</I> The text of this rule is subject to correction based on the identification of errors as defined in 10 CFR 430.5 before publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Readers are requested to notify the United States Department of Energy, by email at [EMAIL ADDRESS PROVIDED IN POSTED NOTICE], of any typographical or other errors, as described in such regulations, by no later than midnight on [DATE SPECIFIED IN THE POSTING OF THE DOCUMENT ON THE DEPARTMENT'S WEBSITE], in order that DOE may make any necessary corrections in the regulatory text submitted to the Office of the Federal Register for publication.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for error-correction review.</I> (1) A person identifying an Error subject to this section may request that the Secretary review a potential Error. Such a request must ordinarily be submitted within 45 calendar days of the posting of the rule pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The Secretary in his or her discretion may shorten or lengthen the time period during which such requests may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A request under this section must identify a potential Error with particularity. The request must specify the regulatory text claimed to be erroneous. The request must also provide text that the requester contends would be a correct substitute. If a requester is unable to identify a correct substitute, the requester may submit a request that states that the requester is unable to determine what text would be correct and explains why the requester is unable to do so. The request must also substantiate the claimed Error by citing evidence from the existing record of the rulemaking, demonstrating that the regulatory text of the rule is inconsistent with what the Secretary intended the text to be.
</P>
<P>(ii) A person's disagreement with any policy choices or discretionary decisions that are contained in the rule will not constitute a valid basis for a request under this section. All policy and discretionary decisions with regard to whether to establish or amend any conservation standard and, if so, the appropriate level at which to amend or establish that standard, remain within the sole discretion of the Secretary without regard to the procedures established in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The evidence to substantiate a request (or evidence of the Error itself) must be in the record of the rulemaking at the time of posting the rule, which may include an accompanying preamble. The Secretary will not consider new evidence submitted in connection with an error-correction request.
</P>
<P>(4) A request under this section must be filed in electronic format by email to the address that the disclaimer to the rule designates for error-correction requests. Should filing by email not be feasible, the requester should contact the program point of contact designated in the rule order to ascertain an appropriate alternative means of filing an error-correction request.
</P>
<P>(5) A request that does not comply with the requirements of this section will not be considered.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Correction of rules.</I> The Secretary may respond to a request for correction under paragraph (d) of this section or address an Error discovered on the Secretary's own initiative by submitting to the Office of the Federal Register either a corrected rule or the rule as previously posted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Publication in the</I> <I>Federal Register.</I> (1) If, after receiving one or more properly filed requests for correction, the Secretary decides not to undertake any corrections, the Secretary will submit the rule for publication to the Office of the Federal Register as it was posted pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Secretary receives no properly filed requests after posting a rule and identifies no Errors on the Secretary's own initiative, the Secretary will submit the rule, as it was posted pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, to the Office of the Federal Register for publication. This will occur after the period prescribed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section has elapsed.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Secretary receives a properly filed request after posting a rule pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section and determines that a correction is necessary, or discovers an Error on the Secretary's own initiative, the Secretary will, absent extenuating circumstances, submit a corrected rule for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 30 days after the period prescribed by paragraph (c)(2) of this section has elapsed.
</P>
<P>(4) Consistent with the Act, compliance with an energy conservation standard will be required upon the specified compliance date as published in the relevant rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(5) Consistent with the Administrative Procedure Act, and other applicable law, the Secretary will ordinarily designate an effective date for a rule under this section that is no less than 30 days after the publication of the rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(6) When the Secretary submits a rule for publication, the Secretary will make publicly available a written statement indicating how any properly filed requests for correction were handled.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Alteration of standards.</I> Until an energy conservation standard has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the Secretary may correct such standard, consistent with the Administrative Procedure Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Judicial review.</I> For determining the prematurity, timeliness, or lateness of a petition for judicial review pursuant to section 336(b) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 6306), a rule is considered “prescribed” on the date when the rule is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 57757, Aug. 24, 2016], as amended at 89 FR 22924, Apr. 3, 2024








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.21" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.21   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains test procedures required to be prescribed by DOE pursuant to section 323 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.23" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.23   Test procedures for the measurement of energy and water consumption.</HEAD>
<P>When the test procedures of this section call for rounding off of test results, and the results fall equally between two values of the nearest dollar, kilowatt-hour, or other specified nearest value, the result shall be rounded up to the nearest higher value.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers.</I> (1) The estimated annual operating cost for models without an anti-sweat heater switch shall be the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix A of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated annual operating cost for models with an anti-sweat heater switch shall be the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Half the sum of the average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle and the average per-cycle energy consumption for a test cycle type with the anti-sweat heater switch in the position set at the factory just before shipping, each in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix A of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated annual operating cost for any other specified cycle type shall be the product of the following three factors, the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the specified cycle type, determined according to appendix A of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(4) The energy factor, expressed in cubic feet per kilowatt-hour per cycle, shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) For models without an anti-sweat heater switch, the quotient of:
</P>
<P>(A) The adjusted total volume in cubic feet, determined according to appendix A of this subpart, divided by—
</P>
<P>(B) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix A of this subpart, the resulting quotient then being rounded to the second decimal place; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For models having an anti-sweat heater switch, the quotient of:
</P>
<P>(A) The adjusted total volume in cubic feet, determined according to appendix A of this subpart, divided by—
</P>
<P>(B) Half the sum of the average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle and the average per-cycle energy consumption for a test cycle type with the anti-sweat heater switch in the position set at the factory just before shipping, each in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix A of this subpart, the resulting quotient then being rounded to the second decimal place.
</P>
<P>(5) The annual energy use, expressed in kilowatt-hours per year and rounded to the nearest kilowatt-hour per year, shall be determined according to appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) Other useful measures of energy consumption shall be those measures of energy consumption that the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions which are derived from the application of appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) The following principles of interpretation shall be applied to the test procedure. The intent of the energy test procedure is to simulate typical room conditions (72 °F (22.2 °C)) with door openings, by testing at 90 °F (32.2 °C) without door openings. Except for operating characteristics that are affected by ambient temperature (for example, compressor percent run time), the unit, when tested under this test procedure, shall operate in a manner equivalent to the unit's operation while in typical room conditions.
</P>
<P>(i) The energy used by the unit shall be calculated when a calculation is provided by the test procedure. Energy consuming components that operate in typical room conditions (including as a result of door openings, or a function of humidity), and that are not excluded by this test procedure, shall operate in an equivalent manner during energy testing under this test procedure, or be accounted for by all calculations as provided for in the test procedure. Examples:
</P>
<P>(A) Energy saving features that are designed to operate when there are no door openings for long periods of time shall not be functional during the energy test.
</P>
<P>(B) The defrost heater shall neither function nor turn off differently during the energy test than it would when in typical room conditions. Also, the product shall not recover differently during the defrost recovery period than it would in typical room conditions.
</P>
<P>(C) Electric heaters that would normally operate at typical room conditions with door openings shall also operate during the energy test.
</P>
<P>(D) Energy used during adaptive defrost shall continue to be measured and adjusted per the calculation provided in this test procedure.
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE recognizes that there may be situations that the test procedures do not completely address. In such cases, a manufacturer must obtain a waiver in accordance with the relevant provisions of 10 CFR part 430 if:
</P>
<P>(A) A product contains energy consuming components that operate differently during the prescribed testing than they would during representative average consumer use; and
</P>
<P>(B) Applying the prescribed test to that product would evaluate it in a manner that is unrepresentative of its true energy consumption (thereby providing materially inaccurate comparative data).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Freezers.</I> (1) The estimated annual operating cost for freezers without an anti-sweat heater switch shall be the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix B of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated annual operating cost for freezers with an anti-sweat heater switch shall be the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Half the sum of the average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle and the average per-cycle energy consumption for a test cycle type with the anti-sweat heater switch in the position set at the factory just before shipping, each in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix B of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated annual operating cost for any other specified cycle type for freezers shall be the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the specified cycle type, determined according to appendix B of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(4) The energy factor, expressed in cubic feet per kilowatt-hour per cycle, shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) For models without an anti-sweat heater switch, the quotient of:
</P>
<P>(A) The adjusted total volume in cubic feet, determined according to appendix B of this subpart, divided by—
</P>
<P>(B) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix B of this subpart, the resulting quotient then being rounded to the second decimal place; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For models having an anti-sweat heater switch, the quotient of:
</P>
<P>(A) The adjusted total volume in cubic feet, determined according to appendix B of this subpart, divided by—
</P>
<P>(B) Half the sum of the average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle and the average per-cycle energy consumption for a test cycle type with the anti-sweat heater switch in the position set at the factory just before shipping, each in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix B of this subpart, the resulting quotient then being rounded to the second decimal place.
</P>
<P>(5) The annual energy use, expressed in kilowatt-hours per year and rounded to the nearest kilowatt-hour per year, shall be determined according to appendix B of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) Other useful measures of energy consumption for freezers shall be those measures the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions and are derived from the application of appendix B of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) The following principles of interpretation shall be applied to the test procedure. The intent of the energy test procedure is to simulate typical room conditions (72 °F (22.2 °C)) with door openings by testing at 90 °F (32.2 °C) without door openings. Except for operating characteristics that are affected by ambient temperature (for example, compressor percent run time), the unit, when tested under this test procedure, shall operate in a manner equivalent to the unit's operation while in typical room conditions.
</P>
<P>(i) The energy used by the unit shall be calculated when a calculation is provided by the test procedure. Energy consuming components that operate in typical room conditions (including as a result of door openings, or a function of humidity), and that are not excluded by this test procedure, shall operate in an equivalent manner during energy testing under this test procedure, or be accounted for by all calculations as provided for in the test procedure. Examples:
</P>
<P>(A) Energy saving features that are designed to operate when there are no door openings for long periods of time shall not be functional during the energy test.
</P>
<P>(B) The defrost heater shall neither function nor turn off differently during the energy test than it would when in typical room conditions. Also, the product shall not recover differently during the defrost recovery period than it would in typical room conditions.
</P>
<P>(C) Electric heaters that would normally operate at typical room conditions with door openings shall also operate during the energy test.
</P>
<P>(D) Energy used during adaptive defrost shall continue to be measured and adjusted per the calculation provided for in this test procedure.
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE recognizes that there may be situations that the test procedures do not completely address. In such cases, a manufacturer must obtain a waiver in accordance with the relevant provisions of this part if:
</P>
<P>(A) A product contains energy consuming components that operate differently during the prescribed testing than they would during representative average consumer use; and
</P>
<P>(B) Applying the prescribed test to that product would evaluate it in a manner that is unrepresentative of its true energy consumption (thereby providing materially inaccurate comparative data).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dishwashers.</I> (1) The Estimated Annual Operating Cost (EAOC) for dishwashers must be rounded to the nearest dollar per year and is defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When cold water (50 °F) is used,
</P>
<FP-2>EAOC = (D<E T="52">e</E> × E<E T="52">TLP</E>) + (D<E T="52">e</E> × N × (M + M<E T="52">WS</E> + M<E T="52">DO</E> + M<E T="52">CO</E> + E<E T="52">F</E>−(E<E T="52">D</E>/2))).
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">e</E> = the representative average unit cost of electrical energy, in dollars per kilowatt-hour, as provided by the Secretary,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = the annual combined low-power mode energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = the representative average dishwasher use of 215 cycles per year when EAOC is determined pursuant to appendix C1 to this subpart, and 184 cycles per year when EAOC is determined pursuant to appendix C2 to this subpart,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M = the machine energy consumption per cycle, in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">WS</E> = the machine energy consumption per cycle for water softener regeneration, in kilowatt-hours and determined pursuant to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">DO</E> = for water re-use system dishwashers, the machine energy consumption per cycle during a drain out event in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">CO</E> = for water re-use system dishwashers, the machine energy consumption per cycle during a clean out event, in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = the fan-only mode energy consumption per cycle, in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">D</E> = the drying energy consumption, in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) When electrically heated water (120 °F or 140 °F) is used,
</P>
<FP-2>EAOC = (D<E T="52">e</E> × E<E T="52">TLP</E>) + (De × N × (M + M<E T="52">WS</E> + M<E T="52">DO</E> + M<E T="52">CO</E> + E<E T="52">F</E>−(ED/2))) + (De × N × (W + W<E T="52">WS</E> + W<E T="52">DO</E> + W<E T="52">CO</E>)).
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">e</E>, E<E T="52">TLP</E>, N, M, M<E T="52">WS</E>, M<E T="52">DO</E>, M<E T="52">CO</E>, E<E T="52">F</E>, and E<E T="52">D</E>, are defined in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = the water energy consumption per cycle, in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">WS</E> = the water softener regeneration water energy consumption per cycle in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">DO</E> = The drain out event water energy consumption per cycle in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">CO</E> = The clean out event water energy consumption per cycle in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) When gas-heated or oil-heated water is used,
</P>
<FP-2>EAOC<E T="52">g</E> = (D<E T="52">e</E> × E<E T="52">TLP</E>) + (D<E T="52">e</E> × N × (M + M<E T="52">WS</E> + M<E T="52">DO</E> +

M<E T="52">CO</E> + EF−(ED/2))) + (D<E T="52">g</E> × N × (W<E T="52">g</E> + W<E T="52">WSg</E> + W<E T="52">DOg</E> + W<E T="52">COg</E>)).
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">e</E>, E<E T="52">TLP</E>, N, M, M<E T="52">WS</E>, M<E T="52">DO</E>, M<E T="52">CO</E>, E<E T="52">F</E>, and E<E T="52">D</E>, are defined in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">g</E> = the representative average unit cost of gas or oil, as appropriate, in dollars per BTU, as provided by the Secretary,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">g</E> = the water energy consumption per cycle, in Btus and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">WSg</E> = the water softener regeneration energy consumption per cycle in Btu per cycle and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">DOg</E> = the drain out water energy consumption per cycle in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">COg</E> = the clean out water energy consumption per cycle in kilowatt-hours and determined according to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) The estimated annual energy use, EAEU, expressed in kilowatt-hours per year must be rounded to the nearest kilowatt-hour per year and is defined as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>EAEU = (M + M<E T="52">WS</E> + M<E T="52">DO</E> + M<E T="52">CO</E> + E<E T="52">F</E>−(E<E T="52">D</E>/2) + W + W<E T="52">WS</E> + W<E T="52">DO</E> + W<E T="52">CO</E>) × N + E<E T="52">TLP</E>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M, M<E T="52">WS</E>, M<E T="52">DO</E>, M<E T="52">CO</E>, E<E T="52">F</E>, E<E T="52">D</E>, E<E T="52">TLP</E> are all defined in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section and W, W<E T="52">WS</E>, W<E T="52">DO</E>, W<E T="52">CO</E> are defined in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The sum of the water consumption, V, the water consumption during water softener regeneration, V<E T="52">WS</E>, the water consumption during drain out events for dishwashers equipped with a water re-use system, V<E T="52">DO</E>, and the water consumption during clean out events for dishwashers equipped with a water re-use system, V<E T="52">CO</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle and defined pursuant to section 5 of appendix C1 or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable, must be rounded to one decimal place.
</P>
<P>(4) Other useful measures of energy consumption for dishwashers are those which the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions and which are derived from the application of appendix C1 to this subpart or appendix C2 to this subpart, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Clothes dryers.</I> (1) The estimated annual energy consumption for clothes dryers, expressed in kilowatt-hours per year, shall be the product of the annual representative average number of clothes dryer cycles as specified in appendix D1 or D2 to this subpart, as appropriate, and the per-cycle combined total energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.6 of appendix D1 or section 4.6 of appendix D2 to this subpart, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated annual operating cost for clothes dryers shall be—
</P>
<P>(i) For an electric clothes dryer, the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded off to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(A) The annual representative average number of clothes dryer cycles as specified in appendix D1 or appendix D2 to this subpart, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(B) The per-cycle combined total energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.6 of appendix D1 or section 4.6 of appendix D2 to this subpart, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(C) The representative average unit cost of electrical energy in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For a gas clothes dryer, the product of the annual representative average number of clothes dryer cycles as specified in appendix D1 or D2 to this subpart, as appropriate, times the sum of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded off to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(A) The product of the per-cycle gas dryer electric energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.2 of appendix D1 or section 4.2 of appendix D2 to this subpart, as appropriate, times the representative average unit cost of electrical energy in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary; plus,
</P>
<P>(B) The product of the per-cycle gas dryer gas energy consumption, in Btus per cycle, determined according to section 4.3 of appendix D1 or section 4.3 of appendix D2 to this subpart, as appropriate, times the representative average unit cost for natural gas or propane, as appropriate, in dollars per Btu as provided by the Secretary; plus,
</P>
<P>(C) The product of the per-cycle standby mode and off mode energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.5 of appendix D1 or section 4.5 of appendix D2 to this subpart, as appropriate, times the representative average unit cost of electrical energy in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) The combined energy factor, expressed in pounds per kilowatt-hour is determined in accordance with section 4.7 of appendix D1 or section 4.7 of appendix D2 to this subpart, as appropriate, the result then being rounded off to the nearest hundredth (0.01).
</P>
<P>(4) Other useful measures of energy consumption for clothes dryers shall be those measures of energy consumption for clothes dryers which the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions and which are derived from the application of appendix D1 or D2 to this subpart, as appropriate.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Water heaters.</I> (1) The estimated annual operating cost is calculated as:
</P>
<P>(i) For a gas-fired or oil-fired water heater, the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The product of the annual gas or oil energy consumption, determined according to section 6.3.11 or 6.4.7 of appendix E to this subpart, times the representative average unit cost of gas or oil, as appropriate, in dollars per Btu as provided by the Secretary; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The product of the annual electric energy consumption, determined according to section 6.3.10 or 6.4.6 of appendix E to this subpart, times the representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary. Round the resulting sum to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an electric water heater, the product of the annual energy consumption, determined according to section 6.3.10 or 6.4.6 of appendix E to this subpart, times the representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary. Round the resulting product to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(2) For an individual unit, the uniform energy factor is rounded to the nearest 0.01 and determined in accordance with section 6.3.8 or section 6.4.4 of appendix E to this subpart.




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Room air conditioners.</I> (1) Determine cooling capacity, expressed in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a single-speed room air conditioner, determine the cooling capacity in accordance with section 4.1.2 of appendix F of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a variable-speed room air conditioner, determine the cooling capacity in accordance with section 4.1.2 of appendix F of this subpart for test condition 1 in Table 1 of appendix F of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine electrical power input, expressed in watts (W) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a single-speed room air conditioner, determine the electrical power input in accordance with section 4.1.2 of appendix F of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a variable-speed room air conditioner, determine the electrical power input in accordance with section 4.1.2 of appendix F of this subpart, for test condition 1 in Table 1 of appendix F of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the combined energy efficiency ratio (CEER), expressed in British thermal units per watt-hour (Btu/Wh) and as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a single-speed room air conditioner, determine the CEER in accordance with section 5.2.2 of appendix F of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a variable-speed room air conditioner, determine the CEER in accordance with section 5.3.11 of appendix F of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) Determine the estimated annual operating cost for a room air conditioner, expressed in dollars per year, by multiplying the following two factors and rounding as directed:
</P>
<P>(i) For single-speed room air conditioners, the sum of AEC<E T="52">cool</E> and AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E>, determined in accordance with section 5.2.1 and section 5.1, respectively, of appendix F of this subpart. For variable-speed room air conditioners, the sum of AEC<E T="52">wt</E> and AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E>, determined in accordance with section 5.3.4 and section 5.1, respectively, of appendix F of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A representative average unit cost of electrical energy in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary. Round the resulting product to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Unvented home heating equipment.</I> (1) The estimated annual operating cost for primary electric heaters, shall be the product of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The average annual electric energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year, determined according to section 3.1 of appendix G of this subpart and 
</P>
<P>(ii) the representative average unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act, the resulting product then being rounded off to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated regional annual operating cost for primary electric heaters, shall be the product of: (i) The regional annual electric energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year for primary heaters determined according to section 3.2 of appendix G of this subpart and (ii) the representative average unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act, the resulting product then being rounded off to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated operating cost per million Btu output shall be—
</P>
<P>(i) For primary and supplementary electric heaters and unvented gas and oil heaters without an auxiliary electric system, the product of: 
</P>
<P>(A) One million; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The representative unit cost in dollars per Btu for natural gas, propane, or oil, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act as appropriate, or the quotient of the representative unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hour, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act, divided by 3,412 Btu per kilowatt hour, the resulting product then being rounded off to the nearest 0.01 dollar per million Btu output; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For unvented gas and oil heaters with an auxiliary electric system, the product of: (A) The quotient of one million divided by the rated output in Btu's per hour as determined in 3.4 of appendix G of this subpart; and (B) the sum of: (<I>1</I>) The product of the maximum fuel input in Btu's per hour as determined in 2.2. of this appendix times the representative unit cost in dollars per Btu for natural gas, propane, or oil, as appropriate, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act, plus (<I>2</I>) the product of the maximum auxiliary electric power in kilowatts as determined in 2.1 of appendix G of this subpart times the representative unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act, the resulting quantity shall be rounded off to the nearest 0.01 dollar per million Btu output.
</P>
<P>(4) The rated output for unvented heaters is the rated output as determined according to either sections 3.3 or 3.4 of appendix G of this subpart, as appropriate, with the result being rounded to the nearest 100 Btu per hour.
</P>
<P>(5) Other useful measures of energy consumption for unvented home heating equipment shall be those measures of energy consumption for unvented home heating equipment which the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions and which are derived from the application of appendix G of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Television sets.</I> The power consumption of a television set, expressed in watts, including on and standby modes, shall be determined in accordance with sections 3 and 4 of appendix H of this subpart respectively. The annual energy consumption, expressed in kilowatt-hours per year, shall be determined in accordance with section 4 of appendix H of this subpart.




</P>
<P>(i) <I>Cooking products.</I> (1) Determine the standby power for microwave ovens, excluding any microwave oven component of a combined cooking product, according to section 3.2.3 of appendix I to this subpart. Round standby power to the nearest 0.1 watt.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Determine the integrated annual energy consumption of a conventional electric cooking top, including any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, according to section 4.3.1 of appendix I1 to this subpart. Round the result to the nearest 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh) per year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine the integrated annual energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, including any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, according to section 4.3.2 of appendix I1 to this subpart. Round the result to the nearest 1 kilo-British thermal unit (kBtu) per year.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the total annual gas energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, including any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, according to section 4.1.2.2.1 of appendix I1 to this subpart. Round the result to the nearest 1 kBtu per year.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Determine the total annual electrical energy consumption of a conventional electric cooking top, including any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, as the integrated annual energy consumption of the conventional electric cooking top, as determined in paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine the total annual electrical energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, including any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, as follows, rounded to the nearest 1 kWh per year:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TGE</E> = E<E T="52">AGE</E> + E<E T="52">TLP</E>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AGE</E> is the conventional gas cooking top annual active mode electrical energy consumption as defined in section 4.1.2.2.2 of appendix I1 to this subpart, and E<E T="52">TLP</E> is the combined low-power mode energy consumption as defined in section 4.1 of appendix I1 to this subpart.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) Determine the estimated annual operating cost corresponding to the energy consumption of a conventional cooking top, including any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, as follows, rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<FP-2>(E<E T="52">TGE</E> × C<E T="52">KWH</E>) + (E<E T="52">TGG</E> × C<E T="52">KBTU</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2> E<E T="52">TGE</E> is the total annual electrical energy consumption for any electric energy usage, in kilowatt-hours (kWh) per year, as determined in accordance with paragraph (i)(4) of this section;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">KWH</E> is the representative average unit cost for electricity, in dollars per kWh, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TGG</E> is the total annual gas energy consumption, in kBtu per year, as determined in accordance with paragraph (i)(3) of this section; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">KBTU</E> is the representative average unit cost for natural gas or propane, in dollars per kBtu, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act, for conventional gas cooking tops that operate with natural gas or with LP-gas, respectively.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) Other useful measures of energy consumption for conventional cooking tops shall be the measures of energy consumption that the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions and that are derived from the application of appendix I1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Clothes washers.</I> (1) The estimated annual operating cost for automatic and semi-automatic clothes washers must be rounded off to the nearest dollar per year and is defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When using appendix J (see the note at the beginning of appendix J),
</P>
<P>(A) When electrically heated water is used,
</P>
<FP-2>(N × (ME<E T="52">T</E> + HE<E T="52">T</E> + E<E T="52">TLP</E>) × C<E T="52">KWH</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = the representative average residential clothes washer use of 234 cycles per year according to appendix J,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ME<E T="52">T</E> = the total weighted per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.1.6 of appendix J,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">T</E> = the total weighted per-cycle hot water energy consumption using an electrical water heater, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.1.3 of appendix J,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = the per-cycle combined low-power mode energy consumption, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.6.2 of appendix J, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">KWH</E> = the representative average unit cost, in dollars per kilowatt-hour, as provided by the Secretary.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) When gas-heated or oil-heated water is used,
</P>
<FP-2>(N × (((ME<E T="52">T</E> + E<E T="52">TLP</E>) × C<E T="52">KWH</E>) + (HE<E T="52">TG</E> × C<E T="52">BTU</E>)))
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N, ME<E T="52">T</E>, E<E T="52">TLP</E>, and C<E T="52">KWH</E> are defined in paragraph (j)(1)(i)(A) of this section,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">TG</E> = the total per-cycle hot water energy consumption using gas-heated or oil-heated water, in Btu per cycle, determined according to section 4.1.4 of appendix J, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">BTU</E> = the representative average unit cost, in dollars per Btu for oil or gas, as appropriate, as provided by the Secretary.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) When using appendix J2 (see the note at the beginning of appendix J2),
</P>
<P>(A) When electrically heated water is used
</P>
<FP-2>(N<E T="52">2</E> × (E<E T="52">TE2</E> + E<E T="52">TLP2</E>) × C<E T="52">KWH</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N<E T="52">2</E> = the representative average residential clothes washer use of 295 cycles per year according to appendix J2,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TE2</E> = the total per-cycle energy consumption when electrically heated water is used, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.1.7 of appendix J2,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP2</E> = the per-cycle combined low-power mode energy consumption, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.4 of appendix J2, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">KWH</E> = the representative average unit cost, in dollars per kilowatt-hour, as provided by the Secretary</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) When gas-heated or oil-heated water is used,
</P>
<FP-2>(N<E T="52">2</E> × (((ME<E T="52">T2</E> + E<E T="52">TLP2</E>) × C<E T="52">KWH</E>) + (HE<E T="52">TG2</E> × C<E T="52">BTU</E>)))
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N<E T="52">2,</E> E<E T="52">TLP2</E>, and C<E T="52">KWH</E> are defined in paragraph (j)(1)(ii)(A) of this section,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ME<E T="52">T2</E> = the total weighted per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to section 4.1.6 of appendix J2,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">TG2</E> = the total per-cycle hot water energy consumption using gas-heated or oil-heated water, in Btu per cycle, determined according to section 4.1.4 of appendix J2, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">BTU</E> = the representative average unit cost, in dollars per Btu for oil or gas, as appropriate, as provided by the Secretary.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(2)(i) The integrated modified energy factor for automatic and semi-automatic clothes washers is determined according to section 4.6 of appendix J2 (when using appendix J2). The result shall be rounded off to the nearest 0.01 cubic foot per kilowatt-hour per cycle.
</P>
<P>(ii) The energy efficiency ratio for automatic and semi-automatic clothes washers is determined according to section 4.9 of appendix J (when using appendix J). The result shall be rounded to the nearest 0.01 pound per kilowatt-hour per cycle.
</P>
<P>(3) The annual water consumption of a clothes washer must be determined as:
</P>
<P>(i) When using appendix J, the product of the representative average-use of 234 cycles per year and the total weighted per-cycle water consumption in gallons per cycle determined according to section 4.2.4 of appendix J.
</P>
<P>(ii) When using appendix J2, the product of the representative average-use of 295 cycles per year and the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for all wash cycles, in gallons per cycle, determined according to section 4.2.11 of appendix J2.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The integrated water factor must be determined according to section 4.2.12 of appendix J2, with the result rounded to the nearest 0.1 gallons per cycle per cubic foot.
</P>
<P>(ii) The water efficiency ratio for automatic and semi-automatic clothes washers is determined according to section 4.7 of appendix J (when using appendix J). The result shall be rounded to the nearest 0.01 pound per gallon per cycle.
</P>
<P>(5) Other useful measures of energy consumption for automatic or semi-automatic clothes washers shall be those measures of energy consumption that the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions and that are derived from the application of appendix J or appendix J2, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(k)-(l) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(m) <I>Central air conditioners and heat pumps.</I> See the note at the beginning of appendices M1 and M2 to this subpart to determine the appropriate test method. Determine all values discussed in this section using a single appendix.
</P>
<P>(1) Determine cooling capacity from the steady-state wet-coil test (A or A<E T="52">full</E> Test), as per instructions in section 2 of appendix M1 or M2 to this subpart, and rounded off to the nearest:
</P>
<P>(i) To the nearest 50 Btu/h if cooling capacity is less than 20,000 Btu/h;
</P>
<P>(ii) To the nearest 100 Btu/h if cooling capacity is greater than or equal to 20,000 Btu/h but less than 38,000 Btu/h; and
</P>
<P>(iii) To the nearest 250 Btu/h if cooling capacity is greater than or equal to 38,000 Btu/h and less than 65,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2) as described in sections 2 and 5 of appendix M1 to this subpart or seasonal cooling and off-mode rating efficiency (SCORE) as described in sections 2 and 4 of appendix M2 to this subpart, and round off to the nearest 0.025 Btu/W-h.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine energy efficiency ratio 2 (EER2) as described in section 2 of appendix M1 or energy efficiency ratio (EER) as described in section 2 of appendix M2 to this subpart and round off to the nearest 0.025 Btu/W-h. EER2 (for appendix M1 to this subpart) or EER (for appendix M2 to this subpart) is the efficiency from the A or A<E T="52">full</E> test, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(4) Determine heating seasonal performance factor 2 (HSPF2) as described in sections 2 and 5 of appendix M1 to this subpart or seasonal heating and off-mode rating efficiency (SHORE) as described in sections 2 and 4 of appendix M2 to this subpart, and round off to the nearest 0.025 Btu/W-h.
</P>
<P>(5) Determine <I>P</I><E T="52">W,OFF,</E> average off-mode power consumption, as described in section 3 of appendix M1 to this subpart, and round off to the nearest 0.5 W. Average off-mode power consumption is not required when testing in accordance with appendix M2 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) Determine all other measures of energy efficiency or consumption or other useful measures of performance using appendix M1 or M2 of this subpart.






</P>
<P>(n) <I>Furnaces.</I> (1) The estimated annual operating cost for furnaces is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The product of the average annual fuel energy consumption, in Btu's per year for gas or oil furnaces or in kilowatt-hours per year for electric furnaces, determined according to section 10.2.2 or 10.3 of appendix N of this subpart, respectively, (for furnaces, excluding low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers) or section 10.2.2 or 10.3 of appendix EE of this subpart, respectively (for low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers), and the representative average unit cost in dollars per Btu for gas or oil, or dollars per kilowatt-hour for electric, as appropriate, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The product of the average annual auxiliary electric energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year determined according to section 10.2.3 of appendix N of this subpart (for furnaces, excluding low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers) or section 10.2.3 of appendix EE of this subpart (for low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers) of this subpart, and the representative average unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) Round the resulting sum to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(2) The annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) for furnaces, expressed in percent, is the ratio of the annual fuel output of useful energy delivered to the heated space to the annual fuel energy input to the furnace.
</P>
<P>(i) For gas and oil furnaces, determine AFUE according to section 10.1 of appendix N (for furnaces, excluding low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers) or section 10.1 of appendix EE (for low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers) of this subpart, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) For electric furnaces, excluding electric boilers, determine AFUE in accordance with section 11.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 103-1993 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 430.3); for electric boilers, determine AFUE in accordance with section 11.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 103-2017 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 430.3).
</P>
<P>(iii) Round the AFUE to one-tenth of a percentage point.
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated regional annual operating cost for furnaces is calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) When using appendix N of this subpart for furnaces excluding low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers (see the note at the beginning of appendix N of this subpart),
</P>
<P>(A) For gas or oil-fueled furnaces,
</P>
<FP-2>(<I>E</I><E T="54">FR</E> × <I>C</I><E T="54">BTU</E>) + (<I>E</I><E T="54">AER</E> × <I>C</I><E T="54">KWH</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">FR</E> = the regional annual fuel energy consumption in Btu per year, determined according to section 10.7.1 of appendix N of this subpart;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">BTU</E> = the representative average unit cost in dollars per Btu of gas or oil, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AER</E> = the regional annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year, determined according to section 10.7.2 of appendix N of this subpart; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">KWH</E> = the representative average unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hour of electricity, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) For electric furnaces,
</P>
<FP-2>(<I>E</I><E T="54">ER</E> × <I>C</I><E T="54">KWH</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ER</E> = the regional annual fuel energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year, determined according to section 10.7.3 of appendix N of this subpart; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">KWH</E> is as defined in paragraph (n)(3)(i)(A) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) When using appendix EE of this subpart for low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers (see the note at the beginning of appendix EE of this subpart),
</P>
<P>(A) For gas or oil-fueled boilers,
</P>
<FP-2>(<I>E</I><E T="54">ER</E> × <I>C</I><E T="54">BTU</E>) + (<I>E</I><E T="54">AER</E> × <I>C</I><E T="54">KWH</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">FR</E> = the regional annual fuel energy consumption in Btu per year, determined according to section 10.5.1 of appendix EE of this subpart;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">BTU</E> and C<E T="52">KWH</E> are as defined in paragraph (n)(3)(i)(A) of this section; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AER</E> = the regional annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year, determined according to section 10.5.2 of appendix EE of this subpart.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) For electric boilers,
</P>
<FP-2>(<I>E</I><E T="54">ER</E> × <I>C</I><E T="54">KWH</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ER</E> = the regional annual fuel energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year, determined according to section 10.5.3 of appendix EE of this subpart; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">KWH</E> is as defined in paragraph (n)(3)(i)(A) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Round the estimated regional annual operating cost to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(4) The energy factor for furnaces, expressed in percent, is the ratio of annual fuel output of useful energy delivered to the heated space to the total annual energy input to the furnace determined according to either section 10.6 of appendix N of this subpart (for furnaces, excluding low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers) or section 10.4 of appendix EE of this subpart (for low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) The average standby mode and off mode electrical power consumption for furnaces shall be determined according to section 8.10 of appendix N of this subpart (for furnaces, excluding low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers) or section 8.9 of appendix EE of this subpart (for low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers), as applicable. Round the average standby mode and off mode electrical power consumption to the nearest tenth of a watt.
</P>
<P>(6) Other useful measures of energy consumption for furnaces shall be those measures of energy consumption which the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions and which are derived from the application of appendix N of this subpart (for furnaces, excluding low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers) or appendix EE of this subpart (for low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers).






</P>
<P>(o) <I>Vented home heating equipment.</I> (1) When determining the annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) of vented home heating equipment (see the note at the beginning of appendix O), expressed in percent (%), calculate AFUE in accordance with section 4.1.17 of appendix O of this subpart for vented heaters without either manual controls or thermal stack dampers; in accordance with section 4.2.6 of appendix O of this subpart for vented heaters equipped with manual controls; or in accordance with section 4.3.7 of appendix O of this subpart for vented heaters equipped with thermal stack dampers.
</P>
<P>(2) When estimating the annual operating cost for vented home heating equipment, calculate the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The product of the average annual fuel energy consumption, in Btus per year for natural gas, propane, or oil fueled vented home heating equipment, determined according to section 4.6.2 of appendix O of this subpart, and the representative average unit cost in dollars per Btu for natural gas, propane, or oil, as appropriate, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The product of the average annual auxiliary electric energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year determined according to section 4.6.3 of appendix O of this subpart, and the representative average unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hours as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act. Round the resulting sum to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(3) When estimating the operating cost per million Btu output for gas or oil vented home heating equipment with an auxiliary electric system, calculate the product of:
</P>
<P>(i) The quotient of one million Btu divided by the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The product of the maximum fuel input in Btus per hour as determined in sections 3.1.1 or 3.1.2 of appendix O of this subpart times the annual fuel utilization efficiency in percent as determined in sections 4.1.17, 4.2.6, or 4.3.7 of this appendix (as appropriate) divided by 100, plus
</P>
<P>(B) The product of the maximum electric power in watts as determined in section 3.1.3 of appendix O of this subpart times the quantity 3.412; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) the product of the maximum fuel input in Btus per hour as determined in sections 3.1.1 or 3.1.2 of this appendix times the representative unit cost in dollars per Btu for natural gas, propane, or oil, as appropriate, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act; plus
</P>
<P>(B) the product of the maximum auxiliary electric power in kilowatts as determined in section 3.1.3 of appendix O of this subpart times the representative unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act. Round the resulting quantity to the nearest 0.01 dollar per million Btu output.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Pool heaters.</I> (1) Determine the thermal efficiency (E<E T="52">t</E>) of a pool heater expressed as a percent (%) in accordance with section 5.1 of appendix P to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine the integrated thermal efficiency (TE<E T="52">I</E>) of a pool heater expressed as a percent (%) in accordance with section 5.4 of appendix P to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) When estimating the annual operating cost of pool heaters, calculate the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The product of the average annual fossil fuel energy consumption, in Btus per year, determined according to section 5.2 of appendix P to this subpart, and the representative average unit cost in dollars per Btu for natural gas or oil, as appropriate, as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The product of the average annual electrical energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per year determined according to section 5.3 of appendix P to this subpart and converted to kilowatt-hours using a conversion factor of 3412 Btus = 1 kilowatt-hour, and the representative average unit cost in dollars per kilowatt-hours as provided pursuant to section 323(b)(2) of the Act. Round the resulting sum to the nearest dollar per year.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Fluorescent lamp ballasts.</I> (1) Calculate ballast luminous efficiency (BLE) using appendix Q to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Calculate power factor using appendix Q to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>General service fluorescent lamps, general service incandescent lamps, and incandescent reflector lamps.</I> Measure initial lumen output, initial input power, initial lamp efficacy, color rendering index (CRI), correlated color temperature (CCT), and time to failure of GSFLs, IRLs, and GSILs, as applicable, in accordance with appendix R to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Faucets.</I> Measure the water use for lavatory faucets, lavatory replacement aerators, kitchen faucets, and kitchen replacement aerators, in gallons or liters per minute (gpm or L/min), in accordance to section 2.1 of appendix S of this subpart. Measure the water use for metering faucets, in gallons or liters per cycle (gal/cycle or L/cycle), in accordance to section 2.1 of appendix S of this subpart.


</P>
<P>(t) <I>Showerheads.</I> Measure the water use for showerheads, in gallons or liters per minute (gpm or L/min), in accordance to section 2.2 of appendix S of this subpart.




</P>
<P>(u) <I>Water closets.</I> Measure the water use for water closets, expressed in gallons or liters per flush (gpf or Lpf), in accordance with section 3(a) of appendix T to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(v) <I>Urinals.</I> Measure the water use for urinals, expressed in gallons or liters per flush (gpf or Lpf), in accordance with section 3(b) of appendix T to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(w) <I>Ceiling fans.</I> Measure the following attributes of a single ceiling fan in accordance with appendix U to this subpart: airflow; power consumption; ceiling fan efficiency, as applicable; ceiling fan energy index (CFEI), as applicable; standby power, as applicable; distance between the ceiling and lowest point of fan blades; blade span; blade edge thickness; and blade revolutions per minute (RPM).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Ceiling fan light kits.</I> 


</P>
<P>(1) For each ceiling fan light kit that requires compliance with the January 21, 2020 energy conservation standards:
</P>
<P>(i) For a ceiling fan light kit packaged with compact fluorescent lamps, measure lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, rapid cycle stress test, and time to failure in accordance with paragraph (y) of this section for each lamp basic model.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a ceiling fan light kit packaged with general service fluorescent lamps, measure lamp efficacy in accordance with paragraph (r) of this section for each lamp basic model.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a ceiling fan light kit packaged with incandescent lamps, measure lamp efficacy in accordance with paragraph (r) of this section for each lamp basic model.
</P>
<P>(iv) For a ceiling fan light kit packaged with integrated LED lamps, measure lamp efficacy in accordance with paragraph (ee) of this section for each lamp basic model.




</P>
<P>(v) For a ceiling fan light kit packaged with other fluorescent lamps (not compact fluorescent lamps or general service fluorescent lamps), packaged with consumer-replaceable SSL (not integrated LED lamps), packaged with non-consumer-replaceable SSL, or packaged with other SSL lamps that have an ANSI standard base (not integrated LED lamps), measure efficacy in accordance with section 3 of appendix V of this subpart for each lamp basic model, consumer-replaceable SSL basic model, or non-consumer-replaceable SSL basic model.


</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(y) <I>Compact fluorescent lamps.</I> (1) Measure initial lumen output, input power, initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp (as defined in 10 CFR 430.2), color rendering index (CRI), correlated color temperature (CCT), power factor, start time, standby mode energy consumption, and time to failure in accordance with appendix W of this subpart. Express time to failure in hours.
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct the rapid cycle stress test in accordance with section 3.3 of appendix W of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Dehumidifiers.</I> (1) Determine the capacity, expressed in pints/day, according to section 5.2 of appendix X1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine the integrated energy factor, expressed in L/kWh, according to section 5.4 of appendix X1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the case volume, expressed in cubic feet, for whole-home dehumidifiers in accordance with section 5.7 of appendix X1 of this subpart.




</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Battery Chargers.</I> (1) For battery chargers subject to compliance with the relevant standard at § 430.32(z) as that standard appeared in the January 1, 2022, edition of 10 CFR parts 200-499:
</P>
<P>(i) Measure the maintenance mode power, standby power, off mode power, battery discharge energy, 24-hour energy consumption and measured duration of the charge and maintenance mode test for a battery charger other than uninterruptible power supplies in accordance with appendix Y to this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculate the unit energy consumption of a battery charger other than uninterruptible power supplies in accordance with appendix Y to this subpart;
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculate the average load adjusted efficiency of an uninterruptible power supply in accordance with appendix Y to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) For a battery charger subject to compliance with any amended relevant standard provided in § 430.32 that is published after September 8, 2022:
</P>
<P>(i) Measure active mode energy, maintenance mode power, no-battery mode power, off mode power and battery discharge energy for a battery charger other than uninterruptible power supplies in accordance with appendix Y1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculate the standby power of a battery charger other than uninterruptible power supplies in accordance with appendix Y1, to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculate the average load adjusted efficiency of an uninterruptible power supply in accordance with appendix Y1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>External Power Supplies.</I> The energy consumption of an external power supply, including active-mode efficiency expressed as a percentage and the no-load, off, and standby mode energy consumption levels expressed in watts, shall be measured in accordance with appendix Z of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Furnace Fans.</I> The energy consumption of a single unit of a furnace fan basic model expressed in watts per 1000 cubic feet per minute (cfm) to the nearest integer shall be calculated in accordance with Appendix AA of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Portable air conditioners.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) When using appendix CC to this subpart, measure the seasonally adjusted cooling capacity (“SACC”) in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and the combined energy efficiency ratio, in British thermal units per watt-hour (Btu/Wh) in accordance with sections 5.2 and 5.4 of appendix CC to this subpart, respectively. When using appendix CC1 to this subpart, measure the SACC in Btu/h, and the combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh in accordance with sections 5.2 and 5.4, respectively, of appendix CC1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) When using appendix CC to this subpart, determine the estimated annual operating cost for portable air conditioners, in dollars per year and rounded to the nearest whole number, by multiplying a representative average unit cost of electrical energy in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary by the total annual energy consumption (“AEC”), determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For dual-duct single-speed portable air conditioners, the sum of AEC<E T="52">DD_95</E> multiplied by 0.2, AEC<E T="52">DD_83</E> multiplied by 0.8, and AEC<E T="52">T</E> as measured in accordance with section 5.3 of appendix CC to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) For single-duct single-speed portable air conditioners, the sum of AEC<E T="52">SD</E> and AEC<E T="52">T</E> as measured in accordance with section 5.3 of appendix CC to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iii) For dual-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners the overall sum of
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of AEC<E T="52">DD_95_Full</E> and AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E>, multiplied by 0.2, and
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of AEC<E T="52">DD_83_Low</E> and AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E>, multiplied by 0.8, as measured in accordance with section 5.3 of appendix CC to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iv) For single-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners, the overall sum of
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of AEC<E T="52">SD_Full</E> and AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E>, multiplied by 0.2, and
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of AEC<E T="52">SD_Low</E> and AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E>, multiplied by 0.8, as measured in accordance with section 5.3 of appendix CC to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) When using appendix CC1 to this subpart, determine the estimated annual operating cost for portable air conditioners, in dollars per year and rounded to the nearest whole number, by multiplying a representative average unit cost of electrical energy in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary by the total AEC. The total AEC is the sum of AEC<E T="52">95</E>, AEC<E T="52">83</E>, AEC<E T="52">oc</E>, and AEC<E T="52">ia</E>, as measured in accordance with section 5.3 of appendix CC1 to this subpart.




</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Integrated light-emitting diode lamp.</I> (1) The input power of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be measured in accordance with section 3 of appendix BB of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The lumen output of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be measured in accordance with section 3 of appendix BB of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) The lamp efficacy of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be calculated in accordance with section 3 of appendix BB of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) The correlated color temperature of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be measured in accordance with section 3 of appendix BB of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) The color rendering index of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be measured in accordance with section 3 of appendix BB of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) The power factor of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be measured in accordance with section 3 of appendix BB of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) The time to failure of an integrated light-emitting diode lamp must be measured in accordance with section 4 of appendix BB of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(8) The standby mode power must be measured in accordance with section 5 of appendix BB of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Coolers and combination cooler refrigeration products.</I> (1) The estimated annual operating cost for models without an anti-sweat heater switch shall be the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix A of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated annual operating cost for models with an anti-sweat heater switch shall be the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Half the sum of the average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle and the average per-cycle energy consumption for a test cycle type with the anti-sweat heater switch in the position set at the factory just before shipping, each in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix A of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated annual operating cost for any other specified cycle type shall be the product of the following three factors, with the resulting product then being rounded to the nearest dollar per year:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative average-use cycle of 365 cycles per year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the specified cycle type, determined according to appendix A of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The representative average unit cost of electricity in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(4) The energy factor, expressed in cubic feet per kilowatt-hour per cycle, shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) For models without an anti-sweat heater switch, the quotient of:
</P>
<P>(A) The adjusted total volume in cubic feet, determined according to appendix A of this subpart, divided by—
</P>
<P>(B) The average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix A of this subpart, the resulting quotient then being rounded to the second decimal place; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For models having an anti-sweat heater switch, the quotient of:
</P>
<P>(A) The adjusted total volume in cubic feet, determined according to appendix A of this subpart, divided by—
</P>
<P>(B) Half the sum of the average per-cycle energy consumption for the standard cycle and the average per-cycle energy consumption for a test cycle type with the anti-sweat heater switch in the position set at the factory just before shipping, each in kilowatt-hours per cycle, determined according to appendix A of this subpart, the resulting quotient then being rounded to the second decimal place.
</P>
<P>(5) The annual energy use, expressed in kilowatt-hours per year and rounded to the nearest kilowatt-hour per year, shall be determined according to appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) Other useful measures of energy consumption shall be those measures of energy consumption that the Secretary determines are likely to assist consumers in making purchasing decisions which are derived from the application of appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) The following principles of interpretation shall be applied to the test procedure. The intent of the energy test procedure is to simulate operation in typical room conditions (72 °F (22.2 °C)) with door openings by testing at 90 °F (32.2 °C) ambient temperature without door openings. Except for operating characteristics that are affected by ambient temperature (for example, compressor percent run time), the unit, when tested under this test procedure, shall operate in a manner equivalent to the unit's operation while in typical room conditions.
</P>
<P>(i) The energy used by the unit shall be calculated when a calculation is provided by the test procedure. Energy consuming components that operate in typical room conditions (including as a result of door openings, or a function of humidity), and that are not excluded by this test procedure, shall operate in an equivalent manner during energy testing under this test procedure, or be accounted for by all calculations as provided for in the test procedure. Examples:
</P>
<P>(A) Energy saving features that are designed to operate when there are no door openings for long periods of time shall not be functional during the energy test.
</P>
<P>(B) The defrost heater shall neither function nor turn off differently during the energy test than it would when in typical room conditions. Also, the product shall not recover differently during the defrost recovery period than it would in typical room conditions.
</P>
<P>(C) Electric heaters that would normally operate at typical room conditions with door openings shall also operate during the energy test.
</P>
<P>(D) Energy used during adaptive defrost shall continue to be measured and adjusted per the calculation provided for in this test procedure.
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE recognizes that there may be situations that the test procedures do not completely address. In such cases, a manufacturer must obtain a waiver in accordance with the relevant provisions of this part if:
</P>
<P>(A) A product contains energy consuming components that operate differently during the prescribed testing than they would during representative average consumer use; and
</P>
<P>(B) Applying the prescribed test to that product would evaluate it in a manner that is unrepresentative of its true energy consumption (thereby providing materially inaccurate comparative data).
</P>
<P>(8) For non-compressor models, “compressor” and “compressor cycles” as used in appendix A of this subpart shall be interpreted to mean “refrigeration system” and “refrigeration system cycles,” respectively.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>General Service Lamps.</I> (1) For general service incandescent lamps, use paragraph (r) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For compact fluorescent lamps, use paragraph (y) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For integrated LED lamps, use paragraph (ee) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) For other incandescent lamps, measure initial light output, input power, lamp efficacy, power factor, and standby mode power in accordance with appendix DD of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) For other fluorescent lamps, measure initial light output, input power, lamp efficacy, power factor, and standby mode power in accordance with appendix DD of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) For OLED and non-integrated LED lamps, measure initial light output, input power, lamp efficacy, power factor, and standby mode power in accordance with appendix DD of this subpart.


</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Air cleaners.</I> (1) The pollen clean air delivery rate (CADR), smoke CADR, and dust CADR, expressed in cubic feet per minute (cfm), for conventional room air cleaners shall be measured in accordance with section 5 of appendix FF of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The PM<E T="52">2.5</E> CADR, expressed in cfm, for conventional room air cleaners, shall be measured in accordance with section 5 of appendix FF of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) The active mode and standby mode power consumption, expressed in watts, shall be measured in accordance with sections 5 and 6, respectively, of appendix FF of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) The annual energy consumption, expressed in kilowatt-hours per year, and the integrated energy factor, expressed in CADR per watts (CADR/W), for conventional room air cleaners, shall be measured in accordance with section 7 of appendix FF of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) The estimated annual operating cost for conventional room air cleaners, expressed in dollars per year, shall be determined by multiplying the following two factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The annual energy consumption as calculated in accordance with section 7 of appendix FF of this subpart, and
</P>
<P>(ii) A representative average unit cost of electrical energy in dollars per kilowatt-hour as provided by the Secretary, the resulting product then being rounded off to the nearest dollar per year.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Portable electric spas.</I> Measure the standby loss in watts and the fill volume in gallons of a portable electric spa in accordance with appendix GG to this subpart.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 27898, June 1, 1977]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 430.23, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.24" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.24   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.25" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.25   Laboratory Accreditation Program.</HEAD>
<P>The testing for general service fluorescent lamps, general service incandescent lamps (with the exception of lifetime testing), general service lamps (with the exception of applicable lifetime testing), incandescent reflector lamps, compact fluorescent lamps, and fluorescent lamp ballasts, and integrated light-emitting diode lamps must be conducted by test laboratories accredited by an Accreditation Body that is a signatory member to the International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC) Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA). A manufacturer's or importer's own laboratory, if accredited, may conduct the applicable testing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 72504, Oct. 20, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.27" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.27   Petitions for waiver and interim waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> This section provides a means for seeking waivers of the test procedure requirements of this subpart for basic models that meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. In granting a waiver or interim waiver, DOE will not change the energy use or efficiency metric that the manufacturer must use to certify compliance with the applicable energy conservation standard and to make representations about the energy use or efficiency of the covered product. The granting of a waiver or interim waiver by DOE does not exempt such basic models from any other regulatory requirement contained in this part or the certification and compliance requirements of 10 CFR part 429 and specifies an alternative method for testing the basic models addressed in the waiver.
</P>
<P>(1) Any interested person may submit a petition to waive for a particular basic model any requirements of § 430.23 or of any appendix to this subpart, upon the grounds that the basic model contains one or more design characteristics which either prevent testing of the basic model according to the prescribed test procedures or cause the prescribed test procedures to evaluate the basic model in a manner so unrepresentative of its true energy and/or water consumption characteristics as to provide materially inaccurate comparative data.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturers of basic model(s) subject to a waiver or interim waiver are responsible for complying with the other requirements of this subpart and with the requirements of 10 CFR part 429 regardless of the person that originally submitted the petition for waiver and/or interim waiver. The filing of a petition for waiver and/or interim waiver shall not constitute grounds for noncompliance with any requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) All correspondence regarding waivers and interim waivers must be submitted to DOE either electronically to <I>AS__Waiver__Requests@ee.doe.gov</I> (preferred method of transmittal) or by mail to U.S. Department of Energy, Building Technologies Program, Test Procedure Waiver, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Mailstop EE-5B, Washington, DC 20585-0121.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petition content and publication.</I> (1) Each petition for interim waiver and waiver must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the particular basic model(s) for which a waiver is requested, each brand name under which the identified basic model(s) will be distributed in commerce, the design characteristic(s) constituting the grounds for the petition, and the specific requirements sought to be waived, and must discuss in detail the need for the requested waiver;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify manufacturers of all other basic models distributed in commerce in the United States and known to the petitioner to incorporate design characteristic(s) similar to those found in the basic model that is the subject of the petition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Include any alternate test procedures known to the petitioner to evaluate the performance of the product type in a manner representative of the energy and/or water consumption characteristics of the basic model; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be signed by the petitioner or an authorized representative. In accordance with the provisions set forth in 10 CFR 1004.11, any request for confidential treatment of any information contained in a petition or in supporting documentation must be accompanied by a copy of the petition, application or supporting documentation from which the information claimed to be confidential has been deleted. DOE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the petition and supporting documents from which confidential information, as determined by DOE, has been deleted in accordance with 10 CFR 1004.11 and will solicit comments, data and information with respect to the determination of the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, each petition for interim waiver must reference the related petition for waiver, demonstrate likely success of the petition for waiver, and address what economic hardship and/or competitive disadvantage is likely to result absent a favorable determination on the petition for interim waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to other manufacturers.</I> (1) Each petitioner for interim waiver must, upon publication of a grant of an interim waiver in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> notify in writing all known manufacturers of domestically marketed basic models of the same product class (as specified in 10 CFR 430.32) and of other product classes known to the petitioner to use the technology or have the characteristic at issue in the waiver. The notice must include a statement that DOE has published the interim waiver and petition for waiver in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the date the petition for waiver was published. The notice must also include a statement that DOE will receive and consider timely written comments on the petition for waiver. Within five working days, each petitioner must file with DOE a statement certifying the names and addresses of each person to whom a notice of the petition for waiver has been sent.
</P>
<P>(2) If a petitioner does not request an interim waiver and notification has not been provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, each petitioner, after filing a petition for waiver with DOE, and after the petition for waiver has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> must, within five working days of such publication, notify in writing all known manufacturers of domestically marketed units of the same product class (as listed in 10 CFR 430.32) and of other product classes known to the petitioner to use the technology or have the characteristic at issue in the waiver. The notice must include a statement that DOE has published the petition in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the date the petition for waiver was published. Within five working days of the publication of the petition in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> each petitioner must file with DOE a statement certifying the names and addresses of each person to whom a notice of the petition for waiver has been sent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public comment and rebuttal.</I> (1) Any person submitting written comments to DOE with respect to an interim waiver must also send a copy of the comments to the petitioner by the deadline specified in the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person submitting written comments to DOE with respect to a petition for waiver must also send a copy of such comments to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(3) A petitioner may, within 10 working days of the close of the comment period specified in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> submit a rebuttal statement to DOE. A petitioner may rebut more than one comment in a single rebuttal statement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Provisions specific to interim waivers.</I> (1) DOE will post a petition for interim waiver on its website within 5 business days of receipt of a complete petition. DOE will make best efforts to review a petition for interim waiver within 90 business days of receipt of a complete petition.
</P>
<P>(2) A petition for interim waiver that does not meet the content requirements of paragraph (b) of this section will be considered incomplete. DOE will notify the petitioner of an incomplete petition via email.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE will grant an interim waiver from the test procedure requirements if it appears likely that the petition for waiver will be granted and/or if DOE determines that it would be desirable for public policy reasons to grant immediate relief pending a determination on the petition for waiver. Notice of DOE's determination on the petition for interim waiver will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Provisions specific to waivers</I>—(1) <I>Disposition of application.</I> The petitioner shall be notified in writing as soon as practicable of the disposition of each petition for waiver. DOE shall issue a decision on the petition as soon as is practicable following receipt and review of the Petition for Waiver and other applicable documents, including, but not limited to, comments and rebuttal statements.
</P>
<P>(2) Criteria for granting. DOE will grant a waiver from the test procedure requirements if DOE determines either that the basic model(s) for which the waiver was requested contains a design characteristic that prevents testing of the basic model according to the prescribed test procedures, or that the prescribed test procedures evaluate the basic model in a manner so unrepresentative of its true energy or water consumption characteristics as to provide materially inaccurate comparative data. Waivers may be granted subject to conditions, which may include adherence to alternate test procedures specified by DOE. DOE will consult with the Federal Trade Commission prior to granting any waiver, and will promptly publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of each waiver granted or denied, and any limiting conditions of each waiver granted.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Extension to additional basic models.</I> A petitioner may request that DOE extend the scope of a waiver or an interim waiver to include additional basic models employing the same technology as the basic model(s) set forth in the original petition. The petition for extension must identify the particular basic model(s) for which a waiver extension is requested, each brand name under which the identified basic model(s) will be distributed in commerce, and documentation supporting the claim that the additional basic models employ the same technology as the basic model(s) set forth in the original petition. DOE will publish any such extension in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Duration.</I> (1) Within one year of issuance of an interim waiver, DOE will either:
</P>
<P>(i) Publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a determination on the petition for waiver; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a new or amended test procedure that addresses the issues presented in the waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) When DOE publishes a decision and order on a petition for waiver in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, the interim waiver will terminate upon the data specified in the decision and order, in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When DOE amends the test procedure to address the issues presented in a waiver, the waiver or interim waiver will automatically terminate on the date on which use of that test procedure is required to demonstrate compliance.
</P>
<P>(4) When DOE publishes a decision and order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> to modify a waiver pursuant to paragraph (k) of this section, the existing waiver will terminate 180 days after the publication date of the decision and order.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compliance certification and representations.</I> (1) If the interim waiver test procedure methodology is different than the decision and order test procedure methodology, certification reports to DOE required under 10 CFR 429.12 and any representations must be based on either of the two methodologies until 180 days after the publication date of the decision and order. Thereafter, certification reports and any representations must be based on the decision and order test procedure methodology, unless otherwise specified by DOE. Once a manufacturer uses the decision and order test procedure methodology in a certification report or any representation, all subsequent certification reports and any representations must be made using the decision and order test procedure methodology while the waiver is valid.
</P>
<P>(2) When DOE publishes a new or amended test procedure, certification reports to DOE required under 10 CFR 429.12 and any representations must be based on the testing methodology of an applicable waiver or interim waiver, or the new or amended test procedure until the date on which use of such test procedure is required to demonstrate compliance, unless otherwise specified by DOE in the test procedure final rule. Thereafter, certification reports and any representations must be based on the test procedure final rule methodology. Once a manufacturer uses the test procedure final rule methodology in a certification report or any representation, all subsequent certification reports and any representations must be made using the test procedure final rule methodology.
</P>
<P>(3) If DOE publishes a decision and order modifying an existing waiver, certification reports to DOE required under 10 CFR 429.12 and any representations must be based on either of the two methodologies until 180 days after the publication date of the decision and order modifying the waiver. Thereafter, certification reports and any representations must be based on the modified test procedure methodology unless otherwise specified by DOE. Once a manufacturer uses the modified test procedure methodology in a certification report or any representation, all subsequent certification reports and any representations must be made using the modified test procedure methodology while the modified waiver is valid.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Petition for waiver required of other manufactures.</I> Any manufacturer of a basic model employing a technology or characteristic for which a waiver was granted for another basic model and that results in the need for a waiver (as specified by DOE in a published decision and order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>) must petition for and be granted a waiver for that basic model. Manufacturers may also submit a request for interim waiver pursuant to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Rescission or modification.</I> (1) DOE may rescind or modify a waiver or interim waiver at any time upon DOE's determination that the factual basis underlying the petition for waiver or interim waiver is incorrect, upon a determination that the results from the alternate test procedure are unrepresentative of the basic model(s)' true energy consumption characteristics, or for other appropriate reason. Waivers and interim waivers are conditioned upon the validity of statements, representations, and documents provided by the requestor; any evidence that the original grant of a waiver or interim waiver was based upon inaccurate information will weigh against continuation of the waiver. DOE's decision will specify the basis for its determination and, in the case of a modification, will also specify the change to the authorized test procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) A person may request that DOE rescind or modify a waiver or interim waiver issued to that person if the person discovers an error in the information provided to DOE as part of its petition, determines that the waiver is no longer needed, or for other appropriate reasons. In a request for rescission, the requestor must provide a statement explaining why it is requesting rescission. In a request for modification, the requestor must explain the need for modification to the authorized test procedure and detail the modifications needed and the corresponding impact on measured energy consumption.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE will publish a proposed rescission or modification (DOE-initiated or at the request of the original requestor) in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment. A requestor may, within 10 working days of the close of the comment period specified in the proposed rescission or modification published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> submit a rebuttal statement to DOE. A requestor may rebut more than one comment in a single rebuttal statement.
</P>
<P>(4) DOE will publish its decision in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> DOE's determination will be based on relevant information contained in the record and any comments received.
</P>
<P>(5) After the effective date of a rescission, any basic model(s) previously subject to a waiver must be tested and certified using the applicable DOE test procedure in 10 CFR part 430.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Revision of regulation.</I> As soon as practicable after the granting of any waiver, DOE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of proposed rulemaking to amend its regulations so as to eliminate any need for the continuation of such waiver. As soon thereafter as practicable, DOE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a final rule.
</P>
<P>(m) To exhaust administrative remedies, any person aggrieved by an action under this section must file an appeal with the DOE's Office of Hearings and Appeals as provided in 10 CFR part 1003, subpart C.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 26599, May 9, 2014, as amended at 85 FR 79820, Dec. 11, 2020; 86 FR 70959, Dec. 14, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Refrigerators, Refrigerator-Freezers, and Miscellaneous Refrigeration Products






</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to April 11, 2022, any representations of volume and energy use of refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers, and miscellaneous refrigeration products must be based on the results of testing pursuant to either this appendix or the procedures in appendix A as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, appendix A, in the 10 CFR parts 200 to 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2019. Any representations of volume and energy use must be in accordance with whichever version is selected. On or after April 11, 2022, any representations of volume and energy use must be based on the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.
</P>
<P>For refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers, the rounding requirements specified in sections 4 and 5 of this appendix are not required for use until the compliance date of any amendment of energy conservation standards for these products published after October 12, 2021.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Referenced Materials
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference AHAM HRF-1-2019, <I>Energy and Internal Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products</I> (“HRF-1-2019”), and AS/NZS 4474.1:2007, <I>Performance of Household Electrical Appliances—Refrigerating Appliances; Part 1: Energy Consumption and Performance, Second Edition</I> (“AS/NZS 4474.1:2007”), in their entirety in § 430.3; however, only enumerated provisions of these documents are applicable to this appendix. If there is any conflict between HRF-1-2019 and this appendix or between AS/NZS 4474.1:2007 and this appendix, follow the language of the test procedure in this appendix, disregarding the conflicting industry standard language.
</P>
<P>(a) AHAM HRF-1-2019, (“HRF-1-2019”), Energy and Internal Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3—Definitions, as specified in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 4—Method for Determining the Refrigerated Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products, as specified in section 4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 5—Method for Determining the Energy Consumption of Consumer Refrigeration Products (excluding Table 5-1 and sections 5.5.6.5, 5.8.2.1.2, 5.8.2.1.3, 5.8.2.1.4, 5.8.2.1.5, and 5.8.2.1.6), as specified in section 5 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 6—Method for Determining the Adjusted Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products, as specified in section 4.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) AS/NZS 4474.1:2007, (“AS/NZS 4474.1:2007”), Performance of Household Electrical Appliances—Refrigerating Appliances; Part 1: Energy Consumption and Performance, Second Edition:
</P>
<P>(i) Appendix M—Method of Interpolation When Two Controls are Adjusted, as specified in sections 5.2(b) and 5.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]


</P>
<HD2>2. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix provides the test procedure for measuring the annual energy use in kilowatt-hours per year (kWh/yr), the total refrigerated volume in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>), and the total adjusted volume in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>) of refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers, and miscellaneous refrigeration products.


</P>
<HD2>3. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>Section 3, <I>Definitions,</I> of HRF-1-2019 applies to this test procedure. In case of conflicting terms between HRF-1-2019 and DOE's definitions in this appendix or in § 430.2, DOE's definitions take priority.


</P>
<P><I>Door-in-door</I> means a set of doors or an outer door and inner drawer for which—
</P>
<P>(a) Both doors (or both the door and the drawer) must be opened to provide access to the interior through a single opening;
</P>
<P>(b) Gaskets for both doors (or both the door and the drawer) are exposed to external ambient conditions on the outside around the full perimeter of the respective openings; and
</P>
<P>(c) The space between the two doors (or between the door and the drawer) achieves temperature levels consistent with the temperature requirements of the interior compartment to which the door-in-door provides access.


</P>
<P><I>Through-the-door ice/water dispenser</I> means a device incorporated within the cabinet, but outside the boundary of the refrigerated space, that delivers to the user on demand ice and may also deliver water from within the refrigerated space without opening an exterior door. This definition includes dispensers that are capable of dispensing ice and water or ice only.


</P>
<P><I>Transparent door</I> means an external fresh food compartment door which meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) The area of the transparent portion of the door is at least 40 percent of the area of the door.
</P>
<P>(b) The area of the door is at least 50 percent of the sum of the areas of all the external doors providing access to the fresh food compartments and cooler compartments.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this evaluation, the area of a door is determined as the product of the maximum height and maximum width dimensions of the door, not considering potential extension of flaps used to provide a seal to adjacent doors.


</P>
<HD2>4. Volume
</HD2>
<P>Determine the refrigerated volume and adjusted volume for refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers, and miscellaneous refrigeration products in accordance with the following sections of HRF-1-2019, respectively:
</P>
<P>4.1. Section 4, Method for Determining the Refrigerated Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products; and
</P>
<P>4.2. Section 6, Method for Determining the Adjusted Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products.
</P>
<HD2>5. Energy Consumption
</HD2>
<P>Determine the annual energy use (“AEU”) in kilowatt-hours per year (kWh/yr), for refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers, and miscellaneous refrigeration products in accordance with section 5, <I>Method for Determining the Energy Consumption of Consumer Refrigeration Products,</I> of HRF-1-2019, except as follows.
</P>
<HD3>5.1. Test Setup and Test Conditions
</HD3>
<P>(a) In section 5.3.1 of HRF-1-2019, the top of the unit shall be determined by the refrigerated cabinet height, excluding any accessories or protruding components on the top of the unit.
</P>
<P>(b) The ambient temperature and vertical ambient temperature gradient requirements specified in section 5.3.1 of HRF-1-2019 shall be maintained during both the stabilization period and the test period.
</P>
<P>(c) The power supply requirements as specified in section 5.5.1 of HRF-1-2019 shall be maintained based on measurement intervals not to exceed one minute.
</P>
<P>(d) The ice storage compartment temperature requirement as specified in section 5.5.6.5 in HRF-1-2019 is not required.
</P>
<P>(e) For cases in which setup is not clearly defined by this test procedure, manufacturers must submit a petition for a waiver (See section 6 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>(f) If the interior arrangements of the unit under test do not conform with those shown in Figures 5-1 or 5-2 of HRF-1-2019, as appropriate, the unit must be tested by relocating the temperature sensors from the locations specified in the figures to avoid interference with hardware or components within the unit, in which case the specific locations used for the temperature sensors shall be noted in the test data records maintained by the manufacturer in accordance with 10 CFR 429.71, and the certification report shall indicate that non-standard sensor locations were used. If any temperature sensor is relocated by any amount from the location prescribed in Figure 5-1 or 5-2 of HRF-1-2019 in order to maintain a minimum 1-inch air space from adjustable shelves or other components that could be relocated by the consumer, except in cases in which the Figures prescribe a temperature sensor location within 1 inch of a shelf or similar feature (<I>e.g.,</I> sensor T3 in Figure 5-1), this constitutes a relocation of temperature sensors that must be recorded in the test data and reported in the certification report as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<HD3>5.2. Test Conduct
</HD3>
<P>(a) Standard Approach
</P>
<P>(i) For the purposes of comparing compartment temperatures with standardized temperatures, as described in section 5.6 of HRF-1-2019, the freezer compartment temperature shall be as specified in section 5.8.1.2.5 of HRF-1-2019, the fresh food compartment temperature shall be as specified in section 5.8.1.2.4 of HRF-1-2019, and the cooler compartment temperature shall be as specified in section 5.8.1.2.6 of HRF-1-2019.
</P>
<P>(ii) In place of Table 5-1 in HRF-1-2019, refer to Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Temperature Settings: General Chart for All Products
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">First test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Second test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Energy
<br/>calculation based on:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Setting
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Results
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Setting
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Results
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mid for all Compartments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All compartments below standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Warmest for all Compartments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All compartments below standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Second Test Only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One or more compartments above standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First and Second Test.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One or more compartments above standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coldest for all Compartments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All compartments below standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First and Second Test.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One or more compartments above standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Model may not be certified as compliant with energy conservation standards based on testing of this unit. Confirm that unit meets product definition. If so, see section 6 of this appendix.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Three-Point Interpolation Method (Optional Test for Models with Two Compartments and User-Operable Controls). As specified in section 5.6.3(6) of HRF-1-2019, and as an optional alternative to section 5.2(a) of this appendix, perform three tests such that the set of tests meets the “minimum requirements for interpolation” of AS/NZS 4474.1:2007 appendix M, section M3, paragraphs (a) through (c) and as illustrated in Figure M1. The target temperatures txA and txB defined in section M4(a)(i) of AS/NZ 4474.1:2007 shall be the standardized temperatures defined in section 5.6 of HRF-1-2019.
</P>
<HD3>5.3. Test Cycle Energy Calculations
</HD3>
<P>Section 5.8.2, <I>Energy Consumption,</I> of HRF-1-2019 applies to this test procedure, except as follows:


</P>
<P>(a) In place of section 5.8.2.1.2 of HRF-1-2019, use the calculations provided in this section. For units with long-time automatic defrost control using the two-part test period, the test cycle energy shall be calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12oc21.001.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ET = test cycle energy expended in kilowatt-hours per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1440 = conversion factor to adjust to a 24-hour average use cycle in minutes per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = dimensionless correction factor of 1.0 for refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers and 0.55 for miscellaneous refrigeration products.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EP1 = energy expended in kilowatt-hours during the first part of the test;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EP2 = energy expended in kilowatt-hours during the second part of the test;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T1 and T2 = length of time in minutes of the first and second test parts, respectively;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT = defrost timer run time or compressor run time between defrosts in hours required to go through a complete cycle, rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>12 = factor to adjust for a 50-percent run time of the compressor in hours per day.
</FP-2>
<P>(b) In place of sections 5.8.2.1.3 and 5.8.2.1.4 of HRF-1-2019, use the calculations provided in this section. For units with variable defrost control, the test cycle energy shall be calculated as set forth in section 5.3(a) of this appendix with the following addition:
</P>
<P>CT shall be calculated equivalent to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12oc21.002.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">L</E> = the least or shortest compressor run time between defrosts used in the variable defrost control algorithm (greater than or equal to 6 but less than or equal to 12 hours), or the shortest compressor run time between defrosts observed for the test (if it is shorter than the shortest run time used in the control algorithm and is greater than 6 hours), or 6 hours (if the shortest observed run time is less than 6 hours), in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">M</E> = the maximum compressor run time between defrosts in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour (greater than CT<E T="52">L</E> but not more than 96 hours);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For variable defrost models with no values of CT<E T="52">L</E> and CT<E T="52">M</E> in the algorithm, the default values of 6 and 96 shall be used, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F = ratio of per day energy consumption in excess of the least energy and the maximum difference in per-day energy consumption and is equal to 0.20.
</FP-2>
<P>(c) In place of section 5.8.2.1.5 of HRF-1-2019, use the calculations provided in this section. For multiple-compressor products with automatic defrost, the two-part test method in section 5.7.2.1 of HRF-1-2019 shall be used, and the test cycle energy shall be calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12oc21.003.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ET, 1440, 12, and K are defined in section 5.3(a) of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EP1, and T1 are defined in section 5.3(a) of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = a subscript variable that can equal 1, 2, or more that identifies each individual compressor system that has automatic defrost;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D = the total number of compressor systems with automatic defrost;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EP2<E T="52">i</E> = energy expended in kilowatt-hours during the second part of the test for compressor system i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T2<E T="52">i</E> = length of time in minutes of the second part of the test for compressor system i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">i</E> = compressor run time between defrosts of compressor system i, rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour, for long-time automatic defrost control equal to a fixed time in hours, and for variable defrost control equal to:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er12oc21.004.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">L,i</E> = for compressor system i, the shortest cumulative compressor-on time between defrost heater-on events used in the variable defrost control algorithm (CT<E T="52">L</E> for the compressor system with the longest compressor run time between defrosts must be greater than or equal to 6 but less than or equal to 12 hours), in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">M,i</E> = for compressor system i, the maximum compressor-on time between defrost heater-on events used in the variable defrost control algorithm (greater than CT<E T="52">L,i</E> but not more than 96 hours), in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For defrost cycle types with no values of CT<E T="52">L</E> and CT<E T="52">M</E> in the algorithm, the default values of 6 and 96 shall be used, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F = ratio of per day energy consumption in excess of the least energy and the maximum difference in per-day energy consumption and is equal to 0.20.
</FP-2>
<P>(d) In place of section 5.8.2.1.6 of HRF-1-2019, use the calculations provided in this section. For units with long-time automatic defrost control and variable defrost control with multiple defrost cycle types, the two-part test method in section 5.7.2.1 of HRF-1-2019 shall be used, and the test cycle energy shall be calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12oc21.005.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ET, 1440, 12, and K are defined in section 5.3(a) of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EP1, and T1 are defined in section 5.3(a) of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = a subscript variable that can equal 1, 2, or more that identifies the distinct defrost cycle types applicable for the product;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D = the total number of defrost cycle types;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EP2<E T="52">i</E> = energy expended in kilowatt-hours during the second part of the test for defrost cycle type i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T2<E T="52">i</E> = length of time in minutes of the second part of the test for defrost cycle type i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">i</E> = defrost timer run time or compressor run time between instances of defrost cycle type i, rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>12 = factor to adjust for a 50-percent run time of the compressor in hours per day.
</FP-2>
<P>(i) For long-time automatic defrost control, CTi shall be equal to a fixed time in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour. For cases in which there are more than one fixed CT value for a given defrost cycle type, an average fixed CT value shall be selected for this cycle type.
</P>
<P>(ii) For variable defrost control, CTi shall be calculated equivalent to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12oc21.006.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">L,i</E> = the least or shortest compressor run time between instances of the defrost cycle type i in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour (CT<E T="52">L</E> for the defrost cycle type with the longest compressor run time between defrosts must be greater than or equal to 6 but less than or equal to 12 hours);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">M,i</E> = the maximum compressor run time between instances of defrost cycle type i in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour (greater than CT<E T="52">L,i</E> but not more than 96 hours);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For cases in which there are more than one CT<E T="52">M</E> and/or CT<E T="52">L</E> value for a given defrost cycle type, an average of the CT<E T="52">M</E> and CT<E T="52">L</E> values shall be selected for this defrost cycle type. For defrost cycle types with no values of CT<E T="52">L</E> and CT<E T="52">M</E> in the algorithm, the default values of 6 and 96 shall be used, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F = ratio of per day energy consumption in excess of the least energy and the maximum difference in per-day energy consumption and is equal to 0.20.
</FP-2>
<HD3>5.4. <I>Icemaker Energy Use</I>
</HD3>
<P>(a) For refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers: To demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards at § 430.32(a) applicable to products manufactured on or after September 15, 2014, but before the compliance date of any amended standards published after January 1, 2022, IET, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle, equals 0.23 for a product with one or more automatic icemakers and otherwise equals 0 (zero). To demonstrate compliance with any amended standards published after January 1, 2022, IET, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle, is as defined in section 5.9.2.1 of HRF-1-2019.
</P>
<P>(b) For miscellaneous refrigeration products: To demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards at § 430.32(aa) applicable to products manufactured on or after October 28, 2019, IET, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle, equals 0.23 for a product with one or more automatic icemakers and otherwise equals 0 (zero).
</P>
<HD3>5.5. <I>Triangulation Method</I>
</HD3>
<P>If the three-point interpolation method of section 5.2(b) of this appendix is used for setting temperature controls, the average per-cycle energy consumption shall be defined as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>E = E<E T="52">X</E> + IET
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E is defined in section 5.9.1.1 of HRF-1-2019;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IET is defined in section 5.4 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">X</E> is defined and calculated as described in appendix M, section M4(a) of AS/NZS 4474.1:2007. The target temperatures t<E T="52">xA</E> and t<E T="52">xB</E> defined in section M4(a)(i) of AS/NZS 4474.1:2007 shall be the standardized temperatures defined in section 5.6 of HRF-1-2019.


</FP-2>
<HD2>6. Test Procedure Waivers
</HD2>
<P>To the extent that the procedures contained in this appendix do not provide a means for determining the energy consumption of a basic model, a manufacturer must obtain a waiver under § 430.27 to establish an acceptable test procedure for each such basic model. Such instances could, for example, include situations where the test setup for a particular basic model is not clearly defined by the provisions of this appendix. For details regarding the criteria and procedures for obtaining a waiver, please refer to § 430.27.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 56821, Oct. 12, 2021, as amended at 89 FR 3112, Jan. 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Freezers






</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to April 11, 2022, any representations of volume and energy use of freezers must be based on the results of testing pursuant to either this appendix or the procedures in appendix B as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, appendix B, in the 10 CFR parts 200 to 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2019. Any representations of volume and energy use must be in accordance with whichever version is selected. On or after April 11, 2022, any representations of volume and energy use must be based on the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.
</P>
<P>For freezers, the rounding requirements specified in sections 4 and 5 of this appendix are not required for use until the compliance date of any amendment of energy conservation standards for these products published after October 12, 2021.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Referenced Materials
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference HRF-1-2019, <I>Energy and Internal Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products</I> (“HRF-1-2019”) in its entirety in § 430.3; however, only enumerated provisions of this document are applicable to this appendix. If there is any conflict between HRF-1-2019 and this appendix, follow the language of the test procedure in this appendix, disregarding the conflicting industry standard language.
</P>
<P>(a) AHAM HRF-1-2019, (“HRF-1-2019”), Energy and Internal Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3—Definitions, as specified in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 4—Method for Determining the Refrigerated Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products, as specified in section 4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 5—Method for Determining the Energy Consumption of Consumer Refrigeration Products (excluding Table 5-1 and sections 5.5.6.5, 5.8.2.1.2, 5.8.2.1.3, 5.8.2.1.4, 5.8.2.1.5, and 5.8.2.1.6), as specified in section 5 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 6—Method for Determining the Adjusted Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products, as specified in section 4.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Reserved.
</P>
<P>If there is any conflict between HRF-1—2019 and this appendix, follow the language of the test procedure in this appendix, disregarding the conflicting industry standard language.
</P>
<HD2>2. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix provides the test procedure for measuring the annual energy use in kilowatt-hours per year (kWh/yr), the total refrigerated volume in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>), and the total adjusted volume in cubic feet (ft
<SU>3</SU>) of freezers.
</P>
<HD2>3. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>Section 3, <I>Definitions,</I> of HRF-1-2019 applies to this test procedure. In case of conflicting terms between HRF-1-2019 and DOE's definitions in this appendix or in § 430.2, DOE's definitions take priority.
</P>
<P><I>Through-the-door ice/water dispenser</I> means a device incorporated within the cabinet, but outside the boundary of the refrigerated space, that delivers to the user on demand ice and may also deliver water from within the refrigerated space without opening an exterior door. This definition includes dispensers that are capable of dispensing ice and water or ice only.
</P>
<HD2>4. Volume
</HD2>
<P>Determine the refrigerated volume and adjusted volume for freezers in accordance with the following sections of HRF-1-2019, respectively:
</P>
<P>4.1. Section 4, Method for Determining the Refrigerated Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products; and
</P>
<P>4.2. Section 6, Method for Determining the Adjusted Volume of Consumer Refrigeration Products.
</P>
<HD2>5. Energy Consumption
</HD2>
<P>Determine the annual energy use (“AEU”) in kilowatt-hours per year (kWh/yr), for freezers in accordance with section 5, <I>Method for Determining the Energy Consumption of Consumer Refrigeration Products,</I> of HRF-1-2019, except as follows.
</P>
<HD3>5.1. Test Setup and Test Conditions
</HD3>
<P>(a) In section 5.3.1 of HRF-1-2019, the top of the unit shall be determined by the refrigerated cabinet height, excluding any accessories or protruding components on the top of the unit.
</P>
<P>(b) The ambient temperature and vertical ambient temperature gradient requirements specified in section 5.3.1 of HRF-1-2019 shall be maintained during both the stabilization period and the test period.
</P>
<P>(c) The power supply requirements as specified in section 5.5.1 of HRF-1-2019 shall be maintained based on measurement intervals not to exceed one minute.
</P>
<P>(d) The ice storage compartment temperature requirement as specified in section 5.5.6.5 in HRF-1-2019 is not required.
</P>
<P>(e) For cases in which setup is not clearly defined by this test procedure, manufacturers must submit a petition for a waiver (See section 6 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>(f) If the interior arrangements of the unit under test do not conform with those shown in Figure 5-2 of HRF-1-2019, as appropriate, the unit must be tested by relocating the temperature sensors from the locations specified in the figures to avoid interference with hardware or components within the unit, in which case the specific locations used for the temperature sensors shall be noted in the test data records maintained by the manufacturer in accordance with 10 CFR 429.71, and the certification report shall indicate that non-standard sensor locations were used. If any temperature sensor is relocated by any amount from the location prescribed in Figure 5-2 of HRF-1- 2019 in order to maintain a minimum 1-inch air space from adjustable shelves or other components that could be relocated by the consumer, except in cases in which the Figure prescribes a temperature sensor location within 1 inch of a shelf or similar feature, this constitutes a relocation of temperature sensors that must be recorded in the test data and reported in the certification report as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<HD3>5.2. Test Conduct
</HD3>
<P>(a) For the purposes of comparing compartment temperatures with standardized temperatures, as described in section 5.6 of HRF-1-2019, the freezer compartment temperature shall be as specified in section 5.8.1.2.5 of HRF-1-2019.
</P>
<P>(b) In place of Table 5-1 in HRF-1-2019, refer to Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Temperature Settings for Freezers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">First test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Second test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Energy calculation based on:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Setting
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Results
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Setting
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Results
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Below standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Warmest</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Below standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Second Test Only.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First and Second Test.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coldest</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Below standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First and Second Test.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above standard reference temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Model may not be certified as compliant with energy conservation standards based on testing of this unit. Confirm that unit meets product definition. If so, see section 6 of this appendix.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>5.3. Test Cycle Energy Calculations
</HD3>
<P>Section 5.8.2, <I>Energy Consumption,</I> of HRF-1-2019 applies to this test procedure, except as follows:


</P>
<P>(a) In place of section 5.8.2.1.2 of HRF-1-2019, use the calculations provided in this section. For units with long-time automatic defrost control using the two-part test period, the test cycle energy shall be calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12oc21.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ET = test cycle energy expended in kilowatt-hours per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1440 = conversion factor to adjust to a 24-hour average use cycle in minutes per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = dimensionless correction factor of 0.7 for chest freezers and 0.85 for upright freezers.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EP1 = energy expended in kilowatt-hours during the first part of the test;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EP2 = energy expended in kilowatt-hours during the second part of the test;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T1 and T2 = length of time in minutes of the first and second test parts, respectively;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT = defrost timer run time or compressor run time between defrosts in hours required to go through a complete cycle, rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>12 = factor to adjust for a 50-percent run time of the compressor in hours per day.
</FP-2>
<P>(b) In place of sections 5.8.2.1.3 and 5.8.2.1.4 of HRF-1-2019, use the calculations provided in this section. For units with variable defrost control, the test cycle energy shall be calculated as set forth in section 5.3(a) of this appendix with the following addition:
</P>
<P>CT shall be calculated equivalent to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12oc21.008.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">L</E> = the least or shortest compressor run time between defrosts used in the variable defrost control algorithm (greater than or equal to 6 but less than or equal to 12 hours), or the shortest compressor run time between defrosts observed for the test (if it is shorter than the shortest run time used in the control algorithm and is greater than 6 hours), or 6 hours (if the shortest observed run time is less than 6 hours), in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CT<E T="52">M</E> = the maximum compressor run time between defrosts in hours rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour (greater than CT<E T="52">L</E> but not more than 96 hours);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For variable defrost models with no values of CT<E T="52">L</E> and CT<E T="52">M</E> in the algorithm, the default values of 6 and 96 shall be used, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F = ratio of per day energy consumption in excess of the least energy and the maximum difference in per-day energy consumption and is equal to 0.20.
</FP-2>
<HD3>5.4. <I>Icemaker Energy Use</I>
</HD3>
<P>For freezers: To demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards at § 430.32(a) applicable to products manufactured on or after September 15, 2014, but before the compliance date of any amended standards published after January 1, 2022, IET, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle, equals 0.23 for a product with one or more automatic icemakers and otherwise equals 0 (zero). To demonstrate compliance with any amended standards published after January 1, 2022, IET, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle, is as defined in section 5.9.2.1 of HRF-1-2019.




</P>
<HD2>6. Test Procedure Waivers
</HD2>
<P>To the extent that the procedures contained in this appendix do not provide a means for determining the energy consumption of a basic model, a manufacturer must obtain a waiver under § 430.27 to establish an acceptable test procedure for each such basic model. Such instances could, for example, include situations where the test setup for a particular basic model is not clearly defined by the provisions of this appendix. For details regarding the criteria and procedures for obtaining a waiver, please refer to § 430.27.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 56824, Oct. 12, 2021, as amended at 89 FR 3113, Jan. 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C1 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Dishwashers
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standards provided at § 430.32(f)(1).
</P>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix C2 to this subpart to determine compliance with the amended standards for dishwashers provided at § 430.32(f)(2). Manufacturers may use appendix C2 to certify compliance with the standards provided at § 430.32(f)(2) prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.
</P>
<P>Any representations related to energy or water consumption of dishwashers must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix C1 or appendix C2) when determining compliance with the relevant standards.
</P>
<P>The regulation at 10 CFR 429.19(b)(3) provides instructions regarding the combination of detergent and detergent dosing, specified in section 2.5 of this appendix, used for certification.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>In § 430.3, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AHAM DW-1-2020 and AHAM DW-2-2020; however, only enumerated provision of AHAM DW-1-2020, AHAM DW-2-2020, and IEC 62301 are applicable as follows:
</P>
<HD3>0.1 AHAM DW-1-2020
</HD3>
<P>(a) Sections 1.1 through 1.30 as referenced in section 1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2.1 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Sections 2.2 through 2.3.3, sections 2.5 through 2.7, sections 2.7.2 through 2.8, and section 2.11, as referenced in section 2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 2.4 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 2.7.1 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 2.9 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 2.10 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.5 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Sections 3.1 through 3.2 and sections 3.5 through 3.7 as referenced in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3.3 as referenced in sections 3 and 3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 3.4 as referenced in sections 3 and 3.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(k) Sections 4.1 through 4.1.2 and sections 4.1.4 through 4.2 as referenced in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(l) Section 4.1.4 as referenced in sections 4 and 4.1 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(m) Section 5 as referenced in section 5 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 AHAM DW-2-2020: Household Electric Dishwashers
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3.4 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.3 of this appendix, and through reference to sections 1.5 and 1.22 of AHAM DW-1-2020 in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3.5 through reference to sections 1.5 and 1.22 of AHAM DW-1-2020 in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.1 as referenced in section 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Sections 5.3 through 5.8 as referenced in section 2 of this appendix, and through reference to sections 1.18, 1.19, and 1.20 of AHAM DW-1-2020 in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.3 IEC 62301
</HD3>
<P>(a) Sections 4.2, 4.3.2, and 5.2 as referenced in section 2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 5.1, note 1, and 5.3.2 as referenced in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The definitions in sections 1.1 through 1.30 of AHAM DW-1-2020 apply to this test procedure, including the applicable provisions of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in sections 1.5, 1.18, 1.19. 1.20, and 1.22 of AHAM DW-1-2020.
</P>
<HD2>2. Testing Conditions
</HD2>
<P>The testing conditions in sections 2.1 through 2.11 of AHAM DW-1-2020 apply to this test procedure, including the following provisions of:
</P>
<P>(a) Sections 5.2, 4.3.2, and 4.2 of IEC 62301 as referenced in sections 2.1, 2.2.4, and 2.5.2 of AHAM DW-1-2020, respectively, and
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 5.3 through 5.8 of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in sections 2.6.3.1, 2.6.3.2, and 2.6.3.3 of AHAM DW-1-2020; section 3.4 of AHAM DW-2-2020, excluding the accompanying Note, as referenced in section 2.7.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020; section 5.4 of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in section 2.7.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020; section 5.5 of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in section 2.7.5 of AHAM DW-1-2020, and section 4.1 of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in section 2.10.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020. Additionally, the following requirements are also applicable.
</P>
<P>2.1 <I>Installation Requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>The installation requirements described in section 2.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers, with the following additions:
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>In-Sink Dishwashers.</I>
</P>
<P>For in-sink dishwashers, the requirements pertaining to the rectangular enclosure for under-counter or under-sink dishwashers are not applicable. For such dishwashers, the rectangular enclosure must consist of a front, a back, two sides, and a bottom. The front, back, and sides of the enclosure must be brought into the closest contact with the appliance that the configuration of the dishwasher will allow. The height of the enclosure shall be as specified in the manufacturer's instructions for installation height. If no instructions are provided, the enclosure height shall be 36 inches. The dishwasher must be installed from the top and mounted to the edges of the enclosure.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 <I>Dishwashers without a Direct Water Line.</I>
</P>
<P>Manually fill the built-in water reservoir to the full capacity reported by the manufacturer, using water at a temperature in accordance with section 2.3 of AHAM DW-1-2020.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Water pressure.</I>
</P>
<P>The water pressure requirements described in section 2.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except dishwashers that do not have a direct water line.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Test load items.</I>
</P>
<P>The test load items described in section 2.7.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020 apply to this test procedure, including the applicable provisions of section 3.4 of AHAM DW-2-2020, as referenced in section 2.7.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020. The following test load items may be used in the alternative.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dishware/glassware/flatware item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Primary source
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Primary No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Alternate source
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Alternate source No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinner Plate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 inch Dinner Plate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6003893
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bread and Butter Plate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.75 inch Bread &amp; Butter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6003887</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arzberg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8500217100 or 2000-00001-0217-1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fruit Bowl</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 oz. Dessert Bowl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6003899</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arzberg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3820513100.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 oz. Ceramic Cup</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6014162</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arzberg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1382-00001-4732.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saucer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 inch Saucer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6010972</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arzberg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1382-00001-4731.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Serving Bowl</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 qt. Serving Bowl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6003911
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5 inch Oval Platter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6011655
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glass—Iced Tea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Libbey</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">551 HT
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Knife</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619KPVF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Gastro 0800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0803.6047.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Dinner Fork</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619FRSF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1905.6040.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Salad Fork</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619FSLF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1964.6040.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Teaspoon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619STSF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1910.6040.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Serving Fork</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Flight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2865FCM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1902.6040.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Serving Spoon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619STBF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1904.6040.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.4 <I>Preconditioning requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>The preconditioning requirements described in section 2.9 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers. For dishwashers that do not have a direct water line, measurement of the prewash fill water volume, V<E T="52">pw</E>, if any, and measurement of the main wash fill water volume, V<E T="52">mw</E>, are not taken.


</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Detergent.</I>


</P>
<P>2.5.1 <I>Detergent Formulation.</I> Either Cascade with the Grease Fighting Power of Dawn or Cascade Complete Powder may be used.








</P>
<P>2.5.2 <I>Detergent Dosage.</I>




</P>
<P>2.5.2.1 <I>Dosage for any dishwasher other than water re-use system dishwashers.</I>
</P>
<P>If Cascade with the Grease Fighting Power of Dawn detergent is used, the detergent dosing specified in section 2.5.2.1.1 of this appendix must be used.
</P>
<P>If Cascade Complete Powder detergent is used, consult the introductory note to this appendix regarding use of the detergent dosing specified in either section 2.5.2.1.1 or section 2.5.2.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.5.2.1.1 <I>Dosage based on fill water volumes.</I> Determine detergent dosage as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Prewash Detergent Dosing.</I> If the cycle setting for the test cycle includes prewash, determine the quantity of dry prewash detergent, D<E T="52">pw,</E> in grams (g) that results in 0.25 percent concentration by mass in the prewash fill water as:
</P>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">pw</E> = V<E T="52">pw</E> × ρ × k × 0.25/100
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">pw</E> = the prewash fill volume of water in gallons,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ = water density = 8.343 pounds (lb)/gallon for dishwashers to be tested at a nominal inlet water temperature of 50 °F (10 °C), 8.250 lb/gallon for dishwashers to be tested at a nominal inlet water temperature of 120 °F (49 °C), and 8.205 lb/gallon for dishwashers to be tested at a nominal inlet water temperature of 140 °F (60 °C), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = conversion factor from lb to g = 453.6 g/lb.
</FP-2>
<P><I>Main Wash Detergent Dosing.</I> Determine the quantity of dry main wash detergent, D<E T="52">mw,</E> in grams (g) that results in 0.25 percent concentration by mass in the main wash fill water as:
</P>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">mw</E> = V<E T="52">mw</E> × ρ × k × 0.25/100
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">mw</E> = the main wash fill volume of water in gallons, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ and k are as defined above.
</FP-2>
<P>For dishwashers that do not have a direct water line, V<E T="52">mw</E> is equal to the manufacturer reported water capacity used in the main wash stage of the test cycle.
</P>
<P>2.5.2.1.2 <I>Dosage based on number of place settings.</I> Determine detergent dosage as specified in sections 2.10 and 2.10.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020.
</P>
<P>2.5.2.2 <I>Dosage for water re-use system dishwashers.</I> Determine detergent dosage as specified in section 2.10.2 of AHAM DW-1-2020.
</P>
<P>2.5.3 <I>Detergent Placement.</I>
</P>
<P>Prewash and main wash detergent must be placed as specified in sections 2.10 and 2.10.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020. For any dishwasher that does not have a main wash detergent compartment and the manufacturer does not recommend a location to place the main wash detergent, place the main wash detergent directly into the dishwasher chamber.


</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Connected functionality.</I>
</P>
<P>For dishwashers that can communicate through a network (<I>e.g.,</I> Bluetooth® or internet connection), disable all network functions that can be disabled by means provided in the manufacturer's user manual, for the duration of testing. If network functions cannot be disabled by means provided in the manufacturer's user manual, conduct the standby power test with network function in the “as-shipped” condition.
</P>
<HD2>3. Instrumentation
</HD2>
<P>For this test procedure, the test instruments are to be calibrated annually according to the specifications in sections 3.1 through 3.7 of AHAM DW-1-2020, including the applicable provisions of IEC 62301 as referenced in section 3.6 of AHAM DW-1-2020. Additionally, the following requirements are also applicable.
</P>
<P>3.1 <I>Water meter.</I>
</P>
<P>The water meter requirements described in section 3.3 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except dishwashers that do not have a direct water line. For such dishwashers these water meter conditions do not apply and water is added manually pursuant to section 2.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Water pressure gauge.</I>
</P>
<P>The water pressure gauge requirements described in section 3.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except dishwashers that do not have a direct water line. For such dishwashers these water pressure gauge conditions do not apply and water is added manually pursuant to section 2.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>4. Test Cycle and Measurements
</HD2>
<P>The test cycle and measurement specifications in sections 4.1 through 4.2 of AHAM DW-1-2020 apply to this test procedure, including section 5.1, note 1, and section 5.3.2 of IEC 62301 as referenced in section 4.2 of AHAM DW-1-2020. Additionally, the following requirements are also applicable.
</P>
<P>4.1 <I>Water consumption.</I>
</P>
<P>The water consumption requirements described in section 4.1.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except dishwashers that do not have a direct water line. For such dishwashers these water consumption measurement requirements do not apply and water consumption, V, is the value reported by the manufacturer.
</P>
<HD2>5. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD2>
<P>The calculations in section 5.1 through 5.7 of AHAM DW-1-2020 apply to this test procedure. The following additional requirements are also applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) In sections 5.1.3, 5.1.4, 5.1.5, 5.4.3, 5.4.4, 5.4.5, and 5.7 of AHAM DW-1-2020, use N = 215 cycles/year in place of N = 184 cycles/year.
</P>
<P>(b) In section 5.7 of AHAM DW-1-2020, use S<E T="52">LP</E> = 8,465 for dishwashers that are not capable of operating in fan-only mode.
</P>
<P>(c) For dishwashers that do not have a direct water line, water consumption is equal to the volume of water use in the test cycle, as specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(d) In sections 5.6.1.3, 5.6.1.4, 5.6.2.3, and 5.6.2.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020, use (C/e) in place of K.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 3277, Jan. 18, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 48357, July 27, 2023; 89 FR 83617, Oct. 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C2" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C2 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Dishwashers
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standards provided at § 430.32(f)(2). Manufacturers may use this appendix to certify compliance with the standards provided at § 430.32(f)(2) prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.
</P>
<P>Any representations related to energy or water consumption of dishwashers must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix C1 or appendix C2) when determining compliance with the relevant standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>In § 430.3, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AHAM DW-1-2020 and AHAM DW-2-2020; however, only enumerated provision of AHAM DW-1-2020, AHAM DW-2-2020, and IEC 62301 are applicable as follows:
</P>
<HD3>0.1 AHAM DW-1-2020
</HD3>
<P>(a) Sections 1.1 through 1.30 as referenced in section 1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2.1 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Sections 2.2 through 2.3.3, sections 2.5 and 2.7, sections 2.7.2 through 2.8, and section 2.11, as referenced in section 2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 2.4 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 2.6.3 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 2.7.1 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 2.9 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.5 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 2.10 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.6 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 3.1 through 3.2 and sections 3.5 through 3.7 as referenced in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 3.3 as referenced in sections 3 and 3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(k) Section 3.4 as referenced in sections 3 and 3.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(l) Section 4.1 as referenced in sections 4 and 4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(m) Section 4.1.4 as referenced in sections 4 and 4.1.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(n) Section 5 as referenced in section 5 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 AHAM DW-2-2020
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3.4 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.4 of this appendix, and through reference to sections 1.5 and 1.22 of AHAM DW-1-2020 in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3.5 through reference to sections 1.5 and 1.22 of AHAM DW-1-2020 in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.1 as referenced in section 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Sections 5.3 through 5.8 as referenced in section 2 of this appendix, and through reference to sections 1.18, 1.19 and 1.20 of AHAM DW-1-2020 in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5.10 as referenced in sections 2 and 2.8 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Sections 5.10.1.1 as referenced in sections 4 and 4.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(g) Section 5.12.3.1 as referenced in sections 5 and 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.3 IEC 62301
</HD3>
<P>(a) Sections 4.2, 4.3.2, and 5.2 as referenced in section 2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 5.1, note 1, and 5.3.2 as referenced in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The definitions in sections 1.1 through 1.30 of AHAM DW-1-2020 apply to this test procedure, including the applicable provisions of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in sections 1.5, 1.18, 1.19, 1.20, and 1.22 of AHAM DW-1-2020.
</P>
<HD2>2. Testing Conditions
</HD2>
<P>The testing conditions in Section 2.1 through 2.11 of AHAM DW-1-2020, except sections 2.6.1 and 2.6.2, and the testing conditions in section 5.10 of AHAM DW-2-2020 apply to this test procedure, including the following provisions of:
</P>
<P>(a) Sections 5.2, 4.3.2, and 4.2 of IEC 62301 as referenced in sections 2.1, 2.2.4, and 2.5.2 of AHAM DW-1-2020, respectively, and
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 5.3 through 5.8 of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in sections 2.6.3.1, 2.6.3.2, and 2.6.3.3 of AHAM DW-1-2020; section 3.4 of AHAM DW-2-2020, excluding the accompanying Note, as referenced in section 2.7.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020; section 5.4 of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in section 2.7.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020; section 5.5 of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in section 2.7.5 of AHAM DW-1-2020, and section 4.1 of AHAM DW-2-2020 as referenced in section 2.10.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020. Additionally, the following requirements are also applicable.
</P>
<P>2.1 <I>Installation Requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>The installation requirements described in section 2.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers, with the following additions:
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>In-Sink Dishwashers.</I>
</P>
<P>For in-sink dishwashers, the requirements pertaining to the rectangular enclosure for under-counter or under-sink dishwashers are not applicable. For such dishwashers, the rectangular enclosure must consist of a front, a back, two sides, and a bottom. The front, back, and sides of the enclosure must be brought into the closest contact with the appliance that the configuration of the dishwasher will allow. The height of the enclosure shall be as specified in the manufacturer's instructions for installation height. If no instructions are provided, the enclosure height shall be 36 inches. The dishwasher must be installed from the top and mounted to the edges of the enclosure.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 <I>Dishwashers without a Direct Water Line.</I>
</P>
<P>Manually fill the built-in water reservoir to the full capacity reported by the manufacturer, using water at a temperature in accordance with section 2.3 of AHAM DW-1-2020.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Water pressure.</I>
</P>
<P>The water pressure requirements described in section 2.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except dishwashers that do not have a direct water line.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Non-soil-sensing and soil-sensing dishwashers to be tested at a nominal inlet temperature of 50 °F, 120 °F, or 140 °F.</I>
</P>
<P>The test load and soiling requirements for all non-soil-sensing and soil-sensing dishwashers shall be the same as those requirements specified in section 2.6.3 of AHAM DW-1-2020 for soil-sensing dishwashers. Additionally, both non-soil-sensing and soil-sensing compact dishwashers that have a capacity of less than four place settings shall be tested at the rated capacity of the dishwasher and the test load shall be soiled as follows at each soil load:
</P>
<P>(a) Heavy soil load: soil two-thirds of the place settings, excluding flatware and serving pieces (rounded up to the nearest integer) or one place setting, whichever is greater;
</P>
<P>(b) Medium soil load: soil one-quarter of the place settings, excluding flatware and serving pieces (rounded up to the nearest integer) or one place setting, whichever is smaller;
</P>
<P>(c) Light soil load: soil one-quarter of the place settings, excluding flatware and serving pieces (rounded up to the nearest integer) or one place setting, whichever is smaller, using half the quantity of soils specified for one place setting.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Test load items.</I>
</P>
<P>The test load items described in section 2.7.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020 apply to this test procedure, including the applicable provisions of section 3.4 of AHAM DW-2-2020, as referenced in section 2.7.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020. The following test load items may be used in the alternative.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dishware/glassware/flatware item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Primary source
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Primary No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Alternate source
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Alternate source No.
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dinner Plate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 inch Dinner Plate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6003893
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bread and Butter Plate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.75 inch Bread &amp; Butter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6003887</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arzberg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8500217100 or 2000-00001-0217-1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fruit Bowl</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 oz. Dessert Bowl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6003899</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arzberg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3820513100.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cup</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 oz. Ceramic Cup</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6014162</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arzberg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1382-00001-4732.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Saucer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 inch Saucer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6010972</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arzberg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1382-00001-4731.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Serving Bowl</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 qt. Serving Bowl</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6003911
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Platter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Corning Comcor®/Corelle®</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5 inch Oval Platter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6011655
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glass—Iced Tea</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Libbey</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">551 HT
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Knife</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619KPVF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Gastro 0800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0803.6047.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Dinner Fork</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619FRSF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1905.6040.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Salad Fork</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619FSLF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1964.6040.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Teaspoon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619STSF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1910.6040.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Serving Fork</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Flight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2865FCM</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1902.6040.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flatware—Serving Spoon</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oneida®—Accent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2619STBF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WMF—Signum 1900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.1904.6040.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.5 <I>Preconditioning requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>The preconditioning requirements described in section 2.9 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except the measurement of the prewash fill water volume, V<E T="52">pw</E>, if any, and measurement of the main wash fill water volume, V<E T="52">mw</E>, are not required.
</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Detergent.</I>
</P>
<P>The detergent requirements described in section 2.10 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers. For any dishwasher that does not have a main wash detergent compartment and the manufacturer does not recommend a location to place the main wash detergent, place the detergent directly into the dishwasher chamber.
</P>
<P>2.7 <I>Connected functionality.</I>
</P>
<P>For dishwashers that can communicate through a network (<I>e.g.,</I> Bluetooth® or internet connection), disable all network functions that can be disabled by means provided in the manufacturer's user manual, for the duration of testing. If network functions cannot be disabled by means provided in the manufacturer's user manual, conduct the standby power test with network function in the “as-shipped” condition.
</P>
<P>2.8 <I>Evaluation Room Lighting Conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>The lighting setup in the evaluation room where the test load is scored shall be according to the requirements specified in section 5.10 of AHAM DW-2-2020.
</P>
<HD2>3. Instrumentation
</HD2>
<P>For this test procedure, the test instruments are to be calibrated annually according to the specifications in section 3.1 through 3.7 of AHAM DW-1-2020, including the applicable provisions of IEC 62301 as referenced in section 3.6 of AHAM DW-1-2020. Additionally, the following requirements are also applicable.
</P>
<P>3.1 <I>Water meter.</I>
</P>
<P>The water meter requirements described in section 3.3 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except dishwashers that do not have a direct water line. For such dishwashers these water meter conditions do not apply and water is added manually pursuant to section 2.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Water pressure gauge.</I>
</P>
<P>The water pressure gauge requirements described in section 3.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except dishwashers that do not have a direct water line. For such dishwashers these water pressure gauge conditions do not apply and water is added manually pursuant to section 2.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>4. Test Cycle and Measurements
</HD2>
<P>The test cycle and measurement specifications in sections 4.1 through 4.2 of AHAM DW-1-2020 and the scoring specifications in section 5.10.1.1 of AHAM DW-2-2020 apply to this test procedure, including section 5.1, note 1, and section 5.3.2 of IEC 62301 as referenced in section 4.2 of AHAM DW-1-2020. Additionally, the following requirements are also applicable.
</P>
<P>4.1 <I>Active mode cycle.</I>
</P>
<P>The active mode energy consumption measurement requirements described in section 4.1 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers. Additionally, the following requirements are also applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) After the completion of each test cycle (sensor heavy response, sensor medium response, and sensor light response), the test load shall be scored according to section 4.2 of this appendix and its cleaning index calculated according to section 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) A test cycle is considered valid if its cleaning index is 70 or higher; otherwise, the test cycle is invalid and the data from that test run is discarded.
</P>
<P>(c) For soil-sensing dishwashers, if the test cycle at any soil load is invalid, clean the dishwasher filter according to manufacturer's instructions and repeat the test at that soil load on the most energy-intensive cycle (determined as provided in section 4.1.1 of this appendix) that achieves a cleaning index of 70 or higher.
</P>
<P>(d) For non-soil-sensing dishwashers, perform testing as described in section 4.1.a through 4.1.c of this appendix, except that, if a test cycle at a given soil load meets the cleaning index threshold criteria of 70 when tested on the normal cycle, no further testing is required for test cycles at lesser soil loads.
</P>
<P>4.1.1 <I>Determination of most energy-intensive cycle.</I>
</P>
<P>If the most energy-intensive cycle is not known and needs to be determined via testing, ensure the filter is cleaned as specified in the manufacturer's instructions and test each available cycle type, selecting the default cycle options for that cycle type. In the absence of manufacturer recommendations on washing and drying temperature options, the highest energy consumption options must be selected. Following the completion of each test cycle, the machine electrical energy consumption and water consumption shall be measured according to sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020, respectively. The total cycle energy consumption, E<E T="52">MEI</E>, of each tested cycle type shall be calculated according to section 5.2 of this appendix. The most energy-intensive cycle is the cycle type with the highest value of E<E T="52">MEI</E>.
</P>
<P>For standard dishwashers, test each cycle with a clean load of eight place settings plus six serving pieces, as specified in section 2.7 of AHAM DW-1-2020. For compact dishwashers, test each cycle with a clean load of four place settings plus six serving pieces, as specified in section 2.7 of AHAM DW-1-2020. If the capacity of the dishwasher, as stated by the manufacturer, is less than four place settings, then the test load must be the stated capacity.
</P>
<P>4.1.2 <I>Water consumption.</I>
</P>
<P>The water consumption requirements described in section 4.1.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020 are applicable to all dishwashers except dishwashers that do not have a direct water line. For such dishwashers these water consumption measurement requirements do not apply and water consumption, V, is the value reported by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Scoring.</I>
</P>
<P>Following the termination of an active mode test, each item in the test load shall be scored on a scale from 0 to 9 according to the instructions in section 5.10.1.1 of AHAM DW-2-2020.
</P>
<HD2>5. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD2>
<P>The calculations in sections 5.1 through 5.7 of AHAM DW-1-2020 and section 5.12.3.1 of AHAM DW-2-2020 apply to this test procedure. The following additional requirements are also applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) For both soil-sensing and non-soil-sensing dishwashers, use the equations specified for soil-sensing dishwashers.
</P>
<P>(b) If a non-soil-sensing dishwasher is not tested at a certain soil load as specified in section 4.1.d of this appendix, use the energy and water consumption values of the preceding soil load when calculating the weighted average energy and water consumption values (<I>i.e.,</I> if the sensor medium response and sensor light response tests on the normal cycle are not conducted, use the values of the sensor heavy response test for all three soil loads; if only the sensor light response test is not conducted, use the values of the sensor medium response test for the sensor light response test).
</P>
<P>(c) For dishwashers that do not have a direct water line, water consumption is equal to the volume of water use in the test cycle, as specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(d) In sections 5.6.1.3, 5.6.1.4, 5.6.2.3, and 5.6.2.4 of AHAM DW-1-2020, use (C/e) in place of K.
</P>
<P>5.1 <I>Cleaning Index.</I>
</P>
<P>Determine the per-cycle cleaning index for each test cycle using the equation in section 5.12.3.1 of AHAM DW-2-2020.
</P>
<P>5.2 <I>Calculation for determination of the most energy-intensive cycle type.</I>
</P>
<P>The total cycle energy consumption for the determination of the most energy-intensive cycle specified in section 4.1.1 of this appendix is calculated for each tested cycle type as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">MEI</E> = M + E<E T="52">F</E>−(E<E T="52">D</E>/2) + W
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M = per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption, expressed in kilowatt hours per cycle,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = fan-only mode electrical energy consumption, if available on the tested cycle type, expressed in kilowatt hours per cycle,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">D</E> = drying energy consumed using the power-dry feature after the termination of the last rinse option of the tested cycle type, if available on the tested cycle type, expressed in kilowatt hours per cycle, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = water energy consumption and is defined as:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V × T × K, for dishwashers using electrically heated water, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V × T × C/e, for dishwashers using gas-heated or oil-heated water.
</FP-2>
<P>Additionally,
</P>
<FP-2>V = water consumption in gallons per cycle,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = nominal water heater temperature rise and is equal to 90 °F for dishwashers that operate with a nominal 140 °F inlet water temperature, and 70 °F for dishwashers that operate with a nominal 120 °F inlet water temperature,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = specific heat of water in kilowatt-hours per gallon per degree Fahrenheit = 0.0024,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = specific heat of water in Btu's per gallon per degree Fahrenheit = 8.2, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>e = nominal gas or oil water heater recovery efficiency = 0.75.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 3279, Jan. 18, 2023, as amended at 89 FR 83617, Oct. 17, 2204]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D1 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Clothes Dryers
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The procedures in either this appendix or appendix D2 to this subpart must be used to determine compliance with the energy conservation standards for clothes dryers provided at § 430.32(h)(3). Manufacturers must use a single appendix for all representations, including certifications of compliance, and may not use this appendix for certain representations and appendix D2 to this subpart for other representations. The procedures in appendix D2 to this subpart must be used to determine compliance with the energy conservation standards for clothes dryers provided at § 430.32(h)(4).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3 the standards for AHAM HLD-1 and IEC 62301, in their entirety, however, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable to this appendix. In cases where there is a conflict between any industry standard(s) and this appendix, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the industry standard(s).
</P>
<P>(1) AHAM HLD-1:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3.3.5.1 “Standard Simulator” as referenced in sections 2.1.2 through 2.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) IEC 62301:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 as referenced in section 3.6.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 “Sampling Method” as referenced in section 3.6.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>1. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>1.1 “Active mode” means a mode in which the clothes dryer is connected to a main power source, has been activated and is performing the main function of tumbling the clothing with or without heated or unheated forced air circulation to remove moisture from the clothing, remove wrinkles or prevent wrinkling of the clothing, or both.
</P>
<P>1.2 “AHAM” means the Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers.
</P>
<P>1.3 “AHAM HLD-1” means the test standard published by the Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers, titled “Household Tumble Type Clothes Dryers,” ANSI-approved June 11, 2010, ANSI/AHAM HLD-1-2010.
</P>
<P>1.4 “Automatic termination control” means a dryer control system with a sensor which monitors either the dryer load temperature or its moisture content and with a controller which automatically terminates the drying process. A mark, detent, or other visual indicator or detent which indicates a preferred automatic termination control setting must be present if the dryer is to be classified as having an “automatic termination control.” A mark is a visible single control setting on one or more dryer controls.
</P>
<P>1.5 “Bone dry” means a condition of a load of test cloths which has been dried in a dryer at maximum temperature for a minimum of 10 minutes, removed, and weighed before cool down, and then dried again for 10-minute periods until the final weight change of the load is 1 percent or less.
</P>
<P>1.6 “Compact” or “compact size” means a clothes dryer with a drum capacity of less than 4.4 cubic feet.
</P>
<P>1.7 “Cool down” means that portion of the clothes drying cycle when the added gas or electric heat is terminated and the clothes continue to tumble and dry within the drum.
</P>
<P>1.8 “Cycle” means a sequence of operation of a clothes dryer which performs a clothes drying operation, and may include variations or combinations of the functions of heating, tumbling, and drying.
</P>
<P>1.9 “Drum capacity” means the volume of the drying drum in cubic feet.
</P>
<P>1.10 “IEC 62301” (Second Edition) means the test standard published by the International Electrotechnical Commission (“IEC”) titled “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power,” Publication 62301 (Edition 2.0 2011-01) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>1.11 “Final moisture content” (“FMC”) means the ratio of the weight of water contained by the dry test load (<I>i.e.,</I> after completion of the drying cycle) to the bone-dry weight of the test load, expressed as a percent.
</P>
<P>1.12 “Inactive mode” means a standby mode that facilitates the activation of active mode by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer, or that provides continuous status display.
</P>
<P>1.13 “Initial moisture content” (“IMC”) means the ratio of the weight of water contained by the damp test load (<I>i.e.,</I> prior to completion of the drying cycle) to the bone-dry weight of the test load, expressed as a percent.
</P>
<P>1.14 “Moisture content” means the ratio of the weight of water contained by the test load to the bone-dry weight of the test load, expressed as a percent.
</P>
<P>1.15 “Off mode” means a mode in which the clothes dryer is connected to a main power source and is not providing any active or standby mode function, and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time. An indicator that only shows the user that the product is in the off position is included within the classification of an off mode.
</P>
<P>1.16 “Standard size” means a clothes dryer with a drum capacity of 4.4 cubic feet or greater.
</P>
<P>1.17 “Standby mode” means any product modes where the energy using product is connected to a main power source and offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions which may persist for an indefinite time:
</P>
<P>(a) To facilitate the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer.
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions. A timer is a continuous clock function (which may or may not be associated with a display) that provides regular scheduled tasks (e.g., switching) and that operates on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P>1.18 “Vented clothes dryer” means a clothes dryer that exhausts the evaporated moisture from the cabinet.
</P>
<P>1.19 “Ventless clothes dryer” means a clothes dryer that uses a closed-loop system with an internal condenser to remove the evaporated moisture from the heated air. The moist air is not discharged from the cabinet.
</P>
<HD1>2. Testing Conditions
</HD1>
<P>2.1 <I>Installation.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>All clothes dryers.</I> For both vented clothes dryers and ventless clothes dryers, install the clothes dryer in accordance with manufacturer's instructions as shipped with the unit. If the manufacturer's instructions do not specify the installation requirements for a certain component, it shall be tested in the as-shipped condition. Where the manufacturer gives the option to use the dryer both with and without a duct, the dryer shall be tested without the exhaust simulator described in section 3.3.5.1 of AHAM HLD-1 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). All external joints should be taped to avoid air leakage. For drying testing, disconnect all lights, such as task lights, that do not provide any information related to the drying process on the clothes dryer and that do not consume more than 10 watts during the clothes dryer test cycle. Control setting indicator lights showing the cycle progression, temperature or dryness settings, or other cycle functions that cannot be turned off during the test cycle shall not be disconnected during the active mode test cycle. For standby and off mode testing, the clothes dryer shall also be installed in accordance with section 5, paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), disregarding the provisions regarding batteries and the determination, classification, and testing of relevant modes. For standby and off mode testing, all lighting systems shall remain connected.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 <I>Vented clothes dryers.</I> For vented clothes dryers, the dryer exhaust shall be restricted by adding the AHAM exhaust simulator described in section 3.3.5.1 of AHAM HLD-1.
</P>
<P>2.1.3 <I>Ventless clothes dryers.</I> For ventless clothes dryers, the dryer shall be tested without the AHAM exhaust simulator. If the manufacturer gives the option to use a ventless clothes dryer, with or without a condensation box, the dryer shall be tested with the condensation box installed. For ventless clothes dryers, the condenser unit of the dryer must remain in place and not be taken out of the dryer for any reason between tests.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Ambient temperature and humidity.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1 For drying testing, maintain the room ambient air temperature at 75 ±3 °F and the room relative humidity at 50 percent ±10 percent relative humidity.
</P>
<P>2.2.2 For standby and off mode testing, maintain room ambient air temperature conditions as specified in section 4, paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3)
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Energy supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.1 <I>Electrical supply.</I> Maintain the electrical supply at the clothes dryer terminal block within 1 percent of 120/240 or 120/208Y or 120 volts as applicable to the particular terminal block wiring system and within 1 percent of the nameplate frequency as specified by the manufacturer. If the dryer has a dual voltage conversion capability, conduct the test at the highest voltage specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>2.3.1.1 <I>Supply voltage waveform.</I> For the clothes dryer standby mode and off mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage waveform indicated in section 4, paragraph 4.3.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the total harmonic content during the test measurement period, it is acceptable to measure and record the total harmonic content immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.3.2 <I>Gas supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.2.1 <I>Natural gas supply.</I> Maintain the gas supply to the clothes dryer immediately ahead of all controls at a pressure of 7 to 10 inches of water column. The natural gas supplied should have a heating value of approximately 1,025 Btus per standard cubic foot. The actual heating value, H<E T="52">n</E>2, in Btus per standard cubic foot, for the natural gas to be used in the test shall be obtained either from measurements using a standard continuous flow calorimeter as described in section 2.4.6 of this appendix or by the purchase of bottled natural gas whose Btu rating is certified to be at least as accurate a rating as could be obtained from measurements with a standard continuous flow calorimeter as described in section 2.4.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.2 <I>Propane gas supply.</I> Maintain the gas supply to the clothes dryer immediately ahead of all controls at a pressure of 11 to 13 inches of water column. The propane gas supplied should have a heating value of approximately 2,500 Btus per standard cubic foot. The actual heating value, H<E T="52">p</E>, in Btus per standard cubic foot, for the propane gas to be used in the test shall be obtained either from measurements using a standard continuous flow calorimeter as described in section 2.4.6 of this appendix or by the purchase of bottled gas whose Btu rating is certified to be at least as accurate a rating as could be obtained from measurement with a standard continuous calorimeter as described in section 2.4.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.3 <I>Hourly Btu Rating.</I> Maintain the hourly Btu rating of the burner within ±5 percent of the rating specified by the manufacturer. If the hourly Btu rating of the burner cannot be maintained within ±5 percent of the rating specified by the manufacturer, make adjustments in the following order until an hourly Btu rating of the burner within ±5 percent of the rating specified by the manufacturer is achieved:
</P>
<P>(1) Modify the gas inlet supply pressure within the allowable range specified in section 2.3.2.1 or 2.3.2.2 of this appendix, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) If the clothes dryer is equipped with a gas pressure regulator, modify the outlet pressure of the gas pressure regulator within ±10 percent of the value recommended by the manufacturer in the installation manual, on the nameplate sticker, or wherever the manufacturer makes such a recommendation for the basic model; and
</P>
<P>(3) Modify the orifice as necessary to achieve the required hourly Btu rating.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Instrumentation.</I> Perform all test measurements using the following instruments as appropriate.
</P>
<P>2.4.1 <I>Weighing scales.</I>
</P>
<P>2.4.1.1 <I>Weighing scale for test cloth.</I> The scale shall have a range of 0 to a maximum of 60 pounds with a resolution of at least 0.001 pounds and a maximum error no greater than 0.1 percent of any measured value within the range of 3 to 15 pounds.
</P>
<P>2.4.1.2 <I>Weighing scale for drum capacity measurements.</I> The scale should have a range of 0 to a maximum of 600 pounds with resolution of 0.50 pounds and a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.4.2 <I>Kilowatt-hour meter.</I> The kilowatt-hour meter shall have a resolution of 0.001 kilowatt-hours and a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.4.3 <I>Gas meter.</I> The gas meter shall have a resolution of 0.001 cubic feet and a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.4.4 <I>Dry and wet bulb psychrometer.</I> The dry and wet bulb psychrometer shall have an error no greater than ±1 °F. A relative humidity meter with a maximum error tolerance expressed in °F equivalent to the requirements for the dry and wet bulb psychrometer or with a maximum error tolerance of ±2 percent relative humidity would be acceptable for measuring the ambient humidity.
</P>
<P>2.4.5 <I>Temperature.</I> The temperature sensor shall have an error no greater than ±1 °F.
</P>
<P>2.4.6 <I>Standard Continuous Flow Calorimeter.</I> The calorimeter shall have an operating range of 750 to 3,500 Btu per cubic feet. The maximum error of the basic calorimeter shall be no greater than 0.2 percent of the actual heating value of the gas used in the test. The indicator readout shall have a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value within the operating range and a resolution of 0.2 percent of the full-scale reading of the indicator instrument.
</P>
<P>2.4.7 <I>Standby mode and off mode watt meter.</I> The watt meter used to measure standby mode and off mode power consumption shall meet the requirements specified in section 4, paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the crest factor, power factor, or maximum current ratio during the test measurement period, it is acceptable to measure the crest factor, power factor, and maximum current ratio immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Lint trap.</I> Clean the lint trap thoroughly before each test run.


</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Test cloths.</I>
</P>
<P>2.6.1 <I>Material Specifications.</I> The energy test cloth and energy stuffer cloth material and dimensions must conform to the specifications in section 3 of appendix J3 to this subpart.






</P>
<P>2.6.2 <I>Material Verification.</I> The test cloth lot used to fabricate each piece of test cloth must conform with the material verification procedures specified in section 7 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.6.3 <I>Lot Identification.</I> Each piece of test cloth must be clean and permanently marked identifying the lot number of the material. Mixed lots of material must not be used for testing a clothes dryer.
</P>
<P>2.6.4 <I>Pre-Conditioning.</I> The test cloth must be pre-conditioned prior to first use as specified in section 5 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.6.5 <I>Lifetime.</I> Each piece of test cloth must not be used for more than 25 test runs (after pre-conditioning).








</P>
<P>2.7 <I>Test loads.</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.1 <I>Load size.</I> Determine the load size for the unit under test, according to Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Test Loads
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit under test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load
<br/>(bone dry weight)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard size clothes dryer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.45 pounds ± .085 pounds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Compact size clothes dryer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00 pounds ± .03 pounds.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Each test load must consist of energy test cloths and no more than five energy stuffer cloths.
</P>
<P>2.7.2 <I>Test load preparation.</I> Dampen the load by agitating it in water whose temperature is 60 °F ± 5 °F and consists of 0 to 17 parts per million hardness for approximately 2 minutes in order to saturate the fabric. Then, extract water from the wet test load by spinning the load to a target moisture content between 54.0-61.0 percent of the bone-dry weight of the test load. If after extraction the moisture content is less than 54.0 percent, make a final mass adjustment, such that the moisture content is between 54.0-61.0 percent of the bone-dry weight of the test load, by adding water uniformly distributed among all of the test cloths in a very fine spray using a spray bottle.
</P>
<P>2.7.3 <I>Method of loading.</I> Load the energy test cloths by grasping them in the center, shaking them to hang loosely, and then dropping them in the dryer at random.


</P>
<P>2.8 <I>Clothes dryer pre-conditioning.</I>
</P>
<P>2.8.1 <I>Vented clothes dryers.</I> For vented clothes dryers, before any test cycle, operate the dryer without a test load in the non-heat mode for 15 minutes or until the discharge air temperature is varying less than 1 °F for 10 minutes—whichever is longer—in the test installation location with the ambient conditions within the specified test condition tolerances of section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.8.2 <I>Ventless clothes dryers.</I> For ventless clothes dryers, before any test cycle, the steady-state machine temperature must be equal to ambient room temperature described in 2.2.1. This may be done by leaving the machine at ambient room conditions for at least 12 hours between tests.
</P>
<HD1>3. Test Procedures and Measurements
</HD1>
<P>3.1 <I>Drum Capacity.</I> Measure the drum capacity by sealing all openings in the drum except the loading port with a plastic bag, and ensuring that all corners and depressions are filled and that there are no extrusions of the plastic bag through any openings in the interior of the drum. Support the dryer's rear drum surface on a platform scale to prevent deflection of the drum surface, and record the weight of the empty dryer. Fill the drum with water to a level determined by the intersection of the door plane and the loading port (<I>i.e.,</I> the uppermost edge of the drum that is in contact with the door seal). Record the temperature of the water and then the weight of the dryer with the added water and then determine the mass of the water in pounds. Add the appropriate volume to account for any space in the drum interior not measured by water fill (e.g., the space above the uppermost edge of the drum within a curved door) and subtract the appropriate volume to account for space that is measured by water fill but cannot be used when the door is closed (e.g., space occupied by the door when closed). The drum capacity is calculated to the nearest 0.1 cubic foot as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>C</I> = w/d ±volume adjustment
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I> = capacity in cubic feet.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>w</I> = mass of water in pounds.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>d</I> = density of water at the measured temperature in pounds per cubic foot.
</FP-2>
<P>3.2 <I>Dryer Loading.</I> Load the dryer as specified in 2.7.
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Test cycle.</I> Operate the clothes dryer at the maximum temperature setting and, if equipped with a timer, at the maximum time setting. Any other optional cycle settings that do not affect the temperature or time settings shall be tested in the as-shipped position, except that if the clothes dryer has network capabilities, the network settings must be disabled throughout testing if such settings can be disabled by the end-user and the product's user manual provides instructions on how to do so. If the network settings cannot be disabled by the end-user, or the product's user manual does not provide instruction for disabling network settings, then the unit must be tested with the network settings in the factory default configuration for the test cycle. If the clothes dryer does not have a separate temperature setting selection on the control panel, the maximum time setting should be used for the drying test cycle. Dry the load until the moisture content of the test load is between 2.5 and 5.0 percent of the bone-dry weight of the test load, at which point the test cycle is stopped, but do not permit the dryer to advance into cool down. If required, reset the timer to increase the length of the drying cycle. After stopping the test cycle, remove and weigh the test load within 5 minutes following termination of the test cycle. The clothes dryer shall not be stopped intermittently in the middle of the test cycle for any reason. Record the data specified by section 3.4 of this appendix. If the dryer automatically stops during a cycle because the condensation box is full of water, the test is stopped, and the test run is invalid, in which case the condensation box shall be emptied and the test re-run from the beginning. For ventless clothes dryers, during the time between two cycles, the door of the dryer shall be closed except for loading and unloading.
</P>
<P>3.4 <I>Data recording.</I> Record for each test cycle:
</P>
<P>3.4.1 Bone-dry weight of the test load, W<E T="52">bonedry</E>, as described in section 2.7.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.2 Moisture content of the wet test load before the test, IMC, as described in section 2.7.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.3 Moisture content of the dry test load obtained after the test, FMC, as described in section 3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.4 Test room conditions, temperature, and percent relative humidity described in 2.2.1.
</P>
<P>3.4.5 For electric dryers—the total kilowatt-hours of electric energy, E<E T="52">t</E>, consumed during the test described in 3.3.
</P>
<P>3.4.6 For gas dryers:
</P>
<P>3.4.6.1 Total kilowatt-hours of electrical energy, E<E T="52">te</E>, consumed during the test described in 3.3.
</P>
<P>3.4.6.2 Cubic feet of gas per cycle, E<E T="52">tg</E>, consumed during the test described in 3.3.
</P>
<P>3.4.6.3 Correct the gas heating value, GEF, as measured in 2.3.2.1 and 2.3.2.2, to standard pressure and temperature conditions in accordance with U.S. Bureau of Standards, circular C417, 1938.
</P>
<P>3.5 <I>Test for automatic termination field use factor.</I> The field use factor for automatic termination can be claimed for those dryers which meet the requirements for automatic termination control, defined in 1.4.
</P>
<P>3.6 <I>Standby mode and off mode power.</I> Connect the clothes dryer to a watt meter as specified in section 2.4.7 of this appendix. Establish the testing conditions set forth in section 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.6.1 Perform standby mode and off mode testing after completion of an active mode drying cycle included as part of the test cycle; after removing the test load; without changing the control panel settings used for the active mode drying cycle; with the door closed; and without disconnecting the electrical energy supply to the clothes dryer between completion of the active mode drying cycle and the start of standby mode and off mode testing.
</P>
<P>3.6.2 For clothes dryers that take some time to automatically enter a stable inactive mode or off mode state from a higher power state as discussed in Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 of IEC 62301, allow sufficient time for the clothes dryer to automatically reach the default inactive/off mode state before proceeding with the test measurement.
</P>
<P>3.6.3 Once the stable inactive/off mode state has been reached, measure and record the default inactive/off mode power, P<E T="52">default</E>, in watts, following the test procedure for the sampling method specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.6.4 For a clothes dryer with a switch (or other means) that can be optionally selected by the end user to achieve a lower-power inactive/off mode state than the default inactive/off mode state measured in section 3.6.3 of this appendix, after performing the measurement in section 3.6.3 of this appendix, activate the switch (or other means) to the position resulting in the lowest power consumption and repeat the measurement procedure described in section 3.6.3 of this appendix. Measure and record the lowest inactive/off mode power, P<E T="52">lowest</E>, in watts.
</P>
<HD1>4. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD1>
<P>4.1 <I>Total per-cycle electric dryer energy consumption.</I> Calculate the total electric dryer energy consumption per cycle, E<E T="52">ce</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ce</E> = [53.5/(IMC − FMC)] × E<E T="52">t</E> × field use,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = the energy recorded in section 3.4.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>53.5 = an experimentally established value for the percent reduction in the moisture content of the test load during a laboratory test cycle expressed as a percent.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>field use = field use factor,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 1.18 for clothes dryers with time termination control systems only without any automatic termination control functions.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 1.04 for clothes dryers with automatic control systems that meet the requirements of the definition for automatic termination control in section 1.4 of this appendix, including those that also have a supplementary timer control, or that may also be manually controlled.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IMC = the moisture content of the wet test load as recorded in section 3.4.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FMC = the moisture content of the dry test load as recorded in section 3.4.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2 <I>Per-cycle gas dryer electrical energy consumption.</I> Calculate the gas dryer electrical energy consumption per cycle, E<E T="52">ge</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ge</E> = [53.5/(IMC − FMC)] × E<E T="52">te</E> × field use,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">te</E> = the energy recorded in section 3.4.6.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP>field use, 53.5, MC<E T="52">w</E>, and MC<E T="52">d</E> as defined in section 4.1 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P>4.3 <I>Per-cycle gas dryer gas energy consumption.</I> Calculate the gas dryer gas energy consumption per cycle, E<E T="52">gg</E>, expressed in Btus per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gg</E> = [53.5/(MC<E T="52">w</E> − MC<E T="52">d</E>)] × E<E T="52">tg</E> × field use × GEF
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">tg</E> = the energy recorded in section 3.4.6.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>GEF = corrected gas heat value (Btu per cubic feet) as defined in section 3.4.6.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP>field use, 53.5, IMC, and FMC as defined in section 4.1 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P>4.4 <I>Total per-cycle gas dryer energy consumption expressed in kilowatt-hours.</I> Calculate the total gas dryer energy consumption per cycle, E<E T="52">cg</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP>E<E T="52">cg</E> = E<E T="52">ge</E> + (E<E T="52">gg</E>/3412 Btu/kWh)
</FP>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ge</E> as defined in 4.2
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gg</E> as defined in 4.3
</FP-2>
<P>4.5 <I>Per-cycle standby mode and off mode energy consumption.</I> Calculate the clothes dryer per-cycle standby mode and off mode energy consumption, E<E T="52">TSO</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TSO</E> = [(P<E T="52">default</E> × S<E T="52">default</E>) + (P<E T="52">lowest</E> × S<E T="52">lowest</E>)] × K/283
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">default</E> = Default inactive/off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.6.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lowest</E> = Lowest inactive/off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.6.4 of this appendix for clothes dryer with a switch (or other means) that can be optionally selected by the end user to achieve a lower-power inactive/off mode than the default inactive/off mode; otherwise, P<E T="52">lowest</E>=0.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">default</E> = Annual hours in default inactive/off mode, defined as 8,620 if no optional lowest-power inactive/off mode is available; otherwise 4,310.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">lowest</E> = Annual hours in lowest-power inactive/off mode, defined as 0 if no optional lowest-power inactive/off mode is available; otherwise 4,310.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = Conversion factor of watt-hours to kilowatt-hours = 0.001.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>283 = Representative average number of clothes dryer cycles in a year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,620 = Combined annual hours for inactive and off mode.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,310 = One-half of the combined annual hours for inactive and off mode.
</FP-2>
<P>4.6 <I>Per-cycle combined total energy consumption expressed in kilowatt-hours.</I> Calculate the per-cycle combined total energy consumption, E<E T="52">CC</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined for an electric clothes dryer as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CC</E> = E<E T="52">ce</E> + E<E T="52">TSO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ce</E> = the energy recorded in section 4.1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TSO</E> = the energy recorded in section 4.5 of this appendix, and defined for a gas clothes dryer as:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CC</E> = E<E T="52">cg</E> + E<E T="52">TSO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">cg</E> = the energy recorded in section 4.4 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TSO</E> = the energy recorded in section 4.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.7 <I>Combined Energy Factor in pounds per kilowatt-hour.</I> Calculate the combined energy factor, CEF, expressed in pounds per kilowatt-hour and defined as:
</P>
<FP>CEF = W<E T="52">bonedry</E>/E<E T="52">CC</E>
</FP>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">bonedry</E> = the bone dry test load weight 3.4.1, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CC</E> = the energy recorded in 4.6
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 1032, Jan. 6, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 49645, Aug. 14, 2013; 86 FR 56639, Oct. 8, 2021; 89 FR 81305, Oct. 8, 2024; 90 FR 5536, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D2" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D2 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Clothes Dryers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The procedures in either appendix D1 to this subpart or this appendix must be used to determine compliance with the energy conservation standards for clothes dryers provided at § 430.32(h)(3). Manufacturers must use a single appendix for all representations, including certifications of compliance, and may not use appendix D1 to this subpart for certain representations and this appendix for other representations. The procedures in this appendix must be used to determine compliance with the energy conservation standards for clothes dryers provided at § 430.32(h)(4). Manufacturers may use this appendix to certify compliance with the clothes dryer standards provided at § 430.32(h)(4) prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.
</P>
<P>Per-cycle standby mode and off mode energy consumption in section 4.5 of this appendix is calculated using the value for the annual representative average number of clothes dryer cycles in a year specified in section 4.5.1(a) of this appendix until March 1, 2028. Beginning on March 1, 2028, per-cycle standby mode and off mode energy consumption in section 4.5 of this appendix is calculated using the value for the annual representative average number of clothes dryer cycles in a year specified in section 4.5.1(b) of this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3 the entire standard for AHAM HLD-1 and IEC 62301, however, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable to this appendix. In cases where there is a conflict between any industry standard(s) and this appendix, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the industry standard(s).
</P>
<P>(1) AHAM HLD-1:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3.3.5.1 “Standard Simulator” as referenced in sections 2.1.2 through 2.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) IEC 62301:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 as referenced in section 3.5.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 “Sampling Method” as referenced in section 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>1. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>1.1 “Active mode” means a mode in which the clothes dryer is connected to a main power source, has been activated and is performing the main function of tumbling the clothing with or without heated or unheated forced air circulation to remove moisture from the clothing, remove wrinkles or prevent wrinkling of the clothing, or both.
</P>
<P>1.2 “AHAM” means the Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers.
</P>
<P>1.3 “AHAM HLD-1” means the test standard published by the Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers, titled “Household Tumble Type Clothes Dryers,” ANSI-approved June 11, 2010, ANSI/AHAM HLD-1-2010.
</P>
<P>1.4 “Automatic termination control” means a dryer control system with a sensor which monitors either the dryer load temperature or its moisture content and with a controller which automatically terminates the drying process. A mark, detent, or other visual indicator or detent which indicates a preferred automatic termination control setting must be present if the dryer is to be classified as having an “automatic termination control.” A mark is a visible single control setting on one or more dryer controls.
</P>
<P>1.5 “Automatic termination control dryer” means a clothes dryer which can be preset to carry out at least one sequence of operations to be terminated by means of a system assessing, directly or indirectly, the moisture content of the load. An automatic termination control dryer with supplementary timer or that may also be manually controlled shall be tested as an automatic termination control dryer.
</P>
<P>1.6 “Bone dry” means a condition of a load of test cloths which has been dried in a dryer at maximum temperature for a minimum of 10 minutes, removed, and weighed before cool down, and then dried again for 10-minute periods until the final weight change of the load is 1 percent or less.
</P>
<P>1.7 “Compact” or “compact size” means a clothes dryer with a drum capacity of less than 4.4 cubic feet.
</P>
<P>1.8 “Cool down” means that portion of the clothes drying cycle when the added gas or electric heat is terminated and the clothes continue to tumble and dry within the drum.
</P>
<P>1.9 “Cycle” means a sequence of operation of a clothes dryer which performs a clothes drying operation, and may include variations or combinations of the functions of heating, tumbling, and drying.
</P>
<P>1.10 “Drum capacity” means the volume of the drying drum in cubic feet.
</P>
<P>1.11 “Final moisture content” (“FMC”) means the ratio of the weight of water contained by the dry test load (<I>i.e.,</I> after completion of the drying cycle) to the bone-dry weight of the test load, expressed as a percent.
</P>
<P>1.12 “IEC 62301” (Second Edition) means the test standard published by the International Electrotechnical Commission (“IEC”) titled “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power,” Publication 62301 (Edition 2.0 2011-01) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>1.13 “Initial moisture content” (“IMC”) means the ratio of the weight of water contained by the damp test load (<I>i.e.,</I> prior to completion of the drying cycle) to the bone-dry weight of the test load, expressed as a percent.
</P>
<P>1.14 “Inactive mode” means a standby mode that facilitates the activation of active mode by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer, or that provides continuous status display.
</P>
<P>1.15 “Moisture content” means the ratio of the weight of water contained by the test load to the bone-dry weight of the test load, expressed as a percent.
</P>
<P>1.16 “Off mode” means a mode in which the clothes dryer is connected to a main power source and is not providing any active or standby mode function, and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time. An indicator that only shows the user that the product is in the off position is included within the classification of an off mode.
</P>
<P>1.17 “Standard size” means a clothes dryer with a drum capacity of 4.4 cubic feet or greater.
</P>
<P>1.18 “Standby mode” means any product modes where the energy using product is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions which may persist for an indefinite time:
</P>
<P>(a) To facilitate the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer.
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions. A timer is a continuous clock function (which may or may not be associated with a display) that provides regular scheduled tasks (<I>e.g.,</I> switching) and that operates on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P>1.19 “Timer dryer” means a clothes dryer that can be preset to carry out at least one operation to be terminated by a timer, but may also be manually controlled, and does not include any automatic termination function.
</P>
<P>1.20 “Vented clothes dryer” means a clothes dryer that exhausts the evaporated moisture from the cabinet.
</P>
<P>1.21 “Ventless clothes dryer” means a clothes dryer that uses a closed-loop system with an internal condenser to remove the evaporated moisture from the heated air. The moist air is not discharged from the cabinet.
</P>
<HD1>2. Testing Conditions
</HD1>
<P>2.1 <I>Installation.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>All clothes dryers.</I> For both vented clothes dryers and ventless clothes dryers, install the clothes dryer in accordance with manufacturer's instructions as shipped with the unit. If the manufacturer's instructions do not specify the installation requirements for a certain component, it shall be tested in the as-shipped condition. Where the manufacturer gives the option to use the dryer both with and without a duct, the dryer shall be tested without the exhaust simulator described in section 3.3.5.1 of AHAM HLD-1 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). All external joints should be taped to avoid air leakage. For drying testing, disconnect all lights, such as task lights, that do not provide any information related to the drying process on the clothes dryer and that do not consume more than 10 watts during the clothes dryer test cycle. Control setting indicator lights showing the cycle progression, temperature or dryness settings, or other cycle functions that cannot be turned off during the test cycle shall not be disconnected during the active mode test cycle. For standby and off mode testing, the clothes dryer shall also be installed in accordance with section 5, paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), disregarding the provisions regarding batteries and the determination, classification, and testing of relevant modes. For standby and off mode testing, all lighting systems shall remain connected.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 <I>Vented clothes dryers.</I> For vented clothes dryers, the dryer exhaust shall be restricted by adding the AHAM exhaust simulator described in section 3.3.5.1 of AHAM HLD-1.
</P>
<P>2.1.3 <I>Ventless clothes dryers.</I> For ventless clothes dryers, the dryer shall be tested without the AHAM exhaust simulator. If the manufacturer gives the option to use a ventless clothes dryer, with or without a condensation box, the dryer shall be tested with the condensation box installed. For ventless clothes dryers, the condenser unit of the dryer must remain in place and not be taken out of the dryer for any reason between tests.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Ambient temperature and humidity.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1 For drying testing, maintain the room ambient air temperature at 75 ±3 F and the room relative humidity at 50 percent ±10 percent relative humidity.
</P>
<P>2.2.2 For standby and off mode testing, maintain room ambient air temperature conditions as specified in section 4, paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Energy supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.1 <I>Electrical supply.</I> Maintain the electrical supply at the clothes dryer terminal block within 1 percent of 120/240 or 120/208Y or 120 volts as applicable to the particular terminal block wiring system and within 1 percent of the nameplate frequency as specified by the manufacturer. If the dryer has a dual voltage conversion capability, conduct the test at the highest voltage specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>2.3.1.1 <I>Supply voltage waveform.</I> For the clothes dryer standby mode and off mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage waveform indicated in section 4, paragraph 4.3.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the total harmonic content during the test measurement period, it is acceptable to measure and record the total harmonic content immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.3.2 <I>Gas supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.2.1 <I>Natural gas supply.</I> Maintain the gas supply to the clothes dryer immediately ahead of all controls at a pressure of 7 to 10 inches of water column. The natural gas supplied should have a heating value of approximately 1,025 Btus per standard cubic foot. The actual heating value, H<E T="52">n</E>2, in Btus per standard cubic foot, for the natural gas to be used in the test shall be obtained either from measurements using a standard continuous flow calorimeter as described in section 2.4.6 of this appendix or by the purchase of bottled natural gas whose Btu rating is certified to be at least as accurate a rating as could be obtained from measurements with a standard continuous flow calorimeter as described in section 2.4.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.2 <I>Propane gas supply.</I> Maintain the gas supply to the clothes dryer immediately ahead of all controls at a pressure of 11 to 13 inches of water column. The propane gas supplied should have a heating value of approximately 2,500 Btus per standard cubic foot. The actual heating value, H<E T="52">p</E>, in Btus per standard cubic foot, for the propane gas to be used in the test shall be obtained either from measurements using a standard continuous flow calorimeter as described in section 2.4.6 of this appendix or by the purchase of bottled gas whose Btu rating is certified to be at least as accurate a rating as could be obtained from measurement with a standard continuous calorimeter as described in section 2.4.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.3 <I>Hourly Btu Rating.</I> Maintain the hourly Btu rating of the burner within ±5 percent of the rating specified by the manufacturer. If the hourly Btu rating of the burner cannot be maintained within ±5 percent of the rating specified by the manufacturer, make adjustments in the following order until an hourly Btu rating of the burner within ±5 percent of the rating specified by the manufacturer is achieved:
</P>
<P>(1) Modify the gas inlet supply pressure within the allowable range specified in section 2.3.2.1 or 2.3.2.2 of this appendix, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) If the clothes dryer is equipped with a gas pressure regulator, modify the outlet pressure of the gas pressure regulator within ±10 percent of the value recommended by the manufacturer in the installation manual, on the nameplate sticker, or wherever the manufacturer makes such a recommendation for the basic model; and
</P>
<P>(3) Modify the orifice as necessary to achieve the required hourly Btu rating.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Instrumentation.</I> Perform all test measurements using the following instruments as appropriate.
</P>
<P>2.4.1 <I>Weighing scales.</I>
</P>
<P>2.4.1.1 <I>Weighing scale for test cloth.</I> The scale shall have a range of 0 to a maximum of 60 pounds with a resolution of at least 0.001 pounds and a maximum error no greater than 0.1 percent of any measured value within the range of 3 to 15 pounds.
</P>
<P>2.4.1.2 <I>Weighing scale for drum capacity measurements.</I> The scale should have a range of 0 to a maximum of 600 pounds with resolution of 0.50 pounds and a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.4.2 <I>Kilowatt-hour meter.</I> The kilowatt-hour meter shall have a resolution of 0.001 kilowatt-hours and a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.4.3 <I>Gas meter.</I> The gas meter shall have a resolution of 0.001 cubic feet and a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.4.4 <I>Dry and wet bulb psychrometer.</I> The dry and wet bulb psychrometer shall have an error no greater than ±1 °F. A relative humidity meter with a maximum error tolerance expressed in °F equivalent to the requirements for the dry and wet bulb psychrometer or with a maximum error tolerance of ±2 percent relative humidity would be acceptable for measuring the ambient humidity.
</P>
<P>2.4.5 <I>Temperature.</I> The temperature sensor shall have an error no greater than ±1 °F.
</P>
<P>2.4.6 <I>Standard Continuous Flow Calorimeter.</I> The calorimeter shall have an operating range of 750 to 3,500 Btu per cubic foot. The maximum error of the basic calorimeter shall be no greater than 0.2 percent of the actual heating value of the gas used in the test. The indicator readout shall have a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value within the operating range and a resolution of 0.2 percent of the full-scale reading of the indicator instrument.
</P>
<P>2.4.7 <I>Standby mode and off mode watt meter.</I> The watt meter used to measure standby mode and off mode power consumption shall meet the requirements specified in section 4, paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the crest factor, power factor, or maximum current ratio during the test measurement period, it is acceptable to measure the crest factor, power factor, and maximum current ratio immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Lint trap.</I> Clean the lint trap thoroughly before each test run.




</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Test cloths.</I>
</P>
<P>2.6.1 <I>Material Specifications.</I> The energy test cloth and energy stuffer cloth material and dimensions must conform to the specifications in section 3 of appendix J3 to this subpart.


</P>
<P>2.6.2 <I>Material Verification.</I> The test cloth lot used to fabricate each piece of test cloth must conform with the material verification procedures specified in section 7 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.6.3 <I>Lot Identification.</I> Each piece of test cloth must be clean and permanently marked identifying the lot number of the material. Mixed lots of material must not be used for testing a clothes dryer.






</P>
<P>2.6.4 <I>Pre-Conditioning.</I> The test cloth must be pre-conditioned prior to first use as specified in section 5 of appendix J3 to this subpart.


</P>
<P>2.6.5 <I>Lifetime.</I> Each piece of test cloth must not be used for more than 25 test runs (after pre-conditioning).


</P>
<P>2.7 <I>Test loads.</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.1 <I>Load size.</I> Determine the load size for the unit under test, according to Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Test Loads
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit under test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load
<br/>(bone dry weight)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard size clothes dryer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.45 pounds ± .085 pounds.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Compact size clothes dryer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00 pounds ± .03 pounds.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Each test load must consist of energy test cloths and no more than five energy stuffer cloths.
</P>
<P>2.7.2 <I>Test load preparation.</I> Dampen the load by agitating it in water whose temperature is 60 °F ±5 °F and consists of 0 to 17 parts per million hardness for approximately 2 minutes to saturate the fabric. Then, extract water from the wet test load by spinning the load until the moisture content of the load is between 52.5 and 57.5 percent of the bone-dry weight of the test load. Make a final mass adjustment, such that the moisture content is 57.5 percent ±0.33 percent by adding water uniformly distributed among all of the test cloths in a very fine spray using a spray bottle.
</P>
<P>2.7.3 <I>Method of loading.</I> Load the energy test cloths by grasping them in the center, shaking them to hang loosely, and then dropping them in the dryer at random.
</P>
<P>2.8 <I>Clothes dryer pre-conditioning.</I>
</P>
<P>2.8.1 <I>Vented clothes dryers.</I> For vented clothes dryers, before any test cycle, operate the dryer without a test load in the non-heat mode for 15 minutes or until the discharge air temperature is varying less than 1 °F for 10 minutes—whichever is longer—in the test installation location with the ambient conditions within the specified test condition tolerances of section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.8.2 <I>Ventless clothes dryers.</I> For ventless clothes dryers, before any test cycle, the steady-state machine temperature must be equal to ambient room temperature described in 2.2.1. This may be done by leaving the machine at ambient room conditions for at least 12 hours between tests.
</P>
<HD1>3. Test Procedures and Measurements
</HD1>
<P>3.1 <I>Drum Capacity.</I> Measure the drum capacity by sealing all openings in the drum except the loading port with a plastic bag, and ensuring that all corners and depressions are filled and that there are no extrusions of the plastic bag through any openings in the interior of the drum. Support the dryer's rear drum surface on a platform scale to prevent deflection of the drum surface, and record the weight of the empty dryer. Fill the drum with water to a level determined by the intersection of the door plane and the loading port (<I>i.e.,</I> the uppermost edge of the drum that is in contact with the door seal). Record the temperature of the water and then the weight of the dryer with the added water and then determine the mass of the water in pounds. Add the appropriate volume to account for any space in the drum interior not measured by water fill (e.g., the space above the uppermost edge of the drum within a curved door) and subtract the appropriate volume to account for the space that is measured by water fill but cannot be used when the door is closed (e.g., space occupied by the door when closed). The drum capacity is calculated to the nearest 0.1 cubic foot as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>C=</I> w/d ±volume adjustment
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I> = capacity in cubic feet.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>w</I> = mass of water in pounds.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>d</I> = density of water at the measured temperature in pounds per cubic foot.
</FP-2>
<P>3.2 <I>Dryer Loading.</I> Load the dryer as specified in 2.7.
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Test cycle.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.1 <I>Timer dryers.</I> For timer dryers, operate the clothes dryer at the maximum temperature setting and, if equipped with a timer, at the maximum time setting. Any other optional cycle settings that do not affect the temperature or time settings shall be tested in the as-shipped position, except that if the clothes dryer has network capabilities, the network settings must be disabled throughout testing if such settings can be disabled by the end-user and the product's user manual provides instructions on how to do so. If the network settings cannot be disabled by the end-user, or the product's user manual does not provide instruction for disabling network settings, then the unit must be tested with the network settings in the factory default configuration for the test cycle. If the clothes dryer does not have a separate temperature setting selection on the control panel, the maximum time setting should be used for the drying test cycle. Dry the load until the moisture content of the test load is between 1 and 2.5 percent of the bone-dry weight of the test load, at which point the test cycle is stopped, but do not permit the dryer to advance into cool down. If required, reset the timer to increase the length of the drying cycle. After stopping the test cycle, remove and weigh the test load within 5 minutes following termination of the test cycle. The clothes dryer shall not be stopped intermittently in the middle of the test cycle for any reason. Record the data specified by section 3.4 of this appendix. If the dryer automatically stops during a cycle because the condensation box is full of water, the test is stopped, and the test run is invalid, in which case the condensation box shall be emptied and the test re-run from the beginning. For ventless clothes dryers, during the time between two cycles, the door of the dryer shall be closed except for loading and unloading.
</P>
<P>3.3.2 <I>Automatic termination control dryers.</I> For automatic termination control dryers, a “normal” program shall be selected for the test cycle. For dryers that do not have a “normal” program, the cycle recommended by the manufacturer for drying cotton or linen clothes shall be selected. Where the drying temperature setting can be chosen independently of the program, it shall be set to the maximum. Where the dryness level setting can be chosen independently of the program, it shall be set to the “normal” or “medium” dryness level setting. If such designation is not provided, then the dryness level shall be set at the mid-point between the minimum and maximum settings. If an even number of discrete settings are provided, use the next-highest setting above the midpoint, in the direction of the maximum dryness setting or next-lowest setting below the midpoint, in the direction of the minimum dryness setting. Any other optional cycle settings that do not affect the program, temperature or dryness settings shall be tested in the as-shipped position, except that if the clothes dryer has network capabilities, the network settings must be disabled throughout testing if such settings can be disabled by the end-user and the product's user manual provides instructions on how to do so. If the network settings cannot be disabled by the end-user, or the product's user manual does not provide instruction for disabling network settings, then the unit must be tested with the network settings in the factory default configuration for the test cycle.
</P>
<P>Operate the clothes dryer until the completion of the programmed cycle, including the cool down period. The cycle shall be considered complete when the dryer indicates to the user that the cycle has finished (by means of a display, indicator light, audible signal, or other signal) and the heater and drum/fan motor shuts off for the final time. If the clothes dryer is equipped with a wrinkle prevention mode (<I>i.e.,</I> that continuously or intermittently tumbles the clothes dryer drum after the clothes dryer indicates to the user that the cycle has finished) that is activated by default in the as-shipped position or if manufacturers' instructions specify that the feature is recommended to be activated for normal use, the cycle shall be considered complete after the end of the wrinkle prevention mode. After the completion of the test cycle, remove and weigh the test load within 5 minutes following termination of the test cycle. Record the data specified in section 3.4 of this appendix. If the final moisture content is greater than 2 percent, the results from the test are invalid and a second run must be conducted. Conduct the second run of the test on the unit using the highest dryness level setting. If, on this second run, the dryer does not achieve a final moisture content of 2 percent or lower, the dryer has not sufficiently dried the clothes and the test results may not be used for certification of compliance with energy conservation standards. If the dryer automatically stops during a cycle because the condensation box is full of water, the test is stopped, and the test run is invalid, in which case the condensation box shall be emptied and the test re-run from the beginning. For ventless clothes dryers, during the time between two cycles, the door of the dryer shall be closed except for loading and unloading.
</P>
<P>3.4 <I>Data recording.</I> Record for each test cycle:
</P>
<P>3.4.1 Bone-dry weight of the test load, W<E T="52">bonedry</E>, as described in section 2.7.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.2 Moisture content of the wet test load before the test, IMC, as described in section 2.7.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.3 Moisture content of the dry test load obtained after the test, FMC, as described in section 3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.4 Test room conditions, temperature, and percent relative humidity described in 2.2.1.
</P>
<P>3.4.5 For electric dryers—the total kilowatt-hours of electric energy, E<E T="52">t</E>, consumed during the test described in 3.3.
</P>
<P>3.4.6 For gas dryers:
</P>
<P>3.4.6.1 Total kilowatt-hours of electrical energy, E<E T="52">te</E>, consumed during the test described in 3.3.
</P>
<P>3.4.6.2 Cubic feet of gas per cycle, E<E T="52">tg</E>, consumed during the test described in 3.3.
</P>
<P>3.4.6.3 Correct the gas heating value, GEF, as measured in 2.3.2.1 and 2.3.2.2, to standard pressure and temperature conditions in accordance with U.S. Bureau of Standards, circular C417, 1938.
</P>
<P>3.4.7 The cycle settings selected, in accordance with section 3.3.2 of this appendix, for the automatic termination control dryer test.
</P>
<P>3.5 <I>Standby mode and off mode power.</I> Connect the clothes dryer to a watt meter as specified in section 2.4.7 of this appendix. Establish the testing conditions set forth in section 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.5.1 Perform standby mode and off mode testing after completion of an active mode drying cycle included as part of the test cycle; after removing the test load; without changing the control panel settings used for the active mode drying cycle; with the door closed; and without disconnecting the electrical energy supply to the clothes dryer between completion of the active mode drying cycle and the start of standby mode and off mode testing.
</P>
<P>3.5.2 For clothes dryers that take some time to automatically enter a stable inactive mode or off mode state from a higher power state as discussed in Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 of IEC 62301, allow sufficient time for the clothes dryer to automatically reach the default inactive/off mode state before proceeding with the test measurement.
</P>
<P>3.5.3 Once the stable inactive/off mode state has been reached, measure and record the default inactive/off mode power, P<E T="52">default</E>, in watts, following the test procedure for the sampling method specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.5.4 For a clothes dryer with a switch (or other means) that can be optionally selected by the end user to achieve a lower-power inactive/off mode state than the default inactive/off mode state measured in section 3.5.3 of this appendix, after performing the measurement in section 3.5.3 of this appendix, activate the switch (or other means) to the position resulting in the lowest power consumption and repeat the measurement procedure described in section 3.5.3 of this appendix. Measure and record the lowest inactive/off mode power, P<E T="52">lowest</E>, in watts.
</P>
<HD1>4. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD1>
<P>4.1 <I>Total per-cycle electric dryer energy consumption.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle electric dryer energy consumption required to achieve a final moisture content of 2 percent or less, E<E T="52">ce,</E> expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ce</E> = E<E T="52">t</E>,
</FP-2>
<FP>for automatic termination control dryers, and,
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ce</E> = [55.5/(IMC−FMC)] × E<E T="52">t</E> × field use,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>for timer dryers
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Where:</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>55.5 = an experimentally established value for the percent reduction in the moisture content of the test load during a laboratory test cycle expressed as a percent.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = the energy recorded in section 3.4.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>field use = 1.18, the field use factor for clothes dryers with time termination control systems only without any automatic termination control functions.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IMC = the moisture content of the wet test load as recorded in section 3.4.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FMC = the moisture content of the dry test load as recorded in section 3.4.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2 <I>Per-cycle gas dryer electrical energy consumption.</I> Calculate the per-cycle gas dryer electrical energy consumption required to achieve a final moisture content of 2 percent or less, E<E T="52">ge,</E> expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ge</E> = E<E T="52">te</E>,
</FP-2>
<FP>for automatic termination control dryers, and,
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ge</E> = [55.5/(IMC−FMC)] × E<E T="52">te</E> × field use,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>for timer dryers
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Where:</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">te</E> = the energy recorded in section 3.4.6.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP>field use, 55.5, IMC, and FMC as defined in section 4.1 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P>4.3 <I>Per-cycle gas dryer gas energy consumption.</I> Calculate the per-cycle gas dryer gas energy consumption required to achieve a final moisture content of 2 percent or less, E<E T="52">gg</E>, expressed in Btus per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gg</E> = E<E T="52">tg</E> × GEF
</FP-2>
<FP>for automatic termination control dryers, and,
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gg</E> = [55.5/(IMC−FMC)] × E<E T="52">tg</E> × field use × GEF
</FP-2>
<FP>for timer dryers
</FP>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">tg</E> = the energy recorded in section 3.4.6.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>GEF = corrected gas heat value (Btu per cubic foot) as defined in section 3.4.6.3 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP>field use, 55.5, IMC, and FMC as defined in section 4.1 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P>4.4 <I>Total per-cycle gas dryer energy consumption expressed in kilowatt-hours.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle gas dryer energy consumption required to achieve a final moisture content of 2 percent or less, E<E T="52">cg</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">cg</E> = E<E T="52">ge</E> + (E<E T="52">gg</E>/3412 Btu/kWh)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ge</E> = the energy calculated in section 4.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gg</E> = the energy calculated in section 4.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.5 <I>Per-cycle standby mode and off mode energy consumption.</I> Calculate the clothes dryer per-cycle standby mode and off mode energy consumption, E<E T="52">TSO</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TSO</E> = [(P<E T="52">default</E> × S<E T="52">default</E>) + (P<E T="52">lowest</E> × S<E T="52">lowest</E>)] × K/C<E T="52">annual</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">default</E> = Default inactive/off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lowest</E> = Lowest inactive/off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.5.4 of this appendix for clothes dryer with a switch (or other means) that can be optionally selected by the end user to achieve a lower-power inactive/off mode than the default inactive/off mode; otherwise, P<E T="52">lowest</E> =0.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">default</E> = Annual hours in default inactive/off mode, defined as 8,620 if no optional lowest-power inactive/off mode is available; otherwise 4,310.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">lowest</E> = Annual hours in lowest-power inactive/off mode, defined as 0 if no optional lowest-power inactive/off mode is available; otherwise 4,310.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = Conversion factor of watt-hours to kilowatt-hours = 0.001.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">annual</E> = Representative average number of clothes dryer cycles in a year as specified in section 4.5.1.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,620 = Combined annual hours for inactive and off mode.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,310 = One-half of the combined annual hours for inactive and off mode.
</FP-2>
<P>4.5.1 <I>Representative average number of clothes dryer cycles in a year.</I> Per the Introductory Note:
</P>
<FP-2>(1) C<E T="52">annual</E> = 283
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(2) C<E T="52">annual</E> = 236
</FP-2>
<P>4.6 <I>Per-cycle combined total energy consumption expressed in kilowatt-hours.</I> Calculate the per-cycle combined total energy consumption, E<E T="52">CC</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined for an electric clothes dryer as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CC</E> = E<E T="52">ce</E> + E<E T="52">TSO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Where:</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ce</E> = the energy calculated in section 4.1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TSO</E> = the energy calculated in section 4.5 of this appendix, and defined for a gas clothes dryer as:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CC</E> = E<E T="52">cg</E> + E<E T="52">TSO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP><I>Where:</I>
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">cg</E> = the energy calculated in section 4.4 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TSO</E> = the energy calculated in section 4.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.7 <I>Combined Energy Factor in pounds per kilowatt-hour.</I> Calculate the combined energy factor, CEF, expressed in pounds per kilowatt-hour and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>CEF = W<E T="52">bonedry</E>/E<E T="52">CC</E>
</FP-2>
<FP><I>Where:</I>
</FP>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">bonedry</E> = the bone dry test load weight recorded in section 3.4.1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CC</E> = the energy calculated in section 4.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 49647, Aug. 14, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 56641, Oct. 8, 2021; 89 FR 81305, Oct. 8, 2024; 90 FR 5536, Jan. 17, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Water Heaters
</HEAD>
<P><E T="04">Note:</E> Prior to December 18, 2023, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of consumer water heaters covered by this test method, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with either this appendix as it now appears or appendix E as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B revised as of January 1, 2021. Prior to June 15, 2024, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of residential-duty commercial water heaters covered by this test method, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with either this appendix as it now appears or appendix E as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B revised as of January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>On and after December 18, 2023, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of consumer water heaters covered by this test method, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix, except as described in the paragraphs that follow. On and after June 15, 2024, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of residential-duty commercial water heaters covered by this test method, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix, except as follows.
</P>
<P>Prior to May 6, 2029, consumer water heaters subject to section 4.10 of this appendix may optionally apply the requirements of section 4.10 of this appendix. For residential-duty commercial water heaters subject to section 4.10 of this appendix the requirements of section 4.10 of this appendix may optionally be applied prior to the compliance date of any final rule reviewing potential amended energy conservation standards for this equipment published after June 21, 2023.
</P>
<P>Prior to May 6, 2029, consumer water heaters subject to section 5.1.2 of this appendix (as specified at § 429.17(a)(1)(ii)(E) of this chapter) may optionally apply the requirements of section 5.1.2 of this appendix in lieu of the requirements in section 5.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>On or after May 6, 2029, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of consumer water heaters subject to sections 4.10 and 5.1.2 of this appendix must be based on testing conducted in accordance with those provisions.






</P>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference.
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3 the entire standard for: ASHRAE 41.1-2020; ASHRAE 41.6-2014; ASHRAE 118.2-2022; ASTM D2156-09 (R2018); and ASTM E97-1987. However, only enumerated provisions of ASHRAE 118.2-2022 are applicable to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<P>0.1 ASHRAE 118.2-2022
</P>
<P>(a) Annex B—Gas Heating Value Correction Factor;
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>0.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions.
</HD2>
<P>1.1. <I>Cut-in</I> means the time when or water temperature at which a water heater control or thermostat acts to increase the energy or fuel input to the heating elements, compressor, or burner.
</P>
<P>1.2. <I>Cut-out</I> means the time when or water temperature at which a water heater control or thermostat acts to reduce to a minimum the energy or fuel input to the heating elements, compressor, or burner.
</P>
<P>1.3. <I>Design Power Rating</I> means the power rating or input rate that a water heater manufacturer assigns to a particular design of water heater and that is included on the nameplate of the water heater, expressed in kilowatts or Btu (kJ) per hour as appropriate. For modulating water heaters, the design power rating is the maximum power rating or input rate that is specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the water heater.
</P>
<P>1.4. <I>Draw Cluster</I> means a collection of water draws initiated during the 24-hour simulated-use test during which no successive draws are separated by more than 2 hours.
</P>
<P>1.5. <I>First-Hour Rating</I> means an estimate of the maximum volume of “hot” water that a non-flow activated water heater can supply within an hour that begins with the water heater fully heated (<I>i.e.,</I> with all thermostats satisfied).
</P>
<P>1.6. <I>Flow-Activated</I> describes an operational scheme in which a water heater initiates and terminates heating based on sensing flow.
</P>
<P>1.7. <I>Heat Trap</I> means a device that can be integrally connected or independently attached to the hot and/or cold water pipe connections of a water heater such that the device will develop a thermal or mechanical seal to minimize the recirculation of water due to thermal convection between the water heater tank and its connecting pipes.
</P>
<P>1.8. <I>Maximum GPM (L/min) Rating</I> means the maximum gallons per minute (liters per minute) of hot water that can be supplied by a flow-activated water heater when tested in accordance with section 5.3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1.19 <I>Water Heater Requiring a Storage Tank</I> means a water heater without a storage tank supplied by the manufacturer that cannot meet the requirements of sections 2 and 5 of this appendix without the use of a storage water heater or unfired hot water storage tank.


</P>
<P>1.10. <I>Rated Storage Volume</I> means the water storage capacity of a water heater, in gallons (liters), as certified by the manufacturer pursuant to 10 CFR part 429.
</P>
<P>1.11. <I>Recovery Efficiency</I> means the ratio of energy delivered to the water to the energy content of the fuel consumed by the water heater.
</P>
<P>1.12. <I>Recovery Period</I> means the time when the main burner of a water heater with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons is raising the temperature of the stored water.
</P>
<P>1.13. <I>Split-system heat pump water heater</I> means a heat pump-type water heater in which at least the compressor, which may be installed outdoors, is separate from the storage tank.
</P>
<P>1.14. <I>Standby</I> means the time, in hours, during which water is not being withdrawn from the water heater.
</P>
<P>1.15. <I>Symbol Usage.</I> The following identity relationships are provided to help clarify the symbology used throughout this procedure:
</P>
<FP-1><I>C</I><E T="52">p</E>—specific heat of water
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>E</I><E T="52">annual</E>—annual energy consumption of a water heater
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>E</I><E T="52">annual,e</E>—annual electrical energy consumption of a water heater
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>E</I><E T="52">annual,f</E>—annual fossil-fuel energy consumption of a water heater
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>E</I><E T="52">X</E>—energy efficiency of a heat pump-type water heater when the 24-hour simulated use test is optionally conducted at any of the additional air temperature conditions as specified in section 2.8 of this appendix, where the subscript “X” corresponds to the dry-bulb temperature at which the test is conducted.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>F</I><E T="52">hr</E>—first-hour rating of a non-flow activated water heater
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>F</I><E T="52">max</E>—maximum GPM (L/min) rating of a flow-activated water heater
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>i</I>—a subscript to indicate the draw number during a test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>k</I><E T="52">V</E>—storage tank volume scaling ratio for water heaters with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>M</I><E T="52">del,i</E>—mass of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>M</I><E T="52">in,i</E>—mass of water entering the water heater during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>M*</I><E T="52">del,i</E>—for non-flow activated water heaters, mass of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw during the first-hour rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>M*</I><E T="52">in,i</E>—for non-flow activated water heaters, mass of water entering the water heater during the <I>i</I>th draw during the first-hour rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>M</I><E T="52">del,10m</E>—for flow-activated water heaters, mass of water removed continuously during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>M</I><E T="52">in,10m</E>—for flow-activated water heaters, mass of water entering the water heater continuously during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>n</I>—for non-flow activated water heaters, total number of draws during the first-hour rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N</I>—total number of draws during the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>N</I><E T="52">r</E>—number of draws from the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test to the end to the first recovery period as described in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I>—total fossil fuel and/or electric energy consumed during the entire 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">d</E>—daily water heating energy consumption adjusted for net change in internal energy
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">da</E>—Q<E T="52">d</E> with adjustment for variation of tank to ambient air temperature difference from nominal value
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">dm</E>—overall adjusted daily water heating energy consumption including Q<E T="52">da</E> and Q<E T="52">HWD</E>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">e</E>—total electrical energy used during the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">f</E>—total fossil fuel energy used by the water heater during the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">hr</E>—hourly standby losses of a water heater with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">HW</E>—daily energy consumption to heat water at the measured average temperature rise across the water heater
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">HW,67 °F</E>—daily energy consumption to heat quantity of water removed during test over a temperature rise of 67 °F (37.3 °C)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">HWD</E>—adjustment to daily energy consumption, Q<E T="52">HW</E>, due to variation of the temperature rise across the water heater not equal to the nominal value of 67 °F (37.3 °C)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">r</E>—energy consumption of water heater from the beginning of the test to the end of the first recovery period
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">stby</E>—total energy consumed during the standby time interval τ<E T="52">stby,1</E>, as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">su,0</E>—cumulative energy consumption, including all fossil fuel and electrical energy use, of the water heater from the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test to the start of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Q</I><E T="52">su,f</E>—cumulative energy consumption, including all fossil fuel and electrical energy use, of the water heater from the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test to the end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>—mean tank temperature at the beginning of the 24-hour simulated-use test as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">24</E>—mean tank temperature at the end of the 24-hour simulated-use test as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">a,stby</E>—average ambient air temperature during all standby periods of the 24-hour simulated-use test as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">a,stby,1</E>—overall average ambient temperature between the start and end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">t,stby,1</E>— overall average mean tank temperature between the start and end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">del</E>—for flow-activated water heaters, average outlet water temperature during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">del,i</E>—average outlet water temperature during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">in</E>—for flow-activated water heaters, average inlet water temperature during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">st</E>—for water heaters which cannot have internal tank temperature directly measured, estimated average internal storage tank temperature
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>T</I><E T="52">p</E>—for water heaters which cannot have internal tank temperature directly measured, average of the inlet and the outlet water temperatures at the end of the period defined by <I>τ</I><E T="52">p</E>
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">in,p</E>—for water heaters which cannot have internal tank temperature directly measured, average of the inlet water temperatures
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">out,p</E>—for water heaters which cannot have internal tank temperature directly measured, average of the outlet water temperatures
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">in,i</E>—average inlet water temperature during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E>—maximum measured mean tank temperature after the first recovery period of the 24-hour simulated-use test as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">su,0</E>—maximum measured mean tank temperature at the beginning of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E><E T="52">su,f</E>—measured mean tank temperature at the end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E>*<E T="52">del,i</E>—for non-flow activated water heaters, average outlet water temperature during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to n) of the first-hour rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E>*<E T="52">max,i</E>—for non-flow activated water heaters, maximum outlet water temperature observed during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to n) of the first-hour rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><E T="7503">T</E>*<E T="52">min,i</E>—for non-flow activated water heaters, minimum outlet water temperature to terminate the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to n) of the first-hour rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>UA</I>—standby loss coefficient of a water heater with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>UEF</I>—uniform energy factor of a water heater
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V</I>—the volume of hot water drawn during the applicable draw pattern
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V</I><E T="52">del,i</E>—volume of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N) of the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V</I><E T="52">in,i</E>—volume of water entering the water heater during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N) of the 24-hour simulated-use test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V*</I><E T="52">del,i</E>—for non-flow activated water heaters, volume of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to n) of the first-hour rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V*</I><E T="52">in,i</E>—for non-flow activated water heaters, volume of water entering the water heater during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to n) of the first-hour rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V</I><E T="52">del,10m</E>—for flow-activated water heaters, volume of water removed during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V</I><E T="54">in,10m</E>—for flow-activated water heaters, volume of water entering the water heater during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V</I><E T="54">st</E>—measured storage volume of the storage tank for water heaters with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>V</I><E T="54">eff</E>—effective storage volume
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>v</I><E T="54">out,p</E>—for water heaters which cannot have internal tank temperature directly measured, average flow rate
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>W</I><E T="54">f</E>—weight of storage tank when completely filled with water for water heaters with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>W</I><E T="54">t</E>—tare weight of storage tank when completely empty of water for water heaters with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>η</I><E T="54">r</E>—recovery efficiency
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>ρ</I>—density of water
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>τ</I><E T="54">p</E>—for water heaters which cannot have internal tank temperature directly measured, duration of the temperature measurement period, determined by the length of time taken for the outlet water temperature to be within 2 °F of the inlet water temperature for 15 consecutive seconds (including the 15-second stabilization period)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>τ</I><E T="54">stby,1</E>—elapsed time between the start and end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>τ</I><E T="54">stby,2</E>—overall time of standby periods when no water is withdrawn during the 24-hour simulated-use test as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix


</FP-1>
<P>1.16. <I>Temperature Controller</I> means a device that is available to the user to adjust the temperature of the water inside a water heater that stores heated water or the outlet water temperature.
</P>
<P>1.17. <I>Thermal break</I> means a thermally non-conductive material that can withstand a pressure of 150 psi (1.034 MPa) at a temperature greater than the maximum temperature the water heater is designed to produce and is utilized to insulate a bypass loop, if one is used in the test set-up, from the inlet piping.
</P>
<P>1.18. <I>Uniform Energy Factor</I> means the measure of water heater overall efficiency.
</P>
<P>1.19. <I>Water Heater Requiring a Storage Tank</I> means a water heater without a storage tank specified or supplied by the manufacturer that cannot meet the requirements of sections 2 and 5 of this appendix without the use of a storage water heater or unfired hot water storage tank.
</P>
<HD2>2. Test Conditions.
</HD2>
<P>2.1 <I>Installation Requirements.</I> Tests shall be performed with the water heater and instrumentation installed in accordance with section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Ambient Air Temperature and Relative Humidity.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1 <I>Non-Heat Pump Water Heaters.</I> The ambient air temperature shall be maintained at an average of 67.5  °F ± 2.5  °F (19.7  °C ± 1.4  °C) on a continuous basis throughout the test, with a maximum deviation of 67.5  °F ± 5  °F (19.7  °C ± 2.8  °C).


</P>
<P>2.2.2 <I>Heat Pump Water Heaters.</I> The dry-bulb temperature shall be maintained at an average of 67.5 °F ± 1 °F (19.7 °C ± 0.6 °C) after a cut-in and before the next cut-out, an average of 67.5 °F ± 2.5 °F (19.7 °C ± 1.4 °C) after a cut-out and before the next cut-in, and at 67.5 °F ± 5 °F (19.7 °C ± 2.8 °C) on a continuous basis throughout the test. The relative humidity shall be maintained within a range of 50% ± 5% throughout the test, and at an average of 50% ± 2% after a cut-in and before the next cut-out.
</P>
<P>When testing a split-system heat pump water heater or heat pump water heater requiring a separate storage tank, the heat pump portion of the system shall be tested at the conditions within this section and the separate water heater or unfired hot water storage tank shall be tested at either the conditions within this section or the conditions specified in section 2.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Supply Water Temperature.</I> The temperature of the water being supplied to the water heater shall be maintained at 58 °F ± 2 °F (14.4 °C ± 1.1 °C) throughout the test.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Outlet Water Temperature.</I> The temperature controllers of a non-flow activated water heater shall be set so that water is delivered at a temperature of 125 °F ± 5 °F (51.7 °C ± 2.8 °C).
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Set Point Temperature.</I> The temperature controller of a flow-activated water heater shall be set to deliver water at a temperature of 125 °F ± 5 °F (51.7 °C ± 2.8 °C). If the flow-activated water heater is not capable of delivering water at a temperature of 125 °F ± 5 °F (51.7 °C ± 2.8 °C) when supplied with water at the supply water temperature specified in section 2.3 of this appendix, then the flow-activated water heater shall be set to deliver water at its maximum water temperature.
</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Supply Water Pressure.</I> During the test when water is not being withdrawn, the supply pressure shall be maintained between 40 psig (275 kPa) and the maximum allowable pressure specified by the water heater manufacturer.
</P>
<P>2.7 <I>Electrical and/or Fossil Fuel Supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.1 <I>Electrical.</I> Maintain the electrical supply voltage to within ±2% of the center of the voltage range specified on the nameplate of the water heater by the water heater and/or heat pump manufacturer, from 5 seconds after a cut-in to 5 seconds before next cut-out.
</P>
<P>2.7.2 <I>Natural Gas.</I> Maintain the supply pressure in accordance with the supply pressure specified on the nameplate of the water heater by the manufacturer. If the supply pressure is not specified, maintain a supply pressure of 7-10 inches of water column (1.7-2.5 kPa). If the water heater is equipped with a gas appliance pressure regulator and the gas appliance pressure regulator can be adjusted, the regulator outlet pressure shall be within the greater of ±10% of the manufacturer's specified manifold pressure, found on the nameplate of the water heater, or ±0.2 inches water column (0.05 kPa). Maintain the gas supply pressure and manifold pressure only when operating at the design power rating. For all tests, use natural gas having a heating value of approximately 1,025 Btu per standard cubic foot (38,190 kJ per standard cubic meter).
</P>
<P>2.7.3 <I>Propane Gas.</I> Maintain the supply pressure in accordance with the supply pressure specified on the nameplate of the water heater by the manufacturer. If the supply pressure is not specified, maintain a supply pressure of 11-13 inches of water column (2.7-3.2 kPa). If the water heater is equipped with a gas appliance pressure regulator and the gas appliance pressure regulator can be adjusted, the regulator outlet pressure shall be within the greater of ±10% of the manufacturer's specified manifold pressure, found on the nameplate of the water heater, or ±0.2 inches water column (0.05 kPa). Maintain the gas supply pressure and manifold pressure only when operating at the design power rating. For all tests, use propane gas with a heating value of approximately 2,500 Btu per standard cubic foot (93,147 kJ per standard cubic meter).
</P>
<P>2.7.4 <I>Fuel Oil Supply.</I> Maintain an uninterrupted supply of fuel oil. The fuel pump pressure shall be within ±10% of the pump pressure specified on the nameplate of the water heater or the installation and operations (I&amp;O) manual by the manufacturer. Use fuel oil having a heating value of approximately 138,700 Btu per gallon (38,660 kJ per liter).
</P>
<P>2.8 <I>Optional Test Conditions (Heat Pump-Type Water Heaters).</I> The following test conditions may be used for optional representations of E<E T="52">X</E> for heat pump-type water heaters. When conducting a 24-hour simulated use test to determine E<E T="52">X,</E> the test conditions in section 2.1 and sections 2.4 through 2.7 apply. The ambient air temperature and humidity conditions in section 2.2 and the supply water temperature in section 2.3 are replaced with the air temperature, humidity, and supply water temperature conditions as shown in the following table. Testing may optionally be performed at any or all of the conditions in the table, and the sampling plan found at 10 CFR 429.17(a) may be applied for voluntary representations.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Heat pump type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Metric
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Outdoor air conditions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Indoor air conditions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Supply water


<br/>temperature

<br/>( °F)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry-bulb


<br/>temperature

<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Relative


<br/>humidity

<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry-bulb


<br/>temperature

<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Relative


<br/>humidity

<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Split-System or Circulating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E<E T="0732">5</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E<E T="0732">34</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E<E T="0732">95</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Integrated, Split-System, or Circulating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E<E T="0732">50</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E<E T="0732">95</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3. Instrumentation.
</HD2>
<P>3.1 <I>Pressure Measurements.</I> Pressure-measuring instruments shall have an error no greater than the following values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item measured
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instrument accuracy
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instrument precision
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.1 inch of water column (±0.025 kPa)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.05 inch of water column (±0.012 kPa).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Atmospheric pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.1 inch of mercury column (±0.34 kPa)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.05 inch of mercury column (±0.17 kPa).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±1.0 pounds per square inch (±6.9 kPa)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.50 pounds per square inch (±3.45 kPa).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.2 <I>Temperature Measurement</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.1 <I>Measurement.</I> Temperature measurements shall be made in accordance with the Standard Method for Temperature Measurement, ASHRAE 41.1-2020, including the conditions as specified in ASHRAE 41.6-2014 as referenced in ASHRAE 41.1-2020, and excluding the steady-state temperature criteria in section 5.5 of ASHRAE 41.1-2020.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 <I>Accuracy and Precision.</I> The accuracy and precision of the instruments, including their associated readout devices, shall be within the following limits:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item measured
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instrument accuracy
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instrument precision
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air dry-bulb temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.2 °F (±0.1 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.1 °F (±0.06 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air wet-bulb temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.2 °F (±0.1 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.1 °F (±0.06 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inlet and outlet water temperatures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.2 °F (±0.1 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.1 °F (±0.06 °C).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Storage tank temperatures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.5 °F (±0.3 °C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.25 °F (±0.14 °C).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.2.3 <I>Scale Division.</I> In no case shall the smallest scale division of the instrument or instrument system exceed 2 times the specified precision.
</P>
<P>3.2.4 <I>Temperature Difference.</I> Temperature difference between the entering and leaving water may be measured with any of the following:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) A thermopile
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Calibrated resistance thermometers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Precision thermometers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Calibrated thermistors
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Calibrated thermocouples
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Quartz thermometers


</FP-1>
<P>3.2.5 <I>Thermopile Construction.</I> If a thermopile is used, it shall be made from calibrated thermocouple wire taken from a single spool. Extension wires to the recording device shall also be made from that same spool.
</P>
<P>3.2.6 <I>Time Constant.</I> The time constant of the instruments used to measure the inlet and outlet water temperatures shall be no greater than 2 seconds.
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Liquid Flow Rate Measurement.</I> The accuracy of the liquid flow rate measurement, using the calibration if furnished, shall be equal to or less than ±1% of the measured value in mass units per unit time.
</P>
<P>3.4 <I>Electrical Energy.</I> The electrical energy used shall be measured with an instrument and associated readout device that is accurate within ±0.5% of the reading.
</P>
<P>3.5 <I>Fossil Fuels.</I> The quantity of fuel used by the water heater shall be measured with an instrument and associated readout device that is accurate within ±1% of the reading.
</P>
<P>3.6 <I>Mass Measurements.</I> For mass measurements greater than or equal to 10 pounds (4.5 kg), a scale that is accurate within ±0.5% of the reading shall be used to make the measurement. For mass measurements less than 10 pounds (4.5 kg), the scale shall provide a measurement that is accurate within ±0.1 pound (0.045 kg).
</P>
<P>3.7 <I>Heating Value.</I> The higher heating value of the natural gas, propane, or fuel oil shall be measured with an instrument and associated readout device that is accurate within ±1% of the reading. The heating values of natural gas and propane must be corrected from those measured to the standard temperature of 60.0 °F (15.6 °C) and standard pressure of 30 inches of mercury column (101.6 kPa) using the method described in Annex B of ASHRAE 118.2-2022.
</P>
<P>3.8 <I>Time.</I> The elapsed time measurements shall be measured with an instrument that is accurate within ±0.5 seconds per hour.
</P>
<P>3.9 <I>Volume.</I> Volume measurements shall be measured with an accuracy of ±2% of the total volume.
</P>
<P>3.10 <I>Relative Humidity.</I> If a relative humidity (RH) transducer is used to measure the relative humidity of the surrounding air while testing heat pump water heaters, the relative humidity shall be measured with an accuracy of ±1.5% RH.
</P>
<HD2>4. Installation.
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Water Heater Mounting.</I> A water heater designed to be freestanding shall be placed on a 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch (2 cm) thick plywood platform supported by three 2x4 inch (5 cm x 10 cm) runners. If the water heater is not approved for installation on combustible flooring, suitable non-combustible material shall be placed between the water heater and the platform. Water heaters designed to be installed into a kitchen countertop space shall be placed against a simulated wall section. Wall-mounted water heaters shall be supported on a simulated wall in accordance with the manufacturer-published installation instructions. When a simulated wall is used, the construction shall be 2x4 inch (5 cm x 10 cm) studs, faced with 
<FR>3/4</FR> inch (2 cm) plywood. For heat pump water heaters not delivered as a single package, the units shall be connected in accordance with the manufacturer-published installation instructions, and the overall system shall be placed on the above-described plywood platform. If installation instructions are not provided by the heat pump manufacturer, uninsulated 8 foot (2.4 m) long connecting hoses having an inside diameter of 
<FR>5/8</FR> inch (1.6 cm) shall be used to connect the storage tank and the heat pump water heater. With the exception of using the storage tank described in section 4.10 of this appendix, the same requirements shall apply for water heaters requiring a storage tank. The testing of the water heater shall occur in an area that is protected from drafts of more than 50 ft/min (0.25 m/s) from room ventilation registers, windows, or other external sources of air movement.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Water Supply.</I> Connect the water heater to a water supply capable of delivering water at conditions as specified in sections 2.3 and 2.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.3 <I>Water Inlet and Outlet Configuration.</I> For freestanding water heaters that are taller than 36 inches (91.4 cm), inlet and outlet piping connections shall be configured in a manner consistent with Figures 1 and 2 of section 7 of this appendix. Inlet and outlet piping connections for wall-mounted water heaters shall be consistent with Figure 3 of section 7 of this appendix. For freestanding water heaters that are 36 inches or less in height and not supplied as part of a counter-top enclosure (commonly referred to as an under-the-counter model), inlet and outlet piping shall be installed in a manner consistent with Figures 4, 5, or 6 of section 7 of this appendix. For water heaters that are supplied with a counter-top enclosure, inlet and outlet piping shall be made in a manner consistent with Figures 7a and 7b of section 7 of this appendix, respectively. The vertical piping noted in Figures 7a and 7b shall be located (whether inside the enclosure or along the outside in a recessed channel) in accordance with the manufacturer-published installation instructions.
</P>
<P>All dimensions noted in Figures 1 through 7 of section 7 of this appendix must be achieved. All piping between the water heater and inlet and outlet temperature sensors, noted as T<E T="52">IN</E> and T<E T="52">OUT</E> in the figures, shall be Type “L” hard copper having the same diameter as the connections on the water heater. Unions may be used to facilitate installation and removal of the piping arrangements. Install a pressure gauge and diaphragm expansion tank in the supply water piping at a location upstream of the inlet temperature sensor. Install an appropriately rated pressure and temperature relief valve on all water heaters at the port specified by the manufacturer. Discharge piping for the relief valve must be non-metallic. If heat traps, piping insulation, or pressure relief valve insulation are supplied with the water heater, they must be installed for testing. Except when using a simulated wall, provide sufficient clearance such that none of the piping contacts other surfaces in the test room.
</P>
<P>At the discretion of the test laboratory, the mass or water delivered may be measured on either the inlet or outlet of the water heater.
</P>
<P>For water heaters designed to be used with a mixing valve and that do not have a self-contained mixing valve, a mixing valve shall be installed according to the water heater and/or mixing valve manufacturer's installation instructions. If permitted by the water heater and mixing valve manufacturer's instructions, the mixing valve and cold water junction may be installed where the elbows are located in the outlet and inlet line, respectively. If there are no installation instructions for the mixing valve in the water heater or mixing valve manufacturer's instructions, then the mixing valve shall be installed on the outlet line and the cold water shall be supplied from the inlet line from a junction installed downstream from the location where the inlet water temperature is measured. The outlet water temperature, water flow rate, and/or mass measuring instrumentation, if installed on the outlet side of the water heater, shall be installed downstream from the mixing valve.
</P>
<P>4.4 <I>Fuel and/or Electrical Power and Energy Consumption.</I> Install one or more instruments that measure, as appropriate, the quantity and rate of electrical energy and/or fossil fuel consumption in accordance with section 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.5 <I>Internal Storage Tank Temperature Measurements.</I> For water heaters with rated storage volumes greater than or equal to 20 gallons, install six temperature measurement sensors inside the water heater tank with a vertical distance of at least 4 inches (100 mm) between successive sensors. For water heaters with rated storage volumes between 2 and 20 gallons, install three temperature measurement sensors inside the water heater tank. Position a temperature sensor at the vertical midpoint of each of the six equal volume nodes within a tank larger than 20 gallons or the three equal volume nodes within a tank between 2 and 20 gallons. Nodes designate the equal volumes used to evenly partition the total volume of the tank. As much as is possible, the temperature sensor should be positioned away from any heating elements, anodic protective devices, tank walls, and flue pipe walls. If the tank cannot accommodate six temperature sensors and meet the installation requirements specified in this section, install the maximum number of sensors that comply with the installation requirements. Install the temperature sensors through:
</P>
<P>(a) The anodic device opening;
</P>
<P>(b) The relief valve opening; or
</P>
<P>(c) The hot water outlet.
</P>
<P>If installed through the relief valve opening or the hot water outlet, a tee fitting or outlet piping, as applicable, must be installed as close as possible to its original location. If the relief valve temperature sensor is relocated, and it no longer extends into the top of the tank, install a substitute relief valve that has a sensing element that can reach into the tank. If the hot water outlet includes a heat trap, install the heat trap on top of the tee fitting. Cover any added fittings with thermal insulation having an R value between 4 and 8 h·ft
<SU>2</SU>· °F/Btu (0.7 and 1.4 m
<SU>2</SU>· °C/W). If temperature measurement sensors cannot be installed within the water heater, follow the alternate procedures in section 5.4.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.6 <I>Ambient Air Temperature Measurement.</I> Install an ambient air temperature sensor at the vertical midpoint of the water heater and approximately 2 feet (610 mm) from the surface of the water heater. Shield the sensor against radiation.
</P>
<P>4.7 <I>Inlet and Outlet Water Temperature Measurements.</I> Install temperature sensors in the cold-water inlet pipe and hot-water outlet pipe as shown in Figures 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7a, and 7b of section 7 of this appendix, as applicable.
</P>
<P>4.8 <I>Flow Control.</I> Install a valve or valves to provide flow as specified in sections 5.3 and 5.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.9 <I>Flue Requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>4.9.1 <I>Gas-Fired Water Heaters.</I> Establish a natural draft in the following manner. For gas-fired water heaters with a vertically discharging draft hood outlet, connect to the draft hood outlet a 5-foot (1.5-meter) vertical vent pipe extension with a diameter equal to the largest flue collar size of the draft hood. For gas-fired water heaters with a horizontally discharging draft hood outlet, connect to the draft hood outlet a 90-degree elbow with a diameter equal to the largest flue collar size of the draft hood, connect a 5-foot (1.5-meter) length of vent pipe to that elbow, and orient the vent pipe to discharge vertically upward. Install direct-vent gas-fired water heaters with venting equipment specified by the manufacturer in the I&amp;O manual using the minimum vertical and horizontal lengths of vent pipe recommended by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>4.9.2 <I>Oil-Fired Water Heaters.</I> Establish a draft at the flue collar at the value specified by the manufacturer in the I&amp;O manual. Establish the draft by using a sufficient length of vent pipe connected to the water heater flue outlet, and directed vertically upward. For an oil-fired water heater with a horizontally discharging draft hood outlet, connect to the draft hood outlet a 90-degree elbow with a diameter equal to the largest flue collar size of the draft hood, connect to the elbow fitting a length of vent pipe sufficient to establish the draft, and orient the vent pipe to discharge vertically upward. Direct-vent oil-fired water heaters should be installed with venting equipment as specified by the manufacturer in the I&amp;O manual, using the minimum vertical and horizontal lengths of vent pipe recommended by the manufacturer.




</P>
<P>4.10 <I>Storage Tank Requirement for Water Heaters Requiring a Storage Tank (i.e., Circulating Water Heaters).</I> On or after May 6, 2029, when testing a gas-fired, oil-fired, or electric resistance circulating water heater (<I>i.e.,</I> any circulating water heater that does not use a heat pump), the tank to be used for testing shall be an unfired hot water storage tank having volume between 80 and 120 gallons (364-546 liters) determined using the method specified in section 5.2.1 of this appendix that meets but does not exceed the minimum energy conservation standards required according to § 431.110 of this chapter. When testing a heat pump circulating water heater, the tank to be used for testing shall be an electric storage water heater that has a measured volume of 30 gallons (±5 gallons), has a First-Hour Rating less than 51 gallons resulting in classification under the low draw pattern, and has a rated UEF equal to the minimum UEF standard specified at § 430.32(d), rounded to the nearest 0.01. The operational mode of the heat pump circulating water heater and storage water heater paired system shall be set in accordance with section 5.1.1 of this appendix. If the circulating water heater is supplied with a separate non-integrated circulating pump, install this pump as per the manufacturer's installation instructions and include its power consumption in energy use measurements.


</P>
<P>4.11 <I>External Communication.</I> If the water heater can connect to an external network or controller, any external communication or connection shall be disabled for the duration of testing; however, the communication module shall remain in an “on” state.
</P>
<HD2>5. Test Procedures.
</HD2>
<P>5.1 <I>Operational Mode Selection.</I> For water heaters that allow for multiple user-selected operational modes, all procedures specified in this appendix shall be carried out with the water heater in the same operational mode (<I>i.e.,</I> only one mode).
</P>
<P>5.1.1 <I>Testing at Normal Setpoint.</I> The operational mode shall be the default mode (or similarly named, suggested mode for normal operation) as defined by the manufacturer in the I&amp;O manual for giving selection guidance to the consumer. For heat pump water heaters, if a default mode is not defined in the product literature, each test shall be conducted under an operational mode in which both the heat pump and any electric resistance back-up heating element(s) are activated by the unit's control scheme, and which can achieve the internal storage tank temperature specified in this test procedure; if multiple operational modes meet these criteria, the water heater shall be tested under the most energy-intensive mode. If no default mode is specified and the unit does not offer an operational mode that utilizes both the heat pump and the electric resistance back-up heating element(s), the first-hour rating test and the 24-hour simulated-use test shall be tested in heat-pump-only mode. For other types of water heaters where a default mode is not specified, test the unit in all modes and rate the unit using the results of the most energy-intensive mode.


</P>
<P>5.1.2 <I>High Temperature Testing.</I> This paragraph applies to electric storage water heaters capable of achieving a T<E T="52">max,1</E> above 135 °F. The following exceptions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Electric storage water heaters that do not have a permanent mode or setting in which the water heater is capable of heating and storing water above 135 °F (as measured by T<E T="52">max,1</E>), where permanent mode or setting means a mode of operation that is continuous and does not require any external consumer intervention to maintain for longer than 120 hours;
</P>
<P>(2) Electric storage water heaters that meet the definition of “heat pump-type” water heater at § 430.2;
</P>
<P>(3) Electric storage water heaters that are only capable of heating the stored water above 135 °F in response to instructions received from a utility or third-party demand-response program.
</P>
<P>(4) Electric storage water heaters with measured storage volumes (V<E T="52">st</E>) less than 20 gallons or greater than 55 gallons.


</P>
<P>This paragraph may optionally apply to electric heat pump water heaters for voluntary representations of high-temperature operation only.
</P>
<P>For those equipped with factory-installed or built-in mixing valves, set the unit to maintain the highest mean tank temperature possible while delivering water at 125 °F ±5 °F. For those not so equipped, install an ASSE 1017-certified mixing valve in accordance with the provisions in section 4.3 of this appendix and adjust the valve to deliver water at 125 °F ±5 °F when the water heater is operating at its highest storage tank temperature setpoint. Maintain this setting throughout the entirety of the test.


</P>
<P>5.2 <I>Water Heater Preparation.</I>


</P>
<P>5.2 1 <I>Determination of Storage Tank Volume.</I> For water heaters and separate storage tanks used for testing circulating water heaters, determine the storage capacity, V<E T="52">st,</E> of the water heater or separate storage tank under test, in gallons (liters), by subtracting the tare weight, W<E T="52">t</E>, (measured while the tank is empty) from the gross weight of the storage tank when completely filled with water at the supply water temperature specified in section 2.3 of this appendix, W<E T="52">f</E>, (with all air eliminated and line pressure applied as described in section 2.6 of this appendix) and dividing the resulting net weight by the density of water at the measured temperature.


</P>
<P>5.2.2 <I>Setting the Outlet Discharge Temperature.</I>
</P>
<P>5.2.2.1 <I>Flow-Activated Water Heaters, including certain instantaneous water heaters and certain storage-type water heaters.</I> Initiate normal operation of the water heater at the design power rating. Monitor the discharge water temperature and set to the value specified in section 2.5 of this appendix in accordance with the manufacturer's I&amp;O manual. If the water heater is not capable of providing this discharge temperature when the flow rate is 1.7 gallons ± 0.25 gallons per minute (6.4 liters ± 0.95 liters per minute), then adjust the flow rate as necessary to achieve the specified discharge water temperature. Once the proper temperature control setting is achieved, the setting must remain fixed for the duration of the maximum GPM test and the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</P>
<P>5.2.2.2 <I>All Other Water Heaters.</I>
</P>
<P>5.2.2.2.1 <I>Water Heaters with a Single Temperature Controller.</I>
</P>
<P>5.2.2.2.1.1 <I>Water Heaters with Rated Volumes Less than 20 Gallons.</I> Starting with a tank at the supply water temperature as specified in section 2.3 of this appendix, initiate normal operation of the water heater. After cut-out, initiate a draw from the water heater at a flow rate of 1.0 gallon ± 0.25 gallons per minute (3.8 liters ± 0.95 liters per minute) for 2 minutes. Starting 15 seconds after commencement of the draw, record the outlet temperature at 15-second intervals until the end of the 2-minute period. Determine whether the maximum outlet temperature is within the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix. If not, turn off the water heater, adjust the temperature controller, and then drain and refill the tank with supply water at the temperature specified in section 2.3 of this appendix. Then, once again, initiate normal operation of the water heater, and repeat the 2-minute outlet temperature test following cut-out. Repeat this sequence until the maximum outlet temperature during the 2-minute test is within the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix. Once the proper temperature control setting is achieved, the setting must remain fixed for the duration of the first-hour rating test and the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</P>
<P>5.2.2.2.1.2 <I>Water Heaters with Rated Volumes Greater than or Equal to 20 Gallons.</I> Starting with a tank at the supply water temperature specified in section 2.3 of this appendix, initiate normal operation of the water heater. After cut-out, initiate a draw from the water heater at a flow rate of 1.7 gallons ± 0.25 gallons per minute (6.4 liters ± 0.95 liters per minute) for 5 minutes. Starting 15 seconds after commencement of the draw, record the outlet temperature at 15-second intervals until the end of the 5-minute period. Determine whether the maximum outlet temperature is within the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix. If not, turn off the water heater, adjust the temperature controller, and then drain and refill the tank with supply water at the temperature specified in section 2.3 of this appendix. Then, once again, initiate normal operation of the water heater, and repeat the 5-minute outlet temperature test following cut-out. Repeat this sequence until the maximum outlet temperature during the 5-minute test is within the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix. Once the proper temperature control setting is achieved, the setting must remain fixed for the duration of the first-hour rating test and the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</P>
<P>5.2.2.2.2 <I>Water Heaters with Two or More Temperature Controllers.</I> Verify the temperature controller set-point while removing water in accordance with the procedure set forth for the first-hour rating test in section 5.3.3 of this appendix. The following criteria must be met to ensure that all temperature controllers are set to deliver water in the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>(a) At least 50 percent of the water drawn during the first draw of the first-hour rating test procedure shall be delivered at a temperature within the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) No water is delivered above the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix during first-hour rating test.
</P>
<P>(c) The delivery temperature measured 15 seconds after commencement of each draw begun prior to an elapsed time of 60 minutes from the start of the test shall be within the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>If these conditions are not met, turn off the water heater, adjust the temperature controllers, and then drain and refill the tank with supply water at the temperature specified in section 2.3 of this appendix. Repeat the procedure described at the start of section 5.2.2.2.2 of this appendix until the criteria for setting the temperature controllers is met.
</P>
<P>If the conditions stated above are met, the data obtained during the process of verifying the temperature control set-points may be used in determining the first-hour rating provided that all other conditions and methods required in sections 2 and 5.2.4 of this appendix in preparing the water heater were followed.
</P>
<P>5.2.3 <I>Power Input Determination.</I> For all water heaters except electric types, initiate normal operation (as described in section 5.1 of this appendix) and determine the power input, P, to the main burners (including pilot light power, if any) after 15 minutes of operation. Adjust all burners to achieve an hourly Btu (kJ) rating that is within ±2% of the maximum input rate value specified by the manufacturer. For an oil-fired water heater, adjust the burner to give a CO<E T="52">2</E> reading recommended by the manufacturer and an hourly Btu (kJ) rating that is within ±2% of the maximum input rate specified by the manufacturer. Smoke in the flue may not exceed No. 1 smoke as measured by the procedure in ASTM D2156 (R2018), including the conditions as specified in ASTM E97-1987 as referenced in ASTM D2156 (R2018). If the input rating is not within ±2%, first increase or decrease the fuel pressure within the tolerances specified in section 2.7.2, 2.7.3 or 2.7.4 (as applicable) of this appendix until it is ±2% of the maximum input rate value specified by the manufacturer. If, after adjusting the fuel pressure, the fuel input rate cannot be achieved within ±2 percent of the maximum input rate value specified by the manufacturer, for gas-fired models increase or decrease the gas supply pressure within the range specified by the manufacturer. Finally, if the measured fuel input rate is still not within ±2 percent of the maximum input rate value specified by the manufacturer, modify the gas inlet orifice, if so equipped, as necessary to achieve a fuel input rate that is within ±2 percent of the maximum input rate value specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>5.2.4 <I>Soak-In Period for Water Heaters with Rated Storage Volumes Greater than or Equal to 2 Gallons.</I> For water heaters with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons (7.6 liters), the water heater must sit filled with water, connected to a power source, and without any draws taking place for at least 12 hours after initially being energized so as to achieve the nominal temperature set-point within the tank and with the unit connected to a power source.
</P>
<P>5.3 <I>Delivery Capacity Tests.</I>
</P>
<P>5.3.1 <I>General.</I> For flow-activated water heaters, conduct the maximum GPM test, as described in section 5.3.2, Maximum GPM Rating Test for Flow-Activated Water Heaters, of this appendix. For all other water heaters, conduct the first-hour rating test as described in section 5.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.3.2 <I>Maximum GPM Rating Test for Flow-Activated Water Heaters.</I> Establish normal water heater operation at the design power rating with the discharge water temperature set in accordance with section 5.2.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For this 10-minute test, either collect the withdrawn water for later measurement of the total mass removed or use a water meter to directly measure the water mass of volume removed. Initiate water flow through the water heater and record the inlet and outlet water temperatures beginning 15 seconds after the start of the test and at subsequent 5-second intervals throughout the duration of the test. At the end of 10 minutes, turn off the water. Determine and record the mass of water collected, M<E T="52">10m</E>, in pounds (kilograms), or the volume of water, V<E T="52">10m</E>, in gallons (liters).
</P>
<P>5.3.3 <I>First-Hour Rating Test.</I>
</P>
<P>5.3.3.1 <I>General.</I> During hot water draws for water heaters with rated storage volumes greater than or equal to 20 gallons, remove water at a rate of 3.0 ± 0.25 gallons per minute (11.4 ± 0.95 liters per minute). During hot water draws for water heaters with rated storage volumes below 20 gallons, remove water at a rate of 1.5 ± 0.25 gallon per minute (5.7 ± 0.95 liters per minute). Collect the water in a container that is large enough to hold the volume removed during an individual draw and is suitable for weighing at the termination of each draw to determine the total volume of water withdrawn. As an alternative to collecting the water, a water meter may be used to directly measure the water mass or volume withdrawn during each draw.
</P>
<P>5.3.3.2 <I>Draw Initiation Criteria.</I> Begin the first-hour rating test by starting a draw on the water heater. After completion of this first draw, initiate successive draws based on the following criteria. For gas-fired and oil-fired water heaters, initiate successive draws when the temperature controller acts to reduce the supply of fuel to the main burner. For electric water heaters having a single element or multiple elements that all operate simultaneously, initiate successive draws when the temperature controller acts to reduce the electrical input supplied to the element(s). For electric water heaters having two or more elements that do not operate simultaneously, initiate successive draws when the applicable temperature controller acts to reduce the electrical input to the energized element located vertically highest in the storage tank. For heat pump water heaters that do not use supplemental, resistive heating, initiate successive draws immediately after the electrical input to the compressor is reduced by the action of the water heater's temperature controller. For heat pump water heaters that use supplemental resistive heating, initiate successive draws immediately after the electrical input to the first of either the compressor or the vertically highest resistive element is reduced by the action of the applicable water heater temperature controller. This draw initiation criterion for heat pump water heaters that use supplemental resistive heating, however, shall only apply when the water located above the thermostat at cut-out is heated to within the range specified in section 2.4 of this appendix. If this criterion is not met, then the next draw should be initiated once the heat pump compressor cuts out.
</P>
<P>5.3.3.3 <I>Test Sequence.</I> Establish normal water heater operation. If the water heater is not presently operating, initiate a draw. The draw may be terminated any time after cut-in occurs. After cut-out occurs (<I>i.e.,</I> all temperature controllers are satisfied), if the water heater can have its internal tank temperatures measured, record the internal storage tank temperature at each sensor described in section 4.5 of this appendix every one minute, and determine the mean tank temperature by averaging the values from these sensors.
</P>
<P>Initiate a draw after a maximum mean tank temperature (the maximum of the mean temperatures of the individual sensors) has been observed following a cut-out. If the water heater cannot have its internal tank temperatures measured, wait 5 minutes after cut-out. Record the time when the draw is initiated and designate it as an elapsed time of zero (τ* = 0). (The superscript * is used to denote variables pertaining to the first-hour rating test). Record the outlet water temperature beginning 15 seconds after the draw is initiated and at 5-second intervals thereafter until the draw is terminated. Determine the maximum outlet temperature that occurs during this first draw and record it as T*<E T="52">max,1</E>. For the duration of this first draw and all successive draws, in addition, monitor the inlet temperature to the water heater to ensure that the required supply water temperature test condition specified in section 2.3 of this appendix is met. Terminate the hot water draw when the outlet temperature decreases to T*<E T="52">max,1</E>−15 °F (T*<E T="52">max,1</E>−8.3 °C). (Note, if the outlet temperature does not decrease to T*<E T="52">max,1</E>−15 °F (T*<E T="52">max,1</E>−8.3 °C) during the draw, then hot water would be drawn continuously for the duration of the test. In this instance, the test would end when the temperature decreases to T*<E T="52">max,1</E>−15 °F (T*<E T="52">max,1</E>−8.3 °C) after the electrical power and/or fuel supplied to the water heater is shut off, as described in the following paragraphs.) Record this temperature as T*<E T="52">min,1</E>. Following draw termination, determine the average outlet water temperature and the mass or volume removed during this first draw and record them as <E T="7501">T</E>*<E T="52">del,i</E> and M*<E T="52">1</E> or V*<E T="52">1</E>, respectively.
</P>
<P>Initiate a second and, if applicable, successive draw(s) each time the applicable draw initiation criteria described in section 5.3.3.2 of this appendix are satisfied. As required for the first draw, record the outlet water temperature 15 seconds after initiating each draw and at 5-second intervals thereafter until the draw is terminated. Determine the maximum outlet temperature that occurs during each draw and record it as T*<E T="52">max,i</E>, where the subscript i refers to the draw number. Terminate each hot water draw when the outlet temperature decreases to T*<E T="52">max,i</E>−15 °F (T*<E T="52">max,i</E>−8.3 °C). Record this temperature as T*<E T="52">min,i</E>. Calculate and record the average outlet temperature and the mass or volume removed during each draw (<E T="7501">T</E>*<E T="52">del,i</E> and M*<E T="52">i</E> or V*<E T="52">i</E>, respectively). Continue this sequence of draw and recovery until one hour after the start of the test, then shut off the electrical power and/or fuel supplied to the water heater.
</P>
<P>If a draw is occurring at one hour from the start of the test, continue this draw until the outlet temperature decreases to T*<E T="52">max,n</E>−15 °F (T*<E T="52">max,n</E>−8.3 °C), at which time the draw shall be immediately terminated. (The subscript n shall be used to denote measurements associated with the final draw.) If a draw is not occurring one hour after the start of the test, initiate a final draw at one hour, regardless of whether the criteria described in section 5.3.3.2 of this appendix are satisfied. This draw shall proceed for a minimum of 30 seconds and shall terminate when the outlet temperature first indicates a value less than or equal to the cut-off temperature used for the previous draw (T*<E T="52">min,n−1</E>). If an outlet temperature greater than T*<E T="52">min,n−1</E> is not measured within 30 seconds of initiation of the draw, zero additional credit shall be given towards first-hour rating (<I>i.e.,</I> M*<E T="52">n</E> = 0 or V*<E T="52">n</E> = 0) based on the final draw. After the final draw is terminated, calculate and record the average outlet temperature and the mass or volume removed during the final draw (<E T="7501">T</E>*<E T="52">del,n</E> and M*<E T="52">n</E> or V*<E T="52">n,</E> respectively).
</P>
<P>5.4 <I>24-Hour Simulated-Use Test.</I>
</P>
<P>5.4.1 <I>Selection of Draw Pattern.</I> The water heater will be tested under a draw profile that depends upon the first-hour rating obtained following the test prescribed in section 5.3.3 of this appendix, or the maximum GPM rating obtained following the test prescribed in section 5.3.2 of this appendix, whichever is applicable. For water heaters that have been tested according to the first-hour rating procedure, one of four different patterns shall be applied based on the measured first-hour rating, as shown in Table I of this section. For water heater that have been tested according to the maximum GPM rating procedure, one of four different patterns shall be applied based on the maximum GPM, as shown in Table II of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table I—Draw Pattern To Be Used Based on First-Hour Rating
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">First-hour rating greater than or equal to:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">. . . and first-hour rating less than:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Draw pattern to be used in the 24-hour simulated-use test
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very-Small-Usage (Table III.1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">51 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Usage (Table III.2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium-Usage (Table III.3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75 gallons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No upper limit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High-Usage (Table III.4).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table II—Draw Pattern To Be Used Based on Maximum GPM Rating
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum GPM rating greater than or equal to:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">and maximum GPM rating less than:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Draw pattern to be used in the 24-hour simulated-use test
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 gallons/minute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 gallons/minute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very-Small-Usage (Table III.1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.7 gallons/minute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8 gallons/minute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Usage (Table III.2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.8 gallons/minute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 gallons/minute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium-Usage (Table III.3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 gallons/minute</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No upper limit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High-Usage (Table III.4).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The draw patterns are provided in Tables III.1 through III.4 in section 5.5 of this appendix. Use the appropriate draw pattern when conducting the test sequence provided in section 5.4.2 of this appendix for water heaters with rated storage volumes greater than or equal to 2 gallons or section 5.4.3 of this appendix for water heaters with rated storage volumes less than 2 gallons.
</P>
<P>5.4.2 <I>Test Sequence for Water Heater With Rated Storage Volume Greater Than or Equal to 2 Gallons.</I>
</P>
<P>If the water heater is turned off, fill the water heater with supply water at the temperature specified in section 2.3 of this appendix and maintain supply water pressure as described in section 2.6 of this appendix. Turn on the water heater and associated heat pump unit, if present. If turned on in this fashion, the soak-in period described in section 5.2.4 of this appendix shall be implemented. If the water heater has undergone a first-hour rating test prior to conduct of the 24-hour simulated-use test, allow the water heater to fully recover after completion of that test such that the main burner, heating elements, or heat pump compressor of the water heater are no longer raising the temperature of the stored water. In all cases, the water heater shall sit idle for 1 hour prior to the start of the 24-hour test; during which time no water is drawn from the unit, and there is no energy input to the main heating elements, heat pump compressor, and/or burners.
</P>
<P>For water heaters that can have their internal storage tank temperature measured directly, perform testing in accordance with the instructions in section 5.4.2.1 of this appendix. For water heaters that cannot have their internal tank temperatures measured, perform testing in accordance with the instructions in section 5.4.2.2. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.4.2.1 <I>Water Heaters Which Can Have Internal Storage Tank Temperature Measured Directly.</I>
</P>
<P>After the 1-hour period specified in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, the 24-hour simulated-use test will begin. One minute prior to the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test, record the mean tank temperature (T<E T="52">0</E>).
</P>
<P>At the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test, record the electrical and/or fuel measurement readings, as appropriate. Begin the 24-hour simulated-use test by withdrawing the volume specified in the appropriate table in section 5.5 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> Table III.1, Table III.2, Table III.3, or Table III.4, depending on the first-hour rating or maximum GPM rating) for the first draw at the flow rate specified in the applicable table. Record the time when this first draw is initiated and assign it as the test elapsed time (τ) of zero (0). Record the average storage tank and ambient temperature every minute throughout the 24-hour simulated-use test. At the elapsed times specified in the applicable draw pattern table in section 5.5 of this appendix for a particular draw pattern, initiate additional draws pursuant to the draw pattern, removing the volume of hot water at the prescribed flow rate specified by the table. The maximum allowable deviation from the specified volume of water removed for any single draw taken at a nominal flow rate of 1.0 GPM or 1.7 GPM is ±0.1 gallons (±0.4 liters). The maximum allowable deviation from the specified volume of water removed for any single draw taken at a nominal flow rate of 3.0 GPM is ±0.25 gallons (0.9 liters). The quantity of water withdrawn during the last draw shall be increased or decreased as necessary such that the total volume of water withdrawn equals the prescribed daily amount for that draw pattern ±1.0 gallon (±3.8 liters). If this adjustment to the volume drawn during the last draw results in no draw taking place, the test is considered invalid.
</P>
<P>All draws during the 24-hour simulated-use test shall be made at the flow rates specified in the applicable draw pattern table in section 5.5 of this appendix, within a tolerance of ±0.25 gallons per minute (±0.9 liters per minute). Measurements of the inlet and outlet temperatures shall be made 15 seconds after the draw is initiated and at every subsequent 3-second interval throughout the duration of each draw. Calculate and record the mean of the hot water discharge temperature and the cold water inlet temperature for each draw T<E T="52">del,i</E> and T<E T="52">in,i</E>). Determine and record the net mass or volume removed (M<E T="52">i</E> or V<E T="52">i</E>), as appropriate, after each draw.
</P>
<P>The first recovery period is the time from the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test and continues during the temperature rise of the stored water until the first cut-out; if the cut-out occurs during a subsequent draw, the first recovery period includes the time until the draw of water from the tank stops. If, after the first cut-out occurs but during a subsequent draw, a subsequent cut-in occurs prior to the draw completion, the first recovery period includes the time until the subsequent cut-out occurs, prior to another draw. The first recovery period may continue until a cut-out occurs when water is not being removed from the water heater or a cut-out occurs during a draw and the water heater does not cut-in prior to the end of the draw.
</P>
<P>At the end of the first recovery period, record the maximum mean tank temperature observed after cut-out (T<E T="52">max,1</E>). At the end of the first recovery period, record the total energy consumed by the water heater from the beginning of the test (Q<E T="52">r</E>), including all fossil fuel and/or electrical energy use, from the main heat source and auxiliary equipment including, but not limited to, burner(s), resistive elements(s), compressor, fan, controls, pump, <I>etc.,</I> as applicable.
</P>
<P>The start of the portion of the test during which the standby loss coefficient is determined depends upon whether the unit has fully recovered from the first draw cluster. If a recovery is occurring at or within five minutes after the end of the final draw in the first draw cluster, as identified in the applicable draw pattern table in section 5.5 of this appendix, then the standby period starts when a maximum mean tank temperature is observed starting five minutes after the end of the recovery period that follows that draw. If a recovery does not occur at or within five minutes after the end of the final draw in the first draw cluster, as identified in the applicable draw pattern table in section 5.5 of this appendix, then the standby period starts five minutes after the end of that draw. Determine and record the total electrical energy and/or fossil fuel consumed from the beginning of the test to the start of the standby period (Q<E T="52">su,0</E>).
</P>
<P>In preparation for determining the energy consumed during standby, record the reading given on the electrical energy (watt-hour) meter, the gas meter, and/or the scale used to determine oil consumption, as appropriate. Record the mean tank temperature at the start of the standby period (T<E T="52">su,0</E>). At 1-minute intervals, record ambient temperature, the electric and/or fuel instrument readings, and the mean tank temperature until the next draw is initiated. The end of the standby period is when the final mean tank temperature is recorded, as described. Just prior to initiation of the next draw, record the mean tank temperature (T<E T="52">su,f</E>). If the water heater is undergoing recovery when the next draw is initiated, record the mean tank temperature (T<E T="52">su,f</E>) at the minute prior to the start of the recovery. Determine the total electrical energy and/or fossil fuel energy consumption from the beginning of the test to the end of the standby period (Q<E T="52">su,f</E>). Record the time interval between the start of the standby period and the end of the standby period (τ<E T="52">stby,1</E>).
</P>
<P>Following the final draw of the prescribed draw pattern and subsequent recovery, allow the water heater to remain in the standby mode until exactly 24 hours have elapsed since the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test (<I>i.e.,</I> since τ = 0). During the last hour of the 24-hour simulated-use test (<I>i.e.,</I> hour 23 of the 24-hour simulated-use test), power to the main burner, heating element, or compressor shall be disabled. At 24 hours, record the reading given by the gas meter, oil meter, and/or the electrical energy meter as appropriate. Determine the fossil fuel and/or electrical energy consumed during the entire 24-hour simulated-use test and designate the quantity as Q.
</P>
<P>In the event that the recovery period continues from the end of the last draw of the first draw cluster until the subsequent draw, the standby period will start after the end of the first recovery period after the last draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, when the temperature reaches the maximum mean tank temperature, though no sooner than five minutes after the end of this recovery period. The standby period shall last eight hours, so testing may extend beyond the 24-hour duration of the 24-hour simulated-use test. Determine and record the total electrical energy and/or fossil fuel consumed from the beginning of the 24-hour simulated-use test to the start of the 8-hour standby period (Q<E T="52">su,0</E>). In preparation for determining the energy consumed during standby, record the reading(s) given on the electrical energy (watt-hour) meter, the gas meter, and/or the scale used to determine oil consumption, as appropriate. Record the mean tank temperature at the start of the standby period (T<E T="52">su,0</E>). Record the mean tank temperature, the ambient temperature, and the electric and/or fuel instrument readings at 1-minute intervals until the end of the 8-hour period. Record the mean tank temperature at the end of the 8-hour standby period (T<E T="52">su,f</E>). If the water heater is undergoing recovery at the end of the standby period, record the mean tank temperature (T<E T="52">su,f</E>) at the minute prior to the start of the recovery, which will mark the end of the standby period. Determine the total electrical energy and/or fossil fuel energy consumption from the beginning of the test to the end of the standby period (Q<E T="52">su,f</E>). Record the time interval between the start of the standby period and the end of the standby period as τ<E T="52">stby,1</E>. Record the average ambient temperature from the start of the standby period to the end of the standby period (T<E T="52">a,stby,1</E>). Record the average mean tank temperature from the start of the standby period to the end of the standby period (T<E T="52">t,stby,1</E>).
</P>
<P>If the standby period occurred at the end of the first recovery period after the last draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, allow the water heater to remain in the standby mode until exactly 24 hours have elapsed since the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test (<I>i.e.,</I> since τ = 0) or the end of the standby period, whichever is longer. At 24 hours, record the mean tank temperature (T<E T="52">24</E>) and the reading given by the gas meter, oil meter, and/or the electrical energy meter as appropriate. If the water heater is undergoing a recovery at 24 hours, record the reading given by the gas meter, oil meter, and/or electrical energy meter, as appropriate, and the mean tank temperature (T<E T="52">24</E>) at the minute prior to the start of the recovery. Determine the fossil fuel and/or electrical energy consumed during the 24 hours and designate the quantity as Q.
</P>
<P>Record the time during which water is not being withdrawn from the water heater during the entire 24-hour period (τ<E T="52">stby,2</E>). When the standby period occurs after the last draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, the test may extend past hour 24. When this occurs, the measurements taken after hour 24 apply only to the calculations of the standby loss coefficient. All other measurements during the time between hour 23 and hour 24 remain the same.
</P>
<P>5.4.2.2 <I>Water Heaters Which Cannot Have Internal Storage Tank Temperature Measured Directly.</I>
</P>
<P>After the water heater has undergone a 1-hour idle period (as described in section 5.4.2 of this appendix), deactivate the burner, compressor, or heating element(s).
</P>
<P>Remove water from the storage tank by performing a continuous draw at the flow rate specified for the first draw of applicable draw pattern for the 24-hour simulated use test in section 5.5 of this appendix within a tolerance of ±0.25 gallons per minute (±0.9 liters per minute). While removing the hot water, measure the inlet and outlet temperature after initiating the draw at 3-second intervals. Remove water until the outlet water temperature is within ±2 °F (±1.1 °C) of the inlet water temperature for 15 consecutive seconds. Determine the mean tank temperature using section 6.3.77 of this appendix and assign this value of <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">st</E> for <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>, <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E>, and <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">su,0</E>.
</P>
<P>After completing the draw, reactivate the burner, compressor, or heating elements(s) and allow the unit to fully recover such that the main burner, heating elements, or heat pump compressor is no longer raising the temperature of the stored water. Let the water heater sit idle again for 1 hour prior to beginning the 24-hour test, during which time no water shall be drawn from the unit, and there shall be no energy input to the main heating elements. After the 1-hour period, the 24-hour simulated-use test will begin.
</P>
<P>At the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test, record the electrical and/or fuel measurement readings, as appropriate. Begin the 24-hour simulated-use test by withdrawing the volume specified in the appropriate table in section 5.5 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> Table III.1, Table III.2, Table III.3, or Table III.4, depending on the first-hour rating or maximum GPM rating) for the first draw at the flow rate specified in the applicable table. Record the time when this first draw is initiated and assign it as the test elapsed time (τ) of zero (0). Record the average ambient temperature every minute throughout the 24-hour simulated-use test. At the elapsed times specified in the applicable draw pattern table in section 5.5 of this appendix for a particular draw pattern, initiate additional draws pursuant to the draw pattern, removing the volume of hot water at the prescribed flow rate specified by the table. The maximum allowable deviation from the specified volume of water removed for any single draw taken at a nominal flow rate of 1.0 GPM or 1.7 GPM is ± 0.1 gallons (± 0.4 liters). The maximum allowable deviation from the specified volume of water removed for any single draw taken at a nominal flow rate of 3.0 GPM is ± 0.25 gallons (0.9 liters). The quantity of water withdrawn during the last draw shall be increased or decreased as necessary such that the total volume of water withdrawn equals the prescribed daily amount for that draw pattern ± 1.0 gallon (± 3.8 liters). If this adjustment to the volume drawn during the last draw results in no draw taking place, the test is considered invalid.
</P>
<P>All draws during the 24-hour simulated-use test shall be made at the flow rates specified in the applicable draw pattern table in section 5.5 of this appendix, within a tolerance of ±0.25 gallons per minute (±0.9 liters per minute). Measurements of the inlet and outlet temperatures shall be made 15 seconds after the draw is initiated and at every subsequent 3-second interval throughout the duration of each draw. Calculate and record the mean of the hot water discharge temperature and the cold water inlet temperature for each draw T<E T="52">del,i</E> and T<E T="52">in,i</E>). Determine and record the net mass or volume removed (M<E T="52">i</E> or V<E T="52">i</E>), as appropriate, after each draw.
</P>
<P>The first recovery period is the time from the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test and continues until the first cut-out; if the cut-out occurs during a subsequent draw, the first recovery period includes the time until the draw of water from the tank stops. If, after the first cut-out occurs but during a subsequent draw, a subsequent cut-in occurs prior to the draw completion, the first recovery period includes the time until the subsequent cut-out occurs, prior to another draw. The first recovery period may continue until a cut-out occurs when water is not being removed from the water heater or a cut-out occurs during a draw and the water heater does not cut-in prior to the end of the draw.
</P>
<P>At the end of the first recovery period, record the total energy consumed by the water heater from the beginning of the test (Q<E T="52">r</E>), including all fossil fuel and/or electrical energy use, from the main heat source and auxiliary equipment including, but not limited to, burner(s), resistive elements(s), compressor, fan, controls, pump, etc., as applicable.
</P>
<P>The standby period begins at five minutes after the first time a recovery ends following last draw of the simulated-use test and shall continue for 8 hours. At the end of the 8-hour standby period, record the total amount of time elapsed since the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test (<I>i.e.,</I> since τ = 0).
</P>
<P>Determine and record the total electrical energy and/or fossil fuel consumed from the beginning of the 24-hour simulated-use test to the start of the 8-hour standby period (Q<E T="52">su,0</E>). In preparation for determining the energy consumed during standby, record the reading(s) given on the electrical energy (watt-hour) meter, the gas meter, and/or the scale used to determine oil consumption, as appropriate. Record the ambient temperature and the electric and/or fuel instrument readings at 1-minute intervals until the end of the 8-hour period. At the 8-hour mark, deactivate the water heater before drawing water from the tank. Remove water from the storage tank by performing a continuous draw atthe flow rate specified for the first draw of applicable draw pattern for the 24-hour simulated use test in section 5.5 of this appendix within a tolerance of ±0.25 gallons per minute (±0.9 liters per minute). While removing the hot water, measure the inlet and outlet temperature after initiating the draw at 3-second intervals. Remove water until the outlet water temperature is within ±2 °F (±1.1 °C) of the inlet water temperature for 15 consecutive seconds. Determine the mean tank temperature using section 6.3.77 of this appendix and assign this value of <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">st</E> for <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">su,f</E> and <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">24</E>.
</P>
<P>Determine the total electrical energy and/or fossil fuel energy consumption from the beginning of the test to the end of the standby period (Q<E T="52">su,f</E>). Record the time interval between the start of the standby period and the end of the standby period as τ<E T="52">stby,1</E>. Record the average ambient temperature from the start of the standby period to the end of the standby period (T<E T="52">a,stby,1</E>). The average mean tank temperature from the start of the standby period to the end of the standby period (T<E T="52">t,stby,1</E>) shall be the average of T<E T="52">su,0</E> and T<E T="52">su,f.</E>
</P>
<P>5.4.3 <I>Test Sequence for Water Heaters With Rated Storage Volume Less Than 2 Gallons.</I>
</P>
<P>Establish normal operation with the discharge water temperature at 125 °F ± 5 °F (51.7 °C ± 2.8 °C) and set the flow rate as determined in section 5.2 of this appendix. Prior to commencement of the 24-hour simulated-use test, the unit shall remain in an idle state in which controls are active but no water is drawn through the unit for a period of one hour. With no draw occurring, record the reading given by the gas meter and/or the electrical energy meter as appropriate. Begin the 24-hour simulated-use test by withdrawing the volume specified in Tables III.1 through III.4 of section 5.5 of this appendix for the first draw at the flow rate specified. Record the time when this first draw is initiated and designate it as an elapsed time, τ, of 0. At the elapsed times specified in Tables III.1 through III.4 for a particular draw pattern, initiate additional draws, removing the volume of hot water at the prescribed flow rate specified in Tables III.1 through III.4. The maximum allowable deviation from the specified volume of water removed for any single draw taken at a nominal flow rate less than or equal to 1.7 GPM (6.4 L/min) is ±0.1 gallons (±0.4 liters). The maximum allowable deviation from the specified volume of water removed for any single draw taken at a nominal flow rate of 3.0 GPM (11.4 L/min) is ±0.25 gallons (0.9 liters). The quantity of water drawn during the final draw shall be increased or decreased as necessary such that the total volume of water withdrawn equals the prescribed daily amount for that draw pattern ±1.0 gallon (±3.8 liters). If this adjustment to the volume drawn in the last draw results in no draw taking place, the test is considered invalid.
</P>
<P>All draws during the 24-hour simulated-use test shall be made at the flow rates specified in the applicable draw pattern table in section 5.5 of this appendix within a tolerance of ±0.25 gallons per minute (±0.9 liters per minute) unless the unit being tested is flow-activated and has a rated Max GPM of less than 1 gallon per minute, in which case the tolerance shall be ±25% of the rated Max GPM. Measurements of the inlet and outlet water temperatures shall be made 15 seconds after the draw is initiated and at every 3-second interval thereafter throughout the duration of the draw. Calculate the mean of the hot water discharge temperature and the cold-water inlet temperature for each draw. Record the mass of the withdrawn water or the water meter reading, as appropriate, after each draw. At the end of the first recovery period following the first draw, determine and record the fossil fuel and/or electrical energy consumed, Q<E T="52">r</E>. Following the final draw and subsequent recovery, allow the water heater to remain in the standby mode until exactly 24 hours have elapsed since the start of the test (<I>i.e.,</I> since τ = 0). At 24 hours, record the reading given by the gas meter, oil meter, and/or the electrical energy meter, as appropriate. Determine the fossil fuel and/or electrical energy consumed during the entire 24-hour simulated-use test and designate the quantity as Q.
</P>
<P>5.5 <I>Draw Patterns.</I>
</P>
<P>The draw patterns to be imposed during 24-hour simulated-use tests are provided in Tables III.1 through III.4. Subject each water heater under test to one of these draw patterns based on its first-hour rating or maximum GPM rating, as discussed in section 5.4.1 of this appendix. Each draw pattern specifies the elapsed time in hours and minutes during the 24-hour test when a draw is to commence, the total volume of water in gallons (liters) that is to be removed during each draw, and the flow rate at which each draw is to be taken, in gallons (liters) per minute.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table III.1—Very-Small-Usage Draw Pattern
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Draw No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time during test **


<br/>[hh:mm]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Volume


<br/>[gallons (L)]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow rate ***


<br/>[GPM (L/min)]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1:05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 (1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1:10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 (1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1:15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 (1.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8:15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 (5.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9:15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Total Volume Drawn Per Day: 10 gallons (38 L)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Denotes draws in first draw cluster.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** If a draw extends to the start of the subsequent draw, then the subsequent draw shall start when the required volume of the previous draw has been delivered.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*** Should the water heater have a maximum GPM rating less than 1 GPM (3.8 L/min), then all draws shall be implemented at a flow rate equal to the rated maximum GPM.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table III.2—Low-Usage Draw Pattern
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Draw No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time during test


<br/>[hh:mm]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Volume


<br/>[gallons (L)]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow rate


<br/>[GPM (L/min)]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0 (56.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 (22.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 (15.1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 (11.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Total Volume Drawn Per Day: 38 gallons (144 L)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"> *Denotes draws in first draw cluster.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table III.3—Medium-Usage Draw Pattern
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Draw No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time during test


<br/>[hh:mm]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Volume


<br/>[gallons (L)]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow Rate


<br/>[GPM (L/min)]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0 (56.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1:40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 (34.1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 (34.1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 (18.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 (26.5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Total Volume Drawn Per Day: 55 gallons (208 L)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Denotes draws in first draw cluster.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table III.4—High-Usage Draw Pattern
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Draw No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time during test


<br/>[hh:mm]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Volume


<br/>[gallons (L)]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow rate


<br/>[GPM (L/min)]
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.0 (102)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (11.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0:40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1:40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0 (34.1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0 (56.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (11.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 (18.9)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12:50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 (3.8)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 (3.8)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16:45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 (7.6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 (6.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17:00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.0 (53.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (11.4)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Total Volume Drawn Per Day: 84 gallons (318 L)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Denotes draws in first draw cluster.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>5.6 <I>Optional Tests (Heat Pump-Type Water Heaters).</I> Optional testing may be conducted on heat pump-type water heaters to determine E<E T="52">X</E>. If optional testing is performed, conduct the additional 24-hour simulated use test(s) at one or multiple of the test conditions specified in section 2.8 of this appendix. Prior to conducting a 24-hour simulated use test at an optional condition, confirm the air and water conditions specified in section 2.8 are met and re-set the outlet discharge temperature in accordance with section 5.2.2 of this appendix. Perform the optional 24-hour simulated use test(s) in accordance with section 5.4 of this appendix using the same draw pattern used for the determination of UEF.
</P>
<HD2>6. Computations.
</HD2>
<P>6.1 <I>First-Hour Rating Computation.</I> For the case in which the final draw is initiated at or prior to one hour from the start of the test, the first-hour rating, F<E T="52">hr</E>, shall be computed using,


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n = the number of draws that are completed during the first-hour rating test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V*<E T="52">del,i</E> = the volume of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first-hour rating test, gal (L) or, if the mass of water removed is being measured,
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.008.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M*<E T="52">del,i</E> = the mass of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first-hour rating test, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ<E T="52">del,i</E> = the density of water removed, evaluated at the average outlet water temperature measured during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first-hour rating test, (<E T="7501">T</E>*<E T="52">del,i</E>), lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>or, if the volume of the water entering the water heater is being measured,
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.009.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V*<E T="52">in,i</E> = the volume of water entering the water heater during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first-hour rating test, gal (L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ<E T="52">in,i</E> = the density of water entering the water heater, evaluated at the average inlet water temperature measured during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first-hour rating test, (<E T="7501">T</E>*<E T="52">in,i</E>), lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>or, if the mass of water entering the water heater is being measured,
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.010.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M*<E T="52">in,i</E> = the mass of water entering the water heater during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first-hour rating test, lb (kg).




</FP-2>
<P>For the case in which a draw is not in progress at one hour from the start of the test and a final draw is imposed at the elapsed time of one hour, the first-hour rating shall be calculated using,




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.011.gif"/>
<FP-2>where n and V*<E T="52">del,i</E> are the same quantities as defined above, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V*<E T="52">del,n</E> = the volume of water removed during the <I>n</I>th (final) draw of the first-hour rating test, gal (L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E>*<E T="52">del,n−1</E> = the average water outlet temperature measured during the <I>(n−1)</I>th draw of the first-hour rating test, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E>*<E T="52">del,n</E> = the average water outlet temperature measured during the <I>n</I>th (final) draw of the first-hour rating test, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T*<E T="52">min,n−1</E> = the minimum water outlet temperature measured during the <I>(n−1)</I>th draw of the first-hour rating test, °F ( °C).


</FP-2>
<P>6.2 <I>Maximum GPM (L/min) Rating Computation.</I> Compute the maximum GPM (L/min) rating, F<E T="52">max</E>, as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.012.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">del,10m</E> = the volume of water removed during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test, gal (L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del</E> = the average delivery temperature, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in</E> = the average inlet temperature, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10 = the number of minutes in the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test, min.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>or, if the mass of water removed is measured,
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.013.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">del,10m</E> = the mass of water removed during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ<E T="52">del</E> = the density of water removed, evaluated at the average delivery water temperature of the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del</E>), lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>or, if the volume of water entering the water heater is measured,
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.014.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">in,10m</E> = the volume of water entering the water heater during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test, gal (L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ<E T="52">in</E> = the density of water entering the water heater, evaluated at the average inlet water temperature of the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del</E>), lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>or, if the mass of water entering the water heater is measured,
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.015.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">in,10m</E> = the mass of water entering the water heater during the maximum GPM (L/min) rating test, lb (kg).


</FP-2>
<P>6.3 <I>Computations for Water Heaters with a Rated Storage Volume Greater Than or Equal to 2 Gallons and Circulating Water Heaters.</I>
</P>
<P>6.3.1 <I>Storage Tank Capacity.</I> The storage tank capacity, V<E T="52">st</E>, is computed as follows:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.016.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">st</E> = the storage capacity of the water heater, or, for circulating water heaters, the storage capacity of the separate storage tank used in accordance with section 4.10, gal (L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">f</E> = the weight of the storage tank when completely filled with water, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">t</E> = the (tare) weight of the storage tank when completely empty, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ = the density of water used to fill the tank measured at the temperature of the water, lb/gal (kg/L).


</FP-2>
<P>6.3.1.1 <I>Effective Storage Volume.</I> The effective storage tank capacity, V<E T="52">eff</E>, is computed as follows:
</P>
<P>For water heaters requiring a separate storage tank, V<E T="52">eff</E> is the storage tank capacity of the separate storage tank as determined per section 6.3.1.
</P>
<P>For all other water heaters:
</P>
<P><I>V</I><E T="54">eff</E> = <I>k</I><E T="54">V</E><I>V</I><E T="54">st</E>




</P>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">st</E> = as defined in section 6.3.1 and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k<E T="52">V</E> = a dimensionless volume scaling factor determined as follows:


</FP-2>
<P>If the first recovery period extends into the second draw of the 24-hour simulated use test, and
</P>
<P>If <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E> &gt; (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,1</E> + 5 °F) and <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E> ≥ 130 °F,
</P>
<P>(if <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E> &gt; (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,1</E> + 2.8 °C) and <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E> ≥ 54.4 °C),




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.018.gif"/>
<P>If the first recovery period does not extend into the second draw of the 24-hour simulated use test, and
</P>
<P>If <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E> &gt; (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,2</E> + 5 °F) and <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E> ≥ 130 °F,
</P>
<P>(if <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E> &gt; (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,2</E> + 2.8 °C) and <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E> ≥ 54.4 °C),


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.020.gif"/>
<P>Otherwise, k<E T="52">V</E> = 1.
</P>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>= the mean tank temperature at the beginning of the 24-hour simulated-use test, °F( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,1</E>= the average outlet water temperature during the first draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, °F( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ(<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>) = the density of the stored hot water evaluated at the mean tank temperature at the beginning of the 24-hour simulated-use test (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>), lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p</E>(<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>) = the specific heat of the stored hot water, evaluated at <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E> = the maximum measured mean tank temperature after cut-out following the first draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, °F( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,2</E>= the average outlet water temperature during the second draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, °F( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ(<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E>) = the density of the stored hot water evaluated at the maximum measured mean tank temperature after cut-out following the first draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E>), lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p</E>(<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E>) = the specific heat of the stored hot water, evaluated at <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E>, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ(125 °F) = the density of the stored hot water at 125 °F, lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p</E>(125 °F) = the specific heat of the stored hot water at 125 °F, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>125 °F (51.7 °C) = the nominal maximum mean tank temperature for a storage tank that does not utilize a mixing valve to achieve a 125 °F delivery temperature.


</FP-2>
<P>67.5 °F (19.7 °C) = the nominal average ambient air temperature.
</P>
<P>6.3.2 <I>Mass of Water Removed.</I> Determine the mass of water removed during each draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test (M<E T="52">del,i</E>) as:
</P>
<P>If the mass of water removed is measured, use the measured value, or, if the volume of water removed is being measured,
</P>
<FP-2><I>M</I><E T="54">del,i</E> = <I>V</I><E T="54">del,i</E> × <E T="8153">r</E><E T="54">del,i</E>










</FP-2>
<P>6.3.3 <I>Recovery Efficiency.</I> The recovery efficiency for gas, oil, and heat pump water heaters with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 2 gallons, η<E T="52">r,</E> is computed as:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.021.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">st</E> = as defined in section 6.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ<E T="52">1</E> = density of stored hot water evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>)/2, lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p1</E> = specific heat of the stored hot water, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>)/2, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">max,1</E> = maximum mean tank temperature recorded after the first recovery period as defined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E> = mean tank temperature recorded at the beginning of the 24-hour simulated-use test as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">r</E> = the total energy used by the water heater during the first recovery period as defined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, including auxiliary energy such as pilot lights, pumps, fans, <I>etc.,</I> Btu (kJ). (Electrical auxiliary energy shall be converted to thermal energy using the following conversion: 1 kWh = 3412 Btu).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>N</I><E T="52">r</E> = number of draws from the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test to the end to the first recovery period as described in section 5.4.2.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">del,i</E> = mass of water removed as calculated in section 6.3.2 of this appendix during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first recovery period as described in section 5.4.2, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">pi</E> = specific heat of the withdrawn water during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first recovery period as described in section 5.4.2, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,i</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,i</E>)/2, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,i</E> = average water outlet temperature measured during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first recovery period as described in section 5.4.2, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,i</E> = average water inlet temperature measured during the <I>i</I>th draw of the first recovery period as described in section 5.4.2, °F ( °C).




</FP-2>
<P>The recovery efficiency for electric water heaters with immersed heating elements, not including heat pump water heaters with immersed heating elements, is assumed to be 98 percent.
</P>
<P>6.3.4 <I>Hourly Standby Losses.</I> The energy consumed as part of the standby loss test of the 24-hour simulated-use test, Q<E T="52">stby,</E> is computed as:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">stby</E> = Q<E T="52">su,f</E> − Q<E T="52">su,o</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">su,0</E> = cumulative energy consumption, including all fossil fuel and electrical energy use, of the water heater from the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test to the start of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">su,f</E> = cumulative energy consumption, including all fossil fuel and electrical energy use, of the water heater from the start of the 24-hour simulated-use test to the end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).




</FP-2>
<P>The hourly standby energy losses are computed as:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.022.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">hr</E> = the hourly standby energy losses of the water heater, Btu/h (kJ/h).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">st</E> = as defined in section 6.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ = density of the stored hot water, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">su,f</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">su,0</E>)/2, lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p</E> = specific heat of the stored water, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">su,f</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">su,0</E>)/2, Btu/(lb· °F), (kJ/(kg·K)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">su,f</E> = the mean tank temperature measured at the end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">su,0</E> = the maximum mean tank temperature measured at the beginning of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">r</E> = as defined in section 6.3.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>τ<E T="52">stby,1</E> = elapsed time between the start and end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, h.




</FP-2>
<P>The standby heat loss coefficient for the tank is computed as:






</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.023.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>UA = standby heat loss coefficient of the storage tank, Btu/(h· °F), (kJ/(h· °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">t,stby,1</E> = overall average mean tank temperature between the start and end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">a,stby,1</E> = overall average ambient temperature between the start and end of the standby period as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>6.3.5 <I>Daily Water Heating Energy Consumption.</I> The total energy used by the water heater during the 24-hour simulated-use test (Q) is as measured in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, or,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = Q<E T="52">f</E> + Q<E T="52">e</E> = total energy used by the water heater during the 24-hour simulated-use test, including auxiliary energy such as pilot lights, pumps, fans, etc., Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">f</E> = total fossil fuel energy used by the water heater during the 24-hour simulated-use test, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">e</E> = total electrical energy used during the 24-hour simulated-use test, Btu (kJ). (Electrical energy shall be converted to thermal energy using the following conversion: 1kWh = 3412 Btu.)




</FP-2>
<P>The daily water heating energy consumption, Q<E T="52">d</E>, is computed as:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.024.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">st</E> = as defined in section 6.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ = density of the stored hot water, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">24</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>)/2, lb/gal (kg/L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p</E> = specific heat of the stored water, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">24</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E>)/2, Btu/(lb· °F), (kJ/(kg·K)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">24</E> = mean tank temperature at the end of the 24-hour simulated-use test as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">0</E> = mean tank temperature recorded at the beginning of the 24-hour simulated-use test as determined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">r</E> = as defined in section 6.3.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>6.3.6 <I>Adjusted Daily Water Heating Energy Consumption.</I> The adjusted daily water heating energy consumption, Q<E T="52">da,</E> takes into account that the ambient temperature may differ from the nominal value of 67.5  °F (19.7  °C) due to the allowable variation in surrounding ambient temperature of 65  °F (18.3  °C) to 70  °C (21.1  °C). The adjusted daily water heating energy consumption is computed as:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">da</E> = <I>Q</I><E T="54">d</E>−(67.5 °<I>F</I>−<E T="7503">T</E><E T="54">a,stby,2</E>) <I>UA</I> <E T="8153">t</E><E T="54">stby,2</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>or,
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">da</E> = <I>Q</I><E T="54">d</E>−(19.7 °<I>C</I>−<E T="7503">T</E><E T="54">a,stby,2</E>) <I>UA</I> <E T="8153">t</E><E T="54">stby,2</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">da</E> = the adjusted daily water heating energy consumption, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">d</E> = as defined in section 6.3.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">a,stby,2</E> = the average ambient temperature during the total standby portion, <E T="8151">t</E><E T="52">stby,2</E>, of the 24-hour simulated-use test, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>UA = as defined in section 6.3.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">stby,2</E> = the number of hours during the 24-hour simulated-use test when water is not being withdrawn from the water heater.
</FP-2>
<P>A modification is also needed to take into account that the temperature difference between the outlet water temperature and supply water temperature may not be equivalent to the nominal value of 67  °F (125  °F-58  °F) or 37.3 °C (51.7 °C-14.4 °C). The following equations adjust the experimental data to a nominal 67  °F (37.3 °C) temperature rise.
</P>
<P>The energy used to heat water, Btu/day (kJ/day), may be computed as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21ja25.085.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = total number of draws in the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">del,i</E> = the mass of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N) as calculated in section 6.3.2 of this appendix, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">pi</E> = the specific heat of the water withdrawn during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,i</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,i</E>)/2, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,i</E> = the average water outlet temperature measured during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N), °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,i</E> = the average water inlet temperature measured during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N), °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="8151">h</E><E T="52">r</E> = as defined in section 6.3.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>The energy required to heat the same quantity of water over a 67  °F (37.3  °C) temperature rise, Btu/day (kJ/day), is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21ja25.086.gif"/>
<FP>or,
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er21ja25.087.gif"/>
<P>The difference between these two values is:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">HWD</E> = <I>Q</I><E T="54">HW,67 °F</E>−<I>Q</I><E T="54">HW</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>or,
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">HWD</E> = <I>Q</I><E T="54">HW,37.3 °C</E>−<I>Q</I><E T="54">HW</E>
</FP-2>
<P>This difference (Q<E T="52">HWD</E>) must be added to the adjusted daily water heating energy consumption value. Thus, the daily energy consumption value, which takes into account that the ambient temperature may not be 67.5  °F (19.7  °C) and that the temperature rise across the storage tank may not be 67  °F (37.3 °C) is:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">dm</E> = <I>Q</I><E T="54">da</E> + <I>Q</I><E T="54">HWD</E>






</FP-2>
<P>6.3.7 <I>Estimated Mean Tank Temperature for Water Heaters with Rated Storage Volumes Greater Than or Equal to 2 Gallons.</I> If testing is conducted in accordance with section 5.4.2.2 of this appendix, calculate the mean tank temperature immediately prior to the internal tank temperature determination draw using the following equation:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.028.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">st</E> = the estimated average internal storage tank temperature, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">p</E> = the average of the inlet and the outlet water temperatures at the end of the period defined by τ<E T="52">p</E>, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>v<E T="52">out,p</E> = the average flow rate during the period, gal/min (L/min).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">st</E> = the rated storage volume of the water heater, gal (L).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>τ<E T="52">p</E> = the number of minutes in the duration of the period, determined by the length of time taken for the outlet water temperature to be within 2 °F of the inlet water temperature for 15 consecutive seconds and including the 15-second stabilization period.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,p</E> = the average of the inlet water temperatures during the period, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">out,p</E> = the average of the outlet water temperatures during the period, °F ( °C).




</FP-2>
<P>6.3.8 <I>Uniform Energy Factor.</I> The uniform energy factor, UEF, is computed as:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.029.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = total number of draws in the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">dm</E> = the modified daily water heating energy consumption as computed in accordance with section 6.3.6 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">del,i</E> = the mass of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N) as calculated in section 6.3.2 of this appendix, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">pi</E> = the specific heat of the water withdrawn during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, evaluated at (125 °F + 58 °F)/2 = 91.5 °F ((51.7 °C + 14.4 °C)/2 = 33 °C), Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).




</FP-2>
<P>6.3.9 <I>Annual Energy Consumption.</I> The annual energy consumption for water heaters with rated storage volumes greater than or equal to 2 gallons is computed as:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.030.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>UEF = the uniform energy factor as computed in accordance with section 6.3.88 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>365 = the number of days in a year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V = the volume of hot water drawn during the applicable draw pattern, gallons.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 10 for the very-small-usage draw pattern.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 38 for the low-usage draw pattern.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 55 for the medium-usage draw pattern.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 84 for high-usage draw pattern.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ = 8.24 lb/gallon, the density of water at 125 °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p</E> = 1.00 Btu/(lb °F), the specific heat of water at 91.5 °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>67 = the nominal temperature difference between inlet and outlet water




</FP-2>
<P>6.3.10 <I>Annual Electrical Energy Consumption.</I> The annual electrical energy consumption in kilowatt-hours for water heaters with rated storage volumes greater than or equal to 2 gallons, E<E T="52">annual,e,</E> is computed as:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.031.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">annual</E> = the annual energy consumption as determined in accordance with section 6.3.99 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">e</E> = the daily electrical energy consumption as defined in section 6.3.5 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = total energy used by the water heater during the 24-hour simulated-use test in accordance with section 6.3.5 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3412 = conversion factor from Btu to kWh.




</FP-2>
<P>6.3.11 <I>Annual Fossil Fuel Energy Consumption.</I> The annual fossil fuel energy consumption for water heaters with rated storage volumes greater than or equal to 2 gallons, E<E T="52">annual,f,</E> is computed as:
</P>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">annual,f</E> = <I>E</I><E T="54">annual</E>−(<I>E</I><E T="54">annual,e</E> * 3412)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">annual</E> = the annual energy consumption as determined in accordance with section 6.3.9 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">annual,e</E> = the annual electrical energy consumption as determined in accordance with section 6.3.10 of this appendix, kWh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3412 = conversion factor from kWh to Btu.




</FP-2>
<P>6.4 <I>Computations for Water Heaters with a Rated Storage Volume Less Than 2 Gallons.</I>
</P>
<P>6.4.1 <I>Mass of Water Removed</I>
</P>
<P>Calculate the mass of water removed using the calculations in section 6.3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6.4.2 <I>Recovery Efficiency.</I> The recovery efficiency, η<E T="52">r,</E> is computed as:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.032.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">1</E> = mass of water removed during the first draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p1</E> = specific heat of the withdrawn water during the first draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,1</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,1</E>)/2, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,1</E> = average water outlet temperature measured during the first draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,1</E> = average water inlet temperature measured during the first draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">r</E> = the total energy used by the water heater during the first recovery period as defined in section 5.4.3 of this appendix, including auxiliary energy such as pilot lights, pumps, fans, etc., Btu (kJ). (Electrical auxiliary energy shall be converted to thermal energy using the following conversion: 1 kWh = 3412 Btu.)




</FP-2>
<P>6.4.3 <I>Daily Water Heating Energy Consumption.</I> The daily water heating energy consumption, Q<E T="52">d,</E> is computed as:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">d</E> = <I>Q</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = Q<E T="52">f</E> + Q<E T="52">e</E> = the energy used by the water heater during the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">f</E> = total fossil fuel energy used by the water heater during the 24-hour simulated-use test, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">e</E> = total electrical energy used during the 24-hour simulated-use test, Btu (kJ). (Electrical auxiliary energy shall be converted to thermal energy using the following conversion: 1 kWh = 3412 Btu.)




</FP-2>
<P>A modification is needed to take into account that the temperature difference between the outlet water temperature and supply water temperature may not be equivalent to the nominal value of 67 °F (125 °F−58 °F) or 37.3 °C (51.7 °C−14.4 °C). The following equations adjust the experimental data to a nominal 67 °F (37.3 °C) temperature rise.
</P>
<P>The energy used to heat water may be computed as:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.033.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = total number of draws in the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">del,i</E> = the mass of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N) as calculated in section 6.4.1 of this appendix, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">pi</E> = the specific heat of the water withdrawn during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,i</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,i</E>)/2, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,i</E> = the average water outlet temperature measured during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N), °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,i</E> = the average water inlet temperature measured during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N), °F ( °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">r</E> = as defined in section 6.4.2 of this appendix.




</FP-2>
<P>The energy required to heat the same quantity of water over a 67 °F (37.3 °C) temperature rise is:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.034.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = total number of draws in the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">del,i</E> = the mass of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N) as calculated in section 6.4.1 of this appendix, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">pi</E> = the specific heat of the water withdrawn during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, evaluated at (<E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">del,i</E> + <E T="7501">T</E><E T="52">in,i</E>)/2, Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">r</E> = as defined in section 6.4.2 of this appendix.




</FP-2>
<P>The difference between these two values is:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">HWD</E> = <I>Q</I><E T="54">HW,67 °F</E>−<I>Q</I><E T="54">HW</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>or,
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">HWD</E> = <I>Q</I><E T="54">HW,37.3 °C</E>−<I>Q</I><E T="54">HW</E>




</FP-2>
<P>This difference (Q<E T="52">HWD</E>) must be added to the daily water heating energy consumption value. Thus, the daily energy consumption value, which takes into account that the temperature rise across the water heater may not be 67 °F (37.3 °C), is:




</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">dm</E> = Q<E T="52">da</E> + Q<E T="54">HWD</E>




</FP-2>
<P>6.4.4 <I>Uniform Energy Factor.</I> The uniform energy factor, UEF, is computed as:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.035.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = total number of draws in the 24-hour simulated-use test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">dm</E> = the modified daily water heating energy consumption as computed in accordance with section 6.4.3 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">del,i</E> = the mass of water removed during the <I>i</I>th draw (i = 1 to N) as calculated in section 6.4.1 of this appendix, lb (kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">pi</E> = the specific heat of the water withdrawn during the <I>i</I>th draw of the 24-hour simulated-use test, evaluated at (125 °F + 58 °F)/2 = 91.5 °F ((51.7 °C + 14.4 °C)/2 = 33.1 °C), Btu/(lb· °F) (kJ/(kg· °C)).




</FP-2>
<P>6.4.5 <I>Annual Energy Consumption.</I> The annual energy consumption for water heaters with rated storage volumes less than 2 gallons, E<E T="52">annual,</E> is computed as:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.036.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>UEF = the uniform energy factor as computed in accordance with section 6.4.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>365 = the number of days in a year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V = the volume of hot water drawn during the applicable draw pattern, gallons.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 10 for the very-small-usage draw pattern.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 38 for the low-usage draw pattern.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 55 for the medium-usage draw pattern.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 84 for high-usage draw pattern.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ = 8.24 lb/gallon, the density of water at 125 °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p</E> = 1.00 Btu/(lb °F), the specific heat of water at 91.5 °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>67 = the nominal temperature difference between inlet and outlet water.




</FP-2>
<P>6.4.6 <I>Annual Electrical Energy Consumption.</I> The annual electrical energy consumption in kilowatt-hours for water heaters with rated storage volumes less than 2 gallons, E<E T="52">annual,e,</E> is computed as:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.037.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">e</E> = the daily electrical energy consumption as defined in section 6.4.3 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">annual</E> = the annual energy consumption as determined in accordance with section 6.4.5 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = total energy used by the water heater during the 24-hour simulated-use test in accordance with section 6.4.3 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">dm</E> = the modified daily water heating energy consumption as computed in accordance with section 6.4.3 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3412 = conversion factor from Btu to kWh.




</FP-2>
<P>6.4.7 <I>Annual Fossil Fuel Energy Consumption.</I> The annual fossil fuel energy consumption for water heaters with rated storage volumes less than 2 gallons, E<E T="54">annual,f</E><I>,</I> is computed as:
</P>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">annual,f</E> = <I>E</I><E T="54">annual</E>−(<I>E</I><E T="54">annual,e</E> × 3412)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="54">annual</E> = the annual energy consumption as defined in section 6.4.5 of this appendix, Btu (kJ).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="54">annual,e</E> = the annual electrical energy consumption as defined in section 6.4.6 of this appendix, kWh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3412 = conversion factor from kWh to Btu.


</FP-2>
<P>6.5 <I>Energy Efficiency at Optional Test Conditions.</I> If testing is conducted at optional test conditions in accordance with section 5.6 of this appendix, calculate the energy efficiency at the test condition, E<E T="52">X,</E> using the formulas in sections 6.3 or 6.4 of this appendix (as applicable), except substituting the applicable ambient temperature and supply water temperature used for testing (as specified in section 2.8 of this appendix) for the nominal ambient temperature and supply water temperature conditions used in the equations for determining UEF (<I>i.e.,</I> 67.5 °F and 58 °F).
</P>
<HD2>7. Test Set-Up Diagrams


</HD2>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.038.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.039.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.040.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21jn23.041.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 40473, June 21, 2023, as amended at 89 FR 37943, May 6, 2024; 90 FR 6790, Jan. 21, 2025]











</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Room Air Conditioners
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>On or after September 27, 2021, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of room air conditioners must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.
</P>
<P>Prior to September 27, 2021, manufacturers must either test room air conditioners in accordance with this appendix, or the previous version of this appendix as it appeared in the Code of Federal Regulations on January 1, 2020. DOE notes that, because representations made on or after September 27, 2021 must be made in accordance with this appendix, manufacturers may wish to begin using this test procedure immediately.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AHAM RAC-1, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1, ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992), ASHRAE 41.3-2014, ASHRAE 41.6-2014, ASHRAE 41.11-2014 and IEC 62301 in § 430.3. However, only enumerated provisions of AHAM RAC-1 and ANSI/ASHRAE 16 apply to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>(1) ANSI/AHAM RAC-1:
</FP-2>
<P>(i) Section 4—Testing Conditions, Section 4.1—General
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5—Standard Measurement Test, Section 5.2—Standard Test Conditions: 5.2.1.1
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6—Tests and Measurements, Section 6.1—Cooling capacity
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 6— Tests and Measurements, Section 6.2—Electrical Input
</P>
<FP-2>(2) ANSI/ASHRAE 16:
</FP-2>
<P>(i) Section 3—Definitions
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5—Instruments
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6—Apparatus, Section 6.1—Calorimeters, Sections 6.1.1-6.1.1., 6.1.1.3a, 6.1.1.4-6.1.4, including Table 1
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 7—Methods of Testing, Section 7.1—Standard Test Methods, Section 7.1a, 7.1.1a
</P>
<P>(v) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.1—General
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.2—Test Room Requirements
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.3—Air Conditioner Break-In
</P>
<P>(ix) Section 8—Test Procedures, Section 8.4—Air Conditioner Installation
</P>
<P>(x) Section 8 —Test Procedures, Section 8.5—Cooling Capacity Test
</P>
<P>(xi) Section 9—Data To Be Recorded, Section 9.1
</P>
<P>(xii) Section 10—Measurement Uncertainty
</P>
<P>(xiii) Normative Appendix A Cooling Capacity Calculations—Calorimeter Test Indoor and Calorimeter Test Outdoor
</P>
<FP>If there is any conflict between any industry standard(s) and this appendix, follow the language of the test procedure in this appendix, disregarding the conflicting industry standard language.
</FP>
<HD2>Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix contains the test requirements to measure the energy performance of a room air conditioner.
</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>2.1 “Active mode” means a mode in which the room air conditioner is connected to a mains power source, has been activated and is performing any of the following functions: Cooling or heating the conditioned space, or circulating air through activation of its fan or blower, with or without energizing active air-cleaning components or devices such as ultra-violet (UV) radiation, electrostatic filters, ozone generators, or other air-cleaning devices.
</P>
<P>2.2 “ANSI/AHAM RAC-1” means the test standard published jointly by the American National Standards Institute and the Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers, titled “Energy Measurement Test Procedure for Room Air Conditioners,” Standard RAC-1-2020 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.3 “ANSI/ASHRAE 16” means the test standard published jointly by the American National Standards Institute and the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers titled “Method of Testing for Rating Room Air Conditioners and Packaged Terminal Air Conditioners,” Standard 16-2016 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.4 “ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1” means the test standard published jointly by the American National Standards Institute and the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers titled “Standard Method for Temperature Measurement,” Standard 41.1-2013 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.5 “ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992)” means the test standard published jointly by the American National Standards Institute and the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers titled “Standard Methods for Laboratory Airflow Measurement,” Standard 41.2-1987 (RA 1992) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.6 “ASHRAE 41.3-2014” means the test standard published jointly by the American National Standards Institute and the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers titled “Standard Methods for Pressure Measurement,” Standard 41.3-2014 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.7 “ASHRAE 41.6-2014” means the test standard published jointly by the American National Standards Institute and the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers titled “Standard Method for Humidity Measurement,” Standard 41.6-2014 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.8 “ASHRAE 41.11-2014” means the test standard published jointly by the American National Standards Institute and the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers titled “Standard Methods for Power Measurement,” Standard 41.11-2014 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.9 “Combined energy efficiency ratio” means the energy efficiency of a room air conditioner in British thermal units per watt-hour (Btu/Wh) and determined in section 5.2.2 of this appendix for single-speed room air conditioners and section 5.3.12 of this appendix for variable-speed room air conditioners.
</P>
<P>2.10 “Cooling capacity” means the amount of cooling, in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), provided to a conditioned space, measured under the specified conditions and determined in section 4.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.11 “Cooling mode” means an active mode in which a room air conditioner has activated the main cooling function according to the thermostat or temperature sensor signal or switch (including remote control).
</P>
<P>2.12 “Full compressor speed (full)” means the compressor speed at which the unit operates at full load test conditions, when using user settings with a unit thermostat setpoint of 75 °F to achieve maximum cooling capacity, according to the instructions in ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 16-2016.
</P>
<P>2.13 “IEC 62301” means the test standard published by the International Electrotechnical Commission, titled “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power,” Publication 62301 (Edition 2.0 2011-01), (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.14 “Inactive mode” means a standby mode that facilitates the activation of active mode by remote switch (including remote control) or internal sensor or which provides continuous status display.
</P>
<P>2.15 “Intermediate compressor speed (intermediate)” means the compressor speed higher than the low compressor speed at which the measured capacity is higher than the capacity at low compressor speed by one third of the difference between Capacity<E T="52">4</E>, the measured cooling capacity at test condition 4 in Table 1 of this appendix, and Capacity<E T="52">1</E>, the measured cooling capacity with the full compressor speed at test condition 1 in Table 1 of this appendix, with a tolerance of plus 5 percent (designs with non-discrete speed stages) or the next highest inverter frequency step (designs with discrete speed steps), achieved by following the instructions certified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>2.16 “Low compressor speed (low)” means the compressor speed at which the unit operates at low load test conditions, achieved by following the instructions certified by the manufacturer, such that Capacity<E T="52">4</E>, the measured cooling capacity at test condition 4 in Table 1 of this appendix, is no less than 47 percent and no greater than 57 percent of Capacity<E T="52">1</E>, the measured cooling capacity with the full compressor speed at test condition 1 in Table 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P> 2.17 “Off mode” means a mode in which a room air conditioner is connected to a mains power source and is not providing any active or standby mode function and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time, including an indicator that only shows the user that the product is in the off position.
</P>
<P>2.18 “Single-speed room air conditioner” means a type of room air conditioner that cannot automatically adjust the compressor speed based on detected conditions.
</P>
<P>2.19 “Standby mode” means any product mode where the unit is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions which may persist for an indefinite time:
</P>
<P>(a) To facilitate the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer. A timer is a continuous clock function (which may or may not be associated with a display) that provides regular scheduled tasks (<I>e.g.,</I> switching) and that operates on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions.
</P>
<P>2.20 “Theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner” means a theoretical single-speed room air conditioner with the same cooling capacity and electrical power input as the variable-speed room air conditioner under test, with no cycling losses considered, at test condition 1 in Table 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.21 “Variable-speed compressor” means a compressor that can vary its rotational speed in non-discrete stages or discrete steps from low to full.
</P>
<P>2.22 “Variable-speed room air conditioner” means a type of room air conditioner that can automatically adjust compressor speed based on detected conditions.
</P>
<HD2>3. Test Methods and General Instructions
</HD2>
<P>3.1 <I>Cooling mode.</I> The test method for testing room air conditioners in cooling mode (“cooling mode test”) consists of applying the methods and conditions in AHAM RAC-1 Section 4, Paragraph 4.1 and for single-speed room air conditioners, Section 5, Paragraph 5.2.1.1, and for variable-speed room air conditioners, Section 5, Paragraph 5.2.1.2, except in accordance with ANSI/ASHRAE 16, including the references to ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992), ANSI/ASHRAE 41.3-2014, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6-2014, and ANSI/ASHRAE 41.11-2014, all referenced therein, as defined in sections 2.3 through 2.8 of this appendix. Use the cooling capacity simultaneous indoor calorimeter and outdoor calorimeter test method in Section 7.1.a and Sections 8.1 through 8.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 16, except as otherwise specified in this appendix. If a unit can operate on multiple operating voltages as distributed in commerce by the manufacturer, test it and rate the corresponding basic models at all nameplate operating voltages. For a variable-speed room air conditioner, test the unit following the cooling mode test a total of four times: One test at each of the test conditions listed in Table 1 of this appendix, consistent with section 4.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.1 <I>Through-the-wall installation.</I> Install a non-louvered room air conditioner inside a compatible wall sleeve with the provided or manufacturer-required rear grille, and with only the included trim frame and other manufacturer-provided installation materials, per manufacturer instructions provided to consumers.
</P>
<P>3.1.2 <I>Power measurement accuracy.</I> All instruments used for measuring electrical inputs to the test unit, reconditioning equipment, and any other equipment that operates within the calorimeter walls must be accurate to ±0.5 percent of the quantity measured.
</P>
<P>3.1.3 <I>Electrical supply.</I> For cooling mode testing, test at each nameplate operating voltage, and maintain the input standard voltage within ±1 percent. Test at the rated frequency, maintained within ±1 percent.
</P>
<P>3.1.4 <I>Control settings.</I> If the room air conditioner has network capabilities, all network features must be disabled throughout testing.
</P>
<P>3.1.5 <I>Measurement resolution.</I> Record measurements at the resolution of the test instrumentation.
</P>
<P>3.1.6 <I>Temperature tolerances.</I> Maintain each of the measured chamber dry-bulb and wet-bulb temperatures within a range of 1.0 °F.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Standby and off modes.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.1 Install the room air conditioner in accordance with Section 5, Paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301 and maintain the indoor test conditions (and outdoor test conditions where applicable) as required by Section 4, Paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301. If testing is not conducted in a facility used for testing cooling mode performance, the test facility must comply with Section 4, Paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 <I>Electrical supply.</I> For standby mode and off mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage and frequency according to the requirements in Section 4, Paragraph 4.3.1 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.2.3 <I>Supply voltage waveform.</I> For the standby mode and off mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage waveform indicated in Section 4, Paragraph 4.3.2 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.2.4 <I>Wattmeter.</I> The wattmeter used to measure standby mode and off mode power consumption must meet the resolution and accuracy requirements in Section 4, Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.2.5 <I>Air ventilation damper.</I> If the unit is equipped with an outdoor air ventilation damper, close this damper during standby mode and off mode testing.
</P>
<HD2>4. Test Conditions and Measurements
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Cooling mode.</I>
</P>
<P>4.1.1 <I>Temperature conditions.</I> Establish the test conditions described in Sections 4 and 5 of AHAM RAC-1 and in accordance with ANSI/ASHRAE 16, including the references to ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1 and ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6-2014, for cooling mode testing, with the following exceptions for variable-speed room air conditioners: Conduct the set of four cooling mode tests with the test conditions presented in Table 1 of this appendix. For test condition 1 and test condition 2, achieve the full compressor speed with user settings, as defined in section 2.12 of this appendix. For test condition 3 and test condition 4, set the required compressor speed in accordance with instructions the manufacturer provided to DOE.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Indoor and Outdoor Inlet Air Test Conditions—Variable-Speed Room Air Conditioners
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test
<br/>condition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Evaporator inlet
<br/>(indoor) air, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condenser inlet
<br/>(outdoor) air, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Compressor speed
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Test Condition 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Test Condition 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Test Condition 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Test Condition 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.1.2 <I>Cooling capacity and power measurements.</I> For single-speed units, measure the cooling mode cooling capacity (expressed in Btu/h), Capacity, and electrical power input (expressed in watts), P<E T="52">cool,</E> in accordance with Section 6, Paragraphs 6.1 and 6.2 of AHAM RAC-1, respectively, and in accordance with ANSI/ASHRAE 16, including the references to ANSI/ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992) and ANSI/ASHRAE 41.11-2014. For variable-speed room air conditioners, measure the condition-specific cooling capacity (expressed in Btu/h), Capacity<E T="52">tc</E>, and electrical power input (expressed in watts), P<E T="52">tc</E>, for each of the four cooling mode rating test conditions (tc), as required in Section 6, Paragraphs 6.1 and 6.2, respectively, of AHAM RAC-1, respectively, and in accordance with ANSI/ASHRAE 16, including the references to ANSI/ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992) and ANSI/ASHRAE 41.11-2014.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Standby and off modes.</I> Establish the testing conditions set forth in section 3.2 of this appendix, ensuring the unit does not enter any active mode during the test. For a unit that drops from a higher power state to a lower power state as discussed in Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 of IEC 62301, allow sufficient time for the room air conditioner to reach the lower power state before proceeding with the test measurement. Use the sampling method test procedure specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 of IEC 62301 for testing all standby and off modes, with the following modifications: Allow the product to stabilize for 5 to 10 minutes and use an energy use measurement period of 5 minutes.
</P>
<P>4.2.1 If the unit has an inactive mode, as defined in section 2.14 of this appendix, measure and record the average inactive mode power, Pia, in watts.


</P>
<P>4.2.2 If the unit has an off mode, as defined in section 2.17 of this appendix, measure and record the average off mode power, P<E T="52">om</E>, in watts.
</P>
<HD2>5. Calculations
</HD2>
<P>5.1 <I>Annual energy consumption in inactive mode and off mode.</I> Calculate the annual energy consumption in inactive mode and off mode, AEC<E T="52">ia/om,</E> expressed in kilowatt-hours per year (kWh/year).
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">ia/om</E> = (<I>P</I><E T="54">ia</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">ia</E> + <I>P</I><E T="54">om</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">om</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E> = annual energy consumption in inactive mode and off mode, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">ia</E> = average power in inactive mode, in watts, determined in section 4.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">om</E> = average power in off mode, in watts, determined in section 4.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">ia</E> = annual operating hours in inactive mode and multiplied by a 0.001 kWh/Wh conversion factor from watt-hours to kilowatt-hours. This value is 5.115 kWh/W if the unit has inactive mode and no off mode, 2.5575 kWh/W if the unit has both inactive and off mode, and 0 kWh/W if the unit does not have inactive mode.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">om</E> = annual operating hours in off mode and multiplied by a 0.001 kWh/Wh conversion factor from watt-hours to kilowatt-hours. This value is 5.115 kWh/W if the unit has off mode and no inactive mode, 2.5575 kWh/W if the unit has both inactive and off mode, and 0 kWh/W if the unit does not have off mode.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2 <I>Combined energy efficiency ratio for single-speed room air conditioners.</I> Calculate the combined energy efficiency ratio for single-speed room air conditioners as follows:
</P>
<P>5.2.1 <I>Single-speed room air conditioner annual energy consumption in cooling mode.</I> Calculate the annual energy consumption in cooling mode for a single-speed room air conditioner, AEC<E T="52">cool,</E> expressed in kWh/year.
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">cool</E> = 0.75 × <I>P</I><E T="54">cool</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">cool</E> = single-speed room air conditioner annual energy consumption in cooling mode, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">cool</E> = single-speed room air conditioner average power in cooling mode, in watts, determined in section 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.75 is 750 annual operating hours in cooling mode multiplied by a 0.001 kWh/Wh conversion factor from watt-hours to kilowatt-hours.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2.2 <I>Single-speed room air conditioner combined energy efficiency ratio.</I> Calculate the combined energy efficiency ratio, CEER, expressed in Btu/Wh, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29mr21.002.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER = combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity = single-speed room air conditioner cooling capacity, in Btu/h, determined in section 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">cool</E> = single-speed room air conditioner annual energy consumption in cooling mode, in kWh/year, calculated in section 5.2.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E> = annual energy consumption in inactive mode and off mode, in kWh/year, determined in section 5.1 of this appendix.


</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.75 as defined in section 5.2.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3 <I>Combined energy efficiency ratio for variable-speed room air conditioners.</I> Calculate the combined energy efficiency ratio for variable-speed room air conditioners as follows:
</P>
<P>5.3.1 <I>Weighted electrical power input.</I> Calculate the weighted electrical power input in cooling mode, P<E T="52">wt,</E> expressed in watts, as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">wt</E> = Σ<E T="54">tc</E> <I>P</I><E T="54">tc</E> × <I>W</I><E T="54">tc</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">wt</E> = weighted electrical power input, in watts, in cooling mode.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">tc</E> = electrical power input, in watts, in cooling mode for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">tc</E> = weighting factors for each cooling mode test condition: 0.08 for test condition 1, 0.20 for test condition 2, 0.33 for test condition 3, and 0.39 for test condition 4. tc represents the cooling mode test condition: “1” for test condition 1 (95 °F condenser inlet dry-bulb temperature), “2” for test condition 2 (92 °F), “3” for test condition 3 (87 °F), and “4” for test condition 4 (82 °F).
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.2 <I>Theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner.</I> Calculate the cooling capacity, expressed in Btu/h, and the electrical power input, expressed in watts, for a theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner at all cooling mode test conditions.
</P>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = Capacity<E T="52">1</E> × (1 + (M<E T="52">c</E> × (95−T<E T="52">tc</E>)))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = P<E T="52">1</E> × (1−(M<E T="52">p</E> × (95−T<E T="52">tc</E>)))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner cooling capacity, in Btu/h, calculated for each of the cooling mode test conditions in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">1</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's cooling capacity, in Btu/h, determined in section 4.1.2 of this appendix for test condition 1 in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner electrical power input, in watts, calculated for each of the cooling mode test conditions in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">1</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's electrical power input, in watts, determined in section 4.1.2 of this appendix for test condition 1 in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">c</E> = adjustment factor to determine the increased capacity at lower outdoor test conditions, 0.0099 per °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">p</E> = adjustment factor to determine the reduced electrical power input at lower outdoor test conditions, 0.0076 per °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>95 is the condenser inlet dry-bulb temperature for test condition 1 in Table 1 of this appendix, 95 °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">tc</E> = condenser inlet dry-bulb temperature for each of the test conditions in Table 1 of this appendix (in °F).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tc as explained in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.3 <I>Variable-speed room air conditioner unit's annual energy consumption for cooling mode at each cooling mode test condition.</I> Calculate the annual energy consumption for cooling mode under each test condition, AEC<E T="52">tc,</E> expressed in kilowatt-hours per year (kWh/year), as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">tc</E> = 0.75 × <I>P</I><E T="54">tc</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">tc</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's annual energy consumption, in kWh/year, in cooling mode for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">tc</E> = as defined in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.75 as defined in section 5.2.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tc as explained in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.4 <I>Variable-speed room air conditioner weighted annual energy consumption.</I> Calculate the weighted annual energy consumption in cooling mode for a variable-speed room air conditioner, AEC<E T="52">wt,</E> expressed in kWh/year.
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">wt</E> = Σ<E T="54">tc</E> <I>AEC</I><E T="54">tc</E> × <I>W</I><E T="54">tc</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">wt</E> = weighted annual energy consumption in cooling mode for a variable-speed room air conditioner, expressed in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">tc</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's annual energy consumption, in kWh/year, in cooling mode for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 5.3.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">tc</E> = weighting factors for each cooling mode test condition: 0.08 for test condition 1, 0.20 for test condition 2, 0.33 for test condition 3, and 0.39 for test condition 4.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tc as explained in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.5 <I>Theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner annual energy consumption in cooling mode at each cooling mode test condition.</I> Calculate the annual energy consumption in cooling mode for a theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner for cooling mode under each test condition, AEC<E T="52">ss__tc</E>, expressed in kWh/year.
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">ss__tc</E> = 0.75 × <I>P</I><E T="54">ss__tc</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner annual energy consumption, in kWh/year, in cooling mode for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner electrical power input, in watts, in cooling mode for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 5.3.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.75 as defined in section 5.2.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tc as explained in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.6 <I>Variable-speed room air conditioner combined energy efficiency ratio at each cooling mode test condition.</I> Calculate the variable-speed room air conditioner unit's combined energy efficiency ratio, CEER<E T="52">tc</E>, for each test condition, expressed in Btu/Wh.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29mr21.003.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">tc</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh, for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">tc</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's cooling capacity, in Btu/h, for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">tc</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's annual energy consumption, in kWh/year, in cooling mode for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 5.3.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E> = annual energy consumption in inactive mode and off mode, in kWh/year, determined in section 5.1 of this appendix.


</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.75 as defined in section 5.2.1 of this appendix.


</FP-2>
<FP-2>tc as explained in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.7 <I>Theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner combined energy efficiency ratio.</I> Calculate the combined energy efficiency ratio for a theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner, CEER<E T="52">ss__tc</E>, for each test condition, expressed in Btu/Wh.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29mr21.004.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh, for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner cooling capacity, in Btu/h, for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 5.3.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner annual energy consumption, in kWh/year, in cooling mode for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 5.3.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E> = annual energy consumption in inactive mode and off mode, in kWh/year, determined in section 5.1 of this appendix.


</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.75 as defined in section 5.2.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tc as explained in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.8 <I>Theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner adjusted combined energy efficiency ratio.</I> Calculate the adjusted combined energy efficiency ratio, for a theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner, CEER<E T="52">ss__tc__adj</E>, with cycling losses considered, for each test condition, expressed in Btu/Wh.
</P>
<FP-2><I>CEER</I><E T="54">ss__tc__adj</E> = <I>CEER</I><E T="54">ss__tc</E> × <I>CLF</I><E T="54">tc</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">ss__tc__adj</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner adjusted combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh, for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">ss__tc</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh, for each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 5.3.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CLF<E T="52">tc</E> = cycling loss factor for each test condition; 1 for test condition 1, 0.956 for test condition 2, 0.883 for test condition 3, and 0.810 for test condition 4.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tc as explained in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.9 <I>Weighted combined energy efficiency ratio.</I> Calculate the weighted combined energy efficiency ratio for the variable-speed room air conditioner unit, CEER<E T="52">wt</E>, and theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner, CEER<E T="52">ss__wt</E>, expressed in Btu/Wh.
</P>
<FP-2><I>CEER</I><E T="54">wt</E> = Σ<E T="54">tc</E> <I>CEER</I><E T="54">tc</E> × <I>W</I><E T="54">tc</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CEER</I><E T="54">ss__wt</E> = Σ<E T="54">tc</E> <I>CEER</I><E T="54">ss__tc__adj</E> × <I>W</I><E T="54">tc</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">wt</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's weighted combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">ss__wt</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner weighted combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">tc</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh, at each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 5.3.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">ss__tc__adj</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner adjusted combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh, at each test condition in Table 1 of this appendix, determined in section 5.3.8 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">tc</E> as defined in section 5.3.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tc as explained in section 5.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.10 <I>Variable-speed room air conditioner performance adjustment factor.</I> Calculate the variable-speed room air conditioner unit's performance adjustment factor, F<E T="52">p.</E>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er29mr21.005.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F<E T="52">p</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's performance adjustment factor.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">wt</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner unit's weighted combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh, determined in section 5.3.9 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">ss__wt</E> = theoretical comparable single-speed room air conditioner weighted combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh, determined in section 5.3.9 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3.11 <I>Variable-speed room air conditioner combined energy efficiency ratio.</I> Calculate the combined energy efficiency ratio, CEER, expressed in Btu/Wh, for variable-speed air conditioners.
</P>
<FP-2><I>CEER</I> = <I>CEER</I><E T="52">1</E> × (1 + <I>F</I><E T="54">p</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER = combined energy efficiency ratio, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">1</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner combined energy efficiency ratio for test condition 1 in Table 1 of this appendix, in Btu/Wh, determined in section 5.3.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F<E T="52">p</E> = variable-speed room air conditioner performance adjustment factor, determined in section 5.3.10 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 16476, Mar. 29, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 24484, May 7, 2021; 88 FR 59791, Aug. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Unvented Home Heating Equipment
</HEAD>
<HD2>1. Testing conditions.
</HD2>
<P>1.1 <I>Installation.</I>
</P>
<P>1.1.1 <I>Electric heater.</I> Install heater according to manufacturer's instructions. Heaters shall be connected to an electrical supply circuit of nameplate voltage with a wattmeter installed in the circuit. The wattmeter shall have a maximum error not greater than one percent.
</P>
<P>1.1.2 <I>Unvented gas heater.</I> Install heater according to manufacturer's instructions. Heaters shall be connected to a gas supply line with a gas displacement meter installed between the supply line and the heater according to manufacturer's specifications. The gas displacement meter shall have a maximum error not greater than one percent. Gas heaters with electrical auxiliaries shall be connected to an electrical supply circuit of nameplate voltage with a wattmeter installed in the circuit. The wattmeter shall have a maximum error not greater than one percent.
</P>
<P>1.1.3 <I>Unvented oil heater.</I> Install heater according to manufacturer's instructions. Oil heaters with electric auxiliaries shall be connected to an electrical supply circuit of nameplate voltage with a wattmeter installed in the circuit. The wattmeter shall have a maximum error not greater than one percent. 
</P>
<P>1.2 <I>Temperature regulating controls.</I> All temperature regulating controls shall be shorted out of the circuit or adjusted so that they will not operate during the test period. 
</P>
<P>1.3 <I>Fan controls.</I> All fan controls shall be set at the highest fan speed setting. 
</P>
<P>1.4 <I>Energy supply.</I> 
</P>
<P>1.4.1 <I>Electrical supply.</I> Supply power to the heater within one percent of the nameplate voltage. 
</P>
<P>1.4.2 <I>Natural gas supply.</I> For an unvented gas heater utilizing natural gas, maintain the gas supply to the heater with a normal inlet test pressure immediately ahead of all controls at 7 to 10 inches of water column. The regulator outlet pressure at normal supply test pressure shall be approximately that recommended by the manufacturer. The natural gas supplied should have a higher heating value within ±5 percent of 1,025 Btu's per standard cubic foot. Determine the higher heating value, in Btu's per standard cubic foot, for the natural gas to be used in the test, with an error no greater than one percent. Alternatively, the test can be conducted using “bottled” natural gas of a higher heating value within ±5 percent of 1,025 Btu's per standard cubic foot as long as the actual higher heating value of the bottled natural gas has been determined with an error no greater than one percent as certified by the supplier. 
</P>
<P>1.4.3 <I>Propane gas supply.</I> For an unvented gas heater utilizing propane, maintain the gas supply to the heater with a normal inlet test pressure immediately ahead of all controls at 11 to 13 inches of water column. The regulator outlet pressure at normal supply test pressure shall be that recommended by the manufacturer. The propane supplied should have a higher heating value of within±5 percent of 2,500 Btu's per standard cubic foot. Determine the higher heating value in Btu's per standard foot, for the propane to be used in the test, with an error no greater than one percent. Alternatively, the test can be conducted using “bottled” propane of a higher heating value within ±5 percent of 2,500 Btu's per standard cubic foot as long as the actual higher heating value of the bottled propane has been determined with an error no greater than one percent as certified by the supplier. 
</P>
<P>1.4.4 <I>Oil supply.</I> For an unvented oil heater utilizing kerosene, determine the higher heating value in Btu's per gallon with an error no greater than one percent. Alternatively, the test can be conducted using a tested fuel of a higher heating value within ±5 percent of 137,400 Btu's per gallon as long as the actual higher heating value of the tested fuel has been determined with an error no greater than one percent as certified by the supplier. 
</P>
<P>1.5 <I>Energy flow instrumentation.</I> Install one or more energy flow instruments which measure, as appropriate and with an error no greater than one percent, the quantity of electrical energy, natural gas, propane gas, or oil supplied to the heater. 
</P>
<HD2>2. Testing and measurements. 
</HD2>
<P>2.1 <I>Electric power measurement.</I> Establish the test conditions set forth in section 1 of this appendix. Allow an electric heater to warm up for at least five minutes before recording the maximum electric power measurement from the wattmeter. Record the maximum electric power (P<E T="52">E</E>) expressed in kilowatts. 
</P>
<P>Allow the auxiliary electrical system of a forced air unvented gas, propane, or oil heater to operate for at least five minutes before recording the maximum auxiliary electric power measurement from the wattmeter. Record the maximum auxiliary electric power (P<E T="52">A</E>) expressed in kilowatts.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Natural gas, propane, and oil measurement.</I> Establish the test conditions as set forth in section 1 of this appendix. A natural gas, propane, or oil heater shall be operated for one hour. Using either the nameplate rating or the energy flow instrumentation set forth in section 1.5 of this appendix and the fuel supply rating set forth in sections 1.4.2, 1.4.3, or 1.4.4 of this appendix, as appropriate, determine the maximum fuel input (P<E T="52">F</E>) of the heater under test in Btu's per hour. The energy flow instrumentation shall measure the maximum fuel input with an error no greater than one percent.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Pilot light measurement.</I> Except as provided in section 2.3.1 of this appendix, measure the energy input rate to the pilot light (Q<E T="52">p</E>), with an error no greater than 3 percent, for unvented heaters so equipped.
</P>
<P>2.3.1 The measurement of Q<E T="52">p</E> is not required for unvented heaters where the pilot light is designed to be turned off by the user when the heater is not in use (<I>i.e.,</I> for units where turning the control to the OFF position will shut off the gas supply to the burner(s) and the pilot light). This provision applies only if an instruction to turn off the unit is provided on the heater near the gas control value (<I>e.g.,</I> by label) by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Electrical standby mode power measurement.</I> Except as provided in section 2.4.1 of this appendix, for all electric heaters and unvented heaters with electrical auxiliaries, measure the standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) in accordance with the procedures in IEC 62301 Second Edition (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), with all electrical auxiliaries not activated. Voltage shall be as specified in section 1.4.1 <I>Electrical supply</I> of this appendix. The recorded standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) shall be rounded to the second decimal place, and for loads greater than or equal to 10W, at least three significant figures shall be reported.
</P>
<P>2.4.1 The measurement of P<E T="52">W,SB</E> is not required for heaters designed to be turned off by the user when the heater is not in use (<I>i.e.,</I> for units where turning the control to the OFF position will shut off the electrical supply to the heater). This provision applies only if an instruction to turn off the unit is provided on the heater (<I>e.g.,</I> by label) by the manufacturer.


</P>
<HD2>3. Calculations.
</HD2>
<P>3.1 <I>Annual energy consumption for primary electric heaters.</I> For primary electric heaters, calculate the annual energy consumption (E<E T="52">E</E>) expressed in kilowatt-hours per year and defined as:
</P>
<FP>E<E T="52">E</E> = 2080(0.77)DHR
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>2080 = national average annual heating load hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = adjustment factor
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DHR = design heating requirement and is equal to P<E T="52">E</E> /1.2 in kilowatts.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">E</E> = as defined in 2.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1.2 = typical oversizing factor for primary electric heaters
</FP-2>
<P>3.2 <I>Annual energy consumption for primary electric heaters by geographic region of the United States.</I> For primary electric heaters, calculate the annual energy consumption by geographic region of the United States (E<E T="52">R</E>) expressed in kilowatt-hours per year and defined as:
</P>
<FP>E<E T="52">R</E> = HLH(0.77) (DHR)
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>HLH = heating load hours for a specific region determined from Figure 1 of this appendix in hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DHR = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>3.3 <I>Rated output for electric heaters.</I> Calculate the rated output (Q<E T="52">out</E>) for electric heaters, expressed in Btu's per hour, and defined as:
</P>
<FP>Q<E T="52">out</E> = P<E T="52">E</E> (3,412 Btu/kWh)
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">E</E> = as defined in 2.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>3.4 <I>Rated output for unvented heaters using either natural gas, propane, or oil.</I> For unvented heaters using either natural gas, propane, or oil equipped without auxiliary electrical systems, the rated output (Q<E T="52">out</E>), expressed in Btu's per hour, is equal to P<E T="52">F</E>, as determined in section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For unvented heaters using either natural gas, propane, or oil equipped with auxiliary electrical systems, calculate the rated output (Q<E T="52">out</E>), expressed in Btu's per hour, and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">out</E> = P<E T="52">F</E> + P<E T="52">A</E> (3,412 Btu/kWh)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">F</E> = as defined in 2.2 of this appendix in Btu/hr
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">A</E> = as defined in 2.1 of this appendix in Btu/hr
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/ec04oc91.002.gif"/>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub. L. 94-163, as amended by Pub. L. 94-385; Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, as amended by Pub. L. 94-385; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91; E.O. 11790, 39 FR 23185) 
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 20132, May 10, 1978. Redesignated and amended at 44 FR 37938, June 29, 1979; 49 FR 12157, Mar. 28, 1984; 77 FR 74571, Dec. 17, 2012]







</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Power Consumption of Television Sets
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>On or after April 14, 2023 and prior to September 11, 2023, any representations made with respect to the energy use or energy efficiency of a television must be based upon results generated under this appendix as it appeared in 10 CFR part 430 edition revised as of January 1, 2023, or this appendix. Beginning September 11, 2023 any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of a television must be based upon results generated under this appendix. Given that beginning September 11, 2023, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of televisions must be made in accordance with tests conducted pursuant to this appendix, manufacturers may wish to begin using this test procedure as soon as possible.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, ANSI/CTA-2037-D in its entirety. However, only enumerated provisions of ANSI/CTA-2037-D are applicable to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<HD3>0.1 ANSI/CTA-2037-D
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5 as referenced in section 2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 6 and 8 through 11 as referenced in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7 as referenced in sections 3 and 4 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(d) Annex A as referenced in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 [Reserved]
</HD3>
<HD2>1. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements used to measure the energy and power consumption of television sets that have a diagonal screen size of at least fifteen inches; and are powered by mains power (including TVs with auxiliary batteries but not TVs with main batteries).
</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions and Symbols
</HD2>
<P>2.1. <I>Definitions.</I> The following terms are defined according to section 5.1 of ANSI/CTA-2037-D.
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Annual energy consumption
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Automatic brightness control
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Brightest selectable picture setting
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Default preset picture setting
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Dynamic Luminance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Energy-Efficient-Ethernet
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(g) Filmmaker Mode
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(h) Forced menu
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(i) Gloss Unit (GU)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(j) HDR10
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(k) High Dynamic Range
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(l) Home configuration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(m) Hybrid Log Gamma (HLG)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(n) Illuminance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(o) International System of Units
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(p) Luminance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(q) Main battery
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(r) Motion-Based Dynamic Dimming
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(s) Neutral density filter
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(t) Off Mode
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(u) On Mode
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(v) Perceptual Quantization Video
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(w) Preset picture setting
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(x) Quick start
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(y) Retail Configuration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(z) Snoot
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(aa) Software
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(ab) Wake-By-Remote-Control-App
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(ac) Wake-By-Smart-Speaker
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(ad) Wake-On-Cast
</FP-1>
<P>2.2. <I>Symbol usage.</I> The symbols and abbreviations in section 5.2 of ANSI/CTA-2037-D apply to this test procedure.
</P>
<HD2>3. <I>Test Conduct</I>
</HD2>
<P>Determine the dynamic luminance and on mode and standby mode power consumption of TVs by following the procedure specified in sections 6 through 11 of ANSI/CTA-2037-D.
</P>
<HD2>4. <I>Calculation of Measured Values</I>
</HD2>
<P>Calculate the on mode power consumption, dynamic luminance, standby mode power consumption, and annual energy consumption as specified in Annex A of ANSI/CTA-2037-D. The following additional requirements are also applicable.
</P>
<P>4.1. Round on mode power value as specified in Annex A of ANSI/CTA-2037-D.
</P>
<P>4.2. Round dynamic luminance to the nearest tenth.
</P>
<P>4.3. Round standby mode power as specified in section 7.1.2 of ANSI/CTA-2037-D.
</P>
<P>4.4. Round annual energy consumption as specified in Annex A of ANSI/CTA-2037-D.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 16109, Mar. 15, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Microwave Ovens
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>After September 26, 2022, representations made with respect to the energy use of microwave ovens must fairly disclose the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.
</P>
<P>On or after April 29, 2022 and prior to September 26, 2022 representations, including compliance certifications, made with respect to the energy use of microwave ovens must fairly disclose the results of testing pursuant to either this appendix or appendix I as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, in the 10 CFR parts 200 to 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2020. Representations made with respect to the energy use of microwave ovens within that range of time must fairly disclose the results of testing under the selected version. Given that after September 26, 2022 representations with respect to the energy use of microwave ovens must be made in accordance with tests conducted pursuant to this appendix, manufacturers may wish to begin using this test procedure as soon as possible.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>The following definitions apply to the test procedures in this appendix, including the test procedures incorporated by reference:</I>
</P>
<P>1.1 <I>Active mode</I> means a mode in which the product is connected to a mains power source, has been activated, and is performing the main function of producing heat by means of a gas flame, electric resistance heating, electric inductive heating, or microwave energy.
</P>
<P>1.2 <I>Built-in</I> means the product is enclosed in surrounding cabinetry, walls, or other similar structures on at least three sides, and can be supported by surrounding cabinetry or the floor.
</P>
<P>1.3 <I>Combined cooking product</I> means a household cooking appliance that combines a cooking product with other appliance functionality, which may or may not include another cooking product. Combined cooking products include the following products: Conventional range, microwave/conventional cooking top, microwave/conventional oven, and microwave/conventional range.
</P>
<P>1.4 <I>Drop-in</I> means the product is supported by horizontal surface cabinetry.
</P>
<P>1.5 <I>IEC 62301 (First Edition)</I> means the test standard published by the International Electrotechnical Commission, titled “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power,” Publication 62301 (First Edition 2005-06) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>1.6 <I>IEC 62301 (Second Edition)</I> means the test standard published by the International Electrotechnical Commission, titled “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power,” Publication 62301 (Edition 2.0 2011-01) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>1.7 <I>Normal non-operating temperature</I> means a temperature of all areas of an appliance to be tested that is within 5 °F (2.8 °C) of the temperature that the identical areas of the same basic model of the appliance would attain if it remained in the test room for 24 hours while not operating with all oven doors closed.
</P>
<P>1.8 <I>Off mode</I> means any mode in which a cooking product is connected to a mains power source and is not providing any active mode or standby function, and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time. An indicator that only shows the user that the product is in the off position is included within the classification of an off mode.
</P>
<P>1.9 <I>Standby mode</I> means any mode in which a cooking product is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions which may persist for an indefinite time:
</P>
<P>(1) Facilitation of the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer;
</P>
<P>(2) Provision of continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions. A timer is a continuous clock function (which may or may not be associated with a display) that allows for regularly scheduled tasks and that operates on a continuous basis.
</P>
<HD2>2. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P>2.1 <I>Installation.</I> Install a drop-in or built-in cooking product in a test enclosure in accordance with manufacturer's instructions. If the manufacturer's instructions specify that the cooking product may be used in multiple installation conditions, install the appliance according to the built-in configuration. Completely assemble the product with all handles, knobs, guards, and similar components mounted in place. Position any electric resistance heaters and baffles in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>Microwave ovens, excluding any microwave oven component of a combined cooking product.</I> Install the microwave oven in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and connect to an electrical supply circuit with voltage as specified in section 2.2.1 of this appendix. Install the microwave oven in accordance with Section 5, Paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), disregarding the provisions regarding batteries and the determination, classification, and testing of relevant modes. If the microwave oven can communicate through a network (<I>e.g.,</I> Bluetooth® or internet connection), disable the network function, if it is possible to disable it by means provided in the manufacturer's user manual, for the duration of testing. If the network function cannot be disabled, or means for disabling the function are not provided in the manufacturer's user manual, test the microwave oven with the network function in the factory default setting or in the as-shipped condition as instructed in Section 5, paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition). Configure the unit such that the clock display remains on during testing, regardless of manufacturer's instructions or default setting or supplied setting, unless the clock display powers down automatically with no option for the consumer to override this function. Install a watt meter in the circuit that meets the requirements of section 2.8.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Energy supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1 <I>Electrical supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1.1 <I>Voltage.</I> For microwave oven testing, maintain the electrical supply to the unit at 240/120 volts ±1 percent. Maintain the electrical supply frequency for all products at 60 hertz ±1 percent.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Air circulation.</I> Maintain air circulation in the room sufficient to secure a reasonably uniform temperature distribution, but do not cause a direct draft on the unit under test.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Ambient room test conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>2.4.1 <I>Standby mode and off mode ambient temperature.</I> For standby mode and off mode testing, maintain room ambient air temperature conditions as specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Normal non-operating temperature.</I> All areas of the appliance to be tested must attain the normal non-operating temperature, as defined in section 1.7 of this appendix, before any testing begins. Measure the applicable normal non-operating temperature using the equipment specified in sections 2.6.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Instrumentation.</I> Perform all test measurements using the following instruments, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>2.6.1 <I>Electrical Measurements.</I>
</P>
<P>2.6.1.1 <I>Standby mode and off mode watt meter.</I> The watt meter used to measure standby mode and off mode power must meet the requirements specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). For microwave oven standby mode and off mode testing, if the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the crest factor, power factor, or maximum current ratio during the test measurement period, measure the crest factor, power factor, and maximum current ratio immediately before and after the test measurement period to determine whether these characteristics meet the requirements specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition).
</P>
<P>2.6.2 <I>Temperature measurement equipment.</I>
</P>
<P>2.6.2.1 <I>Room temperature indicating system.</I> For the test of microwave ovens, the room temperature indicating system must have an error no greater than ±1 °F (±0.6 °C) over the range 65° to 90 °F (18 °C to 32 °C).
</P>
<HD2>3. Test Methods and Measurements
</HD2>
<P>3.1. <I>Test methods.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1 <I>Microwave oven.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1.1 <I>Microwave oven test standby mode and off mode power except for any microwave oven component of a combined cooking product.</I> Establish the testing conditions set forth in section 2, Test Conditions, of this appendix. For microwave ovens that drop from a higher power state to a lower power state as discussed in Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), allow sufficient time for the microwave oven to reach the lower power state before proceeding with the test measurement. Follow the test procedure as specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition). For units in which power varies as a function of displayed time in standby mode, set the clock time to 3:23 and use the average power approach described in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2(a) of IEC 62301 (First Edition), but with a single test period of 10 minutes +0/−2 sec after an additional stabilization period until the clock time reaches 3:33. If a microwave oven is capable of operation in either standby mode or off mode, as defined in sections 1.9 and 1.8 of this appendix, respectively, or both, test the microwave oven in each mode in which it can operate.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Test measurements.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.1 <I>Microwave oven standby mode and off mode power except for any microwave oven component of a combined cooking product.</I> Make measurements as specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). If the microwave oven is capable of operating in standby mode, as defined in section 1.9 of this appendix, measure the average standby mode power of the microwave oven, PSB, in watts as specified in section 3.1.1.1 of this appendix. If the microwave oven is capable of operating in off mode, as defined in section 1.8 of this appendix, measure the average off mode power of the microwave oven, POM, as specified in section 3.1.1.1.
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Recorded values.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.1 For microwave ovens except for any microwave oven component of a combined cooking product, record the average standby mode power, PSB, for the microwave oven standby mode, as determined in section 3.2.1 of this appendix for a microwave oven capable of operating in standby mode. Record the average off mode power, POM, for the microwave oven off mode power test, as determined in section 3.2.1 of this appendix for a microwave oven capable of operating in off mode.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 50766, Aug. 18, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 18271, Mar. 30, 2022; 87 FR 51538, Aug. 22, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I1 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Conventional Cooking Products
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Any representation related to energy consumption of conventional cooking tops, including the conventional cooking top component of combined cooking products, made after February 20, 2023 must be based upon results generated under this test procedure. Upon the compliance date(s) of any energy conservation standard(s) for conventional cooking tops, including the conventional cooking top component of combined cooking products, use of the applicable provisions of this test procedure to demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standard is required.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire test standard for IEC 60350-2; IEC 62301 (First Edition); and IEC 62301 (Second Edition). However, only enumerated provisions of those standards are applicable to this appendix, as follows. If there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the referenced test standards.
</P>
<HD3>0.1 IEC 60350-2
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5.1 as referenced in section 2.4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.3 as referenced in sections 2.7.1.1, 2.7.3.1, 2.7.3.3, 2.7.3.4, 2.7.4, and 2.7.5 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5.5 as referenced in section 2.5.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5.6.1 as referenced in section 2.6.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5.6.1.5 as referenced in section 3.1.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 6.3 as referenced in section 3.1.1.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 6.3.1 as referenced in section 3.1.1.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 6.3.2 as referenced in section 3.1.1.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 7.5.1 as referenced in section 2.6.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 7.5.2 as referenced in section 3.1.4.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(k) Section 7.5.2.1 as referenced in sections 1 and 3.1.4.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(l) Section 7.5.2.2 as referenced in section 3.1.4.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(m) Section 7.5.4.1 as referenced in sections 1 and 3.1.4.5 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(n) Annex A as referenced in section 3.1.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(o) Annex B as referenced in sections 2.6.1 and 2.8.3 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(p) Annex C as referenced in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 IEC 62301 (First Edition)
</HD3>
<P>(a) Paragraph 5.3 as referenced in section 3.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph 5.3.2 as referenced in section 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.3 IEC 62301 (Second Edition)
</HD3>
<P>(a) Paragraph 4.2 as referenced in section 2.4.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph 4.3.2 as referenced in section 2.2.1.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph 4.4 as referenced in section 2.7.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Paragraph 5.1 as referenced in section 3.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(e) Paragraph 5.3.2 as referenced in section 3.2 of this appendix.


</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The following definitions apply to the test procedures in this appendix, including the test procedures incorporated by reference:
</P>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means a mode in which the product is connected to a mains power source, has been activated, and is performing the main function of producing heat by means of a gas flame, electric resistance heating, or electric inductive heating.
</P>
<P><I>Built-in</I> means the product is enclosed in surrounding cabinetry, walls, or other similar structures on at least three sides, and can be supported by surrounding cabinetry or the floor.
</P>
<P><I>Combined cooking product</I> means a household cooking appliance that combines a cooking product with other appliance functionality, which may or may not include another cooking product. Combined cooking products include the following products: conventional range, microwave/conventional cooking top, microwave/conventional oven, and microwave/conventional range.
</P>
<P><I>Combined low-power mode</I> means the aggregate of available modes other than active mode, but including the delay start mode portion of active mode.
</P>
<P><I>Cooking area</I> means an area on a conventional cooking top surface heated by an inducted magnetic field where cookware is placed for heating, where more than one cookware item can be used simultaneously and controlled separately from other cookware placed on the cooking area, and that may or may not include limitative markings.
</P>
<P><I>Cooking top control</I> means a part of the conventional cooking top used to adjust the power and the temperature of the cooking zone or cooking area for one cookware item.
</P>
<P><I>Cooking zone</I> means a part of a conventional cooking top surface that is either a single electric resistance heating element, multiple concentric sizes of electric resistance heating elements, an inductive heating element, or a gas surface unit that is defined by limitative markings on the surface of the cooking top and can be controlled independently of any other cooking area or cooking zone.
</P>
<P><I>Cycle finished mode</I> means a standby mode in which a conventional cooking top provides continuous status display following operation in active mode.
</P>
<P><I>Drop-in</I> means the product is supported by horizontal surface cabinetry.
</P>
<P><I>Freestanding</I> means the product is supported by the floor and is not specified in the manufacturer's instructions as able to be installed such that it is enclosed by surrounding cabinetry, walls, or other similar structures.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive mode</I> means a standby mode that facilitates the activation of active mode by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer, or that provides continuous status display.
</P>
<P><I>Infinite power settings</I> means a cooking zone control without discrete power settings, which allows for selection of any power setting up to the maximum power setting.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum-below-threshold power setting</I> means the power setting on a conventional cooking top that is the highest power setting that results in smoothened water temperature data that do not meet the evaluation criteria specified in Section 7.5.4.1 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum power setting</I> means the maximum possible power setting if only one cookware item is used on the cooking zone or cooking area of a conventional cooking top, including any optional power boosting features. For conventional electric cooking tops with multi-ring cooking zones or cooking areas, the maximum power setting is the maximum power corresponding to the concentric heating element with the largest diameter, which may correspond to a power setting which may include one or more of the smaller concentric heating elements. For conventional gas cooking tops with multi-ring cooking zones, the maximum power setting is the maximum heat input rate when the maximum number of rings of the cooking zone are ignited.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum-above-threshold power setting</I> means the power setting on a conventional cooking top that is the lowest power setting that results in smoothened water temperature data that meet the evaluation criteria specified in Section 7.5.4.1 of IEC 60350-2. This power setting is also referred to as the simmering setting.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-ring cooking zone</I> means a cooking zone on a conventional cooking top with multiple concentric sizes of electric resistance heating elements or gas burner rings.
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means any mode in which a product is connected to a mains power source and is not providing any active mode or standby function, and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time. An indicator that only shows the user that the product is in the off position is included within the classification of an off mode.
</P>
<P><I>Power setting</I> means a setting on a cooking zone control that offers a gas flame, electric resistance heating, or electric inductive heating.
</P>
<P><I>Simmering period</I> means, for each cooking zone, the 20-minute period during the simmering test starting at time t<E T="52">90.</E>
</P>
<P><I>Smoothened water temperature</I> means the 40-second moving-average temperature as calculated in Section 7.5.4.1 of IEC 60350-2, rounded to the nearest 0.1 degree Celsius.
</P>
<P><I>Specialty cooking zone</I> means a warming plate, grill, griddle, or any cooking zone that is designed for use only with non-circular cookware, such as a bridge zone. Specialty cooking zones are not tested under this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Stable temperature</I> means a temperature that does not vary by more than 1 °C over a 5-minute period.
</P>
<P><I>Standard cubic foot of gas</I> means the quantity of gas that occupies 1 cubic foot when saturated with water vapor at a temperature of 60 °F and a pressure of 14.73 pounds per square inch (30 inches of mercury or 101.6 kPa).
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means any mode in which a product is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions which may persist for an indefinite time:
</P>
<P>(1) Facilitation of the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer;
</P>
<P>(2) Provision of continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions. A timer is a continuous clock function (which may or may not be associated with a display) that allows for regularly scheduled tasks and that operates on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P><I>Target turndown temperature (Tc</I><E T="52">target</E><I>)</I> means the temperature as calculated according to Section 7.5.2.1 of IEC 60350-2 and section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix, for each cooking zone.
</P>
<P><I>Thermocouple</I> means a device consisting of two dissimilar metals which are joined together and, with their associated wires, are used to measure temperature by means of electromotive force.
</P>
<P><I>Time t</I><E T="52">90</E> means the first instant during the simmering test for each cooking zone at which the smoothened water temperature is greater than or equal to 90 °C.
</P>
<P><I>Turndown temperature (T</I><E T="52">c</E><I>)</I> means, for each cooking zone, the measured water temperature at the time at which the tester begins adjusting the cooking top controls to change the power setting.


</P>
<HD2>2. Test Conditions and Instrumentation
</HD2>
<P>2.1 <I>Installation.</I> Install the conventional cooking top or combined cooking product in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. If the manufacturer's instructions specify that the product may be used in multiple installation conditions, install the product according to the built-in configuration. Completely assemble the product with all handles, knobs, guards, and similar components mounted in place. Position any electric resistance heaters, gas burners, and baffles in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. If the product can communicate through a network (<I>e.g.,</I> Bluetooth® or internet connection), disable the network function, if it is possible to disable it by means provided in the manufacturer's user manual, for the duration of testing. If the network function cannot be disabled, or if means for disabling the function are not provided in the manufacturer's user manual, the product shall be tested in the factory default setting or in the as-shipped condition.
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>Freestanding combined cooking product.</I> Install a freestanding combined cooking product with the back directly against, or as near as possible to, a vertical wall which extends at least 1 foot above the product and 1 foot beyond both sides of the product, and with no side walls.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 <I>Drop-in or built-in combined cooking product.</I> Install a drop-in or built-in combined cooking product in a test enclosure in accordance with manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>2.1.3 <I>Conventional cooking top.</I> Install a conventional cooking top with the back directly against, or as near as possible to, a vertical wall which extends at least 1 foot above the product and 1 foot beyond both sides of the product.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Energy supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1 <I>Electrical supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1.1 <I>Supply voltage.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1.1.1 <I>Active mode supply voltage.</I> During active mode testing, maintain the electrical supply to the product at either 240 volts ±1 percent or 120 volts ±1 percent, according to the manufacturer's instructions, except for products which do not allow for a mains electrical supply. The actual voltage shall be maintained and recorded throughout the test. Instantaneous voltage fluctuations caused by the turning on or off of electrical components shall not be considered.
</P>
<P>2.2.1.1.2 <I>Standby mode and off mode supply voltage.</I> During standby mode and off mode testing, maintain the electrical supply to the product at either 240 volts ±1 percent, or 120 volts ±1 percent, according to the manufacturer's instructions. Maintain the electrical supply voltage waveform specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.3.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition), disregarding the provisions regarding batteries and the determination, classification, and testing of relevant modes. If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the total harmonic content during the test measurement period, total harmonic content may be measured and recorded immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.2.1.2 <I>Supply frequency.</I> Maintain the electrical supply frequency for all tests at 60 hertz ±1 percent.
</P>
<P>2.2.2 <I>Gas supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.2.1 <I>Natural gas.</I> Maintain the natural gas pressure immediately ahead of all controls of the unit under test at 7 to 10 inches of water column, except as specified in section 3.1.3 of this appendix. The natural gas supplied should have a higher heating value (dry-basis) of approximately 1,025 Btu per standard cubic foot. Obtain the higher heating value on a dry basis of gas, H<E T="52">n</E>, in Btu per standard cubic foot, for the natural gas to be used in the test either from measurements made by the manufacturer conducting the test using equipment that meets the requirements described in section 2.7.2.2 of this appendix or by the use of bottled natural gas whose gross heating value is certified to be at least as accurate a value that meets the requirements in section 2.7.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2.2.2 <I>Propane.</I> Maintain the propane pressure immediately ahead of all controls of the unit under test at 11 to 13 inches of water column, except as specified in section 3.1.3 of this appendix. The propane supplied should have a higher heating value (dry-basis) of approximately 2,500 Btu per standard cubic foot. Obtain the higher heating value on a dry basis of gas, H<E T="52">p</E>, in Btu per standard cubic foot, for the propane to be used in the test either from measurements made by the manufacturer conducting the test using equipment that meets the requirements described in section 2.7.2.2 of this appendix, or by the use of bottled propane whose gross heating value is certified to be at least as accurate a value that meets the requirements described in section 2.7.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Air circulation.</I> Maintain air circulation in the room sufficient to secure a reasonably uniform temperature distribution, but do not cause a direct draft on the unit under test.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Ambient room test conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>2.4.1 <I>Active mode ambient conditions.</I> During active mode testing, maintain the ambient room air pressure specified in Section 5.1 of IEC 60350-2, and maintain the ambient room air temperature at 25 ± 5 °C with a target temperature of 25 °C.
</P>
<P>2.4.2 <I>Standby mode and off mode ambient conditions.</I> During standby mode and off mode testing, maintain the ambient room air temperature conditions specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition).
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Product temperature.</I>
</P>
<P>2.5.1 <I>Product temperature stability.</I> Prior to any testing, the product must achieve a stable temperature meeting the ambient room air temperature specified in section 2.4 of this appendix. For all conventional cooking tops, forced cooling may be used to assist in reducing the temperature of the product between tests, as specified in Section 5.5 of IEC 60350-2. Forced cooling must not be used during the period of time used to assess temperature stability.
</P>
<P>2.5.2 <I>Product temperature measurement.</I> Measure the product temperature in degrees Celsius using the equipment specified in section 2.7.3.3 of this appendix at the following locations.
</P>
<P>2.5.2.1 Measure the product temperature at the center of the cooking zone under test for any gas burner adjustment in section 3.1.3 of this appendix and per-cooking zone energy consumption test in section 3.1.4 of this appendix, except that the product temperature measurement is not required for any potential simmering setting pre-selection test in section 3.1.4.3 of this appendix. For a conventional gas cooking top, measure the product temperature inside the burner body of the cooking zone under test, after temporarily removing any burner cap on that cooking zone.
</P>
<P>2.5.2.2 Measure the temperature at the center of each cooking zone for the standby mode and off mode power test in section 3.2 of this appendix. For a conventional gas cooking top, measure the temperature inside the burner body of each cooking zone, after temporarily removing any burner cap on that cooking zone. Calculate the product temperature as the average of the temperatures at the center of each cooking zone.
</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Test loads.</I>
</P>
<P>2.6.1 <I>Test vessels.</I> The test vessel for active mode testing of each cooking zone must meet the specifications in Section 5.6.1 and Annex B of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>2.6.2 <I>Water load.</I> The water used to fill the test vessels for active mode testing must meet the specifications in Section 7.5.1 of IEC 60350-2. The water temperature at the start of each test, except for the gas burner adjustment in section 3.1.3 of this appendix and the potential simmering setting pre-selection test in section 3.1.4.3 of this appendix, must have an initial temperature equal to 25 ± 0.5 °C.
</P>
<P>2.7 <I>Instrumentation.</I> Perform all test measurements using the following instruments, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>2.7.1 <I>Electrical measurements.</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.1.1 <I>Active mode watt-hour meter.</I> The watt-hour meter for measuring the active mode electrical energy consumption must have a resolution as specified in Table 1 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2. Measurements shall be made as specified in Table 2 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>2.7.1.2 <I>Standby mode and off mode watt meter.</I> The watt meter used to measure standby mode and off mode power must meet the specifications in Section 4, Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition). If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the crest factor, power factor, or maximum current ratio during the test measurement period, measure the crest factor, power factor, and maximum current ratio immediately before and after the test measurement period to determine whether these characteristics meet the specifications in Section 4, Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition).
</P>
<P>2.7.2 <I>Gas measurements.</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.2.1 <I>Gas meter.</I> The gas meter used for measuring gas consumption must have a resolution of 0.01 cubic foot or less and a maximum error no greater than 1 percent of the measured valued for any demand greater than 2.2 cubic feet per hour.
</P>
<P>2.7.2.2 <I>Standard continuous flow calorimeter.</I> The maximum error of the basic calorimeter must be no greater than 0.2 percent of the actual heating value of the gas used in the test. The indicator readout must have a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value within the operating range and a resolution of 0.2 percent of the full-scale reading of the indicator instrument.
</P>
<P>2.7.2.3 <I>Gas line temperature.</I> The incoming gas temperature must be measured at the gas meter. The instrument for measuring the gas line temperature shall have a maximum error no greater than ±2 °F over the operating range.
</P>
<P>2.7.2.4 <I>Gas line pressure.</I> The incoming gas pressure must be measured at the gas meter. The instrument for measuring the gas line pressure must have a maximum error no greater than 0.1 inches of water column.
</P>
<P>2.7.3 <I>Temperature measurements.</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.3.1 <I>Active mode ambient room temperature.</I> The room temperature indicating system must meet the specifications in Table 1 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2. Measurements shall be made as specified in Table 2 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>2.7.3.2 <I>Standby mode and off mode ambient room temperature.</I> The room temperature indicating system must have an error no greater than ±1 °F (±0.6 °C) over the range 65° to 90 °F (18 °C to 32 °C).
</P>
<P>2.7.3.3 <I>Product temperature.</I> The temperature indicating system must have an error no greater than ±1 °F (±0.6 °C) over the range 65° to 90 °F (18 °C to 32 °C). Measurements shall be made as specified in Table 2 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>2.7.3.4 <I>Water temperature.</I> Measure the test vessel water temperature with a thermocouple that meets the specifications in Table 1 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2. Measurements shall be made as specified in Table 2 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>2.7.4 <I>Room air pressure.</I> The room air pressure indicating system must meet the specifications in Table 1 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>2.7.5 <I>Water mass.</I> The scale used to measure the mass of the water load must meet the specifications in Table 1 of Section 5.3 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>2.8 <I>Power settings.</I>
</P>
<P>2.8.1 On a multi-ring cooking zone on a conventional gas cooking top, all power settings are considered, whether they ignite all rings of orifices or not.
</P>
<P>2.8.2 On a multi-ring cooking zone on a conventional electric cooking top, only power settings corresponding to the concentric heating element with the largest diameter are considered, which may correspond to operation with one or more of the smaller concentric heating elements energized.
</P>
<P>2.8.3 On a cooking zone with infinite power settings where the available range of rotation from maximum to minimum is more than 150 rotational degrees, evaluate power settings that are spaced by 10 rotational degrees. On a cooking zone with infinite power settings where the available range of rotation from maximum to minimum is less than or equal to 150 rotational degrees, evaluate power settings that are spaced by 5 rotational degrees, starting with the first position that meets the definition of a power setting, irrespective of how the knob is labeled. Polar coordinate paper, as provided in Annex B of IEC 60350-2 may be used to mark power settings.


</P>
<HD2>3. Test Methods and Measurements
</HD2>
<P>3.1 <I>Active mode.</I> Perform the following test methods for conventional cooking tops and the conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product.
</P>
<P>3.1.1 <I>Test vessel and water load selection.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1.1 <I>Conventional electric cooking tops.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1.1.1 For cooking zones, measure the size of each cooking zone as specified in Section 6.3.2 of IEC 60350-2, not including any specialty cooking zones as defined in section 1 of this appendix. For circular cooking zones on smooth cooking tops, the cooking zone size is determined using the outer diameter of the printed marking, as specified in Section 6.3 of IEC 60350-2. For open coil cooking zones, the cooking zone size is determined using the widest diameter of the coil, see Figure 3.1.1.1. For non-circular cooking zones, the cooking zone size is determined by the measurement of the shorter side or minor axis. For cooking areas, determine the number of cooking zones as specified in Section 6.3.1 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.001.gif"/>
<P>3.1.1.1.2 Determine the test vessel diameter in millimeters (mm) and water load mass in grams (g) for each measured cooking zone. For cooking zones, test vessel selection is based on cooking zone size as specified in Table 3 in Section 5.6.1.5 of IEC 60350-2. For cooking areas, test vessel selection is based on the number of cooking zones as specified in Annex A of IEC 60350-2. If a selected test vessel (including its lid) cannot be centered on the cooking zone due to interference with a structural component of the cooking top, the test vessel with the largest diameter that can be centered on the cooking zone shall be used. The allowable tolerance on the water load weight is ±0.5 g.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.2 <I>Conventional gas cooking tops.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1.2.1 Record the nominal heat input rate for each cooking zone, not including any specialty cooking zones as defined in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.2.2 Determine the test vessel diameter in mm and water load mass in g for each measured cooking zone according to Table 3.1 of this appendix. If a selected test vessel cannot be centered on the cooking zone due to interference with a structural component of the cooking top, the test vessel with the largest diameter that can be centered on the cooking zone shall be used. The allowable tolerance on the water load weight is ±0.5 g.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1—Test Vessel Selection for Conventional Gas Cooking Tops
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Nominal gas burner input rate
<br/>(Btu/h)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test vessel diameter
<br/>(mm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Water load mass
<br/>(g)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>(&gt;)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>(≤)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,050
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8,050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,420
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14,300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,240</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.2 <I>Unit Preparation.</I> Before the first measurement is taken, all cooking zones must be operated simultaneously for at least 10 minutes at maximum power. This step shall be conducted once per product.
</P>
<P>3.1.3 <I>Gas burner adjustment.</I> Prior to active mode testing of each tested burner of a conventional gas cooking top, the burner heat input rate must be adjusted, if necessary, to within 2 percent of the nominal heat input rate of the burner as specified by the manufacturer. Prior to ignition and any adjustment of the burner heat input rate, the conventional cooking top must achieve the product temperature specified in section 2.5 of this appendix. Ignite and operate the gas burner under test with the test vessel and water mass specified in section 3.1.1 of this appendix. Measure the heat input rate of the gas burner under test starting 5 minutes after ignition. If the measured input rate of the gas burner under test is within 2 percent of the nominal heat input rate of the burner as specified by the manufacturer, no adjustment of the heat input rate shall be made.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.1 <I>Conventional gas cooking tops with an adjustable internal pressure regulator.</I> If the measured heat input rate of the burner under test is not within 2 percent of the nominal heat input rate of the burner as specified by the manufacturer, adjust the product's internal pressure regulator such that the heat input rate of the burner under test is within 2 percent of the nominal heat input rate of the burner as specified by the manufacturer. Adjust the burner with sufficient air flow to prevent a yellow flame or a flame with yellow tips. Complete section 3.1.4 of this appendix while maintaining the same gas pressure regulator adjustment.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.2 <I>Conventional gas cooking tops with a non-adjustable internal pressure regulator or without an internal pressure regulator.</I> If the measured heat input rate of the burner under test is not within 2 percent of the nominal heat input rate of the burner as specified by the manufacturer, remove the product's internal pressure regulator, or block it in the open position, and initially maintain the gas pressure ahead of all controls of the unit under test approximately equal to the manufacturer's recommended manifold pressure. Adjust the gas supply pressure such that the heat input rate of the burner under test is within 2 percent of the nominal heat input rate of the burner as specified by the manufacturer. Adjust the burner with sufficient air flow to prevent a yellow flame or a flame with yellow tips. Complete section 3.1.4 of this appendix while maintaining the same gas pressure regulator adjustment.
</P>
<P>3.1.4 <I>Per-cooking zone energy consumption test.</I> Establish the test conditions set forth in section 2 of this appendix. Turn off the gas flow to the conventional oven(s), if so equipped. The product temperature must meet the specifications in section 2.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.1 <I>Test vessel placement.</I> Position the test vessel with water load for the cooking zone under test, selected and prepared as specified in section 3.1.1 of this appendix, in the center of the cooking zone, and as specified in Annex C to IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.2 <I>Overshoot test.</I> Use the test methods set forth in Section 7.5.2.1 of IEC 60350-2 to determine the target turndown temperature for each cooking zone, Tc<E T="52">target</E>, in degrees Celsius, as follows.
</P>
<FP-2>Tc<E T="52">target</E> = 93 °C − (T<E T="52">max</E> − T<E T="52">70</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">max</E> is highest recorded temperature value, in degrees Celsius; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">70</E> is the average recorded temperature between the time 10 seconds before the power is turned off and the time 10 seconds after the power is turned off.
</FP-2>
<P>If T<E T="52">70</E> is within the tolerance of 70 ± 0.5 °C, the target turndown temperature is the highest of 80 °C and the calculated Tc<E T="52">target</E>, rounded to the nearest integer. If T<E T="52">70</E> is outside of the tolerance, the overshoot test is considered invalid and must be repeated after allowing the product to return to ambient conditions.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.3 <I>Potential simmering setting pre-selection test.</I> The potential simmering setting for each cooking zone may be determined using the potential simmering setting pre-selecting test. If a potential simmering setting is already known, it may be used instead of completing sections 3.1.4.3.1 through 3.1.4.3.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.3.1 Use the test vessel with water load for the cooking zone under test, selected, prepared, and positioned as specified in sections 3.1.1 and 3.1.4.1 of this appendix. The temperature of the conventional cooking top is not required to meet the specification for the product temperature in section 2.5 of this appendix for the potential simmering setting pre-selection test. Operate the cooking zone under test with the lowest available power setting. Measure the energy consumption for 10 minutes ±2 seconds.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.3.2 Calculate the power density of the power setting, j, on a conventional electric cooking top, Qe<E T="52">j</E>, in watts per square centimeter, as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.002.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2> a = the surface area of the test vessel bottom, in square centimeters; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">j</E> = the electrical energy consumption during the 10-minute test, in Wh.
</FP-2>
<P>3.1.4.3.3 Calculate the power density of the power setting, j, on a conventional gas cooking top, Qg<E T="52">j</E>, in Btu/h per square centimeter, as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.003.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2> a = the surface area of the test vessel bottom, in square centimeters;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">j</E> = the volume of gas consumed during the 10-minute test, in cubic feet;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CF = the gas correction factor to standard temperature and pressure, as calculated in section 4.1.1.2.1 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H = either H<E T="52">n</E> or H<E T="52">p</E>, the heating value of the gas used in the test as specified in sections 2.2.2.1 and 2.2.2.2 of this appendix, in Btu per standard cubic foot of gas;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ee<E T="52">j</E> = the electrical energy consumption of the conventional gas cooking top during the 10-minute test, in Wh; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">e</E> = 3.412 Btu/Wh, conversion factor of watt-hours to Btu.
</FP-2>
<P>3.1.4.3.4 Repeat the measurement for each successively higher power setting until Qe<E T="52">j</E> exceeds 0.8 W/cm
<SU>2</SU> for conventional electric cooking tops or Qg<E T="52">j</E> exceeds 4.0 Btu/h·cm
<SU>2</SU> for conventional gas cooking tops.
</P>
<P>For conventional cooking tops with rotating knobs for selecting the power setting, the selection knob shall be turned to the maximum power setting in between each test, to avoid hysteresis. The selection knob shall be turned in the direction from higher power to lower power to select the power setting for the test. If the appropriate power setting is passed, the selection knob shall be turned to the maximum power setting again before repeating the power setting selection.
</P>
<P>Of the last two power settings tested, the potential simmering setting is the power setting that produces a power density closest to 0.8 W/cm
<SU>2</SU> for conventional electric cooking tops or 4.0 Btu/h·cm
<SU>2</SU> for conventional gas cooking tops. The closest power density may be higher or lower than the applicable threshold value.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.4 <I>Simmering test.</I> The product temperature must meet the specifications in section 2.5 of this appendix at the start of each simmering test. For each cooking zone, conduct the test method specified in Section 7.5.2 of IEC 60350-2, using the potential simmering setting identified in section 3.1.4.3 of this appendix for the initial simmering setting used in Section 7.5.2.2 of IEC 60350-2.
</P>
<P>For conventional cooking tops with rotating knobs for selecting the power setting, the selection knob shall be turned in the direction from higher power to lower power to select the potential simmering setting for the test, to avoid hysteresis. If the appropriate setting is passed, the test is considered invalid and must be repeated after allowing the product to return to ambient conditions.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.5 <I>Evaluation of the simmering test.</I> Evaluate the test conducted under section 3.1.4.4 of this appendix as set forth in Section 7.5.4.1 of IEC 60350-2 according to Figure 3.1.4.5 of this appendix. If the measured turndown temperature, Tc, is not within -0.5 °C and +1 °C of the target turndown temperature, Tc<E T="52">target</E>, the test is considered invalid and must be repeated after allowing the product to return to ambient conditions.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.004.gif"/>
<P>3.2 <I>Standby mode and off mode power.</I> Establish the standby mode and off mode testing conditions set forth in section 2 of this appendix. For products that take some time to enter a stable state from a higher power state as discussed in Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition), allow sufficient time for the product to reach the lower power state before proceeding with the test measurement. Follow the test procedure as specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 of IEC 62301 (Second Edition) for testing in each possible mode as described in sections 3.2.1 and 3.2.2 of this appendix. For units in which power varies as a function of displayed time in standby mode, set the clock time to 3:23 at the end of an initial stabilization period, as specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3 of IEC 62301 (First Edition). After an additional 10-minute stabilization period, measure the power use for a single test period of 10 minutes +0/−2 seconds that starts when the clock time first reads 3:33. Use the average power approach described in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2(a) of IEC 62301 (First Edition).
</P>
<P>3.2.1 If the product has an inactive mode, as defined in section 1 of this appendix, measure the average inactive mode power, P<E T="52">IA</E>, in watts.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 If the product has an off mode, as defined in section 1 of this appendix, measure the average off mode power, P<E T="52">OM</E>, in watts.
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Recorded values.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.1 <I>Active mode.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.1.1 For a conventional gas cooking top tested with natural gas, record the natural gas higher heating value in Btu per standard cubic foot, H<E T="52">n</E>, as determined in section 2.2.2.1 of this appendix for the natural gas supply, for each test. For a conventional gas cooking top tested with propane, record the propane higher heating value in Btu per standard cubic foot, H<E T="52">p</E>, as determined in section 2.2.2.2 of this appendix for the propane supply, for each test.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.2 Record the test room temperature in degrees Celsius and relative air pressure in hectopascals (hPa) during each test.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3 <I>Per-cooking zone energy consumption test.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.1 Record the product temperature in degrees Celsius, T<E T="52">P</E>, prior to the start of each overshoot test or simmering test, as determined in section 2.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.2 <I>Overshoot test.</I> For each cooking zone, record the initial temperature of the water in degrees Celsius, T<E T="52">i;</E> the average water temperature between the time 10 seconds before the power is turned off and the time 10 seconds after the power is turned off in degrees Celsius, T<E T="52">70</E>; the highest recorded water temperature in degrees Celsius, T<E T="52">max</E>; and the target turndown temperature in degrees Celsius, Tc<E T="52">target</E>.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.3 <I>Simmering test.</I> For each cooking zone, record the temperature of the water throughout the test, in degrees Celsius, and the values in sections 3.3.1.3.3.1 through 3.3.1.3.3.7 of this appendix for the Energy Test Cycle, if an Energy Test Cycle is measured in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, otherwise for both the maximum-below-threshold power setting and the minimum-above-threshold power setting. Because t<E T="52">90</E> may not be known until completion of the simmering test, water temperature, any electrical energy consumption, and any gas volumetric consumption measurements may be recorded for several minutes after the end of the simmering period to ensure that the full simmering period is recorded.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.3.1 The power setting under test.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.3.2 The initial temperature of the water, in degrees Celsius, T<E T="52">i</E>.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.3.3 The time at which the tester begins adjusting the cooking top control to change the power setting, to the nearest second, t<E T="52">c</E> and the turndown temperature, in degrees Celsius, Tc.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.3.4 The time at which the simmering period starts, to the nearest second, t<E T="52">90</E>.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.3.5 The time at which the simmering period ends, to the nearest second, t<E T="52">S</E> and the smoothened water temperature at the end of the simmering period, in degrees Celsius, T<E T="52">S</E>.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.3.6 For a conventional electric cooking top, the electrical energy consumption from the start of the test to t<E T="52">S</E>, E, in watt-hours.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3.3.7 For a conventional gas cooking top, the volume of gas consumed from the start of the test to t<E T="52">S</E>, V, in cubic feet of gas; and any electrical energy consumption of the cooking top from the start of the test to t<E T="52">S</E>, E<E T="52">e</E>, in watt-hours.
</P>
<P>3.3.2 <I>Standby mode and off mode.</I> Make measurements as specified in section 3.2 of this appendix. If the product is capable of operating in inactive mode, as defined in section 1 of this appendix, record the average inactive mode power, P<E T="52">IA</E>, in watts as specified in section 3.2.1 of this appendix. If the product is capable of operating in off mode, as defined in section 1 of this appendix, record the average off mode power, P<E T="52">OM</E>, in watts as specified in section 3.2.2 of this appendix.


</P>
<HD2>4. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD2>
<P>4.1. Active mode energy consumption of conventional cooking tops and any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product.
</P>
<P>4.1.1 Per-cycle active mode energy consumption of a conventional cooking top and any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product.
</P>
<P>4.1.1.1 Conventional electric cooking top per-cycle active mode energy consumption.
</P>
<P>4.1.1.1.1 Conventional electric cooking top per-cooking zone normalized active mode energy consumption. For each cooking zone, calculate the per-cooking zone normalized active mode energy consumption of a conventional electric cooking top, E, in watt-hours, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2><I>E</I> = <I>E</I><E T="54">ETC</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>for cooking zones where an Energy Test Cycle was measured in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.005.gif"/>
<FP-2>for cooking zones where a minimum-above-threshold cycle and a maximum-below-threshold cycle were measured in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">ETC</E> = the electrical energy consumption of the Energy Test Cycle from the start of the test to the end of the test for the cooking zone, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in watt-hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">MAT</E> = the electrical energy consumption of the minimum-above-threshold power setting from the start of the test to the end of the test for the cooking zone, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in watt-hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">MBT</E> = the electrical energy consumption of the maximum-below-threshold power setting from the start of the test to the end of the test for the cooking zone, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in watt-hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S,MAT</E> = the smoothened water temperature at the end of the minimum-above-threshold power setting test for the cooking zone, in degrees Celsius; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S,MBT</E> = the smoothened water temperature at the end of the maximum-below-threshold power setting test for the cooking zone, in degrees Celsius.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.1.1.2 Calculate the per-cycle active mode total energy consumption of a conventional electric cooking top, E<E T="52">CET</E>, in watt-hours, using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.006.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n = the total number of cooking zones tested on the conventional cooking top;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">z</E> = the normalized energy consumption representative of the Energy Test Cycle for each cooking zone, as calculated in section 4.1.1.1.1 of this appendix, in watt-hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m<E T="52">z</E> is the mass of water used for each cooking zone, in grams; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2853 = the representative water load mass, in grams.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.1.2 Conventional gas cooking top per-cycle active mode energy consumption.
</P>
<P>4.1.1.2.1 Gas correction factor to standard temperature and pressure. Calculate the gas correction factor to standard temperature and pressure, which converts between standard cubic feet and measured cubic feet of gas for a given set of test conditions:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2> P<E T="52">gas</E> = the measured line gas gauge pressure, in inches of water column;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.0361= the conversion factor from inches of water column to pounds per square inch;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">atm</E> = the measured atmospheric pressure, in pounds per square inch;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">base</E> = 14.73 pounds per square inch, the standard sea level air pressure;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">base</E> = 519.67 degrees Rankine (or 288.7 Kelvin);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">gas</E> = the measured line gas temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit (or degrees Celsius); and </FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">k</E> = the adder converting from degrees Fahrenheit to degrees Rankine, 459.7 (or from degrees Celsius to Kelvin, 273.16).
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.1.2.2 Conventional gas cooking top per-cooking zone normalized active mode gas energy consumption. For each cooking zone, calculate the per-cooking zone normalized active mode gas energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, E<E T="52">g</E>, in Btu, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">g</E> = <I>E</I><E T="54">gt,ETC</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>for cooking zones where an Energy Test Cycle was measured in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, and
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er07fe23.044.gif"/>
<FP>for cooking zones where a minimum-above-threshold cycle and a maximum-below-threshold cycle were measured in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix.
</FP>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gt,ETC</E> = the as-tested gas energy consumption of the Energy Test Cycle for the cooking zone, in Btu, calculated as the product of: V, the gas consumption of the Energy Test Cycle, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in cubic feet; CF, the gas correction factor to standard temperature and pressure for the test, as calculated in section 4.1.1.2.1 of this appendix; and H, either H<E T="52">n</E> or H<E T="52">p,</E> the heating value of the gas used in the test as specified in sections 2.2.2.1 and 2.2.2.2 of this appendix, expressed in Btu per standard cubic foot of gas;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gt,MAT</E> = the as-tested gas energy consumption of the minimum-above-threshold power setting for the cooking zone, in Btu, calculated as the product of: V, the gas consumption of the minimum-above-threshold power setting, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in cubic feet; CF, the gas correction factor to standard temperature and pressure for the test, as calculated in section 4.1.1.2.1 of this appendix; and H, either H<E T="52">n</E> or H<E T="52">p</E>, the heating value of the gas used in the test as specified in sections 2.2.2.1 and 2.2.2.2 of this appendix, expressed in Btu per standard cubic foot of gas;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gt,MBT</E> = the as-tested gas energy consumption of the maximum-below-threshold power setting for the cooking zone, in Btu, calculated as the product of: V, the gas consumption of the maximum-below-threshold power setting, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in cubic feet; CF, the gas correction factor to standard temperature and pressure for the test, as calculated in section 4.1.1.2.1 of this appendix; and H, either H<E T="52">n</E> or H<E T="52">p</E>, the heating value of the gas used in the test as specified in sections 2.2.2.1 and 2.2.2.2 of this appendix, expressed in Btu per standard cubic foot of gas;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S,MAT</E> = the smoothened water temperature at the end of the minimum-above-threshold power setting test for the cooking zone, in degrees Celsius; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S,MBT</E> = the smoothened water temperature at the end of the maximum-below-threshold power setting test for the cooking zone, in degrees Celsius.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.1.2.3 Conventional gas cooking top per-cooking zone active mode normalized electrical energy consumption. For each cooking zone, calculate the per-cooking zone normalized active mode electrical energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, E<E T="52">e</E>, in watt-hours, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">e</E> = <I>E</I><E T="54">e,ETC</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>for cooking zones where an Energy Test Cycle was measured in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.009.gif"/>
<FP-2>for cooking zones where a minimum-above-threshold cycle and a maximum-below-threshold cycle were measured in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">e,ETC</E> = the electrical energy consumption of the Energy Test Cycle from the start of the test to the end of the test for the cooking zone, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in watt-hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">e,MAT</E> = the electrical energy consumption of the minimum-above-threshold power setting from the start of the test to the end of the test for the cooking zone, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in watt-hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">e,MBT</E> = the electrical energy consumption of the maximum-below-threshold power setting from the start of the test to the end of the test for the cooking zone, as determined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix, in watt-hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S,MAT</E> = the smoothened water temperature at the end of the minimum-above-threshold power setting test for the cooking zone, in degrees Celsius; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S,MBT</E> = the smoothened water temperature at the end of the maximum-below-threshold power setting test for the cooking zone, in degrees Celsius.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.1.2.4 Conventional gas cooking top per-cycle active mode gas energy consumption. Calculate the per-cycle active mode gas energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, E<E T="52">CGG</E>, in Btu, using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07fe23.045.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n, m<E T="52">z</E>, and 2853 are defined in section 4.1.1.1.2 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">gz</E> = the normalized gas energy consumption representative of the Energy Test Cycle for each cooking zone, as calculated in section 4.1.1.2.2 of this appendix, in Btu.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.1.2.5 Conventional gas cooking top per-cycle active mode electrical energy consumption. Calculate the per-cycle active mode electrical energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, E<E T="52">CGE</E>, in watt-hours, using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22au22.011.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2> n, m<E T="52">z</E>, and 2853 are defined in section 4.1.1.1.2 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ez</E> = the normalized electrical energy consumption representative of the Energy Test Cycle for each cooking zone, as calculated in section 4.1.1.2.3 of this appendix, in watt-hours.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.1.2.6 Conventional gas cooking top per-cycle active-mode total energy consumption. Calculate the per-cycle active mode total energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, E<E T="52">CGT</E>, in Btu, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CGT</E> = E<E T="52">CGG</E> + (E<E T="52">CGE</E> × K<E T="52">e</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CGG</E> = the per-cycle active mode gas energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top as determined in section 4.1.1.2.4 of this appendix, in Btu;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CGE</E> = the per-cycle active mode electrical energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top as determined in section 4.1.1.2.5 of this appendix, in watt-hours; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">e</E> = 3.412 Btu/Wh, conversion factor of watt-hours to Btu.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.2 Annual active mode energy consumption of a conventional cooking top and any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product.
</P>
<P>4.1.2.1 Conventional electric cooking top annual active mode energy consumption. Calculate the annual active mode total energy consumption of a conventional electric cooking top, E<E T="52">AET</E>, in kilowatt-hours per year, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AET</E> = E<E T="52">CET</E> × K × N<E T="52">C</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CET</E> = the conventional electric cooking top per-cycle active mode total energy consumption, as determined in section 4.1.1.1.2 of this appendix, in watt-hours; </FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 0.001 kWh/Wh conversion factor for watt-hours to kilowatt-hours; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N<E T="52">C</E> = 418 cooking cycles per year, the average number of cooking cycles per year normalized for duration of a cooking event estimated for conventional cooking tops.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.2.2 Conventional gas cooking top annual active mode energy consumption.
</P>
<P>4.1.2.2.1 Conventional gas cooking top annual active mode gas energy consumption. Calculate the annual active mode gas energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, E<E T="52">AGG</E>, in kBtu per year, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AGG</E> = E<E T="52">CGG</E> × K × N<E T="52">C</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K and N<E T="52">C</E> are defined in section 4.1.2.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CGG</E> = the conventional gas cooking top per-cycle active mode gas energy consumption, as determined in section 4.1.1.2.4 of this appendix, in Btu.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.2.2.2 Conventional gas cooking top annual active mode electrical energy consumption. Calculate the annual active mode electrical energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, E<E T="52">AGE</E>, in kilowatt-hours per year, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AGE</E> = E<E T="52">CGE</E> × K × N<E T="52">C</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K and N<E T="52">C</E> are defined in section 4.1.2.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">CGE</E> = the conventional gas cooking top per-cycle active mode electrical energy consumption, as determined in section 4.1.1.2.5 of this appendix, in watt-hours.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.2.2.3 Conventional gas cooking top annual active mode total energy consumption. Calculate the annual active mode total energy consumption of a conventional gas cooking top, E<E T="52">AGT</E>, in kBtu per year, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AGT</E> = E<E T="52">AGG</E> + (E<E T="52">AGE</E> × K<E T="52">e</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AGG</E> = the conventional gas cooking top annual active mode gas energy consumption as determined in section 4.1.2.2.1 of this appendix, in kBtu per year;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AGE</E> = the conventional gas cooking top annual active mode electrical energy consumption as determined in section 4.1.2.2.2 of this appendix, in kilowatt-hours per year; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">e</E> is defined in section 4.1.1.2.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2 Annual combined low-power mode energy consumption of a conventional cooking top and any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product.
</P>
<P>4.2.1 Conventional cooking top annual combined low-power mode energy consumption. Calculate the annual combined low-power mode energy consumption for a conventional cooking top, E<E T="52">TLP</E>, in kilowatt-hours per year, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = [(P<E T="52">IA</E> × F<E T="52">IA</E>) + (P<E T="52">OM</E> × F<E T="52">OM</E>)] × K × S<E T="52">T</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">IA</E> = inactive mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.2.1 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">OM</E> = off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.2.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F<E T="52">IA</E> and F<E T="52">OM</E> are the portion of annual hours spent in inactive mode and off mode hours respectively, as defined in Table 4.2.1 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 0.001 kWh/Wh conversion factor for watt-hours to kilowatt-hours; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">T</E> = 8,544, total number of inactive mode and off mode hours per year for a conventional cooking top.
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.2.1—Annual Hour Multipliers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Types of low-power mode(s) available
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F<E T="0732">IA</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F<E T="0732">OM</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Both inactive and off mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inactive mode only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off mode only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.2.2 Conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product annual combined low-power mode energy consumption. Calculate the annual combined low-power mode energy consumption for the conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, E<E T="52">TLP</E>, in kilowatt-hours per year, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = [(P<E T="52">IA</E> × F<E T="52">IA</E>) + (P<E T="52">OM</E> × F<E T="52">OM</E>)] × K × S<E T="52">TOT</E> × H<E T="52">C</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2> P<E T="52">IA</E>, P<E T="52">OM</E>, F<E T="52">IA</E>, F<E T="52">OM</E>, and K are defined in section 4.2.1 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">TOT</E> = the total number of inactive mode and off mode hours per year for a combined cooking product, as defined in Table 4.2.2 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">C</E> = the percentage of hours per year assigned to the conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, as defined in Table 4.2.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.2.2—Combined Cooking Product Usage Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of combined cooking product
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S<E T="0732">TOT</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">H<E T="0732">C</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooking top and conventional oven (conventional range)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,392</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooking top and microwave oven</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,481</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooking top, conventional oven, and microwave oven</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,329</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.3 Integrated annual energy consumption of a conventional cooking top and any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product.
</P>
<P>4.3.1 Conventional electric cooking top integrated annual energy consumption. Calculate the integrated annual energy consumption, IAEC, of a conventional electric cooking top, in kilowatt-hours per year, using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>IAEC = E<E T="52">AET</E> + E<E T="52">TLP</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AET</E> = the conventional electric cooking top annual active mode energy consumption, as determined in section 4.1.2.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = the annual combined low-power mode energy consumption of a conventional cooking top or any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, as determined in section 4.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.2 Conventional gas cooking top integrated annual energy consumption. Calculate the integrated annual energy consumption, IAEC, of a conventional gas cooking top, in kBtu per year, defined as:
</P>
<P>IAEC = E<E T="52">AGT</E> + (E<E T="52">TLP</E> × K<E T="52">e</E>)
</P>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2> E<E T="52">AGT</E> = the conventional gas cooking top annual active mode total energy consumption, as determined in section 4.1.2.2.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = the annual combined low-power mode energy consumption of a conventional cooking top or any conventional cooking top component of a combined cooking product, as determined in section 4.2 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">e</E> is defined in section 4.1.1.2.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 51538, Aug. 22, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 7847, Feb. 7, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Automatic and Semi-Automatic Clothes Washers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to appendix J to subpart B of part 430:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix J2 to this subpart to determine compliance with the residential clothes washer standards provided at § 430.32(g)(1) and the commercial clothes washer standards provided at § 431.156(b).
</P>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the residential clothes washer standards provided at § 430.32(g)(2) and for any amended commercial clothes washer standards provided at § 431.156 that are published after January 1, 2022.


</P>
<P>Any representations related to energy or water consumption of residential or commercial clothes washers must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> this appendix or appendix J2 to this subpart) when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use this appendix to certify compliance with the residential clothes washer standards provided at § 430.32(g)(2) or any amended standards for commercial clothes washers prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire test standard for IEC 62301. However, only enumerated provisions of this standard are applicable to this appendix, as follows. In cases in which there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the referenced test standard.
</P>
<P>0.1 IEC 62301:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 4.2 as referenced in section 2.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4.3.2 as referenced in section 2.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.4 as referenced in section 2.5.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5.1 as referenced in section 3.5.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5.2 as referenced in section 2.10.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(f) Section 5.3.2 as referenced in section 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means a mode in which the clothes washer is connected to a mains power source, has been activated, and is performing one or more of the main functions of washing, soaking, tumbling, agitating, rinsing, and/or removing water from the clothing, or is involved in functions necessary for these main functions, such as admitting water into the washer or pumping water out of the washer. Active mode also includes delay start and cycle finished modes.
</P>
<P><I>Active-mode energy efficiency ratio</I> means the quotient of the weighted-average load size divided by the total clothes washer energy consumption per cycle, with such energy consumption expressed as the sum of the machine electrical energy consumption, the hot water energy consumption, and the energy required for removal of the remaining moisture in the wash load.
</P>
<P><I>Active washing mode</I> means a mode in which the clothes washer is performing any of the operations included in a complete cycle intended for washing a clothing load, including the main functions of washing, soaking, tumbling, agitating, rinsing, and/or removing water from the clothing.
</P>
<P><I>Bone-dry</I> means a condition of a load of test cloth that has been dried in a dryer at maximum temperature for a minimum of 10 minutes, removed and weighed before cool down, and then dried again for 10 minute periods until the final weight change of the load is 1 percent or less.
</P>
<P><I>Clothes container</I> means the compartment within the clothes washer that holds the clothes during the operation of the machine.
</P>
<P><I>Cold rinse</I> means the coldest rinse temperature available on the machine, as indicated to the user on the clothes washer control panel.
</P>
<P><I>Combined low-power mode</I> means the aggregate of available modes other than active washing mode, including inactive mode, off mode, delay start mode, and cycle finished mode.
</P>
<P><I>Cycle finished mode</I> means an active mode that provides continuous status display, intermittent tumbling, or air circulation following operation in active washing mode.
</P>
<P><I>Delay start mode</I> means an active mode in which activation of active washing mode is facilitated by a timer.
</P>
<P><I>Energy efficiency ratio</I> means the quotient of the weighted-average load size divided by the total clothes washer energy consumption per cycle, with such energy consumption expressed as the sum of:
</P>
<P>(a) The machine electrical energy consumption;
</P>
<P>(b) The hot water energy consumption;
</P>
<P>(c) The energy required for removal of the remaining moisture in the wash load; and
</P>
<P>(d) The combined low-power mode energy consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Energy test cycle</I> means the complete set of wash/rinse temperature selections required for testing, as determined according to section 2.12 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Fixed water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer water fill control system that automatically terminates the fill when the water reaches a pre-defined level that is not based on the size or weight of the clothes load placed in the clothes container, without allowing or requiring the user to determine or select the water fill level.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive mode</I> means a standby mode that facilitates the activation of active mode by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer, or that provides continuous status display.
</P>
<P><I>Load usage factor</I> means the percentage of the total number of wash loads that a user would wash a particular size (weight) load.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means a quantity of cloth that has been manufactured with the same batches of cotton and polyester during one continuous process.
</P>
<P><I>Manual water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer water fill control system that requires the user to determine or select the water fill level.
</P>
<P><I>Non-user-adjustable adaptive water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer water fill control system that is capable of automatically adjusting the water fill level based on the size or weight of the clothes load placed in the clothes container.
</P>
<P><I>Normal cycle</I> means the cycle recommended by the manufacturer (considering manufacturer instructions, control panel labeling, and other markings on the clothes washer) for normal, regular, or typical use for washing up to a full load of normally soiled cotton clothing. For machines where multiple cycle settings are recommended by the manufacturer for normal, regular, or typical use for washing up to a full load of normally soiled cotton clothing, then the Normal cycle is the cycle selection that results in the lowest EER or AEER value.
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means a mode in which the clothes washer is connected to a mains power source and is not providing any active or standby mode function, and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time.
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means any mode in which the clothes washer is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following user oriented or protective functions that may persist for an indefinite time:
</P>
<P>(a) Facilitating the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer;
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions.
</P>
<P>A timer is a continuous clock function (which may or may not be associated with a display) that provides regular scheduled tasks (<I>e.g.,</I> switching) and that operates on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P><I>Temperature use factor</I> means, for a particular wash/rinse temperature setting, the percentage of the total number of wash loads that an average user would wash with that setting.
</P>
<P><I>User-adjustable adaptive water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer fill control system that allows the user to adjust the amount of water that the machine provides, which is based on the size or weight of the clothes load placed in the clothes container.
</P>
<P><I>Wash time</I> means the wash portion of active washing mode, which begins when the cycle is initiated and includes the agitation or tumble time, which may be periodic or continuous during the wash portion of active washing mode.
</P>
<P><I>Water efficiency ratio</I> means the quotient of the weighted-average load size divided by the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for all wash cycles in gallons.
</P>
<HD2>2. Testing Conditions and Instrumentation
</HD2>
<P>2.1 <I>Electrical energy supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>Supply voltage and frequency.</I> Maintain the electrical supply at the clothes washer terminal block within 2 percent of 120, 120/240, or 120/208Y volts as applicable to the particular terminal block wiring system and within 2 percent of the nameplate frequency as specified by the manufacturer. If the clothes washer has a dual voltage conversion capability, conduct test at the highest voltage specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 <I>Supply voltage waveform.</I> For the combined low-power mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage waveform indicated in Section 4, Paragraph 4.3.2 of IEC 62301. If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the total harmonic content during the test measurement period, total harmonic content may be measured and recorded immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Supply water.</I> Maintain the temperature of the hot water supply at the water inlets between 120 °F (48.9 °C) and 125 °F (51.7 °C), targeting the midpoint of the range. Maintain the temperature of the cold water supply at the water inlets between 55 °F (12.8 °C) and 60 °F (15.6 °C), targeting the midpoint of the range.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Water pressure.</I> Maintain the static water pressure at the hot and cold water inlet connection of the clothes washer at 35 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) ± 2.5 psig (241.3 kPa ± 17.2 kPa) when the water is flowing.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Test room temperature.</I> For all clothes washers, maintain the test room ambient air temperature at 75 ± 5 °F (23.9 ± 2.8 °C) for active mode testing and combined low-power mode testing. Do not use the test room ambient air temperature conditions specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301 for combined low-power mode testing.
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Instrumentation.</I> Perform all test measurements using the following instruments, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>2.5.1 <I>Weighing scales.</I>
</P>
<P>2.5.1.1 <I>Weighing scale for test cloth.</I> The scale used for weighing test cloth must have a resolution of no larger than 0.2 oz (5.7 g) and a maximum error no greater than 0.3 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.5.1.2 <I>Weighing scale for clothes container capacity measurement.</I> The scale used for performing the clothes container capacity measurement must have a resolution no larger than 0.50 lbs (0.23 kg) and a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.5.2 <I>Watt-hour meter.</I> The watt-hour meter used to measure electrical energy consumption must have a resolution no larger than 1 Wh (3.6 kJ) and a maximum error no greater than 2 percent of the measured value for any demand greater than 50 Wh (180.0 kJ).
</P>
<P>2.5.3 <I>Watt meter.</I> The watt meter used to measure combined low-power mode power consumption must comply with the requirements specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301. If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the crest factor, power factor, or maximum current ratio during the test measurement period, the crest factor, power factor, and maximum current ratio may be measured and recorded immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.5.4 <I>Water and air temperature measuring devices.</I> The temperature devices used to measure water and air temperature must have an error no greater than ±1 °F (±0.6 °C) over the range being measured.
</P>
<P>2.5.4.1 Non-reversible temperature indicator labels, adhered to the inside of the clothes container, may be used to confirm that an extra-hot wash temperature greater than or equal to 140 °F has been achieved during the wash cycle, under the following conditions. The label must remain waterproof, intact, and adhered to the wash drum throughout an entire wash cycle; provide consistent maximum temperature readings; and provide repeatable temperature indications sufficient to demonstrate that a wash temperature of greater than or equal to 140 °F has been achieved. The label must have been verified to consistently indicate temperature measurements with an accuracy of ±1 °F. If using a temperature indicator label to test a front-loading clothes washer, adhere the label along the interior surface of the clothes container drum, midway between the front and the back of the drum, adjacent to one of the baffles. If using a temperature indicator label to test a top-loading clothes washer, adhere the label along the interior surface of the clothes container drum, on the vertical portion of the sidewall, as close to the bottom of the container as possible.
</P>
<P>2.5.4.2 Submersible temperature loggers placed inside the wash drum may be used to confirm that an extra-hot wash temperature greater than or equal to 140 °F has been achieved during the wash cycle, under the following conditions. The submersible temperature logger must have a time resolution of at least 1 data point every 5 seconds and a temperature measurement accuracy of ±1 °F. Due to the potential for a waterproof capsule to provide a thermal insulating effect, failure to measure a temperature of 140 °F does not necessarily indicate the lack of an extra-hot wash temperature. However, such a result would not be conclusive due to the lack of verification of the water temperature requirement, in which case an alternative method must be used to confirm that an extra-hot wash temperature greater than or equal to 140 °F has been achieved during the wash cycle.
</P>
<P>2.5.5 <I>Water meter.</I> A water meter must be installed in both the hot and cold water lines to measure water flow and/or water consumption. The water meters must have a resolution no larger than 0.1 gallons (0.4 liters) and a maximum error no greater than 2 percent for the water flow rates being measured. If the volume of hot water for any individual cycle within the energy test cycle is less than 0.1 gallons (0.4 liters), the hot water meter must have a resolution no larger than 0.01 gallons (0.04 liters).
</P>
<P>2.5.6 <I>Water pressure gauge.</I> A water pressure gauge must be installed in both the hot and cold water lines to measure water pressure. The water pressure gauges must have a resolution of 1 pound per square inch gauge (psig) (6.9 kPa) and a maximum error no greater than 5 percent of any measured value.
</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Bone-dryer.</I> The dryer used for drying the cloth to bone-dry must heat the test cloth load above 210 °F (99 °C).


</P>
<P>2.7 <I>Test cloths.</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.1 <I>Material Specifications.</I> The energy test cloth and energy stuffer cloth material and dimensions must conform to the specifications in section 3 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.7.2 <I>Material Verification.</I> The test cloth lot used to fabricate each piece of test cloth must conform with the material verification procedures specified in section 7 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.7.3 <I>RMC Correction Curve.</I> The test cloth lot used for testing must have a remaining moisture content (RMC) correction curve determined, according to section 8 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.7.4 <I>Lot Identification.</I> Each piece of test cloth must be clean and permanently marked identifying the lot number of the material. Mixed lots of material must not be used for testing a clothes washer.
</P>
<P>2.7.5 <I>Pre-Conditioning.</I> The test cloth must be pre-conditioned prior to first use as specified in section 5 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.7.6 <I>Lifetime.</I> Each piece of test cloth must not be used for more than 60 test runs (after pre-conditioning).




</P>
<P>2.8 <I>Test Loads.</I>
</P>
<P>2.8.1 <I>Test load sizes.</I> Create small and large test loads as defined in Table 5.1 of this appendix based on the clothes container capacity as measured in section 3.1 of this appendix. Record the bone-dry weight for each test load.
</P>
<P>2.8.2 <I>Test load composition.</I> Test loads must consist primarily of energy test cloths and no more than five energy stuffer cloths per load to achieve the proper weight.
</P>
<P>2.9 <I>Preparation and loading of test loads.</I> Use the following procedures to prepare and load each test load for testing in section 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.9.1 Test loads for energy and water consumption measurements must be bone-dry prior to the first cycle of the test, and dried to a maximum of 104 percent of bone-dry weight for subsequent testing.
</P>
<P>2.9.2 Prepare the energy test cloths for loading by grasping them in the center, lifting, and shaking them to hang loosely, as illustrated in Figure 2.9.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.000.gif"/>
<P>For all clothes washers, follow any manufacturer loading instructions provided to the user regarding the placement of clothing within the clothes container. In the absence of any manufacturer instructions regarding the placement of clothing within the clothes container, the following loading instructions apply.
</P>
<P>2.9.2.1 To load the energy test cloths in a top-loading clothes washer, arrange the cloths circumferentially around the axis of rotation of the clothes container, using alternating lengthwise orientations for adjacent pieces of cloth. Complete each cloth layer across its horizontal plane within the clothes container before adding a new layer. Figure 2.9.2.1 of this appendix illustrates the correct loading technique for a vertical-axis clothes washer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.001.gif"/>
<P>2.9.2.2 To load the energy test cloths in a front-loading clothes washer, grasp each test cloth in the center as indicted in section 2.9.2 of this appendix, and then place each cloth into the clothes container prior to activating the clothes washer.
</P>
<P>2.10 <I>Clothes washer installation.</I> Install the clothes washer in accordance with manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>2.10.1 <I>Water inlet connections.</I> If the clothes washer has 2 water inlets, connect the inlets to the hot water and cold water supplies, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. If the clothes washer has only 1 water inlet, connect the inlet to the cold water supply, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. Use the water inlet hoses provided with the clothes washer; otherwise use commercially available water inlet hoses, not to exceed 72 inches in length, in accordance with manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>2.10.2 <I>Low-power mode testing.</I> For combined low-power mode testing, install the clothes washer in accordance with Section 5, Paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301, disregarding the provisions regarding batteries and the determination, classification, and testing of relevant modes.
</P>
<P>2.11 <I>Clothes washer pre-conditioning.</I> If the clothes washer has not been filled with water in the preceding 96 hours, or if it has not been in the test room at the specified ambient conditions for 8 hours, pre-condition it by running it through a cold rinse cycle and then draining it to ensure that the hose, pump, and sump are filled with water.
</P>
<P>2.12 <I>Determining the energy test cycle</I>.
</P>
<P>2.12.1 <I>Automatic clothes washers.</I> To determine the energy test cycle, evaluate the wash/rinse temperature selection flowcharts in the order in which they are presented in this section. Use the large load size to evaluate each flowchart. The determination of the energy test cycle must take into consideration all cycle settings available to the end user, including any cycle selections or cycle modifications provided by the manufacturer via software or firmware updates to the product, for the basic model under test. The energy test cycle does not include any cycle that is recommended by the manufacturer exclusively for cleaning, deodorizing, or sanitizing the clothes washer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.006.gif"/>
<P>2.12.2. <I>Semi-automatic clothes washers.</I> The energy test cycle for semi-automatic clothes washers includes only the Cold Wash/Cold Rinse (“Cold”) test cycle. Energy and water use for all other wash/rinse temperature combinations are calculated numerically in section 3.4.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>3. Test Measurements
</HD2>
<P>3.1 <I>Clothes container capacity.</I> Measure the entire volume that a clothes load could occupy within the clothes container during active mode washer operation according to the following procedures:
</P>
<P>3.1.1 Place the clothes washer in such a position that the uppermost edge of the clothes container opening is leveled horizontally, so that the container will hold the maximum amount of water. For front-loading clothes washers, the door seal and shipping bolts or other forms of bracing hardware to support the wash drum during shipping must remain in place during the capacity measurement. If the design of a front-loading clothes washer does not include shipping bolts or other forms of bracing hardware to support the wash drum during shipping, a laboratory may support the wash drum by other means, including temporary bracing or support beams. Any temporary bracing or support beams must keep the wash drum in a fixed position, relative to the geometry of the door and door seal components, that is representative of the position of the wash drum during normal operation. The method used must avoid damage to the unit that would affect the results of the energy and water testing. For a front-loading clothes washer that does not include shipping bolts or other forms of bracing hardware to support the wash drum during shipping, the laboratory must fully document the alternative method used to support the wash drum during capacity measurement, include such documentation in the final test report, and pursuant to § 429.71 of this chapter, the manufacturer must retain such documentation as part its test records.
</P>
<P>3.1.2 Line the inside of the clothes container with a 2 mil thickness (0.051 mm) plastic bag. All clothes washer components that occupy space within the clothes container and that are recommended for use during a wash cycle must be in place and must be lined with a 2 mil thickness (0.051 mm) plastic bag to prevent water from entering any void space.
</P>
<P>3.1.3 Record the total weight of the machine before adding water.
</P>
<P>3.1.4 Fill the clothes container manually with either 60 °F ± 5 °F (15.6 °C ± 2.8 °C) or 100 °F ± 10 °F (37.8 °C ± 5.5 °C) water, with the door open. For a top-loading vertical-axis clothes washer, fill the clothes container to the uppermost edge of the rotating portion, including any balance ring. Figure 3.1.4.1 of this appendix illustrates the maximum fill level for top-loading clothes washers.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.007.gif"/>
<P>For a front-loading horizontal-axis clothes washer, fill the clothes container to the highest point of contact between the door and the door gasket. If any portion of the door or gasket would occupy the measured volume space when the door is closed, exclude from the measurement the volume that the door or gasket portion would occupy. For a front-loading horizontal-axis clothes washer with a concave door shape, include any additional volume above the plane defined by the highest point of contact between the door and the door gasket, if that area can be occupied by clothing during washer operation. For a top-loading horizontal-axis clothes washer, include any additional volume above the plane of the door hinge that clothing could occupy during washer operation. Figure 3.1.4.2 of this appendix illustrates the maximum fill volumes for all horizontal-axis clothes washer types.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.008.gif"/>
<P>For all clothes washers, exclude any volume that cannot be occupied by the clothing load during operation.
</P>
<P>3.1.5 Measure and record the weight of water, W, in pounds.
</P>
<P>3.1.6 Calculate the clothes container capacity as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>C = W/d
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = Capacity in cubic feet (liters).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = Mass of water in pounds (kilograms).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>d = Density of water (62.0 lbs/ft
<SU>3</SU> for 100 °F (993 kg/m
<SU>3</SU> for 37.8 °C) or 62.3 lbs/ft
<SU>3</SU> for 60 °F (998 kg/m
<SU>3</SU> for 15.6 °C)).
</FP-2>
<P>3.1.7 Calculate the clothes container capacity, C, to the nearest 0.01 cubic foot for the purpose of determining test load sizes per Table 5.1 of this appendix and for all subsequent calculations that include the clothes container capacity.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Cycle settings.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.1 <I>Wash/rinse temperature selection.</I> For automatic clothes washers, set the wash/rinse temperature selection control to obtain the desired wash/rinse temperature selection within the energy test cycle.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 <I>Wash time setting.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.2.1 If the cycle under test offers a range of wash time settings, the wash time setting shall be the higher of either the minimum or 70 percent of the maximum wash time available for the wash cycle under test, regardless of the labeling of suggested dial locations. If 70 percent of the maximum wash time is not available on a dial with a discrete number of wash time settings, choose the next-highest setting greater than 70 percent.
</P>
<P>3.2.2.2 If the clothes washer is equipped with an electromechanical dial or timer controlling wash time that rotates in both directions, reset the dial to the minimum wash time and then turn it in the direction of increasing wash time to reach the appropriate setting. If the appropriate setting is passed, return the dial to the minimum wash time and then turn in the direction of increasing wash time until the appropriate setting is reached.
</P>
<P>3.2.3 <I>Water fill level settings.</I> The water fill level settings depend on the clothes washer's water fill control system, as determined in Table 3.2.3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.2.3—Clothes Washer Water Fill Control Settings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Settings are
<br/>user-adjustable
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Settings are not
<br/>user-adjustable
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water fill level unaffected by the size or weight of the clothing load</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manual water fill</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fixed water fill.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water fill level is determined automatically by the clothes washer based on the size and weight of the clothing load</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">User-adjustable adaptive water fill</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-user-adjustable adaptive water fill.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.2.3.1 <I>Clothes washers with a manual water fill control system.</I> For the large test load size, set the water fill level selector to the maximum water fill level setting available for the wash cycle under test. If the water fill level selector has two settings available for the wash cycle under test, for the small test load size, select the minimum water fill level setting available for the wash cycle under test.
</P>
<P>If the water fill level selector has more than two settings available for the wash cycle under test, for the small test load size, select the second-lowest water fill level setting.
</P>
<P>3.2.3.2 <I>Clothes washers with a fixed water fill control system.</I> The water level is automatically determined by the water fill control system.
</P>
<P>3.2.3.3 <I>Clothes washers with a user-adjustable adaptive water fill control system.</I> For the large test load size, set the water fill selector to the setting that uses the most water. For the small test load size, set the water fill selector to the setting that uses the least water.
</P>
<P>3.2.3.4 <I>Clothes washers with a non-user-adjustable adaptive water fill control system.</I> The water level is automatically determined by the water fill control system.
</P>
<P>3.2.3.5 <I>Clothes washers with multiple water fill control systems.</I> If a clothes washer allows user selection among multiple water fill control systems, test all water fill control systems and, for each one, calculate the energy consumption (HE<E T="52">T</E>, ME<E T="52">T</E>, DE<E T="52">T</E>, and E<E T="52">TLP</E>) and water consumption (Q<E T="52">T</E>) values as set forth in section 4 of this appendix. Then, calculate the average of the tested values (one from each water fill control system) for each variable (HE<E T="52">T</E>, ME<E T="52">T</E>, DE<E T="52">T</E>, E<E T="52">TLP</E>, and Q<E T="52">T</E>) and use the average value for each variable in the final calculations in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2.4 <I>Manufacturer default settings.</I> For clothes washers with electronic control systems, use the manufacturer default settings for any cycle selections, except for (1) the temperature selection, (2) the wash water fill levels, or (3) network settings. If the clothes washer has network capabilities, the network settings must be disabled throughout testing if such settings can be disabled by the end-user and the product's user manual provides instructions on how to do so. For all other cycle selections, the manufacturer default settings must be used for wash conditions such as agitation/tumble operation, soil level, spin speed, wash times, rinse times, optional rinse settings, water heating time for water heating clothes washers, and all other wash parameters or optional features applicable to that wash cycle. Any optional wash cycle feature or setting (other than wash/rinse temperature, water fill level selection, or network settings on clothes washers with network capabilities) that is activated by default on the wash cycle under test must be included for testing unless the manufacturer instructions recommend not selecting this option, or recommend selecting a different option, for washing normally soiled cotton clothing. For clothes washers with control panels containing mechanical switches or dials, any optional settings, except for the temperature selection or the wash water fill levels, must be in the position recommended by the manufacturer for washing normally soiled cotton clothing. If the manufacturer instructions do not recommend a particular switch or dial position to be used for washing normally soiled cotton clothing, the setting switch or dial must remain in its as-shipped position.
</P>
<P>3.2.5 For each wash cycle tested, include the entire active washing mode and exclude any delay start or cycle finished modes.
</P>
<P>3.2.6 <I>Anomalous Test Cycles.</I> If during a wash cycle the clothes washer: (a) Signals to the user by means of a visual or audio alert that an out-of-balance condition has been detected; or (b) terminates prematurely and thus does not include the agitation/tumble operation, spin speed(s), wash times, and rinse times applicable to the wash cycle under test, discard the test data and repeat the wash cycle. Document in the test report the rejection of data from any wash cycle during testing and the reason for the rejection.
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Test cycles for automatic clothes washers.</I> Perform testing on each wash/rinse temperature selection available in the energy test cycle as defined in section 2.12.1 of this appendix. Test each load size as defined in section 2.8 of this appendix with its associated water fill level defined in section 3.2.3 of this appendix. Assign the bone-dry weight according to the value measured in section 2.8 of this appendix. Place the test load in the clothes washer and initiate the cycle under test. Measure the values for hot water consumption, cold water consumption, electrical energy consumption, and cycle time for the complete cycle. Record the weight of the test load immediately after completion of the cycle. Table 3.3 of this appendix provides the symbol definitions for each measured value.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.3—Symbol Definitions of Measured Values for Automatic Clothes Washer Test Cycles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wash/rinse
<br/>temperature
<br/>selection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Load size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bone-dry weight
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hot water
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cold water
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Electrical
<br/>energy
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cycle time
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cycle
<br/>complete
<br/>weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Extra-Hot/Cold</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIx<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hx<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cx<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ex<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tx<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCx<E T="52">L</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIx<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hx<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cx<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ex<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tx<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCx<E T="52">S</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot/Cold</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIh<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hh<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ch<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eh<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCh<E T="52">L</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIh<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hh<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ch<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eh<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCh<E T="52">S</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm/Cold *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIw<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hw<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cw<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ew<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tw<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCw<E T="52">L</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIw<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hw<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cw<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ew<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tw<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCw<E T="52">S</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm/Warm *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIww<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hww<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cww<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eww<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tww<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCww<E T="52">L</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIww<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hww<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cww<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eww<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tww<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCww<E T="52">S</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cold/Cold</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ec<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCc<E T="52">L</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ec<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCc<E T="52">S</E>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* If two cycles are tested to represent the Warm/Cold selection or the Warm/Warm selection, calculate the average of the two tested cycles and use that value for all further calculations.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.4 <I>Test cycles for semi-automatic clothes washers.</I>
</P>
<P>3.4.1 <I>Test Measurements.</I> Perform testing on each wash/rinse temperature selection available in the energy test cycle as defined in section 2.12.2 of this appendix. Test each load size as defined in section 2.8 of this appendix with the associated water fill level defined in section 3.2.3 of this appendix. Assign the bone-dry weight according to the value measured in section 2.8 of this appendix. Place the test load in the clothes washer and initiate the cycle under test. Measure the values for cold water consumption, electrical energy consumption, and cycle time for the complete cycle. Record the weight of the test load immediately after completion of the cycle. Table 3.4.1 of this appendix provides symbol definitions for each measured value for the Cold temperature selection.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.4.1—Symbol Definitions of Measured Values for Semi-Automatic Clothes Washer Test Cycles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature selection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Load size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bone-dry
<br/>weight
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hot water
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cold water
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Electrical
<br/>energy
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cycle time
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cycle
<br/>complete
<br/>weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cold</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">not measured</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ec<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCc<E T="52">L</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">not measured</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ec<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCc<E T="52">S</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.4.2 <I>Calculation of Hot and Warm measured values.</I> In lieu of testing, the measured values for the Hot and Warm cycles are calculated based on the measured values for the Cold cycle, as defined in section 3.4.1 of this appendix. Table 3.4.2 of this appendix provides the symbol definitions and calculations for each value for the Hot and Warm temperature selections.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.4.2—Symbol Definitions and Calculation of Measured Values for Semi-Automatic Clothes Washer Test Cycles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature selection
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Load Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bone-Dry
<br/>weight
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hot water
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cold water
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Electrical energy
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cycle time
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cycle
<br/>complete
<br/>weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIh<E T="52">L</E> = WIc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hh<E T="52">L</E> = Cc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eh<E T="52">L</E> = Ec<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th<E T="52">L</E> = Tc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCh<E T="52">L</E> = WCc<E T="52">L</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIh<E T="52">S</E> = WIc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hh<E T="52">S</E> = Cc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eh<E T="52">S</E> = Ec<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Th<E T="52">S</E> = Tc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCh<E T="52">S</E> = WCc<E T="52">S</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Large</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIw<E T="52">L</E> = WIc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hw<E T="52">L</E> = Cc<E T="52">L</E> ÷ 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cw<E T="52">L</E> = Cc<E T="52">L</E> ÷ 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ew<E T="52">L</E> = Ec<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tw<E T="52">L</E> = Tc<E T="52">L</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCw<E T="52">L</E> = WCc<E T="52">L</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Small</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WIw<E T="52">S</E> = WIc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hw<E T="52">S</E> = Cc<E T="52">S</E> ÷ 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cw<E T="52">S</E> = Cc<E T="52">S</E> ÷ 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ew<E T="52">S</E> = Ec<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tw<E T="52">S</E> = Tc<E T="52">S</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WCw<E T="52">S</E> = WCc<E T="52">S</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.5 <I>Combined low-power mode power.</I> Connect the clothes washer to a watt meter as specified in section 2.5.3 of this appendix. Establish the testing conditions set forth in sections 2.1, 2.4, and 2.10.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.5.1 Perform combined low-power mode testing after completion of an active mode wash cycle included as part of the energy test cycle; after removing the test load; without changing the control panel settings used for the active mode wash cycle; with the door closed; and without disconnecting the electrical energy supply to the clothes washer between completion of the active mode wash cycle and the start of combined low-power mode testing.
</P>
<P>3.5.2 For a clothes washer that takes some time to automatically enter a stable inactive mode or off mode state from a higher power state as discussed in Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, note 1 of IEC 62301, allow sufficient time for the clothes washer to automatically reach the default inactive/off mode state before proceeding with the test measurement.
</P>
<P>3.5.3 Once the stable inactive/off mode state has been reached, measure and record the default inactive/off mode power, P<E T="52">default</E>, in watts, following the test procedure for the sampling method specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.5.4 For a clothes washer with a switch, dial, or button that can be optionally selected by the end user to achieve a lower-power inactive/off mode state than the default inactive/off mode state measured in section 3.5.3 of this appendix, after performing the measurement in section 3.5.3 of this appendix, activate the switch, dial, or button to the position resulting in the lowest power consumption and repeat the measurement procedure described in section 3.5.3 of this appendix. Measure and record the lowest-power inactive/off mode power, P<E T="52">lowest</E>, in Watts.
</P>
<P>3.6 <I>Energy consumption for the purpose of determining the cycle selection(s) to be included in the energy test cycle.</I> This section is implemented only in cases where the energy test cycle flowcharts in section 2.12.1 of this appendix require the determination of the wash/rinse temperature selection with the highest energy consumption.
</P>
<P>3.6.1 For the wash/rinse temperature selection being considered under this section, establish the testing conditions set forth in section 2 of this appendix. Select the applicable cycle selection and wash/rinse temperature selection. For all wash/rinse temperature selections, select the cycle settings as described in section 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.6.2 Measure each wash cycle's electrical energy consumption (E<E T="52">L</E>) and hot water consumption (H<E T="52">L</E>). Calculate the total energy consumption for each cycle selection (E<E T="52">TL</E>), as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TL</E> = E<E T="52">L</E> + (H<E T="52">L</E> × T × K)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">L</E> is the electrical energy consumption, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">L</E> is the hot water consumption, expressed in gallons per cycle.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = nominal temperature rise = 65 °F (36.1 °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = Water specific heat in kilowatt-hours per gallon per degree F = 0.00240 kWh/gal − °F (0.00114 kWh/L − °C).
</FP-2>
<HD2>4. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Hot water and machine electrical energy consumption of clothes washers.</I>
</P>
<P>4.1.1 <I>Per-cycle temperature-weighted hot water consumption for all load sizes tested.</I> Calculate the per-cycle temperature-weighted hot water consumption for the large test load size, Vh<E T="52">L,</E> and the small test load size, Vh<E T="52">S</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) Vh<E T="52">L</E> = [Hx<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">X</E>] + [Hh<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Hw<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Hww<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Hc<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Vh<E T="52">S</E> = [Hx<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">X</E>] + [Hh<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Hw<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Hww<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Hc<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<P>Hx<E T="52">L</E>, Hh<E T="52">L</E>, Hw<E T="52">L</E>, Hww<E T="52">L</E>, Hc<E T="52">L</E>, Hx<E T="52">S</E>, Hh<E T="52">S</E>, Hw<E T="52">S</E>, Hww<E T="52">S</E>, and Hc<E T="52">S</E> are the hot water consumption values, in gallons per-cycle (or liters per cycle) as measured in section 3.3 of this appendix for automatic clothes washers or section 3.4 of this appendix for semi-automatic clothes washers.
</P>
<P>TUF<E T="52">X</E>, TUF<E T="52">h</E>, TUF<E T="52">w</E>, TUF<E T="52">ww</E>, and TUF<E T="52">c</E> are temperature use factors for Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse, Hot Wash/Cold Rinse, Warm Wash/Cold Rinse, Warm Wash/Warm Rinse, and Cold Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selections, respectively, as defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.1.1—Temperature Use Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Wash/rinse temperature selections available in the energy test cycle
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Clothes washers with cold rinse only
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Clothes washers with both cold and warm rinse
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">H/C
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">H/C
<br/>W/C
<br/>C/C
<br/>*
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XH/C
<br/>H/C
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XH/C
<br/>H/C
<br/>W/C
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">H/C
<br/>W/C
<br/>W/W
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XH/C
<br/>H/C
<br/>W/W
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XH/C
<br/>H/C
<br/>W/C
<br/>W/W
<br/>C/C
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUFx (Extra-Hot/Cold)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUFh (Hot/Cold)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">** 0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">** 0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUFw (Warm/Cold)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUFww (Warm/Warm)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUFc (Cold/Cold)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* This column applies to all semi-automatic clothes washers.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** On clothes washers with only two wash temperature selections &lt;140 °F, the higher of the two wash temperatures is classified as a Hot Wash/Cold Rinse, in accordance with the wash/rinse temperature definitions within the energy test cycle.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.1.2 <I>Total per-cycle hot water energy consumption for all load sizes tested.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle hot water energy consumption for the large test load size, HE<E T="52">L,</E> and the small test load size, HE<E T="52">S</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) HE<E T="52">L</E> = [Vh<E T="52">L</E> × T × K] = Total energy when the large test load is tested.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) HE<E T="52">S</E> = [Vh<E T="52">S</E> × T × K] = Total energy when the small test load is tested.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Vh<E T="52">L</E> and Vh<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = Temperature rise = 65 °F (36.1 °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = Water specific heat in kilowatt-hours per gallon per degree F = 0.00240 kWh/gal − °F (0.00114 kWh/L − °C).
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.3 <I>Total weighted per-cycle hot water energy consumption.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle hot water energy consumption, HE<E T="52">T,</E> expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">T</E> = [HE<E T="52">L</E> × LUF<E T="52">L</E>] + [HE<E T="52">S</E> × LUF<E T="52">S</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">L</E> and HE<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> = Load usage factor for the large test load = 0.5.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">S</E> = Load usage factor for the small test load = 0.5.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.4 <I>Total per-cycle hot water energy consumption using gas-heated or oil-heated water, for product labeling requirements.</I> Calculate for the energy test cycle the per-cycle hot water consumption, HE<E T="52">TG,</E> using gas-heated or oil-heated water, expressed in Btu per cycle (or megajoules per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">TG</E> = HE<E T="52">T</E> × 1/e × 3412 Btu/kWh or HE<E T="52">TG</E> = HE<E T="52">T</E> × 1/e × 3.6 MJ/kWh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>e = Nominal gas or oil water heater efficiency = 0.75.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.5 <I>Per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption for all load sizes tested.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption for the large test load size, ME<E T="52">L,</E> and the small test load size, ME<E T="52">S</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) ME<E T="52">L</E> = [Ex<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">X</E>] + [Eh<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Ew<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Eww<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Ec<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) ME<E T="52">S</E> = [Ex<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">X</E>] + [Eh<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Ew<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Eww<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Ec<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ex<E T="52">L</E>, Eh<E T="52">L</E>, Ew<E T="52">L</E>, Eww<E T="52">L</E>, Ec<E T="52">L</E>, Ex<E T="52">S</E>, Eh<E T="52">S</E>, Ew<E T="52">S</E>, Eww<E T="52">S</E>, and Ec<E T="52">S</E> are the electrical energy consumption values, in kilowatt-hours per cycle as measured in section 3.3 of this appendix for automatic clothes washers or section 3.4 of this appendix for semi-automatic clothes washers.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>TUF<E T="52">X</E>, TUF<E T="52">h</E>, TUF<E T="52">w</E>, TUF<E T="52">ww</E>, and TUF<E T="52">c</E> are defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.6 <I>Total weighted per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption, ME<E T="52">T,</E> expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>ME<E T="52">T</E> = [ME<E T="52">L</E> × LUF<E T="52">L</E>] + [ME<E T="52">S</E> × LUF<E T="52">S</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ME<E T="52">L</E> and ME<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> and LUF<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2 <I>Water consumption of clothes washers.</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.1 <I>Per cycle total water consumption for each large load size tested.</I> Calculate the per-cycle total water consumption of the large test load for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qx<E T="52">L,</E> Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qh<E T="52">L</E>, Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qw<E T="52">L</E>, Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, Qww<E T="52">L</E>, and Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qc<E T="52">L</E>, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) Qx<E T="52">L</E> = Hx<E T="52">L</E> + Cx<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Qh<E T="52">L</E> = Hh<E T="52">L</E> + Ch<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) Qw<E T="52">L</E> = Hw<E T="52">L</E> + Cw<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) Qww<E T="52">L</E> = Hww<E T="52">L</E> + Cww<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) Qc<E T="52">L</E> = Hc<E T="52">L</E> + Cc<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hx<E T="52">L</E>, Hh<E T="52">L</E>, Hw<E T="52">L</E>, Hww<E T="52">L</E>, Hc<E T="52">L</E>, Cx<E T="52">L</E>, Ch<E T="52">L</E>, Cw<E T="52">L</E>, Cww<E T="52">L</E>, and Cc<E T="52">L</E> are defined in section 3.3 of this appendix for automatic clothes washers or section 3.4 of this appendix for semi-automatic clothes washers.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.2 <I>Per cycle total water consumption for each small load size tested.</I> Calculate the per-cycle total water consumption of the small test load for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qx<E T="52">S,</E> Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qh<E T="52">S</E>, Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qw<E T="52">S</E>, Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, Qww<E T="52">S</E>, and Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qc<E T="52">S</E>, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) Qx<E T="52">S</E> = Hx<E T="52">S</E> + Cx<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Qh<E T="52">S</E> = Hh<E T="52">S</E> + Ch<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) Qw<E T="52">S</E> = Hw<E T="52">S</E> + Cw<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) Qww<E T="52">S</E> = Hww<E T="52">S</E> + Cww<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) Qc<E T="52">S</E> = Hc<E T="52">S</E> + Cc<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hx<E T="52">S</E>, Hh<E T="52">S</E>, Hw<E T="52">S</E>, Hww<E T="52">S</E>, Hc<E T="52">S</E>, Cx<E T="52">S</E>, Ch<E T="52">S</E>, Cw<E T="52">S</E>, Cww<E T="52">S</E>, and Cc<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 3.3 of this appendix for automatic clothes washers or section 3.4 of this appendix for semi-automatic clothes washers.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.3 <I>Per-cycle total water consumption for all load sizes tested.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle water consumption for the large test load size, Q<E T="52">L,</E> and the small test load size, Q<E T="52">S</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) Q<E T="52">L</E> = [Qx<E T="52">L</E> × TUFx] + [Qh<E T="52">L</E> × TUFh] + [Qw<E T="52">L</E> × TUFw] + [Qww<E T="52">L</E> × TUFww] + [Qc<E T="52">L</E> × TUFc]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Q<E T="52">S</E> = [Qx<E T="52">S</E> × TUFx] + [Qh<E T="52">S</E> × TUFh] + [Qw<E T="52">S</E> × TUFw] + [Qww<E T="52">S</E> × TUFww] + [Qc<E T="52">S</E> × TUFc]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qx<E T="52">L</E>, Qh<E T="52">L</E>, Qw<E T="52">L</E>, Qww<E T="52">L</E>, and Qc<E T="52">L</E> are defined in section 4.2.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qx<E T="52">S</E>, Qh<E T="52">S</E>, Qw<E T="52">S</E>, Qww<E T="52">S</E>, and Qc<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.2.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>TUFx, TUFh, TUFw, TUFww, and TUFc are defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.4 <I>Total weighted per-cycle water consumption.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle water consumption, Q<E T="52">T,</E> expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">T</E> = [Q<E T="52">L</E> × LUF<E T="52">L</E>] + [Q<E T="52">S</E> × LUF<E T="52">S</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">L</E> and Q<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.2.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> and LUF<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3 <I>Remaining moisture content (RMC).</I>
</P>
<P>4.3.1 <I>Per cycle remaining moisture content for each large load size tested.</I> Calculate the per-cycle remaining moisture content of the large test load for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, RMCx<E T="52">L,</E> Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, RMCh<E T="52">L</E>, Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, RMCw<E T="52">L</E>, Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, RMCww<E T="52">L</E>, and Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, RMCc<E T="52">L</E>, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) RMCx<E T="52">L</E> = (WCx<E T="52">L</E> − WIx<E T="52">L</E>)/WIx<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) RMCh<E T="52">L</E> = (WCh<E T="52">L</E> − WIh<E T="52">L</E>)/WIh<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) RMCw<E T="52">L</E> = (WCw<E T="52">L</E> − WIw<E T="52">L</E>)/WIw<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) RMCww<E T="52">L</E> = (WCww<E T="52">L</E> − WIww<E T="52">L</E>)/WIww<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) RMCc<E T="52">L</E> = (WCc<E T="52">L</E> − WIc<E T="52">L</E>)/WIc<E T="52">L</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>WCx<E T="52">L</E>, WCh<E T="52">L</E>, WCw<E T="52">L</E>, WCww<E T="52">L</E>, WCc<E T="52">L</E>, WIx<E T="52">L</E>, WIh<E T="52">L</E>, WIw<E T="52">L</E>, WIww<E T="52">L</E>, and WIc<E T="52">L</E> are the bone-dry weights and cycle completion weights as measured in section 3.3 of this appendix for automatic clothes washers or section 3.4 of this appendix for semi-automatic clothes washers.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.2 <I>Per cycle remaining moisture content for each small load size tested.</I> Calculate the per-cycle remaining moisture content of the small test load for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, RMCx<E T="52">S,</E> Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, RMCh<E T="52">S</E>, Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, RMCw<E T="52">S</E>, Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, RMCww<E T="52">S</E>, and Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, RMCc<E T="52">S</E>, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) RMCx<E T="52">S</E> = (WCx<E T="52">S</E>—WIx<E T="52">S</E>)/WIx<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) RMCh<E T="52">S</E> = (WCh<E T="52">S</E>—WIh<E T="52">S</E>)/WIh<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) RMCw<E T="52">S</E> = (WCw<E T="52">S</E>—WIw<E T="52">S</E>)/WIw<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(d) RMCww<E T="52">S</E> = (WCww<E T="52">S</E>—WIww<E T="52">S</E>)/WIww<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(e) RMCc<E T="52">S</E> = (WCc<E T="52">S</E>—WIc<E T="52">S</E>)/WIc<E T="52">S</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>WCx<E T="52">S</E>, WCh<E T="52">S</E>, WCw<E T="52">S</E>, WCww<E T="52">S</E>, WCc<E T="52">S</E>, WIx<E T="52">S</E>, WIh<E T="52">S</E>, WIw<E T="52">S</E>, WIww<E T="52">S</E>, and WIc<E T="52">S</E> are the bone-dry weights and cycle completion weights as measured in section 3.3 of this appendix for automatic clothes washers or section 3.4 of this appendix for semi-automatic clothes washers.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.3 <I>Per-cycle remaining moisture content for all load sizes tested.</I> Calculate the per-cycle temperature-weighted remaining moisture content for the large test load size, RMC<E T="52">L,</E> and the small test load size, RMC<E T="52">S</E>, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) RMC<E T="52">L</E> = [RMCx<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">X</E>] + [RMCh<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [RMCw<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [RMCww<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [RMCc<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) RMC<E T="52">S</E> = [RMCx<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">X</E>] + [RMCh<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [RMCw<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [RMCww<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [RMCc<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMCx<E T="52">L</E>, RMCh<E T="52">L</E>, RMCw<E T="52">L</E>, RMCww<E T="52">L</E>, and RMCc<E T="52">L</E> are defined in section 4.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMCx<E T="52">S</E>, RMCh<E T="52">S</E>, RMCw<E T="52">S</E>, RMCww<E T="52">S</E>, and RMCc<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.3.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>TUF<E T="52">X</E>, TUF<E T="52">h</E>, TUF<E T="52">w</E>, TUF<E T="52">ww</E>, and TUF<E T="52">c</E> are defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.4 <I>Weighted per-cycle remaining moisture content.</I> Calculate the weighted per-cycle remaining moisture content, RMC<E T="52">T,</E> defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">T</E> = [RMC<E T="52">L</E> × LUF<E T="52">L</E>] + [RMC<E T="52">S</E> × LUF<E T="52">S</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">L</E> and RMC<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.3.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> and LUF<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.5 Apply the RMC correction curve as described in section 9 of appendix J3 to this subpart to calculate the corrected remaining moisture content, RMC<E T="52">corr</E>, expressed as a percentage as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">corr</E> = (A × RMC<E T="52">T</E> + B) × 100%
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A and B are the coefficients of the RMC correction curve as defined in section 8.7 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.3.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.4 <I>Per-cycle energy consumption for removal of moisture from test load.</I> Calculate the per-cycle energy required to remove the remaining moisture of the test load, DE<E T="52">T,</E> expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>DE<E T="52">T</E> = [(LUF<E T="52">L</E> × Large test load weight) + (LUF<E T="52">S</E> × Small test load weight)] × (RMC<E T="52">corr</E>−2%) × (DEF) × (DUF)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> and LUF<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Large and small test load weights are defined in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">corr</E> = As defined in section 4.3.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DEF = Nominal energy required for a clothes dryer to remove moisture from clothes = 0.5 kWh/lb (1.1 kWh/kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DUF = Dryer usage factor, percentage of washer loads dried in a clothes dryer = 0.91.
</FP-2>
<P>4.5 <I>Cycle time.</I>
</P>
<P>4.5.1 <I>Per-cycle temperature-weighted cycle time for all load sizes tested.</I> Calculate the per-cycle temperature-weighted cycle time for the large test load size, T<E T="52">L,</E> and the small test load size, T<E T="52">S</E>, expressed in minutes, and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) T<E T="52">L</E> = [Tx<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">X</E>] + [Th<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Tw<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Tww<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Tc<E T="52">L</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) T<E T="52">S</E> = [Tx<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">X</E>] + [Th<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Tw<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Tww<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Tc<E T="52">S</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Tx<E T="52">L</E>, Th<E T="52">L</E>, Tw<E T="52">L</E>, Tww<E T="52">L</E>, Tc<E T="52">L</E>, Tx<E T="52">S</E>, Th<E T="52">S</E>, Tw<E T="52">S</E>, Tww<E T="52">S</E>, and Tc<E T="52">S</E> are the cycle time values, in minutes as measured in section 3.3 of this appendix for automatic clothes washers or section 3.4 of this appendix for semi-automatic clothes washers.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>TUF<E T="52">X</E>, TUF<E T="52">h</E>, TUF<E T="52">w</E>, TUF<E T="52">ww</E>, and TUF<E T="52">c</E> are temperature use factors for Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse, Hot Wash/Cold Rinse, Warm Wash/Cold Rinse, Warm Wash/Warm Rinse, and Cold Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selections, respectively, as defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.5.2 <I>Total weighted per-cycle cycle time.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle cycle time, T<E T="52">T,</E> expressed in minutes, rounded to the nearest minute, and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">T</E> = [T<E T="52">L</E> × LUF<E T="52">L</E>] + [T<E T="52">S</E> × LUF<E T="52">S</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">L</E> and T<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> and LUF<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P><I>4.6 Combined low-power mode energy consumption.</I>
</P>
<P>4.6.1 <I>Annual hours in default inactive/off mode.</I> Calculate the annual hours spent in default inactive/off mode, S<E T="52">default</E>, expressed in hours and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">default</E> = [8,760−(234 × T<E T="52">T</E>/60)]/N
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.5.2 of this appendix, in minutes.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = Number of inactive/off modes, defined as 1 if no optional lowest-power inactive/off mode is available; otherwise 2.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = Total number of hours in a year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>234 = Representative average number of clothes washer cycles in a year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>60 = Conversion from minutes to hours.
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.2 <I>Per-cycle combined low-power mode energy consumption.</I> Calculate the per-cycle combined low-power mode energy consumption, E<E T="52">TLP,</E> expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = [(P<E T="52">default</E> × S<E T="52">default</E>) + (P<E T="52">lowest</E> × S<E T="52">lowest</E>)] × K<E T="52">p</E>/234
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">default</E> = Default inactive/off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lowest</E> = Lowest-power inactive/off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.5.4 of this appendix for clothes washers with a switch, dial, or button that can be optionally selected by the end user to achieve a lower-power inactive/off mode than the default inactive/off mode; otherwise, P<E T="52">lowest</E> = 0.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">default</E> = Annual hours in default inactive/off mode, as calculated in section 4.6.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">lowest</E> = Annual hours in lowest-power inactive/off mode, defined as 0 if no optional lowest-power inactive/off mode is available; otherwise equal to S<E T="52">default</E>, as calculated in section 4.6.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">p</E> = Conversion factor of watt-hours to kilowatt-hours = 0.001.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>234 = Representative average number of clothes washer cycles in a year.
</FP-2>
<P>4.7 <I>Water efficiency ratio.</I> Calculate the water efficiency ratio, WER, expressed in pounds per gallon per cycle (or kilograms per liter per cycle), as:
</P>
<FP-2>WER = [(LUF<E T="52">L</E> × Large test load weight) + (LUF<E T="52">S</E> × Small test load weight)]/Q<E T="52">T</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> and LUF<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Large and small test load weights are defined in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.2.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.8 <I>Active-mode energy efficiency ratio.</I> Calculate the active-mode energy efficiency ratio, AEER, expressed in pounds per kilowatt-hour per cycle (or kilograms per kilowatt-hour per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>AEER = [(LUF<E T="52">L</E> × Large test load weight) + (LUF<E T="52">S</E> × Small test load weight)]/(ME<E T="52">T</E> + HE<E T="52">T</E> + DE<E T="52">T</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> and LUF<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Large and small test load weights are defined in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ME<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.1.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DE<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.9 <I>Energy efficiency ratio.</I> Calculate the energy efficiency ratio, EER, expressed in pounds per kilowatt-hour per cycle (or kilograms per kilowatt-hour per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>EER = [(LUF<E T="52">L</E> × Large test load weight) + (LUF<E T="52">S</E> × Small test load weight)]/(ME<E T="52">T</E> + HE<E T="52">T</E> + DE<E T="52">T</E> + E<E T="52">TLP</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LUF<E T="52">L</E> and LUF<E T="52">S</E> are defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Large and small test load weights are defined in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ME<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.1.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DE<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = As defined in section 4.6.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<HD2>5. Test Loads
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5.1—Test Load Sizes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Container volume
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Small load
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Large load
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">cu. ft.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">liter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">lb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">kg
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">lb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">kg
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥ &lt;
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥ &lt;
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.00-0.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00-22.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.80-0.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22.7-25.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.90-1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25.5-28.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00-1.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">28.3-31.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.10-1.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31.1-34.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.20-1.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">34.0-36.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.30-1.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36.8-39.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.40-1.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39.6-42.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.50-1.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42.5-45.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.60-1.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45.3-48.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.70-1.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">48.1-51.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.80-1.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">51.0-53.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.90-2.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">53.8-56.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.00-2.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">56.6-59.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.10-2.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">59.5-62.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.20-2.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">62.3-65.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.30-2.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">65.1-68.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.40-2.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">68.0-70.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.79
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.50-2.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70.8-73.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.60-2.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">73.6-76.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.70-2.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">76.5-79.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.80-2.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">79.3-82.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.90-3.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">82.1-85.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.00-3.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85.0-87.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.10-3.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">87.8-90.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.79
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.20-3.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90.6-93.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.30-3.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">93.4-96.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.40-3.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">96.3-99.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.50-3.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">99.1-101.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.60-3.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">101.9-104.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.70-3.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">104.8-107.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.80-3.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">107.6-110.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.90-4.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110.4-113.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.00-4.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">113.3-116.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.10-4.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">116.1-118.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.20-4.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">118.9-121.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.30-4.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">121.8-124.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.40-4.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">124.6-127.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.50-4.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">127.4-130.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.60-4.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">130.3-133.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.70-4.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">133.1-135.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.80-4.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">135.9-138.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.90-5.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">138.8-141.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.00-5.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">141.6-144.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.10-5.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">144.4-147.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.20-5.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">147.2-150.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.30-5.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150.1-152.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.40-5.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">152.9-155.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.50-5.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">155.7-158.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.60-5.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">158.6-161.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.70-5.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">161.4-164.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.80-5.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">164.2-167.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.90-6.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">167.1-169.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.00-6.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">169.9-172.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.10-6.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">172.7-175.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.20-6.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">175.6-178.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.30-6.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">178.4-181.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.40-6.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">181.2-184.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.50-6.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">184.1-186.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.60-6.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">186.9-189.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.70-6.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">189.7-192.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.80-6.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">192.6-195.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.90-7.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">195.4-198.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.00-7.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">198.2-201.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.10-7.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">201.0-203.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.20-7.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">203.9-206.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.30-7.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">206.7-209.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.40-7.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">209.5-212.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.86
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.50-7.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">212.4-215.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.60-7.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">215.2-218.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.70-7.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">218.0-220.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.80-7.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">220.9-223.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.90-8.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">223.7-226.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.57
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E> (1) All test load weights are bone-dry weights.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) Allowable tolerance on the test load weights is ±0.10 lbs (0.05 kg).</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33381, June 1, 2022, as amended at 87 FR 78820, Dec. 23, 2022; 89 FR 84076, Oct. 21, 2024; 90 FR 5536, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J1 to Subpart B of Part 430 [Reserved]




</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J2" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J2 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Automatic and Semi-automatic Clothes Washers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to appendix J2 to subpart B of part 430:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the residential clothes washer standards provided at § 430.32(g)(1) and the commercial clothes washer standards provided at § 431.156(b).
</P>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under Appendix J to this subpart to determine compliance with the residential clothes washer standards provided at § 430.32(g)(2) and for any amended commercial clothes washer standards provided at § 431.156 that are published after January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>Any representations related to energy or water consumption of residential or commercial clothes washers must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix J to this subpart or this appendix) when determining compliance with the relevant standard.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire test standard for IEC 62301. However, only enumerated provisions of this standard are applicable to this appendix, as follows. In cases in which there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the referenced test standard.
</P>
<P>0.1 IEC 62301:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 4.2 as referenced in section 2.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4.3.2 as referenced in section 2.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.4 as referenced in section 2.5.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5.1 as referenced in section 3.9.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5.2 as referenced in section 2.10 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(f) Section 5.3.2 as referenced in section 3.9.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<HD1>1. Definitions
</HD1>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means a mode in which the clothes washer is connected to a mains power source, has been activated, and is performing one or more of the main functions of washing, soaking, tumbling, agitating, rinsing, and/or removing water from the clothing, or is involved in functions necessary for these main functions, such as admitting water into the washer or pumping water out of the washer. Active mode also includes delay start and cycle finished modes.
</P>
<P><I>Active washing mode</I> means a mode in which the clothes washer is performing any of the operations included in a complete cycle intended for washing a clothing load, including the main functions of washing, soaking, tumbling, agitating, rinsing, and/or removing water from the clothing.
</P>
<P><I>Adaptive water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer automatic water fill control system that is capable of automatically adjusting the water fill level based on the size or weight of the clothes load placed in the clothes container.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer water fill control system that does not allow or require the user to determine or select the water fill level, and includes adaptive water fill control systems and fixed water fill control systems.
</P>
<P><I>Bone-dry</I> means a condition of a load of test cloth that has been dried in a dryer at maximum temperature for a minimum of 10 minutes, removed and weighed before cool down, and then dried again for 10 minute periods until the final weight change of the load is 1 percent or less.
</P>
<P><I>Clothes container</I> means the compartment within the clothes washer that holds the clothes during the operation of the machine.
</P>
<P><I>Cold rinse</I> means the coldest rinse temperature available on the machine, as indicated to the user on the clothes washer control panel.
</P>
<P><I>Combined low-power mode</I> means the aggregate of available modes other than active washing mode, including inactive mode, off mode, delay start mode, and cycle finished mode.
</P>
<P><I>Cycle finished mode</I> means an active mode that provides continuous status display, intermittent tumbling, or air circulation following operation in active washing mode.
</P>
<P><I>Delay start mode</I> means an active mode in which activation of active washing mode is facilitated by a timer.
</P>
<P><I>Energy test cycle</I> means the complete set of wash/rinse temperature selections required for testing, as determined according to section 2.12 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Fixed water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer automatic water fill control system that automatically terminates the fill when the water reaches a pre-defined level that is not based on the size or weight of the clothes load placed in the clothes container, without allowing or requiring the user to determine or select the water fill level.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive mode</I> means a standby mode that facilitates the activation of active mode by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer, or that provides continuous status display.
</P>
<P><I>Integrated modified energy factor</I> means the quotient of the cubic foot (or liter) capacity of the clothes container divided by the total clothes washer energy consumption per cycle, with such energy consumption expressed as the sum of:
</P>
<P>(a) The machine electrical energy consumption;
</P>
<P>(b) The hot water energy consumption;
</P>
<P>(c) The energy required for removal of the remaining moisture in the wash load; and
</P>
<P>(d) The combined low-power mode energy consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Integrated water factor</I> means the quotient of the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for all wash cycles in gallons divided by the cubic foot (or liter) capacity of the clothes washer.
</P>
<P><I>Load usage factor</I> means the percentage of the total number of wash loads that a user would wash a particular size (weight) load.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means a quantity of cloth that has been manufactured with the same batches of cotton and polyester during one continuous process.
</P>
<P><I>Manual water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer water fill control system that requires the user to determine or select the water fill level.
</P>
<P><I>Modified energy factor</I> means the quotient of the cubic foot (or liter) capacity of the clothes container divided by the total clothes washer energy consumption per cycle, with such energy consumption expressed as the sum of the machine electrical energy consumption, the hot water energy consumption, and the energy required for removal of the remaining moisture in the wash load.
</P>
<P><I>Non-water-heating clothes washer</I> means a clothes washer that does not have an internal water heating device to generate hot water.
</P>
<P><I>Normal cycle</I> means the cycle recommended by the manufacturer (considering manufacturer instructions, control panel labeling, and other markings on the clothes washer) for normal, regular, or typical use for washing up to a full load of normally soiled cotton clothing. For machines where multiple cycle settings are recommended by the manufacturer for normal, regular, or typical use for washing up to a full load of normally soiled cotton clothing, then the Normal cycle is the cycle selection that results in the lowest IMEF or MEF<E T="52">J2</E> value.
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means a mode in which the clothes washer is connected to a mains power source and is not providing any active or standby mode function, and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time.
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means any mode in which the clothes washer is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following user oriented or protective functions that may persist for an indefinite time:
</P>
<P>(a) Facilitating the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer;
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions.
</P>
<P>(c) A timer is a continuous clock function (which may or may not be associated with a display) that provides regular scheduled tasks (<I>e.g.,</I> switching) and that operates on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P><I>Temperature use factor</I> means, for a particular wash/rinse temperature setting, the percentage of the total number of wash loads that an average user would wash with that setting.
</P>
<P><I>User-adjustable adaptive water fill control system</I> means a clothes washer fill control system that allows the user to adjust the amount of water that the machine provides, which is based on the size or weight of the clothes load placed in the clothes container.
</P>
<P><I>Wash time</I> means the wash portion of active washing mode, which begins when the cycle is initiated and includes the agitation or tumble time, which may be periodic or continuous during the wash portion of active washing mode.
</P>
<P><I>Water factor</I> means the quotient of the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for cold wash divided by the cubic foot (or liter) capacity of the clothes washer.
</P>
<P><I>Water-heating clothes washer</I> means a clothes washer where some or all of the hot water for clothes washing is generated by a water heating device internal to the clothes washer.
</P>
<HD1>2. Testing Conditions and Instrumentation
</HD1>
<P>2.1 <I>Electrical energy supply.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>Supply voltage and frequency.</I> Maintain the electrical supply at the clothes washer terminal block within 2 percent of 120, 120/240, or 120/208Y volts as applicable to the particular terminal block wiring system and within 2 percent of the nameplate frequency as specified by the manufacturer. If the clothes washer has a dual voltage conversion capability, conduct test at the highest voltage specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 <I>Supply voltage waveform.</I> For the combined low-power mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage waveform indicated in Section 4, Paragraph 4.3.2 of IEC 62301. If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the total harmonic content during the test measurement period, total harmonic content may be measured and recorded immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Supply water.</I> Maintain the temperature of the hot water supply at the water inlets between 130 °F (54.4 °C) and 135 °F (57.2 °C), targeting the midpoint of the range. Maintain the temperature of the cold water supply at the water inlets between 55 °F (12.8 °C) and 60 °F (15.6 °C), targeting the midpoint of the range.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Water pressure.</I> Maintain the static water pressure at the hot and cold water inlet connection of the clothes washer at 35 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) ± 2.5 psig (241.3 kPa ± 17.2 kPa) when the water is flowing.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Test room temperature.</I> For all clothes washers, maintain the test room ambient air temperature at 75 ± 5 °F (23.9 ± 2.8 °C) for active mode testing and combined low-power mode testing. Do not use the test room ambient air temperature conditions specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301 for combined low-power mode testing.
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Instrumentation.</I> Perform all test measurements using the following instruments, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>2.5.1 <I>Weighing scales.</I>
</P>
<P>2.5.1.1 <I>Weighing scale for test cloth.</I> The scale used for weighing test cloth must have a resolution of no larger than 0.2 oz (5.7 g) and a maximum error no greater than 0.3 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.5.1.2 <I>Weighing scale for clothes container capacity measurement.</I> The scale used for performing the clothes container capacity measurement must have a resolution no larger than 0.50 lbs (0.23 kg) and a maximum error no greater than 0.5 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.5.2 <I>Watt-hour meter.</I> The watt-hour meter used to measure electrical energy consumption must have a resolution no larger than 1 Wh (3.6 kJ) and a maximum error no greater than 2 percent of the measured value for any demand greater than 50 Wh (180.0 kJ).
</P>
<P>2.5.3 <I>Watt meter.</I> The watt meter used to measure combined low-power mode power consumption must comply with the requirements specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). If the power measuring instrument used for testing is unable to measure and record the crest factor, power factor, or maximum current ratio during the test measurement period, the crest factor, power factor, and maximum current ratio may be measured and recorded immediately before and after the test measurement period.
</P>
<P>2.5.4 <I>Water and air temperature measuring devices.</I> The temperature devices used to measure water and air temperature must have an error no greater than ±1 °F (±0.6 °C) over the range being measured.
</P>
<P>2.5.4.1 Non-reversible temperature indicator labels, adhered to the inside of the clothes container, may be used to confirm that an extra-hot wash temperature greater than 135 °F has been achieved during the wash cycle, under the following conditions. The label must remain waterproof, intact, and adhered to the wash drum throughout an entire wash cycle; provide consistent maximum temperature readings; and provide repeatable temperature indications sufficient to demonstrate that a wash temperature of greater than 135 °F has been achieved. The label must have been verified to consistently indicate temperature measurements with an accuracy of ±1 °F if the label provides a temperature indicator at 135 °F. If the label does not provide a temperature indicator at 135 °F, the label must have been verified to consistently indicate temperature measurements with an accuracy of ±1 °F if the next-highest temperature indicator is greater than 135 °F and less than 140 °F, or ±3 °F if the next-highest temperature indicator is 140 °F or greater. If the label does not provide a temperature indicator at 135 °F, failure to activate the next-highest temperature indicator does not necessarily indicate the lack of an extra-hot wash temperature. However, such a result would not be conclusive due to the lack of verification of the water temperature requirement, in which case an alternative method must be used to confirm that an extra-hot wash temperature greater than 135 °F has been achieved during the wash cycle. If using a temperature indicator label to test a front-loading clothes washer, adhere the label along the interior surface of the clothes container drum, midway between the front and the back of the drum, adjacent to one of the baffles. If using a temperature indicator label to test a top-loading clothes washer, adhere the label along the interior surface of the clothes container drum, on the vertical portion of the sidewall, as close to the bottom of the container as possible.
</P>
<P>2.5.4.2 Submersible temperature loggers placed inside the wash drum may be used to confirm that an extra-hot wash temperature greater than 135 °F has been achieved during the wash cycle, under the following conditions. The submersible temperature logger must have a time resolution of at least 1 data point every 5 seconds and a temperature measurement accuracy of ±1 °F. Due to the potential for a waterproof capsule to provide a thermal insulating effect, failure to measure a temperature of 135 °F does not necessarily indicate the lack of an extra-hot wash temperature. However, such a result would not be conclusive due to the lack of verification of the water temperature requirement, in which case an alternative method must be used to confirm that an extra-hot wash temperature greater than 135 °F has been achieved during the wash cycle.
</P>
<P>2.5.5 <I>Water meter.</I> A water meter must be installed in both the hot and cold water lines to measure water flow and/or water consumption. The water meters must have a resolution no larger than 0.1 gallons (0.4 liters) and a maximum error no greater than 2 percent for the water flow rates being measured. If the volume of hot water for any individual cycle within the energy test cycle is less than 0.1 gallons (0.4 liters), the hot water meter must have a resolution no larger than 0.01 gallons (0.04 liters).
</P>
<P>2.5.6 <I>Water pressure gauge.</I> A water pressure gauge must be installed in both the hot and cold water lines to measure water pressure. The water pressure gauges must have a resolution of 1 pound per square inch gauge (psig) (6.9 kPa) and a maximum error no greater than 5 percent of any measured value.
</P>
<P>2.6 <I>Bone dryer temperature.</I> The dryer used for bone drying must heat the test cloth load above 210 °F (99 °C).
</P>
<P>2.7 <I>Test cloths.</I>
</P>
<P>2.7.1 <I>Material Specifications.</I> The energy test cloth and energy stuffer cloth material and dimensions must conform to the specifications in section 3 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.7.2 <I>Material Verification.</I> The test cloth lot used to fabricate each piece of test cloth must conform with the material verification procedures specified in section 7 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.7.3 <I>RMC Correction Curve.</I> The test cloth lot used for testing must have a remaining moisture content (RMC) correction curve determined, according to section 8 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.7.4 <I>Lot Identification.</I> Each piece of test cloth must be clean and permanently marked identifying the lot number of the material. Mixed lots of material must not be used for testing a clothes washer.
</P>
<P>2.7.5 <I>Pre-Conditioning.</I> The test cloth must be pre-conditioned prior to first use as specified in section 5 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>2.7.6 <I>Lifetime.</I> Each piece of test cloth must not be used for more than 60 test runs (after pre-conditioning).




</P>
<P>2.8 <I>Test load sizes.</I> Use Table 5.1 of this appendix to determine the maximum, minimum, and, when required, average test load sizes based on the clothes container capacity as measured in section 3.1 of this appendix. Test loads must consist of energy test cloths and no more than five energy stuffer cloths per load to achieve the proper weight.
</P>
<P>Use the test load sizes and corresponding water fill settings defined in Table 2.8 of this appendix when measuring water and energy consumption. Use only the maximum test load size when measuring RMC.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2.8—Required Test Load Sizes and Water Fill Settings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water fill control system type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test load size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water fill setting
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manual water fill control system</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Max
<br/>Min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Max.
<br/>Min.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automatic water fill control system</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Max
<br/>Avg
<br/>Min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As determined by the clothes washer.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.9 <I>Use of test loads.</I>
</P>
<P>2.9.1 Test loads for energy and water consumption measurements must be bone dry prior to the first cycle of the test, and dried to a maximum of 104 percent of bone dry weight for subsequent testing.
</P>
<P>2.9.2 Prepare the energy test cloths for loading by grasping them in the center, lifting, and shaking them to hang loosely, as illustrated in Figure 2.9.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05au15.004.gif"/>
<P>For all clothes washers, follow any manufacturer loading instructions provided to the user regarding the placement of clothing within the clothes container. In the absence of any manufacturer instructions regarding the placement of clothing within the clothes container, the following loading instructions apply.
</P>
<P>2.9.2.1 To load the energy test cloths in a top-loading clothes washer, arrange the cloths circumferentially around the axis of rotation of the clothes container, using alternating lengthwise orientations for adjacent pieces of cloth. Complete each cloth layer across its horizontal plane within the clothes container before adding a new layer. Figure 2.9.2.1 of this appendix illustrates the correct loading technique for a vertical-axis clothes washer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05au15.005.gif"/>
<P>2.9.2.2 To load the energy test cloths in a front-loading clothes washer, grasp each test cloth in the center as indicted in section 2.9.2 of this appendix, and then place each cloth into the clothes container prior to activating the clothes washer.
</P>
<P>2.10 <I>Clothes washer installation.</I> Install the clothes washer in accordance with manufacturer's instructions. For combined low-power mode testing, install the clothes washer in accordance with Section 5, Paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), disregarding the provisions regarding batteries and the determination, classification, and testing of relevant modes.
</P>
<P>2.11 <I>Clothes washer pre-conditioning.</I>
</P>
<P>2.11.1 <I>Non-water-heating clothes washer.</I> If the clothes washer has not been filled with water in the preceding 96 hours, pre-condition it by running it through a cold rinse cycle and then draining it to ensure that the hose, pump, and sump are filled with water.
</P>
<P>2.11.2 <I>Water-heating clothes washer.</I> If the clothes washer has not been filled with water in the preceding 96 hours, or if it has not been in the test room at the specified ambient conditions for 8 hours, pre-condition it by running it through a cold rinse cycle and then draining it to ensure that the hose, pump, and sump are filled with water.
</P>
<P>2.12 <I>Determining the energy test cycle.</I> To determine the energy test cycle, evaluate the wash/rinse temperature selection flowcharts in the order in which they are presented in this section. Except for Cold Wash/Cold Rinse, use the maximum load size to evaluate each flowchart. The determination of the energy test cycle must take into consideration all cycle settings available to the end user, including any cycle selections or cycle modifications provided by the manufacturer via software or firmware updates to the product, for the basic model under test. The energy test cycle does not include any cycle that is recommended by the manufacturer exclusively for cleaning, deodorizing, or sanitizing the clothes washer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn22.013.gif"/>
<HD1>3. Test Measurements
</HD1>
<P>3.1 <I>Clothes container capacity.</I> Measure the entire volume that a clothes load could occupy within the clothes container during active mode washer operation according to the following procedures:
</P>
<P>3.1.1 Place the clothes washer in such a position that the uppermost edge of the clothes container opening is leveled horizontally, so that the container will hold the maximum amount of water. For front-loading clothes washers, the door seal and shipping bolts or other forms of bracing hardware to support the wash drum during shipping must remain in place during the capacity measurement.
</P>
<P>If the design of a front-loading clothes washer does not include shipping bolts or other forms of bracing hardware to support the wash drum during shipping, a laboratory may support the wash drum by other means, including temporary bracing or support beams. Any temporary bracing or support beams must keep the wash drum in a fixed position, relative to the geometry of the door and door seal components, that is representative of the position of the wash drum during normal operation. The method used must avoid damage to the unit that would affect the results of the energy and water testing.
</P>
<P>For a front-loading clothes washer that does not include shipping bolts or other forms of bracing hardware to support the wash drum during shipping, the laboratory must fully document the alternative method used to support the wash drum during capacity measurement, include such documentation in the final test report, and pursuant to § 429.71 of this chapter, the manufacturer must retain such documentation as part its test records.
</P>
<P>3.1.2 Line the inside of the clothes container with a 2 mil thickness (0.051 mm) plastic bag. All clothes washer components that occupy space within the clothes container and that are recommended for use during a wash cycle must be in place and must be lined with a 2 mil thickness (0.051 mm) plastic bag to prevent water from entering any void space.
</P>
<P>3.1.3 Record the total weight of the machine before adding water.
</P>
<P>3.1.4 Fill the clothes container manually with either 60 °F ± 5 °F (15.6 °C ± 2.8 °C) or 100 °F ± 10 °F (37.8 °C ± 5.5 °C) water, with the door open. For a top-loading vertical-axis clothes washer, fill the clothes container to the uppermost edge of the rotating portion, including any balance ring. Figure 3.1.4.1 of this appendix illustrates the maximum fill level for top-loading clothes washers.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05au15.011.gif"/>
<P>For a front-loading horizontal-axis clothes washer, fill the clothes container to the highest point of contact between the door and the door gasket. If any portion of the door or gasket would occupy the measured volume space when the door is closed, exclude from the measurement the volume that the door or gasket portion would occupy. For a front-loading horizontal-axis clothes washer with a concave door shape, include any additional volume above the plane defined by the highest point of contact between the door and the door gasket, if that area can be occupied by clothing during washer operation. For a top-loading horizontal-axis clothes washer, include any additional volume above the plane of the door hinge that clothing could occupy during washer operation. Figure 3.1.4.2 of this appendix illustrates the maximum fill volumes for all horizontal-axis clothes washer types.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05au15.012.gif"/>
<P>For all clothes washers, exclude any volume that cannot be occupied by the clothing load during operation.
</P>
<P>3.1.5 Measure and record the weight of water, W, in pounds.
</P>
<P>3.1.6 Calculate the clothes container capacity as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>C = W/d
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>C = Capacity in cubic feet (liters).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = Mass of water in pounds (kilograms).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>d = Density of water (62.0 lbs/ft
<SU>3</SU> for 100 °F (993 kg/m
<SU>3</SU> for 37.8 °C) or 62.3 lbs/ft
<SU>3</SU> for 60 °F (998 kg/m
<SU>3</SU> for 15.6 °C)).
</FP-2>
<P>3.1.7 Calculate the clothes container capacity, C, to the nearest 0.01 cubic foot for the purpose of determining test load sizes per Table 5.1 of this appendix and for all subsequent calculations that include the clothes container capacity.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Procedure for measuring water and energy consumption values on all automatic and semi-automatic washers.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.1 Perform all energy consumption tests under the energy test cycle.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 Perform the test sections listed in Table 3.2.2 in accordance with the wash/rinse temperature selections available in the energy test cycle.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.2.2—Test Section Reference
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wash/rinse temperature
<br/>selections available in the
<br/>energy test cycle
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Corresponding test section
<br/>reference
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Extra-Hot/Cold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot/Cold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm/Cold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm/Warm</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cold/Cold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Test Sections Applicable to all Clothes Washers</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remaining Moisture Content</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combined Low-Power Mode Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.2.3 <I>Hot and cold water faucets.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.3.1 For automatic clothes washers, open both the hot and cold water faucets.
</P>
<P>3.2.3.2 For semi-automatic washers:
</P>
<P>(1) For hot inlet water temperature, open the hot water faucet completely and close the cold water faucet;
</P>
<P>(2) For warm inlet water temperature, open both hot and cold water faucets completely;
</P>
<P>(3) For cold inlet water temperature, close the hot water faucet and open the cold water faucet completely.
</P>
<P>3.2.4 <I>Wash/rinse temperature selection.</I> Set the wash/rinse temperature selection control to obtain the desired wash/rinse temperature selection within the energy test cycle.
</P>
<P>3.2.5 <I>Wash time setting.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.5.1 If the cycle under test offers a range of wash time settings, the wash time setting shall be the higher of either the minimum or 70 percent of the maximum wash time available for the wash cycle under test, regardless of the labeling of suggested dial locations. If 70 percent of the maximum wash time is not available on a dial with a discrete number of wash time settings, choose the next-highest setting greater than 70 percent.
</P>
<P>3.2.5.2 If the clothes washer is equipped with an electromechanical dial or timer controlling wash time that rotates in both directions, reset the dial to the minimum wash time and then turn it in the direction of increasing wash time to reach the appropriate setting. If the appropriate setting is passed, return the dial to the minimum wash time and then turn in the direction of increasing wash time until the appropriate setting is reached.
</P>
<P>3.2.6 <I>Water fill levels.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.6.1 <I>Clothes washers with manual water fill control system.</I> Set the water fill selector to the maximum water level available for the wash cycle under test for the maximum test load size and the minimum water level available for the wash cycle under test for the minimum test load size.
</P>
<P>3.2.6.2 <I>Clothes washers with automatic water fill control system.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.6.2.1 <I>Not user adjustable.</I> The maximum, minimum, and average water levels as described in the following sections refer to the amount of water fill that is automatically selected by the control system when the respective test loads are used.
</P>
<P>3.2.6.2.2 <I>User-adjustable adaptive.</I> Conduct four tests on clothes washers with user-adjustable adaptive water fill controls. Conduct the first test using the maximum test load and with the adaptive water fill control system set in the setting that uses the most water. Conduct the second test using the minimum test load and with the adaptive water fill control system set in the setting that uses the least water. Conduct the third test using the average test load and with the adaptive water fill control system set in the setting that uses the most water. Conduct the fourth test using the average test load and with the adaptive water fill control system set in the setting that uses the least water. Average the results of the third and fourth tests to obtain the energy and water consumption values for the average test load size.
</P>
<P>3.2.6.3 <I>Clothes washers with automatic water fill control system and alternate manual water fill control system.</I> If a clothes washer with an automatic water fill control system allows user selection of manual controls as an alternative, test both manual and automatic modes and, for each mode, calculate the energy consumption (HE<E T="52">T</E>, ME<E T="52">T</E>, and D<E T="52">E</E>) and water consumption (Q<E T="52">T</E>) values as set forth in section 4 of this appendix. Then, calculate the average of the two values (one from each mode, automatic and manual) for each variable (HE<E T="52">T</E>, ME<E T="52">T</E>, D<E T="52">E</E>, and Q<E T="52">T</E>) and use the average value for each variable in the final calculations in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2.7 <I>Manufacturer default settings.</I> For clothes washers with electronic control systems, use the manufacturer default settings for any cycle selections, except for (1) the temperature selection, (2) the wash water fill levels, (3) if necessary, the spin speeds on wash cycles used to determine remaining moisture content, or (4) network settings. If the clothes washer has network capabilities, the network settings must be disabled throughout testing if such settings can be disabled by the end-user and the product's user manual provides instructions on how to do so. For all other cycle selections, the manufacturer default settings must be used for wash conditions such as agitation/tumble operation, soil level, spin speed on wash cycles used to determine energy and water consumption, wash times, rinse times, optional rinse settings, water heating time for water heating clothes washers, and all other wash parameters or optional features applicable to that wash cycle. Any optional wash cycle feature or setting (other than wash/rinse temperature, water fill level selection, spin speed on wash cycles used to determine remaining moisture content, or network settings on clothes washers with network capabilities) that is activated by default on the wash cycle under test must be included for testing unless the manufacturer instructions recommend not selecting this option, or recommend selecting a different option, for washing normally soiled cotton clothing. For clothes washers with control panels containing mechanical switches or dials, any optional settings, except for (1) the temperature selection, (2) the wash water fill levels, or (3) if necessary, the spin speeds on wash cycles used to determine remaining moisture content, must be in the position recommended by the manufacturer for washing normally soiled cotton clothing. If the manufacturer instructions do not recommend a particular switch or dial position to be used for washing normally soiled cotton clothing, the setting switch or dial must remain in its as-shipped position.
</P>
<P>3.2.8 For each wash cycle tested, include the entire active washing mode and exclude any delay start or cycle finished modes.
</P>
<P>3.2.9 <I>Anomalous Test Cycles.</I> If during a wash cycle the clothes washer: (a) Signals to the user by means of a visual or audio alert that an out-of-balance condition has been detected; or (b) terminates prematurely and thus does not include the agitation/tumble operation, spin speed(s), wash times, and rinse times applicable to the wash cycle under test, discard the test data and repeat the wash cycle. Document in the test report the rejection of data from any wash cycle during testing and the reason for the rejection.
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Measure the water and electrical energy consumption for each water fill level and test load size as specified in sections 3.3.1 through 3.3.3 of this appendix for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse as defined within the energy test cycle.
</P>
<P>3.3.1 <I>Maximum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hm<E T="52">X</E>), cold water consumption (Cm<E T="52">X</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Em<E T="52">X</E>) for an Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the maximum water fill level. Use the maximum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.3.2 <I>Minimum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hm<E T="52">n</E>), cold water consumption (Cm<E T="52">n</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Em<E T="52">n</E>) for an Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the minimum water fill level. Use the minimum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.3.3 <I>Average test load and water fill.</I> For a clothes washer with an automatic water fill control system, measure the values for hot water consumption (Hm<E T="52">a</E>), cold water consumption (Cm<E T="52">a</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Em<E T="52">a</E>) for an Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle. Use the average test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4 <I>Hot Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Measure the water and electrical energy consumption for each water fill level and test load size as specified in sections 3.4.1 through 3.4.3 of this appendix for the Hot Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selection, as defined within the energy test cycle.
</P>
<P>3.4.1 <I>Maximum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hh<E T="52">X</E>), cold water consumption (Ch<E T="52">X</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Eh<E T="52">X</E>) for a Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the maximum water fill level. Use the maximum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.2 <I>Minimum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hh<E T="52">n</E>), cold water consumption (Ch<E T="52">n</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Eh<E T="52">n</E>) for a Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the minimum water fill level. Use the minimum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.3 <I>Average test load and water fill.</I> For a clothes washer with an automatic water fill control system, measure the values for hot water consumption (Hh<E T="52">a</E>), cold water consumption (Ch<E T="52">a</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Eh<E T="52">a</E>) for a Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle. Use the average test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.5 <I>Warm Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Measure the water and electrical energy consumption for each water fill level and test load size as specified in sections 3.5.1 through 3.5.3 of this appendix for the applicable Warm Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selection(s), as defined within the energy test cycle.
</P>
<P>For a clothes washer with fewer than four discrete Warm Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selections, test all Warm Wash/Cold Rinse selections. For a clothes washer that offers four or more Warm Wash/Cold Rinse selections, test at all discrete selections, or test at the 25 percent, 50 percent, and 75 percent positions of the temperature selection device between the hottest hot (≤135 °F (57.2 °C)) wash and the coldest cold wash. If a selection is not available at the 25, 50 or 75 percent position, in place of each such unavailable selection, use the next warmer setting. For each reportable value to be used for the Warm Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selection, calculate the average of all Warm Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selections tested pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>3.5.1 <I>Maximum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hw<E T="52">X</E>), cold water consumption (Cw<E T="52">X</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Ew<E T="52">X</E>) for the Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the maximum water fill level. Use the maximum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.5.2 <I>Minimum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hw<E T="52">n</E>), cold water consumption (Cw<E T="52">n</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Ew<E T="52">n</E>) for the Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the minimum water fill level. Use the minimum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.5.3 <I>Average test load and water fill.</I> For a clothes washer with an automatic water fill control system, measure the values for hot water consumption (Hw<E T="52">a</E>), cold water consumption (Cw<E T="52">a</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Ew<E T="52">a</E>) for a Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle. Use the average test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.6 <I>Warm Wash/Warm Rinse.</I> Measure the water and electrical energy consumption for each water fill level and/or test load size as specified in sections 3.6.1 through 3.6.3 of this appendix for the applicable Warm Wash/Warm Rinse temperature selection(s), as defined within the energy test cycle. For a clothes washer with fewer than four discrete Warm Wash/Warm Rinse temperature selections, test all Warm Wash/Warm Rinse selections. For a clothes washer that offers four or more Warm Wash/Warm Rinse selections, test at all discrete selections, or test at 25 percent, 50 percent, and 75 percent positions of the temperature selection device between the hottest hot (≤ 135 °F (57.2 °C)) wash and the coldest cold wash. If a selection is not available at the 25, 50 or 75 percent position, in place of each such unavailable selection use the next warmer setting. For each reportable value to be used for the Warm Wash/Warm Rinse temperature selection, calculate the average of all Warm Wash/Warm Rinse temperature selections tested pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>3.6.1 <I>Maximum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hww<E T="52">X</E>), cold water consumption (Cww<E T="52">X</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Eww<E T="52">X</E>) for the Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the maximum water fill level. Use the maximum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.6.2 <I>Minimum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hww<E T="52">n</E>), cold water consumption (Cww<E T="52">n</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Eww<E T="52">n</E>) for the Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the minimum water fill level. Use the minimum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.6.3 <I>Average test load and water fill.</I> For a clothes washer with an automatic water fill control system, measure the values for hot water consumption (Hww<E T="52">a</E>), cold water consumption (Cww<E T="52">a</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Eww<E T="52">a</E>) for the Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle. Use the average test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.7 <I>Cold Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Measure the water and electrical energy consumption for each water fill level and test load size as specified in sections 3.7.1 through 3.7.3 of this appendix for the applicable Cold Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selection, as defined within the energy test cycle.
</P>
<P>3.7.1 <I>Maximum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hc<E T="52">X</E>), cold water consumption (Cc<E T="52">X</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Ec<E T="52">X</E>) for a Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the maximum water fill level. Use the maximum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.7.2 <I>Minimum test load and water fill.</I> Measure the values for hot water consumption (Hc<E T="52">n</E>), cold water consumption (Cc<E T="52">n</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Ec<E T="52">n</E>) for a Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, with the controls set for the minimum water fill level. Use the minimum test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.7.3 <I>Average test load and water fill.</I> For a clothes washer with an automatic water fill control system, measure the values for hot water consumption (Hc<E T="52">a</E>), cold water consumption (Cc<E T="52">a</E>), and electrical energy consumption (Ec<E T="52">a</E>) for a Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle. Use the average test load size as specified in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.8 <I>Remaining moisture content (RMC).</I>
</P>
<P>3.8.1 The wash temperature must be the same as the rinse temperature for all testing. Use the maximum test load as defined in Table 5.1 of this appendix for testing.
</P>
<P>3.8.2 <I>Clothes washers with cold rinse only.</I>
</P>
<P>3.8.2.1 Record the actual “bone dry” weight of the test load (WI<E T="52">X</E>), then place the test load in the clothes washer.
</P>
<P>3.8.2.2 Set the water level controls to maximum fill.
</P>
<P>3.8.2.3 Run the Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle.
</P>
<P>3.8.2.4 Record the weight of the test load immediately after completion of the wash cycle (WC<E T="52">X</E>).
</P>
<P>3.8.2.5 Calculate the remaining moisture content of the maximum test load, RMC<E T="52">X</E>, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">X</E> = (WC<E T="52">X</E> − WI<E T="52">X</E>)/WI<E T="52">X</E>
</FP-2>
<P>3.8.2.6 Apply the RMC correction curve described in section 9 of appendix J3 to this subpart to calculate the corrected remaining moisture content, RMC<E T="52">corr</E>, expressed as a percentage as follows:
</P>
<FP>RMC<E T="52">corr</E> = (A × RMC<E T="52">X</E> + B) × 100%
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A and B are the coefficients of the RMC correction curve as defined in section 8.7 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">X</E> = As defined in section 3.8.2.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>3.8.2.7 Use RMC<E T="52">corr</E> as the final corrected RMC in section 4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.8.3 <I>Clothes washers with both cold and warm rinse options.</I>
</P>
<P>3.8.3.1 Complete sections 3.8.2.1 through 3.8.2.4 of this appendix for a Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle. Calculate the remaining moisture content of the maximum test load for Cold Wash/Cold Rinse, RMC<E T="52">COLD</E>, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">COLD</E> = (WC<E T="52">X</E> − WI<E T="52">X</E>)/WI<E T="52">X</E>
</FP-2>
<P>3.8.3.2 Apply the RMC correction curve described in section 9 of appendix J3 to this subpart to calculate the corrected remaining moisture content for Cold Wash/Cold Rinse, RMC<E T="52">COLD,corr</E>, expressed as a percentage, as follows:
</P>
<FP>RMC<E T="52">COLD,corr</E> = (A × RMC<E T="52">COLD</E> + B) × 100%
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A and B are the coefficients of the RMC correction curve as defined in section 8.7 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">COLD</E> = As defined in section 3.8.3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>3.8.3.3 Complete sections 3.8.2.1 through 3.8.2.4 of this appendix using a Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle instead. Calculate the remaining moisture content of the maximum test load for Warm Wash/Warm Rinse, RMC<E T="52">WARM</E>, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">WARM</E> = (WC<E T="52">X</E>−WI<E T="52">X</E>)/WI<E T="52">X</E>
</FP-2>
<P>3.8.3.4 Apply the RMC correction curve described in section 9 of appendix J3 to this subpart to calculate the corrected remaining moisture content for Warm Wash/Warm Rinse, RMC<E T="52">WARM,corr</E>, expressed as a percentage, as follows:
</P>
<FP>RMC<E T="52">WARM,corr</E> = (A × RMC<E T="52">WARM</E> + B) × 100%
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A and B are the coefficients of the RMC correction curve as defined in section 8.7 of appendix J3 to this subpart.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">WARM</E> = As defined in section 3.8.3.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>3.8.3.5 Calculate the corrected remaining moisture content of the maximum test load, RMC<E T="52">corr</E>, expressed as a percentage as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">corr</E> = RMC<E T="52">COLD,corr</E> × (1 − TUF<E T="52">ww</E>) + RMC<E T="52">WARM,corr</E> × (TUF<E T="52">ww</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">COLD,corr</E> = As defined in section 3.8.3.2 of this Appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">WARM,corr</E> = As defined in section 3.8.3.4 of this Appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>TUF<E T="52">ww</E> is the temperature use factor for Warm Wash/Warm Rinse as defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>3.8.3.6 Use RMC<E T="52">corr</E> as calculated in section 3.8.3.5 as the final corrected RMC used in section 4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.8.4 <I>Clothes washers that have options such as multiple selections of spin speeds or spin times that result in different RMC values, and that are available within the energy test cycle.</I>
</P>
<P>3.8.4.1 Complete sections 3.8.2 or 3.8.3 of this appendix, as applicable, using the maximum and minimum extremes of the available spin options, excluding any “no spin” (zero spin speed) settings. Combine the calculated values RMC<E T="52">corr,max extraction</E> and RMC<E T="52">corr,min extraction</E> at the maximum and minimum settings, respectively, as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">corr</E> = 0.75 × RMC<E T="52">corr,max extraction</E> + 0.25 × RMC<E T="52">corr,min extraction</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">corr, max extraction</E> is the corrected remaining moisture content using the maximum spin setting, calculated according to section 3.8.2 or 3.8.3 of this appendix, as applicable.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">corr, min extraction</E> is the corrected remaining moisture content using the minimum spin setting, calculated according to section 3.8.2 or 3.8.3 of this appendix, as applicable.
</FP-2>
<P>3.8.4.2 Use RMC<E T="52">corr</E> as calculated in section 3.8.4.1 as the final corrected RMC used in section 4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.8.5 The procedure for calculating the corrected RMC as described in section 3.8.2, 3.8.3, or 3.8.4 of this appendix may be replicated twice in its entirety, for a total of three independent corrected RMC measurements. If three replications of the RMC measurement are performed, use the average of the three corrected RMC measurements as the final corrected RMC in section 4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.9 <I>Combined low-power mode power.</I> Connect the clothes washer to a watt meter as specified in section 2.5.3 of this appendix. Establish the testing conditions set forth in sections 2.1, 2.4, and 2.10 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.9.1 Perform combined low-power mode testing after completion of an active mode wash cycle included as part of the energy test cycle; after removing the test load; without changing the control panel settings used for the active mode wash cycle; with the door closed; and without disconnecting the electrical energy supply to the clothes washer between completion of the active mode wash cycle and the start of combined low-power mode testing.
</P>
<P>3.9.2 For a clothes washer that takes some time to automatically enter a stable inactive mode or off mode state from a higher power state as discussed in Section 5, Paragraph 5.1, note 1 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), allow sufficient time for the clothes washer to automatically reach the default inactive/off mode state before proceeding with the test measurement.
</P>
<P>3.9.3 Once the stable inactive/off mode state has been reached, measure and record the default inactive/off mode power, P<E T="52">default</E>, in watts, following the test procedure for the sampling method specified in Section 5, Paragraph 5.3.2 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.9.4 For a clothes washer with a switch, dial, or button that can be optionally selected by the end user to achieve a lower-power inactive/off mode state than the default inactive/off mode state measured in section 3.9.3 of this appendix, after performing the measurement in section 3.9.3, activate the switch, dial, or button to the position resulting in the lowest power consumption and repeat the measurement procedure described in section 3.9.3. Measure and record the lowest-power inactive/off mode power, P<E T="52">lowest</E>, in Watts.
</P>
<P>3.10 <I>Energy consumption for the purpose of determining the cycle selection(s) to be included in the energy test cycle.</I> This section is implemented only in cases where the energy test cycle flowcharts in section 2.12 require the determination of the wash/rinse temperature selection with the highest energy consumption.
</P>
<P>3.10.1 For the wash/rinse temperature selection being considered under this section, establish the testing conditions set forth in section 2 of this appendix. Select the applicable cycle selection and wash/rinse temperature selection. For all wash/rinse temperature selections, the manufacturer default settings shall be used as described in section 3.2.7 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.10.2 Use the clothes washer's maximum test load size, determined from Table 5.1 of this appendix, for testing under this section.
</P>
<P>3.10.3 For clothes washers with a manual fill control system, user-adjustable automatic water fill control system, or automatic water fill control system with alternate manual water fill control system, use the water fill selector setting resulting in the maximum water level available for each cycle selection for testing under this section.
</P>
<P>3.10.4 Each wash cycle tested under this section shall include the entire active washing mode and exclude any delay start or cycle finished modes.
</P>
<P>3.10.5 Measure each wash cycle's electrical energy consumption (E<E T="52">X</E>) and hot water consumption (H<E T="52">X</E>). Calculate the total energy consumption for each cycle selection (E<E T="52">TX</E>), as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TX</E> = E<E T="52">X</E> + (H<E T="52">X</E> × T × K)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">X</E> is the electrical energy consumption, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">X</E> is the hot water consumption, expressed in gallons per cycle.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = nominal temperature rise = 75 °F (41.7 °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = Water specific heat in kilowatt-hours per gallon per degree F = 0.00240 kWh/gal - °F (0.00114 kWh/L- °C).
</FP-2>
<HD1>4. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD1>
<P>4.1 <I>Hot water and machine electrical energy consumption of clothes washers.</I>
</P>
<P>4.1.1 <I>Per-cycle temperature-weighted hot water consumption for all maximum, average, and minimum water fill levels tested.</I> Calculate the per-cycle temperature-weighted hot water consumption for the maximum water fill level, Vh<E T="52">X</E>, the average water fill level, Vh<E T="52">a</E>, and the minimum water fill level, Vh<E T="52">n</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) Vh<E T="52">X</E> = [Hm<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">m</E>] + [Hh<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Hw<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Hww<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Hc<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) Vh<E T="52">a</E> = [Hm<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">m</E>] + [Hh<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Hw<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Hww<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Hc<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) Vh<E T="52">n</E> = [Hm<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">m</E>] + [Hh<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Hw<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Hww<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Hc<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Hm<E T="52">X</E>, Hm<E T="52">a</E>, and Hm<E T="52">n</E>, are reported hot water consumption values, in gallons per-cycle (or liters per cycle), at maximum, average, and minimum water fill levels, respectively, for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.3.1 through 3.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Hh<E T="52">X</E>, Hh<E T="52">a</E>, and Hh<E T="52">n</E>, are reported hot water consumption values, in gallons per-cycle (or liters per cycle), at maximum, average, and minimum water fill levels, respectively, for the Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.4.1 through 3.4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Hw<E T="52">X</E>, Hw<E T="52">a</E>, and Hw<E T="52">n</E>, are reported hot water consumption values, in gallons per-cycle (or liters per cycle), at maximum, average, and minimum water fill levels, respectively, for the Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.5.1 through 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Hww<E T="52">X</E>, Hww<E T="52">a</E>, and Hww<E T="52">n</E>, are reported hot water consumption values, in gallons per-cycle (or liters per cycle), at maximum, average, and minimum water fill levels, respectively, for the Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.6.1 through 3.6.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Hc<E T="52">X</E>, Hc<E T="52">a</E>, and Hc<E T="52">n</E>, are reported hot water consumption values, in gallons per-cycle (or liters per cycle), at maximum, average, and minimum water fill levels, respectively, for the Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.7.1 through 3.7.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>TUF<E T="52">m</E>, TUF<E T="52">h</E>, TUF<E T="52">w</E>, TUF<E T="52">ww</E>, and TUF<E T="52">c</E> are temperature use factors for Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse, Hot Wash/Cold Rinse, Warm Wash/Cold Rinse, Warm Wash/Warm Rinse, and Cold Wash/Cold Rinse temperature selections, respectively, as defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.1.1—Temperature Use Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Wash/Rinse Temperature Selections Available in the Energy Test Cycle
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Clothes washers with cold rinse only
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Clothes washers with both cold and warm rinse
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">H/C
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">H/C
<br/>W/C
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XH/C
<br/>H/C
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XH/C
<br/>H/C
<br/>W/C
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">H/C
<br/>W/C
<br/>W/W
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XH/C
<br/>H/C
<br/>W/W
<br/>C/C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XH/C
<br/>H/C
<br/>W/C
<br/>W/W
<br/>C/C
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUF<E T="52">m</E> (Extra-Hot/Cold)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUF<E T="52">h</E> (Hot/Cold)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">* 0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">* 0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUF<E T="52">w</E> (Warm/Cold)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUF<E T="52">ww</E> (Warm/Warm)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">TUF<E T="52">c</E> (Cold/Cold)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* On clothes washers with only two wash temperature selections ≤135 °F, the higher of the two wash temperatures is classified as a Hot Wash/Cold Rinse, in accordance with the wash/rinse temperature definitions within the energy test cycle.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.1.2 <I>Total per-cycle hot water energy consumption for all maximum, average, and minimum water fill levels tested.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle hot water energy consumption for the maximum water fill level, HE<E T="52">max</E>, the average water fill level, HE<E T="52">avg</E>, and the minimum water fill level, HE<E T="52">min</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) HE<E T="52">max</E> = [Vh<E T="52">X</E> × T × K] = Total energy when a maximum load is tested.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) HE<E T="52">avg</E> = [Vh<E T="52">a</E> × T × K] = Total energy when an average load is tested.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) HE<E T="52">min</E> = [Vh<E T="52">n</E> × T × K] = Total energy when a minimum load is tested.
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Vh<E T="52">X</E>, Vh<E T="52">a</E>, and Vh<E T="52">n</E> are defined in section 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = Temperature rise = 75 °F (41.7 °C).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = Water specific heat in kilowatt-hours per gallon per degree F = 0.00240 kWh/gal- °F (0.00114 kWh/L- °C).
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.3 <I>Total weighted per-cycle hot water energy consumption.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle hot water energy consumption, HE<E T="52">T</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">T</E> = [HE<E T="52">max</E> × F<E T="52">max</E>] + [HE<E T="52">avg</E> × F<E T="52">avg</E>] + HE<E T="52">min</E> × F<E T="52">min</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>HE<E T="52">max</E>, HE<E T="52">avg</E>, and HE<E T="52">min</E> are defined in section 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F<E T="52">max</E>, F<E T="52">avg</E>, and F<E T="52">min</E> are the load usage factors for the maximum, average, and minimum test loads based on the size and type of the control system on the washer being tested, as defined in Table 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.1.3—Load Usage Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Load usage factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Water fill control system
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Manual
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Automatic
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F<E T="52">max</E> =</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F<E T="52">avg</E> =</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F<E T="52">min</E> =</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.1.4 <I>Total per-cycle hot water energy consumption using gas-heated or oil-heated water, for product labeling requirements.</I> Calculate for the energy test cycle the per-cycle hot water consumption, HE<E T="52">TG</E>, using gas-heated or oil-heated water, expressed in Btu per cycle (or megajoules per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">TG</E> = HE<E T="52">T</E> × 1/e × 3412 Btu/kWh or HE<E T="52">TG</E> = HE<E T="52">T</E> × 1/e × 3.6 MJ/kWh
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>e = Nominal gas or oil water heater efficiency = 0.75.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HE<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.1.3 of this Appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.5 <I>Per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption for all maximum, average, and minimum test load sizes.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption for the maximum water fill level, ME<E T="52">max</E>, the average water fill level, ME<E T="52">avg</E>, and the minimum water fill level, ME<E T="52">min</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(a) ME<E T="52">max</E> = [Em<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">m</E>] + [Eh<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Ew<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Eww<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Ec<E T="52">X</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(b) ME<E T="52">avg</E> = [Em<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">m</E>] + [Eh<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Ew<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Eww<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Ec<E T="52">a</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(c) ME<E T="52">min</E> = [Em<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">m</E>] + [Eh<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Ew<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Eww<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Ec<E T="52">n</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Em<E T="52">X</E>, Em<E T="52">a</E>, and Em<E T="52">n</E>, are reported electrical energy consumption values, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, at maximum, average, and minimum test loads, respectively, for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.3.1 through 3.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Eh<E T="52">X</E>, Eh<E T="52">a</E>, and Eh<E T="52">n</E>, are reported electrical energy consumption values, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, at maximum, average, and minimum test loads, respectively, for the Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.4.1 through 3.4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Ew<E T="52">X</E>, Ew<E T="52">a</E>, and Ew<E T="52">n</E>, are reported electrical energy consumption values, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, at maximum, average, and minimum test loads, respectively, for the Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.5.1 through 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Eww<E T="52">X</E>, Eww<E T="52">a</E>, and Eww<E T="52">n</E>, are reported electrical energy consumption values, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, at maximum, average, and minimum test loads, respectively, for the Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.6.1 through 3.6.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Ec<E T="52">X</E>, Ec<E T="52">a</E>, and Ec<E T="52">n</E>, are reported electrical energy consumption values, in kilowatt-hours per cycle, at maximum, average, and minimum test loads, respectively, for the Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, as measured in sections 3.7.1 through 3.7.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>TUF<E T="52">m</E>, TUF<E T="52">h</E>, TUF<E T="52">w</E>, TUF<E T="52">ww</E>, and TUF<E T="52">c</E> are defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.1.6 <I>Total weighted per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle machine electrical energy consumption, ME<E T="52">T</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>ME<E T="52">T</E> = [ME<E T="52">max</E> × F<E T="52">max</E>] + [ME<E T="52">avg</E> × F<E T="52">avg</E>] + [ME<E T="52">min</E> × F<E T="52">min</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>ME<E T="52">max</E>, ME<E T="52">avg</E>, and ME<E T="52">min</E> are defined in section 4.1.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F<E T="52">max</E>, F<E T="52">avg</E>, and F<E T="52">min</E> are defined in Table 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.1.7 <I>Total per-cycle energy consumption when electrically heated water is used.</I> Calculate the total per-cycle energy consumption, E<E T="52">TE</E>, using electrically heated water, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TE</E> = H<E T="52">ET</E> + M<E T="52">ET</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">ET</E> = As defined in section 4.1.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">ET</E> = As defined in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2 Water consumption of clothes washers.
</P>
<P>4.2.1 <I>Per-cycle water consumption for Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Calculate the maximum, average, and minimum total water consumption, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle), for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qm<E T="52">max</E> = [Hm<E T="52">X</E> + Cm<E T="52">X</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qm<E T="52">avg</E> = [Hm<E T="52">a</E> + Cm<E T="52">a</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qm<E T="52">min</E> = [Hm<E T="52">n</E> + Cm<E T="52">n</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Hm<E T="52">X</E>, Cm<E T="52">X</E>, Hm<E T="52">a</E>, Cm<E T="52">a</E>, Hm<E T="52">n</E>, and Cm<E T="52">n</E> are defined in section 3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.2 <I>Per-cycle water consumption for Hot Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Calculate the maximum, average, and minimum total water consumption, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle), for the Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qh<E T="52">max</E> = [Hh<E T="52">X</E> + Ch<E T="52">X</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qh<E T="52">avg</E> = [Hh<E T="52">a</E> + Ch<E T="52">a</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qh<E T="52">min</E> = [Hh<E T="52">n</E> + Ch<E T="52">n</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Hh<E T="52">X</E>, Ch<E T="52">X</E>, Hh<E T="52">a</E>, Ch<E T="52">a</E>, Hh<E T="52">n</E>, and Ch<E T="52">n</E> are defined in section 3.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.3 <I>Per-cycle water consumption for Warm Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Calculate the maximum, average, and minimum total water consumption, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle), for the Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qw<E T="52">max</E> = [Hw<E T="52">X</E> + Cw<E T="52">X</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qw<E T="52">avg</E> = [Hw<E T="52">a</E> + Cw<E T="52">a</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qw<E T="52">min</E> = [Hw<E T="52">n</E> + Cw<E T="52">n</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Hw<E T="52">X</E>, Cw<E T="52">X</E>, Hw<E T="52">a</E>, Cw<E T="52">a</E>, Hw<E T="52">n</E>, and Cw<E T="52">n</E> are defined in section 3.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.4 <I>Per-cycle water consumption for Warm Wash/Warm Rinse.</I> Calculate the maximum, average, and minimum total water consumption, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle), for the Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qww<E T="52">max</E> = [Hww<E T="52">X</E> + Cww<E T="52">X</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qww<E T="52">avg</E> = [Hww<E T="52">a</E> + Cww<E T="52">a</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qww<E T="52">min</E> = [Hww<E T="52">n</E> + Cww<E T="52">n</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Hww<E T="52">X</E>, Cww<E T="52">X</E>, Hww<E T="52">a</E>, Cww<E T="52">a</E>, Hww<E T="52">n</E>, and Cww<E T="52">n</E> are defined in section 3.6 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.5 <I>Per-cycle water consumption for Cold Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Calculate the maximum, average, and minimum total water consumption, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle), for the Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qc<E T="52">max</E> = [Hc<E T="52">X</E> + Cc<E T="52">X</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qc<E T="52">avg</E> = [Hc<E T="52">a</E> + Cc<E T="52">a</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qc<E T="52">min</E> = [Hc<E T="52">n</E> + Cc<E T="52">n</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Hc<E T="52">X</E>, Cc<E T="52">X</E>, Hc<E T="52">a</E>, Cc<E T="52">a</E>, Hc<E T="52">n</E>, and Cc<E T="52">n</E> are defined in section 3.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.6 <I>Total weighted per-cycle water consumption for Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for the Extra-Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qm<E T="52">T</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qm<E T="52">T</E> = [Qm<E T="52">max</E> × F<E T="52">max</E>] + [Qm<E T="52">avg</E> × F<E T="52">avg</E>] + [Qm<E T="52">min</E> × F<E T="52">min</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Qm<E T="52">max</E>, Qm<E T="52">avg</E>, Qm<E T="52">min</E> are defined in section 4.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F<E T="52">max</E>, F<E T="52">avg</E>, F<E T="52">min</E> are defined in Table 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.7 <I>Total weighted per-cycle water consumption for Hot Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for the Hot Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qh<E T="52">T</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qh<E T="52">T</E> = [Qh<E T="52">max</E> × F<E T="52">max</E>] + [Qh<E T="52">avg</E> × F<E T="52">avg</E>] + [Qh<E T="52">min</E> × F<E T="52">min</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Qh<E T="52">max</E>, Qh<E T="52">avg</E>, Qh<E T="52">min</E> are defined in section 4.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F<E T="52">max</E>, F<E T="52">avg</E>, F<E T="52">min</E> are defined in Table 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.8 <I>Total weighted per-cycle water consumption for Warm Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for the Warm Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qw<E T="52">T</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qw<E T="52">T</E> = [Qw<E T="52">max</E> × F<E T="52">max</E>] + [Qw<E T="52">avg</E> × F<E T="52">avg</E>] + [Qw<E T="52">min</E> × F<E T="52">min</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Qw<E T="52">max</E>, Qw<E T="52">avg</E>, Qw<E T="52">min</E> are defined in section 4.2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F<E T="52">max</E>, F<E T="52">avg</E>, F<E T="52">min</E> are defined in Table 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.9 <I>Total weighted per-cycle water consumption for Warm Wash/Warm Rinse.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for the Warm Wash/Warm Rinse cycle, Qww<E T="52">T</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qww<E T="52">T</E> = [Qww<E T="52">max</E> × F<E T="52">max</E>] + [Qww<E T="52">avg</E> × F<E T="52">avg</E>] + [Qww<E T="52">min</E> × F<E T="52">min</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Qww<E T="52">max</E>, Qww<E T="52">avg</E>, Qww<E T="52">min</E> are defined in section 4.2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F<E T="52">max</E>, F<E T="52">avg</E>, F<E T="52">min</E> are defined in Table 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.10 <I>Total weighted per-cycle water consumption for Cold Wash/Cold Rinse.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for the Cold Wash/Cold Rinse cycle, Qc<E T="52">T</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Qc<E T="52">T</E> = [Qc<E T="52">max</E> × F<E T="52">max</E>] + [Qc<E T="52">avg</E> × F<E T="52">avg</E>] + [Qc<E T="52">min</E> × F<E T="52">min</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Qc<E T="52">max</E>, Qc<E T="52">avg</E>, Qc<E T="52">min</E> are defined in section 4.2.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F<E T="52">max</E>, F<E T="52">avg</E>, F<E T="52">min</E> are defined in Table 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.11 <I>Total weighted per-cycle water consumption for all wash cycles.</I> Calculate the total weighted per-cycle water consumption for all wash cycles, Q<E T="52">T</E>, expressed in gallons per cycle (or liters per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">T</E> = [Qm<E T="52">T</E> × TUF<E T="52">m</E>] + [Qh<E T="52">T</E> × TUF<E T="52">h</E>] + [Qw<E T="52">T</E> × TUF<E T="52">w</E>] + [Qww<E T="52">T</E> × TUF<E T="52">ww</E>] + [Qc<E T="52">T</E> × TUF<E T="52">c</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>Qm<E T="52">T</E>, Qh<E T="52">T</E>, Qw<E T="52">T</E>, Qww<E T="52">T</E>, and Qc<E T="52">T</E> are defined in sections 4.2.6 through 4.2.10 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>TUF<E T="52">m</E>, TUF<E T="52">h</E>, TUF<E T="52">w</E>, TUF<E T="52">ww</E>, and TUF<E T="52">c</E> are defined in Table 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.12 <I>Integrated water factor.</I> Calculate the integrated water factor, IWF, expressed in gallons per cycle per cubic foot (or liters per cycle per liter), as:
</P>
<FP-2>IWF = Q<E T="52">T</E>/C
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">T</E> = As defined in section 4.2.11 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = As defined in section 3.1.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3 <I>Per-cycle energy consumption for removal of moisture from test load.</I> Calculate the per-cycle energy required to remove the remaining moisture of the test load, D<E T="52">E</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<P>D<E T="52">E</E> = [(F<E T="52">max</E> × Maximum test load weight) + (F<E T="52">avg</E> × Average test load weight) + (F<E T="52">min</E> × Minimum test load weight)] × (RMC<E T="52">corr</E> - 4%) × (DEF) × (DUF)
</P>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>F<E T="52">max</E>, F<E T="52">avg</E>, and F<E T="52">min</E> are defined in Table 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Maximum, average, and minimum test load weights are defined in Table 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">corr</E> = As defined in section 3.8.2.6, 3.8.3.5, or 3.8.4.1 of this Appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DEF = Nominal energy required for a clothes dryer to remove moisture from clothes = 0.5 kWh/lb (1.1 kWh/kg).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DUF = Dryer usage factor, percentage of washer loads dried in a clothes dryer = 0.91.
</FP-2>
<P>4.4 <I>Per-cycle combined low-power mode energy consumption.</I> Calculate the per-cycle combined low-power mode energy consumption, E<E T="52">TLP</E>, expressed in kilowatt-hours per cycle and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = [(P<E T="52">default</E> × S<E T="52">default</E>) + (P<E T="52">lowest</E> × S<E T="52">lowest</E>)] × K<E T="52">p</E>/295
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>P<E T="52">default</E> = Default inactive/off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.9.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lowest</E> = Lowest-power inactive/off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.9.4 of this appendix for clothes washers with a switch, dial, or button that can be optionally selected by the end user to achieve a lower-power inactive/off mode than the default inactive/off mode; otherwise, P<E T="52">lowest</E>=0.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">default</E>= Annual hours in default inactive/off mode, defined as 8,465 if no optional lowest-power inactive/off mode is available; otherwise 4,232.5.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">lowest</E>= Annual hours in lowest-power inactive/off mode, defined as 0 if no optional lowest-power inactive/off mode is available; otherwise 4,232.5.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">p</E> = Conversion factor of watt-hours to kilowatt-hours = 0.001.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>295 = Representative average number of clothes washer cycles in a year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,465 = Combined annual hours for inactive and off mode.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,232.5 = One-half of the combined annual hours for inactive and off mode.
</FP-2>
<P>4.5 <I>Modified energy factor.</I> Calculate the modified energy factor, MEF<E T="52">J2</E>, expressed in cubic feet per kilowatt-hour per cycle (or liters per kilowatt-hour per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>MEF<E T="52">J2</E> = C/(E<E T="52">TE</E> + D<E T="52">E</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>C = As defined in section 3.1.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TE</E> = As defined in section 4.1.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">E</E> = As defined in section 4.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.6 <I>Integrated modified energy factor.</I> Calculate the integrated modified energy factor, IMEF, expressed in cubic feet per kilowatt-hour per cycle (or liters per kilowatt-hour per cycle) and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>IMEF = C/(E<E T="52">TE</E> + D<E T="52">E</E> + E<E T="52">TLP</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>C = As defined in section 3.1.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TE</E> = As defined in section 4.1.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">E</E> = As defined in section 4.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = As defined in section 4.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<HD1>5. Test Loads
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5.1—Test Load Sizes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Container volume
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum load
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Maximum load
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Average load
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">cu. ft.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">liter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">lb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">kg
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">lb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">kg
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">lb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">kg
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥ &lt;
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥ &lt;
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.00-0.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00-22.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.80-0.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22.7-25.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.90-1.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25.5-28.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.00-1.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">28.3-31.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.10-1.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">31.1-34.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.20-1.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">34.0-36.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.30-1.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36.8-39.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.93
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.40-1.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">39.6-42.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.50-1.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42.5-45.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.60-1.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45.3-48.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.70-1.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">48.1-51.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.80-1.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">51.0-53.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.90-2.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">53.8-56.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.00-2.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">56.6-59.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.10-2.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">59.5-62.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.20-2.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">62.3-65.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.77
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.30-2.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">65.1-68.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.86
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.40-2.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">68.0-70.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.50-2.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70.8-73.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.60-2.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">73.6-76.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.70-2.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">76.5-79.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.80-2.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">79.3-82.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.90-3.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">82.1-85.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.00-3.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85.0-87.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.10-3.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">87.8-90.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.20-3.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90.6-93.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.30-3.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">93.4-96.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.79
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.40-3.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">96.3-99.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.50-3.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">99.1-101.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.60-3.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">101.9-104.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.70-3.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">104.8-107.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.80-3.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">107.6-110.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.90-4.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">110.4-113.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.00-4.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">113.3-116.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.10-4.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">116.1-118.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.20-4.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">118.9-121.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.30-4.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">121.8-124.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.40-4.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">124.6-127.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.50-4.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">127.4-130.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.60-4.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">130.3-133.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.70-4.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">133.1-135.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.80-4.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">135.9-138.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.90-5.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">138.8-141.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.00-5.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">141.6-144.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.10-5.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">144.4-147.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.20-5.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">147.2-150.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.30-5.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150.1-152.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.40-5.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">152.9-155.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.50-5.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">155.7-158.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.60-5.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">158.6-161.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.93
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.70-5.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">161.4-164.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.80-5.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">164.2-167.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.90-6.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">167.1-169.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.00-6.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">169.9-172.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.10-6.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">172.7-175.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.20-6.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">175.6-178.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.30-6.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">178.4-181.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.40-6.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">181.2-184.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.50-6.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">184.1-186.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.60-6.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">186.9-189.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.70-6.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">189.7-192.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.96
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.80-6.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">192.6-195.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.90-7.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">195.4-198.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.00-7.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">198.2-201.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.10-7.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">201.0-203.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.20-7.30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">203.9-206.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.30-7.40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">206.7-209.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.40-7.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">209.5-212.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.50-7.60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">212.4-215.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.71
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.60-7.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">215.2-218.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.70-7.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">218.0-220.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.80-7.90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">220.9-223.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.90-8.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">223.7-226.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.07
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) All test load weights are bone-dry weights.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) Allowable tolerance on the test load weights is ±0.10 lbs (0.05 kg).</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 46767, Aug. 5, 2015; 80 FR 50757, Aug. 21, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 62443, Oct. 16, 2015; 87 FR 33395, June 1, 2022; 87 FR 78820, Dec. 23, 2022; 89 FR 84076, Oct. 21, 2024; 90 FR 5536, Jan. 17, 2025]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J3" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J3 to Subpart B of Part 430—Test Cloth Specifications and Procedures for Pre-Conditioning and Determining Correction Coefficients of New Test Cloth Lots




</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>DOE maintains an historical record of the standard extractor test data and final correction curve coefficients for each approved lot of energy test cloth. These can be accessed through DOE's web page for standards and test procedures for residential clothes washers at DOE's Building Technologies Office Appliance and Equipment Standards website.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Objective
</HD2>
<P>This appendix includes the following: (1) Specifications for the test cloth to be used for testing clothes washers and clothes dryers; (2) procedures for pre-conditioning the test cloth for use in testing clothes washers and clothes dryers; (3) procedures for verifying that new lots of test cloth meet the defined material specifications; and (4) procedures for developing a set of correction coefficients that correlate the measured remaining moisture content (RMC) values of each new test cloth lot with a set of standard RMC values established as an historical reference point. These correction coefficients are applied to the RMC measurements performed during testing according to appendix J or appendix J2 to this subpart, ensuring that the final corrected RMC measurement for a clothes washer remains independent of the test cloth lot used for testing.




</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>AHAM</I> means the Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers.
</P>
<P><I>Bone-dry</I> means a condition of a load of test cloth that has been dried in a dryer at maximum temperature for a minimum of 10 minutes, removed and weighed before cool down, and then dried again for 10 minute periods until the final weight change of the load is 1 percent or less.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means a quantity of cloth that has been manufactured with the same batches of cotton and polyester during one continuous process.
</P>
<P><I>Roll</I> means a subset of a lot.


</P>
<HD2>3. Test Cloth Specifications
</HD2>
<P>The energy test cloths and energy stuffer cloths must meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>3.1 The test cloth material must be one of the following two types:
</P>
<P>3.1.1 <I>Legacy Momie Cloth.</I> Test cloth meeting all of the specifications in sections 3.1.1.1 through 3.1.1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.1 <I>Fabric type.</I> Pure finished bleached cloth made with a momie, granite, or crepe weave.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.2 <I>Fiber content of warp and filling yarn.</I> 50% ± 4% cotton, with the balance being polyester, open end spun, 15/1 ± 5% cotton count blended yarn.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.3 <I>Thread count.</I> 65 x 57 per inch (warp × fill), ± 2%. Thread count is measured on the finished good, prior to pre-conditioning.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.4 <I>Fabric weight.</I> 5.60 ± 0.25 ounces per square yard (190.0 ± 8.4 g/m
<SU>2</SU>). Fabric weight is measured on the finished good, prior to pre-conditioning.
</P>
<P>3.1.2 <I>Modified AATCC Laundering Ballast Type 3.</I> Test cloth meeting the specifications in sections 3.1.2.1 through 3.1.2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.1 <I>Fabric Type.</I> Plain weave.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.2 <I>Fiber content of warp and filling yarn.</I> 50% cotton/50% polyester ± 3%, 16/1 ring spun.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.3 <I>Thread count.</I> 52 x 48 ± 5 yarns per inch. Thread count is measured on the finished good, prior to pre-conditioning.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.4 <I>Fabric weight.</I> 4.57 ± 0.29 ounces per square yard (155 ± 10 g/m
<SU>2</SU>). Fabric weight is measured on the finished good, prior to pre-conditioning.
</P>
<P>3.2 Water repellent finishes, such as fluoropolymer stain resistant finishes, must not be applied to the test cloth.
</P>
<P>3.3. <I>Test cloth dimensions.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.1 <I>Energy test cloth.</I> The energy test cloth must be made from test cloth material that is cut to 24 ± 
<FR>1/2</FR> inches by 36 ± 
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (61.0 ± 1.3 cm by 91.4 ± 1.3 cm), and hemmed to 22 ± 
<FR>1/2</FR> inches by 34 ± 
<FR>1/2</FR> inches (55.9 ± 1.3 cm by 86.4 ± 1.3 cm) before pre-conditioning.
</P>
<P>3.3.2 <I>Energy stuffer cloth.</I> The energy stuffer cloth must be made from the same test cloth material as the energy test cloth, cut to 12 ± 
<FR>1/4</FR> inches by 12 ± 
<FR>1/4</FR> inches (30.5 ± 0.6 cm by 30.5 ± 0.6 cm), and hemmed to 10 ± 
<FR>1/4</FR> inches by 10 ± 
<FR>1/4</FR> inches (25.4 ± 0.6 cm by 25.4 ± 0.6 cm) before pre-conditioning.








</P>
<HD2>4. Equipment Specifications
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Extractor.</I> Use a North Star Engineered Products Inc. (formerly Bock) Model 215 extractor (having a basket diameter of 20 inches, height of 11.5 inches, and volume of 2.09 ft
<SU>3</SU>), with a variable speed drive (North Star Engineered Products, P.O. Box 5127, Toledo, OH 43611) or an equivalent extractor with same basket design (<I>i.e.,</I> diameter, height, volume, and hole configuration) and variable speed drive. Table 4.1 of this appendix shows the extractor spin speed, in revolutions per minute (RPM), that must be used to attain each required g-force level.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.1—Extractor Spin Speeds for Each Test Condition
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">“g Force”
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">RPM
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">594 ± 1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">840 ± 1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,111 ± 1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,328 ± 1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,514 ± 1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.2 <I>Bone-dryer.</I> The dryer used for drying the cloth to bone-dry must heat the test cloth and energy stuffer cloths above 210 °F (99 °C).


</P>
<HD2>5. Test Cloth Pre-Conditioning Instructions
</HD2>
<P>Use the following instructions for performing pre-conditioning of new energy test cloths and energy stuffer cloths as specified throughout section 7 and section 8 of this appendix, before any clothes washer testing using appendix J or appendix J2 to this subpart, and before any clothes dryer testing using appendix D1 or appendix D2 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>5.1 Perform five complete wash-rinse-spin cycles, the first two with current AHAM Standard detergent Formula 3 and the last three without detergent. Place the test cloth in a clothes washer set at the maximum water level. Wash the load for ten minutes in soft water (17 ppm hardness or less) using 27.0 grams + 4.0 grams per pound of cloth load of AHAM Standard detergent Formula 3. The wash temperature is to be controlled to 135  °F ± 5  °F (57.2  °C ± 2.8  °C) and the rinse temperature is to be controlled to 60  °F ± 5  °F (15.6  °C ± 2.8  °C).
</P>
<P>5.2 Dry the load to bone-dry between each of the five wash-rinse-spin cycles.
</P>
<P>5.3 The maximum shrinkage after pre-conditioning must not be more than 5 percent of the length and width. Measure per AATCC Test Method 135-2010 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).






</P>
<HD2>6. Extractor Run Instructions
</HD2>
<P>Use the following instructions for performing each of the extractor runs specified throughout section 7 and section 8 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>6.1 <I>Test load size.</I> Use a test load size of 8.4 lbs.
</P>
<P>6.2 Measure the average RMC for each sample loads as follows:
</P>
<P>6.2.1 Dry the test cloth until it is bone-dry according to the definition in section 2 of this appendix. Record the bone-dry weight of the test load (WI).
</P>
<P>6.2.2 Prepare the test load for soak by grouping four test cloths into loose bundles. Create the bundles by hanging four cloths vertically from one corner and loosely wrapping the test cloth onto itself to form the bundle. Bundles should be wrapped loosely to ensure consistency of water extraction. Then place the bundles into the water to soak. Eight to nine bundles will be formed depending on the test load. The ninth bundle may not equal four cloths but can incorporate energy stuffer cloths to help offset the size difference.
</P>
<P>6.2.3 Soak the test load for 20 minutes in 10 gallons of soft (&lt;17 ppm) water. The entire test load must be submerged. Maintain a water temperature of 100 °F ± 5 °F (37.8 °C ± 2.8 °C) at all times between the start and end of the soak.
</P>
<P>6.2.4 Remove the test load and allow each of the test cloth bundles to drain over the water bath for a maximum of 5 seconds.
</P>
<P>6.2.5 Manually place the test cloth bundles in the basket of the extractor, distributing them evenly by eye. The draining and loading process must take no longer than 1 minute. Spin the load at a fixed speed corresponding to the intended centripetal acceleration level (measured in units of the acceleration of gravity, g) ± 1g for the intended time period ± 5 seconds. Begin the timer when the extractor meets the required spin speed for each test.
</P>
<P>6.2.6 Record the weight of the test load immediately after the completion of the extractor spin cycle (WC).
</P>
<P>6.2.7 Calculate the remaining moisture content of the test load as (WC-WI)/WI.
</P>
<P>6.2.8 Draining the soak tub is not necessary if the water bath is corrected for water level and temperature before the next extraction.
</P>
<P>6.2.9 Drying the test load in between extraction runs is not necessary. However, the bone-dry weight must be checked after every 12 extraction runs to make sure the bone-dry weight is within tolerance (8.4 ± 0.1 lbs). Following this, the test load must be soaked and extracted once before continuing with the remaining extraction runs. Perform this extraction at the same spin speed used for the extraction run prior to checking the bone-dry weight, for a time period of 4 minutes. Either warm or cold soak temperature may be used.
</P>
<HD2>7. Test Cloth Material Verification Procedure
</HD2>
<P>7.1 <I>Material Properties Verification.</I> The test cloth manufacturer must supply a certificate of conformance to ensure that the energy test cloth and stuffer cloth samples used for prequalification testing meet the specifications in section 3 of this appendix. The material properties of one energy test cloth from each of the first, middle, and last rolls must be evaluated as follows, prior to pre-conditioning:
</P>
<P>7.1.1 <I>Dimensions.</I> Each hemmed energy test cloth must meet the size specifications in section 3.3.1 of this appendix. Each hemmed energy stuffer cloth must meet the size specifications in section 3.3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7.1.2 <I>Oil repellency.</I> Perform AATCC Test Method 118-2007, Oil Repellency: Hydrocarbon Resistance Test, (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), to confirm the absence of Scotchguard<E T="51">TM</E> or other water-repellent finish. An Oil Repellency Grade of 0 (Fails Kaydol) is required.
</P>
<P>7.1.3 <I>Absorbency.</I> Perform AATCC Test Method 79-2010, Absorbency of Textiles, (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), to confirm the absence of Scotchguard<E T="51">TM</E> or other water-repellent finish. The time to absorb one drop must be on the order of 1 second.


</P>
<P>7.2 <I>Uniformity Verification.</I>


</P>
<P>7.2.1 <I>Pre-conditioning.</I> Pre-condition the energy test cloths and energy stuffer cloths used for uniformity verification, as specified in section 5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7.2.2 <I>Distribution of samples.</I> Test loads must be comprised of cloth from three different rolls from the sample lot. Each roll from a lot must be marked in the run order that it was made. The three rolls are selected based on the run order such that the first, middle, and last rolls are used. As the rolls are cut into cloth, fabric must be selected from the beginning, middle, and end of the roll to create separate loads from each location, for a total of nine sample loads according to Table 7.2.2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7.2.2—Distribution of Sample Loads for Prequalification Testing
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Roll No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Roll location
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">First</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beginning.
<br/>Middle.
<br/>End.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Middle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beginning.
<br/>Middle.
<br/>End.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Last</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beginning.
<br/>Middle.
<br/>End.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>7.2.3 Measure the remaining moisture content of each of the nine sample test loads, as specified in section 6 of this appendix, using a centripetal acceleration of 350g (corresponding to 1111 ± 1 RPM) and a spin duration of 15 minutes ± 5 seconds.
</P>
<P>7.2.4 Repeat section 7.2.3 of this appendix an additional two times and calculate the arithmetic average of the three RMC values to determine the average RMC value for each sample load. It is not necessary to dry the load to bone-dry the load before the second and third replications.
</P>
<P>7.2.5 Calculate the coefficient of variation (CV) of the nine average RMC values from each sample load. For test cloth lots qualified after February 18, 2025, the CV must be less than or equal to 1.5% for the test cloth lot to be considered acceptable and to perform the standard extractor RMC testing.


</P>
<HD2>8. RMC Correction Curve Procedure
</HD2>
<P>8.1 <I>Pre-conditioning.</I> Pre-condition the energy test cloths and energy stuffer cloths used for RMC correction curve measurements, as specified in section 5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>8.2 <I>Distribution of samples.</I> Test loads must be comprised of randomly selected cloth at the beginning, middle and end of a lot. Two test loads may be used, with each load used for half of the total number of required tests. Separate test loads must be used from the loads used for uniformity verification.
</P>
<P>8.3 Measure the remaining moisture content of the test load, as specified in section 6 of this appendix at five g-force levels: 100 g, 200 g, 350 g, 500 g, and 650 g, using two different spin times at each g level: 4 minutes and 15 minutes. Table 4.1 of this appendix provides the corresponding spin speeds for each g-force level.
</P>
<P>8.4 Repeat section 8.3 of this appendix using soft (&lt;17 ppm) water at 60 °F ± 5 °F (15.6 °C ± 2.8 °C).


</P>
<P>8.5 Repeat sections 8.3 and 8.4 of this appendix an additional two times, so that three replications at each extractor condition are performed. When this procedure is performed in its entirety, a total of 60 extractor RMC test runs are required.


</P>
<P>8.6 Calculate RMC<E T="52">cloth-avg</E> for each extractor test condition by averaging the values of the 3 replications performed specified in sections 8.3 and 8.4 of this appendix.






</P>
<P>8.7 Perform a linear least-squares fit to determine coefficients A and B such that the standard RMC values shown in Table 8.7 of this appendix (RMC<E T="52">standard</E>) are linearly related to the RMC<E T="52">cloth-avg</E> values calculated in section 8.6 of this appendix:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">standard</E> ∼ A × RMC<E T="52">cloth-avg</E> + B
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where A and B are coefficients of the linear least-squares fit.
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8.7—Standard RMC Values
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">“g Force”
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">RMC percentage
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Warm soak
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cold soak
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">15 min. spin


<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 min. spin


<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">15 min. spin


<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 min. spin


<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>8.8 Calculate the corrected RMC value for each extractor test condition, RMC<E T="52">cloth-corr</E> as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>RMC</I><E T="54">cloth-corr</E> = <I>A</I> × <I>RMC</I><E T="54">cloth-avg</E> + <I>B</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">cloth-avg</E> = the average RMC value, as calculated in section 8.6 of this appendix for each extractor test condition, expressed as a decimal, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A and B are the coefficients of the linear least squares fit as determined in section 8.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>8.9 Calculate the root mean square error of the linear fit, RMSE. For test cloth lots qualified after February 18, 2025, the RMSE must be less than or equal to 0.012 for the test cloth lot to be considered acceptable. The RMSE is calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17ja25.091.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">standard_i</E> = the RMC<E T="52">standard</E> value in Table 8.7 of this appendix for the ith extractor test condition, expressed as a decimal,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">cloth-corr_i</E> = the corrected RMC value, as calculated in section 8.8 of this appendix for the ith extractor test condition, expressed as a decimal, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = the number of extractor test conditions listed in Table 8.7 of this appendix = 20.


</FP-2>
<HD2>9. Application of the RMC Correction Curve
</HD2>
<P>9.1 Using the coefficients A and B calculated in section 8.7 of this appendix:
</P>
<FP-2>RMC<E T="52">corr</E> = A × RMC + B
</FP-2>
<P>9.2 Apply this RMC correction curve to measured RMC values in appendix J and appendix J2 to this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33403, June 1, 2022, as amended at 87 FR 78820, Dec. 23, 2022; 90 FR 5537, Jan. 17, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes K-L to Subpart B of Part 430 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Central Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to January 1, 2023, if using the appendix M test procedure for representations, including compliance certifications, with respect to the energy use, power, or efficiency of central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps, any such representations must be based on the results of testing pursuant to either this appendix or the procedures in appendix M as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, in the 10 CFR parts 200 to 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. Any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of such central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps must be in accordance with whichever version is selected. Any representations, including compliance certifications, made with respect to the energy use, power, or efficiency of central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps made on or after January 1, 2023, must be based on the results of testing pursuant the procedures in appendix M1 to this subpart.</P></NOTE>
<P>On or after July 5, 2017 and prior to January 1, 2023, any representations, including compliance certifications, made with respect to the energy use, power, or efficiency of central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps must be based on the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.
</P>
<P>On or after January 1, 2023, any representations, including compliance certifications, made with respect to the energy use, power, or efficiency of central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps must be based on the results of testing pursuant to appendix M1 of this subpart.
</P>
<HD1>1. Scope and Definitions
</HD1>
<HD2>1.1 Scope
</HD2>
<P>This test procedure provides a method of determining SEER, EER, HSPF and P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> for central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps including the following categories:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Split-system air conditioners, including single-split, multi-head mini-split, multi-split (including VRF), and multi-circuit systems
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Split-system heat pumps, including single-split, multi-head mini-split, multi-split (including VRF), and multi-circuit systems
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Single-package air conditioners
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Single-package heat pumps
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Small-duct, high-velocity systems (including VRF)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Space-constrained products—air conditioners
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(g) Space-constrained products—heat pumps
</FP-1>
<P>For purposes of this appendix, the Department of Energy incorporates by reference specific sections of several industry standards, as listed in § 430.3. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the incorporated standards.
</P>
<P>All section references refer to sections within this appendix unless otherwise stated.
</P>
<HD2>1.2 Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>Airflow-control settings</I> are programmed or wired control system configurations that control a fan to achieve discrete, differing ranges of airflow—often designated for performing a specific function (<I>e.g.,</I> cooling, heating, or constant circulation)—without manual adjustment other than interaction with a user-operable control (<I>i.e.,</I> a thermostat) that meets the manufacturer specifications for installed-use. For the purposes of this appendix, manufacturer specifications for installed-use are those found in the product literature shipped with the unit.
</P>
<P><I>Air sampling device</I> is an assembly consisting of a manifold with several branch tubes with multiple sampling holes that draws an air sample from a critical location from the unit under test (<I>e.g.</I> indoor air inlet, indoor air outlet, outdoor air inlet, etc.).
</P>
<P><I>Airflow prevention device</I> denotes a device that prevents airflow via natural convection by mechanical means, such as an air damper box, or by means of changes in duct height, such as an upturned duct.
</P>
<P><I>Aspirating psychrometer</I> is a piece of equipment with a monitored airflow section that draws uniform airflow through the measurement section and has probes for measurement of air temperature and humidity.
</P>
<P><I>Blower coil indoor unit</I> means an indoor unit either with an indoor blower housed with the coil or with a separate designated air mover such as a furnace or a modular blower (as defined in appendix AA to the subpart).
</P>
<P><I>Blower coil system</I> refers to a split system that includes one or more blower coil indoor units.
</P>
<P><I>Cased coil</I> means a coil-only indoor unit with external cabinetry.
</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of Performance (COP)</I> means the ratio of the average rate of space heating delivered to the average rate of electrical energy consumed by the heat pump. These rate quantities must be determined from a single test or, if derived via interpolation, must be determined at a single set of operating conditions. COP is a dimensionless quantity. When determined for a ducted coil-only system, COP must include the sections 3.7 and 3.9.1 of this appendix: Default values for the heat output and power input of a fan motor.
</P>
<P><I>Coil-only indoor unit</I> means an indoor unit that is distributed in commerce without an indoor blower or separate designated air mover. A coil-only indoor unit installed in the field relies on a separately-installed furnace or a modular blower for indoor air movement. <I>Coil-only system</I> refers to a system that includes only (one or more) coil-only indoor units.
</P>
<P><I>Condensing unit</I> removes the heat absorbed by the refrigerant to transfer it to the outside environment and consists of an outdoor coil, compressor(s), and air moving device.
</P>
<P><I>Constant-air-volume-rate indoor blower</I> means a fan that varies its operating speed to provide a fixed air-volume-rate from a ducted system.
</P>
<P><I>Continuously recorded,</I> when referring to a dry bulb measurement, dry bulb temperature used for test room control, wet bulb temperature, dew point temperature, or relative humidity measurements, means that the specified value must be sampled at regular intervals that are equal to or less than 15 seconds.
</P>
<P><I>Cooling load factor (CLF)</I> means the ratio having as its numerator the total cooling delivered during a cyclic operating interval consisting of one ON period and one OFF period, and as its denominator the total cooling that would be delivered, given the same ambient conditions, had the unit operated continuously at its steady-state, space-cooling capacity for the same total time (ON + OFF) interval.
</P>
<P><I>Crankcase heater</I> means any electrically powered device or mechanism for intentionally generating heat within and/or around the compressor sump volume. Crankcase heater control may be achieved using a timer or may be based on a change in temperature or some other measurable parameter, such that the crankcase heater is not required to operate continuously. A crankcase heater without controls operates continuously when the compressor is not operating.
</P>
<P><I>Cyclic Test</I> means a test where the unit's compressor is cycled on and off for specific time intervals. A cyclic test provides half the information needed to calculate a degradation coefficient.
</P>
<P><I>Damper box</I> means a short section of duct having an air damper that meets the performance requirements of section 2.5.7 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Degradation coefficient (C</I><E T="52">D</E><I>)</I> means a parameter used in calculating the part load factor. The degradation coefficient for cooling is denoted by C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>. The degradation coefficient for heating is denoted by C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>.
</P>
<P><I>Demand-defrost control system</I> means a system that defrosts the heat pump outdoor coil-only when measuring a predetermined degradation of performance. The heat pump's controls either:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor one or more parameters that always vary with the amount of frost accumulated on the outdoor coil (<I>e.g.,</I> coil to air differential temperature, coil differential air pressure, outdoor fan power or current, optical sensors) at least once for every ten minutes of compressor ON-time when space heating or
</P>
<P>(2) operate as a feedback system that measures the length of the defrost period and adjusts defrost frequency accordingly. In all cases, when the frost parameter(s) reaches a predetermined value, the system initiates a defrost. In a demand-defrost control system, defrosts are terminated based on monitoring a parameter(s) that indicates that frost has been eliminated from the coil. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Systems that vary defrost intervals according to outdoor dry-bulb temperature are not demand-defrost systems.) A demand-defrost control system, which otherwise meets the above requirements, may allow time-initiated defrosts if, and only if, such defrosts occur after 6 hours of compressor operating time.
</P>
<P><I>Design heating requirement (DHR)</I> predicts the space heating load of a residence when subjected to outdoor design conditions. Estimates for the minimum and maximum DHR are provided for six generalized U.S. climatic regions in section 4.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Dry-coil tests</I> are cooling mode tests where the wet-bulb temperature of the air supplied to the indoor unit is maintained low enough that no condensate forms on the evaporator coil.
</P>
<P><I>Ducted system</I> means an air conditioner or heat pump that is designed to be permanently installed equipment and delivers conditioned air to the indoor space through a duct(s). The air conditioner or heat pump may be either a split-system or a single-package unit.
</P>
<P><I>Energy efficiency ratio (EER)</I> means the ratio of the average rate of space cooling delivered to the average rate of electrical energy consumed by the air conditioner or heat pump. Determine these rate quantities from a single test or, if derived via interpolation, determine at a single set of operating conditions. EER is expressed in units of
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.305.gif"/>
<FP>When determined for a ducted coil-only system, EER must include, from this appendix, the section 3.3 and 3.5.1 default values for the heat output and power input of a fan motor.
</FP>
<P><I>Evaporator coil</I> means an assembly that absorbs heat from an enclosed space and transfers the heat to a refrigerant.
</P>
<P><I>Heat pump</I> means a kind of central air conditioner that utilizes an indoor conditioning coil, compressor, and refrigerant-to-outdoor air heat exchanger to provide air heating, and may also provide air cooling, air dehumidifying, air humidifying, air circulating, and air cleaning.
</P>
<P><I>Heat pump having a heat comfort controller</I> means a heat pump with controls that can regulate the operation of the electric resistance elements to assure that the air temperature leaving the indoor section does not fall below a specified temperature. Heat pumps that actively regulate the rate of electric resistance heating when operating below the balance point (as the result of a second stage call from the thermostat) but do not operate to maintain a minimum delivery temperature are not considered as having a heat comfort controller.
</P>
<P><I>Heating load factor (HLF)</I> means the ratio having as its numerator the total heating delivered during a cyclic operating interval consisting of one ON period and one OFF period, and its denominator the heating capacity measured at the same test conditions used for the cyclic test, multiplied by the total time interval (ON plus OFF) of the cyclic-test.
</P>
<P><I>Heating season</I> means the months of the year that require heating, <I>e.g.,</I> typically, and roughly, October through April.
</P>
<P><I>Heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF)</I> means the total space heating required during the heating season, expressed in Btu, divided by the total electrical energy consumed by the heat pump system during the same season, expressed in watt-hours. The HSPF used to evaluate compliance with 10 CFR 430.32(c) is based on Region IV and the sampling plan stated in 10 CFR 429.16(a). HSPF is determined in accordance with appendix M.
</P>
<P><I>Independent coil manufacturer (ICM)</I> means a manufacturer that manufactures indoor units but does not manufacture single-package units or outdoor units.
</P>
<P><I>Indoor unit</I> means a separate assembly of a split system that includes—
</P>
<P>(1) An arrangement of refrigerant-to-air heat transfer coil(s) for transfer of heat between the refrigerant and the indoor air,
</P>
<P>(2) A condensate drain pan, and may or may not include
</P>
<P>(3) Sheet metal or plastic parts not part of external cabinetry to direct/route airflow over the coil(s),
</P>
<P>(4) A cooling mode expansion device,
</P>
<P>(5) External cabinetry, and
</P>
<P>(6) An integrated indoor blower (<I>i.e.</I> a device to move air including its associated motor). A separate designated air mover that may be a furnace or a modular blower (as defined in appendix AA to the subpart) may be considered to be part of the indoor unit. A service coil is not an indoor unit.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-head mini-split system</I> means a split system that has one outdoor unit and that has two or more indoor units connected with a single refrigeration circuit. The indoor units operate in unison in response to a single indoor thermostat.
</P>
<P><I>Multiple-circuit (or multi-circuit) system</I> means a split system that has one outdoor unit and that has two or more indoor units installed on two or more refrigeration circuits such that each refrigeration circuit serves a compressor and one and only one indoor unit, and refrigerant is not shared from circuit to circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Multiple-split (or multi-split) system</I> means a split system that has one outdoor unit and two or more coil-only indoor units and/or blower coil indoor units connected with a single refrigerant circuit. The indoor units operate independently and can condition multiple zones in response to at least two indoor thermostats or temperature sensors. The outdoor unit operates in response to independent operation of the indoor units based on control input of multiple indoor thermostats or temperature sensors, and/or based on refrigeration circuit sensor input (<I>e.g.,</I> suction pressure).
</P>
<P><I>Nominal capacity</I> means the capacity that is claimed by the manufacturer on the product name plate. <I>Nominal cooling capacity</I> is approximate to the air conditioner cooling capacity tested at A or A<E T="52">2</E> condition. <I>Nominal heating capacity</I> is approximate to the heat pump heating capacity tested in H1<E T="52">N</E> test.
</P>
<P><I>Non-ducted indoor unit</I> means an indoor unit that is designed to be permanently installed, mounted on room walls and/or ceilings, and that directly heats or cools air within the conditioned space.
</P>
<P><I>Normalized Gross Indoor Fin Surface (NGIFS)</I> means the gross fin surface area of the indoor unit coil divided by the cooling capacity measured for the A or A2 Test, whichever applies.
</P>
<P><I>Off-mode power consumption</I> means the power consumption when the unit is connected to its main power source but is neither providing cooling nor heating to the building it serves.
</P>
<P><I>Off-mode season</I> means, for central air conditioners other than heat pumps, the shoulder season and the entire heating season; and for heat pumps, the shoulder season only.
</P>
<P><I>Outdoor unit</I> means a separate assembly of a split system that transfers heat between the refrigerant and the outdoor air, and consists of an outdoor coil, compressor(s), an air moving device, and in addition for heat pumps, may include a heating mode expansion device, reversing valve, and/or defrost controls.
</P>
<P><I>Outdoor unit manufacturer (OUM)</I> means a manufacturer of single-package units, outdoor units, and/or both indoor units and outdoor units.
</P>
<P><I>Part-load factor (PLF)</I> means the ratio of the cyclic EER (or COP for heating) to the steady-state EER (or COP), where both EERs (or COPs) are determined based on operation at the same ambient conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER)</I> means the total heat removed from the conditioned space during the annual cooling season, expressed in Btu's, divided by the total electrical energy consumed by the central air conditioner or heat pump during the same season, expressed in watt-hours. SEER is determined in accordance with appendix M.
</P>
<P><I>Service coil</I> means an arrangement of refrigerant-to-air heat transfer coil(s), condensate drain pan, sheet metal or plastic parts to direct/route airflow over the coil(s), which may or may not include external cabinetry and/or a cooling mode expansion device, distributed in commerce solely for replacing an uncased coil or cased coil that has already been placed into service, and that has been labeled “for indoor coil replacement only” on the nameplate and in manufacturer technical and product literature. The model number for any service coil must include some mechanism (<I>e.g.,</I> an additional letter or number) for differentiating a service coil from a coil intended for an indoor unit.
</P>
<P><I>Shoulder season</I> means the months of the year in between those months that require cooling and those months that require heating, <I>e.g.,</I> typically, and roughly, April through May, and September through October.
</P>
<P><I>Single-package unit</I> means any central air conditioner or heat pump that has all major assemblies enclosed in one cabinet.
</P>
<P><I>Single-split system</I> means a split system that has one outdoor unit and one indoor unit connected with a single refrigeration circuit. <I>Small-duct, high-velocity system</I> means a split system for which all indoor units are blower coil indoor units that produce at least 1.2 inches (of water column) of external static pressure when operated at the full-load air volume rate certified by the manufacturer of at least 220 scfm per rated ton of cooling.
</P>
<P><I>Split system</I> means any air conditioner or heat pump that has at least two separate assemblies that are connected with refrigerant piping when installed. One of these assemblies includes an indoor coil that exchanges heat with the indoor air to provide heating or cooling, while one of the others includes an outdoor coil that exchanges heat with the outdoor air. Split systems may be either blower coil systems or coil-only systems.
</P>
<P><I>Standard Air</I> means dry air having a mass density of 0.075 lb/ft
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P><I>Steady-state test</I> means a test where the test conditions are regulated to remain as constant as possible while the unit operates continuously in the same mode.
</P>
<P><I>Temperature bin</I> means the 5 °F increments that are used to partition the outdoor dry-bulb temperature ranges of the cooling (≥65 °F) and heating (&lt;65 °F) seasons.
</P>
<P><I>Test condition tolerance</I> means the maximum permissible difference between the average value of the measured test parameter and the specified test condition.
</P>
<P><I>Test operating tolerance</I> means the maximum permissible range that a measurement may vary over the specified test interval. The difference between the maximum and minimum sampled values must be less than or equal to the specified test operating tolerance.
</P>
<P><I>Tested combination</I> means a multi-head mini-split, multi-split, or multi-circuit system having the following features:
</P>
<P>(1) The system consists of one outdoor unit with one or more compressors matched with between two and five indoor units;
</P>
<P>(2) The indoor units must:
</P>
<P>(i) Collectively, have a nominal cooling capacity greater than or equal to 95 percent and less than or equal to 105 percent of the nominal cooling capacity of the outdoor unit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each represent the highest sales volume model family, if this is possible while meeting all the requirements of this section. If this is not possible, one or more of the indoor units may represent another indoor model family in order that all the other requirements of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(iii) Individually not have a nominal cooling capacity greater than 50 percent of the nominal cooling capacity of the outdoor unit, unless the nominal cooling capacity of the outdoor unit is 24,000 Btu/h or less;
</P>
<P>(iv) Operate at fan speeds consistent with manufacturer's specifications; and
</P>
<P>(v) All be subject to the same minimum external static pressure requirement while able to produce the same external static pressure at the exit of each outlet plenum when connected in a manifold configuration as required by the test procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) Where referenced, “nominal cooling capacity” means, for indoor units, the highest cooling capacity listed in published product literature for 95 °F outdoor dry bulb temperature and 80 °F dry bulb, 67 °F wet bulb indoor conditions, and for outdoor units, the lowest cooling capacity listed in published product literature for these conditions. If incomplete or no operating conditions are published, the highest (for indoor units) or lowest (for outdoor units) such cooling capacity available for sale must be used.
</P>
<P><I>Time-adaptive defrost control system</I> is a demand-defrost control system that measures the length of the prior defrost period(s) and uses that information to automatically determine when to initiate the next defrost cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Time-temperature defrost control systems</I> initiate or evaluate initiating a defrost cycle only when a predetermined cumulative compressor ON-time is obtained. This predetermined ON-time is generally a fixed value (<I>e.g.,</I> 30, 45, 90 minutes) although it may vary based on the measured outdoor dry-bulb temperature. The ON-time counter accumulates if controller measurements (<I>e.g.,</I> outdoor temperature, evaporator temperature) indicate that frost formation conditions are present, and it is reset/remains at zero at all other times. In one application of the control scheme, a defrost is initiated whenever the counter time equals the predetermined ON-time. The counter is reset when the defrost cycle is completed.
</P>
<P>In a second application of the control scheme, one or more parameters are measured (<I>e.g.,</I> air and/or refrigerant temperatures) at the predetermined, cumulative, compressor ON-time. A defrost is initiated only if the measured parameter(s) falls within a predetermined range. The ON-time counter is reset regardless of whether or not a defrost is initiated. If systems of this second type use cumulative ON-time intervals of 10 minutes or less, then the heat pump may qualify as having a demand defrost control system (see definition).
</P>
<P><I>Triple-capacity, northern heat pump</I> means a heat pump that provides two stages of cooling and three stages of heating. The two common stages for both the cooling and heating modes are the low capacity stage and the high capacity stage. The additional heating mode stage is the booster capacity stage, which offers the highest heating capacity output for a given set of ambient operating conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Triple-split system</I> means a split system that is composed of three separate assemblies: An outdoor fan coil section, a blower coil indoor unit, and an indoor compressor section.
</P>
<P><I>Two-capacity (or two-stage) compressor system</I> means a central air conditioner or heat pump that has a compressor or a group of compressors operating with only two stages of capacity. For such systems, low capacity means the compressor(s) operating at low stage, or at low load test conditions. The low compressor stage that operates for heating mode tests may be the same or different from the low compressor stage that operates for cooling mode tests. For such systems, high capacity means the compressor(s) operating at high stage, or at full load test conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Two-capacity, northern heat pump</I> means a heat pump that has a factory or field-selectable lock-out feature to prevent space cooling at high-capacity. Two-capacity heat pumps having this feature will typically have two sets of ratings, one with the feature disabled and one with the feature enabled. The heat pump is a two-capacity northern heat pump only when this feature is enabled at all times. The certified indoor coil model number must reflect whether the ratings pertain to the lockout enabled option via the inclusion of an extra identifier, such as “+LO”. When testing as a two-capacity, northern heat pump, the lockout feature must remain enabled for all tests.
</P>
<P><I>Uncased coil</I> means a coil-only indoor unit without external cabinetry.
</P>
<P><I>Variable refrigerant flow (VRF) system</I> means a multi-split system with at least three compressor capacity stages, distributing refrigerant through a piping network to multiple indoor blower coil units each capable of individual zone temperature control, through proprietary zone temperature control devices and a common communications network. <E T="04">Note:</E> Single-phase VRF systems less than 65,000 Btu/h are central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps.
</P>
<P><I>Variable-speed compressor system</I> means a central air conditioner or heat pump that has a compressor that uses a variable-speed drive to vary the compressor speed to achieve variable capacities.
</P>
<P><I>Wet-coil test</I> means a test conducted at test conditions that typically cause water vapor to condense on the test unit evaporator coil.
</P>
<HD1>2. Testing Overview and Conditions
</HD1>
<P>(A) Test VRF systems using AHRI 1230-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) and appendix M. Where AHRI 1230-2010 refers to the appendix C therein substitute the provisions of this appendix. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over AHRI 1230-2010.
</P>
<P>For definitions use section 1 of appendix M and section 3 of AHRI 1230-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). For rounding requirements, refer to § 430.23(m). For determination of certified ratings, refer to § 429.16 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>For test room requirements, refer to section 2.1 of this appendix. For test unit installation requirements refer to sections 2.2.a, 2.2.b, 2.2.c, 2.2.1, 2.2.2, 2.2.3(a), 2.2.3(c), 2.2.4, 2.2.5, and 2.4 to 2.12 of this appendix, and sections 5.1.3 and 5.1.4 of AHRI 1230-2010. The “manufacturer's published instructions,” as stated in section 8.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) and “manufacturer's installation instructions” discussed in this appendix mean the manufacturer's installation instructions that come packaged with or appear in the labels applied to the unit. This does not include online manuals. Installation instructions that appear in the labels applied to the unit take precedence over installation instructions that are shipped with the unit.
</P>
<P>For general requirements for the test procedure, refer to section 3.1 of this appendix, except for sections 3.1.3 and 3.1.4, which are requirements for indoor air volume and outdoor air volume. For indoor air volume and outdoor air volume requirements, refer instead to section 6.1.5 (except where section 6.1.5 refers to Table 8, refer instead to Table 4 of this appendix) and 6.1.6 of AHRI 1230-2010.
</P>
<P>For the test method, refer to sections 3.3 to 3.5 and 3.7 to 3.13 of this appendix. For cooling mode and heating mode test conditions, refer to section 6.2 of AHRI 1230-2010. For calculations of seasonal performance descriptors, refer to section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(B) For systems other than VRF, only a subset of the sections listed in this test procedure apply when testing and determining represented values for a particular unit. Table 1 shows the sections of the test procedure that apply to each system. This table is meant to assist manufacturers in finding the appropriate sections of the test procedure; the appendix sections rather than the table provide the specific requirements for testing, and given the varied nature of available units, manufacturers are responsible for determining which sections apply to each unit tested based on the unit's characteristics. To use this table, first refer to the sections listed under “all units”. Then refer to additional requirements based on:
</P>
<P>(1) System configuration(s),
</P>
<P>(2) The compressor staging or modulation capability, and
</P>
<P>(3) Any special features.
</P>
<P>Testing requirements for space-constrained products do not differ from similar equipment that is not space-constrained and thus are not listed separately in this table. Air conditioners and heat pumps are not listed separately in this table, but heating procedures and calculations apply only to heat pumps.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.006.gif"/>
<HD2>2.1 Test Room Requirements
</HD2>
<P>a. Test using two side-by-side rooms: An indoor test room and an outdoor test room. For multiple-split, single-zone-multi-coil or multi-circuit air conditioners and heat pumps, however, use as many indoor test rooms as needed to accommodate the total number of indoor units. These rooms must comply with the requirements specified in sections 8.1.2 and 8.1.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>b. Inside these test rooms, use artificial loads during cyclic tests and frost accumulation tests, if needed, to produce stabilized room air temperatures. For one room, select an electric resistance heater(s) having a heating capacity that is approximately equal to the heating capacity of the test unit's condenser. For the second room, select a heater(s) having a capacity that is close to the sensible cooling capacity of the test unit's evaporator. Cycle the heater located in the same room as the test unit evaporator coil ON and OFF when the test unit cycles ON and OFF. Cycle the heater located in the same room as the test unit condensing coil ON and OFF when the test unit cycles OFF and ON.
</P>
<HD2>2.2 Test Unit Installation Requirements
</HD2>
<P>a. Install the unit according to section 8.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), subject to the following additional requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) When testing split systems, follow the requirements given in section 6.1.3.5 of AHRI 210/240-2008 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). For the vapor refrigerant line(s), use the insulation included with the unit; if no insulation is provided, use insulation meeting the specifications for the insulation in the installation instructions included with the unit by the manufacturer; if no insulation is included with the unit and the installation instructions do not contain provisions for insulating the line(s), fully insulate the vapor refrigerant line(s) with vapor proof insulation having an inside diameter that matches the refrigerant tubing and a nominal thickness of at least 0.5 inches. For the liquid refrigerant line(s), use the insulation included with the unit; if no insulation is provided, use insulation meeting the specifications for the insulation in the installation instructions included with the unit by the manufacturer; if no insulation is included with the unit and the installation instructions do not contain provisions for insulating the line(s), leave the liquid refrigerant line(s) exposed to the air for air conditioners and heat pumps that heat and cool; or, for heating-only heat pumps, insulate the liquid refrigerant line(s) with insulation having an inside diameter that matches the refrigerant tubing and a nominal thickness of at least 0.5 inches. However, these requirements do not take priority over instructions for application of insulation for the purpose of improving refrigerant temperature measurement accuracy as required by sections 2.10.2 and 2.10.3 of this appendix. Insulation must be the same for the cooling and heating tests.
</P>
<P>(2) When testing split systems, if the indoor unit does not ship with a cooling mode expansion device, test the system using the device as specified in the installation instructions provided with the indoor unit. If none is specified, test the system using a fixed orifice or piston type expansion device that is sized appropriately for the system.
</P>
<P>(3) When testing triple-split systems (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions), use the tubing length specified in section 6.1.3.5 of AHRI 210/240-2008 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) to connect the outdoor coil, indoor compressor section, and indoor coil while still meeting the requirement of exposing 10 feet of the tubing to outside conditions;
</P>
<P>(4) When testing split systems having multiple indoor coils, connect each indoor blower coil unit to the outdoor unit using:
</P>
<P>(a) 25 feet of tubing, or
</P>
<P>(b) tubing furnished by the manufacturer, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>At least 10 feet of the system interconnection tubing shall be exposed to the outside conditions. If they are needed to make a secondary measurement of capacity or for verification of refrigerant charge, install refrigerant pressure measuring instruments as described in section 8.2.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). Section 2.10 of this appendix specifies which secondary methods require refrigerant pressure measurements and section 2.2.5.5 of this appendix discusses use of pressure measurements to verify charge. At a minimum, insulate the low-pressure line(s) of a split system with insulation having an inside diameter that matches the refrigerant tubing and a nominal thickness of 0.5 inch.
</P>
<P>b. For units designed for both horizontal and vertical installation or for both up-flow and down-flow vertical installations, use the orientation for testing specified by the manufacturer in the certification report. Conduct testing with the following installed:
</P>
<P>(1) The most restrictive filter(s);
</P>
<P>(2) Supplementary heating coils; and
</P>
<P>(3) Other equipment specified as part of the unit, including all hardware used by a heat comfort controller if so equipped (see section 1 of this appendix, Definitions). For small-duct, high-velocity systems, configure all balance dampers or restrictor devices on or inside the unit to fully open or lowest restriction.
</P>
<P>c. Testing a ducted unit without having an indoor air filter installed is permissible as long as the minimum external static pressure requirement is adjusted as stated in Table 4, note 3 (see section 3.1.4 of this appendix). Except as noted in section 3.1.10 of this appendix, prevent the indoor air supplementary heating coils from operating during all tests. For uncased coils, create an enclosure using 1 inch fiberglass foil-faced ductboard having a nominal density of 6 pounds per cubic foot. Or alternatively, construct an enclosure using sheet metal or a similar material and insulating material having a thermal resistance (“R” value) between 4 and 6 hr·ft
<SU>2</SU>· °F/Btu. Size the enclosure and seal between the coil and/or drainage pan and the interior of the enclosure as specified in installation instructions shipped with the unit. Also seal between the plenum and inlet and outlet ducts.
</P>
<P>d. When testing a coil-only system, install a toroidal-type transformer to power the system's low-voltage components, complying with any additional requirements for the transformer mentioned in the installation manuals included with the unit by the system manufacturer. If the installation manuals do not provide specifications for the transformer, use a transformer having the following features:
</P>
<P>(1) A nominal volt-amp rating such that the transformer is loaded between 25 and 90 percent of this rating for the highest level of power measured during the off mode test (section 3.13 of this appendix);
</P>
<P>(2) Designed to operate with a primary input of 230 V, single phase, 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(3) That provides an output voltage that is within the specified range for each low-voltage component. Include the power consumption of the components connected to the transformer as part of the total system power consumption during the off mode tests; do not include the power consumed by the transformer when no load is connected to it.
</P>
<P>e. Test an outdoor unit with no match (<I>i.e.,</I> that is not distributed in commerce with any indoor units) using a coil-only indoor unit with a single cooling air volume rate whose coil has:
</P>
<P>(1) Round tubes of outer diameter no less than 0.375 inches, and
</P>
<P>(2) a normalized gross indoor fin surface (NGIFS) no greater than 1.0 square inches per British thermal unit per hour (sq. in./Btu/hr). NGIFS is calculated as follows:
</P>
<P><I>NGIFS</I> = 2 × <I>L</I><E T="54">f</E> × <I>W</I><E T="54">f</E> × <I>N</I><E T="54">f</E> ÷ <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E>(95)
</P>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">f</E> = Indoor coil fin length in inches, also height of the coil transverse to the tubes.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">f</E> = Indoor coil fin width in inches, also depth of the coil.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N<E T="52">f</E> = Number of fins.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="52">c</E>(95) = the measured space cooling capacity of the tested outdoor unit/indoor unit combination as determined from the A2 or A Test whichever applies, Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<P>ƒ. If the outdoor unit or the outdoor portion of a single-package unit has a drain pan heater to prevent freezing of defrost water, the heater shall be energized, subject to control to de-energize it when not needed by the heater's thermostat or the unit's control system, for all tests.
</P>
<P>g. If pressure measurement devices are connected to a cooling/heating heat pump refrigerant circuit, the refrigerant charge M<E T="52">t</E> that could potentially transfer out of the connected pressure measurement systems (transducers, gauges, connections, and lines) between operating modes must be less than 2 percent of the factory refrigerant charge listed on the nameplate of the outdoor unit. If the outdoor unit nameplate has no listed refrigerant charge, or the heat pump is shipped without a refrigerant charge, use a factory refrigerant charge equal to 30 ounces per ton of certified cooling capacity. Use Equation 2.2-1 to calculate M<E T="52">t</E> for heat pumps that have a single expansion device located in the outdoor unit to serve each indoor unit, and use Equation 2.2-2 to calculate M<E T="52">t</E> for heat pumps that have two expansion devices per indoor unit.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.027.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">i</E> (i=2,3,4. . .) = the internal volume of the pressure measurement system (pressure lines, fittings, and gauge and/or transducer) at the location i (as indicated in Table 2), (cubic inches)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>f<E T="52">i</E> (i=5,6) = 0 if the pressure measurement system is pitched upwards from the pressure tap location to the gauge or transducer, 1 if it is not.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="8151">r</E> = the density associated with liquid refrigerant at 100 °F bubble point conditions (ounces per cubic inch)
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Pressure Measurement Locations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Location
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Compressor Discharge</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Between Outdoor Coil and Outdoor Expansion Valve(s)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquid Service Valve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor Coil Inlet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor Coil Outlet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Common Suction Port (i.e. vapor service valve)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Compressor Suction</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Calculate the internal volume of each pressure measurement system using internal volume reported for pressure transducers and gauges in product literature, if available. If such information is not available, use the value of 0.1 cubic inches internal volume for each pressure transducer, and 0.2 cubic inches for each pressure gauge.
</P>
<P>In addition, for heat pumps that have a single expansion device located in the outdoor unit to serve each indoor unit, the internal volume of the pressure system at location 2 (as indicated in Table 2) must be no more than 1 cubic inch. Once the pressure measurement lines are set up, no change should be made until all tests are finished.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.1 Defrost Control Settings
</HD3>
<P>Set heat pump defrost controls at the normal settings which most typify those encountered in generalized climatic region IV. (Refer to Figure 1 and Table 20 of section 4.2 of this appendix for information on region IV.) For heat pumps that use a time-adaptive defrost control system (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions), the manufacturer must specify in the certification report the frosting interval to be used during frost accumulation tests and provide the procedure for manually initiating the defrost at the specified time.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.2 Special Requirements for Units Having a Multiple-Speed Outdoor Fan
</HD3>
<P>Configure the multiple-speed outdoor fan according to the installation manual included with the unit by the manufacturer, and thereafter, leave it unchanged for all tests. The controls of the unit must regulate the operation of the outdoor fan during all lab tests except dry coil cooling mode tests. For dry coil cooling mode tests, the outdoor fan must operate at the same speed used during the required wet coil test conducted at the same outdoor test conditions.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.3 Special Requirements for Multi-Split Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps and Ducted Systems Using a Single Indoor Section Containing Multiple Indoor Blowers That Would Normally Operate Using Two or More Indoor Thermostats
</HD3>
<P>Because these systems will have more than one indoor blower and possibly multiple outdoor fans and compressor systems, references in this test procedure to a singular indoor blower, outdoor fan, and/or compressor means all indoor blowers, all outdoor fans, and all compressor systems that are energized during the test.
</P>
<P>a. Additional requirements for multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps. For any test where the system is operated at part load (<I>i.e.,</I> one or more compressors “off”, operating at the intermediate or minimum compressor speed, or at low compressor capacity), record the indoor coil(s) that are not providing heating or cooling during the test. For variable-speed systems, the manufacturer must designate in the certification report at least one indoor unit that is not providing heating or cooling for all tests conducted at minimum compressor speed.
</P>
<P>b. Additional requirements for ducted split systems with a single indoor unit containing multiple indoor blowers (or for single-package units with an indoor section containing multiple indoor blowers) where the indoor blowers are designed to cycle on and off independently of one another and are not controlled such that all indoor blowers are modulated to always operate at the same air volume rate or speed. For any test where the system is operated at its lowest capacity—<I>i.e.,</I> the lowest total air volume rate allowed when operating the single-speed compressor or when operating at low compressor capacity—indoor blowers accounting for at least one-third of the full-load air volume rate must be turned off unless prevented by the controls of the unit. In such cases, turn off as many indoor blowers as permitted by the unit's controls. Where more than one option exists for meeting this “off” requirement, the manufacturer shall indicate in its certification report which indoor blower(s) are turned off. The chosen configuration shall remain unchanged for all tests conducted at the same lowest capacity configuration. For any indoor coil turned off during a test, cease forced airflow through any outlet duct connected to a switched-off indoor blower.
</P>
<P>c. For test setups where the laboratory's physical limitations requires use of more than the required line length of 25 feet as listed in section 2.2.a(4) of this appendix, then the actual refrigerant line length used by the laboratory may exceed the required length and the refrigerant line length correction factors in Table 4 of AHRI 1230-2010 are applied to the cooling capacity measured for each cooling mode test.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.4 Wet-Bulb Temperature Requirements for the Air Entering the Indoor and Outdoor Coils
</HD3>
<HD3>2.2.4.1 Cooling Mode Tests
</HD3>
<P>For wet-coil cooling mode tests, regulate the water vapor content of the air entering the indoor unit so that the wet-bulb temperature is as listed in Tables 5 to 8. As noted in these same tables, achieve a wet-bulb temperature during dry-coil cooling mode tests that results in no condensate forming on the indoor coil. Controlling the water vapor content of the air entering the outdoor side of the unit is not required for cooling mode tests except when testing:
</P>
<P>(1) Units that reject condensate to the outdoor coil during wet coil tests. Tables 5-8 list the applicable wet-bulb temperatures.
</P>
<P>(2) Single-package units where all or part of the indoor section is located in the outdoor test room. The average dew point temperature of the air entering the outdoor coil during wet coil tests must be within ±3.0 °F of the average dew point temperature of the air entering the indoor coil over the 30-minute data collection interval described in section 3.3 of this appendix. For dry coil tests on such units, it may be necessary to limit the moisture content of the air entering the outdoor coil of the unit to meet the requirements of section 3.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.4.2 Heating Mode Tests
</HD3>
<P>For heating mode tests, regulate the water vapor content of the air entering the outdoor unit to the applicable wet-bulb temperature listed in Tables 12 to 15. The wet-bulb temperature entering the indoor side of the heat pump must not exceed 60 °F. Additionally, if the Outdoor Air Enthalpy test method (section 2.10.1 of this appendix) is used while testing a single-package heat pump where all or part of the outdoor section is located in the indoor test room, adjust the wet-bulb temperature for the air entering the indoor side to yield an indoor-side dew point temperature that is as close as reasonably possible to the dew point temperature of the outdoor-side entering air.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.5 Additional Refrigerant Charging Requirements
</HD3>
<HD3>2.2.5.1 Instructions To Use for Charging
</HD3>
<P>a. Where the manufacturer's installation instructions contain two sets of refrigerant charging criteria, one for field installations and one for lab testing, use the field installation criteria.
</P>
<P>b. For systems consisting of an outdoor unit manufacturer's outdoor section and indoor section with differing charging procedures, adjust the refrigerant charge per the outdoor installation instructions.
</P>
<P>c. For systems consisting of an outdoor unit manufacturer's outdoor unit and an independent coil manufacturer's indoor unit with differing charging procedures, adjust the refrigerant charge per the indoor unit's installation instructions. If instructions are provided only with the outdoor unit or are provided only with an independent coil manufacturer's indoor unit, then use the provided instructions.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.5.2 Test(s) To Use for Charging
</HD3>
<P>a. Use the tests or operating conditions specified in the manufacturer's installation instructions for charging. The manufacturer's installation instructions may specify use of tests other than the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test for charging, but, unless the unit is a heating-only heat pump, the air volume rate must be determined by the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test as specified in section 3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. If the manufacturer's installation instructions do not specify a test or operating conditions for charging or there are no manufacturer's instructions, use the following test(s):
</P>
<P>(1) For air conditioners or cooling and heating heat pumps, use the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test.
</P>
<P>(2) For cooling and heating heat pumps that do not operate in the H1 or H1<E T="52">2</E> test (<I>e.g.</I> due to shut down by the unit limiting devices) when tested using the charge determined at the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test, and for heating-only heat pumps, use the H1 or H1<E T="52">2</E> test.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.5.3 Parameters To Set and Their Target Values
</HD3>
<P>a. Consult the manufacturer's installation instructions regarding which parameters (<I>e.g.,</I> superheat) to set and their target values. If the instructions provide ranges of values, select target values equal to the midpoints of the provided ranges.
</P>
<P>b. In the event of conflicting information between charging instructions (<I>i.e.,</I> multiple conditions given for charge adjustment where all conditions specified cannot be met), follow the following hierarchy.
</P>
<P>(1) For fixed orifice systems:
</P>
<P>(i) Superheat
</P>
<P>(ii) High side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew-point temperature
</P>
<P>(iii) Low side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew-point temperature
</P>
<P>(iv) Low side temperature
</P>
<P>(v) High side temperature
</P>
<P>(vi) Charge weight
</P>
<P>(2) For expansion valve systems:
</P>
<P>(i) Subcooling
</P>
<P>(ii) High side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew-point temperature
</P>
<P>(iii) Low side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew-point temperature
</P>
<P>(iv) Approach temperature (difference between temperature of liquid leaving condenser and condenser average inlet air temperature)
</P>
<P>(v) Charge weight
</P>
<P>c. If there are no installation instructions and/or they do not provide parameters and target values, set superheat to a target value of 12 °F for fixed orifice systems or set subcooling to a target value of 10 °F for expansion valve systems.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.5.4 Charging Tolerances
</HD3>
<P>a. If the manufacturer's installation instructions specify tolerances on target values for the charging parameters, set the values within these tolerances.
</P>
<P>b. Otherwise, set parameter values within the following test condition tolerances for the different charging parameters:
</P>
<FP-1>1. Superheat: ± 2.0 °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2. Subcooling: ± 2.0 °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3. High side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew point temperature: ± 4.0 psi or ± 1.0 °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4. Low side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew point temperature: ± 2.0 psi or ± 0.8 °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>5. High side temperature: ±2.0 °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>6. Low side temperature: ±2.0 °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>7. Approach temperature: ± 1.0 °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>8. Charge weight: ± 2.0 ounce
</FP-1>
<HD3>2.2.5.5 Special Charging Instructions
</HD3>
<HD3>a. Cooling and Heating Heat Pumps
</HD3>
<P>If, using the initial charge set in the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test, the conditions are not within the range specified in manufacturer's installation instructions for the H1 or H1<E T="52">2</E> test, make as small as possible an adjustment to obtain conditions for this test in the specified range. After this adjustment, recheck conditions in the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test to confirm that they are still within the specified range for the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test.
</P>
<HD3>b. Single-Package Systems
</HD3>
<P>Unless otherwise directed by the manufacturer's installation instructions, install one or more refrigerant line pressure gauges during the setup of the unit, located depending on the parameters used to verify or set charge, as described:
</P>
<P>(1) Install a pressure gauge at the location of the service valve on the liquid line if charging is on the basis of subcooling, or high side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew point temperature;
</P>
<P>(2) Install a pressure gauge at the location of the service valve on the suction line if charging is on the basis of superheat, or low side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew point temperature.
</P>
<P>Use methods for installing pressure gauge(s) at the required location(s) as indicated in manufacturer's instructions if specified.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.5.6 Near-Azeotropic and Zeotropic Refrigerants.
</HD3>
<P>Perform charging of near-azeotropic and zeotropic refrigerants only with refrigerant in the liquid state.
</P>
<HD3>2.2.5.7 Adjustment of Charge Between Tests.
</HD3>
<P>After charging the system as described in this test procedure, use the set refrigerant charge for all tests used to determine performance. Do not adjust the refrigerant charge at any point during testing. If measurements indicate that refrigerant charge has leaked during the test, repair the refrigerant leak, repeat any necessary set-up steps, and repeat all tests.
</P>
<HD3>2.3 Indoor Air Volume Rates.
</HD3>
<P>If a unit's controls allow for overspeeding the indoor blower (usually on a temporary basis), take the necessary steps to prevent overspeeding during all tests.
</P>
<HD3>2.3.1 Cooling Tests
</HD3>
<P>a. Set indoor blower airflow-control settings (<I>e.g.,</I> fan motor pin settings, fan motor speed) according to the requirements that are specified in section 3.1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. Express the Cooling full-load air volume rate, the Cooling Minimum Air Volume Rate, and the Cooling Intermediate Air Volume Rate in terms of standard air.
</P>
<HD3>2.3.2 Heating Tests
</HD3>
<P>a. Set indoor blower airflow-control settings (<I>e.g.,</I> fan motor pin settings, fan motor speed) according to the requirements that are specified in section 3.1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. Express the heating full-load air volume rate, the heating minimum air volume rate, the heating intermediate air volume rate, and the heating nominal air volume rate in terms of standard air.
</P>
<HD2>2.4 Indoor Coil Inlet and Outlet Duct Connections
</HD2>
<P>Insulate and/or construct the outlet plenum as described in section 2.4.1 of this appendix and, if installed, the inlet plenum described in section 2.4.2 of this appendix with thermal insulation having a nominal overall resistance (R-value) of at least 19 hr·ft
<SU>2</SU>· °F/Btu.
</P>
<HD3>2.4.1 Outlet Plenum for the Indoor Unit
</HD3>
<P>a. Attach a plenum to the outlet of the indoor coil. (<E T="04">Note:</E> For some packaged systems, the indoor coil may be located in the outdoor test room.)
</P>
<P>b. For systems having multiple indoor coils, or multiple indoor blowers within a single indoor section, attach a plenum to each indoor coil or indoor blower outlet. In order to reduce the number of required airflow measurement apparati (section 2.6 of this appendix), each such apparatus may serve multiple outlet plenums connected to a single common duct leading to the apparatus. More than one indoor test room may be used, which may use one or more common ducts leading to one or more airflow measurement apparati within each test room that contains multiple indoor coils. At the plane where each plenum enters a common duct, install an adjustable airflow damper and use it to equalize the static pressure in each plenum. Each outlet air temperature grid (section 2.5.4 of this appendix) and airflow measuring apparatus are located downstream of the inlet(s) to the common duct. For multiple-circuit (or multi-circuit) systems for which each indoor coil outlet is measured separately and its outlet plenum is not connected to a common duct connecting multiple outlet plenums, the outlet air temperature grid and airflow measuring apparatus must be installed at each outlet plenum.
</P>
<P>c. For small-duct, high-velocity systems, install an outlet plenum that has a diameter that is equal to or less than the value listed in Table 3. The limit depends only on the Cooling full-load air volume rate (see section 3.1.4.1.1 of this appendix) and is effective regardless of the flange dimensions on the outlet of the unit (or an air supply plenum adapter accessory, if installed in accordance with the manufacturer's installation instructions).
</P>
<P>d. Add a static pressure tap to each face of the (each) outlet plenum, if rectangular, or at four evenly distributed locations along the circumference of an oval or round plenum. Create a manifold that connects the four static pressure taps. Figure 9 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) shows allowed options for the manifold configuration. The cross-sectional dimensions of plenum shall be equal to the dimensions of the indoor unit outlet. See Figures 7a, 7b, and 7c of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 for the minimum length of the (each) outlet plenum and the locations for adding the static pressure taps for ducted blower coil indoor units and single-package systems. See Figure 8 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 for coil-only indoor units.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Size of Outlet Plenum for Small-Duct High-Velocity Indoor Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling full-load
<br/>air volume rate
<br/>(scfm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>diameter *
<br/>of outlet
<br/>plenum
<br/>(inches)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">501 to 700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">701 to 900</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">901 to 1100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1101 to 1400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1401 to 1750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* If the outlet plenum is rectangular, calculate its equivalent diameter using (4<E T="03">A/P,</E>) where <E T="03">A</E> is the cross-sectional area and P is the perimeter of the rectangular plenum, and compare it to the listed maximum diameter.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>2.4.2 Inlet Plenum for the Indoor Unit
</HD3>
<P>Install an inlet plenum when testing a coil-only indoor unit, a ducted blower coil indoor unit, or a single-package system. See Figures 7b and 7c of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 for cross-sectional dimensions, the minimum length of the inlet plenum, and the locations of the static-pressure taps for ducted blower coil indoor units and single-package systems. See Figure 8 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 for coil-only indoor units. The inlet plenum duct size shall equal the size of the inlet opening of the air-handling (blower coil) unit or furnace. For a ducted blower coil indoor unit the set up may omit the inlet plenum if an inlet airflow prevention device is installed with a straight internally unobstructed duct on its outlet end with a minimum length equal to 1.5 times the square root of the cross-sectional area of the indoor unit inlet. See section 2.5.1.2 of this appendix for requirements for the locations of static pressure taps built into the inlet airflow prevention device. For all of these arrangements, make a manifold that connects the four static-pressure taps using one of the three configurations specified in section 2.4.1.d of this appendix. Never use an inlet plenum when testing non-ducted indoor units.
</P>
<HD2>2.5 Indoor Coil Air Property Measurements and Airflow Prevention Devices
</HD2>
<P>Follow instructions for indoor coil air property measurements as described in section 2.14 of this appendix, unless otherwise instructed in this section.
</P>
<P>a. Measure the dry-bulb temperature and water vapor content of the air entering and leaving the indoor coil. If needed, use an air sampling device to divert air to a sensor(s) that measures the water vapor content of the air. See section 5.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) for guidance on constructing an air sampling device. No part of the air sampling device or the tubing transferring the sampled air to the sensor shall be within two inches of the test chamber floor, and the transfer tubing shall be insulated. The sampling device may also be used for measurement of dry bulb temperature by transferring the sampled air to a remotely located sensor(s). The air sampling device and the remotely located temperature sensor(s) may be used to determine the entering air dry bulb temperature during any test. The air sampling device and the remotely located sensor(s) may be used to determine the leaving air dry bulb temperature for all tests except:
</P>
<P>(1) Cyclic tests; and
</P>
<P>(2) Frost accumulation tests.
</P>
<P>b. Install grids of temperature sensors to measure dry bulb temperatures of both the entering and leaving airstreams of the indoor unit. These grids of dry bulb temperature sensors may be used to measure average dry bulb temperature entering and leaving the indoor unit in all cases (as an alternative to the dry bulb sensor measuring the sampled air). The leaving airstream grid is required for measurement of average dry bulb temperature leaving the indoor unit for the two special cases noted above. The grids are also required to measure the air temperature distribution of the entering and leaving airstreams as described in sections 3.1.8 and 3.1.9 of this appendix. Two such grids may applied as a thermopile, to directly obtain the average temperature difference rather than directly measuring both entering and leaving average temperatures.
</P>
<P>c. Use of airflow prevention devices. Use an inlet and outlet air damper box, or use an inlet upturned duct and an outlet air damper box when conducting one or both of the cyclic tests listed in sections 3.2 and 3.6 of this appendix on ducted systems. If not conducting any cyclic tests, an outlet air damper box is required when testing ducted and non-ducted heat pumps that cycle off the indoor blower during defrost cycles and there is no other means for preventing natural or forced convection through the indoor unit when the indoor blower is off. Never use an inlet damper box or an inlet upturned duct when testing non-ducted indoor units. An inlet upturned duct is a length of ductwork installed upstream from the inlet such that the indoor duct inlet opening, facing upwards, is sufficiently high to prevent natural convection transfer out of the duct. If an inlet upturned duct is used, install a dry bulb temperature sensor near the inlet opening of the indoor duct at a centerline location not higher than the lowest elevation of the duct edges at the inlet, and ensure that any pair of 5-minute averages of the dry bulb temperature at this location, measured at least every minute during the compressor OFF period of the cyclic test, do not differ by more than 1.0 °F.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.1 Test Set-Up on the Inlet Side of the Indoor Coil: For Cases Where the Inlet Airflow Prevention Device Is Installed
</HD3>
<P>a. Install an airflow prevention device as specified in section 2.5.1.1 or 2.5.1.2 of this appendix, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>b. For an inlet damper box, locate the grid of entering air dry-bulb temperature sensors, if used, and the air sampling device, or the sensor used to measure the water vapor content of the inlet air, at a location immediately upstream of the damper box inlet. For an inlet upturned duct, locate the grid of entering air dry-bulb temperature sensors, if used, and the air sampling device, or the sensor used to measure the water vapor content of the inlet air, at a location at least one foot downstream from the beginning of the insulated portion of the duct but before the static pressure measurement.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.1.1 If the Section 2.4.2 Inlet Plenum Is Installed
</HD3>
<P>Construct the airflow prevention device having a cross-sectional flow area equal to or greater than the flow area of the inlet plenum. Install the airflow prevention device upstream of the inlet plenum and construct ductwork connecting it to the inlet plenum. If needed, use an adaptor plate or a transition duct section to connect the airflow prevention device with the inlet plenum. Insulate the ductwork and inlet plenum with thermal insulation that has a nominal overall resistance (R-value) of at least 19 hr · ft
<SU>2</SU> · °F/Btu.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.1.2 If the Section 2.4.2 Inlet Plenum Is Not Installed
</HD3>
<P>Construct the airflow prevention device having a cross-sectional flow area equal to or greater than the flow area of the air inlet of the indoor unit. Install the airflow prevention device immediately upstream of the inlet of the indoor unit. If needed, use an adaptor plate or a short transition duct section to connect the airflow prevention device with the unit's air inlet. Add static pressure taps at the center of each face of a rectangular airflow prevention device, or at four evenly distributed locations along the circumference of an oval or round airflow prevention device. Locate the pressure taps at a distance from the indoor unit inlet equal to 0.5 times the square root of the cross sectional area of the indoor unit inlet. This location must be between the damper and the inlet of the indoor unit, if a damper is used. Make a manifold that connects the four static pressure taps using one of the configurations shown in Figure 9 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). Insulate the ductwork with thermal insulation that has a nominal overall resistance (R-value) of at least 19 hr · ft
<SU>2</SU> · °F/Btu.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.2 Test Set-Up on the Inlet Side of the Indoor Unit: for Cases Where No Airflow Prevention Device is Installed
</HD3>
<P>If using the section 2.4.2 inlet plenum and a grid of dry bulb temperature sensors, mount the grid at a location upstream of the static pressure taps described in section 2.4.2 of this appendix, preferably at the entrance plane of the inlet plenum. If the section 2.4.2 inlet plenum is not used (<I>i.e.</I> for non-ducted units) locate a grid approximately 6 inches upstream of the indoor unit inlet. In the case of a system having multiple non-ducted indoor units, do this for each indoor unit. Position an air sampling device, or the sensor used to measure the water vapor content of the inlet air, immediately upstream of the (each) entering air dry-bulb temperature sensor grid. If a grid of sensors is not used, position the entering air sampling device (or the sensor used to measure the water vapor content of the inlet air) as if the grid were present.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.3 Indoor Coil Static Pressure Difference Measurement
</HD3>
<P>Fabricate pressure taps meeting all requirements described in section 6.5.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) and illustrated in Figure 2A of AMCA 210-2007 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), however, if adhering strictly to the description in section 6.5.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, the minimum pressure tap length of 2.5 times the inner diameter of Figure 2A of AMCA 210-2007 is waived. Use a differential pressure measuring instrument that is accurate to within ±0.01 inches of water and has a resolution of at least 0.01 inches of water to measure the static pressure difference between the indoor coil air inlet and outlet. Connect one side of the differential pressure instrument to the manifolded pressure taps installed in the outlet plenum. Connect the other side of the instrument to the manifolded pressure taps located in either the inlet plenum or incorporated within the airflow prevention device. For non-ducted indoor units that are tested with multiple outlet plenums, measure the static pressure within each outlet plenum relative to the surrounding atmosphere.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.4 Test Set-Up on the Outlet Side of the Indoor Coil
</HD3>
<P>a. Install an interconnecting duct between the outlet plenum described in section 2.4.1 of this appendix and the airflow measuring apparatus described below in section 2.6 of this appendix. The cross-sectional flow area of the interconnecting duct must be equal to or greater than the flow area of the outlet plenum or the common duct used when testing non-ducted units having multiple indoor coils. If needed, use adaptor plates or transition duct sections to allow the connections. To minimize leakage, tape joints within the interconnecting duct (and the outlet plenum). Construct or insulate the entire flow section with thermal insulation having a nominal overall resistance (R-value) of at least 19 hr·ft
<SU>2</SU>· °F/Btu.
</P>
<P>b. Install a grid(s) of dry-bulb temperature sensors inside the interconnecting duct. Also, install an air sampling device, or the sensor(s) used to measure the water vapor content of the outlet air, inside the interconnecting duct. Locate the dry-bulb temperature grid(s) upstream of the air sampling device (or the in-duct sensor(s) used to measure the water vapor content of the outlet air). Turn off the sampler fan motor during the cyclic tests. Air leaving an indoor unit that is sampled by an air sampling device for remote water-vapor-content measurement must be returned to the interconnecting duct at a location:
</P>
<P>(1) Downstream of the air sampling device;
</P>
<P>(2) On the same side of the outlet air damper as the air sampling device; and
</P>
<P>(3) Upstream of the section 2.6 airflow measuring apparatus.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.4.1 Outlet Air Damper Box Placement and Requirements
</HD3>
<P>If using an outlet air damper box (see section 2.5 of this appendix), the leakage rate from the combination of the outlet plenum, the closed damper, and the duct section that connects these two components must not exceed 20 cubic feet per minute when a negative pressure of 1 inch of water column is maintained at the plenum's inlet.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.4.2 Procedures To Minimize Temperature Maldistribution
</HD3>
<P>Use these procedures if necessary to correct temperature maldistributions. Install a mixing device(s) upstream of the outlet air, dry-bulb temperature grid (but downstream of the outlet plenum static pressure taps). Use a perforated screen located between the mixing device and the dry-bulb temperature grid, with a maximum open area of 40 percent. One or both items should help to meet the maximum outlet air temperature distribution specified in section 3.1.8 of this appendix. Mixing devices are described in sections 5.3.2 and 5.3.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013 and section 5.2.2 of ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992) (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD3>2.5.4.3 Minimizing Air Leakage
</HD3>
<P>For small-duct, high-velocity systems, install an air damper near the end of the interconnecting duct, just prior to the transition to the airflow measuring apparatus of section 2.6 of this appendix. To minimize air leakage, adjust this damper such that the pressure in the receiving chamber of the airflow measuring apparatus is no more than 0.5 inch of water higher than the surrounding test room ambient. If applicable, in lieu of installing a separate damper, use the outlet air damper box of sections 2.5 and 2.5.4.1 of this appendix if it allows variable positioning. Also apply these steps to any conventional indoor blower unit that creates a static pressure within the receiving chamber of the airflow measuring apparatus that exceeds the test room ambient pressure by more than 0.5 inches of water column.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.5 Dry Bulb Temperature Measurement
</HD3>
<P>a. Measure dry bulb temperatures as specified in sections 4, 5.3, 6, and 7 of ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>b. Distribute the sensors of a dry-bulb temperature grid over the entire flow area. The required minimum is 9 sensors per grid.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.6 Water Vapor Content Measurement
</HD3>
<P>Determine water vapor content by measuring dry-bulb temperature combined with the air wet-bulb temperature, dew point temperature, or relative humidity. If used, construct and apply wet-bulb temperature sensors as specified in sections 4, 5, 6, 7.2, 7.3, and 7.4 of ASHRAE 41.6-2014 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). The temperature sensor (wick removed) must be accurate to within ±0.2 °F. If used, apply dew point hygrometers as specified in sections 4, 5, 6, 7.1, and 7.4 of ASHRAE 41.6-2014 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). The dew point hygrometers must be accurate to within ±0.4 °F when operated at conditions that result in the evaluation of dew points above 35 °F. If used, a relative humidity (RH) meter must be accurate to within ±0.7% RH. Other means to determine the psychrometric state of air may be used as long as the measurement accuracy is equivalent to or better than the accuracy achieved from using a wet-bulb temperature sensor that meets the above specifications.
</P>
<HD3>2.5.7 Air Damper Box Performance Requirements
</HD3>
<P>If used (see section 2.5 of this appendix), the air damper box(es) must be capable of being completely opened or completely closed within 10 seconds for each action.
</P>
<HD2>2.6 Airflow Measuring Apparatus
</HD2>
<P>a. Fabricate and operate an airflow measuring apparatus as specified in section 6.2 and 6.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). Place the static pressure taps and position the diffusion baffle (settling means) relative to the chamber inlet as indicated in Figure 12 of AMCA 210-2007 and/or Figure 14 of ASHRAE 41.2-1987 (RA 1992) (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). When measuring the static pressure difference across nozzles and/or velocity pressure at nozzle throats using electronic pressure transducers and a data acquisition system, if high frequency fluctuations cause measurement variations to exceed the test tolerance limits specified in section 9.2 and Table 2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, dampen the measurement system such that the time constant associated with response to a step change in measurement (time for the response to change 63% of the way from the initial output to the final output) is no longer than five seconds.
</P>
<P>b. Connect the airflow measuring apparatus to the interconnecting duct section described in section 2.5.4 of this appendix. See sections 6.1.1, 6.1.2, and 6.1.4, and Figures 1, 2, and 4 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009; and Figures D1, D2, and D4 of AHRI 210/240-2008 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) for illustrative examples of how the test apparatus may be applied within a complete laboratory set-up. Instead of following one of these examples, an alternative set-up may be used to handle the air leaving the airflow measuring apparatus and to supply properly conditioned air to the test unit's inlet. The alternative set-up, however, must not interfere with the prescribed means for measuring airflow rate, inlet and outlet air temperatures, inlet and outlet water vapor contents, and external static pressures, nor create abnormal conditions surrounding the test unit. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Do not use an enclosure as described in section 6.1.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 when testing triple-split units.)
</P>
<HD2>2.7 Electrical Voltage Supply
</HD2>
<P>Perform all tests at the voltage specified in section 6.1.3.2 of AHRI 210/240-2008 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) for “Standard Rating Tests.” If either the indoor or the outdoor unit has a 208V or 200V nameplate voltage and the other unit has a 230V nameplate rating, select the voltage supply on the outdoor unit for testing. Otherwise, supply each unit with its own nameplate voltage. Measure the supply voltage at the terminals on the test unit using a volt meter that provides a reading that is accurate to within ±1.0 percent of the measured quantity.
</P>
<HD2>2.8 Electrical Power and Energy Measurements
</HD2>
<P>a. Use an integrating power (watt-hour) measuring system to determine the electrical energy or average electrical power supplied to all components of the air conditioner or heat pump (including auxiliary components such as controls, transformers, crankcase heater, integral condensate pump on non-ducted indoor units, etc.). The watt-hour measuring system must give readings that are accurate to within ±0.5 percent. For cyclic tests, this accuracy is required during both the ON and OFF cycles. Use either two different scales on the same watt-hour meter or two separate watt-hour meters. Activate the scale or meter having the lower power rating within 15 seconds after beginning an OFF cycle. Activate the scale or meter having the higher power rating within 15 seconds prior to beginning an ON cycle. For ducted blower coil systems, the ON cycle lasts from compressor ON to indoor blower OFF. For ducted coil-only systems, the ON cycle lasts from compressor ON to compressor OFF. For non-ducted units, the ON cycle lasts from indoor blower ON to indoor blower OFF. When testing air conditioners and heat pumps having a variable-speed compressor, avoid using an induction watt/watt-hour meter.
</P>
<P>b. When performing section 3.5 and/or 3.8 cyclic tests on non-ducted units, provide instrumentation to determine the average electrical power consumption of the indoor blower motor to within ±1.0 percent. If required according to sections 3.3, 3.4, 3.7, 3.9.1 of this appendix, and/or 3.10 of this appendix, this same instrumentation requirement (to determine the average electrical power consumption of the indoor blower motor to within ±1.0 percent) applies when testing air conditioners and heat pumps having a variable-speed constant-air-volume-rate indoor blower or a variable-speed, variable-air-volume-rate indoor blower.
</P>
<HD2>2.9 Time Measurements
</HD2>
<P>Make elapsed time measurements using an instrument that yields readings accurate to within ±0.2 percent.
</P>
<HD2>2.10 Test Apparatus for the Secondary Space Conditioning Capacity Measurement
</HD2>
<P>For all tests, use the indoor air enthalpy method to measure the unit's capacity. This method uses the test set-up specified in sections 2.4 to 2.6 of this appendix. In addition, for all steady-state tests, conduct a second, independent measurement of capacity as described in section 3.1.1 of this appendix. For split systems, use one of the following secondary measurement methods: Outdoor air enthalpy method, compressor calibration method, or refrigerant enthalpy method. For single-package units, use either the outdoor air enthalpy method or the compressor calibration method as the secondary measurement.
</P>
<HD3>2.10.1 Outdoor Air Enthalpy Method
</HD3>
<P>a. To make a secondary measurement of indoor space conditioning capacity using the outdoor air enthalpy method, do the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Measure the electrical power consumption of the test unit;
</P>
<P>(2) Measure the air-side capacity at the outdoor coil; and
</P>
<P>(3) Apply a heat balance on the refrigerant cycle.
</P>
<P>b. The test apparatus required for the outdoor air enthalpy method is a subset of the apparatus used for the indoor air enthalpy method. Required apparatus includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) On the outlet side, an outlet plenum containing static pressure taps (sections 2.4, 2.4.1, and 2.5.3 of this appendix),
</P>
<P>(2) An airflow measuring apparatus (section 2.6 of this appendix),
</P>
<P>(3) A duct section that connects these two components and itself contains the instrumentation for measuring the dry-bulb temperature and water vapor content of the air leaving the outdoor coil (sections 2.5.4, 2.5.5, and 2.5.6 of this appendix), and
</P>
<P>(4) On the inlet side, a sampling device and temperature grid (section 2.11.b of this appendix).
</P>
<P>c. During the free outdoor air tests described in sections 3.11.1 and 3.11.1.1 of this appendix, measure the evaporator and condenser temperatures or pressures. On both the outdoor coil and the indoor coil, solder a thermocouple onto a return bend located at or near the midpoint of each coil or at points not affected by vapor superheat or liquid subcooling. Alternatively, if the test unit is not sensitive to the refrigerant charge, install pressure gages to the access valves or to ports created from tapping into the suction and discharge lines according to sections 7.4.2 and 8.2.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Use this alternative approach when testing a unit charged with a zeotropic refrigerant having a temperature glide in excess of 1 °F at the specified test conditions.
</P>
<HD3>2.10.2 Compressor Calibration Method
</HD3>
<P>Measure refrigerant pressures and temperatures to determine the evaporator superheat and the enthalpy of the refrigerant that enters and exits the indoor coil. Determine refrigerant flow rate or, when the superheat of the refrigerant leaving the evaporator is less than 5 °F, total capacity from separate calibration tests conducted under identical operating conditions. When using this method, install instrumentation and measure refrigerant properties according to section 7.4.2 and 8.2.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). If removing the refrigerant before applying refrigerant lines and subsequently recharging, use the steps in 7.4.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 in addition to the methods of section 2.2.5 of this appendix to confirm the refrigerant charge. Use refrigerant temperature and pressure measuring instruments that meet the specifications given in sections 5.1.1 and 5.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009.
</P>
<HD3>2.10.3 Refrigerant Enthalpy Method
</HD3>
<P>For this method, calculate space conditioning capacity by determining the refrigerant enthalpy change for the indoor coil and directly measuring the refrigerant flow rate. Use section 7.5.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) for the requirements for this method, including the additional instrumentation requirements, and information on placing the flow meter and a sight glass. Use refrigerant temperature, pressure, and flow measuring instruments that meet the specifications given in sections 5.1.1, 5.2, and 5.5.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Refrigerant flow measurement device(s), if used, must be either elevated at least two feet from the test chamber floor or placed upon insulating material having a total thermal resistance of at least R-12 and extending at least one foot laterally beyond each side of the device(s)' exposed surfaces.
</P>
<HD2>2.11 Measurement of Test Room Ambient Conditions
</HD2>
<P>Follow instructions for setting up air sampling device and aspirating psychrometer as described in section 2.14 of this appendix, unless otherwise instructed in this section.
</P>
<P>a. If using a test set-up where air is ducted directly from the conditioning apparatus to the indoor coil inlet (see Figure 2, Loop Air-Enthalpy Test Method Arrangement, of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3)), add instrumentation to permit measurement of the indoor test room dry-bulb temperature.
</P>
<P>b. On the outdoor side, use one of the following two approaches, except that approach (1) is required for all evaporatively-cooled units and units that transfer condensate to the outdoor unit for evaporation using condenser heat.
</P>
<P>(1) Use sampling tree air collection on all air-inlet surfaces of the outdoor unit.
</P>
<P>(2) Use sampling tree air collection on one or more faces of the outdoor unit and demonstrate air temperature uniformity as follows. Install a grid of evenly-distributed thermocouples on each air-permitting face on the inlet of the outdoor unit. Install the thermocouples on the air sampling device, locate them individually or attach them to a wire structure. If not installed on the air sampling device, install the thermocouple grid 6 to 24 inches from the unit. The thermocouples shall be evenly spaced across the coil inlet surface and be installed to avoid sampling of discharge air or blockage of air recirculation. The grid of thermocouples must provide at least 16 measuring points per face or one measurement per square foot of inlet face area, whichever is less. This grid must be constructed and used as per section 5.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). The maximum difference between the average temperatures measured during the test period of any two pairs of these individual thermocouples located at any of the faces of the inlet of the outdoor unit, must not exceed 2.0 °F, otherwise approach (1) must be used.
</P>
<P>The air sampling devices shall be located at the geometric center of each side; the branches may be oriented either parallel or perpendicular to the longer edges of the air inlet area. The air sampling devices in the outdoor air inlet location shall be sized such that they cover at least 75% of the face area of the side of the coil that they are measuring.
</P>
<P>Air distribution at the test facility point of supply to the unit shall be reviewed and may require remediation prior to the beginning of testing. Mixing fans can be used to ensure adequate air distribution in the test room. If used, mixing fans shall be oriented such that they are pointed away from the air intake so that the mixing fan exhaust does not affect the outdoor coil air volume rate. Particular attention should be given to prevent the mixing fans from affecting (enhancing or limiting) recirculation of condenser fan exhaust air back through the unit. Any fan used to enhance test room air mixing shall not cause air velocities in the vicinity of the test unit to exceed 500 feet per minute.
</P>
<P>The air sampling device may be larger than the face area of the side being measured, however care shall be taken to prevent discharge air from being sampled. If an air sampling device dimension extends beyond the inlet area of the unit, holes shall be blocked in the air sampling device to prevent sampling of discharge air. Holes can be blocked to reduce the region of coverage of the intake holes both in the direction of the trunk axis or perpendicular to the trunk axis. For intake hole region reduction in the direction of the trunk axis, block holes of one or more adjacent pairs of branches (the branches of a pair connect opposite each other at the same trunk location) at either the outlet end or the closed end of the trunk. For intake hole region reduction perpendicular to the trunk axis, block off the same number of holes on each branch on both sides of the trunk.
</P>
<P>A maximum of four (4) air sampling devices shall be connected to each aspirating psychrometer. In order to proportionately divide the flow stream for multiple air sampling devices for a given aspirating psychrometer, the tubing or conduit conveying sampled air to the psychrometer shall be of equivalent lengths for each air sampling device. Preferentially, the air sampling device should be hard connected to the aspirating psychrometer, but if space constraints do not allow this, the assembly shall have a means of allowing a flexible tube to connect the air sampling device to the aspirating psychrometer. The tubing or conduit shall be insulated and routed to prevent heat transfer to the air stream. Any surface of the air conveying tubing in contact with surrounding air at a different temperature than the sampled air shall be insulated with thermal insulation with a nominal thermal resistance (R-value) of at least 19 hr · ft
<SU>2</SU> · °F/Btu. Alternatively the conduit may have lower thermal resistance if additional sensor(s) are used to measure dry bulb temperature at the outlet of each air sampling device. No part of the air sampling device or the tubing conducting the sampled air to the sensors shall be within two inches of the test chamber floor.
</P>
<P>Pairs of measurements (<I>e.g.,</I> dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature) used to determine water vapor content of sampled air shall be measured in the same location.
</P>
<HD2>2.12 Measurement of Indoor Blower Speed
</HD2>
<P>When required, measure fan speed using a revolution counter, tachometer, or stroboscope that gives readings accurate to within ±1.0 percent.
</P>
<HD2>2.13 Measurement of Barometric Pressure
</HD2>
<P>Determine the average barometric pressure during each test. Use an instrument that meets the requirements specified in section 5.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD2>2.14 Air Sampling Device and Aspirating Psychrometer Requirements
</HD2>
<P>Air temperature measurements shall be made in accordance with ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013, unless otherwise instructed in this section.
</P>
<HD3>2.14.1 Air Sampling Device Requirements
</HD3>
<P>The air sampling device is intended to draw in a sample of the air at the critical locations of a unit under test. It shall be constructed of stainless steel, plastic or other suitable, durable materials. It shall have a main flow trunk tube with a series of branch tubes connected to the trunk tube. Holes shall be on the side of the sampler facing the upstream direction of the air source. Other sizes and rectangular shapes can be used, and shall be scaled accordingly with the following guidelines:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimum hole density of 6 holes per square foot of area to be sampled
</P>
<P>(2) Sampler branch tube pitch (spacing) of 6 ± 3 in
</P>
<P>(3) Manifold trunk to branch diameter ratio having a minimum of 3:1 ratio
</P>
<P>(4) Hole pitch (spacing) shall be equally distributed over the branch (
<FR>1/2</FR> pitch from the closed end to the nearest hole)
</P>
<P>(5) Maximum individual hole to branch diameter ratio of 1:2 (1:3 preferred)
</P>
<P>The minimum average velocity through the air sampling device holes shall be 2.5 ft/s as determined by evaluating the sum of the open area of the holes as compared to the flow area in the aspirating psychrometer.
</P>
<HD3>2.14.2 Aspirating Psychrometer
</HD3>
<P>The psychrometer consists of a flow section and a fan to draw air through the flow section and measures an average value of the sampled air stream. At a minimum, the flow section shall have a means for measuring the dry bulb temperature (typically, a resistance temperature device (RTD) and a means for measuring the humidity (RTD with wetted sock, chilled mirror hygrometer, or relative humidity sensor). The aspirating psychrometer shall include a fan that either can be adjusted manually or automatically to maintain required velocity across the sensors.
</P>
<P>The psychrometer shall be made from suitable material which may be plastic (such as polycarbonate), aluminum or other metallic materials. All psychrometers for a given system being tested, shall be constructed of the same material. Psychrometers shall be designed such that radiant heat from the motor (for driving the fan that draws sampled air through the psychrometer) does not affect sensor measurements. For aspirating psychrometers, velocity across the wet bulb sensor shall be 1000 ± 200 ft/min. For all other psychrometers, velocity shall be as specified by the sensor manufacturer.
</P>
<HD1>3. Testing Procedures
</HD1>
<HD2>3.1 General Requirements
</HD2>
<P>If, during the testing process, an equipment set-up adjustment is made that would have altered the performance of the unit during any already completed test, then repeat all tests affected by the adjustment. For cyclic tests, instead of maintaining an air volume rate, for each airflow nozzle, maintain the static pressure difference or velocity pressure during an ON period at the same pressure difference or velocity pressure as measured during the steady-state test conducted at the same test conditions.
</P>
<P>Use the testing procedures in this section to collect the data used for calculating
</P>
<P>(1) Performance metrics for central air conditioners and heat pumps during the cooling season;
</P>
<P>(2) Performance metrics for heat pumps during the heating season; and
</P>
<P>(3) Power consumption metric(s) for central air conditioners and heat pumps during the off mode season(s).
</P>
<HD3>3.1.1 Primary and Secondary Test Methods
</HD3>
<P>For all tests, use the indoor air enthalpy method test apparatus to determine the unit's space conditioning capacity. The procedure and data collected, however, differ slightly depending upon whether the test is a steady-state test, a cyclic test, or a frost accumulation test. The following sections described these differences. For the full-capacity cooling-mode test and (for a heat pump) the full-capacity heating-mode test, use one of the acceptable secondary methods specified in section 2.10 of this appendix to determine indoor space conditioning capacity. Calculate this secondary check of capacity according to section 3.11 of this appendix. The two capacity measurements must agree to within 6 percent to constitute a valid test. For this capacity comparison, use the Indoor Air Enthalpy Method capacity that is calculated in section 7.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) (and, if testing a coil-only system, compare capacities before making the after-test fan heat adjustments described in section 3.3, 3.4, 3.7, and 3.10 of this appendix). However, include the appropriate section 3.3 to 3.5 and 3.7 to 3.10 fan heat adjustments within the indoor air enthalpy method capacities used for the section 4 seasonal calculations of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.2 Manufacturer-Provided Equipment Overrides
</HD3>
<P>Where needed, the manufacturer must provide a means for overriding the controls of the test unit so that the compressor(s) operates at the specified speed or capacity and the indoor blower operates at the specified speed or delivers the specified air volume rate.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.3 Airflow Through the Outdoor Coil
</HD3>
<P>For all tests, meet the requirements given in section 6.1.3.4 of AHRI 210/240-2008 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) when obtaining the airflow through the outdoor coil.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.3.1 Double-Ducted
</HD3>
<P>For products intended to be installed with the outdoor airflow ducted, the unit shall be installed with outdoor coil ductwork installed per manufacturer installation instructions and shall operate between 0.10 and 0.15 in H<E T="52">2</E>O external static pressure. External static pressure measurements shall be made in accordance with ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 section 6.4 and 6.5.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4 Airflow Through the Indoor Coil
</HD3>
<P>Airflow setting(s) shall be determined before testing begins. Unless otherwise specified within this or its subsections, no changes shall be made to the airflow setting(s) after initiation of testing.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.1 Cooling Full-Load Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<HD3>3.1.4.1.1. Cooling Full-Load Air Volume Rate for Ducted Units
</HD3>
<P>Identify the certified cooling full-load air volume rate and certified instructions for setting fan speed or controls. If there is no certified Cooling full-load air volume rate, use a value equal to the certified cooling capacity of the unit times 400 scfm per 12,000 Btu/h. If there are no instructions for setting fan speed or controls, use the as-shipped settings. Use the following procedure to confirm and, if necessary, adjust the Cooling full-load air volume rate and the fan speed or control settings to meet each test procedure requirement:
</P>
<P>a. For all ducted blower coil systems, except those having a constant-air-volume-rate indoor blower:
</P>
<P>Step (1) Operate the unit under conditions specified for the A (for single-stage units) or A<E T="52">2</E> test using the certified fan speed or controls settings, and adjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus to achieve the certified Cooling full-load air volume rate;
</P>
<P>Step (2) Measure the external static pressure;
</P>
<P>Step (3) If this external static pressure is equal to or greater than the applicable minimum external static pressure cited in Table 4, the pressure requirement is satisfied; proceed to step 7 of this section. If this external static pressure is not equal to or greater than the applicable minimum external static pressure cited in Table 4, proceed to step 4 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (4) Increase the external static pressure by adjusting the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until either
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable Table 4 minimum is equaled or
</P>
<P>(ii) The measured air volume rate equals 90 percent or less of the Cooling full-load air volume rate, whichever occurs first;
</P>
<P>Step (5) If the conditions of step 4 (i) of this section occur first, the pressure requirement is satisfied; proceed to step 7 of this section. If the conditions of step 4 (ii) of this section occur first, proceed to step 6 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (6) Make an incremental change to the setup of the indoor blower (<I>e.g.</I>, next highest fan motor pin setting, next highest fan motor speed) and repeat the evaluation process beginning above, at step 1 of this section. If the indoor blower setup cannot be further changed, increase the external static pressure by adjusting the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until the applicable Table 4 minimum is equaled; proceed to step 7 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (7) The airflow constraints have been satisfied. Use the measured air volume rate as the Cooling full-load air volume rate. Use the final fan speed or control settings for all tests that use the Cooling full-load air volume rate.
</P>
<P>b. For ducted blower coil systems with a constant-air-volume-rate indoor blower. For all tests that specify the Cooling full-load air volume rate, obtain an external static pressure as close to (but not less than) the applicable Table 4 value that does not cause automatic shutdown of the indoor blower or air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined as follows, greater than 10 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.008.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">max</E> = maximum measured airflow value
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">min</E> = minimum measured airflow value
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">Var</E> = airflow variance, percent
</FP-2>
<P>Additional test steps as described in section 3.3.(e) of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<P>c. For coil-only indoor units. For the A or A<E T="52">2</E> Test, (exclusively), the pressure drop across the indoor coil assembly must not exceed 0.30 inches of water. If this pressure drop is exceeded, reduce the air volume rate until the measured pressure drop equals the specified maximum. Use this reduced air volume rate for all tests that require the Cooling full-load air volume rate.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Minimum External Static Pressure for Ducted Blower Coil Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Rated Cooling 
<sup>1</sup> or Heating 
<sup>2</sup> Capacity
<br/>(Btu/h)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum external resistance 
<sup>3</sup> (Inches of water)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Small-duct,
<br/>high-velocity
<br/>systems 
<sup>4</sup> 
<sup>5</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">All other
<br/>systems
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up Thru 28,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29,000 to 42,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43,000 and Above</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For air conditioners and air-conditioning heat pumps, the value certified by the manufacturer for the unit's cooling capacity when operated at the <E T="03">A</E> or <E T="03">A</E><E T="52">2</E> Test conditions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For heating-only heat pumps, the value certified by the manufacturer for the unit's heating capacity when operated at the <E T="03">H1</E> or <E T="03">H1</E><E T="52">2</E> Test conditions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> For ducted units tested without an air filter installed, increase the applicable tabular value by 0.08 inches of water.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> See section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions, to determine if the equipment qualifies as a small-duct, high-velocity system.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> If a closed-loop, air-enthalpy test apparatus is used on the indoor side, limit the resistance to airflow on the inlet side of the blower coil indoor unit to a maximum value of 0.1 inch of water. Impose the balance of the airflow resistance on the outlet side of the indoor blower.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>d. For ducted systems having multiple indoor blowers within a single indoor section, obtain the full-load air volume rate with all indoor blowers operating unless prevented by the controls of the unit. In such cases, turn on the maximum number of indoor blowers permitted by the unit's controls. Where more than one option exists for meeting this “on” indoor blower requirement, which indoor blower(s) are turned on must match that specified in the certification report. Conduct section 3.1.4.1.1 setup steps for each indoor blower separately. If two or more indoor blowers are connected to a common duct as per section 2.4.1 of this appendix, temporarily divert their air volume to the test room when confirming or adjusting the setup configuration of individual indoor blowers. The allocation of the system's full-load air volume rate assigned to each “on” indoor blower must match that specified by the manufacturer in the certification report.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.1.2. Cooling Full-Load Air Volume Rate for Non-Ducted Units
</HD3>
<P>For non-ducted units, the Cooling full-load air volume rate is the air volume rate that results during each test when the unit is operated at an external static pressure of zero inches of water.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.2 Cooling Minimum Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<P>Identify the certified cooling minimum air volume rate and certified instructions for setting fan speed or controls. If there is no certified cooling minimum air volume rate, use the final indoor blower control settings as determined when setting the cooling full-load air volume rate, and readjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus if necessary to reset to the cooling full load air volume obtained in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix. Otherwise, calculate the target external static pressure and follow instructions a, b, c, d, or e below. The target external static pressure, ΔP<E T="52">st__i</E>, for any test “i” with a specified air volume rate not equal to the Cooling full-load air volume rate is determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.009.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔP<E T="52">st__i</E> = target minimum external static pressure for test i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔP<E T="52">st__full</E> = minimum external static pressure for test A or A<E T="52">2</E> (Table 4);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">i</E> = air volume rate for test i; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">full</E> = Cooling full-load air volume rate as measured after setting and/or adjustment as described in section 3.1.4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>a. For a ducted blower coil system without a constant-air-volume indoor blower, adjust for external static pressure as follows:
</P>
<P>Step (1) Operate the unit under conditions specified for the B1 test using the certified fan speed or controls settings, and adjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus to achieve the certified cooling minimum air volume rate;
</P>
<P>Step (2) Measure the external static pressure;
</P>
<P>Step (3) If this pressure is equal to or greater than the minimum external static pressure computed above, the pressure requirement is satisfied; proceed to step 7 of this section. If this pressure is not equal to or greater than the minimum external static pressure computed above, proceed to step 4 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (4) Increase the external static pressure by adjusting the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until either
</P>
<P>(i) The pressure is equal to the minimum external static pressure computed above or
</P>
<P>(ii) The measured air volume rate equals 90 percent or less of the cooling minimum air volume rate, whichever occurs first;
</P>
<P>Step (5) If the conditions of step 4 (i) of this section occur first, the pressure requirement is satisfied; proceed to step 7 of this section. If the conditions of step 4 (ii) of this section occur first, proceed to step 6 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (6) Make an incremental change to the setup of the indoor blower (<I>e.g.,</I> next highest fan motor pin setting, next highest fan motor speed) and repeat the evaluation process beginning above, at step 1 of this section. If the indoor blower setup cannot be further changed, increase the external static pressure by adjusting the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until it equals the minimum external static pressure computed above; proceed to step 7 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (7) The airflow constraints have been satisfied. Use the measured air volume rate as the cooling minimum air volume rate. Use the final fan speed or control settings for all tests that use the cooling minimum air volume rate.
</P>
<P>b. For ducted units with constant-air-volume indoor blowers, conduct all tests that specify the cooling minimum air volume rate—(<I>i.e.</I>, the A<E T="52">1</E>, B<E T="52">1</E>, C<E T="52">1</E>, F<E T="52">1</E>, and G<E T="52">1</E> Tests)—at an external static pressure that does not cause an automatic shutdown of the indoor blower or air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined in section 3.1.4.1.1.b of this appendix, greater than 10 percent, while being as close to, but not less than the target minimum external static pressure. Additional test steps as described in section 3.3(e) of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<P>c. For ducted two-capacity coil-only systems, the cooling minimum air volume rate is the higher of (1) the rate specified by the installation instructions included with the unit by the manufacturer or (2) 75 percent of the cooling full-load air volume rate. During the laboratory tests on a coil-only (fanless) system, obtain this cooling minimum air volume rate regardless of the pressure drop across the indoor coil assembly.
</P>
<P>d. For non-ducted units, the cooling minimum air volume rate is the air volume rate that results during each test when the unit operates at an external static pressure of zero inches of water and at the indoor blower setting used at low compressor capacity (two-capacity system) or minimum compressor speed (variable-speed system). For units having a single-speed compressor and a variable-speed variable-air-volume-rate indoor blower, use the lowest fan setting allowed for cooling.
</P>
<P>e. For ducted systems having multiple indoor blowers within a single indoor section, operate the indoor blowers such that the lowest air volume rate allowed by the unit's controls is obtained when operating the lone single-speed compressor or when operating at low compressor capacity while meeting the requirements of section 2.2.3.b of this appendix for the minimum number of blowers that must be turned off. Using the target external static pressure and the certified air volume rates, follow the procedures described in section 3.1.4.2.a of this appendix if the indoor blowers are not constant-air-volume indoor blowers or as described in section 3.1.4.2.b of this appendix if the indoor blowers are constant-air-volume indoor blowers. The sum of the individual “on” indoor blowers' air volume rates is the cooling minimum air volume rate for the system.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.3 Cooling Intermediate Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<P>Identify the certified cooling intermediate air volume rate and certified instructions for setting fan speed or controls. If there is no certified cooling intermediate air volume rate, use the final indoor blower control settings as determined when setting the cooling full load air volume rate, and readjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus if necessary to reset to the cooling full load air volume obtained in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix. Otherwise, calculate target minimum external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix, and set the air volume rate as follows.
</P>
<P>a. For a ducted blower coil system without a constant-air-volume indoor blower, adjust for external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2.a of this appendix for cooling minimum air volume rate.
</P>
<P>b. For a ducted blower coil system with a constant-air-volume indoor blower, conduct the E<E T="52">V</E> Test at an external static pressure that does not cause an automatic shutdown of the indoor blower or air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined in section 3.1.4.1.1.b of this appendix, greater than 10 percent, while being as close to, but not less than the target minimum external static pressure. Additional test steps as described in section 3.3(e) of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<P>c. For non-ducted units, the cooling intermediate air volume rate is the air volume rate that results when the unit operates at an external static pressure of zero inches of water and at the fan speed selected by the controls of the unit for the E<E T="52">V</E> Test conditions.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.4 Heating Full-Load Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<HD3>3.1.4.4.1. Ducted Heat Pumps Where the Heating and Cooling Full-Load Air Volume Rates Are the Same
</HD3>
<P>a. Use the Cooling full-load air volume rate as the heating full-load air volume rate for:
</P>
<P>(1) Ducted blower coil system heat pumps that do not have a constant-air-volume indoor blower, and that operate at the same airflow-control setting during both the A (or A<E T="52">2</E>) and the H1 (or H1<E T="52">2</E>) Tests;
</P>
<P>(2) Ducted blower coil system heat pumps with constant-air-flow indoor blowers that provide the same air flow for the A (or A<E T="52">2</E>) and the H1 (or H1<E T="52">2</E>) Tests; and
</P>
<P>(3) Ducted heat pumps that are tested with a coil-only indoor unit (except two-capacity northern heat pumps that are tested only at low capacity cooling—see section 3.1.4.4.2 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>b. For heat pumps that meet the above criteria “1” and “3,” no minimum requirements apply to the measured external or internal, respectively, static pressure. Use the final indoor blower control settings as determined when setting the Cooling full-load air volume rate, and readjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus if necessary to reset to the cooling full-load air volume obtained in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix. For heat pumps that meet the above criterion “2,” test at an external static pressure that does not cause an automatic shutdown of the indoor blower or air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined in section 3.1.4.1.1.b of this appendix, greater than 10 percent, while being as close to, but not less than, the same Table 4 minimum external static pressure as was specified for the A (or A<E T="52">2</E>) cooling mode test. Additional test steps as described in section 3.9.1(c) of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.4.2. Ducted Heat Pumps Where the Heating and Cooling Full-Load Air Volume Rates Are Different Due to Changes in Indoor Blower Operation, <I>i.e.</I> Speed Adjustment by the System Controls
</HD3>
<P>Identify the certified heating full-load air volume rate and certified instructions for setting fan speed or controls. If there is no certified heating full-load air volume rate, use the final indoor blower control settings as determined when setting the cooling full-load air volume rate, and readjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus if necessary to reset to the cooling full load air volume obtained in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix. Otherwise, calculate target minimum external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix and set the air volume rate as follows.
</P>
<P>a. For ducted blower coil system heat pumps that do not have a constant-air-volume indoor blower, adjust for external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2.a of this appendix for cooling minimum air volume rate.
</P>
<P>b. For ducted heat pumps tested with constant-air-volume indoor blowers installed, conduct all tests that specify the heating full-load air volume rate at an external static pressure that does not cause an automatic shutdown of the indoor blower or air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined in section 3.1.4.1.1.b of this appendix, greater than 10 percent, while being as close to, but not less than the target minimum external static pressure. Additional test steps as described in section 3.9.1(c) of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<P>c. When testing ducted, two-capacity blower coil system northern heat pumps (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions), use the appropriate approach of the above two cases. For coil-only system northern heat pumps, the heating full-load air volume rate is the lesser of the rate specified by the manufacturer in the installation instructions included with the unit or 133 percent of the cooling full-load air volume rate. For this latter case, obtain the heating full-load air volume rate regardless of the pressure drop across the indoor coil assembly.
</P>
<P>d. For ducted systems having multiple indoor blowers within a single indoor section, obtain the heating full-load air volume rate using the same “on” indoor blowers as used for the Cooling full-load air volume rate. Using the target external static pressure and the certified air volume rates, follow the procedures as described in section 3.1.4.4.2.a of this appendix if the indoor blowers are not constant-air-volume indoor blowers or as described in section 3.1.4.4.2.b of this appendix if the indoor blowers are constant-air-volume indoor blowers. The sum of the individual “on” indoor blowers' air volume rates is the heating full load air volume rate for the system.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.4.3. Ducted Heating-Only Heat Pumps
</HD3>
<P>Identify the certified heating full-load air volume rate and certified instructions for setting fan speed or controls. If there is no certified heating full-load air volume rate, use a value equal to the certified heating capacity of the unit times 400 scfm per 12,000 Btu/h. If there are no instructions for setting fan speed or controls, use the as-shipped settings.
</P>
<P>a. For all ducted heating-only blower coil system heat pumps, except those having a constant-air-volume-rate indoor blower. Conduct the following steps only during the first test, the H1 or H1<E T="52">2</E> Test:
</P>
<P>Step (1) Adjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus to achieve the certified heating full-load air volume rate.
</P>
<P>Step (2) Measure the external static pressure.
</P>
<P>Step (3) If this pressure is equal to or greater than the Table 4 minimum external static pressure that applies given the heating-only heat pump's rated heating capacity, the pressure requirement is satisfied; proceed to step 7 of this section. If this pressure is not equal to or greater than the applicable Table 4 minimum external static pressure, proceed to step 4 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (4) Increase the external static pressure by adjusting the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until either (i) the pressure is equal to the applicable Table 4 minimum external static pressure or (ii) the measured air volume rate equals 90 percent or less of the heating full-load air volume rate, whichever occurs first;
</P>
<P>Step (5) If the conditions of step 4(i) of this section occur first, the pressure requirement is satisfied; proceed to step 7 of this section. If the conditions of step 4(ii) of this section occur first, proceed to step 6 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (6) Make an incremental change to the setup of the indoor blower (<I>e.g.,</I> next highest fan motor pin setting, next highest fan motor speed) and repeat the evaluation process beginning above, at step 1 of this section. If the indoor blower setup cannot be further changed, increase the external static pressure by adjusting the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until it equals the applicable Table 4 minimum external static pressure; proceed to step 7 of this section;
</P>
<P>Step (7) The airflow constraints have been satisfied. Use the measured air volume rate as the heating full-load air volume rate. Use the final fan speed or control settings for all tests that use the heating full-load air volume rate.
</P>
<P>b. For ducted heating-only blower coil system heat pumps having a constant-air-volume-rate indoor blower. For all tests that specify the heating full-load air volume rate, obtain an external static pressure that does not cause an automatic shutdown of the indoor blower or air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined in section 3.1.4.1.1.b of this appendix, greater than 10 percent, while being as close to, but not less than, the applicable Table 4 minimum. Additional test steps as described in section 3.9.1(c) of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<P>c. For ducted heating-only coil-only system heat pumps in the H1 or H1<E T="52">2</E> Test, (exclusively), the pressure drop across the indoor coil assembly must not exceed 0.30 inches of water. If this pressure drop is exceeded, reduce the air volume rate until the measured pressure drop equals the specified maximum. Use this reduced air volume rate for all tests that require the heating full-load air volume rate.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.4.4. Non-Ducted Heat Pumps, Including Non-Ducted Heating-Only Heat Pumps
</HD3>
<P>For non-ducted heat pumps, the heating full-load air volume rate is the air volume rate that results during each test when the unit operates at an external static pressure of zero inches of water.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.5 Heating Minimum Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<HD3>3.1.4.5.1. Ducted Heat Pumps Where the Heating and Cooling Minimum Air Volume Rates Are the Same
</HD3>
<P>a. Use the cooling minimum air volume rate as the heating minimum air volume rate for:
</P>
<P>(1) Ducted blower coil system heat pumps that do not have a constant-air-volume indoor blower, and that operate at the same airflow-control setting during both the A<E T="52">1</E> and the H1<E T="52">1</E> tests;
</P>
<P>(2) Ducted blower coil system heat pumps with constant-air-flow indoor blowers installed that provide the same air flow for the A<E T="52">1</E> and the H1<E T="52">1</E> Tests; and
</P>
<P>(3) Ducted coil-only system heat pumps.
</P>
<P>b. For heat pumps that meet the above criteria “1” and “3,” no minimum requirements apply to the measured external or internal, respectively, static pressure. Use the final indoor blower control settings as determined when setting the cooling minimum air volume rate, and readjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus if necessary to reset to the cooling minimum air volume rate obtained in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix. For heat pumps that meet the above criterion “2,” test at an external static pressure that does not cause an automatic shutdown of the indoor blower or air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined in section 3.1.4.1.1.b of this appendix, greater than 10 percent, while being as close to, but not less than, the same target minimum external static pressure as was specified for the A<E T="52">1</E> cooling mode test. Additional test steps as described in section 3.9.1(c) of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.5.2. Ducted Heat Pumps Where the Heating and Cooling Minimum Air Volume Rates Are Different Due to Changes in Indoor Blower Operation, <I>i.e.</I> Speed Adjustment by the System Controls
</HD3>
<P>Identify the certified heating minimum air volume rate and certified instructions for setting fan speed or controls. If there is no certified heating minimum air volume rate, use the final indoor blower control settings as determined when setting the cooling minimum air volume rate, and readjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus if necessary to reset to the cooling minimum air volume obtained in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix. Otherwise, calculate the target minimum external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. For ducted blower coil system heat pumps that do not have a constant-air-volume indoor blower, adjust for external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2.a of this appendix for cooling minimum air volume rate.
</P>
<P>b. For ducted heat pumps tested with constant-air-volume indoor blowers installed, conduct all tests that specify the heating minimum air volume rate—(<I>i.e.,</I> the H0<E T="52">1</E>, H1<E T="52">1</E>, H2<E T="52">1</E>, and H3<E T="52">1</E> Tests)—at an external static pressure that does not cause an automatic shutdown of the indoor blower while being as close to, but not less than the air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined in section 3.1.4.1.1.b of this appendix, greater than 10 percent, while being as close to, but not less than the target minimum external static pressure. Additional test steps as described in section 3.9.1.c of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<P>c. For ducted two-capacity blower coil system northern heat pumps, use the appropriate approach of the above two cases.
</P>
<P>d. For ducted two-capacity coil-only system heat pumps, use the cooling minimum air volume rate as the heating minimum air volume rate. For ducted two-capacity coil-only system northern heat pumps, use the cooling full-load air volume rate as the heating minimum air volume rate. For ducted two-capacity heating-only coil-only system heat pumps, the heating minimum air volume rate is the higher of the rate specified by the manufacturer in the test setup instructions included with the unit or 75 percent of the heating full-load air volume rate. During the laboratory tests on a coil-only system, obtain the heating minimum air volume rate without regard to the pressure drop across the indoor coil assembly.
</P>
<P>e. For non-ducted heat pumps, the heating minimum air volume rate is the air volume rate that results during each test when the unit operates at an external static pressure of zero inches of water and at the indoor blower setting used at low compressor capacity (two-capacity system) or minimum compressor speed (variable-speed system). For units having a single-speed compressor and a variable-speed, variable-air-volume-rate indoor blower, use the lowest fan setting allowed for heating.
</P>
<P>f. For ducted systems with multiple indoor blowers within a single indoor section, obtain the heating minimum air volume rate using the same “on” indoor blowers as used for the cooling minimum air volume rate. Using the target external static pressure and the certified air volume rates, follow the procedures as described in section 3.1.4.5.2.a of this appendix if the indoor blowers are not constant-air-volume indoor blowers or as described in section 3.1.4.5.2.b of this appendix if the indoor blowers are constant-air-volume indoor blowers. The sum of the individual “on” indoor blowers' air volume rates is the heating full-load air volume rate for the system.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.6 Heating Intermediate Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<P>Identify the certified heating intermediate air volume rate and certified instructions for setting fan speed or controls. If there is no certified heating intermediate air volume rate, use the final indoor blower control settings as determined when setting the heating full-load air volume rate, and readjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus if necessary to reset to the cooling full load air volume obtained in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix. Calculate the target minimum external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. For ducted blower coil system heat pumps that do not have a constant-air-volume indoor blower, adjust for external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2.a of this appendix for cooling minimum air volume rate.
</P>
<P>b. For ducted heat pumps tested with constant-air-volume indoor blowers installed, conduct the H2<E T="52">V</E> Test at an external static pressure that does not cause an automatic shutdown of the indoor blower or air volume rate variation Q<E T="52">Var</E>, defined in section 3.1.4.1.1.b of this appendix, greater than 10 percent, while being as close to, but not less than the target minimum external static pressure. Additional test steps as described in section 3.9.1(c) of this appendix are required if the measured external static pressure exceeds the target value by more than 0.03 inches of water.
</P>
<P>c. For non-ducted heat pumps, the heating intermediate air volume rate is the air volume rate that results when the heat pump operates at an external static pressure of zero inches of water and at the fan speed selected by the controls of the unit for the H2<E T="52">V</E> Test conditions.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4.7 Heating Nominal Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<P>The manufacturer must specify the heating nominal air volume rate and the instructions for setting fan speed or controls. Calculate target minimum external static pressure as described in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix. Make adjustments as described in section 3.1.4.6 of this appendix for heating intermediate air volume rate so that the target minimum external static pressure is met or exceeded.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.5 Indoor Test Room Requirement When the Air Surrounding the Indoor Unit Is Not Supplied From the Same Source as the Air Entering the Indoor Unit
</HD3>
<P>If using a test set-up where air is ducted directly from the air reconditioning apparatus to the indoor coil inlet (see Figure 2, Loop Air-Enthalpy Test Method Arrangement, of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3)), maintain the dry bulb temperature within the test room within ±5.0 °F of the applicable sections 3.2 and 3.6 dry bulb temperature test condition for the air entering the indoor unit. Dew point shall be within 2 °F of the required inlet conditions.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.6 Air Volume Rate Calculations
</HD3>
<P>For all steady-state tests and for frost accumulation (H2, H2<E T="52">1</E>, H2<E T="52">2</E>, H2<E T="52">V</E>) tests, calculate the air volume rate through the indoor coil as specified in sections 7.7.2.1 and 7.7.2.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. When using the outdoor air enthalpy method, follow sections 7.7.2.1 and 7.7.2.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 to calculate the air volume rate through the outdoor coil. To express air volume rates in terms of standard air, use:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.010.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">s</E> = air volume rate of standard (dry) air, (ft
<SU>3</SU>/min)<E T="52">da</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">mx</E> = air volume rate of the air-water vapor mixture, (ft
<SU>3</SU>/min)<E T="52">mx</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>v<E T="52">n</E>′ = specific volume of air-water vapor mixture at the nozzle, ft
<SU>3</SU> per lbm of the air-water vapor mixture
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">n</E> = humidity ratio at the nozzle, lbm of water vapor per lbm of dry air
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.075 = the density associated with standard (dry) air, (lbm/ft
<SU>3</SU>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>v<E T="52">n</E> = specific volume of the dry air portion of the mixture evaluated at the dry-bulb temperature, vapor content, and barometric pressure existing at the nozzle, ft
<SU>3</SU> per lbm of dry air.
</FP-2>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In the first printing of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, the second IP equation for Q<E T="52">mi</E> should read</P></NOTE>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.011.gif"/>
<HD3>3.1.7 Test Sequence
</HD3>
<P>Before making test measurements used to calculate performance, operate the equipment for the “break-in” period specified in the certification report, which may not exceed 20 hours. Each compressor of the unit must undergo this “break-in” period. When testing a ducted unit (except if a heating-only heat pump), conduct the A or A<E T="52">2</E> Test first to establish the cooling full-load air volume rate. For ducted heat pumps where the heating and cooling full-load air volume rates are different, make the first heating mode test one that requires the heating full-load air volume rate. For ducted heating-only heat pumps, conduct the H1 or H1<E T="52">2</E> Test first to establish the heating full-load air volume rate. When conducting a cyclic test, always conduct it immediately after the steady-state test that requires the same test conditions. For variable-speed systems, the first test using the cooling minimum air volume rate should precede the E<E T="52">V</E> Test, and the first test using the heating minimum air volume rate must precede the H2<E T="52">V</E> Test. The test laboratory makes all other decisions on the test sequence.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.8 Requirement for the Air Temperature Distribution Leaving the Indoor Coil
</HD3>
<P>For at least the first cooling mode test and the first heating mode test, monitor the temperature distribution of the air leaving the indoor coil using the grid of individual sensors described in sections 2.5 and 2.5.4 of this appendix. For the 30-minute data collection interval used to determine capacity, the maximum spread among the outlet dry bulb temperatures from any data sampling must not exceed 1.5 °F. Install the mixing devices described in section 2.5.4.2 of this appendix to minimize the temperature spread.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.9 Requirement for the Air Temperature Distribution Entering the Outdoor Coil
</HD3>
<P>Monitor the temperatures of the air entering the outdoor coil using air sampling devices and/or temperature sensor grids, maintaining the required tolerances, if applicable, as described in section 2.11 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.10 Control of Auxiliary Resistive Heating Elements
</HD3>
<P>Except as noted, disable heat pump resistance elements used for heating indoor air at all times, including during defrost cycles and if they are normally regulated by a heat comfort controller. For heat pumps equipped with a heat comfort controller, enable the heat pump resistance elements only during the below-described, short test. For single-speed heat pumps covered under section 3.6.1 of this appendix, the short test follows the H1 or, if conducted, the H1C Test. For two-capacity heat pumps and heat pumps covered under section 3.6.2 of this appendix, the short test follows the H1<E T="52">2</E> Test. Set the heat comfort controller to provide the maximum supply air temperature. With the heat pump operating and while maintaining the heating full-load air volume rate, measure the temperature of the air leaving the indoor-side beginning 5 minutes after activating the heat comfort controller. Sample the outlet dry-bulb temperature at regular intervals that span 5 minutes or less. Collect data for 10 minutes, obtaining at least 3 samples. Calculate the average outlet temperature over the 10-minute interval, T<E T="52">CC.</E>
</P>
<HD2>3.2 Cooling Mode Tests for Different Types of Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps
</HD2>
<HD3>3.2.1 Tests for a System Having a Single-Speed Compressor and Fixed Cooling Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<P>This set of tests is for single-speed-compressor units that do not have a cooling minimum air volume rate or a cooling intermediate air volume rate that is different than the cooling full load air volume rate. Conduct two steady-state wet coil tests, the A and B Tests. Use the two optional dry-coil tests, the steady-state C Test and the cyclic D Test, to determine the cooling mode cyclic degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>. If the two optional tests are conducted but yield a tested C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> or if the two optional tests are not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> the default value of 0.25 (for outdoor units with no match) or 0.20 (for all other systems). Table 5 specifies test conditions for these four tests.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Cooling Mode Test Conditions for Units Having a Single-Speed Compressor and a Fixed Cooling Air Volume Rate
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit
<br/>temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit
<br/>temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Cooling air volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling full-load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling full-load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C Test—optional (steady, dry coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling full-load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D Test—optional (cyclic, dry coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The specified test condition only applies if the unit rejects condensate to the outdoor coil.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The entering air must have a low enough moisture content so no condensate forms on the indoor coil. (It is recommended that an indoor wet-bulb temperature of 57 °F or less be used.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzles static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure difference or velocity pressure as measured during the C Test.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.2.2 Tests for a Unit Having a Single-Speed Compressor Where the Indoor Section Uses a Single Variable-Speed Variable-Air-Volume Rate Indoor Blower or Multiple Indoor Blowers
</HD2>
<HD3>3.2.2.1 Indoor Blower Capacity Modulation That Correlates With the Outdoor Dry Bulb Temperature or Systems With a Single Indoor Coil but Multiple Indoor Blowers
</HD3>
<P>Conduct four steady-state wet coil tests: The A<E T="52">2</E>, A<E T="52">1</E>, B<E T="52">2</E>, and B<E T="52">1</E> tests. Use the two optional dry-coil tests, the steady-state C<E T="52">1</E> test and the cyclic D<E T="52">1</E> test, to determine the cooling mode cyclic degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>. If the two optional tests are conducted but yield a tested C<E T="52">D</E>c that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>c or if the two optional tests are not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>c the default value of 0.20.
</P>
<HD3>3.2.2.2 Indoor Blower Capacity Modulation Based on Adjusting the Sensible to Total (S/T) Cooling Capacity Ratio
</HD3>
<P>The testing requirements are the same as specified in section 3.2.1 of this appendix and Table 5. Use a cooling full-load air volume rate that represents a normal installation. If performed, conduct the steady-state C Test and the cyclic D Test with the unit operating in the same S/T capacity control mode as used for the B Test.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6—Cooling Mode Test Conditions for Units With a Single-Speed Compressor That Meet the Section 3.2.2.1 Indoor Unit Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit
<br/>temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit
<br/>temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Cooling air volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A<E T="0732">2</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling full-load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A<E T="0732">1</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling minimum.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B<E T="0732">2</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling full-load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B<E T="0732">1</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling minimum.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C<E T="0732">1</E> Test 
<sup>4</sup>—optional (steady, dry coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling minimum.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D<E T="0732">1</E> Test 
<sup>4</sup>—optional (cyclic, dry coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>5</sup>).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The specified test condition only applies if the unit rejects condensate to the outdoor coil.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The entering air must have a low enough moisture content so no condensate forms on the indoor coil. (It is recommended that an indoor wet-bulb temperature of 5 °F or less be used.)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzles static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure difference or velocity pressure as measured during the C<E T="0732">1</E> Test.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2.3 Tests for a Unit Having a Two-Capacity Compressor (See Section 1.2 of This Appendix, Definitions)
</HD3>
<P>a. Conduct four steady-state wet coil tests: the A<E T="52">2</E>, B<E T="52">2</E>, B<E T="52">1</E>, and F<E T="52">1</E> Tests. Use the two optional dry-coil tests, the steady-state C<E T="52">1</E> Test and the cyclic D<E T="52">1</E> Test, to determine the cooling-mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>. If the two optional tests are conducted but yield a tested C<E T="52">D</E>c that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>c or if the two optional tests are not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>c the default value of 0.20. Table 6 specifies test conditions for these six tests.
</P>
<P>b. For units having a variable speed indoor blower that is modulated to adjust the sensible to total (S/T) cooling capacity ratio, use cooling full-load and cooling minimum air volume rates that represent a normal installation. Additionally, if conducting the dry-coil tests, operate the unit in the same S/T capacity control mode as used for the B<E T="52">1</E> Test.
</P>
<P>c. Test two-capacity, northern heat pumps (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions) in the same way as a single speed heat pump with the unit operating exclusively at low compressor capacity (see section 3.2.1 of this appendix and Table 5).
</P>
<P>d. If a two-capacity air conditioner or heat pump locks out low-capacity operation at higher outdoor temperatures, then use the two dry-coil tests, the steady-state C<E T="52">2</E> Test and the cyclic D<E T="52">2</E> Test, to determine the cooling-mode cyclic-degradation coefficient that only applies to on/off cycling from high capacity, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>(k=2). If the two optional tests are conducted but yield a tested CD
<SU>c</SU> (k = 2) that exceeds the default CD
<SU>c</SU> (k = 2) or if the two optional tests are not conducted, assign CD
<SU>c</SU> (k = 2) the default value. The default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>(k=2) is the same value as determined or assigned for the low-capacity cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> [or equivalently, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>(k=1)].
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—Cooling Mode Test Conditions for Units Having a Two-Capacity Compressor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Compressor
<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Cooling air volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A<E T="0732">2</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B<E T="0732">2</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B<E T="0732">1</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C<E T="0732">2</E> Test—optional (steady, dry-coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D<E T="0732">2</E> Test—optional (cyclic, dry-coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>5</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C<E T="0732">1</E> Test—optional (steady, dry-coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D<E T="0732">1</E> Test—optional (cyclic, dry-coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>6</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F<E T="0732">1</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 53.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The specified test condition only applies if the unit rejects condensate to the outdoor coil.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The entering air must have a low enough moisture content so no condensate forms on the indoor coil. DOE recommends using an indoor air wet-bulb temperature of 57 °F or less.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure or velocity as measured during the C<E T="0732">2</E> Test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure or velocity as measured during the C<E T="0732">1</E> Test.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2.4 Tests for a Unit Having a Variable-Speed Compressor
</HD3>
<P>a. Conduct five steady-state wet coil tests: The A<E T="52">2</E>, E<E T="52">V</E>, B<E T="52">2</E>, B<E T="52">1</E>, and F<E T="52">1</E> Tests. Use the two optional dry-coil tests, the steady-state G<E T="52">1</E> Test and the cyclic I<E T="52">1</E> Test, to determine the cooling mode cyclic degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>. If the two optional tests are conducted but yield a tested C<E T="52">D</E>c that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>c or if the two optional tests are not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>c the default value of 0.25. Table 8 specifies test conditions for these seven tests. The compressor shall operate at the same cooling full speed, measured by RPM or power input frequency (Hz), for both the A<E T="52">2</E> and B<E T="52">2</E> tests. The compressor shall operate at the same cooling minimum speed, measured by RPM or power input frequency (Hz), for the B<E T="52">1</E>, F<E T="52">1</E>, G<E T="52">1</E>, and I<E T="52">1</E> tests. Determine the cooling intermediate compressor speed cited in Table 8 using:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.012.gif"/>
<FP-2>where a tolerance of plus 5 percent or the next higher inverter frequency step from that calculated is allowed.
</FP-2>
<P>b. For units that modulate the indoor blower speed to adjust the sensible to total (S/T) cooling capacity ratio, use cooling full-load, cooling intermediate, and cooling minimum air volume rates that represent a normal installation. Additionally, if conducting the dry-coil tests, operate the unit in the same S/T capacity control mode as used for the F<E T="52">1</E> Test.
</P>
<P>c. For multiple-split air conditioners and heat pumps (except where noted), the following procedures supersede the above requirements: For all Table 8 tests specified for a minimum compressor speed, at least one indoor unit must be turned off. The manufacturer shall designate the particular indoor unit(s) that is turned off. The manufacturer must also specify the compressor speed used for the Table 8 E<E T="52">V</E> Test, a cooling-mode intermediate compressor speed that falls within 
<FR>1/4</FR> and 
<FR>3/4</FR> of the difference between the full and minimum cooling-mode speeds. The manufacturer should prescribe an intermediate speed that is expected to yield the highest EER for the given E<E T="52">V</E> Test conditions and bracketed compressor speed range. The manufacturer can designate that one or more indoor units are turned off for the E<E T="52">V</E> Test.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8—Cooling Mode Test Condition for Units Having a Variable-Speed Compressor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit
<br/>temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit
<br/>temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Compressor speed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Cooling air
<br/>volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A<E T="0732">2</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B<E T="0732">2</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E<E T="0732">V</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Intermediate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Intermediate.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B<E T="0732">1</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F<E T="0732">1</E> Test—required (steady, wet coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 53.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">G<E T="0732">1</E> Test 
<sup>5</sup>—optional (steady, dry-coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>6</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I<E T="0732">1</E> Test 
<sup>5</sup>—optional (cyclic, dry-coil)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>6</sup>)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>6</sup>).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The specified test condition only applies if the unit rejects condensate to the outdoor coil.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.1 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.3 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.2 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The entering air must have a low enough moisture content so no condensate forms on the indoor coil. DOE recommends using an indoor air wet bulb temperature of 57 °F or less.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure difference or velocity pressure as measured during the G<E T="0732">1</E> Test.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2.5 Cooling Mode Tests for Northern Heat Pumps With Triple-Capacity Compressors
</HD3>
<P>Test triple-capacity, northern heat pumps for the cooling mode in the same way as specified in section 3.2.3 of this appendix for units having a two-capacity compressor.
</P>
<HD3>3.2.6 Tests for an Air Conditioner or Heat Pump Having a Single Indoor Unit Having Multiple Indoor Blowers and Offering Two Stages of Compressor Modulation
</HD3>
<P>Conduct the cooling mode tests specified in section 3.2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>3.3 Test Procedures for Steady-State Wet Coil Cooling Mode Tests (the A, A<E T="54">2</E>, A<E T="54">1</E>, B, B<E T="54">2</E>, B<E T="54">1</E>, E<E T="54">V</E>, and F<E T="54">1</E> Tests)
</HD2>
<P>a. For the pretest interval, operate the test room reconditioning apparatus and the unit to be tested until maintaining equilibrium conditions for at least 30 minutes at the specified section 3.2 test conditions. Use the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus and, if installed, the indoor blower of the test unit to obtain and then maintain the indoor air volume rate and/or external static pressure specified for the particular test. Continuously record (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions):
</P>
<P>(1) The dry-bulb temperature of the air entering the indoor coil,
</P>
<P>(2) The water vapor content of the air entering the indoor coil,
</P>
<P>(3) The dry-bulb temperature of the air entering the outdoor coil, and
</P>
<P>(4) For the section 2.2.4 of this appendix cases where its control is required, the water vapor content of the air entering the outdoor coil.
</P>
<P>Refer to section 3.11 of this appendix for additional requirements that depend on the selected secondary test method.
</P>
<P>b. After satisfying the pretest equilibrium requirements, make the measurements specified in Table 3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 for the indoor air enthalpy method and the user-selected secondary method. Make said Table 3 measurements at equal intervals that span 5 minutes or less. Continue data sampling until reaching a 30-minute period (<I>e.g.,</I> seven consecutive 5-minute samples) where the test tolerances specified in Table 9 are satisfied. For those continuously recorded parameters, use the entire data set from the 30-minute interval to evaluate Table 9 compliance. Determine the average electrical power consumption of the air conditioner or heat pump over the same 30-minute interval.
</P>
<P>c. Calculate indoor-side total cooling capacity and sensible cooling capacity as specified in sections 7.3.3.1 and 7.3.3.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). To calculate capacity, use the averages of the measurements (<I>e.g.</I> inlet and outlet dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures measured at the psychrometers) that are continuously recorded for the same 30-minute interval used as described above to evaluate compliance with test tolerances. Do not adjust the parameters used in calculating capacity for the permitted variations in test conditions. Evaluate air enthalpies based on the measured barometric pressure. Use the values of the specific heat of air given in section 7.3.3.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) for calculation of the sensible cooling capacities. Assign the average total space cooling capacity, average sensible cooling capacity, and electrical power consumption over the 30-minute data collection interval to the variables Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T), Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">sc</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T), respectively. For these three variables, replace the “T” with the nominal outdoor temperature at which the test was conducted. The superscript k is used only when testing multi-capacity units.
</P>
<P>Use the superscript k=2 to denote a test with the unit operating at high capacity or full speed, k=1 to denote low capacity or minimum speed, and k=v to denote the intermediate speed.
</P>
<P>d. For coil-only system tests, decrease Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T) by
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.013.gif"/>
<P>and increase E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T) by,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.014.gif"/>
<FP-2>where V
<AC T="I"/><E T="52">s</E> is the average measured indoor air volume rate expressed in units of cubic feet per minute of standard air (scfm).
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9—Test Operating and Test Condition Tolerances for Section 3.3 Steady-State Wet Coil Cooling Mode Tests and Section 3.4 Dry Coil Cooling Mode Tests
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test operating
<br/>tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test condition
<br/>tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor dry-bulb, °F
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entering temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leaving temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor wet-bulb, °F
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entering temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leaving temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor dry-bulb, °F
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entering temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leaving temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 2.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor wet-bulb, °F
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entering temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>4</sup> 0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leaving temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">External resistance to airflow, inches of water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>5</sup> 0.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical voltage, % of rdg.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nozzle pressure drop, % of rdg.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Only applies during wet coil tests; does not apply during steady-state, dry coil cooling mode tests.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Only applies when using the outdoor air enthalpy method.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Only applies during wet coil cooling mode tests where the unit rejects condensate to the outdoor coil.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Only applies when testing non-ducted units.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>e. For air conditioners and heat pumps having a constant-air-volume-rate indoor blower, the five additional steps listed below are required if the average of the measured external static pressures exceeds the applicable sections 3.1.4 minimum (or target) external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">min</E>) by 0.03 inches of water or more.
</P>
<P>(1) Measure the average power consumption of the indoor blower motor (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,1</E>) and record the corresponding external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">1</E>) during or immediately following the 30-minute interval used for determining capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) After completing the 30-minute interval and while maintaining the same test conditions, adjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until the external static pressure increases to approximately ΔP<E T="52">1</E> + (ΔP<E T="52">1</E>−ΔP<E T="52">min</E>).
</P>
<P>(3) After re-establishing steady readings of the fan motor power and external static pressure, determine average values for the indoor blower power (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,2</E>) and the external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">2</E>) by making measurements over a 5-minute interval.
</P>
<P>(4) Approximate the average power consumption of the indoor blower motor at ΔP<E T="52">min</E> using linear extrapolation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.015.gif"/>
<P>(5) Increase the total space cooling capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T), by the quantity (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,1</E>−E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,min</E>), when expressed on a Btu/h basis. Decrease the total electrical power, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T), by the same fan power difference, now expressed in watts.
</P>
<HD2>3.4 Test Procedures for the Steady-State Dry-Coil Cooling-Mode Tests (the C, C<E T="54">1</E>, C<E T="54">2</E>, and G<E T="54">1</E> Tests)
</HD2>
<P>a. Except for the modifications noted in this section, conduct the steady-state dry coil cooling mode tests as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix for wet coil tests. Prior to recording data during the steady-state dry coil test, operate the unit at least one hour after achieving dry coil conditions. Drain the drain pan and plug the drain opening. Thereafter, the drain pan should remain completely dry.
</P>
<P>b. Denote the resulting total space cooling capacity and electrical power derived from the test as Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">ss,dry</E> and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">ss,dry</E>. With regard to a section 3.3 deviation, do not adjust Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">ss,dry</E> for duct losses (<I>i.e.,</I> do not apply section 7.3.3.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009). In preparing for the section 3.5 cyclic tests of this appendix, record the average indoor-side air volume rate, V
<AC T="I"/>, specific heat of the air, Cp,a (expressed on dry air basis), specific volume of the air at the nozzles, v′<E T="52">n</E>, humidity ratio at the nozzles, W<E T="52">n</E>, and either pressure difference or velocity pressure for the flow nozzles. For units having a variable-speed indoor blower (that provides either a constant or variable air volume rate) that will or may be tested during the cyclic dry coil cooling mode test with the indoor blower turned off (see section 3.5 of this appendix), include the electrical power used by the indoor blower motor among the recorded parameters from the 30-minute test.
</P>
<P>c. If the temperature sensors used to provide the primary measurement of the indoor-side dry bulb temperature difference during the steady-state dry-coil test and the subsequent cyclic dry-coil test are different, include measurements of the latter sensors among the regularly sampled data. Beginning at the start of the 30-minute data collection period, measure and compute the indoor-side air dry-bulb temperature difference using both sets of instrumentation, ΔT (Set SS) and ΔT (Set CYC), for each equally spaced data sample. If using a consistent data sampling rate that is less than 1 minute, calculate and record minutely averages for the two temperature differences. If using a consistent sampling rate of one minute or more, calculate and record the two temperature differences from each data sample. After having recorded the seventh (i=7) set of temperature differences, calculate the following ratio using the first seven sets of values:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.016.gif"/>
<P>Each time a subsequent set of temperature differences is recorded (if sampling more frequently than every 5 minutes), calculate F<E T="52">CD</E> using the most recent seven sets of values. Continue these calculations until the 30-minute period is completed or until a value for F<E T="52">CD</E> is calculated that falls outside the allowable range of 0.94-1.06. If the latter occurs, immediately suspend the test and identify the cause for the disparity in the two temperature difference measurements. Recalibration of one or both sets of instrumentation may be required. If all the values for F<E T="52">CD</E> are within the allowable range, save the final value of the ratio from the 30-minute test as F<E T="52">CD</E>*. If the temperature sensors used to provide the primary measurement of the indoor-side dry bulb temperature difference during the steady-state dry-coil test and the subsequent cyclic dry-coil test are the same, set F<E T="52">CD</E>*= 1.
</P>
<HD2>3.5 Test Procedures for the Cyclic Dry-Coil Cooling-Mode Tests (the D, D<E T="54">1</E>, D<E T="54">2</E>, and I<E T="54">1</E> Tests)
</HD2>
<P>After completing the steady-state dry-coil test, remove the outdoor air enthalpy method test apparatus, if connected, and begin manual OFF/ON cycling of the unit's compressor. The test set-up should otherwise be identical to the set-up used during the steady-state dry coil test. When testing heat pumps, leave the reversing valve during the compressor OFF cycles in the same position as used for the compressor ON cycles, unless automatically changed by the controls of the unit. For units having a variable-speed indoor blower, the manufacturer has the option of electing at the outset whether to conduct the cyclic test with the indoor blower enabled or disabled. Always revert to testing with the indoor blower disabled if cyclic testing with the fan enabled is unsuccessful.
</P>
<P>a. For all cyclic tests, the measured capacity must be adjusted for the thermal mass stored in devices and connections located between measured points. Follow the procedure outlined in section 7.4.3.4.5 of ASHRAE 116-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) to ensure any required measurements are taken.
</P>
<P>b. For units having a single-speed or two-capacity compressor, cycle the compressor OFF for 24 minutes and then ON for 6 minutes (Δτ<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> = 0.5 hours). For units having a variable-speed compressor, cycle the compressor OFF for 48 minutes and then ON for 12 minutes (Δτ<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> = 1.0 hours). Repeat the OFF/ON compressor cycling pattern until the test is completed. Allow the controls of the unit to regulate cycling of the outdoor fan. If an upturned duct is used, measure the dry-bulb temperature at the inlet of the device at least once every minute and ensure that its test operating tolerance is within 1.0 °F for each compressor OFF period.
</P>
<P>c. Sections 3.5.1 and 3.5.2 of this appendix specify airflow requirements through the indoor coil of ducted and non-ducted indoor units, respectively. In all cases, use the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus (covered under section 2.6 of this appendix) along with the indoor blower of the unit, if installed and operating, to approximate a step response in the indoor coil airflow. Regulate the exhaust fan to quickly obtain and then maintain the flow nozzle static pressure difference or velocity pressure at the same value as was measured during the steady-state dry coil test. The pressure difference or velocity pressure should be within 2 percent of the value from the steady-state dry coil test within 15 seconds after airflow initiation. For units having a variable-speed indoor blower that ramps when cycling on and/or off, use the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus to impose a step response that begins at the initiation of ramp up and ends at the termination of ramp down.
</P>
<P>d. For units having a variable-speed indoor blower, conduct the cyclic dry coil test using the pull-thru approach described below if any of the following occur when testing with the fan operating:
</P>
<P>(1) The test unit automatically cycles off;
</P>
<P>(2) Its blower motor reverses; or
</P>
<P>(3) The unit operates for more than 30 seconds at an external static pressure that is 0.1 inches of water or more higher than the value measured during the prior steady-state test.
</P>
<P>For the pull-thru approach, disable the indoor blower and use the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus to generate the specified flow nozzles static pressure difference or velocity pressure. If the exhaust fan cannot deliver the required pressure difference because of resistance created by the unpowered indoor blower, temporarily remove the indoor blower.
</P>
<P>e. Conduct three complete compressor OFF/ON cycles with the test tolerances given in Table 10 satisfied. Calculate the degradation coefficient C<E T="52">D</E> for each complete cycle. If all three C<E T="52">D</E> values are within 0.02 of the average C<E T="52">D</E> then stability has been achieved, and the highest C<E T="52">D</E> value of these three shall be used. If stability has not been achieved, conduct additional cycles, up to a maximum of eight cycles total, until stability has been achieved between three consecutive cycles. Once stability has been achieved, use the highest C<E T="52">D</E> value of the three consecutive cycles that establish stability. If stability has not been achieved after eight cycles, use the highest C<E T="52">D</E> from cycle one through cycle eight, or the default C<E T="52">D</E>, whichever is lower.
</P>
<P>f. With regard to the Table 10 parameters, continuously record the dry-bulb temperature of the air entering the indoor and outdoor coils during periods when air flows through the respective coils. Sample the water vapor content of the indoor coil inlet air at least every 2 minutes during periods when air flows through the coil. Record external static pressure and the air volume rate indicator (either nozzle pressure difference or velocity pressure) at least every minute during the interval that air flows through the indoor coil. (These regular measurements of the airflow rate indicator are in addition to the required measurement at 15 seconds after flow initiation.) Sample the electrical voltage at least every 2 minutes beginning 30 seconds after compressor start-up. Continue until the compressor, the outdoor fan, and the indoor blower (if it is installed and operating) cycle off.
</P>
<P>g. For ducted units, continuously record the dry-bulb temperature of the air entering (as noted above) and leaving the indoor coil. Or if using a thermopile, continuously record the difference between these two temperatures during the interval that air flows through the indoor coil. For non-ducted units, make the same dry-bulb temperature measurements beginning when the compressor cycles on and ending when indoor coil airflow ceases.
</P>
<P>h. Integrate the electrical power over complete cycles of length Δτ<E T="52">cyc,dry</E>. For ducted blower coil systems tested with the unit's indoor blower operating for the cycling test, integrate electrical power from indoor blower OFF to indoor blower OFF. For all other ducted units and for non-ducted units, integrate electrical power from compressor OFF to compressor OFF. (Some cyclic tests will use the same data collection intervals to determine the electrical energy and the total space cooling. For other units, terminate data collection used to determine the electrical energy before terminating data collection used to determine total space cooling.)
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10—Test Operating and Test Condition Tolerances for Cyclic Dry Coil Cooling Mode Tests
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test operating tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test condition tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor entering dry-bulb temperature,
<sup>2</sup> °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor entering wet-bulb temperature, °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor entering dry-bulb temperature,
<sup>2</sup> °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">External resistance to airflow,
<sup>2</sup> inches of water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Airflow nozzle pressure difference or velocity pressure,
<sup>2</sup> % of reading</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>4</sup> 2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical voltage,
<sup>5</sup> % of rdg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Applies during the interval that air flows through the indoor (outdoor) coil except for the first 30 seconds after flow initiation. For units having a variable-speed indoor blower that ramps, the tolerances listed for the external resistance to airflow apply from 30 seconds after achieving full speed until ramp down begins.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Shall at no time exceed a wet-bulb temperature that results in condensate forming on the indoor coil.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The test condition shall be the average nozzle pressure difference or velocity pressure measured during the steady-state dry coil test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Applies during the interval when at least one of the following—the compressor, the outdoor fan, or, if applicable, the indoor blower—are operating except for the first 30 seconds after compressor start-up.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>If the Table 10 tolerances are satisfied over the complete cycle, record the measured electrical energy consumption as e<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> and express it in units of watt-hours. Calculate the total space cooling delivered, q<E T="52">cyc,dry</E>, in units of Btu using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.017.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V
<AC T="I"/>, C<E T="52">p,a</E>, v<E T="52">n</E>′ (or v<E T="52">n</E>), W<E T="52">n</E>, and F<E T="52">CD</E>* are the values recorded during the section 3.4 dry coil steady-state test and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">al</E>(τ) = dry bulb temperature of the air entering the indoor coil at time τ, °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">a2</E>(τ) = dry bulb temperature of the air leaving the indoor coil at time τ, °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>τ<E T="52">1</E> = for ducted units, the elapsed time when airflow is initiated through the indoor coil; for non-ducted units, the elapsed time when the compressor is cycled on, hr.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>τ<E T="52">2</E> = the elapsed time when indoor coil airflow ceases, hr.
</FP-2>
<P>Adjust the total space cooling delivered, q<E T="52">cyc,dry</E>, according to calculation method outlined in section 7.4.3.4.5 of ASHRAE 116-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD3>3.5.1 Procedures When Testing Ducted Systems
</HD3>
<P>The automatic controls that are installed in the test unit must govern the OFF/ON cycling of the air moving equipment on the indoor side (exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus and the indoor blower of the test unit). For ducted coil-only systems rated based on using a fan time-delay relay, control the indoor coil airflow according to the OFF delay listed by the manufacturer in the certification report. For ducted units having a variable-speed indoor blower that has been disabled (and possibly removed), start and stop the indoor airflow at the same instances as if the fan were enabled. For all other ducted coil-only systems, cycle the indoor coil airflow in unison with the cycling of the compressor. If air damper boxes are used, close them on the inlet and outlet side during the OFF period. Airflow through the indoor coil should stop within 3 seconds after the automatic controls of the test unit (act to) de-energize the indoor blower. For ducted coil-only systems (excluding the special case where a variable-speed fan is temporarily removed), increase e<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> by the quantity,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.018.gif"/>
<P>and decrease q<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> by,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.019.gif"/>
<FP-2>where V
<AC T="I"/><E T="52">s</E> is the average indoor air volume rate from the section 3.4 dry coil steady-state test and is expressed in units of cubic feet per minute of standard air (scfm). For units having a variable-speed indoor blower that is disabled during the cyclic test, increase e<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> and decrease q<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> based on:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>a. The product of [τ<E T="52">2</E> - <E T="52">τ1</E>] and the indoor blower power measured during or following the dry coil steady-state test; or,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>b. The following algorithm if the indoor blower ramps its speed when cycling.
</FP-2>
<P>(1) Measure the electrical power consumed by the variable-speed indoor blower at a minimum of three operating conditions: At the speed/air volume rate/external static pressure that was measured during the steady-state test, at operating conditions associated with the midpoint of the ramp-up interval, and at conditions associated with the midpoint of the ramp-down interval. For these measurements, the tolerances on the airflow volume or the external static pressure are the same as required for the section 3.4 steady-state test.
</P>
<P>(2) For each case, determine the fan power from measurements made over a minimum of 5 minutes.
</P>
<P>(3) Approximate the electrical energy consumption of the indoor blower if it had operated during the cyclic test using all three power measurements. Assume a linear profile during the ramp intervals. The manufacturer must provide the durations of the ramp-up and ramp-down intervals. If the test setup instructions included with the unit by the manufacturer specifies a ramp interval that exceeds 45 seconds, use a 45-second ramp interval nonetheless when estimating the fan energy.
</P>
<HD3>3.5.2 Procedures When Testing Non-Ducted Indoor Units
</HD3>
<P>Do not use airflow prevention devices when conducting cyclic tests on non-ducted indoor units. Until the last OFF/ON compressor cycle, airflow through the indoor coil must cycle off and on in unison with the compressor. For the last OFF/ON compressor cycle—the one used to determine e<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> and q<E T="52">cyc,dry</E>—use the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus and the indoor blower of the test unit to have indoor airflow start 3 minutes prior to compressor cut-on and end three minutes after compressor cutoff. Subtract the electrical energy used by the indoor blower during the 3 minutes prior to compressor cut-on from the integrated electrical energy, e<E T="52">cyc,dry.</E> Add the electrical energy used by the indoor blower during the 3 minutes after compressor cutoff to the integrated cooling capacity, q<E T="52">cyc,dry.</E> For the case where the non-ducted indoor unit uses a variable-speed indoor blower which is disabled during the cyclic test, correct e<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> and q<E T="52">cyc,dry</E> using the same approach as prescribed in section 3.5.1 of this appendix for ducted units having a disabled variable-speed indoor blower.
</P>
<HD3>3.5.3 Cooling-Mode Cyclic-Degradation Coefficient Calculation
</HD3>
<P>Use the two dry-coil tests to determine the cooling-mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>. Append “(k=2)” to the coefficient if it corresponds to a two-capacity unit cycling at high capacity. If the two optional tests are conducted but yield a tested CD
<SU>c</SU> that exceeds the default CD
<SU>c</SU> or if the two optional tests are not conducted, assign CD
<SU>c</SU> the default value of 0.25 for variable-speed compressor systems and outdoor units with no match, and 0.20 for all other systems. The default value for two-capacity units cycling at high capacity, however, is the low-capacity coefficient, <I>i.e.,</I> C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>(k=2) = C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>. Evaluate C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> using the above results and those from the section 3.4 dry-coil steady-state test.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.020.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.021.gif"/>
<FP-2>the average energy efficiency ratio during the cyclic dry coil cooling mode test, Btu/W·h
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.022.gif"/>
<FP-2>the average energy efficiency ratio during the steady-state dry coil cooling mode test, Btu/W·h
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.023.gif"/>
<FP-2>the cooling load factor dimensionless
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Round the calculated value for C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> to the nearest 0.01. If C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> is negative, then set it equal to zero.
</FP-2>
<HD2>3.6 Heating Mode Tests for Different Types of Heat Pumps, Including Heating-Only Heat Pumps
</HD2>
<HD3>3.6.1 Tests for a Heat Pump Having a Single-Speed Compressor and Fixed Heating Air Volume Rate
</HD3>
<P>This set of tests is for single-speed-compressor heat pumps that do not have a heating minimum air volume rate or a heating intermediate air volume rate that is different than the heating full load air volume rate. Conduct the optional high temperature cyclic (H1C) test to determine the heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>. If this optional test is conducted but yields a tested C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> or if the optional test is not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> the default value of 0.25. Test conditions for the four tests are specified in Table 10.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11—Heating Mode Test Conditions for Units Having a Single-Speed Compressor and a Fixed-Speed Indoor Blower, a Constant Air Volume Rate Indoor Blower, or No Indoor Blower
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit
<br/>temperature
<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit
<br/>temperature
<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Heating air volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1 Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-load.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1C Test (optional, cyclic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2 Test (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-load.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3 Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-load.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.4 of this appendix.

f
<sup>2</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzles static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure difference or velocity pressure as measured during the H1 Test.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.6.2 Tests for a Heat Pump Having a Single-Speed Compressor and a Single Indoor Unit Having Either (1) a Variable Speed, Variable-Air-Rate Indoor Blower Whose Capacity Modulation Correlates With Outdoor Dry Bulb Temperature or (2) Multiple Indoor Blowers
</HD3>
<P>Conduct five tests: Two high temperature tests (H1<E T="52">2</E> and H1<E T="52">1</E>), one frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">2</E>), and two low temperature tests (H3<E T="52">2</E> and H3<E T="52">1</E>). Conducting an additional frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">1</E>) is optional. Conduct the optional high temperature cyclic (H1C<E T="52">1</E>) test to determine the heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>. If this optional test is conducted but yields a tested C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> or if the optional test is not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> the default value of 0.25. Test conditions for the seven tests are specified in Table 12. If the optional H2<E T="52">1</E> test is not performed, use the following equations to approximate the capacity and electrical power of the heat pump at the H2<E T="52">1</E> test conditions:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.024.gif"/>
<P>The quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47), E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47), Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(47), and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(47) are determined from the H1<E T="52">2</E> and H1<E T="52">1</E> tests and evaluated as specified in section 3.7 of this appendix; the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(35) are determined from the H2<E T="52">2</E> test and evaluated as specified in section 3.9 of this appendix; and the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17), E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17), Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(17), and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(17), are determined from the H3<E T="52">2</E> and H3<E T="52">1</E> tests and evaluated as specified in section 3.10 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12—Table Heating Mode Test Conditions for Units With a Single-Speed Compressor That Meet the Section 3.6.2 Indoor Unit Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit
<br/>temperature
<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit
<br/>temperature
<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Heating air volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="0732">2</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-load.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="0732">1</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Minimum.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1C<E T="0732">1</E> Test (optional, cyclic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="0732">2</E> Test (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-load.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="0732">1</E> Test (optional)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Minimum.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="0732">2</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-load.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="0732">1</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Minimum.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.4 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzles static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure difference or velocity pressure as measured during the H1<E T="0732">1</E> test.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.6.3 Tests for a Heat Pump Having a Two-Capacity Compressor (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions), Including Two-Capacity, Northern Heat Pumps (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions)
</HD3>
<P>a. Conduct one maximum temperature test (H0<E T="52">1</E>), two high temperature tests (H1<E T="52">2</E>and H1<E T="52">1</E>), one frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">2</E>), and one low temperature test (H3<E T="52">2</E>). Conduct an additional frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">1</E>) and low temperature test (H3<E T="52">1</E>) if both of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(1) Knowledge of the heat pump's capacity and electrical power at low compressor capacity for outdoor temperatures of 37 °F and less is needed to complete the section 4.2.3 of this appendix seasonal performance calculations; and
</P>
<P>(2) The heat pump's controls allow low-capacity operation at outdoor temperatures of 37 °F and less.
</P>
<P>If the above two conditions are met, an alternative to conducting the H2<E T="52">1</E> frost accumulation is to use the following equations to approximate the capacity and electrical power:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.306.gif"/>
<P>Determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (47) from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test and evaluate them according to section 3.7 of this appendix. Determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (17) from the H3<E T="52">1</E> test and evaluate them according to section 3.10 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. Conduct the optional high temperature cyclic test (H1C<E T="52">1</E>) to determine the heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>. If this optional test is conducted but yields a tested C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> or if the optional test is not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> the default value of 0.25. If a two-capacity heat pump locks out low capacity operation at lower outdoor temperatures, conduct the high temperature cyclic test (H1C <E T="52">2</E>) to determine the high-capacity heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=2). If this optional test at high capacity is conducted but yields a tested C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k = 2) that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k = 2) or if the optional test is not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> the default value. The default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=2) is the same value as determined or assigned for the low-capacity cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> [or equivalently, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=1)]. Table 13 specifies test conditions for these nine tests.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13—Heating Mode Test Conditions for Units Having a Two-Capacity Compressor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit
<br/>temperature
<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit
<br/>temperature
<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Compressor capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Heating air volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H0<E T="52">1</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Heating Minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="52">2</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1C<E T="52">2</E> Test (optional 
<sup>7</sup>, cyclic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="52">1</E> Test (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Heating Minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1C<E T="52">1</E> Test (optional, cyclic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="52">2</E> Test (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="52">1</E> Test 
<sup>5 6</sup> (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Heating Minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="52">2</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="52">1</E> Test 
<sup>5</sup> (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> Heating Minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.4 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure or velocity as measured during the <E T="03">H1</E><E T="52">2</E> test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure or velocity as measured during the <E T="03">H1</E><E T="52">1</E> test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Required only if the heat pump's performance when operating at low compressor capacity and outdoor temperatures less than 37 °F is needed to complete the section 4.2.3 <E T="03">HSPF</E> calculations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> If table note #5 applies, the section 3.6.3 equations for Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (17) may be used in lieu of conducting the H2<E T="52">1</E> test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Required only if the heat pump locks out low capacity operation at lower outdoor temperatures.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.6.4 Tests for a Heat Pump Having a Variable-Speed Compressor
</HD3>
<P>a. Conduct one maximum temperature test (H0<E T="52">1</E>), two high temperature tests (H1<E T="52">N</E> and H1<E T="52">1</E>), one frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">V</E>), and one low temperature test (H3<E T="52">2</E>). Conducting one or both of the following tests is optional: An additional high temperature test (H1<E T="52">2</E>) and an additional frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">2</E>). If desired, conduct the optional maximum temperature cyclic (H0C<E T="52">1</E>) test to determine the heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>. If this optional test is conducted but yields a tested C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> or if the optional test is not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> the default value of 0.25. Test conditions for the eight tests are specified in Table 14 to this appendix. The compressor shall operate at the same heating full speed, measured by RPM or power input frequency (Hz), for the H1<E T="52">2</E>, H2<E T="52">2</E> and H3<E T="52">2</E> tests. For a cooling/heating heat pump, the compressor shall operate for the H1<E T="52">N</E> test at a speed, measured by RPM or power input frequency (Hz), no lower than the speed used in the A<E T="52">2</E> test if the tested H1<E T="52">N</E> heating capacity is less than the tested A<E T="52">2</E> cooling capacity. The compressor shall operate at the same heating minimum speed, measured by RPM or power input frequency (Hz), for the H0<E T="52">1</E>, H1C<E T="52">1</E>, and H1<E T="52">1</E> tests. Determine the heating intermediate compressor speed cited in Table 14 using the heating mode full and minimum compressors speeds and:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc22.013.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where a tolerance on speed of plus 5 percent or the next higher inverter frequency step from the calculated value is allowed.
</FP-2>
<P>b. If the H1<E T="52">2</E> test is conducted, set the 47 °F capacity and power input values used for calculation of HSPF equal to the measured values for that test:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.313.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) are the capacity and power input representing full-speed operation at 47 °F for the HSPF calculations,
</P>
<P>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) is the capacity measured in the H1<E T="52">2</E> test, and
</P>
<P>E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) is the power input measured in the H1<E T="52">2</E> test.
</P>
<P>Evaluate the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) and from E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) according to section 3.7.
</P>
<P>Otherwise, if the H1<E T="52">N</E> test is conducted using the same compressor speed (RPM or power input frequency) as the H3<E T="52">2</E> test, set the 47 °F capacity and power input values used for calculation of HSPF equal to the measured values for that test:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.307.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) are the capacity and power input representing full-speed operation at 47 °F for the HSPF calculations,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=N</E>(47) is the capacity measured in the H1<E T="52">N</E> test, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=N</E>(47) is the power input measured in the H1<E T="52">N</E> test.
</FP-2>
<P>Evaluate the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=N</E>(47) and from E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=N</E>(47) according to section 3.7.
</P>
<P>Otherwise (if no high temperature test is conducted using the same speed (RPM or power input frequency) as the H3<E T="52">2</E> test), calculate the 47 °F capacity and power input values used for calculation of HSPF as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.308.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) are the capacity and power input representing full-speed operation at 47 °F for the HSPF calculations,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(17) is the capacity measured in the H3<E T="52">2</E> test,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(17) is the power input measured in the H3<E T="52">2</E> test,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CSF is the capacity slope factor, equal to 0.0204/ °F for split systems and 0.0262/ °F for single-package systems, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PSF is the Power Slope Factor, equal to 0.00455/ °F.
</FP-2>
<P>c. If the H2<E T="52">2</E> test is not done, use the following equations to approximate the capacity and electrical power at the H2<E T="52">2</E> test conditions:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.309.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">hcalc</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(47) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">hcalc</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(47) are the capacity and power input representing full-speed operation at 47 °F for the HSPF calculations, calculated as described in section b above.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(17) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(17) are the capacity and power input measured in the H3<E T="52">2</E> test.
</FP-2>
<P>d. Determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">2</E> test, determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(5) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(5) from the H4<E T="52">2</E> test, and evaluate all four according to section 3.10.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14—Heating Mode Test Conditions for Units Having a Variable-Speed Compressor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit
<br/>temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit
<br/>temperature ( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Compressor speed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Heating air volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H0<E T="0732">1</E> test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="0732">2</E> test (optional, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating full 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating full-load.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="0732">1</E> test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="0732">N</E> test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating full-load.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1C<E T="0732">1</E> test (optional, cyclic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating minimum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="0732">2</E> test (optional)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating full 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating full-load.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="0732">V</E> test (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating intermediate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating intermediate.
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="0732">2</E> test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating full-load.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during an ON period at the same pressure or velocity as measured during the H1<E T="0732">1</E> test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.4 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The same compressor speed used in the H3<E T="0732">2</E> test. The H1<E T="0732">2</E> test is not needed if the H1<E T="0732">N</E> test uses this same compressor speed.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.6 of this appendix.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.6.5 Additional Test for a Heat Pump Having a Heat Comfort Controller
</HD3>
<P>Test any heat pump that has a heat comfort controller (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions) according to section 3.6.1, 3.6.2, or 3.6.3, whichever applies, with the heat comfort controller disabled. Additionally, conduct the abbreviated test described in section 3.1.10 of this appendix with the heat comfort controller active to determine the system's maximum supply air temperature. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Heat pumps having a variable speed compressor and a heat comfort controller are not covered in the test procedure at this time.)
</P>
<HD3>3.6.6 Heating Mode Tests for Northern Heat Pumps With Triple-Capacity Compressors.
</HD3>
<P>Test triple-capacity, northern heat pumps for the heating mode as follows:
</P>
<P>a. Conduct one maximum-temperature test (H0<E T="52">1</E>), two high-temperature tests (H1<E T="52">2</E> and H1<E T="52">1</E>), one frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">2</E>), two low-temperature tests (H3<E T="52">2</E>, H3<E T="52">3</E>), and one minimum-temperature test (H4<E T="52">3</E>). Conduct an additional frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">1</E>) and low-temperature test (H3<E T="52">1</E>) if both of the following conditions exist: (1) Knowledge of the heat pump's capacity and electrical power at low compressor capacity for outdoor temperatures of 37 °F and less is needed to complete the section 4.2.6 seasonal performance calculations; and (2) the heat pump's controls allow low-capacity operation at outdoor temperatures of 37 °F and less. If the above two conditions are met, an alternative to conducting the H2<E T="52">1</E> frost accumulation test to determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(35) is to use the following equations to approximate this capacity and electrical power:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.310.gif"/>
<P>In evaluating the above equations, determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test and evaluate them according to section 3.7 of this appendix. Determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">1</E> test and evaluate them according to section 3.10 of this appendix. Use the paired values of Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(35) derived from conducting the H2<E T="52">1</E> frost accumulation test and evaluated as specified in section 3.9.1 of this appendix or use the paired values calculated using the above default equations, whichever contribute to a higher Region IV HSPF based on the DHRmin.
</P>
<P>b. Conducting a frost accumulation test (H2<E T="52">3</E>) with the heat pump operating at its booster capacity is optional. If this optional test is not conducted, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k=3</SU>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=3</E>(35) using the following equations to approximate this capacity and electrical power:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.311.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.026.gif"/>
<P>Determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">2</E> test and evaluate them according to section 3.7 of this appendix. Determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(35) from the H2<E T="52">2</E> test and evaluate them according to section 3.9.1 of this appendix. Determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">2</E> test, determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k=3</SU>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=3</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">3</E> test, and determine the quantities Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=3</E>(5) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=3</E>(5) from the H4<E T="52">3</E> test. Evaluate all six quantities according to section 3.10 of this appendix. Use the paired values of Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=3</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=3</E>(35) derived from conducting the H2<E T="52">3</E> frost accumulation test and calculated as specified in section 3.9.1 of this appendix or use the paired values calculated using the above default equations, whichever contribute to a higher Region IV HSPF based on the DHRmin.
</P>
<P>c. Conduct the optional high-temperature cyclic test (H1C<E T="52">1</E>) to determine the heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>. A default value for C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> may be used in lieu of conducting the cyclic. The default value of C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> is 0.25. If a triple-capacity heat pump locks out low capacity operation at lower outdoor temperatures, conduct the high-temperature cyclic test (H1C<E T="52">2</E>) to determine the high-capacity heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=2). The default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=2) is the same value as determined or assigned for the low-capacity cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> [or equivalently, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=1)]. Finally, if a triple-capacity heat pump locks out both low and high capacity operation at the lowest outdoor temperatures, conduct the low-temperature cyclic test (H3C<E T="52">3</E>) to determine the booster-capacity heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=3). The default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=3) is the same value as determined or assigned for the high-capacity cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> [or equivalently, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=2)]. Table 15 specifies test conditions for all 13 tests.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15—Heating Mode Test Conditions for Units With a Triple-Capacity Compressor
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering indoor unit
<br/>temperature
<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Air entering outdoor unit
<br/>temperature
<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Compressor capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Heating air volume rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H0<E T="0732">1</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="0732">2</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1C<E T="0732">2</E> Test (optional,
<sup>8</sup> cyclic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1<E T="0732">1</E> Test (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H1C<E T="0732">1</E> Test (optional, cyclic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>4</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="0732">3</E> Test (optional, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Booster</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="0732">2</E> Test (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H2<E T="0732">1</E> Test (required)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="0732">3</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Booster</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3C<E T="0732">3</E> Test
<sup>5 6</sup> (optional, cyclic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Booster</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>7</sup>).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="0732">2</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H3<E T="0732">1</E> Test
<sup>5</sup> (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Minimum.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H4<E T="0732">3</E> Test (required, steady)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
<sup>(max)</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Booster</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heating Full-Load.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.5 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Defined in section 3.1.4.4 of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure or velocity as measured during the H1<E T="0732">2</E> test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure or velocity as measured during the H1<E T="0732">1</E> test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Required only if the heat pump's performance when operating at low compressor capacity and outdoor temperatures less than 37 °F is needed to complete the section 4.2.6 HSPF calculations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> If table note 
<sup>5</sup> applies, the section 3.6.6 equations for Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="0732">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="0732">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(17) may be used in lieu of conducting the H2<E T="0732">1</E> test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> Maintain the airflow nozzle(s) static pressure difference or velocity pressure during the ON period at the same pressure or velocity as measured during the H3<E T="0732">3</E> test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> Required only if the heat pump locks out low capacity operation at lower outdoor temperatures.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.6.7 Tests for a Heat Pump Having a Single Indoor Unit Having Multiple Indoor Blowers and Offering Two Stages of Compressor Modulation
</HD3>
<P>Conduct the heating mode tests specified in section 3.6.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>3.7 Test Procedures for Steady-State Maximum Temperature and High Temperature Heating Mode Tests (the H0<E T="54">1</E>, H1, H1<E T="54">2</E>, H1<E T="54">1</E>, and H1<E T="54">N</E> Tests)
</HD2>
<P>a. For the pretest interval, operate the test room reconditioning apparatus and the heat pump until equilibrium conditions are maintained for at least 30 minutes at the specified section 3.6 test conditions. Use the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus and, if installed, the indoor blower of the heat pump to obtain and then maintain the indoor air volume rate and/or the external static pressure specified for the particular test. Continuously record the dry-bulb temperature of the air entering the indoor coil, and the dry-bulb temperature and water vapor content of the air entering the outdoor coil. Refer to section 3.11 of this appendix for additional requirements that depend on the selected secondary test method. After satisfying the pretest equilibrium requirements, make the measurements specified in Table 3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) for the indoor air enthalpy method and the user-selected secondary method. Make said Table 3 measurements at equal intervals that span 5 minutes or less. Continue data sampling until a 30-minute period (<I>e.g.,</I> seven consecutive 5-minute samples) is reached where the test tolerances specified in Table 16 are satisfied. For those continuously recorded parameters, use the entire data set for the 30-minute interval when evaluating Table 16 compliance. Determine the average electrical power consumption of the heat pump over the same 30-minute interval.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16—Test Operating and Test Condition Tolerances for Section 3.7 and Section 3.10 Steady-State Heating Mode Tests
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test operating
<br/>tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test condition
<br/>tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor dry-bulb, °F:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entering temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leaving temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor wet-bulb, °F:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entering temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leaving temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor dry-bulb, °F:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entering temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leaving temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 2.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor wet-bulb, °F:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Entering temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leaving temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">External resistance to airflow, inches of water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 0.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical voltage, % of rdg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nozzle pressure drop, % of rdg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Only applies when the Outdoor Air Enthalpy Method is used.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Only applies when testing non-ducted units.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. Calculate indoor-side total heating capacity as specified in sections 7.3.4.1 and 7.3.4.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). To calculate capacity, use the averages of the measurements (<I>e.g.</I> inlet and outlet dry bulb temperatures measured at the psychrometers) that are continuously recorded for the same 30-minute interval used as described above to evaluate compliance with test tolerances. Do not adjust the parameters used in calculating capacity for the permitted variations in test conditions. Assign the average space heating capacity and electrical power over the 30-minute data collection interval to the variables Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU> and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T) respectively. The “T” and superscripted “k” are the same as described in section 3.3 of this appendix. Additionally, for the heating mode, use the superscript to denote results from the optional H1<E T="52">N</E> test, if conducted.
</P>
<P>c. For coil-only system heat pumps, increase Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T) by
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.028.gif"/>
<FP>where V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">s</E> is the average measured indoor air volume rate expressed in units of cubic feet per minute of standard air (scfm). During the 30-minute data collection interval of a high temperature test, pay attention to preventing a defrost cycle. Prior to this time, allow the heat pump to perform a defrost cycle if automatically initiated by its own controls. As in all cases, wait for the heat pump's defrost controls to automatically terminate the defrost cycle. Heat pumps that undergo a defrost should operate in the heating mode for at least 10 minutes after defrost termination prior to beginning the 30-minute data collection interval. For some heat pumps, frost may accumulate on the outdoor coil during a high temperature test. If the indoor coil leaving air temperature or the difference between the leaving and entering air temperatures decreases by more than 1.5 °F over the 30-minute data collection interval, then do not use the collected data to determine capacity. Instead, initiate a defrost cycle. Begin collecting data no sooner than 10 minutes after defrost termination. Collect 30 minutes of new data during which the Table 16 test tolerances are satisfied. In this case, use only the results from the second 30-minute data collection interval to evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(47).
</FP>
<P>d. If conducting the cyclic heating mode test, which is described in section 3.8 of this appendix, record the average indoor-side air volume rate, V
<AC T="i"/>, specific heat of the air, C<E T="52">p,a</E> (expressed on dry air basis), specific volume of the air at the nozzles, v<E T="52">n</E>′ (or v<E T="52">n</E>), humidity ratio at the nozzles, W<E T="52">n</E>, and either pressure difference or velocity pressure for the flow nozzles. If either or both of the below criteria apply, determine the average, steady-state, electrical power consumption of the indoor blower motor (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,1</E>):
</P>
<P>(1) The section 3.8 cyclic test will be conducted and the heat pump has a variable-speed indoor blower that is expected to be disabled during the cyclic test; or
</P>
<P>(2) The heat pump has a (variable-speed) constant-air volume-rate indoor blower and during the steady-state test the average external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">1</E>) exceeds the applicable section 3.1.4.4 minimum (or targeted) external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">min</E>) by 0.03 inches of water or more.
</P>
<P>Determine E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,1</E> by making measurements during the 30-minute data collection interval, or immediately following the test and prior to changing the test conditions. When the above “2” criteria applies, conduct the following four steps after determining E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,1</E> (which corresponds to ΔP<E T="52">1</E>):
</P>
<P>(i) While maintaining the same test conditions, adjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until the external static pressure increases to approximately ΔP<E T="52">1</E> + (ΔP<E T="52">1</E> − ΔP<E T="52">min</E>).
</P>
<P>(ii) After re-establishing steady readings for fan motor power and external static pressure, determine average values for the indoor blower power (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,2</E>) and the external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">2</E>) by making measurements over a 5-minute interval.
</P>
<P>(iii) Approximate the average power consumption of the indoor blower motor if the 30-minute test had been conducted at ΔP<E T="52">min</E> using linear extrapolation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.029.gif"/>
<P>(iv) Decrease the total space heating capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E>(T), by the quantity (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,1</E> − E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,min</E>), when expressed on a Btu/h basis. Decrease the total electrical power, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E>(T) by the same fan power difference, now expressed in watts.
</P>
<P>e. If the temperature sensors used to provide the primary measurement of the indoor-side dry bulb temperature difference during the steady-state dry-coil test and the subsequent cyclic dry-coil test are different, include measurements of the latter sensors among the regularly sampled data. Beginning at the start of the 30-minute data collection period, measure and compute the indoor-side air dry-bulb temperature difference using both sets of instrumentation, ΔT (Set SS) and ΔT (Set CYC), for each equally spaced data sample. If using a consistent data sampling rate that is less than 1 minute, calculate and record minutely averages for the two temperature differences. If using a consistent sampling rate of one minute or more, calculate and record the two temperature differences from each data sample. After having recorded the seventh (i=7) set of temperature differences, calculate the following ratio using the first seven sets of values:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.030.gif"/>
<FP>Each time a subsequent set of temperature differences is recorded (if sampling more frequently than every 5 minutes), calculate <I>F</I><E T="54">CD</E> using the most recent seven sets of values. Continue these calculations until the 30-minute period is completed or until a value for <I>F</I><E T="54">CD</E> is calculated that falls outside the allowable range of 0.94-1.06. If the latter occurs, immediately suspend the test and identify the cause for the disparity in the two temperature difference measurements. Recalibration of one or both sets of instrumentation may be required. If all the values for <I>F</I><E T="54">CD</E> are within the allowable range, save the final value of the ratio from the 30-minute test as <I>F</I><E T="54">CD</E>*. If the temperature sensors used to provide the primary measurement of the indoor-side dry bulb temperature difference during the steady-state dry-coil test and the subsequent cyclic dry-coil test are the same, set <I>F</I><E T="54">CD</E>*= 1.
</FP>
<HD2>3.8 Test Procedures for the Cyclic Heating Mode Tests (the H0C<E T="54">1</E>, H1C, H1C<E T="54">1</E> and H1C<E T="54">2</E> Tests)
</HD2>
<P>a. Except as noted below, conduct the cyclic heating mode test as specified in section 3.5 of this appendix. As adapted to the heating mode, replace section 3.5 references to “the steady-state dry coil test” with “the heating mode steady-state test conducted at the same test conditions as the cyclic heating mode test.” Use the test tolerances in Table 17 rather than Table 10. Record the outdoor coil entering wet-bulb temperature according to the requirements given in section 3.5 of this appendix for the outdoor coil entering dry-bulb temperature. Drop the subscript “dry” used in variables cited in section 3.5 of this appendix when referring to quantities from the cyclic heating mode test. Determine the total space heating delivered during the cyclic heating test, q<E T="52">cyc</E>, as specified in section 3.5 of this appendix except for making the following changes:
</P>
<P>(1) When evaluating Equation 3.5-1, use the values of V
<AC T="i"/>, C<E T="52">p,a</E>,v<E T="52">n</E>′, (or v<E T="52">n</E>), and W<E T="52">n</E> that were recorded during the section 3.7 steady-state test conducted at the same test conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Calculate Γ using
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.031.gif"/>
<FP>where <I>F</I><E T="54">CD</E>* is the value recorded during the section 3.7 steady-state test conducted at the same test condition.
</FP>
<P>b. For ducted coil-only system heat pumps (excluding the special case where a variable-speed fan is temporarily removed), increase q<E T="52">cyc</E> by the amount calculated using Equation 3.5-3. Additionally, increase e<E T="52">cyc</E> by the amount calculated using Equation 3.5-2. In making these calculations, use the average indoor air volume rate (V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">s</E>) determined from the section 3.7 steady-state heating mode test conducted at the same test conditions.
</P>
<P>c. For non-ducted heat pumps, subtract the electrical energy used by the indoor blower during the 3 minutes after compressor cutoff from the non-ducted heat pump's integrated heating capacity, q<E T="52">cyc</E>.
</P>
<P>d. If a heat pump defrost cycle is manually or automatically initiated immediately prior to or during the OFF/ON cycling, operate the heat pump continuously until 10 minutes after defrost termination. After that, begin cycling the heat pump immediately or delay until the specified test conditions have been re-established. Pay attention to preventing defrosts after beginning the cycling process. For heat pumps that cycle off the indoor blower during a defrost cycle, make no effort here to restrict the air movement through the indoor coil while the fan is off. Resume the OFF/ON cycling while conducting a minimum of two complete compressor OFF/ON cycles before determining q<E T="52">cyc</E> and e<E T="52">cyc</E>.
</P>
<HD3>3.8.1 Heating Mode Cyclic-Degradation Coefficient Calculation
</HD3>
<P>Use the results from the required cyclic test and the required steady-state test that were conducted at the same test conditions to determine the heating mode cyclic-degradation coefficient C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>. Add “(k=2)” to the coefficient if it corresponds to a two-capacity unit cycling at high capacity. For the below calculation of the heating mode cyclic degradation coefficient, do not include the duct loss correction from section 7.3.3.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) in determining Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(T<E T="52">cyc</E>) (or q<E T="52">cyc</E>). If the optional cyclic test is conducted but yields a tested C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> that exceeds the default C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> or if the optional test is not conducted, assign C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> the default value of 0.25. The default value for two-capacity units cycling at high capacity, however, is the low-capacity coefficient, <I>i.e.,</I> C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=2) = C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>. The tested C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> is calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.032.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.033.gif"/>
<FP-2>the average coefficient of performance during the cyclic heating mode test, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.034.gif"/>
<FP-2>the average coefficient of performance during the steady-state heating mode test conducted at the same test conditions—<I>i.e.,</I> same outdoor dry bulb temperature, T<E T="52">cyc</E>, and speed/capacity, k, if applicable—as specified for the cyclic heating mode test, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.035.gif"/>
<FP-2>the heating load factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">cyc</E> = the nominal outdoor temperature at which the cyclic heating mode test is conducted, 62 or 47 °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Δτ<E T="52">cyc</E> = the duration of the OFF/ON intervals; 0.5 hours when testing a heat pump having a single-speed or two-capacity compressor and 1.0 hour when testing a heat pump having a variable-speed compressor.
</FP-2>
<P>Round the calculated value for C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> to the nearest 0.01. If C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> is negative, then set it equal to zero.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 17—Test Operating and Test Condition Tolerances for Cyclic Heating Mode Tests
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test operating
<br/>tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test condition
<br/>tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor entering dry-bulb temperature,
<sup>2</sup> °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor entering wet-bulb temperature,
<sup>2</sup> °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor entering dry-bulb temperature,
<sup>2</sup> °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor entering wet-bulb temperature,
<sup>2</sup> °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">External resistance to air-flow,
<sup>2</sup> inches of water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Airflow nozzle pressure difference or velocity pressure,
<sup>2</sup>% of reading</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical voltage,
<sup>4</sup> % of rdg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Applies during the interval that air flows through the indoor (outdoor) coil except for the first 30 seconds after flow initiation. For units having a variable-speed indoor blower that ramps, the tolerances listed for the external resistance to airflow shall apply from 30 seconds after achieving full speed until ramp down begins.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The test condition shall be the average nozzle pressure difference or velocity pressure measured during the steady-state test conducted at the same test conditions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Applies during the interval that at least one of the following—the compressor, the outdoor fan, or, if applicable, the indoor blower—are operating, except for the first 30 seconds after compressor start-up.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.9 Test Procedures for Frost Accumulation Heating Mode Tests (the H2, H2<E T="54">2</E>, H2<E T="54">V</E>, and H2<E T="54">1</E> tests)
</HD2>
<P>a. Confirm that the defrost controls of the heat pump are set as specified in section 2.2.1 of this appendix. Operate the test room reconditioning apparatus and the heat pump for at least 30 minutes at the specified section 3.6 test conditions before starting the “preliminary” test period. The preliminary test period must immediately precede the “official” test period, which is the heating and defrost interval over which data are collected for evaluating average space heating capacity and average electrical power consumption.
</P>
<P>b. For heat pumps containing defrost controls which are likely to cause defrosts at intervals less than one hour, the preliminary test period starts at the termination of an automatic defrost cycle and ends at the termination of the next occurring automatic defrost cycle. For heat pumps containing defrost controls which are likely to cause defrosts at intervals exceeding one hour, the preliminary test period must consist of a heating interval lasting at least one hour followed by a defrost cycle that is either manually or automatically initiated. In all cases, the heat pump's own controls must govern when a defrost cycle terminates.
</P>
<P>c. The official test period begins when the preliminary test period ends, at defrost termination. The official test period ends at the termination of the next occurring automatic defrost cycle. When testing a heat pump that uses a time-adaptive defrost control system (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions), however, manually initiate the defrost cycle that ends the official test period at the instant indicated by instructions provided by the manufacturer. If the heat pump has not undergone a defrost after 6 hours, immediately conclude the test and use the results from the full 6-hour period to calculate the average space heating capacity and average electrical power consumption.
</P>
<P>For heat pumps that turn the indoor blower off during the defrost cycle, take steps to cease forced airflow through the indoor coil and block the outlet duct whenever the heat pump's controls cycle off the indoor blower. If it is installed, use the outlet damper box described in section 2.5.4.1 of this appendix to affect the blocked outlet duct.
</P>
<P>d. Defrost termination occurs when the controls of the heat pump actuate the first change in converting from defrost operation to normal heating operation. Defrost initiation occurs when the controls of the heat pump first alter its normal heating operation in order to eliminate possible accumulations of frost on the outdoor coil.
</P>
<P>e. To constitute a valid frost accumulation test, satisfy the test tolerances specified in Table 18 during both the preliminary and official test periods. As noted in Table 18, test operating tolerances are specified for two sub-intervals:
</P>
<P>(1) When heating, except for the first 10 minutes after the termination of a defrost cycle (sub-interval H, as described in Table 18) and
</P>
<P>(2) When defrosting, plus these same first 10 minutes after defrost termination (sub-interval D, as described in Table 18). Evaluate compliance with Table 18 test condition tolerances and the majority of the test operating tolerances using the averages from measurements recorded only during sub-interval H. Continuously record the dry bulb temperature of the air entering the indoor coil, and the dry bulb temperature and water vapor content of the air entering the outdoor coil. Sample the remaining parameters listed in Table 18 at equal intervals that span 5 minutes or less.
</P>
<P>f. For the official test period, collect and use the following data to calculate average space heating capacity and electrical power. During heating and defrosting intervals when the controls of the heat pump have the indoor blower on, continuously record the dry-bulb temperature of the air entering (as noted above) and leaving the indoor coil. If using a thermopile, continuously record the difference between the leaving and entering dry-bulb temperatures during the interval(s) that air flows through the indoor coil. For coil-only system heat pumps, determine the corresponding cumulative time (in hours) of indoor coil airflow, Δτ<E T="52">a.</E> Sample measurements used in calculating the air volume rate (refer to sections 7.7.2.1 and 7.7.2.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009) at equal intervals that span 10 minutes or less. (<E T="04">Note:</E> In the first printing of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, the second IP equation for Q<E T="52">mi</E> should read:) Record the electrical energy consumed, expressed in watt-hours, from defrost termination to defrost termination, e<E T="52">DEF</E>
<SU>k</SU>(35), as well as the corresponding elapsed time in hours, Δτ<E T="52">FR.</E>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 18—Test Operating and Test Condition Tolerances for Frost Accumulation Heating Mode Tests
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Test operating tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test condition
<br/>tolerance 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>Sub-interval H 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sub-interval H 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sub-interval D 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor entering dry-bulb temperature, °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>4</sup> 4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor entering wet-bulb temperature, °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor entering dry-bulb temperature, °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor entering wet-bulb temperature, °F</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">External resistance to airflow, inches of water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>5</sup> 0.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical voltage, % of rdg</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Applies when the heat pump is in the heating mode, except for the first 10 minutes after termination of a defrost cycle.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Applies during a defrost cycle and during the first 10 minutes after the termination of a defrost cycle when the heat pump is operating in the heating mode.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> For heat pumps that turn off the indoor blower during the defrost cycle, the noted tolerance only applies during the 10 minute interval that follows defrost termination.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Only applies when testing non-ducted heat pumps.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.9.1 Average Space Heating Capacity and Electrical Power Calculations
</HD3>
<P>a. Evaluate average space heating capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(35), when expressed in units of Btu per hour, using:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.036.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V
<AC T="i"/> = the average indoor air volume rate measured during sub-interval H, cfm.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">p,a</E> = 0.24 + 0.444 · W<E T="52">n</E>, the constant pressure specific heat of the air-water vapor mixture that flows through the indoor coil and is expressed on a dry air basis, Btu/lbm<E T="52">da</E> · °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>v<E T="52">n</E>′ = specific volume of the air-water vapor mixture at the nozzle, ft
<SU>3</SU>/lbm<E T="52">mx.</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">n</E> = humidity ratio of the air-water vapor mixture at the nozzle, lbm of water vapor per lbm of dry air.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Δτ<E T="52">FR</E> = τ<E T="52">2</E> − τ<E T="52">1</E>, the elapsed time from defrost termination to defrost termination, hr.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.312.gif"/>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">al</E>(τ) = dry bulb temperature of the air entering the indoor coil at elapsed time τ, °F; only recorded when indoor coil airflow occurs; assigned the value of zero during periods (if any) where the indoor blower cycles off.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">a2</E>(τ) = dry bulb temperature of the air leaving the indoor coil at elapsed time τ, °F; only recorded when indoor coil airflow occurs; assigned the value of zero during periods (if any) where the indoor blower cycles off.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>τ<E T="52">1</E> = the elapsed time when the defrost termination occurs that begins the official test period, hr.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>τ<E T="52">2</E> = the elapsed time when the next automatically occurring defrost termination occurs, thus ending the official test period, hr.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>v<E T="52">n</E> = specific volume of the dry air portion of the mixture evaluated at the dry-bulb temperature, vapor content, and barometric pressure existing at the nozzle, ft
<SU>3</SU> per lbm of dry air.
</FP-2>
<P>To account for the effect of duct losses between the outlet of the indoor unit and the section 2.5.4 dry-bulb temperature grid, adjust Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(35) in accordance with section 7.3.4.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>b. Evaluate average electrical power, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(35), when expressed in units of watts, using:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.037.gif"/>
<P>For coil-only system heat pumps, increase Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(35) by,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.038.gif"/>
<FP>and increase E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(35) by,
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.039.gif"/>
<FP>where V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">s</E> is the average indoor air volume rate measured during the frost accumulation heating mode test and is expressed in units of cubic feet per minute of standard air (scfm).
</FP>
<P>c. For heat pumps having a constant-air-volume-rate indoor blower, the five additional steps listed below are required if the average of the external static pressures measured during sub-interval H exceeds the applicable section 3.1.4.4, 3.1.4.5, or 3.1.4.6 minimum (or targeted) external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">min</E>) by 0.03 inches of water or more:
</P>
<P>(1) Measure the average power consumption of the indoor blower motor (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,1</E>) and record the corresponding external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">1</E>) during or immediately following the frost accumulation heating mode test. Make the measurement at a time when the heat pump is heating, except for the first 10 minutes after the termination of a defrost cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) After the frost accumulation heating mode test is completed and while maintaining the same test conditions, adjust the exhaust fan of the airflow measuring apparatus until the external static pressure increases to approximately ΔP<E T="52">1</E> + (ΔP<E T="52">1</E> − ΔP<E T="52">min</E>).
</P>
<P>(3) After re-establishing steady readings for the fan motor power and external static pressure, determine average values for the indoor blower power (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,2</E>) and the external static pressure (ΔP<E T="52">2</E>) by making measurements over a 5-minute interval.
</P>
<P>(4) Approximate the average power consumption of the indoor blower motor had the frost accumulation heating mode test been conducted at ΔP<E T="52">min</E> using linear extrapolation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.040.gif"/>
<P>(5) Decrease the total heating capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(35), by the quantity [(E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,1</E>−E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">fan,min</E>) · (Δτ <E T="52">a</E>/Δτ <E T="52">FR</E>], when expressed on a Btu/h basis. Decrease the total electrical power, E<E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(35), by the same quantity, now expressed in watts.
</P>
<HD3>3.9.2 Demand Defrost Credit
</HD3>
<P>a. Assign the demand defrost credit, F<E T="52">def</E>, that is used in section 4.2 of this appendix to the value of 1 in all cases except for heat pumps having a demand-defrost control system (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions). For such qualifying heat pumps, evaluate F<E T="52">def</E> using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.041.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Δτ<E T="52">def</E> = the time between defrost terminations (in hours) or 1.5, whichever is greater. A value of 6 must be assigned to Δτ<E T="52">def</E> if this limit is reached during a frost accumulation test and the heat pump has not completed a defrost cycle.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Δτ<E T="52">max</E> = maximum time between defrosts as allowed by the controls (in hours) or 12, whichever is less, as provided in the certification report.
</FP-2>
<P>b. For two-capacity heat pumps and for section 3.6.2 units, evaluate the above equation using the Δτ<E T="52">def</E> that applies based on the frost accumulation test conducted at high capacity and/or at the heating full-load air volume rate. For variable-speed heat pumps, evaluate Δτ<E T="52">def</E> based on the required frost accumulation test conducted at the intermediate compressor speed.
</P>
<HD2>3.10 Test Procedures for Steady-State Low Temperature Heating Mode Tests (the H3, H3<E T="54">2</E>, and H3<E T="54">1</E> Tests)
</HD2>
<P>Except for the modifications noted in this section, conduct the low temperature heating mode test using the same approach as specified in section 3.7 of this appendix for the maximum and high temperature tests. After satisfying the section 3.7 requirements for the pretest interval but before beginning to collect data to determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(17), conduct a defrost cycle. This defrost cycle may be manually or automatically initiated. The defrost sequence must be terminated by the action of the heat pump's defrost controls. Begin the 30-minute data collection interval described in section 3.7 of this appendix, from which Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(17) are determined, no sooner than 10 minutes after defrost termination. Defrosts should be prevented over the 30-minute data collection interval.
</P>
<HD2>3.11 Additional Requirements for the Secondary Test Methods
</HD2>
<HD3>3.11.1 If Using the Outdoor Air Enthalpy Method as the Secondary Test Method
</HD3>
<P>a. For all cooling mode and heating mode tests, first conduct a test without the outdoor air-side test apparatus described in section 2.10.1 of this appendix connected to the outdoor unit (“free outdoor air” test).
</P>
<P>b. For the first section 3.2 steady-state cooling mode test and the first section 3.6 steady-state heating mode test, conduct a second test in which the outdoor-side apparatus is connected (“ducted outdoor air” test). No other cooling mode or heating mode tests require the ducted outdoor air test so long as the unit operates the outdoor fan during all cooling mode steady-state tests at the same speed and all heating mode steady-state tests at the same speed. If using more than one outdoor fan speed for the cooling mode steady-state tests, however, conduct the ducted outdoor air test for each cooling mode test where a different fan speed is first used. This same requirement applies for the heating mode tests.
</P>
<HD3>3.11.1.1 Free Outdoor Air Test
</HD3>
<P>a. For the free outdoor air test, connect the indoor air-side test apparatus to the indoor coil; do not connect the outdoor air-side test apparatus. Allow the test room reconditioning apparatus and the unit being tested to operate for at least one hour. After attaining equilibrium conditions, measure the following quantities at equal intervals that span 5 minutes or less:
</P>
<P>(1) The section 2.10.1 evaporator and condenser temperatures or pressures;
</P>
<P>(2) Parameters required according to the indoor air enthalpy method.
</P>
<P>Continue these measurements until a 30-minute period (<I>e.g.,</I> seven consecutive 5-minute samples) is obtained where the Table 9 or Table 16, whichever applies, test tolerances are satisfied.
</P>
<P>b. For cases where a ducted outdoor air test is not required per section 3.11.1.b of this appendix, the free outdoor air test constitutes the “official” test for which validity is not based on comparison with a secondary test.
</P>
<P>c. For cases where a ducted outdoor air test is required per section 3.11.1.b of this appendix, the following conditions must be met for the free outdoor air test to constitute a valid “official” test:
</P>
<P>(1) Achieve the energy balance specified in section 3.1.1 of this appendix for the ducted outdoor air test (<I>i.e.,</I> compare the capacities determined using the indoor air enthalpy method and the outdoor air enthalpy method).
</P>
<P>(2) The capacities determined using the indoor air enthalpy method from the ducted outdoor air and free outdoor tests must agree within 2 percent.
</P>
<HD3>3.11.1.2 Ducted Outdoor Air Test
</HD3>
<P>a. The test conditions and tolerances for the ducted outdoor air test are the same as specified for the free outdoor air test described in Section 3.11.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. After collecting 30 minutes of steady-state data during the free outdoor air test, connect the outdoor air-side test apparatus to the unit for the ducted outdoor air test. Adjust the exhaust fan of the outdoor airflow measuring apparatus until averages for the evaporator and condenser temperatures, or the saturated temperatures corresponding to the measured pressures, agree within ±0.5 °F of the averages achieved during the free outdoor air test. Collect 30 minutes of steady-state data after re-establishing equilibrium conditions.
</P>
<P>c. During the ducted outdoor air test, at intervals of 5 minutes or less, measure the parameters required according to the indoor air enthalpy method and the outdoor air enthalpy method for the prescribed 30 minutes.
</P>
<P>d. For cooling mode ducted outdoor air tests, calculate capacity based on outdoor air-enthalpy measurements as specified in sections 7.3.3.2 and 7.3.3.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). For heating mode ducted tests, calculate heating capacity based on outdoor air-enthalpy measurements as specified in sections 7.3.4.2 and 7.3.3.4.3 of the same ANSI/ASHRAE Standard. Adjust the outdoor-side capacity according to section 7.3.3.4 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 to account for line losses when testing split systems. As described in section 8.6.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, use the outdoor air volume rate as measured during the ducted outdoor air tests to calculate capacity for checking the agreement with the capacity calculated using the indoor air enthalpy method.
</P>
<HD3>3.11.2 If Using the Compressor Calibration Method as the Secondary Test Method
</HD3>
<P>a. Conduct separate calibration tests using a calorimeter to determine the refrigerant flow rate. Or for cases where the superheat of the refrigerant leaving the evaporator is less than 5 °F, use the calorimeter to measure total capacity rather than refrigerant flow rate. Conduct these calibration tests at the same test conditions as specified for the tests in this appendix. Operate the unit for at least one hour or until obtaining equilibrium conditions before collecting data that will be used in determining the average refrigerant flow rate or total capacity. Sample the data at equal intervals that span 5 minutes or less. Determine average flow rate or average capacity from data sampled over a 30-minute period where the Table 9 (cooling) or the Table 16 (heating) tolerances are satisfied. Otherwise, conduct the calibration tests according to sections 5, 6, 7, and 8 of ASHRAE 23.1-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3); sections 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and 11 of ASHRAE 41.9-2011 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3); and section 7.4 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>b. Calculate space cooling and space heating capacities using the compressor calibration method measurements as specified in section 7.4.5 and 7.4.6 respectively, of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009.
</P>
<HD3>3.11.3 If Using the Refrigerant-Enthalpy Method as the Secondary Test Method
</HD3>
<P>Conduct this secondary method according to section 7.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Calculate space cooling and heating capacities using the refrigerant-enthalpy method measurements as specified in sections 7.5.4 and 7.5.5, respectively, of the same ASHRAE Standard.
</P>
<HD2>3.12 Rounding of Space Conditioning Capacities for Reporting Purposes
</HD2>
<P>a. When reporting rated capacities, round them off as specified in § 430.23 (for a single unit) and in 10 CFR 429.16 (for a sample).
</P>
<P>b. For the capacities used to perform the calculations in section 4 of this appendix, however, round only to the nearest integer.
</P>
<HD2>3.13 Laboratory Testing to Determine Off Mode Average Power Ratings
</HD2>
<P>Voltage tolerances: As a percentage of reading, test operating tolerance shall be 2.0 percent and test condition tolerance shall be 1.5 percent (see section 1.2 of this appendix for definitions of these tolerances).
</P>
<P>Conduct one of the following tests: If the central air conditioner or heat pump lacks a compressor crankcase heater, perform the test in section 3.13.1 of this appendix; if the central air conditioner or heat pump has a compressor crankcase heater that lacks controls and is not self-regulating, perform the test in section 3.13.1 of this appendix; if the central air conditioner or heat pump has a crankcase heater with a fixed power input controlled with a thermostat that measures ambient temperature and whose sensing element temperature is not affected by the heater, perform the test in section 3.13.1 of this appendix; if the central air conditioner or heat pump has a compressor crankcase heater equipped with self-regulating control or with controls for which the sensing element temperature is affected by the heater, perform the test in section 3.13.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>3.13.1 This Test Determines the Off Mode Average Power Rating for Central Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps That Lack a Compressor Crankcase Heater, or Have a Compressor Crankcase Heating System That Can Be Tested Without Control of Ambient Temperature During the Test. This Test Has No Ambient Condition Requirements
</HD3>
<P>a. Test Sample Set-up and Power Measurement: For coil-only systems, provide a furnace or modular blower that is compatible with the system to serve as an interface with the thermostat (if used for the test) and to provide low-voltage control circuit power. Make all control circuit connections between the furnace (or modular blower) and the outdoor unit as specified by the manufacturer's installation instructions. Measure power supplied to both the furnace or modular blower and power supplied to the outdoor unit. Alternatively, provide a compatible transformer to supply low-voltage control circuit power, as described in section 2.2.d of this appendix. Measure transformer power, either supplied to the primary winding or supplied by the secondary winding of the transformer, and power supplied to the outdoor unit. For blower coil and single-package systems, make all control circuit connections between components as specified by the manufacturer's installation instructions, and provide power and measure power supplied to all system components.
</P>
<P>b. Configure Controls: Configure the controls of the central air conditioner or heat pump so that it operates as if connected to a building thermostat that is set to the OFF position. Use a compatible building thermostat if necessary to achieve this configuration. For a thermostat-controlled crankcase heater with a fixed power input, bypass the crankcase heater thermostat if necessary to energize the heater.
</P>
<P>c. Measure <I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>: If the unit has a crankcase heater time delay, make sure that time delay function is disabled or wait until delay time has passed. Determine the average power from non-zero value data measured over a 5-minute interval of the non-operating central air conditioner or heat pump and designate the average power as <I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>, the heating season total off mode power.
</P>
<P>d. Measure <I>P</I><E T="54">x</E> for coil-only split systems and for blower coil split systems for which a furnace or a modular blower is the designated air mover: Disconnect all low-voltage wiring for the <I>outdoor</I> components and <I>outdoor</I> controls from the low-voltage transformer. Determine the average power from non-zero value data measured over a 5-minute interval of the power supplied to the (remaining) low-voltage components of the central air conditioner or heat pump, or low-voltage power, <I>P</I><E T="54">x</E>. This power measurement does not include line power supplied to the outdoor unit. It is the line power supplied to the air mover, or, if a compatible transformer is used instead of an air mover, it is the line power supplied to the transformer primary coil. If a compatible transformer is used instead of an air mover and power output of the low-voltage secondary circuit is measured, <I>P</I><E T="54">x</E> is zero.
</P>
<P>e. Calculate <I>P2</I>: Set the number of compressors equal to the unit's number of single-stage compressors plus 1.75 times the unit's number of compressors that are not single-stage.
</P>
<P>For single-package systems and blower coil split systems for which the designated air mover is not a furnace or modular blower, divide the heating season total off mode power (<I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>) by the number of compressors to calculate <I>P2</I>, the heating season per-compressor off mode power. Round <I>P2</I> to the nearest watt. The expression for calculating <I>P2</I> is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.042.gif"/>
<P>For coil-only split systems and blower coil split systems for which a furnace or a modular blower is the designated air mover, subtract the low-voltage power (<I>P</I><E T="54">x</E>) from the heating season total off mode power (<I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>) and divide by the number of compressors to calculate <I>P2</I>, the heating season per-compressor off mode power. Round <I>P2</I> to the nearest watt. The expression for calculating <I>P2</I> is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.043.gif"/>
<P>f. Shoulder-season per-compressor off mode power, P1: If the system does not have a crankcase heater, has a crankcase heater without controls that is not self-regulating, or has a value for the crankcase heater turn-on temperature (as certified in the DOE Compliance Certification Database) that is higher than 71 °F, P1 is equal to P2.
</P>
<P>Otherwise, de-energize the crankcase heater (by removing the thermostat bypass or otherwise disconnecting only the power supply to the crankcase heater) and repeat the measurement as described in section 3.13.1.c of this appendix. Designate the measured average power as <I>P</I>1<E T="54">x</E>, the shoulder season total off mode power.
</P>
<P>Determine the number of compressors as described in section 3.13.1.e of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For single-package systems and blower coil systems for which the designated air mover is not a furnace or modular blower, divide the shoulder season total off mode power (<I>P</I>1<E T="54">x</E>) by the number of compressors to calculate <I>P1</I>, the shoulder season per-compressor off mode power. Round <I>P1</I> to the nearest watt. The expression for calculating <I>P1</I> is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.044.gif"/>
<P>For coil-only split systems and blower coil split systems for which a furnace or a modular blower is the designated air mover, subtract the low-voltage power (<I>P</I><E T="54">x</E>) from the shoulder season total off mode power (<I>P</I>1<E T="54">x</E>) and divide by the number of compressors to calculate <I>P1</I>, the shoulder season per-compressor off mode power. Round <I>P1</I> to the nearest watt. The expression for calculating <I>P1</I> is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.045.gif"/>
<HD3>3.13.2 This Test Determines the Off Mode Average Power Rating for Central Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps for Which Ambient Temperature Can Affect the Measurement of Crankcase Heater Power
</HD3>
<P>a. Test Sample Set-up and Power Measurement: Set up the test and measurement as described in section 3.13.1.a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. Configure Controls: Position a temperature sensor to measure the outdoor dry-bulb temperature in the air between 2 and 6 inches from the crankcase heater control temperature sensor or, if no such temperature sensor exists, position it in the air between 2 and 6 inches from the crankcase heater. Utilize the temperature measurements from this sensor for this portion of the test procedure. Configure the controls of the central air conditioner or heat pump so that it operates as if connected to a building thermostat that is set to the OFF position. Use a compatible building thermostat if necessary to achieve this configuration.
</P>
<P>Conduct the test after completion of the B, B<E T="52">1</E>, or B<E T="52">2</E> test. Alternatively, start the test when the outdoor dry-bulb temperature is at 82 °F and the temperature of the compressor shell (or temperature of each compressor's shell if there is more than one compressor) is at least 81 °F. Then adjust the outdoor temperature at a rate of change of no more than 20 °F per hour and achieve an outdoor dry-bulb temperature of 72 °F. Maintain this temperature within ±2 °F while making the power measurement, as described in section 3.13.2.c of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. Measure <I>P</I>1<E T="54">x</E>: If the unit has a crankcase heater time delay, make sure that time delay function is disabled or wait until delay time has passed. Determine the average power from non-zero value data measured over a 5-minute interval of the non-operating central air conditioner or heat pump and designate the average power as <I>P</I>1<E T="54">x</E>, the shoulder season total off mode power. For units with crankcase heaters which operate during this part of the test and whose controls cycle or vary crankcase heater power over time, the test period shall consist of three complete crankcase heater cycles or 18 hours, whichever comes first. Designate the average power over the test period as <I>P</I>1<E T="54">x</E>, the shoulder season total off mode power.
</P>
<P>d. Reduce outdoor temperature: Approach the target outdoor dry-bulb temperature by adjusting the outdoor temperature at a rate of change of no more than 20 °F per hour. This target temperature is five degrees Fahrenheit less than the temperature specified by the manufacturer in the DOE Compliance Certification Database at which the crankcase heater turns on. Maintain the target temperature within ±2 °F while making the power measurement, as described in section 3.13.2.e of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. Measure <I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>: If the unit has a crankcase heater time delay, make sure that time delay function is disabled or wait until delay time has passed. Determine the average non-zero power of the non-operating central air conditioner or heat pump over a 5-minute interval and designate it as <I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>, the heating season total off mode power. For units with crankcase heaters whose controls cycle or vary crankcase heater power over time, the test period shall consist of three complete crankcase heater cycles or 18 hours, whichever comes first. Designate the average power over the test period as <I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>, the heating season total off mode power.
</P>
<P>f. Measure <I>P</I><E T="54">x</E> for coil-only split systems and for blower coil split systems for which a furnace or modular blower is the designated air mover: Disconnect all low-voltage wiring for the <I>outdoor</I> components and <I>outdoor</I> controls from the low-voltage transformer. Determine the average power from non-zero value data measured over a 5-minute interval of the power supplied to the (remaining) low-voltage components of the central air conditioner or heat pump, or low-voltage power, <I>P</I><E T="54">x</E>.. This power measurement does not include line power supplied to the outdoor unit. It is the line power supplied to the air mover, or, if a compatible transformer is used instead of an air mover, it is the line power supplied to the transformer primary coil. If a compatible transformer is used instead of an air mover and power output of the low-voltage secondary circuit is measured, <I>P</I><E T="54">x</E> is zero.
</P>
<P>g. Calculate <I>P1</I>:
</P>
<P>Set the number of compressors equal to the unit's number of single-stage compressors plus 1.75 times the unit's number of compressors that are not single-stage.
</P>
<P>For single-package systems and blower coil split systems for which the air mover is not a furnace or modular blower, divide the shoulder season total off mode power (<I>P</I>1<E T="54">x</E>) by the number of compressors to calculate <I>P1</I>, the shoulder season per-compressor off mode power. Round to the nearest watt. The expression for calculating <I>P1</I> is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.046.gif"/>
<P>For coil-only split systems and blower coil split systems for which a furnace or a modular blower is the designated air mover, subtract the low-voltage power (<I>P</I><E T="54">x</E>) from the shoulder season total off mode power (<I>P</I>1<E T="54">x</E>) and divide by the number of compressors to calculate <I>P1</I>, the shoulder season per-compressor off mode power. Round to the nearest watt. The expression for calculating <I>P1</I> is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.047.gif"/>
<P>h. Calculate <I>P2</I>:
</P>
<P>Determine the number of compressors as described in section 3.13.2.g of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For single-package systems and blower coil split systems for which the air mover is not a furnace, divide the heating season total off mode power (<I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>) by the number of compressors to calculate <I>P2</I>, the heating season per-compressor off mode power. Round to the nearest watt. The expression for calculating <I>P2</I> is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.048.gif"/>
<P>For coil-only split systems and blower coil split systems for which a furnace or a modular blower is the designated air mover, subtract the low-voltage power (<I>P</I><E T="54">x</E>) from the heating season total off mode power (<I>P2</I><E T="54">x</E>) and divide by the number of compressors to calculate <I>P2</I>, the heating season per-compressor off mode power. Round to the nearest watt. The expression for calculating <I>P2</I> is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.049.gif"/>
<HD1>4. Calculations of Seasonal Performance Descriptors
</HD1>
<HD2>4.1 Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (SEER) Calculations. SEER must be calculated as follows: For equipment covered under sections 4.1.2, 4.1.3, and 4.1.4 of this appendix, evaluate the seasonal energy efficiency ratio,
</HD2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.050.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.051.gif"/>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">j</E> = the outdoor bin temperature, °F. Outdoor temperatures are grouped or “binned.” Use bins of 5 °F with the 8 cooling season bin temperatures being 67, 72, 77, 82, 87, 92, 97, and 102 °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>j = the bin number. For cooling season calculations, j ranges from 1 to 8.
</FP-2>
<P>Additionally, for sections 4.1.2, 4.1.3, and 4.1.4 of this appendix, use a building cooling load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>). When referenced, evaluate BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) for cooling using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.052.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<P>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(95) = the space cooling capacity determined from the A<E T="52">2</E> test and calculated as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix, Btu/h.
</P>
<FP-2>1.1 = sizing factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>The temperatures 95 °F and 65 °F in the building load equation represent the selected outdoor design temperature and the zero-load base temperature, respectively.
</P>
<HD3>4.1.1 SEER Calculations for a Blower Coil System Having a Single-Speed Compressor and Either a Fixed-Speed Indoor Blower or a Constant-Air-Volume-Rate Indoor Blower, or a Coil-Only System Air Conditioner or Heat Pump
</HD3>
<P>a. Evaluate the seasonal energy efficiency ratio, expressed in units of Btu/watt-hour, using:
</P>
<FP-2><I>SEER = PLF</I>(0.5) * <I>EER</I><E T="54">B</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.053.gif"/>
<FP-2>PLF(0.5) = 1 − 0.5 · C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU>, the part-load performance factor evaluated at a cooling load factor of 0.5, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>b. Refer to section 3.3 of this appendix regarding the definition and calculation of Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>(82) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>(82). Evaluate the cooling mode cyclic degradation factor C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> as specified in section 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>4.1.2 SEER Calculations for an Air Conditioner or Heat Pump Having a Single-Speed Compressor and a Variable-Speed Variable-Air-Volume-Rate Indoor Blower
</HD3>
<HD3>4.1.2.1 Units Covered by Section 3.2.2.1 of This Appendix Where Indoor Blower Capacity Modulation Correlates With the Outdoor Dry Bulb Temperature
</HD3>
<P>The manufacturer must provide information on how the indoor air volume rate or the indoor blower speed varies over the outdoor temperature range of 67 °F to 102 °F. Calculate SEER using Equation 4.1-1. Evaluate the quantity q<E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N in Equation 4.1-1 using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.054.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.055.gif"/>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the space cooling capacity of the test unit when operating at outdoor temperature, T<E T="52">j</E>, Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="52">j</E>/N = fractional bin hours for the cooling season; the ratio of the number of hours during the cooling season when the outdoor temperature fell within the range represented by bin temperature T<E T="52">j</E> to the total number of hours in the cooling season, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>a. For the space cooling season, assign n<E T="52">j</E>/N as specified in Table 19. Use Equation 4.1-2 to calculate the building load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>). Evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.056.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.057.gif"/>
<FP-2>the space cooling capacity of the test unit at outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> if operated at the cooling minimum air volume rate, Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.058.gif"/>
<FP-2>the space cooling capacity of the test unit at outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> if operated at the Cooling full-load air volume rate, Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<P>b. For units where indoor blower speed is the primary control variable, FP<E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E> denotes the fan speed used during the required A<E T="52">1</E> and B<E T="52">1</E> tests (see section 3.2.2.1 of this appendix), FP<E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E> denotes the fan speed used during the required A<E T="52">2</E> and B<E T="52">2</E> tests, and FP<E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) denotes the fan speed used by the unit when the outdoor temperature equals T<E T="52">j.</E> For units where indoor air volume rate is the primary control variable, the three FP<E T="52">c</E>'s are similarly defined only now being expressed in terms of air volume rates rather than fan speeds. Refer to sections 3.2.2.1, 3.1.4 to 3.1.4.2, and 3.3 of this appendix regarding the definitions and calculations of Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(82), Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(95), Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(82), and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(95).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.059.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PLF<E T="52">j</E> = 1 − C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> · [1 − X(T<E T="52">j</E>)], the part load factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the electrical power consumption of the test unit when operating at outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, W.
</FP-2>
<P>c. The quantities X(T<E T="52">j</E>) and n<E T="52">j</E>/N are the same quantities as used in Equation 4.1.2-1. Evaluate the cooling mode cyclic degradation factor C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> as specified in section 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>d. Evaluate E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.060.gif"/>
<P>e. The parameters FP<E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>, and FP<E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>, and FP<E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) are the same quantities that are used when evaluating Equation 4.1.2-2. Refer to sections 3.2.2.1, 3.1.4 to 3.1.4.2, and 3.3 of this appendix regarding the definitions and calculations of E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(82), E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(95), E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(82), and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(95).
</P>
<HD3>4.1.2.2 Units Covered by Section 3.2.2.2 of This Appendix Where Indoor Blower Capacity Modulation Is Used To Adjust the Sensible to Total Cooling Capacity Ratio. 
</HD3>
<P>Calculate SEER as specified in section 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>4.1.3 SEER Calculations for an Air Conditioner or Heat Pump Having a Two-Capacity Compressor
</HD3>
<P>Calculate SEER using Equation 4.1-1. Evaluate the space cooling capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (T<E T="52">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (T<E T="52">j</E>), of the test unit when operating at low compressor capacity and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.061.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.062.gif"/>
<FP-2>where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (82) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (82) are determined from the B<E T="52">1</E> test, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (67) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (67) are determined from the F<E T="52">1</E> test, and all four quantities are calculated as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix. Evaluate the space cooling capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E> (T<E T="52">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E> (T<E T="52">j</E>), of the test unit when operating at high compressor capacity and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> using,
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.063.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.064.gif"/>
<FP-2>where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(95) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(95) are determined from the A<E T="52">2</E> test, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(82), and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(82), are determined from the B<E T="52">2</E>test, and all are calculated as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>The calculation of Equation 4.1-1 quantities q<E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N and e<E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N differs depending on whether the test unit would operate at low capacity (section 4.1.3.1 of this appendix), cycle between low and high capacity (section 4.1.3.2 of this appendix), or operate at high capacity (sections 4.1.3.3 and 4.1.3.4 of this appendix) in responding to the building load. For units that lock out low capacity operation at higher outdoor temperatures, the outdoor temperature at which the unit locks out must be that specified by the manufacturer in the certification report so that the appropriate equations are used. Use Equation 4.1-2 to calculate the building load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>), for each temperature bin.
</P>
<HD3>4.1.3.1 Steady-State Space Cooling Capacity at Low Compressor Capacity Is Greater Than or Equal to the Building Cooling Load at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.065.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)/Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), the cooling mode low capacity load factor for temperature bin j, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PLF<E T="52">j</E> = 1 − C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> · [1 − X<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)], the part load factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.066.gif"/>
<P>Obtain the fractional bin hours for the cooling season, n<E T="52">j</E>/N, from Table 19. Use Equations 4.1.3-1 and 4.1.3-2, respectively, to evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>). Evaluate the cooling mode cyclic degradation factor C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> as specified in section 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 19—Distribution of Fractional Hours Within Cooling Season Temperature Bins
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bin number,
<br/>j
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bin
<br/>temperature
<br/>range
<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Representative temperature for bin
<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fraction of total
<br/>temperature
<br/>bin hours,
<br/>n<E T="52">j</E>/N
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65-69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70-74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.231
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75-79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.216
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80-84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.161
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85-89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.104
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90-94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.052
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95-99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100-104</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.004</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>4.1.3.2 Unit Alternates Between High (k=2) and Low (k=1) Compressor Capacity to Satisfy the Building Cooling Load at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=1</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=2</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.067.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.068.gif"/>
<FP-2>X<E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = 1 − X<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), the cooling mode, high capacity load factor for temperature bin j, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>Obtain the fractional bin hours for the cooling season, n<E T="52">j</E>/N, from Table 19. Use Equations 4.1.3-1 and 4.1.3-2, respectively, to evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>). Use Equations 4.1.3-3 and 4.1.3-4, respectively, to evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>).
</P>
<HD3>4.1.3.3 Unit Only Operates at High (k=2) Compressor Capacity at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E> and Its Capacity Is Greater Than the Building Cooling Load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>). This section applies to units that lock out low compressor capacity operation at higher outdoor temperatures.
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.069.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)/Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), the cooling mode high capacity load factor for temperature bin j, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>PLF</I><E T="52">j</E> = 1 − <I>C</I><E T="54">D</E><E T="53">c</E>(k = 2) * [1 − <I>X</I><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) the part load factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.070.gif"/>
<HD3>4.1.3.4 Unit Must Operate Continuously at High (k=2) Compressor Capacity at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.071.gif"/>
<P>Obtain the fractional bin hours for the cooling season, n<E T="52">j</E>/N, from Table 19. Use Equations 4.1.3-3 and 4.1.3-4, respectively, to evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>).
</P>
<HD3>4.1.4 SEER Calculations for an Air Conditioner or Heat Pump Having a Variable-Speed Compressor
</HD3>
<P>Calculate SEER using Equation 4.1-1. Evaluate the space cooling capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), of the test unit when operating at minimum compressor speed and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j.</E> Use,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.072.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.073.gif"/>
<P>where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(82) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(82) are determined from the B<E T="52">1</E> test, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(67) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(67) are determined from the F1 test, and all four quantities are calculated as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Evaluate the space cooling capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), of the test unit when operating at full compressor speed and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j.</E> Use Equations 4.1.3-3 and 4.1.3-4, respectively, where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(95) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(95) are determined from the A<E T="52">2</E> test, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(82) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(82) are determined from the B<E T="52">2</E> test, and all four quantities are calculated as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix. Calculate the space cooling capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), of the test unit when operating at outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> and the intermediate compressor speed used during the section 3.2.4 (and Table 8) E<E T="52">V</E> test of this appendix using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.074.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.075.gif"/>
<P>where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(87) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(87) are determined from the E<E T="52">V</E> test and calculated as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix. Approximate the slopes of the k=v intermediate speed cooling capacity and electrical power input curves, M<E T="52">Q</E> and M<E T="52">E</E>, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.076.gif"/>
<P>Use Equations 4.1.4-1 and 4.1.4-2, respectively, to calculate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(87) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(87).
</P>
<HD3>4.1.4.1 Steady-State Space Cooling Capacity When Operating at Minimum Compressor Speed Is Greater Than or Equal to the Building Cooling Load at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.077.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)/Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), the cooling mode minimum speed load factor for temperature bin j, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PLF<E T="52">j</E> = 1 − C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> · [1 − X<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)], the part load factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="52">j</E>/N = fractional bin hours for the cooling season; the ratio of the number of hours during the cooling season when the outdoor temperature fell within the range represented by bin temperature T<E T="52">j</E> to the total number of hours in the cooling season, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>Obtain the fractional bin hours for the cooling season, n<E T="52">j</E>/N, from Table 19. Use Equations 4.1.3-1 and 4.1.3-2, respectively, to evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=l</SU> (T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=l</SU> (T<E T="52">j</E>). Evaluate the cooling mode cyclic degradation factor C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>c</SU> as specified in section 3.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.1.4.2 Unit Operates at an Intermediate Compressor Speed (k=i) In Order To Match the Building Cooling Load at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=1</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt; BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt; Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=2</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc22.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc22.015.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=i</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">j</E>), the space cooling capacity delivered by the unit in matching the building load at temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Btu/h. The matching occurs with the unit operating at compressor speed k=i.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc22.016.gif"/>
<FP-2>EER
<SU>k=i</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the steady-state energy efficiency ratio of the test unit when operating at a compressor speed of k=i and temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Btu/h per W.
</FP-2>
<P>Obtain the fractional bin hours for the cooling season, n<E T="52">j</E>/N, from Table 19 to this appendix. For each temperature bin where the unit operates at an intermediate compressor speed, determine the energy efficiency ratio EER
<SU>k=i</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using, <I>EER</I><E T="53">k=i</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>) <I>= A + B T</I><E T="54">j</E><I> + C * T</I><E T="53">2</E><E T="54">j</E>.
</P>
<P>For each unit, determine the coefficients A, B, and C by conducting the following calculations once:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc22.017.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">1</E> = the outdoor temperature at which the unit, when operating at minimum compressor speed, provides a space cooling capacity that is equal to the building load (Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=l</SU>(T<E T="52">l</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">1</E>)), °F. Determine T<E T="52">1</E> by equating Equations 4.1.3-1 and 4.1-2 to this appendix and solving for outdoor temperature.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">v</E> = the outdoor temperature at which the unit, when operating at the intermediate compressor speed used during the section 3.2.4 E<E T="52">v</E> test of this appendix, provides a space cooling capacity that is equal to the building load (Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=v</SU>(T<E T="52">v</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">v</E>)), °F. Determine T<E T="52">v</E> by equating Equations 4.1.4-3 and 4.1-2 to this appendix and solving for outdoor temperature.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">2</E> = the outdoor temperature at which the unit, when operating at full compressor speed, provides a space cooling capacity that is equal to the building load (Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E>
<SU>k=2</SU>(T<E T="52">2</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">2</E>)), °F. Determine T<E T="52">2</E> by equating Equations 4.1.3-3 and 4.1-2 to this appendix and solving for outdoor temperature.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc22.018.gif"/>
<HD3>4.1.4.3 Unit Must Operate Continuously at Full (k=2) Compressor Speed at Temperature Tj, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>). Evaluate the Equation 4.1-1 Quantities
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.082.gif"/>
<FP>as specified in section 4.1.3.4 of this appendix with the understanding that Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) correspond to full compressor speed operation and are derived from the results of the tests specified in section 3.2.4 of this appendix.
</FP>
<HD3>4.1.5 SEER Calculations for an Air Conditioner or Heat Pump Having a Single Indoor Unit With Multiple Indoor Blowers
</HD3>
<P>Calculate SEER using Eq. 4.1-1, where q<E T="52">c</E>(Tj)/N and e<E T="52">c</E>(Tj)/N are evaluated as specified in the applicable subsection.
</P>
<HD3>4.1.5.1 For Multiple Indoor Blower Systems That Are Connected to a Single, Single-Speed Outdoor Unit
</HD3>
<P>a. Calculate the space cooling capacity, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>), of the test unit when operating at the cooling minimum air volume rate and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> using the equations given in section 4.1.2.1 of this appendix. Calculate the space cooling capacity, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>), of the test unit when operating at the cooling full-load air volume rate and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> using the equations given in section 4.1.2.1 of this appendix. In evaluating the section 4.1.2.1 equations, determine the quantities <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(82) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(82) from the B1 test, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(95) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(95) from the Al test, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(82) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(82) from the B2 test, and<I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(95) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(95) from the A2 test. Evaluate all eight quantities as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix. Refer to section 3.2.2.1 and Table 6 of this appendix for additional information on the four referenced laboratory tests.
</P>
<P>b. Determine the cooling mode cyclic degradation coefficient, CD<E T="52">c</E>, as per sections 3.2.2.1 and 3.5 to 3.5.3 of this appendix. Assign this same value to CD<E T="52">c</E>(K=2).
</P>
<P>c. Except for using the above values of <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>), <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>), <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>), <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>), CD<E T="52">c</E>, and CD<E T="52">c</E> (K=2), calculate the quantities q<E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N and e<E T="52">c</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N as specified in section 4.1.3.1 of this appendix for cases where <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>) ≥BL(T<E T="52">j</E>). For all other outdoor bin temperatures, T<E T="52">j</E>, calculate q<E T="52">c</E>(Tj)/N and e<E T="52">c</E>(Tj)/N as specified in section 4.1.3.3 of this appendix if <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>) &gt;BL (T<E T="52">j</E>) or as specified in section 4.1.3.4 of this appendix if <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>) ≤BL(T<E T="52">j</E>).
</P>
<HD3>4.1.5.2 Unit Operates at an Intermediate Compressor Speed (k=i) In Order To Match the Building Cooling Load at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>,Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.083.gif"/>
<FP-2>where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=i</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">j</E>), the space cooling capacity delivered by the unit in matching the building load at temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Btu/h. The matching occurs with the unit operating at compressor speed k = i.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.084.gif"/>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=i</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), the steady-state energy efficiency ratio of the test unit when operating at a compressor speed of k = i and temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Btu/h per W.
</FP-2>
<P>Obtain the fractional bin hours for the cooling season, n<E T="52">j</E>/N, from Table 19. For each temperature bin where the unit operates at an intermediate compressor speed, determine the energy efficiency ratio EER<E T="51">k=i</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using the following equations,
</P>
<P>For each temperature bin where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>),
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.085.gif"/>
<P>For each temperature bin where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≤BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>),
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.086.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is the steady-state energy efficiency ratio of the test unit when operating at minimum compressor speed and temperature Tj, Btu/h per W, calculated using capacity Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) calculated using Equation 4.1.4-1 and electrical power consumption E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) calculated using Equation 4.1.4-2;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k</E><E T="51">=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is the steady-state energy efficiency ratio of the test unit when operating at intermediate compressor speed and temperature Tj, Btu/h per W, calculated using capacity Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) calculated using Equation 4.1.4-3 and electrical power consumption E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) calculated using Equation 4.1.4-4;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is the steady-state energy efficiency ratio of the test unit when operating at full compressor speed and temperature Tj, Btu/h per W, calculated using capacity Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and electrical power consumption E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">c</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), both calculated as described in section 4.1.4; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) is the building cooling load at temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<HD2>4.2 Heating Seasonal Performance Factor (HSPF) Calculations
</HD2>
<P>Unless an approved alternative efficiency determination method is used, as set forth in 10 CFR 429.70(e), HSPF must be calculated as follows: Six generalized climatic regions are depicted in Figure 1 and otherwise defined in Table 20. For each of these regions and for each applicable standardized design heating requirement, evaluate the heating seasonal performance factor using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.087.gif"/>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>e2(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N = The ratio of the electrical energy consumed by the heat pump during periods of the space heating season when the outdoor temperature fell within the range represented by bin temperature T<E T="52">j</E> to the total number of hours in the heating season (N), W. For heat pumps having a heat comfort controller, this ratio may also include electrical energy used by resistive elements to maintain a minimum air delivery temperature (see 4.2.5).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N = The ratio of the electrical energy used for resistive space heating during periods when the outdoor temperature fell within the range represented by bin temperature T<E T="52">j</E> to the total number of hours in the heating season (N), W. Except as noted in section 4.2.5 of this appendix, resistive space heating is modeled as being used to meet that portion of the building load that the heat pump does not meet because of insufficient capacity or because the heat pump automatically turns off at the lowest outdoor temperatures. For heat pumps having a heat comfort controller, all or part of the electrical energy used by resistive heaters at a particular bin temperature may be reflected in e<E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N (see section 4.2.5 of this appendix).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">j</E> = the outdoor bin temperature, °F. Outdoor temperatures are “binned” such that calculations are only performed based one temperature within the bin. Bins of 5 °F are used.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="52">j</E>/N= Fractional bin hours for the heating season; the ratio of the number of hours during the heating season when the outdoor temperature fell within the range represented by bin temperature T<E T="52">j</E> to the total number of hours in the heating season, dimensionless. Obtain n<E T="52">j</E>/N values from Table 20.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>j = the bin number, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>J = for each generalized climatic region, the total number of temperature bins, dimensionless. Referring to Table 20, J is the highest bin number (j) having a nonzero entry for the fractional bin hours for the generalized climatic region of interest.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F<E T="52">def</E> = the demand defrost credit described in section 3.9.2 of this appendix, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the building space conditioning load corresponding to an outdoor temperature of T<E T="52">j</E>; the heating season building load also depends on the generalized climatic region's outdoor design temperature and the design heating requirement, Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 20—Generalized Climatic Region Information
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Region No.
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">IV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">V
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">VI
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heating Load Hours, HLH</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*2,750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor Design Temperature, T<E T="52">OD</E></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">j T<E T="52">j</E> ( °F)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6">Fractional Bin Hours, n<E T="52">j</E>/N
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.291</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.215</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.153</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.132</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.239</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.189</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.142</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.111</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.092</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.206
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.194</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.163</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.138</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.103</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.086</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.143</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.137</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.093</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.076</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.204
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.081</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.112</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.078</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.141
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.041</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.088</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.118</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.109</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.087</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.076
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.056</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.092</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.126</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.102</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.034
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.024</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.047</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.087</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.094</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.008
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.074</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.003
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.009</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.036</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.055</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.047</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.038</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.029</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14 −3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 −8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16 −13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17 −18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18 −23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Pacific Coast Region.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Evaluate the building heating load using
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.088.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OD</E> = the outdoor design temperature, °F. An outdoor design temperature is specified for each generalized climatic region in Table 20.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = 0.77, a correction factor which tends to improve the agreement between calculated and measured building loads, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DHR = the design heating requirement (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions), Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the minimum and maximum design heating requirements for each generalized climatic region as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.089.gif"/>
<FP>where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(47) is expressed in units of Btu/h and otherwise defined as follows:
</FP>
<P>a. For a single-speed heat pump tested as per section 3.6.1 of this appendix,

Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(47) = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(47), the space heating capacity determined from the H1 test.
</P>
<P>b. For a section 3.6.2 single-speed heat pump or a two-capacity heat pump not covered by item d,

Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(47) =

Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47), the space heating capacity determined from the H1 or H1<E T="52">2</E> test.
</P>
<P>c. For a variable-speed heat pump,

Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k</SU>(47) =

Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=N</E>(47), the space heating capacity determined from the H1<E T="52">N</E> test.
</P>
<P>d. For two-capacity, northern heat pumps (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions),

Q
<AC T="b"/>
<SU>k</SU><E T="54">h</E>(47) =

Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="51">k=1</E><E T="54">h</E>(47), the space heating capacity determined from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test.
</P>
<P>For all heat pumps, HSPF accounts for the heating delivered and the energy consumed by auxiliary resistive elements when operating below the balance point. This condition occurs when the building load exceeds the space heating capacity of the heat pump condenser. For HSPF calculations for all heat pumps, see either section 4.2.1, 4.2.2, 4.2.3, or 4.2.4 of this appendix, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>For heat pumps with heat comfort controllers (see section 1.2 of this appendix, Definitions), HSPF also accounts for resistive heating contributed when operating above the heat-pump-plus-comfort-controller balance point as a result of maintaining a minimum supply temperature. For heat pumps having a heat comfort controller, see section 4.2.5 of this appendix for the additional steps required for calculating the HSPF.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 21—Standardized Design Heating Requirements
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Btu/h]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 15,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 25,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 30,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 35,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 40,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 50,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 60,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 70,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 80,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 90,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">110,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>4.2.1 Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Blower Coil System Heat Pump Having a Single-Speed Compressor and Either a Fixed-Speed Indoor Blower or a Constant-Air-Volume-Rate Indoor Blower Installed, or a Coil-Only System Heat Pump
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.090.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.091.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.092.gif"/>
<FP-2>whichever is less; the heating mode load factor for temperature bin j, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the space heating capacity of the heat pump when operating at outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the electrical power consumption of the heat pump when operating at outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, W.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>δ(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the heat pump low temperature cut-out factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PLF<E T="52">j</E> = 1 − C
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> · [1 −X(T<E T="52">j</E>)] the part load factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>Use Equation 4.2-2 to determine BL(T<E T="52">j</E>). Obtain fractional bin hours for the heating season, n<E T="52">j</E>/N, from Table 20. Evaluate the heating mode cyclic degradation factor C
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> as specified in section 3.8.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Determine the low temperature cut-out factor using
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.093.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">off</E> = the outdoor temperature when the compressor is automatically shut off, °F. (If no such temperature exists, T<E T="52">j</E> is always greater than T<E T="52">off</E> and T<E T="52">on</E>).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">on</E> = the outdoor temperature when the compressor is automatically turned back on, if applicable, following an automatic shut-off, °F.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.094.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.095.gif"/>
<FP>where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(47) are determined from the H1 test and calculated as specified in section 3.7 of this appendix; Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(35) are determined from the H2 test and calculated as specified in section 3.9.1 of this appendix; and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(17) are determined from the H3 test and calculated as specified in section 3.10 of this appendix.
</FP>
<HD3>4.2.2 Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Single-Speed Compressor and a Variable-Speed, Variable-Air-Volume-Rate Indoor Blower
</HD3>
<P>The manufacturer must provide information about how the indoor air volume rate or the indoor blower speed varies over the outdoor temperature range of 65 °F to −23 °F. Calculate the quantities
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.096.gif"/>
<FP>in Equation 4.2-1 as specified in section 4.2.1 of this appendix with the exception of replacing references to the H1C test and section 3.6.1 of this appendix with the H1C<E T="52">1</E> test and section 3.6.2 of this appendix. In addition, evaluate the space heating capacity and electrical power consumption of the heat pump Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.097.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.098.gif"/>
<FP>where the space heating capacity and electrical power consumption at both low capacity (k=1) and high capacity (k=2) at outdoor temperature Tj are determined using
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.099.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.100.gif"/>
<P>For units where indoor blower speed is the primary control variable, FP<E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E> denotes the fan speed used during the required H1<E T="52">1</E> and H3<E T="52">1</E> tests (see Table 12), FP<E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E> denotes the fan speed used during the required H1<E T="52">2</E>, H2<E T="52">2</E>, and H3<E T="52">2</E> tests, and FP<E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) denotes the fan speed used by the unit when the outdoor temperature equals T<E T="52">j.</E> For units where indoor air volume rate is the primary control variable, the three FP<E T="54">h</E>'s are similarly defined only now being expressed in terms of air volume rates rather than fan speeds. Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test, and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">2</E> test. Calculate all four quantities as specified in section 3.7 of this appendix. Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(35) as specified in section 3.6.2 of this appendix; determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(35) and from the H2<E T="52">2</E> test and the calculation specified in section 3.9 of this appendix. Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">1</E> test, and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">2</E> test. Calculate all four quantities as specified in section 3.10 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.3 Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Two-Capacity Compressor
</HD3>
<P>The calculation of the Equation 4.2-1 to this appendix quantities differ depending upon whether the heat pump would operate at low capacity (section 4.2.3.1 of this appendix), cycle between low and high capacity (section 4.2.3.2 of this appendix), or operate at high capacity (sections 4.2.3.3 and 4.2.3.4 of this appendix) in responding to the building load. For heat pumps that lock out low capacity operation at low outdoor temperatures, the outdoor temperature at which the unit locks out must be that specified by the manufacturer in the certification report so that the appropriate equations can be selected.
</P>
<P>a. Evaluate the space heating capacity and electrical power consumption of the heat pump when operating at low compressor capacity and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> using
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.102.gif"/>
<P>b. Evaluate the space heating capacity and electrical power consumption (Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E> (T<E T="52">j</E>)) of the heat pump when operating at high compressor capacity and outdoor temperature Tj by solving Equations 4.2.2-3 and 4.2.2-4, respectively, for k=2. Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(62) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(62) from the H0<E T="52">1</E> test, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test, and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">2</E> test. Calculate all six quantities as specified in section 3.7 of this appendix. Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(35) from the H2<E T="52">2</E> test and, if required as described in section 3.6.3 of this appendix, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(35) from the H2<E T="52">1</E> test. Calculate the required 35 °F quantities as specified in section 3.9 of this appendix. Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">2</E> test and, if required as described in section 3.6.3 of this appendix, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">1</E> test. Calculate the required 17 °F quantities as specified in section 3.10 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.3.1 Steady-State Space Heating Capacity When Operating at Low Compressor Capacity is Greater Than or Equal to the Building Heating Load at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.103.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.104.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)/Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), the heating mode low capacity load factor for temperature bin <I>j,</I> dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PLF<E T="52">j</E> = 1 − C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> · [ 1 − X<E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ], the part load factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the low temperature cutoff factor, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>Evaluate the heating mode cyclic degradation factor C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> as specified in section 3.8.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Determine the low temperature cut-out factor using
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.105.gif"/>
<FP>where T<E T="52">off</E> and T<E T="52">on</E> are defined in section 4.2.1 of this appendix. Use the calculations given in section 4.2.3.3 of this appendix, and not the above, if:
</FP>
<P>a. The heat pump locks out low capacity operation at low outdoor temperatures and
</P>
<P>b. T<E T="52">j</E> is below this lockout threshold temperature.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.3.2 Heat Pump Alternates Between High (k=2) and Low (k=1) Compressor Capacity To Satisfy the Building Heating Load at a Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.106.gif"/>
<FP-2>X<E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = 1 − X<E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) the heating mode, high capacity load factor for temperaturebin <E T="52">j</E>, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>Determine the low temperature cut-out factor, δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>), using Equation 4.2.3-3.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.3.3 Heat Pump Only Operates at High (k=2) Compressor Capacity at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E> and its Capacity Is Greater Than the Building Heating Load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<P>This section applies to units that lock out low compressor capacity operation at low outdoor temperatures.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.107.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>X</I><E T="53">k=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>) = <I>BL</I>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>)/<I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>PLF</I><E T="54">j</E> = 1−<I>C</I><E T="53">h</E><E T="54">D</E> (<I>k</I> = 2) * [1−<I>X</I><E T="53">k=2</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>)].
</FP-2>
<P>If the H1C<E T="52">2</E> test described in section 3.6.3 and Table 13 of this appendix is not conducted, set C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU> (k=2) equal to the default value specified in section 3.8.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Determine the low temperature cut-out factor, δ(T<E T="52">j</E>), using Equation 4.2.3-3.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.3.4 Heat Pump Must Operate Continuously at High (k=2) Compressor Capacity at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥ Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">h</E>
<SU>k=2</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc22.019.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc22.020.gif"/>
<HD3>4.2.4 Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Variable-Speed Compressor
</HD3>
<P>Calculate HSPF using Equation 4.2-1. Evaluate the space heating capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), of the heat pump when operating at minimum compressor speed and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> using
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.109.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.110.gif"/>
<FP>where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(62) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(62) are determined from the H0<E T="52">1</E> test, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(47) are determined from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test, and all four quantities are calculated as specified in section 3.7 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P>Evaluate the space heating capacity, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), and electrical power consumption, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), of the heat pump when operating at full compressor speed and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> by solving Equations 4.2.2-3 and 4.2.2-4, respectively, for k=2. For Equation 4.2.2-3, use Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) to represent Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47), and for Equation 4.2.2-4, use E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) to represent E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47)—evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hcalc</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(47) as specified in section 3.6.4b of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.111.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.112.gif"/>
<FP>where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(35) are determined from the H2<E T="52">V</E> test and calculated as specified in section 3.9 of this appendix. Approximate the slopes of the k=v intermediate speed heating capacity and electrical power input curves, M<E T="52">Q</E> and M<E T="52">E</E>, as follows:
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.113.gif"/>
<HD3>4.2.4.1 Steady-State Space Heating Capacity When Operating at Minimum Compressor Speed Is Greater Than or Equal to the Building Heating Load at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E> ≥BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<P>Evaluate the Equation 4.2-1 quantities
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.114.gif"/>
<FP>as specified in section 4.2.3.1 of this appendix. Except now use Equations 4.2.4-1 and 4.2.4-2 to evaluate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), respectively, and replace section 4.2.3.1 references to “low capacity” and section 3.6.3 of this appendix with “minimum speed” and section 3.6.4 of this appendix. Also, the last sentence of section 4.2.3.1 of this appendix does not apply.
</FP>
<HD3>4.2.4.2 Heat Pump Operates at an Intermediate Compressor Speed (k=i) in Order To Match the Building Heating Load at a Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.115.gif"/>
<FP-2>and δ(T<E T="52">j</E>) is evaluated using Equation 4.2.3-3 while,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=i</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = BL(T<E T="52">j</E>), the space heating capacity delivered by the unit in matching the building load at temperature (T<E T="52">j</E>), Btu/h. The matching occurs with the heat pump operating at compressor speed k=i.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>COP<E T="51">k=i</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the steady-state coefficient of performance of the heat pump when operating at compressor speed k=i and temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, dimensionless.
</FP-2>
<P>For each temperature bin where the heat pump operates at an intermediate compressor speed, determine COP<E T="51">k=i</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using the following equations,
</P>
<P>For each temperature bin where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>),
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.116.gif"/>
<P>For each temperature bin where Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≤BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>),
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.117.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>COP<E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is the steady-state coefficient of performance of the heat pump when operating at minimum compressor speed and temperature Tj, dimensionless, calculated using capacity Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) calculated using Equation 4.2.4-1 and electrical power consumption E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) calculated using Equation 4.2.4-2;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>COP<E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is the steady-state coefficient of performance of the heat pump when operating at intermediate compressor speed and temperature Tj, dimensionless, calculated using capacity Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) calculated using Equation 4.2.4-3 and electrical power consumption E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=v</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) calculated using Equation 4.2.4-4;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>COP<E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is the steady-state coefficient of performance of the heat pump when operating at full compressor speed and temperature Tj, dimensionless, calculated using capacity Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and electrical power consumption E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), both calculated as described in section 4.2.4; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) is the building heating load at temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<HD3>4.2.4.3 Heat Pump Must Operate Continuously at Full (k=2) Compressor Speed at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<P>Evaluate the Equation 4.2-1 Quantities
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.118.gif"/>
<FP>as specified in section 4.2.3.4 of this appendix with the understanding that Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) correspond to full compressor speed operation and are derived from the results of the specified section 3.6.4 tests of this appendix.
</FP>
<HD3>4.2.5 Heat Pumps Having a Heat Comfort Controller
</HD3>
<P>Heat pumps having heat comfort controllers, when set to maintain a typical minimum air delivery temperature, will cause the heat pump condenser to operate less because of a greater contribution from the resistive elements. With a conventional heat pump, resistive heating is only initiated if the heat pump condenser cannot meet the building load (<I>i.e.,</I> is delayed until a second stage call from the indoor thermostat). With a heat comfort controller, resistive heating can occur even though the heat pump condenser has adequate capacity to meet the building load (<I>i.e.,</I> both on during a first stage call from the indoor thermostat). As a result, the outdoor temperature where the heat pump compressor no longer cycles (<I>i.e.,</I> starts to run continuously), will be lower than if the heat pump did not have the heat comfort controller.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.5.1 Blower Coil System Heat Pump Having a Heat Comfort Controller: Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Single-Speed Compressor and Either a Fixed-Speed Indoor Blower or a Constant-Air-Volume-Rate Indoor Blower Installed, or a Coil-Only System Heat Pump
</HD3>
<P>Calculate the space heating capacity and electrical power of the heat pump without the heat comfort controller being active as specified in section 4.2.1 of this appendix (Equations 4.2.1-4 and 4.2.1-5) for each outdoor bin temperature, T<E T="52">j</E>, that is listed in Table 20. Denote these capacities and electrical powers by using the subscript “hp” instead of “h.” Calculate the mass flow rate (expressed in pounds-mass of dry air per hour) and the specific heat of the indoor air (expressed in Btu/lbm<E T="52">da</E> · °F) from the results of the H1 test using:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.119.gif"/>
<FP>where V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">s</E>, V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">mx</E>, v′<E T="52">n</E> (or v<E T="52">n</E>), and W<E T="52">n</E> are defined following Equation 3-1. For each outdoor bin temperature listed in Table 20, calculate the nominal temperature of the air leaving the heat pump condenser coil using,
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.120.gif"/>
<P>Evaluate e<E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>/N), RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N, X(T<E T="52">j</E>), PLF<E T="52">j</E>, and δ(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.1 of this appendix. For each bin calculation, use the space heating capacity and electrical power from Case 1 or Case 2, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>Case 1. For outdoor bin temperatures where T<E T="52">o</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is equal to or greater than T<E T="52">CC</E> (the maximum supply temperature determined according to section 3.1.10 of this appendix), determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.1 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hp</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hp</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)). <E T="04">Note:</E> Even though T<E T="52">o</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥T<E T="52">cc</E>, resistive heating may be required; evaluate Equation 4.2.1-2 for all bins.
</P>
<P>Case 2. For outdoor bin temperatures where T<E T="52">o</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt; T<E T="52">CC</E>, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.121.gif"/>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Even though T<E T="52">o</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) T<E T="52">cc</E>, additional resistive heating may be required; evaluate Equation 4.2.1-2 for all bins.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>4.2.5.2 Heat Pump Having a Heat Comfort Controller: Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Single-Speed Compressor and a Variable-Speed, Variable-Air-Volume-Rate Indoor Blower
</HD3>
<P>Calculate the space heating capacity and electrical power of the heat pump without the heat comfort controller being active as specified in section 4.2.2 of this appendix (Equations 4.2.2-1 and 4.2.2-2) for each outdoor bin temperature, T<E T="52">j</E>, that is listed in Table 20. Denote these capacities and electrical powers by using the subscript “hp” instead of “h.” Calculate the mass flow rate (expressed in pounds-mass of dry air per hour) and the specific heat of the indoor air (expressed in Btu/lbm<E T="52">da</E> · °F) from the results of the H1<E T="52">2</E> test using:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.122.gif"/>
<FP>where V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">S</E>, V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">mx</E>, v′<E T="52">n</E> (or v<E T="52">n</E>), and W<E T="52">n</E> are defined following Equation 3-1. For each outdoor bin temperature listed in Table 20, calculate the nominal temperature of the air leaving the heat pump condenser coil using,
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.123.gif"/>
<P>Evaluate e<E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N, RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N, X(T<E T="52">j</E>), PLF<E T="52">j</E>, and δ(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.1 of this appendix with the exception of replacing references to the H1C test and section 3.6.1 of this appendix with the H1C<E T="52">1</E> test and section 3.6.2 of this appendix. For each bin calculation, use the space heating capacity and electrical power from Case 1 or Case 2, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>Case 1. For outdoor bin temperatures where T<E T="52">o</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is equal to or greater than T<E T="52">CC</E> (the maximum supply temperature determined according to section 3.1.10 of this appendix), determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.2 of this appendix (<I>i.e.</I> Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hp</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hp</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)). Note: Even though T<E T="52">o</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥T<E T="52">CC,</E> resistive heating may be required; evaluate Equation 4.2.1-2 for all bins.
</P>
<P>Case 2. For outdoor bin temperatures where T<E T="52">o</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt; T<E T="52">CC</E>, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.124.gif"/>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Even though T<E T="52">o</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) T<E T="52">cc</E>, additional resistive heating may be required; evaluate Equation 4.2.1-2 for all bins.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>4.2.5.3 Heat Pumps Having a Heat Comfort Controller: Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Two-Capacity Compressor
</HD3>
<P>Calculate the space heating capacity and electrical power of the heat pump without the heat comfort controller being active as specified in section 4.2.3 of this appendix for both high and low capacity and at each outdoor bin temperature, T<E T="52">j</E>, that is listed in Table 20. Denote these capacities and electrical powers by using the subscript “hp” instead of “h.” For the low capacity case, calculate the mass flow rate (expressed in pounds-mass of dry air per hour) and the specific heat of the indoor air (expressed in Btu/lbm<E T="52">da</E> · °F) from the results of the H1<E T="52">1</E> test using:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.125.gif"/>
<FP>where V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">s</E>, V
<AC T="i"/><E T="52">mx</E>, v′<E T="52">n</E> (or v<E T="52">n</E>), and W<E T="52">n</E> are defined following Equation 3-1. For each outdoor bin temperature listed in Table 20, calculate the nominal temperature of the air leaving the heat pump condenser coil when operating at low capacity using,
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.126.gif"/>
<P>Repeat the above calculations to determine the mass flow rate (m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">da</E><E T="53">k=2</E>) and the specific heat of the indoor air (C<E T="52">p,da</E><E T="53">k=2</E>) when operating at high capacity by using the results of the H1<E T="52">2</E> test. For each outdoor bin temperature listed in Table 20, calculate the nominal temperature of the air leaving the heat pump condenser coil when operating at high capacity using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.127.gif"/>
<P>Evaluate e<E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N, RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N, X<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), and/or X<E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), PLF<E T="52">j</E>, and δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>) or δ″(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.3.1. 4.2.3.2, 4.2.3.3, or 4.2.3.4 of this appendix, whichever applies, for each temperature bin. To evaluate these quantities, use the low-capacity space heating capacity and the low-capacity electrical power from Case 1 or Case 2, whichever applies; use the high-capacity space heating capacity and the high-capacity electrical power from Case 3 or Case 4, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>Case 1. For outdoor bin temperatures where T<E T="52">o</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is equal to or greater than T<E T="52">CC</E> (the maximum supply temperature determined according to section 3.1.10 of this appendix), determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.3 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hp</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hp</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Even though T<E T="52">o</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥T<E T="52">CC</E>, resistive heating may be required; evaluate RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N for all bins.</P></NOTE>
<P>Case 2. For outdoor bin temperatures where T<E T="52">o</E>
<SU>k=1</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt; T<E T="52">CC</E>, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k=1</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E>
<SU>k=1</SU>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.128.gif"/>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Even though T<E T="52">o</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥T<E T="52">cc</E>, additional resistive heating may be required; evaluate RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N for all bins.</P></NOTE>
<P>Case 3. For outdoor bin temperatures where T<E T="52">o</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) is equal to or greater than T<E T="52">CC</E>, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.3 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hp</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = E
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">hp</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Even though T<E T="52">o</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;T<E T="52">CC</E>, resistive heating may be required; evaluate RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N for all bins.</P></NOTE>
<P>Case 4. For outdoor bin temperatures where T<E T="52">o</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;T<E T="52">CC</E>, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) using,
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.129.gif"/>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Even though T<E T="52">o</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;T<E T="52">cc</E>, additional resistive heating may be required; evaluate RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N for all bins.</P></NOTE>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.5.4 Heat Pumps Having a Heat Comfort Controller: Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Variable-Speed Compressor. [Reserved]
</HD3>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.6 Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Triple-Capacity Compressor
</HD3>
<P>The only triple-capacity heat pumps covered are triple-capacity, northern heat pumps. For such heat pumps, the calculation of the Eq. 4.2-1 quantities
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.130.gif"/>
<FP>differ depending on whether the heat pump would cycle on and off at low capacity (section 4.2.6.1 of this appendix), cycle on and off at high capacity (section 4.2.6.2 of this appendix), cycle on and off at booster capacity (section 4.2.6.3 of this appendix), cycle between low and high capacity (section 4.2.6.4 of this appendix), cycle between high and booster capacity (section 4.2.6.5 of this appendix), operate continuously at low capacity (4.2.6.6 of this appendix), operate continuously at high capacity (section 4.2.6.7 of this appendix), operate continuously at booster capacity (section 4.2.6.8 of this appendix), or heat solely using resistive heating (also section 4.2.6.8 of this appendix) in responding to the building load. As applicable, the manufacturer must supply information regarding the outdoor temperature range at which each stage of compressor capacity is active. As an informative example, data may be submitted in this manner: At the low (k=1) compressor capacity, the outdoor temperature range of operation is 40 °F ≤ T ≤ 65 °F; At the high (k=2) compressor capacity, the outdoor temperature range of operation is 20 °F ≤ T ≤ 50 °F; At the booster (k=3) compressor capacity, the outdoor temperature range of operation is −20 °F ≤ T ≤ 30 °F.
</FP>
<P>a. Evaluate the space heating capacity and electrical power consumption of the heat pump when operating at low compressor capacity and outdoor temperature Tj using the equations given in section 4.2.3 of this appendix for Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E> (T<E T="52">j</E>)) In evaluating the section 4.2.3 equations, Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(62) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(62) from the H0<E T="52">1</E> test, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test, and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">2</E> test. Calculate all four quantities as specified in section 3.7 of this appendix. If, in accordance with section 3.6.6 of this appendix, the H3<E T="52">1</E> test is conducted, calculate Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(17) as specified in section 3.10 of this appendix and determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(35) as specified in section 3.6.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. Evaluate the space heating capacity and electrical power consumption (Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E> (T<E T="52">j</E>)) of the heat pump when operating at high compressor capacity and outdoor temperature Tj by solving Equations 4.2.2-3 and 4.2.2-4, respectively, for k=2. Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(62) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(62) from the H0<E T="52">1</E> test, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test, and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(47) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">2</E> test, evaluated as specified in section 3.7 of this appendix. Determine the equation input for Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(35) from the H2<E T="52">2,</E> evaluated as specified in section 3.9.1 of this appendix. Also, determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">2</E> test, evaluated as specified in section 3.10 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. Evaluate the space heating capacity and electrical power consumption of the heat pump when operating at booster compressor capacity and outdoor temperature Tj using
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.131.gif"/>
<FP>Determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(17) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">3</E> test and determine Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(5) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(5) from the H4<E T="52">3</E> test. Calculate all four quantities as specified in section 3.10 of this appendix. Determine the equation input for Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(35) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(35) as specified in section 3.6.6 of this appendix.
</FP>
<FP>4.2.6.1 Steady-State Space Heating Capacity when Operating at Low Compressor Capacity is Greater than or Equal to the Building Heating Load at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≥BL(T<E T="52">j</E>)., and the heat pump permits low compressor capacity at T<E T="52">j.</E>
</FP>
<P>Evaluate the quantities
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.132.gif"/>
<FP>using Eqs. 4.2.3-1 and 4.2.3-2, respectively. Determine the equation inputs X<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), PLF<E T="52">j</E>, and δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.3.1 of this appendix. In calculating the part load factor, PLF<E T="52">j</E>, use the low-capacity cyclic-degradation coefficient C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>, [or equivalently, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>(k=1)] determined in accordance with section 3.6.6 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.6.2 Heat Pump Only Operates at High (k=2) Compressor Capacity at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E> and Its Capacity Is Greater Than or Equal to the Building Heating Load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≤Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<P>Evaluate the quantities
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.133.gif"/>
<FP>as specified in section 4.2.3.3 of this appendix. Determine the equation inputs X<E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), PLF<E T="52">j</E>, and δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.3.3 of this appendix. In calculating the part load factor, PLF<E T="52">j</E>, use the high-capacity cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>(k=2) determined in accordance with section 3.6.6 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.6.3 Heat Pump Only Operates at Booster (k=3) Compressor Capacity at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, and its Capacity Is Greater Than or Equal to the Building Heating Load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) ≤ Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>).
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.134.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP><I>X</I><E T="53">k=3</E>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>) = <I>BL</I>(<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>)/<I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k=3</E> (<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>) and <I>PLF</I><E T="54">j</E> = 1−<I>C</I><E T="54">D</E><E T="53">h</E> (<I>k = 3</I>) * [1−<I>X</I><E T="53">k=3</E> (<I>T</I><E T="54">j</E>)
</FP>
<FP>Determine the low temperature cut-out factor, δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>), using Eq. 4.2.3-3. Use the booster-capacity cyclic-degradation coefficient, C<E T="52">D</E>
<SU>h</SU>(k=3) determined in accordance with section 3.6.6 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.6.4 Heat Pump Alternates Between High (k=2) and Low (k=1) Compressor Capacity to Satisfy the Building Heating Load at a Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<P>Evaluate the quantities
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.135.gif"/>
<FP>as specified in section 4.2.3.2 of this appendix. Determine the equation inputs X<E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), X<E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>), and δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>) as specified in section 4.2.3.2 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P> 



</P>
<HD3>4.2.6.5 Heat Pump Alternates Between High (k=2) and Booster (k=3) Compressor Capacity To Satisfy the Building Heating Load at a Temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &lt;Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.136.gif"/>
<FP>and X<E T="51">k=3</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = X<E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) = the heating mode, booster capacity load factor for temperature bin j, dimensionless. Determine the low temperature cut-out factor, δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>), using Eq. 4.2.3-3.
</FP>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.6.6 Heat Pump Only Operates at Low (k=1) Capacity at Temperature T<E T="52">j</E> and Its Capacity Is Less Than the Building Heating Load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &gt; Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=1</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.137.gif"/>
<FP>where the low temperature cut-out factor, δ′(Tj), is calculated using Eq. 4.2.3-3.
</FP>
<HD3>4.2.6.7 Heat Pump Only Operates at High (k=2) Capacity at Temperature Tj and Its Capacity Is Less Than the Building Heating Load, BL(Tj) &gt; Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=2</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)
</HD3>
<P>Evaluate the quantities
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.138.gif"/>
<FP>as specified in section 4.2.3.4 of this appendix. Calculate δ″(Tj) using the equation given in section 4.2.3.4 of this appendix.
</FP>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.6.8 Heat Pump Only Operates at Booster (k=3) Capacity at Temperature Tj and Its Capacity Is Less Than the Building Heating Load, BL(T<E T="52">j</E>) &gt; Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">h</E><E T="51">k=3</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>) or the System Converts to Using Only Resistive Heating
</HD3>
<P> 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.139.gif"/>
<FP>where δ″(Tj) is calculated as specified in section 4.2.3.4 of this appendix if the heat pump is operating at its booster compressor capacity. If the heat pump system converts to using only resistive heating at outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E>, set δ′(T<E T="52">j</E>) equal to zero.
</FP>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.7 Additional Steps for Calculating the HSPF of a Heat Pump Having a Single Indoor Unit With Multiple Indoor Blowers
</HD3>
<P>The calculation of the Eq. 4.2-1 quantities e<E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N and RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N are evaluated as specified in the applicable subsection.
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<HD3>4.2.7.1 For Multiple Indoor Blower Heat Pumps That Are Connected to a Singular, Single-Speed Outdoor Unit
</HD3>
<P>a. Calculate the space heating capacity, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(Tj), and electrical power consumption, <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(Tj), of the heat pump when operating at the heating minimum air volume rate and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E> using Eqs. 4.2.2-3 and 4.2.2-4, respectively. Use these same equations to calculate the space heating capacity, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(Tj) and electrical power consumption, <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(Tj), of the test unit when operating at the heating full-load air volume rate and outdoor temperature T<E T="52">j</E>. In evaluating Eqs. 4.2.2-3 and 4.2.2- 4, determine the quantities <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(47) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">1</E> test; determine <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> (47) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(47) from the H1<E T="52">2</E> test. Evaluate all four quantities according to section 3.7 of this appendix. Determine the quantities <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(35) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(35) as specified in section 3.6.2 of this appendix. Determine <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(35) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(35) from the H2<E T="52">2</E> frost accumulation test as calculated according to section 3.9.1 of this appendix. Determine the quantities <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(17) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">1</E> test, and <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(17) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(17) from the H3<E T="52">2</E> test. Evaluate all four quantities according to section 3.10 of this appendix. Refer to section 3.6.2 and Table 12 of this appendix for additional information on the referenced laboratory tests.
</P>
<P>b. Determine the heating mode cyclic degradation coefficient, CD<E T="54">h</E>, as per sections 3.6.2 and 3.8 to 3.8.1 of this appendix. Assign this same value to CD<E T="54">h</E>(k = 2).
</P>
<P>c. Except for using the above values of <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(Tj), <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(Tj), <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(Tj), <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(Tj), CD<E T="54">h</E>, and CD<E T="54">h</E>(k = 2), calculate the quantities e<E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N as specified in section 4.2.3.1 of this appendix for cases where <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(Tj) ≥ BL(T<E T="52">j</E>). For all other outdoor bin temperatures, T<E T="52">j</E>, calculate e<E T="54">h</E>(Tj)/N and RH<E T="54">h</E>(Tj)/N as specified in section 4.2.3.3 of this appendix if <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(Tj) &gt; BL(Tj) or as specified in section 4.2.3.4 of this appendix if <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">h</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(Tj) ≤ BL(T<E T="52">j</E>).
</P>
<HD3>4.2.7.2 For Multiple Indoor Blower Heat Pumps Connected to Either a Single Outdoor Unit With a Two-capacity Compressor or to Two Separate Single-Speed Outdoor Units of Identical Model, calculate the quantities e<E T="54">h</E>(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N and RH(T<E T="52">j</E>)/N as specified in section 4.2.3 of this appendix.
</HD3>
<HD2>4.3 Calculations of Off-mode Power Consumption
</HD2>
<P>For central air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of:
</P>
<P>Less than 36,000 Btu/h, determine the off mode represented value, <I>P</I><E T="54">W,OFF</E>, with the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.140.gif"/>
<FP>greater than or equal to 36,000 Btu/h, calculate the capacity scaling factor according to:
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.141.gif"/>
<FP>where <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">C</E>(95) is the total cooling capacity at the A or A<E T="52">2</E> test condition, and determine the off mode represented value, <I>P</I><E T="54">W,OFF</E>, with the following equation:
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.142.gif"/>
<HD2>4.4 Rounding of SEER and HSPF for Reporting Purposes
</HD2>
<P>After calculating SEER according to section 4.1 of this appendix and HSPF according to section 4.2 of this appendix round the values off as specified per § 430.23(m) of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.143.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.144.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 22—Representative Cooling and Heating Load Hours for Each Generalized Climatic Region
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climatic region
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling load hours
<br/>CLH<E T="52">R</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heating load hours
<br/>HLH<E T="52">R</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">III</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,250
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rating Values</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,080
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,750</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>4.5 Calculations of the SHR, Which Should Be Computed for Different Equipment Configurations and Test Conditions Specified in Table 23
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 23—Applicable Test Conditions For Calculation of the Sensible Heat Ratio
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment configuration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
<br/>table Number of
<br/>appendix M
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SHR computation with results
<br/>from
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Computed values
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Units Having a Single-Speed Compressor and a Fixed-Speed Indoor blower, a Constant Air Volume Rate Indoor blower, or No Indoor blower</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B Test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SHR(B).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Units Having a Single-Speed Compressor That Meet the section 3.2.2.1 Indoor Unit Requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B2 and B1 Tests</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SHR(B1), SHR(B2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Units Having a Two-Capacity Compressor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B2 and B1 Tests</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SHR(B1), SHR(B2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Units Having a Variable-Speed Compressor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B2 and B1 Tests</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SHR(B1), SHR(B2).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The SHR is defined and calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.145.gif"/>
<FP>Where both the total and sensible cooling capacities are determined from the same cooling mode test and calculated from data collected over the same 30-minute data collection interval.
</FP>
<HD2>4.6 Calculations of the Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER).
</HD2>
<P>Calculate the energy efficiency ratio using.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er05ja17.146.gif"/>
<FP>where <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E>(<I>T</I>) and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E><E T="53">k</E>(<I>T</I>) are the space cooling capacity and electrical power consumption determined from the 30-minute data collection interval of the same steady-state wet coil cooling mode test and calculated as specified in section 3.3 of this appendix. Add the letter identification for each steady-state test as a subscript (<I>e.g.,</I> <I>EER</I><E T="54">A</E><E T="0362">2</E>) to differentiate among the resulting EER values.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1476, Jan. 5, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 68393, Dec. 2, 2021; 87 FR 64586, Oct. 25, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M1 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Central Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps




</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to July 7, 2025, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of central air conditioners and heat pumps, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(a) Appendix M1 to this subpart, in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2023; or
</P>
<P>(b) This appendix M1.
</P>
<P>Beginning July 7, 2025, and prior to the compliance date of amended standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps based on Seasonal Cooling and Off-mode Rating Efficiency (SCORE) and Seasonal Heating and Off-mode Rating Efficiency (SHORE), representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of central air conditioners and heat pumps, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.
</P>
<P>Beginning on the compliance date of amended standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps based on SCORE and SHORE, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of central air conditioners and heat pumps, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with appendix M2 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers may also certify compliance with any amended energy conservation standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps based on SCORE or SHORE prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards, and those compliance certifications must be based on testing in accordance with appendix M2 to this subpart.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>In § 430.3, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AHRI 210/240-2024, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ASHRAE 37-2009 and ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010. However, certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 210/240-2024, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ASHRAE 37-2009 and ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010, as set forth in sections 1.1 through 1.4 of this appendix, are inapplicable. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. AHRI 210/240-2024
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) The following subsections of Section 3 Definitions are inapplicable: 3.2.16 (Double-duct system), 3.2.20 (Gross capacity), 3.2.46 (Oil Recovery Mode), 3.2.51 (Published Rating), 3.2.63 (Standard Filter), 3.2.78 (Unitary Air-conditioner), 3.2.79 (Unitary Heat Pump),
</P>
<P>(d) Section 4 Classifications is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(e) The following subsection of Section 5 Test Requirements is inapplicable: 5.1.6.2 (Outdoor Unit with No Match (OUWNM)),
</P>
<P>(f) The following subsections of Section 6 Rating Requirements are inapplicable: 6.1.8, 6.2, 6.3, 6.4 and 6.5
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7 Minimum Data Requirements for Published Ratings is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(h) Section 8 Operating Requirements is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(i) Section 9 Marking and Nameplate Data is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(j) Section 10 Conformance Conditions is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(k) Appendix A References—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(l) Appendix B References—Informative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(m) Appendix C Secondary Capacity Check Requirements—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(n) Appendix F Unit Configurations for Standard Efficiency Determination—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(o) Appendix H Verification Testing—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(p) Appendix I Controls Verification Procedure—Normative is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(q) Appendix J Determination of Cut in and Cut out temperatures—Normative is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1—Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2—Scope is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4—Classification is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>1.3. ANSI/ASHRAE 16-2016
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1—Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2—Scope is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4—Classification is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>1.4. ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1—Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2—Scope is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4—Classification is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7—Methods of Test is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(e) References is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(f) Appendix A—Example Bin Calculations is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(g) Appendix B—Bibliography is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD2>2. General
</HD2>
<P>Determine the cooling capacity, heating capacity, and applicable energy efficiency metrics (SEER2, HSPF2, and EER2) in accordance with the specified sections of AHRI 210/240-2024 and the applicable provisions of ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ASHRAE 37-2009, and ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010. The A<E T="52">Full</E> (cooling mode) and H1<E T="52">Full</E> or H1<E T="52">Nom</E> (heating mode, if applicable) shall have a secondary capacity check completed. For all other tests in each mode, it is permissible to not use a secondary capacity check. For cooling mode tests of variable capacity systems, the compressor shall operate at the same cooling full speed, measured by RPM of power input frequency (Hz), for both A<E T="52">Full</E> and B<E T="52">Full</E> tests. Additionally, the compressor shall operate at the same cooling minimum speed, measured by RPM or power input frequency (Hz), for the B<E T="52">Low</E>, F<E T="52">Low</E>, G<E T="52">Low</E>, and I<E T="52">Low</E> tests.
</P>
<P>Sections 3, 4, and 5 of this appendix provide additional instructions for testing. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed, in order, by: AHRI 210/240-2024, ASHRAE 37-2009, ANSI/ASHRAE 16 and ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval, and a notice of any change in the incorporation will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<HD2>3. Off-Mode Power
</HD2>
<P>Determine off-mode power, P<E T="52">W, OFF</E>, in accordance with section 11.3 and appendix G of AHRI 210/240-2024.
</P>
<HD2>4. Outdoor Units With No Match (OUWNM)
</HD2>
<P><I>4.1. Definition. An Outdoor Unit that is not distributed in commerce with any indoor units, that meets any of the following criteria:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Is designed for use with a refrigerant that makes the unit banned for installation when paired with a new Indoor Unit to create a new system, according to EPA regulations in 40 CFR chapter I, subchapter C,
</P>
<P>(b) Is designed for use with a refrigerant that has a 95  °F midpoint saturation absolute pressure that is ±18 percent of the 95  °F saturation absolute pressure for R-22 and global warming potential greater than 150 per EPA regulations in 40 CFR 84.64, or
</P>
<P>(c) Is shipped without a specified refrigerant from the point of manufacture or is shipped such that more than two pounds of refrigerant are required to meet the charge per section 5.1.8 of AHRI 210/240-2024. This shall not apply if either:
</P>
<P>(1) The factory charge is equal to or greater than 70% of the outdoor unit internal volume times the liquid density of refrigerant at 95  °F, or
</P>
<P>(2) An A2L refrigerant is approved for use and listed in the certification report.
</P>
<P><I>4.2. Testing.</I> An OUWNM shall be tested at a single cooling air volume rate with an indoor coil having nominal tube diameter of 0.375 in and an NGIFS of 1.0 or less (as determined in section 5.1.6.3 of AHRI 210/240-2024). Tested values of CD
<SU>c</SU> and/or CD
<SU>h</SU> are not permitted. The default value, 0.25, shall be used for both cooling and heating mode testing.
</P>
<HD2>5. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P><I>5.1. Test Conditions for Certifying Compliance with Standards.</I> The following conditions specified in AHRI 210/240-2024 apply when testing to certify to the SEER2 and HSPF2 energy conservation standards in § 430.32(c).
</P>
<P>(a) For cooling mode, use the rating conditions specified in table 8 of AHRI 210/240-2024 and the fractional cooling bin hours in table 15 of AHRI 210/240-2024 to determine SEER2, and EER2 for models subject to regional standards in terms of EER2.
</P>
<P>(b) For heat pump heating mode, use the rating conditions specified in table 8 of AHRI 210/240-2024 and the fractional heating bin hours specified for Region IV in table 16 of AHRI 210/240-2024 to determine the heating efficiency metric, HSPF2.
</P>
<P><I>5.2. Optional Representations.</I> Representations of EER2 made using the rating conditions specified in table 8 of AHRI 210/240-2024 are optional for models not subject to regional standards in terms of EER2. Representations of HSPF2 made using the rating conditions specified in table 8 of AHRI 210/240-2024 and the fractional heating hours specified for Regions other than Region IV in table 16 of AHRI 210/240-2024 are optional. Representations of COP<E T="52">peak</E> made using appendix K are optional.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 1283, Jan. 7, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M2" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M2 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Central Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps

 
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to July 7, 2025, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of central air conditioners and heat pumps, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(a) Appendix M1 to this subpart, in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2023; or
</P>
<P>(b) Appendix M1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>Beginning July 7, 2025, and prior to the compliance date of amended standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps based on Seasonal Cooling and Off-mode Rating Efficiency (SCORE) and Seasonal Heating and Off-mode Rating Efficiency (SHORE), representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of central air conditioners and heat pumps, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with appendix M1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>Beginning on the compliance date of amended standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps based on SCORE and SHORE, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of central air conditioners and heat pumps, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers may also certify compliance with any amended energy conservation standards for central air conditioners and heat pumps based on SCORE or SHORE prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards, and those compliance certifications must be based on testing in accordance with this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>In § 430.3, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AHRI 1600-2024, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ASHRAE 37-2009, and ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010. However, certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 1600-2024, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ASHRAE 37-2009, and ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010, as set forth in sections 1.1 through 1.4 of this appendix, are inapplicable. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. AHRI 1600-2024
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) The following sections of Section 3 Definitions are inapplicable: 3.2.16 (Double-duct system), 3.2.20 (Gross capacity), 3.2.45 (Oil Recovery Mode), 3.2.50 (Published Rating), 3.2.63 (Standard Filter), 3.2.78 (Unitary Air-conditioner), 3.2.79 (Unitary Heat Pump),
</P>
<P>(d) Section 4 Classifications is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(e) The following subsection of Section 5 Test Requirements is inapplicable: 5.1.6.2 (Outdoor Unit with No Match (OUWNM)),
</P>
<P>(f) The following subsections of Section 6 Rating Requirements are inapplicable: 6.1.8, 6.2, 6.3, 6.4 and 6.5
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7 Minimum Data Requirements for Published Ratings is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(h) Section 8 Operating Requirements is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(i) Section 9 Marking and Nameplate Data is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(j) Section 10 Conformance Conditions is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(k) Appendix A References—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(l) Appendix B References—Informative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(m) Appendix C Secondary Capacity Check Requirements—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(n) Appendix F Unit Configurations for Standard Efficiency Determination—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(o) Appendix H Verification Testing—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(p) Appendix I Controls Verification Procedure—Normative is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(q) Appendix J Determination of Cut in and Cut out temperatures—Normative is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1—Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2—Scope is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4—Classification is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>1.3. ANSI/ASHRAE 16-2016
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1—Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2—Scope is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4—Classification is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>1.4. ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1—Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2—Scope is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4—Classification is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7—Methods of Test is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(e) References is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(f) Appendix A—Example Bin Calculations is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(g) Appendix B—Bibliography is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD2>2. General
</HD2>
<P>Determine the applicable energy efficiency metrics (SCORE, SHORE, and EER) in accordance with the specified sections of AHRI 1600-2024 and the applicable provisions of ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ASHRAE 37-2009, and ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010. The A<E T="52">Full</E> (cooling mode) and H1<E T="52">Full</E> or H1<E T="52">Nom</E> (heating mode, if applicable) shall have a secondary capacity check completed. For all other tests in each mode, it is permissible to not use a secondary capacity check. For cooling mode tests of variable capacity systems, the compressor shall operate at the same cooling full speed, measured by RPM of power input frequency (Hz), for both A<E T="52">Full</E> and B<E T="52">Full</E> tests. Additionally, the compressor shall operate at the same cooling minimum speed, measured by RPM or power input frequency (Hz), for the B<E T="52">Low</E>, F<E T="52">Low</E>, G<E T="52">Low</E>, and I<E T="52">Low</E> tests.
</P>
<P>Sections 3 and 4 of this appendix provide additional instructions for testing. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed, in order, by: AHRI 1600-2024, ASHRAE 37-2009, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, and ANSI/ASHRAE 116-2010. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval, and a notice of any change in the incorporation will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<HD2>3. Outdoor Units With No Match (OUWNM)
</HD2>
<P><I>3.1. Definition.</I> An Outdoor Unit that is not distributed in commerce with any indoor units, that meets any of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) Is designed for use with a refrigerant that makes the unit banned for installation when paired with a new Indoor Unit as a system, according to EPA regulations in 40 CFR chapter I, subchapter C,
</P>
<P>(b) Is designed for use with a refrigerant that has a 95  °F midpoint saturation absolute pressure that is ±18 percent of the 95  °F saturation absolute pressure for R-22 and a global warming potential greater than 150 per EPA regulations in 40 CFR 84.64, or
</P>
<P>(c) Is shipped without a specified refrigerant from the point of manufacture or is shipped such that more than two pounds of refrigerant are required to meet the charge per section 5.1.8 of AHRI 1600-2024. This shall not apply if either:
</P>
<P>(1) The factory charge is equal to or greater than 70% of the outdoor unit internal volume times the liquid density of refrigerant at 95  °F or,
</P>
<P>(2) An A2L refrigerant is approved for use and listed in the certification report
</P>
<P><I>3.2. Testing.</I> An OUWNM shall be tested at a single cooling air volume rate with an indoor coil having nominal tube diameter of 0.375 in and an NGIFS of 1.0 or less (as determined in section 5.1.6.3 of AHRI 1600-2024). Tested values of CD
<SU>c</SU> and/or CD
<SU>h</SU> are not permitted. The default value, 0.25, shall be used for both cooling and heating mode testing.
</P>
<HD2>4. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P><I>4.1. Test Conditions for Certifying Compliance with Standards.</I> The following conditions specified in AHRI 1600-2024 apply if testing to certify to the SCORE and SHORE energy conservation standards in § 430.32(c).
</P>
<P>(a) For cooling mode, use the rating conditions specified in table 8 of AHRI 1600-2024 and the `U.S. National Average' cooling conditioning hours and shoulder season hours in table 15 of AHRI 1600-2024, to determine SCORE, and EER for models subject to regional standards in terms of EER.
</P>
<P>(b) For heat pump heating mode, use the rating conditions specified in table 8 of AHRI 1600-2024 and the `U.S. National Average' heating conditioning hours and shoulder season hours specified in table 18 of AHRI 1600-2024 to determine the heating efficiency metric, SHORE.
</P>
<P><I>4.2. Optional Representations.</I> Representations of EER made using the rating conditions specified in table 8 of AHRI 1600-2024 are optional for models not subject to regional standards in terms of EER. Representations of SHORE made using the rating conditions specified in table 8 of AHRI 1600-2024 and the `Cold Climate Average' heating conditioning hours and shoulder season hours in table 18 of AHRI 1600-2024 are optional. Representations of COP<E T="52">peak</E> made using appendix K are optional.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 1284, Jan. 7, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix N" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.2.11.6.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix N to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Consumer Furnaces Other Than Boilers
</HEAD>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire standards for ASTM D2156R13 and IEC 62301. DOE also incorporated selected provisions of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> The scope of this appendix is as specified in section 2 of ASHRAE 103-1993 as it pertains to furnaces other than low pressure steam or hot water boilers or to electric boilers. Low pressure steam or hot water boilers and electric boilers are addressed in appendix EE of this subpart.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definitions.</I> Definitions include those specified in section 3 of ASHRAE 103-1993 and the following additional and modified definitions.
</P>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means the condition in which the furnace is connected to the power source, and at least one of the burner, electric resistance elements, or any electrical auxiliaries such as blowers, are activated.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means a device used to regulate the operation of a piece of equipment and the supply of fuel, electricity, air, or water.
</P>
<P><I>Draft inducer</I> means a fan incorporated in the furnace that either draws or forces air into the combustion chamber.
</P>
<P><I>Gas valve</I> means an automatic or semi-automatic device consisting essentially of a valve and operator that controls the gas supply to the burner(s) during normal operation of an appliance. The operator may be actuated by application of gas pressure on a flexible diaphragm, by electrical means, by mechanical means or by other means.
</P>
<P><I>Installation and operation (I&amp;O) manual</I> means instructions for installing, commissioning, and operating the furnace, which are supplied with the product when shipped by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Isolated combustion system</I> means a system where a unit is installed within the structure, but isolated from the heated space. A portion of the jacket heat from the unit is lost, and air for ventilation, combustion and draft control comes from outside the heated space.
</P>
<P><I>Multi-position furnace</I> means a furnace that can be installed in more than one airflow configuration (<I>i.e.,</I> upflow or horizontal; downflow or horizontal; upflow or downflow; and upflow, or downflow, or horizontal).
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means a mode in which the furnace is connected to a mains power source and is not providing any active mode or standby mode function, and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time. The existence of an off switch in off position (a disconnected circuit) is included within the classification of off mode.
</P>
<P><I>Off switch</I> means the switch on the furnace that, when activated, results in a measurable change in energy consumption between the standby and off modes.
</P>
<P><I>Oil control valve</I> means an automatically or manually operated device consisting of an oil valve for controlling the fuel supply to a burner to regulate burner input.
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means any mode in which the furnace is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following space heating functions that may persist:
</P>
<P>(a) Activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including thermostat or remote control), internal or external sensors, and/or timer; and
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays or sensor-based functions.
</P>
<P><I>Thermal stack damper</I> means a type of stack damper that relies exclusively upon the changes in temperature in the stack gases to open or close the damper.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Classifications.</I> Classifications are as specified in section 4 of ASHRAE 103-1993 for furnaces.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Requirements.</I> Requirements are as specified in section 5 of ASHRAE 103-1993 for furnaces.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Instruments.</I> Instruments must be as specified in section 6 of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Apparatus.</I> The apparatus used in conjunction with the furnace during the testing must be as specified in section 7 of ASHRAE 103-1993 (except for the excluded sub-sections as enumerated at § 430.3(g)(15)); and as specified in sections 6.1 through 6.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6.1 <I>General.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Install the furnace in the test room in accordance with the I&amp;O manual, as defined in section 2.6 of this appendix, except that if provisions within this appendix are specified, then the provisions herein drafted and prescribed by DOE govern. If the I&amp;O manual and any additional provisions of this appendix are not sufficient for testing a furnace, the manufacturer must request a waiver from the test procedure pursuant to § 430.27.
</P>
<P>(b) If the I&amp;O manual indicates the unit should not be installed with a return duct, then the return (inlet) duct specified in section 7.2.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 is not required.
</P>
<P>(c) Test multi-position furnaces in the least efficient configuration. Testing of multi-position furnaces in other configurations is permitted if energy use or efficiency is represented pursuant to the requirements in 10 CFR part 429.
</P>
<P>(d) The apparatuses described in section 6 of this appendix are used in conjunction with the furnace during testing. Each piece of apparatus shall conform to material and construction specifications listed in this appendix and in ASHRAE 103-1993, and the reference standards cited in this appendix and in ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>(e) Test rooms containing equipment must have suitable facilities for providing the utilities (including but not limited to environmental controls, applicable measurement equipment, and any other technology or tools) necessary for performance of the test and must be able to maintain conditions within the limits specified in section 6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6.2 <I>Forced-air central furnaces (direct vent and direct exhaust).</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Units not equipped with a draft hood or draft diverter must be provided with the minimum-length vent configuration recommended in the I&amp;O manual or a 5-ft flue pipe if there is no recommendation provided in the I&amp;O manual (<I>see</I> Figure 4 of ASHRAE 103-1993). For a direct exhaust system, insulate the minimum-length vent configuration or the 5-ft flue pipe with insulation having an R-value not less than 7 and an outer layer of aluminum foil. For a direct vent system, <I>see</I> section 7.5 of ASHRAE 103-1993 for insulation requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) For units with power burners, cover the flue collection box with insulation having an R-value of not less than 7 and an outer layer of aluminum foil before the cool-down and heat-up tests described in sections 9.5 and 9.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993, respectively. However, do not apply the insulation for the jacket loss test (if conducted) described in section 8.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 or the steady-state test described in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>(c) For power-vented units, insulate the shroud surrounding the blower impeller with insulation having an R-value of not less than 7 and an outer layer of aluminum foil before the cool-down and heat-up tests described in sections 9.5 and 9.6, respectively, of ASHRAE 103-1993. However, do not apply the insulation for the jacket loss test (if conducted) described in section 8.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 or the steady-state test described in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993. Do not insulate the blower motor or block the airflow openings that facilitate the cooling of the combustion blower motor or bearings.
</P>
<P>6.3 <I>Downflow furnaces.</I> Install an internal section of vent pipe the same size as the flue collar for connecting the flue collar to the top of the unit, if not supplied by the manufacturer. However, do not insulate the internal vent pipe during the jacket loss test (if conducted) described in section 8.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 or the steady-state test described in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993. Do not insulate the internal vent pipe before the cool-down and heat-up tests described in sections 9.5 and 9.6, respectively, of ASHRAE 103-1993. If the vent pipe is surrounded by a metal jacket, do not insulate the metal jacket. Install a 5-ft test stack of the same cross-sectional area or perimeter as the vent pipe above the top of the furnace. Tape or seal around the junction connecting the vent pipe and the 5-ft test stack. Insulate the 5-ft test stack with insulation having an R-value not less than 7 and an outer layer of aluminum foil. (<I>See</I> Figure 3-E of ASHRAE 103-1993.)
</P>
<P>6.4 <I>Units with draft hoods or draft diverters.</I> Install the stack damper in accordance with the I&amp;O manual. Install 5 feet of stack above the damper.
</P>
<P>(a) For units with an integral draft diverter, cover the 5-ft stack with insulation having an R-value of not less than 7 and an outer layer of aluminum foil.
</P>
<P>(b) For units with draft hoods, insulate the flue pipe between the outlet of the furnace and the draft hood with insulation having an R-value of not less than 7 and an outer layer of aluminum foil.
</P>
<P>(c) For units with integral draft diverters that are mounted in an exposed position (not inside the overall unit cabinet), cover the diverter boxes (excluding any openings through which draft relief air flows) before the beginning of any test (including jacket loss test) with insulation having an R-value of not less than 7 and an outer layer of aluminum foil.
</P>
<P>(d) For units equipped with integral draft diverters that are enclosed within the overall unit cabinet, insulate the draft diverter box with insulation as described in section 6.4.c before the cool-down and heat-up tests described in sections 9.5 and 9.6, respectively, of ASHRAE 103-1993. However, do not apply the insulation for the jacket loss test (if conducted) described in section 8.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 or the steady-state test described in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>6.5 <I>Condensate collection.</I> Attach condensate drain lines to the unit as specified in the I&amp;O manual. Maintain a continuous downward slope of drain lines from the unit. Additional precautions (such as eliminating any line configuration or position that would otherwise restrict or block the flow of condensate or checking to ensure a proper connection with condensate drain spout that allows for unobstructed flow) must be taken to facilitate uninterrupted flow of condensate during the test. Collection containers must be glass or polished stainless steel to facilitate removal of interior deposits. The collection container must have a vent opening to the atmosphere.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Testing conditions.</I> The testing conditions must be as specified in section 8 of ASHRAE 103-1993 (except for the excluded sub-sections as enumerated at § 430.3(g)(15)); and as specified in sections 7.1 to 7.9 of this appendix, respectively.
</P>
<P>7.1 <I>Fuel supply, gas.</I> In conducting the tests specified herein, gases with characteristics as shown in Table 1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 shall be used. Maintain the gas supply, ahead of all controls for a furnace, at a test pressure between the normal and increased values shown in Table 1 of ASHRAE 103-1993. Maintain the regulator outlet pressure at a level approximating that recommended in the I&amp;O manual, as defined in section 2.6 of this appendix, or, in the absence of such recommendation, to the nominal regulator settings used when the product is shipped by the manufacturer. Use a gas having a specific gravity as shown in Table 1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 and with a higher heating value within ±5% of the higher heating value shown in Table 1 of ASHRAE 103-1993. Determine the actual higher heating value in Btu per standard cubic foot for the gas to be used in the test within an error no greater than 1%.
</P>
<P>7.2 <I>Gas burner.</I> Adjust the burners of gas-fired furnaces to their maximum Btu input ratings at the normal test pressure specified by section 7.1 of this appendix. Correct the burner input rate to reflect gas characteristics at a temperature of 60 °F and atmospheric pressure of 30 in of Hg and adjust down to within ±2 percent of the hourly Btu nameplate input rating specified by the manufacturer as measured during the steady-state performance test in section 8 of this appendix. Set the primary air shutters in accordance with the I&amp;O manual to give a good flame at this condition. If, however, the setting results in the deposit of carbon on the burners during any test specified herein, the tester shall adjust the shutters and burners until no more carbon is deposited and shall perform the tests again with the new settings (<I>see</I> Figure 9 of ASHRAE 103-1993). After the steady-state performance test has been started, do not make additional adjustments to the burners during the required series of performance tests specified in section 9 of ASHRAE 103-1993. If a vent-limiting means is provided on a gas pressure regulator, keep it in place during all tests.
</P>
<P>7.3 <I>Modulating gas burner adjustment at reduced input rate.</I> For gas-fired furnaces equipped with modulating-type controls, adjust the controls to operate the unit at the nameplate minimum input rate. If the modulating control is of a non-automatic type, adjust the control to the setting recommended in the I&amp;O manual. In the absence of such recommendation, the midpoint setting of the non-automatic control shall be used as the setting for determining the reduced fuel input rate. Start the furnace by turning the safety control valve to the “ON” position.
</P>
<P>7.4 <I>Oil burner.</I> Adjust the burners of oil-fired furnaces to give a CO<E T="52">2</E> reading specified in the I&amp;O manual and an hourly Btu input during the steady-state performance test described in section 8 of this appendix. Ensure the hourly BTU input is within ±2% of the normal hourly Btu input rating as specified in the I&amp;O manual. Smoke in the flue may not exceed a No. 1 smoke during the steady-state performance test as measured by the procedure in ASTM D2156R13). Maintain the average draft over the fire and in the flue during the steady-state performance test at the value specified in the I&amp;O manual. Do not allow draft fluctuations exceeding 0.005 in. water. Do not make additional adjustments to the burner during the required series of performance tests. The instruments and measuring apparatus for this test are described in section 6 of this appendix and shown in Figure 8 of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>7.5 <I>Temperature Rise Targets.</I> Adjust air throughputs to achieve a temperature rise that is the higher of a and b, below, unless c applies. A tolerance of ±2 °F is permitted.
</P>
<P>(a) 15 °F less than the nameplate maximum temperature rise or
</P>
<P>(b) 15 °F higher than the minimum temperature rise specified in the I&amp;O manual.
</P>
<P>(c) A furnace with a non-adjustable air temperature rise range and an automatically controlled airflow that does not permit a temperature rise range of 30 °F or more must be tested at the midpoint of the rise range.
</P>
<P>7.6 <I>Temperature Rise Adjustments.</I> Establish the temperature rise specified in section 7.5 of this appendix by adjusting the circulating airflow. This adjustment must be accomplished by symmetrically restricting the outlet air duct and varying blower speed selection to obtain the desired temperature rise and minimum external static pressure, as specified in Table 4 of ASHRAE 103-1993. If the required temperature rise cannot be obtained at the minimum specified external static pressure by adjusting blower speed selection and duct outlet restriction, then the following applies.
</P>
<P>(a) If the resultant temperature rise is less than the required temperature rise, vary the blower speed by gradually adjusting the blower voltage so as to maintain the minimum external static pressure listed in Table 4 of ASHRAE 103-1993. The airflow restrictions shall then remain unchanged. If static pressure must be varied to prevent unstable blower operation, then increase the static pressure until blower operation is stabilized, except that the static pressure must not exceed the maximum external static pressure as specified by the manufacturer in the I&amp;O manual.
</P>
<P>(b) If the resultant temperature rise is greater than the required temperature rise, then the unit can be tested at a higher temperature rise value, but one not greater than nameplate maximum temperature rise. In order not to exceed the maximum temperature rise, the speed of a direct-driven blower may be increased by increasing the circulating air blower motor voltage.
</P>
<P>7.7 <I>Measurement of jacket surface temperature.</I> Divide the jacket of the furnace into 6-inch squares when practical, and otherwise into 36-square-inch regions comprising 4-inch by 9-inch or 3-inch by 12-inch sections, and determine the surface temperature at the center of each square or section with a surface thermocouple. Record the surface temperature of the 36-square-inch areas in groups where the temperature differential of the 36-square-inch areas is less than 10 °F for temperature up to 100 °F above room temperature, and less than 20 °F for temperatures more than 100 °F above room temperature. For forced-air central furnaces, the circulating air blower compartment is considered as part of the duct system, and no surface temperature measurement of the blower compartment needs to be recorded for the purpose of this test. For downflow furnaces, measure all cabinet surface temperatures of the heat exchanger and combustion section, including the bottom around the outlet duct and the burner door, using the 36-square-inch thermocouple grid. The cabinet surface temperatures around the blower section do not need to be measured (<I>See</I> Figure 3-E of ASHRAE 103-1993).
</P>
<P>7.8 <I>Installation of vent system.</I> Keep the vent or air intake system supplied by the manufacturer in place during all tests. Test units intended for installation with a variety of vent pipe lengths with the minimum vent length as specified in the I&amp;O manual, or a 5-ft. flue pipe if there are no recommendations in the I&amp;O manual. Do not connect a furnace employing a direct vent system to a chimney or induced-draft source. Vent combustion products solely by using the venting incorporated in the furnace and the vent or air intake system supplied by the manufacturer. For units that are not designed to significantly preheat the incoming air, see section 7.4 of this appendix and Figure 4a or 4b of ASHRAE 103-1993. For units that do significantly preheat the incoming air, see Figure 4c or 4d of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>7.9 <I>Additional optional method of testing for determining D</I><E T="54">P</E><I> and D</I><E T="54">F</E><I> for furnaces.</I> On units whose design is such that there is no measurable airflow through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger when the burner(s) is (are) off as determined by the optional test procedure in section 7.9.1 of this appendix, D<E T="52">F</E> and D<E T="52">P</E> may be set equal to 0.05.
</P>
<P>7.9.1 <I>Optional test method for indicating the absence of flow through the heat exchanger.</I> Manufacturers may use the following test protocol to determine whether air flows through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger when the burner(s) is (are) off. The minimum default draft factor may be used only for units determined pursuant to this protocol to have no airflow through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger.
</P>
<P>7.9.1.1 <I>Test apparatus.</I> Use a smoke stick that produces smoke that is easily visible and has a density less than or approximately equal to air. Use a smoke stick that produces smoke that is non-toxic to the test personnel and produces gas that is unreactive with the environment in the test chamber.
</P>
<P>7.9.1.2 <I>Test conditions.</I> Minimize all air currents and drafts in the test chamber, including turning off ventilation if the test chamber is mechanically ventilated. Wait at least two minutes following the termination of the furnace on-cycle before beginning the optional test method for indicating the absence of flow through the heat exchanger.
</P>
<P>7.9.1.3 <I>Location of the test apparatus.</I> After all air currents and drafts in the test chamber have been eliminated or minimized, position the smoke stick based on the following equipment configuration:
</P>
<P>(a) For horizontal combustion air intakes, approximately 4 inches from the vertical plane at the termination of the intake vent and 4 inches below the bottom edge of the combustion air intake; or
</P>
<P>(b) for vertical combustion air intakes, approximately 4 inches horizontal from vent perimeter at the termination of the intake vent and 4 inches down (parallel to the vertical axis of the vent).
</P>
<P>7.9.1.4 <I>Duration of test.</I> Establish the presence of smoke from the smoke stick and then monitor the direction of the smoke flow for no less than 30 seconds.
</P>
<P>7.9.1.5 <I>Test results.</I> During visual assessment, determine whether there is any draw of smoke into the combustion air intake vent.
</P>
<P>(a) If absolutely no smoke is drawn into the combustion air intake, the furnace meets the requirements to allow use of the minimum default draft factor pursuant to section 7.9 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) If there is any smoke drawn into the intake, proceed with the methods of testing as prescribed in section 8.8 of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Test procedure.</I> Conduct testing and measurements as specified in section 9 of ASHRAE 103-1993 (except for the excluded sub-sections as enumerated at § 430.3(g)(15)); and as specified in sections 8.1 through 8.10 of this appendix. Section 8.4 of this appendix may be used in lieu of section 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</P>
<P>8.1 <I>Fuel input.</I> For gas units, measure and record the steady-state gas input rate in Btu/hr, including pilot gas, corrected to standard conditions of 60 °F and 30 in. Hg. Use measured values of gas temperature and pressure at the meter and barometric pressure to correct the metered gas flow rate to the above standard conditions. For oil units, measure and record the steady-state fuel input rate.
</P>
<P>8.2 <I>Electrical input.</I> During the steady-state test, perform a single measurement of all of the electrical power involved in burner operation (PE), including energizing the ignition system, controls, gas valve or oil control valve, and draft inducer, if applicable.
</P>
<P>During the steady-state test, perform a single measurement of the electrical power to the circulating air blower (BE).
</P>
<P>8.3 <I>Input to interrupted ignition device.</I> For burners equipped with an interrupted ignition device, record the nameplate electric power used by the ignition device, PE<E T="52">IG</E>, or record that PE<E T="52">IG</E> = 0.4 kW if no nameplate power input is provided. Record the nameplate ignition device on-time interval, t<E T="52">IG</E>, or, if the nameplate does not provide the ignition device on-time interval, measure the on-time interval with a stopwatch at the beginning of the test, starting when the burner is turned on. Set t<E T="52">IG</E> = 0 and PE<E T="52">IG</E> = 0 if the device on-time interval is less than or equal to 5 seconds after the burner is on.
</P>
<P>8.4 <I>Optional test procedures for condensing furnaces, measurement of condensate during the establishment of steady-state conditions.</I> For units with step-modulating or two-stage controls, conduct the test at both the maximum and reduced inputs. In lieu of collecting the condensate immediately after the steady state conditions have been reached as required by section 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993, condensate may be collected during the establishment of steady state conditions as defined by section 9.1.2.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993. Perform condensate collection for at least 30 minutes. Measure condensate mass immediately at the end of the collection period to prevent evaporation loss from the sample. Record fuel input for the 30-minute condensate collection test period. Observe and record fuel higher heating value (HHV), temperature, and pressures necessary for determining fuel energy input (Qc,ss). Measure the fuel quantity and HHV with errors no greater than 1%. The humidity for the room air shall at no time exceed 80%. Determine the mass of condensate for the establishment of steady state conditions (Mc,ss) in pounds by subtracting the tare container weight from the total container and condensate weight measured at the end of the 30-minute condensate collection test period.
</P>
<P>8.5 <I>Cool-down test for gas- and oil-fueled gravity and forced-air central furnaces without stack dampers.</I> Turn off the main burner after completing steady-state testing, and measure the flue gas temperature by means of the thermocouple grid described in section 7.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at 1.5 minutes (T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">3</E>)) and 9 minutes (T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">4</E>)) after shutting off the burner. When taking these temperature readings, the integral draft diverter must remain blocked and insulated, and the stack restriction must remain in place. On atmospheric systems with an integral draft diverter or draft hood and equipped with either an electromechanical inlet damper or an electromechanical flue damper that closes within 10 seconds after the burner shuts off to restrict the flow through the heat exchanger in the off-cycle, bypass or adjust the control for the electromechanical damper so that the damper remains open during the cool-down test.
</P>
<P>For furnaces that employ post-purge, measure the length of the post-purge period with a stopwatch. Record the time from burner “OFF” to combustion blower “OFF” (electrically de-energized) as t<E T="52">P</E>. If the measured t<E T="52">P</E> is less than or equal to 30 seconds, set t<E T="52">P</E> at 0 and conduct the cool-down test as if there is no post-purge. If t<E T="52">P</E> is prescribed by the I&amp;O manual or measured to be greater than 180 seconds, stop the combustion blower at 180 seconds and use that value for t<E T="52">P</E>. Measure the flue gas temperature by means of the thermocouple grid described in section 7.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at the end of the post-purge period, t<E T="52">P</E>(T<E T="52">F,OFF</E> (t<E T="52">P</E>)), and at the time (1.5 + t<E T="52">P</E>) minutes (T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">3</E>)) and (9.0 + t<E T="52">P</E>) minutes (T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">4</E>)) after the main burner shuts off.
</P>
<P>8.6 <I>Cool-down test for gas- and oil-fueled gravity and forced-air central furnaces without stack dampers and with adjustable fan control.</I> For a furnace with adjustable fan control, measure the time delay between burner shutdown and blower shutdown, t
<SU>+</SU>. This time delay, t
<SU>+</SU>, will be 3.0 minutes for non-condensing furnaces or 1.5 minutes for condensing furnaces or until the supply air temperature drops to a value of 40 °F above the inlet air temperature, whichever results in the longest fan on-time. For a furnace without adjustable fan control or with the type of adjustable fan control whose range of adjustment does not allow for the time delay, t
<SU>+</SU>, specified above, bypass the fan control and manually control the fan to allow for the appropriate delay time as specified in section 9.5.1.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993. For a furnace that employs a single motor to drive both the power burner and the indoor air circulating blower, the power burner and indoor air circulating blower must be stopped at the same time.
</P>
<P>8.7 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>8.8 <I>Calculation options.</I> The rate of the flue gas mass flow through the furnace and the factors D<E T="52">P</E>, D<E T="52">F</E>, and D<E T="52">S</E> are calculated by the equations in sections 11.6.1, 11.6.2, 11.6.3, 11.6.4, 11.7.1, and 11.7.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993. On units whose design is such that there is no measurable airflow through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger when the burner(s) is (are) off (as determined by the optional test procedure in section 7.9 of this appendix), D<E T="52">F</E> and D<E T="52">P</E> may be set equal to 0.05.
</P>
<P>8.9 <I>Optional test procedures for condensing furnaces that have no off-period flue losses.</I> For units that have applied the test method in section 7.9 of this appendix to determine that no measurable airflow exists through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger during the burner off-period and having post-purge periods of less than 5 seconds, the cool-down and heat-up tests specified in sections 9.5 and 9.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 may be omitted. In lieu of conducting the cool-down and heat-up tests, the tester may use the losses determined during the steady-state test described in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 when calculating heating seasonal efficiency, Effy<E T="52">HS</E>.
</P>
<P>8.10 <I>Measurement of electrical standby and off mode power.</I>
</P>
<P>8.10.1 <I>Standby power measurement.</I> With all electrical auxiliaries of the furnace not activated, measure the standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) in accordance with the procedures in IEC 62301, except that section 8.5, <I>Room Ambient Temperature,</I> of ASHRAE 103-1993 and the voltage provision of section 8.2.1.4, <I>Electrical Supply,</I> of ASHRAE 103-1993 shall apply in lieu of the corresponding provisions of IEC 62301 at section 4.2, <I>Test room,</I> and the voltage specification of section 4.3, <I>Power supply.</I> Frequency shall be 60Hz. Clarifying further, IEC 62301 section 4.4, <I>Power measurement instruments,</I> and Section 5, <I>Measurements,</I> apply in lieu of ASHRAE 103-1993 section 6.10, <I>Energy Flow Rate.</I> Measure the wattage so that all possible standby mode wattage for the entire appliance is recorded, not just the standby mode wattage of a single auxiliary. Round the recorded standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) to the second decimal place, except for loads greater than or equal to 10W, which must be recorded to at least three significant figures.
</P>
<P>8.10.2 <I>Off mode power measurement.</I> If the unit is equipped with an off switch or there is an expected difference between off mode power and standby mode power, measure off mode power (P<E T="52">W</E>,<E T="52">OFF</E>) in accordance with the standby power procedures in IEC 62301, except that section 8.5, <I>Room Ambient Temperature,</I> of ASHRAE 103-1993 and the voltage provision of section 8.2.1.4, <I>Electrical Supply,</I> of ASHRAE 103-1993 shall apply in lieu of the corresponding provisions of IEC 62301 at section 4.2, <I>Test room,</I> and the voltage specification of section 4.3, <I>Power supply.</I> Frequency shall be 60Hz. Clarifying further, IEC 62301 section 4.4, <I>Power measurement instruments,</I> and section 5, <I>Measurements,</I> apply for this measurement in lieu of ASHRAE 103-1993 section 6.10, <I>Energy Flow Rate.</I> Measure the wattage so that all possible off mode wattage for the entire appliance is recorded, not just the off mode wattage of a single auxiliary. If there is no expected difference in off mode power and standby mode power, let P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = P<E T="52">W,SB</E>, in which case no separate measurement of off mode power is necessary. Round the recorded off mode power (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) to the second decimal place, except for loads greater than or equal to 10W, in which case round the recorded value to at least three significant figures.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Nomenclature.</I> Nomenclature includes the nomenclature specified in section 10 of ASHRAE 103-1993 and the following additional variables:
</P>
<FP-1>Eff<E T="52">motor</E> = Efficiency of power burner motor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = Electrical power to the interrupted ignition device, kW
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R<E T="52">T,a</E> = R<E T="52">T,F</E> if flue gas is measured
</FP-1>
<FP-1>= R<E T="52">T,S</E> if stack gas is measured
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R<E T="52">T,F</E> = Ratio of combustion air mass flow rate to stoichiometric air mass flow rate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R<E T="52">T,S</E> = Ratio of the sum of combustion air and relief air mass flow rate to stoichiometric air mass flow rate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>t<E T="52">IG</E> = Electrical interrupted ignition device on-time, min.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T<E T="52">a,SS,X</E> = T<E T="52">F,SS,X</E> if flue gas temperature is measured, °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>= T<E T="52">S,SS,X</E> if stack gas temperature is measured, °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>y<E T="52">IG</E> = Ratio of electrical interrupted ignition device on-time to average burner on-time
</FP-1>
<FP-1>y<E T="52">P</E> = Ratio of power burner combustion blower on-time to average burner on-time
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E<E T="52">SO</E> = Average annual electric standby mode and off mode energy consumption, in kilowatt-hours
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = Furnace off mode power, in watts
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P<E T="52">W,SB</E> = Furnace standby mode power, in watts
</FP-1>
<P>10. <I>Calculation of derived results from test measurements.</I> Perform calculations as specified in section 11 of ASHRAE 103-1993 (except for the excluded sub-sections as enumerated at § 430.3(g)(15)); and as specified in sections 10.1 through 10.11 and Figure 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>10.1 <I>Annual fuel utilization efficiency.</I> The annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) is as defined in sections 11.2.12 (non-condensing systems), 11.3.12 (condensing systems), 11.4.12 (non-condensing modulating systems) and 11.5.12 (condensing modulating systems) of ASHRAE 103-1993, except for the definition for the term Effy<E T="52">HS</E> in the defining equation for AFUE. Effy<E T="52">HS</E> is defined as:
</P>
<FP-1>Effy<E T="52">HS</E> = heating seasonal efficiency as defined in sections 11.2.11 (non-condensing systems), 11.3.11 (condensing systems), 11.4.11 (non-condensing modulating systems) and 11.5.11 (condensing modulating systems) of ASHRAE 103-1993, except that for condensing modulating systems sections 11.5.11.1 and 11.5.11.2 are replaced by sections 10.2 and 10.3 of this appendix. Effy<E T="52">HS</E> is based on the assumptions that all weatherized warm air furnaces are located outdoors and that non-weatherized warm air furnaces are installed as isolated combustion systems.
</FP-1>
<P>10.2 <I>Part-load efficiency at reduced fuel input rate.</I> If the option in section 8.9 of this appendix is not employed, calculate the part-load efficiency at the reduced fuel input rate, <I>Effy</I><E T="52">U,R,</E> for condensing furnaces equipped with either step-modulating or two-stage controls, expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr23.001.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = value as defined in section 11.2.7 of ASHRAE 103-1993,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">G</E> = value as defined in section 11.3.11.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993, at reduced input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">C</E> = value as defined in section 11.3.11.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at reduced input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">J</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">ON</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.9.11 of ASHRAE 103-1993,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = pilot fuel input rate determined in accordance with section 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993 in Btu/h,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">OFF</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.9.12 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at reduced input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,ON</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.5 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at reduced input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at reduced input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,ON</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.7 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at reduced input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.8 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at reduced input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">J</E> = jacket loss factor and equal to:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0.0 for furnaces intended to be installed indoors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 1.7 for furnaces intended to be installed as isolated combustion systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 3.3 for furnaces intended to be installed outdoors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at reduced input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">S</E> = value as defined in section 11.3.10.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at reduced input rate.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.3 <I>Part-Load Efficiency at Maximum Fuel Input Rate.</I> If the option in section 8.9 of this appendix is not employed, calculate the part-load efficiency at maximum fuel input rate, Effy<E T="52">U,H</E>, for condensing furnaces equipped with two-stage controls, expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr23.002.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = value as defined in section 11.2.7 of ASHRAE 103-1993,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">G</E> = value as defined in section 11.3.11.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">C</E> = value as defined in section 11.3.11.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">J</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">ON</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.9.11 of ASHRAE 103-1993,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = pilot fuel input rate determined in accordance with section 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993 in Btu/h,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">OFF</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.9.12 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,ON</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.5 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,ON</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.7 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.8 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">J</E> = value as defined in section 10.2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">S</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.10.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 at maximum input rate.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4 <I>National average burner operating hours, average annual fuel energy consumption, and average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for gas or oil furnaces.</I>
</P>
<P>10.4.1 <I>National average number of burner operating hours.</I> For furnaces equipped with single-stage controls, the national average number of burner operating hours is defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = 2,080 (0.77) (A) DHR − 2,080 (B)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = national average heating load hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = adjustment factor to adjust the calculated design heating requirement and heating load hours to the actual heating load experienced by the heating system
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A = 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">P</E> PE + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) + (Q<E T="52">IN</E> − Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for forced draft unit, indoors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">P</E> PE Eff<E T="52">motor</E> + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) + (Q<E T="52">IN</E> − Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for forced draft unit, isolated combustion system,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">P</E> PE (1 − Eff<E T="52">motor</E>) + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) + (Q<E T="52">IN</E> − Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for induced draft unit, indoors, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) + (Q<E T="52">IN</E> − Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for induced draft unit, isolated combustion system.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DHR = typical design heating requirements as listed in Table 8 (in kBtu/h) of ASHRAE 103-1993, using the proper value of Q<E T="52">OUT</E> defined in section 11.2.8.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = 2 Q<E T="52">P</E> (Effy<E T="52">HS</E>) (A)/100,000
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Eff<E T="52">motor</E> = nameplate power burner motor efficiency provided by the manufacturer,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0.50, an assumed default power burner efficiency if not provided by the manufacturer.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100,000 = factor that accounts for percent and kBtu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P</E> = ratio of induced or forced draft blower on-time to average burner on-time, as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 for units without post-purge;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 + (t<E T="52">P</E>/3.87) for single stage furnaces with post purge; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 + (t<E T="52">P</E>/10) for two-stage and step modulating furnaces with post purge.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE = all electrical power related to burner operation at full load steady-state operation, including electrical ignition device if energized, controls, gas valve or oil control valve, and draft inducer, as determined in section 8.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG</E> = ratio of burner interrupted ignition device on-time to average burner on-time, as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0 for burners not equipped with interrupted ignition device;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(t<E T="52">IG</E>/3.87) for single-stage furnaces; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(t<E T="52">IG</E>/10) for two-stage and step modulating furnaces;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = electrical input rate to the interrupted ignition device on burner (if employed), as defined in section 8.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y = ratio of blower on-time to average burner on-time, as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 for furnaces without fan delay;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 + (t
<SU>+</SU>−t<E T="51">−</E>)/3.87 for single-stage furnaces with fan delay; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 + (t
<SU>+</SU>−t<E T="51">−</E>)/10 for two-stage and step modulating furnaces with fan delay.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE = circulating air fan electrical energy input rate at full-load steady-state operation as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">P</E> = post-purge time as defined in section 8.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0 if t<E T="52">P</E> is equal to or less than 30 seconds
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">IG</E> = on-time of the burner interrupted ignition device, as defined in section 8.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 11.2.8.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">HS</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 (non-condensing systems) or section 11.3.11.3 (condensing systems) of ASHRAE 103-1993, percent, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>isolated combustion system installation, for non-weatherized warm air furnaces; or outdoor installation, for furnaces that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2 = ratio of the average length of the heating season in hours to the average heating load hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t
<SU>+</SU> = delay time between burner shutoff and the blower shutoff measured as defined in section 9.5.1.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="51">−</E> = as defined in section 9.6.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.1.1 For furnaces equipped with two stage or step modulating controls the average annual energy used during the heating season, E<E T="52">M</E>, is defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">M</E> = (Q<E T="52">IN</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) BOH<E T="52">SS</E> + (8,760−4,600) Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix, in which the weighted Effy<E T="52">HS</E> as defined in section 11.4.11.3 or 11.5.11.3 of ASHRAE 103-1993 is used for calculating the values of A and B, the term DHR is based on the value of Q<E T="52">OUT</E> defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 or 11.5.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993, and the term (y<E T="52">P</E>PE + y<E T="52">IG</E>PE<E T="52">IG</E> + yBE) in the factor A is increased by the factor R, which is defined as:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R = 2.3 for two stage controls
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 2.3 for step modulating controls when the ratio of minimum-to-maximum output is greater than or equal to 0.5
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 3.0 for step modulating controls when the ratio of minimum-to-maximum output is less than 0.5
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A = 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">P</E> PE + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) R + (Q<E T="52">IN</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for forced draft unit, indoors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">P</E> PE Eff<E T="52">motor</E> + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) R + (Q<E T="52">IN</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for forced draft unit, isolated combustion system,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">P</E> PE (1−Eff<E T="52">motor</E>) + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) R + (Q<E T="52">IN</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for induced draft unit, indoors, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) R + (Q<E T="52">IN</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for induced draft unit, isolated combustion system.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Eff<E T="52">motor</E> = nameplate power burner motor efficiency provided by the manufacturer,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0.50, an assumed default power burner efficiency if not provided by the manufacturer.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">HS</E> = as defined in section 11.4.11.3 or 11.5.11.3 of ASHRAE 103-1993, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>isolated combustion system installation, for non-weatherized warm air furnaces; or outdoor installation, for furnaces that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = total number of hours per year
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-1993</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.1.2 For furnaces equipped with two-stage or step-modulating controls, the national average number of burner operating hours at the reduced operating mode (BOH<E T="52">R</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = X<E T="52">R</E> E<E T="52">M</E>/Q<E T="52">IN,R</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.7 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">M</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,R</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.1.3 For furnaces equipped with two-stage controls, the national average number of burner operating hours at the maximum operating mode (BOH<E T="52">H</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">H</E> = X<E T="52">H</E> E<E T="52">M</E>/Q<E T="52">IN</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">M</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.1.4 For furnaces equipped with step-modulating controls, the national average number of burner operating hours at the modulating operating mode (BOH<E T="52">M</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">M</E> = X<E T="52">H</E> E<E T="52">M</E>/Q<E T="52">IN,M</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.6 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">M</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,M</E> = Q<E T="52">OUT,M</E>/(Effy<E T="52">SS,M</E>/100)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT,M</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.10 or 11.5.8.10 of ASHRAE 103-1993, as appropriate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">SS,M</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.8 or 11.5.8.8 of ASHRAE 103-1993, as appropriate, in percent
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = factor that accounts for percent</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.2 <I>Average annual fuel energy consumption for gas or oil fueled furnaces.</I> For furnaces equipped with single-stage controls, the average annual fuel energy consumption (E<E T="52">F</E>) is expressed in Btu per year and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = BOH<E T="52">SS</E> (Q<E T="52">IN</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) + 8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 11.2.8.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = as defined in section 10.4.1.1 of this appendix</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.2.1 For furnaces equipped with either two-stage or step modulating controls, E<E T="52">F</E> is defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = E<E T="52">M</E> + 4,600 Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">M</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 of ASHRAE 103-1993</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.2.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>10.4.3 <I>Average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for gas or oil-fueled furnaces.</I> For furnaces equipped with single-stage controls, the average annual auxiliary electrical consumption (E<E T="52">AE</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = BOH<E T="52">SS</E> (y<E T="52">P</E> PE + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + yBE) + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.11 of this appendix</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.3.1 For furnaces equipped with two-stage controls, E<E T="52">AE</E> is defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = BOH<E T="52">R</E> (y<E T="52">P</E> PE<E T="52">R</E> + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + yBE<E T="52">R</E>) + BOH<E T="52">H</E> (y<E T="52">P</E> PE<E T="52">H</E> + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE<E T="52">H</E>) + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.11 of this appendix</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.4.3.2 For furnaces equipped with step-modulating controls, E<E T="52">AE</E> is defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = BOH<E T="52">R</E> (y<E T="52">P</E> PE<E T="52">R</E> + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE<E T="52">R</E>) + BOH<E T="52">M</E> (y<E T="52">P</E> PE<E T="52">H</E> + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE<E T="52">H</E>) + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">M</E> = as defined in 10.4.1.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.11 of this appendix</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.5 <I>Average annual electric energy consumption for electric furnaces.</I> For electric furnaces, the average annual electrical energy consumption (E<E T="52">E</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">E</E> = 100 (2,080) (0.77) DHR/(3.412 AFUE) + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = to express a percent as a decimal
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DHR = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.412 = conversion factor from watt-hours to Btu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = as defined in section 11.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993, in percent, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>isolated combustion system installation, for non-weatherized warm air furnaces; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>outdoor installation, for furnaces that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.11 of this appendix.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.6 <I>Energy factor.</I>
</P>
<P>10.6.1 <I>Energy factor for gas or oil furnaces.</I> Calculate the energy factor, EF, for gas or oil furnaces defined as, in percent:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>EF = (E<E T="52">F</E>−4,600 (Q<E T="52">P</E>))(Effy<E T="52">HS</E>)/(E<E T="52">F</E> + 3,412 (E<E T="52">AE</E>))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = average annual fuel consumption as defined in section 10.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = pilot fuel input rate determined in accordance with section 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-1993 in Btu/h
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">HS</E> = annual fuel utilization efficiency as defined in sections 11.2.11, 11.3.11, 11.4.11 or 11.5.11 of ASHRAE 103-1993, in percent, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>isolated combustion system installation, for non-weatherized warm air furnaces; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>outdoor installation, for furnaces that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3,412 = conversion factor from kW to Btu/h
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = as defined in section 10.4.3 of this appendix</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.6.2 <I>Energy factor for electric furnaces.</I> The energy factor, EF, for electric furnaces is defined as:
</P>
<FP>EF = AFUE
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = annual fuel utilization efficiency as defined in section 10.4.3 of this appendix, in percent</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.7 <I>Average annual energy consumption for furnaces located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>10.7.1 <I>Average annual fuel energy consumption for gas or oil-fueled furnaces located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I> For gas or oil-fueled furnaces, the average annual fuel energy consumption for a specific geographic region and a specific typical design heating requirement (E<E T="52">FR</E>) is expressed in Btu per year and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">FR</E> = (E<E T="52">F</E>−8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>) (HLH/2,080) + 8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = as defined in section 10.4.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = as defined in section 10.4.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH = heating load hours for a specific geographic region determined from the heating load hour map in Figure 1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.7.2 <I>Average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for gas or oil-fueled furnaces located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I> For gas or oil-fueled furnaces, the average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for a specific geographic region and a specific typical design heating requirement (E<E T="52">AER</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AER</E> = (E<E T="52">AE</E>−E<E T="52">SO</E>) (HLH/2080) + E<E T="52">SOR</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = as defined in section 10.4.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.11 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH = as defined in section 10.7.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SOR</E> = as defined in section 10.7.3 of this appendix.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.7.3 <I>Average annual electric energy consumption for electric furnaces located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I> For electric furnaces, the average annual electric energy consumption for a specific geographic region and a specific typical design heating requirement (E<E T="52">ER</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ER</E> = 100 (0.77) DHR HLH/(3.412 AFUE) + E<E T="52">SOR</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = as defined in section 10.4.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DHR = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH = as defined in section 10.7.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.412 = as defined in section 10.4.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = as defined in section 10.4.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SOR</E> = E<E T="52">SO</E> as defined in section 10.11 of this appendix, except that in the equation for E<E T="52">SO</E>, the term BOH is multiplied by the expression (HLH/2080) to get the appropriate regional accounting of standby mode and off mode loss.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.8 <I>Annual energy consumption for mobile home furnaces</I>
</P>
<P>10.8.1 <I>National average number of burner operating hours for mobile home furnaces (BOH</I><E T="52">SS</E><I>).</I> BOH<E T="52">SS</E> is the same as in section 10.4.1 of this appendix, except that the value of Effy<E T="52">HS</E> in the calculation of the burner operating hours, BOH<E T="52">SS</E>, is calculated on the basis of a direct vent unit with system number 9 or 10.
</P>
<P>10.8.2 <I>Average annual fuel energy for mobile home furnaces (E</I><E T="52">F</E><I>).</I> E<E T="52">F</E> is same as in section 10.4.2 of this appendix except that the burner operating hours, BOH<E T="52">SS</E>, is calculated as specified in section 10.8.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>10.8.3 <I>Average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for mobile home furnaces (E</I><E T="52">AE</E><I>).</I> E<E T="52">AE</E> is the same as in section 10.4.3 of this appendix, except that the burner operating hours, BOH<E T="52">SS</E>, is calculated as specified in section 10.8.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>10.9 <I>Calculation of sales weighted average annual energy consumption for mobile home furnaces.</I> To reflect the distribution of mobile homes to geographical regions with average HLH<E T="52">MHF</E> values different from 2,080, adjust the annual fossil fuel and auxiliary electrical energy consumption values for mobile home furnaces using the following adjustment calculations.
</P>
<P>10.9.1 For mobile home furnaces, the sales weighted average annual fossil fuel energy consumption is expressed in Btu per year and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F,MHF</E> = (E<E T="52">F</E>−8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>) HLH<E T="52">MHF</E>/2,080 + 8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = as defined in section 10.8.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = as defined in section 10.4.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 10.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH<E T="52">MHF</E> = 1880, sales weighted average heating load hours for mobile home furnaces
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.9.2 For mobile home furnaces, the sales-weighted-average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE,MHF</E> = E<E T="52">AE</E> HLH<E T="52">MHF</E>/2,080
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = as defined in section 10.8.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH<E T="52">MHF</E> = as defined in section 10.9.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>10.10 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>10.11 <I>Average annual electrical standby mode and off mode energy consumption.</I> Calculate the annual electrical standby mode and off mode energy consumption (E<E T="52">SO</E>) in kilowatt-hours, defined as:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = (P<E T="52">W,SB</E> (4160−BOH) + 4600 P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) K
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,SB</E> = furnace standby mode power, in watts, as measured in section 8.10.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,160 = average heating season hours per year
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH = total burner operating hours as calculated in section 10.4 of this appendix for gas or oil-fueled furnaces. Where for gas or oil-fueled furnaces equipped with single-stage controls, BOH = BOH<E T="52">SS</E>; for gas or oil-fueled furnaces equipped with two-stage controls, BOH = (BOH<E T="52">R</E> + BOH<E T="52">H</E>); and for gas or oil-fueled furnaces equipped with step-modulating controls, BOH = (BOH<E T="52">R</E> + BOH<E T="52">M</E>). For electric furnaces, BOH = 100(2080)(0.77)DHR/(E<E T="52">in</E> 3.412(AFUE))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = furnace off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 8.10.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 0.001 kWh/Wh, conversion factor from watt-hours to kilowatt-hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = to express a percent as a decimal
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DHR = as defined in section 10.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">in</E> = steady-state electric rated power, in kilowatts, from section 9.3 of ASHRAE 103-1993
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.412 = as defined in section 10.4.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = as defined in section 11.1 of ASHRAE 103-1993 in percent
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr23.003.gif"/></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 15538, Mar. 13, 2023]






</CITA>

<DIV9 N="Appendix O" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix O to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Vented Home Heating Equipment
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to November 16, 2022, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of vented home heating equipment, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with either this appendix as it now appears or appendix O as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B revised as of January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>On and after November 16, 2022, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of vented home heating equipment, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0.0 Incorporation by Reference. 
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3: ANSI Z21.86-2016; ASHRAE 103-2017; ASTM D2156-09 (R2018); IEC 62301; UL 729-2016; UL 730-2016; and UL 896-2016 in their entirety. However, only enumerated provisions of ANSI Z21.86-2016; ASHRAE 103-2017, UL 729-2016, UL 730-2016, and UL 896-2016 are applicable to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<P>0.1 ANSI Z21.86-2016
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5.2—Test gases
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 9.1.3
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 11.1.3
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 11.7—Temperature at discharge air opening and surface temperatures
</P>
<P>0.2 ASHRAE 103-2017
</P>
<P>(i) Section 6—INSTRUMENTS
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 8.2.2.3.1—Oil Supply
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 8.6—Jacket Loss Measurement
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 8.8.3—Additional Optional Method of Testing for Determining DP and DF for Furnaces and Boilers
</P>
<P>(v) Section 9.10—Optional Test Procedures for Condensing Furnaces and Boilers that Have no OFF-Period Flue Losses
</P>
<P>0.3 UL 729-2016
</P>
<P>(i) Section 38.1—Enclosure
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 38.2—Chimney connector
</P>
<P>0.4 UL 730-2016
</P>
<P>(i) Section 36.1—Enclosure
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 36.2—Chimney connector
</P>
<P>(iii) Sections 37.5.8 through 37.5.180.5 UL 896-2016
</P>
<P>(i) Section 37.1.2
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 37.1.3
</P>
<HD2>1.0 Definitions 
</HD2>
<P>1.1 “Active mode” means the condition during the heating season in which the vented heater is connected to the power source, and either the burner or any electrical auxiliary is activated.
</P>
<P>1.2 “Air shutter” means an adjustable device for varying the size of the primary air inlet(s) to the combustion chamber power burner. 
</P>
<P>1.3 “Air tube” means a tube which carries combustion air from the burner fan to the burner nozzle for combustion. 
</P>
<P>1.4 “Barometic draft regulator or barometric damper” means a mechanical device designed to maintain a constant draft in a vented heater. 
</P>
<P>1.5 “Condensing vented heater” means a vented heater that, during the laboratory tests prescribed in this appendix, condenses part of the water vapor in the flue gases.
</P>
<P>1.6 “Draft hood” means an external device which performs the same function as an integral draft diverter, as defined in section 1.17 of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>1.7 “Electro-mechanical stack damper” means a type of stack damper which is operated by electrical and/or mechanical means. 
</P>
<P>1.8 “Excess air” means air which passes through the combustion chamber and the vented heater flues in excess of that which is theoretically required for complete combustion. 
</P>
<P>1.9 “Flue” means a conduit between the flue outlet of a vented heater and the integral draft diverter, draft hood, barometric damper or vent terminal through which the flue gases pass prior to the point of draft relief. 
</P>
<P>1.10 “Flue damper” means a device installed between the furnace and the integral draft diverter, draft hood, barometric draft regulator, or vent terminal which is not equipped with a draft control device, designed to open the venting system when the appliance is in operation and to close the venting system when the appliance is in a standby condition. 
</P>
<P>1.11 “Flue gases” means reaction products resulting from the combustion of a fuel with the oxygen of the air, including the inerts and any excess air. 
</P>
<P>1.12 “Flue losses” means the sum of sensible and latent heat losses above room temperature of the flue gases leaving a vented heater. 
</P>
<P>1.13 “Flue outlet” means the opening provided in a vented heater for the exhaust of the flue gases from the combustion chamber. 
</P>
<P>1.14 “Heat input” (Q<E T="52">in</E>) means the rate of energy supplied in a fuel to a vented heater operating under steady-state conditions, expressed in Btu's per hour. It includes any input energy to the pilot light and is obtained by multiplying the measured rate of fuel consumption by the measured higher heating value of the fuel. 
</P>
<P>1.15 “Heating capacity” (Q<E T="52">out</E>) means the rate of useful heat output from a vented heater, operating under steady-state conditions, expressed in Btu's per hour. For room and wall heaters, it is obtained by multiplying the “heat input” (Q<E T="52">in</E>) by the steady-state efficiency (η<E T="52">ss</E>) divided by 100. For floor furnaces, it is obtained by multiplying (A) the “heat input” (Q<E T="52">in</E>) by (B) the steady-state efficiency divided by 100, minus the quantity (2.8) (L<E T="52">j</E>) divided by 100, where L<E T="52">j</E> is the jacket loss as determined in section 3.2 of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>1.16 “Higher heating value” (HHV) means the heat produced per unit of fuel when complete combustion takes place at constant pressure and the products of combustion are cooled to the initial temperature of the fuel and air and when the water vapor formed during combustion is condensed. The higher heating value is usually expressed in Btu's per pound, Btu's per cubic foot for gaseous fuel, or Btu's per gallon for liquid fuel.
</P>
<P>1.17 “IEC 62301 (Second Edition)” means the test standard published by the International Electrotechnical Commission, titled “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power,” Publication 62301 Edition 2.0 2011-01 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>1.18 “Induced draft” means a method of drawing air into the combustion chamber by mechanical means.
</P>
<P>1.19 “Infiltration parameter” means that portion of unconditioned outside air drawn into the heated space as a consequence of loss of conditioned air through the exhaust system of a vented heater.
</P>
<P>1.20 “Integral draft diverter” means a device which is an integral part of a vented heater, designed to: (1) Provide for the exhaust of the products of combustion in the event of no draft, back draft, or stoppage beyond the draft diverter, (2) prevent a back draft from entering the vented heater, and (3) neutralize the stack action of the chimney or gas vent upon the operation of the vented heater.
</P>
<P>1.21 “Manually controlled vented heaters” means either gas or oil fueled vented heaters equipped without thermostats.
</P>
<P>1.22 “Modulating control” means either a step-modulating or two-stage control.
</P>
<P>1.23 “Off mode” means the condition during the non-heating season in which the vented heater is connected to the power source, and neither the burner nor any electrical auxiliary is activated.
</P>
<P>1.24 “Power burner” means a vented heater burner which supplies air for combustion at a pressure exceeding atmospheric pressure, or a burner which depends on the draft induced by a fan incorporated in the furnace for proper operation.
</P>
<P>1.25 “Reduced heat input rate” means the factory adjusted lowest reduced heat input rate for vented home heating equipment equipped with either two stage thermostats or step-modulating thermostats.
</P>
<P>1.26 “Seasonal off switch” means the control device, such as a lever or toggle, on the vented heater that affects a difference in off mode energy consumption as compared to standby mode consumption.
</P>
<P>1.27 “Single-stage thermostat” means a thermostat that cycles a burner at the maximum heat input rate and off.
</P>
<P>1.28 “Stack” means the portion of the exhaust system downstream of the integral draft diverter, draft hood or barometric draft regulator.
</P>
<P>1.29 “Stack damper” means a device installed downstream of the integral draft diverter, draft hood, or barometric draft regulator, designed to open the venting system when the appliance is in operation and to close off the venting system when the appliance is in the standby condition.
</P>
<P>1.30 “Stack gases” means the flue gases combined with dilution air that enters at the integral draft diverter, draft hood or barometric draft regulator.
</P>
<P>1.31 “Standby mode” means the condition during the heating season in which the vented heater is connected to the power source, and neither the burner nor any electrical auxiliary is activated.
</P>
<P>1.32 “Steady-state conditions for vented home heating equipment” means equilibrium conditions as indicated by temperature variations of not more than 5 °F (2.8C) in the flue gas temperature for units equipped with draft hoods, barometric draft regulators or direct vent systems, in three successive readings taken 15 minutes apart or not more than 3 °F (1.7C) in the stack gas temperature for units equipped with integral draft diverters in three successive readings taken 15 minutes apart.
</P>
<P>1.33 “Step-modulating control” means a control that either cycles off and on at the low input if the heating load is light, or gradually, increases the heat input to meet any higher heating load that cannot be met with the low firing rate.
</P>
<P>1.34 “Thermal stack damper” means a type of stack damper which is dependent for operation exclusively upon the direct conversion of thermal energy of the stack gases into movement of the damper plate.
</P>
<P>1.35 “Two stage control” means a control that either cycles a burner at the reduced heat input rate and off or cycles a burner at the maximum heat input rate and off.
</P>
<P>1.36 “Vaporizing-type oil burner” means a device with an oil vaporizing bowl or other receptacle designed to operate by vaporizing liquid fuel oil by the heat of combustion and mixing the vaporized fuel with air.
</P>
<P>1.37 “Vent/air intake terminal” means a device which is located on the outside of a building and is connected to a vented heater by a system of conduits. It is composed of an air intake terminal through which the air for combustion is taken from the outside atmosphere and a vent terminal from which flue gases are discharged.
</P>
<P>1.38 “Vent limiter” means a device which limits the flow of air from the atmospheric diaphragm chamber of a gas pressure regulator to the atmosphere. A vent limiter may be a limiting orifice or other limiting device. 
</P>
<P>1.39 “Vent pipe” means the passages and conduits in a direct vent system through which gases pass from the combustion chamber to the outdoor air. 
</P>
<HD2>2.0 Testing conditions. 
</HD2>
<P><I>2.1 Installation of test unit.</I>
</P>
<P><I>2.1.1 Vented wall furnaces (including direct vent systems).</I> Install non-direct vent gas fueled vented wall furnaces as specified in Section 11.1.3 of ANSI Z21.86-2016. Install direct vent gas fueled vented wall furnaces as specified in Section 9.1.3 of ANSI Z21.86-2016. Install oil-fueled vented wall furnaces as specified in Section 36.1 of UL 730-2016.
</P>
<P><I>2.1.2 Vented floor furnaces.</I> Install vented floor furnaces for test as specified in Section 38.1 of UL 729-2016.
</P>
<P><I>2.1.3 Vented room heaters.</I> Install vented room heaters for test in accordance with the manufacturer's installation and operations (I&amp;O) manual provided with the unit.
</P>
<P><I>2.2 Flue and stack requirements.</I>
</P>
<P><I>2.2.1 Gas fueled vented home heating equipment employing integral draft diverters and draft hoods (excluding direct vent systems).</I> Attach to, and vertically above the outlet of gas-fueled vented home heating equipment employing draft diverters or draft hoods with vertically discharging outlets, a five (5) foot long test stack having a cross-sectional area the same size as the draft diverter outlet.
</P>
<P>Attach to the outlet of vented heaters having a horizontally discharging draft diverter or draft hood outlet a 90-degree elbow, and a five (5) foot long vertical test stack. A horizontal section of pipe may be used on the floor furnace between the diverter and the elbow, if necessary, to clear any framing used in the installation. Use the minimum length of pipe possible for this section. Use stack, elbow, and horizontal section with same cross-sectional area as the diverter outlet.
</P>
<P><I>2.2 Oil-fueled vented home heating equipment (excluding direct vent systems).</I> Use flue connections for oil-fueled vented floor furnaces as specified in Section 38.2 of UL 729-2016, Section 36.2 of UL 730-2016 for oil-fueled vented wall furnaces, and Sections 37.1.2 and 37.1.3 of UL 896-2016 for oil-fueled vented room heaters.
</P>
<P><I>2.2.3 Direct vent systems.</I> Have the exhaust/air intake system supplied by the manufacturer in place during all tests. Test units intended for installation with a variety of vent pipe lengths with the minimum length recommended by the manufacturer in the I&amp;O manual. Do not connect a heater employing a direct vent system to a chimney or induced draft source. Vent the gas solely on the provision for venting incorporated in the heater and the vent/air intake system supplied with it.
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<P><I>2.2.4 Condensing vented heater, additional flue requirements.</I> The flue pipe installation must not allow condensate formed in the flue pipe to flow back into the unit. An initial downward slope from the unit's exit, an offset with a drip leg, annular collection rings, or drain holes must be included in the flue pipe installation without disturbing normal flue gas flow. Flue gases should not flow out of the drain with the condensate. For condensing vented heaters that do not include means for collection of condensate, a means to collect condensate must be supplied by the test lab for the purposes of testing.
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<P><I>2.3 Fuel supply.</I>
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<P><I>2.3.1 Natural gas.</I> For a gas-fueled vented heater, maintain the gas supply to the unit under test at an inlet test pressure immediately ahead of all controls at 7 to 10 inches water column. If the heater is equipped with a gas pressure regulator, maintain the regulator outlet pressure within the greater of ±0.2 inches water column, or ±10 percent, of the manufacturer-specified manifold pressure on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual. Use natural gas having a specific gravity between 0.57 and 0.70 and a higher heating value within ±5 percent of 1,025 Btu per standard cubic foot. Determine the actual higher heating value in Btu per standard cubic foot for the natural gas to be used in the test with an error no greater than one percent. If the burner cannot be adjusted to obtain a heat input rate of within ±2 percent of the hourly Btu rating specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual, as required by section 2.4.1 of this appendix, maintain the gas supply to the unit under test at an inlet test pressure immediately ahead of all controls at any value within the range specified on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual that results in a heat input rate of within ±2 percent of the hourly Btu rating specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual.
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<P><I>2.3.2 Propane gas.</I> For a propane-gas-fueled vented heater, maintain the gas supply to the unit under test at an inlet pressure of 11 to 13 inches water column. If the heater is equipped with a gas pressure regulator, maintain the regulator outlet pressure within the greater of ±0.2 inches water column, or ±10 percent, of the manufacturer's specified manifold pressure on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual. Use propane having a specific gravity between 1.522 and 1.574 and a higher heating value within ±5 percent of 2,500 Btu per standard cubic foot. Determine the actual higher heating value in Btu per standard cubic foot for the propane to be used in the test. If the burner cannot be adjusted to obtain a heat input rate of within ±2 percent of the hourly Btu rating specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual, as required by section 2.4.1 of this appendix, maintain the gas supply to the unit under test at an inlet test pressure immediately ahead of all controls at any value within the range specified on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual that results in a heat input rate of within ±2 percent of the hourly Btu rating specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual.
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<P><I>2.3.3 Other test gas.</I> For vented heaters fueled by other test gases, use test gases with characteristics as described in Table 3 of Section 5.2 of ANSI Z21.86-2016. Use gases with a measured higher heating value within ±5 percent of the values specified in Table 3 of Section 5.2 of ANSI Z21.86-2016. Determine the actual higher heating value of the gas used in the test with an error no greater than one percent.
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<P><I>2.3.4 Oil supply.</I> For an oil-fueled vented heater, use No. 1 fuel oil (kerosene) for vaporizing-type burners and either No. 1 or No. 2 fuel oil, as specified by the manufacturer in the I&amp;O manual provided with the unit, for mechanical atomizing type burners. Use test fuel conforming to the specifications given in Tables 2 and 3 of Section 8.2.2.3.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017. Measure the higher heating value of the test fuel within ±1 percent.
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<P><I>2.3.5 Electrical supply.</I> For auxiliary electric components of a vented heater, maintain the electrical supply to the test unit within ±1 percent of the nameplate voltage for the entire test cycle. If a voltage range is used for nameplate voltage, maintain the electrical supply within ±1 percent of the mid-point of the nameplate voltage range.
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<P><I>2.4</I> <I>Burner adjustments.</I>
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<P><I>2.4.1 Gas burner adjustments.</I> Adjust the burners of gas-fueled vented heaters to their maximum Btu ratings at the test pressure specified in section 2.3 of this appendix. Correct the burner volumetric flow rate to 60 °F (15.6 °C) and 30 inches of mercury barometric pressure, set the fuel flow rate to obtain a heat rate of within ±2 percent of the hourly Btu rating specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual, as measured after 15 minutes of operation, starting with all parts of the vented heater at room temperature. Set the primary air shutters in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual to give a good flame at this adjustment. Do not allow the deposit of carbon during any test specified herein. If a vent limiting means is provided on a gas pressure regulator, have it in place during all tests.
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<P>For gas-fueled heaters with modulating controls, adjust the controls to operate the heater at the maximum fuel input rate. Set the thermostat control to the maximum setting. Start the heater by turning the safety control valve to the “on” position. In order to prevent modulation of the burner at maximum input, place the thermostat sensing element in a temperature control bath which is held at a temperature below the maximum set point temperature of the control.
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<P>For gas-fueled heaters with modulating controls, adjust the controls to operate the heater at the reduced fuel input rate. Set the thermostat control to the minimum setting. Start the heater by turning the safety control valve to the “on” position. If ambient test room temperature is above the lowest control set point temperature, initiate burner operation by placing the thermostat sensing element in a temperature control bath that is held at a temperature below the minimum set point temperature of the control.
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<P><I>2.4.2 Oil burner adjustments.</I> Adjust the burners of oil-fueled vented heaters to give the CO<E T="52">2</E> reading recommended by the manufacturer and an hourly Btu input, during the steady-state performance test described below, which is within ±2 percent of the heater manufacturer's specified hourly Btu input rating on the nameplate of the unit or in the I&amp;O manual. On units employing a power burner, do not allow smoke in the flue to exceed a No. 1 smoke during the steady-state performance test as measured by the procedure in ASTM D2156-09 (R2018). If, on units employing a power burner, the smoke in the flue exceeds a No. 1 smoke during the steady-state test, readjust the burner to give a lower smoke reading, and, if necessary, a lower CO<E T="52">2</E> reading, and start all tests over. Maintain the average draft over the fire and in the flue during the steady-state performance test at that recommended by the manufacturer within ±0.005 inches of water gauge. Do not make additional adjustments to the burner during the required series of performance tests. The instruments and measuring apparatus for this test are described in Section 6 and shown in Figure 8 of ASHRAE 103-2017. Calibrate instruments for measuring oil pressure so that the error is no greater than ±0.5 psi.
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<P><I>2.5 Circulating air adjustments.</I>
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<P><I>2.5.1 Forced-air vented wall furnaces (including direct vent systems).</I> During testing, maintain the air flow through the heater as specified by the manufacturer in the I&amp;O manual provided with the unit and operate the vented heater with the outlet air temperature between 80 °F and 130 °F above room temperature. If adjustable air discharge registers are provided, adjust them so as to provide the maximum possible air restriction. Measure air discharge temperature as specified in Section 11.7.2 of ANSI Z21.86-2016.
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<P><I>2.5.2 Fan-type vented room heaters and floor furnaces.</I> During tests on fan-type furnaces and heaters, adjust the air flow through the heater as specified by the manufacturer. If adjustable air discharge registers are provided, adjust them to provide the maximum possible air restriction.
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<P><I>2.6 Location of temperature measuring instrumentation.</I>
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<P><I>2.6.1 Gas-fueled vented home heating equipment (including direct vent systems).</I> Install thermocouples for measuring the heated air temperature as described in Section 11.7.5 of ANSI Z21.86-2016. Establish the temperature of the inlet air by means of a single No. 24 AWG bead-type thermocouple located in the center of the plane of each inlet air opening. Use bead-type thermocouples having wire size not greater than No. 24 American Wire Gauge (AWG). If a thermocouple has a direct line of sight with the fire, install a radiation shield, meeting the material and minimum thickness requirements from Section 8.14.1 of ANSI Z21.86-2016, on the fire side of the thermocouple only, and position the shield so that it does not touch the thermocouple junction.
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<P><I>2.6.1.1 Integral draft diverter.</I> For units employing an integral draft diverter, install nine thermocouples, wired in parallel, in a horizontal plane in the five-foot test stack located one foot from the test stack inlet. Equalize the length of all thermocouple leads before paralleling. Locate one thermocouple in the center of the stack. Locate eight thermocouples along imaginary lines intersecting at right angles in this horizontal plane at points one third and two thirds of the distance between the center of the stack and the stack wall.
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<P>For units with a stack diameter 2 inches or less, five thermocouples may be installed instead of nine. Locate one thermocouple in the center of the stack. Locate four thermocouples along imaginary lines intersecting at right angles in this horizontal plane at points halfway between the center of the stack and the stack wall.
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<P><I>2.6.1.2 Direct vent system.</I> For units which employ a direct vent system, locate at least one thermocouple at the center of each flue way exiting the heat exchanger. Provide radiation shields if the thermocouples are exposed to burner radiation.
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<P><I>2.6.1.3 Draft hood or direct vent system which does not intentionally preheat incoming air.</I> For units which employ a draft hood or units which employ a direct vent system which does not intentionally preheat the incoming combustion air, such as a non-concentric direct vent system, install nine thermocouples, wired in parallel, in a horizontal plane located within 12 inches (304.8 mm) of the heater outlet and upstream of the draft hood on units so equipped. Locate one thermocouple in the center of the pipe and eight thermocouples along imaginary lines intersecting at right angles in this horizontal plane at points one third and two thirds of the distance between the center of the pipe and the pipe wall.
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<P>For units with a flue pipe diameter of 2 inches or less, five thermocouples may be installed instead of nine. Locate one thermocouple in the center of the pipe and four thermocouples along imaginary lines intersecting at right angles in this horizontal plane at points halfway between the center of the pipe and the pipe wall.
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<P><I>2.6.1.4 Direct vent system which intentionally preheat incoming air.</I> For units which employ direct vent systems that intentionally preheat the incoming combustion air, such as a concentric direct vent system, install nine thermocouples, wired in parallel, in a plane parallel to and located within 6 inches (152.4 mm) of the vent/air intake terminal. Equalize the length of all thermocouple leads before paralleling. Locate one thermocouple in the center of the flue pipe and eight thermocouples along imaginary lines intersecting at right angles in this plane at points one third and two thirds of the distance between the center of the flue pipe and the pipe wall.
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<P>For units with a flue pipe diameter of 2 inches or less, five thermocouples may be installed instead of nine. Locate one thermocouple in the center of the flue pipe and four thermocouples along imaginary lines intersecting at right angles in this plane at points halfway between the center of the flue pipe and the pipe wall.
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<P><I>2.6.2 Oil-fueled vented home heating equipment (including direct vent systems).</I>
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<P>Install thermocouples for measuring the heated air temperature as described in Sections 37.5.8 through 37.5.18 of UL 730-2016. Establish the temperature of the inlet air by means of a single No. 24 AWG bead-type thermocouple located in the center of the plane of each inlet air opening. Use bead-type thermocouples having a wire size not greater than No. 24 AWG. If there is a thermocouple that has a direct line of sight with the fire, install a radiation shield, meeting the material and minimum thickness requirements from Section 8.14.1 of ANSI Z21.86-2016, on the fire side of the thermocouple only, and position the shield so that it does not touch the thermocouple junction.
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<P>Install nine thermocouples, wired in parallel and having equal length leads, in a plane perpendicular to the axis of the flue pipe. Locate this plane at the position shown in Figure 36.4 of UL 730-2016, or Figure 38.1 and 38.2 of UL 729-2016 for a single thermocouple, except that on direct vent systems which intentionally preheat the incoming combustion air, locate this plane within 6 inches (152.5 mm) of the outlet of the vent/air intake terminal. Locate one thermocouple in the center of the flue pipe and eight thermocouples along imaginary lines intersecting at right angles in this plane at points one third and two thirds of the distance between the center of the pipe and pipe wall.
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<P>For units with a flue pipe diameter of 2 inches or less, five thermocouples may be installed instead of nine. Wire the thermocouples in parallel with equal length leads, in a plane perpendicular to the axis of the flue pipe. Locate this plane at the position shown in Figure 36.4 of UL 730-2016, or Figure 38.1 and 38.2 of UL 729-2016 for a single thermocouple, except that on direct vent systems which intentionally preheat the incoming combustion air, locate this plane within 6 inches (152.5 mm) of the outlet of the vent/air intake terminal. Locate one thermocouple in the center of the flue pipe and four thermocouples along imaginary lines intersecting at right angles in this plane at points halfway between the center of the pipe and pipe wall.
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<P><I>2.7 Combustion measurement instrumentation.</I> Analyze the samples of stack and flue gases for vented heaters to determine the concentration by volume of carbon dioxide present in the dry gas with instrumentation which will result in a reading having an accuracy of ±0.1 percentage point.
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<P><I>2.8 Energy flow instrumentation.</I> Install one or more instruments, which measure the rate of gas flow or fuel oil supplied to the vented heater, and if appropriate, the electrical energy with an error no greater than one percent.
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<P><I>2.9 Room ambient temperature.</I> The room ambient temperature shall be the arithmetic average temperature of the test area, determined by measurement with four No. 24 AWG bead-type thermocouples with junctions shielded against radiation using shielding meeting the material and minimum thickness requirements from Section 8.14.1 of ANSI Z21.86-2016, located approximately at 90-degree positions on a circle circumscribing the heater or heater enclosure under test, in a horizontal plane approximately at the vertical midpoint of the appliance or test enclosure, and with the junctions approximately 24 inches from sides of the heater or test enclosure and located so as not to be affected by other than room air.
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<P>The value T<E T="52">RA</E> is the room ambient temperature measured at the last of the three successive readings taken 15 minutes apart described in section 3.1.1 or 3.1.2 of this appendix as applicable. During the time period required to perform all the testing and measurement procedures specified in section 3.0 of this appendix, maintain the room ambient temperature within ±5 °F (±2.8 °C) of the value T<E T="52">RA</E>. At no time during these tests shall the room ambient temperature exceed 100 °F (37.8 °C) or fall below 65 °F (18.3 °C).
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<P>Locate a thermocouple at each elevation of draft relief inlet opening and combustion air inlet opening at a distance of approximately 24 inches from the inlet openings. The temperature of the air for combustion and the air for draft relief shall not differ more than ±5 °F from the room ambient temperature as measured above at any point in time. This requirement for combustion air inlet temperature does not need to be met once the burner is shut off during the testing described in sections 3.3 and 3.6 of this appendix.
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<P><I>2.10 Equipment used to measure mass flow rate in flue and stack.</I> The tracer gas chosen for this task should have a density which is less than or approximately equal to the density of air. Use a gas unreactive with the environment to be encountered. Using instrumentation of either the batch or continuous type, measure the concentration of tracer gas with an error no greater than 2 percent of the value of the concentration measured.
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<P><I>2.11 Equipment with multiple control modes.</I>
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<P>2.11.1 For equipment that has both manual and automatic thermostat control modes, test the unit according to the procedure for its automatic control mode, <I>i.e.,</I> single-stage, two-stage, or step-modulating.
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<P>2.11.2 For equipment that has multiple automatic thermostat control modes, test in the default mode (or similarly named mode identified for normal operation) as defined by the manufacturer in its I&amp;O manual. If a default mode is not defined in the I&amp;O manual, test in the mode in which the equipment operates as shipped from the manufacturer.
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<HD2>3.0 Testing and measurements.
</HD2>
<P>3.1 <I>Steady-state testing.</I>
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<P>3.1.1 <I>Gas fueled vented home heating equipment (including direct vent systems).</I> Set up the vented heater as specified in sections 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3 of this appendix. The draft diverter shall be in the normal open condition and the stack shall not be insulated. (Insulation of the stack is no longer required for the vented heater test.) Begin the steady-state performance test by operating the burner and the circulating air blower, on units so equipped, with the adjustments specified by sections 2.4.1 and 2.5 of this appendix, until steady-state conditions are attained as indicated by three successive readings taken 15 minutes apart with a temperature variation of not more than ±3 °F (1.7 C) in the stack gas temperature for vented heaters equipped with draft diverters or ±5 °F (2.8 C) in the flue gas temperature for vented heaters equipped with either draft hoods or direct vent systems. The measurements described in this section are to coincide with the last of these 15 minute readings.
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<P>On units employing draft diverters, measure the room temperature (T<E T="52">RA</E>) as described in section 2.9 of this appendix and measure the steady-state stack gas temperature (T<E T="52">S,SS</E>) using the nine thermocouples located in the 5 foot test stack as specified in section 2.6.1 of this appendix. Secure a sample of the stack gases in the plane where T<E T="52">S,SS</E> is measured or within 3.5 feet downstream of this plane. Determine the concentration by volume of carbon dioxide (X<E T="52">CO2S</E>) present in the dry stack gas. If the location of the gas sampling differs from the temperature measurement plane, there shall be no air leaks through the stack between these two locations.
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<P>On units employing draft hoods or direct vent systems, measure the room temperature (T<E T="52">RA</E>) as described in section 2.9 of this appendix and measure the steady-state flue gas temperature (T<E T="52">F,SS</E>), using the nine thermocouples located in the flue pipe as described in section 2.6.1 of this appendix. Secure a sample of the flue gas in the plane of temperature measurement and determine the concentration by volume of CO<E T="52">2</E> (X<E T="52">CO2F</E>) present in dry flue gas. In addition, for units employing draft hoods, secure a sample of the stack gas in a horizontal plane in the five foot test stack located one foot from the test stack inlet; and determine the concentration by volume of CO<E T="52">2</E> (X<E T="52">CO2S</E>) present in dry stack gas.
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<P>Determine the steady-state heat input rate (Qin) including pilot gas by multiplying the measured higher heating value of the test gas by the steady-state gas input rate corrected to standard conditions of 60 °F and 30 inches of mercury. Use measured values of gas temperature and pressure at the meter and the barometric pressure to correct the metered gas flow rate to standard conditions.
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<P>After the above test measurements have been completed on units employing draft diverters, secure a sample of the flue gases at the exit of the heat exchanger(s) and determine the concentration of CO<E T="52">2</E> (X<E T="52">CO2F</E>) present. In obtaining this sample of flue gas, move the sampling probe around or use a sample probe with multiple sampling ports in order to assure that an average value is obtained for the CO<E T="52">2</E> concentration. For units with multiple heat exchanger outlets, measure the CO<E T="52">2</E> concentration in a sample from each outlet to obtain the average CO<E T="52">2</E> concentration for the unit. A manifold (parallel connected sampling tubes) may be used to obtain this sample.
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<P>For heaters with single-stage thermostat control (wall mounted electric thermostats), determine the steady-state efficiency at the maximum fuel input rate as specified in section 2.4 of this appendix.
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<P>For gas fueled vented heaters equipped with either two stage control or step-modulating control, determine the steady-state efficiency at the maximum fuel input rate and at the reduced fuel input rate, as specified in section 2.4.1 of this appendix.
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<P>For manually controlled gas fueled vented heaters with various input rates, determine the steady-state efficiency at a fuel input rate that is within ±5 percent of 50 percent of the maximum rated fuel input rate as indicated on the nameplate of the unit or in the manufacturer's installation and operation manual shipped with the unit. If the heater is designed to use a control that precludes operation at other than maximum rated fuel input rate (single firing rate) determine the steady state efficiency at the maximum rated fuel input rate only.
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<P><I>3.1.2 Oil-fueled vented home heating equipment (including direct vent systems).</I> Set up and adjust the vented heater as specified in sections 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3.4 of this appendix. Begin the steady-state performance test by operating the burner and the circulating air blower, on units so equipped, with the adjustments specified by sections 2.4.2 and 2.5 of this appendix, until steady-state conditions are attained as indicated by a temperature variation of not more than ±5 °F (2.8 °C) in the flue gas temperature in three successive readings taken 15 minutes apart. The measurements described in this section are to coincide with the last of these 15 minutes readings.
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<P>For units equipped with power burners, do not allow smoke in the flue to exceed a No. 1 smoke during the steady-state performance test as measured by the procedure described in ASTM D2156-09 (R2018). Maintain the average draft over the fire and in the breeching during the steady-state performance test at that recommended by the manufacturer ±0.005 inches of water gauge.
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<P>Measure the room temperature (T<E T="52">RA</E>) as described in section 2.9 of this appendix. Measure the steady-state flue gas temperature (T<E T="52">F,SS</E>) using nine thermocouples (or five, as applicable) located in the flue pipe as described in section 2.6.2 of this appendix. From the plane where T<E T="52">F,SS</E> was measured, collect a sample of the flue gas and determine the concentration by volume of CO<E T="52">2</E> (X<E T="52">CO2F</E>) present in dry flue gas. Measure and record the steady-state heat input rate (Q<E T="52">in</E>).
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<P>For manually controlled oil fueled vented heaters, determine the steady-state efficiency at a fuel input rate that is within ±5 percent of 50 percent of the maximum fuel input rate; or, if the design of the heater is such that the fuel input rate cannot be set to ±5 percent of 50 percent of the maximum rated fuel input rate, determine the steady-state efficiency at the minimum rated fuel input rate as measured in section 3.1.2 of this appendix for manually controlled oil fueled vented heaters.
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<P>3.1.3 <I>Auxiliary Electric Power Measurement.</I> Allow the auxiliary electrical system of a gas or oil vented heater to operate for at least five minutes before recording the maximum auxiliary electric power measurement from the wattmeter. Record the maximum electric power (P<E T="52">E</E>) expressed in kilowatts. For vented heaters with modulating controls, the recorded (P<E T="52">E</E>) shall be maximum measured electric power multiplied by the following factor (R). For two stage controls, R = 1.3. For step modulating controls, R = 1.4 when the ratio of minimum-to-maximum fuel input is greater than or equal to 0.7, R = 1.7 when the ratio of minimum-to-maximum fuel input is less than 0.7 and greater than or equal to 0.5, and R = 2.2 when the ratio of minimum-to-maximum fuel input is less than 0.5.
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<P><I>3.2 Jacket loss measurement.</I> Conduct a jacket loss test for vented floor furnaces. Measure the jacket loss (L<E T="52">j</E>) in accordance with ASHRAE 103-2017 Section 8.6, applying the provisions for furnaces and not the provisions for boilers.
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<P>3.3 <I>Measurement of the off-cycle losses for vented heaters equipped with thermal stack dampers.</I> Unless specified otherwise, the thermal stack damper should be at the draft diverter exit collar. Attach a five foot length of bare stack to the outlet of the damper. Install thermocouples as specified in section 2.6.1 of this appendix.
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<P>For vented heaters equipped with single-stage thermostats, measure the off-cycle losses at the maximum fuel input rate. For vented heaters equipped with two stage thermostats, measure the off-cycle losses at the maximum fuel input rate and at the reduced fuel input rate. For vented heaters equipped with step-modulating thermostats, measure the off-cycle losses at the reduced fuel input rate.
</P>
<P>Allow the vented heater to heat up to a steady-state condition. Feed a tracer gas at a constant metered rate into the stack directly above and within one foot above the stack damper. Record tracer gas flow rate and temperature. Measure the tracer gas concentration in the stack at several locations in a horizontal plane through a cross-section of the stack at a point sufficiently above the stack damper to ensure that the tracer gas is well mixed in the stack.
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<P>Continuously measure the tracer gas concentration and temperature during a 10-minute cool-down period. Shut the burner off and immediately begin measuring tracer gas concentration in the stack, stack temperature, room temperature, and barometric pressure. Record these values as the midpoint of each one-minute interval between burner shut-down and ten minutes after burner shut-down. Meter response time and sampling delay time shall be considered in timing these measurements.
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<P>3.4 <I>Measurement of the effectiveness of electro-mechanical stack dampers.</I> For vented heaters equipped with electro-mechanical stack dampers, measure the cross sectional area of the stack (A<E T="52">s</E>), the net area of the damper plate (A<E T="52">o</E>), and the angle that the damper plate makes when closed with a plane perpendicular to the axis of the stack (Ω). The net area of the damper plate means the area of the damper plate minus the area of any holes through the damper plate. 
</P>
<P>3.5 <I>Pilot light measurement.</I>
</P>
<P>3.5.1 Measure the energy input rate to the pilot light (Q<E T="52">P</E>) with an error no greater than 3 percent for vented heaters so equipped.
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<P>3.5.2 For manually controlled heaters where the pilot light is designed to be turned off by the user when the heater is not in use, that is, turning the control to the OFF position will shut off the gas supply to the burner(s) and to the pilot light, the measurement of Q<E T="52">P</E> is not needed. This provision applies only if an instruction to turn off the unit is provided on the heater near the gas control valve (e.g. by label) by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>3.6 <I>Optional procedure for determining</I> D<E T="52">p′</E> D<E T="52">F′</E> and D<E T="52">s</E> <I>for systems for all types of vented heaters.</I> For all types of vented heaters, D<E T="52">p′</E> D<E T="52">F′</E> and D<E T="52">S</E> can be measured by the following optional cool down test. 
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<P>Conduct a cool down test by letting the unit heat up until steady-state conditions are reached, as indicated by temperature variation of not more than 5 °F (2.8 °C) in the flue gas temperature in three successive readings taken 15 minutes apart, and then shutting the unit off with the stack or flue damper controls by-passed or adjusted so that the stack or flue damper remains open during the resulting cool down period. If a draft was maintained on oil fueled units in the flue pipe during the steady-state performance test described in section 3.1 of this appendix, maintain the same draft (within a range of −.001 to + .005 inches of water gauge of the average steady-state draft) during this cool down period.
</P>
<P>Measure the flue gas mass flow rate (m<E T="52">F,OFF</E>) during the cool down test described above at a specific off-period flue gas temperature and corrected to obtain its value at the steady-state flue gas temperature (T<E T="52">F,SS</E>), using the procedure described below.
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<P>Within one minute after the unit is shut off to start the cool down test for determining D<E T="52">F</E>, begin feeding a tracer gas into the combustion chamber at a constant flow rate of V<E T="52">T</E>, and at a point which will allow for the best possible mixing with the air flowing through the chamber. (On units equipped with an oil fired power burner, the best location for injecting this tracer gas appears to be through a hole drilled in the air tube.) Periodically measure the value of V<E T="52">T</E> with an instantaneously reading flow meter having an accuracy of ±3 percent of the quantity measured. Maintain V<E T="52">T</E> at less than 1 percent of the air flow rate through the furnace. If a combustible tracer gas is used, there should be a delay period between the time the burner gas is shut off and the time the tracer gas is first injected to prevent ignition of the tracer gas. 
</P>
<P>Between 5 and 6 minutes after the unit is shut off to start the cool down test, measure at the exit of the heat exchanger the average flue gas temperature, T*<E T="52">F,Off</E>. At the same instant the flue gas temperature is measured, also measure the percent volumetric concentration of tracer gas C<E T="52">T</E> in the flue gas in the same plane where T*<E T="52">F,Off</E> is determined. Obtain the concentration of tracer gas using an instrument which will result in an accuracy of ±2 percent in the value of C<E T="52">T</E> measured. If use of a continuous reading type instrument results in a delay time between drawing of a sample and its analysis, this delay should be taken into account so that the temperature measurement and the measurement of tracer gas concentration coincide. In addition, determine the temperature of the tracer gas entering the flow meter (T<E T="52">T</E>) and the barometric pressure (P<E T="52">B</E>).
</P>
<P>The rate of the flue gas mass flow through the vented heater and the factors D<E T="52">P</E>, D<E T="52">F</E>, and D<E T="52">S</E> are calculated by the equations in sections 4.5.1 through 4.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.6.1 <I>Procedure for determining (</I>D<E T="52">F and</E> D<E T="52">P</E>) <I>of vented home heating equipment with no measurable airflow.</I> On units whose design is such that there is no measurable airflow through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger when the burner(s) is off (as determined by the test procedure in section 3.6.2 of this appendix), D<E T="52">F</E> and D<E T="52">P</E> may be set equal to 0.05.
</P>
<P>3.6.2 <I>Test Method to Determine Whether the Use of the Default Draft Factors (</I>D<E T="52">F and</E> D<E T="52">P</E>) <I>of 0.05 is Allowed.</I> Manufacturers may use the following test protocol to determine whether air flows through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger when the burner(s) is off using a smoke stick device. The default draft factor of 0.05 (as allowed per section 3.6.1 of this appendix) may be used only for units determined pursuant to this protocol to have no air flow through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger.
</P>
<P>3.6.2.1 <I>Test Conditions.</I> Wait for two minutes following the termination of the vented heater's on-cycle.
</P>
<P>3.6.2.2 <I>Location of Test Apparatus</I>
</P>
<P>3.6.2.2.1 After all air currents and drafts in the test chamber have been minimized, position the operable smoke stick/pencil as specified, based on the following equipment configuration: for horizontal combustion air intakes, approximately 4 inches from the vertical plane at the termination of the intake vent and 4 inches below the bottom edge of the combustion air intake, or for vertical combustion air intakes, approximately 4 inches horizontal from vent perimeter at the termination of the intake vent and 4 inches down (parallel to the vertical axis of the vent). In the instance where the boiler combustion air intake is closer than 4 inches to the floor, place the smoke device directly on the floor without impeding the flow of smoke.
</P>
<P>3.6.2.2.2 Monitor the presence and the direction of the smoke flow.
</P>
<P>3.6.2.3 <I>Duration of Test.</I> Continue monitoring the release of smoke for no less than 30 seconds.
</P>
<P>3.6.2.4 <I>Test Results</I>
</P>
<P>3.6.2.4.1 During visual assessment, determine whether there is any draw of smoke into the combustion air intake.
</P>
<P>3.6.2.4.2 If absolutely no smoke is drawn into the combustion air intake, the vented heater meets the requirements to allow use of the default draft factor of 0.05.
</P>
<P>3.6.2.4.3 If there is any smoke drawn into the intake, use of default draft factor of 0.05 is prohibited. Proceed with the methods of testing as prescribed in section 3.6 of this appendix, or select the appropriate default draft factor from Table 1.
</P>
<P>3.7 <I>Measurement of electrical standby mode and off mode power.</I>
</P>
<P>3.7.1 <I>Standby power measurements.</I> With all electrical auxiliaries of the vented heater not activated, measure the standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) in accordance with the procedures in IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), except that section 2.9, <I>Room ambient temperature,</I> and the voltage provision of section 2.3.5, <I>Electrical supply,</I> of this appendix shall apply in lieu of the IEC 62301 (Second Edition) corresponding sections 4.2, <I>Test room,</I> and 4.3, <I>Power supply.</I> Clarifying further, the IEC 62301 (Second Edition) sections 4.4, <I>Power measuring instruments,</I> and section 5, <I>Measurements,</I> shall apply in lieu of section 2.8, <I>Energy flow instrumentation,</I> of this appendix. Measure the wattage so that all possible standby mode wattage for the entire appliance is recorded, not just the standby mode wattage of a single auxiliary. The recorded standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) shall be rounded to the second decimal place, and for loads greater than or equal to 10W, at least three significant figures shall be reported.
</P>
<P>3.7.2 <I>Off mode power measurement.</I> If the unit is equipped with a seasonal off switch or there is an expected difference between off mode power and standby mode power, measure off mode power (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) in accordance with the standby power procedures in IEC 62301 (Second Edition) (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), except that section 2.9, <I>Room ambient temperature,</I> and the voltage provision of section 2.3.5, <I>Electrical supply,</I> of this appendix shall apply in lieu of the IEC 62301 (Second Edition) corresponding sections 4.2, <I>Test room,</I> and 4.3, <I>Power supply.</I> Clarifying further, the IEC 62301 (Second Edition) sections 4.4, <I>Power measuring instruments,</I> and section 5, <I>Measurements,</I> shall apply in lieu of section 2.8, <I>Energy flow instrumentation,</I> of this appendix. Measure the wattage so that all possible off mode wattage for the entire appliance is recorded, not just the off mode wattage of a single auxiliary. If there is no expected difference in off mode power and standby mode power, let P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = P<E T="52">W,SB</E>, in which case no separate measurement of off mode power is necessary. The recorded off mode power (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) shall be rounded to the second decimal place, and for loads greater than or equal to 10W, at least three significant figures shall be reported.
</P>
<P>3.8 <I>Condensing vented heaters—measurement of condensate under steady-state and cyclic conditions.</I> Attach condensate drain lines to the vented heater as specified in the manufacturer's I&amp;O manual provided with the unit. The test unit shall be level prior to all testing. A continuous downward slope of drain lines from the unit shall be maintained. The drain lines must facilitate uninterrupted flow of condensate during the test. The condensate collection container must be glass or polished stainless steel to facilitate removal of interior deposits. The collection container shall have a vent opening to the atmosphere, be dried prior to each use, and be at room ambient temperature. The humidity of the room air shall at no time exceed 80 percent relative humidity. For condensing units not designed for collecting and draining condensate, drain lines must be provided during testing that meet the criteria set forth in this section 3.8. Units employing manual controls and units not tested under the optional tracer gas procedures of sections 3.3 and 3.6 of this appendix shall only conduct the steady-state condensate collection test.
</P>
<P>3.8.1 <I>Steady-state condensate collection test.</I> Begin steady-state condensate collection concurrently with or immediately after completion of the steady-state testing of section 3.1 of this appendix. The steady-state condensate collection period shall be 30 minutes. Condensate mass shall be measured immediately at the end of the collection period to minimize evaporation loss from the sample. Record fuel input during the 30-minute condensate collection steady-state test period. Measure and record fuel higher heating value (HHV), temperature, and pressures necessary for determining fuel energy input (Q<E T="52">c,ss</E>). The fuel quantity and HHV shall be measured with errors no greater than ±1 percent. Determine the mass of condensate for the steady-state test (M<E T="52">c,ss</E>) in pounds by subtracting the tare container weight from the total container and condensate weight measured at the end of the 30-minute condensate collection test period. The error associated with the mass measurement instruments shall not exceed ±0.5 percent of the quantity measured.
</P>
<P>For units with step-modulating or two stage controls, the steady-state condensate collection test shall be conducted at both the maximum and reduced input rates.
</P>
<P><I>3.8.2 Cyclic condensate collection tests.</I> If existing controls do not allow for cyclical operation of the tested unit, install control devices to allow cyclical operation of the vented heater. Run three consecutive test cycles. For each cycle, operate the unit until flue gas temperatures at the end of each on-cycle, rounded to the nearest whole number, are within 5 °F of each other for two consecutive cycles. On-cycle and off-cycle times are 4 minutes and 13 minutes respectively. Control of ON and OFF operation actions shall be within ±6 seconds of the scheduled time. For fan-type vented heaters, maintain circulating air adjustments as specified in section 2.5 of this appendix. Begin condensate collection at one minute before the on-cycle period of the first test cycle. Remove the container one minute before the end of each off-cycle period. Measure condensate mass for each test-cycle. The error associated with the mass measurement instruments shall not exceed ±0.5 percent of the quantity measured.
</P>
<P>Record fuel input during the entire test period starting at the beginning of the on-time period of the first cycle to the beginning of the on-time period of the second cycle, from the beginning of the on-time period of the second cycle to the beginning of the on-time period of the third cycle, etc., for each of the test cycles. Record fuel HHV, temperature, and pressure necessary for determining fuel energy input, Q<E T="52">C</E>. Determine the mass of condensate for each cycle, M<E T="52">C</E>, in pounds. If at the end of three cycles, the sample standard deviation is less than or equal to 20 percent of the mean value for three cycles, use total condensate collected in the three cycles as M<E T="52">C</E>; if not, continue collection for an additional three cycles and use the total condensate collected for the six cycles as M<E T="52">C</E>. Determine the fuel energy input, Q<E T="52">C</E>, during the three or six test cycles, expressed in Btu.
</P>
<P>For units with step-modulating controls, conduct the cyclic condensate collection test at reduced input rate only. For units with two-stage controls, conduct the cyclic condensate collection test at both maximum and reduced input rates unless the balance-point temperature (T<E T="52">C</E>) as determined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix O is equal to or less than the typical outdoor design temperature of 5 °F (-5 °C), in which case, conduct testing at the reduced input rate only.


</P>
<HD2>4.0 Calculations.
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Annual fuel utilization efficiency for gas fueled or oil fueled vented home heating equipment equipped without manual controls or with multiple control modes as per 2.11 and without thermal stack dampers.</I> The following procedure determines the annual fuel utilization efficiency for gas fueled or oil fueled vented home heating equipment equipped without manual controls and without thermal stack dampers.
</P>
<P>4.1.1 <I>System number.</I> Obtain the system number from Table 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.1.2 <I>Off-cycle flue gas draft factor.</I> Based on the system number, determine the off-cycle flue gas draft factor (D<E T="52">F</E>) from Table 1 of this appendix or the test method and calculations of sections 3.6 and 4.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.1.3 <I>Off-cycle stack gas draft factor.</I> Based on the system number, determine the off-cycle stack gas draft factor (D<E T="52">s</E>) from Table 1 of this appendix or from the test method and calculations of sections 3.6 and 4.5 of this appendix,.
</P>
<P>4.1.4 <I>Pilot fraction.</I> Calculate the pilot fraction (P<E T="52">F</E>) expressed as a decimal and defined as:
</P>
<FP>P<E T="52">F</E> = Q<E T="52">P</E>/Q<E T="52">in</E>
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in 3.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in</E> = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.5 <I>Jacket loss for floor furnaces.</I> Determine the jacket loss (L<E T="52">j</E>) expressed as a percent and measured in accordance with section 3.2 of this appendix. For other vented heaters L<E T="52">j</E> = 0.0.
</P>
<P>4.1.6 <I>Latent heat loss.</I> For non-condensing vented heaters, obtain the latent heat loss (L<E T="52">L,A</E>) from Table 2 of this appendix. For condensing vented heaters, calculate a modified latent heat loss (L<E T="52">L,A</E>*) as follows:
</P>
<P>For steady-state conditions:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E>*= L<E T="52">L,A</E>−L<E T="52">G,SS</E> + L<E T="52">C,SS</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = Latent heat loss, based on fuel type, from Table 2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">G,SS</E> = Steady-state latent heat gain due to condensation as determined in section 4.1.6.1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">C,SS</E> = Steady-state heat loss due to hot condensate going down the drain as determined in 4.1.6.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For cyclic conditions: (only for vented heaters tested under the optional tracer gas procedures of section 3.3 or 3.6)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E>*= L<E T="52">L,A</E>−L<E T="52">G</E> + L<E T="52">C</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = Latent heat loss, based on fuel type, from Table 2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">G</E> = Latent heat gain due to condensation under cyclic conditions as determined in section 4.1.6.3 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">C</E> = Heat loss due to hot condensate going down the drain under cyclic conditions as determined in section 4.1.6.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.6.1 <I>Latent heat gain due to condensation under steady-state conditions.</I> Calculate the latent heat gain (L<E T="52">G,SS</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.017.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>100 = conversion factor to express a decimal as a percent,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1053.3 = latent heat of vaporization of water, Btu per pound,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">c,ss</E> = mass of condensate for the steady-state test as determined in section 3.8.1 of this appendix, pounds, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">c,ss</E> = fuel energy input for steady-state test as determined in section 3.8.1 of this appendix, Btu.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.6.2 <I>Heat loss due to hot condensate going down the drain under steady-state conditions.</I> Calculate the steady-state heat loss due to hot condensate going down the drain (L<E T="52">C,SS</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.018.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">G,SS</E> = Latent heat gain due to condensation under steady-state conditions as defined in section 4.1.6.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1.0 = specific heat of water, Btu/lb− °F,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">F,SS</E> = Flue (or stack) gas temperature as defined in section 3.1 of this appendix, °F,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>70 = assumed indoor temperature, °F,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.45 = specific heat of water vapor, Btu/lb− °F, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>45 = average outdoor temperature for vented heaters, °F.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.6.3 <I>Latent heat gain due to condensation under cyclic conditions.</I> (only for vented heaters tested under the optional tracer gas procedures of section 3.3 or 3.6 of this appendix) Calculate the latent heat gain (L<E T="52">G</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.019.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>100 = conversion factor to express a decimal as a percent,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1053.3 = latent heat of vaporization of water, Btu per pound,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">c</E> = mass of condensate for the cyclic test as determined in 3.8.2 of this appendix, pounds, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">c</E> = fuel energy input for cyclic test as determined in 3.8.2 of this appendix, Btu.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.6.4 <I>Heat loss due to hot condensate going down the drain under cyclic conditions. (only for vented heaters tested under the optional tracer gas procedures of section 3.3 or 3.6 of this appendix)</I> Calculate the cyclic heat loss due to hot condensate going down the drain (L<E T="52">C</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.020.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">G</E> = Latent heat gain due to condensation under cyclic conditions as defined in section 4.1.6.3 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1.0 = specific heat of water, Btu/lb− °F,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">F,SS</E> = Flue (or stack) gas temperature as defined in section 3.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>70 = assumed indoor temperature, °F,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.45 = specific heat of water vapor, Btu/lb− °F, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>45 = average outdoor temperature for vented heaters, °F.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.7 <I>Ratio of combustion air mass flow rate to stoichiometric air mass flow rate.</I> Determine the ratio of combustion air mass flow rate to stoichiometric air mass flow rate (R<E T="52">T,F</E>), and defined as:
</P>
<FP>R<E T="52">T,F</E> = A + B/X<E T="52">CO2F</E>
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A = as determined from Table 2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = as determined from Table 2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">CO2F</E> = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.8 <I>Ratio of combustion and relief air mass flow rate to stoichiometric air mass flow rate.</I> For vented heaters equipped with either an integral draft diverter or a draft hood, determine the ratio of combustion and relief air mass flow rate to stoichiometric air mass flow rate (R<E T="52">T,S</E>), and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">T,S</E> = A + [B/X<E T="52">CO2S</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A = as determined from Table 2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = as determined from Table 2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">CO2S</E> = as defined in section 3.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.9 <I>Sensible heat loss at steady-state operation.</I> For vented heaters equipped with either an integral draft diverter or a draft hood, determine the sensible heat loss at steady-state operation (L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP>L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> = C(R<E T="52">T,S</E> + D)(T<E T="52">S,SS</E>−T<E T="52">RA</E>)
</FP>
<FP-2>C = as determined from Table 2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">T,S</E> = as defined in 4.1.8 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D = as determined from Table 2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S,SS</E> = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">RA</E> = as defined in 2.9 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped without an integral draft diverter, determine (L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> = C(R<E T="52">T,F</E> + D)(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>−T<E T="52">RA</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>C = as determined from Table 2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">T,F</E> = as defined in 4.1.7 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D = as determined from Table 2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">F,SS</E> = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">RA</E> = as defined in 2.9 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.10 <I>Steady-state efficiency.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single-stage thermostats, calculate the steady-state efficiency (excluding jacket loss), η<E T="52">SS,</E> expressed in percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS</E> = 100−L<E T="52">L,A</E>−L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = latent heat loss, as defined in section 4.1.6 of this appendix (for condensing vented heaters L<E T="52">L,A</E>* for steady-state conditions), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> = sensible heat loss at steady-state operation, as defined in section 4.1.9 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped with either two stage controls or with step-modulating controls, calculate the steady-state efficiency at the reduced fuel input rate, η<E T="52">SS−L</E>, expressed in percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS−L</E> = 100−L<E T="52">L,A</E>−L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = latent heat loss, as defined in section 4.1.6 of this appendix (for condensing vented heaters L<E T="52">L,A</E>* for steady-state conditions at the reduced firing rate), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> = sensible heat loss at steady-state operation, as defined in section 4.1.9 of this appendix, in which L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> is determined at the reduced fuel input rate.
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped with two stage controls, calculate the steady-state efficiency at the maximum fuel input rate, η<E T="52">SS−H</E>, expressed in percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS−H</E> = 100−L<E T="52">L,A</E>−L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = latent heat loss, as defined in section 4.1.6 of this appendix (for condensing vented heaters L<E T="52">L,A</E>* for steady-state conditions at the maximum fuel input rate), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> = sensible heat loss at steady-state operation, as defined in section 4.1.9 of this appendix, in which L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> is measured at the maximum fuel input rate.
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped with step-modulating thermostats, calculate the weighted-average steady-state efficiency in the modulating mode, η<E T="52">SS−MOD</E>, expressed in percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.021.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-H</E> = steady-state efficiency at the maximum fuel input rate, as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-L</E> = steady-state efficiency at the reduced fuel input rate, as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OA</E>* = average outdoor temperature for vented heaters with step-modulating thermostats operating in the modulating mode and is obtained from Table 3 or Figure 1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">C</E> = balance point temperature which represents a temperature used to apportion the annual heating load between the reduced input cycling mode and either the modulating mode or maximum input cycling mode and is obtained either from Table 3 of this appendix or calculated by the following equation:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">C</E> = 65−[(65−15)R]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>65 = average outdoor temperature at which a vented heater starts operating,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>15 = national average outdoor design temperature for vented heaters, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R = ratio of reduced to maximum heat output rates, as defined in section 4.1.13 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.11 <I>Reduced heat output rate.</I> For vented heaters equipped with either two stage thermostats or step-modulating thermostats, calculate the reduced heat output rate
</P>
<FP>(Q<E T="52">red-out</E>) defined as:
</FP>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">red-out</E> = η<E T="52">SS-L</E> Q<E T="52">red-in</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-L</E> = as defined in 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">red-in</E> = the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.12 <I>Maximum heat output rate.</I> For vented heaters equipped with either two stage thermostats or step-modulating thermostats, calculate the maximum heat output rate (Q<E T="52">max-out</E>) defined as:
</P>
<FP>Q<E T="52">max,out</E> = h<E T="52">SS,H</E> Q<E T="52">max,in</E>
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-H</E> = as defined in 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">max-in</E> = the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.13 <I>Ratio of reduced to maximum heat output rates.</I> For vented heaters equipped with either two stage thermostats or step-modulating thermostats, calculate the ratio of reduced to maximum heat output rates (R) expressed as a decimal and defined as:
</P>
<FP>R = Q<E T="52">red-out</E>/Q<E T="52">max-out</E>
</FP>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">red-out</E> = as defined in 4.1.11 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">max-out</E> = as defined in 4.1.12 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.14 <I>Fraction of heating load at reduced operating mode.</I> For vented heaters equipped with either two stage thermostats or step-modulating thermostats, determine the fraction of heating load at the reduced operating mode (X<E T="52">1</E>) expressed as a decimal and listed in Table 3 of this appendix or obtained from Figure 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.1.15 <I>Fraction of heating load at maximum operating mode or noncycling mode.</I> For vented heaters equipped with either two stage thermostats or step-modulating thermostats, determine the fraction of heating load at the maximum operating mode or noncycling mode (X<E T="52">2</E>) expressed as a decimal and listed in Table 3 of this appendix or obtained from Figure 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.1.16 <I>Weighted-average steady-state efficiency.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single-stage thermostats, the weighted-average steady-state efficiency (η<E T="52">SS-WT</E>) is equal to η<E T="52">SS,</E> as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix. For vented heaters equipped with two stage thermostats, η<E T="52">SS-WT</E> is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-WT</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>η<E T="52">SS-L</E> + X<E T="52">2</E>η<E T="52">SS-H</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-L</E> = as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in section 4.1.15 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-H</E> = as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped with step-modulating controls, η<E T="52">SS-WT</E> is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-WT</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>η<E T="52">SS-L</E> + X<E T="52">2</E>η<E T="52">SS-MOD</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-L</E> = as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in section 4.1.15 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-MOD</E> = as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.1.17 <I>Annual fuel utilization efficiency.</I> Calculate the annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) expressed as percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>AFUE=[0.968η<E T="52">SS − WT</E>] − 1.78D<E T="52">F</E> − 1.89D<E T="52">S</E> − 129P<E T="52">F</E> − 2.8 L<E T="52">J</E> + 1.81 
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-WT</E> = as defined in 4.1.16 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">F</E> = as defined in 4.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">S</E> = as defined in 4.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">F</E> = as defined in 4.1.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">J</E> = as defined in 4.1.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.2 <I>Annual fuel utilization efficiency for gas or oil fueled vented home heating equipment equipped with manual controls.</I> The following procedure determines the annual fuel utilization efficiency for gas or oil fueled vented home heating equipment equipped with manual controls.
</P>
<P>4.2.1 <I>Average ratio of stack gas mass flow rate to flue gas mass flow rate at steady-state operation.</I> For vented heaters equipped with either direct vents or direct exhaust or that are outdoor units, the average ratio of stack gas mass flow rate to flue gas mass flow rate at steady-state operation (S/F) shall be equal to unity. (S/F = 1) For all other types of vented heaters, calculate (S/F) defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.022.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">T,S</E> = as defined in section 4.1.8 of this appendix with X<E T="52">CO2s</E> as measured in section 3.1. of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">T,F</E> = as defined in section 4.1.7 of this appendix with X<E T="52">CO2F</E> as measured in section 3.1. of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.2 <I>Multiplication factor for infiltration loss during burner on-cycle.</I> Calculate the multiplication factor for infiltration loss during burner on-cycle (K<E T="52">I,ON</E>) defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.023.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>100 = converts a decimal fraction into a percent
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.24 = specific heat of air
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A/F = stoichiometric air/fuel ratio, determined in accordance with Table 2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S/F = as defined in section 4.2.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.7 = infiltration parameter
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">T,F</E> = as defined in section 4.1.7 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HHV<E T="52">A</E> = average higher heating value of the test fuel, determined in accordance with Table 2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.3 <I>On-cycle infiltration heat loss.</I> Calculate the on-cycle infiltration heat loss (L<E T="52">I,ON</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,ON</E> = K<E T="52">I,ON</E> (70-45)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">I,ON</E> = as defined in 4.2.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>70 = average indoor temperature
</FP-2>
<FP-2>45 = average outdoor temperature
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.4 <I>Weighted-average steady-state efficiency.</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.4.1 For manually controlled heaters with various input rates the weighted average steady-state efficiency (η<E T="52">SS−WT</E>), is determined as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-WT</E> = 100−L<E T="52">L,A</E>−L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = latent heat loss, as defined in section 4.1.6 of this appendix (for condensing vented heaters, L<E T="52">L,A</E>* for steady-state conditions), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> = steady-state efficiency at the reduced fuel input rate, as defined in section 4.1.9 of this appendix and where L<E T="52">L,A</E> and L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> are determined:
</FP-2>
<P>(1) at 50 percent of the maximum fuel input rate as measured in either section 3.1.1 of this appendix for manually controlled gas vented heaters or section 3.1.2 of this appendix for manually controlled oil vented heaters, or
</P>
<P>(2) at the minimum fuel input rate as measured in either section 3.1.1 of this appendix for manually controlled gas vented heaters or section 3.1.2 of this appendix for manually controlled oil vented heaters if the design of the heater is such that the ±5 percent of 50 percent of the maximum fuel input rate cannot be set, provided this minimum rate is no greater than 
<FR>2/3</FR> of the maximum input rate of the heater.
</P>
<P>4.2.4.2 For manually controlled heater with one single firing rate the weighted average steady-state efficiency is the steady-state efficiency measured at the single firing rate.
</P>
<P>4.2.5 <I>Part-load fuel utilization efficiency.</I> Calculate the part-load fuel utilization efficiency (η<E T="52">u</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">u</E> = η<E T="52">SS-WT</E>−L<E T="52">I,ON</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-WT</E> = as defined in 4.2.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,ON</E> = as defined in 4.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.6 <I>Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency.</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.6.1 For manually controlled vented heaters, calculate the AFUE expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="30" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er12my97.040.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>2,950 = average number of heating degree days
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined as η<E T="52">SS−WT</E> in 4.2.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">u</E> = as defined in 4.2.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in−max</E> = as defined as Q<E T="52">in</E> at the maximum fuel input rate, as defined in 3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = average number of non-heating season hours per year
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in 3.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.083 = (65 − 15) / 24 = 50 / 24
</FP-2>
<FP-2>65 = degree day base temperature, °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>15 = national average outdoor design temperature for vented heaters as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>24 = number of hours in a day
</FP-2>
<P>4.2.6.2 For manually controlled vented heaters where the pilot light can be turned off by the user when the heater is not in use as described in section 3.5.2, calculate the AFUE expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>AFUE=η<E T="52">u</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">u</E> = as defined in section 4.2.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.3 <I>Annual fuel utilization efficiency by the tracer gas method.</I> The annual fuel utilization efficiency shall be determined by the following tracer gas method for all vented heaters equipped with thermal stack dampers.
</P>
<P>4.3.1 <I>On-cycle sensible heat loss.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single-stage thermostats, calculate the on-cycle sensible heat loss (L<E T="52">S,ON</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,ON</E> = L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> = as defined in section 4.1.9 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For vented heaters equipped with two stage thermostats, calculate L<E T="52">S,ON</E> defined as:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,ON</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>L<E T="52">S,SS,A-red</E> + X<E T="52">2</E>L<E T="52">S,SS,A-max</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A-red</E> = as defined as L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> in section 4.1.9 of this appendix at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in section 4.1.15 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A-max</E> = as defined as L<E T="52">S,SS,A</E> in section 4.1.9 of this appendix at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters with step-modulating controls, calculate L<E T="52">S,ON</E> defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,ON</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>L<E T="52">S,SS,A-red</E> + X<E T="52">2</E>L<E T="52">S,SS,A-avg</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">LS,SS,A-red</E> = as defined in section 4.3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in section 4.1.15 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A-avg</E> = average sensible heat loss for step-modulating vented heaters operating in the modulating mode
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.024.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS,A-avg</E> = as defined in section 4.3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">C</E> = as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OA*</E> = as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>15 = as defined in section 4.1.10 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.2 <I>On-cycle infiltration heat loss.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single-stage thermostats, calculate the on-cycle infiltration heat loss (L<E T="52">I,ON</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,ON</E> = K<E T="52">I,ON</E>(70−45)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">I,ON</E> = as defined in section 4.2.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>70 = as defined in section 4.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>45 = as defined in section 4.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped with two stage thermostats, calculate L<E T="52">I,ON</E> defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,ON</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>K<E T="52">I,ON-Max</E>(70−T<E T="52">OA*</E>) + X<E T="52">2</E>K<E T="52">I,ON,red</E>(70−T<E T="52">OA</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">I,ON-max</E> = as defined as K<E T="52">I,ON</E> in section 4.2.2 of this appendix at the maximum heat input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>70 = as defined in section 4.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OA*</E> = as defined in section 4.3.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">I,ON,red</E> = as defined as K<E T="52">I,ON</E> in section 4.2.2 of this appendix at the minimum heat input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OA</E> = as defined in section 4.3.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in section 4.1.15 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped with step-modulating thermostats, calculate L<E T="52">I,ON</E> defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,ON</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>K<E T="52">I,ON-avg</E>(70−T<E T="52">OA*</E>) + X<E T="52">2</E>K<E T="52">I,ON,red</E>(70−T<E T="52">OA</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.025.gif"/>
<FP-2>70 = as defined in section 4.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OA*</E> = as defined in section 4.3.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in section 4.1.15 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OA</E> = as defined in section 4.3.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.3 <I>Off-cycle sensible heat loss.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single-stage thermostats, calculate the off-cycle sensible heat loss (L<E T="52">S,OFF</E>) at the maximum fuel input rate. For vented heaters equipped with step-modulating thermostats, calculate L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = X<E T="52">1</E> L<E T="52">S,OFF,red</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,OFF,red</E> = as defined as L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> in section 4.3.3 of this appendix at the reduced fuel input rate.
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped with two stage controls, calculate L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = X<E T="52">1</E> L<E T="52">S,OFF,red</E> + X<E T="52">2</E> L<E T="52">S,OFF,Max</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,OFF,red</E> = as defined as L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> in section 4.3.3 of this appendix at the reduced fuel input rate,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in section 4.1.15 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,OFF,Max</E> = as defined as L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> in section 4.3.3 of this appendix at the maximum fuel input rate.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the off-cycle sensible heat loss (L<E T="52">S,OFF</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.026.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>100 = conversion factor for percent,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.24 = specific heat of air in Btu per pound— °F,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in</E> = fuel input rate, as defined in section 3.1 of this appendix in Btu per minute (as appropriate for the firing rate),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">on</E> = average burner on-time per cycle and is 20 minutes,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Σ m<E T="52">S,OFF</E> (T<E T="52">S,OFF</E> −T<E T="52">RA</E>) = summation of the ten values (for single-stage or step-modulating models) or twenty values (for two tage models) of the quantity, m<E T="52">S,OFF</E> (T<E T="52">S,OFF</E> −T<E T="52">RA</E>), measured in accordance with section 3.3 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = stack gas mass flow rate pounds per minute.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.027.gif"/>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = stack gas temperature measured in accordance with section 3.3 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">RA</E> = average room temperature measured in accordance with section 3.3 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">B</E> = barometric pressure in inches of mercury,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">T</E> = flow rate of the tracer gas through the stack in cubic feet per minute,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">T*</E> = concentration by volume of the active tracer gas in the mixture in percent and is 100 when the tracer gas is a single component gas,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">T</E> = concentration by volume of the active tracer gas in the diluted stack gas in percent,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">T</E> = temperature of the tracer gas entering the flow meter in degrees Fahrenheit, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(T<E T="52">T</E> + 460) = absolute temperature of the tracer gas entering the flow meter in degrees Rankine.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.4 <I>Average outdoor temperature.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single-stage thermostats, the average outdoor temperature (T<E T="52">OA</E>) is 45 °F. For vented heaters equipped with either two stage thermostats or step-modulating thermostats, T<E T="52">OA</E> during the reduced operating mode is obtained from Table 3 or Figure 1 of this appendix. For vented heaters equipped with two stage thermostats, T<E T="52">OA*</E> during the maximum operating mode is obtained from Table 3 or Figure 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.3.5 <I>Off-cycle infiltration heat loss.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single stage thermostats, calculate the off-cycle infiltration heat loss (L<E T="52">I,OFF</E>) at the maximum fuel input rate. For vented heaters equipped with step-modulating thermostats, calculate L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>L<E T="52">I,OFF,red</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,OFF,red</E> = as defined in L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> in section 4.3.5 of this appendix at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters equipped with two stage thermostats, calculate L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>L<E T="52">I,OFF,red</E> + X<E T="52">2</E>L<E T="52">I,OFF,max</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in section 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,OFF,red</E> = as defined as L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> in section 4.3.5 of this appendix at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in section 4.1.15 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,OFF,Max</E> = as defined as L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> in section 4.3.5 of this appendix at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the off-cycle infiltration heat loss (L<E T="52">I,OFF</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.028.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>100 = conversion factor for percent
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.24 = specific heat of air in Btu per pound— °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1.3 = dimensionless factor for converting laboratory measured stack flow to typical field conditions
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.7 = infiltration parameter
</FP-2>
<FP-2>70 = assumed average indoor air temperature, °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OA</E> = average outdoor temperature as defined in section 4.3.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in</E> = fuel input rate, as defined in section 3.1 of this appendix in Btu per minute (as appropriate for the firing rate)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">on</E> = average burner on-time per cycle and is 20 minutes
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Σ m<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = summation of the twenty values of the quantity, m<E T="52">S,OFF</E>, measured in accordance with section 3.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = as defined in section 4.3.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.6 <I>Part-load fuel utilization efficiency.</I> Calculate the part-load fuel utilization efficiency (η<E T="52">u</E>) expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.029.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">j</E> = 2.8, adjustment factor,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">j</E> = jacket loss as defined in section 4.1.5,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">L,A</E> = Latent heat loss, as defined in section 4.1.6 of this appendix (for condensing vented heaters L<E T="52">L,A</E>* for cyclic conditions),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">on</E> = Average burner on time which is 20 minutes,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,ON</E> = On-cycle sensible heat loss, as defined in section 4.3.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,OFF</E> = Off-cycle sensible heat loss, as defined in section 4.3.3 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,ON</E> = On-cycle infiltration heat loss, as defined in section 4.3.2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">I,OFF</E> = Off-cycle infiltration heat loss, as defined in section 4.3.5 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">F</E> = Pilot fraction, as defined in section 4.1.4 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">OFF</E> = average burner off-time per cycle, which is 20 minutes.
</FP-2>
<P>4.3.7 Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency.
</P>
<P>Calculate the AFUE expressed as a percent and defined as:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="30" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er12my97.041.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>2,950 = average number of heating degree days
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS-WT</E> = as defined in 4.1.16 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">u</E> = as defined in 4.3.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in−max</E> = as defined in 4.2.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as specified in 4.2.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in 3.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.083 = as specified in 4.2.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.4 <I>Stack damper effectiveness for vented heaters equipped with electro-mechanical stack dampers.</I> Determine the stack damper effectiveness for vented heaters equipped with electro-mechanical stack dampers (D<E T="52">o</E>), defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">o</E> = 1.62 [1—A<E T="52">D</E> cos Ω/A<E T="52">S</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">D</E> = as defined in 3.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ω = as defined in 3.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">S</E> = as defined in 3.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.5 <I>Addition requirements for vented home heating equipment using indoor air for combustion and draft control.</I> For vented home heating equipment using indoor air for combustion and draft control, D<E T="52">F</E>, as described in section 4.1.2 of this appendix, and D<E T="52">S</E>, as described in section 4.1.3 of this appendix, shall be determined from Table 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.5.1 <I>Optional procedure for determining D</I><E T="54">P</E> <I>for vented home heating equipment.</I> Calculate the ratio (D<E T="52">P</E>) of the rate of flue gas mass through the vented heater during the off-period, M<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>), to the rate of flue gas mass flow during the on-period, M<E T="52">F,SS</E>(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>), and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">P</E> = M<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>)/M<E T="52">F,SS</E>(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For vented heaters in which no draft is maintained during the steady-state or cool down tests, M<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.030.gif"/>
<P>For oil fueled vented heaters in which an imposed draft is maintained, as described in section 3.6 of this appendix, M<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>) = M<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(T*<E T="52">F,OFF</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">F,SS</E> = as defined in section 3.1.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T*<E T="52">F,OFF</E> = flue gas temperature during the off-period measured in accordance with section 3.6 of this appendix in degrees Fahrenheit, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">RA</E> = as defined in section 2.9 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er06ja15.031.gif"/>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">B</E> = barometric pressure measured in accordance with section 3.6 of this appendix in inches of mercury,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">T</E> = flow rate of tracer gas through the vented heater measured in accordance with section 3.6 of this appendix in cubic feet per minute,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">T</E> = concentration by volume of tracer gas present in the flue gas sample measured in accordance with section 3.6 of this appendix in percent,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">T*</E> = concentration by volume of the active tracer gas in the mixture in percent and is 100 when the tracer gas is a single component gas,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">T</E> = the temperature of the tracer gas entering the flow meter measured in accordance with section 3.6 of this appendix in degrees Fahrenheit, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(T<E T="52">T</E> + 460) = absolute temperature of the tracer gas entering the flow meter in degrees Rankine.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>M<E T="52">F,SS</E>(T<E T="52">F,SS</E>) = Q<E T="52">in</E>[R<E T="52">T,F</E>(A/F) + 1]/[60HHV<E T="52">A</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in</E> = as defined in section 3.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">T,F</E> = as defined in section 4.1.7 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A/F = as defined in section 4.2.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HHV<E T="52">A</E> = as defined in section 4.2.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.5.2 <I>Optional procedure for determining off-cycle draft factor for flue gas flow for vented heaters.</I> For systems numbered 1 through 10, calculate the off-cycle draft factor for flue gas flow (D<E T="52">F</E>) defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">F</E> = D<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For systems numbered 11 or 12: D<E T="52">F</E> = D<E T="52">P</E> D<E T="52">O</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For systems complying with section 3.6.1 or 3.6.2, D<E T="52">F</E> = 0.05
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 4.5.1. of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">O</E> = as defined in section 4.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>4.5.3 <I>Optional procedure for determining off-cycle draft factor for stack gas flow for vented heaters.</I> Calculate the off-cycle draft factor for stack gas flow (D<E T="52">S</E>) defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>For systems numbered 1 or 2: D<E T="52">S</E> = 1.0
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For systems numbered 3 or 4: D<E T="52">S</E> = (D<E T="52">P</E> + 0.79)/1.4
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For systems numbered 5 or 6: D<E T="52">S</E> = D<E T="52">O</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For systems numbered 7 or 8 and if D<E T="52">O</E>(S/F)&lt;1:D<E T="52">S</E> = D<E T="52">O</E> D<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For systems numbered 7 or 8 and if D<E T="52">O</E>(S/F)&gt;1:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">S</E> = D<E T="52">O</E> D<E T="52">P</E> + [0.85−D<E T="52">O</E> D<E T="52">P</E>] [D<E T="52">O</E>(S/F)−1]/[S/F−1]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 4.5.1 or 3.6.1 of this appendix, as applicable
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">O</E> = as defined in section 4.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.6 <I>Annual energy consumption.</I>
</P>
<P>4.6.1 <I>National average number of burner operating hours.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single stage controls or manual controls, the national average number of burner operating hours (BOH) is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = 1,416A<E T="52">F</E>A DHR−1,416 B
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>1,416 = national average heating load hours for vented heaters based on 2,950 degree days and 15 °F outdoor design temperature
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">F</E> = 0.7067, adjustment factor to adjust the calculated design heating requirement and heating load hours to the actual heating load experienced by the heating system
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DHR = typical design heating requirements based on Q<E T="52">OUT</E>, from Table 4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT</E> = [(η<E T="52">SS</E>/100)−C<E T="52">j</E> (L<E T="52">j</E>/100)] Q<E T="52">in</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">j</E> = jacket loss as defined in 4.1.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">j</E> = 2.8, adjustment factor as defined in 4.3.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">SS</E> = steady-state efficiency as defined in 4.1.10 of this appendix, percent
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in</E> = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A = 100,000/[341,300P<E T="52">E</E> + (Q<E T="52">in</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>)η<E T="52">u</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = 2.938(Q<E T="52">P</E>) η<E T="52">u</E> A/100,000
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100,000 = factor that accounts for percent and kBtu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">E</E> = as defined in 3.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in 3.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">u</E> = as defined in 4.3.6 of this appendix for vented heaters using the tracer gas method, percent
</FP-2>
<FP1-2> = as defined in 4.2.5 of this appendix for manually controlled vented heaters, percent
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> = 2,950 AFUEη<E T="52">SS</E> Q<E T="52">in</E>/[2,950 η<E T="52">SS</E> Q<E T="52">in</E>—AFUE(2.083)(4,600)Q<E T="52">P</E>], for vented heaters equipped without manual controls and without thermal stack dampers and not using the optional tracer gas method, where:
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = as defined in 4.1.17 of this appendix, percent
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,950 = average number of heating degree days as defined in 4.2.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = average number of non-heating season hours per year as defined in 4.2.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.938 = (4,160/1,416) = ratio of the average length of the heating season in hours to the average heating load hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.083 = as specified in 4.2.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.1.1 For vented heaters equipped with two stage or step modulating controls the national average number of burner operating hours at the reduced operating mode is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = X<E T="52">1</E>E<E T="52">M</E>/Q<E T="52">red-in</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">1</E> = as defined in 4.1.14 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">red-in</E> = as defined in 4.1.11 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">M</E> = average annual energy used during the heating season
</FP-2>
<FP1-2> = (Q<E T="52">in</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>)BOH<E T="52">SS</E> + (8,760−4,600)Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in</E> = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in 3.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined in 4.6.1 of this appendix, in which the term P<E T="52">E</E> in the factor A is increased by the factor R, which is defined in 3.1.3 of this appendix as:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R = 1.3 for two stage controls
</FP-2>
<FP1-2> = 1.4 for step modulating controls when the ratio of minimum-to-maximum fuel input is greater than or equal to 0.7
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> = 1.7 for step modulating controls when the ratio of minimum-to-maximum fuel input is less than 0.7 and greater than or equal to 0.5
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> = 2.2 for step modulating controls when the ratio of minimum-to-maximum fuel input is less than 0.5
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>A = 100,000/[341,300 PE R + (Q<E T="52">in</E> − Q<E T="52">P</E>)η<E T="52">u</E>]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = total number of hours per year
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as specified in 4.2.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.1.2 For vented heaters equipped with two stage or step modulating controls the national average number of burner operating hours at the maximum operating mode (BOH<E T="52">H</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">H</E> = X<E T="52">2</E>E<E T="52">M</E>/Q<E T="52">in</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">2</E> = as defined in 4.1.15 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">M</E> = average annual energy used during the heating season
</FP-2>
<FP1-2> = (Q<E T="52">in</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>)BOH<E T="52">SS</E> + (8,760−4,600)Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in</E> = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.2 <I>Average annual fuel energy for gas or oil fueled vented heaters.</I> For vented heaters equipped with single stage controls or manual controls, the average annual fuel energy consumption (E<E T="52">F</E>) is expressed in Btu per year and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = BOH<E T="52">SS</E> (Q<E T="52">in</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) + 8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined in 4.6.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">in</E> = as defined in 3.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in 3.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = as specified in 4.6.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.2.1 For vented heaters equipped with either two stage or step modulating controls E<E T="52">F</E> is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = E<E T="52">M</E> + 4,600Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">M</E> = as defined in 4.6.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as specified 4.2.6 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in 3.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.3 <I>Average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for vented heaters.</I> For vented heaters with single-stage controls or manual controls, the average annual auxiliary electrical consumption (E<E T="52">AE</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = BOH<E T="52">SS</E>P<E T="52">E</E> + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined in 4.6.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">E</E> = as defined in 3.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in 4.7 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.3.1 For vented heaters with two-stage or modulating controls, E<E T="52">AE</E> is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = (BOH<E T="52">R</E> + BOH<E T="52">H</E>)P<E T="52">E</E> + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in 4.6.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in 4.6.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">E</E> = as defined in 3.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in 4.7 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.4 <I>Average annual energy consumption for vented heaters located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>4.6.4.1 <I>Average annual fuel energy consumption for gas or oil fueled vented home heaters located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I> For gas or oil fueled vented heaters the average annual fuel energy consumption for a specific geographic region and a specific typical design heating requirement (E<E T="52">FR</E>) is expressed in Btu per year and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">FR</E> = (E<E T="52">F</E>−8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>)(HLH/1,416) + 8,760Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = as defined in 4.6.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = as specified in 4.6.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in 3.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH = heating load hours for a specific geographic region determined from the heating load hour map in Figure 3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1,416 = as specified in 4.6.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<P>4.6.4.2 <I>Average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for gas or oil fueled vented home heaters located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I> For gas or oil fueled vented home heaters the average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for a specific geographic region and a specific typical design heating requirement (E<E T="52">AER</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AER</E> = E<E T="52">AE</E> HLH/1,416
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = as defined in 4.6.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH = as defined in 4.6.4.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1,416 = as specified in 4.6.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Off-Cycle Draft Factors for Flue Gas Flow (D<E T="52">F</E>) and for Stack Gas Flow (D<E T="52">S</E>) for Vented Home Heating Equipment Equipped Without Thermal Stack Dampers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(D<E T="52">F</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(D<E T="52">S</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Burner type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Venting system type 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Atmospheric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draft hood or diverter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draft hood or diverter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Atmospheric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barometric draft regulator.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barometric draft regulator.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D<E T="52">O</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Atmospheric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draft hood or diverter with damper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D<E T="52">O</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Draft hood or diverter with damper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D<E T="52">O</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Atmospheric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barometric draft regulator with damper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D<E T="52">O</E>D<E T="52">P</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Barometric draft regulator with damper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Atmospheric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct vent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct vent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D<E T="52">O</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Atmospheric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct vent with damper.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4 D<E T="52">O</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct vent with damper.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Venting systems listed with dampers means electromechanical dampers only.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Values of Higher Heating Value (HHV(<E T="52">A</E>), Stoichiometric Air/Fuel (A/F), Latent Heat Loss (L<E T="52">L,A</E>) and Fuel-Specified Parameters (A, B, C, and D) for Typical Fuels 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fuels 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HHV<E T="52">A</E> (Btu/lb) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A/F 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">L<E T="52">L,A</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No. 1 oil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0679</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0179</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.167 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No. 2 oil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0181</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.167 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Natural gas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0919</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0175</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.171 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manufactured gas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0965</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0155</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.235 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Propane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0841</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0177</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.151 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Butane</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0808</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.143</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Fraction of Heating Load at Reduced Operating Mode (X1) and at Maximum Operating Mode (X2), Average Outdoor Temperatures (TOA and TOA*), and Balance Point Temperature (TC) for Vented Heaters Equipped With Either Two-Stage Thermostats or Step-Modulating Thermostats
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heat output ratio 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">X1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">X2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TOA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TOA*
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">TC
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.20 to 0.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.25 to 0.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.30 to 0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.35 to 0.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.40 to 0.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.45 to 0.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.50 to 0.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.55 to 0.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.60 to 0.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.65 to 0.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.70 to 0.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.75 to 0.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.80 to 0.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.85 to 0.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.90 to 0.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.95 to 0.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> The heat output ratio means the ratio of minimum to maximum heat output rates as defined in 4.1.13.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Average Design Heating Requirements for Vented Heaters With Different Output Capacities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Vented heaters output capacity Q<E T="52">out</E>—(Btu/hr)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average design heating requirements (kBtu/hr)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,000-7,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,500-10,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,500-13,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13,500-16,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16,500-19,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19,500-22,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22,500-26,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26,500-30,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30,500-34,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34,500-38,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38,500-42,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42,500-46,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46,500-51,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">51,500-56,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56,500-61,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">61,500-66,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">52.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66,500-71,499</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">71,500-76,500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/ec04oc91.069.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec04oc91.070.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er12my97.042.gif"/>
<P>4.7 <I>Average annual electric standby mode and off mode energy consumption.</I>
</P>
<P>Calculate the annual electric standby mode and off mode energy consumption, E<E T="52">SO</E>, defined as, in kilowatt-hours:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = ((P<E T="52">W,SB</E> * (4160—BOH)) + (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> * 4600)) * K
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP>P<E T="52">W,SB</E> = vented heater standby mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.7 of this appendix
</FP>
<FP-2>4160 = average heating season hours per year
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = vented heater off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 3.7 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4600 = average non-heating season hours per year
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 0.001 kWh/Wh, conversion factor for watt-hours to kilowatt-hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH = burner operating hours as calculated in section 4.6.1 of this appendix where for single-stage controls or manual controls vented heaters BOH = BOH<E T="52">SS</E> and for vented heaters equipped with two-stage or modulating controls BOH = (BOH<E T="52">R</E> + BOH<E T="52">H</E>).
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 12169, Mar. 28, 1984, as amended at 62 FR 26162, May 12, 1997; 77 FR 74571, Dec. 17, 2012; 80 FR 806, Jan. 6, 2015; 87 FR 30791, May 20, 2022] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix P" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix P to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Pool Heaters




</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>On and after November 27, 2023, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of all pool heaters must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix. Until November 27, 2023, manufacturers must test gas-fired pool heaters in accordance with this appendix, or appendix P as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B revised as of January 1, 2021. Prior to November 27, 2023, if a manufacturer makes representations of standby mode and off mode energy consumption, then testing must also include the provisions of this appendix, or appendix P as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B revised as of January 1, 2021, related to standby mode and off mode energy consumption.</P></NOTE>
<P>1. <I>Definitions:</I>
</P>
<P><I>Active electrical power</I> means the maximum electrical power consumption in active mode for an electric pool heater.
</P>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means the condition during the pool heating season in which the pool heater is connected to the power source, and the main burner, electric resistance element, or heat pump is activated to heat pool water.
</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of performance (COP),</I> as applied to heat pump pool heaters, means the ratio of heat output in kW to the total power input in kW.
</P>
<P><I>Electric heat pump pool heater</I> means an appliance designed for heating nonpotable water and employing a compressor, water-cooled condenser, and outdoor air coil.
</P>
<P><I>Electric resistance pool heater</I> means an appliance designed for heating nonpotable water and employing electric resistance heating elements.
</P>
<P><I>Fossil fuel-fired pool heater</I> means an appliance designed for heating nonpotable water and employing gas or oil burners.
</P>
<P><I>Hybrid pool heater</I> means an appliance designed for heating nonpotable water and employing both a heat pump (compressor, water-cooled condenser, and outdoor air coil) and a fossil fueled burner as heating sources.
</P>
<P><I>Input capacity</I> means the maximum fuel input rate for a fossil fuel-fired pool heater.
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means the condition during the pool non-heating season in which the pool heater is connected to the power source, and neither the main burner, nor the electric resistance elements, nor the heat pump is activated, and the seasonal off switch, if present, is in the “off” position.
</P>
<P><I>Output capacity</I> for an electric pool or spa heater means the maximum rate at which energy is transferred to the water.
</P>
<P><I>Seasonal off switch</I> means a switch that results in different energy consumption in off mode as compared to standby mode.
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means the condition during the pool heating season in which the pool heater is connected to the power source, and neither the main burner, nor the electric resistance elements, nor the heat pump is activated.






</P>
<P>2. <I>Test method.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1 <I>Active mode.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1.1 <I>Fossil fuel-fired pool heaters.</I> The test method for testing fossil fuel-fired pool heaters in active mode is as specified in section 2.10 of ANSI Z21.56 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), with the following additional clarifications.
</P>
<P>1. Burner input rate is adjusted as specified in section 2.3.3 of ANSI Z21.56,
</P>
<P>2. Equilibrium is defined as in section 9.1.3 of ASHRAE 146 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3)
</P>
<P>3. Units are only to be tested using a recirculating loop and a pump if: the use of the recirculating loop and pump are listed as required; a minimum flow rate is specified in the installation or operation manual provided with the unit; the pump is packaged with the unit by the manufacturer; or such use is required for testing.
</P>
<P>4. A water temperature rise of less than 40 °F is allowed only as specified in the installation or operation manual(s) provided with the unit.
</P>
<P>2.1.2 <I>Electric resistance pool heaters.</I> The test method for testing electric resistance pool heaters in active mode is as specified in ASHRAE 146 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.1.3 <I>Electric heat pump pool heaters.</I> The test method for testing electric heat pump pool heaters in active mode is as specified in AHRI 1160 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), which references ASHRAE 146 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>2.1.4 <I>Hybrid pool heaters.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Standby mode.</I> The test method for testing the energy consumption of pool heaters in standby mode is as described in sections 3 through 5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Off mode.</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.1 <I>Pool heaters with a seasonal off switch.</I> For pool heaters with a seasonal off switch, no off mode test is required.
</P>
<P>2.3.2 <I>Pool heaters without a seasonal off switch.</I> For pool heaters without a seasonal off switch, the test method for testing the energy consumption of the pool heater is as described in sections 3 through 5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Test conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1 <I>Active mode.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1 <I>Fossil fuel-fired pool heaters.</I> Establish the test conditions specified in section 2.10 of ANSI Z21.56 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.1.2 <I>Electric resistance pool heaters.</I> Establish the test conditions specified in section 9.1.4 of ASHRAE 146 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.1.3 <I>Electric heat pump pool heaters.</I> Establish the test conditions specified in section 5 of AHRI 1160. The air temperature surrounding the unit shall be at the “High Air Temperature—Mid Humidity (63% RH)” level specified in section 6 of AHRI 1160 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) (80.6 °F [27.0 °C] Dry-Bulb, 71.2 °F [21.8 °C]).
</P>
<P>3.1.4 <I>Hybrid pool heaters.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Standby mode and off mode.</I> After completing the active mode tests described in sections 3.1 and 4.1 of this appendix, reduce the thermostat setting to a low enough temperature to put the pool heater into standby mode. Reapply the energy sources and operate the pool heater in standby mode for 60 minutes.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Measurements</I>
</P>
<P>4.1 <I>Active mode</I>
</P>
<P>4.1.1 <I>Fossil fuel-fired pool heaters.</I> Measure the quantities delineated in section 2.10 of ANSI Z21.56 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). The measurement of energy consumption for oil-fired pool heaters in Btu is to be carried out in appropriate units (<I>e.g.,</I> gallons).
</P>
<P>4.1.2 <I>Electric resistance pool heaters.</I> Measure the quantities delineated in section 9.1.4 of ASHRAE 146 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) during and at the end of the 30-minute period when water is flowing through the pool heater.
</P>
<P>4.1.3 <I>Electric heat pump pool heaters.</I> Measure the quantities delineated in section 9.1.1 and Table 2 of ASHRAE 146 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). Record the elapsed time, t<E T="52">HP</E>, from the start of electric power metering to the end, in minutes.
</P>
<P>4.1.4 <I>Hybrid pool heaters.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Standby mode.</I> For all pool heaters, record the average electric power consumption during the standby mode test, P<E T="52">W,SB,</E> in W, in accordance with section 5 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). For fossil fuel-fired pool heaters, record the fossil fuel energy consumption during the standby test, Q<E T="52">p</E>, in Btu. (Milli-volt electrical consumption need not be considered in units so equipped.) Ambient temperature and voltage specifications in section 4.1 of this appendix shall apply to this standby mode testing. Round the recorded standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) to the second decimal place, and for loads greater than or equal to 10 W, record at least three significant figures.
</P>
<P>4.3 <I>Off mode.</I>
</P>
<P>4.3.1 <I>Pool heaters with a seasonal off switch.</I> For pool heaters with a seasonal off switch, the average electric power consumption during the off mode, P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = 0, and the fossil fuel energy consumed during the off mode, Q<E T="52">off</E> = 0.
</P>
<P>4.3.2 <I>Pool heaters without a seasonal off switch.</I> For all pool heaters without a seasonal off switch, record the average electric power consumption during the standby/off mode test, P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = P<E T="52">W,SB,</E> in W, in accordance with section 5 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). For fossil fuel-fired pool heaters without a seasonal off switch, record the fossil fuel energy consumption during the off mode test, Q<E T="52">off</E> (= Q<E T="52">p</E>), in Btu. (Milli-volt electrical consumption need not be considered in units so equipped.) Ambient temperature and voltage specifications in section 4.1 of this appendix shall apply to this off mode testing. Round the recorded off mode power (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) to the second decimal place, and for loads greater than or equal to 10 W, record at least three significant figures.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Calculations.</I>
</P>
<P>5.1 <I>Thermal efficiency.</I>
</P>
<P>5.1.1 <I>Fossil fuel-fired pool heaters.</I> Calculate the thermal efficiency, E<E T="52">t</E> (expressed as a percent), as specified in section 2.10 of ANSI Z21.56 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). The expression of fuel consumption for oil-fired pool heaters shall be in Btu.
</P>
<P>5.1.2 <I>Electric resistance pool heaters.</I> Calculate the thermal efficiency, E<E T="52">t</E> (expressed as a percent), as specified in section 11.1 of ASHRAE 146 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>5.1.3 <I>Electric heat pump pool heaters.</I> Calculate the COP according to section 11.1 of ASHRAE 146. Calculate the thermal efficiency, E<E T="52">t</E> (expressed as a percent): E<E T="52">t</E> = COP.
</P>
<P>5.1.4 <I>Hybrid pool heaters.</I> [Reserved]


</P>
<P>5.2 <I>Average annual fossil fuel energy for pool heaters.</I> For electric resistance and electric heat pump pool heaters, the average annual fuel energy for pool heaters, E<E T="52">F</E> = 0.
</P>
<P>For fossil fuel-fired pool heaters, the average annual fuel energy for pool heaters, E<E T="52">F</E>, is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = BOH Q<E T="52">IN</E> + (POH−BOH) Q<E T="52">PR</E> + (8760 − POH) Q<E T="52">off,R</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH = average number of burner operating hours = 104 h,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>POH = average number of pool operating hours = 4,464 h,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = input capacity, in Btu/h, calculated as the quantity CF x Q x H in the equation for thermal efficiency in section 2.10.1 of ANSI Z21.56 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and divided by 0.5 h (For electric resistance and electric heat pump pool heaters, Q<E T="52">IN</E> = 0.),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">PR</E> = average energy consumption rate of continuously operating pilot light, if employed, = (Q<E T="52">P</E>/1 h),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = energy consumption of continuously operating pilot light, if employed, as measured in section 4.2 of this appendix, in Btu,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8760 = number of hours in one year,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">off,R</E> = average off mode fossil fuel energy consumption rate = Q<E T="52">off</E>/(1 h), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">off</E> = off mode energy consumption as defined in section 4.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3 <I>Average annual electrical energy consumption for pool heaters.</I> The average annual electrical energy consumption for pool heaters, E<E T="52">AE</E>, is expressed in Btu and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>(1) E<E T="52">AE</E> = E<E T="52">AE,active</E> + E<E T="52">AE,standby,off</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(2) E<E T="52">AE,active</E> = BOH * PE
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(3) E<E T="52">AE,standby,off</E> = (POH−BOH) P<E T="52">W,SB</E>(Btu/h) + (8760−POH) P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>(Btu/h)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE,active</E> = electrical consumption in the active mode,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE,standby,off</E> = auxiliary electrical consumption in the standby mode and off mode,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE = active electrical power, calculated as:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 2E<E T="52">c</E>, for fossil fuel-fired heaters tested according to section 2.10.1 of ANSI Z21.56 and for electric resistance pool heaters, in Btu/h,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 3.412 PE<E T="52">aux,rated</E>, for fossil fuel-fired heaters tested according to section 2.10.2 of ANSI Z21.56, in Btu/h,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= E<E T="52">c,HP</E> * (60/t<E T="52">HP</E>), for electric heat pump pool heaters, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = electrical consumption in Btu per 30 min. This includes the electrical consumption (converted to Btus) of the pool heater and, if present, a recirculating pump during the 30-minute thermal efficiency test. The 30-minute thermal efficiency test is defined in section 2.10.1 of ANSI Z21.56 for fossil fuel-fired pool heaters and section 9.1.4 of ASHRAE 146 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) for electric resistance pool heaters. 2 = conversion factor to convert unit from per 30 min. to per h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">aux,rated</E> = nameplate rating of auxiliary electrical equipment of heater, in Watts
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c,HP</E> = electrical consumption of the electric heat pump pool heater (converted to equivalent unit of Btu), including the electrical energy to the recirculating pump if used, during the thermal efficiency test, as defined in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 146, in Btu.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">HP</E> = elapsed time of data recording during the thermal efficiency test on electric heat pump pool heater, as defined in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 146, in minutes.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH = as defined in section 5.2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>POH = as defined in section 5.2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,SB</E> (Btu/h) = electrical energy consumption rate during standby mode expressed in Btu/h = 3.412 P<E T="52">W,SB</E>, Btu/h,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,SB</E> = as defined in section 4.2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> (Btu/h) = electrical energy consumption rate during off mode expressed in Btu/h = 3.412 P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>, Btu/h, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = as defined in section 4.3 of this appendix.




</FP-2>
<P>5.4 <I>Integrated thermal efficiency.</I>
</P>
<P>5.4.1 Calculate the seasonal useful output of the pool heater as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">OUT</E> = BOH[(E<E T="52">t</E>/100)(Q<E T="52">IN</E> + PE)]
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>BOH = as defined in section 5.2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = thermal efficiency as defined in section 5.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 5.2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE = as defined in section 5.3 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = conversion factor, from percent to fraction.


</FP-2>
<P>5.4.2 Calculate the annual input to the pool heater as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">IN</E> = E<E T="52">F</E> + E<E T="52">AE</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = as defined in section 5.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = as defined in section 5.3 of this appendix.




</FP-2>
<P>5.4.3 Calculate the pool heater integrated thermal efficiency (TE<E T="52">I</E>) (in percent).
</P>
<FP-2>TE<E T="52">I</E> = 100(E<E T="52">OUT</E>/E<E T="52">IN</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">OUT</E> = as defined in section 5.4.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 5.4.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = conversion factor, from fraction to percent.


</FP-2>
<P>5.5 <I>Output capacity for electric pool heaters.</I>
</P>
<P>5.5.1 Calculate the output capacity of an electric heat pump pool heater as:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT,HP</E> = k * W * (T<E T="52">ohp</E>−T<E T="52">ihp</E>) * (60/t<E T="52">HP</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where k is the specific heat of water, W is the mass of water collected during the test, T<E T="52">ohp</E> is the average outlet water temperature during the standard rating test, T<E T="52">ihp</E> is the average inlet water temperature during the standard rating test, all as defined in section 11.2 of ASHRAE 146, and t<E T="52">HP</E> is the elapsed time in minutes of data recording during the thermal efficiency test on electric heat pump pool heater, as defined in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 146.


</FP-2>
<P>5.5.2 Calculate the output capacity of an electric resistance pool heater as:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT,ER</E> = k * W * (T<E T="52">mo</E>−T<E T="52">mi</E>) * (60/30)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where k is the specific heat of water, W is the mass of water collected during the test, T<E T="52">mo</E> is the average outlet water temperature recorded during the primary test, and T<E T="52">mi</E> is the average inlet water temperature record during the primary test, all as defined in section 11.1 of ASHRAE 146, and 60/30 is the conversion factor to convert unit from per 30 minutes to per hour.


</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 813, Jan. 6, 2015, as amended at 88 FR 34703, May 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix Q" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix Q to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Fluorescent Lamp Ballasts
</HEAD>
<P><I>Note regarding effective date:</I> After October 14, 2020 and prior to March 15, 2021 any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of fluorescent lamp ballasts must be in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix or the test procedures as they appeared in appendix Q to this subpart revised as of January 1, 2020. On or after March 15, 2021, any representations, including certifications of compliance for ballasts subject to any energy conservation standard, made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of fluorescent lamp ballasts must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference ANSI C78.81-2016, ANSI C78.375A, ANSI C78.901-2016, ANSI C82.1, ANSI 82.2, ANSI 82.3, ANSI 82.11, ANSI C82.13, ANSI 82.77, IEC 60081, and IEC 62301, each in their entirety in § 430.3; however, only enumerated provisions of ANSI C78.375A, ANSI C82.2, and IEC 62301 are applicable to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) ANSI C78.375A, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 4, Ambient conditions for temperature measurement, as specified in section 2.4.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 9, Electrical instruments, as specified in sections 2.2.1, 2.2.2, and 2.2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) ANSI C82.2, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3, Pertinent measurements, as specified in section 2.4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 4, Electrical supply characteristics—test ballast measurement circuits, as specified in section 2.4.1 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 7, Test measurements circuits, as specified in sections 2.5.6, 2.5.7, and 2.5.8 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) IEC 62301 as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5, Measurements, as specified in sections 3.4.3 and 3.4.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>1. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>1.1. <I>Average total lamp arc power</I> means the sample mean of the total lamp arc power of the ballast units tested.
</P>
<P>1.2. <I>Dimming ballast</I> means a ballast that is designed and marketed to vary its output and that can achieve an output less than or equal to 50 percent of its maximum electrical output.
</P>
<P>1.3. <I>High frequency ballast</I> is as defined in ANSI C82.13 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>1.4. <I>Instant-start</I> is the starting method used in instant-start systems as defined in ANSI C82.13, as typically indicated on publicly available documents of a fluorescent lamp ballast (<I>e.g.,</I> product literature, catalogs, and packaging labels).
</P>
<P>1.5. <I>Low-frequency ballast</I> is a fluorescent lamp ballast that operates at a supply frequency of 50 to 60 Hz and operates the lamp at the same frequency as the supply.
</P>
<P>1.6. <I>Programmed-start</I> is the starting method used in a programmed-start system as defined in ANSI C82.13, as typically indicated on publicly available documents of a fluorescent lamp ballast (<I>e.g.,</I> product literature, catalogs, and packaging labels).
</P>
<P>1.7. <I>Rapid-start</I> is the starting method used in rapid-start type systems as defined in ANSI C82.13, as typically indicated on publicly available documents of a fluorescent lamp ballast (<I>e.g.,</I> product literature, catalogs, and packaging labels).
</P>
<P>1.8. <I>Reference lamp</I> is a fluorescent lamp that meets the operating conditions of a reference lamp as defined by ANSI C82.13.
</P>
<P>1.9. <I>Residential ballast</I> means a fluorescent lamp ballast that meets Federal Communications Commission (FCC) consumer limits as set forth in 47 CFR part 18 and is designed and marketed for use only in residential applications.
</P>
<P>1.10. <I>RMS</I> is the root mean square of a varying quantity.
</P>
<P>1.11 <I>Sign Ballast</I> means a ballast that has an Underwriters Laboratories Inc. Type 2 rating and is designed and marketed for use only in outdoor signs.
</P>
<HD1>2. Active Mode Procedure for Measuring BLE at Full Light Output
</HD1>
<P>2.1. Where ANSI C82.2 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) references ANSI C82.1, use ANSI C82.1 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) for testing low-frequency ballasts and use ANSI C82.11 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) for testing high-frequency ballasts. In addition when applying ANSI C82.2, use the standards ANSI C78.375A, ANSI C78.81-2016, ANSI C82.1, ANSI C82.11, ANSI C82.13, ANSI C82.3, ANSI C82.77, and ANSI C78.901-2016 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) instead of the normative references in ANSI 82.2. Specifications in referenced standards that are recommended, that “shall” or “should” be met, or that are not clearly mandatory, are mandatory. In cases where there is a conflict between any industry standard(s) and this appendix, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the industry standard(s).
</P>
<HD2>2.2. Instruments
</HD2>
<P>2.2.1. All instruments must meet the specifications of section 9 of ANSI C78.375A.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. <I>Power Analyzer.</I> In addition to the specifications in section 9 of ANSI C78.375A, the power analyzer must have a maximum 100 pF capacitance to ground and frequency response between 40 Hz and 1 MHz.
</P>
<P>2.2.3. <I>Current Probe.</I> In addition to the specifications in section 9 of ANSI C78.375A, the current probe must be galvanically isolated and have frequency response between 40 Hz and 20 MHz.
</P>
<HD2>2.3. Test Setup
</HD2>
<P>2.3.1. Connect the ballast to a main power source and to the fluorescent lamp(s) as specified in this section. Ensure the ballast is connected to fluorescent lamp(s) according to any manufacturer's wiring instructions on or sold with each unit (including those provided online). To test a low-frequency ballast, follow ANSI C82.1 but disregard section 5.3 of ANSI C82.1. To test a high-frequency ballast, follow ANSI C82.11 but disregard sections 5.3.1 and 5.13 and Annex D of ANSI C82.11.
</P>
<P>2.3.2. In the test setup, all wires used in the apparatus, including any wires from the ballast to the lamps and from the lamps to the measuring devices, must meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>2.3.2.1. Use the wires provided by the ballast manufacturer and only the minimum wire length necessary to reach both ends of each lamp. If the wire lengths supplied with the ballast are too short to reach both ends of each lamp, add the minimum additional wire length necessary to reach both ends of each lamp, using wire of the same wire gauge(s) as the wire supplied with the ballast. If no wiring is provided with the ballast, use 18 gauge or thicker wire.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.2. Keep wires loose. Do not shorten or allow bundling of any wires. Separate all wires from each other, and ground them to prevent parasitic capacitance.
</P>
<P>2.3.3. Test each ballast with only one fluorescent lamp type. Select the one type of fluorescent lamp for testing as follows:
</P>
<P>2.3.3.1. Each fluorescent lamp must meet the specifications of a reference lamp as defined by ANSI C82.13, be seasoned at least 12 hours, and be stabilized as specified in 2.5.2.1 of this appendix. Test each reference lamp with a reference ballast that meets the criteria of ANSI C82.3. For low frequency ballasts that operate:
</P>
<P>(a) 32 W 4-foot medium bipin T8 lamps, use the following reference lamp specifications: 30.8 W, arc wattage; 1.7 W, approximate cathode wattage (with 3.6 V on each cathode); 32.5 W, total wattage; 137 V, voltage; 0.265 A, current. Test the selected reference lamp with the following reference ballast specifications: 300 V, rated input voltage; 0.265 A, reference current; 910 ohms, impedance. Use the following cathode heat requirements for rapid start: 3.6 V nominal, voltage; 2.5 V min, 4.4 V max, limits during operation; 11.0 ohms ± 0.1 ohms, dummy load resistor; 3.4 V min, 4.5 V max, voltage across dummy load.
</P>
<P>(b) 59 W 8-foot single pin T8 lamps, use the following reference lamp specifications: 60.1 W, arc wattage; 270.3 V, voltage; 0.262 A, current. Test the selected reference lamp with the following reference ballast specifications: 625 V, rated input voltage; 0.260 A, reference current; 1960 ohms, impedance.
</P>
<P>(c) 32 W 2-foot U-shaped medium bipin T8 lamps, use the following reference lamp specifications: 30.5 W, arc wattage; 1.7 W, approximate cathode wattage (with 3.6 V on each cathode); 32.2 W, total wattage; 137 V, voltage; 0.265 A, current. Test the selected reference lamp with the following reference ballast specifications: 300 V, rated input voltage; 0.265 A, reference current; 910 ohms, impedance. Use the following cathode heat requirements for rapid start: 3.6 V nominal, voltage; 2.5 V min, 4.4 V max, limits during operation; 11.0 ohms ± 0.1 ohms, dummy load resistor; 3.4 V min, 4.5 V max, voltage across dummy load.
</P>
<P>2.3.3.2 For any sign ballast designed and marketed to operate both T8 and T12 lamps, use a T12 lamp as specified in Table 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.3.3. For any ballast designed and marketed to operate lamps of multiple base types, select lamp(s) of one base type, in the following order of decreasing preference: Medium bipin, miniature bipin, single pin, or recessed double contact.
</P>
<P>2.3.3.4. After selecting the base type (per section 2.3.3.3), select the diameter of the reference lamp. Any ballast designed and marketed to operate lamps of multiple diameters, except for any sign ballast capable of operating both T8 and T12 lamps, must be tested with lamps of one of those diameters, selected in the following order of decreasing preference: T8, T5, or T12.
</P>
<P>2.3.3.5. Connect the ballast to the maximum number of lamps (lamp type as determined by 2.3.3.2, 2.3.3.3, and 2.3.3.4 of this section) the ballast is designed and marketed to operate simultaneously.
</P>
<P>For any ballast designed and marketed to operate both 4-foot medium bipin lamps and 2-foot U-shaped lamps, test with the maximum number of 4-foot medium bipin lamp(s).
</P>
<P>2.3.3.6. Test each ballast with the lamp type specified in Table A of this section that corresponds to the lamp diameter and base type the ballast is designed and marketed to operate.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Section 2.3.3.6—Lamp-and-Ballast Pairings and Frequency Adjustment Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Ballast type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Frequency adjustment factor
<br/>(β)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp diameter and base
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal lamp
<br/>wattage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Low-
<br/>frequency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">High-
<br/>frequency
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ballasts that operate straight-shaped lamps (commonly referred to as 4-foot medium bipin lamps) with medium bipin bases and a nominal overall length of 48 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T8 MBP (Data Sheet 7881-ANSI-1005-4) *
<br/>T12 MBP (Data Sheet 7881-ANSI-1006-1) *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
<br/>34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.94
<br/>0.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
<br/>1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ballasts that operate U-shaped lamps (commonly referred to as 2-foot U-shaped lamps) with medium bipin bases and a nominal overall length between 22 and 25 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T8 MBP (Data Sheet 78901-ANSI-4027-2) *
<br/>T12 MBP **</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
<br/>34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.94
<br/>0.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
<br/>1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ballasts that operate lamps (commonly referred to as 8-foot-high output lamps) with recessed double contact bases and a nominal overall length of 96 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T8 HO RDC (Data Sheet 7881-ANSI-1501-2) *
<br/>T12 HO RDC (Data Sheet 7881-ANSI-1017-1) *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86
<br/>95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92
<br/>0.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
<br/>1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ballasts that operate lamps (commonly referred to as 8-foot slimline lamps) with single pin bases and a nominal overall length of 96 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T8 slimline SP (Data Sheet 7881-ANSI-1505-1) *
<br/>T12 slimline SP (Data Sheet 7881-ANSI-3006-1) *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59
<br/>60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95
<br/>0.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
<br/>1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ballasts that operate straight-shaped lamps (commonly referred to as 4-foot miniature bipin standard output lamps) with miniature bipin bases and a nominal length between 45 and 48 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T5 SO Mini-BP (Data Sheet 60081-IEC-6640-7) *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ballasts that operate straight-shaped lamps (commonly referred to as 4-foot miniature bipin high output lamps) with miniature bipin bases and a nominal length between 45 and 48 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T5 HO Mini-BP (Data Sheet 60081-IEC-6840-6) *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sign ballasts that operate lamps (commonly referred to as 8-foot high output lamps) with recessed double contact bases and a nominal overall length of 96 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T8 HO RDC (Data Sheet 7881-ANSI-1501-2) *
<br/>T12 HO RDC (Data Sheet 7881-ANSI-1019-1) *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86
<br/>† 110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92
<br/>0.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
<br/>1.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">MBP, Mini-BP, RDC, and SP represent medium bipin, miniature bipin, recessed double contact, and single pin, respectively.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* Data Sheet corresponds to ANSI C78.81-2016, ANSI C78.901-2016, or IEC 60081 page number (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** No ANSI or IEC Data Sheet exists for 34 W T12 MBP U-shaped lamps. For ballasts designed and marketed to operate only T12 2-foot U-shaped lamps with MBP bases and a nominal overall length between 22 and 25 inches, select T12 U-shaped lamps designed and marketed as having a nominal wattage of 34 W.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">† This lamp type is commonly marketed as 110 W; however, the ANSI C78.81-2016 Data Sheet (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) lists nominal wattage of 113 W. Test with specifications for operation at 0.800 amperes (A).</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>2.3.4. Test Circuits
</HD3>
<P>2.3.4.1. The power analyzer test setup must have exactly n + 1 channels, where n is the maximum number of lamps (lamp type as determined by sections 2.3.3.2, 2.3.3.3, and 2.3.3.4 of this appendix) a ballast is designed and marketed to operate. Use the minimum number of power analyzers possible during testing. Synchronize all power analyzers. A system may be used to synchronize the power analyzers.
</P>
<P>2.3.4.2. <I>Lamp Arc Voltage.</I> Attach leads from the power analyzer to each fluorescent lamp according to Figure 1 of this section for rapid- and programmed-start ballasts; Figure 2 of this section for instant-start ballasts operating single pin (SP) lamps; and Figure 3 of this section for instant-start ballasts operating medium bipin (MBP), miniature bipin (mini-BP), or recessed double contact (RDC) lamps. The programmed- and rapid-start ballast test setup includes two 1000 ohm resistors placed in parallel with the lamp pins to create a midpoint from which to measure lamp arc voltage.
</P>
<P>2.3.4.3. <I>Lamp Arc Current.</I> Position a current probe on each fluorescent lamp according to Figure 1 of this section for rapid- and programmed-start ballasts; Figure 2 of this section for instant-start ballasts operating SP lamps; and Figure 3 of this section for instant-start ballasts operating MBP, mini-BP, and RDC lamps.
</P>
<P>For the lamp arc current measurement, set the full transducer ratio in the power analyzer to match the current probe to the power analyzer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14se20.006.gif"/>
<FP-2><I>Where:</I> I<E T="52">in</E> is the current through the current transducer, V<E T="52">out</E> is the voltage out of the transducer, R<E T="52">in</E> is the power analyzer impedance, and R<E T="52">s</E> is the current probe output impedance.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er14se20.007.gif"/>
<HD2>2.4. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P>2.4.1. Establish and maintain test conditions for testing fluorescent lamp ballasts in accordance with sections 3 and 4 of ANSI C82.2.
</P>
<P>2.4.2. <I>Room Temperature and Air Circulation.</I> Maintain the test area at 25 ±1 °C, with minimal air movement as defined in section 4 of ANSI C78.375A.
</P>
<P>2.4.3. <I>Input Voltage.</I> For any ballast designed and marketed for operation at only one input voltage, test at that specified voltage. For any ballast that is neither a residential ballast nor a sign ballast but is designed and marketed for operation at multiple voltages, test the ballast at 277 V ±0.1%. For any residential ballast or sign ballast designed and marketed for operation at multiple voltages, test the ballast at 120 V ±0.1%.
</P>
<HD2>2.5. Test Method
</HD2>
<P>2.5.1. Connect the ballast to the selected fluorescent lamps (as determined in section 2.3.3 of this appendix) and to measurement instrumentation as specified in the Test Setup in section 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.5.2. Determine stable operating conditions according to Option 1 or Option 2.
</P>
<P>2.5.2.1. Option 1. Operate the ballast for at least 15 minutes before determining stable operating conditions. Determine stable operating conditions by measuring lamp arc voltage, current, and power once per minute in accordance with the setup described in section 2.3 of this appendix. The system is stable once the difference between the maximum and minimum for each value of lamp arc voltage, current, and power divided by the average value of the measurements do not exceed one percent over a four minute moving window. Once stable operating conditions are reached, measure each of the parameters described in sections 2.5.3 through 2.5.9 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.5.2.2 Option 2. Determine stable operating conditions for lamp arc voltage, current, and power according to steps 1 through 6 of section D.2.1 in Annex D of ANSI C82.11.
</P>
<P>2.5.3. <I>Lamp Arc Voltage.</I> Measure lamp arc voltage in volts (RMS) using the setup in section 2.3.4.2.
</P>
<P>2.5.4. <I>Lamp Arc Current.</I> Measure lamp arc current in amps (RMS) using the setup in section 2.3.4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.5.5. <I>Lamp Arc Power.</I> The power analyzer must calculate output power by using the measurements from sections 2.5.3 and 2.5.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.5.6. <I>Input Power.</I> Measure the input power in watts to the ballast in accordance with section 7 of ANSI C82.2 (disregard references to Figure 1 and Figure 3).
</P>
<P>2.5.7. <I>Input Voltage.</I> Measure the input voltage in volts (RMS) to the ballast in accordance with section 7 of ANSI C82.2 (disregard references to Figure 1 and Figure 3).
</P>
<P>2.5.8. <I>Input Current.</I> Measure the input current in amps (RMS) to the ballast in accordance with section 7 of ANSI C82.2 (disregard references to Figure 1 and Figure 3).
</P>
<P>2.5.9. <I>Lamp Operating Frequency.</I> Measure the frequency of the waveform delivered from the ballast to any lamp used in the test in accordance with the setup in section 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>2.6. Calculations
</HD2>
<P>2.6.1. Calculate ballast luminous efficiency (BLE) as follows (do not round values of total lamp arc power and input power prior to calculation):
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14se20.008.gif"/>
<FP-2><I>Where:</I> Total Lamp Arc Power is the sum of the lamp arc powers for all lamps operated by the ballast as measured in section 2.5.5 of this appendix, Input Power is as determined by section 2.5.6 of this appendix, and β is equal to the frequency adjustment factor in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>2.6.2. Calculate Power Factor (PF) as follows (do not round values of input power, input voltage, and input current prior to calculation):
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14se20.009.gif"/>
<FP-2><I>Where:</I> Input Power is measured in accordance with section 2.5.6 of this appendix, Input Voltage is measured in accordance with section 2.5.7 of this appendix, and Input Current is measured in accordance with section 2.5.8 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<HD1>3. Standby Mode Procedure
</HD1>
<P>3.1. The measurement of standby mode power is required to be performed only if a manufacturer makes any representations with respect to the standby mode power use of the fluorescent lamp ballast. When there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). Specifications in referenced standards that are not clearly mandatory are mandatory. Manufacturer's instructions, such as “instructions for use” referenced in IEC 62301 mean the manufacturer's instructions that come packaged with or appear on the unit, including on a label. It may include an online manual if specifically referenced (<I>e.g.,</I> by date or version number) either on a label or in the packaged instructions. Instructions that appear on the unit take precedence over instructions available electronically, such as through the internet.
</P>
<HD2>3.2. Test Setup
</HD2>
<P>3.2.1. Take all measurements with instruments as specified in section 2.2 of this appendix. Fluorescent lamp ballasts that are designed and marketed for connection to control devices must be tested with all commercially available compatible control devices connected in all possible configurations. For each configuration, a separate measurement of standby power must be made in accordance with section 3.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2.2. Connect each ballast to the maximum number of lamp(s) as specified in section 2.3 (specifications in 2.3.3.1 are optional) of this appendix. Note: ballast operation with reference lamp(s) is not required.
</P>
<HD2>3.3. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P>3.3.1. Establish and maintain test conditions in accordance with section 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>3.4. Test Method and Measurements
</HD2>
<P>3.4.1. Turn on all of the lamps at full light output.
</P>
<P>3.4.2. Send a signal to the ballast instructing it to have zero light output using the appropriate ballast communication protocol or system for the ballast being tested.
</P>
<P>3.4.3. Stabilize the ballast prior to measurement using one of the methods as specified in section 5 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>3.4.4. Measure the standby mode energy consumption in watts using one of the methods as specified in section 5 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 56494, Sept. 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix R" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix R to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring Electrical and Photometric Characteristics of General Service Fluorescent Lamps, Incandescent Reflector Lamps, and General Service Incandescent Lamps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>After September 30, 2022 and prior to February 27, 2023 any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of general service fluorescent lamps, incandescent reflector lamps, and general service incandescent lamps must be in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix or the test procedures as they appeared in appendix R to subpart B of part 430 revised as of January 1, 2021. On or after February 27, 2023, any representations, including certifications of compliance for lamps subject to any energy conservation standard, made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of general service fluorescent lamps, incandescent reflector lamps, and general service incandescent lamps must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire standard for: IES LM-9-20, IES LM-20-20, IES LM-45-20, IES LM-49-20, IES LM-54-20, IES LM-58-20, IES LM-78-20, ANSI C78.375A-2020, ANSI C78.81-2010, ANSI C78.901-2005, ANSI C78.81-2016, ANSI C78.901-2016, ANSI C82.3, CIE 15:2018, and CIE 13.3; however, only enumerated provisions of IES LM-9-20, IES LM-20-20, IES LM-45-20, IES LM-49-20, IES LM-58-20, and CIE 13.3, are applicable to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<HD3>0.1 IES LM-9-20
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3.0 “Nomenclature and Definitions” as referenced in section 2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 6.2.2 “Pre-burning” and Section 6.2.4 “Lamp Circuit Switching” as referenced in section 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.0 “Ambient and Physical Conditions”, Section 5.0 “Electrical Conditions”, Section 6.1 “Lamp Orientation”, Section 6.5 “Electrical Settings”, and Section 6.6 “Electrical Instrumentation” as referenced in section 4.1.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6.1 “Lamp Orientation”, Section 6.2 “Lamp Stabilization”, Section 6.3 “Use of the “Peak Lumen” Method”, and Section 6.4 “Unusual Conditions” as referenced in section 4.2.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7.0 “Photometric Test Procedures” as referenced in section 4.2.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 7.6 “Color Measurements” as referenced in sections 4.2.1.5 and 4.2.1.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 IES LM-20-20
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3.0 “Definitions” as referenced in section 2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4.0 “Ambient and Physical Conditions” and Section 5.0 “Electrical and Photometric Test Conditions” as referenced in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6.0 “Lamp Test Procedures” as referenced in sections 4.2.3.1 and 6.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7.0 “Photometric Characterization by Measurement of Intensity Distribution”, Section 8.0 “Total Flux Measurement by Integrating Sphere Method”, and Section 8.2 “Exclusion of Undirected Light by Using a Luminaire Inside an Integrating Sphere” as referenced in section 4.2.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.3 IES LM-45-20
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3.0 “Nomenclature and Definitions” as referenced in section 2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4.0 “Ambient and Physical Conditions”, Section 5.0 “Electrical Conditions”, section 6.1 “Lamp Position”, Section 6.3 “Electrical Settings”, and Section 6.4 “Electrical Instrumentation” as referenced in section 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6.2 “Lamp Stabilization” as referenced in sections 4.2.2.1 and 6.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7.0 “Photometric Test Procedures” as referenced in section 4.2.2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7.4 “Color Measurements” as referenced in sections 4.2.2.5 and 4.2.2.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.4 IES LM-49-20
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 4.0 “Ambient and Physical Conditions” and Section 5.0 “Electrical Conditions” as referenced in section 6.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 6.4 “Operating Cycle” as referenced in sections 6.2.2 and 6.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.5 IES LM-58-20
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3.0 “Definitions and Nomenclature” as referenced in section 2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<HD3>0.6 CIE 13.3
</HD3>
<P>(a) Appendix 1 “Terminology” as referenced in section 2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<HD2>1. <I>Scope:</I> </HD2>
<P>This appendix specifies the test methods required for determining the electrical and photometric performance characteristics of general service fluorescent lamps (GSFLs), incandescent reflector lamps (IRLs), and general service incandescent lamps (GSILs).
</P>
<HD2>2. <I>Definitions</I>
</HD2>
<P>2.1 To the extent that definitions in the referenced IES and CIE standards do not conflict with the DOE definitions, the definitions specified in Section 3.0 of IES LM-9-20, Section 3.0 of IES LM-20-20, Section 3.0 of IES LM-45-20, Section 3.0 of IES LM-58-20, and Appendix 1 of CIE 13.3 apply in this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Initial input power</I> means the input power to the lamp, measured at the end of the lamp seasoning and stabilization.
</P>
<P>2.3 <I>Initial lamp efficacy</I> means the lamp efficacy (as defined in § 430.2), measured at the end of the lamp seasoning and stabilization.
</P>
<P>2.4 <I>Initial lumen output</I> means the lumen output of the lamp, measured at the end of the lamp seasoning and stabilization.
</P>
<P>2.5 <I>Time to failure</I> means the time elapsed between first use and the point at which the lamp ceases to produce measurable lumen output.
</P>
<HD2>3. <I>General Instructions</I>
</HD2>
<P>3.1 When there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over any materials incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>3.2 Maintain lamp operating orientation throughout seasoning and testing, except that for T5 miniature bipin standard and high output GSFLs, follow Section 6.2.2 of IES LM-9-20. For all GSFLs, maintain lamp orientation when transferring lamps from a warm-up position to the photometric equipment per Section 6.2.4 of IES LM-9-20. Maintain lamp orientation at all other times, if practical.
</P>
<P>3.3 If a lamp breaks, becomes defective, fails to stabilize, exhibits abnormal behavior (such as swirling), or stops producing light prior to the end of the seasoning period, replace the lamp with a new unit. However, if a lamp exhibits one of the conditions listed in the previous sentence only after the seasoning period ends, include the lamp's measurements in the sample.
</P>
<P>3.4 Operate GSILs and IRLs at the rated voltage for incandescent lamps as defined in 10 CFR 430.2.
</P>
<HD2>4. <I>Test Method for Determining Initial Input Power, Initial Lumen Output, Initial Lamp Efficacy, CRI, and CCT</I>
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Test Conditions and Setup</I>
</P>
<P>4.1.1 <I>General Service Fluorescent Lamps</I>
</P>
<P>4.1.1.1 Establish ambient, physical, and electrical conditions in accordance with Sections (and corresponding subsections) 4.0, 5.0, 6.1, 6.5, and 6.6 of IES LM-9-20.
</P>
<P>4.1.1.2 Operate each lamp at the appropriate voltage and current conditions as described in ANSI C78.375A-2020 and in either ANSI C78.81-2010 or ANSI C78.901-2005. Operate each lamp using the appropriate reference ballast at input voltage specified by the reference circuit as described in ANSI C82.3. If, for a lamp, both low-frequency and high-frequency reference ballast settings are included in ANSI C78.81-2010 or ANSI C78.901-2005, operate the lamp using the low-frequency reference ballast. When testing with low-frequency reference ballast settings, include cathode power only if the circuit application of the lamp is specified as rapid start in ANSI C78.81-2010 or ANSI C78.901-2005. When testing with high-frequency reference ballast settings, do not include cathode power in the measurement.
</P>
<P>For any lamp not listed in ANSI C78.81-2010 or ANSI C78.901-2005, operate the lamp using the following reference ballast settings:
</P>
<P>4.1.1.2.1 For 4-Foot medium bi-pin lamps, use the following reference ballast settings:
</P>
<P>(a) T10 or T12 lamps: 236 volts, 0.43 amps, and 439 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and with cathode power. Approximate cathode wattage (with 3.6 V on each cathode): 2.0 W. Cathode characteristics for low resistance (at 3.6V): 9.6 ohms (objective), 7.0 ohms (minimum). Cathode heat for rapid start: 3.6 V (nominal); 2.5 V min, 4.0 V max (limits during operation); 9.6 ohms ±0.1 ohm (dummy load resistor); 3.4 V min, 4.5 V max (voltage across dummy load).
</P>
<P>(b) T8 lamps greater than or equal to 32 W: 300 volts, 0.265 amps, and 910 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and with cathode power. Approximate cathode wattage (with 3.6 V on each cathode): 1.7 W. Cathode characteristics for low resistance (at 3.6 V): 12.0 ±2.0 ohms; 4.75 ±0.50 (Rh/Rc ratio). Cathode heat for rapid start: 3.6 V (nominal); 2.5 V min; 4.4 V max (limits during operation); 11.0 ohms ±0.1 ohms (dummy load resistor); 3.4 V min, 4.5 V max (voltage across dummy load).
</P>
<P>(c) T8 lamps less than 32 W: 300 volts, 0.265 amps, and 910 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and without cathode power.
</P>
<P>4.1.1.2.2 For 2-Foot U-shaped lamps, use the following reference ballast settings:
</P>
<P>(a) T12 lamps: 236 volts, 0.430 amps, and 439 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and with cathode power. Approximate cathode wattage (with 3.6 V on each cathode): 2.0 W. Cathode characteristics for low resistance (at 3.6V): 9.6 ohms (objective), 7.0 ohms (minimum). Cathode heat for rapid start: 3.6 V (nominal); 2.5 V min, 4.0 V max (limits during operation); 9.6 ohms ±0.1 ohm (dummy load resistor); 3.4 V min, 4.5 V max (voltage across dummy load).
</P>
<P>(b) T8 lamps greater than or equal to 31 W: 300 volts, 0.265 amps, and 910 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and with cathode power. Approximate cathode wattage (with 3.6 V on each cathode): 1.7 W. Cathode characteristics for low resistance (at 3.6 V): 11.0 ohms (objective); 8.0 ohms (minimum). Cathode heat for rapid start: 3.6 V (nominal); 2.5 V min; 4.4 V max (limits during operation); 11.0 ohms ±0.1 ohms (dummy load resistor); 3.4 V min, 4.5 V max (voltage across dummy load).
</P>
<P>(c) T8 lamps less than 31 W: 300 volts, 0.265 amps, and 910 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and without cathode power.
</P>
<P>4.1.1.2.3 For 8-foot slimline lamps, use the following reference ballast settings:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>T12 lamps:</I> 625 volts, 0.425 amps, and 1280 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and without cathode power.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>T8 lamps:</I> 625 volts, 0.260 amps, and 1960 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and without cathode power.
</P>
<P>4.1.1.2.4 For 8-foot high output lamps, use the following reference ballast settings:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>T12 lamps:</I> 400 volts, 0.800 amps, and 415 ohms, at low frequency (60 Hz) and with cathode power. Approximate cathode wattage (with 3.6 V on each cathode): 7.0 W. Cathode characteristics for low resistance (at 3.6 V): 3.2 ohms (objective); 2.5 ohms (minimum). Cathode heat requirements for rapid start: 3.6 V (nominal); 3.0 V min, 4.0 V max (limits during operation); 3.2 ohms ±0.05 ohm (dummy load resistor); 3.4 V min, 4.5 V max (voltage across dummy load).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>T8 lamps:</I> 450 volts, 0.395 amps, and 595 ohms, at high frequency (25 kHz) and without cathode power.
</P>
<P>4.1.1.2.5 For 4-foot miniature bipin standard output or high output lamps, use the following reference ballast settings:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Standard Output:</I> 329 volts, 0.170 amps, and 950 ohms, at high frequency (25 kHz) and without cathode power.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>High Output:</I> 235 volts, 0.460 amps, and 255 ohms, at high frequency (25 kHz) and without cathode power.
</P>
<P>4.1.2 <I>General Service Incandescent Lamps:</I> Establish ambient, physical, and electrical conditions in accordance with Sections (and corresponding subsections) 4.0, 5.0, 6.1, 6.3 and 6.4 in IES LM-45-20.
</P>
<P>4.1.3 <I>Incandescent Reflector Lamps:</I> Establish ambient, physical, and electrical conditions in accordance with Sections (and corresponding subsections) 4.0 and 5.0 in IES LM-20-20.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Test Methods, Measurements, and Calculations</I>
</P>
<P>Multiply all lumen measurements made with instruments calibrated to the devalued NIST lumen after January 1, 1996, by 1.011.
</P>
<P>4.2.1 <I>General Service Fluorescent Lamps</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.1.1 Season and stabilize lamps in accordance with Sections (and corresponding subsections) 6.1, 6.2, 6.3, and 6.4 of IES LM-9-20 and with IES LM-54-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.1.2 Measure the initial input power (in watts).
</P>
<P>4.2.1.3 Measure initial lumen output in accordance with Section 7.0 (and corresponding subsections) of IES LM-9-20 and with IES LM-78-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.1.4 Calculate initial lamp efficacy by dividing the measured initial lumen output by the measured initial input power.
</P>
<P>4.2.1.5 Calculate CRI as specified in Section 7.6 of IES LM-9-20 and CIE 13.3. Conduct the required spectroradiometric measurement and characterization in accordance with the methods set forth in IES LM-58-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.1.6 Calculate CCT as specified in Section 7.6 of IES LM-9-20 and CIE 15:2018. Conduct the required spectroradiometric measurement and characterization in accordance with the methods set forth in IES LM-58-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.2 <I>General Service Incandescent Lamps</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.2.1 Season and stabilize lamps in accordance with Section (and corresponding subsections) 6.2 of IES LM-45-20 and with IES LM-54-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.2.2 Measure the initial input power (in watts).
</P>
<P>4.2.2.3 Measure initial lumen output in accordance with Section (and corresponding subsections) 7.0 of IES LM-45-20 and with IES LM-78-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.2.4 Calculate initial lamp efficacy by dividing the measured initial lumen output by the measured initial input power.
</P>
<P>4.2.2.5 Calculate CRI as specified in Section 7.4 of IES LM-45-20 and CIE 13.3. Conduct the required spectroradiometric measurement and characterization in accordance with the methods set forth in IES LM-58-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.2.6 Calculate CCT as specified in Section 7.4 of IES LM-45-20 and CIE 15:2018. Conduct the required spectroradiometric measurement and characterization in accordance with the methods set forth in IES LM-58-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.3 <I>Incandescent Reflector Lamps</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.3.1 Season and stabilize lamps in accordance with Section (and corresponding subsections) 6.0 of IES LM-20-20 and with IES LM-54-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.3.2 Measure the initial input power (in watts).
</P>
<P>4.2.3.3 Measure initial lumen output in accordance with Sections (and corresponding subsections) 7.0 or 8.0 of IES LM-20-20 and with IES LM-78-20. When measuring in accordance with section 8.0, exclude undirected light using the method specified in section 8.2.
</P>
<P>4.2.3.4 Calculate initial lamp efficacy by dividing the measured initial lumen output by the measured initial input power.
</P>
<P>4.2.3.5 Calculate CRI as specified in CIE 13.3. Conduct the required spectroradiometric measurement and characterization in accordance with the methods set forth in IES LM-58-20.
</P>
<P>4.2.3.6 Calculate CCT as specified in CIE 15:2018. Conduct the required spectroradiometric measurement and characterization in accordance with the methods set forth in IES LM-58-20.
</P>
<HD2>5. <I>Test Method for Voluntary Representations for General Service Fluorescent Lamps</I>
</HD2>
<P>Follow sections 1.0 through 4.0 of this appendix to make voluntary representations only for GSFLs that have high frequency reference ballast settings in ANSI C78.81-2016 or ANSI C78.901-2016. Where ANSI C78.81-2010 and ANSI C78.901-2005 are referenced in the preceding sections, use ANSI C78.81-2016 and ANSI C78.901-2016 instead. Operate lamps using high frequency reference ballast settings and without cathode power. Voluntary representations must be in addition to, not instead of, a representation in accordance with sections 1.0 to 4.0 of this appendix for GSFLs. As a best practice, an indication of high frequency operation should be provided with the voluntary representations.
</P>
<HD2>6. <I>Test Method for Determining Time to Failure for General Service Incandescent Lamps and Incandescent Reflector Lamps</I>
</HD2>
<P>6.1 <I>Test Conditions and Setup.</I> Establish ambient, physical, and electrical conditions as described in Sections (and corresponding subsections) 4.0 and 5.0 of IES LM-49-20.
</P>
<P>6.2 <I>Test Methods, Measurements, and Calculations</I>
</P>
<P>6.2.1 Season and stabilize lamps according to Section 6.2 of IES LM-45-20 for GSILs and in accordance with Section (and corresponding subsections) 6.0 of IES LM-20-20 for IRLs.
</P>
<P>6.2.2 Measure the time to failure as specified in Section 6.4 of IES LM-49-20 and based on the lamp's operating time, expressed in hours, not including any off time.
</P>
<P>6.3 Accelerated lifetime testing is not allowed; disregard the second paragraph of Section 6.4 of IES LM-49-20.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 53641, Aug. 31, 2022] 






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix S" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix S to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Water Consumption of Faucets and Showerheads


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standards for faucets and showerheads at § 430.32(g)(o) and (p) as those standards appeared in January 1, 2023 edition of 10 CFR parts 200-499. Specifically, before November 20, 2023 representations must be based upon results generated either under this appendix as codified on June 23, 2023 or under this appendix as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2023. Any representations made on or after November 20, 2023 must be made based upon results generated using this appendix as codified on June 23, 2023.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>In § 430.3, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for ASME A112.18.1; however, only enumerated provisions of ASME A112.18.1 apply to this appendix, as follows. In cases in which there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the referenced test standard. Treat precatory language in ASME A112.18.1 as mandatory.
</P>
<P>0.1 ASME A112.18.1:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 5.4 “Flow rate,” including Figure 3 but excluding Table 1 and excluding sections 5.4.2.3.1(a) and (c), 5.4.2.3.2(b) and (c), and 5.4.3, as specified in section 2.1 and 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.4.2.2(c), as specified in section 3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5.4.2.2(d), as specified in sections 2.2 and 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<HD2>1. <I>Scope</I>
</HD2>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements to measure the hydraulic performance of faucets and showerheads.
</P>
<HD2>2. <I>Flow Capacity Requirements</I>
</HD2>
<P>2.1. Faucets—Measure the water flow rate for faucets, in gallons per minute (gpm) or liters per minute (L/min), or gallons per cycle (gal/cycle) or liters per cycle (L/cycle), in accordance with the test requirements specified in section 5.4, Flow Rate, of ASME A112.18.1. Record measurements at the resolution of the test instrumentation. Round each calculation to the same number of significant digits as the previous step. Round the final water consumption value to one decimal place for non-metered faucets, or two decimal places for metered faucets.
</P>
<P>2.2. Showerheads—Measure the water flow rate for showerheads, in gallons per minute (gpm) or liters per minute (L/min), in accordance with the test requirements specified in section 5.4, Flow Rate, of ASME A112.18.1. Record measurements at the resolution of the test instrumentation. Round each calculation to the same number of significant digits as the previous step. Round the final water consumption value to one decimal place. If using the time/volume method of section 5.4.2.2(d), position the container to ensure it collects all water flowing from the showerhead, including any leakage from the ball joint.
</P>
<HD2>3. <I>General Instruction for Measuring Flow Rate</I>
</HD2>
<HD3>3.1. Using the Fluid Meter Method To Measure Flow Rate
</HD3>
<P>When measuring flow rate upstream of a showerhead or faucet using a fluid meter (or equivalent device) as described in section 5.4.2.2(c) of ASME A112.18.1, ensure the fluid meter (or equivalent device) meets the following additional requirements. First, ensure the fluid meter is rated for the flow rate range of the product being tested. Second, when testing showerheads or non-metering faucets, ensure that the fluid meter has a resolution for flow rate of at least 0.1 gallons (0.4 liters) per minute. When testing a metering faucet, ensure that the fluid meter has a resolution for flow rate of at least 0.01 gallons (0.04 liters) per minute. Third, verify the fluid meter is calibrated in accordance with the manufacturer printed instructions.
</P>
<HD3>3.2. Using the Time/Volume Method To Measure Flow Rate
</HD3>
<P>There are several additional requirements when measuring flow rate downstream of a showerhead or faucet as described in section 5.4.2.2(d) of ASME A112.18.1 to measure flow rate. First, ensure the receiving container is large enough to contain all the water for a single test and has an opening size and/or a partial cover such that loss of water from splashing is minimized. Second, conduct the time/volume test for at least one minute, with the time recorded via a stopwatch with at least 0.1-second resolution. Third, measure and record the temperature of the water using a thermocouple or other similar device either at the receiving container immediately after recording the mass of water, or at the water in the supply line anytime during the duration of the time/volume test. Fourth, measure the mass of water to a resolution of at least 0.01 lb. (0.005 kg) and normalize it to gallons based on the specific gravity of water at the recorded temperature.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 33545, May 24, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix T" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix T to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Water Consumption of Water Closets and Urinals
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>After September 19, 2022, representations made with respect to the water consumption of water closets or urinals must fairly disclose the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.
</P>
<P>On or after April 22, 2022 and prior to September 19, 2022 representations, including compliance certifications, made with respect to the water consumption of water closets or urinals must fairly disclose the results of testing pursuant to either this appendix or the appendix as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, in the 10 CFR parts 200 to 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2014. Representations made with respect to the water consumption of water closets or urinals tested within that range of time must fairly disclose the results of testing under the selected version. Given that after September 19, 2022 representations with respect to the water consumption of water closets and urinals must be made in accordance with tests conducted pursuant to this appendix, manufacturers may wish to begin using this test procedure as soon as possible.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire standard for ASME A112.19.2-2018; however, only enumerated provisions of that document apply to this appendix, as follows. Treat precatory language in ASME A112.19.2-2018 as mandatory for the purpose of testing.
</P>
<P>a. Section 7.1.1 “All tests,” including Figures 11 and 12, as specified in section 2.a of this appendix;
</P>
<P>b. Section 7.1.2 “Gravity flush tank water closets,” as specified in section 2.a of this appendix;
</P>
<P>c. Section 7.1.3 “Flushometer tank, electro-hydraulic, or other pressurized flushing device water closets,” as specified in section 2.a of this appendix;
</P>
<P>d. Section 7.1.4 “Flushometer valve water closets,” as specified in section 2.a of this appendix;
</P>
<P>e. Section 7.1.5 “Procedures for standardizing the water supply system,” including Figures 11 and 12, as specified in section 2.a of this appendix;
</P>
<P>f. Section 7.3 “Water consumption test,” as specified in section 3.a of this appendix, except sections 7.3.4 and 7.3.5;
</P>
<P>f. Section 8.2.1, including Figure 12, as specified in section 2.b of this appendix;
</P>
<P>g. Section 8.2.2, as specified in section 2.b of this appendix;
</P>
<P>h. Section 8.2.3, as specified in section 2.b of this appendix;
</P>
<P>i. Section 8.6 “Water Consumption Test,” as specified in section 3.b of this appendix, except sections 8.6.3 and 8.6.4;
</P>
<P>j. Table 5 “Static test pressures for water closets, kPa (psi),” as specified in sections 2.a and 3.a of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>k. Table 6 “Static test pressures for urinals, kPa (psi)” as specified in sections 2.a and 3.a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over ASME A112.19.2-2018.
</P>
<HD2>1. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix sets forth the test requirements used to measure the hydraulic performances of water closets and urinals.
</P>
<HD2>2. Test Apparatus and General Instructions
</HD2>
<P>a. When testing a water closet, use the test apparatus and follow the instructions specified in Sections 7.1.1 (including Table 5), 7.1.2, 7.1.3, 7.1.4, and 7.1.5 of ASME A112.19.2-2018). The flushometer valve used in the water consumption test must represent the maximum design flush volume of the water closet. Record each measurement at the resolution of the test apparatus. Round each calculation of water consumption for each tested unit to the same number of significant digits as the previous step.
</P>
<P>b. When testing a urinal, use the test apparatus and follow the instructions specified in Sections 8.2.1, 8.2.2, and 8.2.3 (including Table 6) of ASME A112.19.2-2018. The flushometer valve used in the water consumption test must represent the maximum design flush volume of the urinal. Record each measurement at the resolution of the test apparatus. Round each calculation of water consumption for each tested unit to the same number of significant digits as the previous step.
</P>
<HD2>3. Test Measurement
</HD2>
<P>a. Water closets:
</P>
<P>(i) Measure the water flush volume for water closets, expressed in gallons per flush (gpf) or liters per flush (Lpf), in accordance with Section 7.3, Water Consumption Test, of ASME A112.19.2-2018. For dual-flush water closets, the measurement of the water flush volume shall be conducted separately for the full-flush and reduced-flush modes and in accordance with the test requirements specified Section 7.3, Water Consumption Test, of ASME A112.19.2-2018. The final measured flush volume for each tested unit is the average of the total flush volumes recorded at each test pressure as specified in Table 5 “Static test pressures for water closets, kPa (psi),” of ASME A112.19.2-2018, based on the average of the individual flush volumes at a given pressure from the three tests.
</P>
<P>(ii) Flush volume and tank trim component adjustments: For gravity flush tank water closets, set trim components that can be adjusted to cause an increase in flush volume, including (but not limited to) the flapper valve, fill valve, and tank water level, in accordance with the printed installation instructions supplied by the manufacturer with the unit. If the printed installation instructions for the model to be tested do not specify trim setting adjustments, adjust these trim components to the maximum water use setting so that the maximum flush volume is produced without causing the water closet to malfunction or leak. Set the water level in the tank to the maximum water line designated in the printed installation instructions supplied by the manufacturer or the designated water line on the tank itself, whichever is higher. If the printed installation instructions or the water closet tank do not indicate a water level, adjust the water level to 1±0.1 inches below the top of the overflow tube or, for gravity flush tank water closets that do not contain an overflow tube, 1±0.1 inches below the top rim of the water-containing vessel for each designated pressure specified in Table 5 of ASME A112.19.2-2018.
</P>
<P>b. Urinals—Measure water flush volume for urinals, expressed in gallons per flush (gpf) or liters per flush (Lpf), in accordance with Section 8.6, Water Consumption Test, of ASME A112.19.2-2018. The final measured flush volume for each tested unit is the average of the total flush volumes recorded at each test pressure as specified in Table 6 “Static test pressures for urinals, kPa (psi),” of ASME A112.19.2-2018, based on the average of the individual flush volumes at a given pressure from the three tests.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 16386, Mar. 23, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix U" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix U to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Ceiling Fans
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to February 13, 2023, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of ceiling fans as specified in section 2 of this appendix as it appeared on January 23, 2017. On or after February 13, 2023, manufacturers of ceiling fans, as specified in section 2 of this appendix, must make any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix. Representations of standby power consumption for large-diameter ceiling fans including for the purpose of certification, are not required until such time as compliance is required with an energy conservation standard for standby power consumption. Upon the compliance date(s) of any energy conservation standards for large-diameter ceiling fans with a blade span greater than 24 feet, use of the applicable provisions of this test procedure to demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standard will also be required.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>In § 430.3, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AMCA 208-18, AMCA 230-15, AMCA 230-15 TE, and IEC 62301; however, only enumerated provisions of AMCA 230-15, AMCA 230-15 TE, and IEC 62301 are applicable as follows:
</P>
<HD3>0.1. AMCA 230-15 (including corresponding sections in AMCA 230-15 TE):
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3—Units of Measurement, as specified in section 3.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4—Symbols and Subscripts; (including Table 1—Symbols and Subscripts), as specified in section 3.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5—Definitions (except 5.1), as specified in section 3.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6—Instruments and Section Methods of Measurement, as specified in section 3.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7—Equipment and Setups (except the last 2 bulleted items in 7.1—Allowable test setups), as specified in section 3.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 8—Observations and Conduct of Test, as specified in section 3.5 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 9—Calculations (except 9.5 and 9.6), as specified in section 3.5 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(h) Test Figure 1—Vertical Airflow Setup with Load Cell (Ceiling Fans), as specified in section 3.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2. IEC 62301:
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 4.3.1—Supply voltage and frequency (first paragraph only), as specified in section 3.6 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4.3.2—Supply voltage waveform, as specified in section 3.6 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.4—General conditions for measurements: Power measuring instruments, as specified in section 3.6 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5.3.1—General (except the last bulleted item), as specified in section 3.6 of this appendix and
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5.3.2—Sampling method (first two paragraphs and Note 1), as specified in sections 3.6 and 3.6.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions:
</HD2>
<P>1.1. <I>40% speed</I> means the ceiling fan speed at which the blade RPM are measured to be 40% of the blade RPM measured at high speed.
</P>
<P>1.2. <I>Airflow</I> means the rate of air movement at a specific fan-speed setting expressed in cubic feet per minute (CFM).
</P>
<P>1.3. <I>Belt-driven ceiling fan</I> means a ceiling fan with a series of one or more fan heads, each driven by a belt connected to one or more motors that are located outside of the fan head.
</P>
<P>1.4. <I>Blade span</I> means the diameter of the largest circle swept by any part of the fan blade assembly, including attachments. The represented value of blade span (D) is as determined in 10 CFR 429.32.
</P>
<P>1.5. <I>Ceiling fan efficiency</I> means the ratio of the total airflow to the total power consumption, in units of cubic feet per minute per watt (CFM/W).
</P>
<P>1.6. <I>Centrifugal ceiling fan</I> means a ceiling fan for which the primary airflow direction is in the same plane as the rotation of the fan blades.
</P>
<P>1.7. <I>High speed</I> means the highest available ceiling fan speed, <I>i.e.,</I> the fan speed corresponding to the maximum blade revolutions per minute (RPM).
</P>
<P>1.8. <I>High-speed small-diameter (HSSD) ceiling fan</I> means a small-diameter ceiling fan that is not a very-small-diameter ceiling fan, highly-decorative ceiling fan or belt-driven ceiling fan and that has a represented value of blade edge thickness, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(iii), of less than 3.2 mm or a maximum represented value of tip speed, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(v), greater than the applicable limit specified in the table in this definition.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">High-Speed Small-Diameter Ceiling Fan Blade and Tip Speed Criteria
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Airflow direction
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Thickness (t) of edges of blades
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Tip speed threshold
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m/s
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">feet per minute
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Downward-only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 &gt; t ≥ 3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr> &gt; t ≥ 
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Downward-only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reversible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 &gt; t ≥ 3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr> &gt; t ≥ 
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reversible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>1.9. <I>High-speed belt-driven (HSBD) ceiling fan</I> means a ceiling fan that is a belt-driven ceiling fan with one fan head, and that has a represented value of blade edge thickness, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(iii), of less than 3.2 mm or a maximum represented value of tip speed, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(v), greater than the applicable limit specified in the table in this definition.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">High-Speed Belt-Driven Ceiling Fan Blade and Tip Speed Criteria
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Airflow direction
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Thickness (t) of edges of blades
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Tip speed threshold
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m/s
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">feet per minute
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Downward-only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 &gt; t ≥ 3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr> &gt; t ≥ 
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Downward-only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reversible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 &gt; t ≥ 3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr> &gt; t ≥ 
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reversible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>1.10. <I>Highly-decorative ceiling fan</I> means a ceiling fan with a maximum represented value of blade revolutions per minute (RPM), as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(ii), of 90 RPM, and a represented value of airflow at high speed, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(vi), of less than 1,840 CFM.
</P>
<P>1.11. <I>Hugger ceiling fan</I> means a low-speed small-diameter ceiling fan that is not a very-small-diameter ceiling fan, highly-decorative ceiling fan, or belt-driven ceiling fan, and for which the represented value of the distance between the ceiling and the lowest point on the fan blades, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(iv), is less than or equal to 10 inches.
</P>
<P>1.12. <I>Large-diameter ceiling fan</I> means a ceiling fan that is not a highly-decorative ceiling fan or belt-driven ceiling fan and has a represented value of blade span, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(i), greater than seven feet.
</P>
<P>1.13. <I>Low speed</I> means the lowest available speed that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of sensors per individual axis as
<br/>determined in section
<br/>3.2.2(6) of this appendix
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of sensors per individual axis measuring 40 feet per minute or greater
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>1.14. <I>Low-speed small-diameter (LSSD) ceiling fan</I> means a small-diameter ceiling fan that has a represented value of blade edge thickness, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(iii), greater than or equal to 3.2 mm and a maximum represented value of tip speed, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(v), less than or equal to the applicable limit specified in the table in this definition.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Low-Speed Small-Diameter Ceiling Fan Blade and Tip Speed Criteria
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Airflow direction
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Thickness (t) of edges of blades
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Tip speed threshold
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mm
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inch
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">m/s
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">feet per minute
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reversible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 &gt; t ≥ 3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<fr>3/16</fr> &gt; t ≥ 
<fr>1/8</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,400
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reversible</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 4.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">t ≥ 
<fr>3/16</fr></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>1.15. <I>Multi-head ceiling fan</I> means a ceiling fan with more than one fan head, <I>i.e.,</I> more than one set of rotating fan blades.
</P>
<P>1.16. <I>Multi-mount ceiling fan</I> means a low-speed small-diameter ceiling fan that can be mounted in the configurations associated with both the standard and hugger ceiling fans.
</P>
<P>1.17. <I>Oscillating ceiling fan</I> means a ceiling fan containing one or more fan heads for which the axis of rotation of the fan blades cannot remain in a fixed position relative to the ceiling. Such fans have no inherent means by which to disable the oscillating function separate from the fan blade rotation.
</P>
<P>1.18. <I>Small-diameter ceiling fan</I> means a ceiling fan that has a represented value of blade span, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(i), less than or equal to seven feet.
</P>
<P>1.19. <I>Standard ceiling fan</I> means a low-speed small-diameter ceiling fan that is not a very-small-diameter ceiling fan, highly-decorative ceiling fan or belt-driven ceiling fan, and for which the represented value of the distance between the ceiling and the lowest point on the fan blades, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(iv), is greater than 10 inches.
</P>
<P>1.20. <I>Total airflow</I> means the sum of the product of airflow and hours of operation at all tested speeds. For multi-head fans, this includes the airflow from all fan heads.
</P>
<P>1.21. <I>Very-small-diameter (VSD) ceiling fan</I> means a small-diameter ceiling fan that is not a highly-decorative ceiling fan or belt-driven ceiling fan; and has one or more fan heads, each of which has a represented value of blade span, as determined in 10 CFR 429.32(a)(3)(i), of 18 inches or less. Only VSD fans that also meet the definition of an LSSD fan are required to be tested for purposes of determining compliance with energy efficiency standards established by DOE and for other representations of energy efficiency.
</P>
<HD2>2. <I>Scope:</I>
</HD2>
<P>The provisions in this appendix apply to ceiling fans except:
</P>
<P>(1) Ceiling fans where the plane of rotation of a ceiling fan's blades is not less than or equal to 45 degrees from horizontal, or cannot be adjusted based on the manufacturer's specifications to be less than or equal to 45 degrees from horizontal;
</P>
<P>(2) Centrifugal ceiling fans;
</P>
<P>(3) Belt-driven ceiling fans that are not high-speed belt-driven ceiling fans; and
</P>
<P>(4) Oscillating ceiling fans.
</P>
<HD2>3. <I>General Instructions, Test Apparatus, and Test Measurement:</I>
</HD2>
<P>The test apparatus and test measurement used to determine energy performance depend on the ceiling fan's blade span, and in some cases the ceiling fan's blade edge thickness. For each tested ceiling fan, measure the lateral distance from the center of the axis of rotation of the fan blades to the furthest fan blade edge from the center of the axis of rotation. Measure this lateral distance at the resolution of the measurement instrument, using an instrument with a measurement resolution of least 0.25 inches. Multiply the lateral distance by two and then round to the nearest whole inch to determine the blade span. For ceiling fans having a blade span greater than 18 inches and less than or equal to 84 inches, measure the ceiling fan's blade edge thickness. To measure the fan blade edge thickness, use an instrument with a measurement resolution of at least 0.001 inch and measure the thickness of one fan blade's leading edge (in the forward direction) according to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Locate the cross-section perpendicular to the fan blade's radial length that is at least one inch from the tip of the fan blade and for which the blade is thinnest, and
</P>
<P>(2) Measure at the thickest point of that cross-section within one inch from the leading edge of the fan blade.
</P>
<P>See Figure 1 of this appendix for an instructional schematic on the fan blade edge thickness measurement. Figure 1 depicts a ceiling fan from above. Round the measured blade edge thickness to the nearest 0.01 inch.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.007.gif"/>
<P>3.1. General instructions.
</P>
<P>3.1.1. Record measurements at the resolution of the test instrumentation. Round off calculations to the number of significant digits present at the resolution of the test instrumentation, except for blade span, which is rounded to the nearest inch. Round the final ceiling fan efficiency value to the nearest whole number as follows:
</P>
<P>3.1.1.1. A fractional number at or above the midpoint between the two consecutive whole numbers shall be rounded up to the higher of the two whole numbers; or
</P>
<P>3.1.1.2. A fractional number below the midpoint between the two consecutive whole numbers shall be rounded down to the lower of the two whole numbers.
</P>
<P>3.1.2. For multi-head ceiling fans, the effective blade span is the blade span (as specified in section 3) of an individual fan head, if all fan heads are the same size. If the fan heads are of varying sizes, the effective blade span is the blade span (as specified in section 3) of the largest fan head.
</P>
<P>3.2. Test apparatus for low-speed small-diameter and high-speed small-diameter ceiling fans: All instruments are to have accuracies within ±1% of reading, except for the air velocity sensors, which must have accuracies within ±5% of reading or 2 feet per minute (fpm), whichever is greater. Equipment is to be calibrated at least once a year to compensate for variation over time.
</P>
<P>3.2.1. <I>Air Delivery Room Requirements</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The air delivery room dimensions are to be 20 ± 0.75 feet x 20 ± 0.75 feet with an 11 ± 0.75 foot-high ceiling. The control room shall be constructed external to the air delivery room.
</P>
<P>(2) The ceiling shall be constructed of sheet rock or stainless plate. The walls must be of adequate thickness to maintain the specified temperature and humidity during the test. The paint used on the walls, as well as the paint used on the ceiling material, must be of a type that minimizes absorption of humidity and that keeps the temperature of the room constant during the test (<I>e.g.,</I> oil-based paint).
</P>
<P>(3) The room must not have any ventilation other than an air conditioning and return system used to control the temperature and humidity of the room. The construction of the room must ensure consistent air circulation patterns within the room. Vents must have electronically-operated damper doors controllable from a switch outside of the testing room.
</P>
<P>3.2.2. <I>Equipment Set-Up</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Make sure the transformer power is off. Hang the ceiling fan to be tested directly from the ceiling, according to the manufacturer's installation instructions. Hang all non-multi-mount ceiling fans in the fan configuration that minimizes the distance between the ceiling and the lowest point of the fan blades. Hang and test multi-mount fans in two configurations: The configuration associated the definition of a standard fan that minimizes the distance between the ceiling and the lowest point of the fan blades and the configuration associated with the definition of a hugger fan that minimizes the distance between the ceiling and the lowest point of the fan blades. For all tested configurations, measure the distance between the ceiling and the lowest point of the fan blade using an instrument with a measurement resolution of at least 0.25 inches. Round the measured distance from the ceiling to the lowest point of the fan blade to the nearest quarter inch.
</P>
<P>(2) Connect wires as directed by manufacturer's wiring instructions. <I>Note:</I> Assemble fan prior to the test; lab personnel must follow the instructions provided with the fan by the fan manufacturer. Balance the fan blade assembly in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions to avoid excessive vibration of the motor assembly (at any speed) during operation.
</P>
<P>(3) With the ceiling fan installed, adjust the height of the air velocity sensors to ensure the vertical distance between the lowest point on the ceiling fan blades and the air velocity sensors is 43 inches.
</P>
<P>(4) A single rotating sensor arm, two rotating sensor arms, or four fixed sensor arms can be used to take air velocity measurements along four axes, labeled A-D. Axes A, B, C, and D are at 0, 90, 180, and 270 degree positions. Axes A-D must be perpendicular to the four walls of the room. See Figure 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.008.gif"/>
<P>(5) Minimize the amount of exposed wiring. Store all sensor lead wires under the floor, if possible.
</P>
<P>(6) Place the sensors at intervals of 4 ± 0.0625 inches along a sensor arm, starting with the first sensor at the point where the four axes intersect, aligning the sensors perpendicular to the direction of airflow. Do not touch the actual sensor prior to testing. Use enough sensors to record air delivery within a circle 8 inches larger in diameter than the blade span of the ceiling fan being tested. The experimental set-up is shown in Figure 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.009.gif"/>
<P>(7) Table 1 of this appendix shows the appropriate number of sensors needed per each of four axes (including the first sensor at the intersection of the axes) for common fan sizes.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix U to Subpart B of Part 430: Sensor Selection Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fan blade
<br/>span *
<br/>(inches)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number
<br/>of sensors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* The fan sizes listed are illustrative and do not restrict which ceiling fan sizes can be tested.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(8) Install an RPM (revolutions per minute) meter, or tachometer, to measure RPM of the ceiling fan blades.
</P>
<P>(9) Use an RMS sensor capable of measuring power with an accuracy of ±1% to measure ceiling fan power consumption. If the ceiling fan operates on multi-phase power input, measure the active (real) power in all phases simultaneously. Measure test voltage within 6” of the connection supplied with the ceiling fan.
</P>
<P>(10) Complete any conditioning instructions provided in the ceiling fan's instruction or installation manual must be completed prior to conducting testing.
</P>
<P>3.2.3. <I>Multi-Head Ceiling Fan Test Set-Up.</I>
</P>
<P>Hang a multi-headed ceiling fan from the ceiling such that one of the ceiling fan heads is centered directly over sensor 1 (<I>i.e.,</I> at the intersection of axes A, B, C, and D). The distance between the lowest point any of the fan blades of the centered fan head can reach and the air velocity sensors is to be such that it is the same as for all other small-diameter ceiling fans (<I>see</I> Figure 3 of this appendix). If the multi-head ceiling fan has an oscillating function (<I>i.e.,</I> the fan heads change their axis of rotation relative to the ceiling) that can be switched off, switch it off prior to taking air velocity measurements. If any multi-head fan does not come with the blades preinstalled, install fan blades only on the fan head that will be directly centered over the intersection of the sensor axes. (Even if the fan heads in a multi-head ceiling fan would typically oscillate when the blades are installed on all fan heads, the ceiling fan is subject to this test procedure if the centered fan head does not oscillate when it is the only fan head with the blades installed.) If the fan blades are preinstalled on all fan heads, measure air velocity in accordance with section 3.3 of this appendix except turn on only the centered fan head. Take the power consumption measurements separately, with the fan blades installed on all fan heads and with any oscillating function, if present, switched on.
</P>
<P>3.2.4. Test Set-Up for Ceiling Fans with Airflow Not Directly Downward
</P>
<P>For ceiling fans where the airflow is not directly downward, adjust the ceiling fan head such that the airflow is as vertical as possible prior to testing. For ceiling fans where a fully vertical orientation of airflow cannot be achieved, orient the ceiling fan (or fan head, if the ceiling fan is a multi-head fan) such that any remaining tilt is aligned along one of the four sensor axes. Instead of measuring the air velocity for only those sensors directly beneath the ceiling fan, the air velocity is to be measured at all sensors along that axis, as well as the axis oriented 180 degrees with respect to that axis. For example, if the tilt is oriented along axis A, air velocity measurements are to be taken for all sensors along the A-C axis. No measurements would need to be taken along the B-D axis in this case. All other aspects of test set-up remain unchanged from sections 3 through 3.2.2.
</P>
<P>3.3. Active mode test measurement for low-speed small-diameter and high-speed small-diameter ceiling fans.
</P>
<P>3.3.1. <I>Test conditions to be followed when testing:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain the room temperature at 70 degrees ± 5 degrees Fahrenheit and the room humidity at 50% ± 5% relative humidity during the entire test process.
</P>
<P>(2) If present, the ceiling fan light fixture is to be installed but turned off during testing.
</P>
<P>(3) If present, any additional accessories or features sold with the ceiling fan that do not relate to the ceiling fan's ability to create airflow by rotation of the fan blades (for example light kit, heater, air ionization, ultraviolet technology) is to be installed but turned off during testing. If such an accessory or feature cannot be turned off, it shall be set to the lowest energy-consuming mode during testing. If the ceiling fan is offered with a default controller, test using the default controller. If multiple controllers are offered, test using the minimally functional controller.
</P>
<P>(4) If present, turn off any oscillating function causing the axis of rotation of the fan head(s) to change relative to the ceiling during operation prior to taking air velocity measurements. Turn on any oscillating function prior to taking power measurements.
</P>
<P>(5) Test ceiling fans rated for operation with only a single- or multi-phase power supply with single- or multi-phase electricity, respectively. Test ceiling fans capable of operating with single- and multi-phase electricity with single-phase electricity. DOE will allow manufacturers of ceiling fans capable of operating with single- and multi-phase electricity to test such fans with single-phase power and make representations of efficiency associated with both single and multi-phase electricity if a manufacturer desires to do so, but the test results in the multi-phase configuration will not be valid to assess compliance with any amended energy conservation standard. All tested power supply should be at 60 Hz.
</P>
<P>(6) The supply voltage shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) for ceiling fans tested with single-phase electricity, the supply voltage shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) 120 V if the ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage is 120 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 120 V,
</P>
<P>(b) 240 V if the ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage is 240 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 240 V, or
</P>
<P>(c) The ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage (if a voltage range is not given) or the mean of the lowest rated voltage range, in all other cases.
</P>
<P>(ii) for ceiling fans tested with multi-phase electricity, the supply voltage shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) 240 V if the ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage is 240 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 240 V, or
</P>
<P>(b) The ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage (if a voltage range is not given) or the mean of the lowest rated voltage range, in all other cases.
</P>
<P>(iii) The test voltage shall not vary by more than ±1% during the tests.
</P>
<P>(7) Conduct the test with the fan connected to a supply circuit at the rated frequency.
</P>
<P>(8) Measure power input at a point that includes all power-consuming components of the ceiling fan (but without any attached light kit energized; or without any additional accessory or feature energized, if possible; and if not, with the additional accessory or feature set at the lowest energy-consuming mode). If the ceiling fan is offered with a default controller, test using the default controller. If multiple controllers are offered, test using the minimally functional controller.
</P>
<P>3.3.2. <I>Air Velocity and Power Consumption Testing Procedure:</I>
</P>
<P>Measure the air velocity (FPM) and power consumption (W) for HSSD ceiling fans until stable measurements are achieved, measuring at high speed only. Measure the air velocity and power consumption for LSSD and VSD ceiling fans that also meet the definition of an LSSD fan until stable measurements are achieved, measuring first at low speed and then at high speed. To determine low speed, start measurements at the lowest available speed and move to the next highest speed until the low speed definition in section 1.13 of this appendix is met. Air velocity and power consumption measurements are considered stable for high speed if:
</P>
<P>(1) The average air velocity for each sensor varies by less than 5 percent or 2 FPM, whichever is greater, compared to the average air velocity measured for that same sensor in a successive set of air velocity measurements, and
</P>
<P>(2) Average power consumption varies by less than 1 percent in a successive set of power consumption measurements.
</P>
<P>(a) Air velocity and power consumption measurements are considered stable for low speed if:
</P>
<P>(1) The average air velocity for each sensor varies by less than 10 percent or 2 FPM, whichever is greater, compared to the average air velocity measured for that same sensor in a successive set of air velocity measurements, and
</P>
<P>(2) Average power consumption varies by less than 1 percent in a successive set of power consumption measurements.
</P>
<P>(b) These stability criteria are applied differently to ceiling fans with airflow not directly downward. <I>See</I> section 3.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Step 1:</I> Set the first sensor arm (if using four fixed arms), two sensor arm (if using a two-arm rotating setup), or single sensor arm (if using a single-arm rotating setup) to the 0 degree Position (Axis A). If necessary, use a marking as reference. If using a single-arm rotating setup or two-arm rotating setup, adjust the sensor arm alignment until it is at the 0 degree position by remotely controlling the antenna rotator.
</P>
<P><I>Step 2:</I> Set software up to read and record air velocity, expressed in feet per minute (FPM) in 1 second intervals. (Temperature does not need to be recorded in 1 second intervals.) Record current barometric pressure.
</P>
<P><I>Step 3:</I> Allow test fan to run 15 minutes at rated voltage and at high speed if the ceiling fan is an HSSD ceiling fan. If the ceiling fan is an LSSD or VSD ceiling fan that also meets the definition of an LSSD fan, allow the test fan to run 15 minutes at the rated voltage and at the lowest available ceiling fan speed. Turn off all forced-air environmental conditioning equipment entering the chamber (<I>e.g.,</I> air conditioning), close all doors and vents, and wait an additional 3 minutes prior to starting test session.
</P>
<P><I>Step 4a:</I> For a rotating sensor arm: Begin recording readings. Starting with Axis A, take 100 air velocity readings (100 seconds run-time) and record these data. For all fans except multi-head fans and fans capable of oscillating, also measure power during the interval that air velocity measurements are taken. Record the average value of the air velocity readings for each sensor in feet per minute (FPM). Determine if the readings meet the low speed definition as defined in section 1.13 of this appendix. If not, restart Step 4a at the next highest speed until the low-speed definition is met. Once the low speed definition is met, rotate the arm, stabilize the arm, and allow 30 seconds to allow the arm to stop oscillating. Repeat data recording and rotation process for Axes B, C, and D. Step 4a is complete when the readings for all axes meet the low speed definition at the same speed. Save the data for all axes only for those measurements that meet the low speed definition. Using the measurements applicable to low speed, record the average value of the power measurement in watts (W) (400 readings). Record the average value of the air velocity readings for each sensor in feet per minute (FPM) (400 readings).
</P>
<P><I>Step 4b:</I> For a two-arm rotating setup: Begin recording readings. Starting with Axes A and C, take 100 air velocity readings (100 seconds run-time) for both axes and record these data. For all fans except multi-head fans and fans capable of oscillating, also measure power during the interval that air velocity measurements are taken. Record the average value of the air velocity readings for each sensor in feet per minute (FPM). Determine if the readings meet the low speed definition as defined in section 1.13 of this appendix. If not, restart Step 4b at the next highest speed until the low speed definition is met. Once the low speed definition is met, rotate the two-arm, stabilize the arm, and allow 30 seconds to allow the arm to stop oscillating. Repeat data recording for Axes B and D. Step 4b is complete when the readings for all axes meet the low speed definition at the same speed. Save the data for all axes only for those measurements that meet the low speed definition. Using the measurements applicable to low speed, record the average value of the power measurement in watts (W) (200 readings). Record the average value of the air velocity readings for each sensor in feet per minute (FPM) (200 readings).
</P>
<P><I>Step 4c:</I> For four fixed sensor arms: Begin recording readings. Take 100 air velocity readings (100 seconds run-time) and record this data. Take the readings for all sensor arms (Axes A, B, C, and D) simultaneously. For all fans except multi-head fans and fans capable of oscillating, also measure power during the interval that air velocity measurements are taken. Record the average value of the air velocity readings for each sensor in feet per minute (FPM). Determine if the readings meet the low speed definition as defined in section 1.13 of this appendix. If not, restart Step 4c at the next highest speed until the low speed definition is met. Step 4c is complete when the readings for all axes meet the low speed definition at the same speed. Save the data for all axes only for those measurements that meet the low speed definition. Using the measurements applicable to low speed, record the average value of the power measurement in watts (W) (100 readings). Record the average value of the air velocity readings for each sensor in feet per minute (FPM) (100 readings).
</P>
<P><I>Step 5:</I> Repeat step 4a, 4b or 4c until stable measurements are achieved.
</P>
<P><I>Step 6:</I> Repeat steps 1 through 5 above on high speed for LSSD and VSD ceiling fans that also meet the definition of an LSSD fan. Note: Ensure that temperature and humidity readings are maintained within the required tolerances for the duration of the test (all tested speeds). Forced-air environmental conditioning equipment may be used and doors and vents may be opened between test sessions to maintain environmental conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Step 7:</I> If testing a multi-mount ceiling fan, repeat steps 1 through 6 with the ceiling fan in the ceiling fan configuration (associated with either hugger or standard ceiling fans) not already tested.
</P>
<P>If a multi-head ceiling fan includes more than one category of ceiling fan head, then test at least one of each unique category. A fan head with different construction that could affect air movement or power consumption, such as housing, blade pitch, or motor, would constitute a different category of fan head.
</P>
<P><I>Step 8:</I> For multi-head ceiling fans, measure active (real) power consumption in all phases simultaneously at each speed continuously for 100 seconds with all fan heads turned on, and record the average value at each speed in watts (W).
</P>
<P>For ceiling fans with an oscillating function, measure active (real) power consumption in all phases simultaneously at each speed continuously for 100 seconds with the oscillating function turned on. Record the average value of the power measurement in watts (W).
</P>
<P>For both multi-head ceiling fans and fans with an oscillating function, repeat power consumption measurement until stable power measurements are achieved.
</P>
<P>3.3.3. <I>Air Velocity Measurements for Ceiling Fans with Airflow Not Directly Downward:</I>
</P>
<P>Using the number of sensors that cover the same diameter as if the airflow were directly downward, record air velocity at each speed from the same number of continuous sensors with the largest air velocity measurements. This continuous set of sensors must be along the axis that the ceiling fan tilt is directed in (and along the axis that is 180 degrees from the first axis). For example, a 42-inch fan tilted toward axis A may create the pattern of air velocity shown in Figure 4 of this appendix. As shown in Table 1 of this appendix, a 42-inch fan would normally require 7 active sensors per axis. However, because the fan is not directed downward, all sensors must record data. In this case, because the set of sensors corresponding to maximum air velocity are centered 3 sensor positions away from the sensor 1 along the A axis, substitute the air velocity at A axis sensor 4 for the average air velocity at sensor 1. Take the average of the air velocity at A axis sensors 3 and 5 as a substitute for the average air velocity at sensor 2, take the average of the air velocity at A axis sensors 2 and 6 as a substitute for the average air velocity at sensor 3, etc. Lastly, take the average of the air velocities at A axis sensor 10 and C axis sensor 4 as a substitute for the average air velocity at sensor 7. Stability criteria apply after these substitutions. For example, air velocity stability at sensor 7 are determined based on the average of average air velocity at A axis sensor 10 and C axis sensor 4 in successive measurements. Any air velocity measurements made along the B-D axis are not included in the calculation of average air velocity.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.010.gif"/>
<P>3.4. <I>Test apparatus for large-diameter ceiling fans and high-speed belt-driven ceiling fans:</I>
</P>
<P>The test apparatus and instructions for testing large-diameter ceiling fans and HSBD ceiling fans must conform to the requirements specified in Sections 3 through 7 (including Test Figure 1) of AMCA 230-15, with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>3.4.1. A “ceiling fan” is defined as in 10 CFR 430.2.
</P>
<P>3.4.2. Test ceiling fans rated for operation with only a single- or multi-phase power supply with single- or multi-phase electricity, respectively. Test ceiling fans capable of operating with single- and multi-phase electricity with multi-phase electricity. DOE will allow manufacturers of ceiling fans capable of operating with single- and multi-phase electricity to test such fans with single-phase power and make representations of efficiency associated with both single and multi-phase electricity if a manufacturer desires to do so, but the test results in the single-phase configuration will not be valid to assess compliance with any amended energy conservation standard. All tested power supply should be at 60 Hz.
</P>
<P>3.4.3. Supply Voltage:
</P>
<P>(1) For ceiling fans tested with single-phase electricity, the supply voltage shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) 120 V if the ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage is 120 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 120 V,
</P>
<P>(b) 240 V if the ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage is 240 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 240 V, or
</P>
<P>(c) The ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage (if a voltage range is not given) or the mean of the lowest rated voltage range, in all other cases.
</P>
<P>(2) For ceiling fans tested with multi-phase electricity, the supply voltage shall be:
</P>
<P>(a) 240 V if the ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage is 240 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 240 V, or
</P>
<P>(b) The ceiling fan's minimum rated voltage (if a voltage range is not given) or the mean of the lowest rated voltage range, in all other cases.
</P>
<P>3.5. <I>Active mode test measurement for large-diameter ceiling fans and high-speed belt-driven ceiling fans:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Test large-diameter ceiling fans and high-speed belt-driven ceiling fans in accordance with AMCA 208-18, in all phases simultaneously at:
</P>
<P>(a) High speed, and
</P>
<P>(b) 40 percent or the nearest speed that is not less than 40 percent speed.
</P>
<P>(2) When testing at 40 percent speed for large-diameter ceiling fans that can operate over an infinite number of speeds (<I>e.g.,</I> ceiling fans with VFDs), ensure the average measured RPM is within the greater of 1 percent of the average RPM at high speed or 1 RPM. For example, if the average measured RPM at high speed is 50 RPM, for testing at 40 percent speed, the average measured RPM should be between 19 RPM and 21 RPM. If the average measured RPM falls outside of this tolerance, adjust the ceiling fan speed and repeat the test. Calculate the airflow and measure the active (real) power consumption in all phases simultaneously in accordance with the test requirements specified in Sections 8 and 9, AMCA 230-15, with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>3.5.1. Measure active (real) power consumption in all phases simultaneously at a point that includes all power-consuming components of the ceiling fan. If present, any additional accessories or features sold with the ceiling fan that do not relate to the ceiling fan's ability to create airflow by rotation of the fan blades (for example light kit, heater, air ionization, ultraviolet technology) are to be installed but turned off during testing. If the accessory/feature cannot be turned off, it shall be set to the lowest energy-consuming mode during testing. If the ceiling fan is offered with a default controller, test using the default controller. If multiple controllers are offered, test using the minimally functional controller.
</P>
<P>3.5.2. Measure active (real) power consumption in all phases simultaneously continuously at the rated voltage that represents normal operation over the time period for which the load differential test is conducted.
</P>
<P>3.6. <I>Test measurement for standby power consumption.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Measure standby power consumption if the ceiling fan offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions:
</P>
<P>(a) The ability to facilitate the activation or deactivation of other functions (including active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer.
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks), or sensor-based functions.
</P>
<P>(2) Measure standby power consumption after completion of active mode testing and after the active mode functionality has been switched off (<I>i.e.,</I> the rotation of the ceiling fan blades is no longer energized). The ceiling fan must remain connected to the main power supply and be in the same configuration as in active mode (<I>i.e.,</I> any ceiling fan light fixture should still be attached). Measure standby power consumption according to Sections 4.3.1, 4.3.2, 4.4, and 5.3.1 through 5.3.2, of IEC 62301 with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>3.6.1. Allow 3 minutes between switching off active mode functionality and beginning the standby power test. (No additional time before measurement is required.)
</P>
<P>3.6.2. Simultaneously in all phases, measure active (real) power consumption continuously for 100 seconds, and record the average value of the standby power measurement in watts (W).
</P>
<P>3.6.3. Determine power consumption according to section 5.3.2 of IEC 62301, or by using the following average reading method. Note that a shorter measurement period may be possible using the sample method in section 5.3.2 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>(1) Connect the product to the power supply and power measuring instrument.
</P>
<P>(2) Select the mode to be measured (which may require a sequence of operations and could require waiting for the product to automatically enter the desired mode) and then monitor the power.
</P>
<P>(3) Calculate the average power using either the average power method or the accumulated energy method. For the average power method, where the power measuring instrument can record true average power over an operator selected period, the average power is taken directly from the power measuring instrument. For the accumulated energy method, determine the average power by dividing the measured energy by the time for the monitoring period. Use units of watt-hours and hours for both methods to determine average power in watts.
</P>
<HD2>4. <I>Calculation of Ceiling Fan Efficiency From the Test Results:</I>
</HD2>
<P>4.1. Calculation of effective area for small-diameter ceiling fans other than high-speed belt-driven ceiling fans:
</P>
<P>Calculate the effective area corresponding to each sensor used in the test method for small-diameter ceiling fans other than high-speed belt-driven ceiling fans (section 3.3 of this appendix) with the following equations:
</P>
<P>(1) For sensor 1, the sensor located directly underneath the center of the ceiling fan, the effective width of the circle is 2 inches, and the effective area is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.011.gif"/>
<P>(2) For the sensors between sensor 1 and the last sensor used in the measurement, the effective area has a width of 4 inches. If a sensor is a distance <I>d,</I> in inches, from sensor 1, then the effective area is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.012.gif"/>
<P>(3) For the last sensor, the width of the effective area depends on the horizontal displacement between the last sensor and the point on the ceiling fan blades furthest radially from the center of the fan. The total area included in an airflow calculation is the area of a circle 8 inches larger in diameter than the ceiling fan blade span (as specified in section 3 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>Therefore, for example, for a 42-inch ceiling fan, the last sensor is 3 inches beyond the end of the ceiling fan blades. Because only the area within 4 inches of the end of the ceiling fan blades is included in the airflow calculation, the effective width of the circle corresponding to the last sensor would be 3 inches. The calculation for the effective area corresponding to the last sensor would then be:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.013.gif"/>
<P>For a 46-inch ceiling fan, the effective area of the last sensor would have a width of 5 inches, and the effective area would be:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.014.gif"/>
<P>4.2 Calculation of airflow and efficiency for small-diameter ceiling fans other than high-speed belt-driven ceiling fans:
</P>
<P>Calculate fan airflow using the overall average of both sets of air velocity measurements at each sensor position from the successive sets of measurements that meet the stability criteria from section 3.3 of this appendix. To calculate airflow for HSSD, LSSD, and VSD ceiling fans, multiply the overall average air velocity at each sensor position from section 3.3 (for high speed for HSSD, LSSD, and VSD ceiling fans that also meet the definition of an LSSD ceiling fan; and repeated for low speed only for LSSD and VSD ceiling fans that also meet the definition of an LSSD ceiling fan) by that sensor's effective area (see section 4.1 of this appendix), and then sum the products to obtain the overall calculated airflow at the tested speed.
</P>
<P>For each speed, using the overall calculated airflow and the overall average power consumption measurements from the successive sets of measurements as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.015.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CFM<E T="52">i</E> = airflow at speed <I>i,</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OH<E T="52">i</E> = operating hours at speed <I>i,</I> as specified in Table 2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">i</E> = power consumption at speed <I>i,</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OH<E T="52">Sb</E> = operating hours in standby mode, as specified in Table 2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">Sb</E> = power consumption in standby mode.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate two ceiling fan efficiencies for multi-mount ceiling fans: One efficiency corresponds to the ceiling fan mounted in the configuration associated with the definition of a hugger ceiling fan, and the other efficiency corresponds to the ceiling fan mounted in the configuration associated with the definition of a standard ceiling fan.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Appendix U to Subpart B of Part 430: Daily Operating Hours for Calculating Ceiling Fan Efficiency
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No standby
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">With standby
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Daily Operating Hours for LSSD and VSD * Ceiling Fans</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Speed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Speed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standby Mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off Mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Daily Operating Hours for HSSD Ceiling Fans</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Speed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standby Mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off Mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* These values apply only to VSD fans that also meet the definition of an LSSD fan.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.3 Calculation of airflow and efficiency for multi-head ceiling fans:
</P>
<P>Calculate airflow for each fan head using the method described in section 4.2 of this appendix. To calculate overall airflow at a given speed for a multi-head ceiling fan, sum the airflow for each fan head included in the ceiling fan (a single airflow can be applied to each of the identical fan heads, but at least one of each unique fan head must be tested). The power consumption is the measured power consumption with all fan heads on. Using the airflow as described in this section, and power consumption measurements from section 3.3 of this appendix, calculate ceiling fan efficiency for a multi-head ceiling fan as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16au22.016.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CFM<E T="52">i</E> = sum of airflows for each head at speed i,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OH<E T="52">i</E> = operating hours at speed i as specified in Table 2 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">i</E> = power consumption at speed i,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OH<E T="52">Sb</E> = operating hours in standby mode as specified in Table 2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">Sb</E> = power consumption in standby mode.
</FP-2>
<HD2>5. <I>Calculation of Ceiling Fan Energy Index (CFEI) From the Test Results for Large Diameter Ceiling Fan and High-Speed Belt-Driven Ceiling Fans:</I>
</HD2>
<P>Calculate CFEI, which is the FEI for large-diameter ceiling fans and high-speed belt-driven ceiling fans, at the speeds specified in section 3.5 of this appendix according to AMCA 208-18, with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Using an Airflow Constant (Q<E T="52">0</E>) of 26,500 cubic feet per minute;
</P>
<P>(2) Using a Pressure Constant (P<E T="52">0</E>) of 0.0027 inches water gauge; and
</P>
<P>(3) Using a Fan Efficiency Constant (η<E T="52">0</E>) of 42 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 48639, July 25, 2016; 81 FR 54721, Aug. 17, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 28473, May 27, 2021; 87 FR 50424, Aug. 16, 2022]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix V" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.36" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix V to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Ceiling Fan Light Kits Packaged With Other Fluorescent Lamps (Not Compact Fluorescent Lamps or General Service Fluorescent Lamps), Packaged With Consumer-Replaceable SSL (Not Integrated LED Lamps), Packaged With Non-Consumer-Replaceable SSL, or Packaged With Other SSL Lamps That Have an ANSI Standard Base (Not Integrated LED Lamps)


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standards for ceiling fan light kits as those standards appeared in January 1, 2023 edition of 10 CFR parts 200-499. Specifically, before October 10, 2023 representations must be based upon results generated either under this appendix as codified on May 11, 2023 or under appendix V1 as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2023. Any representations made on or after October 10, 2023 must be made based upon results generated using this appendix as codified on May 11, 2023.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>0. Incorporation by Reference.</I>
</P>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3 the entire standard for: IES LM-9-20, IES LM-54-20, IES LM-75-19, IES LM-78-20, and IES LM-79-19; however, only enumerated provisions of IES LM-9-20 and IES LM-79-19 are applicable to this appendix as follows:
</P>
<P>0.1 IES LM-9-20 as referenced by section 3 of this appendix
</P>
<P>(a) Section 4.0 “Ambient and Physical Conditions”.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.0 “Electrical Conditions”.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6.0 “Lamp Test Procedures”.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7.0 “Photometric Test Procedures”.0.2 IES LM-79-19 as referenced by section 3 of this appendix
</P>
<P>(a) Section 4.0 “Physical and Environmental Test Conditions”.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.0 “Electrical Test Conditions”.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6.0 “Test Preparation”.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7.0 “Total Luminous Flux and Integrated Optical Measurements”.
</P>
<HD1>1. Scope
</HD1>
<P>This appendix establishes the test requirements to measure the energy efficiency of all ceiling fan light kits (CFLKs) packaged with fluorescent lamps other than compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) or general service fluorescent lamps (GSFLs), packaged with consumer-replaceable solid-state lighting (SSL) (not integrated light-emitting diode [LED] lamps), packaged with non-consumer-replaceable SSL, or packaged with SSL lamps that have an American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standard base (not integrated LED lamps).
</P>
<HD1>2. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>2.1. <I>CFLK with non-consumer-replaceable SSL</I> means a CFLK with a non-ANSI-standard base that has an SSL light source, driver, heat sink, and intermediate circuitry (such as wiring between a driver and a light source) that are not consumer replaceable, <I>i.e.,</I> a consumer cannot replace the light source and all components necessary for the starting and stable operation of the light source, without permanently altering the product and must replace the entire CFLK upon failure. Permanently altering the product constitutes the cutting of wires, use of a soldering iron, or damage to or destruction of the CFLK and does not constitute connecting or disconnecting wire nuts, fasteners or screws, or preserving the CFLK as it was sold.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>CFLK with consumer-replaceable SSL</I> means a CFLK with a non-ANSI-standard base that has an SSL light source, driver, heat sink, and intermediate circuitry (such as wiring between a driver and light source) that are consumer replaceable, <I>i.e.,</I> a consumer can replace the light source and all components necessary for the starting and stable operation of the light source, without permanently altering the product. Permanently altering the product constitutes the cutting of wires, use of a soldering iron, or damage to or destruction of the CFLK and does not constitute connecting or disconnecting wire nuts, fasteners or screws, or preserving the CFLK as it was sold.
</P>
<P>2.3. <I>Covers</I> means materials used to diffuse or redirect light produced by an SSL light source in CFLKs with non-consumer-replaceable SSL.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Other (non-CFL and non-GSFL) fluorescent lamp</I> means a low-pressure mercury electric-discharge lamp in which a fluorescing coating transforms some of the ultraviolet energy generated by the mercury discharge into light, including but not limited to circline fluorescent lamps, and excluding any compact fluorescent lamp and any general service fluorescent lamp.
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Solid-State Lighting (SSL)</I> means technology where light is emitted from a solid object—a block of semiconductor—rather than from a filament or plasma, as in the case of incandescent and fluorescent lighting. This includes inorganic light-emitting diodes (LEDs) and organic light-emitting diodes (OLEDs).
</P>
<HD1>3. Test Conditions and Measurements
</HD1>
<P>For any CFLK that utilizes consumer replaceable lamps or consumer-replaceable SSL, measure the lamp efficacy of each basic model of lamp or SSL light source packaged with the CFLK. For any CFLK only with non-consumer-replaceable SSL, measure the luminaire efficacy of the CFLK. For any CFLK that includes consumer replaceable lamps or consumer-replaceable SSL and non-consumer-replaceable SSL, measure both the lamp efficacy of each basic model of lamp or consumer-replaceable SSL light source packaged with the CFLK and the luminaire efficacy of the CFLK with all consumer replaceable lamps or consumer-replaceable SSL light sources removed. Take measurements at full light output. For each test, use the test procedures in the table in this section. CFLKs with non-consumer-replaceable SSL and consumer replaceable covers may be measured with their covers removed but must otherwise be measured according to the table in this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lighting technology
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp or luminaire efficacy measured
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Referenced test procedure
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other (non-CFL and non-GSFL) fluorescent lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lamp Efficacy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-9-20, sections 4-7 and corresponding subsections including references to IES LM-54-20 (lamp seasoning); IES-LM-78-20 (integrating sphere measurements).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CFLKs with consumer-replaceable SSL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lamp Efficacy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-79-19, sections 4-7 and corresponding subsections. Where IES LM-78-17 and IES LM-75-01/R12 are referenced in these sections and corresponding subsections, use IES LM-78-20 (integrating sphere measurements) and IES LM-75-19 (goniophotometer measurements) instead.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CFLKs with non-consumer-replaceable SSL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Luminaire Efficacy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-79-19, sections 4-7 and corresponding subsections. Where IES LM-78-17 and IES LM-75-01/R12 are referenced in these sections and corresponding subsections, use IES LM-78-20 (integrating sphere measurements) and IES LM-75-19 (goniophotometer measurements) instead.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other SSL lamps that have an ANSI standard base and are not integrated LED lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lamp Efficacy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-79-19, sections 4-7 and corresponding subsections. Where IES LM-78-17 and IES LM-75-01/R12 are referenced in these sections and corresponding, use IES LM-78-20 (integrating sphere measurements) and IES LM-75-19 (goniophotometer measurements) instead.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 21073, Apr. 10, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix W" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.37" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix W to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Compact Fluorescent Lamps


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to appendix W to subpart B:</HED>
<P>On and after July 15, 2025, any representations made with respect to the energy efficiency of compact fluorescent lamps must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix W. Manufacturers conducting tests of compact fluorescent lamps prior to July 15, 2025, must conduct such tests in accordance with either this appendix or the procedures in appendix W as it appeared in the Code of Federal Regulations on January 1, 2023. Any representations made with respect to the energy efficiency of compact fluorescent lamps must be in accordance with whichever version is selected.</P></NOTE>
<P>1. Scope:
</P>
<P>1.1. Integrated compact fluorescent lamps.
</P>
<P>1.1.1. This appendix specifies the test methods required to measure the initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, time to failure, power factor, correlated color temperature (CCT), color rendering index (CRI), and start time of an integrated compact fluorescent lamp.
</P>
<P>1.1.2. This appendix describes how to conduct rapid cycle stress testing for integrated compact fluorescent lamps.
</P>
<P>1.1.3. This appendix specifies test methods required to measure standby mode energy consumption applicable to integrated CFLs capable of operation in standby mode (as defined in § 430.2), such as those that can be controlled wirelessly.
</P>
<P>1.2. Non-integrated compact fluorescent lamps.
</P>
<P>1.2.1. This appendix specifies the test methods required to measure the initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime, time to failure, CCT, and CRI for non-integrated compact fluorescent lamps.
</P>
<P>2. Definitions:
</P>
<P>2.1. <I>Ballasted adapter</I> means a ballast that is not permanently attached to a compact fluorescent lamp, has no consumer-replaceable components, and serves as an adapter by incorporating both a lamp socket and a lamp base.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Hybrid compact fluorescent lamp</I> means a compact fluorescent lamp that incorporates one or more supplemental light sources of different technology.
</P>
<P>2.3. <I>Initial lamp efficacy</I> means the lamp efficacy (as defined in § 430.2) at the end of the seasoning period, as calculated pursuant to section 3.2.2.9 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Integrated compact fluorescent lamp</I> means an integrally ballasted compact fluorescent lamp that contains all components necessary for the starting and stable operation of the lamp, contains an ANSI standard base, does not include any replaceable or interchangeable parts, and is capable of being connected directly to a branch circuit through a corresponding ANSI standard lamp-holder (socket).
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Labeled wattage</I> means the highest wattage marked on the lamp and/or lamp packaging.
</P>
<P>2.6. <I>Lumen maintenance</I> means the lumen output measured at a given time in the life of the lamp and expressed as a percentage of the measured initial lumen output.
</P>
<P>2.7. <I>Measured initial input power</I> means the input power to the lamp, measured at the end of the lamp seasoning period, and expressed in watts (W).
</P>
<P>2.8. <I>Measured initial lumen output</I> means the lumen output of the lamp measured at the end of the lamp seasoning period, expressed in lumens (lm).
</P>
<P>2.9. <I>Non-integrated compact fluorescent lamp</I> means a compact fluorescent lamp that is not an integrated compact fluorescent lamp.
</P>
<P>2.10. <I>Percent variability</I> means the result of dividing the difference between the maximum and minimum values by the average value for a contiguous set of separate time-averaged light output values spanning the specified time period. For a waveform of measured light output values, the time-averaged light output is computed over one full cycle of sinusoidal input voltage, as a moving average where the measurement interval is incremented by one sample for each successive measurement value.
</P>
<P>2.11. <I>Power factor</I> means the measured input power (watts) divided by the product of the measured RMS input voltage (volts) and the measured RMS input current (amps).
</P>
<P>2.12. <I>Rated input voltage</I> means the voltage(s) marked on the lamp as the intended operating voltage or, if not marked on the lamp, 120 V.
</P>
<P>2.13. <I>Start plateau</I> means the first 100 millisecond period of operation during which the percent variability does not exceed 5 percent.
</P>
<P>2.14. <I>Start time</I> means the time, measured in milliseconds, between the application of power to the compact fluorescent lamp and the beginning of the start plateau.
</P>
<P>2.15. <I>Time to failure</I> means the time elapsed between first use and the point at which the compact fluorescent lamp (for a hybrid CFL, the primary light source) ceases to produce measurable lumen output.
</P>
<P>3. Active Mode Test Procedures
</P>
<P>3.1. General Instructions.
</P>
<P>3.1.1. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over any materials incorporated by reference.
</P>
<P>3.1.2. Maintain lamp operating orientation throughout seasoning and testing, including storage and handling between tests.
</P>
<P>3.1.3. Season CFLs prior to photometric and electrical testing in accordance with sections 4, 5, 6.1, and 6.2.2.1 of IES LM-54-12 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3). Season the CFL for a minimum of 100 hours in accordance with section 6.2.2.1 of IES LM-54-12. During the 100 hour seasoning period, cycle the CFL (operate the lamps for 180 minutes, 20 minutes off) as specified in section 6.4 of IES LM-65-14 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.1.3.1. Unit operating time during seasoning may be counted toward time to failure, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp (as defined in § 430.2), and lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours if the required operating cycle and test conditions for time to failure testing per section 3.3.1 of this appendix are satisfied.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.2. If a lamp breaks, becomes defective, fails to stabilize, exhibits abnormal behavior (such as swirling), or stops producing light prior to the end of the seasoning period, the lamp must be replaced with a new unit. If a lamp exhibits one of the conditions listed in the previous sentence after the seasoning period, the lamp's measurements must be included in the sample. Record number of lamps replaced, if any.
</P>
<P>3.1.4. Conduct all testing with the lamp operating at labeled wattage. This requirement applies to all CFLs, including those that are dimmable or multi-level.
</P>
<P>3.1.5. If the lamp can operate in multiple modes at the labeled wattage, operate the lamp as not a colored lamp (as defined in 10 CFR 430.2). If multiple modes occur at the same labeled wattage (such as variable CCT or CRI), select any of these modes for testing; however, all measurements must be taken at the same selected mode. The test report must specify which mode was selected for testing and include details such that another laboratory can replicate the test at the same mode.


</P>
<P>3.1.6. Operate the CFL at the rated input voltage throughout testing. For a CFL with multiple rated input voltages including 120 volts, operate the CFL at 120 volts. If a CFL with multiple rated input voltages is not rated for 120 volts, operate the CFL at the highest rated input voltage.
</P>
<P>3.1.7. Test CFLs packaged with ballasted adapters or designed exclusively for use with ballasted adapters as non-integrated CFLs, with no ballasted adapter in the circuit.
</P>
<P>3.1.8. Conduct all testing of hybrid CFLs with all supplemental light sources in the lamp turned off, if possible. Before taking measurements, verify that the lamp has stabilized in the operating mode that corresponds to its primary light source.


</P>
<P>3.1.9. For a CFL that has one or more component(s) that offer a completely different functionality (<I>e.g.,</I> a speaker, a camera, an air purifier, etc.) where the component is integrated into the lamp but does not affect the light output of the lamp (<I>e.g.,</I> does not turn the light on/off, dim the light, change the color of the light, etc.) and is capable of operating in standby mode, turn off as many of these components as possible during testing, without permanently altering the product. Permanently altering the product constitutes the cutting of wires, use of a soldering iron, or damage to or destruction of the lamp and does not constitute connecting or disconnecting wire nuts, fasteners or screws, or preserving the lamp as it was sold. If such components cannot be turned off without permanently altering the product, their energy consumption must be included in measurements. The test report must specify which components were turned off and any features that remained on.


</P>
<P>3.2. Test Procedures for Determining Initial Lamp Efficacy, Lumen Maintenance, CCT, CRI, and Power Factor.
</P>
<P>Determine initial lamp efficacy, lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp (as defined in in § 430.2), CCT, and CRI for integrated and non-integrated CFLs. Determine lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours and power factor for integrated CFLs only.
</P>
<P>3.2.1. Test Conditions and Setup
</P>
<P>3.2.1.1. Test half of the units in the sample in the base up position, and half of the units in the base down position; if the position is restricted by the manufacturer, test the units in the manufacturer-specified position.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.2. Establish ambient conditions, power supply, auxiliary equipment, circuit setup, lamp connections, and instrumentation in accordance with the specifications in sections (and corresponding subsections) 4.0, 5.0 and 6.0 of IES LM-66-14 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), except maintain ambient temperature at 25 ± 1 °C (77 ± 1.8 °F).
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3. Non-integrated CFLs must adhere to the reference ballast requirements in section 5.2 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.1. Test non-integrated lamps rated for operation on and having reference ballast characteristics for either low frequency or high frequency circuits (<I>e.g.,</I> many preheat start lamps) at low frequency.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.2. For low frequency operation, test non-integrated lamps rated for operation on either preheat start (starter) or rapid start (no starter) circuits on preheat.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3. Operate non-integrated CFLs not listed in ANSI C78.901-2014 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) using the following reference ballast settings:
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.1. Operate 25-28 W, T5 twin 2G11-based lamps that are lower wattage replacements of 40 W, T5 twin 2G11-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 400 volts, 0.270 amps, and 1240 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.2. Operate 14-15 W, T4 quad G24q-2-based lamps that are lower wattage replacements of 18 W, T4 quad G24q-2-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 220 volts, 0.220 amps, and 815 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.3. Operate 21 W, T4 quad G24q-3-based lamps that are lower wattage replacements of 26 W, T4 quad G24q-3-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 220 volts, 0.315 amps, and 546 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.4. Operate 21 W, T4 quad G24d-3-based lamps that are lower wattage replacements of 26 W, T4 quad G24d-3-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 220 volts, 0.315 amps, and 546 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.5. Operate 21 W, T4 multi (6) GX24q-3-based lamps that are lower wattage replacements of 26 W, T4 multi (6) GX24q-3-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 220 volts, 0.315 amps, and 546 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.6. Operate 27-28 W, T4 multi (6) GX24q-3-based lamps that are lower wattage replacements of 32 W, T4 multi (6) GX24q-3-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 20-26 kHz, 200 volts, 0.320 amps, and 315 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.7. Operate 33-38 W, T4 multi (6) GX24q-4-based lamps that are lower wattage replacements of 42 W, T4 multi (6) GX24q-4-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 20-26 kHz, 270 volts, 0.320 amps, and 420 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.8. Operate 10 W, T4 square GR10q-4-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 236 volts, 0.165 amps, and 1,200 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.9. Operate 16 W, T4 square GR10q-4-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 220 volts, 0.195 amps, and 878 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.10. Operate 21 W, T4 square GR10q-4-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 220 volts, 0.260 amps, and 684 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.11. Operate 28 W, T6 square GR10q-4-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 236 volts, 0.320 amps, and 578 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.12. Operate 38 W, T6 square GR10q-4-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 236 volts, 0.430 amps, and 439 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.13. Operate 55 W, T6 square GRY10q-3-based lamps using the following reference ballast settings: 60 Hz, 236 volts, 0.430 amps, and 439 ohms.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.14. For all other lamp designs not listed in ANSI C78.901-2014 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) or section 3.2.1.3.3 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.14.1. If the lamp is a lower wattage replacement of a lamp with specifications in ANSI C78.901-2014, use the reference ballast characteristics of the corresponding higher wattage lamp replacement in ANSI C78.901-2014.
</P>
<P>3.2.1.3.3.14.2. For all other lamps, use the reference ballast characteristics in ANSI C78.901-2014 for a lamp with the most similar shape, diameter, and base specifications, and next closest wattage.
</P>
<P>3.2.2. Test Methods, Measurements, and Calculations
</P>
<P>3.2.2.1. Season CFLs. (See section 3.1.3 of this appendix.)
</P>
<P>3.2.2.2. Stabilize CFLs as specified in section 6.2.1 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.2.3. Measure the input power (in watts), the input voltage (in volts), and the input current (in amps) as specified in section 5.0 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.2.4. Measure initial lumen output as specified in section 6.3.1 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and in accordance with IESNA LM-78-07 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.2.5. Measure lumen output at 1,000 hours as specified in section 6.3.1 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and in accordance with IESNA LM-78-07 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.2.6. Measure lumen output at 40 percent of lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp (as defined in 10 CFR 430.2) as specified in section 6.3.1 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and in accordance with IESNA LM-78-07 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.2.7. Determine CCT as specified in section 6.4 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and in accordance with CIE 15 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.2.8. Determine CRI as specified in section 6.4 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and in accordance with CIE 13.3 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.2.9. Determine initial lamp efficacy by dividing measured initial lumen output by the measured initial input power.
</P>
<P>3.2.2.10. Determine lumen maintenance at 1,000 hours by dividing measured lumen output at 1,000 hours by the measured initial lumen output.
</P>
<P>3.2.2.11. Determine lumen maintenance at 40 percent of lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp (as defined in § 430.2) by dividing measured lumen output at 40 percent of lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp (as defined in § 430.2) by the measured initial lumen output.
</P>
<P>3.2.2.12. Determine power factor by dividing the measured input power (watts) by the product of measured RMS input voltage (volts) and measured RMS input current (amps).
</P>
<P>3.3. Test Method for Time to Failure and Rapid Cycle Stress Test.
</P>
<P>Determine time to failure for integrated and non-integrated CFLs. Conduct rapid cycle stress testing for integrated CFLs only. Disregard section 3.0 of IES LM-65-14.
</P>
<P>3.3.1. Test Conditions and Setup
</P>
<P>3.3.1.1. Test half of the units in the base up position and half of the units in the base down position; if the position is restricted by the manufacturer, test in the manufacturer-specified position.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.2. Establish the ambient and physical conditions and electrical conditions in accordance with the specifications in sections 4.0 and 5.0 of IES LM-65-14 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). Do not, however, test lamps in fixtures or luminaires.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.3. Non-integrated CFLs must adhere to ballast requirements as specified in section 3.2.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.3.2. Test Methods and Measurements
</P>
<P>3.3.2.1. Season CFLs. (See section 3.1.3 of this appendix.)
</P>
<P>3.3.2.2. Measure time to failure of CFLs as specified in section 6.0 of IES LM-65-14 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.3.2.3. Conduct rapid cycle stress testing of integrated CFLs as specified in section 6.0 of IES LM-65-14 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), except cycle the lamp continuously with each cycle consisting of one 5-minute ON period followed by one 5-minute OFF period.
</P>
<P>3.4. Test Method for Start Time.
</P>
<P>Determine start time for integrated CFLs only.
</P>
<P>3.4.1. Test Conditions and Setup
</P>
<P>3.4.1.1. Test all units in the base up position; if the position is restricted by the manufacturer, test units in the manufacturer-specified position.
</P>
<P>3.4.1.2. Establish the ambient conditions, power supply, auxiliary equipment, circuit setup, lamp connections, and instrumentation in accordance with the specifications in sections 4.0 and 5.0 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), except maintain ambient temperature at 25 ± 1 °C (77 ± 1.8 °F).
</P>
<P>3.4.2. Test Methods and Measurement
</P>
<P>3.4.2.1. Season CFLs. (See section 3.1.3 of this appendix.)
</P>
<P>3.4.2.2. After seasoning, store units at 25 ± 5 °C ambient temperature for a minimum of 16 hours prior to the test, after which the ambient temperature must be 25 ± 1 °C for a minimum of 2 hours immediately prior to the test. Any units that have been off for more than 24 hours must be operated for a minimum of 3.0 hours and then be turned off for 16 to 24 hours prior to testing.
</P>
<P>3.4.2.3. Connect multichannel oscilloscope with data storage capability to record input voltage to CFL and light output. Set oscilloscope to trigger at 10 V lamp input voltage. Set oscilloscope vertical scale such that vertical resolution is 1 percent of measured initial light output or finer. Set oscilloscope to sample the light output waveform at a minimum rate of 2 kHz.
</P>
<P>3.4.2.4. Operate the CFL at the rated voltage and frequency.
</P>
<P>3.4.2.5. Upon the commencement of start time testing, record sampled light output until start plateau has been determined.
</P>
<P>3.4.2.6. Calculate the time-averaged light output value at least once every millisecond where the time-averaged light output is computed over one full cycle of sinusoidal input voltage, as a moving average where the measurement interval is incremented by one sample for each successive measurement value.
</P>
<P>3.4.2.7. Determine start time.
</P>
<P>4. Standby Mode Test Procedure
</P>
<P>Measure standby mode energy consumption for only integrated CFLs that are capable of operating in standby mode. The standby mode test method in this section may be completed before or after the active test method for determining lumen output, input power, CCT, CRI, and power factor in section 3 of this appendix. The standby mode test method in this section must be completed before the active mode test method for determining time to failure in section 3.3 of this appendix. The standby mode test method must be completed in accordance with applicable provisions in section 3.1.
</P>
<P>4.1. <I>Test Conditions and Setup</I>
</P>
<P>4.1.1. Position half of the units in the sample in the base up position and half of the units in the base down position; if the position is restricted by the manufacturer, test units in the manufacturer-specified position.
</P>
<P>4.1.2. Establish the ambient conditions (including air flow), power supply, electrical settings, and instrumentation in accordance with the specifications in sections 4.0, 5.0 and 6.0 of IES LM-66 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), except maintain ambient temperature at 25 ± 1 °C (77 ± 1.8 °F).
</P>
<P>4.2. <I>Test Methods, Measurements, and Calculations</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.1. Season CFLs. (See section 3.1.3 of this appendix.)
</P>
<P>4.2.2. Connect the integrated CFL to the manufacturer-specified wireless control network (if applicable) and configure the integrated CFL in standby mode by sending a signal to the integrated CFL instructing it to have zero light output. The integrated CFL must remain connected to the network throughout the entire duration of the test.
</P>
<P>4.2.3. Stabilize the integrated CFL prior to measurement as specified in section 5 of IEC 62301-W (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>4.2.4. Measure the standby mode energy consumption in watts as specified in section 5 of IEC 62301-W (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 59418, Aug. 29, 2016, as amended at 90 FR 4602, Jan. 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix X" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.38" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix X to Subpart B of Part 430 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix X1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.39" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix X1 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Dehumidifiers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>After January 22, 2024, any representations made with respect to the energy efficiency of a dehumidifier must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix. Manufacturers conducting tests of a dehumidifier prior to January 22, 2024, must conduct such test in accordance with either this appendix or the previous version of this appendix as it appeared in the Code of Federal Regulations on January 1, 2023. Any representations made with respect to the energy efficiency of such dehumidifier must be in accordance with whichever version is selected.</P></NOTE>
<P>Any representations made on or after the compliance date of any amended energy conservation standards, with respect to the energy use or efficiency of portable or whole-home dehumidifiers, must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.


</P>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire standard for AHAM DH-1-2022, ANSI/AMCA 210, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1, and IEC 62301; however, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable to this appendix. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.


</P>
<HD3>0.1 AHAM DH-1-2022
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3 “Definitions”, as specified in sections 2 and 3.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4 “Instrumentation”, as specified in sections 3.1.1 and 3.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5.1 “General”, as specified in sections 3.1.1 and 3.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5.2 “Test Room”, as specified in sections 3.1.1 and 3.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5.3 “Positioning of Test Unit”, as specified in sections 3.1.1 and 3.1.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 5.5 “Control settings”, as specified in sections 3.1.1, 3.1.1.4, and 3.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7 “Test Tolerances”, as specified in section 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 8 “Capacity Test”, as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(i) Section 8.3 “Standard Test Voltage”, as specified in section 3.2.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(j) Section 8.4 “Psychrometer Placement”, as specified in section 3.1.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(k) Section 9 “Energy Consumption”, as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(l) Section 9.3.2 “Inactive/Off Mode”, as specified in section 4.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(m) Section 9.3.1 “Off-Cycle Mode”, as specified in section 4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(n) Section 9.4 “Calculation of Test Results”, as specified in section 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 ANSI/AMCA 210
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5.2.1.6 “Airflow straightener”, as specified in section 3.1.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Figure 6A “Flow Straightener—Cell Type”, as specified in section 3.1.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.2.2 “Pitot-static tube”, as specified in section <I>3.1.2.2.3.1</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 4.2.3 “Static pressure tap”, as specified in section <I>3.1.2.2.3.1</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 4.3.1 “Pitot Traverse”, as specified in section <I>3.1.2.2.3.1</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 4.3.2 “Flow nozzle”, as specified in section <I>3.1.2.2.3.1</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7.5.2 “Pressure Losses”, as specified in section <I>3.1.2.2.3.1</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 7.3.1 “Velocity Traverse”, as specified in section <I>3.1.2.2.3.2</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(i) Section 7.3.2 “Nozzle”, as specified in section <I>3.1.2.2.3.2</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(j) Section 7.3 “Fan airflow rate at test conditions”, as specified in section 5.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.3 ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5.3.5 “Centers of Segments—Grids”, as specified in section 3.1.2.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<HD3>0.4 IEC 62301
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5.2 “Preparation of product”, as specified in section 3.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4.3.2 “Supply voltage waveform”, as specified in section 3.2.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.4 “Power measuring instruments”, as specified in section 3.2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 4.2 “Test room”, as specified in section 3.2.4 of this appendix.


</P>
<HD1>1. Scope
</HD1>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements used to measure the energy performance of dehumidifiers.






</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>Definitions for terms, modes, calculations, etc. are in accordance with AHAM DH-1-2022, section 3, with the following added definitions:
</P>
<P><I>Energy factor for dehumidifiers</I> means a measure of energy efficiency of a dehumidifier calculated by dividing the water removed from the air by the energy consumed, measured in liters per kilowatt-hour (L/kWh).
</P>
<P><I>External static pressure (ESP)</I> means the process air outlet static pressure minus the process air inlet static pressure, measured in inches of water column (in. w.c.).
</P>
<P><I>Process air</I> means the air supplied to the dehumidifier from the dehumidified space and discharged to the dehumidified space after some of the moisture has been removed by means of the refrigeration system.
</P>
<P><I>Product capacity</I> for dehumidifiers means a measure of the ability of the dehumidifier to remove moisture from its surrounding atmosphere, measured in pints collected per 24 hours of operation under the specified ambient conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Product case volume</I> for whole-home dehumidifiers means a measure of the rectangular volume that the product case occupies, exclusive of any duct attachment collars or other external components.
</P>
<P><I>Reactivation air</I> means the air drawn from unconditioned space to remove moisture from the desiccant wheel of a refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifier and discharged to unconditioned space.


</P>
<HD1>3. Test Apparatus and General Instructions
</HD1>
<P>3.1 <I>Active mode.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1 <I>Portable dehumidifiers and whole-home dehumidifiers other than refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers.</I> The test apparatus and instructions for testing in dehumidification mode and off-cycle mode must conform to the requirements specified in Section 4, “Instrumentation,” section 5.1, “General,” section 5.2, “Test Room,” Section 5.3, “Positioning of Test Unit,” and section 5.5, “Control settings” of AHAM DH-1-2022, with the following exceptions. If a product is able to operate as either a portable or whole-home dehumidifier by means of removal or installation of an optional ducting kit, in accordance with any manufacturer instructions available to a consumer, test and rate both configurations.


</P>
<P>3.1.1.1 <I>Testing configuration for whole-home dehumidifiers other than refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers.</I> Test dehumidifiers, other than refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers, with ducting attached to the process air outlet port. The duct configuration and component placement must conform to the requirements specified in section 3.1.3 of this appendix and Figure 1 or Figure 3, except that the flow straightener and dry-bulb temperature and relative humidity instruments are not required. Maintain the external static pressure in the process air flow and measure the external static pressure as specified in section 3.1.2.2.3.1 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>3.1.1.2 <I>Instrumentation placement.</I> If using a sampling tree, follow the instrumentation placement instructions in sections 5.3 and 8.4 of AHAM DH-1-2022. If not using a sampling tree, place the aspirating psychrometer or relative humidity and dry-bulb temperature sensors perpendicular to, and 1 ft. in front of, the center of the process air intake grille. During each test, use the psychrometer or relative humidity and dry-bulb sensors to monitor inlet conditions of only one unit under test. When using relative humidity and dry-bulb temperature sensors without sampling trees to test a unit that has multiple process air intake grilles, place a relative humidity sensor and dry-bulb temperature sensor perpendicular to, and 1 ft. in front of, the center of each process air intake grille.


</P>
<P>3.1.1.3 <I>Condensate collection.</I> If means are provided on the dehumidifier for draining condensate away from the cabinet, collect the condensate in a substantially closed vessel to prevent re-evaporation and place the vessel on the weight-measuring instrument. If no means for draining condensate away from the cabinet are provided, disable any automatic shutoff of dehumidification mode operation that is activated when the collection container is full and collect any overflow in a pan. Select a collection pan large enough to ensure that all water that overflows from the full internal collection container during the rating test period is captured by the collection pan. Cover the pan as much as possible to prevent re-evaporation without impeding the collection of overflow water. Place both the dehumidifier and the overflow pan on the weight-measuring instrument for direct reading of the condensate weight collected during the rating test. Do not use any internal pump to drain the condensate into a substantially closed vessel unless such pump operation is provided for by default in dehumidification mode.




</P>
<P>3.1.1.4 <I>Control settings.</I> Follow the control settings instructions in section 5.5 of AHAM DH-1-2022.


</P>
<P>3.1.1.5 <I>Run-in period.</I> Perform a single run-in period during which the compressor operates for a cumulative total of at least 24 hours prior to dehumidification mode testing.
</P>
<P>3.1.2 <I>Refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers.</I> The test apparatus and instructions for testing refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers in dehumidification mode must conform to the requirements specified in section 3, “Definitions,” section 4, “Instrumentation,” and section 5.1, “General,” section 5.2, “Test Room,” and section 5.5, “Control settings,” of AHAM DH-1-2022, except as follows.




</P>
<P>3.1.2.1 <I>Testing configuration.</I> Test refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers with ducting attached to the process air inlet and outlet ports and the reactivation air inlet port. The duct configuration and components must conform to the requirements specified in section 3.1.3 of this appendix and Figure 1 through Figure 3. Install a cell-type airflow straightener that conforms to the specifications in Section 5.2.1.6, “Airflow straightener”, and Figure 6A, “Flow Straightener—Cell Type”, of ANSI/AMCA 210 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) in each duct consistent with Figure 1 through Figure 3.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.2 <I>Instrumentation.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.2.2.1 <I>Temperature.</I> Install dry-bulb temperature sensors in a grid centered in the duct, with the plane of the grid perpendicular to the axis of the duct. Determine the number and locations of the sensors within the grid according to Section 5.3.5, “Centers of Segments—Grids,” of ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.1.2.2.2 <I>Relative humidity.</I> Measure relative humidity with a duct-mounted, relative humidity sensor with an accuracy within ±1 percent relative humidity. Place the relative humidity sensor at the duct centerline within 1 inch of the dry-bulb temperature grid plane.
</P>
<P>3.1.2.2.3 <I>Pressure.</I> The pressure instruments used to measure the external static pressure and velocity pressures must have an accuracy within ±0.01 in. w.c. and a resolution of no more than 0.01 in. w.c.
</P>
<P><I>3.1.2.2.3.1 External static pressure.</I> Measure static pressures in each duct using pitot-static tube traverses, a flow nozzle or a bank of flow nozzles. For pitot-static tube traverses, conform to the specifications in section 4.3.1, “Pitot Traverse,” of ANSI/AMCA 210 and section 4.2.2, “Pitot-Static Tube,” of ANSI/AMCA 210, except use only two intersecting and perpendicular rows of pitot-static tube traverses. For a flow nozzle or bank of flow nozzles, conform to the specifications in section 4.3.2, “Flow nozzle,” of ANSI/AMCA 210 and section 4.2.3, “Static pressure tap” of ANSI/AMCA 210. Record the static pressure within the test duct as follows. When using pitot-static tube traverses, record the pressure as measured at the pressure tap in the manifold of the traverses that averages the individual static pressures at each pitot-static tube. When using a flow nozzle or bank of nozzles, record the pressure or in accordance with section 4.2.3.2, “Averaging,” of ANSI/AMCA 210. Calculate duct pressure losses between the unit under test and the plane of each static pressure measurement in accordance with section 7.5.2, “Pressure Losses,” of ANSI/AMCA 210. The external static pressure is the difference between the measured inlet and outlet static pressure measurements, minus the sum of the inlet and outlet duct pressure losses. For any port with no duct attached, use a static pressure of 0.00 in. w.c. with no duct pressure loss in the calculation of external static pressure. During dehumidification mode testing, the external static pressure must equal 0.20 in. w.c. ± 0.02 in. w.c.


</P>
<P><I>3.1.2.2.3.2 Velocity pressure.</I> Measure velocity pressures using the same pitot traverses or nozzles as used for measuring external static pressure, which are specified in section 3.1.2.2.3.1 of this appendix. When using pitot-static tube traverses, determine velocity pressures at each pitot-static tube in a traverse as the difference between the pressure at the impact pressure tap and the pressure at the static pressure tap and calculate volumetric flow rates in each duct in accordance with section 7.3.1, “Velocity Traverse,” of ANSI/AMCA 210. When using a flow nozzle or a bank of flow nozzles, calculate the volumetric flow rates in each duct in accordance with section 7.3.2, “Nozzle,” of ANSI/AMCA 210.


</P>
<P>3.1.2.2.4 <I>Weight.</I> No weight-measuring instruments are required.


</P>
<P>3.1.2.3 <I>Control settings.</I> Follow the control settings instructions in section 5.5 of AHAM DH-1-2022.


</P>
<P>3.1.2.4 <I>Run-in period.</I> Perform a single run-in period during which the compressor operates for a cumulative total of at least 24 hours prior to dehumidification mode testing.
</P>
<P>3.1.3 <I>Ducting for whole-home dehumidifiers.</I> Cover and seal with tape any port designed for intake of air from outside or unconditioned space, other than for supplying reactivation air for refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers. Use only ducting constructed of galvanized mild steel and with a 10-inch diameter. Position inlet and outlet ducts either horizontally or vertically to accommodate the default dehumidifier port orientation. Install all ducts with the axis of the section interfacing with the dehumidifier perpendicular to plane of the collar to which each is attached. If manufacturer-recommended collars do not measure 10 inches in diameter, use transitional pieces to connect the ducts to the collars. The transitional pieces must not contain any converging element that forms an angle with the duct axis greater than 7.5 degrees or a diverging element that forms an angle with the duct axis greater than 3.5 degrees. Install mechanical throttling devices in each outlet duct consistent with Figure 1 and Figure 3 to adjust the external static pressure and in the inlet reactivation air duct for a refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifier. Cover the ducts with thermal insulation having a minimum R value of 6 h-ft
<SU>2</SU> − °F/Btu (1.1 m
<SU>2</SU> − K/W). Seal seams and edges with tape.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.009.gif"/>
<P>3.1.4 <I>Recording and rounding.</I> When testing either a portable dehumidifier or a whole-home dehumidifier, record measurements at the resolution of the test instrumentation. Record measurements for portable dehumidifiers and whole-home dehumidifiers other than refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers at intervals no greater than 10 minutes. Record measurements for refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers at intervals no greater than 1 minute. Round off calculations to the same number of significant digits as the previous step. Round the final product capacity, energy factor and integrated energy factor values to two decimal places, and for whole-home dehumidifiers, round the final product case volume to one decimal place.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Inactive mode and off mode.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.1 <I>Installation requirements.</I> For the inactive mode and off mode testing, install the dehumidifier in accordance with Section 5, Paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), disregarding the provisions regarding batteries and the determination, classification, and testing of relevant modes.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 <I>Electrical energy supply.</I>




</P>
<P>3.2.2.1 <I>Electrical supply.</I> For the inactive mode and off mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage and frequency indicated in section 8.3, “Standard Test Voltage,” of AHAM DH-1-2022. The electrical supply frequency shall be maintained ±1 percent.


</P>
<P>3.2.2.2 <I>Supply voltage waveform.</I> For the inactive mode and off mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage waveform indicated in Section 4, Paragraph 4.3.2 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.3 <I>Inactive mode, off mode, and off-cycle mode wattmeter.</I> The wattmeter used to measure inactive mode, off mode, and off-cycle mode power consumption must meet the requirements specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.2.4 <I>Inactive mode and off mode ambient temperature.</I> For inactive mode and off mode testing, maintain room ambient air temperature conditions as specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Case dimensions for whole-home dehumidifiers.</I> Measure case dimensions using equipment with a resolution of no more than 0.1 in.
</P>
<HD1>4. Test Measurement
</HD1>
<P>4.1 <I>Dehumidification mode.</I>




</P>
<P>4.1.1 <I>Portable dehumidifiers and whole-home dehumidifiers other than refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers.</I> Measure the energy consumption in dehumidification mode, EDM, in kilowatt-hours (kWh), the average percent relative humidity, Ht, either as measured using a relative humidity sensor or using Tables 2 and 3 when using an aspirating psychrometer, and the product capacity, Ct, in pints per day (pints/day), in accordance with the test requirements specified in section 7, “Test Tolerances,” section 8, “Capacity Test,” and section 9, “Energy Consumption,” of AHAM DH-1-2022, with two exceptions. First, the rating test period must be 2 hours. Second, maintain the standard test conditions as shown in Table 1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph 4.1.1.—Standard Test Conditions for Dehumidifier Testing
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Configuration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry-bulb


<br/>temperature

<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aspirating


<br/>psychrometer

<br/>wet-bulb

<br/>temperature

<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Relative humidity


<br/>sensor relative

<br/>humidity

<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Portable dehumidifiers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65 ± 2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.6 ± 1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60 ± 2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole-home dehumidifiers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73 ± 2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63.6 ± 1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60 ± 2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>When using relative humidity and dry-bulb temperature sensors, for dehumidifiers with multiple process air intake grilles, average the measured relative humidities and average the measured dry-bulb temperatures to determine the overall intake air conditions.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph 4.1.1.—Relative Humidity as a Function of Dry-Bulb and Wet-Bulb Temperatures for Portable Dehumidifiers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Wet-bulb temperature


<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="11" scope="col">Dry-bulb temperature ( °F)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">64.5
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">64.6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">64.7
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">64.8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">64.9
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65.1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65.2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65.3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65.4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">65.5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.86
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.16</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph 4.1.1.—Relative Humidity as a Function of Dry-Bulb and Wet-Bulb Temperatures for Whole-Home Dehumidifiers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Wet-bulb temperature


<br/>( °F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="11" scope="col">Dry-bulb temperature ( °F)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">72.5
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">72.6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">72.7
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">72.8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">72.9
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">73
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">73.1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">73.2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">73.3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">73.4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">73.5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.98</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57.67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.19
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.57</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.1.2 <I>Refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers.</I> Establish the testing conditions set forth in section 3.1.2 of this appendix. Measure the energy consumption, EDM, in kWh, in accordance with the test requirements specified in section 8, “Capacity Test,” and section 9, “Energy Consumption,” respectively, of AHAM DH-1-2022, with the following exceptions and adjustments:
</P>
<P>(a) Each measurement of the temperature and relative humidity of the air entering the process air inlet duct and the reactivation air inlet must be within 73 °F ± 2.0 °F dry-bulb temperature and 60 percent ± 5 percent relative humidity, and the arithmetic average of the inlet test conditions over the test period shall be within 73 °F ± 0.5 °F dry-bulb temperature and 60 percent ± 2 percent relative humidity;
</P>
<P>(b) Disregard the instructions for psychrometer placement;
</P>
<P>(c) Record dry-bulb temperatures, relative humidities, static pressures, velocity pressures in each duct, volumetric air flow rates, and the number of measurements in the test period;
</P>
<P>(d) Disregard the requirement to weigh the condensate collected during the test;
</P>
<P>(e) The rating test period must be 2 hours; and
</P>
<P>(f) To perform the calculations in section 9.4, “Calculation of Test Results,” of AHAM DH-1-2022:
</P>
<P>(i) Replace “Condensate collected (lb)” and “mlb”, with the weight of condensate removed, W, as calculated in section 5.6 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Use the recorded relative humidities, not the tables in section 4.1.1 of this appendix, to determine average relative humidity.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Off-cycle mode.</I> Follow requirements for test measurement in off-cycle mode of operation in accordance with section 9.3.2 of AHAM DH-1-2022.












</P>
<P>4.3 <I>Inactive and off mode.</I> Follow requirements for test measurement in inactive and off modes of operation in accordance with section 9.3.1 of AHAM DH-1-2022.


</P>
<P>4.4 <I>Product case volume for whole-home dehumidifiers.</I> Measure the maximum case length, D<E T="52">L</E>, in inches, the maximum case width, D<E T="52">W</E>, in inches, and the maximum height, D<E T="52">H</E>, in inches, exclusive of any duct collar attachments or other external components.
</P>
<HD1>5. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD1>
<P>5.1 <I>Corrected relative humidity.</I> Calculate the average relative humidity, for portable and whole-home dehumidifiers, corrected for barometric pressure variations as:
</P>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="52">c,p</E> = <I>H</I><E T="52">t</E> × [1 + 0.0083 × (29.921 − <I>B</I>)]
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="52">c,wh</E> = <I>H</I><E T="52">t</E> × [1 + 0.0072 × (29.921 − <I>B</I>)]
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">c,p</E> = portable dehumidifier average relative humidity from the test data in percent, corrected to the standard barometric pressure of 29.921 in. mercury (Hg);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">c,wh</E> = whole-home dehumidifier average relative humidity from the test data in percent, corrected to the standard barometric pressure of 29.921 in. Hg;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">t</E> = average relative humidity from the test data in percent; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = average barometric pressure during the test period in in. Hg.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2 <I>Corrected product capacity.</I> Calculate the product capacity, for portable and whole-home dehumidifiers, corrected for variations in temperature and relative humidity as:
</P>
<FP-2><I>C</I><E T="52">r,p</E> = <I>C</I><E T="52">t</E> + 0.0352 × <I>C</I><E T="52">t</E> × (65 − T<E T="52">t</E>) + 0.0169 × <I>C</I><E T="52">t</E> × (60 − <I>H</I><E T="52">C,p</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I><E T="52">r,wh</E> = <I>C</I><E T="52">t</E> + 0.0344 × <I>C</I><E T="52">t</E> × (73 − <I>T</I><E T="52">t</E>) + 0.017 × <I>C</I><E T="52">t</E> × (60 − <I>H</I><E T="52">C,wh</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">r,p</E> = portable dehumidifiers product capacity in pints/day, corrected to standard rating conditions of 65 °F dry-bulb temperature and 60 percent relative humidity;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">r,wh</E> = whole-home dehumidifier product capacity in pints/day, corrected to standard rating conditions of 73 °F dry-bulb temperature and 60 percent relative humidity;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">t</E> = product capacity determined from test data in pints/day, as measured in section 4.1.1 of this appendix for portable and refrigerant-only whole-home dehumidifiers or calculated in section 5.6 of this appendix for refrigerant-desiccant whole-home dehumidifiers;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">t</E> = average dry-bulb temperature during the test period in °F;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">C,p</E> = portable dehumidifier corrected relative humidity in percent, as determined in section 5.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">C,wh</E> = whole-home dehumidifier corrected relative humidity in percent, as determined in section 5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3 <I>Annual combined low-power mode energy consumption.</I> Calculate the annual combined low-power mode energy consumption for dehumidifiers, E<E T="52">TLP</E>, expressed in kWh per year:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = [(P<E T="52">IO</E> × S<E T="52">IO</E>) + (P<E T="52">OC</E> × S<E T="52">OC</E>)] × K
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">IO</E> = P<E T="52">IA</E>, dehumidifier inactive mode power, or P<E T="52">OM</E>, dehumidifier off mode power in watts, as measured in section 4.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">OC</E> = dehumidifier off-cycle mode power in watts, as measured in section 4.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">IO</E> = 1,840.5 dehumidifier inactive mode or off mode annual hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">OC</E> = 1,840.5 dehumidifier off-cycle mode annual hours; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 0.001 kWh/Wh conversion factor for watt-hours to kWh.
</FP-2>
<P>5.4 <I>Integrated energy factor.</I> Calculate the integrated energy factor, IEF, in L/kWh, rounded to two decimal places, according to the following:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26jy23.017.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">r</E> = corrected product capacity in pints per day, as determined in section 5.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2 = dehumidification mode test duration in hours;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">DM</E> = energy consumption during the 2-hour dehumidification mode test in kWh, as measured in section 4.1 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">TLP</E> = annual combined low-power mode energy consumption in kWh per year, as calculated in section 5.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1,095 = dehumidification mode annual hours, used to convert E<E T="52">TLP</E> to combined low-power mode energy consumption per hour of dehumidification mode;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1.04 = the density of water in pounds per pint;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.454 = the liters of water per pound of water; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>24 = the number of hours per day.


</FP-2>
<P>5.5 <I>Absolute humidity for refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers.</I> Calculate the absolute humidity of the air entering and leaving the refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifier in the process air stream, expressed in pounds of water per cubic foot of air, according to the following set of equations.
</P>
<P>5.5.1 Temperature in Kelvin. The air dry-bulb temperature, in Kelvin, is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.011.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">F</E> = the measured dry-bulb temperature of the air in °F.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.2 Water saturation pressure. The water saturation pressure, expressed in kilopascals (kPa), is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.012.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">K</E> = the calculated dry-bulb temperature of the air in K, calculated in section 5.5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.3 Vapor pressure. The water vapor pressure, expressed in kilopascals (kPa), is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.013.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>RH = percent relative humidity during the rating test period; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">ws</E> = water vapor saturation pressure in kPa, calculated in section 5.5.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.4 Mixing humidity ratio. The mixing humidity ratio, the mass of water per mass of dry air, is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.014.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">w</E> = water vapor pressure in kPa, calculated in section 5.5.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P = measured ambient barometric pressure in in. Hg;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.386 = the conversion factor from in. Hg to kPa; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.62198 = the ratio of the molecular weight of water to the molecular weight of dry air.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.5 Specific volume. The specific volume, expressed in feet cubed per pounds of dry air, is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.015.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">K</E> = dry-bulb temperature of the air in K, as calculated in section 5.5.1 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P = measured ambient barometric pressure in in. Hg;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">w</E> = water vapor pressure in kPa, calculated in section 5.5.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.287055 = the specific gas constant for dry air in kPa times cubic meter per kg per K;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.386 = the conversion factor from in. Hg to kPa; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>16.016 = the conversion factor from cubic meters per kilogram to cubic feet per pound.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.6 Absolute humidity. The absolute humidity, expressed in pounds of water per cubic foot of air, is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.016.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>HR = the mixing humidity ratio, the mass of water per mass of dry air, as calculated in section 5.5.4 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ν = the specific volume in cubic feet per pound of dry air, as calculated in section 5.5.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.6 <I>Product capacity for refrigerant-desiccant dehumidifiers.</I> The weight of water removed during the test period, W, expressed in pounds is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.017.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>n = number of samples during the test period in section 4.1.1.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AH<E T="52">I,i</E> = absolute humidity of the process air on the inlet side of the unit in pounds of water per cubic foot of dry air, as calculated for sample <I>i</I> in section 5.5.6 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">I,i</E> = volumetric flow rate of the process air on the inlet side of the unit in cubic feet per minute, measured for sample <I>i</I> in section 4.1.1.2 of this appendix. Calculate the volumetric flow rate in accordance with Section 7.3, “Fan airflow rate at test conditions,” of ANSI/AMCA 210 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AH<E T="52">O,i</E> = absolute humidity of the process air on the outlet side of the unit in pounds of water per cubic foot of dry air, as calculated for sample <I>i</I> in section 5.5.6 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">O,i</E> = volumetric flow rate of the process air on the outlet side of the unit in cubic feet per minute, measured for sample <I>i</I> in section 4.1.1.2 of this appendix. Calculate the volumetric flow rate in accordance with Section 7.3, “Fan airflow rate at test conditions,” of ANSI/AMCA 210 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = time interval in seconds between samples, with a maximum of 60; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>60 = conversion from minutes to seconds.
</FP-2>
<P>The capacity, C<E T="52">t</E>, expressed in pints/day, is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.018.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>24 = number of hours per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1.04 = density of water in pounds per pint; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = total test period time in hours.
</FP-2>
<P>Then correct the product capacity, C<E T="52">r,wh</E>, according to section 5.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.7 <I>Product case volume for whole-home dehumidifiers.</I> The product case volume, V, in cubic feet, is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.019.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">L</E> = product case length in inches, measured in section 4.4 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">W</E> = product case width in inches, measured in section 4.4 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D<E T="52">H</E> = product case height in inches, measured in section 4.4 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1,728 = conversion from cubic inches to cubic feet.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 45826, July 31, 2015, as amended at 88 FR 48052, July 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix Y" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.40" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix Y to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Battery Chargers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:</HED>
<P>For all Battery Chargers, including UPSs, compliance with the relevant standard in § 430.32(z) or any representation must be based upon results generated under the corresponding appendix listed in the following table:</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery chargers other than UPSs
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UPS
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On or After July 3, 2024 and Before October 16, 2024</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y as it appeared on either March 7, 2023, or July 3, 2024</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y as it appeared on either March 7, 2023, or July 3, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On or After October 16, 2024 and Before compliance date of any new or amended standards published any time after September 2022</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y as it appeared on July 3, 2024.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y as it appeared on July 3, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On or After compliance date of any new or amended standards published any time after September 2022</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y1.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>For any amended standards for battery chargers published after September 8, 2022, manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix Y1 to determine compliance. Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix Y or appendix Y1) when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use appendix Y1 to certify compliance with amended standards, published after September 8, 2022, prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.


</P>
<HD1>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3 the entire test standard for IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0. However, only enumerated provisions of this standard are applicable to this appendix, as follows. In cases in which there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the referenced test standard.
</P>
<P>0.1 IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3.5, Specified values;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3.5.49, total harmonic distortion;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5, Electrical conditions, performance and declared values;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5.2, UPS input specification, as specified in section 2.27.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5.2.1, Conditions for normal mode of operation; Clause 5.2.1.a;
</P>
<P>(f) Clause 5.2.1.b;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 5.2.2, Conditions to be declared by the manufacturer; Clause 5.2.2.k;
</P>
<P>(h) Clause 5.2.2.l;
</P>
<P>(i) Clause 5.2.2.m;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 5.3, UPS output specification; Section 5.3.2, Characteristics to be declared by the manufacturer; Clause 5.3.2.b;
</P>
<P>(k) Clause 5.3.2.c;
</P>
<P>(l) Clause 5.3.2.d;
</P>
<P>(m) Clause 5.3.2.e;
</P>
<P>(n) Section 5.3.4.2, Input dependency AAA;
</P>
<P>(o) Section 6.2, Routine test procedure; Section 6.2.2, Electrical; Section 6.2.2.4, No load, as specified in section 4.3.3(c) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(p) Section 6.2.2.7, AC input failure, as specified in Note to section 2.27.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(q) Section 6.4, Type test procedure (electrical); Section 6.4.1, Input—AC input power compatibility; Section 6.4.1.2, Steady state input voltage tolerance and VI input independency, as specified in Note to section 2.27.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(r) Section 6.4.1.3, Combined input voltage/frequency tolerance and VFI input independency, as specified in Note to section 2.27.2 of this appendix;




</P>
<P>(s) Annex G—AC input power failure—Test method;
</P>
<P>(t) Annex J—UPS efficiency and no load losses—Methods of measurement, as specified in sections 4.2.1 and 4.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>0.2 [Reserved]


</HD1>
<HD1>1. Scope
</HD1>
<P>This appendix provides the test requirements used to measure the energy consumption of battery chargers operating at either DC or United States AC line voltage (115V at 60Hz). This appendix also provides the test requirements used to measure the energy efficiency of uninterruptible power supplies as defined in section 2 of this appendix that utilize the standardized National Electrical Manufacturer Association (NEMA) plug, 1-15P or 5-15P, as specified in ANSI/NEMA WD 6-2016 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) and have an AC output. This appendix does not provide a method for testing back-up battery chargers.
</P>
<HD1>2. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>The following definitions are for the purposes of explaining the terminology associated with the test method for measuring battery charger energy consumption.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For clarity on any other terminology used in the test method, please refer to IEEE Standard 1515-2000.</P></FTNT>
<P>2.1. <I>Active mode</I> or <I>charge mode</I> is the state in which the battery charger system is connected to the main electricity supply, and the battery charger is delivering current, equalizing the cells, and performing other one-time or limited-time functions in order to bring the battery to a fully charged state.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Active power</I> or <I>real power</I> (P) means the average power consumed by a unit. For a two terminal device with current and voltage waveforms i(t) and v(t), which are periodic with period T, the real or active power P is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jn11.020.gif"/>
<P>2.3. <I>Ambient temperature</I> is the temperature of the ambient air immediately surrounding the unit under test.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Apparent power</I> (S) is the product of root-mean-square (RMS) voltage and RMS current in volt-amperes (VA).
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Batch charger</I> is a battery charger that charges two or more identical batteries simultaneously in a series, parallel, series-parallel, or parallel-series configuration. A batch charger does not have separate voltage or current regulation, nor does it have any separate indicators for each battery in the batch. When testing a batch charger, the term “battery” is understood to mean, collectively, all the batteries in the batch that are charged together. A charger can be both a batch charger and a multi-port charger or multi-voltage charger.
</P>
<P>2.6. <I>Battery</I> or <I>battery pack</I> is an assembly of one or more rechargeable cells and any integral protective circuitry intended to provide electrical energy to a consumer product, and may be in one of the following forms: (a) Detachable battery (a battery that is contained in a separate enclosure from the consumer product and is intended to be removed or disconnected from the consumer product for recharging); or (b) integral battery (a battery that is contained within the consumer product and is not removed from the consumer product for charging purposes). The word “intended” in this context refers to the whether a battery has been designed in such a way as to permit its removal or disconnection from its associated consumer product.
</P>
<P>2.7. <I>Battery energy</I> is the energy, in watt-hours, delivered by the battery under the specified discharge conditions in the test procedure.
</P>
<P>2.8. <I>Battery maintenance mode</I> or <I>maintenance mode</I> is the mode of operation when the battery charger is connected to the main electricity supply and the battery is fully charged, but is still connected to the charger.
</P>
<P>2.9. <I>Battery rest period</I> is a period of time between discharge and charge or between charge and discharge, during which the battery is resting in an open-circuit state in ambient air.
</P>
<P>2.10. <I>C-Rate (C)</I> is the rate of charge or discharge, calculated by dividing the charge or discharge current by the nameplate battery charge capacity of the battery. For example, a 0.2 C-rate would result in a charge or discharge period of 5 hours.
</P>
<P>2.11. <I>Cradle</I> is an electrical interface between an integral battery product and the rest of the battery charger designed to hold the product between uses.
</P>
<P>2.12. <I>Energy storage system</I> is a system consisting of single or multiple devices designed to provide power to the UPS inverter circuitry.
</P>
<P>2.13. <I>Equalization</I> is a process whereby a battery is overcharged, beyond what would be considered “normal” charge return, so that cells can be balanced, electrolyte mixed, and plate sulfation removed.
</P>
<P>2.14. <I>Instructions</I> or <I>manufacturer's instructions</I> means the documentation packaged with a product in printed or electronic form and any information about the product listed on a Web site maintained by the manufacturer and accessible by the general public at the time of the test. It also includes any information on the packaging or on the product itself. “Instructions” also includes any service manuals or data sheets that the manufacturer offers to independent service technicians, whether printed or in electronic form.
</P>
<P>2.15. <I>Measured charge capacity</I> of a battery is the product of the discharge current in amperes and the time in decimal hours required to reach the specified end-of-discharge voltage.
</P>
<P>2.16. <I>Manual on-off switch</I> is a switch activated by the user to control power reaching the battery charger. This term does not apply to any mechanical, optical, or electronic switches that automatically disconnect mains power from the battery charger when a battery is removed from a cradle or charging base, or for products with non-detachable batteries that control power to the product itself.
</P>
<P>2.17. <I>Multi-port charger</I> means a battery charger that charges two or more batteries (which may be identical or different) simultaneously. The batteries are not connected in series or in parallel but with each port having separate voltage and/or current regulation. If the charger has status indicators, each port has its own indicator(s). A charger can be both a batch charger and a multi-port charger if it is capable of charging two or more batches of batteries simultaneously and each batch has separate regulation and/or indicator(s).
</P>
<P>2.18. <I>Multi-voltage charger</I> is a battery charger that, by design, can charge a variety of batteries (or batches of batteries, if also a batch charger) that are of different nameplate battery voltages. A multi-voltage charger can also be a multi-port charger if it can charge two or more batteries simultaneously with independent voltages and/or current regulation.
</P>
<P>2.19. <I>Normal mode</I> is a mode of operation for a UPS in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The AC input supply is within required tolerances and supplies the UPS,
</P>
<P>(2) The energy storage system is being maintained at full charge or is under recharge, and
</P>
<P>(3) The load connected to the UPS is within the UPS's specified power rating.
</P>
<P>2.20. <I>Off mode</I> is the condition, applicable only to units with manual on-off switches, in which the battery charger:
</P>
<P>(1) Is connected to the main electricity supply;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not connected to the battery; and
</P>
<P>(3) All manual on-off switches are turned off.
</P>
<P>2.21. <I>Nameplate battery voltage</I> is specified by the battery manufacturer and typically printed on the label of the battery itself. If there are multiple batteries that are connected in series, the nameplate battery voltage of the batteries is the total voltage of the series configuration—that is, the nameplate voltage of each battery multiplied by the number of batteries connected in series. Connecting multiple batteries in parallel does not affect the nameplate battery voltage.
</P>
<P>2.22. <I>Nameplate battery charge capacity</I> is the capacity, claimed by the battery manufacturer on a label or in instructions, that the battery can store, usually given in ampere-hours (Ah) or milliampere-hours (mAh) and typically printed on the label of the battery itself. If there are multiple batteries that are connected in parallel, the nameplate battery charge capacity of the batteries is the total charge capacity of the parallel configuration, that is, the nameplate charge capacity of each battery multiplied by the number of batteries connected in parallel. Connecting multiple batteries in series does not affect the nameplate charge capacity.
</P>
<P>2.23. <I>Nameplate battery energy capacity</I> means the product (in watts-hours (Wh)) of the nameplate battery voltage and the nameplate battery charge capacity.
</P>
<P>2.24. <I>Reference test load</I> is a load or a condition with a power factor of greater than 0.99 in which the AC output socket of the UPS delivers the active power (W) for which the UPS is rated.
</P>
<P>2.25. <I>Standby mode</I> or <I>no-battery mode</I> means the condition in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The battery charger is connected to the main electricity supply;
</P>
<P>(2) The battery is not connected to the charger; and
</P>
<P>(3) For battery chargers with manual on-off switches, all such switches are turned on.
</P>
<P>2.26. <I>Total harmonic distortion (THD),</I> expressed as a percent, is as defined in section 3.5.9 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0.


</P>
<P>2.27. <I>Uninterruptible power supply or UPS</I> means a battery charger consisting of a combination of convertors, switches and energy storage devices (such as batteries), constituting a power system for maintaining continuity of load power in case of AC input power failure.






</P>
<P>2.27.1. <I>Voltage and frequency dependent UPS or VFD UPS</I> means a UPS that protects the load from a complete loss of AC input power. The output of a VFD UPS is dependent on changes in voltage and frequency of the AC input power and is not intended to provide additional voltage corrective functions, such as those arising from the use of tapped transformers.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Note to 2.27.1:</E> VFD input dependency may be verified by performing the AC input failure test in section 6.2.2.7 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 and observing that, at a minimum, the UPS switches from normal mode of operation to battery power while the input is interrupted.








</P>
<P>2.27.2. <I>Voltage and frequency independent UPS or VFI UPS</I> means a UPS that is independent of AC input power voltage and frequency variations as specified and declared in section 5.2 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 and shall protect the load against adverse effects from such variations without discharging the energy storage device.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Note to 2.27.2:</E> VFI input dependency may be verified by performing the combined input voltage/frequency tolerance and VFI input independency test in section 6.4.1.3 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 respectively and observing that, at a minimum, the UPS produces an output voltage and frequency within the specified output range when the input voltage is varied by ±10% of the rated input voltage and the input frequency is varied by ±2% of the rated input frequency.




</P>
<P>2.27.3. <I>Voltage independent UPS or VI UPS</I> means a UPS that protects the load as required for VFD and also from (a) under-voltage applied continuously to the input, and (b) over-voltage applied continuously to the input. The output voltage of a VI UPS shall remain within declared voltage limits (provided by voltage corrective functions, such as those arising from the use of active and/or passive circuits). The output voltage tolerance band shall be narrower than the input voltage tolerance band.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Note to 2.27.3:</E> VI input dependency may be verified by performing the steady state input voltage tolerance test in section 6.4.1.2 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 and ensuring that the UPS remains in normal mode with the output voltage within the specified output range when the input voltage is varied by ±10% of the rated input voltage.


</P>
<P>2.28. <I>Unit under test</I> (UUT) in this appendix refers to the combination of the battery charger and battery being tested.
</P>
<HD1>3. Testing Requirements for all Battery Chargers Other Than Uninterruptible Power Supplies
</HD1>
<HD1>3.1. Standard Test Conditions
</HD1>
<HD2>3.1.1 General
</HD2>
<P>The values that may be measured or calculated during the conduct of this test procedure have been summarized for easy reference in Table 3.1.1. of this appendix.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1.1—List of Measured or Calculated Values
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of measured or
<br/>calculated value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Duration of the charge and maintenance mode test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Battery Discharge Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Initial time and power (W) of the input current of connected battery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Active and Maintenance Mode Energy Consumption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Maintenance Mode Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. 24 Hour Energy Consumption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Standby Mode Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Off Mode Power</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Unit Energy Consumption, UEC (kWh/yr)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.13.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.1.2. Verifying Accuracy and Precision of Measuring Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Any power measurement equipment utilized for testing must conform to the uncertainty and resolution requirements outlined in section 4, “General conditions for measurement”, as well as annexes B, “Notes on the measurement of low power modes”, and D, “Determination of uncertainty of measurement”, of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD2>3.1.3. Setting Up the Test Room
</HD2>
<P>All tests, battery conditioning, and battery rest periods shall be carried out in a room with an air speed immediately surrounding the UUT of ≤0.5 m/s. The ambient temperature shall be maintained at 20 °C ± 5 °C throughout the test. There shall be no intentional cooling of the UUT such as by use of separately powered fans, air conditioners, or heat sinks. The UUT shall be conditioned, rested, and tested on a thermally non-conductive surface. When not undergoing active testing, batteries shall be stored at 20 °C ± 5 °C.
</P>
<HD2>3.1.4. Verifying the UUT's Input Voltage and Input Frequency
</HD2>
<P>(a) If the UUT is intended for operation on AC line-voltage input in the United States, it shall be tested at 115 V at 60 Hz. If the UUT is intended for operation on AC line-voltage input but cannot be operated at 115 V at 60 Hz, it shall not be tested.
</P>
<P>(b) If a charger is powered by a low-voltage DC or AC input, and the manufacturer packages the charger with an external power supply (“EPS”), sells, or recommends an optional EPS capable of providing that low voltage input, then the charger shall be tested using that EPS and the input reference source shall be 115 V at 60 Hz. If the EPS cannot be operated with AC input voltage at 115 V at 60 Hz, the charger shall not be tested.
</P>
<P>(c) If the UUT is designed for operation only on DC input voltage and the provisions of section 3.1.4(b) of this appendix do not apply, it shall be tested with one of the following input voltages: 5.0 V DC for products drawing power from a computer USB port or the midpoint of the rated input voltage range for all other products. The input voltage shall be within ±1 percent of the above specified voltage.
</P>
<P>(d) If the input voltage is AC, the input frequency shall be within ±1 percent of the specified frequency. The THD of the input voltage shall be ≤2 percent, up to and including the 13th harmonic. The crest factor of the input voltage shall be between 1.34 and 1.49.
</P>
<P>(e) If the input voltage is DC, the AC ripple voltage (RMS) shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) ≤0.2 V for DC voltages up to 10 V; or
</P>
<P>(2) ≤2 percent of the DC voltage for DC voltages over 10 V.
</P>
<HD1>3.2. Unit Under Test Setup Requirements
</HD1>
<HD2>3.2.1. General Setup
</HD2>
<P>(a) The battery charger system shall be prepared and set up in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, except where those instructions conflict with the requirements of this test procedure. If no instructions are given, then factory or “default” settings shall be used, or where there are no indications of such settings, the UUT shall be tested in the condition as it would be supplied to an end user.
</P>
<P>(b) If the battery charger has user controls to select from two or more charge rates (such as regular or fast charge) or different charge currents, the test shall be conducted at the fastest charge rate that is recommended by the manufacturer for everyday use, or, failing any explicit recommendation, the factory-default charge rate. If the charger has user controls for selecting special charge cycles that are recommended only for occasional use to preserve battery health, such as equalization charge, removing memory, or battery conditioning, these modes are not required to be tested. The settings of the controls shall be listed in the report for each test.
</P>
<HD2>3.2.2. Selection and Treatment of the Battery Charger
</HD2>
<P>The UUT, including the battery charger and its associated battery, shall be new products of the type and condition that would be sold to a customer. If the battery is lead-acid chemistry and the battery is to be stored for more than 24 hours between its initial acquisition and testing, the battery shall be charged before such storage.
</P>
<HD2>3.2.3. Selection of Batteries To Use for Testing
</HD2>
<P>(a) For chargers with integral batteries, the battery packaged with the charger shall be used for testing. For chargers with detachable batteries, the battery or batteries to be used for testing will vary depending on whether there are any batteries packaged with the battery charger.
</P>
<P>(1) If batteries are packaged with the charger, batteries for testing shall be selected from the batteries packaged with the battery charger, according to the procedure in section 3.2.3(b) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(2) If no batteries are packaged with the charger, but the instructions specify or recommend batteries for use with the charger, batteries for testing shall be selected from those recommended or specified in the instructions, according to the procedure in section 3.2.3(b) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(3) If no batteries are packaged with the charger and the instructions do not specify or recommend batteries for use with the charger, batteries for testing shall be selected from any that are suitable for use with the charger, according to the procedure in section 3.2.3(b) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) From the detachable batteries specified above, use Table 3.2.1 of this appendix to select the batteries to be used for testing, depending on the type of battery charger being tested. The battery charger types represented by the rows in the table are mutually exclusive. Find the single applicable row for the UUT, and test according to those requirements. Select only the single battery configuration specified for the battery charger type in Table 3.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(2) If the battery selection criteria specified in Table 3.2.1 of this appendix results in two or more batteries or configurations of batteries of different chemistries, but with equal voltage and capacity ratings, determine the maintenance mode power, as specified in section 3.3.9 of this appendix, for each of the batteries or configurations of batteries, and select for testing the battery or configuration of batteries with the highest maintenance mode power.
</P>
<P>(c) A charger is considered as:
</P>
<P>(1) Single-capacity if all associated batteries have the same nameplate battery charge capacity (see definition) and, if it is a batch charger, all configurations of the batteries have the same nameplate battery charge capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) Multi-capacity if there are associated batteries or configurations of batteries that have different nameplate battery charge capacities.
</P>
<P>(d) The selected battery or batteries will be referred to as the “test battery” and will be used through the remainder of this test procedure.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.2.1—Battery Selection for Testing
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Type of charger
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tests to perform
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multi-voltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multi-port
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multi-capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery selection
<br/>(from all configurations of all associated batteries)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any associated battery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Highest charge capacity battery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes or No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use all ports. Use the maximum number of identical batteries with the highest nameplate battery charge capacity that the charger can accommodate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Highest voltage battery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Yes to either or both</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use all ports. Use the battery or configuration of batteries with the highest individual voltage. If multiple batteries meet this criteria, then use the battery or configuration of batteries with the highest total nameplate battery charge capacity at the highest individual voltage.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.2.4. Limiting Other Non-Battery-Charger Functions
</HD2>
<P>(a) If the battery charger or product containing the battery charger does not have any additional functions unrelated to battery charging, this subsection may be skipped.
</P>
<P>(b) Any optional functions controlled by the user and not associated with the battery charging process (<I>e.g.,</I> the answering machine in a cordless telephone charging base) shall be switched off. If it is not possible to switch such functions off, they shall be set to their lowest power-consuming mode during the test.
</P>
<P>(c) If the battery charger takes any physically separate connectors or cables not required for battery charging but associated with its other functionality (such as phone lines, serial or USB connections, Ethernet, cable TV lines, <I>etc.</I>), these connectors or cables shall be left disconnected during the testing.
</P>
<P>(d) Any manual on-off switches specifically associated with the battery charging process shall be switched on for the duration of the charge, maintenance, and no-battery mode tests, and switched off for the off mode test.
</P>
<HD2>3.2.5. Accessing the Battery for the Test
</HD2>
<P>(a) The technician may need to disassemble the end-use product or battery charger to gain access to the battery terminals for the Battery Discharge Energy Test in section 3.3.8 of this appendix. If the battery terminals are not clearly labeled, the technician shall use a voltmeter to identify the positive and negative terminals. These terminals will be the ones that give the largest voltage difference and are able to deliver significant current (0.2 C or 1/hr) into a load.
</P>
<P>(b) All conductors used for contacting the battery must be cleaned and burnished prior to connecting in order to decrease voltage drops and achieve consistent results.
</P>
<P>(c) Manufacturer's instructions for disassembly shall be followed, except those instructions that:
</P>
<P>(1) Lead to any permanent alteration of the battery charger circuitry or function;
</P>
<P>(2) Could alter the energy consumption of the battery charger compared to that experienced by a user during typical use, <I>e.g.,</I> due to changes in the airflow through the enclosure of the UUT; or
</P>
<P>(3) Conflict requirements of this test procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) Care shall be taken by the technician during disassembly to follow appropriate safety precautions. If the functionality of the device or its safety features is compromised, the product shall be discarded after testing.
</P>
<P>(e) Some products may include protective circuitry between the battery cells and the remainder of the device. If the manufacturer provides a description for accessing the connections at the output of the protective circuitry, these connections shall be used to discharge the battery and measure the discharge energy. The energy consumed by the protective circuitry during discharge shall not be measured or credited as battery energy.
</P>
<P>(f) If any of the following conditions noted immediately below in sections 3.2.5.(f)(1) to 3.2.5.(f)(3) are applicable, preventing the measurement of the Battery Discharge Energy and the Charging and Maintenance Mode Energy, a manufacturer must submit a petition for a test procedure waiver in accordance with § 430.27:
</P>
<P>(1) Inability to access the battery terminals;
</P>
<P>(2) Access to the battery terminals destroys charger functionality; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inability to draw current from the test battery.
</P>
<HD2>3.2.6. Determining Charge Capacity for Batteries With No Rating
</HD2>
<P>(a) If there is no rating for the battery charge capacity on the battery or in the instructions, then the technician shall determine a discharge current that meets the following requirements. The battery shall be fully charged and then discharged at this constant-current rate until it reaches the end-of-discharge voltage specified in Table 3.3.2 of this appendix. The discharge time must be not less than 4.5 hours nor more than 5 hours. In addition, the discharge test (section 3.3.8 of this appendix) (which may not be starting with a fully-charged battery) shall reach the end-of-discharge voltage within 5 hours. The same discharge current shall be used for both the preparations step (section 3.3.4 of this appendix) and the discharge test (section 3.3.8 of this appendix). The test report shall include the discharge current used and the resulting discharge times for both a fully-charged battery and for the discharge test.
</P>
<P>(b) For this section, the battery is considered as “fully charged” when either: it has been charged by the UUT until an indicator on the UUT shows that the charge is complete; or it has been charged by a battery analyzer at a current not greater than the discharge current until the battery analyzer indicates that the battery is fully charged.
</P>
<P>(c) When there is no capacity rating, a suitable discharge current must generally be determined by trial and error. Since the conditioning step does not require constant-current discharges, the trials themselves may also be counted as part of battery conditioning.
</P>
<HD1>3.3. Test Measurement
</HD1>
<P>The test sequence to measure the battery charger energy consumption is summarized in Table 3.3.1 of this appendix, and explained in detail in this appendix. Measurements shall be made under test conditions and with the equipment specified in sections 3.1 and 3.2 of this appendix.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.3.1—Test Sequence
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Step/Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Data taken?
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Equipment needed
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test
<br/>battery
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Charger
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery
<br/>analyzer or
<br/>constant-
<br/>current load
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AC power meter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Thermometer
<br/>(for flooded lead-acid
<br/>battery
<br/>chargers only)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Record general data on UUT; Section 3.3.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Determine test duration; Section 3.3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Battery conditioning; Section 3.3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Prepare battery for charge test; Section 3.3.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Battery rest period; Section 3.3.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Conduct Charge Mode and Battery Maintenance Mode Test; Section 3.3.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Battery Rest Period; Section 3.3.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Battery Discharge Energy Test; Section 3.3.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Determining the Maintenance Mode Power; Section 3.3.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Calculating the 24-Hour Energy Consumption; Section 3.3.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Standby Mode Test; Section 3.3.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Off Mode Test; Section 3.3.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.3.1. Recording General Data on the UUT
</HD2>
<P>The technician shall record:
</P>
<P>(a) The manufacturer and model of the battery charger;
</P>
<P>(b) The presence and status of any additional functions unrelated to battery charging;
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturer, model, and number of batteries in the test battery;
</P>
<P>(d) The nameplate battery voltage of the test battery;
</P>
<P>(e) The nameplate battery charge capacity of the test battery; and
</P>
<P>(f) The nameplate battery charge energy of the test battery.
</P>
<P>(g) The settings of the controls, if battery charger has user controls to select from two or more charge rates.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.2. Determining the Duration of the Charge and Maintenance Mode Test
</HD2>
<P>(a) The charging and maintenance mode test, described in detail in section 3.3.6 of this appendix, shall be 24 hours in length or longer, as determined by the items below. Proceed in order until a test duration is determined.
</P>
<P>(1) If the battery charger has an indicator to show that the battery is fully charged, that indicator shall be used as follows: If the indicator shows that the battery is charged after 19 hours of charging, the test shall be terminated at 24 hours. Conversely, if the full-charge indication is not yet present after 19 hours of charging, the test shall continue until 5 hours after the indication is present.
</P>
<P>(2) If there is no indicator, but the manufacturer's instructions indicate that charging this battery or this capacity of battery should be complete within 19 hours, the test shall be for 24 hours. If the instructions indicate that charging may take longer than 19 hours, the test shall be run for the longest estimated charge time plus 5 hours.
</P>
<P>(3) If there is no indicator and no time estimate in the instructions, but the charging current is stated on the charger or in the instructions, calculate the test duration as the longer of 24 hours or:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.027.gif"/>
<P>(b) If none of the above applies, the duration of the test shall be 24 hours.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.3. Battery Conditioning
</HD2>
<P>(a) No conditioning is to be done on lithium-ion batteries. The test technician shall proceed directly to battery preparation, section 3.3.4 of this appendix, when testing chargers for these batteries.
</P>
<P>(b) Products with integral batteries will have to be disassembled per the instructions in section 3.2.5 of this appendix, and the battery disconnected from the charger for discharging.
</P>
<P>(c) Batteries of other chemistries that have not been previously cycled are to be conditioned by performing two charges and two discharges, followed by a charge, as below. No data need be recorded during battery conditioning.
</P>
<P>(1) The test battery shall be fully charged for the duration specified in section 3.3.2 of this appendix or longer using the UUT.
</P>
<P>(2) The test battery shall then be fully discharged using either:
</P>
<P>(i) A battery analyzer at a rate not to exceed 1 C, until its average cell voltage under load reaches the end-of-discharge voltage specified in Table 3.3.2 of this appendix for the relevant battery chemistry; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The UUT, until the UUT ceases operation due to low battery voltage.
</P>
<P>(3) The test battery shall again be fully charged as in step (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The test battery shall again be fully discharged as per step (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The test battery shall be again fully charged as in step (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Batteries of chemistries, other than lithium-ion, that are known to have been through at least two previous full charge/discharge cycles shall only be charged once per step (c)(5), of this section.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.4. Preparing the Battery for Charge Testing
</HD2>
<P>Following any conditioning prior to beginning the battery charge test (section 3.3.6 of this appendix), the test battery shall be fully discharged to the end of discharge voltage prescribed in Table 3.3.2 of this appendix, or until the UUT circuitry terminates the discharge.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.5. Resting the Battery
</HD2>
<P>The test battery shall be rested between preparation and the battery charge test. The rest period shall be at least one hour and not exceed 24 hours. For batteries with flooded cells, the electrolyte temperature shall be less than 30 °C before charging, even if the rest period must be extended longer than 24 hours.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.6. Testing Charge Mode and Battery Maintenance Mode
</HD2>
<P>(a) The Charge and Battery Maintenance Mode test measures the energy consumed during charge mode and some time spent in the maintenance mode of the UUT. Functions required for battery conditioning that happen only with some user-selected switch or other control shall not be included in this measurement. (The technician shall manually turn off any battery conditioning cycle or setting.) Regularly occurring battery conditioning or maintenance functions that are not controlled by the user will, by default, be incorporated into this measurement.
</P>
<P>(b) During the measurement period, input power values to the UUT shall be recorded at least once every minute.
</P>
<P>(1) If possible, the technician shall set the data logging system to record the average power during the sample interval. The total energy is computed as the sum of power samples (in watts) multiplied by the sample interval (in hours).
</P>
<P>(2) If this setting is not possible, then the power analyzer shall be set to integrate or accumulate the input power over the measurement period and this result shall be used as the total energy.
</P>
<P>(c) The technician shall follow these steps:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the user-controllable device functionality not associated with battery charging and any battery conditioning cycle or setting are turned off, as instructed in section 3.2.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the test battery used in this test has been conditioned, prepared, discharged, and rested as described in sections 3.3.3 through 3.3.5 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(3) Connect the data logging equipment to the battery charger;
</P>
<P>(4) Record the start time of the measurement period, and begin logging the input power;
</P>
<P>(5) Connect the test battery to the battery charger within 3 minutes of beginning logging. For integral battery products, connect the product to a cradle or EPS within 3 minutes of beginning logging;
</P>
<P>(6) After the test battery is connected, record the initial time and power (W) of the input current to the UUT. These measurements shall be taken within the first 10 minutes of active charging;
</P>
<P>(7) Record the input power for the duration of the “Charging and Maintenance Mode Test” period, as determined by section 3.3.2 of this appendix. The actual time that power is connected to the UUT shall be within ±5 minutes of the specified period; and
</P>
<P>(8) Disconnect power to the UUT, terminate data logging, and record the final time.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.7. Resting the Battery
</HD2>
<P>The test battery shall be rested between charging and discharging. The rest period shall be at least 1 hour and not more than 4 hours, with an exception for flooded cells. For batteries with flooded cells, the electrolyte temperature shall be less than 30 °C before charging, even if the rest period must be extended beyond 4 hours.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.8. Battery Discharge Energy Test
</HD2>
<P>(a) If multiple batteries were charged simultaneously, the discharge energy is the sum of the discharge energies of all the batteries.
</P>
<P>(1) For a multi-port charger, batteries that were charged in separate ports shall be discharged independently.
</P>
<P>(2) For a batch charger, batteries that were charged as a group may be discharged individually, as a group, or in sub-groups connected in series and/or parallel. The position of each battery with respect to the other batteries need not be maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) During discharge, the battery voltage and discharge current shall be sampled and recorded at least once per minute. The values recorded may be average or instantaneous values.
</P>
<P>(c) For this test, the technician shall follow these steps:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the test battery has been charged by the UUT and rested according to sections 3.3.6. and 3.3.7 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(2) Set the battery analyzer for a constant discharge rate and the end-of-discharge voltage in Table 3.3.2 of this appendix for the relevant battery chemistry.
</P>
<P>(3) Connect the test battery to the analyzer and begin recording the voltage, current, and wattage, if available from the battery analyzer. When the end-of-discharge voltage is reached or the UUT circuitry terminates the discharge, the test battery shall be returned to an open-circuit condition. If current continues to be drawn from the test battery after the end-of-discharge condition is first reached, this additional energy is not to be counted in the battery discharge energy.
</P>
<P>(d) If not available from the battery analyzer, the battery discharge energy (in watt-hours) is calculated by multiplying the voltage (in volts), current (in amperes), and sample period (in hours) for each sample, and then summing over all sample periods until the end-of-discharge voltage is reached.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.9. Determining the Maintenance Mode Power
</HD2>
<P>After the measurement period is complete, the technician shall determine the average maintenance mode power consumption by examining the power-versus-time data from the charge and maintenance test and:
</P>
<P>(a) If the maintenance mode power is cyclic or shows periodic pulses, compute the average power over a time period that spans a whole number of cycles and includes at least the last 4 hours.
</P>
<P>(b) Otherwise, calculate the average power value over the last 4 hours.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.10. Determining the 24-Hour Energy Consumption
</HD2>
<P>The accumulated energy or the average input power, integrated over the test period from the charge and maintenance mode test, shall be used to calculate 24-hour energy consumption.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.3.2—Required Battery Discharge Rates and End-of-Discharge Battery Voltages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery chemistry
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discharge rate
<br/>(C)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">End-of-discharge
<br/>voltage *
<br/>(volts per cell)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Valve-Regulated Lead Acid (VRLA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flooded Lead Acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel Cadmium (NiCd)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel Metal Hydride (NiMH)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium-Ion (Li-Ion)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium-Ion Polymer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium Iron Phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rechargeable Alkaline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver Zinc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* If the presence of protective circuitry prevents the battery cells from being discharged to the end-of-discharge voltage specified, then discharge battery cells to the lowest possible voltage permitted by the protective circuitry.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.3.11. Standby Mode Energy Consumption Measurement
</HD2>
<P>The standby mode measurement depends on the configuration of the battery charger, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Conduct a measurement of standby power consumption while the battery charger is connected to the power source. Disconnect the battery from the charger, allow the charger to operate for at least 30 minutes, and record the power (<I>i.e.,</I> watts) consumed as the time series integral of the power consumed over a 10-minute test period, divided by the period of measurement. If the battery charger has manual on-off switches, all must be turned on for the duration of the standby mode test.
</P>
<P>(b) Standby mode may also apply to products with integral batteries, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the product uses a cradle and/or adapter for power conversion and charging, then “disconnecting the battery from the charger” will require disconnection of the end-use product, which contains the batteries. The other enclosures of the battery charging system will remain connected to the main electricity supply, and standby mode power consumption will equal that of the cradle and/or adapter alone.
</P>
<P>(2) If the product is powered through a detachable AC power cord and contains integrated power conversion and charging circuitry, then only the cord will remain connected to mains, and standby mode power consumption will equal that of the AC power cord (<I>i.e.,</I> zero watts).
</P>
<P>(3) If the product contains integrated power conversion and charging circuitry but is powered through a non-detachable AC power cord or plug blades, then no part of the system will remain connected to mains, and standby mode measurement is not applicable.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.12. Off Mode Energy Consumption Measurement
</HD2>
<P>The off mode measurement depends on the configuration of the battery charger, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) If the battery charger has manual on-off switches, record a measurement of off mode energy consumption while the battery charger is connected to the power source. Remove the battery from the charger, allow the charger to operate for at least 30 minutes, and record the power (<I>i.e.,</I> watts) consumed as the time series integral of the power consumed over a 10-minute test period, divided by the period of measurement, with all manual on-off switches turned off. If the battery charger does not have manual on-off switches, record that the off mode measurement is not applicable to this product.
</P>
<P>(b) Off mode may also apply to products with integral batteries, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the product uses a cradle and/or adapter for power conversion and charging, then “disconnecting the battery from the charger” will require disconnection of the end-use product, which contains the batteries. The other enclosures of the battery charging system will remain connected to the main electricity supply, and off mode power consumption will equal that of the cradle and/or adapter alone.
</P>
<P>(2) If the product is powered through a detachable AC power cord and contains integrated power conversion and charging circuitry, then only the cord will remain connected to mains, and off mode power consumption will equal that of the AC power cord (<I>i.e.,</I> zero watts).
</P>
<P>(3) If the product contains integrated power conversion and charging circuitry but is powered through a non-detachable AC power cord or plug blades, then no part of the system will remain connected to mains, and off mode measurement is not applicable.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.13. Unit Energy Consumption Calculation
</HD2>
<P>Unit energy consumption (UEC) shall be calculated for a battery charger using one of the two equations (equation (i) or equation (ii)) listed in this section. If a battery charger is tested and its charge duration as determined in section 3.3.2 of this appendix minus 5 hours is greater than the threshold charge time listed in Table 3.3.3 of this appendix (<I>i.e.</I> (t<E T="52">cd</E> − 5) * n &gt; t<E T="52">a&amp;m</E>), equation (ii) shall be used to calculate UEC; otherwise a battery charger's UEC shall be calculated using equation (i).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.002.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">24</E> = 24-hour energy as determined in section 3.3.10 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Measured E</I><E T="54">batt</E> = Measured battery energy as determined in section 3.3.8. of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">m</E> = Maintenance mode power as determined in section 3.3.9. of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">sb</E> = Standby mode power as determined in section 3.3.11. of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">off</E> = Off mode power as determined in section 3.3.12. of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">cd</E> = Charge test duration as determined in section 3.3.2. of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">a&amp;m</E>, <I>n</I>, t<E T="54">sb</E>, and t<E T="54">off</E>, are constants used depending upon a device's product class and found in Table 3.3.3:
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.3.3—Battery Charger Usage Profiles
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Hours per day ***
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Charges
<br/>(n)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold
<br/>charge time *
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measured battery energy
<br/>(measured E<E T="0732">batt</E>) **
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Special
<br/>characteristic
<br/>or highest nameplate battery
<br/>voltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Active +
<br/>maintenance
<br/>(t<E T="0732">a</E><E T="0732">&amp;</E><E T="0732">m</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Standby
<br/>(t<E T="0732">sb</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Off
<br/>(t<E T="0732">off</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number
<br/>per day
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hours
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤5 Wh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Inductive Connection ****</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">137.73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Energy, Low-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;100 Wh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;4 V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Energy, Medium-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4-10 V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Energy, High-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;10 V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33.68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium-Energy, Low-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100-3000 Wh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;20 V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59.27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium-Energy, High-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 V</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50.44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High-Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;3000 Wh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.44
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* If the duration of the charge test (minus 5 hours) as determined in section 3.3.2. of this appendix exceeds the threshold charge time, use equation (ii) to calculate UEC otherwise use equation (i).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** Measured E<E T="0732">batt</E> = Measured battery energy as determined in section 3.3.8.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*** If the total time does not sum to 24 hours per day, the remaining time is allocated to unplugged time, which means there is 0 power consumption and no changes to the UEC calculation needed.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">**** Fixed-location inductive wireless charger only.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>4. Testing Requirements for Uninterruptible Power Supplies
</HD1>
<HD1>4.1. Standard Test Conditions
</HD1>
<HD2>4.1.1. Measuring Equipment
</HD2>
<P>(a) The power or energy meter must provide true root mean square (r. m. s) measurements of the active input and output measurements, with an uncertainty at full rated load of less than or equal to 0.5% at the 95% confidence level notwithstanding that voltage and current waveforms can include harmonic components. The meter must measure input and output values simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(b) All measurement equipment used to conduct the tests must be calibrated within the measurement equipment manufacturer specified calibration period by a standard traceable to International System of Units such that measurements meet the uncertainty requirements specified in section 4.1.1(a) of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>4.1.2. Test Room Requirements
</HD2>
<P>All portions of the test must be carried out in a room with an air speed immediately surrounding the UUT of ≤0.5 m/s in all directions. Maintain the ambient temperature in the range of 20.0 °C to 30.0 °C, including all inaccuracies and uncertainties introduced by the temperature measurement equipment, throughout the test. No intentional cooling of the UUT, such as by use of separately powered fans, air conditioners, or heat sinks, is permitted. Test the UUT on a thermally non-conductive surface.
</P>
<HD2>4.1.3. Input Voltage and Input Frequency
</HD2>
<P>The AC input voltage and frequency to the UPS during testing must be within 3 percent of the highest rated voltage and within 1 percent of the highest rated frequency of the device.
</P>
<HD1>4.2. Unit Under Test Setup Requirements


</HD1>
<HD3>4.2.1. General Setup
</HD3>
<P>Configure the UPS according to Annex J.2 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 with the following additional requirements:


</P>
<P>(a) <I>UPS Operating Mode Conditions.</I> If the UPS can operate in two or more distinct normal modes as more than one UPS architecture, conduct the test in its lowest input dependency as well as in its highest input dependency mode where VFD represents the highest possible input dependency, followed by VI and then VFI.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Energy Storage System.</I> The UPS must not be modified or adjusted to disable energy storage charging features. Minimize the transfer of energy to and from the energy storage system by ensuring the energy storage system is fully charged (at the start of testing) as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the UUT has a battery charge indicator, charge the battery for 5 hours after the UUT has indicated that it is fully charged.
</P>
<P>(2) If the UUT does not have a battery charge indicator but the user manual shipped with the UUT specifies a time to reach full charge, charge the battery for 5 hours longer than the time specified.
</P>
<P>(3) If the UUT does not have a battery charge indicator or user manual instructions, charge the battery for 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DC output port(s).</I> All DC output port(s) of the UUT must remain unloaded during testing.
</P>
<HD2>4.2.2. Additional Features
</HD2>
<P>(a) Any feature unrelated to maintaining the energy storage system at full charge or delivery of load power (<I>e.g.,</I> LCD display) shall be switched off. If it is not possible to switch such features off, they shall be set to their lowest power-consuming mode during the test.
</P>
<P>(b) If the UPS takes any physically separate connectors or cables not required for maintaining the energy storage system at full charge or delivery of load power but associated with other features (such as serial or USB connections, Ethernet, etc.), these connectors or cables shall be left disconnected during the test.
</P>
<P>(c) Any manual on-off switches specifically associated with maintaining the energy storage system at full charge or delivery of load power shall be switched on for the duration of the test.
</P>
<HD1>4.3. Test Measurement and Calculation
</HD1>
<P>Efficiency can be calculated from either average power or accumulated energy.
</P>
<HD2>4.3.1. Average Power Calculations
</HD2>
<P>If efficiency calculation are to be made using average power, calculate the average power consumption (P<E T="52">avg</E>) by sampling the power at a rate of at least 1 sample per second and computing the arithmetic mean of all samples over the time period specified for each test as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.021.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg</E> = average power
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">i</E> = power measured during individual measurement (<I>i</I>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> = total number of measurements
</FP-2>
<HD2>4.3.2. Steady State
</HD2>
<P>Operate the UUT and the load for a sufficient length of time to reach steady state conditions. To determine if steady state conditions have been attained, perform the following steady state check, in which the difference between the two efficiency calculations must be less than 1 percent:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Simultaneously measure the UUT's input and output power for at least 5 minutes, as specified in section 4.3.1 of this appendix, and record the average of each over the duration as <I>P</I><E T="54">avg__in</E> and <I>P</I><E T="54">avg__out</E>, respectively. Or,
</P>
<P>(2) Simultaneously measure the UUT's input and output energy for at least 5 minutes and record the accumulation of each over the duration as <I>E</I><E T="54">in</E> and <I>E</I><E T="54">out</E>, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) Calculate the UUT's efficiency, <I>Eff</I><E T="54">1</E>, using one of the following two equations:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.022.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I> is the UUT efficiency
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg__out</E> is the average output power in watts
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg__in</E> is the average input power in watts
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.023.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I> is the UUT efficiency
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">out</E> is the accumulated output energy in watt-hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">in</E> in the accumulated input energy in watt-hours
</FP-2>
<P>(c) Wait a minimum of 10 minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) Repeat the steps listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of section 4.3.2 of this appendix to calculate another efficiency value, <I>Eff</I><E T="54">2</E>.
</P>
<P>(e) Determine if the product is at steady state using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.024.gif"/>
<P>If the percentage difference of <I>Eff</I><E T="54">1</E> and <I>Eff</I><E T="54">2</E> as described in the equation, is less than 1 percent, the product is at steady state.
</P>
<P>(f) If the percentage difference is greater than or equal to 1 percent, the product is not at steady state. Repeat the steps listed in paragraphs (c) to (e) of section 4.3.2 of this appendix until the product is at steady state.
</P>
<HD2>4.3.3. Power Measurements and Efficiency Calculations
</HD2>
<P>Measure input and output power of the UUT according to section J.3 of Annex J of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0, or measure the input and output energy of the UUT for efficiency calculations with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(a) Test the UUT at the following reference test load conditions, in the following order: 100 percent, 75 percent, 50 percent, and 25 percent of the rated output power.
</P>
<P>(b) Perform the test at each of the reference test loads by simultaneously measuring the UUT's input and output power in Watts (W), or input and output energy in Watt-Hours (Wh) over a 15 minute test period at a rate of at least 1 Hz. Calculate the efficiency for that reference load using one of the following two equations:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.025.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I><E T="54">n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the efficiency at reference test load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg__out n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the average output power at reference load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg__in n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the average input power at reference load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.026.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I><E T="54">n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the efficiency at reference test load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">out n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the accumulated output energy at reference load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">in n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the accumulated input energy at reference load <I>n</I>%


</FP-2>
<P>(c) For representations of no-load losses, measure the active power at the UPS input port with no load applied in accordance with section 6.2.2.4 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0.
</P>
<P><I>4.3.4 UUT Classification</I>
</P>
<P>Optional Test for determination of UPS architecture. Determine the UPS architecture by performing the tests specified in the definitions of VI, VFD, and VFI (sections 2.27.1 through 2.27.3 of this appendix).


</P>
<HD2>4.3.5. Output Efficiency Calculation
</HD2>
<P>(a) Use the load weightings from Table 4.3.1 to determine the average load adjusted efficiency as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12de16.029.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I><E T="54">avg</E> = the average load adjusted efficiency
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the portion of time spent at reference test load <I>n</I>% as specified in Table 4.3.1
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I>|<E T="54">n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the measured efficiency at reference test load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.3.1—Load Weightings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Rated output power
<br/>(W)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">UPS architecture
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Portion of time spent at reference load
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">25%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">75%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P ≤ 1500 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VFD</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI or VFI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P &gt; 1500 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VFD, VI, or VFI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Measuring efficiency at loading points with 0 time weighting is not required.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Round the calculated efficiency value to one tenth of a percentage point.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 31776, June 1, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 31842, May 20, 2016; 81 FR 42235, June 29, 2016; 81 FR 89822, Dec. 12, 2016; 87 FR 28756, May 11, 2022; 87 FR 55122, Sept. 8, 2022; 89 FR 28592, Apr. 19, 2024; 90 FR 6791, Jan. 21, 2025]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix Y1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.41" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix Y1 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Battery Chargers
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1:
</HED>
<P>For all Battery Chargers, including UPSs, compliance with the relevant standard in § 430.32(z) or any representation must be based upon results generated under the corresponding appendix listed in the following table:</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery chargers other than UPSs
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UPS
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On or After July 3, 2024 and Before October 16, 2024</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y as it appeared on either March 7, 2023, or July 3, 2024</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y as it appeared on either March 7, 2023, or July 3, 2024
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On or After October 16, 2024 and Before compliance date of any new or amended standards published any time after September 2022</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y as it appeared on July 3, 2024.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y as it appeared on July 3, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On or After compliance date of any new or amended standards published any time after September 2022</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use appendix Y1.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3 the entire test standard for IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0. However, only enumerated provisions of this standard are applicable to this appendix, as follows. In cases in which there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the referenced test standard.
</P>
<P>0.1 IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3.5, Specified values;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3.5.49, total harmonic distortion;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5, Electrical conditions, performance and declared values;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5.2, UPS input specification, as specified in section 2.28.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5.2.1, Conditions for normal mode of operation; Clause 5.2.1.a;
</P>
<P>(f) Clause 5.2.1.b;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 5.2.2, Conditions to be declared by the manufacturer; Clause 5.2.2.k;
</P>
<P>(h) Clause 5.2.2.l;
</P>
<P>(i) Clause 5.2.2.m;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 5.3, UPS output specification; Section 5.3.2, Characteristics to be declared by the manufacturer; Clause 5.3.2.b;
</P>
<P>(k) Clause 5.3.2.c;
</P>
<P>(l) Clause 5.3.2.d;
</P>
<P>(m) Clause 5.3.2.e;
</P>
<P>(n) Section 5.3.4.2, Input dependency AAA;
</P>
<P>(o) Section 6.2, Routine test procedure; Section 6.2.2, Electrical; Section 6.2.2.4, No load, as specified in section 4.3.3(c) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(p) Section 6.2.2.7, AC input failure, as specified in Note to section 2.28.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(q) Section 6.4, Type test procedure (electrical); Section 6.4.1, Input—AC input power compatibility; Section 6.4.1.2, Steady state input voltage tolerance and VI input independency, as specified in Note to section 2.28.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(r) Section 6.4.1.3, Combined input voltage/frequency tolerance and VFI input independency, as specified in Note to section 2.28.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(s) Annex G—AC input power failure—Test method;
</P>
<P>(t) Annex J—UPS efficiency and no load losses—Methods of measurement, as specified in sections 4.2.1 and 4.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 [Reserved]


</HD3>
<HD2>1. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix provides the test requirements used to measure the energy consumption of battery chargers, including fixed-location wireless chargers designed for charging batteries with less than 100 watt-hour battery energy and open-placement wireless chargers, operating at either DC or United States AC line voltage (nominally 115V at 60Hz). This appendix also provides the test requirements used to measure the energy efficiency of uninterruptible power supplies as defined in section 2 of this appendix that utilize the standardized National Electrical Manufacturer Association (NEMA) plug, 1-15P or 5-15P, as specified in ANSI/NEMA WD 6-2016 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) and have an AC output. This appendix does not provide a method for testing back-up battery chargers.
</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The following definitions are for the purposes of explaining the terminology associated with the test method for measuring battery charger energy consumption.
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For clarity on any other terminology used in the test method, please refer to IEEE 1515-2000, (Sources for information and guidance, see § 430.4).
</P>
<P>2.1. <I>Active mode</I> or <I>charge mode</I> is the state in which the battery charger system is connected to the main electricity supply, and the battery charger is delivering current, equalizing the cells, and performing other one-time or limited-time functions in order to bring the battery to a fully charged state.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Active power</I> or <I>real power</I> (P) means the average power consumed by a unit. For a two terminal device with current and voltage waveforms i(t) and v(t), which are periodic with period T, the real or active power P is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.003.gif"/>
<P>2.3. <I>Ambient temperature</I> is the temperature of the ambient air immediately surrounding the unit under test.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Apparent power (S)</I> is the product of root-mean-square (RMS) voltage and RMS current in volt-amperes (VA).
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Batch charger</I> is a battery charger that charges two or more identical batteries simultaneously in a series, parallel, series-parallel, or parallel-series configuration. A batch charger does not have separate voltage or current regulation, nor does it have any separate indicators for each battery in the batch. When testing a batch charger, the term “battery” is understood to mean, collectively, all the batteries in the batch that are charged together. A charger can be both a batch charger and a multi-port charger or multi-voltage charger.
</P>
<P>2.6. <I>Battery</I> or <I>battery pack</I> is an assembly of one or more rechargeable cells and any integral protective circuitry intended to provide electrical energy to a consumer product, and may be in one of the following forms:
</P>
<P>(a) Detachable battery (a battery that is contained in a separate enclosure from the consumer product and is intended to be removed or disconnected from the consumer product for recharging); or
</P>
<P>(b) Integral battery (a battery that is contained within the consumer product and is not removed from the consumer product for charging purposes). The word “intended” in this context refers to whether a battery has been designed in such a way as to permit its removal or disconnection from its associated consumer product.
</P>
<P>2.7. <I>Battery energy</I> is the energy, in watt-hours, delivered by the battery under the specified discharge conditions in the test procedure.


</P>
<P>2.8. <I>Battery maintenance mode</I> or <I>maintenance mode,</I> is a subset of standby mode in which the battery charger is connected to the main electricity supply and the battery is fully charged, but is still connected to the charger.
</P>
<P>2.9. <I>Battery rest period</I> is a period of time between discharge and charge or between charge and discharge, during which the battery is resting in an open-circuit state in ambient air.
</P>
<P>2.10. <I>C-Rate</I> (C) is the rate of charge or discharge, calculated by dividing the charge or discharge current by the nameplate battery charge capacity of the battery. For example, a 0.2 C-rate would result in a charge or discharge period of 5 hours.
</P>
<P>2.11. <I>Cradle</I> is an electrical interface between an integral battery product and the rest of the battery charger designed to hold the product between uses.
</P>
<P>2.12. <I>Energy storage system</I> is a system consisting of single or multiple devices designed to provide power to the UPS inverter circuitry.
</P>
<P>2.13. <I>Equalization</I> is a process whereby a battery is overcharged, beyond what would be considered “normal” charge return, so that cells can be balanced, electrolyte mixed, and plate sulfation removed.
</P>
<P>2.14. <I>Instructions</I> or <I>manufacturer's instructions</I> means the documentation packaged with a product in printed or electronic form and any information about the product listed on a website maintained by the manufacturer and accessible by the general public at the time of the test. It also includes any information on the packaging or on the product itself. “Instructions” also includes any service manuals or data sheets that the manufacturer offers to independent service technicians, whether printed or in electronic form.
</P>
<P>2.15. <I>Measured charge capacity of a battery</I> is the product of the discharge current in amperes and the time in decimal hours required to reach the specified end-of-discharge voltage.
</P>
<P>2.16. <I>Manual on-off switch</I> is a switch activated by the user to control power reaching the battery charger. This term does not apply to any mechanical, optical, or electronic switches that automatically disconnect mains power from the battery charger when a battery is removed from a cradle or charging base, or for products with non-detachable batteries that control power to the product itself.
</P>
<P>2.17. <I>Multi-port charger</I> means a battery charger that charges two or more batteries (which may be identical or different) simultaneously. The batteries are not connected in series or in parallel but with each port having separate voltage and/or current regulation. If the charger has status indicators, each port has its own indicator(s). A charger can be both a batch charger and a multi-port charger if it is capable of charging two or more batches of batteries simultaneously and each batch has separate regulation and/or indicator(s).
</P>
<P>2.18. <I>Multi-voltage charger</I> is a battery charger that, by design, can charge a variety of batteries (or batches of batteries, if also a batch charger) that are of different nameplate battery voltages. A multi-voltage charger can also be a multi-port charger if it can charge two or more batteries simultaneously with independent voltages and/or current regulation.
</P>
<P>2.19. <I>Normal mode</I> is a mode of operation for a UPS in which:
</P>
<P>(a) The AC input supply is within required tolerances and supplies the UPS,
</P>
<P>(b) The energy storage system is being maintained at full charge or is under recharge, and
</P>
<P>(c) The load connected to the UPS is within the UPS's specified power rating.
</P>
<P>2.20. <I>Off mode</I> is the condition, applicable only to units with manual on-off switches, in which the battery charger:
</P>
<P>(a) Is connected to the main electricity supply;
</P>
<P>(b) Is not connected to the battery; and
</P>
<P>(c) All manual on-off switches are turned off.
</P>
<P>2.21. <I>Nameplate battery voltage</I> is specified by the battery manufacturer and typically printed on the label of the battery itself. If there are multiple batteries that are connected in series, the nameplate battery voltage of the batteries is the total voltage of the series configuration—that is, the nameplate voltage of each battery multiplied by the number of batteries connected in series. Connecting multiple batteries in parallel does not affect the nameplate battery voltage.
</P>
<P>2.22. <I>Nameplate battery charge capacity</I> is the capacity, claimed by the battery manufacturer on a label or in instructions, that the battery can store, usually given in ampere-hours (Ah) or milliampere-hours (mAh) and typically printed on the label of the battery itself. If there are multiple batteries that are connected in parallel, the nameplate battery charge capacity of the batteries is the total charge capacity of the parallel configuration, that is, the nameplate charge capacity of each battery multiplied by the number of batteries connected in parallel. Connecting multiple batteries in series does not affect the nameplate charge capacity.
</P>
<P>2.23. <I>Nameplate battery energy capacity</I> means the product (in watts-hours (Wh)) of the nameplate battery voltage and the nameplate battery charge capacity.
</P>
<P>2.24. <I>No-battery mode</I> is a subset of standby mode and means the condition in which:
</P>
<P>(a) The battery charger is connected to the main electricity supply;
</P>
<P>(b) The battery is not connected to the charger; and
</P>
<P>(c) For battery chargers with manual on-off switches, all such switches are turned on.
</P>
<P>2.25. <I>Reference test load</I> is a load or a condition with a power factor of greater than 0.99 in which the AC output socket of the UPS delivers the active power (W) for which the UPS is rated.
</P>
<P>2.26. <I>Standby mode</I> means the condition in which the battery charge is either in maintenance mode or no battery mode as defined in this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.27. <I>Total harmonic distortion (THD),</I> expressed as a percent, is as defined in section 3.5.9 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0.




</P>
<P>2.28. <I>Uninterruptible power supply or UPS</I> means a battery charger consisting of a combination of convertors, switches and energy storage devices (such as batteries), constituting a power system for maintaining continuity of load power in case of AC input power failure.


</P>
<P>2.28.1. <I>Voltage and frequency dependent UPS or VFD UPS</I> means a UPS that protects the load from a complete loss of AC input power. The output of a VFD UPS is dependent on changes in voltage and frequency of the AC input power and is not intended to provide additional voltage corrective functions, such as those arising from the use of tapped transformers.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Note to 2.28.1:</E> VFD input dependency may be verified by performing the AC input failure test in section 6.2.2.7 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 and observing that, at a minimum, the UPS switches from normal mode of operation to battery power while the input is interrupted.




</P>
<P>2.28.2. <I>Voltage and frequency independent UPS or VFI UPS</I> means a UPS that is independent of AC input power voltage and frequency variations as specified and declared in section 5.2 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 and shall protect the load against adverse effects from such variations without discharging the energy storage device.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Note to 2.28.2:</E> VFI input dependency may be verified by performing the combined input voltage/frequency tolerance and VFI input independency test in section 6.4.1.3 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 respectively and observing that, at a minimum, the UPS produces an output voltage and frequency within the specified output range when the input voltage is varied by ±10% of the rated input voltage and the input frequency is varied by ±2% of the rated input frequency.


</P>
<P>2.28.3. <I>Voltage independent UPS or VI UPS</I> means a UPS that protects the load as required for VFD and also from (a) under-voltage applied continuously to the input, and (b) over-voltage applied continuously to the input. The output voltage of a VI UPS shall remain within declared voltage limits (provided by voltage corrective functions, such as those arising from the use of active and/or passive circuits). The output voltage tolerance band shall be narrower than the input voltage tolerance band.
</P>
<P><E T="04">Note to 2.28.3:</E> VI input dependency may be verified by performing the steady state input voltage tolerance test in section 6.4.1.2 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 and ensuring that the UPS remains in normal mode with the output voltage within the specified output range when the input voltage is varied by ±10% of the rated input voltage.


</P>
<P>2.29. <I>Unit under test</I> (UUT) in this appendix refers to the combination of the battery charger and battery being tested.
</P>
<P>2.30. <I>Wireless charger</I> is a battery charger that can charge batteries inductively.
</P>
<P>2.30.1. <I>Fixed-location wireless charger</I> is an inductive wireless battery charger that incorporates a physical receiver locating feature (e.g., by physical peg, cradle, locking mechanism, magnet, etc.) to repeatably align or orient the position of the receiver with respect to the transmitter.
</P>
<P>2.30.2. <I>Open-placement wireless charger</I> is an inductive wireless charger that does not incorporate a physical receiver locating feature (e.g., by a physical peg, cradle, locking mechanism, magnet etc.) to repeatably align or orient the position of the receiver with respect to the transmitter.
</P>
<HD2>3. Testing Requirements for all Battery Chargers Other Than Uninterruptible Power Supplies and Open-Placement Wireless Chargers
</HD2>
<HD2>3.1. Standard Test Conditions
</HD2>
<HD2>3.1.1. General
</HD2>
<P>The values that may be measured or calculated during the conduct of this test procedure have been summarized for easy reference in Table 3.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1.1—List of Measured or Calculated Values
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of measured or calculated value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Duration of the Charge and Maintenance Modes test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Battery Discharge Energy (E<E T="0732">batt</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Initial time and power (W) of the input current of connected battery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Active and Maintenance Modes Energy Consumption</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Maintenance Mode Power (P<E T="0732">m</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Active mode Energy Consumption (E<E T="0732">a</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. No-Battery Mode Power (P<E T="0732">nb</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Off Mode Power (P<E T="0732">off</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Standby Mode Power (P<E T="0732">sb</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 3.3.13.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.1.2. Verifying Accuracy and Precision of Measuring Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Any power measurement equipment utilized for testing must conform to the uncertainty and resolution requirements outlined in Section 4, “General conditions for measurement”, as well as Annexes B, “Notes on the measurement of low-power modes”, and D, “Determination of uncertainty of measurement”, of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD2>3.1.3. Setting Up the Test Room
</HD2>
<P>All tests, battery conditioning, and battery rest periods shall be carried out in a room with an air speed immediately surrounding the UUT of ≤0.5 m/s. The ambient temperature shall be maintained at 20 °C ± 5 °C throughout the test. There shall be no intentional cooling of the UUT such as by use of separately powered fans, air conditioners, or heat sinks. The UUT shall be conditioned, rested, and tested on a thermally non-conductive surface. When not undergoing active testing, batteries shall be stored at 20 °C ± 5 °C.
</P>
<HD2>3.1.4. Verifying the UUT's Input Voltage and Input Frequency
</HD2>
<P>(a) If the UUT is intended for operation on AC line-voltage input in the United States, it shall be tested at 115 V at 60 Hz. If the UUT is intended for operation on AC line-voltage input but cannot be operated at 115 V at 60 Hz, it shall not be tested.
</P>
<P>(b) If a battery charger is powered by a low-voltage DC or AC input and the manufacturer packages the battery charger with an external power supply (“EPS”), test the battery charger using the packaged EPS; if the battery charger does not include a pre-packaged EPS, then test the battery charger with an EPS sold and recommended by the manufacturer; if the manufacturer does not recommend an EPS that it sells, test the battery charger with an EPS that the manufacturer recommends for use in the manufacturer materials. The input reference source shall be 115 V at 60 Hz. If the EPS cannot be operated with AC input voltage at 115 V at 60 Hz, the charger shall not be tested.
</P>
<P>(c) If a battery charger is designed for operation only on DC input voltage and if the provisions of section 3.1.4.(b) of this appendix do not apply, test the battery charger with an external power supply that minimally complies with the applicable energy conservation standard and meets the external power supply parameters specified by the battery charger manufacturer. The input voltage shall be within ±1 percent of the battery charger manufacturer specified voltage.
</P>
<P>(d) If the input voltage is AC, the input frequency shall be within ±1 percent of the specified frequency. The THD of the input voltage shall be ≤2 percent, up to and including the 13th harmonic. The crest factor of the input voltage shall be between 1.34 and 1.49.
</P>
<P>(e) If the input voltage is DC, the AC ripple voltage (RMS) shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) ≤0.2 V for DC voltages up to 10 V; or
</P>
<P>(2) ≤2 percent of the DC voltage for DC voltages over 10 V.
</P>
<HD2>3.2. Unit Under Test Setup Requirements
</HD2>
<HD2>3.2.1. General Setup
</HD2>
<P>(a) The battery charger system shall be prepared and set up in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, except where those instructions conflict with the requirements of this test procedure. If no instructions are given, then factory or “default” settings shall be used, or where there are no indications of such settings, the UUT shall be tested in the condition as it would be supplied to an end user.
</P>
<P>(b) If the battery charger has user controls to select from two or more charge rates (such as regular or fast charge) or different charge currents, the test shall be conducted at the fastest charge rate that is recommended by the manufacturer for everyday use, or, failing any explicit recommendation, the factory-default charge rate. If the charger has user controls for selecting special charge cycles that are recommended only for occasional use to preserve battery health, such as equalization charge, removing memory, or battery conditioning, these modes are not required to be tested. The settings of the controls shall be listed in the report for each test.
</P>
<HD2>3.2.2. Selection and Treatment of the Battery Charger
</HD2>
<P>The UUT, including the battery charger and its associated battery, shall be new products of the type and condition that would be sold to a customer. If the battery is lead-acid chemistry and the battery is to be stored for more than 24 hours between its initial acquisition and testing, the battery shall be charged before such storage.
</P>
<HD2>3.2.3. Selection of Batteries To Use for Testing
</HD2>
<P>(a) For chargers with integral batteries, the battery packaged with the charger shall be used for testing. For chargers with detachable batteries, the battery or batteries to be used for testing will vary depending on whether there are any batteries packaged with the battery charger.
</P>
<P>(1) If batteries are packaged with the charger, batteries for testing shall be selected from the batteries packaged with the battery charger, according to the procedure in section 3.2.3(b) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(2) If no batteries are packaged with the charger, but the instructions specify or recommend batteries for use with the charger, batteries for testing shall be selected from those recommended or specified in the instructions, according to the procedure in section 3.2.3(b) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(3) If no batteries are packaged with the charger and the instructions do not specify or recommend batteries for use with the charger, batteries for testing shall be selected from any that are suitable for use with the charger, according to the procedure in section 3.2.3(b) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) From the detachable batteries specified in section 3.2.3.(a) of this appendix, use Table 3.2.1 of this appendix to select the batteries to be used for testing, depending on the type of battery charger being tested. The battery charger types represented by the rows in the table are mutually exclusive. Find the single applicable row for the UUT, and test according to those requirements. Select only the single battery configuration specified for the battery charger type in Table 3.2.1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the battery selection criteria specified in Table 3.2.1 of this appendix results in two or more batteries or configurations of batteries of different chemistries, but with equal voltage and capacity ratings, determine the maintenance mode power, as specified in section 3.3.9 of this appendix, for each of the batteries or configurations of batteries, and select for testing the battery or configuration of batteries with the highest maintenance mode power.
</P>
<P>(c) A charger is considered as:
</P>
<P>(1) Single-capacity if all associated batteries have the same nameplate battery charge capacity (see definition) and, if it is a batch charger, all configurations of the batteries have the same nameplate battery charge capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) Multi-capacity if there are associated batteries or configurations of batteries that have different nameplate battery charge capacities.
</P>
<P>(d) The selected battery or batteries will be referred to as the “test battery” and will be used through the remainder of this test procedure.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.2.1—Battery Selection for Testing
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Type of charger
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tests to perform
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multi-voltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multi-port
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multi-capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery selection
<br/>(from all configurations of all associated batteries)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any associated battery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Highest charge capacity battery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes or No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use all ports. Use the maximum number of identical batteries with the highest nameplate battery charge capacity that the charger can accommodate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Highest voltage battery.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Yes to either or both</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use all ports. Use the battery or configuration of batteries with the highest individual voltage. If multiple batteries meet this criteria, then use the battery or configuration of batteries with the highest total nameplate battery charge capacity at the highest individual voltage.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.2.4. Limiting Other Non-Battery-Charger Functions
</HD2>
<P>(a) If the battery charger or product containing the battery charger does not have any additional functions unrelated to battery charging, this section may be skipped.
</P>
<P>(b) Any optional functions controlled by the user and not associated with the battery charging process (e.g., the answering machine in a cordless telephone charging base) shall be switched off. If it is not possible to switch such functions off, they shall be set to their lowest power-consuming mode during the test.
</P>
<P>(c) If the battery charger takes any physically separate connectors or cables not required for battery charging but associated with its other functionality (such as phone lines, serial or USB connections, Ethernet, cable TV lines, etc.), these connectors or cables shall be left disconnected during the testing.
</P>
<P>(d) Any manual on-off switches specifically associated with the battery charging process shall be switched on for the duration of the charge, maintenance, and no-battery mode tests, and switched off for the off mode test.
</P>
<HD2>3.2.5. Accessing the Battery for the Test
</HD2>
<P>(a) The technician may need to disassemble the end-use product or battery charger to gain access to the battery terminals for the Battery Discharge Energy Test in section 3.3.8 of this appendix. If the battery terminals are not clearly labeled, the technician shall use a voltmeter to identify the positive and negative terminals. These terminals will be the ones that give the largest voltage difference and are able to deliver significant current (0.2 C or 1/hr) into a load.
</P>
<P>(b) All conductors used for contacting the battery must be cleaned and burnished prior to connecting in order to decrease voltage drops and achieve consistent results.
</P>
<P>(c) Manufacturer's instructions for disassembly shall be followed, except those instructions that:
</P>
<P>(1) Lead to any permanent alteration of the battery charger circuitry or function;
</P>
<P>(2) Could alter the energy consumption of the battery charger compared to that experienced by a user during typical use, e.g., due to changes in the airflow through the enclosure of the UUT; or
</P>
<P>(3) Conflict requirements of this test procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) Care shall be taken by the technician during disassembly to follow appropriate safety precautions. If the functionality of the device or its safety features is compromised, the product shall be discarded after testing.
</P>
<P>(e) Some products may include protective circuitry between the battery cells and the remainder of the device. If the manufacturer provides a description for accessing the connections at the output of the protective circuitry, these connections shall be used to discharge the battery and measure the discharge energy. The energy consumed by the protective circuitry during discharge shall not be measured or credited as battery energy.
</P>
<P>(f) If any of the following conditions specified in sections 3.2.5.(f)(1) to 3.2.5.(f)(3) of this appendix are applicable, preventing the measurement of the Battery Discharge Energy and the Charging and Maintenance Mode Energy, a manufacturer must submit a petition for a test procedure waiver in accordance with § 430.27:
</P>
<P>(1) Inability to access the battery terminals;
</P>
<P>(2) Access to the battery terminals destroys charger functionality; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inability to draw current from the test battery.
</P>
<HD2>3.2.6. Determining Charge Capacity for Batteries With No Rating
</HD2>
<P>(a) If there is no rating for the battery charge capacity on the battery or in the instructions, then the technician shall determine a discharge current that meets the following requirements. The battery shall be fully charged and then discharged at this constant-current rate until it reaches the end-of-discharge voltage specified in Table 3.3.2 of this appendix. The discharge time must be not less than 4.5 hours nor more than 5 hours. In addition, the discharge test (section 3.3.8 of this appendix) (which may not be starting with a fully-charged battery) shall reach the end-of-discharge voltage within 5 hours. The same discharge current shall be used for both the preparations step (section 3.3.4 of this appendix) and the discharge test (section 3.3.8 of this appendix). The test report shall include the discharge current used and the resulting discharge times for both a fully-charged battery and for the discharge test.
</P>
<P>(b) For this section, the battery is considered as “fully charged” when either: it has been charged by the UUT until an indicator on the UUT shows that the charge is complete; or it has been charged by a battery analyzer at a current not greater than the discharge current until the battery analyzer indicates that the battery is fully charged.
</P>
<P>(c) When there is no capacity rating, a suitable discharge current must generally be determined by trial and error. Since the conditioning step does not require constant-current discharges, the trials themselves may also be counted as part of battery conditioning.
</P>
<HD2>3.3. Test Measurement
</HD2>
<P>The test sequence to measure the battery charger energy consumption is summarized in Table 3.3.1 of this appendix, and explained in detail in this appendix. Measurements shall be made under test conditions and with the equipment specified in sections 3.1 and 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.3.1—Test Sequence
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Step/description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Equipment needed
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Data taken?
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test battery
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Charger
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery
<br/>analyzer or
<br/>constant-
<br/>current load
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AC power
<br/>meter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Thermometer
<br/>(for flooded lead-acid
<br/>battery
<br/>chargers only)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Record general data on UUT; Section 3.3.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Determine Active and Maintenance Modes Test duration; Section 3.3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Battery conditioning; Section 3.3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Prepare battery for Active Mode test; Section 3.3.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Battery rest period; Section 3.3.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Conduct Active and Maintenance Modes Test; Section 3.3.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Battery Rest Period; Section 3.3.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Battery Discharge Energy Test; Section 3.3.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Determine the Maintenance Mode Power; Section 3.3.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Determine Active Charge Energy; Section 3.3.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Conduct No-Battery Mode Test; Section 3.3.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Conduct Off Mode Test; Section 3.3.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. Calculating Standby Mode Power; Section 3.3.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.3.1. Recording General Data on the UUT
</HD2>
<P>The technician shall record:
</P>
<P>(a) The manufacturer and model of the battery charger;
</P>
<P>(b) The presence and status of any additional functions unrelated to battery charging;
</P>
<P>(c) The manufacturer, model, and number of batteries in the test battery;
</P>
<P>(d) The nameplate battery voltage of the test battery;
</P>
<P>(e) The nameplate battery charge capacity of the test battery; and
</P>
<P>(f) The nameplate battery charge energy of the test battery.
</P>
<P>(g) The settings of the controls, if battery charger has user controls to select from two or more charge rates.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.2. Determining the Duration of the Charge and Maintenance Modes Test
</HD2>
<P>(a) The charge and maintenance modes test, described in detail in section 3.3.6 of this appendix, shall be 24 hours in length or longer, as determined by the items in sections 3.3.2.(a)(1) to 3.3.2.(a)(3) of this appendix. Proceed in order until a test duration is determined. In case when the battery charger does not enter its true battery maintenance mode, the test shall continue until 5 hours after the true battery maintenance mode has been captured.
</P>
<P>(1) If the battery charger has an indicator to show that the battery is fully charged, that indicator shall be used as follows: if the indicator shows that the battery is charged after 19 hours of charging, the test shall be terminated at 24 hours. Conversely, if the full-charge indication is not yet present after 19 hours of charging, the test shall continue until 5 hours after the indication is present.
</P>
<P>(2) If there is no indicator, but the manufacturer's instructions indicate that charging this battery or this capacity of battery should be complete within 19 hours, the test shall be for 24 hours. If the instructions indicate that charging may take longer than 19 hours, the test shall be run for the longest estimated charge time plus 5 hours.
</P>
<P>(3) If there is no indicator and no time estimate in the instructions, but the charging current is stated on the charger or in the instructions, calculate the test duration as the longer of 24 hours or:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.004.gif"/>
<P>(b) If none of section 3.3.2.(a) applies, the duration of the test shall be 24 hours.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.3. Battery Conditioning
</HD2>
<P>(a) No conditioning is to be done on lithium-ion batteries. The test technician shall proceed directly to battery preparation, section 3.3.4 of this appendix, when testing chargers for these batteries.
</P>
<P>(b) Products with integral batteries will have to be disassembled per the instructions in section 3.2.5 of this appendix, and the battery disconnected from the charger for discharging.
</P>
<P>(c) Batteries of other chemistries that have not been previously cycled are to be conditioned by performing two charges and two discharges, followed by a charge, as sections 3.3.3.(c)(1) to 3.3.3.(c)(5) of this appendix. No data need be recorded during battery conditioning.
</P>
<P>(1) The test battery shall be fully charged for the duration specified in section 3.3.2 of this appendix or longer using the UUT.
</P>
<P>(2) The test battery shall then be fully discharged using either:
</P>
<P>(i) A battery analyzer at a rate not to exceed 1 C, until its average cell voltage under load reaches the end-of-discharge voltage specified in Table 3.3.2 of this appendix for the relevant battery chemistry; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The UUT, until the UUT ceases operation due to low battery voltage.
</P>
<P>(3) The test battery shall again be fully charged per step in section 3.3.3(c)(1) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(4) The test battery shall again be fully discharged per step in section 3.3.3(c)(2) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(5) The test battery shall be again fully charged per step in section 3.3.3(c)(1) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Batteries of chemistries, other than lithium-ion, that are known to have been through at least two previous full charge/discharge cycles shall only be charged once per step in section 3.3.3(c)(5) of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.4. Preparing the Battery for Charge Testing
</HD2>
<P>Following any conditioning prior to beginning the battery charge test (section 3.3.6 of this appendix), the test battery shall be fully discharged to the end of discharge voltage prescribed in Table 3.3.2 of this appendix, or until the UUT circuitry terminates the discharge.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.5. Resting the Battery
</HD2>
<P>The test battery shall be rested between preparation and the battery charge test. The rest period shall be at least one hour and not exceed 24 hours. For batteries with flooded cells, the electrolyte temperature shall be less than 30 °C before charging, even if the rest period must be extended longer than 24 hours.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.6. Testing Active Charge Mode and Battery Maintenance Mode
</HD2>
<P>(a) The Active Charge and Battery Maintenance Modes test measures energy consumed during charge mode and some time spent in the maintenance mode of the UUT. Functions required for battery conditioning that happen only with some user-selected switch or other control shall not be included in this measurement. (The technician shall manually turn off any battery conditioning cycle or setting.) Regularly occurring battery conditioning or maintenance functions that are not controlled by the user will, by default, be incorporated into this measurement.
</P>
<P>(b) During the measurement period, input power values to the UUT shall be recorded at least once every minute.
</P>
<P>(1) If possible, the technician shall set the data logging system to record the average power during the sample interval. The total energy is computed as the sum of power samples (in watts) multiplied by the sample interval (in hours).
</P>
<P>(2) If this setting is not possible, then the power analyzer shall be set to integrate or accumulate the input power over the measurement period and this result shall be used as the total energy.
</P>
<P>(c) The technician shall follow these steps:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the user-controllable device functionality not associated with battery charging and any battery conditioning cycle or setting are turned off, as instructed in section 3.2.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the test battery used in this test has been conditioned, prepared, discharged, and rested as described in sections 3.3.3. through 3.3.5. of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(3) Connect the data logging equipment to the battery charger;
</P>
<P>(4) Record the start time of the measurement period, and begin logging the input power;
</P>
<P>(5) Connect the test battery to the battery charger within 3 minutes of beginning logging. For integral battery products, connect the product to a cradle or EPS within 3 minutes of beginning logging;
</P>
<P>(6) After the test battery is connected, record the initial time and power (W) of the input current to the UUT. These measurements shall be taken within the first 10 minutes of active charging;
</P>
<P>(7) Record the input power for the duration of the “Maintenance Mode Test” period, as determined by section 3.3.2. of this appendix. The actual time that power is connected to the UUT shall be within ±5 minutes of the specified period; and
</P>
<P>(8) Disconnect power to the UUT, terminate data logging, and record the final time.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.7. Resting the Battery
</HD2>
<P>The test battery shall be rested between charging and discharging. The rest period shall be at least 1 hour and not more than 4 hours, with an exception for flooded cells. For batteries with flooded cells, the electrolyte temperature shall be less than 30 °C before charging, even if the rest period must be extended beyond 4 hours.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.8. Battery Discharge Energy Test
</HD2>
<P>(a) If multiple batteries were charged simultaneously, the discharge energy (E<E T="52">batt</E>) is the sum of the discharge energies of all the batteries.
</P>
<P>(1) For a multi-port charger, batteries that were charged in separate ports shall be discharged independently.
</P>
<P>(2) For a batch charger, batteries that were charged as a group may be discharged individually, as a group, or in sub-groups connected in series and/or parallel. The position of each battery with respect to the other batteries need not be maintained.
</P>
<P>(b) During discharge, the battery voltage and discharge current shall be sampled and recorded at least once per minute. The values recorded may be average or instantaneous values.
</P>
<P>(c) For this test, the technician shall follow these steps:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the test battery has been charged by the UUT and rested according to the procedures prescribed in sections 3.3.6 and 3.3.7 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(2) Set the battery analyzer for a constant discharge rate and the end-of-discharge voltage in Table 3.3.2 of this appendix for the relevant battery chemistry.
</P>
<P>(3) Connect the test battery to the analyzer and begin recording the voltage, current, and wattage, if available from the battery analyzer. When the end-of-discharge voltage is reached or the UUT circuitry terminates the discharge, the test battery shall be returned to an open-circuit condition. If current continues to be drawn from the test battery after the end-of-discharge condition is first reached, this additional energy is not to be counted in the battery discharge energy.
</P>
<P>(d) If not available from the battery analyzer, the battery discharge energy (in watt-hours) is calculated by multiplying the voltage (in volts), current (in amperes), and sample period (in hours) for each sample, and then summing over all sample periods until the end-of-discharge voltage is reached.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.3.2—Required Battery Discharge Rates and End-of-Discharge Battery Voltages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery chemistry
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discharge rate
<br/>(C)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">End-of-
<br/>discharge
<br/>voltage*
<br/>(volts per cell)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Valve-Regulated Lead Acid (VRLA)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Flooded Lead Acid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel Cadmium (NiCd)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nickel Metal Hydride (NiMH)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium-ion (Li-Ion)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium-ion Polymer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lithium Iron Phosphate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rechargeable Alkaline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Silver Zinc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>*If the presence of protective circuitry prevents the battery cells from being discharged to the end-of-discharge voltage specified, then discharge battery cells to the lowest possible voltage permitted by the protective circuitry.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.9. Determining the Maintenance Mode Power
</HD2>
<P>After the measurement period is complete, the technician shall determine the average maintenance mode power consumption (P<E T="52">m</E>) by examining the power-versus-time data from the charge and maintenance mode test and:
</P>
<P>(a) If the maintenance mode power is cyclic or shows periodic pulses, compute the average power over a time period that spans a whole number of cycles and includes at least the last 4 hours.
</P>
<P>(b) Otherwise, calculate the average power value over the last 4 hours.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.10. Determining the Active Charge Energy
</HD2>
<P>After the measurement period is complete, the technician shall determine the total active charge energy (E<E T="52">a</E>) by examining the power-versus-time data from the charge and maintenance mode test and:
</P>
<P>(a) First determine when the battery charger enters maintenance mode by examining the power-versus-time data to identify when the input power enters either a steady state or a cyclic state with average power for that period being the same as the maintenance mode power determined in section 3.3.9. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) The accumulated energy or the average input power, integrated over the test period from the initial recorded input time up until when the battery charger enters maintenance mode would be the active charge energy, E<E T="52">a</E>.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.11. No-Battery Mode Energy Consumption Measurement
</HD2>
<P>The no-battery mode measurement depends on the configuration of the battery charger, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Conduct a measurement of no-battery power consumption while the battery charger is connected to the power source. Disconnect the battery from the charger, allow the charger to operate for at least 30 minutes, and record the power (<I>i.e.,</I> watts) consumed as the time series integral of the power consumed over a 10-minute test period, divided by the period of measurement. If the battery charger has manual on-off switches, all must be turned on for the duration of the no-battery mode test.
</P>
<P>(b) No-battery mode may also apply to products with integral batteries, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the product uses a cradle and/or adapter for power conversion and charging, then “disconnecting the battery from the charger” will require disconnection of the end-use product, which contains the batteries. The other enclosures of the battery charging system will remain connected to the main electricity supply, and no-battery mode power consumption will equal that of the cradle and/or adapter alone.
</P>
<P>(2) If the product is powered through a detachable AC power cord and contains integrated power conversion and charging circuitry, then only the cord will remain connected to mains, and no-battery mode power consumption will equal that of the AC power cord (<I>i.e.,</I> zero watts).
</P>
<P>(3) If the product contains integrated power conversion and charging circuitry but is powered through a non-detachable AC power cord or plug blades, then no part of the system will remain connected to mains, and no-battery mode measurement is not applicable.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.12. Off Mode Energy Consumption Measurement
</HD2>
<P>The off mode measurement depends on the configuration of the battery charger, as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) If the battery charger has manual on-off switches, record a measurement of off mode energy consumption while the battery charger is connected to the power source. Remove the battery from the charger, allow the charger to operate for at least 30 minutes, and record the power (<I>i.e.,</I> watts) consumed as the time series integral of the power consumed over a 10-minute test period, divided by the period of measurement, with all manual on-off switches turned off. If the battery charger does not have manual on-off switches, record that the off mode measurement is not applicable to this product.
</P>
<P>(b) Off mode may also apply to products with integral batteries, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the product uses a cradle and/or adapter for power conversion and charging, then “disconnecting the battery from the charger” will require disconnection of the end-use product, which contains the batteries. The other enclosures of the battery charging system will remain connected to the main electricity supply, and off mode power consumption will equal that of the cradle and/or adapter alone.
</P>
<P>(2) If the product is powered through a detachable AC power cord and contains integrated power conversion and charging circuitry, then only the cord will remain connected to mains, and off mode power consumption will equal that of the AC power cord (<I>i.e.,</I> zero watts).
</P>
<P>(3) If the product contains integrated power conversion and charging circuitry but is powered through a non-detachable AC power cord or plug blades, then no part of the system will remain connected to mains, and off mode measurement is not applicable.
</P>
<HD2>3.3.13. Standby Mode Power
</HD2>
<P>The standby mode power (P<E T="52">sb</E>) is the summation power of battery maintenance mode power (P<E T="52">m</E>) and no-battery mode power (P<E T="52">nb</E>).
</P>
<HD2>4. Testing Requirements for Uninterruptible Power Supplies
</HD2>
<HD2>4.1. Standard Test Conditions
</HD2>
<HD2>4.1.1. Measuring Equipment
</HD2>
<P>(a) The power or energy meter must provide true root mean square (r.m.s) measurements of the active input and output measurements, with an uncertainty at full rated load of less than or equal to 0.5 percent at the 95 percent confidence level notwithstanding that voltage and current waveforms can include harmonic components. The meter must measure input and output values simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(b) All measurement equipment used to conduct the tests must be calibrated within the measurement equipment manufacturer specified calibration period by a standard traceable to International System of Units such that measurements meet the uncertainty requirements specified in section 4.1.1(a) of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>4.1.2. Test Room Requirements
</HD2>
<P>All portions of the test must be carried out in a room with an air speed immediately surrounding the UUT of ≤0.5 m/s in all directions. Maintain the ambient temperature in the range of 20.0 °C to 30.0 °C, including all inaccuracies and uncertainties introduced by the temperature measurement equipment, throughout the test. No intentional cooling of the UUT, such as by use of separately powered fans, air conditioners, or heat sinks, is permitted. Test the UUT on a thermally non-conductive surface.
</P>
<HD2>4.1.3. Input Voltage and Input Frequency
</HD2>
<P>The AC input voltage and frequency to the UPS during testing must be within 3 percent of the highest rated voltage and within 1 percent of the highest rated frequency of the device.
</P>
<HD2>4.2. Unit Under Test Setup Requirements
</HD2>
<HD2>4.2.1. General Setup
</HD2>
<P>Configure the UPS according to Annex J.2 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0 with the following additional requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) UPS Operating Mode Conditions. If the UPS can operate in two or more distinct normal modes as more than one UPS architecture, conduct the test in its lowest input dependency as well as in its highest input dependency mode where VFD represents the lowest possible input dependency, followed by VI and then VFI.
</P>
<P>(b) Energy Storage System. The UPS must not be modified or adjusted to disable energy storage charging features. Minimize the transfer of energy to and from the energy storage system by ensuring the energy storage system is fully charged (at the start of testing) as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the UUT has a battery charge indicator, charge the battery for 5 hours after the UUT has indicated that it is fully charged.
</P>
<P>(2) If the UUT does not have a battery charge indicator but the user manual shipped with the UUT specifies a time to reach full charge, charge the battery for 5 hours longer than the time specified.
</P>
<P>(3) If the UUT does not have a battery charge indicator or user manual instructions, charge the battery for 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(c) DC output port(s). All DC output port(s) of the UUT must remain unloaded during testing.
</P>
<HD2>4.2.2. Additional Features
</HD2>
<P>(a) Any feature unrelated to maintaining the energy storage system at full charge or delivery of load power (e.g., LCD display) shall be switched off. If it is not possible to switch such features off, they shall be set to their lowest power-consuming mode during the test.
</P>
<P>(b) If the UPS takes any physically separate connectors or cables not required for maintaining the energy storage system at full charge or delivery of load power but associated with other features (such as serial or USB connections, Ethernet, etc.), these connectors or cables shall be left disconnected during the test.
</P>
<P>(c) Any manual on-off switches specifically associated with maintaining the energy storage system at full charge or delivery of load power shall be switched on for the duration of the test.
</P>
<HD2>4.3. Test Measurement and Calculation
</HD2>
<P>Efficiency can be calculated from either average power or accumulated energy.
</P>
<HD2>4.3.1. Average Power Calculations
</HD2>
<P>If efficiency calculation are to be made using average power, calculate the average power consumption (P<E T="52">avg</E>) by sampling the power at a rate of at least 1 sample per second and computing the arithmetic mean of all samples over the time period specified for each test as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.005.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg</E> = average power
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">i</E> = power measured during individual measurement (<I>i</I>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> = total number of measurements
</FP-2>
<HD2>4.3.2. Steady State
</HD2>
<P>Operate the UUT and the load for a sufficient length of time to reach steady state conditions. To determine if steady state conditions have been attained, perform the following steady state check, in which the difference between the two efficiency calculations must be less than 1 percent:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Simultaneously measure the UUT's input and output power for at least 5 minutes, as specified in section 4.3.1 of this appendix, and record the average of each over the duration as <I>P</I><E T="54">avg_in</E> and <I>P</I><E T="54">avg_out</E><I>,</I> respectively; or,
</P>
<P>(2) Simultaneously measure the UUT's input and output energy for at least 5 minutes and record the accumulation of each over the duration as <I>E</I><E T="54">in</E> and <I>E</I><E T="54">out</E><I>,</I> respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) Calculate the UUT's efficiency, <I>Eff</I><E T="54">1</E>, using one of the following two equations:
</P>
<P>(1)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.006.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I> is the UUT efficiency
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg_out</E> is the average output power in watts
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg_in</E> is the average input power in watts
</FP-2>
<P>(2)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I> is the UUT efficiency
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">out</E> is the accumulated output energy in watt-hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">in</E> in the accumulated input energy in watt-hours
</FP-2>
<P>(c) Wait a minimum of 10 minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) Repeat the steps listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of section 4.3.2 of this appendix to calculate another efficiency value, <I>Eff</I><E T="54">2</E>.
</P>
<P>(e) Determine if the product is at steady state using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.008.gif"/>
<P>If the percentage difference of <I>Eff</I><E T="54">1</E> and <I>Eff</I><E T="54">2</E> as described in the equation, is less than 1 percent, the product is at steady state.
</P>
<P>(f) If the percentage difference is greater than or equal to 1 percent, the product is not at steady state. Repeat the steps listed in paragraphs (c) to (e) of section 4.3.2 of this appendix until the product is at steady state.
</P>
<HD2>4.3.3. Power Measurements and Efficiency Calculations
</HD2>
<P>Measure input and output power of the UUT according to section J.3 of Annex J of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0, or measure the input and output energy of the UUT for efficiency calculations with the following exceptions:


</P>
<P>(a) Test the UUT at the following reference test load conditions, in the following order: 100 percent, 75 percent, 50 percent, and 25 percent of the rated output power.
</P>
<P>(b) Perform the test at each of the reference test loads by simultaneously measuring the UUT's input and output power in Watts (W), or input and output energy in Watt-Hours (Wh) over a 15 minute test period at a rate of at least 1 Hz. Calculate the efficiency for that reference load using one of the following two equations:
</P>
<P>(1)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.009.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I><E T="54">n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the efficiency at reference test load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg_out n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the average output power at reference load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">avg_in n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the average input power at reference load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<P>(2)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08se22.010.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I><E T="54">n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the efficiency at reference test load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">out n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the accumulated output energy at reference load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">in n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the accumulated input energy at reference load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<P>(c) For representations of no-load losses, measure the active power at the UPS input port with no load applied in accordance with section 6.2.2.4 of IEC 62040-3 Ed. 3.0.


</P>
<HD2>4.3.4. UUT Classification
</HD2>
<P>Optional Test for determination of UPS architecture. Determine the UPS architecture by performing the tests specified in the definitions of VI, VFD, and VFI (sections 2.28.1 through 2.28.3 of this appendix).
</P>
<HD2>4.3.5. Output Efficiency Calculation
</HD2>
<P>(a) Use the load weightings from Table 4.3.1 to determine the average load adjusted efficiency as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I><E T="54">avg</E> = (<I>t</I><E T="52">25</E><E T="0112">%</E> × <I>Eff</I> |<E T="52">25</E><E T="0112">%</E>) + (<I>t</I><E T="52">50</E><E T="0112">%</E> × <I>Eff</I> |<E T="52">50</E><E T="0112">%</E>) + (<I>t</I><E T="52">75</E><E T="0112">%</E> × <I>Eff</I> |<E T="52">75</E><E T="0112">%</E>) + (<I>t</I><E T="52">100</E><E T="0112">%</E> × <I>Eff</I> |<E T="52">100</E><E T="0112">%</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I><E T="54">avg</E> = the average load adjusted efficiency
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the portion of time spent at reference test load <I>n</I>% as specified in Table 4.3.1
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Eff</I> |<E T="54">n</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the measured efficiency at reference test load <I>n</I>%
</FP-2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.3.1—Load Weightings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Portion of time spent at reference load
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated output power
<br/>(W)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UPS architecture
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">25%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">75%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P ≤ 1500 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VFD</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VI or VFI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P &gt; 1500 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VFD, VI, or VFI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Measuring efficiency at loading points with 0 time weighting is not required.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Round the calculated efficiency value to one tenth of a percentage point.
</P>
<HD2>5. Testing Requirements for Open-Placement Wireless Chargers
</HD2>
<HD2>5.1. Standard Test Conditions and UUT Setup Requirements
</HD2>
<P>The technician will set up the testing environment according to the test conditions as specified in sections 3.1.2, 3.1.3, and 3.1.4 of this appendix. The unit under test will be configurated according to section 3.2.1 and all other non-battery charger related functions will be turned off according to section 3.2.4.
</P>
<HD2>5.2. Active Mode Test
</HD2>
<P>[Reserved]
</P>
<HD2>5.3. No-Battery Mode Test
</HD2>
<P>(a) Connect the UUT to mains power and place it in no-battery mode by ensuring there are no foreign objects on the charging surface (<I>i.e.,</I> without any load).
</P>
<P>(b) Monitor the AC input power for a period of 5 minutes to assess the stability of the UUT. If the power level does not drift by more than 1percent from the maximum value observed, the UUT is considered stable.
</P>
<P>(c) If the AC input power is not stable, follow the specifications in Section 5.3.3. of IEC 62301 for measuring average power or accumulated energy over time for the input. If the UUT is stable, record the measurements of the AC input power over a 5-minute period.


</P>
<P>(d) Power consumption calculation. The power consumption of the no-battery mode is equal to the active AC input power (W).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 55125, Sept. 8, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 28593, Apr. 19, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix Z" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.42" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix Z to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of External Power Supplies
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Starting on February 15, 2023, manufacturers must make any representations regarding the energy efficiency or power consumption of external power supplies based upon results generated under this appendix. Prior to that date, manufacturers must make any representations regarding the energy efficiency or power consumption of external power supplies based upon results generated under this appendix as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B revised as of January 1, 2021. The provisions at section (4)(g) of this appendix regarding the testing of units for which a wire or cord is not provided by the manufacturer are not required for use until such time as compliance is required with any amended standards for external power supplies provided in § 430.32(w) that are published after January 1, 2021.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. <I>Incorporation by reference.</I>
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for IEC 62301 in § 430.3; however, only enumerated provisions of this document are applicable to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<P>0.1 IEC 62301, (“IEC 62301”), Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power, (Edition 2.0, 2011-01), as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 4.3.2 “Supply voltage waveform,” as referenced in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4.4.1 “Power measurement uncertainty,” as referenced in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5.3.3 “Average reading method,” as referenced in sections 5 and 6 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Annex B “Notes on the measurement of low power modes,” as referenced in section 4 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(e) Annex D “Determination of uncertainty of measurement,” as referenced in section 4 of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>0.2 Reserved.
</P>
<HD2>1. [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>2. <I>Scope:</I> 
</HD2>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements used to measure the energy consumption of external power supplies subject to the energy conservation standards set forth at § 430.32(w)(1). Additionally, this appendix does not apply to external power supplies for which the primary load of the converted voltage within the device is not delivered to a separate end-use product, <I>i.e.,</I> products in which the primary load of converted voltage is delivered within the device itself to execute the primary function of the device. Examples of excluded products may include, but are not limited to, consumer electronics with USB outputs and lighting products with USB outputs.
</P>
<HD2>3. <I>Definitions:</I> 
</HD2>
<P>The following definitions are for the purposes of understanding terminology associated with the test method for measuring external power supply energy consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means the mode of operation when the external power supply is connected to the main electricity supply and the output is (or “all outputs are” for external power supplies with multiple outputs) connected to a load (or “loads” for external power supplies with multiple outputs).
</P>
<P><I>Active mode efficiency</I> is the ratio, expressed as a percentage, of the total real output power produced by a power supply to the real input power required to produce it. IEEE Standard 1515-2000, 4.3.1.1 (Reference for guidance only, see § 430.4.)
</P>
<P><I>Active power (P)</I> (also <I>real power</I>) means the average power consumed by a unit. For a two-terminal device with current and voltage waveforms i(t) and v(t), respectively, which are periodic with period T, the real or active power P is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19au22.003.gif"/>
<P><I>Adaptive external power supply</I> means an external power supply that can alter its output voltage during active-mode based on an established digital communication protocol with the end-use application without any user-generated action.
</P>
<P><I>Ambient temperature</I> means the temperature of the ambient air immediately surrounding the unit under test.
</P>
<P><I>Average Active-Mode Efficiency</I> means the average of the active mode efficiencies at the loading conditions (100, 75, 50 percent, and 25 percent of unit under test's nameplate output current) for which that unit can sustain the output current.
</P>
<P><I>Manual on-off switch</I> is a switch activated by the user to control power reaching the device. This term does not apply to any mechanical, optical, or electronic switches that automatically disconnect mains power from the device when a load is disconnected from the device, or that control power to the load itself.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum output current</I> means the minimum current that must be drawn from an output bus for an external power supply to operate within its specifications.
</P>
<P><I>Multiple-voltage external power supply</I> means an external power supply that is designed to convert line voltage AC input into more than one simultaneous lower-voltage output.
</P>
<P><I>Nameplate output current</I> means the current output of the power supply as specified on the manufacturer's label on the power supply housing (either DC or AC) or, if absent from the housing, as provided by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Nameplate output power</I> means the power output of the power supply as specified on the manufacturer's label on the power supply housing or, if absent from the housing, as specified in documentation provided by the manufacturer. For an adaptive external power supply with USB-PD ports, in place of the nameplate output power at the lowest voltage, use an output power calculated as the product of its lowest nameplate output voltage and 2 amps for each USB-PD port and as specified on the manufacturer's label or documentation at the highest voltage. This definition only applies to DOE testing and certification requirements and is unrelated to the physical nameplate label or documentation of an EPS.
</P>
<P><I>Nameplate output voltage</I> means the voltage output of the power supply as specified on the manufacturer's label on the power supply housing (either DC or AC).
</P>
<P><I>No-load mode</I> means the mode of operation when an external power supply is connected to the main electricity supply and the output is (or “all outputs are” for a multiple-voltage external power supply) not connected to a load (or “loads” for a multiple-voltage external power supply).
</P>
<P><I>Off-mode</I> is the condition, applicable only to units with manual on-off switches, in which the external power supply is:
</P>
<P>(1) Connected to the main electricity supply;
</P>
<P>(2) The output is not connected to any load; and
</P>
<P>(3) All manual on-off switches are turned off.
</P>
<P><I>Output bus</I> means any of the outputs of the power supply to which loads can be connected and from which power can be drawn, as opposed to signal connections used for communication.
</P>
<P><I>RMS</I> means root mean square.
</P>
<P><I>Single-voltage external AC-AC power supply</I> means an external power supply that is designed to convert line voltage AC input into lower voltage AC output and is able to convert to only one AC output voltage at a time.
</P>
<P><I>Single-voltage external AC-DC power supply</I> means an external power supply that is designed to convert line voltage AC input into lower-voltage DC output and is able to convert to only one DC output voltage at a time.
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means the condition in which the external power supply is in no-load mode and, for external power supplies with manual on-off switches, all such switches are turned on.
</P>
<P><I>Switch-selectable single voltage external power supply</I> means a single-voltage AC-AC or AC-DC power supply that allows users to choose from more than one output voltage.
</P>
<P><I>Total harmonic distortion (THD),</I> expressed as a percentage, is the RMS value of an AC signal after the fundamental component is removed and interharmonic components are ignored, divided by the RMS value of the fundamental component. THD of current is defined as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19au22.004.gif"/>
<FP>where <I>I</I><E T="54">n</E> is the RMS value of the <I>n</I>th harmonic of the current signal.
</FP>
<P><I>Unit under test (UUT)</I> is the external power supply being tested.
</P>
<P><I>USB Power Delivery (USB-PD) EPS</I> means an adaptive EPS that utilizes a USB Type-C output port and uses a digital protocol to communicate between the EPS and the end-use product to automatically switch between any output voltage within the range of 3.3 volts to 20 volts. The USB-PD output bus must be capable of delivering 3 amps at the lowest output voltage, and the currents must not exceed any of the following values for the supported voltages: 3 amps at 9 volts; 3 amps at 15 volts; and 5 amps at 20 volts.
</P>
<P><I>USB Type-C</I> means the reversible 24-pin physical USB connector system that supports USB-PD and allows for the transmission of data and power between compatible USB products.
</P>
<HD2>4. <I>Test Apparatus and General Instructions</I>
</HD2>
<P>(a) Any power measurements recorded, as well as any power measurement equipment utilized for testing, shall conform to the uncertainty and resolution specifications in Section 4.4.1, “Power measurement uncertainty,” as well as Annexes B, “Notes on the measurement of low power modes,” and D, “Determination of uncertainty of measurement,” of IEC 62301.
</P>
<P>(b) Carry out tests in a room that has an air speed close to the UUT of ≤0.5 m/s. Maintain ambient temperature at 20 ± 5 °C throughout the test. Do not intentionally cool the UUT, for example, by use of separately powered fans, air conditioners, or heat sinks. Test the UUT on a thermally non-conductive surface. Products intended for outdoor use may be tested at additional temperatures, provided those are in addition to the conditions specified and are noted in a separate section on the test report.
</P>
<P>(c) If the UUT is intended for operation on AC line-voltage input in the United States, test it at 115 V at 60 Hz. If the UUT is intended for operation on AC line-voltage input but cannot be operated at 115 V at 60 Hz, do not test it. Ensure the input voltage is within ±1 percent of the above specified voltage and the input frequency is within ±1 percent of the specified frequency.
</P>
<P>(d) The input voltage source must be capable of delivering at least 10 times the nameplate input power of the UUT as is specified in IEEE 1515-2000 (Referenced for guidance only, see § 430.4). Regardless of the AC source type, the THD of the supply voltage when supplying the UUT in the specified mode must not exceed 2 percent, up to and including the 13th harmonic. The peak value of the test voltage must be within 1.34 and 1.49 multiplied by its RMS value.
</P>
<P>(e) Select all leads used in the test set-up with appropriate wire gauges and lengths to minimize voltage drops across the wires during testing. See Table B.2 — “Commonly used values for wire gages [<I>sic</I>] and related voltage drops” in IEEE 1515-2000 for further guidance.
</P>
<P>(f) Test Load. To load the power supply to produce all active-mode loading conditions, use passive loads, such as rheostats, or active loads, such as electronic loads. Resistive loads need not be measured precisely with an ohmmeter; simply adjust a variable resistor to the point where the ammeter confirms that the desired percentage of nameplate output current is flowing. For electronic loads, adjust the desired output current in constant current mode rather than adjusting the required output power in constant power mode.
</P>
<P>(g) Test the external power supply at the end of the wire or cord that connects to an end-use product, regardless of whether the end of the wire or cord is integrated into an end-use product or plugs into and out of an end-use product. If a separate wire or cord is provided by the manufacturer to connect the external power supply to an end-use product, use this wire or cord and perform tests at the end of the cord that connects to an end-use product. An external power supply that is not supplied with a wire or cord must be tested with a wire or an output cord recommended by the manufacturer. If the external power supply is not supplied with a wire or cord and for which the manufacturer does not recommend one, the EPS must be tested with a 3-foot-long output wire or cord with a conductor thickness that is minimally sufficient to carry the maximum required current.
</P>
<P>(1) If the connection to an end-use product is removable, there are two options for connecting metering equipment to the output connection of the external power supply:
</P>
<P>(i) Cut the cord immediately adjacent to the output connector, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Attach leads and measure the efficiency from the output connector itself.
</P>
<P>(2) If the connection to an end-use product is not removable, cut the cord immediately adjacent to the powered product and connect metering equipment at that point.
</P>
<P>(h) Conduct the tests on the sets of output wires that constitute the output busses. If the product has more than two output wires, including those wires that are necessary for controlling the product, the manufacturer must supply a connection diagram or test fixture that will allow the testing laboratory to put the UUT into active mode. Figure 1 of this section provides one illustration of how to set up a single-voltage external power supply for testing; however, the actual test setup may vary pursuant to the type of external power supply being tested and the requirements of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19au22.005.gif"/>
<P>(i) Except as provided in section 4(j) of this appendix, external power supplies must be tested in their final, completed configuration in order to represent their measured efficiency on product labels or specification sheets. Although the same procedure may be used to test the efficiency of a bare circuit board power supply prior to its incorporation into a finished housing and the attachment of its DC output cord, the efficiency of the bare circuit board power supply may not be used to characterize the efficiency of the final product (once enclosed in a case and fitted with a DC output cord). For example, a power supply manufacturer or component manufacturer may wish to assess the efficiency of a design that it intends to provide to an OEM for incorporation into a finished external power supply, but these results may not be used to represent the efficiency of the finished external power supply.
</P>
<P>(j) If a product serves one or more other major functions in addition to converting household electric current into DC current or lower-voltage AC current, components of the product that serve other functions may be disconnected before testing so that test measurements do not include power used by other functions and as long as disconnecting such components do not affect the ability of the product to convert household electric current into DC current or lower-voltage AC current. For example, consider an EPS that also acts as a surge protector that offers outlets supplying AC household electric current and one or more USB outputs supplying DC current. If power is provided to the AC outlets through a surge protection circuit, but power to the USB outlet(s) is not, then the surge protection circuit may be disconnected from AC power during testing. Similarly, if a lighted manual on-off switch disconnects power only to the AC outlets, but not the USB outputs, then the manual on-off switch may be turned off and power to the light disconnected during testing. If a disconnection is performed by a technician, the disconnection must be able to be replicated by a third-party test facility.
</P>
<HD2>5. <I>Test Measurement for all External Power Supplies Other than Adaptive External Power Supplies:</I>
</HD2>
<P>(a) Single-Voltage External Power Supply
</P>
<P>(1) Standby Mode and Active-Mode Measurement.
</P>
<P>(i) Place in the “on” position any built-in switch in the UUT controlling power flow to the AC input and note the existence of such a switch in the final test report.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operate the UUT at 100 percent of nameplate output current for at least 30 minutes immediately prior to conducting efficiency measurements. After this warm-up period, monitor AC input power for a period of 5 minutes to assess the stability of the UUT. If the power level does not drift by more than 5 percent from the maximum value observed, the UUT is considered stable. If the UUT is stable, record the measurements obtained at the end of this 5-minute period. Measure subsequent loading conditions under the same 5-minute stability parameters. Note that only one warm-up period of 30 minutes is required for each UUT at the beginning of the test procedure. If the AC input power is not stable over a 5-minute period, follow the guidelines established by Section 5.3.3 of IEC 62301 for measuring average power or accumulated energy over time for both input and output.
</P>
<P>(iii) Test the UUT at the nameplate output voltage(s) at the loading conditions listed in Table 1, derated per the proportional allocation method presented in section 5(a)(1)(iv) of this appendix. Conduct efficiency measurements in sequence from Loading Condition 1 to Loading Condition 4 as indicated in Table 1 of this section. For Loading Condition 5, place the UUT in no-load mode, disconnect any additional signal connections to the UUT, and measure input power.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Loading Conditions for Unit Under Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0%.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The 2 percent allowance pertains to nameplate output current, not the calculated current value. For example, a UUT at Loading Condition 3 may be tested in a range from 48 percent to 52 percent of the derated output current.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(A) If testing of additional, optional loading conditions is desired, conduct that testing in accordance with this test procedure and subsequent to completing the sequence described in section 5(a)(1)(iii) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(B) Where the external power supply lists both an instantaneous and continuous output current, test the external power supply at the continuous condition only.
</P>
<P>(C) If an external power supply cannot sustain output at one or more of the Loading Conditions 1-4 as specified in Table 1 of this section, test the external power supply only at the loading conditions for which it can sustain output.
</P>
<P>(iv) Use the following proportional allocation method to provide consistent loading conditions for single-voltage external power supplies with multiple-output busses. For additional explanation (provided for guidance only), please refer to section 6.1.1 of the California Energy Commission's “Generalized Test Protocol for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Internal Ac-Dc Power Supplies Revision 6.7,” March 2014.
</P>
<P>(A) Consider a power supply with N output busses, each with the same nameplate output voltages V<E T="52">1</E>, * * *, V<E T="52">N</E>, corresponding output current ratings I<E T="52">1</E>, * * *, I<E T="52">N</E>, and a nameplate output power P. Calculate the derating factor D by dividing the power supply maximum output power P by the sum of the maximum output powers of the individual output busses, equal to the product of port nameplate output voltage and current I<E T="52">i</E>V<E T="52">i</E>, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19au22.006.gif"/>
<P>(B) If D ≥1, then loading every port to its nameplate output current does not exceed the overall maximum output power for the power supply. In this case, load each output bus to the percentages of its nameplate output current listed in Table 1 of this section. However, if D &lt;1, it is an indication that loading each port to its nameplate output current will exceed the overall maximum output power for the power supply. In this case, and at each loading condition, load each output bus to the appropriate percentage of its nameplate output current as listed in Table 1, multiplied by the derating factor D.
</P>
<P>(v) Test switch-selectable single-voltage external power supplies twice—once at the highest nameplate output voltage and once at the lowest.
</P>
<P>(vi) Efficiency calculation. Calculate and record efficiency at each loading point by dividing the UUT's measured active output power at a given loading condition by the active AC input power measured at that loading condition.
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate and record average efficiency of the UUT as the arithmetic mean of the efficiency values calculated at Loading Conditions 1, 2, 3, and 4 in Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If, when tested, a UUT cannot sustain output current at one or more of the loading conditions as specified in Table 1, the average active-mode efficiency is calculated as the average of the loading conditions for which it can sustain output.
</P>
<P>(C) If the UUT can only sustain one output current at any of the output busses, test it at the loading condition that allows for the maximum output power on that bus (<I>i.e.,</I> the highest output current possible at the highest output voltage on that bus).
</P>
<P>(vii) Power consumption calculation. The power consumption of Loading Condition 5 (no-load) is equal to the active AC input power (W) at that loading condition.
</P>
<P>(viii) Off-Mode Measurement. If the UUT incorporates manual on-off switches, place the UUT in off-mode, and measure and record its power consumption at Loading Condition 5 in Table 1 of this section. The measurement of the off-mode energy consumption must conform to the requirements specified in section 5(a)(1) of this appendix, except that all manual on-off switches must be placed in the “off” position for the off-mode measurement. The UUT is considered stable if, over 5 minutes with samples taken at least once every second, the AC input power does not drift from the maximum value observed by more than 1 percent or 50 milliwatts, whichever is greater. Measure the off-mode power consumption of a switch-selectable single-voltage external power supply twice—once at the highest nameplate output voltage and once at the lowest.
</P>
<P>(b) Multiple-Voltage External Power Supply.
</P>
<P>(1) Standby-Mode and Active-Mode Measurement.
</P>
<P>(i) Place in the “on” position any built-in switch in the UUT controlling power flow to the AC input and note the existence of such a switch in the final test report.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operate the UUT at 100 percent of nameplate output current for at least 30 minutes immediately prior to conducting efficiency measurements. After this warm-up period, monitor AC input power for a period of 5 minutes to assess the stability of the UUT. If the power level does not drift by more than 1 percent from the maximum value observed, the UUT is considered stable. If the UUT is stable, record the measurements obtained at the end of this 5-minute period. Measure subsequent loading conditions under the same 5-minute stability parameters. Note that only one warm-up period of 30 minutes is required for each UUT at the beginning of the test procedure. If the AC input power is not stable over a 5-minute period, follow the guidelines established by Section 5.3.3 of IEC 62301 for measuring average power or accumulated energy over time for both input and output.
</P>
<P>(iii) Test the UUT at the nameplate output voltage(s) at the loading conditions listed in Table 2 of this section, derated per the proportional allocation method presented in section 5(b)(1)(iv) of this appendix. Active or passive loads used for efficiency testing of the UUT must maintain the required current loading set point for each output voltage within an accuracy of ±0.5 percent. Conduct efficiency measurements in sequence from Loading Condition 1 to Loading Condition 4 as indicated in Table 2 of this section. For Loading Condition 5, place the UUT in no-load mode, disconnect any additional signal connections to the UUT, and measure input power.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Loading Conditions for Unit Under Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0%.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The 2 percent allowance pertains to nameplate output current, not the calculated current value. For example, a UUT at Loading Condition 3 may be tested in a range from 48 percent to 52 percent of the derated output current.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(A) If testing of additional, optional loading conditions is desired, conduct that testing in accordance with this test procedure and subsequent to completing the sequence described in section 5(b)(1)(iii) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(B) Where the external power supply lists both an instantaneous and continuous output current, test the external power supply at the continuous condition only.
</P>
<P>(C) If an external power supply cannot sustain output at one or more of the Loading Conditions 1-4 as specified in Table 2 of this section, test the external power supply only at the loading conditions for which it can sustain output.
</P>
<P>(iv) Use the following proportional allocation method to provide consistent loading conditions for multiple-voltage external power supplies. For additional explanation (provided for guidance only), please refer to section 6.1.1 of the California Energy Commission's “Proposed Test Protocol for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Internal Ac-Dc Power Supplies Revision 6.7,” March 2014.
</P>
<P>(A) Consider a power supply with N output busses, and nameplate output voltages V<E T="52">1</E>, * * *, V<E T="52">N</E>, corresponding output current ratings I<E T="52">1</E>, * * *, I<E T="52">N</E>, and a maximum output power P as specified on the manufacturer's label on the power supply housing, or, if absent from the housing, as specified in the documentation provided with the unit by the manufacturer. Calculate the derating factor D by dividing the power supply maximum output power P by the sum of the maximum output powers of the individual output busses, equal to the product of bus nameplate output voltage and current I<E T="52">i</E>V<E T="52">i</E>, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19au22.007.gif"/>
<P>(B) If D ≥1, then loading every bus to its nameplate output current does not exceed the overall maximum output power for the power supply. In this case, load each output bus to the percentages of its nameplate output current listed in Table 2 of this section. However, if D &lt;1, it is an indication that loading each bus to its nameplate output current will exceed the overall maximum output power for the power supply. In this case, and at each loading condition, load each output bus to the appropriate percentage of its nameplate output current listed in Table 2 of this section, multiplied by the derating factor D.
</P>
<P>(v) Minimum output current requirements. Depending on their application, some multiple-voltage power supplies may require a minimum output current for each output bus of the power supply for correct operation. In these cases, ensure that the load current for each output at Loading Condition 4 in Table 2 is greater than the minimum output current requirement. Thus, if the test method's calculated load current for a given voltage bus is smaller than the minimum output current requirement, the minimum output current must be used to load the bus. This load current shall be properly recorded in any test report.
</P>
<P>(vi) Efficiency calculation. Calculate and record efficiency at each loading point by dividing the UUT's measured active output power at a given loading condition by the active AC input power measured at that loading condition.
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate and record average efficiency of the UUT as the arithmetic mean of the efficiency values calculated at Loading Conditions 1, 2, 3, and 4, in Table 2 of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If, when tested, a UUT cannot sustain output current at one or more of the loading conditions as specified in Table 2 of this section, the average active mode efficiency is calculated as the average of the loading conditions for which it can sustain output.
</P>
<P>(C) If the UUT can only sustain one output current at any of the output busses, test it at the loading condition that allows for the maximum output power on that bus (<I>i.e.,</I> the highest output current possible at the highest output voltage on that bus).
</P>
<P>(vii) Power consumption calculation. The power consumption of Loading Condition 5 (no-load) is equal to the active AC input power (W) at that loading condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Off-mode Measurement—If the UUT incorporates manual on-off switches, place the UUT in off-mode and measure and record its power consumption at Loading Condition 5 in Table 2 of this section. The measurement of the off-mode energy consumption must conform to the requirements specified in section (5)(b)(1) of this appendix, except that all manual on-off switches must be placed in the “off” position for the off-mode measurement. The UUT is considered stable if, over 5 minutes with samples taken at least once every second, the AC input power does not drift from the maximum value observed by more than 1 percent or 50 milliwatts, whichever is greater.
</P>
<HD2>6. <I>Test Measurement for Adaptive External Power Supplies:</I>
</HD2>
<P>(a) Single-Voltage Adaptive External Power Supply.
</P>
<P>(1) Standby Mode and Active-Mode Measurement.
</P>
<P>(i) Place in the “on” position any built-in switch in the UUT controlling power flow to the AC input and note the existence of such a switch in the final test report.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operate the UUT at 100 percent of nameplate output current for at least 30 minutes immediately prior to conducting efficiency measurements. After this warm-up period, monitor AC input power for a period of 5 minutes to assess the stability of the UUT. If the power level does not drift by more than 5 percent from the maximum value observed, the UUT is considered stable. If the UUT is stable, record the measurements obtained at the end of this 5-minute period. Measure subsequent loading conditions under the same 5-minute stability parameters. Note that only one warm-up period of 30 minutes is required for each UUT at the beginning of the test procedure. If the AC input power is not stable over a 5-minute period, follow the guidelines established by Section 5.3.3 of IEC 62301 for measuring average power or accumulated energy over time for both input and output.
</P>
<P>(iii) Test the UUT at the nameplate output voltage(s) at the loading conditions listed in Table 3 of this section, derated per the proportional allocation method presented in section 6(a)(1)(iv) of this appendix. Adaptive external power supplies must be tested twice—once at the highest nameplate output voltage and once at the lowest nameplate output voltage as described in the following sections.
</P>
<P>(A) At the highest nameplate output voltage, test adaptive external power supplies in sequence from Loading Condition 1 to Loading Condition 4, as indicated in Table 3 of this section. For Loading Condition 5, place the UUT in no-load mode, disconnect any additional signal connections, and measure the input power.
</P>
<P>(B) At the lowest nameplate output voltage, with the exception of USB-PD EPSs, test all adaptive external power supplies in sequence from Loading Condition 1 to Loading Condition 4, as indicated in Table 3 of this section. For USB-PD adaptive external power supplies, at the lowest nameplate output voltage, test the external power supply such that for Loading Conditions 1, 2, 3, and 4, all adaptive ports are loaded to 2 amperes, 1.5 amperes, 1 ampere, and 0.5 amperes, respectively. All non-adaptive ports will continue to be loaded as indicated in Table 3 of this section. For Loading Condition 5, test all adaptive external power supplies by placing the UUT in no-load mode, disconnecting any additional signal connections, and measuring the input power.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Loading Conditions for a Single-Voltage Adaptive External Power Supply
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0%.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The 2 percent allowance pertains to nameplate output current, not the calculated current value. For example, a UUT at Loading Condition 3 may be tested in a range from 48 percent to 52 percent of the derated output current.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) If testing of additional, optional loading conditions is desired, conduct that testing in accordance with this test procedure and subsequent to completing the sequence described in section 6(a)(1)(iii) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(D) Where the external power supply lists both an instantaneous and continuous output current, test the external power supply at the continuous condition only.
</P>
<P>(E) If an external power supply cannot sustain output at one or more of the Loading Conditions 1-4 as specified in Table 3 of this section, test the external power supply only at the loading conditions for which it can sustain output.
</P>
<P>(iv) Use the following proportional allocation method to provide consistent loading conditions for single-voltage adaptive external power supplies with multiple-output busses. For additional explanation, please refer to section 6.1.1 of the California Energy Commission's “Proposed Test Protocol for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Internal Ac-Dc Power Supplies Revision 6.7,” March 2014.
</P>
<P>(A) Consider a power supply with N output busses, each with the same nameplate output voltages V<E T="52">1</E>, * * *, V<E T="52">N</E>, corresponding output current ratings I<E T="52">1</E>, * * *, I<E T="52">N</E>, and a maximum output power P as specified on the manufacturer's label on the power supply housing, or, if absent from the housing, as specified in the documentation provided with the unit by the manufacturer. Calculate the derating factor D by dividing the power supply maximum output power P by the sum of the maximum output powers of the individual output busses, equal to the product of port nameplate output voltage and current I<E T="52">i</E>V<E T="52">i</E>, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19au22.008.gif"/>
<P>For USB-PD adaptive external power supplies, at the lowest nameplate output voltage, limit the contribution from each port to 10W when calculating the derating factor.
</P>
<P>(B) If D ≥1, then loading every port to its nameplate output current does not exceed the overall maximum output power for the power supply. In this case, load each output bus to the percentages of its nameplate output current listed in Table 3 of this section. However, if D &lt;1, it is an indication that loading each port to its nameplate output current will exceed the overall maximum output power for the power supply. In this case, and at each loading condition, each output bus will be loaded to the appropriate percentage of its nameplate output current listed in Table 3 of this section, multiplied by the derating factor D.
</P>
<P>(v) Efficiency calculation. Calculate and record the efficiency at each loading point by dividing the UUT's measured active output power at that loading condition by the active AC input power measured at that loading condition.
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate and record average efficiency of the UUT as the arithmetic mean of the efficiency values calculated at Loading Conditions 1, 2, 3, and 4 in Table 3 of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If, when tested, a UUT cannot sustain the output current at one or more of the loading conditions as specified in Table 3 of this section, the average active-mode efficiency is calculated as the average of the loading conditions for which it can sustain output.
</P>
<P>(C) If the UUT can only sustain one output current at any of the output busses, test it at the loading condition that allows for the maximum output power on that bus (<I>i.e.,</I> the highest output current possible at the highest output voltage on that bus).
</P>
<P>(vi) Power consumption calculation. The power consumption of Loading Condition 5 (no-load) is equal to the active AC input power (W) at that loading condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Off-Mode Measurement—If the UUT incorporates manual on-off switches, place the UUT in off-mode and measure and record its power consumption at Loading Condition 5 in Table 3 of this section. The measurement of the off-mode energy consumption must conform to the requirements specified in section 6(a)(1) of this appendix, except that all manual on-off switches must be placed in the “off” position for the off-mode measurement. The UUT is considered stable if, over 5 minutes with samples taken at least once every second, the AC input power does not drift from the maximum value observed by more than 1 percent or 50 milliwatts, whichever is greater. Measure the off-mode power consumption of a single-voltage adaptive external power supply twice—once at the highest nameplate output voltage and once at the lowest.
</P>
<P>(b) Multiple-Voltage Adaptive External Power Supply.
</P>
<P>(1) Standby Mode and Active-Mode Measurement.
</P>
<P>(i) Place in the “on” position any built-in switch in the UUT controlling power flow to the AC input and note the existence of such a switch in the final test report.
</P>
<P>(ii) Operate the UUT at 100 percent of nameplate output current for at least 30 minutes immediately prior to conducting efficiency measurements. After this warm-up period, monitor AC input power for a period of 5 minutes to assess the stability of the UUT. If the power level does not drift by more than 1 percent from the maximum value observed, the UUT is considered stable. If the UUT is stable, record the measurements obtained at the end of this 5-minute period. Measure subsequent loading conditions under the same 5-minute stability parameters. Note that only one warm-up period of 30 minutes is required for each UUT at the beginning of the test procedure. If the AC input power is not stable over a 5-minute period, follow the guidelines established by Section 5.3.3 of IEC 62301 for measuring average power or accumulated energy over time for both input and output.
</P>
<P>(iii) Test the UUT at the nameplate output voltage(s) at the loading conditions listed in Table 4 of this section, derated per the proportional allocation method presented in section 6(b)(1)(iv) of this appendix. Active or passive loads used for efficiency testing of the UUT must maintain the required current loading set point for each output voltage within an accuracy of ±0.5 percent. Adaptive external power supplies must be tested twice—once at the highest nameplate output voltage and once at the lowest nameplate output voltage as described in the following sections.
</P>
<P>(A) At the highest nameplate output voltage, test adaptive external power supplies in sequence from Loading Condition 1 to Loading Condition 4, as indicated in Table 4 of this section. For Loading Condition 5, place the UUT in no-load mode, disconnect any additional signal connections, and measure the input power.
</P>
<P>(B) At the lowest nameplate output voltage, with the exception of USB-PD EPSs, test all other adaptive external power supplies, in sequence from Loading Condition 1 to Loading Condition 4, as indicated in Table 4 of this section. For USB-PD adaptive external power supplies, at the lowest nameplate output voltage, test the external power supply such that for Loading Conditions 1, 2, 3, and 4, all adaptive ports are loaded to 2 amperes, 1.5 amperes, 1 ampere, and 0.5 amperes, respectively. All non-adaptive ports will continue to be loaded as indicated in Table 4 of this section. For Loading Condition 5, test all adaptive external power supplies by placing the UUT in no-load mode, disconnecting any additional signal connections, and measuring the input power.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Loading Conditions for a Multiple-Voltage Adaptive External Power Supply
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% of Derated Nameplate Output Current ±2%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading Condition 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0%.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> The 2 percent allowance pertains to nameplate output current, not the calculated current value. For example, a UUT at Loading Condition 3 may be tested in a range from 48 percent to 52 percent of the derated output current.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) If testing of additional, optional loading conditions is desired, conduct that testing in accordance with this test procedure and subsequent to completing the sequence described in section 6(b)(1)(iii) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(D) Where the external power supply lists both an instantaneous and continuous output current, test the external power supply at the continuous condition only.
</P>
<P>(E) If an adaptive external power supply is operating as a multiple-voltage external power supply at only the highest nameplate output voltage or lowest nameplate output voltage, test this external power supply as a multiple-voltage adaptive external power supply at both the highest nameplate output voltage and the lowest nameplate output voltage.
</P>
<P>(F) If an external power supply has both adaptive and non-adaptive ports, and these ports operate simultaneously at multiple voltages, ensure that testing is performed with all ports active at both the highest and lowest nameplate output voltage. For example, if an external power supply has a USB-PD adaptive output bus that operates at 5 volts and 20 volts and a second non-adaptive output bus that operates at 9 volts, test this EPS at the highest nameplate output voltage with both the adaptive and non-adaptive ports respectively loaded at 20 volts and 9 volts; likewise, test it at the lowest nameplate output voltage with both the adaptive and non-adaptive ports respectively loaded at 5 volts and 9 volts.
</P>
<P>(G) If an external power supply cannot sustain output at one or more of the Loading Conditions 1-4 as specified in Table 4 of this section, test the external power supply only at the loading conditions for which it can sustain output.
</P>
<P>(iv) Use the following proportional allocation method to provide consistent loading conditions for multiple-voltage adaptive external power supplies. For additional explanation, please refer to section 6.1.1 of the California Energy Commission's “Proposed Test Protocol for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Internal Ac-Dc Power Supplies Revision 6.7,” March 2014.
</P>
<P>(A) Consider a multiple-voltage power supply with N output busses, and nameplate output voltages V<E T="52">1</E>, * * *, V<E T="52">N</E>, corresponding output current ratings I<E T="52">1</E>, * * *, I<E T="52">N</E>, and a maximum output power P as specified on the manufacturer's label on the power supply housing, or, if absent from the housing, as specified in the documentation provided with the unit by the manufacturer. Calculate the derating factor D by dividing the power supply maximum output power P by the sum of the maximum output powers of the individual output busses, equal to the product of bus nameplate output voltage and current I<E T="52">i</E>V<E T="52">i</E>, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19au22.009.gif"/>
<P>For USB-PD adaptive external power supplies, at the lowest nameplate output voltage, limit the contribution from each port to 10W when calculating the derating factor.
</P>
<P>(B) If D ≥1, then loading every bus to its nameplate output current does not exceed the overall maximum output power for the power supply. In this case, load each output bus to the percentages of its nameplate output current listed in Table 4 of this section. However, if D &lt;1, it is an indication that loading each bus to its nameplate output current will exceed the overall maximum output power for the power supply. In this case, at each loading condition, load each output bus to the appropriate percentage of its nameplate output current listed in Table 4 of this section, multiplied by the derating factor D.
</P>
<P>(v) Minimum output current requirements. Depending on their application, some multiple-voltage adaptive external power supplies may require a minimum output current for each output bus of the power supply for correct operation. In these cases, ensure that the load current for each output at Loading Condition 4 in Table 4 of this section is greater than the minimum output current requirement. Thus, if the test method's calculated load current for a given voltage bus is smaller than the minimum output current requirement, use the minimum output current to load the bus. Record this load current in any test report.
</P>
<P>(vi) Efficiency calculation. Calculate and record the efficiency at each loading point by dividing the UUT's measured active output power at that loading condition by the active AC input power measured at that loading condition.
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate and record average efficiency of the UUT as the arithmetic mean of the efficiency values calculated at Loading Conditions 1, 2, 3, and 4 in Table 4 of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If, when tested, a UUT cannot sustain the output current at one or more of the loading conditions as specified in Table 4, the average active-mode efficiency is calculated as the average of the loading conditions for which it can sustain output.
</P>
<P>(C) If the UUT can only sustain one output current at any of the output busses, test it at the loading condition that allows for the maximum output power on that bus (<I>i.e.,</I> the highest output current possible at the highest output voltage on that bus).
</P>
<P>(vii) Power consumption calculation. The power consumption of Loading Condition 5 (no-load) is equal to the active AC input power at that loading condition.
</P>
<P>(2) Off-mode Measurement—If the UUT incorporates manual on-off switches, place the UUT in off-mode, and measure and record its power consumption at Loading Condition 5 in Table 4 of this section. The measurement of the off-mode energy consumption must conform to the requirements specified in section (6)(b)(1) of this appendix, except that all manual on-off switches must be placed in the “off” position for the off-mode measurement. The UUT is considered stable if, over 5 minutes with samples taken at least once every second, the AC input power does not drift from the maximum value observed by more than 1 percent or 50 milliwatts, whichever is greater. Measure the off-mode power consumption of a multiple-voltage adaptive external power supply twice—once at the highest nameplate output voltage and once at the lowest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 51221, Aug. 19, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix AA" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.43" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix AA to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Furnace Fans


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to October 9, 2024, any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of furnace fans must be made either in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix or with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2023. On or after October 9, 2024, any representations, including certifications of compliance, made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of furnace fans must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<FP-1>0. <I>Incorporation by Reference</I>
</FP-1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire standard for ASHRAE 37-2009 (RA 2019), as corrected by the ASHRAE 37-2009 Errata Sheet; ASHRAE 41.1-1986; as well as Chapter 1 of the 2021 ASHRAE Handbook and ASHRAE 103-2017. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the incorporated standards.
</P>
<P><I>1. Scope.</I> This appendix covers the test requirements used to measure the energy consumption of fans used in weatherized and non-weatherized gas furnaces, oil furnaces, electric furnaces, and modular blowers. This appendix does not apply to furnace fans used in dual-fuel units.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definitions.</I> Definitions include the definitions as specified in section 3 of ASHRAE 103-2017 and the following additional definitions, some of which supersede definitions found in ASHRAE 103-2017:
</P>
<P>2.1. <I>Active mode</I> means the condition in which the product in which the furnace fan is integrated is connected to a power source and circulating air through ductwork.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Airflow-control settings</I> are programmed or wired control system configurations that control a fan to achieve discrete, differing ranges of airflow—often designated for performing a specific function (<I>e.g.,</I> cooling, heating, or constant circulation)—without manual adjustment other than interaction with a user-operable control such as a thermostat that meets the manufacturer specifications for installed-use. For the purposes of this appendix, manufacturer specifications for installed-use shall be found in the product literature shipped with the unit.
</P>
<P>2.3. <I>Dual-fuel unit</I> means a consumer product that includes both a heat pump and a burner in a single cabinet.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>External static pressure</I> (ESP) means the difference between static pressures measured in the outlet duct and return air opening (or return air duct when used for testing) of the product in which the furnace fan is integrated.
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Furnace fan</I> means an electrically-powered device used in a consumer product for the purpose of circulating air through ductwork.
</P>
<P>2.6. <I>Modular blower</I> means a product which only uses single-phase electric current, and which:
</P>
<P>(a) Is designed to be the principal air circulation source for the living space of a residence;
</P>
<P>(b) Is not contained within the same cabinet as a furnace or central air conditioner; and
</P>
<P>(c) Is designed to be paired with HVAC products that have a heat input rate of less than 225,000 Btu per hour and cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu per hour.
</P>
<P>2.7. <I>Off mode</I> means the condition in which the product in which the furnace fan is integrated either is not connected to the power source or is connected to the power source but not energized.
</P>
<P>2.8. <I>Seasonal off switch</I> means a switch on the product in which the furnace fan is integrated that, when activated, results in a measurable change in energy consumption between the standby and off modes.
</P>
<P>2.9. <I>Specified airflow-control settings</I> are the airflow-control settings specified for installed-use by the manufacturer. For the purposes of this appendix, manufacturer specifications for installed-use are those specifications provided for typical consumer installations in the product literature shipped with the product in which the furnace fan is installed. In instances where a manufacturer specifies multiple airflow-control settings for a given function to account for varying installation scenarios, the highest airflow-control setting specified for the given function shall be used for the procedures specified in this appendix, unless otherwise specified within this test procedure.
</P>
<P>2.10. <I>Standby mode</I> means the condition in which the product in which the furnace fan is integrated is connected to the power source and energized, but the furnace fan is not circulating air.
</P>
<P>2.11. <I>Thermal stack damper</I> means a type of stack damper that opens only during the direct conversion of thermal energy of the stack gases.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Classifications.</I> Classifications are as specified in section 4 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Requirements.</I> Requirements are as specified in section 5 of ASHRAE 103-2017. In addition, Fan Energy Rating (FER) of furnace fans shall be determined using test data and estimated national average operating hours pursuant to section 10.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Instruments.</I> Instruments must be as specified in section 6, not including section 6.2, of ASHRAE 103-2017; and as specified in sections 5.1 and 5.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.1. <I>Temperature.</I> Temperature measuring instruments shall meet the provisions specified in section 5.1 of ASHRAE 37-2009 (RA 2019) (as corrected by the ASHRAE 37-2009 Errata Sheet), including the references to ASHRAE 41.1-1986, and shall be accurate to within 0.75 degrees Fahrenheit (within 0.4 degrees Celsius).
</P>
<P>5.1.1. <I>Outlet Air Temperature Thermocouple Grid.</I> Outlet air temperature shall be measured as described in section 8.2.1.5.5 of ASHRAE 103-2017 and illustrated in Figure 2 of ASHRAE 103-2017. Thermocouples shall be placed downstream of pressure taps used for external static pressure measurement.
</P>
<P>5.2. <I>Humidity.</I> Air humidity shall be measured with a relative humidity sensor that is accurate to within 5% relative humidity. Air humidity shall be measured as close as possible to the inlet of the product in which the furnace fan is installed.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Apparatus.</I> The apparatus used in conjunction with the furnace during the testing shall be as specified in section 7 of ASHRAE 103-2017 except for section 7.1, the second paragraph of sections 7.2.2.2, 7.2.2.5, and 7.7, and as specified in sections 6.1, 6.2, 6.3, 6.4, 6.5, and 6.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6.1. <I>General.</I> The product in which the furnace fan is integrated shall be installed in the test room in accordance with the product manufacturer's written instructions that are shipped with the product unless required otherwise by a specific provision of this appendix. The apparatus described in this section is used in conjunction with the product in which the furnace fan is integrated. Each piece of the apparatus shall conform to material and construction specifications and the reference standard cited. Test rooms containing equipment shall have suitable facilities for providing the utilities necessary for performance of the test and be able to maintain conditions within the limits specified.
</P>
<P>6.2. <I>Downflow furnaces.</I> Install the internal section of vent pipe the same size as the flue collar for connecting the flue collar to the top of the unit, if not supplied by the manufacturer. Do not insulate the internal vent pipe during steady-state test described in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017. Do not insulate the internal vent pipe before the cool-down and heat-up tests described in sections 9.5 and 9.6, respectively, of ASHRAE 103-2017. If the vent pipe is surrounded by a metal jacket, do not insulate the metal jacket. Install a 5-ft test stack of the same cross-sectional area or perimeter as the vent pipe above the top of the furnace. Tape or seal around the junction connecting the vent pipe and the 5-ft test stack. Insulate the 5-ft test stack with insulation having a minimum R-value of 7 and an outer layer of aluminum foil. (<I>See</I> Figure 3-E of ASHRAE 103-2017.)
</P>
<P>6.3. <I>Modular Blowers.</I> A modular blower shall be equipped with the electric heat resistance kit that is likely to have the largest volume of retail sales with that particular basic model of modular blower.
</P>
<P>6.4. <I>Ducts and Plenums.</I> Ducts and plenums shall be built to the geometrical specifications in section 7 of ASHRAE 103-2017 and section 6.7 of this appendix. An apparatus for measuring external static pressure shall be integrated in the plenum and test duct as specified in sections 6.4 of ASHRAE 37-2009 (RA 2019) (as corrected by the ASHRAE 37-2009 Errata Sheet), excluding specifications regarding the minimum length of the ducting and minimum distance between the external static pressure taps and product inlet and outlet, and section 6.5 of ASHRAE 37-2009 (RA 2019) (as corrected by the ASHRAE 37-2009 Errata Sheet). External static pressure measuring instruments shall be placed between the furnace openings and any restrictions or elbows in the test plenums or ducts. For all test configurations, external static pressure taps shall be placed 18 inches from the outlet.
</P>
<P>6.4.1. <I>For tests conducted using a return air duct.</I> Additional external static pressure taps shall be placed 12 inches from the product inlet. Pressure shall be directly measured as a differential pressure as depicted in Figure 8 of ASHRAE 37-2009 (RA 2019) rather than determined by separately measuring inlet and outlet static pressure and subtracting the results.
</P>
<P>6.4.2. <I>For tests conducted without a return air duct.</I> External static pressure shall be directly measured as the differential pressure between the outlet duct static pressure and the ambient static pressure as depicted in Figure 7a of ASHRAE 37-2009 (RA 2019).
</P>
<P>6.5. <I>Air Filters.</I> Air filters shall be removed.
</P>
<P>6.6. <I>Electrical Measurement.</I> Only electrical input power to the furnace fan (and electric resistance heat kit for electric furnaces and modular blowers) shall be measured for the purposes of this appendix. Electrical input power to the furnace fan and electric resistance heat kit shall be sub-metered separately. Electrical input power to all other electricity-consuming components of the product in which the furnace fan is integrated shall not be included in the electrical input power measurements used in the FER calculation. If the procedures of this appendix are being conducted at the same time as another test that requires metering of components other than the furnace fan and electric resistance heat kit, the electrical input power to the furnace fan and electric resistance heat kit shall be sub-metered separately from one another and separately from other electrical input power measurements.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Test Conditions.</I> The testing conditions shall be as specified in section 8, not including sections 8.5.2 and 8.6.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017; and as specified in sections 7.1 and 7.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7.1 <I>Ambient Temperature and Humidity Conditions.</I> During the time required to perform all tests, maintain the room temperature within ±5 °F (2.8 °C) of the air temperature value measured at the end of the steady-state performance test (T<E T="52">RA</E>). For condensing furnaces and boilers, maintain the relative humidity within ±5% of the relative humidity measured at the end of the steady-state performance test. During all tests, the room temperature shall not fall below 65 °F (18.3 °C) or exceed 85 °F (29.4 °C) and the relative humidity shall not fall below 20% or exceed 80%.
</P>
<P>7.2. <I>Measurement of Jacket Surface Temperature (optional).</I> The jacket of the furnace or boiler shall be subdivided into 6-inch squares when practical, and otherwise into 36-square-inch regions comprising 4 in. x 9 in. or 3 in. x 12 in. sections, and the surface temperature at the center of each square or section shall be determined with a surface thermocouple. The 36-square-inch areas shall be recorded in groups where the temperature differential of the 36-square-inch area is less than 10 °F for temperature up to 100 °F above room temperature and less than 20 °F for temperature more than 100 °F above room temperature. For forced air central furnaces, the circulating air blower compartment is considered as part of the duct system and no surface temperature measurement of the blower compartment needs to be recorded for the purpose of this test. For downflow furnaces, measure all cabinet surface temperatures of the heat exchanger and combustion section, including the bottom around the outlet duct, and the burner door, using the 36 square-inch thermocouple grid. The cabinet surface temperatures around the blower section do not need to be measured (<I>see</I> Figure 3-E of ASHRAE 103-2017.)
</P>
<P>8. <I>Test Procedure.</I> Testing and measurements shall be as specified in section 9 of ASHRAE 103-2017 except for sections 9.1.2.1, 9.3, 9.5.1.1, 9.5.1.2.1, 9.5.1.2.2, 9.5.2.1, and section 9.7.1; and as specified in sections 8.1 through 8.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>8.1. <I>Direct Measurement of Off-Cycle Losses Testing Method.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>8.2. <I>Measurement of Electrical Standby and Off Mode Power.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>8.3. <I>Steady-State Conditions for Hot Flow Tests for Gas and Oil Furnaces.</I> Steady-state conditions are indicated by an external static pressure within the range shown in table 1 to this appendix and a temperature variation in three successive readings, taken 15 minutes apart, of not more than any of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) 3 °F in the stack gas temperature for furnaces equipped with draft diverters;
</P>
<P>(b) 5 °F in the stack gas temperature for furnaces equipped with either draft hoods, direct exhaust, or direct vent systems; and
</P>
<P>(c) 1 °F in the flue gas temperature for condensing furnaces.
</P>
<P>8.4. <I>Steady-State Conditions for Hot Flow Tests for Electric Furnaces and Modular Blowers.</I> Steady-state conditions are indicated by an external static pressure within the range shown in table 1 to this appendix and a temperature variation of not more than 5 °F in the outlet air temperature in four successive temperature readings taken 15 minutes apart.
</P>
<P>8.5. <I>Steady-State Conditions for Cold Flow Tests.</I> For tests during which the burner or electric heating elements are turned off (<I>i.e.,</I> cold flow tests), steady-state conditions are indicated by an external static pressure within the range shown in table 1 to this appendix and a variation in the difference between outlet temperature and ambient temperature of not more than 3 °F in three successive temperature readings taken 15 minutes apart.
</P>
<P>8.6. <I>Fan Energy Rating (FER) Test.</I>
</P>
<P>8.6.1. <I>Initial FER test conditions and maximum airflow-control setting measurements.</I> Measure the relative humidity (<E T="8151">q</E>) and dry bulb temperature (T<E T="52">db</E>) of the test room.
</P>
<P>8.6.1.1. <I>Furnace fans for which the maximum airflow-control setting is not a specified heating airflow-control setting.</I> The main burner or electric heating elements shall be turned off. Adjust the external static pressure to within the range shown in table 1 to this appendix. Maintain these settings until steady-state conditions are attained as specified in sections 8.3, 8.4, and 8.5 of this appendix. Measure furnace fan electrical input power (E<E T="52">Max</E>), external static pressure (ESP<E T="52">Max</E>), and outlet air temperature (T<E T="52">Max,Out</E>). The measurement of E<E T="52">Max</E> shall be taken over the final 30 seconds of the steady-state period, at intervals of no less than 1 per second, and averaged over the 30 second period.
</P>
<P>8.6.1.2. <I>Furnace fans for which the maximum airflow-control setting is a specified heating airflow-control setting.</I> Adjust the main burner or electric heating element controls to the default heat setting designated for the maximum airflow-control setting. Burner adjustments shall be made as specified by section 8.4.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017. Adjust the furnace fan controls to the maximum airflow-control setting. Adjust the external static to within the range shown in table 1 to this appendix. Maintain these settings until steady-state conditions are attained as specified in sections 8.3, 8.4, and 8.5 of this appendix and the temperature rise (ΔT<E T="52">Max</E>) is at least 18 °F. Measure furnace fan electrical input power (E<E T="52">Max</E>), fuel or electric resistance heat kit input energy (Q<E T="52">IN,H</E>), external static pressure (ESP<E T="52">Max</E>), steady-state efficiency for this setting (Effy<E T="52">SS,Max</E>) as specified in sections 11.2 and 11.3 of ASHRAE 103-2017, outlet air temperature (T<E T="52">Max,Out</E>), and temperature rise (ΔT<E T="52">Max</E>). The measurement of E<E T="52">Max</E> shall be taken over the final 30 seconds of the steady-state period, at intervals of no less than 1 per second, and averaged over the 30 second period.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Required Minimum External Static Pressure in the Maximum Airflow-Control Setting by Installation Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Installation type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">ESP
<br/>(in. wc.) *
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Units with an internal, factory-installed evaporator coil</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50-0.55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Units designed to be paired with an evaporator coil, but without one installed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.65-0.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mobile home</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30-0.35
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Once the specified ESP has been achieved, the same outlet duct restrictions shall be used for the remainder of the furnace fan test. If the unit under test is unable to complete the testing (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> the unit shuts down before completing a test), reduce the target ESP range by 0.05″ w.c. and restart the test. Repeat this process until the test can be completed.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>8.6.2. <I>Constant circulation airflow-control setting measurements.</I> The main burner or electric heating elements shall be turned off. The furnace fan controls shall be adjusted to the specified constant circulation airflow-control setting. If the manufacturer does not specify a constant circulation airflow-control setting in the installation and operations manual supplied with the unit, the lowest airflow-control setting shall be used. Maintain these settings until steady-state conditions are attained as specified in sections 8.3, 8.4, and 8.5 of this appendix. Measure furnace fan electrical input power (E<E T="52">Circ</E>) and external static pressure (ESP<E T="52">Circ</E>). The measurement of E<E T="52">Circ</E> shall be taken over the final 30 seconds of the steady-state period, at intervals of no less than 1 per second, and averaged over the 30 second period.
</P>
<P>8.6.3. <I>Heating airflow-control setting measurements.</I> For single-stage gas and oil furnaces, the burner shall be fired at the maximum heat input rate. For single-stage electric furnaces, the electric heating elements shall be energized at the maximum heat input rate. For multi-stage and modulating furnaces, the reduced heat input rate settings shall be used. Burner adjustments shall be made as specified by section 8.4.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017. After the burner is activated and adjusted or the electric heating elements are energized, the furnace fan controls shall be adjusted to operate the fan in the specified heating airflow-control setting that also allows for operation within the manufacturer-specified temperature rise range. In instances where a manufacturer specifies multiple airflow-control settings for a given function to account for varying installation scenarios, the highest airflow-control setting specified for the given function that also allows for operation within the manufacturer-specified temperature rise range shall be used. High heat and reduced heat shall be considered different functions for multi-stage heating units. Maintain these settings until steady-state conditions are attained as specified in sections 8.3, 8.4, and 8.5 of this appendix and the temperature rise (ΔT<E T="52">Heat</E>) is at least 18 °F. Measure furnace fan electrical input power (E<E T="52">Heat</E>), fuel or electric resistance heat kit input energy (Q<E T="52">IN,k</E>)external static pressure (ESP<E T="52">Heat</E>), steady-state efficiency for this setting (Effy<E T="52">SS</E>) as specified in sections 11.2 and 11.3 of ASHRAE 103-2017, outlet air temperature (T<E T="52">Heat, Out</E>) and temperature rise (ΔT<E T="52">Heat</E>). The measurement of E<E T="52">Heat</E> shall be taken over the final 30 seconds of the steady-state period, at intervals of no less than 1 per second, and averaged over the 30 second period.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Nomenclature.</I> Nomenclature shall include the nomenclature specified in section 10 of ASHRAE 103-2017 and the following additional variables:
</P>
<FP-2>60 = conversion factor from hours to minutes, (min/h)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.24 = approximate specific heat capacity of dry air, (Btu/lb- °F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.44 = approximate specific heat capacity of saturated water vapor, (Btu/lb- °F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">SS,i</E> = Steady-State Efficiency in airflow-control setting <I>i.</I> For gas and oil furnaces Effy<E T="52">SS,i</E> is specified in sections 11.2.7 (Non-Condensing and Modulating), 11.3.7.3 (Condensing and Non-modulating), 11.4.8.8 (Non-Condensing and Non-modulating), or 11.5 (Condensing and Modulating) of ASHRAE 103-2017, in %. For electric furnaces or modular blowers, Effy<E T="52">SS,i</E> equals 100, in %.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">J</E> = jacket loss as determined as specified in section 8.6 of ASHRAE 103-2017 or a default value of 1% if the jacket loss test is not performed, in %
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CCH = annual furnace fan constant-circulation hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">Circ</E> = furnace fan electrical consumption at the specified constant-circulation airflow-control setting (or minimum airflow-control setting operating point if a default constant-circulation airflow-control setting is not specified), in watts
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">Heat</E> = furnace fan electrical consumption in the specified heat airflow-control setting for single-stage heating products or the specified low-heat setting for multi-stage heating products, in watts
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">Max</E> = furnace fan electrical consumption in the maximum airflow-control setting, in watts
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ESP<E T="52">i</E> = external static pressure, in inches water column, at time of the electrical power measurement in airflow-control setting <I>i,</I> where <I>i</I> can be “Circ” to represent constant-circulation (or minimum airflow) mode, “Heat” to represent heating mode, or “Max” to represent cooling (or maximum airflow mode).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FER = fan energy rating, in watts/1000 cfm
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HH = annual furnace fan heating operating hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HCR = heating capacity ratio (nameplate reduced heat input capacity divided by nameplate maximum input heat capacity)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k<E T="52">ref</E> = physical descriptor characterizing the reference system
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">db</E> = dry bulb temperature of the test room in, °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">i,k,in</E> = inlet air temperature at time of the electrical power measurement, in °F, in airflow-control setting <I>i</I> and heat setting <I>k,</I> where <I>i</I> can be “Circ” to represent constant-circulation (or minimum airflow) mode, “Heat” to represent heating mode, or “Max” to represent maximum airflow (typically designated for cooling) mode. If <I>i =</I> Heat, <I>k</I> can be “H” to represent high heat setting or “R” to represent the reduced heat setting. If <I>i</I> = Max or Circ, <I>k</I> is not needed.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">i,k,out</E> = average outlet air temperature as measured by the outlet thermocouple grid at time of the electrical power measurement, in °F, in airflow-control setting <I>i</I> and heat setting <I>k,</I> where <I>i</I> can be “Circ” to represent constant-circulation (or minimum airflow) mode, “Heat” to represent heating mode, or “Max” to represent maximum airflow (typically designated for cooling) mode. If <I>i =</I> Heat, <I>k</I> can be “H” to represent high heat setting or “R” to represent the reduced heat setting. If <I>i</I> = Max or Circ, <I>k</I> is not needed.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">i,k</E> = T<E T="52">i,k,Out</E> minus T<E T="52">i,k,in</E>, which is the air throughput temperature rise in setting <I>i</I> and heat setting <I>k,</I> in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Qi,k = airflow in airflow-control setting <I>i</I> and heat setting <I>k,</I> in cubic feet per minute (CFM)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MH = annual furnace fan maximum airflow hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,k</E> = nameplate fuel energy input rate, in Btu/h, at specified operating conditions <I>k,</I> based on the fuel's high heating value (“HHV”) determined as required in section 8.2.1.3 or 8.2.2.3 of ASHRAE 103-2017, where <I>k</I> can be “H” for the maximum heat setting or “R” for the reduced heat setting.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = humidity ratio in pounds water vapor per pounds dry air
</FP-2>
<FP-2>v<E T="52">air</E> = specific volume of dry air at specified operating conditions per the 2021 ASHRAE Handbook, in ft
<SU>3</SU>/lb
</FP-2>
<P>10. <I>Calculation of derived results from test measurements for a single unit.</I> Calculations shall be as specified in section 11 of ASHRAE 103-2017, except for appendices B and C; and as specified in sections 10.1 through 10.10 and Figure 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>10.1. <I>Fan Energy Rating (FER)</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12ap24.000.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where: Q<E T="52">Max</E> = Q<E T="52">Heat</E> for products for which the maximum airflow-control setting is a specified heat setting, or
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er12ap24.001.gif"/>
<P>For products for which the maximum airflow control setting is only designated for cooling; and
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er12ap24.002.gif"/>
<P>The estimated national average operating hours presented in table 2 to this appendix shall be used to calculate FER.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Estimated National Average Operating Hour Values for Calculating FER
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operating mode
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variable
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Single-stage
<br/>(hours)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multi-stage
<br/>or modulating
<br/>(hours)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HH</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">830</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">830/HCR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum Airflow</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MH</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">640</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">640.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Constant Circulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CCH</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er12ap24.003.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 25801, Apr. 12, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix BB" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.44" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix BB to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Input Power, Lumen Output, Lamp Efficacy, Correlated Color Temperature (CCT), Color Rendering Index (CRI), Power Factor, Time to Failure, and Standby Mode Power of Integrated Light-Emitting Diode (LED) Lamps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to appendix BB to subpart B:</HED>
<P>On and after July 15, 2025, any representations made with respect to the energy efficiency of integrated LED lamps must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix BB. Manufacturers conducting tests of integrated LED lamps prior to July 15, 2025, must conduct such tests in accordance with either this appendix or the previous version of appendix BB as it appeared in the Code of Federal Regulations on January 1, 2023. Any representations made with respect to the energy efficiency of integrated LED lamps must be in accordance with whichever version is selected.</P></NOTE>
<P>1. <I>Scope:</I> This appendix specifies the test methods required to measure input power, lumen output, lamp efficacy, CCT, CRI, power factor, time to failure, and standby mode power for integrated LED lamps.
</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>2.1. The definitions specified in section 1.3 of IES LM-79-08 except section 1.3(f) (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) apply.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Initial lumen output</I> means the measured lumen output after the lamp is initially energized and stabilized using the stabilization procedures in section 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3. <I>Interval lumen output</I> means the measured lumen output at constant intervals after the initial lumen output measurement in accordance with section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Rated input voltage</I> means the voltage(s) marked on the lamp as the intended operating voltage. If not marked on the lamp, assume 120 V.
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Test duration</I> means the operating time of the LED lamp after the initial lumen output measurement and before, during, and including the final lumen output measurement, in units of hours.
</P>
<P>2.6. <I>Time to failure</I> means the time elapsed between the initial lumen output measurement and the point at which the lamp reaches 70 percent lumen maintenance as measured in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>3. Active Mode Test Method for Determining Lumen Output, Input Power, CCT, CRI, Power Factor, and Lamp Efficacy
</HD2>
<P>In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over IES LM-79-08 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD2>3.1. Test Conditions and Setup
</HD2>
<P>3.1.1. Establish the ambient conditions, power supply, electrical settings, and instrumentation in accordance with the specifications in sections 2.0, 3.0, 7.0, and 8.0 of IES LM-79-08 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), respectively.
</P>
<P>3.1.2. Position an equal number of integrated LED lamps in the base-up and base-down orientations throughout testing; if the position is restricted by the manufacturer, test units in the manufacturer-specified position.
</P>
<P>3.1.3. Operate the integrated LED lamp at the rated voltage throughout testing. For an integrated LED lamp with multiple rated voltages including 120 volts, operate the lamp at 120 volts. If an integrated LED lamp with multiple rated voltages is not rated for 120 volts, operate the lamp at the highest rated input voltage. Additional tests may be conducted at other rated voltages.
</P>
<P>3.1.4. Ensure that the lamp is not operating as a colored lamp (as defined in 10 CFR 430.2) and operate the lamp at maximum input power. If multiple modes occur at the same maximum input power (such as variable CCT or CRI), select any of these modes for testing; however, all measurements must be taken at the same selected mode. The test report must specify which mode was selected for testing and include details such that another laboratory can replicate the test at the same mode.
</P>
<P>3.1.5. For a lamp that has one or more component(s) that offer a completely different functionality (<I>e.g.,</I> a speaker, a camera, an air purifier, etc.) where the component is integrated into the lamp but does not affect the light output of the lamp (<I>e.g.,</I> does not turn the light on/off, dim the light, change the color of the light, etc.) and is capable of operating in standby mode, turn off as many of these components as possible during testing, without permanently altering the product. Permanently altering the product constitutes the cutting of wires, use of a soldering iron, or damage to or destruction of the lamp and does not constitute connecting or disconnecting wire nuts, fasteners or screws, or preserving the lamp as it was sold. If such components cannot be turned off without permanently altering the product, their energy consumption must be included in measurements. The test report must specify which components were turned off and any features that remained on.




</P>
<P>3.2. Test Method, Measurements, and Calculations
</P>
<P>3.2.1. The test conditions and setup described in section 3.1 of this appendix apply to this section 3.2.
</P>
<P>3.2.2. Stabilize the integrated LED lamp prior to measurement as specified in section 5.0 of IES LM-79-08 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). Calculate the stabilization variation as [(maximum—minimum)/minimum] of at least three readings of the input power and lumen output over a period of 30 minutes, taken 15 minutes apart.
</P>
<P>3.2.3. Measure the input power in watts as specified in section 8.0 of IES LM-79-08.
</P>
<P>3.2.4. Measure the input voltage in volts as specified in section 8.0 of IES LM-79-08.
</P>
<P>3.2.5. Measure the input current in amps as specified in section 8.0 of IES LM-79-08.
</P>
<P>3.2.6. Measure lumen output as specified in section 9.1 and 9.2 of IES LM-79-08. Do not use goniophotometers.
</P>
<P>3.2.7. Determine CCT according to the method specified in section 12.0 of IES LM-79-08 with the exclusion of section 12.2 and 12.5 of IES LM-79-08. Do not use goniophotometers.
</P>
<P>3.2.8. Determine CRI according to the method specified in section 12.0 of IES LM-79-08 with the exclusion of section 12.2 and 12.5 of IES LM-79-08. Do not use goniophotometers.
</P>
<P>3.2.9. Determine lamp efficacy by dividing measured initial lumen output by the measured input power.
</P>
<P>3.2.10. Determine power factor for AC-input lamps by dividing measured input power by the product of the measured input voltage and measured input current.
</P>
<HD2>4. Active Mode Test Method to Measure Time to Failure
</HD2>
<P>In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over IES LM-84 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and IES TM-28 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD2>4.1. Lamp Handling, Tracking, and Time Recording
</HD2>
<P>4.1.1. Handle, transport, and store the integrated LED lamp as described in section 7.2 of IES LM-84 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>4.1.2. Mark and track the integrated LED lamp as specified in section 7.3 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.1.3. Measure elapsed operating time and calibrate all equipment as described in section 7.5 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.1.4. Check the integrated LED lamps regularly for failure as specified in section 7.8 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.2. <I>Measure Initial Lumen Output.</I> Measure the initial lumen output according to section 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.3. <I>Test Duration.</I> Operate the integrated LED lamp for a period of time (the test duration) after the initial lumen output measurement and before, during, and including the final lumen output measurement.
</P>
<P>4.3.1. There is no minimum test duration requirement for the integrated LED lamp. The test duration is selected by the manufacturer. See section 4.6 of this appendix for instruction on the maximum time to failure.
</P>
<P>4.3.2. The test duration only includes time when the integrated LED lamp is energized and operating.
</P>
<HD2>4.4. Operating Conditions and Setup Between Lumen Output Measurements
</HD2>
<P>4.4.1. Electrical settings must be as described in section 5.1 of IES LM-84 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>4.4.2. LED lamps must be handled and cleaned as described in section 4.1 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.4.3. Vibration around each lamp must be as described in section 4.3 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.4.4. Ambient temperature conditions must be as described in section 4.4 of IES LM-84. Maintain the ambient temperature at 25 °C ± 5 °C or at a manufacturer-selected temperature higher than 25 °C with the same ±5 °C tolerance.
</P>
<P>4.4.5. Humidity in the testing environment must be as described in section 4.5 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.4.6. Air movement around each lamp must be as described in section 4.6 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.4.7. Position a lamp in either the base-up and base-down orientation throughout testing. An equal number of lamps in the sample must be tested in the base-up and base-down orientations, except that, if the manufacturer restricts the position, test all of the units in the sample in the manufacturer-specified position.
</P>
<P>4.4.8. Operate the lamp at the rated input voltage as described in section 3.1.3 of this appendix for the entire test duration.
</P>
<P>4.4.9. Operate the lamp at the maximum input power as described in section 3.1.4 of this appendix for the entire test duration.
</P>
<P>4.4.10. Line voltage waveshape must be as described in section 5.2 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.4.11. Monitor and regulate rated input voltage as described in section 5.4 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.4.12. Wiring of test racks must be as specified in section 5.5 of IES LM-84.
</P>
<P>4.4.13. Operate the integrated LED lamp continuously.
</P>
<P><I>4.5. Measure Interval Lumen Output.</I> Measure interval lumen output according to section 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.5.1. Record interval lumen output and elapsed operating time as described in section 4.2 of IES TM-28 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>4.5.1.1. For test duration values greater than or equal to 3,000 hours and less than 6,000 hours, measure lumen maintenance of the integrated LED lamp at an interval in accordance with section 4.2.2 of IES TM-28.
</P>
<P>4.5.1.2. For test duration values greater than or equal to 6,000 hours, measure lumen maintenance at an interval in accordance with section 4.2.1 of IES TM-28.
</P>
<HD2>4.6. Calculate Lumen Maintenance and Time to Failure
</HD2>
<P>4.6.1. Calculate the lumen maintenance of the lamp at each interval by dividing the interval lumen output “x<E T="52">t</E>” by the initial lumen output “x<E T="52">0</E>”. Measure initial and interval lumen output in accordance with sections 4.2 and 4.5 of this appendix, respectively.
</P>
<P>4.6.2. For lumen maintenance values less than 0.7, including lamp failures that result in complete loss of light output, time to failure is equal to the previously recorded lumen output measurement (at a shorter test duration) where the lumen maintenance is greater than or equal to 0.7.
</P>
<P>4.6.3. For lumen maintenance values equal to 0.7, time to failure is equal to the test duration.
</P>
<P>4.6.4. For lumen maintenance values greater than 0.7, use the following method:
</P>
<P>4.6.4.1. For test duration values less than 3,000 hours, do not project time to failure. Time to failure equals the test duration.
</P>
<P>4.6.4.2. For test duration values greater than or equal to 3,000 hours but less than 6,000 hours, time to failure is equal to the lesser of the projected time to failure calculated according to section 4.6.4.2.1 of this appendix or the test duration multiplied by the limiting multiplier calculated in section 4.6.4.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.6.4.2.1. Project time to failure using the projection method described in section 5.1.4 of IES TM-28 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). Project time to failure for each individual LED lamp. Do not use data obtained prior to a test duration value of 1,000 hours.
</P>
<P>4.6.4.2.2. Calculate the limiting multiplier from the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01jy16.014.gif"/>
<P>4.6.4.3. For test duration values greater than 6,000 hours, time to failure is equal to the lesser of the projected time to failure calculated according to section 4.6.4.3.1 or the test duration multiplied by six.
</P>
<P>4.6.4.3.1. Project time to failure using the projection method described in section 5.1.4 of IES TM-28 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3). Project time to failure for each individual LED lamp. Data used for the time to failure projection method must be as specified in section 5.1.3 of IES TM-28.
</P>
<HD2>5. Standby Mode Test Method for Determining Standby Mode Power
</HD2>
<P>Measure standby mode power consumption for integrated LED lamps capable of operating in standby mode. The standby mode test method in this section 5 may be completed before or after the active mode test method for determining lumen output, input power, CCT, CRI, power factor, and lamp efficacy in section 3 of this appendix. The standby mode test method in this section 5 must be completed before the active mode test method for determining time to failure in section 4 of this appendix. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over IES LM-79 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD2>5.1. Test Conditions and Setup
</HD2>
<P>5.1.1. Establish the ambient conditions, power supply, electrical settings, and instrumentation in accordance with the specifications in sections 2.0, 3.0, 7.0, and 8.0 of IES LM-79 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), respectively. Maintain the ambient temperature at 25 °C ± 1 °C.
</P>
<P>5.1.2. Position a lamp in either the base-up and base-down orientation throughout testing. An equal number of lamps in the sample must be tested in the base-up and base-down orientations.
</P>
<P>5.1.3. Operate the integrated LED lamp at the rated voltage throughout testing. For an integrated LED lamp with multiple rated voltages, operate the integrated LED lamp at 120 volts. If an integrated LED lamp with multiple rated voltages is not rated for 120 volts, operate the integrated LED lamp at the highest rated input voltage.
</P>
<HD2>5.2. Test Method, Measurements, and Calculations
</HD2>
<P>5.2.1. The test conditions and setup described in section 3.1 of this appendix apply to this section.
</P>
<P>5.2.2. Connect the integrated LED lamp to the manufacturer-specified wireless control network (if applicable) and configure the integrated LED lamp in standby mode by sending a signal to the integrated LED lamp instructing it to have zero light output. Lamp must remain connected to the network throughout the duration of the test.
</P>
<P>5.2.3. Stabilize the integrated LED lamp as specified in section 5 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) prior to measurement.
</P>
<P>5.2.4. Measure the standby mode power in watts as specified in section 5 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 43427, July 1, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 47812, Sept. 21, 2018; 90 FR 4602, Jan. 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix CC" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.45" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix CC to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Portable Air Conditioners


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standards for portable air conditioners at § 430.32(cc) with which compliance is required as of January 10, 2025. Specifically, before November 13, 2023 representations must be based upon results generated either under this appendix or under this appendix CC as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2021. Any representations made on or after November 13, 2023 but before the compliance date of any amended standards for portable ACs must be made based upon results generated using this appendix.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix CC1 to this subpart to determine compliance with any standards that amend the portable air conditioners standard at § 430.32(cc) with which compliance is required on January 10, 2025 and that use the Annualized Energy Efficiency Ratio (AEER) metric. Any representations related to energy also must be made in accordance with the appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> this appendix or appendix CC1) when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use appendix CC1 to certify compliance with any amended standards prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3 the entire standard for ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015, ANSI/AMCA 210-99, ASHRAE 37-2009, ASHRAE 41.1-1986, ASHRAE 41.6-1994, and IEC 62301; however, only enumerated provisions of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015, ANSI/AMCA 210-99, ASHRAE 37-2009, and IEC 62301 apply to this appendix CC as follows. Treat “should” in IEC 62301 as mandatory. When there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes precedence over those documents.
</P>
<HD3>0.1 ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 4 “Definitions,” as specified in section 3.1.1 of this appendix, except for AHAM's definition for “Portable Air Conditioner”;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7 “Tests,” as specified in sections 3.1.1, 3.1.1.3, 3.1.1.4, 4.1.1, and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 ANSI/AMCA 210-99 (“ANSI/AMCA 210”)
</HD3>
<P>(a) Figure 12 “Outlet chamber Setup—Multiple Nozzles in Chamber” as specified in section 4.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Figure 12 Notes as specified in section 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.3 ASHRAE 37-2009
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5.4 “Electrical Instruments,” as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7.3 “Indoor and Outdoor Air Enthalpy Methods,” as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7.6 “Outdoor Liquid Coil Method,” as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7.7 “Airflow Rate Measurement,” as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 8.7 “Test Procedure for Cooling Capacity Tests,” as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 9.2 “Test Tolerances,” as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 11.1 “Symbols Used In Equations,” as specified in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.4 IEC 62301
</HD3>
<P>(a) Paragraph 4.2 “Test room,” as specified in section 3.2.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph 4.3.2 “Supply voltage waveform,” as specified in section 3.2.2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph 4.4 “Power measuring instruments,” as specified in section 3.2.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Paragraph 5.1, “General,” Note 1, as specified in section 4.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Paragraph 5.2 “Preparation of product,” as specified in section 3.2.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Paragraph 5.3.2 “Sampling method,” as specified in section 4.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Annex D, “Determination of Uncertainty of Measurement,” as specified in sections 3.2.1, 3.2.2.2, and 3.2.3 of this appendix.


</P>
<HD2>1. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements used to measure the energy performance of single-duct and dual-duct portable air conditioners, as defined at 10 CFR 430.2.


</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>Combined-duct</I> means the condenser inlet and outlet air streams flow through separate ducts housed in a single duct structure.
</P>
<P><I>Combined energy efficiency ratio</I> means the energy efficiency of a portable air conditioner as measured in accordance with this test procedure in Btu per watt-hours (Btu/Wh) and determined in section 5.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Cooling mode</I> means a mode in which a portable air conditioner either has activated the main cooling function according to the thermostat or temperature sensor signal, including activating the refrigeration system, or has activated the fan or blower without activating the refrigeration system.
</P>
<P><I>Dual-duct</I> means drawing some or all of the condenser inlet air from outside the conditioned space through a duct attached to an adjustable window bracket, potentially drawing additional condenser inlet air from the conditioned space, and discharging the condenser outlet air outside the conditioned space by means of a separate duct attached to an adjustable window bracket.
</P>
<P><I>Full compressor speed (full)</I> means the compressor speed at which the unit operates at full load test conditions, when using user controls with a unit thermostat setpoint of 75 °F to achieve maximum cooling capacity.
</P>
<P><I>Inactive mode</I> means a standby mode that facilitates the activation of an active mode or off-cycle mode by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer, or that provides continuous status display.
</P>
<P><I>Low compressor speed (low)</I> means the compressor speed specified by the manufacturer, at which the unit operates at low load test conditions (<I>i.e.,</I> Test Condition C and Test Condition E in Table 2 of this appendix, for a dual-duct and single-duct portable air conditioner, respectively), such that the measured cooling capacity at this speed is no less than 50 percent and no greater than 60 percent of the measured cooling capacity with the full compressor speed at full load test conditioners (<I>i.e.,</I> Test Condition A and Test Condition C in Table 2 of this appendix, for a dual-duct and single-duct portable air conditioner, respectively).
</P>
<P><I>Off-cycle mode</I> means a mode in which a portable air conditioner:
</P>
<P>(a) Has cycled off its main cooling or heating function by thermostat or temperature sensor signal;
</P>
<P>(b) May or may not operate its fan or blower; and
</P>
<P>(c) Will reactivate the main function according to the thermostat or temperature sensor signal.
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means a mode that may persist for an indefinite time in which a portable air conditioner is connected to a mains power source, and is not providing any active mode, off-cycle mode, or standby mode function. This includes an indicator that only shows the user that the portable air conditioner is in the off position.
</P>
<P><I>Seasonally adjusted cooling capacity</I> means the amount of cooling provided to the indoor conditioned space, measured under the specified ambient conditions, in Btu/h,
</P>
<P><I>Seasonally adjusted cooling capacity, full</I> means the amount of cooling provided to the indoor conditions space, measured under the specified ambient conditions when the unit compressor is operating at full speed at each condition, in Btu/h.
</P>
<P><I>Single-duct</I> means drawing all of the condenser inlet air from the conditioned space without the means of a duct, and discharging the condenser outlet air outside the conditioned space through a single duct attached to an adjustable window bracket.
</P>
<P><I>Single-speed</I> means incapable of automatically adjusting the compressor speed based on detected conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means any mode where a portable air conditioner is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions which may persist for an indefinite time:
</P>
<P>(a) To facilitate the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of cooling mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer; or
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions. A timer is a continuous clock function (which may or may not be associated with a display) that provides regular scheduled tasks (<I>e.g.,</I> switching) and that operates on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P><I>Theoretical comparable single-speed</I> means a hypothetical single-speed unit that would have the same cooling capacity and electrical power input as the variable-speed unit under test, with no cycling losses considered, when operating with the full compressor speed and at the test conditions in Table 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Variable-speed</I> means capable of automatically adjusting the compressor speed based on detected conditions.




</P>
<HD2>3. Test Apparatus and General Instructions
</HD2>
<P>3.1 Active mode.


</P>
<P>3.1.1 <I>Test conduct.</I> The test apparatus and instructions for testing portable air conditioners in cooling mode and off-cycle mode must conform to the requirements specified in section 4, “Definitions” and section 7, “Tests,” of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015, except as otherwise specified in this appendix. Measure duct heat transfer and infiltration air heat transfer according to sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix, respectively.


</P>
<P>3.1.1.1 <I>Duct setup.</I> Use all ducting components provided by or required by the manufacturer and no others. Ducting components include ducts, connectors for attaching the duct(s) to the test unit, sealing, insulation, and window mounting fixtures. Do not apply additional sealing or insulation. For combined-duct units, the manufacturer must provide the testing facility an adapter that allows for the individual connection of the condenser inlet and outlet airflows to the test facility's airflow measuring apparatuses. Use that adapter to measure the condenser inlet and outlet airflows for any corresponding unit.


</P>
<P>3.1.1.2 <I>Single-duct evaporator inlet test conditions.</I> When testing single-duct portable air conditioners, maintain the evaporator inlet dry-bulb temperature within a range of 1.0 °F with an average difference within 0.3 °F.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.3 <I>Condensate Removal.</I> Set up the test unit in accordance with manufacturer instructions. If the unit has an auto-evaporative feature, keep any provided drain plug installed as shipped and do not provide other means of condensate removal. If the internal condensate collection bucket fills during the test, halt the test, remove the drain plug, install a gravity drain line, and start the test from the beginning. If no auto-evaporative feature is available, remove the drain plug and install a gravity drain line. If no auto-evaporative feature or gravity drain is available and a condensate pump is included, or if the manufacturer specifies the use of an included condensate pump during cooling mode operation, then test the portable air conditioner with the condensate pump enabled. For units tested with a condensate pump, apply the provisions in Section 7.1.2 of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015   if the pump cycles on and off.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.4 <I>Unit Placement.</I> There shall be no less than 3 feet between any test chamber wall surface and any surface on the portable air conditioner, except the surface or surfaces of the portable air conditioner that include a duct attachment. The distance between the test chamber wall and a surface with one or more duct attachments is prescribed by the test setup requirements in Section 7.3.7 of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015.
</P>
<P>3.1.1.5 <I>Electrical supply.</I> Maintain the input standard voltage at 115 V ±1 percent. Test at the rated frequency, maintained within ±1 percent.


</P>
<P>3.1.1.6 <I>Duct temperature measurements.</I> Install any insulation and sealing provided by the manufacturer. For a dual-duct or single-duct unit, adhere four thermocouples per duct, spaced along the entire length equally, to the outer surface of the duct. Measure the surface temperatures of each duct. For a combined-duct unit, adhere sixteen thermocouples to the outer surface of the duct, spaced evenly around the circumference (four thermocouples, each 90 degrees apart, radially) and down the entire length of the duct (four sets of four thermocouples, evenly spaced along the entire length of the duct), ensuring that the thermocouples are spaced along the entire length equally, on the surface of the combined duct. Place at least one thermocouple preferably adjacent to, but otherwise as close as possible to, the condenser inlet aperture and at least one thermocouple on the duct surface preferably adjacent to, but otherwise as close as possible to, the condenser outlet aperture. Measure the surface temperature of the combined duct at each thermocouple. Temperature measurements must have an error no greater than ±0.5 °F over the range being measured.




</P>
<P>3.1.2 <I>Control settings.</I> For a single-speed unit, set the controls to the lowest available temperature setpoint for cooling mode, as described in section 4.1.1 of this appendix. For a variable-speed unit, set the thermostat setpoint to 75 °F to achieve the full compressor speed and use the manufacturer instructions to achieve the low compressor speed, as described in section 4.1.2 of this appendix. If the portable air conditioner has a user-adjustable fan speed, select the maximum fan speed setting. If the unit has an automatic louver oscillation feature and there is an option to disable that feature, disable that feature throughout testing. If the unit has adjustable louvers, position the louvers parallel with the air flow to maximize air flow and minimize static pressure loss. If the portable air conditioner has network functions, that an end-user can disable and the product's user manual provides instructions on how to do so, disable all network functions throughout testing. If an end-user cannot disable a network function or the product's user manual does not provide instruction for disabling a network function, test the unit with that network function in the factory default configuration for the duration of the test.






</P>
<HD3>3.2 Standby Mode and Off Mode


</HD3>
<P>3.2.1 <I>Installation requirements.</I> For the standby mode and off mode testing, install the portable air conditioner in accordance with Paragraph 5.2 of IEC 62301, referring to Annex D of that standard as necessary. Disregard the provisions regarding batteries and the determination, classification, and testing of relevant modes.
</P>
<P>3.2.2 <I>Electrical energy supply.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.2.1 <I>Electrical supply.</I> For the standby mode and off mode testing, maintain the input standard voltage at 115 V ±1 percent. Maintain the electrical supply at the rated frequency ±1 percent.


</P>
<P>3.2.2.2 <I>Supply voltage waveform.</I> For the standby mode and off mode testing, maintain the electrical supply voltage waveform indicated in, Paragraph 4.3.2 of IEC 62301, referring to Annex D of that standard as necessary.






</P>
<P>3.2.3 <I>Standby mode and off mode wattmeter.</I> The wattmeter used to measure standby mode and off mode power consumption must meet the requirements specified in Paragraph 4.4 of IEC 62301, using a two-tailed confidence interval and referring to Annex D of that standard as necessary.


</P>
<P>3.2.4 <I>Standby mode and off mode ambient temperature.</I> For standby mode and off mode testing, maintain room ambient air temperature conditions as specified in Section 4, Paragraph 4.2 of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<HD2>4. Test Measurement


</HD2>
<HD3>4.1 Cooling Mode
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For the purposes of this cooling mode test procedure, evaporator inlet air is considered the “indoor air” of the conditioned space and condenser inlet air is considered the “outdoor air” outside of the conditioned space.</P></NOTE>
<P>4.1.1 <I>Single-Speed Cooling Mode Test.</I> For single-speed portable air conditioners, measure the indoor room cooling capacity and overall power input in cooling mode in accordance with sections 7.1.b and 7.1.c of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015, respectively, including the references to sections 5.4, 7.3, 7.6, 7.7, and 11 of ASHRAE 37-2009. Determine the test duration in accordance with section 8.7 of ASHRAE 37-2009, including the reference to section 9.2 of the same standard, referring to Figure 12 and the Figure 12 Notes of ANSI/AMCA 210 to determine placement of static pressure taps, and including references to ASHRAE 41.1-1986 and ASHRAE 41.6-1994. Disregard the test conditions in Table 3 of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015. Instead, apply the test conditions for single-duct and dual-duct portable air conditioners presented in Table 1 of this appendix. For single-duct units, measure the indoor room cooling capacity, Capacity<E T="52">SD</E>, and overall power input in cooling mode, P<E T="52">SD</E>, in accordance with the ambient conditions for test condition 1.C, presented in Table 1 of this appendix. For dual-duct units, measure the indoor room cooling capacity and overall power input twice, first in accordance with ambient conditions for test condition 1.A (Capacity<E T="52">95</E>, P<E T="52">95</E>), and then in accordance with test condition 1.B (Capacity<E T="52">83</E>, P<E T="52">83</E>), both presented in Table 1 of this appendix. For the remainder of this test procedure, test combined-duct single-speed portable air conditioners following any instruction for dual-duct single-speed portable air conditioners, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Single-Speed Evaporator (Indoor) and Condenser (Outdoor) Inlet Test Conditions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test condition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Evaporator inlet air, °F ( °C)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condenser inlet air, °F ( °C)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95 (35.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75 (23.9)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83 (28.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67.5 (19.7)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.1.2 <I>Variable-Speed Cooling Mode Test.</I> For variable-speed portable air conditioners, measure the indoor room cooling capacity and overall power input in cooling mode in accordance with sections 7.1.b and 7.1.c of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015, respectively, including the references to sections 5.4, 7.3, 7.6, 7.7, and 11 of ASHRAE 37-2009, except as detailed below. Determine the test duration in accordance with section 8.7 of ASHRAE 37-2009, including the reference to section 9.2 of the same standard. Disregard the test conditions in Table 3 of ANSI/AHAM PAC-1-2015. Instead, apply the test conditions for single-duct and dual-duct portable air conditioners presented in Table 2 of this appendix. For a single-duct unit, measure the indoor room cooling capacity and overall power input in cooling mode twice, first in accordance with the ambient conditions and compressor speed settings for test condition 2.D (Capacity<E T="52">SD_Full</E>, P<E T="52">SD_Full</E>), and then in accordance with the ambient conditions for test condition 2.E (Capacity<E T="52">SD_Low</E>, P<E T="52">SD_Low</E>), both presented in Table 2 of this appendix. For dual-duct units, measure the indoor room cooling capacity and overall power input three times, first in accordance with ambient conditions for test condition 2.A (Capacity<E T="52">95_Full</E>, P<E T="52">95_Full</E>), second in accordance with the ambient conditions for test condition 2.B (Capacity<E T="52">83_Full</E>, P<E T="52">83_Full</E>), and third in accordance with the ambient conditions for test condition 2.C (Capacity<E T="52">83_Low</E>, P<E T="52">83_Low</E>), each presented in Table 2 of this appendix. For the remainder of this test procedure, test combined-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners following any instruction for dual-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners, unless otherwise specified. For test conditions 2.A, 2.B, and 2.D, achieve the full compressor speed with user controls, as defined in section 2.13 of this appendix. For test conditions 2.C and 2.E, set the required compressor speed in accordance with instructions the manufacturer provided to DOE.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Variable-Speed Evaporator (Indoor) and Condenser (Outdoor) Inlet Test Conditions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Test condition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Evaporator inlet air °F ( °C)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Condenser inlet air °F ( °C)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Compressor speed
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dry bulb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Wet bulb
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95 (35.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75 (23.9)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83 (28.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67.5 (19.7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83 (28.3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67.5 (19.7)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.D</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.E</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80 (26.7)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67 (19.4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>4.1.3. <I>Duct Heat Transfer</I>
</P>
<P>Throughout the cooling mode test, measure the surface temperature of the condenser exhaust duct and condenser inlet duct, where applicable. Calculate the average temperature at each thermocouple placement location. Then calculate the average surface temperature of each duct. For single-duct and dual-duct units, calculate the average of the four average temperature measurements taken on the duct. For combined-duct units, calculate the average of the sixteen average temperature measurements taken on the duct. Calculate the surface area (A<E T="52">duct_j</E>) of each duct according to:
</P>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">duct_j</E> = Cj × Lj
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Cj = the circumference of duct “j”, including any manufacturer-supplied insulation, measured by wrapping a flexible measuring tape, or equivalent, around the outside of a combined duct, making sure the tape is on the outermost ridges or, alternatively, if the duct has a circular cross-section, by multiplying the outer diameter by 3.14.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Lj = the extended length of duct “j” while under test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>j represents the condenser exhaust duct for single-duct units, the condenser exhaust duct and the condenser inlet duct for dual-duct units, and the combined duct for combined-duct units.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the total heat transferred from the surface of the duct(s) to the indoor conditioned space while operating in cooling mode at each test condition, as follows:
</P>
<P>For single-duct single-speed portable air conditioners:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD</E> = 3 × A<E T="52">duct_j</E> × (<I>T</I><E T="52">duct_j</E>−<I>T</I><E T="52">ei</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For dual-duct single-speed portable air conditioners:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_DD_95</E> = Σ<E T="52">j</E>{3 × A<E T="52">duct_j</E> × (T<E T="52">duct_95_j</E>−T<E T="52">ei</E>)}
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83</E> = Σ<E T="52">j</E>{3 × A<E T="52">duct_j</E> × (T<E T="52">duct_83_j</E>−T<E T="52">ei</E>)}
</FP-2>
<P>For single-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Full</E> = 3 × A<E T="52">duct</E> × (<I>T</I><E T="52">duct_Full_j</E>−<I>T</I><E T="52">ei</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Low</E> = 3 × A<E T="52">duct</E> × (<I>T</I><E T="52">duct_Low_j</E>−<I>T</I><E T="52">ei</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For dual-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_DD_95_Full</E> = Σ<E T="52">j</E>{3 × A<E T="52">duct_j</E> × (T<E T="52">duct_Full_95_j</E>−T<E T="52">ei</E>)}
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Full</E> = Σ<E T="52">j</E>{3 × A<E T="52">duct_j</E> × (T<E T="52">duct_Full_83_j</E>−T<E T="52">ei</E>)}
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Low</E> = Σ<E T="52">j</E>{3 × A<E T="52">duct_j</E> × (T<E T="52">duct_Low_83_j</E>—T<E T="52">ei</E>)}
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD</E> = the total heat transferred from the duct to the indoor conditioned space in cooling mode, in Btu/h, when tested at Test Condition 1.C.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_DD_95</E> and Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83</E> = the total heat transferred from the ducts to the indoor conditioned space in cooling mode, in Btu/h, when tested at Test Conditions 1.A and 1.B, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Full</E> and Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Low</E> = the total heat transferred from the duct to the indoor conditioned space in cooling mode, in Btu/h, when tested at Test Conditions 2.D and 2.E, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_DD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Full</E>, and Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Low</E> = the total heat transferred from the ducts to the indoor conditioned space in cooling mode, in Btu/h, when tested at Test Condition 2.A, Test Condition 2.B, and Test Condition 2.C, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3 = empirically-derived convection coefficient in Btu/h per square foot per °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">duct_j</E> = surface area of the duct “j”, as calculated in this section, in square feet.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">duct_j</E> = average surface temperature for duct “j” of single-duct single-speed portable air conditioners, in °F, as measured at Test Condition 1.C.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">duct_95_j</E> and T<E T="52">duct_83_j</E> = average surface temperature for duct “j” of dual-duct single-speed portable air conditioners, in °F, as measured at Test Conditions 1.A and 1.B, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">duct_Full_j</E> and T<E T="52">duct_Low_j</E> = average surface temperature for duct “j” of single-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners, in °F, as measured at Test Conditions 2.D and 2.E, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">duct_Full_95_j</E>, T<E T="52">duct_Full_83_j</E>, and T<E T="52">duct_Low_83_j</E> = average surface temperature for duct “j” of dual-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners, in °F, as measured at Test Conditions 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>j represents the condenser exhaust duct for single-duct units, the condenser exhaust duct and the condenser inlet duct for dual-duct units, and the combined duct for combined-duct units.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">ei</E> = average evaporator inlet air dry-bulb temperature, as measured in section 4.1 of this appendix, in °F.




</FP-2>
<P>4.1.4. <I>Infiltration Air Heat Transfer.</I>
</P>
<P>Calculate the sample unit's heat contribution from infiltration air into the conditioned space for each cooling mode test as follows:
</P>
<P>Calculate the dry air mass flow rate of infiltration air, which affects the sensible and latent components of heat contribution from infiltration air, according to the following equations.
</P>
<P>For a single-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.000.gif"/>
<P>For a dual-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.001.gif"/>
<P>For a single-duct variable-speed unit:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.002.gif"/>
<P>For a dual-duct variable-speed unit:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.003.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Full</E>, and m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Low</E> = dry air mass flow rate of infiltration air for single-duct portable air conditioners, in pounds per minute (lb/m) when tested at Test Conditions 1.C, 2.D, and 2.E, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95,</E> m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83,</E> m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95_Full</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Full</E>, and m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Low</E> = dry air mass flow rate of infiltration air for dual-duct portable air conditioners, in lb/m, when tested at Test Conditions 1.A, 1.B, 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">co_SD,</E> V<E T="52">co_SD_Full,</E> V<E T="52">co_SD_Low,</E> V<E T="52">co_95,</E> V<E T="52">co_83,</E> V<E T="52">co_95_Full</E>, V<E T="52">co_83_Full</E>, and V<E T="52">co_83_Low</E> = average volumetric flow rate of the condenser outlet air, in cubic feet per minute (cfm), as measured at Test Conditions 1.C, 2.D, 2.E, 1.A, 1.B, 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively, as required in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">ci_95,</E> V<E T="52">ci_83,</E> V<E T="52">ci_95_Full,</E> V<E T="52">ci_83_Full,</E> and V<E T="52">ci_83_Low</E> = average volumetric flow rate of the condenser inlet air, in cfm, as measured at Test Conditions 1.A, 1.B, 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively, as required in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ<E T="52">co_SD,</E> ρ<E T="52">co_SD_Full,</E> ρ<E T="52">co_SD_Low</E>, ρ<E T="52">co_95,</E> ρ<E T="52">co_83,</E> ρ<E T="52">co_95_Full,</E> ρ<E T="52">co_83_Full,</E> and ρ<E T="52">co_83_Low</E> = average density of the condenser outlet air, in pounds mass per cubic foot (lb<E T="52">m</E>/ft
<SU>3</SU>), as measured at Test Conditions 1.C, 2.D, 2.E, 1.A, 1.B, 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively, as required in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ<E T="52">ci_95,</E> ρ<E T="52">ci_83,</E> ρ<E T="52">ci_95_Full</E>, ρ<E T="52">ci_83_Full</E>, and ρ<E T="52">ci_83_Low</E> = average density of the condenser inlet air, in lb<E T="52">m</E>/ft
<SU>3</SU>, as measured at Test Conditions 1.A, 1.B, 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively, as required in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">co_SD,</E> ω<E T="52">co_SD_Full,</E> ω<E T="52">co_SD_Low,</E> ω<E T="52">co_95,</E> ω<E T="52">co_83,</E> ω<E T="52">co_95_Full,</E> ω<E T="52">co_83_Full,</E> and ω<E T="52">co_83_Low</E> = average humidity ratio of condenser outlet air, in pounds mass of water vapor per pounds mass of dry air (lb<E T="52">w</E>/lb<E T="52">da</E>), as measured at Test Conditions 1.C, 2.D, 2.E, 1.A, 1.B, 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively, as required in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">ci_95,</E> ω<E T="52">ci_83,</E> ω<E T="52">ci_95_Full</E>, ω<E T="52">ci_83_Full</E>, and ω<E T="52">ci_83_Low</E> = average humidity ratio of condenser inlet air, in lb<E T="52">w</E>/lb<E T="52">da</E>, as measured at Test Conditions 1.A, 1.B, 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively, as required in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the sensible component of infiltration air heat contribution according to the following equations.
</P>
<P>For single-duct single-speed units:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_95</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD</E> × 60 × [c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (95−80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.0141 × 95 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_83</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD</E> × 60 × [(c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (83 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.01086 × 83 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<P>For dual-duct single-speed units:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_DD_95</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95</E> × 60 × [c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (95 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.0141 × 95 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_DD_83</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83</E> × 60 × [(c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (83 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.01086 × 83 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<P>For single-duct variable-speed units:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_95_Full</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Full</E> × 60 × [c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (95 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.0141 × 95 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_83_Full</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Full</E> × 60 × [(c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (83 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.01086 × 83 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_83_Low</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Low</E> × 60 × [(c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (83 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.01086 × 83 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<P>For dual-duct variable-speed units:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_DD_95_Full</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95_Full</E> × 60 × [c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (95 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.0141 × 95 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_DD_83_Full</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Full</E> × 60 × [(c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (83 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.01086 × 83 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_DD_83_Low</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Low</E> × 60 × [(c<E T="52">p_da</E> × (83 − 80) + (c<E T="52">p_wv</E> × (0.01086 × 83 − 0.0112 × 80))]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_95</E>, Q<E T="52">s_SD_83</E>, Q<E T="52">s_DD_95</E>, and Q<E T="52">s_DD_83</E> = sensible heat added to the room by infiltration air, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration and temperature condition.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">s_SD_83_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">s_SD_83_Low</E>, Q<E T="52">s_DD_95_Full,</E> Q<E T="52">s_DD_83_Full,</E> and Q<E T="52">s_DD_83_Low</E> = sensible heat added to the room by infiltration air, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95</E>, and m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83</E> = dry air mass flow rate of infiltration air for single-speed portable air conditioners, in lb/m, as calculated in section 4.1.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_95_Full</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_83_Low</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95_Full</E> and m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Low</E> = dry air mass flow rate of infiltration air for variable-speed portable air conditioners, in lb/m, as calculated in section 4.1.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>c<E T="52">p_da</E> = specific heat of dry air, 0.24 Btu/(lbm °F).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>c<E T="52">p_wv</E> = specific heat of water vapor, 0.444 Btu/(lbm °F).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>80 = indoor chamber dry-bulb temperature, in °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>95 = infiltration air dry-bulb temperature for Test Conditions 1.A and 2.A, in °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>83 = infiltration air dry-bulb temperature for Test Conditions 1.B, 2.B, and 2.C, in °F.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.0141 = humidity ratio of the dry-bulb infiltration air for Test Conditions 1.A and 2.A, in lb<E T="52">w</E>/lb<E T="52">da</E>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.01086 = humidity ratio of the dry-bulb infiltration air for Test Conditions 1.B, 2.B, and 2.C, in lb<E T="52">w</E>/lb<E T="52">da</E>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.0112 = humidity ratio of the indoor chamber air, in lb<E T="52">w</E>/lb<E T="52">da</E> (ω<E T="52">indoor</E>).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>60 = conversion factor from minutes to hours.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the latent heat contribution of the infiltration air according to the following equations. For a single-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_95</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.0141 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_83</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.01086 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_DD_95</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.0141 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_DD_83</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.01086 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a single-duct variable-speed unit:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_95_Full</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Full</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.0141 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_83_Full</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Full</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.01086 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_83_Low</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Low</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.01086 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct variable-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_DD_95_Full</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95_Full</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.0141 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_DD_83_Full</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Full</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.01086 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_DD_83_Low</E> = m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Low</E> × 60 × 1061 × (0.01086 − 0.0112)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_95</E>, Q<E T="52">l_SD_83</E>, Q<E T="52">l_DD_95</E>, and Q<E T="52">l_DD_83</E> = latent heat added to the room by infiltration air, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration and temperature condition.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">l_SD_83_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">l_SD_Low</E>, Q<E T="52">l_DD_95_Full,</E> Q<E T="52">l_DD_83_Full,</E> and Q<E T="52">l_DD_83_Low</E> = latent heat added to the room by infiltration air, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95</E>, and m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83</E> = dry air mass flow rate of infiltration air for portable air conditioners, in lb/m, when tested at Test Conditions 1.C, 1.A, and 1.B, respectively, as calculated in section 4.1.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Full</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">SD_Low</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">95_Full</E>, m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Full</E> and m
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">83_Low</E> = dry air mass flow rate of infiltration air for portable air conditioners, in lb/m, when tested at Test Conditions 2.D, 2.E, 2.A, 2.B, and 2.C, respectively, as calculated in section 4.1.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1061 = latent heat of vaporization for water vapor, in Btu/lb<E T="52">m</E> (H<E T="52">fg</E>).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.0141 = humidity ratio of the dry-bulb infiltration air for Test Conditions 1.A and 2.A, in lb<E T="52">w</E>/lb<E T="52">da</E>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.01086 = humidity ratio of the dry-bulb infiltration air for Test Conditions 1.B, 2.B, and 2.C, in lb<E T="52">w</E>/lb<E T="52">da</E>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.0112 = humidity ratio of the indoor chamber air, in lb<E T="52">w</E>/lb<E T="52">da</E>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>60 = conversion factor from minutes to hours.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the total heat contribution of the infiltration air at each test condition by adding the sensible and latent heat according to the following equations.
</P>
<P>For a single-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_95</E> = Q<E T="52">s_SD_95</E> + Q<E T="52">l_SD_95</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83</E> = Q<E T="52">s_SD_83</E> + Q<E T="52">l_SD_83</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a dual-duct single-speed unit:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_95</E> = Q<E T="52">s_DD_95</E> + Q<E T="52">l_DD_95</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83</E> = Q<E T="52">s_DD_83</E> + Q<E T="52">l_DD_83</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a single-duct variable-speed unit:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_95_Full</E> = Q<E T="52">s_SD_95_Full</E> + Q<E T="52">l_SD_95_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_Full</E> = Q<E T="52">s_SD_83_Full</E> + Q<E T="52">l_SD_83_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_Low</E> = Q<E T="52">s_SD_83_Low</E> + Q<E T="52">l_SD_83_Low</E>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct variable-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_95_Full</E> = Q<E T="52">s_DD_95_Full</E> + Q<E T="52">l_DD_95_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_Full</E> = Q<E T="52">s_DD_83_Full</E> + Q<E T="52">l_DD_83_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_Low</E> = Q<E T="52">s_DD_83_Low</E> + Q<E T="52">l_DD_83_Low</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_95</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_95</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83</E> = total infiltration air heat in cooling mode, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration and temperature condition.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_Low</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_Full</E>, and Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_Low</E> = total infiltration air heat in cooling mode, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_95</E>, Q<E T="52">s_SD_83</E>, Q<E T="52">s_DD_95</E>, and Q<E T="52">s_DD_83</E> = sensible heat added to the room by infiltration air, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s_SD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">s_SD_83_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">s_SD_83_Low</E>, Q<E T="52">s_DD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">s_DD_83_Full</E>, and Q<E T="52">s_DD_83_Low</E> = sensible heat added to the room by infiltration air, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_95</E>, Q<E T="52">l_SD_83</E>, Q<E T="52">l_DD_95</E>, and Q<E T="52">l_DD_83</E> = latent heat added to the room by infiltration air, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration, and temperature condition.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">l_SD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">l_SD_83_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">l_SD_83_Low</E>, Q<E T="52">l_DD_95_Full,</E> Q<E T="52">l_DD_83_Full,</E> and Q<E T="52">l_DD_83_Low</E> = latent heat added to the room by infiltration air, in Btu/h, for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed.




</FP-2>
<P>4.2 <I>Off-cycle mode.</I> Establish the test conditions specified in section 3.1.1 of this appendix for off-cycle mode and use the wattmeter specified in section 3.2.3 of this appendix (but do not use the duct measurements in section 3.1.1.6). Begin the off-cycle mode test period 5 minutes following the cooling mode test period. Adjust the setpoint higher than the ambient temperature to ensure the product will not enter cooling mode and begin the test 5 minutes after the compressor cycles off due to the change in setpoint. Do not change any other control settings between the end of the cooling mode test period and the start of the off-cycle mode test period. The off-cycle mode test period must be 2 hours in duration, during which period, record the power consumption at the same intervals as recorded for cooling mode testing. Measure and record the average off-cycle mode power of the portable air conditioner, P<E T="52">oc</E>, in watts.


</P>
<P>4.3 <I>Standby mode and off mode.</I> Establish the testing conditions set forth in section 3.2 of this appendix, ensuring that the unit does not enter any active modes during the test. As discussed in Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 of IEC 62301, allow sufficient time for the unit to reach the lowest power state before proceeding with the test measurement. Follow the test procedure specified in Paragraph 5.3.2 of IEC 62301 for testing in each possible mode as described in sections 4.3.1 and 4.3.2 of this appendix. If the standby mode is cyclic and irregular or unstable, collect 10 cycles worth of data.


</P>
<P>4.3.1 If the portable air conditioner has an inactive mode, as defined in section 2.6 of this appendix, but not an off mode, as defined in section 2.8 of this appendix, measure and record the average inactive mode power of the portable air conditioner, P<E T="52">ia</E>, in watts.
</P>
<P>4.3.2 If the portable air conditioner has an off mode, as defined in section 2.8 of this appendix, measure and record the average off mode power of the portable air conditioner, P<E T="52">om</E>, in watts.




</P>
<HD2>5. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>5.1 <I>Adjusted Cooling Capacity</I>
</HD3>
<P>5.1.1 <I>Single-Speed Adjusted Cooling Capacity.</I> For a single-speed portable air conditioner, calculate the adjusted cooling capacity at each outdoor temperature operating condition, in Btu/h, according to the following equations.
</P>
<P>For a single-duct single-speed portable air conditioner unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_95_SS</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">SD</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_SD</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_SD_95</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_83_SS</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">SD</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_SD</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_SD_83</E>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct single-speed portable air conditioner unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_95_SS</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">95</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_95</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_DD_95</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_83_SS</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">83</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_83</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_DD_83</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD</E>, Capacity<E T="52">95</E>, and Capacity<E T="52">83</E> = cooling capacity for each duct configuration or temperature condition measured in section 4.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_DD_95</E>, and Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83</E> = duct heat transfer for each duct configuration or temperature condition while operating in cooling mode, calculated in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_95,</E> Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83,</E> Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_95,</E> Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83</E> = total infiltration air heat transfer in cooling mode for each duct configuration and temperature condition, calculated in section 4.1.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.1.2 <I>Variable-Speed Adjusted Cooling Capacity.</I> For variable-speed portable air conditioners, calculate the adjusted cooling capacity at each outdoor temperature operating condition, in Btu/h, according to the following equations:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct variable-speed portable air conditioner unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">95</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">SD_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_SD_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_SD_95_Full</E>


</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Full</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">SD_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_SD_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_SD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Low</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">SD_Low</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_SD_Low</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_SD_</E><E T="52">83</E><E T="54">_Low</E>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct variable-speed portable air conditioner unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">95</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">95_</E><E T="54">Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_</E><E T="52">95_</E><E T="54">Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_DD_</E><E T="52">95_</E><E T="54">Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Full</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="54">83_</E><E T="54">Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_DD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Low</E> = <I>Capacity</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="54">83_</E><E T="54">Low</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_</E><E T="54">83_</E><E T="52">Low</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">inflitration_DD_</E><E T="54">83_</E><E T="54">Low</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD_Full</E>, Capacity<E T="52">SD_Low</E>, Capacity<E T="52">DD_95_Full</E>, Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_Full</E>, and Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_Low</E> = cooling capacity in Btu/h for each duct configuration, temperature condition (where applicable), and compressor speed, as measured in section 4.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Low</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_DD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Full</E>, and Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Low</E> = combined duct heat transfer for each duct configuration, temperature condition (where applicable), and compressor speed, as calculated in section 4.1.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_Low</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_95_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_Full</E>, and Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_Low</E> = total infiltration air heat transfer in cooling mode for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed, as calculated in section 4.1.4 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<HD3>5.2 <I>Seasonally Adjusted Cooling Capacity</I>
</HD3>
<P>5.2.1 Calculate the unit's seasonally adjusted cooling capacity, SACC, in Btu/h, according to the following equations:
</P>
<P>For a single-speed portable air conditioner unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>SACC</I><E T="54">SD</E> = <I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">95_</E><E T="54">SS</E> × 0.2 + <I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">SS</E> × 0.8
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>SACC</I><E T="54">DD</E> = <I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">95_</E><E T="54">SS</E> × 0.2 + <I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">SS</E> × 0.8
</FP-2>
<P>For a variable-speed portable air conditioner unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>SACC</I><E T="54">SD</E> = <I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">95</E> × 0.2 + <I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Low</E> × 0.8
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>SACC</I><E T="54">DD</E> = <I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">95</E> × 0.2 + <I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Low</E> × 0.8
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_95_SS</E>, ACC<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E>, ACC<E T="52">DD_95_SS</E>, and ACC<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = adjusted cooling capacity for single-speed portable air conditioners for each duct configuration and temperature condition, in Btu/h, calculated in section 5.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_95</E>, ACC<E T="52">SD_83_Low</E>, ACC<E T="52">DD_95</E>, and ACC<E T="52">DD_83_Low</E> = adjusted cooling capacity for variable-speed portable air conditioners for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed, in Btu/h, calculated in section 5.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.2 = weighting factor for the 95 °F test condition.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.8 = weighting factor for the 83 °F test condition.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2.2 For variable-speed portable ACs determine a Full-Load Seasonally Adjusted Cooling Capacity (SACC<E T="52">Full_SD</E> for single-speed units and SACC<E T="52">Full_DD</E> for dual-duct units) using the following formulas:
</P>
<FP-2><I>SACC</I><E T="54">Full_SD</E> = <I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">95</E> × 0.2 + <I>ACC</I><E T="54">SD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Full</E> × 0.8
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>SACC</I><E T="54">Full_DD</E> = <I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">95</E> × 0.2 + <I>ACC</I><E T="54">DD_</E><E T="52">83_</E><E T="54">Full</E> × 0.8
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_95</E>, ACC<E T="52">SD_83_Full</E>, ACC<E T="52">DD_95</E>, and ACC<E T="52">DD_83_Full</E> = adjusted cooling capacity for variable-speed portable air conditioners for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed (where applicable), in Btu/h, calculated in section 5.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.2 = weighting factor for the 95 °F test condition.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.8 = weighting factor for the 83 °F test condition.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3 <I>Annual Energy Consumption.</I> Calculate the sample unit's annual energy consumption in each operating mode according to the equation below. For each operating mode, use the following annual hours of operation and equation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of portable air conditioner
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operating mode
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subscript
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual


<br/>operating

<br/>hours
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable speed (single- or dual-duct)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Mode: Test Conditions 2.A, 2.B, 2.C, 2.D, and 2.E 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DD_95_Full, DD_83_Full, DD_83_Low, SD_Full, and SD_Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single speed (single- or dual-duct)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cooling Mode: Test Conditions 1.A, 1.B, and 1C 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DD_95, DD_83, and SD</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off-Cycle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">oc</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Inactive or Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ia or om</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,355
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> These operating mode hours are for the purposes of calculating annual energy consumption under different ambient conditions and are not a division of the total cooling mode operating hours. The total cooling mode operating hours are 750 hours.</P></DIV></DIV>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">m</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">m</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">m</E> × 0.001
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">m</E> = annual energy consumption in the operating mode, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m represents the operating mode as shown in the table above with each operating mode's respective subscript.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">m</E> = average power in the operating mode, in watts, as determined in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">m</E> = number of annual operating time in each operating mode, in hours.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.001 kWh/Wh = conversion factor from watt-hours to kilowatt-hours.
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the sample unit's total annual energy consumption in off-cycle mode and inactive or off mode as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.004.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">T</E> = total annual energy consumption attributed to off-cycle mode and inactive or off mode, in kWh/year;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">m</E> = total annual energy consumption in the operating mode, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ncm represents the following two non-cooling operating modes: off-cycle mode and inactive or off mode.
</FP-2>
<HD3>5.4 Combined Energy Efficiency Ratio
</HD3>
<P>5.4.1 <I>Combined Energy Efficiency Ratio for Single-Speed Portable Air Conditioners.</I>
</P>
<P>Using the annual operating hours established in section 5.3 of this appendix, calculate the combined energy efficiency ratio, CEER, in Btu/Wh, for single-speed portable air conditioners according to the following equation, as applicable:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.005.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">SD</E> and CEER<E T="52">DD</E> = combined energy efficiency ratio for a single-duct unit and dual-duct unit, respectively, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_95_SS,</E> ACC<E T="52">SD_83_SS,</E> ACC<E T="52">DD_95_SS,</E> ACC<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = adjusted cooling capacity for each duct configuration and temperature condition, in Btu/h, calculated in section 5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">SD</E>, AEC<E T="52">DD_95</E> and AEC<E T="52">DD_83</E> = annual energy consumption in cooling mode for each duct configuration and temperature condition, in kWh/year, calculated in section 5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">T</E> = total annual energy consumption attributed to all modes except cooling, in kWh/year, calculated in section 5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.750 = number of cooling mode hours per year, 750, multiplied by the conversion factor for watt-hours to kilowatt-hours, 0.001 kWh/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.2 = weighting factor for the 95 °F dry-bulb outdoor condition test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.8 = weighting factor for the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor condition test.
</FP-2>
<P>5.4.2 <I>Unadjusted Combined Energy Efficiency Ratio for Variable-Speed Portable Air Conditioners.</I>
</P>
<P>For a variable-speed portable air conditioner, calculate the unit's unadjusted combined energy efficiency ratio, CEER<E T="52">UA,</E> in Btu/Wh, as follows:
</P>
<P>For single-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.006.gif"/>
<P>For dual-duct variable-speed portable air conditioners:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">SD_UA</E>, and CEER<E T="52">DD_UA</E> = unadjusted combined energy efficiency ratio for a single-duct and dual-duct sample unit, in Btu/Wh, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_95</E>, ACC<E T="52">SD_83_Low</E>, ACC<E T="52">DD_95</E>, and ACC<E T="52">DD_83</E> = adjusted cooling capacity for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed, as calculated in section 5.1.2 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">SD_Full</E>, AEC<E T="52">SD_Low</E>, AEC<E T="52">DD_95_Full</E>, and AEC<E T="52">DD_83_Low</E> = annual energy consumption for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed in cooling mode operation, as calculated in section 5.3 of this appendix, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E> = annual energy consumption attributed to inactive or off mode, in kWh/year, calculated in section 5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.750 = number of cooling mode hours per year, 750, multiplied by the conversion factor for watt-hours to kilowatt-hours, 0.001 kWh/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.2 = weighting factor for the 95 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.8 = weighting factor for the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5 <I>Adjustment of the Combined Energy Efficiency Ratio.</I> Adjust the sample unit's unadjusted combined energy efficiency ratio as follows.
</P>
<P>5.5.1 <I>Theoretical Comparable Single-Speed Portable Air Conditioner Cooling Capacity and Power at the Lower Outdoor Temperature Operating Condition.</I> Calculate the cooling capacity without and with cycling losses, in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h), and electrical power input, in watts, for a single-duct or dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner at an 83 °F outdoor dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition according to the following equations:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct theoretical comparable single speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> = Capacity<E T="52">SD_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD_83_SS_CF</E> = Capacity<E T="52">SD_Full</E> × 0.82
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> = P<E T="52">SD_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct theoretical comparable single speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = Capacity<E T="52">83_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_SS_CF</E> = Capacity<E T="52">83_Full</E> × 0.77
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = P<E T="52">83_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> and Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = cooling capacity of a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner, calculated for the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively), in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD_83_SS_CF</E> and Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_SS_CF</E> = cooling capacity of a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner with cycling losses, in Btu/h, calculated for the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD_Full</E> and Capacity<E T="52">83_Full</E> = cooling capacity of the sample unit, measured in section 4.1.2 of this appendix at Test Conditions 2.D and 2.B, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> and P<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = power input of a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner calculated for the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively), in watts.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">SD_Full</E> and P<E T="52">83_Full</E> = electrical power input of the sample unit, measured in section 4.1.2 of this appendix at Test Conditions 2.D and 2.B, in watts.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.82 = empirically-derived cycling factor for the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition for single-duct units.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = empirically-derived cycling factor for the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition for dual-duct units.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.2 <I>Duct Heat Transfer for a Theoretical Comparable Single-Speed Portable Air Conditioner at the Lower Outdoor Temperature Operating Condition.</I> Calculate the duct heat transfer to the conditioned space for a single-duct or dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition as follows:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD_83_SS</E> = Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_SS</E> = Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD_83_SS</E> and Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_SS</E> = total heat transferred from the condenser exhaust duct to the indoor conditioned space in cooling mode, for single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioners, respectively, at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively), in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Full</E> and Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Full</E> = the total heat transferred from the duct to the indoor conditioned space in cooling mode, when tested at Test Conditions 2.D and 2.B, respectively, as calculated in section 4.1.3 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.3 <I>Infiltration Air Heat Transfer for a Theoretical Comparable Single-Speed Portable Air Conditioner at the Lower Outdoor Temperature Operating Condition.</I> Calculate the total heat contribution from infiltration air for a single-duct or dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition, as follows:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_SS</E> = Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_SS</E> = Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_Full</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_SS</E> and Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_SS</E> = total infiltration air heat in cooling mode for a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner, respectively at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively), in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_Full and</E> Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_Full</E> = total infiltration air heat transfer of the sample unit in cooling mode for each duct configuration, temperature condition, and compressor speed, as calculated in section 4.1.4 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.4 <I>Adjusted Cooling Capacity for a Theoretical Comparable Single-Speed Portable Air Conditioner at the Lower Outdoor Temperature Operating Condition.</I> Calculate the adjusted cooling capacity without and with cycling losses for a single-duct or dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition, in Btu/h, according to the following equations:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> = Capacity<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> − Q<E T="52">duct_SD_83_SS</E> − Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_SS</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_83_SS_CF</E> = Capacity<E T="52">SD_83_SS_CF</E> − Q<E T="52">duct_SD_83_SS</E> − Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_SS</E>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">DD__83_SS</E> = Capacity<E T="52">83_SS</E> − Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_SS</E> − Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_SS</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">DD_83_SS_CF</E> = Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_SS_CF</E> − Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_SS</E> − Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_SS</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E>, ACC<E T="52">SD_83_SS_CF</E>, ACC<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E>, and ACC<E T="52">DD_83_SS_CF</E> = adjusted cooling capacity for a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively) without and with cycling losses, respectively, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> and Capacity<E T="52">SD_83_SS_CF</E> = cooling capacity of a single-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner without and with cycling losses, respectively, at Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B (the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition), respectively, calculated in section 5.5.1 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> and Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_SS_CF</E> = cooling capacity of a dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner without and with cycling losses, respectively, at Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B (the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition), respectively, calculated in section 5.5.1 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD_83_SS</E> and Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_SS</E> = total heat transferred from the ducts to the indoor conditioned space in cooling mode for a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner, at Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B (the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition), respectively, calculated in section 5.5.2 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_SD_83_SS</E> and Q<E T="52">infiltration_DD_83_SS</E> = total infiltration air heat in cooling mode for a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner, respectively, at Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B (the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition), respectively, calculated in section 5.5.3 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.5 <I>Annual Energy Consumption in Cooling Mode for a Theoretical Comparable Single-Speed Portable Air Conditioner at the Lower Outdoor Temperature Operating Condition.</I> Calculate the annual energy consumption in cooling mode for a single-duct or dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition, in kWh/year, according to the following equations:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> = P<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> × 0.750
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = P<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> × 0.750
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> and AEC<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = annual energy consumption for a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner, respectively, in cooling mode at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively), in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> and P<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = electrical power input for a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner, respectively, at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively) as calculated in section 5.5.1 of this appendix, in watts.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.750 = number of cooling mode hours per year, 750, multiplied by the conversion factor for watt-hours to kilowatt-hours, 0.001 kWh/Wh.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.6 <I>Combined Energy Efficiency Ratio for a Theoretical Comparable Single-Speed Portable Air Conditioner.</I> Calculate the combined energy efficiency ratios for a theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner without cycling losses, CEER<E T="52">SD_SS</E> and CEER<E T="52">DD_SS</E>, and with cycling losses, CEER<E T="52">SD_SS_CF</E> and CEER<E T="52">DD_SS_CF</E>, in Btu/Wh, according to the following equations:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct portable air conditioner:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.008.gif"/>
<P>For a dual-duct portable air conditioner:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.009.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">SD_SS</E> and CEER<E T="52">SD_CF_SS</E> = combined energy efficiency ratio for a single-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner without and with cycling losses, respectively, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">DD_SS</E> and CEER<E T="52">DD_CF_SS</E> = combined energy efficiency ratio for a dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner without and with cycling losses, respectively, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_95</E> and ACC<E T="52">DD_95</E> = adjusted cooling capacity of the sample unit, as calculated in section 5.1.2 of this appendix, when tested at Test Conditions 2.D and 2.A, respectively, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> and ACC<E T="52">SD_83_SS_CF</E> = adjusted cooling capacity for a single-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E) without and with cycling losses, respectively, as calculated in section 5.5.4 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> and ACC<E T="52">DD_83_SS_CF</E> = adjusted cooling capacity for a dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Condition 2.B) without and with cycling losses, respectively, as calculated in section 5.5.4 of this appendix, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">SD_Full</E> = annual energy consumption of the single-duct sample unit, as calculated in section 5.4.2.1 of this appendix, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">DD_95_Full</E> = annual energy consumption for the dual-duct sample unit, as calculated in section 5.4.2.1 of this appendix, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">SD_83_SS</E> and AEC<E T="52">DD_83_SS</E> = annual energy consumption for a single-duct and dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner, respectively, in cooling mode at the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition (Test Conditions 2.E and 2.B, respectively), calculated in section 5.5.5 of this appendix, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">T</E> = total annual energy consumption attributed to all operating modes except cooling for the sample unit, calculated in section 5.3 of this appendix, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.750 as defined previously in this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.2 = weighting factor for the 95 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.8 = weighting factor for the 83 °F dry-bulb outdoor temperature operating condition.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.7 <I>Performance Adjustment Factor.</I> Calculate the sample unit's performance adjustment factor, F<E T="52">p</E>, as follows:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct unit:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.010.gif"/>
<P>For a dual-duct unit:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.011.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">SD_SS</E> and CEER<E T="52">SD_SS_CF</E> = combined energy efficiency ratio for a single-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner without and with cycling losses considered, respectively, calculated in section 5.5.6 of this appendix, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">DD_SS</E> and CEER<E T="52">DD_SS_CF</E> = combined energy efficiency ratio for a dual-duct theoretical comparable single-speed portable air conditioner without and with cycling losses considered, respectively, calculated in section 5.5.6 of this appendix, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<P>5.5.8 <I>Single-Duct and Dual-Duct Variable-Speed Portable Air Conditioner Combined Energy Efficiency Ratio.</I> Calculate the sample unit's final combined energy efficiency ratio, CEER, in Btu/Wh, as follows:
</P>
<P>For a single-duct portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">SD</E> = CEER<E T="52">SD_UA</E> × (1 + F<E T="52">p_SD</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct portable air conditioner:
</P>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">DD</E> = CEER<E T="52">DD_UA</E> × (1 + F<E T="52">p_DD</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">SD</E> and CEER<E T="52">DD</E> = combined energy efficiency ratio for a single-duct and dual-duct sample unit, in Btu/Wh, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEER<E T="52">SD_UA</E> and CEER<E T="52">DD_UA</E> = unadjusted combined energy efficiency ratio for a single-duct and dual-duct sample unit, respectively, calculated in section 5.4.2.1 of this appendix, in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F<E T="52">p_SD</E> and F<E T="52">p_DD</E> = single-duct and dual-duct sample unit's performance adjustment factor, respectively, calculated in section 5.5.7 of this appendix.




</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 35265, June 1, 2016, as amended at 81 FR 70923, Oct. 14, 2016; 85 FR 21746, Apr. 20, 2020; 88 FR 31127, May 15, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix CC1" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.46" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix CC1 to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Portable Air Conditioners


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix CC1 to determine compliance with any standards that amend the portable air conditioners standard at § 430.32(cc) with which compliance is required on January 10, 2025 and that use the Annualized Energy Efficiency Ratio (AEER) metric. Any representation related to energy also must be made in accordance with the appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix CC to this subpart or this appendix CC1). Manufacturers may also use this appendix CC1 to certify compliance with any amended standards before the compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire standard for AHAM PAC-1-2022, ANSI/AMCA 210-99, ASHRAE 37-2009, ASHRAE 41.1-1986, ASHRAE 41.6-1994, and IEC 62301; however, only enumerated provisions of AHAM PAC-1-2022, ANSI/AMCA 210-99, ASHRAE 37-2009, and IEC 62301 are applicable to this appendix CC1, as follows. Treat “should” in IEC 62301 as mandatory. When there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes precedence over those documents.
</P>
<HD3>0.1 AHAM PAC-1-2022
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 4 “Definitions,” as specified in section 2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7 “Test Setup,” as specified in sections 3 and 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 8 “Test Conduct,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 8.1 “Cooling Mode,” as specified in sections 5.1 and 5.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 9 “Calculation of Derived Results from Test Measurements,” as specified in section 5 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 9.1 “Duct Heat Transfer,” as specified in section 5.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 9.2 “Infiltration Air Heat Transfer,” as specified in section 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 ANSI/AMCA 210-99 (“ANSI/AMCA 210”)
</HD3>
<P>(a) Figure 12, “Outlet chamber Setup—Multiple Nozzles in Chamber,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Figure 12 Notes, as specified in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.3 ASHRAE 37-2009
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5.1 “Temperature Measuring Instruments,” as specified in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.3 “Air Differential Pressure and Airflow Measurements,” as specified in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5.4 “Electrical Instruments,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6.2 “Nozzle Airflow Measuring Apparatus,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 6.3 “Nozzles,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 7.3 “Indoor and Outdoor Air Enthalpy Methods,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7.7 “Airflow Rate Measurement,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 8.7 “Test Procedure for Cooling Capacity Tests,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 9 “Data to be Recorded,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 10 “Test Results,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(k) Section 11.1 “Symbols Used In Equations,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.4 IEC 62301
</HD3>
<P>(a) Paragraph 4.2 “Test room” as specified in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph 4.3.2 “Supply voltage waveform,” as specified in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph 4.4 “Power measuring instruments,” as specified in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Paragraph 5.1, “General,” Note 1 as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e)Paragraph 5.2 “Preparation of product,” as specified in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Paragraph 5.3.2 “Sampling method,” as specified in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Annex D, “Determination of Uncertainty of Measurement,” as specified in section 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>1. Scope
</HD2>
<P>Establishes test requirements to measure the energy performance of single-duct and dual-duct, and single-speed and variable-speed portable air conditioners in accordance with AHAM PAC-1-2022, unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>Definitions for industry standards, terms, modes, calculations, etc. are in accordance with AHAM PAC-1-2022, section 4, with the following added definition:
</P>
<P><I>Annualized Energy Efficiency Ratio</I> means the energy efficiency of a portable air conditioner as measured in accordance with this test procedure as the total annual cooling delivered divided by the total annual energy consumption in per watt-hours (Btu/Wh) and determined in section 5.4.
</P>
<HD2>3. Test Apparatus and General Instructions
</HD2>
<P>Follow requirements and instructions for test conduct and test setup in accordance with AHAM PAC-1-2022, section 7, excluding section 7.1.3, including references to ASHRAE 37-2009, sections 5.1 and 5.3, and IEC 62301 sections 4.2, 4.3.2, 4.4, and 5.2, and Annex D. If the portable air conditioner has network functions, disable all network functions throughout testing if possible. If an end-user cannot disable a network function or the product's user manual does not provide instruction for disabling a network function, test the unit with that network function in the factory default configuration for the duration of the test.
</P>
<P>3.1 <I>Duct temperature measurements.</I> Install any insulation and sealing provided by the manufacturer. For a dual-duct or single-duct unit, adhere four thermocouples per duct, spaced along the entire length equally, to the outer surface of the duct. Measure the surface temperatures of each duct. For a combined-duct unit, adhere sixteen thermocouples to the outer surface of the duct, spaced evenly around the circumference (four thermocouples, each 90 degrees apart, radially) and down the entire length of the duct (four sets of four thermocouples, evenly spaced along the entire length of the duct), ensuring that the thermocouples are spaced along the entire length equally, on the surface of the combined duct. Place at least one thermocouple preferably adjacent to, but otherwise as close as possible to, the condenser inlet aperture and at least one thermocouple on the duct surface preferably adjacent to, but otherwise as close as possible to, the condenser outlet aperture. Measure the surface temperature of the combined duct at each thermocouple. Temperature measurements must have an error no greater than ±0.5 °F over the range being measured.
</P>
<HD2>4. Test Measurement
</HD2>
<P>Follow requirements for test conduct in active and inactive modes of operation in accordance with AHAM PAC-1-2022, section 8, except section 8.1.b, including references to sections 5.4, 6.2, 6.3, 7.3, 7.7, 8.7, 9, 10, and 11 of ASHRAE 37-2009, referring to Figure 12 and Figure 12 Notes of ANSI/AMCA 210 to determine placement of static pressure taps, and including references to ASHRAE 41.1-1986 and ASHRAE 41.6-1994. When conducting cooling mode testing for a variable-speed dual-duct portable air conditioner, use test configurations 1C and 1E in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022. Conduct the first test in accordance with ambient conditions for test configuration 1C in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022, and measure cooling capacity (Capacity<E T="52">DD_95_Full</E>) and input power (P<E T="52">DD_95_Full</E>). Conduct the second test in accordance with the ambient conditions for test configuration 1E in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022, with the compressor speed set to low for the duration of cooling mode testing (in accordance with the manufacturer instructions as described in section 7.1.10), and measure cooling capacity (Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_Low</E>) and input power (P<E T="52">DD_83_Low</E>). When conducting standby power testing using the sampling method described in section 5.3.2 of IEC 62301, if the standby mode is cyclic and irregular or unstable, collect 10 cycles worth of data. As discussed in Paragraph 5.1, Note 1 of IEC 62301, allow sufficient time for the unit to reach the lowest power state before proceeding with the test measurement.
</P>
<HD2>5. Calculation of Derived Results From Test Measurements
</HD2>
<P>Perform calculations from test measurements to determine Seasonally Adjusted Cooling Capacity (SACC) and Annualized Energy Efficiency Ratio (AEER) in accordance with AHAM PAC-1-2022, section 9 unless otherwise specified in this section.




</P>
<P>5.1 <I>Adjusted Cooling Capacity.</I> Calculate the adjusted cooling capacities at the 95  °F and 83  °F operating conditions specified below of the sample unit, in Btu/h, according to the following equations.
</P>
<P>For a single-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">95</E> <I>= Capacity</I><E T="54">SD</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_SD</E> − Q<E T="54">infiltration_95</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">83</E> = <I>0.6000</I> × (<I>Capacity</I><E T="54">SD</E> − Q<E T="54">duct_SD</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">infiltration_83</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For a single-duct variable-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">95</E> <I>= Capacity</I><E T="54">SD_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_SD_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">infiltration_95</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">83</E> <I>= Capacity</I><E T="54">SD_Low</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_SD_Low</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">infiltration_83_Low</E>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">95</E> <I>= Capacity</I><E T="54">DD_95_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_95_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">infiltration_95</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">83</E> <I>= 0.5363</I> × (<I>Capacity</I><E T="54">DD_83</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_83</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">infiltration_83</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct variable-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">95</E> <I>= Capacity</I><E T="54">DD_95_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_95_Full</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">infiltration_95</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACC</I><E T="54">83</E> <I>= Capacity</I><E T="54">DD_Low</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">duct_DD_83_Low</E> − <I>Q</I><E T="54">infiltration_83_Low</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">95</E> and ACC <E T="52">83</E> = adjusted cooling capacity of the sample unit, in Btu/h, calculated from testing at:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a single-duct single-speed unit, test configuration 2A in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a single-duct variable-speed unit, test configurations 2B and 2C in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a dual-duct single-speed unit, test configurations 1A and 1B in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a dual-duct variable-speed unit: test configurations 1C and 1E in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Capacity<E T="52">SD</E>, Capacity<E T="52">SD_Full</E>, Capacity<E T="52">SD_Low</E>, Capacity<E T="52">DD_95</E>, Capacity<E T="52">DD_83</E>, Capacity<E T="52">DD_95_Full</E>, and Capacity<E T="52">DD_83_Low</E> = cooling capacity, in Btu/h, measured in testing at test configuration 2A, 2B, 2C, 1A, 1B, 1C, and 1E of Table 2 in section 8.1 of AHAM PAC-1-2022, respectively.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">duct_SD,</E> Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Full</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_SD_Low</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_DD_95</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83</E>, Q<E T="52">duct_DD_95_Full</E>, and Q<E T="52">duct_DD_83_Low</E> = duct heat transfer while operating in cooling mode for each duct configuration, compressor speed (where applicable) and temperature condition (where applicable), calculated in section 9.1 of AHAM PAC-1-2022, in Btu/h.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">infiltration_95</E>, Q<E T="52">infiltration_83</E>, and Q<E T="52">infiltration_83_Low</E> = total infiltration air heat transfer in cooling mode, in Btu/h, for each of the following compressor speed and duct configuration combinations:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a single-duct single-speed unit, use Q<E T="52">infiltration_95</E> and Q<E T="52">infiltration_83</E> as calculated for a single-duct single-speed unit in section 9.2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a single-duct variable-speed unit, use Q<E T="52">infiltration_95</E> and Q<E T="52">infiltration_83_Low</E> as calculated for a single-duct variable-speed unit in section 9.2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a dual-duct single-speed unit, use Q<E T="52">infiltration_95</E> and Q<E T="52">infiltration_83</E> as calculated for a dual-duct single-speed unit in section 9.2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>For a dual-duct variable-speed unit, use Q<E T="52">infiltration_95</E> and Q<E T="52">infiltration_83_Low</E> as calculated for a dual-duct variable-speed unit in section 9.2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.6000 and 0.5363 = empirically-derived load-based capacity adjustment factor for a single-duct and dual-duct single-speed unit, respectively, when operating at test conditions 2A and 1B.








</FP-2>
<P>5.2 <I>Seasonally Adjusted Cooling Capacity.</I> Calculate the seasonally adjusted cooling capacity for the sample unit, SACC, in Btu/h, according to:
</P>
<FP-2><I>SACC</I> = <I>ACC</I><E T="52">95</E> × 0.144 + <I>ACC</I><E T="52">83</E> × 0.856
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">95</E> and ACC<E T="52">83</E> = adjusted cooling capacities at the 95 °F and 83 °F outdoor temperature conditions, respectively, in Btu/h, calculated in section 5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.144 = empirically-derived weighting factor for ACC<E T="52">95</E>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.856 = empirically-derived weighting factor for ACC<E T="52">83</E>.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3 <I>Annual Energy Consumption.</I> Calculate the annual energy consumption in each operating mode, AECm, in kilowatt-hours per year (kWh/year). Use the following annual hours of operation for each mode:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Annual Operating Hours
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operating mode
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual operating hours
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooling Mode Test Configurations 1A, 1C, 2A (95), 2B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">164
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooling Mode Test Configurations 1B, 2A (83)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">586
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooling Mode Test Configuration 1E, 2C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">977
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Single-Speed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">391
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Variable-Speed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total Cooling and Off-cycle Mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,141
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inactive or Off Mode</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,844</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Calculate total annual energy consumption in all modes according to the following equations:
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">ia/om</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">ia/om</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">ia/om</E> × <I>k</I>
</FP-2>
<P>For a single-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">95</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">SD_95</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">SD_95</E> × <I>k</I>
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.012.gif"/>
<P>For a single-duct variable-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">95</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">SD_Full</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">SD_Full</E> × <I>k</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">83</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">SD_Low</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">SD_Low</E> × <I>k</I>
</FP-2>
<P>For a dual-duct single-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="54">95</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">DD_95</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">DD_95</E> × <I>k</I>
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.013.gif"/>
<P>For a dual-duct variable-speed unit:
</P>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="52">95</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">DD</E><E T="52">_95_</E><E T="54">Full</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">DD</E><E T="52">_95_</E><E T="54">Full</E> × <I>k</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I><E T="52">83</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">DD</E><E T="52">_83_</E><E T="54">Low</E> × <I>t</I><E T="54">DD</E><E T="52">_83_</E><E T="54">Low</E> × <I>k</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">95</E> and AEC<E T="52">83</E> = total annual energy consumption attributed to all modes representative of either the 95 °F and 83 °F operating condition, respectively, in kWh/year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">m</E> = average power in each mode, in watts, as determined in sections 4.1.1 and 4.1.2.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">m</E> = number of annual operating time in each mode, in hours.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = 0.001 kWh/Wh conversion factor from watt-hours to kilowatt-hours.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.82 = empirically-derived factor representing efficiency losses due to compressor cycling outside of fan operation for single-duct units
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = empirically-derived factor representing efficiency losses due to compressor cycling outside of fan operation for dual-duct units
</FP-2>
<P>m represents the operating mode:
</P>
<FP-1>—“DD_95” and “DD_83” correspond to cooling mode in Test Configurations 1A and 1B in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022, respectively, for dual-duct single-speed units,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—“DD_95_Full”, “DD_83_Low” correspond to cooling mode in Test Configurations 1C and 1E in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022, respectively, for dual-duct variable-speed units,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—“SD_95” corresponds to cooling mode in Test Configuration 2A in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022 for single-duct single-speed units, for use when calculating AEC at the 95 °F outdoor temperature condition,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—“SD_83” corresponds to cooling mode in Test Configuration 2A in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022 for single-duct single-speed units, for use when calculating AEC at the 83 °F outdoor temperature condition,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—“SD_Full” and “SD_Low” correspond to cooling mode in Test Configurations 2B and 2C in Table 2 of AHAM PAC-1-2022, respectively, for single-duct variable-speed units,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—“oc” corresponds to off-cycle,
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—“ia/om” corresponds to inactive or off mode,
</FP-1>
<P>5.4 <I>Annualized Cooling and Energy Ratio.</I> Calculate the annualized energy efficiency ratio, AEER, in Btu/Wh, according to the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.014.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEER = the annualized energy efficiency ratio of the sample unit in Btu/Wh.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ACC<E T="52">95</E> and ACC<E T="52">83</E> = adjusted cooling capacity at the 95 °F and 83 °F outdoor temperature conditions, respectively, calculated in section 5.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AEC<E T="52">95</E>, AEC<E T="52">83</E>, AEC<E T="52">oc</E>, and AEC<E T="52">ia/om</E> = total annual energy consumption attributed to all modes representative the 95 °F operating condition, the 83 °F operating condition, off-cycle mode, and inactive or off mode respectively, in kWh/year, calculated in section 5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">cm_95</E> = number of annual hours spent in cooling mode at the 95 °F operating condition, t<E T="52">DD_95</E> for dual-duct single-speed units, t<E T="52">DD_95_Full</E> for dual-duct variable-speed units, t<E T="52">SD_95</E> for single-duct single-speed units, or t<E T="52">SD_Full</E> for single-duct variable-speed units, defined in section 5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>164 = number of annual hours spent in cooling mode at the 95 °F operating condition, as shown in Table III.2
</FP-2>
<FP-2>977 = number of annual hours spent in cooling mode and off-cycle mode at the 83 °F operating condition, defined in section 5.3 of this appendix. 0.001 = kWh/Wh conversion factor for watt-hours to kilowatt-hours.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 31136, May 15, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 6791, Jan. 21, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix DD" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.47" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix DD to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption and Energy Efficiency of General Service Lamps That Are Not General Service Incandescent Lamps, Compact Fluorescent Lamps, or Integrated LED Lamps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to appendix DD to subpart B:</HED>
<P>On and after July 15, 2025, any representations made with respect to the energy efficiency of general service lamps that are not general service incandescent lamps, compact fluorescent lamps, or integrated LED lamps must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix DD. Manufacturers conducting tests of such general service lamps prior to July 15, 2025, must conduct such tests in accordance with either this appendix or the version of appendix DD as it appeared in the Code of Federal Regulations on January 1, 2023. Any representations made with respect to the energy efficiency of such general service lamp must be in accordance with whichever version is selected.</P></NOTE>
<P>1. <I>Scope:</I> This appendix DD specifies the test methods required to measure the initial lumen output, input power, lamp efficacy, power factor, and standby mode energy consumption of general service lamps that are not general service incandescent lamps, compact fluorescent lamps, or integrated LED lamps.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definitions:</I>
</P>
<P><I>Commercially available fluorescent lamp ballast, high intensity discharge (“HID”) ballast, or external LED driver</I> means one that can be purchased by an individual consumer at a readily accessible retailer (<I>i.e.,</I> retailer with storefront or online purchasing).
</P>
<P><I>Measured initial input power</I> means the input power to the lamp, measured after the lamp is stabilized and seasoned (if applicable), and expressed in watts (W).
</P>
<P><I>Measured initial lumen output</I> means the lumen output of the lamp, measured after the lamp is stabilized and seasoned (if applicable), and expressed in lumens (lm).
</P>
<P><I>Power factor</I> means the measured initial input power (watts) divided by the product of the input voltage (volts) and the input current (amps) measured at the same time as the initial input power.
</P>
<P><I>Publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list</I> means a list or statement made available by the manufacturer on the manufacturer's official website or made available by the manufacturer through publicly available documents (<I>e.g.,</I> product literature, catalogs, and packaging labels), that provides information on ballasts or external LED drivers that are compatible with the lamp.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Active Mode Test Procedures</I>
</P>
<P>3.1. Test Conditions and Setup
</P>
<P>3.1.1. For single base OLED and non-integrated LED lamps, position a lamp in either the base-up and base-down orientation throughout testing. Test an equal number of lamps in the sample in the base-up and base-down orientations, except that, if the manufacturer restricts the orientation, test all of the units in the sample in the manufacturer-specified orientation. For double base OLED and non-integrated LED lamps, test all units in the horizontal orientation except that, if the manufacturer restricts the orientation, test all of the units in the sample in the manufacturer-specified orientation.
</P>
<P>3.1.2. For integrated lamps, operate the lamp at the rated voltage throughout testing. For lamps with multiple rated voltages including 120 volts, operate the lamp at 120 volts. If a lamp is not rated for 120 volts, operate the lamp at the highest rated input voltage.
</P>
<P>3.1.3. For non-integrated lamps, operate the lamp on a fluorescent lamp ballast, HID lamp ballast, or external LED driver in order of the following preference:
</P>
<P>3.1.3.1. Select a commercially available fluorescent lamp ballast, HID lamp ballast, or external LED driver from the lamp's publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list. The test report must specify the manufacturer and model name/number of the fluorescent lamp ballast, HID lamp ballast, or external LED driver used in the test.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.1.1. If all ballasts on the publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list use the same starting method, then select a ballast with that starting method to test the lamp.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.1.1.1. If ballasts on the publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list are available with multiple ballast factors, then select a ballast with a ballast factor based on lamp type specified in Table 3.1. If the ballast factor in the table is not available among ballasts on the publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list, select a ballast with a ballast factor closest to the one listed in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1—Ballast Factor by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ballast factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.1.2. If ballasts on the publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list are available with multiple starting methods, then select a ballast with a starting method based on lamp type specified in Table 3.2. If the starting method in the table is not available among ballasts on the publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list, select any starting method on the publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.2—Starting Method by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Starting method
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Programmed Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rapid Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rapid Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.1.2.1. If ballasts on the publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list are available with multiple ballast factors, then select a ballast with a ballast factor based on lamp type specified in Table 3.3. If the ballast factor in the table is not available among ballasts on the publicly available manufacturer-provided compatibility list, select a ballast with a ballast factor closest to the one listed in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.3—Ballast Factor by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ballast factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.2. If the procedure in section 3.1.3.1 is not possible, select any commercially available fluorescent lamp ballast, HID lamp ballast, or external LED driver that can operate the lamp throughout the duration of the test. The test report must specify the manufacturer and model name/number of the fluorescent lamp ballast, HID lamp ballast, or external LED driver used in the test.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.2.1. If all commercially available ballasts use the same starting method, then select a ballast with that starting method to test the lamp.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.2.1.1. If commercially available ballasts are available with multiple ballast factors, then select a ballast with a ballast factor based on lamp type specified in Table 3.4. If the ballast factor in the table is not available among commercially available ballasts, select a ballast with a ballast factor closest to the one listed in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.4—Ballast Factor by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ballast factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.2.2. If commercially available ballasts are available with multiple starting methods, then select a ballast with a starting method based on lamp type specified in Table 3.5. If the starting method in the table is not available among commercially available ballasts, select any starting method:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.5—Starting Method by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Starting method
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Programmed Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rapid Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rapid Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.2.2.1. If commercially available ballasts are available with multiple ballast factors, then select a ballast with a ballast factor based on lamp type specified in Table 3.6. If the ballast factor in the table is not available among commercially available ballasts, select a ballast with a ballast factor closest to the one listed in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.6—Ballast Factor by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ballast factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.3. If the procedures in sections 3.1.3.1 and 3.1.3.2 are not possible, use any previously procured fluorescent lamp ballast, HID lamp ballast, or external LED driver that can operate the lamp throughout the duration of the test. The test report must specify the manufacturer and model name/number of the fluorescent lamp ballast, HID lamp ballast, or external LED driver used in the test.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.3.1. If all previously procured ballasts use the same starting method, then select a ballast with that starting method to test the lamp.
</P>
<P>3.1.3.3.1.1. If previously procured ballasts are available with multiple ballast factors, then select a ballast with a ballast factor based on lamp type specified in Table 3.7. If the ballast factor in the table is not available among the previously procured ballasts, select a ballast with a ballast factor closest to the one listed in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.7—Ballast Factor by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ballast factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.3.2. If previously procured ballasts are available with multiple starting methods, then select a ballast with a starting method based on lamp type specified in Table 3.8. If the starting method in the table is not available among the previously procured ballasts, select any starting method:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.8—Starting Method by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Starting method
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Programmed Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Instant Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rapid Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rapid Start.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.3.2.1. If previously procured ballasts are available with multiple ballast factors, then select a ballast with a ballast factor based on lamp type specified in Table 3.9. If the ballast factor in the table is not available among the previously procured ballasts, select a ballast with a ballast factor closest to the one listed in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.9—Ballast Factor by Lamp Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ballast factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T8 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T5 miniature bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 single pin, slimline</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 medium bipin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">T12 recessed double contact</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other lamp types</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.1.3.4. If the procedures in sections 3.1.3.1, 3.1.3.2 and 3.1.3.3 are not possible and the lamp only operates on a low frequency, preheat start fluorescent lamp ballast, operate the lamp on the manufacturer-declared voltage and current. The test report must specify the voltage and current with which the lamp was operated.
</P>
<P>3.1.4. Operate the fluorescent lamp ballast, HID lamp ballast, or external LED driver loaded with the maximum number of lamps. Test one lamp at a time in the integrating sphere, while operating the other lamps outside of the sphere. Measure the initial lumen output, initial input power, input voltage, and input current for each lamp according to section 3.2.1.
</P>
<P>3.1.5. For a non-integrated lamp designed and marketed to replace a fluorescent lamp and operate on the existing fluorescent lamp ballast, conduct testing in accordance with the following setup provisions:
</P>
<P>3.1.5.1. Thermal conditions: A compatible combination of ballast and LED replacement lamp designed for direct replacement of linear fluorescent lamp sources must not result in the overheating of components. LED replacement lamps that are compatible with a given ballast must not cause the ballast to operate at a higher temperature or power than the fluorescent ballast ratings. The temperature measured at the Tc point must not exceed the rating of the ballast. For magnetic ballasts and electronic ballasts with no Tc point identified, the ballast enclosure must not exceed 90 degrees Celsius.
</P>
<P>3.1.5.2 Electrical conditions: LED replacement lamps must be measured with the ballast in the circuit, consistent with rated LED replacement lamp values on a given ballast condition (ballast type/ballast factor/lamp loading). Compatibility is based on the rated values specified by the LED lamp manufacturer. The lamp current must be equal to or less than the target lamp current. (The target lamp is the fluorescent lamp the replacement lamp is intended to replace.) The measured input power to the ballast must not exceed the rating of the ballast by more than 10%.
</P>
<P>3.1.6. For a non-integrated lamp designed and marketed to replace an HID lamp and operate on the existing HID lamp ballast, conduct testing in accordance with the following setup provisions:
</P>
<P>3.1.6.1. Thermal conditions: The LED replacement lamp must not exceed its maximum operational temperature rating as specified by the LED lamp manufacturer.
</P>
<P>3.1.6.2. Electrical conditions: LED replacement lamps must be measured with the ballast in the circuit, consistent with rated LED replacement lamp values on a given ballast condition (ballast type/ballast factor/lamp loading). Compatibility is based on the rated values specified by the LED replacement lamp manufacturer. The LED replacement lamp voltage must be in a range of ±15 percent of the nominal HID lamp voltage. The lamp current must be equal to or less than the target lamp current. (The target lamp is the HID lamp the device is intended to replace.) The measured input power to the ballast must not exceed the rating of the ballast by more than 10%.
</P>
<P>3.1.6.3. Ballast conditions: For magnetic ballasts: (1) the ballast capacitor voltage for magnetic ballasts must not exceed the capacitor rating and (2) the ballast must not exceed the temperature described in its ballast temperature code. For electronic ballasts, the temperature at the Tc point must be equal or less than described on the ballast label.
</P>
<P>3.1.7. Ensure that the lamp is not operating as a colored lamp (as defined in 10 CFR 430.2) and operate the lamp at maximum input power. If multiple modes occur at the same maximum input power (such as variable CCT or CRI), select any of these modes for testing; however, all measurements must be taken at the same selected mode. The test report must specify which mode was selected for testing and include details such that another laboratory can replicate the test at the same mode.
</P>
<P>3.1.8. For a lamp that has one or more component(s) that offer a completely different functionality (<I>e.g.,</I> a speaker, a camera, an air purifier, etc.) where the component is integrated into the lamp but does not affect the light output of the lamp (<I>e.g.,</I> does not turn the light on/off, dim the light, change the color of the light, etc.) and is capable of operating in standby mode, turn off as many of these components as possible during testing, without permanently altering the product. Permanently altering the product constitutes the cutting of wires, use of a soldering iron, or damage to or destruction of the lamp and does not constitute connecting or disconnecting wire nuts, fasteners or screws, or preserving the lamp as it was sold. If such components cannot be turned off without permanently altering the product, their energy consumption must be included in measurements. The test report must specify which components were turned off and any features that remained on.
</P>
<P>3.2. Test Method, Measurements, and Calculations
</P>
<P>3.2.1. To measure initial lumen output, input power, input voltage, and input current use the test procedures in the table in this section. Do not use a goniophotometer.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.10—References to Industry Standard Test Procedures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Referenced test procedure
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Compact fluorescent lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix W to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General service incandescent lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix R to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Integrated LED lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix BB to subpart B of 10 CFR part 430.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-integrated LED lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-79-08-DD, sections 1.3 (except 1.3f), 2.0, 3.0, 5.0, 7.0, 8.0, 9.1 and 9.2.*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OLED lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-79-08-DD, sections 1.3 (except 1.3f), 2.0, 3.0, 5.0, 7.0, 8.0, 9.1 and 9.2.*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other fluorescent lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-9-09-DD, sections 46, and section 7.5.*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other incandescent lamps that are not reflector lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-45-15, sections 4-6, and section 7.1.*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other incandescent lamps that are reflector lamps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IES LM-20-13, sections 4-6, and section 8.*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Incorporated by reference, see § 430.3.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.2.2. Determine initial lamp efficacy by dividing the measured initial lumen output (lumens) by the measured initial input power (watts). Per section 3.1.4, if multiple lamps were operated on the same ballast or external LED driver, determine the initial lamp efficacy by calculating the initial lamp efficacy for each lamp and calculating the average.
</P>
<P>3.2.3. Determine power factor by dividing the measured initial input power (watts) by the product of the measured input voltage (volts) and measured input current (amps). Per section 3.1.4, if multiple lamps were operated on the same ballast or external LED driver, determine the power factor by calculating the power factor for each lamp and calculating the average.
</P>
<P>3.3. Standby Mode Test Procedure
</P>
<P>3.3.1. Measure standby mode power only for lamps that are capable of standby mode operation.
</P>
<P>3.3.2. The test conditions and setup described in section 3.1 of this appendix apply to this section.
</P>
<P>3.3.3. Connect the lamp to the manufacturer-specified wireless control network (if applicable) and configure the lamp in standby mode by sending a signal to the lamp instructing it to have zero light output. Lamp must remain connected to the network throughout testing.
</P>
<P>3.3.4. Operate the lamp at the rated voltage throughout testing. For lamps with multiple rated voltages including 120 volts, operate the lamp at 120 volts. If a lamp is not rated for 120 volts, operate the lamp at the highest rated input voltage.
</P>
<P>3.3.5. Stabilize the lamp prior to measurement as specified in section 5 of IEC 62301-DD (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>3.3.6. Measure the standby mode power in watts as specified in section 5 of IEC 62301-DD (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 4602, Jan. 16, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix EE" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.48" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix EE to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method For Measuring the Energy Consumption of Consumer Boilers




</HEAD>
<P>0. <I>Incorporation by reference</I>
</P>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire standard for ASHRAE 103-2017, ASHRAE 41.6-2014, ASTM D2156-09 (R2018), and IEC 62301. However, only enumerated provisions of ASHRAE 103-2017 are applicable to this appendix, as follows. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over the incorporated standards.
</P>
<P>0.1 ASHRAE 103-2017
</P>
<P>(a) Section 2 “Scope” as referenced in section 1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3 “Definitions” as referenced in section 2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4 “Classifications” as referenced in section 3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5 “Requirements” as referenced in section 4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 6 “Instruments” as referenced in sections 5 and 8 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 7 “Apparatus” (except for sections 7.1 and 7.8) as referenced in sections 6, 7.7, and 8.6 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 8 “Methods of Testing” (except for sections 8.3.1.3, 8.3.3.1, 8.4.1.1, 8.4.1.1.1, 8.4.1.2, 8.6.1.1, 8.7.2, and 8.8.3) as referenced in sections 7 and 8 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 9 “Test Procedure” (except for 9.1.2.2.1, 9.1.2.2.2, 9.5.2.1, 9.7.4, and 9.10) as referenced in sections 7.3, 8, and 10.4 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 10 “Nomenclature” as referenced in section 9 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(j) Section 11 “Calculations” as referenced in sections 8.8 and 10 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> The scope of this appendix is as specified in section 2 of ASHRAE 103-2017 as it pertains to low pressure steam or hot water boiler and electric boilers.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definitions.</I> Definitions include those specified in section 3 of ASHRAE 103-2017 and the following additional and modified definitions.
</P>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means the condition in which the boiler is connected to the power source, and at least one of the burner, electric resistance elements, or any electrical auxiliaries such as blowers or pumps, are activated.
</P>
<P><I>Boiler pump</I> means a pump installed on a boiler that maintains adequate water flow through the boiler heat exchanger and that is separate from the circulating water pump.
</P>
<P><I>Draft inducer</I> means a fan incorporated in the boiler that either draws or forces air into the combustion chamber.
</P>
<P><I>Gas valve</I> means an automatic or semi-automatic device consisting essentially of a valve and operator that controls the gas supply to the burner(s) during normal operation of an appliance. The operator may be actuated by application of gas pressure on a flexible diaphragm, by electrical means, by mechanical means or by other means.
</P>
<P><I>Installation and operation (I&amp;O) manual</I> means instructions for installing, commissioning, and operating the boiler, which are supplied with the product when shipped by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means a mode in which the boiler is connected to a mains power source and is not providing any active mode or standby mode function, and where the mode may persist for an indefinite time. The existence of an off switch in off position (a disconnected circuit) is included within the classification of off mode.
</P>
<P><I>Off switch</I> means the switch on the boiler that, when activated, results in a measurable change in energy consumption between the standby and off modes.
</P>
<P><I>Oil control valve</I> means an automatically or manually operated device consisting of an oil valve for controlling the fuel supply to a burner to regulate burner input.
</P>
<P><I>Standard cubic foot of gas</I> means the amount of gas that would occupy 1 cubic foot when at a temperature of 60 °F and under a pressure equivalent to that of 30 inches Hg if saturated with water vapor.
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means any mode in which the boiler is connected to a mains power source and offers one or more of the following space heating functions that may persist:
</P>
<P>(a) To facilitate the activation of other modes (including activation or deactivation of active mode) by remote switch (including thermostat or remote control), internal or external sensors, or timer;
</P>
<P>(b) Continuous functions, including information or status displays or sensor-based functions.
</P>
<P><I>Thermal stack damper</I> means a type of stack damper that relies exclusively upon the changes in temperature in the stack gases to open or close the damper.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Classifications.</I> Classifications are as specified in section 4 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Requirements.</I> Requirements are as specified in section 5 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Instruments.</I> Instruments must be as specified in section 6 of ASHRAE 103-2017. In addition to the requirements in Section 6.3 of ASHRAE 103-2017, instruments for oil pressure shall be calibrated so that the error is no greater than ±0.5 psi.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Apparatus.</I> The apparatus used in conjunction with the boiler during the testing must be as specified in section 7 of ASHRAE 103-2017 except for sections 7.1 and 7.8; and as specified in sections 6.1 and 6.2 of this appendix. In section 7.2.3.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017, substitute “in accordance with the I&amp;O manual” for “in accordance with manufacturer instructions” with regard to installing the stack damper.
</P>
<P>6.1 <I>General.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Install the boiler in the test room in accordance with the I&amp;O manual, as defined in section 2.5 of this appendix, except that if provisions within this appendix are specified, then the provisions herein drafted and prescribed by DOE govern. If the I&amp;O manual and any additional provisions of this appendix are not sufficient for testing a boiler, the manufacturer must request a waiver from the test procedure pursuant to § 430.27.
</P>
<P>(b) The apparatuses described in section 6 of this appendix are used in conjunction with the boiler during testing. Each piece of apparatus shall conform to material and construction specifications listed in this appendix and in ASHRAE 103-2017, and the reference standards cited in this appendix and in ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>(c) Test rooms containing equipment must have suitable facilities for providing the utilities (including but not limited to environmental controls, sufficient fluid source(s), applicable measurement equipment, and any other technology or tools) necessary for performance of the test and must be able to maintain conditions within the limits specified in section 6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6.2 <I>Condensate collection.</I> Attach condensate drain lines to the unit as specified in the I&amp;O manual. Maintain a continuous downward slope of drain lines from the unit. Additional precautions (such as eliminating any line configuration or position that would otherwise restrict or block the flow of condensate or checking to ensure a proper connection with condensate drain spout that allows for unobstructed flow) must be taken to facilitate uninterrupted flow of condensate during the test. Collection containers must be glass or polished stainless steel to facilitate removal of interior deposits. The collection container must have a vent opening to the atmosphere.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Testing conditions.</I> The testing conditions must be as specified in section 8 of ASHRAE 103-2017 (except for the excluded sub-sections as enumerated in section 0.1(g) of this appendix); and as specified in sections 7.1 to 7.8 of this appendix, respectively. For condensing furnaces and boilers, the relative humidity of the room air shall be measured in accordance with one of the methods described in ASHRAE 41.6-2014 (see section 8.5 of ASHRAE 103-2017).
</P>
<P>7.1 <I>Fuel supply, gas.</I> In conducting the tests specified herein, gases with characteristics as shown in Table 1 of ASHRAE 103-2017 shall be used. Maintain the gas supply, ahead of all controls for a boiler, at a test pressure between the normal and increased values shown in Table 1 of ASHRAE 103-2017. Maintain the regulator outlet pressure at a level approximating that recommended in the I&amp;O manual, as defined in section 2.5 of this appendix, or, in the absence of such recommendation, to the regulator settings used when the product is shipped by the manufacturer. Use a gas having a specific gravity of approximately that shown in Table 1 of ASHRAE 103-2017 and with a higher heating value within ±5% of the higher heating value shown in Table 1 of ASHRAE 103-2017. Determine the actual higher heating value in Btu per standard cubic foot of gas (defined in section 2 of this appendix) to be used in the test within an error no greater than 1%.
</P>
<P>7.2 <I>Installation of piping.</I> Install piping equipment in accordance with the I&amp;O manual. In the absence of such specification, install piping in accordance with section 8.3.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>7.3 <I>Gas burner.</I> Adjust the burners of gas-fired boilers to their maximum Btu input ratings at the normal test pressure specified by section 7.1 of this appendix. Correct the burner input rate to reflect gas characteristics at a temperature of 60 °F and atmospheric pressure of 30 in of Hg and adjust to within ±2 percent of the hourly Btu nameplate input rating specified by the manufacturer as measured at the maximum input rate during the steady-state performance test in section 8 of this appendix. Set the primary air shutters in accordance with the I&amp;O manual to give a good flame at this condition. If, however, the setting results in the deposit of carbon on the burners during any test specified herein, the tester shall adjust the shutters and burners until no more carbon is deposited and shall perform the tests again with the new settings (<I>see</I> Figure 9 of ASHRAE 103-2017). After the steady-state performance test has been started, do not make additional adjustments to the burners during the required series of performance tests specified in section 9 of ASHRAE 103-2017. If a vent-limiting means is provided on a gas pressure regulator, keep it in place during all tests.
</P>
<P>7.4 <I>Modulating gas burner adjustment at reduced input rate.</I> For gas-fired boilers equipped with modulating-type controls, adjust the controls to operate the unit at the nameplate minimum input rate. If the modulating control is of a non-automatic type, adjust the control to the setting recommended in the I&amp;O manual. In the absence of such recommendation, the midpoint setting of the non-automatic control shall be used as the setting for determining the reduced fuel input rate. Start the boiler by turning the safety control valve to the “ON” position. Use a supply water temperature that will allow for continuous operation without shutoff by the control. If necessary to achieve such continuous operation, supply water may be increased above 120 °F; in such cases, gradually increase the supply water temperature to determine what minimum supply water temperature, with a 20 °F temperature rise across the boiler, will be needed to adjust for the minimum input rate at the reduced input rate control setting. Monitor regulated gas pressure out of the modulating control valve (or entering the burner) to determine when no further reduction of gas pressure results. The flow rate of water through the boiler shall be adjusted to achieve a 20 °F temperature rise.
</P>
<P>7.5 <I>Oil burner.</I> Adjust the burners of oil-fired boilers to give a CO<E T="52">2</E> reading specified in the I&amp;O manual and an hourly Btu input within ±2% of the hourly Btu nameplate input rating as specified in the I&amp;O manual and as measured at maximum input rate during steady-state performance test as described in section 8 of this appendix. Smoke in the flue may not exceed a No. 1 smoke during the steady-state performance test as measured by the procedure in ASTM D2156-09 (R2018). Maintain the average draft over the fire and in the flue during the steady-state performance test at the value specified in the I&amp;O manual. Do not allow draft fluctuations exceeding 0.005 in. water. Do not make additional adjustments to the burner during the required series of performance tests. The instruments and measuring apparatus for this test are described in section 6 of this appendix and shown in Figure 8 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>7.6 <I>Measurement of jacket surface temperature.</I> Divide the jacket of the boiler into 6-inch squares when practical, and otherwise into 36-square-inch regions comprising 4 inch by 9 inch or 3 inch by 12 inch sections, and determine the surface temperature at the center of each square or section with a surface thermocouple. Record the surface temperature of the 36-square-inch areas in groups where the temperature differential of the 36-square-inch areas is less than 10 °F for temperature up to 100 °F above room temperature, and less than 20 °F for temperatures more than 100 °F above room temperature.
</P>
<P>7.7 <I>Installation of vent system.</I> Keep the vent or air intake system supplied by the manufacturer in place during all tests. Test units intended for installation with a variety of vent pipe lengths with the minimum vent length as specified in the I&amp;O manual, or a 5-ft. flue pipe if there are no recommendations in the I&amp;O manual. Do not connect a boiler employing a direct vent system to a chimney or induced-draft source. Vent combustion products solely by using the venting incorporated in the boiler and the vent or air intake system supplied by the manufacturer. For units that are not designed to significantly preheat the incoming air, see section 7.5 of this appendix and Figure 4a or 4b in section 7 of ASHRAE 103-2017. For units that do significantly preheat the incoming air, <I>see</I> Figure 4c or 4d in section 7 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>7.8 <I>Additional optional method of testing for determining D</I><E T="52">P</E><I> and D</I><E T="52">F</E>. On units whose design is such that there is no measurable airflow through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger when the burner(s) is (are) off as determined by the optional test procedure in section 7.8.1 of this appendix, D<E T="52">F</E> and D<E T="52">P</E> may be set equal to 0.05.
</P>
<P>7.8.1 <I>Optional test method for indicating the absence of flow through the heat exchanger.</I> Manufacturers may use the following test protocol to determine whether air flows through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger when the burner(s) is (are) off. The minimum default draft factor may be used only for units determined pursuant to this protocol to have no airflow through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger.
</P>
<P>7.8.1.1 <I>Test apparatus.</I> Use a smoke stick that produces smoke that is easily visible and has a density less than or approximately equal to air. Use a smoke stick that produces smoke that is non-toxic to the test personnel and produces gas that is unreactive with the environment in the test chamber.
</P>
<P>7.8.1.2 <I>Test conditions.</I> Minimize all air currents and drafts in the test chamber, including turning off ventilation if the test chamber is mechanically ventilated. Wait at least two minutes following the termination of the boiler on-cycle before beginning the optional test method for indicating the absence of flow through the heat exchanger.
</P>
<P>7.8.1.3 <I>Location of the test apparatus.</I> After all air currents and drafts in the test chamber have been eliminated or minimized, position the smoke stick based on the following equipment configuration:
</P>
<P>(a) For horizontal combustion air intakes, approximately 4 inches from the vertical plane at the termination of the intake vent and 4 inches below the bottom edge of the combustion air intake; or
</P>
<P>(b) for vertical combustion air intakes, approximately 4 inches horizontal from vent perimeter at the termination of the intake vent and 4 inches down (parallel to the vertical axis of the vent). In the instance where the boiler combustion air intake is closer than 4 inches to the floor, place the smoke device directly on the floor without impeding the flow of smoke.
</P>
<P>7.8.1.4 <I>Duration of test.</I> Establish the presence of smoke from the smoke stick and then monitor the direction of the smoke flow for no less than 30 seconds.
</P>
<P>7.8.1.5 <I>Test results.</I> During visual assessment, determine whether there is any draw of smoke into the combustion air intake vent.
</P>
<P>If absolutely no smoke is drawn into the combustion air intake, the boiler meets the requirements to allow use of the minimum default draft factor provided in section 7.8 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>If there is any smoke drawn into the intake, proceed with the methods of testing as prescribed in section 8.8 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>7.8.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>8. <I>Test procedure.</I> Conduct testing and measurements as specified in Section 9 of ASHRAE 103-2017 (except for the excluded sub-sections as enumerated in section 0.1(h) of this appendix); and as specified in sections 8.1 through 8.9 of this appendix. Section 8.4 of this appendix may be used in lieu of section 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>8.1 <I>Fuel input.</I> For gas units, measure and record the steady-state gas input rate in Btu/h, including pilot gas, corrected to standard conditions of 60 °F and 30 in. Hg. Use measured values of gas temperature and pressure at the meter and barometric pressure to correct the metered gas flow rate to the above standard conditions. For oil units, measure and record the steady-state fuel input rate. For maximum input rate, the measured burner input rate shall be within ±2% of the hourly Btu nameplate input rating (Q<E T="52">IN</E>) specified by the manufacturer. For modulating furnaces and boilers operating at reduced input rate, the measured reduced heat input rate (Q<E T="52">IN,R</E>) shall be recorded. At the discretion of the one testing, the hourly Btu nameplate minimum input rating specified by the manufacturer may be used in the calculations in place of Q<E T="52">IN,R</E> if the measured rate is within ±2% of the nameplate rating.
</P>
<P>8.2 <I>Electrical input.</I> During the steady-state test, perform a single measurement of all of the electrical power involved in burner operation (PE), including energizing the ignition system, controls, gas valve or oil control valve, and draft inducer, if applicable. For boilers, the measurement of PE must include the boiler pump if so equipped. If the boiler pump does not operate during the measurement of PE, add the boiler pump nameplate power to the measurement of PE. If the boiler pump nameplate power is not available, use 0.13 kW. For hot water boilers, use the circulating water pump nameplate power for BE, or if the pump nameplate power is not available, use 0.13 kW.
</P>
<P>8.3 <I>Input to interrupted ignition device.</I> For burners equipped with an interrupted ignition device, record the nameplate electric power used by the ignition device, PE<E T="52">IG</E>, or record that PE<E T="52">IG</E> = 0.4 kW if no nameplate power input is provided. Record the nameplate ignition device on-time interval, t<E T="52">IG</E>, or, if the nameplate does not provide the ignition device on-time interval, measure the on-time interval with a stopwatch at the beginning of the test, starting when the burner is turned on. Set t<E T="52">IG</E> = 0 and PE<E T="52">IG</E> = 0 if the device on-time interval is less than or equal to 5 seconds after the burner is on.
</P>
<P>8.4 <I>Cycling Test Requirements.</I> For the measurement of condensate heat loss under cyclic conditions (for condensing boilers), section 9.8 of ASHRAE 103-2017 shall apply. Cycle times calculated from Table 7 of ASHRAE 103-2017 shall be rounded to the nearest second.
</P>
<P>8.5 <I>Optional test procedures for condensing boilers, measurement of condensate during the establishment of steady-state conditions.</I> For units with step-modulating or two-stage controls, conduct the test at both the maximum and reduced inputs. In lieu of collecting the condensate immediately after the steady state conditions have been reached as required by section 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017, condensate may be collected during the establishment of steady state conditions as defined by section 9.1.2.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017. Perform condensate collection for at least 30 minutes. Measure condensate mass immediately at the end of the collection period to prevent evaporation loss from the sample. Record fuel input for the 30-minute condensate collection test period. Observe and record fuel higher heating value (HHV), temperature, and pressures necessary for determining fuel energy input (Q<E T="52">C,SS</E>). Measure the fuel quantity and HHV with errors no greater than 1%. The humidity for the room air shall at no time exceed 80%. Determine the mass of condensate for the establishment of steady state conditions (M<E T="52">C,SS</E>) in pounds by subtracting the tare container weight from the total container and condensate weight measured at the end of the 30-minute condensate collection test period.
</P>
<P>8.6 <I>Cool-down test for gas- and oil-fueled boilers without stack dampers.</I> After steady-state testing has been completed, turn the main burner(s) “OFF” and measure the flue gas temperature at 3.75 minutes (temperature designated as T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">3</E>)) and 22.5 minutes (temperature designated as T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">4</E>)) after the burner shut-off using the thermocouple grid described in section 7.6 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>a. During this off-period, for units that do not have pump delay after shut-off, do not allow any water to circulate through the hot water boilers.
</P>
<P>b. For units that have pump delay on shut-off, except those having pump controls sensing water temperature, the unit control must stop the pump. Measure and record the time between burner shut-off and pump shut-off (t
<SU>+</SU>) to the nearest second.
</P>
<P>c. For units having pump delay controls that sense water temperature, operate the pump for 15 minutes and record t
<SU>+</SU> as 15 minutes. While the pump is operating, maintain the inlet water temperature and flow rate at the same values as used during the steady-state test, as specified in sections 9.1 and 8.4.2.3 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</P>
<P>d. For boilers that employ post-purge, measure the length of the post-purge period with a stopwatch. Record the time from burner “OFF” to combustion blower “OFF” (electrically de-energized) as t<E T="52">P</E>. Measure the flue gas temperature by means of the thermocouple grid described in section 7.6 of ASHRAE 103-2017 at the end of the post-purge period t<E T="52">P</E> (T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">P</E>)) and at (3.75 + t<E T="52">P</E>) minutes (T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">3</E>)) and (22.5 + t<E T="52">P</E>) minutes (T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">4</E>)) after the main burner shuts off. If t<E T="52">P</E> is prescribed by the I&amp;O manual or measured to be greater than 3 minutes, also measure the flue gas temperature at the midpoint of the post-purge period t<E T="52">P</E>/2 (T<E T="52">F,OFF</E>(t<E T="52">P</E>/2)). If the measured t<E T="52">P</E> is less than or equal to 30 seconds, record t<E T="52">P</E> as 0 and conduct the cool-down test as if there is no post-purge.
</P>
<P>8.7 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>8.8 <I>Calculation options.</I> The rate of the flue gas mass flow through the boiler and the factors D<E T="52">P</E>, D<E T="52">F</E>, and D<E T="52">S</E> are calculated by the equations in sections 11.6.1, 11.6.2, 11.6.3, 11.6.4, 11.7.1, and 11.7.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017. On units whose design is such that there is no measurable airflow through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger when the burner(s) is (are) off (as determined by the optional test procedure in section 7.8 of this appendix), D<E T="52">F</E> and D<E T="52">P</E> may be set equal to 0.05.
</P>
<P>8.9 <I>Optional test procedures for condensing boilers that have no off-period flue losses.</I> For units that have applied the test method in section 7.8 of this appendix to determine that no measurable airflow exists through the combustion chamber and heat exchanger during the burner off-period and having post-purge periods of less than 30 seconds, the cool-down and heat-up tests specified in sections 9.5 and 9.6 of ASHRAE 103-2017 may be omitted. In lieu of conducting the cool-down and heat-up tests, the tester may use the losses determined during the steady-state test described in section 9.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017 when calculating heating seasonal efficiency, Effy<E T="52">HS</E>.
</P>
<P>8.10 <I>Measurement of electrical standby and off mode power.</I>
</P>
<P>8.10.1 <I>Standby power measurement.</I> With all electrical auxiliaries of the boiler not activated, measure the standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) in accordance with the procedures in IEC 62301, except that section 8.5, <I>Room Ambient Temperature,</I> of ASHRAE 103-2017 and the voltage provision of section 8.2.1.4, <I>Electrical Supply,</I> of ASHRAE 103-2017 shall apply in lieu of the corresponding provisions of IEC 62301 at section 4.2, <I>Test room,</I> and the voltage specification of section 4.3, <I>Power supply.</I> Frequency shall be 60Hz. Clarifying further, IEC 62301 section 4.4, <I>Power measurement instruments,</I> and section 5, <I>Measurements,</I> apply in lieu of ASHRAE 103-2017 section 6.10, <I>Energy Flow Rate.</I> Measure the wattage so that all possible standby mode wattage for the entire appliance is recorded, not just the standby mode wattage of a single auxiliary. Round the recorded standby power (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) to the second decimal place, except for loads greater than or equal to 10W, which must be recorded to at least three significant figures.
</P>
<P>8.10.2 <I>Off mode power measurement.</I> If the unit is equipped with an off switch or there is an expected difference between off mode power and standby mode power, measure off mode power (P<E T="52">W</E>,<E T="52">OFF</E>) in accordance with the standby power procedures in IEC 62301, except that section 8.5, <I>Room Ambient Temperature,</I> of ASHRAE 103-2017 and the voltage provision of section 8.2.1.4, <I>Electrical Supply,</I> of ASHRAE 103-2017 shall apply in lieu of the corresponding provisions of IEC 62301 at section 4.2, <I>Test room,</I> and the voltage specification of section 4.3, <I>Power supply.</I> Frequency shall be 60Hz. Clarifying further, IEC 62301 section 4.4, <I>Power measurement instruments,</I> and section 5, <I>Measurements,</I> apply for this measurement in lieu of SHRAE 103-2017 section 6.10, <I>Energy Flow Rate.</I> Measure the wattage so that all possible off mode wattage for the entire appliance is recorded, not just the off mode wattage of a single auxiliary. If there is no expected difference in off mode power and standby mode power, let P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = P<E T="52">W,SB</E>, in which case no separate measurement of off mode power is necessary. Round the recorded off mode power (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) to the second decimal place, except for loads greater than or equal to 10W, in which case round the recorded value to at least three significant figures.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Nomenclature.</I> Nomenclature includes the nomenclature specified in Section 10 of ASHRAE 103-2017 and the following additional variables:
</P>
<FP-1>Eff<E T="52">motor</E> = Efficiency of power burner motor
</FP-1>
<FP-1>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = Electrical power to the interrupted ignition device, kW
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R<E T="52">T,a</E> = R<E T="52">T,F</E> if flue gas is measured
</FP-1>
<FP-1>= R<E T="52">T,S</E> if stack gas is measured
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R<E T="52">T,F</E> = Ratio of combustion air mass flow rate to stoichiometric air mass flow rate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R<E T="52">T,S</E> = Ratio of the sum of combustion air and relief air mass flow rate to stoichiometric air mass flow rate
</FP-1>
<FP-1>t<E T="52">IG</E> = Electrical interrupted ignition device on-time, min.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T<E T="52">a,SS,X</E> = T<E T="52">F,SS,X</E> if flue gas temperature is measured, °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>= T<E T="52">S,SS,X</E> if stack gas temperature is measured, °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>y<E T="52">IG</E> = Ratio of electrical interrupted ignition device on-time to average burner on-time
</FP-1>
<FP-1>y<E T="52">P</E> = Ratio of power burner combustion blower on-time to average burner on-time
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E<E T="52">SO</E> = Average annual electric standby mode and off mode energy consumption, in kilowatt-hours
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = Boiler off mode power, in watts
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P<E T="52">W,SB</E> = Boiler standby mode power, in watts
</FP-1>
<P>10. <I>Calculation of derived results from test measurements.</I> Perform calculations as specified in section 11 of ASHRAE 103-2017, except for appendices B and C; and as specified in sections 10.1 through 10.7 and Figure 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>10.1 <I>Annual fuel utilization efficiency.</I> The annual fuel utilization efficiency (AFUE) is as defined in sections 11.2.12 (non-condensing systems), 11.3.12 (condensing systems), 11.4.12 (non-condensing modulating systems) and 11.5.12 (condensing modulating systems) of ASHRAE 103-2017, except for the following:
</P>
<P>10.1.1 <I>Off-cycle Infiltration Heat Loss.</I> The off-cycle infiltration heat loss (L<E T="52">I,OFF1</E>) is as defined in sections 11.2.10.8 (non-condensing systems), 11.3.10.8 (condensing systems), 11.4.10.8 (non-condensing modulating systems) and 11.5.10.8 (condensing modulating systems) of ASHREAE 103-2017, with the following exception. For systems numbered 2, 3, and 4, with a post-purge time of 3 minutes or less, L<E T="52">I,OFF1</E> shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr23.004.gif"/>
<P>10.1.2 <I>Determination of Effy</I><E T="52">HS</E><I> in the Defining Equation for AFUE.</I> Effy<E T="52">HS</E> is defined as:
</P>
<FP-1>Effy<E T="52">HS</E> = heating seasonal efficiency as defined in sections 11.2.11 (non-condensing systems), 11.3.11 (condensing systems), 11.4.11 (non-condensing modulating systems) and 11.5.11 (condensing modulating systems) of ASHRAE 103-2017, and is based on the assumptions that weatherized boilers are located outdoors and that non-weatherized boilers are installed indoors.
</FP-1>
<P>10.1.3 <I>Balance Point Temperature for Condensing Modulating Boilers.</I> Calculate the balance point temperature (T<E T="52">C</E>) for condensing, modulating boilers by using the following equation in place of that referenced by section 11.5.8.4 of ASHRAE 103-2017: <I>T</I><E T="52">C</E> =
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr23.005.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">SH</E> = typical average outdoor temperature at which a boiler starts operating, 65 °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">OA,T</E> = the typical outdoor design temperature, 5 °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α = oversize factor, as defined in 11.4.8.2
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = steady-state nameplate maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,R</E> = steady-state reduced input fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SSR</E> = average sensible heat loss at steady state, reduced input operation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">S,SS</E> = average sensible heat loss at steady state, maximum input operation
</FP-2>
<P>10.2 <I>National average burner operating hours, average annual fuel energy consumption, and average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for gas or oil boilers.</I>
</P>
<P>10.2.1 <I>National average number of burner operating hours.</I>
</P>
<P>10.2.1.1 For boilers equipped with single-stage controls, the national average number of burner operating hours is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = 2,080 (0.77) (A) [(Q<E T="52">OUT</E>/1000)/(1+α)]−2,080 (B)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = national average heating load hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = adjustment factor to adjust the calculated design heating requirement and heating load hours to the actual heating load experienced by the heating system
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A = 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">P</E> PE + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) + (Q<E T="52">IN</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for forced draft unit, indoors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200 (y<E T="52">P</E> PE (1−Eff<E T="52">motor</E>) + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y BE) + (Q<E T="52">IN</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">HS</E>], for induced draft unit, indoors, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT</E> = value as defined in section 11.2.8.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α = value as defined in section 11.2.8.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = 2 Q<E T="52">P</E> (Effy<E T="52">HS</E>) (A)/100,000
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Eff<E T="52">motor</E> = nameplate power burner motor efficiency provided by the manufacturer,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0.50, an assumed default power burner efficiency if not provided by the manufacturer.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100,000 = factor that accounts for percent and kBtu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P</E> = ratio of induced or forced draft blower on-time to average burner on-time, as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 for units without post-purge;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 + (t<E T="52">P</E>/t<E T="52">ON</E>) for single stage boilers with post purge; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE = all electrical power related to burner operation at full load steady-state operation, including electrical ignition device if energized, controls, gas valve or oil control valve, draft inducer, and boiler pump, as determined in section 8.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG</E> = ratio of burner interrupted ignition device on-time to average burner on-time, as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0 for burners not equipped with interrupted ignition device;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(t<E T="52">IG</E>/t<E T="52">ON</E>) for single stage boilers
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = electrical input rate to the interrupted ignition device on burner (if employed), as defined in section 8.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y = ratio of pump on-time to average burner on-time, as follows:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 for boilers without a pump delay;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 + (t
<SU>+</SU>/t<E T="52">ON</E>) for single-stage boilers with pump delay;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE = circulating water pump electrical energy input rate at full-load steady-state operation as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">P</E> = post-purge time as defined in section 8.5 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0 if t<E T="52">P</E> is equal to or less than 30 seconds
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">IG</E> = on-time of the burner interrupted ignition device, as defined in section 8.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 11.2.8.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">HS</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 (non-condensing systems) or section 11.3.11.3 (condensing systems) of ASHRAE 103-2017, percent, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>indoor installation, for non-weatherized boilers; or outdoor installation, for boilers that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2 = ratio of the average length of the heating season in hours to the average heating load hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t
<SU>+</SU> = delay time between burner shutoff and the pump shutoff measured as defined in section 8.5 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">ON</E> = value as defined in Table 7 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</FP-2>
<P>10.2.1.2 For boilers equipped with two-stage or step-modulating controls, the national average number of burner operating hours at the reduced operating mode (BOH<E T="52">R</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = X<E T="52">R</E> (2080)(0.77)[(Q<E T="52">OUT</E>/1,000)/(1+α)](A<E T="52">R</E>)−2080(B<E T="52">R</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.6 of SHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2080 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 or 11.5.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α = as defined in section 11.4.8.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">R</E> = 100,000/[341,200(y<E T="52">P,R</E>PE<E T="52">R</E> + y<E T="52">IG,R</E>PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">R</E>BE<E T="52">R</E>) + (Q<E T="52">IN,R</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">U,R</E>] for forced draft unit, indoors; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200(y<E T="52">P,R</E>PE<E T="52">R</E> (1−Eff<E T="52">motor</E>) + y<E T="52">IG,R</E>PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">R</E>BE<E T="52">R</E>) + (Q<E T="52">IN,R</E>−Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">U,R</E>] for induced draft unit, indoors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B<E T="52">R</E> = 2Q<E T="52">P</E> (Effy<E T="52">U,R</E>) (A<E T="52">R</E>)/100,000
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100,000 = conversion factor accounting for percent and 1,000 Btu/kBtu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>341,200 = conversion factor accounting for percent and 3412 Btu/h/kW
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P,R</E> = 1 + (t<E T="52">p</E>/t<E T="52">ON,R</E>) for two-stage and step modulating boilers with post purge
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG,R</E> = t<E T="52">IG</E>/t<E T="52">ON,R</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 8.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">R</E> = 1 + (t
<SU>+</SU>)/t<E T="52">ON,R</E> for two-stage and step modulating boilers with fan delay
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,R</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">U,R</E> = as defined in section 11.4.11.1 or 11.5.11.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>indoor installation, for non-weatherized boilers; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>outdoor installation, for boilers that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Eff<E T="52">motor</E> = nameplate power burner motor efficiency provided by the manufacturer,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0.50, an assumed default power burner efficiency if not provided by the manufacturer.
</FP-2>
<P>10.2.1.3 For boilers equipped with two-stage controls, the national average number of burner operating hours at the maximum operating mode (BOH<E T="52">H</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">H</E> = X<E T="52">H</E> (2080)(0.77)[(Q<E T="52">OUT</E>/1,000)/(1+α)](A<E T="52">H</E>)—2080(B<E T="52">H</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.5 of SHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2080 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 or 11.5.8.1.1 ofASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α = as defined in section 11.4.8.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">H</E> = 100,000/[341,200(y<E T="52">P,H</E>PE<E T="52">H</E> + y<E T="52">IG,H</E>PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">H</E>BE<E T="52">H</E>) + (Q<E T="52">IN,H</E>—Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">U,H</E>] for forced draft unit, indoors; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200(y<E T="52">P,H</E>PE<E T="52">H</E> (1—Eff<E T="52">motor</E>) + y<E T="52">IG,H</E>PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">H</E>BE<E T="52">H</E>) + (Q<E T="52">IN,H</E>—Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">U,H</E>] for induced draft unit, indoors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B<E T="52">H</E> = 2Q<E T="52">P</E> (Effy<E T="52">U,H</E>) (A<E T="52">H</E>)/100,000
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100,000 = conversion factor accounting for percent and 1,000 Btu/kBtu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>341,200 = conversion factor accounting for percent and 3412 Btu/h/kW
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P,H</E> = 1 + (t<E T="52">p</E>/t<E T="52">ON,H</E>) for two-stage and step modulating boilers with post purge
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG,H</E> = t<E T="52">IG</E>/t<E T="52">ON,H</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 8.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">H</E> = 1 + (t
<SU>+</SU>)/t<E T="52">ON,H</E> for two-stage and step modulating boilers with fan delay
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,H</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">U,H</E> = as defined in section 11.4.11.2 or 11.5.11.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>indoor installation, for non-weatherized boilers; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>outdoor installation, for boilers that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Eff<E T="52">motor</E> = nameplate power burner motor efficiency provided by the manufacturer,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0.50, an assumed default power burner efficiency if not provided by the manufacturer.
</FP-2>
<P>10.2.1.4 For boilers equipped with step-modulating controls, the national average number of burner operating hours at the modulating operating mode (BOH<E T="52">M</E>) is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">M</E> = X<E T="52">H</E> (2080)(0.77)[(Q<E T="52">OUT</E>/1,000)/(1+α)](A<E T="52">M</E>)—2080(B<E T="52">M</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>X<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.5 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2080 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.1 or 11.5.8.1.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α = as defined in section 11.4.8.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">M</E> = 100,000/[341,200(y<E T="52">P,H</E>PE<E T="52">H</E> + y<E T="52">IG,H</E>PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">H</E>BE<E T="52">H</E>) + (Q<E T="52">IN,M</E>—Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">U,M</E>] for forced draft unit, indoors; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 100,000/[341,200(y<E T="52">P,H</E>PE<E T="52">H</E> (1—Eff<E T="52">motor</E>) + y<E T="52">IG,H</E>PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">H</E>BE<E T="52">H</E>) + (Q<E T="52">IN,M</E>—Q<E T="52">P</E>) Effy<E T="52">U,M</E>] for induced draft unit, indoors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B<E T="52">M</E> = 2Q<E T="52">P</E> (Effy<E T="52">U,M</E>) (A<E T="52">M</E>)/100,000
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100,000 = conversion factor accounting for percent and 1,000 Btu/kBtu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>341,200 = conversion factor accounting for percent and 3412 Btu/h/kW
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P,H</E> = 1 + (t<E T="52">p</E>/t<E T="52">ON,H</E>) for two-stage and step modulating boilers with post purge
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG,H</E> = t<E T="52">IG</E>/t<E T="52">ON,H</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 8.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">H</E> = 1 + (t
<SU>+</SU>)/t<E T="52">ON,H</E> for two-stage and step modulating boilers with fan delay
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,M</E> = (100)(Q<E T="52">OUT,M</E>/Effy<E T="52">SS,M</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT,M</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.9 or 11.5.8.9 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">SS,M</E> = value as defined in section 11.4.8.7 or 11.5.8.7 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">U,M</E> = as defined in section 11.4.9.2.3 or 11.5.9.2.3 of ASHRAE 103-2017, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>indoor installation, for non-weatherized boilers; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>outdoor installation, for boilers that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Eff<E T="52">motor</E> = nameplate power burner motor efficiency provided by the manufacturer,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>= 0.50, an assumed default power burner efficiency if not provided by the manufacturer.
</FP-2>
<P>10.2.2 <I>Average annual fuel energy consumption for gas or oil fueled boilers.</I>
</P>
<P>10.2.2.1 For boilers equipped with single-stage controls, the average annual fuel energy consumption (E<E T="52">F</E>) is expressed in Btu per year and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = BOH<E T="52">SS</E> (Q<E T="52">IN</E> − Q<E T="52">P</E>) + 8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 11.2.8.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = total number of hours per year.
</FP-2>
<P>10.2.2.2 For boilers equipped with either two-stage or step modulating controls, E<E T="52">F</E> is defined as follows. For two-stage control:
</P>
<P>E<E T="52">F</E> = (BOH<E T="52">H</E>)(Q<E T="52">IN</E>) + (BOH<E T="52">R</E>)(Q<E T="52">IN,R</E>) + [8760 − (BOH<E T="52">H</E> + BOH<E T="52">R</E>)]Q<E T="52">P</E>
</P>
<P>For step-modulating control:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = (BOH<E T="52">M</E>)(Q<E T="52">IN,M</E>) + (BOH<E T="52">R</E>)(Q<E T="52">IN,R</E>) + [8760 − (BOH<E T="52">H</E> + BOH<E T="52">R</E>)]Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">M</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN</E> = as defined in section 11.2.8.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,R</E> = as defined in section 11.4.8.1.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">IN,M</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = total number of hours per year
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 of ASHRAE 103-2017.
</FP-2>
<P>10.2.3 <I>Average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for gas or oil-fueled boilers.</I>
</P>
<P>10.2.3.1 For boilers equipped with single-stage controls, the average annual auxiliary electrical consumption (E<E T="52">AE</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = BOH<E T="52">SS</E> (y<E T="52">P</E> PE + y<E T="52">IG</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + yBE) + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">SS</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>10.2.3.2 For boilers equipped with two-stage controls, E<E T="52">AE</E> is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = BOH<E T="52">R</E> (y<E T="52">P,R</E> PE<E T="52">R</E> + y<E T="52">IG,R</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">R</E>BE<E T="52">R</E>) + BOH<E T="52">H</E> (y<E T="52">P,H</E> PE<E T="52">H</E> + y<E T="52">IG,H</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">H</E>BE<E T="52">H</E>) + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P,R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG,R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P,H</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG,H</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>10.2.3.3 For boilers equipped with step-modulating controls, E<E T="52">AE</E> is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = BOH<E T="52">R</E> (y<E T="52">P,R</E> PE<E T="52">R</E> + y<E T="52">IG,R</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">R</E> BE<E T="52">R</E>) + BOH<E T="52">M</E> (y<E T="52">P,H</E> PE<E T="52">H</E> + y<E T="52">IG,H</E> PE<E T="52">IG</E> + y<E T="52">H</E>BE<E T="52">H</E>) + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P,R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG,R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">IG</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">R</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the reduced fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH<E T="52">M</E> = as defined in 10.2.1.4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">P,H</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">IG,H</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 10.2.1.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BE<E T="52">H</E> = as defined in section 8.2 of this appendix and measured at the maximum fuel input rate
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>10.3 <I>Average annual electric energy consumption for electric boilers.</I> For electric boilers, the average annual electrical energy consumption (E<E T="52">E</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">E</E> = 100 (2,080) (0.77) [Q<E T="52">OUT</E>/(1+α)]/(3412 AFUE) + E<E T="52">SO</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = to express a percent as a decimal
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT</E> = as defined in section 11.2.8 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α = as defined in section 11.2.8.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3412 = conversion factor from kilowatt-hours to Btu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = as defined in section 11.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017, in percent, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>indoor installation, for non-weatherized boilers; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>outdoor installation, for boilers that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.7 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>10.4 <I>Energy factor.</I>
</P>
<P>10.4.1 <I>Energy factor for gas or oil boilers.</I> Calculate the energy factor, EF, for gas or oil boilers defined as, in percent:
</P>
<FP-2>EF = (E<E T="52">F</E> − 4,600 (Q<E T="52">P</E>))(Effy<E T="52">HS</E>)/(E<E T="52">F</E> + 3,412 (E<E T="52">AE</E>))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = average annual fuel consumption as defined in section 10.2.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = pilot fuel input rate determined in accordance with section 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017 in Btu/h
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">HS</E> = annual fuel utilization efficiency as defined in sections 11.2.11, 11.3.11, 11.4.11 or 11.5.11 of ASHRAE 103-2017, in percent, and calculated on the basis of:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>indoor installation, for non-weatherized boilers; or
</FP-2>
<FP-2>outdoor installation, for boilers that are weatherized.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3,412 = conversion factor from kW to Btu/h
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = as defined in section 10.2.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>10.4.2 <I>Energy factor for electric boilers.</I> The energy factor, EF, for electric boilers is defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>EF = AFUE
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = annual fuel utilization efficiency as defined in section 10.3 of this appendix, in percent.
</FP-2>
<P>10.5 <I>Average annual energy consumption for boilers located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>10.5.1 <I>Average annual fuel energy consumption for gas or oil-fueled boilers located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I> For gas or oil-fueled boilers, the average annual fuel energy consumption for a specific geographic region and a specific typical design heating requirement (E<E T="52">FR</E>) is expressed in Btu per year and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">FR</E> = (E<E T="52">F</E> − 8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>) (HLH/2,080) + 8,760 Q<E T="52">P</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">F</E> = as defined in section 10.2.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8,760 = as defined in section 10.2.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">P</E> = as defined in section 11.2.11 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH = heating load hours for a specific geographic region determined from the heating load hour map in Figure 1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>10.5.2 <I>Average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for gas or oil-fueled boilers located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I> For gas or oil-fueled boilers, the average annual auxiliary electrical energy consumption for a specific geographic region and a specific typical design heating requirement (E<E T="52">AER</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AER</E> = (E<E T="52">AE</E>−E<E T="52">SO</E>) (HLH/2080) + E<E T="52">SOR</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">AE</E> = as defined in section 10.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = as defined in section 10.7 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH = as defined in section 10.5.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SOR</E> = as defined in section 10.5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>10.5.3 <I>Average annual electric energy consumption for electric boilers located in a different geographic region of the United States and in buildings with different design heating requirements.</I> For electric boilers, the average annual electric energy consumption for a specific geographic region and a specific typical design heating requirement (E<E T="52">ER</E>) is expressed in kilowatt-hours and defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">ER</E> = 100 (0.77) [Q<E T="52">OUT</E>/(1+α)] HLH/(3.412 AFUE) + E<E T="52">SOR</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = as defined in section 10.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT</E> = as defined in section 11.2.8.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α = as defined in section 11.2.8.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>HLH = as defined in section 10.5.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.412 = as defined in section 10.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = as defined in section 10.2.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SOR</E> = E<E T="52">SO</E> as defined in section 10.7 of this appendix, except that in the equation for E<E T="52">SO</E>, the term BOH is multiplied by the expression (HLH/2080) to get the appropriate regional accounting of standby mode and off mode loss.
</FP-2>
<P>10.6 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>10.7 <I>Average annual electrical standby mode and off mode energy consumption.</I> Calculate the annual electrical standby mode and off mode energy consumption (E<E T="52">SO</E>) in kilowatt-hours, defined as:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">SO</E> = (P<E T="52">W,SB</E> (4160−BOH) + 4600 P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) K
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,SB</E> = boiler standby mode power, in watts, as measured in section 8.9.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,160 = average heating season hours per year
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BOH = total burner operating hours as calculated in section 10.2 of this appendix for gas or oil-fueled boilers. Where for gas or oil-fueled boilers equipped with single-stage controls, BOH = BOH<E T="52">SS</E>; for gas or oil-fueled boilers equipped with two-stage controls, BOH = (BOH<E T="52">R</E> + BOH<E T="52">H</E>); and for gas or oil-fueled boilers equipped with step-modulating controls, BOH = (BOH<E T="52">R</E> + BOH<E T="52">M</E>). For electric boilers, BOH = 100(2080)(0.77)[Q<E T="52">OUT</E>/(1+α)]/(E<E T="52">in</E> 3412(AFUE))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4,600 = as defined in section 11.4.12 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> = boiler off mode power, in watts, as measured in section 8.9.2 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 0.001 kWh/Wh, conversion factor from watt-hours to kilowatt-hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>100 = to express a percent as a decimal
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2,080 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.77 = as defined in section 10.2.1.1 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">OUT</E> = as defined in section 11.2.8 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α = as defined in section 11.2.8.2 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">in</E> = steady-state electric rated power, in kilowatts, from section 9.3 of ASHRAE 103-2017
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3412 = as defined in section 10.3 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>AFUE = as defined in section 11.1 of ASHRAE 103-2017 in percent.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er13mr23.006.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 15547, Mar. 13, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix FF" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.49" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix FF to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Air Cleaners




</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Beginning on the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for air cleaners, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of these products, including those made for certification purposes, must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix. Manufacturers may choose to test in accordance with this appendix to certify compliance with any energy conservation standards prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3 the entire standard for AHAM AC-1-2020, AHAM AC-7-2022, ASTM E741-11(2017), and IEC 62301. However, only enumerated provisions of AHAM AC-1-2020, AHAM AC-7-2022, and IEC 62301 apply to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<HD3>0.1 AHAM AC-1-2020
</HD3>
<P>(a) Sections 4.2 through 4.6;
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 5 through 7;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 8.1;
</P>
<P>(d) Annex A;
</P>
<P>(e) Annex I; and
</P>
<P>(f) AHAM Standard Interpretation.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 AHAM AC-7-2022
</HD3>
<P>(a) Sections 2.2 and 2.3, sections 2.4.1 through 2.4.2.4, and sections 2.6 through 2.9;
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 3.1 through 3.6.3;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4;
</P>
<P>(d) Sections 5.3 through 5.7.4; and
</P>
<P>(e) Sections 6 and 7.
</P>
<HD3>0.3 IEC 62301: Household Electrical Appliances—Measurement of Standby Power
</HD3>
<P>(a) Sections 4.4.1 through 4.4.3; and
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.3.
</P>
<HD3>1. Scope of Coverage
</HD3>
<P>This appendix contains the test requirements to measure the energy performance of a conventional room air cleaner, as defined at § 430.2, with smoke CADR and dust CADR between 10 to 600 cubic feet per minute (cfm), inclusive.
</P>
<HD3>2. Definitions
</HD3>
<P>The definitions in sections 2.2, 2.3, 2.4.1 through 2.4.2.4, 2.6 through 2.8, and 2.9 of AHAM AC-7-2022 apply to this test procedure, including the applicable provisions of Annex I of AHAM AC-1-2020 as referenced in section 2.9 of AHAM AC-7-2022.
</P>
<HD3>3. Test Conditions
</HD3>
<P>Testing conditions shall be as specified in sections 3.1 through 3.6.3 of AHAM AC-7-2022, including the applicable provisions of sections 4.2 through 4.6 and Annex A of AHAM AC-1-2020 as referenced in sections 3.2.1, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, and 3.6.2 of AHAM AC-7-2022 and the applicable provisions of ASTM E 741-11(2017) as referenced in section 3.3 of AHAM AC-7-2022. Additionally, the following requirements are also applicable:
</P>
<P>3.1. <I>Placement for Testing.</I> The air cleaner test unit shall be placed in the test chamber as specified in section 3.6.2 of AHAM AC-7-2022. Additionally, the placement instructions specified in AHAM Standard Interpretation in AHAM AC-1-2020 are also applicable.
</P>
<P>3.2. <I>Air Cleaners with Network Mode Capability.</I> The air cleaner software update requirements specified in section 3.6.3.8 of AHAM AC-7-2022 are applicable. Additionally, software updates shall be conducted, if available, prior to initiating any testing. Software updates shall not be bypassed, even if the unit will operate without updates.
</P>
<HD3>4. Instrumentation
</HD3>
<P>Test instruments shall be as specified in section 4 of AHAM AC-7-2022, including the applicable provisions of sections 4.4.1 through 4.4.3 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<HD3>5. Active Mode CADR and Power Measurement
</HD3>
<P>Measurement of smoke CADR, dust CADR, and pollen CADR shall be as specified in sections 5 through 7 of AHAM AC-1-2020, respectively. Measurement of active mode power shall be as specified in sections 5.3 through 5.7.4 of AHAM AC-7-2022, including the applicable provisions of sections 5.2.5 and 6.2.5 of AHAM AC-1-2020 as referenced in section 5.7.1 of AHAM AC-7-2022. Additionally, the following requirement is also applicable:
</P>
<P>5.1. <I>Calculation of PM</I><E T="54">2.5</E><I> CADR.</I>
</P>
<P>5.1.1 PM<E T="52">2.5</E> CADR should be calculated as specified in section 2.9 of AHAM AC-7-2022.








</P>
<P>5.1.2. For determining compliance only with the standards specified in § 430.32(ee)(1), PM<E T="52">2.5</E> CADR may alternately be calculated using the smoke CADR and dust CADR values determined according to Sections 5 and 6, respectively, of AHAM AC-1-2020, according to the following equation:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11ap23.003.gif"/>
<HD3>6. Standby Mode Power Measurement
</HD3>
<P>Standby mode power consumption shall be measured as specified in section 6 of AHAM AC-7-2022, including the applicable provisions of section 5.3 of IEC 62301.
</P>
<HD3>7. Total Energy Calculation
</HD3>
<P>Annual energy consumption, expressed in kilowatt-hours per year, and integrated energy factor, expressed in CADR per watt, shall be calculated as specified in section 7 of AHAM AC-7-2022.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 14044, Mar. 6, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 53371, Aug. 8, 2023; 88 FR 21814, Apr. 11, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix GG" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.50" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix GG to Subpart B of Part 430—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Portable Electric Spas




</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Beginning on the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for portable electric spas specified in § 430.32, all representations of fill volume, energy efficiency, and energy use of portable electric spas, including those made on marketing materials and product labels, must be made in accordance with this test procedure.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD3>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 430.3, the entire standard for ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019 and CSA C374:11 (R2021). However, only enumerated provisions of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019 and CSA C374:11 (R2021), as listed in this section 0 are required. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control. Non-enumerated provisions of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019 are specifically excluded.
</P>
<HD3>0.1. ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3—Definitions (excluding the definitions for <I>cover, specified; fill volume; rated volume; and standby mode</I>), as specified in section 2.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5—Test Method (excluding Sections 5.1, 5.2, 5.5.2, 5.5.4, 5.5.5, and 5.7), as specified in sections 3, 3.1.6, 3.2.2, and 3.2.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Appendix A—Minimum Chamber Requirements (excluding section titled <I>Chamber floor</I>), as specified in section 3.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>0.2. CSA C374:11 (R2021)
</HD3>
<P>(a) Clause 5.1.1—Test room, as specified in section 3.1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Figure 1—Test platform, as specified in section 3.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>1. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix provides the test procedure for measuring the standby loss in watts and the fill volume in gallons of portable electric spas.
</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>2.1. Section 3, Definitions, of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019 applies to this test procedure. In case of conflicting terms between ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019 and DOE's definitions in this appendix or in § 430.2, DOE's definitions take priority.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Combination spa</I> means a portable electric spa with two separate and distinct reservoirs, where—
</P>
<P>(a) One reservoir is an exercise spa;
</P>
<P>(b) The second reservoir is a standard spa; and
</P>
<P>(c) Each reservoir has an independent water temperature setting control.
</P>
<P>2.3. <I>Exercise spa</I> means a variant of a portable electric spa in which the design and construction includes specific features and equipment to produce a water flow intended to allow recreational physical activity including, but not limited to, swimming in place. An exercise spa is also known as a swim spa.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Exercise spa portion</I> means the reservoir of a combination spa that is an exercise spa.
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Fill volume</I> means the volume of water held by the portable electric spa when it is filled as specified in section 3.1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.6. <I>Inflatable spa</I> means a portable electric spa where the structure is collapsible and is designed to be filled with air to form the body of the spa.
</P>
<P>2.7. <I>Standard spa</I> means a portable electric spa that is not an inflatable spa, an exercise spa, or the exercise spa portion of a combination spa.
</P>
<P>2.8. <I>Standard spa portion</I> means the reservoir of a combination spa that is a standard spa.
</P>
<P>2.9. <I>Standby loss</I> means the mean normalized power required to operate the portable electric spa in default operation mode with the cover on, as calculated in section 3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>3. Test Method
</HD2>
<P>Determine the standby loss in watts and fill volume in gallons for portable electric spas in accordance with section 5, <I>Test Method,</I> of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019, except as follows.
</P>
<HD3>3.1. Test Setup
</HD3>
<HD3>3.1.1. Chamber
</HD3>
<P>Install the portable electric spa in a chamber satisfying the requirements specified for <I>Chamber internal dimensions, Air flow,</I> and <I>Chamber insulation</I> in appendix A, <I>Minimum Chamber Requirements,</I> to ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.2. Chamber Floor
</HD3>
<P>Install the portable electric spa on a platform as specified in Clause 5.1.1(b) and Figure 1 of CSA C374:11 (R2021).
</P>
<HD3>3.1.3. Electrical Supply Voltage and Amperage Configuration
</HD3>
<HD3>3.1.3.1. General
</HD3>
<P>If the portable electric spa can be installed or configured with multiple options of voltage, maximum amperage, or both, use the hierarchy in section 3.1.3.2 of this appendix to determine the configuration for testing.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.3.2. Hierarchy
</HD3>
<P>Use the as-shipped configuration, if such a configuration is provided.
</P>
<P>If no configuration is provided in the as-shipped condition, use the option specified in the manufacturer's instructions as the recommended configuration for normal consumer use.
</P>
<P>If no configuration is provided in the as-shipped condition and the manufacturer's instructions do not provide a recommended configuration for normal consumer use, use the maximum voltage specified in the manufacturer's installation instructions and maximum amperage that the manufacturer's installation instructions specify for use with the maximum voltage.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.4. Fill Volume
</HD3>
<P>Follow the manufacturer's instructions for filling the portable electric spa with water, connecting and/or priming the pump(s), and starting up the spa. After verifying that the spa is operating normally and that all water lines are filled, power off the spa and adjust the fill level as needed to meet the following specifications before starting the test.
</P>
<P>If the manufacturer's instructions specify a single fill level, fill to that level with a tolerance of ±0.125 inches.
</P>
<P>If the manufacturer's instructions specify a range of fill levels and not a single fill level, fill to the middle of that range with a tolerance of ±0.125 inches.
</P>
<P>If the manufacturer's instructions do not specify a fill level or range of fill levels, fill to the halfway point between the bottom of the skimmer opening and the top of the skimmer opening with a tolerance of ±0.125 inches.
</P>
<P>If the manufacturer's instructions do not specify a fill level or range of fill levels, and there is no wall skimmer, fill to 6.0 inches ±0.125 inches below the overflow level of the spa.
</P>
<P>Measure the volume of water added to the spa with a water meter while filling the spa. Measure any water removed from the spa using a water meter, graduated container, or scale, each with an accuracy of ±2 percent of the quantity measured. The fill volume is the volume of water held by the spa when the spa is filled as specified above.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.5. Spa Cover
</HD3>
<HD3>3.1.5.1. Cover Is Designated by the Spa Manufacturer
</HD3>
<P>Install the spa cover following the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<HD3>3.1.5.2. No Cover Is Designated by the Spa Manufacturer
</HD3>
<P>If no cover is designated by the spa manufacturer for use with the spa, cover the portable electric spa with a single layer of 6 mil thickness (0.006 inches; 0.15 mm) plastic film. Cut the plastic to cover the entire top surface of the spa and extend over the edge of the spa approximately 6 inches below the top surface of the spa. Use fasteners or weights to keep the plastic in place during the test, but do not seal the edges of the plastic to the spa (by using tape, for example).
</P>
<HD3>3.1.6. Ambient Temperature Measurement Location
</HD3>
<P>The ambient air temperature measurement point specified in section 5.6.3 of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019 must be located above the center of the spa.
</P>
<HD3>3.2. Test Conditions and Conduct
</HD3>
<HD3>3.2.1. Ambient Air Temperature
</HD3>
<P>Maintain the ambient air temperature at a maximum of 63.0 °F for the duration of the test. This requirement applies to each individual ambient air temperature measurement taken for the duration of the stabilization period and test period.
</P>
<HD3>3.2.2. Water Temperature Settings
</HD3>
<P>Adjust the spa water temperature settings to meet the applicable temperature requirements in section 5.6.1 of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019. The spa water temperature settings must not be adjusted between the start of the stabilizing period specified in section 5.6.1 of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019 and the end of the test period specified in section 5.6.4.7 of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019.
</P>
<HD3>3.2.3. Water Temperature Requirements
</HD3>
<P>Each individual water temperature measurement taken during the stabilization period and test period must meet the applicable water temperature requirements specified in section 5.6.1 of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 2019.
</P>
<HD3>3.3. Standby Loss Calculation
</HD3>
<P>Calculate standby loss in watts by calculating the measured standby loss using Equation 1 of this appendix, calculating the measured temperature difference using Equation 2 of this appendix, and normalizing the standby loss using Equation 3 of this appendix. Use the standby loss calculated in Equation 3 as the standby loss value for the test.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13jn23.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SL<E T="52">meas</E> = Measured standby loss (watts)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E = Total energy use during the test (watt-hours)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Length of test (hours)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">meas</E> = Measured temperature difference ( °F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">water avg</E> = Average water temperature during test ( °F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">air avg</E> = Average air temperature during test ( °F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SL = Standby loss (W)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">std</E> = Normalized temperature difference ( °F), as follows:
</FP-2>
<P>46.0 °F for all inflatable spas, standard spas, standard spa portions of a combination spa, exercise spas, and exercise spa portions of a combination spa tested to a minimum water temperature of 100 °F; or 31.0 °F for all exercise spas or exercise spa portions of a combination spa tested to a minimum water temperature of 85 °F.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 38627, June 13, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Energy and Water Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.31" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.31   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation standards and water conservation standards (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) for classes of covered products that are required to be administered by the Department of Energy pursuant to the Energy Conservation Program for Consumer Products Other Than Automobiles under the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6291 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 13317, Mar. 18, 1998, as amended at 78 FR 62993, Oct. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.32" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.32   Energy and water conservation standards and their compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>The energy and water (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) conservation standards for the covered product classes are:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Refrigerators/refrigerator-freezers/freezers.</I> These standards do not apply to refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers with total refrigerated volume exceeding 39 cubic feet (1104 liters) or freezers with total refrigerated volume exceeding 30 cubic feet (850 liters). The energy standards as determined by the equations of the following table(s) shall be rounded off to the nearest kWh per year. If the equation calculation is halfway between the nearest two kWh per year values, the standard shall be rounded up to the higher of these values.


</P>
<P>(1) The following standards apply to products manufactured on or after September 15, 2014, and before the 2029/2030 compliance dates depending on product class (see paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(a)(1)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equations for maximum energy use (kWh/yr)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">based on AV
<br/>(ft
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">based on av
<br/>(L)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers with manual defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.99AV + 225.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.282av + 225.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1A. All-refrigerators—manual defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.79AV + 193.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.240av + 193.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Refrigerator-freezers—partial automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.99AV + 225.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.282av + 225.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.07AV + 233.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.285av + 233.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3-BI. Built-in refrigerator-freezer—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.15AV + 264.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.323av + 264.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3I. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker without through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.07AV + 317.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.285av + 317.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3I-BI. Built-in refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker without through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.15AV + 348.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.323av + 348.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3A. All-refrigerators—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.07AV + 201.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.250av + 201.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3A-BI. Built-in All-refrigerators—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.02AV + 228.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.283av + 228.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.51AV + 297.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.301av + 297.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-BI. Built-In Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.22AV + 357.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.361av + 357.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4I. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker without through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.51AV + 381.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.301av + 381.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4I-BI. Built-In Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker without through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.22AV + 441.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.361av + 441.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.85AV + 317.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.312av + 317.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-BI. Built-In Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.40AV + 336.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.332av + 336.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5I. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker without through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.85AV + 401.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.312av + 401.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5I-BI. Built-In Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker without through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.40AV + 420.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.332av + 420.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5A. Refrigerator-freezer—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.25AV + 475.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.327av + 475.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5A-BI. Built-in refrigerator-freezer—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.83AV + 499.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.347av + 499.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.40AV + 385.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.297av + 385.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.54AV + 432.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.302av + 431.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7-BI. Built-In Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.25AV + 502.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.362av + 502.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Upright freezers with manual defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.57AV + 193.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.197av + 193.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Upright freezers with automatic defrost without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.62AV + 228.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.305av + 228.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9I. Upright freezers with automatic defrost with an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.62AV + 312.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.305av + 312.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9-BI. Built-In Upright freezers with automatic defrost without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.86AV + 260.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.348av + 260.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9I-BI. Built-In Upright freezers with automatic defrost with an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.86AV + 344.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.348av + 344.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Chest freezers and all other freezers except compact freezers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.29AV + 107.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.257av + 107.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10A. Chest freezers with automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.24AV + 148.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.362av + 148.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Compact refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers with manual defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.03AV + 252.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.319av + 252.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11A. Compact refrigerators and refrigerator-freezers with manual defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.84AV + 219.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.277av + 219.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Compact refrigerator-freezers—partial automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.91AV + 335.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.209av + 335.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.80AV + 339.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.417av + 339.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13I. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.80AV + 423.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.417av + 423.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13A. Compact all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.17AV + 259.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.324av + 259.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.82AV + 456.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.241av + 456.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14I. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.82AV + 540.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.241av + 540.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.80AV + 339.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.417av + 339.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15I. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer with an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.80AV + 423.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.417av + 423.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Compact upright freezers with manual defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.65AV + 225.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.306av + 225.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. Compact upright freezers with automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.17AV + 351.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.359av + 351.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. Compact chest freezers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.25AV + 136.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.327av + 136.8
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">AV = Total adjusted volume, expressed in ft
<sup>3</sup>, as determined in appendices A and B to subpart B of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">av = Total adjusted volume, expressed in Liters.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The following standards apply to products manufactured on or after January 31, 2029.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(<E T="01">2</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equations for maximum energy use


<br/>(kWh/yr)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Based on AV


<br/>(ft
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Based on av


<br/>(L)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3-BI. Built-in refrigerator-freezer—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.24AV + 238.4 + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.291av + 238.4 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3A-BI. Built-in All-refrigerators—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7.22AV + 205.7) * K3ABI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.255av + 205.7) * K3ABI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-BI. Built-In Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8.79AV + 307.4) * K4BI + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.310av + 307.4) * K4BI + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-BI. Built-In Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8.65AV + 309.9) * K5BI + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.305av + 309.9) * K5BI + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5A. Refrigerator-freezer—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7.76AV + 351.9) * K5A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.274av + 351.9) * K5A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5A-BI. Built-in refrigerator-freezer—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8.21AV + 370.7) * K5ABI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.290av + 370.7) * K5ABI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7-BI. Built-In Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8.82AV + 384.1) * K7BI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.311av + 384.1) * K7BI.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Upright freezers with manual defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.57AV + 193.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.197av + 193.7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9-BI. Built-In Upright freezers with automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9.37AV + 247.9) * K9BI + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.331av + 247.9) * K9BI + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9A-BI. Built-In Upright freezers with automatic defrost with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.86AV + 288.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.348av + 288.9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Chest freezers and all other freezers except compact freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.29AV + 107.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.257av + 107.8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10A. Chest freezers with automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.24AV + 148.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.362av + 148.1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Compact refrigerator-freezers and refrigerators other than all-refrigerators with manual defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.68AV + 214.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.271av + 214.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11A. Compact all-refrigerators—manual defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.66AV + 186.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.235av + 186.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Compact refrigerator-freezers—partial automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5.32AV + 302.2) * K12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.188av + 302.2) * K12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.62AV + 305.3 + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375av + 305.3 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13A. Compact all-refrigerators—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8.25AV + 233.4) * K13A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.291av + 233.4) * K13A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.14AV + 411.2 + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.217av + 411.2 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Compact refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.62AV + 305.3 + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.375av + 305.3 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Compact upright freezers with manual defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.35AV + 191.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.260av + 191.8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. Compact upright freezers with automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.15AV + 316.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.323av + 316.7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. Compact chest freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.86AV + 107.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.278av + 107.8.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">AV = Total adjusted volume, expressed in ft
<sup>3</sup>, as determined in appendices A and B to subpart B of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">av = Total adjusted volume, expressed in Liters.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">I = 1 for a product with an automatic icemaker and = 0 for a product without an automatic icemaker. Door Coefficients (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> K3ABI) are as defined in the following table.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(<E T="01">2</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Door coefficient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Products with a


<br/>transparent door
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Products without a


<br/>transparent door

<br/>with a door-in-door
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Products without a


<br/>transparent door or

<br/>door-in-door with

<br/>added external doors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K3ABI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K4BI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K5BI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K5A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K5ABI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K7BI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K9BI</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K13A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> N<E T="0732">d</E> is the number of external doors.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The maximum N<E T="0732">d</E> values are 2 for K12, 3 for K9BI, and 5 for all other K values.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The following standards apply to products manufactured on or after January 31, 2030.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(<E T="01">3</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equations for maximum energy use


<br/>(kWh/yr)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Based on AV


<br/>(ft
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Based on av


<br/>(L)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Refrigerator-freezers and refrigerators other than all-refrigerators with manual defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.79AV + 191.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.240av + 191.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1A. All-refrigerators—manual defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.77AV + 164.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.204av + 164.6.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Refrigerator-freezers—partial automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6.79AV + 191.3) * K2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.240av + 191.3) * K2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.86AV + 198.6 + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.242av + 198.6 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3A. All-refrigerators—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6.01AV + 171.4) * K3A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.212av + 171.4) * K3A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7.28AV + 254.9) * K4 + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.257av + 254.9) * K4 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7.61AV + 272.6) * K5 + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.269av + 272.6) * K5 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with top-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.14AV + 280.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.252av + 280.0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Refrigerator-freezers—automatic defrost with side-mounted freezer with through-the-door ice service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7.31AV + 322.5) * K7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.258av + 322.5) * K7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Upright freezers with automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7.33AV + 194.1) * K9 + 28I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(0.259av + 194.1) * K9 + 28I.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">AV = Total adjusted volume, expressed in ft
<sup>3</sup>, as determined in appendices A and B to subpart B of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">av = Total adjusted volume, expressed in Liters.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">I = 1 for a product with an automatic icemaker and = 0 for a product without an automatic icemaker. Door Coefficients (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> K3A) are as defined in the following table.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(<E T="01">3</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Door coefficient
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Products with a


<br/>transparent door
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Products without a


<br/>transparent door

<br/>with a door-in-door
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Products without a


<br/>transparent door or

<br/>door-in-door with

<br/>added external doors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K3A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 + 0.02 * (N<E T="52">d</E>−1).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> N<E T="0732">d</E> is the number of external doors.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The maximum N<E T="0732">d</E> values are 2 for K2, and 5 for all other K values.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Room air conditioners.</I> (1) The following standards remain in effect from June 1, 2014, until May 26, 2026:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combined energy


<br/>efficiency ratio
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity 
<sup>1</sup> less than 6,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 6,000 to 7,999 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 8,000 to 13,999 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 14,000 to 19,999 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5a. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 20,000 Btu/h to 27,999 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5b. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 28,000 Btu/h or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity less than 6,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 6,000 to 7,999 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8a. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 8,000 to 10,999 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8b. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 11,000 to 13,999 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 14,000 to 19,999 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 20,000 Btu/h or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. With reverse cycle, with louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity less than 20,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. With reverse cycle, without louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity less than 14,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. With reverse cycle, with louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity of 20,000 Btu/h or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. With reverse cycle, without louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity of 14,000 Btu/h or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Casement-Only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Casement-Slider</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.4
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The certified cooling capacity is determined by the manufacturer in accordance with 10 CFR 429.15(a)(3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The following standards apply to products manufactured starting May 26, 2026:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combined energy


<br/>efficiency ratio
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity 
<sup>1</sup> less than 6,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 6,000 to 7,900 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 8,000 to 13,900 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 14,000 to 19,900 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5a. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 20,000 Btu/h to 27,900 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5b. Without reverse cycle, with louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 28,000 Btu/h or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity less than 6,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 6,000 to 7,900 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8a. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 8,000 to 10,900 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8b. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 11,000 to 13,900 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 14,000 to 19,900 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Without reverse cycle, without louvered sides and with a certified cooling capacity of 20,000 Btu/h or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. With reverse cycle, with louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity less than 20,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. With reverse cycle, without louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity less than 14,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. With reverse cycle, with louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity of 20,000 Btu/h or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. With reverse cycle, without louvered sides, and with a certified cooling capacity of 14,000 Btu/h or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Casement-Only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Casement-Slider</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.3
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The certified cooling capacity is determined by the manufacturer in accordance with 10 CFR 429.15(a)(3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Central air conditioners and heat pumps.</I> The energy conservation standards defined in terms of the heating seasonal performance factor are based on Region IV, the minimum standardized design heating requirement, and the provisions of 10 CFR 429.16. 


</P>
<P>(1) Central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps manufactured on or after January 1, 2015, and before January 1, 2023, must have Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio and Heating Seasonal Performance Factor not less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Seasonal
<br/>energy
<br/>efficiency ratio
<br/>(SEER)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heating
<br/>seasonal
<br/>performance
<br/>factor (HSPF)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Split systems—air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Split systems—heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Single package units—air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Single package units—heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Small-duct, high-velocity systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi)(A) Space-constrained products—air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi)(B) Space-constrained products—heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) In addition to meeting the applicable requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, products in product class (i) of paragraph (c)(1) of this section (<I>i.e.,</I> split-systems—air conditioners) that are installed on or after January 1, 2015, and before January 1, 2023, in the States of Alabama, Arkansas, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Hawaii, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maryland, Mississippi, North Carolina, Oklahoma, South Carolina, Tennessee, Texas, or Virginia, or in the District of Columbia, must have a Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (SEER) of 14 or higher. Any outdoor unit model that has a certified combination with a rating below 14 SEER cannot be installed in these States. The least efficient combination of each basic model must comply with this standard.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) In addition to meeting the applicable requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, products in product classes (i) and (iii) of paragraph (c)(1) of this section (<I>i.e.,</I> split systems—air conditioners and single-package units—air conditioners) that are installed on or after January 1, 2015, and before January 1, 2023, in the States of Arizona, California, Nevada, or New Mexico must have a Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (SEER) of 14 or higher and have an Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER) (at a standard rating of 95 °F dry bulb outdoor temperature) not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Energy
<br/>efficiency ratio (EER)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Split systems—air conditioners with rated cooling capacity less than 45,000 Btu/hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Split systems—air conditioners with rated cooling capacity equal to or greater than 45,000 Btu/hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Single-package units—air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Any outdoor unit model that has a certified combination with a rating below 14 SEER or the applicable EER cannot be installed in this region. The least-efficient combination of each basic model must comply with this standard.
</P>
<P>(4) Each basic model of single-package central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps and each individual combination of split-system central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps manufactured on or after January 1, 2015, shall have an average off mode electrical power consumption not more than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average off mode power
<br/>consumption P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>
<br/>(watts)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Split-system air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Split-system heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Single-package air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Single-package heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Small-duct, high-velocity systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) Space-constrained air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) Space-constrained heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) Central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps manufactured on or after January 1, 2023, must have a Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio 2 and a Heating Seasonal Performance Factor 2 not less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Seasonal
<br/>energy
<br/>efficiency
<br/>ratio 2 (SEER2)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heating
<br/>seasonal
<br/>performance
<br/>factor 2 (HSPF2)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i)(A) Split systems—air conditioners with a certified cooling capacity less than 45,000 Btu/hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i)(B) Split systems—air conditioners with a certified cooling capacity equal to or greater than 45,000 Btu/hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Split systems—heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Single-package units—air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Single-package units—heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Small-duct, high-velocity systems</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi)(A) Space-constrained products—air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi)(B) Space-constrained products—heat pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6)(i) In addition to meeting the applicable requirements in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, products in product classes (i) and (iii) of paragraph (c)(5) of this section (<I>i.e.,</I> split systems—air conditioners and single-package units—air conditioners) that are installed on or after January 1, 2023, in the southeast or southwest must have a Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio 2 and a Energy Efficiency Ratio 2 not less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Southeast *
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Southwest **
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SEER2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SEER2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">EER2 ***
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i)(A) Split-systems—air conditioners with a certified cooling capacity less than 45,000 Btu/hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.7/9.8 †
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i)(B) Split-systems—air conditioners with a certified cooling capacity equal to or greater than 45,000 Btu/hr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.2/9.8 ††
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Single-package units—air conditioners</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.6
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* “Southeast” includes the States of Alabama, Arkansas, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Hawaii, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maryland, Mississippi, North Carolina, Oklahoma, Puerto Rico, South Carolina, Tennessee, Texas, Virginia, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. Territories.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** “Southwest” includes the States of Arizona, California, Nevada, and New Mexico.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*** EER refers to the energy efficiency ratio at a standard rating of 95 °F dry bulb outdoor temperature.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">† The 11.7 EER2 standard applies to products with a certified SEER2 less than 15.2. The 9.8 EER2 standard applies to products with a certified SEER2 greater than or equal to 15.2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">†† The 11.2 EER2 standard applies to products with a certified SEER2 less than 15.2. The 9.8 EER2 standard applies to products with a certified SEER2 greater than or equal to 15.2.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Any model of outdoor unit that has a certified combination with a rating below the applicable standard level(s) for a region cannot be installed in that region. The least-efficient combination of each basic model, which for single-split-system air conditioner (AC) with single-stage or two-stage compressor (including space-constrained and small-duct high velocity systems (SDHV)) must be a coil-only combination, must comply with the applicable standard. See 10 CFR 429.16(a)(1) and (a)(4)(i).




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Water Heaters.</I> (1) The uniform energy factor of water heaters manufactured before May 6, 2029, shall not be less than the following: </P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated storage volume
<br/>and input rating

<br/>(<E T="03">if applicable</E>)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Draw pattern
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Uniform energy factor 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired Storage Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 gal and ≤55 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3456 − (0.0020 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5982 − (0.0019 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6483 − (0.0017 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6920 − (0.0013 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;55 gal and ≤100 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6470 − (0.0006 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7689 − (0.0005 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7897 − (0.0004 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8072 − (0.0003 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired Storage Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤50 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2509 − (0.0012 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5330 − (0.0016 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6078 − (0.0016 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6815 − (0.0014 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric Storage Water Heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 gal and ≤55 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8808 − (0.0008 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9254 − (0.0003 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9307 − (0.0002 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9349 − (0.0001 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;55 gal and ≤120 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9236 − (0.0011 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0440 − (0.0011 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1171 − (0.0011 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2418 − (0.0011 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tabletop Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 gal and ≤120 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6323 − (0.0058 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9188 − (0.0031 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9577 − (0.0023 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9884 − (0.0016 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Instantaneous Gas-fired Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;2 gal and &gt;50,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Instantaneous Electric Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;2 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grid-enabled Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;75 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0136 − (0.0028 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9984 − (0.0014 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9853 − (0.0010 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9720 − (0.0007 × V<E T="52">r</E>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> V<E T="52">r</E> is the rated storage volume (in gallons), as determined pursuant to § 429.17 of this chapter.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The uniform energy factor of water heaters manufactured on or after May 6, 2029, shall not be less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14 to Paragraph <E T="01">(d)(2)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Effective storage volume and input rating
<br/>(if applicable)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Draw pattern
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Uniform energy factor *
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired Storage Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;20 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2062−(0.0020 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4893−(0.0027 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5758−(0.0023 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6586−(0.0020 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 gal and ≤55 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3925−(0.0020 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6451−(0.0019 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7046−(0.0017 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7424−(0.0013 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;55 gal and ≤100 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6470−(0.0006 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7689−(0.0005 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7897−(0.0004 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8072−(0.0003 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;100 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1482−(0.0007 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4342−(0.0017 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5596−(0.0020 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6658−(0.0019 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired Storage Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤50 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2909−(0.0012 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5730−(0.0016 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6478−(0.0016 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7215−(0.0014 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;50 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1580−(0.0009 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4390−(0.0020 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5389−(0.0021 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6172−(0.0018 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Very Small Electric Storage Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;20 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5925−(0.0059 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8642−(0.0030 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9096−(0.0020 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9430−(0.0012 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Electric Storage Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 gal and ≤35 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8808−(0.0008 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9254−(0.0003 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric Storage Water Heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 and ≤55 gal (excluding small electric storage water heaters)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;55 gal and ≤120 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;120 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3574−(0.0012 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7897−(0.0019 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8884−(0.0017 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9575−(0.0013 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tabletop Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;20 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5925−(0.0059 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8642−(0.0030 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6323−(0.0058 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9188−(0.0031 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Instantaneous Oil-fired Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;2 gal and ≤210,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥2 gal and ≤210,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2780−(0.0022 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5151−(0.0023 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5687−(0.0021 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6147−(0.0017 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Instantaneous Electric Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;2 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥2 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8086−(0.0050 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9123−(0.0020 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9252−(0.0015 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9350−(0.0011 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grid-Enabled Water Heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;75 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0136−(0.0028 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9984−(0.0014 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9853−(0.0010 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9720−(0.0007 × V<E T="0732">eff</E>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* V<E T="0732">eff</E> is the Effective Storage Volume (in gallons), as determined pursuant to § 429.17 of this chapter.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The provisions of paragraph (d) of this section are separate and severable from one another. Should a court of competent jurisdiction hold any provision(s) of paragraph (d) of this section to be stayed or invalid, such action shall not affect any other provision of paragraph (d) of this section.




</P>
<P>(e) <I>Furnaces and boilers</I>—(1) <I>Furnaces.</I> (i) The Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency (AFUE) of residential furnaces shall not be less than the following for non-weatherized gas furnaces manufactured before November 19, 2015, non-weatherized oil furnaces manufactured before May 1, 2013, and weatherized furnaces manufactured before January 1, 2015:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AFUE
<br/>(percent) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Furnaces (excluding classes noted below)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Mobile Home furnaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Small furnaces (other than those designed solely for installation in mobile homes) having an input rate of less than 45,000 Btu/hr
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) Weatherized (outdoor)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) Non-weatherized (indoor)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency, as determined in § 430.23(n)(2) of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The AFUE for non-weatherized gas furnaces (not including mobile home gas furnaces) manufactured on or after November 19, 2015, but before December 18, 2028; mobile home gas furnaces manufactured on or after November 19, 2015, but before December 18, 2028; non-weatherized oil-fired furnaces (not including mobile home furnaces) manufactured on or after May 1, 2013, mobile home oil-fired furnaces manufactured on or after September 1, 1990; weatherized gas-fired furnaces manufactured on or after January 1, 2015; weatherized oil-fired furnaces manufactured on or after January 1, 1992; and electric furnaces manufactured on or after January 1, 1992; shall not be less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AFUE
<br/>(percent) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Non-weatherized gas furnaces (not including mobile home furnaces)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Mobile home gas furnaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Non-weatherized oil-fired furnaces (not including mobile home furnaces)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Mobile home oil-fired furnaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) Weatherized gas furnaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(F) Weatherized oil-fired furnaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(G) Electric furnaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency, as determined in § 430.23(n)(2).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) The AFUE for non-weatherized gas (not including mobile home gas furnaces) manufactured on and after December 18, 2028; and mobile home gas furnaces manufactured on and after December 18, 2028, shall not be less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AFUE
<br/>(percent) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Non-weatherized gas furnaces (not including mobile home gas furnaces)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Mobile home gas furnaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency, as determined in § 430.23(n)(2).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) Furnaces manufactured on or after May 1, 2013, shall have an electrical standby mode power consumption (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) and electrical off mode power consumption (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) not more than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum standby mode electrical power consumption, P<E T="52">W,SB</E> (watts)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum off mode electrical power consumption, P<E T="52">W,OFF</E> (watts)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Non-weatherized oil-fired furnaces (including mobile home furnaces)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Electric furnaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Boilers.</I> (i) The AFUE of residential boilers manufactured before September 1, 2012, shall not be less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AFUE 
<sup>1</sup> (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Boilers (excluding gas steam)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Gas steam boilers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency, as determined in § 430.22(n)(2) of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section, the AFUE of residential boilers, manufactured on or after September 1, 2012, and before January 15, 2021, shall not be less than the following and must comply with the design requirements as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AFUE 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Design requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Gas-fired hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Constant burning pilot not permitted.
<br/>Automatic means for adjusting water temperature required (except for boilers equipped with tankless domestic water heating coils).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Gas-fired steam boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Constant burning pilot not permitted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Oil-fired hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automatic means for adjusting temperature required (except for boilers equipped with tankless domestic water heating coils).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Oil-fired steam boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) Electric hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automatic means for adjusting temperature required (except for boilers equipped with tankless domestic water heating coils).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency, as determined in § 430.22(n)(2) of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section, the AFUE of residential boilers, manufactured on and after January 15, 2021, shall not be less than the following and must comply with the design requirements as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AFUE 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Design requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) Gas-fired hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Constant-burning pilot not permitted. Automatic means for adjusting water temperature required (except for boilers equipped with tankless domestic water heating coils).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) Gas-fired steam boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Constant-burning pilot not permitted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">3</E>) Oil-fired hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automatic means for adjusting temperature required (except for boilers equipped with tankless domestic water heating coils).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">4</E>) Oil-fired steam boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">5</E>) Electric hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Automatic means for adjusting temperature required (except for boilers equipped with tankless domestic water heating coils).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">6</E>) Electric steam boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency, as determined in § 430.23(n)(2) of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section, the standby mode power consumption (P<E T="52">W,SB</E>) and off mode power consumption (P<E T="52">W,OFF</E>) of residential boilers, manufactured on and after January 15, 2021, shall not be more than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">P<E T="0732">W,SB</E>
<br/>(watts)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">P<E T="0732">W,OFF</E>
<br/>(watts)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) Gas-fired hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) Gas-fired steam boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">3</E>) Oil-fired hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">4</E>) Oil-fired steam boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">5</E>) Electric hot water boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">6</E>) Electric steam boiler</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) <I>Automatic means for adjusting water temperature.</I> (A) The automatic means for adjusting water temperature as required under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section must automatically adjust the temperature of the water supplied by the boiler to ensure that an incremental change in inferred heat load produces a corresponding incremental change in the temperature of water supplied.
</P>
<P>(B) For boilers that fire at a single input rate, the automatic means for adjusting water temperature requirement may be satisfied by providing an automatic means that allows the burner or heating element to fire only when the means has determined that the inferred heat load cannot be met by the residual heat of the water in the system.
</P>
<P>(C) When there is no inferred heat load with respect to a hot water boiler, the automatic means described in this paragraph shall limit the temperature of the water in the boiler to not more than 140 degrees Fahrenheit.
</P>
<P>(D) A boiler for which an automatic means for adjusting water temperature is required shall be operable only when the automatic means is installed.
</P>
<P>(v) A boiler that is manufactured to operate without any need for electricity or any electric connection, electric gauges, electric pumps, electric wires, or electric devices is not required to meet the AFUE or design requirements applicable to the boiler requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, but must meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, as applicable.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dishwashers.</I> (1) All dishwashers manufactured on or after May 30, 2013, shall meet the following standard—
</P>
<P>(i) Standard size dishwashers shall not exceed 307 kwh/year and 5.0 gallons per cycle. Standard size dishwashers have a capacity equal to or greater than eight place settings plus six serving pieces as specified in AHAM DW-1-2020 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) using the test load specified in section 2.3 of appendix C1 or section 2.4 of appendix C2 to subpart B of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compact size dishwashers shall not exceed 222 kwh/year and 3.5 gallons per cycle. Compact size dishwashers have a capacity less than eight place settings plus six serving pieces as specified in AHAM DW-1-2020 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) using the test load specified in section 2.3 of appendix C1 or section 2.4 of appendix C2 to subpart B of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) All dishwashers manufactured on or after April 23, 2027, shall not exceed the following standard—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated annual energy use


<br/>(kWh/year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum


<br/>per-cycle water consumption

<br/>(gal/cycle)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Standard-size 
<sup>1</sup> (≥8 place settings plus 6 serving pieces) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">223</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Compact-size (&lt;8 place settings plus 6 serving pieces) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">174</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The energy conservation standards in this table do not apply to standard-size dishwashers with a cycle time for the normal cycle of 60 minutes or less.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Place settings are as specified in AHAM DW-1-2020 (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3) and the test load is as specified in section 2.4 of appendix C2 to subpart B of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The provisions of paragraph (f)(2) of this section are separate and severable from one another. Should a court of competent jurisdiction hold any provision(s) of this section to be stayed or invalid, such action shall not affect any other provision of this section.




</P>
<P>(g) <I>Clothes washers.</I> (1) Clothes washers manufactured on or after January 1, 2018, shall have an Integrated Modified Energy Factor no less than, and an Integrated Water Factor no greater than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Integrated
<br/>modified
<br/>energy factor

<br/>(cu.ft./kWh/cycle)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Integrated
<br/>water factor
<br/>(gal/cycle/cu.ft.)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Top-loading, Compact (less than 1.6 ft
<sup>3</sup> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Top-loading, Standard (1.6 ft
<sup>3</sup> or greater capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Front-loading, Compact (less than 1.6 ft
<sup>3</sup> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Front-loading, Standard (1.6 ft
<sup>3</sup> or greater capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.7</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Clothes washers manufactured on or after March 1, 2028:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall have an Energy Efficiency Ratio and a Water Efficiency Ratio no less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Energy efficiency ratio
<br/>(lb/kWh/cycle)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water efficiency ratio
<br/>(lb/gal/cycle)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Automatic Clothes Washers:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(<E T="03">1</E>) Top-Loading Ultra-Compact (less than 1.6 ft
<sup>3</sup> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(<E T="03">2</E>) Top-Loading Standard-Size (1.6 ft
<sup>3</sup> or greater capacity) 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(<E T="03">3</E>) Front-Loading Compact (less than 3.0 ft
<sup>3</sup> capacity) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.71
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(<E T="03">4</E>) Front-Loading Standard-Size (3.0 ft
<sup>3</sup> or greater capacity) 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.77
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Semi-Automatic Clothes Washers</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The energy conservation standards in this table do not apply to top-loading standard-size clothes washers with an average cycle time less than 30 minutes.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The energy conservation standards in this table do not apply to front-loading clothes washers with a capacity greater than or equal to 1.6 ft
<sup>3</sup> and less than 3.0 ft
<sup>3</sup> with an average cycle time of less than 45 minutes.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The energy conservation standards in this table do not apply to front-loading standard-size clothes washers with an average cycle time less than 45 minutes.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (g)(2) are separate and severable from one another. Should a court of competent jurisdiction hold any provision(s) of this section to be stayed or invalid, such action shall not affect any other provisions of this section.






</P>
<P>(h) <I>Clothes dryers.</I> (1) Gas clothes dryers manufactured after January 1, 1988 shall not be equipped with a constant burning pilot.
</P>
<P>(2) Clothes dryers manufactured on or after May 14, 1994 and before January 1, 2015, shall have an energy factor no less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Energy
<br/>factor
<br/>(lbs/kWh)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">i. Electric, Standard (4.4 ft
<sup>3</sup> or greater capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ii. Electric, Compact (120V) (less than 4.4 ft
<sup>3</sup> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">iii. Electric, Compact (240V) (less than 4.4 ft
<sup>3</sup> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">iv. Gas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.67</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Clothes dryers manufactured on or after January 1, 2015, shall have a combined energy factor no less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combined energy factor
<br/>(lbs/kWh)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Vented Electric, Standard (4.4 ft 
<sup>3</sup> or greater capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Vented Electric, Compact (120V) (less than 4.4 ft 
<sup>3</sup> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Vented Electric, Compact (240V) (less than 4.4 ft 
<sup>3</sup> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Vented Gas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Ventless Electric, Compact (240V) (less than 4.4 ft 
<sup>3</sup> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) Ventless Electric, Combination Washer-Dryer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.08</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Clothes dryers manufactured on or after March 1, 2028, shall have a combined energy factor, determined in accordance with appendix D2 of this subpart, no less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CEF<E T="0732">D2</E>
<br/>(lb/kWh)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Electric, Standard (4.4 ft<E T="0731">3</E> or greater capacity) *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.93
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Electric, Compact (120V) (less than 4.4 ft<E T="0731">3</E> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Vented Electric, Compact (240V) (less than 4.4 ft<E T="0731">3</E> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Vented Gas, Standard (4.4 ft<E T="0731">3</E> or greater capacity) **</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Vented Gas, Compact (less than 4.4 ft<E T="0731">3</E> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) Ventless Electric, Compact (240V) (less than 4.4 ft<E T="0731">3</E> capacity)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vii) Ventless Electric, Combination Washer-Dryer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.33
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* The energy conservation standards in this product class do not apply to Vented Electric, Standard clothes dryers with a cycle time of less than 30 minutes, when tested according to appendix D2 in subpart B of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** The energy conservation standards in this product class do not apply to Vented Gas, Standard clothes dryers with a cycle time of less than 30 minutes, when tested according to appendix D2 in subpart B of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>Direct heating equipment.</I> (1) Vented home heating equipment manufactured on or after January 1, 1990 and before April 16, 2013, shall have an annual fuel utilization efficiency no less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual fuel utilization efficiency, Jan. 1, 1990 (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Gas wall fan type up to 42,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Gas wall fan type over 42,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Gas wall gravity type up to 10,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Gas wall gravity type over 10,000 Btu/h up to 12, 000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Gas wall gravity type over 12,000 Btu/h up to 15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Gas wall gravity type over 15,000 Btu/h up to 19,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Gas wall gravity type over 19,000 Btu/h and up to 27,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Gas wall gravity type over 27,000 Btu/h and up to 46,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Gas wall gravity type over 46,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Gas floor up to 37,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Gas floor over 37,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Gas room up to 18,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. Gas room over 18,000 Btu/h up to 20,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. Gas room over 20,000 Btu/h up to 27,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. Gas room over 27,000 Btu/h up to 46,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. Gas room over 46,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Vented home heating equipment manufactured on or after April 16, 2013, shall have an annual fuel utilization efficiency no less than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual fuel utilization efficiency, April 16, 2013 (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas wall fan type up to 42,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas wall fan type over 42,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas wall gravity type up to 27,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas wall gravity type over 27,000 Btu/h up to 46,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas wall gravity type over 46,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas floor up to 37,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas floor over 37,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas room up to 20,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas room over 20,000 Btu/h up to 27,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas room over 27,000 Btu/h up to 46,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas room over 46,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(j) <I>Cooking Products</I> (1) <I>Conventional cooking tops.</I> (i) Gas cooking tops, other than gas portable indoor conventional cooking tops, manufactured on or after April 9, 2012, and before January 31, 2028, shall not be equipped with a constant burning pilot light.


</P>
<P>(ii) Gas portable indoor conventional cooking tops, manufactured on or after April 9, 2012, shall not be equipped with a constant burning pilot light.
</P>
<P>(iii) Conventional cooking tops, other than portable indoor conventional cooking tops, manufactured on or after January 31, 2028, shall have an integrated annual energy consumption (IAEC), excluding any downdraft venting system energy consumption, no greater than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum integrated annual energy consumption


<br/>(IAEC)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Electric Smooth Element Standalone Cooking Tops</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">207 kWh/year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Electric Smooth Element Cooking Top Component of Combined Cooking Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">207 kWh/year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Gas Standalone Cooking Tops</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770 kBtu/year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Gas Cooking Top Component of Combined Cooking Products</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,770 kBtu/year.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Conventional ovens.</I> The control system of a conventional oven shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Not be equipped with a constant burning pilot light, for gas ovens manufactured on or after April 9, 2012; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Not be equipped with a linear power supply, for electric and gas ovens manufactured on or after January 31, 2028.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Microwave ovens.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Microwave-only ovens and countertop convection microwave ovens manufactured on or after June 17, 2016, and before June 22, 2026, shall have an average standby power not more than 1.0 watt. Built-in and over-the-range convection microwave ovens manufactured on or after June 17, 2016, and before June 22, 2026, shall have an average standby power not more than 2.2 watts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Microwave-only ovens and countertop convection microwave ovens manufactured on or after June 22, 2026, shall have an average standby power not more than 0.6 watts. Built-in and over-the-range convection microwave ovens manufactured on or after June 22, 2026, shall have an average standby power not more than 1.0 watt.


</P>
<P>(k) <I>Pool heaters.</I> (1) Gas-fired pool heaters manufactured on and after April 16, 2013 and before May 30, 2028, shall have a thermal efficiency not less than 82%.
</P>
<P>(2) Gas-fired pool heaters and electric pool heaters manufactured on and after May 30, 2028, shall have an integrated thermal efficiency not less than the following:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30my23.008.gif"/>
<FP-2>where Q<E T="52">IN</E> is the certified input capacity of a gas-fired pool heater basic model, in Btu/h, and PE is the certified active electrical power of an electric pool heater, in Btu/h.




</FP-2>
<P>(l) <I>Television sets.</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Fluorescent lamp ballasts</I>—(1) <I>Standards for fluorescent lamp ballasts (other than dimming ballasts).</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (m)(2) and (3) of this section, each fluorescent lamp ballast manufactured on or after November 14, 2014,
</P>
<P>(i) Designed and marketed—
</P>
<P>(A) To operate at nominal input voltages at or between 120 and 277 volts;
</P>
<P>(B) To operate with an input current frequency of 60 Hertz; and
</P>
<P>(C) For use in connection with fluorescent lamps (as defined in § 430.2)
</P>
<P>(ii) Must have—
</P>
<P>(A) A power factor of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 0.9 or greater for ballasts that are not residential ballasts; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 0.5 or greater for residential ballasts; and
</P>
<P>(B) A ballast luminous efficiency not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">BLE = A/(1 + B × average total lamp arc power ^ −C) Where A, B, and C are as follows:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Instant start and rapid start ballasts (not classified as residential ballasts) that are designed and marketed to operate:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-foot medium bipin lamps;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2-foot U-shaped lamps; or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8-foot slimline lamps.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Programmed start ballasts (not classified as residential ballasts) that are designed and marketed to operate:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-foot medium bipin lamps;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2-foot U-shaped lamps;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-foot miniature bipin standard output lamps; or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-foot miniature bipin high output lamps.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Instant start and rapid start ballasts (not classified as sign ballasts) that are designed and marketed to operate 8-foot high output lamps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Programmed start ballasts (not classified as sign ballasts) that are designed and marketed to operate 8-foot high output lamps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.973</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sign ballasts that are designed and marketed to operate 8-foot high output lamps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Instant start and rapid start residential ballasts that are designed and marketed to operate:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-foot medium bipin lamps;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2-foot U-shaped lamps; or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8-foot slimline lamps.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Programmed start residential ballasts that are designed and marketed to operate:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-foot medium bipin lamps or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.973</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2-foot U-shaped lamps.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Standards for certain dimming ballasts.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (m)(3) of this section, each dimming ballast manufactured on or after November 14, 2014; designed and marketed to operate one F34T12, two F34T12, two F96T12/ES, or two F96T12HO/ES lamps; and
</P>
<P>(i) Designed and marketed—
</P>
<P>(A) To operate at nominal input voltages at or between 120 and 277 volts;
</P>
<P>(B) To operate with an input current frequency of 60 Hertz; and
</P>
<P>(C) For use in connection with fluorescent lamps (as defined in § 430.2)
</P>
<P>(ii) Must have—
</P>
<P>(A) A power factor of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 0.9 or greater for ballasts that are not residential ballasts; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 0.5 or greater for residential ballasts; and
</P>
<P>(B) A ballast luminous efficiency not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Designed and marketed for operation of a maximum of
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Nominal input
<br/>voltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Total nominal lamp watts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Ballast luminous efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Low frequency ballasts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">High frequency ballasts
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One F34T12 lamp</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120/277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.777</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.778
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two F34T12 lamps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120/277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.804</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.805
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two F96T12/ES lamps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120/277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.876</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.884
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two F96T12HO/ES lamps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120/277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.711</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.713</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Exemptions.</I> The power factor and ballast luminous efficiency standards described in paragraph (m)(1)(ii) and (m)(2)(ii) of this section do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) A dimming ballast designed and marketed to operate exclusively lamp types other than one F34T12, two F34T12, two F96T12/ES, or two F96T12HO/ES lamps;
</P>
<P>(ii) A low frequency ballast that is designed and marketed to operate T8 diameter lamps; is designed and marketed for use in electromagnetic-interference-sensitive-environments only; and is shipped by the manufacturer in packages containing 10 or fewer ballasts; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A programmed start ballast that operates 4-foot medium bipin T8 lamps and delivers on average less than 140 milliamperes to each lamp.
</P>
<P>(4) For the purposes of this paragraph (m), the definitions found in appendix Q of subpart B of this part apply.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>General service fluorescent lamps and incandescent reflector lamps.</I> (1) Each of the following general service fluorescent lamps manufactured after the effective dates specified in the table must meet or exceed the following color rendering index standards:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal lamp watts *
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum color rendering index
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Effective date
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4-foot medium bipin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;35 W
<br/>≤35 W</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
<br/>45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nov. 1, 1995.
<br/>Nov. 1, 1995.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 2-foot U-shaped</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;35 W
<br/>≤35 W</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
<br/>45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nov. 1, 1995.
<br/>Nov. 1, 1995.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 8-foot slimline</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;65 W
<br/>≤65 W</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
<br/>45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 1994.
<br/>May 1, 1994.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 8-foot high output</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;100 W
<br/>≤100 W</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69
<br/>45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 1994.
<br/>May 1, 1994.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Nominal lamp watts means the wattage at which a fluorescent lamp is designed to operate. 42 U.S.C. 6291(29)(H)</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The standards described in paragraph (n)(1) of this section do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any 4-foot medium bipin lamp or 2-foot U-shaped lamp with a rated wattage less than 28 watts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any 8-foot high output lamp not defined in ANSI C78.81-2010 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) or related supplements, or not 0.800 nominal amperes; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any 8-foot slimline lamp not defined in ANSI C78.3 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
</P>
<P>(3) Each of the following general service fluorescent lamps manufactured on or after January 26, 2018, must meet or exceed the following lamp efficacy standards shown in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Correlated color
<br/>temperature
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>average lamp
<br/>efficacy
<br/>lm/W
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 4-foot medium bipin lamps (straight-shaped lamp with medium bipin base, nominal overall length of 48 inches, and rated wattage of 25 or more)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤4,500K
<br/>&gt;4,500K and ≤7,000K</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
<br/>88.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 2-foot U-shaped lamps (U-shaped lamp with medium bipin base, nominal overall length between 22 and 25 inches, and rated wattage of 25 or more)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤4,500K
<br/>&gt;4,500K and ≤7,000K</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.0
<br/>83.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) 8-foot slimline lamps (instant start lamp with single pin base, nominal overall length of 96 inches, and rated wattage of 49 or more)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤4,500K
<br/>&gt;4,500K and ≤7,000K</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.0
<br/>93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) 8-foot high output lamps (rapid start lamp with recessed double contact base, nominal overall length of 96 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤4,500K
<br/>&gt;4,500K and ≤7,000K</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.0
<br/>88.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) 4-foot miniature bipin standard output lamps (straight-shaped lamp with miniature bipin base, nominal overall length between 45 and 48 inches, and rated wattage of 25 or more)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤4,500K
<br/>&gt;4,500K and ≤7,000K</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
<br/>89.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(vi) 4-foot miniature bipin high output lamps (straight-shaped lamp with miniature bipin base, nominal overall length between 45 and 48 inches, and rated wattage of 44 or more)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤4,500K
<br/>&gt;4,500K and ≤7,000K</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.7
<br/>76.9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>For paragraphs (n)(3)(i) through (vi), rated wattage is defined with respect to fluorescent lamps and general service fluorescent lamps in § 430.2.</P></NOTE>
<P>(4) Subject to the sales prohibition in paragraph (dd) of this section, each of the following incandescent reflector lamps manufactured after July 14, 2012, must meet or exceed the lamp efficacy standards shown in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated wattage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp spectrum
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp diameter inches
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated voltage of lamp
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>average lamp
<br/>efficacy
<br/>lm/W
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 40-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standard Spectrum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥125 V
<br/>&lt;125 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8*P
<sup>0.27</sup>
<br/>5.9*P
<sup>0.27</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥125 V
<br/>&lt;125 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7*P
<sup>0.27</sup>
<br/>5.0*P
<sup>0.27</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 40-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Modified Spectrum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥125 V
<br/>&lt;125 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8*P
<sup>0.27</sup>
<br/>5.0*P
<sup>0.27</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥125 V
<br/>&lt;125 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9*P
<sup>0.27</sup>
<br/>4.2*P
<sup>0.27</sup></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>P is equal to the rated wattage, in watts. Rated wattage is defined with respect to incandescent reflector lamps in § 430.2.</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3 to paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)(4):</HED>
<P>Standard Spectrum means any incandescent reflector lamp that does not meet the definition of modified spectrum in § 430.2.</P></NOTE>
<P>(5) The standards specified in this section do not apply to the following types of incandescent reflector lamps:
</P>
<P>(i) Lamps rated at 50 watts or less that are ER30, BR30, BR40, or ER40 lamps;
</P>
<P>(ii) Lamps rated at 65 watts that are BR30, BR40, or ER40 lamps; or
</P>
<P>(iii) R20 incandescent reflector lamps rated 45 watts or less.


</P>
<P>(o) <I>Faucets.</I> The maximum water use allowed for any of the following faucets manufactured after January 1, 1994, when measured at a flowing water pressure of 60 pounds per square inch (414 kilopascals), shall be as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Faucet type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum flow rate
<br/>(gpm (L/min)) or (gal/cycle (L/cycle))
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavatory faucets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 gpm (8.3 L/min) 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lavatory replacement aerators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 gpm (8.3 L/min)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kitchen faucets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 gpm (8.3 L/min)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kitchen replacement aerators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 gpm (8.3 L/min)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Metering faucets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 gal/cycle (0.95 L/cycle) 
<sup>3 4</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Sprayheads with independently-controlled orifices and manual controls.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">The maximum flow rate of each orifice that manually turns on or off shall not exceed the maximum flow rate for a lavatory faucet.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Sprayheads with collectively controlled orifices and manual controls.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">The maximum flow rate of a sprayhead that manually turns on or off shall be the product of (a) the maximum flow rate for a lavatory faucet and (b) the number of component lavatories (rim space of the lavatory in inches (millimeters) divided by 20 inches (508 millimeters)).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Sprayheads with independently controlled orifices and metered controls.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">The maximum flow rate of each orifice that delivers a pre-set volume of water before gradually shutting itself off shall not exceed the maximum flow rate for a metering faucet.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Sprayheads with collectively-controlled orifices and metered controls.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">The maximum flow rate of a sprayhead that delivers a pre-set volume of water before gradually shutting itself off shall be the product of (a) the maximum flow rate for a metering faucet and (b) the number of component lavatories (rim space of the lavatory in inches (millimeters) divided by 20 inches (508 millimeters)).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(p) <I>Showerheads.</I> The maximum water use allowed for any showerheads manufactured after January 1, 1994, shall be 2.5 gallons per minute (9.5 liters per minute) when measured at a flowing pressure of 80 pounds per square inch gage (552 kilopascals). When used as a component of any such showerhead, the flow-restricting insert shall be mechanically retained at the point of manufacture such that a force of 8.0 pounds force (36 Newtons) or more is required to remove the flow-restricting insert, except that this requirement shall not apply to showerheads for which removal of the flow-restricting insert would cause water to leak significantly from areas other than the spray face.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Water closets.</I> The maximum water use allowed in gallons per flush for any of the following water closets is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Water closet type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Maximum flush rate
<br/>(gpf (Lpf))
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Manufactured after January 1, 1994
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Manufactured after January 1, 1997
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Gravity flush tank water closet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 (6.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 (6.0)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Flushometer tank water closet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 (6.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 (6.0)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Electromechanical hydraulic water closet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 (6.0)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 (6.0)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Blowout bowl water closet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 (13.2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 (13.2)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Flushometer valve water closets, other than those with blowout bowls</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 (6.0)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(r) <I>Urinals.</I> The maximum water use allowed for any urinals manufactured after January 1, 1994, shall be 1.0 gallons per flush (3.8 liters per flush). The maximum water use allowed for a trough-type urinal shall be the product of:
</P>
<P>(1) The maximum flow rate for a urinal and
</P>
<P>(2) The length of the trough-type urinal in inches (millimeter) divided by 16 inches (406 millimeters).
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Ceiling fans and ceiling fan light kits.</I> (1) All ceiling fans manufactured on or after January 1, 2007, shall have the following features:
</P>
<P>(i) Fan speed controls separate from any lighting controls;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustable speed controls (either more than 1 speed or variable speed);
</P>
<P>(iii) The capability of reversible fan action, except for—
</P>
<P>(A) Fans sold for industrial applications;
</P>
<P>(B) Fans sold for outdoor applications; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Cases in which safety standards would be violated by the use of the reversible mode.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Ceiling fans manufactured on or after January 21, 2020, shall meet the requirements shows in the table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class as
<br/>defined in Appendix U
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>efficiency
<br/>(CFM/W) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Very small-diameter (VSD)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D ≤ 12 in.: 21.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D &gt; 12 in.: 3.16 D-17.04.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.65 D + 38.03.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hugger</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29 D + 34.46.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High-speed small-diameter (HSSD)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.16 D + 0.02.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> D is the ceiling fan's blade span, in inches, as determined in Appendix U of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Large-diameter ceiling fans, as defined in appendix U to subpart B of this part, manufactured on or after January 21, 2020, shall have a CFEI greater than or equal to -
</P>
<P>(A) 1.00 at high speed; and
</P>
<P>(B) 1.31 at 40 percent speed or the nearest speed that is not less than 40 percent speed.
</P>
<P>(iii) The provisions in this appendix apply to ceiling fans except:
</P>
<P>(A) Ceiling fans where the plane of rotation of a ceiling fan's blades is not less than or equal to 45 degrees from horizontal, or cannot be adjusted based on the manufacturer's specifications to be less than or equal to 45 degrees from horizontal;
</P>
<P>(B) Centrifugal ceiling fans, as defined in Appendix U of this part;
</P>
<P>(C) Belt-driven ceiling fans, as defined in Appendix U of this part;
</P>
<P>(D) Oscillating ceiling fans, as defined in Appendix U of this part; and
</P>
<P>(E) Highly-decorative ceiling fans, as defined in Appendix U of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Ceiling fan light kits manufactured on or after January 1, 2007, and prior to January 21, 2020, with medium screw base sockets must be packaged with medium screw base lamps to fill all sockets. These medium screw base lamps must—
</P>
<P>(i) Be compact fluorescent lamps that meet or exceed the following requirements or be as described in paragraph (s)(3)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rated Wattage (Watts) &amp; Configuration 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Initial Lamp Efficacy (lumens per watt) 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Bare Lamp:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lamp Power &lt;15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lamp Power ≥15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Covered Lamp (no reflector):</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lamp Power &lt;15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">15≤Lamp Power &lt;19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">48.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">19≤Lamp Power &lt;25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lamp Power ≥25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">With Reflector:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lamp Power &lt;20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lamp Power ≥20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lumen Maintenance at 1,000 hours</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 90.0%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lumen Maintenance at 40 Percent of Lifetime</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 80.0%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rapid Cycle Stress Test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each lamp must be cycled once for every 2 hours of lifetime. At least 5 lamps must meet or exceed the minimum number of cycles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lifetime</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 6,000 hours for the sample of lamps.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use rated wattage to determine the appropriate minimum efficacy requirements in this table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Calculate efficacy using measured wattage, rather than rated wattage, and measured lumens to determine product compliance. Wattage and lumen values indicated on products or packaging may not be used in calculation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Be light sources other than compact fluorescent lamps that have lumens per watt performance at least equivalent to comparably configured compact fluorescent lamps meeting the energy conservation standards in paragraph (s)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Ceiling fan light kits manufactured on or after January 1, 2007, and prior January 21, 2020, with pin-based sockets for fluorescent lamps must use an electronic ballast and be packaged with lamps to fill all sockets. These lamp ballast platforms must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Requirement
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">System Efficacy Per Lamp Ballast Platform in Lumens Per Watt (lm/w)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥50 lm/w for all lamps below 30 total listed lamp watts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥60 lm/w for all lamps that are ≤ 24 inches and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥30 total listed lamp watts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥70 lm/w for all lamps that are &gt; 24 inches and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥30 total listed lamp watts.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) Ceiling fan light kits manufactured on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to January 21, 2020, with socket types other than those covered in paragraph (s)(3) or (4) of this section, including candelabra screw base sockets, must be packaged with lamps to fill all sockets and must not be capable of operating with lamps that total more than 190 watts.


</P>
<P>(6) Ceiling fan light kits manufactured on or after January 21, 2020 must be packaged with lamps to fill all sockets, and each basic model of lamp packaged with the basic model of CFLK, each basic model of consumer-replaceable SSL packaged with the basic model of CFLK, and each basic model of non-consumer-replaceable SSL in the CFLK basic model shall meet the requirements shown in paragraphs (s)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lumens 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum required efficacy
<br/>(lm/W)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) &lt;120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) ≥120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(74.0−29.42 × 0.9983
<sup>lumens</sup>).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use the lumen output for each basic model of lamp packaged with the basic model of CFLK, each basic model of consumer-replaceable SSL packaged with the basic model of CFLK, or each basic model of non-consumer-replaceable SSL in the CFLK basic model to determine the applicable standard.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) Ceiling fan light kits with medium screw base sockets manufactured on or after January 21, 2020 and packaged with compact fluorescent lamps must include lamps that also meet the following requirements:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lumen Maintenance at 1,000 hours</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥90.0%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lumen Maintenance at 40 Percent of Lifetime</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥80.0%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rapid Cycle Stress Test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Each lamp must be cycled once for every 2 hours of lifetime of compact fluorescent lamp as defined in § 430.2. At least 5 lamps must meet or exceed the minimum number of cycles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lifetime</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥6,000 hours for the sample of lamps.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Ceiling fan light kits with pin based sockets for fluorescent lamps, manufactured on or after January 21, 2020, must also use an electronic ballast.


</P>
<P>(t) <I>Torchieres.</I> A torchiere manufactured on or after January 1, 2006 shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Consume not more than 190 watts of power; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not be capable of operating with lamps that total more than 190 watts.
</P>
<P>(u) [Reserved]




</P>
<P>(v) <I>Dehumidifiers.</I> (1) Dehumidifiers manufactured on or after October 1, 2012, shall have an energy factor that meets or exceeds the following values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product capacity (pints/day)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum energy factor (liters/kWh)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Up to 35.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35.01-45.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45.01-54.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">54.01-75.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75.01 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Dehumidifiers manufactured on or after June 13, 2019, shall have an integrated energy factor that meets or exceeds the following values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Portable dehumidifier product capacity
<br/>(pints/day)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>integrated
<br/>energy factor
<br/>(liters/kWh)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.00 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.01-50.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50.01 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole-home dehumidifier product case volume (cubic feet)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.0 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.77
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">More than 8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.41</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(w) <I>External power supplies.</I> (1)(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (w)(2) and (5) of this section, all class A external power supplies manufactured on or after July 1, 2008, shall meet the following standards:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Active mode
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nameplate output
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required efficiency (decimal equivalent of a percentage)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1 watt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 times the Nameplate output.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 1 watt to not more than 51 watts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The sum of 0.09 times the Natural Logarithm of the Nameplate Output and 0.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 51 watts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">No-load mode
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nameplate output</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum consumption
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Not more than 250 watts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 watts.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (w)(5), (w)(6), and (w)(7) of this section, all direct operation external power supplies manufactured on or after February 10, 2016, shall meet the following standards:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10fe14.042.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10fe14.043.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraphs (w)(5), (w)(6), and (w)(7) of this section, all external power supplies manufactured on or after February 10, 2016, shall meet the following standards:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class A EPS
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-Class A EPS
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Operation EPS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Level VI: 10 CFR 430.32(w)(1)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Level VI: 10 CFR 430.32(w)(1)(ii).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indirect Operation EPS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Level IV: 10 CFR 430.32(w)(1)(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Standards.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) A basic model of external power supply is not subject to the energy conservation standards of paragraph (w)(1)(ii) of this section if the external power supply—
</P>
<P>(i) Is manufactured during the period beginning on February 10, 2016, and ending on February 10, 2020;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is marked in accordance with the External Power Supply International Efficiency Marking Protocol, as in effect on February 10, 2016;
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets, where applicable, the standards under paragraph (w)(1)(i) of this section, and has been certified to the Secretary as meeting those standards; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is made available by the manufacturer only as a service part or a spare part for an end-use product that—
</P>
<P>(A) Constitutes the primary load; and
</P>
<P>(B) Was manufactured before February 10, 2016.
</P>
<P>(3) The standards described in paragraph (w)(1) of this section shall not constitute an energy conservation standard for the separate end-use product to which the external power supply is connected.
</P>
<P>(4) Any external power supply subject to the standards in paragraph (w)(1) of this section shall be clearly and permanently marked in accordance with the International Efficiency Marking Protocol for External Power Supplies (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), published by the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Non-application of no-load mode requirements.</I> The no-load mode energy efficiency standards established in paragraph (w)(1) of this section shall not apply to an external power supply that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is an AC-to-AC external power supply;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a nameplate output of 20 watts or more;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is certified to the Secretary as being designed to be connected to a security or life safety alarm or surveillance system component; and
</P>
<P>(iv) On establishment within the External Power Supply International Efficiency Marking Protocol, as referenced in the “Energy Star Program Requirements for Single Voltage External Ac-Dc and Ac-Ac Power Supplies” (incorporated by reference, see § 430.3), published by the Environmental Protection Agency, of a distinguishing mark for products described in this clause, is permanently marked with the distinguishing mark.
</P>
<P>(6) An external power supply shall not be subject to the standards in paragraph (w)(1) of this section if it is a device that requires Federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) listing and approval as a medical device in accordance with section 513 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360(c)).
</P>
<P>(7) A direct operation, AC-DC external power supply with nameplate output voltage less than 3 volts and nameplate output current greater than or equal to 1,000 milliamps that charges the battery of a product that is fully or primarily motor operated shall not be subject to the standards in paragraph (w)(1)(ii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(x) <I>Intermediate base incandescent lamps and candelabra base incandescent lamps.</I> (1) Subject to the sales prohibition in paragraph (dd) of this section, each candelabra base incandescent lamp shall not exceed 60 rated watts.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the sales prohibition in paragraph (dd) of this section, each intermediate base incandescent lamp shall not exceed 40 rated watts.




</P>
<P>(y) <I>Residential furnace fans.</I> Residential furnace fans incorporated in the products listed in Table 1 of this paragraph and manufactured on and after July 3, 2019, shall have a fan energy rating (FER) value that meets or is less than the following values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Energy Conservation Standards for Covered Residential Furnace Fans*
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FER ** (Watts/1000 cfm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-Weatherized, Non-Condensing Gas Furnace Fan (NWG-NC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FER = 0.044 × Q<E T="52">Max</E> + 182
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-Weatherized, Condensing Gas Furnace Fan (NWG-C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FER = 0.044 × Q<E T="52">Max</E> + 195
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weatherized Non-Condensing Gas Furnace Fan (WG-NC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FER = 0.044 × Q<E T="52">Max</E> + 199
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-Weatherized, Non-Condensing Oil Furnace Fan (NWO-NC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FER = 0.071 × Q<E T="52">Max</E> + 382
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-Weatherized Electric Furnace/Modular Blower Fan (NWEF/NWMB)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FER = 0.044 × Q<E T="52">Max</E> + 165
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mobile Home Non-Weatherized, Non-Condensing Gas Furnace Fan (MH-NWG-NC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FER = 0.071 × Q<E T="52">Max</E> + 222
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mobile Home Non-Weatherized, Condensing Gas Furnace Fan (MH-NWG-C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FER = 0.071 × Q<E T="52">Max</E> + 240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mobile Home Electric Furnace/Modular Blower Fan (MH-EF/MB)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FER = 0.044 × Q<E T="52">Max</E> + 101
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mobile Home Non-Weatherized Oil Furnace Fan (MH-NWO)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mobile Home Weatherized Gas Furnace Fan (MH-WG) **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Furnace fans incorporated into hydronic air handlers, SDHV modular blowers, SDHV electric furnaces, and CAC/HP indoor units are not subject to the standards listed in this table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** Q<E T="52">Max</E> is the airflow, in cfm, at the maximum airflow-control setting measured using the final DOE test procedure at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, appendix AA.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(z) <I>Battery chargers.</I> (1) Battery chargers manufactured on or after June 13, 2018, must have a unit energy consumption (UEC) less than or equal to the prescribed “Maximum UEC” standard when using the equations for the appropriate product class and corresponding rated battery energy as shown in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated battery energy (Ebatt **)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Special characteristic or battery voltage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum UEC (kWh/yr)
<br/>(as a function of Ebatt **)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤5 Wh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Inductive Connection *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Energy, Low-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;100 Wh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;4 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1440 * E<E T="52">batt</E> + 2.95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Energy, Medium-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4-10 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For E<E T="52">batt</E> &lt;10 Wh,
<br/>1.42 kWh/y
<br/>E<E T="52">batt</E> ≥10 Wh,
<br/>0.0255 * E<E T="52">batt</E> + 1.16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Energy, High-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;10 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11 * E<E T="52">batt</E> + 3.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium-Energy, Low-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100-3000 Wh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;20 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0257 * E<E T="52">batt</E> + .815
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium-Energy, High-Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥20 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0778 * E<E T="52">batt</E> + 2.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High-Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;3000 Wh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0502 * E<E T="52">batt</E> + 4.53
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Inductive connection and designed for use in a wet environment (<E T="03">e.g.</E> electric toothbrushes).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** E<E T="52">batt</E> = Rated battery energy as determined in 10 CFR part 429.39(a).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) A battery charger shall not be subject to the standards in paragraph (z)(1) of this section if it is a device that requires Federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) listing and approval as a life-sustaining or life-supporting device in accordance with section 513 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360(c)).
</P>
<P>(3) All uninterruptible power supplies (UPS) manufactured on and after January 10, 2022, that utilize a NEMA 1-15P or 5-15P input plug and have an AC output shall have an average load adjusted efficiency that meets or exceeds the values shown in the table in this paragraph (z)(3) based on the rated output power (P<E T="52">rated</E>) of the UPS.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Battery charger product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated output power
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10a (VFD UPSs)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 <E T="03">W &lt; P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> ≤ 300 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.20E-06 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 7.17E-04 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.862.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 <E T="03">W &lt; P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> ≤ 700 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−7.85E-08 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 1.01E-04 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.946.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> &gt; 700 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−7.23E-09 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 7.52E-06 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.977.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10b (VI UPSs)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 <E T="03">W &lt; P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> ≤ 300 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.20E-06 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 7.19E-04 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.863.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 <E T="03">W &lt; P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> ≤ 700 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−7.67E-08 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 1.05E-04 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.947.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> &gt; 700 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−4.62E-09 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 8.54E-06 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.979.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10c (VFI UPSs)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 <E T="03">W &lt; P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> ≤ 300 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−3.13E-06 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 1.96E-03 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.543.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 <E T="03">W &lt; P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> ≤ 700 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−2.60E-07 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 3.65E-04 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.764.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> &gt; 700 <E T="03">W</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.70E-08 * <E T="03">P</E> <E T="0731">2</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 3.85E-05 * <E T="03">P</E><E T="0732">rated</E> + 0.876.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(aa) <I>Miscellaneous refrigeration products.</I> The energy standards as determined by the equations of the following table(s) shall be rounded off to the nearest kWh per year. If the equation calculation is halfway between the nearest two kWh per year values, the standard shall be rounded up to the higher of these values.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Coolers.</I> (i) Coolers manufactured on or after October 28, 2019, and before January 31, 2029, shall have an Annual Energy Use (AEU) no more than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AEU
<br/>(kWh/yr)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Freestanding compact.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.88AV + 155.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Freestanding.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.88AV + 155.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Built-in compact.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.88AV + 155.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Built-in.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.88AV + 155.8
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> AV = Total adjusted volume, expressed in ft
<sup>3</sup>, as determined in appendix A to subpart B of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Coolers manufactured on or after January 31, 2029, shall have an Annual Energy Use (AEU) no more than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AEU
<br/>(kWh/yr)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Freestanding compact.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52AV + 109.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Freestanding.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52AV + 109.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Built-in compact.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52AV + 109.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) Built-in.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.30AV + 124.6
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> AV = Total adjusted volume, expressed in ft
<sup>3</sup>, as determined in appendix A to subpart B of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Combination cooler refrigeration products.</I> (i) Combination cooler refrigeration products manufactured on or after October 28, 2019, and before January 31, 2029, shall have an Annual Energy Use (AEU) no more than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AEU
<br/>(kWh/yr)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) C-3A. Cooler with all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.57AV + 130.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) C-3A-BI. Built-in cooler with all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.19AV + 147.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) C-9. Cooler with upright freezer with automatic defrost without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.58AV + 147.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) C-9-BI. Built-in cooler with upright freezer with automatic defrost without an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.38AV + 168.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(E) C-9I. Cooler with upright freezer with automatic defrost with an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.58AV + 231.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(F) C-9I-BI. Built-in cooler with upright freezer with automatic defrost with an automatic icemaker</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.38AV + 252.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(G) C-13A. Compact cooler with all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.93AV + 193.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(H) C-13A-BI. Built-in compact cooler with all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.52AV + 213.1
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> AV = Total adjusted volume, expressed in ft
<sup>3</sup>, as determined in appendix A to subpart B of this part.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Combination cooler refrigeration products manufactured on or after January 31, 2029, shall have an Annual Energy Use (AEU) no more than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">AEU


<br/>(kWh/yr)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-3A. Cooler with all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.11AV + 117.4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-3A-BI. Built-in cooler with all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.67AV + 133.0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-5-BI. Built-in cooler with refrigerator-freezer with automatic defrost with bottom-mounted freezer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.47AV + 196.2 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-9. Cooler with upright freezer with automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.58AV + 147.7 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-9-BI. Built-in cooler with upright freezer with automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.38AV + 168.8 + 28I.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-13A. Compact cooler with all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.74AV + 155.0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-13A-BI. Built-in compact cooler with all-refrigerator—automatic defrost</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.22AV + 170.5.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">AV = Total adjusted volume, expressed in ft
<sup>3</sup>, as determined in appendix A to subpart B of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">I = 1 for a product with an automatic icemaker and = 0 for a product without an automatic icemaker.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(bb) <I>Rough service lamps and vibration service lamps.</I> (1) Subject to the sales prohibition in paragraph (dd) of this section, rough service lamps manufactured on or after January 25, 2018 must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a shatter-proof coating or equivalent technology that is compliant with NSF/ANSI 51 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3) and is designed to contain the glass if the glass envelope of the lamp is broken and to provide effective containment over the life of the lamp;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have a rated wattage not greater than 40 watts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be sold at retail only in a package containing one lamp.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the sales prohibition in paragraph (dd) of this section, vibration service lamps manufactured on or after January 25, 2018 must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a rated wattage no greater than 40 watts; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be sold at retail only in a package containing one lamp.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Portable air conditioners.</I> Single-duct portable air conditioners and dual-duct portable air conditioners manufactured on or after January 10, 2025 must have a combined energy efficiency ratio (CEER) in Btu/Wh no less than:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er15my23.015.gif"/>
<P><I>SACC:</I> For single-speed portable air conditioners, SACC is seasonally adjusted cooling capacity in Btu/h, as determined in appendix CC of subpart B of this part. For variable-speed portable air conditioners, SACC shall be SACC<E T="52">Full</E> in Btu/h, as determined in appendix CC of subpart B of this part.




</P>
<P>(dd) <I>General service lamps.</I> Beginning July 25, 2022, the sale of any general service lamp that does not meet a minimum efficacy standard of 45 lumens per watt is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(1) Energy conservation standards for general service lamps:
</P>
<P>(i) General service incandescent lamps manufactured after the dates specified in the following tables, except as described in paragraph (dd)(1)(ii) of this section, shall have a color rendering index greater than or equal to 80 and shall have a rated wattage no greater than, and a lifetime no less than the values shown in the table as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">General Service Incandescent Lamps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated lumen ranges
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>lifetime *
<br/>(hrs)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum rate
<br/>wattage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) 1490-2600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1/1/2012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) 1050-1489</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1/1/2013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) 750-1049</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1/1/2014
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) 310-749</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1/1/2014
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Use lifetime determined in accordance with § 429.66 of this chapter to determine compliance with this standard.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Modified spectrum general service incandescent lamps manufactured after the dates specified in the following table shall have a color rendering index greater than or equal to 75 and shall have a rated wattage no greater than, and a lifetime no less than the values shown in the table as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Modified Spectrum General Service Incandescent Lamps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rated lumen ranges
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>lifetime 
<sup>1</sup>

<br/>(hrs)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum rate
<br/>wattage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) 1118-1950</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1/1/2012
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) 788-1117</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1/1/2013
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) 563-787</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1/1/2014
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(D) 232-562</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1/1/2014
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use lifetime determined in accordance with § 429.66 of this chapter to determine compliance with this standard.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) A bare or covered (no reflector) medium base compact fluorescent lamp manufactured on or after January 1, 2006, must meet or exceed the following requirements:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Configuration 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Labeled wattage
<br/>(watts)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum initial
<br/>lamp efficacy

<br/>(lumens per watt)
<br/>must be at least:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) <E T="03">Bare Lamp:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Labeled Wattage &lt;15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) Labeled Wattage ≥15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) <E T="03">Covered Lamp (no reflector):</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">1</E>) Labeled Wattage &lt;15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">2</E>) 15≤ Labeled Wattage &lt;19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">3</E>) 19≤ Labeled Wattage &lt;25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(<E T="03">4</E>) Labeled Wattage ≥25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use labeled wattage to determine the appropriate efficacy requirements in this table; do not use measured wattage for this purpose.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iv) Each general service lamp manufactured on or after July 25, 2028 must have:
</P>
<P>(A) A power factor greater than or equal to 0.7 for integrated LED lamps (as defined in § 430.2) and 0.5 for medium base compact fluorescent lamps (as defined in § 430.2); and
</P>
<P>(B) A lamp efficacy greater than or equal to the values shown in the table as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Length
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Standby mode operation 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficacy
<br/>(lm/W)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">1</E>) Integrated Omnidirectional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Short (&lt;45 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Standby Mode Operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">123/(1.2+e<E T="51">−</E>
<sup>0.005*</sup><E T="51">(</E>
<sup>Lumens-200</sup><E T="51">))</E>) + 25.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">2</E>) Integrated Omnidirectional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Long (≥45 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Standby Mode Operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">123/(1.2+e<E T="51">−</E>
<sup>0.005*</sup><E T="51">(</E>
<sup>Lumens-200</sup><E T="51">))</E>) + 71.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">3</E>) 
<sup>1</sup> Integrated Directional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Lengths</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Standby Mode Operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">73/(0.5+e<E T="51">−</E>
<sup>0.0021*</sup><E T="51">(</E>
<sup>Lumens+1000</sup><E T="51">))</E>) − 47.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">4</E>) 
<sup>2</sup> Non-integrated Omnidirectional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Short (&lt;45 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Standby Mode Operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">122/(0.55+e<E T="51">−</E>
<sup>0.003*</sup><E T="51">(</E>
<sup>Lumens+250</sup><E T="51">))</E>) − 83.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">5</E>) 
<sup>1</sup> Non-integrated Directional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Lengths</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Standby Mode Operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">67/(0.45+e<E T="51">−</E>
<sup>0.00176*</sup><E T="51">(</E>
<sup>Lumens+1310</sup><E T="51">))</E>) − 53.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">6</E>) Integrated Omnidirectional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Short (&lt;45 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standby Mode Operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">123/(1.2+e<E T="51">−</E>
<sup>0.005*</sup><E T="51">(</E>
<sup>Lumens-200</sup><E T="51">))</E>) + 17.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">7</E>) 
<sup>1</sup> Integrated Directional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Lengths</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standby Mode Operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">73/(0.5+e<E T="51">−</E>
<sup>0.0021*</sup><E T="51">(</E>
<sup>Lumens+1000</sup><E T="51">)</E>) − 50.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(<E T="03">8</E>) Non-integrated Omnidirectional</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Long (≥45 inches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Standby Mode Operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">123/(1.2+e<E T="51">−</E>
<sup>0.005*</sup><E T="51">(</E>
<sup>Lumens-200</sup><E T="51">))</E>) + 93.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This lamp type comprises of directional lamps. A directional lamp is a lamp that meets the definition of reflector lamp as defined in § 430.2.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This lamp type comprises of, but is not limited to, lamps that are pin base compact fluorescent lamps (“CFLs”) and pin base light-emitting diode (“LED”) lamps designed and marketed as replacements of pin base CFLs.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Indicates whether or not lamps are capable of operating in standby mode operation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) The standards described in paragraph (dd)(1)(iv) of this section do not apply to a general service lamp that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is a general service organic light-emitting diode (OLED) lamps (as defined in § 430.2);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is a non-integrated lamp that is capable of operating in standby mode and is sold in packages of two lamps or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is designed and marketed as a lamp that has at least one setting that allows the user to change the lamp's correlated color temperature (CCT) and has no setting in which the lamp meets the definition of a colored lamp (as defined in § 430.2); and is sold in packages of two lamps or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Is designed and marketed as a lamp that has at least one setting in which the lamp meets the definition of a colored lamp (as defined in § 430.2) and at least one other setting in which it does not meet the definition of colored lamp (as defined in § 430.2) and is sold in packages of two lamps or less; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Is designed and marketed as a lamp that has one or more component(s) offering a completely different functionality (<I>e.g.,</I> a speaker, a camera, an air purifier, etc.) where each component is integrated into the lamp but does not affect the light output of the lamp (<I>e.g.,</I> does not turn the light on/off, dim the light, change the color of the light, etc.), is capable of operating in standby mode, and is sold in packages of two lamps or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Medium base CFLs (as defined in § 430.2) manufactured on or after the dates specified in the following table shall meet or exceed the following standards:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Metrics
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Requirements for
<br/>MBCFLs manufactured

<br/>on or after January 1, 2006
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Requirements for
<br/>MBCFLs manufactured

<br/>on or after July 25, 2028
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) Lumen Maintenance at 1,000 Hours</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥90.0%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥90.0%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) Lumen Maintenance at 40 Percent of Lifetime
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥80.0%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥80.0%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) Rapid Cycle Stress Test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least 5 lamps must meet or exceed the minimum number of cycles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least 5 lamps must meet or exceed the minimum number of cycles.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All MBCFLs: Cycle once per every two hours of lifetime 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MBCFLs with start time &gt;100 ms: Cycle once per hour of lifetime 
<sup>1</sup> or a maximum of 15,000 cycles.


<br/>MBCFLs with a start time of ≤100 ms: Cycle once per every two hours of lifetime.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iv) Lifetime 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥6,000 hours</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥10,000 hours.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(v) Start time</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The time needed for a MBCFL to remain continuously illuminated must be within: {1} one second of application of electrical power for lamp with standby mode power {2} 750 milliseconds of application of electrical power for lamp without standby mode power.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Lifetime refers to lifetime of a compact fluorescent lamp as defined in § 430.2.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ee) <I>Air cleaners.</I> (1) Conventional room air cleaners as defined in § 430.2 with a PM<E T="52">2.5</E> clean air delivery rate (CADR) between 10 and 600 (both inclusive) cubic feet per minute (cfm) and manufactured on or after December 31, 2023, and before December 31, 2025, shall have an integrated energy factor (IEF) in PM<E T="52">2.5</E> CADR/W, as determined in § 430.23(hh)(4) that meets or exceeds the following values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">IEF (PM<E T="0732">2.5</E>


<br/>CADR/W)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 10 ≤PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> CADR &lt;100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 100 ≤PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> CADR &lt;150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> CADR ≥150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Conventional room air cleaners as defined in § 430.2 with a PM<E T="52">2.5</E> clean air delivery rate (CADR) between 10 and 600 (both inclusive) cubic feet per minute (cfm) and manufactured on or after December 31, 2025, shall have an integrated energy factor (IEF) in PM<E T="52">2.5</E> CADR/W, as determined in § 430.23(hh)(4) that meets or exceeds the following values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">IEF (PM<E T="0732">2.5</E>


<br/>CADR/W)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(i) 10 ≤PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> CADR &lt;100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(ii) 100 ≤PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> CADR &lt;150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(iii) PM<E T="0732">2.5</E> CADR ≥150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 6077, Feb. 7, 1989]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 430.32, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.33" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.33   Preemption of State regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any State regulation providing for any energy conservation standard, or water conservation standard (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals), or other requirement with respect to the energy efficiency, energy use, or water use (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, or urinals) of a covered product that is not identical to a Federal standard in effect under this subpart is preempted by that standard, except as provided for in sections 325(i)(6)(A)(vi), 327(b) and (c) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) No State regulation, or revision thereof, concerning the energy efficiency, energy use, or water use of the covered product shall be effective with respect to such covered product, unless the State regulation or revision in the case of any portion of any regulation that establishes requirements for general service incandescent lamps, intermediate base incandescent lamps, or candelabra base lamps, was enacted or adopted by the State of California or Nevada before December 4, 2007, except that—
</P>
<P>(1) The regulation adopted by the California Energy Commission with an effective date of January 1, 2008, shall only be effective until the effective date of the Federal standard for the applicable lamp category under paragraphs (A), (B), and (C) of section 325(i)(1) of EPCA; and
</P>
<P>(2) The States of California and Nevada may, at any time, modify or adopt a State standard for general service lamps to conform with Federal standards with effective dates no earlier than 12 months prior to the Federal effective dates prescribed under paragraphs (A), (B), and (C) of section 325(i)(1) of EPCA, at which time any prior regulations adopted by the State of California or Nevada shall no longer be effective.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 13318, Mar. 18, 1998, as amended at 74 FR 12070, Mar. 23, 2009; 78 FR 62993, Oct. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.34" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.34   Energy and water conservation standards amendments</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Energy may not prescribe any amended standard which increases the maximum allowable energy use or, in the case of showerheads, faucets, water closets or urinals, the maximum allowable water use, or which decreases the minimum required energy efficiency of a covered product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 36406, May 23, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.35" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.35   Petitions with respect to general service lamps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may petition the Secretary for an exemption for a type of general service lamp from the requirements of this subpart. The Secretary may grant an exemption only to the extent that the Secretary finds, after a hearing and opportunity for public comment, that it is not technically feasible to serve a specialized lighting application (such as a military, medical, public safety or certified historic lighting application) using a lamp that meets the requirements of this subpart. To grant an exemption for a product under this paragraph, the Secretary shall include, as an additional criterion, that the exempted product is unlikely to be used in a general service lighting application.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may petition the Secretary to establish standards for lamp shapes or bases that are excluded from the definition of general service lamps. The petition shall include evidence that the availability or sales of exempted lamps have increased significantly since December 19, 2007. The Secretary shall grant a petition if the Secretary finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The petition presents evidence that demonstrates that commercial availability or sales of exempted incandescent lamp types have increased significantly since December 19, 2007 and are being widely used in general lighting applications; and
</P>
<P>(2) Significant energy savings could be achieved by covering exempted products, as determined by the Secretary based on sales data provided to the Secretary from manufacturers and importers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12070, Mar. 23, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.3.11.6.51" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart C of Part 430—Procedures, Interpretations, and Policies for Consideration of New or Revised Energy Conservation Standards and Test Procedures for Consumer Products and Certain Commercial/Industrial Equipment




</HEAD>
<FP-2>1. Objectives
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2. Scope
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3. Application
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4. Setting Priorities for Rulemaking Activity
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5. Coverage Determination Rulemakings
</FP-2>
<FP-2>6. Process for Developing Energy Conservation Standards
</FP-2>
<FP-2>7. Policies on Selection of Standards
</FP-2>
<FP-2>8. Test Procedures
</FP-2>
<FP-2>9. ASHRAE Equipment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>10. Direct Final Rules
</FP-2>
<FP-2>11. Principles for Distinguishing Between Effective and Compliance Dates
</FP-2>
<FP-2>12. Principles for the Conduct of the Engineering Analysis
</FP-2>
<FP-2>13. Principles for the Analysis of Impacts on Manufacturers
</FP-2>
<FP-2>14. Principles for the Analysis of Impacts on Consumers
</FP-2>
<FP-2>15. Consideration of Non-Regulatory Approaches
</FP-2>
<FP-2>16. Cross-Cutting Analytical Assumptions
</FP-2>
<HD1>1. Objectives
</HD1>
<P>This appendix establishes procedures, interpretations, and policies to guide the Department of Energy (“DOE” or the “Department”) in the consideration and promulgation of new or revised appliance energy conservation standards and test procedures under the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA). This appendix applies to both covered consumer products and covered commercial/industrial equipment. The Department's objectives in establishing these procedures include:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Provide for early input from stakeholders.</I> The Department seeks to provide opportunities for public input early in the rulemaking process so that the initiation and direction of rulemakings is

informed by comment from interested parties. DOE will be able to seek early input from interested parties in determining whether establishing new or amending existing energy conservation standards will result in significant savings of energy and is economically justified and technologically feasible. In the context of test procedure rulemakings, DOE will be able to seek early input from interested parties in determining whether—
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing a new or amending an existing test procedure will better measure the energy efficiency, energy use, water use (as specified in EPCA), or estimated annual operating cost of a covered product/equipment during a representative average use cycle or period of use (for consumer products); and
</P>
<P>(2) Will not be unduly burdensome to conduct.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Increase predictability of the rulemaking timetable.</I> The Department seeks to make informed, strategic decisions about how to deploy its resources on the range of possible standards and test procedure development activities, and to announce these prioritization decisions so that all interested parties have a common expectation about the timing of different rulemaking activities. Further, DOE will offer the opportunity to provide input on the prioritization of rulemakings through a request for comment as DOE begins preparation of its Regulatory Agenda each spring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eliminate problematic design options early in the process.</I> The Department seeks to eliminate from consideration, early in the process, any design options that present unacceptable problems with respect to manufacturability, consumer utility, or safety, so that the detailed analysis can focus only on viable design options. DOE will be able to eliminate from consideration design options if it concludes that manufacture, installation or service of the design will be impractical, or that the design option will have a material adverse impact on the utility of the product, or if the design option will have a material adverse impact on safety or health. DOE will also be able to eliminate from consideration proprietary design options that represent a unique pathway to

achieving a given efficiency level. This screening will be done at the outset of a rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fully consider non-regulatory approaches.</I> The Department seeks to understand the effects of market forces and voluntary programs on encouraging the purchase of energy efficient products so that the incremental impacts of a new or revised standard can be accurately assessed and the Department can make informed decisions about where standards and voluntary programs can be used most effectively. DOE will continue to be able to support voluntary efforts by manufacturers, retailers, utilities, and others to increase product/equipment efficiency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conduct thorough analysis of impacts.</I> In addition to understanding the aggregate social and private costs and benefits of standards, the Department seeks to understand the distribution of those costs and benefits among consumers, manufacturers, and others, as well as the uncertainty associated with these analyses of costs and benefits, so that any adverse impacts on subgroups and uncertainty concerning any adverse impacts can be fully considered in selecting a standard. DOE will be able to consider the variability of impacts on significant groups of manufacturers and consumers in addition to aggregate social and private costs and benefits, report the range of uncertainty associated with these impacts, and take into account cumulative impacts of regulation on manufacturers. The Department will also be able to conduct appropriate analyses to assess the impact that new or amended test procedures will have on manufacturers and consumers.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Use transparent and robust analytical methods.</I> The Department seeks to use qualitative and quantitative analytical methods that are fully documented for the public and that produce results that can be explained and reproduced, so that the analytical underpinnings for policy decisions on standards are as sound and well-accepted as possible.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Support efforts to build consensus on standards.</I> The Department seeks to encourage development of consensus proposals, including proposals developed in accordance with the Negotiated Rulemaking Act (5 U.S.C. 561 <I>et seq.</I>), for new or revised standards because standards with such broad-based support are likely to balance effectively the various interests affected by such standards.
</P>
<HD1>2. Scope
</HD1>
<P>The procedures, interpretations, and policies described in this appendix apply to rulemakings concerning new or revised Federal energy conservation standards and test procedures, and related rule documents (<I>i.e.,</I> coverage determinations) for consumer products in Part A and commercial and industrial equipment under Part A-1 of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA), as amended, except covered ASHRAE equipment in Part A-1 are governed separately under section 9 in this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>3. Application
</HD1>
<P>(a) This appendix contains procedures, interpretations, and policies that are generally applicable to the development of energy conservation standards and test procedures. The Department may, as necessary, deviate from this appendix to account for the specific circumstances of a particular rulemaking. In those instances where the Department may find it necessary or appropriate to deviate from these procedures, interpretations or policies, DOE will provide interested parties with notice of the deviation and an explanation.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Department concludes that changes to the procedures, interpretations or policies in this appendix are necessary or appropriate, DOE will provide notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of modifications to this appendix with an accompanying explanation. DOE expects to consult with interested parties prior to any such modification.
</P>
<P>(c) This appendix is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity.
</P>
<HD1>4. Setting Priorities for Rulemaking Activity
</HD1>
<P>(a) In establishing its priorities for undertaking energy conservation standards and test procedure rulemakings, DOE will consider the following factors, consistent with applicable legal obligations:
</P>
<P>(1) Potential energy savings;
</P>
<P>(2) Potential social and private, including environmental or energy security, benefits;
</P>
<P>(3) Applicable deadlines for rulemakings;
</P>
<P>(4) Incremental DOE resources required to complete the rulemaking process;
</P>
<P>(5) Other relevant regulatory actions affecting the products/equipment;
</P>
<P>(6) Stakeholder recommendations;
</P>
<P>(7) Evidence of energy efficiency gains in the market absent new or revised standards;
</P>
<P>(8) Status of required changes to test procedures; and
</P>
<P>(9) Other relevant factors.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will offer the opportunity to provide input on prioritization of rulemakings through a request for comment as DOE begins preparation of its Regulatory Agenda each spring.
</P>
<HD1>5. Coverage Determination Rulemakings
</HD1>
<P>DOE has discretion to conduct proceedings to determine whether additional consumer products and commercial/industrial equipment should be covered under EPCA if certain statutory criteria are met. (42 U.S.C. 6292(b) and 42 U.S.C. 6295(l) for consumer products; 42 U.S.C. 6312(b) for commercial/industrial equipment). This section describes the process to be used in establishing coverage for consumer products and commercial/industrial equipment.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-notice of proposed rulemaking (“NOPR”) stage.</I> In determining whether to consider establishing coverage for a consumer product or commercial/industrial equipment, DOE may publish one or more preliminary documents in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> intended to gather information on key issues. Such document(s) will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> with accompanying documents referenced and posted in the appropriate docket.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>NOPR stage.</I> If DOE determines to proceed with a coverage determination process, the Department will publish a notice of proposed determination, providing an opportunity for public comment of not less than 60 days, in which DOE will explain how such products/equipment that it seeks to designate as “covered” meet the statutory criteria for coverage and why such coverage is “necessary or appropriate” to carry out the purposes of EPCA. In the case of commercial equipment, DOE will follow the same process, except that the Department must demonstrate that coverage of the equipment type is “necessary” to carry out the purposes of EPCA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final rule.</I> DOE will publish a final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that establishes the scope of coverage for the product/equipment, responds to public comments received on the NOPR, and explains how inclusion of the newly covered product/equipment meets the statutory criteria for coverage and why such coverage is necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of EPCA. DOE will finalize coverage for a product/equipment prior to publication of a proposed rule to establish a test procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of coverage revisions.</I> If, during the substantive rulemaking proceedings to establish test procedures or energy conservation standards after completing a coverage determination, DOE finds it necessary and appropriate to amend the scope of coverage, DOE will propose an amended coverage determination and finalize coverage prior to moving forward with the test procedure or standards rulemaking.






</P>
<HD1>6. Process for Developing Energy Conservation Standards
</HD1>
<P>This section describes the process to be used in developing energy conservation standards for covered products and equipment other than those covered equipment subject to ASHRAE/IES Standard 90.1.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-NOPR stage</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> In determining whether to consider establishing or amending any energy conservation standard, DOE will publish one or more preliminary, pre-NOPR documents in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> intended to gather information on key issues. Such document(s) could take several forms depending upon the specific proceeding, including a framework document, request for information (RFI), notice of data availability (NODA), preliminary analysis, or advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANOPR). Such document(s) will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> with any accompanying documents referenced and posted in the appropriate docket.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Satisfaction of statutory criteria.</I> As part of such pre-NOPR-stage document(s), DOE will solicit submission of comments, data, and information on whether DOE should proceed with the rulemaking, including whether any new or amended rule would satisfy the relevant statutory criteria to be cost-effective, economically justified, technologically feasible, and result in a significant savings of energy. Based on the information received in response to such request and its own analysis, DOE will determine whether to proceed with a rulemaking for a new or amended energy conservation standard. If DOE determines at any point in the pre-NOPR stage that no candidate standard level for a new or amended standard is likely to satisfy all of the applicable statutory criteria (<I>i.e.,</I> to be technologically feasible and economically justified and result in significant energy savings), DOE will announce that conclusion in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and proceed with notice-and-comment rulemaking that proposes a determination not to adopt new or amended standards. DOE notes that it will, consistent with its statutory obligations, consider both cost effectiveness and economic justification when issuing a determination not to amend a standard. If DOE receives sufficient information suggesting it could justify a new or amended standard or the information received is inconclusive with regard to the statutory criteria, DOE will move forward with the rulemaking to issue or amend an energy conservation standard. In those instances where the available information either suggested that a new or amended energy conservation standard might be justified or in which the information was inconclusive on this point, and DOE undertakes a rulemaking to establish or amend an energy conservation standard, DOE may still ultimately determine that such a standard is not economically justified, technologically feasible or would not result in a significant savings of energy at a later stage of the rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Design options</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Once the Department has initiated a rulemaking for a specific product/equipment but before publishing a proposed rule to establish or amend standards, DOE will typically identify the product/equipment categories and design options to be analyzed in detail, as well as those design options to be eliminated from further consideration. During the pre-NOPR stage of the rulemaking, interested parties may be consulted to provide information on key issues, including potential design options, through a variety of rulemaking documents.
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<P>(ii) <I>Identification and screening of design options.</I> During the pre-NOPR phase of the rulemaking process, the Department will typically develop a list of design options for consideration. Initially, the candidate design options will encompass all those technologies considered to be technologically feasible. Following the development of this initial list of design options, DOE will review each design option based on the factors described in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section and the policies stated in section 7 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> Policies on Selection of Standards). The reasons for eliminating or retaining any design option at this stage of the process will be fully documented and published as part of the NOPR and as appropriate for a given rule, in the pre-NOPR document(s). The technologically feasible design options that are not eliminated in this screening analysis will be considered further in the Engineering Analysis described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Factors for screening of design options.</I> The factors for screening design options include:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Technological feasibility.</I> Technologies incorporated in commercial products (or equipment) or in working prototypes will be considered technologically feasible.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Practicability to manufacture, install and service.</I> If mass production of a technology under consideration for use in commercially-available products (or equipment) and reliable installation and servicing of the technology could be achieved on the scale necessary to serve the relevant market at the time of the effective date of the standard, then that technology will be considered practicable to manufacture, install, and service.
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<P>(C) Adverse impacts on product utility or product availability.
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<P>(D) Adverse impacts on health or safety.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Unique-pathway proprietary technologies.</I> If a design option utilizes proprietary technology that represents a unique pathway to achieving a given efficiency level, that technology will not be considered further.
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<P>(4) <I>Engineering analysis of design options and selection of candidate standard levels.</I> After design options are identified and screened, DOE will perform the engineering analysis and the benefit/cost analysis and select the candidate standard levels based on these analyses. The results of the analyses will be published in a Technical Support Document (TSD) to accompany the appropriate rulemaking documents.
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<P>(i) <I>Identification of engineering analytical methods and tools.</I> DOE will select the specific engineering analysis tools (or multiple tools, if necessary, to address uncertainty) to be used in the analysis of the design options identified as a result of the screening analysis.
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<P>(ii) <I>Engineering and life-cycle cost analysis of design options.</I> DOE and its contractors will perform engineering and life-cycle cost analyses of the design options.
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<P>(iii) <I>Review by stakeholders.</I> Interested parties will have the opportunity to review the results of the engineering and life-cycle cost analyses. If appropriate, a public workshop will be conducted to review these results. The analyses will be revised as appropriate on the basis of this input.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>New information relating to the factors used for screening design options.</I> If further information or analysis leads to a determination that a design option, or a combination of design options, has unacceptable impacts, that design option or combination of design options will not be included in a candidate standard level.
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<P>(v) <I>Selection of candidate standard levels.</I> Based on the results of the engineering and life-cycle cost analysis of design options and the policies stated in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, DOE will select the candidate standard levels for further analysis.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Analysis of impacts and selection of proposed standard level.</I> If DOE has determined preliminarily that a candidate standard level is likely to produce the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is both technologically feasible and economically justified and constitutes significant energy savings, economic analyses of the impacts of the candidate standard levels will be conducted. The Department will propose new or amended standards in a subsequent NOPR based on the results of the impact analysis.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Identification of issues for analysis.</I> The Department, in consideration of comments received, will identify issues that will be examined in the impacts analysis.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Identification of analytical methods and tools.</I> DOE will select the specific economic analysis tools (or multiple tools, if necessary, to address uncertainty) to be used in the analysis of the candidate standard levels.
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<P>(iii) <I>Analysis of impacts.</I> DOE will conduct the analysis of the impacts of candidate standard levels.
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<P>(iv) <I>Factors to be considered in selecting a proposed standard.</I> The factors to be considered in selection of a proposed standard include:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Impacts on manufacturers.</I> The analysis of manufacturer impacts will include: Estimated impacts on cash flow; assessment of impacts on manufacturers of specific categories of products/equipment and small manufacturers; assessment of impacts on manufacturers of multiple product-specific Federal regulatory requirements, including efficiency standards for other products and regulations of other agencies; and impacts on manufacturing capacity, employment, and capital investment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Private impacts on consumers.</I> The analysis of consumer impacts will include: Estimated private energy savings impacts on consumers based on regional average energy prices and energy usage; assessments of the variability of impacts on subgroups of consumers based on major regional differences in usage or energy prices and significant variations in installation costs or performance; consideration of changes to product utility, changes to purchase rate and/or costs of products, and other impacts of likely concern to all or some consumers, based to the extent practicable on direct input from consumers; estimated life-cycle cost with sensitivity analysis; and consideration of the increased first cost to consumers and the time required for energy cost savings to pay back these first costs.
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<P>(C) Impacts on competition, including industry concentration analysis.
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<P>(D) <I>Impacts on utilities.</I> The analysis of utility impacts will include estimated marginal impacts on electric and gas utility generation and capacity.
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<P>(E) <I>National energy, economic, and employment impacts.</I> The analysis of national energy, economic, and employment impacts will include: estimated energy savings by fuel type; estimated net present value of benefits to all consumers; sensitivity analyses using high and low discount rates reflecting both private transactions and social discount rates and high and low energy price forecasts; and estimates of the direct and indirect impacts on employment by appliance manufacturers, relevant service industries, energy suppliers, suppliers of complementary and substitution products, and the economy in general.
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<P>(F) <I>Impacts on the environment.</I> The analysis of environmental impacts will include estimated impacts on emissions of carbon and relevant criteria pollutants.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Impacts of non-regulatory approaches.</I> The analysis of energy savings and consumer impacts will incorporate an assessment of the impacts of market forces and existing voluntary programs in promoting product/equipment efficiency, usage, and related characteristics in the absence of updated efficiency standards.
</P>
<P>(H) New information relating to the factors used for screening design options.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Public comment and hearing.</I> The length of the public comment period for pre-NOPR rulemaking documents will be determined on a case-by-case basis and may vary depending upon the circumstances of the particular rulemaking. For pre-NOPR documents, DOE will determine whether a public hearing is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Revisions based on comments.</I> Based on consideration of the comments received, any necessary changes to the engineering analysis, life-cycle cost analysis, or the candidate standard levels will be made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>NOPR stage</I>—(1) <I>Documentation of decisions on proposed standard selection.</I> The Department will publish a NOPR in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that proposes standard levels and explains the basis for the selection of those proposed levels, and DOE will post on its website a draft TSD documenting the analysis of impacts. The draft TSD will also be posted in the appropriate docket at <I>www.regulations.gov.</I> As required by 42 U.S.C. 6295(p)(1) of EPCA, the NOPR also will describe the maximum improvement in energy efficiency or maximum reduction in energy use that is technologically feasible and, if the proposed standards would not achieve these levels, the reasons for proposing different standards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public comment and hearing.</I> There will be not less than 60 days for public comment on the NOPR, with at least one public hearing or workshop. (42 U.S.C. 6295(p)(2) and 42 U.S.C. 6306)
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Revisions to impact analyses and selection of final standard.</I> Based on the public comments received, DOE will review the proposed standard and impact analyses, and make modifications as necessary. If major changes to the analyses are required at this stage, DOE will publish a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNOPR), when required. DOE may also publish a NODA or RFI, where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final rule stage.</I> The Department will publish a final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that promulgates standard levels, responds to public comments received on the NOPR (and SNOPR if applicable), and explains how the selection of those standards meets the statutory requirement that any new or amended energy conservation standard produces the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is both technologically feasible and economically justified and constitutes significant energy savings, accompanied by a final TSD.












</P>
<HD1>7. Policies on Selection of Standards
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 6 describes the process that will be used to consider new or revised energy efficiency standards and lists a number of factors and analyses that will be considered at specified points in the process. Department policies concerning the selection of new or revised standards, and decisions preliminary thereto, are described in this section. These policies are intended to elaborate on the statutory criteria provided in 42 U.S.C. 6295. The procedures described in this section are intended to assist the Department in making the determinations required by EPCA and do not preclude DOE's consideration of any other information consistent with the relevant statutory criteria. The Department will consider pertinent information in determining whether a new or revised standard is consistent with the statutory criteria.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Screening design options.</I> These factors will be considered as follows in determining whether a design option will receive any further consideration:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Technological feasibility.</I> Technologies that are not incorporated in commercial products or in commercially-viable, existing prototypes will not be considered further.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Practicability to manufacture, install and service.</I> If it is determined that mass production of a technology in commercial products and reliable installation and servicing of the technology could not be achieved on the scale necessary to serve the relevant market at the time of the compliance date of the standard, then that technology will not be considered further.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Impacts on product utility.</I> If a technology is determined to have significant adverse impact on the utility of the product/equipment to subgroups of consumers, or result in the unavailability of any covered product type with performance characteristics (including reliability), features, sizes, capacities, and volumes that are substantially the same as products generally available in the U.S. at the time, it will not be considered further.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Safety of technologies.</I> If it is determined that a technology will have significant adverse impacts on health or safety, it will not be considered further.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Unique-pathway proprietary technologies.</I> If a technology has proprietary protection and represents a unique pathway to achieving a given efficiency level, it will not be considered further, due to the potential for monopolistic concerns.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Identification of candidate standard levels.</I> Based on the results of the engineering and cost/benefit analyses of design options, DOE will identify the candidate standard levels for further analysis. Candidate standard levels will be selected as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Costs and savings of design options.</I> Design options that have payback periods that exceed the median life of the product or which result in life-cycle cost increases relative to the base case, using typical fuel costs, usage, and private discount rates, will not be used as the basis for candidate standard levels.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Further information on factors used for screening design options.</I> If further information or analysis leads to a determination that a design option, or a combination of design options, has unacceptable impacts under the policies stated in this Appendix, that design option or combination of design options will not be included in a candidate standard level.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Selection of candidate standard levels.</I> Candidate standard levels, which will be identified in the pre-NOPR documents and on which impact analyses will be conducted, will be based on the remaining design options.
</P>
<P>(i) The range of candidate standard levels will typically include:
</P>
<P>(A) The most energy-efficient combination of design options;
</P>
<P>(B) The combination of design options with the lowest life-cycle cost; and
</P>
<P>(C) A combination of design options with a payback period of not more than three years.
</P>
<P>(ii) Candidate standard levels that incorporate noteworthy technologies or fill in large gaps between efficiency levels of other candidate standard levels also may be selected.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pre-NOPR Stage.</I> New information provided in public comments on any pre-NOPR documents will be considered to determine whether any changes to the candidate standard levels are needed before proceeding to the analysis of impacts.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Selection of proposed standard.</I> Based on the results of the analysis of impacts, DOE will select a standard level to be proposed for public comment in the NOPR. As required under 42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(A), any new or revised standard must be designed to achieve the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is determined to be both technologically feasible and economically justified.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statutory policies.</I> The fundamental policies concerning the selection of standards include:
</P>
<P>(i) A trial standard level will not be proposed or promulgated if the Department determines that it is not both technologically feasible and economically justified. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(A) and 42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(3)(B)) For a trial standard level to be economically justified, the Secretary must determine that the benefits of the standard exceed its burdens by, to the greatest extent practicable, considering the factors listed in 42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i). A standard level is subject to a rebuttable presumption that it is economically justified if the payback period is three years or less. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(iii))
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Department determines that interested persons have established by a preponderance of the evidence that a standard level is likely to result in the unavailability in the United States of any covered product/equipment type (or class) with performance characteristics (including reliability), features, sizes, capacities, and volumes that are substantially the same as products generally available in the U.S. at the time of the determination, then that standard level will not be proposed. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(4))
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Department determines that a standard level would not result in significant conservation of energy, that standard level will not be proposed. (42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(3)(B))
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Selection of a final standard.</I> New information provided in the public comments on the NOPR and any analysis by the Department of Justice concerning impacts on competition of the proposed standard will be considered to determine whether issuance of a new or amended energy conservation standard produces the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is both technologically feasible and economically justified and still constitutes significant energy savings or whether any change to the proposed standard level is needed before proceeding to the final rule. The same policies used to select the proposed standard level, as described in this section, will be used to guide the selection of the final standard level or a determination that no new or amended standard is justified.




</P>
<HD1>8. Test Procedures
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-NOPR stage</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> In determining whether to consider establishing or amending any test procedure, DOE will publish one or more preliminary documents in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (<I>e.g.,</I> an RFI or NODA) intended to gather information on key issues.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Satisfaction of statutory criteria.</I> As part of such document(s), DOE will solicit submission of comments, data, and information on whether DOE should proceed with the rulemaking, including whether: a new test procedure would satisfy the relevant statutory criteria that test procedures be reasonably designed to produce test results which measure energy efficiency, energy use, water use (in the case of showerheads, faucets, water closets and urinals), or estimated annual operating cost of a covered product during a representative average use cycle or period of use, as determined by the Secretary, and shall not be unduly burdensome to conduct; or an amended test procedure would more fully or accurately comply with the aforementioned statutory criteria. Based on the information received in response to such request and its own analysis, DOE will determine whether to proceed with a rulemaking for a new or amended test procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) If DOE determines that a new or amended test procedure would not satisfy the applicable statutory criteria, DOE will engage in notice-and-comment rulemaking to issue a determination that a new or amended test procedure is not warranted.
</P>
<P>(4) If DOE receives sufficient information suggesting a new or amended test procedure may satisfy the applicable statutory criteria or the information received is inconclusive with regard to the statutory criteria, DOE will move forward with the rulemaking to issue or amend a test procedure.
</P>
<P>(5) In those instances where the available information either suggested that a new or amended test procedure might be warranted or in which the information was inconclusive on this point, and DOE undertakes a rulemaking to establish or amend a test procedure, DOE may still ultimately determine that such a test procedure does not satisfy the applicable statutory criteria at a later stage of the rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Public comment and hearing.</I> The length of the public comment period for pre-NOPR rulemaking documents will be determined on a case-by-case basis and may vary depending upon the circumstances of the particular rulemaking. For pre-NOPR documents, DOE will determine whether a public hearing is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>NOPR stage</I>—(1) <I>Documentation of decisions on proposed test procedure.</I> The Department will publish a NOPR in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that proposes a new or amended test procedure and explains how the test procedure satisfies the applicable statutory criteria.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public comment and hearing.</I> There will be not less than 60 days for public comment on the NOPR, with at least one public hearing or workshop. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(2) and 42 U.S.C. 6306)
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Revisions to the analyses and establishment of a final test procedure.</I> Based on the public comments received, DOE will review the proposed test procedure, and make modifications as necessary. As part of this process, DOE may issue an RFI, NODA, SNOPR, or other rulemaking document, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final rule stage.</I> The Department will publish a final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that establishes or amends a test procedure, responds to public comments received on the NOPR (and any subsequent rulemaking documents), and explains how the new or amended test procedure meets the applicable statutory requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adoption of industry test methods.</I> DOE will adopt industry test procedure standards as DOE test procedures for covered products and equipment, but only if DOE determines that such procedures would not be unduly burdensome to conduct and would produce test results that reflect the energy efficiency, energy use, water use (as specified in EPCA) or estimated operating costs of that equipment during a representative average use cycle. DOE may also adopt industry test procedure standards with modifications or craft its own procedures as necessary to ensure compatibility with the relevant statutory requirements, as well as DOE's compliance, certification, and enforcement requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Issuing final test procedure</I>—(1) <I>Process.</I> Test procedure rulemakings establishing methodologies used to evaluate proposed energy conservation standards will be finalized prior to publication of a NOPR proposing new or amended energy conservation standards. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, new test procedures and amended test procedures that impact measured energy use or efficiency will be finalized at least 180 days prior to the close of the comment period for:
</P>
<P>(i) A NOPR proposing new or amended energy conservation standards; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A notice of proposed determination that standards do not need to be amended. With regards to amended test procedures, DOE will state in the test procedure final rule whether the amendments impact measured energy use or efficiency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The 180-day period for new test procedures and amended test procedures that impact measured energy use or efficiency specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section is not applicable to:
</P>
<P>(i) Test procedures developed in accordance with the Negotiated Rulemaking Act or by interested persons that are fairly representative of relevant points of view (including representatives of manufacturers of covered products, States, and efficiency advocates), as determined by the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Test procedure amendments limited to calculation changes (<I>e.g.,</I> use factor or adder). Parties submitting a consensus recommendation in accordance with paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section may specify a time period between finalization of the test procedure and the close of the comment for a NOPR proposing new or amended energy conservation standards or a notice of proposed determination that standards do not need to be amended.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective date of test procedures.</I> If required only for the evaluation and issuance of updated efficiency standards, use of the modified test procedures typically will not be required until the implementation date of updated standards.


</P>
<HD1>9. ASHRAE Equipment
</HD1>
<P>EPCA provides unique statutory requirements and a specific set of timelines for certain enumerated types of commercial and industrial equipment (generally, commercial water heaters, commercial packaged boilers, commercial air-conditioning and heating equipment, and packaged terminal air conditioners and heat pumps (<I>i.e.,</I> “ASHRAE equipment”)).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>ASHRAE trigger rulemakings for energy conservation standards.</I> Pursuant to EPCA's statutory scheme for covered ASHRAE equipment, DOE is required to consider amending the existing Federal energy conservation standards for ASHRAE equipment when ASHRAE Standard 90.1 is amended with respect to standards or design requirements applicable to such equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) Not later than 180 days after the amendment of ASHRAE Standard 90.1, DOE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment an analysis of the energy savings potential of amended energy efficiency standards for the affected equipment.
</P>
<P>(2) Not later than 18 months after the amendment of ASHRAE Standard 90.1, DOE must adopt amended energy conservation standards at the new efficiency level in ASHRAE Standard 90.1 as the uniform national standard for the affected equipment, unless DOE determines by rule, and supported by clear and convincing evidence, that a more-stringent standard would result in significant additional conservation of energy and is technologically feasible and economically justified. In such case, DOE must adopt the more-stringent standard for the affected equipment not later than 30 months after amendment of ASHRAE Standard 90.1.
</P>
<P>(3) Regarding amendments to ASHRAE Standard 90.1 involving energy conservation standards, DOE considers an amendment of a standard level to occur when an updated version of ASHRAE Standard 90.1 publishes (<I>i.e.,</I> not at the time that an addendum to ASHRAE Standard 90.1 is released or approved). In addition, DOE considers an amendment of standard levels in ASHRAE Standard 90.1 to be only those changes resulting in an increase in stringency of standard levels relative to the current Federal standards or the adoption of a design requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASHRAE trigger rulemakings for test procedures.</I> Pursuant to EPCA's statutory scheme for covered ASHRAE equipment, DOE is required to consider amending the existing Federal test procedures for such equipment when ASHRAE Standard 90.1 is amended with respect to test procedures applicable to such equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) DOE shall amend the test procedure for ASHRAE equipment, as necessary, to be consistent with the amended ASHRAE Standard 90.1, unless DOE determines by rule, and supported by clear and convincing evidence, that to do so would not meet the requirements in 42 U.S.C. 6314(a)(2)-(3), which generally provide that the test procedure must produce results which reflect energy efficiency, energy use, and estimated operating costs during a representative average use cycle and not be unduly burdensome to conduct. If DOE makes such a determination, DOE may establish an amended test procedure for such equipment that meets the requirements in 42 U.S.C. 6314(a)(2)-(3).
</P>
<P>(2) With regard to test procedures for ASHRAE equipment, EPCA requires DOE to adopt test procedures consistent with applicable industry test standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ASHRAE lookback rulemakings for standards.</I> EPCA also requires that DOE periodically consider amending energy conservation standards for ASHRAE equipment.
</P>
<P>(1) Every 6 years, DOE shall conduct an evaluation of each class of covered equipment. DOE shall publish either a notice of determination that standards do not need to be amended (because they would not result in significant additional conservation of energy and/or would not be technologically feasible and/or economically justified) or a notice of proposed rulemaking including new proposed standards (based on the criteria and procedures in 42 U.S.C. 6313(a)(6)(B) and supported by clear and convincing evidence).
</P>
<P>(2) If DOE issues a notice of proposed rulemaking, it shall publish a final rule no more than 2 years later.
</P>
<P>(3) If DOE determines that a standard does not need to be amended, not later than 3 years after such a determination, DOE must publish either a notice of determination that standards do not need to be amended (because they would not result in significant additional conservation of energy and/or would not be technologically feasible and/or economically justified) or a notice of proposed rulemaking including new proposed standards (based on the criteria and procedures in 42 U.S.C. 6313(a)(6)(B) and supported by clear and convincing evidence).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASHRAE lookback rulemakings for test procedures.</I> EPCA also requires that DOE periodically consider amending test procedures for ASHRAE equipment. At least once every 7 years, DOE shall conduct an evaluation, and if DOE determines, that amended test procedures would more accurately or fully comply with the requirements in 42 U.S.C. 6314(a)(2)-(3), it shall prescribe test procedures for the applicable equipment. Otherwise, DOE shall publish a notice of determination not to amend a test procedure.


</P>
<HD1>10. Direct Final Rules
</HD1>
<P>In accordance with 42 U.S.C. 6295(p)(4), on receipt of a joint proposal, including a consensus recommendation developed in accordance with the Negotiated Rulemaking Act (5 U.S.C. 561 <I>et seq.</I>), that is submitted by interested persons that are fairly representative of relevant points of view, DOE may issue a direct final rule (DFR) establishing energy conservation standards for a covered product or equipment if DOE determines the recommended standard is in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 6295(o) or 42 U.S.C. 6313(a)(6)(B) as applicable. To be “fairly representative of relevant points of view” the group submitting a joint statement must, where appropriate, include larger concerns and small businesses in the regulated industry/manufacturer community, energy advocates, energy utilities, consumers, and States. However, it will be necessary to evaluate the meaning of “fairly representative” on a case-by-case basis, subject to the circumstances of a particular rulemaking, to determine whether fewer or additional parties must be part of a joint statement in order to be “fairly representative of relevant points of view.”
</P>
<HD1>11. Principles for Distinguishing Between Effective and Compliance Dates
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Dates, generally.</I> The effective and compliance dates for either DOE test procedures or DOE energy conservation standards are typically not identical, and these terms should not be used interchangeably.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date.</I> The effective date is the date a rule is legally operative after being published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance date.</I> (1) For test procedures, the compliance date is the specific date when manufacturers are required to use the new or amended test procedure requirements to make representations concerning the energy efficiency or use of a product, including certification that the covered product/equipment meets an applicable energy conservation standard.
</P>
<P>(2) For energy conservation standards, the compliance date is the specific date upon which manufacturers are required to meet the new or amended standards for applicable covered products/equipment that are distributed in interstate commerce.
</P>
<HD1>12. Principles for the Conduct of the Engineering Analysis
</HD1>
<P>(a) The purpose of the engineering analysis is to develop the relationship between efficiency and cost of the subject product/equipment. The Department will use the most appropriate means available to determine the efficiency/cost relationship, including an overall system approach or engineering modeling to predict the reduction in energy use or improvement in energy efficiency that can be expected from individual design options as discussed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. From this efficiency/cost relationship, measures such as payback, life-cycle cost, and energy savings can be developed. The Department will identify issues that will be examined in the engineering analysis and the types of specialized expertise that may be required. DOE will select appropriate contractors, subcontractors, and expert consultants, as necessary, to perform the engineering analysis and the impact analysis. Also, the Department will consider data, information, and analyses received from interested parties for use in the analysis wherever feasible.
</P>
<P>(b) The engineering analysis begins with the list of design options developed in consultation with the interested parties as a result of the screening process. The Department will establish the likely cost and performance improvement of each design option. Ranges and uncertainties of cost and performance will be established, although efforts will be made to minimize uncertainties by using measures such as test data or component or material supplier information where available. Estimated uncertainties will be carried forward in subsequent analyses. The use of quantitative models will be supplemented by qualitative assessments as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) The next step includes identifying, modifying, or developing any engineering models necessary to predict the efficiency impact of any one or combination of design options on the product/equipment. A base case configuration or starting point will be established, as well as the order and combination/blending of the design options to be evaluated. DOE will then perform the engineering analysis and develop the cost-efficiency curve for the product/equipment. The cost efficiency curve and any necessary models will be available to stakeholders during the pre-NOPR stage of the rulemaking.
</P>
<HD1>13. Principles for the Analysis of Impacts on Manufacturers
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the manufacturer analysis is to identify the likely private impacts of efficiency standards on manufacturers. The Department will analyze the impact of standards on manufacturers with substantial input from manufacturers and other interested parties. This section describes the principles that will be used in conducting future manufacturing impact analyses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issue identification.</I> In the impact analysis stage, the Department will identify issues that will require greater consideration in the detailed manufacturer impact analysis. Possible issues may include identification of specific types or groups of manufacturers and concerns over access to technology. Specialized contractor expertise, empirical data requirements, and analytical tools required to perform the manufacturer impact analysis also would be identified at this stage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Industry characterization.</I> Prior to initiating detailed impact studies, the Department will seek input on the present and past industry structure and market characteristics. Input on the following issues will be sought:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufacturers and their current and historical relative market shares;
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturer characteristics, such as whether manufacturers make a full line of models or serve a niche market;
</P>
<P>(3) Trends in the number of manufacturers;
</P>
<P>(4) Financial situation of manufacturers;
</P>
<P>(5) Trends in product/equipment characteristics and retail markets including manufacturer market shares and market concentration; and
</P>
<P>(6) Identification of other relevant regulatory actions and a description of the nature and timing of any likely impacts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cost impacts on manufacturers.</I> The costs of labor, material, engineering, tooling, and capital are difficult to estimate, manufacturer-specific, and usually proprietary. The Department will seek input from interested parties on the treatment of cost issues. Manufacturers will be encouraged to offer suggestions as to possible sources of data and appropriate data collection methodologies. Costing issues to be addressed include:
</P>
<P>(1) Estimates of total private cost impacts, including product/equipment-specific costs (based on cost impacts estimated for the engineering analysis) and front-end investment/conversion costs for the full range of product/equipment models.
</P>
<P>(2) Range of uncertainties in estimates of average cost, considering alternative designs and technologies which may vary cost impacts and changes in costs of material, labor, and other inputs which may vary costs.
</P>
<P>(3) Variable cost impacts on particular types of manufacturers, considering factors such as atypical sunk costs or characteristics of specific models which may increase or decrease costs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Impacts on product/equipment sales, features, prices, and cost recovery.</I> In order to make manufacturer cash-flow calculations, it is necessary to predict the number of products/equipment sold and their sale price. This requires an assessment of the likely impacts of price changes on the number of products/equipment sold and on typical features of models sold. Past analyses have relied on price and shipment data generated by economic models. The Department will develop additional estimates of prices and shipments by drawing on multiple sources of data and experience including: Actual shipment and pricing experience; data from manufacturers, retailers, and other market experts; financial models, and sensitivity analyses. The possible impacts of candidate/trial standard levels on consumer choices among competing fuels will be explicitly considered where relevant.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Measures of impact.</I> The manufacturer impact analysis will estimate the impacts of candidate/trial standard levels on the net cash flow of manufacturers. Computations will be performed for the industry as a whole and for typical and atypical manufacturers. The exact nature and the process by which the analysis will be conducted will be determined by DOE, with input from interested parties, as appropriate. Impacts to be analyzed include:
</P>
<P>(1) Industry net present value, with sensitivity analyses based on uncertainty of costs, sales prices, and sales volumes;
</P>
<P>(2) Cash flows, by year; and
</P>
<P>(3) Other measures of impact, such as revenue, net income, and return on equity, as appropriate. DOE also notes that the characteristics of a typical manufacturers worthy of special consideration will be determined in consultation with manufacturers and other interested parties and may include: Manufacturers incurring higher or lower than average costs; and manufacturers experiencing greater or fewer adverse impacts on sales. Alternative scenarios based on other methods of estimating cost or sales impacts also will be performed, as needed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Cumulative Impacts of Other Federal Regulatory Actions.</I> (1) The Department will recognize and seek to mitigate the overlapping effects on manufacturers of new or revised DOE standards and other regulatory actions affecting the same products or equipment. DOE will analyze and consider the impact on manufacturers of multiple product/equipment-specific regulatory actions. These factors will be considered in setting rulemaking priorities, conducting the early assessment as to whether DOE should proceed with a standards rulemaking, assessing manufacturer impacts of a particular standard, and establishing compliance dates for a new or revised standard that, consistent with any statutory requirements, are appropriately coordinated with other regulatory actions to mitigate any cumulative burden.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Department determines that a proposed standard would impose a significant impact on product or equipment manufacturers within approximately three years of the compliance date of another DOE standard that imposes significant impacts on the same manufacturers (or divisions thereof, as appropriate), the Department will, in addition to evaluating the impact on manufacturers of the proposed standard, assess the joint impacts of both standards on manufacturers.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Department is directed to establish or revise standards for products/equipment that are components of other products/equipment subject to standards, the Department will consider the interaction between such standards in setting rulemaking priorities and assessing manufacturer impacts of a particular standard. The Department will assess, as part of the engineering and impact analyses, the cost of components subject to efficiency standards.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Summary of quantitative and qualitative assessments.</I> The summary of quantitative and qualitative assessments will contain a description and discussion of uncertainties. Alternative estimates of impacts, resulting from the different potential scenarios developed throughout the analysis, will be explicitly presented in the final analysis results.
</P>
<P>(1) Key modeling and analytical tools. In its assessment of the likely impacts of standards on manufacturers, the Department will use models that are clear and understandable, feature accessible calculations, and have clearly explained assumptions. As a starting point, the Department will use the Government Regulatory Impact Model (GRIM). The Department will also support the development of economic models for price and volume forecasting. Research required to update key economic data will be considered.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<HD1>14. Principles for the Analysis of Impacts on Consumers
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Early consideration of impacts on consumer utility.</I> The Department will consider at the earliest stages of the development of a standard whether particular design options will lessen the utility of the covered products/equipment to the consumer. See paragraph (b) of section 6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Impacts on product/equipment availability.</I> The Department will determine, based on consideration of information submitted during the standard development process, whether a proposed standard is likely to result in the unavailability of any covered product/equipment type with performance characteristics (including reliability), features, sizes, capacities, and volumes that are substantially the same as products/equipment generally available in the U.S. at the time. DOE will not promulgate a standard if it concludes that it would result in such unavailability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department of Justice review.</I> As required by law, the Department will solicit the views of the Department of Justice on any lessening of competition likely to result from the imposition of a proposed standard and will give the views provided full consideration in assessing economic justification of a proposed standard. In addition, DOE may consult with the Department of Justice at earlier stages in the standards development process to seek its preliminary views on competitive impacts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Variation in consumer impacts.</I> The Department will use regional analysis and sensitivity analysis tools, as appropriate, to evaluate the potential distribution of impacts of candidate/trial standard levels among different subgroups of consumers. The Department will consider impacts on significant segments of consumers in determining standards levels. Where there are significant negative impacts on identifiable subgroups, DOE will consider the efficacy of voluntary approaches as a means to achieve potential energy savings.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payback period and first cost.</I> (1) In the assessment of consumer impacts of standards, the Department will consider Life-Cycle Cost, Payback Period, and Cost of Conserved Energy to evaluate the savings in operating expenses relative to increases in purchase price. The Department also performs sensitivity and scenario analyses when appropriate. The results of these analyses will be carried throughout the analysis and the ensuing uncertainty described.
</P>
<P>(2) If, in the analysis of consumer impacts, the Department determines that a candidate/trial standard level would result in a substantial increase in product/equipment first costs to consumers or would not pay back such additional first costs through energy cost savings in less than three years, Department will assess the likely impacts of such a standard on low-income households, product/equipment sales and fuel switching, as appropriate.
</P>
<HD1>15. Consideration of Non-Regulatory Approaches
</HD1>
<P>The Department recognizes that non-regulatory efforts by manufacturers, utilities, and other interested parties can result in substantial efficiency improvements. The Department intends to consider the likely effects of non-regulatory initiatives on product/equipment energy use, consumer utility and life-cycle costs, manufacturers, competition, utilities, and the environment, as well as the distribution of these impacts among different regions, consumers, manufacturers, and utilities. DOE will attempt to base its assessment on the actual impacts of such initiatives to date, but also will consider information presented regarding the impacts that any existing initiative might have in the future. Such information is likely to include a demonstration of the strong commitment of manufacturers, distribution channels, utilities, or others to such non-regulatory efficiency improvements. This information will be used in assessing the likely incremental impacts of establishing or revising standards, in assessing—where possible—appropriate compliance dates for new or revised standards, and in considering DOE support of non-regulatory initiatives.
</P>
<HD1>16. Cross-Cutting Analytical Assumptions
</HD1>
<P>In selecting values for certain cross-cutting analytical assumptions, DOE expects to continue relying upon the following sources and general principles:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Underlying economic assumptions.</I> The appliance standards analyses will generally use the same economic growth and development assumptions that underlie the most current <I>Annual Energy Outlook</I> (<I>AEO</I>) published by the Energy Information Administration (EIA).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Analytic time length.</I> The appliance standards analyses will use two time lengths—30 years and another time length that is specific to the standard being considered such as the useful lifetime of the product under consideration. As a sensitivity case, the analyses will also use a 9-year regulatory timeline in analyzing the effects of the standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Energy price and demand trends.</I> Analyses of the likely impact of appliance standards on typical users will generally adopt the mid-range energy price and demand scenario of the EIA's most current <I>AEO.</I> The sensitivity of such estimated impacts to possible variations in future energy prices are likely to be examined using the EIA's high and low energy price scenarios.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Product/equipment-specific energy-efficiency trends, without updated standards.</I> Product/equipment-specific energy-efficiency trends will be based on a combination of the efficiency trends forecast by the EIA's residential and commercial demand model of the National Energy Modeling System (NEMS) and product-specific assessments by DOE and its contractors with input from interested parties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Price forecasting.</I> DOE will endeavor to use robust price forecasting techniques in projecting future prices of products.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Private Discount rates.</I> For residential and commercial consumers, ranges of three different real discount rates will be used. For residential consumers, the mid-range discount rate will represent DOE's approximation of the average financing cost (or opportunity costs of reduced savings) experienced by typical consumers. Sensitivity analyses will be performed using discount rates reflecting the costs more likely to be experienced by residential consumers with little or no savings and credit card financing and consumers with substantial savings. For commercial users, a mid-range discount rate reflecting DOE's approximation of the average real rate of return on commercial investment will be used, with sensitivity analyses being performed using values indicative of the range of real rates of return likely to be experienced by typical commercial businesses. For national net present value calculations, DOE would use the Administration's approximation of the average real rate of return on private investment in the U.S. economy. For manufacturer impacts, DOE typically uses a range of real discount rates which are representative of the real rates of return experienced by typical U.S. manufacturers affected by the program.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Social discount rates.</I> Social discount rates as specified in OMB Circular A-4 will be used in assessing social effects such as costs and benefits.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Environmental impacts.</I> (1) DOE calculates emission reductions of carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, methane, nitrous oxides, and mercury likely to be avoided by candidate/trial standard levels based on an emissions analysis that includes the two components described in paragraphs (h)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The first component estimates the effect of potential candidate/trial standard levels on power sector and site combustion emissions of carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, mercury, methane, and nitrous oxide. DOE develops the power sector emissions analysis using a methodology based on DOE's latest <I>Annual Energy Outlook.</I> For site combustion of natural gas or petroleum fuels, the combustion emissions of carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides are estimated using emission intensity factors from the Environmental Protection Agency.
</P>
<P>(3) The second component of DOE's emissions analysis estimates the effect of potential candidate/trial standard levels on emissions of carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, mercury, methane, and nitrous oxide due to “upstream activities” in the fuel production chain. These upstream activities include the emissions related to extracting, processing, and transporting fuels to the site of combustion as detailed in DOE's Fuel-Fuel-Cycle Statement of Policy (76 FR 51281 (August 18, 2011)). DOE will consider the effects of the candidate/trial standard levels on these emissions after assessing the seven factors required to demonstrate economic justification under EPCA. Consistent with Executive Order 13783, dated March 28, 2017, when monetizing the value of changes in reductions in CO<E T="52">2</E> and nitrous oxides emissions resulting from its energy conservation standards regulations, including with respect to the consideration of domestic versus international impacts and the consideration of appropriate discount rates, DOE ensures, to the extent permitted by law, that any such estimates are consistent with the guidance contained in OMB Circular A-4 of September 17, 2003 (Regulatory Analysis).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 70924, Dec. 13, 2021, as amended at 89 FR 24359, Apr. 8, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Petitions To Exempt State Regulation From Preemption; Petitions To Withdraw Exemption of State Regulation</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 6078, Feb. 7, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 430.40" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.40   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart prescribes the procedures to be followed in connection with petitions requesting a rule that a State regulation prescribing an energy conservation standard, water conservation standard (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals), or other requirement respecting energy efficiency, energy use, or water use (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) of a type (or class) of covered product not be preempted.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart also prescribes the procedures to be followed in connection with petitions to withdraw a rule exempting a State regulation prescribing an energy conservation standard, water conservation standard (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals), or other requirement respecting energy efficiency, energy use, or water use (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) of a type (or class) of covered product.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 13318, Mar. 18, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.41" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.41   Prescriptions of a rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for exemption from preemption.</I> Upon petition by a State which has prescribed an energy conservation standard, water conservation standard (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals), or other requirement for a type or class of covered equipment for which a Federal energy conservation standard or water conservation standard is applicable, the Secretary shall prescribe a rule that such standard not be preempted if he determines that the State has established by a preponderance of evidence that such requirement is needed to meet unusual and compelling State or local energy interests or water interests. For the purposes of this section, the term “unusual and compelling State or local energy interests or water interests” means interests which are substantially different in nature or magnitude than those prevailing in the U.S. generally, and are such that when evaluated within the context of the State's energy plan and forecast, or water plan and forecast the costs, benefits, burdens, and reliability of energy savings or water savings resulting from the State regulation make such regulation preferable or necessary when measured against the costs, benefits, burdens, and reliability of alternative approaches to energy savings or water savings or production, including reliance on reasonably predictable market-induced improvements in efficiency of all equipment subject to the State regulation. The Secretary may not prescribe such a rule if he finds that interested persons have established, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the State's regulation will significantly burden manufacturing, marketing, distribution, sale or servicing of the covered equipment on a national basis. In determining whether to make such a finding, the Secretary shall evaluate all relevant factors including: the extent to which the State regulation will increase manufacturing or distribution costs of manufacturers, distributors, and others; the extent to which the State regulation will disadvantage smaller manufacturers, distributors, or dealers or lessen competition in the sale of the covered product in the State; the extent to which the State regulation would cause a burden to manufacturers to redesign and produce the covered product type (or class), taking into consideration the extent to which the regulation would result in a reduction in the current models, or in the projected availability of models, that could be shipped on the effective date of the regulation to the State and within the U.S., or in the current or projected sales volume of the covered product type (or class) in the State and the U.S.; and the extent to which the State regulation is likely to contribute significantly to a proliferation of State appliance efficiency requirements and the cumulative impact such requirements would have. The Secretary may not prescribe such a rule if he finds that such a rule will result in the unavailability in the State of any covered product (or class) of performance characteristics (including reliability), features, sizes, capacities, and volumes that are substantially the same as those generally available in the State at the time of the Secretary's finding. The failure of some classes (or types) to meet this criterion shall not affect the Secretary's determination of whether to prescribe a rule for other classes (or types).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requirements of petition for exemption from preemption.</I> A petition from a State for a rule for exemption from preemption shall include the information listed in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(vi) of this section. A petition for a rule and correspondence relating to such petition shall be available for public review except for confidential or proprietary information submitted in accordance with the Department of Energy's Freedom of Information Regulations set forth in 10 CFR part 1004:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the State standard for which a rule exempting such standard is sought;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the State's energy plan or water plan and forecast;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specification of each type or class of covered product for which a rule exempting a standard is sought;
</P>
<P>(v) Other information, if any, believed to be pertinent by the petitioner; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Such other information as the Secretary may require.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for exemption from preemption when energy emergency conditions or water emergency conditions (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) exist within State.</I> Upon petition by a State which has prescribed an energy conservation standard or water conservation standard (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) or other requirement for a type or class of covered product for which a Federal energy conservation standard or water conservation standard is applicable, the Secretary may prescribe a rule, effective upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> that such State regulation not be preempted if he determines that in addition to meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section the State has established that: an energy emergency condition or water emergency condition exists within the State that imperils the health, safety, and welfare of its residents because of the inability of the State or utilities within the State to provide adequate quantities of gas, electric energy, or water to its residents at less than prohibitive costs; and cannot be substantially alleviated by the importation of energy or water or the use of interconnection agreements; and the State regulation is necessary to alleviate substantially such condition.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requirements of petition for exemption from preemption when energy emergency conditions or water emergency conditions (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) exist within a State.</I> A petition from a State for a rule for exemption from preemption when energy emergency conditions or water emergency conditions exist within a State shall include the information listed in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(vi) of this section. A petition shall also include the information prescribed in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(iv) of this section, and shall be available for public review except for confidential or proprietary information submitted in accordance with the Department of Energy's Freedom of Information Regulations set forth in 10 CFR part 1004:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the energy emergency condition or water emergency condition (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) which exists within the State, including causes and impacts.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of emergency response actions taken by the State and utilities within the State to alleviate the emergency condition;
</P>
<P>(iii) An analysis of why the emergency condition cannot be alleviated substantially by importation of energy or water or the use of interconnection agreements; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An analysis of how the State standard can alleviate substantially such emergency condition.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for withdrawal of a rule exempting a State standard.</I> Any person subject to a State standard which, by rule, has been exempted from Federal preemption and which prescribes an energy conservation standard or water conservation standard (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) or other requirement for a type or class of a covered product, when the Federal energy conservation standard or water conservation standard (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) for such product subsequently is amended, may petition the Secretary requesting that the exemption rule be withdrawn. The Secretary shall consider such petition in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, except that the burden shall be on the petitioner to demonstrate that the exemption rule received by the State should be withdrawn as a result of the amendment to the Federal standard. The Secretary shall withdraw such rule if he determines that the petitioner has shown the rule should be withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requirements of petition to withdraw a rule exempting a State standard.</I> A petition for a rule to withdraw a rule exempting a State standard shall include the information prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (c)(1)(vii) of this section, and shall be available for public review, except for confidential or proprietary information submitted in accordance with the Department of Energy's Freedom of Information Regulations set forth in 10 CFR part 1004:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address and telephone number of the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the interest of the petitioner for which a rule withdrawing an exemption is sought;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the State standard for which a rule withdrawing an exemption is sought;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specification of each type or class of covered product for which a rule withdrawing an exemption is sought;
</P>
<P>(v) A discussion of the factors contained in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) Such other information, if any, believed to be pertinent by the petitioner; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Such other information as the Secretary may require.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 13318, Mar. 18, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.42" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.42   Filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> All documents required to be served under this subpart shall, if mailed, be served by first class mail. Service upon a person's duly authorized representative shall constitute service upon that person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obligation to supply information.</I> A person or State submitting a petition is under a continuing obligation to provide any new or newly discovered information relevant to that petition. Such information includes, but is not limited to, information regarding any other petition or request for action subsequently submitted by that person or State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The same or related matters.</I> A person or State submitting a petition or other request for action shall state whether to the best knowledge of that petitioner the same or related issue, act, or transaction has been or presently is being considered or investigated by any State agency, department, or instrumentality. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Computation of time.</I> (1) Computing any period of time prescribed by or allowed under this subpart, the day of the action from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. If the last day of the period is Saturday, or Sunday, or Federal legal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is neither a Saturday, or Sunday or Federal legal holiday. 
</P>
<P>(2) Saturdays, Sundays, and intervening Federal legal holidays shall be excluded from the computation of time when the period of time allowed or prescribed is 7 days or less. 
</P>
<P>(3) When a submission is required to be made within a prescribed time, DOE may grant an extension of time upon good cause shown. 
</P>
<P>(4) Documents received after regular business hours are deemed to have been submitted on the next regular business day. Regular business hours for the DOE's National Office, Washington, DC, are 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. 
</P>
<P>(5) DOE reserves the right to refuse to accept, and not to consider, untimely submissions. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing of petitions.</I> (1) A petition for a rule shall be submitted in triplicate to: The Assistant Secretary for Conservation and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, Section 327 Petitions, Appliance Efficiency Standards, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. 
</P>
<P>(2) A petition may be submitted on behalf of more than one person. A joint petition shall indicate each person participating in the submission. A joint petition shall provide the information required by § 430.41 for each person on whose behalf the petition is submitted. 
</P>
<P>(3) All petitions shall be signed by the person(s) submitting the petition or by a duly authorized representative. If submitted by a duly authorized representative, the petition shall certify this authorization. 
</P>
<P>(4) A petition for a rule to withdraw a rule exempting a State regulation, all supporting documents, and all future submissions shall be served on each State agency, department, or instrumentality whose regulation the petitioner seeks to supersede. The petition shall contain a certification of this service which states the name and mailing address of the served parties, and the date of service. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acceptance for filing.</I> (1) Within fifteen (15) days of the receipt of a petition, the Secretary will either accept it for filing or reject it, and the petitioner will be so notified in writing. The Secretary will serve a copy of this notification on each other party served by the petitioner. Only such petitions which conform to the requirements of this subpart and which contain sufficient information for the purposes of a substantive decision will be accepted for filing. Petitions which do not so conform will be rejected and an explanation provided to petitioner in writing. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of the Act and this subpart, a petition is deemed to be filed on the date it is accepted for filing. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Docket.</I> A petition accepted for filing will be assigned an appropriate docket designation. Petitioner shall use the docket designation in all subsequent submissions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.43" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.43   Notice of petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Promptly after receipt of a petition and its acceptance for filing, notice of such petition shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall set forth the availability for public review of all data and information available, and shall solicit comments, data and information with respect to the determination on the petition. Except as may otherwise be specified, the period for public comment shall be 60 days after the notice appears in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the material required under paragraph (a) of this section, each notice shall contain a summary of the State regulation at issue and the petitioner's reasons for the rule sought. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.44" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.44   Consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may consolidate any or all matters at issue in two or more proceedings docketed where there exist common parties, common questions of fact and law, and where such consolidation would expedite or simplify consideration of the issues. Consolidation shall not affect the right of any party to raise issues that could have been raised if consolidation had not occurred. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.45" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.45   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may hold a public hearing, and publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the date and location of the hearing, when he determines that such a hearing is necessary and likely to result in a timely and effective resolution of the issues. A transcript shall be kept of any such hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.46" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.46   Disposition of petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the submission of public comments under § 430.42(a), the Secretary shall prescribe a final rule or deny the petition within 6 months after the date the petition is filed. 
</P>
<P>(b) The final rule issued by the Secretary or a determination by the Secretary to deny the petition shall include a written statement setting forth his findings and conclusions, and the reasons and basis therefor. A copy of the Secretary's decision shall be sent to the petitioner and the affected State agency. The Secretary shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the final rule granting or denying the petition and the reasons and basis therefor. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the Secretary finds that he cannot issue a final rule within the 6-month period pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, he shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> extending such period to a date certain, but no longer than one year after the date on which the petition was filed. Such notice shall include the reasons for the delay. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.47" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.47   Effective dates of final rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A final rule exempting a State standard from Federal preemption will be effective: 
</P>
<P>(1) Upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if the Secretary determines that such rule is needed to meet an “energy emergency condition or water emergency condition (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals)” within the State. 
</P>
<P>(2) Three years after such rule is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Five years after such rule is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if the Secretary determines that such additional time is necessary due to the burdens of retooling, redesign or distribution. 
</P>
<P>(b) A final rule withdrawing a rule exempting a State standard will be effective upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 6078, Feb. 7, 1989, as amended at 63 FR 13319, Mar. 18, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.48" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.48   Request for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any petitioner whose petition for a rule has been denied may request reconsideration within 30 days of denial. The request shall contain a statement of facts and reasons supporting reconsideration and shall be submitted in writing to the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(b) The denial of a petition will be reconsidered only where it is alleged and demonstrated that the denial was based on error in law or fact and that evidence of the error is found in the record of the proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the Secretary fails to take action on the request for reconsideration within 30 days, the request is deemed denied, and the petitioner may seek such judicial review as may be appropriate and available. 
</P>
<P>(d) A petitioner has not exhausted other administrative remedies until a request for reconsideration has been filed and acted upon or deemed denied. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.49" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.4.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.49   Finality of decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A decision to prescribe a rule that a State energy conservation standard, water conservation standard (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) or other requirement not be preempted is final on the date the rule is issued, i.e., signed by the Secretary. A decision to prescribe such a rule has no effect on other regulations of a covered product of any other State. 
</P>
<P>(b) A decision to prescribe a rule withdrawing a rule exempting a State standard or other requirement is final on the date the rule is issued, i.e., signed by the Secretary. A decision to deny such a petition is final on the day a denial of a request for reconsideration is issued, i.e., signed by the Secretary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 6078, Feb. 7, 1989, as amended at 63 FR 13319, Mar. 18, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Small Business Exemptions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 6080, Feb. 7, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 430.50" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.50   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes procedures for the submission and disposition of applications filed by manufacturers of covered consumer products with annual gross revenues that do not exceed $8 million to exempt them temporarily from all or part of energy conservation standards or water conservation standards (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) established by this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of this subpart is to provide content and format requirements for manufacturers of covered consumer products with low annual gross revenues who desire to apply for temporary exemptions from applicable energy conservation standards or water conservation standards (in the case of faucets, showerheads, water closets, and urinals) . 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 6080, Feb. 7, 1989, as amended at 63 FR 13319, Mar. 18, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.51" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.51   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>Any manufacturer of a covered product with annual gross revenues that do not exceed $8,000,000 from all its operations (including the manufacture and sale of covered products) for the 12-month period preceding the date of application may apply for an exemption. In determining the annual gross revenues of any manufacturer under this subpart, the annual gross revenue of any other person who controls, is controlled, by, or is under common control with, such manufacturer shall be taken into account. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.52" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.52   Requirements for applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application filed under this subpart shall be submitted in triplicate to: U.S. Department of Energy, Small Business Exemptions, Appliance Efficiency Standards, Assistant Secretary for Conservation and Renewable Energy, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. 
</P>
<P>(b) An application shall be in writing and shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Name and mailing address of applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the applicant controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another manufacturer, and if so, the nature of that control relationship;
</P>
<P>(3) The text or substance of the standard or portion thereof for which the exemption is sought and the length of time desired for the exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) Information showing the annual gross revenue of the applicant for the preceding 12-month period from all of its operations (including the manufacture and sale of covered products): 
</P>
<P>(5) Information to show that failure to grant an exemption is likely to result in a lessening of competition; 
</P>
<P>(6) Such other information, if any, believed to be pertinent by the petitioner; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Such other information as the Secretary may require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.53" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.53   Processing of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant shall serve a copy of the application, all supporting documents and all subsequent submissions, or a copy from which confidential information has been deleted pursuant to 10 CFR 1004.11, to the Secretary, which may be made available for public review.
</P>
<P>(b) Within fifteen (15) days of the receipt of an application, the Secretary will either accept it for filing or reject it, and the applicant will be so notified in writing. Only such applications which conform to the requirements of this subpart and which contain sufficient information for the purposes of a substantive decision will be accepted for filing. Applications which do not so conform will be rejected and an explanation provided to the applicant in writing. 
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of this subpart, an application is deemed to be filed on the date it is accepted for filing. 
</P>
<P>(d) Promptly after receipt of an application and its acceptance for filing, notice of such application shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall set forth the availability for public review of data and information available, and shall solicit comments, data and information with respect to the determination on the application. Except as may otherwise be specified, the period for public comment shall be 60 days after the notice appears in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary on his own initiative may convene a hearing if, in his discretion, he considers such hearing will advance his evaluation of the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.54" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.54   Referral to the Attorney General.</HEAD>
<P>Notice of the application for exemption under this subpart shall be transmitted to the Attorney General by the Secretary and shall contain (a) a statement of the facts and of the reasons for the exemption, and (b) copies of all documents submitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.55" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.55   Evaluation of application.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall grant an application for exemption submitted under this subpart if the Secretary finds, after obtaining the written views of the Attorney General, that a failure to allow an exemption would likely result in a lessening of competition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.56" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.56   Decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon consideration of the application and other relevant information received or obtained, the Secretary shall issue an order granting or denying the application. 
</P>
<P>(b) The order shall include a written statement setting forth the relevant facts and the legal basis of the order. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary shall serve a copy of the order upon the applicant and upon any other person readily identifiable by the Secretary as one who is interested in or aggrieved by such order. The Secretary also shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the grant or denial of the order and the reason therefor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 430.57" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.5.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 430.57   Duration of temporary exemption.</HEAD>
<P>A temporary exemption terminates according to its terms but not later than twenty-four months after the affective date of the rule for which the exemption is allowed. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:3.0.1.4.18.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>May 20, 2026,fm
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="4" NODE="10:4" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 10—Energy--Volume 4</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ii</E>—Department of Energy 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>202


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="II" NODE="10:4.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER II—DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—ENERGY CONSERVATION 




</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="431" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 431—ENERGY EFFICIENCY PROGRAM FOR CERTAIN COMMERCIAL AND INDUSTRIAL EQUIPMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6291-6317; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 54141, Oct. 5, 1999, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 90 FR 43371, Sept. 9, 2025, as required by the Congressional Review Act and Pub. L. 119-8, the Department of Energy removed the amendments to several sections in part 431 made effective on Dec. 23, 2024, at 89 FR 91163, Oct. 9, 2024. As of Sept. 9, 2025, the affected sections reverted to the Dec. 22, 2024 version.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.1.38.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the regulations for the implementation of provisions relating to commercial and industrial equipment in Part B of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (42 U.S.C. 6291-6309) and in Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (42 U.S.C. 6311-6317), which establishes an energy conservation program for certain commercial and industrial equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60414, Oct. 18, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.1.38.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this part. Any words or terms not defined in this Section or elsewhere in this part shall be defined as provided in Section 340 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6316.
</P>
<P><I>Alternate efficiency determination method or AEDM</I> means a method of calculating the efficiency of a commercial HVAC and WH product, in terms of the descriptor used in or under section 342(a) of the Act to state the energy conservation standard for that product.
</P>
<P><I>Btu</I> means British thermal unit, which is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water by one degree Fahrenheit.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial HVAC &amp; WH product</I> means any small, large, or very large commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment (as defined in § 431.92), packaged terminal air conditioner (as defined in § 431.92), packaged terminal heat pump (as defined in § 431.92), single package vertical air conditioner (as defined in § 431.92), single package vertical heat pump (as defined in § 431.92), computer room air conditioner (as defined in § 431.92), variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioner (as defined in § 431.92), variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat pump (as defined in § 431.92), unitary dedicated outdoor air system (as defined in § 431.92), commercial packaged boiler (as defined in § 431.82), hot water supply boiler (as defined in § 431.102), commercial warm air furnace (as defined in § 431.72), instantaneous water heater (as defined in § 431.102), storage water heater (as defined in § 431.102), or unfired hot water storage tank (as defined in § 431.102).
</P>
<P><I>Covered equipment</I> means any electric motor, as defined in § 431.12; commercial heating, ventilating, and air conditioning, and water heating product (HVAC &amp; WH product), as defined in § 431.172; commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer, as defined in § 431.62; automatic commercial ice maker, as defined in § 431.132; commercial clothes washer, as defined in § 431.152; distribution transformer, as defined in § 431.192; illuminated exit sign, as defined in § 431.202; traffic signal module or pedestrian module, as defined in § 431.222; unit heater, as defined in § 431.242; commercial prerinse spray valve, as defined in § 431.262; mercury vapor lamp ballast, as defined in § 431.282; refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine, as defined in § 431.292; walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer, as defined in § 431.302; metal halide ballast and metal halide lamp fixture, as defined in § 431.322.








</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> or <I>the Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Energy conservation standard</I> means any standards meeting the definitions of that term in 42 U.S.C. 6291(6) and 42 U.S.C. 6311(18) as well as any other water conservation standards and design requirements found in this part or parts 430 or 431.
</P>
<P><I>EPCA</I> means the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6316.
</P>
<P><I>Flue loss</I> means the sum of the sensible heat and latent heat above room temperature of the flue gases leaving the appliance.
</P>
<P><I>Gas</I> means propane or natural gas as defined by the Federal Power Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Import</I> means to import into the customs territory of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Independent laboratory</I> means a laboratory or test facility not controlled by, affiliated with, having financial ties with, or under common control with the manufacturer or distributor of the covered equipment being evaluated.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial equipment</I> means an article of equipment, regardless of whether it is in fact distributed in commerce for industrial or commercial use, of a type which:
</P>
<P>(1) In operation consumes, or is designed to consume energy;
</P>
<P>(2) To any significant extent, is distributed in commerce for industrial or commercial use; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is not a “covered product” as defined in Section 321(2) of EPCA, 42 U.S.C. 6291(2), other than a component of a covered product with respect to which there is in effect a determination under Section 341(c) of EPCA, 42 U.S.C. 6312(c).
</P>
<P><I>ISO</I> means International Organization for Standardization.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacture</I> means to manufacture, produce, assemble, or import.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means any person who manufactures industrial equipment, including any manufacturer of a commercial packaged boiler.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer's model number</I> means the identifier used by a manufacturer to uniquely identify the group of identical or essentially identical commercial equipment to which a particular unit belongs. The manufacturer's model number typically appears on equipment nameplates, in equipment catalogs and in other product advertising literature.
</P>
<P><I>Private labeler</I> means, with respect to any product covered under this part, an owner of a brand or trademark on the label of a covered product which bears a private label. A covered product bears a private label if:
</P>
<P>(1) Such product (or its container) is labeled with the brand or trademark of a person other than a manufacturer of such product;
</P>
<P>(2) The person with whose brand or trademark such product (or container) is labeled has authorized or caused such product to be so labeled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The brand or trademark of a manufacturer of such product does not appear on such label.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a State, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>State regulation</I> means a law or regulation of a State or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61923, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 71369, Dec. 8, 2006; 74 FR 12071, Mar. 23, 2009; 75 FR 666, Jan. 5, 2010; 76 FR 12503, Mar. 7, 2011; 77 FR 28987, May 16, 2012; 79 FR 26601, May 9, 2014; 87 FR 45197, July 27, 2022; 89 FR 82071, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43384, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.1.38.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.3   Error Correction procedure for energy conservation standards rules.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for error corrections pertaining to an energy conservation standard rule for commercial or industrial equipment shall follow those procedures and provisions detailed in 10 CFR 430.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 57758, Aug. 24, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.4" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.1.38.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.4   Procedures, interpretations, and policies for consideration of new or revised energy conservation standards and test procedures for commercial/industrial equipment.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures, interpretations, and policies for consideration of new or revised energy conservation standards and test procedures set forth in appendix A to subpart C of part 430 of this chapter shall apply to the consideration of new or revised energy conservation standards and test procedures considered for adoption under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 8711, Feb. 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Electric Motors</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 61923, Oct. 21, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.11" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.38.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.11   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for electric motors. It contains test procedures that EPCA requires DOE to prescribe, related requirements, energy conservation standards prescribed by EPCA, labeling rules, and compliance procedures. It also identifies materials incorporated by reference in this part. This subpart does not cover “small electric motors,” which are addressed in subpart X of this part. This subpart does not cover electric motors that are “dedicated-purpose pool pump motors,” which are addressed in subpart Z of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 26633, May 4, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 40774, July 29, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.12" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.38.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this subpart, and of subparts U and V of this part. Any words or terms not defined in this Section or elsewhere in this part shall be defined as provided in Section 340 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation</I> means recognition by an accreditation body that a laboratory is competent to test the efficiency of electric motors according to the scope and procedures given in IEEE 112-2017 Test Method B, CSA C390-10, or IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.15).
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation body</I> means an organization or entity that conducts and administers an accreditation system and grants accreditation.
</P>
<P><I>Accreditation system</I> means a set of requirements to be fulfilled by a testing laboratory, as well as rules of procedure and management, that are used to accredit laboratories.
</P>
<P><I>Accredited laboratory</I> means a testing laboratory to which accreditation has been granted.
</P>
<P><I>Air-over electric motor</I> means an electric motor that does not reach thermal equilibrium (<I>i.e.,</I> thermal stability), during a rated load temperature test according to section 2 of appendix B, without the application of forced cooling by a free flow of air from an external device not mechanically connected to the motor within the motor enclosure.
</P>
<P><I>Alternative efficiency determination method</I> or <I>AEDM</I> means, with respect to an electric motor, a method of calculating the total power loss and average full load efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Average full load efficiency</I> means the arithmetic mean of the full load efficiencies of a population of electric motors of duplicate design, where the full load efficiency of each motor in the population is the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the motor's useful power output to its total power input when the motor is operated at its full rated load, rated voltage, and rated frequency.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of electric motors manufactured by a single manufacturer, that are within the same equipment class, have electrical characteristics that are essentially identical, and do not have any differing physical or functional characteristics that affect energy consumption or efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Brake electric motor</I> means a motor that contains a dedicated mechanism for speed reduction, such as a brake, either within or external to the motor enclosure
</P>
<P><I>Certificate of conformity</I> means a document that is issued by a certification program, and that gives written assurance that an electric motor complies with the energy efficiency standard applicable to that motor, as specified in § 431.25.
</P>
<P><I>Certification program</I> means a certification system that determines conformity by electric motors with the energy efficiency standards prescribed by and pursuant to the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Certification system</I> means a system, that has its own rules of procedure and management, for giving written assurance that a product, process, or service conforms to a specific standard or other specified requirements, and that is operated by an entity independent of both the party seeking the written assurance and the party providing the product, process or service.
</P>
<P><I>Component set</I> means a combination of motor parts that require the addition of more than two endshields (and their associated bearings) to create an operable motor. These parts may consist of any combination of a stator frame, wound stator, rotor, shaft, or endshields. For the purpose of this definition, the term “operable motor” means an electric motor engineered for performing in accordance with nameplate ratings.
</P>
<P><I>CSA</I> means Canadian Standards Association.
</P>
<P><I>Definite purpose electric motor</I> means any electric motor that cannot be used in most general purpose applications and is designed either:
</P>
<P>(1) To standard ratings with standard operating characteristics or standard mechanical construction for use under service conditions other than usual, such as those specified in NEMA MG 1-2016, Paragraph 14.3, “Unusual Service Conditions,” (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15); or
</P>
<P>(2) For use on a particular type of application.
</P>
<P><I>Definite purpose motor</I> means any electric motor that cannot be used in most general purpose applications and is designed either:
</P>
<P>(1) To standard ratings with standard operating characteristics or standard mechanical construction for use under service conditions other than usual, such as those specified in NEMA MG 1-2016, Paragraph 14.3, “Unusual Service Conditions,” (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15); or
</P>
<P>(2) For use on a particular type of application.
</P>
<P><I>Electric motor</I> means a machine that converts electrical power into rotational mechanical power.
</P>
<P><I>Electric motor with encapsulated windings</I> means an electric motor capable of passing the conformance test for water resistance described in NEMA MG 1-2016, Paragraph 12.62 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15).
</P>
<P><I>Electric motor with moisture resistant windings</I> means an electric motor that is capable of passing the conformance test for moisture resistance generally described in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 12.63 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15).
</P>
<P><I>Electric motor with sealed windings</I> means an electric motor capable of passing the conformance test for water resistance described in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 12.62 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15).
</P>
<P><I>Enclosed motor</I> means an electric motor so constructed as to prevent the free exchange of air between the inside and outside of the case but not sufficiently enclosed to be termed airtight.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment class</I> means one of the combinations of an electric motor's horsepower (or standard kilowatt equivalent), number of poles, and open or enclosed construction, with respect to a category of electric motor for which § 431.25 prescribes nominal full-load efficiency standards.
</P>
<P><I>Fire pump electric motor</I> means an electric motor, including any IEC-equivalent, that meets the requirements of section 9.5 of NFPA 20 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.15).
</P>
<P><I>General purpose electric motor</I> means any electric motor that is designed in standard ratings with either:
</P>
<P>(1) Standard operating characteristics and mechanical construction for use under usual service conditions, such as those specified in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 14.2, “Usual Service Conditions,” (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) and without restriction to a particular application or type of application; or
</P>
<P>(2) Standard operating characteristics or standard mechanical construction for use under unusual service conditions, such as those specified in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 14.3, “Unusual Service Conditions,” (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) or for a particular type of application, and which can be used in most general purpose applications.
</P>
<P><I>General purpose electric motor (subtype I)</I> means a general purpose electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a single-speed, induction motor;
</P>
<P>(2) Is rated for continuous duty (MG1) operation or for duty type S1 (IEC);
</P>
<P>(3) Contains a squirrel-cage (MG1) or cage (IEC) rotor;
</P>
<P>(4) Has foot-mounting that may include foot-mounting with flanges or detachable feet;
</P>
<P>(5) Is built in accordance with NEMA T-frame dimensions or their IEC metric equivalents, including a frame size that is between two consecutive NEMA frame sizes or their IEC metric equivalents;
</P>
<P>(6) Has performance in accordance with NEMA Design A (MG1) or B (MG1) characteristics or equivalent designs such as IEC Design N (IEC);
</P>
<P>(7) Operates on polyphase alternating current 60-hertz sinusoidal power, and:
</P>
<P>(i) Is rated at 230 or 460 volts (or both) including motors rated at multiple voltages that include 230 or 460 volts (or both), or
</P>
<P>(ii) Can be operated on 230 or 460 volts (or both); and
</P>
<P>(8) Includes, but is not limited to, explosion-proof construction.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to definition of “General purpose electric motor (subtype I)”:</HED>
<P>References to “MG1” above refer to NEMA Standards Publication MG 1-2016 (incorporated by reference in § 431.15). References to “IEC” above refer to IEC 60034-1, 60034-12:2016, 60050-411, and 60072-1 (incorporated by reference in § 431.15), as applicable.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>General purpose electric motor (subtype II)</I> means any general purpose electric motor that incorporates design elements of a general purpose electric motor (subtype I) but, unlike a general purpose electric motor (subtype I), is configured in one or more of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) Is built in accordance with NEMA U-frame dimensions as described in NEMA MG 1-1967 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) or in accordance with the IEC metric equivalents, including a frame size that is between two consecutive NEMA frame sizes or their IEC metric equivalents;
</P>
<P>(2) Has performance in accordance with NEMA Design C characteristics as described in MG1 or an equivalent IEC design(s) such as IEC Design H;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a close-coupled pump motor;
</P>
<P>(4) Is a footless motor;
</P>
<P>(5) Is a vertical solid shaft normal thrust motor (as tested in a horizontal configuration) built and designed in a manner consistent with MG1;
</P>
<P>(6) Is an eight-pole motor (900 rpm); or
</P>
<P>(7) Is a polyphase motor with a voltage rating of not more than 600 volts, is not rated at 230 or 460 volts (or both), and cannot be operated on 230 or 460 volts (or both).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to definition of “General purpose electric motor (subtype II)”:</HED>
<P>With the exception of the NEMA Motor Standards MG1-1967 (incorporated by reference in § 431.15), references to “MG1” above refer to NEMA MG 1-2016 (incorporated by reference in § 431.15). References to “IEC” above refer to IEC 60034-1, 60034-12, 60050-411, and 60072-1 (incorporated by reference in § 431.15), as applicable.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>IEC</I> means the International Electrotechnical Commission.
</P>
<P><I>IEC Design H motor</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an induction motor designed for use with three-phase power;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a cage rotor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of direct-on-line starting
</P>
<P>(4) Has 4, 6, or 8 poles;
</P>
<P>(5) Is rated from 0.12 kW to 160 kW at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conforms to Sections 9.1, 9.2, and 9.3 of the IEC 60034-12:2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) specifications for starting torque, locked rotor apparent power, and starting requirements, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>IEC Design HE</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an induction motor designed for use with three-phase power;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a cage rotor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of direct-on-line starting;
</P>
<P>(4) Has 4, 6, or 8 poles;
</P>
<P>(5) Is rated from 0.12 kW to 160 kW at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conforms to section 9.1, Table 3, and Section 9.3 of the IEC 60034-12:2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) specifications for starting torque, locked rotor apparent power, and starting requirements, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>IEC Design HEY</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an induction motor designed for use with three-phase power;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a cage rotor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of star-delta starting;
</P>
<P>(4) Has 4, 6, or 8 poles;
</P>
<P>(5) Is rated from 0.12 kW to 160 kW at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conforms to section 5.7, Table 3 and Section 9.3 of the IEC 60034-12:2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) specifications for starting torque, locked rotor apparent power, and starting requirements, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>IEC Design HY</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an induction motor designed for use with three-phase power;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a cage rotor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of star-delta starting;
</P>
<P>(4) Has 4, 6, or 8 poles;
</P>
<P>(5) Is rated from 0.12 kW to 160 kW at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conforms to Section 5.7, Section 9.2 and Section 9.3 of the IEC 60034-12:2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) specifications for starting torque, locked rotor apparent power, and starting requirements, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>IEC Design N motor</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an induction motor designed for use with three-phase power;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a cage rotor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of direct-on-line starting;
</P>
<P>(4) Has 2, 4, 6, or 8 poles;
</P>
<P>(5) Is rated from 0.12 kW to 1600 kW at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conforms to Sections 6.1, 6.2, and 6.3 of the IEC 60034-12:2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) specifications for torque characteristics, locked rotor apparent power, and starting requirements, respectively. If a motor has an increased safety designation of type “e,”, the locked rotor apparent power shall be in accordance with the appropriate values specified in IEC 60079-7:2015 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15).
</P>
<P><I>IEC Design NE</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an induction motor designed for use with three-phase power;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a cage rotor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of direct-on-line starting;
</P>
<P>(4) Has 2, 4, 6, or 8 poles;
</P>
<P>(5) Is rated from 0.12 kW to 1600 kW at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conforms to section 6.1, Table 3 and Section 6.3 of the IEC 60034-12:2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) specifications for starting torque, locked rotor apparent power, and starting requirements, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>IEC Design NEY</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an induction motor designed for use with three-phase power;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a cage rotor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of star-delta starting;
</P>
<P>(4) Has 2, 4, 6, or 8 poles;
</P>
<P>(5) Is rated from 0.12 kW to 1600 kW at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conforms to section 5.4, Table 3 and Section 6.3 of the IEC 60034-12:2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) specifications for starting torque, locked rotor apparent power, and starting requirements, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>IEC Design NY</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an induction motor designed for use with three-phase power;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains a cage rotor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is capable of star-delta starting;
</P>
<P>(4) Has 2, 4, 6, or 8 poles;
</P>
<P>(5) Is rated from 0.12 kW to 1600 kW at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conforms to Section 5.4, Section 6.2 and Section 6.3 of the IEC 60034-12:2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15) specifications for starting torque, locked rotor apparent power, and starting requirements, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>IEEE</I> means the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Inc.
</P>
<P><I>Immersible electric motor</I> means an electric motor primarily designed to operate continuously in free-air, but is also capable of temporarily withstanding complete immersion in liquid for a continuous period of no less than 30 minutes.
</P>
<P><I>Inverter</I> means an electronic device that converts an input AC or DC power into a controlled output AC or DC voltage or current. An inverter may also be called a converter.
</P>
<P><I>Inverter-capable electric motor</I> means an electric motor designed for direct online starting and is suitable for operation on an inverter without special filtering.
</P>
<P><I>Inverter-only electric motor</I> means an electric motor designed specifically for operation fed by an inverter with a temperature rise within the specified insulation thermal class or thermal limits.
</P>
<P><I>Liquid-cooled electric motor</I> means a motor that is cooled by liquid circulated using a designated cooling apparatus such that the liquid or liquid-filled conductors come into direct contact with the parts of the motor but is not submerged in a liquid during operation.
</P>
<P><I>NEMA</I> means the National Electrical Manufacturers Association.
</P>
<P><I>NEMA Design A motor</I> means a squirrel-cage motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed to withstand full-voltage starting and developing locked-rotor torque as shown in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 12.38.1 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15);
</P>
<P>(2) Has pull-up torque not less than the values shown in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 12.40.1;
</P>
<P>(3) Has breakdown torque not less than the values shown in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 12.39.1;
</P>
<P>(4) Has a locked-rotor current higher than the values shown in NEMA MG 1-2016, Paragraph 12.35.2 for 60 hertz and NEMA MG 1-2016, Paragraph 12.35.4 for 50 hertz; and
</P>
<P>(5) Has a slip at rated load of less than 5 percent for motors with fewer than 10 poles.
</P>
<P><I>NEMA Design B motor</I> means a squirrel-cage motor that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Designed to withstand full-voltage starting;
</P>
<P>(2) Develops locked-rotor, breakdown, and pull-up torques adequate for general application as specified in Sections 12.38, 12.39 and 12.40 of NEMA MG 1-2016 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15);
</P>
<P>(3) Draws locked-rotor current not to exceed the values shown in Section 12.35.2 for 60 hertz and 12.35.4 for 50 hertz of NEMA MG 1-2016; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has a slip at rated load of less than 5 percent for motors with fewer than 10 poles.
</P>
<P><I>NEMA Design C motor</I> means a squirrel-cage motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed to withstand full-voltage starting and developing locked-rotor torque for high-torque applications up to the values shown in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 12.38.2 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15);
</P>
<P>(2) Has pull-up torque not less than the values shown in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 12.40.2;
</P>
<P>(3) Has breakdown torque not less than the values shown in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraph 12.39.2;
</P>
<P>(4) Has a locked-rotor current not to exceed the values shown in NEMA MG 1-2016, paragraphs 12.35.2 for 60 hertz and 12.35.4 for 50 hertz; and
</P>
<P>(5) Has a slip at rated load of less than 5 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Nominal full-load efficiency</I> means, with respect to an electric motor, a representative value of efficiency selected from the “nominal efficiency” column of Table 12-10, NEMA MG 1-2016, (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.15), that is not greater than the average full-load efficiency of a population of motors of the same design.
</P>
<P><I>Open motor</I> means an electric motor having ventilating openings which permit passage of external cooling air over and around the windings of the machine.
</P>
<P><I>Partial electric motor</I> means an assembly of motor components necessitating the addition of no more than two endshields, including bearings, to create an electric motor capable of operation in accordance with the applicable nameplate ratings.
</P>
<P><I>Rated frequency</I> means 60 Hz and corresponds to the frequency of the electricity supplied either:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly to the motor, in the case of electric motors capable of operating without an inverter; or
</P>
<P>(2) To the inverter in the case on inverter-only electric motors.
</P>
<P><I>Rated load</I> (or <I>full-load, full rated load,</I> or <I>rated full-load</I>) means the rated output power of an electric motor.
</P>
<P><I>Rated voltage</I> means the input voltage of a motor or inverter used when making representations of the performance characteristics of a given electric motor and selected by the motor's manufacturer to be used for testing the motor's efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Special purpose motor</I> means any motor, other than a general purpose motor or definite purpose motor, which has special operating characteristics or special mechanical construction, or both, designed for a particular application.
</P>
<P><I>Special purpose electric motor</I> means any electric motor, other than a general purpose motor or definite electric purpose motor, which has special operating characteristics or special mechanical construction, or both, designed for a particular application.


</P>
<P><I>Specialized frame size</I> means an electric motor frame size for which the rated output power of the motor exceeds the motor frame size limits specified for standard frame size. Specialized frame sizes have maximum diameters corresponding to the following NEMA Frame Sizes:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Maximum NEMA frame diameters
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">2 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">8 Pole
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Standard frame size</I> means a motor frame size that aligns with the specifications in NEMA MG 1-2016, section 13.2 for open motors, and NEMA MG 1-2016, section 13.3 for enclosed motors (incorporated by reference, see § 431.15).




</P>
<P><I>Submersible electric motor</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is intended to operate continuously only while submerged in liquid;
</P>
<P>(2) Is capable of operation while submerged in liquid for an indefinite period of time; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has been sealed to prevent ingress of liquid from contacting the motor's internal parts.
</P>
<P><I>Total power loss</I> means that portion of the energy used by an electric motor not converted to rotational mechanical power, expressed in percent.
</P>
<P><I>Totally enclosed non-ventilated (TENV) electric motor</I> means an electric motor that is built in a frame-surface cooled, totally enclosed configuration that is designed and equipped to be cooled only by free convection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61923, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 12071, Mar. 23, 2009; 77 FR 26633, May 4, 2012; 78 FR 75993, Dec. 13, 2013; 79 FR 31009, May 29, 2014; 86 FR 21, Jan. 4, 2021; 87 FR 63654, Oct. 19, 2022; 87 FR 64689, Oct. 26, 2022; 88 FR 36150, Sept. 29, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="38" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.38" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures, Materials Incorporated and Methods of Determining Efficiency</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.14" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.38.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.14   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.15" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.38.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.15   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs:
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CSA.</I> Canadian Standards Association, Sales Department, 5060 Spectrum Way, Suite 100, Mississauga, Ontario, L4W 5N6, Canada; (800) 463-6727; <I>www.shopcsa.ca/onlinestore/welcome.asp.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) CSA C390-10 (reaffirmed 2019), (“CSA C390-10”), <I>Test methods, marking requirements, and energy efficiency levels for three-phase induction motors,</I> including Updates No. 1 through 3, Revised January 2020; IBR approved for § 431.12 and appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) CSA C747-09 (reaffirmed 2019) (“CSA C747-09”), <I>Energy efficiency test methods for small motors,</I> including Update No. 1 (August 2016), October 2009; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IEC.</I> International Electrotechnical Commission Central Office, 3, rue de Varembé, P.O. Box 131, CH-1211 GENEVA 20, Switzerland; + 41 22 919 02 11; <I>webstore.iec.ch.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEC 60034-1 Edition 12.0 2010-02, (“IEC 60034-1”), Rotating Electrical Machines, Part 1: Rating and Performance, February 2010, IBR approved as follows: section 4: Duty, clause 4.2.1 and Figure 1, IBR approved for § 431.12.
</P>
<P>(2) IEC 60034-1, Edition 12.0 2010-02, (“IEC 60034-1:2010”), Rotating Electrical Machines—Part 1: Rating and Performance, IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) IEC 60034-2-1:2014, <I>Rotating electrical machines—Part 2-1: Standard methods for determining losses and efficiency from tests (excluding machines for traction vehicles),</I> Edition 2.0, 2014-06; IBR approved for § 431.12 and appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) IEC 60034-12:2016, <I>Rotating electrical machines, Part 12: Starting performance of single-speed three-phase cage induction motors,</I> Edition 3.0, 2016-11; IBR approved for § 431.12.
</P>
<P>(5) IEC 60050-411, International Electrotechnical Vocabulary Chapter 411: Rotating machines, 1996, IBR approved as follows: sections 411-33-07 and 411-37-26, IBR approved for § 431.12.
</P>
<P>(6) IEC 60051-1:2016, Edition 6.0 2016-02, (“IEC 60051-1:2016”), Direct acting indicating analogue electrical measuring instruments and their accessories—Part 1: Definitions and general requirements common to all parts, IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) IEC 60072-1, <I>Dimensions and Output Series for Rotating Electrical Machines—Part 1: Frame numbers 56 to 400 and flange numbers 55 to 1080,</I> Sixth edition, 1991-02; IBR approved as follows: clauses 2, 3, 4.1, 6.1, 7, and 10, and Tables 1, 2 and 4; IBR approved for § 431.12 and appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(8) IEC 60079-7:2015, <I>Explosive atmospheres—Part 7: Equipment protection by increased safety “e”,</I> Edition 5.0, 2015-06; IBR approved for § 431.12.
</P>
<P>(9) IEC 61800-9-2:2017, <I>Adjustable speed electrical power drive systems—Part 9-2: Ecodesign for power drive systems, motor starters, power electronics and their driven applications—Energy efficiency indicators for power drive systems and motor starters,</I> Edition 1.0, 2017-03; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>IEEE.</I> Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Inc., 445 Hoes Lane, P.O. Box 1331, Piscataway, NJ 08855-1331; (800) 678-IEEE (4333); <I>www.ieee.org/web/publications/home/index.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEEE Std 112-2017 (“IEEE 112-2017”), <I>IEEE Standard Test Procedure for Polyphase Induction Motors and Generators,</I> approved December 6, 2017; IBR approved for § 431.12 and appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) IEEE Std 114-2010 (“IEEE 114-2010”), <I>Test Procedure for Single-Phase Induction Motors,</I> December 23, 2010; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NEMA.</I> National Electrical Manufacturers Association, 1300 North 17th Street, Suite 1752, Rosslyn, Virginia 22209; (703) 841-3200; <I>www.nema.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/NEMA MG 1-2016 (Revision 1, 2018) (“NEMA MG 1-2016”), <I>Motors and Generators,</I> ANSI-approved June 15, 2021; IBR approved for § 431.12 and appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) NEMA Standards Publication MG1-1967 (“NEMA MG1-1967”), <I>Motors and Generators,</I> January 1968; as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Part 11, Dimension;</I> IBR approved for § 431.12.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Part 13, Frame Assignments—A-C Integral-Horsepower Motors;</I> IBR approved for § 431.12.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>NFPA.</I> National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169-7471; (617) 770-3000; <I>www.nfpa.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFPA 20, <I>Standard for the Installation of Stationary Pumps for Fire Protection,</I> 2022 Edition, ANSI-approved April 8, 2021. IBR approved for § 431.12.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 26634, May 4, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 75994, Dec. 13, 2013; 86 FR 21, Jan. 4, 2021; 87 FR 63656, Oct. 19, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.16" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.38.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.16   Test procedures for the measurement of energy efficiency.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of 10 CFR part 431 and EPCA, the test procedures for measuring the energy efficiency of an electric motor shall be the test procedures specified in appendix B to this subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.17" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.38.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.17   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.18" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.38.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.18   Testing laboratories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Testing pursuant to § 431.17(a)(5)(ii) must be conducted in an accredited laboratory for which the accreditation body was:
</P>
<P>(1) The National Institute of Standards and Technology/National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NIST/NVLAP); or
</P>
<P>(2) A laboratory accreditation body having a mutual recognition arrangement with NIST/NVLAP; or
</P>
<P>(3) An organization classified by the Department, pursuant to § 431.19, as an accreditation body.
</P>
<P>(b) NIST/NVLAP is under the auspices of the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)/National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP), which is part of the U.S. Department of Commerce. NIST/NVLAP accreditation is granted on the basis of conformance with criteria published in 15 CFR part 285. The National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program, “Procedures and General Requirements,” NIST Handbook 150-10, April 2020, (referenced for guidance only, <I>see</I> § 429.3 of this subchapter) present the technical requirements of NVLAP for the Efficiency of Electric Motors field of accreditation. This handbook supplements NIST Handbook 150, National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program “Procedures and General Requirements,” which contains 15 CFR part 285 plus all general NIST/NVLAP procedures, criteria, and policies. Information regarding NIST/NVLAP and its Efficiency of Electric Motors Program (EEM) can be obtained from NIST/NVLAP, 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 2140, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-2140, (301) 975-4016 (telephone), or (301) 926-2884 (fax).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61923, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 26635, May 4, 2012; 87 FR 63657, Oct. 19, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="39" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.25" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.39.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.25   Energy conservation standards and effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided for fire pump electric motors in paragraph (b) of this section, each general purpose electric motor (subtype I) with a power rating of 1 horsepower or greater, but not greater than 200 horsepower, including a NEMA Design B or an equivalent IEC Design N motor that is a general purpose electric motor (subtype I), manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) on or after December 19, 2010, but before June 1, 2016, shall have a nominal full-load efficiency that is not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of General Purpose Electric Motors (Subtype I), Except Fire Pump Electric Motors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/Standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Open motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Enclosed motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25/18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30/22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40/30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50/37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60/45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75/55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100/75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125/90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150/110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200/150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Each fire pump electric motor that is a general purpose electric motor (subtype I) or general purpose electric motor (subtype II) manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) on or after December 19, 2010, but before June 1, 2016, shall have a nominal full-load efficiency that is not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of Fire Pump Electric Motors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Open motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Enclosed motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25/18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30/22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40/30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50/37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60/45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75/55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100/75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125/90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150/110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200/150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250/186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300/224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350/261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400/298</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450/336</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500/373</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Except as provided for fire pump electric motors in paragraph (b) of this section, each general purpose electric motor (subtype II) with a power rating of 1 horsepower or greater, but not greater than 200 horsepower, including a NEMA Design B or an equivalent IEC Design N motor that is a general purpose electric motor (subtype II), manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) on or after December 19, 2010, but before June 1, 2016, shall have a nominal full-load efficiency that is not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of General Purpose Electric Motors (Subtype II), Except Fire Pump Electric Motors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/
<br/>Standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Open motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Enclosed motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25/18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30/22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40/30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50/37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60/45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75/55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100/75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125/90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150/110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200/150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Each NEMA Design B or an equivalent IEC Design N motor that is a general purpose electric motor (subtype I) or general purpose electric motor (subtype II), excluding fire pump electric motors, with a power rating of more than 200 horsepower, but not greater than 500 horsepower, manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) on or after December 19, 2010, but before June 1, 2016 shall have a nominal full-load efficiency that is not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of NEMA Design B General Purpose Electric Motors (Subtype I and II), Except Fire Pump Electric Motors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/
<br/>standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Open motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Enclosed motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250/186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300/224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350/261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400/298</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450/336</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500/373</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) For purposes of determining the required minimum nominal full-load efficiency of an electric motor that has a horsepower or kilowatt rating between two horsepower or two kilowatt ratings listed in any table of energy conservation standards in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, each such motor shall be deemed to have a listed horsepower or kilowatt rating, determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A horsepower at or above the midpoint between the two consecutive horsepowers shall be rounded up to the higher of the two horsepowers;
</P>
<P>(2) A horsepower below the midpoint between the two consecutive horsepowers shall be rounded down to the lower of the two horsepowers; or
</P>
<P>(3) A kilowatt rating shall be directly converted from kilowatts to horsepower using the formula 1 kilowatt = (
<SU>1</SU>/<E T="52">0.746</E>) horsepower. The conversion should be calculated to three significant decimal places, and the resulting horsepower shall be rounded in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) or (e)(2) of this section, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(f) The standards in Table 1 through Table 4 of this section do not apply to definite purpose electric motors, special purpose electric motors, or those motors exempted by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(g) The standards in Table 5 through Table 7 of this section apply only to electric motors, including partial electric motors, that satisfy the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Are single-speed, induction motors;
</P>
<P>(2) Are rated for continuous duty (MG 1) operation or for duty type S1 (IEC);
</P>
<P>(3) Contain a squirrel-cage (MG 1) or cage (IEC) rotor;
</P>
<P>(4) Operate on polyphase alternating current 60-hertz sinusoidal line power;
</P>
<P>(5) Are rated 600 volts or less;
</P>
<P>(6) Have a 2-, 4-, 6-, or 8-pole configuration,
</P>
<P>(7) Are built in a three-digit or four-digit NEMA frame size (or IEC metric equivalent), including those designs between two consecutive NEMA frame sizes (or IEC metric equivalent), or an enclosed 56 NEMA frame size (or IEC metric equivalent),
</P>
<P>(8) Produce at least one horsepower (0.746 kW) but not greater than 500 horsepower (373 kW), and
</P>
<P>(9) Meet all of the performance requirements of one of the following motor types: A NEMA Design A, B, or C motor or an IEC Design N, NE, NEY, NY or H, HE, HEY, HY motor.


</P>
<P>(h) Each NEMA Design A motor, NEMA Design B motor, and IEC Design N (including NE, NEY, or NY variants) motor that is an electric motor meeting the criteria in paragraph (g) of this section and with a power rating from 1 horsepower through 500 horsepower, but excluding fire pump electric motors, manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) on or after June 1, 2016, but before June 1, 2027, shall have a nominal full-load efficiency of not less than the following:


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of NEMA Design A, NEMA Design B and IEC Design N, NE, NEY or NY Motors (Excluding Fire Pump Electric Motors) at 60 Hz
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/
<br/>standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">2 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">8 Pole
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25/18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30/22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40/30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50/37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60/45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75/55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100/75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125/90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150/110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200/150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250/186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300/224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350/261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400/298</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450/336</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500/373</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) Starting on June 1, 2016, each NEMA Design C motor and IEC Design H (including HE, HEY, or HY variants) motor that is an electric motor meeting the criteria in paragraph (g) of this section and with a power rating from 1 horsepower through 200 horsepower manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) shall have a nominal full-load efficiency that is not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of NEMA Design C and IEC Design H, HE, HEY or HY Motors at 60 Hz
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">8 Pole
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25/18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30/22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40/30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50/37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60/45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75/55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100/75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125/90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150/110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200/150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(j) Starting on June 1, 2016, each fire pump electric motor meeting the criteria in paragraph (g) of this section and with a power rating of 1 horsepower through 500 horsepower, manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) shall have a nominal full-load efficiency that is not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of Fire Pump Electric Motors at 60 Hz
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/
<br/>standard kilowatt
<br/>equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">2 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">8 Pole
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25/18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30/22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40/30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50/37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60/45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75/55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100/75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125/90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150/110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200/150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250/186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300/224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350/261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400/298</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450/336</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500/373</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(k) For purposes of determining the required minimum nominal full-load efficiency of an electric motor that has a horsepower or kilowatt rating between two horsepower or two kilowatt ratings listed in any table of energy conservation standards in paragraphs (h) through (l) of this section, each such motor shall be deemed to have a listed horsepower or kilowatt rating, determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A horsepower at or above the midpoint between the two consecutive horsepowers shall be rounded up to the higher of the two horsepowers;
</P>
<P>(2) A horsepower below the midpoint between the two consecutive horsepowers shall be rounded down to the lower of the two horsepowers; or
</P>
<P>(3) A kilowatt rating shall be directly converted from kilowatts to horsepower using the formula 1 kilowatt = (
<SU>1</SU>/ <E T="52">0.746</E>) horsepower. The conversion should be calculated to three significant decimal places, and the resulting horsepower shall be rounded in accordance with paragraph (k)(1) or (k)(2) of this section, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(l) The standards in Table 5 through Table 7 of this section do not apply to the following electric motors exempted by the Secretary, or any additional electric motors that the Secretary may exempt:
</P>
<P>(1) Air-over electric motors;
</P>
<P>(2) Component sets of an electric motor;
</P>
<P>(3) Liquid-cooled electric motors;
</P>
<P>(4) Submersible electric motors; and
</P>
<P>(5) Inverter-only electric motors.


</P>
<P>(m) The standards in tables 8 through 10 of this section apply only to electric motors, including partial electric motors, that satisfy the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Are single-speed, induction motors;
</P>
<P>(2) Are rated for continuous duty (MG 1) operation or for duty type S1 (IEC);
</P>
<P>(3) Contain a squirrel-cage (MG 1) or cage (IEC) rotor;
</P>
<P>(4) Operate on polyphase alternating current 60-hertz sinusoidal line power;
</P>
<P>(5) Are rated 600 volts or less;
</P>
<P>(6) Have a 2-, 4-, 6-, or 8-pole configuration,
</P>
<P>(7) Are built in a three-digit or four-digit NEMA frame size (or IEC metric equivalent), including those designs between two consecutive NEMA frame sizes (or IEC metric equivalent), or an enclosed 56 NEMA frame size (or IEC metric equivalent),
</P>
<P>(8) Produce at least one horsepower (0.746 kW) but not greater than 750 horsepower (559 kW), and
</P>
<P>(9) Meet all of the performance requirements of one of the following motor types: A NEMA Design A, B, or C motor or an IEC Design N, NE, NEY, NY or H, HE, HEY, HY motor.


</P>
<P>(n) Starting on June 1, 2027, each NEMA Design A motor, NEMA Design B motor, and IEC Design N (including NE, NEY, or NY variants) motor that is an electric motor meeting the criteria in paragraph (m) of this section and with a power rating from 1 horsepower through 750 horsepower, but excluding fire pump electric motors and air-over electric motors, manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) shall have a nominal full-load efficiency of not less than the following:


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to Paragraph (<E T="01">n</E>)—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of NEMA Design A, NEMA Design B and IEC Design N, NE, NEY or NY Motors (Excluding Fire Pump Electric Motors and Air-Over Electric Motors) at 60 H<E T="01">z</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">2 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">8 Pole
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25/18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30/22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40/30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50/37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60/45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75/55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100/75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125/90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150/110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200/150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250/186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300/224</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">350/261</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">400/298</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">450/336</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500/373</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">550/410</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">600/447</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">650/485</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">700/522</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">750/559</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(o) Starting on June 1, 2027, each NEMA Design A motor, NEMA Design B motor, and IEC Design N (including NE, NEY, or NY variants) motor that is an air-over electric motor meeting the criteria in paragraph (m) of this section and with a power rating from 1 horsepower through 250 horsepower, built in a standard frame size, but excluding fire pump electric motors, manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) shall have a nominal full-load efficiency of not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Paragraph (<E T="01">o</E>)—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of NEMA Design A, NEMA Design B and IEC Design N, NE, NEY or NY Standard Frame Size Air-Over Electric Motors (Excluding Fire Pump Electric Motors) at 60 H<E T="01">z</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">2 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">8 Pole
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25/18.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30/22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40/30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50/37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60/45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75/55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100/75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125/90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150/110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200/150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250/186</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(p) Starting on June 1, 2027, each NEMA Design A motor, NEMA Design B motor, and IEC Design N (including NE, NEY, or NY variants) motor that is an air-over electric motor meeting the criteria in paragraph (m) of this section and with a power rating from 1 horsepower through 20 horsepower, built in a specialized frame size, but excluding fire pump electric motors, manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of equipment) shall have a nominal full-load efficiency of not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Paragraph (<E T="01">p</E>)—Nominal Full-Load Efficiencies of NEMA Design A, NEMA Design B and IEC Design N, NE, NEY or NY Specialized Frame Size Air-Over Electric Motors (Excluding Fire Pump Electric Motors) at 60 H<E T="01">z</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Nominal full-load efficiency (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">2 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6 Pole
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">8 Pole
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Enclosed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Open
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5/5.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15/11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20/15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(q) For purposes of determining the required minimum nominal full-load efficiency of an electric motor that has a horsepower or kilowatt rating between two horsepower or two kilowatt ratings listed in any table of energy conservation standards in paragraphs (n) through (p) through of this section, each such motor shall be deemed to have a listed horsepower or kilowatt rating, determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A horsepower at or above the midpoint between the two consecutive horsepowers shall be rounded up to the higher of the two horsepowers;
</P>
<P>(2) A horsepower below the midpoint between the two consecutive horsepowers shall be rounded down to the lower of the two horsepowers; or
</P>
<P>(3) A kilowatt rating shall be directly converted from kilowatts to horsepower using the formula 1 kilowatt = (
<FR>1/0.746</FR>) horsepower. The conversion should be calculated to three significant decimal places, and the resulting horsepower shall be rounded in accordance with paragraphs (q)(1) or (2) of this section, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(r) The standards in tables 8 through 10 of this section do not apply to the following electric motors exempted by the Secretary, or any additional electric motors that the Secretary may exempt:
</P>
<P>(1) Component sets of an electric motor;
</P>
<P>(2) Liquid-cooled electric motors;
</P>
<P>(3) Submersible electric motors; and
</P>
<P>(4) Inverter-only electric motors.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 31010, May 29, 2014, as amended at 87 FR 63657, Oct. 19, 2022; 88 FR 36150, Sept. 29, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.26" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.39.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.26   Preemption of State regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Any State regulation providing for any energy conservation standard, or other requirement with respect to the energy efficiency or energy use, of an electric motor that is not identical to a Federal standard in effect under this subpart is preempted by that standard, except as provided for in Section 345(a) and 327(b) and (c) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.31" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.40.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.31   Labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electric motor nameplate</I>—(1) <I>Required information.</I> The permanent nameplate of an electric motor for which standards are prescribed in § 431.25 must be marked clearly with the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The motor's nominal full load efficiency (as of the date of manufacture), derived from the motor's average full load efficiency as determined pursuant to this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A Compliance Certification number (“CC number”) supplied by DOE to the manufacturer or private labeler, pursuant to § 431.36(f), and applicable to that motor. Such CC number must be on the nameplate of a motor beginning 90 days after either:
</P>
<P>(A) The manufacturer or private labeler has received the number upon submitting a Compliance Certification covering that motor, or
</P>
<P>(B) The expiration of 21 days from DOE's receipt of a Compliance Certification covering that motor, if the manufacturer or private labeler has not been advised by DOE that the Compliance Certification fails to satisfy § 431.36.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Display of required information.</I> All orientation, spacing, type sizes, type faces, and line widths to display this required information shall be the same as or similar to the display of the other performance data on the motor's permanent nameplate. The nominal full-load efficiency shall be identified either by the term “Nominal Efficiency” or “Nom. Eff.” or by the terms specified in paragraph 12.58.2 of NEMA MG1-2009, (incorporated by reference, see § 431.15) as for example “NEMA Nom. Eff. ____.” The Compliance Certification number issued pursuant to § 431.36 shall be in the form “CC ____.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Optional display.</I> The permanent nameplate of an electric motor, a separate plate, or decalcomania, may be marked with the encircled lower case letters “ee”, for example, 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.000.gif"/>
<FP>or with some comparable designation or logo, if the motor meets the applicable standard prescribed in § 431.25, as determined pursuant to this subpart, and is covered by a Compliance Certification that satisfies § 431.36.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of efficiency information in marketing materials.</I> (1) The same information that must appear on an electric motor's permanent nameplate pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, shall be prominently displayed:
</P>
<P>(i) On each page of a catalog that lists the motor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In other materials used to market the motor.
</P>
<P>(2) The “ee” logo, or other similar logo or designations, may also be used in catalogs and other materials to the same extent they may be used on labels under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61923, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 77 FR 26637, May 4, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.32" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.40.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.32   Preemption of State regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of § 431.31 supersede any State regulation to the extent required by Section 327 of the Act. Pursuant to the Act, all State regulations that require the disclosure for any electric motor of information with respect to energy consumption, other than the information required to be disclosed in accordance with this part, are superseded.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Certification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.35" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.41.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.35   Applicability of certification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Section 431.36 sets forth the procedures for manufacturers to certify that electric motors comply with the applicable energy efficiency standards set forth in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.36" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.41.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.36   Compliance Certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A manufacturer or private labeler shall not distribute in commerce any basic model of an electric motor which is subject to an energy efficiency standard set forth in this subpart unless it has submitted to the Department a Compliance Certification certifying, in accordance with the provisions of this section, that the basic model meets the requirements of the applicable standard. The representations in the Compliance Certification must be based upon the basic model's energy efficiency as determined in accordance with the applicable requirements of this subpart. This means, in part, that either:
</P>
<P>(1) The representations as to the basic model must be based on use of a certification organization; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any testing of the basic model on which the representations are based must be conducted at an accredited laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required contents</I>—(1) <I>General representations.</I> Each Compliance Certification must certify that:
</P>
<P>(i) The nominal full load efficiency for each basic model of electric motor distributed is not less than the minimum nominal full load efficiency required for that motor by § 431.25;
</P>
<P>(ii) All required determinations on which the Compliance Certification is based were made in compliance with the applicable requirements prescribed in this subpart;
</P>
<P>(iii) All information reported in the Compliance Certification is true, accurate, and complete; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The manufacturer or private labeler is aware of the penalties associated with violations of the Act and the regulations thereunder, and of 18 U.S.C. 1001 which prohibits knowingly making false statements to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific data.</I> (i) For each rating of electric motor (as the term “rating” is defined in the definition of basic model) which a manufacturer or private labeler distributes, the Compliance Certification must report the nominal full load efficiency, determined pursuant to §§ 431.16 and 431.17, of the least efficient basic model within that rating.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Compliance Certification must identify the basic models on which actual testing has been performed to meet the requirements of § 431.17.
</P>
<P>(iii) The format for a Compliance Certification is set forth in appendix C of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional contents.</I> In any Compliance Certification, a manufacturer or private labeler may at its option request that DOE provide it with a unique Compliance Certification number (“CC number”) for any brand name, trademark or other label name under which the manufacturer or private labeler distributes electric motors covered by the Certification. Such a Compliance Certification must also identify all other names, if any, under which the manufacturer or private labeler distributes electric motors, and to which the request does not apply.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signature and submission.</I> A manufacturer or private labeler must submit the Compliance Certification either on its own behalf, signed by a corporate official of the company, or through a third party (for example, a trade association or other authorized representative) acting on its behalf. Where a third party is used, the Compliance Certification must identify the official of the manufacturer or private labeler who authorized the third party to make representations on the company's behalf, and must be signed by a corporate official of the third party. The Compliance Certification must be submitted to the Department electronically at <I>https://www.regulations.doe.gov/ccms.</I> Alternatively, the Compliance Certification may be submitted by certified mail to: Certification and Compliance Reports, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, EE-2J, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>New basic models.</I> For electric motors, a Compliance Certification must be submitted for a new basic model only if the manufacturer or private labeler has not previously submitted to DOE a Compliance Certification, that meets the requirements of this section, for a basic model that has the same rating as the new basic model, and that has a lower nominal full load efficiency than the new basic model.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Response to Compliance Certification; Compliance Certification Number (CC number)</I>—(1) DOE processing of Certification. Promptly upon receipt of a Compliance Certification, the Department will determine whether the document contains all of the elements required by this section, and may, in its discretion, determine whether all or part of the information provided in the document is accurate. The Department will then advise the submitting party in writing either that the Compliance Certification does not satisfy the requirements of this section, in which case the document will be returned, or that the Compliance Certification satisfies this section. The Department will also advise the submitting party of the basis for its determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Issuance of CC number(s).</I> (i) Initial Compliance Certification. When DOE advises that the initial Compliance Certification submitted by or on behalf of a manufacturer or private labeler is acceptable, either:
</P>
<P>(A) DOE will provide a single unique CC number, “CC________,” to the manufacturer or private labeler, and such CC number shall be applicable to all electric motors distributed by the manufacturer or private labeler, or
</P>
<P>(B) When required by paragraph (f)(3) of this section, DOE will provide more than one CC number to the manufacturer or private labeler.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subsequent Compliance Certification. When DOE advises that any other Compliance Certification is acceptable, it will provide a unique CC number for any brand name, trademark or other name when required by paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) When DOE declines to provide a CC number as requested by a manufacturer or private labeler in accordance with § 431.36(c), DOE will advise the requester of the reasons for such refusal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Issuance of two or more CC numbers.</I> (i) DOE will provide a unique CC number for each brand name, trademark or other label name for which a manufacturer or private labeler requests such a number in accordance with § 431.36(c), except as follows. DOE will not provide a CC number for any brand name, trademark or other label name
</P>
<P>(A) For which DOE has previously provided a CC number, or
</P>
<P>(B) That duplicates or overlaps with other names under which the manufacturer or private labeler sells electric motors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Once DOE has provided a CC number for a particular name, that shall be the only CC number applicable to all electric motors distributed by the manufacturer or private labeler under that name.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Compliance Certification in which a manufacturer or private labeler requests a CC number is the initial Compliance Certification submitted by it or on its behalf, and it distributes electric motors not covered by the CC number(s) DOE provides in response to the request(s), DOE will also provide a unique CC number that shall be applicable to all of these other motors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61923, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 59006, Sept. 23, 2011; 77 FR 26638, May 4, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.42.14.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 431 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.42.14.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart B of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Efficiency of Electric Motors
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers of electric motors subject to energy conservation standards in § 431.25 must test in accordance with this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P>For any other electric motor that is not currently covered by the energy conservation standards at § 431.25, manufacturers of this equipment must test in accordance with this appendix 180 days after the effective date of the final rule adopting energy conservation standards for such motor. For any other electric motor that is not currently covered by the energy conservation standards at § 431.25, manufacturers choosing to make any representations respecting of energy efficiency for such motors must test in accordance with this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>In § 431.15, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for CSA C390-10, CSA C747-09, IEC 60034-1:2010, IEC 60034-2-1:2014, IEC 60051-1:2016, IEC 61800-9-2:2017, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010, and NEMA MG 1-2016; however, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable as follows. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes precedence over those documents. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE.
</P>
<HD2>0.1. CSA C390-10
</HD2>
<P>(a) Section 1.3 “Scope,” as specified in sections 2.1.1 and 2.3.3.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3.1 “Definitions,” as specified in sections 2.1.1 and 2.3.3.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5 “General test requirements—Measurements,” as specified in sections 2.1.1 and 2.3.3.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7 “Test method,” as specified in sections 2.1.1 and 2.3.3.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Table 1 “Resistance measurement time delay,” as specified in sections 2.1.1 and 2.3.3.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Annex B “Linear regression analysis,” as specified in sections 2.1.1 and 2.3.3.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(g) Annex C “Procedure for correction of dynamometer torque readings” as specified in sections 2.1.1 and 2.3.3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>0.2. CSA C747-09
</HD2>
<P>(a) Section 1.6 “Scope” as specified in sections 2.3.1.2 and 2.3.2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3 “Definitions” as specified in sections 2.3.1.2 and 2.3.2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5 “General test requirements” as specified in sections 2.3.1.2 and 2.3.2.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6 “Test method” as specified in sections 2.3.1.2 and 2.3.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>0.3. IEC 60034-1:2010
</HD2>
<P>(a) Section 4.2.1 as specified in section 1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7.2 as specified in sections 2.1.2, 2.3.1.3, 2.3.2.3, and 2.3.3.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 8.6.2.3.3 as specified in sections 2.1.2, 2.3.1.3, 2.3.2.3, and 2.3.3.3 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(d) Table 5 as specified in sections 2.1.2, 2.3.1.3, 2.3.2.3, and 2.3.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>0.4. IEC 60034-2-1:2014
</HD2>
<P>(a) Method 2-1-1A (which also includes paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section) as specified in sections 2.3.1.3 and 2.3.2.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Method 2-1-1B (which also includes paragraphs (b) through (e), (g), and (i) of this section) as specified in sections 2.1.2 and 2.3.3.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 3 “Terms and definitions” as specified in sections 2.1.2, 2.3.1.3, 2.3.2.3, 2.3.3.3, and 2.4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 4 “Symbols and abbreviations” as specified in sections 2.1.2, 2.3.1.3, 2.3.2.3, 2.3.3.3 and 2.4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5 “Basic requirements” as specified in sections 2.1.2, 2.3.1.3, 2.3.2.3, 2.3.3.3, and 2.4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 6.1.2 “Method 2-1-1A—Direct measurement of input and output” (except Section 6.1.2.2, “Test Procedure”) as specified in sections 2.3.1.3 and 2.3.2.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 6.1.3 “Method 2-1-1B—Summations of losses, additional load losses according to the method of residual losses” as specified in sections 2.1.2 and 2.3.3.3 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(h) Section 7.1. “Preferred Testing Methods” as specified in section 2.4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Annex D, “Test report template for 2-1-1B” as specified in sections 2.1.2 and 2.3.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>0.5. IEC 60051-1:2016
</HD2>
<P>(a) Section 5.2 as specified in sections 2.1.2, 2.3.1.3, 2.3.2.3, and 2.3.3.3 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved].
</P>
<HD2>0.6. IEC 61800-9-2:2017
</HD2>
<P>(a) Section 3 “Terms, definitions, symbols, and abbreviated terms” as specified in sections 2.4.2 and 2.4.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 7.7.2, “Input-output measurement of PDS losses” as specified in sections 2.4.2 and 2.4.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7.7.3.1, “General” as specified in sections 2.4.2 and 2.4.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7.7.3.2. “Power analyser and transducers” as specified in sections 2.4.2 and 2.4.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7.7.3.3, “Mechanical Output of the motor” as specified in sections 2.4.2 and 2.4.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 7.7.3.5, “PDS loss determination according to input-output method” as specified in sections 2.4.2 and 2.4.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7.10 “Testing Conditions for PDS testing” as specified in sections 2.4.2 and 2.4.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>0.7. IEEE 112-2017
</HD2>
<P>(a) Test Method A (which also includes paragraphs (c) through (g), (i), and (j) of this section) as specified in section 2.3.2.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Test Method B (which also includes paragraphs (c) through (f), (h), (k) and (l) of this section) as specified in sections 2.1.3 and 2.3.3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 3, “General” as specified in sections 2.1.3, 2.3.2.1, and 2.3.3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 4, “Measurements” as specified in sections 2.1.3, 2.3.2.1, and 2.3.3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 5, “Machine losses and tests for losses” as specified in sections 2.1.3, 2.3.2.1, and 2.3.3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 6.1, “General” as specified in sections 2.1.3, 2.3.2.1, and 2.3.3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 6.3, “Efficiency test method A—Input-output” as specified in section 2.3.2.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 6.4, “Efficiency test method B—Input-output” as specified in sections 2.1.3 and 2.3.3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 9.2, “Form A—Method A” as specified in section 2.3.2.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 9.3, “Form A2—Method A calculations” as specified in section 2.3.2.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(k) Section 9.4, “Form B—Method B” as specified in sections 2.1.3, and 2.3.3.1 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(l) Section 9.5, “Form B2—Method B calculations” as specified in sections 2.1.3 and 2.3.3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>0.8. IEEE 114-2010
</HD2>
<P>(a) Section 3.2, “Test with load” as specified in section 2.3.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4, “Testing Facilities as specified in section 2.3.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5, “Measurements” as specified in section 2.3.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6, “General” as specified in section 2.3.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7, “Type of loss” as specified in section 2.3.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 8, “Efficiency and Power Factor” as specified in section 2.3.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 10 “Temperature Tests” as specified in section 2.4.1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Annex A, Section A.3 “Determination of Motor Efficiency” as specified in section 2.4.1.1 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(i) Annex A, Section A.4 “Explanatory notes for form 3, test data” as specified in section 2.4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>0.9. NEMA MG 1-2016
</HD2>
<P>(a) Paragraph 1.40.1, “Continuous Rating” as specified in section 1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph 12.58.1, “Determination of Motor Efficiency and Losses” as specified in the introductory paragraph to section 2.1 of this appendix, and
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph 34.1, “Applicable Motor Efficiency Test Methods” as specified in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Paragraph 34.2.2 “AO Temperature Test Procedure 2—Target Temperature with Airflow” as specified in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Paragraph 34.4, “AO Temperature Test Procedure 2—Target Temperature with Airflow” as specified in section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>1. Scope and Definitions
</HD1>
<P>1.1 <I>Scope.</I> The test procedure applies to the following categories of electric motors: Electric motors that meet the criteria listed at § 431.25(g); Electric motors above 500 horsepower; Small, non-small-electric-motor electric motor; and Electric motors that are synchronous motors; and excludes the following categories of motors: inverter-only electric motors that are air-over electric motors, component sets of an electric motor, liquid-cooled electric motors, and submersible electric motors.
</P>
<P>1.2 <I>Definitions.</I> Definitions contained in §§ 431.2 and 431.12 are applicable to this appendix, in addition to the following terms (“MG1” refers to NEMA MG 1-2016 and IEC refers to IEC 60034-1:2010 and IEC 60072-1):
</P>
<P><I>Electric motors above 500 horsepower</I> is defined as an electric motor having a rated horsepower above 500 and up to 750 hp that meets the criteria listed at § 431.25(g), with the exception of criteria § 431.25(g)(8).
</P>
<P><I>Small, non-small-electric-motor electric motor (“SNEM”)</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(a) Is not a small electric motor, as defined § 431.442 and is not a dedicated-purpose pool pump motor as defined at § 431.483;
</P>
<P>(b) Is rated for continuous duty (MG 1) operation or for duty type S1 (IEC);
</P>
<P>(c) Operates on polyphase or single-phase alternating current 60-hertz (Hz) sinusoidal line power; or is used with an inverter that operates on polyphase or single-phase alternating current 60-hertz (Hz) sinusoidal line power;
</P>
<P>(d) Is rated for 600 volts or less;
</P>
<P>(e) Is a single-speed induction motor capable of operating without an inverter or is an inverter-only electric motor;
</P>
<P>(f) Produces a rated motor horsepower greater than or equal to 0.25 horsepower (0.18 kW); and
</P>
<P>(g) Is built in the following frame sizes: any two-, or three-digit NEMA frame size (or IEC metric equivalent) if the motor operates on single-phase power; any two-, or three-digit NEMA frame size (or IEC metric equivalent) if the motor operates on polyphase power, and has a rated motor horsepower less than 1 horsepower (0.75 kW); or a two-digit NEMA frame size (or IEC metric equivalent), if the motor operates on polyphase power, has a rated motor horsepower equal to or greater than 1 horsepower (0.75 kW), and is not an enclosed 56 NEMA frame size (or IEC metric equivalent).
</P>
<P><I>Synchronous Electric Motor</I> means an electric motor that:
</P>
<P>(a) Is not a dedicated-purpose pool pump motor as defined at § 431.483 or is not an air-over electric motor;
</P>
<P>(b) Is a synchronous electric motor;
</P>
<P>(c) Is rated for continuous duty (MG 1) operation or for duty type S1 (IEC);
</P>
<P>(d) Operates on polyphase or single-phase alternating current 60-hertz (Hz) sinusoidal line power; or is used with an inverter that operates on polyphase or single-phase alternating current 60-hertz (Hz) sinusoidal line power;
</P>
<P>(e) Is rated 600 volts or less;
</P>
<P>(f) Produces at least 0.25 hp (0.18 kW) but not greater than 750 hp (559 kW).
</P>
<HD1>2. Test Procedures
</HD1>
<P>2.1. Test Procedures for Electric Motors that meet the criteria listed at § 431.25(g), and electric motors above 500 horsepower that are capable of operating without an inverter. Air-over electric motors must be tested in accordance with Section 2.2. Inverter-only electric motors must be tested in accordance with 2.4.
</P>
<P>Efficiency and losses must be determined in accordance with NEMA MG 1-2016, Paragraph 12.58.1, “Determination of Motor Efficiency and Losses,” or one of the following testing methods:
</P>
<P>2.1.1. CSA C390-10 (see section 0.1 of this appendix)
</P>
<P>2.1.2. IEC 60034-2-1:2014, Method 2-1-1B (see section 0.4(b) of this appendix). The supply voltage shall be in accordance with Section 7.2 of IEC 60034-1:2010. The measured resistance at the end of the thermal test shall be determined in a similar way to the extrapolation procedure described in Section 8.6.2.3.3 of IEC 60034-1:2010, using the shortest possible time instead of the time interval specified in Table 5 to IEC 60034-1:2010, and extrapolating to zero. The measuring instruments for electrical quantities shall have the equivalent of an accuracy class of 0,2 in case of a direct test and 0,5 in case of an indirect test in accordance with Section 5.2 of IEC 60051-1:2016, or
</P>
<P>2.1.3. IEEE 112-2017, Test Method B (see section 0.7(b) of this appendix).
</P>
<P>2.2. Test Procedures for Air-Over Electric Motors
</P>
<P>Except noted otherwise in section 2.2.1 and 2.2.2 of this appendix, efficiency and losses of air-over electric motors must be determined in accordance with NEMA MG 1-2016 (excluding Paragraph 12.58.1).
</P>
<P>2.2.1. The provisions in Paragraph 34.4.1.a.1 of NEMA MG 1-2016 related to the determination of the target temperature for polyphase motors must be replaced by a single target temperature of 75 °C for all insulation classes.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. The industry standards listed in Paragraph 34.1 of NEMA MG 1-2016, “Applicable Motor Efficiency Test Methods” must correspond to the versions identified in section 0 of this appendix, specifically IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010, CSA C390-10, CSA C747-09, and IEC 60034-2-1:2014. In addition, when testing in accordance with IEC 60034-2-1:2014, the additional testing instructions in section 2.1.2 of this appendix apply.
</P>
<P>2.3. Test Procedures for SNEMs capable of operating without an inverter. Air-over SNEMs must be tested in accordance with section 2.2. of this appendix. Inverter-only SNEMs must be tested in accordance with section 2.4. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.1. The efficiencies and losses of single-phase SNEMs that are not air-over electric motors and are capable of operating without an inverter, are determined using one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>2.3.1.1. IEEE 114-2010 (see section 0.8 of this appendix);
</P>
<P>2.3.1.2. CSA C747-09 (see section 0.2 of this appendix), or
</P>
<P>2.3.1.3. IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A (see section 0.4(a) of this appendix),. The supply voltage shall be in accordance with Section 7.2 of IEC 60034-1:2010. The measured resistance at the end of the thermal test shall be determined in a similar way to the extrapolation procedure described in Section 8.6.2.3.3 of IEC 60034-1:2010, using the shortest possible time instead of the time interval specified in Table 5 of IEC 60034-1:2010, and extrapolating to zero. The measuring instruments for electrical quantities shall have the equivalent of an accuracy class of 0,2 in case of a direct test and 0,5 in case of an indirect test in accordance with Section 5.2 of IEC 60051-1:2016.
</P>
<P>2.3.1.3.1. <I>Additional IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A Torque Measurement Instructions.</I> If using IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A to measure motor performance, follow the instructions in section 2.3.1.3.2. of this appendix, instead of Section 6.1.2.2 of IEC 60034-2-1:2014;
</P>
<P>2.3.1.3.2. Couple the machine under test to a load machine. Measure torque using an in-line, shaft-coupled, rotating torque transducer or stationary, stator reaction torque transducer. Operate the machine under test at the rated load until thermal equilibrium is achieved (rate of change 1 K or less per half hour). Record U, I, Pel, n, T, θc.
</P>
<P>2.3.2. The efficiencies and losses of polyphase electric motors considered with rated horsepower less than 1 that are not air-over electric motors, and are capable of operating without an inverter, are determined using one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>2.3.2.1. IEEE 112-2017 Test Method A (see section 0.7(a) of this appendix);
</P>
<P>2.3.2.2. CSA C747-09 (see section 0.2 of this appendix); or
</P>
<P>2.3.2.3. IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A (see section 0.4(a) of this appendix). The supply voltage shall be in accordance with Section 7.2 of IEC 60034-1:2010. The measured resistance at the end of the thermal test shall be determined in a similar way to the extrapolation procedure described in Section 8.6.2.3.3 of IEC 60034-1:2010 using the shortest possible time instead of the time interval specified in Table 5 of IEC 60034-1:2010, and extrapolating to zero. The measuring instruments for electrical quantities shall have the equivalent of an accuracy class of 0,2 in case of a direct test and 0,5 in case of an indirect test in accordance with Section 5.2 of IEC 60051-1:2016.
</P>
<P>2.3.2.3.1. <I>Additional IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A Torque Measurement Instructions.</I> If using IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A to measure motor performance, follow the instructions in section 2.3.2.3.2. of this appendix, instead of Section 6.1.2.2 of IEC 60034-2-1:2014;
</P>
<P>2.3.2.3.2. Couple the machine under test to load machine. Measure torque using an in-line shaft-coupled, rotating torque transducer or stationary, stator reaction torque transducer. Operate the machine under test at the rated load until thermal equilibrium is achieved (rate of change 1 K or less per half hour). Record U, I, Pel, n, T, θc.
</P>
<P>2.3.3. The efficiencies and losses of polyphase SNEMs with rated horsepower equal to or greater than 1 that are not air-over electric motors, and are capable of operating without an inverter, are determined using one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>2.3.3.1. IEEE 112-2017 Test Method B (see section 0.7(b) of this appendix);
</P>
<P>2.3.3.2. CSA C390-10 (see section 0.1 of this appendix); or
</P>
<P>2.3.3.3. IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1B (see section 0.4(b) of this appendix). The supply voltage shall be in accordance with Section 7.2 of IEC 60034-1:2010. The measured resistance at the end of the thermal test shall be determined in a similar way to the extrapolation procedure described in Section 8.6.2.3.3 of IEC 60034-1:2010 using the shortest possible time instead of the time interval specified in Table 5 of IEC 60034-1:2010, and extrapolating to zero. The measuring instruments for electrical quantities shall have the equivalent of an accuracy class of 0,2 in case of a direct test and 0,5 in case of an indirect test in accordance with Section 5.2 of IEC 60051-1:2016.
</P>
<P>2.4. Test Procedures for Electric Motors that are Synchronous Motors and Inverter-only Electric Motors
</P>
<P>Section 2.4.1 of this appendix applies to electric motors that are synchronous motors that do not require an inverter to operate. Sections 2.4.2. and 2.4.3. of this appendix apply to electric motors that are synchronous motors and are inverter-only; and to induction electric motors that are inverter-only electric motors.
</P>
<P>2.4.1. The efficiencies and losses of electric motors that are synchronous motors that do not require an inverter to operate, are determined in accordance with IEC 60034-2-1:2014, Section 3 “Terms and definitions,” Section 4 “Symbols and abbreviations,” Section 5 “Basic requirements,” and Section 7.1. “Preferred Testing Methods.”
</P>
<P>2.4.2. The efficiencies and losses of electric motors (inclusive of the inverter) that are that are inverter-only and do not include an inverter, are determined in accordance with IEC 61800-9-2:2017. Test must be conducted using an inverter that is listed as recommended in the manufacturer's catalog or that is offered for sale with the electric motor. If more than one inverter is available in manufacturer's catalogs or if more than one inverter is offered for sale with the electric motor, test using the least efficient inverter. Record the manufacturer, brand and model number of the inverter used for the test. If there are no inverters specified in the manufacturer catalogs or offered for sale with the electric motor, testing must be conducted using an inverter that meets the criteria described in section 2.4.2.2. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.4.2.1. The inverter shall be set up according to the manufacturer's instructional and operational manual included with the product. Manufacturers shall also record switching frequency in Hz, max frequency in Hz, Max output voltage in V, motor control method (<I>i.e.,</I> V/f ratio, sensor less vector, etc.), load profile setting (constant torque, variable torque, etc.), and saving energy mode (if used). Deviation from the resulting settings, such as switching frequency or load torque curves for the purpose of optimizing test results shall not be permitted.
</P>
<P>2.4.2.2. If there are no inverters specified in the manufacturer catalogs or offered for sale with the electric motor, test with a two-level voltage source inverter. No additional components influencing output voltage or output current shall be installed between the inverter and the motor, except those required for the measuring instruments. For motors with a rated speed up to 3 600 min-1, the switching frequency shall not be higher than 5 kHz. For motors with a rated speed above 3 600 min-1, the switching frequency shall not be higher than 10 kHz. Record the manufacturer, brand and model number of the inverter used for the test.
</P>
<P>2.4.3. The efficiencies and losses of electric motors (inclusive of the inverter) that are inverter-only and include an inverter are determined in accordance with IEC 61800-9-2:2017.
</P>
<P>2.4.3.1. The inverter shall be set up according to the manufacturer's instructional and operational manual included with the product. Manufacturers shall also record switching frequency in Hz, max frequency in Hz, Max output voltage in V, motor control method (<I>i.e.,</I> V/f ratio, sensor less vector, etc.), load profile setting (constant torque, variable torque, etc.), and saving energy mode (if used). Deviation from the resulting settings, such as switching frequency or load torque curves for the purpose of optimizing test results shall not be permitted.
</P>
<HD1>3. Procedures for the Testing of Certain Electric Motor Categories
</HD1>
<P>Prior to testing according to section 2 of this appendix, each basic model of the electric motor categories listed below must be set up in accordance with the instructions of this section to ensure consistent test results. These steps are designed to enable a motor to be attached to a dynamometer and run continuously for testing purposes. For the purposes of this appendix, a “standard bearing” is a 600- or 6000-series, either open or grease-lubricated double-shielded, single-row, deep groove, radial ball bearing.
</P>
<P>3.1. Brake Electric Motors:
</P>
<P>Brake electric motors shall be tested with the brake component powered separately from the motor such that it does not activate during testing. Additionally, for any 10-minute period during the test and while the brake is being powered such that it remains disengaged from the motor shaft, record the power consumed (<I>i.e.,</I> watts). Only power used to drive the motor is to be included in the efficiency calculation; power supplied to prevent the brake from engaging is not included in this calculation. In lieu of powering the brake separately, the brake may be disengaged mechanically, if such a mechanism exists and if the use of this mechanism does not yield a different efficiency value than separately powering the brake electrically.
</P>
<P>3.2. Close-Coupled Pump Electric Motors and Electric Motors with Single or Double Shaft Extensions of Non-Standard Dimensions or Design:
</P>
<P>To attach the unit under test to a dynamometer, close-coupled pump electric motors and electric motors with single or double shaft extensions of non-standard dimensions or design must be tested using a special coupling adapter.
</P>
<P>3.3. Electric Motors with Non-Standard Endshields or Flanges:
</P>
<P>If it is not possible to connect the electric motor to a dynamometer with the non-standard endshield or flange in place, the testing laboratory shall replace the non-standard endshield or flange with an endshield or flange meeting NEMA or IEC specifications. The replacement component should be obtained from the manufacturer or, if the manufacturer chooses, machined by the testing laboratory after consulting with the manufacturer regarding the critical characteristics of the endshield.
</P>
<P>3.4. Electric Motors with Non-Standard Bases, Feet or Mounting Configurations:
</P>
<P>An electric motor with a non-standard base, feet, or mounting configuration may be mounted on the test equipment using adaptive fixtures for testing as long as the mounting or use of adaptive mounting fixtures does not have an adverse impact on the performance of the electric motor, particularly on the cooling of the motor.
</P>
<P>3.5. Electric Motors with a Separately-Powered Blower:
</P>
<P>For electric motors furnished with a separately-powered blower, the losses from the blower's motor should not be included in any efficiency calculation. This can be done either by powering the blower's motor by a source separate from the source powering the electric motor under test or by connecting leads such that they only measure the power of the motor under test.
</P>
<P>3.6. Immersible Electric Motors:
</P>
<P>Immersible electric motors shall be tested with all contact seals removed but be otherwise unmodified.
</P>
<P>3.7. Partial Electric Motors:
</P>
<P>Partial electric motors shall be disconnected from their mated piece of equipment. After disconnection from the equipment, standard bearings and/or endshields shall be added to the motor, such that it is capable of operation. If an endshield is necessary, an endshield meeting NEMA or IEC specifications should be obtained from the manufacturer or, if the manufacturer chooses, machined by the testing laboratory after consulting with the manufacturer regarding the critical characteristics of the endshield.
</P>
<P>3.8. Vertical Electric Motors and Electric Motors with Bearings Incapable of Horizontal Operation:
</P>
<P>Vertical electric motors and electric motors with thrust bearings shall be tested in a horizontal or vertical configuration in accordance with the applicable test procedure under section 2 through section 2.4.3. of this appendix, depending on the testing facility's capabilities and construction of the motor, except if the motor is a vertical solid shaft normal thrust general purpose electric motor (subtype II), in which case it shall be tested in a horizontal configuration in accordance with the applicable test procedure under section 2 through section 2.4.3. of this appendix. Preference shall be given to testing a motor in its native orientation. If the unit under test cannot be reoriented horizontally due to its bearing construction, the electric motor's bearing(s) shall be removed and replaced with standard bearings. If the unit under test contains oil-lubricated bearings, its bearings shall be removed and replaced with standard bearings. If necessary, the unit under test may be connected to the dynamometer using a coupling of torsional rigidity greater than or equal to that of the motor shaft.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63657, Oct. 19, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.2.42.14.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart B of Part 431—Compliance Certification 
</HEAD>
<HD1>Certification of Compliance With Energy Efficiency Standards for Electric Motors (Office of Management and Budget Control Number: 1910-1400. Expires February 13, 2014)
</HD1>
<P>An electronic form is available at <I>https://www.regulations.doe.gov/ccms/.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Name and Address of Company (the “company”):
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>2. Name(s) to be Marked on Electric Motors to Which this Compliance Certification Applies:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>3. If manufacturer or private labeler wishes to receive a unique Compliance Certification number for use with any particular brand name, trademark, or other label name, fill out the following two items:
</P>
<P>A. List each brand name, trademark, or other label name for which the company requests a Compliance Certification number:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>B. List other name(s), if any, under which the company sells electric motors (if not listed in item 2 above):
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>Submit electronically at <I>https://www.regulations.doe.gov/ccms.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Submit paper form by Certified Mail to:</I> U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies (EE-2J), Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121.
</P>
<P>This Compliance Certification reports on and certifies compliance with requirements contained in 10 CFR Part 431 (Energy Conservation Program for Certain Commercial and Industrial Equipment) and Part C of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (Pub. L. 94-163), and amendments thereto. It is signed by a responsible official of the above named company. Attached and incorporated as part of this Compliance Certification is a Listing of Electric Motor Efficiencies. For each rating of electric motor* for which the Listing specifies the nominal full load efficiency of a basic model, the company distributes no less efficient basic model with that rating and all basic models with that rating comply with the applicable energy efficiency standard.
</P>
<P>* For this purpose, the term “rating” means one of the combinations of an electric motor's horsepower (or standard kilowatt equivalent), number of poles, motor type, and open or enclosed construction, with respect to which § 431.25 of 10 CFR Part 431 prescribes nominal full load efficiency standards.
</P>
<P>Person to Contact for Further Information:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone Number:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Facsimile Number:
</FP-DASH>
<P>If any part of this Compliance Certification, including the Attachment, was prepared by a third party organization under the provisions of 10 CFR 431.36, the company official authorizing third party representations:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone Number:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Facsimile Number:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Third Party Organization Officially Acting as Representative:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Third Party Organization:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Responsible Person at the Organization:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone Number:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Facsimile Number:
</FP-DASH>
<P>All required determinations on which this Compliance Certification is based were made in conformance with the applicable requirements in 10 CFR Part 431, subpart B. All information reported in this Compliance Certification is true, accurate, and complete. The company is aware of the penalties associated with violations of the Act and the regulations thereunder, and is also aware of the provisions contained in 18 U.S.C. 1001, which prohibits knowingly making false statements to the Federal Government.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Firm or Organization:
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Attachment of Certification of Compliance With Energy Efficiency Standards for Electric Motor Efficiencies
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Company:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Motor Type (i.e., general purpose electric motor (subtype I), fire pump electric motor, general purpose electric motor (subtype II), NEMA Design B general purpose electric motor)
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Least efficient basic model—(model numbers(s))
<br/>Nominal full-load efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Open motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Enclosed motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/.75</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5/3.7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Etc</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Place an asterisk beside each reported nominal full load efficiency that is determined by actual testing rather than by application of an alternative efficiency determination method. Also list below additional basic models that were subjected to actual testing.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Basic Model</I> means all units of a given type of electric motor (or class thereof) manufactured by a single manufacturer, and which (i) have the same rating, (ii) have electrical design characteristics that are essentially identical, and (iii) do not have any differing physical or functional characteristics that affect energy consumption or efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Rating</I> means one of the combinations of an electric motor's horsepower (or standard kilowatt equivalent), number of poles, motor type, and open or enclosed construction, with respect to which § 431.25 of 10 CFR Part 431 prescribes nominal full load efficiency standards.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Models Actually Tested and Not Previously Identified
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="8" scope="col">Least efficient basic model—(model numbers(s))
<br/>Nominal full-load efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Open motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Enclosed motors
<br/>(number of poles)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Etc</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">______</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61923, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 59006, Sept. 23, 2011]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Commercial Refrigerators, Freezers and Refrigerator-Freezers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60414, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.61" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.61   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for commercial refrigerators, freezers and refrigerator-freezers, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.62" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.62   Definitions concerning commercial refrigerators, freezers and refrigerator-freezers.</HEAD>
<P><I>Air-curtain angle</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For equipment without doors and without a discharge air grille or discharge air honeycomb, the angle between a vertical line extended down from the highest point on the manufacturer's recommended load limit line and the load limit line itself, when the equipment is viewed in cross-section; and
</P>
<P>(2) For all other equipment without doors, the angle formed between a vertical line and the straight line drawn by connecting the point at the inside edge of the discharge air opening with the point at the inside edge of the return air opening, when the equipment is viewed in cross-section.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all commercial refrigeration equipment manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, having the same primary energy source, and that have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional characteristics that affect energy consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Blast chiller</I> means commercial refrigeration equipment, other than a blast freezer, that is capable of the rapid temperature pull-down of hot food products from 135 °F to 40 °F within a period of four hours, when measured according to the test procedure at appendix D to subpart C of part 431.
</P>
<P><I>Blast freezer</I> means commercial refrigeration equipment that is capable of the rapid temperature pull-down of hot food products from 135 °F to 40 °F within a period of four hours and capable of achieving a final product temperature of less than 32 °F, when measured according to the test procedure at appendix D to subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Buffet table or preparation table</I> means a commercial refrigerator with an open-top refrigerated area, that may or may not include a lid, for displaying or storing merchandise and other perishable materials in pans or other removable containers for customer self-service or food production and assembly. The unit may or may not be equipped with a refrigerated storage compartment underneath the pans or other removable containers that is not thermally separated from the open-top refrigerated area.
</P>
<P><I>Chef base or griddle stand</I> means commercial refrigeration equipment that has a maximum height of 32 in., including any legs or casters, and that is designed and marketed for the express purpose of having a griddle or other cooking appliance placed on top of it that is capable of reaching temperatures hot enough to cook food.
</P>
<P><I>Closed solid</I> means equipment with doors, and in which more than 75 percent of the outer surface area of all doors on a unit are not transparent.
</P>
<P><I>Closed transparent</I> means equipment with doors, and in which 25 percent or more of the outer surface area of all doors on the unit are transparent.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial freezer</I> means a unit of commercial refrigeration equipment in which all refrigerated compartments in the unit are capable of operating below 32 °F (±2 °F).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial hybrid</I> means a unit of commercial refrigeration equipment:
</P>
<P>(1) That consists of two or more thermally separated refrigerated compartments that are in two or more different equipment families, and
</P>
<P>(2) That is sold as a single unit.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial refrigerator</I> means a unit of commercial refrigeration equipment in which all refrigerated compartments in the unit are capable of operating at or above 32 °F (±2 °F).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial refrigerator-freezer</I> means a unit of commercial refrigeration equipment consisting of two or more refrigerated compartments where at least one refrigerated compartment is capable of operating at or above 32 °F (±2 °F) and at least one refrigerated compartment is capable of operating below 32 °F (±2 °F).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer</I> means refrigeration equipment that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is not a consumer product (as defined in § 430.2 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(2) Is not designed and marketed exclusively for medical, scientific, or research purposes;
</P>
<P>(3) Operates at a chilled, frozen, combination chilled and frozen, or variable temperature;
</P>
<P>(4) Displays or stores merchandise and other perishable materials horizontally, semi-vertically, or vertically;
</P>
<P>(5) Has transparent or solid doors, sliding or hinged doors, a combination of hinged, sliding, transparent, or solid doors, or no doors;
</P>
<P>(6) Is designed for pull-down temperature applications or holding temperature applications; and
</P>
<P>(7) Is connected to a self-contained condensing unit or to a remote condensing unit.
</P>
<P><I>Customer order storage cabinet</I> means a commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer that stores customer orders and includes individual, secured compartments with doors that are accessible to customers for order retrieval.
</P>
<P><I>Door</I> means a movable panel that separates the interior volume of a unit of commercial refrigeration equipment from the ambient environment and is designed to facilitate access to the refrigerated space for the purpose of loading and unloading product. This includes hinged doors, sliding doors, and drawers. This does not include night curtains.
</P>
<P><I>Door angle</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For equipment with flat doors, the angle between a vertical line and the line formed by the plane of the door, when the equipment is viewed in cross-section; and
</P>
<P>(2) For equipment with curved doors, the angle formed between a vertical line and the straight line drawn by connecting the top and bottom points where the display area glass joins the cabinet, when the equipment is viewed in cross-section.
</P>
<P><I>Fully open (for drawers)</I> means opened not less than 80% of their full travel.
</P>
<P><I>High-temperature refrigerator</I> means a commercial refrigerator that is not capable of an operating temperature at or below 40.0 °F.
</P>
<P><I>Holding temperature application</I> means a use of commercial refrigeration equipment other than a pull-down temperature application, except a blast chiller or freezer.
</P>
<P><I>Horizontal Closed</I> means equipment with hinged or sliding doors and a door angle greater than or equal to 45°.
</P>
<P><I>Horizontal Open</I> means equipment without doors and an air-curtain angle greater than or equal to 80° from the vertical.
</P>
<P><I>Ice-cream freezer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to the compliance date(s) of any amended energy conservation standard(s) issued after January 1, 2023 for ice-cream freezers (see § 431.66), a commercial freezer that is capable of an operating temperature at or below −5.0 °F and that the manufacturer designs, markets, or intends specifically for the storing, displaying, or dispensing of ice cream or other frozen desserts; or
</P>
<P>(2) Upon the compliance date(s) of any amended energy conservation standard(s) issued after January 1, 2023 for ice-cream freezers (see § 431.66), a commercial freezer that is capable of an operating temperature at or below −13.0 °F and that the manufacturer designs, markets, or intends specifically for the storing, displaying, or dispensing of ice cream or other frozen desserts.
</P>
<P><I>Integrated average temperature</I> means the average temperature of all test package measurements taken during the test.
</P>
<P><I>Lighting occupancy sensor</I> means a device which uses passive infrared, ultrasonic, or other motion-sensing technology to automatically turn off or dim lights within the equipment when no motion is detected in the sensor's coverage area for a certain preset period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Lowest application product temperature</I> means the integrated average temperature (or for buffet tables or preparation tables, the average pan temperature of all measurements taken during the test) at which a given basic model is capable of consistently operating that is closest to the integrated average temperature (or for buffet tables or preparation tables, the average pan temperature of all measurements taken during the test) specified for testing under the DOE test procedure (see § 431.64).
</P>
<P><I>Low-temperature freezer</I> means a commercial freezer that is not an ice-cream freezer.
</P>
<P><I>Medium-temperature refrigerator</I> means a commercial refrigerator that is capable of an operating temperature at or below 40.0 °F.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile refrigerated cabinet</I> means commercial refrigeration equipment that is designed and marketed to operate only without a continuous power supply.
</P>
<P><I>Night curtain</I> means a device which is temporarily deployed to decrease air exchange and heat transfer between the refrigerated case and the surrounding environment.
</P>
<P><I>Operating temperature</I> means the range of integrated average temperatures at which a self-contained commercial refrigeration unit or remote-condensing commercial refrigeration unit with a thermostat is capable of operating or, in the case of a remote-condensing commercial refrigeration unit without a thermostat, the range of integrated average temperatures at which the unit is marketed, designed, or intended to operate.
</P>
<P><I>Pull-down temperature application</I> means a commercial refrigerator with doors that, when fully loaded with 12-ounce beverage cans at 90 degrees F, can cool those beverages to an average stable temperature of 38 degrees F in 12 hours or less.
</P>
<P><I>Rating temperature</I> means the integrated average temperature a unit must maintain during testing (<I>i.e.,</I> either as listed in the table at § 431.66(d)(1) or the lowest application product temperature).
</P>
<P><I>Remote condensing unit</I> means a factory-made assembly of refrigerating components designed to compress and liquefy a specific refrigerant that is remotely located from the refrigerated equipment and consists of one or more refrigerant compressors, refrigerant condensers, condenser fans and motors, and factory supplied accessories.
</P>
<P><I>Scheduled lighting control</I> means a device which automatically shuts off or dims the lighting in a display case at scheduled times throughout the day.
</P>
<P><I>Self-contained condensing unit</I> means a factory-made assembly of refrigerating components designed to compress and liquefy a specific refrigerant that is an integral part of the refrigerated equipment and consists of one or more refrigerant compressors, refrigerant condensers, condenser fans and motors, and factory-supplied accessories.
</P>
<P><I>Semivertical Open</I> means equipment without doors and an air-curtain angle greater than or equal to 10° and less than 80° from the vertical.
</P>
<P><I>Service over counter</I> means equipment that has sliding or hinged doors in the back intended for use by sales personnel, with glass or other transparent material in the front for displaying merchandise, and that has a height not greater than 66 in. and is intended to serve as a counter for transactions between sales personnel and customers.
</P>
<P><I>Test package</I> means a packaged material that is used as a standard product temperature-measuring device.
</P>
<P><I>Transparent</I> means greater than or equal to 45 percent light transmittance, as determined in accordance with ASTM E1084-86 (Reapproved 2009) (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63) at normal incidence and in the intended direction of viewing.
</P>
<P><I>Vertical Closed</I> means equipment with hinged or sliding doors and a door angle less than 45°.
</P>
<P><I>Vertical Open</I> means equipment without doors and an air-curtain angle greater than or equal to 0° and less than 10° from the vertical.
</P>
<P><I>Wedge case</I> means a commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer that forms the transition between two regularly shaped display cases.</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 66222, Sept. 26, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="42" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.63" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.63   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, EE-5B, Washington, DC 20024, (202)-586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html or</I> email<I>: fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section:


</P>
<P>(b) <I>ANSI.</I> American National Standards Institute, 25 W. 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036, 212-642-4900, or go to <I>http://www.ansi.org:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI /AHAM HRF-1-2004, <I>Energy, Performance and Capacity of Household Refrigerators, Refrigerator-Freezers and Freezers</I>, approved July 7, 2004, IBR approved for § 431.64 and appendices A and B to subpart C to part 431.
</P>
<P>(2) AHAM HRF-1-2008 (“HRF-1-2008”), Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers, <I>Energy and Internal Volume of Refrigerating Appliances</I> (2008) including <I>Errata to Energy and Internal Volume of Refrigerating Appliances,</I> Correction Sheet issued November 17, 2009, IBR approved for § 431.64 and appendices A and B to subpart C to part 431.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>AHRI.</I> Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute, 2111 Wilson Blvd., Suite 500, Arlington, VA 22201; (703) 524-8800; <I>ahri@ahrinet.org; www.ahrinet.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ARI Standard 1200-2006, <I>Performance Rating of Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets,</I> 2006; IBR approved for § 431.66.
</P>
<P>(2) AHRI Standard 1200 (I-P)-2010 (“AHRI Standard 1200 (I-P)-2010”), <I>2010 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets,</I> 2010; IBR approved for § 431.66.
</P>
<P>(3) AHRI Standard 1200-2023 (I-P) (“AHRI 1200-2023”), <I>2023 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets,</I> copyright 2023; IBR approved for appendices B, C, and D to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) AHRI Standard 1320-2011 (I-P), (“AHRI 1320-2011”) <I>2011 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets for Use With Secondary Refrigerants,</I> copyright 2011; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASHRAE.</I> The American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1971 Tullie Circle NE, Atlanta, GA 30329; (404) 636-8400; <I>ashrae@ashrae.org; www.ashrae.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 72-2022 (ASHRAE 72-2022), <I>Method of Testing Open and Closed Commercial Refrigerators and Freezers,</I> approved June 30, 2022; IBR approved for appendices B, C, and D to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) Errata sheet for ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 72-2022 (ASHRAE 72-2022 Errata), <I>Method of Testing Open and Closed Commercial Refrigerators and Freezers,</I> November 11, 2022; IBR approved for appendices B, C, and D to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>ASTM.</I> ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428; (877) 909-2786; <I>www.astm.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM E1084-86 (Reapproved 2009), <I>Standard Test Method for Solar Transmittance (Terrestrial) of Sheet Materials Using Sunlight,</I> approved April 1, 2009; IBR approved for § 431.62.
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM F2143-16, <I>Standard Test Method for Performance of Refrigerated Buffet and Preparation Tables,</I> approved May 1, 2016; IBR approved for appendix C to this subpart.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 1139, Jan. 9, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 10318, Feb. 21, 2012; 78 FR 62993, Oct. 23, 2013; 79 FR 22308, Apr. 21, 2014; 88 FR 66224, Sept. 26, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.64" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.64   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy consumption of commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides the test procedures for measuring, pursuant to EPCA, the energy consumption or energy efficiency for a given equipment category of commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> (1) Determine the daily energy consumption and volume or total display area of each covered commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer by conducting the appropriate test procedure set forth below in appendix B, to this subpart. The daily energy consumption of commercial refrigeration equipment shall be calculated using raw measured values and the final test results shall be reported in increments of 0.01 kWh/day.
</P>
<P>(2) Determine the daily energy consumption and pan storage volume, pan display area, and refrigerated volume of each buffet table or preparation table by conducting the appropriate test procedure set forth below in appendix C to this subpart. The daily energy consumption shall be calculated using raw measured values and the final test results shall be recorded in increments of 0.01 kWh/day.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine the energy consumption per weight of product and product capacity of each blast chiller and blast freezer by conducting the appropriate test procedure set forth below in appendix D to this subpart. The energy consumption per weight of product shall be calculated using raw measured values and the final test results shall be recorded in increments of 0.01 kWh/lb.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 66225, Sept. 26, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="43" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.43" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.66" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.43.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.66   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In this section—






</P>
<P>(1) The term “AV” means the adjusted volume (ft
<SU>3</SU>) (defined as 1.63 × frozen temperature compartment volume (ft
<SU>3</SU>) + chilled temperature compartment volume (ft
<SU>3</SU>)) with compartment volumes measured in accordance with the Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers Standard HRF1-1979.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “V” means the chilled or frozen compartment volume (ft
<SU>3</SU>) (as defined in the Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers Standard HRF1-1979).
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of paragraph (d) of this section, the term “TDA” means the total display area (ft
<SU>2</SU>) of the case, as defined in ARI Standard 1200-2006, appendix D (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63). For the purpose of paragraph (e) of this section, the term “TDA” means the total display area (ft
<SU>2</SU>) of the case, as defined in AHRI Standard 1200 (I-P)-2010, appendix D (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer with a self-contained condensing unit designed for holding temperature applications manufactured on or after January 1, 2010 and before March 27, 2017 shall have a daily energy consumption (in kilowatt-hours per day) that does not exceed the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum daily energy consumption
<br/>(kilowatt hours per day) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerators with solid doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10V + 2.04.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerators with transparent doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12V + 3.34.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Freezers with solid doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40V + 1.38.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Freezers with transparent doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75V + 4.10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerator/freezers with solid doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">the greater of 0.27AV-0.71 or 0.70.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Each service over the counter, self-contained, medium temperature commercial refrigerator (SOC-SC-M) manufactured on or after January 1, 2012, shall have a total daily energy consumption (in kilowatt hours per day) of not more than 0.6 × TDA + 1.0. As used in the preceding sentence, “TDA” means the total display area (ft
<SU>2</SU>) of the case, as defined in the AHRI Standard 1200 (I-P)-2010, appendix D (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63).
</P>
<P>(c) Each commercial refrigerator with a self-contained condensing unit designed for pull-down temperature applications and transparent doors manufactured on or after January 1, 2010 and before March 27, 2017 shall have a daily energy consumption (in kilowatt-hours per day) of not more than 0.126V + 3.51.
</P>
<P>(d) Each commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer with a self-contained condensing unit and without doors; commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer with a remote condensing unit; and commercial ice-cream freezer manufactured on or after January 1, 2012 and before March 27, 2017 shall have a daily energy consumption (in kilowatt-hours per day) that does not exceed the levels specified:
</P>
<P>(1) For equipment other than hybrid equipment, refrigerator-freezers or wedge cases:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condensing unit
<br/>configuration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
<br/>family
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rating
<br/>temp.
<br/>(°F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operating
<br/>temp.
<br/>(°F)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
<br/>designation *
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum daily energy consumption
<br/>(kWh/day)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing Commercial Refrigerators and Commercial Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remote (RC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Open (VOP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.RC.M
<br/>VOP.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.82 × TDA + 4.07
<br/>2.27 × TDA + 6.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semivertical Open (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.RC.M
<br/>SVO.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.83 × TDA + 3.18
<br/>2.27 × TDA + 6.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Open (HZO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.RC.M
<br/>HZO.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 × TDA + 2.88
<br/>0.57 × TDA + 6.88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Transparent (VCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.RC.M
<br/>VCT.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22 × TDA + 1.95
<br/>0.56 × TDA + 2.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Transparent (HCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.RC.M
<br/>HCT.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16 × TDA + 0.13
<br/>0.34 × TDA + 0.26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Solid (VCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.RC.M
<br/>VCS.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11 × V + 0.26
<br/>0.23 × V + 0.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Solid (HCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.RC.M
<br/>HCS.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11 × V + 0.26
<br/>0.23 × V + 0.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service Over Counter (SOC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.RC.M
<br/>SOC.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.51 × TDA + 0.11
<br/>1.08 × TDA + 0.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained Commercial Refrigerators and Commercial Freezers without Doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Self-Contained (SC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Open (VOP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.SC.M
<br/>VOP.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.74 × TDA + 4.71
<br/>4.37 × TDA + 11.82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semivertical Open (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.SC.M
<br/>SVO.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.73 × TDA + 4.59
<br/>4.34 × TDA + 11.51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Open</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)
<br/>0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32±2
<br/>&lt;32±2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.SC.M
<br/>HZO.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.77 × TDA + 5.55
<br/>1.92 × TDA + 7.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Ice-Cream Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remote (RC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Open (VOP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−15 (I)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤−5±2** **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.89 × TDA + 8.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semivertical Open (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.89 × TDA + 8.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Open (HZO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.72 × TDA + 8.74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Transparent (VCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.66 × TDA + 3.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Transparent (HCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4 × TDA + 0.31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Solid (VCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27 × V + 0.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Solid (HCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27 × V + 0.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service Over Counter (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.26 × TDA + 0.26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Self-Contained (SC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Open (VOP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.55 × TDA + 15.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semivertical Open (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.52 × TDA + 14.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Open (HZO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.44 × TDA + 9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Transparent (VCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.67 × TDA + 3.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Transparent (HCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.56 × TDA + 0.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Solid (VCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38 × V + 0.88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Solid (HCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38 × V + 0.88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service Over Counter (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.76 × TDA + 0.36
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* The meaning of the letters in this column is indicated in the three columns to the left.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** Ice-cream freezer is defined in 10 CFR 431.62 as a commercial freezer that is designed to operate at or below −5 °F (−21 °C) and that the manufacturer designs, markets, or intends for the storing, displaying, or dispensing of ice cream.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) For commercial refrigeration equipment with two or more compartments (<I>i.e.</I>, hybrid refrigerators, hybrid freezers, hybrid refrigerator-freezers, and non-hybrid refrigerator-freezers), the maximum daily energy consumption (MDEC) for each model shall be the sum of the MDEC values for all of its compartments. For each compartment, measure the TDA or volume of that compartment, and determine the appropriate equipment class based on that compartment's equipment family, condensing unit configuration, and designed operating temperature. The MDEC limit for each compartment shall be the calculated value obtained by entering that compartment's TDA or volume into the standard equation in paragraph (d)(1) of this section for that compartment's equipment class. Measure the calculated daily energy consumption (CDEC) or total daily energy consumption (TDEC) for the entire case:
</P>
<P>(i) For remote condensing commercial hybrid refrigerators, hybrid freezers, hybrid refrigerator-freezers, and non-hybrid refrigerator-freezers, where two or more independent condensing units each separately cool only one compartment, measure the total refrigeration load of each compartment separately according to the ARI Standard 1200-2006 test procedure (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63). Calculate compressor energy consumption (CEC) for each compartment using Table 1 in ARI Standard 1200-2006 using the saturated evaporator temperature for that compartment. The CDEC for the entire case shall be the sum of the CEC for each compartment, fan energy consumption (FEC), lighting energy consumption (LEC), anti-condensate energy consumption (AEC), defrost energy consumption (DEC), and condensate evaporator pan energy consumption (PEC) (as measured in ARI Standard 1200-2006).
</P>
<P>(ii) For remote condensing commercial hybrid refrigerators, hybrid freezers, hybrid refrigerator-freezers, and non-hybrid refrigerator-freezers, where two or more compartments are cooled collectively by one condensing unit, measure the total refrigeration load of the entire case according to the ARI Standard 1200-2006 test procedure (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63). Calculate a weighted saturated evaporator temperature for the entire case by:
</P>
<P>(A) Multiplying the saturated evaporator temperature of each compartment by the volume of that compartment (as measured in ARI Standard 1200-2006),
</P>
<P>(B) Summing the resulting values for all compartments, and
</P>
<P>(C) Dividing the resulting total by the total volume of all compartments.
</P>
<P>Calculate the CEC for the entire case using Table 1 in ARI Standard 1200-2006 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63), using the total refrigeration load and the weighted average saturated evaporator temperature. The CDEC for the entire case shall be the sum of the CEC, FEC, LEC, AEC, DEC, and PEC.
</P>
<P>(iii) For self-contained commercial hybrid refrigerators, hybrid freezers, hybrid refrigerator-freezers, and non-hybrid refrigerator-freezers, measure the TDEC for the entire case according to the ARI Standard 1200-2006 test procedure (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63).
</P>
<P>(3) For remote-condensing and self-contained wedge cases, measure the CDEC or TDEC according to the ARI Standard 1200-2006 test procedure (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63). The MDEC for each model shall be the amount derived by incorporating into the standards equation in paragraph (d)(1) of this section for the appropriate equipment class a value for the TDA that is the product of:
</P>
<P>(i) The vertical height of the air-curtain (or glass in a transparent door) and (ii) The largest overall width of the case, when viewed from the front.
</P>
<P>(e) Each commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer with a self-contained condensing unit designed for holding temperature applications and with solid or transparent doors; commercial refrigerator with a self-contained condensing unit designed for pull-down temperature applications and with transparent doors; commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer with a self-contained condensing unit and without doors; commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer with a remote condensing unit; and commercial ice-cream freezer manufactured on or after March 27, 2017, shall have a daily energy consumption (in kilowatt-hours per day) that does not exceed the levels specified:
</P>
<P>(1) For equipment other than hybrid equipment, refrigerator/freezers, or wedge cases:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condensing
<br/>unit
<br/>configuration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
<br/>family
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rating
<br/>temp.
<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Operating
<br/>temp.
<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
<br/>class
<br/>designation *
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>daily energy
<br/>consumption
<br/>kWh/day
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing Commercial Refrigerators and Commercial Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remote (RC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Open (VOP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.RC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.64 × TDA + 4.07.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × TDA + 6.85.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semivertical Open (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.RC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.66 × TDA + 3.18.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 × TDA + 6.85.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Open (HZO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.RC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 × TDA + 2.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55 × TDA + 6.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Transparent (VCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.RC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 × TDA + 1.95.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.49 × TDA + 2.61.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Transparent (HCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.RC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.16 × TDA + 0.13.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34 × TDA + 0.26.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Solid (VCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.RC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 × V + 0.26.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21 × V + 0.54.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Solid (HCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.RC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 × V + 0.26.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21 × V + 0.54.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service Over Counter (SOC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.RC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.44 × TDA + 0.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.RC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.93 × TDA + 0.22.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained Commercial Refrigerators and Commercial Freezers Without Doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Self-Contained (SC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Open (VOP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.69 × TDA + 4.71.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.25 × TDA + 11.82.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semivertical Open (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 × TDA + 4.59.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.26 × TDA + 11.51.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Open (HZO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.72 × TDA + 5.55.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 × TDA + 7.08.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained Commercial Refrigerators and Commercial Freezers With Doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Self-Contained (SC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Transparent (VCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 × V + 0.86.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29 × V + 2.95.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Solid (VCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 × V + 1.36.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22 × V + 1.38.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Transparent (HCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06 × V + 0.37.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08 × V + 1.23.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Solid (HCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 × V + 0.91.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06 × V + 1.12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service Over Counter (SOC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.52 × TDA + 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 (L)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.SC.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 × TDA + 2.1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained Commercial Refrigerators with Transparent Doors for Pull-Down Temperature Applications</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Self-Contained (SC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pull-Down (PD)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38 (M)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">PD.SC.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.11 × V + 0.81.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Ice-Cream Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remote (RC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Open (VOP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−15 (I)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≤−5**</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.79 × TDA + 8.7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semivertical Open (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.79 × TDA + 8.7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Open (HZO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7 × TDA + 8.74.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Transparent (VCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.58 × TDA + 3.05.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Transparent (HCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4 × TDA + 0.31.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Solid (VCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 × V + 0.63.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Solid (HCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 × V + 0.63.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service Over Counter (SOC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.RC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.09 × TDA + 0.26.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Self-Contained (SC)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Open (VOP)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VOP.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4 × TDA + 15.02.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Semivertical Open (SVO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SVO.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.41 × TDA + 14.63.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Open (HZO)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HZO.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.42 × TDA + 9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Transparent (VCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCT.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.62 × TDA + 3.29.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Transparent (HCT)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCT.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.56 × TDA + 0.43.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vertical Closed Solid (VCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VCS.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34 × V + 0.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Horizontal Closed Solid (HCS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HCS.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34 × V + 0.88.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Service Over Counter (SOC)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SOC.SC.I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.53 × TDA + 0.36.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* The meaning of the letters in this column is indicated in the columns to the left.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** Ice-cream freezer is defined in 10 CFR 431.62 as a commercial freezer that is designed to operate at or below −5 °F *(−21 °C) and that the manufacturer designs, markets, or intends for the storing, displaying, or dispensing of ice cream.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) For commercial refrigeration equipment with two or more compartments (<I>i.e.,</I> hybrid refrigerators, hybrid freezers, hybrid refrigerator-freezers, and non-hybrid refrigerator-freezers), the maximum daily energy consumption for each model shall be the sum of the MDEC values for all of its compartments. For each compartment, measure the TDA or volume of that compartment, and determine the appropriate equipment class based on that compartment's equipment family, condensing unit configuration, and designed operating temperature. The MDEC limit for each compartment shall be the calculated value obtained by entering that compartment's TDA or volume into the standard equation in paragraph (e)(1) of this section for that compartment's equipment class. Measure the CDEC or TDEC for the entire case as described in § 431.66(d)(2)(i) through (iii), except that where measurements and calculations reference ARI Standard 1200-2006 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63), AHRI Standard 1200 (I-P)-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63) shall be used.
</P>
<P>(3) For remote condensing and self-contained wedge cases, measure the CDEC or TDEC according to the AHRI Standard 1200 (I-P)-2010 test procedure (incorporated by reference, see § 431.63). For wedge cases in equipment classes for which a volume metric is used, the MDEC shall be the amount derived from the appropriate standards equation in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. For wedge cases of equipment classes for which a TDA metric is used, the MDEC for each model shall be the amount derived by incorporating into the standards equation in paragraph (e)(1) of this section for the equipment class a value for the TDA that is the product of:
</P>
<P>(i) The vertical height of the air curtain (or glass in a transparent door) and
</P>
<P>(ii) The largest overall width of the case, when viewed from the front.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exclusions.</I> The energy conservation standards in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section do not apply to salad bars, buffet tables, and chef bases or griddle stands.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60414, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1140, Jan. 9, 2009; 78 FR 62993, Oct. 23, 2013; 79 FR 22308, Apr. 21, 2014; 79 FR 17816, Mar. 28, 2014]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.44.6.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart C of Part 431 [Reserved]
















</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.44.6.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart C of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Commercial Refrigerators, Freezers, and Refrigerator-Freezers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>On or after September 20, 2024, any representations, including for certification of compliance, made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of commercial refrigeration equipment, except for buffet tables or preparation tables, blast chillers, blast freezers, or mobile refrigerated cabinets, must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix. Prior to September 20, 2024, any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of commercial refrigeration equipment, except for buffet tables or preparation tables, blast chillers, blast freezers, or mobile refrigerated cabinets, must be made either in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix or with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix as it appeared in appendix B to subpart C of part 431 in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2023. Buffet tables or preparation tables are subject to the test method requirements in appendix C to subpart C of part 431. Blast chillers and blast freezers are subject to the test method requirements in appendix D to subpart C of part 431.
</P>
<P>The test procedure for equipment cooled only by secondary coolants in section 1.1.3 of this appendix is not required for use until the compliance date(s) of any amended energy conservation standard(s) (see § 431.66) for such commercial refrigeration equipment.
</P>
<P>High-temperature refrigerators must be tested as medium-temperature refrigerators according to section 2.1.3 of this appendix based on the lowest application product temperature until the compliance date(s) of any amended energy conservation standard(s) (see § 431.66) established for high-temperature refrigerators. On and after the compliance date(s) of such energy conservation standard(s) (see § 431.66), high-temperature refrigerators must be tested as high-temperature refrigerators according to section 2.1.4 of this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.63 the entire standard for AHRI 1200-2023; AHRI 1320-2011; ASHRAE 72-2022 and ASHRAE 72-2022 Errata (the latter two collectively referenced as ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata). However, only enumerated provisions of AHRI 1200-2023 and AHRI 1320-2011 are applicable to this appendix as follows:
</P>
<P>0.1. AHRI 1200-2023
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3, “Definitions,” as referenced in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3.2.8, “Dew Point,” as referenced in section 2.2. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 3.2.20, “Total Display Area (TDA),” as referenced in section 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 4, “Test Requirements,” as referenced in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 4.1.1.1, “High Temperature Applications,” as referenced in section 2.1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 4.1.1.2, “Ice Cream Applications,” as referenced in section 2.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(g) Section 4.1.1.3, “Low Temperature Applications,” as referenced in section 2.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 4.1.1.4, “Medium Temperature Applications,” as referenced in section 2.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(i) Section 5.1, “Rating Requirements for Remote Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets” as referenced in sections 1.1.2, 1.1.3, and 1.5.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(j) Section 5.2, “Rating Requirements for Self-Contained Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets,” as referenced in section 1.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(k) Section 9, “Symbols and Subscripts,” as referenced in section 1.1 and 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(l) Appendix C, “Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandiser and Storage Cabinet Refrigerated Volume Calculation—Normative” as referenced in section 3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(m) Appendix D, “Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandiser and Storage Cabinet Total Display Area (TDA) Calculation—Normative,” as referenced in section 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.2. AHRI 1320-2011
</P>
<P>(a) Sections 5.2.7 and 5.2.8 as referenced in section 1.1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved].
</P>
<HD2>1. Test Procedure
</HD2>
<P>1.1. Determination of Daily Energy Consumption. Determine the daily energy consumption of each covered commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer by conducting the test procedure set forth in AHRI 1200-2023, section 3, “Definitions,” section 4, “Test Requirements,” and section 9, “Symbols and Subscripts.”
</P>
<P>1.1.1. For each commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer with a self-contained condensing unit, also use AHRI 1200-2023, section 5.2, “Rating Requirements for Self-Contained Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets.”
</P>
<P>1.1.2. For each commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer with a remote condensing unit, also use AHRI 1200-2023, section 5.1, “Rating Requirements for Remote Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets.”
</P>
<P>1.1.3. For each commercial refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator-freezer used with a secondary coolant, test according to section 1.1.2 of this appendix, except in place of the equations for CDEC and CEC in sections 5.1.2 and 5.1.2.1 of AHRI 1200-2023, respectively, apply the following equations:
</P>
<FP-2>CDEC = CEC + [FEC + LEC + AEC + DEC + PEC]* + CPEC
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEC = [(Q<E T="52">rt</E> + Q<E T="52">CP</E>) · (t − t<E T="52">dt</E>)]/(EER · 1000)
</FP-2>
<P>Where CPEC and Q<E T="52">CP</E> are as specified in sections 5.2.7 and 5.2.8 of AHRI 1320-2011 and EER is determined based on a temperature that is 6.0 °F lower than the secondary coolant cabinet inlet temperature.
</P>
<P>1.2. Methodology for Determining Applicability of Transparent Door Equipment Families. To determine if a door for a given model of commercial refrigeration equipment is transparent:
</P>
<P>(a) Calculate the outer door surface area including frames and mullions;
</P>
<P>(b) calculate the transparent surface area within the outer door surface area excluding frames and mullions;
</P>
<P>(c) calculate the ratio of (2) to (1) for each of the outer doors; and
</P>
<P>(d) the ratio for the transparent surface area of all outer doors must be greater than 0.25 to qualify as a transparent equipment family.
</P>
<P>1.3. Drawers. Drawers shall be treated as identical to doors when conducting the DOE test procedure. Commercial refrigeration equipment with drawers intended for use with pans shall be configured with stainless steel food service pans, installed in a configuration per the manufacturer's instructions utilizing the maximum pan sizes specified. If the manufacturer does not specify the pan sizes, the maximum pan depth and pan volume allowed shall be used. For commercial refrigeration equipment with drawers intended for use with pans, the net usable volume includes only the interior volume of the pan(s) in the drawer. The net usable volume shall be measured by the amount of water needed to fill all the pan(s) to within 0.5 inches of the top rim, or determined by calculating the total volume of all pan(s) using the pan manufacturers' published pan volume. For commercial refrigeration equipment with drawers not intended for pans, the net usable volume shall be equal to the total volume of the drawer to the top edge of the drawer. Test simulators shall be placed in commercial refrigeration equipment with drawers as follows: For each drawer, there shall be two test simulators placed at each of the following locations: at the left end, at the right end, and at consistent 24 inch to 48 inch intervals across the width of the drawer (for drawers wider than 48 inches). For drawers with overall internal width of 48 inches or less, only the left and right ends shall have test simulators. If test simulators are to be placed at a pan edge or divider, the test simulator shall be placed at the nearest adjacent location. For each drawer, one test simulator shall be placed on the bottom of the pan or drawer at each of the front and rear test simulator locations of the drawer. Test simulators shall be placed in contact with the drawer or pan end or ends unless load limiting stops are provided as part of the case. Test simulators shall be secured such that the test simulators do not move during the test. The net usable volume where test simulators are not required shall be filled with filler material so that between 60 percent and 80 percent of the net usable volume is occupied by test simulators and uniformly occupied by filler material.
</P>
<P>1.4. Long-time Automatic Defrost. For commercial refrigeration equipment not capable of operating with defrost intervals of 24 hours or less, testing may be conducted using a two-part test method.
</P>
<P>1.4.1. First Part of Test. The first part of the test shall be a 24-hour test starting in steady-state conditions and including eight hours of door opening (according to ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata). The energy consumed in this test, ET1, shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>1.4.2. Second Part of Test. The second part of the test shall be a defrost cycle, including any operation associated with a defrost. The start and end of the test period be determined as the last time before and first time after a defrost occurrence when the measured average simulator temperature (<I>i.e.,</I> the instantaneous average of all test simulator temperature measurements) is within 0.5 °F of the IAT as measured during the first part of the test. The energy consumed in this test, ET2, and duration, t<E T="52">DI</E>, shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>1.4.3. Daily Energy Consumption. Based on the measured energy consumption in these two tests, the daily energy consumption (DEC) in kWh shall be calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26se23.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>DEC</I> = daily energy consumption, in kWh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ET</I> 1 = energy consumed during the first part of the test, in kWh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ET</I> 2 = energy consumed during the second part of the test, in kWh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="52">NDI</E> = normalized length of defrosting time per day, in minutes;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="52">DI</E> = length of time of defrosting test period, in minutes;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="52">DC</E> = minimum time between defrost occurrences, in days; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1440 = conversion factor, minutes per day.
</FP-2>
<P>1.5. Customer Order Storage Cabinets. Customer order storage cabinets shall conduct door openings according to ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata, except that each door shall be opened to the fully open position for 8 seconds, once every 2 hours, for 6 door-opening cycles.
</P>
<P>1.5.1. Ambient Compartments. For customer order storage cabinets that have at least one individual-secured compartment that is not capable of maintaining an integrated average temperature below the ambient dry-bulb temperature, the individual-secured compartment(s) at ambient dry-bulb temperature shall be categorized as a high-temperature refrigerator compartment for the purpose of testing and rating. All volume, total display area, and energy consumption calculations shall be included within the high-temperature refrigerator category and summed with other high-temperature refrigerator category compartment(s) calculations.
</P>
<P>1.5.2. Convertible Compartments. For customer order storage cabinets that have individual-secured compartments that are convertible between the ambient dry-bulb temperature and the ≥32 °F operating temperature, the convertible compartment shall be tested as a medium-temperature refrigerator compartment or at the lowest application product temperature as specified in section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1.5.3. Inverse Refrigeration Load Test. For customer order storage cabinets that supply refrigerant to multiple individual-secured compartments and that allow the suction pressure from the evaporator in each individual-secured compartment to float based on the temperature required to store the customer order in that individual-secured compartment, test according to section 1.1.2 of this appendix, except that energy (heat) loss shall be allowed at a rate and ΔT equivalent to the energy gains of a standard refrigerated cabinet as specified in sections 1.5.3.1-1.5.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1.5.3.1. Anti-sweat door heaters. Anti-sweat door heaters shall be de-energized for the inverse refrigeration load test specified in section 1.5.3. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1.5.3.2. Integrated Average Temperature. For medium-temperature refrigerator compartments, the integrated average temperature shall be 112.4 °F ±2.0 °F. For low-temperature freezer compartments, the integrated average temperature shall be 150.4 °F ±2.0 °F. For ambient compartments, the integrated average temperature shall be 75.4 °F ±2.0 °F.
</P>
<P>1.5.3.3. Daily Energy Consumption. Determine the calculated daily energy consumption (“CDEC”) and the EER based on AHRI 1200-2023, section 5.1, “Rating Requirements for Remote Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandisers and Storage Cabinets,” except that the compressor energy consumption (“CEC”) shall be calculated by applying the following equations:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26se23.006.gif"/>
<FP-2><I>ML</I> = N<E T="54">d</E> × (<I>A</I><E T="54">e</E> + <I>A</I><E T="54">m</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">e</E> = [(<I>H</I><E T="54">a</E> − <I>H</I><E T="54">c</E>) − (<I>H</I><E T="54">t</E> − <I>H</I><E T="54">a</E>)] × <I>m</I><E T="54">a</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">m</E> = <I>C</I><E T="54">p,liner</E> × <I>W</I><E T="54">liner</E> × Δ<I>T</I><E T="54">liner</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CEC</I> = compressor energy consumption, kWh per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q</I> = inverse refrigeration load (does not include waste heat from auxiliary components and moisture infiltration), in BTU per h;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I> = test duration, in h;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ML</I> = moisture load impacts, BTU per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>FEC</I> = evaporator fan motor(s) energy consumption, Wh per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AEC</I> = anti-condensate heater(s) energy consumption, Wh per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>DEC</I> = defrost heater(s) energy consumption, Wh per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.412 = conversion factor, BTU per Wh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>EER</I> = energy efficiency ratio, BTU per Wh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1000 = conversion factor, W per kW;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>W</I><E T="54">in</E> = energy input measured over the test period for all energized components (heaters, controls, and fans) located in the refrigerated compartments, in Wh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>N</I><E T="54">d</E> = number of door openings during test, unitless;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">e</E> = enthalpy adjustment, BTU per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">m</E> = moisture/frost accumulation, BTU per day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">a</E> = ambient air enthalpy, BTU per pound;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">c</E> = compartment air enthalpy based on air conditions during cold operation (<I>e.g.,</I> 0 °F dry bulb/−20 °F dew point for freezer compartment, 38 °F dry bulb/20 °F dew point for refrigerator compartment, 75 °F dry bulb/20 °F dew point for ambient compartment), BTU per pound;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">t</E> = compartment air enthalpy during heat leak test based on dew point being equal to ambient air dew point, BTU per pound;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>m<E T="52">a</E> = mass of compartment air exchanged (30% of total compartment volume) based density of air during cold operation, pounds;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I><E T="54">p,liner</E> = specific heat of liner material, BTU per °F per pound;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>W</I><E T="54">liner</E> = weight of all liner parts, pounds; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ΔT</I><E T="54">liner</E> = maximum temperature rise of all liner parts (<I>e.g.,</I> 4.5 °F, 2.5 °F, and 1 °F for freezer, refrigerator, and ambient compartments, respectively), °F.
</FP-2>
<HD2>2. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P>2.1. Integrated Average Temperatures. Conduct the testing required in section 1 of this appendix, and determine the daily energy consumption at the applicable integrated average temperature as follows:
</P>
<P>2.1.1. Ice-Cream Freezers. Test ice-cream freezers and ice-cream freezer compartments to the integrated average temperature specified in section 4.1.1.2, “Ice Cream Applications,” of AHRI 1200-2023.
</P>
<P>2.1.2. Low-Temperature Freezers. Test low-temperature freezers and low-temperature freezer compartments to the integrated average temperature specified in section 4.1.1.3, “Low Temperature Applications,” of AHRI 1200-2023.
</P>
<P>2.1.3. Medium-Temperature Refrigerators. Test medium-temperature refrigerators and medium-temperature refrigerator compartments to the integrated average temperature specified in section 4.1.1.4, “Medium Temperature Applications,” of AHRI 1200-2023.
</P>
<P>2.1.4. High-Temperature Refrigerators. Test high-temperature refrigerators and high-temperature refrigerator compartments to the integrated average temperature specified in section 4.1.1.1, “High Temperature Applications,” of AHRI 1200-2023.
</P>
<P>2.2. Lowest Application Product Temperature. If a unit of commercial refrigeration equipment is not able to be operated at the integrated average temperature specified in section 2.1 of this appendix, test the unit at the lowest application product temperature (LAPT), as defined in § 431.62. For units equipped with a thermostat, LAPT is the measured temperature at the lowest thermostat setting of the unit (for units that are only able to operate at temperatures above the specified test temperature) or the highest thermostat setting of the unit (for units that are only able to operate at temperatures below the specified test temperature). For remote condensing equipment without a thermostat or other means of controlling temperature at the case, the lowest application product temperature is measured at the temperature achieved with the dew point temperature (as defined in section 3.2.8, “Dew Point,” of AHRI 1200-2023) or mid-point evaporator temperature (as defined in section 9, “Symbols and Subscripts,” of AHRI 1200-2023) set to 5 degrees colder than that required to maintain the manufacturer's specified application temperature that is closest to the specified integrated average temperature.
</P>
<P>2.3. Testing at NSF Test Conditions. For commercial refrigeration equipment that is also tested in accordance with NSF test procedures (Type I and Type II), integrated average temperatures and ambient conditions used for NSF testing may be used in place of the DOE-prescribed integrated average temperatures and ambient conditions provided they result in a more stringent test. That is, the measured daily energy consumption of the same unit, when tested at the rating temperatures and/or ambient conditions specified in the DOE test procedure, must be lower than or equal to the measured daily energy consumption of the unit when tested with the rating temperatures or ambient conditions used for NSF testing. The integrated average temperature measured during the test may be lower than the range specified by the DOE applicable temperature specification provided in section 2.1 of this appendix, but may not exceed the upper value of the specified range. Ambient temperatures and/or humidity values may be higher than those specified in the DOE test procedure.
</P>
<P>2.4. Liquid Refrigerant Pressure Required Accuracy. The liquid refrigerant pressure required accuracy is ±35 kPa (±5.1 psi).
</P>
<P>2.5 Commercial Refrigerator, Freezer, and Refrigerator-Freezer connected to a Direct Expansion Remote Condensing Unit with R-744. For commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers connected to a direct expansion remote condensing unit with R-744, instead of the liquid refrigerant measurements for direct-expansion remote units specified in appendix A to ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata, the liquid refrigerant measurements for direct-expansion remote units shall be: liquid refrigerant temperature shall be 30.0 °F with a tolerance for the average over test period of ±3.0 °F and a tolerance for the individual measurements of ±5.0 °F; liquid refrigerant pressure shall be the saturated liquid pressure corresponding to a condensing temperature in the range of 32.0 °F to 44.0 °F for the average over test period; and liquid refrigerant subcooling shall be greater than 2.0 °R for the average over test period.
</P>
<P>2.6 Chef Base or Griddle Stand Test Conditions. For chef bases or griddle stands, instead of the dry-bulb temperature, wet-bulb temperature, and radiant heat temperature specified in appendix A to ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata: dry-bulb temperature shall be 86.0 °F with a tolerance for the average over test period of ±1.8 °F and a tolerance for the individual measurements of ±3.6  °F; wet-bulb temperature shall be 73.7 °F with a tolerance for the average over test period of ±1.8 °F and a tolerance for the individual measurements of ±3.6 °F; and radiant heat temperature shall be greater than or equal to 81.0 °F.
</P>
<HD2>3. Volume and Total Display Area
</HD2>
<P>3.1. Determination of Volume. Determine the volume of a commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer using the method set forth in AHRI 1200-2023, appendix C, “Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandiser and Storage Cabinet Refrigerated Volume Calculation—Normative.”
</P>
<P>3.2. Determination of Total Display Area. Determine the total display area of a commercial refrigerator, freezer, and refrigerator-freezer using the method set forth in AHRI 1200-2023, section 3.2.20, “Total Display Area (TDA),” and appendix D, “Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandiser and Storage Cabinet Total Display Area (TDA) Calculation—Normative.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 66225, Sept. 26, 2023]












</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.44.6.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart C of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Buffet Tables or Preparation Tables


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>On or after September 20, 2024, any representations, including for certification of compliance, made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of buffet tables or preparation tables must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.63 the entire standard for AHRI 1200-2023, ASHRAE 72-2022, ASHRAE 72-2022 Errata (the latter two collectively referenced as ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata), and ASTM F2143-16. However, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable to this appendix as follows:
</P>
<P>0.1. AHRI 1200-2023
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3.2.17, “Refrigerated Volume (Vr),” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Normative Appendix C, “Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandiser and Storage Cabinet Refrigerated Volume Calculation,” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.2 ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata
</P>
<P>(a) Section 5.1, “Installation and Settings,” as referenced in section 1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.2, “Wall or Vertical Partition Placement,” as referenced in section 1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5.3, “Components and Accessories,” as referenced in section 1.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6.1, “Ambient Temperature and Humidity,” as referenced in section 1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7.1, “Sequence of Operations,” as referenced in section 1.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 7.2, “Preparation Period” (excluding sections 7.2.1 and 7.2.2), as referenced in section 1.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7.3, “Test Periods A and B” (excluding sections 7.3.1, 7.3.2, 7.3.3, and 7.3.4), as referenced in sections 1.5 and 1.5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 7.4, “Test Alignment Period,” as referenced in section 1.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(i) Section 7.5, “Determining Stability,” as referenced in sections 1.5 and 1.5.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(j) Normative Appendix A, “Measurement Locations, Tolerances, Accuracies, and Other Characteristics,” (only the measured quantities specified in section 1.2 of this appendix) as referenced in sections 1.2 and 1.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.3 ASTM F2143-16
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3, “Terminology,” as referenced in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 6.1, “Analytical Balance Scale,” as referenced in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6.2, “Pans,” as referenced in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7, “Reagents and Materials,” as referenced in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 9, “Preparation of Apparatus” (section 9.6 only), as referenced in sections 1.1 and 1.4.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(f) Section 10.1, “General” (section 10.1.1 only), as referenced in sections 1.1 and 1.5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(g) Section 10.2, “Pan Thermocouple Placement,” as referenced in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(h) Section 10.5, “Test” (sections 10.5.5 and 10.5.6 only), as referenced in sections 1.1 and 1.5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(i) Section 11.4, “Energy Consumption” (section 11.4.1 only), as referenced in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(j) Section 11.5, “Production Capacity,” as referenced in sections 1.1 and 2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>1. Test Procedure
</HD2>
<P>1.1. Determination of Daily Energy Consumption. Determine the daily energy consumption of each buffet table or preparation table with a self-contained condensing unit by conducting the test procedure set forth in ASTM F2143-16 section 3, “Terminology,” section 6.1, “Analytical Balance Scale,” section 6.2, “Pans,” section 7, “Reagents and Materials,” section 9.6, “Preparation of Apparatus”, section 10.1, “General” (section 10.1.1 only), section 10.2, “Pan Thermocouple Placement,” section 10.5, “Test” (sections 10.5.5 and 10.5.6 only), section 11.4, “Energy Consumption” (section 11.4.1 only), and section 11.5, “Production Capacity,” with additional instructions as described in the following sections.
</P>
<P>1.2. Test Conditions. Ambient conditions and instrumentation for testing shall be as specified in the “Chamber conditions” and “Electricity supply and consumption of unit under test and components metered separately” portions of appendix A to ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata and measured according to section 6.1 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata and the specifications in appendix A of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata. The “highest point” of the buffet table or preparation table shall be determined as the highest point of the open-top refrigerated area of the buffet table or preparation table, without including the height of any lids or covers. The geometric center of the buffet table or preparation table is: for buffet tables or preparation tables without refrigerated compartments, the geometric center of the top surface of the open-top refrigerated area; and for buffet tables or preparation tables with refrigerated compartments, the geometric center of the door opening area for the refrigerated compartment.
</P>
<P>1.3. Test Setup. Install the buffet table or preparation table according to sections 5.1, 5.2, and 5.3 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata.
</P>
<P>1.4. Test Load.
</P>
<P>1.4.1. Pan Loading. Fill pans with distilled water to within 0.5 in. of the top edge of the pan. For pans that are not configured in a horizontal orientation, only the lowest side of the pan is filled to within 0.5 in. of the top edge of the pan with distilled water.
</P>
<P>1.4.2. Refrigerated Compartments. Measure the temperature of any refrigerated compartment(s) as specified in section 9.6 of ASTM F2143-16. The thermocouples for measuring compartment air temperature shall be in thermal contact with the center of a 1.6-oz (45-g) cylindrical brass slug with a diameter and height of 0.75 in. The brass slugs shall be placed at least 0.5 in from any heat-conducting surface.
</P>
<P>1.5. Stabilization and Test Period. Prepare the unit for testing and conduct two test periods to determine stability according to sections 7.1 through 7.5 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata, excluding sections 7.2.1, 7.2.2, 7.3.1, 7.3.2, 7.3.3, and 7.3.4. The preparation period under section 7.2 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata includes loading the test unit pans with distilled water and adjusting the controls to maintain the desired performance.
</P>
<P>1.5.1. Test Periods A and B. Conduct two test periods, A and B, as specified in section 7.3 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata (excluding sections 7.3.1, 7.3.2, 7.3.3, and 7.3.4). The 24-hour test periods shall begin with an 8-hour active period as specified in section 10.5.5 of ASTM F2143-16. Following the active period, the remaining 16 hours of the test period shall be a standby period with the pans remaining in place, any pan covers in the closed position, and with no additional door openings.
</P>
<P>1.5.2. Stability. Average pan temperatures shall be used to determine stability, as specified in section 7.5 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata, rather than average test simulator temperatures.
</P>
<P>1.5.3. Data Recording. For each test period, record data as specified in section 10.1.1 of ASTM F2143-16, except record wet-bulb temperature rather than relative humidity. Rather than voltage, current, and power as specified in section 10.1.1 of ASTM F2143-16, record the electrical supply potential and frequency and energy consumption as specified in appendix A of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata.
</P>
<P>1.6. Target Temperatures.
</P>
<P>1.6.1. Average Pan Temperature. The average of all pan temperature measurements during the test period shall be 38 °F ±2 °F. If the unit under test is not able to be operated at this average temperature range, test the unit at the lowest application product temperature (LAPT), as defined in § 431.62. For units equipped with a thermostat, LAPT is measured at the lowest thermostat setting of the unit (for units that are only able to operate at temperatures above the specified test temperature) or the highest thermostat setting of the unit (for units that are only able to operate at temperatures below the specified test temperature).
</P>
<P>1.6.2. Average Compartment Temperature. The average of all compartment temperature measurements during the test period shall be 38 °F ±2 °F. If the unit under test is not capable of maintaining both average pan temperature and average compartment temperature within the specified range, the average compartment temperature shall be the average temperature necessary to maintain average pan temperature within the specified range. If the unit is tested at the LAPT for the average pan temperature, as described in section 1.6.1 of this appendix, the average compartment temperature is the average of all compartment temperature measurements at that control setting.
</P>
<HD2>2. Capacity Metrics
</HD2>
<P>2.1. Pan Volume. Determine pan volume according to section 11.5 of ASTM F2143-16.
</P>
<P>2.2. Refrigerated Volume. Determine the volume of any refrigerated compartments according to section 3.2.17 and appendix C of AHRI 1200-2023. The refrigerated volume excludes the volume occupied by pans loaded in the open-top display area for testing.
</P>
<P>2.3. Pan Display Area. Determine the pan display area based on the total surface area of water in the test pans when filled to within 0.5 in. of the top edge of the pan, or for test pans that are not configured in a horizontal orientation, when the lowest side of the pan is filled to within 0.5 in. of the top edge of the pan with water.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 66227, Sept. 26, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.3.44.6.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart C of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Blast Chillers or Blast Freezers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>On or after September 20, 2024, any representations, including for certification of compliance, made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of blast chillers or blast freezers must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.63 the entire standard for AHRI 1200-2023, ASHRAE 72-2022, and ASHRAE 72-2022 Errata (the latter two collectively referenced as ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata). However, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable to this appendix as follows:
</P>
<P>0.1 AHRI 1200-2023
</P>
<P>(a) Appendix C, “Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandiser and Storage Cabinet Refrigerated Volume Calculation—Normative,” as referenced in section 1.1.1. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Reserved.
</P>
<P>0.2 ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata
</P>
<P>(a) Section 4, “Instruments,” as referenced in section 1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5, “Preparation of Unit Under Test” (except section 5.4, “Loading of Test Simulators and Filler Material”), as referenced in section 1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6.1, “Ambient Temperature and Humidity,” as referenced in sections 1.2 and 1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Figure 6, “Location of Ambient Temperature Indicators,” as referenced in sections 1.2 and 1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Normative Appendix A, “Measurement Locations, Tolerances, Accuracies, and Other Characteristics,” (only the measured quantities specified in section 1.2.1 of this appendix) as referenced in sections 1.2 and 1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>1. Test Procedures
</HD2>
<P>1.1. Scope. This section provides the test procedures for measuring the energy consumption in kilowatt-hours per pound (kWh/lb) for self-contained commercial blast chillers and blast freezers that have a refrigerated volume of up to 500 ft
<SU>3</SU>.
</P>
<P>1.1.1. Determination of Refrigerated Volume. Determine the refrigerated volume of a self-contained commercial blast chiller or blast freezer using the method set forth in AHRI 1200-2023, appendix C, “Commercial Refrigerated Display Merchandiser and Storage Cabinet Refrigerated Volume Calculation—Normative.”
</P>
<P>1.2. Determination of Energy Consumption. Determine the energy consumption of each covered blast chiller or blast freezer by conducting the test procedure set forth in ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata section 4, “Instruments,” section 5, “Preparation of Unit Under Test” (except section 5.4, “Loading of Test Simulators and Filler Material”), section 6.1, “Ambient Temperature and Humidity,” Figure 6, “Location of Ambient Temperature Indicators,” and normative appendix A, “Measurement Locations, Tolerances, Accuracies, and Other Characteristics” (only the measured quantities specified in section 1.2.1 of this appendix), as well as the requirements of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1.2.1. Measured Quantities in Normative Appendix A of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata. The following measured quantities shall be in accordance with the specifications of normative appendix A of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata: dry bulb temperature (except for deviations specified in sections 1.3 and 1.4 of this appendix), electrical supply frequency, electrical supply potential, energy consumed (except for deviations specified in section 1.3 of this appendix), extent of non-perforated surface beyond edges of unit under test, front clearance, rear or side clearance, and time measurements.
</P>
<P>1.2.2. Additional Specifications for ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata. The term “refrigerator” used in ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata shall instead refer to “blast chiller” or “blast freezer,” as applicable. In section 5.3 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata, the phrase “all necessary components and accessories shall be installed prior to loading the storage and display areas with test simulators and filler material” shall be replaced with “all necessary components and accessories shall be installed prior to precooling the unit under test.” Section 5.3.5 shall also require that, prior to precooling the unit under test, the condensate pan shall be dry.
</P>
<P>1.3. Data Recording Measurement Intervals. Measurements shall be continuously recorded during the test in intervals no greater than 10 seconds.
</P>
<P>1.4. Test Conditions. The required test conditions shall have dry bulb temperature values according to Table D.1 when measured at point A in figure 6 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata and according to section 6.1 of ASHRAE 72-2022 with Errata.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D.1—Test Condition Values and Tolerances
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test condition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tolerance
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dry Bulb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Average over test period: ±1.8 °F.


<br/>Individual measurements: ±3.6 °F.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>1.5. Product Pan. The product pan shall be a 12 in. by 20 in. by 2.5 in., 22 gauge or heavier, and 300 series stainless steel pan. If the blast chiller or blast freezer is not capable of holding the 12 in. by 20 in. by 2.5 in. product pan dimensions, the manufacturer's recommended pan size shall be used, conforming as closely as possible to the 12 in. by 20 in. by 2.5 in. pan dimensions.
</P>
<P>1.6. Product Temperature Measurement. The product temperature shall be measured in the geometric center of the measured product pans using an unweighted thermocouple placed 
<FR>5/8</FR> of an in. above the bottom of the measured product pan. The thermocouple leads shall be secured to the bottom of the measured product pan while also allowing for the transfer of the measured product pan from the heating source into the blast chiller's or blast freezer's cabinet.
</P>
<P>1.7. Product Preparation. The product shall be made for each product pan and shall be loaded to 2 in. of product thickness (<I>i.e.,</I> depth) within the product pan unless an additional product pan with a product thickness of less than 2 in. is needed to meet the product capacity determined in section 2.1 of this appendix. A 20-percent-by-volume propylene glycol (1,2-Propanediol) mixture in water shall be prepared. In each product pan, pour the propylene glycol mixture over #20 mesh southern yellow pine sawdust to create a 22 percent to 78 percent by mass slurry. An example of an acceptable sawdust specification is the American Wood Fibers brand, #20 Mesh Pine Sawdust. Mix until the sawdust becomes completely saturated and leave uncovered in the product pan. Verify that the product pan thermocouple is fully submerged in the product mixture and reposition the product pan thermocouple to the requirements of section 1.6. of this appendix if the product pan thermocouple is incorrectly positioned after mixing. Each product pan shall be weighed before and after the food product simulator is added and prior to heating the product. The weight of the product shall not include the weight of the pans, thermocouples, or wires. A cumulative total of the product weight shall be calculated and the product pans shall continue to be loaded with the product mixture until the cumulative total reaches, but not exceeds, the product capacity determined in section 2.1 of this appendix with a tolerance of ±5 percent or ±2 pounds, whichever is less. The cumulative total weight of product, the weight of product in each individual pan, and the number of pans shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>1.8. Product Pan Heating. Measured product pans shall be maintained at an average temperature of 160.0 °F ±1.8 °F and individual pan temperatures shall be maintained at 160 °F ±10 °F for a minimum of 8 hours prior to being loaded into the blast chiller or blast freezer. Non-measured product pans shall also be heated for a minimum of 8 hours prior to being loaded into the blast chiller or blast freezer and the non-measured product pans shall be placed in alternating positions with the measured product pans in the heating device. Data acquisition for the temperature of the measured product pans and time measurements shall begin to be recorded prior to the minimum of 8 hours heating period.
</P>
<P>1.9. Product Pan Distribution. The product pans shall be spaced evenly throughout each vertical column of rack positions in the blast chiller or blast freezer without the product pans touching any other product pans and without the product pans touching the top and the bottom of the blast chiller or blast freezer cabinet. For blast chillers or blast freezers that have an additional product pan with a product thickness of less than 2 in., the additional product pan shall be placed as close to the middle rack position as possible while maintaining an even distribution of all product pans. If not all rack positions are occupied by product pans, the product pan locations shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>1.10. Measured Product Pans. If multiple product pans are required per level of the blast chiller or blast freezer (<I>i.e.,</I> product pans can be loaded side-by-side at the same level), only the product temperature of one product pan per level shall be measured and the product pans measured should alternate vertical columns of the blast chiller or blast freezer cabinet so that each vertical column does not have two measured product pans on sequential levels. If a blast chiller or blast freezer requires an additional product pan with a thickness less than 2 in., the additional product pan shall not be measured for product temperature.
</P>
<P>1.11. Stabilization. The blast chiller or blast freezer shall stabilize at the test conditions specified in section 1.4 of this appendix for at least 24 hours without operating.
</P>
<P>1.12. Pre-cool Cycle. Data acquisition for the test condition temperatures specified in section 1.4 of this appendix and time measurements shall begin to be recorded prior to the pre-cool cycle. The pre-cool cycle shall be initiated on a blast chiller or blast freezer once the stabilization specified in section 1.11 of this appendix is complete. The fastest pre-cool cycle shall be selected. The pre-cool cycle shall be complete when the blast chiller or blast freezer notifies the user that the pre-cool is complete. If the blast chiller or blast freezer does not notify the user that the pre-cool cycle is complete, the pre-cool cycle shall be deemed complete when the blast chiller or blast freezer reaches 40 °F or 2 °F based on the blast chiller's or blast freezer's sensing probe for blast chillers and blast freezers, respectively. For blast chillers or blast freezers without any defined pre-cool cycles, the fastest blast chilling or blast freezing cycle shall be run with an empty cabinet until the blast chiller or blast freezer reaches 40 °F or 2 °F based on the blast chiller's or blast freezer's sensing probe. During the pre-cool cycle, the blast chiller's or blast freezer's sensing probe shall remain in its default or holstered position. The pre-cool test data to be recorded are the test condition temperatures specified in section 1.4 of this appendix, pre-cool cycle selected, pre-cool duration, and final pre-cool cabinet temperature based on the blast chiller's or blast freezer's sensing probe.
</P>
<P>1.13. Loading. The blast chiller or blast freezer door shall be fully open to an angle of not less than 75 °F for loading at 4.0 ±1.0 minutes after the blast chiller or blast freezer completes the pre-cool cycle as specified in section 1.12 of this appendix. The door shall remain open to load all of the product pans for the entirety of the loading procedure. The door shall remain open for 20 seconds per roll-in rack and 15 seconds per product pan for roll-in and standard blast chillers or blast freezers, respectively. The total door open period shall have a tolerance of ±5 seconds. The blast chiller's or blast freezer's sensing probe shall be inserted into the geometric center of a product pan approximately 1 in. deep in the product mixture at the median pan level in the blast chiller or blast freezer. If the product pan at the median level is the additional product pan with less than 2 in. of product thickness, the closest product pan or product pan level that is farthest away from the evaporator fan shall be used to insert the blast chiller's or blast freezer's sensing probe. If the median pan level has capacity for multiple product pans, the probed product pan shall be the furthest away from the evaporator. The sensing probe shall not touch the bottom of the product pan or be exposed to the air. The location of the product pan with the sensing probe shall be recorded. The sensing probe shall be placed so that there is no interference with the product pan thermocouple. The product pan thermocouple wiring shall not affect the energy performance of the blast chiller or blast freezer. The door shall remain closed for the remainder of the test.
</P>
<P>1.14. Blast Chilling or Blast Freezing Cycle. Determine the blast chilling or blast freezing cycle that will conduct the most rapid product temperature pulldown that is designed for the densest food product, as stated in the blast chiller's or blast freezer's manufacturer literature. A blast chilling cycle shall have a target temperature of 38.0 °F and a blast freezing cycle shall have a target temperature of 0.0 °F. The test condition temperatures specified in section 1.4 of this appendix and the time measurements shall continue to be recorded from the pre-cool cycle. Measured product pan temperatures shall continue to be recorded from the minimum of 8-hour period of heating prior to the loading of the product pans into the blast chiller or blast freezer. Electrical supply frequency, electrical supply potential, and energy consumed shall start to be recorded as soon as the blast chiller or blast freezer door is opened to load the product pans. Once the blast chiller or blast freezer door is closed, the blast chilling cycle or blast freezing cycle shall be selected and initiated as soon as is practicable. The blast chilling cycle or blast freezing cycle selected shall be recorded. The blast chilling or blast freezing test period shall continue from the door opening until all individual measured pan temperatures are at or below 40.0 °F or 2.0 °F for blast chiller and blast freezer tests, respectively, regardless of whether the selected cycle program has terminated. If all individual measured pan temperatures do not reach 40.0 °F or 2.0 °F for blast chiller and blast freezer tests, respectively, two hours after the selected cycle program has terminated, the test shall be repeated with the target temperature lowered by 1.0 °F until all individual measured pan temperatures are at or below 40.0 °F or 2.0 °F for blast chiller and blast freezer tests, respectively, at the conclusion of the test. The duration of the blast chiller or blast freezer test shall be recorded.
</P>
<P>1.15. Calculations. The measured energy consumption determined in section 1.14 of this appendix shall be reported in kilowatt-hours and shall be divided by the cumulative total weight of product determined in section 1.7 of this appendix in pounds.
</P>
<HD3>2. Capacity Metric
</HD3>
<P>2.1. Product Capacity. Determine the product capacity by reviewing all manufacturer literature that is included with the blast chiller or blast freezer. The largest product capacity by weight that is stated in the manufacturer literature shall be the product capacity. If the blast chiller or blast freezer is able to operate as both a blast chiller and a blast freezer when set to different operating modes by the user and the manufacturer literature specifies different product capacities for blast chilling and blast freezing, the largest capacity by weight stated for the respective operating mode shall be the product capacity. If no product capacity is stated in the manufacturer literature, the product capacity shall be the product capacity that fills the maximum number of 12 in. by 20 in. by 2.5 in. pans that can be loaded into the blast chiller or blast freezer according to section 1.7 of this appendix. If the blast chiller or blast freezer with no product capacity stated in the manufacturer literature is not capable of meeting the definition of a blast chiller or blast freezer according to § 431.62 upon testing according to section 1 of this appendix, one 12 in. by 20 in. by 2.5 in. pan shall be removed from the blast chiller or blast freezer until the definition of a blast chiller or blast freezer is met according to § 431.62 when testing according to section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 66229, Sept. 26, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Commercial Warm Air Furnaces</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 61939, Oct. 21, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.71" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.44.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.71   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for commercial warm air furnaces, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61939, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 60415, Oct. 18, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.72" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.44.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.72   Definitions concerning commercial warm air furnaces.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this subpart D, and of subparts J through M of this part. Any words or terms not defined in this Section or elsewhere in this part shall be defined as provided in Section 340 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all commercial warm air furnaces manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, that have the same nominal input rating and the same primary energy source (e.g. gas or oil) and that do not have any differing physical or functional characteristics that affect energy efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial warm air furnace</I> means a warm air furnace that is industrial equipment, and that has a capacity (rated maximum input) of 225,000 Btu per hour or more.
</P>
<P><I>Thermal efficiency</I> for a commercial warm air furnace equals 100 percent minus percent flue loss determined using test procedures prescribed under § 431.76.


</P>
<P><I>Thermal efficiency two</I> for a commercial warm air furnace equals 100 percent minus percent flue loss and jacket loss.


</P>
<P><I>Warm air furnace</I> means a self-contained oil-fired or gas-fired furnace designed to supply heated air through ducts to spaces that require it and includes combination warm air furnace/electric air conditioning units but does not include unit heaters and duct furnaces.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61939, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 12503, Mar. 7, 2011; 78 FR 79598, Dec. 31, 2013; 88 FR 36233, June 2, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="44" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.44" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.75" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.44.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.75   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, EE-5B, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHRI.</I> Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute, 2311 Wilson Blvd., Suite 400, Arlington, VA 22201, (703) 524-8800, or online at: <I>www.ahrinet.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AHRI 1500-2015 (“AHRI 1500-2015”), <I>Performance Rating of Commercial Space Heating Boilers,</I> ANSI-approved November 28, 2014; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ANSI.</I> American National Standards Institute. 25 W 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036. (212) 642-4900 or online at: <I>www.ansi.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) CSA/ANSI Z21.47:21, (“ANSI Z21.47-2021”), <I>Gas-fired central furnaces,</I> ANSI-approved April 21, 2021; IBR approved for appendices A and B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASHRAE.</I> American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers Inc., 180 Technology Parkway NW, Peachtree Corners, Georgia 30092, (404) 636-8400, or online at: <I>www.ashrae.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE 103-2022 (“ASHRAE 103-2022”), <I>Method of Testing for Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency of Residential Central Furnaces and Boilers,</I> approved January 10, 2022; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>ASME.</I> American Society of Mechanical Engineers, Service Center, 22 Law Drive, P.O. Box 2900, Fairfield, NJ 07007, (973) 882-1170, or online at: <I>www.asme.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASME PTC 19.3-1974 (R2004), <I>Supplement to ASME Performance Test Codes: Part 3: Temperature Measurement, Instruments and Apparatus,</I> reaffirmed 2004; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ASTM.</I> ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428, (877) 909-2786, or online at: <I>www.astm.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM D240-09, <I>Standard Test Method for Heat of Combustion of Liquid Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter,</I> approved July 1, 2009; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM D396-14a, <I>Standard Specification for Fuel Oils,</I> approved October 1, 2014; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) ASTM D4809-09a, <I>Standard Test Method for Heat of Combustion of Liquid Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter (Precision Method);</I> approved September 1, 2009; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) ASTM D5291-10, <I>Standard Test Methods for Instrumental Determination of Carbon, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen in Petroleum Products and Lubricants,</I> approved May 1, 2010; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) ASTM E230/E230M-17 (“ASTM E230/E230M-17”), <I>Standard Specification for Temperature-Electromotive Force (emf) Tables for Standardized Thermocouples,</I> approved November 1, 2017; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>NFPA.</I> National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169-7471, 1-800-344-3555, or online at: <I>www.nfpa.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFPA 97 (“NFPA 97-2003”), <I>Standard Glossary of Terms Relating to Chimneys, Vents, and Heat-Producing Appliances;</I> copyright 2023; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(h) <I>UL.</I> Underwriters Laboratories, Inc., 333 Pfingsten Road, Northbrook, IL 60062, (847) 272-8800, or online at: <I>www.ul.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) UL 727 (“UL 727-2018”), <I>Standard for Safety Oil-Fired Central Furnaces,</I> Tenth Edition, published January 31, 2018; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 36234, June 2, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.76" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.44.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.76   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy efficiency of commercial warm air furnaces.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section prescribes the test requirements used to measure the energy efficiency of commercial warm air furnaces with a rated maximum input of 225,000 Btu per hour or more.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations</I>—(1) <I>Thermal efficiency.</I> Test in accordance with appendix A to subpart D of this part when making representations of thermal efficiency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Thermal efficiency two.</I> Test in accordance with appendix B to subpart D of this part when making representations of thermal efficiency two.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 36234, June 2, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="45" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.45" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.77" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.77   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Gas-fired commercial warm air furnaces.</I> Each gas-fired commercial warm air furnace must meet the following energy efficiency standard levels:
</P>
<P>(1) For gas-fired commercial warm air furnaces manufactured starting on January 1, 1994, until January 1, 2023, the TE at the maximum rated capacity (rated maximum input) must be not less than 80 percent; and
</P>
<P>(2) For gas-fired commercial warm air furnaces manufactured starting on January 1, 2023, the TE at the maximum rated capacity (rated maximum input) must be not less than 81 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oil-fired commercial warm air furnaces.</I> Each oil-fired commercial warm air furnace must meet the following energy efficiency standard levels:
</P>
<P>(1) For oil-fired commercial warm air furnaces manufactured starting on January 1, 1994, until January 1, 2023, the TE at the maximum rated capacity (rated maximum input) must be not less than 81 percent; and
</P>
<P>(2) For oil-fired commercial warm air furnaces manufactured starting on January 1, 2023, the TE at the maximum rated capacity (rated maximum input) must be not less than 82 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 2528, Jan. 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.46.6.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart D of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measurement of the Energy Efficiency of Commercial Warm Air Furnaces (Thermal Efficiency)


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>On and after May 28, 2024, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of commercial warm air furnaces must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this section. At that time, manufacturers must use the relevant procedures specified in this appendix, which reference ANSI Z21.47-2021, ASHRAE 103-2022, UL 727-2018, or AHRI 1500-2015. On and after July 3, 2023 and prior to May 28, 2024, manufacturers must test commercial warm air furnaces in accordance with this appendix or 10 CFR 431.76 as it appeared on January 1, 2023. DOE notes that, because testing under this section is required as of May 28, 2024, manufacturers may wish to begin using this amended test procedure as soon as possible. Any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of such commercial warm air furnaces must be made in accordance with whichever version is selected.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix B to this subpart to determine compliance with any standards for commercial warm air furnaces that use the thermal efficiency 2 (TE2) metric.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>0. Incorporation by reference.</I>
</P>
<P>In § 431.75, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AHRI 1500-2015, ANSI Z21.47-2021, ASHRAE 103-2022, ASME PTC 19.3-1974 (R2004), ASTM D240-09, ASTM D396-14a, ASTM D4809-09a, ASTM D5291-10, ASTM E230/E230M-17, NFPA 97-2003, and UL 727-2018. However, for standards AHRI 1500-2015, ANSI Z21.47-2021, ASHRAE 103-2022, and UL 727-2018, only the enumerated provisions of those documents apply to this appendix, as follows:
</P>
<P>0.1 ANSI Z21.47-2021
</P>
<P>(a) Sections 5.1, 5.1.4, 5.2, 5.3, 5.4, 5.5, 5.5.1, 5.6, and 7.2.1 as specified in section 1.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.40 as specified in sections 1.1 and 3.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5.2.8 as specified in section 4.1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Annex I as specified in section 3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.2 ASHRAE 103-2022
</P>
<P>(a) Sections 7.2.2.4, 7.8, and 9.2 as specified in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 11.3.7.1 and 11.3.7.2 as specified in section 4.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.3 UL 727-2018
</P>
<P>(a) Sections 2, 3, 37, 38 and 39, 40, 40.6, 41, 42, 43.2, 44, 45, and 46 as specified in section 1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Figure 40.3 as specified in section 2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.4 AHRI 1500-2015
</P>
<P>(a) Section C3.2.1.1 as specified in section 1.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Sections C7.2.4, C7.2.5, and C7.2.6.2 as specified in section 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>1. Test setup and Testing.</I> Where this section prescribes use of ANSI Z21.47-2021 or UL 727-2018, perform only the procedures pertinent to the measurement of the steady-state efficiency, as specified in this section.
</P>
<P>1.1 <I>Gas-fired commercial warm air furnaces.</I> The test setup, including flue requirement, instrumentation, test conditions, and measurements for determining thermal efficiency are as specified in section 1.3 of this appendix, and the following sections of ANSI Z21.47-2021: 5.1 (General, including ASME PTC 19.3-1974 (R2004) as referenced in Section 5.1.4), 5.2 (Basic test arrangements), 5.3 (Test ducts and plenums), 5.4 (Test gases), 5.5 (Test pressures and burner adjustments), 5.6 (Static pressure and air flow adjustments), 5.40 (Thermal efficiency), and 7.2.1 (Basic test arrangements for direct vent central furnaces). If section 1.3 of this appendix and ANSI Z21.47-2021 have conflicting provisions (<I>e.g.,</I> the number of thermocouples that should be used when testing units with flue outlets that have a cross-sectional area of 3.14 square inches or less), follow the provisions in section 1.3 of this appendix. The thermal efficiency test must be conducted only at the normal inlet test pressure, as specified in section 5.5.1 of ANSI Z21.47-2021, and at the maximum hourly Btu input rating specified by the manufacturer for the product being tested.
</P>
<P>1.2 <I>Oil-fired commercial warm air furnaces.</I> The test setup, including flue requirement, instrumentation, test conditions, and measurement for measuring thermal efficiency is as specified in section 1.3 of this appendix and the following sections of UL 727-2018: 2 (Units of Measurement), 3 (Glossary, except that the definitions for “combustible” and “non-combustible” in sections 3.11 and 3.27 shall be as referenced in NFPA 97-2003), 37 (General), 38 and 39 (Test Installation), 40 (Instrumentation, except 40.4 and 40.6.2 through 40.6.7 which are not required for the thermal efficiency test, and including ASTM E230/E230M-17 as referenced in Sections 40.6), 41 (Initial Test Conditions), 42 (Combustion Test—Burner and Furnace), 43.2 (Operation Tests), 44 (Limit Control Cutout Test), 45 (Continuity of Operation Test), and 46 (Air Flow, Downflow or Horizontal Furnace Test). If section 1.3 of this appendix and UL 727-2018 have conflicting provisions (<I>e.g.,</I> the number of thermocouples that should be used when testing units with flue outlets that have a cross-sectional area of 3.14 inches or less), follow the provisions in section 1.3 of this appendix. Conduct a fuel oil analysis for heating value, hydrogen content, carbon content, pounds per gallon, and American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity as specified in section C3.2.1.1 of AHRI 1500-2015, including the applicable provisions of ASTM D240-09, ASTM D4809-09a, ASTM D5291-10, and ASTM D396-14a, as referenced. The steady-state combustion conditions, specified in section 42.1 of UL 727-2018, are attained when variations of not more than 5 °F in the measured flue gas temperature occur for three consecutive readings taken 15 minutes apart.
</P>
<P>1.3 <I>Additional test setup requirements for gas-fired and oil-fired commercial warm air furnaces</I>
</P>
<P>1.3.1 <I>Thermocouple setup for gas-fired and oil-fired commercial warm air furnaces with flue outlets that have a cross-sectional area of 3.14 square inches or less.</I> For units with flue outlets having a cross-sectional area of 3.14 square inches or less, the flue gas temperatures may optionally be measured using five individual thermocouples, instead of nine thermocouples.
</P>
<P>1.3.2 <I>Procedure for flue gas measurements when testing units with multiple flue outlets.</I> For units that have multiple flue outlets, record flue gas measurements (<I>e.g.,</I> flue gas temperature, CO<E T="52">2</E> in the flue gasses) separately for each individual flue outlet and calculate a weighted-average value based on the readings of all flue outlets. To determine the weighted average for each measurement, first determine the input rating of the furnace module associated with each flue outlet. Then multiply the ratio of the input rating for the furnace module associated with each individual flue outlet to the total nameplate input rating of the furnace (<I>i.e.,</I> the input rating associated with each individual flue outlet divided by the total nameplate input rating) by that flue outlet's respective component measurement and the sum of all of the products of the calculations for all of the flue outlets to determine the weighted-average values. Use the weighted-average values to determine flue loss, and whether equilibrium conditions are met before the official test period.
</P>
<P><I>2. Additional test measurements</I>
</P>
<P>2.1 <I>Determination of flue CO</I><E T="52">2</E><I> (carbon dioxide) or O</I><E T="52">2</E><I> (oxygen) for oil-fired commercial warm air furnaces.</I> In addition to the flue temperature measurement specified in section 40.6.8 of UL 727-2018, locate one or two sampling tubes within six inches downstream from the flue temperature probe (as indicated on Figure 40.3 of UL 727-2018). If an open end tube is used, it must project into the flue one-third of the chimney connector diameter. If other methods of sampling the flue gas are used, place the sampling tube so as to obtain an average sample. There must be no air leak between the temperature probe and the sampling tube location. Collect the flue gas sample at the same time the flue gas temperature is recorded. The CO<E T="52">2</E> or O<E T="52">2</E> concentration of the flue gas must be as specified by the manufacturer for the product being tested, with a tolerance of ±0.1 percent. Determine the flue CO<E T="52">2</E> or O<E T="52">2</E> using an instrument with a reading error no greater than ±0.1 percent.
</P>
<P>2.2 <I>Procedure for the measurement of condensate for a gas-fired condensing commercial warm air furnace.</I> The test procedure for the measurement of the condensate from the flue gas under steady-state operation must be conducted as specified in sections 7.2.2.4, 7.8, and 9.2 of ASHRAE 103-2022 under the maximum rated input conditions. This condensate measurement must be conducted for an additional 30 minutes of steady-state operation after completion of the steady-state thermal efficiency test specified in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>3. Calculation of thermal efficiency</I>
</P>
<P>3.1 <I>Gas-fired commercial warm air furnaces.</I> Use the calculation procedure specified in Section 5.40, Thermal efficiency, of ANSI Z21.47-2021. When determining the flue loss that is used in the calculation of thermal efficiency, the calculation method specified in Annex I of ANSI Z21.47-2021 shall be used.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Oil-fired commercial warm air furnaces.</I> Calculate the percent flue loss (in percent of heat input rate) by following the procedure specified in sections C7.2.4, C7.2.5, and C7.2.6.2 of the AHRI 1500-2015. The thermal efficiency must be calculated as: Thermal Efficiency (percent) = 100 percent − flue loss (in percent).
</P>
<P><I>4. Procedure for the calculation of the additional heat gain and heat loss, and adjustment to the thermal efficiency, for a condensing commercial warm air furnace.</I>
</P>
<P>4.1 Calculate the latent heat gain from the condensation of the water vapor in the flue gas, and calculate heat loss due to the flue condensate down the drain, as specified in sections 11.3.7.1 and 11.3.7.2 of ASHRAE 103-2022, with the exception that in the equation for the heat loss due to hot condensate flowing down the drain in section 11.3.7.2, the assumed indoor temperature of 70 °F and the temperature term T<E T="52">OA</E> must be replaced by the measured room temperature as specified in section 5.2.8 of ANSI Z21.47.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Adjustment to the thermal efficiency for condensing commercial warm air furnaces.</I> Adjust the thermal efficiency as calculated in section 3.1 of this appendix by adding the latent gain, expressed in percent, from the condensation of the water vapor in the flue gas, and subtracting the heat loss (due to the flue condensate down the drain), also expressed in percent, both as calculated in section 4.1 of this appendix, to obtain the thermal efficiency of a condensing furnace.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 36234, June 2, 2203]














</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.4.46.6.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart D of Part 431-Uniform Test Method for Measurement of the Energy Efficiency of Commercial Warm Air Furnaces (Thermal Efficiency Two)


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix B to determine compliance with any standards for commercial warm air furnaces that use the thermal efficiency 2 (TE2) metric. In addition, manufacturers may optionally make representations of energy use or efficiency of this equipment using TE2 as determined using this appendix starting on July 3, 2023.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>0. Incorporation by Reference.</I>
</P>
<P>In § 431.75, DOE incorporates by reference the entire standard ANSI Z21.47-2021. However, only section 5.40 and Appendix J of ANSI Z21.47-2021 apply, as specified in sections 1.2 and 1.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1. Testing
</P>
<P>1.1 Set up and test the unit according to sections 0 through 4 of appendix A to this subpart, while operating the unit at the maximum nameplate input rate (<I>i.e.,</I> full load). Calculate thermal efficiency (TE) using the procedure specified in sections 3 and 4 of appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>1.2 For commercial warm air furnaces that are designed for outdoor installation (including but not limited to CWAFs that are weatherized, or approved for resistance to wind, rain, or snow), or indoor installation within an unheated space (<I>i.e.,</I> isolated combustion systems), determine the jacket loss using Section 5.40 and Annex J of ANSI Z21.47-2021 while the unit is operating at the maximum nameplate input. The jacket shall consist of the surfaces surrounding the heating section of the furnace. The jacket includes all surfaces separating the heating section from the supply air, outside air, or condenser section, including the bottom surface separating the heating section from the basepan.
</P>
<P>1.3 For commercial warm air furnaces that are designed only for indoor installation within a heated space, jacket loss shall be zero. For commercial warm air furnaces that are designed for indoor installation within a heated or unheated space, multiply the jacket loss determined in section 1.2 of this appendix by 1.7. For all other commercial warm air furnaces, including commercial warm air furnaces that are designed for outdoor installation (including but not limited to CWAFs that are weatherized, or approved for resistance to wind, rain, or snow), multiply the jacket loss determined in section 1.2 of this appendix by 3.3.
</P>
<P>1.4 Subtract the jacket loss determined in section 1.3 of this appendix from the TE determined in section 1.1 of this appendix to determine the full-load efficiency.
</P>
<P>1.5 Set up and test the unit according to sections 0 through 4 of appendix A to this subpart, while operating the unit at the nameplate minimum input rate (<I>i.e.,</I> part load). Calculate TE using the procedure specified in sections 3 and 4 of appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>1.6 For commercial warm air furnaces that are designed for outdoor installation (including but not limited to CWAFs that are weatherized, or approved for resistance to wind, rain, or snow), or indoor installation within an unheated space (<I>i.e.,</I> isolated combustion systems), determine the jacket loss using Section 5.40 and Annex J of ANSI Z21.47-2021 while the unit is operating at the minimum nameplate input. Alternatively, the jacket loss determined in section 1.2 of this appendix at the maximum nameplate input may be used.
</P>
<P>1.7 For commercial warm air furnaces that are designed only for indoor installation within a heated space, jacket loss shall be zero. For commercial warm air furnaces that are designed for indoor installation within a heated or unheated space, multiply the jacket loss determined in section 1.6 of this appendix by 1.7. For all other commercial warm air furnaces, including commercial warm air furnaces that are designed for outdoor installation (including but not limited to CWAFs that are weatherized, or approved for resistance to wind, rain, or snow), multiply the jacket loss determined in section 1.6 of this appendix by 3.3.
</P>
<P>1.8 Subtract the jacket loss determined in section 1.7 of this appendix from the TE determined in section 1.5 of this appendix to determine the part-load efficiency.
</P>
<P>1.9 Calculate TE2 by taking the average of the full-load and part-load efficiencies as determined in sections 1.4 and 1.8 of this appendix, respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 36235, June 2, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Commercial Packaged Boilers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 61960, Oct. 21, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.81" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.81   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for certain commercial packaged boilers, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act. (42 U.S.C. 6311-6317) 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61960, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 60415, Oct. 18, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.82" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.82   Definitions concerning commercial packaged boilers.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this subpart E, and of subparts A and J through M of this part. Any words or terms not defined in this section or elsewhere in this part shall be defined as provided in 42 U.S.C. 6311.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all commercial packaged boilers manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class having the same primary energy source (e.g., gas or oil) and that have essentially identical electrical, physical and functional characteristics that affect energy efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Btu/h</I> or <I>Btu/hr</I> means British thermal units per hour.
</P>
<P><I>Combustion efficiency</I> for a commercial packaged boiler is a measurement of how much of the fuel input energy is converted to useful heat in combustion and is calculated as 100-percent minus percent losses due to dry flue gas, incomplete combustion, and moisture formed by combustion of hydrogen, as determined with the test procedures prescribed under § 431.86 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial packaged boiler</I> means a packaged boiler that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Has rated input of 300,000 Btu/h or greater;
</P>
<P>(2) Is, to any significant extent, distributed in commerce for space conditioning and/or service water heating in buildings but does not meet the definition of “hot water supply boiler” in this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Does not meet the definition of “field-constructed” in this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is designed to:
</P>
<P>(i) Operate at a steam pressure at or below 15 psig;
</P>
<P>(ii) Operate at or below a water pressure of 160 psig and water temperature of 250 °F; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Operate at the conditions specified in both paragraphs (4)(i) and (ii) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Condensing boiler</I> means a commercial packaged boiler that condenses part of the water vapor in the flue gases, and that includes a means of collecting and draining this condensate from its heat exchanger section.
</P>
<P><I>Field-constructed</I> means custom-designed equipment that requires welding of structural components in the field during installation. For the purposes of this definition, welding does not include attachment using mechanical fasteners or brazing; any jackets, shrouds, venting, burner, or burner mounting hardware are not structural components.
</P>
<P><I>Flue condensate</I> means liquid formed by the condensation of moisture in the flue gases.
</P>
<P><I>Fuel input rate</I> for a commercial packaged boiler means the measured rate at which the commercial packaged boiler uses energy and is determined using test procedures prescribed under § 431.86 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer of a commercial packaged boiler</I> means any person who manufactures, produces, assembles or imports such a boiler, including any person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufactures, produces, assembles or imports a commercial packaged boiler in its entirety;
</P>
<P>(2) Manufactures, produces, assembles or imports a commercial packaged boiler in part, and specifies or approves the boiler's components, including burners or other components produced by others, as for example by specifying such components in a catalogue by make and model number or parts number; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is any vendor or installer who sells a commercial packaged boiler that consists of a combination of components that is not specified or approved by a person described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Packaged boiler</I> means a boiler that is shipped complete with heating equipment, mechanical draft equipment, and automatic controls and is usually shipped in one or more sections. If the boiler is shipped in more than one section, the sections may be produced by more than one manufacturer, and may be originated or shipped at different times and from more than one location.
</P>
<P><I>Rated input</I> means the maximum rate at which the commercial packaged boiler has been rated to use energy as indicated by the nameplate and in the manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler.
</P>
<P><I>Thermal efficiency</I> for a commercial packaged boiler is determined using test procedures prescribed under § 431.86 and is the ratio of the heat absorbed by the water or the water and steam to the higher heating value in the fuel burned.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61960, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 74 FR 36354, July 22, 2009; 76 FR 12503, Mar. 7, 2011; 78 FR 79598, Dec. 31, 2013; 81 FR 89304, Dec. 9, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="46" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5.46" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.85" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.85   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> We incorporate by reference the following standards into subpart E of part 431. The material listed has been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Any subsequent amendment to a standard by the standard-setting organization will not affect the DOE regulations unless and until amended by DOE. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval and a notice of any change in the material will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> All approved material is available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030 or go to <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> Also, this material is available for inspection at U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 6th Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza, SW., Washington, DC 20024, 202-586-2945, or go to: <I>http://www1.eere.energy.gov/buildings/appliance_standards/.</I> Standards can be obtained from the sources listed below.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHRI.</I> Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute, 2111 Wilson Blvd., Suite 500, Arlington, VA 22201, (703) 524-8800, or go to: <I>http://www.ahrinet.org</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) AHRI Standard 1500-2015, (“ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015”), “2015 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial Space Heating Boilers,” ANSI approved November 28, 2014, IBR approved for appendix A to subpart E as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3—Definitions (excluding introductory text to section 3, introductory text to 3.2, 3.2.4, 3.2.7, 3.6, 3.12, 3.13, 3.20, 3.23, 3.24, 3.26, 3.27, and 3.31);
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 5—Rating Requirements, 5.3 Standard Rating Conditions: (excluding introductory text to section 5.3, 5.3.5, 5.3.8, and 5.3.9);
</P>
<P>(iii) Appendix C—Methods of Testing for Rating Commercial Space Heating Boilers—Normative, excluding C2.1, C2.7.2.2.2, C3.1.3, C3.5-C3.7, C4.1.1.1.2, C4.1.1.2.3, C4.1.2.1.5, C4.1.2.2.2, C4.1.2.2.3, C4.2, C5, C7.1, C7.2.12, C7.2.20;
</P>
<P>(iv) Appendix D. Properties of Saturated Steam—Normative.
</P>
<P>(v) Appendix E. Correction Factors for Heating Values of Fuel Gases—Normative.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved].
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 36354, July 22, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 89305, Dec. 9, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.86" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.86   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy efficiency of commercial packaged boilers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides test procedures, pursuant to the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA), as amended, which must be followed for measuring the combustion efficiency and/or thermal efficiency of a gas- or oil-fired commercial packaged boiler.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and Calculations.</I> Determine the thermal efficiency or combustion efficiency of commercial packaged boilers by conducting the appropriate test procedure(s) indicated in Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Test Requirements for Commercial Packaged Boiler Equipment Classes
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Certified rated input
<br/>Btu/h
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Standards efficiency metric
<br/>(§ 431.87)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test procedure
<br/>(corresponding to
<br/>standards efficiency
<br/>metric required
<br/>by § 431.87)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 and ≤2,500,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Combustion Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 and ≤2,500,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Combustion Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired (all*)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 and ≤2,500,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired (all*)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000 and ≤5,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;5,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 2.
<br/>OR
<br/>Appendix A, Section 3 with Section 2.4.3.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 and ≤2,500,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000 and ≤5,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;5,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Thermal Efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A, Section 2.
<br/>OR
<br/>Appendix A, Section 3. with Section 2.4.3.2.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Equipment classes for commercial packaged boilers as of July 22, 2009 (74 FR 36355) distinguish between gas-fired natural draft and all other gas-fired (except natural draft).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Field Tests.</I> The field test provisions of appendix A may be used only to test a unit of commercial packaged boiler with rated input greater than 5,000,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 89305, Dec. 9, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="47" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5.47" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Efficiency Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.87" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5.47.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.87   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each commercial packaged boiler listed in table 1 of this paragraph (a) and manufactured on or after the effective date listed must meet the indicated energy conservation standard.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(a)</E>—Commercial Packaged Boiler Energy Conservation Standards
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Certified rated input
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency level—effective date: March 2, 2012 *
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Water Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 Btu/h and ≤2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Water Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">82.0% E<E T="0732">C</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Water Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 Btu/h and ≤2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">82.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Water Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0% E<E T="0732">C</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired, all, except natural draft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 Btu/h and ≤2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">79.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired, all, except natural draft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">79.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired—natural draft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 Btu/h and ≤2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired—natural draft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 Btu/h and ≤2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">81.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oil-fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">81.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Where E<E T="0732">C</E> is combustion efficiency and E<E T="0732">T</E> is thermal efficiency.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Each commercial packaged boiler listed in table 2 of this paragraph (b) and manufactured on or after the effective date listed in Table 2 must meet the indicated energy conservation standard.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph <E T="01">(b)</E>—Commercial Packaged Boiler Energy Conservation Standards
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Certified rated input
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency level—effective date: March 2, 2022 *
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired—natural draft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300,000 Btu/h and ≤2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">79.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gas-fired—natural draft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;2,500,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">79.0% E<E T="0732">T</E>.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Where E<E T="0732">T</E> is thermal efficiency.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 64352, Sept. 19, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.5.48.6.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart E of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Thermal Efficiency and Combustion Efficiency of Commercial Packaged Boilers
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to December 4, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of commercial packaged boilers in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this Appendix or the test procedures as they appeared in 10 CFR 431.86 revised as of January 1, 2016. On and after December 4, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P>1.<I> Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this appendix, the Department of Energy incorporates by reference the definitions established in section 3 of the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) and Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute (AHRI) Standard 1500, “2015 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial Space Heating Boilers,” beginning with 3.1 and ending with 3.35 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85; hereafter “ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015”), excluding the introductory text to section 3, the introductory text to section 3.2, “Boiler”; 3.2.4, “Heating Boiler”; 3.2.7, “Packaged Boiler”; 3.6, “Combustion Efficiency”; 3.12, “Efficiency, Combustion”; 3.13, “Efficiency, Thermal”; 3.20, “Gross Output”; 3.23, “Input Rating”; 3.24, “Net Rating”; 3.26, “Published Rating”; 3.26.1, “Standard Rating”; 3.27, “Rating Conditions”; 3.27.1, “Standard Rating Conditions”; and 3.31, “Thermal Efficiency.” In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>1.1. In all incorporated sections of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, references to the manufacturer's “specifications,” “recommendations,” “directions,” or “requests” mean the manufacturer's instructions in the installation and operation manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler being tested or in supplemental instructions provided by the manufacturer pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4) of this chapter. For parameters or considerations not specified in this appendix, refer to the manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler. Should the manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler not provide the necessary information, refer to the supplemental instructions for the basic model pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4) of this chapter. The supplemental instructions provided pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4) of this chapter do not replace or alter any requirements in this appendix nor do they override the manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler. In cases where these supplemental instructions conflict with any instructions or provisions provided in the manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler, use the manual shipped with the commercial packaged boiler.
</P>
<P>1.2. Unless otherwise noted, in all incorporated sections of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, the term “boiler” means a commercial packaged boiler as defined in § 431.82.
</P>
<P>1.3. Unless otherwise noted, in all incorporated sections of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, the term “input rating” means “rated input” as defined in § 431.82.
</P>
<P>2.<I> Thermal Efficiency Test.</I>
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>1. <I>Test Setup.</I>
</P>
<P>2.1.1. <I>Instrumentation.</I> Use instrumentation meeting the minimum requirements found in Table C1 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85).
</P>
<P>2.1.2. <I>Data collection and sampling.</I> Record all test data in accordance with Table 2.1 and Table 2.2. Do not use Section C5 and Table C4 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2.1—Data To Be Recorded Before Testing
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional
<br/>instruction
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Date of Test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manufacturer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Packaged Boiler Model Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Burner Model Number &amp; Manufacturer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nozzle description and oil pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil Analysis—H, C, API Gravity, lb/gal and Btu/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Manifold Pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Record at start and end of test.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas line pressure at meter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measurement may be made manually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measurement may be made manually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric Pressure (Steam and Natural Gas Only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measurement may be made manually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Heating Value, Btu/ft 
<sup>3</sup>*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Record at start and end of test.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Multiplied by correction factors, as applicable, in accordance with Appendix E of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/er09de16.023.gif"/>
<P>2.1.3. <I>Instrument Calibration.</I> Instruments must be calibrated at least once per year and a calibration record, containing at least the date of calibration and the method of calibration, must be kept as part of the data underlying each basic model certification, pursuant to § 429.71 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>2.1.4. <I>Test Setup and Apparatus.</I> Set up the commercial packaged boiler for thermal efficiency testing according to the provisions of Section C2 (except section C2.1) of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85).
</P>
<P>2.1.4.1. For tests of oil-fired commercial packaged boilers, determine the weight of fuel consumed using one of the methods specified in the following sections 2.1.4.1.1. or 2.1.4.1.2. of this appendix:
</P>
<P>2.1.4.1.1. If using a scale, determine the weight of fuel consumed as the difference between the weight of the oil vessel before and after each measurement period, as specified in sections 2.1.4.1.3.1. or 2.1.4.1.3.2. of this appendix, determined using a scale meeting the accuracy requirements of Table C1 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>2.1.4.1.2. If using a flow meter, first determine the volume of fuel consumed as the total volume over the applicable measurement period as specified in 2.1.4.1.3.1. or 2.1.4.1.3.2. of this appendix and as measured by a flow meter meeting the accuracy requirements of Table C1 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 upstream of the oil inlet port of the commercial packaged boiler. Then determine the weight of fuel consumed by multiplying the total volume of fuel over the applicable measurement period by the density of oil as determined pursuant to C3.2.1.1.3. of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>2.1.4.1.3. The applicable measurement period for the purposes of determining fuel input rate must be as specified in section 2.1.4.1.3.1. of this appendix for the “Warm-Up Period” or section 2.1.4.1.3.2. of this appendix for the “Test Period.”
</P>
<P>2.1.4.1.3.1. For the purposes of confirming steady-state operation during the “Warm-Up Period,” the measurement period must be 15 minutes and t<E T="52">T</E> in Equation C2 in Section C7.2.3.1 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 must be 0.25 hours to determine fuel input rate.
</P>
<P>2.1.4.1.3.2. For the purposes of determining thermal efficiency during the “Test Period,” the measurement period and t<E T="52">T</E> are as specified in sections 2.3.4 and 2.3.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.1.4.2 For tests of gas-fired commercial packaged boilers, install a volumetric gas meter meeting the accuracy requirements of Table C1 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 upstream of the gas inlet port of the commercial packaged boiler. Record the accumulated gas volume consumed for each applicable measurement period. Use Equation C7.2.3.2. of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 to calculate fuel input rate.
</P>
<P>2.1.4.2.1. The applicable measurement period for the purposes of determining fuel input rate must be as specified in section 2.1.4.2.1.1. of this appendix for the “Warm-Up Period” and 2.1.4.2.1.2. of this appendix for the “Test Period.”
</P>
<P>2.1.4.2.1.1. For the purposes of confirming steady-state operation during the “Warm-Up Period,” the measurement period must be 15 minutes and t<E T="52">T</E> in Equation C2 in Section C7.2.3.1 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 must be 0.25 hours to determine fuel input rate.
</P>
<P>2.1.4.2.1.2. For the purposes of determining thermal efficiency during the “Test Period,” the measurement period and t<E T="52">T</E> are as specified in sections 2.3.4 and 2.3.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.1.4.3 In addition to the provisions of Section C2.2.1.2 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, vent gases may alternatively be discharged vertically into a straight stack section without elbows. R-7 minimum insulation must extend 6 stack diameters above the flue collar, the thermocouple grid must be located at a vertical distance of 3 stack diameters above the flue collar, and the sampling tubes for flue gases must be installed within 1 stack diameter beyond the thermocouple grid. If dilution air is introduced into the flue gases before the plane of the thermocouple and flue gas sampling points, utilize an alternate plane of thermocouple grid and flue gas sampling point located downstream from the heat exchanger and upstream from the point of dilution air introduction.
</P>
<P>2.1.5. <I>Additional Requirements for Outdoor Commercial Packaged Boilers.</I> If the manufacturer provides more than one outdoor venting arrangement, the outdoor commercial packaged boiler (as defined in Section 3.2.6 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015; incorporated by reference, see § 431.85) must be tested with the shortest total venting arrangement as measured by adding the straight lengths of venting supplied with the equipment. If the manufacturer does not provide an outdoor venting arrangement, install the outdoor commercial packaged boiler venting consistent with the procedure specified in Section C2.2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>2.1.6. <I>Additional Requirements for Steam Tests.</I> In addition to the provisions of Section C2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85), the following requirements apply for steam tests.
</P>
<P>2.1.6.1. Insulate all steam piping from the commercial packaged boiler to the steam separator, and extend insulation at least one foot (1 ft.) beyond the steam separator, using insulation meeting the requirements specified in Table 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09de16.024.gif"/>
<P>2.1.6.2. A temperature sensing device must be installed in the insulated steam piping prior to the water separator if the commercial packaged boiler produces superheated steam.
</P>
<P>2.1.6.3. Water entrained in the steam and water condensing within the steam piping must be collected and used to calculate the quality of steam during the “Test Period.” Steam condensate must be collected and measured using either a cumulative (totalizing) flow rate or by measuring the mass of the steam condensate. Instrumentation used to determine the amount of steam condensate must meet the requirements identified in Table C1 in Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>2.1.7. <I>Additional Requirements for Water Tests.</I> In addition to the provisions of section C2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85), the following requirements apply for water tests.
</P>
<P>2.1.7.1. Insulate all water piping between the commercial packaged boiler and the location of the temperature measuring equipment, including one foot (1 ft.) beyond the sensor, using insulation meeting the requirements specified in Table 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.1.7.2. Install a temperature measuring device at Point B of Figure C9 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85). Water entering the commercial packaged boiler must first enter the run of a tee and exit from the top outlet of the tee. The remaining connection of the tee must be plugged. Measure the inlet water temperature at Point B in the run of a second tee located 12 ± 2 pipe diameters downstream from the first tee and no more than the greater of 12 inches or 6 pipe diameters from the inlet of the commercial packaged boiler. The temperature measuring device shall extend into the water flow at the point of exit from the side outlet of the second tee. All inlet piping between the temperature measuring device and the inlet of the commercial packaged boilers must be wrapped with R-7 insulation.
</P>
<P>2.1.7.3. Do not use Section C2.7.2.2.2 or its subsections of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 for water meter calibration.
</P>
<P>2.1.8. <I>Flue Gas Sampling.</I> In section C2.5.2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, replace the last sentence with the following: When taking flue gas samples from a rectangular plane, collect samples at 
<FR>1/4</FR>, 
<FR>1/2</FR>, and 
<FR>3/4</FR> the distance from one side of the rectangular plane in the longer dimension and along the centerline midway between the edges of the plane in the shorter dimension and use the average of the three samples. The tolerance in each dimension for each measurement location is ± 1 inch.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Test Conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>2.2.1. <I>General.</I> Use the test conditions from Section 5 and Section C3 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85) for thermal efficiency testing but do not use the following sections:
</P>
<FP-1>(1) 5.3 Introductory text
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(2) 5.3.5 (and subsections; see sections 2.2.3. and 2.2.4. of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(3) 5.3.8 (see section 2.2.5. of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(4) 5.3.9 (see section 2.2.6. of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(5) C3.1.3 (and subsections)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(6) C3.5 (including Table C2; see section 2.2.7. of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(7) C3.6 (see section 2.2.5. of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(8) C3.7 (see section 2.2.6. of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<P>2.2.2. <I>Burners for Oil-Fired Commercial Packaged Boilers.</I> In addition to section C3.3 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, the following applies: For oil-fired commercial packaged boilers, test the unit with the particular make and model of burner as certified (or to be certified) by the manufacturer. If multiple burners are specified in the certification report for that basic model, then use any of the listed burners for testing.
</P>
<P>2.2.3. <I>Water Temperatures.</I> Maintain the outlet temperature measured at Point C in Figure C9 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 at 180 °F ± 2 °F and maintain the inlet temperature measured at Point B at 80 °F ± 5 °F during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 2.2 of this appendix. Each reading must meet these temperature requirements. Use the inlet temperature and flow rate measured at Point B in Figure C9 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 for calculation of thermal efficiency.
</P>
<P>2.2.4 <I>Exceptions to Water Temperature Requirements.</I> For commercial packaged boilers that require a higher flow rate than that resulting from the water temperature requirements of sections 2.2.3 of this appendix to prevent boiling, use a recirculating loop and maintain the inlet temperature at Point B of Figure C9 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 at 140 °F ± 5 °F during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 2.2 of this appendix. Each reading must meet these temperature requirements. Use the inlet temperature and flow rate measured at Point A in Figure C9 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 for calculation of thermal efficiency.
</P>
<P>2.2.5 <I>Air Temperature.</I> For tests of non-condensing boilers, maintain ambient room temperature between 65 °F and 100 °F at all times during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” (as described in Section C4 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 2.2 of this appendix. For tests of condensing boilers, maintain ambient room temperature between 65 °F and 85 °F at all times during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” (as described in Section C4 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 2.2 of this appendix. The ambient room temperature may not differ by more than ± 5 °F from the average ambient room temperature during the entire “Test Period” at any reading. Measure the room ambient temperature within 6 feet of the front of the unit at mid height. The test air temperature, measured at the air inlet of the commercial packaged boiler, must be within ± 5 °F of the room ambient temperature when recorded at the 1-minute interval defined by Table 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2.6. <I>Ambient Humidity.</I> For condensing boilers, maintain ambient room relative humidity below 80-percent at all times during both the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” (as described in Section C4 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) pursuant to Table 2.2 of this appendix. Measure the ambient humidity in the same location as ambient air temperature in section 2.2.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2.7. <I>Flue Gas Temperature.</I> The flue gas temperature during the test must not vary from the flue gas temperature measured at the start of the Test Period (as defined in Section C4 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) when recorded at the interval defined in Table 2.2 of this appendix by more than the limits prescribed in Table 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2.4—Flue Gas Temperature Variation Limits During Test Period
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fuel type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-condensing
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condensing
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">± 2 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater of ± 3 percent and ± 5 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">± 2 percent
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater of ± 3 percent and ± 5 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.3. <I>Test Method.</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.1. <I>General.</I> Conduct the thermal efficiency test as prescribed in Section C4 “Test Procedure” of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85) excluding sections:
</P>
<FP-1>(1) C4.1.1.1.2 (see section 2.3.1.1 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(2) C4.1.1.2.3 (see 2.3.4 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(3) C4.1.2.1.5 (see section 2.3.2. of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(4) C4.1.2.2.2
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(5) C4.1.2.2.3 (see 2.3.5 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(6) C4.2
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(7) C4.2.1
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(8) C4.2.2
</FP-1>
<P>2.3.1.1. Adjust oil or non-atmospheric gas to produce the required firebox pressure and CO<E T="52">2</E> or O<E T="52">2</E> concentration in the flue gas, as described in Section 5.3.1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015. Conduct steam tests with steam pressure at the pressure specified in the manufacturer literature shipped with the commercial packaged boiler or in the manufacturer's supplemental testing instructions pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4) of this chapter, but not exceeding 15 psig. If no pressure is specified in the manufacturer literature shipped with the commercial packaged boiler or in the manufacturer's supplemental testing instructions (pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4) of this chapter), or if a range of operating pressures is specified, conduct testing at a steam pressure equal to atmospheric pressure. If necessary to maintain steam quality as required by Section 5.3.7 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, increase steam pressure in 1 psig increments by throttling with a valve beyond the separator until the test is completed and the steam quality requirements have been satisfied, but do not increase the steam pressure to greater than 15 psig.
</P>
<P>2.3.2. <I>Water Test Steady-State.</I> Ensure that a steady-state is reached by confirming that three consecutive readings have been recorded at 15-minute intervals pursuant to Table 2.2 of this appendix that indicate that the measured fuel input rate is within ± 2-percent of the rated input. Water temperatures must meet the conditions specified in sections 2.2.3 and 2.2.4 of this appendix as applicable.
</P>
<P>2.3.3. <I>Condensate Collection for Condensing Commercial Packaged Boilers.</I> Collect condensate in a covered vessel so as to prevent evaporation.
</P>
<P>2.3.4. <I>Steam Test Duration.</I> Replace Section C4.1.1.2.3 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 with the following: The test period is one hour in duration if the steam condensate is measured or two hours if feedwater is measured. The test period must end with a 15-minute reading (steam condensate or feedwater and separator weight reading) pursuant to Table 2.2 of this appendix. When feedwater is measured, the water line at the end of the test must be within 0.25 inches of the starting level.
</P>
<P>2.3.5. <I>Water Test Duration.</I> Replace Section C4.1.2.2.3 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 with the following: The test period is one hour for condensing commercial packaged boilers and 30 minutes for non-condensing commercial packaged boilers, and ends with a 15-minute interval reading pursuant to Table 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Calculations.</I>
</P>
<P>2.4.1. <I>General.</I> To determine the thermal efficiency of commercial packaged boilers, use the variables in section C6 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 and calculation procedure for the thermal efficiency test specified in section C7.2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, excluding sections C7.2.12 and C7.2.20.
</P>
<P>2.4.2. <I>Use of Steam Properties Table.</I> If the average measured temperature of the steam is higher than the value in Table D1 in Appendix D of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 that corresponds to the average measured steam pressure, then use Table 2.5 of this appendix to determine the latent heat of superheated steam in (Btu/lb). Use linear interpolation for determining the latent heat of steam in Btu/lb if the measured steam pressure is between two values listed in Table D1 in Appendix D of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 or in Table 2.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09de16.025.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er09de16.026.gif"/>
<P>2.4.3. <I>Alternative Thermal Efficiency Calculation for Large Steam Commercial Packaged Boilers.</I> To determine the thermal efficiency of commercial packaged boilers with a fuel input rate greater than 5,000,000 Btu/h according to the steam test pursuant to Section C4.1.1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, either:
</P>
<P>2.4.3.1. Calculate the thermal efficiency of commercial packaged boiler models in steam mode in accordance with the provisions of section 2.4.1 of this appendix, or
</P>
<P>2.4.3.2. Measure and calculate combustion efficiency Effy<E T="52">ss</E> in steam mode according to Section 3. <I>Combustion Efficiency Test</I> of this appendix and convert to thermal efficiency using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>Effy<E T="52">T</E> = Effy<E T="52">ss</E> − 2.0
</FP-2>
<FP>where Effy<E T="52">T</E> is the thermal efficiency and EFFY<E T="52">ss</E> is the combustion efficiency as defined in C6 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015. The combustion efficiency Effy<E T="52">ss</E> is as calculated in Section C7.2.14 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</FP>
<P>2.4.4. <I>Rounding.</I> Round the final thermal efficiency value to nearest one tenth of one percent.
</P>
<P>3.<I> Combustion Efficiency Test.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1. <I>Test Setup.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1. <I>Instrumentation.</I> Use instrumentation meeting the minimum requirements found in Table C1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85).
</P>
<P>3.1.2. <I>Data collection and sampling.</I> Record all test data in accordance with Table 3.1 and Table 3.2 of this appendix. Do not use Section C5 and Table C4 of Appendix C in ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1—Data To Be Recorded Before Testing
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional instruction
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Date of Test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manufacturer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Packaged Boiler Model Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Burner Model Number &amp; Manufacturer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nozzle description and oil pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil Analysis—H, C, API Gravity, lb/gal and Btu/lb</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Manifold Pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Record at start and end of test.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas line pressure at meter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measurement may be made manually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measurement may be made manually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric Pressure (Steam and Natural Gas Only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measurement may be made manually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas Heating Value, Btu/ft 
<sup>3</sup> *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Record at start and end of test.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Multiplied by correction factors, as applicable, in accordance with Appendix E of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/er09de16.027.gif"/>
<P>3.1.3. <I>Instrument Calibration.</I> Instruments must be calibrated at least once per year and a calibration record, containing at least the date of calibration and the method of calibration, must be kept as part of the data underlying each basic model certification, pursuant to § 429.71 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>3.1.4. <I>Test Setup and Apparatus.</I> Set up the commercial packaged boiler for combustion efficiency testing according to the provisions of Section C2 (except section C2.1) of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.1. For tests of oil-fired commercial packaged boilers, determine the weight of fuel consumed using one of the methods specified in sections 3.1.4.1.1. or 3.1.4.1.2. of this appendix:
</P>
<P>3.1.4.1.1. If using a scale, determine the weight of fuel consumed as the difference between the weight of the oil vessel before and after each measurement period, as specified in sections 3.1.4.1.3.1. or 3.1.4.1.3.2. of this appendix, determined using a scale meeting the accuracy requirements of Table C1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.1.2. If using a flow meter, first determine the volume of fuel consumed as the total volume over the applicable measurement period, as specified in sections 3.1.4.1.3.1. or 3.1.4.1.3.2. of this appendix, and as measured by a flow meter meeting the accuracy requirements of Table C1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 upstream of the oil inlet port of the commercial packaged boiler. Then determine the weight of fuel consumed by multiplying the total volume of fuel over the applicable measurement period by the density of oil, in pounds per gallon, as determined pursuant to Section C3.2.1.1.3. of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.1.3. The applicable measurement period for the purposes of determining fuel input rate must be as specified in section 3.1.4.1.3.1. of this appendix for the “Warm-Up Period” or 3.1.4.1.3.2. of this appendix for the “Test Period.”
</P>
<P>3.1.4.1.3.1. For the purposes of confirming steady-state operation during the “Warm-Up Period,” the measurement period must be 15 minutes and t<E T="52">T</E> in Equation C2 in Section C7.2.3.1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 must be 0.25 hours to determine fuel input rate.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.1.3.2. For the purposes of determining combustion efficiency during the “Test Period,” the measurement period and t<E T="52">T</E> are 0.5 hours pursuant to section 3.3.1.1. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.2 For tests of gas-fired commercial packaged boilers, install a volumetric gas meter meeting the accuracy requirements of Table C1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 upstream of the gas inlet port of the commercial packaged boiler. Record the accumulated gas volume consumed for each applicable measurement period. Use Equation C7.2.3.2. of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 to calculate fuel input rate.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.2.1. The applicable measurement period for the purposes of determining fuel input rate must be as specified in section 3.1.4.2.1.1. of this appendix for the “Warm-Up Period” and 3.1.4.2.1.2. of this appendix for the “Test Period.”
</P>
<P>3.1.4.2.1.1. For the purposes of confirming steady-state operation during the “Warm-Up Period,” the measurement period must be 15 minutes and t<E T="52">T</E> in Equation C2 in Section C7.2.3.1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 must be 0.25 hour to determine fuel input rate.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.2.1.2. For the purposes of determining combustion efficiency during the “Test Period,” the measurement period and t<E T="52">T</E> are 0.5 hour pursuant to section 3.3.1.1. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.4.3. In addition to the provisions of Section C2.2.1.2 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, vent gases may alternatively be discharged vertically into a straight stack section without elbows. R-7 minimum insulation must extend 6 stack diameters above the flue collar, the thermocouple grid must be located at a vertical distance of 3 stack diameters above the flue collar, and the sampling tubes for flue gases must be installed within 1 stack diameter beyond the thermocouple grid. If dilution air is introduced into the flue gases before the plane of the thermocouple and flue gas sampling points, utilize an alternate plane of thermocouple grid and flue gas sampling point located downstream from the heat exchanger and upstream from the point of dilution air introduction.
</P>
<P>3.1.5. <I>Additional Requirements for Outdoor Commercial Packaged Boilers.</I> If the manufacturer provides more than one outdoor venting arrangement, the outdoor commercial packaged boiler (as defined in section 3.2.6 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85) must be tested with the shortest total venting arrangement as measured by adding the straight lengths of venting supplied with the equipment. If the manufacturer does not provide an outdoor venting arrangement, install the outdoor commercial packaged boiler venting consistent with the procedure specified in Section C2.2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>3.1.6. <I>Additional Requirements for Field Tests.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.6.1 Field tests are exempt from the requirements of Section C2.2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015. Measure the flue gas temperature according to Section C2.5.1 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 and the thermocouple grids identified in Figure C12 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, with the following modification: the thermocouple grid may be staggered vertically by up to 1.5 inches to allow the use of instrumented rods to be inserted through holes drilled in the venting.
</P>
<P>3.1.6.2. Field tests are exempt from the requirements of Section C2.6.3 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015.
</P>
<P>3.1.7. <I>Additional Requirements for Water Tests.</I> In addition to the provisions of Section C2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85) the following requirements apply for water tests:
</P>
<P>3.1.7.1. Insulate all water piping between the commercial packaged boiler and the location of the temperature measuring equipment, including one foot (1 ft.) beyond the sensor, using insulation meeting the requirements specified in Table 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.7.2. Install a temperature measuring device at Point B of Figure C9 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015. Water entering the commercial packaged boiler must first enter the run of a tee and exit from the top outlet of the tee. The remaining connection of the tee must be plugged. Measure the inlet water temperature at Point B in the run of a second tee located 12 ± 2 pipe diameters downstream from the first tee and no more than the greater of 12 inches or 6 pipe diameters from the inlet of the commercial packaged boiler. The temperature measuring device shall extend into the water flow at the point of exit from the side outlet of the second tee. All inlet piping between the temperature measuring device and the inlet of the commercial packaged boilers must be wrapped with R-7 insulation. Field tests must also measure the inlet water temperature at Point B in Figure C9, however they are not required to use the temperature measurement piping described in this section 3.1.7. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.1.7.3. Do not use Section C2.7.2.2.2 or its subsections of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 for water meter calibration.
</P>
<P>3.1.8. <I>Flue Gas Sampling.</I> In section C2.5.2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, replace the last sentence with the following: When taking flue gas samples from a rectangular plane, collect samples at 
<FR>1/4</FR>, 
<FR>1/2</FR>, and 
<FR>3/4</FR> the distance from one side of the rectangular plane in the longer dimension and along the centerline midway between the edges of the plane in the shorter dimension and use the average of the three samples. The tolerance in each dimension for each measurement location is ± 1 inch.
</P>
<P>3.2. <I>Test Conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.1. <I>General.</I> Use the test conditions from Sections 5 and C3 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.85) for combustion efficiency testing but do not use the following sections:
</P>
<FP-1>(1) 5.3 Introductory text
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(2) 5.3.5 (and subsections; see sections 3.2.3, 3.2.3.1, and 3.2.3.2 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(3) 5.3.7 (excluded for field tests only)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(4) 5.3.8 (see section 3.2.4 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(5) 5.3.9 (see section 3.2.5 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(6) C3.1.3 (and subsections)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(7) C3.5 (including Table C2; see section 3.2.6 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(8) C3.6 (see section 3.2.4 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(9) C3.7 (see section 3.2.5 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<P>3.2.2. <I>Burners for Oil-Fired Commercial Packaged Boilers.</I> In addition to Section C3.3 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, the following applies: for oil-fired commercial packaged boilers, test the unit with the particular make and model of burner as certified (or to be certified) by the manufacturer. If multiple burners are specified in the certification report for that basic model, then use any of the listed burners for testing.
</P>
<P>3.2.3. <I>Water Temperatures.</I> Maintain the outlet temperature measured at Point C in Figure C9 at 180 °F ± 2 °F and maintain the inlet temperature measured at Point B at 80 °F ± 5 °F during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 3.2 of this appendix. Each reading must meet these temperature requirements. Field tests are exempt from this requirement and instead must comply with the requirements of section 3.2.3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2.3.1. For field tests, the inlet temperature measured at Point A and Point B in Figure C9 and the outlet temperature measured and Point C in Figure C9 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 must be recorded in the data underlying that model's certification pursuant to § 429.71 of this chapter, and the difference between the inlet (measured at Point B) and outlet temperature (measured at Point C) must not be less than 20 °F at any point during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period,” after stabilization has been achieved, as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2.3.2 For commercial packaged boilers that require a higher flow rate than that resulting from the water temperature requirements of sections 3.2.3 of this appendix to prevent boiling, use a recirculating loop and maintain the inlet temperature at Point B of Figure C9 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 at 140 °F ± 5 °F during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 3.2 of this appendix. Each reading must meet these temperature requirements.
</P>
<P>3.2.4. <I>Air Temperature.</I> For tests of non-condensing boilers (except during field tests), maintain ambient room temperature between 65 °F and 100 °F at all times during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” (as described in Section C4 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 3.2 of this appendix. For tests of condensing boilers (except during field tests), maintain ambient room temperature between 65 °F and 85 °F at all times during the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” (as described in Section C4 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) as indicated by 1-minute interval data pursuant to Table 3.2 of this appendix. The ambient room temperature may not differ by more than ± 5 °F from the average ambient room temperature during the entire “Test Period” at any 1-minute interval reading. Measure the room ambient temperature within 6 feet of the front of the unit at mid height. The test air temperature, measured at the air inlet of the commercial packaged boiler, must be within ± 5 °F of the room ambient temperature when recorded at the 1-minute interval defined by Table 3.2 of this appendix. For field tests, record the ambient room temperature at 1-minute intervals in accordance with Table 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2.5. <I>Ambient Humidity.</I> For condensing boilers (except during field tests), maintain ambient room relative humidity below 80-percent relative humidity at all times during both the “Warm-up Period” and “Test Period” (as described in Section C4 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) pursuant to Table 3.2 of this appendix. Measure the ambient humidity in the same location as ambient air temperature. For field tests of condensing boilers, record the ambient room relative humidity in accordance with Table 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2.6. <I>Flue Gas Temperature.</I> The flue gas temperature during the test must not vary from the flue gas temperature measured at the start of the Test Period (as defined in Section C4 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) when recorded at the interval defined in Table 3.2 by more than the limits prescribed in Table 3.3 of this appendix. For field tests, flue gas temperature does not need to be within the limits in Table 3.3 of this appendix but must be recorded at the interval specified in Table 3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.3—Flue Gas Temperature Variation Limits During Test Period
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fuel type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-condensing
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condensing
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">± 2 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater of ± 3 percent and ± 5 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Light Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">± 2 percent
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heavy Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater of ± 3 percent and ± 5 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.3. <I>Test Method.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.1. <I>General.</I> Conduct the combustion efficiency test using the test method prescribed in Section C4 “Test Procedure” of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 excluding sections:
</P>
<FP-1>(1) C4.1.1.1.2 (see section 3.3.1.2 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(2) C4.1.1.2.3
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(3) C4.1.2.1.5 (see section 3.3.2 of this appendix)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(4) C4.1.2.2.2
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(5) C4.1.2.2.3
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(6) C4.2
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(7) C4.2.1
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(8) C4.2.2
</FP-1>
<P>3.3.1.1. The duration of the “Test Period” for combustion efficiency outlined in sections C4.1.1.2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85) and C4.1.2.2 of Appendix C of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 is 30 minutes. For condensing commercial packaged boilers, condensate must be collected for the 30 minute Test Period.
</P>
<P>3.3.1.2. Adjust oil or non-atmospheric gas to produce the required firebox pressure and CO<E T="52">2</E> or O<E T="52">2</E> concentration in the flue gas, as described in section 5.3.1 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015. Conduct steam tests with steam pressure at the pressure specified in the manufacturer literature shipped with the commercial packaged boiler or in the manufacturer's supplemental testing instructions pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4) of this chapter, but not exceeding 15 psig. If no pressure is specified in the manufacturer literature shipped with the commercial packaged boiler or in the manufacturer's supplemental testing instructions (pursuant to § 429.60(b)(4)) of this chapter, or if a range of operating pressures is specified, conduct testing at a steam pressure equal to atmospheric pressure. If necessary to maintain steam quality as required by section 5.3.7 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015, increase steam pressure in 1 psig increments by throttling with a valve beyond the separator until the test is completed and the steam quality requirements have been satisfied, but do not increase the steam pressure to greater than 15 psig.
</P>
<P>3.3.2. <I>Water Test Steady-State.</I> Ensure that a steady-state is reached by confirming that three consecutive readings have been recorded at 15-minute intervals that indicate that the measured fuel input rate is within ± 2-percent of the rated input. Water temperatures must meet the conditions specified in sections 3.2.3, 3.2.3.1, and 3.2.3.2 of this appendix as applicable.
</P>
<P>3.3.3. <I>Procedure for the Measurement of Condensate for a Condensing Commercial Packaged Boiler.</I> Collect flue condensate using a covered vessel so as to prevent evaporation. Measure the condensate from the flue gas during the “Test Period.” Flue condensate mass must be measured within 5 minutes after the end of the “Test Period” (defined in C4.1.1.2 and C4.1.2.2 of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015) to prevent evaporation loss from the sample. Determine the mass of flue condensate for the “Test Period” by subtracting the tare container weight from the total weight of the container and flue condensate measured at the end of the ”Warm-up Period.”
</P>
<P>3.4. <I>Calculations.</I>
</P>
<P>3.4.1. <I>General.</I> To determine the combustion efficiency of commercial packaged boilers, use the variables in Section C6 and calculation procedure for the combustion efficiency test specified in Section C7.3 of Appendix C (including the specified subsections of C7.2) of ANSI/AHRI Standard 1500-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.85).
</P>
<P>3.4.2. <I>Rounding.</I> Round the final combustion efficiency value to nearest one tenth of a percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 89306, Dec. 9, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Commercial Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 61969, Oct. 21, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.91" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.48.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.91   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart specifies test procedures and energy conservation standards for certain commercial air conditioners and heat pumps, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61969, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 60415, Oct. 18, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.92" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.48.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.92   Definitions concerning commercial air conditioners and heat pumps.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this subpart, and of subparts J through M of this part. Any words or terms not defined in this section or elsewhere in this part shall be defined as provided in 42 U.S.C. 6311. For definitions that reference the application for which the equipment is marketed, DOE will consider any publicly available document published by the manufacturer (<I>e.g.,</I> product literature, catalogs, and packaging labels) to determine marketing intent. For definitions in this section that pertain to computer room air conditioners, italicized terms within a definition indicate terms that are separately defined in this section.


</P>
<P><I>Applied Coefficient of performance,</I> or <I>ACOP</I> means the ratio of the heating capacity to the power input, including system pump power, for water-source heat pumps. ACOP is expressed in watts per watt and determined according to appendix C1 of this subpart.


</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h.</I> All units manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and, which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency; where essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics means:
</P>
<P>(i) For split systems manufactured by outdoor unit manufacturers (OUMs): all individual combinations having the same model of outdoor unit, which means comparably performing compressor(s) [a variation of no more than five percent in displacement rate (volume per time) as rated by the compressor manufacturer, and no more than five percent in capacity and power input for the same operating conditions as rated by the compressor manufacturer], outdoor coil(s) [no more than five percent variation in face area and total fin surface area; same fin material; same tube material], and outdoor fan(s) [no more than ten percent variation in airflow and no more than twenty percent variation in power input];
</P>
<P>(ii) For split systems having indoor units manufactured by independent coil manufacturers (ICMs): all individual combinations having comparably performing indoor coil(s) [plus or minus one square foot face area, plus or minus one fin per inch fin density, and the same fin material, tube material, number of tube rows, tube pattern, and tube size]; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For single-package systems: all individual models having comparably performing compressor(s) [no more than five percent variation in displacement rate (volume per time) rated by the compressor manufacturer, and no more than five percent variations in capacity and power input rated by the compressor manufacturer corresponding to the same compressor rating conditions], outdoor coil(s) and indoor coil(s) [no more than five percent variation in face area and total fin surface area; same fin material; same tube material], outdoor fan(s) [no more than ten percent variation in outdoor airflow], and indoor blower(s) [no more than ten percent variation in indoor airflow, with no more than twenty percent variation in fan motor power input];
</P>
<P>(iv) Except that:
</P>
<P>(A) For single-package systems and single-split systems, manufacturers may instead choose to make each individual model/combination its own basic model provided the testing and represented value requirements in 10 CFR 429.67 are met; and
</P>
<P>(B) For multi-split, multi-circuit, and multi-head mini-split combinations, a basic model may not include both individual small-duct, high velocity (SDHV) combinations and non-SDHV combinations even when they include the same model of outdoor unit. The manufacturer may choose to identify specific individual combinations as additional basic models.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled, three-phase, commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h).</I> All units manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, having the same or comparably performing compressor(s), heat exchangers, and air moving system(s) that have a common “nominal” cooling capacity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For computer room air conditioners.</I> All units manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, having the same primary energy source (<I>e.g.,</I> electric or gas), and which have the same or comparably performing compressor(s), heat exchangers, and air moving system(s) that have a common “nominal” cooling capacity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For direct expansion-dedicated outdoor air system.</I> All units manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source (<I>e.g.,</I> electric or gas), within a single equipment class; with the same or comparably performing compressor(s), heat exchangers, ventilation energy recovery system(s) (if present), and air moving system(s) that have a common “nominal” moisture removal capacity.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For packaged terminal air conditioner (PTAC) or packaged terminal heat pump (PTHP).</I> All units manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, having the same primary energy source (<I>e.g.,</I> electric or gas), and which have the same or comparable compressors, same or comparable heat exchangers, and same or comparable air moving systems that have a cooling capacity within 300 Btu/h of one another.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For single package vertical units.</I> All units manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, having the same primary energy source (<I>e.g.,</I> electric or gas), and which have the same or comparably performing compressor(s), heat exchangers, and air moving system(s) that have a rated cooling capacity within 1500 Btu/h of one another.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>For variable refrigerant flow systems (excluding air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h).</I> All units manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, having the same primary energy source (<I>e.g.,</I> electric or gas), and which have the same or comparably performing compressor(s) that have a common “nominal” cooling capacity and the same heat rejection medium (<I>e.g.,</I> air or water) (includes VRF water source heat pumps).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>For water-source heat pumps.</I> All units manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, having the same primary energy source (<I>e.g.,</I> electric or gas), and which have the same or comparable compressors, same or comparable heat exchangers, and same or comparable “nominal” cooling capacity.


</P>
<P><I>Ceiling-mounted</I> means a configuration of a <I>computer room air conditioner</I> for which the unit housing the evaporator coil is configured for indoor installation on or through a ceiling.


</P>
<P><I>Ceiling-mounted ducted</I> means a configuration of a <I>ceiling-mounted computer room air conditioner</I> that is configured for use with discharge ducting (even if the unit is also configurable for use without discharge ducting).
</P>
<P><I>Ceiling-mounted non-ducted</I> means a configuration of a <I>ceiling-mounted computer room air conditioner</I> that is configured only for use without discharge ducting.




</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of performance,</I> or <I>COP,</I> means the ratio of the produced cooling effect of an air conditioner or heat pump (or its produced heating effect, depending on the mode of operation) to its net work input, when both the cooling (or heating) effect and the net work input are expressed in identical units of measurement. For air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), COP is measured per appendix A to this subpart.






</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of performance 2,</I> or <I>COP2,</I> means the ratio of the produced cooling effect of an air conditioner or heat pump (or its produced heating effect, depending on the mode of operation) to its net work input, when both the cooling (or heating) effect and the net work input are expressed in identical units of measurement. COP2 must be used with a subscript to indicate the outdoor temperature in degrees Fahrenheit at which the COP2 was measured (<I>e.g.,</I> COP2<E T="52">17</E> for COP2 measured at 17  °F). For air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), COP2 is measured per appendix A1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P><I>Commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment</I> means air-cooled, water-cooled, evaporatively-cooled, or water source (not including ground water source) electrically operated, unitary central air conditioners and central air-conditioning heat pumps for commercial application.
</P>
<P><I>Computer room air conditioner</I> means commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment (packaged or split) that is marketed for use in computer rooms, data processing rooms, or other information technology cooling applications and not a covered consumer product under 42 U.S.C. 6291(1)-(2) and 42 U.S.C. 6292. A computer room air conditioner may be provided with, or have as available options, an integrated humidifier, temperature and/or humidity control of the supplied air, and reheating function. Computer room air conditioners include, but are not limited to, the following configurations as defined in this section: <I>down-flow, horizontal-flow,</I> <I>up-flow ducted, up-flow non-ducted,</I> <I>ceiling-mounted ducted, ceiling mounted non-ducted,</I> <I>roof-mounted,</I> and <I>wall-mounted.</I>


</P>
<P><I>Direct expansion-dedicated outdoor air system,</I> or <I>DX-DOAS,</I> means a unitary dedicated outdoor air system that is capable of dehumidifying air to a 55 °F dew point—when operating under Standard Rating Condition A as specified in Table 4 or Table 5 of AHRI 920-2020 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.95) with a barometric pressure of 29.92 in Hg—for any part of the range of airflow rates advertised in manufacturer materials, and has a moisture removal capacity of less than 324 lb/h.


</P>
<P><I>Double-duct air conditioner or heat pump</I> means air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment that meets the following criteria—
</P>
<P>(1) Is either a horizontal single package or split-system unit; or a vertical unit that consists of two components that may be shipped or installed either connected or split; or a vertical single package unit that is not intended for exterior mounting on, adjacent interior to, or through an outside wall;
</P>
<P>(2) Is intended for indoor installation with ducting of outdoor air from the building exterior to and from the unit (<I>e.g.,</I> the unit and/or all of its components are non-weatherized);
</P>
<P>(3) If it is a horizontal unit, the complete unit shall have a maximum height of 35 inches or the unit shall have components that do not exceed a maximum height of 35 inches. If it is a vertical unit, the complete (split, connected, or assembled) unit shall have components that do not exceed a maximum depth of 35 inches; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has a rated cooling capacity greater than or equal to 65,000 Btu/h and less than 300,000 Btu/h.






</P>
<P><I>Down-flow</I> means a configuration of <I>floor-mounted computer room air conditioner</I> in which return air enters above the top of the evaporator coil and discharge air leaves below the bottom of the evaporator coil.
</P>
<P><I>Ducted Condenser</I> means a configuration of <I>computer room air conditioner</I> for which the condenser or condensing unit that manufacturer's installation instructions indicate is intended to exhaust condenser air through a duct(s).


</P>
<P><I>Energy efficiency ratio,</I> or <I>EER,</I> means the ratio of the produced cooling effect of an air conditioner or heat pump to its net work input, expressed in Btu/watt-hour. For commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), EER is measured per appendix A to this subpart.


</P>
<P><I>Energy efficiency ratio 2,</I> or <I>EER2,</I> means the ratio of the produced cooling effect of an air conditioner or heat pump to its net work input, expressed in Btu/watt-hour. For commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), EER2 is measured per appendix A1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P><I>Floor-mounted</I> means a configuration of a <I>computer room air conditioner</I> for which the unit housing the evaporator coil is configured for indoor installation on a solid floor, raised floor, or floor-stand. Floor-mounted <I>computer room air conditioners</I> are one of the following three configurations: <I>down-flow, horizontal-flow,</I> and <I>up-flow.</I>


</P>
<P><I>Fluid economizer</I> means an option available with a <I>computer room air conditioner</I> in which a fluid (other than air), cooled externally from the unit, provides cooling of the indoor air to reduce or eliminate unit compressor operation when outdoor temperature is low. The fluid may include, but is not limited to, chilled water, water/glycol solution, or refrigerant. An external fluid cooler such as, but not limited to a dry cooler, cooling tower, or condenser is utilized for heat rejection. This component is sometimes referred to as a free cooling coil, econ-o-coil, or economizer.


</P>
<P><I>Heat Recovery</I> (in the context of variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners or variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat pumps) means that the air conditioner or heat pump is also capable of providing simultaneous heating and cooling operation, where recovered energy from the indoor units operating in one mode can be transferred to one or more other indoor units operating in the other mode. A variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat recovery heat pump is a variable refrigerant flow multi-split heat pump with the addition of heat recovery capability.
</P>
<P><I>Heating seasonal performance factor,</I> or <I>HSPF</I> means the total heating output of a central air-conditioning heat pump during its normal annual usage period for heating, expressed in Btu's and divided by the total electric power input, expressed in watt-hours, during the same period.


</P>
<P><I>Horizontal-flow</I> means a configuration of a <I>floor-mounted computer room air conditioner</I> that is neither a <I>down-flow</I> nor an <I>up-flow</I> unit.
</P>
<P><I>Integrated energy efficiency ratio,</I> or <I>IEER,</I> means a weighted average calculation of mechanical cooling EERs determined for four load levels and corresponding rating conditions, expressed in Btu/watt-hour. IEER is measured:
</P>
<P>(1) Per appendix A to this subpart for commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h);
</P>
<P>(2) Per appendix C1 to this subpart for water-source heat pumps;
</P>
<P>(3) Per appendix D1 to this subpart for variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps (other than air-cooled with rated cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h); and
</P>
<P>(4) Per appendix G1 to this subpart for single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps.




</P>
<P><I>Integrated seasonal coefficient of performance 2</I> or <I>ISCOP2,</I> means a seasonal weighted-average heating efficiency for heat pump dedicated outdoor air systems, expressed in W/W, as measured according to appendix B of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Integrated seasonal moisture removal efficiency 2,</I> or <I>ISMRE2,</I> means a seasonal weighted average dehumidification efficiency for dedicated outdoor air systems, expressed in lbs. of moisture/kWh, as measured according to appendix B of this subpart.


</P>
<P><I>Integrated ventilation and heating efficiency,</I> or <I>IVHE,</I> means a sum of the space heating provided (Btu) divided by the sum of the energy consumed (Wh), including mechanical heating, supplementary electric resistance heating, and heating season ventilation operating modes. IVHE with subscript C (IVHE<E T="52">C</E>) refers to the IVHE of heat pumps using a cold-climate heating load line. For air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), IVHE and IVHE<E T="52">C</E> are measured per appendix A1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P><I>Integrated ventilation, economizing, and cooling,</I> or <I>IVEC,</I> means a sum of the space cooling provided (Btu) divided by the sum of the energy consumed (Wh), including mechanical cooling, economizing, and cooling season ventilation operating modes. For commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), IVEC is measured per appendix A1 to this subpart.






</P>
<P><I>Large commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment</I> means commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment that is rated—
</P>
<P>(1) At or above 135,000 Btu per hour; and
</P>
<P>(2) Below 240,000 Btu per hour (cooling capacity).






</P>
<P><I>Net sensible coefficient of performance,</I> or <I>NSenCOP,</I> means a ratio of the net sensible cooling capacity in kilowatts to the total power input in kilowatts for <I>computer room air conditioners,</I> as measured in appendix E1 of this subpart.


</P>
<P><I>Non-standard size</I> means a packaged terminal air conditioner or packaged terminal heat pump with existing wall sleeve dimensions having an external wall opening of less than 16 inches high or less than 42 inches wide, and a cross-sectional area less than 670 square inches. 
</P>
<P><I>Packaged terminal air conditioner</I> means a wall sleeve and a separate un-encased combination of heating and cooling assemblies specified by the builder and intended for mounting through the wall, and that is industrial equipment. It includes a prime source of refrigeration, separable outdoor louvers, forced ventilation, and heating availability by builder's choice of hot water, steam, or electricity.
</P>
<P><I>Packaged terminal heat pump</I> means a packaged terminal air conditioner that utilizes reverse cycle refrigeration as its prime heat source, that has a supplementary heat source available, with the choice of hot water, steam, or electric resistant heat, and that is industrial equipment.


</P>
<P><I>Roof-mounted</I> means a configuration of a <I>computer room air conditioner</I> that is not <I>wall-mounted,</I> and for which the unit housing the evaporator coil is configured for outdoor installation.




</P>
<P><I>Seasonal energy efficiency ratio</I> or <I>SEER</I> means the total cooling output of a central air conditioner or central air-conditioning heat pump, expressed in Btu's, during its normal annual usage period for cooling and divided by the total electric power input, expressed in watt-hours, during the same period.
</P>
<P><I>Sensible Coefficient of Performance,</I> or <I>SCOP</I> means the net sensible cooling capacity in watts divided by the total power input in watts (excluding reheaters and humidifiers).
</P>
<P><I>Single package unit</I> means any central air conditioner or central air-conditioning heat pump in which all the major assemblies are enclosed in one cabinet.
</P>
<P><I>Single package vertical air conditioner</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is factory-assembled as a single package that—
</P>
<P>(A) Has major components that are arranged vertically;
</P>
<P>(B) Is an encased combination of cooling and optional heating components; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is intended for exterior mounting on, adjacent interior to, or through an outside wall;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is powered by a single-or 3-phase current;
</P>
<P>(iii) May contain 1 or more separate indoor grilles, outdoor louvers, various ventilation options, indoor free air discharges, ductwork, well plenum, or sleeves; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has heating components that may include electrical resistance, steam, hot water, or gas, but may not include reverse-cycle refrigeration as a heating means; and
</P>
<P>(2) Includes single-phase single package vertical air conditioner with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h, as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Single package vertical heat pump</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A single package vertical air conditioner that—
</P>
<P>(i) Uses reverse-cycle refrigeration as its primary heat source; and
</P>
<P>(ii) May include secondary supplemental heating by means of electrical resistance, steam, hot water, or gas; and
</P>
<P>(2) Includes single-phase single package vertical heat pump with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h, as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Single-phase single package vertical air conditioner with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h</I> means air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment that meets the criteria in paragraphs (1)(i) through (iv) of the definition for a single package vertical air conditioner in this section; that is single-phase; has a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h, and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is weatherized, determined by a model being denoted for “Outdoor Use” or marked as “Suitable for Outdoor Use” on the equipment nameplate; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is non-weatherized and is a model that has optional ventilation air provisions available. When such ventilation air provisions are present on the unit, the unit must be capable of drawing in and conditioning outdoor air for delivery to the conditioned space at a rate of at least 400 cubic feet per minute, as determined in accordance with § 429.134(x)(3) of this chapter, while the equipment is operating with the same drive kit and motor settings used to determine the certified efficiency rating of the equipment (as required for submittal to DOE by § 429.43(b)(4)(xi) of this chapter).
</P>
<P><I>Single-phase single package vertical heat pump with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h</I> means air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment that meets the criteria in paragraphs (1)(i) and (ii) of the definition for a single package vertical heat pump in this section; that is single-phase; has a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h, and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is weatherized, determined by a model being denoted for “Outdoor Use” or marked as “Suitable for Outdoor Use” on the equipment nameplate; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is non-weatherized and is a model that has optional ventilation air provisions available. When such ventilation air provisions are present on the unit, the unit must be capable of drawing in and conditioning outdoor air for delivery to the conditioned space at a rate of at least 400 cubic feet per minute, as determined in accordance with § 429.134(x)(3) of this chapter, while the equipment is operating with the same drive kit and motor settings used to determine the certified efficiency rating of the equipment (as required for submittal to DOE by § 429.43(b)(4)(xii) of this chapter).
</P>
<P><I>Small commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment</I> means commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment that is rated below 135,000 Btu per hour (cooling capacity).


</P>
<P><I>Small-duct, high-velocity commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment</I> means a basic model of commercial package, split-system air conditioning and heating equipment that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a rated cooling capacity no greater than 65,000 Btu/h;
</P>
<P>(2) Is powered by three-phase current;
</P>
<P>(3) Is air-cooled; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is paired with an indoor unit that:
</P>
<P>(i) Includes an indoor blower housed with the coil;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is designed for, and produces, at least 1.2 inches of external static pressure when operated at the certified air volume rate of 220-350 CFM per rated ton cooling in the highest default cooling airflow-controls setting; and
</P>
<P>(iii) When applied in the field, uses high velocity room outlets generally greater than 1,000 fpm that have less than 6.0 square inches of free area.


</P>
<P><I>Space-constrained commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment</I> means a basic model of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (packaged or split) that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is air-cooled;
</P>
<P>(2) Is powered by three-phase current;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not a single package vertical air conditioner or a single package vertical heat pump;
</P>
<P>(4) Has a rated cooling capacity no greater than 30,000 Btu/h;
</P>
<P>(5) Has an outdoor or indoor unit having at least two overall exterior dimensions or an overall displacement that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is substantially smaller than those of other units that are:
</P>
<P>(A) Currently usually installed in site-built single-family homes; and
</P>
<P>(B) Of a similar cooling, and, if a heat pump, heating capacity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If increased, would certainly result in a considerable increase in the usual cost of installation or would certainly result in a significant loss in the utility of the product to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(6) Of a product type that was available for purchase in the United States as of December 1, 2000.




</P>
<P><I>Split system</I> means any central air conditioner or central air conditioning heat pump in which one or more of the major assemblies are separate from the others. 
</P>
<P><I>Standard size</I> means a packaged terminal air conditioner or packaged terminal heat pump with wall sleeve dimensions having an external wall opening of greater than or equal to 16 inches high or greater than or equal to 42 inches wide, and a cross-sectional area greater than or equal to 670 square inches. 
</P>
<P><I>Unitary dedicated outdoor air system,</I> or <I>unitary DOAS,</I> means a category of small, large, or very large commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment that is capable of providing ventilation and conditioning of 100-percent outdoor air and is marketed in materials (including but not limited to, specification sheets, insert sheets, and online materials) as having such capability.








</P>
<P><I>Up-flow</I> means a configuration of a <I>floor-mounted computer room air conditioner</I> in which return air enters below the bottom of the evaporator coil and discharge air leaves above the top of the evaporator coil.


</P>
<P><I>Up-flow ducted</I> means a configuration of an <I>up-flow computer room air conditioner</I> that is configured for use with discharge ducting (even if the unit is also configurable for use without discharge ducting).
</P>
<P><I>Up-flow non-ducted</I> means a configuration of an <I>up-flow computer room air conditioner</I> that is configured only for use without discharge ducting.


</P>
<P><I>Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioner</I> means a unit of commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment that is configured as a split system air conditioner incorporating a single refrigerant circuit, with one or more outdoor units, at least one variable-speed compressor or an alternate compressor combination for varying the capacity of the system by three or more steps, and multiple indoor fan coil units, each of which is individually metered and individually controlled by an integral control device and common communications network and which can operate independently in response to multiple indoor thermostats. Variable refrigerant flow implies three or more steps of capacity control on common, inter-connecting piping.
</P>
<P><I>Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Heat Pump</I> means a unit of commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment that is configured as a split system heat pump that uses reverse cycle refrigeration as its primary heating source and which may include secondary supplemental heating by means of electrical resistance, steam, hot water, or gas. The equipment incorporates a single refrigerant circuit, with one or more outdoor units, at least one variable-speed compressor or an alternate compressor combination for varying the capacity of the system by three or more steps, and multiple indoor fan coil units, each of which is individually metered and individually controlled by a control device and common communications network and which can operate independently in response to multiple indoor thermostats. Variable refrigerant flow implies three or more steps of capacity control on common, inter-connecting piping.
</P>
<P><I>Ventilation energy recovery system,</I> or <I>VERS,</I> means a system that preconditions outdoor ventilation air entering the equipment through direct or indirect thermal and/or moisture exchange with the exhaust air, which is defined as the building air being exhausted to the outside from the equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Very large commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment</I> means commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment that is rated—
</P>
<P>(1) At or above 240,000 Btu per hour; and
</P>
<P>(2) Below 760,000 Btu per hour (cooling capacity).


</P>
<P><I>Wall-mounted</I> means a configuration of a <I>computer room air conditioner</I> for which the unit housing the evaporator coil is configured for installation on or through a wall.


</P>
<P><I>Water-source heat pump</I> means commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment that is a single-phase or three-phase reverse-cycle heat pump that uses a circulating water loop as the heat source for heating and as the heat sink for cooling. The main components are a compressor, refrigerant-to-water heat exchanger, refrigerant-to-air heat exchanger, refrigerant expansion devices, refrigerant reversing valve, and indoor fan (except that coil-only units do not include an indoor fan). Such equipment includes, but is not limited to, water-to-air water-loop heat pumps.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61969, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 60415, Oct. 18, 2005; 73 FR 58828, Oct. 7, 2008; 74 FR 12073, Mar. 23, 2009; 76 FR 12503, Mar. 7, 2011; 77 FR 28988, May 16, 2012; 78 FR 79598, Dec. 31, 2013; 80 FR 42664, July 17, 2015; 80 FR 79669, Dec. 23, 2015; 81 FR 2529, Jan. 15, 2016; 87 FR 45197, July 27, 2022; 87 FR 63896, Oct. 20, 2022; 87 FR 75167, Dec. 7, 2022; 87 FR 77325, Dec. 16, 2022; 88 FR 21838, Apr. 11, 2023; 88 FR 36386, 36424, June 2, 2023; 88 FR 84228, Dec. 4, 2023; 89 FR 44035, May 20, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="48" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.48" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.95" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.48.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.95   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHRI.</I> Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute, 2311 Wilson Blvd., Suite 400, Arlington, VA 22201; (703) 524-8800; <I>www.ahrinet.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AHRI Standard 210/240-2008 (AHRI 210/240-2008), <I>2008 Standard for Performance Rating of Unitary Air-Conditioning &amp; Air-Source Heat Pump Equipment,</I> approved by ANSI on October 27, 2011, and updated by addendum 1 in June 2011 and addendum 2 in March 2012; IBR approved for § 431.96 and appendix F to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) AHRI Standard 210/240-2023 (AHRI 210/240-2023), <I>2023 Standard for Performance Rating of Unitary Air-conditioning &amp; Air-source Heat Pump Equipment,</I> copyright May 2020; IBR approved for appendix F1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) AHRI Standard 310/380-2014 (“AHRI 310/380-2014”), “Standard for Packaged Terminal Air-Conditioners and Heat Pumps,” February 2014; IBR approved for § 431.96.
</P>
<P>(4) AHRI Standard 340/360-2022 (I-P) (“AHRI 340/360-2022”), <I>2022 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial and Industrial Unitary Air-conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> approved January 26, 2022; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(5) AHRI Standard 390(I-P)-2021 (“AHRI 390-2021”), <I>2021 Standard for Performance Rating of Single Package Vertical Air-Conditioners and Heat Pumps,</I> copyright 2021; (AHRI 390-2021), IBR approved for appendices G and G1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) AHRI Standard 600-2023 (I-P) (“AHRI 600-2023”), <I>2023 Standard for Performance Rating of Water/Brine to Air Heat Pump Equipment,</I> AHRI-approved September 11, 2023; IBR approved for appendix C1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(7) AHRI Standard 920 (I-P) with Addendum 1 (“AHRI 920-2020”), “2020 Standard for Performance Rating of Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air System Units,” copyright 2021; IBR approved for § 431.92; appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(8) AHRI Standard 1060 (I-P) (“AHRI 1060-2018”), “2018 Standard for Performance Rating of Air-to-Air Exchangers for Energy Recovery Ventilation Equipment,” copyright 2018; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(9) ANSI/AHRI Standard 1230-2010 (AHRI 1230-2010), <I>2010 Standard for Performance Rating of Variable Refrigerant Flow (VRF) Multi-Split Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> approved August 2, 2010, and updated by addendum 1 in March 2011; IBR approved for § 431.96 and appendices D and F to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(10) AHRI Standard 1230 (I-P), (“AHRI 1230-2021'), “<I>2021 Standard for Performance Rating of Variable Refrigerant Flow (VRF) Multi-Split Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment”,</I> copyright in 2021; IBR approved for appendix D1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(11) AHRI Standard 1340-2023 (I-P) (“AHRI 1340-2023”), <I>2023 Standard for Performance Rating of Commercial and Industrial Unitary Air-conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> approved November 16, 2023; IBR approved for appendix A1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(12) AHRI Standard 1360-2022 (I-P) (“AHRI 1360-2022”), 2022 <I>Standard for Performance Rating of Computer and Data Processing Room Air Conditioners,</I> copyright 2022; IBR approved for appendix E1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>ASHRAE.</I> American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, 180 Technology Parkway, Peachtree Corners, Georgia 30092; (404) 636-8400; <I>www.ashrae.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 16-1983 (RA 2014), (“ANSI/ASHRAE 16”), “Method of Testing for Rating Room Air Conditioners and Packaged Terminal Air Conditioners,” ASHRAE reaffirmed July 3, 2014, IBR approved for § 431.96.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009”), <I>Methods of Testing for Rating Electrically Driven Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> approved June 24, 2009; IBR approved for § 431.96 and appendices A, A1, B, C1, D1, E1, F1, G, and G1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(3) Errata Sheet for ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009, <I>Methods of Testing for Rating Electrically Driven Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> March 27, 2019; IBR approved for appendices C1 and D1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.1- 2013 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013”), “Standard Method for Temperature Measurement,” ANSI-approved January 30, 2013; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.6- 2014 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6-2014”), “Standard Method for Humidity Measurement,” ANSI-approved July 3, 2014; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 58-1986 (RA 2014), (“ANSI/ASHRAE 58”), “Method of Testing for Rating Room Air-Conditioner and Packaged Terminal Air-Conditioner Heating Capacity,” ASHRAE reaffirmed July 3, 2014, IBR approved for § 431.96.
</P>
<P>(7) ASHRAE Standard 127-2007, “<I>Method of Testing for Rating Computer and Data Processing Room Unitary Air Conditioners,</I>” approved on June 28, 2007, (ASHRAE 127-2007), IBR approved for § 431.96 and appendix E to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(8) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 127-2020 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 127-2020”), <I>Method of Rating Air-Conditioning Units Serving Data Center (DC) and Other Information Technology Equipment (ITE) Spaces,</I> ANSI-approved on November 30, 2020; IBR approved for appendix E1 to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(9) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 198- 2013 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 198-2013”), “Method of Test for Rating DX-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems for Moisture Removal Capacity and Moisture Removal Efficiency,” ANSI-approved January 30, 2013; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>IIR.</I> International Institute of Refrigeration, 177 Boulevard Malesherbes 75017 Paris, France; +33 (0)1 42 27 32 35; <I>www.iifiir.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Properties of Secondary Working Fluids for Indirect Systems,</I> including Section 2.3 Errata Sheet, Melinder, published 2010 (“Melinder 2010”), IBR approved for appendix C1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(e) <I>ISO.</I> International Organization for Standardization, Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland; +41 22 749 01 11; <I>www.iso.org/store.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) ISO Standard 13256-1 (“ISO 13256-1:1998”), “<I>Water-source heat pumps—Testing and rating for performance—Part 1: Water-to-air and brine-to-air heat pumps,</I>” approved 1998; IBR approved for appendix C to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 28989, May 16, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 37148, June 30, 2015; 80 FR 79669, Dec. 23, 2015; 87 FR 45198, July 27, 2022; 87 FR 63896, Oct. 20, 2022; 87 FR 75168, Dec. 7, 2022; 87 FR 77325, Dec. 16, 2022; 88 FR 21839, Apr. 11, 2023; 88 FR 84228, Dec. 4, 2023; 89 FR 44037, May 20, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.96" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.48.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.96   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy efficiency of commercial air conditioners and heat pumps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains test procedures for measuring, pursuant to EPCA, the energy efficiency of any small, large, or very large commercial package air-conditioning and heating equipment, packaged terminal air conditioners and packaged terminal heat pumps, computer room air conditioners, variable refrigerant flow systems, single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps, and direct expansion-dedicated outdoor air systems.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> (1) Determine the energy efficiency and capacity of each category of covered equipment by conducting the test procedure(s) listed in table 1 to this paragraph (b) along with any additional testing provisions set forth in paragraphs (c) through (g) of this section and appendices A through G1 to this subpart, that apply to the energy efficiency descriptor for that equipment, category, and cooling capacity. The omitted sections of the test procedures listed in table 1 must not be used. For equipment with multiple appendices listed in table 1, consult the notes at the beginning of those appendices to determine the applicable appendix to use for testing.
</P>
<P>(2) After June 24, 2016, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of packaged terminal air conditioners and heat pumps (PTACs and PTHPs) must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this section. Manufacturers conducting tests of PTACs and PTHPs after July 30, 2015 and prior to June 24, 2016, must conduct such test in accordance with either table 1 to this section or § 431.96 as it appeared at 10 CFR part 431, subpart F, in the 10 CFR parts 200 to 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2014. Any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of such packaged terminal air conditioners and heat pumps must be in accordance with whichever version is selected.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)—Test Procedures for Commercial Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity or moisture removal capacity 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Energy efficiency descriptor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Use tests, conditions, and procedures in
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional test procedure provisions as indicated in the listed paragraphs of this section
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air-Cooled, 3-Phase, AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SEER and HSPF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix F to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air-Cooled, 3-Phase, AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SEER2 and HSPF2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix F1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air-Cooled AC and HP (excluding double-duct AC and HP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER, IEER, and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air-Cooled AC and HP (excluding double-duct AC and HP)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER2, COP2, IVEC, and IVHE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Double-duct AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER, IEER, and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Double-duct AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER2, COP2, IVEC, and IVHE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water-Cooled and Evaporatively-Cooled AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER and IEER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water-Cooled and Evaporatively-Cooled AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER2 and IVEC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix A1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Source Heat Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix C to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Source Heat Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER and ACOP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix C1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Packaged Terminal Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paragraph (g) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Paragraphs (c), (e), and (g).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Computer Room Air Conditioners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SCOP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix E to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Computer Room Air Conditioners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h or &lt;930,000 Btu/h 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NSenCOP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix E1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-split Systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h (3-phase)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SEER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix F to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-split Systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h (3-phase)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SEER2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix F1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-split Systems, Air-cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h (3-phase)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SEER and HSPF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix F to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-split Systems, Air-cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h (3-phase)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SEER2 and HSPF2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix F1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-split Systems, Air-cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix D to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-split Systems, Air-cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix D1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-split Systems, Water-source</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix D to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-split Systems, Water-source</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix D1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single Package Vertical Air Conditioners and Single Package Vertical Heat Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix G to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single Package Vertical Air Conditioners and Single Package Vertical Heat Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC and HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER, IEER, and COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix G1 to this subpart 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;324 lbs. of moisture removal/hr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 and ISCOP2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix B to this subpart</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Moisture removal capacity applies only to direct expansion-dedicated outdoor air systems.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For equipment with multiple appendices listed in this table, consult the notes at the beginning of those appendices to determine the applicable appendix to use for testing.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> For upflow ducted and downflow floor-mounted computer room air conditioners, the test procedure in appendix E1 to this subpart applies to equipment with net sensible cooling capacity less than 930,000 Btu/h. For all other configurations of computer room air conditioners, the test procedure in appendix E1 to this subpart applies to equipment with net sensible cooling capacity less than 760,000 Btu/h.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Optional break-in period for tests conducted using AHRI 210/240-2008, AHRI 1230-2010, and ASHRAE 127-2007.</I> Manufacturers may optionally specify a “break-in” period, not to exceed 20 hours, to operate the equipment under test prior to conducting the test method specified by AHRI 210/240-2008 or ASHRAE 127-2007 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.95). A manufacturer who elects to use an optional compressor break-in period in its certification testing should record this information (including the duration) in the test data underlying the certified ratings that is required to be maintained under 10 CFR 429.71.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Refrigerant line length corrections for tests conducted using AHRI 1230-2010.</I> For test setups where it is physically impossible for the laboratory to use the required line length listed in Table 3 of the AHRI 1230-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.95), then the actual refrigerant line length used by the laboratory may exceed the required length and the following correction factors are applied:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Piping length beyond minimum, X
<br/>(ft)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Piping length beyond minimum, Y
<br/>(m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity correction
<br/>%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0&gt;X ≤20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0&gt;Y ≤6.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20&gt;X ≤40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1&gt;Y ≤12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40&gt;X ≤60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2&gt;Y ≤18.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60&gt;X ≤80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3&gt;Y ≤24.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80&gt;X ≤100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24.4&gt;Y ≤30.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100 &gt;X ≤120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30.5&gt;Y ≤36.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Additional provisions for equipment set-up.</I> The only additional specifications that may be used in setting up the basic model for test are those set forth in the installation and operation manual shipped with the unit. Each unit should be set up for test in accordance with the manufacturer installation and operation manuals. Paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section provide specifications for addressing key information typically found in the installation and operation manuals.
</P>
<P>(1) If a manufacturer specifies a range of superheat, sub-cooling, and/or refrigerant pressure in its installation and operation manual for a given basic model, any value(s) within that range may be used to determine refrigerant charge or mass of refrigerant, unless the manufacturer clearly specifies a rating value in its installation and operation manual, in which case the specified rating value shall be used.
</P>
<P>(2) The air flow rate used for testing must be that set forth in the installation and operation manuals being shipped to the commercial customer with the basic model and clearly identified as that used to generate the DOE performance ratings. If a rated air flow value for testing is not clearly identified, a value of 400 standard cubic feet per minute (scfm) per ton shall be used.
</P>
<P>(3) For VRF systems, the test set-up and the fixed compressor speeds (<I>i.e.,</I> the maximum, minimum, and any intermediate speeds used for testing) should be recorded and maintained as part of the test data underlying the certified ratings that is required to be maintained under 10 CFR 429.71.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Manufacturer involvement in assessment or enforcement testing for variable refrigerant flow systems.</I> A manufacturer's representative will be allowed to witness assessment and/or enforcement testing for VRF systems. The manufacturer's representative will be allowed to inspect and discuss set-up only with a DOE representative and adjust only the modulating components during testing in the presence of a DOE representative that are necessary to achieve steady-state operation. Only previously documented specifications for set-up as specified under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section will be used.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Test Procedures for Packaged Terminal Air Conditioners and Packaged Terminal Heat Pumps</I>—(1) <I>Cooling mode testing.</I> The test method for testing packaged terminal air conditioners and packaged terminal heat pumps in cooling mode shall consist of application of the methods and conditions in AHRI 310/380-2014 sections 3, 4.1, 4.2, 4.3, and 4.4 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.95), and in ANSI/ASHRAE 16 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.95) or ANSI/ASHRAE 37 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.95), except that instruments used for measuring electricity input shall be accurate to within ±0.5 percent of the quantity measured. Where definitions provided in AHRI 310/380-2014, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, and/or ANSI/ASHRAE 37 conflict with the definitions provided in 10 CFR 431.92, the 10 CFR 431.92 definitions shall be used. Where AHRI 310/380-2014 makes reference to ANSI/ASHRAE 16, it is interpreted as reference to ANSI/ASHRAE 16-1983 (RA 2014).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Heating mode testing.</I> The test method for testing packaged terminal heat pumps in heating mode shall consist of application of the methods and conditions in AHRI 310/380-2014 sections 3, 4.1, 4.2 (except the section 4.2.1.2(b) reference to ANSI/ASHRAE 37), 4.3, and 4.4 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.95), and in ANSI/ASHRAE 58 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.95). Where definitions provided in AHRI 310/380-2014 or ANSI/ASHRAE 58 conflict with the definitions provided in 10 CFR 431.92, the 10 CFR 431.92 definitions shall be used. Where AHRI 310/380-2014 makes reference to ANSI/ASHRAE 58, it is interpreted as reference to ANSI/ASHRAE 58-1986 (RA 2014).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Wall sleeves.</I> For packaged terminal air conditioners and packaged terminal heat pumps, the unit must be installed in a wall sleeve with a 14 inch depth if available. If a 14 inch deep wall sleeve is not available, use the available wall sleeve option closest to 14 inches in depth. The area(s) between the wall sleeve and the insulated partition between the indoor and outdoor rooms must be sealed to eliminate all air leakage through this area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Optional pre-filling of the condensate drain pan.</I> For packaged terminal air conditioners and packaged terminal heat pumps, test facilities may add water to the condensate drain pan of the equipment under test (until the water drains out due to overflow devices or until the pan is full) prior to conducting the test method specified by AHRI 310/380-2014 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.95). No specific level of water mineral content or water temperature is required for the water added to the condensate drain pan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Filter selection.</I> For packaged terminal air conditioners and packaged terminal heat pumps, the indoor filter used during testing shall be the standard or default filter option shipped with the model. If a particular model is shipped without a filter, the unit must be tested with a MERV-1 filter sized appropriately for the filter slot.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 28989, May 16, 2012; 80 FR 11857, Mar. 5, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 37148, June 30, 2015; 80 FR 79669, Dec. 23, 2015; 87 FR 45198, July 27, 2022; 87 FR 63897, Oct. 20, 2022; 87 FR 75168, Dec. 7, 2022; 87 FR 77325, Dec. 16, 2022; 88 FR 21839, Apr. 11, 2023; 88 FR 36424, June 2, 2023; 88 FR 84228, Dec. 4, 2023; 89 FR 44037, May 20, 2024; 90 FR 6794, Jan. 21, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="49" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.49" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Efficiency Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.97" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.97   Energy efficiency standards and their compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All basic models of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment must be tested for performance using the applicable DOE test procedure in § 431.96, be compliant with the applicable standards set forth in paragraphs (b) through (i) of this section, and be certified to the Department under 10 CFR part 429.
</P>
<P>(b) Each air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h and double-duct air conditioners or heat pumps) manufactured on or after January 1, 2023, and before January 1, 2029, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 1 to this paragraph (b). Each air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h and double-duct air conditioners or heat pumps) manufactured on or after January 1, 2029, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 2 to this paragraph (b). Each water-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment manufactured on or after the compliance date listed in table 3 to this paragraph (b) must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 3. Each evaporatively-cooled commercial air conditioning and heating equipment manufactured on or after the compliance date listed in table 4 to this paragraph (b) must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 4. Each double-duct air conditioner or heat pump manufactured on or after January 1, 2010, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 5 to this paragraph (b).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Air-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity Greater Than or Equal to 65,000 Btu/<E T="01">h</E> (Excluding Double-Duct Air-Conditioners and Heat Pumps)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supplementary heating type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum


<br/>efficiency 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured

<br/>starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Air-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity Greater Than or Equal to 65,000 Btu/h (Excluding Double-Duct Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 14.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 14.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 14.1


<br/>COP = 3.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 13.9


<br/>COP = 3.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 14.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 14.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 13.5


<br/>COP = 3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 13.3


<br/>COP = 3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 13.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 13.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 12.5


<br/>COP = 3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IEER = 12.3


<br/>COP = 3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2023.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See section 3 of appendix A to this subpart for the test conditions upon which the COP standards are based.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)—Updated Minimum Efficiency Standards for Air-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity Greater Than or Equal to 65,000 Btu/<E T="01">h</E> (Excluding Double-Duct Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supplementary heating type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured

<br/>starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Air-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity Greater Than or Equal to 65,000 Btu/h (Excluding Double-Duct Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 14.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 13.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 13.4


<br/>IVHE = 6.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 13.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 13.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 13.1


<br/>IVHE = 6.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 12.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 12.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IVEC = 12.1


<br/>IVHE = 5.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2029.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)—Minimum Cooling Efficiency Standards for Water-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supplementary heating type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured

<br/>starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Water-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 29, 2003.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2013.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2013.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2014.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2014.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2014.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2014.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)—Minimum Cooling Efficiency Standards for Evaporatively-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supplementary heating type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured

<br/>starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row"><E T="02">Evaporatively-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 29, 2003.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2013.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2013.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2014.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2014.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2014.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 1, 2014.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Double-Duct Air Conditioners or Heat Pumps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supplementary heating type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum


<br/>efficiency 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured

<br/>starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Double-Duct Air Conditioners or Heat Pumps</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.0
<br/>COP = 3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.8
<br/>COP = 3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.6
<br/>COP = 3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.4
<br/>COP = 3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric Resistance Heating or No Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.5
<br/>COP = 3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.3
<br/>COP = 3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See section 3 of appendix A to this subpart for the test conditions upon which the COP standards are based.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Each water-source heat pump manufactured starting on the compliance date listed in table 6 to this paragraph (c) must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (c).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Water-Source Heat Pumps (Water-to-Air, Water-Loop)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row"><E T="02">Water-Source Heat Pumps (Water-to-Air, Water-Loop)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&lt;17,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 12.2


<br/>COP = 4.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 9, 2015.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥17,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 13.0


<br/>COP = 4.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 9, 2015.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 13.0


<br/>COP = 4.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 9, 2015.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Each non-standard size packaged terminal air conditioner (PTAC) and packaged terminal heat pump (PTHP) manufactured on or after October 7, 2010, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 7 to this paragraph (d). Each standard size PTAC manufactured on or after October 8, 2012, and before January 1, 2017, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 7. Each standard size PTHP manufactured on or after October 8, 2012, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 7. Each standard size PTAC manufactured on or after January 1, 2017, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in table 8 to this paragraph (d).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for PTAC and PTHP
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: products


<br/>manufactured on

<br/>and after . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PTAC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standard Size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;7,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 8, 2012.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥7,000 Btu/h and ≤15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 13.8−(0.3 × Cap 
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 8, 2012.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 8, 2012.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-Standard Size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;7,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 7, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥7,000 Btu/h and ≤15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.9−(0.213 × Cap 
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 7, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 7.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 7, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PTHP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standard Size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;7,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.9 
<br/>COP = 3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 8, 2012.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥7,000 Btu/h and ≤15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 14.0−(0.3 × Cap 
<sup>1</sup>)
<br/>COP = 3.7−(0.052 × Cap 
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 8, 2012.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.5 
<br/>COP = 2.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 8, 2012.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-Standard Size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;7,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.3 
<br/>COP = 2.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 7, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥7,000 Btu/h and ≤15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.8−(0.213 × Cap 
<sup>1</sup>)
<br/>COP = 2.9−(0.026 × Cap 
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 7, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 7.6 
<br/>COP = 2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 7, 2010.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> “Cap” means cooling capacity in thousand Btu/h at 95  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> And manufactured before January 1, 2017. See table 8 to this paragraph (d) for updated efficiency standards that apply to this category of equipment manufactured on and after January 1, 2017.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)—Updated Minimum Efficiency Standards for PTAC
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: products


<br/>manufactured on

<br/>and after . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PTAC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standard Size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;7,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2017.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥7,000 Btu/h and ≤15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 14.0−(0.3 × Cap 
<sup>1</sup>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2017.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;15,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2017.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> “Cap” means cooling capacity in thousand Btu/h at 95  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e)(1) Each single package vertical air conditioner and single package vertical heat pump manufactured on or after January 1, 2010, but before October 9, 2015 (for models ≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h), or October 9, 2016 (for models ≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h), must meet the applicable minimum energy conservation standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (e)(1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(1)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Single Package Vertical Air Conditioners and Single Package Vertical Heat Pumps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sub-


<br/>category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: products


<br/>manufactured on and after . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps, single-phase and three-phase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.0


<br/>EER = 9.0
<br/>COP = 3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.


<br/>January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 8.9


<br/>EER = 8.9
<br/>COP = 3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.


<br/>January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 8.6


<br/>EER = 8.6
<br/>COP = 2.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.


<br/>January 1, 2010.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Each single package vertical air conditioner and single package vertical heat pump manufactured on and after October 9, 2015 (for models ≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h), or October 9, 2016 (for models ≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h), but before September 23, 2019, must meet the applicable minimum energy conservation standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (e)(2).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(2)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Single Package Vertical Air Conditioners and Single Package Vertical Heat Pumps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sub-


<br/>category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: products


<br/>manufactured on and after . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps, single-phase and three-phase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 9.0


<br/>EER = 9.0
<br/>COP = 3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.


<br/>January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.0


<br/>EER = 10.0
<br/>COP = 3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 9, 2015.


<br/>October 9, 2015.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.0


<br/>EER = 10.0
<br/>COP = 3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 9, 2016.


<br/>October 9, 2016.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) Each single package vertical air conditioner and single package vertical heat pump manufactured on and after September 23, 2019, must meet the applicable minimum energy conservation standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (e)(3).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to Paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(3)—Updated Minimum Efficiency Standards for Single Package Vertical Air Conditioners and Single Package Vertical Heat Pumps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sub-


<br/>category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: products


<br/>manufactured on and after . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps, single-phase and three-phase</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 11.0


<br/>EER = 11.0
<br/>COP = 3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">September 23, 2019.


<br/>September 23, 2019.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.0


<br/>EER = 10.0
<br/>COP = 3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 9, 2015.


<br/>October 9, 2015.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Single package vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AC


<br/>HP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">EER = 10.0


<br/>EER = 10.0
<br/>COP = 3.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 9, 2016.


<br/>October 9, 2016.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f)(1) Each computer room air conditioner with a net sensible cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h manufactured on or after October 29, 2012, and before May 28, 2024 and each computer room air conditioner with a net sensible cooling capacity greater than or equal to 65,000 Btu/h and less than 760,000 Btu/h manufactured on or after October 29, 2013, and before May 28, 2024 must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (f)(1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to Paragraph <E T="01">(f)(1)</E>—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Computer Room Air Conditioners
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Net sensible cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum SCOP efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Downflow
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Upflow
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.79
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled with Fluid Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.44
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.39
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol-Cooled with Fluid Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.94</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Each computer room air conditioner manufactured on or after May 28, 2024, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (f)(2).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to Paragraph <E T="01">(f)(2)</E>—Updated Minimum Efficiency Standards for Floor-Mounted Computer Room Air Conditioners
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Downflow and upflow ducted
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Upflow non-ducted and horizontal flow
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Net sensible cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum NSenCOP


<br/>efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Net sensible cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum NSenCOP


<br/>efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Downflow
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Upflow ducted
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Upflow


<br/>non-ducted
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Horizontal flow
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;80,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥80,000 Btu/h and &lt;295,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥295,000 Btu/h and &lt;930,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled with Fluid Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;80,000 Btu/h


<br/>≥80,000 Btu/h and &lt;295,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.70


<br/>2.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.67


<br/>2.55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h


<br/>≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.09


<br/>1.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.65


<br/>2.55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥295,000 Btu/h and &lt;930,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;80,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.79
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥80,000 Btu/h and &lt;295,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.68
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥295,000 Btu/h and &lt;930,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled with Fluid Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;80,000 Btu/h


<br/>≥80,000 Btu/h and &lt;295,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.77


<br/>2.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.74


<br/>2.65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h


<br/>≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.35


<br/>2.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.71


<br/>2.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥295,000 Btu/h and &lt;930,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.58</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;80,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥80,000 Btu/h and &lt;295,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥295,000 Btu/h and &lt;930,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol-Cooled with Fluid Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;80,000 Btu/h


<br/>≥80,000 Btu/h and &lt;295,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.51


<br/>2.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.48


<br/>2.16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h


<br/>≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00


<br/>1.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.44


<br/>2.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥295,000 Btu/h and &lt;930,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14 to Paragraph <E T="01">(f)(2)</E>—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Ceiling-Mounted Computer Room Air Conditioners
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Net sensible cooling capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Minimum NSenCOP


<br/>efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ducted
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-ducted
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled with Free Air Discharge Condenser</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;29,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥29,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled with Free Air Discharge Condenser and Fluid Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;29,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥29,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled with Ducted Condenser</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;29,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥29,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.86
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled with Fluid Economizer and Ducted Condenser</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;29,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥29,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;29,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.41
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥29,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled with Fluid Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;29,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥29,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol-Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;29,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥29,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Glycol-Cooled with Fluid Economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;29,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.95
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥29,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.93
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.76</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g)(1) Each variable refrigerant flow air conditioner or heat pump manufactured on or after the compliance date listed in table 15 to this paragraph (g)(1) and prior to January 1, 2024, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (g)(1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15 to Paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(1)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling


<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heating type 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured

<br/>on and after . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Multi-Split Air Conditioners (Air-Cooled)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.2 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.8 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Multi-Split Heat Pumps (Air-Cooled)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0 EER, 3.3 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.8 EER, 3.3 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.6 EER, 3.2 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.4 EER, 3.2 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5 EER, 3.2 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Other Types of Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3 EER, 3.2 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2010.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Multi-Split Heat Pumps (Water-Source)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;17,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Without Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 EER,


<br/>4.2 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 29, 2012.


<br/>October 29, 2003.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">With Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.8 EER


<br/>4.2 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 29, 2012.


<br/>October 29, 2003.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥17,000 Btu/h and &lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 EER, 4.2 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 29, 2003.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 EER, 4.2 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 29, 2003.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Without Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 EER, 3.9 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 29, 2013.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">With Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8 EER, 3.9 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 29, 2013.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> VRF multi-split heat pumps (air-cooled) with heat recovery fall under the category of “All Other Types of Heating” unless they also have electric resistance heating, in which case it falls under the category for “No Heating or Electric Resistance Heating.”</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Each variable refrigerant flow air conditioner or heat pump (except air-cooled systems with cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h) manufactured on or after January 1, 2024, must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (g)(2).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16 to Paragraph (<E T="01">g</E>)(2)—Updated Minimum Efficiency Standards for Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heating type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Multi-Split Air Conditioners (Air-Cooled)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15.5 IEER.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.9 IEER.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9 IEER.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Multi-Split Heat Pumps (Air-Cooled)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Pump without Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.6 IEER, 3.3 COP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Pump with Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.4 IEER, 3.3 COP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Pump without Heat Recovery


<br/>Heat Pump with Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9 IEER, 3.2 COP.


<br/>13.7 IEER, 3.2 COP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Pump without Heat Recovery


<br/>Heat Pump with Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.7 IEER, 3.2 COP.


<br/>12.5 IEER, 3.2 COP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Multi-Split Heat Pumps (Water-Source)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Pump without Heat Recovery


<br/>Heat Pump with Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0 IEER, 4.3 COP.


<br/>15.8 IEER, 4.3 COP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Pump without Heat Recovery


<br/>Heat Pump with Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0 IEER, 4.3 COP.


<br/>15.8 IEER, 4.3 COP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Pump without Heat Recovery


<br/>Heat Pump with Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.0 IEER, 4.0 COP.


<br/>13.8 IEER, 4.0 COP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat Pump without Heat Recovery


<br/>Heat Pump with Heat Recovery</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 IEER, 3.9 COP.


<br/>11.8 IEER, 3.9 COP.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(h) Each direct expansion-dedicated outdoor air system manufactured on or after the compliance date listed in table 17 to this paragraph (h) must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (h).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 17 to Paragraph (<E T="01">h</E>)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment


<br/>category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment manufactured starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct expansion-dedicated outdoor air systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(AC)—Air-cooled without ventilation energy recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 = 3.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(AC w/VERS)—Air-cooled with ventilation energy recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 = 5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ASHP)—Air-source heat pumps without ventilation energy recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 = 3.8 
<br/>ISCOP2 = 2.05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ASHP w/VERS)—Air-source heat pumps with ventilation energy recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 = 5.0 
<br/>ISCOP2 = 3.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(WC)—Water-cooled without ventilation energy recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 = 4.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(WC w/VERS)—Water-cooled with ventilation energy recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 = 5.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(WSHP)—Water-source heat pumps without ventilation energy recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 = 3.8 
<br/>ISCOP2 = 2.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 2024.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(WSHP w/VERS)—Water-source heat pumps with ventilation energy recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISMRE2 = 4.6 
<br/>ISCOP2 = 4.04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">May 1, 2024.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) Air-cooled, three-phase, commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h manufactured on or after the compliance date listed in tables 18 and 19 to this paragraph (i) must meet the applicable minimum energy efficiency standard level(s) set forth in this paragraph (i).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 18 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)—Minimum Efficiency Standards for Air-Cooled, Three-Phase, Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity of Less Than 65,000 Btu/<E T="01">h</E> and Air-Cooled, Three-Phase, Small Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity of Less Than 65,000 Btu/<E T="01">h</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling


<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured

<br/>starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split-System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.0 SEER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 16, 2008.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.0 SEER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2017.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split-System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.0 SEER
<br/>8.2 HSPF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2017.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.0 SEER
<br/>8.0 HSPF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2017.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Air Conditioners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.0 SEER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 16, 2008.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Heat Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.0 SEER
<br/>7.7 HSPF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 16, 2008.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> And manufactured before January 1, 2025. For equipment manufactured on or after January 1, 2025, see table 19 to this paragraph (i) for updated efficiency standards.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 19 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)—Updated Minimum Efficiency Standards for Air-Cooled, Three-Phase, Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity of Less Than 65,000 Btu/<E T="01">h</E> and Air-Cooled, Three-Phase, Small Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity of Less Than 65,000 Btu/<E T="01">h</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling


<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment


<br/>manufactured

<br/>starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split-System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4 SEER2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4 SEER2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split-System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.3 SEER2 
<br/>7.5 HSPF2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4 SEER2 
<br/>6.7 HSPF2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Space-Constrained Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤30,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split-System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.7 SEER2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Space-Constrained Commercial Package Air Conditioning Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤30,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9 SEER2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Space-Constrained Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤30,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split-System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9 SEER2
<br/>7.0 HSPF2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Space-Constrained Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤30,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.9 SEER2 
<br/>6.7 HSPF2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small-Duct, High-Velocity Commercial Package Air Conditioning</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split-System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.0 SEER2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small-Duct, High-Velocity Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split-System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.0 SEER2
<br/>6.9 HSPF2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Air Conditioners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4 SEER2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VRF Heat Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13.4 SEER2 
<br/>7.5 HSPF2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">January 1, 2025.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 44134, May 20, 2024]
















</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment (Excluding Air-Cooled Equipment With a Cooling Capacity Less Than 65,000 Btu/h)




</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to May 15, 2025, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicable provisions (appendix A to subpart F of part 431 for air-cooled equipment, and table 1 to § 431.96 for water-cooled and evaporatively-cooled equipment) as they appeared in subpart F of 10 CFR part 431, revised as of January 1, 2024; or
</P>
<P>(b) This appendix.
</P>
<P>Beginning May 15, 2025, and prior to the compliance date of amended standards for commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h) based on integrated ventilation, economizing, and cooling (IVEC) and integrated ventilation and heating efficiency (IVHE) (see § 431.97), representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.
</P>
<P>Beginning on the compliance date of amended standards for commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h) based on IVEC and IVHE (see § 431.97), representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with appendix A1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers may also certify compliance with any amended energy conservation standards for commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h) based on IVEC or IVHE prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards (see § 431.97), and those compliance certifications must be based on testing in accordance with appendix A1 to this subpart.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95, the entire standard for AHRI 340/360-2022 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. However, certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 340/360-2022 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, as set forth in this section 1 are inapplicable. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<P>1.1. AHRI 340/360-2022:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) The following subsections of Section 3 Definitions are inapplicable: 3.2 (Basic Model), 3.4 (Commercial and Industrial Unitary Air-conditioning Equipment), 3.5 (Commercial and Industrial Unitary Heat Pump), 3.7 (Double-duct System), 3.8 (Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER)), 3.12 (Heating Coefficient of Performance (COP<E T="52">H</E>)), 3.14 (Integrated Energy Efficiency Ratio (IEER)), 3.23 (Published Rating), 3.26 (Single Package Air-Conditioners), 3.27 (Single Package Heat Pumps), 3.29 (Split System Air-conditioners), 3.30 (Split System Heat Pump), 3.36 (Year Round Single Package Air-conditioners),
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7 Minimum Data Requirements for Published Ratings is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(e) Section 8 Operating Requirements is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(f) Section 9 Marking and Nameplate Data is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(g) Section 10 Conformance Conditions is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(h) Appendix B References—Informative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(i) Appendix D Unit Configuration for Standard Efficiency Determination—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(j) Appendix F International Rating Conditions—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(k) Appendix G Examples of IEER Calculations—Informative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(l) Appendix H Example of Determination of Fan and Motor Efficiency for Non-standard Integrated Indoor Fan and Motors—Informative is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(m) Appendix I Double-duct System Efficiency Metrics with Non-Zero Outdoor Air External Static Pressure (ESP)—Normative is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>1.2. ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4 Classifications is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD1>2. General
</HD1>
<P>Determine the applicable energy efficiency metrics (IEER, EER, and COP) in accordance with this appendix and the applicable sections of AHRI 340/360-2022 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009.
</P>
<P>Section 3 of this appendix provides additional instructions for testing. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed by AHRI 340/360-2022, followed by ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE.
</P>
<HD1>3. Test Conditions
</HD1>
<P>The following conditions specified in Table 6 of AHRI 340/360-2022 apply when testing to certify to the energy conservation standards in § 431.97. For cooling mode tests for equipment subject to standards in terms of EER, test using the “Standard Rating Conditions Cooling”. For cooling mode tests for equipment subject to standards in terms of IEER, test using the “Standard Rating Conditions Cooling” and the “Standard Rating Part-Load Conditions (IEER)”. For heat pump heating mode tests for equipment subject to standards in terms of COP, test using the “Standard Rating Conditions (High Temperature Steady State Heating)”.
</P>
<P>For equipment subject to standards in terms of EER, representations of IEER made using the “Standard Rating Part-Load Conditions (IEER)” in Table 6 of AHRI 340/360-2022 are optional. For equipment subject to standards in terms of IEER, representations of EER made using the “Standard Rating Conditions Cooling” in Table 6 of AHRI 340/360-2022 are optional. Representations of COP made using the “Standard Rating Conditions (Low Temperature Steady State Heating)” in Table 6 of AHRI 340/360-2022 are optional and are not to be used as the basis for determining compliance with energy efficiency standards in terms of COP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 44046, May 20, 2024]












</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A1 to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment (Excluding Air-Cooled Equipment With a Cooling Capacity Less Than 65,000 Btu/h)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to May 15, 2025, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicable provisions (appendix A to subpart F of part 431 for air-cooled equipment, and table 1 to § 431.96 for water-cooled and evaporatively-cooled equipment) as it appeared in subpart F of 10 CFR part 431, revised as of January 1, 2024; or
</P>
<P>(b) Appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>Beginning May 15, 2025, and prior to the compliance date of amended standards for commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h) based on integrated ventilation, economizing, and cooling (IVEC) and integrated ventilation and heating efficiency (IVHE) (see § 431.97), representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>Beginning on the compliance date of amended standards for commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h) based on IVEC and IVHE (see § 431.97), representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h), including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers may also certify compliance with any amended energy conservation standards for commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (excluding air-cooled equipment with a cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h) based on IVEC or IVHE prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards (see § 431.97), and those compliance certifications must be based on testing in accordance with this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95, the entire standard for AHRI 1340-2023 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. However, certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 1340-2023 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, as listed in this section 1 are inapplicable. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<P>1.1. AHRI 1340-2023:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) The following subsections of section 3 Definitions are inapplicable: 3.2.2 (Barometric Relief Damper), 3.2.3 (Basic Model), 3.2.5 (Commercial and Industrial Unitary Air-conditioner and Heat Pump Equipment), 3.2.5.1 (Commercial and Industrial Unitary Air-Conditioning System), 3.2.5.2 (Commercial and Industrial Unitary Heat Pump System), 3.2.7 (Double-duct System), 3.2.9 (Desiccant Dehumidification Component), 3.2.10 (Drain Pan Heater), 3.2.11.1 (Air Economizer), 3.2.12 (Energy Efficiency Ratio 2), 3.2.13 (Evaporative Cooling), 3.2.13.1 (Direct Evaporative Cooling System), 3.2.13.2 (Indirect Evaporative Cooling System), 3.2.14 (Fresh Air Damper), 3.2.15 (Fire, Smoke, or Isolation Damper), 3.2.17 (Hail Guard), 3.2.19 (Heating Coefficient of Performance 2 (COP2<E T="52">H</E>)), 3.2.20 (High-Effectiveness Indoor Air Filtration), 3.2.22 (Indoor Single Package Air-conditioners), 3.2.23 (Integrated Ventilation, Economizing, and Cooling Efficiency (IVEC)), 3.2.34 (Integrated Ventilation and Heating Efficiency (IVHE)), 3.2.29 (Non-standard Ducted Condenser Fan), 3.2.31.2 (Boost2 Heating Operating Level (B2)), 3.2.34 (Power Correction Capacitor), 3.2.35 (Powered Exhaust Air Fan), 3.2.36 (Powered Return Air Fan), 3.2.37 (Process Heat Recovery, Reclaim, or Thermal Storage Coil), 3.2.38 (Published Rating), 3.2.41 (Refrigerant Reheat Coil), 3.2.42 (Single Package Air-conditioner), 3.2.43 (Single Package Heat Pumps), 3.2.44 (Single Package System), 3.2.45 (Sound Trap), 3.2.46 (Split System), 3.2.51 (Steam or Hydronic Heat Coils), 3.2.53 (UV Lights), 3.2.55 (Ventilation Energy Recovery System (VERS)), 3.2.56 (Year Round Single Package Air-conditioner), 3.2.57 (Year Round Single Package Heat Pump),
</P>
<P>(d) Subsection 5.2 (Optional System Features) of section 5 Test Requirements is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(e) The following subsections of section 6 Rating Requirements are inapplicable: 6.4 (Rating Values), 6.5 (Uncertainty), and 6.6 (Verification Testing),
</P>
<P>(f) Section 7 Minimum Data Requirements for Published Ratings is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(g) Section 8 Operating Requirements is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(h) Section 9 Marking and Nameplate Data is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(i) Section 10 Conformance Conditions is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(j) Appendix B References—Informative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(k) Sections D.1 (Purpose) and D.2 (Configuration Requirements) of Appendix D Unit Configuration for Standard Efficiency Determination—Normative are inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(l) Appendix F International Rating Conditions—Normative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(m) Appendix G Example of Determination of Fan and Motor Efficiency for Non-standard Integrated Indoor Fan and Motors—Informative is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(n) Appendix H Determination of Low-temperature Cut-in and Cut-out Temperatures—Normative is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>1.2. ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4 Classifications is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD1>2. General
</HD1>
<P>For air conditioners and heat pumps, determine IVEC and IVHE (as applicable) in accordance with this appendix and the applicable sections of AHRI 1340-2023 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Representations of energy efficiency ratio 2 (EER2) and IVHE<E T="52">C</E> may optionally be made. Representations of coefficient of performance 2 (COP2) at 5  °F, 17  °F, and 47  °F may optionally be made.
</P>
<P>Sections 3 and 4 of this appendix provide additional instructions for testing. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed by AHRI 1340-2023, followed by ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE.
</P>
<HD1>3. Test Conditions
</HD1>
<P>The following conditions specified in AHRI 1340-2023 apply when testing to certify to the energy conservation standards in § 431.97. For cooling mode, use the rating conditions in Table 7 of AHRI 1340-2023. For heat pump heating mode tests, use the rating conditions in Table 23 of AHRI 1340-2023 and the IVHE building load profile in Table 22 of AHRI 1340-2023.
</P>
<P>Representations of EER2 made using the “Cooling Bin A” conditions in Table 7 of AHRI 1340-2023 are optional. Representations of IVHE<E T="52">C</E> made using the IVHE<E T="52">C</E> Cold Climate building load profile in Table 22 of AHRI 1340-2023 are optional. Representations of COP2<E T="52">47</E>, COP2<E T="52">17</E>, and COP2<E T="52">5</E> are optional.
</P>
<HD1>4. Tower Fan and Pump Power Rate (TFPPR)
</HD1>
<P>Where equations 8, 10, 11, and 13 to AHRI 1340-2023 call for using the cooling tower fan and condenser water pump power rate (TFPPR) for the cooling bin specified in Table 7 to AHRI 1340-2023, instead use the TFPPR value for the cooling bin specified in table 1 to this appendix. Where equation 22 to AHRI 1340-2023 calls for using a value of 0.0094 W/(Btu/h) for TFPPR, instead use a value of 0.0102 W/(Btu/h).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Tower Fan and Pump Power Rate
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[TFPPR]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling bin
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling Bin A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling Bin B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling Bin C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling Bin D
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tower Fan and Pump Power Rate (TFPPR), W/(Btu/h)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0102</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0099</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0121</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0430</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>5. Additional Heating Operating Level Provisions
</HD1>
<HD2>5.1. Boost2 Heating Operating Level Definition
</HD2>
<P>In place of the boost2 heating operating level definition in section 3.2.31.2 of AHRI 1340-2023, use the following definition: An operating level allowed by the controls at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature with a capacity at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature that is less than or equal to the maximum capacity allowed by the controls at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature and greater than the capacity of:
</P>
<P>(a) The boost heating operating level at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature, if there is an operating level that meets the definition for boost heating operating level specified in section 3.2.31.1 of AHRI 1340-2023; or
</P>
<P>(b) The high heating operating level at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature, if there is not an operating level that meets the definition for boost heating operating level specified in section 3.2.31.1 of AHRI 1340-2023.
</P>
<HD2>5.2. Requirements for H5B2 Test in Table 23 to AHRI 1340-2023
</HD2>
<P>In place of the third to last paragraph of section 6.3.6 of AHRI 1340-2023, use the following provisions.
</P>
<P>Run the H5B2 test in Table 23 of AHRI 1340-2023 only if there is an operating level allowed by the controls at 5.0  °F that meets the definition of the boost2 heating operating level specified in section 5.1 of this appendix, and the H5B2 test is being used to determine the capacity at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature and/or COP2<E T="52">5</E>.
</P>
<P>If the unit has a boost heating operating level, run the H5B2 test in Table 23 of AHRI 1340-2023 with an operating level allowed by the controls at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature that has a capacity at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature that is greater than the capacity of the boost heating operating level at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature and less than or equal to the maximum capacity allowed by the controls at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature.
</P>
<P>If the unit does not have a boost heating operating level, run the H5B2 test in Table 23 of AHRI 1340-2023 with an operating level allowed by the controls at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature that has a capacity at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature that is greater than the capacity of the high heating operating level at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature and less than or equal to the maximum capacity allowed by the controls at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature. Use the indoor airflow that is used by the controls at 5.0  °F outdoor dry-bulb temperature when operating at the chosen operating level.
</P>
<P>The H5B2 test shall not be used in the calculation of IVHE or IVHE<E T="52">C</E>.
</P>
<HD2>5.3. Operating Level Requirements for COP2
</HD2>
<P>Any references to COP2<E T="52">H</E> in AHRI 1340-2023 shall be considered synonymous with COP2 as defined in § 431.92. In place of section 6.3.14.2 of AHRI 1340-2023, use the following provisions.
</P>
<P>To determine COP2<E T="52">47</E>, use capacity and power determined for the H47H test.
</P>
<P>To determine COP2<E T="52">17</E>, the following provisions apply. For units without a boost heating operating level, use capacity and power determined for the H17H test. For units with a boost operating level, use capacity and power determined for the H17B test.
</P>
<P>To determine COP2<E T="52">5</E>, the following provisions apply. For units without a boost heating operating level and without a boost2 heating operating level, use capacity and power determined for the H5H test. For units with a boost heating operating level and without a boost2 heating operating level, use capacity and power determined for the H5B test. For units with a boost2 heating operating level, use capacity and power determined for the H5B2 test.
</P>
<HD1>6. Set-Up and Test Provisions for Specific Components
</HD1>
<P>When testing equipment that includes any of the features listed in table 2 to this appendix, test in accordance with the set-up and test provisions specified in table 2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Test Provisions for Specific Components
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test provisions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mild or cold weather</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any air economizer that is factory-installed, place the economizer in the 100% return position and close and seal the outside air dampers for testing. For any modular air economizer shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the economizer for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric Relief Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly with dampers and means to automatically set the damper position in a closed position and one or more open positions to allow venting directly to the outside a portion of the building air that is returning to the unit, rather than allowing it to recirculate to the indoor coil and back to the building</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any barometric relief dampers that are factory-installed, close and seal the dampers for testing. For any modular barometric relief dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desiccant Dehumidification Components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that reduces the moisture content of the supply air through moisture transfer with solid or liquid desiccants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disable desiccant dehumidification components for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Drain Pan Heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heater that heats the drain pan to make certain that water shed from the outdoor coil during a defrost does not freeze</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disconnect drain pan heaters for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Evaporative Pre-cooling of Air-cooled Condenser Intake Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water is evaporated into the air entering the air-cooled condenser to lower the dry-bulb temperature and thereby increase efficiency of the refrigeration cycle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disconnect the unit from a water supply for testing <E T="03">i.e.,</E> operate without active evaporative cooling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any fire/smoke/isolation dampers that are factory-installed, set the dampers in the fully open position for testing. For any modular fire/smoke/isolation dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fresh Air Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly with dampers and means to set the damper position in a closed and one open position to allow air to be drawn into the equipment when the indoor fan is operating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any fresh air dampers that are factory-installed, close and seal the dampers for testing. For any modular fresh air dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hail Guards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A grille or similar structure mounted to the outside of the unit covering the outdoor coil to protect the coil from hail, flying debris and damage from large objects</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove hail guards for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High-Effectiveness Indoor Air Filtration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoor air filters with greater air filtration effectiveness than the filters used for testing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with the standard filter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Power Correction Capacitors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A capacitor that increases the power factor measured at the line connection to the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove power correction capacitors for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Process Heat recovery/Reclaim Coils/Thermal Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located inside the unit that conditions the equipment's supply air using energy transferred from an external source using a vapor, gas, or liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disconnect the heat exchanger from its heat source for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerant Reheat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the supply air during cooling operation using high pressure refrigerant in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to cooling capacity provided by the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">De-activate refrigerant reheat coils for testing so as to provide the minimum (none if possible) reheat achievable by the system controls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coils used to provide supplemental heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with steam/hydronic heat coils in place but providing no heat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">UV Lights</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A lighting fixture and lamp mounted so that it shines light on the indoor coil, that emits ultraviolet light to inhibit growth of organisms on the indoor coil surfaces, the condensate drip pan, and/other locations within the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turn off UV lights for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilation Energy Recovery System (VERS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that preconditions outdoor air entering the equipment through direct or indirect thermal and/or moisture exchange with the exhaust air, which is defined as the building air being exhausted to the outside from the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any VERS that is factory-installed, place the VERS in the 100% return position and close and seal the outside air dampers and exhaust air dampers for testing, and do not energize any VERS subcomponents (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> energy recovery wheel motors). For any VERS module shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the VERS for testing.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 44047, May 20, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method For Measuring the Energy Consumption of Direct Expansion-Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Beginning July 24, 2023, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of direct expansion-dedicated outdoor air systems must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix. Manufacturers may elect to use this appendix early.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95, the entire standard for AHRI 920-2020, AHRI 1060-2018; ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6-2014, and ANSI/ASHRAE 198-2013. However, only enumerated provisions of AHRI 920-2020, ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6-2014, and ANSI/ASHRAE 198-2013, as listed in this section 1 are required. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. AHRI 920-2020
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3—Definitions, as specified in section 2.2.1(a) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5—Test Requirements, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6—Rating Requirements, as specified in section 2.2.1(c) of this appendix, omitting section 6.1.2 (but retaining sections 6.1.2.1-6.1.2.8) and 6.6.1;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 11—Symbols and Subscripts, as specified in section 2.2.1(d) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Appendix A—References—Normative, as specified in section 2.2.1(e) of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(f) Appendix C—ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 198 and ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37 Additions, Clarifications and Exceptions—Normative, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5.1—Temperature Measuring Instruments (excluding sections 5.1.1 and 5.1.2), as specified in sections 2.2.1(b) and (f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5.2—Refrigerant, Liquid, and Barometric Pressure Measuring Instruments, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Sections 5.3—Air Differential Pressure and Airflow Measurements, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Sections 5.5(b)—Volatile Refrigerant Measurement, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 6.1—Enthalpy Apparatus (excluding 6.1.1 and 6.1.3 through 6.1.6), as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 6.2—Nozzle Airflow Measuring Apparatus, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 6.3—Nozzles, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 6.4—External Static Pressure Measurements, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 6.5—Recommended Practices for Static Pressure Measurements, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 7.3—Indoor and Outdoor Air Enthalpy Methods, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(k) Section 7.4—Compressor Calibration Method, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(l) Section 7.5—Refrigerant Enthalpy Method, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(m) Section 7.6—Outdoor Liquid Coil Method, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(n) Section 7.7—Airflow Rate Measurement (excluding sections 7.7.1.2, 7.7.3, and 7.7.4), as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(o) Table 1—Applicable Test Methods, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(p) Section 8.6—Additional Requirements for the Outdoor Air Enthalpy Method, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(q) Table 2b—Test Tolerances (I-P Units), as specified in sections 2.2.1(c) and 2.2(f) of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(r) Errata sheet issued on October 3, 2016, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>1.3. ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6-2014
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 4—Classifications, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5—Requirements, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6—Instruments and Calibration, as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7.1—Standard Method Using the Cooled-Surface Condensation Hygrometer as specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7.4—Electronic and Other Humidity Instruments. As specified in section 2.2.1(f) of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>1.4. ANSI/ASHRAE 198-2013
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 4.4—Temperature Measuring Instrument, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4.5—Electrical Instruments, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4.6—Liquid Flow Measurement, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 4.7—Time and Mass Measurements, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 6.1—Test Room Requirements, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 6.6—Unit Preparation, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 7.1—Preparation of the Test Room(s), as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 7.2—Equipment Installation, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 8.2—Equilibrium, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(j) Section 8.4—Test Duration and Measurement Frequency, as specified in section 2.2.1(b) of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>2. Test Method
</HD2>
<HD3>2.1. Capacity
</HD3>
<P>Moisture removal capacity (in pounds per hour) and supply airflow rate (in standard cubic feet per minute) are determined according to AHRI 920-2020 as specified in section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>2.2. Efficiency
</HD3>
<P>2.2.1. Determine the ISMRE2 for all DX-DOASes and the ISCOP2 for all heat pump DX-DOASes in accordance with the following sections of AHRI 920-2020 and the additional provisions described in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3—Definitions, including the references to AHRI 1060-2018;
</P>
<P>(i) Non-standard Low-static Fan Motor. A supply fan motor that cannot maintain external static pressure as high as specified in Table 7 of AHRI 920-2020 when operating at a manufacturer-specified airflow rate and that is distributed in commerce as part of an individual model within the same basic model of a DX-DOAS that is distributed in commerce with a different motor specified for testing that can maintain the required external static pressure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Manufacturer-specified. Information provided by the manufacturer through manufacturer's installation instructions, as defined in Section 3.14 of AHRI 920-2020.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reserved
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5—Test Requirements, including the references to Sections 5.1, 5.2, 5.3, 5.5, 6.1, 6.2, 6.3, 6.4, and 7.7 (not including Sections 7.7.1.2, 7.7.3, and 7.7.4) of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, and Sections 4.4, 4.5, 4.6, 4.7, 5.1, 6.1, 6.6, 7.1, 7.2, 8.2, and 8.4 of ANSI/ASHRAE 198-2013;
</P>
<P>(i) All control settings are to remain unchanged for all Standard Rating Conditions once system set up has been completed, except as explicitly allowed or required by AHRI 920-2020 or as indicated in the supplementary test instructions (STI). Component operation shall be controlled by the unit under test once the provisions in section 2.2.1(c) of this appendix are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) Break-in. The break-in conditions and duration specified in section 5.6 of AHRI 920-2020 shall be manufacturer-specified values.
</P>
<P>(iii) Reserved
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6—Rating Requirements (omitting sections 6.1.2 and 6.6.1), including the references to Table 2b of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, and ANSI/ASHRAE 198-2013.
</P>
<P>(i) For water-cooled DX-DOASes, the “Condenser Water Entering Temperature, Cooling Tower Water” conditions specified in Table 4 of AHRI 920-2020 shall be used. For water-source heat pump DX-DOASes, the “Water-Source Heat Pumps” conditions specified in Table 5 of AHRI 920-2020 shall be used.
</P>
<P>(ii) For water-cooled or water-source DX- DOASes with integral pumps, set the external head pressure to 20 ft. of water column, with a −0/+1 ft. condition tolerance and a 1 ft. operating tolerance.
</P>
<P>(iii) When using the degradation coefficient method as specified in Section 6.9.2 of AHRI 920-2020, Equation 20 applies to DX- DOAS without VERS, with deactivated VERS (see Section 5.4.3 of AHRI 920-2020), or sensible-only VERS tested under Standard Rating Conditions other than D.
</P>
<P>(iv) Rounding requirements for representations are to be followed as stated in Sections 6.1.2.1 through 6.1.2.8 of AHRI 920-2020;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 11—Symbols and Subscripts, including references to AHRI 1060-2018;
</P>
<P>(e) Appendix A—References—Normative;
</P>
<P>(f) Appendix C—ANSI/ASHRAE 198-2013 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37 Additions, Clarifications and Exceptions—Normative, including references to Sections 5.1, 6.5, 7.3, 7.4, 7.5, 7.6, 8.6, Table 1, Table 2b, and the errata sheet of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1-2013, Sections 4, 5, 6, 7.1, and 7.4 of ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6-2014, and AHRI 1060-2018;
</P>
<P>(g) Appendix E—Typical Test Unit Installations—Informative, for information only.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. Set-Up and Test Provisions for Specific Components. When testing a DX-DOAS that includes any of the features listed in Table 2.1 of this section, test in accordance with the set-up and test provisions specified in Table 2.1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2.1—Test Provisions for Specific Components
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test provisions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Return and Exhaust Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a DX-DOAS Unit to supply and use some return air (even if an optional VERS is not utilized) to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical dehumidification or heating when ventilation air requirements are less than design</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All dampers that allow return air to pass into the supply airstream shall be closed and sealed. Exhaust air dampers of DOAS units with VERS shall be open. Gravity dampers activated by exhaust fan discharge airflow shall be allowed to open by action of the exhaust airflow.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">VERS Bypass Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a DX-DOAS Unit to let outdoor ventilation air and return air bypass the VERS when preconditioning of outdoor ventilation is not beneficial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with the VERS bypass dampers installed, closed, and sealed. However, VERS bypass dampers may be opened if necessary for testing with deactivated VERS for Standard Rating Condition D.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The fire/smoke/isolation dampers shall be removed for testing. If it is not possible to remove such a damper, test with the damper fully open. For any fire/smoke/isolation dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Furnaces and Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furnaces and steam/hydronic heat coils used to provide primary or supplementary heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with the coils in place but providing no heat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Power Correction Capacitors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A capacitor that increases the power factor measured at the line connection to the equipment. These devices are a requirement of the power distribution system supplying the unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove power correction capacitors for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hail Guards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A grille or similar structure mounted to the outside of the unit covering the outdoor coil to protect the coil from hail, flying debris and damage from large objects</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove hail guards for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ducted Condenser Fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A condenser fan/motor assembly designed for optional external ducting of condenser air that provides greater pressure rise and has a higher rated motor horsepower than the condenser fan provided as a standard component with the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with the ducted condenser fan installed and operating using zero external static pressure, unless the manufacturer specifies use of an external static pressure greater. than zero, in which case, use the manufacturer-specified external static pressure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sound Traps/Sound Attenuators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly of structures through which the supply air passes before leaving the equipment or through which the return air from the building passes immediately after entering the equipment for which the sound insertion loss is at least 6 dB for the 125 Hz octave band frequency range</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removable sound traps/sound attenuators shall be removed for testing. Otherwise, test with sound traps/attenuators in place.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Humidifiers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A device placed in the supply air stream for moisture evaporation and distribution. The device may require building steam or water, hot water, electric or gas to operate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove humidifiers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">UV Lights</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A lighting fixture and lamp mounted so that it shines light on the conditioning coil, that emits ultraviolet light to inhibit growth of organisms on the conditioning coil surfaces, the condensate drip pan, and/other locations within the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove UV lights for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High-Effectiveness Indoor Air Filtration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoor air filters with greater air filtration effectiveness than MERV 8 or the lowest MERV filter distributed in commerce, whichever is greater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with a MERV 8 filter or the lowest MERV filter distributed in commerce, whichever is greater</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.2.3. Optional Representations. Test provisions for the determination of the metrics indicated in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section are optional and are determined according to the applicable provisions in section 2.2.1 of this appendix. The following metrics in AHRI 920-2020 are optional:
</P>
<P>(a) ISMRE2<E T="52">70</E>;
</P>
<P>(b) COP<E T="52">Full,x</E>:
</P>
<P>(c) COP<E T="52">DOAS,x</E>: and
</P>
<P>(d) ISMRE2 and ISCOP2 for water-cooled DX-DOASes using the “Condenser Water Entering Temperature, Chilled Water” conditions specified in Table 4 of AHRI 920-2020 and for water-source heat pump DX-DOASes using the “Water-Source Heat Pump, Ground-Source Closed Loop” conditions specified in Table 5 of AHRI 920-2020.
</P>
<HD3>2.3 Synonymous Terms
</HD3>
<P>(a) Any references to energy recovery or energy recovery ventilator (ERV) in AHRI 920-2020 and ANSI/ASHRAE 198-2013 shall be considered synonymous with ventilation energy recovery system (VERS) as defined in § 431.92.
</P>
<P>(b) Reserved
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 45199, July 27, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Water-Source Heat Pumps


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standard at § 431.97 as that standard appeared in the January 1, 2023 edition of 10 CFR parts 200-499. Specifically, representations must be based on testing according to either this appendix or 10 CFR 431.96 as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2023.
</P>
<P>Starting on November 29, 2024, voluntary representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of water-source heat pumps with cooling capacity greater than or equal to 135,000 Btu/h and less than 760,000 Btu/h must be based on testing according to this appendix. Manufacturers may also use this appendix to make voluntary representations with respect to energy use or efficiency prior to November 29, 2024.
</P>
<P>Starting on November 29, 2024, voluntary representations with respect to the integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) and applied coefficient of performance (ACOP) of water-source heat pumps must be based on testing according to appendix C1 of this subpart. Manufacturers may also use appendix C1 to make voluntary representations with respect to IEER and ACOP prior to November 29, 2024.
</P>
<P>Starting on the compliance date for any amended energy conservation standards for water-source heat pumps based on IEER and ACOP, any representations, including compliance certifications, made with respect to the energy use or energy efficiency of water-source heat pumps must be based on testing according to appendix C1 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers may also certify compliance with any amended energy conservation standards for water-source heat pumps based on IEER and ACOP prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards, and those compliance certifications must be based on testing according to appendix C1 of this subpart.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95, the entire standard for ISO 13256-1:1998. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and this appendix, the appendix provisions control.
</P>
<HD2>2. General
</HD2>
<P>Determine the energy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of performance (COP) in accordance with ISO 13256-1:1998.
</P>
<P>Section 3 of this appendix provides additional instructions for determining EER and COP.
</P>
<HD2>3. Additional Provisions for Equipment Set-Up
</HD2>
<P>The only additional specifications that may be used in setting up the basic model for testing are those set forth in the installation and operation manual shipped with the unit. Each unit should be set up for test in accordance with the manufacturer installation and operation manuals. Sections 3.1 through 3.2 of this appendix provide specifications for addressing key information typically found in the installation and operation manuals.
</P>
<P>3.1. If a manufacturer specifies a range of superheat, sub-cooling, and/or refrigerant pressure in its installation and operation manual for a given basic model, any value(s) within that range may be used to determine refrigerant charge or mass of refrigerant, unless the manufacturer clearly specifies a rating value in its installation and operation manual, in which case the specified rating value must be used.
</P>
<P>3.2. The airflow rate used for testing must be that set forth in the installation and operation manuals being shipped to the commercial customer with the basic model and clearly identified as that used to generate the DOE performance ratings. If a rated airflow value for testing is not clearly identified, a value of 400 standard cubic feet per minute (scfm) per ton must be used.</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 84230, Dec. 4, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C1 to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Water-Source Heat Pumps


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to the compliance date of amended standards for water-source heat pumps that rely on integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) and applied coefficient of performance (ACOP) published after January 1, 2023, representations with respect to the energy use or energy efficiency of water-source heat pumps, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing according to appendix C of this subpart.
</P>
<P>Starting on November 29, 2024, voluntary representations with respect to the IEER and ACOP of water-source heat pumps must be based on testing according to this appendix. Manufacturers may also use this appendix to make voluntary representations with respect to IEER and ACOP prior to November 29, 2024.
</P>
<P>Starting on the compliance date for any amended energy conservation standards for water-source heat pumps based on IEER and ACOP, any representations, including compliance certifications, made with respect to the energy use or energy efficiency of water-source heat pumps must be based on testing according to this appendix.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers may also certify compliance with any amended energy conservation standards for water-source heat pumps based on IEER and ACOP prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards, and those compliance certifications must be based on testing according to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95 the entire standards for AHRI 600-2023, ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (as corrected by the Errata sheet for ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009), and Melinder 2010. However, certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 600-2023 and ASHRAE 37-2009, as listed in this section 1, are inapplicable.
</P>
<P>To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>1.1. AHRI 600-2023
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) The following subsections of section 3 Definitions are inapplicable:
</P>
<P>(1) 3.2.1 (Air Economizer),
</P>
<P>(2) 3.2.3 (Barometric Relief Dampers),
</P>
<P>(3) 3.2.4 (Basic Model),
</P>
<P>(4) 3.2.5 (Coated Coils),
</P>
<P>(5) 3.2.6 (Coefficients of Performance),
</P>
<P>(6) 3.2.9 (Condenser Pump/Valves/Fittings),
</P>
<P>(7) 3.2.10 (Condenser Water Reheat),
</P>
<P>(8) 3.2.13 (Desiccant Dehumidification Components),
</P>
<P>(9) 3.2.14 (Desuperheater),
</P>
<P>(10) 3.2.15.1 (Energy Efficiency Ratio),
</P>
<P>(11) 3.2.16 (Evaporative Cooling of Ventilation Air),
</P>
<P>(12) 3.2.17 (Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers),
</P>
<P>(13) 3.2.19 (Fresh Air Dampers),
</P>
<P>(14) 3.2.21 (Grill Options),
</P>
<P>(15) 3.2.23 (High-effectiveness Indoor Air Filtration),
</P>
<P>(16) 3.2.24 (Hot Gas Bypass),
</P>
<P>(17) 3.2.27 (Integrated Energy Efficiency Ratio),
</P>
<P>(18) 3.2.28 (Low-static Heat Pump),
</P>
<P>(19) 3.2.35 (Power Correction Capacitors),
</P>
<P>(20) 3.2.36 (Powered Exhaust Air Fan),
</P>
<P>(21) 3.2.37 (Powered Return Air Fan),
</P>
<P>(22) 3.2.38 (Process Heat Recovery/Reclaim Coils/Thermal Storage),
</P>
<P>(23) 3.2.40 (Published Rating),
</P>
<P>(24) 3.2.42 (Refrigerant Reheat Coils),
</P>
<P>(25) 3.2.43 (Single Package Heat Pumps),
</P>
<P>(26) 3.2.44 (Sound Traps/Sound Attenuators),
</P>
<P>(27) 3.2.45 (Split System Heat Pump),
</P>
<P>(28) 3.2.51 (Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils),
</P>
<P>(29) 3.2.53 (UV Lights),
</P>
<P>(30) 3.2.54 (Ventilation Energy Recovery System),
</P>
<P>(31) 3.2.55 (Water/Brine to Air Heat Pump Equipment), and
</P>
<P>(32) 3.2.56 (Waterside Economizer),
</P>
<P>(d) The following subsections of section 6 Rating Requirements are inapplicable:
</P>
<P>(1) 6.5 (Residential Cooling Capacity and Efficiency),
</P>
<P>(2) 6.6 (Residential Heating Capacity and Efficiency),
</P>
<P>(3) 6.7 (Test Data vs Computer Simulation),
</P>
<P>(4) 6.8 (Rounding and Precision),
</P>
<P>(5) 6.9 (Uncertainty), and
</P>
<P>(6) 6.10 (Verification Testing),
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7 Minimum Data Requirements for Published Ratings is inapplicable
</P>
<P>(f) Section 8 Operating Requirements is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(g) Section 9 Marking and Nameplate Data is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(h) Section 10 Conformance Conditions is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(i) Appendix B References—Informative is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(j) Sections D.1 (Purpose), D.2 (Configuration Requirements), and D.3 (Optional System Features) of Appendix D Unit Configuration For Standard Efficiency Determination—Normative are inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(k) Appendix F Example of Determination of Fan and Motor Efficiency for Non-standard Integrated Indoor Fan and Motors—Informative is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>1.2. ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (Even if Corrected by the Errata Sheet)
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4 Classification is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD2>2. General
</HD2>
<P>Determine integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) and heating applied coefficient of performance (ACOP) in accordance with this appendix and the applicable sections of AHRI 600-2023, ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, and Melinder 2010. Representations of AEER, EER, and COP may optionally be made.
</P>
<P>Section 3 of this appendix provides additional instructions for testing. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed by AHRI 600-2023, followed by ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval, and a notification of any change in the incorporation must be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<HD2>3. Setup and Test Provisions for Specific Components
</HD2>
<P>When testing a water-source heat pump that includes any of the features listed in table 1 to this appendix, test in accordance with the setup and test provisions specified in table 1 to this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix C1—Setup and Test Provisions for Specific Components
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Setup and test provisions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mild or cold weather</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any air economizer that is factory-installed, place the economizer in the 100 percent return position and close and seal the outside air dampers for testing. For any modular air economizer shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the economizer for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric Relief Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly with dampers and means to automatically set the damper position in a closed position and one or more open positions to allow venting directly to the outside a portion of the building air that is returning to the unit, rather than allowing it to recirculate to the indoor coil and back to the building</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any barometric relief dampers that are factory-installed, close and seal the dampers for testing. For any modular barometric relief dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desiccant Dehumidification Components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that reduces the moisture content of the supply air through moisture transfer with solid or liquid desiccants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disable desiccant dehumidification components for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any fire/smoke/isolation dampers that are factory-installed, set the dampers in the fully open position for testing. For any modular fire/smoke/isolation dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fresh Air Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly with dampers and means to set the damper position in a closed and one open position to allow air to be drawn into the equipment when the indoor fan is operating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any fresh air dampers that are factory-installed, close and seal the dampers for testing. For any modular fresh air dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Power Correction Capacitors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A capacitor that increases the power factor measured at the line connection to the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove power correction capacitors for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Process Heat recovery/Reclaim Coils/Thermal Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located inside the unit that conditions the equipment's supply air using energy transferred from an external source using a vapor, gas, or liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disconnect the heat exchanger from its heat source for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerant Reheat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the supply air during cooling operation using high-pressure refrigerant in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to cooling capacity provided by the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">De-activate refrigerant reheat coils for testing so as to provide the minimum (none if possible) reheat achievable by the system controls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coils used to provide supplemental heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with steam/hydronic heat coils in place but providing no heat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">UV Lights</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A lighting fixture and lamp mounted so that it shines light on the indoor coil, that emits ultraviolet light to inhibit growth of organisms on the indoor coil surfaces, the condensate drip pan, and/other locations within the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turn off UV lights for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilation Energy Recovery System (VERS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that preconditions outdoor air entering the equipment through direct or indirect thermal and/or moisture exchange with the exhaust air, which is defined as the building air being exhausted to the outside from the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any VERS that is factory-installed, place the VERS in the 100 percent return position and close and seal the outside air dampers and exhaust air dampers for testing, and do not energize any VERS subcomponents (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> energy recovery wheel motors). For any VERS module shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the VERS for testing.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 84230, Dec. 4, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps (Other Than Air-Cooled With Rated Cooling Capacity Less Than 65,000 Btu/h)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standard from § 431.97 as that standard appeared in the January 1, 2022 edition of 10 CFR parts 200-499. Specifically, representations must be based upon results generated either under this appendix or under 10 CFR 431.96 as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>For any amended standards for variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps that rely on integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) published after January 1, 2022, manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix D1 of this subpart to determine compliance. Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix D or appendix D1) when determining compliance with the relevant standard.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95, the entire standard for ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010. However, enumerated provisions of ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010, as listed in this section 1, are excluded. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>1.1 ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010:
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 5.1.2—Manufacturer involvement.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 6.6—Verification testing and uncertainty is inapplicable as specified in section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>1.2 [Reserved.]
</HD3>
<P>2. <I>General.</I> Determine the energy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of performance (COP) (as applicable) in accordance with ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Sections 3 through 6 of this appendix provide additional instructions for determining EER and COP.</P></NOTE>
<P>3. <I>Optional break-in period.</I> Manufacturers may optionally specify a “break-in” period, not to exceed 20 hours, to operate the equipment under test prior to conducting the test method specified in this appendix. A manufacturer who elects to use an optional compressor break-in period in its certification testing should record this period's duration as part of the information in the supplemental testing instructions under 10 CFR 429.43.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Refrigerant line length corrections.</I> For test set-ups where it is physically impossible for the laboratory to use the required line length listed in Table 3 of the ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010, then the actual refrigerant line length used by the laboratory may exceed the required length and the following cooling capacity correction factors are applied:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Piping length beyond minimum, X


<br/>(ft)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Piping length beyond minimum, Y


<br/>(m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling capacity correction


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0&gt; X ≤20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0&gt; Y ≤6.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20&gt; X ≤40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1&gt; Y ≤12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40&gt; X ≤60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2&gt; Y ≤18.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60&gt; X ≤80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3&gt; Y ≤24.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80&gt; X ≤100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24.4&gt; Y ≤30.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100&gt; X ≤120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30.5&gt;Y ≤36.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>5. <I>Additional provisions for equipment set-up.</I> The only additional specifications that may be used in setting up the basic model for test are those set forth in the installation and operation manual shipped with the unit. Each unit should be set up for test in accordance with the manufacturer installation and operation manuals. Sections 5.1 through 5.3 of this appendix provide specifications for addressing key information typically found in the installation and operation manuals.
</P>
<P>5.1. If a manufacturer specifies a range of superheat, sub-cooling, and/or refrigerant pressure in its installation and operation manual for a given basic model, any value(s) within that range may be used to determine refrigerant charge or mass of refrigerant, unless the manufacturer clearly specifies a rating value in its installation and operation manual, in which case the specified rating value must be used.
</P>
<P>5.2. The airflow rate used for testing must be that set forth in the installation and operation manual being shipped to the commercial customer with the basic model and clearly identified as that used to generate the DOE performance ratings. If a rated airflow value for testing is not clearly identified, a value of 400 standard cubic feet per minute (scfm) per ton must be used.
</P>
<P>5.3. The test set-up and the fixed compressor speeds (<I>i.e.,</I> the maximum, minimum, and any intermediate speeds used for testing) should be recorded and maintained as part of the test data underlying the certified ratings that is required to be maintained under 10 CFR 429.71.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Manufacturer involvement in assessment or enforcement testing.</I> A manufacturer's representative will be allowed to witness assessment and/or enforcement testing for variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps. The manufacturer's representative will be allowed to inspect and discuss set-up only with a DOE representative. During testing, the manufacturer's representative may adjust only the modulating components that are necessary to achieve steady-state operation in the presence of a DOE representative. Only previously documented specifications for set-up as specified under sections 4 and 5 of this appendix will be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63898, Oct. 20, 2022]










</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D1 to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps (Other Than Air-Cooled With Rated Cooling Capacity Less Than 65,000 Btu/h)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with any amended standards for variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps provided in § 431.97 that are published after January 1, 2022, and that rely on integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER). Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix D or appendix D1) when determining compliance with the relevant standard.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95, the entire standard for AHRI 1230-2021 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, as corrected by the Errata sheet for ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 issued on March 27, 2019 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (as corrected)”). However, only enumerated provisions of AHRI 1230-2021 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 are required or excluded, as listed in this section 1. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>1.1 Provisions Required
</HD3>
<HD3>1.1.1 AHRI 1230-2021
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 3—Definitions, except section 3.11, as specified in section 2 of this appendix,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5—Test Requirements, except section 5.1.2, as specified in sections 2 and 5.1 of this appendix,
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6—Rating Requirements, except sections 6.3.3 and 6.5, as specified in sections 2, 4.1, 4.1.1, 4.2, 4.2.1, and 5.1 of this appendix,
</P>
<P>(d) Section 11—Calculations is applicable as specified in sections 2, 5.2.1.2, and 5.2.2 of this appendix,
</P>
<P>(e) Section 12—Symbols, Subscripts, and Superscripts as specified in section 2 of this appendix,
</P>
<P>(f) Appendix E—ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009 Clarifications/Exceptions—Normative as specified in section 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>1.1.2 [Reserved]
</HD3>
<HD3>1.2 Provisions Excluded
</HD3>
<HD3>1.2.1 ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (as Corrected)
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1—Purpose,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2—Scope, and
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4—Classification.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General.</I> Determine IEER and coefficient of performance (COP) (as applicable) in accordance with AHRI 1230-2021 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (as corrected). Sections 3 through 5 of this appendix provide additional instructions for determining IEER and COP. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed by AHRI 1230-2021, followed by ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 (as corrected).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The controls verification procedure specified in Appendix C of AHRI 1230-2021 is referenced as part of DOE's certification provisions at § 429.43(b) and product-specific enforcement provisions located at § 429.134(v)(3).</P></NOTE>
<HD2>3. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>3.1. <I>Critical Parameter(s)</I> are the following settings of modulating components of variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps: compressor speed(s), outdoor fan speed(s), and outdoor variable valve position(s).
</P>
<HD2>4. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Test Conditions for Air-Cooled VRF Multi-split Systems with Rated Cooling Capacity Greater Than 65,000 Btu/h.</I> When testing to certify to the energy conservation standards in § 431.97, test using the “Standard Rating Conditions, Cooling” and “Standard Rating Part-Load Conditions (IEER)” conditions for cooling mode tests and “Standard Rating Conditions (High Temperature Steady-state Test for Heating)” conditions for heat pump heating mode tests, as specified in Table 9 in Section 6 of AHRI 1230-2021.
</P>
<P>4.1.1 Representations of COP for air-cooled VRF multi-split systems with rated cooling capacity greater than 65,000 Btu/h made using the “Low Temperature Operation, Heating” condition specified in Table 9 in Section 6 of AHRI 1230-2021 are optional.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Test Conditions for Water-source VRF Multi-split Systems.</I> When testing to certify to the energy conservation standards in § 431.97, test using the “Part-load Conditions (IEER)” conditions specified for “Water Loop Heat Pumps” in Table 10 of AHRI 1230-2021 for cooling mode tests and the “Standard Rating Test” conditions specified for “Water Loop Heat Pumps” in Table 11 in Section 6 of AHRI 1230-2021 for heat pump heating mode tests.
</P>
<P>4.2.1 For water-source VRF multi-split systems, representations of EER made using the “Standard Rating Test” conditions specified for “Ground-loop Heat pumps” in Table 10 of Section 6 of AHRI 1230-2021 and representations of COP made using the “Standard Rating Test” conditions specified for “Ground-loop Heat Pumps” in Table 11 of Section 6 of AHRI 1230-2021 are optional.
</P>
<HD2>5. Test Procedure
</HD2>
<P>5.1 <I>Control Settings.</I> Control settings must be set in accordance with Sections 5.1.3, 5.1.4, 5.1.5, and 5.2 of AHRI 1230-2021. For systems equipped with head pressure controls, the head pressure controls must be set per manufacturer installation instructions or per factory settings if no instructions are provided. Indoor airflow-control settings must be set in accordance with Section 6.3.1 of AHRI 1230-2021. At each load point, critical parameters must be set to the values certified in the supplemental testing instructions (STI) provided by the manufacturer pursuant to § 429.43(b)(4) of this chapter. In cases in which a certified critical parameter value is not in the STI, the system must operate per commands from the system controls for that parameter. Once set, control settings must remain unchanged for the remainder of the test (except for allowable adjustment of critical parameters as described in section 5.2 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>5.2 <I>Allowable Critical Parameter Adjustments for IEER Cooling Tests.</I> The following sections describe allowable adjustments to critical parameters after the initial system set-up (during which all control settings, including certified critical parameters, are set). Adjust critical parameters in order to achieve full- and part-load cooling capacity targets and sensible heat ratio (SHR) limits.
</P>
<P>5.2.1 <I>Critical Parameter Adjustments for Meeting Cooling Capacity Targets.</I> Once critical parameters have been set to the values certified in the STI, if the unit cannot operate within 3% of the target cooling capacity (<I>i.e.,</I> within 3% of the load fraction for a given part-load cooling test (75%, 50%, or 25% load) or within 3% of the certified cooling capacity for a 100% full-load cooling test), manually-controlled critical parameters must be adjusted according to the following provisions:
</P>
<P>5.2.1.1. <I>Cooling Capacity is Below Lower Tolerance.</I> If, for any test, the cooling capacity operates below the lower tolerance for the target cooling capacity, increase the compressor speed(s) beyond the STI-certified value(s) until the cooling capacity operates within 3% of the target cooling capacity. If multiple compressors are present in the system, increase compressor speed by the same absolute increment in RPM or Hz for each compressor for which the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) The STI specifies a non-zero compressor speed for the compressor for that test and
</P>
<P>(b) The compressor has not yet reached its maximum capable operating speed. The compressor speed(s) must not be less than the STI-certified value(s) at any point during the test. Upward adjustments to compressor speed are not constrained by a budget on RSS Points Total (See section 5.2.1.2.1 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>5.2.1.2 <I>Cooling Capacity is Above Upper Tolerance.</I> If, for any test, the cooling capacity operates above the upper tolerance for the target cooling capacity, adjust any manually-controlled critical parameters per the STI. If the STI does not include a hierarchy of instructions for adjustment of critical parameters to reduce cooling capacity during IEER cooling tests, then reduce only the compressor speed(s) to reduce cooling capacity. If multiple compressors are present in the system, decrease compressor speed by the same absolute increment for each compressor for which the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) The STI specifies a non-zero compressor speed for the compressor for that test and
</P>
<P>(b) The compressor has not yet reached minimum speed. Continue reducing cooling capacity in this manner until one of the following occurs:
</P>
<P>(1) The unit operates within 3% of the target cooling capacity; or
</P>
<P>(2) The RSS point total reaches a budget of 70 points (see section 5.2.1.2.1 of this appendix). For the 75%, 50%, and 25% part-load cooling test points, if the RSS point total reaches 70 during critical parameter adjustments before the capacity operates within 3% of the target cooling capacity, stop adjustment and follow cyclic degradation procedures in accordance with Section 11.2.2.1 of AHRI 1230-2021.
</P>
<P>5.2.1.2.1 <I>Measuring Critical Parameter Variation During Adjustment Period.</I> When adjusting critical parameters to reduce cooling capacity, critical parameter variation must be calculated each time the critical parameters are adjusted, using the following equations:
</P>
<P>(a) First, use equation 5.2-1 to calculate the absolute parameter percent difference () between each adjusted critical parameter and the value for that parameter certified in the STI.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20oc22.002.gif"/>
<FP-1>Where:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“i” identifies the critical parameter—either compressors speed(s), outdoor fan speed(s), or outdoor variable valve position(s)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CP</I><E T="54">i</E>,<E T="54">Adj</E> = The adjusted position of critical parameter “i” recorded at each measurement interval. If multiple components corresponding to a single parameter are present (e.g., multiple compressors), calculate the average position across all components corresponding to that parameter at each measurement interval when determining <I>CP</I><E T="54">i</E>,<E T="54">Adj</E>.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CP</I><E T="54">i</E>,<E T="54">STI</E> = The position of critical parameter “i” as certified in the STI. If multiple components corresponding to a single parameter are present, calculate the average position across all components corresponding to that parameter at each measurement interval when determining <I>CP</I><E T="54">i</E>,<E T="54">STI</E>.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>CP</I><E T="54">Max</E> = The maximum operating position for Critical Parameter “i” as certified in the STI for the 100% load condition. If multiple components corresponding to a single parameter are present, calculate as the average value across all components corresponding to that critical parameter certified in the STI for the 100% load condition.
</FP-1>
<P>(b) Next, use equation 5.2-2 to this section to determine the accrued points for each critical parameter:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20oc22.003.gif"/>
<FP-1>Where:
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“i” identifies the critical parameter—either compressors speed(s), outdoor fan speed(s), or outdoor variable valve position(s)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>NPV</I><E T="54">i</E> = the nominal point value for critical parameter “i” as follows:
</FP-1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5.1—Critical Parameter Nominal Point Values
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Critical parameter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal point value
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Compressor Speed(s)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor Fan Speed(s)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outdoor Variable Valve Position(s)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Finally, use equation 5.2-3 to this section to calculate the root-sum-squared (RSS) Points Total across all critical parameters.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20oc22.004.gif"/>
<P>5.2.2 <I>Critical Parameter Adjustments for Meeting SHR Limits.</I> The SHR for the 100% load test point and the 75% part-load test point must not be higher than 0.82 and 0.85, respectively (measured to the nearest hundredth). If the SHR is above the allowable limit, increase the compressor speed(s) until either the SHR is less than or equal to the allowable limit or the cooling capacity reaches 3% greater than the target cooling capacity for that test, whichever happens first. If multiple compressors are present in the system, increase compressor speed by the same absolute increment for each compressor for which the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) The STI specifies a non-zero compressor speed for the compressor for that test and
</P>
<P>(b) The compressor has not yet reached maximum speed. Upwards adjustments to compressor speed are not constrained by a budget on RSS Points Total. Should the SHR remain above the maximum limit when the cooling capacity reaches its upper 3% tolerance, no further compressor adjustments shall be made, and the calculation procedures specified in Section 11.2.2.2 of AHRI 1230-2021 must be applied using the adjusted SHR value obtained after increasing the compressor speed(s).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Set-Up and Test Provisions for Specific Components.</I> When testing a VRF multi-split system that includes any of the specific components listed in table 6.1 to this appendix, test in accordance with the set-up and test provisions specified in table 6.1.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6.1—Test Provisions for Specific Components
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test provisions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desiccant Dehumidification Components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that reduces the moisture content of the supply air through moisture transfer with solid or liquid desiccants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disable desiccant dehumidification components for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mild or cold weather</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any air economizer that is factory-installed, place the economizer in the 100% return position and close and seal the outside air dampers for testing. For any modular air economizer shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the economizer for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fresh Air Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly with dampers and means to set the damper position in a closed and one open position to allow air to be drawn into the equipment when the indoor fan is operating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any fresh air dampers that are factory-installed, close and seal the dampers for testing. For any modular fresh air dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hail Guards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A grille or similar structure mounted to the outside of the unit covering the outdoor coil to protect the coil from hail, flying debris, and damage from large objects</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove hail guards for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Ambient Cooling Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly with dampers and means to set the dampers in a position to recirculate the warmer condenser discharge air to allow for reliable operation at low outdoor ambient conditions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove low ambient cooling dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Power Correction Capacitors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A capacitor that increases the power factor measured at the line connection to the equipment. These devices are a requirement of the power distribution system supplying the unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove power correction capacitors for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilation Energy Recovery Systems (VERS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that preconditions outdoor air entering the equipment through direct or indirect thermal and/or moisture exchange with the exhaust air, which is defined as the building air being exhausted to the outside from the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any VERS that is factory-installed, place the VERS in the 100% return position and close and seal the outside air dampers and exhaust air dampers for testing, and do not energize any VERS subcomponents (e.g., energy recovery wheel motors). For any VERS module shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the VERS for testing.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 63898, Oct. 20, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Computer Room Air Conditioners
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant energy conservation standards for computer room air conditioners from § 431.97 as that standard appeared in the January 1, 2022 edition of 10 CFR parts 200 through 499. Specifically, representations, including compliance certifications, must be based upon results generated either under this appendix or under 10 CFR 431.96 as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200 through 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>For any amended standards for computer room air conditioners that rely on net sensible coefficient of performance (NSenCOP) published after January 1, 2022, manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix E1 to this subpart to determine compliance. Manufacturers may use appendix E1 to certify compliance with any amended standards prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.
</P>
<P>Specifically, representations, including compliance certifications, related to energy consumption must be based upon results generated under the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> this appendix or appendix E1 to this subpart) when determining compliance with the relevant standard.</P></NOTE>
<P>1. <I>Incorporation by Reference.</I>
</P>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95 the entire standard for ASHRAE 127-2007. However, certain enumerated provisions of ASHRAE 127-2007, as listed in section 1.1, are inapplicable. To the extent that there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<P>1.1 ASHRAE 127-2007:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 5.11 is inapplicable as specified in section 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>1.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>2. <I>General.</I> Determine the sensible coefficient of performance (SCOP) in accordance with ASHRAE 127-2007.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Optional break-in period.</I> Manufacturers may optionally specify a “break-in” period, not to exceed 20 hours, to operate the equipment under test prior to conducting the test method specified in this appendix. A manufacturer who elects to use an optional compressor break-in period in its certification testing should record this period's duration as part of the information in the supplemental testing instructions under 10 CFR 429.43.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional provisions for equipment set-up.</I> The only additional specifications that may be used in setting up the basic model for test are those set forth in the installation and operation manual shipped with the unit. Each unit should be set up for test in accordance with the manufacturer installation and operation manuals. Sections 4.1 and 4.2 of this appendix provide specifications for addressing key information typically found in the installation and operation manuals.
</P>
<P>4.1. If a manufacturer specifies a range of superheat, sub-cooling, and/or refrigerant pressure in its installation and operation manual for a given basic model, any value(s) within that range may be used to determine refrigerant charge or mass of refrigerant, unless the manufacturer clearly specifies a rating value in its installation and operation manual, in which case the specified rating value must be used.
</P>
<P>4.2. The airflow rate used for testing must be that set forth in the installation and operation manuals being shipped to the commercial customer with the basic model and clearly identified as that used to generate the DOE performance ratings. If a rated airflow value for testing is not clearly identified, a value of 400 standard cubic feet per minute (scfm) per ton must be used.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 21840, Apr. 11, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E1 to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Computer Room Air Conditioners
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to the compliance date for any amended energy conservation standards based on NSenCOP for computer room air conditioners, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of this equipment, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing pursuant to appendix E to this subpart. Subsequently, manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with any amended energy conservation standards for computer room air conditioners provided in § 431.97 that are published after January 1, 2022, and that rely on net sensible coefficient of performance (NSenCOP). Specifically, representations, including compliance certifications, related to energy consumption must be based upon results generated under the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix E to this subpart or this appendix) when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may use this appendix to certify compliance with any amended standards prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<P>1. <I>Incorporation by Reference</I>
</P>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95 the entire standards for AHRI 1360-2022, ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, and ANSI/ASHRAE 127-2020. However, as listed in sections 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of this appendix, only certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 1360-2022 and ANSI/ASHRAE 127-2020 are applicable, and only certain enumerated provisions of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 are not applicable. To the extent that there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<P>1.1 AHRI 1360-2022:
</P>
<P>(a) The following sections of Section 3. Definitions—3.1 (Expressions of Provision), 3.2.2 (Air Sampling Device(s)), 3.2.7 (Computer and Data Processing Room Air Conditioner), 3.2.22 (Indoor Unit), 3.2.25 (Manufacturer's Installation Instruction), 3.2.27 (Net Sensible Cooling Capacity), 3.2.28 (Net Total Cooling Capacity), 3.2.37 (Standard Air) and 3.2.38 (Standard Airflow) are applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5. Test Requirements, is applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) The following sections of Section 6. Rating Requirements—6.1-6.3, 6.5 and 6.7 are applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) Appendix C. Standard Configurations—Normative, is applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) Section D2 of Appendix D. Non-Standard Indoor Fan Motors for CRAC units, is applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) Appendix E. Method of Testing Computer and Data Processing Room Air Conditioners—Normative, is applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) Appendix F. Indoor and Outdoor Air Condition Measurement—Normative is applicable.
</P>
<P>1.2 ANSI/ASHRAE 127-2020:
</P>
<P>(a) Appendix A—Figure A-1, Test duct for measuring air flow and static pressure on downflow units, is applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved].
</P>
<P>1.3 ASHRAE 37-2009:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 1 Purpose is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 2 Scope is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4 Classification is inapplicable.
</P>
<P><I>2. General.</I> Determine the net sensible coefficient of performance (NSenCOP), in accordance with AHRI 1360-2022, ANSI/ASHRAE 127-2020, and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. In cases where there is a conflict between these sources, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed by AHRI 1360-2022, followed by ANSI/ASHRAE 127-2020, followed by ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by a standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until this test procedure is amended by DOE. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval, and notification of any change in the incorporation will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Test Conditions</I>
</P>
<P>3.1. <I>Test Conditions for Certification.</I> When testing to certify to the energy conservation standards in § 431.97, test using the “Indoor Return Air Temperature Standard Rating Conditions” and “Heat Rejection/Cooling Fluid Standard Rating Conditions” conditions, as specified in Tables 3 and 4 of AHRI 1360-2022, respectively.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Set-Up and Test Provisions for Specific Components.</I> When testing a unit that includes any of the features listed in Table 4.1 of this appendix, test in accordance with the set-up and test provisions specified in Table 4.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.1—Test Provisions for Specific Components
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test provisions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mild or cold weather</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any air economizer that is factory-installed, place the economizer in the 100% return position and close and seal the outside air dampers for testing. For any modular air economizer shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the economizer for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Process Heat Recovery/Reclaim Coils/Thermal Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located inside the unit that conditions the equipment's supply air using energy transferred from an external source using a vapor, gas, or liquid</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disconnect the heat exchanger from its heat source for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Evaporative Pre-cooling of Condenser Intake Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water is evaporated into the air entering the air-cooled condenser to lower the dry-bulb temperature and thereby increase efficiency of the refrigeration cycle</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disconnect the unit from the water supply for testing (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> operate without active evaporative cooling).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coils used to provide supplemental heat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with steam/hydronic heat coils in place but providing no heat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerant Reheat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the supply air during cooling operation using high pressure refrigerant in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to cooling capacity provided by the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">De-activate refrigerant re-heat coils so as to provide the minimum (none if possible) reheat achievable by the system controls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any fire/smoke/isolation dampers that are factory-installed, close and seal the dampers for testing. For any modular fire/smoke/isolation dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Harmonic Distortion Mitigation Devices</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A high voltage device that reduces harmonic distortion measured at the line connection of the equipment that is created by electronic equipment in the unit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove harmonic distortion mitigation devices for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Humidifiers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A device placed in the supply air stream for moisture evaporation and distribution. The device may require building steam or water, hot water, electricity, or gas to operate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with humidifiers in place but providing no humidification.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric Reheat Elements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric reheat elements and controls that are located downstream of the cooling coil that may heat the air using electrical power during the dehumidification process</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with electric reheat elements in place but providing no heat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-standard Power Transformer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A device applied to a high voltage load that transforms input electrical voltage to that voltage necessary to operate the load</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disable the non-standard power transformer during testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chilled Water Dual Cooling Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A secondary chilled water coil added in the indoor air stream for use as the primary or secondary cooling circuit in conjunction with a separate chiller</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with chilled water dual cooling coils in place but providing no cooling.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High-Effectiveness Indoor Air Filtration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoor air filters with greater air filtration effectiveness than Minimum Efficiency Reporting Value (MERV) 8 for ducted units and MERV 1 for non-ducted units</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with the filter offered by the manufacturer with the least air filtration effectiveness that meets or exceeds MERV 8 for ducted units and MERV 1 for non-ducted units.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 21841, Apr. 11, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Air-Cooled, Three-Phase, Small Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity of Less Than 65,000 Btu/h and Air-Cooled, Three-Phase, Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps With a Cooling Capacity of Less Than 65,000 Btu/h
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standard from § 431.97 as that standard appeared in the January 1, 2022, edition of 10 CFR parts 200-499. Specifically, representations must be based upon results generated either under this appendix or under 10 CFR 431.96 as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>For any amended standards for air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h that rely on SEER2 and HSPF2 published after January 1, 2021, manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix F1 to determine compliance. Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendices F or F1) when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use appendix F1 to certify compliance with any amended standards that rely on SEER2 and HSPF2 prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95, the entire standard for ANSI/AHRI 210/240-2008 and ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010. However, certain enumerated provisions of those standards, as set forth in this section 1, are inapplicable. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<P>1.1 ANSI/AHRI 210/240-2008:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 6.5—<I>Tolerances</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Reserved.
</P>
<P>1.2 ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 5.1.2—<I>Manufacturer involvement</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Section 6.6—<I>Verification testing and uncertainty</I>
</P>
<HD1>2. General
</HD1>
<P>2.1 Air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h. Determine the seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER) and heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF) (as applicable) in accordance with ANSI/AHRI 210/240-2008. Sections 3 to 6 of this appendix provide additional instructions for determining SEER and HSPF.
</P>
<P>2.2 Air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h. Determine the SEER and HSPF (as applicable) in accordance with ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010.
</P>
<P>Sections 3 through 6 of this appendix provide additional instructions for determining SEER and HSPF.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Optional break-in period.</I> Manufacturers may optionally specify a “break-in” period, not to exceed 20 hours, to operate the equipment under test prior to conducting the test method specified in this appendix. A manufacturer who elects to use an optional compressor break-in period in its certification testing should record this period's duration as part of the information in the supplemental testing instructions under 10 CFR 429.43.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional provisions for equipment set-up.</I> The only additional specifications that may be used in setting up the basic model for test are those set forth in the installation and operation manual shipped with the unit. Each unit should be set up for test in accordance with the manufacturer installation and operation manuals. Sections 3.1 through 3.3 of this appendix provide specifications for addressing key information typically found in the installation and operation manuals.
</P>
<P>4.1. If a manufacturer specifies a range of superheat, sub-cooling, and/or refrigerant pressure in its installation and operation manual for a given basic model, any value(s) within that range may be used to determine refrigerant charge or mass of refrigerant, unless the manufacturer clearly specifies a rating value in its installation and operation manual, in which case the specified rating value shall be used.
</P>
<P>4.2. The airflow rate used for testing must be that set forth in the installation and operation manuals being shipped to the commercial customer with the basic model and clearly identified as that used to generate the DOE performance ratings. If a rated airflow value for testing is not clearly identified, a value of 400 standard cubic feet per minute (scfm) per ton shall be used.
</P>
<P>4.3. For air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h, the test set-up and the fixed compressor speeds (<I>i.e.,</I> the maximum, minimum, and any intermediate speeds used for testing) should be recorded and maintained as part of the test data underlying the certified ratings that is required to be maintained under 10 CFR 429.71.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Refrigerant line length corrections for air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h.</I> For test setups where it is physically impossible for the laboratory to use the required line length listed in Table 3 of ANSI/AHRI 1230-2010, then the actual refrigerant line length used by the laboratory may exceed the required length and the following cooling capacity correction factors are applied:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Piping length beyond
<br/>minimum, X
<br/>(ft)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Piping length beyond
<br/>minimum, Y
<br/>(m)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cooling
<br/>capacity
<br/>correction
<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0&gt;X ≤20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0&gt;Y ≤6.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20&gt;X ≤40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1&gt;Y ≤12.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40&gt;X ≤60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.2&gt;Y ≤18.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60&gt;X ≤80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3&gt;Y ≤24.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80&gt;X ≤100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24.4&gt;Y ≤30.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100 &gt;X ≤120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30.5&gt;Y ≤36.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>6. <I>Manufacturer involvement in assessment or enforcement testing for air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h.</I> A manufacturer's representative will be allowed to witness assessment and/or enforcement testing. The manufacturer's representative will be allowed to inspect and discuss set-up only with a DOE representative and adjust only the modulating components during testing in the presence of a DOE representative that are necessary to achieve steady-state operation. Only previously documented specifications for set-up as specified under sections 3 and 4 of this appendix will be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 77327, Dec. 16, 2022; 87 FR 78513, Dec. 22, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F1 to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Air-Cooled, Three-Phase, Small Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment With a Cooling Capacity of Less Than 65,000 Btu/h and Air-Cooled, Three-Phase, Variable Refrigerant Flow Multi-Split Air Conditioners and Heat Pumps With a Cooling Capacity of Less Than 65,000 Btu/h
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with any amended standards for air-cooled, three-phase, small commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h and air-cooled, three-phase, variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps with a cooling capacity of less than 65,000 Btu/h provided in § 431.97 that are published after January 1, 2021, and that rely on seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2) and heating seasonal performance factor 2 (HSPF2). Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendices F or F1) when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use this appendix to certify compliance with any amended standards that rely on SEER2 and HSPF2 prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<P>1. <I>Incorporation by Reference.</I> DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95, the entire standard for AHRI 210/240-2023 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. However, certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 210/240-2023 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009, as set forth in this section 1, are inapplicable. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE.
</P>
<P>1.1. AHRI 210/240-2023:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 6 Rating Requirements—6.1 Standard Ratings—6.1.8 Tested Combinations or Tested Units
</P>
<FP-1>(b) Section 6 Rating Requirements—6.2 Application Ratings
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 6 Rating Requirements—6.4 Ratings
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Section 6 Rating Requirements—6.5 Uncertainty and Variability
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Section 7—Minimum Data Requirements for Published Ratings
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Section 8—Operating Requirements
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(g) Section 9—Marking and Nameplate Data
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(h) Section 10—Conformance Conditions
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(i) Appendix C—Certification of Laboratory Facilities Used to Determine Performance of Unitary Air-Conditioning &amp; Air-Source Heat Pump Equipment—Informative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(j) Appendix F—ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 116-2010 Clarifications/Exceptions—Normative—F15.2 and F17
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(k) Appendix G—Unit Configuration for Standard Efficiency Determination—Normative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(l) Appendix H—Off-Mode Testing—Normative
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(m) Appendix I Verification Testing—Normative
</FP-1>
<P>1.2. ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1—Purpose
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2—Scope
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4—Classification
</FP-1>
<P>2. <I>General.</I> Determine the seasonal energy efficiency ratio 2 (SEER2) and heating seasonal performance factor 2 (HSPF2) (as applicable) in accordance with AHRI 210/240-2023 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Sections 3 and 4 to this appendix provide additional instructions for determining SEER2 and HSPF2.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Energy Measurement Accuracy.</I> The Watt-hour (W⋅h) measurement system(s) shall be accurate within ± 0.5 percent or 0.5 W⋅h, whichever is greater, for both ON and OFF cycles. If two measurement systems are used, then the meters shall be switched within 15 seconds of the start of the OFF cycle and switched within 15 seconds prior to the start of the ON cycle.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Cycle Stability Requirements.</I> Conduct three complete compressor OFF/ON cycles. Calculate the degradation coefficient CD for each complete cycle. If all three CD values are within 0.02 of the average CD then stability has been achieved, and the highest CD value of these three shall be used. If stability has not been achieved, conduct additional cycles, up to a maximum of eight cycles total, until stability has been achieved between three consecutive cycles. Once stability has been achieved, use the highest CD value of the three consecutive cycles that establish stability. If stability has not been achieved after eight cycles, use the highest CD from cycle one through cycle eight, or the default CD, whichever is lower.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 77328, Dec. 16, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Single Package Vertical Air Conditioners and Single Package Vertical Heat Pumps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to December 4, 2023, manufacturers must use the results of testing under either this appendix or § 431.96 as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2021, to determine compliance with the relevant standard from § 431.97 as that standard appeared in the January 1, 2021, edition of 10 CFR parts 200-499. On or after December 4, 2023, manufacturers must use the results of testing generated under this appendix to demonstrate compliance with the relevant standard from § 431.97 as that standard appeared in the January 1, 2021, edition of 10 CFR parts 200-499.
</P>
<P>Beginning December 4, 2023, if manufacturers make voluntary representations with respect to the integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) of single packaged vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps, such representations must be based on testing conducted in accordance with appendix G1 to this subpart.
</P>
<P>For any amended standards for single packaged vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps based on IEER published after January 1, 2021, manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix G1 to this subpart to determine compliance. Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> this appendix or appendix G1) when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use appendix G1 to certify compliance with any amended standards prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference.
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95 the entire standard for AHRI 390-2021 and ASHRAE 37-2009. However, only certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 390-2021 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 are required or excluded as listed in this section 1. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and this appendix, the appendix provisions control, followed by AHRI 390-2021, followed by ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009.
</P>
<P>1.1. Only the following provisions of AHRI 390-2021 apply:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Section 3—Definitions (omitting sections 3.1, 3.2, 3.5, 3.12, and 3.15)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 5—Test Requirements (omitting section 5.8.5)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 6—Rating Requirements (omitting sections 6.1.1 and 6.2 through 6.5)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Appendix A. “References—Normative”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Appendix D. “Indoor and Outdoor Air Condition Measurement—Normative”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Appendix E. “Method of Testing Single Package Vertical Units—Normative”
</FP-1>
<P>1.2. All provisions of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 apply except for the following provisions:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1—Purpose
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2—Scope
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4—Classifications
</FP-1>
<P><I>2. General.</I> Determine cooling capacity (Btu/h) and energy efficiency ratio (EER) for all single package vertical air conditioners and heat pumps and coefficient of performance (COP) for all single package vertical heat pumps, in accordance with the specified sections of AHRI 390-2021 and the specified sections of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Only identified provisions of AHRI 390-2021 are applicable and certain sections of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 are inapplicable, as set forth in section 1 of this appendix. In addition, the instructions in section 3 of this appendix apply to determining EER and COP. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by a standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE.
</P>
<P><I>3. Test Conditions.</I> The “Standard Rating Full Load Capacity Test, Cooling” conditions for cooling mode tests and “Standard Rating Full Load Capacity Test, Heating” conditions for heat pump heating mode tests specified in Table 3 of section 5.8.3 of AHRI 390-2021 shall be used.
</P>
<P><I>3.1. Optional Representations.</I> Representations of COP for single package vertical heat pumps made using the “Low Temperature Operation, Heating” condition specified in Table 3 of section 5.8.3 of AHRI 390-2021 are optional and are determined according to the applicable provisions in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2. [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 75169, Dec. 7, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.6.50.6.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G1 to Subpart F of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Single Package Vertical Air Conditioners and Single Package Vertical Heat Pumps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Beginning December 4, 2023, if manufacturers make voluntary representations with respect to the integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) of single packaged vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps, such representations must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.
</P>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with any amended standards for single packaged vertical air conditioners and single package vertical heat pumps based on IEER provided in § 431.97 that are published after January 1, 2021. Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with the appropriate appendix that applies (<I>i.e.,</I> appendix G to this subpart or this appendix) when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use this appendix to certify compliance with any amended standards prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.95 the entire standard for AHRI 390-2021 and ASHRAE 37-2009. However, only certain enumerated provisions of AHRI 390-2021 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 are required or excluded as listed in this section 1. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and this appendix, the appendix provisions control, followed by AHRI 390-2021, followed by ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009.
</P>
<P>1.1. Only the following provisions of AHRI 390-2021 apply:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Section 3—Definitions (omitting sections 3.1, 3.2, 3.5, 3.12, and 3.15)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 5—Test Requirements (omitting section 5.8.5)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>c) Section 6—Rating Requirements (omitting sections 6.1.1 and 6.3 through 6.5)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Appendix A. “References—Normative”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Appendix D. “Indoor and Outdoor Air Condition Measurement—Normative”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Appendix E. “Method of Testing Single Package Vertical Units—Normative”
</FP-1>
<P>1.2. All provisions of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 apply except for the following provisions:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1—Purpose
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2—Scope
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4—Classifications
</FP-1>
<P><I>2. General.</I> Determine cooling capacity (Btu/h) and integrated energy efficiency ratio (IEER) for all single package vertical air conditioners and heat pumps and coefficient of performance (COP) for all single package vertical heat pumps, in accordance with the specified sections of AHRI 390-2021and the specified sections of ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009. Only identified provisions of AHRI 390-2021 and ANSI/ASHRAE 37-2009 are applicable, as set forth in section 1 of this appendix. In addition, the instructions in section 4 of this appendix apply to determining IEER and COP. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by a standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE.
</P>
<P><I>3. Test Conditions.</I> The “Part-Load Standard Rating Conditions” conditions for cooling mode tests and “Standard Rating Full Load Capacity Test, Heating” conditions for heat pump heating mode tests specified in Table 3 of section 5.8.3 of AHRI 390-2021 shall be used.
</P>
<P><I>3.1. Optional Representations.</I> Representations of COP for single package vertical heat pumps made using the “Low Temperature Operation, Heating” condition specified in Table 3 of section 5.8.3 of AHRI 390-2021 are optional and are determined according to the applicable provisions in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Set-Up and Test Provisions for Specific Components.</I> When testing a single package vertical unit (SPVU) that includes any of the features listed in table 4.1 to this appendix, test in accordance with the set-up and test provisions specified in table 4.1 to this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4.1—Test Provisions for Specific Components
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test provisions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desiccant Dehumidification Components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that reduces the moisture content of the supply air through moisture transfer with solid or liquid desiccants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disable desiccant dehumidification components for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Economizers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An automatic system that enables a cooling system to supply outdoor air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical cooling during mid or cold weather</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any air economizer that is factory-installed, place the economizer in the 100% return position and close and seal the outside air dampers for testing. For any modular air economizer shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the economizer for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fresh Air Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly with dampers and means to set the damper position in a closed and one open position to allow air to be drawn into the equipment when the indoor fan is operating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any fresh air dampers that are factory-installed, close and seal the dampers for testing. For any modular fresh air dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hail Guards</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A grille or similar structure mounted to the outside of the unit covering the outdoor coil to protect the coil from hail, flying debris and damage from large objects</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove hail guards for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Power Correction Capacitors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A capacitor that increases the power factor measured at the line connection to the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remove power correction capacitors for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilation Energy Recovery System (VERS)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly that preconditions outdoor air entering the equipment through direct or indirect thermal and/or moisture exchange with the exhaust air, which is defined as the building air being exhausted to the outside from the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any VERS that is factory-installed, place the VERS in the 100% return position and close and seal the outside air dampers and exhaust air dampers for testing, and do not energize any VERS subcomponents (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> energy recovery wheel motors). For any VERS module shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the VERS for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric Relief Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly with dampers and means to automatically set the damper position in a closed position and one or more open positions to allow venting directly to the outside a portion of the building air that is returning to the unit, rather than allowing it to recirculate to the indoor coil and back to the building</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any barometric relief dampers that are factory-installed, close and seal the dampers for testing. For any modular barometric relief dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">UV Lights</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A lighting fixture and lamp mounted so that it shines light on the indoor coil, that emits ultraviolet light to inhibit growth of organisms on the indoor coil surfaces, the condensate drip pan, and/other locations within the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Turn off UV lights for testing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Steam/Hydronic Heat Coils</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Coils used to provide supplemental heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test with steam/hydronic heat coils in place but providing no heat.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hot Gas Reheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A heat exchanger located downstream of the indoor coil that heats the Supply Air during cooling operation using high pressure refrigerant in order to increase the ratio of moisture removal to Cooling Capacity provided by the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">De-activate refrigerant reheat coils for testing so as to provide the minimum (none if possible) reheat achievable by the system controls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sound Traps/Sound Attenuators</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An assembly of structures through which the Supply Air passes before leaving the equipment or through which the return air from the building passes immediately after entering the equipment for which the sound insertion loss is at least 6 dB for the 125 Hz octave band frequency range</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Removable sound traps/sound attenuators shall be removed for testing. Otherwise, test with sound traps/attenuators in place.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire/Smoke/Isolation Dampers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A damper assembly including means to open and close the damper mounted at the supply or return duct opening of the equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any fire/smoke/isolation dampers that are factory-installed, set the dampers in the fully open position for testing. For any modular fire/smoke/isolation dampers shipped with the unit but not factory-installed, do not install the dampers for testing.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 75170, Dec. 7, 2022]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Commercial Water Heaters, Hot Water Supply Boilers and Unfired Hot Water Storage Tanks</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 61983, Oct. 21, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.101" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.50.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.101   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for certain commercial water heaters, hot water supply boilers and unfired hot water storage tanks, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61983, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 60415, Oct. 18, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.102" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.50.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.102   Definitions concerning commercial water heaters, hot water supply boilers, unfired hot water storage tanks, and commercial heat pump water heaters.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this subpart G, and of subparts J through M of this part. Any words or terms not defined in this section or elsewhere in this part shall be defined as provided in section 340 of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 6311.
</P>
<P><I>Air-source commercial heat pump water heater</I> means a commercial heat pump water heater that utilizes indoor or outdoor air as the heat source.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all water heaters, hot water supply boilers, or unfired hot water storage tanks manufactured by one manufacturer within a single equipment class, having the same primary energy source (e.g., gas or oil) and that have essentially identical electrical, physical and functional characteristics that affect energy efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of performance (COP</I><E T="52">h</E><I>)</I> means the dimensionless ratio of the rate of useful heat transfer gained by the water (expressed in Btu/h), to the rate of electric power consumed during operation (expressed in Btu/h).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial heat pump water heater (CHPWH)</I> means a water heater (including all ancillary equipment such as fans, blowers, pumps, storage tanks, piping, and controls, as applicable) that uses a refrigeration cycle, such as vapor compression, to transfer heat from a low-temperature source to a higher-temperature sink for the purpose of heating potable water, and operates with a current rating greater than 24 amperes or a voltage greater than 250 volts. Such equipment includes, but is not limited to, air-source heat pump water heaters, water-source heat pump water heaters, and direct geo-exchange heat pump water heaters.


</P>
<P><I>Direct geo-exchange commercial heat pump water heater</I> means a commercial heat pump water heater that utilizes the earth as a heat source and allows for direct exchange of heat between the earth and the refrigerant in the evaporator coils.
</P>
<P><I>Flow-activated instantaneous water heater</I> means an instantaneous water heater or hot water supply boiler that activates the burner or heating element only if heated water is drawn from the unit.
</P>
<P><I>Fuel input rate</I> means the maximum measured rate at which gas-fired or oil-fired commercial water heating equipment uses energy as determined using test procedures prescribed under § 431.106 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Ground-source closed-loop commercial heat pump water heater</I> means a commercial heat pump water heater that utilizes a fluid circulated through a closed piping loop as a medium to transfer heat from the ground to the refrigerant in the evaporator. The piping loop may be buried inside the ground in horizontal trenches or vertical bores, or submerged in a surface water body.
</P>
<P><I>Ground water-source commercial heat pump water heater</I> means a commercial heat pump water heater that utilizes ground water as the heat source.
</P>
<P><I>Hot water supply boiler</I> means a packaged boiler (defined in § 431.82 of this part) that is industrial equipment and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a rated input from 300,000 Btu/h to 12,500,000 Btu/h and of at least 4,000 Btu/h per gallon of stored water;
</P>
<P>(2) Is suitable for heating potable water; and
</P>
<P>(3) Meets either or both of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) It has the temperature and pressure controls necessary for heating potable water for purposes other than space heating; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The manufacturer's product literature, product markings, product marketing, or product installation and operation instructions indicate that the boiler's intended uses include heating potable water for purposes other than space heating.
</P>
<P><I>Indoor water-source commercial heat pump water heater</I> means a commercial heat pump water heater that utilizes indoor water as the heat source.
</P>
<P><I>Instantaneous water heater</I> means a water heater that uses gas, oil, or electricity, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Gas-fired instantaneous water heaters with a rated input both greater than 200,000 Btu/h and not less than 4,000 Btu/h per gallon of stored water;
</P>
<P>(2) Oil-fired instantaneous water heaters with a rated input both greater than 210,000 Btu/h and not less than 4,000 Btu/h per gallon of stored water; and
</P>
<P>(3) Electric instantaneous water heaters with a rated input both greater than 12 kW and not less than 4,000 Btu/h per gallon of stored water.
</P>
<P><I>Rated input</I> means the maximum rate at which commercial water heating equipment is rated to use energy as specified on the nameplate.
</P>
<P><I>R-value</I> means the thermal resistance of insulating material as determined using ASTM C177-13 or C518-15 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105) and expressed in ( °F·ft
<SU>2</SU>·h/Btu).
</P>
<P><I>Residential-duty commercial water heater</I> means any gas-fired storage, oil-fired storage, or electric instantaneous commercial water heater that meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) For models requiring electricity, uses single-phase external power supply;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not designed to provide outlet hot water at temperatures greater than 180 °F; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not meet any of the following criteria:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water heater type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indicator of non-residential application
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rated input &gt;105 kBtu/h; Rated storage volume &gt;120 gallons.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired Storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rated input &gt;140 kBtu/h; Rated storage volume &gt;120 gallons.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric Instantaneous</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rated input &gt;58.6 kW; Rated storage volume &gt;2 gallons.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Standby loss</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For electric commercial water heating equipment (not including commercial heat pump water heaters), the average hourly energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed as a percent per hour (%/h) of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature and determined in accordance with appendix B or D to subpart G of part 431 (as applicable), denoted by the term “S”; or
</P>
<P>(2) For gas-fired and oil-fired commercial water heating equipment, the average hourly energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed in British thermal units per hour (Btu/h) based on a 70 °F temperature differential between stored water and ambient room temperature and determined in accordance with appendix A or C to subpart G of part 431 (as applicable), denoted by the term “SL.”
</P>
<P><I>Storage-type instantaneous water heater</I> means an instantaneous water heater that includes a storage tank with a rated storage volume greater than or equal to 10 gallons.


</P>
<P><I>Storage water heater</I> means a water heater that uses gas, oil, or electricity to heat and store water within the appliance at a thermostatically-controlled temperature for delivery on demand, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Gas-fired storage water heaters with a rated input both greater than 75,000 Btu/h and less than 4,000 Btu/h per gallon of stored water;
</P>
<P>(2) Oil-fired storage water heaters with a rated input both greater than 105,000 Btu/h and less than 4,000 Btu/h per gallon of stored water; and
</P>
<P>(3) Electric storage water heaters with a rated input both greater than 12 kW and less than 4,000 Btu/h per gallon of stored water.
</P>
<P><I>Tank surface area</I> means, for the purpose of determining portions of a tank requiring insulation, those areas of a storage tank, including hand holes and manholes, in its uninsulated or pre-insulated state, that do not have pipe penetrations or tank supports attached.
</P>
<P><I>Thermal efficiency</I> for an instantaneous water heater, a storage water heater or a hot water supply boiler means the ratio of the heat transferred to the water flowing through the water heater to the amount of energy consumed by the water heater as measured during the thermal efficiency test procedure prescribed in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Unfired hot water storage tank</I> means a tank used to store water that is heated externally, and that is industrial equipment. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61983, Oct. 21, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 12503, Mar. 7, 2011; 78 FR 79599, Dec. 31, 2013; 79 FR 40586, July 11, 2014; 81 FR 79321, Nov. 10, 2016; 88 FR 40494, June 21, 2023; 88 FR 69821, Oct. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="50" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.50" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.105" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.50.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.105   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, EE-5B, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASHRAE.</I> American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, 1791 Tullie Circle NE. Atlanta, GA 30329, (800) 527-4723, or go to <I>https://www.ashrae.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 118.1-2012, “Method of Testing for Rating Commercial Gas, Electric, and Oil Service Water-Heating Equipment,” approved by ASHRAE on October 26, 2012, IBR approved for appendix E to this subpart, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3—Definitions and Symbols;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 4—Classifications by Mode of Operation (sections 4.4, and 4.5 only);
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 6—Instruments (except sections 6.3, 6.4 and 6.6);
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 7—Apparatus (except section 7.4, Figures 1 through 4, section 7.7.5, Table 2, and section 7.7.7.4);
</P>
<P>(v) Section 8—Methods of Testing:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 8.2—Energy Supply, Section 8.2.1—Electrical Supply;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 8.7—Water Temperature Control;
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 9—Test Procedures: 9.1—Input Rating, Heating Capacity, Thermal Efficiency, Coefficient of Performance (COP), and Recovery Rating; 9.1.1—Full Input Rating;
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 10—Calculation of Results: Section 10.3—Heat-Pump Water Heater Water-Heating Capacity, Coefficient of Performance (COP), and Recovery Rating; Section 10.3.1—Type IV and Type V Full-Capacity Test Method.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ASTM.</I> ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959, (610) 832-9585, or go to <I>http://www.astm.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM C177-13, “Standard Test Method for Steady-State Heat Flux Measurements and Thermal Transmission Properties by Means of the Guarded-Hot-Plate Apparatus,” approved September 15, 2013, IBR approved for § 431.102.
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM C518-15, “Standard Test Method for Steady-State Thermal Transmission Properties by Means of the Heat Flow Meter Apparatus,” approved September 1, 2015, IBR approved for § 431.102t.
</P>
<P>(3) ASTM D2156-09 (Reapproved 2013), “Standard Test Method for Smoke Density in Flue Gases from Burning Distillate Fuels,” approved October 1, 2013, IBR approved for appendices A and C to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) CSA Group, 5060 Spectrum Way, Suite 100, Mississauga, Ontario, Canada L4W 5N6, 800-463-6727, or go to <I>http://www.csagroup.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI Z21.10.3-2015 * CSA 4.3-2015 (“ANSI Z21.10.3-2015”), “Gas-fired water heaters, volume III, storage water heaters with input ratings above 75,000 Btu per hour, circulating and instantaneous,” approved by ANSI on October 5, 2015, IBR approved for appendices A, B, and C to this subpart, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Annex E (normative) Efficiency test procedures—E.1—Method of test for measuring thermal efficiency, paragraph c—Vent requirements; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annex E (normative) Efficiency test procedures—E.1—Method of test for measuring thermal efficiency, paragraph f—Installation of temperature sensing means.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 28996, May 16, 2012, as amended at 81 FR 79322, Nov. 10, 2016; 88 FR 69821, Oct. 6, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.106" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.50.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.106   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy efficiency of commercial water heating equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains test procedures for measuring, pursuant to EPCA, the energy efficiency of commercial water heating equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> Determine the energy efficiency of commercial water heating equipment by conducting the applicable test procedure(s):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Residential-duty commercial water heaters.</I> Test in accordance with appendix E to subpart B of part 430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Commercial water heating equipment other than residential-duty commercial water heaters.</I> Test in accordance with the appropriate test procedures in appendices to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Gas-fired and oil-fired storage water heaters and storage-type instantaneous water heaters.</I> Test according to appendix A to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Electric storage water heaters and storage-type instantaneous water heaters.</I> Test according to appendix B to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Gas-fired and oil-fired instantaneous water heaters and hot water supply boilers (other than storage-type instantaneous water heaters).</I> Test according to appendix C to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Electric instantaneous water heaters (other than storage-type instantaneous water heaters).</I> Test according to appendix D to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Commercial heat pump water heaters.</I> Test according to appendix E to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 79322, Nov. 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="51" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.51" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.110" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.51.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.110   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each commercial storage water heater, instantaneous water heater, and hot water supply boiler (excluding residential-duty commercial water heaters) must meet the applicable energy conservation standard level(s) as specified in the table to this paragraph. Any packaged boiler that provides service water that meets the definition of “commercial packaged boiler” in subpart E of this part, but does not meet the definition of “hot water supply boiler” in subpart G of this part, must meet the requirements that apply to it under subpart E of this part.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 431.110(<E T="01">a</E>)—Commercial Water Heater Energy Conservation Standards
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Energy conservation standards 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum thermal
<br/>efficiency
<br/>(equipment
<br/>manufactured on
<br/>and after October 9, 2015)
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum thermal
<br/>efficiency
<br/>(equipment
<br/>manufactured on
<br/>and after October 6, 2026)
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum standby loss
<br/>(equipment manufactured on
<br/>and after October 29, 2003) 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum standby loss
<br/>(equipment manufactured on
<br/>and after October 6, 2026) 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric storage water heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30 + 27/V<E T="0732">m</E> (%/h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30 + 27/V<E T="0732">m</E> (%/h)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired storage water heaters and storage-type instantaneous water heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q/800 + 110(V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<sup>1/2</sup> (Btu/h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.86 × [Q/800 + 110(V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<sup>1/2</sup>] (Btu/h)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired storage water heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q/800 + 110(V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<sup>1/2</sup> (Btu/h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q/800 + 110(V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<sup>1/2</sup> (Btu/h)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric instantaneous water heaters 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;10 gal
<br/>≥10 gal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
<br/>77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
<br/>77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
<br/>2.30 + 67/V<E T="0732">m</E> (%/h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
<br/>2.30 + 67/V<E T="0732">m</E> (%/h)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired instantaneous water heaters and hot water supply boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;10 gal
<br/>≥10 gal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
<br/>80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">96
<br/>96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
<br/>Q/800 + 110(V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<sup>1/2</sup> (Btu/h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
<br/>Q/800 + 110(V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<sup>1/2</sup> (Btu/h)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired instantaneous water heater and hot water supply boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;10 gal
<br/>≥10 gal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
<br/>78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
<br/>78</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
<br/>Q/800 + 110(V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<sup>1/2</sup> (Btu/h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
<br/>Q/800 + 110(V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<sup>1/2</sup> (Btu/h)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> V<E T="0732">m</E> is the measured storage volume, and V<E T="0732">r</E> is the rated storage volume, both in gallons. Q is the rated input in Btu/h, as determined pursuant to 10 CFR 429.44.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Water heaters and hot water supply boilers with a rated storage volume greater than 140 gallons need not meet the standby loss requirement if:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(1) The tank surface area is thermally insulated to R-12.5 or more, with the R-value as defined in § 431.102
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(2) A standing pilot light is not used; and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(3) For gas-fired or oil-fired storage water heaters, they have a flue damper or fan-assisted combustion.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> The compliance date for energy conservation standards for electric instantaneous water heaters is January 1, 1994.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Each unfired hot water storage tank manufactured on and after October 29, 2003, must have a minimum thermal insulation of R-12.5.
</P>
<P>(c) Each residential-duty commercial water heater must meet the applicable energy conservation standard level(s) as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 431.110(<E T="01">c</E>)—Residential-Duty Commercial Water Heater Energy Conservation Standards
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Specifications 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Draw pattern
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Uniform energy factor 
<sup>b</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment manufactured before October 6, 2026
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment manufactured after October 6, 2026
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;75 kBtu/hr and ≤105 kBtu/hr and ≤120 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small
<br/>Low
<br/>Medium
<br/>High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2674−(0.0009 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.5362−(0.0012 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.6002−(0.0011 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.6597−(0.0009 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5374−(0.0009 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.8062−(0.0012 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.8702−(0.0011 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.9297−(0.0009 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;105 kBtu/hr and ≤140 kBtu/hr and ≤120 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small
<br/>Low
<br/>Medium
<br/>High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2932−(0.0015 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.5596−(0.0018 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.6194−(0.0016 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.6470−(0.0013 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2932−(0.0015 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.5596−(0.0018 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.6194−(0.0016 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
<br/>0.6470−(0.0013 × V<E T="0732">r</E>)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric instantaneous</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;12 kW and ≤58.6 kW and ≤2 gal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Very Small
<br/>Low
<br/>Medium
<br/>High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80
<br/>0.80
<br/>0.80
<br/>0.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80
<br/>0.80
<br/>0.80
<br/>0.80
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Additionally, to be classified as a residential-duty commercial water heater, a commercial water heater must meet the following conditions: (1) If the water heater requires electricity, it must use a single-phase external power supply; and (2) The water heater must not be designed to heat water to temperatures greater than 180 °F.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> V<E T="0732">r</E> is the rated storage volume (in gallons), as determined pursuant to 10 CFR 429.44.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 69822, Oct. 6, 2023]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.52.6.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart G of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Thermal Efficiency and Standby Loss of Gas-Fired and Oil-Fired Storage Water Heaters and Storage-Type Instantaneous Water Heaters
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of the subject commercial water heating equipment in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix or the procedures in 10 CFR 431.106 that were in place on January 1, 2016. On and after November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of gas-fired and oil-fired storage water heaters and storage-type instantaneous water heaters in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix to demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards at 10 CFR 431.110.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>1. General
</HD2>
<P>Determine the thermal efficiency and standby loss (as applicable) in accordance with the following sections of this appendix. Certain sections reference sections of Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105). Where the instructions contained in the sections below conflict with instructions in Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015, the instructions contained in this appendix control.
</P>
<HD2>2. Test Set-Up
</HD2>
<P>2.1. <I>Placement of Water Heater.</I> A water heater for installation on combustible floors must be placed on a 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch plywood platform supported by three 2 x 4-inch runners. If the water heater is for installation on noncombustible floors, suitable noncombustible material must be placed on the platform. When the use of the platform for a large water heater is not practical, the water heater may be placed on any suitable flooring. A wall-mounted water heater must be mounted on a simulated wall section.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Installation of Temperature Sensors.</I> Inlet and outlet water piping must be turned vertically downward from the connections on the water heater so as to form heat traps. Temperature sensors for measuring supply and outlet water temperatures must be installed upstream from the inlet heat trap piping and downstream from the outlet heat trap piping, respectively, in accordance with Figure 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 (as applicable based on the location of inlet and outlet piping connections) of this section.
</P>
<P>The water heater must meet the requirements shown in Figure 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 (as applicable) at all times during the conduct of the thermal efficiency and standby loss tests. Any factory-supplied heat traps must be installed per the installation instructions while ensuring the requirements in Figure 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 are met. All dimensions specified in Figure 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3 and in this section are measured from the outer surface of the pipes and water heater outer casing (as applicable).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.013.gif"/>
<P>2.3 <I>Installation of Temperature Sensors for Measurement of Mean Tank Temperature.</I> Install temperature sensors inside the tank for measurement of mean tank temperature according to the instructions in paragraph f of Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105). Calculate the mean tank temperature as the average of the six installed temperature sensors.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Piping Insulation.</I> Insulate all water piping external to the water heater jacket, including heat traps and piping that are installed by the manufacturer or shipped with the unit, for at least 4 ft of piping length from the connection at the appliance, with material having an R-value not less than 4 °F·ft
<SU>2</SU>·h/Btu. Ensure that the insulation does not contact any appliance surface except at the location where the pipe connections penetrate the appliance jacket or enclosure.
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Temperature and Pressure Relief Valve Insulation.</I> If the manufacturer has not provided a temperature and pressure relief valve, one shall be installed and insulated as specified in section 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.6. <I>Vent Requirements.</I> Follow the requirements for venting arrangements specified in paragraph c of Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105).
</P>
<P>2.7. <I>Energy Consumption.</I> Install equipment that determines, within ± 1 percent:
</P>
<P>2.7.1. The quantity and rate of fuel consumed.
</P>
<P>2.7.2. The quantity of electricity consumed by factory-supplied water heater components.
</P>
<HD2>3. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P>3.1. <I>Water Supply</I>
</P>
<P>3.1.1. <I>Water Supply Pressure.</I> The pressure of the water supply must be maintained between 40 psi and the maximum pressure specified by the manufacturer of the unit being tested. The accuracy of the pressure-measuring devices must be within ± 1.0 pounds per square inch (psi).
</P>
<P>3.1.2. <I>Water Supply Temperature.</I> During the steady-state verification period and the thermal efficiency test, the temperature of the supply water must be maintained at 70 °F ± 2 °F.
</P>
<P>3.1.3. Isolate the water heater using a shutoff valve in the supply line with an expansion tank installed in the supply line downstream of the shutoff valve. There must be no shutoff means between the expansion tank and the appliance inlet.
</P>
<P>3.2. <I>Gas Pressure for Gas-Fired Equipment.</I> The supply gas pressure must be within the range specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit being tested. The difference between the outlet pressure of the gas appliance pressure regulator and the value specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit being tested must not exceed the greater of: ± 10 percent of the nameplate value or ± 0.2 inches water column (in. w.c.). Obtain the higher heating value of the gas burned.
</P>
<P>3.3. <I>Ambient Room Temperature.</I> During the soak-in period (as applicable), the steady-state verification period, the thermal efficiency test, and the standby loss test, maintain the ambient room temperature at 75 °F ± 10 °F at all times. Measure the ambient room temperature at 1-minute intervals during these periods, except for the soak-in period. Measure the ambient room temperature once before beginning the soak-in period, and ensure no actions are taken during the soak-in period that would cause the ambient room temperature to deviate from the allowable range. Measure the ambient room temperature at the vertical mid-point of the water heater and approximately 2 feet from the water heater jacket. Shield the sensor against radiation. Calculate the average ambient room temperature separately for the thermal efficiency test and standby loss test. During the thermal efficiency and standby loss tests, the ambient room temperature must not vary by more than ± 5.0 °F at any reading from the average ambient room temperature.
</P>
<P>3.4. <I>Test Air Temperature.</I> During the steady-state verification period, the thermal efficiency test, and the standby loss test, the test air temperature must not vary by more than ± 5 °F from the ambient room temperature at any reading. Measure the test air temperature at 1-minute intervals during these periods and at a location within two feet of the air inlet of the water heater or the combustion air intake vent, as applicable. Shield the sensor against radiation. For units with multiple air inlets, measure the test air temperature at each air inlet, and maintain the specified tolerance on deviation from the ambient room temperature at each air inlet. For units without a dedicated air inlet, measure the test air temperature within two feet of any location on the water heater where combustion air is drawn.
</P>
<P>3.5. <I>Maximum Air Draft.</I> During the steady-state verification period, the thermal efficiency test, and the standby loss test, the water heater must be located in an area protected from drafts of more than 50 ft/min. Prior to beginning the steady-state verification period and the standby loss test, measure the air draft within three feet of the jacket or enclosure of the water heater to ensure this condition is met. Ensure that no other changes that would increase the air draft are made to the test set-up or conditions during the conduct of the tests.
</P>
<P>3.6. <I>Setting the Tank Thermostat.</I> Before starting the steady-state verification period (as applicable) or before the soak-in period (as applicable), the thermostat setting must first be obtained by starting with the water in the system at 70 °F ± 2 °F. Set the thermostat to ensure:
</P>
<P>3.6.1. With the supply water temperature set as per section 3.1.2 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> 70 °F ± 2 °F), the water flow rate can be varied so that the outlet water temperature is constant at 70 °F ± 2 °F above the supply water temperature while the burner is firing at full firing rate; and
</P>
<P>3.6.2. After the water supply is turned off and the thermostat reduces the fuel supply to a minimum, the maximum water temperature measured by the topmost tank temperature sensor (<I>i.e.,</I> the highest of the 6 temperature sensors used for calculating mean tank temperature, as required by section 2.3 of this appendix) is 140 °F ± 5 °F.
</P>
<P>3.7. <I>Additional Requirements for Oil-Fired Equipment.</I>
</P>
<P>3.7.1. <I>Venting Requirements.</I> Connect a vertical length of flue pipe to the flue gas outlet of sufficient height so as to meet the minimum draft specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>3.7.2. <I>Oil Supply.</I> Adjust the burner rate so that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>3.7.2.1. The CO<E T="52">2</E> reading is within the range specified by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>3.7.2.2. The fuel pump pressure is within ± 10 percent of manufacturer's specifications;
</P>
<P>3.7.2.3. If either the fuel pump pressure or range for CO<E T="52">2</E> reading are not specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit, in literature shipped with the unit, or in supplemental test report instructions included with a certification report, then a default value of 100 psig is to be used for fuel pump pressure, and a default range of 9-12 percent is to be used for CO<E T="52">2</E> reading; and
</P>
<P>3.7.2.4. Smoke in the flue does not exceed No. 1 smoke as measured by the procedure in ASTM D2156-09 (Reapproved 2013) (incorporated by reference, see § 431.105). To determine the smoke spot number, connect the smoke measuring device to an open-ended tube. This tube must project into the flue 
<FR>1/4</FR> to 
<FR>1/2</FR> of the pipe diameter.
</P>
<P>3.7.2.5. If no settings on the water heater have been changed and the water heater has not been turned off since the end of a previously run thermal efficiency or standby loss test, measurement of the CO<E T="52">2</E> reading and conduct of the smoke spot test are not required prior to beginning a test. Otherwise, measure the CO<E T="52">2</E> reading and determine the smoke spot number, with the burner firing, before the beginning of the steady-state verification period prior to the thermal efficiency test, and prior to beginning the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>3.8. <I>Data Collection Intervals.</I> Follow the data recording intervals specified in the following sections.
</P>
<P>3.8.1. <I>Soak-In Period.</I> For units that require a soak-in period, measure the ambient room temperature, in °F, prior to beginning the soak-in period.
</P>
<P>3.8.2. <I>Steady-State Verification Period and Thermal Efficiency Test.</I> For the steady-state verification period and the thermal efficiency test, follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1—Data To Be Recorded Before and During the Steady-State Verification Period and Thermal Efficiency Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Before steady-state
<br/>verification
<br/>period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 1
<br/>minute 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 10
<br/>minutes
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas supply pressure, in w.c.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas outlet pressure, in w.c.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric pressure, in Hg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel higher heating value, Btu/ft
<sup>3</sup> (gas) or Btu/lb (oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil pump pressure, psig (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO<E T="52">2</E> reading, % (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil smoke spot reading (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air draft, ft/min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time, minutes/seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel weight or volume, lb (oil) or ft
<sup>3</sup> (gas)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>c</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supply water temperature (T<E T="52">SWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambient room temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Test air temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water flow rate, (gpm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> These measurements are to be recorded at the start of the steady-state verification period and the end of the thermal efficiency test, as well as every minute during both periods.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> The smoke spot test and CO<E T="52">2</E> reading are not required prior to beginning the steady-state verification period if no settings on the water heater have been changed and the water heater has not been turned off since the end of a previously-run efficiency test (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> thermal efficiency or standby loss).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Fuel and electricity consumption over the course of the entire thermal efficiency test must be measured and used in calculation of thermal efficiency.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>3.</I>8.3. <I>Standby Loss Test.</I> For the standby loss test, follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.2 of this appendix. Additionally, the fuel and electricity consumption over the course of the entire test must be measured and used in calculation of standby loss.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.2—Data To Be Recorded Before and During the Standby Loss Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Before test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 1 minute 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas supply pressure, in w.c.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas outlet pressure, in w.c.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric pressure, in Hg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel higher heating value, Btu/ft 
<sup>3</sup> (gas) or Btu/lb (oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil pump pressure, psig (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO<E T="52">2</E> reading, % (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil smoke spot reading (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air draft, ft/min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time, minutes/seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mean tank temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>c</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambient room temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Test air temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> These measurements are to be recorded at the start and end of the test, as well as every minute during the test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> The smoke spot test and CO<E T="52">2</E> reading are not required prior to beginning the standby loss test if no settings on the water heater have been changed and the water heater has not been turned off since the end of a previously-run efficiency test (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> thermal efficiency or standby loss).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Mean tank temperature is calculated as the average of the 6 tank temperature sensors, installed per section 2.3 of this appendix.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>4. Determination of Storage Volume.</I> Determine the storage volume by subtracting the tare weight, measured while the system is dry and empty, from the weight of the system when filled with water and dividing the resulting net weight of water by the density of water at the measured water temperature. The volume of the water contained in the water heater must be computed in gallons.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Thermal Efficiency Test.</I> Before beginning the steady-state verification period, record the applicable parameters as specified in section 3.8.2 of this appendix. Begin drawing water from the unit by opening the main supply, and adjust the water flow rate to achieve an outlet water temperature of 70 °F ± 2 °F above supply water temperature. The thermal efficiency test shall be deemed complete when there is a continuous, one-hour-long period where the steady-state conditions specified in section 5.1 of this appendix have been met, as confirmed by consecutive readings of the relevant parameters recorded at 1-minute intervals (except for fuel input rate, which is determined at 10-minute intervals, as specified in section 5.4 of this appendix). During the one-hour-long period, the water heater must fire continuously at its full firing rate (<I>i.e.,</I> no modulations or cut-outs) and no settings can be changed on the unit being tested at any time. The first 30 minutes of the one-hour-period where the steady-state conditions in section 5.1 of this appendix are met is the steady-state verification period. The final 30 minutes of the one-hour-period where the steady-state conditions in section 5.1 of this appendix are met is the thermal efficiency test. The last reading of the steady-state verification period must be the first reading of the thermal efficiency test (<I>i.e.,</I> the thermal efficiency test starts immediately once the steady-state verification period ends).
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>1. <I>Steady-State Conditions.</I> The following conditions must be met at consecutive readings taken at 1-minute intervals (except for fuel input rate, for which measurements are taken at 10-minute intervals) to verify the water heater has achieved steady-state operation during the steady-state verification period and thermal efficiency test.
</P>
<P>5.1.1. The water flow rate must be maintained within ± 0.25 gallons per minute (gpm) of the initial reading at the start of the steady-state verification period;
</P>
<P>5.1.2. Outlet water temperature must be maintained at 70 °F ± 2 °F above supply water temperature;
</P>
<P>5.1.3. Fuel input rate must be maintained within ± 2 percent of the rated input certified by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>5.1.4. The supply water temperature must be maintained within ± 0.50 °F of the initial reading at the start of the steady-state verification period; and
</P>
<P>5.1.5. The rise between the supply and outlet water temperatures must be maintained within ± 0.50 °F of its initial value taken at the start of the steady-state verification period for units with rated input less than 500,000 Btu/h, and maintained within ± 1.00 °F of its initial value for units with rated input greater than or equal to 500,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>5.2. <I>Water Flow Measurement.</I> Measure the total weight of water heated during the 30-minute thermal efficiency test with either a scale or a water flow meter. With either method, the error of measurement of weight of water heated must not exceed 1 percent of the weight of the total draw.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>3. <I>Determination of Fuel Input Rate.</I> During the steady-state verification period and the thermal efficiency test, record the fuel consumed at 10-minute intervals. Calculate the fuel input rate over each 10-minute period using the equations in section 5.4 of this appendix. The measured fuel input rates for these 10-minute periods must not vary by more than ± 2 percent between any two readings. Determine the overall fuel input rate using the fuel consumption for the entire duration of the thermal efficiency test.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>4. <I>Fuel Input Rate Calculation.</I> To calculate the fuel input rate, use the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.014.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = Fuel input rate, expressed in Btu/h
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s</E> = Total fuel flow as metered, expressed in ft
<SU>3</SU> for gas-fired equipment and lb for oil-fired equipment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">s</E> = Correction applied to the heating value of a gas H, when it is metered at temperature and/or pressure conditions other than the standard conditions for which the value of H is based. Cs=1 for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H = Higher heating value of fuel, expressed in Btu/ft
<SU>3</SU> for gas-fired equipment and Btu/lb for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Duration of measurement of fuel consumption
</FP-2>
<P><I>5.</I>5. <I>Thermal Efficiency Calculation.</I> Thermal efficiency must be calculated using data from the 30-minute thermal efficiency test. Calculate thermal efficiency, E<E T="52">t</E>, using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.015.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 1.004 Btu/lb· °F, the nominal specific heat of water at 105 °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = Total weight of water heated, expressed in lb
</FP-2>
<FP-2>θ<E T="52">1</E> = Average supply water temperature, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>θ<E T="52">2</E> = Average outlet water temperature, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = Total fuel flow as metered, expressed in ft
<SU>3</SU> for gas-fired equipment and lb for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">s</E> = Correction applied to the heating value of a gas H, when it is metered at temperature and/or pressure conditions other than the standard conditions for which the value of H is based. C<E T="52">s</E>=1 for oil-fired equipment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H. = Higher heating value of the fuel, expressed in Btu/ft
<SU>3</SU> for gas-fired equipment and Btu/lb for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = Electrical consumption of the water heater and, when used, the test set-up recirculating pump, expressed in Btu
</FP-2>
<HD2>6. Standby Loss Test
</HD2>
<P>6.1. If no settings on the water heater have changed and the water heater has not been turned off since a previously run thermal efficiency or standby loss test, skip to section 6.3 of this appendix. Otherwise, conduct the soak-in period according to section 6.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6.2. <I>Soak-In Period.</I> Conduct a soak-in period, in which the water heater must sit without any draws taking place for at least 12 hours. Begin the soak-in period after setting the tank thermostat as specified in section 3.6 of this appendix, and maintain these thermostat settings throughout the soak-in period.
</P>
<P>6.3. Begin the standby loss test at the first cut-out following the end of the soak-in period (if applicable); or at a cut-out following the previous thermal efficiency or standby loss test (if applicable). Allow the water heater to remain in standby mode. Do not change any settings on the water heater at any point until measurements for the standby loss test are finished. Begin recording the applicable parameters specified in section 3.8.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>6.</I>4. At the second cut-out, record the time and ambient room temperature, and begin measuring the fuel and electricity consumption. Record the initial mean tank temperature and initial ambient room temperature. For the remainder of the test, continue recording the applicable parameters specified in section 3.8.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>6.</I>5. Stop the test after the first cut-out that occurs after 24 hours, or at 48 hours, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P><I>6.</I>6. Immediately after conclusion of the standby loss test, record the total fuel flow and electrical energy consumption, the final ambient room temperature, the duration of the standby loss test, and if the test ends at 48 hours without a cut-out, the final mean tank temperature, or if the test ends after a cut-out, the maximum mean tank temperature that occurs after the cut-out. Calculate the average of the recorded values of the mean tank temperature and of the ambient room temperature taken at each measurement interval, including the initial and final values.
</P>
<P><I>6.</I>7. <I>Standby Loss Calculation.</I> To calculate the standby loss, follow the steps below:
</P>
<P><I>6.</I>7.1. The standby loss expressed as a percentage (per hour) of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature must be calculated using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.016.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">3</E> = Average value of the mean tank temperature minus the average value of the ambient room temperature, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">4</E> = Final mean tank temperature measured at the end of the test minus the initial mean tank temperature measured at the start of the test , expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = 8.25 Btu/gallon· °F, the nominal specific heat of water
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">a</E> = Volume of water contained in the water heater in gallons measured in accordance with section 4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = Thermal efficiency of the water heater determined in accordance with this appendix, expressed in %
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = Electrical energy consumed by the water heater during the duration of the test in Btu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Total duration of the test in hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">s</E> = Correction applied to the heating value of a gas H, when it is metered at temperature and/or pressure conditions other than the standard conditions for which the value of H is based. C<E T="52">s</E>=1 for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s</E> = Total fuel flow as metered, expressed in ft
<SU>3</SU> (gas) or lb (oil)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H = Higher heating value of fuel, expressed in Btu/ft
<SU>3</SU> (gas) or Btu/lb (oil)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S = Standby loss, the average hourly energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed as a percentage of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature
</FP-2>
<P>6.7.2. The standby loss expressed in Btu per hour must be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>SL (Btu per hour) = S (% per hour) × 8.25 (Btu/gal- °F) × Measured Volume (gal) × 70 ( °F).
</P>
<P>Where, SL refers to the standby loss of the water heater, defined as the amount of energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed in Btu per hour
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 79323, Nov. 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.52.6.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart G of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Standby Loss of Electric Storage Water Heaters and Storage-Type Instantaneous Water Heaters
</HEAD>
<P><I>Note:</I> Prior to November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of the subject commercial water heating equipment in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix or the procedures in 10 CFR 431.106 that were in place on January 1, 2016. On and after November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of electric storage water heaters and storage-type instantaneous water heaters in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix to demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards at 10 CFR 431.110.
</P>
<HD2>1. General
</HD2>
<P>Determine the standby loss in accordance with the following sections of this appendix. Certain sections reference sections of Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105). Where the instructions contained in the sections below conflict with instructions in Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015, the instructions contained in this appendix control.
</P>
<HD2>2. Test Set-Up
</HD2>
<P><I>2.</I>1. <I>Placement of Water Heater.</I> A water heater for installation on combustible floors must be placed on a 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch plywood platform supported by three 2 × 4-inch runners. If the water heater is for installation on noncombustible floors, suitable noncombustible material must be placed on the platform. When the use of the platform for a large water heater is not practical, the water heater may be placed on any suitable flooring. A wall-mounted water heater must be mounted on a simulated wall section.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>2. <I>Installation of Temperature Sensors.</I> Inlet and outlet piping must be turned vertically downward from the connections on a tank-type water heater so as to form heat traps. Temperature sensors for measuring supply water temperature must be installed upstream of the inlet heat trap piping, in accordance with Figure 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 (as applicable) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>The water heater must meet the requirements shown in either Figure 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 (as applicable) at all times during the conduct of the standby loss test. Any factory-supplied heat traps must be installed per the installation instructions while ensuring the requirements in Figure 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 are met. All dimensions specified in Figure 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3 are measured from the outer surface of the pipes and water heater outer casing (as applicable).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.018.gif"/>
<P>2.3. Installation of <I>Temperature Sensors for Measurement of Mean Tank Temperature.</I> Install temperature sensors inside the tank for measurement of mean tank temperature according to the instructions in paragraph f of Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105 rt). Calculate the mean tank temperature as the average of the six installed temperature sensors.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>4. <I>Piping Insulation.</I> Insulate all water piping external to the water heater jacket, including heat traps and piping that is installed by the manufacturer or shipped with the unit, for at least 4 ft of piping length from the connection at the appliance, with material having an R-value not less than 4 °F·ft
<SU>2</SU>·h/Btu. Ensure that the insulation does not contact any appliance surface except at the location where the pipe connections penetrate the appliance jacket or enclosure.
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Temperature and Pressure Relief Valve Insulation.</I> If the manufacturer or has not provided a temperature and pressure relief valve, one shall be installed and insulated as specified in section 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>6. <I>Energy Consumption.</I> Install equipment that determines, within ± 1 percent, the quantity of electricity consumed by factory-supplied water heater components.
</P>
<HD2>3. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<HD3>3.1. Water Supply
</HD3>
<P><I>3.</I>1.1. <I>Water Supply Pressure.</I> The pressure of the water supply must be maintained between 40 psi and the maximum pressure specified by the manufacturer of the unit being tested. The accuracy of the pressure-measuring devices must be within ± 1.0 pounds per square inch (psi).
</P>
<P>3.1.2. <I>Water Supply Temperature.</I> When filling the tank with water prior to the soak-in period, maintain the supply water temperature at 70 °F ± 2 °F.
</P>
<P>3.1.3. Isolate the water heater using a shutoff valve in the supply line with an expansion tank installed in the supply line downstream of the shutoff valve. There must be no shutoff means between the expansion tank and the appliance inlet.
</P>
<P>3.2. <I>Electrical Supply.</I> Maintain the electrical supply voltage to within ± 5 percent of the voltage specified on the water heater nameplate. If a voltage range is specified on the nameplate, maintain the voltage to within ± 5 percent of the center of the voltage range specified on the nameplate.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>3. <I>Ambient Room Temperature.</I> During the soak-in period and the standby loss test, maintain the ambient room temperature at 75 °F ± 10 °F at all times. Measure the ambient room temperature at 1-minute intervals during these periods, except for the soak-in period. Measure the ambient room temperature once before beginning the soak-in period, and ensure no actions are taken during the soak-in period that would cause the ambient room temperature to deviate from the allowable range. Measure the ambient room temperature at the vertical mid-point of the water heater and approximately 2 feet from the water heater jacket. Shield the sensor against radiation. Calculate the average ambient room temperature for the standby loss test. During the standby loss test, the ambient room temperature must not vary by more than ± 5.0 °F at any reading from the average ambient room temperature.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>4. <I>Maximum Air Draft.</I> During the standby loss test, the water heater must be located in an area protected from drafts of more than 50 ft/min. Prior to beginning the standby loss test, measure the air draft within three feet of the jacket of the water heater to ensure this condition is met. Ensure that no other changes that would increase the air draft are made to the test set-up or conditions during the conduct of the test.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>5. <I>Setting the Tank Thermostat(s).</I> Before starting the required soak-in period, the thermostat setting(s) must first be obtained as explained in the following sections. The thermostat setting(s) must be obtained by starting with the tank full of water at 70 °F ± 2 °F. After the tank is completely filled with water at 70 °F ± 2 °F, turn off the water flow, and set the thermostat(s) as follows.
</P>
<P>3.5.1. For water heaters with a single thermostat, the thermostat setting must be set so that the maximum mean tank temperature after cut-out is 140 °F ± 5 °F.
</P>
<P>3.5.2. For water heaters with multiple adjustable thermostats, set only the topmost and bottommost thermostats, and turn off any other thermostats for the duration of the standby loss test. Set the topmost thermostat first to yield a maximum mean water temperature after cut-out of 140 °F ± 5 °F, as calculated using only the temperature readings measured at locations in the tank higher than the heating element corresponding to the topmost thermostat (the lowermost heating element corresponding to the topmost thermostat if the thermostat controls more than one element). While setting the topmost thermostat, all lower thermostats must be turned off so that no elements below that (those) corresponding to the topmost thermostat are in operation. After setting the topmost thermostat, set the bottommost thermostat to yield a maximum mean water temperature after cut-out of 140 °F ± 5 °F. When setting the bottommost thermostat, calculate the mean tank temperature using all the temperature sensors installed in the tank as per section 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.6. <I>Data Collection Intervals.</I> Follow the data recording intervals specified in the following sections.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>6.1. <I>Soak-In Period.</I> Measure the ambient room temperature, in °F, every minute during the soak-in period.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>6.2. <I>Standby Loss Test.</I> Follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.1 of this appendix. Additionally, the electricity consumption over the course of the entire test must be measured and used in calculation of standby loss.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1—Data To Be Recorded Before and During the Standby Loss Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Before test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 1
<br/>minute 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air draft, ft/min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time, minutes/seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mean tank temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambient room temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> These measurements are to be recorded at the start and end of the test, as well as every minute during the test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Mean tank temperature is calculated as the average of the 6 tank temperature sensors, installed per section 2.3 of this appendix.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>4. Determination of Storage Volume.</I> Determine the storage volume by subtracting the tare weight, measured while the system is dry and empty, from the weight of the system when filled with water and dividing the resulting net weight of water by the density of water at the measured water temperature. The volume of water contained in the water heater must be computed in gallons.
</P>
<HD2>5. Standby Loss Test
</HD2>
<P><I>5.</I>1. If no settings on the water heater have changed and the water heater has not been turned off since a previously run standby loss test, skip to section 5.3 of this appendix. Otherwise, conduct the soak-in period according to section 5.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.2. <I>Soak-In Period.</I> Conduct a soak-in period, in which the water heater must sit without any draws taking place for at least 12 hours. Begin the soak-in period after setting the tank thermostat(s) as specified in section 3.5 of this appendix, and maintain these settings throughout the soak-in period.
</P>
<P>5.3. Begin the standby loss test at the first cut-out following the end of the soak-in period (if applicable), or at a cut-out following the previous standby loss test (if applicable). Allow the water heater to remain in standby mode. At this point, do not change any settings on the water heater until measurements for the standby loss test are finished. Begin recording applicable parameters as specified in section 3.6.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.4. At the second cut-out, record the time and ambient room temperature, and begin measuring the electric consumption. Record the initial mean tank temperature and initial ambient room temperature. For the remainder of the test, continue recording the applicable parameters specified in section 3.6.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.5. Stop the test after the first cut-out that occurs after 24 hours, or at 48 hours, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>6. Immediately after conclusion of the standby loss test, record the total electrical energy consumption, the final ambient room temperature, the duration of the standby loss test, and if the test ends at 48 hours without a cut-out, the final mean tank temperature, or if the test ends after a cut-out, the maximum mean tank temperature that occurs after the cut-out. Calculate the average of the recorded values of the mean tank temperature and of the ambient air temperatures taken at each measurement interval, including the initial and final values.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>7. <I>Standby Loss Calculation.</I> To calculate the standby loss, follow the steps below:
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>7.1 The standby loss expressed as a percentage (per hour) of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature must be calculated using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.019.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">3</E> = Average value of the mean tank temperature minus the average value of the ambient room temperature, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">4</E> = Final mean tank temperature measured at the end of the test minus the initial mean tank temperature measured at the start of the test, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = 8.25 Btu/gallon· °F, the nominal specific heat of water
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">a</E> = Volume of water contained in the water heater in gallons measured in accordance with section 4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = Thermal efficiency = 98 percent for electric water heaters with immersed heating elements
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = Electrical energy consumed by the water heater during the duration of the test in Btu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Total duration of the test in hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S = Standby loss, the average hourly energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed as a percentage of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 79328, Nov. 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.52.6.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart G of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Thermal Efficiency and Standby Loss of Gas-Fired and Oil-Fired Instantaneous Water Heaters and Hot Water Supply Boilers (Other Than Storage-Type Instantaneous Water Heaters)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of the subject commercial water heating equipment in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix or the procedures in 10 CFR 431.106 that were in place on January 1, 2016. On and after November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of gas-fired and oil-fired instantaneous water heaters and hot water supply boilers (other than storage-type instantaneous water heaters) in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix to demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards at 10 CFR 431.110.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>1. General
</HD3>
<P>Determine the thermal efficiency and standby loss (as applicable) in accordance with the following sections of this appendix. Certain sections reference sections of Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105). Where the instructions contained in the sections below conflict with instructions in Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015, the instructions contained in this appendix control.
</P>
<HD3>2. Test Set-Up
</HD3>
<P><I>2.</I>1. <I>Placement of Water Heater.</I> A water heater for installation on combustible floors must be placed on a 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch plywood platform supported by three 2 x 4-inch runners. If the water heater is for installation on noncombustible floors, suitable noncombustible material must be placed on the platform. When the use of the platform for a large water heater is not practical, the water heater may be placed on any suitable flooring. A wall-mounted water heater must be mounted on a simulated wall section.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>2. <I>Test Configuration.</I> If the instantaneous water heater or hot water supply boiler is not required to be tested using a recirculating loop, then set up the unit in accordance with Figures 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 of this appendix (as applicable). If the unit is required to be tested using a recirculating loop, then set up the unit as per Figure 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.020.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.021.gif"/>
<P>2.2.1. If the instantaneous water heater or hot water supply boiler does not have any external piping, install an outlet water valve within 10 inches of piping length of the water heater jacket or enclosure. If the instantaneous water heater or hot water supply boiler includes external piping assembled at the manufacturer's premises prior to shipment, install water valves in the outlet piping within 5 inches of the end of the piping supplied with the unit.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>2.2. If the water heater is not able to achieve an outlet water temperature of 70 °F ± 2 °F (T<E T="52">OWT</E>) above the supply water temperature at full firing rate, a recirculating loop with pump as shown in Figure 2.4 of this appendix must be used.
</P>
<P>2.2.2.1. If a recirculating loop with a pump is used, then ensure that the inlet water temperature labeled as T<E T="52">IWT</E> in Figure 2.4 of this appendix, is greater than or equal to 70 °F and less than or equal to 120 °F at all times during the thermal efficiency test and steady-state verification period (as applicable).
</P>
<HD3>2.3. Installation of Temperature Sensors
</HD3>
<P>2.3.1. <I>Without Recirculating Loop.</I>
</P>
<P>2.3.1.1. <I>Vertical Connections.</I> Use Figure 2.1 (for top connections) and 2.2 (for bottom connections) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.1.2. <I>Horizontal Connections.</I> Use Figure 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.2. <I>With Recirculating Loop.</I> Set up the recirculating loop as shown in Figure 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.3. For water heaters with multiple outlet water connections leaving the water heater jacket that are required to be operated to achieve the rated input, temperature sensors must be installed for each outlet water connection leaving the water heater jacket or enclosure that is used during testing, in accordance with the provisions in sections 2.3.1 and 2.3.2 of this appendix (as applicable).
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>4. <I>Piping Insulation.</I> Insulate all water piping external to the water heater jacket or enclosure, including piping that is installed by the manufacturer or shipped with the unit, for at least 4 ft of piping length from the connection at the appliance with material having an R-value not less than 4 °F·ft
<SU>2</SU>·h/Btu. Ensure that the insulation does not contact any appliance surface except at the location where the pipe connections penetrate the appliance jacket or enclosure.
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Temperature and Pressure Relief Valve Insulation.</I> If the manufacturer has not provided a temperature and pressure relief valve, one shall be installed and insulated as specified in section 2.4 of this appendix. The temperature and pressure relief valve must be installed in the outlet water piping, between the unit being tested and the outlet water valve.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>6. <I>Vent Requirements.</I> Follow the requirements for venting arrangements specified in paragraph c of Annex E.1 of ANSI Z21.10.3-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105).
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>7. <I>Energy Consumption.</I> Install equipment that determines, within ± 1 percent:
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>7.1. The quantity and rate of fuel consumed.
</P>
<P>2.7.2. The quantity of electricity consumed by factory-supplied water heater components, and of the test loop recirculating pump, if used.
</P>
<HD3>3. Test Conditions
</HD3>
<HD3>3.1. Water Supply
</HD3>
<P>3.1.1. <I>Water Supply Pressure.</I> The pressure of the water supply must be maintained between 40 psi and the maximum pressure specified by the manufacturer of the unit being tested. The accuracy of the pressure-measuring devices must be within ± 1.0 psi.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>1.2. <I>Water Supply Temperature.</I> During the thermal efficiency test and steady-state verification period (as applicable), the temperature of the supply water (T<E T="52">SWT</E>) must be maintained at 70 °F ± 2 °F.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>2. <I>Gas Pressure for Gas-Fired Equipment.</I> The supply gas pressure must be within the range specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit being tested. The difference between the outlet pressure of the gas appliance pressure regulator and the value specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit being tested must not exceed the greater of: ± 10 percent of the nameplate value or ± 0.2 inches water column (in. w.c.). Obtain the higher heating value of the gas burned.
</P>
<P>3.3. <I>Ambient Room Temperature.</I> Maintain the ambient room temperature at 75 °F ± 10 °F at all times during the steady-state verification period, the thermal efficiency test, and the standby loss test (as applicable). Measure the ambient room temperature at 1-minute intervals during these periods. Measure the ambient room temperature at the vertical mid-point of the water heater and approximately 2 feet from the water heater jacket or enclosure. Shield the sensor against radiation. Calculate the average ambient room temperature separately for the thermal efficiency test and the standby loss test. During the thermal efficiency and standby loss tests, the ambient room temperature must not vary by more than ± 5.0 °F at any reading from the average ambient room temperature.
</P>
<P>3.4. <I>Test Air Temperature.</I> During the steady-state verification period, the thermal efficiency test, and the standby loss test (as applicable), the test air temperature must not vary by more than ± 5 °F from the ambient room temperature at any reading. Measure the test air temperature at 1-minute intervals during these periods and at a location within two feet of the air inlet of the water heater or the combustion air intake vent, as applicable. Shield the sensor against radiation. For units with multiple air inlets, measure the test air temperature at each air inlet, and maintain the specified tolerance on deviation from the ambient room temperature at each air inlet. For units without a dedicated air inlet, measure the test air temperature within two feet of any location on the water heater where combustion air is drawn.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>5. <I>Maximum Air Draft.</I> During the steady-state verification period, the thermal efficiency test, and the standby loss test (as applicable), the water heater must be located in an area protected from drafts of more than 50 ft/min. Prior to beginning the steady-state verification period and the standby loss test, measure the air draft within three feet of the jacket or enclosure of the water heater to ensure this condition is met. Ensure that no other changes that would increase the air draft are made to the test set-up or conditions during the conduct of the tests.
</P>
<HD3>3.6. Primary Control
</HD3>
<P>3.6.1. <I>Thermostatically-Activated Water Heaters With an Internal Thermostat.</I> Before starting the thermal efficiency test and the standby loss test (unless the thermostat is already set before the thermal efficiency test), the thermostat setting must be obtained. Set the thermostat to ensure:
</P>
<P>3.6.1.1. With supply water temperature set as per section 3.1.2 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> 70 °F ± 2 °F) the water flow rate can be varied so that the outlet water temperature is constant at 70 °F ± 2 °F above the supply water temperature, while the burner is firing at full firing rate; and
</P>
<P>3.6.1.2. After the water supply is turned off and the thermostat reduces the fuel supply to a minimum, the maximum heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) is 140 °F ± 5 °F.
</P>
<P>3.6.1.3. If the water heater includes a built-in safety mechanism that prevents it from achieving a heat exchanger outlet water temperature of 140 °F ± 5 °F, adjust the thermostat to its maximum setting.
</P>
<P>3.6.2. <I>Flow-Activated Instantaneous Water Heaters and Thermostatically-Activated Instantaneous Water Heaters With an External Thermostat.</I> Energize the primary control such that it is always calling for heating and the burner is firing at the full firing rate. Maintain the supply water temperature as per section 3.1.2 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> 70 °F ± 2 °F). Set the control so that the outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OWT</E>) is 140 °F ± 5 °F. If the water heater includes a built-in safety mechanism that prevents it from achieving a heat exchanger outlet water temperature of 140 °F ± 5 °F, adjust the control to its maximum setting.
</P>
<HD3>3.7. Units With Multiple Outlet Water Connections
</HD3>
<P>3.7.1. For each connection leaving the water heater that is required for the unit to achieve the rated input, the outlet water temperature must not differ from that of any other outlet water connection by more than 2 °F during the steady-state verification period and thermal efficiency test.
</P>
<P>3.7.2. Determine the outlet water temperature representative for the entire unit at every required measurement interval by calculating the average of the outlet water temperatures measured at each connection leaving the water heater jacket or enclosure that is used during testing. Use the outlet water temperature representative for the entire unit in all calculations for the thermal efficiency and standby loss tests, as applicable.
</P>
<P>3.8. <I>Additional Requirements for Oil-Fired Equipment.</I>
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>8.1. <I>Venting Requirements.</I> Connect a vertical length of flue pipe to the flue gas outlet of sufficient height so as to meet the minimum draft specified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>3.8.2. <I>Oil Supply.</I> Adjust the burner rate so that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>3.8.2.1. The CO<E T="52">2</E> reading is within the range specified by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>3.8.2.2. The fuel pump pressure is within ± 10 percent of manufacturer's specifications;
</P>
<P>3.8.2.3. If either the fuel pump pressure or range for CO<E T="52">2</E> reading are not specified by the manufacturer on the nameplate of the unit, in literature shipped with the unit, or in supplemental test report instructions included with a certification report, then a default value of 100 psig is to be used for fuel pump pressure, and a default range of 9-12 percent is to be used for CO<E T="52">2</E> reading; and
</P>
<P>3.8.2.4. Smoke in the flue does not exceed No. 1 smoke as measured by the procedure in ASTM D2156-09 (Reapproved 2013) (incorporated by reference, see § 431.105). To determine the smoke spot number, the smoke measuring device shall be connected to an open-ended tube. This tube must project into the flue 
<FR>1/4</FR> to 
<FR>1/2</FR> of the pipe diameter.
</P>
<P>3.8.2.5. If no settings on the water heater have been changed and the water heater has not been turned off since the end of a previously run thermal efficiency (or standby loss test for thermostatically-activated instantaneous water heaters with an internal thermostat), measurement of the CO<E T="52">2</E> reading and conduct of the smoke spot test are not required prior to beginning a test. Otherwise, measure the CO<E T="52">2</E> reading and determine the smoke spot number, with the burner firing, before beginning measurements for the steady-state verification period (prior to beginning the thermal efficiency test or standby loss test, as applicable). However, measurement of the CO<E T="52">2</E> reading and conduct of the smoke spot test are not required for the standby loss test for thermostatically-activated instantaneous water heaters with an external thermostat and flow-activated instantaneous water heaters.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>9. <I>Data Collection Intervals.</I> Follow the data recording intervals specified in the following sections.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>9.1. <I>Steady-State Verification Period and Thermal Efficiency Test.</I> For the steady-state verification period and the thermal efficiency test, follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.1 of this appendix. These data recording intervals must also be followed if conducting a steady-state verification period prior to conducting the standby loss test.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1—Data To Be Recorded Before and During the Steady-State Verification Period and Thermal Efficiency Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Before
<br/>steady-state
<br/>verification period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 1
<br/>minute 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 10
<br/>minutes
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas supply pressure, in w.c.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas outlet pressure, in w.c.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric pressure, in Hg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel higher heating value, Btu/ft 
<sup>3</sup> (gas) or Btu/lb (oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil pump pressure, psig (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO<E T="52">2</E> reading, % (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil smoke spot reading (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air draft, ft/min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time, minutes/seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel weight or volume, lb (oil) or ft 
<sup>3</sup> (gas)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
<sup>c</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supply water temperature (T<E T="52">SWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inlet water temperature (T<E T="52">IWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>d</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambient room temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Test air temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water flow rate, gpm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> These measurements are to be recorded at the start and end of both the steady-state verification period and the thermal efficiency test, as well as every minute during both periods.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> The smoke spot test and CO<E T="52">2</E> reading are not required prior to beginning the steady-state verification period if no settings on the water heater have been changed and the water heater has not been turned off since the end of a previously-run efficiency test (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> thermal efficiency or standby loss).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Fuel and electricity consumption over the course of the entire thermal efficiency test must be measured and used in calculation of thermal efficiency.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> Only measured when a recirculating loop is used.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.9.2. <I>Standby Loss Test.</I> For the standby loss test, follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.2 of this appendix. (Follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.1 of this appendix of the steady-state verification period, if conducted prior to the standby loss test.) Additionally, the fuel and electricity consumption over the course of the entire test must be measured and used in calculation of standby loss.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.2—Data To Be Recorded Before and During the Standby Loss Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Before test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 1
<br/>minute 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas supply pressure, in w.c.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas outlet pressure, in w.c.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barometric pressure, in Hg</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel higher heating value, Btu/ft 
<sup>3</sup> (gas) or Btu/lb (oil)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil pump pressure, psig (oil only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air draft, ft/min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time, minutes/seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambient room temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Test air temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water flow rate, gpm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inlet water temperature (T<E T="52">IWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> These measurements are to be recorded at the start and end of the test, as well as every minute during the test.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> The water flow rate and supply water temperature and inlet water temperature (if a recirculating loop is used) must be measured during the steady-state verification period at 1-minute intervals. After the steady-state verification period ends, flow rate, supply water temperature, and inlet water temperature (if measured) are not required to be measured during the standby loss test, as there is no flow occurring during the standby loss test.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>4. Determination of Storage Volume.</I> Determine the storage volume by subtracting the tare weight, measured while the system is dry and empty, from the weight of the system when filled with water and dividing the resulting net weight of water by the density of water at the measured water temperature. The volume of water contained in the water heater must be computed in gallons.
</P>
<HD3>5. Fuel Input Rate
</HD3>
<P><I>5.1. Determination of Fuel Input Rate.</I> During the steady-state verification period and thermal efficiency test, as applicable, record the fuel consumption at 10-minute intervals. Calculate the fuel input rate for each 10-minute period using the equations in section 5.2 of this appendix. The measured fuel input rates for these 10-minute periods must not vary by more than ± 2 percent between any two readings. Determine the overall fuel input rate using the fuel consumption for the entire duration of the thermal efficiency test.
</P>
<P><I>5.2. Fuel Input Rate Calculation.</I> To calculate the fuel input rate, use the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.022.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = Fuel input rate, expressed in Btu/h
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s</E> = Total fuel flow as metered, expressed in ft
<SU>3</SU> for gas-fired equipment and lb for oil-fired equipment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">s</E> = Correction applied to the heating value of a gas H, when it is metered at temperature and/or pressure conditions other than the standard conditions for which the value of H is based. C<E T="52">s</E>=1 for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H = Higher heating value of the fuel, expressed as Btu/ft
<SU>3</SU> for gas-fired equipment and Btu/lb for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Duration of measurement of fuel consumption
</FP-2>
<P>6. <I>Thermal Efficiency Test.</I> Before beginning the steady-state verification period, record the applicable parameters as specified in section 3.9.1 of this appendix. Begin drawing water from the unit by opening the main supply and outlet water valve, and adjust the water flow rate to achieve an outlet water temperature of 70 °F ± 2 °F above supply water temperature. The thermal efficiency test shall be deemed complete when there is a continuous, one-hour-long period where the steady-state conditions specified in section 6.1 of this appendix have been met, as confirmed by consecutive readings of the relevant parameters at 1-minute intervals (except for fuel input rate, which is determined at 10-minute intervals, as specified in section 5.1 of this appendix). During the one-hour-long period, the water heater must fire continuously at its full firing rate (<I>i.e.,</I> no modulation or cut-outs) and no settings can be changed on the unit being tested at any time. The first 30 minutes of the one-hour-period where the steady-state conditions in section 6.1 of this appendix are met is the steady-state verification period. The final 30 minutes of the one-hour-period where the steady-state conditions in section 6.1 of this appendix are met is the thermal efficiency test. The last reading of the steady-state verification period must be the first reading of the thermal efficiency test (<I>i.e.,</I> the thermal efficiency test starts immediately once the steady-state verification period ends).
</P>
<P>6.1. <I>Steady-State Conditions.</I> The following conditions must be met at consecutive readings taken at 1-minute intervals (except for fuel input rate, for which measurements are taken at 10-minute intervals) to verify the water heater has achieved steady-state operation during the steady-state verification period and the thermal efficiency test.
</P>
<P>6.1.1. The water flow rate must be maintained within ± 0.25 gallons per minute (gpm) of the initial reading at the start of the steady-state verification period.
</P>
<P>6.1.2. Outlet water temperature must be maintained at 70 °F ± 2 °F above supply water temperature.
</P>
<P>6.1.3. Fuel input rate must be maintained within ± 2 percent of the rated input certified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>6.1.4. The supply water temperature (T<E T="52">SWT</E>) (or inlet water temperature (T<E T="52">IWT</E>) if a recirculating loop is used) must be maintained within ± 0.50 °F of the initial reading at the start of the steady-state verification period.
</P>
<P>6.1.5. The rise between supply (or inlet if a recirculating loop is used) and outlet water temperatures must be maintained within ± 0.50 °F of its initial value taken at the start of the steady-state verification period for units with rated input less than 500,000 Btu/h, and maintained within ± 1.00 °F of its initial value for units with rated input greater than or equal to 500,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>6.2. <I>Water Flow Measurement.</I> Measure the total weight of water heated during the 30-minute thermal efficiency test with either a scale or a water flow meter. With either method, the error of measurement of weight of water heated must not exceed 1 percent of the weight of the total draw.
</P>
<P>6.3. <I>Thermal Efficiency Calculation.</I> Thermal efficiency must be calculated using data from the 30-minute thermal efficiency test. Calculate thermal efficiency, E<E T="52">t</E>, using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.023.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 1.004 Btu/lb· °F, the nominal specific heat of water at 105 °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W = Total weight of water heated, lb
</FP-2>
<FP-2>θ<E T="52">1</E> = Average supply water temperature, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>θ<E T="52">2</E> = Average outlet water temperature, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = Total fuel flow as metered, expressed in ft
<SU>3</SU> (gas) or lb (oil)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">s</E> = Correction applied to the heating value of a gas H, when it is metered at temperature and/or pressure conditions other than the standard conditions for which the value of H is based. C<E T="52">s</E>=1 for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H = Higher heating value of the fuel, expressed in Btu/ft
<SU>3</SU> (gas) or Btu/lb (oil)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = Electrical consumption of the water heater and, when used, the test set-up recirculating pump, expressed in Btu
</FP-2>
<P>7. <I>Standby Loss Test.</I> If the standby loss test is conducted immediately after a thermal efficiency test and no settings or conditions have been changed since the completion of the thermal efficiency test, then skip to section 7.2 or 7.3 of this appendix (as applicable). Otherwise, perform the steady-state verification in section 7.1 of this appendix. For thermostatically-activated instantaneous water heaters with an internal thermostat, use section 7.2 of this appendix to conduct the standby loss test, and for flow-activated and/or thermostatically-activated instantaneous water heaters with an external thermostat use section 7.3 of this appendix to conduct the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>7.1. <I>Steady-State Verification Period.</I> For water heaters where the standby loss test is not conducted immediately following the thermal efficiency test, the steady-state verification period must be conducted before starting the standby loss test. Set the primary control in accordance with section 3.6 of this appendix, such that the primary control is always calling for heat and the water heater is firing continuously at the full firing rate (<I>i.e.,</I> no modulation or cut-outs). Begin drawing water from the unit by opening the main supply and the outlet water valve, and adjust the water flow rate to achieve an outlet water temperature of 70 °F ± 2 °F above supply water temperature. The steady-state verification period is complete when there is a continuous 30-minute period where the steady-state conditions specified in section 7.1.1 of this appendix are met, as confirmed by consecutive readings of the relevant parameters recorded at 1-minute intervals (except for fuel input rate, which is determined at 10-minute intervals, as specified in section 5.1 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>7.1.1. <I>Steady-State Conditions.</I> The following conditions must be met at consecutive readings taken at 1-minute intervals (except for fuel input rate, for which measurements are taken at 10-minute intervals) to verify the water heater has achieved steady-state operation during the steady-state verification period prior to conducting the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>7.1.1.1. The water flow rate must be maintained within ± 0.25 gallons per minute (gpm) of the initial reading at the start of the steady-state verification period;
</P>
<P>7.1.1.2. Fuel input rate must be maintained within ± 2 percent of the rated input certified by the manufacturer;
</P>
<P>7.1.1.3. The supply water temperature (T<E T="52">SWT</E>) (or inlet water temperature (T<E T="52">IWT</E>) if a recirculating loop is used) must be maintained within ± 0.50 °F of the initial reading at the start of the steady-state verification period; and
</P>
<P>7.1.1.4. The rise between the supply (or inlet if a recirculating loop is used) and outlet water temperatures must be maintained within ± 0.50 °F of its initial value taken at the start of the steady-state verification period for units with rated input less than 500,000 Btu/h, and maintained within ± 1.00 °F of its initial value for units with rated input greater than or equal to 500,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>7.2. <I>Thermostatically-Activated Instantaneous Water Heaters with an Internal Thermostat.</I> For water heaters that will experience cut-in based on a temperature-activated control that is internal to the water heater, use the following steps to conduct the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>7.2.1. Immediately after the thermal efficiency test or the steady-state verification period (as applicable), turn off the outlet water valve(s) (installed as per the provisions in section 2.2 of this appendix), and the water pump (if applicable) simultaneously and ensure that there is no flow of water through the water heater.
</P>
<P><I>7</I>.2.2. After the first cut-out following the end of the thermal efficiency test or steady-state verification period (as applicable), allow the water heater to remain in standby mode. Do not change any settings on the water heater at any point until measurements for the standby loss test are finished. Begin recording the applicable parameters specified in section 3.9.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>7</I>.2.3. At the second cut-out, record the time and ambient room temperature, and begin measuring the fuel and electricity consumption. Record the initial heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) and initial ambient room temperature. For the remainder of the test, continue recording the applicable parameters specified in section 3.9.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>7</I>.2.4. Stop the test after the first cut-out that occurs after 24 hours, or at 48 hours, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P><I>7</I>.2.5. Immediately after conclusion of the standby loss test, record the total fuel flow and electrical energy consumption, the final ambient room temperature, the duration of the standby loss test, and if the test ends at 48 hours without a cut-out, the final heat exchanger outlet temperature, or if the test ends after a cut-out, the maximum heat exchanger outlet temperature that occurs after the cut-out. Calculate the average of the recorded values of the heat exchanger outlet water temperature and the ambient room temperature taken at each measurement interval, including the initial and final values.
</P>
<P><I>7</I>.2.6. <I>Standby Loss Calculation.</I> To calculate the standby loss, follow the steps below:
</P>
<P><I>7</I>.2.6.1. The standby loss expressed as a percentage (per hour) of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature must be calculated using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.024.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">3</E> = Average value of the heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) minus the average value of the ambient room temperature, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">4</E> = Final heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) measured at the end of the test minus the initial heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) measured at the start of the test, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 8.25 Btu/gallon· °F, the nominal specific heat of water
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">a</E> = Volume of water contained in the water heater in gallons measured in accordance with section 4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = Thermal efficiency of the water heater determined in accordance with section 6 of this appendix, expressed in %
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = Electrical energy consumed by the water heater during the duration of the test in Btu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T = Total duration of the test in hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">s</E> = Correction applied to the heating value of a gas H, when it is metered at temperature and/or pressure conditions other than the standard conditions for which the value of H is based. C<E T="52">s</E>=1 for oil-fired equipment.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">s</E> = Total fuel flow as metered, expressed in ft
<SU>3</SU> (gas) or lb (oil)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H = Higher heating value of gas or oil, expressed in Btu/ft
<SU>3</SU> (gas) or Btu/lb (oil)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S = Standby loss, the average hourly energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed as a percentage of the initial heat content of the stored water above room temperature
</FP-2>
<P>7.2.6.2. The standby loss expressed in Btu per hour must be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>SL (Btu per hour) = S (% per hour) × 8.25 (Btu/gal- °F) × Measured Volume (gal) × 70 ( °F).
</P>
<P>Where, SL refers to the standby loss of the water heater, defined as the amount of energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed in Btu per hour.
</P>
<P>7.3. <I>Flow-Activated and Thermostatically-Activated Instantaneous Water Heaters with an External Thermostat.</I> For water heaters that are either flow-activated or thermostatically-activated with an external thermostat, use the following steps to conduct the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>7.3.1. Immediately after the thermal efficiency test or the steady-state verification period (as applicable), de-energize the primary control to end the call for heating. If the main burners do not cut out, then turn off the fuel supply.
</P>
<P><I>7.</I>3.1.1. If the unit does not have an integral pump purge functionality, then turn off the outlet water valve and water pump at this time.
</P>
<P>7.3.1.2. If the unit has an integral pump purge functionality, allow the pump purge operation to continue. After the pump purge operation is complete, immediately turn off the outlet water valve and water pump and continue recording the required parameters for the remainder of the test.
</P>
<HD3>7.3.2. Recording Data
</HD3>
<P>7.3.2.1. For units with pump purge functionality, record the initial heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>), and ambient room temperature when the main burner(s) cut-out or the fuel supply is turned off. After the pump purge operation is complete, record the time as t = 0 and the initial electricity meter reading. Continue to monitor and record the heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) and time elapsed from the start of the test, and the electricity consumption as per the requirements in section 3.9.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7.3.2.2. For unit<I>s</I> not equipped with pump purge functionality, begin recording the measurements as per the requirements of section 3.9.2 of this appendix when the main burner(s) cut-out or the fuel supply is turned off. Specifically, record the time as t = 0, and record the initial heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>), ambient room temperature, and electricity meter readings. Continue to monitor and record the heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) and the time elapsed from the start of the test as per the requirements in section 3.9.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7.3.3. <I>Stopping Criteria.</I> Stop the test when one of the following occurs:
</P>
<P>7.3.3.1. The heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) decreases by 35 °F from its value recorded immediately after the main burner(s) has cut-out, and the pump purge operation (if applicable) is complete; or
</P>
<P>7.3.3.2. 24 hours have elapsed from the start of the test.
</P>
<P>7.3.4. At the end of the test, record the final heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>), fuel consumed, electricity consumed from time t=0, and the time elapsed from the start of the test.
</P>
<HD3>7.3.5. Standby Loss Calculation
</HD3>
<P>7.3.5.1. Once the test is complete, use the following equation to calculate the standby loss as a percentage (per hour) of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.025.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">1</E> = Heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) measured after the pump purge operation is complete (if the unit is integrated with pump purge functionality); or after the main burner(s) cut-out (if the unit is not equipped with pump purge functionality) minus heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) measured at the end of the test, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">2</E> = Heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) minus the ambient temperature, both measured after the main burner(s) cut-out, at the start of the test, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K = 8.25 Btu/gallon· °F, the nominal specific heat of water
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">a</E> = Volume of water contained in the water heater in gallons measured in accordance with section 4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = Thermal efficiency of the water heater determined in accordance with section 6 of this appendix, expressed in %
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = Electrical energy consumed by the water heater during the duration of the test in Btu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Total duration of the test in hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S = Standby loss, the average hourly energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed as a percentage of the initial heat content of the stored water above room temperature
</FP-2>
<P>7.3.5.2. The standby loss expressed in terms of Btu per hour must be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>SL (Btu per hour) = S (% per hour) × 8.25 (Btu/gal- °F) × Measured Volume (gal) × 70 ( °F)
</P>
<P>Where, SL refers to the standby loss of the water heater, defined as the amount of energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed in Btu per hour.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 79332, Nov. 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.52.6.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart G of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Standby Loss of Electric Instantaneous Water Heaters (Other Than Storage-Type Instantaneous Water Heaters)
</HEAD>
<P><I>Note:</I> Prior to November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of the subject commercial water heating equipment in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix or the procedures in 10 CFR 431.106 that were in place on January 1, 2016. On and after November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of electric instantaneous water heaters (other than storage-type instantaneous water heaters) in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix to demonstrate compliance with the energy conservation standards at 10 CFR 431.110.
</P>
<HD3>1. General
</HD3>
<P>Determine the standby loss (as applicable) in accordance with the following sections of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>2. Test Set-Up
</HD3>
<P><I>2.</I>1. <I>Placement of Water Heater.</I> A water heater for installation on combustible floors must be placed on a 
<FR>3/4</FR>-inch plywood platform supported by three 2 × 4-inch runners. If the water heater is for installation on noncombustible floors, suitable noncombustible material must be placed on the platform. When the use of the platform for a large water heater is not practical, the water heater may be placed on any suitable flooring. A wall-mounted water heater must be mounted on a simulated wall section.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>2. <I>Test Configuration.</I> If the instantaneous water heater is not required to be tested using a recirculating loop, then set up the unit in accordance with Figure 2.1, 2.2, or 2.3 of this appendix (as applicable). If the unit is required to be tested using a recirculating loop, then set up the unit as per Figure 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.026.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.027.gif"/>
<P>2.2.1. If the instantaneous water heater does not have any external piping, install an outlet water valve within 10 inches of the piping length of the water heater jacket or enclosure. If the instantaneous water heater includes external piping assembled at the manufacturer's premises prior to shipment, install water valves in the outlet piping within 5 inches of the end of the piping supplied with the unit.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. If the water heater is not able to achieve an outlet water temperature of 70 °F ± 2 °F above the supply water temperature at a constant maximum electricity input rate, a recirculating loop with pump as shown in Figure 2.4 of this appendix must be used.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>2.2.1. If a recirculating loop with a pump is used, then ensure that the inlet water temperature (labeled as T<E T="52">IWT</E> in Figure 2.4 of this appendix) is greater than or equal to 70 °F and less than or equal to 120 °F at all times during the steady-state verification period.
</P>
<HD3>2.3. Installation of Temperature Sensors
</HD3>
<HD3>2.3.1. Without Recirculating Loop
</HD3>
<P>2.3.1.1. <I>Vertical Connections.</I> Use Figure 2.1 (for top connections) and 2.2 (for bottom connections) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.1.2. <I>Horizontal Connections.</I> Use Figure 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.2. <I>With Recirculating Loop.</I> Set up the recirculating loop as shown in Figure 2.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.3.3. For water heaters with multiple outlet water connections leaving the water heater jacket that are required to be operated to achieve the rated input, temperature sensors must be installed for each outlet water connection leaving the water heater jacket or enclosure that is used during testing, in accordance with sections 2.3.1 and 2.3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.4. <I>Piping Insulation.</I> Insulate all the water piping external to the water heater jacket or enclosure, including piping that is installed by the manufacturer or shipped with the unit, for at least 4 ft of piping length from the connection at the appliance with material having an R-value not less than 4 °F·f 
<SU>t2</SU>·h/Btu. Ensure that the insulation does not contact any appliance surface except at the location where the pipe connections penetrate the appliance jacket or enclosure.
</P>
<P>2.5. <I>Temperature and Pressure Relief Valve Insulation.</I> If the manufacturer has not provided a temperature and pressure relief valve, one shall be installed and insulated as specified in section 2.4 of this appendix. The temperature and pressure relief valve must be installed in the outlet water piping between the unit being tested and the outlet water valve.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I>6. <I>Energy Consumption.</I> Install equipment that determines, within ± 1 percent, the quantity of electricity consumed by factory-supplied water heater components, and of the test loop recirculating pump, if used.
</P>
<HD3>3. Test Conditions
</HD3>
<HD3>3.1. Water Supply
</HD3>
<P>3.1.1. <I>Water Supply Pressure.</I> The pressure of the water supply must be maintained between 40 psi and the maximum pressure specified by the manufacturer of the unit being tested. The accuracy of the pressure-measuring devices must be ± 1.0 psi.
</P>
<P>3.1.2. <I>Water Supply Temperature.</I> During the steady-state verification period, the temperature of the supply water (T<E T="52">SWT</E>) must be maintained at 70 °F ± 2 °F.
</P>
<P>.2. <I>Electrical Supply.</I> Maintain the electrical supply voltage to within ± 5 percent of the voltage specified on the water heater nameplate. If a voltage range is specified on the nameplate, maintain the voltage to within ± 5 percent of the center of the voltage range specified on the nameplate.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I>3. <I>Ambient Room Temperature.</I> Maintain the ambient room temperature at 75 °F ± 10 °F at all times during the steady-state verification period and the standby loss test. Measure the ambient room temperature at 1-minute intervals during these periods. Measure the ambient room temperature at the vertical mid-point of the water heater and approximately 2 feet from the water heater jacket or enclosure. Shield the sensor against radiation. Calculate the average ambient room temperature for the standby loss test. During the standby loss test, the ambient room temperature must not vary more than ± 5.0 °F at any reading from the average ambient room temperature.
</P>
<P>3.4. <I>Maximum Air Draft.</I> During the steady-state verification period and the standby loss test, the water heater must be located in an area protected from drafts of more than 50 ft/min. Prior to beginning steady-state verification before the standby loss test, measure the air draft within three feet of the jacket or enclosure of the water heater to ensure this condition is met. Ensure that no other changes that would increase the air draft are made to the test set-up or conditions during the conduct of the test.
</P>
<HD3>3.5. Primary Control
</HD3>
<P>3.5.1. <I>Thermostatically-Activated Water Heaters with an Internal Thermostat.</I> Before starting the steady-state verification prior to the standby loss test, the thermostat setting must be obtained. Set the thermostat to ensure:
</P>
<P>3.5.1.1. With supply water temperature as per section 3.1.2 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> 70 °F ± 2 °F) the water flow rate can be varied so that the outlet water temperature is constant at 70 °F ± 2 °F above the supply water temperature, while the heating element is operating at the rated input.
</P>
<P>3.5.1.2. After the water supply is turned off and the thermostat reduces the electricity supply to the heating element to a minimum, the maximum heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) is 140 °F ± 5 °F.
</P>
<P>3.5.1.3. If the water heater includes a built-in safety mechanism that prevents it from achieving a heat exchanger outlet water temperature of 140 °F ± 5 °F, adjust the thermostat to its maximum setting.
</P>
<P>3.5.2. <I>Flow-Activated Instantaneous Water Heaters and Thermostatically-Activated Instantaneous Water Heaters with an External Thermostat.</I> Before starting the steady-state verification prior to the standby loss test energize the primary control such that it is always calling for heating and the heating element is operating at the rated input. Maintain the supply water temperature as per section 3.1.2 of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> 70 °F ± 2 °F). Set the control so that the outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OWT</E>) is 140 °F ± 5 °F. If the water heater includes a built-in safety mechanism that prevents it from achieving a heat exchanger outlet water temperature of 140 °F ± 5 °F, adjust the control to its maximum setting.
</P>
<HD3>3.6. For Units With Multiple Outlet Water Connections
</HD3>
<P>3.6.1. For each connection leaving the water heater that is required for the unit to achieve the rated input, the outlet water temperature must not differ from that of any other outlet water connection by more than 2 °F during the steady-state verification period prior to the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>3.6.2. Determine the outlet water temperature representative for the entire unit at every required measurement interval by calculating the average of the outlet water temperatures measured at each connection leaving the water heater jacket or enclosure that is used during testing. Use the outlet water temperature representative for the entire unit in all calculations for the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>3.7. <I>Data Collection Intervals.</I> During the standby loss test, follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.1 of this appendix. Also, the electricity consumption over the course of the entire test must be measured and used in calculation of standby loss.
</P>
<P>3.7.1. <I>Steady-State Verification Period.</I> Follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.1—Data to be Recorded Before and During the Steady-State Verification Period
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Before
<br/>steady-state
<br/>verification
<br/>period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 1
<br/>minute 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 10
<br/>minutes
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air draft, ft/min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time, minutes/seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electricity Consumed, Btu</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supply water temperature (T<E T="52">SWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inlet water temperature (T<E T="52">IWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X 
<sup>b</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OWT</E>), °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambient room temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water flow rate, (gpm)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> These measurements are to be recorded at the start and end, as well as every minute of the steady-state verification period.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Only measured when a recirculating loop is used.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.7.2. <I>Standby Loss Test.</I> Follow the data recording intervals specified in Table 3.2 of this appendix. Additionally, the electricity consumption over the course of the entire test must be measured and used in calculation of standby loss.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3.2—Data to be Recorded Before and During the Standby Loss Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Item recorded
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Before test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Every 1
<br/>minute 
<sup>a</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air draft, ft/min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Time, minutes/seconds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat exchanger outlet water temperature, °F (T<E T="52">OHX</E>)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ambient room temperature, °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> These measurements are to be recorded at the start and end of the test, as well as every minute during the test.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>4. <I>Determination of Storage Volume.</I> Determine the storage volume by subtracting the tare weight—measured while the system is dry and empty—from the weight of the system when filled with water and dividing the resulting net weight of water by the density of water at the measured water temperature. The volume of water contained in the water heater must be computed in gallons.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Standby Loss Test.</I> Perform the steady-state verification period in accordance with section 5.1 of this appendix. For thermostatically-activated instantaneous water heaters with an internal thermostat, use section 5.2 of this appendix to conduct the standby loss test, and for flow-activated and/or thermostatically-activated instantaneous water heaters with an external thermostat (including remote thermostatically activated and/or flow-activated instantaneous water heaters), use section 5.3 of this appendix to conduct the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>Set the primary control in accordance with section 3.5 of this appendix, such that the primary control is always calling for heat and the water heater is operating at its full rated input. Begin drawing water from the unit by opening the main supply and the outlet water valve, and adjust the water flow rate to achieve an outlet water temperature of 70 °F ± 2 °F above supply water temperature. At this time, begin recording the parameters specified in section 3.7.1 of this appendix. The steady-state verification period is complete when there is a continuous 30-minute period where the steady-state conditions specified in section 5.1 of this appendix are met, as confirmed by consecutive readings of the relevant parameters recorded at 1-minute intervals (except for electric power input rate, which is determined at 10-minute intervals, as specified in section 3.7.1 of this appendix).
</P>
<P>5.1. <I>Steady-State Conditions.</I> The following conditions must be met at consecutive readings taken at 1-minute intervals (except for electricity input rate, for which measurements are taken at 10-minute intervals) to verify the water heater has achieved steady-state operation prior to conducting the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>5.1.1. The water flow rate must be maintained within ± 0.25 gallons per minute (gpm) of the initial reading at the start of the steady-state verification period;
</P>
<P>5.1.2. Electric power input rate must be maintained within 2 percent of the rated input certified by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>5.1.3. The supply water temperature (or inlet water temperature if a recirculating loop is used) must be maintained within ± 0.50 °F of the initial reading at the start of the steady-state verification period; and
</P>
<P>5.1.4. The rise between the supply (or inlet if a recirculating loop is used) and outlet water temperatures is maintained within ± 0.50 °F of its initial value taken at the start of the steady-state verification period for units with rated input less than 500,000 Btu/h, and maintained within ± 1.00 °F of its initial value for units with rated input greater than or equal to 500,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>5.2. <I>Thermostatically-Activated Instantaneous Water Heaters with an Internal Thermostat.</I> For water heaters that will experience cut-in based on a temperature-activated control that is internal to the water heater, use the following steps to conduct the standby loss test.
</P>
<P>5.2.1. Immediately after the steady-state verification period, turn off the outlet water valve(s) (installed as per the provisions in section 2.2 of this appendix), and the water pump (if applicable) simultaneously and ensure that there is no flow of water through the water heater.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>2.2. After the first cut-out following the steady-state verification period, allow the water heater to remain in standby mode. Do not change any settings on the water heater at any point until measurements for the standby loss test are finished. Begin recording the applicable parameters specified in section 3.7.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>2.3. At the second cut-out, record the time and ambient room temperature, and begin measuring the electricity consumption. Record the initial heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) and initial ambient room temperature. For the remainder of the test, continue recording the applicable parameters specified in section 3.7.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>2.4. Stop the test after the first cut-out that occurs after 24 hours, or at 48 hours, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>2.5. Immediately after conclusion of the standby loss test, record the total electrical energy consumption, the final ambient room temperature, the duration of the standby loss test, and if the test ends at 48 hours without a cut-out, the final heat exchanger outlet temperature, or if the test ends after a cut-out, the maximum heat exchanger outlet temperature that occurs after the cut-out. Calculate the average of the recorded values of the heat exchanger outlet water temperature and of the ambient air temperatures taken at each measurement interval, including the initial and final values.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>2.6. <I>Standby Loss Calculation.</I> Calculate the standby loss, expressed as a percentage (per hour) of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature, using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.028.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">3</E> = Average value of the heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) minus the average value of the ambient room temperature, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">4</E> = Final heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) measured at the end of the test minus the initial heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) measured at the start of the test, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = 8.25 Btu/gallon· °F, the nominal specific heat of water
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">a</E> = Volume of water contained in the water heater in gallons measured in accordance with section 4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = Thermal efficiency = 98 percent for electric water heaters with immersed heating elements
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = Electrical energy consumed by the water heater during the duration of the test in Btu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Total duration of the test in hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S = Standby loss, the average hourly energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed as a percentage of the initial heat content of the stored water above room temperature
</FP-2>
<P>5.3. <I>Flow-Activated and Thermostatically-Activated Instantaneous Water Heaters with an External Thermostat.</I> For water heaters that are either flow-activated or thermostatically-activated with an external thermostat, use the following steps to conduct the standby loss test:
</P>
<P>5.3.1. Immediately after the steady-state verification period, de-energize the primary control to end the call for heating. If the heating elements do not cut out, then turn off the electricity supply to the heating elements. After the heating elements have cut-out, or the electricity supply to the heating elements is turned off, begin recording the measurements as per the requirements in section 3.7.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.3.1.1. If the unit does not have an integral pump purge functionality, then turn off the outlet water valve and water pump immediately after the main burners cut-out.
</P>
<P>5.3.1.2. If the unit has an integral pump purge functionality, allow the pump purge operation to continue. After the pump purge operation is complete, immediately turn off the outlet water valve and water pump and continue recording the required parameters for the remainder of the test.
</P>
<HD3>5.3.2. Recording Data
</HD3>
<P>5.3.2.1. For units with pump purge functionality, record the initial heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>), and ambient room temperature when the main heating element(s) cut-out or the electricity supply to the heating element(s) is turned off. After the pump purge operation is complete, record the time as t = 0 and the initial electricity meter reading. Continue to monitor and record the heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) and time elapsed from the start of the test as per the requirements in section 3.7.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.3.2.2. For units not equipped with pump purge functionality, begin recording the measurements as per the requirements of section 3.7.2 of this appendix when the main heating element(s) cut-out or the electricity supply to the heating element(s) is turned off. Specifically, record the time as t = 0, and record the initial heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>), ambient room temperature, and electricity meter readings. Continue to monitor and record the heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) and the time elapsed from the start of the test as per the requirements in section 3.7.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.3.3. <I>Stopping Criteria.</I> Stop the test when one of the following occurs:
</P>
<P>5.3.3.1. The heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) decreases by 35 °F from its value recorded after the main heating element(s) have cut-out, and the pump purge operation (if applicable) is complete; or
</P>
<P>5.3.3.2. 24 hours have elapsed from the start of the test.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I>3.4. At the end of the test, record the final heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>), electricity consumed from time t = 0, and the time elapsed from the start of the test.
</P>
<P>5.3.5. <I>Standby Loss Calculation.</I> Calculate the standby loss, expressed as a percentage (per hour) of the heat content of the stored water above room temperature, using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10no16.029.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">1</E> = Heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) measured after the pump purge operation is complete (if the unit is integrated with pump purge functionality); or after the main heating element(s) cut-out (if the unit is not equipped with pump purge functionality) minus heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) measured at the end of the test, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">2</E> = Heat exchanger outlet water temperature (T<E T="52">OHX</E>) minus the ambient room temperature, both measured after the main heating element(s) cut-out at the start of the test, expressed in °F
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = 8.25 Btu/gallon· °F, the nominal specific heat of water
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">a</E> = Volume of water contained in the water heater in gallons measured in accordance with section 4 of this appendix
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">t</E> = Thermal efficiency = 98 percent for electric water heaters with immersed heating elements
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">c</E> = Electrical energy consumed by the water heater during the duration of the test in Btu
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Total duration of the test in hours
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S = Standby loss, the average hourly energy required to maintain the stored water temperature expressed as a percentage of the initial heat content of the stored water above room temperature
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 79340, Nov. 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.7.52.6.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart G of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Efficiency of Commercial Heat Pump Water Heaters
</HEAD>
<P><I>Note:</I> On and after November 6, 2017, manufacturers must make any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of commercial heat pump water heaters in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>1. General.</I> Determine the COP<E T="52">h</E> for commercial heat pump water heaters (CHPWHs) using the test procedure set forth below. Certain sections below reference ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.105). Where the instructions contained below differ from those contained in ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012, the sections in this appendix control.
</P>
<P><I>2. Definitions and Symbols.</I> The definitions and symbols are as listed in section 3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012.
</P>
<P><I>3. Instrumentation.</I> The instruments required for the test are as described in section 6 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 (except sections 6.3, 6.4, and 6.6).
</P>
<P><I>4. Test Set-Up.</I> Follow the provisions described in this section to install the CHPWH for testing. Use the test set-up and installation instructions set forth for Type IV and Type V equipment (as applicable), defined in sections 4.4 and 4.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 and in accordance with the sections below:
</P>
<P><I>4.</I>1. Test set-up and installation instructions.
</P>
<P>4.1.1. For air-source CHPWHs, set up the unit for testing as per section 7.1 and Figure 5a of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for CHPWHs without an integral storage tank, and as per Figure 6 in section 7.7.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for CHPWHs with an integral storage tank.
</P>
<P><I>4.</I>1.2. For direct geo-exchange CHPWHs, set up the unit for testing as per section 7.1 and Figure 5b of ASNI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for CHPWHs without an integral storage tank, and as per Figure 7 in section 7.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for CHPWHs with an integral storage tank.
</P>
<P><I>4.</I>1.3. For indoor water-source, ground-source closed-loop, and ground water-source CHPWHs, set up the unit for testing as per section 7.1 and Figure 5c of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for CHPWHs without an integral storage tank, and as per Figure 8 in section 7.7.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for CHPWHs with an integral storage tank.
</P>
<P><I>4.</I>2. Use the water piping instructions described in section 7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 and the special instructions described in section 7.7.6 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012. Insulate all the pipes used for connections with material having a thermal resistance of not less than 4 h· °F·ft
<SU>2</SU>/Btu for a total piping length of not less than 4 feet from the water heater connection ports.
</P>
<P>4.3. Install the thermocouples, including the room thermocouples, as per the instructions in sections 7.3.1, 7.3.2, and 7.3.3 (as applicable) of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012.
</P>
<P>4.4. Section 7.6 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 must be used if the manufacturer neither submits nor specifies a water pump applicable for the unit for laboratory testing.
</P>
<P>4.5. Install the temperature sensors at the locations specified in Figure 5a, 5b, 5c, 6, 7, or 8 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012, as applicable as per section 4.1 of this appendix. The sensor shall be installed in such a manner that the sensing portion of the device is positioned within the water flow and as close as possible to the center line of the pipe. Follow the instructions provided in sections 7.7.7.1 and 7.7.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 to install the temperature and flow-sensing instruments.
</P>
<P>4.6. Use the following evaporator side rating conditions as applicable for each category of CHPWHs. These conditions are also mentioned in Table 5.1 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>4.6.1. For air-source CHPWHs, maintain the evaporator air entering dry-bulb temperature at 80.6 °F ± 1 °F and wet-bulb temperature at 71.2 °F ± 1 °F throughout the conduct of the test.
</P>
<P>4.6.2. For direct geo-exchange CHPWHs, maintain the evaporator refrigerant temperature at 32 °F ± 1 °F.
</P>
<P>4.6.3. For indoor water-source CHPWHs, maintain the evaporator entering water temperature at 68 °F ± 1 °F.
</P>
<P>4.6.4. For ground water-source CHPWHs, maintain the evaporator entering water temperature at

50 °F ± 1 °F.
</P>
<P>4.6.5. For ground-source closed-loop CHPWHs, maintain the evaporator entering water temperature at 32 °F ± 1 °F.
</P>
<P>4.6.5.1. For ground-source closed-loop CHPWHs, the evaporator water must be mixed with 15-percent methanol by-weight to allow the solution to achieve the rating conditions required in section 4.6.5.
</P>
<P>4.7. The CHPWH being tested must be installed as per the instructions specified in sections 4.1 to 4.6 (as applicable) of this appendix. For all other installation requirements, use section 7.7.4 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 to resolve any issues related to installation (other than what is specified in this test procedure) of the equipment for testing. Do not make any alterations to the equipment except as specified in this appendix for installation, testing, and the attachment of required test apparatus and instruments.
</P>
<P><I>4.</I>8. Use Table 3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for measurement tolerances of various parameters.
</P>
<P>4.9. If the CHPWH is equipped with a thermostat that is used to control the throttling valve of the equipment, then use the provisions in section 7.7.7.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 to set up the thermostat.
</P>
<P>4.10. For CHPWHs equipped with an integral storage tank, supplemental heat inputs such as electric resistance elements must be disabled as per section 7.7.8 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012.
</P>
<P>4.11. Install instruments to measure the electricity supply to the equipment as specified in section 7.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012.
</P>
<HD3>5. Test Procedure
</HD3>
<P>Test all CHPWHs that are not equipped with an integral storage tank as per the provisions described in ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for “Type IV” equipment as defined in section 4.4 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012. Test all CHPWHs that are equipped with an integral storage tank as per the provisions described in ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for “Type V” equipment as defined in section 4.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012. Tests for all CHPWHs must follow the steps described below.
</P>
<P>5.1. Supply the CHPWH unit with electricity at the voltage specified by the manufacturer. Follow the provisions in section 8.2.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 to maintain the electricity supply at the required level.
</P>
<P>5.1.1. For models with multiple voltages specified by the manufacturer, use the minimum voltage specified by the manufacturer to conduct the test. Maintain the voltage as per the limits specified in section 8.2.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012. The test may be repeated at other voltages at the manufacturer's discretion.
</P>
<P>5.2. Set the condenser supply water temperature and outlet water temperature per the following provisions and as set forth in Table 5.1 of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5.1—Evaporator and Condenser Side Rating Conditions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of CHPWH
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Evaporator side rating conditions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser side rating conditions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-source commercial heat pump water heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evaporator entering air conditions:
<br/>Dry bulb: 80.6 °F ± 1 °F
<br/>Wet bulb: 71.2 °F ± 1 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entering water temperature: 70 °F ± 1 °F. Vary water flow rate (if needed) to achieve the outlet water temperature as specified in section 8.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the required outlet water temperature as specified in section 8.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 is not met even after varying the flow rate, then change the condenser entering water temperature to 110 °F ± 1 °F. Vary flow rate to achieve the conditions in section 8.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct geo-exchange commercial heat pump water heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evaporator refrigerant temperature: 32 °F ± 1 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entering water temperature: 110 °F ± 1 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indoor water-source commercial heat pump water heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evaporator entering water temperature: 68 °F ± 1 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entering water temperature: 110 °F ± 1 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ground water-source commercial heat pump water heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evaporator entering water temperature: 50 °F ± 1 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entering water temperature: 110 °F ± 1 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ground-source closed-loop commercial heat pump water heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Evaporator entering water temperature: 32 °F ± 1 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entering water temperature: 110 °F ± 1 °F.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>5.2.1. For air-source CHPWHs:
</P>
<P>5.2.1.1. Set the supply water temperature to 70 °F ± 1 °F. The water pressure must not exceed the maximum working pressure rating for the equipment under test.
</P>
<P>5.2.1.2. Use the provisions in section 8.7.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 to set the tank thermostat for CHPWHs equipped with an integral storage tank.
</P>
<P>5.2.1.3. Initiate operation at the rated pump flow rate and measure the outlet water temperature. If the outlet water temperature is maintained at 120 °F ± 5 °F with no variation in excess of 2 °F over a three-minute period, as required by section 8.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012, skip to section 5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.2.1.4. If the outlet water temperature condition as specified in section 8.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 is not achieved, adjust the water flow rate over the range of the pump's capacity. If, after varying the water flow rate, the outlet water temperature is maintained at 120 °F ± 5 °F with no variation in excess of 2 °F over a three-minute period, as required by section 8.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012, skip to section 5.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.2.1.5. If, after adjusting the water flow rate within the range that is achievable by the pump, the outlet water temperature condition as specified in section 8.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 is still not achieved, then change the supply water temperature to 110 °F ± 1 °F and repeat the instructions from sections 5.2.1.2 and 5.2.1.4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.2.1. 6. If the outlet water temperature condition cannot be met, then a test procedure waiver is necessary to specify an alternative set of test conditions.
</P>
<P>5.2.2. For direct geo-exchange, indoor water-source, ground-source closed-loop, and ground water-source CHPWHs use the following steps:
</P>
<P>5.2.2.1. Set the condenser supply water temperature to 110 °F ± 1 °F. The water pressure must not exceed the maximum working pressure rating for the equipment under test.
</P>
<P>5.2.2.2. Use the provisions in section 8.7.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 to set the tank thermostat for CHPWHs equipped with an integral storage tank.
</P>
<P>5.2.2.3. Follow the steps specified in section 8.7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 to obtain an outlet water temperature of 120 °F ± 5 °F with no variation in excess of 2 °F over a three-minute period.
</P>
<P>5.3. Conduct the test as per section 9.1.1, “Full Input Rating,” of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012. The flow rate, “FR,” referred to in section 9.1.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 is the flow rate of water through the CHPWH expressed in gallons per minute obtained after following the steps in section 5.2 of this appendix. Use the evaporator side rating conditions specified in section 4.6 of this appendix to conduct the test as per section 9.1.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012.
</P>
<P>5.4. Calculate the COP<E T="52">h</E> of the CHPWH according to section 10.3.1 of the ANSI/ASHRAE 118.1-2012 for the “Full Capacity Test Method.” For all calculations, time differences must be expressed in minutes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 79346, Nov. 10, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Automatic Commercial Ice Makers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60415, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.131" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.8.52.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.131   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for commercial ice makers, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.132" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.8.52.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.132   Definitions concerning automatic commercial ice makers.</HEAD>
<P><I>Automatic commercial ice maker</I> means a factory-made assembly (not necessarily shipped in 1 package) that—
</P>
<P>(1) Consists of a condensing unit and ice-making section operating as an integrated unit, with means for making and harvesting ice; and
</P>
<P>(2) May include means for storing ice, dispensing ice, or storing and dispensing ice.
</P>
<P><I>Baffle</I> means a partition (usually made of flat material like cardboard, plastic, or sheet metal) that reduces or prevents recirculation of warm air from an ice maker's air outlet to its air inlet—or, for remote condensers, from the condenser's air outlet to its inlet.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given type of covered product (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Batch type ice maker</I> means an ice maker having alternate freezing and harvesting periods.
</P>
<P><I>Condenser water use</I> means the total amount of water used by the condensing unit (if water-cooled), stated in gallons per 100 pounds (gal/100 lb) of ice, in multiples of 1.
</P>
<P><I>Continuous type ice maker</I> means an ice maker that continually freezes and harvests ice at the same time.
</P>
<P><I>Energy use</I> means the total energy consumed, stated in kilowatt hours per one-hundred pounds (kWh/100 lb) of ice, in multiples of 0.01. For remote condensing (but not remote compressor) automatic commercial ice makers and remote condensing and remote compressor automatic commercial ice makers, total energy consumed shall include the energy use of the ice-making mechanism, the compressor, and the remote condenser or condensing unit.
</P>
<P><I>Harvest rate</I> means the amount of ice (at 32 degrees F) in pounds produced per 24 hours.
</P>
<P><I>Ice hardness factor</I> means the latent heat capacity of harvested ice, in British thermal units per pound of ice (Btu/lb), divided by 144 Btu/lb, expressed as a percent.
</P>
<P><I>Ice-making head</I> means automatic commercial ice makers that do not contain integral storage bins, but are generally designed to accommodate a variety of bin capacities. Storage bins entail additional energy use not included in the reported energy consumption figures for these units.


</P>
<P><I>Portable automatic commercial ice maker</I> means an automatic commercial ice maker that does not have a means to connect to a water supply line and has one or more reservoirs that are manually supplied with water.
</P>
<P><I>Potable water use</I> means the amount of potable water used in making ice, which is equal to the sum of the ice harvested, dump or purge water, and the harvest water, expressed in gal/100 lb, in multiples of 0.1, and excludes any condenser water use.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigerated storage automatic commercial ice maker</I> means an automatic commercial ice maker that has a refrigeration system that actively refrigerates the self-contained ice storage bin.
</P>
<P><I>Remote compressor</I> means a type of automatic commercial ice maker in which the ice-making mechanism and compressor are in separate sections.
</P>
<P><I>Remote condensing</I> means a type of automatic commercial ice maker in which the ice-making mechanism and condenser or condensing unit are in separate sections.
</P>
<P><I>Self-contained</I> means a type of automatic commercial ice maker in which the ice-making mechanism and storage compartment are in an integral cabinet.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60415, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 71371, Dec. 8, 2006; 76 FR 12503, Mar. 7, 2011; 77 FR 1613, Jan. 11, 2012; 87 FR 65899, Nov. 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="52" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.8.52" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.133" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.8.52.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.133   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202)-586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the following sources:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>AHRI.</I> Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute, 2111 Wilson Blvd., Suite 500, Arlington, VA 22201; (703) 524-8800; <I>ahri@ahrinet.org; www.ahrinet.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) AHRI Standard 810 (I-P)-2016 with Addendum 1, <I>Performance Rating of Automatic Commercial Ice-Makers,</I> January 2018; IBR approved for § 431.134.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASHRAE.</I> American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1791 Tullie Circle NE, Atlanta, GA 30329; (404) 636-8400; <I>ashrae@ashrae.org; www.ashrae.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015, <I>Method of Testing Automatic Ice Makers,</I> approved April 30, 2015; IBR approved for § 431.134.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 65900, Nov. 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.134" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.8.52.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.134   Uniform test methods for the measurement of harvest rate, energy consumption, and water consumption of automatic commercial ice makers.</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to § 431.134:</HED>
<P>On or after October 27, 2023, any representations, including certifications of compliance for automatic commercial ice makers, made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of automatic commercial ice makers must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this section. Prior to October 27, 2023, any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of automatic commercial ice makers must be made either in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this section or with the results of testing pursuant to this section as it appeared in 10 CFR 431.134 in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022.</P></NOTE>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides the test procedures for measuring the harvest rate in pounds of ice per 24 hours (lb/24 h), energy use in kilowatt hours per 100 pounds of ice (kWh/100 lb), and the condenser water use in gallons per 100 pounds of ice (gal/100 lb) of automatic commercial ice makers with capacities up to 4,000 lb/24 h. This section also provides voluntary test procedures for measuring the potable water use in gallons per 100 pounds of ice (gal/100 lb).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> Measure the harvest rate, the energy use, the condenser water use, and, to the extent elected, the potable water use of each covered automatic commercial ice maker by conducting the test procedures set forth in AHRI Standard 810 (I-P)-2016 with Addendum 1, section 3, “Definitions,” section 4, “Test Requirements,” and section 5.2, “Standard Ratings” (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 431.133), and according to the provisions of this section. Use ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.133) referenced by AHRI Standard 810 (I-P)-2016 with Addendum 1 for all automatic commercial ice makers, except as noted in paragraphs (c) through (k) of this section. If any provision of the referenced test procedures conflicts with the requirements in this section or the definitions in § 431.132, the requirements in this section and the definitions in § 431.132 control.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Test setup and equipment configurations</I>—(1) <I>Baffles.</I> Conduct testing without baffles unless the baffle either is a part of the automatic commercial ice maker or shipped with the automatic commercial ice maker to be installed according to the manufacturer's installation instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearances.</I> Install all automatic commercial ice makers for testing according to the manufacturer's specified minimum rear clearance requirements, or with 3 feet of clearance from the rear of the automatic commercial ice maker, whichever is less, from the chamber wall. All other sides of the automatic commercial ice maker and all sides of the remote condenser, if applicable, shall have clearances according to section 6.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Purge settings.</I> Test automatic commercial ice makers equipped with automatic purge water control using a fixed purge water setting that is described in the manufacturer's written instructions shipped with the unit as being appropriate for water of normal, typical, or average hardness. Purge water settings described in the instructions as suitable for use only with water that has higher or lower than normal hardness (such as distilled water or reverse osmosis water) must not be used for testing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ambient conditions measurement</I>—(i) <I>Ambient temperature sensors.</I> Measure all ambient temperatures according to section 6.4 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015, except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section, with unweighted temperature sensors.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ambient relative humidity measurement.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section, ambient relative humidity shall be measured at the same location(s) used to confirm ambient dry bulb temperature, or as close as the test setup permits. Ambient relative humidity shall be measured with an instrument accuracy of ±2.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Ambient conditions sensors shielding.</I> Ambient temperature and relative humidity sensors may be shielded if the ambient test conditions cannot be maintained within the specified tolerances because of warm discharge air from the condenser exhaust affecting the ambient measurements. If shields are used, the shields must not inhibit recirculation of the warm discharge air into the condenser or automatic commercial ice maker inlet.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Alternate ambient conditions measurement location.</I> For automatic commercial ice makers in which warm air discharge from the condenser exhaust affects the ambient conditions as measured 1 foot in front of the air inlet, or automatic commercial ice makers in which the air inlet is located in the rear of the automatic commercial ice maker and the manufacturer's specified minimum rear clearance is less than or equal to 1 foot, the ambient temperature and relative humidity may instead be measured 1 foot from the cabinet, centered with respect to the sides of the cabinet, for any side of the automatic commercial ice maker cabinet with no warm air discharge or air inlet.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Collection container for batch type automatic commercial ice makers with harvest rates less than or equal to 50 lb/24 h.</I> Use an ice collection container as specified in section 5.5.2(a) of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015, except that the water retention weight of the container is no more than 4.0 percent of that of the smallest batch of ice for which the container is used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Test conditions</I>—(1) <I>Relative humidity.</I> Maintain an average minimum ambient relative humidity of 30.0 percent throughout testing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inlet water pressure.</I> Except for portable automatic commercial ice makers, the inlet water pressure when water is flowing into the automatic commercial ice maker shall be within the allowable range within 5 seconds of opening the water supply valve.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stabilization</I>—(1) <I>Percent difference calculation.</I> Calculate the percent difference in the ice production rate between two cycles or samples using the following equation, where A and B are the harvest rates, in lb/24 h (for batch type ice makers) or lb/15 mins (for continuous type ice makers), of any cycles or samples used to determine stability:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01no22.003.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Automatic commercial ice makers with harvest rates greater than 50lb/24 h.</I> The three or more consecutive cycles or samples used to calculate harvest rate, energy use, condenser water use, and potable water use, must meet the stability criteria in section 7.1.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Automatic commercial ice makers with harvest rates less than or equal to 50 lb/24 h.</I> The three or more consecutive cycles or samples used to calculate harvest rate, energy use, condenser water use, and potable water use, must meet the stability criteria in section 7.1.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015, except that the weights of the samples (for continuous type automatic commercial ice makers (ACIMs)) or 24-hour calculated ice production (for batch type ACIMs) must not vary by more than ±4 percent, and the 25 g (for continuous type ACIMs) and 1 kg (for batch type ACIMs) criteria do not apply.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculations.</I> The harvest rate, energy use, condenser water use, and potable water use must be calculated by averaging the values for the three calculated samples for each respective reported metric as specified in section 9 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015. All intermediate calculations prior to the reported value, as applicable, must be performed with unrounded values.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rounding.</I> Round the reported values as follows: Harvest rate to the nearest 1 lb/24 h for harvest rates above 50 lb/24 h; harvest rate to the nearest 0.1 lb/24 h for harvest rates less than or equal to 50 lb/24 h; condenser water use to the nearest 1 gal/100 lb; and energy use to the nearest 0.01 kWh/100 lb. Round final potable water use value to the nearest 0.1 gal/100 lb.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Continuous type automatic commercial ice makers</I>—(1) <I>Ice hardness adjustment</I>—(i) <I>Calorimeter constant.</I> Determine the calorimeter constant according to the requirements in section A1 and A2 of Normative Annex A Method of Calorimetry in ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015, except that the trials shall be conducted at an ambient air temperature (room temperature) of 70 °F ± 1 °F, with an initial water temperature of 90 °F ± 1 °F. To verify the temperature of the block of pure ice as provided in section A2.e in ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015, a thermocouple shall be embedded at approximately the geometric center of the interior of the block. Any water that remains on the block of ice shall be wiped off the surface of the block before being placed into the calorimeter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ice hardness factor.</I> Determine the ice hardness factor according to the requirements in section A1 and A3 of Normative Annex A Method of Calorimetry in ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015, except that the trials shall be conducted at an ambient air temperature (room temperature) of 70 °F ± 1 °F, with an initial water temperature of 90 °F ± 1 °F. The harvested ice used to determine the ice hardness factor shall be produced according to the test methods specified at § 431.134. The ice hardness factor shall be calculated using the equation for ice hardness factor in section 5.2.2 of AHRI Standard 810 (I-P)-2016 with Addendum 1.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Ice hardness adjustment calculation.</I> Determine the reported energy use and reported condenser water use by multiplying the measured energy use or measured condenser water use by the ice hardness adjustment factor, determined using the ice hardness adjustment factor equation in section 5.2.2 of AHRI Standard 810 (I-P)-2016 with Addendum 1.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Automatic commercial ice makers with automatic dispensers.</I> Allow for the continuous production and dispensing of ice throughout testing. If an automatic commercial ice maker with an automatic dispenser is not able to continuously produce and dispense ice because of certain mechanisms within the automatic commercial ice maker that prohibit the continuous production and dispensing of ice throughout testing, those mechanisms must be overridden to the minimum extent which allows for the continuous production and dispensing of ice. The automatic commercial ice maker shall have an empty internal storage bin at the beginning of the test period. Collect capacity samples according to the requirements of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015, except that the samples shall be collected through continuous use of the dispenser rather than in the internal storage bin. The intercepted ice samples shall be obtained from a container in an external ice bin that is filled one-half full of ice and is connected to the outlet of the ice dispenser through the minimal length of conduit that can be used.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Portable automatic commercial ice makers.</I> Sections 5.4, 5.6, 6.2, and 6.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015 do not apply. Ensure that the ice storage bin is empty prior to the initial potable water reservoir fill. Fill an external container with water to be supplied to the portable automatic commercial ice maker water reservoir. Establish an initial water temperature of 70 °F ± 1.0 °F. Verify the initial water temperature by inserting a temperature sensor into approximately the geometric center of the water in the external container. Immediately after establishing the initial water temperature, fill the ice maker water reservoir to the maximum level of potable water as specified by the manufacturer. After the potable water reservoir is filled, operate the portable automatic commercial ice maker to produce ice into the ice storage bin until the bin is one-half full. One-half full for the purposes of testing portable automatic commercial ice makers means that half of the vertical dimension of the ice storage bin, based on the maximum ice fill level within the ice storage bin, is filled with ice. Once the ice storage bin is one-half full, conduct testing according to section 7 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015. The potable water use is equal to the sum of the weight of ice and any corresponding melt water collected for the capacity test as specified in section 7.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 29-2015.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Self-contained refrigerated storage automatic commercial ice makers.</I> For door openings, the door shall be in the fully open position, which means opening the ice storage compartment door to an angle of not less than 75 degrees from the closed position (or the maximum extent possible, if that is less than 75 degrees), for 10.0 ± 1.0 seconds to collect the sample. Conduct door openings only for ice sample collection and returning the empty ice collection container to the ice storage compartment (<I>i.e.,</I> conduct two separate door openings, one for removing the collection container to collect the ice and one for replacing the collection container after collecting the ice).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 65900, Nov. 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="53" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.8.53" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.136" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.8.53.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.136   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All basic models of commercial ice makers must be tested for performance using the applicable DOE test procedure in § 431.134, be compliant with the applicable standards set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, and be certified to the Department of Energy under 10 CFR part 429 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Each cube type automatic commercial ice maker with capacities between 50 and 2,500 pounds per 24-hour period manufactured on or after January 1, 2010 and before January 28, 2018, shall meet the following standard levels:


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of cooling
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Harvest rate
<br/>lb ice/24 hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>energy use
<br/>kWh/100 lb ice
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>condenser 
<br/>water use 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>gal/100 lb ice
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.8-0.0055H 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200-0.022H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥500 and &lt;1,436</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.58-0.0011H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200-0.022H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1,436</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200-0.022H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;450</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.26-0.0086H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥450</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.89-0.0011H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing (but not remote compressor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.85-0.0038H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing (but not remote compressor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing and Remote Compressor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;934</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.85-0.0038H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing (but not remote compressor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥934</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.40-0.019H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">191-0.0315H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">191-0.0315H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">18.0-0.0469H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Applicable.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Applicable.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Water use is for the condenser only and does not include potable water used to make ice.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> H = harvest rate in pounds per 24 hours, indicating the water or energy use for a given harvest rate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Source: 42 U.S.C. 6313(d).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Each batch type automatic commercial ice maker with capacities between 50 and 4,000 pounds per 24-hour period manufactured on or after January 28, 2018, shall meet the following standard levels:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of cooling
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Harvest rate
<br/>lb ice/24 hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>energy use
<br/>kilowatt-hours 
<br/>(kWh)/100 lb ice 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>condenser 
<br/>water use
<br/>gal/100 lb ice 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt; 300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.88-0.0055H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200-0.022H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥300 and &lt;850</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.80-0.00191H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200-0.022H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥850 and &lt;1,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.42-0.00028H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200-0.022H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥1,500 and &lt;2,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200-0.022H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥2,500 and &lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">145.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt; 300</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10-0.01233H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 300 and &lt; 800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.05-0.0025H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 800 and &lt; 1,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.55-0.00063H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 1500 and &lt; 4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.61</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing (but not remote compressor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt; 988</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.97-0.00342H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing (but not remote compressor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 988 and &lt; 4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing and Remote Compressor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt; 930</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.97-0.00342H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing and Remote Compressor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 930 and &lt; 4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt; 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.5-0.019H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">191-0.0315H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 200 and &lt; 2,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">191-0.0315H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 2,500 and &lt; 4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">112.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt; 110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.79-0.0469H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 110 and &lt; 200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.42-0.02533H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥ 200 and &lt; 4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> H = harvest rate in pounds per 24 hours, indicating the water or energy use for a given harvest rate. Source: 42 U.S.C. 6313(d).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Water use is for the condenser only and does not include potable water used to make ice.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Each continuous type automatic commercial ice maker with capacities between 50 and 4,000 pounds per 24-hour period manufactured on or after January 28, 2018, shall meet the following standard levels:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of cooling
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Harvest rate
<br/>lb ice/24 hours
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>energy use
<br/>kWh/100 lb ice 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>condenser 
<br/>water use
<br/>gal/100 lb ice 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;801</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.48-0.00267H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">180-0.0198H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥801 and &lt;2,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">180-0.0198H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥2,500 and &lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">130.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;310</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.19-0.00629H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥310 and &lt;820</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.23-0.0032H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ice-Making Head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥820 and &lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.61</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing (but not remote compressor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.7-0.0058H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing (but not remote compressor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥800 and &lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remote Condensing and Remote Compressor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;800</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9-0.0058H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥800 and &lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;900</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.6-0.00302H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">153-0.0252H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥900 and &lt;2,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">153-0.0252H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥2,500 and &lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.22-0.03H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥200 and &lt;700</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.47-0.00624H</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Contained</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">≥700 and &lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> H = harvest rate in pounds per 24 hours, indicating the water or energy use for a given harvest rate. Source: 42 U.S.C. 6313(d).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Water use is for the condenser only and does not include potable water used to make ice.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 4754, Jan. 28, 2015]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Commercial Clothes Washers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60416, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.151" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.9.54.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.151   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for commercial clothes washers, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.152" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.9.54.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.152   Definitions concerning commercial clothes washers.</HEAD>
<P><I>AEER</I> means active-mode energy efficiency ratio, in pounds per kilowatt-hour per cycle (lbs/kWh/cycle), as determined in section 4.8 of appendix J to subpart B of part 430 (when using appendix J).
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given type of covered product (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial clothes washer</I> means a soft-mounted front-loading or soft-mounted top-loading clothes washer that—
</P>
<P>(1) Has a clothes container compartment that—
</P>
<P>(i) For horizontal-axis clothes washers, is not more than 3.5 cubic feet; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For vertical-axis clothes washers, is not more than 4.0 cubic feet; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is designed for use in—
</P>
<P>(i) Applications in which the occupants of more than one household will be using the clothes washer, such as multi-family housing common areas and coin laundries; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other commercial applications.
</P>
<P><I>IWF</I> means integrated water factor, in gallons per cubic feet per cycle (gal/cu ft/cycle), as determined in section 4.2.12 of appendix J2 to subpart B of part 430 (when using appendix J2).
</P>
<P><I>MEF</I><E T="54">J2</E> means modified energy factor, in cu ft/kWh/cycle, as determined in section 4.5 of appendix J2 to subpart B of part 430 (when using appendix J2).
</P>
<P><I>WER</I> means water efficiency ratio, in pounds per gallon per cycle (lbs/gal/cycle), as determined in section 4.7 of appendix J to subpart B of part 430 (when using appendix J).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33405, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="54" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.9.54" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.154" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.9.54.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.154   Test procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The test procedures for clothes washers in appendix J2 to subpart B of part 430 must be used to determine compliance with the energy conservation standards at § 431.156(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33405, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="55" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.9.55" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.156" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.9.55.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.156   Energy and water conservation standards and effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each commercial clothes washer manufactured on or after January 8, 2013, and before January 1, 2018, shall have a modified energy factor no less than and a water factor no greater than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Modified energy factor (MEF),
<br/><E T="03">cu. ft./kWh/cycle</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Water factor (WF),
<br/><E T="03">gal./cu. ft./cycle</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Top-Loading</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Front-Loading</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Each commercial clothes washer manufactured on or after January 1, 2018 shall have a modified energy factor no less than and an integrated water factor no greater than:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Modified energy factor (MEF<E T="52">J2</E>),
<br/><E T="03">cu. ft./kWh/cycle</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Integrated Water
<br/>factor (IWF),
<br/><E T="03">gal./cu. ft./cycle</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Top-Loading</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Front-Loading</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 69123, Nov. 8, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 74541, Dec. 15, 2014; 81 FR 20529, Apr. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Fans and Blowers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 46590, Aug. 19, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.171" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.10.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.171   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains provisions regarding fans and blowers, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317. This subpart does not cover “ceiling fans” as that term is defined and addressed in part 430 this chapter, nor does it cover “furnace fans” as that term is defined and addressed in part 430 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.172" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.10.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.172   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Air circulating axial panel fan</I> means an axial housed air circulating fan head without a cylindrical housing or box housing that is mounted on a panel, orifice plate or ring.
</P>
<P><I>Air circulating fan</I> means a fan that has no provision for connection to ducting or separation of the fan inlet from its outlet using a pressure boundary, operates against zero external static pressure loss, and is not a jet fan.
</P>
<P><I>Air circulating fan discharge area</I> means the area of a circle having a diameter equal to the blade tip diameter.


</P>
<P><I>Air circulating fan outlet area</I> means the gross inside area measured at the plane of the outlet opening.
</P>
<P><I>Air-cooled steam condenser</I> means a device for rejecting heat to the atmosphere through the indirect condensing of steam inside air-cooled finned tubes.
</P>
<P><I>Axial inline fan</I> means a fan with an axial impeller and a cylindrical housing with or without turning vanes.
</P>
<P><I>Axial panel fans</I> means an axial fan, without cylindrical housing, that includes a panel, orifice plate, or ring with brackets for mounting through a wall, ceiling, or other structure that separates the fan's inlet from its outlet.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model,</I> with respect to fans and blowers, means all units of fans and blowers manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and having essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (<I>e.g.,</I> aerodynamic) characteristics that affect energy consumption. In addition:
</P>
<P>(1) All variations of blade pitches of an adjustable-pitch axial fan may be considered a single basic model; and
</P>
<P>(2) All variations of impeller widths and impeller diameters of a given full-width impeller and full-diameter impeller centrifugal fan may be considered a single basic model.
</P>
<P><I>Box fan</I> means an axial housed air circulating fan head without a cylindrical housing that is mounted on a panel, orifice plate or ring and is mounted in a box housing.
</P>
<P><I>Centrifugal housed fan</I> means a fan with a centrifugal or mixed flow impeller in which airflow exits into a housing that is generally scroll-shaped to direct the air through a single fan outlet. A centrifugal housed fan does not include a radial impeller.
</P>
<P><I>Centrifugal inline fan</I> means a fan with a centrifugal or mixed flow impeller in which airflow enters axially at the fan inlet and the housing redirects radial airflow from the impeller to exit the fan in an axial direction.
</P>
<P><I>Centrifugal unhoused fan</I> means a fan with a centrifugal or mixed flow impeller in which airflow enters through a panel and discharges into free space. Inlets and outlets are not ducted. This fan type also includes fans designed for use in fan arrays that have partition walls separating the fan from other fans in the array.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-flow fan</I> means a fan or blower with a housing that creates an airflow path through the impeller in a direction at right angles to its axis of rotation and with airflow both entering and exiting the impeller at its periphery. Inlets and outlets can optionally be ducted.
</P>
<P><I>Cylindrical air circulating fan</I> means an axial housed air circulating fan head with a cylindrical housing that is not a Positive Pressure Ventilator as defined in AMCA 240-15 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.173).
</P>
<P><I>Evaporative field erected closed-circuit cooling tower</I> means a structure which rejects heat to the atmosphere through the indirect cooling of a process fluid stream to a lower temperature by partial evaporation of an external recirculating water flow.
</P>
<P><I>Evaporative field erected open-circuit cooling tower</I> means a structure which rejects heat to the atmosphere through the direct cooling of a water stream to a lower temperature by partial evaporation.
</P>
<P><I>Fan</I> or <I>blower</I> means a rotary bladed machine used to convert electrical or mechanical power to air power, with an energy output limited to 25 kilojoule (kJ)/kilogram (kg) of air. It consists of an impeller, a shaft and bearings and/or driver to support the impeller, as well as a structure or housing. A fan or blower may include a transmission, driver, and/or motor controller.
</P>
<P><I>Fan static air power</I> means the static power delivered to air by the fan or blower; it is proportional to the product of the fan airflow rate, the fan static pressure and the compressibility coefficient and is calculated in accordance with section 7.8.1 of AMCA 210-16 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.173), using fan static pressure instead of fan total pressure.


</P>
<P><I>Fan total air power</I> means the total power delivered to air by the fan or blower; it is proportional to the product of the fan airflow rate, the fan total pressure and the compressibility coefficient and is calculated in accordance with section 7.8.1 of AMCA 210-16 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.173).
</P>
<P><I>Field erected air-cooled (dry) cooler</I> means a structure which rejects heat to the atmosphere from a fluid, either liquid, gas or a mixture thereof, flowing through an air-cooled internal coil.
</P>
<P><I>Field erected evaporative condenser</I> means a structure which rejects heat to the atmosphere through the indirect condensing of a refrigerant in an internal coil by partial evaporation of an external recirculating water flow.
</P>
<P><I>Full-diameter impeller</I> means maximum impeller diameter with which a given fan or blower basic model is distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Full-width impeller</I> means the maximum impeller width with which a given fan or blower basic model is distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Housed air circulating fan head means</I> an air circulating fan with an axial or centrifugal impeller, and a housing.
</P>
<P><I>Housed centrifugal air circulating fan</I> means a housed air circulating fan head with a centrifugal or radial impeller in which airflow exits into a housing that is generally scroll shaped to direct the air through a single, narrow fan outlet.
</P>
<P><I>Induced flow fan</I> means a type of laboratory exhaust fan with a nozzle and windband; the fan's outlet airflow is greater than the inlet airflow due to induced airflow. All airflow entering the inlet exits through the nozzle. Airflow exiting the windband includes the nozzle airflow plus the induced airflow.
</P>
<P><I>Jet fan</I> means a fan designed and marketed specifically for producing a high velocity air jet in a space to increase its air momentum. Jet fans are rated using thrust. Inlets and outlets are not ducted but may include acoustic silencers.
</P>
<P><I>Packaged air-cooled (dry) cooler</I> means a device which rejects heat to the atmosphere from a fluid, either liquid, gas or a mixture thereof, flowing through an air-cooled internal coil.
</P>
<P><I>Packaged evaporative closed-circuit cooling tower</I> means a device which rejects heat to the atmosphere through the indirect cooling of a process fluid stream in an internal coil to a lower temperature by partial evaporation of an external recirculating water flow.
</P>
<P><I>Packaged evaporative condenser</I> means a device which rejects heat to the atmosphere through the indirect condensing of a refrigerant in an internal coil by partial evaporation of an external recirculating water flow.
</P>
<P><I>Packaged evaporative open-circuit cooling tower</I> means a device which rejects heat to the atmosphere through the direct cooling of a water stream to a lower temperature by partial evaporation.
</P>
<P><I>Power roof ventilator</I> means a fan with an internal driver and a housing to prevent precipitation from entering the building. It has a base designed to fit over a roof or wall opening, usually by means of a roof curb.
</P>
<P><I>Radial-housed fan</I> means a fan with a radial impeller in which airflow exits into a housing that is generally scroll-shaped to direct the air through a single fan outlet. Inlets and outlets can optionally be ducted.
</P>
<P><I>Safety Fan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A reversible axial fan in cylindrical housing that is designed and marketed for use in ducted tunnel ventilation that will reverse operation under emergency ventilation conditions;
</P>
<P>(2) A fan for use in explosive atmospheres tested and marked according to the English version of ISO 80079-36:2016 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.173);
</P>
<P>(3) An electric-motor-driven-Positive Pressure Ventilator as defined in AMCA 240-15 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.173);
</P>
<P>(4) A fan bearing a listing for “Power Ventilators for Smoke Control Systems” in compliance with UL 705 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.173); or
</P>
<P>(5) A laboratory exhaust fan designed and marketed specifically for exhausting contaminated air vertically away from a building using a high-velocity discharge.
</P>
<P><I>Unhoused air circulating fan head</I> means an air circulating fan without a housing, having an axial impeller with a ratio of fan-blade span (in inches) to maximum rate of rotation (in revolutions per minute) less than or equal to 0.06. The impeller may or may not be guarded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 27389, May 1, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 53375, Aug. 8, 2023]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.173" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.10.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.173   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, EE-5B, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov</I>, <I>https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AMCA.</I> Air Movement and Control Association International, Inc., 30 West University Drive, Arlington Heights, IL 60004-1893; (847) 394-0150; <I>www.amca.org.</I>


</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AMCA Standard 210-16 (“AMCA 210-16”), Laboratory Methods of Testing Fans for Certified Aerodynamic Performance Rating, ANSI-approved August 26, 2016; IBR approved for § 431.172; appendix A to this subpart. (Co-published as ASHRAE 51-16).


</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/AMCA Standard 214-21 (“AMCA 214-21”), <I>Test Procedure for Calculating Fan Energy Index (FEI) for Commercial and Industrial Fans and Blowers,</I> ANSI-approved March 1, 2021; IBR approved for § 431.174; appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI/AMCA Standard 230-23 (“AMCA 230-23”), <I>Laboratory Methods of Testing Air Circulating Fans for Rating and Certification,</I> ANSI-approved February 10, 2023. IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/AMCA Standard 240-15 (“AMCA 240-15”), <I>Laboratory Methods of Testing Positive Pressure Ventilators for Aerodynamic Performance Rating,</I> ANSI-approved May 9, 2015; IBR approved for § 431.172.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ISO.</I> International Organization for Standardization, Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland; <I>www.iso.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ISO 5801:2017(E) (“ISO 5801:2017”), <I>Fans—Performance testing using standardized airways,</I> Third Edition, approved September 2017; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) ISO 80079-36:2016, <I>Explosive atmospheres—Part 36: Non-electrical equipment for explosive atmospheres—Basic method and requirements,</I> Edition 1.0, February 2016; IBR approved for § 431.172.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>UL.</I> Underwriters Laboratories, 333 Pfingsten Road, Northbrook, Illinois, 60062; <I>www.shopulstandards.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) UL 705, <I>Standard for Safety for Power Ventilators,</I> Edition 7, July 19, 2017 (including revisions through August 19, 2022); IBR approved for § 431.172.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved].
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 27390, May 1, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 53375, Aug. 8, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.174" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.10.56.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.174   Test Procedure for fans or blowers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope for fans and blowers other than air circulating fans.</I> A fan or blower, other than an air circulating fan is subject to the test procedure in this section if it meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a centrifugal housed fan; radial housed fan; centrifugal inline fan; centrifugal unhoused fan; centrifugal power roof ventilator exhaust fan; centrifugal power roof ventilator supply fan; axial inline fan; axial panel fan; or axial power roof ventilator fan;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not:
</P>
<P>(i) A radial housed unshrouded fan with blade diameter at tip less than 30 inches or a blade width of less than 3 inches;
</P>
<P>(ii) A safety fan;
</P>
<P>(iii) An induced flow fan;
</P>
<P>(iv) A jet fan;
</P>
<P>(v) A cross-flow fan;
</P>
<P>(vi) A fan manufactured exclusively to be powered by internal combustion engines;
</P>
<P>(vii) A fan that create a vacuum of 30 inches water gauge or greater;
</P>
<P>(viii) A fan that is designed and marketed to operate at or above 482 degrees Fahrenheit (250 degrees Celsius); or
</P>
<P>(ix) A fan and blower embedded in the equipment listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not an embedded fan subject to the following exclusions:
</P>
<P>(i) The test procedure in this section does not apply to fans or blowers that are embedded in:
</P>
<P>(A) Single phase central air conditioners and heat pumps rated with a certified cooling capacity less than 65,000 British thermal units per hour (“Btu/h”) cooling capacity, that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at 10 CFR 430.32(c);
</P>
<P>(B) Three phase, air-cooled, small commercial packaged air-conditioning and heating equipment rated with a certified cooling capacity less than 65,000 Btu/h cooling capacity, that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at § 431.97(b);
</P>
<P>(C) Transport refrigeration (<I>i.e.,</I> Trailer refrigeration, Self-powered truck refrigeration, Vehicle-powered truck refrigeration, Marine/Rail container refrigerant);
</P>
<P>(D) Vacuum cleaners;
</P>
<P>(E) Heat Rejection Equipment: Packaged evaporative open-circuit cooling towers; Evaporative field-erected open-circuit cooling towers; Packaged evaporative closed-circuit cooling towers; Evaporative field-erected closed-circuit cooling towers; Packaged evaporative condensers; Field-erected evaporative condensers; Packaged air-cooled (dry) coolers; Field-erected air-cooled (dry) cooler; Air-cooled steam condensers; Hybrid (water saving) versions of all of the previously listed equipment that contain both evaporative and air-cooled heat exchange sections;
</P>
<P>(F) Air curtains; and
</P>
<P>(G) Direct expansion-dedicated outdoor air system that are subject to any of DOE's test procedures in appendix B to subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The test procedure in this section does not apply to supply or condenser fans or blowers that are embedded in:
</P>
<P>(A) Air-cooled commercial package air conditioners and heat pumps (“CUAC,” “CUHP”) with a certified cooling capacity between 5.5 ton (65,000 Btu/h) and 63.5 ton (760,000 Btu/h) that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at § 431.97(b);
</P>
<P>(B) Water-cooled and evaporatively-cooled commercial air conditioners that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at § 431.97(b);
</P>
<P>(C) Water-source heat pumps that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at § 431.97(b);
</P>
<P>(D) Single package vertical air conditioners and heat pumps that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at § 431.97(d);
</P>
<P>(E) Packaged terminal air conditioners (“PTAC”) and packaged terminal heat pumps (PTHP) that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at § 431.97(c);
</P>
<P>(F) Computer room air conditioners that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at § 431.97(e); and
</P>
<P>(G) Variable refrigerant flow multi-split air conditioners and heat pumps that are subject to DOE's energy conservation standard at § 431.97(f); and
</P>
<P>(4) In addition, the test procedure is only applicable to fan or blower duty points with the following characteristics, measured or calculated in accordance with the test procedure set forth in appendix A of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Fan shaft input power equal to or greater than 1 horsepower; or
</P>
<P>(B) Fan electrical power equal to or greater than 0.89 kW; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Fan static air power equal to or less than 150 horsepower for fans using a static pressure basis fan energy index (“FEI”) in accordance with the required test configuration listed in table 7.1 of AMCA 214-21 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.173); or
</P>
<P>(B) Fan total air power equal to or less than 150 horsepower for fans using a total pressure basis FEI in accordance with the required test configuration listed in table 7.1 of AMCA 214-21;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope for air circulating fans.</I> The test procedure in this section applies to all air circulating fans with input power greater than or equal to 125W at maximum speed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Testing and calculations for fans and blowers other than air circulating fans.</I> Determine the FEI, the fan electrical power (“FEP”), and fan shaft power (as applicable) at each duty point, as specified by the manufacturer, using the test procedure set forth in appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Testing and calculations for air circulating fan.</I> Determine the air circulating fan efficacy in cubic feet per minute per watt at maximum speed using the test procedure set forth in appendix B to this subpart.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 27391, May 1, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 53375, Aug. 8, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 431.175-431.176" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.10.56.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 431.175-431.176   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.10.56.6.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart J of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Fans and Blowers Other Than Air Circulating Fans


</HEAD>
<P>After October 30, 2023, any representations made with respect to energy use or efficiency of fans and blowers subject to testing pursuant to § 431.174 must be made in accordance with this appendix. Any optional representations of fan energy index in the optional test configuration listed in table 7.1 of AMCA 214-21 (FEI<E T="52">optional</E>) must be accompanied by a representation of fan energy index in the required test configuration listed in table 7.1 of AMCA 214-21 (FEI).
</P>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>In § 431.173, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AMCA 210-16, AMCA 214-21, and ISO 5801:2017; however, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable as follows. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes precedence over those documents.
</P>
<P>0.1 AMCA 210-16:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3, “Definitions/Units of Measure/Symbols”;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4, “Instruments and Methods of Measurement” ;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5, “Test Setups and Equipment”;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6, “Observation and Conduct of Test”;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7, “Calculations” excluding Section 7.9.2, “Conversion to other rotational speeds and air densities with compressible flow” and Section 7.9.3, “Conversion formulae for new densities and new rotational speeds”;
</P>
<P>0.2. AMCA 214-21:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 2, “References (Normative),” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 3, “Definitions,” as referenced in section 1 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4, “Calculation of the FEI for a Single Duty Point,” as referenced in section 2.6 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 5, “Reference Fan Electrical Power (FEP<E T="52">ref</E>),” as referenced in section 2.6 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 6.1, “Wire-to-Air Testing at the Required Duty Point,” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 6.2, “Calculated Ratings Based on Wire-to-Air Testing,” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 6.3, “Bare Shaft Fans,” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 6.4, “Fans with Polyphase Regulated Motor”, excluding Section 6.4.1.4, “Requirements for the VFD, if included” and Section 6.4.2.4, “Combined motor-VFD efficiency” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 7, “Testing,” as referenced in sections 2.2 and 2.3 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 8, “Rating Development”, excluding Section 8.2.2, “Separate Fan and Motor Tests” and Section 8.3, “Appurtenances” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(k) Annex D, “Motor Performance Constants (Normative),” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(l) Annex E, “Calculation Methods for Fans Tested Shaft-to-Air,” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(m) Annex G, “Wire-to-Air Measurement—Calculation to Other Speeds and Densities (Normative),” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix;
</P>
<P>(n) Annex J, “Other data and calculations to be retained,” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(o) Annex K, “Proportionality and Dimensional Requirements (Normative),” as referenced in section 2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>0.3. ISO 5801:2017:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3, “Terms and Definitions”;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4, “Symbols, Abbreviated Terms and Subscripts”;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5, “General”;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6, “Test Configurations”;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7, “Carrying out the Test”;
</P>
<P>(f) Section 8, “Airways for Duct Configuration”;
</P>
<P>(g) Section 9, “Standardized Test Chambers”;
</P>
<P>(h) Section 10, “Various Component Parts for a Laboratory Setup”;
</P>
<P>(i) Section 11, “Standard Test Configurations”;
</P>
<P>(j) Section 12, “Measurements”;
</P>
<P>(k) Section 13, “Reference Conditions”;
</P>
<P>(l) Section 15, “Calculations”;
</P>
<P>(m) Section 16, “Fan Characteristic Curves”; and
</P>
<P>(n) Section 17, “Uncertainty Analysis”.
</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The definitions applicable to this appendix are defined in § 431.172 and in section 3, “Definitions,” of AMCA 214-21. In cases where there is a conflict, the definitions in § 431.172 take precedence over AMCA 214-21.
</P>
<HD2>2. Test Procedure for Fans and Blowers Other Than Air Circulating Fans


</HD2>
<P>2.1. <I>General.</I>
</P>
<P>This section describes the test procedure for fans and blowers other than air circulating fans. In cases where there is a conflict, the provisions in this appendix take precedence over AMCA 214-21. Where AMCA 214-21 refers to Annex A, “Polyphase Regulated Motor Efficiencies (Normative),” of AMCA 214-21, Table 5 of § 431.25 or the currently applicable standards in § 431.25 must be used instead.
</P>
<HD2>2.2. Testing


</HD2>
<P>2.2.1. <I>General.</I>
</P>
<P>The fan electrical power (FEPact) in kilowatts must be determined at every duty point specified by the manufacturer in accordance with one of the test methods listed in table 1, and the following sections of AMCA 214-21: Section 2, “References (Normative)”; Section 7, “Testing,” including the provisions of AMCA 210-16 and ISO 5801:2017 as referenced by Section 7 and implicated by sections 2.2.2 and 2.2.3 of this appendix; Section 8.1, “Laboratory Measurement Only” (as applicable); and Annex J, “Other data and calculations to be retained.”
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix A to Subpart J of Part 431
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Driver
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Motor


<br/>controller present?
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transmission


<br/>configuration?
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test method
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applicable section(s) of AMCA 214-21
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric motor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes or No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wire-to-air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1 “Wire-to-Air Testing at the Required Duty Point”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric motor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes or No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calculation based on Wire-to-air testing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2 “Calculated Ratings Based on Wire to Air Testing” (references Section 8.2.3, “Calculation to other speeds and densities for wire-to-air testing,” and Annex G, “Wire-to-Air Measurement—Calculation to Other Speeds and Densities (Normative)”).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Regulated polyphase motor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct drive, V-belt drive, flexible coupling or synchronous belt drive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shaft-to-air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4 “Fans with Polyphase Regulated Motors,” (references Annex D, “Motor Performance Constants (Normative)”) *.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">None or non-electric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Shaft-to-air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 6.3, “Bare Shaft Fans”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Regulated polyphase motor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct drive, V-belt drive, flexible coupling or synchronous belt drive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calculation based on Shaft-to-air testing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 8.2.1, “Fan laws and other calculation methods for shaft-to-air testing”(references Annex D, “Motor Performance Constants (Normative),” Annex E, “Calculation Methods for Fans Tested Shaft-to-Air,” and Annex K, “Proportionality and Dimensional Requirements (Normative)”).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">None or non-electric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calculation based on Shaft-to-air testing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 8.2.1, “Fan laws and other calculation methods for shaft-to-air testing” (references Annex E, “Calculation Methods for Fans Tested Shaft-to-Air,” and Annex K, “Proportionality and Dimensional Requirements (Normative)”).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Excluding Section 6.4.1.4, “Requirements for the VFD, if included” and Section 6.4.2.4, “Combined motor-VFD efficiency.”</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Testing must be performed in accordance with the required test configuration listed in Table 7.1 of AMCA 214-21. The following values must be determined in accordance with this appendix at each duty point specified by the manufacturer: fan airflow in cubic feet per minute; fan air density; fan total pressure in inches of water gauge for fans using a total pressure basis FEI in accordance with Table 7.1 of AMCA 214-21; fan static pressure in inches of water gauge for fans using a static pressure basis FEI in accordance with Table 7.1 of AMCA 214-21; fan speed in revolutions per minute; and fan shaft input power in horsepower for fans tested in accordance with sections 6.3 or 6.4 of AMCA 214-21.
</P>
<P>In addition, if applying the equations in Section E.2 of Annex E of AMCA 214-21 for compressible flows, the compressibility coefficients must be included in the equations as applicable.
</P>
<P>All measurements must be recorded at the resolution of the test instrumentation and calculations must be rounded to the number of significant digits present at the resolution of the test instrumentation.
</P>
<P>In cases where there is a conflict, the provisions in AMCA 214-21 take precedence over AMCA 210-16 and ISO 5801:2017. In addition, the provisions in this appendix apply.






</P>
<P><I>2.2.2 Power Roof Ventilators</I>
</P>
<P>Centrifugal Power Roof Ventilators that are both supply and exhaust must be tested in both supply and exhaust configurations as listed in table 7.1 of AMCA 214-21.
</P>
<P><I>2.2.3 Embedded Fans</I>
</P>
<P>Embedded fans that are not manufactured in a standalone configuration must be tested in a standalone configuration. If some components of the bare shaft fan are not removable without causing irreversible damage to the equipment into which the fan is embedded, testing must be performed using additional fan components, except for the fan impeller, that are geometrically identical to that of the fan embedded inside the larger piece of equipment for testing.
</P>
<P><I>2.3. Power Supply</I>
</P>
<P>Any wire-to-air testing must be conducted at the supply frequency, phase, and voltages specified in this section. The frequency and voltage must be selected in accordance with section 7.8. of AMCA 214-21. Fans and blowers rated for operation for single- or multi-phase power supply must be tested with single- or multi-phase electricity, respectively. Fans and blowers, capable of operating with single- and multi-phase power supply, must be tested using multi-phase electricity.


</P>
<P><I>2.4. Stability Conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>The following conditions must be met to establish system stability prior to collecting test data:
</P>
<P>(a) Barometric pressure, dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature in the general test area must be captured at least every five seconds after the run-in period is completed and the ambient air density calculated from these values shall not vary by more than ±1 percent during verification of fan speed and fan input power stability.



 
</P>
<P>(b) After the fan has been run-in, record the fan speed in rpm and the input power (in horsepower or watts) at least every 5 seconds for at least three 60-second intervals. Readings shall be made simultaneously. Repeat these measurements over 60-second intervals until:
</P>
<P>(1) The average fan speed from the last 60-second interval varies by less than the absolute value of 1 percent or 1 rpm, whichever is greater, when compared to the average fan speed measured during the previous 60-second test interval;
</P>
<P>(2) The average input power from the last 60-second interval by reaction dynamometer, torque meter or calibrated motor must be ±4 percent, or the average input power by electrical meter must be ±2 percent of the mean or 1 watt, whichever is greater, compared to the average input power measured during the previous 60-second test interval; and
</P>
<P>(3) The slopes of a linear fit trendline calculated from the individual data collected for fan speed and input power during at least three 60-second sampling intervals include both positive and negative values (<I>e.g.,</I> two positive and one negative slope value or one positive and two negative slope values). If three positive or three negative slopes are determined in succession, additional sampling intervals are required until slopes from three successive sampling intervals include both positive and negative values.


</P>
<P><I>2.5. Sampling Intervals for Testing.</I>
</P>
<P>A test measurement must meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The sampling interval over which average test values are determined shall not exceed 60 seconds;
</P>
<P>(b) The average fan speed from the most recent 60-second interval varies by less than the absolute value of 1 percent or 1 rpm, whichever is greater, when compared to the average fan speed measured during the previous 60-second test interval; and
</P>
<P>(c) the average input power from the last 60-second interval by reaction dynamometer, torque meter or calibrated motor must be ±4 percent, or the average input power by electrical meter must be ±2 percent of the mean or 1 watt, whichever is greater, compared to the average input power measured during the previous 60-second test interval.
</P>
<P><I>2.6. FEI calculation</I>
</P>
<P>The FEI must be determined at every duty point in accordance with Section 4, “Calculation of the FEI for a single duty point,” and Section 5, “Reference Fan Electrical Power (FEP<E T="52">ref</E>)” of AMCA 214-21. In addition, the FEI must be rounded to the nearest hundredths place; FEP must be rounded to three significant figures; and all measurements must be recorded at the resolution of the test instrument.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 27391, May 1, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 53375, Aug. 8, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.10.56.6.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart J of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Air Circulating Fans
</HEAD>
<P>After October 30, 2023, any representations made with respect to energy use or efficiency of air circulating fans subject to testing pursuant to § 431.174 must be made in accordance with this appendix. Any optional representations of air circulating fan efficacy at speeds less than the air circulating fan's maximum speed must be accompanied by a representation of the air circulating fan efficacy at maximum speed.
</P>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>In § 431.173, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for AMCA 230-23; however, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable as follows. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes precedence over those documents.
</P>
<P>0.1 AMCA 230-23:
</P>
<P>(a) Section 4, “Definitions/Units of Measurement/Symbols,”;
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5, “Instruments and Methods of Measurement,”;
</P>
<P>(c) Section 6, “Equipment and Setup,”;
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7, “Observations and Conduct of Test,”;
</P>
<P>(e) Section 8, “Calculations,” excluding equations 8.5 and 8.6; and
</P>
<P>(f) Section 9, “Report and Results of Test,”


</P>
<HD2>1. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The definitions applicable to this appendix are defined in § 431.172 and in Section 4, “Definitions/Units of Measurement/Symbols,” of AMCA 230-23. In cases where there is a conflict, the definitions in § 431.172 take precedence over AMCA 230-23.
</P>
<HD2>2. Test Procedure for Air Circulating Fans
</HD2>
<P><I>2.1. General</I>
</P>
<P>This section describes the test procedure for air circulating fans.
</P>
<P><I>2.2. Testing</I>
</P>
<P><I>2.2.1. General</I>
</P>
<P>The air circulating fan efficacy (<I>E</I>ƒƒ<E T="54">circ</E>) in cubic feet per minute (“CFM”) per watt (“W”) (“CFM/W”) at maximum speed must be determined in accordance with the applicable sections of AMCA 230-23 as listed in section 0.1 of this appendix. In addition, testing must be conducted in accordance with the provisions in sections 2.3 through 2.5 of this appendix. Optional testing speeds lower than maximum speed is permitted. Speeds less than maximum speeds must be expressed at a percentage of maximum speed (<I>e.g.,</I> 50 percent) and the air circulating fan efficacy at lower speed must include the speed percentage in its subscript (<I>e.g.,</I> <I>E</I>ƒƒ<E T="54">circ,50</E>).
</P>
<P>All measurements must be recorded at the resolution of the test instrumentation and calculations must be rounded to the number of significant digits of the resolution of the test instrumentation.


</P>
<P><I>2.3. Air circulating fans without motors</I>
</P>
<P>Air circulating fans distributed in commerce without an electric motor must be tested using an electric motor as recommended in the manufacturer's catalogs or distributed in commerce with the air circulating fan. If more than one motor is available in manufacturer's catalogs or distributed in commerce with the air circulating fan, testing must be conducted using the least efficient motor capable of running the fan at the fan's maximum allowable speed.
</P>
<P><I>2.4. Power Supply.</I>
</P>
<P>The test must be conducted at the frequency, phase, and voltages specified in this section.
</P>
<P><I>2.4.1. Frequency.</I>
</P>
<P>Air circulating fans rated for operation with only 60 Hz power supply must be tested with 60 Hz electricity. Air circulating fans capable of operating with 50 Hz and 60 Hz electricity must be tested with 60 Hz electricity.
</P>
<P><I>2.4.2. Phase.</I>
</P>
<P>Air circulating fans rated for operation for single- or multi-phase power supply must be tested with single- or multi-phase power electricity, respectively. Air circulating fans, capable of operating with single- and multi-phase power supply, must be tested using multi-phase electricity.
</P>
<P><I>2.4.3. Voltage.</I>
</P>
<P>Select the supply voltage as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) For air circulating fans tested with single-phase electricity, the supply voltage must be:
</P>
<P>(1) 120 V if the air circulating fan's minimum rated voltage is 120 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 120 V,
</P>
<P>(2) 240 V if the air circulating fan's minimum rated voltage is 240 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 240 V, or
</P>
<P>(3) The air circulating fan's minimum rated voltage (if a voltage range is not given) or the mean of the lowest rated voltage range, in all other cases.
</P>
<P>(b) For air circulating fans tested with multi-phase electricity, the supply voltage must be
</P>
<P>(1) 240 V if the air circulating fan's minimum rated voltage is 240 V or the lowest rated voltage range contains 240 V, or
</P>
<P>(2) The air circulating fan's minimum rated voltage (if a voltage range is not given) or the mean of the lowest rated voltage range, in all other cases.
</P>
<P><I>2.5. Stability Conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>In addition to the test requirements specified in sections 7.1 and 7.3 of AMCA 230-23, the following conditions must be met to establish system stability prior to collecting test data:
</P>
<P>(a) Test voltage shall be captured at least every five seconds and shall not vary by more than ±1 percent during each test. Barometric pressure, dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature in the general test area for calculation of air density must be captured at least every five seconds and the calculated ambient air density shall not vary by more than ±1 percent during each test.
</P>
<P>(b) After a run-in time of at least 15 minutes, record the fan speed in rpm, the input power in watts, and load differential in pound-force for at least 3 120-second intervals. Repeat these measurements over additional 120-second intervals until:
</P>
<P>(1) The average fan speed of the last 120-second interval varies by less than the absolute value of 1 percent or 1 rpm, whichever is greater, when compared to the average fan speed measured during the previous 120-second test interval;
</P>
<P>(2) The average input power of the last 120-second interval varies by less than the absolute value of 1 percent or 1 watt, whichever is greater, compared to the average input power measured during the previous 120-second test interval;


</P>
<P>(3) The average load differential of the last 120-second interval varies by less than the absolute value of 1 percent compared to the average load differential during the previous 120-second test interval; and


</P>
<P>(4) The slopes of a linear fit trendline calculated from the individual data collected for fan speed, input power, and load differential during at least three 120-second intervals include both positive and negative values (e.g., two positive and one negative slope value or one positive and two negative slope values). If three positive or three negative slopes are determined in succession, additional sampling intervals are required until slopes from three successive 120-second intervals include both positive and negative values.




</P>
<P><I>2.6. Calculation of Ambient Air Density.</I>
</P>
<P>For any references to ambient air density, ρ0, in AMCA 230-23, calculate ρ0, expressed in kg/m3 when using SI units or lbm/ft3 when using I-P units, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er08au23.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08au23.006.gif"/>
<FP-2>where p<E T="52">b</E> is the measured barometric pressure of the air, T<E T="52">d0</E> is the measured dry-bulb temperature of the air, p<E T="52">p</E> is the partial vapor pressure, R is the gas constant, which are all determined according to section 8.2 of AMCA 230-23.




</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 27393, May 1, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 53376, Aug. 8, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Distribution Transformers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60416, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.191" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11.56.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.191   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for distribution transformers, pursuant to Parts B and C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6317.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 24995, Apr. 27, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.192" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11.56.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.192   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Autotransformer</I> means a transformer that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has one physical winding that consists of a series winding part and a common winding part;
</P>
<P>(2) Has no isolation between its primary and secondary circuits; and
</P>
<P>(3) During step-down operation, has a primary voltage that is equal to the total of the series and common winding voltages, and a secondary voltage that is equal to the common winding voltage.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary device</I> means a localized component of a distribution transformer that is a circuit breaker, switch, fuse, or surge/lightning arrester.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means a group of models of distribution transformers manufactured by a single manufacturer, that have the same insulation type (<I>i.e.,</I> liquid-immersed or dry-type), have the same number of phases (<I>i.e.,</I> single or three), have the same standard kVA rating, and do not have any differentiating electrical, physical or functional features that affect energy consumption. Differences in voltage and differences in basic impulse insulation level (BIL) rating are examples of differentiating electrical features that affect energy consumption.


</P>
<P><I>Distribution transformer</I> means a transformer that—
</P>
<P>(1) Has an input line voltage of 34.5 kV or less;
</P>
<P>(2) Has an output line voltage of 600 V or less;
</P>
<P>(3) Is rated for operation at a frequency of 60 Hz; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has a capacity of 10 kVA to 5000 kVA for liquid-immersed units and 15 kVA to 5000 kVA for dry-type units; but
</P>
<P>(5) The term “distribution transformer” does not include a transformer that is an—
</P>
<P>(i) Autotransformer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Drive (isolation) transformer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Grounding transformer;
</P>
<P>(iv) Machine-tool (control) transformer;
</P>
<P>(v) Nonventilated transformer;
</P>
<P>(vi) Rectifier transformer;
</P>
<P>(vii) Regulating transformer;
</P>
<P>(viii) Sealed transformer;
</P>
<P>(ix) Special-impedance transformer;
</P>
<P>(x) Testing transformer;
</P>
<P>(xi) Transformer with tap range of 20 percent or more;
</P>
<P>(xii) Uninterruptible power supply transformer; or
</P>
<P>(xiii) Welding transformer.




</P>
<P><I>Drive (isolation) transformer</I> means a transformer that:
</P>
<P>(1) Isolates an electric motor from the line;
</P>
<P>(2) Accommodates the added loads of drive-created harmonics;
</P>
<P>(3) Is designed to withstand the additional mechanical stresses resulting from an alternating current adjustable frequency motor drive or a direct current motor drive; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has a rated output voltage that is neither “208Y/120” nor “480Y/277”.




</P>
<P><I>Efficiency</I> means the ratio of the useful power output to the total power input.
</P>
<P><I>Excitation current</I> or <I>no-load current</I> means the current that flows in any winding used to excite the transformer when all other windings are open-circuited.
</P>
<P><I>Grounding transformer</I> means a three-phase transformer intended primarily to provide a neutral point for system-grounding purposes, either by means of:
</P>
<P>(1) A grounded wye primary winding and a delta secondary winding; or
</P>
<P>(2) A transformer with its primary winding in a zig-zag winding arrangement, and with no secondary winding.
</P>
<P><I>Liquid-immersed distribution transformer</I> means a distribution transformer in which the core and coil assembly is immersed in an insulating liquid.
</P>
<P><I>Load loss</I> means, for a distribution transformer, those losses incident to a specified load carried by the transformer, including losses in the windings as well as stray losses in the conducting parts of the transformer. 
</P>
<P><I>Low-voltage dry-type distribution transformer</I> means a distribution transformer that has an input voltage of 600 volts or less and has the core and coil assembly immersed in a gaseous or dry-compound insulating medium.
</P>
<P><I>Machine-tool (control) transformer</I> means a transformer that is equipped with a fuse or other over-current protection device, and is generally used for the operation of a solenoid, contactor, relay, portable tool, or localized lighting.
</P>
<P><I>Medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformer</I> means a distribution transformer in which the core and coil assembly is immersed in a gaseous or dry-compound insulating medium, and which has a rated primary voltage between 601 V and 34.5 kV.
</P>
<P><I>Mining distribution transformer</I> means a medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformer that is built only for installation in an underground mine or surface mine, inside equipment for use in an underground mine or surface mine, on-board equipment for use in an underground mine or surface mine, or for equipment used for digging, drilling, or tunneling underground or above ground, and that has a nameplate which identifies the transformer as being for this use only.
</P>
<P><I>No-load loss</I> means those losses that are incident to the excitation of the transformer.


</P>
<P><I>Nonventilated transformer</I> means a dry-type transformer constructed so as to prevent external air circulation through the coils of the transformer while operating at zero gauge pressure.


</P>
<P><I>Per-unit load</I> means the fraction of rated load.
</P>
<P><I>Phase angle</I> means the angle between two phasors, where the two phasors represent progressions of periodic waves of either:
</P>
<P>(1) Two voltages;
</P>
<P>(2) Two currents; or
</P>
<P>(3) A voltage and a current of an alternating current circuit.
</P>
<P><I>Phase angle correction</I> means the adjustment (correction) of measurement data to negate the effects of phase angle error.
</P>
<P><I>Phase angle error</I> means incorrect displacement of the phase angle, introduced by the components of the test equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Rectifier transformer</I> means a transformer that operates at the fundamental frequency of an alternating-current system and that is designed to have one or more output windings connected to a rectifier.
</P>
<P><I>Reference temperature</I> means the temperature at which the transformer losses are determined, and to which such losses are corrected if testing is done at a different point. (Reference temperature values are specified in the test method in appendix A to this subpart.)
</P>
<P><I>Regulating transformer</I> means a transformer that varies the voltage, the phase angle, or both voltage and phase angle, of an output circuit and compensates for fluctuation of load and input voltage, phase angle or both voltage and phase angle.
</P>
<P><I>Sealed transformer</I> means a dry-type transformer designed to remain hermetically sealed under specified conditions of temperature and pressure.




</P>
<P><I>Special-impedance transformer</I> means a transformer built to operate at an impedance outside of the normal impedance range for that transformer's kVA rating. The normal impedance range for each kVA rating for liquid-immersed and dry-type transformers is shown in Tables 1 and 2, respectively.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to the Definition of “Special-Impedance Transformer”—Normal Impedance Ranges for Liquid-Immersed Transformers


</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase transformers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase transformers
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Impedance


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Impedance


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 &lt;= kVA &lt; 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 &lt;= kVA &lt; 75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50 &lt;= kVA &lt; 250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75 &lt;= kVA &lt; 112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250 &lt;= kVA &lt; 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5 &lt;= kVA &lt; 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2-6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500 &lt;= kVA &lt; 667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-7.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500 &lt;= kVA &lt; 750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667 &lt;= kVA &lt;= 833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0-7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750 &lt;= kVA &lt;= 5000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0-7.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to the Definition of “Special-Impedance Transformer”—Normal Impedance Ranges for Dry-Type Transformers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase transformers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase transformers
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Impedance


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Impedance


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 &lt;= kVA &lt; 50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 &lt;= kVA &lt; 75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-4.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50 &lt;= kVA &lt; 250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75 &lt;= kVA &lt; 112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0-5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250 &lt;= kVA &lt; 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5 &lt;= kVA &lt; 500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2-6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500 &lt;= kVA &lt; 667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-7.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500 &lt;= kVA &lt; 750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5-7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667 &lt;= kVA &lt;= 833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0-7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750 &lt;= kVA &lt;= 5000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0-7.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Submersible distribution transformer</I> means a liquid-immersed distribution transformer, so constructed as to be operable when fully or partially submerged in water including the following features—
</P>
<P>(1) Has sealed-tank construction; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has the tank, cover, and all external appurtenances made of corrosion-resistant material or with appropriate corrosion resistant surface treatment to induce the components surface to be corrosion resistant.


</P>
<P><I>Temperature correction</I> means the mathematical correction(s) of measurement data, obtained when a transformer is tested at a temperature that is different from the reference temperature, to the value(s) that would have been obtained if the transformer had been tested at the reference temperature.
</P>
<P><I>Terminal</I> means a conducting element of a distribution transformer providing electrical connection to an external conductor that is not part of the transformer.
</P>
<P><I>Test current</I> means the current of the electrical power supplied to the transformer under test.
</P>
<P><I>Test frequency</I> means the frequency of the electrical power supplied to the transformer under test.
</P>
<P><I>Test voltage</I> means the voltage of the electrical power supplied to the transformer under test.
</P>
<P><I>Testing transformer</I> means a transformer used in a circuit to produce a specific voltage or current for the purpose of testing electrical equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Total loss</I> means the sum of the no-load loss and the load loss for a transformer. 
</P>
<P><I>Transformer</I> means a device consisting of 2 or more coils of insulated wire that transfers alternating current by electromagnetic induction from 1 coil to another to change the original voltage or current value.


</P>
<P><I>Transformer with tap range of 20 percent or more</I> means a transformer with multiple voltage taps, each capable of operating at full, rated capacity (kVA), whose range, defined as the difference between the highest voltage tap and the lowest voltage tap, is 20 percent or more of the highest voltage tap.


</P>
<P><I>Uninterruptible power supply transformer</I> means a transformer that is used within an uninterruptible power system, which in turn supplies power to loads that are sensitive to power failure, power sages, over voltage, switching transients, line notice, and other power quality factors. It does not include distribution transformers at the input, output, or by-pass of an uninterruptible power system.




</P>
<P><I>Waveform correction</I> means the adjustment(s) (mathematical correction(s)) of measurement data obtained with a test voltage that is non-sinusoidal, to a value(s) that would have been obtained with a sinusoidal voltage.
</P>
<P><I>Welding transformer</I> means a transformer designed for use in arc welding equipment or resistance welding equipment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60416, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 24995, Apr. 27, 2006; 71 FR 60662, Oct. 16, 2006; 72 FR 58239, Oct. 12, 2007; 78 FR 23433, Apr. 18, 2013; 86 FR 51252, Sept. 14, 2021; 89 FR 30039, Apr. 22, 2024; 90 FR 6795, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="56" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11.56" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.193" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11.56.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.193   Test procedure for measuring energy consumption of distribution transformers.</HEAD>
<P>The test procedure for measuring the energy efficiency of distribution transformers for purposes of EPCA is specified in appendix A to this subpart. The test procedure specified in appendix A to this subpart applies only to distribution transformers subject to energy conservation standards at § 431.196.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 51252, Sept. 14, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="57" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11.57" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.196" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11.57.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.196   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Low-Voltage Dry-Type Distribution Transformers.</I> (1) The efficiency of a low-voltage, dry-type distribution transformer manufactured on or after January 1, 2007, but before January 1, 2016, shall be no less than that required for the applicable kVA rating in the table below. Low-voltage dry-type distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.9</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>All efficiency values are at 35 percent per-unit load.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The efficiency of a low-voltage, dry-type distribution transformer manufactured on or after January 1, 2016, but before April 23, 2029, shall be no less than that required for the applicable kVA rating in the following table. Low-voltage dry-type distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.28
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> All efficiency values are at 35 percent of nameplate-rated load, determined according to the DOE Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Distribution Transformers under appendix A to this subpart K.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The efficiency of a low-voltage dry-type distribution transformer manufactured on or after April 23, 2029, shall be no less than that required for their kVA rating in the following table. Low-voltage dry-type distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.42
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> All efficiency values are at 35 percent of nameplate-rated load, determined according to the DOE Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Distribution Transformers under appendix A to this subpart K.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Liquid-Immersed Distribution Transformers.</I> (1) The efficiency of a liquid-immersed distribution transformer manufactured on or after January 1, 2010, but before January 1, 2016, shall be no less than that required for their kVA rating in the table below. Liquid-immersed distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency
<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.62</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.62
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.76
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.08
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.36
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.49</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>All efficiency values are at 50 percent per-unit load.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The efficiency of a liquid-immersed distribution transformer, including submersible distribution transformers, manufactured on or after January 1, 2016, but before April 23, 2029, shall be no less than that required for their kVA rating in the following table. Liquid-immersed distribution transformers, including submersible distribution transformers, with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.53
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> All efficiency values are at 50 percent of nameplate-rated load, determined according to the DOE Test—Procedure, appendix A to this subpart K.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The efficiency of a liquid-immersed distribution transformer, that is not a submersible distribution transformer, manufactured on or after April 23, 2029, shall be no less than that required for their kVA rating in the following table. Liquid-immersed distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.55
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.53
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> All efficiency values are at 50 percent of nameplate-rated load, determined according to the DOE Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Distribution Transformers under appendix A to this subpart K.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) The efficiency of a submersible distribution transformer, manufactured on or after April 23, 2029, shall be no less than that required for their kVA rating in the following table. Submersible distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(4)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.92
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.03
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.16
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.39</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.43
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.53
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> All efficiency values are at 50 percent of nameplate-rated load, determined according to the DOE Test—Procedure, appendix A to this subpart K.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Medium-Voltage Dry-Type Distribution Transformers.</I> (1) The efficiency of a medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformer manufactured on or after January 1, 2010, but before January 1, 2016, shall be no less than that required for their kVA and BIL rating in the table below. Medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">BIL*
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">BIL
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20-45 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">46-95 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥96 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20-45 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">46-95 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥96 kV
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency
<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.18
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.63
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.86
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.12
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.30
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.42
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.91
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.20
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* BIL means basic impulse insulation level.</P></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 5 to paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(1):</HED>
<P>All efficiency values are at 50 percent per-unit load.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) The efficiency of a medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformer manufactured on or after January 1, 2016, but before April 23, 2029, shall be no less than that required for their kVA and BIL rating in the following table. Medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(2)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="4" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="4" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">BIL 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">BIL
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20-45 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">46-95 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥96 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20-45 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">46-95 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥96 kV
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.18
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.63
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.86
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.13
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.36
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.51
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.57
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.69
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.89
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.02
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.27</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.33
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> BIL means basic impulse insulation level.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> All efficiency values are at 50 percent of nameplate rated load, determined according to the DOE Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Distribution Transformers under appendix A to this subpart K.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) The efficiency of a medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformer manufactured on or after April 23, 2029, shall be no less than that required for their kVA and BIL rating in the following table. Medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformers with kVA ratings not appearing in the table shall have their minimum efficiency level determined by linear interpolation of the kVA and efficiency values immediately above and below that kVA rating.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(3)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="4" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Single-phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="4" scope="col">kVA
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Three-phase
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">BIL 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">BIL
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20-45 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">46-95 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥96 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20-45 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">46-95 kV
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">≥96 kV
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Efficiency


<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.46
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97.87
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.07
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.32
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.52
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.66
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">167</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.71
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.02</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.04</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">98.82
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">333</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.09</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">667</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">833</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.49</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.44</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">99.39
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> BIL means basic impulse insulation level/
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> All efficiency values are at 50 percent of nameplate rated load, determined according to the DOE Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Distribution Transformers under appendix A to this subpart K.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Mining Distribution Transformers.</I> [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Severability.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section are separate and severable from one another. Should a court of competent jurisdiction hold any provision(s) of this section to be stayed or invalid, such action shall not affect any other provision of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 23433, Apr. 18, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 51252, Sept. 14, 2021; 89 FR 30040, Apr. 22, 2024]














</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="58" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11.58" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Compliance and Enforcement</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 24997, Apr. 27, 2006, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>
</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.11.59.5.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart K of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Distribution Transformers 
</HEAD>
<HD1>1.0 Definitions.
</HD1>
<P>The definitions contained in §§ 431.2 and 431.192 are applicable to this appendix A. 


</P>
<HD1>2.0 Per-Unit Load, Reference Temperature, and Accuracy Requirements.
</HD1>
<P>2.1 <I>Per-Unit Load</I>
</P>
<P>In conducting the test procedure in this appendix for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(a) Certification to an energy conservation standard, the applicable per-unit load in Table 2.1 must be used; or
</P>
<P>(b) Making voluntary representations as provided in section 7.0 at an additional per-unit load, select the per-unit load of interest.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2.1—Per-unit Load for Certification to Energy Conservation Standards
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distribution transformer category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Per-unit load
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquid-immersed</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium-voltage dry-type</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low-voltage dry-type</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.2 <I>Reference Temperature</I>
</P>
<P>In conducting the test procedure in this appendix for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(a) Certification to an energy conservation standard, the applicable reference temperature in Table 2.2 must be used; or
</P>
<P>(b) Making voluntary representations as provided in section 7.0 at an additional reference temperature, select the reference temperature of interest.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2.2—Reference Temperature for Certification to Energy Conservation Standards
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distribution transformer category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference temperature
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquid-immersed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 °C for no-load loss.
<br/>55 °C for load loss.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medium-voltage dry-type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 °C for no-load loss.
<br/>75 °C for load loss.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low-voltage dry-type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 °C for no-load loss.
<br/>75 °C for load loss.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.3 <I>Accuracy Requirements</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Equipment and methods for loss measurement must be sufficiently accurate that measurement error will be limited to the values shown in Table 2.3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2.3—Test System Accuracy Requirements for Each Measured Quantity
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measured
<br/>quantity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test system
<br/>accuracy
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Power Losses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±3.0%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Voltage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.5%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Current</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.5%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Resistance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±0.5%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±1.5 °C for liquid-immersed distribution transformers, and ±2.0 °C for low-voltage dry-type and medium-voltage dry-type distribution transformers.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Only instrument transformers meeting the 0.3 metering accuracy class, or better, may be used under this test method.


</P>
<HD1>3.0 Resistance Measurements
</HD1>
<P>3.1 <I>General Considerations</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Measure or establish the winding temperature at the time of the winding resistance measurement.
</P>
<P>(b) Measure the direct current resistance (R<E T="52">dc</E>) of transformer windings by one of the methods outlined in section 3.3. The methods of section 3.5 must be used to correct load losses to the applicable reference temperature from the temperature at which they are measured. Observe precautions while taking measurements, such as those in section 3.4, in order to maintain measurement uncertainty limits specified in Table 2.1.
</P>
<P>(c) Measure the direct current resistance (R<E T="52">dc</E>) of transformer windings by one of the methods outlined in section 3.3. The methods of section 3.5 must be used to correct load losses to the applicable reference temperature from the temperature at which they are measured. Observe precautions while taking measurements, such as those in section 3.4, in order to maintain measurement uncertainty limits specified in Table 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.2 <I>Temperature Determination of Windings and Pre-conditions for Resistance Measurement.</I>
</P>
<P>Make temperature measurements in protected areas where the air temperature is stable and there are no drafts. Determine the winding temperature (T<E T="52">dc</E>) for liquid-immersed and dry-type distribution transformers by the methods described in sections 3.2.1 and 3.2.2, respectively.
</P>
<P>3.2.1 <I>Liquid-Immersed Distribution Transformers.</I>


</P>
<HD3>3.2.1.1 <I>Methods</I>
</HD3>
<P>Record the winding temperature (T<E T="52">dc</E>) of liquid-immersed transformers as the average of either of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The measurements from two temperature sensing devices (for example, thermocouples) applied to the outside of the transformer tank and thermally insulated from the surrounding environment, with one located at the level of the insulating liquid and the other located near the tank bottom or at the lower radiator header if applicable; or
</P>
<P>(b) The measurements from two temperature sensing devices immersed in the insulating liquid, with one located directly above the winding and other located directly below the winding.


</P>
<HD3>3.2.1.2 <I>Conditions</I>
</HD3>
<P>Make this determination under either of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The windings have been under insulating liquid with no excitation and no current in the windings for four hours before the dc resistance is measured; or
</P>
<P>(b) The temperature of the insulating liquid has stabilized, and the difference between the top and bottom temperature does not exceed 5 °C. The temperature of the insulating liquid is considered stable if the top liquid temperature does not vary more than 2 °C in a 1-h period.


</P>
<P>3.2.2 <I>Dry-Type Distribution Transformers.</I>
</P>
<P>Record the winding temperature (T<E T="52">dc</E>) of dry-type transformers as one of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) For ventilated dry-type units, use the average of readings of four or more thermometers, thermocouples, or other suitable temperature sensors inserted within the coils. Place the sensing points of the measuring devices as close as possible to the winding conductors; or
</P>
<P>(b) For sealed units, such as epoxy-coated or epoxy-encapsulated units, use the average of four or more temperature sensors located on the enclosure and/or cover, as close to different parts of the winding assemblies as possible; or
</P>
<P>(c) For ventilated units or sealed units, use the ambient temperature of the test area, only if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) All internal temperatures measured by the internal temperature sensors must not differ from the test area ambient temperature by more than 2 °C. Enclosure surface temperatures for sealed units must not differ from the test area ambient temperature by more than 2 °C.
</P>
<P>(2) Test area ambient temperature must not have changed by more than 3 °C for 3 hours before the test.
</P>
<P>(3) Neither voltage nor current has been applied to the unit under test for 24 hours. In addition, increase this initial 24-hour period by any added amount of time necessary for the temperature of the transformer windings to stabilize at the level of the ambient temperature. However, this additional amount of time need not exceed 24 hours (<I>i.e.,</I> after 48 hours, the transformer windings can be assumed to have stabilized at the level of the ambient temperature. Any stabilization time beyond 48 hours is optional).


</P>
<P>3.3 <I>Resistance Measurement Methods.</I>
</P>
<P>Make resistance measurements using either the resistance bridge method (section 3.3.1), the voltmeter-ammeter method (section 3.3.2) or resistance meters (section 3.3.3). In each instance when this appendix is used to test more than one unit of a basic model to determine the efficiency of that basic model, the resistance of the units being tested may be determined from making resistance measurements on only one of the units.
</P>
<P>3.3.1 <I>Resistance Bridge Methods.</I>
</P>
<P>If the resistance bridge method is selected, use either the Wheatstone or Kelvin bridge circuit (or the equivalent of either). 
</P>
<HD3>3.3.1.1 <I>Wheatstone Bridge</I>
</HD3>
<P>(a) This bridge is best suited for measuring resistances larger than ten ohms. A schematic diagram of a Wheatstone bridge with a representative transformer under test is shown in Figure 3.1.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.002.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">dc</E> is the resistance of the transformer winding being measured, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">s</E> is a standard resistor having the resistance R<E T="52">s</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">a</E>, R<E T="52">b</E> are two precision resistors with resistance values R<E T="52">a</E> and R<E T="52">b</E> , respectively; at least one resistor must have a provision for resistance adjustment, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">t</E> is a resistor for reducing the time constant of the circuit, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D is a null detector, which may be either a micro ammeter or microvoltmeter or equivalent instrument for observing that no signal is present when the bridge is balanced, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">dc</E> is a source of dc voltage for supplying the power to the Wheatstone Bridge.
</FP-2>
<P>(b) In the measurement process, turn on the source (V<E T="52">dc</E>), and adjust the resistance ratio (R<E T="52">a</E>/R<E T="52">b</E>) to produce zero signal at the detector (D). Determine the winding resistance by using equation 3-1 as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="17" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.003.gif"/></MATH>
<HD3>3.3.1.2 <I>Kelvin Bridge</I>
</HD3>
<P>(a) This bridge separates the resistance of the connecting conductors to the transformer winding being measured from the resistance of the winding, and therefore is best suited for measuring resistances of ten ohms and smaller. A schematic diagram of a Kelvin bridge with a representative transformer under test is shown in Figure 3.2.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.004.gif"/>
<P>(b) The Kelvin Bridge has seven of the same type of components as in the Wheatstone Bridge. It has two more resistors than the Wheatstone bridge, R<E T="52">a1</E> and R<E T="52">b1</E>. At least one of these resistors must have adjustable resistance. In the measurement process, the source is turned on, two resistance ratios (R<E T="52">a</E>/R<E T="52">b</E>) and (R<E T="52">a1</E>/R<E T="52">b1</E>) are adjusted to be equal, and then the two ratios are adjusted together to balance the bridge producing zero signal at the detector. Determine the winding resistance by using equation 3-2 as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="17" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.005.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>as with the Wheatstone bridge, with an additional condition that:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="17" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.006.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(c) The Kelvin bridge provides two sets of leads, current-carrying and voltage-sensing, to the transformer terminals and the standard resistor, thus eliminating voltage drops from the measurement in the current-carrying leads as represented by R<E T="52">d</E>.
</P>
<P>3.3.2 <I>Voltmeter-Ammeter Method.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Employ the voltmeter-ammeter method only if the test current is limited to 15 percent of the winding current. Connect the transformer winding under test to the circuit shown in Figure 3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.007.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A is an ammeter or a voltmeter-shunt combination for measuring the current (I<E T="52">mdc</E>) in the transformer winding, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V is a voltmeter with sensitivity in the millivolt range for measuring the voltage (V<E T="52">mdc</E>) applied to the transformer winding, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">dc</E> is the resistance of the transformer winding being measured, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">t</E> is a resistor for reducing the time constant of the circuit, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">dc</E> is a source of dc voltage for supplying power to the measuring circuit.
</FP-2>
<P>(b) To perform the measurement, turn on the source to produce current no larger than 15 percent of the rated current for the winding. Wait until the current and voltage readings have stabilized and then take a minimum of four readings of voltage and current. Voltage and current readings must be taken simultaneously for each of the readings. Calculate the average voltage and average current using the readings. Determine the winding resistance R<E T="52">dc</E> by using equation 3-4 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14se21.014.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">mdc</E> is the average voltage measured by the voltmeter V; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>I<E T="52">mdc</E> is the average current measured by the ammeter (A).
</FP-2>
<P>(c) As shown in Figure 3.3, separate current and voltage leads must be brought to the transformer terminals. (This eliminates the errors due to lead and contact resistance.)


</P>
<P>3.3.3 <I>Resistance Meters.</I>
</P>
<P>Resistance meters may be based on voltmeter-ammeter, or resistance bridge, or some other operating principle. Any meter used to measure a transformer's winding resistance must have specifications for resistance range, current range, and ability to measure highly inductive resistors that cover the characteristics of the transformer being tested. Also, the meter's specifications for accuracy must meet the applicable criteria of Table 2.3 in section 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4 <I>Precautions in Measuring Winding Resistance.</I>
</P>
<P>3.4.1 <I>Required actions.</I>
</P>
<P>The following requirements must be observed when making resistance measurements:
</P>
<P>(a) Use separate current and voltage leads when measuring small (&lt;10 ohms) resistance.
</P>
<P>(b) Use null detectors in bridge circuits, and measuring instruments in voltmeter-ammeter circuits, that have sensitivity and resolution sufficient to enable observation of at least 0.1 percent change in the measured resistance.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain the dc test current at or below 15 percent of the rated winding current.
</P>
<P>(d) Inclusion of a stabilizing resistor R<E T="52">t</E> (see section 3.4.2) will require higher source voltage.
</P>
<P>(e) Disconnect the null detector (if a bridge circuit is used) and voltmeter from the circuit before the current is switched off, and switch off current by a suitable insulated switch.
</P>
<P>(f) Keep the polarity of the core magnetization constant during all resistance measurements.
</P>
<P>(g) For single-phase windings, measure the resistance from terminal to terminal. The total winding resistance is the terminal-to-terminal measurement. For series-parallel windings, the total winding resistance is the sum of the series terminal-to-terminal section measurements.
</P>
<P>(h) For wye windings, measure the resistance from terminal to terminal or from terminal to neutral. For the total winding resistance, the resistance of the lead from the neutral connection to the neutral bushing may be excluded. For terminal-to-terminal measurements, the total resistance reported is the sum of the three measurements divided by two.
</P>
<P>(i) For delta windings, measure resistance from terminal to terminal with the delta closed or from terminal to terminal with the delta open to obtain the individual phase readings. The total winding resistance is the sum of the three-phase readings if the delta is open. If the delta is closed, the total winding resistance is the sum of the three phase-to-phase readings times 1.5.
</P>
<P>3.4.2 <I>Guideline for Time Constant.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) The following guideline is suggested for the tester as a means to facilitate the measurement of resistance in accordance with the accuracy requirements of section 2.3:
</P>
<P>(b) The accurate reading of resistance R<E T="52">dc</E> may be facilitated by shortening the time constant. This is done by introducing a resistor R<E T="52">t</E> in series with the winding under test in both the bridge and voltmeter-ammeter circuits as shown in Figures 3.1 to 3.3. The relationship for the time constant is: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.009.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">c</E> is the time constant in seconds, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">tc</E> is the total magnetizing and leakage inductance of the winding under test, in henries, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">tc</E> is the total resistance in ohms, consisting of R<E T="52">t</E> in series with the winding resistance R<E T="52">dc</E> and the resistance R<E T="52">s</E> of the standard resistor in the bridge circuit.
</FP-2>
<P>(c) Because R<E T="52">tc</E> is in the denominator of the expression for the time constant, increasing the resistance R<E T="52">tc</E> will decrease the time constant. If the time constant in a given test circuit is too long for the resistance readings to be stable, then a higher resistance can be substituted for the existing R<E T="52">tc</E>, and successive replacements can be made until adequate stability is reached.


</P>
<P>3.5 <I>Conversion of Resistance Measurements.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Resistance measurements must be corrected from the temperature at which the winding resistance measurements were made, to the reference temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) Correct the measured resistance to the resistance at the reference temperature using equation 3-6 as follows: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.010.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">ts</E> is the resistance at the reference temperature, T<E T="52">s</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">dc</E> is the measured resistance at temperature, T<E T="52">dc</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">s</E> is the reference temperature in °C, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">dc</E> is the temperature at which resistance was measured in °C, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">k</E> is 234.5 °C for copper or 225 °C for aluminum. 


</FP-2>
<HD1>4.0 Loss Measurement
</HD1>
<P>4.1 <I>General Considerations.</I>
</P>
<P>The efficiency of a transformer is computed from the total transformer losses, which are determined from the measured value of the no-load loss and load loss power components. Each of these two power loss components is measured separately using test sets that are identical, except that shorting straps are added for the load-loss test. The measured quantities need correction for instrumentation losses and may need corrections for known phase angle errors in measuring equipment and for the waveform distortion in the test voltage. Any power loss not measured at the applicable reference temperature must be adjusted to that reference temperature. The measured load loss must also be adjusted to a specified output loading level if not measured at the specified output loading level. Test all distribution transformers using a sinusoidal waveform (k = 1). Measure losses with the transformer energized by a 60 Hz supply.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Measurement of Power Losses.</I>
</P>
<P>4.2.1 <I>No-Load Loss.</I>
</P>
<P>Measure the no-load loss and apply corrections as described in section 4.4, using the appropriate test set as described in section 4.3.
</P>
<P>4.2.2 <I>Load Loss.</I>
</P>
<P>Measure the load loss and apply corrections as described in section 4.5, using the appropriate test set as described in section 4.3.
</P>
<P>4.3 <I>Test Sets.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) The same test set may be used for both the no-load loss and load loss measurements provided the range of the test set encompasses the test requirements of both tests. Calibrate the test set to national standards to meet the tolerances in Table 2.3 in section 2.3 of this appendix. In addition, the wattmeter, current measuring system and voltage measuring system must be calibrated separately if the overall test set calibration is outside the tolerance as specified in section 2.3 or the individual phase angle error exceeds the values specified in section 4.5.3.
</P>
<P>(b) A test set based on the wattmeter-voltmeter-ammeter principle may be used to measure the power loss and the applied voltage and current of a transformer where the transformer's test current and voltage are within the measurement capability of the measuring instruments. Current and voltage transformers, known collectively as instrument transformers, or other scaling devices such as resistive or capacitive dividers for voltage, may be used in the above circumstance, and must be used together with instruments to measure current, voltage, or power where the current or voltage of the transformer under test exceeds the measurement capability of such instruments. Thus, a test set may include a combination of measuring instruments and instrument transformers (or other scaling devices), so long as the current or voltage of the transformer under test does not exceed the measurement capability of any of the instruments.
</P>
<P>(c) Both load loss and no-load loss measurements must be made from terminal to terminal.
</P>
<P>4.3.1 <I>Single-Phase Test Sets.</I>
</P>
<P>Use these for testing single-phase distribution transformers.
</P>
<HD3>4.3.1.1 <I>Without Instrument Transformers.</I>
</HD3>
<P>(a) A single-phase test set without an instrument transformer is shown in Figure 4.1. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.011.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>W is a wattmeter used to measure P<E T="52">nm</E> and P<E T="52">lm</E>, the no-load and load loss power, respectively, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">rms</E> is a true root-mean-square (rms) voltmeter used to measure V<E T="52">r(nm)</E> and V<E T="52">lm</E>, the rms test voltages in no-load and load loss measurements, respectively, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">av</E> is an average sensing voltmeter, calibrated to indicate rms voltage for sinusoidal waveforms and used to measure V<E T="52">a(nm)</E>, the average voltage in no-load loss measurements, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A is an rms ammeter used to measure test current, especially I<E T="52">lm</E>, the load loss current, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(SC) is a conductor for providing a short-circuit across the output windings for the load loss measurements.
</FP-2>
<P>(b) Either the primary or the secondary winding can be connected to the test set. However, more compatible voltage and current levels for the measuring instruments are available if for no-load loss measurements the secondary (low voltage) winding is connected to the test set, and for load loss measurements the primary winding is connected to the test set. Use the average-sensing voltmeter, V<E T="52">av</E>, only in no-load loss measurements.
</P>
<HD3>4.3.1.2 <I>With Instrument Transformers.</I>
</HD3>
<P>A single-phase test set with instrument transformers is shown in Figure 4.2. This circuit has the same four measuring instruments as that in Figure 4.1. The current and voltage transformers, designated as (CT) and (VT), respectively, are added. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.012.gif"/>
<P>4.3.2 <I>Three-Phase Test Sets.</I>
</P>
<P>Use these for testing three-phase distribution transformers. Use in a four-wire, three-wattmeter test circuit.
</P>
<HD3>4.3.2.1 <I>Without Instrument Transformers.</I>
</HD3>
<P>(a) A three-phase test set without instrument transformers is shown in Figure 4.3. This test set is essentially the same circuit shown in Figure 4.1 repeated three times, and the instruments are individual devices as shown. As an alternative, the entire instrumentation system of a three-phase test set without transformers may consist of a multi-function analyzer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.013.gif"/>
<P>(b) Either group of windings, the primary or the secondary, can be connected in wye or delta configuration. If both groups of windings are connected in the wye configuration for the no-load test, the neutral of the winding connected to the test set must be connected to the neutral of the source to provide a return path for the neutral current.
</P>
<P>(c) In the no-load loss measurement, the voltage on the winding must be measured. Therefore a provision must be made to switch the voltmeters for line-to-neutral measurements for wye-connected windings and for line-to-line measurements for delta-connected windings.
</P>
<HD3>4.3.2.2 <I>With Instrument Transformers.</I>
</HD3>
<P>A three-phase test set with instrument transformers is shown in Figure 4.4. This test set is essentially the same circuit shown in Figure 4.2 repeated three times. Provision must be made to switch the voltmeters for line-to-neutral and line-to-line measurements as in section 4.3.2.1. The voltage sensors (“coils”) of the wattmeters must always be connected in the line-to-neutral configuration. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.014.gif"/>
<HD3>4.3.2.3 <I>Test Set Neutrals.</I>
</HD3>
<P>If the power source in the test circuit is wye-connected, ground the neutral. If the power source in the test circuit is delta-connected, use a grounding transformer to obtain neutral and ground for the test.
</P>
<P>4.4 <I>No-Load Losses: Measurement and Calculations.</I>
</P>
<P>4.4.1 <I>General Considerations.</I>
</P>
<P>Measurement corrections are permitted but not required for instrumentation losses and for losses from auxiliary devices. Measurement corrections are required:
</P>
<P>(a) When the waveform of the applied voltage is non-sinusoidal; and
</P>
<P>(b) When the core temperature or liquid temperature is outside the 20 °C ±10 °C range.
</P>
<P>4.4.2 <I>No-Load Loss Test.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) The purpose of the no-load loss test is to measure no-load losses at a specified excitation voltage and a specified frequency. The no-load loss determination must be based on a sine-wave voltage corrected to the reference temperature. Connect either of the transformer windings, primary or secondary, to the appropriate test set of Figures 4.1 to 4.4, giving consideration to section 4.4.2(a)(2). Leave the unconnected winding(s) open circuited. Apply the rated voltage at rated frequency, as measured by the average-sensing voltmeter, to the transformer. Take the readings of the wattmeter(s) and the average-sensing and true rms voltmeters. Observe the following precautions:
</P>
<P>(1) Voltmeter connections. When correcting to a sine-wave basis using the average-voltmeter method, the voltmeter connections must be such that the waveform applied to the voltmeters is the same as the waveform across the energized windings.
</P>
<P>(2) Energized windings. Energize either the high voltage or the low voltage winding of the transformer under test.
</P>
<P>(3) Voltage and frequency. The no-load loss test must be conducted with rated voltage impressed across the transformer terminals using a voltage source at a frequency equal to the rated frequency of the transformer under test.
</P>
<P>(b) Adjust the voltage to the specified value as indicated by the average-sensing voltmeter. Record the values of rms voltage, rms current, electrical power, and average voltage as close to simultaneously as possible. For a three-phase transformer, take all of the readings on one phase before proceeding to the next, and record the average of the three rms voltmeter readings as the rms voltage value. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>When the tester uses a power supply that is not synchronized with an electric utility grid, such as a dc/ac motor-generator set, check the frequency and maintain it within ±0.5 percent of the rated frequency of the transformer under test. A power source that is directly connected to, or synchronized with, an electric utility grid need not be monitored for frequency.</P></NOTE>
<P>4.4.3 <I>Corrections.</I>
</P>
<HD3>4.4.3.1 <I>Correction for Instrumentation Losses.</I>
</HD3>
<P>Measured losses attributable to the voltmeters and wattmeter voltage circuit, and to voltage transformers if they are used, may be deducted from the total no-load losses measured during testing.
</P>
<HD3>4.4.3.2 <I>Correction for Non-Sinusoidal Applied Voltage.</I>
</HD3>
<P>(a) The measured value of no-load loss must be corrected to a sinusoidal voltage, except when waveform distortion in the test voltage causes the magnitude of the correction to be less than 1 percent. In such a case, no correction is required.
</P>
<P>(b) To make a correction where the distortion requires a correction of 5 percent or less, use equation 4-1. If the distortion requires a correction to be greater than 5 percent, improve the test voltage and re-test. Repeat until the distortion requires a correction of 5 percent or less.
</P>
<P>(c) Determine the no-load losses of the transformer corrected for sine-wave basis from the measured value by using equation 4-1 as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="30" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.015.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">ncl</E> is the no-load loss corrected to a sine-wave basis at the temperature (T<E T="52">nm</E>) at which no-load loss is measured, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">nm</E> is the measured no-load loss at temperature T<E T="52">nm</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">1</E> is the per unit hysteresis loss, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">2</E> is the per unit eddy-current loss, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">1</E> + P<E T="52">2</E> = 1, 
</FP-2>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="39" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.016.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">r(nm)</E> is the test voltage measured by rms voltmeter, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">a(nm)</E> is the test voltage measured by average-voltage voltmeter.
</FP-2>
<P>(d) The two loss components (P<E T="52">1</E> and P<E T="52">2</E>) are assumed equal in value, each assigned a value of 0.5 per unit, unless the actual measurement-based values of hysteresis and eddy-current losses are available (in per unit form), in which case the actual measurements apply.
</P>
<HD3>4.4.3.3 <I>Correction of No-Load Loss to Reference Temperature. </I>
</HD3>
<P>After correcting the measured no-load loss for waveform distortion, correct the loss to the reference temperature. For both certification to energy conservation standards and voluntary representations, if the correction to reference temperature is applied, then the core temperature of the transformer during no-load loss measurement (T<E T="52">nm</E>) must be determined within ±10 °C of the true average core temperature. For certification to energy conservation standards only, if the no-load loss measurements were made between 10 °C and 30 °C, this correction is not required. Correct the no-load loss to the reference temperature by using equation 4-2 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14se21.015.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">nc</E> is the no-load losses corrected for waveform distortion and then to the reference temperature;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">nc1</E> is the no-load losses, corrected for waveform distortion, at temperature T<E T="52">nm</E>;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I><E T="54">nm</E> is the core temperature during the measurement of no-load losses; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I><E T="54">nr</E> is the reference temperature.


</FP-2>
<P>4.5 <I>Load Losses: Measurement and Calculations.</I>
</P>
<P>4.5.1 <I>General Considerations.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) The load losses of a transformer are those losses incident to a specified load carried by the transformer. Load losses consist of ohmic loss in the windings due to the load current and stray losses due to the eddy currents induced by the leakage flux in the windings, core clamps, magnetic shields, tank walls, and other conducting parts. The ohmic loss of a transformer varies directly with temperature, whereas the stray losses vary inversely with temperature.
</P>
<P>(b) For a transformer with a tap changer, conduct the test at the rated current and rated-voltage tap position. For a transformer that has a configuration of windings which allows for more than one nominal rated voltage, determine its load losses either in the winding configuration in which the highest losses occur or in each winding configuration in which the transformer can operate.
</P>
<P>4.5.2 <I>Tests for Measuring Load Losses.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Connect the transformer with either the high-voltage or low-voltage windings to the appropriate test set. Then short-circuit the winding that was not connected to the test set. Apply a voltage at the rated frequency (of the transformer under test) to the connected windings to produce the rated current in the transformer. Take the readings of the wattmeter(s), the ammeters(s), and rms voltmeter(s).
</P>
<P>(b) Regardless of the test set selected, the following preparatory requirements must be satisfied for accurate test results:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the temperature of the windings using the applicable method in section 3.2.1 or section 3.2.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The conductors used to short-circuit the windings must have a cross-sectional area equal to, or greater than, the corresponding transformer leads, or, if the tester uses a different method to short-circuit the windings, the losses in the short-circuiting conductor assembly must be less than 10 percent of the transformer's load losses.
</P>
<P>(3) When the tester uses a power supply that is not synchronized with an electric utility grid, such as a dc/ac motor-generator set, follow the provisions of the “Note” in section 4.4.2.
</P>
<P>4.5.3 <I>Corrections.</I>
</P>
<HD3>4.5.3.1 <I>Correction for Losses from Instrumentation and Auxiliary Devices.</I>
</HD3>
<P>4.5.3.1.1 <I>Instrumentation Losses.</I>
</P>
<P>Measured losses attributable to the voltmeters, wattmeter voltage circuit and short-circuiting conductor (SC), and to the voltage transformers if they are used, may be deducted from the total load losses measured during testing.
</P>
<P>4.5.3.1.2 <I>Losses from Auxiliary Devices.</I>
</P>
<P>Measured losses attributable to auxiliary devices (e.g., circuit breakers, fuses, switches) installed in the transformer, if any, that are not part of the winding and core assembly, may be excluded from load losses measured during testing. To exclude these losses, either (1) measure transformer losses without the auxiliary devices by removing or by-passing them, or (2) measure transformer losses with the auxiliary devices connected, determine the losses associated with the auxiliary devices, and deduct these losses from the load losses measured during testing.
</P>
<HD3>4.5.3.2 <I>Correction for Phase Angle Errors.</I>
</HD3>
<P>(a) Corrections for phase angle errors are not required if the instrumentation is calibrated over the entire range of power factors and phase angle errors. Otherwise, determine whether to correct for phase angle errors from the magnitude of the normalized per unit correction, β<E T="52">n</E>, obtained by using equation 4-3 as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="31" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.018.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(b) The correction must be applied if β<E T="52">n</E> is outside the limits of ±0.01. If β<E T="52">n</E> is within the limits of ±0.01, the correction is permitted but not required.
</P>
<P>(c) If the correction for phase angle errors is to be applied, first examine the total system phase angle (β<E T="52">w</E>−β<E T="52">v</E> + β<E T="52">c</E>). Where the total system phase angle is equal to or less than ±12 milliradians (±41 minutes), use either equation 4-4 or 4-5 to correct the measured load loss power for phase angle errors, and where the total system phase angle exceeds ±12 milliradians (±41 minutes) use equation 4-5, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14se21.016.gif"/>
<P>(d) The symbols in this section (4.5.3.2) have the following meanings:
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lc1</E> is the corrected wattmeter reading for phase angle errors, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lm</E> is the actual wattmeter reading, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">lm</E> is the measured voltage at the transformer winding, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>I<E T="52">lm</E> is the measured rms current in the transformer winding, 
</FP-2>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="30" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.021.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>is the measured phase angle between V<E T="52">lm</E> and I<E T="52">lm</E>,
</FP>
<FP-2>β<E T="52">w</E> is the phase angle error (in radians) of the wattmeter; the error is positive if the phase angle between the voltage and current phasors as sensed by the wattmeter is smaller than the true phase angle, thus effectively increasing the measured power,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>β<E T="52">v</E> is the phase angle error (in radians) of the voltage transformer; the error is positive if the secondary voltage leads the primary voltage, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>β<E T="52">c</E> is the phase angle error (in radians) of the current transformer; the error is positive if the secondary current leads the primary current.
</FP-2>
<P>(e) The instrumentation phase angle errors used in the correction equations must be specific for the test conditions involved.
</P>
<HD3>4.5.3.3 <I>Temperature Correction of Load Loss.</I>
</HD3>
<P>(a) When the measurement of load loss is made at a temperature T<E T="52">lm</E> that is different from the reference temperature, use the procedure summarized in the equations 4-6 to 4-10 to correct the measured load loss to the reference temperature. The symbols used in these equations are defined at the end of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Calculate the ohmic loss (P<E T="52">e</E>) by using equation 4-6 as follows: 
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="90" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.022.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(c) Obtain the stray loss by subtracting the calculated ohmic loss from the measured load loss, by using equation 4-7 as follows: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="17" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.023.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(d) Correct the ohmic and stray losses to the reference temperature for the load loss by using equations 4-8 and 4-9, respectively, as follows: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="88" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.024.gif"/></MATH>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="30" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.025.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(e) Add the ohmic and stray losses, corrected to the reference temperature, to give the load loss, P<E T="52">lc2</E>, at the reference temperature, by using equation 4-10 as follows: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="123" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.026.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(f) The symbols in this section (4.5.3.3) have the following meanings:
</P>
<FP-2>I<E T="52">lm(p)</E> is the primary current in amperes, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>I<E T="52">lm(s)</E> is the secondary current in amperes, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">e</E> is the ohmic loss in the transformer in watts at the temperature T<E T="52">lm</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">e(p)</E> is the ohmic loss in watts in the primary winding at the temperature T<E T="52">lm</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">e(s)</E> is the ohmic loss in watts in the secondary winding at the temperature T<E T="52">lm</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">er</E> is the ohmic loss in watts corrected to the reference temperature, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lc1</E> is the measured load loss in watts, corrected for phase angle error, at the temperature T<E T="52">lm</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lc2</E> is the load loss at the reference temperature, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">s</E> is the stray loss in watts at the temperature T<E T="52">lm</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">sr</E> is the stray loss in watts corrected to the reference temperature, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">dc(p)</E> is the measured dc primary winding resistance in ohms, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">dc(s)</E> is the measured dc secondary winding resistance in ohms, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">k</E> is the critical temperature in degrees Celsius for the material of the transformer windings. Where copper is used in both primary and secondary windings, T<E T="52">k</E> is 234.5 °C; where aluminum is used in both primary and secondary windings, T<E T="52">k</E> is 225 °C; where both copper and aluminum are used in the same transformer, the value of 229 °C is used for T<E T="52">k</E>, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">k(p)</E> is the critical temperature in degrees Celsius for the material of the primary winding: 234.5 °C if copper and 225 °C if aluminum, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">k(s)</E> is the critical temperature in degrees Celsius for the material of the secondary winding: 234.5 °C if copper and 225 °C if aluminum, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">lm</E> is the temperature in degrees Celsius at which the load loss is measured, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">lr</E> is the reference temperature for the load loss in degrees Celsius, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">dc</E> is the temperature in degrees Celsius at which the resistance values are measured, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N<E T="52">1</E>/N<E T="52">2</E> is the ratio of the number of turns in the primary winding (N<E T="52">1</E>) to the number of turns in the secondary winding (N<E T="52">2</E>); for a primary winding with taps, N<E T="52">1</E> is the number of turns used when the voltage applied to the primary winding is the rated primary voltage. 
</FP-2>
<HD1>5.0 Determining the Efficiency Value of the Transformer
</HD1>
<P>This section presents the equations to use in determining the efficiency value of the transformer at the required reference conditions and at the specified loading level. The details of measurements are described in sections 3.0 and 4.0. For a transformer that has a configuration of windings which allows for more than one nominal rated voltage, determine its efficiency either at the voltage at which the highest losses occur or at each voltage at which the transformer is rated to operate.
</P>
<P>5.1 <I>Output Loading Level Adjustment.</I>
</P>
<P>If the per-unit load selected in section 2.1 is different from the per-unit load at which the load loss power measurements were made, then adjust the corrected load loss power, P<E T="52">lc2</E>, by using equation 5-1 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er14se21.017.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">lc</E> is the adjusted load loss power to the per-unit load;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">lc2</E> is as calculated in section 4.5.3.3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">or</E> is the rated transformer apparent power (name plate);
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">os</E> is the adjusted rated transformer apparent power, where <I>P</I><E T="54">os</E> <I>= P</I><E T="54">or</E><I>L</I>; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>L</I> is the per-unit load, <I>e.g.,</I> if the per-unit load is 50 percent then “<I>L”</I> is 0.5.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2 <I>Total Loss Power Calculation.</I>
</P>
<P>Calculate the corrected total loss power by using equation 5-2 as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="17" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.029.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">ts</E> is the corrected total loss power adjusted for the transformer output loading specified by the standard, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">nc</E> is as calculated in section 4.4.3.3, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">lc</E> is as calculated in section 5.1.
</FP-2>
<P>5.3 <I>Energy Efficiency Calculation.</I>
</P>
<P>Calculate efficiency (η) in percent at specified energy efficiency load level, P<E T="52">os</E>, by using equation 5-3 as follows: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="33" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27ap06.030.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">os</E> is as described and calculated in section 5.1, and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">ts</E> is as described and calculated in section 5.2.
</FP-2>
<P>5.4 <I>Significant Figures in Power Loss and Efficiency Data.</I>
</P>
<P>In measured and calculated data, retain enough significant figures to provide at least 1 percent resolution in power loss data and 0.01 percent resolution in efficiency data. 


</P>
<HD1>6.0 <I>Test Equipment Calibration and Certification.</I>
</HD1>
<P>Maintain and calibrate test equipment and measuring instruments, maintain calibration records, and perform other test and measurement quality assurance procedures according to the following sections. The calibration of the test set must confirm the accuracy of the test set to that specified in section 2.3, Table 2.3 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>6.1 <I>Test Equipment.</I>
</P>
<P>The party performing the tests must control, calibrate, and maintain measuring and test equipment, whether or not it owns the equipment, has the equipment on loan, or the equipment is provided by another party. Equipment must be used in a manner which assures that measurement uncertainty is known and is consistent with the required measurement capability.
</P>
<P>6.2 <I>Calibration and Certification.</I>
</P>
<P>The party performing the tests must:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify the measurements to be made, the accuracy required (section 2.3) and select the appropriate measurement and test equipment;
</P>
<P>(b) At prescribed intervals, or prior to use, identify, check and calibrate, if needed, all measuring and test equipment systems or devices that affect test accuracy, against certified equipment having a known valid relationship to nationally recognized standards; where no such standards exist, the basis used for calibration must be documented;
</P>
<P>(c) Establish, document and maintain calibration procedures, including details of equipment type, identification number, location, frequency of checks, check method, acceptance criteria and action to be taken when results are unsatisfactory;
</P>
<P>(d) Ensure that the measuring and test equipment is capable of the accuracy and precision necessary, taking into account the voltage, current and power factor of the transformer under test;
</P>
<P>(e) Identify measuring and test equipment with a suitable indicator or approved identification record to show the calibration status;
</P>
<P>(f) Maintain calibration records for measuring and test equipment;
</P>
<P>(g) Assess and document the validity of previous test results when measuring and test equipment is found to be out of calibration;
</P>
<P>(h) Ensure that the environmental conditions are suitable for the calibrations, measurements and tests being carried out;
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that the handling, preservation and storage of measuring and test equipment is such that the accuracy and fitness for use is maintained; and
</P>
<P>(j) Safeguard measuring and test facilities, including both test hardware and test software, from adjustments which would invalidate the calibration setting. 


</P>
<HD1>7.0 Test Procedure for Voluntary Representations
</HD1>
<P>Follow sections 1.0 through 6.0 of this appendix using the per-unit load and/or reference temperature of interest for voluntary representations of efficiency, and corresponding values of load loss and no-load loss at additional per-unit load and/or reference temperature. Representations made at a per-unit load and/or reference temperature other than those required to comply with the energy conservation standards at § 431.196 must be in addition to, and not in place of, a representation at the required DOE settings for per-unit load and reference temperature. As a best practice, the additional settings of per-unit load and reference temperature should be provided with the voluntary representations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 24999, Apr. 27, 2006; 71 FR 60662, Oct. 16, 2006; 86 FR 51252, Sept. 14, 2021]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 71 FR 24999, Apr. 27, 2006, appendix A to subpart K of part 431 was added. Section 6.2(f) contains information collection requirements and will not become effective until approval has been given by the Office of Management and Budget.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Illuminated Exit Signs</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60417, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.201" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.12.59.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.201   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for illuminated exit signs, pursuant to Part B of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6309.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.202" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.12.59.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.202   Definitions concerning illuminated exit signs.</HEAD>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given type of covered product (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Face</I> means an illuminated side of an illuminated exit sign.
</P>
<P><I>Illuminated exit sign</I> means a sign that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed to be permanently fixed in place to identify an exit; and
</P>
<P>(2) Consists of an electrically powered integral light source that—
</P>
<P>(i) Illuminates the legend “EXIT” and any directional indicators; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides contrast between the legend, any directional indicators, and the background.
</P>
<P><I>Input power demand</I> means the amount of power required to continuously illuminate an exit sign model, measured in watts (W). For exit sign models with rechargeable batteries, input power demand shall be measured with batteries at full charge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60417, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 71372, Dec. 8, 2006; 76 FR 12504, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="59" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.12.59" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.203" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.12.59.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.203   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Department incorporates by reference the following test procedures into subpart L of part 431. The Director of the Federal Register has approved the material listed in paragraph (b) of this section for incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Any subsequent amendment to this material by the standard-setting organization will not affect the DOE test procedures unless and until DOE amends its test procedures. The Department incorporates the material as it exists on the date of the approval by the Federal Register and a notice of any change in the material will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test procedure incorporated by reference.</I> Environmental Protection Agency “ENERGY STAR Program Requirements for Exit Signs,” Version 2.0 issued January 1, 1999.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of reference</I>—(1) <I>Inspection of test procedure.</I> The test procedure incorporated by reference are available for inspection at:
</P>
<P>(i) National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) U.S. Department of Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 1J-018 (Resource Room of the Building Technologies Program), 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121, (202) 586-9127, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Obtaining copies of the standard.</I> Copies of the Environmental Protection Agency “ENERGY STAR Program Requirements for Exit Signs,” Version 2.0, may be obtained from the Environmental Protection Agency, Ariel Rios Building, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20460, (202) 272-0167 or at<I>http://www.epa.gov.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 71373, Dec. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.204" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.12.59.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.204   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy consumption of illuminated exit signs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides the test procedure for measuring, pursuant to EPCA, the input power demand of illuminated exit signs. For purposes of this part 431 and EPCA, the test procedure for measuring the input power demand of illuminated exit signs shall be the test procedure specified in § 431.203(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and Calculations.</I> Determine the energy efficiency of each covered product by conducting the test procedure, set forth in the Environmental Protection Agency's “ENERGY STAR Program Requirements for Exit Signs,” Version 2.0, section 4 (Test Criteria), “Conditions for testing” and “Input power measurement.” (Incorporated by reference, see § 431.203)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 71373, Dec. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="60" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.12.60" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.206" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.12.60.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.206   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>An illuminated exit sign manufactured on or after January 1, 2006, shall have an input power demand of 5 watts or less per face.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Traffic Signal Modules and Pedestrian Modules</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60417, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.221" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.13.61.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.221   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules, pursuant to Part B of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6309.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.222" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.13.61.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.222   Definitions concerning traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules.</HEAD>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given type of covered product (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum wattage</I> means the power consumed by the module after being operated for 60 minutes while mounted in a temperature testing chamber so that the lensed portion of the module is outside the chamber, all portions of the module behind the lens are within the chamber at a temperature of 74 °C and the air temperature in front of the lens is maintained at a minimum of 49 °C.
</P>
<P><I>Nominal wattage</I> means the power consumed by the module when it is operated within a chamber at a temperature of 25 °C after the signal has been operated for 60 minutes. 
</P>
<P><I>Pedestrian module</I> means a light signal used to convey movement information to pedestrians.
</P>
<P><I>Traffic signal module</I> means a standard 8-inch (200 mm) or 12-inch (300 mm) traffic signal indication that—
</P>
<P>(1) Consists of a light source, a lens, and all other parts necessary for operation; and
</P>
<P>(2) Communicates movement messages to drivers through red, amber, and green colors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60417, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 71373, Dec. 8, 2006; 76 FR 12504, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="61" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.13.61" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.223" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.13.61.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.223   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Department incorporates by reference the following test procedures into subpart M of part 431. The Director of the Federal Register has approved the material listed in paragraph (b) of this section for incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Any subsequent amendment to this material by the standard-setting organization will not affect the DOE test procedures unless and until DOE amends its test procedures. The Department incorporates the material as it exists on the date of the approval by the Federal Register and a notice of any change in the material will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>List of test procedures incorporated by reference.</I> (1) Environmental Protection Agency, “ENERGY STAR Program Requirements for Traffic Signals,” Version 1.1 issued February 4, 2003.
</P>
<P>(2) Institute of Transportation Engineers (ITE), “Vehicle Traffic Control Signal Heads: Light Emitting Diode (LED) Circular Signal Supplement,” June 27, 2005.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of references</I>—(1) <I>Inspection of test procedures.</I> The test procedures incorporated by reference are available for inspection at:
</P>
<P>(i) National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) U.S. Department of Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 1J-018 (Resource Room of the Building Technologies Program), 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121, (202) 586-9127, between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Obtaining copies of standards.</I> Standards incorporated by reference may be obtained from the following sources:
</P>
<P>(i) Copies of the Environmental Protection Agency “ENERGY STAR Program Requirements for Traffic Signals,” Version 1.1, may be obtained from the Environmental Protection Agency, Ariel Rios Building, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20460, (202) 272-0167 or at <I>http://www.epa.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Institute of Transportation Engineers, 1099 14th Street, NW., Suite 300 West, Washington, DC 20005-3438, (202) 289-0222, or <I>ite_staff@ite.org.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 71373, Dec. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.224" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.13.61.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.224   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy consumption for traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides the test procedures for measuring, pursuant to EPCA, the maximum wattage and nominal wattage of traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules. For purposes of 10 CFR part 431 and EPCA, the test procedures for measuring the maximum wattage and nominal wattage of traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules shall be the test procedures specified in § 431.223(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and Calculations.</I> Determine the nominal wattage and maximum wattage of each covered traffic signal module or pedestrian module by conducting the test procedure set forth in Environmental Protection Agency, “ENERGY STAR Program Requirements for Traffic Signals,” Version 1.1, section 1, “Definitions,” and section 4, “Test Criteria.” (Incorporated by reference, see § 431.223) Use a wattmeter having an accuracy of ±1% to measure the nominal wattage and maximum wattage of a red and green traffic signal module, and a pedestrian module when conducting the photometric and colormetric tests as specified by the testing procedures in VTCSH 2005.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 71373, Dec. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="62" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.13.62" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.226" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.13.62.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.226   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>Any traffic signal module or pedestrian module manufactured on or after January 1, 2006, shall meet both of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) Have a nominal wattage and maximum wattage no greater than: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum wattage
<br/>(at 74 °C) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal
<br/>wattage
<br/>(at 25 °C) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Traffic Signal Module Type:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">12″ Red Ball</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8″ Red Ball</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">12″ Red Arrow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">12″ Green Ball</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8″ Green Ball</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">12″ Green Arrow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pedestrian Module Type:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Combination Walking Man/Hand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Walking Man</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Orange Hand</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Be installed with compatible, electrically connected signal control interface devices and conflict monitoring systems.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60417, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 71374, Dec. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Unit Heaters</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60418, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.241" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.14.63.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.241   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for unit heaters, pursuant to Part B of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6309.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.242" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.14.63.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.242   Definitions concerning unit heaters.</HEAD>
<P><I>Automatic flue damper</I> means a device installed in the flue outlet or in the inlet of or upstream of the draft control device of an individual, automatically operated, fossil fuel-fired appliance that is designed to automatically open the flue outlet during appliance operation and to automatically close the flue outlet when the appliance is in a standby condition.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic vent damper</I> means a device intended for installation in the venting system of an individual, automatically operated, fossil fuel-fired appliance either in the outlet or downstream of the appliance draft control device, which is designed to automatically open the venting system when the appliance is in operation and to automatically close off the venting system when the appliance is in a standby or shutdown condition.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given type of covered product (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Intermittent ignition device</I> means an ignition device in which the ignition source is automatically shut off when the appliance is in an off or standby condition.
</P>
<P><I>Power venting</I> means a venting system that uses a separate fan, either integral to the appliance or attached to the vent pipe, to convey products of combustion and excess or dilution air through the vent pipe. 
</P>
<P><I>Unit heater</I> means a self-contained fan-type heater designed to be installed within the heated space; however, the term does not include a warm air furnace.
</P>
<P><I>Warm air furnace</I> means commercial warm air furnace as defined in § 431.72. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60418, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 71374, Dec. 8, 2006; 76 FR 12504, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="63" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.14.63" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="64" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.14.64" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.246" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.14.64.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.246   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>A unit heater manufactured on or after August 8, 2008, shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Be equipped with an intermittent ignition device; and
</P>
<P>(b) Have power venting or an automatic flue damper. An automatic vent damper is an acceptable alternative to an automatic flue damper for those unit heaters where combustion air is drawn from the conditioned space.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 60418, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 71374, Dec. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Commercial Prerinse Spray Valves</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60418, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.261" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.15.65.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.261   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for commercial prerinse spray valves, pursuant to section 135 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. 109-58.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.262" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.15.65.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.262   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all spray settings of a given class manufactured by one manufacturer, which have essentially identical physical and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect water consumption or water efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial prerinse spray valve</I> means a handheld device that has a release-to-close valve and is suitable for removing food residue from food service items before cleaning them in commercial dishwashing or ware washing equipment. DOE may determine that a device is suitable for removing food residue from food service items before cleaning them in commercial dishwashing or ware washing equipment based on any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Equipment design and representations (for example, whether equipment is represented as being capable of rinsing dishes as compared to equipment that is represented exclusively for washing walls and floors or animal washing);
</P>
<P>(2) Channels of marketing and sales (for example, whether equipment is marketed or sold through outlets that market or sell to food service entities);
</P>
<P>(3) Actual sales (including whether the end-users are restaurants or commercial or institutional kitchens, even if those sales are indirectly through an entity such as a distributor).
</P>
<P><I>Spray force</I> means the amount of force exerted onto the spray disc, measured in ounce-force (ozf).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 81453, Dec. 30, 2015, as amended at 87 FR 13909, Mar. 11, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.263" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.15.65.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.263   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at the DOE and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: The U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 6th Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, or <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the source(s) in the following paragraph(s) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASTM.</I> ASTM, International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959, (610) 832-9585, or go to <I>www.astm.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM F2324-13 (R2019) (“ASTM F2324”),”Standard Test Method for Prerinse Spray Valves”, Approved May 1, 2019; IBR approved for § 431.264.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 13910, Mar. 11, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="65" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.15.65" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.264" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.15.65.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.264   Uniform test method to measure flow rate and spray force of commercial prerinse spray valves.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides the test procedure to measure the flow rate and spray force of a commercial prerinse spray valve.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations for a unit with a single spray setting</I>—(1) <I>Flow rate.</I> (i) Test each unit in accordance with the requirements of Sections 6.1 through 6.9 (Apparatus) (except 6.4 and 6.7), 9.1 through 9.4 (Preparation of Apparatus), and 10.1 through 10.2.5 (Procedure) of ASTM F2324, (incorporated by reference, see § 431.263). Precatory language in ASTM F2324 is to be treated as mandatory for the purpose of testing. In Section 9.1 of ASTM F2324, the second instance of “prerinse spray valve” refers to the spring-style deck-mounted prerinse unit defined in Section 6.8. In lieu of using manufacturer installation instructions or packaging, always connect the commercial prerinse spray valve to the flex tubing for testing. Normalize the weight of the water to calculate flow rate using Equation 1 to this paragraph, where W<E T="52">water</E> is the weight normalized to a 1 minute time period, W<E T="52">1</E> is the weight of the water in the carboy at the conclusion of the flow rate test, and t<E T="52">1</E> is the total recorded time of the flow rate test.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11mr22.000.gif"/>
<P>(ii) Perform calculations in accordance with Section 11.3.1 (Calculation and Report) of ASTM F2324. Record the water temperature ( °F) and dynamic water pressure (psi) once at the start for each run of the test. Record the time (min), the normalized weight of water in the carboy (lb) and the resulting flow rate (gpm) once at the end of each run of the test. Record flow rate measurements of time (min) and weight (lb) at the resolutions of the test instrumentation. Perform three runs on each unit, as specified in Section 10.2.5 of ASTM F2324, but disregard any references to Annex A1. Then, for each unit, calculate the mean of the three flow rate values determined from each run. Round the final value for flow rate to two decimal places and record that value.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spray force.</I> Test each unit in accordance with the test requirements specified in Sections 6.2 and 6.4 through 6.9 (Apparatus), 9.1 through 9.5.3.2 (Preparation of Apparatus), and 10.3.1 through 10.3.8 (Procedure) of ASTM F2324. In Section 9.1 of ASTM F2324, the second instance of “prerinse spray valve” refers to the spring-style deck-mounted prerinse unit defined in Section 6.8. In lieu of using manufacturer installation instructions or packaging, always connect the commercial prerinse spray valve to the flex tubing for testing. Record the water temperature ( °F) and dynamic water pressure (psi) once at the start for each run of the test. In order to calculate the mean spray force value for the unit under test, there are two measurements per run and there are three runs per test. For each run of the test, record a minimum of two spray force measurements and calculate the mean of the measurements over the 15-second time period of stabilized flow during spray force testing. Record the time (min) once at the end of each run of the test. Record spray force measurements at the resolution of the test instrumentation. Conduct three runs on each unit, as specified in Section 10.3.8 of ASTM F2324, but disregard any references to Annex A1. Ensure the unit has been stabilized separately during each run. Then for each unit, calculate and record the mean of the spray force values determined from each run. Round the final value for spray force to one decimal place.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Testing and calculations for a unit with multiple spray settings.</I> If a unit has multiple user-selectable spray settings, or includes multiple spray faces that can be installed, for each possible spray setting or spray face:
</P>
<P>(1) Measure both the flow rate and spray force according to paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section (including calculating the mean flow rate and mean spray force) for each spray setting; and
</P>
<P>(2) Record the mean flow rate for each spray setting, rounded to two decimal places. Record the mean spray force for each spray setting, rounded to one decimal place.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Test procedure for voluntary representations.</I> Follow paragraph (b)(1) or (2) or (c) of this section, as applicable, using test water pressure(s) of interest for voluntary representations of flow rate. Representations made at a water pressure other than the required test water pressure cannot replace a representation at the required test water pressure specified in Section 9.1 of ASTM F2324. Any voluntary representation of flow rate made pursuant to this paragraph shall specify the water pressure associated with the represented flow rate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 81453, Dec. 30, 2015, as amended at 87 FR 13910, Mar. 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="66" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.15.66" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.266" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.15.66.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.266   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Commercial prerinse spray valves manufactured on or after January 1, 2006 and before January 28, 2019, shall have a flow rate of not more than 1.6 gallons per minute. For the purposes of this standard, a <I>commercial prerinse spray valve</I> is a handheld device designed and marketed for use with commercial dishwashing and ware washing equipment that sprays water on dishes, flatware, and other food service items for the purpose of removing food residue before cleaning the items.
</P>
<P>(b) Commercial prerinse spray valves manufactured on or after January 28, 2019 shall have a flow rate that does not exceed the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Product class
<br/>(spray force in
<br/>ounce-force, ozf)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow rate
<br/>(gallons per minute, gpm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Product Class 1 (≤5.0 ozf)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Product Class 2 (&gt;5.0 ozf and ≤8.0 ozf)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Product Class 3 (&gt;8.0 ozf)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.28</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(1) For the purposes of this standard, the definition of <I>commercial prerinse spray valve</I> in § 431.262 applies.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 4801, Jan. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Mercury Vapor Lamp Ballasts</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 60418, Oct. 18, 2005, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.281" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.16.67.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.281   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for mercury vapor lamp ballasts, pursuant to section 135 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. 109-58.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.282" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.16.67.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.282   Definitions concerning mercury vapor lamp ballasts.</HEAD>
<P><I>Ballast</I> means a device used with an electric discharge lamp to obtain necessary circuit conditions (voltage, current, and waveform) for starting and operating.
</P>
<P><I>High intensity discharge lamp</I> means an electric-discharge lamp in which—
</P>
<P>(1) The light-producing arc is stabilized by the arc tube wall temperature; and
</P>
<P>(2) The arc tube wall loading is in excess of 3 Watts/cm
<SU>2</SU>, including such lamps that are mercury vapor, metal halide, and high-pressure sodium lamps.
</P>
<P><I>Mercury vapor lamp</I> means a high intensity discharge lamp, including clear, phosphor-coated, and self-ballasted screw base lamps, in which the major portion of the light is produced by radiation from mercury typically operating at a partial vapor pressure in excess of 100,000 Pa (approximately 1 atm).
</P>
<P><I>Mercury vapor lamp ballast</I> means a device that is designed and marketed to start and operate mercury vapor lamps intended for general illumination by providing the necessary voltage and current.
</P>
<P><I>Specialty application mercury vapor lamp ballast</I> means a mercury vapor lamp ballast that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed and marketed for operation of mercury vapor lamps used in quality inspection, industrial processing, or scientific use, including fluorescent microscopy and ultraviolet curing; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a specialty application mercury vapor lamp ballast, the label of which—
</P>
<P>(i) Provides that the specialty application mercury vapor lamp ballast is ‘For specialty applications only, not for general illumination’; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Specifies the specific applications for which the ballast is designed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12074, Mar. 23, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="67" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.16.67" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="68" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.16.68" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.286" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.16.68.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.286   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>Mercury vapor lamp ballasts, other than specialty application mercury vapor lamp ballasts, shall not be manufactured or imported after January 1, 2008.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12074, Mar. 23, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Refrigerated Bottled or Canned Beverage Vending Machines</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 71375, Dec. 8, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.291" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.69.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.291   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart specifies test procedures and energy conservation standards for certain commercial refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines, pursuant to part A of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6309. The regulatory provisions of §§ 430.33 and 430.34 and subparts D and E of part 430 of this chapter are applicable to refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 45792, July 31, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.292" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.69.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.292   Definitions concerning refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines.</HEAD>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given type of covered product (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Bottled or canned beverage</I> means a beverage in a sealed container.
</P>
<P><I>Class A</I> means a refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine that is not a combination vending machine and in which 25 percent or more of the surface area on the front side of the beverage vending machine is transparent.
</P>
<P><I>Class B</I> means a refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine that is not considered to be Class A and is not a combination vending machine.
</P>
<P><I>Combination A</I> means a combination vending machine where 25 percent or more of the surface area on the front side of the beverage vending machine is transparent.
</P>
<P><I>Combination B</I> means a combination vending machine that is not considered to be Combination A.
</P>
<P><I>Combination vending machine</I> means a bottled or canned beverage vending machine containing two or more compartments separated by a solid partition, that may or may not share a product delivery chute, in which at least one compartment is designed to be refrigerated, as demonstrated by the presence of temperature controls, and at least one compartment is not.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine</I> means a commercial refrigerator (as defined at § 431.62) that cools bottled or canned beverages and dispenses the bottled or canned beverages on payment.
</P>
<P><I>Transparent</I> means greater than or equal to 45 percent light transmittance, as determined in accordance with ASTM E 1084-86 (Reapproved 2009), (incorporated by reference, see § 431.293) at normal incidence and in the intended direction of viewing.
</P>
<P><I>V</I> means the refrigerated volume (ft
<SU>3</SU>) of the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine, as measured by Appendix C of ANSI/ASHRAE 32.1 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.293).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 71375, Dec. 8, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 44967, Aug. 31, 2009; 76 FR 12504, Mar. 7, 2011; 80 FR 45792, July 31, 2015; 81 FR 1112, Jan. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="69" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.69" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.293" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.69.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.293   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, EE-5B, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section:
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHAM.</I> Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers, 1111 19th Street NW, Suite 402, Washington, DC 20036; (202) 872-5955; <I>www.aham.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) AHAM HRF-1-2016, <I>Energy and Internal Volume of Refrigerating Appliances,</I> copyright 2016; IBR approved for appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ASHRAE.</I> American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1791 Tullie Circle NE, Atlanta, GA 30329; (404) 636-8400; <I>www.ashrae.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022 (ANSI/ASHRAE 32.1), <I>Methods of Testing for Rating Refrigerated Vending Machines for Sealed Beverages,</I> approved December 30, 2022; IBR approved for § 431.292 and appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASTM.</I> ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; (877) 909-2786; <I>www.astm.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM E 1084-86 (Reapproved 2009), <I>Standard Test Method for Solar Transmittance (Terrestrial) of Sheet Materials Using Sunlight,</I> approved April 1, 2009; IBR approved for § 431.292.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 28400, May 4, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.294" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.69.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.294   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy consumption of refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides test procedures for measuring, pursuant to EPCA, the energy consumption of refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and Calculations.</I> Determine the daily energy consumption of each covered refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine by conducting the appropriate test procedure set forth in appendix A or B to this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 71375, Dec. 8, 2006, as amended at 80 FR 45793, July 31, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="70" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.70" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.296" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.70.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.296   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine manufactured on or after August 31, 2012 and before January 8, 2019, shall have a daily energy consumption (in kilowatt hours per day), when measured in accordance with the DOE test procedure at § 431.294, that does not exceed the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum daily energy consumption
<br/>(kilowatt hours per day)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Class A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.055 × V † + 2.56.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Class B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.073 × V † + 3.16.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combination Vending Machines</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Reserved].
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">† “V” is the representative value of refrigerated volume (ft
<sup>3</sup>) of the BVM model, as calculated pursuant to 10 CFR 429.52(a)(3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Each refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine manufactured on or after January 8, 2019, shall have a daily energy consumption (in kilowatt hours per day), when measured in accordance with the DOE test procedure at § 431.294, that does not exceed the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum daily energy consumption
<br/>(kilowatt hours per day)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Class A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.052 × V † + 2.43.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Class B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.052 × V † + 2.20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combination A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.086 × V † + 2.66.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combination B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.111 × V † + 2.04.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">† “V” is the representative value of refrigerated volume (ft
<sup>3</sup>) of the BVM model, as calculated pursuant to 10 CFR 429.52(a)(3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 1113, Jan. 8, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.71.6.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart Q of Part 431 [Reserved]








</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.17.71.6.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart Q of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Refrigerated Bottled or Canned Beverage Vending Machines


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with the relevant standards for refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines at 10 CFR 431.296, revised as of January 1, 2023. Specifically, before October 31, 2023, representations must be based upon results generated either under this appendix as codified on June 5, 2023, or under 10 CFR part 431, subpart Q, appendix B, revised as of January 1, 2023. Any representations made on or after October 31, 2023, must be made based upon results generated using this appendix as codified on June 5, 2023.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD1>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.293 the entire standard for AHAM HRF-1-2016 and ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022; however, only enumerated provisions of those documents are applicable to this appendix as follows:
</P>
<HD2>0.1. AHAM HRF-1-2016
</HD2>
<P>(a) Section 4, “Method for Computing Refrigerated Volume of Refrigerators, Refrigerator-Freezer, Wine Chillers, and Freezers” as referenced in section 3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Reserved.
</P>
<P>0.2. ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022
</P>
<P>(a) Section 3, “Definitions,” as referenced in section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4, “Instruments,” as referenced in section 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 5, “Vending Machine Capacity,” and Normative Appendix C, “Measurement of Volume,” as referenced in sections 2 and 3.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 6, “Test Conditions,” as referenced in section 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(e) Section 7.1, “Test Procedures—General Requirements” (except Section 7.1.2, “Functionality,” and Section 7.1.5.1, “Beverage Temperature Test Packages”), and Section 7.2, “Energy Consumption Test,” (except Section 7.2.2.6), as referenced in sections 1 and 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this appendix takes precedence over ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022.
</P>
<P>1.1 <I>Definitions.</I> In addition to the definitions specified in Section 3, “Definitions,” of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022, the following definitions are also applicable to this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Accessory low power mode</I> means a state in which a beverage vending machine's lighting and/or other energy-using systems are in low power mode, but that is not a refrigeration low power mode. Functions that may constitute an accessory low power mode may include, for example, dimming or turning off lights, but does not include adjustment of the refrigeration system to elevate the temperature of the refrigerated compartment(s).
</P>
<P><I>External accessory standby mode</I> means the mode of operation in which any external, integral customer display signs, lighting, or digital screens are connected to main power; do not produce the intended illumination, display, or interaction functionality; and can be switched into another mode automatically with only a remote user-generated or an internal signal.
</P>
<P><I>Low power mode</I> means a state in which a beverage vending machine's lighting, refrigeration, and/or other energy-using systems are automatically adjusted (without user intervention) such that they consume less energy than they consume in an active vending environment.
</P>
<P><I>Lowest application product temperature</I> means either:
</P>
<P>(a) For units that operate only at temperatures above the integrated average temperature specified in Table 1 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022, the lowest integrated average temperature a given basic model is capable of maintaining so as to comply with the temperature stabilization requirements specified in section 7.2.2.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022; or
</P>
<P>(b) For units that operate only at temperatures below the integrated average temperature specified in Table 1 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022, the highest integrated average temperature a given basic model is capable of maintaining so as to comply with the temperature stabilization requirements specified in section 7.2.2.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigeration low power mode</I> means a state in which a beverage vending machine's refrigeration system is in low power mode because of elevation of the temperature of the refrigerated compartment(s). To qualify as low power mode, the unit must satisfy the requirements described in section 2.3.2.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>2. <I>Test Procedure.</I> Conduct testing according to section 4, “Instruments”; section 5, “Vendible Capacity”; section 6, “Test Conditions”; section 7.1, “Test Procedures—General Requirements” (except Section 7.1.2 “Functionality” and section 7.1.5.1 “Beverage Temperature Test Packages”); and section 7.2, “Energy Consumption Test” (except section 7.2.2.6) of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022, except as described in the following sections.
</P>
<P>2.1. <I>Lowest Application Product Temperature.</I> If a refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine is not capable of maintaining an integrated average temperature of 36 °F (±1 °F) during the 24-hour test period, the unit must be tested at the lowest application product temperature, as defined in section 1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2. <I>Equipment Installation and Test Setup.</I> Except as provided in this section 2.2 of this appendix, the test procedure for energy consumption of refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines shall be conducted in accordance with the methods specified in sections 7.1 through 7.2.2.7 under “Test Procedures” of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022.
</P>
<P>2.2.1. <I>Equipment Loading.</I> Configure refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines to hold the maximum number of standard products.
</P>
<P>2.2.1.1. <I>Non-Beverage Shelves.</I> Any shelves within the refrigerated compartment(s) for non-beverage merchandise only shall not be loaded for testing.
</P>
<P>2.2.1.2. <I>Standard Products.</I> The standard product shall be standard 12-ounce aluminum beverage cans filled with a liquid with a density of 1.0 grams per milliliter (“g/mL”) ±0.1 g/mL at 36 °F. For product storage racks that are not capable of vending 12-ounce cans, but are capable of vending 20-ounce bottles, the standard product shall be 20-ounce plastic bottles filled with a liquid with a density of 1.0 g/mL ±0.1 g/mL at 36 °F. For product storage racks that are not capable of vending 12-ounce cans or 20-ounce bottles, the standard product shall be the packaging and contents specified by the manufacturer in product literature as the standard product (<I>i.e.,</I> the specific merchandise the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine is designed to vend).
</P>
<P>2.2.1.3. <I>Standard Test Packages.</I> A standard test package is a standard product, as specified in section 2.2.1.2 of this appendix, altered to include a temperature-measuring instrument at its center of mass.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. <I>Sensor Placement.</I> The integrated average temperature of next-to-vend beverages shall be measured in standard test packages in the next-to-vend product locations specified in section 7.1.5.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022. Do not run the thermocouple wire and other measurement apparatus through the dispensing door; the thermocouple wire and other measurement apparatus must be configured and sealed so as to minimize air flow between the interior refrigerated volume and the ambient room air. If a manufacturer chooses to employ a method other than routing thermocouple and sensor wires through the door gasket and ensuring the gasket is compressed around the wire to ensure a good seal, then it must maintain a record of the method used in the data underlying that basic model's certification pursuant to 10 CFR 429.71.
</P>
<P>2.2.3. <I>Vending Mode Test Period.</I> The vending mode test period begins after temperature stabilization has been achieved, as described in section 7.2.2.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022 and continues for 18 hours for equipment with an accessory low power mode or for 24 hours for equipment without an accessory low power mode. For the vending mode test period, equipment with energy-saving features that cannot be disabled shall have those features set to the most energy-consuming settings, except for as specified in section 2.2.4 of this appendix. In addition, all energy management systems shall be disabled. Provide, if necessary, any physical stimuli or other input to the machine needed to prevent automatic activation of low power modes during the vending mode test period.
</P>
<P>2.2.4. <I>Accessory Low Power Mode Test Period.</I> For equipment with an accessory low power mode, the accessory low power mode may be engaged for 6 hours, beginning 18 hours after the temperature stabilization requirements established in section 7.2.2.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022 have been achieved, and continuing until the end of the 24-hour test period. During the accessory low power mode test, operate the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine with the lowest energy-consuming lighting and control settings that constitute an accessory low power mode. The specification and tolerances for integrated average temperature in Table 2 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022 still apply, and any refrigeration low power mode must not be engaged. Provide, if necessary, any physical stimuli or other input to the machine needed to prevent automatic activation of refrigeration low power modes during the accessory low power mode test period.
</P>
<P>2.2.5. <I>Accessories.</I> Unless specified otherwise in this appendix or ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022, all standard components that would be used during normal operation of the basic model in the field and are necessary to provide sufficient functionality for cooling and vending products in field installations (<I>i.e.,</I> product inventory, temperature management, product merchandising (including, e.g., lighting or signage), product selection, and product transport and delivery) shall be in place during testing and shall be set to the maximum energy-consuming setting if manually adjustable. Components not necessary for the inventory, temperature management, product merchandising (e.g., lighting or signage), product selection, or product transport and delivery shall be de-energized. If systems not required for the primary functionality of the machine as stated in this section cannot be de-energized without preventing the operation of the machine, then they shall be placed in the lowest energy-consuming state. Components with controls that are permanently operational and cannot be adjusted by the machine operator shall be operated in their normal setting and consistent with the requirements of sections 2.2.3 and 2.2.4 of this appendix. The specific components and accessories listed in the subsequent sections shall be operated as stated during the test, except when controlled as part of a low power mode during the low power mode test period.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.1. <I>Payment Mechanisms.</I> Refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines shall be tested with no payment mechanism in place, the payment mechanism in place but de-energized, or the payment mechanism in place but set to the lowest energy-consuming state, if it cannot be de-energized. A default payment mechanism energy consumption value of 0.20 kWh/day shall be added to the primary rated energy consumption per day, as noted in section 2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.2. <I>Internal Lighting.</I> All lighting that is contained within or is part of the internal physical boundary of the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine, as established by the top, bottom, and side panels of the equipment, shall be placed in its maximum energy-consuming state.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.3. <I>External Customer Display Signs, Lights, and Digital Screens.</I> All external customer display signs, lights, and digital screens that are independent from the refrigeration or vending performance of the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine must be disconnected, disabled, or otherwise de-energized for the duration of testing. Customer display signs, lighting, and digital screens that are integrated into the beverage vending machine cabinet or controls such that they cannot be de-energized without disabling the refrigeration or vending functions of the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine or modifying the circuitry must be placed in external accessory standby mode, if available, or their lowest energy-consuming state. Digital displays that also serve a vending or money processing function must be placed in the lowest energy-consuming state that still allows the money processing feature to function.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.4. <I>Anti-sweat or Other Electric Resistance Heaters.</I> Anti-sweat or other electric resistance heaters must be operational during the entirety of the test procedure. Units with a user-selectable setting must have the heaters energized and set to the most energy-consumptive position. Units featuring an automatic, non-user-adjustable controller that turns on or off based on environmental conditions must be operating in the automatic state. Units that are not shipped with a controller from the point of manufacture, but are intended to be used with a controller, must be equipped with an appropriate controller when tested.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.5. <I>Condensate Pan Heaters and Pumps.</I> All electric resistance condensate heaters and condensate pumps must be installed and operational during the test. Prior to the start of the test, including the 24-hour period used to determine temperature stabilization prior to the start of the test period, as described in section 7.2.2.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022, the condensate pan must be dry. For the duration of the test, including the 24-hour time period necessary for temperature stabilization, allow any condensate moisture generated to accumulate in the pan. Do not manually add or remove water from the condensate pan at any time during the test. Any automatic controls that initiate the operation of the condensate pan heater or pump based on water level or ambient conditions must be enabled and operated in the automatic setting.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.6. <I>Illuminated Temperature Displays.</I> All illuminated temperature displays must be energized and operated during the test the same way they would be energized and operated during normal field operation, as recommended in manufacturer product literature, including manuals.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.7. <I>Condenser Filters.</I> Remove any nonpermanent filters provided to prevent particulates from blocking a model's condenser coil.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.8. <I>Security Covers.</I> Remove any devices used to secure the model from theft or tampering.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.9. <I>General Purpose Outlets.</I> During the test, do not connect any external load to any general purpose outlets available on a unit.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.10. <I>Crankcase Heaters and Other Electric Resistance Heaters for Cold Weather.</I> Crankcase heaters and other electric resistance heaters for cold weather must be operational during the test. If a control system, such as a thermostat or electronic controller, is used to modulate the operation of the heater, it must be activated during the test and operated in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.
</P>
<P>2.2.5.11. <I>Refrigerant Leak Mitigation Controls.</I> Any refrigerant leak mitigation controls that are independent from the refrigeration or vending performance of the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine must be disconnected, disabled, or otherwise de-energized for the duration of testing. Refrigerant leak mitigation controls that are integrated into the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine cabinet or controls such that they cannot be de-energized without disabling the refrigeration or vending functions of the refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine or modifying the circuitry must be placed in external accessory standby mode, if available, or their lowest energy-consuming state.
</P>
<P>2.3. <I>Determination of Daily Energy Consumption.</I> The daily energy consumption shall be equal to the primary rated energy consumption per day (ED), in kWh, determined in accordance with the calculation procedure in section 7.2.3.1, “Calculation of Daily Energy Consumption,” of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022 plus the default payment mechanism energy consumption value from section 2.2.5.1 of this appendix, if applicable. In section 7.2.3.1 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022, the energy consumed during the test shall be the energy measured during the vending mode test period and accessory low power mode test period, as specified in sections 2.2.3 and 2.2.4 of this appendix, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2.3.1. <I>Refrigeration Low Power Mode.</I> For refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines with a refrigeration low power mode, multiply the value determined in section 2.3 of this appendix by 0.97 to determine the daily energy consumption of the unit tested. For refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines without a refrigeration low power mode, the value determined in section 2.3 of this appendix is the daily energy consumption of the unit tested.
</P>
<P>2.3.1.1. <I>Refrigeration Low Power Mode Validation Test Method.</I> This test method is not required for the certification of refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines. To verify the existence of a refrigeration low power mode, initiate the refrigeration low power mode in accordance with manufacturer instructions contained in product literature and manuals, after completion of the 6-hour low power mode test period. Continue recording all the data specified in section 7.2.2.3 of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022 until existence of a refrigeration low power mode has been confirmed or denied. The refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machine shall be deemed to have a refrigeration low power mode if either:
</P>
<P>(a) The following three requirements have been satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The instantaneous average next-to-vend beverage temperature must reach at least 4 °F above the integrated average temperature or lowest application product temperature, as applicable, within 6 hours.
</P>
<P>(2) The instantaneous average next-to-vend beverage temperature must be maintained at least 4 °F above the integrated average temperature or lowest application product temperature, as applicable, for at least 1 hour.
</P>
<P>(3) After the instantaneous average next-to-vend beverage temperature is maintained at or above 4 °F above the integrated average temperature or lowest application product temperature, as applicable, for at least 1 hour, the refrigerated beverage vending machine must return to the specified integrated average temperature or lowest application product temperature, as applicable, automatically without direct physical intervention.
</P>
<P>(b) The compressor does not cycle on for the entire 6-hour period, in which case the instantaneous average beverage temperature does not have to reach 4 °F above the integrated average temperature or lowest application product temperature, as applicable, but, the equipment must still automatically return to the integrated average temperature or lowest application product temperature, as applicable, after the 6-hour period without direct physical intervention.
</P>
<P>2.3.2. <I>Calculations and Rounding.</I> In all cases, the daily energy consumption must be calculated with raw measured values and the final result rounded to units of 0.01 kWh/day.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Determination of Refrigeration Volume and Surface Area.</I>
</P>
<P>3.1. <I>Refrigerated Volume.</I> Determine the “refrigerated volume” of refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines in accordance with section 5.3, “Refrigerated Volume,” and Appendix C, “Measurement of Volume,” of ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 32.1-2022 including the referenced methodology in section 4, “Method for Computing Refrigerated Volume of Refrigerators, Refrigerator-Freezer, Wine Chillers, and Freezers,” of AHAM HRF-1-2016. For combination vending machines, the “refrigerated volume” does not include any non-refrigerated compartment(s).
</P>
<P>3.2. <I>Determination of Surface Area.</I> (<I>Note:</I> This section is not required for the certification of refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines.) Determine the surface area of each beverage vending machine as the length multiplied by the height of outermost surface of the beverage vending machine cabinet, measured from edge to edge excluding any legs or other protrusions that extend beyond the dimensions of the primary cabinet. Determine the transparent and non-transparent areas on each side of a beverage vending machine as the total surface area of material that is transparent or is not transparent, respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 28400, May 4, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Walk-in Coolers and Walk-in Freezers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 12074, Mar. 23, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.301" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.71.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.301   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, pursuant to Part C of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.302" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.71.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.302   Definitions concerning walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers.</HEAD>
<P><I>Adaptive defrost</I> means a factory-installed defrost control system that reduces defrost frequency by initiating defrosts or adjusting the number of defrosts per day in response to operating conditions (<I>e.g.,</I> moisture levels in the refrigerated space, measurements that represent coil frost load) rather than initiating defrost strictly based on compressor run time or clock time.
</P>
<P><I>Attached split system</I> means a matched pair refrigeration system which is designed to be installed with the evaporator entirely inside the walk-in enclosure and the condenser entirely outside the walk-in enclosure, and the evaporator and condenser are permanently connected with structural members extending through the walk-in wall.


</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all components of a given type of walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency; and
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to panels, which do not have any differing features or characteristics that affect U-factor.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P><I>CO</I><E T="52">2</E> <I>unit cooler</I> means a unit cooler that includes a nameplate listing only CO<E T="52">2</E> as an approved refrigerant.


</P>
<P><I>Dedicated condensing unit</I> means a positive displacement condensing unit that is part of a refrigeration system (as defined in this section) and is an assembly that
</P>
<P>(1) Includes 1 or more compressors, a condenser, and one refrigeration circuit; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is designed to serve one refrigerated load.
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated condensing refrigeration system</I> means one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A dedicated condensing unit;
</P>
<P>(2) A single-package dedicated system; or
</P>
<P>(3) A matched refrigeration system.
</P>
<P><I>Detachable single-packaged dedicated system</I> means a system consisting of a dedicated condensing unit and an insulated evaporator section in which the evaporator section is designed to be installed external to the walk-in enclosure and circulating air through the enclosure wall, and the condensing unit is designed to be installed either attached to the evaporator section or mounted remotely with a set of refrigerant lines connecting the two components.


</P>
<P><I>Display door</I> means a door that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed for product display; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has 75 percent or more of its surface area composed of glass or another transparent material.
</P>
<P><I>Display panel</I> means a panel that is entirely or partially comprised of glass, a transparent material, or both and is used for display purposes.


</P>
<P><I>Door</I> means an assembly installed in an opening on an interior or exterior wall that is used to allow access or close off the opening and that is movable in a sliding, pivoting, hinged, or revolving manner of movement. For walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, a door includes the frame (including mullions), the door leaf or multiple leaves (including glass) within the frame, and any other elements that form the assembly or part of its connection to the wall.


</P>
<P><I>Door leaf</I> means the pivoting, rolling, sliding, or swinging portion of a door.


</P>
<P><I>Door surface area</I> means the product of the height and width of a walk-in door measured external to the walk-in. The height and width dimensions shall be perpendicular to each other and parallel to the wall or panel of the walk-in to which the door is affixed. The height and width measurements shall extend to the edge of the frame and frame flange (as applicable) to which the door is affixed. For sliding doors, the height and width measurements shall include the track; however, the width (for horizontal sliding doors) or the height (for vertical sliding doors) shall be truncated to the external width or height of the door leaf or leaves and its frame or casings. The surface area of a display door is represented as <I>A</I><E T="54">dd</E> and the surface area of a non-display door is represented as <I>A</I><E T="54">nd</E>.


</P>
<P><I>Ducted fan coil unit</I> means an assembly, including means for forced air circulation capable of moving air against both internal and non-zero external flow resistance, and elements by which heat is transferred from air to refrigerant to cool the air, with provision for ducted installation.




</P>
<P><I>Ducted multi-circuit single-packaged dedicated system</I> means a ducted single-packaged dedicated system or a ducted single-packaged dedicated system (as defined in this section) that contains two or more refrigeration circuits that refrigerate a single stream of circulated air.


</P>
<P><I>Ducted single-packaged dedicated system</I> means a refrigeration system (as defined in this section) that is a single-packaged assembly designed for use with ducts, that includes one or more compressors, a condenser, a means for forced circulation of refrigerated air, and elements by which heat is transferred from air to refrigerant.


</P>
<P><I>Envelope</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) The portion of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer that isolates the interior, refrigerated environment from the ambient, external environment; and
</P>
<P>(2) All energy-consuming components of the walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer that are not part of its refrigeration system.
</P>
<P><I>Freight door</I> means a door that is not a display door and is equal to or larger than 4 feet wide and 8 feet tall.
</P>
<P><I>High-temperature refrigeration system</I> means a refrigeration system which is not designed to operate below 45 °F.


</P>
<P><I>Indoor dedicated condensing refrigeration system</I> means a dedicated condensing refrigeration system designated by the manufacturer for indoor use or for which there is no designation regarding the use location.
</P>
<P><I>K-factor</I> means the thermal conductivity of a material.
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer</I> means any person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufactures a component of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer that affects energy consumption, including, but not limited to, refrigeration, doors, lights, windows, or walls; or
</P>
<P>(2) Manufactures or assembles the complete walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer.
</P>
<P><I>Matched condensing unit</I> means a dedicated condensing unit that is distributed in commerce with one or more unit cooler(s) specified by the condensing unit manufacturer.
</P>
<P><I>Matched refrigeration system</I> (also called “matched-pair”) means a refrigeration system including the matched condensing unit and the one or more unit coolers with which it is distributed in commerce.


</P>
<P><I>Multi-circuit single-packaged dedicated system</I> means a single-packaged dedicated system or a ducted single-packaged dedicated system (as defined in this section) that contains two or more refrigeration circuits that refrigerate a single stream of circulated air.
</P>
<P><I>Non-display door</I> means a door that is not a display door.




</P>
<P><I>Outdoor dedicated condensing refrigeration system</I> means a dedicated condensing refrigeration system designated by the manufacturer for outdoor use.
</P>
<P><I>Panel</I> means a construction component that is not a door and is used to construct the envelope of the walk-in, i.e., elements that separate the interior refrigerated environment of the walk-in from the exterior.
</P>
<P><I>Passage door</I> means a door that is not a freight or display door.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigerated</I> means held at a temperature at or below 55 degrees Fahrenheit using a refrigeration system.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigerated storage space</I> means a space held at refrigerated (as defined in this section) temperatures.
</P>
<P><I>Refrigeration system</I> means the mechanism (including all controls and other components integral to the system's operation) used to create the refrigerated environment in the interior of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer, consisting of:
</P>
<P>(1) A dedicated condensing refrigeration system (as defined in this section); or
</P>
<P>(2) A unit cooler.
</P>
<P><I>Single-packaged dedicated system</I> means a refrigeration system (as defined in this section) that is a single-package assembly that includes one or more compressors, a condenser, a means for forced circulation of refrigerated air, and elements by which heat is transferred from air to refrigerant, without any element external to the system imposing resistance to flow of the refrigerated air.
</P>
<P><I>U-factor</I> means the heat transmission in a unit time through a unit area of a specimen or product and its boundary air films, induced by a unit temperature difference between the environments on each side.
</P>
<P><I>Unit cooler</I> means an assembly, including means for forced air circulation and elements by which heat is transferred from air to refrigerant, thus cooling the air, without any element external to the cooler imposing air resistance.






</P>
<P><I>Walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer</I> means an enclosed storage space including, but not limited to, panels, doors, and refrigeration system, refrigerated to temperatures, respectively, above, and at or below 32 degrees Fahrenheit that can be walked into, and has a total chilled storage area of less than 3,000 square feet; however, the terms do not include products designed and marketed exclusively for medical, scientific, or research purposes.


</P>
<P><I>Walk-in process cooling refrigeration system</I> means a refrigeration system that is capable of rapidly cooling food or other substances from one temperature to another. The basic model of such a system must satisfy one of the following three conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Be distributed in commerce with an insulated enclosure consisting of panels and door(s) such that the assembled product has a refrigerating capacity of at least 100 Btu/h per cubic foot of enclosed internal volume;
</P>
<P>(2) Be a unit cooler having an evaporator coil that is at least four-and-one-half (4.5) feet in height and whose height is at least one-and-one-half (1.5) times the width. The height of the evaporator coil is measured perpendicular to the tubes and is also the fin height, while its width is the finned length parallel to the tubes, as illustrated in Figure 1; or
</P>
<P>(3) Be a dedicated condensing unit that is distributed in commerce exclusively with a unit cooler meeting description (2) or with an evaporator that is not a unit cooler, <I>i.e.,</I> an evaporator that is not distributed or installed as part of a package including one or more fans.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er28de16.006.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12074, Mar. 23, 2009, as amended at 76 FR 12504, Mar. 7, 2011; 76 FR 21604, Apr. 15, 2011; 76 FR 33631, June 9, 2011; 79 FR 32123, June 3, 2014; 81 FR 95801, Dec. 28, 2016; 88 FR 28838, May 4, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="71" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.71" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.303" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.71.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.303   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHRI.</I> Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute, 2111 Wilson Boulevard, Suite 500, Arlington, VA 22201; (703) 600-0366; <I>www.ahrinet.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AHRI Standard 420-2008 (“AHRI 420-2008”), <I>Performance Rating of Forced-Circulation Free-Delivery Unit Coolers for Refrigeration,</I> Copyright 2008; IBR approved for appendix C to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(2) AHRI Standard 1250P (I-P)-2009 (“AHRI 1250-2009”), <I>Standard for Performance Rating of Walk-in Coolers and Freezers,</I> (including Errata sheet dated December 2015), copyright 2009, except Table 15 and Table 16; IBR approved for appendix C to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(3) AHRI Standard 1250 (“AHRI 1250-2020”), <I>Standard for Performance Rating of Walk-in Coolers and Freezers,</I> copyright 2020; IBR approved for appendix C1 to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ASHRAE.</I> American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, 180 Technology Parkway, Peachtree Corners, GA 30092; (404) 636-8400; <I>www.ashrae.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 16-2016 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 16”), <I>Method of Testing for Rating Room Air Conditioners, Packaged Terminal Air Conditioners, and Packaged Terminal Heat Pumps for Cooling and Heating Capacity,</I> ANSI-approved November 1, 2016; IBR approved for appendix C1 to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 23.1-2010 (“ASHRAE 23.1-2010”), <I>Methods of Testing for Rating the Performance of Positive Displacement Refrigerant Compressors and Condensing Units that Operate at Subcritical Temperatures of the Refrigerant,</I> ANSI-approved January 28, 2010; IBR approved for appendices C and C1 to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 37-2009 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 37”), <I>Methods of Testing for Rating Electrically Driven Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment,</I> ASHRAE-approved June 24, 2009; IBR approved for appendices C and C1 to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.1-2013 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1”), <I>Standard Method for Temperature Measurement,</I> ANSI-approved January 30, 2013; IBR approved for appendix C1 to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.3-2014 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 41.3”), <I>Standard Methods for Pressure Measurement,</I> ANSI-approved July 3, 2014; IBR approved for appendix C1 to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(6) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.6-2014 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6”), <I>Standard Method for Humidity Measurement,</I> ANSI-approved July 3, 2014; IBR approved for appendix C1 to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(7) ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 41.10-2013 (“ANSI/ASHRAE 41.10”), <I>Standard Methods for Refrigerant Mass Flow Measurement Using Flowmeters,</I> ANSI-approved June 27, 2013; IBR approved for appendix C1 to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASTM.</I> ASTM, International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; (610) 832-9500; <I>www.astm.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASTM C518-17, <I>Standard Test Method for Steady-State Thermal Transmission Properties by Means of the Heat Flow Meter Apparatus,</I> approved May 1, 2017; IBR approved for appendix B to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(2) ASTM C1199-14, <I>Standard Test Method for Measuring the Steady-State Thermal Transmittance of Fenestration Systems Using Hot Box Methods,</I> approved February 1, 2014; IBR approved for appendix A to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NFRC.</I> National Fenestration Rating Council, 6305 Ivy Lane, Ste. 140, Greenbelt, MD 20770; (301) 589-1776; <I>www.nfrc.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFRC 102-2020 [E0A0] (“NFRC 102-2020”), <I>Procedure for Measuring the Steady-State Thermal Transmittance of Fenestration Systems,</I> copyright 2013; IBR approved for appendix A to subpart R.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 28838, May 4, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.304" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.71.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.304   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy consumption of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides test procedures for measuring, pursuant to EPCA, the energy consumption of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> Determine the energy efficiency and/or energy consumption of the specified walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer components by conducting the appropriate test procedure as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Display panels.</I> Determine the energy use of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer display panels by conducting the test procedure set forth in appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Display doors and non-display doors.</I> Determine the energy use of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer display doors and non-display doors by conducting the test procedure set forth in appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-display panels and non-display doors.</I> Determine the R-value of insulation of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer non-display panels and non-display doors by conducting the test procedure set forth in appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Refrigeration systems.</I> Determine the AWEF and net capacity of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems by conducting the test procedures set forth in appendix C or C1 to this subpart, as applicable. Refer to the notes at the beginning of those appendices to determine the applicable appendix to use for testing.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For unit coolers:</I> follow the general testing provisions in sections 3.1 and 3.2, and the equipment-specific provisions in section 3.3 of appendix C or sections 4.5 through 4.8 of appendix C1.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For dedicated condensing units:</I> follow the general testing provisions in sections 3.1 and 3.2, and the product-specific provisions in section 3.4 of appendix C or sections 4.5 through 4.8 of appendix C1.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>For single-packaged dedicated systems:</I> follow the general testing provisions in sections 3.1 and 3.2, and the product-specific provisions in section 3.3 of appendix C or sections 4.5 through 4.8 of appendix C1.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12074, Mar. 23, 2009, as amended at 76 FR 21605, Apr. 15, 2011; 76 FR 33631, June 9, 2011; 76 FR 65365, Oct. 21, 2011; 79 FR 27412, May 13, 2014; 79 FR 32123, June 3, 2014; 81 FR 95802, Dec. 28, 2016; 88 FR 28839, May 4, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.305" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.71.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.305   Walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Panel nameplate— (1) <I>Required information.</I> The permanent nameplate of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer panel for which standards are prescribed in § 431.306 must be marked clearly with the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The panel brand or manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One of the following statements, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) “This panel is designed and certified for use in walk-in cooler applications.”
</P>
<P>(B) “This panel is designed and certified for use in walk-in freezer applications.”
</P>
<P>(C) “This panel is designed and certified for use in walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer applications.”






</P>
<P>(2) Display of required information. All orientation, spacing, type sizes, typefaces, and line widths to display this required information must be the same as or similar to the display of the other performance data included on the panel's permanent nameplate. The permanent nameplate must be visible unless the panel is assembled into a completed walk-in.
</P>
<P>(b) Door nameplate— (1) <I>Required information.</I> The permanent nameplate of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer door for which standards are prescribed in § 431.306 must be marked clearly with the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The door brand or manufacturer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One of the following statements, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) “This door is designed and certified for use in walk-in cooler applications.”
</P>
<P>(B) “This door is designed and certified for use in walk-in freezer applications.”
</P>
<P>(C) “This door is designed and certified for use in walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer applications.”

 
</P>
<P>(2) Display of required information. All orientation, spacing, type sizes, typefaces, and line widths to display this required information must be the same as or similar to the display of the other performance data included on the door's permanent nameplate. The permanent nameplate must be visible unless the door is assembled into a completed walk-in.
</P>
<P>(c) Refrigeration system nameplate—(1) Required information. The permanent nameplate of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer refrigeration system for which standards are prescribed in § 431.306 must be marked clearly with the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The refrigeration system brand or manufacturer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The refrigeration system model number;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of manufacture of the refrigeration system (if the date of manufacture is embedded in the unit's serial number, then the manufacturer of the refrigeration system must retain any relevant records to discern the date from the serial number);
</P>
<P>(iv) If the refrigeration system is a dedicated condensing refrigeration system, and is not designated for outdoor use, the statement, “Indoor use only” (for a matched pair this must appear on the condensing unit); and
</P>
<P>(v) One of the following statements, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(A) “This refrigeration system is designed and certified for use in walk-in cooler applications.”
</P>
<P>(B) “This refrigeration system is designed and certified for use in walk-in freezer applications.”
</P>
<P>(C) “This refrigeration system is designed and certified for use in walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer applications.”
</P>
<P>(2) Process cooling refrigeration systems. The permanent nameplate of a process cooling refrigeration system (as defined in § 431.302) must be marked clearly with the statement, “This refrigeration system is designed for use exclusively in walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer process cooling refrigeration applications.”
</P>
<P>(3) Display of required information. All orientation, spacing, type sizes, typefaces, and line widths to display this required information must be the same as or similar to the display of the other performance data included on the refrigeration system's permanent nameplate. The model number must be in one of the following forms: “Model ______” or “Model number ______” or “Model No. ______.” The permanent nameplate must be visible unless the refrigeration system is assembled into a completed walk-in.
</P>
<P>(d) A manufacturer may not mark the nameplate of a component with the required information if the manufacturer has not submitted a certification of compliance for the relevant model.
</P>
<P>(e) Disclosure of efficiency information in marketing materials. Each catalog that lists the component and all materials used to market the component must include:
</P>
<P>(1) For panels—The R-value in the form “R-value____.”
</P>
<P>(2) For doors—The energy consumption in the form “EC____kWh/day.”
</P>
<P>(3) For those refrigeration system for which standards are prescribed—The AWEF in the form “AWEF ____.”
</P>
<P>(4) The information that must appear on a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer component's permanent nameplate pursuant to paragraphs (a)-(c) of this section must also be prominently displayed in each catalog that lists the component and all materials used to market the component.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95802, Dec. 28, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 82071, Oct. 9, 2024; 90 FR 43384, Sept. 9, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="72" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.72" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.306" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.72.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.306   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer manufactured on or after January 1, 2009, shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Have automatic door closers that firmly close all walk-in doors that have been closed to within 1 inch of full closure, except that this paragraph shall not apply to doors wider than 3 feet 9 inches or taller than 7 feet;
</P>
<P>(2) Have strip doors, spring hinged doors, or other method of minimizing infiltration when doors are open;
</P>
<P>(3) Contain wall, ceiling, and door insulation of at least R-25 for coolers and R-32 for freezers, except that this paragraph shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Glazed portions of doors not to structural members and
</P>
<P>(ii) A walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer component if the component manufacturer has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Secretary in a manner consistent with applicable requirements that the component reduces energy consumption at least as much as if such insulation requirements of subparagraph (a)(3) were to apply.
</P>
<P>(4) Contain floor insulation of at least R-28 for freezers;
</P>
<P>(5) For evaporator fan motors of under 1 horsepower and less than 460 volts, use—
</P>
<P>(i) Electronically commutated motors (brushless direct current motors); or
</P>
<P>(ii) 3-phase motors;
</P>
<P>(6) For condenser fan motors of under 1 horsepower, use—
</P>
<P>(i) Electronically commutated motors (brushless direct current motors);
</P>
<P>(ii) Permanent split capacitor-type motors; or
</P>
<P>(iii) 3-phase motors; and
</P>
<P>(7) For all interior lights, use light sources with an efficacy of 40 lumens per watt or more, including ballast losses (if any), except that light sources with an efficacy of 40 lumens per watt or less, including ballast losses (if any), may be used in conjunction with a timer or device that turns off the lights within 15 minutes of when the walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer is not occupied by people.
</P>
<P>(b) Each walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer with transparent reach-in doors manufactured on or after January 1, 2009, shall also meet the following specifications:
</P>
<P>(1) Transparent reach-in doors for walk-in freezers and windows in walk-in freezer doors shall be of triple-pane glass with either heat-reflective treated glass or gas fill.
</P>
<P>(2) Transparent reach-in doors for walk-in coolers and windows in walk-in cooler doors shall be—
</P>
<P>(i) Double-pane glass with heat-reflective treated glass and gas fill; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Triple-pane glass with either heat-reflective treated glass or gas fill.
</P>
<P>(3) If the walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer has an antisweat heater without antisweat heat controls, the walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer shall have a total door rail, glass, and frame heater power draw of not more than 7.1 watts per square foot of door opening (for freezers) and 3.0 watts per square foot of door opening (for coolers).
</P>
<P>(4) If the walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer has an antisweat heater with antisweat heat controls, and the total door rail, glass, and frame heater power draw is more than 7.1 watts per square foot of door opening (for freezers) and 3.0 watts per square foot of door opening (for coolers), the antisweat heat controls shall reduce the energy use of the antisweat heater in a quantity corresponding to the relative humidity in the air outside the door or to the condensation on the inner glass pane.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Walk-in cooler and freezer display doors.</I> All walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer display doors manufactured starting June 5, 2017, must satisfy the following standards:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class descriptor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equations for
<br/>maximum energy
<br/>consumption
<br/>(kWh/day) *
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Display Door, Medium Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DD.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04 × A<E T="52">dd</E> + 0.41.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Display Door, Low Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DD.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 × A<E T="52">dd</E> + 0.29.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*A<E T="52">dd</E> represents the surface area of the display door.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Walk-in cooler and freezer non-display doors.</I> All walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer non-display doors manufactured starting on June 5, 2017, must satisfy the following standards:


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class descriptor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equations for
<br/>maximum energy
<br/>consumption
<br/>(kWh/day) *
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Passage door, Medium Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">PD.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 × A<E T="52">nd</E> + 1.7.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Passage Door, Low Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">PD.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.14 × A<E T="52">nd</E> + 4.8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Freight Door, Medium Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FD.M</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04 × A<E T="52">nd</E> + 1.9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Freight Door, Low Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FD.L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12 × A<E T="52">nd</E> + 5.6.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*A<E T="52">nd</E> represents the surface area of the non-display door.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Walk-in cooler refrigeration systems.</I> All walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems manufactured starting on the dates listed in the table, except for walk-in process cooling refrigeration systems (as defined in § 431.302), must satisfy the following standards:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum AWEF
<br/>(Btu/W-h)*
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date: equipment manufactured starting on . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing System—Medium, Indoor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.61</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">June 5, 2017.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing System—Medium, Outdoor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.60
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing System—Low, Indoor with a Net Capacity (q<E T="0732">net</E>) of:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&lt; 6,500 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.091 × 10 <E T="51">−5</E> × q<E T="0732">net</E> + 1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">July 10, 2020.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">≥ 6,500 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.40
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dedicated Condensing System—Low, Outdoor with a Net Capacity (q<E T="0732">net</E>) of:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&lt; 6,500 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.522 × 10<E T="51">−5</E> × q<E T="0732">net</E> + 2.73
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">≥ 6,500 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.15
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Cooler—Medium</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.00
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unit Cooler—Low with a Net Capacity (q<E T="0732">net</E>) of:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">&lt; 15,500 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.575 × 10 <E T="51">−5</E> × q<E T="0732">net</E> + 3.91
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">≥ 15,500 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.15
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Where q<E T="0732">net</E> is net capacity as determined in accordance with § 431.304 and certified in accordance with 10 CFR part 429.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12074, Mar. 23, 2009, as amended at 78 FR 62993, Oct. 23, 2013; 79 FR 32123, June 3, 2014; 80 FR 69838, Nov. 12, 2015; 82 FR 31885, July 10, 2017]





</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.73.7.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart R of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of the Components of Envelopes of Walk-In Coolers and Walk-In Freezers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to October 31, 2023, representations with respect to the energy use of envelope components of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 431, subpart R, appendix A, revised as of January 1, 2022. Beginning October 31, 2023, representations with respect to energy use of envelope components of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.303 the entire standard for ASTM C1199-14 and NFRC 102-2020. However, certain enumerated provisions of these standards, as set forth in sections 0.1 and 0.2 of this appendix are inapplicable. To the extent that there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>0.1 ASTM C1199-14
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1 Scope, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4 Significance and Use is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7.3 Test Conditions, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(d) Section 10 Report, is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(e) Section 11 Precision and Bias, is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 NFRC 102-2020
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1 Scope, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4 Significance and Use, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7.3 Test Conditions, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(d) Section 10 Report, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(e) Section 11 Precision and Bias, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(f) Annex A3 Standard Test Method for Determining the Thermal Transmittance of Tubular Daylighting Devices, is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(g) Annex A5 Tables and Figures, is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>1. <I>General.</I> The following sections of this appendix provide additional instructions for testing. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed by NFRC 102-2020, followed by ASTM C1199-14. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval, and a notification of any change in the incorporation will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</HD3>
<HD2>2. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements used to measure the energy consumption of the components that make up the envelope of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer.
</P>
<HD2>3. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The definitions contained in § 431.302 are applicable to this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>4. <I>Additional Definitions</I>
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Automatic door opener/closer</I> means a device or control system that “automatically” opens and closes doors without direct user contact, such as a motion sensor that senses when a forklift is approaching the entrance to a door and opens it, and then closes the door after the forklift has passed.
</P>
<P>4.2 <I>Percent time off (PTO)</I> means the percent of time that an electrical device is assumed to be off.


</P>
<P>4.3 <I>Rated power</I> means the input power of an electricity-consuming device as specified on the device's nameplate. If the device does not have a nameplate or such nameplate does not list the device's input power, then the rated power must be determined from the device's product data sheet, literature, or installation instructions that come with the device or are available online.
</P>
<P>4.4 <I>Rating conditions</I> means, unless explicitly stated otherwise, all conditions shown in table A.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.1—Temperature Conditions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Internal Temperatures (cooled space within the envelope)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooler Dry-Bulb Temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Freezer Dry-Bulb Temperature</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">External Temperatures (space external to the envelope)</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Freezer and Cooler Dry-Bulb Temperatures</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75 °F</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>5. <I>Test Methods and Measurements</I>
</HD2>
<HD3>5.1 U-Factor Test of Doors and Display Panels
</HD3>
<P>Determine the U-factor of the entire door or display panel, including the frame, in accordance with the specified sections of NFRC 102-2020 and ASTM C1199-14 at the temperature conditions listed in table A.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>5.2 Required Test Measurements
</HD3>
<P>5.2.1 For display doors and display panels, thermal transmittance, U<E T="52">dd</E> or U<E T="52">dp</E>, respectively, shall be the standardized thermal transmittance, U<E T="52">ST</E>, determined per section 5.1 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>5.2.2 For non-display doors, thermal transmittance, U<E T="52">nd</E>, shall be the standardized thermal transmittance, U<E T="52">ST</E>, determined per section 5.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5.2.3 Projected area of the test specimen, <I>A</I><E T="54">s</E><I>,</I> in ft
<SU>2</SU>, as referenced in ASTM C1199-14.
</P>
<HD2>6. Calculations
</HD2>
<HD3>6.1 Display Panels
</HD3>
<P>6.1.1 Determine the U-factor of the display panel in accordance with section 5.1 of this appendix, in units of Btu/(h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F).
</P>
<P>6.1.2 Calculate the temperature differential, ΔT<E T="52">dp</E>, °F, for the display panel, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.004.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">DB,ext,dp</E> = dry-bulb air external temperature, °F, as prescribed in table A.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">DB,int,dp</E> = dry-bulb air temperature internal to the cooler or freezer, °F, as prescribed in table A.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>6.1.3 Calculate the conduction load through the display panel, Q<E T="52">cond-dp</E>, Btu/h, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.005.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">s</E> = projected area of the test specimen (same as the test specimen aperture in the surround panel) or the area used to determine the U-factor in section 5.1 of this appendix, ft
<SU>2</SU>;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">dp</E> = temperature differential between refrigerated and adjacent zones, °F; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">dp</E> = thermal transmittance, U-factor, of the display panel in accordance with section 5.1 of this appendix, Btu/(h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F).
</FP-2>
<P>6.1.4 Calculate the total daily energy consumption, E<E T="52">dp</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.006.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">cond,dp</E> = the conduction load through the display panel, Btu/h; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER = Energy Efficiency Ratio of walk-in (cooler or freezer), Btu/W-h. For coolers, use EER = 12.4 Btu/W-h. For freezers, use EER = 6.3 Btu/W-h.
</FP-2>
<HD3>6.2 Display Doors
</HD3>
<HD3>6.2.1 Conduction Through Display Doors
</HD3>
<P>6.2.1.1 Determine the U-factor of the display door in accordance with section 5.1 of this appendix, in units of Btu/(h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F).
</P>
<P>6.2.1.2 Calculate the temperature differential, ΔT<E T="52">dd</E>, °F, for the display door as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">DB,ext,dd</E> = dry-bulb air temperature external to the display door, °F, as prescribed in table A.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">DB,int,dd</E> = dry-bulb air temperature internal to the display door, °F, as prescribed in table A.1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>6.2.1.3 Calculate the conduction load through the display doors, Q<E T="52">cond,dd</E>, Btu/h, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.008.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">s</E> = projected area of the test specimen (same as the test specimen aperture in the surround panel) or the area used to determine the U-factor in section 5.1 of this appendix, ft
<SU>2</SU>;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">dd</E> = temperature differential between refrigerated and adjacent zones, °F; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">dd</E> = thermal transmittance, U-factor of the door, in accordance with section 5.1 of this appendix, Btu/(h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F).
</FP-2>
<P>6.2.1.4 Calculate the total daily energy consumption due to conduction thermal load, E<E T="52">dd,thermal</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.009.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">cond,dd</E> = the conduction load through the display door, Btu/h; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER = EER of walk-in (cooler or freezer), Btu/W-h. For coolers, use EER = 12.4 Btu/(W-h). For freezers, use EER = 6.3 Btu/(W-h).
</FP-2>
<HD3>6.2.2 Direct Energy Consumption of Electrical Component(s) of Display Doors
</HD3>
<P>Electrical components associated with display doors could include but are not limited to: heater wire (for anti-sweat or anti-freeze application); lights; door motors; control system units; and sensors.
</P>
<P>6.2.2.1 Select the required value for percent time off (PTO) for each type of electricity-consuming device per table A.2 of this appendix, PTO<E T="52">t</E> (%).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.2—Percent Time Off Values
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Device
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Temperature


<br/>condition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Controls, timer, or other auto-shut-off system
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent time


<br/>off value

<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lights</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Without


<br/>With</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25


<br/>50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anti-sweat heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All


<br/>Coolers

<br/>Freezers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Without


<br/>With

<br/>With</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0


<br/>75

<br/>50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Door motors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">97
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other electricity-consuming devices</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Without


<br/>With</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0


<br/>25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>6.2.2.2 Calculate the power usage for each type of electricity-consuming device, P<E T="52">dd,comp,u,t</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.010.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>u = the index for each of type of electricity-consuming device located on either (1) the interior facing side of the display door or within the inside portion of the display door, (2) the exterior facing side of the display door, or (3) any combination of (1) and (2). For purposes of this calculation, the interior index is represented by u = int and the exterior index is represented by u = ext. If the electrical component is both on the interior and exterior side of the display door then use u = int. For anti-sweat heaters sited anywhere in the display door, 75 percent of the total power is be attributed to u = int and 25 percent of the total power is attributed to u = ext;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = index for each type of electricity-consuming device with identical rated power;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">rated,u,t</E> = rated input power of each component, of type t, kW;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PTO<E T="52">u,t</E> = percent time off, for device of type t, %; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="52">u,t</E> = number of devices at the rated input power of type t, unitless. 


</FP-2>
<P>6.2.2.3 Calculate the total electrical energy consumption for interior and exterior power, P<E T="52">dd,tot,int</E> (kWh/day) and P<E T="52">dd,tot,ext</E> (kWh/day), respectively, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.012.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = index for each type of electricity-consuming device with identical rated input power;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">dd,comp,int,t</E> = the energy usage for an electricity-consuming device sited on the interior facing side of or in the display door, of type t, kWh/day; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">dd,comp,ext,t</E> = the energy usage for an electricity-consuming device sited on the external facing side of the display door, of type t, kWh/day. 
</FP-2>
<P>6.2.2.4 Calculate the total electrical energy consumption, P<E T="52">dd,tot</E>, (kWh/day), as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.013.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">dd,tot,int</E> = the total interior electrical energy usage for the display door, kWh/day; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">dd,tot,ext</E> = the total exterior electrical energy usage for the display door, kWh/day.
</FP-2>
<HD3>6.2.3 Total Indirect Electricity Consumption Due to Electrical Devices
</HD3>
<P>Calculate the additional refrigeration energy consumption due to thermal output from electrical components sited inside the display door, C<E T="52">dd,load</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.014.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">dd,tot,int</E> = The total internal electrical energy consumption due for the display door, kWh/day; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER = EER of walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer, Btu/W-h. For coolers, use EER = 12.4 Btu/(W-h). For freezers, use EER = 6.3 Btu/(W-h).
</FP-2>
<HD3>6.2.4 Total Display Door Energy Consumption
</HD3>
<P>Calculate the total energy, E<E T="52">dd,tot</E>, kWh/day,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.015.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">dd,thermal</E> = the total daily energy consumption due to thermal load for the display door, kWh/day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">dd,tot</E> = the total electrical load, kWh/day; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">dd,load</E> = additional refrigeration load due to thermal output from electrical components contained within the display door, kWh/day.
</FP-2>
<HD3>6.3 Non-Display Doors
</HD3>
<HD3>6.3.1 Conduction Through Non-Display Doors
</HD3>
<P>6.3.1.1 Determine the U-factor of the non-display door in accordance with section 5.1 of this appendix, in units of Btu/(h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F).
</P>
<P>6.3.1.2 Calculate the temperature differential of the non-display door, ΔT<E T="52">nd</E>, °F, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.016.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">DB,ext,nd</E> = dry-bulb air external temperature, °F, as prescribed by table A.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">DB,int,nd</E> = dry-bulb air internal temperature, °F, as prescribed by table A.1 of this appendix. If the component spans both cooler and freezer spaces, the freezer temperature must be used.
</FP-2>
<P>6.3.1.3 Calculate the conduction load through the non-display door: Q<E T="52">cond,nd</E>, Btu/h,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.017.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">s</E> = projected area of the test specimen (same as the test specimen aperture in the surround panel) or the area used to determine the U-factor in section 5.1 of this appendix, ft
<SU>2</SU>;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ΔT<E T="52">nd</E> = temperature differential across the non-display door, °F; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">nd</E> = thermal transmittance, U-factor of the door, in accordance with section 5.1 of this appendix, Btu/(h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F).
</FP-2>
<P>6.3.1.4 Calculate the total daily energy consumption due to thermal load, E<E T="52">nd,thermal</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.018.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">cond,nd</E> = the conduction load through the non-display door, Btu/h; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER = EER of walk-in (cooler or freezer), Btu/W-h. For coolers, use EER = 12.4 Btu/(W-h). For freezers, use EER = 6.3 Btu/(W-h).
</FP-2>
<HD3>6.3.2 Direct Energy Consumption of Electrical Components of Non-Display Doors
</HD3>
<P>Electrical components associated with non-display doors comprise could include, but are not limited to: heater wire (for anti-sweat or anti-freeze application), lights, door motors, control system units, and sensors.
</P>
<P>6.3.2.1 Select the required value for percent time off for each type of electricity-consuming device per table A.2 of this appendix, PTO<E T="52">t</E> (%).
</P>
<P>6.3.2.2 Calculate the power usage for each type of electricity-consuming device, P<E T="52">nd,comp,u,t</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.019.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>u = the index for each of type of electricity-consuming device located on either (1) the interior facing side of the non-display door or within the inside portion of the non-display door, (2) the exterior facing side of the non-display door, or (3) any combination of (1) and (2). For purposes of this calculation, the interior index is represented by u = int and the exterior index is represented by u = ext. If the electrical component is both on the interior and exterior side of the non-display door then use u = int. For anti-sweat heaters sited anywhere in the non-display door, 75 percent of the total power is be attributed to u = int and 25 percent of the total power is attributed to u = ext;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = index for each type of electricity-consuming device with identical rated input power;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">rated,u,t</E> = rated input power of each component, of type t, kW;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PTO<E T="52">u,t</E> = percent time off, for device of type t, %; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="52">u,t</E> = number of devices at the rated input power of type t, unitless.
</FP-2>
<P>6.3.2.3 Calculate the total electrical energy consumption for interior and exterior power, P<E T="52">nd,tot,int</E>, kWh/day, and P<E T="52">nd,tot,ext</E>, kWh/day, respectively, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.020.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.021.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = index for each type of electricity-consuming device with identical rated input power;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">nd,comp,int,t</E> = the energy usage for an electricity-consuming device sited on the internal facing side or internal to the non-display door, of type t, kWh/day; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">nd,comp,ext,t</E> = the energy usage for an electricity-consuming device sited on the external facing side of the non-display door, of type t, kWh/day. For anti-sweat heaters,
</FP-2>
<P>6.3.2.4 Calculate the total electrical energy consumption, P<E T="52">nd,tot</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.022.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">nd,tot,int</E> = the total interior electrical energy usage for the non-display door, of type t, kWh/day; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">nd,tot,ext</E> = the total exterior electrical energy usage for the non-display door, of type t, kWh/day.
</FP-2>
<HD3>6.3.3 Total Indirect Electricity Consumption Due to Electrical Devices
</HD3>
<P>Calculate the additional refrigeration energy consumption due to thermal output from electrical components associated with the non-display door, C<E T="52">nd,load</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.023.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">nd,tot,int</E> = the total interior electrical energy consumption for the non-display door, kWh/day; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER = EER of walk-in cooler or freezer, Btu/W-h. For coolers, use EER = 12.4 Btu/(W-h). For freezers, use EER = 6.3 Btu/(W-h).
</FP-2>
<HD3>6.3.4 Total Non-Display Door Energy Consumption
</HD3>
<P>Calculate the total energy, E<E T="52">nd,tot</E>, kWh/day, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.024.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">nd,thermal</E> = the total daily energy consumption due to thermal load for the non-display door, kWh/day;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">nd,tot</E> = the total electrical energy consumption, kWh/day; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">nd,load</E> = additional refrigeration load due to thermal output from electrical components contained on the inside face of the non-display door, kWh/day.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 28839, May 4, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 73216, Oct. 25, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.73.7.36" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart R of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of R-Value of Insulation for Envelope Components of Walk-In Coolers and Walk-In Freezers


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to October 31, 2023, representations with respect to the R-value for insulation of envelope components of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 431, subpart R, appendix B, revised as of January 1, 2022. Beginning October 31, 2023, representations with respect to R-value for insulation of envelope components of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.303 the entire standard for ASTM C518-17. However, certain enumerated provisions of ASTM C518-17, as set forth in paragraph 0.1 of this appendix, are inapplicable. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>0.1 ASTM C518-17
</HD3>
<P>(a) Section 1 Scope, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(b) Section 4 Significance and Use, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(c) Section 7.3 Specimen Conditioning, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(d) Section 9 Report, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(e) Section 10 Precision and Bias, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(f) Section 11 Keywords, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(g) Annex A2 Equipment Error Analysis, is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(h) Appendix X1 is inapplicable,
</P>
<P>(i) Appendix X2 Response of Heat Flux Transducers, is inapplicable, and
</P>
<P>(j) Appendix X3 Proven Performance of a Heat Flow Apparatus, is inapplicable.
</P>
<HD3>0.2 [Reserved]
</HD3>
<HD2>1. General
</HD2>
<P>The following sections of this appendix provide additional instructions for testing. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed by ASTM C518-17. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval, and a notification of any change in the incorporation will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<HD2>2. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements used to measure the R-value of non-display panels and non-display doors of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer.
</P>
<HD2>3. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The definitions contained in § 431.302 apply to this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>4. Additional Definitions
</HD2>
<P>4.1 <I>Edge region</I> means a region of the envelope component that is wide enough to encompass any framing members. If the envelope component contains framing members (e.g., a wood frame) then the width of the edge region must be as wide as any framing member plus an additional 2 in. ± 0.25 in.
</P>
<HD2>5. Test Methods, Measurements, and Calculations
</HD2>
<P>5.1 <I>General.</I> Foam shall be tested after it is produced in its final chemical form. For foam produced inside of an envelope component (“foam-in-place”), “final chemical form” means the foam is cured as intended and ready for use as a finished envelope component. For foam produced as board stock (e.g., polystyrene), “final chemical form” means after extrusion and ready for assembly into an envelope component or after assembly into an envelope component. Foam must not include any structural members or non-foam materials during testing in accordance with ASTM C518-17. When preparing the specimen for test, a high-speed bandsaw or a meat slicer are two types of recommended cutting tools. Hot wire cutters or other heated tools shall not be used for cutting foam test specimens.
</P>
<HD2>5.2 Specimen Preparation
</HD2>
<P>5.2.1 <I>Determining the thickness around the perimeter of the envelope component, t</I><E T="54">p</E>. The full thickness of an envelope component around the perimeter, which may include facers on one or both sides, shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>5.2.1.1 At least 8 thickness measurements shall be taken around the perimeter of the envelope component, at least 2 inches from the edge region, and avoiding any regions with hardware or fixtures.
</P>
<P>5.2.1.2 The average of the thickness measurements taken around the perimeter of the envelope component shall be the thickness around the perimeter of the envelope component, <I>t</I><E T="54">p</E>.
</P>
<P>5.2.1.3 Measure and record the width, <I>w</I><E T="54">p</E><I>,</I> and height, <I>h</I><E T="54">p</E><I>,</I> of the envelope component. The surface area of the envelope component, <I>A</I><E T="54">p</E><I>,</I> shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.025.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>w</I><E T="54">p</E> = width of the envelope component, in.; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>h</I><E T="54">p</E> = height of the envelope component, in.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2.2. <I>Removing the sample from the envelope component.</I>
</P>
<P>5.2.2.1. Determine the center of the envelope component relative to its height and its width.
</P>
<P>5.2.2.2. Cut a sample from the envelope component that is at least the length and width dimensions of the heat flow meter, and where the marked center of the sample is at least 3 inches from any cut edge.
</P>
<P>5.2.2.3. If the center of the envelope component contains any non-foam components (excluding facers), additional samples may be cut adjacent to the previous cut that is at least the length and width dimensions of the heat flow meter and is greater than 12 inches from the edge region.
</P>
<P>5.2.3. <I>Determining the thickness at the center of the envelope component, t</I><E T="54">c</E>. The full thickness of an envelope component at the center, which may include facers on one or both sides, shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>5.2.3.1. At least 2 thickness measurements shall be taken in each quadrant of the cut sample removed from the envelope component per section 5.2.2 of this appendix, for a total of at least 8 measurements.
</P>
<P>5.2.3.2. The average of the thickness measurements of the cut sample removed from the envelope component shall be the overall thickness of the cut sample, <I>t</I><E T="54">c</E>.
</P>
<P>5.2.3.3. Measure and record the width and height of the cut sample removed from the envelope component. The surface area of the cut sample removed from the envelope component, <I>A</I><E T="54">c</E>., shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.026.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>w</I><E T="54">c</E> = width of the cut sample removed from the envelope component, in.; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>h</I><E T="54">c</E> = height of the cut sample removed from the envelope component, in.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2.4. <I>Determining the total thickness of the foam within the envelope component, t</I><E T="54">foam</E>. The average total thickness of the foam sample, without facers, shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>5.2.4.1. Remove the facers on the envelope component sample, while minimally disturbing the foam.
</P>
<P>5.2.4.2. Measure the thickness of each facer in 4 locations for a total of 4 measurements if 1 facer is removed, and a total of 8 measurements if 2 facers are removed. The average of all facer measurements shall be the thickness of the facers, <I>t</I><E T="54">facers</E>, in.
</P>
<P>5.2.4.3. The average total thickness of the foam, <I>t</I><E T="54">foam</E>, in., shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.027.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">c</E> = the average thickness of the center of the envelope component, in., as determined per sections 5.2.3.1 and 5.2.3.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">c</E> = the surface area of the center of the envelope component, in
<SU>2</SU>., as determined per section 5.2.3.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">p</E> = the average thickness of the perimeter of the envelope component, in., as determined per sections 5.2.1.1 and 5.2.1.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">p</E> = the average thickness of the center of the envelope component, in
<SU>2</SU>, as determined per section 5.2.1.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">facers</E> = the average thickness of the facers of the envelope component, in., as determined per section 5.2.4.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.2.5. <I>Cutting, measuring, and determining parallelism and flatness of a 1-inch-thick specimen for test from the center of the cut envelope component sample</I>.
</P>
<P>5.2.5.1. Cut a 1 ± 0.1-inch-thick specimen from the center of the cut envelope sample. The 1-inch-thick test specimen shall be cut from the point that is equidistant from both edges of the sample (<I>i.e.,</I> shall be cut from the center point that would be directly between the interior and exterior space of the walk-in).
</P>
<P>5.2.5.2. Document through measurement or photographs with measurement indicators that the specimen was taken from the center of the sample.
</P>
<P>5.2.5.3 After the 1-inch specimen has been cut, and prior to testing, place the specimen on a flat surface and allow gravity to determine the specimen's position on the surface. This will be side 1.
</P>
<P>5.2.5.4 To determine the flatness of side 1, take at least nine height measurements at equidistant positions on the specimen (<I>i.e.,</I> the specimen would be divided into 9 regions and height measurements taken at the center of each of these nine regions). Contact with the measurement indicator shall not indent the foam surface. From the height measurements taken, determine the least squares plane for side 1. For each measurement location, calculate the theoretical height from the least squares plane for side 1. Then, calculate the difference between the measured height and the theoretical least squares plane height at each location. The maximum difference minus the minimum difference out of the nine measurement locations is the flatness of side 1. For side 1 of the specimen to be considered flat, this shall be less than or equal to 0.03 inches.
</P>
<P>5.2.5.5 To determine the flatness of side 2, turn the specimen over and allow gravity to determine the specimen's position on the surface. Repeat section 5.2.5.4 to determine the flatness of side 2.
</P>
<P>5.2.5.6 To determine the parallelism of the specimen for side 1, calculate the theoretical height of the least squares plane at the furthest corners (<I>i.e.,</I> at points (0,0), (0,12), (12,0), and (12,12)) of the 12-inch by 12-inch test specimen. The difference between the maximum theoretical height and the minimum theoretical height shall be less than or equal to 0.03 inches for each side in order for side 1 to be considered parallel.
</P>
<P>5.2.5.7 To determine the parallelism of the specimen for side 2, repeat section 5.2.5.6 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>5.2.5.8 The average thickness of the test specimen, <I>L,</I> shall be 1 ± 0.1-inches determined using a minimum of 18 thickness measurements (<I>i.e.,</I> a minimum of 9 measurements on side 1 of the specimen and a minimum of 9 on side 2 of the specimen). This average thickness shall be used to determine the thermal conductivity, or K-factor.
</P>
<P>5.3 <I>K-factor Test.</I> Determine the thermal conductivity, or K-factor, of the 1-inch-thick specimen in accordance with the specified sections of ASTM C518-17. Testing must be completed within 24 hours of the specimen being cut for testing per section 5.2.5 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>5.3.1 <I>Test Conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>5.3.1.1 For freezer envelope components, the K-factor of the specimen shall be determined at an average specimen temperature of 20 ± 1 degrees Fahrenheit.
</P>
<P>5.3.1.2 For cooler envelope components, the K-factor of the specimen shall be determined at an average specimen temperature of 55 ± 1 degrees Fahrenheit.
</P>
<P>5.4 R-value Calculation.
</P>
<P>5.4.1 For envelope components consisting of one homogeneous layer of insulation, calculate the R-value, h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F/Btu, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.028.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">foam</E> = the total thickness of the foam, in., as determined in section 5.2.4 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>λ = K-factor, Btu-in/(h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F), as determined in section 5.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>5.4.2 For envelope components consisting of two or more layers of dissimilar insulating materials (excluding facers or protective skins), determine the K-factor of each material as described in sections 5.1 through 5.3 of this appendix. For an envelope component with N layers of insulating material, the overall R-value shall be calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.029.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I><E T="54">i</E> is the thickness of the ith material that appears in the envelope component, inches, as determined in section 5.2.4 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>λ<E T="52">i</E> is the k-factor of the ith material, Btu-in/(h-ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F), as determined in section 5.3 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N is the total number of material layers that appears in the envelope component.
</FP-2>
<P>5.4.3 K-factor test results from a test sample 1 ± 0.1-inches in thickness may be used to determine the R-value of envelope components with various foam thicknesses as long as the foam throughout the panel depth is of the same final chemical form and the test was completed at the same test conditions that the other envelope components would be used at. For example, a K-factor test result conducted at cooler conditions cannot be used to determine R-value of a freezer envelope component.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 28843, May 4, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 73217, Oct. 25, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.73.7.37" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart R of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Net Capacity and AWEF of Walk-In Cooler and Walk-In Freezer Refrigeration Systems


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to October 31, 2023, representations with respect to the energy use of refrigeration components of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with the applicable provisions of 10 CFR part 431, subpart R, appendix C, revised as of January 1, 2022. Beginning October 31, 2023, representations with respect to energy use of refrigeration components of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.
</P>
<P>For any amended standards for walk-in coolers and freezers published after January 1, 2022, manufacturers must use the results of testing under appendix C1 to this subpart to determine compliance. Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with appendix C1 when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use appendix C1 to certify compliance with any amended standards prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>1.0 Scope
</HD1>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements used to determine the net capacity and the AWEF of the refrigeration system of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer.


</P>
<HD2>2.0 Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The definitions contained in § 431.302 and AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303) apply to this appendix. When definitions contained in the standards DOE has incorporated by reference are in conflict or when they conflict with this section, the hierarchy of precedence shall be in the following order: § 431.302, AHRI 1250-2009, and then either AHRI 420-2008 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303) for unit coolers or ASHRAE 23.1-2010 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303) for dedicated condensing units.
</P>
<P>The term “unit cooler” used in AHRI 1250-2009, AHRI 420-2008, and this subpart shall be considered to address both “unit coolers” and “ducted fan coil units,” as appropriate.


</P>
<HD1>3.0 Test Methods, Measurements, and Calculations
</HD1>
<P>Determine the Annual Walk-in Energy Factor (AWEF) and net capacity of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems by conducting the test procedure set forth in AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303), with the modifications to that test procedure provided in this section. When standards that are incorporated by reference are in conflict or when they conflict with this section, the hierarchy of precedence shall be in the following order: § 431.302, AHRI 1250-2009, and then either AHRI 420-2008 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303) or ASHRAE 23.1-2010 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303).
</P>
<P>3.1. <I>General modifications: Test Conditions and Tolerances.</I>
</P>
<P>When conducting testing in accordance with AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303), the following modifications must be made.
</P>
<P>3.1.1. In Table 1, Instrumentation Accuracy, refrigerant temperature measurements shall have an accuracy of ±0.5 °F for unit cooler in/out. When testing high-temperature refrigeration systems, measurements used to determine temperature or water vapor content of the air (<I>i.e.,</I> wet-bulb or dew point) shall be accurate to within ±0.25 °F; all other temperature measurements shall be accurate to within ±1.0 °F.


</P>
<P>3.1.2. In Table 2, Test Operating and Test Condition Tolerances for Steady-State Test, electrical power frequency shall have a Test Condition Tolerance of 1 percent.
</P>
<P>3.1.3. In Table 2, the Test Operating Tolerances and Test Condition Tolerances for Air Leaving Temperatures shall be deleted.
</P>
<P>3.1.4. In Tables 2 through 14, the Test Condition Outdoor Wet Bulb Temperature requirement and its associated tolerance apply only to units with evaporative cooling.
</P>
<P>3.1.5. Tables 15 and 16 shall be modified to read as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15—Refrigerator Unit Cooler
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test 
<br/>description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler air entering
<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler air entering
<br/>relative
<br/>humidity, %
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Saturated
<br/>suction temp, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet saturation temp, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet subcooling temp, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor
<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off Cycle Fan Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure fan input power during compressor off cycle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity Suction A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity Suction B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Superheat to be set according to equipment specification in equipment or installation manual. If no superheat specification is given, a default superheat value of 6.5 °F shall be used. The superheat setting used in the test shall be reported as part of the standard rating.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16—Freezer Unit Cooler
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test 
<br/>description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler air entering
<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler air entering
<br/>relative
<br/>humidity, %
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Saturated
<br/>suction temp, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet saturation temp, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet subcooling temp, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor
<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off Cycle Fan Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure fan input power during compressor off cycle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity Suction A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity Suction B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Various</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">—</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test according to Appendix C Section C11.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> Superheat to be set according to equipment specification in equipment or installation manual. If no superheat specification is given, a default superheat value of 6.5 °F shall be used. The superheat setting used in the test shall be reported as part of the standard rating.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.1.6. Test Operating Conditions for CO<E T="52">2</E> Unit Coolers
</HD3>
<P>For medium-temperature CO<E T="52">2</E> unit coolers, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table C.1 of this appendix. For low-temperature CO<E T="52">2</E> unit coolers, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table C.2 of this appendix.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C.1—Test Operating Conditions for Medium-Temperature CO<E T="0732">2</E> Unit Coolers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity,

<br/>%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew

<br/>point

<br/>temp,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid


<br/>inlet

<br/>bubble point

<br/>temperature

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid


<br/>inlet

<br/>subcooling,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor


<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure fan input power during compressor off-cycle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity, Ambient Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Superheat shall be set as indicated in the installation instructions. If no superheat specification is given a default superheat value of 6.5 °F shall be used.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C.2—Test Operating Conditions for Low-Temperature CO<E T="0732">2</E> Unit Coolers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit


<br/>cooler

<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit


<br/>cooler

<br/>air

<br/>entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity, %
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew

<br/>point

<br/>temp, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet bubble point temperature


<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid


<br/>inlet

<br/>subcooling, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor


<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure fan input power during compressor off cycle.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity, Ambient Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test according to Appendix C Section C11 of AHRI 1250-2009.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">1. Superheat shall be set as indicated in the installation instructions. If no superheat specification is given a default superheat value of 6.5 °F shall be used.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.1.7. Test Operating Conditions for High-Temperature Unit Coolers
</HD3>
<P>For high-temperature cooler unit coolers, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table C.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C.3—Test Operating Conditions for High-Temperature Unit Coolers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit


<br/>cooler

<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit


<br/>cooler

<br/>air

<br/>entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity,

<br/>% 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew

<br/>point

<br/>temp, °F 
<sup>2</sup> 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet bubble point temperature


<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid


<br/>inlet

<br/>subcooling, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor


<br/>capacity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure fan input power.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity Suction A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The test condition tolerance (maximum permissible variation of the average value of the measurement from the specified test condition) for relative humidity is 3%.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Superheat shall be set as indicated in the installation instructions. If no superheat specification is given a default superheat value of 6.5 °F shall be used.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Suction Dew Point shall be measured at the Unit Cooler Exit.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2. General Modifications: Methods of Testing
</HD3>
<P>When conducting testing in accordance with appendix C of AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303), the following modifications must be made.
</P>
<P>3.2.1. Refrigerant Temperature Measurements


</P>
<P>In AHRI 1250-2009 appendix C, section C3.1.6, any refrigerant temperature measurements entering and leaving the unit cooler may use sheathed sensors immersed in the flowing refrigerant instead of thermometer wells. When testing a condensing unit alone, measure refrigerant liquid temperature leaving the condensing unit using thermometer wells as described in AHRI 1250-2009 appendix C, section C3.1.6 or sheathed sensors immersed in the flowing refrigerant. For all of these cases, if the refrigerant tube outer diameter is less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch, the refrigerant temperature may be measured using the average of two temperature measuring instruments with a minimum accuracy of ±0.5 °F placed on opposite sides of the refrigerant tube surface—resulting in a total of up to 8 temperature measurement devices used for the DX Dual Instrumentation method. In this case, the refrigerant tube shall be insulated with 1-inch thick insulation from a point 6 inches upstream of the measurement location to a point 6 inches downstream of the measurement location. Also, to comply with this requirement, the unit cooler entering measurement location may be moved to a location 6 inches upstream of the expansion device and, when testing a condensing unit alone, the entering and leaving measurement locations may be moved to locations 6 inches from the respective service valves.


</P>
<P>3.2.2. It is not necessary to perform composition analysis of refrigerant (appendix C, section C3.3.6) or refrigerant oil concentration testing (appendix C, section C3.4.6).
</P>
<P>3.2.3. Subcooling at Refrigerant Mass Flow Meter
</P>
<P>In appendix C, section C3.4.5 of AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303), and in section 7.1.2 of ASHRAE 23.1-2010 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303) when verifying subcooling at the mass flow meters, only the sight glass and a temperature sensor located on the tube surface under the insulation are required. Subcooling shall be verified to be within the 3 °F requirement downstream of flow meters located in the same chamber as a condensing unit under test and upstream of flow meters located in the same chamber as a unit cooler under test, rather than always downstream as indicated in AHRI 1250-2009, section C3.4.5 or always upstream as indicated in section 7.1.2 of ASHRAE 23.1-2010. If the subcooling is less than 3 °F, cool the line between the condensing unit outlet and this location to achieve the required subcooling. When providing such cooling while testing a matched pair, (a) set up the line-cooling system and also set up apparatus to heat the liquid line between the mass flow meters and the unit cooler, (b) when the system has achieved steady state without activation of the heating and cooling systems, measure the liquid temperature entering the expansion valve for a period of at least 30 minutes, (c) activate the cooling system to provide the required subcooling at the mass flow meters, (d) if necessary, apply heat such that the temperature entering the expansion valve is within 0.5 
<SU>0</SU>F of the temperature measured during step (b), and (e) proceed with measurements once condition (d) has been verified.




</P>
<P>3.2.4. In appendix C, section C3.5, regarding unit cooler fan power measurements, for a given motor winding configuration, the total power input shall be measured at the highest nameplate voltage. For three-phase power, voltage imbalances shall be no more than 2 percent from phase to phase.
</P>
<P>3.2.5. In the test setup (appendix C, section C8.3), the liquid line and suction line shall be constructed of pipes of the manufacturer-specified size. The pipe lines shall be insulated with a minimum total thermal resistance equivalent to 
<FR>1/2</FR>-inch thick insulation having a flat-surface R-Value of 3.7 ft
<SU>2</SU>- °F-hr/Btu per inch or greater. Flow meters need not be insulated but must not be in contact with the floor. The lengths of the connected liquid line and suction line shall be 25 feet ± 3 inches, not including the requisite flow meters, each. Of this length, no more than 15 feet shall be in the conditioned space. Where there are multiple branches of piping, the maximum length of piping applies to each branch individually as opposed to the total length of the piping.




</P>
<P>3.2.6. Installation Instructions
</P>
<P>Manufacturer installation instructions refer to the instructions that are applied to the unit (<I>i.e.,</I> as a label) or that come packaged with the unit. Online installation instructions are acceptable only if the version number or date of publication is referenced on the unit label or in the documents that are packaged with the unit.
</P>
<P>3.2.6.1 <I>Installation Instruction Hierarchy when available installation instructions are in conflict</I>
</P>
<P>3.2.6.1.1 If a manufacturer installation instruction provided on the label(s) applied to the unit conflicts with the manufacturer installation instructions that are shipped with the unit, the instructions on the unit's label take precedence.
</P>
<P>3.2.6.1.2 Manufacturer installation instructions provided in any documents that are packaged with the unit take precedence over any manufacturer installation instructions provided online.


</P>
<P>3.2.6.2 For testing of attached split systems, the manufacturer installation instructions for the dedicated condensing unit shall take precedence over the manufacturer installation instructions for the unit cooler.
</P>
<P>3.2.6.3 Unit setup shall be in accordance with the manufacturer installation instructions (laboratory installation instructions shall not be used).
</P>
<P>3.2.6.4 Achieving test conditions shall always take precedence over installation instructions.
</P>
<P>3.2.7. <I>Refrigerant Charging and Adjustment of Superheat and Subcooling.</I>
</P>
<P>All dedicated condensing systems (dedicated condensing units tested alone, matched pairs, and single packaged dedicated systems) that use flooding of the condenser for head pressure control during low-ambient-temperature conditions shall be charged, and superheat and/or subcooling shall be set, at Refrigeration C test conditions unless otherwise specified in the installation instructions.
</P>
<P>If after being charged at Refrigeration C condition the unit under test does not operate at the Refrigeration A condition due to high pressure cut out, refrigerant shall be removed in increments of 4 ounces or 5 percent of the test unit's receiver capacity, whichever quantity is larger, until the unit operates at the Refrigeration A condition. All tests shall be run at this final refrigerant charge. If less than 0 °F of subcooling is measured for the refrigerant leaving the condensing unit when testing at B or C condition, calculate the refrigerant-enthalpy-based capacity (<I>i.e.,</I> when using the DX dual instrumentation, the DX calibrated box, or single-packaged unit refrigerant enthalpy method) assuming that the refrigerant is at saturated liquid conditions at the condensing unit exit.
</P>
<P>All dedicated condensing systems that do not use a flooded condenser design shall be charged at Refrigeration A test conditions unless otherwise specified in the installation instructions.
</P>
<P>If the installation instructions give a specified range for superheat, sub-cooling, or refrigerant pressure, the average of the range shall be used as the refrigerant charging parameter target and the test condition tolerance shall be ±50 percent of the range. Perform charging of near-azeotropic and zeotropic refrigerants only with refrigerant in the liquid state. Once the correct refrigerant charge is determined, all tests shall run until completion without further modification.


</P>
<P>3.2.7.1. When charging or adjusting superheat/subcooling, use all pertinent instructions contained in the installation instructions to achieve charging parameters within the tolerances. However, in the event of conflicting charging information between installation instructions, follow the installation instruction hierarchy listed in section 3.2.6. of this appendix. Conflicting information is defined as multiple conditions given for charge adjustment where all conditions specified cannot be met. In the event of conflicting information within the same set of charging instructions (e.g., the installation instructions shipped with the dedicated condensing unit), follow the hierarchy in table C.4 of this section for priority. Unless the installation instructions specify a different charging tolerance, the tolerances identified in table C.4 of this section shall be used.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C.4—Test Condition Tolerances and Hierarchy for Refrigerant Charging and Setting of Refrigerant Conditions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Priority
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Fixed orifice
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Expansion valve
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parameter with installation


<br/>instruction target
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tolerance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parameter with installation


<br/>instruction target
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tolerance
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Superheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Subcooling</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% of the Target Value; No less than ±0.5 °F, No more than ±2.0 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Side Pressure or Saturation Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±4.0 psi or ±1.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Side Pressure or Saturation Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±4.0 psi or ±1.0 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Side Pressure or Saturation Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 psi or ±0.8 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Superheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Side Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Side Pressure or Saturation Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 psi or ±0.8 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Side Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Approach Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±1.0 °F.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Charge Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 oz</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Charge Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5% or 1.0 oz, whichever is greater.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.2.7.2. <I>Dedicated Condensing Unit.</I> If the Dedicated Condensing Unit includes a receiver and the subcooling target leaving the condensing unit provided in installation instructions cannot be met without fully filling the receiver, the subcooling target shall be ignored. Likewise, if the Dedicated Condensing unit does not include a receiver and the subcooling target leaving the condensing unit cannot be met without the unit cycling off on high pressure, the subcooling target can be ignored. Also, if no instructions for charging or for setting subcooling leaving the condensing unit are provided in the installation instructions, the refrigeration system shall be set up with a charge quantity and/or exit subcooling such that the unit operates during testing without shutdown (e.g., on a high-pressure switch) and operation of the unit is otherwise consistent with the requirements of the test procedure of this appendix and the installation instructions.
</P>
<P>3.2.8. <I>Chamber Conditioning using the Unit Under Test.</I>


</P>
<P>In appendix C, section C6.2 of AHRI 1250-2009, for applicable system configurations (matched pairs, single-packaged refrigeration systems, and standalone unit coolers), the unit under test may be used to aid in achieving the required test chamber conditions prior to beginning any steady state test. However, the unit under test must be inspected and confirmed to be free from frost before initiating steady state testing.




</P>
<P>3.3. <I>Matched systems, single-package dedicated systems, and unit coolers tested alone:</I> Use the test method in AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303), appendix C as the method of test for matched refrigeration systems, single-package dedicated systems, or unit coolers tested alone, with the following modifications:


</P>
<P>3.3.1. For unit coolers tested alone, use test procedures described in AHRI 1250-2009 for testing unit coolers for use in mix-match system ratings, except that for the test conditions in tables 15 and 16 of this appendix, use the Suction A saturation condition test points only. Also, for unit coolers tested alone, other than high-temperature unit coolers, use the calculations in section 7.9 of AHRI 1250-2009 to determine AWEF and net capacity described in AHRI 1250-2009 for unit coolers matched to parallel rack systems.




</P>
<P>3.3.2. In appendix C, section C.13, the version of AHRI Standard 420 used for test methods, requirements, and procedures shall be AHRI 420-2008 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303).
</P>
<P>3.3.3. <I>Evaporator Fan Power.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.3.1. <I>Ducted Evaporator Air.</I>
</P>
<P>For ducted fan coil units with ducted evaporator air, or that can be installed with or without ducted evaporator air: Connect ductwork on both the inlet and outlet connections and determine external static pressure as described in ASHRAE 37 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303), sections 6.4 and 6.5. Use pressure measurement instrumentation as described in ASHRAE 37, section 5.3.2. Test at the fan speed specified in manufacturer installation instructions—if there is more than one fan speed setting and the installation instructions do not specify which speed to use, test at the highest speed. Conduct tests with the external static pressure equal to 50 percent of the maximum external static pressure allowed by the manufacturer for system installation within a tolerance of −0.00/+0.05 in. wc. Set the external static pressure by symmetrically restricting the outlet of the test duct. Alternatively, if using the indoor air enthalpy method to measure capacity, set external static pressure by adjusting the fan of the airflow measurement apparatus. In case of conflict, these requirements for setting evaporator airflow take precedence over airflow values specified in manufacturer installation instructions or product literature.


</P>
<P>3.3.3.2. <I>Unit Coolers or Single-Packaged Systems that are not High-Temperature Refrigeration Systems.</I>
</P>
<P>Use appendix C, section C10 of AHRI 1250-2009 for off-cycle evaporator fan testing, with the exception that evaporator fan controls using periodic stir cycles shall be adjusted so that the greater of a 50 percent duty cycle (rather than a 25 percent duty cycle) or the manufacturer default is used for measuring off-cycle fan energy. For adjustable-speed controls, the greater of 50 percent fan speed (rather than 25 percent fan speed) or the manufacturer's default fan speed shall be used for measuring off-cycle fan energy. Also, a two-speed or multi-speed fan control may be used as the qualifying evaporator fan control. For such a control, a fan speed no less than 50 percent of the speed used in the maximum capacity tests shall be used for measuring off-cycle fan energy.
</P>
<P>3.3.3.3. <I>High-Temperature Refrigeration Systems.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.3.3.1. The evaporator fan power consumption shall be measured in accordance with the requirements in section C3.5 of AHRI 1250-2009. This measurement shall be made with the fan operating at full speed, either measuring unit cooler or total system power input upon the completion of the steady state test when the compressor and the condenser fan of the walk-in system are turned off, or by submetered measurement of the evaporator fan power during the steady state test.
</P>
<P>Section C3.5 of AHRI 1250-2009 is revised to read:
</P>
<P><I>Evaporator Fan Power Measurement.</I>
</P>
<P>The following shall be measured and recorded during a fan power test.
</P>
<FP-1>EF<E T="52">comp,on</E> Total electrical power input to fan motor(s) of Unit Cooler, W
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FS Fan speed(s), rpm
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N Number of motors
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P<E T="52">b</E> Barometric pressure, in. Hg
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T<E T="52">db</E> Dry-bulb temperature of air at inlet, °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T<E T="52">wb</E> Wet-bulb temperature of air at inlet, °F
</FP-1>
<FP-1>V Voltage of each phase
</FP-1>
<P>For a given motor winding configuration, the total power input shall be measured at the highest nameplate voltage. For three-phase power, voltage imbalance shall be no more than 2%.


</P>
<P>3.3.3.3.2. Evaporator fan power for the off-cycle is equal to the on-cycle evaporator fan power with a run time of 10 percent of the off-cycle time.
</P>
<FP-2><I>EF</I><E T="54">comp,off</E> = 0.1 × <I>EF</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>
</FP-2>
<P>3.3.4. Use appendix C, section C11 of AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.303) for defrost testing. The Frost Load Condition Defrost Test (C11.1.1) is optional.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.1. If the frost load condition defrost test is performed:
</P>
<P>3.3.4.1.1 Operate the unit cooler at the dry coil conditions as specified in appendix C, section C11.1 to obtain dry coil defrost energy, DF<E T="52">d</E>, in W-h.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.1.2 Operate the unit cooler at the frost load conditions as specified in appendix C, sections C11.1 and C11.1.1 to obtain frosted coil defrost energy, DF<E T="52">f</E>, in W-h.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.1.3 The number of defrosts per day, N<E T="52">DF</E>, shall be calculated from the time interval between successive defrosts from the start of one defrost to the start of the next defrost at the frost load conditions.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.1.4 Use appendix C, equations C13 and C14 in section C11.3 to calculate, respectively, the daily average defrost energy, DF, in W-h and the daily contribution of the load attributed to defrost Q<E T="52">DF</E> in Btu.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.1.5 The defrost adequacy requirements in appendix C, section C11.3 shall apply.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.2 If the frost load test is not performed:
</P>
<P>3.3.4.2.1 Operate the unit cooler at the dry coil conditions as specified in appendix C, section C11.1 to obtain dry coil defrost energy, DF<E T="52">d</E>, in W-h.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.2.2 The frost load defrost energy, DF<E T="52">f</E>, in W-h shall be equal to 1.05 multiplied by the dry coil energy consumption, DF<E T="52">d</E>, measured using the dry coil condition test in appendix C, section C11.1.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.2.3 The number of defrosts per day N<E T="52">DF</E> used in subsequent calculations shall be 4.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.2.4 Use appendix C, equation C13 in section C11.3 to calculate the daily average defrost energy, DF, in W-h.
</P>
<P>3.3.4.2.5 The daily contribution of the load attributed to defrost Q<E T="52">DF</E> in Btu shall be calculated as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er28de16.008.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DF<E T="52">d</E> = the defrost energy, in W-h, measured at the dry coil condition
</FP-2>
<P>3.3.5. If a unit has adaptive defrost, use appendix C, section C11.2 of AHRI 1250-2009 as follows:
</P>
<P>3.3.5.1. When testing to certify to the energy conservation standards in § 431.306, do not perform the optional test for adaptive or demand defrost in appendix C, section C11.2.
</P>
<P>3.3.5.2. When determining the represented value of the calculated benefit for the inclusion of adaptive defrost, conduct the optional test for adaptive or demand defrost in appendix C, section C11.2 to establish the maximum time interval allowed between dry coil defrosts. If this time is greater than 24 hours, set its value to 24 hours. Then, calculate N<E T="52">DF</E> (the number of defrosts per day) by averaging the time in hours between successive defrosts for the dry coil condition with the time in hours between successive defrosts for the frosted coil condition, and dividing 24 by this average time. (The time between successive defrosts for the frosted coil condition is found as specified in section 3.3.4 of this appendix C of AHRI 1250-2009: That is, if the optional frosted coil test was performed, the time between successive defrosts for the frosted coil condition is found by performing the frosted coil test as specified in section 3.3.4.1 of this appendix; and if the optional frosted coil test was not performed, the time between successive defrosts for the frosted coil condition shall be set to 4 as specified in section 3.3.4.2. of this appendix) Use this new value of N<E T="52">DF</E> in subsequent calculations.
</P>
<P>3.3.6. For matched refrigeration systems and single-package dedicated systems, calculate the AWEF using the calculations in AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303), section 7.4, 7.5, 7.6, or 7.7, as applicable.




</P>
<P>3.3.7. <I>Calculations for Unit Coolers Tested Alone.</I>
</P>
<P>3.3.7.1. <I>Unit Coolers that are not High-Temperature Unit Coolers.</I>
</P>
<P>Calculate the AWEF and net capacity using the calculations in AHRI 1250-2009, section 7.9.


</P>
<P>3.3.7.2 <I>High-Temperature Unit Coolers.</I>
</P>
<P>Calculate AWEF on the basis that walk-in box load is equal to half of the system net capacity, without variation according to high and low load periods, and with EER set according to tested evaporator capacity, as follows:
</P>
<P>The net capacity, <I>q</I>
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">mix,evap</E>, is determined from the test data for the unit cooler at the 38 °F suction dewpoint.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.030.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.031.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>B</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>L</I> is the non-equipment-related box load;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>LF is the load factor; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Other symbols are as defined in section 8 of AHRI 1250-2009.
</FP-2>
<P>3.3.7.3. If the unit cooler has variable-speed evaporator fans that vary fan speed in response to load, then:
</P>
<P>3.3.7.3.1. When testing to certify compliance with the energy conservation standards in § 431.306, fans shall operate at full speed during on-cycle operation. Do not conduct the calculations in AHRI 1250-2009, section 7.9.3. Instead, use AHRI 1250-2009, section 7.9.2 to determine the system's AWEF.
</P>
<P>3.3.7.3.2. When calculating the benefit for the inclusion of variable-speed evaporator fans that modulate fan speed in response to load for the purpose of making representations of efficiency, use AHRI 1250-2009, section 7.9.3 to determine the system AWEF.


</P>
<HD3>3.4. <I>Dedicated condensing units that are not matched for testing and are not single-package dedicated systems</I>
</HD3>
<P>3.4.1. Refer to appendix C, section C.12 of AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303), for the method of test for dedicated condensing units. The version of ASHRAE Standard 23 used for test methods, requirements, and procedures shall be ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 23.1-2010 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303). When applying this test method, use the applicable test method modifications listed in sections 3.1 and 3.2 of this appendix. For the test conditions in AHRI 1250-2009, Tables 11, 12, 13, and 14, use the Suction A condition test points only.
</P>
<P>3.4.2. Calculate the AWEF and net capacity for dedicated condensing units using the calculations in AHRI 1250-2009 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.303) section 7.8. Use the following modifications to the calculations in lieu of unit cooler test data:


</P>
<P>3.4.2.1. For calculating enthalpy leaving the unit cooler to calculate gross capacity, (a) the saturated refrigerant temperature (dew point) at the unit cooler coil exit, T<E T="52">evap</E>, shall be 25 °F for medium-temperature systems (coolers) and −20 °F for low-temperature systems (freezers), and (b) the refrigerant temperature at the unit cooler exit shall be 35 °F for medium-temperature systems (coolers) and −14 °F for low-temperature systems (freezers). For calculating gross capacity, the measured enthalpy at the condensing unit exit shall be used as the enthalpy entering the unit cooler. The temperature measurement requirements of appendix C, section C3.1.6 of AHRI 1250-2009 and modified by section 3.2.1 of this appendix shall apply only to the condensing unit exit rather than to the unit cooler inlet and outlet, and they shall be applied for two measurements when using the DX Dual Instrumentation test method.


</P>
<P>3.4.2.2. The on-cycle evaporator fan power in watts, EF<E T="52">comp,on</E>, shall be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>For medium-temperature systems (coolers), EF<E T="52">comp,on</E> = 0.013 × q<E T="52">mix,cd</E>
</P>
<P>For low-temperature systems (freezers), EF<E T="52">comp,on</E> = 0.016 × q<E T="52">mix,cd</E>
</P>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q<E T="52">mix,cd</E> is the gross cooling capacity of the system in Btu/h, found by a single test at the Capacity A, Suction A condition for outdoor units and the Suction A condition for indoor units.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.2.3. The off-cycle evaporator fan power in watts, EF<E T="52">comp,off</E>, shall be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>EF<E T="52">comp,off</E> = 0.2 × EF<E T="52">comp,on</E>
</P>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EF<E T="52">comp,on</E> is the on-cycle evaporator fan power in watts.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.2.4. The daily defrost energy use in watt-hours, DF, shall be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>For medium-temperature systems (coolers), DF = 0
</P>
<P>For low-temperature systems (freezers), DF = 8.5 × 10<E T="51">−3</E> × q<E T="52">mix,cd</E>
<SU>1.27</SU> × N<E T="52">DF</E>
</P>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q<E T="52">mix,cd</E> is the gross cooling capacity of the system in Btu/h, found by a single test at the Capacity A, Suction A condition for outdoor units and the Suction A condition for indoor units, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N<E T="52">DF</E> is the number of defrosts per day, equal to 4.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.2.5. The daily defrost heat load contribution in Btu, Q<E T="52">DF</E>, shall be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>For medium-temperature systems (coolers), Q<E T="52">DF</E> = 0
</P>
<P>For low-temperature systems (freezers), Q<E T="52">DF</E> = 0.95 × DF × 3.412
</P>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DF is the daily defrost energy use in watt-hours.
</FP-2>
<HD3>3.5 Hot Gas Defrost Refrigeration Systems
</HD3>
<P><I>For all hot gas defrost refrigeration systems, remove the hot gas defrost mechanical components and disconnect all such components from electrical power.</I>
</P>
<P>3.5.1 Hot Gas Defrost Dedicated Condensing Units Tested Alone: Test these units as described in section 3.4 of this appendix for electric defrost dedicated condensing units that are not matched for testing and are not single-package dedicated systems.
</P>
<P>3.5.2 Hot Gas Defrost Matched Systems and Single-package Dedicated Systems: Test these units as described in section 3.3 of this appendix for electric defrost matched systems and single-package dedicated systems, but do not conduct defrost tests as described in sections 3.3.4 and 3.3.5 of this appendix. Calculate daily defrost energy use as described in section 3.4.2.4 of this appendix. Calculate daily defrost heat contribution as described in section 3.4.2.5 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.5.3 Hot Gas Defrost Unit Coolers Tested Alone: Test these units as described in section 3.3 of this appendix for electric defrost unit coolers tested alone, but do not conduct defrost tests as described in sections 3.3.4 and 3.3.5 of this appendix. Calculate average defrost heat load Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="52">DF</E>, expressed in Btu/h, as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26mr21.002.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 95803, Dec. 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 16035, Mar. 26, 2021; 88 FR 28845, May 4, 2023; 88 FR 73217, Oct. 25, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.18.73.7.38" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C1 to Subpart R of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Net Capacity and AWEF2 of Walk-In Cooler and Walk-In Freezer Refrigeration Systems


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to October 31, 2023, representations with respect to the energy use of refrigeration components of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with the applicable provisions for 10 CFR part 431, subpart R, appendix C, revised as of January 1, 2022. Beginning October 31, 2023, representations with respect to energy use of refrigeration components of walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with appendix C to this subpart.
</P>
<P>For any amended standards for walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers published after January 1, 2022, manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance. Representations related to energy consumption must be made in accordance with this appendix when determining compliance with the relevant standard. Manufacturers may also use this appendix to certify compliance with any amended standards prior to the applicable compliance date for those standards.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.303, the entire standard for AHRI 1250-2020, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ANSI/ASHRAE 23.1-2010, ANSI/ASHRAE 37, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.3, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6, and ANSI/ASHRAE 41.10. However, certain enumerated provisions of these standards, as set forth in sections 0.1 through 0.8 of this appendix are inapplicable. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of AHRI 1250-2020, ANSI/ASHRAE 16, ANSI/ASHRAE 23.1-2010, ANSI/ASHRAE 37, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.3, ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6, and ANSI/ASHRAE 41.10, the AHRI 1250-2020 provisions control.
</P>
<HD3>0.1 AHRI 1250-2020
</HD3>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1 Purpose, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2 Scope, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 9 Minimum Data Requirements for Published Rating, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Section 10 Marking and Nameplate Data, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Section 11 Conformance Conditions, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<HD3>0.2 ANSI/ASHRAE 16
</HD3>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1 Purpose, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2 Scope, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4 Classifications, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Normative Appendices E-M, are inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Informative Appendices N-R, are inapplicable
</FP-1>
<HD3>0.3 ANSI/ASHRAE 23.1-2010
</HD3>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1 Purpose, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2 Scope, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4 Classifications, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<HD3>0.4 ANSI/ASHRAE 37
</HD3>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1 Purpose, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2 Scope, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4 Classifications, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Informative Appendix A Classifications of Unitary Air-conditioners and Heat Pumps, is inapplicable.
</FP-1>
<HD3>0.5 ANSI/ASHRAE 41.1
</HD3>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1 Purpose, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2 Scope, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4 Classifications, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Section 9 Test Report, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Informative Appendices A-C, are inapplicable
</FP-1>
<HD3>0.6 ANSI/ASHRAE 41.3
</HD3>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1 Purpose, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2 Scope, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4 Classifications, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Section 6 Instrument Types (informative), is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Section 8 Test Report, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Informative Annexes A-D, are inapplicable
</FP-1>
<HD3>0.7 ANSI/ASHRAE 41.6
</HD3>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1 Purpose, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2 Scope, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4 Classifications, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Section 9 Test Report, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Informative Appendices A-D, are inapplicable
</FP-1>
<HD3>0.8 ANSI/ASHRAE 41.10
</HD3>
<FP-1>(a) Section 1 Purpose, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 2 Scope, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 4 Classifications, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Section 10 Test Report, is inapplicable
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Informative Annexes A-D, are inapplicable
</FP-1>
<HD2>1. Scope
</HD2>
<P>This appendix covers the test requirements used to determine the net capacity and the AWEF2 of the refrigeration system of a walk-in cooler or walk-in freezer.
</P>
<HD2>2. Definitions
</HD2>
<HD3>2.1. Applicable Definitions
</HD3>
<P>The definitions contained in § 431.302, AHRI 1250-2020, ANSI/ASHRAE 37, and ANSI/ASHRAE 16 apply to this appendix. When definitions in standards incorporated by reference are in conflict or when they conflict with this section, the hierarchy of precedence shall be in the following order: § 431.302, AHRI 1250-2020, and then either ANSI/ASHRAE 37 or ANSI/ASHRAE 16.
</P>
<P>The term “unit cooler” used in AHRI 1250-2020 and this subpart shall be considered to address both “unit coolers” and “ducted fan coil units,” as appropriate.
</P>
<HD3>2.2. Additional Definitions
</HD3>
<P>2.2.1. <I>Digital Compressor</I> means a compressor that uses mechanical means for disengaging active compression on a cyclic basis to provide a reduced average refrigerant flow rate in response to a control system input signal.
</P>
<P>2.2.2. <I>Displacement Ratio,</I> applicable to staged positive displacement compressor systems, means the swept volume rate, e.g. in cubic centimeters per second, of a given stage, divided by the swept volume rate at full capacity.
</P>
<P>2.2.3. <I>Duty Cycle,</I> applicable to digital compressors, means the fraction of time that the compressor is engaged and actively compressing refrigerant.
</P>
<P>2.2.4. <I>Maximum Speed,</I> applicable to variable-speed compressors, means the maximum speed at which the compressor will operate under the control of the dedicated condensing system control system for extended periods of time, <I>i.e.</I> not including short-duration boost-mode operation.
</P>
<P>2.2.5. <I>Minimum Speed,</I> applicable to variable-speed compressors, means the minimum compressor speed at which the compressor will operate under the control of the dedicated condensing system control system.
</P>
<P>2.2.6. <I>Multiple-Capacity,</I> applicable for describing a refrigeration system, indicates that it has three or more stages (levels) of capacity.
</P>
<P>2.2.7. <I>Speed Ratio,</I> applicable to variable-speed compressors, means the ratio of operating speed to the maximum speed.
</P>
<HD2>3. <I>Test Methods, Measurements, and Calculations</I>
</HD2>
<P>Determine the Annual Walk-in Energy Factor (AWEF2) and net capacity of walk-in cooler and walk-in freezer refrigeration systems by conducting the test procedure set forth in AHRI 1250-2020, with the modifications to that test procedure provided in this section. However, certain sections of AHRI 1250-2020, ANSI/ASHRAE 37, and ANSI/ASHRAE 16 are not applicable, as set forth in sections 0.1, 0.2, and 0.3 of this appendix. Round AWEF2 measurements to the nearest 0.01 Btu/Wh. Round net capacity measurements as indicated in table 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Rounding of Refrigeration System Net Capacity
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Net capacity range, Btu/h
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rounding


<br/>multiple,

<br/>Btu/h
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&lt;20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥20,000 and &lt;38,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥38,000 and &lt;65,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥65,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The following sections of this appendix provide additional instructions for testing. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes highest precedence, followed by AHRI 1250-2020, then ANSI/ASHRAE 37 or ANSI/ASHRAE 16. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval, and a notification of any change in the incorporation will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<HD3>3.1. Instrumentation Accuracy and Test Tolerances
</HD3>
<P>Use measuring instruments as described in section 4.1 of AHRI 1250-2020, with the following additional requirement.
</P>
<P>3.1.1. Electrical Energy Input measured in Wh with a minimum accuracy of ±0.5% of reading (for Off-Cycle tests per footnote 5 of Table C3 in section C3.6.2 of AHRI 1250-2020).
</P>
<HD3>3.2. Test Operating Conditions
</HD3>
<P>Test conditions used to determine AWEF2 shall be as specified in Tables 4 through 17 of AHRI 1250-2020. Tables 7 and 11 of AHRI 1250-2020, labeled to apply to variable-speed outdoor matched-pair refrigeration systems, shall also be used for testing variable-capacity single-packaged outdoor refrigeration systems, and also for testing multiple-capacity matched-pair or single-packaged outdoor refrigeration systems. Test conditions used to determine AWEF2 for refrigeration systems not specifically identified in AHRI 1250-2020 are as enumerated in sections 3.5.1 through 3.5.6 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>3.2.1 Test Operating Conditions for High-Temperature Refrigeration Systems
</HD3>
<P>For fixed-capacity high-temperature matched-pair or single-packaged refrigeration systems with indoor condensing units, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 2 of this appendix. For fixed-capacity high-temperature matched-pair or single-packaged refrigeration systems with outdoor condensing units, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 3 of this appendix. For high-temperature unit coolers tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Test Operating Conditions for Fixed-Capacity High-Temperature Indoor Matched Pair or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity, % 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor


<br/>status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure total input wattage during compressor off-cycle, (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="0732">cu,off</E> + E
<AC T="b"/>F<E T="0732">comp,off</E>).
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 75, 
<sup>4</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler, input power, and EER at Test Condition.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The test condition tolerance (maximum permissible variation of the average value of the measurement from the specified test condition) for relative humidity is 3%.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Measure off-cycle power as described in sections C3 and C4.2 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Maximum allowable value for Single-Packaged Systems that do not use evaporative Dedicated Condensing Units, where all or part of the equipment is located in the outdoor room.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Test Operating Conditions for Fixed-Capacity High-Temperature Outdoor Matched-Pair or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test


<br/>description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity,

<br/>% 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor


<br/>status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 75, 
<sup>4</sup> 68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler, input power, and EER at Test Condition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle Power, Capacity A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 75, 
<sup>4</sup> 68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure total input wattage during compressor off-cycle, ( E
<AC T="b"/><E T="0732">cu,off</E> + E
<AC T="b"/>F<E T="0732">comp,off</E>) 
<sup>2</sup>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 54, 
<sup>4</sup> 46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler and system input power at moderate condition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle Power, Capacity B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 54, 
<sup>4</sup> 46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure total input wattage during compressor off-cycle, (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="0732">cu,off</E> + E
<AC T="b"/>F<E T="0732">comp,off</E>) 
<sup>2</sup>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 34, 
<sup>4</sup> 29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler and system input power at cold condition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle Power, Capacity C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>3</sup> 34, 
<sup>4</sup> 29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure total input wattage during compressor off-cycle, (E
<AC T="b"/><E T="0732">cu,off</E> + E
<AC T="b"/>F<E T="0732">comp,off</E>) 
<sup>2</sup>.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The test condition tolerance (maximum permissible variation of the average value of the measurement from the specified test condition) for relative humidity is 3%.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Measure off-cycle power as described in sections C3 and C4.2 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> incorporates a slinger ring).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Maximum allowable value for Single-Packaged Systems that do not use evaporative Dedicated Condensing Units, where all or part of the equipment is located in the outdoor room.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Test Operating Conditions for High-Temperature Unit Coolers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity, % 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point

<br/>temp, °F 
<sup>3</sup> 
<sup>4</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet


<br/>bubble point

<br/>temperature,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet


<br/>subcooling,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor


<br/>status
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure unit cooler input wattage during compressor off-cycle, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="03">F</E><E T="8145">comp,off</E>.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler, input power, and EER at Test Condition.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The test condition tolerance (maximum permissible variation of the average value of the measurement from the specified test condition) for relative humidity is 3%.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Measure off-cycle power as described in sections C3 and C4.2 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Superheat shall be set as indicated in the installation instructions. If no superheat specification is given a default superheat value of 6.5 °F shall be used.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Suction Dew Point shall be measured at the Unit Cooler Exit.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2.2 Test Operating Conditions for CO<E T="52">2</E> Unit Coolers
</HD3>
<P>For medium-temperature CO<E T="52">2</E> Unit Coolers, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 5 of this appendix. For low-temperature CO<E T="52">2</E> Unit Coolers, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 6 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Test Operating Conditions 
<sup>1</sup> for Medium-Temperature CO<E T="0732">2</E> Unit Coolers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity,

<br/>%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point

<br/>temp,
<sup>3</sup>

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet


<br/>bubble point

<br/>temperature,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet


<br/>subcooling,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor


<br/>operating mode
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure unit cooler input wattage during compressor off-cycle, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="03">F</E><E T="8145">comp,off</E> 
<sup>2</sup>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity, Ambient Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler, <E T="03">q
<AC T="b"/></E><E T="8145">mix,rack</E>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Superheat shall be set as indicated in the installation instructions. If no superheat specification is given a default superheat value of 6.5 °F shall be used.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Measure off-cycle power as described in sections C3 and C4.2 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Suction Dew Point shall be measured at the Unit Cooler Exit conditions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6—Test Operating Conditions for Low-Temperature CO<E T="0732">2</E> Unit Coolers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity, %
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point

<br/>temp,
<sup>2</sup> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet


<br/>bubble point

<br/>temperature,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquid inlet


<br/>subcooling, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor


<br/>operating mode
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test objective
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle Power</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Measure unit cooler input wattage during compressor off-cycle, E
<AC T="b"/><E T="03">F</E><E T="8145">comp,off</E>.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigeration Capacity, Ambient Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor On</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Determine Net Refrigeration Capacity of Unit Cooler, <E T="03">q
<AC T="b"/></E><E T="8145">mix,rack</E>.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Test according to Appendix C Section C10 of AHRI 1250-2020, <E T="03">D
<AC T="b"/>F</E>,<E T="03">Q
<AC T="b"/></E><E T="8145">DF</E>.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Superheat shall be set as indicated in the installation instructions. If no superheat specification is given a default superheat value of 6.5 °F shall be used.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Measure off-cycle power as described in sections C3 and C4.2 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Suction Dew Point shall be measured at the Unit Cooler Exit conditions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2.3 Test Operating Conditions for Two-Capacity Condensing Units Tested Alone
</HD3>
<P>For two-capacity medium-temperature outdoor condensing units tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 7 of this appendix. For two-capacity medium-temperature indoor condensing units tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 8 of this appendix. For two-capacity low-temperature outdoor condensing units tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 9 of this appendix. For two-capacity low-temperature indoor condensing units tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 10 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7—Test Operating Conditions for Two-Capacity Medium-Temperature Outdoor Dedicated Condensing Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return gas, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb, °F 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor status
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8—Test Operating Conditions for Two-Capacity Medium-Temperature Indoor Dedicated Condensing Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return gas, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb, °F 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor status
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9—Test Operating Conditions for Two-Capacity Low-Temperature Outdoor Dedicated Condensing Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return gas,


<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb,

<br/> °F 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor operating mode
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> incorporates a slinger ring).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10—Test Operating Conditions for Two-Capacity Low-Temperature Indoor Dedicated Condensing Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return gas, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb, °F 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor operating mode
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2.4 Test Operating Conditions for Variable- or Multiple-Capacity Condensing Units Tested Alone
</HD3>
<P>For variable-capacity or multiple-capacity outdoor medium-temperature condensing units tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 11 of this appendix. For variable-capacity or multiple-capacity indoor medium-temperature condensing units tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 12 of this appendix. For variable-capacity or multiple-capacity outdoor low-temperature condensing units tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 13 of this appendix. For variable-capacity or multiple-capacity indoor low-temperature condensing units tested alone, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 14 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11—Test Operating Conditions for Variable- or Multiple-Capacity Medium-Temperature Outdoor Dedicated Condensing Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return gas, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb, °F 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor status
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity, k=i.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity, k=2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity, k=i.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity, k=i.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12—Test Operating Conditions for Variable- or Multiple-Capacity Medium-Temperature Indoor Dedicated Condensing Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return gas, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb, °F 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor status
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity, k=i.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13—Test Operating Conditions for Variable- or Multiple-Capacity Low-Temperature Outdoor Dedicated Condensing Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return gas,


<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb,

<br/> °F 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor operating mode
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity, k=i.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity, k=i.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition B, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity, k=i.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition C, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> incorporates a slinger ring).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14—Test Operating Conditions for Variable- or Multiple-Capacity Low-Temperature Indoor Dedicated Condensing Units
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Suction


<br/>dew point,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Return gas,


<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb,

<br/> °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb,

<br/> °F 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor operating mode
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity, k=1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity, k=i.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity, k=2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> incorporates a slinger ring).</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2.5 Test Operating Conditions for Two-Capacity Indoor Matched-Pair or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems


</HD3>
<P>For two-capacity indoor medium-temperature matched-pair or single-packaged refrigeration systems, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 15 of this appendix. For two-capacity indoor low-temperature matched-pair or single-packaged refrigeration systems, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 16 of this appendix.








</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 15—Test Operating Conditions for Two-Capacity Medium-Temperature Indoor Matched-Pair or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity, %
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering wet-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor status
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Maximum allowable value for Single-Packaged Systems that do not use evaporative Dedicated Condensing Units, where all or part of the equipment is located in the outdoor room.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 16—Test Operating Conditions for Two Capacity Low-Temperature Indoor Matched-Pair or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>relative

<br/>humidity, %
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum


<br/>condenser

<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor status
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Low Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup>65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">System Dependent.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Maximum allowable value for Single-Packaged Systems that do not use evaporative Dedicated Condensing Units, where all or part of the equipment is located in the outdoor room.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3.2.6 Test Conditions for Variable- or Multiple-Capacity Indoor Matched Pair or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems
</HD3>
<P>For variable- or multiple-capacity indoor medium-temperature matched-pair or single-packaged refrigeration systems, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 17 of this appendix. For variable- or multiple-capacity indoor low-temperature matched-pair or single-packaged refrigeration systems, conduct tests using the test conditions specified in table 18 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 17—Test Operating Conditions for Variable- or Multiple-Capacity Medium-Temperature Indoor Matched-Pair or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering relative

<br/>humidity, %
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor status
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, High Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>1</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Maximum allowable value for Single-Packaged Systems that do not use evaporative Dedicated Condensing Units, where all or part of the equipment is located in the outdoor room.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 18—Test Operating Conditions for Variable- or Multiple-Capacity Low-Temperature Indoor Matched-Pair or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit cooler


<br/>air entering relative

<br/>humidity, %
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>dry-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum condenser


<br/>air entering

<br/>wet-bulb, °F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compressor status
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minimum Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Intermediate Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intermediate Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capacity, Condition A, Maximum Capacity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Cycle, Condition A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>1</sup> 75, 
<sup>2</sup> 65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Off.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Defrost</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">System Dependent.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Notes:</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Required only for evaporative condensing units (e.g., incorporates a slinger ring).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Maximum allowable value for Single-Packaged Systems that do not use evaporative Dedicated Condensing Units, where all or part of the equipment is located in the outdoor room.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3.3 Calculation for Walk-in Box Load
</HD2>
<P>3.3.1 For medium- and low-temperature refrigeration systems with indoor condensing units, calculate walk-in box loads for high and low load periods as a function of net capacity as described in section 6.2.1 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<P>3.3.2 For medium- and low-temperature refrigeration systems with outdoor condensing units, calculate walk-in box loads for high and low load periods as a function of net capacity and outdoor temperature as described in section 6.2.2 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<P>3.3.3 For high-temperature refrigeration systems, calculate walk-in box load as follows.
</P>
<FP-2><I>B
<AC T="b"/>L</I> = 0.5 · <I>q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss,A</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where <I>q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss,A</E> is the measured net capacity for Test Condition A.
</FP>
<HD2>3.4 <I>Calculation for Annual Walk-in Energy Factor (AWEF2)</I>
</HD2>
<P>Calculations used to determine AWEF2 based on performance data obtained for testing shall be as specified in section 7 of AHRI 1250-2020 with modifications as indicated in sections 3.4.7 through 3.4.10 of this appendix. Calculations used to determine AWEF2 for refrigeration systems not specifically identified in sections 7.1.1 through 7.1.6 of AHRI 1250-2020 are enumerated in sections 3.4.1 through 3.4.6 and 3.4.11 through 3.4.14 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD3>3.4.1 Two-Capacity Condensing Units Tested Alone, Indoor
</HD3>
<P>3.4.1.1 Unit Cooler Power
</P>
<P>Calculate maximum-capacity unit cooler power during the compressor on period <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>, in Watts, using Equation 130 of AHRI 1250-2020 for medium-temperature refrigeration systems and using Equation 173 of AHRI 1250-2020 for low-temperature refrigeration systems.
</P>
<P>Calculate unit cooler power during the compressor off period <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E>, in Watts, as 20 percent of the maximum-capacity unit cooler power during the compressor on period.
</P>
<P>3.4.1.2 Defrost
</P>
<P>For freezer refrigeration systems, calculate defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> in Btu/h and the defrost average power consumption <I>D</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I> in W as a function of steady-state maximum gross refrigeration capacity Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>, as specified in section C10.2.2 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<P>3.4.1.3 Net Capacity
</P>
<P>Calculate steady-state maximum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>, and minimum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> − 3412 · <I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> − 3412 · 0.2 · <I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> represent gross refrigeration capacity at maximum and minimum capacity, respectively.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.1.4 Calculate average power input during the low load period as follows.
</P>
<P>If the low load period box load, <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L,</I> plus defrost heat contribution, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers), is less than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.032.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> is the steady state condensing unit power input for minimum-capacity operation.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off</E> is the condensing unit off-cycle power input, measured as described in section C3.5 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</FP-2>
<P>If the low load period box load, <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L,</I> plus defrost heat contribution, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E>, (only applicable for freezers) is greater than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.033.gif"/>
<P>3.4.1.5 Calculate average power input during the high load period as follows.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.034.gif"/>
<P>3.4.1.6 Calculate the AWEF2 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.035.gif"/>
<HD3>3.4.2 Variable-Capacity or Multistage Condensing Units Tested Alone, Indoor
</HD3>
<P>3.4.2.1 Unit Cooler Power
</P>
<P>Calculate maximum-capacity unit cooler power during the compressor on period <I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E> as described in section 3.4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Calculate unit cooler power during the compressor off period <I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E>, in Watts, as 20 percent of the maximum-capacity unit cooler power during the compressor on period.
</P>
<P>3.4.2.2 Defrost
</P>
<P>Calculate Defrost parameters as described in section 4.4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.2.3 Net Capacity
</P>
<P>Calculate steady-state maximum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>, intermediate net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E>, and minimum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> − 3412 · <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> − 3412 · <I>K</I><E T="54">f</E> · <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> − 3412 · 0.2 · <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross</E><E T="53">k=i</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross,</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>, and represent gross refrigeration capacity at maximum, intermediate, and minimum capacity, respectively.
</FP-2>
<P>K<E T="52">f</E> is the unit cooler power coefficient for intermediate capacity operation, set equal to 0.2 to represent low-speed fan operation if the Duty Cycle for a Digital Compressor, the Speed Ratio for a Variable-Speed Compressor, or the Displacement Ratio for a Multi-Stage Compressor at Intermediate Capacity is 65% or less, and otherwise set equal to 1.0.
</P>
<P>3.4.2.4 Calculate average power input during the low load period as follows.
</P>
<P>If the low load period box load, <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L,</I> plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q</I>
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is less than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.036.gif"/>
<P>Where <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off</E>, in W, is the condensing unit off-mode power consumption, measured as described in section C3.5 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<P>If the low load period box load <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L</I> plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is greater than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> and less than the intermediate net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.037.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=1</E> is the minimum-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> + 0.2 · <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=i</E> is the intermediate-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E> divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E> + <I>K</I><E T="54">f</E> ·

<I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.2.5 Calculate average power input during the high load period as follows:
</P>
<P>If the high load period box load, <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>, plus defrost heat contribution, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers), is greater than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> and less than the intermediate net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.038.gif"/>
<P>If the high load period box load, <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>, plus defrost heat contribution, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers), is greater than the intermediate net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>, and less than the maximum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.039.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="53">k=2</E> is the maximum-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> + <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.2.6 Calculate the AWEF2 as follows.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.040.gif"/>
<HD3>3.4.3 Two-Capacity Condensing Units Tested Alone, Outdoor
</HD3>
<P>3.4.3.1 Unit Cooler Power
</P>
<P>Calculate maximum-capacity unit cooler power during the compressor on period <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>, in Watts, using Equation 153 of AHRI 1250-2020 for medium-temperature refrigeration systems and using Equation 196 of AHRI 1250-2020 for low-temperature refrigeration systems.
</P>
<P>Calculate unit cooler power during the compressor off period <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E>, in Watts, as 20 percent of the maximum-capacity unit cooler power during the compressor on period.
</P>
<P>3.4.3.2 Defrost
</P>
<P>Calculate Defrost parameters as described in section 3.4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.3.3 Condensing Unit Off-Cycle Power
</P>
<P>Calculate Condensing Unit Off-Cycle Power for temperature t<E T="52">j</E> as follows.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.041.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off,A</E> and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off,C</E> are the Condensing Unit off-cycle power measurements for test conditions A and C, respectively, measured as described in section C3.5 of AHRI 1250-2020. If t<E T="52">j</E> is greater than 35 °F and less than 59 °F, use Equation 157 of AHRI 1250-2020, and if t<E T="52">j</E> is greater than or equal to 59 °F and less than 95 °F, use Equation 159 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.3.4 Net Capacity and Condensing Unit Power Input
</P>
<P>Calculate steady-state maximum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), and minimum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), and corresponding condensing unit power input levels E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) as a function of outdoor temperature t<E T="52">j</E> as follows:
</P>
<P>If t<E T="52">j</E> ≤ 59 °F:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.042.gif"/>
<P>If 59 °F &lt; t<E T="52">j</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.043.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>The capacity level k can equal 1 or 2;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross,X</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross,X</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> represent gross refrigeration capacity at maximum and minimum capacity, respectively, for test condition X, which can take on values A, B, or C;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss,X</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss,X</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> represent condensing unit power input at maximum and minimum capacity, respectively for test condition X.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.3.5 Calculate average power input during the low load period as follows.
</P>
<P>Calculate the temperature, t<E T="52">IL</E>, in the following equation which the low load period box load, <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), plus defrost heat contribution, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers), is less than the minimum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), by solving the following equation for t<E T="52">IL</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IL</E>) + <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> = q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IL</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">IL</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.044.gif"/>
<P>Where <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), in W, is the condensing unit off-mode power consumption for temperature t<E T="52">j</E>, determined as indicated in section 3.4.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For t<E T="52">j</E> ≥ t<E T="52">IL</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.045.gif"/>
<P>3.4.3.6 Calculate average power input during the high load period as follows.
</P>
<P>Calculate the temperature, t<E T="52">IH</E>, in the following equation which the high load period box load, <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), plus defrost heat contribution, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers), is less than the minimum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) , by solving the following equation for t<E T="52">IH</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IH</E>) + <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> = q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IH</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the temperature, t<E T="52">IIH</E>, in the following equation which the high load period box load <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is less than the maximum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), by solving the following equation for t<E T="52">IIH</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IIH</E>) + <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> = q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IIH</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">IH</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.046.gif"/>
<P>For t<E T="52">IH</E> ≤ t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">IIH</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.047.gif"/>
<P>For t<E T="52">IIH</E> ≤ t<E T="52">j</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">H</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) = (<I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) + <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.3.7 Calculate the AWEF2 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.048.gif"/>
<HD3>3.4.4 Variable-Capacity or Multistage Condensing Units Tested Alone, Outdoor
</HD3>
<P>3.4.4.1 Unit Cooler Power
</P>
<P>Calculate maximum-capacity unit cooler power during the compressor on period <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E> as described in section 3.4.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Calculate unit cooler power during the compressor off period <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>, in Watts, as 20 percent of the maximum-capacity unit cooler power during the compressor on period.
</P>
<P>3.4.4.2 Defrost
</P>
<P>Calculate Defrost parameters as described in section 3.4.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.4.3 Condensing Unit Off-Cycle Power
</P>
<P>Calculate Condensing Unit Off-Cycle Power for temperature, t<E T="52">j</E>, as described in section 3.4.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.4.4 Net Capacity and Condensing Unit Power Input
</P>
<P>Calculate steady-state maximum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), intermediate net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) , and minimum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), and corresponding condensing unit power input levels E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) and as a function of outdoor temperature, t<E T="52">j</E>, as follows:
</P>
<P>If t<E T="52">j</E> ≤ 59 °F:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.049.gif"/>
<P>If 59 °F &lt; t<E T="52">j</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.050.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>The capacity level k can equal 1, i, or 2;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross,X</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>, Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross,X</E><E T="53">k=i</E> and Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">gross,X</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> represent gross refrigeration capacity at maximum, intermediate, and minimum capacity, respectively, for test condition X, which can take on values A, B, or C;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss,X</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> and E
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss,X</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> represent condensing unit power input at maximum and minimum capacity, respectively for test condition X; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">f</E> is the unit cooler power coefficient for intermediate capacity operation, set equal to 0.2 to represent low-speed fan operation if the Duty Cycle for a Digital Compressor, the Speed Ratio for a Variable-Speed Compressor, or the Displacement Ratio for a Multi-Stage Compressor at Intermediate Capacity is 65% or less, and otherwise set equal to 1.0.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.4.5 Calculate average power input during the low load period as follows.
</P>
<P>Calculate the temperature, t<E T="52">IL</E>, in the following equation which the low load period box load <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) plus defrost heat contribution, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers), is less than the minimum net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), by solving the following equation for t<E T="52">IL</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IL</E>) + <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> = q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IL</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the temperature, t<E T="52">VL</E>, in the following equation which the low load period box load, <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), plus defrost heat contribution, <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers), is less than the intermediate net capacity, q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), by solving the following equation for t<E T="52">VL</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>BL
<AC T="b"/>L</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">VL</E>) + <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> = q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">VL</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">IL</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.051.gif"/>
<P>Where, <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) in W, is the condensing unit off-mode power consumption for temperature, t<E T="52">j</E>, determined as indicated in section 3.4.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For t<E T="52">IL</E> ≤ t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">VL</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.052.gif"/>
<P>For t<E T="52">VL</E> ≤ t<E T="52">j</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.053.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="53">k=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="52">j</E>) is the minimum-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) + 0.2 <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER
<SU>k=i</SU>(t<E T="52">j</E>) is the intermediate-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) + <I>K</I><E T="54">f</E> · <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER
<SU>k=2</SU>(t<E T="52">j</E>) is the maximum-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) + <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.4.6 Calculate average power input during the high load period as follows.
</P>
<P>Calculate the temperature t<E T="52">VH</E> in the following equation which the high load period box load <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) plus defrost heat contribution Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is less than the intermediate net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), by solving the following equation for t<E T="52">VH</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">VH</E>) + <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> = q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">VH</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>Calculate the temperature t<E T="52">IIH</E> in the following equation which the high load period box load <I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is less than the maximum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), by solving the following equation for t<E T="52">IIH</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>BL
<AC T="b"/>H</I>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IIH</E>) + <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> = q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">IIH</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>For t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">VH</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.054.gif"/>
<P>For t<E T="52">VH</E> ≤ t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">IIH</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.055.gif"/>
<P>For t<E T="52">IIH</E> ≤ t<E T="52">j</E>:
</P>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">H</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) = (<I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> (<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) + <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.4.7 Calculate the AWEF2 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.056.gif"/>
<HD3>3.4.5 Two-Capacity Indoor Matched Pairs or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems Other Than High-Temperature
</HD3>
<P>3.4.5.1 Defrost
</P>
<P>For freezer refrigeration systems, defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> in Btu/h and the defrost average power consumption <I>D
<AC T="b"/></I><I>F</I> in W shall be as measured in accordance with section C10.2.1 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<P>3.4.5.2 Calculate average power input during the low load period as follows.
</P>
<P>If the low load period box load <I>B</I><I>L
<AC T="b"/></I><I>L</I> plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is less than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.057.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> are the steady state refrigeration system minimum net capacity, in Btu/h, and associated refrigeration system power input, in W, respectively, for minimum-capacity operation, measured as described in AHRI 1250-2020.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E> and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off</E>, both in W, are the unit cooler and condensing unit, respectively, off-mode power consumption, measured as described in section C3.5 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</FP-2>
<P>If the low load period box load <I>B</I><I>L
<AC T="b"/></I><I>L</I> plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is greater than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.058.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> are the steady state refrigeration system maximum net capacity, in Btu/h, and associated refrigeration system power input, in W, respectively, for maximum-capacity operation, measured as described in AHRI 1250-2020.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.5.3 Calculate average power input during the high load period as follows.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.059.gif"/>
<P>3.4.5.4 Calculate the AWEF2 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.060.gif"/>
<HD3>3.4.6 Variable-Capacity or Multistage Indoor Matched Pairs or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems Other Than High-Temperature
</HD3>
<P>3.4.6.1 Defrost
</P>
<P>For freezer refrigeration systems, defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> in Btu/h and the defrost average power consumption <I>D
<AC T="b"/></I><I>F</I> in W shall be as measured in accordance with section C10.2.1 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<P>3.4.6.2 Calculate average power input during the low load period as follows.
</P>
<P>If the low load period box load <I>B</I><I>L
<AC T="b"/></I><I>L</I> plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is less than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.061.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> are the steady state refrigeration system minimum net capacity, in Btu/h, and associated refrigeration system power input, in W, respectively, for minimum-capacity operation, measured as described in AHRI 1250-2020; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E> and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off</E>, both in W, are the unit cooler and condensing unit, respectively, off-mode power consumption, measured as described in section C3.5 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</FP-2>
<P>If the low load period box load <I>B</I><I>L
<AC T="b"/></I><I>L</I> plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is greater than the minimum net capacity and less than the intermediate net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.062.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=1</E> is the minimum-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E> and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E> are the steady state refrigeration system intermediate net capacity, in Btu/h, and associated refrigeration system power input, in W, respectively, for intermediate-capacity operation, measured as described in AHRI 1250-2020.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=i</E> is the intermediate-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E> divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E>.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.6.3 Calculate average power input during the high load period as follows.
</P>
<P>If the high load period box load <I>B</I><I>L
<AC T="b"/></I><I>H</I> plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is greater than the minimum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E> and less than the intermediate net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.063.gif"/>
<P>If the high load period box load <I>B</I><I>L
<AC T="b"/></I><I>H</I> plus defrost heat contribution <I>Q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">DF</E> (only applicable for freezers) is greater than the intermediate net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E> and less than the maximum net capacity q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.064.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> and <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> are the steady state refrigeration system maximum net capacity, in Btu/h, and associated refrigeration system power input, in W, respectively, for maximum-capacity operation, measured as described in AHRI 1250-2020; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER
<SU>k=2</SU> is the maximum-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E> divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.6.4 Calculate the AWEF2 as follows.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.065.gif"/>
<HD3>3.4.7 Variable-Capacity or Multistage Outdoor Matched Pairs or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems Other Than High-Temperature
</HD3>
<P>Calculate AWEF2 as described in section 7.6 of AHRI 1250-2020, with the following revisions.
</P>
<P>3.4.7.1 Condensing Unit Off-Cycle Power
</P>
<P>Calculate condensing unit off-cycle power for temperature t<E T="52">j</E> as indicated in section 3.4.3.3 of this appendix. Replace the constant value <I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">CU,off</E> in Equations 55 and 70 of AHRI 1250-2020 with the values <I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">CU,off</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), which vary with outdoor temperature t<E T="52">j</E>.
</P>
<P>3.4.7.2 Unit Cooler Off-Cycle Power
</P>
<P>Set unit cooler Off-Cycle power <I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E> equal to the average of the unit cooler off-cycle power measurements made for test conditions A, B, and C.
</P>
<P>3.4.7.3 Average Power During the Low Load Period
</P>
<P>Calculate average power for intermediate-capacity compressor operation during the low load period <I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss,L</E><E T="53">k=v</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) as described in section 7.6 of AHRI 1250-2020, except that, instead of calculating intermediate-capacity compressor EER using Equation 77 of AHRI 1250-2020, calculate EER as follows.
</P>
<P>For t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">VL</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.066.gif"/>
<P>For t<E T="52">VL</E> ≤ t<E T="52">j</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.067.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=1</E>(t<E T="52">j</E>) is the minimum-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=1</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=i</E>(t<E T="52">j</E>) is the intermediate-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E> (<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=i</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER<E T="51">k=2</E>(t<E T="52">j</E>) is the maximum-capacity energy efficiency ratio, equal to q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k</E><E T="51">=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) divided by <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E><E T="53">k=2</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>)
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.7.4 Average Power During the High Load Period
</P>
<P>Calculate average power for intermediate-capacity compressor operation during the high load period <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss,H</E><E T="53">k=v</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>) as described in section 7.6 of AHRI 1250-2020, except that, instead of calculating intermediate-capacity compressor EER using Equation 61 of AHRI 1250-2020, calculate EER as follows:
</P>
<P>For t<E T="52">j</E> &lt; t<E T="52">VH</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.068.gif"/>
<P>For t<E T="52">VH</E> ≤ t<E T="52">j</E>:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.069.gif"/>
<HD3>3.4.8 Two-Capacity Outdoor Matched Pairs or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems Other Than High-Temperature
</HD3>
<P>Calculate AWEF2 as described in section 7.5 of AHRI 1250-2020, with the following revisions for Condensing Unit Off-Cycle Power and Unit Cooler Off-Cycle Power. Calculate condensing unit off-cycle power for temperature t<E T="52">j</E> as indicated in section 3.4.3.3 of this appendix. Replace the constant value <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">CU,off</E> in Equations 13 and 29 of AHRI 1250-2020 with the values <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">CU,off</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), which vary with outdoor temperature t<E T="52">j</E>. Set unit cooler Off-Cycle power <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E> equal to the average of the unit cooler off-cycle power measurements made for test conditions A, B, and C.
</P>
<HD3>3.4.9 Single-Capacity Outdoor Matched Pairs or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems Other Than High-Temperature
</HD3>
<P>Calculate AWEF2 as described in section 7.4 of AHRI 1250-2020, with the following revision for Condensing Unit Off-Cycle Power and Unit Cooler Off-cycle Power. Calculate condensing unit off-cycle power for temperature t<E T="52">j</E> as indicated in section 3.4.3.3 of this appendix. Replace the constant value <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">CU,off</E> in Equations 13 of AHRI 1250-2020 with the values <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">CU,off</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), which vary with outdoor temperature t<E T="52">j</E>. Set unit cooler Off-Cycle power <I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E> equal to the average of the unit cooler off-cycle power measurements made for test conditions A, B, and C.
</P>
<HD3>3.4.10 Single-Capacity Condensing Units, Outdoor
</HD3>
<P>Calculate AWEF2 as described in section 7.9 of AHRI 1250-2020, with the following revision for Condensing Unit Off-Cycle Power. Calculate condensing unit off-cycle power for temperature t<E T="52">j</E> as indicated in section 3.4.3.3 of this appendix rather than as indicated in Equations 157, 159, 202, and 204 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<HD3>3.4.11 High-Temperature Matched Pairs or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems, Indoor
</HD3>
<P>3.4.11.1 Calculate Load Factor LF as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.070.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>B
<AC T="b"/></I><I>L</I>, in Btu/h is the non-equipment-related box load calculated as described in section 3.3.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E>, in W, is the unit cooler off-cycle power consumption, equal to 0.1 times the unit cooler on-cycle power consumption; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss,A</E>, in Btu/h is the measured net capacity for test condition A.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.11.2 Calculate the AWEF2 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.071.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss,A</E>, in W, is the measured system power input for test condition A; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off</E>, in W, is the condensing unit off-cycle power consumption, measured as described in section C3.5 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</FP-2>
<HD3>3.4.12 High-Temperature Matched Pairs or Single-Packaged Refrigeration Systems, Outdoor
</HD3>
<P>3.4.12.1 Calculate Load Factor LF(t<E T="52">j</E>) for outdoor temperature t<E T="52">j</E> as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.072.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>B
<AC T="b"/></I><I>L</I>, in Btu/h, is the non-equipment-related box load calculated as described in section 3.3.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E>, in W, is the unit cooler off-cycle power consumption, equal to 0.1 times the unit cooler on-cycle power consumption; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ss</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>), in Btu/h, is the net capacity for outdoor temperature t<E T="52">j</E>, calculated as described in section 7.4.2 of AHRI 1250-2020.


</FP-2>
<P>3.4.12.2 Calculate the AWEF2 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21ja25.088.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>, in W, is the system power input for temperature t<E T="52">j</E>, calculated as described in section 7.4.2 of AHRI 1250-2020;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">cu,off</E>(<I>t</I><E T="54">j</E>, in W, is the condensing unit off-cycle power consumption for temperature t<E T="52">j</E>, determined as indicated in section 3.4.3.3 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="52">j</E> are the hours for temperature bin j.




</FP-2>
<HD3>3.4.13 High-Temperature Unit Coolers Tested Alone
</HD3>
<P>3.4.13.1 Calculate Refrigeration System Power Input as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.074.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">mix,evap</E>, in W, is the net evaporator capacity, measured as described in AHRI 1250-2020;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>, in W, is the unit cooler on-cycle power consumption; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EER, in W, equals
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.075.gif"/>
<P>3.4.13.2 Calculate the load factor LF as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.076.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>B</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>L</I>, in Btu/h, is the non-equipment-related box load calculated as described in section 3.3.3 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I>
<AC T="b"/><I>F</I><E T="54">comp,off</E>, in W, is the unit cooler off-cycle power consumption, equal to 0.1 times the unit cooler on-cycle power consumption.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.13.3 Calculate AWEF2 as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.077.gif"/>
<HD3>3.4.14 CO<E T="52">2</E> Unit Coolers Tested Alone
</HD3>
<P>Calculate AWEF2 for CO<E T="52">2</E> Unit Coolers Tested Alone using the calculations specified in in section 7.8 of AHRI 1250-2020 for calculation of AWEF2 for Unit Cooler Tested Alone.
</P>
<HD2>3.5 Test Method
</HD2>
<P>Test the Refrigeration System in accordance with AHRI 1250-2020 to determine refrigeration capacity and power input for the specified test conditions, with revisions and additions as described in this section.
</P>
<HD3>3.5.1 Chamber Conditioning Using the Unit Under Test
</HD3>
<P>In Appendix C, section C5.2.2 of AHRI 1250-2020, for applicable system configurations (matched pairs, single-packaged refrigeration systems, and standalone unit coolers), the unit under test may be used to aid in achieving the required test chamber conditions prior to beginning any steady state test. However, the unit under test must be inspected and confirmed to be free from frost before initiating steady state testing.
</P>
<HD3>3.5.2 General Modification: Methods of Testing
</HD3>
<P>3.5.2.1 Refrigerant Temperature Measurements
</P>
<P>When testing a condensing unit alone, measure refrigerant liquid temperature leaving the condensing unit, and the refrigerant vapor temperature entering the condensing unit as required in section C7.5.1.1.2 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020 using the same measurement approach specified for the unit cooler in section C3.1.3 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020. In all cases in which thermometer wells or immersed sheathed sensors are prescribed, if the refrigerant tube outer diameter is less than 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch, the refrigerant temperature may be measured using the average of two temperature measuring instruments with a minimum accuracy of ±0.5 °F placed on opposite sides of the refrigerant tube surface—resulting in a total of up to 8 temperature measurement devices used for the DX Dual Instrumentation method. In this case, the refrigerant tube shall be insulated with 1-inch thick insulation from a point 6 inches upstream of the measurement location to a point 6 inches downstream of the measurement location. Also, to comply with this requirement, the unit cooler/evaporator entering measurement location may be moved to a location 6 inches upstream of the expansion device and, when testing a condensing unit alone, the entering and leaving measurement locations may be moved to locations 6 inches from the respective service valves.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.2 Mass Flow Meter Location
</P>
<P>When using the DX Dual Instrumentation test method of AHRI 1250-2020, applicable for unit coolers, dedicated condensing units, and matched pairs, the second mass flow meter may be installed in the suction line as shown in Figure C1 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.3 Subcooling at Refrigerant Mass Flow Meter
</P>
<P>In section C3.4.5 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020, when verifying subcooling at the mass flow meters, only the sight glass and a temperature sensor located on the tube surface under the insulation are required. Subcooling shall be verified to be within the 3 °F requirement downstream of flow meters located in the same chamber as a condensing unit under test and upstream of flow meters located in the same chamber as a unit cooler under test, rather than always downstream as indicated in AHRI 1250-2009, section C3.4.5. If the subcooling is less than 3 °F when testing a unit cooler, dedicated condensing unit, or matched pair (not a single-packaged system), cool the line between the condensing unit outlet and this location to achieve the required subcooling. When providing such cooling while testing a matched pair (a) set up the line-cooling system and also set up apparatus to heat the liquid line between the mass flow meters and the unit cooler, (b) when the system has achieved steady state without activation of the heating and cooling systems, measure the liquid temperature entering the expansion valve for a period of at least 30 minutes, (c) activate the cooling system to provide the required subcooling at the mass flow meters, (d) if necessary, apply heat such that the temperature entering the expansion valve is within 0.5 °F of the temperature measured during step (b), and (e) proceed with measurements once condition (d) has been verified.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.4 Installation Instructions
</P>
<P>Manufacturer installation instructions or installation instructions described in this section refer to the instructions that come packaged with or appear on the labels applied to the unit. This does not include online manuals.
</P>
<P><I>Installation Instruction Hierarchy:</I> If a given installation instruction provided on the label(s) applied to the unit conflicts with the installation instructions that are shipped with the unit, the label takes precedence. For testing of matched pairs, the installation instructions for the dedicated condensing unit shall take precedence. Setup shall be in accordance with the field installation instructions (laboratory installation instructions shall not be used). Achieving test conditions shall always take precedence over installation instructions.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.5. Refrigerant Charging and Adjustment of Superheat and Subcooling.
</P>
<P>All dedicated condensing systems (dedicated condensing units tested alone, matched pairs, and single packaged dedicated systems) that use flooding of the condenser for head pressure control during low-ambient-temperature conditions shall be charged, and superheat and/or subcooling shall be set, at Refrigeration C test conditions unless otherwise specified in the installation instructions.
</P>
<P>If after being charged at Refrigeration C condition the unit under test does not operate at the Refrigeration A condition due to high pressure cut out, refrigerant shall be removed in increments of 4 ounces or 5 percent of the test unit's receiver capacity, whichever quantity is larger, until the unit operates at the Refrigeration A condition. All tests shall be run at this final refrigerant charge. If less than 0 °F of subcooling is measured for the refrigerant leaving the condensing unit when testing at B or C condition, calculate the refrigerant-enthalpy-based capacity (<I>i.e.</I>, when using the DX dual instrumentation, the DX calibrated box, or single-packaged unit refrigerant enthalpy method) assuming that the refrigerant is at saturated liquid conditions at the condensing unit exit.
</P>
<P>All dedicated condensing systems that do not use a flooded condenser design shall be charged at Refrigeration A test conditions unless otherwise specified in the installation instructions.
</P>
<P>If the installation instructions give a specified range for superheat, sub-cooling, or refrigerant pressure, the average of the range shall be used as the refrigerant charging parameter target and the test condition tolerance shall be ±50 percent of the range. Perform charging of near-azeotropic and zeotropic refrigerants only with refrigerant in the liquid state. Once the correct refrigerant charge is determined, all tests shall run until completion without further modification.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.5.1. When charging or adjusting superheat/subcooling, use all pertinent instructions contained in the installation instructions to achieve charging parameters within the tolerances. However, in the event of conflicting charging information between installation instructions, follow the installation instruction hierarchy listed in section 3.5.2.4. Conflicting information is defined as multiple conditions given for charge adjustment where all conditions specified cannot be met. In the event of conflicting information within the same set of charging instructions (e.g., the installation instructions shipped with the dedicated condensing unit), follow the hierarchy in Table 19 for priority. Unless the installation instructions specify a different charging tolerance, the tolerances identified in table 19 of this appendix shall be used.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 19—Test Condition Tolerances and Hierarchy for Refrigerant Charging and Setting of Refrigerant Conditions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Priority
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Fixed orifice
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Expansion Valve
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parameter with installation


<br/>instruction target
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tolerance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Parameter with installation


<br/>instruction target
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tolerance
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Superheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Subcooling</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% of the Target Value; No less than ±0.5 °F, No more than ±2.0 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Side Pressure or Saturation Temperature*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±4.0 psi or ±1.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Side Pressure or Saturation Temperature*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±4.0 psi or


<br/>±1.0 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Side Pressure or Saturation Temperature*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 psi or ±0.8 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Superheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Side Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Side Pressure or Saturation Temperature *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 psi or


<br/>±0.8 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Side Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Approach Temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±1.0 °F
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Charge Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">±2.0 oz</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Charge Weight</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5% or 1.0 oz, whichever is greater
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Saturation temperature can refer to either bubble or dew point calculated based on a measured pressure, or a coil temperature measurement, as specified by the installation instructions.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.5.2.5.2. <I>Dedicated Condensing Unit.</I>
</P>
<P>If the Dedicated Condensing Unit includes a receiver and the subcooling target leaving the condensing unit provided in installation instructions cannot be met without fully filling the receiver, the subcooling target shall be ignored. Likewise, if the Dedicated Condensing unit does not include a receiver and the subcooling target leaving the condensing unit cannot be met without the unit cycling off on high pressure, the subcooling target can be ignored. Also, if no instructions for charging or for setting subcooling leaving the condensing unit are provided in the installation instructions, the refrigeration system shall be set up with a charge quantity and/or exit subcooling such that the unit operates during testing without shutdown (e.g., on a high-pressure switch) and operation of the unit is otherwise consistent with the requirements of the test procedure of this appendix and the installation instructions.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.5.3. <I>Unit Cooler.</I> Use the shipped expansion device for testing. Otherwise, use the expansion device specified in the installation instructions. If the installation instructions specify multiple options for the expansion device, any specified expansion device may be used. The supplied expansion device shall be adjusted until either the superheat target is met, or the device reaches the end of its adjustable range. In the event the device reaches the end of its adjustable range and the super heat target is not met, test with the adjustment at the end of its range providing the closest match to the superheat target, and the test condition tolerance for super heat target shall be ignored. The measured superheat is not subject to a test operating tolerance. However, if the evaporator exit condition is used to determine capacity using the DX dual instrumentation method or the refrigerant enthalpy method, individual superheat value measurements may not be equal to or less than zero. If this occurs, or if the operating tolerances of measurements affected by expansion device fluctuation are exceeded, the expansion device shall be replaced, operated at an average superheat value higher than the target, or both, in order to avoid individual superheat value measurements less than zero and/or to meet the required operating tolerances.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.5.4. <I>Single-Packaged Unit.</I> Unless otherwise directed by the installation instructions, install one or more refrigerant line pressure gauges during the setup of the unit, located depending on the parameters used to verify or set charge, as described in this section:
</P>
<P>3.5.2.5.4.1. Install a pressure gauge in the liquid line if charging is on the basis of subcooling, or high side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew point temperature.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.5.4.2. Install a pressure gauge in the suction line if charging is on the basis of superheat, or low side pressure or corresponding saturation or dew point temperature. Install this gauge as close to the evaporator as allowable by the installation instructions and the physical constraints of the unit. Use methods for installing pressure gauge(s) at the required location(s) as indicated in the installation instructions if specified.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.5.4.3. If the installation instructions indicate that refrigerant line pressure gauges should not be installed and the unit fails to operate due to high-pressure or low-pressure compressor cut off, then a charging port shall be installed, and the unit shall be evacuated of refrigerant and charged to the nameplate charge.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.6 Ducted Units
</P>
<P>For systems with ducted evaporator air, or that can be installed with or without ducted evaporator air: Connect ductwork on both the inlet and outlet connections and determine external static pressure (ESP) as described in sections 6.4 and 6.5 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37. Use pressure measurement instrumentation as described in section 5.3.2 of ANSI/ASHRAE 37. Test at the fan speed specified in the installation instructions—if there is more than one fan speed setting and the installation instructions do not specify which speed to use, test at the highest speed. Conduct tests with the ESP equal to 50% of the maximum ESP allowed in the installation instructions, within a tolerance of −0.00/+0.05 inches of water column. If the installation instructions do not provide the maximum ESP, the ESP shall be set for testing such that the air volume rate is 
<FR>2/3</FR> of the air volume rate measured when the ESP is 0.00 inches of water column within a tolerance of −0.00/+0.05 inches of water column.
</P>
<P>If testing using either the indoor or outdoor air enthalpy method to measure the air volume rate, adjust the airflow measurement apparatus fan to set the external static pressure—otherwise, set the external static pressure by symmetrically restricting the outlet of the test duct. In case of conflict, these requirements for setting airflow take precedence over airflow values specified in manufacturer installation instructions or product literature.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.7. Two-Speed or Multiple-Speed Evaporator Fans. Two-Speed or Multiple-Speed evaporator fans shall be considered to meet the qualifying control requirements of section C4.2 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020 for measuring off-cycle fan energy if they use a fan speed no less than 50% of the speed used in the maximum capacity tests.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.8. Defrost
</P>
<P>Use section C10.2.1 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020 for defrost testing. The Test Room Conditioning Equipment requirement of section C10.2.1.1 of Appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020 does not apply.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.8.1 Adaptive Defrost
</P>
<P>When testing to certify compliance to the energy conservation standards, use N<E T="52">DF</E> = 4, as instructed in section C10.2.1.7 or C10.2.2.1 of AHRI 1250-2020. When determining the represented value of the calculated benefit for the inclusion of adaptive defrost, use N<E T="52">DF</E> = 2.5, as instructed in section C10.2.1.7 or C10.2.2.1 of AHRI 1250-2020.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.8.2 Hot Gas Defrost
</P>
<P>When testing to certify compliance to the energy conservation standards, remove the hot gas defrost mechanical components and disconnect all such components from electrical power. Test the units as if they are electric defrost units, but do not conduct the defrost tests described in section C10.2.1 of AHRI 1250-2020. Use the defrost heat and power consumption values as described in section C10.2.2 of AHRI 1250-2020 for the AWEF2 calculations.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.9 Dedicated condensing units that are not matched for testing and are not single-packaged dedicated systems.
</P>
<P>The temperature measurement requirements of sections C3.1.3 and C4.1.3.1 appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020 shall apply only to the condensing unit exit rather than to the unit cooler inlet and outlet, and they shall be applied for two measurements when using the DX Dual Instrumentation test method.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10. Single-packaged dedicated systems
</P>
<P>Use the test method in section C9 of appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020 (including the applicable provisions of ASHRAE 16-2016, ASHRAE 23.1-2010, ASHRAE 37-2009, and ASHRAE 41.6-2014, as referenced in section C9.1 of AHRI 1250-2020) as the method of test for single-packaged dedicated systems, with modifications as described in this section. Use two test methods listed in table 20 of this appendix to calculate the net capacity and power consumption. The test method listed with a lower “Hierarchy Number” and that has “Primary” as an allowable use in table 20 of this appendix shall be considered the primary measurement and used as the net capacity.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 20—Single-Packaged Methods of Test and Hierarchy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hierarchy number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Method of test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test hierarchy
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Balanced Ambient Indoor Calorimeter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Primary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoor Air Enthalpy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Primary or Secondary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indoor Room Calorimeter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Primary or Secondary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Calibrated Box</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Primary or Secondary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Balanced Ambient Outdoor Calorimeter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secondary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outdoor Air Enthalpy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secondary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outdoor Room Calorimeter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secondary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-Packaged Refrigerant Enthalpy 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secondary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Compressor Calibration</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Secondary.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Notes:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See description of the single-packaged refrigerant enthalpy method in section 3.5.2.10.1 of this appendix.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>3.5.2.10.1 Single-Packaged Refrigerant Enthalpy Method
</P>
<P>The single-packaged refrigerant enthalpy method shall follow the test procedure of the DX Calibrated Box method in AHRI 1250-2020, appendix C, section C8 for refrigerant-side measurements with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.1.1 Air-side measurements shall follow the requirements of the primary single-packaged method listed in table 20 of this appendix. The air-side measurements and refrigerant-side measurements shall be collected over the same intervals.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.1.2 A preliminary test at Test Rating Condition A is required using the primary method prior to any modification necessary to install the refrigerant-side measuring instruments. Install surface mount temperature sensors on the evaporator and condenser coils at locations not affected by liquid subcooling or vapor superheat (i.e., near the midpoint of the coil at a return bend), entering and leaving the compressor, and entering the expansion device. These temperature sensors shall be included in the regularly recorded data.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.1.3 After the preliminary test is completed, the refrigerant shall be removed from the equipment and the refrigerant-side measuring instruments shall be installed. The equipment shall then be evacuated and recharged with refrigerant. Once the equipment is operating at Test Condition A, the refrigerant charge shall be adjusted until, as compared to the average values from the preliminary test, the following conditions are achieved:
</P>
<P>(a) Each on-coil temperature sensor indicates a reading that is within ±1.0 °F of the measurement in the initial test,
</P>
<P>(b) The temperatures of the refrigerant entering and leaving the compressor are within ±4 °F, and
</P>
<P>(c) The refrigerant temperature entering the expansion device is within ±1 °F.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.1.4 Once these conditions have been achieved over an interval of at least 10 minutes, refrigerant charging equipment shall be removed and the official tests shall be conducted.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.1.5 The lengths of liquid line to be added shall be 5 feet maximum, not including the requisite flow meter. This maximum length applies to each circuit separately.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.1.6 Use section C9.2 of appendix C of AHRI 1250-2020 for allowable refrigeration capacity heat balance. Calculate the single-packaged refrigerant enthalpy (secondary) method test net capacity
</P>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">net,secondary</E> as follows: Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">net,secondary</E> = Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ref-3.412</E>·<I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E>−Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">sploss</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">ref</E> is the gross capacity;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E
<AC T="b"/>F</I><E T="54">comp,on</E> is the evaporator compartment on-cycle power, including evaporator fan power; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">sploss</E> is a duct loss calculation applied to the evaporator compartment of the single-packaged systems, which is calculated as indicated in the following equation.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q
<AC T="b"/><E T="54">sploss</E> = <I>UA</I><E T="54">cond</E> × (<I>T</I><E T="54">evapside</E> − <I>T</I><E T="54">condside</E>) + <I>UA</I><E T="54">amb</E> × (<I>T</I><E T="54">evapside</E> − <I>T</I><E T="54">amb</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<P>UA<E T="52">cond</E> and UA<E T="52">amb</E> are, for the condenser/evaporator partition and the evaporator compartment walls exposed to ambient air, respectively, the product of the overall heat transfer coefficient and surface area of the unit as manufactured, <I>i.e.</I> without external insulation that might have been added during the test. The areas shall be calculated based on measurements, and the thermal resistance values shall be based on insulation thickness and insulation material;
</P>
<P>T<E T="52">evapside</E> is the air temperature in the evaporator compartment—the measured evaporator air inlet temperature may be used;
</P>
<P>T<E T="52">condside</E> is the air temperature in the condenser compartment—the measured chamber ambient temperature may be used, or a measurement may be made using a temperature sensor placed inside the condenser box at least 6 inches distant from any part of the refrigeration system; and
</P>
<P>T<E T="52">amb</E> is the air temperature outside the single-packaged system.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.1.7 For multi-circuit single-packaged systems utilizing the single-packaged refrigerant enthalpy method, apply the test method separately for each circuit and sum the separately-calculated refrigerant-side gross refrigeration capacities.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2 Calibrated Box Test Procedure
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.1 Measurements. Refer to section C3 of AHRI 1250-2020 (including the applicable provisions of ASHRAE 41.1-2013, ASHRAE 41.3-2014, and ASHRAE 41.10-2013, as referenced in section C3 of AHRI 1250-2020) for requirements of air-side and refrigerant-side measurements.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.2 Apparatus setup for Calibrated Box Calibration and Test. Refer to section C5 of AHRI 1250-2020 and section C8 of AHRI 1250-2020 for specific test setup.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.3 The calibrated box shall be installed in a temperature-controlled enclosure in which the temperature can be maintained at a constant level. When using the calibrated box method for Single-Packaged Dedicated Systems, the enclosure air temperature shall be maintained such that the condenser air entering conditions are as specified for the test.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2. The temperature-controlled enclosure shall be of a size that will provide clearances of not less than 18 in at all sides, top and bottom, except that clearance of any one surface may be reduced to not less than 5.5 inches.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.5 The heat leakage of the calibrated box shall be noted in the test report.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.6 Refrigerant lines within the calibrated box shall be well insulated to avoid appreciable heat loss or gain.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.7 Instruments for measuring the temperature around the outside of the calibrated box to represent the enclosure temperature T<E T="52">en</E> shall be located at the center of each wall, ceiling, and floor. Exception: in the case where a clearance around the outside of the calibrated box, as indicated in section 3.5.2.10.2.4 of this appendix, is reduced to less than 18 inches, the number of temperature measuring devices on the outside of that surface shall be increased to six, which shall be treated as a single temperature to be averaged with the temperature of each of the other five surfaces. The six temperature measuring instruments shall be located at the center of six rectangular sections of equal area. If the refrigeration system is mounted at the location that would cover the center of the face on which it is mounted, up to four temperature measurements shall be used on that face to represent its temperature. Each sensor shall be aligned with the center of the face's nearest outer edge and centered on the distance between that edge and the single-packaged unit (this is illustrated in figure C5 of this section when using surface temperature sensors), and they shall be treated as a single temperature to be averaged with the temperature of each of the other five surfaces. However, any of these sensors shall be omitted if either (a) the distance between the outer edge and the single-packaged unit is less than one foot or (b) if the sensor location would be within two feet of any of the foot square surfaces discussed in section 3.5.2.10.2.8 of this appendix representing a warm discharge air impingement area. In this case, the remaining sensors shall be used to represent the average temperature for the surface.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.8 One of the following two approaches shall be used for the box external temperature measurement. Box calibration and system capacity measurement shall both be done using the same one of these approaches. 1: Air temperature sensors. Each temperature sensor shall be at a distance of 6 inches from the calibrated box. If the clearance from a surface of the box (allowed for one surface only) is less than 12 inches, the temperature measuring instruments shall be located midway between the outer wall of the calibrated box and the adjacent surface. 2: Surface temperature sensors. Surface temperature sensors shall be mounted on the calibrated box surfaces to represent the enclosure temperature, T<E T="52">en</E>.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.9 Additional surface temperature sensors may be used to measure external hot spots during refrigeration system testing. If this is done, two temperature sensors shall be used to measure the average temperature of the calibrated box surface covered by the condensing section—they shall be located centered on equal-area rectangles comprising the covered calibrated box surface whose common sides span the short dimension of this surface. Additional surface temperature sensors may be used to measure box surfaces on which warm condenser discharge air impinges. A pattern of square surfaces measuring one foot square shall be mapped out to represent the hot spot upon which the warm condenser air impinges. One temperature sensor shall be used to measure surface temperature at the center of each square (see figure C5 of this section). A drawing showing this pattern and identifying the surface temperature sensors shall be provided in the test report. The average surface temperature of the overall calibrated box outer surface during testing shall be calculated as follows.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.078.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">i</E> is the surface area of the ith of the six calibrated box surfaces;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I><E T="54">i</E> is the average temperature measured for the ith surface;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">j</E> is half of the surface area of the calibrated box covered by the condensing section;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T'</I><E T="54">j</E> is the jth of the two temperature measurements underneath the condensing section;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I><E T="54">1</E> is the average temperature of the four or fewer measurements representing the temperature of the face on which the single-packaged system is mounted, prior to adjustments associated with hot spots based on measurements <I>T</I><E T="54">j</E> and/or <I>T</I><E T="54">k</E><I>;</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">k</E> is the area of the kth of n 1-square-foot surfaces used to measure the condenser discharge impingement area hot spot; and,
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T”</I><E T="54">k</E> is the kth of the n temperature measurements of the condenser discharge impingement area hot spot.
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.079.gif"/>
<FP-1>Figure C5: Illustration of Layout of Surface Temperature Sensors on Face of Calibrated Box on which Single-Packaged Dedicated System is Mounted when Using Section 3.5.2.10.2.7 of Appendix C to this Part.3.5.2.10.2.10 Heating means inside the calibrated box shall be shielded or installed in a manner to avoid radiation to the Single-Packaged Dedicated System, the temperature measuring instruments, and to the walls of the box. The heating means shall be constructed to avoid stratification of temperature, and suitable means shall be provided for distributing the temperature uniformly.
</FP-1>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.11 The average air dry-bulb temperature in the calibrated box during Single-Packaged Dedicated System tests and calibrated box heat leakage tests shall be the average of eight temperatures measured at the corners of the box at a distance of 2 inches to 4 inches from the walls. The instruments shall be shielded from any cold or warm surfaces except that they shall not be shielded from the adjacent walls of the box. The Single-Packaged Dedicated System under test shall be mounted such that the temperature instruments are not in the direct air stream from the discharge of the Single-Packaged Dedicated System.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.12 Calibration of the Calibrated Box. Calibration of the Calibrated Box shall occur prior to installation of the Single-Packaged Dedicated System. This shall be done either (a) prior to cutting the opening needed to install the Single-Packaged Dedicated System, or (b) with an insulating panel with the same thickness and thermal resistance as the box wall installed in the opening intended for the Single-Packaged Dedicated System installation. Care shall be taken to avoid thermal shorts in the location of the opening either during calibration or during subsequent installation of the Single-Packaged Dedicated System. A calibration test shall be made for air movements comparable to those expected for Single-Packaged Dedicated System capacity measurement, <I>i.e.,</I> with air volume flow rate within 10 percent of the air volume flow rate of the Single-Packaged Dedicated System evaporator.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.13 The heat input shall be adjusted to maintain an average box temperature not less than 25.0 °F above the test enclosure temperature.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.14 The average dry-bulb temperature inside the calibrated box shall not vary more than 1.0 °F over the course of the calibration test.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.15 A calibration test shall be the average of 11 consecutive hourly readings when the box has reached a steady-state temperature condition.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.16 The box temperature shall be the average of all readings after a steady-state temperature condition has been reached.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.17 The calibrated box has reached a steady-state temperature condition when: The average box temperature is not less than 25 °F above the test enclosure temperature. Temperature variations do not exceed 5.0 °F between temperature measuring stations. Temperatures do not vary by more than 2 °F at any one temperature- measuring station.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.18 Data to be Measured and Recorded. Refer to Table C5 in section C6.2 of AHRI 1250-2020 for the required data that need to measured and recorded.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.10.2.19 Refrigeration Capacity Calculation.
</P>
<P>The heat leakage coefficient of the calibrated box is calculated by
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my23.080.gif"/>
<P>For each Dry Rating Condition, calculate the Net Capacity:
</P>
<FP-1><I>q
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">ss</E> = <I>K</I><E T="54">cb</E> (<I>T</I><E T="54">en</E>−<I>T</I><E T="54">cb</E>) + 3.412 × <I>E
<AC T="b"/></I><E T="54">c</E>
</FP-1>
<P>3.5.2.10.3 Detachable single-packaged systems shall be tested as single-packaged dedicated refrigeration systems.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.11 <I>Variable-Capacity and Multiple-Capacity Dedicated Condensing Refrigeration Systems</I>
</P>
<P>3.5.2.11.1 Manufacturer-Provided Equipment Overrides
</P>
<P>Where needed, the manufacturer must provide a means for overriding the controls of the test unit so that the compressor(s) operates at the specified speed or capacity and the indoor blower operates at the speed consistent with the compressor operating level as would occur without override.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.11.2 Compressor Operating Levels
</P>
<P>For variable-capacity and multiple-capacity compressor systems, the minimum capacity for testing shall be the minimum capacity that the system control would operate the compressor in normal operation. Likewise, the maximum capacity for testing shall be the maximum capacity that the system control would operate the compressor in normal operation. For variable-speed compressor systems, the intermediate speed for testing shall be the average of the minimum and maximum speeds. For digital compressor systems, the intermediate duty cycle shall be the average of the minimum and maximum duty cycles. For multiple-capacity compressor systems with three capacity levels, the intermediate operating level for testing shall be the middle capacity level. For multiple-capacity compressor systems with more than three capacity levels, the intermediate operating level for testing shall be the level whose displacement ratio is closest to the average of the maximum and minimum displacement ratios.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.11.3 Refrigeration Systems with Digital Compressor(s)
</P>
<P>Use the test methods described in section 3.5.2.10.1 of this appendix as the secondary method of test for refrigeration systems with digital compressor(s) with modifications as described in this section. The Test Operating tolerance for refrigerant mass flow rate and suction pressure in Table 2 of AHRI 1250-2020 shall be ignored. Temperature and pressure measurements used to calculate shall be recorded at a frequency of once per second or faster and based on average values measured over the 30-minute test period.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.11.3.1 For Matched pair (not including single-packaged systems) and Dedicated Condensing Unit refrigeration systems, the preliminary test in sections 3.5.2.10.1.2 and 3.5.2.10.1.3 of this appendix is not required. The liquid line and suction line shall be 25 feet ± 3 inches, not including the requisite flow meters. Also, the term in the equation to calculate net capacity shall be set equal to zero.
</P>
<P>3.5.2.11.3.2 For Dedicated Condensing Unit refrigeration systems, the primary capacity measurement method shall be balanced ambient outdoor calorimeter, outdoor air enthalpy, or outdoor room calorimeter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 28843, May 4, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 73217, Oct. 25, 2023; 90 FR 6795, Jan. 21, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.19" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Metal Halide Lamp Ballasts and Fixtures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 12075, Mar. 23, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.321" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.19.73.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.321   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains energy conservation requirements for metal halide lamp ballasts and fixtures, pursuant to Part A of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6309.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10966, Mar. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.322" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.19.73.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.322   Definitions concerning metal halide lamp ballasts and fixtures.</HEAD>
<P><I>Active mode</I> means the condition in which an energy-using product:
</P>
<P>(1) Is connected to a main power source;
</P>
<P>(2) Has been activated; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provides one or more main functions.
</P>
<P><I>Ballast</I> means a device used with an electric discharge lamp to obtain necessary circuit conditions (voltage, current, and waveform) for starting and operating.
</P>
<P><I>Ballast efficiency</I> means, in the case of a high intensity discharge fixture, the efficiency of a lamp and ballast combination, expressed as a percentage, and calculated in accordance with the following formula: Efficiency = P<E T="52">out</E>/P<E T="52">in</E> where:
</P>
<P>(1) P<E T="52">out</E> equals the measured operating lamp wattage; and
</P>
<P>(2) P<E T="52">in</E> equals the measured operating input wattage.
</P>
<P>(3) The lamp, and the capacitor when the capacitor is provided, shall constitute a nominal system in accordance with the ANSI C78.43-2017 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.323);
</P>
<P>(4) For ballasts with a frequency of 60 Hz, Pin and Pout shall be measured after lamps have been stabilized according to Section 4.4 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.323) using a wattmeter with accuracy specified in Section 4.5 of ANSI C82.6-2015; and
</P>
<P>(5) For ballasts with a frequency greater than 60 Hz, Pin and Pout shall have a basic accuracy of ±0.5 percent at the higher of either 3 times the output operating frequency of the ballast or 2.4 kHz.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given type of covered product (or class thereof) manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and which have essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency, and are rated to operate a given lamp type and wattage.
</P>
<P><I>Ceramic metal halide lamp</I> means a metal halide lamp with an arc tube made of ceramic materials.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic ballast</I> means a device that uses semiconductors as the primary means to control lamp starting and operation.
</P>
<P><I>General lighting application</I> means lighting that provides an interior or exterior area with overall illumination.
</P>
<P><I>High-frequency electronic metal halide ballast</I> means an electronic ballast that operates a lamp at an output frequency of 1000 Hz or greater.
</P>
<P><I>Metal halide ballast</I> means a ballast used to start and operate metal halide lamps.
</P>
<P><I>Metal halide lamp</I> means a high intensity discharge lamp in which the major portion of the light is produced by radiation of metal halides and their products of dissociation, possibly in combination with metallic vapors.
</P>
<P><I>Metal halide lamp fixture</I> means a light fixture for general lighting application designed to be operated with a metal halide lamp and a ballast for a metal halide lamp.
</P>
<P><I>Nonpulse-start electronic ballast</I> means an electronic ballast with a starting method other than pulse-start.
</P>
<P><I>Off mode</I> means the condition in which an energy-using product:
</P>
<P>(1) Is connected to a main power source; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not providing any standby or active mode function.
</P>
<P><I>PLC control signal</I> means a power line carrier (PLC) signal that is supplied to the ballast using the input ballast wiring for the purpose of controlling the ballast and putting the ballast in standby mode.
</P>
<P><I>Probe-start metal halide ballast</I> means a ballast that starts a probe-start metal halide lamp that contains a third starting electrode (probe) in the arc tube, and does not generally contain an igniter but instead starts lamps with high ballast open circuit voltage.
</P>
<P><I>Pulse-start metal halide ballast</I> means an electronic or electromagnetic ballast that starts a pulse-start metal halide lamp with high voltage pulses, where lamps shall be started by the ballast first providing a high voltage pulse for ionization of the gas to produce a glow discharge and then power to sustain the discharge through the glow-to-arc transition.
</P>
<P><I>Quartz metal halide lamp</I> means a metal halide lamp with an arc tube made of quartz materials.
</P>
<P><I>Reference lamp</I> is a metal halide lamp that meets the operating conditions of a reference lamp as defined by ANSI C82.9-2016 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.323).
</P>
<P><I>Standby mode</I> means the condition in which an energy-using product:
</P>
<P>(1) Is connected to a main power source; and
</P>
<P>(2) Offers one or more of the following user-oriented or protective functions:
</P>
<P>(i) To facilitate the activation or deactivation of other functions (including active mode) by remote switch (including remote control), internal sensor, or timer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Continuous functions, including information or status displays (including clocks) or sensor-based functions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12075, Mar. 23, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 10966, Mar. 9, 2010; 74 FR 12074, Mar. 23, 2009; 79 FR 7843, Feb. 10, 2014; 87 FR 37699, June 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="73" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.19.73" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.323" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.19.73.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.323   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ANSI.</I> American National Standards Institute, 25 W. 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York, NY 10036; 212-642-4900; <I>www.ansi.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI C78.43-2017, American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Single-Ended Metal Halide Lamps, approved December 21, 2017; IBR approved for § 431.324.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI C78.44-2016, American National Standard for Electric Lamps—Double-Ended Metal Halide Lamps, approved July 1, 2016; IBR approved for § 431.324.
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020), American National Standard for Lamp Ballasts—Ballasts for High-Intensity Discharge Lamps—Methods of Measurement, approved March 30, 2020; IBR approved for §§ 431.322; 431.324.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI C82.9-2016, American National Standard for Lamp Ballasts—High Intensity Discharge and Low-Pressure Sodium Lamps—Definitions, approved July 12, 2016; IBR approved for §§ 431.322; 431.324.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IEC.</I> International Electrotechnical Commission, 3 rue de Varembé, 1st Floor, P.O. Box 131, CH—1211 Geneva 20—Switzerland, +41 22 919 02 11, or go to <I>webstore.iec.ch/home.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEC 63103, Lighting Equipment—Non-active Mode Power Measurement, Edition 1.0, dated 2020-07; IBR approved for § 431.324.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NFPA.</I> National Fire Protection Association, 11 Tracy Drive, Avon, MA 02322, 1-800-344-3555, or go to <I>http://www.nfpa.org;</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFPA 70-2002 (“NFPA 70”), National Electrical Code 2002 Edition, IBR approved for § 431.326;
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) UL. Underwriters Laboratories, Inc., COMM 2000, 1414 Brook Drive, Downers Grove, IL 60515, 1-888-853-3503, or go to <I>http://www.ul.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) UL 1029 (ANSI/UL 1029-2007) (“UL 1029”), Standard for Safety High-Intensity-Discharge Lamp Ballasts, 5th edition, May 25, 1994, which consists of pages dated May 25, 1994, September 28, 1995, August 3, 1998, February 7, 2001 and December 11, 2007, IBR approved for § 431.326.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12075, Mar. 23, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 10966, Mar. 9, 2010; 87 FR 37699, June 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.324" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.19.73.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.324   Uniform test method for the measurement of energy efficiency and standby mode energy consumption of metal halide lamp ballasts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides test procedures for measuring, pursuant to EPCA, the energy efficiency of metal halide lamp ballasts. After July 25, 2022, and prior to December 21, 2022, any representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of metal halide lamp fixtures must be in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this section or the test procedures as they appeared in 10 CFR 431.324 as it appeared in the 10 CFR parts 200-499 edition revised as of January 1, 2022. On or after December 21, 2022, any representations, including certifications of compliance for metal halide lamp fixtures subject to any energy conservation standard, made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of metal halide lamp fixtures must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Active mode procedure</I>—(1) <I>General instructions.</I> Specifications in referenced standards that are recommended, that “shall” or “should” be met, or that are not otherwise explicitly optional, are mandatory. In cases where there is a conflict between any industry standard(s) and this section, the language of the test procedure in this section takes precedence over the industry standard(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test conditions and setup.</I> (i) The power supply, ballast conditions, lamp position, and instrumentation must all conform to the requirements specified in Section 4.0 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020) (incorporated by reference; see § 431.323).
</P>
<P>(ii) Airflow in the room for the testing period must be ≤0.5 meters/second.
</P>
<P>(iii) Test circuits must be in accordance with the circuit connections specified in Section 6.3 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020).
</P>
<P>(iv) For ballasts designed to operate lamps rated less than 150 W that have 120 V as an available input voltage, testing must be performed at 120 V. For ballasts designed to operate lamps rated less than 150 W that do not have 120 V as an available voltage, testing must be performed at the highest available input voltage. For ballasts designed to operate lamps rated greater than or equal to 150 W that have 277 V as an available input voltage, testing must be conducted at 277 V. For ballasts designed to operate lamps rated greater than or equal to 150 W that do not have 277 V as an available input voltage, testing must be conducted at the highest available input voltage.
</P>
<P>(v) Operate dimming ballasts at maximum input power.
</P>
<P>(vi) Select the metal halide lamp for testing as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The metal halide lamp used for testing must meet the specifications of a reference lamp as defined by ANSI C82.9-2016 and the rated values of the corresponding lamp data sheet as specified in ANSI C78.43-2017 (both incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 431.323) for single-ended lamps and ANSI C78.44-2016 (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 431.323) for double-ended lamps.
</P>
<P>(B) Ballasts designated with ANSI codes corresponding to more than one lamp must be tested with the lamp having the highest nominal lamp wattage as specified in ANSI C78.43-2017 or ANSI C78.44-2016, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) Ballasts designated with ANSI codes corresponding to both ceramic metal halide lamps (code beginning with “C”) and quartz metal halide lamps (code beginning with “M”) of the same nominal lamp wattage must be tested with the quartz metal halide lamp.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Test method</I>—(i) <I>Stabilization criteria</I>—(A) <I>General instruction.</I> Lamp must be seasoned as prescribed in Section 4.4.1 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Basic stabilization method.</I> Lamps using the basic stabilization method must be stabilized in accordance with Section 4.4.2 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020). Stabilization is reached when the lamp's electrical characteristics vary by no more than 3-percent in three consecutive 10- to 15-minute intervals measured after the minimum burning time of 30 minutes.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Alternative stabilization method.</I> In cases where switching from the reference ballast to test ballast without extinguishing the lamp is impossible, such as for low-frequency electronic ballasts, the alternative stabilization method must be used. Lamps using the alternative stabilization method must be stabilized in accordance with Section 4.4.3 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Test measurements.</I> (A) The ballast input power during operating conditions must be measured in accordance with the methods specified in Sections 6.1 and 6.8 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020).
</P>
<P>(B) The ballast output (lamp) power during operating conditions must be measured in accordance with the methods specified in Sections 6.2 and 6.10 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020).
</P>
<P>(C) For ballasts with a frequency of 60 Hz, the ballast input and output power shall be measured after lamps have been stabilized according to Section 4.4 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020) using a wattmeter with accuracy specified in Section 4.5 of ANSI C82.6-2015 (R2020); and
</P>
<P>(D) For ballasts with a frequency greater than 60 Hz, the ballast input and output power shall have a basic accuracy of ±0.5 percent at the higher of either 3 times the output operating frequency of the ballast or 2.4 kHz.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Calculations.</I> (A) To determine the percent efficiency of the ballast under test, divide the measured ballast output (lamp) power, as measured in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, by the measured ballast input power, as measured in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. Calculate percent efficiency to three significant figures.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standby mode procedure</I>—(1) <I>General instructions.</I> Measure standby mode energy consumption only for a ballast that is capable of operating in standby mode. Specifications in referenced standards that are recommended, that “shall” or “should” be met, or that are not otherwise explicitly optional, are mandatory. When there is a conflict, the language of the test procedure in this section takes precedence over IEC 63103 (incorporated by reference; see § 431.323).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Test conditions and setup.</I> (i) Establish and maintain test conditions and setup in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Connect each ballast to a lamp as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section. Note: ballast operation with a reference lamp is not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Test method and measurement.</I> (i) Turn on all of the lamps at full light output. If any lamp is not functional, replace the lamp and repeat the test procedure. If the ballast will not operate any lamps, replace the unit under test.
</P>
<P>(ii) Send a signal to the ballast instructing it to have zero light output using the appropriate ballast communication protocol or system for the ballast being tested.
</P>
<P>(iii) Stabilize the ballast prior to measurement using one of the methods as specified in Section 5.4 of IEC 63103.
</P>
<P>(iv) Measure the standby mode energy consumption in watts using one of the methods as specified in Section 5.4 of IEC 63103.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 37699, June 24, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="74" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.19.74" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.326" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.19.74.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.326   Energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, each metal halide lamp fixture manufactured on or after January 1, 2009, and designed to be operated with lamps rated greater than or equal to 150 watts but less than or equal to 500 watts shall contain—
</P>
<P>(1) A pulse-start metal halide ballast with a minimum ballast efficiency of 88 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) A magnetic probe-start ballast with a minimum ballast efficiency of 94 percent; or
</P>
<P>(3) A nonpulse-start electronic ballast with either a minimum ballast efficiency of 92 percent for wattages greater than 250 watts; or a minimum ballast efficiency of 90 percent for wattages less than or equal to 250 watts.
</P>
<P>(b) The standards described in paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) Metal halide lamp fixtures with regulated lag ballasts;
</P>
<P>(2) Metal halide lamp fixtures that use electronic ballasts that operate at 480 volts; or
</P>
<P>(3) Metal halide lamp fixtures that;
</P>
<P>(i) Are rated only for 150 watt lamps;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are rated for use in wet locations; as specified by the National Fire Protection Association in NFPA 70 (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 431.323); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Contain a ballast that is rated to operate at ambient air temperatures above 50 °C, as specified in UL 1029, (incorporated by reference; <I>see</I> § 431.323).
</P>
<P>(c) Except when the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are more stringent (<I>i.e.,</I> require a larger minimum efficiency value) or as provided by paragraph (e) of this section, each metal halide lamp fixture manufactured on or after February 10, 2017, must contain a metal halide ballast with an efficiency not less than the value determined from the appropriate equation in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designed to be
<br/>operated with lamps of the following rated lamp wattage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tested input
<br/>voltage‡‡
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum standard equation‡‡
<br/>%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥50 W and ≤100 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tested at 480 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1/(1 + 1.24 × P^(−0.351))) − 0.020††
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥50 W and ≤100 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All others</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/(1 + 1.24 × P^(−0.351))
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;100 W and &lt;150† W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tested at 480 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1/(1 + 1.24 × P^(−0.351))) − 0.020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;100 W and &lt;150† W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All others</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/(1 + 1.24 × P^(−0.351))
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥150 ‡ W and ≤250 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tested at 480 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥150 ‡ W and ≤250 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All others</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For ≥150 W and ≤200 W: 0.880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For &gt;200 W and ≤250 W: 1/(1 + 0.876 × P^(−0.351))
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;250 W and ≤500 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tested at 480 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For &gt;250 and &lt;265 W: 0.880
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For ≥265 W and ≤500 W: (1/(1 + 0.876 × P^(−0.351)) − 0.010
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;250 W and ≤500 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All others</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1/(1 + 0.876 × P^(−0.351))
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;500 W and ≤1000 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tested at 480 V</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For &gt;500 W and ≤750 W: 0.900
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For &gt;750 W and ≤1000 W: 0.000104 × P + 0.822
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For &gt;500 W and ≤1000 W: may not utilize a probe-start ballast
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;500 W and ≤1000 W</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All others</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For &gt;500 W and ≤750 W: 0.910
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For &gt;750 W and ≤1000 W: 0.000104 × P + 0.832
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For &gt;500 W and ≤1000 W: may not utilize a probe-start ballast
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">† Includes 150 W fixtures specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, that are fixtures rated only for 150 W lamps; rated for use in wet locations, as specified by the NFPA 70 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.323), section 410.4(A); and containing a ballast that is rated to operate at ambient air temperatures above 50 °C, as specified by UL 1029 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.323).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">‡ Excludes 150 W fixtures specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, that are fixtures rated only for 150 W lamps; rated for use in wet locations, as specified by the NFPA 70, section 410.4(A); and containing a ballast that is rated to operate at ambient air temperatures above 50 °C, as specified by UL 1029.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">†† P is defined as the rated wattage of the lamp the fixture is designed to operate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">‡‡ Tested input voltage is specified in 10 CFR 431.324.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, metal halide lamp fixtures manufactured on or after February 10, 2017, that operate lamps with rated wattage &gt;500 W to ≤1000 W must not contain a probe-start metal halide ballast.
</P>
<P>(e) The standards described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section do not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) Metal halide lamp fixtures with regulated-lag ballasts;
</P>
<P>(2) Metal halide lamp fixtures that use electronic ballasts that operate at 480 volts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Metal halide lamp fixtures that use high-frequency electronic ballasts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 12075, Mar. 23, 2009, as amended at 79 FR 7844, Feb. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="T" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.20" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart T—Compressors</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 79998, Nov. 15, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.341" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.20.75.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.341   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains and energy conservation requirements for compressors, pursuant to Part A-1 of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.342" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.20.75.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.342   Definitions concerning compressors.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions are applicable to this subpart, including appendix A. In cases where there is a conflict, the language of the definitions adopted in this section take precedence over any descriptions or definitions found in any other source, including in ISO Standard 1217:2009(E), “Displacement compressors—Acceptance tests,” as amended through Amendment 1:2016(E), “Calculation of isentropic efficiency and relationship with specific energy” (incorporated by reference, see § 431.343). In cases where definitions reference design intent, DOE will consider all relevant information, including marketing materials, labels and certifications, and equipment design, to determine design intent.
</P>
<P><I>Actual volume flow rate</I> means the volume flow rate of air, compressed and delivered at the standard discharge point, referred to conditions of total temperature, total pressure and composition prevailing at the standard inlet point, and as determined in accordance with the test procedures prescribed in § 431.344.
</P>
<P><I>Air compressor</I> means a compressor designed to compress air that has an inlet open to the atmosphere or other source of air, and is made up of one or more compression elements (bare compressors), driver(s), mechanical equipment to drive the compression elements, and any ancillary equipment.


</P>
<P><I>Air-cooled compressor</I> means a compressor that utilizes air to cool both the compressed air and, if present, any auxiliary substance used to facilitate compression, and that is not a liquid-cooled compressor.
</P>
<P><I>Ancillary equipment</I> means any equipment distributed in commerce with an air compressor but that is not a bare compressor, driver, or mechanical equipment. Ancillary equipment is considered to be part of a given air compressor, regardless of whether the ancillary equipment is physically attached to the bare compressor, driver, or mechanical equipment at the time when the air compressor is distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary substance</I> means any substance deliberately introduced into a compression process to aid in compression of a gas by any of the following: Lubricating, sealing mechanical clearances, or absorbing heat.
</P>
<P><I>Bare compressor</I> means the compression element and auxiliary devices (<I>e.g.,</I> inlet and outlet valves, seals, lubrication system, and gas flow paths) required for performing the gas compression process, but does not include any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The driver;
</P>
<P>(2) Speed-adjusting gear(s);
</P>
<P>(3) Gas processing apparatuses and piping; and
</P>
<P>(4) Compressor equipment packaging and mounting facilities and enclosures.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a class of compressors manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, the same compressor motor nominal horsepower, and essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or pneumatic) characteristics that affect energy consumption and energy efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Brushless electric motor</I> means a machine that converts electrical power into rotational mechanical power without use of sliding electrical contacts.
</P>
<P><I>Compressor</I> means a machine or apparatus that converts different types of energy into the potential energy of gas pressure for displacement and compression of gaseous media to any higher pressure values above atmospheric pressure and has a pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure greater than 1.3.
</P>
<P><I>Compressor motor nominal horsepower</I> means the motor horsepower of the electric motor, as determined in accordance with the applicable procedures in subparts B and X of this part, with which the rated air compressor is distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Driver</I> means the machine providing mechanical input to drive a bare compressor directly or through the use of mechanical equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Fixed-speed compressor</I> means an air compressor that is not capable of adjusting the speed of the driver continuously over the driver operating speed range in response to incremental changes in the required compressor flow rate.
</P>
<P><I>Full-load actual volume flow rate</I> means the actual volume flow rate of the compressor at the full-load operating pressure.
</P>
<P><I>Liquid-cooled compressor</I> means a compressor that utilizes liquid coolant provided by an external system to cool both the compressed air and, if present, any auxiliary substance used to facilitate compression.
</P>
<P><I>Lubricant-free compressor</I> means a compressor that does not introduce any auxiliary substance into the compression chamber at any time during operation.
</P>
<P><I>Lubricated compressor</I> means a compressor that introduces an auxiliary substance into the compression chamber during compression.
</P>
<P><I>Maximum full-flow operating pressure</I> means the maximum discharge pressure at which the compressor is capable of operating, as determined in accordance with the test procedure prescribed in § 431.344.
</P>
<P><I>Mechanical equipment</I> means any component of an air compressor that transfers energy from the driver to the bare compressor.
</P>
<P><I>Package isentropic efficiency</I> means the ratio of power required for an ideal isentropic compression process to the actual packaged compressor power input used at a given load point, as determined in accordance with the test procedures prescribed in § 431.344.
</P>
<P><I>Package specific power</I> means the compressor power input at a given load point, divided by the actual volume flow rate at the same load point, as determined in accordance with the test procedures prescribed in § 431.344.
</P>
<P><I>Positive displacement compressor</I> means a compressor in which the admission and diminution of successive volumes of the gaseous medium are performed periodically by forced expansion and diminution of a closed space(s) in a working chamber(s) by means of displacement of a moving member(s) or by displacement and forced discharge of the gaseous medium into the high-pressure area.
</P>
<P><I>Pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure</I> means the ratio of discharge pressure to inlet pressure, determined at full-load operating pressure in accordance with the test procedures prescribed in § 431.344.
</P>
<P><I>Reciprocating compressor</I> means a positive displacement compressor in which gas admission and diminution of its successive volumes are performed cyclically by straight-line alternating movements of a moving member(s) in a compression chamber(s).
</P>
<P><I>Rotary compressor</I> means a positive displacement compressor in which gas admission and diminution of its successive volumes or its forced discharge are performed cyclically by rotation of one or several rotors in a compressor casing.
</P>
<P><I>Rotor</I> means a compression element that rotates continually in a single direction about a single shaft or axis.
</P>
<P><I>Variable-speed compressor</I> means an air compressor that is capable of adjusting the speed of the driver continuously over the driver operating speed range in response to incremental changes in the required compressor actual volume flow rate.
</P>
<P><I>Water-injected lubricated compressor</I> means a lubricated compressor that uses injected water as an auxiliary substance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1101, Jan. 4, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 1591, Jan. 10, 2020; 90 FR 5555, Jan. 17, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.343" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.20.75.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.343   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, EE-5B, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(b) <I>IEC.</I> International Electrotechnical Commission Central Office, 3, rue de Varembé, Case Postale 131, CH-1211 GENEVA 20, Switzerland; + 41 22 919 02 11; <I>webstore.iec.ch.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEC 60584-1:2013, <I>Thermocouples—Part 1: EMF specifications and tolerances,</I> editions 3.0, August 2013; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) IEC 60584-3:2021, <I>Thermocouples—Part 3: Extension and compensating cables—Tolerances and identification system,</I> edition 3.0, February 2021; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ISO.</I> International Organization for Standardization, Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland +41 22 749 01 11, <I>www.iso.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ISO 1217:2009(E), <I>Displacement compressors—Acceptance tests,</I> fourth edition, July 1, 2009; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E), <I>Displacement compressors—Acceptance tests</I> (fourth edition, July 1, 2009), AMENDMENT 1: <I>Calculation of isentropic efficiency and relationship with specific energy,</I> April 15, 2016; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) ISO 5167-1:2022(E), <I>Measurement of fluid flow by means of pressure differential devices inserted in circular cross-section conduits running full</I>—Part 1: General principles and requirements, third edition, June 2022; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) ISO 9300:2022(E), <I>Measurement of gas flow by means of critical flow nozzles,</I> third edition, June 2022; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5555, Jan. 17, 2025]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.344" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.20.75.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.344   Test procedure for measuring and determining energy efficiency of compressors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section is a test procedure that is applicable to a compressor that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an air compressor;
</P>
<P>(2) Is a rotary compressor;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not a liquid ring compressor;
</P>
<P>(4) Is driven by a brushless electric motor;
</P>
<P>(5) Is a lubricated compressor;
</P>
<P>(6) Has a full-load operating pressure greater than or equal to 75 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) and less than or equal to 200 psig;
</P>
<P>(7) Is not designed and tested to the requirements of the American Petroleum Institute Standard 619, “Rotary-Type Positive-Displacement Compressors for Petroleum, Petrochemical, and Natural Gas Industries;”
</P>
<P>(8) Has full-load actual volume flow rate greater than or equal to 35 cubic feet per minute (cfm), or is distributed in commerce with a compressor motor nominal horsepower greater than or equal to 10 horsepower (hp); and
</P>
<P>(9) Has a full-load actual volume flow rate less than or equal to 1,250 cfm, or is distributed in commerce with a compressor motor nominal horsepower less than or equal to 200 hp.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> Determine the applicable full-load package isentropic efficiency (η<E T="52">isen,FL</E>), part-load package isentropic efficiency (η<E T="52">isen,PL</E>), package specific power, maximum full-flow operating pressure, full-load operating pressure, full-load actual volume flow rate, and pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure using the test procedure set forth in appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 1102, Jan. 4, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.345" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.20.75.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.345   Energy conservation standards and effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each compressor that is manufactured starting on January 10, 2025 and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is an air compressor,
</P>
<P>(2) Is a rotary compressor,
</P>
<P>(3) Is not a liquid ring compressor,
</P>
<P>(4) Is driven by a brushless electric motor,
</P>
<P>(5) Is a lubricated compressor,
</P>
<P>(6) Has a full-load operating pressure greater than or equal to 75 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) and less than or equal to 200 psig,
</P>
<P>(7) Is not designed and tested to the requirements of The American Petroleum Institute standard 619, “Rotary-Type Positive-Displacement Compressors for Petroleum, Petrochemical, and Natural Gas Industries,”
</P>
<P>(8) Has full-load actual volume flow rate greater than or equal to 35 cubic feet per minute (cfm), or is distributed in commerce with a compressor motor nominal horsepower greater than or equal to 10 horsepower (hp),
</P>
<P>(9) Has a full-load actual volume flow rate less than or equal to 1,250 cfm, or is distributed in commerce with a compressor motor nominal horsepower less than or equal to 200 hp,
</P>
<P>(10) Is driven by a three-phase electric motor,
</P>
<P>(11) Is manufactured alone or as a component of another piece of equipment; and
</P>
<P>(12) Is in one of the equipment classes listed in the Table 1, must have a full-load package isentropic efficiency or part-load package isentropic efficiency that is not less than the appropriate “Minimum Package Isentropic Efficiency” value listed in Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Energy Conservation Standards for Certain Compressors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum package isentropic efficiency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">η<E T="0732">Regr</E>
<br/>(package isentropic efficiency reference curve)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">d
<br/>(percentage loss reduction)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rotary, lubricated, air-cooled, fixed-speed compressor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">η<E T="0732">Regr</E> + (1 − η<E T="0732">Regr</E>) * (d/100)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.00928 * ln
<sup>2</sup>(.4719 * V<E T="0732">1</E>) + 0.13911 * ln(.4719 * V<E T="52">1</E>) + 0.27110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rotary, lubricated, air-cooled, variable-speed compressor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">η<E T="0732">Regr</E> + (1 − η<E T="0732">Regr</E>) * (d/100)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.01549 * ln
<sup>2</sup>(.4719 * V<E T="52">1</E>) + 0.21573 * ln(.4719 * V<E T="52">1</E>) + 0.00905</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rotary, lubricated, liquid-cooled, fixed-speed compressor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.02349 + η<E T="0732">Regr</E> + (1 − η<E T="0732">Regr</E>) * (d/100)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.00928 * ln
<sup>2</sup>(.4719 * V<E T="52">1</E>) + 0.13911 * ln(.4719 * V<E T="52">1</E>) + 0.27110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rotary, lubricated, liquid-cooled, variable-speed compressor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.02349 + η<E T="0732">Regr</E> + (1 − η<E T="0732">Regr</E>) * (d/100)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.01549 * ln
<sup>2</sup>(.4719 * V<E T="52">1</E>) + 0.21573 * ln(.4719 * V<E T="52">1</E>) + 0.00905</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−15</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Instructions for the use of Table 1 of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) To determine the standard level a compressor must meet, the correct equipment class must be identified. The descriptions are in the first column (“Equipment Class”); definitions for these descriptions are found in § 431.342.
</P>
<P>(2) The second column (“Minimum Package Isentropic Efficiency”) contains the applicable energy conservation standard level, provided in terms of package isentropic efficiency.
</P>
<P>(3) For “Fixed-speed compressor” equipment classes, the relevant Package Isentropic Efficiency is Full-load Package Isentropic Efficiency. For “Variable-speed compressor” equipment classes, the relevant Package Isentropic Efficiency is Part-load Package Isentropic Efficiency. Both Full- and Part-load Package Isentropic Efficiency are determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.344.
</P>
<P>(4) The second column (“Minimum Package Isentropic Efficiency”) references the third column (“η<E T="52">Regr</E>”), also a function of full-load actual volume flow rate, and the fourth column (“d”). The equations are provided separately to maintain consistency with the language of the preamble and analysis.
</P>
<P>(5) The second and third columns contain the term V<E T="52">1</E>, which denotes compressor full-load actual volume flow rate, given in terms of cubic feet per minute (“cfm”) and determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.344.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 1591, Jan. 10, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 431.346-431.346" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.20.75.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 431.346-431.346   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.20.75.7.39" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart T of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for Certain Air Compressors


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Prior to July 16, 2025, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of compressors must be based on testing conducted in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicable provisions of this appendix as they appeared in this subpart T of part 431 as of January 1, 2023; or
</P>
<P>(b) This appendix.
</P>
<P>Beginning July 16, 2025, representations with respect to energy use or efficiency of compressors, including compliance certifications, must be based on testing conducted in accordance with this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>1. Incorporation by Reference</I>
</P>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.343, the entire standard for: IEC 60584-1:2013, IEC 60584-3:2021, ISO 1217:2009(E), ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E), ISO 5167-1:2022, and ISO 9300:2022; however, only enumerated provisions of ISO 1217:2009(E) and ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E) are applicable to this appendix as listed in section 1. To the extent there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<P>1.1 ISO 1217:2009(E)
</P>
<P>1.1.1 Section 2, Normative references;
</P>
<P>1.1.2 Section 3, Terms and definitions;
</P>
<P>1.1.3 Section 4, Symbols;
</P>
<P>1.1.4 Section 5, Measuring equipment, methods and accuracy (excluding 5.1, 5.5, 5.7, and 5.8);
</P>
<P>1.1.5 Section 6, Test procedures: the introductory text to Section 6.2, Test arrangements, paragraphs 6.2(g) and 6.2(h), and Table 1—Maximum deviations from specified values and fluctuations from average readings of this appendix;
</P>
<P>1.1.6 Annex B (normative), Simplified acceptance test for bare displacement compressors, Section B.4.5 Comparison with specified values;
</P>
<P>1.1.7 Annex C (normative), Simplified acceptance test for electrically driven packaged displacement compressors (excluding C.1.2, C.2.1, C.3, C.4.2.2, C.4.3.1, and C.4.5).
</P>
<P>1.2 ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E)
</P>
<P>1.2.1 Section 3.5.1: isentropic power;
</P>
<P>1.2.2 Section 3.6.1: isentropic efficiency;
</P>
<P>1.2.3 Annex H (informative), Isentropic efficiency and its relation to specific energy requirement, sections H.2, Symbols and subscripts, and H.3, Derivation of isentropic power.
</P>
<P><I>2. Measurements, Test Conditions, and Equipment Configuration</I>
</P>
<P>2.1. Measurement Equipment.
</P>
<P>2.1.1. For the purposes of measuring air compressor performance, the equipment necessary to measure volume flow rate, inlet and discharge pressure, temperature, condensate, and packaged compressor power input must comply with the equipment and accuracy requirements specified in sections 5.2, 5.3, 5.4, 5.6, and 5.9 of ISO 1217:2009(E), (including the applicable provisions of IEC 60584-1 and IEC 60584-3, as referenced in section 5.3 of ISO 1217:2009(E) and the applicable provisions of ISO 5167-1 and ISO 9300, as referenced in section 5.6 of ISO 1217:2009(E)) and sections C.2.3 and C.2.4 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E).
</P>
<P>2.1.2. Electrical measurement equipment must be capable of measuring true root mean square (RMS) current, true RMS voltage, and real power up to the 40th harmonic of fundamental supply source frequency.
</P>
<P>2.1.3. Any instruments used to measure a particular parameter specified in section 2.1.1 of this appendix must have a combined accuracy of ±2.0 percent of the measured value at the fundamental supply source frequency, where combined accuracy is the square root of the sum of the squares of individual instrument accuracies.
</P>
<P>2.1.4. Any instruments used to directly measure the density of air must have an accuracy of ±1.0 percent of the measured value.
</P>
<P>2.1.5. Any pressure measurement equipment used in a calculation of another variable (<I>e.g.,</I>actual volume flow rate) must also meet all accuracy and measurement requirements of section 5.2 of ISO 1217:2009(E).
</P>
<P>2.1.6. Any temperature measurement equipment used in a calculation of another variable (<I>e.g.,</I>actual volume flow rate) must also meet all accuracy and measurement requirements of section 5.3 of ISO 1217:2009(E).
</P>
<P>2.1.7. Where ISO 1217:2009(E) refers to “corrected volume flow rate,” the term is deemed synonymous with the term “actual volume flow rate,” as defined in section 3.4.1 of ISO 1217:2009(E).
</P>
<P>2.2. Test Conditions and Configuration of Unit Under Test
</P>
<P>2.2.1. For both fixed-speed and variable-speed compressors, conduct testing in accordance with the test conditions, unit configuration, and specifications of section 6.2 paragraphs (g) and (h) of ISO 1217:2009(E) and sections C.1.1, C.2.2, C.2.3, C.2.4, C.4.1, C.4.2.1, C.4.2.3, and C.4.3.2 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E).
</P>
<P>2.2.2. The power supply must:
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain the voltage greater than or equal to 95 percent and less than or equal to 110 percent of the rated value of the motor,
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain the frequency within ±5 percent of the rated value of the motor,
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain the voltage unbalance of the power supply within ±3 percent of the rated values of the motor, and
</P>
<P>(d) Maintain total harmonic distortion below 12 percent throughout the test.
</P>
<P>2.2.3. Ambient Conditions. The ambient air temperature must be greater than or equal to 68  °F and less than or equal to 90  °F for the duration of testing. There are no ambient condition requirements for inlet pressure or relative humidity.
</P>
<P>2.2.4. All equipment indicated in table 1 of this appendix must be present and installed for all tests specified in this appendix. If the compressor is distributed in commerce without an item from table 1 of this appendix, the manufacturer must provide an appropriate item to be installed for the test. Additional ancillary equipment may be installed for the test, if distributed in commerce with the compressor, but this additional ancillary equipment is not required. If any of the equipment listed in table 2 of this appendix is distributed in commerce with units of the compressor basic model, it must be present and installed for all tests specified in this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Equipment Required During Test
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fixed-speed rotary air compressors
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variable-speed


<br/>rotary air compressors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Driver</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bare compressors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inlet filter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Inlet valve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Minimum pressure check valve/backflow check valve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lubricant separator</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air piping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lubricant piping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lubricant filter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lubricant cooler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thermostatic valve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical switchgear or frequency converter for the driver</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Device to control the speed of the driver (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> variable speed drive)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Compressed air cooler(s)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pressure switch, pressure transducer, or similar pressure control device</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Moisture separator and drain</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* This category is not applicable to variable-speed rotary air compressors.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** This category is not applicable to fixed-speed rotary air compressors.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Equipment Required During Test, if Distributed in Commerce With the Basic Model
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fixed-speed rotary air compressors
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variable-speed rotary air compressors
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooling fan(s) and motors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mechanical equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lubricant pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interstage cooler</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electronic or electrical controls and user interface</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All protective and safety devices</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.2.5. The inlet of the compressor under test must be open to the atmosphere and take in ambient air for all tests specified in this appendix.
</P>
<P>2.2.6. The compressor under test must be set up according to all manufacturer instructions for normal operation (<I>e.g.,</I> verify lubricant level, connect all loose electrical connections, close off bottom of unit to floor, cover forklift holes).
</P>
<P>2.2.7. The piping connected to the discharge orifice of the compressor must be of a diameter at least equal to that of the compressor discharge orifice to which it is connected. The piping must be straight with a length of at least 6 inches.
</P>
<P>2.2.8. Transducers used to record compressor discharge pressure must be located on the discharge piping between 2 inches and 6 inches, inclusive, from the discharge orifice of the compressor. The pressure tap for transducers must be located at the highest point of the pipe's cross section.
</P>
<P><I>3. Determination of Package Isentropic Efficiency, Package Specific Power, and Pressure Ratio at Full-Load Operating Pressure</I>
</P>
<P>3.1 Data Collection and Analysis.
</P>
<P>3.1.1. Stabilization. Record data at each load point under steady-state conditions. Steady-state conditions are achieved when a set of two consecutive readings taken at least 10 seconds apart and no more than 60 seconds apart are within the maximum permissible fluctuation from the average (of the two consecutive readings), as specified in table 1 of ISO 1217:2009(E) for—
</P>
<P>(a) Discharge pressure;
</P>
<P>(b) Temperature at the nozzle or orifice plate, measured per section 5.3 of ISO 1217:2009(E); and
</P>
<P>(c) Differential pressure over the nozzle or orifice plate, measured per section 5.2 of ISO 1217:2009(E).
</P>
<P>3.1.2. Data Sampling and Frequency. At each load point, record a minimum set of 16 unique readings, collected over a minimum time of 15 minutes. Each consecutive reading must be no more than 60 seconds apart, and not less than 10 seconds apart. All readings at each load point must be within the maximum permissible fluctuation from average specified in table 1 of ISO 1217:2009(E) for—
</P>
<P>(a) Discharge pressure;
</P>
<P>(b) Temperature at the nozzle or orifice plate, measured per section 5.3 of ISO 1217:2009(E); and
</P>
<P>(c) Differential pressure over the nozzle or orifice plate, measured per section 5.2 of ISO 1217:2009(E).
</P>
<P>If one or more readings do not meet the requirements, then all previous readings must be disregarded and a new set of at least 16 new unique readings must be collected over a minimum time of 15 minutes. Average the readings to determine the value of each parameter to be used in subsequent calculations.
</P>
<P>3.1.3. Calculations and Rounding. Perform all calculations using raw measured values. Round the final result for package isentropic efficiency to the thousandth (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.001), for package specific power in kilowatts per 100 cubic feet per minute to the nearest hundredth (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.01), for pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure to the nearest tenth (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.1), for full-load actual volume flow rate in cubic feet per minute to the nearest tenth (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.1), and for full-load operating pressure in pounds per square inch gauge (psig) to the nearest integer (<I>i.e.,</I> 1). All terms and quantities refer to values determined in accordance with the procedures set forth in this appendix for the tested unit.
</P>
<P>3.2. Full-Load Operating Pressure and Full-Load Actual Volume Flow Rate
</P>
<P>Determine the full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate (referenced throughout this appendix) in accordance with the procedures prescribed in section 4 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.3. Full-Load Package Isentropic Efficiency for Fixed- and Variable-Speed Air Compressors
</P>
<P>Use this test method to test fixed-speed air compressors and variable-speed air compressors.
</P>
<P>3.3.1. Test unit at full-load operating pressure and full-load volume flow rate according to the requirements established in sections 2, 3.1, and 3.2 of this appendix. Measure volume flow rate and calculate actual volume flow rate in accordance with section C.4.2.1 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E) with no corrections made for shaft speed. Measure discharge gauge pressure and packaged compressor power input. Measured discharge gauge pressure and calculated actual volume flow rate must be within the deviation limits for discharge pressure and volume flow rate specified in tables C.1 and C.2 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E), where full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate (as determined in section 4 of this appendix) are the targeted values.
</P>
<P>3.3.2. Calculate the package isentropic efficiency at full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate (full-load package isentropic efficiency, η<E T="52">isen,FL</E>) using the equation for isentropic efficiency in section 3.6.1 of ISO 1217:2009(E) as modified by ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E). For <I>P</I><E T="52">isen,</E> use the isentropic power required for compression at full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.3.2.1 of this appendix. For <I>P</I><E T="52">real,</E> use the real packaged compressor power input at full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.3.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.3.2.1. Calculate the isentropic power required for compression at full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate using equation (H.6) of Annex H to ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E). For <I>q</I><E T="52">V</E><E T="52">1,</E> use the actual volume flow rate (cubic meters per second) calculated in section 3.3.1 of this appendix. For <I>p</I><E T="52">1,</E> use 100 kPa. For <I>p</I><E T="52">2,</E> use the sum of
</P>
<P>(a) 100 kPa, and
</P>
<P>(b) The measured discharge gauge pressure (Pa) from section 3.3.1 of this appendix. For <I>K,</I> use the isentropic exponent (ratio of specific heats) of air, which, for the purposes of this test procedure, is 1.400.
</P>
<P>3.3.2.2. Calculate real packaged compressor power input at full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">real,100%</E> = K<E T="52">5</E> · K<E T="52">6</E> · P<E T="52">PR,100</E><E T="0112">%</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">5</E> = correction factor for inlet pressure, as determined in section C.4.3.2 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E). For calculations of this variable use a value of 100 kPa for contractual inlet pressure;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">6</E> = correction factor for pressure ratio, as determined in section B.4.5 of Annex B to ISO 1217:2009(E). For calculations of this variable use a value of 1.400 for isentropic exponent, and for contractual pressure ratio, use the ratio of 
</FP-2>
<P>(a) The sum of 100 kPa and the measured discharge gauge pressure (kPa) from section 3.3.1 of this appendix, to
</P>
<P>(b) 100 kPa; and
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">PR,100</E><E T="0112">%</E> = packaged compressor power input reading at full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate measured in section 3.3.1 of this appendix (W).
</FP-2>
<P>3.4. Part-Load Package Isentropic Efficiency for Variable-Speed Air Compressors
</P>
<P>Use this test method to test variable-speed air compressors.
</P>
<P>3.4.1. Test unit at two load points:
</P>
<P>(a) Full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate and
</P>
<P>(b) Full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, according to the requirements established in sections 2, 3.1, and 3.2 of this appendix. To reach each specified load point, adjust the speed of the driver and the backpressure of the system. For each load point, measure volume flow rate and calculate actual volume flow rate in accordance with section C.4.2.1 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E), with no corrections made for shaft speed. For each load point, measure discharge gauge pressure and packaged compressor power input. Measured discharge gauge pressure and calculated actual volume flow rate must be within the deviation limits for discharge pressure and volume flow rate specified in tables C.1 and C.2 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E).
</P>
<P>3.4.2. For variable-speed compressors, calculate the part-load package isentropic efficiency using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">isen,PL</E> = <E T="8151">v</E><E T="52">40</E><E T="0112">%</E> × η<E T="52">isen,40</E><E T="0112">%</E> + <E T="8151">v</E><E T="52">70</E><E T="0112">%</E> × η<E T="52">isen,70</E><E T="0112">%</E> + <E T="8151">v</E><E T="52">100</E><E T="0112">%</E> × η<E T="52">isen,100</E><E T="0112">%</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">isen,PL</E> = part-load package isentropic efficiency for a variable-speed compressor;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">isen,100</E><E T="0112">%</E> = package isentropic efficiency at full-load operating pressure and 100 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.3.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">isen,70</E><E T="0112">%</E> = package isentropic efficiency at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.4.3 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">isen,40</E><E T="0112">%</E> = package isentropic efficiency at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.4.4 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="8151">v</E><E T="52">40</E><E T="0112">%</E> = weighting at 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate and is 0.25;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="8151">v</E><E T="52">70</E><E T="0112">%</E> = weighting at 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate and is 0.50; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="8151">v</E><E T="52">100</E><E T="0112">%</E> = weighting at 100 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate and is 0.25.
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.3. Calculate package isentropic efficiency at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate using the equation for isentropic efficiency in section 3.6.1 of ISO 1217:2009(E) as modified by ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E). For <I>P</I><E T="52">isen,</E> use the isentropic power required for compression at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.4.3.1 of this appendix. For <I>P</I><E T="52">real,</E> use the real packaged compressor power input at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.4.3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.3.1. Calculate the isentropic power required for compression at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate using equation (H.6) of Annex H to ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E). For <I>q</I><E T="54">V</E><E T="52">1,</E> use actual volume flow rate (cubic meters per second) at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as calculated in section 3.4.1 of this appendix. For <I>p</I><E T="52">1,</E> use 100 kPa. For <I>p</I><E T="52">2,</E> use the sum of
</P>
<P>(a) 100 kPa, and
</P>
<P>(b) Discharge gauge pressure (Pa) at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as calculated in section 3.4.1 of this appendix. For <I>K,</I> use the isentropic exponent (ratio of specific heats) of air, which, for the purposes of this test procedure, is 1.400.
</P>
<P>3.4.3.2. Calculate real packaged compressor power input at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">real,70</E><E T="0112">%</E> = K<E T="52">5</E> · K<E T="52">6</E> · P<E T="52">PR,70</E><E T="0112">%</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">5</E> = correction factor for inlet pressure, as determined in section C.4.3.2 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E). For calculations of this variable use a value of 100 kPa for contractual inlet pressure;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">6</E> = correction factor for pressure ratio, as determined in section B.4.5 of Annex B to ISO 1217:2009(E). For calculations of this variable use a value of 1.400 for isentropic exponent, and for contractual pressure ratio, use the ratio of
</FP-2>
<P>(a) The sum of 100 kPa and the measured discharge gauge pressure (kPa) from the test at 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate in section 3.4.1 of this appendix, to
</P>
<P>(b) 100 kPa; and
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">PR,70</E><E T="0112">%</E> = packaged compressor power input reading at full-load operating pressure and 70 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as measured in section 3.4.1 of this appendix (W).
</FP-2>
<P>3.4.4. Calculate package isentropic efficiency at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate using the equation for isentropic efficiency in section 3.6.1 of ISO 1217:2009(E) as modified by ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E). For <I>P</I><E T="52">isen,</E> use the isentropic power required for compression at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.4.4.1 of this appendix. For <I>P</I><E T="52">real,</E> use the real packaged compressor power input at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as determined in section 3.4.4.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3.4.4.1. Calculate the isentropic power required for compression at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate using equation (H.6) of Annex H to ISO 1217:2009/Amd.1:2016(E). For <I>q</I><E T="54">V</E><E T="52">1,</E> use actual volume flow rate (cubic meters per second) at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as calculated in section 3.4.1 of this appendix. For <I>p</I><E T="52">1,</E> use 100 kPa. For <I>p</I><E T="52">2,</E> use the sum of
</P>
<P>(a) 100 kPa, and
</P>
<P>(b) Discharge gauge pressure (Pa) at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as calculated in section 3.4.1 of this appendix. For <I>K,</I> use the isentropic exponent (ratio of specific heats) of air, which, for the purposes of this test procedure, is 1.400.
</P>
<P>3.4.4.2. Calculate real packaged compressor power input at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">real,40</E><E T="0112">%</E> = K<E T="52">5</E> · K<E T="52">6</E> · P<E T="52">PR,40</E><E T="0112">%</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">5</E> = correction factor for inlet pressure, as determined in section C.4.3.2 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E). For calculations of this variable use a value of 100 kPa for contractual inlet pressure;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">6</E> = correction factor for pressure ratio, as determined in section B.4.5 of Annex B to ISO 1217:2009(E). For calculations of this variable use a value of 1.400 for isentropic exponent, and for contractual pressure ratio, use the ratio of
</FP-2>
<P>(a) The sum of 100 kPa and the measured discharge gauge pressure (kPa) from the test at 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate in section 3.4.1 of this appendix, to
</P>
<P>(b) 100 kPa; and
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">PR,40</E><E T="0112">%</E> = packaged compressor power input reading at full-load operating pressure and 40 percent of full-load actual volume flow rate, as measured in section 3.4.1 of this appendix (W).
</FP-2>
<P>3.5. Determination of Package Specific Power
</P>
<P>For both fixed and variable-speed air compressors, determine the package specific power, at any load point, using the equation for specific energy consumption in section C.4.4 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E) and other values measured pursuant to this appendix, with no correction for shaft speed. Calculate P<E T="52">Pcorr</E> in section C.4.4 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E) using the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">Pcorr</E> = K<E T="52">5</E> · K<E T="52">6</E> · P<E T="52">PR</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">5</E> = correction factor for inlet pressure, as determined in section C.4.3.2 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E). For calculations of this variable use a value of 100 kPa for contractual inlet pressure;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">6</E> = correction factor for pressure ratio, as determined in section B.4.5 of Annex B to ISO 1217:2009(E). For calculations of this variable use a value of 1.400 for isentropic exponent, and for contractual pressure ratio, use the ratio of
</FP-2>
<P>(a) The sum of 100 kPa and the measured discharge gauge pressure (kPa) from the test used to determine the package specific power, to
</P>
<P>(b) 100 kPa; and
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">PR</E> = packaged compressor power input reading (W), as determined in section C.2.4 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E).
</FP-2>
<P>3.6. Determination of Pressure Ratio at Full-Load Operating Pressure
</P>
<P>Pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure, as defined in § 431.342, is calculated using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17ja25.094.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>PR = pressure ratio at full-load operating pressure;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">1</E> = 100 kPa; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">FL</E> = full-load operating pressure, determined in section 4.3.4 of this appendix (Pa gauge).
</FP-2>
<P><I>4. Method To Determine Maximum Full-Flow Operating Pressure, Full-Load Operating Pressure, and Full-Load Actual Volume Flow Rate</I>
</P>
<P>4.1. Principal Strategy
</P>
<P>The principal strategy of this method is to incrementally increase discharge pressure by 2 psig relative to a starting point, and identify the maximum full-flow operating pressure at which the compressor is capable of operating. The maximum discharge pressure achieved is the maximum full-flow operating pressure. The full-load operating pressure and full-load actual volume flow rate are determined based on the maximum full-flow operating pressure.
</P>
<P>4.2. Pre-test Instructions
</P>
<P>4.2.1. Safety. For the method presented in section 4.3.1 of this appendix, only test discharge pressure within the safe operating range of the compressor, as specified by the manufacturer in the installation and operation manual shipped with the unit. Make no changes to safety limits or equipment. Do not violate any manufacturer-provided motor operational guidelines for normal use, including any restriction on instantaneous and continuous input power draw and output shaft power (<I>e.g.,</I> electrical rating and service factor limits).
</P>
<P>4.2.2. Adjustment of Discharge Pressure
</P>
<P>4.2.2.1. If the air compressor is not equipped, as distributed in commerce by the manufacturer, with any mechanism to adjust the maximum discharge pressure output limit, proceed to section 4.2.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.2.2. If the air compressor is equipped, as distributed in commerce by the manufacturer, with any mechanism to adjust the maximum discharge pressure output limit, then adjust this mechanism to the maximum pressure allowed, according to the manufacturer's operating instructions for these mechanisms. Mechanisms to adjust discharge pressure may include, but are not limited to, onboard digital or analog controls, and user-adjustable inlet valves.
</P>
<P>4.2.3. Driver speed. If the unit under test is a variable-speed compressor, maintain maximum driver speed throughout the test. If the unit under test is a fixed-speed compressor with a multi-speed driver, maintain driver speed at the maximum speed throughout the test.
</P>
<P>4.2.4. Measurements and Tolerances
</P>
<P>4.2.4.1. Recording. Record data by electronic means such that the requirements of section 4.2.4.5 of this appendix are met.
</P>
<P>4.2.4.2. Discharge Pressure. Measure discharge pressure in accordance with section 5.2 of ISO 1217:2009(E). Express compressor discharge pressure in psig in reference to ambient conditions, and record it to the nearest integer. Specify targeted discharge pressure points in integer values only. The maximum allowable measured deviation from the targeted discharge pressure at each tested point is ±1 psig.
</P>
<P>4.2.4.3. Actual Volume Flow Rate. Measure actual volume flow rate in accordance with section C.4.2.1 of Annex C to ISO 1217:2009(E) (where it is called “corrected volume flow rate”) with no corrections made for shaft speed. Express compressor actual volume flow rate in cubic feet per minute at inlet conditions (cfm).
</P>
<P>4.2.4.4. Stabilization. Record data at each tested load point under steady-state conditions, as determined in section 3.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.2.4.5. Data Sampling and Frequency. At each load point, record a set of at least of two readings, collected at a minimum of 10 seconds apart. All readings at each load point must be within the maximum permissible fluctuation from the average (of the two consecutive readings), as specified in 3.1.2 of this appendix. Average the measurements to determine the value of each parameter to be used in subsequent calculations.
</P>
<P>4.2.5 Adjusting System Backpressure. Set up the unit under test so that backpressure on the unit can be adjusted (<I>e.g.,</I> by valves) incrementally, causing the measured discharge pressure to change, until the compressor is in an unloaded condition.
</P>
<P>4.2.6 Unloaded Condition. A unit is considered to be in an unloaded condition if capacity controls on the unit automatically reduce the actual volume flow rate from the compressor (<I>e.g.,</I> shutting the motor off, or unloading by adjusting valves).
</P>
<P>4.3. Test Instructions
</P>
<P>4.3.1. Adjust the backpressure of the system so the measured discharge pressure is 90 percent of the expected maximum full-flow operating pressure, rounded to the nearest integer, in psig. If the expected maximum full-flow operating pressure is not known, then adjust the backpressure of the system so that the measured discharge pressure is 65 psig. Allow the unit to remain at this setting for 15 minutes to allow the unit to thermally stabilize. Then measure and record discharge pressure and actual volume flow rate at the starting pressure.
</P>
<P>4.3.2. Adjust the backpressure of the system to increase the discharge pressure by 2 psig from the previous value, allow the unit to remain at this setting for a minimum of 2 minutes, and proceed to section 4.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.3.3. If the unit is now in an unloaded condition, end the test and proceed to section 4.3.4 of this appendix. If the unit is not in an unloaded condition, measure discharge pressure and actual volume flow rate, and repeat section 4.3.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4.3.4. Of the discharge pressures recorded under stabilized conditions in sections 4.3.1 through 4.3.3 of this appendix, identify the largest. This is the maximum full-flow operating pressure. Determine the full-load operating pressure as a self-declared value greater than or equal to the lesser of (A) 90 percent of the maximum full-flow operating pressure, or (B) 10 psig less than the maximum full-flow operating pressure.
</P>
<P>4.3.5 The full-load actual volume flow rate is the actual volume flow rate measured at the full-load operating pressure. If the self-declared full-load operating pressure falls on a previously tested value of discharge pressure, then use the previously measured actual volume flow rate as the full-load actual volume flow rate. If the self-declared full-load operating pressure does not fall on a previously tested value of discharge pressure, then adjust the backpressure of the system to the self-declared full-load operating pressure and allow the unit to remain at this setting for a minimum of 2 minutes. The measured actual volume flow rate at this setting is the full-load actual volume flow rate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 5555, Jan. 17, 2025]














</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="U" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart U—Enforcement for Electric Motors</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 61941, Oct. 21, 2004, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 70 FR 60416, Oct. 18, 2005.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.381" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21.75.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.381   Purpose and scope for electric motors.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes violations of EPCA's energy conservation requirements, specific procedures we will follow in pursuing alleged non-compliance of an electric motor with an applicable energy conservation standard or labeling requirement, and general procedures for enforcement action, largely drawn directly from EPCA, that apply to electric motors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12505, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.382" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21.75.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.382   Prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each of the following is a prohibited act under sections 332 and 345 of the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) Distribution in commerce by a manufacturer or private labeler of any “new covered equipment” which is not labeled in accordance with an applicable labeling rule prescribed in accordance with Section 344 of the Act, and in this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Removal from any “new covered equipment” or rendering illegible, by a manufacturer, distributor, retailer, or private labeler, of any label required under this part to be provided with such covered equipment;
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to permit access to, or copying of records required to be supplied under the Act and this part, or failure to make reports or provide other information required to be supplied under the Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Advertisement of an electric motor or motors, by a manufacturer, distributor, retailer, or private labeler, in a catalog from which the equipment may be purchased, without including in the catalog all information as required by § 431.31(b)(1), provided, however, that this shall not apply to an advertisement of an electric motor in a catalog if distribution of the catalog began before the effective date of the labeling rule applicable to that motor;
</P>
<P>(5) Failure of a manufacturer to supply at his expense a reasonable number of units of covered equipment to a test laboratory designated by the Secretary;
</P>
<P>(6) Failure of a manufacturer to permit a representative designated by the Secretary to observe any testing required by the Act and this part, and to inspect the results of such testing; and
</P>
<P>(7) Distribution in commerce by a manufacturer or private labeler of any new covered equipment which is not in compliance with an applicable energy efficiency standard prescribed under the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with sections 333 and 345 of the Act, any person who knowingly violates any provision of paragraph (a) of this section may be subject to assessment of a civil penalty of no more than $575 for each violation.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term “new covered equipment” means covered equipment the title of which has not passed to a purchaser who buys such product for purposes other than:
</P>
<P>(i) Reselling it; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Leasing it for a period in excess of one year; and
</P>
<P>(2) The term “knowingly” means:
</P>
<P>(i) Having actual knowledge; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Presumed to have knowledge deemed to be possessed by a reasonable person who acts in the circumstances, including knowledge obtainable upon the exercise of due care.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61941, Oct. 21, 2004. Redesignated at 70 FR 60416, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96351, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1291, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2955, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1063, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1028, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105406, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.383" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21.75.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.383   Enforcement process for electric motors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Test notice.</I> Upon receiving information in writing, concerning the energy performance of a particular electric motor sold by a particular manufacturer or private labeler, which indicates that the electric motor may not be in compliance with the applicable energy efficiency standard, or upon undertaking to ascertain the accuracy of the efficiency rating on the nameplate or in marketing materials for an electric motor, disclosed pursuant to subpart B of this part, the Secretary may conduct testing of that electric motor under this subpart by means of a test notice addressed to the manufacturer in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The test notice procedure will only be followed after the Secretary or his/her designated representative has examined the underlying test data (or, where appropriate, data as to use of an alternative efficiency determination method) provided by the manufacturer and after the manufacturer has been offered the opportunity to meet with the Department to verify, as applicable, compliance with the applicable efficiency standard, or the accuracy of labeling information, or both. In addition, where compliance of a basic model was certified based on an AEDM, the Department shall have the discretion to pursue the provisions of § 431.17(a)(4)(iii) prior to invoking the test notice procedure. A representative designated by the Secretary shall be permitted to observe any re-verification procedures undertaken pursuant to this subpart, and to inspect the results of such reverification.
</P>
<P>(2) The test notice will be signed by the Secretary or his/her designee. The test notice will be mailed or delivered by the Department to the plant manager or other responsible official, as designated by the manufacturer.
</P>
<P>(3) The test notice will specify the model or basic model to be selected for testing, the method of selecting the test sample, the date and time at which testing shall be initiated, the date by which testing is scheduled to be completed and the facility at which testing will be conducted. The test notice may also provide for situations in which the specified basic model is unavailable for testing, and may include alternative basic models.
</P>
<P>(4) The Secretary may require in the test notice that the manufacturer of an electric motor shall ship at his expense a reasonable number of units of a basic model specified in such test notice to a testing laboratory designated by the Secretary. The number of units of a basic model specified in a test notice shall not exceed 20.
</P>
<P>(5) Within five working days of the time the units are selected, the manufacturer shall ship the specified test units of a basic model to the testing laboratory.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing laboratory.</I> Whenever the Department conducts enforcement testing at a designated laboratory in accordance with a test notice under this section, the resulting test data shall constitute official test data for that basic model. Such test data will be used by the Department to make a determination of compliance or noncompliance if a sufficient number of tests have been conducted to satisfy the requirements of appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sampling.</I> The determination that a manufacturer's basic model complies with its labeled efficiency, or the applicable energy efficiency standard, shall be based on the testing conducted in accordance with the statistical sampling procedures set forth in appendix A of this subpart and the test procedures set forth in appendix B to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Test unit selection.</I> A Department inspector shall select a batch, a batch sample, and test units from the batch sample in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph and the conditions specified in the test notice.
</P>
<P>(1) The batch may be subdivided by the Department utilizing criteria specified in the test notice.
</P>
<P>(2) A batch sample of up to 20 units will then be randomly selected from one or more subdivided groups within the batch. The manufacturer shall keep on hand all units in the batch sample until such time as the basic model is determined to be in compliance or non-compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) Individual test units comprising the test sample shall be randomly selected from the batch sample.
</P>
<P>(4) All random selection shall be achieved by sequentially numbering all of the units in a batch sample and then using a table of random numbers to select the units to be tested.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Test unit preparation.</I> (1) Prior to and during the testing, a test unit selected in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section shall not be prepared, modified, or adjusted in any manner unless such preparation, modification, or adjustment is allowed by the applicable Department of Energy test procedure. One test shall be conducted for each test unit in accordance with the applicable test procedures prescribed in appendix B to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) No quality control, testing, or assembly procedures shall be performed on a test unit, or any parts and sub-assemblies thereof, that is not performed during the production and assembly of all other units included in the basic model.
</P>
<P>(3) A test unit shall be considered defective if such unit is inoperative or is found to be in noncompliance due to failure of the unit to operate according to the manufacturer's design and operating instructions. Defective units, including those damaged due to shipping or handling, shall be reported immediately to the Department. The Department shall authorize testing of an additional unit on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) <I>Non-standard endshields or flanges.</I> For purposes of DOE-initiated testing of electric motors with non-standard endshields or flanges, the Department will have the discretion to determine whether the lab should test a general purpose electric motor of equivalent electrical design and enclosure rather than replacing the nonstandard flange or endshield.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial electric motors.</I> For purposes of DOE-initiated testing, the Department has the discretion to determine whether the lab should test a general purpose electric motor of equivalent electrical design and enclosure rather than machining and attaching an endshield.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Testing at manufacturer's option.</I> (1) If a manufacturer's basic model is determined to be in noncompliance with the applicable energy performance standard at the conclusion of Department testing in accordance with the sampling plan specified in appendix A of this subpart, the manufacturer may request that the Department conduct additional testing of the basic model according to procedures set forth in appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) All units tested under this paragraph shall be selected and tested in accordance with the provisions given in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The manufacturer shall bear the cost of all testing conducted under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) The manufacturer shall cease distribution of the basic model tested under the provisions of this paragraph from the time the manufacturer elects to exercise the option provided in this paragraph until the basic model is determined to be in compliance. The Department may seek civil penalties for all units distributed during such period.
</P>
<P>(5) If the additional testing results in a determination of compliance, a notice of allowance to resume distribution shall be issued by the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 61941, Oct. 21, 2004. Redesignated at 70 FR 60416, Oct. 18, 2005, as amended at 78 FR 75995, Dec. 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.384" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21.75.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.384   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.385" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21.75.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.385   Cessation of distribution of a basic model of an electric motor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that a model of an electric motor is determined non-compliant by the Department in accordance with § 431.192 or if a manufacturer or private labeler determines a model of an electric motor to be in noncompliance, then the manufacturer or private labeler shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately cease distribution in commerce of the basic model.
</P>
<P>(2) Give immediate written notification of the determination of noncompliance, to all persons to whom the manufacturer has distributed units of the basic model manufactured since the date of the last determination of compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to a request made by the Secretary, provide the Department within 30 days of the request, records, reports, and other documentation pertaining to the acquisition, ordering, storage, shipment, or sale of a basic model determined to be in noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(4) The manufacturer may modify the non-compliant basic model in such manner as to make it comply with the applicable performance standard. Such modified basic model shall then be treated as a new basic model and must be certified in accordance with the provisions of this subpart; except that in addition to satisfying all requirements of this subpart, the manufacturer shall also maintain records that demonstrate that modifications have been made to all units of the new basic model prior to distribution in commerce.
</P>
<P>(b) If a basic model is not properly certified in accordance with the requirements of this subpart, the Secretary may seek, among other remedies, injunctive action to prohibit distribution in commerce of such basic model.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.386" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21.75.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.386   Remedies.</HEAD>
<P>If the Secretary determines that a basic model of any covered equipment does not comply with an applicable energy conservation standard:
</P>
<P>(a) The Secretary will notify the manufacturer, private labeler, or any other person as required, of this finding and of the Secretary's intent to seek a judicial order restraining further distribution in commerce of units of such a basic model unless the manufacturer, private labeler or other person as required, delivers, within 15 calendar days, a satisfactory statement to the Secretary, of the steps the manufacturer, private labeler or other person will take to insure that the noncompliant basic model will no longer be distributed in commerce. The Secretary will monitor the implementation of such statement.
</P>
<P>(b) If the manufacturer, private labeler or any other person as required, fails to stop distribution of the noncompliant basic model, the Secretary may seek to restrain such violation in accordance with sections 334 and 345 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary will determine whether the facts of the case warrant the assessment of civil penalties for knowing violations in accordance with sections 333 and 345 of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.387" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21.75.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.387   Hearings and appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under sections 333(d) and 345 of the Act, before issuing an order assessing a civil penalty against any person, the Secretary must provide to such a person a notice of the proposed penalty. Such notice must inform the person that such person can choose (in writing within 30 days after receipt of the notice) to have the procedures of paragraph (c) of this section (in lieu of those in paragraph (b) of this section) apply with respect to such assessment.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Unless a person elects, within 30 calendar days after receipt of a notice under paragraph (a) of this section, to have paragraph (c) of this section apply with respect to the civil penalty under paragraph (a), the Secretary will assess the penalty, by order, after providing an opportunity for an agency hearing under 5 U.S.C. 554, before an administrative law judge appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105, and making a determination of violation on the record. Such assessment order will include the administrative law judge's findings and the basis for such assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person against whom the Secretary assesses a penalty under this paragraph may, within 60 calendar days after the date of the order assessing such penalty, initiate action in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate judicial circuit for judicial review of such order in accordance with 5 U.S.C. chapter 7. The court will have jurisdiction to enter a judgment affirming, modifying, or setting aside in whole or in part, the order of the Secretary, or the court may remand the proceeding to the Secretary for such further action as the court may direct.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In the case of any civil penalty with respect to which the procedures of this paragraph have been elected, the Secretary will promptly assess such penalty, by order, after the date of the receipt of the notice under paragraph (a) of this section of the proposed penalty.
</P>
<P>(2) If the person has not paid the civil penalty within 60 calendar days after the assessment has been made under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Secretary will institute an action in the appropriate District Court of the United States for an order affirming the assessment of the civil penalty. The court will have authority to review de novo the law and the facts involved and jurisdiction to enter a judgment enforcing, modifying, and enforcing as so modified, or setting aside in whole or in part, such assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) Any election to have this paragraph apply can only be revoked with the consent of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(d) If any person fails to pay an assessment of a civil penalty after it has become a final and unappealable order under paragraph (b) of this section, or after the appropriate District Court has entered final judgment in favor of the Secretary under paragraph (c) of this section, the Secretary will institute an action to recover the amount of such penalty in any appropriate District Court of the United States. In such action, the validity and appropriateness of such final assessment order or judgment will not be subject to review.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) In accordance with the provisions of sections 333(d)(5)(A) and 345 of the Act and notwithstanding the provisions of title 28, United States Code, or Section 502(c) of the Department of Energy Organization Act, the General Counsel of the Department of Energy (or any attorney or attorneys within DOE designated by the Secretary) will represent the Secretary, and will supervise, conduct, and argue any civil litigation to which paragraph (c) of this section applies (including any related collection action under paragraph (d) of this section) in a court of the United States or in any other court, except the Supreme Court of the United States. However, the Secretary or the General Counsel will consult with the Attorney General concerning such litigation and the Attorney General will provide, on request, such assistance in the conduct of such litigation as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with the provisions of sections 333(d)(5)(B) and 345 of the Act, and subject to the provisions of Section 502(c) of the Department of Energy Organization Act, the Secretary will be represented by the Attorney General, or the Solicitor General, as appropriate, in actions under this section, except to the extent provided in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with the provisions of Section 333(d)(5)(c) and 345 of the Act, Section 402(d) of the Department of Energy Organization Act will not apply with respect to the function of the Secretary under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.21.75.8.40" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart U of Part 431—Sampling Plan for Enforcement Testing of Electric Motors
</HEAD>
<P>Step 1. The first sample size (n<E T="52">1</E>) must be five or more units.
</P>
<P>Step 2. Compute the mean (X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">1</E> of the measured energy performance of the n<E T="52">1</E> units in the first sample as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="27" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.005.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where X<E T="52">i</E> is the measured full-load efficiency of unit i.
</FP>
<P>Step 3. Compute the sample standard deviation (S<E T="52">1</E>) of the measured full-load efficiency of the n<E T="52">1</E> units in the first sample as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="46" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.006.gif"/></MATH>
<P>Step 4. Compute the standard error (SE(X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">1</E>)) of the mean full-load efficiency of the first sample as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="25" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.007.gif"/></MATH>
<P>Step 5. Compute the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) for the mean of the first sample using RE as the desired mean as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="17" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.008.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where: RE is the applicable EPCA nominal full-load efficiency when the test is to determine compliance with the applicable statutory standard, or is the labeled nominal full-load efficiency when the test is to determine compliance with the labeled efficiency value, and t is the 2.5th percentile of a t-distribution for a sample size of n<E T="52">1</E>, which yields a 97.5 percent confidence level for a one-tailed t-test.
</FP>
<P>Step 6. Compare the mean of the first sample (X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">1</E>) with the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>) to determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the mean of the first sample is below the lower control limit, then the basic model is in non-compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mean is equal to or greater than the lower control limit, no final determination of compliance or non-compliance can be made; proceed to Step 7.
</P>
<P>Step 7. Determine the recommended sample size (n) as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="29" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.009.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where S<E T="52">1</E>, RE and t have the values used in Steps 3 and 5, respectively. The factor 
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="23" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.010.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>is based on a 20 percent tolerance in the total power loss at full-load and fixed output power.
</FP>
<P>Given the value of n, determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the value of n is less than or equal to n<E T="52">1</E> and if the mean energy efficiency of the first sample (X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">1</E>) is equal to or greater than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">1</E>), the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the value of n is greater than n1, the basic model is in non-compliance. The size of a second sample n<E T="52">2</E> is determined to be the smallest integer equal to or greater than the difference n−n<E T="52">1</E>. If the value of n<E T="52">2</E> so calculated is greater than 20−n1, set n<E T="52">2</E> equal to 20−n<E T="52">1</E>.
</P>
<P>Step 8. Compute the combined (X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">2</E>) mean of the measured energy performance of the n<E T="52">1</E> and n<E T="52">2</E> units of the combined first and second samples as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="27" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.011.gif"/></MATH>
<P>Step 9. Compute the standard error (SE(X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">2</E>)) of the mean full-load efficiency of the n<E T="52">1</E> and n<E T="52">2</E> units in the combined first and second samples as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="25" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.012.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>(Note that S<E T="52">1</E> is the value obtained above in Step 3.)
</FP>
<P>Step 10. Set the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) to, 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="16" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er83ad04.013.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where t has the value obtained in Step 5, and compare the combined sample mean (X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">2</E>) to the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) to find one of the following:
</FP>
<P>(i) If the mean of the combined sample (X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">2</E>) is less than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>), the basic model is in non-compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mean of the combined sample (X
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">2</E>) is equal to or greater than the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>), the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<HD1>Manufacturer-Option Testing
</HD1>
<P>If a determination of non-compliance is made in Steps 6, 7 or 10, of this appendix A, the manufacturer may request that additional testing be conducted, in accordance with the following procedures.
</P>
<P>Step A. The manufacturer requests that an additional number, n<E T="52">3</E>, of units be tested, with n<E T="52">3</E> chosen such that n<E T="52">1</E> + n<E T="52">2</E> + n<E T="52">3</E> does not exceed 20.
</P>
<P>Step B. Compute the mean full-load efficiency, standard error, and lower control limit of the new combined sample in accordance with the procedures prescribed in Steps 8, 9, and 10, of this appendix A.
</P>
<P>Step C. Compare the mean performance of the new combined sample to the lower control limit (LCL<E T="52">2</E>) to determine one of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) If the new combined sample mean is equal to or greater than the lower control limit, the basic model is in compliance and testing is at an end.
</P>
<P>(b) If the new combined sample mean is less than the lower control limit and the value of n<E T="52">1</E> + n<E T="52">2</E> + n<E T="52">3</E> is less than 20, the manufacturer may request that additional units be tested. The total of all units tested may not exceed 20. Steps A, B, and C are then repeated.
</P>
<P>(c) Otherwise, the basic model is determined to be in non-compliance.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="V" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart V—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 61941, Oct. 21, 2004, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 70 FR 60417, Oct. 18, 2005.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.401" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22.75.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.401   Petitions for waiver and interim waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> This section provides a means for seeking waivers of the test procedure requirements of this part for basic models that meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. In granting a waiver or interim waiver, DOE will not change the energy use or efficiency metric that the manufacturer must use to certify compliance with the applicable energy conservation standard and to make representations about the energy use or efficiency of the covered equipment. The granting of a waiver or interim waiver by DOE does not exempt such basic models from any other regulatory requirement contained in this part or the certification and compliance requirements of 10 CFR part 429 and specifies an alternative method for testing the basic model(s) addressed in the waiver.
</P>
<P>(1) Any interested person may submit a petition to waive for a particular basic model the requirements of any uniform test method contained in this part, upon the grounds that either the basic model contains one or more design characteristics that prevent testing of the basic model according to the prescribed test procedures or cause the prescribed test procedures to evaluate the basic model in a manner so unrepresentative of its true energy or water consumption characteristics as to provide materially inaccurate comparative data.
</P>
<P>(2) Manufacturers of basic model(s) subject to a waiver or interim waiver are responsible for complying with the other requirements of this part and with the requirements of 10 CFR part 429 regardless of the person that originally submitted the petition for waiver and/or interim waiver. The filing of a petition for waiver and/or interim waiver shall not constitute grounds for noncompliance with any requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) All correspondence regarding waivers and interim waivers must be submitted to DOE either electronically to <I>AS_Waiver_Requests@ee.doe.gov</I> (preferred method of transmittal) or by mail to U.S. Department of Energy, Building Technologies Program, Test Procedure Waiver, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Mailstop EE-5B, Washington, DC 20585-0121.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petition content and publication.</I> (1) Each petition for interim waiver and waiver must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the particular basic model(s) for which a waiver is requested, each brand name under which the identified basic model(s) will be distributed in commerce, the design characteristic(s) constituting the grounds for the petition, and the specific requirements sought to be waived, and must discuss in detail the need for the requested waiver;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify manufacturers of all other basic models distributed in commerce in the United States and known to the petitioner to incorporate design characteristic(s) similar to those found in the basic model that is the subject of the petition;
</P>
<P>(iii) Include any alternate test procedures known to the petitioner to evaluate the performance of the equipment type in a manner representative of the energy and/or water consumption characteristics of the basic model; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be signed by the petitioner or an authorized representative. In accordance with the provisions set forth in 10 CFR 1004.11, any request for confidential treatment of any information contained in a petition or in supporting documentation must be accompanied by a copy of the petition, application or supporting documentation from which the information claimed to be confidential has been deleted. DOE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the petition and supporting documents from which confidential information, as determined by DOE, has been deleted in accordance with 10 CFR 1004.11 and will solicit comments, data and information with respect to the determination of the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, each petition for interim waiver must reference the related petition for waiver, demonstrate likely success of the petition for waiver, and address what economic hardship and/or competitive disadvantage is likely to result absent a favorable determination on the petition for interim waiver.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to other manufacturers.</I> (1) Each petitioner for interim waiver must, upon publication of a grant of an interim waiver in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> notify in writing all known manufacturers of domestically marketed basic models of the same equipment class (as specified in the relevant subpart of 10 CFR part 431), and of other equipment classes known to the petitioner to use the technology or have the characteristic at issue in the waiver. The notice must include a statement that DOE has published the interim waiver and petition for waiver in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the date the petition for waiver was published. The notice must also include a statement that DOE will receive and consider timely written comments on the petition for waiver. Within five working days, each petitioner must file with DOE a statement certifying the names and addresses of each person to whom a notice of the petition for waiver has been sent.
</P>
<P>(2) If a petitioner does not request an interim waiver and notification has not been provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, each petitioner, after filing a petition for waiver with DOE, and after the petition for waiver has been published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> must, within five working days of such publication, notify in writing all known manufacturers of domestically marketed basic models of the same equipment class (as listed in the relevant subpart of 10 CFR part 431), and of other equipment classes known to the petitioner to use the technology or have the characteristic at issue in the waiver. The notice must include a statement that DOE has published the petition in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the date the petition for waiver was published. Within five working days of the publication of the petition in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> each petitioner must file with DOE a statement certifying the names and addresses of each person to whom a notice of the petition for waiver has been sent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public comment and rebuttal.</I> (1) Any person submitting written comments to DOE with respect to an interim waiver must also send a copy of the comments to the petitioner by the deadline specified in the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person submitting written comments to DOE with respect to a petition for waiver must also send a copy of such comments to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(3) A petitioner may, within 10 working days of the close of the comment period specified in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> submit a rebuttal statement to DOE. A petitioner may rebut more than one comment in a single rebuttal statement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Provisions specific to interim waivers.</I> (1) DOE will post a petition for interim waiver on its website within 5 business days of receipt of a complete petition. DOE will make best efforts to review a petition for interim waiver within 90 business days of receipt of a complete petition.
</P>
<P>(2) A petition for interim waiver that does not meet the content requirements of paragraph (b) of this section will be considered incomplete. DOE will notify the petitioner of an incomplete petition via email.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE will grant an interim waiver from the test procedure requirements if it appears likely that the petition for waiver will be granted and/or if DOE determines that it would be desirable for public policy reasons to grant immediate relief pending a determination on the petition for waiver. Notice of DOE's determination on the petition for interim waiver will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Provisions specific to waivers</I>—(1) Disposition of application. The petitioner shall be notified in writing as soon as practicable of the disposition of each petition for waiver. DOE shall issue a decision on the petition as soon as is practicable following receipt and review of the Petition for Waiver and other applicable documents, including, but not limited to, comments and rebuttal statements.
</P>
<P>(2) Criteria for granting. DOE will grant a waiver from the test procedure requirements if DOE determines either that the basic model(s) for which the waiver was requested contains a design characteristic that prevents testing of the basic model according to the prescribed test procedures, or that the prescribed test procedures evaluate the basic model in a manner so unrepresentative of its true energy or water consumption characteristics as to provide materially inaccurate comparative data. DOE may grant a waiver subject to conditions, which may include adherence to alternate test procedures specified by DOE. DOE will promptly publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of each waiver granted or denied, and any limiting conditions of each waiver granted.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Extension to additional basic models.</I> A petitioner may request that DOE extend the scope of a waiver or an interim waiver to include additional basic models employing the same technology as the basic model(s) set forth in the original petition. The petition for extension must identify the particular basic model(s) for which a waiver extension is requested, each brand name under which the identified basic model(s) will be distributed in commerce, and documentation supporting the claim that the additional basic models employ the same technology as the basic model(s) set forth in the original petition. DOE will publish any such extension in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Duration.</I> (1) Within one year of issuance of an interim waiver, DOE will either:
</P>
<P>(i) Publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a final determination on the petition for waiver; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a new or amended test procedure that addresses the issues presented in the waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) When DOE publishes a decision and order on a petition for waiver in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, the interim waiver will terminate upon the date specified in the decision and order, in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When DOE amends the test procedure to address the issues presented in a waiver, the waiver or interim waiver will automatically terminate on the date on which use of that test procedure is required to demonstrate compliance.
</P>
<P>(4) When DOE publishes a decision and order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> to modify a waiver pursuant to paragraph (k) of this section, the existing waiver will terminate upon the date specified in the decision and order, in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compliance certification and representations.</I> (1) If the interim waiver test procedure methodology is different than the decision and order test procedure methodology, certification reports to DOE required under 10 CFR 429.12 and any representations must be based on either of the two methodologies until 180-360 days after the publication date of the decision and order, as specified by DOE in the decision and order. Thereafter, certification reports and any representations must be based on the decision and order test procedure methodology, unless otherwise specified by DOE. Once a manufacturer uses the decision and order test procedure methodology in a certification report or any representation, all subsequent certification reports and any representations must be made using the decision and order test procedure methodology while the waiver is valid.
</P>
<P>(2) When DOE publishes a new or amended test procedure, certification reports to DOE required under 10 CFR 429.12 and any representations must be based on the testing methodology of an applicable waiver or interim waiver, or the new or amended test procedure until the date on which use of such test procedure is required to demonstrate compliance, unless otherwise specified by DOE in the test procedure final rule. Thereafter, certification reports and any representations must be based on the test procedure final rule methodology. Once a manufacturer uses the test procedure final rule methodology in a certification report or any representation, all subsequent certification reports and any representations must be made using the test procedure final rule methodology.
</P>
<P>(3) If DOE publishes a decision and order modifying an existing waiver, certification reports to DOE required under 10 CFR 429.12 and any representations must be based on either of the two methodologies until 180-360 days after the publication date of the decision and order modifying the waiver, as specified by DOE in the decision and order. Thereafter, certification reports and any representations must be based on the modified test procedure methodology unless otherwise specified by DOE. Once a manufacturer uses the modified test procedure methodology in a certification report or any representation, all subsequent certification reports and any representations must be made using the modified test procedure methodology while the modified waiver is valid.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Petition for waiver required of other manufactures.</I> Any manufacturer of a basic model employing a technology or characteristic for which a waiver was granted for another basic model and that results in the need for a waiver (as specified by DOE in a published decision and order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>) must petition for and be granted a waiver for that basic model. Manufacturers may also submit a request for interim waiver pursuant to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Rescission or modification.</I> (1) DOE may rescind or modify a waiver or interim waiver at any time upon DOE's determination that the factual basis underlying the petition for waiver or interim waiver is incorrect, upon a determination that the results from the alternate test procedure are unrepresentative of the basic model(s)' true energy consumption characteristics, or for other appropriate reason. Waivers and interim waivers are conditioned upon the validity of statements, representations, and documents provided by the requestor; any evidence that the original grant of a waiver or interim waiver was based upon inaccurate information will weigh against continuation of the waiver. DOE's decision will specify the basis for its determination and, in the case of a modification, will also specify the change to the authorized test procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) A person may request that DOE rescind or modify a waiver or interim waiver issued to that person if the person discovers an error in the information provided to DOE as part of its petition, determines that the waiver is no longer needed, or for other appropriate reasons. In a request for rescission, the requestor must provide a statement explaining why it is requesting rescission. In a request for modification, the requestor must explain the need for modification to the authorized test procedure and detail the modifications needed and the corresponding impact on measured energy consumption.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE will publish a proposed rescission or modification (DOE-initiated or at the request of the original requestor) in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment. A requestor may, within 10 working days of the close of the comment period specified in the proposed rescission or modification published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> submit a rebuttal statement to DOE. A requestor may rebut more than one comment in a single rebuttal statement.
</P>
<P>(4) DOE will publish its decision in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> DOE's determination will be based on relevant information contained in the record and any comments received.
</P>
<P>(5) After the effective date of a rescission, any basic model(s) previously subject to a waiver must be tested and certified using the applicable DOE test procedure in 10 CFR part 431.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Revision of regulation.</I> As soon as practicable after the granting of any waiver, DOE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of proposed rulemaking to amend its regulations so as to eliminate any need for the continuation of such waiver. As soon thereafter as practicable, DOE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a final rule.
</P>
<P>(m) To exhaust administrative remedies, any person aggrieved by an action under this section must file an appeal with the DOE's Office of Hearings and Appeals as provided in 10 CFR part 1003, subpart C.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 26601, May 9, 2014, as amended at 85 FR 79820, Dec. 11, 2020; 86 FR 70960, Dec. 14, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.402" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22.75.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.402   Preemption of State regulations for commercial HVAC &amp; WH products.</HEAD>
<P>Beginning on the effective date of such standard, an energy conservation standard set forth in this part for a commercial HVAC &amp; WH product supersedes any State or local regulation concerning the energy efficiency or energy use of that product, except as provided for in Section 345(b)(2)(B)-(D) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.403" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22.75.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.403   Maintenance of records for electric motors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Manufacturers of electric motors must establish, maintain and retain records of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The test data for all testing conducted pursuant to this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The development, substantiation, application, and subsequent verification of any AEDM used under this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Any written certification received from a certification program, including a certificate or conformity, relied on under the provisions of this part;
</P>
<P>(b) You must organize such records and index them so that they are readily accessible for review. The records must include the supporting test data associated with tests performed on any test units to satisfy the requirements of this part (except tests performed by DOE).
</P>
<P>(c) For each basic model, you must retain all such records for a period of two years from the date that production of all units of that basic model has ceased. You must retain records in a form allowing ready access to DOE, upon request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12505, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.404" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22.75.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.404   Imported electric motors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under sections 331 and 345 of the Act, any person importing an electric motor into the United States must comply with the provisions of the Act and of this part, and is subject to the remedies of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any electric motor offered for importation in violation of the Act and of this part will be refused admission into the customs territory of the United States under rules issued by the Secretary of the Treasury, except that the Secretary of the Treasury may, by such rules, authorize the importation of such electric motor upon such terms and conditions (including the furnishing of a bond) as may appear to the Secretary of the Treasury appropriate to ensure that such electric motor will not violate the Act and this part, or will be exported or abandoned to the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12505, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.405" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22.75.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.405   Exported electric motors.</HEAD>
<P>Under Sections 330 and 345 of the Act, this part does not apply to any electric motor if:
</P>
<P>(a) Such electric motor is manufactured, sold, or held for sale for export from the United States (or such electric motor was imported for export), unless such electric motor is, in fact, distributed in commerce for use in the United States; and,
</P>
<P>(b) Such electric motor, when distributed in commerce, or any container in which it is enclosed when so distributed, bears a stamp or label stating that such electric motor is intended for export.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12505, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.406" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22.75.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.406   Subpoena—Electric Motors.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to sections 329(a) and 345 of the Act, for purposes of carrying out this part, the Secretary or the Secretary's designee, may sign and issue subpoenas for the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of relevant books, records, papers, and other documents, and administer the oaths. Witnesses summoned under the provisions of this section shall be paid the same fees and mileage as are paid to witnesses in the courts of the United States. In case of contumacy by, or refusal to obey a subpoena served upon any persons subject to this part, the Secretary may seek an order from the District Court of the United States for any District in which such person is found or resides or transacts business requiring such person to appear and give testimony, or to appear and produce documents. Failure to obey such order is punishable by such court as a contempt thereof.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12505, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.407" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22.75.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.407   Confidentiality—Electric Motors.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 1004.11, any manufacturer or private labeler of electric motors submitting information or data which they believe to be confidential and exempt from public disclosure should submit one complete copy, and 15 copies from which the information believed to be confidential has been deleted. In accordance with the procedures established at 10 CFR 1004.11, the Department shall make its own determination with regard to any claim that information submitted be exempt from public disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 12505, Mar. 7, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.408" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.22.75.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.408   Preemption of State regulations for covered equipment other than electric motors and commercial heating, ventilating, air-conditioning and water heating products.</HEAD>
<P>This section concerns State regulations providing for any energy conservation standard, or water conservation standard (in the case of commercial prerinse spray valves or commercial clothes washers), or other requirement with respect to the energy efficiency, energy use, or water use (in the case of commercial prerinse spray valves or commercial clothes washers), for any covered equipment other than an electric motor or commercial HVAC and WH product. Any such regulation that contains a standard or requirement that is not identical to a Federal standard in effect under this subpart is preempted by that standard, except as provided for in sections 327(b) and (c) and 345(a)(10), (e), (f) and (g) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 675, Jan. 5, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 62993, Oct. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="W" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart W—Petitions To Exempt State Regulation From Preemption; Petitions To Withdraw Exemption of State Regulation</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 61941, Oct. 21, 2004, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 70 FR 60417, Oct. 18, 2005.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.421" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.421   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this subpart prescribe the procedures to be followed in connection with petitions requesting a rule that a State regulation prescribing an energy conservation standard or other requirement respecting energy use or energy efficiency of a type (or class) of covered equipment not be preempted.
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this subpart also prescribe the procedures to be followed in connection with petitions to withdraw a rule exempting a State regulation prescribing an energy conservation standard or other requirement respecting energy use or energy efficiency of a type (or class) of covered equipment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.422" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.422   Prescriptions of a rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for exemption from preemption.</I> Upon petition by a State which has prescribed an energy conservation standard or other requirement for a type or class of covered equipment for which a Federal energy conservation standard is applicable, the Secretary shall prescribe a rule that such standard not be preempted if he/she determines that the State has established by a preponderance of evidence that such requirement is needed to meet unusual and compelling State or local energy interests. For the purposes of this regulation, the term “unusual and compelling State or local energy interests” means interests which are substantially different in nature or magnitude from those prevailing in the U.S. generally, and are such that when evaluated within the context of the State's energy plan and forecast, the costs, benefits, burdens, and reliability of energy savings resulting from the State regulation make such regulation preferable or necessary when measured against the costs, benefits, burdens, and reliability of alternative approaches to energy savings or production, including reliance on reasonably predictable market-induced improvements in efficiency of all equipment subject to the State regulation. The Secretary may not prescribe such a rule if he finds that interested persons have established, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the State's regulation will significantly burden manufacturing, marketing, distribution, sale or servicing of the covered equipment on a national basis. In determining whether to make such a finding, the Secretary shall evaluate all relevant factors including: The extent to which the State regulation will increase manufacturing or distribution costs of manufacturers, distributors, and others; the extent to which the State regulation will disadvantage smaller manufacturers, distributors, or dealers or lessen competition in the sale of the covered equipment in the State; the extent to which the State regulation would cause a burden to manufacturers to redesign and produce the covered equipment type (or class), taking into consideration the extent to which the regulation would result in a reduction in the current models, or in the projected availability of models, that could be shipped on the effective date of the regulation to the State and within the U.S., or in the current or projected sales volume of the covered equipment type (or class) in the State and the U.S.; and the extent to which the State regulation is likely to contribute significantly to a proliferation of State commercial and industrial equipment efficiency requirements and the cumulative impact such requirements would have. The Secretary may not prescribe such a rule if he/she finds that such a rule will result in the unavailability in the State of any covered equipment (or class) of performance characteristics (including reliability), features, sizes, capacities, and volumes that are substantially the same as those generally available in the State at the time of the Secretary's finding. The failure of some classes (or types) to meet this criterion shall not affect the Secretary's determination of whether to prescribe a rule for other classes (or types).
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements of petition for exemption from preemption. A petition from a State for a rule for exemption from preemption shall include the information listed in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(vi) of this section. A petition for a rule and correspondence relating to such petition shall be available for public review except for confidential or proprietary information submitted in accordance with the Department of Energy's Freedom of Information Regulations set forth in 10 CFR part 1004.
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the State standard for which a rule exempting such standard is sought;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the State's energy plan and forecast;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specification of each type or class of covered equipment for which a rule exempting a standard is sought;
</P>
<P>(v) Other information, if any, believed to be pertinent by the petitioner; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Such other information as the Secretary may require.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for exemption from preemption when energy emergency conditions exist within State.</I> Upon petition by a State which has prescribed an energy conservation standard or other requirement for a type or class of covered equipment for which a Federal energy conservation standard is applicable, the Secretary may prescribe a rule, effective upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> that such regulation not be preempted if he determines that in addition to meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this Section the State has established that: an energy emergency condition exists within the State that imperils the health, safety, and welfare of its residents because of the inability of the State or utilities within the State to provide adequate quantities of gas or electric energy to its residents at less than prohibitive costs; and cannot be substantially alleviated by the importation of energy or the use of interconnection agreements; and the State regulation is necessary to alleviate substantially such condition.
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements of petition for exemption from preemption when energy emergency conditions exist within a State. A petition from a State for a rule for exemption from preemption when energy emergency conditions exist within a State shall include the information listed in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(vi) of this section. A petition shall also include the information prescribed in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(iv) of this section, and shall be available for public review except for confidential or proprietary information submitted in accordance with the Department of Energy's Freedom of Information Regulations set forth in 10 CFR part 1004:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the energy emergency condition which exists within the State, including causes and impacts.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of emergency response actions taken by the State and utilities within the State to alleviate the emergency condition;
</P>
<P>(iii) An analysis of why the emergency condition cannot be alleviated substantially by importation of energy or the use of interconnection agreements;
</P>
<P>(iv) An analysis of how the State standard can alleviate substantially such emergency condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for withdrawal of a rule exempting a State standard.</I> Any person subject to a State standard which, by rule, has been exempted from Federal preemption and which prescribes an energy conservation standard or other requirement for a type or class of covered equipment, when the Federal energy conservation standard for such equipment subsequently is amended, may petition the Secretary requesting that the exemption rule be withdrawn. The Secretary shall consider such petition in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, except that the burden shall be on the petitioner to demonstrate that the exemption rule received by the State should be withdrawn as a result of the amendment to the Federal standard. The Secretary shall withdraw such rule if he determines that the petitioner has shown the rule should be withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements of petition to withdraw a rule exempting a State standard. A petition for a rule to withdraw a rule exempting a State standard shall include the information prescribed in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (c)(1)(vii) of this section, and shall be available for public review, except for confidential or proprietary information submitted in accordance with the Department of Energy's Freedom of Information Regulations set forth in 10 CFR part 1004:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, address and telephone number of the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the interest of the petitioner for which a rule withdrawing an exemption is sought;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the State standard for which a rule withdrawing an exemption is sought;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specification of each type or class of covered equipment for which a rule withdrawing an exemption is sought;
</P>
<P>(v) A discussion of the factors contained in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) Such other information, if any, believed to be pertinent by the petitioner; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Such other information as the Secretary may require.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.423" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.423   Filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> All documents required to be served under this subpart shall, if mailed, be served by first class mail. Service upon a person's duly authorized representative shall constitute service upon that person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obligation to supply information.</I> A person or State submitting a petition is under a continuing obligation to provide any new or newly discovered information relevant to that petition. Such information includes, but is not limited to, information regarding any other petition or request for action subsequently submitted by that person or State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The same or related matters.</I> A person or State submitting a petition or other request for action shall state whether to the best knowledge of that petitioner the same or related issue, act, or transaction has been or presently is being considered or investigated by any State agency, department, or instrumentality.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Computation of time.</I> (1) Computing any period of time prescribed by or allowed under this subpart, the day of the action from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. If the last day of the period is Saturday, or Sunday, or Federal legal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is neither a Saturday, or Sunday or Federal legal holiday.
</P>
<P>(2) Saturdays, Sundays, and intervening Federal legal holidays shall be excluded from the computation of time when the period of time allowed or prescribed is 7 days or less.
</P>
<P>(3) When a submission is required to be made within a prescribed time, DOE may grant an extension of time upon good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(4) Documents received after regular business hours are deemed to have been submitted on the next regular business day. Regular business hours for the DOE's National Office, Washington, DC, are 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.
</P>
<P>(5) DOE reserves the right to refuse to accept, and not to consider, untimely submissions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing of petitions.</I> (1) A petition for a rule shall be submitted in triplicate to: The Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, Section 327 Petitions, Building Technologies, EE-2J, Forrestal Building,1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(2) A petition may be submitted on behalf of more than one person. A joint petition shall indicate each person participating in the submission. A joint petition shall provide the information required by § 431.212 for each person on whose behalf the petition is submitted.
</P>
<P>(3) All petitions shall be signed by the person(s) submitting the petition or by a duly authorized representative. If submitted by a duly authorized representative, the petition shall certify this authorization.
</P>
<P>(4) A petition for a rule to withdraw a rule exempting a State regulation, all supporting documents, and all future submissions shall be served on each State agency, department, or instrumentality whose regulation the petitioner seeks to supersede. The petition shall contain a certification of this service which states the name and mailing address of the served parties, and the date of service.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acceptance for filing.</I> (1) Within 15 days of the receipt of a petition, the Secretary will either accept it for filing or reject it, and the petitioner will be so notified in writing. The Secretary will serve a copy of this notification on each other party served by the petitioner. Only such petitions which conform to the requirements of this subpart and which contain sufficient information for the purposes of a substantive decision will be accepted for filing. Petitions which do not so conform will be rejected and an explanation provided to petitioner in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of the Act and this subpart, a petition is deemed to be filed on the date it is accepted for filing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Docket.</I> A petition accepted for filing will be assigned an appropriate docket designation. Petitioner shall use the docket designation in all subsequent submissions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.424" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.424   Notice of petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Promptly after receipt of a petition and its acceptance for filing, notice of such petition shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall set forth the availability for public review of all data and information available, and shall solicit comments, data and information with respect to the determination on the petition. Except as may otherwise be specified, the period for public comment shall be 60 days after the notice appears in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the material required under paragraph (a) of this section, each notice shall contain a summary of the State regulation at issue and the petitioner's reasons for the rule sought.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.425" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.425   Consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may consolidate any or all matters at issue in two or more proceedings docketed where there exist common parties, common questions of fact and law, and where such consolidation would expedite or simplify consideration of the issues. Consolidation shall not affect the right of any party to raise issues that could have been raised if consolidation had not occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.426" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.426   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may hold a public hearing, and publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the date and location of the hearing, when he determines that such a hearing is necessary and likely to result in a timely and effective resolution of the issues. A transcript shall be kept of any such hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.427" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.427   Disposition of petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the submission of public comments under § 431.213(a), the Secretary shall prescribe a final rule or deny the petition within 6 months after the date the petition is filed.
</P>
<P>(b) The final rule issued by the Secretary or a determination by the Secretary to deny the petition shall include a written statement setting forth his findings and conclusions, and the reasons and basis therefor. A copy of the Secretary's decision shall be sent to the petitioner and the affected State agency. The Secretary shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of the final rule granting or denying the petition and the reasons and basis therefor.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Secretary finds that he cannot issue a final rule within the 6-month period pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, he shall publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> extending such period to a date certain, but no longer than one year after the date on which the petition was filed. Such notice shall include the reasons for the delay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.428" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.428   Effective dates of final rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A final rule exempting a State standard from Federal preemption will be effective:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if the Secretary determines that such rule is needed to meet an “energy emergency condition” within the State;
</P>
<P>(2) Three years after such rule is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>; or
</P>
<P>(3) Five years after such rule is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if the Secretary determines that such additional time is necessary due to the burdens of retooling, redesign or distribution.
</P>
<P>(b) A final rule withdrawing a rule exempting a State standard will be effective upon publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.429" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.429   Request for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any petitioner whose petition for a rule has been denied may request reconsideration within 30 days of denial. The request shall contain a statement of facts and reasons supporting reconsideration and shall be submitted in writing to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(b) The denial of a petition will be reconsidered only where it is alleged and demonstrated that the denial was based on error in law or fact and that evidence of the error is found in the record of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Secretary fails to take action on the request for reconsideration within 30 days, the request is deemed denied, and the petitioner may seek such judicial review as may be appropriate and available.
</P>
<P>(d) A petitioner has not exhausted other administrative remedies until a request for reconsideration has been filed and acted upon or deemed denied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.430" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.23.75.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.430   Finality of decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A decision to prescribe a rule that a State energy conservation standard or other requirement not be preempted is final on the date the rule is issued, <I>i.e.</I>, signed by the Secretary. A decision to prescribe such a rule has no effect on other regulations of covered equipment of any other State.
</P>
<P>(b) A decision to prescribe a rule withdrawing a rule exempting a State standard or other requirement is final on the date the rule is issued, <I>i.e.</I>, signed by the Secretary. A decision to deny such a petition is final on the day a denial of a request for reconsideration is issued, <I>i.e.</I>, signed by the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="X" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart X—Small Electric Motors</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 32072, July 7, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.441" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.75.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.441   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains definitions, test procedures, and energy conservation requirements for small electric motors, pursuant to Part A-1 of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317. This subpart does not cover “electric motors,” which are addressed in subpart B of this part. This subpart does not cover electric motors that are “dedicated-purpose pool pump motors,” which are addressed in subpart Z of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 26638, May 4, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 40774, July 29, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.442" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.75.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.442   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions are applicable to this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Alternative efficiency determination method,</I> or AEDM, means, with respect to a small electric motor, a method of calculating the total power loss and average full-load efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Average full-load efficiency</I> means the arithmetic mean of the full-load efficiencies of a population of small electric motors of duplicate design, where the full-load efficiency of each motor in the population is the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the motor's useful power output to its total power input when the motor is operated at its full rated load, rated voltage, and rated frequency.
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means, with respect to a small electric motor, all units of a given type of small electric motor (or class thereof) manufactured by a single manufacturer, and which have the same rating, have electrical characteristics that are essentially identical, and do not have any differing physical or functional characteristics that affect energy consumption or efficiency. For the purpose of this definition, “rating” means a combination of the small electric motor's group (i.e., capacitor-start, capacitor-run; capacitor-start, induction-run; or polyphase), horsepower rating (or standard kilowatt equivalent), and number of poles with respect to which § 431.446 prescribes nominal full load efficiency standards.
</P>
<P><I>Breakdown torque</I> means the maximum torque that the motor will develop with rated voltage and frequency applied without an abrupt drop in speed. The breakdown torque is the local maximum of the torque-speed plot of the motor, closest to the synchronous speed of the motor, determined in accordance with NEMA MG 1-2016 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.443).
</P>
<P><I>CSA</I> means Canadian Standards Association.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> or <I>the Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>EPCA</I> means the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6291-6317.
</P>
<P><I>IEC</I> means International Electrotechnical Commission.
</P>
<P><I>IEEE</I> means Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Inc.
</P>
<P><I>NEMA</I> means National Electrical Manufacturers Association.
</P>
<P><I>Rated frequency</I> means 60 hertz.
</P>
<P><I>Rated load</I> (or <I>full load, full rated load,</I> or <I>rated full load</I>) means the rated output power of a small electric motor.
</P>
<P><I>Rated output power</I> means the mechanical output power that corresponds to the small electric motor's breakdown torque as specified in NEMA MG 1-2016 Table 10-5 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.443) for single-phase motors or 140 percent of the breakdown torque values specified in NEMA MG 1-2016 Table 10-5 for polyphase motors. For purposes of this definition, NEMA MG 1-2016 Table 10-5 is applied regardless of whether elements of NEMA MG 1-2016 Table 10-5 are identified as for small or medium motors.
</P>
<P><I>Rated voltage</I> means the input voltage of a small electric motor used when making representations of the performance characteristics of a given small electric motor and selected by the motor's manufacturer to be used for testing the motor's efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Small electric motor</I> means a NEMA general purpose alternating current single-speed induction motor, built in a two-digit frame number series in accordance with NEMA Standards Publication MG1-1987, including IEC metric equivalent motors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 32072, July 7, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 26638, May 4, 2012; 86 FR 23, Jan. 4, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="75" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.75" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Test Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.443" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.75.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.443   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Certain material is incorporated by reference into subpart X of part 431 with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Material is incorporated as it exists on the date of the approval, and a notification of any change in the material will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Standards can be obtained from the sources below. All approved material is available for inspection at U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-2945, or go to <I>http://www1.eere.energy.gov/buildings/appliance_standards/.</I> It is also available at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fedreg.legal@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CAN/CSA.</I> Canadian Standards Association, Sales Department, 5060 Spectrum Way, Suite 100, Mississauga, Ontario, L4W 5N6, Canada, 1-800-463-6727, or go to <I>http://www.shopcsa.ca/onlinestore/welcome.asp.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) CSA C747-09 (“CSA C747”), Energy efficiency test methods for small motors, October 2009, IBR approved for §§ 431.444; 431.447.
</P>
<P>(2) CSA C390-10, Test methods, marking requirements, and energy efficiency levels for three-phase induction motors, March 2010, IBR approved for §§ 431.444; 431.447.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IEC.</I> International Electrotechnical Commission, 3 rue de Varembé, 1st Floor, P.O. Box 131, CH—1211 Geneva 20—Switzerland, +41 22 919 02 11, or go to <I>https://webstore.iec.ch/home.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEC 60034-1, Edition 12.0 2010-02, (“IEC 60034-1:2010”), Rotating electrical machines—Part 1: Rating and performance, IBR approved for §§ 431.444.
</P>
<P>(2) IEC 60034-2-1:2014, Edition 2.0 2014-06, (“IEC 60034-2-1:2014”), Rotating electrical machines—Part 2-1: Standard methods for determining losses and efficiency from tests (excluding machines for traction vehicles), IBR approved for §§ 431.444, and 431.447.
</P>
<P>(3) IEC 60051-1:2016, Edition 6.0 2016-02, (“IEC 60051-1:2016), Direct acting indicating analogue electrical measuring instruments and their accessories—Part 1: Definitions and general requirements common to all parts, IBR approved for §§ 431.444.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>IEEE.</I> Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Inc., 445 Hoes Lane, P.O. Box 1331, Piscataway, NJ 08855-1331, 1-800-678-IEEE (4333), or go to <I>http://www.ieee.org/web/publications/home/index.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEEE 112
<SU>TM</SU>-2017 (“IEEE 112-2017”), IEEE Standard Test Procedure for Polyphase Induction Motors and Generators, approved December 6, 2017, IBR approved for §§ 431.444, and 431.447.
</P>
<P>(2) IEEE Std 114-2010, Test Procedure for Single-Phase Induction Motors, approved September 30, 2010, IBR approved for §§ 431.444; 431.447.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NEMA.</I> National Electrical Manufacturers Association, 1300 North 17th Street, Suite 900, Arlington, Virginia 22209, +1 703 841 3200, or go to <I>https://www.nema.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NEMA MG 1-2016, American National Standard for Motors and Generators, ANSI approved June 1, 2018, IBR approved for § 431.442.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 32072, July 7, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 26638, May 4, 2012; 86 FR 23, Jan. 4, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.444" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.75.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.444   Test Procedures for the measurement of energy efficiency of small electric motors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Pursuant to section 346(b)(1) of EPCA, this section provides the test procedures for measuring the full-load efficiency of small electric motors pursuant to EPCA. (42 U.S.C. 6317(b)(1)) For purposes of this part 431 and EPCA, the test procedures for measuring the efficiency of small electric motors shall be the test procedures specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and Calculations.</I> Determine the full-load efficiency of a small electric motor using one of the test methods listed in this paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Incorporation by reference:</I> In § 431.443, DOE incorporated by reference the entire standard for CSA C747-09, CSA C390-10, IEC 60034-1:2010, IEC 60034-2-1:2014, IEC 60051-1:2016, IEEE 112-2017, and IEEE 114-2010 into this section; however, only enumerated provisions of those documents referenced in this section are applicable as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) CSA C747-09:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 1.6 “Scope” as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (b)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 3 “Definitions” as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (b)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 5 “General test requirements” as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) Section 6 “Test method” as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) CSA C390-10:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 1.3, “Scope” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 3.1, “Definitions” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 5, “General test requirements—Measurements” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Section 7, “Test method” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Table 1, “Resistance measurement time delay” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Annex B, “Linear regression analysis” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(G) Annex C, “Procedure for correction of dynamometer torque readings” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) IEC 60034-1:2010:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 7.2 as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (b)(3)(iii), and (b)(4)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 8.6.2.3.3 as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (b)(3)(iii), and (b)(4)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Table 5 as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (b)(3)(iii), and (b)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) IEC 60034-2-1:2014:
</P>
<P>(A) Method 2-1-1A as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) and (b)(3)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Method 2-1-1B as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 3 “Terms and definitions” as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (b)(3)(iii), and (b)(4)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Section 4 “Symbols and abbreviations” as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (b)(3)(iii), (b)(4)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Section 5 “Basic requirements” as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (b)(3)(iii), and (b)(4)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Section 6.1.2 “Method 2-1-1A—Direct measurement of input and output” (except Section 6.1.2.2, “Test Procedure”) as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) and (b)(3)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Section 6.1.3 “Method 2-1-1B—Summations of losses, additional load losses according to the method of residual losses” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(H) Annex D, “Test report template for 2-1-1B” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) IEC 60051-1:2016:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 5.2 as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (b)(3)(iii) and (b)(4)(iii), of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(vi) IEEE 112-2017:
</P>
<P>(A) Test Method A as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Test Method B as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 3, “General” as specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Section 4, “Measurements” as specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Section 5, “Machine losses and tests for losses” as specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Section 6.1, “General” as specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Section 6.3, “Efficiency test method A—Input-output” as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(H) Section 6.4, “Efficiency test method B—Input-output” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(I) Section 9.2, “Form A—Method A” as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(J) Section 9.3, “Form A2—Method A calculations” as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(K) Section 9.4, “Form B—Method B” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(L) Section 9.5, “Form B2—Method B calculations” as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) IEEE 114-2010:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 3.2, “Test with load” as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 4, “Testing Facilities as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 5, “Measurements” as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Section 6, “General” as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Section 7, “Type of loss” as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Section 8, “Efficiency and Power Factor” as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Section 10 “Temperature Tests” as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(H) Annex A, Section A.3 “Determination of Motor Efficiency” as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(I) Annex A, Section A.4 “Explanatory notes for form 3, test data” as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) In cases where there is a conflict, the language of this appendix takes precedence over those documents. Any subsequent amendment to a referenced document by the standard-setting organization will not affect the test procedure in this appendix, unless and until the test procedure is amended by DOE.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Single-phase small electric motors.</I> For single-phase small electric motors, use one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) IEEE 114-2010, Section 3.2, “Test with load”, Section 4, “Testing Facilities, Section 5, “Measurements”, Section 6, “General”, Section 7, “Type of loss”, Section 8, “Efficiency and Power Factor”; Section 10 “Temperature Tests”, Annex A, Section A.3 “Determination of Motor Efficiency”, Annex A, Section A.4 “Explanatory notes for form 3, test data”;
</P>
<P>(ii) CSA C747-09, Section 1.6 “Scope”, Section 3 “Definitions”, Section 5, “General test requirements”, and Section 6 “Test method”;
</P>
<P>(iii) IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A, Section 3 “Terms and definitions”, Section 4 “Symbols and abbreviations”, Section 5 “Basic requirements”, and Section 6.1.2 “Method 2-1-1A—Direct measurement of input and output” (except Section 6.1.2.2, “Test Procedure”). The supply voltage shall be in accordance with section 7.2 of IEC 60034-1:2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.443). The measured resistance at the end of the thermal test shall be determined in a similar way to the extrapolation procedure described in section 8.6.2.3.3 of IEC 60034-1:2010, using the shortest possible time instead of the time interval specified in Table 5 therein, and extrapolating to zero. The measuring instruments for electrical quantities shall have the equivalent of an accuracy class of 0,2 in case of a direct test and 0,5 in case of an indirect test in accordance with section 5.2 of IEC 60051-1:2016 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.443).
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Additional IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A Torque Measurement Instructions.</I>
</P>
<P>If using IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A to measure motor performance, follow the instructions in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, instead of section 6.1.2.2 of IEC 60034-2-1:2014;
</P>
<P>(B) Couple the machine under test to a load machine. Measure torque using an in-line, shaft-coupled, rotating torque transducer or stationary, stator reaction torque transducer. Operate the machine under test at the rated load until thermal equilibrium is achieved (rate of change 1 K or less per half hour). Record U, I, Pel, n, T, θc.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Polyphase small electric motors of less than or equal to 1 horsepower (0.75 kW).</I> For polyphase small electric motors with 1 horsepower or less, use one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) IEEE 112-2017 Test Method A, Section 3, “General”, Section 4, “Measurements”, Section 5, “Machine losses and tests for losses”, Section 6.1, “General”, Section 6.3, “Efficiency test method A—Input-output”, Section 9.2, “Form A—Method A”, and Section 9.3, “Form A2—Method A calculations”;
</P>
<P>(ii) CSA C747-09, Section 1.6 “Scope”, Section 3 “Definitions”, Section 5, “General test requirements”, and Section 6 “Test method”;
</P>
<P>(iii) IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A, Section 3 “Terms and definitions”, Section 4 “Symbols and abbreviations”, Section 5 “Basic requirements”, and Section 6.1.2 “Method 2-1-1A—Direct measurement of input and output” (except Section 6.1.2.2, “Test Procedure”). The supply voltage shall be in accordance with section 7.2 of IEC 60034-1:2010. The measured resistance at the end of the thermal test shall be determined in a similar way to the extrapolation procedure described in section 8.6.2.3.3 of IEC 60034-1:2010 using the shortest possible time instead of the time interval specified in Table 5 therein, and extrapolating to zero. The measuring instruments for electrical quantities shall have the equivalent of an accuracy class of 0,2 in case of a direct test and 0,5 in case of an indirect test in accordance with section 5.2 of IEC 60051-1:2016.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Additional IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A Torque Measurement Instructions.</I>
</P>
<P>If using IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A to measure motor performance, follow the instructions in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(B) of this section, instead of section 6.1.2.2 of IEC 60034-2-1:2014;
</P>
<P>(B) Couple the machine under test to load machine. Measure torque using an in-line shaft-coupled, rotating torque transducer or stationary, stator reaction torque transducer. Operate the machine under test at the rated load until thermal equilibrium is achieved (rate of change 1 K or less per half hour). Record U, I, Pel, n, T, θc.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Polyphase small electric motors of greater than 1 horsepower (0.75 kW).</I> For polyphase small electric motors exceeding 1 horsepower, use one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) IEEE 112-2017 Test Method B, Section 3, “General”; Section 4, “Measurements”; Section 5, “Machine losses and tests for losses”, Section 6.1, “General”, Section 6.4, “Efficiency test method B—Input-output with loss segregation”, Section 9.4, “Form B—Method B”, and Section 9.5, “Form B2—Method B calculations”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) CSA C390-10, Section 1.3, “Scope”, Section 3.1, “Definitions”, Section 5, “General test requirements—Measurements”, Section 7, “Test method”, Table 1, “Resistance measurement time delay, Annex B, “Linear regression analysis”, and Annex C, “Procedure for correction of dynamometer torque readings”; or
</P>
<P>(iii) IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1B Section 3 “Terms and definitions”, Section 4 “Symbols and abbreviations”, Section 5 “Basic requirements”, Section 6.1.3 “Method 2-1-1B—Summation of losses, additional load losses according to the method of residual losses.”, and Annex D, “Test report template for 2-1-1B. The supply voltage shall be in accordance with section 7.2 of IEC 60034-1:2010. The measured resistance at the end of the thermal test shall be determined in a similar way to the extrapolation procedure described in section 8.6.2.3.3 of IEC 60034-1:2010 using the shortest possible time instead of the time interval specified in Table 5 therein, and extrapolating to zero. The measuring instruments for electrical quantities shall have the equivalent of an accuracy class of 0,2 in case of a direct test and 0,5 in case of an indirect test in accordance with section 5.2 of IEC 60051-1:2016.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 23, Jan. 4, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.445" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.75.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.445   Determination of small electric motor efficiency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> When a party determines the energy efficiency of a small electric motor to comply with an obligation imposed on it by or pursuant to Part A-1 of Title III of EPCA, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317, this section applies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provisions applicable to all small electric motors</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> The average full-load efficiency of each basic model of small electric motor must be determined either by testing in accordance with § 431.444 of this subpart, or by application of an alternative efficiency determination method (AEDM) that meets the requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, provided, however, that an AEDM may be used to determine the average full-load efficiency of one or more of a manufacturer's basic models only if the average full-load efficiency of at least five of its other basic models is determined through testing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative efficiency determination method.</I> An AEDM applied to a basic model must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Derived from a mathematical model that represents the mechanical and electrical characteristics of that basic model, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, or other analytic evaluation of performance data.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substantiation of an alternative efficiency determination method.</I> Before an AEDM is used, its accuracy and reliability must be substantiated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The AEDM must be applied to at least five basic models that have been tested in accordance with § 431.444; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The predicted total power loss for each such basic model, calculated by applying the AEDM, must be within plus or minus 10 percent of the mean total power loss determined from the testing of that basic model.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subsequent verification of an AEDM.</I> (i) Each manufacturer that has used an AEDM under this section shall have available for inspection by the Department of Energy records showing the method or methods used; the mathematical model, the engineering or statistical analysis, computer simulation or modeling, and other analytic evaluation of performance data on which the AEDM is based; complete test data, product information, and related information that the manufacturer has generated or acquired pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section; and the calculations used to determine the efficiency and total power losses of each basic model to which the AEDM was applied.
</P>
<P>(ii) If requested by the Department, the manufacturer shall conduct simulations to predict the performance of particular basic models of small electric motors specified by the Department, analyses of previous simulations conducted by the manufacturer, sample testing of basic models selected by the Department, or a combination of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of a certification program.</I> (i) A manufacturer may use a certification program, that DOE has classified as nationally recognized under § 431.447, to certify the average full-load efficiency of a basic model of small electric motor, and issue a certificate of conformity for the small electric motor.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each basic model for which a certification program is not used as described in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, any testing of a motor to determine its energy efficiency must be carried out in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional testing requirements applicable when a certification program is not used</I>—(1) <I>Selection of basic models for testing.</I> (i) Basic models must be selected for testing in accordance with the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Two of the basic models must be among the five basic models that have the highest unit volumes of production by the manufacturer in the prior year, or during the prior 12 calendar month period beginning in 2015, whichever is later, and comply with the standards set forth in § 431.446;
</P>
<P>(B) The basic models should be of different horsepowers without duplication;
</P>
<P>(C) At least one basic model should be selected from each of the frame number series for which the manufacturer is seeking compliance; and
</P>
<P>(D) Each basic model should have the lowest average full-load efficiency among the basic models with the same rating (“rating” as used here has the same meaning as it has in the definition of “basic model”).
</P>
<P>(ii) In any instance where it is impossible for a manufacturer to select basic models for testing in accordance with all of these criteria, the criteria shall be given priority in the order in which they are listed. Within the limits imposed by the criteria, basic models shall be selected randomly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Selection of units for testing within a basic model.</I> For each basic model selected for testing,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> a sample of units shall be selected at random and tested. The sample shall be comprised of production units of the basic model, or units that are representative of such production units. The sample size shall be no fewer than five units, except when fewer than five units of a basic model would be produced over a reasonable period of time (approximately 180 days). In such cases, each unit produced shall be tested.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Components of similar design may be substituted without requiring additional testing if the represented measures of energy consumption continue to satisfy the applicable sampling provision.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Applying results of testing.</I> When applying the test results to determine whether a motor complies with the required average efficiency level:
</P>
<P>The average full-load efficiency of the sample, X
<AC T="8"/> which is defined by
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er04my12.000.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where X<E T="52">i</E> is the measured full-load efficiency of unit i and n is the number of units tested, shall satisfy the condition:</FP></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er04my12.001.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where RE is the required average full-load efficiency.</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 32072, July 7, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 26638, May 4, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="76" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.76" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Energy Conservation Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.446" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.76.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.446   Small electric motors energy conservation standards and their effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each small electric motor manufactured (alone or as a component of another piece of non-covered equipment) after March 9, 2015, or in the case of a small electric motor which requires listing or certification by a nationally recognized safety testing laboratory, after March 9, 2017, shall have an average full load efficiency of not less than the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="4" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Average full load efficiency 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Polyphase 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Open motors (number of poles) 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.25/0.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">67.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.33/0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">71.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">69.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.5/0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">73.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.75/0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="4" scope="col">Motor horsepower/standard kilowatt equivalent
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Average full load efficiency 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Capacitor-start capacitor-run and capacitor-start induction-run 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Open motors (number of poles) 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.25/0.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.33/0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.5/0.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.75/0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">76.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1/0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5/1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">83.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2/1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3/2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) For purposes of determining the required minimum average full load efficiency of an electric motor that has a horsepower or kilowatt rating between two horsepower or two kilowatt ratings listed in any table of efficiency standards in paragraph (a) of this section, each such motor shall be deemed to have a listed horsepower or kilowatt rating, determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A horsepower at or above the midpoint between the two consecutive horsepower ratings shall be rounded up to the higher of the two horsepower ratings;
</P>
<P>(2) A horsepower below the midpoint between the two consecutive horsepower ratings shall be rounded down to the lower of the two horsepower ratings; or
</P>
<P>(3) A kilowatt rating shall be directly converted from kilowatts to horsepower using the formula 1 kilowatt = (1/0.746) hp, without calculating beyond three significant decimal places, and the resulting horsepower shall be rounded in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, whichever applies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 10947, Mar. 9, 2010; 75 FR 17036, Apr. 5, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.447" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.76.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.447   Department of Energy recognition of nationally recognized certification programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition.</I> For a certification program to be classified by the Department of Energy as being nationally recognized in the United States (“nationally recognized”), the organization operating the program must submit a petition to the Department requesting such classification, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and § 431.448. The petition must demonstrate that the program meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation criteria.</I> For a certification program to be classified by the Department as nationally recognized, it must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It must have satisfactory standards and procedures for conducting and administering a certification system, including periodic follow up activities to assure that basic models of small electric motors continue to conform to the efficiency levels for which they were certified, and for granting a certificate of conformity.
</P>
<P>(2) It must be independent of small electric motor manufacturers, importers, distributors, private labelers or vendors. It cannot be affiliated with, have financial ties with, be controlled by, or be under common control with any such entity.
</P>
<P>(3) It must be qualified to operate a certification system in a highly competent manner.
</P>
<P>(4) It must be expert in the content and application of the test procedures and methodologies in IEEE 112-2017 Test Method A, IEEE 112-2017 Test Method B, IEEE 114-2010, IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A, IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1B, CSA C390-10, or CSA C747-09 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.443) or similar procedures and methodologies for determining the energy efficiency of small electric motors. It must have satisfactory criteria and procedures for the selection and sampling of electric motors tested for energy efficiency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petition format.</I> Each petition requesting classification as a nationally recognized certification program must contain a narrative statement as to why the program meets the criteria listed in paragraph (b) of this section, must be signed on behalf of the organization operating the program by an authorized representative, and must be accompanied by documentation that supports the narrative statement. The following provides additional guidance as to the specific criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standards and procedures.</I> A copy of the standards and procedures for operating a certification system and for granting a certificate of conformity should accompany the petition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Independent status.</I> The petitioning organization should identify and describe any relationship, direct or indirect, that it or the certification program has with an electric motor manufacturer, importer, distributor, private labeler, vendor, trade association or other such entity, as well as any other relationship it believes might appear to create a conflict of interest for the certification program in operating a certification system for determining the compliance of small electric motors with the applicable energy efficiency standards. It should explain why it believes such relationship would not compromise its independence in operating a certification program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualifications to operate a certification system.</I> Experience in operating a certification system should be discussed and substantiated by supporting documents. Of particular relevance would be documentary evidence that establishes experience in the application of guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 65, General requirements for bodies operating product certification systems, ISO/IEC Guide 27, Guidelines for corrective action to be taken by a certification body in the event of either misapplication of its mark of conformity to a product, or products which bear the mark of the certification body being found to subject persons or property to risk, and ISO/IEC Guide 28, General rules for a model third-party certification system for products, as well as experience in overseeing compliance with the guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 25, General requirements for the competence of calibration and testing laboratories.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expertise in small electric motor test procedures.</I> The petition should set forth the program's experience, as applicable, with the test procedures and methodologies in, IEEE 112-2017 Test Method A, IEEE 112-2017 Test Method B, IEEE 114-2010, IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1A, IEC 60034-2-1:2014 Method 2-1-1B, CSA C390-10, and CSA C747-09 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.443) and with similar procedures and methodologies. This part of the petition should include items such as, but not limited to, a description of prior projects and qualifications of staff members. Of particular relevance would be documentary evidence that establishes experience in applying guidelines contained in the ISO/IEC Guide 25, General Requirements for the Competence of Calibration and Testing Laboratories to energy efficiency testing for electric motors.
</P>
<P>(5) The ISO/IEC Guides referenced in paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section are not incorporated by reference, but are for information and guidance only. International Organization for Standardization (ISO), 1, ch. de la Voie-Creuse, CP 56, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland/International Electrotechnical Commission, 3, rue de Varembé, P.O. Box 131, CH-1211 Geneva 20, Switzerland.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition.</I> The Department will evaluate the petition in accordance with § 431.448, and will determine whether the applicant meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section for classification as a nationally recognized certification program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 26639, May 4, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 25, Jan. 4, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.448" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.24.76.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.448   Procedures for recognition and withdrawal of recognition of certification programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of petition.</I> Any petition submitted to the Department pursuant to § 431.447(a), shall be entitled “Petition for Recognition” (“Petition”) and must be submitted, in triplicate to the Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. In accordance with the provisions set forth in 10 CFR 1004.11, any request for confidential treatment of any information contained in such a Petition or in supporting documentation must be accompanied by a copy of the Petition or supporting documentation from which the information claimed to be confidential has been deleted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public notice and solicitation of comments.</I> DOE shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the Petition from which confidential information, as determined by DOE, has been deleted in accordance with 10 CFR 1004.11 and shall solicit comments, data and information on whether the Petition should be granted. The Department shall also make available for inspection and copying the Petition's supporting documentation from which confidential information, as determined by DOE, has been deleted in accordance with 10 CFR 1004.11. Any person submitting written comments to DOE with respect to a Petition shall also send a copy of such comments to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsive statement by the petitioner.</I> A petitioner may, within 10 working days of receipt of a copy of any comments submitted in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, respond to such comments in a written statement submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy. A petitioner may address more than one set of comments in a single responsive statement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public announcement of interim determination and solicitation of comments.</I> The Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy shall issue an interim determination on the Petition as soon as is practicable following receipt and review of the Petition and other applicable documents, including, but not limited to, comments and responses to comments. The petitioner shall be notified in writing of the interim determination. DOE shall also publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> the interim determination and shall solicit comments, data and information with respect to that interim determination. Written comments and responsive statements may be submitted as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public announcement of final determination.</I> The Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy shall, as soon as practicable, following receipt and review of comments and responsive statements on the interim determination publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of final determination on the Petition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional information.</I> The Department may, at any time during the recognition process, request additional relevant information or conduct an investigation concerning the Petition. The Department's determination on a Petition may be based solely on the Petition and supporting documents, or may also be based on such additional information as the Department deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Withdrawal of recognition</I>—(1) <I>Withdrawal by the Department.</I> If the Department believes that a certification program that has been recognized under § 431.447 is failing to meet the criteria of paragraph (b) of the section under which it is recognized, the Department will so advise such entity and request that it take appropriate corrective action. The Department will give the entity an opportunity to respond. If after receiving such response, or no response, the Department believes satisfactory corrective action has not been made, the Department will withdraw its recognition from that entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Voluntary withdrawal.</I> A certification program may withdraw itself from recognition by the Department by advising the Department in writing of such withdrawal. It must also advise those that use it (for a certification organization, the manufacturers) of such withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of withdrawal of recognition.</I> The Department will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice of any withdrawal of recognition that occurs pursuant to this paragraph (g).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 26639, May 4, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Y" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Y—Pumps</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 4145, Jan. 25, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.461" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.461   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains definitions, test procedures, and energy conservation requirements for pumps, pursuant to Part A-1 of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.462" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.462   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions are applicable to this subpart, including appendices A, B, and C. In cases where definitions reference design intent, DOE will consider marketing materials, labels and certifications, and equipment design to determine design intent.


</P>
<P><I>Adaptive pressure control</I> means a pressure control that senses the head requirements in the system in which it is installed and adjusts the pump control curve accordingly.
</P>
<P><I>Bare pump</I> means a pump excluding mechanical equipment, driver, and controls.


</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of a given class of pump manufactured by one manufacturer, having the same primary energy source, and having essentially identical electrical, physical, and functional (or hydraulic) characteristics that affect energy consumption, energy efficiency, water consumption, or water efficiency; and, in addition, for pumps that are subject to the test procedures specified in § 431.464(a), the following provisions also apply:
</P>
<P>(1) All variations in numbers of stages of bare RSV and ST pumps must be considered a single basic model;
</P>
<P>(2) Pump models for which the bare pump differs in impeller diameter and/or impeller trim, may be considered a single basic model; and
</P>
<P>(3) Pump models for which the bare pump differs in number of stages and/or impeller diameter and which are sold with motors (or motors and controls) of varying horsepower may only be considered a single basic model if:
</P>
<P>(i) For ESCC, ESFM, IL, and RSV pumps, each motor offered in the basic model has a nominal full load motor efficiency rated at the Federal minimum (see the applicable table at § 431.25) or the same number of bands above the Federal minimum for each respective motor horsepower (<I>see</I> table 3 of appendix A to this subpart); or for pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors, any number of bands above the Federal minimum for each respective motor horsepower provided that the rating is based on the lowest number of bands; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For ST pumps, each motor offered in the basic model has a full load motor efficiency at the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency shown in table 2 of appendix A to subpart Y of this part or the same number of bands above the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency for each respective motor horsepower (<I>see</I> table 3 of appendix A to this subpart) or for inverter-only synchronous electric motors, any number of bands above the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency provided the rating is based on the lowest number of bands.




</P>
<P><I>Basket strainer</I> means a perforated or otherwise porous receptacle, mounted within a housing on the suction side of a pump, that prevents solid debris from entering a pump. The basket strainer receptacle is capable of passing spherical solids of 1 mm in diameter, and can be removed by hand or using only simple tools (<I>e.g.,</I> screwdriver, pliers, open-ended wrench).
</P>
<P><I>Best efficiency point (BEP)</I> means the pump hydraulic power operating point (consisting of both flow and head conditions) that results in the maximum efficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Bowl</I> means a casing in which the impeller rotates, and that directs flow axially to the next stage or the discharge column.




</P>
<P><I>Bowl diameter</I> means the maximum dimension of an imaginary straight line passing through and in the plane of the circular shape of the bowl of the bare pump that is perpendicular to the pump shaft and that intersects the outermost circular shape of the bowl of the bare pump at both of its ends.


</P>
<P><I>Circulator-less-volute</I> means a circulator pump distributed in commerce without a volute and for which a paired volute is also distributed in commerce. Whether a paired volute is distributed in commerce will be determined based on published data, marketing literature, and other publicly available information.
</P>
<P><I>Circulator pump</I> means is a pump that is either a wet rotor circulator pumps; a dry rotor, two-piece circulator pump; or a dry rotor, three-piece circulator pump. A circulator pump may be distributed in commerce with or without a volute.
</P>
<P><I>Clean water pump</I> means a pump that is designed for use in pumping water with a maximum non-absorbent free solid content of 0.016 pounds per cubic foot, and with a maximum dissolved solid content of 3.1 pounds per cubic foot, provided that the total gas content of the water does not exceed the saturation volume, and disregarding any additives necessary to prevent the water from freezing at a minimum of 14 °F.
</P>
<P><I>Close-coupled pump</I> means a pump in which the driver's bearings are designed to absorb the pump's axial load.


</P>
<P><I>Continuous control</I> means a control that adjusts the speed of the pump driver continuously over the driver operating speed range in response to incremental changes in the required pump flow, head, or power output.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means any device that can be used to operate the driver. Examples include, but are not limited to, continuous or non-continuous controls, schedule-based controls, on/off switches, and float switches.
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated-purpose pool pump</I> comprises self-priming pool filter pumps, non-self-priming pool filter pumps, waterfall pumps, pressure cleaner booster pumps, integral sand-filter pool pumps, integral-cartridge filter pool pumps, storable electric spa pumps, and rigid electric spa pumps.
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower</I> means the product of the dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal motor horsepower and the dedicated-purpose pool pump service factor of a motor used on a dedicated-purpose pool pump based on the maximum continuous duty motor power output rating allowable for the motor's nameplate ambient rating and insulation class. (Dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower is also referred to in the industry as service factor horsepower or motor capacity.)
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated-purpose pool pump service factor</I> means a multiplier applied to the rated horsepower of a pump motor to indicate the percent above nameplate horsepower at which the motor can operate continuously without exceeding its allowable insulation class temperature limit.
</P>
<P><I>Designed and marketed</I> means that the equipment is designed to fulfill the indicated application and, when distributed in commerce, is designated and marketed for that application, with the designation on the packaging and any publicly available documents (<I>e.g.,</I> product literature, catalogs, and packaging labels).
</P>
<P><I>Driver</I> means the machine providing mechanical input to drive a bare pump directly or through the use of mechanical equipment. Examples include, but are not limited to, an electric motor, internal combustion engine, or gas/steam turbine.
</P>
<P><I>Dry rotor pump</I> means a pump in which the motor rotor is not immersed in the pumped fluid.
</P>
<P><I>Dry rotor, three-piece circulator pump</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A single stage, rotodynamic, single-axis flow, mechanically-coupled, dry rotor pump that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a rated hydraulic power less than or equal to 5 hp at the best efficiency point at full impeller diameter,
</P>
<P>(ii) Is distributed in commerce with a horizontal motor, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Discharges the pumped liquid through a volute in a plane perpendicular to the shaft.
</P>
<P>(2) Examples include, but are not limited to, pumps generally referred to in industry as CP3.
</P>
<P><I>Dry rotor, two-piece circulator pump</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A single stage, rotodynamic, single-axis flow, close-coupled, dry rotor pump that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a rated hydraulic power less than or equal to 5 hp at best efficiency point at full impeller diameter,
</P>
<P>(ii) Is distributed in commerce with a horizontal motor, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Discharges the pumped liquid through a volute in a plane perpendicular to the shaft.
</P>
<P>(2) Examples include, but are not limited to, pumps generally referred to in industry as CP2.


</P>
<P><I>End-suction close-coupled (ESCC) pump</I> means a close-coupled, dry rotor, end-suction pump that has a shaft input power greater than or equal to 1 hp and less than or equal to 200 hp at BEP and full impeller diameter and that is not a dedicated-purpose pool pump.






</P>
<P><I>End-suction frame mounted/own bearings (ESFM) pump</I> means a mechanically-coupled, dry rotor, end-suction pump that has a shaft input power greater than or equal to 1 hp and less than or equal to 200 hp at BEP and full impeller diameter and that is not a dedicated-purpose pool pump.




</P>
<P><I>End-suction pump</I> means a single-stage, rotodynamic pump in which the liquid enters the bare pump in a direction parallel to the impeller shaft and on the side opposite the bare pump's driver-end. The liquid is discharged in a plane perpendicular to the shaft.


</P>
<P><I>External input signal control</I> means a variable speed drive that adjusts the speed of the driver in response to an input signal from an external logic and/or user interface.
</P>
<P><I>Fire pump</I> means a pump that is compliant with NFPA 20-2016 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), “Standard for the Installation of Stationary Pumps for Fire Protection,” and is either:
</P>
<P>(1) UL listed under ANSI/UL 448-2013 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), “Standard for Safety Centrifugal Stationary Pumps for Fire-Protection Service,” or
</P>
<P>(2) FM Global (FM) approved under the January 2015 edition of FM Class Number 1319, “Approval Standard for Centrifugal Fire Pumps (Horizontal, End Suction Type),” (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P><I>Freeze protection control</I> means a pool pump control that, at a certain ambient temperature, turns on the dedicated-purpose pool pump to circulate water for a period of time to prevent the pool and water in plumbing from freezing.
</P>
<P><I>Full impeller diameter</I> means the maximum diameter impeller with which a given pump basic model is distributed in commerce.
</P>
<P><I>Header pump</I> means a circulator pump distributed in commerce without a volute and for which a paired volute is not distributed in commerce. Whether a paired volute is distributed in commerce will be determined based on published data, marketing literature, and other publicly available information.
</P>
<P><I>Horizontal motor</I> means a motor, for which the motor shaft position when functioning under operating conditions specified in manufacturer literature, includes a horizontal position.


</P>
<P><I>In-line (IL) pump</I> means a pump that is either a twin head pump or a single-stage, single-axis flow, dry rotor, rotodynamic pump that has a shaft input power greater than or equal to 1 hp and less than or equal to 200 hp at BEP and full impeller diameter, in which liquid is discharged in a plane perpendicular to the shaft. Such pumps do not include circulator pumps.






</P>
<P><I>Integral</I> means a part of the device that cannot be removed without compromising the device's function or destroying the physical integrity of the unit.
</P>
<P><I>Integral cartridge-filter pool pump</I> means a pump that requires a removable cartridge filter, installed on the suction side of the pump, for operation; and the cartridge filter cannot be bypassed.
</P>
<P><I>Integral sand-filter pool pump</I> means a pump distributed in commerce with a sand filter that cannot be bypassed.
</P>
<P><I>Magnet driven pump</I> means a pump in which the bare pump is isolated from the motor via a containment shell and torque is transmitted from the motor to the bare pump via magnetic force. The motor shaft is not physically coupled to the impeller or impeller shaft.
</P>
<P><I>Manual speed control</I> means a control (variable speed drive and user interface) that adjusts the speed of the driver based on manual user input.
</P>
<P><I>Mechanical equipment</I> means any component of a pump that transfers energy from the driver to the bare pump.


</P>
<P><I>Mechanically-coupled pump</I> means a pump in which bearings external to the driver are designed to absorb the pump's axial load.


</P>
<P><I>Multi-speed dedicated-purpose pool pump</I> means a dedicated-purpose pool pump that is capable of operating at more than two discrete, pre-determined operating speeds separated by speed increments greater than 100 rpm, where the lowest speed is less than or equal to half of the maximum operating speed and greater than zero, and must be distributed in commerce with an on-board pool pump control (<I>i.e.,</I> variable speed drive and user interface or programmable switch) that changes the speed in response to pre-programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times.
</P>
<P><I>Non-continuous control</I> means a control that adjusts the speed of a driver to one of a discrete number of non-continuous preset operating speeds, and does not respond to incremental reductions in the required pump flow, head, or power output.
</P>
<P><I>Non-self-priming pool filter pump</I> means a pool filter pump that is not certified under NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) to be self-priming and is not capable of re-priming to a vertical lift of at least 5.0 feet with a true priming time less than or equal to 10.0 minutes, when tested in accordance with section F of appendix B or C of this subpart, and is not a waterfall pump.
</P>
<P><I>On-demand circulator pump</I> means a circulator pump that is distributed in commerce with an integral control that:
</P>
<P>(1) Initiates water circulation based on receiving a signal from the action of a user [of a fixture or appliance] or sensing the presence of a user of a fixture and cannot initiate water circulation based on other inputs, such as water temperature or a pre-set schedule.
</P>
<P>(2) Automatically terminates water circulation once hot water has reached the pump or desired fixture.
</P>
<P>(3) Does not allow the pump to operate when the temperature in the pipe exceeds 104 °F or for more than 5 minutes continuously.
</P>
<P><I>Pool filter pump</I> means an end suction pump that:
</P>
<P>(1) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) Includes an integrated basket strainer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not include an integrated basket strainer, but requires a basket strainer for operation, as stated in manufacturer literature provided with the pump; and
</P>
<P>(2) May be distributed in commerce connected to, or packaged with, a sand filter, removable cartridge filter, or other filtration accessory, so long as the filtration accessory are connected with consumer-removable connections that allow the filtration accessory to be bypassed.
</P>
<P><I>Pool pump timer</I> means a pool pump control that automatically turns off a dedicated-purpose pool pump after a run-time of no longer than 10 hours.
</P>
<P><I>Pressure cleaner booster pump</I> means an end suction, dry rotor pump designed and marketed for pressure-side pool cleaner applications, and which may be UL listed under ANSI/UL 1081-2016 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P><I>Pressure control</I> means a control (variable speed drive and integrated logic) that automatically adjusts the speed of the driver in response to pressure.
</P>
<P><I>Prime-assist pump</I> means a pump that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed to lift liquid that originates below the centerline of the pump inlet;
</P>
<P>(2) Requires no manual intervention to prime or re-prime from a dry-start condition; and
</P>
<P>(3) Includes a device, such as a vacuum pump or air compressor and venturi eductor, to remove air from the suction line in order to automatically perform the prime or re-prime function at any point during the pump's operating cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Pump</I> means equipment designed to move liquids (which may include entrained gases, free solids, and totally dissolved solids) by physical or mechanical action and includes a bare pump and, if included by the manufacturer at the time of sale, mechanical equipment, driver, and controls.
</P>
<P><I>Radially-split, multi-stage, horizontal, diffuser casing (RSH) pump</I> means a horizontal, multi-stage, dry rotor, rotodynamic pump:
</P>
<P>(1) That has a shaft input power greater than or equal to 1 hp and less than or equal to 200 hp at BEP and full impeller diameter and at the number of stages required for testing;
</P>
<P>(2) In which liquid is discharged in a plane perpendicular to the impeller shaft;
</P>
<P>(3) For which each stage (or bowl) consists of an impeller and diffuser; and
</P>
<P>(4) For which no external part of such a pump is designed to be submerged in the pumped liquid.






</P>
<P><I>Radially-split, multi-stage, horizontal, end-suction diffuser casing (RSHES) pump</I> means a RSH pump in which the liquid enters the bare pump in a direction parallel to the impeller shaft and on the side opposite the bare pump's driver-end.


</P>
<P><I>Radially-split, multi-stage, horizontal, in-line diffuser casing (RSHIL) pump</I> means a single-axis flow RSH pump in which the liquid enters the pump in a plane perpendicular to the impeller shaft.


</P>
<P><I>Radially-split, multi-stage, vertical, diffuser casing (RSV) pump</I> means a vertically suspended, multi-stage, single-axis flow, dry rotor, rotodynamic pump:
</P>
<P>(1) That has a shaft input power greater than or equal to 1 hp and less than or equal to 200 hp at BEP and full impeller diameter and at the number of stages required for testing;
</P>
<P>(2) In which liquid is discharged in a plane perpendicular to the impeller shaft;
</P>
<P>(3) For which each stage (or bowl) consists of an impeller and diffuser; and
</P>
<P>(4) For which no external part of such a pump is designed to be submerged in the pumped liquid.


</P>
<P><I>Removable cartridge filter</I> means a filter component with fixed dimensions that captures and removes suspended particles from water flowing through the unit. The removable cartridge filter is not capable of passing spherical solids of 1 mm in diameter or greater, and can be removed from the filter housing by hand or using only simple tools (<I>e.g.,</I> screwdrivers, pliers, open-ended wrench).
</P>
<P><I>Rigid electric spa pump</I> means an end suction pump that does not contain an integrated basket strainer or require a basket strainer for operation as stated in manufacturer literature provided with the pump and that meets the following three criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Is assembled with four through bolts that hold the motor rear endplate, rear bearing, rotor, front bearing, front endplate, and the bare pump together as an integral unit;
</P>
<P>(2) Is constructed with buttress threads at the inlet and discharge of the bare pump; and
</P>
<P>(3) Uses a casing or volute and connections constructed of a non-metallic material.
</P>
<P><I>Rotodynamic pump</I> means a pump in which energy is continuously imparted to the pumped fluid by means of a rotating impeller, propeller, or rotor.
</P>
<P><I>Sand filter</I> means a device designed to filter water through sand or an alternate sand-type media.
</P>
<P><I>Self-priming pool filter pump</I> means a pool filter pump that is certified under NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) to be self-priming or is capable of re-priming to a vertical lift of at least 5.0 feet with a true priming time less than or equal to 10.0 minutes, when tested in accordance with section F of appendix B or C of this subpart, and is not a waterfall pump.
</P>
<P><I>Self-priming pump</I> means a pump that either is a self-priming pool filter pump or a pump that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is designed to lift liquid that originates below the centerline of the pump inlet;
</P>
<P>(2) Contains at least one internal recirculation passage; and
</P>
<P>(3) Requires a manual filling of the pump casing prior to initial start-up, but is able to re-prime after the initial start-up without the use of external vacuum sources, manual filling, or a foot valve.
</P>
<P><I>Single axis flow pump</I> means a pump in which the liquid inlet of the bare pump is on the same axis as the liquid discharge of the bare pump.
</P>
<P><I>Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pump</I> means a dedicated-purpose pool pump that is capable of operating at only one speed.


</P>
<P><I>Small vertical in-line (SVIL) pump</I> means a small vertical twin-head pump or a single stage, single-axis flow, dry rotor, rotodynamic pump that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a shaft input power less than 1 horsepower at its BEP at full impeller diameter; and
</P>
<P>(2) In which liquid is discharged in a plane perpendicular to the shaft; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is not a circulator pump.


</P>
<P><I>Small vertical twin-head pump</I> means a dry rotor, single-axis flow, rotodynamic pump that contains two equivalent impeller assemblies, each of which:
</P>
<P>(1) Contains an impeller, impeller shaft (or motor shaft in the case of close-coupled pumps), shaft seal or packing, driver (if present), and mechanical equipment (if present); and
</P>
<P>(2) Has a shaft input power that is less than or equal to 1 hp at BEP and full impeller diameter; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has the same primary energy source (if sold with a driver) and the same electrical, physical, and functional characteristics that affect energy consumption or energy efficiency; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is mounted in its own volute; and
</P>
<P>(5) Discharges liquid through its volute and the common discharge in a plane perpendicular to the impeller shaft.


</P>
<P><I>Storable electric spa pump</I> means a pump that is distributed in commerce with one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An integral heater; and
</P>
<P>(2) An integral air pump.
</P>
<P><I>Submersible pump</I> means a pump that is designed to be operated with the motor and bare pump fully submerged in the pumped liquid.


</P>
<P><I>Submersible turbine (ST) pump</I> means a single-stage or multi-stage, dry rotor, rotodynamic pump that is designed to be operated with the motor and stage(s) fully submerged in the pumped liquid; that has a shaft input power greater than or equal to 1 hp and less than or equal to 200 hp at BEP and full impeller diameter and at the number of stages required for testing; and in which each stage of this pump consists of an impeller and diffuser, and liquid enters and exits each stage of the bare pump in a direction parallel to the impeller shaft.


</P>
<P><I>Temperature control</I> means a control (variable speed drive and integrated logic) that automatically adjusts the speed of the driver continuously over the driver operating speed range in response to temperature.
</P>
<P><I>Twin head pump</I> means a dry rotor, single-axis flow, rotodynamic pump that contains two impeller assemblies, which both share a common casing, inlet, and discharge, and each of which
</P>
<P>(1) Contains an impeller, impeller shaft (or motor shaft in the case of close-coupled pumps), shaft seal or packing, driver (if present), and mechanical equipment (if present);
</P>
<P>(2) Has a shaft input power that is greater than or equal to 1 hp and less than or equal to 200 hp at best efficiency point (BEP) and full impeller diameter;
</P>
<P>(3) Has the same primary energy source (if sold with a driver) and the same electrical, physical, and functional characteristics that affect energy consumption or energy efficiency;
</P>
<P>(4) Is mounted in its own volute; and
</P>
<P>(5) Discharges liquid through its volute and the common discharge in a plane perpendicular to the impeller shaft.
</P>
<P><I>Two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pump</I> means a dedicated-purpose pool pump that is capable of operating at only two different pre-determined operating speeds, where the low operating speed is less than or equal to half of the maximum operating speed and greater than zero, and must be distributed in commerce either:
</P>
<P>(1) With a pool pump control (<I>e.g.,</I> variable speed drive and user interface or switch) that is capable of changing the speed in response to user preferences; or
</P>
<P>(2) Without a pool pump control that has the capability to change speed in response to user preferences, but is unable to operate without the presence of such a pool pump control.
</P>
<P><I>Variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pump</I> means a dedicated-purpose pool pump that is capable of operating at a variety of user-determined speeds, where all the speeds are separated by at most 100 rpm increments over the operating range and the lowest operating speed is less than or equal to one-third of the maximum operating speed and greater than zero. Such a pump must include a variable speed drive and be distributed in commerce either:
</P>
<P>(1) With a user interface that changes the speed in response to pre-programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times; or
</P>
<P>(2) Without a user interface that changes the speed in response to pre-programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times, but is unable to operate without the presence of a user interface.
</P>
<P><I>Variable speed drive</I> means equipment capable of varying the speed of the motor.
</P>
<P><I>Vertical turbine (VT) pump</I> means a vertically suspended, single-stage or multi-stage, dry rotor, single inlet, rotodynamic pump:
</P>
<P>(1) That has a shaft input power greater than or equal to 1 hp and less than or equal to 200 hp at BEP and full impeller diameter and at the number of stages required for testing;
</P>
<P>(2) For which the pump driver is not designed to be submerged in the pumped liquid;
</P>
<P>(3) That has a single pressure containing boundary (<I>i.e.,</I> is single casing), which may consist of, but is not limited, to bowls, columns, and discharge heads; and
</P>
<P>(4) That discharges liquid through the same casing in which the impeller shaft is contained.




</P>
<P><I>Waterfall pump</I> means a pool filter pump with a certified maximum head less than or equal to 30.0 feet, and a maximum speed less than or equal to 1,800 rpm.
</P>
<P><I>Wet rotor circulator pump</I> means a single stage, rotodynamic, close-coupled, wet rotor pump. Examples include, but are not limited to, pumps generally referred to in industry as CP1.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 4145, Jan. 25, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 5742, Jan. 18, 2017; 82 FR 36920, Aug. 7, 2017; 87 FR 57298, Sept. 19, 2022; 88 FR 17975, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.463" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.463   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the following sources:
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASME.</I> American Society of Mechanical Engineers, Two Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016-5990; (800) 843-2763; <I>www.asme.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASME MFC-3M-2004 (Reaffirmed 2017) (“ASME MFC-3M-2004”), <I>Measurement of Fluid Flow in Pipes Using Orifice, Nozzle, and Venturi,</I> Issued January 1, 2004; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ASME MFC-5M-1985 (Reaffirmed 2006) (“ASME MFC-5M-1985”), <I>Measurement of Liquid Flow in Closed Conduits Using Transit-Time Ultrasonic Flowmeters,</I> Issued July 15, 1985; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) ASME MFC-8M-2001 (Reaffirmed 2011) (“ASME MFC-8M-2001”), <I>Fluid Flow in Closed Conduits: Connections for Pressure Signal Transmissions Between Primary and Secondary Devices,</I> Issued September 1, 2001; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) ASME MFC-12M-2006 (Reaffirmed 2014) (“ASME MFC-12M-2006”), <I>Measurement of Fluid Flow in Closed Conduits Using Multiport Averaging Pitot Primary Elements,</I> Issued October 9, 2006; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) ASME MFC-16-2014, <I>Measurement of Liquid Flow in Closed Conduits with Electromagnetic Flowmeters,</I> Issued March 14, 2014; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) ASME MFC-22-2007 (Reaffirmed 2014) (“ASME MFC-22-2007”), <I>Measurement of Liquid by Turbine Flowmeters,</I> Issued April 14, 2008; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>AWWA.</I> American Water Works Association, Headquarters, 6666 W Quincy Ave, Denver, CO 80235; (303) 794-7711; <I>www.awwa.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/AWWA E103-2015 (“AWWA E103-2015”), <I>Horizontal and Vertical Line-Shaft Pumps,</I> approved 7, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>CSA.</I> Canadian Standards Association, 5060 Spectrum Way, Suite 100, Mississauga, Ontario, L4W 5N6, Canada; (800) 463-6727; <I>www.csagroup.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) CSA C390-10 Test methods, marking requirements, and energy efficiency levels for three-phase induction motors, Updated March 2010; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) CSA C747-2009 (Reaffirmed 2014) (“CSA C747-2009 (RA 2014)”), <I>Energy efficiency test methods for small motors,</I> CSA reaffirmed 2014; IBR approved for appendices B and C to this subpart, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 1, “Scope”;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 3, “Definitions”;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 5, “General Test Requirements”; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 6, “Test Method.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FM.</I> FM Global, 1151 Boston-Providence Turnpike, P.O. Box 9102, Norwood, MA 02062; (781) 762-4300; <I>www.fmglobal.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) FM Class Number 1319, <I>Approval Standard for Centrifugal Fire Pumps (Horizontal, End Suction Type),</I> January 2015; IBR approved for § 431.462.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>HI.</I> Hydraulic Institute, 300 Interpace Parkway, 3rd Floor, Parsippany, NJ 07054-4406; 973-267-9700; <I>www.Pumps.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/HI 9.6.1-2017 (“HI 9.6.1-2017”) “<I>Rotodynamic Pumps—Guideline for NPSH Margin,</I> ANSI-approved January 6, 2017; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/HI 9.6.6-2016 (“HI 9.6.6-2016”) “<I>Rotodynamic Pumps for Pump Piping,</I> ANSI-approved March 23, 2016; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI/HI 9.8-2018 (“HI 9.8-2018”) “<I>Rotodynamic Pumps for Pump Intake Design,</I> ANSI-approved January 8, 2018; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/HI 14.1-14.2-2019 (“HI 14.1-14.2-2019”) “<I>Rotodynamic Pumps for Nomenclature and Definitions,</I> ANSI-approved April 9, 2019; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) HI 40.6-2014 (“HI 40.6-2014-B”), <I>Methods for Rotodynamic Pump Efficiency Testing,</I> copyright 2014, IBR approved for appendices B and C to this subpart, excluding the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 40.6.4.1 “Vertically suspended pumps”;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 40.6.4.2 “Submersible pumps”;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 40.6.5.3 “Test report”;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 40.6.5.5 “Test conditions”;
</P>
<P>(v) Section 40.6.5.5.2 “Speed of rotation during test”;
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 40.6.6.1 “Translation of test results to rated speed of rotation”;
</P>
<P>(vii) Appendix A “Test arrangements (normative)”: A.7 “Testing at temperatures exceeding 30 °C (86 °F)”; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Appendix B, “Reporting of test results (normative)”).
</P>
<P>(6) HI 40.6-2021, <I>Hydraulic Institute Standard for Methods for Rotodynamic Pump Efficiency Testing,</I> approved February 17, 2021; IBR approved for appendices A and D to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) HI 41.5-2022, <I>Hydraulic Institute Program Guideline for Circulator Pump Energy Rating Program,</I> approved June 16, 2022; IBR approved for appendix D to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(8) HI Engineering Data Book, Second Edition copyright 1990; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>IEEE.</I> Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Inc., 45 Hoes Lane, P.O. Box 1331, Piscataway, NJ 08855-1331; (732) 981-0060; <I>www.ieee.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) IEEE 112-2017, I<I>EEE Standard Test Procedure for Polyphase Induction Motors and Generators,</I> published February 14, 2018; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) IEEE 113-1985, <I>IEEE Guide: Test Procedures for Direct-Current Machines,”</I> copyright 1985, IBR approved for appendices B and C to this subpart, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3, Electrical Measurements and Power Sources for all Test Procedures:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 3.1, “Instrument Selection Factors”;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 3.4 “Power Measurement”; and
</P>
<P>(C) Section 3.5 “Power Sources”;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 4, Preliminary Tests:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 4.1, Reference Conditions, Section 4.1.2, “Ambient Air”; and
</P>
<P>(B) Section 4.1, Reference Conditions, Section 4.1.4 “Direction of Rotation”; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 5, Performance Determination:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 5.4, Efficiency, Section 5.4.1, “Reference Conditions”; and
</P>
<P>(B) Section 5.4.3, Direct Measurements of Input and Output, Section 5.4.3.2 “Dynomometer or Torquemeter Method.”
</P>
<P>(3) IEEE 114-2010 (“IEEE 114-2010-A”), <I>IEEE Standard Test Procedure for Single-Phase Induction Motors,</I> published December 23, 2010; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) IEEE 114-2010 (“IEEE 114-2010”), “IEEE Standard Test Procedure for Single-Phase Induction Motors,” approved September 30, 2010, IBR approved for appendices B and C to this subpart, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 3, “General tests”, Section 3.2, “Tests with load”;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 4 “Testing facilities”; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 5, “Measurements”:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 5.2 “Mechanical measurements”;
</P>
<P>(B) Section 5.3 “Temperature measurements”; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 6 “Tests.”
</P>
<P>(h) <I>ISO.</I> International Organization for Standardization, Chemin de Blandonnet 8, CP 401, 1214 Vernier, Geneva, Switzerland, +41 22 749 01 11. <I>www.iso.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ISO 1438:2017(E) (“ISO 1438:2017”), <I>Hydrometry—Open channel flow measurement using thin-plate weirs,</I> Third edition, April 2017; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) ISO 2186:2007(E) (“ISO 2186:2007”), <I>Fluid flow in closed conduits—Connections for pressure signal transmissions between primary and secondary elements,</I> Second edition, March 1, 2007; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) ISO 2715:2017(E) (“ISO 2715:2017”), <I>Liquid hydrocarbons—Volumetric measurement by turbine flowmeter,</I> Second edition, November 1, 2017; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) ISO 3354:2008(E) (“ISO 3354:2008”), <I>Measurement of clean water flow in closed conduits—Velocity-area method using current-meters in full conduits and under regular flow conditions,</I> Third edition, July 15, 2008; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) ISO 3966:2020(E) (“ISO 3966:2020”), <I>Measurement of fluid flow in closed conduits—Velocity area method using Pitot static tubes,</I> Third edition, July 27, 2020; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) ISO 5167-1:2003(E) (“ISO 5167-1:2003”), <I>Measurement of fluid flow by means of pressure differential devices inserted in circular cross-section conduits running full—Part 1: General principles and requirements,</I> Second edition, March 1, 2003; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) ISO 5198:1987(E) (“ISO 5198:1987”), <I>Centrifugal, mixed flow and axial pumps—Code for hydraulic performance tests—Precision class,</I> First edition, July 1, 1987; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(8) ISO 6416:2017(E) (“ISO 6416:2017”), <I>Hydrometry—Measurement of discharge by the ultrasonic transit time (time of flight) method,</I> Fourth edition, October 2017; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(9) ISO 20456:2017(E) (“ISO 20456:2017”), <I>Measurement of fluid flow in closed conduits—Guidance for the use of electromagnetic flowmeters for conductive liquids,</I> First edition, September 2017; IBR approved for appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>NFPA.</I> National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169-7471; (617) 770-3000; <I>www.nfpa.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFPA 20 (“NFPA 20-2016”), <I>Standard for the Installation of Stationary Pumps for Fire Protection,</I> 2016 Edition, approved June 15, 2015, IBR approved for § 431.462.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>NSF.</I> NSF International, 789 N. Dixboro Road, Ann Arbor, MI 48105; (743) 769-8010; <I>www.nsf.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NSF/ANSI 50-2015, <I>Equipment for Swimming Pools, Spas, Hot Tubs and Other Recreational Water Facilities,</I> Annex C, <I>normative Test methods for the evaluation of centrifugal pumps,</I> Section C.3, <I>Self-priming capability,</I> ANSI-approved January 26, 2015; IBR approved for § 431.462 and appendices B and C to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(k) <I>UL.</I> UL, 333 Pfingsten Road, Northbrook, IL 60062; (847) 272-8800; <I>www.ul.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) UL 448 (“ANSI/UL 448-2013”), <I>Standard for Safety Centrifugal Stationary Pumps for Fire-Protection Service,</I> 10th Edition, June 8, 2007, including revisions through July 12, 2013; IBR approved for § 431.462.
</P>
<P>(2) UL 1081 (“ANSI/UL 1081-2016”), <I>Standard for Swimming Pool Pumps, Filters, and Chlorinators,</I> 7th Edition, ANSI-approved October 21, 2016; IBR approved for § 431.462.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 17976, Mar. 24, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 24471, Apr. 21, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.464" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.464   Test procedure for the measurement of energy efficiency, energy consumption, and other performance factors of pumps.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General pumps</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph (a) provides the test procedures for determining the constant and variable load pump energy index for:
</P>
<P>(i) The following categories of clean water pumps that have the characteristics listed in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) End suction close-coupled (ESCC);
</P>
<P>(B) End suction frame mounted/own bearings (ESFM);
</P>
<P>(C) In-line (IL);
</P>
<P>(D) Radially split, multi-stage, vertical, in-line casing diffuser (RSV); and
</P>
<P>(E) Submersible turbine (ST) pumps.




</P>
<P>(ii) The additional following categories of clean water pumps that have the characteristics listed in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Radially-split, multi-stage, horizontal, end-suction diffuser casing (RSHES);
</P>
<P>(B) Radially-split, multi-stage, horizontal, in-line diffuser casing (RSHIL);
</P>
<P>(C) Small vertical in-line (SVIL); and
</P>
<P>(D) Vertical Turbine (VT).




</P>
<P>(iii) Pump characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) Flow rate of 25 gpm or greater at BEP and full impeller diameter;
</P>
<P>(B) Maximum head of 459 feet at BEP and full impeller diameter and the number of stages required for testing (<I>see</I> section 1.2.2 of appendix A of this subpart);
</P>
<P>(C) Design temperature range wholly or partially in the range of 15 to 250 °F;
</P>
<P>(D) Designed to operate with either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A 2- or 4- or 6-pole induction motor, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A non-induction motor with a speed of rotation operating range that includes speeds of rotation between 2,880 and 4,320 revolutions per minute (rpm) and/or 1,440 and 2,160 rpm and/or 960 and 1,439 revolutions per minute, and in each case, the driver and impeller must rotate at the same speed;
</P>
<P>(E) For ST, and VT pumps, a 6-inch or smaller bowl diameter; and
</P>
<P>(F) For ESCC, and ESFM pumps, a specific speed less than or equal to 5,000 when calculated using U.S. customary units.






</P>
<P>(2) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> Determine the applicable constant load pump energy index (PEI<E T="52">CL</E>) or variable load pump energy index (PEI<E T="52">VL</E>) using the test procedure set forth in appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dedicated-purpose pool pumps</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph (b) provides the test procedures for determining the weighted energy factor (WEF), rated hydraulic horsepower, dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal motor horsepower, dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower, dedicated-purpose pool pump service factor, and other pump performance parameters for:
</P>
<P>(i) The following varieties of dedicated-purpose pool pumps:
</P>
<P>(A) Self-priming pool filter pumps;
</P>
<P>(B) Non-self-priming pool filter pumps;
</P>
<P>(C) Waterfall pumps; and
</P>
<P>(D) Pressure cleaner booster pumps;
</P>
<P>(ii) Served by single-phase or polyphase input power;
</P>
<P>(iii) Except for:
</P>
<P>(A) Submersible pumps; and
</P>
<P>(B) Self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps with hydraulic output power greater than or equal to 2.5 horsepower.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> Determine the weighted energy factor (WEF) using the test procedure set forth in appendix B or appendix C of this subpart, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Circulator pumps</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This paragraph (c) provides the test procedures for determining the circulator energy index for circulator pumps that are also clean water pumps, including on-demand circulator pumps and circulators-less-volute, and excluding submersible pumps and header pumps.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> Determine the circulator energy index (CEI) using the test procedure set forth in appendix D of this subpart Y.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 36923, Aug. 7, 2017, as amended at 87 FR 57299, Sept. 19, 2022; 88 FR 17978, Mar. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.465" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.465   Pumps energy conservation standards and their compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, “PEI<E T="52">CL</E>” means the constant load pump energy index and “PEI<E T="52">VL</E>” means the variable load pump energy index, both as determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.464. For the purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, “BEP” means the best efficiency point as determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.464.
</P>
<P>(b) Each pump that is manufactured starting on January 27, 2020 and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is in one of the equipment classes listed in the table in paragraph (b)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Meets the definition of a clean water pump in § 431.462;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not listed in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Conforms to the characteristics listed in paragraph (d) of this section must have a PEI<E T="52">CL</E> or PEI<E T="52">VL</E> rating of not more than 1.00 using the appropriate C-value in the table in this paragraph (b)(4):
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum PEI 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C-value 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ESCC.1800.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128.47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ESCC.3600.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ESCC.1800.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128.47
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ESCC.3600.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ESFM.1800.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ESFM.3600.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ESFM.1800.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">128.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ESFM.3600.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130.99
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IL.1800.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IL.3600.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133.84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IL.1800.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129.30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IL.3600.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133.84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RSV.1800.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RSV.3600.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RSV.1800.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129.63
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RSV.3600.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">133.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ST.1800.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138.78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ST.3600.CL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ST.1800.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">138.78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ST.3600.VL</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">134.85
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Equipment class designations consist of a combination (in sequential order separated by periods) of: (1) An equipment family (ESCC = end suction close-coupled, ESFM = end suction frame mounted/own bearing, IL = in-line, RSV = radially split, multi-stage, vertical, in-line diffuser casing, ST = submersible turbine; all as defined in § 431.462); (2) nominal speed of rotation (1800 = 1800 rpm, 3600 = 3600 rpm); and (3) an operating mode (CL = constant load, VL = variable load). Determination of the operating mode is determined using the test procedure in appendix A to this subpart.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For equipment classes ending in .CL, the relevant PEI is PEI<E T="52">CL</E>. For equipment classes ending in .VL, the relevant PEI is PEI<E T="52">VL</E>.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The C-values shown in this table must be used in the equation for PER<E T="52">STD</E> when calculating PEI<E T="52">CL</E> or PEI<E T="52">VL</E>, as described in section II.B of appendix A to this subpart.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) The energy efficiency standards in paragraph (b) of this section do not apply to the following pumps:
</P>
<P>(1) Fire pumps;
</P>
<P>(2) Self-priming pumps;
</P>
<P>(3) Prime-assist pumps;
</P>
<P>(4) Magnet driven pumps;
</P>
<P>(5) Pumps designed to be used in a nuclear facility subject to 10 CFR part 50, “Domestic Licensing of Production and Utilization Facilities”;
</P>
<P>(6) Pumps meeting the design and construction requirements set forth in Military Specification MIL-P-17639F, “Pumps, Centrifugal, Miscellaneous Service, Naval Shipboard Use” (as amended); MIL-P-17881D, “Pumps, Centrifugal, Boiler Feed, (Multi-Stage)” (as amended); MIL-P-17840C, “Pumps, Centrifugal, Close-Coupled, Navy Standard (For Surface Ship Application)” (as amended); MIL-P-18682D, “Pump, Centrifugal, Main Condenser Circulating, Naval Shipboard” (as amended); MIL-P-18472G, “Pumps, Centrifugal, Condensate, Feed Booster, Waste Heat Boiler, And Distilling Plant” (as amended). Military specifications and standards are available for review at <I>http://everyspec.com/MIL-SPECS</I>.
</P>
<P>(d) The energy conservation standards in paragraph (b) of this section apply only to pumps that have the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) Flow rate of 25 gpm or greater at BEP at full impeller diameter;
</P>
<P>(2) Maximum head of 459 feet at BEP at full impeller diameter and the number of stages required for testing;
</P>
<P>(3) Design temperature range from 14 to 248 °F;
</P>
<P>(4) Designed to operate with either:
</P>
<P>(i) A 2- or 4-pole induction motor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A non-induction motor with a speed of rotation operating range that includes speeds of rotation between 2,880 and 4,320 revolutions per minute and/or 1,440 and 2,160 revolutions per minute; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In either case, the driver and impeller must rotate at the same speed;
</P>
<P>(5) For ST pumps, a 6-inch or smaller bowl diameter; and
</P>
<P>(6) For ESCC and ESFM pumps, specific speed less than or equal to 5,000 when calculated using U.S. customary units.
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, “WEF” means the weighted energy factor and “hhp” means the rated hydraulic horsepower, as determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.464(b) and applicable sampling plans in § 429.59 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) Each dedicated-purpose pool pump that is not a submersible pump and is manufactured starting on July 19, 2021 must have a WEF rating that is not less than the value calculated from the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>allowable WEF score
<br/>[kgal/kWh]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum allowable WEF score
<br/>[kgal/kWh]
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dedicated-purpose pool pump
<br/>variety
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">hhp Applicability
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Motor phase
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-priming pool filter pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.711 hp ≤hhp &lt;2.5 hp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WEF = −2.30 * ln (hhp) + 6.59.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-priming pool filter pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">hhp &lt;0.711 hp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WEF = 5.55, for hhp ≤0.13 hp −1.30 * ln (hhp) + 2.90, for hhp &gt;0.13 hp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-self-priming pool filter pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">hhp &lt;2.5 hp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WEF = 4.60, for hhp ≤0.13 hp −0.85 * ln (hhp) + 2.87, for hhp &gt;0.13 hp.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pressure cleaner booster pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">WEF = 0.42.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(g) Each integral cartridge filter pool pump and integral sand filter pool pump that is manufactured starting on July 19, 2021 must be distributed in commerce with a pool pump timer that is either integral to the pump or a separate component that is shipped with the pump.
</P>
<P>(h) For all dedicated-purpose pool pumps distributed in commerce with freeze protection controls, the pump must be shipped with freeze protection disabled or with the following default, user-adjustable settings:
</P>
<P>(1) The default dry-bulb air temperature setting is no greater than 40 °F;
</P>
<P>(2) The default run time setting shall be no greater than 1 hour (before the temperature is rechecked); and
</P>
<P>(3) The default motor speed shall not be more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> of the maximum available speed.
</P>
<P>(i) Each circulator pump that is manufactured starting on May 22, 2028 and that meets the criteria in paragraphs (i)(1) through (i)(2) of this section must have a circulator energy index (“CEI”) rating (as determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.464(c)(2)) of not more than 1.00 using the instructions in paragraph (i)(3) of this section and with a control mode as specified in paragraph (i)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a clean water pump as defined in § 431.462.
</P>
<P>(2) Is not a submersible pump or a header pump, each as defined in § 431.462.
</P>
<P>(3) The relationships in this paragraph (i)(3) are necessary to calculate maximum CEI.
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate CEI according to the following equation:
</P>
<HD3>Equation 1 to Paragraph (i)(3)(i)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.067.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEI = the circulator energy index (dimensionless);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CER = the circulator energy rating (hp), determined in accordance with section 6 of appendix D to subpart Y of part 431; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CER<E T="52">STD</E> = the CER for a circulator pump that is minimally compliant with DOE's energy conservation standards with the same hydraulic horsepower as the rated pump (hp), determined in accordance with paragraph (i)(3)(ii) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Calculate CER<E T="52">STD</E> according to the following equation:
</P>
<HD3>Equation 2 to Paragraph (i)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.068.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CER<E T="52">STD</E> = the CER for a circulator pump that is minimally compliant with DOE's energy conservation standards with the same hydraulic horsepower as the rated pump (hp);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = the index variable of the summation notation used to express CER<E T="52">STD</E> (dimensionless) as described in the table 3 to paragraph (i)(3)(ii), in which i is expressed as a percentage of circulator pump flow at best efficiency point, determined in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.464(c)(2);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">i</E> = the weighting factor (dimensionless) at each corresponding test point, i, as described in table 3 to paragraph (i)(3)(ii); and P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,STD</E> = the reference power input to the circulator pump driver (hp) at test point i, calculated using the equations and method specified in paragraph (i)(3)(iii) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph <E T="01">(i)(3)(ii)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Corresponding


<br/>ω<E T="52">i</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) Calculate P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,STD</E> according to the following equation:
</P>
<HD3>Equation 3 to Paragraph (i)(3)(iii)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er20my24.069.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,STD</E> = the reference power input to the circulator pump driver at test point i (hp);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">u,i</E> = circulator pump basic model rated hydraulic horsepower (hp) determined in accordance with 10 CFR 429.59(a)(2)(i);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α<E T="52">i</E> = part-load efficiency factor (dimensionless) at each test point i as described in table 4 to paragraph (i)(3)(iii); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">WTW,100</E><E T="0112">%</E> = reference circulator pump wire-to-water efficiency at best efficiency point (%) at the applicable energy conservation standard level, as described in table 5 to paragraph (i)(3)(iii) as a function of circulator pump basic model rated hydraulic horsepower at 100% BEP flow, P<E T="52">u,100</E><E T="0112">%</E>.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(3)(iii)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">I


<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Corresponding


<br/>α<E T="52">i</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4843
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7736
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9417
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">i</E>)(3)(iii)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">P<E T="52">u,100</E><E T="0112">%</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">η<E T="52">WTW,100</E><E T="0112">%</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&lt;1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10*ln(P<E T="52">u,100</E><E T="0112">%</E> + 0.001141) + 67.78.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≥1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">67.79%.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) A circulator pump subject to energy conservation standards as described in this paragraph (i) must achieve the maximum CEI as described in paragraph (i)(3)(i) of this section and in accordance with the test procedure in § 431.464(c)(2) in the least consumptive control mode in which it is capable of operating.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 4431, Jan. 26, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 5742, Jan. 18, 2017; 89 FR 44536, May 20, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.466" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.466   Pumps labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General pumps.</I> For the pumps described in § 431.464(a), the following requirements apply to units manufactured on the same date that compliance is required with any applicable standards prescribed in § 431.465.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pump nameplate</I>—(i) <I>Required information.</I> The permanent nameplate must be marked clearly with the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) For bare pumps and pumps sold with electric motors but not continuous or non-continuous controls, the rated pump energy index—constant load (PEI<E T="52">CL</E>), and for pumps sold with motors and continuous or non-continuous controls, the rated pump energy index—variable load (PEI<E T="52">VL</E>);
</P>
<P>(B) The bare pump model number; and
</P>
<P>(C) If transferred directly to an end-user, the unit's impeller diameter, as distributed in commerce. Otherwise, a space must be provided for the impeller diameter to be filled in.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Display of required information.</I> All orientation, spacing, type sizes, typefaces, and line widths to display this required information must be the same as or similar to the display of the other performance data on the pump's permanent nameplate. The PEI<E T="52">CL</E> or PEI<E T="52">VL</E>, as appropriate to a given pump model, must be identified in the form “PEI<E T="52">CL</E> ________” or “PEI<E T="52">VL</E> ________.” The model number must be in one of the following forms: “Model ________” or “Model number ________” or “Model No. ________.” The unit's impeller diameter must be in the form “Imp. Dia. ________(in.).”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure of efficiency information in marketing materials.</I> (i) The same information that must appear on a pump's permanent nameplate pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, must also be prominently displayed:
</P>
<P>(A) On each page of a catalog that lists the pump; and
</P>
<P>(B) In other materials used to market the pump.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dedicated-purpose pool pumps.</I> For the pumps described in § 431.464(b), the following requirements apply on the same date that compliance is required with any applicable standards prescribed in § 431.465.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pump nameplate</I>—(i) <I>Required information.</I> The permanent nameplate must be marked clearly with the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The weighted energy factor (WEF); and
</P>
<P>(B) The dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Display of required information.</I> All orientation, spacing, type sizes, typefaces, and line widths to display this required information must be the same as or similar to the display of the other performance data on the pump's permanent nameplate.
</P>
<P>(A) The WEF must be identified in the form “WEF ________.”
</P>
<P>(B) The dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower must be identified in one of the following forms: “Dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower __________,” “DPPP motor total horsepower __________,” “motor total horsepower __________,” “motor THP __________,” or “THP __________.”
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 36923, Aug. 7, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.7.41" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart Y of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Pumps




</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED/>
<P><I>Note:</I> Prior to September 20, 2023, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency (including compliance certifications) of pumps specified in § 431.464(a)(1)(i), excluding pumps listed in § 431.464(a)(1)(iv), must be based on testing conducted in accordance with the applicable provisions of this appendix as they appeared in the January 1, 2022 edition of the Code of Federal Regulations of subpart Y of part 431 in 10 CFR parts 200 through 499.
</P>
<P>On or after September 20, 2023, representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency (including compliance certifications) of pumps specified in § 431.464(a)(1)(i), excluding pumps listed in § 431.464(a)(1)(iv), must be based on testing conducted in accordance with the applicable provisions of this appendix.
</P>
<P>Any representations with respect to the energy use or efficiency of pumps specified in § 431.464(a)(1)(ii), excluding pumps listed in § 431.464(a)(1)(iv), made on or after September 20, 2023 must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix. Manufacturers must use the results of testing under this appendix to determine compliance with any energy conservation standards established for pumps specified in § 431.464(a)(1)(ii), excluding pumps listed in § 431.464(a)(1)(iv), that are published after January 1, 2022.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>I. Test Procedure for Pumps
</HD1>
<P><I>0. Incorporation by Reference.</I>
</P>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.463 the entire standard for HI 40.6-2021, HI 9.6.1-2017, HI 9.6.6-2016, HI 9.8-2018, HI 14.1-14.2-2019, the HI Engineering Data Book, ASME MFC-5M-1985, ASME MFC-3M-2004, ASME MFC-8M-2001, ASME MFC-12M-2006, ASME MFC-16-2014, ASME MFC-22-2007, AWWA E103-2015, CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, ISO 1438:2017, ISO 2186:2007, ISO 2715:2017, ISO 3354:2008, ISO 3966:2020, ISO 5167-1:2003, ISO 5198:1987, ISO 6416:2017, and ISO 20456:2017; however, certain enumerated provisions of HI 40.6-2021, as follows are inapplicable. To the extent that there is a conflict between the terms or provisions of a referenced industry standard and the CFR, the CFR provisions control.
</P>
<P>0.1 HI 40.6-2021
</P>
<P>(a) Section 40.6.1 Scope
</P>
<P>(b) Section 40.6.5.3 Test report
</P>
<P>(c) Appendix B Reporting of test results (informative)
</P>
<P>(d) Appendix E Testing Circulator Pumps (normative)
</P>
<P>(e) Appendix G DOE Compared to HI 40.6 Nomenclature
</P>
<P>0.2 [Reserved]
</P>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> To determine the constant load pump energy index (PEI<E T="52">CL</E>) for bare pumps and pumps sold with electric motors or the variable load pump energy index (PEI<E T="52">VL</E>) for pumps sold with electric motors and continuous or non-continuous controls, perform testing in accordance with HI 40.6-2021, except section 40.6.5.3, “Test report”, including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017, HI 9.6.6-2016, HI 9.8-2018, HI 14.1-14.2-2019, the HI Engineering Data Book, ASME MFC-3M-2004, ASME MFC-5M-1985, ASME MFC-8M-2001, ASME MFC-12M-2006, ASME MFC-16-2014, ASME MFC-22-2007, AWWA E103-2015, CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, ISO 1438:2017, ISO 2186:2007, ISO 2715:2017, ISO 3354:2008, ISO 3966:2020, ISO 5167-1:2003, ISO 5198:1987, ISO 6416:2017, and ISO 20456:2017, as referenced in HI 40.6, with the modifications and additions as noted throughout the provisions below. Where HI 40.6-2021 refers to “pump,” the term refers to the “bare pump,” as defined in § 431.462. Also, for the purposes of applying this appendix, the term “volume per unit time,” as defined in section 40.6.2, “Terms and definitions,” of HI 40.6-2021 shall be deemed to be synonymous with the term “flow rate” used throughout that standard and this appendix. In addition, the specifications in section 40.6.4.1 of HI 40.6-2021, “Vertically suspended pumps,” do not apply to ST pumps and the performance of ST bare pumps considers bowl performance only. However, the specifications in the first paragraph of section 40.6.4.1 of HI 40.6-2021 (including the applicable provisions of HI 14.1-14.2-2019, the HI Engineering Data Book, and AWWA E103-2015, as referenced in section 40.6.4.1 of HI 40.6), “Vertically suspended pumps,” do apply to VT pumps and the performance of VT bare pumps considers bowl performance only.
</P>
<P>A.1 <I>Scope.</I> Section II of this appendix applies to all pumps and describes how to calculate the pump energy index (section II.A) based on the pump energy rating for the minimally-compliant reference pump (PER<E T="52">STD</E>; section II.B) and the constant load pump energy rating (PER<E T="52">CL</E>) or variable load pump energy rating (PER<E T="52">VL</E>) determined in accordance with one of sections III through VII of this appendix, based on the configuration in which the pump is distributed in commerce and the applicable testing method specified in sections III through VII and as described in Table 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Applicability of Calculation-Based and Testing-Based Test Procedure Options Based on Pump Configuration
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pump configuration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pump sub-configuration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applicable test methods
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bare Pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bare Pump OR Pump + Single-Phase Induction Motor (Excluding SVIL) OR Pump + Driver Other Than Electric Motor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section III: Test Procedure for Bare Pumps.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pump + Motor OR Pump + Motor + Controls other than continuous or non-continuous controls (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> ON/OFF switches)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pump + Motor Listed at § 431.25(g) OR SVIL Pump + Motor Covered by DOE's Test Procedure and/or Energy Conservation Standards * OR Pump + Submersible Motor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section IV: Testing-Based Approach for Pumps Sold with Motors OR Section V: Calculation-Based Approach for Pumps Sold with Motors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pump (Including SVIL) + Motor Not Covered by DOE's Motor Energy Conservation Standards (Except Submersible Motors) ** OR Pump (Other than SVIL) + Single-Phase Induction Motor (if Section III is not used)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section IV: Testing-Based Approach for Pumps Sold with Motors.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pump + Motor + Continuous Controls OR Pump + Motor + Non-Continuous Controls OR Pump + Inverter-Only Synchronous Electric Motor *** (With or Without Controls)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pump + Motor Listed at § 431.25(g) + Continuous Control OR SVIL Pump + Motor Covered by DOE's Test Procedure and/or Energy Conservation Standards * + Continuous Control OR Pump + Submersible Motor + Continuous Control OR Pump + Inverter-Only Synchronous Electric Motor *** (With or Without Continuous Control)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section VI: Testing-Based Approach for Pumps Sold with Motors and Controls OR Section VII: Calculation-Based Approach for Pumps Sold with Motors Controls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pump + Motor Listed at § 431.25(g) + Non-Continuous Control OR SVIL Pump + Motor Covered by DOE's Test Procedure and/or Energy Conservation Standards * + Non-Continuous Control OR Pump + Submersible Motor + Non-Continuous Control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section VI: Testing-Based Approach for Pumps Sold with Motors and Controls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pump (Including SVIL) + Motor Not Covered by DOE's Motor Test Procedure and/or Energy Conservation Standards ** (Except Submersible Motors) + Continuous or Non-Continuous Controls OR Pump (Other than SVIL) + Single-Phase Induction Motor + Continuous or Non-Continuous Controls (if Section III is not used)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section VI: Testing-Based Approach for Pumps Sold with Motors and Controls.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* All references to “Motor Covered by DOE's Motor Test Procedure and/or Energy Conservation Standards” refer to those listed at § 431.446 of this chapter or those for Small Non-Small Electric Motor Electric Motors (SNEMs) at Subpart B to Part 431, including motors of such varieties that are less than 0.25 hp.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** All references to “Motor Not Covered by DOE's Test Procedure and/or Motor Energy Conservation Standards” refer to motors not listed at § 431.25 of this chapter or, for SVIL, not listed at either § 431.446 of this chapter or in Subpart B to Part 431 (excluding motors of such varieties that are less than 0.25 hp).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*** All references to “Inverter-Only Synchronous Electric Motor” refer to inverter-only electric motors that are synchronous electric motors, both as defined in subpart B to Part 431.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>A.2 Section III of this appendix addresses the test procedure applicable to bare pumps. This test procedure also applies to pumps sold with drivers other than motors and ESCC, ESFM, IL, RSHES, RSHIL, RSV, ST, and VT pumps sold with single-phase induction motors.
</P>
<P>A.3 Section IV of this appendix addresses the testing-based approach for pumps sold with motors, which applies to all pumps sold with electric motors, except for pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors, but including pumps sold with single-phase induction motors. This test procedure also applies to pumps sold with controls other than continuous or non-continuous controls (<I>e.g.,</I> on/off switches).
</P>
<P>A.4 Section V of this appendix addresses the calculation-based approach for pumps sold with motors, which applies to:
</P>
<P>A.4.1 Pumps sold with polyphase electric motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards for electric motors at § 431.25(g), and
</P>
<P>A.4.2 SVIL pumps sold with small electric motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards at § 431.446 or sold with SNEMs regulated by DOE's test procedure and/or energy conservation standards in subpart B of this part but including motors of such varieties that are less than 0.25 hp, and
</P>
<P>A.4.3 Pumps sold with submersible motors.


</P>
<P>A.5 Section VI of this appendix addresses the testing-based approach for pumps sold with motors and controls, which applies to all pumps sold with electric motors (including single-phase induction motors) and continuous or non-continuous controls and to pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors with or without controls.
</P>
<P>A.6 Section VII of this appendix discusses the calculation-based approach for pumps sold with motors and controls, which applies to:
</P>
<P>A.6.1 Pumps sold with polyphase electric motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards for electric motors at § 431.25(g) and continuous controls and
</P>
<P>A.6.2 Pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors regulated by DOE's test procedure and/or energy conservation standards in subpart B of this part,
</P>
<P>A.6.3 SVIL pumps sold with small electric motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards at § 431.446 (but including motors of such varieties that are less than 0.25 hp) and continuous controls or with SNEMs regulated by DOE's test procedure and/or energy conservation standards at subpart B of this part (but including motors of such varieties that are less than 0.25 hp) and continuous controls, and
</P>
<P>A.6.4 Pumps sold with submersible motors and continuous controls.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Measurement Equipment.</I>
</P>
<P><I>B.1 Instrument Accuracy.</I> For the purposes of measuring pump power input, driver power input to the motor or controls, and pump power output, the equipment specified in HI 40.6-2021 Appendix C (including the applicable provisions of ASME MFC-5M-1985, ASME MFC-3M-2004, ASME MFC-8M-2001, ASME MFC-12M-2006, ASME MFC-16-2014, ASME MFC-22-2007, CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, ISO 1438:2017, ISO 2186:2007, ISO 2715:2017, ISO 3354:2008, ISO 3966:2020, ISO 5167-1:2003, ISO 5198:1987, ISO 6416:2017, and ISO 20456:2017, as referenced in Appendix C of HI 40.6) necessary to measure head, speed of rotation, flow rate, temperature, torque, and electrical power must be used and must comply with the stated accuracy requirements in HI 40.6-2021 Table 40.6.3.2.3 except as noted in sections III.B, IV.B, V.B, VI.B, and VII.B of this appendix. When more than one instrument is used to measure a given parameter, the combined accuracy, calculated as the root sum of squares of individual instrument accuracies, must meet the specified accuracy requirements.
</P>
<P>B.2 Calibration. Calibration requirements for instrumentation are specified in Appendix D of HI 40.6-2021.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Test Conditions.</I> Conduct testing at full impeller diameter in accordance with the test conditions, stabilization requirements, and specifications of HI 40.6-2021 Section 40.6.3, “Pump efficiency testing;” Section 40.6.4, “Considerations when determining the efficiency of certain pumps” including the applicable provisions of HI 14.1-14.2-2019, the HI Engineering Data Book, and AWWA E103-2015, as referenced in section 40.6.4 of HI 40.6; section 40.6.5.4 (including appendix A), “Test arrangements,” including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017, HI 9.6.6-2016, HI 9.8-2018, HI Engineering Data Book, and AWWA E103-2015 as referenced in appendix A of HI 40.6; and section 40.6.5.5, “Test conditions” including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017 as referenced in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021. For ST pumps, head measurements must be based on the bowl assembly total head as described in section A.5 of 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of the HI Engineering Data Book and AWWA E103-2015 as referenced in ins section A.5 of HI 40.6-2021, and the pump power input or driver power input, as applicable, must be based on the measured input power to the driver or bare pump, respectively; section 40.6.4.1, “Vertically suspended pumps,” does not apply to ST pumps.
</P>
<P>C.1 Nominal Speed of Rotation. Determine the nominal speed of rotation based on the range of speeds of rotation at which the pump is designed to operate, in accordance with sections I.C.1.1, I.C.1.2, and I.C.1.3 of this appendix, as applicable. When determining the range of speeds at which the pump is designed to operate, DOE will refer to published data, marketing literature, and other publicly-available information about the pump model and motor, as applicable.
</P>
<P>C.1.1 For pumps sold without motors, select the nominal speed of rotation based on the speed for which the pump is designed.
</P>
<P>C.1.1.1 For bare pumps designed for speeds of rotation including 2,880 to 4,320 revolutions per minute (rpm), the nominal speed of rotation shall be 3,600 rpm.
</P>
<P>C.1.1.2 For bare pumps designed for speeds of rotation including 1,440 to 2,160 rpm, the nominal speed of rotation shall be 1,800 rpm.
</P>
<P>C.1.1.3 For bare pumps designed for speeds of rotation including 960 to 1,439 rpm, the nominal speed of rotation shall be 1,200 rpm.
</P>
<P>C.1.2 For pumps sold with induction motors, select the appropriate nominal speed of rotation.
</P>
<P>C.1.2.1 For pumps sold with 6-pole induction motors, the nominal speed of rotation shall be 1,200 rpm.
</P>
<P>C.1.2.2 For pumps sold with 4-pole induction motors, the nominal speed of rotation shall be 1,800 rpm.


</P>
<P>C.1.2.3 For pumps sold with 2-pole induction motors, the nominal speed of rotation shall be 3,600 rpm.
</P>
<P>C.1.3 For pumps sold with non-induction motors, select the appropriate nominal speed of rotation.
</P>
<P>C.1.3.1 Where the operating range of the pump and motor includes speeds of rotation between 2,880 and 4,320 rpm, the nominal speed of rotation shall be 3,600 rpm.
</P>
<P>C.1.3.2 Where the operating range of the pump and motor includes speeds of rotation between 1,440 and 2,160 rpm, the nominal speed of rotation shall be 1,800 rpm.
</P>
<P>C.1.3.3 Where the operating range of the pump and motor includes speeds of rotation between 960 and 1,439, the nominal speed of rotation shall be 1,200 rpm.
</P>
<P>C.2 Multi-Stage Pumps. Perform testing on the pump with three stages for RSH and RSV pumps, and nine stages for ST and VT pumps. If the basic model of pump being tested is only available with fewer than the required number of stages, test the pump with the maximum number of stages with which the basic model is distributed in commerce in the United States. If the basic model of pump being tested is only available with greater than the required number of stages, test the pump with the lowest number of stages with which the basic model is distributed in commerce in the United States. If the basic model of pump being tested is available with both fewer and greater than the required number of stages, but not the required number of stages, test the pump with the number of stages closest to the required number of stages. If both the next lower and next higher number of stages are equivalently close to the required number of stages, test the pump with the next higher number of stages.
</P>
<P>C.3 Twin-Head Pumps. For twin-head pumps, perform testing on an equivalent single impeller IL or SVIL pump as applicable, constructed by incorporating one of the driver and impeller assemblies of the twin-head pump being rated into an adequate IL-style or SVIL-style, single impeller volute and casing. An adequate IL-style or SVIL-style, single impeller volute and casing means a volute and casing for which any physical and functional characteristics that affect energy consumption and energy efficiency are the same as their corresponding characteristics for a single impeller in the twin-head pump volute and casing.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Data Collection and Analysis.</I>
</P>
<P>D.1 Damping Devices. Use of damping devices, as described in section 40.6.3.2.2 of HI 40.6-2021, are only permitted to integrate up to the data collection interval used during testing.
</P>
<P>D.2 Stabilization. Record data at any tested load point only under stabilized conditions, as defined in HI 40.6-2021 section 40.6.5.5.1, including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017 as referenced in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6, where a minimum of two measurements are used to determine stabilization.
</P>
<P>D.3 Calculations and Rounding. Normalize all measured data to the nominal speed of rotation of 3,600 or 1,800 or 1,200 rpm based on the nominal speed of rotation selected for the pump in section I.C.1 of this appendix, in accordance with the procedures specified in section 40.6.6.1.1 of HI 40.6-2021. Except for the “expected BEP flow rate,” all terms and quantities refer to values determined in accordance with the procedures set forth in this appendix for the rated pump. Perform all calculations using raw measured values without rounding. Round PER <E T="52">CL</E> and PER <E T="52">VL</E> to three significant digits, and round PEI <E T="52">CL</E>, and PEI <E T="52">VL</E> values, as applicable, to the hundredths place (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.01).
</P>
<P>D.4 Pumps with BEP at Run Out. Test pumps for which the expected BEP corresponds to a volume rate of flow that is within 20 percent of the expected maximum flow rate at which the pump is designed to operate continuously or safely (<I>i.e.,</I> pumps with BEP at run-out) in accordance with the test procedure specified in this appendix, but with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>D.4.1 Use the following seven flow points—40, 50, 60, 70, 80, 90, and 100 percent of the expected maximum flow rate for determination of BEP in sections III.D, IV.D, V.D, VI.D, and VII.D of this appendix instead of the flow points specified in those sections.
</P>
<P>D.4.2 Use flow points of 60, 70, 80, 90, and 100 percent of the expected maximum flow rate of the pump to determine pump power input or driver power input instead of the flow points of 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate specified in sections III.E.1.1, IV.E.1, V.E.1.1, VI.E.1, and VII.E.1.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>D.4.3 To determine PER <E T="52">CL</E> in sections III.E, IV.E, and V.E and to determine PER <E T="52">STD</E> in section II.B, use load points of 65, 90, and 100 percent of the BEP flow rate determined with the modified flow points specified in this section I.D.4 of this appendix instead of 75, 100, and 110 percent of BEP flow. In section II.B.1.1, where alpha values are specified for the load points 75, 100, and 110 percent of BEP flow rate, instead apply the alpha values to the load points of 65, 90, and 100 percent of the BEP flow rate determined with the modified flow points specified in this section I.D.4 of this appendix. However, in sections II.B.1.1.1 and II.B.1.1.1.1 of this appendix, use 100 percent of the BEP flow rate as specified to determine η<E T="52">pump,STD</E> and Ns as specified. To determine motor sizing for bare pumps in sections II.B.1.2.1.1 and III.E.1.2.1.1 of this appendix, use a load point of 100 percent of the BEP flow rate instead of 120 percent.














</P>
<HD1>II. Calculation of the Pump Energy Index
</HD1>
<P>A. Determine the PEI of each tested pump based on the configuration in which it is sold, as follows:
</P>
<P>A.1. For pumps rated as bare pumps or pumps sold with motors (other than inverter-only synchronous electric motors), determine the PEI <E T="52">CL</E> using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.004.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PEI <E T="52">CL</E> = the pump energy index for a constant load (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PER <E T="52">CL</E> = the pump energy rating for a constant load (hp), determined in accordance with either section III (for bare pumps; ESCC, ESFM, IL, RSHES, RSHIL, RSV, ST or VT pumps sold with single-phase induction motors; and pumps sold with drivers other than electric motors), section IV (for pumps sold with motors and rated using the testing-based approach), or section V (for pumps sold with motors and rated using the calculation-based approach) of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PER <E T="52">STD</E> = the PER <E T="52">CL</E> for a pump that is minimally compliant with DOE's energy conservation standards with the same flow and specific speed characteristics as the tested pump (hp), as determined in accordance with section II.B of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>A.2 For pumps rated as pumps sold with motors and continuous controls or non-continuous controls (including pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors with or without controls), determine the PEI <E T="52">VL</E> using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.005.gif"/>
<FP-2>PEI <E T="52">VL</E> = the pump energy index for a variable load (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PER <E T="52">VL</E> = the pump energy rating for a variable load (hp), determined in accordance with section VI (for pumps sold with motors and continuous or non-continuous controls rated using the testing-based approach) or section VII of this appendix (for pumps sold with motors and continuous controls rated using the calculation-based approach), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PER <E T="52">STD</E> = the PER <E T="52">CL</E> for a pump that is minimally compliant with DOE's energy conservation standards with the same flow and specific speed characteristics as the tested pump (hp), as determined in accordance with section II.B of this appendix.


</FP-2>
<P>B. Determine the pump energy rating for the minimally compliant reference pump (PER<E T="52">STD</E>), according to the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.031.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>PER<E T="52">STD</E> = the PER<E T="52">CL</E> for a pump that is minimally compliant with DOE's energy conservation standards with the same flow and specific speed characteristics as the tested pump (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">i</E> = 0.3333,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,m</E> = calculated driver power input to the motor at load point i for the minimally compliant pump (hp), calculated in accordance with section II.B.1of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>B.1. Determine the driver power input at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.032.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,m</E> = driver power input to the motor at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = pump power input to the bare pump at load point i (hp), calculated in accordance with section II.B.1.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = the part load motor losses at load point i (hp), calculated in accordance with section II.B.1.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>B.1.1. Determine the pump power input to the minimally compliant pump at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.033.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = pump power input to the bare pump at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>α<E T="52">i</E> = 0.947 for 75 percent of the BEP flow rate, 1.000 for 100 percent of the BEP flow rate, and 0.985 for 110 percent of the BEP flow rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">u,i</E> = the pump power output at load point i of the tested pump (hp), as determined in accordance with section II.B.1.1.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">pump,STD</E> = the minimally compliant pump efficiency (%), calculated in accordance with section II.B.1.1.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>B.1.1.1 Calculate the minimally compliant pump efficiency based on the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">pump,STD</E> = −0.8500 × ln(Q<E T="52">100</E><E T="52">%</E>)
<SU>2</SU> −0.3800 × ln(Ns) × ln(Q<E T="52">100</E><E T="52">%</E>) − 11.480 × ln(Ns)
<SU>2</SU> + 17.800 × ln(Q<E T="52">100</E><E T="52">%</E>) + 179.80 × ln(Ns) − (C + 555.60
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">pump,STD</E> = minimally compliant pump efficiency (%),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">100</E><E T="52">%</E> = the BEP flow rate of the tested pump at full impeller and nominal speed of rotation (gpm),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ns = specific speed of the tested pump determined in accordance with section II.B.1.1.1.1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = the appropriate C-value for the category and nominal speed of rotation of the tested pump, as listed at § 431.466.
</FP-2>
<P>B.1.1.1.1 Determine the specific speed of the rated pump using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.006.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where: 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ns = specific speed,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n<E T="52">sp</E> = the nominal speed of rotation (rpm),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q'<E T="52">100</E><E T="0112">%</E> = the measured BEP flow rate of the tested pump at full impeller and nominal speed of rotation (gpm),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">100</E><E T="0112">%</E> = pump total head at 100 percent of the BEP flow rate of the tested pump at full impeller and nominal speed of rotation (ft), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S = the number of stages with which the pump is being rated
</FP-2>
<P>B.1.1.2 Determine the pump power output at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.035.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">u,i</E> = the measured pump power output at load point i of the tested pump (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">i</E> = the measured flow rate at load point i of the tested pump (gpm),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">i</E> = pump total head at load point i of the tested pump (ft),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SG = the specific gravity of water at specified test conditions, which is equivalent to 1.00, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>B.1.2 Determine the motor part load losses at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = L<E T="52">full</E> × y<E T="52">i</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E><E T="03"/> = part load motor losses at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">full</E> = motor losses at full load (hp), as determined in accordance with section II.B.1.2.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">i</E> = part load loss factor at load point i determined in accordance with section II.B.1.2.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>B.1.2.1 Determine the full load motor losses using the appropriate motor efficiency value and horsepower as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.036.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">full</E> = motor losses at full load (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MotorHP = the motor horsepower as determined in accordance with section II.B.1.2.1.1 of this appendix (hp), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">motor,full</E> = the default nominal full load motor efficiency as determined in accordance with section II.B.1.2.1.2 of this appendix (%).
</FP-2>
<P>B.1.2.1.1 Determine the motor horsepower as follows:
</P>
<P>• For bare pumps other than ST pumps, the motor horsepower is determined as the horsepower rating listed in Table 2 of this appendix that is either equivalent to, or the next highest horsepower greater than, the pump power input to the bare pump at 120 percent of the BEP flow rate of the tested pump.
</P>
<P>• For ST bare pumps, the motor horsepower is determined as the horsepower rating listed in Table 2 of this appendix that, is either equivalent to, or the next highest horsepower greater than, the pump power input to the bare pump at 120 percent of the BEP flow rate of the tested pump divided by a service factor of 1.15.
</P>
<P>• For pumps sold with motors, pumps sold with motors and continuous controls, or pumps sold with motors and non-continuous controls, the motor horsepower is the rated horsepower of the motor with which the pump is being tested.


</P>
<P>B.1.2.1.2 Determine the default nominal full load motor efficiency as described in section II.B.1.2.1.2.1 of this appendix for ESCC, ESFM, IL, RSHES, RSHIL, RSV, and VT pumps; section II.B.1.2.1.2.2 of this appendix for ST pumps; and section II.B.1.2.1.2.3 for SVIL pumps.


</P>
<P>B.1.2.1.2.1. For ESCC, ESFM, IL, RSHES, RSHIL, RSV, and VT pumps, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is the minimum of the nominal full load motor efficiency standards (open or enclosed) from the table containing the current energy conservation standards for NEMA Design B motors at § 431.25, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower determined in section II.B.1.2.1.1 of this appendix.




</P>
<P>B.1.2.1.2.2. For ST pumps, prior to the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency listed in table 2 of this appendix, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower determined in section II.B.1.2.1.1 of this appendix. Starting on the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, the default nominal full load motor efficiency shall be the minimum of any nominal full load motor efficiency standard from the table containing energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower determined in section II.B.1.2.1.1 of this appendix.




</P>
<P>B.1.2.1.2.3. For SVIL pumps, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is the minimum full load motor efficiency standard from the tables containing the current energy conservation standards for polyphase or CSCR/CSIR small electric motors at § 431.446, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower determined in section II.B.1.2.1.1 of this appendix, or for SVIL pumps sold with motors less than 0.25 hp, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is 58.3% for 6-pole, 64.6% for 4-pole, and 61.7% for 2-pole motors.


</P>
<P>B.1.2.2 Determine the part load loss factor at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.037.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">i</E> = the part load loss factor at load point i,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = pump power input to the bare pump at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MotorHP = the motor horsepower (hp), as determined in accordance with section II.B.1.2.1.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.038.gif"/>
<HD1>III. Test Procedure for Bare Pumps


</HD1>
<P><I>A. Scope.</I> This section III applies only to:
</P>
<P>A.1 Bare pumps,
</P>
<P>A.2 Pumps sold with drivers other than electric motors, and
</P>
<P>A.3 ESCC, ESFM, IL, RSHES, RSHIL, RSV, ST, and VT pumps sold with single-phase induction motors.




</P>
<P><I>B. Measurement Equipment.</I> The requirements regarding measurement equipment presented in section I.B of this appendix apply to this section III. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, electrical measurement equipment shall meet the requirements of section C.4.3 of HI 40.6-2021 (including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3 of HI 40.6), and motor power input shall be determined according to section 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021 and meet the requirements in Table 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021.










</P>
<P><I>C. Test Conditions.</I> The requirements regarding test conditions presented in section I.C of this appendix apply to this section III. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, the conditions in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6-2021 shall be met, including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6-2021.








</P>
<P><I>D. Testing BEP for the Pump.</I> Determine the best efficiency point (BEP) of the pump as follows:
</P>
<P>D.1. Adjust the flow by throttling the pump without changing the speed of rotation of the pump and conduct the test at a minimum of the following seven flow points: 40, 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate of the pump at the nominal speed of rotation, as specified in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017 as referenced in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021.
</P>
<P>D.2. Determine the BEP flow rate as the flow rate at the operating point of maximum pump efficiency on the pump efficiency curve, as determined in accordance with section 40.6.6.3 of HI 40.6-2021, where the pump efficiency is the ratio of the pump power output divided by the pump power input, as specified in Table 40.6.2 of HI 40.6-2021, disregarding the calculations provided in section 40.6.6.2 of HI 40.6-2021.


</P>
<P>E. <I>Calculating the Constant Load Pump Energy Rating.</I> Determine the PER<E T="52">CL</E> of each tested pump using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.039.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>PER<E T="52">CL</E> = the pump energy rating for a constant load (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">i</E> = 0.3333,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,m</E> = calculated driver power input to the motor at load point i (hp), as determined in accordance with section III.E.1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1 Determine the driver power input at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.040.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,m</E> = driver power input to the motor at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = pump power input to the bare pump at load point i (hp), as determined in section III.E.1.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = the part load motor losses at load point i (hp), as determined in accordance with section III.E.1.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1.1 Determine the pump power input at 75, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the BEP flow rate by employing a least squares regression to determine a linear relationship between the pump power input at the nominal speed of rotation of the pump and the measured flow rate at the following load points: 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate. Use the linear relationship to determine the pump power input at the nominal speed of rotation for the load points of 75, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</P>
<P>E.1.2 Determine the motor part load losses at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = L<E T="52">full</E> × y<E T="52">i</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = motor losses at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">full</E> = motor losses at full load (hp), as determined in accordance with section III.E.1.2.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">i</E> = loss factor at load point i as determined in accordance with section III.E.1.2.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1.2.1 Determine the full load motor losses using the appropriate motor efficiency value and horsepower as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.041.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">full</E> = motor losses at full load (hp);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MotorHP = the motor horsepower (hp), as determined in accordance with section II.E.1.2.1.1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">motor,full</E> = the default nominal full load motor efficiency (%), as determined in accordance with section III.E.1.2.1.2 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1.2.1.1 Determine the motor horsepower as follows:
</P>
<P>• For bare pumps other than ST pumps, determine the motor horsepower by selecting the horsepower rating listed in Table 2 of this appendix that is either equivalent to, or the next highest horsepower greater than, the pump power input to the bare pump at 120 percent of the BEP flow rate of the tested pump.
</P>
<P>• For ST bare pumps, determine the motor horsepower by selecting the horsepower rating listed in Table 2 of this appendix that, is either equivalent to, or the next highest horsepower greater than, the pump power input to the bare pump at 120 percent of the BEP flow rate of the tested pump divided by a service factor of 1.15.
</P>
<P>• For pumps sold with motors, pumps sold with motors and continuous controls, or pumps sold with motors and non-continuous controls, the motor horsepower is the rated horsepower of the motor with which the pump is being tested.
</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.2 Determine the default nominal full load motor efficiency as described in section III.E.1.2.1.2.1 of this appendix for ESCC, ESFM, IL, RSHES, RSHIL, RSV, and VT pumps; or section III.E.1.2.1.2.2. of this appendix for ST pumps; or section III.E.1.2.1.2.3 of this appendix for SVIL pumps.






</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.2.1. For ESCC, ESFM, IL, RSHES, RSHIL, RSV, and VT pumps, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is the minimum of the nominal full load motor efficiency standards (open or enclosed) from the table containing the current energy conservation standards for NEMA Design B motors at § 431.25, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower determined in section III.E.1.2.1.1 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.2.2. For ST pumps, prior to the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency listed in table 2 of this appendix, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower determined in section III.E.1.2.1.1 of this appendix. Starting on the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is the minimum of any nominal full load motor efficiency standard from the table containing energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower determined in accordance with section III.E.1.2.1.1 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.2.3. For SVIL pumps, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is the minimum full load motor efficiency standard from the tables containing the current energy conservation standards for polyphase or CSCR/CSIR small electric motors at § 431.446, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower determined in section III.E.1.2.1.1 of this appendix, or for SVIL pumps sold with motors less than 0.25 hp, the default nominal full load motor efficiency is 58.3% for 6-pole, 64.6% for 4-pole, and 61.7% for 2-pole motors.


</P>
<P>E.1.2.2 Determine the loss factor at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.042.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">i</E> = the part load loss factor at load point i,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = pump power input to the bare pump at load point i (hp), as determined in accordance with section III.E.1.1 of this appendix,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MotorHP = as determined in accordance with section III.E.1.2.1 of this appendix (hp),
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.043.gif"/>
<HD1>IV. Testing-Based Approach for Pumps Sold With Motors


</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> This section IV applies only to pumps sold with electric motors (excluding pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors regulated by DOE's test procedure and/or energy conservation standards in subpart B of this part), including single-phase induction motors.


</P>
<P>B. <I>Measurement Equipment.</I> The requirements regarding measurement equipment presented in section I.B of this appendix apply to this section IV. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, electrical measurement equipment shall meet the requirements of section C.4.3 of HI 40.6-2021 (including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3 of HI 40.6), and motor power input shall be determined according to section 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021 and meet the requirements in Table 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021.






</P>
<P>C. <I>Test Conditions.</I> The requirements regarding test conditions presented in section I.C of this appendix apply to this section IV. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, the conditions in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in Section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6, shall be met.






</P>
<P>D. <I>Testing BEP for the Pump.</I> Determine the best efficiency point (BEP) of the pump as follows:
</P>
<P>D.1. Adjust the flow by throttling the pump without changing the speed of rotation of the pump and conduct the test at a minimum of the following seven flow points: 40, 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate of the pump at the nominal speed of rotation, as specified in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017 as referenced in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021.


</P>
<P>D.2 Determine the BEP flow rate as the flow rate at the operating point of maximum overall efficiency on the pump efficiency curve, as determined in accordance with section 40.6.6.3 of HI 40.6-2021, where the overall efficiency is the ratio of the pump power output divided by the driver power input, as specified in Table 40.6.2 of HI 40.6-2021, disregarding the calculations provided in section 40.6.6.2 of HI 40.6-2021.


</P>
<P>E. <I>Calculating the Constant Load Pump Energy Rating.</I> Determine the PER<E T="52">CL</E> of each tested pump using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.044.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>PER<E T="52">CL</E> = the pump energy rating for a constant load (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">i</E> = 0.3333,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in</E> = measured driver power input to the motor at load point i (hp) for the tested pump as determined in accordance with section IV.E.1 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1 Determine the driver power input at 75, 100, and 110 percent of the BEP flow rate by employing a least squares regression to determine a linear relationship between the driver power input at the nominal speed of rotation of the pump and the measured flow rate at the following load points: 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate. Use the linear relationship to determine the driver power input at the nominal speed of rotation for the load points of 75, 100, and 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</P>
<HD1>V. Calculation-Based Approach for Pumps Sold With Motors
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> This section V can only be used in lieu of the test method in section IV of this appendix to calculate the index for pumps sold with motors listed in section V.A.1, V.A.2, or V.A.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>A.1 Pumps sold with motors subject to DOE's energy conservation standards for polyphase electric motors at § 431.25(g),
</P>
<P>A.2 SVIL pumps sold with small electric motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards at § 431.446 or with SNEMs regulated by DOE's test procedure and/or energy conservation standards in subpart B of this part but including motors of such varieties that are less than 0.25 hp, and
</P>
<P>A.3. Pumps sold with submersible motors.
</P>
<P>A.4. Pumps sold with motors not listed in sections V.A.1, V.A.2, or V.A.3 of this appendix cannot use this section V and must apply the test method in section IV of this appendix.






</P>
<P>B. <I>Measurement Equipment.</I> The requirements regarding measurement equipment presented in section I.B of this appendix apply to this section V. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, electrical measurement equipment shall meet the requirements of section C.4.3 of HI 40.6-2021 (including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3 of HI 40.6), and motor power input shall be determined according to section 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021 and meet the requirements in Table 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021.




</P>
<P>C. <I>Test Conditions.</I> The requirements regarding test conditions presented in section I.C of this appendix apply to this section V. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, the conditions in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6-2021 shall be met.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Testing BEP for the Pump.</I> Determine the best efficiency point (BEP) of the pump as follows:
</P>
<P>D.1. Adjust the flow by throttling the pump without changing the speed of rotation of the pump and conduct the test at a minimum of the following seven flow points: 40, 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate of the pump at the nominal speed of rotation, as specified in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017 as referenced in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021.
</P>
<P>D.2. Determine the BEP flow rate as the flow rate at the operating point of maximum pump efficiency on the pump efficiency curve, as determined in accordance with section 40.6.6.3 of HI 40.6-2021, where the pump efficiency is the ratio of the pump power output divided by the pump power input, as specified in Table 40.6.2 of HI 40.6-2021, disregarding the calculations provided in section 40.6.6.2.




</P>
<P>E. <I>Calculating the Constant Load Pump Energy Rating.</I> Determine the PER<E T="52">CL</E> of each tested pump using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.045.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>PER<E T="52">CL</E> = the pump energy rating for a constant load (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">i</E> = 0.3333,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,m</E> = calculated driver power input to the motor at load point i for the tested pump as determined in accordance with section V.E.1 of this appendix (hp), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1 Determine the driver power input at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.046.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,m</E> = driver power input to the motor at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = pump power input to the bare pump at load point i, as determined in section V.E.1.1 of this appendix (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = the part load motor losses at load point i as determined in accordance with section V.E.1.2 of this appendix (hp), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.


</FP-2>
<P>E.1.1 Determine the pump power input at 75, 100, and 110 percent of the BEP flow rate by employing a least squares regression to determine a linear relationship between the pump power input at the nominal speed of rotation of the pump and the measured flow rate at the following load points: 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate. Use the linear relationship to determine the pump power input at the nominal speed of rotation for the load points of 75, 100, and 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.


</P>
<P>E.1.2 Determine the motor part load losses at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = L<E T="52">full</E> × Y<E T="52">i</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = motor losses at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">full</E> = motor losses at full load as determined in accordance with section V.E.1.2.1 of this appendix (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">i</E> = part load loss factor at load point i as determined in accordance with section V.E.1.2.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1.2.1 Determine the full load motor losses using the appropriate motor efficiency value and horsepower as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.047.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">full</E> = motor losses at full load (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MotorHP = the horsepower of the motor with which the pump model is being tested (hp), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>η<E T="52">motor,full</E> = the represented nominal full load motor efficiency (<I>i.e.,</I> nameplate/DOE-certified value) or default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency as determined in accordance with section V.E.1.2.1.1 of this appendix (%).


</FP-2>
<P>E.1.2.1.1 For pumps sold with motors other than submersible motors, determine the represented nominal full load motor efficiency as described in section V.E.1.2.1.1.1 of this appendix. For pumps sold with submersible motors, determine the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency as described in section V.E.1.2.1.1.2 of this appendix.




</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.1.1 For pumps sold with motors other than submersible motors, the represented nominal full load motor efficiency is that of the motor with which the given pump model is being tested, as determined in accordance with the DOE test procedure for electric motors at § 431.16 or, for SVIL, the DOE test procedure for small electric motors at § 431.444, or the DOE test procedure for SNEMs in subpart B to this part, as applicable (including for motors less than 0.25 hp), and if available, applicable representation procedures in 10 CFR part 429 and this part.


</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.1.2 For pumps sold with submersible motors, prior to the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency is that listed in table 2 of this appendix, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower of the pump being tested, or if a test procedure for submersible motors is provided in subpart B to this part, the represented nominal full load motor efficiency of the motor with which the given pump model is being tested, as determined in accordance with the applicable test procedure in subpart B to this part and applicable representation procedures in 10 CFR part 429 and this part, may be used instead. Starting on the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency may no longer be used. Instead, the represented nominal full load motor efficiency of the motor with which the given pump model is being tested, as determined in accordance with the applicable test procedure in subpart B of this part and applicable representation procedures in 10 CFR part 429 and this part, must be used.


</P>
<P>E.1.2.2 Determine the loss factor at each load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.048.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>y<E T="52">i</E> = the part load loss factor at load point i,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = the pump power input to the bare pump at load point i as determined in accordance with section V.E.1.1 of this appendix (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MotorHP = the horsepower of the motor with which the pump model is being tested (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 75, 100, or 110 percent of the BEP flow rate, and
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.049.gif"/>
<FP>in the equation in this section V.E.1.2.2. of this appendix to calculate the part load loss factor at each load point


</FP>
<HD1>VI. Testing-Based Approach for Pumps Sold with Motors and Controls






</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> This section VI applies only to pumps sold with electric motors, including single-phase induction motors, and continuous or non-continuous controls, as well as to pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors that are regulated by DOE's test procedure and/or energy conservation standards in subpart B of this part (with or without controls). For the purposes of this section VI, all references to “driver input power” in this section VI or HI 40.6-2021 refer to the input power to the continuous or non-continuous controls.


</P>
<P>B. <I>Measurement Equipment.</I> The requirements regarding measurement equipment presented in section I.B of this appendix apply to this section VI. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, electrical measurement equipment shall meet the requirements of section C.4.3 of HI 40.6-2021 (including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3 of HI 40.6), and motor power input shall be determined according to section 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021 and meet the requirements in Table 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021.






</P>
<P>C. <I>Test Conditions.</I> The requirements regarding test conditions presented in section I.C of this appendix apply to this section VI. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, the conditions in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6, shall be met.








</P>
<P>D. <I>Testing BEP for the Pump.</I> Determine the best efficiency point (BEP) of the pump as follows:
</P>
<P>D.1. Adjust the flow by throttling the pump without changing the speed of rotation of the pump and conduct the test at a minimum of the following seven flow points: 40, 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate of the pump at the nominal speed of rotation, as specified in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017 as referenced in section 40.6.5.5.1 of HI 40.6-2021.
</P>
<P>D.2 Determine the BEP flow rate as the flow rate at the operating point of maximum overall efficiency on the pump efficiency curve, as determined in accordance with section 40.6.6.3 of HI 40.6-2021, where the overall efficiency is the ratio of the pump power output divided by the driver power input, as specified in Table 40.6.2 of HI 40.6-2021, disregarding the calculations provided in section 40.6.6.2 of HI 40.6-2021.


</P>
<P>E. <I>Calculating the Variable Load Pump Energy Rating.</I> Determine the PER<E T="52">VL</E> of each tested pump using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.050.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>PER<E T="52">VL</E> = the pump energy rating for a variable load (hp);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">i</E> = 0.25;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,c</E> = the normalized driver power input to continuous or non-continuous controls at load point i for the tested pump as determined in accordance with section VI.E.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding 25, 50, 75, or 100 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1. Determine the driver power input at 100 percent of the measured BEP flow rate of the tested pump by employing a least squares regression to determine a linear relationship between the measured driver power input at the nominal speed of rotation of the pump and the measured flow rate, using the following load points: 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate. Use the linear relationship to determine the driver power input at the nominal speed of rotation for the load point of 100 percent of the measured BEP flow rate of the tested pump.
</P>
<P>E.2 Determine the driver power input at 25, 50, and 75 percent of the BEP flow rate by measuring the driver power input at the load points defined by:
</P>
<P>(1) Those flow rates, and
</P>
<P>(2) The associated head points calculated according to the following reference system curve equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.051.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">i</E> = pump total head at load point i (ft),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">100</E><E T="52">%</E> = pump total head at 100 percent of the BEP flow rate and nominal speed of rotation (ft),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">i</E> = flow rate at load point i (gpm),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">100</E><E T="52">%</E> = flow rate at 100 percent of the BEP flow rate and nominal speed of rotation (gpm), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 25, 50, or 75 percent of the measured BEP flow rate of the tested pump.
</FP-2>
<P>E.2.1. For pumps sold with motors and continuous controls, the specific head and flow points must be achieved within 10 percent of the calculated values and the measured driver power input must be corrected to the exact intended head and flow conditions using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.052.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,c</E> = the corrected driver power input to the continuous or non-continuous controls at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">sp,i</E> = the specified total system head at load point i based on the reference system curve (ft),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">M,j</E> = the measured total system head at load point j (ft),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">sp,i</E> = the specified total system flow rate at load point i based on the reference system curve (gpm),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">M,j</E> = the measured total system flow rate at load point j (gpm),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">M,j</E><E T="51">in,c</E> = the measured normalized driver power input to the continuous or non-continuous controls at load point j (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = specified load point at 25, 50, 75, or 100 percent of BEP flow, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>j = measured load point corresponding to specified load point i.
</FP-2>
<P>E.2.2. For pumps sold with motors and non-continuous controls, the head associated with each of the specified flow points shall be no lower than 10 percent below that defined by the reference system curve equation in section VI.E.2 of this appendix. Only the measured flow points must be achieved within 10 percent of the calculated values. Correct for flow and head as described in section VI.E.2.1, except do not correct measured head values that are higher than the reference system curve at the same flow rate; only correct flow rate and head values lower than the reference system curve at the same flow rate. For head values higher than the system curve, use the measured head points directly to calculate PEI<E T="52">VL</E>.


</P>
<HD1>VII. Calculation-Based Approach for Pumps Sold With Motors and Controls
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> This section VII can only be used in lieu of the test method in section VI of this appendix to calculate the index for pumps listed in sections VII.A.1, VII.A.2, VII.A.3, and VII.A.4 of this appendix.


</P>
<P>A.1. Pumps sold with motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards for polyphase NEMA Design B electric motors at § 431.25(g) and continuous controls,
</P>
<P>A.2. Pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors regulated by DOE's test procedure and/or energy conservation standards in subpart B of this part,
</P>
<P>A.3. SVIL pumps sold with small electric motors regulated by DOE's energy conservation standards at § 431.446 or with SNEMs regulated by DOE's test procedure and/or energy conservation standards in subpart B of this part (but including motors of such varieties that are less than 0.25 hp) and continuous controls,
</P>
<P>A.4. Pumps sold with submersible motors and continuous controls, and
</P>
<P>A.5. Pumps sold with motors not listed in sections VII.A.1, VII.A.2, VII.A.3, and VII.A.4 of this appendix and pumps sold without continuous controls, including pumps sold with non-continuous controls, cannot use this section and must apply the test method in section VI of this appendix.




</P>
<P>B. <I>Measurement Equipment.</I> The requirements regarding measurement equipment presented in section I.B of this appendix apply to this section VII. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, electrical measurement equipment shall meet the requirements of section C.4.3 of HI 40.6-2021 (including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3 of HI 40.6), and motor power input shall be determined according to section 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021 and meet the requirements in Table 40.6.3.2.3 of HI 40.6-2021.




</P>
<P>C. <I>Test Conditions.</I> The requirements regarding test conditions presented in section I.C of this appendix apply to this section VII. In addition, when testing pumps using a calibrated motor, the conditions in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6-2021, including the applicable provisions of CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, as referenced in section C.4.3.1 of HI 40.6-2021 shall be met.








</P>
<P>D. <I>Testing BEP for the Pump.</I> Determine the best efficiency point (BEP) of the pump as follows:
</P>
<P>D.1. Adjust the flow by throttling the pump without changing the speed of rotation of the pump and conduct the test at a minimum of the following seven flow points: 40, 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate of the pump at the nominal speed of rotation, as specified in HI 40.6-2021, except section 40.6.5.3, and appendix B, including the applicable provisions of HI 9.6.1-2017, HI 9.6.6-2016, HI 9.8-2018, HI 14.1-14.2-2019, the HI Engineering Data Book, ASME MFC-3M-2004, ASME MFC-5M-1985, ASME MFC-8M-2001, ASME MFC-12M-2006, ASME MFC-16-2014, ASME MFC-22-2007, AWWA E103-2015, CSA C390-10, IEEE 112-2017, IEEE 114-2010-A, ISO 1438:2017, ISO 2186:2007, ISO 2715:2017, ISO 3354:2008, ISO 3966:2020, ISO 5167-1:2003, ISO 5198:1987, ISO 6416:2017, and ISO 20456:2017, as referenced in HI 40.6-2021.
</P>
<P>D.2. Determine the BEP flow rate as the flow rate at the operating point of maximum pump efficiency on the pump efficiency curve, as determined in accordance with section 40.6.6.3 of HI 40.6-2021, where the pump efficiency is the ratio of the pump power output divided by the pump power input, as specified in Table 40.6.2 of HI 40.6-2021, disregarding the calculations provided in section 40.6.6.2.




</P>
<P>E. <I>Calculating the Variable Load Pump Energy Rating.</I> Determine the PER<E T="52">VL</E> of each tested pump using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.053.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>PER<E T="52">VL</E> = the pump energy rating for a variable load (hp);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ω<E T="52">i</E> = 0.25;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,c</E> = the calculated driver power input to the continuous or non-continuous controls at load point i for the tested pump as determined in accordance with section VII.E.1 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 25, 50, 75, or 100 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1 Determine the driver power input at each load point corresponding to 25, 50, 75, or 100 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.054.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E><E T="51">in,c</E> = driver power input at to the continuous or non-continuous controls at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = pump power input to the bare pump at load point i as determined in accordance with section VII.E.1.1 of this appendix (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = the part load motor and control losses at load point i as determined in accordance with section VII.E.1.2 of this appendix (hp), and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 25, 50, 75, or 100 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1.1 Determine the pump power input at 100 percent of the measured BEP flow rate of the tested pump by employing a least squares regression to determine a linear relationship between the measured pump power input at the nominal speed of rotation and the measured flow rate at the following load points: 60, 75, 90, 100, 110, and 120 percent of the expected BEP flow rate. Use the linear relationship to determine the pump power input at the nominal speed of rotation for the load point of 100 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</P>
<P>E.1.1.1 Determine the pump power input at 25, 50, and 75 percent of the BEP flow rate based on the measured pump power input at 100 percent of the BEP flow rate and using with the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25ja16.055.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">i</E> = pump power input at load point i (hp);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">100%</E> = pump power input at 100 percent of the BEP flow rate and nominal speed of rotation (hp);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">i</E> = flow rate at load point i (gpm);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q<E T="52">100%</E> = flow rate at 100 percent of the BEP flow rate and nominal speed of rotation (gpm); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 25, 50, or 75 percent of the measured BEP flow rate of the tested pump.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1.2 Calculate the motor and control part load losses at each load point corresponding to 25, 50, 75, and 100 percent of the BEP flow rate as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = L<E T="52">full</E> × z<E T="52">i</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">i</E> = motor and control losses at load point i (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">full</E> = motor losses at full load or, for inverter-only synchronous electric motors, motor + inverter losses at full load, as determined in accordance with section VII.E.1.2.1 of this appendix (hp),


</FP-2>
<FP-2>z<E T="52">i</E> = part load loss factor at load point i as determined in accordance with section VII.E.1.2.2 of this appendix, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = load point corresponding to 25, 50, 75, or 100 percent of the BEP flow rate.
</FP-2>
<P>E.1.2.1 Determine the full load motor losses using the appropriate motor efficiency value and horsepower as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.007.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>L<E T="52">full</E> = motor losses at full load (hp), or for inverter-only synchronous electric motors, motor + inverter losses at full load,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MotorHP = the horsepower of the motor with which the pump model is being tested (hp), and


</FP-2>
<FP-2>η <E T="52">motor,full</E> = the represented nominal full load motor efficiency (<I>i.e.,</I> nameplate/DOE-certified value) or the represented nominal full load motor + inverter efficiency or the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency as determined in accordance with section VII.E.1.2.1.1 of this appendix (%).
</FP-2>
<P>E.1.2.1.1 For pumps sold with motors other than inverter-only synchronous electric motors or submersible motors, determine the represented nominal full load motor efficiency as described in section VII.E.1.2.1.1.1 of this appendix. For pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors, determine the represented nominal full load motor + inverter efficiency as described in section VII.E.1.2.1.1.2 of this appendix. For pumps sold with submersible motors, determine the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency as described in section VII.E.1.2.1.1.3 of this appendix.




</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.1.1 For pumps sold with motors other than inverter-only synchronous electric motors or submersible motors, the represented nominal full load motor efficiency is that of the motor with which the given pump model is being tested, as determined in accordance with the DOE test procedure for electric motors at § 431.16 or, for SVIL, the DOE test procedure for small electric motors at § 431.444 or the DOE test procedure for SNEMs in subpart B of this part, as applicable (including for motors less than 0.25 hp), and, if available, applicable representation procedures in 10 CFR part 429 and this part.


</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.1.2 For pumps sold with inverter-only synchronous electric motors, the represented nominal full load motor + inverter efficiency is that of the motor with which the given pump model is being tested, as determined in accordance with the DOE test procedure for inverter-only synchronous electric motors in subpart B of this part, and, if available, applicable representation procedures in 10 CFR part 429 and this part.


</P>
<P>E.1.2.1.1.3 For pumps sold with submersible motors, prior to the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency is that listed in table 2 of this appendix, with the number of poles relevant to the speed at which the pump is being tested (see section I.C.1 of this appendix) and the motor horsepower of the pump being tested, or if a test procedure for submersible motors is provided in subpart B of this part, the represented nominal full load motor efficiency of the motor with which the given pump model is being tested, as determined in accordance with the applicable test procedure in subpart B of this part and applicable representation procedures in 10 CFR part 429 and this part, may be used instead. Starting on the compliance date of any energy conservation standards for submersible motors in subpart B of this part, the default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency may no longer be used and instead the represented nominal full load motor efficiency of the motor with which the given pump model is being tested, as determined in accordance with the applicable test procedure in subpart B of this part and applicable representation procedures in 10 CFR part 429 and this part, must be used instead.




</P>
<P>E.1.2.2 For load points corresponding to 25, 50, 75, and 100 percent of the BEP flow rate, determine the part load loss factor at each load point as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.008.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>z</I> i = the motor and control part load loss factor at load point i,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>a,b,c = coefficients listed in either Table 4 of this appendix for induction motors or Table 5 of this appendix for inverter-only synchronous electric motors, based on the horsepower of the motor with which the pump is being tested,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P <E T="52">i</E> = the pump power input to the bare pump at load point i, as determined in accordance with section VII.E.1.1 of this appendix (hp),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MotorHP = the horsepower of the motor with which the pump is being tested (hp),
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr23.009.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Default Nominal Full Load Submersible Motor Efficiency by Motor Horsepower and Pole
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Motor horsepower 


<br/>(hp)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Default nominal full load submersible motor efficiency
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2 poles
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 poles
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6 poles
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Nominal Full Load Motor Efficiency Values
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal full load motor efficiency*
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">52.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">55.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">57.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">59.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">74.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">77.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">78.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">89.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">92.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">96.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">97.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">98.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">99.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* <E T="02">Note:</E> Each consecutive incremental value of nominal efficiency represents one band.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4—Induction Motor and Control Part Load Loss Factor Equation Coefficients for Section VII.E.1.2.2 of This Appendix A
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Motor horsepower 


<br/>(hp)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Coefficients for induction motor and control part load loss factor 


<br/>(zi)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">a
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">b
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">c
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.4658</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4965</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5303
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;5 and ≤20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.3198</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9551</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1052
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;20 and ≤50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.5122</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0777</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1847
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;50 and ≤100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.6629</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1452</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1952
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.7583</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4538</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2233</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5—Inverter-Only Synchronous Electric Motor and Control Part Load Loss Factor Equation Coefficients for Section VII.E.1.2.2 of This Appendix A
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Motor horsepower 


<br/>(hp)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Coefficients for induction motor and control part load loss factor 


<br/>(zi)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">a
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">b
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">c
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.0898</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0251</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0667
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;5 and ≤20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.1591</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1683</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.0085
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;20 and ≤50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.4071</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4028</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0055
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;50 and ≤100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.3341</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3377</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.0023
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.0749</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0864</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.0096</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 4145, Jan. 25, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 36924, Aug. 7, 2017; 88 FR 17978, Mar. 24, 2023; 88 FR 24471, Apr. 21, 2023; 90 FR 6795, Jan. 21, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.7.42" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart Y of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Efficiency of Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pumps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>On February 5, 2018 but before July 19, 2021, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of dedicated-purpose pool pumps subject to testing pursuant to 10 CFR 431.464(b) must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix. Any optional representations of energy factor (EF) must be accompanied by a representation of weighted energy factor (WEF).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>I. Test Procedure for Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pumps
</HD1>
<HD2>A. General
</HD2>
<P>A.1 Test Method. To determine the weighted energy factor (WEF) for dedicated-purpose pool pumps, perform “wire-to-water” testing in accordance with HI 40.6-2014-B, except section 40.6.4.1, “Vertically suspended pumps”; section 40.6.4.2, “Submersible pumps”; section 40.6.5.3, “Test report”; section 40.6.5.5, “Test conditions”; section 40.6.5.5.2, “Speed of rotation during testing”; section 40.6.6.1, “Translation of test results to rated speed of rotation”; section 40.6.6.2, “Pump efficiency”; section 40.6.6.3, “Performance curve”; section A.7, “Testing at temperatures exceeding 30 °C (86  °F)”; and appendix B, “Reporting of test results”; (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) with the modifications and additions as noted throughout the provisions below. Do not use the test points specified in section 40.6.5.5.1, “Test procedure” of HI 40.6-2014-B and instead use those test points specified in section D.3 of this appendix for the applicable dedicated-purpose pool pump variety and speed configuration. When determining overall efficiency, best efficiency point, or other applicable pump energy performance information, section 40.6.5.5.1, “Test procedure”; section 40.6.6.2, “Pump efficiency”; and section 40.6.6.3, “Performance curve” must be used, as applicable. For the purposes of applying this appendix, the term “volume per unit time,” as defined in section 40.6.2, “Terms and definitions,” of HI 40.6-2014-B shall be deemed to be synonymous with the term “flow rate” used throughout that standard and this appendix.
</P>
<P>A.2. Calculations and Rounding. All terms and quantities refer to values determined in accordance with the procedures set forth in this appendix for the rated pump. Perform all calculations using raw measured values without rounding. Round WEF, EF, maximum head, vertical lift, and true priming time values to the tenths place (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.1) and rated hydraulic horsepower to the thousandths place (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.001). Round all other reported values to the hundredths place unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<HD2>B. Measurement Equipment
</HD2>
<P>B.1 For the purposes of measuring flow rate, speed of rotation, temperature, and pump power output, the equipment specified in HI 40.6-2014-B Appendix C (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) necessary to measure head, speed of rotation, flow rate, and temperature must be used and must comply with the stated accuracy requirements in HI 40.6-2014-B Table 40.6.3.2.3, except as specified in section B.1.1 and B.1.2 of this appendix. When more than one instrument is used to measure a given parameter, the combined accuracy, calculated as the root sum of squares of individual instrument accuracies, must meet the specified accuracy requirements.
</P>
<P>B.1.1 Electrical measurement equipment for determining the driver power input to the motor or controls must be capable of measuring true root mean squared (RMS) current, true RMS voltage, and real power up to the 40th harmonic of fundamental supply source frequency, and have a combined accuracy of ±2.0 percent of the measured value at the fundamental supply source frequency.
</P>
<P>B.1.2 Instruments for measuring distance (<I>e.g.,</I> height above the reference plane or water level) must be accurate to and have a resolution of at least ±0.1 inch.
</P>
<P>B.2 Calibration. Calibration requirements for instrumentation are specified in appendix D of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463). Historical calibration data may be used to justify time periods up to three times longer than those specified in table D.1 of HI 40.6-2014-B provided the supporting historical data shows maintenance of calibration of the given instrument up to the selected extended calibration interval on at least two unique occasions, based on the interval specified in HI 40.6-2014-B.
</P>
<HD2>C. Test Conditions and Tolerances
</HD2>
<P>C.1 Pump Specifications. Conduct testing at full impeller diameter in accordance with the test conditions, stabilization requirements, and specifications of HI 40.6-2014-B section 40.6.3, “Pump efficiency testing”; section 40.6.4, “Considerations when determining the efficiency of a pump”; section 40.6.5.4 (including appendix A), “Test arrangements”; and section 40.6.5.5, “Test conditions” (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P>C.2 Power Supply Requirements. The following conditions also apply to the mains power supplied to the DPPP motor or controls, if any:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain the voltage within ±5 percent of the rated value of the motor,
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain the frequency within ±1 percent of the rated value of the motor,
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain the voltage unbalance of the power supply within ±3 percent of the value with which the motor was rated, and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain total harmonic distortion below 12 percent throughout the test.
</P>
<P>C.3 Test Conditions. Testing must be carried out with water that is between 50 and 107 °F with less than or equal to 15 nephelometric turbidity units (NTU).
</P>
<P>C.4 Tolerances. For waterfall pumps, multi-speed self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps, and variable-speed self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps all measured load points must be within ±2.5 percent of the specified head value and comply with any specified flow values or thresholds. For all other dedicated-purpose pool pumps, all measured load points must be within the greater of ±2.5 percent of the specified flow rate values or ±0.5 gpm and comply with any specified head values or thresholds.
</P>
<HD2>D. Data Collection and Stabilization
</HD2>
<P>D.1 Damping Devices. Use of damping devices, as described in section 40.6.3.2.2 of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), are only permitted to integrate up to the data collection interval used during testing.
</P>
<P>D.2 Stabilization. Record data at any tested load point only under stabilized conditions, as defined in HI 40.6-2014-B section 40.6.5.5.1 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), where a minimum of two measurements are used to determine stabilization.
</P>
<P>D.3 Test Points. Measure the flow rate in gpm, pump total head in ft, the driver power input in W, and the speed of rotation in rpm at each load point specified in Table 1 of this appendix for each DPPP variety and speed configuration:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Load Points (<E T="01">i</E>) and Weights (<E T="01">w</E><E T="0732">i</E>) for Each DPPP Variety and Speed Configuration
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">DPPP varieties
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Speed configuration(s)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Number of load points
<br/>(n)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Load point
<br/>(i)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Test points
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow rate
<br/>(Q) (GPM)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Head
<br/>(H) (ft)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Speed
<br/>(rpm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Priming Pool Filter Pumps And Non-Self-Priming Pool Filter Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps and all self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps not meeting the definition of two-*, multi-, or variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pump</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="0732">high</E> (gpm) = Q<E T="0732">max__speed@C</E> **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">high</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum speed
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="0732">low</E> (gpm) = Flow rate associated with specified head and speed that is not below:
<br/>• 31.1 gpm if rated hydraulic horsepower is &gt;0.75 or
<br/>• 24.7 gpm if rated hydraulic horsepower is ≤0.75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">low</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lowest speed capable of meeting the specified flow and head values, if any ***.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="0732">high</E> (gpm) = Q<E T="0732">max__speed@C</E> **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">high</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum speed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-speed and variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="52">low</E> (gpm) =
<br/>• If rated hydraulic horsepower is &gt;0.75, then Q<E T="0732">low</E> ≥ 31.1 gpm
<br/>• If rated hydraulic horsepower is ≤0.75, then Q<E T="0732">low</E> ≥24.7 gpm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">low</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lowest speed capable of meeting the specified flow and head values.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="52">high</E> (gpm) ≥0.8 × Q<E T="0732">max__speed@C</E> **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">high</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lowest speed capable of meeting the specified flow and head values.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterfall Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="52">low</E> (gpm) = Flow corresponding to specified head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">17.0 ft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum speed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pressure Cleaner Booster Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 gpm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥60.0 ft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lowest speed capable of meeting the specified flow and head values.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* In order to apply the test points for two-speed self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps, self-priming pool filter pumps that are greater than or equal to 0.711 rated hydraulic horsepower that are two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps must also be distributed in commerce either: (1) With a pool pump control (variable speed drive and user interface or switch) that changes the speed in response to pre-programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times or (2) without a pool pump control that has such capability, but without which the pump is unable to operate. Two-speed self-priming pool filter pumps greater than or equal to 0.711 rated hydraulic horsepower that do not meet these requirements must be tested using the load point for single-speed self-priming or non-self-priming pool filter pumps, as appropriate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** Q<E T="0732">max__speed@C</E> = Flow at max speed on curve C (gpm)
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*** If a two-speed pump has a low speed that results in a flow rate below the specified values, the low speed of that pump shall not be tested.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>E. Calculations
</HD2>
<P>E.1 Determination of Weighted Energy Factor. Determine the WEF as a ratio of the measured flow and driver power input to the dedicated-purpose pool pump in accordance with the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.010.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>WEF</I> = Weighted Energy Factor in kgal/kWh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>w</I><E T="54">i</E> = weighting factor at each load point <I>i</I>, as specified in section E.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">i</E> = flow at each load point <I>i</I>, in gpm;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">i</E> = driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) at each load point <I>i</I>, in watts;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>i</I> = load point(s), defined uniquely for each DPPP variety and speed configuration as specified in section D.3 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> = number of load point(s), defined uniquely for each DPPP variety and speed configuration as specified in section D.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>E.2 Weights. When determining WEF, apply the weights specified in Table 2 of this appendix for the applicable load points, DPPP varieties, and speed configurations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Load Point Weights (<E T="01">w</E><E T="0732">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">DPPP varieties
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Speed configuration(s)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Load point(s) <E T="03">i</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Low flow
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">High flow
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Priming Pool Filter Pumps and Non-Self-Priming Pool Filter Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps and all self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps not meeting the definition of two-,* multi-, or variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pump</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-speed and variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterfall Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pressure Cleaner Booster Pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* In order to apply the test points for two-speed self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps, self-priming pool filter pumps that are greater than or equal to 0.711 rated hydraulic horsepower that are two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps must also be distributed in commerce either: (1) With a pool pump control (variable speed drive and user interface or switch) that changes the speed in response to pre-programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times or (2) without a pool pump control that has such capability, but without which the pump is unable to operate. Two-speed self-priming pool filter pumps greater than or equal to 0.711 rated hydraulic horsepower that do not meet these requirements must be tested using the load point for single-speed self-priming or non-self-priming pool filter pumps, as appropriate.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>E.3 Determination of Horsepower and True Power Factor Metrics
</P>
<P>E.3.1 Determine the pump power output at any load point <I>i</I> using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.011.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">u,i</E> = the measured pump power output at load point <I>i</I> of the tested pump, in hp;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">i</E> = the measured flow rate at load point <I>i</I> of the tested pump, in gpm;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">i</E> = pump total head at load point <I>i</I> of the tested pump, in ft; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>SG</I> = the specific gravity of water at specified test conditions, which is equivalent to 1.00.
</FP-2>
<P>E.3.1.1 Determine the rated hydraulic horsepower as the pump power output measured on the reference curve at maximum rotating speed and full impeller diameter for the rated pump.
</P>
<P>E.3.2 For dedicated-purpose pool pumps with single-phase AC motors or DC motors, determine the dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal motor horsepower as the product of the measured full load speed and torque, adjusted to the appropriate units, as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.012.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">nm</E> = the dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal total horsepower at full load, in hp;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I> = output torque at full load, in lb-ft; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n = the motor speed at full load, in rpm.
</FP-2>
<P>Full-load speed and torque shall be determined based on the maximum continuous duty motor power output rating allowable for the motor's nameplate ambient rating and insulation class.
</P>
<P>E.3.2.1 For single-phase AC motors, determine the measured speed and torque at full load according to either section E.3.2.1.1 or E.3.2.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>E.3.2.1.1 Use the procedures in section 3.2, “Tests with load”; section 4 “Testing facilities”; section 5.2 “Mechanical measurements”; section 5.3 “Temperature measurements”; and section 6 “Tests” of IEEE 114-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), or
</P>
<P>E.3.2.1.2 Use the applicable procedures in section 5, “General test requirements” and section 6, “Tests” of CSA C747-2009 (RA 2014); except in section 6.4(b) the conversion factor shall be 5252, only measurements at full load are required in section 6.5, and section 6.6 shall be disregarded (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P>E.3.2.2 For DC motors, determine the measured speed and torque at full load according to either section E.3.2.2.1 or E.3.2.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>E.3.2.2.1 Use the procedures in section 3.1, “Instrument Selection Factors”; section 3.4 “Power Measurement”: Section 3.5 “Power Sources”; section 4.1.2 “Ambient Air”; section 4.1.4 “Direction of Rotation”; section 5.4.1 “Reference Conditions”; and section 5.4.3.2 “Dynomometer or Torquemeter Method” of IEEE 113-1985 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), or
</P>
<P>E.3.2.2.2 Use the applicable procedures in section 5, “General test requirements” and section 6, “Tests” of CSA C747-2009 (RA 2014); except in section 6.4(b) the conversion factor shall be 5252, only measurements at full load are required in section 6.5, and section 6.6 shall be disregarded (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P>E.3.3 For dedicated-purpose pool pumps with single-phase AC motors or DC motors, the dedicated-purpose pool pump service factor is equal to 1.0.
</P>
<P>E.3.4 Determine the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower according to section E.3.4.1 of this appendix for dedicated-purpose pool pumps with single-phase AC motors or DC motors and section E.3.4.2 of this appendix for dedicated-purpose pool pumps with polyphase AC motors.
</P>
<P>E.3.4.1 For dedicated-purpose pool pumps with single-phase AC motors or DC motors, determine the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower as the product of the dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal motor horsepower, determined in accordance with section E.3.2 of this appendix, and the dedicated-purpose pool pump service factor, determined in accordance with section E.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>E.3.4.2 For dedicated-purpose pool pumps with polyphase AC induction motors, determine the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower as the product of the rated nominal motor horsepower and the rated service factor of the motor.
</P>
<P>E.3.5 Determine the true power factor at each applicable load point specified in Table 1 of this appendix for each DPPP variety and speed configuration as a ratio of driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) (<I>P</I><E T="54">i</E>), in watts, divided by the product of the voltage in volts and the current in amps at each load point <I>i</I>, as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.013.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>PF</I><E T="54">i</E> = true power factor at each load point <I>i</I>, dimensionless;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">i</E> = driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) at each load point <I>i</I>, in watts;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>V</I><E T="54">i</E> = voltage at each load point <I>i</I>, in volts;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>I</I><E T="54">i</E> = current at each load point <I>i</I>, in amps; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>i</I> = load point(s), defined uniquely for each DPPP variety and speed configuration as specified in section D.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>E.4 Determination of Maximum Head. Determine the maximum head for self-priming pool filter pumps, non-self-priming pool filter pumps, and waterfall pumps by measuring the head at maximum speed and the minimum flow rate at which the pump is designed to operate continuously or safely, where the minimum flow rate is assumed to be zero unless stated otherwise in the manufacturer literature.
</P>
<HD2>F. Determination of Self-Priming Capability
</HD2>
<P>F.1 Test Method. Determine the vertical lift and true priming time of non-self-priming pool filter pumps and self-priming pool filter pumps that are not already certified as self-priming under NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) by testing such pumps pursuant to section C.3 of appendix C of NSF/ANSI 50-2015, except for the modifications and exceptions listed in the following sections F.1.1 through F.1.5 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>F.1.1 Where section C.3.2, “Apparatus,” and section C.3.4, “Self-priming capability test method,” of NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) state that the “suction line must be essentially as shown in annex C, figure C.1;” the phrase “essentially as shown in Annex C, figure C.1” means:
</P>
<P>• The centerline of the pump impeller shaft is situated a vertical distance equivalent to the specified vertical lift (VL), calculated in accordance with section F.1.1.1. of this appendix, above the water level of a water tank of sufficient volume as to maintain a constant water surface level for the duration of the test;
</P>
<P>• The pump draws water from the water tank with a riser pipe that extends below the water level a distance of at least 3 times the riser pipe diameter (<I>i.e.,</I> 3 pipe diameters);
</P>
<P>• The suction inlet of the pump is at least 5 pipe diameters from any obstructions, 90° bends, valves, or fittings; and
</P>
<P>• The riser pipe is of the same pipe diameter as the pump suction inlet.
</P>
<P>F.1.1.1 The vertical lift (VL) must be normalized to 5.0 feet at an atmospheric pressure of 14.7 psia and a water density of 62.4 lb/ft
<SU>3</SU> in accordance with the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.014.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>VL</I> = vertical lift of the test apparatus from the waterline to the centerline of the pump impeller shaft, in ft;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ρ</I><E T="54">test</E> = density of test fluid, in lb/ft
<SU>3</SU>; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">abs,test</E> = absolute barometric pressure of test apparatus location at centerline of pump impeller shaft, in psia.
</FP-2>
<P>F.1.2 The equipment accuracy requirements specified in section B, “Measurement Equipment,” of this appendix also apply to this section F, as applicable.
</P>
<P>F.1.2.1 All measurements of head (gauge pressure), flow, and water temperature must be taken at the pump suction inlet and all head measurements must be normalized back to the centerline of the pump impeller shaft in accordance with section A.3.1.3.1 of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P>F.1.3 All tests must be conducted with clear water that meets the requirements adopted in section C.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F.1.4 In section C.3.4, “Self-priming capability test method,” of NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), “the elapsed time to steady discharge gauge reading or full discharge flow” is determined when the changes in head and flow, respectively, are within the tolerance values specified in table 40.6.3.2.2, “Permissible amplitude of fluctuation as a percentage of mean value of quantity being measured at any test point,” of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463). The measured priming time (MPT) is determined as the point in time when the stabilized load point is first achieved, not when stabilization is determined. In addition, the true priming time (TPT) is equivalent to the MPT.
</P>
<P>F.1.5 The maximum true priming time for each test run must not exceed 10.0 minutes. Disregard section C.3.5 of NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<HD2>G. Optional Testing and Calculations
</HD2>
<P>G.1 Energy Factor. When making representations regarding the EF of dedicated-purpose pool pumps, determine EF on one of four system curves (A, B, C, or D) and at any given speed (<I>s</I>) according to the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.015.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>EF</I><E T="54">X,s</E> = the energy factor on system curve X at speed s in gal/Wh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>X</I> = one of four possible system curves (A, B, C, or D), as defined in section G.1.1 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>s</I> = the tested speed, in rpm;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">X,s</E> = flow rate measured on system curve X at speed s in gpm; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">X,s</E> = driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) on system curve X at speed s in watts.
</FP-2>
<P>G.1.1 System Curves. The energy factor may be determined at any speed (<I>s</I>) and on any of the four system curves A, B, C, and/or D specified in the Table 3:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3—Systems Curves for Optional EF Test Procedure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System curve
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System curve equation *
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0167 × Q
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0500 × Q
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0044 × Q
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* In the above table, Q refers to the flow rate in gpm and H refers to head in ft.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>G.2 Replacement Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pump Motors. To determine the WEF for replacement DPPP motors, test each replacement DPPP motor paired with each dedicated-purpose pool pump bare pump for which the replacement DPPP motor is advertised to be paired, as stated in the manufacturer's literature for that replacement DPPP motor model, according to the testing and calculations described in sections A, B, C, D, and E of this appendix. Alternatively, each replacement DPPP motor may be tested with the most consumptive dedicated-purpose pool pump bare pump for which it is advertised to be paired, as stated in the manufacturer's literature for that replacement DPPP motor model. If a replacement DPPP motor is not advertised to be paired with any specific dedicated-purpose pool pump bare pumps, test with the most consumptive dedicated-purpose pool pump bare pump available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 36924, Aug. 7, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.7.43" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart Y of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Efficiency of Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pumps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Any representations made on or after July 19, 2021, with respect to the energy use or efficiency of dedicated-purpose pool pumps subject to testing pursuant to 10 CFR 431.464(b) must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>I. Test Procedure for Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pumps
</HD1>
<HD2>A. General
</HD2>
<P>A.1 Test Method. To determine the weighted energy factor (WEF) for dedicated-purpose pool pumps, perform “wire-to-water” testing in accordance with HI 40.6-2014-B, except section 40.6.4.1, “Vertically suspended pumps”; section 40.6.4.2, “Submersible pumps”; section 40.6.5.3, “Test report”; section 40.6.5.5, “Test conditions”; section 40.6.5.5.2, “Speed of rotation during testing”; section 40.6.6.1, “Translation of test results to rated speed of rotation”; section 40.6.6.2, “Pump efficiency”; section 40.6.6.3, “Performance curve”; section A.7, “Testing at temperatures exceeding 30 °C (86  °F)”; and appendix B, “Reporting of test results”; (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) with the modifications and additions as noted throughout the provisions below. Do not use the test points specified in section 40.6.5.5.1, “Test procedure” of HI 40.6-2014-B and instead use those test points specified in section D.3 of this appendix for the applicable dedicated-purpose pool pump variety and speed configuration. When determining overall efficiency, best efficiency point, or other applicable pump energy performance information, section 40.6.5.5.1, “Test procedure”; section 40.6.6.2, “Pump efficiency”; and section 40.6.6.3, “Performance curve” must be used, as applicable. For the purposes of applying this appendix, the term “volume per unit time,” as defined in section 40.6.2, “Terms and definitions,” of HI 40.6-2014-B shall be deemed to be synonymous with the term “flow rate” used throughout that standard and this appendix .
</P>
<P>A.2 Calculations and Rounding. All terms and quantities refer to values determined in accordance with the procedures set forth in this appendix for the rated pump. Perform all calculations using raw measured values without rounding. Round WEF, maximum head, vertical lift, and true priming time values to the tenths place (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.1) and rated hydraulic horsepower to the thousandths place (<I>i.e.,</I> 0.001). Round all other reported values to the hundredths place unless otherwise specified.
</P>
<HD2>B. Measurement Equipment
</HD2>
<P>B.1 For the purposes of measuring flow rate, speed of rotation, temperature, and pump power output, the equipment specified in HI 40.6-2014-B Appendix C (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) necessary to measure head, speed of rotation, flow rate, and temperature must be used and must comply with the stated accuracy requirements in HI 40.6-2014-B Table 40.6.3.2.3, except as specified in sections B.1.1 and B.1.2 of this appendix. When more than one instrument is used to measure a given parameter, the combined accuracy, calculated as the root sum of squares of individual instrument accuracies, must meet the specified accuracy requirements.
</P>
<P>B.1.1 Electrical measurement equipment for determining the driver power input to the motor or controls must be capable of measuring true root mean squared (RMS) current, true RMS voltage, and real power up to the 40th harmonic of fundamental supply source frequency, and have a combined accuracy of ±2.0 percent of the measured value at the fundamental supply source frequency.
</P>
<P>B.1.2 Instruments for measuring distance (<I>e.g.,</I> height above the reference plane or water level) must be accurate to and have a resolution of at least ±0.1 inch.
</P>
<P>B.2 Calibration. Calibration requirements for instrumentation are specified in appendix D of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463). Historical calibration data may be used to justify time periods up to three times longer than those specified in table D.1 of HI 40.6-2014-B provided the supporting historical data shows maintenance of calibration of the given instrument up to the selected extended calibration interval on at least two unique occasions, based on the interval specified in HI 40.6-2014-B.
</P>
<HD2>C. Test Conditions and Tolerances
</HD2>
<P>C.1 Pump Specifications. Conduct testing at full impeller diameter in accordance with the test conditions, stabilization requirements, and specifications of HI 40.6-2014-B section 40.6.3, “Pump efficiency testing”; section 40.6.4, “Considerations when determining the efficiency of a pump”; section 40.6.5.4 (including appendix A), “Test arrangements”; and section 40.6.5.5, “Test conditions” (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P>C.2 Power Supply Requirements. The following conditions also apply to the mains power supplied to the DPPP motor or controls, if any:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain the voltage within ±5 percent of the rated value of the motor,
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain the frequency within ±1 percent of the rated value of the motor,
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain the voltage unbalance of the power supply within ±3 percent of the value with which the motor was rated, and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain total harmonic distortion below 12 percent throughout the test.
</P>
<P>C.3 Test Conditions. Testing must be carried out with water that is between 50 and 107 °F with less than or equal to 15 nephelometric turbidity units (NTU).
</P>
<P>C.4 Tolerances. For waterfall pumps, multi-speed self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps, and variable-speed self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps all measured load points must be within ±2.5 percent of the specified head value and comply with any specified flow values or thresholds. For all other dedicated-purpose pool pumps, all measured load points must be within the greater of ±2.5 percent of the specified flow rate values or ±0.5 gpm and comply with any specified head values or thresholds.
</P>
<HD2>D. Data Collection and Stabilization
</HD2>
<P>D.1 Damping Devices. Use of damping devices, as described in section 40.6.3.2.2 of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), are only permitted to integrate up to the data collection interval used during testing.
</P>
<P>D.2 Stabilization. Record data at any tested load point only under stabilized conditions, as defined in HI 40.6-2014-B section 40.6.5.5.1 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), where a minimum of two measurements are used to determine stabilization.
</P>
<P>D.3 Test Points. Measure the flow rate in gpm, pump total head in ft, the driver power input in W, and the speed of rotation in rpm at each load point specified in Table 1 of this appendix for each DPPP variety and speed configuration:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Load Points (<E T="01">i</E>) and Weights (<E T="01">w</E><E T="0732">i</E>) for Each DPPP Variety and Speed Configuration
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">DPPP varieties
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Speed configuration(s)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Number of load points
<br/>(n)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Load point
<br/>(i)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Test points
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Flow rate
<br/>(Q) (GPM)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Head
<br/>(H) (ft)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Speed
<br/>(rpm)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Priming Pool Filter Pumps And Non-Self-Priming Pool Filter Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps and all self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps not meeting the definition of two-*, multi-, or variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pump</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="0732">high</E> (gpm) = Q<E T="0732">max__speed@C</E> **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">high</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum speed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="0732">low</E> (gpm) = Flow rate associated with specified head and speed that is not below:
<br/>• 31.1 gpm if rated hydraulic horsepower is &gt;0.75 or
<br/>• 24.7 gpm if rated hydraulic horsepower is ≤0.75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">low</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lowest speed capable of meeting the specified flow and head values, if any. ***
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="0732">high</E> (gpm) = Q<E T="0732">max__speed@C</E> **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">low</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum speed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-speed and variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="52">low</E> (gpm) =
<br/>• If rated hydraulic horsepower is &gt;0.75, then Q<E T="0732">low</E> ≥31.1 gpm
<br/>• If rated hydraulic horsepower is ≤0.75, then Q<E T="0732">low</E> ≥24.7 gpm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">low</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lowest speed capable of meeting the specified flow and head values.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="0732">high</E> (gpm) ≥0.8 × Q<E T="0732">max__speed@C</E> **</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">H = 0.0082 × Q<E T="0732">high</E>
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lowest speed capable of meeting the specified flow and head values.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterfall Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Q<E T="0732">low</E> (gpm) = Flow corresponding to specified head</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">17.0 ft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum speed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pressure Cleaner Booster Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 gpm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥60.0 ft</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lowest speed capable of meeting the specified flow and head values.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* In order to apply the test points for two-speed self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps, self-priming pool filter pumps that are greater than or equal to 0.711 rated hydraulic horsepower that are two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps must also be distributed in commerce either: (1) With a pool pump control (variable speed drive and user interface or switch) that changes the speed in response to pre-programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times or (2) without a pool pump control that has such capability, but without which the pump is unable to operate. Two-speed self-priming pool filter pumps greater than or equal to 0.711 rated hydraulic horsepower that do not meet these requirements must be tested using the load point for single-speed self-priming or non-self-priming pool filter pumps, as appropriate.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** Q<E T="0732">max__speed@C</E> = Flow at max speed on curve C (gpm).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*** If a two-speed pump has a low speed that results in a flow rate below the specified values, the low speed of that pump shall not be tested.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>E. Calculations
</HD2>
<P>E.1 Determination of Weighted Energy Factor. Determine the WEF as a ratio of the measured flow and driver power input to the dedicated-purpose pool pump in accordance with the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.016.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>WEF</I> = Weighted Energy Factor in kgal/kWh;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>W</I><E T="54">i</E> = weighting factor at each load point <I>i</I>, as specified in section E.2 of this appendix;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">i</E> = flow at each load point <I>i</I>, in gpm;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">i</E> = driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) at each load point <I>i</I>, in watts;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>i</I> = load point(s), defined uniquely for each DPPP variety and speed configuration as specified in section D.3 of this appendix; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>n</I> = number of load point(s), defined uniquely for each DPPP variety and speed configuration as specified in section D.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>E.2 Weights. When determining WEF, apply the weights specified in Table 2 of this appendix for the applicable load points, DPPP varieties, and speed configurations:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Load Point Weights (<E T="01">w</E><E T="0732">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">DPPP varieties
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Speed configuration(s)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Load point(s)
<br/><E T="03">i</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Low flow
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">High flow
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Self-Priming Pool Filter Pumps and Non-Self-Priming Pool Filter Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps and all self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps not meeting the definition of two-*, multi-, or variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pump</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps *</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Multi-speed and variable-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Waterfall Pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pressure Cleaner Booster Pump</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* In order to apply the test points for two-speed self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps, self-priming pool filter pumps that are greater than or equal to 0.711 rated hydraulic horsepower that are two-speed dedicated-purpose pool pumps must also be distributed in commerce either: (1) With a pool pump control (variable speed drive and user interface or switch) that changes the speed in response to pre-programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times or (2) without a pool pump control that has such capability, but without which the pump is unable to operate. Two-speed self-priming pool filter pumps greater than or equal to 0.711 rated hydraulic horsepower that do not meet these requirements must be tested using the load point for single-speed self-priming or non-self-priming pool filter pumps, as appropriate.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>E.3 Determination of Horsepower and True Power Factor Metrics
</P>
<P>E.3.1 Determine the pump power output at any load point <I>i</I> using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.017.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">u,i</E> = the measured pump power output at load point <I>i</I> of the tested pump, in hp;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Q</I><E T="54">i</E> = the measured flow rate at load point <I>i</I> of the tested pump, in gpm;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">i</E> = pump total head at load point <I>i</I> of the tested pump, in ft; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>SG</I> = the specific gravity of water at specified test conditions, which is equivalent to 1.00.
</FP-2>
<P>E.3.1.1 Determine the rated hydraulic horsepower as the pump power output measured on the reference curve at maximum rotating speed and full impeller diameter for the rated pump.
</P>
<P>E.3.2 For dedicated-purpose pool pumps with single-phase AC motors or DC motors, determine the dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal motor horsepower as the product of the measured full load speed and torque, adjusted to the appropriate units, as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.018.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">nm</E> = the dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal total horsepower at full load, in hp;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I> = output torque at full load, in lb-ft; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n = the motor speed at full load, in rpm.
</FP-2>
<P>Full-load speed and torque shall be determined based on the maximum continuous duty motor power output rating allowable for the motor's nameplate ambient rating and insulation class.
</P>
<P>E.3.2.1 For single-phase AC motors, determine the measured speed and torque at full load according to either section E.3.2.1.1 or E.3.2.1.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>E.3.2.1.1 Use the procedures in section 3.2, “Tests with load”; section 4 “Testing facilities”; section 5.2 “Mechanical measurements”; section 5.3 “Temperature measurements”; and section 6 “Tests” of IEEE 114-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), or
</P>
<P>E.3.2.1.2 Use the applicable procedures in section 5, “General test requirements” and section 6, “Tests” of CSA C747-2009 (RA 2014); except in section 6.4(b) the conversion factor shall be 5252, only measurements at full load are required in section 6.5, and section 6.6 shall be disregarded (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P>E.3.2.2 For DC motors, determine the measured speed and torque at full load according to either section E.3.2.2.1 or E.3.2.2.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>E.3.2.2.1 Use the procedures in section 3.1, “Instrument Selection Factors”; section 3.4 “Power Measurement”: Section 3.5 “Power Sources”; section 4.1.2 “Ambient Air”; section 4.1.4 “Direction of Rotation”; section 5.4.1 “Reference Conditions”; and section 5.4.3.2 “Dynomometer or Torquemeter Method” of IEEE 113-1985 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), or
</P>
<P>E.3.2.2.2 Use the applicable procedures in section 5, “General test requirements” and section 6, “Tests” of CSA C747-2009 (RA 2014); except in section 6.4(b) the conversion factor shall be 5252, only measurements at full load are required in section 6.5, and section 6.6 shall be disregarded (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P>E.3.3 For dedicated-purpose pool pumps with single-phase AC motors or DC motors, the dedicated-purpose pool pump service factor is equal to 1.0.
</P>
<P>E.3.4 Determine the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower according to section E.3.4.1 of this appendix for dedicated-purpose pool pumps with single-phase AC motors or DC motors and section E.3.4.2 of this appendix for dedicated-purpose pool pumps with polyphase AC motors.
</P>
<P>E.3.4.1 For dedicated-purpose pool pumps with single-phase AC motors or DC motors, determine the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower as the product of the dedicated-purpose pool pump nominal motor horsepower, determined in accordance with section E.3.2 of this appendix, and the dedicated-purpose pool pump service factor, determined in accordance with section E.3.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>E.3.4.2 For dedicated-purpose pool pumps with polyphase AC induction motors, determine the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower as the product of the rated nominal motor horsepower and the rated service factor of the motor.
</P>
<P>E.3.5 Determine the true power factor at each applicable load point specified in Table 1 of this appendix for each DPPP variety and speed configuration as a ratio of driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) (<I>P</I><E T="54">i</E>), in watts, divided by the product of the voltage in volts and the current in amps at each load point <I>i</I>, as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.019.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>PF</I><E T="54">i</E> = true power factor at each load point <I>i</I>, dimensionless;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">i</E> = driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) at each load point <I>i</I>, in watts;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>V</I><E T="54">i</E> = voltage at each load point <I>i</I>, in volts;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>I</I><E T="54">i</E> = current at each load point <I>i</I>, in amps; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>i</I> = load point(s), defined uniquely for each DPPP variety and speed configuration as specified in section D.3 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<P>E.4 Determination of Maximum Head. Determine the maximum head for self-priming pool filter pumps, non-self-priming pool filter pumps, and waterfall pumps by measuring the head at maximum speed and the minimum flow rate at which the pump is designed to operate continuously or safely, where the minimum flow rate is assumed to be zero unless stated otherwise in the manufacturer literature.
</P>
<HD2>F. Determination of Self-Priming Capability
</HD2>
<P>F.1 Test Method. Determine the vertical lift and true priming time of non-self-priming pool filter pumps and self-priming pool filter pumps that are not already certified as self-priming under NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) by testing such pumps pursuant to section C.3 of appendix C of NSF/ANSI 50-2015, except for the modifications and exceptions listed in the following sections F.1.1 through F.1.5 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>F.1.1 Where section C.3.2, “Apparatus,” and section C.3.4, “Self-priming capability test method,” of NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463) state that the “suction line must be essentially as shown in annex C, figure C.1;” the phrase “essentially as shown in Annex C, figure C.1” means:
</P>
<P>(1) The centerline of the pump impeller shaft is situated a vertical distance equivalent to the specified vertical lift (VL), calculated in accordance with section F.1.1.1. of this appendix, above the water level of a water tank of sufficient volume as to maintain a constant water surface level for the duration of the test;
</P>
<P>(2) The pump draws water from the water tank with a riser pipe that extends below the water level a distance of at least 3 times the riser pipe diameter (<I>i.e.,</I> 3 pipe diameters);
</P>
<P>(3) The suction inlet of the pump is at least 5 pipe diameters from any obstructions, 90° bends, valves, or fittings; and
</P>
<P>(4) The riser pipe is of the same pipe diameter as the pump suction inlet.
</P>
<P>F.1.1.1 The vertical lift (VL) must be normalized to 5.0 feet at an atmospheric pressure of 14.7 psia and a water density of 62.4 lb/ft
<SU>3</SU> in accordance with the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er07au17.020.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>VL</I> = vertical lift of the test apparatus from the waterline to the centerline of the pump impeller shaft, in ft;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ρ</I><E T="54">test</E> = density of test fluid, in lb/ft
<SU>3</SU>; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">abs,test</E> = absolute barometric pressure of test apparatus location at centerline of pump impeller shaft, in psia.
</FP-2>
<P>F.1.2 The equipment accuracy requirements specified in section B, “Measurement Equipment,” of this appendix also apply to this section F, as applicable.
</P>
<P>F.1.2.1 All measurements of head (gauge pressure), flow, and water temperature must be taken at the pump suction inlet and all head measurements must be normalized back to the centerline of the pump impeller shaft in accordance with section A.3.1.3.1 of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<P>F.1.3 All tests must be conducted with clear water that meets the requirements adopted in section C.3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>F.1.4 In section C.3.4, “Self-priming capability test method,” of NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463), “the elapsed time to steady discharge gauge reading or full discharge flow” is determined when the changes in head and flow, respectively, are within the tolerance values specified in table 40.6.3.2.2, “Permissible amplitude of fluctuation as a percentage of mean value of quantity being measured at any test point,” of HI 40.6-2014-B (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463). The measured priming time (MPT) is determined as the point in time when the stabilized load point is first achieved, not when stabilization is determined. In addition, the true priming time (TPT) is equivalent to the MPT.
</P>
<P>F.1.5 The maximum true priming time for each test run must not exceed 10.0 minutes. Disregard section C.3.5 of NSF/ANSI 50-2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.463).
</P>
<HD2>G. Optional Testing and Calculations
</HD2>
<P>G.1 Replacement Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pump Motors. To determine the WEF for replacement DPPP motors, test each replacement DPPP motor paired with each dedicated-purpose pool pump bare pump for which the replacement DPPP motor is advertised to be paired, as stated in the manufacturer's literature for that replacement DPPP motor model, according to the testing and calculations described in sections A, B, C, D, and E of this appendix. Alternatively, each replacement DPPP motor may be tested with the most consumptive dedicated-purpose pool pump bare pump for which it is advertised to be paired, as stated in the manufacturer's literature for that replacement DPPP motor model. If a replacement DPPP motor is not advertised to be paired with any specific dedicated-purpose pool pump bare pumps, test with the most consumptive dedicated-purpose pool pump bare pump available.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 36924, Aug. 7, 2017]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.25.77.7.44" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart Y of Part 431—Uniform Test Method for the Measurement of Energy Consumption of Circulator Pumps
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to appendix D to subpart Y of part 431:</HED>
<P>Beginning March 20, 2023, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of circulator pumps subject to testing pursuant to 10 CFR 431.464(c) must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>0. Incorporation by Reference
</HD2>
<P>DOE incorporated by reference in § 431.463 the entire standard for HI 40.6-2021 and for HI 41.5-2022. However, not all provisions of HI 40.6-2021 and HI 41.5-2022 apply to this appendix. If there is any conflict between any industry standard and this appendix, follow the language of the test procedure in this appendix, disregarding the conflicting industry standard language.
</P>
<P>0.1 Specifically, the following provisions of HI 40.6-2021 are not applicable:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Section 40.6.4—Considerations when determining the efficiency of certain pumps, Section 40.6.4.1—Vertically suspended pumps
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 40.6.4—Considerations when determining the efficiency of certain pumps, Section 40.6.4.2—Submersible pumps
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 40.6.5—Test procedures, Section 40.6.5.3—Test report
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Section 40.6.5—Test procedures, Section 40.6.5.5—Test conditions, Section 40.6.5.5.2—Speed of rotation during test
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Section 40.6.6—Analysis, Section 40.6.6.1—Translation of the test results to the specified speed of rotation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Section 40.6.6—Analysis, Section 40.6.6.1—Translation of the test results to the specified speed of rotation, Section 40.6.6.1.1—Translation of the test results into data based on specified speed of rotation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(g) Appendix B—Reporting of test results
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(h) Appendix G—DOE compared to HI 40.6 nomenclature
</FP-1>
<P>0.2 Specifically, only the following provisions of HI 41.5-2022 are applicable:
</P>
<FP-1>(a) Section 41.5.3.4.1—Determination of CER—Full Speed
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(b) Section 41.5.3.4.2—Determination of CER—Pressure Speed Control
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(c) Section 41.5.3.4.3—Determination of CER—Temperature Speed Control
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(d) Section 41.5.3.4.4.1—Determination of CER—External Input Signal Speed Control Only
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(e) Section 41.5.3.4.4.2—Determination of CER—External Input Signal Speed Control Operated With Other Control Methods
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(f) Section 41.5.3.4.5—Determination of CER—Manual Speed Control
</FP-1>
<HD2>1. General
</HD2>
<P>To determine the circulator energy index (CEI), testing shall be performed in accordance with HI 40.6-2021, including Appendix E “Testing Circulator Pumps,” with the exceptions noted in section 0.1 of this appendix and the modifications and additions as noted throughout the following provisions. For the purposes of applying this appendix, the term “pump power output,” as defined in section 40.6.2, “Terms and definitions,” of HI 40.6-2021 shall be deemed to be synonymous with the term “hydraulic horsepower” used throughout that standard and this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>2. Scope
</HD2>
<P>2.1 This appendix is applicable to all circulator pumps and describes how to calculate the circulator energy index (CEI; section F) based on the pump energy rating for the minimally compliant reference circulator pump (CER<E T="52">STD</E>) and the circulator energy rating (CER) determined in accordance with one of the test methods listed in Table I of this appendix based on a control variety with which the circulator pump is distributed in commerce.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix D to Subpart Y of Part 431—Applicability of Test Methods Based on Circulator Pump Configuration and Control Method With Which Circulator Pump is Distributed in Commerce
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Circulator pump configuration
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Control method with which circulator pump is distributed
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test method to be used for testing and calculation of CER
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Circulator Pump + Motor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Circulator pumps at full speed or circulator pumps without pressure, temperature, external input signal, or manual speed control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HI 41.5-2022 Section 41.5.3.4.1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Circulator Pump + Motor + Controls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Circulator pumps with pressure control (including adaptive pressure control)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HI 41.5-2022 Section 41.5.3.4.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Circulator pumps with temperature control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HI 41.5-2022 Section 41.5.3.4.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Circulator pumps with only external input signal control, and which cannot be operated without an external input signal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HI 41.5-2022 Section 41.5.3.4.4.1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Circulator pumps with external input signal control in addition to other control varieties, or which can be operated without an external input signal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HI 41.5-2022 Section 41.5.3.4.4.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Circulator pumps with manual speed control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HI 41.5-2022 Section 41.5.3.4.5.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2.2 If a given circulator pump model is distributed in commerce with multiple control varieties available, the manufacturer may select a control variety (or varieties) among those available with which to test the circulator pump, including the test method for circulator pumps at full speed or circulator pumps without external input signal, manual, pressure, or temperature controls).
</P>
<HD2>3. Measurement Equipment
</HD2>
<P>For the purposes of measuring flow rate, head, driver power input, and pump power output, the equipment specified in HI 40.6-2021 Appendix C must be used and must comply with the stated accuracy requirements in HI 40.6-2021 Table 40.6.3.2.3. When more than one instrument is used to measure a given parameter, the combined accuracy, calculated as the root sum of squares of individual instrument accuracies, must meet the specified accuracy requirements.
</P>
<HD2>4. Test Conditions
</HD2>
<P>4.1 Pump specifications. Conduct testing in accordance with the test conditions, stabilization requirements, and specifications of HI 40.6-2021 section 40.6.3, “Pump efficiency testing”; section 40.6.4, “Considerations when determining the efficiency of a pump,” including section 40.6.4.4, “Determination of pump overall efficiency”; section 40.6.5.4 (including Appendix A), “Test arrangements”; and section 40.6.5.5, “Test conditions.”
</P>
<P>4.2 Twin head circulator pump. To test twin head circulator pumps, one of the two impeller assemblies should be incorporated into an adequate, single impeller volute and casing. An adequate, single impeller volute and casing means a volute and casing for which any physical and functional characteristics that affect energy consumption and energy efficiency are essentially identical to their corresponding characteristics for a single impeller in the twin head circulator pump volute and casing.
</P>
<P>4.3 Circulator-less-volute. To determine the CEI for a circulator-less-volute, test each circulator-less-volute with each volute for which the circulator-less-volute is offered for sale or advertised to be paired for that circulator pump model according to the testing and calculations described in the applicable test method listed in Table 1 of this appendix, depending on the variety of control with which the circulator pump model is distributed in commerce. Alternatively, each circulator-less-volute may be tested with the most consumptive volute with which is it offered for sale or advertised to be paired for that circulator pump model.
</P>
<HD2>5. Data Collection and Analysis
</HD2>
<P>5.1 Stabilization. Record data at any test point only under stabilized conditions, as defined in HI 40.6-2021 section 40.6.5.5.1.
</P>
<P>5.2 Testing BEP at maximum speed for the circulator pump. Determine the BEP of the circulator pump at maximum speed as specified in Appendix E of HI 40.6-2021 including sections 40.6.5.5.1 and 40.6.6 as modified. Determine the BEP flow rate at maximum speed as the flow rate at the operating point of maximum overall efficiency on the circulator pump curve, as determined in accordance with section 40.6.6.3 of HI 40.6-2021 as modified by Appendix E, where overall efficiency is the ratio of the circulator pump power output divided by the driver power input, as specified in Table 40.6.2.1 of HI 40.6-2021. For the purposes of this test procedure, all references to “driver power input” in this appendix or HI 40.6-2021 shall refer to the input power to the controls, or to the motor if no controls are present.
</P>
<P>5.3 Rounding. All terms and quantities refer to values determined in accordance with the procedures set forth in this appendix for the rated circulator pump. Perform all calculations using raw measured values without rounding. Round CER to three significant figures. Round CEI to the hundredths decimal place. Round rated hydraulic horsepower to the less precise of the following two values: three significant figures; the fourth decimal place when expressed in units of horsepower.
</P>
<HD2>6. Calculation of CEI
</HD2>
<P>Determine CEI using the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19se22.033.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CEI = the circulator energy index (dimensionless);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CER = the circulator energy rating determined in accordance with Table 1 of this appendix (hp); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CER<E T="52">STD</E> = the CER for a circulator pump that is minimally compliant with DOE's energy conservation standards with the same hydraulic horsepower as the tested pump, as determined in accordance with the specifications at paragraph (i) of § 431.465.
</FP-2>
<HD2>7. Determination of Additional Circulator Performance Parameters
</HD2>
<P>7.1 To determine flow and head at BEP; pump power output (hydraulic horsepower) and driver power input at load points used in the calculation of CEI, including the rated hydraulic horsepower; and any other reported performance parameters, conduct testing according to section 1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7.2 Determine the rated hydraulic horsepower as the pump power output measured at BEP and full impeller diameter for the rated pump.
</P>
<P>7.3 Determine the true power factor at each applicable load point specified in the applicable test method listed in Table 1 of this appendix for each circulator pump control variety as a ratio of driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) (<I>P</I><E T="52">i</E>), in watts, divided by the product of the true RMS voltage in volts and the true RMS current in amps at each load point <I>i,</I> as shown in the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19se22.034.gif"/>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>PF</I><E T="52">i</E> = true power factor at each load point <I>i,</I> dimensionless;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="52">i</E> = driver power input to the motor (or controls, if present) at each load point <I>i,</I> in watts;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>V</I><E T="52">i</E> = true RMS voltage at each load point <I>i,</I> in volts;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>I</I><E T="52">i</E> = true RMS current at each load point <I>i,</I> in amps; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>i</I> = load point(s), defined uniquely for each circulator pump control variety as specified in the applicable test method listed in Table 1 of this appendix.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 57299, Sept. 19, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Z" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.26" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Z—Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pump Motors</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 40774, July 29, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 431.481" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.26.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.481   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart contains definitions and test procedures requirements for electric motors that are dedicated-purpose pool pump motors, pursuant to Part A-1 of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311-6317. It also identifies materials incorporated by reference in this part. This subpart does not cover other “electric motors,” which are addressed in subpart B of this part, nor does it cover “small electric motors,” which are addressed in subpart X of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of this subpart apply to dedicated-purpose pool pump motors, as specified in paragraphs 1.2, 1.3 and 1.4 of UL 1004-10:2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.482).


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> In § 431.482, DOE incorporates by reference entire standards for use in this subpart; however, only the provisions of the document enumerated in an approved section are applicable within § 431.482.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 40774, July 29, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 67041, Sept. 28, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.482" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.26.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.482   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, 1000 Independence Ave SW, EE-5B, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I> or email <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>CSA.</I> Canadian Standards Association, Sales Department, 5060 Spectrum Way, Suite 100, Mississauga, Ontario, L4W 5N6, Canada, 1-800-463-6727, or <I>https://www.csagroup.org/store.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) CSA C747-09 (Reaffirmed 2014) (“CSA C747-09”), “Energy efficiency test method for small motors” as revised through August 2016, including Update No. 1; IBR approved for § 431.484.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>UL.</I> Underwriters Laboratories, 333 Pfingsten Road, Northbrook, IL 60062, (841) 272-8800, or go to <I>https://www.ul.com.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) UL 1004-10 (“UL 1004-10:2022”), <I>Standard for Safety for Pool Pump Motors,</I> Revised First Edition, Dated March 24, 2022; IBR approved for §§ 431.481 and 431.483.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 40774, July 29, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 67041, Sept. 28, 2023; 88 FR 71990, Oct. 19, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.483" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.26.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.483   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions applicable to this subpart are defined in section 2 “Glossary” of UL 1004-10:2022 (incorporated by reference, see § 431.482). In addition, the following definition applies:
</P>
<P><I>Basic model</I> means all units of dedicated purpose pool pump motors manufactured by a single manufacturer, that are within the same equipment class, have electrical characteristics that are essentially identical, and do not have any differing physical or functional characteristics that affect energy consumption or efficiency.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 67041, Sept. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.484" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.26.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.484   Test procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Pursuant to section 343(a) of EPCA, this section provides the test procedures for measuring the efficiency of dedicated-purpose pool pump motors. (42 U.S.C. 6314) For purposes of this part and EPCA, the test procedures for measuring the efficiency of dedicated-purpose pool pump motors shall be the test procedure specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing and calculations.</I> At such time as compliance is required with a labeling requirement or an energy conservation standard, the full-load efficiency of each dedicated-purpose pool pump motor model (inclusive of the drive, if the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor model is placed into commerce with a drive, or is unable to operate without the presence of a drive) is determined in accordance with CSA C747-09, Section 1.6 “Scope”, Section 3 “Definitions”, Section 4 “General requirements”, Section 5, “General test requirements”, and Section 6 “Test method” (incorporated by reference, see § 431.482).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 431.485" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.1.26.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 431.485   Energy conservation standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this section, “THP” means dedicated-purpose-pool pump motor total horsepower.
</P>
<P>(b) Each dedicated-purpose pool pump motor manufactured starting on September 29, 2025, with a THP less than 0.5 THP, must have a full-load efficiency that is not less than 69 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) Each dedicated-purpose pool pump motor manufactured starting on the dates provided in table 1 to this paragraph (c) with a THP greater than or equal to 0.5 THP must be a variable speed control dedicated-purpose pool pump motor, and must follow the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Compliance date
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small-size (0.5 ≤ THP &lt;1.15)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">September 28, 2027.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard-size (1.15 ≤ THP ≤ 5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">September 29, 2025.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) All dedicated-purpose pool pump motors with a THP greater than or equal to 0.5 THP and distributed in commerce with freeze protection controls, must be shipped with freeze protection disabled or with the following user-adjustable settings:
</P>
<P>(1) The default dry-bulb air temperature setting is no greater than 40 °F;
</P>
<P>(2) The default run time setting shall be no greater than 1 hour (before the temperature is rechecked); and
</P>
<P>(3) The default motor speed (in revolutions per minute, or rpm) in freeze protection mode shall not be more than half of the maximum operating speed.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 67041, Sept. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="433" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 433—ENERGY EFFICIENCY STANDARDS FOR THE DESIGN AND CONSTRUCTION OF NEW FEDERAL COMMERCIAL AND MULTI-FAMILY HIGH-RISE RESIDENTIAL BUILDINGS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6831-6832, 6834-6835; 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 70281, Dec. 4, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 433.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.0.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes an energy efficiency performance standard for the new Federal commercial and multi-family high-rise buildings, for which design for construction began on or after January 3, 2007, as required by section 305(a) of the Energy Conservation and Production Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6834(a)).


</P>
<P>(b) This part also establishes a maximum allowable fossil fuel-generated energy consumption standard for new Federal buildings that are commercial or multi-family high-rise residential buildings and major renovations to Federal buildings that are commercial or multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after May 1, 2025.


</P>
<P>(c) This part also establishes green building certification requirements for new Federal buildings that are commercial and multi-family high-rise residential buildings and major renovations to Federal buildings that are commercial and multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after October 14, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 70281, Dec. 4, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 61569, Oct. 14, 2014; 89 FR 35415, May 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 433.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.0.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms, phrases and words are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>ANSI</I> means the American National Standards Institute.
</P>
<P><I>ASHRAE</I> means the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers.
</P>
<P><I>ASHRAE Baseline Building 2004</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in ANSI/ASHRAE/IESNA Standard 90.1-2004, Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, January 2004 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3).
</P>
<P><I>ASHRAE Baseline Building 2007</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in ANSI/ASHRAE/IESNA Standard 90.1-2007, Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, December 2007 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3).
</P>
<P><I>ASHRAE Baseline Building 2010</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in ANSI/ASHRAE/IESNA Standard 90.1-2010, Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, 2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3).
</P>
<P><I>ASHRAE Baseline Building 2013</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in ASHRAE 90.1-2013 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3).
</P>
<P><I>ASHRAE Baseline Building 2019</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in ASHRAE 90.1-2019 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial and multi-family high-rise residential building</I> means all buildings other than low-rise residential buildings.
</P>
<P><I>Construction cost</I> means all costs associated with the construction of a new Federal building. It includes, but is not limited to, the cost of preliminary planning, engineering, architectural, permitting, fiscal and economic investigations and studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, procedures, and other similar actions necessary for the construction of a new Federal building. It does not include the cost of acquiring the land.


</P>
<P><I>Design for construction</I> means the stage when the energy efficiency and sustainability details (such as insulation levels, HVAC systems, water-using systems, etc.) are either explicitly determined or implicitly included in a project cost specification.


</P>
<P><I>Design for renovation</I> means the stage when the energy efficiency and sustainability details (such as insulation levels, HVAC systems, water-using systems, etc.) are either explicitly determined or implicitly included in a renovation project cost specification.


</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>EISA-subject building or project</I> means, for purposes of this rule, any new Federal building or renovation project that is subject to the cost thresholds and reporting requirements in Section 433 of Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (EISA) ((Pub. L. 110-140, codified at 42 U.S.C. 6834(a)(3)(D)(i))).




</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any department, agency, corporation, or other entity or instrumentality of the executive branch of the Federal Government, including the United States Postal Service, the Federal National Mortgage Association, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation.


</P>
<P><I>Federal building</I> means any building to be constructed by, or for the use of, any Federal agency. Such term shall include buildings built for the purpose of being leased by a Federal agency and privatized military housing.


</P>
<P><I>Fiscal year (FY)</I> means the 12-month period beginning on October 1 of the year prior to the specified calendar year and ending on September 30 of the specified calendar year.


</P>
<P><I>Fossil fuel-generated energy consumption</I> means the on-site stationary consumption of fossil fuels that contribute to Scope 1 emissions for generation of electricity, heat, cooling, or steam as defined by “Federal Greenhouse Gas Accounting and Reporting Guidance” (Council on Environmental Quality, January 17, 2016). This includes, but is not limited to, combustion of fuels in stationary sources (<I>e.g.,</I> boilers, furnaces, turbines, and emergency generators). This term does not include mobile sources, fugitive emissions, or process emissions as defined by “Federal Greenhouse Gas Accounting and Reporting Guidance” (Council on Environmental Quality, January 17, 2016).




</P>
<P><I>IESNA</I> means Illuminating Engineering Society of North America.
</P>
<P><I>Life-cycle cost</I> means the total cost related to energy conservation measures of owning, operating and maintaining a building over its useful life as determined in accordance with 10 CFR part 436.
</P>
<P><I>Life-cycle cost-effective</I> means that the proposed building has a lower life-cycle cost than the life-cycle costs of the baseline building, as described by 10 CFR 436.19, or has a positive estimated net savings, as described by 10 CFR 436.20; or has a savings-to-investment ratio estimated to be greater than one, as described by 10 CFR 436.21; or has an adjusted internal rate of return, as described by 10 CFR 436.22, that is estimated to be greater than the discount rate as listed in OMB Circular Number A-94 (Guidelines and Discount Rates for Benefit-Cost Analysis of Federal Programs.”
</P>
<P><I>Low-rise residential building</I> means any building three stories or less in height above grade that includes sleeping accommodations where the occupants are primarily permanent in nature (30 days or more).


</P>
<P><I>Major renovation</I> means either major renovation of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in a Federal building or major renovation of one or more Scope 1 fossil fuel-using building systems or components, as defined in this section.


</P>
<P><I>Major renovation cost</I> means all costs associated with the repairing, remodeling, improving, extending, or other changes in a federal building. It includes, but is not limited to, the cost of preliminary planning, engineering, architectural, permitting, fiscal and economic investigations and studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, procedures, and other similar actions necessary for the alteration of a Federal building.


</P>
<P><I>Major renovation of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in a building</I> means construction on an existing Federal building that is so extensive that it replaces all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in the building. This term includes, but is not limited to, comprehensive replacement or restoration of most or all major systems, interior work (such as ceilings, partitions, doors, floor finishes, etc.), or building elements and features.


</P>
<P><I>Major renovation of a Scope 1 fossil fuel-using building system or Scope 1 fossil fuel-using component</I> means changes to a federal building that provide significant opportunities for energy efficiency or reduction in fossil fuel-related energy consumption. This includes, but is not limited to, replacement of the HVAC system, hot water system, or cooking system, or other fossil fuel-using systems or components of the building that have a major impact on fossil fuel usage.




</P>
<P><I>Multi-family high-rise residential building</I> means a residential Federal building that contains 3 or more dwelling units and that is designed to be 4 or more stories above grade.


</P>
<P><I>New Federal building</I> means any new building (including a complete replacement of an existing building from the foundation up) to be constructed by, or for the use of, any Federal agency. Such term shall include new buildings (including a complete replacement of an existing building from the foundation up) built for the purpose of being leased by a Federal agency, and privatized military housing.
</P>
<P><I>Process load</I> means the load on a building resulting from energy consumed in support of a manufacturing, industrial, or commercial process. Process loads do not include energy consumed maintaining comfort and amenities for the occupants of the building (including space conditioning for human comfort).
</P>
<P><I>Proposed building</I> means the design for construction of a new Federal commercial or multi-family high-rise residential building, proposed for construction, or a major renovation to a Federal commercial or multi-family high-rise residential building.


</P>
<P><I>Receptacle load</I> means the load on a building resulting from energy consumed by any equipment plugged into electrical outlets.
</P>
<P><I>Shift adjustment multiplier</I> means a multiplication factor that agencies may apply to their Maximum Allowable Fossil Fuel-Generated Energy Consumption by Building Category target based upon the weekly hours of active operation of the building. The weekly hours of operation used as a basis for the shift adjustment multiplier lookup include the time in which in the building is actively occupied and operating per its intended use type and unoccupied hours or other times of limited use (such as night-time setback hours).


</P>
<P><I>Technical impracticability</I> means achieving the fossil fuel-based energy consumption targets would:
</P>
<P>(1) Not be feasible from an engineering design or execution standpoint due to existing physical or site constraints that prohibit modification or addition of elements or spaces;
</P>
<P>(2) Significantly obstruct building operations and the functional needs of a building, specifically for industrial process loads, critical national security functions, mission critical information systems as defined in NIST SP 800-60 Vol. 2 Rev. 1, and research operations; or
</P>
<P>(3) Significantly degrade energy resiliency and energy security of building operations as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(e)(6) and 10 U.S.C. 101(e)(7) respectively.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 70281, Dec. 4, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 72570, Dec. 21, 2007; 76 FR 49284, Aug. 10, 2011; 78 FR 40953, July 9, 2013; 80 FR 68757, Nov. 6, 2015; 87 FR 20293, Apr. 7, 2022; 89 FR 35415, May 1, 2024]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 87 FR 20293, Apr. 7, 2022, § 433.2 was amended; however, a portion of the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 433.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.0.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.3   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: The U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov</I>, <I>https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office</I>. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov</I>, or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html</I>. The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASHRAE.</I> American Society of Heating Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 180 Technology Parkway NW, Peachtree Corners, GA 30092; (404) 636-8400; <I>www.ashrae.org</I>.
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-2004, (“ASHRAE 90.1-2004”), Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, January 2004, ISSN 1041-2336, IBR approved for §§ 433.2, 433.100, and 433.101;
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ASHRAE/IESNA Standard 90.1-2007, (“ASHRAE 90.1-2007”), Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, 2007, ISSN 1041-2336, IBR approved for §§ 433.2, 433.100, and 433.101.
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI/ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-2010, (“ASHRAE 90.1-2010”), Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, I-P Edition, Copyright 2010, IBR approved for §§ 433.2, 433.100, and 433.101.
</P>
<P>(4) ANSI/ASHRAE/IES 90.1-2013, (“ASHRAE 90.1-2013”), Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, I-P Edition, Copyright 2013, IBR approved for §§ 433.2, 433.100, and 433.101.
</P>
<P>(5) ANSI/ASHRAE/IES 90.1-2019, (“ASHRAE 90.1-2019”), Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, I-P Edition, copyright 2019, IBR approved for §§ 433.2, 433.100 and 433.101.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49284, Aug. 10, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 40953, July 9, 2013; 79 FR 61569, Oct. 14, 2014; 80 FR 68757, Nov. 6, 2015; 87 FR 20294, Apr. 7, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 433.4-433.7" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.0.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 433.4-433.7   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 433.8" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.0.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.8   Life-cycle costing.</HEAD>
<P>Each Federal agency shall determine life-cycle cost-effectiveness by using the procedures set out in subpart A of part 436. A Federal agency may choose to use any of four methods, including lower life-cycle costs, positive net savings, savings-to-investment ratio that is estimated to be greater than one, and an adjusted internal rate of return that is estimated to be greater than the discount rate as listed in OMB Circular Number A-94 “Guidelines and Discount Rates for Benefit-Cost Analysis of Federal Programs.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Energy Efficiency Performance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 61569, Oct. 14, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 433.100" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.1.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.100   Energy efficiency performance standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) (1) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are commercial and multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after January 3, 2007, but before August 10, 2012, to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet ASHRAE 90.1-2004, (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If life-cycle cost-effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2004.
</P>
<P>(2) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are commercial and multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after August 10, 2012, but before July 9, 2014, to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet ASHRAE 90.1-2007, (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If life-cycle cost-effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2007.
</P>
<P>(3) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are commercial and multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after July 9, 2014, but before November 6, 2016 to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet ASHRAE 90.1-2010, (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If life-cycle cost-effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2010.
</P>
<P>(4) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are commercial and multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after November 6, 2016, but before April 7, 2023, to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet ASHRAE 90.1-2013, (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If LCC effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2013.
</P>
<P>(5) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are commercial and multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after April 7, 2023, to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet ASHRAE 90.1-2019, (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If LCC effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2019.
</P>
<P>(b) If a 30 percent reduction is not LCC effective, the design of the proposed building shall be modified so as to achieve an energy consumption level at or better than the maximum level of energy efficiency that is LCC effective, but at a minimum complies with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61569, Oct. 14, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 68757, Nov. 6, 2015; 87 FR 20294, Apr. 7, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 433.101" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.1.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.101   Performance level determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) For Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after January 3, 2007, but before August 10, 2012, each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2004 and proposed building by using the Performance Rating Method found in Appendix G of ASHRAE 90.1-2004 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3), except the formula for calculating the Performance Rating in paragraph G1.2 shall read as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Percentage improvement = 100 × ((Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads)—(Proposed building consumption—Receptacle and process loads))/(Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads) (which simplifies as follows):
</P>
<P>(ii) Percentage improvement = 100 × (Baseline building consumption—Proposed building consumption)/(Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads).
</P>
<P>(2) For Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after August 10, 2012, but before July 9, 2014, each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2007 and proposed building by using the Performance Rating Method found in Appendix G of ASHRAE 90.1-2007 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3), except the formula for calculating the Performance Rating in paragraph G1.2 shall read as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Percentage improvement = 100 × ((Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads)—(Proposed building consumption—Receptacle and process loads))/(Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads) (which simplifies as follows):
</P>
<P>(ii) Percentage improvement = 100 × (Baseline building consumption—Proposed building consumption)/(Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads).
</P>
<P>(3) For Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after July 9, 2014, but before November 6, 2016 each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2010 and proposed building by using the Performance Rating Method found in Appendix G of ASHRAE 90.1-2010 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3), except the formula for calculating the Performance Rating in paragraph G1.2 shall read as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Percentage improvement = 100 × ((Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads)—(Proposed building consumption—Receptacle and process loads))/(Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads) (which simplifies as follows):
</P>
<P>(ii) Percentage improvement = 100 × (Baseline building consumption—Proposed building consumption)/(Baseline building consumption—Receptacle and process loads).
</P>
<P>(4) For Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after November 6, 2016, but before April 7, 2023, each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2013 and proposed building by using the Performance Rating Method found in Appendix G of ASHRAE 90.1-2013 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3), except the formula for calculating the Performance Rating in Section G1.2 shall read as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Percentage improvement = 100 × ((Baseline building consumption−Receptacle and process loads)−(Proposed building consumption−Receptacle and process loads))/(Baseline building consumption−Receptacle and process loads) (which simplifies as follows):
</P>
<P>(ii) Percentage improvement = 100 × (Baseline building consumption−Proposed building consumption)/(Baseline building consumption−Receptacle and process loads).
</P>
<P>(5) For Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after April 7, 2023, each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the ASHRAE Baseline Building 2019 and proposed building by using the Performance Rating Method found in Appendix G of ASHRAE 90.1-2019 (incorporated by reference, see § 433.3). The formula for determining the percentage improvement shall be as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>Percentage Improvement = 100 × (1−PCI/PCIt)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PCI = Performance Cost Index calculated in accordance with Section G1.2 of ASHRAE Standard 90.1-2019
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PCIt = Performance Cost Index Target calculated by formula in Section 4.2.1.1 of ASHRAE Standard 90.1-2019</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Energy consumption for the purposes of calculating the 30 percent savings requirements shall include the building envelope and energy consuming systems normally specified as part of the building design by ASHRAE Standard 90.1 such as space heating, space cooling, ventilation, service water heating, and lighting, and all process and receptacle loads, except for energy-intensive process loads that are driven by mission and operational requirements, not necessarily buildings, and not influenced by conventional building energy conservation measures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61569, Oct. 14, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 68757, Nov. 6, 2015; 87 FR 20294, Apr. 7, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reduction in Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Generated Energy Consumption</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 35416, May 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 433.200" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.2.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.200   Scope 1 Fossil fuel-generated energy consumption requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New EISA-Subject buildings.</I> (1) New Federal buildings that are commercial or multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after May 1, 2025 must be designed to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) For Federally owned public buildings or leased Federal buildings, the construction cost of the new building exceeds GSA's Annual Prospectus Thresholds that are found at <I>https://www.gsa.gov/real-estate/design-construction/gsa-annual-prospectus-thresholds;</I> or
</P>
<P>(ii) For Federally owned non-public buildings, the cost of the building is at least $2,500,000 (in 2007 dollars, adjusted for inflation). For the purposes of calculating this threshold, projects should set the Bureau of Labor and Statistics CPI Inflation calculator to $2,500,000 in October of 2006 (to represent the value of the original cost threshold) and then set for October of the FY during which the design for construction of the project began or is set to begin.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Major renovations of EISA-Subject buildings.</I> (1) Major renovations to Federal buildings that are commercial or multi-family high-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after May 1, 2025, must be designed to meet the requirements of paragraphs (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The renovation is a major renovation to a public building as defined in 40 U.S.C. 3301 and for which transmittal of a prospectus to Congress is required under 40 U.S.C. 3307; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The cost of the major renovation of a Federally owned building is at least $2,500,000 (in 2007 dollars, adjusted for inflation). For the purposes of calculating this threshold, projects should set the Bureau of Labor and Statistics CPI Inflation calculator to $2,500,000 in October of 2006 (to represent the value of the original cost threshold) and then set for October of the FY during which the design for construction of the project began or is set to begin. The cost of a major renovation for a Federally leased building is at least the amount listed for alterations in leased buildings that would need to transmit a prospectus to Congress under section 3307 of title 40. <I>See</I> GSA Annual Prospectus Thresholds at <I>https://www.gsa.gov/real-estate/design-construction/gsa-annual-prospectus-thresholds.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart only applies to major renovations that meet the definition of “major renovation of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in a federal building” or “major renovation of a Scope 1 fossil fuel-using building system or Scope 1 fossil fuel-using component.”
</P>
<P>(3) For leased buildings, this subpart applies to major renovations only if the building was originally built for the use of any Federal agency, including being leased by a Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(4) This subpart applies only to the portions of the proposed building or proposed building systems that are being renovated and to the extent that the scope of the renovations permits compliance with the applicable requirements of this subpart. Unaltered portions of the proposed building or proposed building systems are not required to comply with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal buildings that are of the type included in appendix A of this subpart.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>New Construction and Major Renovations of all Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Using Systems in EISA-Subject Buildings.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Design for construction began during FY 2024 through FY 2029.</I> For new construction or major renovations of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in a Federal building for which design for construction or renovation, as applicable, began during FY 2024 through 2029, the Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building, based on the building design and calculated according to § 433.201(a), must not exceed the value identified in Tables A-1a to A-2a (if targets based on emissions are used) or Tables A-1b to A-2b (if targets based on kBtu of fossil fuel usage are used) of appendix A of this subpart for the associated building type, climate zone, and fiscal year in which design for construction begins.
</P>
<P>(A) Federal agencies may apply a shift adjustment multiplier to the values in Tables A-1a to A-2a or Tables A-1b to A-2b based on the following baseline hours of operation assumed in Tables A-1a to A-2a or Tables A-1b to A-2b. To calculate the shift adjustment multiplier, agencies shall estimate the number of shifts for their new building and multiply by the appropriate factor shown below in Table 1 of this section for their building type.
</P>
<P>(B) The Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption target for the building is the applicable value in either Tables A-1a to A-2a or Tables A-1b to A-2b multiplied by the shift adjustment multiplier calculated for that building.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Shift Adjustment Multiplier by Hours of Operation and Building Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Building activity type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Weekly hours of operation
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50 or less
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">51 to 167
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">168
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Admin/professional office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bank/other financial</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Government office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medical office (non-diagnostic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed-use office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laboratory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distribution/shipping center</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonrefrigerated warehouse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Convenience store</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Convenience store with gas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grocery store/food market</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other food sales</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire station/police station</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other public order and safety</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medical office (diagnostic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clinic/other outpatient health</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerated warehouse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Religious worship</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Entertainment/culture</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Library</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recreation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Social/meeting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other public assembly</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">College/university</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elementary/middle school</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High school</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Preschool/daycare</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other classroom education</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fast food</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restaurant/cafeteria</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other food service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hospital/inpatient health</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nursing home/assisted living</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dormitory/fraternity/sorority</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hotel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Motel or inn</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other lodging</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vehicle dealership/showroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail store</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other retail</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Post office/postal center</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Repair shop</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vehicle service/repair shop</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vehicle storage/maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strip shopping mall</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Enclosed mall</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bar/Pub/Lounge</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Courthouse/Probation Office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Design for construction began during or after FY 2030.</I> For new construction or major renovations of all fossil fuel-using systems in an EISA-subject building for which design for construction or renovation, as applicable, began during or after FY 2030, the Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building, based on building design and calculated according to § 433.201(a), must be zero.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major Renovations of a Federal Building System or Component within an EISA-Subject Building.</I> System level renovations shall follow the renovation requirements in section 4.2.1.3 of the applicable building baseline energy efficiency standards listed in § 433.100 substituting the “design for construction” with “design for renovation” for the relevant date and shall replace all equipment that is included in the renovation with all electric or non-fossil fuel-using ENERGY STAR or Federal Energy Management Program (FEMP) designated products as defined in § 436.42 of this chapter. For component level renovations, Agencies shall replace all equipment that is part of the renovation with all electric or non-fossil fuel-using ENERGY STAR or FEMP designated products as defined in § 436.42 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mixed-use buildings.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) For Federal buildings subject to the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section that combine two or more building types identified in Tables 1a to 2a or Tables 1b to 2b of appendix A of this subpart, the maximum allowable fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building is equal to the averaged applicable building type values in Tables A-1a to A-2a or Tables A-1b to A-2b weighted by floor area of the two or more building types. The equation which follows shall be used for mixed use buildings.
</P>
<FP-2>Equation 1: Scope 1 Fossil fuel-generated energy consumption for a mixed-use building = the sum across all building uses of (the fraction of total floor building floor area for building use i times the allowable fossil fuel-generated energy consumption for building use i)
</FP-2>
<P>Equation 1 may be rewritten as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my24.000.gif"/>
<P>(ii) For example, if a proposed building for which design for construction began in FY 2026 that is to be built in climate zone 4a has a total of 200 square feet—100 square feet of which qualifies as College/University and 100 square feet of which qualifies as Laboratory—the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption is equal to:
</P>
<FP-2>[(100 sqft. × 3 kBtu/yr.-sqft.) + (100 sqft × 10 kBtu/yr.-sqft.)]/200 sqft. = 6.5 kBtu/yr.-sqft.
</FP-2>
<P>(d) <I>Federal buildings that are of the type not included in Appendix A of this subpart</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Process load buildings.</I> For building types that are not included in any of the building types listed in Tables A-1a to A-2a or A-1b to A-2b of appendix A of this subpart, or for building types in these tables that contain significant process loads that are not likely to be found in the Commercial Buildings Energy Consumption Survey (CBECS) and qualify for exemption per § 433.202, Federal agencies must select the applicable building type, climate zone, and fiscal year in which design for construction began from Tables 1a to 2a or 1b to 2b of appendix A of this subpart that most closely corresponds to the proposed building without the process load. The estimated Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the process load must be added to the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the applicable building type for the appropriate fiscal year and climate zone to calculate the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption for the building. The same estimated Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the process load that is added to the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the applicable building must also be used in determining the Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mixed-use buildings.</I> For buildings that combine two or more building types with process loads or, alternatively, that combine one or more building types with process loads with one or more building types in Tables A-1a to A-2a or A-1b to A-2b of appendix A of this subpart, the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building is equal to the averaged process load building values determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section and the applicable building type values in Tables A-1a to A-2a or A-1b to A-2b of appendix A of this subpart, weighted by floor area.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 35416, May 1, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 48266, June 6, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 433.201" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.2.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.201   Scope 1 Fossil fuel-generated energy consumption determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of a proposed building is calculated as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>Equation 2: Fossil fuel-generated energy consumption = Direct Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Generated Consumption of Proposed Building/Floor Area
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Direct Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Generated Energy Consumption of Proposed Building</I> equals the total Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building calculated in accordance with the method required in § 433.101(a)(5) and measured in thousands of British thermal units per year (kBtu/yr), except that this term does not include fossil fuel consumption for emergency electricity generation. Agencies must include all on-site fossil fuel use or Scope 1 emissions associated with non-emergency generation from backup generators (such as those for peak shaving or peak shifting). Any energy generation or Scope 1 emissions associated with biomass fuels are excluded. Any emissions associated with natural gas for alternatively fueled vehicles (“AFVs”) (or any other alternative fuel defined at 42 U.S.C. 13211 that is provided at a Federal building) is excluded. For buildings with manufacturing or industrial process loads, the process loads should be accounted for in the analysis for the building's fossil fuel consumption and GHG emissions, but are not subject to the phase down targets.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Floor Area</I> is the area enclosed by the exterior walls of a building, both finished and unfinished, including indoor parking facilities, basements, hallways, lobbies, stairways, and elevator shafts.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 433.202" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.2.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.202   Petition for downward adjustment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New Federal buildings, major renovations of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems, and major renovations of a Scope 1 fossil fuel-using building system or component in an EISA-subject building.</I> (1) Upon petition by a Federal agency, the Director of FEMP may adjust the applicable maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption standard with respect to a specific building, upon written certification from the head of the agency designing the building or major renovation, that the requested adjustment is the largest feasible reduction in Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption that can practicably be achieved in light of the specified functional needs for that building, as demonstrated by the following (which is not an exhaustive list and whose components may be further modified by guidance):
</P>
<P>(i) A statement from the Head of the Agency or their designee requesting the petition for downward adjustment for the building or renovation, that the building or renovation reduces consumption of Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption in accordance with the applicable energy performance standard to the maximum extent practicable and that each fossil fuel using product included in the proposed building that is of a product category covered by the ENERGY STAR program or FEMP for designated products is an ENERGY STAR product or a product meeting the FEMP designation criteria, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the systems, technologies, and practices that were evaluated and unable to meet the required fossil fuel reduction, including a justification of why achieving the Scope 1 fossil fuel-based energy consumption targets would be technically impracticable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information the agency determines would help explain its request;
</P>
<P>(iv) A general description of the building or major renovation, including but not limited to location, use type, floor area, stories, expected number of occupants and occupant schedule, project type, project cost, and functional needs, mission critical activity, research, and national security operations as applicable;
</P>
<P>(v) The maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption for the building from § 433.200(c) or (d);
</P>
<P>(vi) The estimated Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption of the proposed building; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the proposed building's energy-related features, such as:
</P>
<P>(A) HVAC system or component type and configuration;
</P>
<P>(B) HVAC equipment sizes and efficiencies;
</P>
<P>(C) Ventilation systems or components (including outdoor air volume, controls technique, heat recovery systems, and economizers, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(D) Service water heating system or component configuration and equipment (including solar hot water, wastewater heat recovery, and controls for circulating hot water systems, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(E) Estimated industrial process loads; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any other on-site fossil fuel using equipment.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Agencies may file one petition for a project with multiple buildings if the buildings are
</P>
<P>(A) Of the same building, building system, or component type and of similar size, location, and functional purpose;
</P>
<P>(B) Are being designed and constructed to the same set of targets for fossil fuel-generated energy consumption reduction; and
</P>
<P>(C) would require similar measures to reduce fossil fuel-generated energy consumption and similar adjustment to the numeric reduction requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bundled petition must include the information in paragraph (a) of this section that pertains to all buildings, building systems, or components included in the petition and an additional description of the differences between each building, building system, or component. The agency is only required to show work for adjustment once.
</P>
<P>(3) Petitions for downward adjustment should be submitted to <I>cer-petition@hq.doe.gov,</I> or to: U.S. Department of Energy, FEMP, Director, Clean Energy Reduction Petitions, EE-5F, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585-0121.
</P>
<P>(4) The Director of FEMP will make a best effort to notify the requesting agency in writing whether the petition for downward adjustment to the numeric reduction requirement is approved or rejected, in 30 calendar days of submittal, provided that the petition is complete. If the Director rejects the petition or establishes a value other than that presented in the petition, the Director will forward its reasons for rejection to the petitioning agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions.</I> The General Services Administration (GSA) may not submit petitions under paragraph (a) of this section. Agencies that are tenants of GSA buildings for which the agency, not GSA, has significant design control may submit petitions in accordance with this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.2.77.4.45" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 433—Maximum Allowable Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Generated Energy Consumption


</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of the tables in this appendix, the climate zones are the same as those listed in the performance standards required by § 433.100(a)(5)(i).
</P>
<P>(b) For purpose of appendix A, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Education</I> means a category of buildings used for academic or technical classroom instruction, such as elementary, middle, or high schools, and classroom buildings on college or university campuses. Buildings on education campuses for which the main use is not as a classroom are included in the category relating to their use. For example, administration buildings are part of “Office,” dormitories are “Lodging,” and libraries are “Public Assembly.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Food sales</I> means a category of buildings used for retail or wholesale of food. For example, grocery stores are “Food Sales.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Food service</I> means a category of buildings used for preparation and sale of food and beverages for consumption. For example, restaurants are “Food Service.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Health care (Inpatient)</I> means a category of buildings used as diagnostic and treatment facilities for inpatient care.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Health care (Outpatient)</I> means a category of buildings used as diagnostic and treatment facilities for outpatient care. Medical offices are included here if they use any type of diagnostic medical equipment (if they do not, they are categorized as an office building).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Laboratory</I> means a category of buildings equipped for scientific experimentation or research as well as other technical, analytical and administrative activities.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Lodging</I> means a category of buildings used to offer multiple accommodations for short-term or long-term residents, including skilled nursing and other residential care buildings.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Mercantile (Enclosed and Strip Malls)</I> means a category of shopping malls comprised of multiple connected establishments.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Multi-Family High-Rise Residential Buildings</I> means a category of residential buildings that contain 3 or more dwelling units and that is designed to be 4 or more stories above grade.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Office</I> means a category of buildings used for general office space, professional office, or administrative offices. Medical offices are included here if they do not use any type of diagnostic medical equipment (if they do, they are categorized as an outpatient health care building).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Public assembly</I> means a category of public or private buildings, or spaces therein, in which people gather for social or recreational activities.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Public order and safety</I> means a category of buildings used for the preservation of law and order or public safety.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Religious worship</I> means a category of buildings in which people gather for religious activities, (such as chapels, churches, mosques, synagogues, and temples).
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Retail (Other Than Mall)</I> means a category of buildings used for the sale and display of goods other than food.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Service</I> means a category of buildings in which some type of service is provided, other than food service or retail sales of goods.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Warehouse and storage</I> means a category of buildings used to store goods, manufactured products, merchandise, raw materials, or personal belongings (such as self-storage).
</P>
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</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Green Building Certification for Federal Buildings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 433.300" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.2.3.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 433.300   Green building certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a Federal agency chooses to use a green building certification system to certify a new Federal building or a Federal building undergoing a major renovation and such building is also either a public building (as defined in 40 U.S.C. 3301) for which transmittal of a prospectus to Congress is required under 40 U.S.C. 3307, or a Federal building for which estimated new building or major renovation design and construction costs are at least $2,500,000 (in 2007 dollars, adjusted for inflation), and design for construction began on or after October 14, 2015.
</P>
<P>(b) The system under which the building is certified must:
</P>
<P>(1) Allow assessors and auditors to independently verify the criteria and measurement metrics of the system;
</P>
<P>(2) Be developed by a certification organization that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides an opportunity for public comment on the system; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides an opportunity for development and revision of the system through a consensus-based process;
</P>
<P>(3) Be nationally recognized within the building industry;
</P>
<P>(4) Be subject to periodic evaluation and assessment of the environmental and energy benefits that result under the rating system; and
</P>
<P>(5) Include a verification system for post-occupancy assessment of the rated buildings to demonstrate continued energy and water savings at least every four years after initial occupancy.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification level.</I> The building must be certified to a level that promotes the high performance sustainable building guidelines referenced in Executive Order 13423 “Strengthening Federal Environmental, Energy, and Transportation Management” and Executive Order 13514 “Federal Leadership in Environmental, Energy and Economic Performance.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61570, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="434" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 434—ENERGY CODE FOR NEW FEDERAL COMMERCIAL AND MULTI-FAMILY HIGH RISE RESIDENTIAL BUILDINGS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6831-6832, 6834-6836; 42 U.S.C. 8253-54; 42 U.S.C. 7101, <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 60012, Oct. 6, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 434.99" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.0.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.99   Explanation of numbering system for codes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this part, a derivative of two different numbering systems will be used. 
</P>
<P>(1) For the purpose of designating a section, the system employed in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) will be employed. The number “434” which signifies part 434 in chapter II of Title 10, Code of Federal Regulations, is used as a prefix for all section headings. The suffix is a two or three digit section number. For example the lighting section of the standards is designated § 434.401. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within each section, a numbering system common to many national voluntary consensus standards is used. A decimal system is used to denote paragraphs and subparagraphs within a section. For example, in § 434.401, “401.2.1” refers to subsection 401, paragraph 2, subparagraph 1. 
</P>
<P>(b) The hybrid numbering system is used for two purposes: 
</P>
<P>(1) The use of the Code of Federal Regulations' numbering system allows the researcher using the CFR easy access to the standards. 
</P>
<P>(2) The use of the second system allows the builder, designer, architect or engineer easy access because they are familiar to this system numbering. This system was chosen because of its commonality among the building industry. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Administration and Enforcement—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.100" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.1.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part provide minimum standards for energy efficiency for the design of new Federal commercial and multi-family high rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began before January 3, 2007. The performance standards are designed to achieve the maximum practicable improvements in energy efficiency and increases in the use of non-depletable sources of energy. This rule is based upon the ASHRAE/IESNA Standard 90.1-1989 and addenda b, c, d, e, f, g, and i. (This document is available from the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1791 Tullie Circle NE, Atlanta, GA.) It is not incorporated by reference in this document, but is mentioned for informational purposes only.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 70283, Dec. 4, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.101" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.1.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>101.1 This part provides design requirements for the building envelope, electrical distribution systems and equipment for electric power, lighting, heating, ventilating, air conditioning, service water heating and energy management. It applies to new Federal multi-family high rise residential buildings and new Federal commercial buildings, for which design for construction began before January 3, 2007.
</P>
<P>101.1.1 (a) Except as provided by section 101.2, the provisions of this part apply if an agency is constructing: 
</P>
<P>(1) A building that has never been in service; 
</P>
<P>(2) An addition for which design for construction began before January 3, 2007, that adds new space with provision for a heating or cooling system, or both, or for a hot water system; or
</P>
<P>(3) A substantial renovation of a building for which design for construction began before January 3, 2007, involving replacement of a heating or cooling system, or both, or hot water system, that is either in service or has been in service.
</P>
<P>101.2 The provisions of this part do not apply to: 
</P>
<P>101.2.1 Buildings, or portions thereof separated from the remainder of the building, that have a peak energy usage for space conditioning, service water heating, and lighting of less than 3.5 Btu/(h•ft 
<SU>2</SU> of gross floor area. 
</P>
<P>101.2.2 Buildings of less than 100 square feet of gross floor area. 
</P>
<P>101.2.3 Heating, cooling, ventilating, or service hot water requirements for those spaces where processes occur for purposes other than occupant comfort and sanitation, and which impose thermal loads in excess of 5% of the loads that would otherwise be required for occupant comfort and sanitation without the process; 
</P>
<P>101.2.4 Envelope requirements for those spaces where heating or cooling requirements are excepted in subsection 101.2.3 of this section. 
</P>
<P>101.2.5 Lighting for tasks not listed or encompassed by areas or activities listed in Tables 401.3.2b, 401.3.2c and 401.3.2d. 
</P>
<P>101.2.6 Buildings that are composed entirely of spaces listed in subsections 101.2.4 and 101.2.5. 
</P>
<P>101.2.7 Individual components of a building under renovation, if the building components are not in the scope of a renovation as defined by the agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 60012, Oct. 6, 2000, as amended at 71 FR 70283, Dec. 4, 2006; 72 FR 72571, Dec. 21, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.102" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.1.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.102   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>102.1 A covered building must be designed and constructed consistent with the provisions of subpart D of this part. 
</P>
<P>102.2 Buildings designed and constructed to meet the alternative requirements of subparts E or F of this part shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this part. Such designs shall be certified by a registered architect or engineer stating that the estimated energy cost or energy use for the building as designed is no greater than the energy cost or energy use of a prototype building or reference building as determined pursuant to subparts E or F of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.103" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.1.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.103   Referenced standards (RS).</HEAD>
<P>103.1 The standards, technical handbooks, papers and regulations listed in § 434.701, shall be considered part of this part to the prescribed extent of such reference. Where differences occur between the provisions of this part and referenced standards, the provisions of this part shall apply. Whenever a reference is made in this part to an RS standard it refers to the standards listed in § 434.701. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.105" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.1.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.105   Materials and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>105.1 Building materials and equipment shall be identified in designs in a manner that will allow for a determination of their compliance with the applicable provisions of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.201" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.2.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.201   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following terms, phrases, and words shall be defined as provided: 
</P>
<P><I>Accessible</I> (as applied to equipment): admitting close approach; not guarded by locked doors, elevations, or other effective means. (See also “readily accessible”) 
</P>
<P><I>Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency (AFUE):</I> the ratio of annual output energy to annual input energy that includes any non-heating season pilot input loss. 
</P>
<P><I>Area of the space (A):</I> the horizontal lighted area of a given space measured from the inside of the perimeter walls or partitions, at the height of the working surface. 
</P>
<P><I>Automatic:</I> self-acting, operating by its own mechanism when actuated by some impersonal influence, such as a change in current strength, pressure, temperature, or mechanical configuration. (See also“manual”) 
</P>
<P><I>Automatic flue damper device:</I> an electrically operated device, in the flue outlet or in the inlet of or upstream of the draft hood of an individual automatically operated gas-fired appliance, which is designed to automatically open the flue outlet during appliance operation and to automatically close off the flue outlet when the appliance is in a standby condition. 
</P>
<P><I>Automatic vent damper device:</I> a device intended for installation in the venting system, in the outlet of or downstream of the appliance draft hood, of an individual automatically operated gas-fired appliance, which is designed to automatically open the venting system when the appliance is in operation and to automatically close off the venting system when the appliance is in a standby or shutdown condition. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Electrically operated:</I> an automatic vent damper device that employs electrical energy to control the device. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Thermally actuated:</I> an automatic vent damper device dependent for operation exclusively upon the direct conversion of the thermal energy of the vent gases into mechanical energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Boiler capacity:</I> the rated heat output of the boiler, in Btu/h, at the design inlet and outlet conditions and rated fuel or energy input. 
</P>
<P><I>Building:</I> means any structure to be constructed which includes provision for a heating or cooling system, or both, or for a hot water system. 
</P>
<P><I>Building code:</I> means a legal instrument which is in effect in a State or unit of general purpose local government, the provisions of which must be adhered to if a building is to be considered to be in conformance with law and suitable for occupancy and use. 
</P>
<P><I>Building envelope:</I> the elements of a building that enclose conditioned spaces through which thermal energy may be transferred to or from the exterior or to or from unconditioned spaces. 
</P>
<P><I>Check metering:</I> measurement instrumentation for the supplementary monitoring of energy consumption (electric, gas, oil, etc.) to isolate the various categories of energy use to permit conservation and control, in addition to the revenue metering furnished by the utility. 
</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of performance (COP)—Cooling:</I> the ratio of the rate of heat removal to the rate of energy input, in consistent units, for a complete cooling system or factory assembled equipment, as tested under a nationally recognized standard or designated operating conditions. 
</P>
<P><I>Coefficient of performance (COP) heat pump—Heating:</I> the ratio of the rate of heat delivered to the rate of energy input, in consistent units, for a complete heat pump system under designated operating conditions. 
</P>
<P><I>Commercial building:</I> a building other than a residential building, including any building developed for industrial or public purposes. Including but not limited to occupancies for assembly, business, education, institutions, food sales and service, merchants, and storage. 
</P>
<P><I>Conditioned floor area:</I> the area of the conditioned space measured at floor level from the interior surfaces of the walls. 
</P>
<P><I>Conditioned space:</I> a cooled space, heated space, or indirectly conditioned space. 
</P>
<P><I>Cooled space:</I> an enclosed space within a building that is cooled by a cooling system whose sensible capacity: 
</P>
<P>(1) Exceeds 5 Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is capable of maintaining a space dry bulb temperature of 90 °F or less at design cooling conditions. 
</P>
<P><I>Daylight sensing control (DS):</I> a device that automatically regulates the power input to electric lighting near the fenestration to maintain the desired workplace illumination, thus taking advantage of direct or indirect sunlight. 
</P>
<P><I>Daylighted space:</I> the space bounded by vertical planes rising from the boundaries of the daylighted area on the floor to the floor or roof above. 
</P>
<P><I>Daylighted zone:</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Under skylights: the area under each skylight whose horizontal dimension in each direction is equal to the skylight dimension in that direction plus either the floor-to-ceiling height or the dimension to an opaque partition, or one-half the distance to an adjacent skylight or vertical glazing, whichever is least. 
</P>
<P>(2) At vertical glazing: the area adjacent to vertical glazing that receives daylighting from the glazing. For purposes of this definition and unless more detailed daylighting analysis is provided, the daylighting zone depth is assumed to extend into the space a distance of 15 ft or to the nearest opaque partition, whichever is less. The daylighting zone width is assumed to be the width of the window plus either 2 ft on each side, the distance to an opaque partition, or one half the distance to an adjacent skylight or vertical glazing, whichever is least. 
</P>
<P><I>Dead band (dead zone):</I> the range of values within which an input variable that can be varied without initiating any noticeable change in the output variable. 
</P>
<P><I>Degree-day, cooling:</I> a unit, based upon temperature difference and time, used in estimating cooling energy consumption. For any one day, when the mean temperature is more than a reference temperature, typically 65 °F, there are as many degree-days as degrees Fahrenheit temperature difference between the mean temperature for the day and the reference temperature. Annual cooling degree-days (CDD) are the sum of the degree-days over a calendar year. 
</P>
<P><I>Degree-day, heating:</I> a unit, based upon temperature difference and time, used in estimating heating energy consumption. For any one day, when the mean temperature is less than a reference temperature, typically 65 °F, there are as many degree-days as degrees Fahrenheit temperature difference between the mean temperature for the day and the reference temperature. Annual heating degree days (HDD) are the sum of the degree-days over a calendar year. 
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling unit:</I> a single housekeeping unit comprised of one or more rooms providing complete independent living facilities for one or more persons, including permanent provisions for living, sleeping, eating, cooking, and sanitation. 
</P>
<P><I>Economizer, air:</I> a ducting arrangement and automatic control system that allows a cooling supply fan system to supply outdoor (outside) air to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical refrigeration during mild or cold weather. 
</P>
<P><I>Economizer, water:</I> a system by which the supply air of a cooling system is cooled directly or indirectly or both by evaporation of water or by other appropriate fluid in order to reduce or eliminate the need for mechanical refrigeration. 
</P>
<P><I>Efficiency, HVAC system:</I> the ratio of the useful energy output, at the point of use to the energy input in consistent units, for a designated time period, expressed in percent. 
</P>
<P><I>Emergency system (back-up system):</I> a system that exists for the purpose of operating in the event of failure of a primary system. 
</P>
<P><I>Emergency use:</I> electrical and lighting systems required to supply power automatically for illumination and equipment in the event of a failure of the normal power supply. 
</P>
<P><I>Energy efficiency ratio (EER):</I> the ratio of net equipment cooling capacity in Btu/h to total rate of electric input in watts under designated operating conditions. When consistent units are used, this ratio becomes equal to COP. (See also “coefficient of performance”.) 
</P>
<P><I>Fan system energy demand:</I> the sum of the demand of all fans that are required to operate at design conditions to supply air from the heating or cooling source to the conditioned space(s) and return it back to the source or exhaust it to the outdoors. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal Agency:</I> means any department, agency, corporation, or other entity or instrumentality of the executive branch of the Federal Government, including the United States Postal Service, the Federal National Mortgage Association, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal Building:</I> means any building to be constructed by, or for the use of, any Federal Agency which is not legally subject to State or local building codes or similar requirements. 
</P>
<P><I>Fenestration:</I> any light-transmitting section in a building wall or roof. The fenestration includes glazing material (which may be glass or plastic), framing (mullions, muntins, and dividers), external shading devices, internal shading devices, and integral (between glass) shading devices. 
</P>
<P><I>Fenestration area:</I> the total area of fenestration measured using the rough opening and including the glass or plastic, sash, and frame. For doors where the glazed vision area is less than 50% of the door area, the fenestration area is glazed vision area. For all other doors, the fenestration area is the door area. 
</P>
<P><I>Flue damper:</I> a device, in the flue outlet or in the inlet of or upstream of the draft hood of an individual automatically operated gas-fired appliance, which is designed to automatically open the flue outlet during appliance operation and to automatically close off the flue outlet when the appliance is in a standby condition. 
</P>
<P><I>Gross floor area:</I> the sum of the floor areas of the conditioned spaces within the building, including basements, mezzanine and intermediate-floor tiers, and penthouses of headroom height 7.5 ft or greater. It is measured from the exterior faces of exterior walls or from the centerline of walls separating buildings (excluding covered walkways, open roofed-over areas, porches and similar spaces, pipe trenches, exterior terraces or steps, chimneys, roof overhangs, and similar features). 
</P>
<P><I>Gross lighted area (GLA):</I> the sum of the total lighted areas of a building measured from the inside of the perimeter walls for each floor of the building. 
</P>
<P><I>Heat capacity (HC):</I> the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a given mass 1 °F. Numerically, the mass expressed per unit of wall surface multiplied by the specific heat Btu/(ft
<SU>2</SU>·°F). 
</P>
<P><I>Heat trap:</I> device or piping arrangement that effectively restricts the natural tendency of hot water to rise in vertical pipes during standby periods. Examples are the U-shaped arrangement of elbows or a 360-degree loop of tubing. 
</P>
<P><I>Heated space:</I> an enclosed space within a building that is heated by a heating system whose output capacity 
</P>
<P>(1) Exceeds 10 Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>), or
</P>
<P>(2) Is capable of maintaining a space dry-bulb temperature of 50 °F or more at design heating conditions. 
</P>
<P><I>Heating seasonal performance factor (HSPF):</I> the total heating output of a heat pump during its normal annual usage period for heating, in Btu, divided by the total electric energy input during the same period, in watt-hours. 
</P>
<P><I>High rise residential building:</I> hotels, motels, apartments, condominiums, dormitories, barracks, and other residential-type facilities that provide complete housekeeping or transient living quarters and are over three stories in height above grade. 
</P>
<P><I>Humidistat:</I> an automatic control device responsive to changes in humidity. 
</P>
<P><I>HVAC system:</I> the equipment, distribution network, and terminals that provide either collectively or individually the processes of heating, ventilating, or air conditioning to a building. 
</P>
<P><I>Indirectly conditioned space:</I> an enclosed space within the building that is not a heated or cooled space, whose area-weighted heat transfer coefficient to heated or cooled spaces exceeds that to the outdoors or to unconditioned spaces; or through which air from heated or cooled spaces is transferred at a rate exceeding three air changes per hour. (See also “heated space”, “cooled space”, and “unconditioned space”.) 
</P>
<P><I>Infiltration:</I> the uncontrolled inward air leakage through cracks and crevices in any building element and around windows and doors of a building. 
</P>
<P><I>Integrated part-load value (IPLV):</I> a single-number figure of merit based on part-load EER or COP expressing part-load efficiency for air-conditioning and heat pump equipment on the basis of weighted operation at various load capacities for the equipment. 
</P>
<P><I>Lumen maintenance control:</I> a device that senses the illumination level and causes an increase or decrease of illuminance to maintain a preset illumination level. 
</P>
<P><I>Manual:</I> action requiring personal intervention for its control. As applied to an electric controller, manual control does not necessarily imply a manual controller but only that personal intervention is necessary. (See automatic.) 
</P>
<P><I>Marked rating:</I> the design load operating conditions of a device as shown by the manufacturer on the nameplate or otherwise marked on the device. 
</P>
<P><I>Multi-family high rise residential:</I> a residential building containing three or more dwelling units and is designed to be 3 or more stories above grade. 
</P>
<P><I>Occupancy sensor:</I> a device that detects the presence or absence of people within an area and causes any combination of lighting, equipment, or appliances to be adjusted accordingly. 
</P>
<P><I>Opaque areas:</I> all exposed areas of a building envelope that enclose conditioned space except fenestration areas and building service openings such as vents and grilles. 
</P>
<P><I>Orientation:</I> the directional placement of a building on a building site with reference to the building's longest horizontal axis or, if there is no longest horizontal axis, then with reference to the designated main entrance. 
</P>
<P><I>Outdoor air:</I> air taken from the exterior of the building that has not been previously circulated through the building. (See “ventilation air”) 
</P>
<P><I>Ozone depletion factor:</I> a relative measure of the potency of chemicals in depleting stratospheric ozone. The ozone depletion factor potential depends upon the chlorine and the bromine content and atmospheric lifetime of the chemical. The depletion factor potential is normalized such that the factor for CFC-11 is set equal to unity and the factors for the other chemicals indicate their potential relative to CFC-11. 
</P>
<P><I>Packaged terminal air conditioner (PTAC):</I> a factory-selected wall sleeve and separate unencased combination of heating and cooling components, assemblies, or sections (intended for mounting through the wall to serve a single room or zone). It includes heating capability by hot water, steam, or electricity. 
</P>
<P><I>Packaged terminal heat pump:</I> a PTAC capable of using the refrigeration system in a reverse cycle or heat pump mode to provide heat. 
</P>
<P><I>Plenum:</I> an enclosure that is part of the air-handling system and is distinguished by having a very low air velocity. A plenum often is formed in part or in total by portions of the building. 
</P>
<P><I>Private driveways, walkways, and parking lots:</I> exterior transit areas that are associated with a commercial or residential building and intended for use solely by the employees or tenants and not by the general public. 
</P>
<P><I>Process energy:</I> energy consumed in support of a manufacturing, industrial, or commercial process other than the maintenance of comfort and amenities for the occupants of a building. 
</P>
<P><I>Process load:</I> the calculated or measured time-integrated load on a building resulting from the consumption or release of process energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Programmable:</I> capable of being preset to certain conditions and having self-initiation to change to those conditions. 
</P>
<P><I>Projection factor:</I> the exterior horizontal shading projection depth divided by the sum of the height of the fenestration and the distance from the top of the fenestration to the bottom of the external shading projection in units consistent with the projection depth. 
</P>
<P><I>Prototype building:</I> a generic building design of the same size and occupancy type as the proposed design that complies with the prescriptive requirements of subpart D of this part and has prescribed assumptions used to generate the energy budget concerning shape, orientation, and HVAC and other system designs.
</P>
<P><I>Public driveways, walkways, and parking lots:</I> exterior transit areas that are intended for use by the general public. 
</P>
<P><I>Public facility restroom:</I> a restroom used by the transient public. 
</P>
<P><I>Readily accessible:</I> capable of being reached quickly for operation, renewal, or inspections without requiring those to whom ready access is requisite to climb over or remove obstacles or to resort to portable ladders, chairs, etc. (See also accessible.) 
</P>
<P><I>Recooling:</I> lowering the temperature of air that has been previously heated by a heating system. 
</P>
<P><I>Reference building:</I> a specific building design that has the same form, orientation, and basic systems as the prospective design that is to be evaluated for compliance and meets all the criteria listed in subsection 501.2 or subsection 601.2. 
</P>
<P><I>Reheating:</I> raising the temperature of air that has been previously cooled either by refrigeration or an economizer system. 
</P>
<P><I>Reset:</I> adjustment of the controller setpoint to a higher or lower value automatically or manually. 
</P>
<P><I>Roof:</I> those portions of the building envelope, including all opaque surfaces, fenestration, doors, and hatches, that are above conditioned space and are horizontal or tilted at less than 60° from horizontal. (See also”walls”) 
</P>
<P><I>Room air conditioner:</I> an encased assembly designed as a unit to be mounted in a window or through a wall or as a console. It is designed primarily to provide free delivery of conditioned air to an enclosed space, room, or zone. It includes a prime source of refrigeration for cooling and dehumidification and means for circulating and cleaning air and may also include means for ventilating and heating. 
</P>
<P><I>Seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER):</I> the total cooling output of an air conditioner during its normal annual usage period for cooling, in Btu, divided by the total electric energy input during the same period, in watt-hours. 
</P>
<P><I>Service systems:</I> all energy-using or energy-distributing components in a building that are operated to support the occupant or process functions housed therein (including HVAC, service water heating, illumination, transportation, cooking or food preparation, laundering, or similar functions). 
</P>
<P><I>Service water heating:</I> the supply of hot water for purposes other than comfort heating and process requirements. 
</P>
<P><I>Shading coefficient (SC):</I> the ratio of solar heat gain through fenestration under a specific set of conditions, with or without integral shading devices, to that occurring through unshaded 
<FR>1/8</FR>-in-thick clear double-strength glass under the same conditions. 
</P>
<P><I>Shell Building:</I> a building for which the envelope is designed, constructed, or both prior to knowing the occupancy type. (See also “speculative building”) 
</P>
<P><I>Single-Line Diagram:</I> a simplified schematic drawing that shows the connection between two or more items. Common multiple connections are shown as one line. 
</P>
<P><I>Skylight:</I> glazing that is horizontal or tilted less than 60° from horizontal. 
</P>
<P><I>Solar energy source:</I> natural daylighting or thermal, chemical, or electrical energy derived from direct conversion of incident solar radiation at the building site. 
</P>
<P><I>Solar heat gain coefficient (SHGC):</I> the ratio of the solar heat gain entering the space through the fenestration area to the incident solar radiation. Solar heat gain includes directly transmitted solar heat and absorbed solar radiation, which is then reradiated, conducted, or convected into the space. (See fenestration area)
</P>
<P><I>Speculative building:</I> a building for which the envelope is designed, constructed, or both prior to the design of the lighting, HVAC systems, or both. A speculative building differs from a shell building in that the intended occupancy is known for the speculative building. (See also “shell building”) 
</P>
<P><I>System:</I> a combination of equipment and/or controls, accessories, interconnecting means, and terminal elements by which energy is transformed so as to perform a specific function, such as HVAC, service water heating, or illumination. 
</P>
<P><I>Tandem wiring:</I> pairs of luminaries operating with lamps in each luminaire powered from a single ballast contained in one of the luminaires. 
</P>
<P><I>Task lighting:</I> lighting that provides illumination for specific functions and is directed to a specific surface or area. 
</P>
<P><I>Task location:</I> an area of the space where significant visual functions are performed and where lighting is required above and beyond that required for general ambient use. 
</P>
<P><I>Terminal element:</I> a device by which the transformed energy from a system is finally delivered. Examples include registers, diffusers, lighting fixtures, and faucets. 
</P>
<P><I>Thermal conductance (C):</I> the constant time rate of heat flow through the unit area of a body induced by a unit temperature difference between the surfaces, expressed in Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>·°F). It is the reciprocal of thermal resistance. (See “thermal resistance”) 
</P>
<P><I>Thermal mass:</I> materials with mass heat capacity and surface area capable of affecting building loads by storing and releasing heat as the interior or exterior temperature and radiant conditions fluctuate. (See also “heat capacity” and “wall heat capacity”) 
</P>
<P><I>Thermal mass wall insulation position:</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Exterior insulation position: a wall having all or nearly all of its mass exposed to the room air with the insulation on the exterior of that mass. 
</P>
<P>(2) Integral insulation position: a wall having mass exposed to both room and outside (outside) air with substantially equal amounts of mass on the inside and outside of the insulation layer. 
</P>
<P>(3) Interior insulation position: a wall not meeting either of the above definitions, particularly a wall having most of its mass external to an insulation layer. 
</P>
<P><I>Thermal resistance (R):</I> the reciprocal of thermal conductance 1/C, l/H, 1/U; expressed in (h·ft
<SU>2</SU>. °F)/Btu. 
</P>
<P><I>Thermal transmittance (U):</I> the overall coefficient of heat transfer from air to air. It is the time rate of heat flow per unit area under steady conditions from the fluid on the warm side of the barrier to the fluid on the cold side, per unit temperature difference between the two fluids, expressed in Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>. °F). 
</P>
<P><I>Thermal transmittance, overall</I> (U<E T="54">o</E>): the gross overall (area weighted average) coefficient of heat transfer from air to air for a gross area of the building envelope, Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>. °F). The U<E T="52">o</E> value applies to the combined effect of the time rate of heat flows through the various parallel paths, such as windows, doors, and opaque construction areas, composing the gross area of one or more building envelope components, such as walls, floors, and roof or ceiling. 
</P>
<P><I>Thermostat:</I> an automatic control device responsive to temperature. 
</P>
<P><I>Unconditioned space:</I> space within a building that is not a conditioned space. (See “conditioned space”) 
</P>
<P><I>Unitary cooling equipment:</I> one or more factory-made assemblies that normally include an evaporator or cooling coil, a compressor, and a condenser combination (and may also include a heating function). 
</P>
<P><I>Unitary heat pump:</I> one or more factory-made assemblies that normally include an indoor conditioning coil, compressor(s), and outdoor coil or refrigerant-to-water heater exchanger, including means to provide both heating and cooling functions.
</P>
<P><I>Variable-air-volume (VAV) HVAC system</I>: HVAC systems that control the dry-bulb temperature within a space by varying the volume of heated or cooled supply air to the space.
</P>
<P><I>Vent damper</I>: a device intended for installation in the venting system, in the outlet of or downstream of the appliance draft hood, of an individual automatically operating gas-fired appliance, which is designed to automatically open the venting system when the appliance is in operation and to automatically close off the venting system when the appliance is in a standby or shutdown condition.
</P>
<P><I>Ventilation</I>: the process of supplying or removing air by natural or mechanical means to or from any space. Such air may or may not have been conditioned.
</P>
<P><I>Ventilation air</I>: that portion of supply air which comes from the outside, plus any recirculated air, to maintain the desired quality of air within a designated space. (See also “outdoor air”)
</P>
<P><I>Visible light transmittance</I>: the fraction of solar radiation in the visible light spectrum that passes through the fenestration (window, clerestory, or skylight).
</P>
<P><I>Walls</I>: those portions of the building envelope enclosing conditioned space, including all opaque surfaces, fenestration, and doors, which are vertical or tilted at an angle of 60* from horizontal or greater. (See also “roof”)
</P>
<P><I>Wall heat capacity</I>: the sum of the products of the mass of each individual material in the wall per unit area of wall surface times its individual specific heat, expressed in Btu/(ft 
<SU>2</SU>·°F). (See” thermal mass”) 
</P>
<P><I>Window to wall ratio (WWR)</I>: the ratio of the wall fenestration area to the gross exterior wall area.
</P>
<P><I>Zone</I>: a space or group of spaces within a building with any combination of heating, cooling, or lighting requirements sufficiently similar so that desired conditions can be maintained throughout by a single controlling device.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Design Conditions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.301" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.3.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.301   Design criteria.</HEAD>
<P>301.1 The following design parameters shall be used for calculations required under subpart D of this part. 
</P>
<P>301.1.1 <I>Exterior Design Conditions.</I> Exterior Design Conditions shall be expressed in accordance with Table 301.1. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 301.1—Exterior Design Conditions 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Winter Design Dry-Bulb (99%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Degrees F. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Summer Design Dry-Bulb (2.5%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Degrees F. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mean Coincident Wet-Bulb (2.5%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Degrees F. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Degree-Days, Heating (Base 65)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HDD Base 65 °F. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Degree-Days, Cooling (Base 65)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CDD Base 65 °F. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Annual Operating Hours, 8 a.m. to 4 p.m. when 55 °F≤T≤69 °F</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hours. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">[The exterior design conditions shall be added to Table 301.1 from the city-specific Shading Coefficient table from appendix A of RS-1 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). Copies of specific tables contained in appendix A of RS-1 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). can be obtained from the Energy Code for Federal Commercial Buildings, Docket No. EE-RM-79-112-C, EE-43, Office of Building Research and Standards, U.S. Department of Energy, Room 1J-018, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9127. Adjustments may be made to reflect local climates which differ from the tabulated temperatures or local weather experience as determined by the building official. Where local building site climatic data are not available, climate data from a nearby location included in RS-1, appendix C, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) and RS-4 Chapter 24, Table 1, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) shall be used as determined by the building official.]</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>301.2 <I>Indoor Design Conditions.</I> Indoor design temperature and humidity conditions shall be in accordance with the comfort criteria in RS-2 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701), except that humidification and dehumidification are not required. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Building Design Requirements—Electric Systems and Equipment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.401" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.4.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.401   Electrical power and lighting systems.</HEAD>
<P>Electrical power and lighting systems, other than those systems or portions thereof required for emergency use only, shall meet these requirements. 
</P>
<P>401.1 <I>Electrical Distribution Systems.</I> 
</P>
<P>401.1.1 <I>Check Metering.</I> Single-tenant buildings with a service over 250 kVA and tenant spaces with a connected load over 100 kVA in multiple-tenant buildings shall have provisions for check metering of electrical consumption. The electrical power feeders for which provision for check metering is required shall be subdivided as follows: 
</P>
<P>401.1.1.1 Lighting and receptacle outlets 
</P>
<P>401.1.1.2 HVAC systems and equipment 
</P>
<P>401.1.1.3 Service water heating (SWH), elevators, and special occupant equipment or systems of more than 20 kW. 
</P>
<P>401.1.1.4 Exception to 401.1.1.1 through 401.1.1.3: 10 percent or less of the loads on a feeder may be from another usage or category. 
</P>
<P>401.1.2 Tenant-shared HVAC and service hot water systems in multiple tenant buildings shall have provision to be separately check metered. 
</P>
<P>401.1.3 Subdivided feeders shall contain provisions for portable or permanent check metering. The minimum acceptable arrangement for compliance shall provide a safe method for access by qualified persons to the enclosures through which feeder conductors pass and provide sufficient space to attach clamp-on or split core current transformers. These enclosures may be separate compartments or combined spaces with electrical cabinets serving another function. Dedicated enclosures so furnished shall be identified as to measuring function available. 
</P>
<P>401.1.4 <I>Electrical Schematic.</I> The person responsible for installing the electrical distribution system shall provide the Federal building manager a single-line diagram of the record drawing for the electrical distribution system, which includes the location of check metering access, schematic diagrams of non-HVAC electrical control systems, and electrical equipment manufacturer's operating and maintenance literature. 
</P>
<P>401.2 <I>Electric Motors.</I> All permanently wired polyphase motors of 1 hp or more shall meet these requirements: 
</P>
<P>401.2.1 <I>Efficiency.</I> NEMA design A &amp; B squirrel-cage, foot-mounted, T-frame induction motors having synchronous speeds of 3600, 1800, 1200, and 900 rpm, expected to operate more than 1000 hours per year shall have a nominal full-load efficiency no less than that shown in Table 401.2.1 or shall be classified as an “energy efficient motor” in accordance with RS-3 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). The following are not covered: 
</P>
<P>(a) Multispeed motors used in systems designed to use more than one speed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Motors used as a component of the equipment meeting the minimum equipment efficiency requirements of subsection 403, provided that the motor input is included when determining the equipment efficiency. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 401.2.1—Minimum Acceptable Nominal Full-Load Efficiency for Single-Speed Polyphase Squirrel-Cage Induction Motors Having Synchronous Speeds of 3600, 1800, 1200 and 900 rpm 
<sup>1</sup> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">HP 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">2-Pole 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">4-Pole 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">6-Pole 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">8-Pole 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal
<br/>efficiency 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>efficiency 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal
<br/>efficiency 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>efficiency 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal
<br/>efficiency 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>efficiency 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nominal
<br/>efficiency 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>efficiency 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="9" scope="row"><E T="02">Full-Load Efficiencies—Open Motors</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="9" scope="row"><E T="02">Full-Load Efficiencies—Enclosed Motors</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">74.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">77.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">82.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">84.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">89.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">88.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">91.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">92.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">125.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">95.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">93.6 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For many applications, efficiencies greater than those listed are likely to be cost-effective. Guidance for evaluating the cost effectiveness of energy efficient motor applications is given in RS-43 and RS-44 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>401.3 Lighting Power Allowance.</I> The lighting system shall meet the provisions of subsections 401.3.1 through 401.3.5. 
</P>
<P><I>401.3.1 Building Exteriors.</I> The total connected exterior lighting power for the building, or a facility containing multiple buildings, shall not exceed the total exterior lighting power allowance, which is the sum of the individual allowances determined from Table 401.3.1. The individual allowances are determined by multiplying the specific area or length of each area description times the allowance for that area. Exceptions are as follows: Lighting for outdoor manufacturing or processing facilities, commercial greenhouses, outdoor athletic facilities, public monuments, designated high-risk security areas, signs, retail storefronts, exterior enclosed display windows, and lighting specifically required by local ordinances and regulations. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 401.3.1—Exterior Lighting Power Allowance 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Area description 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allowance 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exit (with or without canopy)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 W/lin ft of door opening. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Entrance (without canopy)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 W/lin ft of door opening. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Entrance (with canopy): 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">High Traffic (retail, hotel, airport, theater, etc.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup> of canopied area. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Light Traffic (hospital, office, school, etc.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup> of canopied area. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loading door</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 W/lin ft of door opening. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Building exterior surfaces/facades</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup> of surface area to be illuminated. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Storage and non-manufacturing work areas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other activity areas for casual use such as picnic grounds, gardens, parks, and other landscaped areas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Private driveways/walkways</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Public driveways/walkways</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Private parking lots</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Public parking lots</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.18 W/ft 
<sup>2</sup>.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>401.3.1.1 Trade-offs of exterior lighting budgets among exterior areas shall be allowed provided the total connected lighting power of the exterior area does not exceed the exterior lighting power allowance. Trade-offs between interior lighting power allowances and exterior lighting power allowances shall not be allowed. 
</P>
<P>401.3.2 <I>Building interiors.</I> The total connected interior lighting power for a building, including adjustments in accordance with subsection 401.3.3, shall not exceed the total interior lighting power allowance explained in this paragraph. Using Table 401.3.2a, multiply the interior lighting power allowance value by the gross lighted area of the most appropriate building or space activity. For multi-use buildings, using Table 401.3.2a, select the interior power allowance value for each activity using the column for the gross lighted area of the whole building and multiply it by the associated gross area for that activity. The interior lighting power allowance is the sum of all the wattages for each area/activity. Using Table 401.3.2b, c, or d, multiply the interior lighting power allowance values of each individual area/activity by the area of the space and by the area factor from Figure 401.3.2e, based on the most appropriate area/activity provided. The interior lighting power allowance is the sum of the wattages for each individual space. When over 20% of the building's tasks or interior areas are undefined, the most appropriate value for that building from Table 401.3.2a shall be used for the undefined spaces. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Lighting power that is an essential technical element for the function performed in theatrical, stage, broadcasting, and similar uses. 
</P>
<P>(b) Specialized medical, dental, and research lighting. 
</P>
<P>(c) Display lighting for exhibits in galleries, museums, and monuments. 
</P>
<P>(d) Lighting solely for indoor plant growth (between the hours of 10:00 pm and 6:00 am). 
</P>
<P>(e) Emergency lighting that is automatically off during normal building operation. 
</P>
<P>(f) High-risk security areas. 
</P>
<P>(g) Spaces specifically designed for the primary use by the physically impaired or aged. 
</P>
<P>(h) Lighting in dwelling units. 
</P>
<P>401.3.2.1 Trade-offs of the interior lighting power budgets among interior spaces shall be allowed provided the total connected lighting power within the building does not exceed the interior lighting power allowance. Trade-offs between interior lighting power allowances and exterior lighting power allowances shall not be allowed. 
</P>
<P>401.3.2.2 <I>Building/Space Activities.</I> Definitions of buildings/space activity as they apply to Table 401.3.2a are as follows. These definitions are necessary to characterize the activities for which lighting is provided. They are applicable only to Table 401.3.2a. They are not intended to be used elsewhere in place of building use group definitions provided in the Building Code. They are not included in § 434.201, “Definitions,” to avoid confusion with “Occupancy Type Categories.” 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Food service, fast food, and cafeteria:</I> This group includes cafeterias, hamburger and sandwich stores, bakeries, ice cream parlors, cookie stores, and all other kinds of retail food service establishments in which customers are generally served at a counter and their direct selections are paid for and taken to a table or carried out. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Garages:</I> This category includes all types of parking garages, except for service or repair areas. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Leisure dining and bar:</I> This group includes cafes, diners, bars, lounges, and similar establishments where orders are placed with a wait person. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mall concourse, multi-store service:</I> This group includes the interior of multifunctional public spaces, such as shopping center malls, airports, resort concourses and malls, entertainment facilities, and related types of buildings or spaces. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Offices:</I> This group includes all kinds of offices, including corporate and professional offices, office/laboratories, governmental offices, libraries, and similar facilities, where paperwork occurs. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retail:</I> A retail store, including departments for the sale of accessories, clothing, dry goods, electronics, and toys, and other types of establishments that display objects for direct selection and purchase by consumers. Direct selection means literally removing an item from display and carrying it to the checkout or pick-up at a customer service facility. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Schools:</I> This category, subdivided by pre-school/elementary, junior high/high school, and technical/vocational, includes public and private educational institutions, for children or adults, and may also include community centers, college and university buildings, and business educational centers. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Service establishment:</I> A retail-like facility, such as watch repair, real estate offices, auto and tire service facilities, parts departments, travel agencies and similar facilities, in which the customer obtains services rather than the direct selection of goods. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Warehouse and storage:</I> This includes all types of support facilities, such as warehouses, barns, storage buildings, shipping/receiving buildings, boiler or mechanical buildings, electric power buildings, and similar buildings where the primary visual task is large items. 
</P>
<HD3>401.3.2—Tables and Figures 
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 401.3.2<E T="01">a</E>—Interior Lighting Power Allowance W/ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Building space activity 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Gross lighted area of total building 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0 to 2,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2,001 to 10,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">10,001 to 25,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">25,001 to 50,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50,001 to 250,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">250,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Food Service: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fast Food/Cafeteria</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.30 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leisure Dining/Bar</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Offices</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mall Concourse Multi-store Service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.58</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Service Establishment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Garages</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Schools: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Preschool/Elementary</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Jr. High/High School</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Technical/Vocational</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.70 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warehouse/Storage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.56</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> If at least 10% of the building area is intended for multiple space activities, such as parking, retail, and storage in an office building, then calculate for each separate building type/space activity. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The values in the categories are building wide allowances which include the listed activity and directly related facilities such as conference rooms, lobbies, corridors, restrooms, etc. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Includes general, merchandising, and display lighting.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 401.3.2<E T="01">b</E>—Unit Interior Lighting Power Allowance 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Common area/activity 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UPD W/ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Auditorium 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Corridor 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Classroom/Lecture Hall</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical/Mechanical Equipment Room: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">General 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Control Rooms 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Food Service: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fast Food/Cafeteria</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Leisure Dining 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bar/Lounge 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Kitchen</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recreation/Lounge</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stair: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Active Traffic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Emergency Exit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Toilet &amp; Washroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Garage: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Auto &amp; Pedestrian Circulation Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Parking Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laboratory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Library: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Audio Visual</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Stack Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Card File &amp; Cataloging</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reading Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lobby (General): 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reception &amp; Waiting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Elevator Lobbies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Atrium (Multi-Story): 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First 3 Floors</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Each Additional Floor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Locker Room &amp; Shower</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office Category 1 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Enclosed offices, all open plan offices w/o partitions or w/partitions 
<sup>6</sup> lower than 4.5 ft below the ceiling. 
<sup>5</sup> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reading, Typing and Filing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Drafting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Accounting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office Category 2: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Open plan offices 900 ft 
<sup>2</sup> or larger w/partitions 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 10em">1 3.5 to 4.5 ft below the ceiling. 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Offices less than 900 ft2 shall use category 1 
<sup>3</sup> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reading, Typing and Filing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Drafting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Accounting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office Category 3: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Open plan offices 900 ft 
<sup>2</sup> or larger w/partitions 
<sup>6</sup> higher than 3.5 ft below the ceiling. 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Offices less than 900 ft 
<sup>2</sup> shall use category 1. 
<sup>3</sup> 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reading, Typing and Filing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Drafting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Accounting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Common Activity Areas 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Conference/Meeting Room 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Computer/Office Equipment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Filing, Inactive</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Mail Room</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shop (Non-Industrial): 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Machinery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Electrical/Electronic</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Painting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Carpentry</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Welding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Storage and Warehouse; 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inactive Storage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Active Storage, Bulky</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Active Storage, Fine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Material Handling</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unlisted Space</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use a weighted average UPD in rooms with multiple simultaneous activities, weighted in proportion to the area served. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> A 1.5 power adjustment factor is applicable for multi-function spaces when a supplementary system having independent controls is installed that has installed power ≤33% of the adjusted lighting power for that space. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Area factor of 1.0 shall be used for these spaced. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> UPD includes lighting power required for clean-up purposes. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Area factor shall not exceed 1.55. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Not less than 90 percent of all work stations shall be individually enclosed with partitions of at least the height described.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 401.3.2<E T="01">c</E>—Unit Interior Lighting Power Allowance 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specific building area/activity 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UPD W/ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Airport, Bus and Rail Station: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Baggage Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Concourse/Main Thruway</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ticket Counter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Waiting &amp; Lounge Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bank: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Customer Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Banking Activity Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Barber &amp; Beauty Parlor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Church, Synagogue, Chapel: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Worship/Congregational</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Preaching &amp; Sermon/Choir</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dormitory: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bedroom w/Study</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Study Hall</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire &amp; Police Department: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fire Engine Room</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Jail Cell</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hospital/Nursing Home: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Corridor 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dental Suite/Examination/Treatment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Emergency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Laboratory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lounge/Waiting Room</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Medical Supplies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Nursery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Nurse Station</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Occupational Therapy/Physical Therapy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Patient Room</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Pharmacy</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Radiology</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Surgical &amp; Obstetrics Suites:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">General Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operating Room</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Recovery</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hotel/Conference Center: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Banquet Room/Multipurpose 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Bathroom/Powder Room</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Guest Room</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Public Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Exhibition Hall</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Conference/Meeting 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lobby</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Reception Desk</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laundry: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Washing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Ironing &amp; Sorting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Museum &amp; Gallery: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">General Exhibition</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inspection/Restoration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Storage (Artifacts): 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inactive</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Active</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Post Office: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lobby</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Sorting &amp; Mailing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Service Station/Auto Repair</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Theater: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Performance Arts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Motion Picture</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lobby</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail Establishments—Merchandising &amp; Circulation Area (Applicable to all lighting, including accent and display lighting, installed in merchandising and circulation areas): 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type 1: Jewelry merchandising, where minute examination of displayed merchandise is critical.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type 2: Fine merchandising, such as fine apparel and accessories, china, crystal, and silver art galleries and where the detailed display and examination of merchandising is important.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type 3: Mass merchandising, such as general apparel, variety goods, stationary, books, sporting goods, hobby materials, cameras, gifts, and luggage, displayed in a warehouse type of building, where focused display and detailed examination of merchandise is important.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type 4: General merchandising, such as general apparel, variety goods, stationary, books, sporting goods, hobby materials, cameras, gifts, and luggage, displayed in a department store type of building, where general display and examination of merchandise is adequate.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type 5: Food and miscellaneous such as bakeries, hardware and housewares, grocery stores, appliance and furniture stores, where pleasant appearance is important.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Type 6: Service establishments, where functional performance is important.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mall Concourse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail Support Areas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tailoring</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Dressing/Fitting Rooms
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Use a weighted average UPD in rooms with multiple simultaneous activities, weighted in proportion to the area served. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> A 1.5 power adjustment factor is applicable for multi-function spaces when a supplementary system having independent controls is installed that has installed power ≤33% of the adjusted lighting power for that space. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Area factor shall not exceed 1.55.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 401.3.2<E T="01">d</E>—Unit Interior Lighting Power Allowance
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indoor athletic area/activity 
<sup>1 2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UPD W/ft 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Seating Area, All Sports</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Badminton: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Club</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tournament</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Basketball/Volleyball: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Intramural</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">College</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Professional</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bowling: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Approach Area</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Lanes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boxing or Wrestling (platform): 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Amateur</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Professional</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gymnasium: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">General Exercising and Recreation Only</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Handball/Racquetball/Squash: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Club</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tournament</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hockey, Ice: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Amateur</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">College or Professional</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skating Rink: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Recreational</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Exhibition/Professional</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Swimming: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Recreational</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Exhibition</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Underwater</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tennis: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Recreational (Class III)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Club/College (Class II)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Professional (Class I)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tennis, Table: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Club</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Tournament</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Area factor of 1.0 shall be used for these spaces. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Consider as 10 ft. beyond playing boundaries but less than or equal to the total floor area of the sports space minus spectator seating area.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>Figure 401.3.2e—Area Factor Formula 
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.018.gif"/>
<FP>Area Factor Formula: 
</FP>
<FP-2>Area Factor (AF) = 0.2 + 0.8(1/0.9
<SU>n</SU>) 
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>AF = area factor, 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>CH = ceiling height (ft), 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">r</E> = space area (ft
<SU>2</SU>).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>If AF &lt;1.0 use 1.0; if AF &gt;1.8 use 1.8</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>401.3.3 <I>Lighting Power Control Credits.</I> The interior connected lighting power determined in accordance with § 434.401.3.2 can be decreased for luminaries that are automatically controlled for occupancy, daylight, lumen maintenance, or programmable timing. The adjusted interior connected lighting power shall be determined by subtracting the sum of all lighting power control credits from the interior connected lighting power. Using Table 401.3.3, the lighting power control credit equals the power adjustment factor times the connected lighting power of the controlled lighting. The lighting power adjustment shall be applied with the following limitations: 
</P>
<P>(a) It is limited to the specific area controlled by the automatic control device. 
</P>
<P>(b) Only one lighting power adjustment may be used for each building space or luminaire, and 50 percent or more of the controlled luminaire shall be within the applicable space. 
</P>
<P>(c) Controls shall be installed in series with the lights and in series with all manual switching devices. 
</P>
<P>(d) When sufficient daylight is available, daylight sensing controls shall be capable of reducing electrical power consumption for lighting (continuously or in steps) to 50 percent or less of maximum power consumption. 
</P>
<P>(e) Daylight sensing controls shall control all luminaires to which the adjustment is applied and that direct a minimum of 50 percent of their light output into the daylight zone. 
</P>
<P>(f) Programmable timing controls shall be able to program different schedules for occupied and unoccupied days, be readily accessible for temporary override with automatic return to the original schedule, and keep time during power outages for at least four hours. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 401.3.3—Lighting Power Adjustment Factors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Automatic control devices 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">PAF 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Daylight Sensing controls (DS), continuous dimming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) DS, multiple step dimming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) DS, ON/OFF</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) DS continuous dimming and programmable timing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) DS multiple step dimming and programmable timing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) DS ON/OFF and programmable timing</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) DS continuous dimming, programmable timing, and lumen maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) DS multiple step dimming, programmable timing, and lumen maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) DS ON/OFF, programmable timing, and lumen maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Lumen maintenance control</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) Lumen maintenance and programmable timing control</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) Programmable timing control</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) Occupancy sensor (OS)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) OS and DS, continuous dimming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) OS and DS, multiple-step dimming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(16) OS and DS, ON/OFF</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(17) OS, DS continuous dimming, and lumen maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(18) OS, DS multiple-step dimming and lumen maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(19) OS, DS ON/OFF, and lumen maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(20) OS and lumen maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(21) OS and programmable timing control</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>401.3.4 <I>Lighting controls.</I>
</P>
<P>401.3.4.1 <I>Type of Lighting Controls.</I> All lighting systems shall have controls, with the exception of emergency use or exit lighting. 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.2 <I>Number of Manual Controls.</I> Spaces enclosed by walls or ceiling-high partitions shall have a minimum of one manual control (on/off switch) for lighting in that space. Additional manual controls shall be provided for each task location or for each group of task locations within an area of 450 ft
<SU>2</SU> or less. For spaces with only one lighting fixture or with a single ballast, one manual control is required. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.2.1 Continuous lighting for security; 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.2.2 Systems in which occupancy sensors, local programmable timers, or three-level (including OFF) step controls or preset dimming controls are substituted for manual controls at the rate of one for every two required manual controls, providing at least one control is installed for every 1500 watts of power. 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.2.3 Systems in which four-level (including OFF) step controls or preset dimming controls or automatic or continuous dimming controls are substituted for manual controls at a rate of one for every three required manual controls, providing at least one control is installed for every 1500 watts of power. 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.2.4 Spaces that must be used as a whole, such as public lobbies, retail stores, warehouses, and storerooms. 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.3 <I>Multiple Location Controls.</I> Manual controls that operate the same load from multiple locations must be counted as one manual control. 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.4 <I>Control Accessibility.</I> Lighting controls shall be readily accessible from within the space controlled. Exceptions are as follows: Controls for spaces that are to be used as a whole, automatic controls, programmable controls, controls requiring trained operators, and controls for safety hazards and security. 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.5 <I>Hotel and Motel Guest Room Control.</I> Hotel and motel guest rooms and suites shall have at least one master switch at the main entry door that controls all permanently wired lighting fixtures and switched receptacles excluding bathrooms. The following exception applies: Where switches are provided at the entry to each room of a multiple-room suite. 
</P>
<P>401.3.4.6 <I>Switching of Exterior Lighting.</I> Exterior lighting not intended for 24-hour use shall be automatically switched by either timer or photocell or a combination of timer and photocell. When used, timers shall be capable of seven-day and seasonal daylight schedule adjustment and have power backup for at least four hours. 
</P>
<P>401.3.5 <I>Ballasts.</I>
</P>
<P>401.3.5.1 <I>Tandem Wiring.</I> One-lamp or three-lamp fluorescent luminaries that are recess mounted within 10 ft center-to-center of each other, or pendant mounted, or surface mounted within 1 ft of each other, and within the same room, shall be tandem wired, unless three-lamp ballasts are used. 
</P>
<P>401.3.5.2 <I>Power Factor.</I> All ballasts shall have a power factor of at least 90%, with the exception of dimming ballasts, and ballasts for circline and compact fluorescent lamps and low wattage high intensity discharge (HID) lamps not over 100 W. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.402" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.4.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.402   Building envelope assemblies and materials.</HEAD>
<P>The building envelope and its associated assemblies and materials shall meet the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<P>402.1 <I>Calculations and Supporting Information.</I>
</P>
<P>402.1.1 <I>Material Properties.</I> Information on thermal properties, building envelope system performance, and component heat transfer shall be obtained from RS-4. When the information is not available from RS-4, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) the data shall be obtained from manufacturer's information or laboratory or field test measurements using RS-5, RS-6, RS-7, or RS-8 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701).
</P>
<P>402.1.1.1 The shading coefficient (SC) for fenestration shall be obtained from RS-4 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) or from manufacturer's test data. The shading coefficient of the fenestration, including both internal and external shading devices, is SC<E T="52">X</E> and excludes the effect of external shading projections, which are calculated separately. The shading coefficient used for louvered shade screens shall be determined using a profile angle of 30 degrees as found in Table 41, Chapter 27 of RS-4 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). 
</P>
<P>402.1.2 <I>Thermal Performance Calculations.</I> The overall thermal transmittance of the building envelope shall be calculated in accordance with Equation 402.1.2: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="15" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.022.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">o</E> = the area-weighted average thermal transmittance of the gross area of the building envelope; <I>i.e.,</I> the exterior wall assembly including fenestration and doors, the roof and ceiling assembly, and the floor assembly, Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>·°F) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">o</E> = the gross area of the building envelope, ft
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">i</E> = the thermal transmittance of each individual path of the building envelope, <I>i.e.,</I> the opaque portion or the fenestration, Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>·°F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">i</E> = 1/R<E T="52">i</E> (where R<E T="52">i</E> is the total resistance to heat flow of an individual path through the building envelope) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">i</E> = the area of each individual element of the building envelope, ft
<SU>2</SU></FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>The thermal transmittance of each component of the building envelope shall be determined with due consideration of all major series and parallel heat flow paths through the elements of the component and film coefficients and shall account for any compression of insulation. The thermal transmittance of opaque elements of assemblies shall be determined using a series path procedure with corrections for the presence of parallel paths within an element of the envelope assembly (such as wall cavities with parallel paths through insulation and studs). The thermal performance of adjacent ground in below-grade applications shall be excluded from all thermal calculations. 
</P>
<P>402.1.2.1 Envelope Assemblies Containing Metal Framing. The thermal transmittance of the envelope assembly containing metal framing shall be determined from one of three methods: 
</P>
<P>(a) Laboratory or field test measurements based on RS-5, RS-6, RS-7, or RS-8 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). 
</P>
<P>(b) The zone method described in Chapter 22 of RS-4 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) and the formulas on page 22.10. 
</P>
<P>(c) For metal roof trusses or metal studs covered by Tables 402.1.2.1a and b, the total resistance of the series path shall be calculated in accordance with the following Equations:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.023.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">t</E> = the total resistance of the envelope assembly 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">i</E> = the resistance of the series elements (for i = 1 to n) excluding the parallel path element(s) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">e</E> = the equivalent resistance of the element containing the parallel path (R-value of insulation × F<E T="52">c</E>). Values for F<E T="52">c</E> and equivalent resistances shall be taken from Tables 402.1.2.1a or b.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 402.1.2.1<E T="01">a</E>—Parallel Path Correction Factors—Metal Roof Trusses Spaced 4 ft. o.c. or Greater That Penetrate the Insulation 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Effective framing cavity R-values 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Correction
<br/>factor
<br/>F<E T="52">c</E> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equivalent
<br/>resistance
<br/>R<E T="52">e</E> 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-4.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-9.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-13.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-17.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-20.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-23.7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-26.6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-29.2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-32.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-34.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">R-55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-36.0 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Based on 0.66-inch-diameter cross members every one foot.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 402.1.2.1<E T="01">b</E>—Parallel Path Correction Factors—Metal Framed Walls With Studs 16 Ga. or Lighter 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size of members 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Spacing of
<br/>framing, in. 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cavity
<br/>insulation R-Value 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Correction
<br/>factor
<br/>F<E T="52">c</E> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equivalent
<br/>resistance
<br/>R<E T="52">e</E> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 × 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16 O.C.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-11
<br/>R-13
<br/>R-15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
<br/>0.46
<br/>0.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.5
<br/>R-6.0
<br/>R-6.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 × 4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24 O.C.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-11
<br/>R-13
<br/>R-15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60
<br/>0.55
<br/>0.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-6.6
<br/>R-7.2
<br/>R-7.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 × 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16 O.C.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-19
<br/>R-21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
<br/>0.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-7.1
<br/>R-7.4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 × 6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24 O.C.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-19
<br/>R-21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.45
<br/>0.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-8.6
<br/>R-9.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 × 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16 O.C.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-7.8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 × 8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24 O.C.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">R-9.6</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>402.1.2.2 <I>Envelope Assemblies Containing Nonmetal Framing.</I> The thermal transmittance of the envelope assembly shall be determined from laboratory or field test measurements based on RS-5, RS-6, RS-7, or RS-8 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) or from the series-parallel (isothermal planes) method provided in page 23.2 of Chapter 23 of RS-4 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). 
</P>
<P>402.1.2.3 <I>Metal Buildings.</I> For elements with internal metallic structures bonded on one or both sides to a metal skin or covering, the calculation procedure specified in RS-9 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) shall be used. 
</P>
<P>402.1.2.4 <I>Fenestration Assemblies.</I> Determine the overall thermal transmittance of fenestration assemblies in accordance with RS-18 and RS-19 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) or by calculation. Calculation of the overall thermal transmittance of fenestration assemblies shall consider the center-of-glass, edge-of-glass, and frame components. 
</P>
<P>(a) The following equation 402.1.2.4a shall be used. 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="115" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.024.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">of</E> = the overall thermal transmittance of the fenestration assemblies, including the center-of-glass, edge-of-glass, and frame components, Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>·°F) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = numerical subscript (1, 2, . . .n) refers to each of the various fenestration types present in the wall 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n = the number of fenestration assemblies in the wall assembly 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">cg</E> = the thermal transmittance of the center-of-glass area, Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>·°F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">cg</E> = the center of glass area, that is the overall visible glass area minus the edge-of-glass area, ft
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">eg</E> = the thermal transmittance of the edge of the visible glass area including the effects of spacers in multiple glazed units, Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>·°F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">eg</E> = the edge of the visible glass area, that is the 2.5 in. perimeter band adjacent to the frame, ft
<SU>2</SU>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>U<E T="52">f</E> = the thermal transmittance of the frame area, Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>·°F)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">f</E> = the frame area that is the overall area of the entire glazing product minus the center-of-glass area and minus the edge-of-glass area, ft
<SU>2</SU></FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Values of U<E T="52">of</E> shall be based on one of the following methods: 
</P>
<P>(1) Results from laboratory test of center-of-glass, edge-of-glass, and frame assemblies tested as a unit at winter conditions. One of the procedures in Section 8.3.2 of RS-1 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(2) Overall generic product C (commercial) in Table 13, Chapter 27, of the RS-4 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). The generic product C in Table 13, Chapter 27, is based on a product of 24 ft
<SU>2</SU>. Larger units will produce lower U-values and thus it is recommended to use the calculation procedure detailed in Equation 402.1.2.4a.
</P>
<P>(3) Calculations based on the actual area for center-of-glass, edge-of-glass, and frame assemblies and on the thermal transmittance of components derived from 402.1.2.4a, 402.1.2.4b or a combination of the two. 
</P>
<P>402.1.3 <I>Gross Areas of Envelope Components.</I> 
</P>
<P>402.1.3.1 <I>Roof Assembly.</I> The gross area of a roof assembly shall consist of the total surface of the roof assembly exposed to outside air or unconditioned spaces and is measured from the exterior faces of exterior walls and centerline of walls separating buildings. The roof assembly includes all roof or ceiling components through which heat may flow between indoor and outdoor environments, including skylight surfaces but excluding service openings. For thermal transmittance purposes when return air ceiling plenums are employed, the roof or ceiling assembly shall not include the resistance of the ceiling or the plenum space as part of the total resistance of the assembly. 
</P>
<P>402.1.3.2 <I>Floor Assembly.</I> The gross area of a floor assembly over outside or unconditioned spaces shall consist of the total surface of the floor assembly exposed to outside air or unconditioned space and is measured from the exterior face of exterior walls and centerline of walls separating buildings. The floor assembly shall include all floor components through which heat may flow between indoor and outdoor or unconditioned space environments. 
</P>
<P>402.1.3.3 <I>Wall Assembly.</I> The gross area of exterior walls enclosing a heated or cooled space is measured on the exterior and consists of the opaque walls, including between-floor spandrels, peripheral edges of flooring, window areas (including sash), and door areas but excluding vents, grilles, and pipes. 
</P>
<P>402.2 <I>Air Leakage and Moisture Mitigation.</I> The requirements of this section shall apply only to those building components that separate interior building conditioned space from the outdoors or from unconditioned space or crawl spaces. Compliance with the criteria for air leakage through building components shall be determined by tests conducted in accordance with RS-10 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701).
</P>
<P>402.2.1 <I>Air Barrier System.</I> A barrier against leakage shall be installed to prevent the leakage of air through the building envelope according to the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(a) The air barrier shall be continuous at all plumbing and heating penetrations of the building opaque wall. 
</P>
<P>(b) The air barrier shall be sealed at all penetrations of the opaque building wall for electrical and telecommunications equipment. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 402.2.1—Air Leakage for Fenestration and Doors Maximum Allowable Infiltration Rate 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reference
<br/>standard 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">cfm/lin ft Sash
<br/>crack or cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>of area 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Fenestration</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aluminum: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Operable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-11*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37 cfm/lin ft. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Jalousie</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-11*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.50 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fixed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-11*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Poly Vinyl Chloride (PVC): 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Prime Windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-12*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wood: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Residential</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-13*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Light Commercial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-13*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Heavy Commercial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-13*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sliding Glass Doors: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Aluminum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-11*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">PVC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-12*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37 cfm/lin ft. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Doors—Wood: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Residential</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-14*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.34 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Light Commercial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-14*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Heavy Commercial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-14*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Entrance Doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-10*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.25 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Residential Swinging Doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-10*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wall Sections Aluminum</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">RS-10*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06 cfm/ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> [The “Maximum Allowable Infiltration Rates” are from current standards to allow the use of available products.] 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* Incorporated by reference, see § 434.701.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>402.2.2 <I>Building Envelope.</I> The following areas of the building envelope shall be sealed, caulked, gasketed, or weatherstripped to limit air leakage: 
</P>
<P>(a) Intersections of the fenestration and door frames with the opaque wall sections. 
</P>
<P>(b) Openings between walls and foundations, between walls and roof and wall panels. 
</P>
<P>(c) Openings at penetrations of utility service through, roofs, walls, and floors. 
</P>
<P>(d) Site built fenestration and doors. 
</P>
<P>(e) All other openings in the building envelope. 
</P>
<P>Exceptions are as follows: Outside air intakes, exhaust outlets, relief outlets, stair shaft, elevator shaft smoke relief openings, and other similar elements shall comply with subsection 403. 
</P>
<P>402.2.2.1 Fenestration and Doors Fenestration and doors shall meet the requirements of Table 402.2.1. 
</P>
<P>402.2.2.2 <I>Building Assemblies Used as Ducts or Plenums.</I> Building assemblies used as ducts or plenums shall be sealed, caulked, and gasketed to limit air leakage. 
</P>
<P>402.2.2.3 <I>Vestibules.</I> A door that separates conditioned space from the exterior shall be equipped with an enclosed vestibule with all doors opening into and out of the vestibule equipped with self-closing devices. Vestibules shall be designed so that in passing through the vestibule, it is not necessary for the interior and exterior doors to open at the same time. Exceptions are as follows: Exterior doors need not be protected with a vestibule where: 
</P>
<P>(a) The door is a revolving door. 
</P>
<P>(b) The door is used primarily to facilitate vehicular movement or material handling. 
</P>
<P>(c) The door is not intended to be used as a general entrance door. 
</P>
<P>(d) The door opens directly from a dwelling unit. 
</P>
<P>(e) The door opens directly from a retail space less than 2,000 ft
<SU>2</SU> in area, or from a space less than 1,500 ft
<SU>2</SU> for other uses. 
</P>
<P>(f) In buildings less than three stories in building height in regions that have less than 6,300 heating degree days base 65 °F. 
</P>
<P>402.2.2.4 <I>Compliance Testing.</I> All buildings shall be tested after completion using the methodology in RS-11, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) or an equivalent approved method to determine the envelope air leakage. A standard blower door test is an acceptable technique to pressurize the building if the building is 5,000 ft
<SU>2</SU> or less in area. The building's air handling system can be used to pressurize the building if the building is larger than 5,000 ft
<SU>2</SU>. The following test conditions shall be: 
</P>
<P>(a) The measured envelope air leakage shall not exceed 1.57 pounds per square foot of wall area at a pressure difference of 0.3 inches water. 
</P>
<P>(b) At the time of testing, all windows and outside doors shall be installed and closed, all interior doors shall be open, and all air handlers and dampers shall be operable. The building shall be unoccupied. 
</P>
<P>(c) During the testing period, the average wind speed during the test shall be less than 6.6 feet per second, the average outside temperature greater than 59 °F, and the average inside-outside temperature difference is less than 41 °F. 
</P>
<P>402.2.2.5 <I>Moisture Migration.</I> The building envelope shall be designed to limit moisture migration that leads to deterioration in insulation or equipment performance as determined by the following construction practices: 
</P>
<P>(a) A vapor retarder shall be installed to retard, or slow down the rate of water vapor diffusion through the building envelope. The position of the vapor retarder shall be determined taking into account local climate and indoor humidity levels. The methodologies presented in Chapter 20 of RS-4 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) shall be used to determine temperature and water vapor profiles through the envelope systems to assess the potential for condensation within the envelope and to determine the position of the vapor retarder within the envelope system. 
</P>
<P>(b) The vapor retarder shall be installed over the entire building envelope. 
</P>
<P>(c) The perm rating requirements of the vapor retarder shall be determined using the methodologies contained in Chapter 20 of RS-4, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) and shall take into account local climate and indoor humidity level. The vapor retarder shall have a performance rating of 1 perm or less. 
</P>
<P>402.3 <I>Thermal Performance Criteria.</I> 
</P>
<P>402.3.1 <I>Roofs; Floors and Walls Adjacent to Unconditioned Spaces.</I> The area weighted average thermal transmittance of roofs and also of floors and walls adjacent to unconditioned spaces shall not exceed the criteria in Table 402.3.1a. Exceptions are as follows: Skylights for which daylight credit is taken may be excluded from the calculations of the roof assembly U<E T="52">or</E> if all of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(a) The opaque roof thermal transmittance is less than the criteria in Table 402.3.1b. 
</P>
<P>(b) Skylight areas, including framing, as a percentage of the roof area do not exceed the values specified in Table 402.3.1b. The maximum skylight area from Table 402.3.1b may be increased by 50% if a shading device is used that blocks over 50% of the solar gain during the peak cooling design condition. For shell buildings, the permitted skylight area shall be based on a light level of 30 foot candles and a lighting power density (LPD) of less than 1.0 w/ft 
<SU>2</SU>. For speculative buildings, the permitted skylight area shall be based on the unit lighting power allowance from Table 401.3.2a and an illuminance level as follows: for LPD &lt;1.0, use 30 footcandles; for 1.0 &lt;LPD &lt;2.5, use 50 footcandles; and for LPD ≥2.5, use 70 footcandles. 
</P>
<P>(c) All electric lighting fixtures within daylighted zones under skylights are controlled by automatic daylighting controls. 
</P>
<P>(d) The U<E T="52">o</E> of the skylight assembly including framing does not exceed____________Btu/(h·ft 
<SU>2</SU>·°F) [Use 0.70 for ≤8000 HDD65 and 0.45 for &gt;8000 HDD65 or both if the jurisdiction includes cities that are both below and above 8000 HDD65.] 
</P>
<P>(e) Skylight curb U-value does not exceed 0.21 Btu/(h·ft 
<SU>2</SU>·°F). 
</P>
<P>(f) The infiltration coefficient of the skylights does not exceed 0.05 cfm/ft 
<SU>2</SU>. 
</P>
<P>402.3.2 <I>Below-Grade Walls and Slabs-on-Grade.</I> The thermal resistance (R-value) of insulation for slabs-on-grade, or the overall thermal resistance of walls in contact with the earth, shall be equal to or greater than the values in Table 402.3.2. 
</P>
<P>402.4 <I>Exterior Walls.</I> Exterior walls shall comply with either 402.4.1 or 402.4.2. 
</P>
<P>402.4.1 <I>Prescriptive Criteria.</I> (a) The exterior wall shall be designed in accordance with subsections 402.4.1.1 and 402.4.1.2. When the internal load density range is not known, the 0-1.50 W/ft 
<SU>2</SU> range shall be used for residential, hotel/motel guest rooms, or warehouse occupancies; the 3.01-3.50 w/ft 
<SU>2</SU> range shall be used for retail stores smaller than 2,000 ft 
<SU>2</SU> and technical and vocational schools smaller than 10,000 ft 
<SU>2</SU>; and the 1.51-3.00 W/ft 
<SU>2</SU> range shall be used for all other occupancies and building sizes. When the building envelope is designed or constructed prior to knowing the building occupancy type, an internal load density of ______ W/ft 
<SU>2</SU> shall be used. [Use 3.0 W/ft 
<SU>2</SU> for HDD65 &lt;3000, 2.25 W/ft 
<SU>2</SU> for 3000 &lt;HDD65 &lt;6000, and 1.5 W/ft 
<SU>2</SU> for HDD65 &gt;6000.] 
</P>
<P>(b) When more than one condition exists, area weighted averages shall be used. This requirement shall apply to all thermal transmittances, shading coefficients, projection factors, and internal load densities rounded to the same number of decimal places as shown in the respective table. 
</P>
<P>402.4.1.1 <I>Opaque Walls.</I> The weighted average thermal transmittance (U-value) of opaque wall elements shall be less than the values in Table 402.4.1.1. For mass walls (HC ≥5), criteria are presented for low and high window/wall ratios and the criteria shall be determined by interpolating between these values for the window/wall ratio of the building. 
</P>
<P>402.4.1.2 <I>Fenestration.</I> The design of the fenestration shall meet the criteria of Table 402.4.1.2. When the fenestration columns labeled “Perimeter Daylighting” are used, automatic daylighting controls shall be installed in the perimeter daylighted zones of the building. These daylighting controls shall be capable of reducing electric lighting power to at least 50% of full power. Only those shading or lighting controls for perimeter daylighting that are shown on the plans shall be considered. The column labeled “VLT &gt;= SC” shall be used only when the shading coefficient of the glass is less than its visible light transmittance. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A 
</HD1>
<P>The example Alternate Component Package tables illustrate the requirements of subsections 434.301.1, 434.402.3.1, 434.402.3.2, 434.402.4.1.1 and 434.402.4.1.2. Copies of specific tables contained in this appendix A can be obtained from the Energy Code for Federal Commercial Buildings, Docket No. EE-RM-79-112-C, EE-43, Office of Building Research and Standards, U.S. Department of Energy, Room 1J-018, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9127.</P></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.011.gif"/>
<P>402.4.2 <I>System Performance Criteria.</I> The cumulative annual energy flux attributable to thermal transmittance and solar gains shall be less than the criteria determined using the ENVSTD24 computer program in Standard 90.1-1989, or the equations in RS-1, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) Attachment 8-B. The cumulative annual energy flux shall be calculated using the ENVSTD24 computer program or the equations in RS-1, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) Attachment 8-B.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 402.4.2—EQUIP Default Values for ENVSTD24
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Occupancy 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Default equipment power density 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Default occupant load adjustment 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Default adjusted equipment power density 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assembly</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Health/Institutional</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.74 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hotel/Motel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.33</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warehouse/Storage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multi-Family High Rise</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restaurant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.17 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">School</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Defaults as defined in Section 8.6.10.5, Table 8-4, and Sections 8.6.10.6 and 13.7.2.1, Table 13-2 from RS-1 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>402.4.2.1 <I>Equipment Power Density (EQUIP).</I> The equipment power density used in the ENVSTD24 computer program shall use the actual equipment power density from the building plans and specifications or be taken from Table 402.4.2 using the column titled “Default Adjusted Equipment Power Density” or calculated for the building using the procedures of RS-1. (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). The program limits consideration of the equipment power density to a maximum of 1 W/ft 
<SU>2</SU>. 
</P>
<P>402.4.2.2 <I>Lighting Power Density (LIGHTS).</I> The lighting power density used in the ENVSTD24 computer program shall use the actual lighting power density from the building plans and specifications or the appropriate value from Tables 401.3.2a, b, c, or d. 
</P>
<P>402.4.2.3 <I>Daylighting Control Credit Fraction (DLCF).</I> When the daylighting control credit fraction is other than zero, automatic daylighting controls shall be installed in the appropriate perimeter zones(s) of the building to justify the credit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.403" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.4.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.403   Building mechanical systems and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>Mechanical systems and equipment used to provide heating, ventilating, and air conditioning functions as well as additional functions not related to space conditioning, such as, but not limited to, freeze protection in fire projection systems and water heating, shall meet the requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>403.1 <I>Mechanical Equipment Efficiency.</I> When equipment shown in Tables 403.1a through 403.1f is used, it shall have a minimum performance at the specified rating conditions when tested in accordance with the specified reference standard. The reference standards listed in Tables 403.1a through 403.1f are incorporated by reference, see § 434.701. Omission of minimum performance requirements for equipment not listed in Tables 403.1a through 403.1f does not preclude use of such equipment. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 403.1<E T="01">a</E>—Unitary Air Conditioners and Condensing Units, Electrically Operated, Minimum Efficiency Requirements 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory or rating condition 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>Efficiency 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test
<br/>procedure 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Conditioners, Air Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split system
<br/>Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 SEER
<br/>9.7 SEER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 210/240
<br/>(RS-15)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,00
<br/>Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.9 EER 
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>8.3 IPLV 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 210/240
<br/>(RS-15)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 EER
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>7.5 IPLV
<sup>3</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h and &lt;760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 EER
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>7.5 IPLV
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-340/360
<br/>(RS-16)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥760,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.3 EER
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>7.5 IPLV
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-340/360
<br/>(RS-16)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Conditioners, Water and Evaporatively Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3 EER
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>8.4 IPLV
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 210/240
<br/>(RS-15)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5 EER
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>9.7 IPLV
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 210/240
<br/>(RS-15)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6 EER
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>9.0 IPLV
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-340/360
<br/>(RS-16)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.6 EER
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>9.0 IPLV
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-340/360
<br/>(RS-16)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condensing Units, Air Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.9 EER
<br/>11.0 IPLV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 365
<br/>(RS-29)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condensing Units, Water or Evaporatively Cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.9 EER
<br/>12.9 IPLV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 365
<br/>(RS-29)* 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See subpart E for detailed references 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> IPLVs are only applicable to equipment with capacity modulation. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Deduct 0.2 from the required EERs and IPLVs for units that have a heating section. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* Incorporation by reference, see § 434.701</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 403.1<E T="01">b</E>—Unitary and Applied Heat Pumps, Electrically Operated, Minimum Efficiency Requirements 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory or rating condition 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test procedure 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Cooled (Cooling Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System
<br/>Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 SEER
<br/>9.7 SEER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 210/240
<br/>(RS-15)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.9 EER 
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>8.3 IPLV 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 210/240
<br/>(RS-15)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥135,000 Btu/h and &lt;240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 EER 
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>7.5 IPLV 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-340/360
<br/>(RS-16)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥240,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System and Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 EER 
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>7.5 IPLV 
<sup>3</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-340/360
<br/>(RS-16)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water Source
<br/>(Cooling Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 °F Entering Water
<br/>75 °F Entering Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3 EER
<br/>10.2 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-320
<br/>(RS-27)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000
<br/>Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">85 °F Entering Water
<br/>75 °F Entering Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5 EER
<br/>11.0 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-320
<br/>(RS-27)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Groundwater-Source (Cooling Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 F Entering Water
<br/>50 F Entering Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.0 EER
<br/>11.5 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 325
<br/>(RS-28)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ground Source (Cooling Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;135,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77 F Entering Water
<br/>70 F Entering Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 EER
<br/>10.4 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 325
<br/>(RS-28)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air Cooled (Heating Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;65,000 Btu/h (Cooling Capacity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Split System
<br/>Single Package</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.8 HSPF
<br/>6.6 HSPF</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 210/240
<br/>(RS-15)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">65,000 Btu/h and &lt;135,000 Btu/h (Cooling Capacity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">47 F db/43 F wb Outdoor Air
<br/>17 F db/15 F wb Outdoor Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00 COP
<br/>2.00 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 210/240
<br/>(RS-15)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">135,000 Btu/h (Cooling Capacity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">47 F db/43 F wb Outdoor Air
<br/>17 F db/15 F wb Outdoor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.90 COP
<br/>2.00 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-340/360
<br/>(RS-1/)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Source (Heating Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;135,000 Btu/h (Cooling Capacity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 F Entering Water
<br/>75 F Entering Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80 COP
<br/>3.90 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-320
<br/>(RS-27)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Groundwater-Source (Heating Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;135,000 Btu/h (Cooling Capacity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">70 F Entering Water
<br/>50 F Entering Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40 COP
<br/>3.00 COP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 325
<br/>(RS-28)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ground Source (Heating Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;135,000 Btu/h (Cooling Capacity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">32 F Entering Water
<br/>41 F Entering Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50 EER
<br/>2.70 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI-330
<br/>(RS-45)* 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See subpart E for detailed references. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> IPLVs are only applicable to equipment with capacity modulation. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Deduct 0.2 from the required EERs and IPLVs for units that have a heating section. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* Incorporation by reference, see § 434.701.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 403.1<E T="01">c</E>—Water Chilling Packages, Minimum Efficiency Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory or rating condition 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test procedure 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled, With Condenser, Electrically Operated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;150 Tons
<br/>≥150 Tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.70 COP
<br/>2.80 IPLV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.50 COP
<br/>2.50 IPLV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 550 Centrifugal/Rotary Screw (RS-30)* or ARI 590 Reciprocating (RS-31)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air-Cooled, Without Condenser, Electrically Operated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.10 COP
<br/>3.20 IPLV 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water Cooled, Electrically Operated, Positive Displacement (Reciprocating)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80 COP
<br/>3.90 IPLV 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water Cooled, Electrically Operated, Positive Displacement (Rotary Screw and Scroll)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;150 Tons
<br/>≥150 Tons and &lt;300 Tons
<br/>≥300 Tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">
<br/> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80 COP
<br/>3.90 IPLV
<br/>4.20 COP
<br/>4.50 IPLV
<br/>5.20 COP
<br/>5.30 IPLV 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water-Cooled, Electrically Operated, Centrifugal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;150 Tons
<br/>150 Tons and &lt;300 Tons
<br/>300 Tons</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> 
<br/> 
<br/> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.80 COP
<br/>3.90 IPLV
<br/>4.20 COP
<br/>4.50 IPLV
<br/>5.20 COP
<br/>5.30 IPLV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 550
<br/>(RS-30)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Absorption Single Effect</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48 COP 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Absorption Double Effect, Indirect-Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95 COP
<br/>1.00 IPLV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 560
<br/>(RS-46)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Absorption Double-Effect, Direct-Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95 COP
<br/>1.00 IPLV 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See subpart E for detailed references. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Equipment must comply with all efficiencies when multiple efficiencies are indicated. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*Incorporation by reference, see § 434.701.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 403.1<E T="01">d</E>—Packaged Terminal Air Conditioners, Packaged Terminal Heat Pumps, Room Air Conditioners, and Room Air-Conditioner Heat Pumps Electrically Operated, Minimum Efficiency Requirements 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory or rating condition 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test procedure 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PTAC (Cooling Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 °F db Outdoor Air
<br/> 
<br/>82 °F db Outdoor Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 − (0.16 × Cap/1,000) 
<sup>3</sup>EER
<br/>12.2 − (0.20 × Cap/1,000) 
<sup>3</sup>EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 310/380
<br/>(RS-17)*
<br/>ARI 310/380
<br/>(RS-17)*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PTHP (Cooling Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 °F db Outdoor Air
<br/> 
<br/>82 °F db Outdoor Air</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0-(0.16 × Cap/1,000) 
<sup>3</sup> EER
<br/>12.2-(0.20 × Cap/1,000) EER 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PTHP (Heating Mode)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.90-(0.026 × CAP/1,000) 
<sup>3</sup> COP
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Room Air Conditioners, With Louvered Sides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;6,000 Btu/h
<br/>≥6,000 Btu/h and &lt;8,000 Btu/h
<br/>≥8,000 Btu/h and &lt;14,000 Btu/h
<br/>≥14,000 Btu/h and &lt;20,000 Btu/h
<br/>≥20,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 EER
<br/>8.5 EER
<br/> 
<br/>9.0 EER
<br/> 
<br/>8.8 EER
<br/> 
<br/>8.2 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AHAM RAC-1
<br/>(RS-40)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Room Air Conditioner, Without Louvered Sides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;6,000 Btu/h
<br/>≥6,000 Btu/h and &lt;20,000 Btu/h
<br/>≥20,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 EER
<br/>8.5 EER
<br/> 
<br/>8.2 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AHAM RAC-1
<br/>(RS-40)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Room Air-Conditioner Heat Pumps With Louvered Sides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AHAM RAC-1
<br/>(RS-40)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Room Air-Conditioner Heat Pumps Without Louvered Sides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 EER</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AHAM RAC-1
<br/>(RS-40* 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> See subpart E for detailed references. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Equipment must comply with all efficiencies when multiple efficiencies are indicated. (Note products covered by the 1992 Energy Policy Act have no efficiency requirement for operation at other than standard rating conditions for products manufactured after 1/1/94). 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Cap means the rated capacity of the product in Btu/h. If the unit's capacity is less than 7,000 Btu/h, use 7,000 Btu/h in the calculation. If the unit's capacity is greater than 15,000 Btu/h, use 15,000 Btu/h in the calculation. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* Incorporation by reference, see § 434.701.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 403.1<E T="01">e</E>—Warm Air Furnaces and Combination Warm Air Furnaces/Air Conditioning Units, Warm Air Duct Furnaces and Unit Heaters, Minimum Efficiency Requirements 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory or rating condition 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency
<sup>b e</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test procedure 
<sup>a</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm Air-Furnace, Gas-Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;225,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">78% AFUE or 80% E<E T="52">t</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DOE 10 CFR 430
<br/>Appendix N 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥225,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity 
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>Minimum Capacity
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80% E<E T="52">t</E>
<br/>78% E<E T="52">t</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z21.47
<br/>(RS-21)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm Air-Furnace, Oil-Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;225,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">78% AFUE or 80% E<E T="52">t</E>
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DOE 10 CFR 430
<br/>Appendix N 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥225,000 But/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity 
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">81% E<E T="52">t</E>
<br/>81% E<E T="52">t</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.L. 727
<br/>(RS-22)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm Air Duct Furnaces, Gas-Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity 
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">78% E<E T="52">t</E>
<br/>75% E<E T="52">t</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z83.9
<br/>(RS-23) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warm Air Unit Heaters, Gas Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity 
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">78% E<E T="52">t</E>
<br/>74% E<E T="52">t</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z83.8
<br/>(RS-24)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All Capacities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity 
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">81% E<E T="52">t</E>
<br/>81% E<E T="52">t</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.L. 731
<br/>(RS-25)* 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> See subpart E for detailed references. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Minimum and maximum ratings as provided for and allowed by the unit's controls. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Combination units not covered by NAECA (Three-phase power or cooling capacity ≥65,000 Btu/h) may comply with either rating. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> E<E T="52">t</E> = thermal efficiency. See referenced document for detailed discussion. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>e</sup> E<E T="52">c</E> = combustion efficiency. Units must also include an IID and either power venting or a flue damper. For those furnaces where combustion air is drawn from the conditioned space, a vent damper may be substituted for a flue damper. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* Incorporation by reference, see § 434.701</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 403.1<E T="01">f</E>—Boilers, Gas- and Oil-Fired, Minimum Efficiency Requirements 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equipment type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Size category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subcategory or rating condition 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum efficiency 
<sup>b</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test procedure 
<sup>a</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boilers, Gas-Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80% AGUE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DOE 10 CFR 430
<br/>Appendix N 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Steam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75% AGUE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DOE 10 CFR 430
<br/>Appendix N 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity 
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80% E<E T="52">c</E>
<br/>80% E<E T="52">c</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z21.13
<br/>(RS-32)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Boilers, Oil-Fired</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80% AGUE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DOE 10 CFR 430
<br/>(RS-20)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;300,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity 
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">83% E<E T="52">c</E>
<br/>83% E<E T="52">c</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.L. 726
<br/>(RS-33)* 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-Fired (Residual)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;3000,000 Btu/h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum Capacity 
<sup>c</sup>
<br/>Minimum Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">83% E<E T="52">c</E>
<br/>83% E<E T="52">c</E> 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> See subpart E for detailed references. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Minimum and maximum ratings as provided for and allowed by the unit's controls. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> E<E T="52">c</E> = combustion efficiency (100% less flue losses). See reference document for detailed information. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* Incorporation by reference, see § 434.701.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>403.1.1 Where multiple rating conditions and/or performance requirements are provided, the equipment shall satisfy all stated requirements. 
</P>
<P>403.1.2 Equipment used to provide water heating functions as part of a combination integrated system shall satisfy all stated requirements for the appropriate space heating or cooling category. 
</P>
<P>403.1.3 The equipment efficiency shall be supported by data furnished by the manufacturer or shall be certified under a nationally recognized certification program or rating procedure. 
</P>
<P>403.1.4 Where components, such as indoor or outdoor coils, from different manufacturers are used, the system designer shall specify component efficiencies whose combined efficiency meets the standards herein. 
</P>
<P>403.2 <I>HVAC Systems.</I>
</P>
<P>403.2.1 <I>Load Calculations.</I> Heating and cooling system design loads for the purpose of sizing systems and equipment shall be determined in accordance with the procedures described in RS-1 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) using the design parameters specified in subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P>403.2.2 <I>Equipment and System Sizing.</I> Heating and cooling equipment and systems shall be sized to provide no more than the loads calculated in accordance with subsection 403.2.1. A single piece of equipment providing both heating and cooling must satisfy this provision for one function with the other function sized as small as possible to meet the load, within available equipment options. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) When the equipment selected is the smallest size needed to meet the load within available options of the desired equipment line. 
</P>
<P>(b) Standby equipment provided with controls and devices that allow such equipment to operate automatically only when the primary equipment is not operating. 
</P>
<P>(c) Multiple units of the same equipment type with combined capacities exceeding the design load and provided with controls that sequence or otherwise optimally control the operation of each unit based on load. 
</P>
<P>403.2.3 <I>Separate Air Distribution System.</I> Zones with special process temperature and/or humidity requirements shall be served by air distribution systems separate from those serving zones requiring only comfort conditions or shall include supplementary provisions so that the primary systems may be specifically controlled for comfort purposes only. Exceptions: Zones requiring only comfort heating or comfort cooling that are served by a system primarily used for process temperature and humidity control need not be served by a separate system if the total supply air to these comfort zones is no more than 25% of the total system supply air or the total conditioned floor area of the zones is less than 1000 ft2. 
</P>
<P>403.2.4 <I>Ventilation and Fan System Design.</I> Ventilation systems shall be designed to be capable of reducing the supply of outdoor air to the minimum ventilation rates required by Section 6.1.3 of RS-41 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) through the use of return ducts, manually or automatically operated control dampers, fan volume controls, or other devices. Exceptions are as follows: Minimum outdoor air rates may be greater if: 
</P>
<P>(a) Required to make up air exhausted for source control of contaminants such as in a fume hood.
</P>
<P>(b) Required by process systems. 
</P>
<P>(c) Required to maintain a slightly positive building pressure. For this purpose, minimum outside air intake may be increased up to no greater than 0.30 air changes per hour in excess of exhaust quantities. 
</P>
<P>403.2.4.1 <I>Ventilation controls for variable or high occupancy areas.</I> Systems with design outside air capacities greater than 3,000 cfm serving areas having an average design occupancy density exceeding 100 people per 1,000 ft
<SU>2</SU> shall include means to automatically reduce outside air intake to the minimum values required by RS-41 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) during unoccupied or low-occupancy periods. Outside air shall not be reduced below 0.14 cfm/ft
<SU>2</SU>. Outside air intake shall be controlled by one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) A clearly labeled, readily accessible bypass timer that may be used by occupants or operating personnel to temporarily increase minimum outside air flow up to design levels. 
</P>
<P>(b) A carbon dioxide (CO<E T="52">2</E>) control system having sensors located in the spaces served, or in the return air from the spaces served, capable of maintaining space CO<E T="52">2</E> concentrations below levels recommended by the manufacturer, but no fewer than one sensor per 25,000 ft
<SU>2</SU> of occupied space shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) An automatic timeclock that can be programmed to maintain minimum outside air intake levels commensurate with scheduled occupancy levels. 
</P>
<P>(d) Spaces equipped with occupancy sensors. 
</P>
<P>403.2.4.2 <I>Ventilation Controls for enclosed parking garages.</I> Garage ventilation fan systems with a total design capacity greater than 30,000 cfm shall have automatic controls that stage fans or modulate fan volume as required to maintain carbon monoxide (CO) below levels recommended in RS-41. 
</P>
<P>403.2.4.3 <I>Ventilation and Fan Power.</I> The fan system energy demand of each HVAC system at design conditions shall not exceed 0.8 W/cfm of supply air for constant air volume systems and 1.25 W/cfm of supply air for variable-air-volume (VAV) systems. Fan system energy demand shall not include the additional power required by air treatment or filtering systems with pressure drops over 1 in. w.c. Individual VAV fans with motors 75 hp and larger shall include controls and devices necessary for the fan motor to demand no more than 30 percent of design wattage at 50 percent of design air volume, based on manufacturer's test data. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Systems with total fan system motor horsepower of 10 hp or less. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unitary equipment for which the energy used by the fan is considered in the efficiency ratings of subsection 403.1. 
</P>
<P>403.2.5 <I>Pumping System Design.</I> HVAC pumping systems used for comfort heating and/or comfort air conditioning that serve control valves designed to modulate or step open and closed as a function of load shall be designed for variable fluid flow and capable of reducing system flow to 50 percent of design flow or less. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Systems where a minimum flow greater than 50% of the design flow is required for the proper operation of equipment served by the system, such as chillers. 
</P>
<P>(b) Systems that serve no more than one control valve. 
</P>
<P>(c) Systems with a total pump system horse power ≤10 hp. 
</P>
<P>(d) Systems that comply with subsection 403.2.6.8 without exception. 
</P>
<P>403.2.6 <I>Temperature and Humidity Controls.</I> 
</P>
<P>403.2.6.1 <I>System Controls.</I> Each heating and cooling system shall include at least one temperature control device. 
</P>
<P>403.2.6.2 <I>Zone Controls.</I> The supply of heating and cooling energy to each zone shall be controlled by individual thermostatic controls responding to temperature within the zone. For the purposes of this section, a dwelling unit is considered a zone. Exceptions are as follows: Independent perimeter systems that are designed to offset building envelope heat losses or gains or both may serve one or more zones also served by an interior system when the perimeter system includes at least one thermostatic control zone for each building exposure having exterior walls facing only one orientation for at least 50 contiguous ft and the perimeter system heating and cooling supply is controlled by thermostat(s) located within the zone(s) served by the system. 
</P>
<P>403.2.6.3 <I>Zone Thermostatic Control Capabilities.</I> Where used to control comfort heating, zone thermostatic controls shall be capable of being set locally or remotely by adjustment or selection of sensors down to 55 °F or lower. Where used to control comfort cooling, zone thermostatic controls shall be capable of being set locally or remotely by adjustment or selection of sensors up to 85 °F or higher. Where used to control both comfort heating and cooling, zone thermostatic controls shall be capable of providing a temperature range or deadband of at least 5 °F within which the supply of heating and cooling energy to the zone is shut off or reduced to a minimum. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Special occupancy or special usage conditions approved by the building official or 
</P>
<P>(b) Thermostats that require manual changeover between heating and cooling modes. 
</P>
<P>403.2.6.4 <I>Heat Pump Auxiliary Heat.</I> Heat pumps having supplementary electric resistance heaters shall have controls that prevent heater operation when the heating load can be met by the heat pump. Supplemental heater operation is permitted during outdoor coil defrost cycles not exceeding 15 minutes. 
</P>
<P>403.2.6.5 <I>Humidistats.</I> Humidistats used for comfort purposes shall be capable of being set to prevent the use of fossil fuel or electricity to reduce relative humidity below 60% or increase relative humidity above 30%. 
</P>
<P>403.2.6.6 <I>Simultaneous Heating and Cooling.</I> Zone thermostatic and humidistatic controls shall be capable of operating in sequence the supply of heating and cooling energy to the zone. Such controls shall prevent: Reheating; recooling; mixing or simultaneous supply of air that has been previously mechanically heated and air that has been previously cooled, either by mechanical refrigeration or by economizer systems; and other simultaneous operation of heating and cooling systems to the same zone. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Variable-air-volume systems that, during periods of occupancy, are designed to reduce the air supply to each zone to a minimum before heating, recooling, or mixing takes place. This minimum volume shall be no greater than the larger of 30% of the peak supply volume, the minimum required to meet minimum ventilation requirements of the Federal agency. (0.4 cfm/ft
<SU>2</SU> of zone conditioned floor area, and 300 cfm). 
</P>
<P>(b) Zones where special pressurization relationships or cross-contamination requirements are such that variable-air-volume systems are impractical, such as isolation rooms, operating areas of hospitals and clean rooms. 
</P>
<P>(c) At least 75% of the energy for reheating or for providing warm air in mixing systems is provided from a site-recovered or site-solar energy source. 
</P>
<P>(d) Zones where specified humidity levels are required to satisfy process needs, such as computer rooms and museums. 
</P>
<P>(e) Zones with a peak supply air quantity of 300 cfm or less. 
</P>
<P>403.2.6.7 <I>Temperature Reset for Air Systems.</I> Air systems supplying heated or cooled air to multiple zones shall include controls that automatically reset supply air temperatures by representative building loads or by outside air temperature. Temperature shall be reset by at least 25% of the design supply air to room air temperature difference. Zones that are expected to experience relatively constant loads, such as interior zones, shall be designed for the fully reset supply temperature. Exception are as follows: Systems that comply with subsection 403.2.6.6 without using exceptions (a) or (b). 
</P>
<P>403.2.6.8 <I>Temperature Reset for Hydronic Systems.</I> Hydronic systems of at least 600,000 Btu/hr design capacity supplying heated and/or chilled water to comfort conditioning systems shall include controls that automatically reset supply water temperatures by representative building loads (including return water temperature) or by outside air temperature. Temperature shall be reset by at least 25% of the design supply-to-return water temperature difference. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Systems that comply with subsection 403.2.5 without exception or 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the design engineer certifies to the building official that supply temperature reset controls cannot be implemented without causing improper operation of heating, cooling, humidification, or dehumidification systems. 
</P>
<P>403.2.7 <I>Off Hour Controls.</I>
</P>
<P>403.2.7.1 <I>Automatic Setback or Shutdown Controls.</I> HVAC systems shall be equipped with automatic controls capable of accomplishing a reduction of energy use through control setback or equipment shutdown. Exceptions are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Systems serving areas expected to operate continuously or
</P>
<P>(b) Equipment with full load demands not exceeding 2 kW controlled by readily accessible, manual off-hour controls.
</P>
<P>403.2.7.2 <I>Shutoff Dampers.</I> Outdoor air supply and exhaust systems shall be provided with motorized or gravity dampers or other means of automatic volume shutoff or reduction. Exceptions are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Systems serving areas expected to operate continuously.
</P>
<P>(b) Individual systems which have a design airflow rate or 3000 cfm or less.
</P>
<P>(c) Gravity and other non-electrical ventilation systems controlled by readily accessible, manual damper controls.
</P>
<P>(d) Where restricted by health and life safety codes.
</P>
<P>403.2.7.3 Zone Isolation systems that serve zones that can be expected to operate nonsimultaneously for more than 750 hours per year shall include isolation devices and controls to shut off or set back the supply of heating and cooling to each zone independently. Isolation is not required for zones expected to operate continuously or expected to be inoperative only when all other zones are inoperative. For buildings where occupancy patterns are not known at the time of system design, such as speculative buildings, the designer may predesignate isolation areas. The grouping of zones on one floor into a single isolation area shall be permitted when the total conditioned floor area does not exceed 25,000 ft
<SU>2</SU> per group.
</P>
<P>403.2.8 <I>Economizer Controls.</I>
</P>
<P>403.2.8.1 Each fan system shall be designed and capable of being controlled to take advantage of favorable weather conditions to reduce mechanical cooling requirements. The system shall include either: A temperature or enthalpy air economizer system that is capable of automatically modulating outside air and return air dampers to provide up to 85% of the design supply air quantity as outside air, or a water economizer system that is capable of cooling supply air by direct and/or indirect evaporation and is capable of providing 100% of the expected system cooling load at outside air temperatures of 50 °F dry-bulb/45 °F wet-bulb and below. Exceptions are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Individual fan-cooling units with a supply capacity of less than 3000 cfm or a total cooling capacity less than 90,000 Btu/h.
</P>
<P>(b) Systems with air-cooled or evaporatively cooled condensers that include extensive filtering equipment provided in order to meet the requirements of RS-41 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701).
</P>
<P>(c) Systems with air-cooled or evaporatively cooled condensers where the design engineer certifies to the building official that use of outdoor air cooling affects the operation of other systems, such as humidification, dehumidification, and supermarket refrigeration systems, so as to increase overall energy usage.
</P>
<P>(d) Systems that serve envelope-dominated spaces whose sensible cooling load at design conditions, excluding transmission and infiltration loads, is less than or equal to transmission and infiltration losses at an outdoor temperature of 60 °F.
</P>
<P>(e) Systems serving residential spaces and hotel or motel rooms.
</P>
<P>(f) Systems for which at least 75% of the annual energy used for mechanical cooling is provided from a site-recovered or site-solar energy source.
</P>
<P>(g) The zone(s) served by the system each have operable openings (windows, doors, etc.) with an openable area greater than 5% of the conditioned floor area. This applies only to spaces open to and within 20 ft of the operable openings. Automatic controls shall be provided that lock out system mechanical cooling to these zones when outdoor air temperatures are less than 60 °F.
</P>
<P>403.2.8.2 Economizer systems shall be capable of providing partial cooling even when additional mechanical cooling is required to meet the remainder of the cooling load. Exceptions are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Direct-expansion systems may include controls to reduce the quantity of outdoor air as required to prevent coil frosting at the lowest step of compressor unloading. Individual direct-expansion units that have a cooling capacity of 180,000 Btu/h or less may use economizer controls that preclude economizer operation whenever mechanical cooling is required simultaneously.
</P>
<P>(b) Systems in climates with less than 750 average operating hours per year between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. when the ambient dry-bulb temperatures are between 55 °F and 69 °F inclusive.
</P>
<P>403.2.8.3 System design and economizer controls shall be such that economizer operation does not increase the building heating energy use during normal operation.
</P>
<P>403.2.9 <I>Distribution System Construction and Insulation.</I>
</P>
<P>403.2.9.1 <I>Piping Insulation.</I> All HVAC system piping shall be thermally insulated in accordance with Table 403.2.9.1. Exceptions are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Factory-installed piping within HVAC equipment tested and rated in accordance with subsection 403.1.
</P>
<P>(b) Piping that conveys fluids that have a design operating temperature range between 55 °F and 105 °F.
</P>
<P>(c) Piping that conveys fluids that have not been heated or cooled through the use of fossil fuels or electricity.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 403.2.9.1—Minimum Pipe Insulation (in.) <E T="01">
<sup>a</sup></E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Insulation conductivity 
<sup>a</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Nominal pipe diameter (in.) 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fluid Design Operating Temp. Range (F) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conductivity Range Btu in./(h ft
<sup>2</sup> F) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mean Temp. F 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&lt;1.0 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.0 to 1.25 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1.5 to 3.0 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4.0 to 6.0 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8.0 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="8" scope="row"><E T="02">Heating systems (Steam, Steam Condensate, and Hot Water)</E> 
<sup>b c</sup> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32-0.34</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">251-350</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.29-0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">201-250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27-0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">141-200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25-0.29</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105-140</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22-0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="8" scope="row"><E T="02">Domestic and Service Hot Water Systems</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">105 and Greater</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22-0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="8" scope="row"><E T="02">Cooling Systems (Chilled Water, Brine, and Refrigerant)</E> 
<sup>d</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40-55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22-0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.22-0.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> For insulation outside the stated conductivity range, the minimum thickness (T) shall be determined as follows: T = r{1 + t/r)<E T="51">K/k</E> − 1} 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Where T = minimum insulation thickness (in), r = actual outside radius of pipe (in), t = insulation thickness listed in this table for applicable fluid temperature and pipe size, K = conductivity of alternate material at mean rating temperature indicated for the applicable fluid temperature (Btu in/h ft
<sup>2</sup> F); and k = the upper value of the conductivity range listed in this table for the applicable fluid temperature. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> These thicknesses are based on energy efficiency considerations only. Safety issues, such as insulation surface temperatures, have not been considered. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Piping insulation is not required between the control valve and coil on run-outs when the control valve is located within four feet of the coil and the pipe diameter is 1 inch or less. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> Note that the required minimum thickness does not take water vapor transmission and possible surface condensation into account.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 403.2.9.2—Minimum Duct Insulation R-value <E T="01">
<sup>a</sup> </E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Duct location 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Cooling supply ducts 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Heating supply ducts 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Return ducts 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CDD65 ≤500 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">500 &lt;CDD65 ≤1,000 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1,000 &lt;CDD65 ≤2,000 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CDD65 ≥2,000 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HDD65 ≤1,500 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1,500 &lt;HDD65 ≤4,500 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4,500 &lt;HDD65 ≤7,500 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HDD65 ≥7,500 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exterior of Building</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-8.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-8.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilated Attic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unvented Attic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Conditioned Spaces 
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indirectly Conditioned Spaces 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">none</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">none 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Buried</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">none</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">none</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">none</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">none</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-5.0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">R-3.3 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> Insulation R-values, measured in (h.ft 
<sup>2</sup>.°F)/Btu, are for the insulation as installed and do not include film resistance. The required minimum thickness do not consider water vapor transmission and possible surface condensation. The required minimum thicknesses do not consider water vapor transmission and condensation. For ducts that are designed to convey both heated and cooled air, duct insulation shall be as required by the most restrictive condition. Where exterior walls are used as plenum walls, wall insulation shall be as required by the most restrictive condition of this section or subsection 402. Insulation resistance measured on a horizontal plane in accordance with RS-6 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) at a mean temperature of 75 °F. RS-6 is in incorporated by reference at § 434.701. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Includes crawl spaces, both ventilated and non-ventilated. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> Includes return air plenums, with and without exposed roofs above.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>403.2.9.2 <I>Duct and Plenum Insulation.</I> All supply and return air ducts and plenums installed as part of an HVAC air distribution system shall be thermally insulated in accordance with Table 403.2.9.1. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Factory-installed plenums, casings, or ductwork furnished as a part of the HVAC equipment tested and rated in accordance with subsection 403.1 
</P>
<P>(b) Ducts within the conditioned space that they serve. (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701)ca a06oc0.186
</P>
<P>403.2.9.3 <I>Duct and Plenum Construction.</I> All air-handling ductwork and plenums shall be constructed and erected in accordance with RS-34, RS-35, and RS-36 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). Where supply ductwork and plenums designed to operate at static pressures from 0.25 in. wc to 2 in. wc, inclusive, are located outside of the conditioned space or in return plenums, joints shall be sealed in accordance with Seal Class C as defined in RS-34 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). Pressure sensitive tape shall not be used as the primary sealant where such ducts are designed to operate at static pressures of 1 in. wc, or greater. 
</P>
<P>403.2.9.3.1 Ductwork designed to operate at static pressures in excess of 3 in. wc shall be leak-tested in accordance with Section 5 of RS-35, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701), or equivalent. Test reports shall be provided in accordance with Section 6 of RS-35, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701)m or equivalent. The tested duct leakage class at a test pressure equal to the design duct pressure class rating shall be equal to or less than leakage Class 6 as defined in Section 4.1 of RS-35 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). Representative sections totaling at least 25% of the total installed duct area for the designated pressure class shall be tested. 
</P>
<P>403.2.10 <I>Completion.</I> 
</P>
<P>403.2.10.1 <I>Manuals.</I> Construction documents shall require an operating and maintenance manual provided to the Federal Agency. The manual shall include, at a minimum, the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Submittal data stating equipment size and selected options for each piece of equipment requiring maintenance, including assumptions used in outdoor design calculations. 
</P>
<P>(b) Operating and maintenance manuals for each piece of equipment requiring maintenance. Required maintenance activity shall be specified. 
</P>
<P>(c) Names and addresses of at least one qualified service agency to perform the required periodic maintenance shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(d) HVAC controls systems maintenance and calibration information, including wiring diagrams, schematics, and control sequence descriptions. Desired or field determined setpoints shall be permanently recorded on control drawings, at control devices, or, for digital control systems, in programming comments. 
</P>
<P>(e) A complete narrative, prepared by the designer, of how each system is intended to operate shall be included with the construction documents. 
</P>
<P>403.2.10.2 <I>Drawings.</I> Construction documents shall require that within 30 days after the date of system acceptance, record drawings of the actual installation be provided to the Federal agency. The drawings shall include details of the air barrier installation in every envelope component, demonstrating continuity of the air barrier at all joints and penetrations. 
</P>
<P>403.2.10.3 <I>Air System Balancing.</I> Construction documents shall require that all HVAC systems be balanced in accordance with the industry accepted procedures (such as National Environmental Balancing Bureau (NEBB) Procedural Standards, Associated Air Balance Council (AABC) National Standards, or ANSI/ASHRAE Standard 111). Air and water flow rates shall be measured and adjusted to deliver final flow rates within 10% of design rates, except variable flow distribution systems need not be balanced upstream of the controlling device (VAV box or control valve). 
</P>
<P>403.2.10.3.1 Construction documents shall require a written balance report be provided to the Federal agency for HVAC systems serving zones with a total conditioned area exceeding 5,000 ft
<SU>2</SU>. 
</P>
<P>403.2.10.3.2 Air systems shall be balanced in a manner to first minimize throttling losses, then fan speed shall be adjusted to meet design flow conditions or equivalent procedures. Exceptions are as follows: Damper throttling may be used for air system balancing; 
</P>
<P>(a) With fan motors of 1 hp (0.746 kW) or less, or 
</P>
<P>(b) Of throttling results in no greater than 
<FR>1/3</FR> hp (0.248 kW) fan horsepower draw above that required if the fan speed were adjusted. 
</P>
<P>403.2.10.4 <I>Hydronic System Balancing.</I> Hydronic systems shall be balanced in a manner to first minimize throttling losses; then the pump impeller shall be trimmed or pump speed shall be adjusted to meet design flow conditions. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Pumps with pump motors of 10 hp (7.46 kW) or less. 
</P>
<P>(b) If throttling results in no greater than 3 hp (2.23 kW) pump horsepower draw above that required if the impeller were trimmed. 
</P>
<P>(c) To reserve additional pump pressure capability in open circuit piping systems subject to fouling. Valve throttling pressure drop shall not exceed that expected for future fouling. 
</P>
<P>403.2.10.5 <I>Control System Testing.</I> HVAC control systems shall be tested to assure that control elements are calibrated, adjusted, and in proper working condition. For projects larger than 50,000 ft2 conditioned area, detailed instructions for commissioning HVAC systems shall be provided by the designer in plans and specifications. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.404" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.4.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.404   Building service systems and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>404.1 <I>Service Water Heating Equipment Efficiency.</I> Equipment must satisfy the minimum performance efficiency specified in Table 404.1 when tested in accordance with RS-37, RS-38, or RS-39 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). Omission of equipment from Table 404.1 shall not preclude the use of such equipment. Service water heating equipment used to provide additional function of space heating as part of a combination (integrated) system shall satisfy all stated requirements for the service water heating equipment. All gas-fired storage water heaters that are not equipped with a flue damper and use indoor air for combustion or draft hood dilution and that are installed in a conditioned space, shall be equipped with a vent damper listed in accordance with RS-42 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701). Unless the water heater has an available electrical supply, the installation of such a vent damper shall not require an electrical connection. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 404.1—Minimum Performance of Water Heating Equipment 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fuel 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Input rating 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">V<E T="52">T</E> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Input to V<E T="52">T</E> ratio Btuh/gal 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Test Method 
<sup>a</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Energy factor 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Thermal efficiency E<E T="52">t</E>% 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Standby loss %/HR 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">NAECA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 kW</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DOE Test</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.93-0.00132V
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Covered</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75,000 Btuh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Procedure 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.62-0.0019V
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">instantaneous</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">200,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CFR part 430</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.62-0.0019V
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Btuh 
<sup>c</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">430</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59-0.0019V
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equipment 
<sup>b</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">instantaneous</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">105,000
<br/>Btuh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Appendix E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59-0.0019V
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">pool heater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">gas/oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">210,000 Btuh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z21.56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">78
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(RS-38) *
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">electric</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Z21.10.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.030 + 27/V<E T="52">T</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equipment 
<sup>d</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">storage/
<br/>instantaneous</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">gas/oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">155m999 Btuh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(RS-39)*</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 + 114//V<E T="52">T</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 + 95/V<E T="52">T</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;155,000 Btuh</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3 + 67/V<E T="52">T</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unfired
<br/>Storage
<br/>Tanks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">all</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 Btuh/ft
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>a</sup> For detailed references see subpart E.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>b</sup> Consistent with National Appliance Energy Conservation Act (NAECA) of 1987. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>c</sup> DOE Test Procedures apply to electric and gas storage water heaters with rated volumes 20 gallons and gas instantaneous water heaters with input ratings of 50,000 to 200,000 Btuh. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>d</sup> All except those water heaters covered by NAECA. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* Incorporated by reference, see § 434.701.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>404.1.1 <I>Testing Electric and Oil Storage Water Heaters for Standby Loss.</I> 
</P>
<P>(a) When testing an electric storage water heater, the procedures of Z21.10.3-1990 (RS-39, incorporated by reference, see § 434.701), Section 2.9, shall be used. The electrical supply voltage shall be maintained with ±1% of the center of the voltage range specified on the water heater nameplate. Also, when needed for calculations, the thermal efficiency (E<E T="52">t</E>) shall be 98%. When testing an oil-fired water heater, the procedures of Z21.10.3-1990 (RS-39 incorporated by reference, see § 434.701), Sections 2.8 and 2.9, shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following modifications shall be made: A vertical length of flue pipe shall be connected to the flue gas outlet of sufficient height to establish the minimum draft specified in the manufacturer's installation instructions. All measurements of oil consumption shall be taken by instruments with an accuracy of ±1% or better. The burner rate shall be adjusted to achieve an hourly Btu input rate within ±2% of the manufacturer's specified input rate with the CO<E T="52">2</E> reading as specified by the manufacturer with smoke no greater than 1 and the fuel pump pressure within ±1% of the manufacturer's specification. 
</P>
<P>404.1.2 <I>Unfired Storage Tanks.</I> The heat loss of the tank surface area Btu/(h·ft
<SU>2</SU>) shall be based on an 80 °F water-air temperature difference. 
</P>
<P>404.1.3 <I>Storage Volume Symbols in Table 404.1.</I> The symbol “V” is the rated storage volume in gallons as specified by the manufacturer. The symbol “V<E T="52">T</E>” is the storage volume in gallons as measured during the test to determine the standby loss. V<E T="52">T</E> may differ from V, but it is within tolerances allowed by the applicable Z21 and Underwriters Laboratories standards. Accordingly, for the purpose of estimating the standby loss requirement using the rated volume shown on the rating plate, V<E T="52">T</E> should be considered as no less than 0.95V for gas and oil water heaters and no less than 0.90V for electric water heaters. 
</P>
<P>404.1.4 <I>Electric Water Heaters.</I> In applications where water temperatures not greater than 145 °F are required, an economic evaluation shall be made on the potential benefit of using an electric heat pump water heater(s) instead of an electric resistance water heater(s). The analysis shall compare the extra installed costs of the heat pump unit with the benefits in reduced energy costs (less increased maintenance costs) over the estimated service life of the heat pump water heater. Exceptions are as follows: Electric water heaters used in conjunction with site-recovered or site-solar energy sources that provide 50% or more of the water heating load or off-peak heating with thermal storage. 
</P>
<P>404.2 <I>Service Hot Water Piping Insulation.</I> Circulating system piping and noncirculating systems without heat traps, the first eight feet of outlet piping from a constant-temperature noncirculating storage system, and the inlet pipe between the storage tank and a heat trap in a noncirculating storage system shall meet the provisions of subsection 403.2.9. 
</P>
<P>404.2.1 Vertical risers serving storage water heaters not having an integral heat trap and serving a noncirculating system shall have heat traps on both the inlet and outlet piping as close as practical to the water heater. 
</P>
<P>404.3 <I>Service Water Heating System Controls.</I> Temperature controls that allow for storage temperature adjustment from 110 °F to a temperature compatible with the intended use shall be provided in systems serving residential dwelling units and from 90 °F for other systems. When designed to maintain usage temperatures in hot water pipes, such as circulating hot water systems or heat trace, the system shall be equipped with automatic time switches or other controls that can be set to turn off the system. 
</P>
<P>404.3.1 The outlet temperature of lavatory faucets in public facility restrooms shall be limited to 110 °F. 
</P>
<P>404.4 <I>Water Conservation.</I> Showerheads and lavatory faucets must meet the requirements of 10 CFR 430.32 (o)-(p). 
</P>
<P>404.4.1 Lavatory faucets in public facility restrooms shall be equipped with a foot switch, occupancy sensor, or similar device or, in other than lavatories for physically handicapped persons, limit water delivery to 0.25 gal/cycle. 
</P>
<P>404.5 <I>Swimming Pools.</I> All pool heaters shall be equipped with a readily accessible on-off switch. 
</P>
<P>404.5.1 Time switches shall be installed on electric heaters and pumps. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Pumps required to operate solar or heat recovery pool heating systems. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where public health requirements require 24-hour pump operation. 
</P>
<P>404.5.2 Heated swimming pools shall be equipped with pool covers. Exception: When over 70% of the annual energy for heating is obtained from a site-recovered or site-solar energy source. 
</P>
<P>404.6 <I>Combined Service Water Heating and Space Heating Equipment.</I> A single piece of equipment shall not be used to provide both space heating and service water heating. Exceptions are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) The energy input or storage volume of the combined boiler or water heater is less than twice the energy input or storage volume of the smaller of the separate boilers or water heaters otherwise required or 
</P>
<P>(b) The input to the combined boiler is less than 150,000 Btuh.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Building Energy Cost Compliance Alternative</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.501" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.501   General.</HEAD>
<P>501.1 Subpart E permits the use of the Building Energy Cost Compliance Alternative as an alternative to many elements of subpart D. When this subpart is used, it must be used with subpart C and subpart D, 401.1, 401.2, 401.3.4 and in conjunction with the minimum requirements found in subsections 402.1, 402.2, and 402.3., 403.1, 403.2.1-7, 403.2.9 and 404. 
</P>
<P>501.2 <I>Compliance.</I> Compliance under this method requires detailed energy analyses of the entire Proposed Design, referred to as the Design Energy Consumption; an estimate of annual energy cost for the proposed design, referred to as the Design Energy Cost; and comparison against an Energy Cost Budget. Compliance is achieved when the estimated Design Energy Cost is less than or equal to the Energy Cost Budget. This subpart provides instructions for determining the Energy Cost Budget and for calculating the Design Energy Consumption and Design Energy Cost. The Energy Cost Budget shall be determined through the calculation of monthly energy consumption and energy cost of a Prototype or Reference Building design configured to meet the requirements of subsections 401 through 404. 
</P>
<P>501.3 Designers are encouraged to employ the Building Energy Cost Budget compliance method set forth in this section for evaluating proposed design alternatives to using the elements prescribed in subpart D. The Building Energy Cost Budget establishes the relative effectiveness of each design alternative in energy cost savings, providing an energy cost basis upon which the building owner and designer may select one design over another. This Energy Cost Budget is the highest allowable calculated energy cost for a specific building design. Other alternative designs are likely to have lower annual energy costs and life cycle costs than those used to minimally meet the Energy Cost Budget. 
</P>
<P>501.4 The Energy Cost Budget is a numerical reference for annual energy cost. Its purpose is to assure neutrality with respect to choices such as HVAC system type, architectural design and fuel choice by providing a fixed, repeatable budget that is independent of any of these choices wherever possible (<I>i.e.,</I> for the prototype buildings). The Energy Cost Budget for a given building size and type will vary only with climate, the number of stories, and the choice of simulation tool. The specifications of the prototypes are necessary to assure repeatability, but have no other significance. They are not necessarily recommended energy conserving practice, or even physically reasonable practice for some climates or buildings, but represent a reasonable worst case of energy cost resulting from compliance with the provisions of subsections 401 through 404. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.502" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.502   Determination of the annual energy cost budget.</HEAD>
<P>502.1 The annual Energy Cost Budgets shall be determined in accordance with the Prototype Building Procedure in § 434.503 and § 434.504 or the Reference Building Procedure in § 434.505. Both methods calculate an annual Energy Cost by summing the 12 monthly Energy Cost Budgets. Each monthly Energy Cost Budget is the product of the monthly Building Energy Consumption of each type of energy used multiplied by the monthly Energy Cost per unit of energy for each type of energy used. 
</P>
<P>502.2 The Energy Cost Budget shall be determined in accordance with Equation 502.2.a as follows: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="13" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.025.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Based on:
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="11" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.026.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>ECB = The annual Energy Cost Budget 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ECB<E T="52">m</E> = The monthly Energy Cost Budget 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>BECON<E T="52">mi</E> = The monthly Budget Energy Consumption of the i<E T="52">th</E> type of energy
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ECOS<E T="52">mi</E> = The monthly Energy Cost, per unit of the i<E T="52">th</E> type of energy</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>502.3 The monthly Energy Cost Budget shall be determined using current rate schedules or contract prices available at the building site for all types of energy purchased. These costs shall include demand charges, rate blocks, time of use rates, interruptible service rates, delivery charges, taxes, and all other applicable rates for the type, location, operation, and size of the proposed design. The monthly Budget Energy Consumption shall be calculated from the first day through the last day of each month, inclusive. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.503" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.503   Prototype building procedure.</HEAD>
<P>503.1 The Prototype Building procedure shall be used for all building types listed below. For mixed-use buildings the Energy Cost Budget is derived by allocating the floor space of each building type within the floor space of the prototype building. For buildings not listed below, the Reference Building procedure of § 434.505 shall be used. Prototype buildings include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Assembly; 
</P>
<P>(b) Office (Business); 
</P>
<P>(c) Retail (Mercantile); 
</P>
<P>(d) Warehouse (Storage); 
</P>
<P>(e) School (Educational); 
</P>
<P>(f) Hotel/Motel; 
</P>
<P>(g) Restaurant; 
</P>
<P>(h) Health/Institutional; and 
</P>
<P>(i) Multi-Family. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.504" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.504   Use of the prototype building to determine the energy cost budget.</HEAD>
<P>504.1 Determine the building type of the Proposed Design using the categories in subsection 503.1. Using the appropriate Prototype Building characteristics from all of the tables contained in subpart E, the building shall be simulated using the same gross floor area and number of floors for the Prototype Building as in the Proposed Design. 
</P>
<P>504.2 The form, orientation, occupancy and use profiles for the Prototype Building shall be fixed as described in subsection 511. Envelope, lighting, other internal loads and HVAC systems and equipment shall meet the requirements of subsection 301, 401, 402, 403, and 404 and are standardized inputs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.505" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.505   Reference building method.</HEAD>
<P>505.1 The Reference Building procedure shall be used only when the Proposed Design cannot be represented by one or a combination of the Prototype Building listed in subsection 503.1 or the assumptions for the Prototype Building in Subsection 510, such as occupancy and use-profiles, do not reasonably represent the Proposed Design. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.506" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.506   Use of the reference building to determine the energy cost budget.</HEAD>
<P>506.1 Each floor shall be oriented in the same manner for the Reference Building as in the Proposed Design. The form, gross and conditioned floor areas of each floor and the number of floors shall be the same as in the Proposed Design. All other characteristics, such as lighting, envelope and HVAC systems and equipment, shall meet the requirements of subsections 301, 401, 402, 403 and 404. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.507" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.507   Calculation procedure and simulation tool.</HEAD>
<P>507.1 The Prototype or Reference Buildings shall be modeled using the criteria of subsections 510 and 521. The modeling shall use a climate data set appropriate for both the site and the complexity of the energy conserving features of the design. ASHRAE Weather Year for Energy Calculations (WYEC) data or bin weather data shall be used in the absence of other appropriate data. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.508" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.508   Determination of the design energy consumption and design energy cost.</HEAD>
<P>508.1 The Design Energy Consumption shall be calculated by modeling the Proposed Design using the same methods, assumptions, climate data, and simulation tool as were used to establish the Energy Cost Budget, except as explicitly stated in 509 through 534. The Design Energy Cost shall be calculated per Equation 508.1. 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="13" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.027.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Based on:
</FP>
<FP-2>DECOS<E T="52">m</E> = DECON<E T="52">ml</E> × ECOS<E T="52">ml</E> + . . . + DECON<E T="52">mi</E> × ECOS<E T="52">mi</E>   (Equation 508.1.2)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>DECOS = The annual Design Energy Cost
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DECOS<E T="52">m</E> = The monthly Design Energy Cost
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DECON<E T="52">mi</E> = The monthly Design Energy Consumption of the i<E T="52">th</E> type of energy
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ECOS<E T="52">mi</E> = The monthly Energy Cost per unit of the i<E T="52">th</E> type of energy</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>The DECON<E T="52">mi</E> shall be calculated from the first day through the last day of the month, inclusive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.509" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.509   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>509.1 If the Design Energy Cost is less than or equal to the Energy Cost Budget, and all of the minimum requirements of subsection 501.2 are met, the Proposed Design complies with the standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.510" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.510   Standard calculation procedure.</HEAD>
<P>510.1 The Standard Calculation Procedure consists of methods and assumptions for calculating the Energy Cost Budget for the Prototype or Reference Building and the Design Energy Consumption and Design Energy Cost of the Proposed Design. In order to maintain consistency between the Energy Cost Budget and the Design Energy Cost, the input assumptions to be used are stated below. These inputs shall be used to determine the Energy Cost Budget and the Design Energy Consumption. 
</P>
<P>510.2 Prescribed assumptions shall be used without variation. Default assumptions shall be used unless the designer can demonstrate that a different assumption better characterizes the building's energy use over its expected life. The default assumptions shall be used in modeling both the Prototype or Reference Building and the Proposed Design, unless the designer demonstrates clear cause to modify these assumptions. Special procedures for speculative buildings are discussed in subsection 503. Shell buildings may not use subpart E.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.511" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.511   Orientation and shape.</HEAD>
<P>511.1 The Prototype Building shall consist of the same number of stories, and gross and conditioned floor area as the Proposed Design, with equal area per story. The building shape shall be rectangular, with a 2.5:1 aspect ratio. The long dimensions of the building shall face East and West. The fenestration shall be uniformly distributed in proportion to exterior wall area. Floor-to-floor height for the Prototype Building shall be 13 ft. except for dwelling units in hotels/motels and multi-family high-rise residential buildings where floor-to-floor height shall be 9.5 ft. 
</P>
<P>511.2 The Reference Building shall consist of the same number of stories, and gross floor area for each story as the Proposed Design. Each floor shall be oriented in the same manner as the Proposed Design. The geometric form shall be the same as the Proposed Design. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.512" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.512   Internal loads.</HEAD>
<P>512.1 The systems and types of energy specified in this section are provided only for purposes of calculating the Energy Cost Budget. They are not requirements for either systems or the type of energy to be used in the Proposed Design or for calculation of Design Energy Cost. 
</P>
<P>512.2 Internal loads for multi-family high-rise residential buildings are prescribed in Tables 512.2.a and b, Multi-Family High Rise Residential Building Schedules. Internal loads for other building types shall be modeled as noted in this subsection. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 512.2. <E T="01">a</E>—Multi-Family High Rise Residential Buildings Schedules—One-Zone Dwelling Unit 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Internal loads per dwelling unit Btu/h] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Hour 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Occupants 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lights 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equipment 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">980</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">840</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">420 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">330 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">330 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3040</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">450 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1060</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1060</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 512.2. <E T="01">b</E>—Multi-Family High Rise Residential Building Schedules-Two-Zone Dwelling Unit 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Internal loads per dwelling unit Btu/h] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Hour 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Bedrooms &amp; bathrooms 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Other rooms 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Occupants 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lights 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equipment 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Occupants 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lights 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equipment 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">750</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">980</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1250</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">840</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">420 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">330 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2210</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">330 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1270</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">190 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3040</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">450 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1490</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1060</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">960</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1060</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 512.2. <E T="01">b</E>—Multi-Family High Rise Residential Building Schedules-Two-Zone Dwelling Unit 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Internal loads per dwelling unit Btu/h] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Hour 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Bedrooms &amp; bathrooms 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Other rooms 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Occupants 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lights 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equipment 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Occupants 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lights 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Equipment 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">680</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1050</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">380 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1070</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">310 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">310 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1170</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">170 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2940</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">430 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">480 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1190</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">160 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">790</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">320</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.513" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.513   Occupancy.</HEAD>
<P>5131 Occupancy schedules are default assumptions. The same assumptions shall be made in computing Design Energy Consumption as were used in calculating the Energy Cost Budget. 
</P>
<P>513.2 Table 513.2.a, Occupancy Density, establishes the density, in ft
<SU>2</SU> person of conditioned floor area, to be used for each building type. Table 513.2.b, Building Schedule Percentage Multipliers, establishes the percentage of total occupants in the building by hour of the day for each building type. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 513.2. <E T="01">a</E>—Occupancy Density
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Building type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conditioned floor area Ft 
<sup>2</sup> person 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assembly</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">275 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warehouse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">School</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hotel/Motel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restaurant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Health/Institutional</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multi-family High-rise Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 per unit . 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Heat generation: Btu/h per person: 230 Btu/h per person sensible, and 190 Btu/h per person latent. See Tables 512.2 a and b.</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.015.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.016.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.514" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.514   Lighting.</HEAD>
<P>514.1 Interior Lighting Power Allowance (ILPA), for calculating the Energy Cost Budget shall be determined from subsection 401.3.2. The lighting power used to calculate the Design Energy Consumption shall be the actual adjusted power for lighting in the Proposed Design. If the lighting controls in the Proposed Design are more effective at saving energy than those required by subsection 401.3.1 and 401.3.2, the actual installed lighting power shall be used along with the schedules reflecting the action of the controls to calculate the Design Energy Consumption. This actual installed lighting power shall not be adjusted by the Power Adjustment Factors listed in Table 514.1. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 514.1—Power Adjustment Factor (PAF) 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Automatic control device(s) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Standard PAF 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Occupancy Sensor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Daylight Sensing Continuous Dimming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Daylight Sensing Multiple Step Dimming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Daylight Sensing On/Off</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Lumen Maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>514.2 Table 513.2.b establishes default assumptions for the percentage of the lighting load switched-on in each Prototype or Reference Building by hour of the day. These default assumptions can be changed when calculating the Energy Cost Budget to provide, for example, a 12-hour rather than an 8-hour workday. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.515" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.515   Receptacles.</HEAD>
<P>515.1 Receptacle loads and profiles are default assumptions. The same assumptions shall be made in calculating Design Energy Consumption as were used in calculating the Energy Cost Budget. 
</P>
<P>515.2 Receptacle loads include all general service loads that are typical in a building. These loads exclude any process electrical usage and HVAC primary or auxiliary electrical usage. Table 515.2, Receptacle Power Densities, establishes the density, in W/ft
<SU>2</SU>, to be used for each building type. The receptacle energy profiles shall be the same as the lighting energy profiles in Table 513.2.b. This profile establishes the percentage of the receptacle load that is switched on by hour of the day and by building type. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 515.2—Receptacle Power Densities 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Building type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">W/ft
<sup>2</sup> of
<br/>conditioned floor
<br/>area 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assembly</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warehouse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">School</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hotel/Motel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restaurant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Health</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multi-family High Rise Residential
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Included in Lights and Equipment portions of Tables 512.2 a and b.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.516" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.516   Building exterior envelope.</HEAD>
<P>516.1 <I>Insulation and Glazing.</I> The insulation and glazing characteristics of the Prototype and Reference Building envelope shall be determined by using the first column under “Base Case”, with no assumed overhangs, for the appropriate Alternate Component Tables (ACP) in Table 402.4.1.2, as defined by climate range. The insulation and glazing characteristics from this ACP are prescribed assumptions for Prototype and Reference Buildings for calculating the Energy Cost Budget. In calculating the Design Energy Consumption of the Proposed Design, the envelope characteristics of the Proposed Design shall be used. 
</P>
<P>516.2 <I>Infiltration.</I> For Prototype and Reference Buildings, the infiltration assumptions in subsection 516.2.1 shall be prescribed assumptions for calculating the Energy Cost Budget and default assumptions for the Design Energy Consumption. Infiltration shall impact perimeter zones only. 
</P>
<P>516.2.1 When the HVAC system is switched “on,” no infiltration shall be assumed. When the HVAC system is switched “off,” the infiltration rate for buildings with or without operable windows shall be assumed to be 0.038 cfm/ft
<SU>2</SU> of gross exterior wall. Hotels/motels and multi-family high-rise residential buildings shall have infiltration rates of 0.038 cfm/ft
<SU>2</SU> of gross exterior wall area at all times. 
</P>
<P>516.3 <I>Envelope and Ground Absorptivities.</I> For Prototype and Reference Buildings, absorptivity assumptions shall be prescribed assumptions for computing the Energy Cost Budget and default assumptions for computing the Design Energy Consumption. The solar absorptivity of opaque elements of the building envelope is assumed to be 70%. The solar absorptivity of ground surfaces is assumed to be 80% (20% reflectivity). 
</P>
<P>516.4 <I>Window Management.</I> For the Prototype and Reference Building, window management drapery assumptions shall be prescribed assumptions for setting the Energy Cost Budget. No draperies shall be the default assumption for computing the Design Energy Consumption. Glazing is assumed to be internally shaded by medium-weight draperies, closed one-half time. The draperies shall be modeled by assuming that one-half the area in each zone is draped and one-half is not. If manually-operated draperies, shades, or blinds are to be used in the Proposed Design, the Design Energy Consumption shall be calculated by assuming they are effective over one-half the glazing area in each zone. 
</P>
<P>516.5 <I>Shading.</I> For Prototype and Reference buildings and the Proposed Design, shading by permanent structures, terrain, and vegetation shall be taken into account for computing energy consumption, whether or not these features are located on the building site. A permanent fixture is one that is likely to remain for the life of the Proposed Design. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.517" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.517   HVAC systems and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>517.1 The specifications and requirements for the HVAC systems of the Prototype and Reference Buildings shall be those in Table 517.1.1, HVAC Systems for Prototype and Reference Buildings. For the calculation of the Design Energy Consumption, the HVAC systems and equipment of the Proposed Design shall be used. 
</P>
<P>517.2 The systems and types of energy presented in Table 517.1.1 are assumptions for calculating the Energy Cost Budget. They are not requirements for either systems or the type of energy to be used in the Proposed Building or for the calculation of the Design Energy Cost. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 517.1.1—HVAC Systems of Prototype and Reference Buildings 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Building/space occupancy 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System No.
<br/>(Table 517.4.1) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remarks
<br/>(Table 517.4.1) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assembly: 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. Churches (any size)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. ≤50,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> or ≤3 floors</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1 or 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">c. &gt;50,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> or &gt;3 floors</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office: 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. ≤20,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. ≤50,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> and either ≤3 floors or ≤75,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">c. &lt;75,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> or &gt;3 floors</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail: 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. ≤50,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1 or 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. &gt;50,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4 or 5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warehouse</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">School: 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. ≤75,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> or ≤3 floors</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. &gt;75,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> or &gt;3 floors</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hotel/Motel: 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. ≤3 stories</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2 or 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 5, 7. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. &gt;3 stories</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 6. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restaurant</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1 or 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Health: 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">a. Nursing Home (any size)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2 or 7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 7. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">b. ≤15,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">c. &lt;15,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup> or ≤50,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 2. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">d. &gt;50,000 ft 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 2, 3. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multi-family High Rise Residential &gt;3 stories</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Space and Service Water Heating budget calculations shall be made using both electricity and natural gas. The Energy Cost Budget shall be the lower of these two calculations. If natural gas is not available at the rate, electricity and #2 fuel oil shall be used for the budget calculations. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The system and energy types presented in this Table are not intended as requirements or recommendations for the proposed design. Floor areas below are the total conditioned floor areas for the listed occupancy type in the building. The number of floors indicated below is the total number of occupied floors for the listed occupancy type.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>517.3 <I>HVAC Zones.</I> HVAC zones for calculating the Energy Cost Budget of the Prototype or Reference Building shall consist of at least four perimeter and one interior zones per floor. Prototype Buildings shall have one perimeter zone facing each cardinal direction. The perimeter zones of Prototype and Reference Buildings shall be 15 ft in width, or one-third the narrow dimension of the building, when this dimension is between 30 ft and 45 ft inclusive, or one-half the narrow dimension of the building when this dimension is less than 30 ft. Zoning requirements shall be a default assumption for calculating the Energy Cost Budget. For multi-family high-rise residential buildings, the prototype building shall have one zone per dwelling unit. The proposed design shall have one zone per unit unless zonal thermostatic controls are provided within units; in this case, two zones per unit shall be modeled. Building types such as assembly or warehouse may be modeled as a single zone if there is only one space. 
</P>
<P>517.4 For calculating the Design Energy Consumption, no fewer zones shall be used than were in the Prototype and Reference Buildings. The zones in the simulation shall correspond to the zones provided by the controls in the Proposed Design. Thermally similar zones, such as those facing one orientation on different floors, may be grouped together for the purposes of either the Design Energy Consumption or Energy Cost Budget simulation. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 517.4.1—HVAC System Description for Prototype and Reference Buildings 
<sup>1 2</sup> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HVAC component 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System #1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System #2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System #3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System #4
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">System Description</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Packaged rooftop single room, one unit per zone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Packaged terminal air conditioner with space heater or heat pump, one heating/cooling unit per zone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air handler per zone with central plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Packaged rooftop VAV w/perimeter reheat. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fan system—Design supply circulation rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 9. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supply fan total static pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3 in. W.C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 in. W.C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 in. W.C. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combined supply fan, motor, and drive efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">45%. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supply fan control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Constant volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fan Cycles with call for heating or cooling</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Constant volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VAV w/forward curved contrifugal fan and variable inlet vanes. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Return fan total static pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 in. W.C.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6 in. W.C. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combined return fan, motor, and drive efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25%. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Return fan control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Constant volume</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VAV w/forward curved centrifugal fan and discharge dampers. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooling System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct expansion air cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct expansion air cooled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chilled water (Note 1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct expansion air cooled. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heating System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Furnace, heat pump, or electric resistance (Note 8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Heat pump w/electric resistance auxiliary or air conditioner w/space heater (Note 8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot water (Note 8, 12)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot water (Note 12) or electric resistance (Note B). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remarks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dry bulb economizer per Section 7.4.3 (barometric relief)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dry bulb economizer per Section 434.514</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dry bulb economizer per Section 434.514. Minimum VAV setting per 434.514 exception 1. Supply air reset by zone of greatest cooling demand. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The systems and energy types presented in this Table are not intended as requirements or recommendations for the proposed design. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For numbered notes see end of Table 517.4.1.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 517.4.1—HVAC System Description for Prototype and Reference Buildings 
<sup>1</sup> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HVAC component 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Systems #5
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System #6 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">System #7
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">System Description</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Built-up central VAV with perimeter reheat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fourpipe fan coil per zone with central plant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Water source heat pump 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fan system—Design supply circulation rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Note 10. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supply fan total static pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 in W.C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 in W.C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 in. W.C. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combined supply fan, motor, and drive efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">55%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25%. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supply fan control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VAV w/air-foil centrifugal fan and AC frequency variable speed drive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fan Cycles with call for heating or cooling</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fan cycles w/call for heating or cooling. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Return fan total static pressure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 in W.C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Combined return fan, motor, and drive efficiency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Return fan control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">VAV with air-foil centrifugal fan and AC frequency variable speed drive</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cooling System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chilled water (Note 11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Chilled water (Note 11)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Closed circuit, centrifugal blower type cooling tower sized per Note 11. Circulating pump sized for 2.7 GPM per ton. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heating System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot water (Note 12) or electric resistance (Note 8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hot water (Note 12) or electric resistance (Note 8)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electric or natural draft fossil fuel boiler (Note 8). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remarks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dry bulb economizer per Section 7.4.3. Minimum VAV setting per Section 7.4.4.3. Supply air reset by zone of greatest cooling demand</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No economizer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tower fans and boiler cycled to maintain circulating water temperature between 60 and design tower leaving water temperature.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Numbered Notes for Table 517.4.1 
</HD1>
<HD2>HVAC System Descriptions for Prototype and Reference Buildings 
</HD2>
<P>Notes: 
</P>
<P>1. For occupancies such as restaurants, assembly and retail which are part of a mixed use building which, according to Table 517.4.1, includes a central chilled water plant (systems 3, 5, or 6), chilled water system type 3 or 5, as indicated in the Table, shall be used. 
</P>
<P>2. Constant volume may be used in zones where pressurization relationships must be maintained by code. VAV shall be used in all other areas, in accordance with § 517.4 
</P>
<P>3. Provide run-around heat recovery systems for all fan systems with minimum outside air intake greater than 75%. Recovery effectiveness shall be 0.60. 
</P>
<P>4. If a warehouse is not intended to be mechanically cooled, both the Energy Cost Budgets and Design Energy Costs, may be calculated assuming no mechanical cooling. 
</P>
<P>5. The system listed is for guest rooms only. Areas such as public areas and back-of-house areas shall be served by system 4. Other areas such as offices and retail shall be served by the systems listed in Table 517.4.1 for those occupancy types. 
</P>
<P>6. The system listed is for guest rooms only. Areas such as public areas and back-of-house areas shall be served by System 5. Other areas such as offices and retail shall be served by the systems listed in Table 517.4.1.1 for those occupancy types. 
</P>
<P>7. System 2 shall be used for Energy Cost Budget calculation except in areas with design heating outside air temperatures less than 10 °F. 
</P>
<P>8. Prototype energy budget cost calculations shall be made using both electricity and natural gas. If natural gas is not available at the site, electricity and #2 fuel oil shall be used. The Energy Cost Budget shall be the lower of these results. Alternatively, the Energy Cost Budget may be based on the fuel source that minimizes total operating, maintenance, equipment, and installation costs for the prototype over the building lifetime. Equipment and installation cost estimates shall be prepared using professionally recognized cost estimating tools, guides, and techniques. The methods of analysis shall conform to those of subpart A of 10 CFR part 436. Energy costs shall be based on actual costs to the building as defined in this Section. 
</P>
<P>9. Design supply air circulation rate shall be based on a supply air to room air temperature differences of 20 °F. A higher supply air temperature may be used if required to maintain a minimum circulation rate of 4.5 air changes per hour or 15 cfm per person at design conditions to each zone served by the system. If return fans are specified, they shall be sized from the supply fan capacity less the required minimum ventilation with outside air, or 75% or the supply air capacity, whichever is larger. Except where noted, supply and return fans shall be operated continually during occupied hours. 
</P>
<P>10. Fan System Energy when included in the efficiency rating of the unit as defined in § 403.2.4.3 need not be modeled explicitly for this system. The fan shall cycle with calls for heating or cooling. 
</P>
<P>11. Chilled water systems shall be modeled using a reciprocating chiller for systems with total cooling capacities less than 175 tons, and centrifugal chillers for systems with cooling capacities of 175 tons or greater. For systems with cooling or 600 ton or more, the Energy Cost Budget shall be calculated using two centrifugal chillers lead/lag controlled. Chilled water pumps shall be sized using a 12 °F temperature rise, from 44 °F to 56 °F operating at 65 feed of head and 65% combined impeller and motor efficiency. Condenser water pumps shall be sized using a 10 °F temperature rise, operating at 60 feet of head and 60% combined impeller and motor efficiency. The cooling tower shall be an open circuit, centrifugal blower type sized for the larger of 85 °F leaving water temperature or 10 °F approach to design wet bulb temperature. The tower shall be controlled to provide a 65 °F leaving water temperature whenever weather conditions permit, floating up to design leaving water temperature at design conditions. Chilled water supply temperature shall be reset in accordance with § 434.518. 
</P>
<P>12. Hot water system shall include a natural draft fossil fuel or electric boiler per Note 8. The hot water pump shall be sized based on a 30 °F temperature drop, for 18 °F to 150 °F, operating at 60 feet of head and a combined impeller and motor efficiency of 60%. Hot water supply temperature shall be reset in accordance with § 434.518.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>517.5 <I>Equipment Sizing and Redundant Equipment.</I> For calculating the Energy Cost Budget of Prototype or Reference Buildings, HVAC equipment shall be sized to meet the requirements of subsection 403.2.2, without using any of the exceptions. The size of equipment shall be that required for the building without process loads considered. Redundant or emergency equipment need not be simulated if it is controlled so that it will not be operated during normal operations of the building. The designer shall document the installation of process equipment and the size of process loads. 
</P>
<P>517.6 For calculating the Design Energy Consumption, actual air flow rates and installed equipment size shall be used in the simulation, except that excess capacity provided to meet process loads need not be modeled unless the process load was not modeled in setting Energy Cost Budget. Equipment sizing in the simulation of the Proposed Design shall correspond to the equipment actually selected for the design and the designer shall not use equipment sized automatically by the simulation tool. 
</P>
<P>517.6.1 Redundant or emergency equipment need not be simulated if it is controlled to not be operated during normal operations of the building. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.518" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.518   Service water heating.</HEAD>
<P>518.1 The service water loads for Prototype and Reference Buildings are defined in terms of Btu/h per person in Table 518.1.1, Service Hot Water Quantities. The service water heating loads from Table 518.1.1 are prescribed assumptions for multi-family high-rise residential buildings and default assumptions for all other buildings. The same service water heating load assumptions shall be made in calculating Design Energy Consumption as were used in calculating the Energy Cost Budget. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 518.1.1—Service Hot water Quantities 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Building type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Btu/person-hour 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Assembly</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">175 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Warehouse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">225 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">School</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">215 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hotel/Motel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1110 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restaurant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Health</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multi-family High Rise Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 1700 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This value is the number to be multiplied by the percentage multipliers of the Building Profile Schedules in Table 513.2.b. See Table 513.2.a for occupancy levels. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Total hot water use per dwelling unit for each hour shall be 3,400 Btu/h times the multi-family high rise residential building SWH system multiplier from Table 513.2.b.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>518.2 The service water heating system, including piping losses for the Prototype Building, shall be modeled using the methods of the RS-47 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) using a system that meets all requirements of subsection 404. The service water heating equipment for the Prototype or Reference Building shall be either an electric heat pump or natural gas, or if natural gas is not available at the site, #2 fuel oil. Exception: If electric resistance service water heating is preferable to an electric heat pump when analyzed according to the criteria of § 434.404.1.4 or when service water temperatures exceeding 145 °F are required for a particular application, electric resistance water heating may be used. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.519" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.519   Controls.</HEAD>
<P>519.1 All occupied conditioned spaces in the Prototype, Reference and Proposed Design Buildings in all climates shall be simulated as being both heated and cooled. The assumptions in this subsection are prescribed assumptions. If the Proposed Design does not include equipment for cooling or heating, the Design Energy Consumption shall be determined by the specifications for calculating the Energy Cost Budget as described in Table 517.4.1 HVAC System Description for Prototype and Reference Buildings. Exceptions to 519.1 are as follows: 
</P>
<P>519.1.1 If a building is to be provided with only heating or cooling, both the Prototype or Reference Building and the Proposed Design shall be simulated, using the same assumptions. Such an assumption cannot be made unless the building interior temperature meets the comfort criteria of RS-2 (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) at least 98% of the occupied hours during the year. 
</P>
<P>519.1.2 If warehouses are not intended to be mechanically cooled, both the Energy Cost Budget and Design Energy Consumption shall be modeled assuming no mechanical cooling; and 
</P>
<P>519.1.3 In climates where winter design temperature (97.5% occurrence) is greater than 59 °F, space heating need not be modeled. 
</P>
<P>519.2 Space temperature controls for the Prototype or Reference Building, except multi-family high-rise residential buildings, shall be set at 70 °F for space heating and 75 °F for space cooling with a deadband per subsection 403.2.6.3. The system shut off during off-hours shall be according to the schedule in Table 515.2, except that the heating system shall cycle on if any space should drop below the night setback setting of 55 °F. There shall be no similar setpoint during the cooling season. Lesser deadband ranges may be used in calculating the Design Energy Consumption. Exceptions to 519.2 are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) Setback shall not be modeled in determining either the Energy Cost Budget or Design Energy Cost if setback is not realistic for the Proposed Design, such as 24-hour/day operations. Health facilities need not have night setback during the heating season; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Hotel/motels and multi-family high-rise residential buildings shall have a night setback temperature of 60 °F from 11:00 p.m. to 6:00 a.m. during the heating season; and 
</P>
<P>(c) If deadband controls are not to be installed, the Design Energy Cost shall be calculated with both heating and cooling thermostat setpoints set to the same value between 70 °F and 75 °F inclusive, assumed to be constant for the year. 
</P>
<P>519.2.1 For multi-family buildings, the thermostat schedule for the dwelling units shall be as in Table 519.1.2, Thermostat Settings for Multi-Family High-rise Buildings. The Prototype Building shall use the single zone schedule. The Proposed Design shall use the two-zone schedule only if zonal thermostatic controls are provided. For Proposed Designs that use heat pumps employing supplementary heat, the controls used to switch on the auxiliary heat source during morning warm-up periods shall be simulated accurately. The thermostat assumptions for multi-family high-rise buildings are prescribed assumptions. 
</P>
<P>519.3 When providing for outdoor air ventilation in calculating the Energy Cost Budget, controls shall be assumed to close the outside air intake to reduce the flow of outside air to 0 cfm during setback and unoccupied periods. Ventilation using inside air may still be required to maintain scheduled setback temperature. Outside air ventilation, during occupied periods, shall be as required by RS-41, (incorporated by reference, see § 434.701) or the Proposed Design, whichever is greater. 
</P>
<P>519.4 If humidification is to be used in the Proposed Design, the same level of humidification and system type shall be used in the Prototype or Reference Building. If dehumidification requires subcooling of supply air, then reheat for the Prototype or Reference Building shall be from recovered waste heat such as condenser waste heat. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 519.1.2—Thermostat Settings for Multi-Family High-Rise Residential Buildings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Time of day 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Single zone dwelling unit 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Two zone dwelling unit 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Heat 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Cool 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Bedrooms/bathrooms 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Other rooms 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heat 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cool 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Heat 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Cool 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Midnight-6 a.m.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 a.m.-9 a.m.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 a.m.-5 p.m.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 p.m.-11 p.m.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 p.m.-Midnight</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">78</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.520" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.520   Speculative buildings.</HEAD>
<P>520.1 Lighting. The interior lighting power allowance (ILPA) for calculating the Energy Cost Budget shall be determined from Table 401.3.2a. The Design Energy Consumption may be based on an assumed adjusted lighting power for future lighting improvements. 
</P>
<P>520.2 The assumption about future lighting power used to calculate the Design Energy Consumption must be documented so that the future installed lighting systems may be in compliance with these standards. Documentation must be provided to enable future lighting systems to use either the Prescriptive method or the Systems Performance method of subsection 401.3. 
</P>
<P>520.3 Documentation for future lighting systems that use subsection 401.3 shall be stated as a maximum adjusted lighting power for the tenant spaces. The adjusted lighting power allowance for tenant spaces shall account for the lighting power provided for the common areas of the building. 
</P>
<P>520.4 Documentation for future lighting systems that use subsection 401.3 shall be stated as a required lighting adjustment. The required lighting adjustment is the whole building lighting power assumed in order to calculate the Design Energy Consumption minus the ILPA value from Table 401.3.2c that was used to calculate the Energy Cost Budget. When the required lighting adjustment is less than zero, a complete lighting design must be developed for one or more representative tenant spaces, demonstrating acceptable lighting within the limits of the assumed lighting power allowance. 
</P>
<P>520.5 HVAC Systems and Equipment. If the HVAC system is not completely specified in the plans, the Design Energy Consumption shall be based on reasonable assumptions about the construction of future HVAC systems and equipment. These assumptions shall be documented so that future HVAC systems and equipment may be in compliance with these standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.521" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.5.77.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.521   The simulation tool.</HEAD>
<P>521.1 Annual energy consumption shall be simulated with a multi-zone, 8760 hours per year building energy model. The model shall account for: 
</P>
<P>521.1.1 The dynamic heat transfer of the building envelope such as solar and internal gains; 
</P>
<P>521.1.2 Equipment efficiencies as a function of load and climate; 
</P>
<P>521.1.3 Lighting and HVAC system controls and distribution systems by simulating the whole building; 
</P>
<P>521.1.4 The operating schedule of the building including night setback during various times of the year; and 
</P>
<P>521.1.5 Energy consumption information at a level necessary to determine the Energy Cost Budget and Design Energy Cost through the appropriate utility rate schedules. 
</P>
<P>521.1.6 While the simulation tool should simulate an entire year on an hour by hour basis (8760 hours), programs that approximate this dynamic analysis procedure and provide equivalent results are acceptable. 
</P>
<P>521.1.7 Simulation tools shall be selected for their ability to simulate accurately the relevant features of the building in question, as shown in the tool's documentation. For example, a single-zone model shall not be used to simulate a large, multi-zone building, and a steady-state model such as the degree-day method shall not be used to simulate buildings when equipment efficiency or performance is significantly affected by the dynamic patterns of weather, solar radiation, and occupancy. Relevant energy-related features shall be addressed by a model such as daylighting, atriums or sunspaces, night ventilation or thermal storage, chilled water storage or heat recovery, active or passive solar systems, zoning and controls of heating and cooling systems, and ground-coupled buildings. In addition, models shall be capable of translating the Design Energy Consumption into energy cost using actual utility rate schedules with the coincidental electrical demand of a building. Examples of public domain models capable of handling such complex building systems and energy cost translations available in the United States are DOE—2.1C and BLAST 3.0 and in Canada, Energy Systems Analysis Series. 
</P>
<P>521.1.8 All simulation tools shall use scientifically justifiable documented techniques and procedures for modeling building loads, systems, and equipment. The algorithms used in the program shall have been verified by comparison with experimental measurements, loads, systems, and equipment. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Building Energy Compliance Alternative</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.601" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.6.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.601   General.</HEAD>
<P>601.1 This subpart provides an alternative path for compliance with the standards that allow for greater flexibility in the design of energy efficient buildings using an annual energy use method. This path provides an opportunity for the use of innovative designs, materials, and equipment such as daylighting, passive solar heating, and heat recovery, that may not be adequately evaluated by methods found in subpart D. 
</P>
<P>601.2 The Building Energy Compliance Alternative shall be used with subpart C and subpart D, 401.1, 401.2, 401.3.4 and in conjunction with the minimum requirements found in subsections 402.1, 402.2, and 402.3., 403.1, 403.2.1-7, 403.2.9 and 404. 
</P>
<P>601.3 Compliance under this section is demonstrated by showing that the calculated annual energy usage for the Proposed Design is less than or equal to a calculated Energy Use Budget. (See Figure 601.3, Building Energy Compliance Alternative). The analytical procedures in this subpart are only for determining design compliance, and are not to be used either to predict, document or verify annual energy consumption. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.017.gif"/>
<P>601.4 Compliance under the Building Energy Use Budget method requires a detailed energy analysis, using a conventional simulation tool, of the Proposed Design. A life cycle cost analysis shall be used to select the fuel source for the HVAC systems, service hot water, and process loads from available alternatives. The Annual Energy Consumption of the Proposed Design with the life cycle cost-effective fuel selection is calculated to determine the modeled energy consumption, called the Design Energy Use. 
</P>
<P>601.5 The Design Energy Use is defined as the energy that is consumed within the five foot line of a proposed building per ft
<SU>2</SU> over a 24-hour day, 365-day year period and specified operating hours. The calculated Design Energy Use is then compared to a calculated Energy Use Budget. 
</P>
<P>601.6 <I>Compliance.</I> The Energy Use Budget is determined by calculating the annual energy usage for a Reference or Prototype Building that is configured to comply with the provisions of subpart E for such buildings, except that the fuel source(s) of the Prototype or Reference Building shall be the same life cycle cost-effective source(s) selected for the Proposed Design. If the Design Energy Use is less than or equal to the Energy Use Budget then the proposed design complies with these standards. 
</P>
<P>601.7 This section provides instructions for determining the Design Energy Use and for calculating the Energy Use Budget. The Energy Use Budget is the highest allowable calculated annual energy consumption for a specified building design. Designers are encouraged to design buildings whose Design Energy Use is lower than the Energy Use Budget. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.602" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.6.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.602   Determination of the annual energy budget.</HEAD>
<P>602.1 The Energy Use Budget shall be calculated for the appropriate Prototype or Reference Building in accordance with the procedures prescribed in subsection 502 with the following exceptions: The Energy Use Budget shall be stated in units of Btu/ft
<SU>2</SU>/yr and the simulation tool shall segregate the calculated energy consumption by fuel type producing an Energy Use Budget for each fuel (the fuel selections having been made by a life cycle cost analysis in determining the proposed design). 
</P>
<P>602.2 The Energy Use Budget is calculated similarly for the Reference or Prototype Building using equation 602.2. 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="13" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.029.gif"/></MATH>
<P>Where EUB<E T="52">1</E>, EUB<E T="52">2</E>, EUB<E T="52">i</E> are the calculated annual energy targets for each fuel used in the Reference or Prototype building and f<E T="52">1</E>, f<E T="52">2</E>, . . . f<E T="52">i</E> are the energy conversion factors given in Table 602.2, Fuel Conversion Factors for Computing Design Annual Energy Uses. In lieu of case by case calculation of the Energy Use Budget, the designer may construct Energy Use Budget tables for the combinations of energy source(s) that may be considered in a set of project designs, such as electric heating, electric service water, and gas cooling or oil heating, gas service water and electric cooling. The values in such optional Energy Use Budget tables shall be equal to or less than the corresponding Energy Use Budgets calculated on a case by case basis according to this section. Energy Use Budget tables shall be constructed to correspond to the climatic regions and building types in accordance with provisions for Prototype or Reference Building models in subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 602.2—Fuel Conversion Factors, for Computing Design Annual Energy Uses 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fuels 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conversion factor 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electricity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3412 Btu/kilowatt hour. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fuel Oil</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">138,700 Btu/gallon. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Natural Gas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,031,000 Btu/1000 ft
<sup>2</sup>. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquified Petroleum (including Propane and Butane)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95,5000 Btu/gallon. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Anthracite Coal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">28,300,000 Btu/short ton. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bituminous Coal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24,580,000 Btu/short ton. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Purchase Steam and Steam from Central Plants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000 Btu/Pound. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Temperature or Medium Temperature Water from Central Plants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use the heat value based on the water actually delivered at the building five foot line. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> At specific locations where the energy source Btu content varies significantly from the value presented above then the local fuel value may be used provided there is supporting documentation from the fuel source supplier stating this actual energy value and varifying that this value will remain consistent for the foreseeable future. The fuel content for fuels not given this table shall be determined from the best available source.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.603" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.6.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.603   Determination of the design energy use.</HEAD>
<P>603.1 The Design Energy Use shall be calculated by modeling the Proposed Design using the same methods, assumptions, climate data, and simulation tool as were used to establish the Energy Use Budget, but with the design features that will be used in the final building design. The simulation tool used shall segregate the calculated energy consumption by fuel type giving an annual Design Energy Use for each fuel. The sum of the Design Energy Uses multiplied by the fuel conversion factors in Table 602.2 yields the Design Energy Use for the proposed design: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.030.gif"/>
<P>Where f<E T="52">1</E>, f<E T="52">2</E>, * * * f<E T="52">i</E> are the fuel conversion factors in Table 602.2. 
</P>
<P>603.2 <I>Required Life Cycle Cost Analysis for Fuel Selection.</I> 
</P>
<P>603.2.1 Fuel sources selected for the Proposed Design and Prototype or Reference buildings shall be determined by considering the energy cost and other costs and cost savings that occur during the expected economic life of the alternative. 
</P>
<P>603.2.2 The designer shall use the procedures set forth in subpart A of 10 CFR part 436 to make this determination. The fuel selection life cycle cost analysis shall include the following steps: 
</P>
<P>603.2.2.1 Determine the feasible alternatives for energy sources of the Proposed Design's HVAC systems, service hot water, and process loads. 
</P>
<P>603.2.2.2 Model the Proposed Design including the alternative HVAC and service water systems and conduct an annual energy analysis for each fuel source alternative using the simulation tool specified in this section. The annual energy analysis shall be computed on a monthly basis in conformance with subpart E with the exception that all process loads shall be included in the calculation. Separate the output of the analysis by fuel type. 
</P>
<P>603.2.2.3 Determine the unit price of each fuel using information from the utility or other reliable local source. During rapid changes in fuel prices it is recommended that an average fuel price for the previous twelve months be used in lieu of the current price. Calculate the annual energy cost of each energy source alternative in accordance with procedures in subpart E for the Design Energy Cost. Estimate the initial cost of the HVAC and service water systems and other initial costs such as energy distribution lines and service connection fees associated with each fuel source alternative. Estimate other costs and benefits for each alternative including, but not necessarily limited to, annual maintenance and repair, periodic and one time major repairs and replacements and salvage of the energy and service water systems. Cost estimates shall be prepared using professionally recognized cost estimating tools, guides and techniques. 
</P>
<P>603.2.2.4 Perform a life cycle cost analysis using the procedure specified in subsection 603.2. 
</P>
<P>603.2.2.5 Compare the total life cycle cost of each energy source alternative. The alternative with the lowest total life cycle cost shall be chosen as the energy source for the proposed design. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.604" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.6.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.604   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>604.1 Compliance with this section is demonstrated if the Design Energy Use is equal to or less than the Energy Use Budget. 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="12" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er06oc00.031.gif"/></MATH>
<P>604.2 The energy consumption shall be measured at the building five foot line for all fuels. Energy consumed from non-depletable energy sources and heat recovery systems shall not be included in the Design Energy Use calculations. The thermal efficiency of fixtures, equipment, systems or plants in the proposed design shall be simulated by the selected calculation tool. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.605" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.6.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.605   Standard Calculation Procedure.</HEAD>
<P>605.1 The Standard Calculation Procedure consists of methods and assumptions for calculating the Energy Use Budgets for Prototype and Reference Buildings and the Energy Use for the Proposed Design. In order to maintain consistency between the Energy Use Budgets and the Design Energy Use, the input assumptions stated in subsection 510.2 are to be used. 
</P>
<P>605.2 The terms Energy Cost Budget and Design Energy Cost or Design Energy Consumption used in subpart E of this part correlate to Energy Use Budget and Design Energy Use, respectively, in subpart F of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.606" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.6.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.606   Simulation tool.</HEAD>
<P>606.1 The criteria established in subsection 521 for the selection of a simulation tool shall be followed when using the compliance path prescribed in subpart F of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.607" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.6.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.607   Life cycle cost analysis criteria.</HEAD>
<P>607.1 The following life cycle cost criteria applies to the fuel selection requirements of this subpart and to option life cycle cost analyses performed to evaluate energy conservation design alternatives. The fuel source(s) selection shall be made in accordance with the requirements of subpart A of 10 CFR part 436. When performing optional life cycle cost analyses of energy conservation opportunities the designer may use the life cycle cost procedures of subpart A of 10 CFR part 436 or OMB Circular 1-94 or an equivalent procedure that meets the assumptions listed below: 
</P>
<P>607.1.1 The economic life of the Prototype Building and Proposed Design shall be 25 years. Anticipated replacements or renovations of energy related features and systems in the Prototype or Reference Building and Proposed Design during this period shall be included in their respective life cycle cost calculations. 
</P>
<P>607.1.2 The designer shall follow established professional cost estimating practices when determining the costs and benefits associated with the energy related features of the Prototype or Reference Building and Proposed Design. 
</P>
<P>607.1.3 All costs shall be expressed in current dollars. General inflation shall be disregarded. Differential escalation of prices (prices estimated to rise faster or slower than general inflation) for energy used in the life cycle cost calculations shall be those in effect at the time of the latest “Annual Energy Outlook” (DOE/EIA-0383) as published by the Department of Energy's Energy Information Administration. 
</P>
<P>607.1.4 The economic effects of taxes, depreciation and other factors not consistent with the practices of subpart A of 10 CFR part 436 shall not be included in the life cycle cost calculation. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Reference Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 434.701" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.3.7.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 434.701   General.</HEAD>
<P>701.1 <I>General.</I> The standards, technical handbooks, papers, regulations, and portions thereof, that are referred to in the sections and subsections in the following list are hereby incorporated by reference into this part 434. The following standards have been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 522(a) and 1 CFR part 51. A notice of any change in these materials will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The standards incorporated by reference are available for inspection at the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency, Hearings and Dockets, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I> The standards may be purchased at the addresses listed at the end of each standard. The following standards are incorporated by reference in this part:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ref. No. 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Standard designation 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CFR section 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/ASHRAE/IESNA 90.1-1989, Energy Efficient Design of New Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings, and Addenda 90.1b-1992, 90.1c-1993, 90.1d-1992, 90.1e-1992, 90.1f-1995, 90.1g-1993, 90.1i-1993, American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., ASHRAE 1791 Tullie Circle NE, Atlanta, GA 30329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.301.1; 434.402.1.2.4; 434.402.4.2; 434.403.2.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/ASHRAE 55-1992 including addenda 55a-1995, Thermal Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy, American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1791 Tullie Circle NE, Atlanta, GA 30329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.301.2; 434.519.1.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NEMA MG1-1993, “Motors and Generators,” Revision No. 1, December 7, 1993, National Electrical Manufacturers Association, 1300 North 17th Street, Suite 1847, Rosslyn, VA 22209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.401.2.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASHRAE, Handbook, 1993 Fundamentals Volume, American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1791 Tullie Circle NE, Atlanta, GA 30329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.1.1; 434.402.1.2.1; 434.402.1.2.2; 434.402.1.2.4; 434.402.2.2.5. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C 177-85 (Reapproved 1993), Test Method for Steady-State Heat Flux Measurements and Thermal Transmission Properties by Means of the Guarded-Hot-Plate Apparatus, American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.1.1; 434.402.1.2.1; 434.402.1.2.2. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C 518-91, Test Method for Steady-State Heat Flux Measurements and Thermal Transmission Properties by Means of the Heat Flow Meter Apparatus, American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.1.1; 434.402.1.2.1; Table 402.1.2.2; Table 403.2.9.2. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C 236-89 (Reapproved 1993), Test Method for Steady-State Thermal Performance of Building Assemblies by Means of a Guarded Hot Box, American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.1.1; 434.402.1.2.1; 434.402.1.2.2. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C 976-90, Test Method for Thermal Performance of Building Assemblies by Means of a Calibrated Hot Box, American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.1.1; 434.402.1.2.1; 434.402.1.2.2. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Report TVAHB-3007, 1981, “Thermal Bridges in Sheet Metal Construction” by Gudni Johannesson. Lund Institute of Technology, Lund, Sweden</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.1.2.3. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM E 283-91, Test Method for Determining the Rate of Air Leakage Through Exterior Windows, Curtain Walls, and Doors Under Specified Pressure Difference Across the Specimen, American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.2; 434.402.2.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AAMA/NWWDA 101/I.S.2-97, Voluntary Specifications for Aluminum, Vinyl (PVC) and Wood Windows and Glass Doors, American Architectural Manufacturers Association, 1827 Walden Office Square, Suite 104, Schaumburg, IL 60173-4628</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.2.1; 434.402.2.2.4. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM D 4099-95, Standard Specification for Poly (Vinyl Chloride) (PVC) Prime Windows/Sliding Glass Doors, American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.2.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AAMA/NWWDA 101/I.S.2-97, Voluntary Specifications for Aluminum, Vinyl (PVC) and Wood Windows and Glass Doors, National Wood Window and Door Association (formerly the National Woodwork Manufacturers Association), 1400 East Toughy Avenue, Suite 470, Des Plaines, IL 60018</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.2.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NWWDA I.S.3-95, Wood Sliding Patio Doors, National Wood Window and Door Association (formerly the National Woodwork Manufacturers Association), 1400 East Toughy Avenue, Suite 470, Des Plaines, IL 60018</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.2.2.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 210/240-94, Unitary Air-Conditioning and Air-Source Heat Pump Equipment 1994. Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Suite 425, Arlington, VA 22203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 340/360-93, Commercial and Industrial Unitary Air-Conditioning and Heat Pump Equipment 1993 edition. Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Suite 425, Arlington, VA 22203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 310/380-93, Packaged Terminal Air-Conditioners and Heat Pumps, 1993 edition. Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Suite 425, Arlington, VA 22203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFRC 100-97, Procedure for Determining Fenestration Product Thermal Properties, National Fenestration Rating Council, Inc., 1300 Spring Street, Suite 500, Silver Spring, MD 20910</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.1.2.4. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFRC 200—Procedure for Determining Fenestration Product Solar Heat Gain Coefficients at Normal Incidence (1995) National Fenestration Rating Council, Inc., 1300 Spring Street, Suite 500, Silver Spring, MD 20910</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.402.1.2.4. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Z21.47-1993, Gas-Fired Central Furnaces, including addenda Z21.47a-1995, American Gas Association, 400 North Capitol Street, N.W. Washington, DC 20001</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.L. 727, including addendum dated January 30, 1996, Oil-Fired Central Furnaces (Eighth Edition) 1994, available from: Global Documents, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112-5704, Underwriters Laboratories, Northbrook, IL 60062, 1994.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z83.9-90, Including addenda Z83.9a-1992, Gas-Fired Duct Furnaces, 1990. (Addendum 90.1b) available from: Global Documents, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112-5704</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z83.8-96, Gas Unit Heater and Gas-Fired Duct Furnaces, American National Standards Institute, 11 West 42nd Street, New York, NY 10036</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.L. 731, Oil-Fired Unit Heaters (Fifth Edition) 1995 available from: Global Documents, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112-5704, Underwriters Laboratories, Northbrook, IL 60062</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CTI Standard-201, Standard for the Certification of Water-Cooling Towers Thermal Performance, November 1996, Cooling Tower Institute, P.O. Box 73383, Houston, TX 77273</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-27</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 320-93, Water-Source Heat Pumps, Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 325-93, Ground Water-Source Heat Pumps, Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-29</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 365-94, Commercial and Industrial Unitary Air-Conditioning Condensing Units, Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 550-92, Centrifugal and Rotary Screw Water-Chilling Packages, Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 590-92, Positive Displacement Compressor Water-Chilling Packages, Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z21.13-1991, including addenda Gas-Fired Low-Pressure Steam and Hot Water Boilers, Addenda Z21.13a-1993 and Z21-13b-1994, American National Standards Institute, 11 West 42nd Street, New York, NY 10036</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/U.L. 726 (7th edition, 1995), Oil-Fired Boiler Assemblies, available from: Global Documents, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112-5704, Underwriters Laboratories, Northbrook, IL 60062</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-34</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HVAC Duct Construction Standards—Metal and Flexible, 2nd edition, 1995, Sheet Metal and Air-Conditioning Contractors' National Association, Inc., 4201 Lafayette Center Drive, Chantilly, VA 20151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.2.9.3. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">HVAC Air Duct Leakage Test Manual, 1st edition, 1985, Sheet Metal and Air-Conditioning Contractors' National Association, Inc., 4201 Lafayette Center Drive, Chantilly, VA 20151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.2.9.3; 434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standards, 6th edition, 1992, Sheet Metal and Air-Conditioning Contractors National Association, Inc., 4201 Lafayette Center Drive, Chantilly, VA 20151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.2.9.3. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-37</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reserved 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-38</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z21.56-1994, Gas-Fired Pool Heaters; Addenda Z21.56a-1996, American National Standards Institute, 11 West 42nd Street, New York, NY 10036; American Gas Association, 1515 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Table 404.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z21.10.3-1993, Gas Water Heaters, Volume III, Storage with Input Ratings above 75,000 Btu's per Hour, Circulating and Instantaneous Water Heaters, American National Standards Institute, 11 West 42nd Street, New York, NY 10036; American Gas Association, 1515 Wilson Boulevard, Arlington, VA 22209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Table 404.1; 434.404.1.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AHAM RAC-1-1992, Room Air Conditioners, Association of Home Appliance Manufacturers, 20 North Wacker Drive, Chicago, IL 60606</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASHRAE Standard 62-1989, Ventilation for Acceptable Indoor Air Quality, American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, 1791 Tulle Circle, Atlanta, GA 30329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.2.4; 434.403.2.8; 434.519.3. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z21.66-1996, Automatic Vent Damper Devices for Use with Gas-Fired Appliances, available from: Global Documents, 15 Inverness Way East, Englewood, CO 80112-5704.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.404.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NEMA MG 10-1994, Energy Management Guide for Selection and Use of Polyphase Motors, National Electric Manufacturers Association, National Electrical Manufacturers Association, 1300 North 17th Street, Suite 1847, Rosslyn, VA 22209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.401.2.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NEMA MG 11-1977 (Revised 1982, 1987, Energy Management Guide for Selection and Use of Single-Phase Motors, National Electrical Manufacturers Association, National Electrical Manufacturers Association, 1300 North 17th Street, Suite 1847, Rosslyn, VA 22209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.401.2.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 330-93, Ground-Source Closed-Loop Heat Pumps, Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI Standard 560-92, Absorption Water Chilling and Water Heating Packages, Air-Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 4301 North Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.403.1. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">RS-47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASHRAE, Handbook, HVAC Applications; I-P Edition, 1995, American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1791 Tullie Circle NE, Atlanta, GA 30329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">434.518.2.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 60012, Oct. 6, 2000, as amended at 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004]



</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="435" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 435—ENERGY EFFICIENCY STANDARDS FOR THE DESIGN AND CONSTRUCTION OF NEW FEDERAL LOW-RISE RESIDENTIAL BUILDINGS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6831-6832; 6834-6836; 42 U.S.C. 8253-54; 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 32545, Aug. 25, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Mandatory Energy Efficiency Standards for Federal Low-Rise Residential Buildings.</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 70283, Dec. 4, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 435.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.1.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes energy efficiency performance standard for the construction of new Federal low-rise residential buildings as required by section 305(a) of the Energy Conservation and Production Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6834(a)).
</P>
<P>(b) This part also establishes a maximum allowable fossil fuel-generated energy consumption standard for new Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings and major renovations to Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after May 1, 2025
</P>
<P>(c) This part also establishes green building certification requirements for new Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings and major renovations to Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after October 14, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 70283, Dec. 4, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014; 89 FR 35433, May 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.1.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms, phrases and words shall be defined as follows:


</P>
<P><I>Construction cost</I> means all costs associated with the construction of a new Federal building. It includes, but not limited to, the cost of preliminary planning, engineering, architectural, permitting, fiscal, and economic investigations and studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, procedures, and other similar actions necessary for the construction of a new Federal building. It does not include the cost of acquiring the land.


</P>
<P><I>Design for construction</I> means the stage when the energy efficiency and sustainability details (such as insulation levels, HVAC systems, water-using systems, etc.) are either explicitly determined or implicitly included in a project cost specification.


</P>
<P><I>Design for renovation</I> means the stage when the energy efficiency and sustainability details (such as insulation levels, HVAC systems, water-using systems, etc.) are either explicitly determined or implicitly included in a renovation project cost specification.


</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means U.S. Department of Energy.


</P>
<P><I>EISA-subject building or project</I> means, for purposes of this rule, any new building or renovation project that is subject to the cost thresholds and reporting requirements in Section 433 of EISA ((42 U.S.C. 6834(a)(3)(D)(i))). The cost threshold referenced in Section 433 of EISA is $2.5 million in 2007 dollars. GSA provides a table of annual updates to this cost threshold at <I>https://www.gsa.gov/real-estate/design-and-construction/annual-prospectus-thresholds.</I> GSA also provides a second cost threshold for renovations of leased buildings that is 
<FR>1/2</FR> of the cost threshold for renovation of Federally owned buildings.


</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any department, agency, corporation, or other entity or instrumentality of the executive branch of the Federal Government, including the United States Postal Service, the Federal National Mortgage Association, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation.


</P>
<P><I>Federal building</I> means any building to be constructed by, or for the use of, any Federal agency. Such term shall include buildings built for the purpose of being leased by a Federal agency and privatized military housing.


</P>
<P><I>Fiscal Year (FY)</I> means the 12-month period beginning on October 1 of the year prior to the specified calendar year and ending on September 30 of the specified calendar year.


</P>
<P><I>Fossil fuel-generated energy consumption</I> means the on-site stationary consumption of fossil fuels that contribute to Scope 1 emissions for generation of electricity, heat, cooling, or steam as defined by “Federal Greenhouse Gas Accounting and Reporting Guidance” (Council on Environmental Quality, January 17, 2016). This includes, but is not limited to, emissions that result from combustion of fuels in stationary sources (<I>e.g.,</I> boilers, furnaces, turbines, and emergency generators). This term does not include mobile sources, fugitive emissions, or process emissions as defined by “Federal Greenhouse Gas Accounting and Reporting Guidance” (Council on Environmental Quality, January 17, 2016).


</P>
<P><I>ICC</I> means International Code Council.
</P>
<P><I>IECC</I> means International Energy Conservation Code.
</P>
<P><I>IECC Baseline Building 2004</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in the ICC IECC 2004 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3).
</P>
<P><I>IECC Baseline Building 2009</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in the ICC IECC 2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3).
</P>
<P><I>IECC Baseline Building 2015</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in the ICC IECC 2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3).
</P>
<P><I>IECC Baseline Building 2021</I> means a building that is otherwise identical to the proposed building but is designed to meet, but not exceed, the energy efficiency specifications in the ICC IECC 2021 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3).
</P>
<P><I>Life-cycle cost</I> means the total cost related to energy conservation measures of owning, operating and maintaining a building over its useful life as determined in accordance with 10 CFR part 436.
</P>
<P><I>Life-cycle cost-effective</I> means that the proposed building has a lower life-cycle cost than the life-cycle costs of the baseline building, as described by 10 CFR 436.19, or has a positive estimated net savings, as described by 10 CFR 436.20, or has a savings-to-investment ratio estimated to be greater than one, as described by 10 CFR 436.21; or has an adjusted internal rate of return, as described by 10 CFR 436.22, that is estimated to be greater than the discount rate as listed in OMB Circular Number A-94 “Guidelines and Discount Rates for Benefit-Cost Analysis of Federal Programs.”
</P>
<P><I>Low-rise residential building</I> means any building three stories or less in height above grade that includes sleeping accommodations where the occupants are primarily permanent in nature (30 days or more).


</P>
<P><I>Major renovation</I> means either major renovation of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in a building or major renovation of one or more Scope 1 fossil fuel-using building systems or components, as defined in this section.




</P>
<P><I>Major renovation cost</I> means all costs associated with the repairing, remodeling, improving, extending, or other changes in a Federal building. It includes, but is not limited to, the cost of preliminary planning, engineering, architectural, permitting, fiscal, and economic investigations and studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, procedures, and other similar actions necessary for the alteration of a Federal building.


</P>
<P><I>Major renovation of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in a building</I> means construction on an existing building that is so extensive that it replaces all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in the building. This term includes, but is not limited to, comprehensive replacement or restoration of most or all major systems, interior work (such as ceilings, partitions, doors, floor finishes, etc.), or building elements and features.


</P>
<P><I>Major renovation of a Scope 1 fossil fuel-using building system or Scope 1 fossil fuel-using component</I> means changes to a building that provide significant opportunities for energy efficiency or reduction in fossil fuel-related energy consumption. This includes, but is not limited to, replacement of the HVAC system, hot water system, or cooking system, or other fossil fuel-using systems or components of the building that have a major impact on fossil fuel usage.


</P>
<P><I>New Federal building</I> means any new building (including a complete replacement of an existing building from the foundation up) to be constructed by, or for the use of, any federal agency. Such term shall include buildings built for the purpose of being leased by a federal agency, and privatized military housing.
</P>
<P><I>Proposed building</I> means the design for construction of a new Federal low-rise residential building, or major renovation to a Federal low-rise residential building, proposed for construction.




</P>
<P><I>Shift adjustment multiplier</I> means that agencies can apply a multiplication factor to their Maximum Allowable Fossil Fuel-Generated Energy Consumption by Building Category target based upon the weekly hours of active operation of the building. The weekly hours of operation to use as a basis for the shift adjustment multiplier lookup should be based upon the time in which in the building is actively occupied and operating per its intended use type and should include unoccupied hours or other times of limited use (such as night-time setback hours).


</P>
<P><I>Technical impracticability</I> means achieving the Scope 1 fossil fuel-based energy consumption targets would:
</P>
<P>(1) Not be feasible from an engineering design or execution standpoint due to existing physical or site constraints that prohibit modification or addition of elements or spaces;
</P>
<P>(2) Significantly obstruct building operations and the functional needs of a building, specifically for industrial process loads, critical national security functions, mission critical information systems as defined in NIST SP 800-60 Vol. 2 Rev. 1, and research operations, or
</P>
<P>(3) Significantly degrade energy resiliency and energy security of building operations as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101(e)(6) and 10 U.S.C. 101(e)(7) respectively.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 70283, Dec. 4, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 72571, Dec. 21, 2007; 76 FR 49285, Aug. 10, 2011; 82 FR 2867, Jan. 10, 2017; 87 FR 19613, Apr. 5, 2022; 89 FR 35433, May 1, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.1.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.3   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, DOE must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at DOE, and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: The U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ICC.</I> International Code Council, 4051 West Flossmoor Road, Country Club Hills, IL 60478, 1-888-422-7233, or go to <I>http://www.iccsafe.org/.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ICC International Energy Conservation Code (IECC), 2004 Supplement Edition (“IECC 2004”), January 2005, IBR approved for §§ 435.2, 435.4, 435.5;
</P>
<P>(2) ICC International Energy Conservation Code (IECC), 2009 Edition (“IECC 2009”), January 2009, IBR approved for §§ 435.2, 435.4, 435.5.
</P>
<P>(3) ICC International Energy Conservation Code (IECC), 2015 Edition (“IECC 2015”), published May 30, 2014, IBR approved for §§ 435.2, 435.4, 435.5.
</P>
<P>(4) ICC 2021 International Energy Conservation Code (IECC), Redline Version, Copyright 2021, (“IECC 2021”), IBR approved for §§ 435.2, 435.4, and 435.5.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49285, Aug. 10, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 2867, Jan. 10, 2017; 87 FR 19613, Apr. 5, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.4" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.1.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.4   Energy efficiency performance standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after January 3, 2007, but before August 10, 2012, to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the IECC 2004 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3), and
</P>
<P>(ii) If life-cycle cost-effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the IECC Baseline Building 2004.
</P>
<P>(2) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after August 10, 2012, but before January 10, 2018 to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the IECC 2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3), and
</P>
<P>(ii) If life-cycle cost-effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the IECC Baseline Building 2009.
</P>
<P>(3) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after January 10, 2018, but before April 5, 2023 to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the IECC 2015, (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3), including the mandatory mechanical ventilation requirements in Section R403.6 of the IECC 2015; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If life-cycle cost-effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the IECC Baseline Building 2015.
</P>
<P>(4) All Federal agencies shall design new Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after April 5, 2023 to:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the IECC 2021, (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If life-cycle cost-effective, achieve energy consumption levels, calculated consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, that are at least 30 percent below the levels of the IECC Baseline Building 2021.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) For new Federal low-rise residential buildings whose design for construction began before January 10, 2018, energy consumption for the purposes of calculating the 30 percent savings shall include space heating, space cooling, and domestic water heating.
</P>
<P>(2) For new Federal low-rise residential buildings whose design for construction began on or after before January 10, 2018, energy consumption for the purposes of calculating the 30 percent savings shall include space heating, space cooling, lighting, mechanical ventilation, and domestic water heating.
</P>
<P>(c) If a 30 percent reduction is not life-cycle cost-effective, the design of the proposed building shall be modified so as to achieve an energy consumption level at or better than the maximum level of energy efficiency that is life-cycle cost-effective, but at a minimum complies with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 70283, Dec. 4, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 72571, Dec. 21, 2007; 76 FR 49285, Aug. 10, 2011; 82 FR 2867, Jan. 10, 2017; 87 FR 19613, Apr. 5, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.5" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.1.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.5   Performance level determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For new Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after January 3, 2007, but before August 10, 2012, each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the IECC Baseline Building 2004 and proposed building by using the Simulated Performance Alternative found in section 404 of the IECC 2004 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3).
</P>
<P>(b) For new Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after August 10, 2012, but before January 10, 2018, each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the IECC Baseline Building 2009 and proposed building by using the Simulated Performance Alternative found in section 405 of the IECC 2009 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3).
</P>
<P>(c) For new Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after January 10, 2018 but before April 5, 2023 each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the IECC Baseline Building 2015 and proposed building by using the Simulated Performance Alternative found in section R405 of the IECC 2015 (incorporated by reference, see § 435.3).
</P>
<P>(d) For new Federal buildings for which design for construction began on or after April 5, 2023 each Federal agency shall determine energy consumption levels for both the IECC Baseline Building 2021 and proposed building by using the Simulated Performance Alternative found in section R405 of the IECC 2021 (incorporated by reference, <I>see</I> § 435.3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 2867, Jan. 10, 2017, as amended at 87 FR 19613, Apr. 5, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.6" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.1.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.6   Life-cycle costing.</HEAD>
<P>Each Federal agency shall determine life-cycle cost-effectiveness by using the procedures set out in subpart A of 10 CFR part 436. A Federal agency may choose to use any of four methods, including lower life-cycle costs, positive net savings, savings-to-investment ratio that is estimated to be greater than one, and an adjusted internal rate of return that is estimated to be greater than the discount rate as listed in OMB Circular Number A-94 “Guidelines and Discount Rates for Benefit-Cost Analysis of Federal Programs.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 70283, Dec. 4, 2006, redesignated at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]
</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reduction in Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Generated Energy Consumption</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 35434, May 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 435.200" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.2.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.200   Scope 1 Fossil fuel-generated energy consumption requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New EISA-Subject buildings.</I> (1) New Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after May 1, 2025, must be designed to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) For all leased buildings, the construction cost of the new building exceeds GSA's Annual Prospectus Thresholds that are found at <I>www.gsa.gov/real-estate/design-construction/gsa-annual-prospectus-thresholds.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) For all Federally owned non-public buildings, the cost of the building is at least $2,500,000 (in 2007 dollars, adjusted for inflation). For the purposes of calculating this threshold, agencies must set the Bureau of Labor and Statistics CPI Inflation calculator to $2,500,000 in October of 2006 (to represent the value of the original cost threshold) and then set for October of the FY during which the design for construction of the project began or is set to begin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Major renovations of EISA-Subject buildings.</I> (1) Major renovations to Federal buildings that are low-rise residential buildings, for which design for construction began on or after May 1, 2025, must be designed to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if the cost of the major renovation is at least $2,500,000 (in 2007 dollars, adjusted for inflation). For the purposes of calculating this threshold, projects should set the Bureau of Labor and Statistics CPI Inflation calculator to $2,500,000 in October of 2006 (to represent the value of the original cost threshold) and then set for October of the FY during which the design for construction of the project began or is set to begin.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart applies only to the portions of the proposed building or proposed building systems that are being renovated and to the extent that the scope of the renovation permits compliance with the applicable requirements in this subpart. Unaltered portions of the proposed building or proposed building systems are not required to comply with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) For leased buildings, this subpart applies to major renovations only if the proposed building was originally built for the use of any Federal agency, including for the purpose of being leased by a Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal buildings that are of the type included in Appendix A of this subpart</I>—(1) <I>New Construction and Major Renovations of all Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Using Systems in an EISA-Subject Building.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Design for construction began during FY 2024 through FY 2029. For new construction or major renovations of all fossil fuel-using systems in an EISA-subject building, for which design for construction or renovation, as applicable, began during FY 2024 through 2029, the Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building, based on the building design and calculated according to § 435.201(a), must not exceed the value identified in Tables A-1a to A-2a (if targets based on Scope 1 emissions are used) or Tables A-1b to A-2b (if targets based on kBtu of fossil fuel usage are used) of Appendix A of this subpart for the associated building type, climate zone, and fiscal year in which design for construction began.
</P>
<P>(A) Federal agencies may apply a shift adjustment multiplier to the values in Tables A-1a to A-2a or Tables A-1b to A-2b based on the following baseline hours of operation assumed in Tables A-1a to A-2a or Tables A-1b to A-2b.
</P>
<P>(B) To calculate the shift adjustment multiplier, agencies shall estimate the number of shifts for their new building and multiply by the appropriate factor shown below in Table 1 for their building type. The Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption target for the building would be the value in either Tables A-1a to A-2a or Tables A-1b to A-2b multiplied by the multiplier calculated in the previous sentence.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Shift Adjustment Multiplier by Hours of Operation and Building Type
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Building activity/type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Weekly hours of operation
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50 or less
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">51 to 167
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">168
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Admin/professional office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bank/other financial</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Government office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medical office(non-diagnostic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mixed-use office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Laboratory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distribution/shipping center</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonrefrigerated warehouse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Convenience store</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Convenience store with gas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Grocery store/food market</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other food sales</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fire station/police station</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other public order and safety</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Medical office (diagnostic)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clinic/other outpatient health</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refrigerated warehouse</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Religious worship</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Entertainment/culture</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Library</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recreation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Social/meeting</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other public assembly</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">College/university</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elementary/middle school</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High school</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Preschool/daycare</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other classroom education</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fast food</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restaurant/cafeteria</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other food service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hospital/inpatient health</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nursing home/assisted living</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dormitory/fraternity/sorority</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hotel</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Motel or inn</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other lodging</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vehicle dealership/showroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Retail store</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other retail</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Post office/postal center</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Repair shop</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vehicle service/repair shop</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vehicle storage/maintenance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other service</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Strip shopping mall</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Enclosed mall</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bar/Pub/Lounge</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Courthouse/Probation Office</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Design for construction began during or after FY 2030. For new construction and major renovations of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems in an EISA-subject building, the Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building, based on building design and calculated according to § 435.201(a), must be zero.
</P>
<P>(2) Major Renovations of a Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Using Building System or Component within an EISA-Subject Building shall follow the renovation requirements in section 4.2.1.3 of the applicable building baseline energy efficiency standards listed in § 435.4 substituting the term “design for construction” with “design for renovation” for the relevant date, and shall replace all equipment that is included in the renovation with all electric or non-fossil fuel-using ENERGY STAR or FEMP designated products as defined in § 436.42. For component level renovations, Agencies shall replace all equipment that is part of the renovation with all electric or non-fossil fuel-using ENERGY STAR or FEMP designated products as defined in § 436.42.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>EISA-Subject buildings that are of the type not included in Appendix A of this subpart</I>—(1) <I>Process load buildings.</I> For building types that are not included in any of the building types listed in Tables A-1a to A-2a or A-1b to A-2b of appendix A of this subpart, or for building types in these tables that contain significant process loads, Federal agencies must select the applicable building type, climate zone, and fiscal year in which design for construction began from Tables A-1a to A-2a or A-1b to A-2b of appendix A of this subpart that most closely corresponds to the proposed building without the process load. The estimated Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the process load must be added to the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the applicable building type for the appropriate fiscal year and climate zone to calculate the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption for the building. The same estimated Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the process load that is added to the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the applicable building must also be used in determining the Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mixed-use buildings.</I> For buildings that combine two or more building types with process loads or, alternatively, that combine one or more building types with process loads with one or more building types in Tables A-1a toA-2a or A-1b to A-2b of appendix A of this subpart, the maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building is equal to the averaged process load building values determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section and the applicable building type values in Tables A-1a toA-2a or A-1b to A-2b of appendix A of this subpart, weighted by floor area. Equation 1 shall be used for mixed use buildings.
</P>
<FP-2>Equation 1: Scope 1 Fossil fuel generated energy consumption for a mixed-use building = the sum across all building uses of (the fraction of total floor building floor area for building use i times the allowable fossil fuel-generated energy consumption for building use i)
</FP-2>
<P>Equation 1 may be rewritten as:




</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my24.013.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.201" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.2.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.201   Scope 1 Fossil fuel-generated energy consumption determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of a proposed design is calculated as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>Equation: Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Generated Energy Consumption = Direct Fossil Fuel Consumption of Proposed Building/Floor Area
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Direct Scope 1 Fossil Fuel-Generated Energy Consumption of Proposed Building</I> equals the total site Scope 1 fossil fuel-generated energy consumption of the proposed building calculated in accordance with the method required in § 435.5(d), and measured in thousands of British thermal units per year (kBtu/yr), except that this term does not include fossil fuel consumption for emergency electricity generation. Agencies must include all on-site fossil fuel use or Scope 1 emissions associated with non-emergency generation from backup generators (such as those for peak shaving or peak shifting). Any energy generation or Scope 1 emissions associated with biomass fuels are excluded. Any emissions associated with natural gas for alternatively fueled vehicles (“AFVs”) (or any other alternative fuel defined at 42 U.S.C. 13211 that is provided at a Federal building) is excluded. For buildings with manufacturing or industrial process loads, such process loads shall be accounted for in the analysis for the building's fossil fuel consumption and GHG emissions, but the process loads are not subject to the phase down targets.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Floor Area</I> is the floor area of the structure that is enclosed by exterior walls, including finished or unfinished basements, finished or heated space in attics, and garages if they have an uninsulated wall in common with the house. Not included are crawl spaces, and sheds and other buildings that are not attached to the house.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.202" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.2.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.202   Petition for downward adjustment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New Federal buildings major renovations of all Scope 1 fossil fuel-using systems, and major renovations of a Scope 1 fossil fuel-using building system or component in an EISA-subject building.</I> (1) Upon petition by a Federal agency, the Director of FEMP may adjust the applicable maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption standard with respect to a specific building, upon written certification from the head of the agency designing the building, that the requested adjustment is the largest feasible reduction in Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption that can practicably be achieved in light of the specified functional needs for that building, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement from the Head of the Agency or their designee requesting the petition for downward adjustment for the building or renovation, that the building or renovation reduces consumption of Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption in accordance with the applicable energy performance standard to the maximum extent practicable and that each fossil fuel using product included in the proposed building that is of a product category covered by the ENERGY STAR program or FEMP for designated products is an ENERGY STAR product or a product meeting the FEMP designation criteria, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the systems, technologies, and practices that were evaluated and unable to meet the required fossil fuel reduction including a justification of why achieving the Scope 1 fossil fuel-based energy consumption targets would be technically impracticable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information the agency determines would help explain its request.
</P>
<P>(2) The head of the agency designing the building, or their designee, must also include the following information in the petition:
</P>
<P>(i) A general description of the building or major renovation, including but not limited to location, use type, floor area, stories, expected number of occupants and occupant schedule, project type, project cost, and functional needs, mission critical activity, research, and national security operations as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum allowable Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption for the building from paragraphs (c) or (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The estimated Scope 1 fossil fuel energy consumption of the proposed building; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the proposed building's energy-related features, such as:
</P>
<P>(A) HVAC system or component type and configuration;
</P>
<P>(B) HVAC equipment sizes and efficiencies;
</P>
<P>(C) Ventilation systems or components (including outdoor air volume, controls technique, heat recovery systems, and economizers, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(D) Service water heating system or component configuration and equipment (including solar hot water, wastewater heat recovery, and controls for circulating hot water systems, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(E) Estimated industrial process loads; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any other on-site fossil fuel using equipment.
</P>
<P>(3) (i) Agencies may file one petition for a project with multiple buildings if the buildings are
</P>
<P>(A) Of the same building, building system, or component type and of similar size and location;
</P>
<P>(B) Are being designed and constructed to the same set of targets for fossil fuel-generated energy consumption reduction; and
</P>
<P>(C) Would require similar measures to reduce fossil fuel-generated energy consumption and similar adjustment to the numeric reduction requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bundled petition must include the information in section (a) that pertains to all buildings, building systems or components included in the petition and an additional description of the differences between each of the buildings, building systems or components. The agency is only required to show work for adjustment once.
</P>
<P>(4) Petitions for downward adjustment should be submitted to <I>cer-petition@hq.doe.gov,</I> or to:
</P>
<P>U.S. Department of Energy, FEMP, Director, Clean Energy Reduction Petitions, EE-5F, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585-0121.
</P>
<P>(5) The Director will make a best effort to notify the requesting agency in writing whether the petition for downward adjustment to the numeric reduction requirement is approved or rejected, in 30 calendar days of submittal of a complete petition. If the Director rejects the petition or establishes a value other than that presented in the petition, the Director will forward the reasons for rejection to the petitioning agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions.</I> The General Services Administration (GSA) may not submit petitions under paragraphs (a) of this section. Agencies that are tenants of GSA buildings for which the agency, not GSA, has significant design control may submit petitions in accordance with this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.2.77.4.46" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 435 Maximum Allowable Fossil Fuel Generated Energy Consumption
</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of the tables in this appendix, the climate zones are listed in the performance standards required by § 435.4(a)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(b) For purpose of appendix A, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Mobile Home</I> means a dwelling unit built to the Federal Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards in 24 CFR part 3280, that is built on a permanent chassis and moved to a site. It may be placed on a permanent or temporary foundation and may contain one or more rooms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multi-Family in 2-4 Unit Buildings</I> means a category of structures that is divided into living quarters for two, three, or four families or households in which one household lives above or beside another. This category also includes houses originally intended for occupancy by one family (or for some other use) that have since been converted to separate dwellings for two to four families.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Multi-Family in 5 or More Unit Buildings</I> means a category of structures that contain living quarters for five or more households or families and in which one household lives above or beside another.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Single-Family Attached</I> means a building with two or more connected dwelling units, generally with a shared wall, each providing living space for one household or family. Attached houses are considered single-family houses as long as they are not divided into more than one dwelling unit and they have independent outside entrances. A single-family house is contained within walls extending from the basement (or the ground floor, if there is no basement) to the roof. Townhouses, row houses, and duplexes are considered single-family attached dwelling units, as long as there is no dwelling unit above or below another.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Single-Family Detached</I> means a separate, unconnected dwelling unit, not sharing a wall with any other building or dwelling unit, which provides living space for one household or family. A single-family house is contained within walls extending from the basement (or the ground floor, if there is no basement) to the roof. This includes modular homes but does not include mobile homes.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01my24.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01my24.015.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Green Building Certification for Federal Buildings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.300" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.3.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.300   Green building certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a Federal agency chooses to use a green building certification system to certify a new Federal building or a Federal building undergoing a major renovation and construction costs for such new building or major renovation are at least $2,500,000 (in 2007 dollars, adjusted for inflation), and design for construction began on or after October 14, 2015:
</P>
<P>(b) The system under which the building is certified must:
</P>
<P>(1) Allow assessors and auditors to independently verify the criteria and measurement metrics of the system;
</P>
<P>(2) Be developed by a certification organization that
</P>
<P>(i) Provides an opportunity for public comment on the system; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides an opportunity for development and revision of the system through a consensus-based process;
</P>
<P>(3) Be nationally recognized within the building industry;
</P>
<P>(4) Be subject to periodic evaluation and assessment of the environmental and energy benefits that result under the rating system; and
</P>
<P>(5) Include a verification system for post occupancy assessment of the rated buildings to demonstrate continued energy and water savings at least every four years after initial occupancy.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification level.</I> The building must be certified to a level that promotes the high performance sustainable building guidelines referenced in Executive Order 13423 “Strengthening Federal Environmental, Energy, and Transportation Management” and Executive Order 13514 “Federal Leadership in Environmental, Energy and Economic Performance.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Voluntary Performance Standards for New Non-Federal Residential Buildings [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Mandatory Energy Efficiency Standards for Federal Residential Buildings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.500" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.5.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.500   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes voluntary energy conservation performance standards for new residential buildings. The voluntary energy conservation performance standards are designed to achieve the maximum practicable improvements in energy efficiency and increases in the use of non-depletable sources of energy. 
</P>
<P>(b) Voluntary energy conservation performance standards prescribed under this subpart shall be developed solely as guidelines for the purpose of providing technical assistance for the design of energy conserving buildings, and shall be mandatory only for the Federal buildings for which design for construction began before January 3, 2007.
</P>
<P>(c) The energy conservation performance standards will direct Federal policies and practices to ensure that cost-effective energy conservation features will be incorporated into the designs of all new Federal residential buildings for which design for construction began January 3, 2007.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 32545, Aug. 25, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 70284, Dec. 4, 2006. Redesignated at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.501" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.5.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.501   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The energy conservation performance standards in this subpart will apply to all Federal residential buildings for which design of construction began before January 3, 2007 except multifamily buildings more than three stories above grade.
</P>
<P>(b) The primary types of buildings built by or for the Federal agencies, to which the energy conservation performance standards will apply, are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Single-story single-family residences; 
</P>
<P>(2) Split-level single-family residences; 
</P>
<P>(3) Two-story single-family residences; 
</P>
<P>(4) End-unit townhouses; 
</P>
<P>(5) Middle-unit townhouses; 
</P>
<P>(6) End-units in multifamily buildings (of three stories above grade or less); 
</P>
<P>(7) Middle-units in multifamily buildings (of three stories above grade or less); 
</P>
<P>(8) Single-section mobile homes; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Multi-section mobile homes. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 32545, Aug. 25, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 70284, Dec. 4, 2006. Redesignated at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.502" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.5.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.502   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>ANSI</I> means American National Standards Institute. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASHRAE Handbook</I> means American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., ASHRAE Handbook, 1985 Fundamentals. Volume, 1-P Edition. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ASTM</I> means American Society of Testing and Measurement. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>British thermal unit (Btu)</I> means approximately the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water from 59 °F to 60 °F. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Building</I> means any new residential structure:
</P>
<P>(1) That includes or will include a heating or cooling system, or both, or a domestic hot water system, and
</P>
<P>(2) For which a building design is created after the effective date of this rule. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Building design</I> means the development of plans and specifications for human living space. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conservation Optimization Standard for Savings in Federal Residences</I> means the computerized calculation procedure that is used to establish an energy consumption goal for the design of Federal residential buildings. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>COSTSAFR</I> means the Conservation Optimization Standard for Savings in Federal Residences. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>DOE</I> means U.S. Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Domestic hot water (DHW)</I> means the supply of hot water for purposes other than space conditioning. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Energy conservation measure (ECM)</I> means a building material or component whose use will affect the energy consumed for space heating, space cooling, domestic hot water or refrigeration. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Energy performance standard</I> means an energy consumption goal or goals to be met without specification of the method, materials, and processes to be employed in achieving that goal or goals, but including statements of the requirements, criteria evaluation methods to be used, and any necessary commentary. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Federal agency</I> means any department, agency, corporation, or other entity or instrumentality of the executive branch of the Federal Government, including the United States Postal Service, the Federal National Mortgage Association, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Federal residential building</I> means any residential building to be constructed by or for the use of any Federal agency in the Continental U.S., Alaska, or Hawaii that is not legally subject to state or local building codes or similar requirements. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Life cycle cost</I> means the minimum life cycle cost calculated by using a methodology specified in subpart A of 10 CFR part 436. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Point system</I> means the tables that display the effect of the set of energy conservation measures on the design energy consumption and energy costs of a residential building for a particular location, building type and fuel type. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Practicable optimum life cycle energy cost</I> means the energy costs of the set of conservation measures that has the minimum life cycle cost to the Federal government incurred during a 25 year period and including the costs of construction, maintenance, operation, and replacement. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Project</I> means the group of one or more Federal residential buildings to be built at a specific geographic location that are included by a Federal agency in specifications issued or used by a Federal agency for design or construction of the buildings. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Prototype</I> means a fundamental house design based on typical construction assumptions. The nine prototypes in COSTSAFR are: single-section manufactured house, double-section manufactured house, ranch-style house, two-story house, split-level house, mid-unit apartment, end-unit apartment, mid-unit townhouse, end-unit townhouse. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Residential building</I> means a new building that is designed to be constructed and developed for residential occupancy. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Set of conservation options</I> means the combination of envelope design and equipment measures that influences the long term energy use in a building designed to maintain a minimum of ventilation level of 0.7 air changes per hour, including the heating and cooling equipment, domestic hot water equipment, glazing, insulation, refrigerators and air infiltration control measures. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Shading coefficient</I> means the ratio of the heat gains through windows, with or without integral shading devices, to that occurring through unshaded, 
<FR>1/8</FR>-inch clear glass. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Total annual coil load</I> means the energy for space heating and/or cooling with no adjustment for HVAC equipment efficiency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 3772, Jan. 31, 1991, redesignated at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.503" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.5.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.503   Requirements for the design of a Federal residential building.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each Federal agency responsible for the construction of Federal residential buildings shall establish an energy consumption goal for each residential building to be designed or constructed by or for the agency, for which design for construction began before January 3, 2007.
</P>
<P>(b) The energy consumption goal for a Federal residential building for which design for construction began before January 3, 2007, shall be a total point score derived by using the micro-computer program and user manual entitled “Conservation Optimization Standard for Savings in Federal Residences (COSTSAFR),” unless the head of the Federal agency shall establish more stringent requirements for that agency.
</P>
<P>(c) The head of each Federal agency shall adopt such procedures as may be necessary to ensure that the design of a Federal residential building is not less energy conserving than the energy consumption goal established for the building. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 32545, Aug. 25, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 70284, Dec. 4, 2006. Redesignated at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.504" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.5.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.504   The COSTSAFR Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The COSTSAFR Program (Version 3.0) provides a computerized calculation procedure to determine the most effective set of energy conservation measures, selected from among the measures included within the Program that will produce the practicable optimum life cycle cost for a type of residential building in a specific geographic location. The most effective set of energy conservation measures is expressed as a total point score that serves as the energy consumption goal. 
</P>
<P>(b) The COSTSAFR Program (Version 3.0) also prints out a point system that identifies a wide array of different energy conservation measures indicating how many points various levels of each measure would contribute to reaching the total point score of the energy consumption goal. This enables a Federal agency to use the energy consumption goal and the point system in the design and procurement procedures so that designers and builders can pick and choose among different combinations of energy conservation measures to meet or exceed the total point score required to meet the energy consumption goal. 
</P>
<P>(c) The COSTSAFR Program (Version 3.0) operates on a micro-computer system that uses the MS DOS operating system and is equipped with an 8087 co-processor. 
</P>
<P>(d) The COSTSAFR Program (Version 3.0) may be obtained from: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>National Technical Information Service; Department of Commerce; Springfield, Virginia 22161; (202) 487-4600</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 32545, Aug. 25, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 3772, Jan. 31, 1991. Redesignated at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.505" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.5.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.505   Alternative compliance procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a proposed building design includes unusual or innovative energy conservation measures which are not covered by the COSTSAFR program, the Federal agency shall determine whether that design meets or exceeds the applicable energy consumption goal in compliance with the procedures set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal agency shall determine the estimated discounted energy cost for the COSTSAFR prototype building design, which is the most similar of the COSTSAFR prototypes to the proposed building design, by— 
</P>
<P>(1) Printing out the COSTSAFR compliance forms for the prototype showing the points attributable to levels of various energy conservation measures; 
</P>
<P>(2) Calculating the estimated unit energy cost on the compliance forms, on the basis of selecting the optimum levels on the compliance forms or otherwise in the User's Manual for each energy conservation measure; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Multiplying the estimated unit energy cost by 100. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Federal agency shall determine the estimated discounted energy cost for the proposed building design by— 
</P>
<P>(1) Estimating the heating and cooling total annual coil loads of the proposed building design with the DOE 2.1C computer program on the basis of input assumptions including— 
</P>
<P>(i) Shading coefficients of 0.6 for summer and 0.8 for winter; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Thermostat setpoints of 78 degrees Fahrenheit for cooling, 70 degrees Fahrenheit for heating (6 am to 12 midnight), and 60 degrees Fahrenheit for Night Setback (12 midnight to 6 am, except for houses with heat pumps); 
</P>
<P>(iii) The infiltration rate measured in air changes per hour as calculated using appendix B of the COSTSAFR User's Manual; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Natural venting with a constant air change rate of 10 air changes per hour— 
</P>
<P>(A) When the outdoor temperature is lower than the indoor temperature, but not above 78 degrees Fahrenheit; and 
</P>
<P>(B) When the enthalpy of the outdoor air is lower than the indoor air. 
</P>
<P>(v) Internal gains in accordance with the following table for a house with 1540 square feet of floor area, adjusted by 0.35 Btu/ft 
<SU>2</SU>/hr to account for changes in lighting as the floor area varies from 1540 square feet—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Internal Gain Schedule (Btu)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Hour of day
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Sensible
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Latent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">247
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">247
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">247
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">247
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1139</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">247
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1903</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">412
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2391</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">518
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4782</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1036
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2790</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">604
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1707</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">370
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1707</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">370
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2277</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">493
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1707</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">370
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1424</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">308
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">321
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1480</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">321
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2164</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">469
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2334</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">506
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2505</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">543
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3928</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">851
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3928</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">851
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">888
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4101</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">888
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3701</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">802</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) Thermal transmittances for building envelope materials measured in accordance with applicable ASTM procedures or from the ASHRAE Handbook;
</P>
<P>(vii) Proposed heating and cooling equipment types included in COSTSAFR or having a certified seasonal efficiency rating;
</P>
<P>(viii) Weather Year for Energy Calculations (WYEC) weather year data (WYEC data are on tapes available from ASHRAE, 1791 Tullie Circle, N.E., Atlanta, Georgia 30329), or if unavailable, Test Reference Year (TRY) weather data (obtainable from National Climatic Data Center, 1983 <I>Test Reference Year,</I> Tape Reference Manual, TD-9706, Asheville, North Carolina) relevant to project location.
</P>
<P>(2) Estimating the discounted energy cost for the heating and cooling energy loads, respectively, according to the following equation—
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec14no91.084.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Total Annual Coil Load = the total heating or cooling annual coil load calculated under paragraph (c)(1);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Fuel Cost = the heating or cooling fuel cost calculated in accordance with sections 3.3.D and 3.3.E of the User's Manual;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>UPW* = the uniform present worth discount factor; selected from the last page of the compliance forms.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Equipment Efficiency = the test seasonal efficiency rating of the heating and cooling equipment only (i.e., not including duct or distribution system losses).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) Estimating the discounted energy cost for water heating and refrigerator/freezer energy consumption—
</P>
<P>(i) For equipment types covered by the COSTSAFR compliance forms, by multiplying the estimated unit energy cost by 100; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) For equipment types not covered by COSTSAFR—
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="26" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec14no91.085.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Fuel Cost and UPW* are as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; Annual Energy Consumption is as calculated in 10 CFR 430.22; and Energy Factor is the measure of energy efficiency as calculated under 10 CFR 430.22</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Adding together the discounted energy costs calculated under paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(d) If the discounted energy cost of the proposed building design calculated under paragraph (c)(4) of this section is equal to or less than the discounted energy cost of the COSTSAFR prototype building design calculated under paragraph (b) of this section, then the proposed building design is in compliance with the applicable energy consumption goal under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 3772, Jan. 31, 1991, redesignated at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 435.506" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.4.5.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 435.506   Selecting a life cycle effective proposed building design.</HEAD>
<P>In selecting between or among proposed building designs which comply with the applicable energy consumption goal under this part, each Federal agency shall select the design which, in comparison to the applicable COSTSAFR prototype, has the highest Net Savings or lowest total life cycle costs calculated in compliance with subpart A of 10 CFR part 436.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 3773, Jan. 31, 1991, redesignated at 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="436" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 436—FEDERAL ENERGY MANAGEMENT AND PLANNING PROGRAMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 8254; 42 U.S.C. 8258; 42 U.S.C. 8259b; 42 U.S.C. 8287, <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 60669, Oct. 19, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 436.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.0.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the rules for Federal energy management and planning programs to reduce Federal energy consumption and to promote life cycle cost effective investments in building energy systems, building water systems and energy and water conservation measures for Federal buildings. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 32649, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.0.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.2   General objectives.</HEAD>
<P>The objectives of Federal energy management and planning programs are:
</P>
<P>(a) To apply energy conservation measures to, and improve the design for construction of Federal buildings such that the energy consumption per gross square foot of Federal buildings in use during the fiscal year 1995 is at least 10 percent less than the energy consumption per gross square foot in 1985;
</P>
<P>(b) To promote the methodology and procedures for conducting life cycle cost analyses of proposed investments in building energy systems, building water systems and energy and water conservation measures; 
</P>
<P>(c) To promote the use of energy savings performance contracts by Federal agencies for implementation of privately financed investment in building and facility energy conservation measures for existing Federally owned buildings; and 
</P>
<P>(d) To promote efficient use of energy in all agency operations through general operations plans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 60 FR 18334, Apr. 10, 1995; 61 FR 32649, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Methodology and Procedures for Life Cycle Cost Analyses</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 436.10" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.10   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes a methodology and procedures for estimating and comparing the life cycle costs of Federal buildings, for determining the life cycle cost effectiveness of energy conservation measures and water conservation measures, and for rank ordering life cycle cost effective measures in order to design a new Federal building or to retrofit an existing Federal building. It also establishes the method by which efficiency shall be considered when entering into or renewing leases of Federal building space. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 32649, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.11" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.11   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Base Year</I> means the fiscal year in which a life cycle cost analysis is conducted.
</P>
<P><I>Building energy system</I> means an energy conservation measure or any portion of the structure of a building or any mechanical, electrical, or other functional system supporting the building, the nature or selection of which for a new building influences significantly the cost of energy consumed.
</P>
<P><I>Building water system</I> means a water conservation measure or any portion of the structure of a building or any mechanical, electrical, or other functional system supporting the building, the nature or selection of which for a new building influences significantly the cost of water consumed. 
</P>
<P><I>Component price</I> means any variable sub-element of the total charge for a fuel or energy or water, including but not limited to such charges as “demand charges,” “off-peak charges” and “seasonal charges.” 
</P>
<P><I>Demand charge</I> means that portion of the charge for electric service based upon the plant and equipment costs associated with supplying the electricity consumed.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Energy conservation measures</I> means measures that are applied to an existing Federal building that improve energy efficiency and are life cycle cost effective and that involve energy conservation, cogeneration facilities, renewable energy sources, improvements in operation and maintenance efficiencies, or retrofit activities.
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means “agency” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 551(1).
</P>
<P><I>Federal building</I> means an energy or water conservation measure or any building, structure, or facility, or part thereof, including the associated energy and water consuming support systems, which is constructed, renovated, leased, or purchased in whole or in part for use by the Federal government. This term also means a collection of such buildings, structures, or facilities and the energy and water consuming support systems for such collection. 
</P>
<P><I>Investment costs</I> means the initial costs of design, engineering, purchase, construction, and installation exclusive of sunk costs.
</P>
<P><I>Life cycle cost</I> means the total cost of owning, operating and maintaining a building over its useful life (including its fuel and water, energy, labor, and replacement components), determined on the basis of a systematic evaluation and comparison of alternative building systems, except that in the case of leased buildings, the life cycle cost shall be calculated over the effective remaining term of the lease. 
</P>
<P><I>Non-fuel operation and maintenance costs</I> means material and labor cost for routine upkeep, repair and operation exclusive of energy cost.
</P>
<P><I>Non-recurring costs</I> means costs that are not uniformly incurred annually over the study period.
</P>
<P><I>Non-water operation and maintenance costs</I> mean material and labor cost for routine upkeep, repair and operation exclusive of water cost. 
</P>
<P><I>Recurring costs</I> means future costs that are incurred uniformly and annually over the study period.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement costs</I> mean future cost to replace a building energy system or building water system, an energy or water conservation measure, or any component thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Retrofit</I> means installation of a building energy system or building water system alternative in an existing Federal building. 
</P>
<P><I>Salvage value</I> means the value of any building energy system or building water system removed or replaced during the study period, or recovered through resale or remaining at the end of the study period. 
</P>
<P><I>Study period</I> means the time period covered by a life cycle cost analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Sunk costs</I> means costs incurred prior to the time at which the life cycle cost analysis occurs.
</P>
<P><I>Time-of-day rate</I> means the charge for service during periods of the day based on the cost of supplying services during various times of the day.
</P>
<P><I>Water conservation measures</I> mean measures that are applied to an existing Federal building that improve the efficiency of water use, reduce the amount of water for sewage disposal and are life cycle cost effective and that involve water conservation, improvements in operation and maintenance efficiencies, or retrofit activities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 32649, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.12" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.12   Life cycle cost methodology.</HEAD>
<P>The life cycle cost methodology for this part is a systematic analysis of relevant costs, excluding sunk costs, over a study period, relating initial costs to future costs by the technique of discounting future costs to present values.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.13" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.13   Presuming cost-effectiveness results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the investment and other costs for an energy or water conservation measure considered for retrofit to an existing Federal building or a building energy system or building water system considered for incorporation into a new building design are insignificant, a Federal agency may presume that such a system is life cycle cost-effective without further analysis. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal agency may presume that an investment in an energy or water conservation measure retrofit to an existing Federal building is not life cycle cost-effective for Federal investment if the Federal building is— 
</P>
<P>(1) Occupied under a short-term lease with a remaining term of one year or less, and without a renewal option or with a renewal option which is not likely to be exercised;
</P>
<P>(2) Occupied under a lease which includes the cost of utilities in the rent and does not provide a pass-through of energy or water savings to the government; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Scheduled to be demolished or retired from service within one year or less.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 32650, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.14" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.14   Methodological assumptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal Agency shall discount to present values the future cash flows established in either current or constant dollars consistent with the nominal or real discount rate, and related tables, published in the annual supplement to the Life Cycle Costing Manual for the Federal Energy Management Program (NIST 85-3273) and determined annually by DOE as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) The nominal discount rate shall be a 12 month average of the composite yields of all outstanding U.S. Treasury bonds neither due nor callable in less than ten years, as most recently reported by the Federal Reserve Board; and
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to a ceiling of 10 percent and a floor of three percent the real discount rate shall be a 12 month average of the composite yields of all outstanding U.S. Treasury bonds neither due nor callable in less than ten years, as most recently reported by the Federal Reserve Board, adjusted to exclude estimated increases in the general level of prices consistent with projections of inflation in the most recent Economic Report of the President's Council of Economic Advisors.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Federal agency shall assume that energy prices will change at rates projected by DOE's Energy Information Administration and published by NIST annually no later than the beginning of the fiscal year in the Annual Supplement to the Life Cycle Costing Manual for the Federal Energy Management Program, in tables consistent with the discount rate determined by DOE under paragraph (a) of this section, except that—
</P>
<P>(1) If the Federal agency is using component prices under § 436.14(c), that agency may use corresponding component escalation rates provided by the energy or water supplier. 
</P>
<P>(2) For Federal buildings in foreign countries, the Federal agency may use a “reasonable” escalation rate.
</P>
<P>(c) Each Federal agency shall assume that the price of energy or water in the base year is the actual price charged for energy or water delivered to the Federal building and may use actual component prices as provided by the energy or water supplier. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each Federal agency shall assume that the appropriate study period is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For evaluating and ranking alternative retrofits for an existing Federal building, the study period is the expected life of the retrofit, or 40 years from the beginning of beneficial use, whichever is shorter.
</P>
<P>(2) For determining the life cycle costs or net savings of mutually exclusive alternatives for a given building energy system or building water system (e.g., alternative designs for a particular system or size of a new or retrofit building energy system or building water system), a uniform study period for all alternatives shall be assumed which is equal to—
</P>
<P>(i) The estimated life of the mutually exclusive alternative having the longest life, not to exceed 40 years from the beginning of beneficial use with appropriate replacement and salvage values for each of the other alternatives; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The lowest common multiple of the expected lives of the alternative, not to exceed 40 from the beginning of beneficial use with appropriate replacement and salvage values for each alternative.
</P>
<P>(3) For evaluating alternative designs for a new Federal building, the study period extends from the base year through the expected life of the building or 40 years from the beginning of beneficial use, whichever is shorter.
</P>
<P>(e) Each Federal agency shall assume that the expected life of any building energy system or building water system is the period of service without major renewal or overhaul, as estimated by a qualified engineer or architect, as appropriate, or any other reliable source except that the period of service of a building energy or water system shall not be deemed to exceed the expected life of the owned building, or the effective remaining term of the leased building (taking into account renewal options likely to be exercised). 
</P>
<P>(f) Each Federal agency may assume that investment costs are a lump sum occurring at the beginning of the base year, or may discount future investment costs to present value using the appropriate present worth factors under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Each Federal agency may assume that energy or water costs and non-fuel or non-water operation and maintenance costs begin to accrue at the beginning of the base year or when actually projected to occur. 
</P>
<P>(h) Each Federal agency may assume that costs occur in a lump sum at any time within the year in which they are incurred.
</P>
<P>(i) This section shall not apply to calculations of estimated simple payback time under § 436.22 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 32650, June 25, 1996; 79 FR 61571, Oct. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.15" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.15   Formatting cost data.</HEAD>
<P>In establishing cost data under §§ 436.16 and 436.17 and measuring cost effectiveness by the modes of analysis described by § 436.19 through § 436.22, a format for accomplishing the analysis which includes all required input data and assumptions shall be used. Subject to § 436.18(b), Federal agencies are encouraged to use worksheets or computer software referenced in the Life Cycle Cost Manual for the Federal Energy Management Program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.16" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.16   Establishing non-fuel and non-water cost categories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The relevant non-fuel cost categories are—
</P>
<P>(1) Investment costs;
</P>
<P>(2) Non-fuel operation and maintenance cost;
</P>
<P>(3) Replacement cost; and
</P>
<P>(4) Salvage value.
</P>
<P>(b) The relevant non-water cost categories are—
</P>
<P>(1) Investment costs; 
</P>
<P>(2) Non-water operation and maintenance cost; 
</P>
<P>(3) Replacement cost; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Salvage value. 
</P>
<P>(c) The present value of recurring costs is the product of the base year value of recurring costs as multiplied by the appropriate uniform present worth factor under § 436.14, or as calculated by computer software indicated in § 436.18(b) and used with the official discount rate and escalation rate assumptions under § 436.14. When recurring costs begin to accrue at a later time, subtract the present value of recurring costs over the delay, calculated using the appropriate uniform present worth factor for the period of the delay, from the present value of recurring costs over the study period or, if using computer software, indicate a delayed beneficial occupancy date.
</P>
<P>(d) The present value of non-recurring cost under § 436.16(a) is the product of the non-recurring costs as multiplied by appropriate single present worth factors under § 436.14 for the respective years in which the costs are expected to be incurred, or as calculated by computer software provided or approved by DOE and used with the official discount rate and escalation rate assumptions under § 436.14.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 32650, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.17" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.17   Establishing energy or water cost data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal agency shall establish energy costs in the base year by multiplying the total units of energy used in the base year by the price per unit of energy in the base year as determined in accordance with § 436.14(c).
</P>
<P>(b) When energy costs begin to accrue in the base year, the present value of energy costs over the study period is the product of energy costs in the base year as established under § 436.17(a), multiplied by the appropriate modified uniform present worth factor adjusted for energy price escalation for the applicable region, sector, fuel type, and study period consistent with § 436.14, or as calculated by computer software provided or approved by DOE and used with the official discount rate and escalation rate assumptions under § 436.14. When energy costs begin to accrue at a later time, subtract the present value of energy costs over the delay, calculated using the adjusted, modified uniform present worth factor for the period of delay, from the present value of energy costs over the study period or, if using computer software, indicate a delayed beneficial occupancy date.
</P>
<P>(c) Each Federal agency shall establish water costs in the base year by multiplying the total units of water used in the base year by the price per unit of water in the base year as determined in accordance with § 436.14(c). 
</P>
<P>(d) When water costs begin to accrue in the base year, the present value of water costs over the study period is the product of water costs in the base year as established under § 436.17(a), or as calculated by computer software provided or approved by DOE and used with the official discount rate and assumptions under § 436.14. When water costs begin to accrue at a later time, subtract the present value of water costs over the delay, calculated using the uniform present worth factor for the period of delay, from the present value of water costs over the study period or, if using computer software, indicate a delayed beneficial occupancy date. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 32650, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.18" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.18   Measuring cost-effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with this section, each Federal agency shall measure cost-effectiveness by combining cost data established under §§ 436.16 and 436.17 in the appropriate mode of analysis as described in § 436.19 through § 436.22.
</P>
<P>(b) Federal agencies performing LCC analysis on computers shall use either the Federal Buildings Life Cycle Costing (FBLCC) software provided by DOE or software consistent with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) Replacement of a building energy or water system with an energy or water conservation measure by retrofit to an existing Federal building or by substitution in the design for a new Federal building shall be deemed cost-effective if— 
</P>
<P>(1) Life cycle costs, as described by § 436.19, are estimated to be lower; or
</P>
<P>(2) Net savings, as described by § 436.20, are estimated to be positive; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The savings-to-investment ratio, as described by § 436.21, is estimated to be greater than one; or
</P>
<P>(4) The adjusted internal rate of return, as described by § 436.22, is estimated to be greater than the discount rate as set by DOE.
</P>
<P>(d) As a rough measure, each Federal agency may determine estimated simple payback time under § 436.23, which indicates whether a retrofit is likely to be cost effective under one of the four calculation methods referenced in § 436.18(c). An energy or water conservation measure alternative is likely to be cost-effective if estimated payback time is significantly less than the useful life of that system, and of the Federal building in which it is to be installed. 
</P>
<P>(e) Mutually exclusive alternatives for a given building energy or water system, considered in determining such matters as the optimal size of a solar energy system, the optimal thickness of insulation, or the best choice of double-glazing or triple-glazing for windows, shall be compared and evaluated on the basis of life cycle costs or net savings over equivalent study periods. The alternative which is estimated to result in the lowest life cycle costs or the highest net savings shall be deemed the most cost-effective because it tends to minimize the life cycle cost of Federal building.
</P>
<P>(f) When available appropriations will not permit all cost-effective energy or water conservation measures to be undertaken, they shall be ranked in descending order of their savings-to-investment ratios, or their adjusted internal rate of return, to establish priority. If available appropriations cannot be fully exhausted for a fiscal year by taking all budgeted energy or water conservation measures according to their rank, the set of energy or water conservation measures that will maximize net savings for available appropriations should be selected. 
</P>
<P>(g) Alternative building designs for new Federal buildings shall be evaluated on the basis of life cycle costs. The alternative design which results in the lowest life cycle costs for a given new building shall be deemed the most cost-effective.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 32650, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.19" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.19   Life cycle costs.</HEAD>
<P>Life cycle costs are the sum of the present values of—
</P>
<P>(a) Investment costs, less salvage values at the end of the study period;
</P>
<P>(b) Non-fuel operation and maintenance costs:
</P>
<P>(c) Replacement costs less salvage costs of replaced building systems; and
</P>
<P>(d) Energy and/or water costs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 32651, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.20" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.20   Net savings.</HEAD>
<P>For a retrofit project, net savings may be found by subtracting life cycle costs based on the proposed project from life cycle costs based on not having it. For a new building design, net savings is the difference between the life cycle costs of an alternative design and the life cycle costs of the basic design.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.21" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.21   Savings-to-investment ratio.</HEAD>
<P>The savings-to-investment ratio is the ratio of the present value savings to the present value costs of an energy or water conservation measure. The numerator of the ratio is the present value of net savings in energy or water and non-fuel or non-water operation and maintenance costs attributable to the proposed energy or water conservation measure. The denominator of the ratio is the present value of the net increase in investment and replacement costs less salvage value attributable to the proposed energy or water conservation measure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 32651, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.22" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.22   Adjusted internal rate of return.</HEAD>
<P>The adjusted internal rate of return is the overall rate of return on an energy or water conservation measure. It is calculated by subtracting 1 from the nth root of the ratio of the terminal value of savings to the present value of costs, where n is the number of years in the study period. The numerator of the ratio is calculated by using the discount rate to compound forward to the end of the study period the yearly net savings in energy or water and non-fuel or non-water operation and maintenance costs attributable to the proposed energy or water conservation measure. The denominator of the ratio is the present value of the net increase in investment and replacement costs less salvage value attributable to the proposed energy or water conservation measure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 32651, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.23" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.23   Estimated simple payback time.</HEAD>
<P>The estimated simple payback time is the number of years required for the cumulative value of energy or water cost savings less future non-fuel or non-water costs to equal the investment costs of the building energy or water system, without consideration of discount rates. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 32651, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.24" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.1.77.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.24   Uncertainty analyses.</HEAD>
<P>If particular items of cost data or timing of cash flows are uncertain and are not fixed under § 436.14, Federal agencies may examine the impact of uncertainty on the calculation of life cycle cost effectiveness or the assignment of rank order by conducting additional analyses using any standard engineering economics method such as sensitivity and probabilistic analysis. If additional analysis casts substantial doubt on the life cycle cost analysis results, a Federal agency should consider obtaining more reliable data or eliminating the building energy or water system alternative. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 48220, Nov. 20, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 32651, June 25, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Methods and Procedures for Energy Savings Performance Contracting</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 18334, Apr. 10, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 436.30" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.30   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This subpart provides procedures and methods which apply to Federal agencies with regard to the award and administration of energy savings performance contracts. This subpart applies in addition to the Federal Acquisition Regulation at Title 48 of the CFR and related Federal agency regulations. The provisions of this subpart are controlling with regard to energy savings performance contracts notwithstanding any conflicting provisions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation and related Federal agency regulations.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Utility incentive programs.</I> Nothing in this subpart shall preclude a Federal agency from—
</P>
<P>(1) Participating in programs to increase energy efficiency, conserve water, or manage electricity demand conducted by gas, water, or electric utilities and generally available to customers of such utilities; 
</P>
<P>(2) Accepting financial incentives, goods, or services generally available from any such utility to increase energy efficiency or to conserve water or manage electricity demand; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Entering into negotiations with electric, water, and gas utilities to design cost-effective demand management and conservation incentive programs to address the unique needs of each Federal agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Promoting competition.</I> To the extent allowed by law, Federal agencies should encourage utilities to select contractors for the conduct of utility incentive programs in a competitive manner to the maximum extent practicable. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interpretations.</I> The permissive provisions of this subpart shall be liberally construed to effectuate the objectives of Title VIII of the National Energy Conservation Policy Act, 42 U.S.C. 8287-8287c. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 18334, Apr. 10, 1995, as amended at 60 FR 19343, Apr. 18, 1995; 65 FR 39786, June 28, 2000; 89 FR 19501, Mar. 19, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.31" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.31   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means Title VIII of the National Energy Conservation Policy Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Annual energy audit</I> means a procedure including, but not limited to, verification of the achievement of energy cost savings and energy unit savings guaranteed resulting from implementation of energy conservation measures and determination of whether an adjustment to the energy baseline is justified by conditions beyond the contractor's control.
</P>
<P><I>Building</I> means any closed structure primarily intended for human occupancy in which energy is consumed, produced, or distributed.
</P>
<P><I>Detailed energy survey</I> means a procedure which may include, but is not limited to, a detailed analysis of energy cost savings and energy unit savings potential, building conditions, energy consuming equipment, and hours of use or occupancy for the purpose of confirming or revising technical and price proposals based on the preliminary energy survey.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Energy baseline</I> means the amount of energy that would be consumed annually without implementation of energy conservation measures based on historical metered data, engineering calculations, submetering of buildings or energy consuming systems, building load simulation models, statistical regression analysis, or some combination of these methods.
</P>
<P><I>Energy conservation measures</I> means measures that are applied to an existing Federally owned building or facility that improves energy efficiency, are life-cycle cost-effective under subpart A of this part, and involve energy conservation, cogeneration facilities, renewable energy sources, improvements in operation and maintenance efficiencies, or retrofit activities.
</P>
<P><I>Energy cost savings</I> means a reduction in the cost of energy and related operation and maintenance expenses, from a base cost established through a methodology set forth in an energy savings performance contract, utilized in an existing federally owned building or buildings or other federally owned facilities as a result of—
</P>
<P>(1) The lease or purchase of operating equipment, improvements, altered operation and maintenance, or technical services; or
</P>
<P>(2) The increased efficient use of existing energy sources by cogeneration or heat recovery, excluding any cogeneration process for other than a federally owned building or buildings or other federally owned facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Energy savings performance contract</I> means a contract which provides for the performance of services for the design, acquisition, installation, testing, operation, and, where appropriate, maintenance and repair of an identified energy conservation measure or series of measures at one or more locations.
</P>
<P><I>Energy unit savings</I> means the determination, in electrical or thermal units (e.g., kilowatt hour (kwh), kilowatt (kw), or British thermal units (Btu)), of the reduction in energy use or demand by comparing consumption or demand, after completion of contractor-installed energy conservation measures, to an energy baseline established in the contract.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means any structure not primarily intended for human occupancy, or any contiguous group of structures and related systems, either of which produces, distributes, or consumes energy.
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> has the meaning given such term in section 551(1) of Title 5, United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Preliminary energy survey</I> means a procedure which may include, but is not limited to, an evaluation of energy cost savings and energy unit savings potential, building conditions, energy consuming equipment, and hours of use or occupancy, for the purpose of developing technical and price proposals prior to selection.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.32" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.32   Qualified contractors lists.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall prepare a list, to be updated annually, or more often as necessary, of firms qualified to provide energy cost savings performance services and grouped by technology. The list shall be prepared from statements of qualifications by or about firms engaged in providing energy savings performance contract services on questionnaires obtained from DOE. Such statements shall, at a minimum, include prior experience and capabilities of firms to perform the proposed energy cost savings services by technology and financial and performance information. DOE shall issue a notice annually, for publication in the Commerce Business Daily, inviting submission of new statements of qualifications and requiring listed firms to update their statements of qualifications for changes in the information previously provided.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of statements of qualifications received under paragraph (a) of this section and any other relevant information, DOE shall select a firm for inclusion on the qualified list if—
</P>
<P>(1) It has provided energy savings performance contract services or services that save energy or reduce utility costs for not less than two clients, and the firm possesses the appropriate project experience to successfully implement the technologies which it proposes to provide;
</P>
<P>(2) Previous project clients provide ratings which are “fair” or better;
</P>
<P>(3) The firm or any principal of the firm has neither been insolvent nor declared bankruptcy within the last five years;
</P>
<P>(4) The firm or any principal of the firm is not on the list of parties excluded from procurement programs under 48 CFR part 9, subpart 9.4; and
</P>
<P>(5) There is no other adverse information which warrants the conclusion that the firm is not qualified to perform energy savings performance contracts.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE may remove a firm from DOE's list of qualified contractors after notice and an opportunity for comment if— 
</P>
<P>(1) There is a failure to update its statement of qualifications;
</P>
<P>(2) There is credible information warranting disqualification; or
</P>
<P>(3) There is other good cause.
</P>
<P>(d) A Federal agency shall use DOE's list unless it elects to develop its own list of qualified firms consistent with the procedures in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) A firm not designated by DOE or a Federal agency pursuant to the procedures in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section as qualified to provide energy cost savings performance services shall receive a written decision and may request a debriefing.
</P>
<P>(f) Any firm receiving an adverse final decision under this section shall apply to the Board of Contract Appeals of the General Services Administration in order to exhaust administrative remedies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.33" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.33   Procedures and methods for contractor selection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Competitive selection.</I> Competitive selections based on solicitation of firms are subject to the following procedures—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a particular proposed energy cost savings performance project, Federal agencies shall publish a Commerce Business Daily notice which synopsizes the proposed contract action.
</P>
<P>(2) Each competitive solicitation—
</P>
<P>(i) Shall request technical and price proposals and the text of any third-party financing agreement from interested firms;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall consider DOE model solicitations and should use them to the maximum extent practicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) May provide for a two-step selection process which allows Federal agencies to make an initial selection based, in part, on proposals containing estimated energy cost savings and energy unit savings, with contract award conditioned on confirmation through a detailed energy survey that the guaranteed energy cost savings are within a certain percentage (specified in the solicitation) of the estimated amount; and
</P>
<P>(iv) May state that if the Federal agency requires a detailed energy survey which identifies life cycle cost effective energy conservation measures not in the initial proposal, the contract may include such measures.
</P>
<P>(3) Based on its evaluation of the technical and price proposals submitted, any applicable financing agreement (including lease-acquisitions, if any), statements of qualifications submitted under § 436.32 of this subpart, and any other information determines to be relevant, the Federal agency may select a firm on a qualified list to conduct the project.
</P>
<P>(4) If a proposed energy cost savings project involves a large facility with too many contiguously related buildings and other structures at one site for proposing firms to assume the costs of a preliminary energy survey of all such structures, the Federal agency—
</P>
<P>(i) May request technical and price proposals for a representative sample of buildings and other structures and may select a firm to conduct the proposed project; and
</P>
<P>(ii) After selection of a firm, but prior to award of an energy savings performance contract, may request the selected firm to submit technical and price proposals for all or some of the remaining buildings and other structures at the site and may include in the award for all or some of the remaining buildings and other structures.
</P>
<P>(5) After selection under paragraph (a)(3) or (a)(4) of this section, but prior to award, a Federal agency may require the selectee to conduct a detailed energy survey to confirm that guaranteed energy cost savings are within a certain percentage (specified in the solicitation) of estimated energy cost savings in the selectee's proposal. If the detailed energy survey does not confirm that guaranteed energy savings are within the fixed percentage of estimated savings, the Federal agency may select another firm from those within the competitive range.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unsolicited proposals.</I> Federal agencies may—
</P>
<P>(1) Consider unsolicited energy savings performance contract proposals from firms on a qualified contractor list under this subpart which include technical and price proposals and the text of any financing agreement (including a lease-acquisition) without regard to the requirements of 48 CFR 15.602 and 15.602-2(a)(1); 48 CFR 15.603; and 48 CFR 15.607(a), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4) and (a)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) Reject an unsolicited proposal that is too narrow because it does not address the potential for significant energy conservation measures from other than those measures in the proposal.
</P>
<P>(3) After requiring a detailed energy survey, if appropriate, and determining that technical and price proposals are adequate, award a contract to a firm on a qualified contractor list under this subpart on the basis of an unsolicited proposal, provided that the Federal agency complies with the following procedures—
</P>
<P>(i) An award may not be made to the firm submitting the unsolicited proposal unless the Federal agency first publishes a notice in the Commerce Business Daily acknowledging receipt of the proposal and inviting other firms on the qualified list to submit competing proposals.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for unsolicited proposals submitted in response to a published general statement of agency needs, no award based on such an unsolicited proposal may be made in instances in which the Federal agency is planning the acquisition of an energy conservation measure through an energy savings performance contract.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certified cost or pricing data.</I> (1) Energy savings performance contracts under this part are firm fixed-price contracts. 
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to the authority provided under section 304A(b)(1)(B) of the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1049, the heads of procuring activities shall waive the requirement for submission of certified cost or pricing data. However, this does not exempt offerors from submitting information (including pricing information) required by the Federal agency to ensure the impartial and comprehensive evaluation of proposals. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 18334, Apr. 10, 1995, as amended at 65 FR 39786, June 28, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.34" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.34   Multiyear contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, Federal agencies may enter into a multiyear energy savings performance contract for a period not to exceed 25 years, as authorized by 42 U.S.C. 8287, without funding of cancellation charges, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The multiyear energy savings performance contract was awarded in a competitive manner using the procedures and methods established by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Funds are available and adequate for payment of the scheduled energy cost for the first fiscal year of the multiyear energy savings performance contract;
</P>
<P>(3) Thirty days before the award of any multiyear energy savings performance contract that contains a clause setting forth a cancellation ceiling in excess of $750,000, the head of the awarding Federal agency gives written notification of the proposed contract and the proposed cancellation ceiling for the contract to the appropriate authorizing and appropriating committees of the Congress; and
</P>
<P>(4) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the multiyear energy savings performance contract is subject to 48 CFR part 17, subpart 17.1, including the requirement that the contracting officer establish a cancellation ceiling.
</P>
<P>(b) Neither this subpart nor any provision of the Act requires, prior to contract award or as a condition of a contract award, that a Federal agency have appropriated funds available and adequate to pay for the total costs of an energy savings performance contract for the term of such contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.35" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.35   Standard terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory requirements.</I> In addition to contractual provisions otherwise required by the Act or this subpart, any energy savings performance contract shall contain clauses—
</P>
<P>(1) Authorizing modification, replacement, or changes of equipment, at no cost to the Federal agency, with the prior approval of the contracting officer who shall consider the expected level of performance after such modification, replacement or change;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing for the disposition of title to systems and equipment;
</P>
<P>(3) Requiring prior approval by the contracting officer of any financing agreements (including lease-acquisitions) and amendments to such an agreement entered into after contract award for the purpose of financing the acquisition of energy conservation measures;
</P>
<P>(4) Providing for an annual energy audit and identifying who shall conduct such an audit, consistent with § 436.37 of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(5) Providing for a guarantee of energy cost savings to the Federal agency, and establishing payment schedules reflecting such guarantee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Third party financing.</I> If there is third party financing, then an energy savings performance contract may contain a clause:
</P>
<P>(1) Permitting the financing source to perfect a security interest in the installed energy conservation measures, subject to and subordinate to the rights of the Federal agency; and
</P>
<P>(2) Protecting the interests of a Federal agency and a financing source, by authorizing a contracting officer in appropriate circumstances to require a contractor who defaults on an energy savings performance contract or who does not cure the failure to make timely payments, to assign to the financing source, if willing and able, the contractor's rights and responsibilities under an energy savings performance contract; 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.36" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.36   Conditions of payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any amount paid by a Federal agency pursuant to any energy savings performance contract entered into under this subpart may be paid only from funds appropriated or otherwise made available to the agency for the payment of energy expenses and related operation and maintenance expenses which would have been incurred without an energy savings performance contract. The amount the agency would have paid is equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) The energy baseline under the energy savings performance contract (adjusted if appropriate under § 436.37), multiplied by the unit energy cost; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any related operations and maintenance cost prior to implementation of energy conservation measures, adjusted for increases in labor and material price indices.
</P>
<P>(b) Federal agencies may incur obligations pursuant to energy savings performance contracts to finance energy conservation measures provided guaranteed energy cost savings exceed the contractor's debt service requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.37" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.37   Annual energy audits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After contractor implementation of energy conservation measures and annually thereafter during the contract term, an annual energy audit shall be conducted by the Federal agency or the contractor as determined by the contract. The annual energy audit shall verify the achievement of annual energy cost savings performance guarantees provided by the contractor.
</P>
<P>(b) The energy baseline is subject to adjustment due to changes beyond the contractor's control, such as—
</P>
<P>(1) Physical changes to building;
</P>
<P>(2) Hours of use or occupancy;
</P>
<P>(3) Area of conditioned space;
</P>
<P>(4) Addition or removal of energy consuming equipment or systems;
</P>
<P>(5) Energy consuming equipment operating conditions;
</P>
<P>(6) Weather (i.e., cooling and heating degree days); and
</P>
<P>(7) Utility rates.
</P>
<P>(c) In the solicitation or in the contract, Federal agencies shall specify requirements for annual energy audits, the energy baseline, and baseline adjustment procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.38" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.2.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.38   Terminating contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided by this subpart, termination of energy savings performance contracts shall be subject to the termination procedures of the Federal Acquisition Regulation in 48 CFR part 49.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event an energy savings performance contract is terminated for the convenience of a Federal agency, the termination liability of the Federal agency shall not exceed the cancellation ceiling set forth in the contract, for the year in which the contract is terminated.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Agency Procurement of Energy Efficient Products</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 10835, Mar. 13, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 436.40" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.3.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.40   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides guidance to promote the procurement of energy efficient products by Federal agencies and promote procurement practices which facilitate the procurement of energy efficient products, consistent with the requirements in section 553 of the National Energy Conservation Policy Act. (42 U.S.C. 8259b)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.41" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.3.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.41   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agency</I> means each authority of the Government of the United States, whether or not it is within or subject to review by another agency, but does not include—
</P>
<P>(1) The Congress, and agencies thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) The courts of the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) The governments of the territories or possessions of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(4) The government of the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Covered product</I> means a product that is of a category for which an ENERGY STAR qualification or FEMP designation is established.
</P>
<P><I>ENERGY STAR qualified product</I> means a product that is rated for energy efficiency under an ENERGY STAR program established by section 324A of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (42 U.S.C. 6294a).
</P>
<P><I>FEMP designated product</I> means a product that is designated under the Federal Energy Management Program as being among the highest 25 percent of equivalent products for energy efficiency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.42" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.3.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.42   Evaluation of Life-Cycle Cost Effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of compliance with section 553 of the National Energy Conservation Policy Act:
</P>
<P>(a) ENERGY STAR qualified and FEMP designated products may be assumed to be life-cycle cost-effective.
</P>
<P>(b) In making a determination that a covered product is not life-cycle cost-effective, an agency should rely on the life-cycle cost analysis method in part 436, subpart A, of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.43" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.3.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.43   Procurement planning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agencies should consider the procurement planning requirements of section 553 of the National Energy Conservation Policy Act as applying to:
</P>
<P>(1) Design, design/build, renovation, retrofit and services contracts; facility maintenance and operations contracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Energy savings performance contracts and utility energy service contracts;
</P>
<P>(3) If applicable, lease agreements for buildings or equipment, including build-to-lease contracts;
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies should require the procurement of ENERGY STAR and FEMP designated products in new service contracts and other existing service contracts as they are recompeted and should, to the extent possible, incorporate such requirements and preferences into existing contracts as they are modified or extended through options.
</P>
<P>(c) Agencies should include criteria for energy efficiency that are consistent with the criteria used for rating qualified products in the factors for the evaluation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Offers received for procurements involving covered products, and
</P>
<P>(2) Offers received for construction, renovation, and services contracts that include provisions for covered products.
</P>
<P>(d) Agencies should notify their vendors of the Federal requirements for energy efficient purchasing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts D-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Guidelines for General Operations Plans</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Energy Policy and Conservation Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6361; Executive Order 11912, as amended, 42 FR 37523 (July 20, 1977); National Energy Conservation Policy Act, title V, part 3, 42 U.S.C. 8251 <I>et seq.;</I> Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7254.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 44561, July 1, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 436.100" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart is to provide guidelines for use by Federal agencies in their development of overall 10-year energy management plans to establish energy conservation goals, to reduce the rate of energy consumption, to promote the efficient use of energy, to promote switching for petroleum-based fuels and natural gas to coal and other energy sources, to provide a methodology for reporting their progress in meeting the goals of those plans, and to promote emergency energy conservation planning to assuage the impact of a sudden disruption in the supply of oil-based fuels, natural gas or electricity. The plan is intended to provide the cornerstone for a program to conserve energy in the general operations of an agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to all general operations of Federal agencies and is applicable to management of all energy used by Federal agencies that is excluded from coverage pursuant to section 543(a)(2) of part 3 of title V of the National Energy Conservation Policy Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 8251-8261).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 44561, July 1, 1980, as amended at 55 FR 48223, Nov. 20, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.101" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Automotive gasoline</I> means all grades of gasoline for use in internal combustion engines except aviation gasoline. Does not include diesel fuel.
</P>
<P><I>Aviation gasoline (AVGAS)</I> means all special grades of gasoline for use in aviation reciprocating engines.
</P>
<P><I>Btu</I> means British thermal unit; the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit.
</P>
<P><I>Cogeneration</I> means the utilization of surplus energy, e.g., steam, heat or hot water produced as a by-product of the manufacture of some other form of energy, such as electricity. Thus, diesel generators are converted to cogeneration sets when they are equipped with boilers that make steam and hot water (usable as energy) from the heat of the exhaust and the water that cools the generator.
</P>
<P><I>Diesel and petroleum distillate fuels</I> means the lighter fuel oils distilled-off during the refining process. Included are heating oils, fuels, and fuel oil. The major uses of distillate fuel oils include heating, fuel for on- and off-highway diesel engines, marine diesel engines and railroad diesel fuel.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency conservation plan</I> means a set of instructions designed to specify actions to be taken in response to a serious interruption of energy supply.
</P>
<P><I>Energy efficiency goal</I> means the ratio of production achieved to energy used.
</P>
<P><I>Energy use avoidance</I> means the amount of energy resources, e.g., gasoline, not used because of initiatives related to conservation. It is the difference between the baseline without a plan and actual consumption.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means any structure or group of closely located structures, comprising a manufacturing plant, laboratory, office or service center, plus equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means any Executive agency under 5 U.S.C. 105 and the United States Postal Service, each entity specified in 5 U.S.C. 5721(1) (B) through (H) and, except that for purposes of this subpart, the Department of Defense shall be separated into four reporting organizations: the Departments of the Army, Navy and Air Force and the collective DOD agencies, with each responsible for complying with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Fiscal year</I> or <I>FY</I> means, for a given year, October 1 of the prior year through September 30 of the given year.
</P>
<P><I>Fuel types</I> means purchased electricity, fuel oil, natural gas, liquefied petroleum gas, coal, purchased steam, automotive gasoline, diesel and petroleum distillate fuels, aviation gasoline, jet fuel, Navy special, and other identified fuels.
</P>
<P><I>General operations</I> means world-wide Federal agency operations, other than building operations, and includes services; production and industrial activities; operation of aircraft, ships, and land vehicles; and operation of Government-owned, contractor-operated plants. 
</P>
<P><I>General transportation</I> means the use of vehicles for over-the-road driving as opposed to vehicles designed for off-road conditions, and the use of aircraft and vessels. This category does not include special purpose vehicles such as combat aircraft, construction equipment or mail delivery vehicles. 
</P>
<P><I>Goal</I> means a specific statement of an intended energy conservation result which will occur within a prescribed time period. The intended result must be time-phased and must reflect expected energy use assuming planned conservation programs are implemented. 
</P>
<P><I>Guidelines</I> means a set of instructions designed to prescribe, direct and regulate a course of action. 
</P>
<P><I>Industrial or production</I> means the operation of facilities including buildings and plants which normally use large amounts of capital equipment, e.g., GOCO plants, to produce goods (hardware). 
</P>
<P><I>Jet fuel</I> means fuels for use, generally in aircraft turbine engines. 
</P>
<P><I>Life cycle cost</I> means the total cost of acquiring, operating and maintaining equipment over its economic life, including its fuel costs, determined on the basis of a systematic evaluation and comparison of alternative investments in programs, as defined in subpart A of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Liquefied petroleum gas</I> means propane, propylene-butanes, butylene, propane-butane mixtures, and isobutane that are produced at a refinery, a natural gas processing plant, or a field facility. 
</P>
<P><I>Maintenance</I> means activities undertaken to assure that equipment and energy-using systems operate effectively and efficiently. 
</P>
<P><I>Measures</I> means actions, procedures, devices or other means for effecting energy efficient changes in general operations which can be applied by Federal agencies. 
</P>
<P><I>Measure of performance</I> means a scale against which the fulfillment of a requirement can be measured. 
</P>
<P><I>Navy special</I> means a heavy fuel oil that is similar to ASTM grade No. 6 oil or Bunker C oil. It is used to power U.S. Navy ships. 
</P>
<P><I>Non-renewable energy source</I> means fuel oil, natural gas, liquefied petroleum gas, synthetic fuels, and purchased steam or electricity, or other such energy sources. 
</P>
<P><I>Operational training and readiness</I> means those activities which are necessary to establish or maintain an agency's capability to perform its primary mission. Included are major activities to provide essential personnel strengths, skills, equipment/supply inventory and equipment condition. General administrative and housekeeping activities are not included. 
</P>
<P><I>Overall plan</I> means the comprehensive agency plan for conserving fuel and energy in all operations, to include both the Buildings Plan developed pursuant to subpart C of this part and the General Operations Plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Plan</I> means those actions which an agency envisions it must undertake to assure attainment of energy consumption and efficiency goals without an unacceptably adverse impact on primary missions. 
</P>
<P><I>Program</I> means the organized set of activities and allocation of resources directed toward a common purpose, objective, or goal undertaken or proposed by an agency in order to carry out the responsibilities assigned to it. 
</P>
<P><I>Renewable energy sources</I> means sunlight, wind, geothermal, biomass, solid wastes, or other such sources of energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Services</I> means the provision of administrative assistance or something of benefit to the public. 
</P>
<P><I>Specific Functional Category</I> means those Federal agency activities which consume energy, or which are directly linked to energy consuming activities and which fall into one of the following groups: Services, General Transportation, Industrial or Production, Operational Training and Readiness, and Others. 
</P>
<P><I>Standard</I> means an energy conservation measure determined by DOE to be applicable to a particular agency or agencies. Once established as a standard, any variance or decision not to adopt the measure requires a waiver. 
</P>
<P><I>Under Secretary</I> means the Under Secretary of the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Variance</I> means the difference between actual consumption and goal. 
</P>
<P><I>656 Committee</I> means the Interagency Federal Energy Policy Committee, the group designated in section 656 of the DOE Organization Act to provide general oversight for interdepartmental FEMP matters. It is chaired by the Under Secretary of DOE and includes the designated Assistant Secretaries or Assistant Administrator of the Department of Defense, Commerce, Housing and Urban Development, Transportation, Agriculture, Interior and the U.S. Postal Service and General Services Administration, along with similar level representatives of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration and the Veterans Administration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.102" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.102   General operations plan format and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal agency shall prepare and submit to the Under Secretary, DOE, within six months from the effective date of these guidelines, a general operations 10-year plan which shall consist of two parts, an executive summary and a text. Subsequent agency revisions to plans shall be included in each agency's annual report on progress which shall be forwarded to DOE by July 1 annually. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following information shall be included in each Federal agency general operations 10-year plan for the period of fiscal years 1980-1990: 
</P>
<P>(1) An Executive Summary which includes—
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of agency missions, and applicable functional categories pursuant to § 436.106(a)(2); 
</P>
<P>(ii) A Goals and Objectives Section which summarizes what energy savings or avoidance will be achieved during the plan period, and what actions will be taken to achieve those savings, and the costs and benefits of measures planned for reducing energy consumption, increasing energy efficiencies, and shifting to a more favorable fuel mix. Assumptions of environmental, safety and health effects of the goals should be included; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A chart depicting the agency organizational structure for energy management, showing energy management program organization for headquarters and for major subordinate elements of the agency; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A schedule for completion of requirements directed in this subpart, including phase-out of any procedures made obsolete by these guidelines; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Identification of any significant problem which may impede the agency from meeting its energy management goals. 
</P>
<P>(2) A Text which includes—
</P>
<P>(i) A Goals and Objectives Section developed pursuant to § 436.103 describing agency conservation goals; these goals will be related to primary mission goals; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An Investment Section describing the agency planned investment program by fiscal year, pursuant to appendix B of this subpart, all measures selected pursuant to § 436.104, and the estimated costs and benefits of the measures planned for reducing energy consumption and increasing energy efficiencies; 
</P>
<P>(iii) An Organization Section which includes: (A) Designation of the principal energy conservation officer, such as an Assistant Secretary or Assistant Administrator, who is responsible for supervising the preparation, updating and execution of the Plan, for planning and implementation of agency energy conservation programs, and for coordination with DOE with respect to energy matters; (B) designation of a middle-level staff member as a point of contact to interface with the DOE Federal Programs Office at the staff level; and (C) designation of key staff members within the agency who are responsible for technical inputs to the plan or monitoring progress toward meeting the goals of the plan; 
</P>
<P>(iv) An Issues Section addressing problems, alternative courses of action for resolution, and agency recommendations that justify any decisions not to plan for or implement measures contained in appendix C of this subpart, and identifying any special projects, programs, or administrative procedures which may be beneficial to other Federal agency energy management programs: 
</P>
<P>(v) An implementing Instructions Section which includes a summary of implementing instructions issued by agency headquarters, and attachments of appropriate documents such as: 
</P>
<P>(A) Specific tasking resulting from development of the Plan; 
</P>
<P>(B) Guidance for the development of emergency conservation plans; 
</P>
<P>(C) Task milestones; 
</P>
<P>(D) Listing of responsible sub-agencies and individuals at both agency headquarters and subordinate units; 
</P>
<P>(E) Reporting and administrative procedures for headquarters and subordinate organizations; 
</P>
<P>(F) Report schedules pursuant to § 436.106(c);
</P>
<P>(G) Schedules for feedback in order to facilitate plan updating, to include reviews of emergency conservation plans developed pursuant to § 436.105;
</P>
<P>(H) Schedules for preparing and submitting the annual report on energy management pursuant to § 436.106(a);
</P>
<P>(I) Schedules of plan preparation and publication;
</P>
<P>(J) Communication, implementation, and control measures such as inspections, audits, and others; and
</P>
<P>(vi) An Emergency Conservation Plan Summary Section pursuant to the requirements of § 436.105(d).
</P>
<P>(3) Appendices which are needed to discuss and evaluate any innovative energy conserving technologies or methods, not included in this part, which the agency has identified for inclusion in its plan.
</P>
<P>(c) Each plan must be approved and signed by the principal energy conservation officer designated pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.103" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.103   Program goal setting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In developing and revising plans for a projected 10-year plan each agency shall establish and maintain energy conservation goals in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Agencies shall establish three types of conservation goals:
</P>
<P>(1) Energy consumption goals, by fuel type by functional category (see appendix B).
</P>
<P>(2) Energy efficiency goals by fuel type by functional category (see appendix B).
</P>
<P>(3) Fuel switching goals for shifting energy use from oil and natural gas to other fuels in more plentiful supply from domestic sources (see appendix B).
</P>
<P>(c) General operations energy conservation goals shall be established by each Federal agency with the broad purpose of achieving reductions in total energy consumption and increased efficiency without serious mission degradation or unmitigated negative environmental impacts. Within the broad framework, each agency should seek first to reduce energy consumption per unit of output in each applicable functional category. In evaluating energy efficiency, each agency should select and use standards of measurement which are consistent throughout the planning period. Particular attention should be given to increased energy use efficiency in nonrenewable fuel consumption. The second focus of attention should be on initiatives which shift energy use from oil and natural gas to other fuels in more plentiful supply from domestic sources.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.104" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.104   Energy conservation measures and standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall consider for inclusion in its plan the measures identified in appendix C of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The following questions should be considered in the evaluation of each measure:
</P>
<P>(1) Does this measure provide an incentive or disincentive?
</P>
<P>(2) What is the estimate of savings by fuel type?
</P>
<P>(3) What are the direct and indirect impacts of this measure?
</P>
<P>(4) Is this measure to be mandatory throughout the agency?
</P>
<P>(5) If not mandatory, under what circumstances will it be implemented, and who will be responsible for determining specific applicability?
</P>
<P>(6) Who will be the direct participants in the implementation of this measure?
</P>
<P>(7) What incentives (if any) are to be provided for the participants?
</P>
<P>(8) When will this measure be implemented?
</P>
<P>(9) Will this measure be implemented in a single step or will it be phased in? If it will be phased in, over what period of time?
</P>
<P>(10) Will performance of the measure be evaluated and reported?
</P>
<P>(11) By what criterion will performance be determined?
</P>
<P>(12) Who will prepare performance reports?
</P>
<P>(13) What is the reporting chain?
</P>
<P>(14) What is the reporting period?
</P>
<P>(c) Each agency will take all necessary steps to implement the energy conservation standards for general operations listed in appendix A (reserved). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.105" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.105   Emergency conservation plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each agency shall establish an emergency conservation plan, a summary of which shall be included in the general operations plan, for assuaging the impact of a sudden disruption in the supply of oil-based fuels, natural gas or electricity. Priorities for temporarily reducing missions, production, services, and other programmatic or functional activities shall be developed in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. Planning for emergencies is to address both buildings and general operations. Provisions shall be made for testing emergency actions to ascertain that they are effective. 
</P>
<P>(b) Federal agencies shall prepare emergency conservation plans for 10 percent, fifteen percent, and 20 percent reduction compared to the previous fiscal year in gasoline, other oil-based fuels, natural gas, or electricity for periods of up to 12 months. In developing these plans, agencies shall consider the potential for emergency reductions in energy use in buildings and facilities which the agency owns, leases, or has under contract and by employees through increased use of car and van pooling, preferential parking for multipassenger vehicles, and greater use of mass transit. Agencies may formulate whatever additional scenarios they consider necessary to plan for various energy emergencies. 
</P>
<P>(c) In general, Federal agencies' priorities shall go to those activities which directly support the agencies' primary missions. Secondary mission activities which must be curtailed or deferred will be reported to DOE as mission impacts. The description of mission impacts shall include estimates of the associated resources and time required to mitigate the effects of the reduction in energy. Other factors or assumptions to be used in energy conservation emergency planning are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Agencies will be given 15-30 days notice to implement any given plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) Substitution of fuels in plentiful supply for fuels in short supply is authorized, if the substitution can be completed within a 3-month period and the cost is within the approval authority of the executive branch. 
</P>
<P>(3) All costs and increases in manpower or other resources associated with activities or projects to assuage mission impacts will be clearly defined in respective agency plans. One-time costs will be identified separately. 
</P>
<P>(4) Confronting the emergency situation will be considered a priority effort and all projects and increases in operating budgets within the approval authority of the executive branch will be expeditiously considered and approved if justified. 
</P>
<P>(d) Summary plans for agency-wide emergency conservation management shall be provided to DOE pursuant to § 436.102(b)(2)(vi). Such summaries shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Agency-wide impacts of energy reductions as determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Actions to be taken agency-wide to alleviate the energy shortfalls as they occur. 
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of agency services or production that may need to be curtailed or limited after corrective actions have been taken. 
</P>
<P>(4) A summation of control and feedback mechanisms for managing an energy emergency situation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.106" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.106   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By July 1 of each year each Federal agency shall submit an “Annual Report on Energy Management” based on fiscal year data to the Secretary of DOE. The general operations portion of this report will encompass all agency energy use not reported in the buildings portion and shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A summary evaluation of progress toward the achievement of energy consumption, energy efficiency, and fuel switching goals established by the agency in its plans; 
</P>
<P>(2) Energy consumption reported by functional categories. Reports must include General Transportation and one or more of the following functional categories: industrial or production, services, operational training and readiness, and other. Agencies may report in subcategories of their own choosing. The following information is to be reported for the usage of each fuel type in physical units for each selected functional category: 
</P>
<P>(i) Total energy consumption goal;
</P>
<P>(ii) Total energy consumed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Total energy use avoidance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Variance between actual consumption and consumption goal; 
</P>
<P>(v) Cost saved; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Status of planned investments, and if different from the investment program upon which existing goals are based, the expected impact on meeting goals; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Summary of any other benefits realized. 
</P>
<P>(3) The energy efficiencies as calculated in accordance with appendix B of this subpart, or by an equivalent method, for the appropriate functional categories identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The following information is to be reported for the energy efficiency for each fuel type by functional category: 
</P>
<P>(i) Energy efficiency goal; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Efficiency for the reporting period; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Summary of any other benefits realized. 
</P>
<P>(4) A summary of fuel switching progress including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Description and cost of investments in fuel switching; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Avoidance in use of oil-based fuels and natural gas; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Increased use of solar, wood, gasohol and other renewable energy sources; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Increased use of coal and coal derivatives, and 
</P>
<P>(v) Use of all other alternative fuels. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each agency's annual report shall be developed in accordance with a format to be provided by DOE and will include agency revisions to 10-year plans. 
</P>
<P>(c) Agencies whose annual total energy consumption exceeds one hundred billion Btu's, shall, in addition to the annual report required under paragraph (a) of this section, submit quarterly reports of the energy usage information specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) Agencies who consume energy in operations in foreign countries will include data on foreign operations if foreign consumption is greater than 10% of that consumed by the agency in the United States, its territories and possessions. If an agency's estimated foreign consumption is less than 10% of its total domestic energy use, reporting of foreign consumption is optional. Reports should be annotated if foreign consumption is not included. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 44561, July 1, 1980, as amended at 51 FR 4586, Feb. 6, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.107" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.107   Review of plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each plan or revision of a plan shall be submitted to DOE and DOE will evaluate the sufficiency of the plan in accordance with the requirements of this subpart. Written notification of the adequacy of the plan including a critique, will be made by DOE and sent to the agency submitting the plan or revision within 60 days of submission. Agencies shall be afforded an opportunity to modify and return the plan within an appropriate period of time for review by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(b) A general operations plan under the guidelines will be evaluated with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Adequacy of information or plan content required to be included by § 436.102; 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequacy of goal setting methodology or baseline justification as stated in § 436.103; 
</P>
<P>(3) Adequacy of a well-justified investment program which considers all measures included in appendix C of this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Other factors as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) After reviewing agency plans or revisions of plans, the Under Secretary of DOE, may submit to the “656” Committee for its recommendation, major problem areas or common deficiencies. 
</P>
<P>(d) Status of the plan review, the Under Secretary's decisions, and “656” Committee recommendations, will be published as appropriate in the DOE annual report to the President, titled “Energy Management in the Federal Government.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 436.108" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 436.108   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any Federal agency may submit a written request to the Under Secretary for a waiver from the procedures and requirements of this subpart. The request for a waiver must identify the specific requirements and procedures of this subpart from which a waiver is sought and provide a detailed explanation, including appropriate information or documentation, as to why a waiver should be granted. 
</P>
<P>(b) A request for a waiver under this section must be submitted at least 60 days prior to the due date for the required submission. 
</P>
<P>(c) A written response to a request for a waiver will be issued by the Under Secretary no later than 30 days from receipt of the request. Such a response will either (1) grant the request with any conditions determined to be necessary to further the purposes of this subpart, (2) deny the request based on a determination that the reasons given in the request for a waiver do not establish a need that takes precedence over the futherance of the purposes of this subpart, or (3) deny the request based on the failure to submit adequate information upon which to grant a waiver. 
</P>
<P>(d) A requested waiver may be submitted by the Under Secretary to the “656” Committee for its review and recommendation. The agency official that submitted the request may attend any scheduled meeting of the “656” Committee at which the request is planned to be discussed. The determination to approve or disapprove a request for a waiver shall be made by the Under Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(e) Status of the requests for a waiver, the Under Secretary's decisions, and “656” Committee recommendations, will be published, as appropriate, in the DOE annual report to the President, entitled “Energy Management in the Federal Government.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.10.47" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 436—Energy Conservation Standards for General Operations [Reserved] 


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.10.48" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 436—Goal Setting Methodology
</HEAD>
<P>In establishing and updating agency goals for energy conservation, the following methodology or an equivalent method should be utilized: 
</P>
<P>(a) For overall energy consumption—
</P>
<P>(1) An analysis shall be made to determine what factors have the most significant impact upon the amount of each fuel type used by the agency in performing functions in support of its overall mission. Consideration is to be given, but not limited to, the following factors: Number of people using energy; number of vehicles using gasoline; amounts of other equipment using energy; tempo of operations (one, two, or three shifts); the type of operations (degree of equipment or labor intensity); equipment fuel limitations; environmental conditions (tropical versus arctic, etc.); budget levels for fuel, operations, maintenance, and equipment acquisition; and phase-out schedule (of older equipment or plants which may be inefficient). After identifying these factors, a further analysis shall be made to identify any projected workload changes in the quality or quantity of these factors on a yearly basis up to 1990. 
</P>
<P>(2) Based upon the analysis in (a)(1) and an evaluation of available information on past energy usage, a baseline of energy use by fuel type by functional category shall be established beginning with FY 1975. In addition to “General Transportation,” other functional categories should be selected to enhance energy management. Total fuel use for a particular activity may be allocated to the functional category for which the preponderance of fuel is used. Figure B-1 is an example of one such baseline.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec04oc91.241.gif"/>
<P>This example shows an increase in energy use, for a specific fuel type, during the period 1975-1981, with a further increase from 1981 to 1984 and a leveling off and no growth from 1984-1990. A justification, based on factors as discussed above, shall accompany each baseline. 
</P>
<P>(3) Thereafter, analyses should be made of the measures available for reducing the energy consumption profiles without adverse impact on mission accomplishment. Finding viable opportunities for reducing energy use, increasing energy efficiency and switching energy sources, will require consultation with specialists in the fields of operations, maintenance, engineering, design, and economics, and consideration of the measures identified in appendix C. The DOE Federal Energy Management Programs Office can, upon request, provide information on where such resources can be located. Once these measures are identified, they are to be incorporated into a time-phased investment program, (using where appropriate, the life cycle costing factors and methodology in subpart A of this part). If investment and other costs for implementing a measure are insignificant, a Federal agency may presume that a measure is cost-effective without further analysis. An estimate must then be made as to the lead time required to implement the program and realize energy reductions. 
</P>
<P>Figure B-2 shows a summarized investment program, which should be accompanied by a detailed description of the measures, projects, and programs making up the total planned investments for each year. This summary need not be by function or fuel type. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec04oc91.242.gif"/>
<P>These analyses should enable the agency to project an energy consumption goal, with the assumption that funds for executing the planned projects will be approved. Figure B-3 shows a new energy use profile, with planned initiatives and related investments taken into consideration, and the resulting goal entitled “Energy Use With A Plan” superimposed on Figure B-1. Included are the anticipated effects on consumption cause by improvements in energy efficiency and fuel switching. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec04oc91.243.gif"/>
<P>A comparison of these projections will show the energy use avoidance resulting from the investment program as depicted in Figure B-2. Using the prices of fuel contained in appendix C to subpart A, the dollars saved can be projected against the dollars invested. Life cycle costing methodology pursuant to subpart A, will be used to determine priorities for submitting individual initiatives into the appropriate budget year. 
</P>
<P>(b) For energy efficiencies—Energy efficiency baselines and goals for each fuel type shall be calculated using the same consumption factors and similar methodology to that outlined in paragraph (a). Energy consumption by fuel type shall be linked to mission through the functional categories listed in § 436.106(a)(2). This will identify a rate which will indicate energy efficiency trends. This linkage may be accomplished through the following algorithm: 
</P>
<P><I>Step 1:</I> Determine functional categories from section 436.106(a)(2) which best describe the Agency overall mission. 
</P>
<P><I>Step 2:</I> Determine types of fuels used to support the functions selected in Step 1. 
</P>
<P><I>Step 3:</I> Determine quantities of fuel consumed or planned for consumption over a specific period of time. 
</P>
<P><I>Step 4:</I> Determine quantity of output of function for same period of time used in Step 3. Quantify output in a standard measure which best describes functional category. 
</P>
<P><I>Step 5:</I> Determine the energy efficiency ratio by dividing quantity from Step 4 by quantity from Step 3. 
</P>
<P>This ratio of fuel consumed to a unit measure of output will be used to develop a projection of a baseline and goals through 1990, and used in reporting variance. Examples of ratios that should be considered are:
</P>
<FP1-2>• Production or industrial process type operations
</FP1-2>
<FP>Ton of product
</FP>
<FP>Cu. ft. of natural gas
</FP>
<FP1-2>• Services, such as postal delivery
</FP1-2>
<FP>Customers served or
</FP>
<FP>pounds delivered
</FP>
<FP>Gallons of automotive 
</FP>
<FP>gasoline
</FP>
<FP1-2>• General transportation
</FP1-2>
<FP>Passenger miles
</FP>
<FP>Gallons of automotive gasoline
</FP>
<FP1-2>• Training
</FP1-2>
<FP>Persons trained
</FP>
<FP>or in training
</FP>
<FP>Gallons of navy special
</FP>
<P>Agencies shall select one or more of these ratios, which shall be used throughout the planning period, or use more appropriate energy efficiency ratios, to describe their overall functions. Figure B-4 illustrates the planning baseline and goal resulting from this type of analysis.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec04oc91.244.gif"/>
<P>(c) For fuel switching—Fuel switching goals for gasoline other oil-based fuel and natural gas may be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Step 1:</I> For each fiscal year, identify investments, where appropriate, in fuel switching from gasoline, other oil-based fuel and natural gas to alternate renewable or nonrenewable fuel sources.
</P>
<P><I>Step 2:</I> Project for each fiscal year, the avoidance in the use of gasoline, other oil-based fuel and natural gas resulting from previous fuel switching investments.
</P>
<P>Completion of these steps will permit the formulation of charts such as that shown in Figure B-5.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec04oc91.245.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.10.49" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 436—General Operations Energy Conservation Measures
</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following individual measures or set of measures must be considered for inclusion in each agency 10-year energy management plan: 
</P>
<P>(1) Federal Employee Ridesharing Programs—Includes the use of vanpooling and carpooling and complies with existing orders and regulations governing parking for vanpools and carpools. 
</P>
<P>(2) Fleet Profile Change—Includes energy considerations in equipment selection and assignment. 
</P>
<P>(3) Fleet Mileage Efficiency—Includes agency plans to implement existing orders, goals, and laws related to vehicle fuel economy. 
</P>
<P>(4) Driver Training—Includes development of appropriate programs for training operators of U.S. Government vehicles in energy conservation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Maintenance Procedures Improvement—Includes activities to insure proper vehicle maintenance to optimize energy conservation. 
</P>
<P>(6) Operating Procedures Improvement—Includes use of cooperative passenger shuttle and courier services on an interagency or other basis within each metropolitan area. 
</P>
<P>(7) Mass Transit—Includes employee use of existing services for business-related activities and commuting. 
</P>
<P>(8) Public Education to Promote Vanpooling and Carpooling—Includes activities to support the EPCA requirement to establish “responsible public education programs to promote vanpooling and carpooling arrangements” through their employee awareness programs. 
</P>
<P>(9) Elimination of Free or Subsidized Employee Parking—Includes elimination of free or subsidized employee parking on Federal installations in accordance with OMB Cir. A-118, August 13, 1979. 
</P>
<P>(10) Two-Wheeled Vehicle Programs—Includes activities to encourage the substitution of bicycles, mopeds, etc. for automobiles for commuting and operational purposes. These may include the establishment of weather-protected secure storage facilities, shower and locker facilities, and restricted routes for these vehicles on Federal property. Cooperative programs with local civil authorities may also be included. 
</P>
<P>(11) Consolidation of Facilities and Process Activities—Includes such measures as physical consolidation of operations to minimize intra-operational travel and may include facility closure or conversion. Alternative work patterns, availability of transportation, energy source availability, and technical and financial feasibility are among the considerations that should be evaluated. 
</P>
<P>(12) Agency Procurement Programs—Includes activities to ensure that energy conservation opportunities are fully exploited with respect to the agency's procurement programs including procurements relating to operations and maintenance activities; e.g., (a) giving preference to fuel-efficient products whenever practicable, and (b) ensuring that agency's contractors having a preponderance of cost-type contracts pursue a comprehensive energy conservation program. 
</P>
<P>(13) Energy Conservation Awareness Programs—Includes programs aimed toward gaining and perpetuating employee awareness and participation in energy conservation measures on the job and in their personal activities. 
</P>
<P>(14) Communication—Includes substitution of communications for physical travel. 
</P>
<P>(15) Dress Code—Includes measures to allow employees greater freedom in their choice of wearing apparel to promote greater participation in conservation. 
</P>
<P>(16) Land Use—Includes energy considerations to be employed in new site selection, such as colocation. 
</P>
<P>(17) Automatic Data Processing (ADP)—Includes all energy aspects of ADP operation and equipment selection. 
</P>
<P>(18) Aircraft Operations—Includes energy-conserving measures developed for both military and Federal administrative and research and development aircraft operations. 
</P>
<P>(19) GOCO Facilities and Industrial Plants Operated by Federal Employees—Includes development of energy conservation plans at these facilities and plants which contain measures such as energy efficient periodic maintenance. 
</P>
<P>(20) Energy Conserving Capital Plant and Equipment Modification—Includes development of energy conservation and life cycle cost parameter measures for replacement of capital plant and equipment. 
</P>
<P>(21) Process Improvements—Includes measures to improve energy conservation in industrial process operations. These may include consideration of equipment replacement or modification, as well as scheduling and other operational changes. 
</P>
<P>(22) Improved Steam Maintenance and Management—Includes measures to improve energy efficiency of steam systems. These may include improved maintenance, installation of energy-conserving devices, and the operational use of substitutes for live steam where feasible. 
</P>
<P>(23) Improvements in Waste Heat Recovery—Includes measures utilizing waste heat for other purposes. 
</P>
<P>(24) Improvement in Boiler Operations—Includes energy-conserving retrofit measures for boiler operations. 
</P>
<P>(25) Improved Insulation—Includes measures addressing the addition or replacement of insulation on pipes, storage tanks, and in other appropriate areas. 
</P>
<P>(26) Scheduling by Major Electric Power Users—Includes measures to shift major electrical power demands to non-peak hours, to the maximum extent possible. 
</P>
<P>(27) Alternative Fuels—Includes measures to alter equipment such as generators to use lower quality fuels and to fill new requirements with those that use alternative fuels. The use of gasohol in stationary gasoline-powered equipment should be considered, in particular. 
</P>
<P>(28) Cogeneration—Includes measures to make full use of cogeneration in preference to single-power generation. 
</P>
<P>(29) Mobility Training and Operational Readiness—Includes measures which can reduce energy demands through the use of simulators, communications, computers for planning, etc. 
</P>
<P>(30) Energy Conservation Inspection or Instruction Teams—Includes measures which formulate and perpetuate the review of energy conservation through inspections to determine where specific improvements can be made and then followed by an instruction and training program. 
</P>
<P>(31) Intra-agency and Interagency Information Exchange Program—Includes measures providing a free exchange of energy conservation ideas and experiences between elements of an agency and between other agencies in the same geographic area. 
</P>
<P>(32) Recycled Waste—Includes measures to recycle waste materials such as paper products, glass, aluminum, concrete and brick, garbage, asphalt road materials or any material which requires a petroleum base. 
</P>
<P>(33) Fuel Conversion—Includes measures to accomplish conversion from petroleum based fuels and natural gas to coal and other alternative fuels for appropriate equipment. 
</P>
<P>(34) Operational Lighting—Includes measures to reduce energy consumption for lighting in operational areas and GOCO plants by: switching off by means of automatic controls; maximizing the use of daylight by floor planning; keeping window and light fixtures clean and replacing fixtures when they begin to deteriorate, rather than when they fail altogether; providing automatic dimmer controls to reduce lighting when daylight increases; and cleaning the work area during daylight, if possible, rather than at night. 
</P>
<P>(35) Lighting Fixtures—Includes measures to increase energy efficiency of lighting. The following reveals the relative efficiencies of common lamp types.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lamp type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Lumens watt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Improvement over tungsten
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tungsten lamp</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Modern fluorescent lamp</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mercury halide lamp</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High pressure sodium lamp</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">110</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low pressure sodium lamp</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X15</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(36) Industrial Buildings Heating—Includes measures to improve the energy conservation of industrial buildings such as: fixing holes in roofs, walls and windows; fitting flexible doors, fitting controls to heating systems; use of “economizer units” which circulate hot air back down from roof level to ground level; use of controlled ventilation; insulation of walls and roof; use of “optimisers” or optimum start controls in heating systems, so that the heating switch-on is dictated by actual temperature conditions rather than simply by time. 
</P>
<P>(37) Hull Cleaning and Antifouling Coating—Includes measures to reduce energy consumption through periodic cleaning of hulls and propellers or through the use of antifouling coatings. 
</P>
<P>(38) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(39) Building Temperature Restrictions on Thermostat Setting for Heating, Cooling and Hot Water—Includes enforcement of suggested restriction levels: 65 degrees for heating, 78 degrees for cooling, and 105 degrees or ban for hot water. 
</P>
<P>(40) Such other measures as DOE may from time-to-time add to this appendix, or as the Federal agency concerned may find to be energy-saving or efficient.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.5.5.77.10.50" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 436—Energy Program Conservation Elements
</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all successful energy conservation programs, certain key elements need to be present. The elements listed below must be incorporated into each agency conservation program and must be reflected in the 10-year plan prescribed in § 436.102. Those organizations that have already developed programs should review them to determine whether the present management systems incorporate these elements. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Top Management Control.</I> Top management must have a personal and sustained commitment to the program, provide active direction and motivation, and require regular review of overall energy usage at senior staff meetings. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Line Management Accountability.</I> Line managers must be accountable for the energy conservation performance of their organizations and should participate in establishing realistic goals and developing strategies and budgets to meet these goals. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Formal Planning.</I> An overall 10-year plan for the period 1980-1990 must be developed and formalized which sets forth performance-oriented conservation goals, including the categorized reduction in rates of energy consumption that the program is expected to realize. The plan will be supplemented by guidelines enumerating specific conservation procedures that will be followed. These procedures and initiatives must be life cycle cost-effective as well as energy efficient. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Goals.</I> Goals must be established in a measurable manner to answer questions of “Where are we?” “Where do we want to go?” “Are we getting there?” and “Are our initiatives for getting there life cycle cost-effective?” 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Monitoring.</I> Progress must be reviewed periodically both at the agency headquarters and at local facility levels to identify program weakness or additional areas for conservation actions. Progress toward achievement of goals should be assessed, and explanations should be required for non-achievement or unusual variations in energy use. Monitoring should include personal inspections and staff visits, management information reporting and audits. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Using Technical Expertise.</I> Personnel with adequate technical background and knowledge of programmatic objectives should be used to help management set technical goals and parameters for efficient planning and implementation of energy conservation programs. These technicians should work in conjunction with the line managers who are accountable for both mission accomplishment and energy conservation. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Employee Awareness.</I> Employees must gain an awareness of energy conservation through formal training and employee information programs. They should be invited to participate in the process of developing an energy conservation program, and to submit definitive suggestions for conservation of energy. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Energy Emergency Planning.</I> Every energy management plan must provide for programs to respond to contingencies that may occur at the local, state or National level. Programs must be developed for potential energy emergency situations calling for reductions of 10 percent, 15 percent and 20 percent for up to 12 months. Emergency plans must be tested to ascertain their effectiveness. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Budgetary and Fiscal Support.</I> Resources necessary for the energy conservation program must be planned and provided for, and the fiscal systems adjusted to support energy management investments and information reporting. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Environmental Considerations.</I> Each agency shall fulfill its obligations under the National Environmental Policy Act in developing its plan.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="440" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 440—WEATHERIZATION ASSISTANCE FOR LOW-INCOME PERSONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6861 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 440.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements a weatherization assistance program to increase the energy efficiency of dwellings owned or occupied by low-income persons or to provide such persons renewable energy systems or technologies, reduce their total residential expenditures, and improve their health and safety, especially low-income persons who are particularly vulnerable such as the elderly, persons with disabilities, families with children, high residential energy users, and households with high energy burden.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 77217, Dec. 8, 2000, as amended at 71 FR 35778, June 22, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.2   Administration of grants.</HEAD>
<P>Grant awards under this part shall comply with applicable law including, without limitation, the requirements of:
</P>
<P>(a) Executive Order 12372 entitled “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs”, 48 FR 3130, and the DOE Regulation implementing this Executive Order entitled “Intergovernmental Review of Department of Energy Programs and Activities” (10 CFR part 1005); 
</P>
<P>(b) Office of Management and Budget Circular A-97, entitled “Rules and Regulations Permitting Federal Agencies to Provide Specialized or Technical Services to State and Local Units of Government under Title III of the Inter-Governmental Coordination Act of 1968;” 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless in conflict with provisions of this part, the DOE Financial Assistance Rule (10 CFR part 600); and 
</P>
<P>(d) Such other procedures applicable to this part as DOE may from time to time prescribe for the administration of financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) States, Tribes and their subawardees, including, but not limited to subrecipients, subgrantees, contractors and subcontractors that participate in the program established under this Part are required to treat all requests for information concerning applicants and recipients of WAP funds in a manner consistent with the Federal Government's treatment of information requested under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, including the privacy protections contained in Exemption (b)(6) of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(6). Under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(6), information relating to an individual's eligibility application or the individual's participation in the program, such as name, address, or income information, are generally exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) A balancing test must be used in applying Exemption (b)(6) in order to determine:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether a significant privacy interest would be invaded;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the release of the information would further the public interest by shedding light on the operations or activities of the Government; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether in balancing the privacy interests against the public interest, disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of privacy.
</P>
<P>(3) A request for personal information including but not limited to the names, addresses, or income information of WAP applicants or recipients would require the State or other service provider to balance a clearly defined public interest in obtaining this information against the individuals' legitimate expectation of privacy.
</P>
<P>(4) Given a legitimate, articulated public interest in the disclosure, States and other service providers may release information regarding recipients in the aggregate that does not identify specific individuals. However, a State or service provider must apply an FOIA Exemption (b)(6) balancing test to any request for information that can not be satisfied by such less-intrusive methods.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 75 FR 11422, Mar. 11, 2010; 77 FR 11737, Feb. 28, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Energy Conservation in Existing Buildings Act of 1976, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6851 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Conservation and Renewable Energy or official to whom the Assistant Secretary's functions may be redelegated by the Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>Base Allocation</I> means the fixed amount of funds for each State as set forth in § 440.10(b)(1). 
</P>
<P><I>Base temperature</I> means the temperature used to compute heating and cooling degree days. The average daily outdoor temperature is subtracted from the base temperature to compute heating degree days, and the base temperature is subtracted from the average daily outdoor temperature to compute cooling degree days. 
</P>
<P><I>Biomass</I> means any organic matter that is available on a renewable or recurring basis, including agricultural crops and trees, wood and wood wastes and residues, plants (including aquatic plants), grasses, residues, fibers, and animal wastes, municipal wastes, and other waste materials.
</P>
<P><I>CAA</I> means a Community Action Agency. 
</P>
<P><I>Capital-Intensive furnace or cooling efficiency modifications</I> means those major heating and cooling modifications which require a substantial amount of funds, including replacement and major repairs, but excluding such items as tune-ups, minor repairs, and filters.
</P>
<P><I>Children</I> means dependents not exceeding 19 years or a lesser age set forth in the State plan. 
</P>
<P><I>Community Action Agency</I> means a private corporation or public agency established pursuant to the Economic Opportunity Act of 1964, Pub. L. 88-452, which is authorized to administer funds received from Federal, State, local, or private funding entities to assess, design, operate, finance, and oversee antipoverty programs. 
</P>
<P><I>Cooling Degree Days</I> means a population-weighted annual average of the climatological cooling degree days for each weather station within a State, as determined by DOE. 
</P>
<P><I>Deputy Assistant Secretary</I> means the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Technical and Financial Assistance or any official to whom the Deputy Assistant Secretary's functions may be redelegated by the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling Unit</I> means a house, including a stationary mobile home, an apartment, a group of rooms, or a single room occupied as separate living quarters. 
</P>
<P><I>Elderly Person</I> means a person who is 60 years of age or older.
</P>
<P><I>Electric base-load measures</I> means measures which address the energy efficiency and energy usage of lighting and appliances. 
</P>
<P><I>Family Unit</I> means all persons living together in a dwelling unit.
</P>
<P><I>Formula Allocation</I> means the amount of funds for each State as calculated based on the formula in § 440.10(b)(3). 
</P>
<P><I>Formula Share</I> means the percentage of the total formula allocation provided to each State as calculated in § 440.10 (b)(3). 
</P>
<P><I>Governor</I> means the chief executive officer of a State, including the Mayor of the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Grantee</I> means the State or other entity named in the Notification of Grant Award as the recipient.
</P>
<P><I>Heating Degree Days</I> means a population-weighted seasonal average of the climatological heating degree days for each weather station within a State, as determined by DOE.
</P>
<P><I>High residential energy user</I> means a low-income household whose residential energy expenditures exceed the median level of residential expenditures for all low-income households in the State.
</P>
<P><I>Household with a high energy burden</I> means a low-income household whose residential energy burden (residential expenditures divided by the annual income of that household) exceeds the median level of energy burden for all low-income households in the State. 
</P>
<P><I>Incidental Repairs</I> means those repairs necessary for the effective performance or preservation of weatherization materials. Such repairs include, but are not limited to, framing or repairing windows and doors which could not otherwise be caulked or weather-stripped and providing protective materials, such as paint, used to seal materials installed under this program.
</P>
<P><I>Indian Tribe</I> means any tribe, band, nation, or other organized group or community of Native Americans, including any Alaskan native village, or regional or village corporation as defined in or established pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act, Pub. L. 92-203, 85 Stat. 688, which (1) is recognized as eligible for the special programs and services provided by the United States to Native Americans because of their status as Native Americans, or (2) is located on, or in proximity to, a Federal or State reservation or rancheria.
</P>
<P><I>Local Applicant</I> means a CAA or other public or non profit entity unit of general purpose local government.
</P>
<P><I>Low income</I> means that income in relation to family size which:
</P>
<P>(1) At or below 200 percent of the poverty level determined in accordance with criteria established by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget, except that the Secretary may establish a higher level if the Secretary, after consulting with the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of Health and Human Services, determines that such a higher level is necessary to carry out the purposes of this part and is consistent with the eligibility criteria established for the weatherization program under Section 222(a)(12) of the Economic Opportunity Act of 1964;
</P>
<P>(2) Is the basis on which cash assistance payments have been paid during the preceding twelve month-period under Titles IV and XVI of the Social Security Act or applicable State or local law; or
</P>
<P>(3) If a State elects, is the basis for eligibility for assistance under the Low Income Home Energy Assistance Act of 1981, provided that such basis is at least 200 percent of the poverty level determined in accordance with criteria established by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P><I>Native American</I> means a person who is a member of an Indian tribe.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Federal leveraged resources</I> means those benefits identified by State or local agencies to supplement the Federal grant activities and that are made available to or used in conjunction with the DOE Weatherization Assistance Program for the purposes of the Act for use in eligible low-income dwelling units. 
</P>
<P><I>Persons with Disabilities</I> means any individual (1) who is a handicapped individual as defined in section 7(6) of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, (2) who is under a disability as defined in section 1614(a)(3)(A) or 223(d)(1) of the Social Security Act or in section 102(7) of the Developmental Disabilities Services and Facilities Construction Act, or (3) who is receiving benefits under chapter 11 or 15 of title 38, U.S.C.
</P>
<P><I>Program Allocation</I> means the base allocation plus formula allocation for each State. 
</P>
<P><I>Relevant Reporting Period</I> means the Federal fiscal year beginning on October 1 and running through September 30 of the following calendar year. 
</P>
<P><I>Renewable energy system</I> means a system which when installed in connection with a dwelling—
</P>
<P>(1) Transmits or uses solar energy, energy derived from geothermal deposits, energy derived from biomass (or any other form of renewable energy which DOE subsequently specifies through an amendment of this part) for the purpose of heating or cooling such dwelling or providing hot water or electricity for use within such dwelling; or wind energy for nonbusiness residential purposes; and
</P>
<P>(2) Which meets the performance and quality standards prescribed in § 440.21 (c) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Rental Dwelling Unit</I> means a dwelling unit occupied by a person who pays rent for the use of the dwelling unit.
</P>
<P><I>Residential Energy Expenditures</I> means the average annual cost of purchased residential energy, including the cost of renewable energy resources. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Separate Living Quarters</I> means living quarters in which the occupants do not live and eat with any other persons in the structure and which have either direct access from the outside of the building or through a common hall or complete kitchen facilities for the exclusive use of the occupants. The occupants may be a single family, one person living alone, two or more families living together, or any other group of related or unrelated persons who share living arrangements, and includes shelters for homeless persons. 
</P>
<P><I>Shelter</I> means a dwelling unit or units whose principal purpose is to house on a temporary basis individuals who may or may not be related to one another and who are not living in nursing homes, prisons, or similar institutional care facilities. 
</P>
<P><I>Single-Family Dwelling Unit</I> means a structure containing no more than one dwelling unit.
</P>
<P><I>Skirting</I> means material used to border the bottom of a dwelling unit to prevent infiltration.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means each of the States, the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Subgrantee</I> means an entity managing a weatherization project which receives a grant of funds awarded under this part from a grantee.
</P>
<P><I>Support Office Director</I> means the Director of the DOE Field Support Office with the responsibility for grant administration or any official to whom that function may be redelegated by the Assistant Secretary. 
</P>
<P><I>Total Program Allocations</I> means the annual appropriation less funds reserved for training and technical assistance. 
</P>
<P><I>Tribal Organization</I> means the recognized governing body of any Indian tribe or any legally established organization of Native Americans which is controlled, sanctioned, or chartered by such governing body.
</P>
<P><I>Unit of General Purpose Local Government</I> means any city, county, town, parish, village, or other general purpose political subdivision of a State.
</P>
<P><I>Vestibule</I> means an enclosure built around a primary entry to a dwelling unit.
</P>
<P><I>Weatherization Materials</I> mean: 
</P>
<P>(1) Caulking and weatherstripping of doors and windows; 
</P>
<P>(2) Furnace efficiency modifications including, but not limited to— 
</P>
<P>(i) Replacement burners, furnaces, or boilers or any combination thereof; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Devices for minimizing energy loss through heating system, chimney, or venting devices; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Electrical or mechanical furnace ignition systems which replace standing gas pilot lights; 
</P>
<P>(3) Cooling efficiency modifications including, but not limited to— 
</P>
<P>(i) Replacement air conditioners; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ventilation equipment; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Screening and window films; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Shading devices. 
</P>
<P><I>Weatherization Project</I> means a project conducted in a single geographical area which undertakes to weatherize dwelling units that are energy inefficient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 712, Jan. 4, 1985; 50 FR 49917, Dec. 5, 1985; 55 FR 41325, Oct. 10, 1990; 58 FR 12525, Mar. 4, 1993; 60 FR 29480, June 5, 1995; 65 FR 77217, Dec. 8, 2000; 71 FR 35778, June 22, 2006; 74 FR 12539, Mar. 25, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.10" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.10   Allocation of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall allocate financial assistance for each State from sums appropriated for any fiscal year, upon annual application. 
</P>
<P>(b) Based on total program allocations at or above the amount of $209,724,761, DOE shall determine the program allocation for each State from available funds as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Allocate to each State a “Base Allocation” as listed in Table 1. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Base Allocation Table 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">State 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Base
<br/>allocation 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alabama</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,636,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alaska</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,425,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arizona</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">760,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arkansas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,417,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">California</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,404,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorado</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,574,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Connecticut</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,887,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Delaware</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">409,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">District of Columbia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">487,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Florida</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">761,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Georgia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,844,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hawaii</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Idaho</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,618,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Illinois</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,717,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indiana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,156,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iowa</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,032,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kansas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,925,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kentucky</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,615,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Louisiana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">912,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,493,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maryland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,963,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Massachusetts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,111,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Michigan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,346,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Minnesota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,342,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mississippi</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,094,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Missouri</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,615,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Montana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,123,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nebraska</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,013,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nevada</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">586,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Hampshire</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,193,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Jersey</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,775,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Mexico</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,519,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New York</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,302,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">North Carolina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,853,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">North Dakota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,105,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ohio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,665,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oklahoma</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,846,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oregon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,320,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pennsylvania</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,457,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhode Island</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">878,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">South Carolina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,130,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">South Dakota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,561,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tennessee</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,218,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,999,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Utah</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,692,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vermont</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,014,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Virginia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,970,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Washington</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,775,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">West Virginia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,573,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wisconsin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,061,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wyoming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">967,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">American Samoa</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guam</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Puerto Rico</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Northern Mariana Islands</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Virgin Islands</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">171,858,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Subtract 171,258,000 from total program allocations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Calculate each State's formula share as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Divide the number of “Low Income” households in each State by the number of “Low Income” households in the United States and multiply by 100. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Divide the number of “Heating Degree Days” for each State by the median “Heating Degree Days” for all States. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Divide the number of “Cooling Degree Days” for each State by the median “Cooling Degree Days” for all States, then multiply by 0.1. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Calculate the sum of the two numbers from paragraph (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(v) Divide the residential energy expenditures for each State by the number of households in the State. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Divide the sum of the residential energy expenditures for the States in each Census division by the sum of the households for the States in that division. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Divide the quotient from paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section by the quotient from paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Multiply the quotient from paragraph (b)(3)(vii) of this section for each State by the residential energy expenditures per low-income household for its respective Census division. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Divide the product from paragraph (b)(3)(viii) of this section for each State by the median of the products of all States. 
</P>
<P>(x) Multiply the results for paragraph (b)(3)(i), (iv) and (ix) of this section for each State. 
</P>
<P>(xi) Divide the product in paragraph (b)(3)(x) of this section for each State by the sum of the products in paragraph (b)(3)(x) of this section for all States. 
</P>
<P>(4) Calculate each State's program allocation as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Multiply the remaining funds calculated in paragraph (b)(2) of this section by the formula share calculated in paragraph (b)(3)(xi) of this section, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Add the base allocation from paragraph (b)(1) of this section to the product of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Should total program allocations for any fiscal year fall below $209,724,761, then each State's program allocation shall be reduced from its allocated amount under a total program allocation of $209,724,761 by the same percentage as total program allocations for the fiscal year fall below $209,724,761. 
</P>
<P>(d) All data sources used in the development of the formula are publicly available. The relevant data is available from the Bureau of the Census, the Department of Energy's Energy Information Administration and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration. 
</P>
<P>(e) Should updates to the data used in the formula become available in any fiscal year, these changes would be implemented in the formula in the following program year. 
</P>
<P>(f) DOE may reduce the program allocation for a State by the amount DOE determines cannot be reasonably expended by a grantee to weatherize dwelling units during the budget period for which financial assistance is to be awarded. In reaching this determination, DOE will consider the amount of unexpended financial assistance currently available to a grantee under this part and the number of dwelling units which remains to be weatherized with the unexpended financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(g) DOE may increase the program allocation of a State by the amount DOE determines the grantee can expend to weatherize additional dwelling units during the budget period for which financial assistance is to be awarded. 
</P>
<P>(h) The Support Office Director shall notify each State of the program allocation for which that State is eligible to apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 29480, June 5, 1995, as amended at 74 FR 12539, Mar. 25, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.11" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.11   Native Americans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Support Office Director may determine, after taking into account the amount of funds made available to a State to carry out the purposes of this part, that:
</P>
<P>(1) The low-income members of an Indian tribe are not receiving benefits under this part equivalent to the assistance provided to other low-income persons in the State under this part and
</P>
<P>(2) The low-income members of such tribe would be better served by means of a grant made directly to provide such assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) In any State for which the Support Office Director shall have made the determination referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the Support Office Director shall reserve from the sums that would otherwise be allocated to the State under this part not less than 100 percent, or more than 150 percent, of an amount which bears the same ratio to the State's allocation for the fiscal year involved as the population of all low-income Native Americans for whom a determination under paragraph (a) of this section has been made bears to the population of all low-income persons in the State.
</P>
<P>(c) The Support Office Director shall make the determination prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section in the event a State:
</P>
<P>(1) Does not apply within the sixty-day time period prescribed in § 440.12(a);
</P>
<P>(2) Recommends that direct grants be made for low-income members of an Indian tribe as provided in § 440.12(b)(5);
</P>
<P>(3) Files an application which DOE determines, in accordance with the procedures in § 440.30, not to make adequate provision for the low-income members of an Indian tribe residing in the State; or
</P>
<P>(4) Has received grant funds and DOE determines, in accordance with the procedures in § 440.30, that the State has failed to implement the procedures required by § 440.16(6).
</P>
<P>(d) Any sums reserved by the Support Office Director pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section shall be granted to the tribal organization serving the individuals for whom the determination has been made, or where there is no tribal organization, to such other entity as the Support Office Director determines is able to provide adequate weatherization assistance pursuant to this part. Where the Support Office Director intends to make a grant to an organization to perform services benefiting more than one Indian tribe, the approval of each Indian tribe shall be a prerequisite for the issuance of a notice of grant award.
</P>
<P>(e) Within 30 days after the Support Office Director has reserved funds pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the Support Office Director shall give written notice to the tribal organization or other qualified entity of the amount of funds reserved and its eligibility to apply therefor.
</P>
<P>(f) Such tribal organization or other qualified entity shall thereafter be treated as a unit of general purpose local government eligible to apply for funds hereunder, pursuant to the provisions of § 440.13.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 12529, Mar. 4, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.12" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.12   State application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for financial assistance under this part, a State shall submit an application to DOE in conformity with the requirements of this part not later than 60 days after the date of notice to apply is received from the Support Office Director. After receipt of an application for financial assistance or for approval of an amendment to a State plan, the Support Office Director may request the State to submit within a reasonable period of time any revisions necessary to make the application complete or to bring the application into compliance with the requirements of this part. The Support Office Director shall attempt to resolve any dispute over the application informally and to seek voluntary compliance. If a State fails to submit timely appropriate revisions to complete the application, the Support Office Director may reject the application as incomplete in a written decision, including a statement of reasons, which shall be subject to administrative review under § 440.30 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the State agency or office responsible for administering the program;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the final State plan prepared after notice and a public hearing in accordance with § 440.14(a), except that an application by a local applicant need not include a copy of the final State plan;
</P>
<P>(3) The budget for total funds applied for under the Act, which shall include a justification and explanation of any amounts requested for expenditure pursuant to § 440.18(d) for State administration;
</P>
<P>(4) The total number of dwelling units proposed to be weatherized with grant funds during the budget period for which assistance is to be awarded—
</P>
<P>(i) With financial assistance previously obligated under this part, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) With the program allocation to the State; 
</P>
<P>(5) A recommendation that a tribal organization be treated as a local applicant eligible to submit an application pursuant to § 440.13(b), if such a recommendation is to be made;
</P>
<P>(6) A monitoring plan which shall indicate the method used by the State to insure the quality of work and adequate financial management control at the subgrantee level;
</P>
<P>(7) A training and technical assistance plan which shall indicate how funds for training and technical assistance will be used; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any further information which the Secretary finds necessary to determine whether an application meets the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) On or before 60 days from the date that a timely filed application is complete, the Support Office Director shall decide whether DOE shall approve the application. The Support Office Director may—
</P>
<P>(1) Approve the application in whole or in part to the extent that the application conforms to the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Approve the application in whole or in part subject to special conditions designed to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) Disapprove the application if it does not conform to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1904-0047)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 712, Jan. 4, 1985; 55 FR 41325, Oct. 10, 1990; 58 FR 12529, Mar. 4, 1993; 60 FR 29481, June 5, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.13" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.13   Local applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Support Office Director shall give written notice to all local applicants throughout a State of their eligibility to apply for financial assistance under this part in the event:
</P>
<P>(1) A State, within which a local applicant is situated, fails to submit an application within 60 days after notice in accordance with § 440.12(a) or
</P>
<P>(2) The Support Office Director finally disapproves the application of a State, and, under § 440.30, either no appeal is filed or the Support Office Director's decision is affirmed. 
</P>
<P>(b) To be eligible for financial assistance, a local applicant shall submit an application pursuant to § 440.12(b) to the Support Office Director within 30 days after receiving the notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event one or more local applicants submits an application for financial assistance to carry out projects in the same geographical area, the Support Office Director shall hold a public hearing with the same procedures that apply under section § 440.14(a). 
</P>
<P>(d) Based on the information provided by a local applicant and developed in any hearing held under paragraph (c) of this section, the Support Office Director shall determine in writing whether to award a grant to carry out one or more weatherization projects. 
</P>
<P>(e) If there is an adverse decision in whole or in part under paragraph (d) of this section, that decision is subject to administrative review under § 440.30 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) If, after a State application has been finally disapproved by DOE and the Support Office Director approves local applications under this section, the Support Office Director may reject a new State application in whole or in part as disruptive and untimely without prejudice to submission of an application for the next program year. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1904-0047)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 12525, 12529, Mar. 4, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.14" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.14   State plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before submitting to DOE an application, a State must provide at least 10 days notice of a hearing to inform prospective subgrantees, and must conduct one or more public hearings to receive comments on a proposed State plan. The notice for the hearing must specify that copies of the plan are available and state how the public may obtain them. The State must prepare a transcript of the hearings and accept written submission of views and data for the record. 
</P>
<P>(b) The proposed State plan must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify and describe proposed weatherization projects, including a statement of proposed subgrantees and the amount of funding each will receive; 
</P>
<P>(2) Address the other items contained in paragraph (c) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Be made available throughout the State prior to the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) After the hearing, the State must prepare a final State plan that identifies and describes: 
</P>
<P>(1) The production schedule for the State indicating projected expenditures and the number of dwelling units, including previously weatherized units which are expected to be weatherized annually during the program year; 
</P>
<P>(2) The climatic conditions within the State; 
</P>
<P>(3) The type of weatherization work to be done; 
</P>
<P>(4) An estimate of the amount of energy to be conserved; 
</P>
<P>(5) Each area to be served by a weatherization project within the State, and must include for each area: 
</P>
<P>(i) The tentative allocation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of dwelling units expected to be weatherized during the program year; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Sources of labor. 
</P>
<P>(6) How the State plan is to be implemented, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) An analysis of the existence and effectiveness of any weatherization project being carried out by a subgrantee; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation of the method used to select each area served by a weatherization project; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The extent to which priority will be given to the weatherization of single-family or other high energy-consuming dwelling units; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of non-Federal resources to be applied to the program; 
</P>
<P>(v) The amount of Federal resources, other than DOE weatherization grant funds, to be applied to the program; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The amount of weatherization grant funds allocated to the State under this part; 
</P>
<P>(vii) The expected average cost per dwelling to be weatherized, taking into account the total number of dwellings to be weatherized and the total amount of funds, Federal and non-Federal, expected to be applied to the program; 
</P>
<P>(viii) The average amount of the DOE funds specified in § 440.18(c)(1) through (9) to be applied to any dwelling unit;
</P>
<P>(ix) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(x) The procedures used by the State for providing additional administrative funds to qualified subgrantees as specified in § 440.18(d); 
</P>
<P>(xi) Procedures for determining the most cost-effective measures in a dwelling unit; 
</P>
<P>(xii) The definition of “low-income” which the State has chosen for determining eligibility for use statewide in accordance with § 440.22(a); 
</P>
<P>(xiii) The definition of “children” which the State has chosen consistent with § 440.3; and 
</P>
<P>(xiv) The amount of Federal funds and how they will be used to increase the amount of weatherization assistance that the State obtains from non-Federal sources, including private sources, and the expected leveraging effect to be accomplished.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 77217, Dec. 8, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 58366, Nov. 21, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.15" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.15   Subgrantees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The grantee shall ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each subgrantee is a CAA or other public or nonprofit entity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Each subgrantee is selected on the basis of public comment received during a public hearing conducted pursuant to § 440.14(a) and other appropriate findings regarding: 
</P>
<P>(i) The subgrantee's experience and performance in weatherization or housing renovation activities; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The subgrantee's experience in assisting low-income persons in the area to be served; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The subgrantee's capacity to undertake a timely and effective weatherization program. 
</P>
<P>(3) In selecting a subgrantee, preference is given to any CAA or other public or nonprofit entity which has, or is currently administering, an effective program under this part or under title II of the Economic Opportunity Act of 1964, with program effectiveness evaluated by consideration of factors including, but not necessarily limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which the past or current program achieved or is achieving weatherization goals in a timely fashion; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The quality of work performed by the subgrantee; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The number, qualifications, and experience of the staff members of the subgrantee; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The ability of the subgrantee to secure volunteers, training participants, public service employment workers, and other Federal or State training programs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The grantee shall ensure that the funds received under this part will be allocated to the entities selected in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, such that funds will be allocated to areas on the basis of the relative need for a weatherization project by low-income persons. 
</P>
<P>(c) If DOE finds that a subgrantee selected to undertake weatherization activities under this part has failed to comply substantially with the provisions of the Act or this part and should be replaced, such finding shall be treated as a finding under § 440.30(i) for purposes of § 440.30.
</P>
<P>(d) Any new or additional subgrantee shall be selected at a hearing in accordance with § 440.14(a) and upon the basis of the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) A State may terminate financial assistance under a subgrant agreement for a grant period only in accordance with established State procedures that provide to the subgrantee appropriate notice of the State's reasons for termination and afford the subgrantee an adequate opportunity to be heard. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 55 FR 41326, Oct. 10, 1990; 58 FR 12526, Mar. 4, 1993; 65 FR 77218, Dec. 8, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.16" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.16   Minimum program requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to the expenditure of any grant funds each grantee shall develop, publish, and implement procedures to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(a) No dwelling unit may be weatherized without documentation that the dwelling unit is an eligible dwelling unit as provided in § 440.22; 
</P>
<P>(b) Priority is given to identifying and providing weatherization assistance to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Elderly persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) Persons with disabilities; 
</P>
<P>(3) Families with children; 
</P>
<P>(4) High residential energy users; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Households with a high energy burden. 
</P>
<P>(c) Financial assistance provided under this part will be used to supplement, and not supplant, State or local funds, and, to the maximum extent practicable as determined by DOE, to increase the amounts of these funds that would be made available in the absence of Federal funds provided under this part; 
</P>
<P>(d) To the maximum extent practicable, the grantee will secure the services of volunteers when such personnel are generally available, training participants and public service employment workers, other Federal or State training program workers, to work under the supervision of qualified supervisors and foremen; 
</P>
<P>(e) To the maximum extent practicable, the use of weatherization assistance shall be coordinated with other Federal, State, local, or privately funded programs in order to improve energy efficiency and to conserve energy; 
</P>
<P>(f) The low-income members of an Indian tribe shall receive benefits equivalent to the assistance provided to other low-income persons within a State unless the grantee has made the recommendation provided in § 440.12(b)(5); 
</P>
<P>(g) No dwelling unit may be reported to DOE as completed until all weatherization materials have been installed and the subgrantee, or its authorized representative, has performed a final inspection(s) including any mechanical work performed and certified that the work has been completed in a workmanlike manner and in accordance with the priority determined by the audit procedures required by § 440.21; and 
</P>
<P>(h) Subgrantees limit expenditure of funds under this part for installation of materials (other than weatherization materials) to abate energy-related health and safety hazards, to a list of types of such hazards, permissible abatement materials and their costs which is submitted, and updated as necessary at the same time as an annual application under § 440.12 of this part and which DOE shall approve if— 
</P>
<P>(1) Elimination of such hazards are necessary before, or as a result of, installation of weatherization materials; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The grantee sets forth a limitation on the percent of average dwelling unit costs which may be used to abate such hazards which is reasonable in light of the primary energy conservation purpose of this part; 
</P>
<P>(i) The benefits of weatherization to occupants of rental units are protected in accordance with § 440.22(b)(3) of this part. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1904-0047)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 12526, Mar. 4, 1993; 65 FR 77218, Dec. 8, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.17" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.17   Policy Advisory Council.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to the expenditure of any grant funds, a State policy advisory council, or a State commission or council which serves the same functions as a State policy advisory council, must be established by a State or by the Regional Office Director if a State does not participate in the Program which: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has special qualifications and sensitivity with respect to solving the problems of low-income persons, including the weatherization and energy conservation problems of these persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is broadly representative of organizations and agencies, including consumer groups that represent low-income persons, particularly elderly and handicapped low-income persons and low-income Native Americans, in the State or geographical area in question; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has responsibility for advising the appropriate official or agency administering the allocation of financial assistance in the State or area with respect to the development and implementation of a weatherization assistance program.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person employed in any State Weatherization Program may also be a member of an existing commission or council, but must abstain from reviewing and approving activities associated with the DOE Weatherization Assistance Program. 
</P>
<P>(c) States which opt to utilize an existing commission or council must certify to DOE, as a part of the annual application, of the council's or commission's independence in reviewing and approving activities associated with the DOE Weatherization Assistance Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 12529, Mar. 4, 1993; 65 FR 77218, Dec. 8, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.18" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.18   Allowable expenditures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as adjusted, the expenditure of financial assistance provided under this part for labor, weatherization materials, and related matters included in paragraphs (c)(1) through (9) of this section shall not exceed an average of $6,500 per dwelling unit weatherized in the State, except as adjusted in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The expenditure of financial assistance provided under this part for labor, weatherization materials, and related matters for a renewable energy system, shall not exceed an average of $3,000 per dwelling unit.
</P>
<P>(c) The $6,500 average will be adjusted annually by DOE beginning in calendar year 2010 and the $3,000 average for renewable energy systems will be adjusted annually by DOE beginning in calendar year 2007, by increasing the limitations by an amount equal to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The limitation amount for the previous year, multiplied by 
</P>
<P>(2) The lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index (all items, United States city average) for the most recent calendar year completed before the beginning of the year for which the determination is being made, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Three percent. 
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of determining the average cost per dwelling limitation, costs for the purchase of vehicles or other certain types of equipment as defined in 10 CFR part 600 may be amortized over the useful life of the vehicle or equipment.
</P>
<P>(d) Allowable expenditures under this part include only: 
</P>
<P>(1) The cost of purchase and delivery of weatherization materials; 
</P>
<P>(2) Labor costs, in accordance with § 440.19; 
</P>
<P>(3) Transportation of weatherization materials, tools, equipment, and work crews to a storage site and to the site of weatherization work; 
</P>
<P>(4) Maintenance, operation, and insurance of vehicles used to transport weatherization materials; 
</P>
<P>(5) Maintenance of tools and equipment; 
</P>
<P>(6) The cost of purchasing vehicles, except that any purchase of vehicles must be referred to DOE for prior approval in every instance. 
</P>
<P>(7) Employment of on-site supervisory personnel; 
</P>
<P>(8) Storage of weatherization materials, tools, and equipment; 
</P>
<P>(9) The cost of incidental repairs if such repairs are necessary to make the installation of weatherization materials effective; 
</P>
<P>(10) The cost of liability insurance for weatherization projects for personal injury and for property damage; 
</P>
<P>(11) The cost of carrying out low-cost/no-cost weatherization activities in accordance with § 440.20; 
</P>
<P>(12) The cost of weatherization program financial audits as required by § 440.23(d); 
</P>
<P>(13) Allowable administrative expenses under paragraph (d) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(14) Funds used for leveraging activities in accordance with § 440.14(b)(9)(xiv); and 
</P>
<P>(15) The cost of eliminating health and safety hazards elimination of which is necessary before, or because of, installation of weatherization materials. 
</P>
<P>(e) Not more than 10 percent of any grant made to a State may be used by the grantee and subgrantees for administrative purposes in carrying out duties under this part, except that not more than 5 percent may be used by the State for such purposes, and not less than 5 percent must be made available to subgrantees by States. A State may provide in its annual plan for recipients of grants of less than $350,000 to use up to an additional 5 percent of such grants for administration if the State has determined that such recipient requires such additional amount to implement effectively the administrative requirements established by DOE pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) No grant funds awarded under this part shall be used for any of the following purposes: 
</P>
<P>(1) To weatherize a dwelling unit which is designated for acquisition or clearance by a Federal, State, or local program within 12 months from the date weatherization of the dwelling unit would be scheduled to be completed; or 
</P>
<P>(2) To install or otherwise provide weatherization materials for a dwelling unit weatherized previously with grant funds under this part, except:
</P>
<P>(i) As provided under § 440.20; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If such dwelling unit has been damaged by fire, flood, or act of God and repair of the damage to weatherization materials is not paid for by insurance; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) That dwelling units partially weatherized under this part or under other Federal programs during the period September 30, 1975, through September 30, 1993, may receive further financial assistance for weatherization under this part. While DOE will continue to require these homes to be reported separately, States may count these homes as completions for the purposes of compliance with the per-home expenditure limit in § 440.18. Each dwelling unit must receive a new energy audit which takes into account any previous energy conservation improvements to the dwelling. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12526, Mar. 4, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 77218, Dec. 8, 2000; 66 FR 58366, Nov. 21, 2001; 71 FR 35778, June 22, 2006; 74 FR 12540, Mar. 25, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.19" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.19   Labor.</HEAD>
<P>Payments for labor costs under § 440.18(c)(2) must consist of: 
</P>
<P>(a) Payments permitted by the Department of Labor to supplement wages paid to training participants, public service employment workers, or other Federal or State training programs; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Payments to employ labor or to engage a contractor (particularly a nonprofit organization or a business owned by disadvantaged individuals which performs weatherization services), provided a grantee has determined an adequate number of volunteers, training participants, public service employment workers, or other Federal or State training programs are not available to weatherize dwelling units for a subgrantee under the supervision of qualified supervisors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 77218, Dec. 8, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.20" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.20   Low-cost/no-cost weatherization activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An eligible dwelling unit may be weatherized without regard to the limitations contained in § 440.18 (e)(2) or § 440.21(b) from funds designated by the grantee for carrying out low-cost/no-cost weatherization activities provided:
</P>
<P>(1) Inexpensive weatherization materials are used, such as water flow controllers, furnace or cooling filters, or items which are primarily directed toward reducing infiltration, including weatherstripping, caulking, glass patching, and insulation for plugging and 
</P>
<P>(2) No labor paid with funds provided under this part is used to install weatherization materials referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) A maximum of 10 percent of the amount allocated to a subgrantee, not to exceed $50 in materials costs per dwelling unit, may be expended to carry out low-cost/no-cost weatherization activities, unless the Support Office Director approves a higher expenditure per dwelling unit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 50 FR 713, Jan. 4, 1985; 58 FR 12529, Mar. 4, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.21" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.21   Weatherization materials standards and energy audit procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Paragraph (b) of this section describes the required standards for weatherization materials. Paragraph (c)(1) of this section describes the performance and quality standards for renewable energy systems. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section specifies the procedures and criteria that are used for considering a petition from a manufacturer requesting the Secretary to certify an item as a renewable energy system. Paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section describe the cost-effectiveness tests that weatherization materials must pass before they may be installed in an eligible dwelling unit. Paragraph (f) of this section lists the other energy audit requirements that do not pertain to cost-effectiveness tests of weatherization materials. Paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section describe the use of priority lists and presumptively cost-effective general heat waste reduction materials as part of a State's energy audit procedures. Paragraph (i) of this section explains that a State's energy audit procedures and priority lists must be re-approved by DOE every five years.
</P>
<P>(b) Only weatherization materials which are listed in appendix A to this part and which meet or exceed standards prescribed in appendix A to this part may be purchased with funds provided under this part. However, DOE may approve an unlisted material upon application from any State. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A system or technology shall not be considered by DOE to be a renewable energy system under this part unless:
</P>
<P>(i) It will result in a reduction in oil or natural gas consumption;
</P>
<P>(ii) It will not result in an increased use of any item which is known to be, or reasonably expected to be, environmentally hazardous or a threat to public health or safety;
</P>
<P>(iii) Available Federal subsidies do not make such a specification unnecessary or inappropriate (in light of the most advantageous allocation of economic resources); and
</P>
<P>(iv) If a combustion rated system, it has a thermal efficiency rating of at least 75 percent; or, in the case of a solar system, it has a thermal efficiency rating of at least 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Any manufacturer may submit a petition to DOE requesting the Secretary to certify an item as a renewable energy system.
</P>
<P>(i) Petitions should be submitted to: Weatherization Assistance Program, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable, Mail Stop EE-2K, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(ii) A petition for certification of an item as a renewable energy system must be accompanied by information demonstrating that the item meets the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) DOE may publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that invites public comment on a petition.
</P>
<P>(iv) DOE shall notify the petitioner of the Secretary's action on the request within one year after the filing of a complete petition, and shall publish notice of approvals and denials in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) Except for materials to eliminate health and safety hazards allowable under § 440.18(c)(15), each individual weatherization material and package of weatherization materials installed in an eligible dwelling unit must be cost-effective. These materials must result in energy cost savings over the lifetime of the measure(s), discounted to present value, that equal or exceed the cost of materials, installation, and on-site supervisory personnel as defined by the Department. States have the option of requiring additional related costs to be included in the determination of cost-effectiveness. The cost of incidental repairs must be included in the cost of the package of measures installed in a dwelling. 
</P>
<P>(e) The energy audit procedures must assign priorities among individual weatherization materials in descending order of their cost-effectiveness according to paragraph (d) of this section after: 
</P>
<P>(1) Adjusting for interaction between architectural and mechanical weatherization materials by using generally accepted engineering methods to decrease the estimated fuel cost savings for a lower priority weatherization material in light of fuel cost savings for a related higher priority weatherization material; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Eliminating any weatherization materials that are no longer cost-effective, as adjusted under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) The energy audit procedures also must— 
</P>
<P>(1) Compute the cost of fuel saved per year by taking into account the climatic data of the area where the dwelling unit is located, where the base temperature that determines the number of heating or cooling degree days (if used) reasonably approximates conditions when operation of heating and cooling equipment is required to maintain comfort, and must otherwise use reasonable energy estimating methods and assumptions; 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine existing energy use and energy requirements of the dwelling unit from actual energy bills or by generally accepted engineering calculations; 
</P>
<P>(3) Address significant heating and cooling needs; 
</P>
<P>(4) Make provision for the use of advanced diagnostic and assessment techniques which DOE has determined are consistent with sound engineering practices; 
</P>
<P>(5) Identify health and safety hazards to be abated with DOE funds in compliance with the State's DOE-approved health and safety procedures under § 440.16(h); 
</P>
<P>(6) Treat the dwelling unit as a whole system by examining its heating and cooling system, its air exchange system, and its occupants' living habits and needs, and making necessary adjustments to the priority of weatherization materials with adequate documentation of the reasons for such an adjustment; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Be specifically approved by DOE for use on each major dwelling type that represents a significant portion of the State's weatherization program in light of the varying energy audit requirements of different dwelling types including single-family dwellings, multi-family buildings, and mobile homes. 
</P>
<P>(g) For similar dwelling units without unusual energy-consuming characteristics, energy audits may be accomplished by using a priority list developed by conducting, in compliance with paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section, site-specific energy audits of a representative subset of these dwelling units. For DOE approval, States must describe how the priority list was developed, how the subset of similar homes was determined, and circumstances that will require site-specific audits rather than the use of the priority lists. States also must provide the input data and list of weatherization measures recommended by the energy audit software or manual methods for several dwelling units from the subset of similar units. 
</P>
<P>(h) States may use, as a part of an energy audit, general heat waste reduction weatherization materials that DOE has determined to be generally cost-effective. States may request approval to use general heat waste materials not listed in DOE policy guidance by providing documentation of their cost-effectiveness and a description of the circumstances under which such materials will be used. 
</P>
<P>(i) States must resubmit their energy audit procedures (and priority lists, if applicable, under certain conditions) to DOE for approval every five years. States must also resubmit to DOE, for approval every five years, their list of general heat waste materials in addition to those approved by DOE in policy guidance, if applicable. Policy guidance will describe the information States must submit to DOE and the circumstances that reduce or increase documentation requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 77218, Dec. 8, 2000, as amended at 71 FR 35778, June 22, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.22" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.22   Eligible dwelling units.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A dwelling unit shall be eligible for weatherization assistance under this part if it is occupied by a family unit:
</P>
<P>(1) Whose income is at or below 200 percent of the poverty level determined in accordance with criteria established by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget,
</P>
<P>(2) Which contains a member who has received cash assistance payments under Title IV or XVI of the Social Security Act or applicable State or local law at any time during the 12-month period preceding the determination of eligibility for weatherization assistance; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the State elects, is eligible for assistance under the Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Act of 1981, provided that such basis is at least 200 percent of the poverty level determined in accordance with criteria established by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget. 
</P>
<P>(b) A subgrantee may weatherize a building containing rental dwelling units using financial assistance for dwelling units eligible for weatherization assistance under paragraph (a) of this section, where: 
</P>
<P>(1) The subgrantee has obtained the written permission of the owner or his agent; 
</P>
<P>(2) Not less than 66 percent (50 percent for duplexes and four-unit buildings, and certain eligible types of large multi-family buildings) of the dwelling units in the building: 
</P>
<P>(i) Are eligible dwelling units, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Will become eligible dwelling units within 180 days under a Federal, State, or local government program for rehabilitating the building or making similar improvements to the building; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The grantee has established procedures for dwellings which consist of a rental unit or rental units to ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The benefits of weatherization assistance in connection with such rental units, including units where the tenants pay for their energy through their rent, will accrue primarily to the low-income tenants residing in such units; 
</P>
<P>(ii) For a reasonable period of time after weatherization work has been completed on a dwelling containing a unit occupied by an eligible household, the tenants in that unit (including households paying for their energy through their rent) will not be subjected to rent increases unless those increases are demonstrably related to matters other than the weatherization work performed; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The enforcement of paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section is provided through procedures established by the State by which tenants may file complaints, and owners, in response to such complaints, shall demonstrate that the rent increase concerned is related to matters other than the weatherization work performed; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) No undue or excessive enhancement shall occur to the value of the dwelling units. 
</P>
<P>(4)(i) A building containing rental dwelling units meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2), and paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (b)(3)(iv), of this section if it is included on the most recent list posted by DOE of Assisted Housing and Public Housing buildings identified by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development as meeting those requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) A building containing rental dwelling units meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2), and paragraph (b)(3)(iv), of this section if it is included on the most recent list posted by DOE of Assisted Housing and Public Housing buildings identified by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development as meeting those requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) A building containing rental dwelling units meets the requirement of paragraph (b)(2) of this section if it is included on the most recent list posted by DOE of Low Income Housing Tax Credit buildings identified by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development as meeting that requirement and of Rural Housing Service Multifamily Housing buildings identified by the U.S. Department of Agriculture as meeting that requirement.
</P>
<P>(iv) For buildings identified under paragraphs (b)(4)(i), (ii) and (iii) of this section, States will continue to be responsible for ensuring compliance with the remaining requirements of this section, and States shall establish requirements and procedures to ensure such compliance in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to secure the Federal investment made under this part and address the issues of eviction from and sale of property receiving weatherization materials under this part, States may seek landlord agreement to placement of a lien or to other contractual restrictions; 
</P>
<P>(d) As a condition of having assistance provided under this part with respect to multifamily buildings, a State may require financial participation, when feasible, from the owners of such buildings. Such financial participation shall not be reported as program income, nor will it be treated as if it were appropriated funds. The funds contributed by the landlord shall be expended in accordance with the agreement between the landlord and the weatherization agency. 
</P>
<P>(e) In devising procedures under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, States should consider requiring use of alternative dispute resolution procedures including arbitration. 
</P>
<P>(f) A State may weatherize shelters. For the purpose of determining how many dwelling units exist in a shelter, a grantee may count each 800 square feet of the shelter as a dwelling unit or it may count each floor of the shelter as a dwelling unit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12528, Mar. 4, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 77219, Dec. 8, 2000; 74 FR 12540, Mar. 25, 2009; 75 FR 3856, Jan. 25, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.23" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.23   Oversight, training, and technical assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary and the appropriate Support Office Director, in coordination with the Secretary of Health and Human Services, shall monitor and evaluate the operation of projects carried out by CAA's receiving financial assistance under this part through on-site inspections, or through other means, in order to ensure the effective provision of weatherization assistance for the dwelling units of low-income persons. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall also carry out periodic evaluations of a program and weatherization projects that are not carried out by a CAA and that are receiving financial assistance under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary and the appropriate Support Office Director, the Comptroller General of the United States, and for a weatherization project carried out by a CAA, the Secretary of Health and Human Services or any of their duly authorized representatives, shall have access to any books, documents, papers, information, and records of any weatherization project receiving financial assistance under the Act for the purpose of audit and examination. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each grantee shall ensure that audits by or on behalf of subgrantees are conducted with reasonable frequency, on a continuing basis, or at scheduled intervals, usually annually, but not less frequently than every two years, in accordance with 10 CFR part 600, and OMB Circular 110, Attachment F, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary may reserve from the funds appropriated for any fiscal year an amount not to exceed 20 percent to provide, directly or indirectly, training and technical assistance to any grantee or subgrantee. Such training and technical assistance may include providing information concerning conservation practices to occupants of eligible dwelling units.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 3629, Jan. 27, 1984, as amended at 58 FR 12529, Mar. 4, 1993; 74 FR 12540, Mar. 25, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.24" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.24   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>Each grantee or subgrantee receiving Federal financial assistance under this part shall keep such records as DOE shall require, including records which fully disclose the amount and disposition by each grantee and subgrantee of the funds received, the total cost of a weatherization project or the total expenditure to implement the State plan for which assistance was given or used, the source and amount of funds for such project or program not supplied by DOE, the average costs incurred in weatherization of individual dwelling units, the average size of the dwelling being weatherized, the average income of households receiving assistance under this part, and such other records as DOE deems necessary for an effective audit and performance evaluation. Such recordkeeping shall be in accordance with the DOE Financial Assistance Rule, 10 CFR part 600, and any further requirements of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12529, Mar. 4, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.25" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.25   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may require any recipient of financial assistance under this part to provide, in such form as may be prescribed, such reports or answers in writing to specific questions, surveys, or questionnaires as DOE determines to be necessary to carry out its responsibilities or the responsibilities of the Secretary of Health and Human Services under this part.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1901-0127)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 440.26-440.29" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 440.26-440.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 440.30" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 440.30   Administrative review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant shall have 20 days from the date of receipt of a decision under § 440.12 or § 440.13 to file a notice requesting administrative review. If an applicant does not timely file such a notice, the decision under § 440.12 or § 440.13 shall become final for DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice requesting administrative review shall be filed with the Support Office Director and shall be accompanied by a written statement containing supporting arguments and requesting, if desired, the opportunity for a public hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) A notice or any other document shall be deemed filed under this section upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(d) On or before 15 days from receipt of a notice requesting administrative review which is timely filed, the Support Office Director shall forward to the Deputy Assistant Secretary, the notice requesting administrative review, the decision under § 440.12 or § 440.13 as to which administrative review is sought, a draft recommended final decision for the concurrence of the Deputy Assistant Secretary, and any other relevant material.
</P>
<P>(e) If the applicant requests a public hearing, the Deputy Assistant Secretary, within 15 days, shall give actual notice to the State and <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the date, place, time, and procedures which shall apply to the public hearing. Any public hearing under this section shall be informal and legislative in nature.
</P>
<P>(f) On or before 45 days from receipt of documents under paragraph (d) of this section or the conclusion of the public hearing, whichever is later, the Deputy Assistant Secretary shall concur in, concur in as modified, or issue a substitute for the recommended decision of the Support Office Director.
</P>
<P>(g) On or before 15 days from the date of receipt of the determination under paragraph (f) of this section, the Governor may file an application, with a supporting statement of reasons, for discretionary review by the Assistant Secretary. On or before 15 days from filing, the Assistant Secretary shall send a notice to the Governor stating whether the Deputy Assistant Secretary's determination will be reviewed. If the Assistant Secretary grants review, a decision shall be issued no later than 60 days from the date review is granted. The Assistant Secretary may not issue a notice or decision under this paragraph without the concurrence of the DOE Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(h) A decision under paragraph (f) of this section shall be final for DOE if there is no review under paragraph (g) of this section. If there is review under paragraph (g) of this section, the decision thereunder shall be final for DOE, and no appeal shall lie elsewhere in DOE.
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to the effective date of the termination of eligibility for further participation in the program because of failure to comply substantially with the requirements of the Act or of this part, a grantee shall have the right to written notice of the basis for the enforcement action and the opportunity for a public hearing notwithstanding any provisions to contrary of 10 CFR 600.26, 600.28(b), 600.29, 600.121(c), and 600.443. A notice under this paragraph shall be mailed by the Support Office Director by registered mail, return-receipt requested, to the State, local grantee, and other interested parties. To obtain a public hearing, the grantee must request an evidentiary hearing, with prior <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice, in the election letter submitted under Rule 2 of 10 CFR 1024.4 and the request shall be granted notwithstanding any provisions of Rule 2 to the contrary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 41326, Oct. 10, 1990, as amended at 58 FR 12529, Mar. 4, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.6.0.77.22.51" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 440—Standards for Weatherization Materials
</HEAD>
<P>The following Government standards are produced by the Consumer Product Safety Commission and are published in title 16, Code of Federal Regulations: 
</P>
<P>Thermal Insulating Materials for Building Elements Including Walls, Floors, Ceilings, Attics, and Roofs Insulation—organic fiber—conformance to Interim Safety Standard in 16 CFR part 1209; 
</P>
<P>Fire Safety Requirements for Thermal Insulating Materials According to Insulation Use—Attic Floor—insulation materials intended for exposed use in attic floors shall be capable of meeting the same flammability requirements given for cellulose insulation in 16 CFR part 1209; 
</P>
<P>Enclosed spaces—insulation materials intended for use within enclosed stud or joist spaces shall be capable of meeting the smoldering combustion requirements in 16 CFR part 1209. 
</P>
<P>The following standards which are not otherwise set forth in part 440 are incorporated by reference and made a part of part 440. The following standards have been approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. These materials are incorporated as they exist on April 5, 1993 and a notice of any change in these materials will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The standards incorporated by reference are available for inspection at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P>The standards incorporated by reference in part 440 can be obtained from the following sources:
</P>
<FP-1>Air Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute, 1501 Wilson Blvd., Arlington, VA 22209; (703) 524-8800. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Gas Association, 1515 Wilson Blvd., Arlington, VA 22209; (703) 841-8400. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American National Standards Institute, Inc., 1430 Broadway, New York, NY 10018; (212) 642-4900. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Society of Mechanical Engineers, United Engineering Center, 345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017; (212) 705-7800. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Society for Testing and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA 19103; (215) 299-5400. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>American Architectural Manufacturers Association, 1540 East Dundee Road, Palatine, IL 60067; (708) 202-1350. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Specifications, General Services Administration, Specifications Section, Room 6654, 7th and D Streets, SW, Washington, DC 20407; (202) 708-5082. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gas Appliance Manufacturers Association, 1901 Moore St., Arlington, VA 22209; (703) 525-9565. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Electrical Manufacturers Association, 2101 L Street, NW, Suite 300, Washington, DC 20037; (202) 457-8400. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, P.O. Box 9101, Quincy, MA 02269; (617) 770-3000. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Standards Association, 1200 Quince Orchard Blvd., Gaithersburg, MD 20878; (301) 590-2300. (NSA is a local contact for materials from ASTM). 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Wood Window and Door Association, 1400 East Touhy Avenue, Des Plaines, IL 60018; (708) 299-5200. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sheet Metal and Air Conditioning Contractors Association, P.O. Box 221230, Chantilly, VA 22022-1230; (703) 803-2980. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Steel Door Institute, 712 Lakewood Center North, 14600 Detroit Avenue, Cleveland, OH 44107; (216) 899-0100. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Steel Window Institute, 1230 Keith Building, Cleveland, OH 44115; (216) 241-7333. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tubular Exchanger Manufacturers Association, 25 North Broadway, Tarrytown, NY 10591; (914) 332-0040. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Underwriters Laboratories, Inc., P.O. Box 75530, Chicago, IL 60675-5330; (708) 272-8800. 
</FP-1>
<P>More information regarding the standards in this reference can be obtained from the following sources:
</P>
<FP-1>Environmental Protection Agency, 401 M Street, NW, Washington, DC 20006; (202) 554-1080. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Institute of Standards and Technology, U.S. Department of Commerce, Gaithersburg, MD 20899, (301) 975-2000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Weatherization Assistance Programs Division, Conservation and Renewable Energy, Mail Stop 5G-023, Forrestal Bldg, 1000 Independence Ave, SW, Washington, DC 20585; (202) 586-2207. 
</FP-1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Thermal Insulating Materials for Building Elements Including Walls, Floors, Ceilings, Attics, and Roofs
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation—mineral fiber: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Blanket insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM 
<sup>1</sup> C665-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Roof insulation board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C726-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Loose-fill insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C764-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation—mineral cellular: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Vermiculite loose-fill insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C516-80 (1990). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Perlite loose-fill insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C549-81 (1986). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cellular glass insulation block</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C552-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Perlite insulation board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C728-89a. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation—organic fiber: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cellulosic fiber insulating board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C208-72 (1982). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cellulose loose-fill insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C739-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation-organic cellular: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Preformed block-type polystyrene insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C578-87a. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rigid preformed polyurethane insulation board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C591-85. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyurethane or polyisocyanurate insulation board faced with aluminum foil on both sides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FS 
<sup>2</sup> HH-I-1972/1 (1981).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyurethane or polyisocyanurate insulation board faced with felt on both sides</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FS HH-I-1972/2 (1981). And Amendment 1, October 3, 1985.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation—composite boards: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Mineral fiber and rigid cellular polyurethane composite roof insulation board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C726-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Perlite board and rigid cellular polyurethane composite roof insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C984-83. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Gypsum board and polyurethane or polisocyanurate composite board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FS HH-I-1972/4 (1981). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Materials used as a patch to reduce infiltration through the building envelope</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ASTM indicates American Society for Testing and Materials. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> FS indicates Federal Specifications.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Thermal Insulating Materials for Pipes, Ducts, and Equipment Such as Boilers and Furnaces 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation—mineral fiber:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Preformed pipe insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM 
<sup>1</sup> C547-77. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Blanket and felt insulation (industrial type)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C553-70 (1977). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Blanket insulation and blanket type pipe insulation (metal-mesh covered) (industrial type)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C592-80. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Block and board insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C612-83. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Spray applied fibrous insulation for elevated temperature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C720-89. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">High-temperature fiber blanket insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C892-89. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Duct work insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Selected and applied according to ASTM C971-82. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation—mineral cellular:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Diatomaceous earth block and pipe insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C517-71 (1979) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Calcium silicate block and pipe insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C533-85 (1990). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Cellular glass insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C552-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Expanded perlite block and pipe insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C610-85. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation—Organic Cellular:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Preformed flexible elastomeric cellular insulation in sheet and tubular form</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C534-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Unfaced preformed rigid cellular polyurethane insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C591-85. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulation skirting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ASTM indicates American Society for Testing and Materials.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Fire Safety Requirements for Insulating Materials According to Insulation Use
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Attic floor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insulation materials intended for exposed use in attic floors shall be capable of meeting the same smoldering combustion requirements given for cellulose insulation in ASTM 
<sup>1</sup> C739-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Enclosed space</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insulation materials intended for use within enclosed stud or joist spaces shall be capable of meeting the smoldering combustion requirements in ASTM C739-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exposed interior walls and ceilings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insulation materials, including those with combustible facings, which remain exposed and serve as wall or ceiling interior finish, shall have a flame spread classification not to exceed 150 (per ASTM E84-89a). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exterior envelope walls and roofs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exterior envelope walls and roofs containing thermal insulations shall meet applicable local government building code requirements for the complete wall or roof assembly. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pipes, ducts, and equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insulation materials intended for use on pipes, ducts and equipment shall be capable of meeting a flame spread classification not to exceed 150 (per ASTM E84-89a). 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ASTM indicates American Society for Testing and Materials.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Storm Windows
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Storm windows:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum insulating storm windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AAMA 
<sup>1</sup>1002.10-83. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum frame storm windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AAMA 1002.10-83. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Wood frame storm windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NWWDA 
<sup>2</sup> I.S. 2-87. (Section 3) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rigid vinyl frame storm windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM 
<sup>3</sup> D4099-89. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Frameless plastic glazing storm</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required minimum thickness windows is 6 mil (.006 inches). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Movable insulation systems for windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ANSI/AAMA indicates American National Standards Institute/American Architectural Manufacturers Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> ANSI/NWWDA indicates American National Standards Institute/National Wood Window &amp; Door Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> ASTM indicates American Society for Testing and Materials.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Storm Doors
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Storm doors—Aluminum:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Storm Doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AAMA 
<sup>1</sup> 1102.7-89. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Sliding glass storm doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AAMA 1002.10-83. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wood storm doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NWWDA 
<sup>2</sup> I.S. 6-86. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rigid vinyl storm doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM 
<sup>3</sup> D3678-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vestibules: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Materials to construct vestibules</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replacement windows:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum frame windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AAMA 101-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Steel frame windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Steel Window Institute recommended specifications for steel windows, 1990. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Wood frame windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NWWDA I.S. 2-87. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Rigid vinyl frame windows</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM D4099-89. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ANSI/AAMA indicates American National Standards Institute/American Architectural Manufacturers Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> ANSI/NWWDA indicates American National Standards Institute/National Wood Window &amp; Door Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> ASTM indicates American Society for Testing and Materials.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Replacement Doors
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replacement doors—Hinged doors: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Steel doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/SDI 
<sup>1</sup> 100-1985. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wood doors: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Flush doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NWWDA 
<sup>2</sup> I.S. 1-87. (exterior door provisions) 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Pine, fir, hemlock and spruce doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/NWWDA I.S. 6-86. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sliding patio doors:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Aluminum doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AAMA 
<sup>3</sup> 101-88. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Wood doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NWWDA I.S. 3-83. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ANSI/SDI indicates American National Standards Institute/Steel Door Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> ANSI/NWWDA indicates American National Standards Institute/National Wood Window &amp; Door Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> ANSI/AAMA indicates American National Standards Institute/American Architectural Manufacturers Association.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Caulks and sealants:
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Caulks and sealants: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Putty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FS 
<sup>1</sup> TT-P-00791B, October 16, 1969 and Amendment 2, March 23, 1971. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Glazing compounds for metal sash</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM 
<sup>2</sup> C669-75 (1989). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Oil and resin base caulks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C570-72 (1989). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Acrylic (solvent types) sealants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FS TT-S-00230C, February 2, 1970 and Amendment 2, October 9, 1970. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Butyl rubber sealants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FS TT-S-001657, October 8, 1970. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Chlorosulfonated polyethylene sealants</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FS TT-S-00230C, February 2, 1970 and Amendment 2, October 9, 1970. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Latex sealing compounds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C834-76 (1986). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Elastomeric joint sealants (normally considered to include polysulfide, polyurethane, and silicone)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C920-87. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Preformed gaskets and sealing materials</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASTM C509-84.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> FS indicates Federal Specifications. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> ASTM indicates American Society for Testing and Materials.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Weatherstripping 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weatherstripping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vapor retarders</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Selected according to the provisions cited in ASTM 
<sup>1</sup> C755-85 (1990). Permeance not greater than 1 perm when determined according to the desiccant method de- scribed in ASTM E96-90. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Items to improve attic ventilation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clock thermostats</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NEMA 
<sup>2</sup> DC 3-1989. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ASTM indicates American Society for Testing and Materials. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> NEMA indicates National Electrical Manufacturers Association.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Heat Exchangers
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat exchangers, water-to-water and steam-to-water</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME 
<sup>1</sup> Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, 1992, Sections II, V, VIII, IX, and X, as applicable to pressure vessels. Standards of Tubular Exchanger Manufacturers Association, Seventh Edition, 1988. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat exchangers with gas-fired appliances 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Conformance to AGA 
<sup>3</sup> Requirements for Heat Reclaimer Devices for Use with Gas-Fired Appliances No. 1-80, June 1, 1980. AGA Laboratories Certification Seal. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat pump water heating heat recovery systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electrical components to be listed by UL. 
<sup>4</sup> 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ASME indicates American Society of Mechanical Engineers. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The heat reclaimer is for installation in a section of the vent connector from appliances equipped with draft hoods or appliances equipped with powered burners or induced draft and not equipped with a draft hood. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> AGA indicates American Gas Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> UL indicates Underwriters Laboratories.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Boiler/Furnace Control Systems 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automatic set back thermostats</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Listed by UL. 
<sup>1</sup> Conformance to NEMA 
<sup>2</sup> DC 3-1989. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Line voltage or low voltage room thermostats</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NEMA DC 3-1989. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automatic gas ignition systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI 
<sup>3</sup> Z21.21-1987 and Z21.21a-1989. AGA 
<sup>4</sup> Laboratories Certification Seal. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energy management systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Listed by UL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hydronic boiler controls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Listed by UL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other burner controls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Listed by UL. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> UL indicates Underwriters Laboratories. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> NEMA indicates National Electrical Manufacturers Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> ANSI indicates American National Standards Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> AGA indicates American Gas Association.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Water Heater Modifications 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insulate tank and distribution piping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(See insulation section of this appendix). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install heat traps on inlet and outlet piping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicable local plumbing code.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install/replace water heater heating elements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Listed by UL. 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electric, freeze-prevention tape for pipes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Listed by UL. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reduce thermostat settings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">State or local recommendations. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install stack damper, gas-fueled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANS1 
<sup>2</sup> Z21.66-1988, including Exhibits A&amp;B, and ANSI Z223.1-1988. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install stack damper, oil-fueled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">UL 17, November 28, 1988, and NFPA 
<sup>3</sup> 31-1987. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install water flow modifiers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> UL indicates Underwriters Laboratories. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> ANSI indicates American National Standards Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> NFPA indicates National Fire Prevention Association.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Waste Heat Recovery Devices 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Desuperheater/water heaters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 
<sup>1</sup> 470-1987. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condensing heat exchangers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available components and in new heating furnace systems to manufacturers' specifications. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Condensing heat exchangers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available (Commercial, multi-story building, with teflon-lined tubes institutional) to manufacturers' specifications. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energy recovery equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy Recovery Equipment and Systems Air-to-Air (1978) Sheet Metal and Air-Conditioning Contractors National Association (SMACNA). 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ARI indicates Air Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> SMACNA denotes Sheet Metal and Air Conditioning Contractors' National Association.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Boiler Repair and Modifications/Efficiency Improvements 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install gas conversion burners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI 
<sup>1</sup> Z21.8-1984, (for gas or oil-fired systems) ANSI Z21.17-1984, ANSI Z21.17a-1990, and ANSI Z223.1-1988. AGA 
<sup>2</sup> Laboratories Certification seal. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replace oil burner</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">UL 
<sup>3</sup> 296, February 28, 1989 Revision and NFPA 
<sup>4</sup> 31-1987. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install burners (oil/gas)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z223.1-1988 for gas equipment and NFPA 31-1987 for oil equipment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-adjust boiler water temperature or install automatic boiler temperature reset control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME 
<sup>5</sup> CSD-1-1988, ASME CSD-1a-1989, ANSI Z223.1-1988, and NFPA 31-1987. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replace/modify boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, 1992, Sections II, IV, V, VI, VIII, IX, and X. Boilers must be Institute of Boilers and Radiation Manufacturers (IBR) equipment. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clean heat exchanger, adjust burner air shutter(s), check smoke no. on oil-fueled equipment. Check operation of pump(s) and replacement filters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per manufacturers' instructions. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Repair combustion chambers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refractory linings may be required for conversions. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replace heat exchangers, tubes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Protection from flame contact with conversion burners by refractory shield. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install/replace thermostatic radiator valves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. One pipe steam systems require air vents on each radiator; see manufacturers' requirements. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install boiler duty cycle control system</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. NFPA 70, National Electrical Code (NEC) 1993 and local electrical codes provisions for wiring. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ANSI indicates American National Standards Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> AGA indicates American Gas Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> UL indicates Underwriters Laboratories. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> NFPA indicates National Fire Prevention Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> ANSI/ASME indicates American National Standards Institute/American Society of Mechanical Engineers.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Heating and Cooling System Repairs and Tune-ups/Efficiency Improvements
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install duct insulation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FS 
<sup>1</sup> HH-I-558C, January 7, 1992 (see insulation sections of this appendix).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reduce input of burner; derate gas-fueled equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Local utility company and procedures if applicable for gas-fueled furnaces and ANSI 
<sup>2</sup> Z223.1-1988 (NFPA 
<sup>3</sup> 54-1988) including appendix H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Repair/replace oil-fired equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA 31-1987. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replace combustion chamber in oil-fired furnaces or boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA 31-1987.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Clean heat exchanger and adjust burner: adjust air shutter and check CO<E T="52">2</E> and stack temperature. Clean or replace air filter on forced air furnace</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z223.1-1988 (NFPA 54-1988) including appendix H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install vent dampers for gas-fueled heating systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicable sections of ANSI Z223.1-1988 (NFPA 54-1988) including appendices H, I, J, and K. ANSI Z21.66-1988 and exhibits A &amp; B for electrically operated dampers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install vent dampers for oil-fueled heating systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicable sections of NFPA 31-1987 for installation and in conformance with UL 
<sup>4</sup> 17, November 28, 1988.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reduce excess combustion air:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">A: Reduce vent connector size of gas-fueled appliances</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z223.1-1988 (NFPA 54-1988) part 9 and appendices G &amp; H.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">B: Adjust barometric draft regulator for oil fuels</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA 31-1987 and per manufacturers' (furnace or boiler) instructions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replace constant burning pilot with electric ignition device on gas-fueled furnaces or boilers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z21.71-1981, Z21.71a-1985, and Z21.71b-1989.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Readjust fan switch on forced air gas or oil-fueled furnaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applicable sections and appendix H of ANSI Z223.1-1988 (NFPA 54-1988) for gas furnaces and NFPA 31-1987 for oil furnaces. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replace burners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See power burners (oil/gas). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install/replace duct furnaces (gas)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI Z223.1-1988 (NFPA 54-1988).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install/replace heat pumps</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Listed by UL.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Replace air diffusers, intakes, registers, and grilles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Install/replace warm air heating metal ducts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Filter alarm units</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> FS indicates Federal Specifications. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> ANSI indicates American National Standards Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> NFPA indicates National Fire Prevention Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> UL indicates Underwriters Laboratories.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Replacement Furnaces, Boilers, and Wood Stoves 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Chimneys, fireplaces, vents and solid fuel burning appliances</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA 
<sup>1</sup> 211-1988.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gas-fired furnaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANS1 
<sup>2</sup> Z21.47-1987, Z21.47a-1988, and Z21.47b-1989. ANSI Z223.1-1988 (NFPA 54-1988). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oil-fired furnaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">UL 
<sup>3</sup> 727, August 27, 1991 Revision and NFPA 31-1987. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquified petroleum gas storage</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NFPA 58-1989. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ventilation fans:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Including electric attic, ceiling, and whole house fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">UL 507, August 23, 1990 Revision.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> NFPA indicates National Fire Prevention Association. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> ANSI indicates American National Standards Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> UL indicates Underwriters Laboratories.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Air Conditioners and Cooling Equipment 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Air conditioners:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Central air conditioners</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARI 
<sup>1</sup> 210/240-1989. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Room size units</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ANSI/AHAM 
<sup>2</sup> RAC-1-1982. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other cooling equipment: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Including evaporative coolers, heat pumps and other equipment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">UL 
<sup>3</sup> 1995, November 30, 1990. 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> ARI indicates Air Conditioning and Refrigeration Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> AHAM/ANSI indicates American Home Appliance Manufacturers/American National Standards Institute. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> UL indicates Underwriters Laboratories. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> This standard is a general standard covering many different types of heating and cooling equipment.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Screens, Window Films, and Reflective Materials
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Standards for conformance]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insect screens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Window films</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shade screens:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Fiberglass shade screens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Polyester shade screens</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rigid awnings:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Wood rigid awnings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Metal rigid awnings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Louver systems:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Wood louver systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Metal louver systems</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Industrial-grade white paint used as a heat-reflective measure on awnings, window louvers, doors, and exterior duct work (exposed)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commercially available.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 12529, Mar. 4, 1993, as amended at 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="445" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 445 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="451" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 451—RENEWABLE ENERGY PRODUCTION INCENTIVES


</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260520" REFID="1">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 29361, May 20, 2026.</XREF>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101, <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 13317.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 36964, July 19, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 451.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part cover the policies and procedures applicable to the determinations by the Department of Energy (DOE) to make incentive payments, under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 13317, for electric energy generated and sold by a qualified renewable energy facility owned by a State or political subdivision thereof; a not-for-profit electric cooperative; a public utility described in section 115 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; an Indian tribal government or subdivision thereof; or a Native corporation.
</P>
<P>(b) Determinations to make incentive payments under this part are not subject to the provisions of 10 CFR part 600 and such payments shall not be construed to be financial assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36964, July 19, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 46386, Aug. 14, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part—
</P>
<P><I>Biomass</I> means biologically generated energy sources such as heat derived from combustion of plant matter, or from combustion of gases or liquids derived from plant matter, animal wastes, or sewage, or from combustion of gases derived from landfills, or hydrogen derived from these same sources.
</P>
<P><I>Closed-loop biomass</I> means any organic material from a plant which is planted exclusively for purposes of being used at a qualified renewable energy facility to generate electricity.
</P>
<P><I>Date of first use</I> means, at the option of the facility owner, the date of the first kilowatt-hour sale, the date of completion of facility equipment testing, or the date when all approved permits required for facility construction are received.
</P>
<P><I>Deciding Official</I> means the Manager of the Golden Field Office of the Department of Energy (or any DOE official to whom the authority of the Manager of the Golden Field Office may be redelegated by the Secretary of Energy).
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Finance Office</I> means the DOE Office of the Chief Financial Officer (or any office to which that Office's authority may be redelegated by the Secretary of Energy).
</P>
<P><I>Fiscal year</I> means the Federal fiscal year beginning October 1 and ending on September 30 of the following calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Indian tribal government</I> means the governing body of an Indian tribe as defined in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450b).
</P>
<P><I>Native corporation</I> has the meaning set forth in the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (25 U.S.C. 1602).
</P>
<P><I>Net electric energy</I> means the metered kilowatt-hours (kWh) generated and sold, and excludes electric energy used within the renewable energy facility to power equipment such as pumps, motors, controls, lighting, heating, cooling, and other systems needed to operate the facility.
</P>
<P><I>Not-for-profit electrical cooperative</I> means a cooperative association that is legally obligated to operate on a not-for-profit basis and is organized under the laws of any State for the purpose of providing electric service to its members.
</P>
<P><I>Ocean</I> means the waters of the Atlantic Ocean (including the Gulf of Mexico) and the Pacific Ocean within the jurisdiction of the United States from which energy may be derived through application of tides, waves, currents, thermal differences, or other means.
</P>
<P><I>Renewable energy facility</I> means a single module or unit, or an aggregation of such units, that generates electric energy which is independently metered and which results from the utilization of a renewable energy source.
</P>
<P><I>Renewable energy source</I> means solar heat, solar light, wind, ocean, geothermal heat, and biomass, except for—
</P>
<P>(1) Heat from the burning of municipal solid waste; or
</P>
<P>(2) Heat from a dry steam geothermal reservoir which—
</P>
<P>(i) Has no mobile liquid in its natural state;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a fluid composed of at least 95 percent water vapor; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has an enthalpy for the total produced fluid greater than or equal to 2.791 megajoules per kilogram (1200 British thermal units per pound).
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and any of the States, Commonwealths, territories, and possessions of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36964, July 19, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 46386, Aug. 14, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.3   Who may apply.</HEAD>
<P>Any owner, or operator with the written consent of the owner, but not both, of a qualified renewable energy facility, may apply for incentive payments for net electric energy generated from a renewable energy source and sold.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.4" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.4   What is a qualified renewable energy facility.</HEAD>
<P>In order to qualify for an incentive payment under this part, a renewable energy facility must meet the following qualifications—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Owner qualifications.</I> The owner must be—
</P>
<P>(1) A State or a political subdivision of a State (or agency, authority, or instrumentality thereof);
</P>
<P>(2) A public utility described in section 115 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;
</P>
<P>(3) A not-for-profit electrical cooperative;
</P>
<P>(4) An Indian tribal government or subdivision thereof; or
</P>
<P>(5) A Native corporation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What constitutes ownership.</I> The owner must have all rights to the beneficial use of the renewable energy facility, and legal title must be held by, or for the benefit of, the owner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sales affecting interstate commerce.</I> The net electric energy generated by the renewable energy facility must be sold to another entity for consideration.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Type of renewable energy sources.</I> The source of the electric energy for which an incentive payment is sought must be a renewable energy source, as defined in § 451.2.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time of first use.</I> The date of the first use of a newly constructed renewable energy facility, or a facility covered by paragraph (f) of this section, must occur during the inclusive period beginning October 1, 1993, and ending on September 30, 2016. For facilities whose date of first use occurred in the period October 1, 2003, through September 30, 2004, the time of first use shall be deemed to be October 1, 2004.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conversion of non-qualified facilities.</I> Existing non-qualified facilities that are converted must meet either of the following criteria—
</P>
<P>(1) A facility employing solar, wind ocean, geothermal or biomass sources must be refurbished during the allowed time of first use such that the fair market value of any previously used property does not exceed 20% of the facility's total value.
</P>
<P>(2) A facility not employing solar, wind ocean, geothermal or biomass sources must be converted in part or in whole to a qualified facility during the allowed time of first use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Location.</I> The qualified renewable energy facility must be located in a State or in U.S. jurisdictional waters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36964, July 19, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 46386, Aug. 14, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.5" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.5   Where and when to apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-application and notification.</I> (1) An applicant may submit at any time a pre-application, containing the information described in § 451.8 (a) through (e), to obtain a preliminary and conditional determination of eligibility.
</P>
<P>(2) To assist DOE in its budget planning, the owner or operator of a qualified renewable energy facility is requested to provide notification at least 6 months in advance of when a facility is expected to be first used, providing projected information specified in § 451.8 (a) through (e).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> (1) An application for an incentive payment for electric energy generated and sold in a fiscal year must be filed during the first quarter (October 1 through December 31) of the next fiscal year, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For facilities whose date of first use occurred in the period October 1, 2003, through September 30, 2005, applications for incentive payments for electric energy generated and sold in fiscal year 2005 must be filed by August 31, 2006.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to file an application in any fiscal year for payment for energy generated in the preceding fiscal year shall disqualify the owner or operator from eligibility for any incentive payment for energy generated in that preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where.</I> Applications and notifications to the Department shall be submitted to the Renewable Energy Production Incentive Program, U.S. Department of Energy, Golden Field Office, 1617 Cole Boulevard, Golden, CO, 80401.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36964, July 19, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 46387, Aug. 14, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.6" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.6   Duration of incentive payments.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the availability of appropriated funds, DOE shall make incentive payments under this part with respect to a qualified renewable energy facility for 10 consecutive fiscal years. Such period shall begin with the fiscal year in which application for payment for electricity generated by the facility is first made and the facility is determined by DOE to be eligible for receipt of an incentive payment. The period for payment under this program ends with fiscal year 2026.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36964, July 19, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 46387, Aug. 14, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.7" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.7   Metering requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The net electric energy generated and sold (kilowatt-hours) by the owner or operator of a qualified renewable energy facility must be measured by a standard metering device that— 
</P>
<P>(a) Meets generally accepted industry standards; 
</P>
<P>(b) Is maintained in proper working order according to the instructions of its manufacturer; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Is calibrated according to generally accepted industry standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.8" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.8   Application content requirements.</HEAD>
<P>An application for an incentive payment under this part must be signed by an authorized executive official and shall provide the following information— 
</P>
<P>(a) A statement indicating that the applicant is the owner of the facility or is the operator of the facility and has the written consent of an authorized executive official of the owner to file an application; 
</P>
<P>(b) The name of the facility or other official designation; 
</P>
<P>(c) The location and address of the facility and type of renewable energy source; 
</P>
<P>(d) The name, address, and telephone number of a point of contact to respond to questions or requests for additional information; 
</P>
<P>(e) A clear statement of how the application satisfies each and every part of the eligibility criteria under § 451.4; 
</P>
<P>(f) A statement of the annual and monthly metered net electric energy generated and sold during the prior fiscal year by the qualified renewable energy facility, measured in kilowatt-hours, for which an incentive payment is requested; 
</P>
<P>(g) In the case of a qualified renewable energy facility which generates electric energy using a fossil fuel, nuclear energy, or other non-qualified energy source in addition to using a renewable energy source, a statement of the net electric energy generated, measured in kilowatt-hours, attributable to the renewable energy source, including a calculation showing the total monthly and annual kilowatt-hours generated and sold during the fiscal year multiplied by a fraction consisting of the heat input, as measured in appropriate energy units, received by the working fluid from the renewable energy sources divided by the heat input, as measured in the same energy units, received by the working fluid from all energy sources; 
</P>
<P>(h) The total amount of electric energy for which payment is requested, including the net electric energy generated in the prior fiscal year, as determined according to paragraph (f) or (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(i) Copies of permit authorizations if the date of first use is based on permit approvals and this is the initial application;
</P>
<P>(j) Instructions for payment by electronic funds transfer; 
</P>
<P>(k) A statement agreeing to retain records for a period of three (3) years which substantiate the annual and monthly metered number of kilowatt-hours generated and sold, and to provide access to, or copies of, such records within 30 days of a written request by DOE; and 
</P>
<P>(l) A statement signed by an authorized executive official certifying that the information contained in the application is accurate. 
</P>
<P>(m) If a not-for-profit electric cooperative, a statement certifying that no claim for tax credit has been made for the same electricity for which incentive payments are requested. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36964, July 19, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 46387, Aug. 14, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.9" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.9   Procedures for processing applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supplemental information.</I> DOE may request supplementary information relating to the application. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Audits.</I> DOE may require the applicant to conduct at its own expense and submit an independent audit, or DOE may conduct an audit, to verify the number of kilowatt-hours claimed to have been generated and sold by the qualified renewable energy facility and for which an incentive payment has been requested or made. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DOE determinations.</I> The Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy shall determine the extent to which appropriated funds are available to be obligated under this program for each fiscal year. Upon evaluating each application and any other relevant information, DOE shall further determine:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligibility of the applicant for receipt of an incentive payment, based on the criteria for eligibility specified in this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of kilowatt-hours to be used in calculating a potential incentive payment, based on the net electric energy generated from a qualified renewable energy source at the qualified renewable energy facility and sold during the prior fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(3) The number of kilowatt-hours to be used in calculating a potential additional incentive payment, based on the total quantity of accrued energy generated during prior fiscal years;
</P>
<P>(4) The amounts represented by 60 percent of available funds and by 40 percent of available funds; and
</P>
<P>(5) Whether justification exists for altering the 60:40 payment ratio specified in paragraph (e) of this section. If DOE intends to modify the 60:40 ratio, the Department shall notify Congress, setting forth reasons for such change.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculating payments.</I> Subject to the provisions of paragraph (e) of this section, potential incentive payments under this part shall be determined by multiplying the number of kilowatt-hours determined under § 451.9(c)(2) by 1.5 cents per kilowatt-hour, and adjusting that product for inflation for each fiscal year beginning after calendar year 1993 in the same manner as provided in section 29(d)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, except that in applying such provisions calendar year 1993 shall be substituted for calendar year 1979. Using the same procedure, a potential additional payment shall be determined for the number of kilowatt-hours determined under paragraph (c)(3) of this section. If the sum of these calculated payments does not exceed the funds determined to be available by the Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy under § 451.9(c), DOE shall make payments to all qualified applicants.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insufficient funds.</I> If funds are not sufficient to make full incentive payments to all qualified applicants, DOE shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Calculate potential incentive payments, if necessary on a <I>pro rata</I> basis, not to exceed 60 percent of available funds to owners or operators of qualified renewable energy facilities using solar, wind, ocean, geothermal, and closed-loop biomass technologies based on prior year energy generation;
</P>
<P>(2) Calculate potential incentive payments, if necessary on a <I>pro rata</I> basis, not to exceed 40 percent of available funds to owners or operators of all other qualified renewable energy facilities based on prior year energy generation;
</P>
<P>(3) If the amounts calculated in paragraph (e)(1) and (2) of this section result in one owner group with insufficient funds and one with excess funds, allocate excess funds to the owner group with insufficient funds and calculate additional incentive payments, on a <I>pro rata</I> basis if necessary, to such owners or operators based on prior year energy generation.
</P>
<P>(4) If potential payments calculated in paragraphs (e)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not exceed available funding, allocate 60% of remaining funds to paragraph (e)(1) recipients and 40% to paragraph (e)(2) recipients and calculate additional incentive payments, if necessary on a <I>pro rata</I> basis, to owners or operators based on accrued energy;
</P>
<P>(5) If the amounts calculated in paragraph (e)(4) of this section result in one owner group with insufficient funds and one with excess funds, allocate excess funds to the owner group with insufficient funds and calculate additional incentive payments, on a <I>pro rata</I> basis if necessary, to such owners or operators based on accrued energy.
</P>
<P>(6) Notify Congress if potential payments resulting from paragraphs (e)(3) or (5) of this section above will result in alteration of the 60:40 payment ratio;
</P>
<P>(7) Make incentive payments based on the sum of the amounts determined in paragraphs (e)(1) through (5) of this section for each applicant;
</P>
<P>(8) Treat the number of kilowatt-hours for which an incentive payment is not made as a result of insufficient funds as accrued energy for which future incentive payment may be made; and
</P>
<P>(9) Maintain a record of each applicant's accrued energy.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice to applicant.</I> After calculating the amount of the incentive payment under paragraphs (e) through (g) of this section, the DOE Deciding Official shall then issue a written notice of the determination to the applicant—
</P>
<P>(1) Approving the application as eligible for payment and forwarding a copy to the DOE Finance Office with a request to pay;
</P>
<P>(2) Setting forth the calculation of the approved amount of the incentive payment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Stating the amount of accrued energy, measured in kilowatt-hours, for each qualified renewable energy facility, if any, and the energy source for same.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disqualification.</I> If the application does not meet the requirements of this part or some of the kilowatt-hours claimed in the application are disallowed as unqualified, the Deciding Official shall issue a written notice denying the application in whole or in part with an explanation of the basis for denial.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 36964, July 19, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 46387, Aug. 14, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 451.10" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.8.0.77.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 451.10   Administrative appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to exhaust administrative remedies, an applicant who receives a notice denying an application in whole or in part shall appeal, on or before 45 days from date of the notice issued by the DOE Deciding Official, to the Office of Hearings and Appeals, 1000 Independence Avenue, S.W., Washington, D.C. 20585, in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart C of 10 CFR part 1003.
</P>
<P>(b) If an applicant does not appeal under paragraph (a) of this section, the determination of the DOE Deciding Official shall become final for DOE and judicially unreviewable.
</P>
<P>(c) If an applicant appeals on a timely basis under paragraph (a) of this section, the decision and order of the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall be final for DOE.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Office of Hearings and Appeals orders an incentive payment, the DOE Deciding Official shall send a copy of such order to the DOE Finance Office with a request to pay.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="452" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 452—PRODUCTION INCENTIVES FOR CELLULOSIC BIOFUELS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 16251.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 52871, Oct. 15, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 452.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.9.0.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the standards, policies, and procedures that the Department of Energy uses for receiving, evaluating, and awarding bids in reverse auctions of production incentive payments for cellulosic biofuels under section 942 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (42 U.S.C. 16251).
</P>
<P>(b) Part 1024 of chapter X of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations shall not apply to actions taken under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.9.0.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Cellulosic biofuel</I> means any liquid fuel produced from cellulosic feedstocks.
</P>
<P><I>Cellulosic feedstock</I> means any lignocellulosic feedstock as defined by EPAct, section 932(a)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Commercially significant quantity</I> means 10 million gallons or more of cellulosic biofuels produced in one year.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible biofuels producer</I> means a business association, including but not limited to a sole proprietorship, partnership, joint venture, corporation, or other business entity that owns and operates, or plans to own and operate, an eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility and that meets all other eligibility requirements that are conditions on the receipt of production incentives under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility</I> means a facility—
</P>
<P>(1) Located in the United States (including U.S. territories and possessions);
</P>
<P>(2) Which meets all applicable Federal and State permitting requirements;
</P>
<P>(3) Employs a demonstrated refining technology; and
</P>
<P>(4) Meets any relevant financial criteria established by the Secretary.
</P>
<P><I>EPAct 2005</I> means the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Public Law 109-58 (August 8, 2005).
</P>
<P><I>Open window</I> means the period during each reverse auction, as specified in an associated solicitation, during which DOE accepts bids for production incentives under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.9.0.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.3   Solicitations.</HEAD>
<P>The reverse auction process commences with the issuance of a solicitation by DOE. DOE will publish a solicitation in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall post the solicitation on its website at <I>www.eere.energy.gov</I> no later than 60 days before the bidding in a reverse auction under this part commences. The solicitation shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Invite interested persons and businesses to submit pre-qualification statements;
</P>
<P>(b) Set forth the terms on which bids will be accepted;
</P>
<P>(c) Specify the open window for bidding; and
</P>
<P>(d) Specify the date by which successful bidders will be required to file pre-auction eligibility submissions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.4" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.9.0.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.4   Eligibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-auction eligibility submissions.</I> (1) Entities that intend to participate in a reverse auction, within the time period stated in the relevant solicitation, must file a pre-auction eligibility submission that provides all information requested in the applicable solicitation to which it is responding, including an implementation plan.
</P>
<P>(2) Each pre-auction eligibility submission's implementation plan must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate that the filing party owns and operates or plans to own and operate an eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the site or proposed site for the filing party's eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate that the cellulosic biofuel to be produced for purposes of receiving an award either currently is suitable for widespread general use as a transportation fuel or will be suitable for such use in a timeframe and in sufficient volumes to significantly contribute to the goal of 1 billion gallons of refined cellulosic biofuel by August 2015.
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide audited or <I>pro forma</I> financial statements for the latest 12 month period; and
</P>
<P>(v) Identify one or more proposed sources of financing for the construction or expansion of the filing party's eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of pre-auction eligibility status.</I> DOE shall notify each entity that files a pre-auction eligibility submission of its acceptance or rejection no later than 15 days before the reverse auction for which the submission was made. A DOE decision constitutes final agency action and is conclusive.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Progress reports.</I> Within one year after the reverse auction in which a bidder successfully competed, the bidder must submit a progress report that includes all additional information required by the solicitation in which the bidder submitted a successful bid and which demonstrates that the bidder has:
</P>
<P>(1) Acquired the site where its proposed eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility is or will be located;
</P>
<P>(2) Obtained secure financing commitments for the plant or expansion thereof, as necessary to produce cellulosic biofuels; and
</P>
<P>(3) Entered into a written engineering, procurement, and construction (EPC) contract for design and construction of the eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility; such EPC contract must provide for completion of construction of the eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility such that operations at the plant or plant expansion will commence within three years of the reverse auction in which the bidder successfully competed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Production agreement.</I> Within 90 days after submission of its progress report under paragraph (c) of this section, the successful bidder must enter into an agreement with DOE which requires the bidder to begin production of commercially significant quantities of cellulosic biofuels, at the eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility that was the subject of the relevant bid, not later than three years from the date of the acceptance of the successful bid.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confirmation of continuing eligibility.</I> After receiving the progress report described in the paragraph (e) of the section and upon confirmation by DOE that the successful bidder has entered into a production agreement with DOE, as described in paragraph (d) of this section, DOE will confirm to the bidder that it continues to meet the eligibility requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contractual condition on eligibility.</I> (1) As a condition of the receipt of an award under this part, a successful bidder in a reverse auction under this part must demonstrate that it has fulfilled the terms of its production agreement entered into with DOE pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) As a condition of continuing to receive production incentive payments under this part, a bidder that has entered into a production agreement with DOE must annually submit to DOE, by a commercially reasonable date specified by DOE, verification of the bidder's production volumes for the prior calendar year. Within 90 days of the submission of such verification, DOE shall notify the successful bidder whether the bidder has fulfilled the terms of the production agreement and shall make payment of any production incentive awards then outstanding for the one year period covered by the verified data submission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.5" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.9.0.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.5   Bidding procedures.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall conduct an electronic reverse auction through a limited duration single bid per producer auction process open only to pre-auction eligible cellulosic biofuels producers. The following procedures shall be used:
</P>
<P>(a) DOE shall accept only electronic bids received from pre-auction eligible cellulosic biofuels producers during the open window established in the solicitation. The open window shall consist of a single continuous period of at least four hours for each auction.
</P>
<P>(b) Bids shall identify an estimated annual production amount from an eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility on a per gallon, site, entity, and year specific basis for a consecutive six year production period. A bid also may be submitted for additional incentives for uncovered production volumes at a site where an award was made in an earlier auction round.
</P>
<P>(c) All bids must set forth the methodology used to derive the estimates of annual production volumes covered by the bid and the bid shall be calculated on a gasoline equivalent volumetric basis using the lower heating Btu value of the fuel compared to the lower heating Btu value of gasoline.
</P>
<P>(d) All bids will be confidential until 45 days after the close of the window for submission of bids for the reverse auction.
</P>
<P>(e) Bid evaluation and incentive awards selection procedures include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) After DOE evaluates the bids received during the open window, it shall, within 45 days following the close of the open window for submission of bids for the reverse auction, announce on DOE's website and by direct mail the names of the successful bidders and the terms of their bids.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall issue awards for the bid production amounts beginning with the bidder that submitted the bid for the lowest level of production incentive on a per gallon basis.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event of a tie among the lowest bids, preference will be given to the lowest tied bidder based on DOE's evaluation of the extent to which the tied bids meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrates outstanding potential for local and regional economic development;
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes agricultural producers or cooperatives of agricultural producers as equity partners in the ventures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a strategic agreement in place to fairly reward feedstock suppliers.
</P>
<P>(4) In the event more than one lowest tied bid equally meets the standards in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the award will be distributed equally on a per capita basis among those lowest tied bidders meeting the standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 452.6" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.9.0.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 452.6   Incentive award terms and limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount of incentive.</I> Subject to the availability of appropriated funds and the limitations in paragraph (c) of this section, an eligible cellulosic biofuels producer selected to receive an award shall receive the amount of the production incentive on the per gallon basis requested in the auction solicitation for each gallon produced and sold by the entity during the first six years of operation of its eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to commence production.</I> Except in the circumstance of a force majeure event, as solely determined by DOE, failure by an eligible cellulosic biofuels producer that made a successful bid to commence production of cellulosic biofuels, at the eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility that was the subject of the successful bid, by the end of the third year after the close of submission of the open window of bids for the reverse auction in which it submitted a successful bid, shall result in immediate revocation of DOE's award to that producer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure of the successful bidder to meet annual production obligations.</I> Except in the circumstance of a force majeure event, as solely determined by DOE, a successful bidder's failure to produce at least 50 percent of the volumes specified in its production agreement by December 31 of any year covered by the bid shall result in immediate revocation of DOE's award; if the successful bidder produces 50 percent or more of the volumes set forth in the production agreement on an annual basis by December 31 of any year covered by the agreement, any production shortfall will be carried forward and added to the successful bidder's production obligations for next year covered by the agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Shortfalls remaining at the end of the production period.</I> If, for any reason, by December 31 of the last year of the production agreement, the bidder has failed to produce the total production volumes for all years covered by the agreement, any such remaining shortfall shall be awarded to the bidder with the next lowest bid in the auction round for which the award was made. If, however, the next best bidder is unable to enter into a production agreement with DOE within 30 days after being notified of its award, the shortfall shall be allocated instead to the next reverse auction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Incentive award limitations.</I> The following limits shall apply to awards of cellulosic biofuels production incentives under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) During the first four years after the commencement of the program, the incentive shall be limited to $1.00 per gallon. For purposes of this limitation, the program shall be deemed to have commenced on the date that the first solicitation for a reverse auction is issued;
</P>
<P>(2) A per gallon cap over the remaining lifetime of the program of $.95 per gallon provided that—
</P>
<P>(i) This cap shall be lowered by $.05 each year commencing the first year after annual cellulosic biofuels production in the United States exceeds 1 billion gallons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not more than 25 percent of the funds committed within each reverse auction shall be awarded to any single project;
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than $100 million in production incentives shall be awarded in any one calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not more than $1 billion in production incentives shall be awarded over the lifetime of the program.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Participation in subsequent auctions.</I> A successful bidder in a reverse auction under this part may participate in subsequent reverse auctions if the incentives sought will assist the addition of plant production capacity for the eligible cellulosic biofuels production facility associated with its previously successful bid.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Transferability of awards.</I> A production incentive award under this part may be transferred to a successor entity at the same production facility for which the award was made, provided that the successor entity meets all eligibility requirements of this part, including execution of an agreement with DOE to commence production of cellulosic biofuels in commercially significant quantities not later than three years of the date that bidding closes on the reverse auction in which the predecessor entity submitted a successful bid.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="455-456" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 455-456 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="460" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 460—ENERGY CONSERVATION STANDARDS FOR MANUFACTURED HOMES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 17071; 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 32818, May 31, 2022, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.1.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes energy conservation standards for manufactured homes as manufactured at the factory, prior to distribution in commerce for sale or installation in the field. Manufacturers must apply the requirements of this part to a manufactured home subject to § 460.4(b) that is manufactured on or after 60 days after publication of final enforcement procedures for this part. DOE will amend this section to include the specific compliance date, once known. Manufacturers must apply the requirements of this part to a manufactured home subject to § 460.4(c) that is manufactured on or after 180 days after publication of final enforcement procedures for this part. DOE will amend this section to include the specific compliance date, once known.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 28878, July 2, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.1.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Adapted from section R202 of the 2021 IECC and as used in this part—
</P>
<P><I>2021 IECC</I> means the 2021 version of the International Energy Conservation Code, issued by the International Code Council.
</P>
<P><I>Access (to)</I> means that which enables a device, appliance or equipment to be reached by ready access or by a means that first requires the removal or movement of a panel or similar obstruction.
</P>
<P><I>Air barrier</I> means one or more materials joined together in a continuous manner to restrict or prevent the passage of air through the building thermal envelope and its assemblies.
</P>
<P><I>Automatic</I> means self-acting or operating by its own mechanism when actuated by some impersonal influence.
</P>
<P><I>Building thermal envelope</I> means exterior walls, exterior floors, exterior ceiling, or roofs, and any other building element assemblies that enclose conditioned space or provide a boundary between conditioned space and unconditioned space.
</P>
<P><I>Ceiling</I> means an assembly that supports and forms the overhead interior surface of a building or room that covers its upper limit and is horizontal or tilted at an angle less than 60 degrees (1.05 rad) from horizontal.
</P>
<P><I>Climate zone</I> means a geographical region identified in § 460.101.
</P>
<P><I>Conditioned space</I> means an area, room, or space that is enclosed within the building thermal envelope and that is directly or indirectly heated or cooled. Spaces are indirectly heated or cooled where they communicate through openings with conditioned space, where they are separated from conditioned spaces by uninsulated walls, floors or ceilings, or where they contain uninsulated ducts, piping, or other sources of heating or cooling.
</P>
<P><I>Continuous air barrier</I> means a combination of materials and assemblies that restrict or prevent the passage of air from conditioned space to unconditioned space.
</P>
<P><I>Door</I> means an operable barrier used to block or allow access to an entrance of a manufactured home.
</P>
<P><I>Dropped ceiling</I> means a secondary nonstructural ceiling, hung below the exterior ceiling.
</P>
<P><I>Dropped soffit</I> means a secondary nonstructural ceiling that is hung below the exterior ceiling and that covers only a portion of the ceiling.
</P>
<P><I>Duct</I> means a tube or conduit, except an air passage within a self-contained system, utilized for conveying air to or from heating, cooling, or ventilating equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Duct system</I> means a continuous passageway for the transmission of air that, in addition to ducts, includes duct fittings, dampers, plenums, fans, and accessory air-handling equipment and appliances.
</P>
<P><I>Eave</I> means the edge of the roof that overhangs the face of an exterior wall and normally projects beyond the side of the manufactured home.
</P>
<P><I>Equipment</I> includes material, devices, fixtures, fittings, or accessories both in the construction of, and in the plumbing, heating, cooling, and electrical systems of a manufactured home.
</P>
<P><I>Exterior ceiling</I> means a ceiling that separates conditioned space from unconditioned space.
</P>
<P><I>Exterior floor</I> means a floor that separates conditioned space from unconditioned space.
</P>
<P><I>Exterior wall</I> means a wall, including a skylight well, that separates conditioned space from unconditioned space.
</P>
<P><I>Fenestration</I> means vertical fenestration and skylights.
</P>
<P><I>Floor</I> means a horizontal assembly that supports and forms the lower interior surface of a building or room upon which occupants can walk.
</P>
<P><I>Glazed or glazing</I> means an infill material, including glass, plastic, or other transparent or translucent material used in fenestration.
</P>
<P><I>Heated water circulation system</I> means a water distribution system in which one or more pumps are operated in the service hot water piping to circulate heated water from the water heating equipment to fixtures and back to the water heating equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Insulation</I> means material deemed to be insulation under 16 CFR 460.2.
</P>
<P><I>Manual</I> means capable of being operated by personal intervention.
</P>
<P><I>Manufactured home</I> means a structure, transportable in one or more sections, which in the traveling mode is 8 body feet or more in width or 40 body feet or more in length or which when erected onsite is 320 or more square feet, and which is built on a permanent chassis and designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent foundation when connected to the required utilities, and includes the plumbing, heating, air conditioning, and electrical systems contained in the structure. This term includes all structures that meet the above requirements except the size requirements and with respect to which the manufacturer voluntarily files a certification pursuant to 24 CFR 3282.13 and complies with the construction and safety standards set forth in 24 CFR part 3280. The term does not include any self-propelled recreational vehicle. Calculations used to determine the number of square feet in a structure will be based on the structure's exterior dimensions, measured at the largest horizontal projections when erected on site. These dimensions will include all expandable rooms, cabinets, and other projections containing interior space, but do not include bay windows. Nothing in this definition should be interpreted to mean that a manufactured home necessarily meets the requirements of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Minimum Property Standards (HUD Handbook 4900.1) or that it is automatically eligible for financing under 12 U.S.C. 1709(b).
</P>
<P><I>Manufacturer</I> means any person engaged in the factory construction or assembly of a manufactured home, including any person engaged in importing manufactured homes for resale.
</P>
<P><I>Opaque door</I> means a door that is not less than 50 percent opaque in surface area.
</P>
<P><I>R-value (thermal resistance)</I> means the inverse of the time rate of heat flow through a body from one of its bounding surfaces to the other surface for a unit temperature difference between the two surfaces, under steady state conditions, per unit area (h × ft
<SU>2</SU> × °F/Btu).
</P>
<P><I>Rough opening</I> means an opening in the exterior wall or roof, sized for installation of fenestration.
</P>
<P><I>Service hot water</I> means supply of hot water for purposes other than comfort heating.
</P>
<P><I>Skylight</I> means glass or other transparent or translucent glazing material, including framing materials, installed at an angle less than 60 degrees (1.05 rad) from horizontal, including unit skylights, tubular daylighting devices, and glazing materials in solariums, sunrooms, roofs and sloped walls.
</P>
<P><I>Skylight well</I> means the exterior walls underneath a skylight that extend from the interior finished surface of the exterior ceiling to the exterior surface of the location to which the skylight is attached.
</P>
<P><I>Solar heat gain coefficient (SHGC)</I> means the ratio of the solar heat gain entering a space through a fenestration assembly to the incident solar radiation. Solar heat gain includes directly transmitted solar heat and absorbed solar radiation that is then reradiated, conducted, or convected into the space.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means each of the 50 states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and American Samoa.
</P>
<P><I>Thermostat</I> means an automatic control device used to maintain temperature at a fixed or adjustable set point.
</P>
<P><I>U-factor (thermal transmittance)</I> means the coefficient of heat transmission (air to air) through a building component or assembly, equal to the time rate of heat flow per unit area and unit temperature difference between the warm side and cold side air films (Btu/h × ft
<SU>2</SU> × °F).
</P>
<P><I>U</I><E T="52">o</E><I> (overall thermal transmittance)</I> means the coefficient of heat transmission (air to air) through the building thermal envelope, equal to the time rate of heat flow per unit area and unit temperature difference between the warm side and cold side air films (Btu/h × ft
<SU>2</SU> × °F).
</P>
<P><I>Ventilation</I> means the natural or mechanical process of supplying conditioned or unconditioned air to, or removing such air from, any space.
</P>
<P><I>Vertical fenestration</I> means windows (fixed or moveable), opaque doors, glazed doors, glazed block and combination opaque and glazed doors composed of glass or other transparent or translucent glazing materials and installed at a slope of greater than or equal to 60 degrees (1.05 rad) from horizontal.
</P>
<P><I>Wall</I> means an assembly that is vertical or tilted at an angle equal to greater than 60 degrees (1.05 rad) from horizontal that encloses or divides an area of a building or room.
</P>
<P><I>Whole-house mechanical ventilation system</I> means an exhaust system, supply system, or combination thereof that is designed to mechanically exchange indoor air with outdoor air when operating continuously or through a programmed intermittent schedule to satisfy the whole house ventilation rates.
</P>
<P><I>Window</I> means glass or other transparent or translucent glazing material, including framing materials, installed at an angle greater than 60 degrees (1.05 rad) from horizontal.
</P>
<P><I>Zone</I> means a space or group of spaces within a manufactured home with heating or cooling requirements that are sufficiently similar so that desired conditions can be maintained using a single controlling device.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.1.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.3   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved material is available for inspection at DOE and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE at: The U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, Sixth Floor, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20024, (202) 586-9127, <I>Buildings@ee.doe.gov, https://www.energy.gov/eere/buildings/building-technologies-office.</I> For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov,</I> or go to: <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html.</I> The material may be obtained from the following sources:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>ACCA.</I> Air Conditioning Contractors of America, Inc., 2800 S. Shirlington Road, Suite 300, Arlington, VA 22206, 703-575-4477; <I>www.acca.org</I>/.
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI/ACCA 2 Manual J-2016 (ver 2.50) (“ACCA Manual J”), Manual J-Residential Load Calculations, Eight Edition, Version 2.50, Copyright 2016; IBR approved for § 460.205.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ACCA 3 Manual S-2014 (“ACCA Manual S”), Manual S- Residential Equipment Selection, Second Edition, Version 1.00, Copyright 2014; IBR approved for § 460.205.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>HUD User,</I> 11491 Sunset Hills Road, Reston, VA 20190-5254; <I>www.huduser.gov/portal/publications/pdrpubli.html.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) HUD User No. 0005945, Overall U-Values and Heating/Cooling Loads—Manufactured Homes, February 1, 1992 (available from <I>www.huduser.org/portal/publications/manufhsg/uvalue.html</I>); IBR approved for § 460.102(e).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved].




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.4" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.1.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.4   Energy conservation standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A manufactured home must comply with the energy conservation standards specified for the applicable tier as presented in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Tier 1.</I> A single-section manufactured home (<I>i.e.,</I> a Tier 1 manufactured home) must comply with all applicable requirements in subparts B and C of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tier 2.</I> A multi-section manufactured home (<I>i.e.,</I> a Tier 2 manufactured home) must comply with all applicable requirements in subparts B and C of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Building Thermal Envelope</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.101" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.2.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.101   Climate zones.</HEAD>
<P>Manufactured homes subject to the requirements of this subpart must comply with the requirements applicable to one or more of the climate zones set forth in figure 1 to § 460.101 and table 1 to § 460.101.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31my22.216.gif"/>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 460.101—U.S. States and Territories per Climate Zone
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zone 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zone 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zone 3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alabama</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arkansas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alaska
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">American Samoa</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Arizona</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Colorado
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Florida</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">California</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Connecticut
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Georgia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kansas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Delaware
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guam</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Kentucky</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">District of Columbia
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hawaii</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Missouri</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Idaho
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Louisiana</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New Mexico</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Illinois
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mississippi</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">North Carolina</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indiana
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">South Carolina</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oklahoma</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Iowa
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tennessee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maine
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The Commonwealth of Puerto Rico</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maryland
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Virgin Islands</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Massachusetts
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Michigan
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Minnesota
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Montana
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nebraska
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Nevada
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New Hampshire
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New Jersey
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">North Dakota
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ohio
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Oregon
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pennsylvania
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rhode Island
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">South Dakota
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Utah
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Vermont
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Virginia
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Washington
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">West Virginia
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wisconsin
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wyoming</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.102" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.2.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.102   Building thermal envelope requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Compliance options.</I> The building thermal envelope must meet either the prescriptive requirements of paragraph (b) of this section or the performance requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prescriptive requirements.</I> (1) The building thermal envelope must meet the applicable minimum <I>R-</I>value (nominal value of insulation), and the glazing maximum <I>U-</I>factor and SHGC, requirements set forth in table 1 to § 460.102(b)(1) and table 2 to § 460.102(b)(2) or component U-values set forth in table 3 to § 460.102(b)(5) and table 4 to § 460.102(b)(5).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 460.102<E T="01">(b)</E>(1)—Tier 1 Building Thermal Envelope Prescriptive Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climate zone
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior wall
<br/>insulation
<br/><E T="03">R-</E>value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior ceiling
<br/>insulation
<br/><E T="03">R-</E>value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior floor
<br/>insulation
<br/><E T="03">R-</E>value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Window
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skylight
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Door
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Glazed
<br/>fenestration
<br/>SHGC
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 460.102<E T="01">(b)</E>(1)—Tier 2 Building Thermal Envelope Prescriptive Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climate zone
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior wall
<br/>insulation
<br/><E T="03">R-</E>value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior ceiling
<br/>insulation
<br/><E T="03">R-</E>value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior floor
<br/>insulation
<br/><E T="03">R-</E>value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Window
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Skylight
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Door
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Glazed
<br/>fenestration
<br/>SHGC
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.32</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.55</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) For the purpose of compliance with the exterior ceiling insulation <I>R-</I>value requirement of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the truss heel height must be a minimum of 5.5 inches at the outside face of each exterior wall.
</P>
<P>(3) A combination of <I>R-</I>21 batt insulation and <I>R-</I>14 blanket insulation may be used for the purpose of compliance with the floor insulation <I>R-</I>value requirement of table 2 to § 460.102(b)(1), Climate Zone 3.
</P>
<P>(4) An individual skylight that has an SHGC that is less than or equal to 0.30 is not subject to the glazed fenestration SHGC requirements established in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Adapted from section R402 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>U-</I>factor alternatives to <I>R-</I>value requirements. Compliance with the applicable requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be determined using the applicable maximum <I>U-</I>factor values set forth in table 3 to § 460.102(b)(5) and table 4 to § 460.102(b)(5), which reflect the thermal transmittance of the component, excluding fenestration, and not just the insulation of that component, as an alternative to the minimum nominal <I>R-</I>value requirements set forth in table 1 to § 460.102(b)(1) and table 2 to § 460.102(b)(1), respectively.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 460.102<E T="01">(b)</E>(5)—<E T="03">U-</E>Factor Alternatives to Tier 1 <E T="03">R-</E>Value Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climate zone
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior ceiling
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior wall
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior floor
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.094</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.094</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.056
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.068</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.049</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 460.102<E T="01">(b)</E>(5)—<E T="03">U</E>-Factor Alternatives to Tier 2 R-Value Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climate zone
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior ceiling
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior wall
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exterior floor
<br/><E T="03">U-</E>factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.094</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.078
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.043</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.056
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.037</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.032</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Performance requirements.</I> (1) The building thermal envelope must have a <I>U</I><E T="8145">o</E> that is less than or equal to the applicable value specified in table 5 to § 460.102(c)(1) and table 6 to § 460.102(c)(1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 460.102<E T="01">(c)</E>(1)—Tier 1 Building Thermal Envelope Performance Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climate zone
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Single-section
<br/><E T="03">U</E><E T="8145">o</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.091
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.074</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 460.102<E T="01">(c)</E>(1)—Tier 2 Building Thermal Envelope Performance Requirements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Climate zone
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multi-section
<br/><E T="03">U</E><E T="8145">o</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.082
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.066
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.055</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) Area-weighted average vertical fenestration <I>U-</I>factor must not exceed 0.48 in Climate Zone 2 or 0.40 in Climate Zone 3. Adapted from section R402 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<P>(3) Area-weighted average skylight <I>U-</I>factor must not exceed 0.75 in Climate Zone 2 and Climate Zone 3. Adapted from section R402 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<P>(4) Windows, skylights and doors containing more than 50 percent glazing by area must satisfy the SHGC requirements established in paragraph (b)(1) of this section on the basis of an area-weighted average. Adapted from section R402 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved].
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination of compliance with paragraph (c) of this section.</I> (1) <I>U</I><E T="54">o</E> must be determined in accordance with Overall <I>U-</I>Values and Heating/Cooling Loads—Manufactured Homes (incorporated by reference; see § 460.3)
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.103" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.2.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.103   Installation of insulation.</HEAD>
<P>Insulating materials must be installed according to the insulation manufacturer's installation instructions and the requirements set forth in table 1 to 460.103, which is adapted from section R402 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 460.103—Installation of Insulation
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Installation requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air-permeable insulation must not be used as a material to establish the air barrier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Access hatches, panels, and doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Access hatches, panels, and doors between conditioned space and unconditioned space, such as attics and crawlspaces, must be insulated to a level equivalent to the insulation of the surrounding surface, must provide access to all equipment that prevents damaging or compressing the insulation, and must provide a wood-framed or equivalent baffle or retainer when loose fill insulation is installed within an exterior ceiling assembly to retain the insulation both on the access hatch, panel, or door and within the building thermal envelope.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Baffles</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For air-permeable insulations in vented attics, a baffle must be installed adjacent to soffit and eave vents. Baffles, when used in conjunction with eave venting, must be constructed using a solid material, maintain an opening equal or greater than the size of the vents, and extend over the top of the attic insulation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ceiling or attic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The insulation in any dropped ceiling or dropped soffit must be aligned with the air barrier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Narrow cavities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Batts to be installed in narrow cavities must be cut to fit or narrow cavities must be filled with insulation that upon installation readily conforms to the available cavity space.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rim joists</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rim joists must be insulated such that the insulation maintain permanent contact with the exterior rim board.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shower or tub adjacent to exterior wall</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exterior walls adjacent to showers and tubs must be insulated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Walls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Air permeable exterior building thermal envelope insulation for framed exterior walls must completely fill the cavity, including within stud bays caused by blocking lay flats or headers.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.104" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.2.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.104   Building thermal envelope air leakage.</HEAD>
<P>Manufactured homes must be sealed against air leakage at all joints, seams, and penetrations associated with the building thermal envelope in accordance with the component manufacturer's installation instructions and the requirements set forth in table 1 to 460.104. Sealing methods between dissimilar materials must allow for differential expansion, contraction and mechanical vibration, and must establish a continuous air barrier upon installation of all opaque components of the building thermal envelope. All gaps and penetrations in the exterior ceiling, exterior floor, and exterior walls, including ducts, flue shafts, plumbing, piping, electrical wiring, utility penetrations, bathroom and kitchen exhaust fans, recessed lighting fixtures adjacent to unconditioned space, and light tubes adjacent to unconditioned space, must be sealed with caulk, foam, gasket or other suitable material. The air barrier installation criteria are adapted from section R402 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 460.104—Air Barrier Installation Criteria
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Air barrier criteria
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ceiling or attic</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The air barrier in any dropped ceiling or dropped soffit must be aligned with the insulation and any gaps in the air barrier must be sealed with caulk, foam, gasket, or other suitable material. Access hatches, panels, and doors, drop-down stairs, or knee wall doors to unconditioned attic spaces must be weather-stripped or equipped with a gasket to produce a continuous air barrier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Duct system register boots</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Duct system register boots that penetrate the building thermal envelope or the air barrier must be sealed to the subfloor, wall covering or ceiling penetrated by the boot, air barrier, or the interior finish materials with caulk, foam, gasket, or other suitable material.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electrical box or phone box on exterior walls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The air barrier must be installed behind electrical and communication boxes or the air barrier must be sealed around the box penetration with caulk, foam, gasket, or other suitable material.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Floors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The air barrier must be installed at any exposed edge of insulation. The bottom board may serve as the air barrier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mating line surfaces</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mating line surfaces must be equipped with a continuous and durable gasket.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recessed lighting</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Recessed light fixtures installed in the building thermal envelope must be sealed to the drywall with caulk, foam, gasket, or other suitable material.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rim joists</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The air barrier must enclose the rim joists. The junctions of the rim board and the subfloor must be air sealed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shower or tub adjacent to exterior wall</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The air barrier must separate showers and tubs from exterior walls.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Walls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The junction of the top plate and the exterior ceiling, and the junction of the bottom plate and the exterior floor, along exterior walls must be sealed with caulk, foam, gasket, or other suitable material.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Windows, skylights, and exterior doors</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The rough openings around windows, exterior doors, and skylights must be sealed with caulk or foam.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—HVAC, Service Hot Water, and Equipment Sizing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.201" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.3.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.201   Duct system.</HEAD>
<P>Each manufactured home equipped with a duct system, which may include air handlers and filter boxes, must be sealed to limit total air leakage to less than or equal to four (4) cubic feet per minute per 100 square feet of conditioned floor area at a pressure differential of 0.1 inch w.g. (25 Pascals) across the system. Building framing cavities must not be used as ducts or plenums when directly connected to mechanical systems. The duct total air leakage requirements are adapted from section R403 of the 2021 IECC.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.202" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.3.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.202   Thermostats and controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least one thermostat must be provided for each separate heating and cooling system installed by the manufacturer. The thermostat and controls requirements are adapted from section R403 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<P>(b) Any programmable thermostat installed by the manufacturer that controls the heating or cooling system must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be capable of controlling the heating and cooling system on a daily schedule to maintain different temperature set points at different times of the day and different days of the week;
</P>
<P>(2) Include the capability to set back or temporarily operate the system to maintain zone temperatures down to 55 °F (13 °C) or up to 85 °F (29 °C); and
</P>
<P>(3) Initially be programmed with a heating temperature set point no higher than 70 °F (21 °C) and a cooling temperature set point no lower than 78 °F (26 °C).
</P>
<P>(c) Heat pumps with supplementary electric-resistance heat must be provided with controls that, except during defrost, prevent supplemental heat operation when the heat pump compressor can meet the heating load.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.203" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.3.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.203   Service hot water.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service hot water systems installed by the manufacturer must be installed according to the service hot water manufacturer's installation instructions. Where service hot water systems are installed by the manufacturer, the manufacturer must ensure that any maintenance instructions received from the service hot water system manufacturer are provided with the manufactured home. The service hot water requirements are adapted from section R403 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<P>(b) Any automatic and manual controls, temperature sensors, pumps associated with service hot water systems must provide access.
</P>
<P>(c) Heated water circulation systems must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be provided with a circulation pump;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the system return pipe is a dedicated return pipe or a cold water supply pipe;
</P>
<P>(3) Not include any gravity or thermosyphon circulation systems;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that controls for circulating heated water circulation pumps start the pump based on the identification of a demand for hot water within the occupancy; and
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure that the controls automatically turn off the pump when the water in the circulation loop is at the desired temperature and when there is no demand for hot water.
</P>
<P>(d) All hot water pipes—
</P>
<P>(1) Outside conditioned space must be insulated to a minimum <I>R-</I>value of <I>R-</I>3; and
</P>
<P>(2) From a service hot water system to a distribution manifold must be insulated to a minimum <I>R-</I>value of <I>R-</I>3.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.204" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.3.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.204   Mechanical ventilation fan efficacy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whole-house mechanical ventilation system fans must meet the minimum efficacy requirements set forth in table 1 to 460.204(a), except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. The mechanical ventilation fan efficacy requirements are adapted from section R403 of the 2021 IECC.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 460.204<E T="01">(a)</E>—Mechanical Ventilation System Fan Efficacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fan type description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Airflow rate
<br/>minimum
<br/>(cfm)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>efficacy
<br/>(cfm/watt)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Heat recovery ventilator or energy recovery ventilator</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-line supply or exhaust fans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other exhaust fan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other exhaust fan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≥90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Mechanical ventilation fans that are integral to heating, ventilating, and air conditioning equipment, including furnace fans as defined in § 430.2 of this subchapter, are not subject to the efficiency requirements in paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 460.205" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.3.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 460.205   Equipment sizing.</HEAD>
<P>Sizing of heating and cooling equipment installed by the manufacturer must be determined in accordance with ACCA Manual S (incorporated by reference; see § 460.3) based on building loads calculated in accordance with ACCA Manual J (incorporated by reference; see § 460.3). The equipment sizing criteria are adapted from section R403 of the 2021 IECC.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="470" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 470—APPROPRIATE TECHNOLOGY SMALL GRANTS PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Energy Research and Development Administration Appropriation Authorization of 1977, Pub. L. 95-39; Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-438; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 8928, Feb. 8, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 470.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains guidelines for the implementation of the appropriate technology small grants program required to be prescribed by section 112 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part—
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Energy Research and Development Administration Appropriation Authorization of 1977, Pub. L. 95-39, 91 Stat. 180, 42 U.S.C. 5907a. 
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means a concern which, either directly or indirectly, controls or has the power to control another concern, is controlled by or is within the power to control of another concern or, together with another concern, is controlled by or is within the power to control of a third party, taking into consideration all appropriate factors, including common ownership, common management and contractual relationships. 
</P>
<P><I>Concern</I> means any business entity organized for profit (even if its ownership is in the hands of a nonprofit entity) with its principal place of business located in the United States. “Concern” includes, but is not limited to, an individual, partnership, corporation, joint venture, association or cooperative. For the purpose of making affiliation findings, any business entity, whether organized for profit or not, and any foreign business entity (i.e., any entity located outside the United States), shall be included. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE-AR</I> means the Department of Energy Assistance Regulations (10 CFR part 600). 
</P>
<P><I>DOE-PR</I> means the Department of Energy Procurement Regulations (41 CFR part 9). 
</P>
<P><I>Indian tribe</I> means any tribe band, nation, or other organized group or community of Indians (including any Alaska native village or regional or village corporation as defined in or established pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act, Pub. L. 92-203, 85 Stat. 688, which (1) is recognized as eligible for the special programs and services provided by the United States to Indians because of their status as Indians; or (2) is located on, or in proximity to, a Federal or State reservation or rancheria, acting through its tribal organization. 
</P>
<P><I>Local agency</I> means an agency or instrumentality of a local government. 
</P>
<P><I>Local government</I> means a local unit of government including specifically a county, municipality, city, town, township, local public authority, special district, intrastate district, council of governments, sponsor group representative organization, and other regional or intrastate government entity. 
</P>
<P><I>Local nonprofit organization or institution</I> means any corporation trust, foundation, trade association, or other institution (1) which is entitled to exemption under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or (2) which is not organized for profit and no part of the net earnings of which insure to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual. 
</P>
<P><I>Program</I> means the appropriate technology small grants program. 
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a concern, including its affiliates, which is organized for profit, is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in the field of operation in which it is submitting a proposal to DOE, and has 100 employees or less. 
</P>
<P><I>Standard Federal regions</I> means the 10 standard Federal regions established by Office of Management and Budget Circular A-105, entitled “Standard Federal Regions.” 
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the several States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>State agency</I> means an agency or instrumentality of a State government. 
</P>
<P><I>State government</I> means the government of a State, or an interstate organization. 
</P>
<P><I>Support</I> means financial support or award under the program by grants, cooperative agreements or contracts. 
</P>
<P><I>Tribal organization</I> means the recognized governing body of an Indian tribe, or any legally established organization of Native Americans which is controlled, sanctioned, or chartered by such governing body. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.10" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.10   Establishment of program.</HEAD>
<P>There is established, under direction of the Assistant Secretary for Conservation and Solar Energy of DOE, an appropriate technology small grants program for the purpose of encouraging development and demonstration of, and the dissemination of information with respect to, energy-related systems and supporting technologies appropriate to—
</P>
<P>(a) The needs of local communities and the enhancement of community self-reliance through the use of available resources; 
</P>
<P>(b) The use of renewable resources and the conservation of non-renewable resources; 
</P>
<P>(c) The use of existing technologies applied to novel situations and uses; 
</P>
<P>(d) Applications which are energy conserving, environmentally sound, small scale and low cost; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Applications which demonstrate simplicity of installation, operation and maintenance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.11" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.11   Eligibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Support under this part may be made to individuals, local non-profit organizations and institutions. State and local agencies, Indian tribes and small businesses. 
</P>
<P>(b) The aggregate amount of support made available to any participant in the program, including affiliates, shall not exceed $50,000 during any 2-year period. This limitation applies only to support for projects and not to funds received by participants from DOE for other purposes, such as performance of services. 
</P>
<P>(c) Projects which shall be considered for support are those which carry out the purposes of the program as expressed in § 470.10 and which are within the following categories—
</P>
<P>(1) Idea development, i.e., the development of an idea or concept or an investigative finding in areas ranging from development of new concepts of energy sources to the utilization of old procedures or systems for a new application; 
</P>
<P>(2) Device development, i.e., the systematic use and practical application of investigative findings and theories of a scientific or technical nature toward the production of, or improvements in, useful products to meet specific performance requirements but exclusive of manufacturing and production engineering. The dominant characteristic is that the effort be pointed toward specific energy problem areas to develop and evaluate the feasibility and practicability of proposed solutions and determine their parameters. Device development includes studies, investigations, initial hardware development and ultimately development of hardware, systems, or other means for experimental or operational test; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Demonstration, i.e., the testing of a system or technique under operation conditions to show that commercial application is technically, economically and environmentally feasible. 
</P>
<P>(d) Support for each category in paragraph (c) of this section shall not, for a single participant in the program, including affiliates, exceed the following limits for any project—
</P>
<P>(1) For idea development, $10,000; 
</P>
<P>(2) For device development, $50,000; and 
</P>
<P>(3) For demonstration, $50,000. 
</P>
<P>(4) A participant may receive under a subsequent program solicitation—
</P>
<P>(i) Additional support for a funded project or; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Initial support for a new project, subject to the support limits set forth in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.12" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.12   Management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The program shall be managed by a National Program Director within the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Conservation and Solar Energy of DOE. 
</P>
<P>(b) The program shall be implemented regionally, based on the 10 standard Federal regions or combinations thereof, to insure substantial consideration of the needs, resources, and special circumstances of local communities. Regions may be combined provided the requirements of Office of Management and Budget Circular A-106 entitled “Standard Federal Regulations” are met. Regional Program Managers shall design and manage the regional programs as directed by the National Program Director and shall consult, as appropriate, with State and local officials, the appropriate technology community and other interested parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.13" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.13   Program solicitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Regional Program Managers shall be responsible for the preparation of program solicitations which solicit proposals for support under the program pursuant to simplified application procedures. Projects may be supported under the program only if they have successfully completed under a program solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each program solicitation shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the program; 
</P>
<P>(2) The eligibility requirements; 
</P>
<P>(3) A time schedule for submission of, and action on, proposals; 
</P>
<P>(4) A simple application form for submitting a proposal for support under the program, together with instructions for completing the application form; 
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluation criteria, along with a narrative description of their relative importance; 
</P>
<P>(6) An explanation of the evaluation and selection procedures, including a notice to proposers that if the proposer expressly indicates that only Government evaluation is authorized, DOE may be unable to give full consideration to the proposal. 
</P>
<P>(7) Other applicable information, terms and conditions, including the desired budget format; 
</P>
<P>(8) Place for, and manner of, submission; 
</P>
<P>(9) A unique number for identification purposes; 
</P>
<P>(10) A statement notifying potential proposers that an announcement does not commit DOE to pay any proposal perparation costs and that DOE reserves the right to select for support any, all, or none of the proposals received in response to a solicitation; 
</P>
<P>(11) A late proposal provision; 
</P>
<P>(12) A statement notifying proposers how to identify information in the proposal which the proposer does not want disclosed for purposes other than the evaluation of the proposal. 
</P>
<P>(13) A statement notifying proposers that all information contained in the proposal will be handled in accordance with the policies and procedures set forth in DOE-AR and DOE-PR, as applicable, and disclosed, if appropriate, in accordance with 10 CFR part 1004 entitled “Freedom of Information.” 
</P>
<P>(14) A statement notifying proposers of their right to request a debriefing pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 470.18; and 
</P>
<P>(15) A statement notifying proposers of their right to request a waiver of DOE's title to inventions made under the program. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each program solicitation shall be synopsized in the <I>Commerce Business Daily</I> prior to or concurrent with release. The program solicitation also shall be announced to appropriate newspapers, trade and technical publications, and State and local governments, and shall be circulated directly to interested individuals, entities, and associations thereof, to the maximum extent feasible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.14" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.14   Evaluation and selection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to making a comprehensive evaluation of a proposal, the receiving office shall determine that it contains sufficient technical, cost, and other information to enable comprehensive evaluation and that it has been properly signed. If the proposal does not meet these requirements, a prompt reply shall be sent to the proposer, indicating the reason(s) for the proposal not being selected for support under the program solicitation. A proposer may correct any minor informality or irregularity or apparent clerical mistake prior to the entering into of grants, contracts, or cooperative agreements. A minor informality or irregularity is one which is merely a matter of form and not of substance or pertains to some immaterial or inconsequential defect or variation from the exact requirements of the program announcement. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Regional Program Manager shall select a number of technical evaluation reviewers representing several disciplines to ensure adequate technical review of proposals. 
</P>
<P>(2) After receiving nominations from each State or combinations of States within the Region, the Program Manager shall select a number of State reviewers for each State or combinations of States, respectively. The nominations and selections of State reviewers shall take into consideration representation by persons from a variety of backgrounds, in order that the reviewers are able to evaluate proposals of potential merit in various fields and from various types of proposers. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Regional Program Manager or designee shall provide proposals to the technical evaluation and State reviewers and shall provide their findings and comments to the selection panel established pursuant to paragraph (3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) In carrying out the responsibilities set forth in paragraphs (b) (1), (2) and (3) of this section, the Regional Program Manager (i) shall determine the number of technical evaluation and State reviewers who shall review each proposal; (ii) shall determine the sequence of the technical and State review; (iii) may designate a person to serve as both a technical and State reviewer, if appropriate to the needs of the program in the Region. A description of the Program Manager's determinations under this paragraph shall be included in the Program Solicitation pursuant to § 470.13(b)(6). 
</P>
<P>(c) Each technical evaluation reviewer shall evaluate those proposals which he or she receives from the Regional Program Manager or designee and shall provide his or her findings to the Regional Program Manager or designee. In addition to the general criteria underlying the establishment of the program as set forth in § 470.10, the major criteria to be considered by each technical evaluation reviewer shall include— 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the proposal is technically feasible, including a determination as to whether the proposed energy savings or energy production can be technically achieved; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the results being proposed are capable of being measured; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the proposal has any potential environmental, health and safety impacts; and 
</P>
<P>(4) From a technical standpoint, whether the proposal can be carried out within the funds being requested. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each State reviewer shall evaluate those proposals which he or she receives from the Program Manager or designee and shall provide his or her findings and comments to the Program Manager or designee. In addition to the general criteria underlying establishment of the program as set forth in § 470.10, the criteria to be considered by each State reviewer shall include— 
</P>
<P>(1) The potential impact of the proposal on the energy needs and requirements of the community or region; 
</P>
<P>(2) The energy resource involved and its importance or availability to the community or region; 
</P>
<P>(3) The expected energy savings or production that will result from the proposal and the significance of those savings or production to the energy requirements of the community or region; 
</P>
<P>(4) The institutional barriers that may substantially affect the proposal and the potential of the proposal to deal with those barriers; 
</P>
<P>(5) The likelihood of commercialization or utilization of the technology, process, or items within the proposal and extent of such commercialization/utilization;
</P>
<P>(6) The innovative nature of the proposal;
</P>
<P>(7) Any potential environmental, health and safety impacts of the proposal upon the community or region;
</P>
<P>(8) The extent to which work beyond the funded project period might be required;
</P>
<P>(9) The extent to which local resources, material, and manpower will be utilized; and
</P>
<P>(10) The adequacy of the business aspects of the proposal, including the reasonableness of the proposer's budget for carrying out the proposal.
</P>
<P>(e) A selection panel composed of DOE personnel appointed by the Regional Program Manager shall, taking into account the findings and comments of the technical evaluation and State reviewers, evaluate and rank the proposals in accordance with the criteria stated in the program solicitation.
</P>
<P>(f) For each Region, a DOE selection official shall select proposals for support from the ranking established by the selection panel, taking into account the following program policy factors in order to determine the mix of proposed projects which will best further specific program goals—
</P>
<P>(1) Regional distribution, including geography, population, and climate;
</P>
<P>(2) Project type distribution, including a diversity of methods, approaches, and technologies;
</P>
<P>(3) Diversity of participants; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The best overall use of the funds available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.15" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.15   Allocation of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall annually allocate fiscal year funds available for support among the 10 standard Federal Regions, according to the following formula;
</P>
<P>(1) Two-thirds to be allocated according to population; and
</P>
<P>(2) One-third to be allocated according to the number of proposals received, per hundred thousand of population of the Region, which meet the requirements set forth in § 470.14(a).
</P>
<P>(b) The minimum annual level of support for projects for each State within a Region shall be 10 percent of the fiscal year funds allocated to the Region, divided by the number of States in the Region.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purposes of this section, population shall be determined by the most current complete national series, as published by the United States Bureau of the Census in <I>Current Population Reports,</I> P-25, P-26, or related series, except where data from the decennial census conducted by the Bureau of the Census is more current.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.16" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.16   Cost sharing and funds from other sources.</HEAD>
<P>Proposers are encouraged to offer to share in the costs of their proposed projects or to arrange that other entities provide cost sharing on their behalf. Regional Program Managers, with the consent of the proposer, may work with States, local governments or other entities to obtain supplemental funding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.17" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.17   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where this part provides otherwise, the submission, evaluation and selection for support of proposals under the program and the entering into and administration of grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts under the program, shall be governed by the provisions of DOE-AR and DOE-PR are applicable, such other procedures applicable to grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts under the program as DOE may from time to time prescribe, and any Federal requirements applicable to grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts under the program.
</P>
<P>(b) Each grant, cooperative agreement or contract under this part shall require that a recipient of support under the program shall submit a full written report of activities supported in whole or in part by Federal funds made available under the program and shall contain any additional report provisions and other provisions dealing with records, allowable expenses, accounting practices, publication and publicity, copyrights, patents, discrimination, conflict of interest, insurance, safety, changes, resolution of disputes and other standard and/or relevant support agreements requirements required by, or appropriate to, the needs of the program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.18" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.18   Debriefing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon written request, unsuccessful proposers will be accorded debriefings. Such debriefings must be requested within 30 working days of notification of elimination from consideration. Debriefings will be provided at the earliest feasible time as determined by the Regional Program Manager.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 470.20" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.12.0.77.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 470.20   Dissemination of information.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall disseminate to the public, in an appropriate manner, information of the nature, usage and availability of the energy-related systems and supporting technologies developed or demonstrated under the program. In addition, DOE shall maintain and make available to recipients of support under the program current information on public and private sources of possible assistance for the further development and commercialization of their projects. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="473" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 473—AUTOMOTIVE PROPULSION RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Federal Energy Administration Act of 1978—Civilian Applications, Pub. L. 95-238; Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 55230, Nov. 24, 1978, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="77" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Review and Certification of Grants, Cooperative Agreements, Contracts, and Projects</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations implement section 304(f) of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1978—Civilian Applications, and apply to each new contract, grant, cooperative agreement, Department of Energy project, or other agency project funded or to be funded under the authority of that Act. 15 U.S.C. 2703(f) (1970). These regulations do not apply to subcontractors, or to contracts, grants, cooperative agreements, Department of Energy projects, or other agency projects entered into, made, or formally approved and initiated prior to February 25, 1978, or with respect to any renewal or extension thereof. Insofar as grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts are concerned, these regulations provide procedures and requirements that are in addition to those generally applicable under the assistance and procurement regulations of the Federal agency funding research and development under the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purpose of these regulations—
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1978—Civilian Applications. Pub. L. 95-238, 92 Stat. 47. 
</P>
<P><I>Advanced automobile propulsion system</I> means an energy conversion system, including engine and drivetrain, which utilizes advanced technology and is suitable for use in an advanced automobile. 
</P>
<P><I>Agency project</I> means research and development under the Act by employees of a Federal agency furnishing assistance at the request of the DOE. 
</P>
<P><I>Annual funding period</I> means the Federal fiscal year during which a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract is funded by an appropriation under the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means any private laboratory, university, nonprofit organization, industrial organization, private agency, institution, organization, corporation, partnership, individual, or public agency other than a Federal agency. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE project</I> means research and development under the Act by employees of the DOE. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal agency</I> means an executive agency as defined by 5 U.S.C. 105 (1970). 
</P>
<P><I>Manager</I> means the Federal program official who requests grant agreements, cooperative agreements, or contracts to be negotiated or who authorizes a DOE or agency project to begin. 
</P>
<P><I>Notice of availability</I> means a notice published in the Commerce Business Daily advertising the availability of a formal solicitation document to be issued for the purpose of inviting and setting guidelines for submission of proposals for research and development grants, cooperative agreements, or contracts. 
</P>
<P><I>Research and development</I> means activities constituting a project to create an advanced automobile propulsion system and does not mean activities involving technology transfer to mass production, evaluative testing, preliminary planning for a DOE or an agency project, or program administration and management. 
</P>
<P><I>Solicitation</I> means a formal, written request for proposals to perform research and development under a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract, typically including evaluation criteria and a statement of the work to be done. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.10" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.10   Required information from applicant.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with applicable procedures of § 473.11 any applicant for a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract under the Act to support research and development activities of an advanced automobile propulsion system shall—
</P>
<P>(a) State whether the activities will initiate or continue research and development of an advanced automobile propulsion system; 
</P>
<P>(b) State, insofar as the applicant has information, whether and to what extent the activities to be supported are technically the same as activities conducted previously or to be conducted during the annual funding period by any person for research and development of a substantially similar advanced automobile propulsion system; 
</P>
<P>(c) Justify research and development activities on an advanced automobile propulsion system abandoned by any person because of a lack of mass production potential by presenting information showing a significant intervening technological advance, promising conceptual innovation, or other special consideration; 
</P>
<P>(d) Provide—
</P>
<P>(1) An assurance that the amount of funds to be expended for research and development of advanced automobile propulsion systems during the initial annual funding period will exceed the amount of funds expended, if any, during the previous year for the same purpose by at least the amount of the grant, cooperative agreement, or contract being sought; and 
</P>
<P>(2) An assurance that the level of research and development effort on advanced automobile propulsion systems in the initial annual funding period will not be decreased in future annual funding periods. 
</P>
<P>(e) Provide to the extent possible—
</P>
<P>(1) An assurance that the time period for completing research and development of the advanced automobile propulsion is likely to be shorter as a result of a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated delay, if any, which is likely to occur if the application for a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract is denied. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.11" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.11   Submission of applicant's information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant submitting an unsolicited proposal to conduct research and development to be funded by a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract under the Act shall include the information required under § 473.10 in the unsolicited proposal document filed under the assistance or procurement regulations of the DOE or other Federal agency which funds the proposed research and development under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) In responding to a solicitation for a proposal to conduct research and development funded by a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract under the Act, the applicant shall include the information required under § 473.10 in the proposal. 
</P>
<P>(c) Information submitted under § 473.10 of these regulations shall be certified in writing as complete and accurate by the applicant, and if the applicant is not an individual, the chief executive officer of the applicant or his authorized designee shall sign the certification. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.20" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.20   Public notice and opportunity to object.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In compliance with paragraph (b) of this section and unless provisions of paragraph (c) of this section apply, the manager shall cause to be published in the Commerce Business Daily a statement describing the unsolicited proposal, solicitation, DOE project, or agency project, as appropriate, inviting any interested person to submit a written objection, with supporting information at an appropriate address on or before 30 days from the date of publication, if the person believes that the research and development to be performed does not comply with standards and criteria of § 473.30. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as paragraph (c) of this section applies, the manager shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) Upon receipt of an unsolicited proposal from an applicant; 
</P>
<P>(2) In any notice of availability of a solicitation; 
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to beginning a DOE project; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Prior to beginning an agency project. 
</P>
<P>(c) Without publishing a notice under paragraph (a) of this section, the manager may reject an unsolicited proposal that does not comply with these regulations or any other generally applicable requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.21" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.21   Supplemental information and rebuttal.</HEAD>
<P>The manager may request additional information from an applicant or any interested person who files an objection under § 473.20. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.22" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.22   Initial review by manager.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon expiration of the time for filing information under these regulations, the manager shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Review the proposed research and development to be performed under grant, under cooperative agreement, under contract, as a DOE project, or as an agency project and any other pertinent information received under these regulations or otherwise available; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Initially determine whether the research and development reviewed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section complies with the standards and criteria of § 473.30. 
</P>
<P>(b) A manager who makes a negative determination under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall inform the applicant and any interested person who objected of the decision in writing with a brief statement of supporting reasons. 
</P>
<P>(c) A manager who initially determines that research and development reviewed under this section complies with the standards and criteria of § 473.30 shall cause an interagency review panel to be convened under § 473.23. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.23" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.23   Interagency review panel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The interagency review panel shall consist of—
</P>
<P>(1) A head designated by the Federal agency that employs the manager; 
</P>
<P>(2) A representative of the DOE if the manager is not an employee of the DOE; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A representative of any other Federal agency deemed appropriate by the Federal agency that employs the manager. 
</P>
<P>(b) The interagency review panel shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Review the research and development to be performed and consider the information presented by the applicant, in the case of a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract, and by any interested person who filed a statement of objection; 
</P>
<P>(2) Make a recommendation with a supporting statement of findings to the manager as to whether the research and development to be performed complies with the standards and criteria of § 473.30; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Operate by majority vote with the head of the panel casting the decisive vote in the event of a tie. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.24" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.24   Final action and certification by manager.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon consideration of the recommendation of the interagency review panel and other pertinent information, the manager—
</P>
<P>(1) Shall determine whether the research and development to be performed complies with the standards and criteria of § 473.30; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall obtain the concurrence of the DOE if the manager is not an employee of the DOE; 
</P>
<P>(3) Shall, in the event of a negative determination under this section, advise the applicant, in the case of a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract, and any interested person who filed a statement of objection; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Shall, in the event of an affirmative determination under this section, prepare a certification—
</P>
<P>(i) Explaining the determination; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Discussing any allegedly related or comparable industrial research and development considered and deemed to be an inadequate basis for not certifying the grant or contract; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Discussing issues regarding cost sharing and patent rights related to the standards and criteria of § 473.30 of these regulations; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Discussing any other relevant issue. 
</P>
<P>(b) After complying with paragraph (a) of this section, the manager shall sign the certification and distribute copies to the applicant, if any, and any interested person who filed a statement of objections—
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately in the case of a DOE or agency project; and 
</P>
<P>(2) After the agreement has been negotiated in the case of a grant, cooperative agreement, or contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.25" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.25   Reviewability of certification.</HEAD>
<P>Any certification issued under these rules is—
</P>
<P>(a) Subject to disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552 (1970) and section 17 of the Federal Nonnuclear Energy Research and Development Act of 1974, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 5918 (1970); 
</P>
<P>(b) Subject neither to judicial review nor to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 551-559 (1970), except as provided under paragraph (a) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Available to the Committee on Science and Technology of the House of Representatives and the Committee on Energy and Natural Resources of the Senate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 473.30" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.13.0.77.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 473.30   Standards and criteria.</HEAD>
<P>Research and development to be performed under a grant, under a cooperative agreement, under a contract, as a DOE project, or as an agency project under the Act may be certified under these regulations only if the research and development to be conducted—
</P>
<P>(a) Supplements the automotive propulsion system research and development efforts of industry or any other private researcher; 
</P>
<P>(b) Is not duplicative of efforts previously abandoned by private researchers unless there has been an intervening technological advance, promising conceptual innovation, or justified by other special consideration; 
</P>
<P>(c) Would not be performed during the annual funding period but for the availability of the Federal funding being sought; 
</P>
<P>(d) Is likely to produce an advanced automobile propulsion system suitable for steps toward technology transfer to mass production in a shorter time period than would otherwise occur; 
</P>
<P>(e) Is not technologically the same as efforts by any person conducted previously or to be conducted during the annual funding period regarding a substantially similar advanced automobile propulsion system; and 
</P>
<P>(f) Is not likely to result in a decrease in the level of private resources expended on advanced automotive research and development by substituting Federal funds without justification. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="474" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 474—ELECTRIC AND HYBRID VEHICLE RESEARCH, DEVELOPMENT, AND DEMONSTRATION PROGRAM; PETROLEUM-EQUIVALENT FUEL ECONOMY CALCULATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>49 U.S.C. 32901 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 36991, June 12, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 474.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.14.0.78.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 474.1   Purpose and Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains procedures for calculating a value for the petroleum-equivalent fuel economy of electric vehicles, as required by 49 U.S.C. 32904(a)(2). The petroleum-equivalent fuel economy value is intended to be used by the Environmental Protection Agency in calculating corporate average fuel economy values pursuant to regulations at 40 CFR Part 600—Fuel Economy of Motor Vehicles. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 474.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.14.0.78.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 474.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Combined energy consumption value</I> means the weighted average of the Urban Dynamometer Driving Schedule and the Highway Fuel Economy Driving Schedule energy consumption values (weighted 55/45 percent, respectively), as determined by the Environmental Protection Agency in accordance with 40 CFR parts 86 and 600. 
</P>
<P><I>Electric vehicle</I> means a vehicle that is powered by an electric motor drawing current from rechargeable storage batteries or other portable electrical energy storage devices, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recharge energy must be drawn from a source off the vehicle, such as residential electric service; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The vehicle must comply with all provisions of the Zero Emission Vehicle definition found in 40 CFR 88.104-94(g).
</P>
<P><I>Highway Fuel Economy Driving Schedule energy consumption value</I> means the average number of watt-hours of electrical energy required for an electric vehicle to travel one mile of the Highway Fuel Economy Driving Schedule, as determined by the Environmental Protection Agency. 


</P>
<P><I>Petroleum equivalency factor</I> means the value specified in § 474.3(b) of this part, which incorporates the parameters listed in 49 U.S.C. 32904(a)(2)(B) and is used to calculate petroleum-equivalent fuel economy.


</P>
<P><I>Petroleum-equivalent fuel economy</I> means the value, expressed in miles per gallon, that is calculated for an electric vehicle in accordance with § 474.3(a) of this part, and reported to the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency for use in determining the vehicle manufacturer's corporate average fuel economy. 
</P>
<P><I>Petroleum-powered accessory</I> means a vehicle accessory (e.g., a cabin heater, defroster, and/or air conditioner) that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Uses gasoline or diesel fuel as its primary energy source; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Meets the requirements for fuel, operation, and emissions in 40 CFR part 88.104-94(g). 
</P>
<P><I>Urban Dynamometer Driving Schedule energy consumption value</I> means the average number of Watt-hours of electrical energy required for an electric vehicle to travel one mile of the Urban Dynamometer Driving Schedule, as determined by the Environmental Protection Agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 36991, June 12, 2000, as amended at 89 FR 22059, Mar. 29, 2024; 91 FR 554, Jan. 8, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 474.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.14.0.78.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 474.3   Petroleum-equivalent fuel economy calculation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The petroleum-equivalent fuel economy for an electric vehicle is calculated as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the electric vehicle's Urban Dynamometer Driving Schedule energy consumption value and the Highway Fuel Economy Driving Schedule energy consumption value in units of Watt-hours per mile; 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine the combined energy consumption value by averaging the Urban Dynamometer Driving Schedule energy consumption value and the Highway Fuel Economy Driving Schedule energy consumption value using a weighting of 55 percent urban/45 percent highway; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Calculate the petroleum-equivalent fuel economy by dividing the appropriate petroleum-equivalency factor (depending on whether any petroleum-powered accessories are installed; see paragraph (b) of this section) by the combined energy consumption value, and round to the nearest 0.01 miles per gallon. 
</P>
<P>(b) The petroleum-equivalency factors for electric vehicles are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the electric vehicle does not have any petroleum-powered accessories installed, the value of the petroleum equivalency factor is 12,307 Watt-hours per gallon. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the electric vehicle has any petroleum-powered accessories installed, the value of the petroleum-equivalency factor is 11,706 Watt-hours per gallon. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 36991, June 12, 2000, as amended at 89 FR 22059, Mar. 29, 2024; 91 FR 554, Jan. 8, 2026; 91 FR 7817, Feb. 19, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 474.4" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.14.0.78.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 474.4   Test procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The electric vehicle energy consumption values used in the calculation of petroleum-equivalent fuel economy under § 474.3 of this part will be determined by the Environmental Protection Agency using the Highway Fuel Economy Driving Schedule and Urban Dynamometer Driving Schedule test cycles at 40 CFR parts 86 and 600. 
</P>
<P>(b) The “Special Test Procedures” provisions of 40 CFR 86.090-27 may be used to accommodate any special test procedures required for testing the energy consumption of electric vehicles. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 474.5" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.14.0.78.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 474.5   Review and Update.</HEAD>
<P>The Department will review part 474 five years after the date of publication as a final rule to determine whether any updates and/or revisions are necessary. DOE will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> soliciting stakeholder input in this review. The Department will publish the findings of the review and any resulting adjustments to part 474 in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 555, Jan. 8, 2026]







 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.14.0.78.6.52" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 474—Sample Petroleum-Equivalent Fuel Economy Calculations

 
</HEAD>
<P><I>Example 1:</I> An electric vehicle is tested in accordance with Environmental Protection Agency procedures and is found to have an Urban Dynamometer Driving Schedule energy consumption value of 265 Watt-hours per mile and a Highway Fuel Economy Driving Schedule energy consumption value of 220 Watt-hours per mile. The vehicle is not equipped with any petroleum-powered accessories. The combined electrical energy consumption value is determined by averaging the Urban Dynamometer Driving Schedule energy consumption value and the Highway Fuel Economy Driving Schedule energy consumption value using weighting factors of 55 percent urban, and 45 percent highway:
</P>
<FP-1>combined electrical energy consumption value = (0.55 * urban) + (0.45 * highway) = (0.55 * 265) + (0.45 * 220) = 244.75 Wh/mile
</FP-1>
<P>Since the vehicle does not have any petroleum-powered accessories installed, the value of the petroleum equivalency factor is 12,307 Watt-hours per gallon, and the petroleum-equivalent fuel economy is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19fe26.001.gif"/>
<P><I>Example 2:</I> The vehicle from Example 1 is equipped with an optional diesel-fired cabin heater/defroster. For the purposes of this example, it is assumed that the electrical efficiency of the vehicle is unaffected.
</P>
<P>Since the vehicle has a petroleum-powered accessory installed, the value of the petroleum equivalency factor is 11,706 Watt-hours per gallon, and the petroleum-equivalent fuel economy is:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er19fe26.002.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 7817, Feb. 19, 2026]














</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="490" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 490—ALTERNATIVE FUEL TRANSPORTATION PROGRAM 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7191 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 13201, 13211, 13220, 13251 <I>et seq;</I> 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.1" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.1   Purpose and Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this part implement the alternative fuel transportation program for State government and alternative fuel provider fleets under titles III, IV, and V of the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (Pub. L. 102-486).
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of this subpart cover:
</P>
<P>(1) The definitions applicable throughout this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures to obtain an interpretive ruling and to petition for a generally applicable rule to amend this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) The goal of the replacement fuel supply and demand program established under section 502(a) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 13252(a)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 12060, Mar. 15, 2007; 79 FR 15902, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.2" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part— 
</P>
<P><I>Acquire</I> means to take into possession or control. 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (Pub. L. 102-486) and any amendments thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>After-Market Converted Vehicle</I> means an Original Equipment Manufacturer vehicle that is reconfigured by a conversion company, which is not under contract to the Original Equipment Manufacturer, to operate on an alternative fuel and whose conversion kit components are under warranty of the conversion company. 
</P>
<P><I>Alternative Fuel</I> means methanol, denatured ethanol, and other alcohols; mixtures containing 85 percent or more by volume of methanol, denatured ethanol, and other alcohols with gasoline or other fuels; natural gas, including liquid fuels domestically produced from natural gas; liquefied petroleum gas; hydrogen; coal-derived liquid fuels; fuels (other than alcohol) derived from biological materials (including neat biodiesel); three P-series fuels (specifically known as Pure Regular, Pure Premium and Pure Cold Weather) as described by United States Patent number 5,697,987, dated December 16, 1997, and containing at least 60 percent non-petroleum energy content derived from methyltetrahydrofuran, which must be manufactured solely from biological materials, and ethanol, which must be manufactured solely from biological materials; and electricity (including electricity from solar energy). 
</P>
<P><I>Alternative Fueled Vehicle</I> means a dedicated vehicle or a dual fueled vehicle, as those terms are defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy or any other DOE official to whom the Assistant Secretary's duties under this part may be redelegated by the Secretary. 
</P>
<P><I>Automobile</I> means a 4-wheeled vehicle that is propelled by conventional fuel, or by alternative fuel, manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways and having a gross vehicle weight rating of less than 10,000 pounds, except:
</P>
<P>(1) A vehicle operated only on a rail line;
</P>
<P>(2) A vehicle manufactured in different stages by two or more original equipment manufacturers, if no intermediate or final-stage original equipment manufacturer of that vehicle manufactures more than 10,000 multi-stage vehicles per year; or
</P>
<P>(3) A work truck, as that term is defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Capable of Being Centrally Fueled</I> means that a vehicle can be fueled at least 75 percent of the time at a location that is owned, operated, or controlled by the fleet or covered person, or at a location that is under contract with the fleet or covered person for fueling purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Centrally Fueled</I> means that a vehicle is fueled at least 75 percent of the time at a location that is owned, operated, or controlled by the fleet or covered person, or is under contract with the fleet or covered person for refueling purposes. 
</P>
<P><I>Control—</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) When it is used to determine whether one person controls another or whether two persons are under common control, means any one or a combination of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A third person or firm has equity ownership of 51 percent or more in each of two firms; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Two or more firms have common corporate officers, in whole or in substantial part, who are responsible for the day-to-day operation of the companies; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) One person or firm leases, operates, or supervises 51 percent or more of the equipment and/or facilities of another person or firm; owns 51 percent or more of the equipment and/or facilities of another person or firm; or has equity ownership of 51 percent or more of another person or firm. 
</P>
<P>(2) When it is used to refer to the management of vehicles, means a person has the authority to decide who can operate a particular vehicle, and the purposes for which the vehicle can be operated. 
</P>
<P><I>Covered Person</I> means a person that owns, operates, leases, or otherwise controls— 
</P>
<P>(1) A fleet, as defined by this section, that contains at least 20 light duty motor vehicles that are centrally fueled or capable of being centrally fueled, and are used primarily within a metropolitan statistical area or a consolidated metropolitan statistical area, as established by the Bureau of the Census, with a 1980 population of 250,000 or more (as set forth in appendix A to this subpart) or in a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice; and 
</P>
<P>(2) At least 50 light duty motor vehicles within the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Dealer Demonstration Vehicle</I> means any vehicle that is operated by a motor vehicle dealer solely for the purpose of promoting motor vehicle sales, either on the sales lot or through other marketing or sales promotions, or for permitting potential purchasers to drive the vehicle for pre-purchase or pre-lease evaluation. 
</P>
<P><I>Dedicated Vehicle</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) An automobile that operates solely on one or more alternative fuels; or
</P>
<P>(2) A motor vehicle, other than an automobile, that operates solely on one or more alternative fuels.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Dual Fueled Vehicle</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) An automobile that meets the criteria for a dual fueled automobile as set forth in 49 U.S.C. 32901(a)(9); or
</P>
<P>(2) A motor vehicle, other than an automobile, that is capable of operating on alternative fuel and on gasoline or diesel.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency Motor Vehicle</I> means any vehicle that is legally authorized by a government authority to exceed the speed limit to transport people and equipment to and from situations in which speed is required to save lives or property, such as a rescue vehicle, fire truck or ambulance. 
</P>
<P><I>Fleet</I> means a group of 20 or more light duty motor vehicles, excluding certain categories of vehicles as provided by § 490.3, used primarily in a metropolitan statistical area or consolidated metropolitan statistical area, as established by the Bureau of the Census as of December 31, 1992, with a 1980 Census population of more than 250,000 (listed in Appendix A to this subpart), that are centrally fueled or capable of being centrally fueled, and are owned, operated, leased, or otherwise controlled—
</P>
<P>(1) By a person who owns, operates, leases, or otherwise controls 50 or more light duty motor vehicles within the United States and its possessions and territories;
</P>
<P>(2) By any person who controls such person;
</P>
<P>(3) By any person controlled by such person; or
</P>
<P>(4) By any person under common control with such person.
</P>
<P><I>Law Enforcement Motor Vehicle</I> means any vehicle which is primarily operated by a civilian or military police officer or sheriff, or by personnel of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the Drug Enforcement Administration, or other enforcement agencies of the Federal government, or by State highway patrols, municipal law enforcement, or other similar enforcement agencies, and which is used for the purpose of law enforcement activities including, but not limited to, chase, apprehension, and surveillance of people engaged in or potentially engaged in unlawful activities. 
</P>
<P><I>Lease</I> means the use and control of a motor vehicle for transportation purposes pursuant to a rental contract or similar arrangement with a term of 120 days or more. 
</P>
<P><I>Light Duty Motor Vehicle</I> means a light duty truck or light duty vehicle, as such terms are defined under section 216(7) of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. § 7550(7)), having a gross vehicle weight rating of 8,500 pounds or less, before any after-market conversion to alternative fuel operation. 
</P>
<P><I>Model Year</I> means the period from September 1 of the previous calendar year through August 31. 
</P>
<P><I>Motor Vehicle</I> means a self-propelled vehicle, other than a non-road vehicle, designed for transporting persons or property on a street or highway. 
</P>
<P><I>Non-road Vehicle</I> means a vehicle not licensed for on-road use, including such vehicles used principally for industrial, farming or commercial use, for rail transportation, at an airport, or for marine purposes. 
</P>
<P><I>Original Equipment Manufacturer</I> means a manufacturer that provides the original design and materials for assembly and manufacture of its product. 
</P>
<P><I>Original Equipment Manufacturer Vehicle</I> means a vehicle engineered, designed, produced and warranted by an Original Equipment Manufacturer. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, voluntary association, joint stock company, business trust, Governmental entity, or other legal entity in the United States except United States Government entities. 
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any other territory or possession of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Used Primarily,</I> as utilized in the definition of “fleet,” means that a majority of a vehicle's total annual miles are accumulated within a covered metropolitan or consolidated metropolitan statistical area.
</P>
<P><I>Work Truck</I> means a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 8,500 and less than or equal to 10,000 pounds that is not a medium-duty passenger vehicle as that term is defined in 40 CFR 86.1803-01. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 26829, May 17, 1999; 79 FR 15902, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.3" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.3   Excluded vehicles.</HEAD>
<P>When counting light duty motor vehicles to determine under this part whether a person has a fleet or to calculate alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements, the following vehicles are excluded—
</P>
<P>(a) Motor vehicles held for lease or rental to the general public, including vehicles that are owned or controlled primarily for the purpose of short-term rental or extended-term leasing, without a driver, pursuant to a contract; 
</P>
<P>(b) Motor vehicles held for sale by motor vehicle dealers, including demonstration motor vehicles; 
</P>
<P>(c) Motor vehicles used for motor vehicle manufacturer product evaluations or tests, including but not limited to, light duty motor vehicles owned or held by a university research department, independent testing laboratory, or other such evaluation facility, solely for the purpose of evaluating the performance of such vehicle for engineering, research and development or quality control reasons; 
</P>
<P>(d) Law enforcement vehicles; 
</P>
<P>(e) Emergency motor vehicles, including vehicles directly used in the emergency repair of transmission lines and in the restoration of electricity service following power outages, as determined by DOE;
</P>
<P>(f) Motor vehicles acquired and used for purposes that the Secretary of Defense has certified to DOE must be exempt for national security reasons; 
</P>
<P>(g) Nonroad vehicles; and 
</P>
<P>(h) Motor vehicles which, when not in use, are normally parked at the personal residences of the individuals that usually operate them, rather than at a central refueling, maintenance, or business location. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 15903, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.4" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.4   General information inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>DOE responses to inquiries with regard to the provisions of this part that are not filed in compliance with §§ 490.5 or 490.6 of this part constitute general information and the responses provided shall not be binding on DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.5" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.5   Requests for an interpretive ruling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right to file.</I> Any person who is or may be subject to this part shall have the right to file a request for an interpretive ruling on a question with regard to how the regulations apply to particular facts and circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How to file.</I> A request for an interpretive ruling shall be filed—
</P>
<P>(1) With the Assistant Secretary; 
</P>
<P>(2) In an envelope labeled “Request for Interpretive Ruling under 10 CFR part 490;” and 
</P>
<P>(3) By messenger or mail at the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, EE-33, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, S.W., Washington, D.C. 20585 or at such other address as DOE may provide by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of request for interpretive ruling.</I> At a minimum, a request under this section shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Be labeled “Request for Interpretive Ruling Under 10 CFR Part 490;” 
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the name, address, telephone number, and any designated representative of the person requesting the interpretive ruling; 
</P>
<P>(4) State the facts and circumstances relevant to the request; 
</P>
<P>(5) Be accompanied by copies of relevant supporting documents, if any; 
</P>
<P>(6) Specifically identify the pertinent regulations and the related question on which an interpretive ruling is sought with regard to the relevant facts and circumstances; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Contain any arguments in support of the terms of an interpretation the requester is seeking. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public comment.</I> DOE may give public notice of any request for an interpretive ruling and invite public comment. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to respond to public comment.</I> DOE may provide an opportunity for any person who requested an interpretive ruling to respond to public comments. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other sources of information.</I> DOE may—
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct an investigation of any statement in a request; 
</P>
<P>(2) Consider any other source of information in evaluating a request for an interpretive ruling; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Rely on previously issued interpretive rulings dealing with the same or a related issue. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Informal conference.</I> DOE, on its own initiative, may convene an informal conference with the person requesting an interpretive ruling. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Effect of an interpretive ruling.</I> The authority of an interpretive ruling shall be limited to the person requesting such ruling and shall depend on the accuracy and completeness of the facts and circumstances on which the interpretive ruling is based. An interpretive ruling by the Assistant Secretary shall be final for DOE. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reliance on an interpretive ruling.</I> No person who obtains an interpretive ruling under this section shall be subject to an enforcement action for civil penalties or criminal fines for actions reasonably taken in reliance thereon, but a person may not act in reliance on an interpretive ruling that is administratively rescinded or modified, judicially invalidated, or its prospective effect is overruled by statute or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Denials of requests for an interpretive ruling.</I> DOE shall deny a request for an interpretive ruling if DOE determines that— 
</P>
<P>(1) There is insufficient information upon which to base an interpretive ruling; 
</P>
<P>(2) The questions posed should be treated in a general notice of proposed rulemaking under 42 U.S.C. 7191 and 5 U.S.C. 553; 
</P>
<P>(3) There is an adequate procedure elsewhere in this part for addressing the question posed such as a petition for exemption; or 
</P>
<P>(4) For other good cause. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Public file.</I> DOE may file a copy of an interpretive ruling in a public file labeled “Interpretive Rulings Under 10 CFR Part 490” which shall be available during normal business hours for public inspection at the DOE Freedom of Information Reading Room at 1000 Independence Avenue, SW, Washington, DC 20585, or at such other addresses as DOE may announce in a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.6" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.6   Petitions for generally applicable rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right to file.</I> Pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 7191 and 5 U.S.C. 553(e), any person may file a petition for generally applicable rulemaking under titles III, IV, and V of the Act with the DOE General Counsel. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How to file.</I> A petition for generally applicable rulemaking under this section shall be filed by mail or messenger in an envelope addressed to the Office of General Counsel, GC-1, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of rulemaking petitions.</I> A petition under this section must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be labeled “Petition for Rulemaking Under 10 CFR Part 490”; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe with particularity the terms of the rule being sought; 
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the provisions of law that direct, authorize, or affect the issuance of the rules being sought; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Explain why DOE should not choose to make policy by precedent through interpretive rulings, petitions for exemption, or other adjudications. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination upon rulemaking petitions.</I> After considering the petition and other information deemed to be appropriate, DOE may grant the petition and issue an appropriate rulemaking notice, or deny the petition because the rule being sought—
</P>
<P>(1) Would be inconsistent with statutory law; 
</P>
<P>(2) Would establish a generally applicable policy in an area that should be left to case-by-case determinations; 
</P>
<P>(3) Would establish a policy inconsistent with the underlying statutory purposes; or 
</P>
<P>(4) For other good cause. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.7" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.7   Relationship to other law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing in this part shall be construed to require or authorize sale of, or conversion to, light duty alternative fueled motor vehicles in violation of applicable regulations of any Federal, State or local government agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part shall be construed to require or authorize the use of a motor fuel in violation of applicable regulations of any Federal, State, or local government agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.8" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.8   Replacement fuel production goal.</HEAD>
<P>The goal of the replacement fuel supply and demand program established by section 502(b)(2) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 13252(b)(2)) and revised by DOE pursuant to section 504(b) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 13254(b)) is to achieve a production capacity of replacement fuels sufficient to replace, on an energy equivalent basis, at least 30 percent of motor fuel consumption in the United States by the year 2030.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 12060, Mar. 15, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.1.78.9.53" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 490—Metropolitan Statistical Areas/Consolidated Metropolitan Statistical Areas With 1980 Populations of 250,000 or more
</HEAD>
<FP-1>Albany-Schenectady-Troy MSA NY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Albuquerque MSA NM 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Allentown-Bethlehem-Easton MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appleton-Oshkosh-Neenah MSA WI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Atlanta MSA GA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Augusta-Aiken MSA GA-SC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Austin-San Marcos MSA TX 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bakersfield MSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Baton Rouge MSA LA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Beaumont-Port Arthur MSA TX 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Binghamton MSA NY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Birmingham MSA AL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boise City MSA ID 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Boston-Worcester-Lawrence CMSA MA-NH-ME-CT 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Buffalo-Niagara Falls MSA NY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Canton-Massillon MSA OH 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Charleston MSA SC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Charleston MSA WV 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Charlotte-Gastonia-Rock Hill MSA NC-SC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chattanooga MSA TN-GA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Chicago-Gary-Kenosha CMSA IL-IN-WI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cincinnati-Hamilton CMSA OH-KY-IN 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Cleveland-Akron CMSA OH 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Colorado Springs MSA CO 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Columbia MSA SC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Columbus MSA OH 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Columbus MSA GA-AL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Corpus Christi MSA TX 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dallas-Fort Worth CMSA TX 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Davenport-Moline-Rock Island MSA IA-IL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dayton-Springfield MSA OH 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Daytona Beach MSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Denver-Boulder-Greeley CMSA CO 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Des Moines MSA IA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Detroit-Ann Arbor-Flint CMSA MI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Duluth MSA MN-WI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>El Paso MSA TX 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Erie MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Eugene-Springfield MSA OR 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Evansville-Henderson MSA IN-KY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fort Wayne MSA IN 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Fresno MSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Grand Rapids-Muskegon-Holland MSA MI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Greensboro-Winston Salem-High Point MSA NC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Greenville-Spartanburg-Anderson MSA SC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Harrisburg-Lebanon-Carlisle MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hartford MSA CT 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Hickory-Morganton MSA NC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Honolulu MSA HI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Houston-Galveston-Brazoria CMSA TX 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Huntington-Ashland MSA WV-KY-OH 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Indianapolis MSA IN 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jackson MSA MS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Jacksonville MSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Johnson City-Kingsport-Bristol MSA TN-VA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Johnstown MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kalamazoo-Battle Creek MSA MI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Kansas City MSA MO-KS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Knoxville MSA TN 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lakeland-Winter Haven MSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lancaster MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lansing-East Lansing MSA MI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Las Vegas MSA NV-AZ 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Lexington MSA KY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Little Rock-N. Little Rock MSA AR 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Los Angeles-Riverside-Orange County CMSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Louisville MSA KY-IN 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Macon MSA GA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Madison MSA WI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>McAllen-Edinburg-Mission MSA TX 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Melbourne-Titusville-Palm Bay MSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Memphis MSA TN-AR-MS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Miami-Fort Lauderdale CMSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Milwaukee-Racine CMSA WI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Minneapolis-St. Paul MSA MN-WI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mobile MSA AL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Modesto MSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Montgomery MSA AL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Nashville MSA TN 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>New London-Norwich MSA CT-RI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>New Orleans MSA LA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>New York-N. New Jersey-Long Island CMSA NY-NJ-CT-PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Norfolk-Virginia Beach-Newport News MSA VA-NC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Oklahoma City MSA OK 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Omaha MSA NE-IA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Orlando MSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pensacola MSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Peoria-Pekin MSA IL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Philadelphia-Wilmington-Atlantic City CMSA PA-NJ DE-MD 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Phoenix-Mesa MSA AZ 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pittsburgh MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Portland-Salem CMSA OR-WA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Providence-Fall River-Warwick MSA RI-MA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Raleigh-Durham-Chapel Hill MSA NC 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Reading MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Richmond-Petersburg MSA VA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rochester MSA NY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Rockford MSA IL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Sacramento-Yolo CMSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Saginaw-Bay City-Midland MSA MI 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>St. Louis MSA MO-IL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salinas MSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Salt Lake City-Ogden MSA UT 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>San Antonio MSA TX 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>San Diego MSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>San Francisco-Oakland-San Jose CMSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>San Juan MSA PR 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Santa Barbara-Santa Maria-Lompoc MSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Scranton-Wilkes Barre-Hazleton MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Seattle-Tacoma-Bremerton CMSA WA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shreveport-Bossier City MSA LA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Spokane MSA WA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Springfield MSA MA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Stockton-Lodi MSA CA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Syracuse MSA NY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tampa-St. Petersburg-Clearwater MSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Toledo MSA OH 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tucson MSA AZ 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Tulsa MSA OK 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Utica-Rome MSA NY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Washington-Baltimore CMSA DC-MD-VA-WV 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>West Palm Beach-Boca Raton MSA FL 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Wichita MSA KS 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>York MSA PA 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Youngstown-Warren MSA OH 


</FP-1>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Mandatory State Fleet Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.200" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.3.78.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.200   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth rules implementing the provisions of Section 507(o) of the Act which requires, subject to some exemptions, that certain percentages of new light duty motor vehicles acquired for State fleets be alternative fueled vehicles. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.201" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.3.78.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.201   Alternative fueled vehicle acquisition mandate schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this part, of the new light duty motor vehicles acquired annually for State government fleets, including agencies thereof but excluding municipal fleets, the following percentages shall be alternative fueled vehicles for the following model years; 
</P>
<P>(1) 10 percent for model year 1997; 
</P>
<P>(2) 15 percent for model year 1998; 
</P>
<P>(3) 25 percent for model year 1999; 
</P>
<P>(4) 50 percent for model year 2000; and 
</P>
<P>(5) 75 percent for model year 2001 and thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each State shall calculate its alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements for the State government fleets, including agencies thereof, by applying the alternative fueled vehicle acquisition percentages for each model year to the total number of new light duty motor vehicles to be acquired during that model year for those fleets. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the calculation performed under paragraph (b) of this section produces a number that requires the acquisition of a partial vehicle, an adjustment to the acquisition number will be made by rounding the number of vehicles down the next whole number if the fraction is less than one half and by rounding the number of vehicles up to the next whole number if the fraction is equal to or greater than one half. 
</P>
<P>(d) A State fleet that first becomes subject to this part after model year 1997 shall acquire alternative fueled vehicles in the next model year at the percentage applicable to that model year according to the schedule in paragraph (a) of this section, unless the State is granted an exemption or reduction of the acquisition percentage pursuant to the procedures and criteria in section 490.204. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.202" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.3.78.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.202   Acquisitions satisfying the mandate.</HEAD>
<P>The following actions within a model year qualify as acquisitions for the purpose of compliance with the requirements of section 490.201 of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) The purchase or lease of an Original Equipment Manufacturer light duty vehicle (regardless of the model year of manufacture) that is an alternative fueled vehicle and that was not previously under the control of the State or State agency;
</P>
<P>(b) The purchase or lease of an after-market converted light duty vehicle (regardless of model year of manufacture), that was not previously under control of the State or State agency; 
</P>
<P>(c) The conversion of a newly purchased or leased light duty vehicle to operate on alternative fuels within four months after the vehicle is acquired for a State fleet; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The application of alternative fueled vehicle credits allocated under subpart F of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 15903, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.203" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.3.78.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.203   Light Duty Alternative Fueled Vehicle Plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Provisions.</I> (1) In lieu of meeting its requirements under section 490.201 exclusively with acquisitions for State fleets, a State may follow a Light Duty Alternative Fueled Vehicle Plan that has been approved by DOE under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any Light Duty Alternative Fueled Vehicle Plan must provide for voluntary acquisitions or conversions, or combinations thereof, by State, local, and private fleets that equal or exceed the State's alternative fuel vehicle acquisition requirement under section 490.201. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any acquisitions of light duty alternative fueled vehicles by participants in the State plan may be included for purposes of compliance, irrespective of whether the vehicles are in excluded categories set forth in section 490.3 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section or except for a fleet exempt under section 490.204, a State that does not have an approved plan in effect under this section is subject to the State fleet acquisition percentage requirements of section 490.201. 
</P>
<P>(5) If a significant commitment under an approved plan is not met by a participant of a plan, the State shall meet its percentage requirements under section 490.201 or submit to DOE an amendment to the plan for DOE approval. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required elements of a plan.</I> Each plan must include the following elements: 
</P>
<P>(1) Certification by the Governor, or the Governor's designee, that the plan meets the requirements of this subpart; 
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of State, local and private fleets that will participate in the plan; 
</P>
<P>(3) Number of new alternative fueled vehicles to be acquired by each plan participant; 
</P>
<P>(4) A written statement from each plan participant to assure commitment; 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of contingency measures by the State to offset any failure to fulfill significant commitments by plan participants, in order to meet the requirements of section 490.201; 
</P>
<P>(6) A provision by the State to monitor and verify implementation of the plan; 
</P>
<P>(7) A provision certifying that all acquisitions and conversions under the plan are voluntary and will meet the requirements of § 247 of the Clean Air Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 7587) and all applicable safety requirements. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to submit plan.</I> (1) For model year 1997, a State shall submit its plan on or before March 14, 1997.
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning with model year 1998, a State shall submit its plan to DOE no later than June 1 prior to the first model year covered by such plan. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review and approval.</I> DOE shall review and approve a plan which meets the requirements of this subpart within 60 days of the date of receipt of the plan by DOE at the address in paragraph (g)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disapproval of plans.</I> If DOE disapproves or requests a State to submit additional information, the State may revise and resubmit the plan to DOE within a reasonable time. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>How a State may modify an approved plan.</I> If a State determines that it cannot successfully implement its plan, it may submit to DOE for approval, at any time, the proposed modifications with adequate justifications. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Where to submit plans.</I> (1) A State shall submit to DOE an original and two copies of the plan and shall be addressed to the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, EE-33, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585, or to such other address as DOE may announce in a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any requests for modifications shall also be sent to the address in paragraph (g)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>MY 1997 Exemption.</I> (1) On or after September 1, 1996, a State shall be deemed automatically exempt from section 490.201 (a)(1) until DOE makes a final determination on a timely application to approve a plan for model year 1997 under this section if the State: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has submitted the application; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has sent a written notice to the Assistant Secretary, at the address under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, that it will file such an application on or before March 14, 1997. 
</P>
<P>(2) During the period of an automatic exemption under this paragraph, a State may procure light duty motor vehicles in accordance with its normal procurement policies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.204" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.3.78.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.204   Process for granting exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To obtain an exemption, in whole or in part, from the vehicle acquisition mandate in section 490.201 of this part, a State shall submit to DOE a written request for exemption, along with supporting documentation which must demonstrate that—
</P>
<P>(1) Alternative fuels that meet the normal requirements and practices of the principal business of the State fleet are not available from fueling sites that would permit central fueling of fleet vehicles in the area in which the vehicles are to be operated; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Alternative fueled vehicles that meet the normal requirements and practices of the principal business of the State fleet are not available for purchase or lease commercially on reasonable terms and conditions in the State; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The application of such requirements would pose an unreasonable financial hardship. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for exemption must be accompanied by supporting documentation, must be submitted no earlier than September 1 following the model year for which the exemption is sought and no later than January 31 following the model year for which the exemption is sought, and will only be considered following submission of the annual report under § 490.205.
</P>
<P>(c) Exemptions are granted for one model year only, and they may be renewed annually, if supporting documentation is provided. 
</P>
<P>(d) Exemptions may be granted in whole or in part. When granting an exemption in part, DOE may, depending upon the circumstances, completely relieve a State from complying with a portion of the vehicle acquisition requirements for a model year, or it may require a State to acquire all or some of the exempted vehicles in future model years. 
</P>
<P>(e) If a State is seeking an exemption under—
</P>
<P>(1) Paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the types of documentation that are to accompany the request must include, but are not limited to, maps of vehicle operation zones and maps of locations providing alternative fuel; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the types of documentation that are to accompany the request must include, but are not limited to, alternative fueled vehicle purchase or lease requests, a listing of vehicles that meet the normal practices and requirements of the State fleet, and any other documentation that exhibits good faith efforts to acquire alternative fueled vehicles; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (a)(3) of this section, it must submit a statement identifying what portion of the alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirement should be subject to the exemption and describing the specific nature of the financial hardship that precludes compliance. 
</P>
<P>(f) Requests for exemption shall be addressed to the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, EE-33, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585, or to such other address as DOE may announce in a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice. 
</P>
<P>(g) If DOE, in response to a request for exemption, seeks clarification or additional information from the State, such clarification or additional information must be submitted to DOE in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section within 30 days of DOE's inquiry. In the event a State does not comply with this timeframe, DOE will proceed under paragraph (h) of this section based on the documentation provided to date.
</P>
<P>(h) The Assistant Secretary shall provide to the State, within 45 days of receipt of a request that complies with this section, a written determination as to whether the State's request has been granted or denied. 
</P>
<P>(i) If the Assistant Secretary denies an exemption, in whole or in part, and the State wishes to exhaust administrative remedies, the State must appeal within 30 days of the date of the determination, pursuant to 10 CFR part 1003, subpart C, to the Office of Hearings and Appeals, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585. The Assistant Secretary's determination shall be stayed during the pendency of an appeal under this paragraph. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 15903, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.205" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.3.78.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.205   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any State subject to the requirements of this subpart must file an annual report for each State fleet on or before the December 31 after the close of the model year, beginning with model year 1997. The State annual report may consist of a single State report or separately prepared State agency reports. 
</P>
<P>(b) The report shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Number of new light duty motor vehicles acquired for the fleet by a State during the model year; 
</P>
<P>(2) Number of new light duty alternative fueled vehicles that are required to be acquired during the model year; 
</P>
<P>(3) Number of new light duty alternative fueled vehicle acquisitions by the State during the model year; 
</P>
<P>(4) Number of alternative fueled vehicle credits applied towards acquisition requirements pursuant to § 490.505;
</P>
<P>(5) For each new light duty alternative fueled vehicle acquisition— 
</P>
<P>(i) Vehicle make and model; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Model year; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Vehicle identification number; 
</P>
<P>(iv) An indication of whether the vehicle is a dedicated vehicle or a dual fueled vehicle;
</P>
<P>(v) Type(s) of alternative fuel on which the vehicle is capable of operating;
</P>
<P>(vi) Acquisition date; and
</P>
<P>(vii) If the annual report shows that the State fleet did not satisfy its alternative fueled vehicle acquisition mandate, an indication of whether the fleet intends to submit a request for exemption under § 490.204; and
</P>
<P>(6) Number of light duty alternative fueled vehicles acquired by municipal and private fleets during the model year under an approved Light Duty Alternative Fueled Vehicle Plan (if applicable). 
</P>
<P>(c) If banked alternative fueled vehicle credits are applied towards a State's alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements pursuant to § 490.505, or if allocation of alternative fueled vehicle credits is sought under subpart F of this part, then a credit activity report, as described in § 490.508, must be included with the annual report submitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Records shall be maintained and retained for a period of three years. 
</P>
<P>(e) All reports, marked “Annual Report,” shall be sent to the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, EE-33, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC, 20585, or such other address as DOE may provide by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 15903, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.206" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.3.78.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.206   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Violations of this subpart are subject to investigation and enforcement under subpart G of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Alternative Fuel Provider Vehicle Acquisition Mandate</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.300" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.300   Purpose and Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 501 of the Act, which requires, subject to some exemptions, that certain annual percentages of new light duty motor vehicles acquired by alternative fuel providers must be alternative fueled vehicles. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.301" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.301   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the definitions found in section 490.2, the following definitions apply to this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means a person that, directly or indirectly, controls, is controlled by, or is under common ownership or control of a person subject to vehicle acquisition requirements in this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Alternative Fuels Business</I> means activities undertaken to derive revenue from—
</P>
<P>(1) Producing, storing, refining, processing, transporting, distributing, importing, or selling at wholesale or retail any alternative fuel other than electricity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Generating, transmitting, importing, or selling at wholesale or retail electricity. 
</P>
<P><I>Business Unit</I> means a semi-autonomous major grouping of activities for administrative purposes and organizational structure within a business entity and that is controlled by or under control of a person subject to vehicle acquisition requirements in this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Division</I> means a major administrative unit of an enterprise comprising at least several enterprise units or constituting a complete integrated unit for a specific purpose and that is controlled by or under control of a person subject to vehicle acquisition requirements in this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Normal Requirements and Practices</I> means the operating business practices and required conditions under which the principal business of a person subject to vehicle acquisition requirements in this part operates. 
</P>
<P><I>Principal Business</I> means the sales-related activity that produces the greatest gross revenue. 
</P>
<P><I>Substantial Portion</I> means that at least 30 percent of the annual gross revenue of a covered person is derived from the sale of alternative fuels. 
</P>
<P><I>Substantially Engaged</I> means that a covered person, or affiliate, division, or other business unit thereof, regularly derives more than a negligible amount of sales-related gross revenue from an alternative fuels business. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.302" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.302   Vehicle acquisition mandate schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in section 490.304 of this part, of the light duty motor vehicles newly acquired by a covered person described in section 490.303 of this part, the following percentages shall be alternative fueled vehicles for the following model years: 
</P>
<P>(1) 30 percent for model year 1997. 
</P>
<P>(2) 50 percent for model year 1998. 
</P>
<P>(3) 70 percent for model year 1999. 
</P>
<P>(4) 90 percent for model year 2000 and thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in section 490.304 of this part, this acquisition schedule applies to all light duty motor vehicles that a covered person newly acquires for use within the United States. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, when the mandated acquisition percentage of alternative fuel vehicles is applied to the number of new light duty motor vehicles to be acquired by a covered person subject to this subpart, a number results that requires the acquisition of a partial vehicle, an adjustment will be made to the required acquisition number by rounding down to the next whole number if the fraction is less than one half and by rounding up the number of vehicles to the next whole number if the fraction is equal to or greater than one half. 
</P>
<P>(d) Only acquisitions satisfying the mandate, as defined by section 490.305, count toward compliance with the acquisition schedule in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) A covered person that is first subject to the acquisition requirements of this part after model year 1997 shall acquire alternative fueled vehicles in the next model year at the percentage applicable to that model year, according to the schedule in paragraph (a) of this section, unless the covered person is granted an exemption or reduction of the acquisition percentage pursuant to the procedures and criteria in section 490.307. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 15903, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.303" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.303   Who must comply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, a covered person must comply with the requirements of this subpart if that person is—
</P>
<P>(1) A covered person whose principal business is producing, storing, refining, processing, transporting, distributing, importing or selling at wholesale or retail any alternative fuel other than electricity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A covered person whose principal business is generating, transmitting, importing, or selling, at wholesale or retail, electricity; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A covered person— 
</P>
<P>(i) Who produces, imports, or produces and imports in combination, an average of 50,000 barrels per day or more of petroleum; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A substantial portion of whose business is producing alternative fuels. 
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart does not apply to a covered person or affiliate, division, or other business unit of such person whose principal business is— 
</P>
<P>(1) transforming alternative fuels into a product that is not an alternative fuel; or 
</P>
<P>(2) consuming alternative fuels as a feedstock or fuel in the manufacture of a product that is not an alternative fuel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.304" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.304   Which new light duty motor vehicles are covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the vehicle acquisition mandate schedule in section 490.302 of this part applies to all light duty motor vehicles newly acquired for use within the United States by a covered person described in section 490.303 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> If a covered person has more than one affiliate, division, or other business unit, then section 490.302 of this part only applies to light duty motor vehicles newly acquired by an affiliate, division, or other such business unit which is substantially engaged in the alternative fuels business. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.305" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.305   Acquisitions satisfying the mandate.</HEAD>
<P>The following actions within the model year qualify as acquisitions for the purpose of compliance with the requirements of section 490.302 of this part—
</P>
<P>(a) The purchase or lease of an Original Equipment Manufacturer light duty vehicle (regardless of the model year of manufacture) that is an alternative fueled vehicle and that was not previously under the control of the covered person;
</P>
<P>(b) The purchase or lease of an after-market converted light duty vehicle (regardless of the model year of manufacture), that was not previously under the control of the covered person; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The conversion of a newly purchased or leased light duty vehicle to operate on alternative fuels within four months after the vehicle is acquired by a covered person; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The application of alternative fueled vehicle credits allocated under subpart F of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 15903, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.306" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.306   Vehicle operation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The alternative fueled vehicles acquired pursuant to section 490.302 of this part shall be operated solely on alternative fuels, except when these vehicles are operating in an area where the appropriate alternative fuel is unavailable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.307" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.307   Process for granting exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) To obtain an exemption from the vehicle acquisition mandate in this subpart, a covered person, or its affiliate, division, or business unit which is subject to section 490.302 of this part, shall submit a written request for exemption to the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, EE-33, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585, or such other address as DOE may publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> along with the supporting documentation required by this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for exemption must be accompanied by supporting documentation, must be submitted no earlier than September 1 following the model year for which the exemption is sought and no later than January 31 following the model year for which the exemption is sought, and will only be considered following submission of the annual report under § 490.308.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered person requesting an exemption must demonstrate that—
</P>
<P>(1) Alternative fuels that meet the normal requirements and practices of the principal business of the covered person are not available from fueling sites that would permit central fueling of that person's vehicles in the area in which the vehicles are to be operated; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Alternative fueled vehicles that meet the normal requirements and practices of the principal business of the covered person are not available for purchase or lease commercially on reasonable terms and conditions in any State included in a MSA/CMSA that the vehicles are operated in. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) (2) of this section, if a covered person is seeking an exemption under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the types of documentation that are to accompany the request include, but are not limited to, maps of vehicle operation zones and maps of locations providing alternative fuel. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered person seeking an exemption under paragraph (b)(1) of this section operates light duty vehicles outside of the areas listed in appendix A of subpart A, and central fueling of those vehicles does not meet the normal requirements and practices of that person's business, then that covered person shall only be required to justify in a written request why central fueling is incompatible with its business. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a covered person is seeking an exemption under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the types of documentation that are to accompany the request include, but are not limited to, alternative fueled vehicle purchase or lease requests, a listing of vehicles that meet the normal practices and requirements of the covered person and any other documentation that exhibits good faith efforts to acquire alternative fueled vehicles. 
</P>
<P>(4) If DOE, in response to a request for exemption, seeks clarification or additional information from the covered person, such clarification or additional information must be submitted to DOE in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section within 30 days of DOE's inquiry. In the event a covered person does not comply with this timeframe, DOE will proceed under paragraph (f) of this section based on the documentation provided to date.
</P>
<P>(d) Exemptions are granted for one model year only and may be renewed annually, if supporting documentation is provided. 
</P>
<P>(e) Exemptions may be granted in whole or in part. When granting an exemption in part, DOE may, depending upon the circumstances, completely relieve a covered person from complying with a portion of the vehicle acquisition requirements for a model year, or it may require a covered person to acquire all or some of the exempted vehicles in future model years. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Assistant Secretary shall provide to the covered person within 45 days after receipt of a request that complies with this section, a written determination as to whether the covered person's request has been granted or denied. 
</P>
<P>(g) If a covered person is denied an exemption, that covered person may file an appeal within 30 days of the date of determination, pursuant to 10 CFR part 1003, subpart C, with the Office of Hearings and Appeals, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave, SW, Washington, DC 20585. The Assistant Secretary's determination shall be stayed during the pendency of an appeal under this paragraph. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996. Redesignated and amended at 79 FR 15904, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.308" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.308   Annual reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person is required to comply with the vehicle acquisition schedule in section 490.302, that person shall file an annual report under this section, on a form obtainable from DOE, with the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, EE-33, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585, or such other address as DOE may publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> on or before the December 31 after the close of the applicable model year. 
</P>
<P>(b) This report shall include the following information—
</P>
<P>(1) Number of new light duty motor vehicles acquired by the covered person in the United States during the model year; 
</P>
<P>(2) Number of new light duty alternative fueled vehicles that are required to be acquired during the model year; 
</P>
<P>(3) Number of new light duty alternative fueled vehicle acquisitions in the United States during the model year; 
</P>
<P>(4) Number of alternative fueled vehicle credits applied towards acquisition requirements pursuant to § 490.505;
</P>
<P>(5) For each new light duty alternative fueled vehicle acquisition—
</P>
<P>(i) Vehicle make and model; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Model year; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Vehicle Identification Number; 
</P>
<P>(iv) An indication of whether the vehicle is a dedicated vehicle or a dual fueled vehicle;
</P>
<P>(v) Type(s) of alternative fuel on which the vehicle is capable of operating;
</P>
<P>(vi) Acquisition date; and
</P>
<P>(vii) If the annual report shows that the covered person did not satisfy its alternative fueled vehicle acquisition mandate, an indication of whether the covered person intends to submit a request for exemption under § 490.307.
</P>
<P>(c) If banked alternative fueled vehicle credits are applied towards a covered person's alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements pursuant to § 490.505, or if allocation of alternative fueled vehicle credits is sought under subpart F of this part, then a credit activity report, as described in § 490.508, must be included with the annual report submitted under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Records shall be maintained and retained for a period of three years. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996. Redesignated and amended at 79 FR 15904, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.309" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.4.78.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.309   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Violations of this subpart are subject to investigation and enforcement under subpart G of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996. Redesignated at 79 FR 15904, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Alternative Fueled Vehicle Credit Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.500" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.500   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements the statutory requirements of section 508 of the Act, which provides for the allocation of credits to fleets or covered persons that:
</P>
<P>(a) Acquire alternative fueled vehicles in excess of the number they are required to acquire under this part or obtain alternative fueled vehicles before the model year when they are required to do so under this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Acquire certain other vehicles as identified in this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(c) Invest in qualified alternative fuel infrastructure or non-road equipment or an emerging technology.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15904, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.501" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.501   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the definitions found in § 490.2, the following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Alternative Fuel Infrastructure</I> means property that is for:
</P>
<P>(1) The storage and dispensing of an alternative fuel into the fuel tank of a motor vehicle propelled by such fuel; or
</P>
<P>(2) The recharging of motor vehicles or neighborhood electric vehicles propelled by electricity.
</P>
<P><I>Alternative Fuel Non-road Equipment</I> means mobile, non-road equipment that operates on alternative fuel (including but not limited to forklifts, tractors, bulldozers, backhoes, front-end loaders, and rollers/compactors).
</P>
<P><I>Emerging Technology</I> means a pre-production or pre-commercially available version of a fuel cell electric vehicle, hybrid electric vehicle, medium- or heavy-duty electric vehicle, medium- or heavy-duty fuel cell electric vehicle, neighborhood electric vehicle, or plug-in electric drive vehicle, as such vehicles are defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Fuel Cell</I> <I>Electric Vehicle</I> means a motor vehicle or non-road vehicle that uses a fuel cell, as that term is defined in section 803 of the Spark M. Matsunaga Hydrogen Act of 2005 (42 U.S.C. 16152(1)).
</P>
<P><I>Hybrid Electric Vehicle</I> means a new qualified hybrid motor vehicle as defined in section 30B(d)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 30B(d)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Medium- or Heavy-Duty Electric Vehicle</I> means an electric, hybrid electric, or plug-in hybrid electric vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 8,500 pounds.
</P>
<P><I>Medium- or Heavy-Duty Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle</I> means a fuel cell electric vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 8,500 pounds.
</P>
<P><I>Neighborhood Electric Vehicle</I> means a 4-wheeled on-road or non-road vehicle that—
</P>
<P>(1) Has a top attainable speed in 1 mile of more than 20 mph and not more than 25 mph on a paved level surface; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is propelled by an electric motor and an on-board, rechargeable energy storage system that is rechargeable using an off-board source of electricity.
</P>
<P><I>Plug-in Electric Drive Vehicle</I> means a vehicle that—
</P>
<P>(1) Draws motive power from a battery with a capacity of at least 4 kilowatt-hours;
</P>
<P>(2) Can be recharged from an external source of electricity for motive power;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a light-, medium-, or heavy-duty motor vehicle or non-road vehicle, as those terms are defined in section 216 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7550); and
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a plug-in hybrid electric vehicle, also includes an on-board method of charging the energy storage system and/or providing motive power.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15904, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.502" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.502   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to all fleets and covered persons that are required to acquire alternative fueled vehicles by this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15904, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.503" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.503   Creditable actions.</HEAD>
<P>A fleet or covered person becomes entitled to alternative fueled vehicle credits, at the allocation levels specified in § 490.504, by:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Acquiring light duty alternative fueled vehicles, including those in excluded categories under § 490.3, in excess of the number of light duty alternative fueled vehicles that the fleet or covered person is required to acquire under § 490.201 or § 490.302;
</P>
<P>(2) Acquiring alternative fueled vehicles, including those in excluded categories under § 490.3, with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 8,500 pounds, in excess of the number of light duty alternative fueled vehicles that the fleet or covered person is required to acquire under § 490.201 or § 490.302;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquiring in model year 2014 or in any model year thereafter, any of the following vehicles in excess of the number of light duty alternative fueled vehicles that the fleet or covered person is required to acquire under § 490.201 or § 490.302:
</P>
<P>(i) Medium- or heavy-duty fuel cell electric vehicles that are not alternative fueled vehicles; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Medium- or heavy-duty electric vehicles that are not alternative fueled vehicles;
</P>
<P>(b) Acquiring alternative fueled vehicles, including those in excluded categories under § 490.3 and those with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 8,500 pounds, in model years before the model year when that fleet or covered person is first required to acquire light duty alternative fueled vehicles under § 490.201 or § 490.302;
</P>
<P>(c) Investing, during a model year that is model year 2014 or thereafter and is also a model year in which requirements under this part apply to the fleet or covered person, at least $25,000 in alternative fuel infrastructure or alternative fuel non-road equipment, or at least $50,000 in an emerging technology, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The emerging technology, alternative fuel infrastructure, or alternative fuel non-road equipment is put into operation during the year in which the fleet or covered person has applied for credits;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an emerging technology, the amount invested by the fleet or covered person is not the basis for credit under paragraphs (a), (b), or (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of alternative fuel non-road equipment, the equipment is being operated on alternative fuel, within the constraints of best practices and seasonal fuel availability; or
</P>
<P>(d) Acquiring, during a model year that is model year 2014 or thereafter and is also a model year in which requirements under this part apply to the fleet or covered person, any of the following vehicles, including those in excluded categories under § 490.3:
</P>
<P>(1) A hybrid electric vehicle that is a light duty motor vehicle, but that is not an alternative fueled vehicle;
</P>
<P>(2) A plug-in electric drive vehicle that is a light duty motor vehicle, but that is not an alternative fueled vehicle;
</P>
<P>(3) A fuel cell electric vehicle that is a light duty motor vehicle, but that is not an alternative fueled vehicle; or
</P>
<P>(4) A neighborhood electric vehicle.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this subpart, a fleet or covered person that acquired a motor vehicle on or after October 24, 1992, and converted it to an alternative fueled vehicle before April 15, 1996, shall be entitled to a credit for that vehicle notwithstanding the time limit on conversions established by §§ 490.202(c) and 490.305(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15905, Mar. 21, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.504" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.504   Credit allocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Based on annual credit activity report information, as described in § 490.508, DOE shall allocate:
</P>
<P>(1) One alternative fueled vehicle credit for each alternative fueled vehicle, regardless of the vehicle's gross vehicle weight rating, that a fleet or covered person acquires in excess of the number of light duty alternative fueled vehicles that the fleet or covered person is required to acquire under § 490.201 or § 490.302; and
</P>
<P>(2) One-half of an alternative fueled vehicle credit for each medium- or heavy-duty fuel cell electric vehicle that is not an alternative fueled vehicle and each medium- or heavy-duty electric vehicle that is not an alternative fueled vehicle, either or both of which a fleet or covered person acquires in excess of the number of light duty alternative fueled vehicles that the fleet or covered person is required to acquire under § 490.201 or § 490.302.
</P>
<P>(b) If an alternative fueled vehicle, regardless of the vehicle's gross vehicle weight rating, is acquired by a fleet or covered person in a model year before the first model year that the fleet or covered person is required to acquire light duty alternative fueled vehicles by this part, as reported in the annual credit activity report, DOE shall allocate one credit per alternative fueled vehicle for each year the alternative fueled vehicle is acquired before the model year when acquisition requirements apply.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall allocate credits to fleets and covered persons under paragraph (b) of this section only for alternative fueled vehicles acquired on or after October 24, 1992.
</P>
<P>(d) Based on annual credit activity report information, as described in § 490.508, DOE shall allocate alternative fueled vehicle credit in the amount set forth below for the associated creditable actions that a fleet or covered person undertakes as described in § 490.503(d):
</P>
<P>(1) A hybrid electric vehicle that is a light duty motor vehicle, but that is not an alternative fueled vehicle—
<FR>1/2</FR> credit;
</P>
<P>(2) A plug-in electric drive vehicle that is a light duty motor vehicle, but that is not an alternative fueled vehicle—
<FR>1/2</FR> credit;
</P>
<P>(3) A fuel cell electric vehicle that is a light duty motor vehicle, but that is not an alternative fueled vehicle—
<FR>1/2</FR> credit; and
</P>
<P>(4) A neighborhood electric vehicle—
<FR>1/4</FR> credit.
</P>
<P>(e) Based on annual credit activity report information, as described in § 490.508, DOE shall allocate one alternative fueled vehicle credit for every $25,000 that a fleet or covered person invests, as described in § 490.503(c), in:
</P>
<P>(1) Alternative fuel infrastructure that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly accessible, provided that the maximum number of credits under this paragraph shall not exceed ten for the model year and the alternative fuel infrastructure became operational in the same model year, and provided further that the total number of credits allocated under this paragraph (e)(1)(i) and paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section do not exceed ten in a given model year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not publicly accessible, provided that the maximum number of credits under this paragraph shall not exceed five for the model year and the alternative fuel infrastructure became operational in the same model year, and provided further that the total number of credits allocated under this paragraph (e)(1)(ii) and paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section do not exceed ten in a given model year; or
</P>
<P>(2) Alternative fuel non-road equipment, provided that the maximum number of credits under this paragraph (e)(2) shall not exceed five for the model year, and provided further that the equipment is being operated on alternative fuel.
</P>
<P>(f) Based on annual credit activity report information, as described in § 490.508 of this subpart, DOE shall allocate two alternative fueled vehicle credits for the first $50,000, and one alternative fueled vehicle credit for every $25,000 thereafter, that a fleet or covered person invests, as described in § 490.503(c), in emerging technology, provided that the maximum number of credits under this paragraph (f) shall not exceed five for the model year, and provided further that the amount for which credit is allocated under this paragraph has not been the basis for credit allocation under paragraphs (a), (b), or (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) A fleet or covered person may aggregate the amount of money invested in alternative fuel infrastructure, alternative fuel non-road equipment, and emerging technology such that funds from multiple categories may be used to achieve the applicable threshold for the purpose of earning an alternative fueled vehicle credit, so long as no funds are aggregated from a category for which the fleet has already been allocated the maximum number of credits allowed for that category, as set forth in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15905, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.505" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.505   Use of alternative fueled vehicle credits.</HEAD>
<P>At the request of a fleet or covered person in an annual report under subpart C or D of this part, DOE shall treat each banked alternative fueled vehicle credit as the acquisition of an alternative fueled vehicle that the fleet or covered person is required to acquire under this part. Each full credit shall count as the acquisition of one alternative fueled vehicle in the model year for which the fleet or covered person requests that the credit be applied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15906, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.506" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.506   Credit accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall establish a credit account for each fleet or covered person that obtains an alternative fueled vehicle credit.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall send to each fleet and covered person an annual credit account balance statement after the receipt of its credit activity report under § 490.508.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15906, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.507" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.507   Alternative fueled vehicle credit transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any fleet or covered person that is required to acquire alternative fueled vehicles may transfer an alternative fueled vehicle credit to—
</P>
<P>(1) A fleet that is required to acquire alternative fueled vehicles; or
</P>
<P>(2) A covered person subject to the requirements of this part, if the transferor provides certification to the covered person that the credit represents a vehicle that operates solely on alternative fuel.
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of credit transfer may be on a form provided by DOE, or otherwise in writing, and must include dated signatures of the transferor and transferee. The proof should be received by DOE within 30 days of the transfer date at the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, EE-2G, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585-0121, or such other address as DOE publishes on its Web site or in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15906, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.508" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.6.78.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.508   Credit activity reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A fleet or covered person that either applied one or more banked credits towards its alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements pursuant to § 490.505, seeks the allocation of alternative fueled vehicle credits under this subpart, or participated in a credit transfer under § 490.507 must include a credit activity report with its annual report submitted under subpart C or D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit activity report must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Number of alternative fueled vehicle credits applied towards acquisition requirements pursuant to § 490.505;
</P>
<P>(2) Number of alternative fueled vehicle credits requested for:
</P>
<P>(i) Light duty alternative fueled vehicles acquired in excess of the required acquisition number;
</P>
<P>(ii) Alternative fueled vehicles with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 8,500 pounds acquired in excess of the required acquisition number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Medium- or heavy-duty fuel cell electric vehicles that are not alternative fueled vehicles, acquired in excess of the required acquisition number;
</P>
<P>(iv) Medium- or heavy-duty electric vehicles that are not alternative fueled vehicles, acquired in excess of the required acquisition number;
</P>
<P>(v) Light duty alternative fueled vehicles acquired in model years before the first model year the fleet or covered person is required to acquire light duty alternative fueled vehicles by this part;
</P>
<P>(vi) Alternative fueled vehicles with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 8,500 pounds acquired in model years before the first model year the fleet or covered person is required to acquire light duty alternative fueled vehicles by this part;
</P>
<P>(vii) The acquisition of light duty hybrid electric vehicles that are not alternative fueled vehicles;
</P>
<P>(viii) The acquisition of light duty plug-in electric drive vehicles that are not alternative fueled vehicles;
</P>
<P>(ix) The acquisition of light duty fuel cell electric vehicles that are not alternative fueled vehicles; and
</P>
<P>(x) The acquisition of neighborhood electric vehicles.
</P>
<P>(3) Number of alternative fueled vehicle credits, in whole number values, requested for each of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Investment in alternative fuel infrastructure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Investment in alternative fuel non-road equipment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Investment in an emerging technology.
</P>
<P>(4) For each vehicle that is not an alternative fueled vehicle and for which credit is requested under paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (iv), (vii), (viii), (ix), or (x) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Vehicle make and model;
</P>
<P>(ii) Model year;
</P>
<P>(iii) Vehicle Identification Number; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Acquisition date.
</P>
<P>(5) For investment in alternative fuel infrastructure, supporting documentation and a written statement, certified by a responsible official of the fleet or covered person, indicating or providing:
</P>
<P>(i) The model year or period in which the investment was made;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of money invested by the fleet or covered person and to whom the money was provided;
</P>
<P>(iii) The physical location(s) (address and zip code) and a detailed description of the alternative fuel infrastructure, including the name and address of the construction/installation company (where appropriate), whether the infrastructure is publicly accessible, and the type(s) of alternative fuel offered; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The date on which the alternative fuel infrastructure became operational.
</P>
<P>(6) For investment in alternative fuel non-road equipment, supporting documentation and a written statement, certified by a responsible official of the fleet or covered person, indicating or providing:
</P>
<P>(i) The model year or period in which the investment was made;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of money invested by the fleet or covered person and to whom the money was provided; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the alternative fuel non-road equipment, including the name and address of the manufacturer, the type(s) of alternative fuel on which the equipment is capable of being operated, a certification that the equipment is being operated on that alternative fuel, the date on which the fleet or covered person purchased the equipment, and the date on which it was put into operation.
</P>
<P>(7) For investment in an emerging technology, supporting documentation and a written statement, certified by a responsible official of the fleet or covered person, indicating or providing:
</P>
<P>(i) The model year or period in which the investment was made;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of money invested by the fleet or covered person and to whom the money was provided;
</P>
<P>(iii) A certification that the emerging technology's acquisition is not included as a new light duty alternative fueled vehicle acquisition in the fleet or covered person's annual report;
</P>
<P>(iv) A certification that the emerging technology's acquisition is not included in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and the amount invested is not included in the amounts submitted under paragraph (b)(5)(ii) or (b)(6)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed description of the emerging technology, including the name and address of the manufacturer, the date on which the fleet or covered person purchased the emerging technology, and the date on which it was put it into operation.
</P>
<P>(8) The total number of alternative fueled vehicle credits requested by the fleet or covered person, calculated by adding the two subtotals under paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section and then rounding the aggregate figure to the nearest whole number; in rounding to the nearest whole number, any fraction equal to or greater than one half shall be rounded up and any fraction less than one half shall be rounded down.
</P>
<P>(9) Purchases of alternative fueled vehicle credits:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit source; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of purchase;
</P>
<P>(10) Sales of alternative fueled vehicle credits:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit purchaser; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Date of sale.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15906, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Investigations and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.600" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7.78.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.600   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the rules applicable to investigations under titles III, IV, V, and VI of the Act and to enforcement of sections 501, 503(b), 507, 508, or 514 of the Act, or any regulation issued under such sections.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 12964, Mar. 20, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.601" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7.78.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.601   Powers of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of carrying out titles III, IV, V, and VI of the Act, DOE may hold such hearings, take such testimony, sit and act at such times and places, administer such oaths, and require by subpoena the attendance and testimony of such witnesses and the production of such books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, contracts, agreements, or other records as the Secretary of Transportation is authorized to do under section 505(b)(1) of the Motor Vehicle Information and Cost Savings Act (15 U.S.C. 2005(b)(1)). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.602" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7.78.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.602   Special orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may require by general or special orders that any person—
</P>
<P>(1) File, in such form as DOE may prescribe, reports or answers in writing to specific questions relating to any function of DOE under this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide DOE access to (and for the purpose of examination, the right to copy) any documentary evidence of such person which is relevant to any function of DOE under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) File under oath any reports and answers provided under this section or as otherwise prescribed by DOE, and file such reports and answers with DOE within such reasonable time and at such place as DOE may prescribe. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.603" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7.78.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.603   Prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>It is unlawful for any person to violate any provision of sections 501, 503(b), 507, 514 of the Act, or any regulations issued under such sections.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 12964, Mar. 20, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.604" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7.78.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.604   Penalties and Fines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Civil penalties.</I> Whoever violates § 490.603 shall be subject to a civil penalty of not more than $11,128 for each violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Willful violations.</I> Whoever willfully violates section 490.603 of this part shall pay a criminal fine of not more than $10,000 for each violation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Repeated violations.</I> Any person who knowingly and willfully violates section 490.603 of this part, after having been subjected to a civil penalty for a prior violation of section 490.603 shall pay a criminal fine of not more than $50,000 for each violation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 10653, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 46183, Sept. 2, 1997; 74 FR 66032, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96351, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1291, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1028, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105406, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.605" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7.78.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.605   Statement of enforcement policy.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may agree not to commence an enforcement proceeding, or may agree to settle an enforcement proceeding, if the person agrees to come into compliance in a manner satisfactory to DOE. DOE normally will not commence an enforcement action against a person subject to the acquisition requirements of this part without giving that person notice of its intent to enforce 90 days before the beginning of an enforcement proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.606" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7.78.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.606   Proposed assessments and orders.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may issue a proposed assessment of, and order to pay, a civil penalty in a written statement setting forth supporting findings of violation of the Act or a relevant regulation of this part. The proposed assessment and order shall be served on the person named therein by certified mail, return-receipt requested, and shall become final for DOE if not timely appealed pursuant to section 490.607 of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.607" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.7.78.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.607   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to exhaust administrative remedies, on or before 30 days from the date of issuance of a proposed assessment and order to pay, a person must appeal a proposed assessment and order to the Office of Hearings and Appeals, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. 
</P>
<P>(b) Proceedings in the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall be subject to subpart F of 10 CFR part 1003 except that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Appellant shall have the ultimate burden of persuasion; 
</P>
<P>(2) Appellant shall have right to a trial-type hearing on contested issues of fact only if the hearing officer concludes that cross examination will materially assist in determining facts in addition to evidence available in documentary form; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The Office of Hearings and Appeals may issue such orders as it may deem appropriate on all other procedural matters. 
</P>
<P>(c) The determination of the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall be final for DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Biodiesel Fuel Use Credit</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 27174, May 19, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 490.701" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8.78.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.701   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart implements provisions of the Energy Conservation Reauthorization Act of 1998 (Pub. L. 105-388) that require, subject to some limitations, the allocation of credit to a fleet or covered person under Titles III and V of the Energy Policy Act of 1992 for the purchase of a qualifying volume of the biodiesel component of a fuel containing at least 20 percent biodiesel by volume.
</P>
<P>(b) Fleets and covered persons may use these credits to meet, in part, their mandated alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.702" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8.78.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.702   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the definitions found in § 490.2, the following definitions apply to this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Biodiesel</I> means a diesel fuel substitute produced from nonpetroleum renewable resources that meets the registration requirements for fuels and fuel additives established by the Environmental Protection Agency under section 211 of the Clean Air Act; and
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying volume</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) 450 gallons; or
</P>
<P>(2) If DOE determines by rule that the average annual alternative fuel use in light duty vehicles by fleets and covered persons exceeds 450 gallons or gallon equivalents, the amount of such average annual alternative fuel use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.703" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8.78.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.703   Biodiesel fuel use credit allocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall allocate to a fleet or covered person one credit for each qualifying volume of the biodiesel component of a fuel that contains at least 20 percent biodiesel by volume if:
</P>
<P>(1) Each qualifying volume of the biodiesel component of a fuel was purchased after November 13, 1998;
</P>
<P>(2) The biodiesel component of fuel is used in vehicles owned or operated by the fleet or covered person; and
</P>
<P>(3) The biodiesel component of the fuel is used in vehicles weighing more than 8,500 pounds gross vehicle weight rating.
</P>
<P>(b) No credit shall be allocated under this subpart for a purchase of the biodiesel component of a fuel if the fuel is:
</P>
<P>(1) For use in alternative fueled vehicles which have been used to satisfy the alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements under Titles III and V of the Energy Policy Act of 1992; or
</P>
<P>(2) Required by Federal or State law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 27174, May 19, 1999, as amended at 66 FR 2210, Jan. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.704" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8.78.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.704   Procedures and documentation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To receive a credit under this subpart, the fleet or covered person shall submit its request, on a form obtained from DOE, to the Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U. S. Department of Energy, EE-34, 1000 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20585, or such other address as DOE may publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> along with the documentation required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Each request for a credit under this subpart must be submitted on or before the December 31 after the close of the applicable model year and must include written documentation stating the quantity of biodiesel purchased, for the given model year, for use in vehicles weighing in excess of 8,500 lbs. gross vehicle weight;
</P>
<P>(c) A fleet or covered person submitting a request for a credit under this subpart must maintain and retain purchase records verifying information in the request for a period of three years from December 31 immediately after the close of the model year for which the request is submitted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.705" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8.78.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.705   Use of credits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the request of a fleet or covered person allocated a credit under this subpart, DOE shall, for the model year in which the purchase of a qualifying volume is made, treat that purchase as the acquisition of one alternative fueled vehicle the fleet or covered person is required to acquire under titles III and V of the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, credits allocated under this subpart may not be used to satisfy more than 50 percent of the alternative fueled vehicle requirements of a fleet or covered person under titles III and V of the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
</P>
<P>(c) A fleet or covered person that is a biodiesel alternative fuel provider described in section 490.303 of this part may use its credits allocated under this subpart to satisfy all of its alternative fueled vehicle requirements under section 490.302.
</P>
<P>(d) A fleet or covered person may not trade or bank biodiesel fuel credits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 27174, May 19, 1999, as amended at 66 FR 2210, Jan. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.706" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8.78.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.706   Procedure for modifying the biodiesel component percentage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may, by rule, lower the 20 percent biodiesel volume requirement of this subpart for reasons related to cold start, safety, or vehicle function considerations.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may use the procedures in section 490.6 of this part to petition DOE for a rulemaking to lower the biodiesel volume percentage. A petitioner should include any data or information that it wants DOE to consider in deciding whether or not to begin a rulemaking.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.707" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8.78.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.707   Increasing the qualifying volume of the biodiesel component.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may increase the qualifying volume of the biodiesel component of fuel for purposes of allocation of credits under this subpart only after it:
</P>
<P>(a) Collects data establishing that the average annual alternative fuel use in light duty vehicles by fleets and covered persons exceeds 450 gallons or gallon equivalents; and
</P>
<P>(b) Conducts a rulemaking to amend the provisions of this subpart to change the qualifying volume to the average annual alternative fuel use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.708" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.8.78.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.708   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Violations of this subpart are subject to investigation and enforcement under subpart G of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Alternative Compliance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 12964, Mar. 20, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 490.801" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.801   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 514 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 13263a) which permits States and alternative fuel providers to petition for alternative compliance waivers from the alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements in subparts C and D of this part, respectively.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.802" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.802   Eligibility for alternative compliance waiver.</HEAD>
<P>Any State subject to subpart C of this part and any covered person subject to subpart D of this part may apply to DOE for a waiver from the applicable alternative fueled vehicle acquisition requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.803" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.803   Waiver requirements.</HEAD>
<P>DOE grants a State or covered person a waiver:
</P>
<P>(a) If DOE determines that the State or covered person will achieve a reduction in petroleum consumption, through eligible reductions as specified in § 490.804 of this subpart, equal to the amount of alternative fuel used if the following vehicles were operated 100 percent of the time on alternative fuel during the model year for which a waiver is requested:
</P>
<P>(1) Previously required alternative fueled vehicles in the fleet's inventory at the start of the model year for which a waiver is requested;
</P>
<P>(2) Alternative fueled vehicles that the State or covered person would have been required to acquire in the model year for which a waiver is requested, and in previous model years in which a waiver was granted, absent any waivers;
</P>
<P>(b) The State or covered person is in compliance with all applicable vehicle emission standards established by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency under the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7401 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(c) The State or covered person is in compliance with all applicable requirements of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.804" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.804   Eligible reductions in petroleum consumption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Motor vehicles.</I> Demonstrated reductions in petroleum consumption during the model year for which a waiver is requested that are attributable to motor vehicles owned, operated, leased or otherwise under the control of a State or covered person are applicable towards the petroleum fuel reduction required in § 490.803(a) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualified nonroad vehicles.</I> Demonstrated reductions in petroleum consumption during the model year for which a waiver is requested that are attributable to nonroad vehicles owned, operated, leased or otherwise under the control of a State or covered person acquired during waiver years are applicable towards the petroleum fuel reduction required in § 490.803(a) of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) If acquisition of the nonroad vehicles leads directly to the establishment or upgrading of refueling or recharging infrastructure during a waiver year that would also allow for increased petroleum replacement by serving the fleet's on-road light-duty vehicles; and
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that additional reductions attributable to motor vehicles are not reasonably available.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rollover of excess petroleum reductions.</I> (1) Upon approval by DOE, petroleum fuel use reductions achieved by a fleet in excess of the amount required for alternative compliance in a previous model year may be applied towards the petroleum fuel use reduction requirement under § 490.803(a) in a model year for which a waiver is granted and for which the fleet experiences a shortfall.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A fleet seeking to roll over for future use the petroleum fuel use reductions that it achieved in excess of the amount required for alternative compliance in a particular model year must make a written request to DOE as part of the fleet's annual report required under § 490.807 for the model year in which the excess reductions were achieved.
</P>
<P>(ii) Following receipt of a request under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, DOE will notify the requesting fleet of the amount of excess petroleum fuel use reductions that DOE has approved for rollover and potential application towards the petroleum fuel use reduction requirement in a future model year.
</P>
<P>(iii) A fleet seeking to apply excess petroleum fuel use reductions rolled over pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section in a model year for which a waiver is granted and for which the fleet experiences a shortfall in achieving the petroleum fuel use reduction requirement under § 490.803(a) must make a written request to DOE as part of the fleet's annual report required under § 490.807. The written request must specify the amount of the rollover reductions (in GGE) the fleet wishes to have applied and the total balance of rollover reductions (in GGE) the fleet possesses.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) In considering a written request to apply rollover reductions under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, DOE may seek from the fleet additional information about the fleet and its operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon approving a request to apply rollover reductions, DOE will apply the approved rollover reductions only to the extent that other reductions in petroleum consumption through any of the means set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section were not reasonably achievable.
</P>
<P>(4) Excess petroleum reductions are not tradable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ineligible reductions.</I> The petroleum reduction plan required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section must not include reductions in petroleum attributable to incentives for third parties to reduce their petroleum use, petroleum reductions that are not transportation-related, or petroleum reductions attributable to non-qualified nonroad vehicles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 12964, Mar. 20, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 15907, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.805" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.805   Application for waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State or covered person must apply for a waiver applicable to an entire fleet for a full model year in accordance with the deadlines specified in paragraph (b) of this section. DOE will not grant a waiver for less than an entire fleet or less than a full model year.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A State or covered person must register a preliminary intent to apply for a waiver by March 31 prior to the model year for which a waiver is sought.
</P>
<P>(2) A complete waiver application must be received by DOE no later than July 31 prior to the model year for which a waiver is sought.
</P>
<P>(c) A waiver application must include verifiable data that is sufficient to enable DOE to determine whether the State or covered person is likely to achieve the amount of petroleum reduction required for alternative compliance and whether the fleet is in compliance with Clean Air Act vehicle emission standards. At a minimum, the State entity or covered person must provide DOE with the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The model year for which the waiver is requested;
</P>
<P>(2) The total number of required alternative fueled vehicle acquisitions in the fleet including:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of alternative fueled vehicle acquisitions that the State or covered person would, without a waiver, be required to acquire during the model year for which the waiver is requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of alternative fueled vehicle acquisitions that the State or covered person would, without a waiver, have been required to acquire during the model years for which waivers were previously granted;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of required alternative fueled vehicles existing in the fleet that were acquired during years in which no waiver was in force; and excluding
</P>
<P>(iv) Any required alternative fuel vehicles acquired during a waiver or non-waiver year or light-duty vehicles acquired in lieu of alternative fuels vehicles during a waiver year that are to be retired before the beginning of the waiver year;
</P>
<P>(3) The anticipated amount of gasoline and diesel and alternative fuel (calculated in gasoline gallon equivalents (gge)) to be used by the covered light-duty vehicles in the fleet for the waiver year including an estimate of per vehicle average fuel use in these vehicles;
</P>
<P>(4) A petroleum reduction plan as described in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) Documents, or a certification by a responsible official of the State or covered person, demonstrating that the fleet is in compliance with all applicable vehicle emission standards established by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency under the Clean Air Act.
</P>
<P>(d) The petroleum reduction plan required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section must contain a documented explanation as to how the State or covered person will meet the reduction in petroleum consumption required by § 490.803(a) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) The planned actions must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be verifiable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate a reduction in petroleum use by motor vehicles or qualified nonroad vehicles owned, operated, leased or otherwise controlled by the State or covered person;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide for a net reduction in petroleum consumption as specified in § 490.803(a) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The documentation for the plan may include, but is not limited to, published data on fuel efficiency, Government data, letters from manufacturers, and data on actual usage.
</P>
<P>(e) A State or covered person must send its report, and two copies, to DOE on official company or agency letterhead, and the report must be signed by a responsible company or agency official. Send to: Regulatory Manager, Alternative Fuel Transportation Program, FreedomCAR and Vehicle Technologies Program, EE-2G/Forrestal Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 12964, Mar. 20, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 15907, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.806" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.806   Action on an application for waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE grants or denies a complete waiver application within 45 business days after receipt of a complete application.
</P>
<P>(b) If DOE determines that an application is not complete in that sufficient information is not provided for DOE to make a determination, DOE notifies the State or covered person of the information that must be submitted to complete the application.
</P>
<P>(c) If DOE denies a waiver, and the State or covered person wishes to exhaust administrative remedies, the State or covered person must appeal within 30 days of the date of the determination, pursuant to 10 CFR part 1003, subpart C, to the Office of Hearings and Appeals, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585. DOE's determination shall be stayed during the pendency of an appeal under this paragraph.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.807" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.807   Reporting requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By December 31 following a model year for which an alternative compliance waiver is granted, a State or covered person must submit a report to DOE that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement certifying:
</P>
<P>(i) The total number of petroleum gallons and/or alternative fuel gge used by the fleet during the waiver year in its covered light-duty vehicles; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of petroleum motor fuel reduced by the fleet in the waiver year through alternative compliance.
</P>
<P>(b) A State or covered person must send its report to DOE on official company or agency letterhead, and the report must be signed by a responsible company or agency official. Send to: Regulatory Manager, Alternative Fuel Transportation Program, FreedomCAR and Vehicle Technologies Program, EE-2G/Forrestal Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.808" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.808   Use of credits to offset petroleum reduction shortfall.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a State or covered person granted a waiver under this subpart wants to use alternative fueled vehicle credits purchased or earned pursuant to subpart F of this part to offset any shortfall in meeting the petroleum reduction required under § 490.803(a) of this subpart, it must make a written request to DOE.
</P>
<P>(1) The State or covered person must provide details about the particular circumstances that led to the shortfall and provide documentation that shows a good faith effort to meet the requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE may request that a State or covered person supply additional information about the fleet and its operations if DOE deems such information necessary for a decision on the request.
</P>
<P>(b) If DOE grants the request, it notifies the State or covered person of the credit amount required to offset the shortfall. DOE derives the credit amount using the fleet's fuel use per vehicle data.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE gives the State entity or covered person until March 31 following the model year for which the waiver is granted, to acquire the number of credits required for compliance with this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.809" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.809   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>If a State or covered person that received a waiver under this subpart fails to comply with the petroleum motor fuel reduction or reporting requirements of this subpart, DOE will revoke the waiver and may impose on the State or covered person a penalty under subpart G of this part. A State or covered person whose waiver has been revoked by DOE is precluded from requesting an exemption under § 490.204 or § 490.307 from the vehicle acquisition mandate for the model year of the revoked waiver.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 15907, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 490.810" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.15.9.78.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 490.810   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>A State or covered person that receives a waiver under this subpart must retain documentation pertaining to its waiver application and alternative compliance, including petroleum fuel reduction by its fleet, for a period of three years following the model year for which the waiver is granted.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="491-499" NODE="10:4.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 491-499 [RESERVED] 






</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 13, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="5" NODE="10:5" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 10—Energy--Volume 5</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ii</E>—Department of Energy (Continued) 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>500
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter iii</E>—Department of Energy 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>706 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter x</E>—Department of Energy (General Provisions) 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1000 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xiii</E>—Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1303 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvii</E>—Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1703 
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xviii</E>—Northeast Interstate Low-level Radioactive Waste Commission 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1800


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="II" NODE="10:5.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER II—DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E—ALTERNATE FUELS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="500" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 500—DEFINITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. § 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3289 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Security Act, Pub. L.96-294, 94 Stat. 611 (42 U.S.C. 8701 <I>et seq.</I>); E.O. 1209, 42 FR 46267, September 15, 1977. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 59884, Dec. 7, 1981, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(OMB Control No.: 1903-0075. See 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981.)


</APPRO>

<DIV8 N="§ 500.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise expressly provided or the context clearly indicates otherwise, this section defines the terms used in these regulations. The use of the male gender is to include female; the use of singular to include plural.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.1.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.2   General definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part and parts 501-507 term(s):
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, 42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Action</I> means a prohibition by rule or order, in accordance with sections 301(b) and (c) of FUA; any order granting or denying an exemption in accordance with sections 211, 212, 311 and 312 of FUA; a modification or rescission of any such order, or rule; an interpretation; a notice of violation; a remedial order; an interpretive ruling; or a rulemaking undertaken by DOE. 
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate,</I> when used in relation to person, means another person who controls, is controlled by, or is under common control, with such person.
</P>
<P><I>Aggrieved,</I> for purposes of administrative proceedings, describes and means a person (with an interest sought to be protected under FUA) who is adversely affected by an action proposed or undertaken by DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Air pollution control agency</I> means any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A single State agency designated as the official State air pollution control agency;
</P>
<P>(2) An agency established by two or more States and having substantial powers or duties pertaining to the prevention and control of air pollution;
</P>
<P>(3) A city, county, or other local government health authority or, in the case of any city, county, or other local unit of government in which there is an agency other than the health authority charged with responsibility for enforcing ordinances or laws relating to the prevention and control of air pollution, such other agency; or
</P>
<P>(4) An agency or two or more municipalities located in the same State or in different States and having substantial powers or duties pertaining to the prevention and control of air pollution.
</P>
<P><I>Alternate fuel</I> means electricity or any fuel, other than natural gas or petroleum. The term includes, but is not limited to :
</P>
<P>(1) Coal;
</P>
<P>(2) Solar energy;
</P>
<P>(3) Petroleum coke; shale oil; uranium; biomass, tar sands, oil-impregnated diatomaceous earth; municipal, industrial, or agricultural wastes; wood; and renewable and geothermal energy sources (For purposes of this paragraph (3), the term <I>industrial</I> does not include refineries.);
</P>
<P>(4) Liquid, solid or gaseous waste by-products of refinery or industrial operations which are commercially unmarketable, either by reason of quality or quantity. (For purposes of this paragraph (4), the term <I>waste by-product</I> is defined as an unavoidable by-product of the industrial or refinery operation.) A waste by-product of a refinery or industrial operation is commercially unmarketable if it meets the criteria listed in the definition of “commercial unmarketability,” set forth below;
</P>
<P>(5) Any fuel derived from an alternate fuel; and
</P>
<P>(6) Waste gases from industrial operations. (For purposes of this subsection, the term <I>industrial</I> does not include refineries.)
</P>
<P><I>Applicable environmental requirements</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any standard, limitation, or other requirement established by or pursuant to Federal or State law (including any final order of any Federal or State Court) applicable to emissions of environmental pollutants (including air and water pollutants) or disposal of solid waste residues resulting from the use of coal or other alternate fuels, natural gas, or petroleum as a primary energy source or from the operation of pollution control equipment in connection with such use, taking into account any variance of law granted or issued in accordance with Federal law or in accordance with State law to the extent consistent with Federal law; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other standard, limitation, or other requirement established by, or pursuant to, the Clean Air Act, the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, the Solid Waste Disposal Act, the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, or the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969.
</P>
<P><I>Base load powerplant</I> means a powerplant, the electrical generation of which in kilowatt hours exceeds, for any 12-calendar-month period, such powerplant's design capacity multiplied by 3,500 hours.
</P>
<P><I>Boiler</I> means a closed vessel in which water is heated electrically or by the combustion of a fuel to produce steam of one percent or more quality.
</P>
<P><I>Btu</I> means British thermal unit. 
</P>
<P><I>Capability to use alternate fuel,</I> for the purposes of Title II prohibitions relating to construction of new powerplants, means the powerplant to be constructed:
</P>
<P>(1) Has sufficient inherent design characteristics to permit the addition of equipment (including all necessary pollution devices) necessary to render such electric powerplant capable of using coal or another alternate fuel as its primary energy source; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Is not physically, structurally, or technologically precluded from using coal or another alternate fuel as its primary energy source. 
</P>
<P>Capability to use coal or another alternate fuel shall not be interpreted to require any such powerplant to be immediately able to use coal or another alternate fuel as its primary energy source on its initial day of operation. In addition, the owner or operator of a baseload powerplant need not have adequate on-site space for either a coal gasifier or any facilities for handling coal or related fuels. 
</P>
<P><I>Certification</I> means a document, signed by an official of the owner or operator, notarized, and submitted to OFE, which declares that a new powerplant will have the “capability to use alternate fuel” (as defined herein). 
</P>
<P><I>Certifying powerplant</I> means an existing powerplant whose owner or operator seeks to obtain a prohibition order against the use of natural gas or petroleum either totally or in a mixture with coal or an alternate fuel by filing a certification as to both the technical capability and financial feasibility of conversion to coal or another alternate fuel pursuant to section 301 of FUA, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Clean Air Act</I> means the Clean Air Act, 42 U.S.C. 7401 <I>et seq.</I> (1970), as amended by Public Law 93-319, 88 Stat. 246, and Public Law 95-91, 91 Stat. 685.
</P>
<P><I>Coal</I> means anthracite, bituminous and sub-bituminous coal, lignite, and any fuel derivative thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Cogeneration facility</I> means an electric powerplant that produces: 
</P>
<P>(1) Electric power; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other form of useful energy (such as steam, gas or heat) that is, or will be used, for industrial, commercial, or space heating purposes. In addition, for purposes of this definition, electricity generated by the cogeneration facility must constitute more than five (5) percent and less than ninety (90) percent of the useful energy output of the facility.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Any cogeneration facility selling or exchanging less than fifty percent (50%) of the facility's generated electricity is considered an industrial cogenerator and is exempt from the fuel use prohibitions of FUA.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Combined cycle unit</I> means an electric power generating unit that consists of a combination of one or more combustion turbine units and one or more steam turbine units with a substantial portion of the required energy input of the steam turbine unit(s) provided by the exhaust gas from the combustion turbine unit(s). 
</P>
<P>Substantial amounts of supplemental firing for a steam turbine or waste heat boiler to improve thermal efficiency will not affect a unit's classification as a combined cycle unit. 
</P>
<P><I>Combustion turbine</I> means a unit that is a rotary engine driven by a gas under pressure that is created by the combustion of any fuel.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial unmarketability</I> as used in the definitions of “alternate fuel,” “natural gas” and “petroleum” shall be determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) A waste by-product of industrial or refinery operations is commercially unmarketable by reason of:
</P>
<P>(i) Quality, where the cost of processing (limited to upgrading the waste by-product to commercial quality), storing, and distributing the waste by-product would not be covered by reasonably expected revenues from its sale;
</P>
<P>(ii) Quantity, where the cost of aggregating the waste by-product into commercial quantities through storing and distributing the waste by-product would not be covered by reasonably expected revenues from its sale.
</P>
<P>(2) A fuel will not be classified as “natural gas” when it is commercially unmarketable by reason of:
</P>
<P>(i) Quality, where the cost of producing, upgrading to commercial quality, storing, and distributing the fuel would not be covered by reasonably expected revenues from its sale; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Quantity, where the quantities of the fuel are so small that the revenues to be reasonably expected from its sale would not cover the cost of its production, distribution or storage.
</P>
<P>(3) Costs associated with upgrading, storing, distributing, and aggregating a by-product or other fuel (to determine if such fuel is natural gas) may properly include a reasonable rate of return on any capital investment required to overcome the problems posed by the quality or quantity of a fuel because the return on investment is a normal aspect of any investment decision. A firm may account for this reasonable rate of return by using its customary discount rate for an investment of similar risk.
</P>
<P>(4) As part of any consideration of the rate of return on investment, the cost of replacing the Btu's lost if the by-product or other fuel were upgraded and sold instead of used as a fuel may be taken into consideration. The actual expense that would result from burning a replacement fuel in lieu of the by-product or other fuel in question may therefore be considered. The costs associated with using a replacement fuel are indirect costs that result from upgrading and selling the fuel, instead of burning it. These indirect costs as well as the direct costs associated with the upgrading, storing, distributing, and aggregating of by-products or other fuel may be considered in any assessment of commercial unmarketability.
</P>
<P><I>Conference</I> means an informal meeting incident to any proceeding, between DOE and any interested person.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means substantial physical activity at the unit site and includes more than clearance of a site or installation of foundation pilings.
</P>
<P><I>Costs</I> means total costs, both operating and capital, incurred over the estimated remaining useful life of an electric powerplant, discounted to the present, pursuant to rules established in parts 503 and 504 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P><I>DEOA</I> means the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91) (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>) as implemented by Executive Order 12009 (42 FR 46267, September 15, 1977). 
</P>
<P><I>Design capability</I> defined in section 103(a)(7) of FUA, shall be determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Boiler and associated generator turbines.</I> The design fuel heat input rate of a steam-electric generating unit (Btu/hr) shall be the product of the generator's nameplate rating, measured in kilowatts, and 3412 (Btu/kWh), divided by the overall boiler-turbine-generator unit design efficiency (decimal); or if the generator's nameplate does not have a rating measured in kilowatts, the product of the generator's kilovolt-amperes nameplate rating, and the power factor nameplate rating; and 3412 (Btu/kWh), divided by the boiler turbine-generator unit's design efficiency (decimal). (The number 3412 converts kilowatt-hours (absolute) into Btu's (mean).) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combustion turbine and associated generator.</I> The design fuel heat input rate of a combustion turbine (Btu/hr) shall be the product of its nameplate rating, measured in kilowatts, and 3412 (Btu/kWh), divided by the combustion turbine-generator unit's design efficiency (decimal), adjusted for peaking service at an ambient temperature of 59 degrees Fahrenheit (15 degrees Celsius) at the unit's elevation. (The number 3412 converts kilowatt-hours (absolute) into Btu's (mean).) 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Combined cycle unit.</I> The design fuel heat input rate of a combined cycle unit (Btu/hr) shall be the summation of the product of its generator's nameplate rating, measured in kilowatts, and 3412 (Btu/kWh), divided by the overall combustion turbine-generator unit's efficiency (decimal), adjusted for peaking service at an ambient temperature of 59 degrees Fahrenheit (15 degrees Celsius) and at the unit's evaluation, plus the product of the maximum fuel heat input to any supplemental heat recovery steam generator/boiler in gallons or pounds per hour and the fuel's heat content. If the generator's nameplate does not have a rating measured in kilowatts, the product of the generator's kilowatt-amperes nameplate rating and power factor nameplate rating must be substituted for kilowatts. (The number 3412 converts kilowatt-hours (absolute) into Btu's (mean).) 
</P>
<P><I>Design capacity</I> of a powerplant pursuant to section 103(a)(18) of FUA, is determined according to 18 CFR 287.101.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> or <I>the Department</I> means the United States Department of Energy, as defined in sections 201 and 301(a) of the DEOA, including the Secretary of Energy or his designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Duly authorized representative</I> means a person who is authorized to appear before DOE in connection with a proceeding on behalf of a person interested in or aggrieved by that proceeding. Such appearance may include the submission of applications, petitions, requests, statements, memoranda of law, other documents, or of a personal appearance, oral communication, or any other participation in a proceeding. 
</P>
<P><I>Electing powerplant</I> means an existing powerplant, which (1) has been issued a proposed prohibition order under former section 301 (b) or (c) of FUA prior to August 13, 1981, the date of enactment of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Public Law 97-35 (OBRA); and (2) files an election to continue the current prohibition order proceeding under provisions of the former section 301 of FUA, rather than under amended section 301 of FUA. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Under the election provisions, an existing powerplant which has an order pending against it under section 2 of the Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 791 <I>et seq.</I> (ESECA), as of August 13, 1981, may also elect to continue the current proceeding under section 2 of ESECA. Electing powerplants under ESECA are not included in the FUA definition of “electing powerplant”. Relevant regulations governing ESECA proceedings are found at 10 CFR part 303 and 305. These elections must have been filed with DOE by November 30, 1981 in the case of FUA orders and by January 14, 1982 in the case of ESECA orders.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The election provisions are published at 46 FR 48118 (October 1, 1981) and will not be codified in the Code of Federal Regulations.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Electric generating unit</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any electric generating unit subject to the licensing jurisdiction of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any cogeneration facility from which less than 50 percent of the net annual electric power generation is sold or exchanged for resale. Excluded from ‘sold or exchanged for resale’ are sales or exchanges to or with an electric utility for resale by the utility to the cogenerating supplier, and sales or exchanges among owners of the cogeneration facility.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For purposes of subparagraph (1) of this definition, OFE will not consider any unit located at a site subject to NRC's licensing authority to be jurisdictional for purposes of FUA.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Electric powerplant</I> means any stationary electric generating unit consisting of (a) a boiler, (b) a gas turbine, or (c) a combined cycle unit which employs a generator to produce electric power for purposes of sale or exchange and has the design capabilityf consuming any fuel (or mixture thereof) at a fuel heat input rate of 100 million Btu's per hour or greater. In accordance with section 103(a)(7)(C) of FUA, the Secretary has determined that it is appropriate to exclude from this definition any unit which has a design capability to consume any fuel (including any mixture thereof) that does not equal or exceed 100 million Btu's per hour. 
</P>
<P><I>Electric Region</I> is as defined in § 500.3 of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Electric utility</I> means any person, including any affiliate, or Federal agency, which sells electric power. 
</P>
<P><I>Emission offset</I> means emission reductions as defined by EPA's regulations set forth at 40 CFR part 51, appendix S. 
</P>
<P><I>EPA</I> means the United States Environmental Protection Agency. 
</P>
<P><I>ESECA</I> means the Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 791 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Existing powerplant</I> means any powerplant other than a new powerplant. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal Water Pollution Control Act</I> means the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, 33 U.S.C. 1251 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>FERC</I> means the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<P><I>Firm</I> means a parent company and the consolidated or unconsolidated entities (if any) that it directly or indirectly controls. 
</P>
<P><I>Fluidized bed combustion</I> means combustion of fuel in connection with a bed of inert material, such as limestone or dolomite, that is held in a fluid-like state by the means of air or other gases being passed through such materials. 
</P>
<P><I>FTC</I> means the Federal Trade Commission. 
</P>
<P><I>FUA</I> means the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, 42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Fuel Use Act</I> means <I>FUA.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Fuel use order</I> means a directive issued by OFE pursuant to § 501.167 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P><I>Gas turbine</I> means “combustion turbine”. 
</P>
<P><I>High-priority user,</I> for purposes of subsection 312(j) of FUA, means any residential user of natural gas, or any commercial user whose consumption of natural gas on peak day is less than 50 MCF. 
</P>
<P><I>Internal combustion engine</I> means a heat engine in which the combustion that generates the heat takes place inside the engine proper. 
</P>
<P><I>Interpretation</I> means a written statement issued by the DOE General Counsel or his delegate, in response to a written request, that applies the regulations, rulings, and other precedents previously issued by the DOE to the particular facts of a prospective or completed act or transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Mcf</I> means 1,000 cubic feet of natural gas.
</P>
<P><I>Mixture,</I> when used in relation to fuels used in a unit, means a mixture of petroleum or natural gas and an alternate fuel, or a combination of such fuels, used simultaneously or alternately in such unit.
</P>
<P><I>Natural gas</I> means any fuel consisting in whole or in part of natural gas, including components of natural gas such as methane and ethane; liquid petroleum gas; synthetic gas derived from petroleum or natural gas liquids; or any mixture of natural gas and synthetic gas. Natural gas does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Gaseous waste by-products or waste gas specifically designated as an alternate fuel in § 500.2 of these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Natural gas which is commercially unmarketable, as defined in these rules; 
</P>
<P>(3) Natural gas produced by the user from a well, the maximum efficient production rate of which is less than 250 million Btu's per day. For purposes of paragraph (3) of this definition: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Produced by the user</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(A) All gas produced by the well, when such gas is delivered for use in the user's facility through a gas delivery, gathering, or transportation system which could not deliver such gas to any other user; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Only that amount which represents the user's net working (mineral) interest in the gas produced from such well, where such gas is delivered for use in the user's facility through a gas delivery, gathering, or transportation system which could deliver such gas to any other user. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum efficient production rate</I> (MEPR) means that rate at which production of natural gas may be sustained without damage to the reservoir or the rate which may be sustained without damage to the ultimate recovery of oil or gas through the well. 
</P>
<P>(4) Occluded methane in coal seams within the meaning of section 107(c)(3) of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978 (NGPA); 
</P>
<P>(5) The following gas from wells spudded prior to January 1, 1990: 
</P>
<P>(i) Gas produced from geopressurized brine, within the meaning of section 107(c)(2) of the NGPA; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Gas produced from Devonian shale, within the meaning of section 107(c)(4) of the NGPA; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Gas produced from tight sands, as designated by the FERC in accordance with section 107(c)(5) of the NGPA; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Other gases designated by FERC as “high-cost natural gas” in accordance with section 107(c)(5) of the NGPA, except as specifically designated as “natural gas” by OFE; 
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Synthetic gas derived from coal or other alternate fuel, the heat content of which is less than 600 Btu's per cubic foot at 14.73 pounds per square inch (absolute) and 60 °F; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Commingled natural gas and synthetic gas derived from coal consumed as part of the necessary process of a major fuel burning installation used in the iron and steel industry, so long as the average annual Btu heat content of the commingled stream as consumed within a major fuel burning installation does not exceed 600 Btu's per cubic foot at 14.73 pounds per square inch (absolute) and 60 °F;
</P>
<P>(7) Mixtures of natural gas and synthetic gas derived from alternate fuels for which the person proposing to use the gas certifies to OFE that: 
</P>
<P>(i) He owns, or is entitled to receive at the point of manufacture, synthetic gas derived from alternate fuels; 
</P>
<P>(ii) He delivers, or arranges for the delivery of such synthetic gas to a pipeline which by transport or displacement is capable of delivering such synthetic gas, mixed with natural gas, to facilities owned by the user; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The total annual Btu content of the synthetic gas delivered to a pipeline is equal to or greater than the total annual Btu content of the natural gas delivered to the facilities owned by the user, plus the approximate total annual Btu content of any natural gas consumed or lost in transportation; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) All necessary permits, licenses, or approvals from appropriate Federal, State, and local agencies (including Indian tribes) have been obtained for construction and operation of the facilities for the manufacture of the synthetic gas involved, except that for purposes of the prohibition under section 201(2) of FUA against powerplants being constructed without the capability of using coal or another alternate fuel, only permits, licenses, and approvals for the construction of such synthetic gas facilities shall be required under this subparagraph, to be certified and documented; and
</P>
<P>(8) A mixture of natural gas and an alternate fuel when such mixture is deliberately created for purposes of (i) Complying with a prohibition order issued pursuant to section 301(c) of the Act, or (ii) Qualifying for a fuel mixtures exemption under the Act, provided such exemption is granted.
</P>
<P><I>NEPA</I> means the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>New electric powerplant</I> means any electric powerplant: (1) That was not classified as existing under part 515 of this subchapter; (2) That was reconstructed, as defined in these rules under the definition of “reconstruction”; or (3) For which construction was begun after November 9, 1978.
</P>
<P><I>NGPA</I> means the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, 15 U.S.C. 3301 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Nonboiler</I> means any powerplant which is not a boiler and consists of either a combustion turbine unit or combined cycle unit. 
</P>
<P><I>Notice of violation</I> means a written statement issued to a person by DOE that states one or more alleged violations of the provisions of these regulations, any order issued pursuant thereto, or the Act.
</P>
<P><I>OBRA</I> means the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Public Law 97-35.
</P>
<P><I>OFE</I> means the Office of Fossil Energy of OFE. 
</P>
<P><I>Offset</I> means “emission offset”.
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means a final disposition, other than the issuance of a rule, issued by DOE pursuant to these regulations or the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any:
</P>
<P>(1) Individual, corporation, company, partnership, association, firm, institution, society, trust, joint venture, or joint stock company;
</P>
<P>(2) Any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any Federal, State, or local agency or instrumentality (including any municipality) thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Petroleum</I> means crude oil and products derived from crude oil, other than:
</P>
<P>(1) Petroleum products specifically designated as alternate fuels pursuant to these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Synthetic gas derived from crude oil;
</P>
<P>(3) Liquid petroleum gas;
</P>
<P>(4) Petroleum coke or waste gases from industrial operations; and 
</P>
<P>(5) A liquid, solid, or gaseous waste by-product of refinery operations which is commercially unmarketable under the definition of “commercial unmarketability” in these rules. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For the purposes of this subparagraph, waste by-products do not include components (such as butane and propane) that can be extracted from the waste by-product by reasonable further processing of the waste by-product at the refinery, nor do they include final products that use the waste by-product as a blend stock at the refinery.</P></NOTE>
<P><I>Petition</I> means a formal request for any action including an exemption submitted to DOE under these regulations. 
</P>
<P><I>Powerplant</I> means “electric powerplant.” 
</P>
<P><I>Product or process requirements</I> means that product or process for which the use of an alternate fuel is not technically feasible due to the necessity to maintain satisfactory control of product quality and for which the substitution of steam is not technically feasible due to process requirements. 
</P>
<P><I>Primary energy source</I> means the fuel or fuels used by any existing or new electric powerplant except: 
</P>
<P>(1) Minimum amounts of fuel required for unit ignition, startup, testing, flame stabilization, and control uses. OFE has determined that, unless need for a greater amount is demonstrated, twenty-five (25) percent of the total annual Btu heat input of a unit shall be automatically excluded under this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(2) Minimum amounts of fuel required to alleviate or prevent: 
</P>
<P>(i) Unanticipated equipment outages as defined in § 501.191 of these regulations; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Emergencies directly affecting the public health, safety, or welfare that would result from electric power outages as defined in § 501.191 of these regulations.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>(1) Any fuel excluded under the provisions of paragraph (1) of this definition is in addition to any fuel authorized to be used in any order granting a fuel mixtures exemption under parts 503 and 504 of these rules. The exclusion of fuel under paragraph (1), together with the authority for such additive treatment, shall apply to any jurisdictional facility, regardless of whether or not it had received an order granting an exemption as of the date these rules are promulgated.</P></NOTE>
<P>(2) If an auxiliary unit to an electric powerplant consumes fuel only for the auxiliary functions of unit ignition, startup, testing, flame stabilization, and other control uses, its use of minimum amounts of natural gas or petroleum is not prohibited by FUA. The measurement of such minimum amounts of fuel is discussed in <I>Associated Electric Cooperative,</I> et al., Interpretation 1980-42 [45 FR 82572, Dec. 15, 1980]. 
</P>
<P><I>Prohibition order</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An order issued pursuant to section 301(b) of the Act that prohibits a powerplant from burning natural gas or petroleum as its primary energy source; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An order issued pursuant to section 301(c) of the Act that prohibits excessive use of natural gas or petroleum in mixtures burned by a powerplant as its primary energy source. 
</P>
<P><I>Rated capacity</I> for the purpose of determining reduction in the rated capacity of an existing powerplant, means design capacity, or, at the election of the facility owner or operator, the actual maximum sustained energy output per unit of time that could be produced, measured in power output, expressed in kilowatts, per unit of time. 
</P>
<P><I>Reconstruction</I> means the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) of this definition, reconstruction shall be found to have taken place whenever the capital expenditures for refurbishment or modification of an electric powerplant on a cumulative basis for the current calendar year and preceding calendar year, are equal to or greater than fifty (50) percent of the capital costs of an equivalent replacement unit of the same capacity, capable of burning the same fuels. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of this definition, reconstruction shall not be found to have taken place whenever: 
</P>
<P>(i) The capital expenditures for refurbishment or modification of an electric powerplant, on a cumulative basis for the current calendar year and preceding calendar year, are not greater than eighty (80) percent of the capital costs of an equivalent replacement unit of the same capacity, capable of burning the same fuels and the unit, as refurbished or modified, will not have a greater fuel consumption capability than the unit it replaces; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The unit being refurbished or modified was destroyed, in whole or substantial part, in a plant accident and the unit, as refurbished or modified, will not have a greater fuel consumption capability than the unit it replaces; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Refurbishment or modification of the unit is undertaken primarily for the purpose of increasing fuel burning efficiency of the unit, and will not result in: 
</P>
<P>(A) Increased remaining useful plant life, or 
</P>
<P>(B) Increased total annual fuel consumption. 
</P>
<P><I>Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976</I> means the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, 42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>SIP</I> means State Implementation Plan pursuant to section 10 of the Clean Air Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Site limitation</I> means a specific physical limitation associated with a particular site that relates to the use of an alternate fuel as a primary energy source for the powerplant such as: 
</P>
<P>(1) Inaccessibility to alternate fuels; 
</P>
<P>(2) Lack of transportation facilities for alternate fuels; 
</P>
<P>(3) Lack of adequate land for facilities for the handling, use and storage of alternate fuels; 
</P>
<P>(4) Lack of adequate land or facilities for the control or disposal of wastes from such powerplant, including lack of land for pollution control equipment or devices necessary to assure compliance with applicable environmental requirements; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Lack of an adequate and reliable supply of water, including water for use in compliance with applicable environmental requirements. 
</P>
<P><I>Solid Waste Disposal Act</I> means the Solid Waste Disposal Act, 42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>State regulatory authority</I> means any State agency that acts as ratemaking or power supply authority with respect to the sale of electricity by any State regulated electric utility. 
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic fuel</I> means any fuel derived from an alternate fuel and does not include any fuels derived from petroleum or natural gas. 
</P>
<P><I>Wetlands areas</I> means, for purposes of section 103(a)(12) of the Act, those geographical areas designated as wetlands areas by State or local environmental regulatory authorities, or in the absence of any such geographic designation, those areas that are inundated by surface or ground water with frequency sufficient to support, and under normal circumstances does or would support, a prevalence of vegetation or aquatic life that requires saturated, seasonably saturated, or tidally saturated soil conditions for growth or reproduction. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-319, as amended by Pub. L. 94-163, Pub. L. 95-70, and Pub. L. 95-620, (15 U.S.C. 719 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, as amended by Pub. L. 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Pub. L. 97-35)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59884, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 15313, 15314, Apr. 9, 1982; 47 FR 17041, Apr. 21, 1982; 47 FR 29210, July 6, 1982; 47 FR 34972, Aug. 12, 1982; 54 FR 52889, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 500.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.1.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 500.3   Electric regions—electric region groupings for reliability measurements under the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following is a list of electric regions for use with regard to the Act. The regions are identified by FERC Power Supply Areas (PSA's) as authorized by section 202(a) of the Federal Power Act except where noted. They will be reviewed annually by ERA. Each grouping meets one or more of the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) Existing centrally dispatched pools and hourly power brokers;
</P>
<P>(2) Systems with joint planning and construction agreements;
</P>
<P>(3) Systems with coordination agreements in the areas of:
</P>
<P>(i) Generation reserve and system reliability criteria;
</P>
<P>(ii) Capacity and energy exchange policies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintenance scheduling; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Emergency procedures for dealing with capacity or fuel shortages; or
</P>
<P>(4) Systems within the same National Electric Reliability Council (NERC) region with historical coordination policies.
</P>
<P>(b) The PSA's referred to in the definition of electric regions in paragraph (a) of this section were first defined by the Federal Power Commission in 1936. The most recent reference to them is given in the <I>1970 National Power Survey,</I> Vol. 1, Pg. 1-3-16. In cases where a petitioner finds an ambiguity in a regional assignment, he shall consult with DOE for an official determination.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Electric Region Groupings and FERC PSA's:
</P>
<P>1. Allegheny Power System (APS)—7, except Duquesne Light Company.
</P>
<P>2. American Electric Power System (AEP)—entire AEP System.
</P>
<P>3. New England Planning Pool (NEPOOL)—1, 2.
</P>
<P>4. New York Planning Pool (NYPP)—3, 4.
</P>
<P>5. Pennsylvania—New Jersey—Maryland interconnection (PJM)—5, 6.
</P>
<P>6. Commonwealth Edison Company—14.
</P>
<P>7. Florida Coordination Group (FCG)—24.
</P>
<P>8. Middle South Utilities—25.
</P>
<P>9. Southern Company—22, 23.
</P>
<P>10. Gulf States Group—35.
</P>
<P>11. Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA)—20.
</P>
<P>12. Virginia—Carolina Group (VACAR)—18, 21.
</P>
<P>13. Central Area Power Coordination Group (CAPCO)—Cleveland Electric Illuminating Company, Toledo Edison Company, Ohio Edison Company, Duquesne Light Company.
</P>
<P>14. Cincinnati, Columbus, Dayton Group (CCD)—Cincinnati Gas and Electric Company, Columbus and Southern Ohio Electric Company, Dayton Power and Light Company.
</P>
<P>15. Kentucky Group—19.
</P>
<P>16. Indiana Group—Indiana Utilities except AEP.
</P>
<P>17. Illinois—Missouri Group (ILLMO)—15, 40.
</P>
<P>18. Michigan Electric Coordinated Systems (MECS)—11.
</P>
<P>19. Wisconsin—Upper Michigan Group (WUMS)—13.
</P>
<P>20. Mid-Continent Area Power Pool (MAAP)—16, 17, 26, 27, 28.
</P>
<P>21. Missouri—Kansas Group (MOKAN)—24, 29.
</P>
<P>22. Oklahoma Group—33, 36.
</P>
<P>23. Texas Interconnected Systems (TIS)—37, 38.
</P>
<P>24. Rocky Mountain Power Pool (RMPP)—31, 32.
</P>
<P>25. Northwest Power Pool (NWPP)—30, 42, 43, 44, 45.
</P>
<P>26. Arizona—New Mexico Group—39, 48 within Arizona. in Nevada and California.
</P>
<P>27. Southern California—Nevada—47, 48. 
</P>
<P>28. Northern California—Nevada—46.
</P>
<P>29. Alaska (non-interconnected systems to be considered separately)—49.
</P>
<P>30. Idaho—Utah Group—41.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="501" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 501—ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES AND SANCTIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 8701 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(OMB Control No.: 1903-0075. See 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981.)


</APPRO>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Part 501 establishes the procedures to be used in proceedings before DOE under parts 500-508 of this chapter except as otherwise provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.2   Prepetition conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Owners and operators of powerplants may request a prepetition conference with OFE for the purpose of discussing the applicability of 10 CFR parts 503 and 504 to their situations and the scope of any exemption or other petition that OFE would accept as adequate for filing purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) The owner or operator who requests a prepetition conference may personally represent himself or may designate a representative to appear on his behalf. A prepetition conference or a request for a prepetition conference does not commence a proceeding before OFE.
</P>
<P>(c) If OFE agrees to waive any filing requirements under § 501.3(d), a memorandum of record stating this fact will be furnished to the potential petitioner within thirty (30) days after the conference. Copies of all applicable memoranda of record must be attached to any subsequently-filed petition.
</P>
<P>(d) A record of all prepetition conferences will be included in the public file. OFE may provide for the taking of a formal transcript of the conference and the transcript will be included in the public file.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52891, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.3   Petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of petitions.</I> Petitions for exemptions are to be filed with OFE at the address given in § 501.11.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance of petition.</I> (1) Upon acceptance (as distinguished from filing) of the petition, OFE shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a Notice of Acceptance of Petition or, in the case of an exemption by certification, a Notice of Acceptance and Availability of Certification, signifying that an exemption proceeding has commenced.
</P>
<P>(2) OFE will notify each petitioner in writing within thirty (30) days of receipt of the petition that it has been accepted or rejected and, if rejected, the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(3) A petition, including supporting documents, will be accepted if the information contained appears to be sufficient to support an OFE determination. Additional information may be requested during the course of the proceeding, and failure to respond to such a request may ultimately result in denial of the requested exemption.
</P>
<P>(4) Acceptance of petition does not constitute a determination that the requested exemption will be granted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rejection of petition.</I> (1) OFE will reject a petition if it does not meet the information of certification requirements established for the relevant exemptions under parts 503 and 504 of this chapter. A written explanation of the reasons for rejection will be furnished with notification of the rejection.
</P>
<P>(2) A timely-filed petition rejected as inadequate will not be rendered untimely if resubmitted in amended form within ninety (90) days of the date of rejection.
</P>
<P>(3) OFE will, within thirty (30) days of receipt of a petition that is found to be incomplete due to minor deficiencies, notify the petitioner of the deficiencies and allow ninety (90) days from the date of notification to cure the specified deficiencies. The failure to cure the deficiencies during this time may result in denial of the requested exemption.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver of filing requirements.</I> Upon its own motion or at the request of a petitioner, OFE may waive some or all of the regulatory requirements if the purposes of FUA would be best achieved by doing so.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 501.4-501.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 501.4-501.5   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.6" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.6   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE will serve all orders, notices interpretations or other documents that it is required to serve, personally or by mail, unless otherwise provided in these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will consider service upon a petitioner's duly authorized representative to be service upon the petitioner. 
</P>
<P>(c) Service by mail is effective upon mailing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52891, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.7" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.7   General filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Except as indicated otherwise, all documents required or permitted to be filed with OFE or DOE in connection with a proceeding under parts 503 and 504 shall be filed in accordance with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of documents.</I> (1) Documents including, but not limited to, applications, requests, complaints, petitions (including petitions for exemption), and other documents submitted in connection therewith, filed with OFE are considered to be filed upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an application for modification or rescission in accordance with subpart G of this part, a reply to a notice of violation, a response to a denial of a claim of confidentiality, or a comment submitted in connection with any proceeding transmitted by registered or certified mail and addressed to the appropriate office is considered to be filed upon mailing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timeliness.</I> Documents are to be filed with the appropriate DOE or OFE office listed in § 501.11. Documents that are to be considered filed upon receipt under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and that are received after regular business hours are deemed filed on the next regular business day. Regular business hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Computation of time.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by FUA, these regulations or by an order, the day of the act, event, or default from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal legal holiday in which event the period runs until the end of the next day that is neither a Saturday, Sunday, nor a Federal legal holiday.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional time after service by mail.</I> Whenever a person is required to perform an act, to cease and desist therefrom, or to initiate a proceeding under this part within a prescribed period of time and the order, notice, interpretation or other document is served by mail, three (3) days shall be added to the prescribed period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Extension of time.</I> When a document is required to be filed within a prescribed time, an extension of time to file may be granted upon good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Signing.</I> All applications, petitions, requests, comments, and other documents that are required to be signed, shall be signed by the person filing the document or a duly authorized representative. Any application, petition, request, complaint, or other document filed by a duly authorized representative shall contain a statement by such person certifying that he is a duly authorized representative, unless an OFE form otherwise requires. (A false certification is unlawful under the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 1001 (1970).)
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Labeling.</I> An application, petition, or other request for action by DOE or OFE should be clearly labeled according to the nature of the action involved, e.g., “Petition for Temporary Exemption;” “Petition for Extension (or Renewal) of Temporary Exemption,” both on the document and on the outside of the envelope in which the document is transmitted.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Obligation to supply information.</I> A person who files an application, petition, complaint, or other request for action is under a continuing obligation during the proceeding to provide DOE or OFE with any new or newly discovered information that is relevant to that proceeding. Such information includes, but is not limited to, information regarding any other application, petition, complaint, or request for action that is subsequently filed by that person with any DOE office or OFE office.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>The same or related matters.</I> In filing a petition or other document requesting OFE action, the person must state whether, to the best of his knowledge, the same or a related issue, act or transaction has been or presently is being considered or investigated by a DOE office, other Federal agency, department or instrumentality, or a State or municipal agency.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Request for confidential treatment.</I> (i) If any person filing a document with DOE or OFE claims that some or all of the information contained in the document is exempt from the mandatory public disclosure requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552); is information referred to in 18 U.S.C. 1905; or is otherwise exempt by law from public disclosure, and if such person requests DOE or OFE not to disclose such information, such person shall make a filing in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The person shall indicate in the original document that it is confidential or contains confidential information and may file a statement specifying the justification for non-disclosure of the information for which confidential treatment is claimed. If the person states that the information comes within the exception in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) for trade secrets and commercial or financial information, such person shall include a statement specifying why such information is privileged or confidential. If a document is not so filed, OFE may assume that there is no objection to public disclosure of the document in its entirety, unless the person subsequently files a claim of confidentiality prior to public disclosure of the document.
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE or OFE retains the right to make its own determination with regard to any claim of confidentiality. Notice of the decision by DOE or OFE to deny such claim, in whole or in part, and an opportunity to respond or take other appropriate action to avoid release shall be given to a person claiming confidentiality of information no less than seven (7) days prior to its public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The above provisions in paragraphs (a)(11) (i) and (ii) of this section do not apply to information submitted on OFE forms that contain their own instructions concerning the treatment of confidential information.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Separate applications, petitions or requests.</I> Each application, petition, or request for DOE or OFE action shall be submitted as a separate document, even if the applications, petitions, or requests deal with the same or a related issue, act, or transaction, or are submitted in connection with the same proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Number of documents to be filed.</I> (1) A petitioner must file an executed original and fourteen (14) copies of all exemption requests submitted to DOE. For certification requests, an original and three (3) copies shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the petitioner requests confidential treatment of some or all of the information submitted, an original and eleven (11) copies of the confidential document and three (3) copies of the document with confidential material deleted must be filed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 15314, Apr. 9, 1982; 54 FR 52891, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.8" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.8   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.9" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.9   Effective date of orders or rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When OFE issues a rule or order imposing a prohibition or granting an exemption (or permit) under FUA, the rule or order will be effective sixty (60) days after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> unless it is stayed, modified, suspended or rescinded. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the appropriate State regulatory authority has not approved a powerplant for which a petition has been filed, such exemption, to the extent it applies to the prohibition under section 201 of FUA against construction without the capability of using coal or another alternate fuel, shall not take effect until all approvals required by such State regulatory authority which relate to construction have been obtained. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52891, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.10" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.10   Order of precedence.</HEAD>
<P>If there is any conflict or inconsistency between the provisions of this part and any other provisions or parts of this chapter, except for general procedures which are unique to part 515 of this chapter, the provisions of this part will control respect to procedure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52891, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.11" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.11   Address for filing documents.</HEAD>
<P>Send all petitions, self-certifications and written communications to the following address: Office of Fossil Energy, Office of Fuels Programs, Coal and Electricity Division, Mail Code FE-52, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52891, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.12" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.12   Public files.</HEAD>
<P>DOE will make available at the Freedom of Information reading room, room 1E190, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC for public inspection and copying any information required by statute and any information that OFE determines should be made available to the public. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52891, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.13" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.13   Appeal.</HEAD>
<P>There is no administrative appeal of any final administrative action to which this part applies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.14" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.14   Notice to Environmental Protection Agency.</HEAD>
<P>A copy of any proposed rule or order that imposes a prohibition, order that imposes a prohibition, or a petition for an exemption or permit, shall be transmitted for comments, if any, to the Administrator and the appropriate Regional Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The Administrator of EPA shall be given the same opportunity to comment and question as is given other interested persons. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52891, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Written Comments, Public Hearings and Conferences During Administrative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.30" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.30   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes the procedures for requests for and the conduct of public hearings; for submission of written comments; and for requests for and conduct of conferences pursuant to an administrative proceeding before OFE. Hearings shall be convened at the request of any interested person, in accordance with section 701(d) of FUA, and shall be held at a time and place to be decided by the Presiding Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.31" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.31   Written comments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New facilities.</I> Except as may be provided elsewhere in these regulations, OFE shall provide a period of at least forty-five (45) days, commencing with publication of the Notice of Acceptance of Petition, of in the case of certification exemptions, Notice of Acceptance and availability of Certification, in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 501.63(a), for submission of written comments concerning a petition for an exemption. Written comments shall be made in accordance with § 501.7. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Existing facilities.</I> Except as may be provided elsewhere in these regulations, OFE shall provide a period of at least 45 days for submission of written comments concerning a proposed prohibition rule or order or a petition for a permit. In the case of a proposed prohibition rule or order issued to an existing electing powerplant, OFE shall also provide for a period of at least 45 days for submission of written comments concerning a Tentative Staff Analysis. This period shall commence on the day after publication of the Notice of Availability of the Tentative Staff Analysis in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In the case of prohibition order proceedings for certifying powerplants under section 301 of FUA, as amended, OFE shall provide a period of at least 45 days, beginning the day after the Notice of Acceptance of certification is published, for submission of written comments concerning the certification and OFE's proposed prohibition order, and requests for public hearings. Prohibition order proceedings under section 301, as amended by OBRA, will have only one period of 45 days, since no Tentative Staff Analysis will be prepared. The comment period may be extended by OFE in accordance with § 501.7. See § 501.52(b) of this part for further information with respect to the comment period. Written comments shall be filed in accordance with § 501.7.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3289 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (Pub. L. 97-35); E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 50848, Nov. 10, 1982; 54 FR 52892, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.32" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.32   Conferences (other than prepetition conferences).</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time following commencement of a proceeding before OFE, an interested person may request a conference with the staff of OFE to discuss a petition, permit or any other issue pending before OFE. The request for a conference should generally be in writing and should indicate the subjects to be covered and should describe the requester's interest in the proceeding. Conferences held after the commencement of an administrative proceeding before OFE shall be convened at the discretion of OFE or the Presiding Officer.
</P>
<P>(b) When OFE convenes a conference in accordance with this section, any person invited may present views as to the issue or issues involved. Documentary evidence may be submitted at the conference and such evidence, to the extent that it is not deemed to be confidential, will be included in the administrative record. OFE will not normally have a transcript of the conference prepared but may do so at its discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) Because a conference is solely for the exchange of views incident to a proceeding, there will be no formal report or findings by OFE unless OFE in its discretion determines that the preparation of a report or findings would be advisable. OFE will, however, place in the public file a record of any conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.33" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.33   Request for a public hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New facilities.</I> In the case of a petition for an exemption under title II of FUA, any interested person may submit a written request that OFE convene a public hearing in accordance with section 701 of FUA no later than forty-five (45) days after publication of either the Notice of Acceptance of a petition, or in the case of a certification exemption, the publication of the Notice of Acceptance of Certification. This time period may be extended at the discretion of OFE. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Existing powerplants.</I> In the case of a petition for an exemption from a prohibition imposed by a final rule or order issued by OFE to an electing powerplant under former sections of title III of FUA or a petition for a permit under § 504.1, any interested person may submit a written request that OFE convene a public hearing in accordance with section 701 of FUA within 45 days after the notice of the filing of a petition is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In the case of a proposed prohibition rule or order issued to an electing powerplant under former section 301, the 45 day period in which to request a public hearing shall commence upon the publication of the Notice of Availability of the Tentative Staff Analysis. In the case of a proposed prohibition order to be issued to certifying powerplants under section 301 of FUA, as amended, the 45 day period in which to request a public hearing commences upon publication of the Notice of Acceptance of Certification. This time limit may be extended at the discretion of OFE in accordance with § 501.7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request for a public hearing must be in writing and must include a description of the requesting party's interest in the proceeding and a statement of the issues involved. The request should, to the extent possible, identify any witnesses that are to be called, summarize the anticipated testimony to be given at the hearing, and outline questions that are to be posed.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (Pub. L. 97-35); E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 50848, Nov. 10, 1982; 54 FR 52892, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.34" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.34   Public hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A public hearing under this subsection is for the purpose of insuring that all issues are fully and properly developed, but is not a formal adjudicatory hearing subject to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 554 and 556.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opportunity to be heard at a public hearing.</I> (1) Any interested person, may request, and OFE will provide, an opportunity to present oral or written data, views and arguments at a public hearing on any proposed prohibition rule or order, or on any petition for an exemption or permit. An interested person may file a request to be listed as a party to a hearing on the service list prepared by the Presiding Officer pursuant to § 501.34(d) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Participants at the public hearing will have an opportunity to present oral or written data, views and arguments.
</P>
<P>(3) A request for a public hearing may be withdrawn by the requestor at any time. If other persons have requested to participate as parties in the public hearing, OFE may cancel the hearing only if all parties agree to cancellation. OFE will give notice, whenever possible, in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the cancellation of any hearings for which there has been prior notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presiding Officer.</I> OFE will appoint a Presiding Officer to conduct the public hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Powers of the Presiding Officer.</I> The Presiding Officer is responsible for orderly conduct of the hearing and for certification of the record of the public hearing. The Presiding Officer will not prepare any recommended findings, conclusions, or any other recommendations for disposition of a particular case, except those of a procedural nature. The Presiding Officer has, but is not limited to the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) Administer oaths, affirmations and protective orders;
</P>
<P>(2) Issue administrative subpoenas and rule on motions to modify or withdraw subpoenas that he has issued;
</P>
<P>(3) Rule on questions as to relevance and materiality of evidence;
</P>
<P>(4) Regulate the course of the public hearing; 
</P>
<P>(5) Hold conferences for the simplification of issues by consent of the parties; 
</P>
<P>(6) Require submission of evidence in writing where appropriate; 
</P>
<P>(7) Establish service lists; 
</P>
<P>(8) Dispose of procedural requests and similar matters; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Take other actions authorized by these rules. 
</P>
<FP>The Presiding Officer may also limit the number of witnesses to be presented by any party and may impose reasonable time limits for testimony. The Presiding Officer shall establish and maintain a service list that contains the names and addresses of all parties to the OFE proceeding. At the time the Presiding Officer certifies the record, he will provide the staff of OFE with an index of the issues addressed in the record. 
</FP>
<P>(e) <I>Notice.</I> OFE will convene a public hearing only after publishing a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that states the time, place and nature of the public hearing. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Opportunity to question at the public hearing.</I> At any public hearing requested pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, with respect to disputed issues of material fact, OFE will provide any interested person an opportunity to question: 
</P>
<P>(1) Other interested persons who make oral presentations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Employees and contractors of the United States who have made written or oral presentations or who have participated in the development of the proposed rule or order or in the consideration of the petition for an exemption or permit; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Experts and consultants who have provided information to any person who makes an oral presentation and which is contained in or referred to in such presentation. 
</P>
<P>(g) OFE encourages persons who wish to question Government witnesses to submit their questions at least ten (10) days in advance of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(h) The Presiding Officer will allow questions by any interested person to be asked of those making presentations or submitting information, data, analyses or views at the hearing. The Presiding Officer may restrict questioning if he determines that such questioning is duplicative or is not likely to result in a timely and effective resolution of issues pending in the administrative proceeding for which the hearing is being conducted. 
</P>
<P>(i) The Presiding Officer or OFE may exercise discretion to control a hearing by denying, temporarily or permanently, the privilege of participating in a particular OFE hearing if OFE finds, for example, that a person: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has knowingly made false or misleading statements, either orally or in writing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Has knowingly filed false affidavits or other writings; 
</P>
<P>(3) Lacks the specific authority to represent the person seeking an OFE action; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Has disrupted or is disrupting a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Evidence.</I> (1) The Presiding Officer is responsible for orderly submission of information, data, materials, views or other evidence into the record of the public hearing. The Presiding Officer may exclude any evidence that is irrelevant, immaterial or unduly repetitious. Judicial rules of evidence do not apply. 
</P>
<P>(2) Documentary material must be of a size consistent with ease of handling, transportation and filing, and a reasonable number of copies should be made available at the public hearing for the use of interested persons. An original and fourteen (14) copies shall be furnished to the Presiding Officer and one copy to each party listed on the service list. Large exhibits that are used during the hearing must be provided on no larger than 11
<FR>1/2</FR>″ × 14″ legal size paper if they are to be submitted into the hearing record. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Hearing record.</I> OFE will have a verbatim transcript made of the public hearing. The hearing record shall remain open for a period of fourteen (14) days following the public hearing, unless extended by OFE, during which time the participants at the hearing may submit additional written statements which will be made part of the administrative record and will be served by the Presiding Officer upon those parties listed on the service list. OFE may also request additional information, data or analysis following the hearing in order to resolve disputed issues in the record. If OFE receives or obtains any relevant information or evidence that is placed in the record after the close of the public hearing or comment period, it will so notify all participants, and allow an additional fourteen (14) days for submission of evidence in rebuttal. In addition, OFE may, in its discretion, re-open the hearing at the request of a party or participant, to permit further rebuttal of evidence or statements submitted to OFE and made part of the hearing record after the close of the hearing. The transcript, together with any written comments submitted in the course of the proceeding, will be made part of the record available for public inspection and copying at the OFE Public Information Office, as provided in § 501.12. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.35" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.35   Public file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents.</I> The public file shall consist of the rule, order, or petition, with supporting data and supplemental information, and all data and information submitted by interested persons. Materials which are claimed by any party to be exempt from public disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) shall be excised from the public file provided OFE has made a determination that the material is confidential in accordance with § 501.7(a)(11) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability.</I> The public file shall be available for inspection at room 1E190, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC. Photocopies may be made available, on request. The charge for such copies shall be made in accordance with a written schedule. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52892, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Subpoenas, Special Report Orders, Oaths and Witnesses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.40" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.40   Issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> As authorized by section 711 of FUA and section 645 of the DEOA, the Administrator, his duly authorized agent or a Presiding Officer may, in accordance with 10 CFR 205.8, sign, issue, and serve subpoenas; issue special report orders (SRO); administer oaths and affirmations; take sworn testimony, compel attendance of and sequester witnesses; control the dissemination of any record of testimony taken pursuant to this section; and subpoena and reproduce books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, contracts, agreements, or other relevant records of tangible evidence including, but not limited to, information retained in computerized or other automated systems in the possession of the subpoenaed person. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petition to withdraw or modify.</I> Prior to the time specified for compliance in the subpoena or SRO, the person to whom the subpoena or SRO is directed may apply for its withdrawal or modification as provided in 10 CFR 205.8, except that if the subpoena or SRO is issued by a duly appointed Presiding Officer, the request to withdraw or modify must be addressed to that Presiding Officer, and its grant or denial will be decided by him. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Prohibition Rules and Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.50" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.50   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>Except in conjunction with a prohibition order requested by the intended recipient, OFE shall not propose to prohibit or prohibit by rule or order the use of petroleum or natural gas either as a primary energy source or in amounts in excess of the minimum amount necessary to maintain reliability of operation consistent with reasonable fuel efficiency in an existing installation unless and until OFE adopts rules establishing regulatory requirements governing the issuance of such orders and rules in accordance with the applicable procedural and substantive requirements of law.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (Pub. L. 97-35); E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50848, Nov. 10, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.51" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.51   Prohibitions by order—electing powerplants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OFE may prohibit by order the use of petroleum or natural gas as a primary energy source or in amounts in excess of the minimum amount necessary to maintain reliability of operation consistent with reasonable fuel efficiency in an electing powerplant, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) That facility has not been identified as a member of a category subject to a final rule at the time of the issuance of such order; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of § 504.6 have been met. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of order and public participation.</I> (1) OFE may hold a conference with the proposed order recipient prior to issuing the proposed order. 
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to section 701 of FUA, prior to the issuance of a final order to an electing powerplant, OFE shall publish a proposed order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> together with a statement of the reasons for the order. In the case of a proposed order that would prohibit the use of petroleum or natural gas as a primary energy source, the finding required by former section 301(b)(1) of the Act shall be published with such proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) OFE shall provide a period for the submission of written comments of at least three months after the date of the proposed order. During this period, the recipient of the proposed order and any other interested person must submit any evidence that they have determined at that time to support their respective positions as to each of the findings that OFE is required to make under section 301(b) of the Act. A proposed order recipient may submit additional new evidence at any time prior to the close of the public comment period which follows publication of the Tentative Staff Analysis or prior to the close of the record of any public hearing, whichever occurs later. A request by the proposed order recipient for an extension of the three-month period may be granted at OFE's discretion.
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent to the end of the comment period, OFE will issue a notice of whether OFE intends to proceed with the prohibition order proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(5) An owner or operator of a facility that may be subject to an order may demonstrate prior to issuance of a final prohibition order that the facility would qualify for an exemption if the prohibition had been established by rule. OFE will not delay the issuance of a final prohibition order or stay the effective date of such an order for the purpose of determining whether a proposed order recipient qualifies for a particular exemption unless the demonstration or qualification is submitted prior to or during the second three-month comment period, commencing after issuance of a notice of intention to proceed, or unless materials submitted after the period (i) could not have been submitted during the period through the exercise of due diligence, (ii) address material changes in fact or law occurring after the close of the period, or (iii) consist of amplification or rebuttal occasioned by the subsequent course of the proceeding. A request by the proposed order recipient for an extension of this time period may be granted at OFE's discretion. 
</P>
<P>(6) Subsequent to the end of the second three (3) month period, OFE will, if it intends to issue a final prohibition order, prepare and issue a Notice of Availability of a Tentative Staff Analysis. Interested persons wishing a hearing must request a hearing within forty-five (45) day after issuance of the Notice of Availability of the Tentative Staff Analysis. During this forty-five (45) days period, interested persons may also submit written comments on the Tentative Staff Analysis. 
</P>
<P>(7) If a hearing has been requested, OFE shall provide interested persons with an opportunity to present oral data, views and arguments at a public hearing held in accordance with subpart C of this part. The hearing will consider the findings which OFE must make in order to issue a final prohibition order and any exemption for which the proposed order recipient submitted its demonstration in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(8) Upon request by the recipient of the proposed prohibition order, the combined public comment periods provided for in this section may be reduced to a minimum of forty-five (45) days from the time of publication of the proposed order. 
</P>
<P>(9) OFE may terminate a prohibition order proceeding at any time prior to the date upon which a final order shall become effective. Should OFE terminate the proceeding, it will notify the proposed order recipient, and publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision to issue a final order.</I> (1) OFE will base its determination to issue an order on consideration of the whole record or those parts thereof cited by a party and supported by and in accordance with reliable, probative and substantial evidence. 
</P>
<P>(2) OFE shall include in the final order a written statement of the pertinent facts, a statement of the basis upon which the final order is issued, a recitation of the conclusions regarding the required findings and qualifications for exemptions. The final order shall state the effective date of the prohibition contained therein. If it is demonstrated that the facility would have been granted a temporary exemption, the effective date of the prohibition contained in the final order shall be delayed until such time as the temporary exemption would have terminated. If it is demonstrated that a facility will need a period of time to comply with the final order, the effective date of the prohibition contained in the final order may be delayed, in OFE's discretion, so as to allow an order recipient to comply with the final order. 
</P>
<P>(3) OFE will enclose with a copy of the final order, where appropriate, a schedule of steps that should be taken by a stated date (a compliance schedule) to ensure that the affected facility will be able to comply with the prohibitions stated in the order by the effective date of the prohibition contained in the final order. The compliance schedule may require the affected person to take steps with regard to a unit 60 days after service of the final order. 
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the final order and a summary of the basis therefore will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The order will become effective 60 days after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for order.</I> (1) A proceeding for issuance of a prohibition order to a specific unit may be commenced by OFE, in its sole discretion, in response to a request for an order filed by the owner or operator of a facility. 
</P>
<P>(2) A petition requesting OFE to commence a prohibition order proceeding should include the following information for all units to be covered by the prohibition order: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the reasons the owner or operator is seeking the issuance of a prohibition order; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Sufficient information for OFE to make the findings required by section 301(b) of FUA.
</P>
<P>(3) If OFE determines to accept the request, OFE shall publish a proposed order in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> together with a statement of the reasons for the order.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974; Pub. L. 93-319, as amended by Pub. L. 94-163, Pub. L. 95-70, (15 U.S.C. 719 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, (Pub. L. 97-35); E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 17042, Apr. 21, 1982; 47 FR 50848, Nov. 10, 1982; 54 FR 52892, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.52" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.52   Prohibitions by order—certifying powerplants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OFE may prohibit by order the use of petroleum or natural gas as a primary energy source or in amounts in excess of the minimum amount necessary to maintain reliability of operation consistent with maintaining reasonable fuel efficiency in an existing powerplant if the owner or operator of the powerplant certifies, and OFE concurs in such certification in accordance with the requirements of §§ 504.5, 504.6 and 504.8.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of order and participation.</I> (1) OFE may hold a conference with the proposed order recipient, at the recipient's election, prior to issuing the proposed order. The conference may resolve any questions regarding the certification required by section 301 of the Act, as amended, and §§ 504.5, 504.6, and 504.8, and OFE's review and concurrence therein.
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to section 701(b) of FUA, prior to the issuance of a final order to a certifying powerplant owner or operator, OFE must publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a proposed prohibition order stating the reasons for such order. OFE will review all of the information submitted by a proposed order recipient within 60 days after receipt by OFE. If the certification is complete, OFE will, within 30 days after the end of the 60 day review period, publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a Notice of Acceptance of certification together with a proposed prohibition order stating therein the reasons for such order. This commences the prohibition order proceeding. If OFE does not believe it is able to concur in the certification, OFE shall notify the proposed order recipient and shall publish a Notice of Proposed Non-Concurrence in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 30 days after the end of the 60 day review period. If OFE finds that the certification with compliance schedule is incomplete, OFE will notify the proposed prohibition order recipient as to the deficiencies, and provide an additional period of 30 days for the certification to be amended and resubmitted. If a complete certification is not submitted within this period, the proceeding shall be terminated in accordance with § 501.52(b)(5). OFE will notify the proposed order recipient and other parties to the proceeding of the termination and publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> OFE, on its own motion, may extend any period of time by publishing a notice to that effect in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(3) The publication of the Notice of Acceptance or Notice of Proposed Non-Concurrence commences a period of 45 days during which interested persons may submit written comments or request a public hearing. During this period, the recipient of the proposed order and any other interested person may submit any evidence that they have available relating to the proposed order, the certification or the concurrence that OFE must make. A proposed order recipient may submit additional new evidence at any time prior to the close of the public comment period which follows the commencement of the proceeding or prior to the close of the record of any public hearing, whichever occurs later. A request for an extension of the 45 day period may be granted at OFE's discretion. In the case of a Notice of Acceptance, as set forth in § 504.9, no final prohibition order can be issued until any necessary environmental review pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C 4321 <I>et seq.</I> (NEPA) has been completed. Upon completion of the NEPA review and unless OFE determines on the basis of the record of the proceeding that the certification fails to meet the requirements of §§ 504.5, 504.6, and 504.8, OFE shall publish a final prohibition order, together with the information required by paragraph (c) of this section. In the case of a Notice of Proposed Non-Concurrence, at the end of the 45 day comment period, OFE will notify the proposed order recipient and parties to the proceeding and publish a final Notice of Non-Concurrence in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> if OFE determines it cannot concur in the certification based upon additional information submitted during the proceeding. If, at the end of the 45 day period, OFE believes it can concur in the certification, OFE will notify the proposed order recipient and parties to the proceeding and publish a Notice of Acceptance followed by a new 45 day comment period.
</P>
<P>(4) If a hearing has been requested, OFE shall provide interested persons with an opportunity to present oral data, views and arguments at a public hearing held in accordance with subpart C of this part. The hearing may consider, among other matters, the sufficiency of the certification of the owner or operator of the powerplant required by section 301 of FUA, as amended, and §§ 504.5, 504.6, and 504.8 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) OFE may terminate a prohibition order proceeding at any time prior to the date upon which a final prohibition order is issued whenever OFE believes, from any information contained in the record of the proceeding, that the certification does not meet the requirements of section 301 of the Act, as amended, or §§ 504.5, 504.6, and 504.8 of these regulations. If OFE terminates the proceeding or publishes a final Notice of Non-Concurrence, or the proposed order recipient fails to submit a complete certification, OFE will notify the proposed order recipient and other parties to the proceeding and publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In such event, the proposed order recipient may submit a new certification under any provision of section 301 of the Act, as amended, at a later date. Specifically, a Notice of Non-Concurrence under either section 301(b) or 301(c) shall not affect a proposed order recipient's ability to make a certification under the other subsection.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record and decision to issue a final order.</I> (1) OFE will base its determination to issue an order on consideration of the whole record or those parts thereof cited by a party and supported by and in accordance with reliable, probative and substantial evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) OFE shall include in the final order a written statement of the basis upon which the final order is issued, and its concurrence in the required certification. A copy of the final order and a summary of the basis therefor will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> While the prohibition order is final for purposes of judicial review under section 702 of FUA, the prohibitions contained in the final order shall not become effective for purposes of amendment under section 301(d) of FUA, as amended, and § 501.52(d) of these regulations until the effective date of the prohibitions stated in the order, or, where the order is subject to one or more conditions subsequent listed in the prohibition order compliance schedule, until all its conditions are met.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendment to certifications under §§ 504.5 and 504.6.</I> The proposed prohibition order recipient may amend its compliance schedule under § 504.5(d), or its certification under section 301 of FUA, as amended, and §§ 504.5, 504.6 and 504.8 of these regulations in order to take into account changes in relevant facts and circumstances at any time prior to the effective date of the prohibitions contained in the final prohibition order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rescission of prohibition orders.</I> The rescission or modification of final prohibition orders issued to existing electric powerplants will be governed by the procedure in § 501.101 of these regulations.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1903-0077)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-319, as amended by Pub. L. 94-163, Pub. L. 95-70, and Pub. L. 95-620, 15 U.S.C. 719 <I>et seq.;</I> Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, as amended by Pub. L. 97-35, 42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.;</I> Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, (Pub. L. 97-35))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17042, Apr. 21, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 501.53-501.56" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 501.53-501.56   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Exemptions and Certifications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.60" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.60   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) (1) If the owner or operator plans to construct a new baseload powerplant and the unit will not be in compliance with the prohibition contained in section 201(a) of FUA, this subpart establishes the procedures for filing a petition requesting a temporary or permanent exemption under, respectively, sections 211 and 212 of FUA.
</P>
<P>(2) Self-certification alternative. If the owner or operator plans to construct a new baseload powerplant not in compliance with the prohibitions contained in section 201(a) of FUA, this subpart establishes the procedures for the filing of a self-certification under section 201(d) of FUA.
</P>
<P>(3) If the petitioner owns, operates or controls a new powerplant, this subpart provides the procedures for filing a petition requesting extension of a temporary exemption granted under sections 211 or 311 of FUA.
</P>
<P>(4) If the petitioner owns, operates or controls a new or existing powerplant or MFBI, this subpart provides the procedures for filing a petition requesting extension of a temporary exemption granted under section 211 or section 311 of FUA.
</P>
<P>(b) If the petition is for an extension of a temporary exemption, the petitioner must apply for this extension at least (90) days prior to the expiration of the temporary exemption.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Pub. L. 97-35; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 50849, Nov. 10, 1982; 54 FR 52892, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.61" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.61   Certification contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A self-certification filed under section 201(d) of FUA should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Owner's name and address.
</P>
<P>(2) Operator's name and address.
</P>
<P>(3) Plant location and address.
</P>
<P>(4) Plant configuration (combined cycle, simple cycle, topping cycle, etc.)
</P>
<P>(5) Design capacity in megawatts (MW).
</P>
<P>(6) Fuel(s) to be used by the new facility.
</P>
<P>(7) Name of utility purchasing electricity from the proposed facility and percent of total output to be sold.
</P>
<P>(8) Date unit is expected to be placed in service.
</P>
<P>(9) Certification by an officer of the company or his designated representative certifying that the proposed facility:
</P>
<P>(i) Has sufficient inherent design characteristics to permit the addition of equipment (including all necessary pollution devices) necessary to render such electric powerplant capable of using coal or another alternate fuel as its primary energy source; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not physically, structurally, or technologically precluded from using coal or another alternate fuel as its primary energy source.
</P>
<P>(b) A self-certification filed pursuant to § 501.61(a) shall be effective to establish compliance with the requirement of section 201(a) of FUA as of the date filed.
</P>
<P>(c) OFE will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within fifteen days reciting that the certification has been filed. Publication of this notice does not serve to commence a public comment period.
</P>
<P>(d) OFE will notify the owner or operator within 60 days if supporting documentation is needed to verify the certification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52892, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.62" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.62   Petition contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for exemption should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the petitioner;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and location of the unit for which an exemption is being requested;
</P>
<P>(3) The specific exemption(s) being requested; and
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who can supply further information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Table of contents.</I> Include only those sections contained in the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Introduction.</I> Include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Description of the facility under consideration;
</P>
<P>(2) Description of the unit and fuel the petitioner proposes to burn in that unit, including the purpose of and need for the unit; and
</P>
<P>(3) Description of the operational requirements for the unit, including size (capacity, input and output in millions of Btu's per hour), output in terms of product or service to be supplied, fuel capability, and operating mode, including capacity factor, utilization factor, and fluctuations in the load.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General requirements.</I> The evidence required under part 503 subpart B for each exemption(s) for which the petitioner is applying:
</P>
<P>(1) No alternate power supply (§ 503.8):
</P>
<P>(2) Use of mixtures (§ 503.9);
</P>
<P>(3) Alternative site (§ 503.11);
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance Plan (§ 503.12);
</P>
<P>(5) Environmental impact analysis (§ 503.13);
</P>
<P>(6) Fuels search (§ 503.14).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Specific evidence.</I> Evidence required for each exemption, segregated by exemption (part 503 subparts C and D).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>References.</I> (1) Specify the reports, documents, experts, and other sources consulted in compiling the petition. Cite these sources in accordance with acceptable documentation standards, and indicate the part of the petition to which they apply. If the source is unusual or little known, briefly describe its contents.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify at the end of each section of the petition any information or any statement based, in whole or in part, on information or principles which, to petitioner's knowledge, represent significant innovations to or departures from generally accepted facts or principles.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appendices.</I> Include in the appendices material which the petitioner believes substantiates any analyses fundamental to the petition, materials prepared in connection with it, and any other documents, studies, or analyses which are believed to be relevant to the decision to be made. Also, include in the appendices copies of any forms submitted as part of the petition.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>List of preparers.</I> List the names with the qualifications and professional credentials of the principal contributors to the preparation of the petition. Indicate the sections or subject matters for which each principal contributor was responsible.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Incorporation by reference.</I> Pertinent information may be incorporated into the petition by reference when this can be done without impeding agency and public review. Referenced materials must be specifically identified and their contents briefly described in the petition. To incorporate by reference, the material must be submitted with the petition, or if previously submitted, the office to which it was submitted must be identified in the petition. The petitioner cannot incorporate by reference material based on proprietary data not available to OFE for review.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Pub. L. 97-35; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 50849, Nov. 10, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.63" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.63   Notice of the commencement of an administrative proceeding on an exemption petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When a petition is accepted, OFE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a Notice of Acceptance, or, in the case of a certification exemption, a Notice of Acceptance and Availability of Certification, signifying that an exemption proceeding has commenced. The notice will include a summary of the exemption petition, and publication will commence a public comment period of no less than forty-five (45) days during which interested parties may file written comments concerning the petition. In the case of a certification exemption, interested persons may request a public hearing during this period, pursuant to § 501.33.
</P>
<P>(2) OFE will notify the appropriate State agency having apparent primary authority to permit or regulate the construction or operation of a powerplant that an exemption proceeding has commenced and will consult with this agency to the maximum extent practicable. Copies of all accepted petitions also will be forwarded to EPA, as provided in § 501.14(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) In processing an exemption petition, OFE shall comply with the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), the Council on Environmental Quality's implementing regulations, and the DOE guidelines implementing those regulations (45 FR 20694, Mar. 28, 1980). Compliance with NEPA may involve the preparation of (1) an environmental impact statement (EIS) evaluating the grant or denial of an exemption petition, (2) an environmental assessment (EA), or (3) a memorandum to the file finding that the grant of the requested petition would not be considered a major federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. If an EIS is required, OFE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare an EIS as soon as practicable after commencement of the proceeding. A public meeting may be held pursuant to 40 CFR 1501.7 to solicit comments or suggestions on the structure and content of the EIS.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52893, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.64" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.64   Publication of notice of availability of tentative staff analysis.</HEAD>
<P>OFE will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a Notice of the Availability of Tentative Staff Analysis for the noncertification temporary public interest exemption, for noncertification environmental exemptions, and for a cogeneration exemption based on the public interest. OFE will provide a public comment period of at least fourteen (14) days from the date of publication during which interested persons may make written comments and request a public hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.65" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.65   Publication of notice of availability of draft EIS.</HEAD>
<P>A Notice of Availability of any draft EIS will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and comments thereon will also be solicited. Interested persons may request a hearing on any draft EIS. Such hearing must be requested within thirty (30) days of publication of the Notice of Availability of the draft EIS. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52893, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.66" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.66   OFE evaluation of the record, decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The administrative record in a proceeding under this part will consist of the proposed prohibition order and/or petition and related documents, all relevant evidence presented at the public hearing, all written comments, and any other information in the possession of OFE and made a part of the public record of the proceeding. OFE will base its determination to issue a rule or order on consideration of the whole record, or those parts thereof cited by a party and supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) OFE may investigate and corroborate any statement in any petition, document, or public comments submitted to it. OFE also may use any relevant facts it possesses in its evaluation and may request submissions from third persons relevant to the petition or other documents. OFE also may request additional information, data, or analyses following a public hearing, if any, if this information is necessary to resolve disputed issues in the record. Any relevant information received by OFE following the hearing that is not declared to be confidential under § 501.7(a)(11) shall be made part of the public record with opportunity provided for rebuttal.
</P>
<P>(c) OFE will notify all participants if, after the close of any public hearing or comment period, it receives or obtains any relevant information or evidence. Participants may respond to such information or evidence in writing within fourteen (14) days of such notification. If OFE finds that the additional information or evidence relates to material issues of disputed fact and may significantly influence the outcome of the proceeding, OFE shall reopen the hearing on the issue or issues to which the additional information or evidence relates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.67" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.67   Petition redesignations.</HEAD>
<P>OFE, with the petitioner's approval, will redesignate an exemption petition if the petitioner qualifies for an exemption other than the one originally requested, even though he may not qualify for the specific exemption originally requested, or be entitled to the full exemption period provided by requested exemption. OFE shall give public notice of any redesignation of an exemption petition, and where a public hearing has been requested notice shall be given at least thirty (30) days prior to such hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.68" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.68   Decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) OFE shall issue an order either granting or denying the petition for an exemption or permit within six (6) months after the end of the period for public comment and hearing applicable to any petition.
</P>
<P>(2) OFE may extend the six (6) month period for decision to a date certain by publishing notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and stating the reasons for such extension.
</P>
<P>(3) OFE will publish a final EIS at least thirty (30) days prior to take issuance of the final order in all cases where an EIS is required.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) OFE shall serve a copy of the order granting or denying a petition for exemption to the petitioner and all persons on the service list in cases involving a public hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) OFE shall publish any order granting or denying a petition under this subpart in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> together with a statement of the reasons for the grant or denial.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Any order granting or denying a petition for exemption shall be based upon consideration of the whole record or those parts thereof cited by a party and supported by, and in accordance with, reliable, probative and substantive evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) The denial of a petition for exemption shall be without prejudice to the petitioner's right to submit an amended petition. OFE may, however, reject the amended petition if it is not materially different from the denied petition.
</P>
<P>(d) OFE may design any terms and conditions included in any temporary exemption issued or extended under section 211 of FUA, to ensure, among other things, that upon expiration of the exemption the persons and powerplant covered by the exemption will comply with the applicable prohibitions under FUA. For purposes of the provision, the subsequent grant of a permanent exemption to the subject unit shall be deemed compliance with applicable prohibitions. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Pub. L. 97-35; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 50849, Nov. 10, 1982; 54 FR 52893, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.69" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.6.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.69   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Any person aggrieved by any order issued by OFE under this subpart, must file, within sixty (60) days of publication of the final order in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a petition for judicial review in the United States Court of Appeals for the Circuit wherein he resides, or has his principal place of business. Exhaustion of administrative remedies for purposes of judicial review does not require filing a petition pursuant to subpart G for modification or rescission of the order to be reviewed. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Requests for Modification or Rescission of a Rule or Order</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.100" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.100   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Anyone may request that OFE commence a rulemaking proceeding pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(e); however, this subpart provides the procedures to be followed by—
</P>
<P>(1) An interested person seeking the modification or rescission of a prohibition by rule applicable to a new facility;
</P>
<P>(2) An owner or operator of a facility named in a prohibition by rule requesting the modification or rescission of that rule; or
</P>
<P>(3) An owner or operator subject to an exemption order or a specific prohibition imposed by order requesting the modification or a rescission of that order.
</P>
<P>(b) OFE also may commence a modification or rescission proceeding on its own initiative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.101" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.101   Proceedings to modify or rescind a rule or order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a request duly filed by an interested person, OFE may commence a proceeding to modify or rescind a rule or order. If OFE determines that a request to modify or rescind a rule or order does not warrant commencement of a proceeding, it will deny the request and issue a brief statement of the reason(s) for the denial.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for modification or rescission of a rule or order must comply with the requirements of § 501.7 and must be filed at the address set forth in § 501.11.
</P>
<P>(c) Notice of the request for modification or rescission of an order must be given by the requester to each party to the original proceeding that resulted in the issuance of the original order for which modification or rescission is sought. If the number of parties to the original proceeding is too large to allow actual notice at a reasonable cost or within a reasonable time, a requester may ask that OFE give notice to the parties by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>; however, this alternate notice does not bind OFE to commence a proceeding, if it subsequently determines that the request is not warranted.
</P>
<P>(d) If OFE determines to grant a request to commence a proceeding to rescind or modify a rule or order, or OFE on its own initiative, commences a proceeding for the modification or rescission of a rule or order, it will give notice, either by service of a written notice or by oral communication (which communication must be promptly confirmed in writing) to each person upon whom the order was served that OFE proposes to modify or rescind, or, alternatively, by publication of notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> OFE will give a reasonable period of time for each person notified to file a written response.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A copy of any written comments submitted to OFE under this subpart by a party to the original proceeding must also be sent to the requester. The party submitting such comments must certify to OFE that he has sent a copy of such comments to the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) OFE may notify other persons participating in the proceeding of the comments and provide an opportunity for those notified to respond.
</P>
<P>(f) A request for modification or rescission of a rule or order must contain a complete statement of all facts relevant to the action sought. The request must also include the names and addresses of all reasonably ascertainable persons who will be affected. Pertinent provisions contained in any documents believed to support a request may be briefly described, however, OFE reserves the right to obtain copies of any significant documents that will assist in making a determination on the merits of a request. The request must identify the specific order or rule for which modification or rescission is sought. A request should also indicate whether an informal conference will facilitate OFE's determination to commence, or not to commence a proceeding, or will assist OFE in making any determinations on material issues raised by the request.
</P>
<P>(g) A decision by OFE to commence a proceeding under this subpart does not entitle the requester to a public hearing on the request for modification or rescission. A public hearing may be held, however, if, in its discretion, OFE considers that a public hearing will advance its evaluation of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.102" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.102   OFE evaluation of the record, decision and order for modification or rescission of a rule or order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OFE will consider the entire administrative record in its evaluation of the decision and order for modification or rescission of a rule or order. OFE may investigate and corroborate any statement in the petition or related documents and may utilize in its evaluation any relevant facts obtained by its investigations. OFE may solicit or accept submissions from third persons relevant to any request under this subpart and all interested persons will be afforded an opportunity to respond to these submissions. OFE may, in its discretion and on its own initiative, convene a conference, if it considers that a conference will advance its evaluation of the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> Except where modification or rescission of a rule or order is initiated by OFE, OFE's decision to rescind or modify a rule or order will be based on a determination that there are significantly changed circumstances with respect to the applicability of a particular prohibition or exemption to the requester. OFE believes that there may be “significantly changed circumstances”, if:
</P>
<P>(1) Significant material facts are subsequently discovered which were not known and could not have been known to the petitioner or to OFE at the time of the original proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A law, regulation, interpretation, ruling, order or decision on appeal that was in effect at the time of the proceeding upon which the rule or order is based and which, if it had been made known to OFE, would have been relevant to the proceeding and would have substantially altered the outcome is subsequently discovered; or
</P>
<P>(3) There has been a substantial change in the facts or circumstances upon which an outstanding and continuing order was based, which change occurred during the interval between issuance of the order and the date of filing of the request under this subpart, and was caused by force or circumstances beyond the requester's control.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.103" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.103   OFE decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OFE shall issue an appropriate rule or order after considering the request for modification or rescission of a rule or order and other relevant information received during the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) OFE will either grant or deny the request for modification or rescission and will briefly state the pertinent facts and legal basis for the decision.
</P>
<P>(c) OFE will serve the rule or order granting or denying the request for modification or rescission upon the requester, or, if the action was initiated by OFE, upon the owner or operator of the affected powerplant or installation. OFE will publish a notice of the issuance of a rule or order modifying or rescinding a rule or order in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Requests for Stay</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.120" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.120   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures for the request and issuance of a stay of a rule or order or other requirement issued or imposed by OFE or these regulations but does not apply to the mandatory stays provided for in sections 202(b) and 301(a) of FUA. The application for a stay under this subpart will only be considered incidental to a proceeding on a request for modification or rescission of a final prohibition rule or order.
</P>
<P>(b) The petitioner must comply with all final and effective OFE orders, regulations, rulings, and generally applicable requirements unless a petition for a stay is granted or is applicable under FUA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.121" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.121   Filing and notice of petitions for stays.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The petition for a stay must be in writing and comply with the general filing requirements stated in § 501.7, in addition to any other requirements set forth in this subpart, and must be filed at the address provided in § 501.11.
</P>
<P>(2) A claim for confidential treatment of any information contained in the petition for stay and supporting documents must be in accordance with § 501.7(a)(11), and filed at the address provided in § 501.11.
</P>
<P>(b) OFE will publish notice of receipt of a petition for a stay under this subpart in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.122" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.122   Contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A petition for a stay shall contain a full and complete statement of all facts believed to be pertinent to the act or transaction for which a stay is sought. The facts shall include, but not be limited to, the criteria listed below in § 501.123(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The petitioner may request a conference regarding the application. If the request is not made at the time the application is filed, it must be made as soon thereafter as possible. The request and OFE's determination regarding it will be made in accordance with subpart C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.123" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.123   Evaluation of the record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The record in a proceeding on a petition for stay shall consist of the petition and any related documents, evidence submitted at any public proceedings and any other information in the possession of OFE and made part of the record. OFE may investigate and corroborate any statement in the petition or any other document submitted to it and may utilize in its evaluation any relevant facts obtained by its investigations. OFE may solicit or accept submissions from third persons relevant to the petition for stay or other document and any interested person will be afforded an opportunity to respond to these submissions. OFE, on its initiative, may convene a conference, if, in its discretion, it considers that the conference will advance its evaluation of the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> (1) OFE may grant a stay incident to a proceeding on a petition for modification of a rule or order if the petitioner shows:
</P>
<P>(i) Irreparable injury will result if the stay is denied;
</P>
<P>(ii) There is a strong likelihood of success on the merits;
</P>
<P>(iii) The denial of a stay will result in a more immediate hardship or inequity to the petitioner than to other persons affected by the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iv) It would be desirable for reasons of public policy to grant the stay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.124" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.124   Decision and order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) OFE will issue an order granting or denying the petition for a stay upon consideration of the request and other relevant information received or obtained during the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) OFE will include in the order a brief written statement setting forth the relevant facts and the basis of the decision, including any appropriate terms and conditions of the stay.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Requests for Interpretation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.130" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.130   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes procedures for filing a formal request for and the issuance of an interpretation of a rule, order or other action by DOE. Any response, whether oral or written, to a general inquiry, or to other than a formal written request for interpretation filed with DOE, is not an interpretation and merely provides general information that may not be relied upon in any proceeding to determine compliance with the applicable requirements of FUA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.131" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.131   Filing a request for interpretation.</HEAD>
<P>A proceeding to request an interpretation is commenced by the filing of a “Request for Interpretation (FUA).” The request must be in writing and must also comply with the general filing requirements stated in § 501.7. Any claims for confidential treatment for any information contained in the request or other related documents must be made pursuant to § 501.7(a)(11). A request for interpretation should be filed with the Assistant General Counsel for Interpretations and Rulings at the address provided in § 501.11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.132" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.132   Contents of a request for interpretation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request for an interpretation must contain a complete statement of all the facts believed to be relevant to the circumstances, acts or transactions that are the subject of the request. The facts must include the names and addresses of all potentially affected persons (if reasonably ascertainable) and a full discussion of the pertinent provisions and relevant facts contained in any documents submitted with the request. Copies of relevant contracts, agreements, leases, instruments, and other documents relating to the request must be submitted if DOE believes they are necessary for determination of any issue pending in the proceeding under this subpart. When the request pertains to only one step in a larger integrated transaction, the requesting party must also submit the facts, circumstances, and other relevant information pertaining to the entire transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) The requesting party must include in the request a discussion of all relevant legal authorities, rulings, regulations, interpretations and decisions on appeal relied upon to support the particular interpretation sought.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE may refuse to issue an interpretation if it determines that there is insufficient information upon which to base an interpretation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.133" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.133   DOE evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The record shall consist of the request for an interpretation and any supporting documents, all relevant evidence presented at any public proceedings, written comments and any information in the possession of DOE that has been made part of the record.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE may investigate and corroborate any statement in a request or related documents and may utilize in its evaluation any relevant facts obtained by the investigation. DOE may solicit or accept submissions from third persons relevant to the request for interpretation, or any other document submitted under this subpart, and the person requesting the interpretation will be afforded an opportunity to respond to these submissions.
</P>
<P>(3) The General Counsel or his delegate will issue an interpretation on the basis of the information provided in the request, unless that information is supplemented by other information brought to the attention of DOE during the proceeding. DOE's interpretation will, therefore, depend on the accuracy of the factual statements, and the requesting party may rely upon it only to the extent that the facts of the actual situation correspond to those upon which the interpretation is based. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> (1) DOE will base its FUA interpretations on the DEOA and FUA, as applicable, and the regulations and published rulings of DOE as applied to the specific factual situation presented. 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE will take into consideration previously issued interpretations dealing with the same or a related issue.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.134" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.134   Issuance and effect of interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may issue an interpretation after consideration of the request for interpretation and other relevant information received or obtained during the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) The interpretation will contain a written statement of the information upon which it is based and a legal analysis of and conclusions regarding the application of rulings, regulations and other precedent to the situation presented in the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) Only those persons to whom an interpretation is specifically addressed, and other persons upon whom the DOE serves the interpretation and who are directly involved in the same transaction or act, are entitled to rely upon it. No person entitled to rely upon an interpretation shall be subject to civil or criminal penalties stated in title VII of FUA for any act taken in reliance upon the interpretation, notwithstanding that the interpretation shall thereafter be declared by judicial or other competent authority to be invalid. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE may at any time rescind or modify an interpretation on its own initiative. Rescission or modification shall be made by notifying persons entitled to rely on the interpretation that it is rescinded or modified. This notification will include a statement of the reasons for the rescission or modification and, in the case of a modification, a restatement of the interpretation as modified. 
</P>
<P>(e) An interpretation is modified by a subsequent amendment to the regulations or ruling to the extent that it is inconsistent with the amended regulation or ruling. 
</P>
<P>(f) Any person who believes he is directly affected by an interpretation issued by DOE, and who believes that he will be aggrieved by its implementation, may submit a petition for reconsideration of that interpretation to the General Counsel. DOE will acknowledge receipt of all requests for reconsideration; however, this acknowledgement in no way binds DOE to commence any proceeding on the request. If within sixty (60) days of DOE's acknowledgement of the receipt of a request for reconsideration, DOE has not issued either a notice of intent to commence a proceeding to reconsider the interpretation or a modification, revision or rescission of the original interpretation, the request for reconsideration will be deemed denied. DOE may, in its discretion, issue a formal denial of a request for reconsideration if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The request has not been filed in a timely manner, and good cause therefor has not been shown; 
</P>
<P>(2) The person requesting reconsideration is not aggrieved or otherwise injured substantially by the interpretation; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The request is defective because it fails to state and to present facts and legal argument that the interpretation was erroneous in fact or in law, or that it was arbitrary or capricious. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Rulings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.140" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.140   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may issue rulings in accordance with the provisions of this subpart. DOE will publish each ruling in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in 10 CFR part 518. A person is entitled to rely upon a ruling to the extent provided in this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.141" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.141   Criteria for issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel may issue a ruling whenever: 
</P>
<P>(1) There has been a substantial number of inquiries with regard to similar factual situations or a particular section of the regulations; or 
</P>
<P>(2) It is determined that a ruling will be of assistance to the public in applying the regulations to a specific situation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.142" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.142   Modification or rescission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A ruling may be modified or rescinded by— 
</P>
<P>(1) Publication of the modification or rescission by DOE in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and in 10 CFR part 518; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Adoption of a rule that supersedes or modifies a prior ruling. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person shall not be subject to the sanctions or penalties stated in these regulations for actions taken in reliance upon a ruling, notwithstanding that the ruling is subsequently declared to be invalid or no longer applicable. A person affected by a ruling may not rely upon it for more than 30 days after it has been rendered invalid pursuant to issuance of a superseding rule by OFE, or after it has been rescinded or modified by DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.143" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.143   Comments.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person may file a written comment on or objection to a published ruling at any time with the Assistant General Counsel for Interpretations and Rulings at the address provided in § 501.11. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.160" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.160   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides the procedures by which OFE may initiate enforcement proceedings on its own behalf and by which complaints concerning a violation of the Act or any rule or order thereunder may be filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.161" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.161   Filing a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complaint under this subpart must be submitted in writing over the signature of the person making the complaint in accordance with the general filing requirements stated in § 501.7. OFE will accept oral complaints that otherwise satisfy the requirements of this subpart, but OFE may request written verification. 
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint shall be filed at the address provided in § 501.11. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.162" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.162   Contents of a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint must contain a complete statement of all relevant facts pertaining to the act or transaction that is the subject of the complaint. It must also include the names and addresses of all persons involved (if reasonably ascertainable), a description of the events that led to the complaint, and a statement describing the statutory provision, regulation, ruling, order, rule, or interpretation that allegedly has been violated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.163" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.163   OFE evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The record shall consist of the complaint and any supporting documents and all other relevant information developed in the course of any investigations or proceedings related to that complaint. OFE may investigate and corroborate any statement in the complaint or related documents submitted, and may utilize in its evaluation any relevant facts obtained by such investigation or from any other source of information. OFE may solicit or accept submissions from third persons relevant to the complaint or other related documents. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidentiality of information.</I> OFE will treat as confidential information received in any investigation of a complaint, including the identity of the complainant and the identity of any other persons who provide information to the extent such information is exempt from public disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552. OFE reserves the right to make disclosures that would be in the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.164" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.164   Decision to initiate enforcement proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>After investigation of a specific complaint or based on any relevant information received or obtained during an investigation, OFE may issue a notice of violation, determine that no violation has occurred, or take such other actions as it deems appropriate. Prior to issuance of a notice of violation, and before commencement of an enforcement proceeding, OFE may transmit a draft of the notice of violation to the potentially affected person in order to promote an informal resolution of the violation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.165" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.165   Commencement of enforcement proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever, on the basis of any information available, OFE determines that a person is in violation or about to be in violation of any provision of these regulations, OFE may issue a notice of violation stating, in writing and with reasonable specificity, the nature of the violation. An enforcement proceeding commences with the issuance of a notice of violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the notice of violation.</I> OFE will set forth in the notice of violation the nature of the violation, the relevant facts that OFE believes establish the violation and the legal basis for the conclusions reached therein. OFE may also include with the notice of violation a copy of a proposed order. The notice of violation will also state whether or not OFE proposes to assess civil penalties.
</P>
<P>(1) If OFE proposes to assess a civil penalty, a notice of violation will be issued to the violator with an opportunity for a hearing before an Administrative Law Judge, as set forth in § 501.166(a)(1) of this part, before any final determination on the violation and penalty are made by OFE. The recipient of the notice will also be informed of his right to elect to have the procedures of § 501.166(a)(2) apply, in lieu of the hearing, with respect to a final determination on the assessment of any civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(2) If OFE does not propose to assess a civil penalty, the violator will be provided the opportunity for a conference, as set forth in § 501.166(b), before a final determination on the violation is made by OFE. OFE may, in its discretion, also provide the violator an opportunity for a hearing pursuant to § 501.166(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service.</I> OFE will serve the notice of violation in accordance with provisions set forth in § 501.6.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rescission.</I> If, after issuance of a notice of violation and any related investigation, OFE finds no basis for the belief that a violation has occurred, is continuing to occur, or is about to occur, OFE may rescind the notice of violation by giving written notice to that effect to the recipient. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.166" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.166   Hearings and conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When a civil penalty is proposed</I>—(1) <I>Hearing alternative in civil penalty assessment proceedings.</I> Unless the recipient of a notice of violation elects in writing to have the provisions of paragraph (a)(2) of this section apply, OFE will commence a proceeding to assess a penalty and, prior to a final determination on the violation and assessment of a penalty, provide an opportunity for a hearing pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 554 before an Administrative Law Judge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Election alternative in civil penalty assessment proceedings.</I> The recipient of a notice of violation in which a civil penalty assessment has been proposed may elect, in writing, within thirty (30) days of receipt of the notice, to waive the administrative proceedings described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. OFE will make a determination on the proposed civil penalty assessment and issue a final order to that effect within forty-five (45) days after receiving notice of the exercise of this election.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When a civil penalty is not proposed—opportunity to request a conference.</I> If a person has received a notice of violation in which a civil penalty has not been proposed, he may, within thirty (30) days after receipt of the notice, request a conference with OFE to discuss the notice. In order to request a conference he must comply with the instructions set forth in the notice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.167" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.11.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.167   Fuel use order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> OFE will issue a Fuel Use Order if, after considering all the information received during the proceeding, OFE determines that a person has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a violation of FUA or of an order or rule thereunder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> Any Fuel Use Order issued under this section shall set forth the relevant facts and legal basis for the order and where appropriate, the final penalty assessment and the basis therefor. When an administrative hearing is requested under § 501.166(a) of this part, the Fuel Use Order will include the recommended findings and conclusions of the Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) and the basis for the penalty assessment. OFE will make a final determination as to any penalty assessment or other appropriate remedy based upon the recommended findings and conclusions of the ALJ and other information in the record of the enforcement proceeding. The order will be effective upon service, unless otherwise provided therein, or stayed pursuant to § 501.120.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service.</I> OFE will serve a copy of the Fuel Use Order upon any person who was served a copy of the notice of violation and upon all parties to any public proceeding on the notice of violation. OFE will place a copy of each final order on file in the Public Information Office described in § 501.12. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Judicial review.</I> Any person against whom a penalty is assessed pursuant to § 501.167(b) after a hearing before an ALJ may, within sixty (60) calendar days after the date of issuance of the order assessing such penalty, institute an action in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate judicial circuit for judicial review of such order in accordance with the provisions of section 723 of FUA. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Investigations, Violations, Sanctions and Judicial Actions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.180" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.180   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pursuant to section 711 of FUA, the DEOA, and in accordance with the provisions of 10 CFR 205.201, OFE may initiate and conduct investigations relating to the scope, nature, and extent of compliance by any person with the rules, regulations, and orders issued by OFE under the authority of the Act, or any order or decree of court relating thereto, or any other agency action. When the circumstances warrant, OFE may issue subpoenas as provided in subpart D of this part. OFE may also conduct investigative conferences in conjunction with any investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any duly authorized representative of OFE has the authority to conduct an investigation and to take such action as he deems necessary and appropriate to the conduct of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification.</I> If any person is required to furnish information or documentary evidence pursuant to a subpoena or special report order, OFE will, upon written request, inform that person as to the general purposes of the investigation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidentiality.</I> OFE shall not disclose any information received during an investigation under this section, including the identities of the person investigated and any other person who provides information, to the extent it is exempt from public disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552 and 10 CFR part 1004. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.181" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.181   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A violation of any provision of the Act (other than section 402 of FUA), or any rule or order thereunder shall be subject to the penalties and sanctions provided in subtitle C of title VII of FUA. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each day that any provision of the Act (other than section 402), or any rule or order thereunder is violated constitutes a separate violation within the meaning of the provisions of this section relating to civil penalties. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criminal penalties.</I> Any person who willfully violates any provision of the Act (other than section 402), or any rule or order thereunder will be subject to a fine of not more than $50,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 1 year, or both, for each violation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Civil Penalties.</I> (1) Any person who violates any provisions of the Act (other than section 402) or any rule in this subchapter or order under this subchapter or the Act will be subject to the following civil penalty, which may not exceed $117,608 for each violation: Any person who operates a powerplant or major fuel burning installation under an exemption, during any 12-calendar-month period, in excess of that authorized in such exemption will be assessed a civil penalty of up to $9 for each MCF of natural gas or up to $46 for each barrel of oil used in excess of that authorized in the exemption.




</P>
<P>(2) OFE may compromise and settle, and collect civil penalties whenever it considers it to be appropriate or advisable. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Corporate personnel.</I> (1) If a director, officer, or agent of a corporation willfully authorizes, orders, or performs any act or practice constituting in whole or in part a violation of the Act, or any rule or order thereunder, he will be subject to the penalties specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section without regard to any penalties to which the corporation may be subject. He will not, however, be subject to imprisonment under paragraph (b) of this section unless he knew of noncompliance by the corporation, or had received from OFE notice of noncompliance by the corporation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Purposes of this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Agent</I> includes any employee or other person acting on behalf of the corporation on either a temporary or permanent basis; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice of noncompliance</I> is a final Fuel Use Order issued under § 501.167 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 62 FR 46183, Sept. 2, 1997; 74 FR 66032, Dec. 14, 2009; 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96352, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1292, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1028, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105406, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.182" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.182   Injunctions.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever it appears to OFE that any person has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a violation of any provision of the Act, or any rule or order thereunder, OFE may, in accordance with section 724 of FUA, bring a civil action in the appropriate United States District Court to enjoin such acts or practices. The relief sought may include a mandatory injunction commanding any person to comply with any provision of such provision, order or rule, the violation of which is prohibited by section 724 of FUA and may also include interim equitable relief.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.183" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.183   Citizen suits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A person who believes he is aggrieved by the failure of OFE to perform any nondiscretionary act of duty under the Act may file a Petition for Action for OFE to take such action as he may feel to be proper. This petition must be filed at the address provided in § 501.11. The petition must specify the action requested and set forth the facts and legal arguments that constitute the basis for the request. The filing of a Petition for Action will serve as notice to OFE under FUA section 725(b) for purposes of any citizens suit that may be subsequently filed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>OFE decision.</I> Within sixty (60) days of receiving the Petition for Action, OFE will notify the person giving notice under this section that it has instituted the action requested or that other described action is being taken, or that other described action is being taken, or that no action is being taken and the reasons therefor. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Use of Natural Gas or Petroleum for Emergency and Unanticipated Equipment Outage Purposes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.190" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.190   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person operates a powerplant covered by any of the prohibitions of titles II, III, or IV of FUA, § 501.191 of this subpart establishes procedures to be followed for the use of minimum amounts of natural gas or petroleum under FUA section 103(a)(15)(B) in order to alleviate or prevent unanticipated equipment outages and emergencies directly affecting the public health, safety, or welfare that would result from electric power outages. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Explanatory note:</I> If a person operates a rental boiler as a powerplant covered by any of the prohibitions of titles II, III, or IV of FUA, he may be able to use the provisions of this subpart for the emergency use of natural gas or petroleum. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52893, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.191" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.191   Use of natural gas or petroleum for certain unanticipated equipment outages and emergencies defined in section 103(a)(15)(B) of the act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event of the occurrence or imminent occurrence of an emergency, or of the occurrence or imminent occurrence of an unanticipated equipment outage in the unit, an owner or operator of a powerplant is automatically permitted to use minimum amounts of natural gas or petroleum in the unit or in a substitute unit to prevent or alleviate the outage or to prevent or alleviate the emergency if he complies with procedures contained in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the use of minimum amounts of petroleum or natural gas is required for purposes specified in this section, the owner or operator must notify OFE of such use by telegram or telephone within 24 hours after the commencement of such use. Immediately thereafter a written confirmation must be submitted to OFE, describing, to the best estimate of the owner or operator, (1) the nature of the emergency and (2) how long petroleum or natural gas use is likely to be required.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section only:
</P>
<P>(1) An <I>emergency</I> is the occurrence or threat of imminent occurrence of a condition which results or would result from an electric power outage and directly effects or would directly effect the public health, safety or welfare;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unanticipated equipment outage</I> shall mean an unexpected outage due to equipment failure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Minimum amounts required to alleviate or prevent</I> shall mean:
</P>
<P>(i) For powerplants, the amounts of natural gas or petroleum required to prevent curtailment of electric supply where the operating utility has, to the maximum extent possible, utilized alternate fuel-fired capacity to prevent such curtailment. Note—A utility operating hydroelectric facilities may take into account seasonal fluctuations in storage capacity and shall be permitted to prevent depletion of stored power-producing capacity as deemed necessary by the utility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For installations, the amounts of natural gas or petroleum required to meet plant protection or human health and safety needs, including services to hospitals, public transportation facilities, sanitation, or water supply and pumping.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59889, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52893, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 501.192" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.2.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 501.192   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="503" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 503—NEW FACILITIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. § 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3289 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Security Act, Pub. L. 96-294, 94 Stat. 611 (42 U.S.C. 8701 <I>et seq.</I>); E.O. 1209, 42 FR 46267, September 15, 1977.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(OMB Control No.: 1903-0075. See 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981.)


</APPRO>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Prohibition</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the statutory prohibition imposed by the Act upon new powerplants. The prohibition in the subpart applies to all new baseload electric powerplants unless an exemption has been granted by OFE under subparts C and D of this part. Any person who owns, controls, rents, leases or operates a new powerplant that is subject to the prohibition may be subject to sanctions provided by the Act or these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52893, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.2   Prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>Section 201 of the Act prohibits, unless an exemption has been granted under subpart C or D of this part, any new electric powerplant from being constructed or operated as a baseload powerplant without the capability to use coal or another alternate fuel as a primary energy source.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52893, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Requirements for Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.4   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes the general requirements necessary to qualify for either a temporary or permanent exemption under this part and sets out the methodology for calculating the cost of using an alternate fuel and the cost of using imported petroleum.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.5   Contents of petition.</HEAD>
<P>Before OFE will accept a petition for either a temporary or permanent exemption under this part, the petition must include all of the evidence and information required in this part and part 501 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.6" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.6   Cost calculations for new powerplants and installations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) This calculation compares the cost of using alternate fuel to the cost of using imported petroleum. It must be performed for each alternate fuel and/or alternate site that the petitioner is required to examine.
</P>
<P>(2) The cost of using an alternate fuel as a primary energy source will be deemed to substantially exceed the cost of using imported petroleum if the difference between the cost of using alternate fuel and the cost of using imported oil is greater than zero.
</P>
<P>(3) There are two comparative cost calculations—a general cost test and a special cost test. Both take into consideration cash outlays for capital investments, annual expenses, and the effect of depreciation and taxes on cash flow. To demonstrate eligibility for a permanent exemption, a petitioner must use the procedures specified in the general cost test (paragraph (b) of this section). To demonstrate eligibility for a temporary exemption, the petitioner may apply the procedures specified in either the general cost test or the special cost test (paragraph (c) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cost calculation—general cost test.</I> (1) A petitioner may be eligible for a permanent exemption if he can demonstrate that the cost of using an alternate fuel from the first year of operation substantially exceeds the cost of using imported petroleum. Unless the best practicable cost estimates as prescribed below will not materially change during the first ten years of operation of the unit (given the best information available at the time the petition is filed), the petitioner must also demonstrate that the cost of using an alternate fuel beginning at any time within the first ten years of operation and using imported petroleum or natural gas until such time (<I>i.e.,</I> delayed use of alternate fuel) would substantially exceed the cost of using only imported petroleum.
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner would only be eligible for a temporary exemption if the computed costs of delayed alternate fuel use, commencing at the start of the second through eleventh years of operation, do not always substantially exceed the cost of using only imported petroleum. The length of the temporary exemption would be the minimum period from the start of operation in which the cost of using alternate fuel substantially exceeds the cost of using imported petroleum.
</P>
<P>(3) To conduct the general cost test, calculate the difference (DELTA) between the cost of using an alternate fuel (COST(ALTERNATE)) and the cost of using imported petroleum (COST(OIL)) using Equations 1 through 3 below and the comparison procedures in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="217" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.000.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(4) The terms in Equations 2 and 3 are defined as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>i = Year. i is a specified year either before year 0 or after year 0. Year 0 is the year before the unit becomes operational. For example, in the third year before the unit becomes operational, i would equal −2, and in the third year following commencement of operations of the unit, i would equal + 3. Years are represented by 52 week periods prior to or following the date on which the unit becomes operational. Outlays before the unit becomes operational are future valued to the year before the unit becomes operational (year 0), and outlays after the unit becomes operational are present valued to the year before the unit becomes operational. Year 0 must be the same for the units being compared. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>g = The number of years prior to the year before the unit becomes operational (year 0) that (1) a cash outlay is first made for capital investments, or (2) an investment tax credit is first used—whichever occurs first. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = The useful life of the unit (see paragraph (d)(5) of this section). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>I<E T="52">i</E> = Yearly cash outlay (in dollars) from the year outlays first occur to the last year of the unit's useful life for capital investments. (See paragraph (d)(2) of this section for the items that must be included.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OM<E T="52">i</E> = Annual cash outlay in year i (in dollars) for all operations and maintenance expenses except fuel (<I>i.e.,</I> all non-capital and non-fuel cash outlays caused by putting the capital investments (I) into service). This may include labor, materials, insurance, taxes (except income taxes), etc. (See paragraph (d)(3) of this section.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S<E T="52">i</E> = Salvage value of capital investment (in dollars) in year i. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>FL<E T="52">i</E> = Annual cash outlay for delivered fuel expenses (in dollars) in year i. (See paragraph (d)(3) of this section for FL<E T="52">i</E> calculation instructions and appendix II of these regulations for the procedures to determine fuel price.) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = The discount rate expressed as a fraction (see paragraph (d)(4) of this section). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ITC<E T="52">i</E> = Federal investment tax credit used in year i resulting from capital investments (see paragraph (d)(6) of this section). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DPR<E T="52">i</E> = Depreciation in year i resulting from capital investments (see paragraph (d)(6) of this section). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t<E T="52">i</E> = Marginal income tax rate in year i (see paragraph (d)(6) of this section). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IX<E T="52">i</E> = Inflation index value for year i (see appendix II to part 504 for method of computation).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IX<E T="52">e</E> = Inflation index value for the year e, the year before the asset is placed in service.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) The step-by-step procedure that follows shows the comparison that the petitioner must make.
</P>
<P>(i) Compute the cost of using an alternate fuel (COST(ALTERNATE)) unit throughout the useful life of the unit using Equations 2 and 3.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compute the cost of using oil or natural gas (COST(OIL)) throughout the useful life of the unit using Equations 2 and 3.
</P>
<P>(iii) Using Equation 1, compute the difference (DELTA) between COST (ALTERNATE) and COST (OIL). If the difference (DELTA) is less than or equal to zero, a petitioner is not eligible for a permanent or temporary exemption using the general cost test and need not complete the remainder of the general cost test calculation. However, he still may be eligible for a temporary exemption using the special cost test (paragraph (c) of this section). If the difference (DELTA) is greater than zero and if the best practicable cost estimates will not materially change during the first ten years of operation (given the best information available at the time the petition is filed), the petitioner has completed the test and is eligible for a permanent exemption. However, if the best practicable cost estimate will materially change during the first ten years, the petitioner must complete the remainder of the general cost test—the delayed use calculations which follow.
</P>
<P>(iv) Recompute COST (ALTERNATE) with Equations 2 and 3, assuming that an alternate fuel is not used as the primary energy source until the start of the second year of operation and that imported petroleum or natural gas is used for the first year of operation. All cash outlays should reflect postponed use of alternate fuel.
</P>
<P>(v) Successively recompute COST (ALTERNATE) with Equations 2 and 3, assuming that the alternate fuel use is postponed until the start of the third year, fourth year, and so on, through the beginning of the eleventh year of operation (with imported petroleum or natural gas used in the years preceding alternate fuel use).
</P>
<P>(vi) Compute the difference (DELTA) between each of the ten COST(ALTERNATE)s calculated in paragraph (b)(5) (iv) and (v) of this section and the COST(OIL) calculated in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) If <I>all</I> the DELTAs computed in paragraph (b)(5) (iii) and (vi) of this section are greater than zero, the petitioner is eligible for a permanent exemption. If one or more of the DELTAs is less than or equal to zero, he is eligible for a temporary exemption for the period beginning at the start of the first year of operation and terminating at the beginning of the first year in which a DELTA is zero or less.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cost calculations—special cost test.</I> (1) A petitioner may be eligible for a temporary exemption if he demonstrates that the cost of using an alternate fuel will substantially exceed the cost of using imported petroleum or (natural gas) over the period of the proposed exemption. The period of the proposed temporary exemption may not exceed ten years.
</P>
<FP>The petitioner must demonstrate that the cost of using an alternate fuel substantially exceeds the cost of using imported petroleum for the first year of operation, the first two years of operation, and so forth, through the period of the proposed exemption. OFE will limit the duration of a temporary exemption to the shortest time possible.
</FP>
<P>(2) To conduct the test, calculate the difference (DELTA) between the cost of using an alternate fuel (COST (ALTERNATE)) and the cost of using imported petroleum (COST (OIL)) using Equations 4 and 5 below, Equation 3 (paragraph (b)(3) of this section), and the comparison procedures in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="142" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.001.gif"/></MATH>
<P>Capital investment (I) is calculated with Equation 3 (paragraph (b)(3) of this section).
</P>
<P>(3) The terms in Equation 5 are the same as those in Equation 2 with the addition of P, the length of the proposed temporary exemption in years. (See paragraph (b)(4) of this section for other terms.)
</P>
<P>(4) The step-by-step procedure that follows shows the comparisons which must be made.
</P>
<P>(i) Using Equation 5, compute the cost of using an alternate fuel (COST(ALTERNATE)) assuming the length of the proposed exemption is one year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Likewise, compute the cost of using imported petroleum or natural gas (COST(OIL)) assuming the length of the proposed exemption is one year.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compute the difference (DELTA) between COST (ALTERNATE) and COST (OIL) using Equation 4.
</P>
<P>(iv) Repeat the calculations made in (i), (ii), and (iii) above, assuming the length of the proposed exemption is two years, three years, four years, and so on, up through the period of the proposed exemption.
</P>
<P>(v) A petitioner is eligible for a temporary exemption for the period beginning at the start of the first year of operation and terminating at the beginning of the first year in which a DELTA is zero or less.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information on parameters used in the calculations.</I> (1) All estimated expenditures, except fuel, shall be expressed in real terms (unadjusted for inflation) by using the prices in effect at the time the petition is submitted. Instructions for fuel price calculations are contained in appendix II.
</P>
<P>(2) Capital investment yearly cash outlays (I<E T="52">i</E>) must include all items that are capital investments for Federal income tax purposes. All purchased equipment that has a useful life greater than one year, capitalized engineering costs, land, construction, environmental offsets, fuel inventory, transmission facilities, piping, etc., that are necessary for the operation of the unit must be included. However, an item must only be included if a cash outlay is required after the decision has been made to build the unit; sunk costs must not be included (<I>e.g.,</I> if the firm owns the land, its purchase price may not be included).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The guidelines for the fuel inventory for powerplants not using natural gas shall be: (a) All powerplants with only steam driven turbines—78 days, (b) all powerplants with only combustion turbines—142 days, (c) all powerplants with combined cycles—both steam driven turbines and combustion turbines—142 days. The guidelines for the fuel inventory for installations not using natural gas shall be the greater of: (1) 21 days fuel supply, or (2) sufficient fuel to fill sixty (60) percent of the storage volume. The guidelines for the fuel inventory for all facilities using natural gas shall be zero unless the gas supply is interruptible in which case an appropriate inventory of back-up fuel must be included. Other inventory levels may be used if they are more appropriate than these guidelines; however, the source or derivation of these levels must be discussed in the evidential summary.</P></NOTE>
<P>(3)(i) The annual cash outlays for operations and maintenance expense (OM<E T="52">i</E>) and fuel expense (FL<E T="52">i</E>) for a powerplant may be computed by one of the following three methods; however, the one chosen must be consistently applied throughout the analysis.
</P>
<P>(A) Assume the energy produced by the powerplant equals seventy (70) percent of design capacity times 8760 hours for each year during the life of the powerplant, and compute cash outlays for operations, maintenance, and fuel expenses for the powerplant.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Economically dispatch the new powerplant.</I> The cash outlays for operations, maintenance, and fuel expenses of all powerplants being dispatched (where oil and natural gas are priced according to the procedures of appendix II 
<SU>1</SU>) are the corresponding expenses for the purpose of the cost calculation. The dispatch analysis area must be that area with which the firm currently dispatches, anticipates dispatching, and will be interconnected. It must also include all anticipated exchanges of energy with other utilities or powerpools. The outlays for operations, maintenance, and fuel may also be estimated using a methodology that incorporates the benefits of economically dispatching units and provides consistent treatment in the alternate fuel and oil or natural gas cases being compared.
</P>
<P>(C) Use a dispatch analysis to project the energy produced by the powerplant for a representative (not atypical) year of operation when consuming an alternate fuel. Compute the cash outlays for operations, maintenance, and fuel expenses for the powerplant based upon the level of energy production estimated for the representative year. The dispatch analysis and fuel expenses for the cost calculation must include oil and natural gas priced according to the procedures of appendix II. 
<SU>1</SU>
</P>
<P>(ii) When computing the annual cash outlays for operations and maintenance expense (OM<E T="52">i</E>) and fuel expense (FL<E T="52">i</E>) for an installation, specify the firing rates and the length of time each firing rate will be maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) The discount rate (k) for analyses is 2.9 percent or that which is computed as specified in appendix I. The method of computing the inflation index (IX) is shown in appendix II to part 504. OFE will modify these specified rates from time to time as required by changed conditions after public notice and an opportunity to comment. However, the relevant set of specified rates for a specific petition for exemption will be the set in effect at the time the petition is submitted or the set in effect at the time a decision is rendered, whichever set is more favorable to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) The guidelines for the useful life (N) of all powerplants except nuclear will be thirty-five (35) years. The guidelines for the useful life of a nuclear powerplant will be forty (40) years. The guidelines for the useful life of major fuel burning installations will be forty (40) years. Other useful life projections may be used if they are more appropriate than these guidelines; however, the source or derivation of these projections must be contained in the evidential summary. The summary should include a discussion of engineering, economic historical or other evidence.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the units being compared have different useful lives, the petitioner will have to modify his calculation so that the two cash flows being compared have the length of the shorter useful life. To do this, (A) use the shorter of the two useful lives in Equations 2 and 5 for both units, and (B) multiply capital investment (I) of the unit with the longer life (computed with Equation 3) by the following adjustment factor (A):
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="57" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.002.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>R = The useful life of the facility with the longer life.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Q = The useful life of the facility with the shorter life.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>k = The discount rate (see paragraph (d)(4) above).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) All Federal investment tax credits (ITC<E T="52">i</E>) and depreciation (PR<E T="52">i</E>) values are those used for Federal income tax purposes and must be applied consistently throughout the analysis and in a manner consistent with the Federal tax laws. All investment tax credits allowed under Federal tax law must be reflected in the computations. The petitioner must use the method of depreciation which results in the greatest present value of the cash flow due to the tax and depreciation effect. The marginal income tax rate (t<E T="52">i</E>) is the firm's anticipated marginal Federal income tax rate in year i. The relevant investment tax credits, depreciation methodology, and marginal Federal income tax rates for a specific exemption petition will be those prescribed by Federal law in effect (or those tax parameters which are known with certainty will be in effect) at the time a decision is rendered. (However, if an investment tax credit expires in a certain year under the law which is in effect at the time the petition is submitted, the petitioner must assume that it will in fact expire in that year.) 
</P>
<P>(7) If powerplants are being compared, the design capacities or the maximum sustained energy per unit of time that could be produced must be the same. If installations are being compared, the maximum sustained energy per unit of time that could be produced must be the same. 
</P>
<P>(8) All estimated cash outlays must be computed in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles consistently applied. 
</P>
<P>(9) The scope of the estimates of relevant costs (as discussed above) of units being compared must be the same. 
</P>
<P>(10) All allowances for uncertainty and risk in the cost estimates must be explicit. 
</P>
<P>(11) All cash outlays must be net of any government subsidies or grants. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Evidence in support of the cost calculation.</I> Petitioners for an exemption which requires the use of the cost calculation shall certify that the cost of using alternate fuel substantially exceeds the cost of using oil as primary energy source as calculated in this section. A brief summary of the petitioner's supporting calculations and estimates shall be submitted with the certification. The summary should include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Cash outlays, Investment tax credits, depreciation methodologies, and anticipated salvage for capital investments including a description of all major construction and equipment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Annual cash outlays for operations and maintenance expenses including the formulas used to compute them; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Annual cash outlays for delivered fuel expenses including the formulas used to compute them. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981; 46 FR 63033, Dec. 30, 1981; 47 FR 15314, Apr. 9, 1982; 54 FR 52893, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.7" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.7   State approval—general requirement for new powerplants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where approvals by the appropriate State regulatory authority are required prior to the construction or use of a new powerplant, a petition for an exemption for consideration by OFE may be submitted to OFE prior to obtaining such approvals from the State regulatory authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) An exemption granted for a powerplant shall not become effective until an adequate demonstration has been made to OFE that all applicable approvals required by the State regulatory authorities have been obtained. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.8" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.8   No alternate power supply—general requirement for certain exemptions for new powerplants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> To qualify for an exemption, except in the case of an exemption for cogeneration units, section 213(c) of the Act requires a demonstration that, despite reasonable good faith efforts, there is no alternative supply of electric power available within a reasonable distance at a reasonable cost without impairing short-run or long-run reliability of service. If a petitioner is unable to demonstrate that there is no alternate supply during the first year of operation, OFE will conclude that the absence of the proposed powerplant will not impair short-term reliability of service, and as a result will not grant the exemption. Such action would not impair long-term reliability of service, since a petition may be submitted for a powerplant that would begin operation in a subsequent year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> To meet the demonstration required under paragraph (a) of this section, a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) A diligent effort has been made to purchase firm power for the first year of operation to cover all or part of the projected shortfall at a cost that is less than ten (10) percent above the annualized cost of generating power from the proposed plant (including the capital, operation and maintenance expenses, and fuel prices); and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Despite these efforts, the reserve margin in the petitioner's electric region, normal dispatch area, or service area, in the absence of the proposed plant, would fall below twenty (20) percent during the first year of proposed operation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Despite these efforts, the reserve margin will be greater than twenty (20) percent but reliability of service would be impaired. In such case, the certification must be related to factors not included in the calculation of reserve margin, such as transmission constraints.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evidence.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certification required under paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certification submitted under this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support its certification to this general requirement).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FERC consultation.</I> OFE will forward a copy of any petition for which a showing is required under this section to FERC promptly after it is filed with OFE, and OFE will consult with FERC before making the no alternate supply of power finding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 15314, Apr. 9, 1982; 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.9" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.9   Use of mixtures—general requirement for certain permanent exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria.</I> To qualify for a permanent exemption, except in the case of an exemption for fuel mixtures, section 213(a)(1) of the Act requires a demonstration that the use of a mixture of natural gas and petroleum and an alternate fuel for which an exemption under 10 CFR 503.38 (Fuel mixtures) would be available, would not be economically or technically feasible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications to the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications submitted under this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support its certifications to this general requirement.)
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In meeting this general requirement, OFE will require a petitioner to examine only mixtures of oil and coal and natural gas and coal, or, where petitioner wishes to examine an additional or substitute mixture, such other alternate fuels as OFE and the petitioner agree are reasonable to petitioner's circumstances.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.10" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.10   Use of fluidized bed combustion not feasible—general requirement for permanent exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>OFE finding.</I> Except in the case of an exemption for fuel mixtures, OFE may deny permanent exemptions authorized under section 212 of the Act if OFE finds on a site-specific or generic basis that use of a method of fluidized bed combustion of an alternate fuel is economically and technically feasible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Demonstration.</I> If OFE has made such a finding, OFE will deny a petitioner's request for exemption unless the petitioner demonstrated that the use of a method of fluidized bed combustion is not economically or technically feasible. The petition or any supplement thereto required by OFE must include the following evidence:
</P>
<P>(1) If use of a method of fluidized bed combustion were to be required, evidence that the petitioner would be eligible for a permanent exemption for lack of alternate fuel supply, site limitations, environmental requirements, lack of adequate capital, or State or local requirements; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Use of a method of fluidized bed combustion is not technically or economically feasible due to design or special circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.11" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.11   Alternative sites—general requirement for permanent exemptions for new powerplants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria.</I> To qualify for permanent exemption due to lack of alternate fuel supply, site limitations, environmental requirements, or inadequate capital, section 212(a) of the Act requires a demonstration that one of these exemptions would be available for any reasonable alternative site for the facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications to the criteria set forth in paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications submitted under this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support its certifications to this general requirement).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.12" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.12   Terms and conditions; compliance plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Terms and conditions generally.</I> A petitioner must comply with any terms and conditions imposed upon the grant of an exemption petition. OFE will limit any such terms and conditions to the unit(s) which is the subject of the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance plans for temporary exemptions.</I> (1) Any compliance plan required to accompany a petition for a temporary exemption shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed schedule of progressive events and the dates upon which the events are to take place, indicating how compliance with the applicable prohibitions of the Act will occur;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evidence of binding contracts for fuel, or for facilities for the production of fuel, which are required for compliance with the applicable prohibitions of the Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) A schedule indicating how any necessary permits and approvals required to burn an alternate fuel will be obtained; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other documentary evidence which indicates an ability to comply with the applicable prohibitions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Any exemption for which a compliance plan is required shall not be effective until the compliance plan is approved by DOE.
</P>
<P>(3) If the petition is granted, an updated, duly executed plan must be submitted to OFE within one (1) month of an alteration of any milestone in the compliance plan, together with the reasons for the alteration and its impact upon the scheduling of all other milestones in the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.13" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.13   Environmental impact analysis.</HEAD>
<P>In order to enable OFE to comply with NEPA, a petitioner must include the information indicated in this section if a permanent exemption is requested. Material which has been prepared pursuant to any Federal, State or local requirement for environmental information for this unit or site may be incorporated by reference and appended to the petition. Guidelines issued by OFE for environmental reports should be used in preparing this analysis (44 FR 63740, November 5, 1979). These guidelines, which are also available in the OFE public document room, have been designed to insure that environmental reports follow the format prescribed by Council on Environmental Quality final regulations implementing NEPA. The guidelines are subject to discussion at a prepetition conference and to modification according to the facts of a particular case.
</P>
<P>(a) All petitions for permanent exemptions must contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the facility, including site location, and surroundings, alternative site(s), the facility's current proposed operations, its fuel capability, and its pollution abatement systems and equipment (including those systems and equipment necessary for all fuel scenarios considered); 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the existing environment, including air, water, and land resources;
</P>
<P>(3) Direct and indirect environmental impacts of the proposed action including impacts of alternative fuel scenarios, and no build alternatives. 
</P>
<P>(4) Regulatory requirements governing the facility, including a description of Federal, State and local requirements for air, water, noise and solid waste disposal which must be met for each fuel considered. 
</P>
<P>(b) For exemptions for cogeneration, the information enumerated below is to be submitted in lieu of the information required by paragraph (a) of this section. However, submission of the following information merely establishes a rebuttable presumption that the grant or denial of the exemption would have no significant environmental impact. OFE may, in individual cases, during the course of the administrative proceeding, determine that additional environmental information is required. In such cases, the petitioner will be required to submit the information described in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) A certification that the petitioner will, prior to operating the unit under the exemption, secure all applicable environmental permits and approvals pursuant to, but not limited to, the following: Clean Air Act, Rivers and Harbors Act, Coastal Zone Management Act, Safe Drinking Water Act, Resource Conservation and Recovery Act; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Information required by the following environmental checklist must be provided and certified as accurate: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Environmental Checklist for FUA Certification Exemptions Instructions 
</P>
<P>All questions are to be answered by placing a check in the appropriate box. N/A represents (not applicable). Although it is not required, the petitioner may elaborate on any question in writing on a separate sheet of paper. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Yes 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">No 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">N/A 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Is your facility located in, or will it affect a wetland (Protection of Wetlands Executive Order No. 11990)?
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Is your facility located in, or will it affect, a 100-year floodplain (Floodplain Management Executive Order No. 11988)?
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Will your facility affect a designated wild, scenic, or recreation river (Wild and Scenic Rivers Act)?
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4)(A) Is your facility located within a county in which critical habitat for threatened or endangered species are known to exist (Endangered Species Act)?
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4)(B) Has a qualified biologist determined that your facility will not affect any species on the Threatened and Endangered Species list?
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Is your facility located on, or will it affect land that has been classified as prime or unique farmland or rangeland by the U.S. Department of Agriculture?
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Is your facility located on, or will it affect, historical archaeological, or cultural resources that have been designated pursuant to the National Historic Preservation Act?</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 15315, Apr. 9, 1982; 51 FR 18866, May 22, 1986; 52 FR 658, Jan. 7, 1987; 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.14" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.14   Fuels search.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to submitting a petition for a permanent exemption for lack of alternate fuel supply, site limitations, inadequate capital, or state or local requirements, a petitioner must examine the use of conventional solid coal as a primary energy source at the site under consideration, and at reasonable alternative sites. Where a petitioner believes that its use of such coal would be infeasible, however, and where OFE and the petitioner can reach accord, it may evaluate use of a different alternate fuel in lieu of solid coal. A petitioner of these exemptions must demonstrate for any fuel examined that he would qualify for an exemption. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Temporary Exemptions for New Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.20" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.20   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart implements the provisions contained in section 211 of the Act with regard to temporary exemptions for new facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart establishes the criteria and standards which owners or operators of new powerplants who petition for a temporary exemption must meet to sustain their burden of proof under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) All petitions for temporary exemptions shall be submitted in accordance with the procedures set out in part 501 of this chapter and the applicable requirements of part 503 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) The duration of any temporary exemption granted under this subpart shall be measured from the date that the facility is placed in service using petroleum or natural gas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.21" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.21   Lack of alternate fuel supply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 211(a)(1) of the Act provides for a temporary exemption due to the unavailability of an adequate and reliable supply of an alternate fuel at a cost which does not substantially exceed the cost of using imported petroleum. To qualify, a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) A good faith effort has been to obtain an adequate and reliable supply of an alternate fuel of the quality necessary to conform to the design and operational requirements of the unit;
</P>
<P>(2) For the period of the proposed exemption, the cost of using such alternate fuel would substantially exceed the cost of using imported petroleum as a primary energy source as defined in § 503.6 (Cost calculation) of these regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner will be able to comply with the applicable prohibitions of the Act at the end of the proposed exemption period; and
</P>
<P>(4) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption);
</P>
<P>(3) All data required by § 503.6 (cost calculation) of these regulations necessary for computing the cost calculation formula; and
</P>
<P>(4) The anticipated duration of the lack of alternate fuel supply which constitutes the basis for the exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration.</I> This temporary exemption, taking into account any extensions or renewals, may not exceed 10 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 15315, Apr. 9, 1982; 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.22" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.22   Site limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 211(a)(2) of the Act provides for a temporary exemption due to a site limitation. To qualify for such an exemption, a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) One or more specific physical limitations relevant to the location or operation of the proposed facility exist which, despite diligent good faith efforts, cannot be overcome before the end of the proposed exemption period;
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner will be able to comply with the applicable prohibitions of the Act at the end of the proposed exemption period; and
</P>
<P>(3) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Examples of the types of site limitations to which a petitioner may certify in order to qualify for this exemption include:</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) Inaccessability of alternate fuels as a result of a specific physical limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unavailability of transportation facilities for alternate fuels;
</P>
<P>(iii) Unavailability of adequate land or facilities for handling, using, or storing an alternate fuel;
</P>
<P>(iv) Unavailability of adequate land or facilities for controlling and disposing of wastes, including pollution control equipment or devices necessary to assure compliance with applicable environmental requirements;
</P>
<P>(v) Unavailability of adequate and reliable supply of water, including water for use in compliance with applicable environmental requirements; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Other site limitations exist which will not permit the location or operation of the proposed unit using an alternate fuel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption); and
</P>
<P>(3) The anticipated duration of the site limitation which constitutes the basis for the exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration.</I> This temporary exemption, taking into account any extensions and renewals, may not exceed five years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.23" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.23   Inability to comply with applicable environmental requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 211(a)(3) of the Act provides for a temporary exemption due to an inability to comply with applicable environmental requirements. To qualify a petitioner must demonstrate that despite diligent good faith efforts:
</P>
<P>(1) The petitioner will be unable, as of the projected date of commencement of operation, to comply with the applicable prohibitions of the Act without violating applicable Federal or State environmental requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner will be able to comply with the applicable prohibitions of the Act and with applicable environmental requirements by the end of the temporary exemption period.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>(1) For purposes of considering an exemption under this section, OFE's decision will be based solely on an analysis of the petitioner's capacity to physically achieve applicable environmental requirements. The petition should be directed toward those conditions or circumstances which make it physically impossible to comply during the temporary exemption period. The cost of compliance is not relevant, but cost-related considerations may be presented as part of a demonstration submitted under § 503.21.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to submitting an exemption petition, it is recommended that a meeting be requested with OFE and EPA or the appropriate State or local regulatory agency to discuss options for operating an alternate fuel fired facility in compliance with applicable environmental requirements.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Where the petitioner has applied for a construction permit from EPA or an appropriate State agency prior to petitioning for an exemption under this section, a copy of that application and synopsis of supporting documents filed with or subsequent to that application must be submitted to OFE with the petition or at the time filed with the permitting agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent applicable, a copy of the EPA or State denial of the construction permit application; 
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent applicable, a synopsis of the administrative record of the EPA or State or local permit proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent applicable, a summary of the technology upon which the denial was based, including a performance comparison between the proposed technology and that technology which would provide the maximum possible reduction of pollution; 
</P>
<P>(5) An examination of the environmental compliance of the facility, including an analysis of its ability to meet applicable standards and criteria when using both the proposed fuel and the alternate fuel(s) which would provide the basis for exemption. All such analysis must be based on accepted analytical techniques, such as air quality modeling, and reflect current conditions of the area which would be affected by the facility. The petitioner is responsible for obtaining the necessary data to accurately characterize these conditions. Environmental compliance must be examined in the context of available pollution control equipment which would provide the maximum possible reduction of pollution. The analysis must contain: (i) Requests for bids and other inquiries made and responses received by the petitioner concerning the availability and performance of pollution control equipment; (ii) contracts signed, if any, for an alternate fuel supply and for the purchase and installation of pollution control equipment; or (iii) other comparable evidence such as technical studies documenting the efficacy of equipment to meet applicable requirements; 
</P>
<P>(6) An examination of any regulatory options available to the petitioner in seeking to achieve environmental compliance (such as offsets, variances, and State Implementation Plan revisions); 
</P>
<P>(7) Any other documentation which demonstrates an inability to comply with applicable environmental requirements; 
</P>
<P>(8) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration.</I> This temporary exemption, taking into account any extension and renewals, may not exceed 5 years. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification alternative.</I> (1) To qualify for this exemption, in lieu of meeting the evidentiary requirements of paragraph (b) of this chapter, a petitioner may certify that, for the period of the exemption: 
</P>
<P>(i) The site for the facility is or will be located in a Class I area or Class II area in which the allowable increment established by law has been consumed, as defined in part C of the Clean Air Act; the use of an alternate fuel will cause or contribute to concentrations of pollutants which would exceed the maximum allowable increases in a Class I or Class II area even with the application of best available control technology; the site for the facility is or will be located in a non-attainment area as defined in part D of the Clean Air Act for any pollutant which would be emitted by the facility; or, even with the application of the lowest achievable emission rate, the use of an alternate fuel will cause or contribute to concentrations in an air quality control region, of a pollutant for which any national ambient air quality standard is or would be exceeded; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(2) A petition by certification under this paragraph must include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption); and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The anticipated duration of the circumstances which constitute the basis for the exemption. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.24" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.24   Future use of synthetic fuels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 211(b) of the Act provides for a temporary exemption based upon the future use of synthetic fuels. To qualify, a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) The petitioner will be able to comply with the applicable prohibitions imposed by the Act by the use of a synthetic fuel derived from coal or another alternate fuel as a primary energy source in the proposed facility by the end of the proposed exemption period;
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner will not be able to comply with the applicable prohibitions imposed by the Act by use of a synthetic fuel until the end of the proposed exemption period; and
</P>
<P>(3) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption); and 
</P>
<P>(3) A preliminary compliance plan, including to the extent available, the information required under § 503.12.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final Compliance Plan.</I> Before an exemption may become effective, the petitioner must submit and OFE must approve a final compliance plan as required by § 503.12.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration.</I> This temporary exemption may be granted for a period of up to ten (10) years. Unless the petitioner requests otherwise, any temporary exemption from the fuel use prohibitions of the Act for the future use of synthetic fuels will commence on the date of commercial operation of the facility.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Contracts based on the anticipated successful demonstration of a development program and/or the anticipated economic feasibility of a synthetic fuels facility, will generally be sufficient to meet the “binding contract” requirements for this exemption.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981; 47 FR 15315, Apr. 9, 1982; 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.25" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.25   Public interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 211(c) of the Act provides for a temporary public interest exemption. To qualify, a petitioner must demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(1) The unit will be capable of complying with the applicable prohibitions at the end of the proposed exemption period;
</P>
<P>(2) The granting of the exemption would be in accord with the purposes of the Act and would be in the public interest; and
</P>
<P>(3) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Substantial evidence to corroborate the eligibility requirements identified above; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The anticipated duration of the circumstances which constitute the basis for the exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification alternative.</I> If the petitioner requires use of oil or natural gas in a unit, during the construction of an alternate-fuel fired unit, the petitioner may substitute, in lieu of the evidentiary requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A duly executed certification, including the requested duration of the exemption, that the unit will be operated on oil or natural gas only during the construction of an alternate fuel fired unit to be owned or operated by the petitioner; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration.</I> This temporary exemption, taking into account extension and renewals, may not exceed 5 years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52894, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Permanent Exemptions for New Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.30" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.30   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart implements the provisions contained in section 212 of the Act with regard to permanent exemptions for new facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart establishes the criteria and standards which owners or operators of new powerplants and installations who petition for a permanent exemption must meet to sustain their burden of proof under the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) All petitions for permanent exemptions for new facilities shall be submitted in accordance with the procedures set out in part 501 of this chapter and the applicable requirements of part 503 of these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.31" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.31   Lack of alternate fuel supply for the first 10 years of useful life.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 212(a)(1)(A)(i) of the Act provides for a permanent exemption due to lack of an adequate and reliable supply of alternate fuel within the first 10 years of useful life of the proposed unit. To qualify, a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) A good faith effort has been made to obtain an adequate and reliable supply of an alternate fuel for use as a primary energy source of the quality and quantity necessary to conform with the design and operational requirements of the unit;
</P>
<P>(2) Such a supply is not likely to be available within the first 10 years of useful life of the proposed unit;
</P>
<P>(3) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(4) Use of mixtures is not feasible, as required under § 503.9 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Alternative sites are not available, as required under § 503.11 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> A petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption);
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental impact analysis, as required under § 503.13 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Fuels search, as required under § 503.14 of these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52895, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.32" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.32   Lack of alternate fuel supply at a cost which does not substantially exceed the cost of using imported petroleum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 212(a)(1) (A)(ii) of the Act provides for a permanent exemption due to lack of an alternate fuel supply at a cost which does not substantially exceed the cost of using imported petroleum. To qualify a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) A good faith effort has been made to obtain an adequate and reliable supply of an alternate fuel for use as a primary energy source of the quality and quantity necessary to conform with the design and operational requirements of the proposed unit;
</P>
<P>(2) The cost of using such a supply would substantially exceed the cost of using imported petroleum as a primary energy source during the useful life of the proposed unit as defined in § 503.6 (cost calculation) of these regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(4) Use of mixtures is not feasible, as required under § 503.9 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Alternative sites are not available, as required under § 503.11 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption);
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental impact analysis, as required under § 503.13 of these regulations;
</P>
<P>(4) Fuels search, as required under § 503.14 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(5) All data required by § 503.6 (cost calculation) of these regulations necessary for computing the cost calculation formula.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 15315, Apr. 9, 1982; 54 FR 52895, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.33" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.33   Site limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 212(a)(1)(B) of the Act provides for a permanent exemption due to site limitations. To qualify for such an exemption, a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) One or more specific physical limitations relevant to the location or operation of the proposed facility exist which, despite good faith efforts, cannot reasonably be expected to be overcome within five years after commencement of operations;
</P>
<P>(2) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(3) Use of mixtures is not feasible, as required under § 503.9 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Alternative sites are not available, as required under § 503.11 of these regulations. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Examples of the types of site limitations to which a petitioner may certify in order to qualify for this exemption include:
</P>
<P>(i) Inaccessibility of alternate fuels as a result of a specific physical limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unavailability of transportation facilities for alternate fuels;
</P>
<P>(iii) Unavailability of adequate land or facilities for handling, using or storing an alternate fuel;
</P>
<P>(iv) Unavailability of adequate land or facilities for controlling and disposing of wastes, including pollution control equipment or devices necessary to assure compliance with applicable environmental requirements;
</P>
<P>(v) Unavailability of adequate and reliable supply of water, including water for use in compliance with applicable environmental requirements; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Other site limitations exist which will not permit the location or operation of the proposed unit using an alternate fuel.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of the petition.</I> A petitioner must include in the petition the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption);
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental impact analysis, as required under § 503.13 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Fuels search, as required under § 503.14 of these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52895, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.34" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.34   Inability to comply with applicable environmental requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 212(a)(1)(C) of the Act provides for a permanent exemption due to the inability to comply with applicable environmental requirements. To qualify, a petitioner must demonstrate that despite good faith efforts:
</P>
<P>(1) The petitioner will be unable within 5 years after beginning operation, to comply with the applicable prohibitions imposed by the Act without violating applicable Federal or state environmental requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable alternative sites, which would permit the use of alternate fuels in compliance with applicable Federal or state environmental requirements, are not available. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>(1) For purposes of considering an exemption under this section, OFE's decision will be based solely on an analysis of the petitioner's capacity to physically achieve applicable environmental requirements. The cost of compliance is not relevant, but cost-related considerations may be presented as part of a demonstration submitted under § 503.32 (Lack of alternate fuel supply).
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to deciding to submit an exemption petition, it is recommended that a petitioner request a meeting with OFE and EPA or the appropriate state or local regulatory agency to discuss options for operating an alternate fuel-fired facility in compliance with the applicable environmental requirements.</P></NOTE>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petitioner must include in the petition the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the petitioner has applied for a construction permit from EPA or an appropriate state agency prior to petitioning for an exemption from OFE under this section, a copy of such application and a synopsis of all supporting documents filed with or subsequent to the application must be submitted to OFE with the petition or at the time filed with the permitting agency;
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent applicable, a copy of the EPA or state denial of the construction permit application;
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent applicable, a synopsis of the administrative record of the EPA or state or local permit proceedings;
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent applicable, a summary of the technology upon which the denial was based, including a performance comparison between the proposed technology and that technology which provides the maximum possible reduction of pollution;
</P>
<P>(5) An examination of the environmental compliance of the facility, including an analysis of its ability to meet applicable standards and criteria when using both the proposed fuel and the alternate fuel(s) which would provide the basis for the exemption. All such analysis must be based on accepted analytical techniques, such as air quality modeling, and reflect current conditions of the area which would be affected by the facility. The petitioner is responsible for obtaining the necessary data to accurately characterize these conditions. Environmental compliance must be examined in the context of available pollution control equipment which would provide the maximum possible reduction of pollution. The analysis must contain: (i) Requests for bids and other inquiries made and responses received by the petitioner concerning the availability and performance of pollution control equipment; or (ii) other comparable evidence such as technical studies documenting the efficacy of equipment to meet applicable requirements;
</P>
<P>(6) An examination of any regulatory options available to the petitioner in seeking to achieve environmental compliance (such as offsets, variances and State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions); and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other documentation which demonstrates an inability to comply with applicable environmental requirements;
</P>
<P>(8) No alternate power supply exists as required under § 503.8 of these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(9) Use of mixtures is not feasible, as required under § 503.9 of these regulations;
</P>
<P>(10) Alternative sites are not available, as required under § 503.11 of these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(11) Environmental impact analysis, as required under § 503.13 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(12) Fuels search, as required under § 503.14 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification alternative.</I> (1) To qualify for this exemption, in lieu of meeting the evidentiary requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, a petitioner may certify that:
</P>
<P>(i) The site for the facility is or will be located in a Class I area or Class II area in which the allowable increment established by law has been consumed, as defined in part C of the Clean Air Act; the use of an alternate fuel will cause or contribute to concentrations of pollutants which would exceed the maximum allowable increases in a Class I or Class II area even with the application of best available control technology; the site for the facility is or will be located in a non-attainment area as defined in part D of the Clean Air Act for any pollutant which would be emitted by the facility; or, even with the application of the lowest achievable emission rate, the use of an alternate fuel will cause or contribute to concentrations in an air quality control region of a pollutant for which any national ambient air quality standard is or would be exceeded;
</P>
<P>(ii) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Alternative sites are not available, as required under § 503.11 of these regulations; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Use of mixtures is not feasible, as required under § 503.19 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) A petition by certification under this paragraph must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption);
</P>
<P>(iii) Environmental impact analysis, as required under § 503.13 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Fuels search, as required under § 503.14 of these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52895, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.35" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.35   Inability to obtain adequate capital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 212(a)(1)(D) of the Act provides for a permanent exemption due to inability to obtain adequate capital. To qualify, a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) Despite good faith efforts the petitioner will be unable to comply with the applicable prohibitions imposed by the Act because the additional capital required for an alternate fuel-capable unit beyond that required for the proposed unit cannot be raised;
</P>
<P>(2) The additional capital cannot be raised: 
</P>
<P>(i) Due to specific restrictions (e.g., convenants on existing bonds) which constrain management's ability to raise debt or equity capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) Without a substantial dilution of shareholder equity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Without an unreasonably adverse affect on the utility's credit rating; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of non-investor-owned public utilities, without jeopardizing the utility's ability to recover its capital investment, through tariffs, without unreasonably adverse economic effect on its service area (such as adverse impacts on local industry or undue hardship to ratepayers).
</P>
<P>(3) No alternative power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(4) Use of mixtures is not feasible, as required under § 503.9 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Alternative sites are not available, as required under § 503.11 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> A petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption); 
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental impact analysis, as required under § 503.13 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Fuels search, as required under § 503.14 of these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 15315, Apr. 9, 1982; 54 FR 52895, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.36" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.36   State or local requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 212(b) of the Act provides for an exemption due to certain State or local requirements. To qualify a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to the proposed site of the unit, the operation or construction of the new unit using an alternate fuel is infeasible because of a State of local requirement other than a building code, nuisance, or zoning law;
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner has made a good faith effort to obtain a variance from the State or local requirement but has been unable to do so or has demonstrated why none is available;
</P>
<P>(3) The granting of the exemption would be in the public interest and would be consistent with the purposes of the Act;
</P>
<P>(4) The petitioner is not entitled to an exemption for lack of alternate fuel supply, site limitation, environmental requirements, or inability to obtain adequate capital at the site of the proposed powerplant or at any reasonable alternative site for the alternate fuel(s) considered; 
</P>
<P>(5) At the proposed site and every reasonable alternative site where the petitioner is not entitled to an exemption for lack of alternate fuel supply, site limitation, environmental requirements, or inability to obtain adequate capital, the petitioner nevertheless would be barred at each such proposed or alternate site from burning an alternate fuel by reason of a State or local requirement; 
</P>
<P>(6) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Use of mixtures is not feasible, as required under § 503.9 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption); 
</P>
<P>(3) Environmental impact analysis, as required under § 503.13 of these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Fuels search, as required under § 503.14 of these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981; 46 FR 63033, Dec. 30, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52895, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.37" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.37   Cogeneration.</HEAD>
<P>The following table may be used to determine eligibility for a permanent exemption based on oil and natural gas savings. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Average Annual Utilization of Oil and Natural Gas for Electricity Generation by State
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[BTU's per KWHR sold] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">State name 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Oil/gas savings Btu/kWh 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alabama</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arizona</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">802 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Arkansas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,363 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">California</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,502 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorado</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">289 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Connecticut</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,924 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Delaware</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,478 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Washington, DC.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">895 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Florida</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,177 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Georgia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Idaho</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Illinois</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indiana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">53 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Iowa</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">147 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kansas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">686 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kentucky</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Louisiana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,189 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maine</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,560 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maryland</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">895 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Massachusetts</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,250 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Michigan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">256 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Minnesota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">151 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mississippi</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,519 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Missouri</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Montana</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nebraska</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">139 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nevada</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">761 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Hampshire</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,695 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Jersey</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,894 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Mexico</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,528 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New York</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,219 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">North Carolina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">49 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">North Dakota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">47 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ohio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oklahoma</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,180 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oregon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pennsylvania</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">771 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rhode Island</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,800 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">South Carolina</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">South Dakota</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tennessee</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,899 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Utah</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">107 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vermont</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">105 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Virginia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">460 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Washington</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">West Virginia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">126 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wisconsin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wyoming</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Data are based upon 1987 oil, natural gas and electricity statistics published by DOE's Energy Information Administration.
</FP>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>The proposed cogeneration project is to be located in Massachusetts and is to use distillate oil. It will have a capacity of 50 MW, an average annual heat rate of 7600 BTU/KWHR, and be operated at a capacity factor of 90%. The annual fuel consumption is therefore calculated to be 2,996 × 10
<SU>9</SU> Btu/yr. (50,000 KW × 7600 BTU/KWHR × .9 × 8760 HR/YR) The oil and gas backed off the grid would be calculated to be .2070 × 10
<SU>9</SU> BTU/YR. (50,000 KW × 5250 BTU/KWHR × .9 × 8760 HR/YR) since the proposed unit would consume more oil that would be “backed off” the grid, the unit would not be eligible for a permanent exemption based on savings of oil and natural gas.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52895, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 503.38" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 503.38   Permanent exemption for certain fuel mixtures containing natural gas or petroleum.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> Section 212(d) of the Act provides for a permanent exemption for certain fuel mixtures. To qualify a petitioner must certify that:
</P>
<P>(1) The petitioner proposes to use a mixture of natural gas or petroleum and an alternate fuel as a primary energy source;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of petroleum or natural gas proposed to be used in the mixture will not exceed the minimum percentage of the total annual Btu heat input of the primary energy sources needed to maintain operational reliability of the unit consistent with maintaining a reasonable level of fuel efficiency; and
</P>
<P>(3) No alternate power supply exists, as required under § 503.8 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evidence required in support of a petition.</I> The petition must include the following evidence in order to make the demonstration required by this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Duly executed certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits containing the basis for the certifications required under paragraph (a) of this section (including those factual and analytical materials deemed by the petitioner to be sufficient to support the granting of this exemption);
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the fuel mixture, including component fuels and the percentage of each such fuel to be used; and
</P>
<P>(4) Environmental impact analysis as required under § 503.13 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Solar mixtures.</I> OFE will grant a permanent mixtures exemption for the use of a mixture of solar energy (including wind, tide, and other intermittent sources) and petroleum or natural gas, where:
</P>
<P>(1) Solar energy will account for at least 20 percent of the total annual Btu heat input, of the primary energy sources of the unit; and
</P>
<P>(2) Petitioner meets the eligibility and evidentiary requirements of paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59903, Dec. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 52896, Dec. 22, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 503.39-503.44" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 503.39-503.44   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="504" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 504—EXISTING POWERPLANTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. § 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3289 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Security Act, Pub. L. 96-294, 94 Stat. 611 (42 U.S.C. 8701 <I>et seq.</I>); E.O. 1209, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 53692, Aug. 12, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1903-0075. See 46 FR 63209, Dec. 31, 1981)


</APPRO>

<DIV8 N="§ 504.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 504.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Sections 504.5, 504.6, and 504.8, set forth the prohibitions that OFP, pursuant to section 301 of the Act, as amended, may impose upon existing powerplants after a review of the certification and prohibition order compliance schedule submitted by the owner or operator of a powerplant. Sections 504.5 and 504.8 are explanatory sections, and § 504.6 provides the informational requirements necessary to support the certification.
</P>
<P>(b) Sections 504.6 and 504.7, set forth the prohibitions that OFP may impose upon certain electing powerplants, pursuant to former section 301 (b) and (c) of FUA, where OFP can make the findings as to the unit's technical capability and financial feasibility to use coal or another alternate fuel as a primary energy source. The prohibitions may be made to apply to electing powerplants unless an exemption is granted by OFP under the provisions of the Final Rule for Existing Facilities (10 CFR parts 500, 501 and 504) published at 45 FR 53682, Aug. 12, 1980 and 46 FR 59872, Dec. 7, 1981. Any person who owns, controls, rents or leases an existing electing powerplant may be subject to the prohibitions imposed by and the sanctions provided for in the Act or these regulations, if OFP can make the findings required by former section 301 (b) and (c) of FUA. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Pub. L. 97-35; E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 50849, Nov. 10, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 504.3-504.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 504.3-504.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 504.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 504.5   Prohibitions by order (certifying powerplants under section 301 of FUA, as amended).</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of existing powerplants, OFP may prohibit, in accordance with section 301 of the Act, as amended, the use of petroleum or natural gas as a primary energy source where the owner or operator of the powerplant presents a complete certification concurred in by OFP. The certification, which may be presented at any time, pertains to the unit's technical capability and financial feasibility to use coal or another alternate fuel as a primary energy source in the unit. The informational requirements necessary to support a certification are contained in § 504.6 of these regulations. A prohibition compliance schedule which meets the requirements of § 504.5(d) shall also be submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) If OFP concurs with the certification, a prohibition order on the powerplant's use of petroleum or natural gas will be issued following the procedure outlined in § 501.52 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) The petitioner may amend its certification at any time prior to the effective date of the prohibitions contained in the final prohibition order in order to take into account changes in relevant facts and circumstances by following the procedure contained in § 501.52(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition order compliance schedule.</I> The certification described above, which forms the basis for the issuance of a prohibition order to a powerplant, shall include a prohibition order compliance schedule. The compliance schedule should contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A schedule of progressive events involved in the conversion project, including construction of any facilities for the production of fuel or fuel handling equipment, and contracts for the purchase of alternate fuels, and estimated date of compliance with the applicable prohibitions of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) A schedule indicating estimated dates for obtaining necessary federal, state, and local permits and approvals. Any prohibition order issued under the certification provisions of §§ 504.5, 504.6, and 504.8 will be subject to appropriate conditions subsequent so as to delay the effectiveness of the prohibitions contained in the final prohibition order until the above events or permits have occurred or been obtained.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1903-0077)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-319, as amended by Pub. L. 94-163, Pub. L. 95-70, and Pub. L. 95-620 (15 U.S.C. 719 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, as amended by Pub. L. 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Pub. L. 97-35)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17044, Apr. 21, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 504.6" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 504.6   Prohibitions by order (case-by-case).</HEAD>
<P>(a) OFP may prohibit, by order, the use of natural gas or petroleum as a primary energy source in existing powerplants under certain circumstances. In the case of certifying powerplants under section 301 of the Act, as amended, the petitioner must present evidence to support the certification, required by § 504.6 (c), (d), (e), and (f). In the case of electing powerplants, OFP must make the following findings required by § 504.6 (c), (d), (e), and (f), in order to issue a prohibition order to the unit, pursuant to former section 301 (b) or (c):
</P>
<P>(1) The unit currently has, or previously had, the technical capability to use an alternate fuel as a primary energy source; 
</P>
<P>(2) The unit has this technical capability now, or it could have the technical capability without: 
</P>
<P>(i) A substantial physical modification of the unit; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A substantial reduction in the rated capacity of the unit; and 
</P>
<P>(3) It is financially feasible for the unit to use an alternate fuel as its primary energy source. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of electing powerplants, OFP must make a proposed finding regarding the technical capability of a unit to use alternate fuel as identified in paragraph (a) (1) of this section prior to the date of publication of the notice of the proposed prohibition. OFP will publish this finding in The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> along with the notice of the proposed prohibition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Technical capability.</I> (1) In the case of electing and certifying powerplants, OFP will consider “technical capability” on a case-by-case basis in order to make the required finding. In the case of a certifying powerplant, the powerplant should present information to support the certification relevant to the considerations set forth below. OFP will consider the ability of the unit, from the point of fuel intake to physically sustain combustion of a given fuel and to maintain heat transfer. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> OFP will not ordinarily consider the nature or absence of appurtenances outside the unit. For example, OFP will examine the furnace configuration and ash removal capability but will not normally consider the need to install pollution control equipment as a measure of technical capability. Furthermore, OFP will not normally conclude that the absence of fuel handling equipment, such as conveyor belts, pulverizers, or unloading facilities, bears on the issue of a unit's “technical capability” to burn an alternate fuel.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) OFP considers that a unit “had” the technical capability to use an alternate fuel if the unit was once able to burn that fuel (regardless of whether the unit was expressly designed to burn that fuel or whether it ever actually did burn it), but is no longer able to do so at the present due to temporary or permanent alterations to the unit itself. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For example, a unit which at one time burned solid coal but which could no longer do so because its coal firing ports and sluicing channels had been cemented over, would be classified as having “had” the technical capability to use coal. (The question of whether it again “could have” such capability without “substantial physical modification” is a separate and additional question.)</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) A unit “has” the technical capability to use an alternate fuel if it can burn an alternate fuel, notwithstanding the fact that adjustments must be made to the unit beforehand or that pollution control equipment may be required to meet air quality requirements. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> A unit designed to burn natural gas shall be presumed to have the technical capability to burn a synthetic fuel such as medium Btu gas from coal (assuming such gas is available unless convincing evidence to the contrary is submitted in rebuttal). Also a unit designed to burn oil may, depending upon the chemical characteristics, be a unit that “has” the technical capability to burn liquefied coal. The fact that certain adjustments may be necessary does not render this a “hypothetical” as opposed to a “real” capability. Even an oil fired unit converting from the use of #2 distillate to #6 residual oil may be required to adjust or replace burner nozzles and add soot blowers.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Substantial physical modification.</I> In the case of electing and certifying powerplants, OFP will make its determination on whether a physical modification to a unit is “substantial” on a case-by-case basis. In the case of certifying powerplants, OFP will consider the factors set forth below for the purpose of concurrence in the certification. OFP will consider physical modifications made to the unit as “substantial” where warranted by the magnitude and complexity of the engineering task or where the modification would impact severely upon operations at the site. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> OFP will not, however, assess physical modification on the basis of cost.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Generally, modification of a unit to burn coal or an alternate fuel will be considered insubstantial if significant alterations to the boiler, such as a change to the furnace configuration or a complete respacing of the tubes, are not required. Minor alterations such as replacement of burners or additions of soot blowers, and additions or alterations outside the boiler, shall not cause the modification to be substantial.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>Substantial reduction in rated capacity.</I> In the case of electing and certifying powerplants, OFP will make this determination on the basis of the following factors. A certifying powerplant should present information to support its certification regarding these factors in order for OFP to make its review for concurrence. 
</P>
<P>(1) OFP regards a unit's derating of 25 percent or more, as a result of converting a unit from oil or gas to an alternate fuel, as substantial. 
</P>
<P>(2) OFP will presume that a derating of less than 10 percent, as a result of converting a unit from oil or gas to an alternate fuel, is not substantial unless convincing evidence to the contrary is submitted in rebuttal. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> For example, units that are the subject of a prohibition order will not have installed any operating air pollution control equipment sufficient to burn coal in compliance with applicable environmental equipments. The installation and use of air pollution control equipment alone can, in many cases, produce a derating. Moreover, the shift to coal itself will, because of differences in energy density and fuel flow characteristics, typically involve some derating.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) OFP will assess units for which a derating is claimed of 10 percent or more, but less than 25 percent, on a case-by-case. 
</P>
<P>(4) In assessing whether a unit's derating is not substantial, OFP will consider the impact of a reduction in rated capacity of the unit taking into consideration all necessary appurtenances such as air pollution control equipment required to burn an alternate fuel in compliance with environmental requirements expected to be applicable at the date the prohibitions contained in the final prohibition order become effective. However, the potential order recipient may raise in rebuttal the impact of derating on the site at which the unit is located and on the system as well as on the unit itself, if under paragraph (e)(2), or case-by-case, if under paragraph (e)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Financial feasibility.</I> In the case of certifying and electing powerplants, OFP will make this finding based on the following considerations. A certifying powerplant should present information to support its certification relevant to these considerations in order for OFP to make its review for concurrence. Conversion of a unit to burn coal or an alternate fuel shall be deemed financially feasible if the firm has the actual ability to obtain sufficient capital to finance the conversion, including all necessary land, coal and ash handling equipment, pollution control equipment, and all other necessary expenditures, without violating legal restrictions on its ability to raise debt or equity capital, unreasonably diluting shareholder equity, or unreasonably adversely affecting its credit rating. OFP will consider any economic or financial factors presented by the proposed order recipient in determining the firm's ability or inability to finance the conversion including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The required coverage ratios on the firm's debt and preferred stock;
</P>
<P>(2) The firm's investment program; and
</P>
<P>(3) The financial impact of the conversion, including other conversions which are or may be undertaken voluntarily by the proposed order recipient or imposed upon the recipient's system by the Act, and including pending or planned construction or reconstruction of alternate-fuel-fired plants and plants exempt from FUA prohibitions. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Where helpful in clarifying the long-term financial feasibility of a conversion, DOE may analyze the economic benefits anticipated from operation of the converted unit or units using coal or other alternate fuel relative to those from continued operation using petroleum or natural gas.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> OFP will not require the proposed order recipient to cancel or defer construction or reconstruction of any alternate-fuel-fired facility, or any facility exempt from the prohibitions of the Act, for which a decision to finance such facility has been made by the appropriate company official before the publication of the prohibition order. The proposed order recipient may choose to cancel or defer any such facility.</P></FTNT>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1903-0077)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-319, as amended by Pub. L. 94-163, Pub. L. 95-70, and 15 U.S.C. 719 <I>et seq.;</I> Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (Pub. L. 97-35); E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 53692, Aug. 12, 1980, as amended at 47 FR 17044, Apr. 21, 1982; 47 FR 50849, Nov. 10, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 504.7" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 504.7   Prohibition against excessive use of petroleum or natural gas in mixtures—electing powerplants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of electing powerplants, if OFP finds that it is technically and financially feasible for a unit to use a mixture of petroleum or natural gas and an alternate fuel as its primary energy source, OFP may prohibit, by order, the use in that unit of petroleum or natural gas, or both, in amounts exceeding the minimum amount necessary to maintain reliability of operation consistent with maintaining reasonable fuel efficiency of the mixture.
</P>
<P>(b) In making the technical feasibility finding required by former section 301 (b) and (c) of the Act and paragraph (a) of this section, OFP may weigh “physical modification” or “derating of the unit,” but these considerations, by themselves, will not control the technical feasibility finding. A technical feasibility finding might be made notwithstanding the need for substantial physical modification. The economic consequences of a substantial physical modification are taken into account in determining financial feasibility.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-319, as amended by Pub. L. 94-163, Pub. L. 95-70, and 15 U.S.C. 719 <I>et seq.;</I> Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, 92 Stat. 3269 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (Pub. L. 97-35); E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267, Sept. 15, 1977)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17045, Apr. 21, 1982, and 47 FR 50850, Nov. 10, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 504.8" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 504.8   Prohibitions against excessive use of petroleum or natural gas in mixtures—certifying powerplants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of certifying powerplants, OFP may prohibit the use of petroleum or natural gas in such powerplant in amounts exceeding the minimum amount necessary to maintain reliability of operation consistent with maintaining the reasonable fuel efficiency of the mixture. This authority is contained in section 301(c) of the Act, as amended. The owner or operator of the powerplant may certify at any time to OFP that it is technically capable and financially feasible for the unit to use a mixture of petroleum or natural gas and coal or another alternate fuel as a primary energy source. In assessing whether the unit is technically capable of using a mixture of petroleum or natural gas and coal or another alternate fuel as a primary energy source, for purposes of this section, the extent of any physical modification necessary to convert the unit and any concomitant reduction in rated capacity are not relevant factors. So long as a unit as proposed to be modified would be technically capable of using the mixture as a primary energy source under § 504.6(c), this certification requirement shall be deemed met. The criteria for certification of financial feasibility are found at § 504.6(f). In addition, the powerplant's owner or operator must submit a prohibition compliance schedule, which meets the requirements of § 504.5(d).
</P>
<P>(b) If OFP concurs with the certification, a prohibition order against the unit's excessive use of petroleum or natural gas in the mixture will be issued following the procedure outlined in § 501.52 of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) The petitioner may seek to amend its certification in order to take into account changes in relevant facts and circumstances by following the procedure contained in § 501.52(d).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The authority of OFP implemented under this section should not be confused with the other two fuel mixture provisions of these regulations. One is the general requirement that petitioners for permanent exemptions demonstrate that the use of a mixture of natural gas or petroleum and an alternate fuel is not economically or technically feasible (See § 504.15). The second is the permanent fuel mixtures exemption itself (See § 504.56).</P></NOTE>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1903-0077)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-319, as amended by Pub. L. 94-163, Pub. L. 95-70, and Pub. L. 95-620 (15 U.S.C. 719 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, as amended by Pub. L. 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Pub. L. 97-35)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17045, Apr. 21, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 504.9" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 504.9   Environmental requirements for certifying powerplants.</HEAD>
<P>Under §§ 501.52, 504.5 and 504.6 of these regulations, OFP may prohibit, in accordance with section 301 and section 303 (a) or (b) of FUA, as amended, the use of natural gas or petroleum, or both, as a primary energy source in any certifying powerplant. Under sections 301(c) and 303(a) of FUA, as amended, and §§ 501.52, 504.6, and 504.8 of these regulations, OFP may prohibit the excessive use of natural gas or petroleum in a mixture with an alternate fuel as a primary energy source in a certifying powerplant.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>NEPA compliance.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, where the owner or operator of a powerplant seeks to obtain an OFP prohibition order through the certification procedure, and did not hold either a proposed prohibition order under former section 301 of FUA or pending order under section 2 of ESECA, it will be responsible for the costs of preparing any necessary Environmental Assessment (EA) or Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) arising from OFP's obligation to comply with NEPA. The powerplant owner or operator shall enter into a contract with an independent party selected by OFP, who is qualified to conduct an environmental review and prepare an EA or EIS, as appropriate, and who does not have a financial or other interest in the outcome of the proceedings, under the supervision of OFP. The NEPA process must be completed and approved before OFP will issue a final prohibition order based on the certification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Environmental review procedure.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, environmental documents, including the EA and EIS, where necessary, will be prepared utilizing the process set forth above. OFP, the powerplant owner or operator and the independent third party shall enter into an agreement for the owner or operator to engage and pay directly for the services of the qualified third party to prepare the necessary documents. The third party will execute an OFP prepared disclosure document stating that he does not have any conflict of interest, financial or otherwise, in the outcome of either the environmental process or the prohibition order proceeding. The agreement shall outline the responsibilities of each party and his relationship to the other two parties regarding the work to be done or supervised. OFP shall approve the information to be developed and supervise the gathering, analysis and presentation of the information. In addition, OFP will have the authority to approve and modify any statement, analysis, and conclusion contained in the third party prepared environmental documents.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial hardship.</I> Whenever the bona fide estimate of the costs associated with NEPA compliance, if borne by the powerplant owner or operator, would make the conversion financially infeasible, OFP may waive the requirement set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and perform the necessary environmental review.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1903-0077)
</APPRO>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-319, as amended by Pub. L. 94-163, Pub. L. 95-70, and Pub. L. 95-620 (15 U.S.C. 719 <I>et seq.</I>); Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, Pub. L. 95-620, as amended by Pub. L. 97-35 (42 U.S.C. 8301 <I>et seq.</I>); Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Pub. L. 97-35)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17046, Apr. 21, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.8.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 504—Procedures for the Computation of the Real Cost of Capital
</HEAD>
<P>(a) The firm's real after-tax weighted average marginal cost of capital (K) is computed with equation 1.
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="86" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.003.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>The terms in equation 1 are defined as follows:
</FP>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">d</E> = Fraction of existing capital structure which is debt.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">p</E> = Fraction of existing capital structure which is preferred equity.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>W<E T="52">e</E> = Fraction of existing capital structure which is common equity and retained earnings.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">d</E> = Predicted nominal cost of long term debt expressed as a fraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">p</E> = Predicted nominal cost of preferred stock expressed as a fraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">e</E> = Predicted nominal cost of common stock expressed as a fraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>INF = Percentage change in the GNP implicit price deflator over the past 12 months expressed as a fraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>f<E T="52">d</E> = Flotation cost of debt expressed as a fraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>f<E T="52">p</E> = Flotation cost of preferred stock expressed as a fraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>f<E T="52">e</E> = Flotation cost of common stock expressed as a fraction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>t = Marginal federal income tax rate for the current year.
</FP-2>
<P>(b) <I>Information on parameters used in Equation 1.</I> (1) The parameters used in equation 1 will be the best practicable estimates. They will be obtained from the firm, accepted rating services (e.g., Standard &amp; Poors, Moody's), government publications, accepted financial publications, annual financial reports and statements of firms, and investment bankers.
</P>
<P>(2) The predicted nominal cost of debt (R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">d</E>) may be estimated by determining the current average yield on newly issued bonds—industrial or utility as appropriate—which have the same rating as the firm's most recent debt issue.
</P>
<P>(3) The predicted nominal cost of preferred stock (R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">p</E>) may be estimated by determining the current average yield on newly issued preferred stock—industrial or utility as appropriate—which has the same rating as the firm's most recent preferred stock issue.
</P>
<P>(4)(A) The predicted nominal cost of common stock (R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">e</E>) is computed with equation 2. 
</P>
<FP-2>Eq 2  R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">e</E> = R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">f</E> + B × R
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">m</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">f</E> = The risk free interest rate—the average of the most recent auction rates of U.S. Government 13-week Treasury Bills,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = The “beta” coefficient—the relationship between the excess return on common stock and the excess return on the S&amp;P 500 composite index, and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>R
<AC T="8"/><E T="52">m</E> = The mean excess return on the S&amp;P 500 composite index—the mean of the difference between the return on the S&amp;P 500 composite index and the risk free interest rate for the years 1926-1976 as computed by Ibbotson and Sinquefield(<I>1)—</I>9.2%
</FP-2>
<P>(B) The “beta” coefficient is computed with regression analysis techniques. The regression equation is Equation 3.
</P>
<FP-2>(R <E T="52">e</E><E T="51">t</E> − R <E T="52">f</E><E T="51">t</E>) = A + B(R <E T="52">m</E><E T="51">t</E> − R <E T="52">f</E><E T="51">t</E>) + e <E T="51">t</E>
</FP-2>
<FRP0>Eq. 3
</FRP0>
<FP>where
</FP>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="23" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.004.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>R<E T="52">f</E>t = The risk free interest rate in month t—the average of the yields on 13-week treasury bills auctioned in month t.(<I>2</I>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A = A constant which should not be significantly different than zero.
</FP-2>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="27" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.005.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>e <E T="51">t</E> = The error in month t.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PRCC <E T="52">t</E> = Closing market prices of the firm's common stock at the end of month t fully adjusted for splits and stock dividends.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>DIVRATE <E T="52">t</E> = The sum of the dividends paid in the fiscal year which contain month t.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V <E T="52">sp,t</E> = The market value of “one share” of the S&amp;P 500 composite index at the end of month t.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D <E T="52">sp,t</E> = The estimated monthly income received from holding “one share” of the S&amp;P 500 in month t.
</FP-2>
<P>The regression analysis is done with sixty months of data. The first month (t = 1) is sixty months before the month in which the firm's current fiscal year started. The last month (t = 60) is the last month of the past fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(5) Where the parameters specified above are not obtainable, alternate parameters that closely correspond to those above may be used. This may include substituting a bond yield for nominal cost of preferred stock where the former is not available. Where the capital structure does not consist of any debt, preferred equity, or common equity, an alternate methodology to predict the firm's real after-tax marginal cost of capital may be used.
</P>
<P>Example of using alternate parameters that closely correspond to those above are:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of industrials, who do not typically issue preferred stock, the predicted nominal cost of preferred stock (R
<AC T="3"/><E T="52">P</E>) can be estimated by determining the current average yield on newly issued industrial bonds which have the same rating as the firm's most recent debt issue.
</P>
<P>(B) If necessary, the following assumptions can be made to determine the nominal cost of debt or preferred stock and their flotation costs.
</P>
<P>(i) Where a company issued privately placed debt that was not rated, the rating, applied to preferred stock could be used to determine the cost of debt and its flotation cost.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where a company issued privately placed preferred stock that was not rated, the rating applied to debt could be used to determine the cost of preferred stock and its flotation costs.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case where all issues were privately placed, the current average yield on all newly issued debt or preferred could be used to determine the cost of debt or preferred respectively, and an average flotation cost, for debt or preferred, could be used.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Evidence Requirements.</I> Copies of this calculation with notations as to the source of the data must be submitted.
</P>
<HD1>Footnotes
</HD1>
<P>(1) Ibbotson, R.E. and R.A. Sinquefield, <I>Stocks, Bonds, Bills, and Inflation,</I> Charlottesville, Va.: The Financial Analysts Research Foundation, 1977, cited by Ernst &amp; Whinney, <I>Costs of Capital and Rates of Return for Industrial Firms and Class A&amp;B Electric Utility Firms,</I> June 1979, p. 3-8.
</P>
<P>(2) As an option, R <E T="52">f</E> t can be developed with the following equation:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="27" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.006.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>D <E T="51">t</E> = The average annual yield on three month U.S. Treasury bills reported in the <I>Survey of Current Business</I> auctioned in month t—which is reported using the bank discount method.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>N = Number of days to maturity.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 59920, Dec. 7, 1981] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix II" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.4.0.1.8.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix II to Part 504—Fuel Price Computation
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> This appendix provides the equations and parameters needed to specify the price of the delivered fuels to be used in the cost calculations associated with parts 503 and 504 of these regulations. The delivered price of the fuel to be used to calculate delivered fuel expenses must reflect (1) the price of each fuel at the time of the petition, and (2) the effects of future real price increases for each fuel. The delivered price of an alternate fuel used to calculate delivered fuel expenses must reflect the petitioner's delivered price of the alternate fuel and the effects of real increases in the price of that alternate fuel. Paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) below provide the procedure to: (1) Calculate fuel price and inflation indices; (2) account for projected real increases in fuel prices when planning to burn one or more than one fuel; and (3) account for projected real increases in the price of the alternate fuel. Table II-1 of this appendix (See paragraph (b)) contains example fuel price and inflation indices based on the latest data appearing in the Energy Information Administration's (EIA) <I>Annual Energy Outlook</I> (AEO). 
</P>
<P>The fuel price and inflation indices will change yearly with the publication of the <I>AEO.</I> Revisions shall become effective after final publication. However, the relevant set of parameters for a specific petition for exemption will be the set in effect at the time the petition is submitted or the set in effect at the time a decision is rendered, whichever is more favorable to the petitioner. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation of Fuel Price and Inflation Indices.</I> (1) the Petitioner is responsible for computing the annual fuel price and inflation indices by using Equation II-1 and Equation II-2, respectively. The petitioner may compute the fuel price index specified in Equation II-1 or use his own price index. However, if he uses his own price index, the source or the derivation of the index must be fully documented and be contained in the evidential summary.
</P>
<P>EQ II-2 is:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="27" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.007.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>PXV<E T="52">i</E> = The fuel price index for each fuel in year i. P <E T="52">i</E> = Price of fuel in year i. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P <E T="52">o</E> = Price of fuel in base year.
</FP-2>
<P>EQ II-2 is:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="27" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.008.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>IX <E T="52">i</E> = The inflation index in year i. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>GX <E T="52">i</E> = The NIPA GNP price deflator for year i. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>GX <E T="52">o</E> = The NIPA GNP price deflator for the base year.
</FP-2>
<P>(2) The parameters to be used in EQ II-1 are the Base Case fuel price projections found in EIA's current <I>AEO.</I> 
</P>
<P>(3) When computing annual inflation indices, the petitioner is to use the Base Case National Macroeconomic Indicators (NIPA GNP Price Deflator) contained in EIA's current <I>AEO.</I> If necessary, the petitioner must rebase the projection to the same year used for the fuel price projections. For example, in 1989 <I>AEO</I> projects the price deflator in 1982 dollars; this must be rebased to the year in which the petition is filed. The methodology used to rebase the inflation indices must follow standard statistical procedures and must be fully documented within the petition. This index will remain frozen at the last year of the <I>AEO</I>'s projection for the remainder of the unit'(s) useful life. 
</P>
<P>(4) Table II-1 is provided as an example of the application of equations II-1 and II-2. This table contains annual fuel price indices for distillate oil, residual oil, natural gas, and coal. It also contains annual inflation indices. These values were computed from information contained in Table A3 and Table A11 of EIA's <I>AEO, 1989.</I> 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table II-1: Price and Inflation Indices for use in the Cost Calculations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Year 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Distillate (DPX) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Residual (RPX) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Natural gas (GPX) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Coal (CPX) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Inflation (IX) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1986</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1987</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9810</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2134</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9508</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9231</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0334 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1988</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9429</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9407</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8934</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8876</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0658 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1989</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8929</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9328</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9057</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8639</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1054 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1990</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9905</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0119</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9221</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9112</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1607 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1991</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0381</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0751</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9344</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9172</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2204 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1992</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0929</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1344</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0205</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9231</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2836 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1993</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1595</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2292</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1148</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9349</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3512 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1994</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2286</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3241</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1844</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9467</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4214 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1995</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4150</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2705</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9527</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4960 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1996</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5415</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4016</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9586</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5768 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1997</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4762</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6403</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4918</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9704</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6585 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1998</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5452</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7273</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5615</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9763</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7410 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1999</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6143</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7905</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6475</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9882</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8235 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">I.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2002</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2003</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2004</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2005</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2006</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2007</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2008</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8430</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2009</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2010</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6690</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8340</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7049</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9941</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9025</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) <I>Fuel Price Computation.</I> (1) The delivered price of the proposed fuel to be burned (FPB <E T="52">i</E>) must reflect the real escalation rate of the proposed fuel, and must be computed with Equation EQ II-3. 
</P>
<FP-2>EQ-II-3 is: FPB <E T="52">i</E> = MPB [PX <E T="52">i</E>] 
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>FPB <E T="52">i</E> = Price of the proposed fuel (distillate oil, residual oil, or natural gas) in year i. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>MPB = The current delivered market price of the proposed fuel. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PX <E T="52">i</E> = The fuel price index value in year i, computed with Equation II-1.
</FP-2>
<FP>or:
</FP>
<P>(2) When planning to use more than one fuel in the proposed unit(s), the petitioner must use Equation II-1 and Equation II-3 to calculate the annual fuel price of each fuel to be used. The petitioner then must estimate the proportion of each fuel to be burned annually over the useful life of the unit(s). With these proportions and the respective annual fuel prices for each fuel, the petitioner must compute an annual weighted average fuel price. The methodology used to calculate the weighted average fuel price must follow standard statistical procedures and be fully documented within the petition. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fuel Price Computation—Alternate Fuel.</I> The delivered price of alternate fuel (PFA<E T="52">i</E>) must reflect the real escalation rate of alternate fuel and must be computed with Equation II-4. 
</P>
<FP-2>Equation II-4 is:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>PFA<E T="52">i</E> = APF × apx<E T="52">i</E> 
</FP-2>
<FP>where: 
</FP>
<FP-2>PFA = The price of the alternate fuel in year i. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APF <E T="51">−i</E> = The current market price of the alternate fuel f.o.b. the facility). 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APX <E T="52">i</E> = The alternate fuel price index value for year i, computed with Equation II-1.
</FP-2>
<P>In most cases the alternate fuel will be coal. The petitioner must use Equation II-1 (paragraph (b)) to compute the escalation rate (APX<E T="52">i</E>). If an alternate fuel other than coal is proposed the source or the derivation of the index must be fully documented and be contained in the evidential summary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 52896, Dec. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="508" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 508 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="516" NODE="10:5.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 516 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="G" NODE="10:5.0.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER G—NATURAL GAS (ECONOMIC REGULATORY ADMINISTRATION) 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="580" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 580—CURTAILMENT PRIORITIES FOR ESSENTIAL AGRICULTURAL USES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 401, 403, Pub. L. 95-621, 92 Stat. 3394-3395, 3396; secs. 301(b), 402(a), Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 578, 594, (42 U.S.C. 7115(b), 7117(a)); E.O. 12009, 42 FR 46267. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 15646, Mar. 15, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 580.01" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.01   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement the authority granted to the Secretary of Energy in section 401 of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, Public Law 95-621, 92 Stat. 3394-3395 (1978). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.02" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms defined in section 2 of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978 shall have the same meaning, as applicable, for purposes of this part, unless further defined in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following definitions are applicable to this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial establishment</I> means any establishment, (including institutions and local, state and federal government agencies) engaged primarily in the sale of goods or services, where natural gas is used for purposes other than those involving manufacturing or electric power generation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Essential agricultural use</I> means any use of natural gas: 
</P>
<P>(i) For agricultural production, natural fiber production, natural fiber processing, food processing, food quality maintenance, irrigation pumping, crop drying; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) As a process fuel or feedstock in the production of fertilizer, agricultural chemicals, animal feed, or food which the Secretary of Agriculture determines is necessary for full food and fiber production. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Essential agricultural user</I> means any person who uses natural gas for an essential agricultural use as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hospital</I> means a facility whose primary function is delivering medical care to patients who remain at the facility, including nursing and convalescent homes. Outpatient clinics or doctors' offices are not included in this definition. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>High-priority use</I> means any use of natural gas by a high-priority user as defined in paragraph (a)(6) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>High-priority user</I> means, in no specific order, any person who uses natural gas: 
</P>
<P>(i) In a residence, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In a commercial establishment in amounts of less than 50 Mcf on a peak day; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) In any school or hospital; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) For minimum plant protection when operations are shut down, for police protection, for fire protection, in a sanitation facility, in a correctional facility, or for emergency situations pursuant to 18 CFR 2.78(a)(4). 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Interstate pipeline</I> means any person engaged in natural gas transportation subject to the jurisdiction of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission under the Natural Gas Act. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Residence</I> means a dwelling using natural gas predominately for residential purposes such as space heating, air conditioning, hot water heating, cooking, clothes drying, and other residential uses, and includes apartment buildings and other multi-unit residential buildings. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>School</I> means a facility, the primary function of which is to deliver instruction to regularly enrolled students in attendance at such facility. Facilities used for both educational and non-educational activities are not included under this definition unless the latter are merely incidental to the delivery of instruction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.03" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.03   Curtailment priorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any provision of law other than section 401(b) of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, or any other rule, regulation, or order of the Department of Energy, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission or their predecessor agencies, and to the maximum extent practicable, no curtailment plan of an interstate pipeline may provide for curtailment of deliveries of natural gas for any essential agricultural use, unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) Such curtailment does not reduce the quantity of natural gas delivered for such use below the use requirement certified by the Secretary of Agriculture under section 401(c) of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978 in order to meet the requirements of full food and fiber production; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Such curtailment is necessary in order to meet the requirements of high-priority users; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, in consultation with the Secretary of Agriculture, determines, by rule or order issued pursuant to section 401(b) of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, that use of a fuel (other than natural gas) is economically practicable and that the fuel is reasonably available as an alternative for such essential agricultural use. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any essential agricultural user who also qualifies as a high-priority user shall be a high-priority user for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The specific relative order of priority for all uses and users of natural gas, including high-priority and essential agricultural uses and users, shall remain as reflected in effective curtailment plans of interstate pipelines filed with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission to the extent that the relative order of priorities does not conflict with paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this rule shall prohibit the injection of natural gas into storage by interstate pipelines or deliveries to its customers for their injection into storage unless it is demonstrated to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission that these injections or deliveries are not reasonably necessary to meet the requirements of high-priority users or essential agricultural uses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 580.04" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 580.04   Administrative procedures. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="590" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 590—ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES WITH RESPECT TO THE IMPORT AND EXPORT OF NATURAL GAS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 301(b), 402(f), and 644, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 578, 585, and 599 (42 U.S.C. 7151(b), 7172(f), and 7254), Sec. 3, Act of June 21, 1938, c. 556, 52 Stat. 822 (15 U.S.C. 717b); E.O. 12009 (42 FR 46267, September 15, 1977); DOE Delegation Order Nos. 0204-111 and 0204-127 (49 FR 6684, February 22, 1984; 54 FR 11437, March 20, 1989).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.100" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.100   OMB Control Numbers.</HEAD>
<P>The information collection requirements contained in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control No. 1903-0081.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.101" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.101   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish the rules and procedures required to be followed by persons to obtain authorizations from DOE to import or export natural gas under the Natural Gas Act and by all other persons interested in participating in a natural gas import or export proceeding before the agency. This part establishes the procedural rules necessary to implement the authorities vested in the Secretary of Energy by sections 301(b) and 402(f) of the DOE Act, which have been delegated to the Assistant Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.102" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assistant Secretary</I> means the Assistant Secretary for Fossil Energy or any employee of the DOE who has been delegated final decisional authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contested proceeding</I> means a proceeding:
</P>
<P>(1) Where a protest or a motion to intervene, or a notice of intervention, in opposition to an application or other requested action has been filed, or
</P>
<P>(2) Where a party otherwise notifies the Assistant Secretary and the other parties to a proceeding in writing that it opposes an application or other requested action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisional employee</I> means the Assistant Secretary, presiding officials at conferences, oral presentations or trial-type hearings, and any other employee of the DOE, including consultants and contractors, who are, or may reasonably be expected to be, involved in the decision-making process, including advising the Assistant Secretary on the resolution of issues involved in a proceeding. The term includes those employees of the DOE assisting in the conduct of trial-type hearings by performing functions on behalf of the Assistant Secretary or presiding official.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy, of which FE is a part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>DOE Act</I> means the Department of Energy Organization Act, Public Law 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FE</I> means the Office of The Assistant Secretary for Fossil Energy.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FERC</I> means the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Interested person</I> means a person, other than a decisional employee, whose interest in a proceeding goes beyond the general interest of the public as a whole and includes applicants, intervenors, competitors of applicants, and other individuals and organizations, including non-profit and public interest organizations, and state, local, and other public officials, with a proprietary, financial or other special interest in the outcome of a proceeding. The term does not include other federal agencies or foreign governments and their representatives, unless the agency, foreign government, or representative of a foreign government is a party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Natural gas</I> means natural gas and mixtures of natural gas and synthetic natural gas, regardless of physical form or phase, including liquefied natural gas and gels primarily composed of natural gas.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>NGA</I> means the Natural Gas Act of June 21, 1938, c. 556, 52 Stat. 821 (15 U.S.C. 717 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Off-the-record communication</I> means a written or oral communication not on the record which is relevant to the merits of a proceeding, and about which the parties have not been given reasonable prior notice of the nature and purpose of the communication and an opportunity to be present during such communication or, in the case of a written communication, an opportunity to respond to the communication. It does not include communications concerned solely with procedures which are not relevant to the merits of a proceeding. It also does not include general background discussions about an entire industry or natural gas markets or communications of a general nature made in the course of developing agency policy for future general application, even though these discussions may relate to the merits of a particular proceeding.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Party</I> means an applicant, any person who has filed a motion for and been granted intervenor status or whose motion to intervene is pending, and any state commission which has intervened by notice pursuant to § 590.303(a).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means any individual, firm, estate, trust, partnership, association, company, joint-venture, corporation, United States local, state and federal governmental unit or instrumentality thereof, charitable, educational or other institution, and others, including any officer, director, owner, employee, or duly authorized representative of any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Presiding official</I> means any employee of the DOE who has been designated by the Assistant Secretary to conduct any stage of a proceeding, which may include presiding at a conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing, and who has been delegated the authority of the Assistant Secretary to make rulings and issue orders in the conduct of such proceeding, other than final opinions and orders, orders to show cause, emergency interim orders, or conditional decisions under subpart D and orders on rehearing under subpart E.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Proceeding</I> means the process and activity, and any part thereof, instituted by FE either in response to an application, petition, motion or other filing under this part, or on its own initiative, by which FE develops and considers the relevant facts, policy and applicable law concerning the importation or exportation of natural gas and which may lead to the issuance of an order by the Assistant Secretary under subparts D and E.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Small-scale natural gas export</I> means an export of natural gas to nations with which there is not in effect a free trade agreement with the United States requiring national treatment for trade in natural gas and with which trade is not prohibited by U.S. law or policy, provided that the application for such export authority satisfies the following two criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The application proposes to export natural gas in a volume up to and including 51.75 billion cubic feet per year, and
</P>
<P>(2) DOE's approval of the application does not require an environmental impact statement or an environmental assessment under the National Environmental Policy Act, 42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(q) <I>State commission</I> means the regulatory body of a state or municipality having jurisdiction to regulate rates and charges for the sale of natural gas to consumers within the state or municipality, or having any regulatory jurisdiction over parties involved in the import or export arrangement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989, as amended at 83 FR 35119, July 25, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.103" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.103   General requirements for filing documents with FE.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any document, including but not limited to an application, amendment of an application, request, petition, motion, answer, comment, protest, complaint, and any exhibit submitted in connection with such documents, shall be filed with FE in accordance with the instructions at FE's website: <I>https://www.energy.gov/fe/regulation</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt by FE, each application or other initial request for action shall be assigned a docket number. Any petition, motion, answer, request, comment, protest, complaint or other document filed subsequently in a docketed proceeding with FE shall refer to the assigned docket number. All documents shall be signed either by the person upon whose behalf the document is filed or by an authorized representative. Documents signed by an authorized representative shall contain a certified statement that the representative is a duly authorized representative unless the representative has a certified statement already on file in the FE docket of the proceeding. All documents shall also be verified under oath or affirmation by the person filing, or by an officer or authorized representative of the firm having knowledge of the facts alleged. Each document filed with FE shall contain a certification that a copy has been served as required by § 590.107 and indicate the date of service. Service of each document must be made not later than the date of the filing of the document.
</P>
<P>(c) A person who files an application shall state whether, to the best knowledge of that person, the same or a related matter is being considered by any other part of the DOE, including the FERC, or any other Federal agency or department and, if so, shall identify the matter and the agency or department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989, as amended at 90 FR 20761, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.104" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.104   Address for filing documents.</HEAD>
<P>Documents shall be filed in accordance with the instructions at FE's website: <I>https://www.energy.gov/fe/regulation.</I>


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 20761, May 16, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.105" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.105   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by these regulations, the day of the act or event from which the designated period of time begins to run is not included. The period of time begins to run the next day after the day of the act or event. The last day of the period so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal Federal holiday, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day that is neither a Saturday, Sunday, nor a legal Federal holiday, unless otherwise provided by this part or by the terms of an FE order. Documents received after the regular business hours of 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. are deemed filed on the next regular business day.
</P>
<P>(b) When a document is required to be filed with FE within a prescribed time, an extension of time to file may be granted for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(c) An order is issued and effective when date stamped  after the order has been signed unless another effective date is specified in the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989, as amended at 90 FR 20761, May 16, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.106" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.106   Dockets.</HEAD>
<P>The FE shall maintain a docket file of each proceeding under this part, which shall contain the official record upon which all orders provided for in subparts D and E shall be based. The official record in a particular proceeding shall include the official service list, all documents filed under § 590.103, the official transcripts of any procedures held under subpart C, and opinions and orders issued by FE under subparts D and E, and reports of contract amendments under § 590.407. All dockets are available online (<I>https://www.energy.gov/fe/articles/electronic-docket-room-e-docket-room</I>). Additional information about the contents of dockets and how to access them can be found here: <I>https://www.energy.gov/fe/regulation</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989, as amended at 90 FR 20761, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.107" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.107   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant, any other party to a proceeding, or a person filing a protest shall serve a copy of all documents filed with FE upon all parties unless otherwise provided in this part. The copy of a document served upon parties shall be a true copy of the document filed with FE, but does not have to be a copy stamped with the time and date of receipt by FE. The FE shall maintain an official service list for each proceeding which shall be provided upon request.
</P>
<P>(b) When the parties are not known, such as during the initial comment period following publication of the notice of application, service requirements under paragraph (a) of this section may be met by serving a copy of all documents on the applicant and on FE for inclusion in the FE docket in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) All documents required to be served under this part may be served electronically (preferred), by hand, certified mail, registered mail, or regular mail. It shall be the responsibility of the serving party to ensure that service is effected in a timely manner. Service is deemed complete upon delivery or upon mailing, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(d) Service upon a person's duly authorized representatives on the official service list shall constitute service upon that person.
</P>
<P>(e) All FE orders, notices, or other FE documents shall be served on the parties by FE either electronically (preferred), by hand, registered mail, certified mail, or regular mail, except as otherwise provided in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989, as amended at 90 FR 20761, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.108" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.108   Off-the-record communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any contested proceeding under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) No interested person shall make an off-the-record communication or knowingly cause an off-the-record communication to be made to any decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) No decisional employee shall make an off-the-record communication or knowingly cause an off-the-record communication to be made to any interested person.
</P>
<P>(3) A decisional employee who receives, makes, or knowingly causes to be made an oral off-the-record communication prohibited by this section shall prepare a memorandum stating the substance of the communication and any responses made to it.
</P>
<P>(4) Within forty-eight (48) hours of the off-the-record communication, a copy of all written off-the-record communications or memoranda prepared in compliance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall be delivered by the decisional employee to the Assistant Secretary and to the Deputy Assistant Secretary. The materials will then be made available for public inspection by placing them in the docket associated with the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(5) Requests by a party for an opportunity to rebut, on the record, any facts or contentions in an off-the-record communication may be filed in writing with the Assistant Secretary. The Assistant Secretary shall grant such requests only for good cause.
</P>
<P>(6) Upon being notified of an off-the-record communication made by a party in violation of this section, the Assistant Secretary may, to the extent consistent with the interests of justice and the policies of the NGA and the DOE Act, require the party to show cause why the party's claim or interest in the proceeding should not be dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of the violation.
</P>
<P>(b) The prohibitions of paragraph (a) of the section shall apply only to contested proceedings and begin at the time either a protest or a motion to intervene or notice of intervention in opposition to the application or other requested action is filed with FE, or a party otherwise specifically notifies the Assistant Secretary and the other parties in writing of its opposition to the application or other requested action, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989, as amended at 90 FR 20761, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.109" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.109   FE investigations.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary or the Assistant Secretary's delegate may investigate any facts, conditions, practices, or other matters within the scope of this part in order to determine whether any person has violated or is about to violate any provision of the NGA or other statute or any rule, regulation, or order within the Assistant Secretary's jurisdiction. In conducting such investigations, the Assistant Secretary or the Assistant Secretary's delegate may, among other things, subpoena witnesses to testify, subpoena or otherwise require the submission of documents, and order testimony to be taken by deposition. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Applications for Authorization To Import or Export Natural Gas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.201" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.201   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person seeking authorization to import or export natural gas into or from the United States, to amend an existing import or export authorization, or seeking any other requested action, shall file an application with the FE under the provisions of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Applications shall be filed at least ninety (90) days in advance of the proposed import or export or other requested action, unless a later date is permitted for good cause shown. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989; 55 FR 14916, Apr. 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.202" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.202   Contents of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application filed under § 590.201 shall contain the exact legal name of the applicant, the names, titles, and mailing addresses of a two persons for the official service list, a statement describing the action sought from FE, the justification for such action, including why the proposed action is not inconsistent with the public interest, and the FE docket number, if applicable. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each application shall include the matters listed below to the extent applicable. All factual matters shall be supported to the extent practicable by the necessary data or documents. Copies of relevant documents filed or intended to be filed with FERC may be submitted to satisfy the requirements of this section. Topics to be addressed or described shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The scope of the project, including the volumes of natural gas involved, expressed in either Mcf or Bcf and their Btu equivalents, the dates of commencement and completion of the proposed import or export, and the facilities to be utilized or constructed; 
</P>
<P>(2) The source and security of the natural gas supply to be imported or exported, including contract volumes and a description of the gas reserves supporting the project during the term of the requested authorization; 
</P>
<P>(3) Identification of all the participants in the transaction, including the parent company, if any, and identification of any corporate or other affiliations among the participants; 
</P>
<P>(4) The terms of the transaction, such as take-or-pay obligations, make-up provisions, and other terms that affect the marketability of the gas; 
</P>
<P>(5) The provisions of the import arrangement which establish the base price, volume requirements, transportation and other costs, and allow adjustments during the life of the project, and a demonstration as to why the import arrangement is and will remain competitive over the life of the project and is otherwise not inconsistent with the public interest; 
</P>
<P>(6) For proposed imports, the need for the natural gas by the applicant or applicant's prospective customers, including a description of the persons who are expected to purchase the natural gas; and for proposed exports, the lack of a national or regional need for the gas; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The potential environmental impact of the project. To the extent possible, the application shall include a listing and description of any environmental assessments or studies being performed on the proposed gas project. The application shall be updated as the status of any environmental assessments changes. 
</P>
<P>(c) The application shall also have attached a statement, including a signed opinion of legal counsel, showing that a proposed import or export of natural gas is within the corporate powers of the applicant and a copy of all relevant contracts and purchase agreements. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary or the Assistant Secretary's delegate may at any time require the applicant and other parties to make supplemental filings of additional information necessary to resolve issues raised by the application. 
</P>
<P>(e) All information and data filed in support of or against an application will be placed in the official FE docket file of the proceeding and will not be afforded confidential treatment, unless the party shows why the information or data should be exempted from public disclosure and the Assistant Secretary or Assistant Secretary's delegate determines that such information or data shall be afforded confidential treatment. Such determination shall be made in accordance with 10 CFR 1004.11. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989; 55 FR 18227, May 1, 1990, as amended at 90 FR 20761, May 16, 2025]]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.203" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.203   Deficient applications.</HEAD>
<P>If an application is incomplete or otherwise deemed deficient, the Assistant Secretary or the Assistant Secretary's delegate may require the applicant to submit additional information or exhibits to remedy the deficiency. If the applicant does not remedy the deficiency within the time specified by the Assistant Secretary or the Assistant Secretary's delegate, the application may be dismissed without prejudice to refiling at another time. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.204" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.204   Amendment or withdrawal of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicant may amend or supplement the application at any time prior to issuance of the Assistant Secretary's final opinion and order resolving the application, and shall amend or supplement the application whenever there are changes in material facts or conditions upon which the proposal is based. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may for good cause shown by motion of a party or upon the Assistant Secretary's own initiative decline to act on, in whole or in part, an amendment or supplement requested by an applicant under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) After written notice to FE and service upon the parties of that notice an applicant may withdraw an application. Such withdrawal shall be effective thirty (30) days after notice to FE if the Assistant Secretary does not issue an order to the contrary within that time period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.205" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.205   Notice of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of an application, the FE shall publish a notice of application in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The notice shall summarize the proposal. Except in emergency circumstances, generally the notice shall provide a time limit of not less than thirty (30) days from the notice's date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for persons to file protests, comments, or a motion to intervene or notice of intervention, as applicable. The notice may also request comments on specific issues or matters of fact, law, or policy raised by the application. 
</P>
<P>(b) The notice of application shall advise the parties of their right to request additional procedures, including the opportunity to file written comments and to request that a conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing be convened. Failure to request additional procedures at this time shall be deemed a waiver of any right to additional procedures should the Assistant Secretary decide to grant the application and authorize the import or export by issuing a final opinion and order in accordance with § 590.316. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where negotiations between the DOE, including FE, and a foreign government have resulted in a formal policy agreement or statement affecting a particular import or export proceeding, FE shall include in the notice of application a description of the terms or policy positions of that agreement or statement to the extent they apply to the proceeding, and invite comment. A formal policy agreement or statement affecting a particular import or export proceeding that is arrived at after publication of the notice of application shall be placed on the record in that proceeding and the parties given an opportunity to comment thereon.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.206" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.206   Notice of procedures.</HEAD>
<P>In all proceedings where, following a notice of application and the time specified in the notice for the filing of responses thereto, the Assistant Secretary determines to have additional procedures, which may consist of the filing of supplemental written comments, written interrogatories or other discovery procedures, a conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing, the Assistant Secretary shall provide the parties with notice of the procedures the Assistant Secretary has determined to follow in the proceeding and advise the parties of their right to request any additional procedures in accordance with the provisions of § 590.310. The notice of procedures may identify and request comments on specific issues of fact, law, or policy relevant to the proceeding and may establish a time limit for requesting additional procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.207" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.207   Filing fees.</HEAD>
<P>A non-refundable filing fee of fifty dollars ($50) shall accompany each application filed under § 590.201. Instructions on submitting the filing fee can be found here: <I>https://www.energy.gov/fe/submitting-electronic-payment</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989, as amended at 90 FR 20761, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.208" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.208   Small volume exports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Small-scale natural gas exports.</I> Small-scale natural gas exports are deemed to be consistent with the public interest under section 3(a) of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717b(a). DOE will issue an export authorization upon receipt of any complete application to conduct small-scale natural gas exports. DOE's regulations regarding notice of applications, 10 CFR 590.205, and procedures applicable to application proceedings, 10 CFR part 590, subpart C (10 CFR 590.303 to 10 CFR 590.317), are not applicable to small-scale natural gas exports.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scientific, experimental, or other non-utility natural gas exports.</I> Any person may export up to 100,000 cubic feet of natural gas (14.73 pounds per square inch at 60 degrees Fahrenheit) or the liquefied or compressed equivalent thereof, in a single shipment for scientific, experimental, or other non-utility gas use without prior authorization of the Assistant Secretary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 35119, July 25, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.209" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.209   Exchanges by displacement.</HEAD>
<P>Any importer of natural gas may enter into an exchange by displacement agreement without the prior authorization of the Assistant Secretary when the net effect of the exchange is no different than under the importer's existing authorization. An exchange by displacement is an arrangement whereby authorized imported volumes are displaced by other gas for purposes of storage or flexibility. The term of the exchange agreement may not exceed five (5) years, the volumes imported may not exceed the importer's existing import authorization, and no actual natural gas may flow across the United States border under the terms of the exchange agreement. Any importer who enters into an exchange agreement pursuant to this section shall file with FE within fifteen (15) days after the start up of the exchange, a written description of the transaction, the exact volume of natural gas to be displaced, the name of the purchaser, and the import authorization under which the exchange is being carried out. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.301" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.301   General.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures of this subpart are applicable to proceedings conducted on all applications or other requested actions filed under this part. The Assistant Secretary may conduct all aspects of the procedures of this subpart or may designate a presiding official pursuant to § 590.314.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.302" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.302   Motions and answers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Motions for any procedural or interlocutory ruling shall set forth the ruling or relief requested and state the grounds and the statutory or other authority relied upon. All written motions shall comply with the filing requirements of § 590.103. Motions made during conferences, oral presentations or trial-type hearings may be stated orally upon the record, unless the Assistant Secretary or the presiding official determines otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) Any party may file an answer to any written motion within fifteen (15) days after the motion is filed, unless another period of time is established by the Assistant Secretary or the presiding official. Answers shall be in writing and shall detail each material allegation of the motion being answered. Answers shall state clearly and concisely the facts and legal authorities relied upon.
</P>
<P>(c) Any motion, except for motions seeking intervention or requesting that a conference, oral presentation or trial-type hearing be held, shall be deemed to have been denied, unless the Assistant Secretary or presiding official acts within thirty (30) days after the motion is filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.303" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.303   Interventions and answers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A state commission may intervene in a proceeding under this part as a matter of right and become a party to the proceeding by filing a notice of intervention no later than the date fixed for filing motions to intervene in the applicable FE notice or order. If the period for filing the notice has expired, a state commission may be permitted to intervene by complying with the filing and other requirements applicable to any other person seeking to become a party to the proceeding as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Any other person who seeks to become a party to a proceeding shall file a motion to intervene, which sets out clearly and concisely the facts upon which the petitioner's claim of interest is based.
</P>
<P>(c) A motion to intervene shall state, to the extent known, the position taken by the movant and the factual and legal basis for such positions in order to advise the parties and the Assistant Secretary as to the specific issues of policy, fact, or law to be raised or controverted.
</P>
<P>(d) Motions to intervene may be filed at any time following the filing of an application, but no later than the date fixed for filing such motions or notices in the applicable FE notice or order, unless a later date is permitted by the Assistant Secretary for good cause shown and after considering the impact of granting the late motion of the proceeding. Each motion or notice shall list the names, titles, and mailing addresses of a maximum of two persons for the official service list.
</P>
<P>(e) Any party may file an answer to a motion to intervene, but such answer shall be made within fifteen (15) days after the motion to intervene was filed, unless a later date is permitted by the Assistant Secretary for good cause shown. Answers shall be in writing. Answers shall detail each material allegation of the motion to intervene being answered and state clearly and concisely the facts and legal authorities relied upon. Failure to answer is deemed a waiver of any objection to the intervention. This paragraph does not prevent the Assistant Secretary from ruling on a motion to intervene and issuing a final opinion and order in accordance with § 590.316 prior to the expiration of the fifteen (15) days in which a party has to answer a motion to intervene.
</P>
<P>(f) If an answer in opposition to a motion to intervene is timely filed or if the motion to intervene is not timely filed, then the movant becomes a party only after the motion to intervene is expressly granted.
</P>
<P>(g) If no answer in opposition to a motion to intervene is filed within the period of time prescribed in paragraph (e) of this section, the motion to intervene shall be deemed to be granted, unless the Assistant Secretary denies the motion in whole or in part or otherwise limits the intervention prior to the expiration of the time allowed in paragraph (e) for filing an answer to the motion to intervene. Where the motion to intervene is deemed granted, the participation of the intervenor shall be limited to matters affecting asserted rights and interests specifically set forth in the motion to intervene, and the admission of such intervenor to party status shall not be construed as recognition by FE that the intervenor might be aggrieved because of any order issued.
</P>
<P>(h) In the event that a motion for late intervention is granted, an intervenor shall accept the record of the proceeding as it was developed prior to the intervention.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.304" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.304   Protests and answers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person objecting to an application filed under § 590.201 of this part or to any action taken by FE under this part may file a protest. No particular form is required. The protest shall identify the person filing the protest, the application or action being objected to, and provide a concise statement of the reasons for the protest.
</P>
<P>(b) The filing of a protest, without also filing a motion to intervene or a notice of intervention, shall not make the person filing the protest a party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) A protest shall be made part of the official FE docket file in the proceeding and shall be considered as a statement of position of the person filing the protest, but not as establishing the validity of any assertion upon which the decision would be based.
</P>
<P>(d) Protests shall be served on the applicant and all parties by the person filing the protest. If the person filing the protest is unable to provide service on any person identified as a party to the proceeding after a good faith effort, then FE shall effect service. However, when the parties are not known, service requirements may be met by serving a copy on the applicant and on FE as provided in § 590.107(b).
</P>
<P>(e) Protests may be filed at any time following the filing of an application, but no later than the date fixed for filing protests in the applicable FE notice or order, unless a later date is permitted by the Assistant Secretary for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(f) Any party may file an answer to a protest but such answer must be filed within fifteen (15) days after the protest was filed, unless a later date is permitted by the Assistant Secretary for good cause shown.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989; 55 FR 14916, Apr. 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.305" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.305   Informal discovery.</HEAD>
<P>The parties to a proceeding may conduct discovery through use of procedures such as written interrogatories or production of documents. In response to a motion by a party, the Assistant Secretary or presiding official may determine the procedures to be utilized for discovery if the parties cannot agree on such procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.306" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.306   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses at a trial-type hearing or for the production of documentary evidence may be issued upon the initiative of the Assistant Secretary or presiding official, or upon written motion of a party or oral motion of a party during a conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing, if the Assistant Secretary or presiding official determines that the evidence sought is relevant and material.
</P>
<P>(b) Motions for the issuance of a subpoena shall specify the relevance, materiality, and scope of the testimony or documentary evidence sought, including, as to documentary evidence, specification to the extent possible of the documents sought and the facts to be proven by them, the issues to which they relate, and why the information or evidence was not obtainable through discovery procedures agreed upon by the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) If service of a subpoena is made by a United States Marshal or a Deputy United States Marshal, service shall be evidenced by their return. If made by another person, that person shall affirm that service has occurred and file an affidavit to that effect with the original subpoena. A witness who is subpoenaed shall be entitled to witness fees as provided in § 590.315(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.307" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.307   Depositions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon motion filed by a party, the Assistant Secretary or presiding official may authorize the taking of testimony of any witness by deposition. Unless otherwise directed in the authorization issued, a witness being deposed may be examined regarding any matter which is relevant to the issues involved in the pending proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) Parties authorized to take a deposition shall provide written notice to the witness and all other parties at least ten (10) days in advance of the deposition unless such advance notice is waived by mutual agreement of the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) The requesting motion and notice shall state the name and mailing address of the witness, delineate the subject matters on which the witness is expected to testify, state the reason why the deposition should be taken, indicate the time and place of the deposition, and provide the name and mailing address of the person taking the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) A witness whose testimony is taken by deposition shall be sworn in or shall affirm concerning the matter about which the witness has been called to testify before any questions are asked or testimony given. A witness deposed shall be entitled to witness fees as provided in § 590.315(c).
</P>
<P>(e) The moving party shall file the entire deposition with FE after it has been subscribed and certified. No portion of the deposition shall constitute a part of the record in the proceedings unless received in evidence, in whole or in part, by the Assistant Secretary or presiding official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.308" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.308   Admissions of facts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time prior to the end of a trial-type hearing, or, if there is no trial-type hearing, prior to the issuance of a final opinion and order under § 590.404, any party, the Assistant Secretary, or the presiding official may serve on any party a written request for admission of the truth of any matters at issue in the proceeding that relate to statements or opinions of fact or of the application of law to fact.
</P>
<P>(b) A matter shall be considered admitted and conclusively established for the purposes of any proceeding in which a request for admission is served unless, within fifteen (15) days of such time limit established by the Assistant Secretary or presiding official, the party to whom the request is directed answers or objects to the request. Any answer shall specifically admit or deny the matter, or set forth in detail the reasons why the answering party cannot truthfully admit or deny the matter. An answering party may not give lack of information or knowledge as a reason for failure to admit or deny, unless the answering party states that, after reasonable inquiry, the answering party has been unable to obtain sufficient information to admit or deny. If an objection is made, the answering party shall state the reasons for the objection.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Assistant Secretary or presiding official determines that an answer to a request for admission does not comply with the requirements of this section, the Assistant Secretary or presiding official may order either that the matter is admitted or that an amended answer be served.
</P>
<P>(d) A copy of all requests for admission and answers thereto shall be filed with FE in accordance with § 590.103. Copies of any documents referenced in the request shall be served with the request unless they are known to be in the possession of the other parties.
</P>
<P>(e) The Assistant Secretary or presiding official may limit the number of requests for admission of facts in order to expedite a proceeding through elimination of duplicative requests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.309" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.309   Settlements.</HEAD>
<P>The parties may conduct settlement negotiations. If settlement negotiations are conducted during a conference, at the request of one of the parties, the Assistant Secretary or presiding official may order that the discussions be off-the-record with no transcript of such settlement negotiations being prepared for inclusion in the official record of the proceeding. No offer of settlement, comment or discussion by the parties with respect to an offer of settlement shall be subject to discovery or admissible into evidence against any parties who object to its admission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.310" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.310   Opportunity for additional procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Any party may file a motion requesting additional procedures, including the opportunity to file written comments, request written interrogatories or other discovery procedures, or request that a conference, oral presentation or trial-type hearing be held. The motion shall describe what type of procedure is requested and include the information required by §§ 590.311, 590.312 and 590.313, as appropriate. Failure to request additional procedures within the time specified in the notice of application or in the notice of procedure, if applicable, shall constitute a waiver of that right unless the Assistant Secretary for good cause shown grants additional time for requesting additional procedures. If no time limit is specified in the notice or order, additional procedures may be requested at any time prior to the issuance of a final opinion and order. At any time during a proceeding, the Assistant Secretary or presiding official may on his or her own initiative determine to provide additional procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989; 55 FR 14916, Apr. 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.311" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.311   Conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon motion by a party, a conference of the parties may be convened to adjust or settle the proceedings, set schedules, delineate issues, stipulate certain issues of fact or law, set procedures, and consider other relevant matters where it appears that a conference will materially advance the proceeding. The Assistant Secretary or presiding official may delineate the issues which are to be considered and may place appropriate limitations on the number of intervenors who may participate, if two or more intervenors have substantially like interests.
</P>
<P>(b) A motion by a party for a conference shall include a specific showing why a conference will materially advance the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) Conferences shall be recorded, unless otherwise ordered by the Assistant Secretary or presiding official, and the transcript shall be made a part of the official record of the proceeding and available to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.312" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.312   Oral presentations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party may file a motion requesting an opportunity to make an oral presentation of views, arguments, including arguments of counsel, and data on any aspect of the proceeding. The motion shall identify the substantial question of fact, law or policy at issue and demonstrate that it is material and relevant to the merits of the proceeding. The party may submit material supporting the existence of substantial issues. The Assistant Secretary or presiding official ordinarily will grant a party's motion for an oral presentation, if the Assistant Secretary or presiding official determines that a substantial question of fact, law, or policy is at issue in the proceeding and illumination of that question will be aided materially by such an oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary or presiding official may require parties making oral presentations to file briefs or other documents prior to the oral presentation. The Assistant Secretary or presiding official also may delineate the issues that are to be considered at the oral presentation and place appropriate limitations on the number of intervenors who may participate if two or more intervenors have substantially like interests.
</P>
<P>(c) Oral presentations shall be conducted in an informal manner with the Assistant Secretary or the presiding official and other decisional employees presiding as a panel. The panel may question those parties making an oral presentation. Cross-examination by the parties and other more formal procedures used in trial-type hearings will not be available in oral presentations. The oral presentation may be, but need not be, made by legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) Oral presentations shall be recorded, and the transcript shall be made part of the official record of the proceeding and available to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.313" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.313   Trial-type hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party may file a motion for a trial-type hearing for the purpose of taking evidence on relevant and material issues of fact genuinely in dispute in the proceeding. The motion shall identify the factual issues in dispute and the evidence that will be presented. The party must demonstrate that the issues are genuinely in dispute, relevant and material to the decision and that a trial-type hearing is necessary for a full and true disclosure of the facts. The Assistant Secretary or presiding official shall grant a party's motion for a trial-type hearing, if the Assistant Secretary or presiding official determines that there is a relevant and material factual issue genuinely in dispute and that a trial-type hearing is necessary for a full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(b) In trial-type hearings, the parties shall have the right to be represented by counsel, to request discovery, to present the direct and rebuttal testimony of witnesses, to cross-examine witnesses under oath, and to present documentary evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The Assistant Secretary or presiding official upon his or her own initiative or upon the motion of any party may consolidate any proceedings involving common questions of fact in whole or in part for a trial-type hearing. The Assistant Secretary or presiding official may also place appropriate limitations on the number of intervenors who may participate if two or more intervenors have substantially like interests.
</P>
<P>(d) The Assistant Secretary or presiding official may make such rulings for trial-type hearings, including delineation of the issues and limitation of cross-examination of a witness, as are necessary to obtain a full and true disclosure of the facts and to limit irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) At trial-type hearings, the Assistant Secretary or presiding official, or any other decisional employee directed by the Assistant Secretary or presiding official, may call witnesses for testimony or presenting exhibits that directly relate to a particular issue of fact to be considered at the hearing. The Assistant Secretary or presiding official, or any other decisional employee directed by the Assistant Secretary or presiding official, may also question witnesses offered by the parties concerning their testimony.
</P>
<P>(f) Trial-type hearings shall be recorded, and the transcript shall be made part of the official record of the proceeding and available to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.314" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.314   Presiding officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary may designate a presiding official to conduct any stage of the proceeding, including officiating at a conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing. The presiding official shall have the full authority of the Assistant Secretary during such proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) A presiding official at a conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing shall have the authority to regulate the conduct of the proceeding including, but not limited to, determination of the issues to be raised during the course of the conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing, administering oaths or affirmations, directing discovery, ruling on objections to the presentation of testimony or exhibits, receiving relevant and material evidence, requiring the advance submission of written testimony and exhibits, ruling on motions, determining the format, directing that briefs be filed with respect to issues raised or to be raised during the course of the conference, oral presentation or trial-type hearing, questioning witnesses, taking reasonable measures to exclude duplicative material, and placing limitations on the number of witnesses to be called by a party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.315" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.315   Witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Assistant Secretary or presiding official may require that the direct testimony of witnesses in trial-type hearings be submitted in advance of the hearing and be under oath, and in written form.
</P>
<P>(b) Witnesses who testify in trial-type hearings shall be under oath or affirmation before being allowed to testify.
</P>
<P>(c) Witnesses subpoenaed pursuant to § 590.306 shall be paid the same fees and mileage as paid for like services in the District Courts of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) Witnesses subpoenaed pursuant to § 590.307 shall be paid the same fees and mileage as paid for like services in the District Court of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 53531, Dec. 29, 1989; 55 FR 14916, Apr. 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.316" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.316   Shortened proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>In any proceeding where, in response to a notice of application or notice of procedures, if applicable, no party files a motion requesting additional procedures, including the right to file written comments, or the holding of a conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing, or where the Assistant Secretary determines that such requested additional procedures are not required pursuant to §§ 590.310, 590.311, 590.312 and 590.313, the Assistant Secretary may issue a final opinion and order on the basis of the official record, including the application and all other filings. In any proceeding in which the Assistant Secretary intends to deny the application or grant the application with the attachment of material conditions unknown to, or likely to be opposed by, the applicant, solely on the basis of the application and responses to the notice of application or notice of procedures, if applicable, without additional procedures, the Assistant Secretary shall advise the parties in writing generally of the issues of concern to the Assistant Secretary upon which the denial or material conditions would be based and provide them with an opportunity to request additional procedures pursuant to §§ 590.310, 590.311, 590.312 and 590.313.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.317" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.317   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may file a complaint objecting to the actions by any other person under any statute, rule, order or authorization applicable to an existing import or export authorization over which FE has jurisdiction. No particular form is required. The complaint must be filed with FE in writing and must contain the name and address of the complainant and the respondent and state the facts forming the basis of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint concerning an existing import or export authorization shall be served on all parties to the original import or export authorization proceeding either by the complainant or by FE if the complainant has made a good faith effort but has been unable to effect service.
</P>
<P>(c) The Assistant Secretary may issue an order to show cause under § 590.401, or may provide opportunity for additional procedures pursuant to §§ 590.310, 590.311, 590.312, or § 590.313, in order to determine what action should be taken in response to the complaint. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Opinions and Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.401" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.401   Orders to show cause.</HEAD>
<P>A proceeding under this part may commence upon the initiative of the Assistant Secretary or in response to an application by any person requesting FE action against any other person alleged to be in contravention or violation of any authorization, statute, rule, order, or law administered by FE applicable to the import or export of natural gas, or for any other alleged wrong involving importation or exportation of natural gas over which FE has jurisdiction. Any show cause order issued shall identify the matters of interest or the matters complained of that the Assistant Secretary is inquiring about, and shall be deemed to be tentative and for the purpose of framing issues for consideration and decision. The respondent named in the order shall respond orally or in writing, or both, as required by the order. A show cause order is not a final opinion and order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.402" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.402   Conditional orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary may issue a conditional order at any time during a proceeding prior to issuance of a final opinion and order. The conditional order shall include the basis for not issuing a final opinion and order at that time and a statement of findings and conclusions. The findings and conclusions shall be based solely on the official record of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.403" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.403   Emergency interim orders.</HEAD>
<P>Where consistent with the public interest, the Assistant Secretary may waive further procedures and issue an emergency interim order authorizing the import or export of natural gas. After issuance of the emergency interim order, the proceeding shall be continued until the record is complete, at which time a final opinion and order shall be issued. The Assistant Secretary may attach necessary or appropriate terms and conditions to the emergency interim order to ensure that the authorized action will be consistent with the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.404" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.404   Final opinions and orders.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant Secretary shall issue a final opinion and order and attach such conditions thereto as may be required by the public interest after completion and review of the record. The final opinion and order shall be based solely on the official record of the proceeding and include a statement of findings and conclusions, as well as the reasons or basis for them, and the appropriate order, condition, sanction, relief or denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.405" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.405   Transferability.</HEAD>
<P>Authorizations by the Assistant Secretary to import or export natural gas shall not be transferable or assignable, unless specifically authorized by the Assistant Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.406" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.406   Compliance with orders.</HEAD>
<P>Any person required or authorized to take any action by a final opinion and order of the Assistant Secretary shall file with FE, within thirty (30) days after the requirement or authorization becomes effective, a notice, under oath, that such requirement has been complied with or such authorization accepted or otherwise acted upon, unless otherwise specified in the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.407" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.407   Reports of changes.</HEAD>
<P>Any person authorized to import or export natural gas has a continuing obligation to give the Assistant Secretary written notification, as soon as practicable, of any prospective or actual changes to the information submitted during the application process upon which the authorization was based, including, but not limited to, changes to: The parties involved in the import or export arrangement, the terms and conditions of any applicable contracts, the place of entry or exit, the transporters, the volumes accepted or offered, or the import or export price. Any notification filed under this section shall contain the FE docket number(s) to which it relates. Compliance with this section does not relieve an importer or exporter from responsibility to file the appropriate application to amend a previous import or export authorization under this part whenever such changes are contrary to or otherwise not permitted by the existing authorization. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Applications for Rehearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.501" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.501   Filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for rehearing of a final opinion and order, conditional order, or emergency interim order may be filed by any party aggrieved by the issuance of such opinion and order within thirty (30) days after issuance. The application shall be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall state concisely the alleged errors in the final opinion and order, conditional order, or emergency interim order and must set forth specifically the ground or grounds upon which the application is based. If an order is sought to be vacated, reversed, or modified by reason of matters that have arisen since the issuance of the final opinion and order, conditional order, or emergency interim order, the matters relied upon shall be set forth with specificity in the application. The application shall also comply with the filing requirements of § 590.103.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.502" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.502   Application is not a stay.</HEAD>
<P>The filing of an application for rehearing does not operate as a stay of the Assistant Secretary's order, unless specifically ordered by the Assistant Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.503" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.503   Opinion and order on rehearing.</HEAD>
<P>Upon application for rehearing, the Assistant Secretary may grant or deny rehearing or may abrogate or modify the final opinion and order, conditional order, or emergency interim order with or without further proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.504" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.504   Denial by operation of law.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the Assistant Secretary acts upon the application for rehearing within thirty (30) days after it is filed, it is deemed to be denied. Such denial shall constitute final agency action for the purpose of judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 590.505" NODE="10:5.0.1.2.8.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 590.505   Answers to applications for rehearing.</HEAD>
<P>No answers to applications for rehearing shall be entertained. Prior to the issuance of any final opinion and order on rehearing, however, the Assistant Secretary may afford the parties an opportunity to file briefs or answers and may order that a conference, oral presentation, or trial-type hearing be held on some or all of the issues presented by an application for rehearing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="H" NODE="10:5.0.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER H—ASSISTANCE REGULATIONS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="600" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 600 [RESERVED]








</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="601" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 601—NEW RESTRICTIONS ON LOBBYING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 1352; 42 U.S.C. 7254 and 7256; 31 U.S.C. 6301-6308; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 6737, 6746, Feb. 26, 1990, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>See also Office of Management and Budget notice published at 54 FR 52306, Dec. 20, 1989.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.100" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.100   Conditions on use of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No appropriated funds may be expended by the recipient of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative ageement to pay any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any of the following covered Federal actions: the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a certification, set forth in appendix A, that the person has not made, and will not make, any payment prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or a cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in appendix B, if such person has made or has agreed to make any payment using nonappropriated funds (to include profits from any covered Federal action), which would be prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section if paid for with appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a statement, set forth in appendix A, whether that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in appendix B, if that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.105" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency,</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(f), includes Federal executive departments and agencies as well as independent regulatory commissions and Government corporations, as defined in 31 U.S.C. 9101(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered Federal action</I> means any of the following Federal actions:
</P>
<P>(1) The awarding of any Federal contract;
</P>
<P>(2) The making of any Federal grant;
</P>
<P>(3) The making of any Federal loan;
</P>
<P>(4) The entering into of any cooperative agreement; and,
</P>
<P>(5) The extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<FP>Covered Federal action does not include receiving from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan. Loan guarantees and loan insurance are addressed independently within this part.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Federal contract</I> means an acquisition contract awarded by an agency, including those subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), and any other acquisition contract for real or personal property or services not subject to the FAR.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal cooperative agreement</I> means a cooperative agreement entered into by an agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal grant</I> means an award of financial assistance in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, by the Federal Government or a direct appropriation made by law to any person. The term does not include technical assistance which provides services instead of money, or other assistance in the form of revenue sharing, loans, loan guarantees, loan insurance, interest subsidies, insurance, or direct United States cash assistance to an individual.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal loan</I> means a loan made by an agency. The term does not include loan guarantee or loan insurance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Indian tribe</I> and <I>tribal organization</I> have the meaning provided in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450B). Alaskan Natives are included under the definitions of Indian tribes in that Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Influencing or attempting to influence</I> means making, with the intent to influence, any communication to or appearance before an officer or employee or any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan guarantee</I> and <I>loan insurance</I> means an agency's guarantee or insurance of a loan made by a person.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Local government</I> means a unit of government in a State and, if chartered, established, or otherwise recognized by a State for the performance of a governmental duty, including a local public authority, a special district, an intrastate district, a council of governments, a sponsor group representative organization, and any other instrumentality of a local government.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Officer or employee of an agency</I> includes the following individuals who are employed by an agency:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who is appointed to a position in the Government under title 5, U.S. Code, including a position under a temporary appointment;
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the uniformed services as defined in section 101(3), title 37, U.S. Code; 
</P>
<P>(3) A special Government employee as defined in section 202, title 18, U.S. Code; and,
</P>
<P>(4) An individual who is a member of a Federal advisory committee, as defined by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, title 5, U.S. Code appendix 2.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, company, association, authority, firm, partnership, society, State, and local government, regardless of whether such entity is operated for profit or not for profit. This term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Reasonable compensation</I> means, with respect to a regularly employed officer or employee of any person, compensation that is consistent with the normal compensation for such officer or employee for work that is not furnished to, not funded by, or not furnished in cooperation with the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Reasonable payment</I> means, with respect to perfessional and other technical services, a payment in an amount that is consistent with the amount normally paid for such services in the private sector.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Recipient</I> includes all contractors, subcontractors at any tier, and subgrantees at any tier of the recipient of funds received in connection with a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. The term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Regularly employed</I> means, with respect to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, an officer or employee who is employed by such person for at least 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for receipt of such contract, grant, loan, cooperative agreement, loan insurance commitment, or loan guarantee commitment. An officer or employee who is employed by such person for less than 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person shall be considered to be regularly employed as soon as he or she is employed by such person for 130 working days. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, a territory or possession of the United States, an agency or instrumentality of a State, and a multi-State, regional, or interstate entity having governmental duties and powers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.110" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.110   Certification and disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, with each submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Award of a Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An award of a Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, upon receipt by such person of: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000,
</P>
<FP>unless such person previously filed a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</FP>
<P>(c) Each person shall file a disclosure form at the end of each calendar quarter in which there occurs any event that requires disclosure or that materially affects the accuracy of the information contained in any disclosure form previously filed by such person under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. An event that materially affects the accuracy of the information reported includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A cumulative increase of $25,000 or more in the amount paid or expected to be paid for influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A change in the person(s) or individual(s) influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or, 
</P>
<P>(3) A change in the officer(s), employee(s), or Member(s) contacted to influence or attempt to influence a covered Federal action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who requests or receives from a person referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal contract; 
</P>
<P>(2) A subgrant, contract, or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal grant; 
</P>
<P>(3) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal loan exceeding $150,000; or, 
</P>
<P>(4) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal cooperative agreement,
</P>
<FP>shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, to the next tier above.
</FP>
<P>(e) All disclosure forms, but not certifications, shall be forwarded from tier to tier until received by the person referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section. That person shall forward all disclosure forms to the agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Any certification or disclosure form filed under paragraph (e) of this section shall be treated as a material representation of fact upon which all receiving tiers shall rely. All liability arising from an erroneous representation shall be borne solely by the tier filing that representation and shall not be shared by any tier to which the erroneous representation is forwarded. Submitting an erroneous certification or disclosure constitutes a failure to file the required certification or disclosure, respectively. If a person fails to file a required certification or disclosure, the United States may pursue all available remedies, including those authorized by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code.
</P>
<P>(g) For awards and commitments in process prior to December 23, 1989, but not made before that date, certifications shall be required at award or commitment, covering activities occurring between December 23, 1989, and the date of award or commitment. However, for awards and commitments in process prior to the December 23, 1989 effective date of these provisions, but not made before December 23, 1989, disclosure forms shall not be required at time of award or commitment but shall be filed within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(h) No reporting is required for an activity paid for with appropriated funds if that activity is allowable under either subpart B or C.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Activities by Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.200" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.200   Agency and legislative liaison.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 601.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if the payment is for agency and legislative liaison activities not directly related to a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, providing any information specifically requested by an agency or Congress is allowable at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agency and legislative liaison activities are allowable at any time only where they are not related to a specific solicitation for any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Discussing with an agency (including individual demonstrations) the qualities and characteristics of the person's products or services, conditions or terms of sale, and service capabilities; and, 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions and other activities regarding the application or adaptation of the person's products or services for an agency's use.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agencies and legislative liaison activities are allowable only where they are prior to formal solicitation of any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing any information not specifically requested but necessary for an agency to make an informed decision about initiation of a covered Federal action; 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions regarding the preparation of an unsolicited proposal prior to its official submission; and, 
</P>
<P>(3) Capability presentations by persons seeking awards from an agency pursuant to the provisions of the Small Business Act, as amended by Public Law 95-507 and other subsequent amendments. 
</P>
<P>(e) Only those activities expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.205" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.205   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 601.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or an extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, “professional and technical services” shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting of a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(c) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(d) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.210" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.210   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>No reporting is required with respect to payments of reasonable compensation made to regularly employed officers or employees of a person.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Activities by Other Than Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.300" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.300   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 601.100 (a), does not apply in the case of any reasonable payment to a person, other than an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action, if the payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) The reporting requirements in § 601.110 (a) and (b) regarding filing a disclosure form by each person, if required, shall not apply with respect to professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, “professional and technical services” shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting or a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(d) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons other than officers or employees of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action include consultants and trade associations.
</P>
<P>(f) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Penalties and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.400" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.400   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who makes an expenditure prohibited by this part shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $25,132 and not more than $251,322 for each such expenditure.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who fails to file or amend the disclosure form (see appendix B to this part) to be filed or amended if required by this part, shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $25,132 and not more than $251,322 for each such failure.






</P>
<P>(c) A filing or amended filing on or after the date on which an administrative action for the imposition of a civil penalty is commenced does not prevent the imposition of such civil penalty for a failure occurring before that date. An administrative action is commenced with respect to a failure when an investigating official determines in writing to commence an investigation of an allegation of such failure.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether to impose a civil penalty, and the amount of any such penalty, by reason of a violation by any person, the agency shall consider the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation, the effect on the ability of such person to continue in business, any prior violations by such person, the degree of culpability of such person, the ability of the person to pay the penalty, and such other matters as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) First offenders under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty of $25,132, absent aggravating circumstances. Second and subsequent offenses by persons shall be subject to an appropriate civil penalty between $25,132 and $251,322, as determined by the agency head or his or her designee.




</P>
<P>(f) An imposition of a civil penalty under this section does not prevent the United States from seeking any other remedy that may apply to the same conduct that is the basis for the imposition of such civil penalty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6737, 6746, Feb. 26, 1990, as amended at 62 FR 46183, Sept. 2, 1997; 74 FR 66032, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96352, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1292, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1028, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105406, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.405" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.405   Penalty procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies shall impose and collect civil penalties pursuant to the provisions of the Program Fraud and Civil Remedies Act, 31 U.S.C. 3803 (except subsection (c)), 3804, 3805, 3806, 3807, 3808, and 3812, insofar as these provisions are not inconsistent with the requirements herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.410" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.410   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The head of each agency shall take such actions as are necessary to ensure that the provisions herein are vigorously implemented and enforced in that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.500" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.500   Secretary of Defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of Defense may exempt, on a case-by-case basis, a covered Federal action from the prohibition whenever the Secretary determines, in writing, that such an exemption is in the national interest. The Secretary shall transmit a copy of each such written exemption to Congress immediately after making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Defense may issue supplemental regulations to implement paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Agency Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.600" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.600   Semi-annual compilation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall collect and compile the disclosure reports (see appendix B) and, on May 31 and November 30 of each year, submit to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives a report containing a compilation of the information contained in the disclosure reports received during the six-month period ending on March 31 or September 30, respectively, of that year.
</P>
<P>(b) The report, including the compilation, shall be available for public inspection 30 days after receipt of the report by the Secretary and the Clerk.
</P>
<P>(c) Information that involves intelligence matters shall be reported only to the Select Committee on Intelligence of the Senate, the Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence of the House of Representatives, and the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(d) Information that is classified under Executive Order 12356 or any successor order shall be reported only to the Committee on Foreign Relations of the Senate and the Committee on Foreign Affairs of the House of Representatives or the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and the House of Representatives (whichever such committees have jurisdiction of matters involving such information) and to the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(e) The first semi-annual compilation shall be submitted on May 31, 1990, and shall contain a compilation of the disclosure reports received from December 23, 1989 to March 31, 1990.
</P>
<P>(f) Major agencies, designated by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), are required to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives no later than with the compilations due on May 31, 1991. OMB shall provide detailed specifications in a memorandum to these agencies.
</P>
<P>(g) Non-major agencies are requested to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives.
</P>
<P>(h) Agencies shall keep the originals of all disclosure reports in the official files of the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 601.605" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.605   Inspector General report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Inspector General, or other official as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, of each agency shall prepare and submit to Congress each year, commencing with submission of the President's Budget in 1991, an evaluation of the compliance of that agency with, and the effectiveness of, the requirements herein. The evaluation may include any recommended changes that may be necessary to strengthen or improve the requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an agency that does not have an Inspector General, the agency official comparable to an Inspector General shall prepare and submit the annual report, or, if there is no such comparable official, the head of the agency shall prepare and submit the annual report.
</P>
<P>(c) The annual report shall be submitted at the same time the agency submits its annual budget justifications to Congress.
</P>
<P>(d) The annual report shall include the following: All alleged violations relating to the agency's covered Federal actions during the year covered by the report, the actions taken by the head of the agency in the year covered by the report with respect to those alleged violations and alleged violations in previous years, and the amounts of civil penalties imposed by the agency in the year covered by the report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.6.1.3.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 601—Certification Regarding Lobbying
</HEAD>
<HD2>Certification for Contracts, Grants, Loans, and Cooperative Agreements
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned certifies, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>(1) No Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid, by or on behalf of the undersigned, to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of an agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) If any funds other than Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>(3) The undersigned shall require that the language of this certification be included in the award documents for all subawards at all tiers (including subcontracts, subgrants, and contracts under grants, loans, and cooperative agreements) and that all subrecipients shall certify and disclose accordingly.
</P>
<P>This certification is a material representation of fact upon which reliance was placed when this transaction was made or entered into. Submission of this certification is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code. Any person who fails to file the required certification shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $25,132 and not more than $251,322 for each such failure. 
</P>
<HD2>Statement for Loan Guarantees and Loan Insurance
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned states, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>If any funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions. 
</P>
<P>Submission of this statement is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code. Any person who fails to file the required statement shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $25,132 and not more than $251,322 for each such failure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 6737, 6746, Feb. 26, 1990, as amended at 62 FR 46184, Sept. 2, 1997; 74 FR 66032, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96352, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1292, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1028, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105406, Dec. 27, 2024]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.10.6.1.3.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 601—Disclosure Form To Report Lobbying

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.011.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="602" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 602—EPIDEMIOLOGY AND OTHER HEALTH STUDIES FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2051; 42 U.S.C. 5817; 42 U.S.C. 5901-5920; 42 U.S.C. 7254 and 7256; 31 U.S.C. 6301-6308. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 602.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policies and procedures applicable to the award and administration of grants and cooperative agreements by DOE (through the Office of Environment, Health Safety and Security or any office to which its functions are subsequently redelegated) for health related research, education/training, conferences, communication, and related activities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 68729, Nov. 28, 2006; 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 5007, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all grants and cooperative agreements awarded after the effective date of this rule. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided by this part, the award and administration of grants and cooperative agreements shall be governed by 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910 (DOE Financial Assistance Regulation). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the definitions provided in 2 CFR part 200 and 2 CFR part 910, the following definitions are provided for purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Conference and communication activities</I> means scientific or technical conferences, symposia, workshops, seminars, public meetings, publications, video or slide shows, and other presentations for the purpose of communicating or exchanging information or views pertinent to DOE. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>Education/Training</I> means support for education or related activities for an individual or organization that will enhance educational levels and skills, in particular, scientific or technical areas of interest to DOE. 
</P>
<P><I>Epidemiology and Other Health Studies</I> means research pertaining to potential health effects resulting from DOE or predecessor agency operations or from any aspect of energy production, transmission, or use (including electromagnetic fields) in the United States and abroad. Related systems or activities to enhance these areas, as well as other program areas that may be described by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> are also included. 
</P>
<P><I>Principal investigator</I> means the scientist or other individual designated by the recipient to direct the project. 
</P>
<P><I>Research</I> means basic and applied research and that part of development not related to the development of specific systems or products. The primary aim of research is scientific study and experimentation directed toward advancing the state of the art or increasing knowledge or understanding rather than focusing on a specific system or product. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.4   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Single-case exceptions from this part may be authorized in writing by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, the Head of the Contracting Activity, or their designees, upon the written request of DOE staff, an applicant for award, or a recipient. A request from an applicant or a recipient must be submitted to or through the cognizant contracting officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever a proposed deviation from this part would be a deviation from 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, the deviation must also be authorized in accordance with the procedures prescribed in that part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 68729, Nov. 28, 2006; 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 5007, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.5   Epidemiology and Other Health Studies Financial Assistance Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may issue under this part awards for research, education/training, conferences, communication, and related activities in the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security program areas set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The program areas are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Health experience of DOE and DOE contractor workers; 
</P>
<P>(2) Health experience of populations living near DOE facilities; 
</P>
<P>(3) Workers exposed to toxic substances, such as beryllium; 
</P>
<P>(4) Use of biomarkers to recognize exposure to toxic substances; 
</P>
<P>(5) Epidemiology and other health studies relating to energy production, transmission, and use (including electromagnetic fields) in the United States and abroad; 
</P>
<P>(6) Compilation, documentation, management, use, and analysis of data for the DOE Comprehensive Epidemiologic Data Resource; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Other systems or activities enhancing these areas, as well as other program areas as may be described by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 68729, Nov. 28, 2006; 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 5007, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.6" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.6   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>Any individual or entity other than a Federal agency is eligible for a grant or cooperative agreement. An unaffiliated individual is also eligible for a grant or cooperative agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.7" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.7   Solicitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number for 10 CFR part 602 is 81.108 and its solicitation control number is EOHSFAP 10 CFR part 602. 
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a new or renewal award under this solicitation may be submitted at any time to DOE at the address specified in paragraph (c) of this section. New or renewal applications shall receive consideration for funding generally within 6 months but, in any event, no later than 12 months from the date of receipt by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except as otherwise provided in a notice of availability, applicants may obtain application forms, described in 602.8(b) of this part, and additional information from the Office of Domestic and International Health Studies, EHSS-13, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585, 301-903-2340, and shall submit applications to the same address. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE will publish program notices in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> regarding the availability of epidemiology and other health studies financial assistance. DOE may also use other means of communication, as appropriate, such as the publication of notices of availability in trade and professional journals and news media. 
</P>
<P>(1) Each notice of availability shall cite this part and shall include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number and solicitation control number of the program; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of money available or estimated to be available for award; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the responsible DOE program official to contact for additional information and an address where application forms may be obtained; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The address for submission of applications; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Any evaluation criteria in addition to those set forth in § 602.9 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) The notice of availability may also include any other relevant information helpful to applicants such as: 
</P>
<P>(i) Program objectives; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A project agenda or potential area of project initiatives; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Problem areas requiring additional effort; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other information that identifies areas in which grants or cooperative agreements may be made. 
</P>
<P>(e) DOE is under no obligation to pay for any costs associated with the preparation or submission of applications. 
</P>
<P>(f) DOE reserves the right to fund, in whole or in part, any, all, or none of the applications submitted. 
</P>
<P>(g) To be considered for a renewal award under this part, an incumbent recipient shall submit a continuation or renewal application, as provided in § 602.8 (c) and (h) of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 68729, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5007, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.8" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.8   Application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An original and seven copies of the application for initial support must be submitted, except that State and local governments and Indian tribal governments shall not be required to submit more than the original and two copies of the application. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each new or renewal application in response to this part must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) An application face page, DOE Form 4650.2 (approved by OMB under OMB Control No. 1910-1400). However, the face page of an application submitted by a State or local government or an Indian tribal government shall be the face page of Standard Form 424 (approved by OMB under OMB Control Number 0348-0043). 
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description of the proposed project, including its objectives, its relationship to DOE's program, its impact on the environment, if any, and the applicant's plan for carrying it out. 
</P>
<P>(3) Detailed information about the background and experience of the recipients of funds or, as appropriate, the principal investigator(s) (including references to publications), the facilities and experience of the applicant, and the cost-sharing arrangements, if any. 
</P>
<P>(4) A detailed budget for the entire proposed period of support with written justification sufficient to evaluate the itemized list of costs provided on the entire project. Applicants should note the following when preparing budgets: 
</P>
<P>(i) Numerical details on items of cost provided by State and local government and Indian tribal government applicants shall be on Standard Form 424A, “Budget Information for Non-Construction Programs” (approved under OMB Control No. 0348-0044). All other applicants shall use budget forms ERF 4620.1 (approved by OMB under Control No. 1910-1400). 
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE may, subsequent to receipt of an application, request additional budgetary information from an applicant when necessary for clarification or make informed pre-award determinations under 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any pre-award assurances required pursuant to 10 CFR parts 600 and 602. 
</P>
<P>(c) Applications for a renewal award must be submitted with an original and seven copies, except that State and local governments and Indian tribal government applicants are required to submit only an original and two copies (Approved by OMB under OMB Control Numbers 0348-00050348-0009) 
</P>
<P>(d) The application must be signed by an official who is authorized to act for the applicant organization and to commit the applicant to comply with the terms and conditions of the award, if one is issued, or if unaffiliated, by the individual applicant. (See § 602.17(a)(1) for requirements on continuation awards.) 
</P>
<P>(e) DOE may return an application that does not include all information and documentation required by statute, this part, 10 CFR part 600, or the notice of availability, when the nature of the omission precludes review of the application. 
</P>
<P>(f) During the review of a complete application, DOE may request the submission of additional information only if the information is essential to evaluate the application. 
</P>
<P>(g) In addition to including the information described in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, an application for a renewal award must be submitted no later than 6 months before the expiration of the project period and must be on the same forms as required for initial applications. The renewal application must outline and justify a program and budget for the proposed project period, showing in detail the estimated cost of the proposed project, together with an indication of the amount of cost sharing, if any. The application shall also describe and explain the reasons for any change in the scope or objectives of the proposed project and shall compare and explain any difference between the estimates in the proposed budget and actual costs experienced as of the date of the application. 
</P>
<P>(h) DOE is not required to return an application to the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(i) Renewal applications must include a separate section that describes the results of work accomplished through the date of the renewal application and how such results relate to the activities proposed to be undertaken in the renewal period. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.9" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.9   Application evaluation and selection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications shall be evaluated for funding generally within 6 months, but in any event no later than 12 months, from the date of receipt by DOE. After DOE has held an application for 6 months, the applicant may, in response to DOE's request, be required to revalidate the terms of the original application. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall perform an initial evaluation of all applications to ensure that the information required by this part is provided, that the proposed effort is technically sound and feasible, and that the effort is consistent with program funding priorities. For applications that pass the initial evaluation, DOE shall review and evaluate each application received based on the criteria set forth below and in accordance with the Office of Environment, Health, Safety, and Security Merit Review System developed, as required, under DOE Financial Assistance Regulations, 2 CFR 200 as amended by 2 CFR 910.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall select evaluators on the basis of their professional qualifications and expertise. To ensure credible and inclusive peer review of applications, every effort will be made to select evaluators apart from DOE employees and contractors. Evaluators shall be required to comply with all applicable DOE rules or directives concerning the use of outside evaluators. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE shall evaluate new and renewal applications based on the following criteria that are listed in descending order of importance: 
</P>
<P>(1) The scientific and technical merit of the proposed research; 
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriateness of the proposed method or approach; 
</P>
<P>(3) Competency of research personnel and adequacy of proposed resources; 
</P>
<P>(4) Reasonableness and appropriateness of the proposed budget; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Other appropriate factors consistent with the purpose of this part established and set forth in a Notice of Availability or in a specific solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(e) DOE shall also consider as part of the evaluation other available advice or information, as well as program policy factors, such as ensuring an appropriate balance among the program areas listed in § 602.5 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the evaluation criteria set forth in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, DOE shall consider the recipient's performance under the existing award during the evaluation of a renewal application. 
</P>
<P>(g) Selection of applications for award will be based upon the findings of the technical evaluations (including peer reviews, as specified in the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security Merit Review System), the importance and relevance of the proposal to the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security's mission, and the availability of funds. Cost reasonableness and realism will also be considered. 
</P>
<P>(h) After the selection of an application, DOE may, if necessary, enter into negotiations with an applicant. Such negotiations are not a commitment that DOE will make an award. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 68729, Nov. 28, 2006; 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014; 80 FR 5007, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.10" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.10   Additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient performing research or related activities involving the use of human subjects must comply with DOE regulations in 10 CFR part 745, “Protection of Human Subjects,” and any additional provisions that may be included in the special terms and conditions of an award. 
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient performing research involving recombinant DNA molecules and/or organisms and viruses containing recombinant DNA molecules shall comply with the National Institutes of Health “Guidelines for Research Involving Recombinant DNA Molecules” (51 FR 16958, May 7, 1986), or such later revision of those guidelines, as may be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> (The guidelines are available from the Office of Recombinant DNA Activities, National Institutes of Health, Building 31, Room BBB, Bethesda, MD 20892, or from the Office of Domestic and International Health Studies, EHSS-13, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient performing research on warm-blooded animals shall comply with the Federal Laboratory Animal Welfare Act of 1966, as amended (7 U.S.C. 2131 <I>et seq.</I>), and the regulations promulgated thereunder by the Secretary of Agriculture at 9 CFR chapter I, subchapter A, pertaining to the care, handling, and treatment of warm-blooded animals held or used for research, teaching, or other activities supported by Federal awards. The recipient shall comply with the guidelines described in the Department of Health and Human Services Publication No. [NIH] 86-23, “Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals,” or succeeding revised editions. (This guide is available from the Office for Protection from Research Risks, Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health, Building 31, Room 4B09, Bethesda, MD 20892, or from the Office of Domestic and International Health Studies, EHSS-13, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 68730, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5007, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.11" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.11   Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The project period during which DOE expects to provide support for an approved project under this part shall generally not exceed 3 years and may exceed 5 years only if DOE makes a renewal award or otherwise extends the award. The project period shall be specified on the Notice of Financial Assistance Grant (DOE Form 4600.1). 
</P>
<P>(b) Each budget period of an award under this part shall generally be 12 months and may be as much as 24 months, as DOE deems appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.12" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.12   Cost sharing.</HEAD>
<P>Cost sharing is not required, nor will it be considered, as a criterion in the evaluation and selection process unless otherwise provided under § 602.9(d)(5). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.13" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.13   Limitation of DOE liability.</HEAD>
<P>Awards made under this part are subject to the requirement that the maximum DOE obligation to the recipient is the amount shown in the Notice of Financial Assistance Award as the amount of DOE funds obligated. DOE shall not be obligated to make any additional, supplemental, continuation, renewal, or other award for the same or any other purpose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.14" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.14   Fee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, a fee may be paid, in appropriate circumstances, to a recipient that is a small business concern, as qualified under the criteria and size standards of 13 CFR part 121, in order to permit the concern to participate in the Epidemiology and Other Health Studies Financial Assistance Program. Whether or not it is appropriate to pay a fee shall be determined by the contracting officer, who shall, at a minimum, apply the following guidelines: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the acceptance of an award will displace other work that the small business is currently engaged in or committed to assume in the near future; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the acceptance of an award will, in the absence of paying a fee, cause substantial financial distress to the business. In evaluating financial distress, the contracting officer shall balance current displacement against reasonable future benefit to the company. (If the award will result in the beneficial expansion of the existing business base of the company, then no fee would generally be appropriate.) Fees shall not be paid to other entities except as a deviation from 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, nor shall fees be paid under awards in support of conferences. 
</P>
<P>(b) To request a fee, a small business concern shall submit with its application a written self-certification that it is a small business concern qualified under the criteria and size standards in 13 CFR part 121. In addition, the application must state the amount of fee requested for the entire project period and the basis for requesting the amount and must also state why payment of a fee by DOE would be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the contracting officer determines that payment of a fee is appropriate under paragraph (a) of this section, the amount of fee shall be that determined to be reasonable by the contracting officer. The contracting officer shall, at a minimum, apply the following guidelines in determining the fee amount: 
</P>
<P>(1) The fee base shall include the estimated allowable cost of direct salaries and wages and allocable fringe benefits. This fee base shall exclude all other direct and indirect costs. 
</P>
<P>(2) The fee amount expressed as a percentage of the appropriate fee base, pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, shall not exceed the percentage rate of fee that would result if a Federal agency contracted for the same amount of salaries, wages, and allocable fringe benefits under a cost reimbursement contract. 
</P>
<P>(3) Fee amounts, determined pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section, shall be appropriately reduced when: 
</P>
<P>(i) Advance payments are provided; and/or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Title to property acquired with DOE funds vests in the recipient (2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910). 
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, any fee awarded shall be a fixed fee and shall be payable on an annual basis in proportion to the work completed, as determined by the contracting officer, upon satisfactory submission and acceptance by DOE of the progress report. If the project period is shortened due to termination, or the project period is not fully funded, the fee shall be reduced by an appropriate amount. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.15" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.15   Indirect cost limitations.</HEAD>
<P>Awards issued under this part for conferences and scientific/technical meetings will not include payment for indirect costs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.16" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.16   National security.</HEAD>
<P>Activities under the Epidemiology and Other Health Studies Financial Assistance Program are not expected to involve classified information (i.e., Restricted Data, Formerly Restricted Data, National Security Information). However, if in the opinion of the recipient or DOE such involvement becomes expected prior to the closeout of the award, the recipient or DOE shall notify the other in writing immediately. If the recipient believes any information developed or acquired may be classified, the recipient shall not provide the potentially classified information to anyone, including DOE officials with whom the recipient normally communicates, except the Director, Office of Classification, and shall protect such information as if it were classified until notified by DOE that a determination has been made that it does not require such handling. Correspondence that includes the specific information in question shall be sent by registered mail to the U.S. Department of Energy, Attn: Director, Office of Classification, EHSS-60, P.O. Box A, Germantown, MD 20875. If the information is determined to be classified, the recipient may wish to discontinue the project, in which case the recipient and DOE shall terminate the award by mutual agreement. If the award is to be terminated, all material deemed by DOE to be classified shall be forwarded to DOE in a manner specified by DOE for proper disposition. If the recipient and DOE wish to continue the award, even though classified information is involved, the recipient shall be requested to obtain both personnel and facility security clearances through the Office of Headquarters Security Operations awards or from the cognizant field office for awards obtained through DOE field organizations. Costs associated with handling and protecting any such classified information shall be negotiated at the time that the determination to proceed is made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 68730, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.17" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.17   Continuation funding and reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall periodically report to DOE on the project's progress in meeting the project objectives of the award. The following types of reports shall be used: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Progress Reports.</I> After issuance of an initial award, recipients must submit a satisfactory progress report to receive a continuation award for the remainder of the project period. The original and two copies of the required report must be submitted to the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security program manager 90 days prior to the anticipated continuation funding date. The report should include results of work to date and emphasize findings and their significance to the field, and any real or anticipated problems. The report also should contain the following information: On the first page, provide the project title, principal investigator/project director name, period of time the report covers, name and address of recipient organization, DOE award number, the amount of unexpended funds, if any, that are anticipated to be left at the end of the current budget period. If the amount exceeds 10 percent of the funds available for the budget period, provide information as to why the excess funds are anticipated to be available and how they will be used in the next budget period. The report should state whether the aims have changed from the original application, and if they have, provide revised aims. A completed budget page must be submitted with the continuation progress report when a change to anticipated future costs will exceed 25 percent of the original recommended future budget. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of Energy Research and Development (R&amp;D) Project.</I> A Notice of Energy R&amp;D Project, DOE Form 1430.22, which summarizes the purpose and scope of the project, must be submitted in accordance with the Distribution and Schedule of Documents set forth in appendix A to this part, Schedule of Renewal Applications and Reports. Copies of the form may be obtained from a DOE contracting office. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special Reports.</I> The recipient shall report the following events to DOE as soon after they occur as possible: 
</P>
<P>(i) Problems, delays, or adverse conditions that will materially affect the ability to attain project objectives or prevent the meeting of time schedules and goals. The report must describe remedial action that the recipient has taken, or plans to take, and any action DOE should take to alleviate the problems. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Favorable developments or events that enable meeting time schedules and goals sooner, or a lower cost than anticipated, or producing more beneficial results than originally projected. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Final Report.</I> A final report covering the entire project must be submitted by the recipient within 90 days after the project period ends or the award is terminated. Satisfactory completion of an award will be contingent upon the receipt of this report. The final report shall follow the same outline as progress reports. Recipients will provide, as part of the final report, a description of records and data compiled during the project, along with a plan for its preservation or disposition (see § 602.19 of this part). All manuscripts prepared for publication should be appended to the final report. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Financial Status Report (FSR) (OMB No. 0348-0039).</I> The FSR is required within 90 days after completion of each budget period. For budget periods exceeding 12 months, an FSR is also required within 90 days after this first 12 months unless waived by the contracting officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may extend the deadline date for any report if the recipient submits a written request before the deadline, that adequately justifies an extension. 
</P>
<P>(c) A table summarizing the various types of reports, time for submission, and number of copies is set forth in appendix A to this part. The schedule of reports shall be as prescribed in this table, unless the award document specifies otherwise. These reports shall be submitted by the recipient to the awarding office. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE, or its authorized representatives, may make site visits, at any reasonable time, to review the project. DOE may provide such technical assistance as may be requested. 
</P>
<P>(e) Recipients may place performance reporting requirements on a subrecipient consistent with the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 71 FR 68730, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.18" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.18   Dissemination of results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Recipients are encouraged to disseminate research results promptly. DOE reserves the right to utilize, and have others utilize to the extent it deems appropriate, the reports resulting from research awards. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may waive the technical reporting requirement of progress reports set forth in § 602.17, if the recipient submits to DOE a copy of its own report that is published or accepted for publication in a recognized scientific or technical journal and that satisfies the information requirements of the program. 
</P>
<P>(c) Recipients are urged to publish results through normal publication channels. 
</P>
<P>(d) The article shall include an acknowledgement that the project was supported, in whole or in part, by a DOE award, and specify the award number, but state that such support does not constitute an endorsement by DOE of the views expressed in the article. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 5841, Jan. 31, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.19" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.19   Records and data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In some cases, DOE will require submission of certain project records or data to facilitate mission-related activities. Recipients, therefore, must take adequate steps to ensure proper management, control, and preservation of all project records and data. 
</P>
<P>(b) Awardees must ensure that all project data is adequately documented. Documentation shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Reference software used to compile, manage, and analyze data; 
</P>
<P>(2) Define all technical characteristics necessary for reading or processing the records; 
</P>
<P>(3) Define file and record content and codes; 
</P>
<P>(4) Describe update cycles or conditions and rules for adding or deleting information; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Detail instrument calibration effects, sampling and analysis, space and time coverage, quality control measures, data algorithms and reduction methods, and other activities relevant to data collection and assembly. 
</P>
<P>(c) Recipients agree to comply with designated DOE records and data management requirements, including providing electronic data in prescribed formats and retention of specified records and data for eventual transfer to the Comprehensive Epidemiologic Data Resource or to another repository, as directed by DOE. Recipients will provide, as part of the final report, a description of records and data compiled during the project along with a plan for its preservation or disposition. 
</P>
<P>(d) Recipients agree to make project records and data available as soon as possible when requested by DOE. 











</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.11.0.1.20.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 602—Schedule of Renewal Applications and Reports

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">When due
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of copies for awarding office
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Summary: 200 words on scope and purpose (Notice of Energy R&amp;D Project)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Immediately after a grant is awarded and with each application for renewal</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Renewal period ends</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 months before the budget</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Progress Report period (or as part of a renewal application)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 days prior to the next budget period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Other progress reports, brief topical reports, etc. (Designated when significant results develop or when work has direct programmatic impact)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As deemed appropriate by DOE or the recipient</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Reprints, Conference</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as 4. above</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Final report of the project</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 90 days after completion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Financial Status Report (FSR)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 90 days after completion of the project period; for budget periods exceeding 12 months an FSR is also required within 90 days after the first 12-month period</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> Report types 5 and 6 require with submission two copies of DOE Form 1332.16, University-Type Contractor and Grantee Recommendations for Disposition of Scientific and Technical Document.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="603" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 603 [RESERVED] 






</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="605" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 605—THE OFFICE OF SCIENCE FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 31 of the Atomic Energy Act, as amended, Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 919 (42 U.S.C. 2051); sec. 107 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1240 (42 U.S.C. 5817); Federal Nonnuclear Energy Research and Development Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-577, 88 Stat. 1878 (42 U.S.C. 5901 <I>et seq.</I>); secs. 644 and 646 of the Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 599 (42 U.S.C. 7254 and 7256); Federal Grant and Cooperative Agreement Act, as amended (31 U.S.C. 6301 <I>et seq.</I>).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 605.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policies and procedures applicable to the award and administration of grants and cooperative agreements by the DOE Office of Science (SC) for basic and applied research, educational and/or training activities, conferences and related activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all grants and cooperative agreements awarded after the effective date of this amended rule.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided by this part, the award and administration of grants and cooperative agreements shall be governed by 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910 (DOE Financial Assistance Rules).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the definitions provided in 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, the following definitions are provided for purposes of this part—
</P>
<P><I>Basic and applied research</I> means basic and applied research and that part of development not related to the development of specific systems or products. The primary aim of research is scientific study and experimentation directed toward advancing the state of the art or increasing knowledge or understanding rather than focusing on a specific system or product.
</P>
<P><I>Educational/Training</I> means support for education or related activities for an individual or organization that will enhance education levels and skills in particular scientific or technical areas of interest to DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Principal investigator</I> means the scientist or other individual designated by the recipient to direct the project.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient obligation</I> means the amounts of orders placed, contracts and subawards issued, services received, and similar transactions during a given period that will require payment by the recipient during the same or a future period.
</P>
<P><I>Related conference</I> means scientific or technical conferences, symposia, workshops or seminars for the purpose of communicating or exchanging information or views pertinent to SC.
</P>
<P><I>Special purpose equipment</I> means equipment which is used only for research, medical, scientific, educational, or other related project activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.4   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>Single-case exceptions from this part may be authorized in writing by the Director or Deputy Director of SC or the Head of a Contracting Activity upon the written request of DOE staff, an applicant for an award, or a recipient. A request from an applicant or a recipient must be submitted to or through the cognizant contracting officer. Whenever a proposed exception from this part would be a exception from 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, the exception must also be authorized in accordance with the procedures prescribed in that part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.5   The Office of Science Financial Assistance Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may issue, under the Office of Science Financial Assistance Program, 10 CFR part 605, awards for basic and applied research, educational/training activities, conferences, and other related activities under the SC program areas set forth in paragraph (b) of this section and described in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Program areas are:
</P>
<P>(1) Basic Energy Sciences
</P>
<P>(2) Field Operations Management
</P>
<P>(3) Fusion Energy
</P>
<P>(4) Health and Environmental Research
</P>
<P>(5) High Energy and Nuclear Physics
</P>
<P>(6) Scientific Computing Staff
</P>
<P>(7) Superconducting Super Collider
</P>
<P>(8) University and Science Education Programs
</P>
<P>(9) Program Analysis; and
</P>
<P>(10) Other program areas of interest as may be described in a notice of availability published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.6" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.6   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>Any university or other institution of higher education or other non-profit or for-profit organization, non-Federal agency, or entity is eligible for a grant or cooperative agreement. An unaffiliated individual also is eligible for a grant or cooperative agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.7" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.7   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.8" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.8   Solicitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number for this program is 81.049, and its solicitation control number is ERFAP 10 CFR part 605.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a new or renewal award under this solicitation may be submitted at any time to DOE at the address specified in paragraph (c) of this section. New or renewal applications shall receive consideration for funding generally within 6 months but, in any event, no later than 12 months from the date of receipt by DOE.
</P>
<P>(c) Applicants may obtain application forms, described in § 605.9(b), and additional information from the Acquisition and Assistance Management Division, Office of Science, SC, Department of Energy, Washington, DC 20585, (301) 903-5544, and shall submit applications to the same address.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE shall publish annually, in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a notice of the availability of the Office of Science Financial Assistance Program. DOE shall also publish notices or abbreviated notices of availability in trade and professional journals, and news media, and use other means of communication, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(1) Each notice of availability shall cite this part and shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number and solicitation control number of the program;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of money available or estimated to be available for award;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the responsible DOE program official to contact for additional information, and an address where application forms may be obtained; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The address for submission of applications; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any evaluation criteria in addition to those set forth in § 605.10.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice of availability may also include any other relevant information helpful to applicants such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Program objectives,
</P>
<P>(ii) A project agenda or potential areas for project initiatives,
</P>
<P>(iii) Problem areas requiring additional effort, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other information which identifies areas in which grants or cooperative agreements may be made.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE is under no obligation to pay for any costs associated with the preparation or submission of applications.
</P>
<P>(f) DOE reserves the right to fund, in whole or in part, any, all, or none of the applications submitted.
</P>
<P>(g) To be considered for a renewal award under this part, an incumbent recipient shall submit a renewal application as provided in § 605.9 (c) and (h).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.9" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.9   Application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An original and seven copies of the application for initial support must be submitted except that State governments, local governments, or Indian tribal governments shall not be required to submit more than the original and two copies of the application.
</P>
<P>(b) Each new or renewal application in response to this part must include:
</P>
<P>(1) An application face page, DOE Form 4650.2 (approved by OMB under OMB Control No. 1910-1400). However, the facesheet of the application for State and local governments and Indian tribal government applicants shall be the facesheet of Standard Form (SF) 424 (approved by OMB under OMB Control Number 0348-0043).
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description of the proposed project, including the objectives of the project, in relationship to DOE's program and the applicant's plan for carrying it out;
</P>
<P>(3) Detailed information about the background and experience of the principal investigator(s) (including references to publications), the facilities and experience of the applicant, and the cost-sharing arrangements, if any.
</P>
<P>(4) A detailed budget for the entire proposed period of support with written justification sufficient to evaluate the itemized list of costs provided on the entire project.
</P>
<P>(i) Numerical details on items of cost provided by State and local government and Indian tribal government applicants shall be on Standard Form 424A, Budget Information for Non-Construction Programs (approved under OMB Control No. 0348-0044). All other applicants shall use budget form ERF 4620.1 (approved by OMB under Control No. 1910-1400).
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE may, subsequent to receipt of an application, request additional budgetary information from an applicant when necessary for clarification or to make informed preaward determinations under 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910.
</P>
<P>(5) Any preaward assurances required pursuant to 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910.
</P>
<P>(c) Applications for a renewal award must be submitted in an original and seven copies, except that State governments, local governments, or Indian tribes are required to submit only an original and two copies. (Approved by OMB under OMB Control Numbers 0348-0005—0348-0009)
</P>
<P>(d) The application must be signed by an official who is authorized to act for the applicant organization and to commit the applicant to comply with the terms and conditions of the award, if one is issued, or if unaffiliated, by the individual applicant. (See § 605.19(a)(1) for requirements on continuation awards.)
</P>
<P>(e) All applications which involve research, development, or demonstration activities when such activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a unique geographic focus and are directly relevant to the governmental responsibilities of a State or local government within the geographic area;
</P>
<P>(2) Necessitate the preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I> (1976)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Are to be initiated at a particular site or location and require unusual measures to limit the possibility of adverse exposure or hazard to the general public, are subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372 and 10 CFR part 1005.
</P>
<FP>Anyone planning to submit such applications should contact ER for further information about compliance requirements.
</FP>
<P>(f) DOE may return an application which does not include all information and documentation required by statute, this part, 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910 or the notice of availability, when the nature of the omission precludes review of the application.
</P>
<P>(g) During the review of the complete application, DOE may request the submission of additional information only if the information is essential to evaluate the application.
</P>
<P>(h) In addition to including the information described in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, an application for a renewal award must be submitted no later than six months prior to the scheduled expiration of the project period and must be on the same forms and include the same type of information as that required for initial applications. The renewal application must outline and justify a program and budget for the proposed project period, showing in detail the estimated cost of the proposed project, together with an indication of the amount of funds needed and the amount of cost sharing, if any. The application also shall describe and explain the reasons for any change in the scope or objectives of the proposed project, and shall compare and explain any difference between the estimates in the proposed budget and actual costs experienced as of the date of the application.
</P>
<P>(i) DOE is not required to return to the applicant an application which is not selected or funded.
</P>
<P>(j) Renewal applications must include a separate section that describes the results of work accomplished through the date of the renewal application and how such results relate to the activities proposed to be undertaken in the renewal period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.10" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.10   Application evaluation and selection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications shall be evaluated for funding generally within 6 months but, in any event, no later than 12 months from the date of receipt by DOE. After DOE has held an application for 6 months, the applicant may, in response to DOE's request, be required to revalidate the terms of the original application.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE staff shall perform an initial evaluation of all applications to ensure that the information required by this part is provided, that the proposed effort is technically sound and feasible, and that the effort is consistent with program funding priorities. For applications which pass the initial evaluation, DOE shall review and evaluate each application received based on the criteria set forth below and in accordance with the Merit Review System developed as required under DOE Financial Assistance Regulations, 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall select evaluators on the basis of their professional qualifications and expertise. Evaluators shall be required to comply with all applicable DOE rules or directives concerning the use of outside evaluators.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE shall evaluate new and renewal applications based on the following criteria which are listed in descending order of importance:
</P>
<P>(1) Scientific and/or technical merit or the educational benefits of the project; 
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriateness of the proposed method or approach;
</P>
<P>(3) Competency of applicant's personnel and adequacy of proposed resources;
</P>
<P>(4) Reasonableness and appropriateness of the proposed budget; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Other appropriate factors established and set forth by ER in a notice of availability or in a specific solicitation.
</P>
<P>(e) Also, DOE shall consider, as part of the evaluation, other available advice or information as well as program policy factors such as ensuring an appropriate balance among the program areas listed in § 605.5(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) In addition to the evaluation criteria set forth in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, DOE shall consider the recipient's performance under the existing award during the evaluation of a renewal application.
</P>
<P>(g) Selection of applications for award will be based upon the findings of the technical evaluations, the importance and relevance of the proposed application to SC's mission, and fund availability. Cost reasonableness and realism will also be considered to the extent appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) After the selection of an application, DOE may, if necessary, enter into negotiation with an applicant. Such negotiations are not a commitment that DOE will make an award.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76046, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.11" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.11   Additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient performing research, development, or related activities involving the use of human subjects must comply with DOE regulations in 10 CFR part 745, “Protection of Human Subjects,” and any additional provisions which may be included in the Special Terms and Conditions of an award.
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient performing research involving recombinant DNA molecules and/or organisms and viruses containing recombinant DNA molecules shall comply with the National Institutes of Health “Guidelines for Research Involving Recombinant DNA Molecules” (51 FR 16958, May 7, 1986), or such later revision of those guidelines as may be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> (The guidelines are available from the Office of Recombinant DNA Activities, National Institutes of Health, Building 31, room 4B11, Bethesda, Maryland 20892.)
</P>
<P>(c) Any recipient performing research on warm-blooded animals shall comply with the Federal Laboratory Animal Welfare Act of 1966, as amended (7 U.S.C. 2131 <I>et seq.</I>) and the regulations promulgated thereunder by the Secretary of Agriculture at 9 CFR chapter I, subchapter A, pertaining to the care, handling, and treatment of warm blooded animals held or used for research, teaching, or other activities supported by Federal awards. The recipient shall comply with the guidelines described in DHHS Publication No. [NIH] 86-23, “Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals,” or succeeding revised editions. (This guide is available from the Office for Protection from Research Risks, Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health, Building 31, room 4B09, Bethesda, Maryland 20205.)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.12" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.12   Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The project period during which DOE expects to provide support for an approved project under this part shall generally not exceed 3 years and may exceed 5 years only if DOE makes a renewal award or otherwise extends the award. The project period shall be specified on the Notice of Financial Assistance Award (DOE Form 4600.1).
</P>
<P>(b) Each budget period, of an award under this part, shall generally be 12 months and may be as much as 24 months as determined appropriate by SC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76047, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.13" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.13   Cost sharing.</HEAD>
<P>Cost sharing is not required nor will it be considered as a criterion in the evaluation and selection process unless otherwise provided under § 605.10(d)(5).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.14" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.14   Limitation of DOE liability.</HEAD>
<P>Awards under this part are subject to the requirement that the maximum DOE obligation to the recipient is the amount shown in the Notice of Financial Assistance Award as the amount of DOE funds obligated. DOE shall not be obligated to make any additional, supplemental, continuation, renewal or other awards for the same or any other purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.15" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.15   Fee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, a fee may be paid, in appropriate circumstances, to a recipient which is a small business concern as qualified under the criteria and size standards of 13 CFR part 121 in order to permit the concern to participate in the ER Financial Assistance Program. Whether or not it is appropriate to pay a fee shall be determined by the Contracting Officer who shall, at a minimum, apply the following guidelines:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the acceptance of an award will displace other work the small business is currently engaged in or committed to assume in the near future; or
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the acceptance of an award will, in the absence of paying a fee, cause substantial financial distress to the business. In evaluating financial distress, the Contracting Officer shall balance current displacement against reasonable future benefit to the company. (If the award will result in the beneficial expansion of the existing business base of the company, then no fee would generally be appropriate.) Fees shall not be paid to other entities except as a exceptionfrom 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, nor shall fees be paid under awards in support of conferences.
</P>
<P>(b) To request a fee, a small business concern shall submit with its application a written self certification that it is a small business concern qualified under the criteria and size standards in 13 CFR part 121. In addition, the application must state the amount of fee requested for the entire project period and the basis for requesting the amount, and must also state why payment of a fee by DOE would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Contracting Officer determines that payment of a fee is appropriate under paragraph (a) of this section, the amount of fee shall be that determined to be reasonable by the Contracting Officer. The Contracting Officer shall, at a minimum, apply the following guidelines in determining the fee amount:
</P>
<P>(1) The fee base shall include the estimated allowable cost of direct salaries and wages and allocable fringe benefits. This fee base shall exclude all other direct and indirect costs.
</P>
<P>(2) The fee amount expressed as a percentage of the appropriate fee base pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, shall not exceed the percentage rate of fee that would result if a Federal agency contracted for the same amount of salaries, wages, and allocable fringe benefits under a cost reimbursement contract.
</P>
<P>(3) Fee amounts, determined pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section, shall be appropriately reduced when:
</P>
<P>(i) Advance payments are provided; and/or
</P>
<P>(ii) Title to property acquired with DOE funds vests in the recipient (10 CFR part 600).
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910, any fee awarded shall be a fixed fee and shall be payable on an annual basis in proportion to the work completed, as determined by the Contracting Officer, upon satisfactory submission and acceptance by DOE of the progress report. If the project period is shortened due to termination, or the project period is not fully funded, the fee shall be reduced by an appropriate amount.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76047, Dec. 19, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.16" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.16   Indirect cost limitations.</HEAD>
<P>Awards issued under this part for conferences and scientific/technical meetings will not include payment for indirect costs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.17" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.17   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.18" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.18   National security.</HEAD>
<P>Activities under SC's Financial Assistance Program shall not involve classified information (i.e., Restricted Data, formerly Restricted Data, National Security Information). However, if in the opinion of the recipient or DOE such involvement becomes expected prior to the closeout of the award, the recipient or DOE shall notify the other in writing immediately. If the recipient believes any information developed or acquired may be classifiable, the recipient shall not provide the potentially classifiable information to anyone, including the DOE officials with whom the recipient normally communicates, except the Director of Classification, and shall protect such information as if it were classified until notified by DOE that a determination has been made that it does not require such handling. Correspondence which includes the specific information in question shall be sent by registered mail to U.S. Department of Energy, Attn: Director of Classification, DP-32, Washington, DC 20585. If the information is determined to be classified, the recipient may wish to discontinue the project in which case the recipient and DOE shall terminate the award by mutual agreement. If the award is to be terminated, all material deemed by DOE to be classified shall be forwarded to DOE, in a manner specified by DOE, for proper disposition. If the recipient and DOE wish to continue the award, even though classified information is involved, the recipient shall be required to obtain both personnel and facility security clearances through the Office of Safeguards and Security for Headquarters awards, or from the cognizant field office Division of Safeguards and Security for awards obtained through DOE field organizations. Costs associated with handling and protecting any such classified information shall be negotiated at the time that the determination to proceed is made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76047, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.19" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.19   Continuation funding and reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall periodically report to DOE on the project's progress in meeting the project objectives of the award. The following types of reports shall be used:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Progress reports.</I> After issuance of an initial award and if future support is recommended, recipients must submit a satisfactory progress report in order to receive continuation awards for the remainder of the project period. The original and two copies of the required report (generally not to exceed two pages per project or task) must be submitted to the SC program manager 90 days prior to the anticipated continuation funding date and contain the following information: on the first page, provide the project title, principal investigator/project director name, period of time report covers, name and address of recipient organization, DOE award number, the amount of unexpended funds, if any, that are anticipated to be left at the end of the current budget period, and if the amount exceeds 10 percent of the funds available for the budget period, provide information as to why the excess funds are anticipated to be available and how they will be used in the next budget period. Report should state whether aims have changed from original application and if they have, provided revised aims. Include results of work to date. Emphasize findings and their significance to the field, and any real or anticipated problems. A completed budget page must be submitted with the continuation progress report when a change to anticipated future costs will exceed 25 percent of the original recommended future budget. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of Energy R&amp;D Project.</I> A Notice of Energy R&amp;D Project, DOE Form 1430.22, which summarizes the purpose and scope of the project, must be submitted in accordance with the Distribution and Schedule of Documents set forth at the end of this section. Copies of the form may be obtained from a DOE Contracting Office.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special reports.</I> The recipient shall report the following events to DOE as soon after they occur as possible:
</P>
<P>(i) Problems, delays, or adverse conditions which will materially affect the ability to attain project objectives, or prevent the meeting of time schedules and goals. The report must describe the remedial action the recipient has taken or plans to take and any action DOE should take to alleviate the problems. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Favorable developments or events which enable meeting time schedules and goals sooner or at less cost than anticipated or producing more beneficial results than originally projected. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Final report.</I> A final report summarizing the entire investigation must be submitted by the recipient within 90 days after the final project period ends or the award is terminated. Satisfactory completion of an award will be contingent upon the receipt of this report. The final report shall follow the same outline as a progress report. Manuscripts prepared for publication should be appended. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Financial status report (FSR) (OMB No. 0348-0039).</I> The FSR is required within 90 days after completion of each budget period; for budget periods exceeding 12 months, an FSR is also required within 90 days after this first 12 months unless waived by the Contracting Officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may extend the deadline date for any report if the recipient submits a written request before the deadline which adequately justifies an extension. 
</P>
<P>(c) A table summarizing the various types of reports, time for submission, number of copies is set forth below. The schedule of reports shall be as prescribed in this table, unless the award document specifies otherwise.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>DOE review of performance.</I> DOE or its authorized representatives may make site visits, at any reasonable time, to review the project. DOE may provide such technical assistance as may be requested. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Subrecipient progress reporting.</I> Recipients may place progress reporting requirements on a subrecipient consistent with the provisions of this section. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Distribution and Schedule of Documents
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">When due 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of copies to be submitted
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Summary: 200 words on scope and purpose (Notice of Energy R&amp;D Project)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Immediately after award and with each application for renewal</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Renewal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 months before the project period ends</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Progress Report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 days prior to the next budget period (or as part of a renewal application)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Other progress reports, brief topical reports, etc. (Designated when significant results develop or when work has direct programmatic impact)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As deemed appropriate by the recipient</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Reprints, Conference papers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same as 4 above</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. Final Report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 90 days after termination of the project</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Financial Status Report. (FSR)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Within 90 days after completion of the project period; for budget periods exceeding 12 months an FSR is also required within 90 days after the first 12-month period</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> Report types 5 and 6 require with submission two copies of DOE Form 1332.16, University-Type Contractor and Grantee Recommendations for Disposition of Scientific and Technical Document.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76047, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.20" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.20   Dissemination of results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Recipients are encouraged to disseminate project results promptly. DOE reserves the right to utilize, and have others utilize, to the extent it deems appropriate, the reports resulting from awards. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may waive progress reporting requirements set forth in § 605.19, if the recipient submits to DOE a copy of its own report which is published or accepted for publication in a recognized scientific or technical journal and which satisfies the information requirements of the program. 
</P>
<P>(c) Recipients are urged to publish results through normal publication channels in accordance with the applicable provisions of 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910.
</P>
<P>(d) The article shall include an acknowledgment that the project was supported, in whole or in part, by a DOE award, and specify the award number, but state that such support does not constitute an endorsement by DOE of the views expressed in the article.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76047, Dec. 19, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.13.0.1.21.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 605—The Energy Research Program Office Descriptions
</HEAD>
<HD1>1. Basic Energy Sciences
</HD1>
<P>This program supports basic science research efforts in a variety of disciplines to broaden the energy supply and technological base knowledge. The major science division and its objectives are as follows: 
</P>
<HD2>(a) Energy Biosciences
</HD2>
<P>The primary objective of this program is to generate a basis of understanding of fundamental biological mechanisms in the areas of botanical and microbiological sciences that will support biotechnology development related to energy. The research serves as the basic information foundation with respect to renewable resource productivity for fuels and chemicals, microbial conversions or renewable materials and biological systems for the conservation of energy. This office has special requirements on the submission of preapplications, when to submit, and the length of the preapplication/application; applicants are encouraged to contact the office regarding these requirements. 
</P>
<HD2>(b) Chemical Sciences
</HD2>
<P>This program sponsors experimental and theoretical research on liquids, gases, plasmas, and solids. The focus is on their chemical properties and the interactions of their component molecules, atoms, ions, and electrons. The subprogram objective is to expand, through support of basic research, our knowledge in the various areas of chemistry; the long-term goal is to contribute to new or improved processes for developing and using domestic energy resources in an efficient and environmentally sound manner. Disciplinary areas covered include physical, organic, and inorganic chemistry; chemical physics; atomic physics; photochemistry; radiation chemistry; thermodynamics; thermophysics; separations science; analytical chemistry; and actinide chemistry. 
</P>
<HD2>(c) Geosciences
</HD2>
<P>The goal of this program is to develop a quantitative and predictive understanding of the energy-related aspects of processes within the earth and at the solar-terrestrial interface. The emphasis is on the upper levels of the earth's crust and the focus is on geophysics and geochemistry of rock-fluid systems and interactions. Specific topical areas receiving emphasis include: High resolution geophysical imaging; fundamental properties of rocks, minerals, and fluids; scientific drilling; and sedimentary basin systems. The resulting improved understanding and knowledge base are needed to assist efforts in the utilization of the Nation's energy resources in an environmentally acceptable fashion.
</P>
<HD2>(d) Engineering Research
</HD2>
<P>This program's objectives are: (1) To extend the body of knowledge underlying current engineering practice in order to open new ways for enhancing energy savings and production, prolonging useful equipment life, and reducing costs while maintaining output and performance quality; and (2) to broaden the technical and conceptual base for solving future engineering problems in the energy technologies. Long-term research topics of current interest include: foundations of bioprocessing of fuels and energy related wastes, fracture mechanics, experimental and theoretical studies of multiphase flows, intelligent machines, and diagnostics and control for plasma processing of materials. 
</P>
<HD2>(e) Materials Sciences
</HD2>
<P>The objective of this program is to increase the understanding of phenomena and properties important to materials behavior that will contribute to meeting the needs of present and future energy technologies. It is comprised of the subfields metallurgy, ceramics, solid state physics, materials chemistry, and related disciplines where the emphasis is on the science of materials.
</P>
<HD2>(f) Advanced Energy Projects
</HD2>
<P>The objective of this program is to support exploratory research on novel concepts related to energy. The concepts may be in any field related to energy but must not fall into an area of programmatic responsibility of an existing ER technical program. The research is usually aimed at establishing the scientific feasibility of a concept and, where appropriate, at estimating its economic viability.
</P>
<HD1>2. Field Operations Management
</HD1>
<P>This office administers special purpose support programs that cut across DOE program areas. In conjunction with this activity, it supports related conferences, research, and training initiatives that further these areas of interest.
</P>
<HD2>(a) Laboratory Technology Transfer Program
</HD2>
<P>The SC Laboratory Technology Transfer (LTT) Program has dedicated funding which fulfills the legislative mandate to more effectively transfer research and technology from Science laboratories to industry. By design, this program provides only partial funding for technology research projects and personnel exchanges with industry and universities. Mandatory cost-sharing by industry and other partners ensures that cooperative projects will focus on those that generate real interest in the private sector and facilitate the transfer of technology. The program supports laboratory-industry personnel exchanges; comprehensive program evaluation; and cost-shared technology research, especially CRADAs to advance precompetitive research projects to a point where they can be evaluated for commercial applications. Other activities of the SC Laboratory Technology Transfer Program include coordinating technology transfer operations throughout the SC laboratory system; coordinating technology transfer elements of the institutional planning process; contributing to Departmental technology transfer policy development; and implementing appropriate outreach activities.
</P>
<HD1>3. Fusion Energy
</HD1>
<P>The magnetic fusion energy program is an applied research and development program whose goal is to develop the scientific and technological information required to design and construct magnetic fusion energy systems. This goal is pursued by three divisions, whose major functions are listed below.
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">a</E>) Applied Plasma Physics (APP)
</HD1>
<P>This Division seeks to develop that body of physics knowledge which permits advancement of the fusion program on a sound basis. APP research programs provide: (1) The theoretical understanding of fusion plasmas necessary for interpreting results from present experiments, and the planning and design of future confinement devices; (2) the data on plasma properties, atomic physics and new diagnostic techniques for operational support of confinement experiments; research and development of Heavy Ion Fusion Accelerator (HIFAR) and reactor studies in support of the development of Inertial Fusion Energy (IFE).
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">b</E>) Confinement Systems
</HD1>
<P>This Division has as its primary objective the conduct of research efforts to investigate and resolve basic physics issues associated with medium- to large-scale confinement devices. These devices are used to experimentally explore the limits of specific confinement concepts as well as to study associated physical phenomena. Specific areas of interest include: the production of increased plasma densities and temperatures; the understanding of the physical laws governing plasma energy transport and confinement scaling; equilibrium and stability of high plasma pressure; the investigation of plasma interaction with radio-frequency waves; and the study and control of particle transport in the plasma.
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">c</E>) Development and Technology
</HD1>
<P>This Division supports research and development of the technology necessary for fabrication and operation of present and future plasma and fusion devices. The program also pursues R&amp;D and system studies pertaining to critical feasibility issues of fusion technology and development.
</P>
<HD1>4. Health and Environmental Research
</HD1>
<P>The goals of this research program are as follows: (1) To provide, through basic and applied research, the scientific information required to identify, understand and anticipate the long-term health and environmental consequences of energy use and development; and (2) to utilize the Department's unique resources to solve major scientific problems in medicine, biology and the environment. The goals of the program are accomplished through the effort of its divisions, which are:
</P>
<HD2>(a) Health Effects and Life Sciences Research
</HD2>
<P>This is a broad program of basic and applied biological research. The objectives are: (1) To develop experimental information from biological systems for estimating or predicting risks of carcinogenesis, mutagenesis, and delayed toxicological effects associated with low level human exposures to energy-related radiations and chemicals; (2) to define mechanisms involved in the induction of biological damage following exposure to low levels of energy-related agents; (3) to develop new technologies for detecting and quantifying latent health effects associated with such agents; (4) to support fundamental research in structural biology user facilities at DOE laboratories; and (5) to create and apply new technologies and resources for characterizing the molecular nature of the human genome.
</P>
<P>Increasing emphasis will be placed on: Understanding of mechanisms by which low level exposures to radiation and/or energy-related chemicals produce long-term health impacts; development of new technologies for estimating human health risks from low level exposures; development and application of technologies and approaches for cost-effective characterization of the human genome.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Medical Applications and Biophysical Research
</HD2>
<P>The objectives of this program comprise several areas: (1) To develop new concepts and techniques for detecting and measuring hazardous physical and chemical agents related to energy production; (2) to evaluate chemical and radiation exposures and dosimetry for health protection application; (3) to determine the physical and chemical mechanisms of radiation action in biological systems; and (4) to develop new instrumentation and technology for biological and biomedical research. In addition, Medical Application research is aimed at enhancing the beneficial applications of radiation, and radionuclides, in the diagnosis, study, and treatment of human diseases. This includes the development of new techniques for radioactive isotope production, labeled pharmaceuticals, imaging devices, and radiation beam applications for the improved diagnosis and therapy of human diseases or the study of human physiological processes. A new area of interest involves the integration of Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Biology. This includes development of radioisotopes and new molecular radiopharmaceutical probes specific to disease-associated targets for improved diagnosis and therapy.
</P>
<HD2>(c) Environmental Sciences
</HD2>
<P>The objectives of the program relate to environmental processes affected by energy production and use. For example, the program develops information on the physical, chemical and biological processes that cycle and transport energy related material and nutrients through the atmosphere, and the ocean margin. Specific emphasis is placed on hydrological transport, mobility and degradation of energy-related contaminants by microorganisms in subsurface systems.
</P>
<P>This program also addresses global environmental change from increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. The scope of the global change program encompasses the carbon cycle, climate modeling and diagnostics, ecosystem responses, the role of the ocean in global change and experiments to quantify the links between greenhouse gas increases and climate change. A new dimension of this program addresses the role of molecular biology in understanding the ecosystem response to global change.
</P>
<HD1>5. High Energy and Nuclear Physics
</HD1>
<P>This program supports 90 percent of the U.S. efforts in high energy and nuclear physics. The objectives of these programs are indicated below:
</P>
<HD2>(a) Nuclear Physics (Including Nuclear Data Program)
</HD2>
<P>The primary objectives of this program are an understanding of the interactions and structures of atomic nuclei and nuclear matter at the most elementary level possible, and an understanding of the fundamental forces of nature as manifested in nuclear matter.
</P>
<HD2>(b) High Energy Physics
</HD2>
<P>The primary objectives of this program are to understand the nature and relationships among fundamental forces of nature and to understand the ultimate structure of matter in terms of the properties and interrelations of its basic constituents.
</P>
<HD1>6. Scientific Computing Staff
</HD1>
<P>The goal of this program is to advance the understanding of the fundamental concepts of mathematics, statistics, and computer science underlying the complex mathematical models of the key physical processes involved in the research and development programs of DOE. Broad emphasis is given in three major categories: analytical and numerical methods, information analysis techniques, and advanced concepts.
</P>
<HD1>7. Superconducting Super Collider (SSC)
</HD1>
<P>The goals of the Superconducting Super Collider are to build a proton-proton collider with an energy of 20 TeV per proton, to construct and operate experimental systems to study the interactions of these protons, to establish the premier international laboratory for high energy physics reasearch, and to create a major resource for science education. The Office of the Superconducting Super Collider administers research grants associated with the SSC Laboratory's physics, accelerator, and associated technology research and development programs.
</P>
<HD1>8. University and Science Education
</HD1>
<P>The Office of University and Science Education supports a variety of science, mathematics and engineering education precollege through postgraduate programs aimed at strengthening the Nation's science education and research infrastructure. DOE's education mission has been expanded to include increasing emphasis on the precollege and general public literacy areas. Much of the support involves the use of the unique resources (scientists, facilities and equipment) at DOE's national laboratories and research facilities, and includes research and/or other “hands-on” opportunities for precollege and postsecondary students, teachers, and faculty members. In addition to programs centered in DOE facilities, a number of other educational activities are supported, including:
</P>
<HD2>(a) Pre-Freshman Enrichment Program (PREP)
</HD2>
<P>PREP supports projects at colleges and universities aimed at seeking out gindividuals, typically under-represented in science-based careers, during junior high school and early high school years (sixth through tenth grades) and providing these individuals with pre-freshman enrichment activities to identify, motivate and prepare them for science-based careers. Projects must include concentrated, integrated activities that enhance the student's understanding of science and mathematics, must have a summer component at least four weeks in length, and may also include a pre-summer or post-summer component.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Museum Science Education Program
</HD2>
<P>This program funds museum projects that support the development of the media of informal energy-related science education. The media of informal science education include, but are not limited to: Interactive exhibits, demonstrations, hands-on activities, teacher-student curriculum and film/video/software productions. Examples of energy-related subjects include, but are not limited to: high energy and nuclear physics, nuclear science and technologies, global warming, waste management, energy efficiency, new materials development, fossil energy resources, renewable technologies, risk assessment, energy/environment and other timely topics. The purpose of the program is the development and use of creative informal science education media which focus on energy-related science and technology.
</P>
<HD2>(c) University Research Instrumentation Program
</HD2>
<P>The University Research Instrumentation Program has been developed as part of an interagency effort under the coordination of the Office of Science and Technology Policy to help alleviate the overall shortage of sophisticated state-of-the-art instruments required for advanced scientific and technical research at universities. The overall program objective is to assist university and college scientists in strengthening their capabilities to conduct long-range experimental/scientific research in specific energy areas of direct interest to DOE through the acquisition of large scientific/technical pieces of equipment. Only those colleges and universities that currently have DOE funded research projects, which require the requested equipment, totalling at least $150,000 in the specific area will be selected (more complete eligibility guidelines and principal research areas of particular DOE interest in any given year are available from the program office). Smaller research instruments (less than $100,000 each) are not eligible for consideration in this program. No specific fraction of cost sharing is required but the level of non-Federal funds to be provided will be considered in final selection of awards under the program.
</P>
<HD2>(d) Experimental Program To Stimulate Competitive Research
</HD2>
<P>The purpose of the DOE Experimental Program to Stimulate Competitive Research is to enhance the capabilities of the eligible designated States to develop science and engineering manpower in energy-related areas and to conduct nationally competitive energy-related research. Planning committees within eligible States may apply for planning, implementation and/or training efforts (list of eligible States and activities to be supported in any given year as well as cost-sharing requirements are available from the program office). Separate applications for planning/implementation and graduate traineeships are required. Planning/implementation applications must contain information that details development of a State-wide improvement plan for energy-related research and human resources, while training grant applications must detail the need for energy-related specific and technical educational disciplines.
</P>
<HD2>(e) Nuclear Engineering Research
</HD2>
<P>The objective of this program is to support research efforts aimed at strengthening University-based nuclear engineering programs. Specific areas of basic and applied research of interest include, but are not limited to: (1) Material behavior in a radiation environment typical of advanced nuclear power plants; (2) real-time instrumentation that identifies and applies innovative measurements technologies in nuclear-related fields; (3) advanced nuclear reactor concepts; (4) applied nuclear sciences that address improvements in the applications of radiation and the understanding of the interaction of radiation with matter; (5) engineering science research applicable to advanced nuclear reactor concepts, industry safety and reliability concerns; (6) neutronics that address improvements in reactor computational methodologies and knowledge of the basic fission processes; and (7) nuclear thermal hydraulics that address improvements of models and analysis of thermal hydraulic behavior in an advanced nuclear reactor system.
</P>
<HD2>(f) Used Energy-Related Laboratory Equipment (ERIE) Program
</HD2>
<P>In accordance with DOE's responsibility to encourage research and development in the energy area, grants of used energy-related laboratory equipment for use in energy-oriented educational programs in the life, physical and environmental sciences, and engineering are available to universities, colleges and other non-profit educational institutions of higher learning in the United States. An institution is not required to have a current DOE grant or contract in order to participate in this program. The program office should be contacted for specific information on how to access the list of eligible equipment under this program. The cost of care and handling incident to the grant must be borne by the institution.
</P>
<HD1>9. Program Analysis
</HD1>
<P>The Office of Program Analysis conducts assessments to identify research opportunities in specific areas of interest to DOE programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40583, Sept. 3, 1992, as amended at 79 FR 76047, Dec. 19, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="609" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 609—LOAN GUARANTEES FOR CLEAN ENERGY PROJECTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7254, 16511-16517.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 34428, May 30, 2023, unless otherwise noted.












</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 609.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth the policies and procedures that DOE uses for receiving, evaluating, and approving applications for loan guarantees to support Eligible Projects under Title XVII, including sections 1703 and 1706, of the Energy Policy Act of 2005.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to all Applications, Conditional Commitments, and Loan Guarantee Agreements.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 600.22 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations shall not apply to actions taken under this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>When used in this part the following words have the following meanings.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Cost of a Loan Guarantee</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) The total of all administrative expenses that DOE incurs during:
</P>
<P>(i) The evaluation of an Application for a Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(ii) The negotiation and offer of a Term Sheet;
</P>
<P>(iii) The negotiation of a Loan Guarantee Agreement and related documents, including the issuance of a Guarantee; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The servicing and monitoring of a Loan Guarantee Agreement, including during the construction, startup, commissioning, shakedown, and operational phases of an Eligible Project.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrative Cost of a Loan Guarantee does not include Transaction Costs.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a prospective Borrower, Project Sponsor, or Eligible Lender that submits an Application to DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means a submission of written materials to DOE completed in accordance with the applicable requirements published by DOE in guidance on the Title XVII website.
</P>
<P><I>Attorney General</I> means the Attorney General of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Borrower</I> means any Person that enters into a Loan Guarantee Agreement with DOE and issues or otherwise becomes obligated for the Guaranteed Obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Cargo Preference Act</I> means the Cargo Preference Act of 1954, 46 U.S.C. 55305, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial Technology</I> means a technology in general use in the commercial marketplace in the United States at the time the Term Sheet is offered by DOE. A technology is in general use if it is being used in three or more facilities that are in commercial operation in the United States for the same general purpose as the proposed project, and has been used in each such facility for a period of at least five years. The five-year period for each facility shall start on the in-service date of the facility employing that particular technology or, in the case of a retrofit of a facility to employ a particular technology, the date the facility resumes commercial operation following completion and testing of the retrofit. For purposes of this section, facilities considered to be in commercial operation for five years include projects that have been the recipients of a loan guarantee from DOE under this part whether or not commercial operations have commenced.
</P>
<P><I>Conditional Commitment</I> means a Term Sheet offered by DOE and accepted by the offeree of the Term Sheet, all in accordance with § 609.6.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting Officer</I> means the Secretary of Energy or a DOE official authorized by the Secretary to enter into, administer or terminate DOE Loan Guarantee Agreements and related contracts on behalf of DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Credit Subsidy Cost</I> has the same meaning as “cost of a loan guarantee” in section 502(5)(C) of the Federal Credit Reform Act of 1990.
</P>
<P><I>Davis-Bacon Act</I> means the statute referenced in section 1702(k) of Title XVII.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Lender</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any Person formed for the purpose of, or engaged in the business of, lending money, including State Energy Financing Institutions, financial institutions, and trusts or other entities designated as trustees or agents acting on behalf of institutional investors, bondholders, or other lenders that, as determined by DOE in each case, is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not debarred or suspended from participation in a Federal Government contract or participation in a non-procurement activity (under a set of uniform regulations implemented for numerous agencies, such as DOE, at 2 CFR part 180);
</P>
<P>(ii) Not delinquent on any Federal debt or loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) Legally authorized and empowered to enter into loan guarantee transactions authorized by Title XVII and this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) Able to demonstrate experience in originating and servicing loans for commercial projects similar in size and scope to the Eligible Project, or able to procure such experience through contracts acceptable to DOE; and
</P>
<P>(v) Able to demonstrate experience as the lead lender or underwriter by presenting evidence of its participation in large commercial projects or energy-related projects or other relevant experience, or able to procure such experience through contracts acceptable to DOE; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal Financing Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Project</I> has the meaning set forth in § 609.3.
</P>
<P><I>Energy Dominance Financing Project</I> has the meaning set forth in § 609.3.
</P>
<P><I>Energy Infrastructure</I> means a facility, and associated equipment, used for enabling the identification, leasing, development, production, processing, transportation, transmission, refining, and generation needed for energy and critical minerals.




</P>
<P><I>Equity</I> means cash, and at DOE's sole discretion and subject to DOE's sole determination of value, in-kind contributions and property, in each case contributed to the permanent capital stock (or equivalent) of the Borrower or the Eligible Project by the shareholders or other owners of the Borrower or the Eligible Project. In-kind contributions may not include services, but may include physical and/or intellectual property. Equity does not include proceeds from the non-guaranteed portion of a Guaranteed Obligation, proceeds from any other non-guaranteed loan or obligation of the Borrower, or the value of any Federal, State, or local government assistance or support or any cost-share requirements under a Federal award.
</P>
<P><I>Facility Fee</I> means the fee, to be paid in the amount and in the manner provided in the Term Sheet, to cover the Administrative Cost of a Loan Guarantee for the period from the Application through issuance of the Guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Financing Bank</I> means an instrumentality of the United States Government created by the Federal Financing Bank Act of 1973, under the general supervision of the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Guarantee</I> means the undertaking of the United States of America, acting through the Secretary pursuant to Title XVII, to pay in accordance with the terms thereof, principal and interest of a Guaranteed Obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Guaranteed Obligation</I> means any loan or other debt obligation of the Borrower for an Eligible Project for which DOE guarantees all or any part of the payment of principal and interest under a Loan Guarantee Agreement entered into pursuant to Title XVII.
</P>
<P><I>Holder</I> means any Person that holds a promissory note made by the Borrower evidencing the Guaranteed Obligation (or his or her designee or agent).
</P>
<P><I>Innovative Energy Project</I> has the meaning set forth in § 609.3.
</P>
<P><I>Innovative Supply Chain Project</I> has the meaning set forth in § 609.3.
</P>
<P><I>Intercreditor Agreement</I> means any agreement or instrument (or amendment or modification thereof) among DOE and one or more other Persons providing financing or other credit arrangements to the Borrower (or an Eligible Project) or that otherwise provides for rights of DOE in respect of a Borrower or in respect of an Eligible Project, in each case in form and substance satisfactory to DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Loan Agreement</I> means a written agreement between a Borrower and an Eligible Lender containing the terms and conditions under which the Eligible Lender will make a loan or loans to the Borrower for an Eligible Project.
</P>
<P><I>Loan Guarantee Agreement</I> means a written agreement that, when entered into by DOE and a Borrower, and, if applicable, an Eligible Lender, establishes the obligation of DOE to guarantee the payment of all or a portion of the principal of, and interest on, specified Guaranteed Obligations, subject to the terms and conditions specified in the Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Maintenance Fee</I> means the fee, to be paid in the amount and manner provided in the Term Sheet, to cover the Administrative Cost of a Loan Guarantee, other than extraordinary expenses, incurred in servicing and monitoring a Loan Guarantee Agreement after the issuance of the Guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>New or Significantly Improved Technology</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) A technology, or a defined suite of technologies, concerned with the production, storage, consumption, or transportation of energy, including of associated critical minerals and other components or other eligible energy-related project categories under section 1703(b) of Title XVII, and that is not a Commercial Technology, and that either:
</P>
<P>(i) Has only recently been developed, discovered, or learned; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves or constitutes one or more meaningful and important improvements in productivity or value, in comparison to Commercial Technologies in use in the United States at the time the Term Sheet is issued.
</P>
<P>(2) If regional variation significantly affects the deployment of a technology, such technology may still be considered “New or Significantly Improved Technology” if no more than 6 projects employ the same or similar technology as another project, provided no more than 2 projects that use the same or a similar technology are located in the same region of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>OMB</I> means the Office of Management and Budget in the Executive Office of the President.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any natural person or any legally constituted entity, including a state or local government, tribe, corporation, company, voluntary association, partnership, limited liability company, joint venture, and trust.
</P>
<P><I>Project Costs</I> mean those costs, including escalation and contingencies, that are expended or accrued by a Borrower and are necessary, reasonable, customary, and directly related to the design, engineering, financing, construction, startup, commissioning, and shakedown of an Eligible Project, as specified in § 609.10. Project Costs do not include costs for the items set forth in § 609.10(d).
</P>
<P><I>Project Sponsor</I> means any Person that assumes substantial responsibility for the development, financing, and structuring of an Eligible Project and owns or controls, by itself and/or through individuals in common or affiliated business entities, a five percent or greater interest in the proposed Eligible Project or the Borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable Prospect of Repayment</I> has the meaning set forth in 42 U.S.C. 16512(d)(1)(B).
</P>
<P><I>Risk-Based Charge</I> means a charge that, together with the principal and interest on the Guaranteed Obligation, or at such other times as DOE may determine, is payable on specified dates during the term of a Guaranteed Obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy or a duly authorized designee or successor in interest.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>State Energy Financing Institution</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) A quasi-independent entity or an entity within a State agency or financing authority established by a State:
</P>
<P>(i) To provide financing support or credit enhancements, including loan guarantees and loan loss reserves, for Eligible Projects; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To create liquid markets for eligible projects, including warehousing and securitization, or take other steps to reduce financial barriers to the deployment of existing and new Eligible Projects.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “State Energy Financing Institution” includes an entity or organization established by an Indian Tribal entity or an Alaska Native Corporation to achieve the purposes described in paragraphs (1)(i) and (ii) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>State Energy Financing Institution Project</I> has the meaning set forth in § 609.3.
</P>
<P><I>Term Sheet</I> means a written offer for the issuance of a loan guarantee, executed by the Secretary (or a DOE official authorized by the Secretary to execute such offer), delivered to the Applicant, that sets forth the detailed terms and conditions under which DOE and the Applicant will execute a Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Title XVII</I> means Title XVII of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (42 U.S.C. 16511-16517), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Title XVII Loan Guarantee Program</I> means the program administered by DOE pursuant to Title XVII, regulations under this part, DOE guidance and policy documents, and other applicable laws and requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Transaction Costs</I> mean:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Out-of-pocket costs of financial, legal, and other professional services associated with the financing of an Eligible Project, including services necessary to obtain required licenses and permits, prepare environmental reports and data, conduct legal and technical due diligence, develop and audit a financial model, negotiate the terms and provisions of project contracts and financing documents, including those costs associated with the advisors to DOE and any other Eligible Lender; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Costs of issuing Eligible Project debt, such as commitment fees, upfront fees, and other applicable financing fees, costs and expenses imposed by Eligible Lenders.
</P>
<P>(2) Transaction Costs do not include the Administrative Cost of a Loan Guarantee or Credit Subsidy Costs.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and any territory or possession of the United States of America.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 34428, May 30, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 48710, Oct. 28, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.3   Title XVII eligible projects.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) DOE is authorized to provide loan Guarantees for certain categories of projects under Title XVII including:
</P>
<P>(i) Innovative Energy Projects under section 1703 of Title XVII;
</P>
<P>(ii) Innovative Supply Chain Projects under section 1703 of Title XVII;
</P>
<P>(iii) State Energy Financing Institution Projects under section 1703 of Title XVII; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Energy Dominance Financing Projects under section 1706 of Title XVII.
</P>
<P>(2) A Project meeting the applicable eligibility requirements set forth herein constitutes an “Eligible Project” under Title XVII.
</P>
<P>(b) An eligible Innovative Energy Project is a project that:
</P>
<P>(1) Falls within a category set forth in section 1703(b) of Title XVII;
</P>
<P>(2) Is located in the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Is at one location, except that the project may be located at two or more locations if the project is comprised of installations or facilities employing a single New or Significantly Improved Technology that is deployed pursuant to an integrated and comprehensive business plan. An Innovative Energy Project located in more than one location is a single Eligible Project;
</P>
<P>(4) Deploys a New or Significantly Improved Technology; and
</P>
<P>(5) Avoids, reduces, utilizes, or sequesters air pollutants or anthropogenic emissions of greenhouse gases.
</P>
<P>(c) An eligible Innovative Supply Chain Project is a project that:
</P>
<P>(1) Manufactures a product with an end-use set forth in section 1703(b) of Title XVII;
</P>
<P>(2) Is located in the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Is at one location, except that the project may be located at two or more locations if the project is comprised of installations or facilities employing a single New or Significantly Improved Technology that is deployed pursuant to an integrated and comprehensive business plan. An Innovative Supply Chain Project located in more than one location is a single Eligible Project;
</P>
<P>(4) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) Deploys a New or Significantly Improved Technology in the manufacturing process; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Manufactures a product that represents a New or Significantly Improved Technology; and
</P>
<P>(5) Avoids, reduces, utilizes, or sequesters air pollutants or anthropogenic emissions of greenhouse gases through:
</P>
<P>(i) The relevant manufacturing process of the relevant product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The end-use of the component on a full life-cycle basis.
</P>
<P>(d) An eligible State Energy Financing Institution Project is a project that:
</P>
<P>(1) Falls within a category set forth in section 1703(b) of Title XVII;
</P>
<P>(2) Is located at one or more locations in the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Avoids, reduces, utilizes, or sequesters air pollutants or anthropogenic emissions of greenhouse gases;
</P>
<P>(4) Receives financial support or credit enhancements from a State Energy Financing Institution; and
</P>
<P>(5) May include a partnership between one or more State Energy Financing Institutions and private entities, Tribal entities, or Alaska Native corporations in carrying out the project.
</P>
<P>(e) An eligible Energy Dominance Financing Project is a project that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is located in the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) Retools, repowers, repurposes, or replaces Energy Infrastructure that has ceased operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enables operating Energy Infrastructure to increase capacity or output; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Supports or enables the provision of known or forecastable electric supply at time intervals necessary to maintain or enhance grid reliability or other system adequacy needs; and


</P>
<P>(3) May include the remediation of environmental damage associated with Energy Infrastructure.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 34428, May 30, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 48710, Oct. 28, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.4   Submission of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may direct that Applications be submitted in more than one part; provided, that the parts of such Application, taken as a whole, contain such information published by DOE in guidance on the Title XVII Loan Guarantee Program website pursuant to § 609.19. In such event, subsequent parts of an Application may be filed only after DOE invites an Applicant to make an additional submission. If DOE directs that Applications be submitted in more than one part, the initial part of an Application shall contain information sufficient for DOE to determine that the project proposed by an Applicant will be, or may reasonably become, an Eligible Project, and to evaluate such project's readiness to proceed. If there have been any material amendments, modifications, or additions made to the information previously submitted by an Applicant, the Applicant shall provide a detailed description thereof, including any changes in the proposed project's financing structure or other terms, promptly upon request by DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) An Applicant may submit Applications for multiple proposed projects and for projects using different technologies; provided that an Applicant for an Innovative Energy Project or Innovative Supply Chain Project may not submit an Application or Applications for multiple Innovative Energy Projects or multiple Innovative Supply Chain Projects using the same technology. For purposes of this paragraph (b), the term “Applicant” shall include the Project Sponsor and any subsidiaries or affiliates of the Project Sponsor.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE has no obligation to evaluate an Application that is not complete, and may proceed with such evaluation, or a partial evaluation, only in its discretion. DOE will not design an Eligible Project for Applicants, but may respond, in its discretion, in general terms to specific proposals. DOE's response to questions from potential Applicants are pre-decisional and preliminary in nature.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless an Applicant requests an extension and such an extension is granted by DOE in its discretion, an Application may be rejected if it is not complete within two years from the date of submission (or date of submission of the first part thereof, in the case of Applications made in more than one part).
</P>
<P>(e) DOE shall respond, in writing, to any inquiry by an Applicant about the status of its Application within ten (10) days of receipt of such request. If an Application has been pending before DOE for 180 days or more, such response shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the current status of review of the Application;
</P>
<P>(2) A summary of any factors that are delaying a final decision on the Application, a list of what items are required in order to reach a final decision, citations to authorities stating the reasons why such items are required, and a list of actions the Applicant can take to expedite the process; and
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of when a final decision on the Application will be made.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.5   Evaluation of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications will be considered in a merit-based review process, considering such factors determined and published by DOE in guidance on its Title XVII Loan Guarantee Program website pursuant to § 609.19. At any time, DOE may request additional information or supporting documentation from an Applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) Applications will be denied if:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed project is not an Eligible Project;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to applications for Innovative Energy Projects and Innovative Supply Chain Projects, the applicable technology is not ready to be deployed commercially in the United States, cannot yield a commercially viable product or service in the use proposed in the Application, does not have the potential to be deployed in other commercial projects in the United States, or is not or will not be available for further commercial use in the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) The Person proposed to issue the loan or purchase other debt obligations constituting the Guaranteed Obligations is not an Eligible Lender;
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed project is for demonstration, research, or development;
</P>
<P>(5) Significant Equity for the proposed project will not be provided by the date of issuance of the Guaranteed Obligations, or such later time as DOE in its discretion may determine;
</P>
<P>(6) The proposed project does not present a Reasonable Prospect of Repayment of the Guaranteed Obligations;
</P>
<P>(7) With respect to applications for Energy Dominance Financing Projects, where the Applicant is an electric utility, such application fails to include an assurance that Applicant will pass on the financial benefit from the Guarantee to the customers of, or associated communities served by, the electric utility; or


</P>
<P>(8) The Applicant or Project Sponsor does not satisfy DOE's “know your customer” requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) If an Application has not been denied pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, DOE will evaluate the proposed project based on the criteria published by DOE in guidance on its Title XVII Loan Guarantee Program website pursuant to § 609.19.
</P>
<P>(d) After DOE completes its review and evaluation of a proposed project, DOE will notify the Applicant in writing of its determination whether to proceed with due diligence and negotiation of a Term Sheet. DOE will proceed only if it determines that the proposed project is highly qualified and suitable for a Guarantee. Upon written confirmation from the Applicant that it desires to proceed, DOE and the Applicant will commence negotiations.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE shall provide all Applicants with a reasonable opportunity to correct or amend any Application in order to meet the criteria set forth in this part or any other conditions required by DOE, prior to any denial of such Application. A determination by DOE not to proceed with a proposed project shall be final and non-appealable, but shall not prejudice the Applicant or other affected Persons from applying for a Guarantee in respect of a different proposed project pursuant to another, separate Application. Prior to DOE's denial of any Application, DOE shall advise the Applicant in writing, not less than ten (10) business days prior to the effective date of such denial. If an Application could be amended or corrected such that DOE would determine that the project is highly qualified and suitable for a Guarantee, DOE may set forth the reasons for such proposed denial along with a list of items that may be corrected or amended by the Applicant. If requested by any Applicant, DOE shall meet with such Applicant in order to address questions or concerns raised by the Applicant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 34428, May 30, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 48710, Oct. 28, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.6" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.6   Term sheets and conditional commitments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE, after negotiation of a Term Sheet with an Applicant, may offer such Term Sheet to an Applicant or such other Person that is an affiliate of the Applicant and that is acceptable to DOE. DOE's offer of a Term Sheet shall be in writing and signed by the Contracting Officer. DOE's negotiation of a Term Sheet imposes no obligation on the Secretary to offer a Term Sheet to the Applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall terminate its negotiations of a Term Sheet if it has not offered a Term Sheet in respect of an Eligible Project within two years after the date of the written notification set forth in § 609.5(d), unless extended in writing by DOE.
</P>
<P>(c) If and when the offeree specified in a Term Sheet satisfies all terms and conditions for acceptance of the Term Sheet, including written acceptance thereof, the Term Sheet shall become a Conditional Commitment. Each Conditional Commitment shall include an expiration date no more than two years from the date it is issued, unless extended in writing in the discretion of the Contracting Officer. When and if all of the terms and conditions specified in the Conditional Commitment have been met, DOE and the Applicant may enter into a Loan Guarantee Agreement. If applicable, the Conditional Commitment shall include the terms and conditions pursuant to which any Credit Subsidy Cost payment made by the Borrower to the Secretary is subject to refund to the Borrower in the event that the closing date of the Loan Guarantee Agreement does not occur.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to or on the date of the Conditional Commitment, DOE will ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) OMB has reviewed and approved DOE's calculation of the Credit Subsidy Cost of the Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(2) One of the following has occurred:
</P>
<P>(i) Appropriated funds for the Credit Subsidy Cost are available;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Secretary has received from the Borrower payment in full for the Credit Subsidy Cost and deposited the payment into the Treasury; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A combination of one or more appropriations under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section and one or more payments from the Borrower under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section has been made that is equal to the Credit Subsidy Cost; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Department of the Treasury has been consulted as to the proposed terms and conditions of the Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) If, subsequent to execution of a Conditional Commitment, the financing arrangements of the Borrower, or in respect of an Eligible Project, change from those described in the Conditional Commitment, the Applicant shall promptly provide updated financing information in writing to DOE. All such updated information shall be deemed to be information submitted in connection with an Application. Based on such updated information, DOE may take one or more of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine that such changes are not material to the Borrower, the Eligible Project or DOE;
</P>
<P>(2) Amend the Conditional Commitment accordingly, including by re-calculating the Credit Subsidy Cost in accordance with § 609.6(d);
</P>
<P>(3) Postpone the expected closing date of the associated Loan Guarantee Agreement; or
</P>
<P>(4) Terminate the Conditional Commitment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.7" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.7   Closing on the loan guarantee agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subsequent to entering into a Conditional Commitment with an Applicant, DOE, after consultation with the Applicant, will set a closing date for execution of a Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to or on the closing date of a Loan Guarantee Agreement DOE will ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Pursuant to section 1702(h) of Title XVII, DOE will receive from the Applicant the Facility Fee referred to in § 609.13(b) on the closing date;
</P>
<P>(2) The Department of the Treasury has been consulted as to the terms and conditions of the Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) The Loan Guarantee Agreement and related documents contain all terms and conditions DOE deems reasonable and necessary to protect the interest of the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Each holder of the Guaranteed Obligations is an Eligible Lender, and the servicer of the Guaranteed Obligations meets the servicing performance requirements of § 609.9(b);
</P>
<P>(4) DOE has determined the principal amount of the Guaranteed Obligations expected to be issued in respect of the Eligible Project, as estimated at the time of issuance, will not exceed 80 percent of the Project Costs of the Eligible Project;
</P>
<P>(5) DOE has completed all necessary reviews under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969; and
</P>
<P>(6) All conditions precedent specified in the Conditional Commitment are either satisfied or waived in writing by the Contracting Officer. If the counterparty to the Conditional Commitment has not satisfied all such terms and conditions on or prior to the closing date of the Loan Guarantee Agreement, DOE may, in its discretion, set a new closing date, or terminate the Conditional Commitment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.8" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.8   Loan guarantee agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only a Loan Guarantee Agreement executed by the Contracting Officer can obligate DOE to issue a Guarantee in respect of Guaranteed Obligations. DOE is not bound by oral representations.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Loan Guarantee Agreement shall contain the following requirements and conditions, and shall not be executed until the Contracting Officer determines that the following requirements and conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal Financing Bank shall be the only Eligible Lender in transactions where DOE guarantees 100 percent (but not less than 100 percent) of the principal and interest of the Guaranteed Obligations issued under a Loan Guarantee Agreement. Where DOE guarantees 90 percent or less of the Guaranteed Obligation, the guaranteed portion may be separated from or “stripped” from the non-guaranteed portion of the Guaranteed Obligation, if the loan is participated, syndicated or otherwise resold in the secondary debt market.
</P>
<P>(2) The Borrower shall be obligated to make full repayment of the principal and interest on the Guaranteed Obligations and other debt of a Borrower over a period not to exceed:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an Innovative Energy Project, an Innovative Supply Chain Project, or a State Energy Financing Institution Project, the lesser of 30 years or 90 percent of the projected useful life of the Eligible Project's major physical assets, as calculated in accordance with U.S. generally accepted accounting principles and practices; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an Energy Dominance Financing Project, 30 years.
</P>
<P>(3) If any financing or credit arrangement of the Borrower or relating to the Eligible Project, other than the Guaranteed Obligations, has an amortization period shorter than that of the Guaranteed Obligations, DOE shall have determined that the resulting financing structure allocates to DOE a reasonably proportionate share of the default risk, in light of:
</P>
<P>(i) DOE's share of the total debt financing of the Borrower;
</P>
<P>(ii) Risk allocation among the credit providers to the Borrower; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Internal and external credit enhancements.
</P>
<P>(4) The Guarantee does not finance, either directly or indirectly tax-exempt debt obligations, consistent with the requirements of section 149(b) of the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(5) The principal amount of the Guaranteed Obligations, when combined with funds from other sources committed and available to the Borrower, shall be sufficient to pay for expected Project Costs (including adequate contingency amounts) and otherwise to carry out the Eligible Project.
</P>
<P>(6) There shall be a Reasonable Prospect of Repayment by the Borrower of the principal of and interest on the Guaranteed Obligations and all of its other debt obligations.
</P>
<P>(7) The Borrower shall pledge collateral or surety determined by DOE to be necessary to secure the repayment of the Guaranteed Obligations. Such collateral or security may include Eligible Project assets and assets not related to the Eligible Project.
</P>
<P>(8) The Loan Guarantee Agreement and related documents shall include detailed terms and conditions that DOE deems necessary and appropriate to protect the interests of the United States in the case of default, including ensuring availability of all relevant intellectual property rights, technical data including software, and technology necessary for DOE or any Person selected by DOE, to complete, operate, convey, and dispose of the defaulted Borrower or the Eligible Project.
</P>
<P>(9) The Guaranteed Obligations shall not be subordinate in payment or lien priority to other financing. In DOE's discretion, Guaranteed Obligations may share a lien position with other financing on a <I>pari passu</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(10) There is satisfactory evidence that the Borrower will diligently pursue the Eligible Project and is willing, competent, and capable of performing its obligations under the Loan Guarantee Agreement and the loan documentation relating to its other debt obligations.
</P>
<P>(11) The Borrower shall have paid all fees and expenses due to DOE or the U.S. Government, including such amount of the Credit Subsidy Cost as may be due and payable from the Borrower at the time of the Conditional Commitment.
</P>
<P>(12) The Borrower, any Eligible Lender, and each other relevant party shall take, and be obligated to continue to take, those actions necessary to perfect and maintain liens on collateral in respect of the Guaranteed Obligations.
</P>
<P>(13) DOE or its representatives shall have access to the offices of the Borrower and the Eligible Project site at all reasonable times in order to monitor the—
</P>
<P>(i) Performance by the Borrower of its obligations under the Loan Guarantee Agreement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance of the Eligible Project.
</P>
<P>(14) DOE and Borrower have reached an agreement regarding the information that will be made available to DOE and the information that will be made publicly available.
</P>
<P>(15) The Borrower shall have filed applications for or obtained any required regulatory approvals for the Eligible Project and is in compliance, or promptly will be in compliance, where appropriate, with all Federal, State, and local regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(16) The Borrower shall have no delinquent Federal debt.
</P>
<P>(17) The Project Sponsors have made or will make a significant Equity investment in the Borrower or the Eligible Project, and will maintain control of the Borrower or the Eligible Project as agreed in the Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(18) The Loan Guarantee Agreement and related agreements shall include such other terms and conditions as DOE deems necessary or appropriate to protect the interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) The Loan Guarantee Agreement shall provide that, in the event of a default by the Borrower:
</P>
<P>(1) Interest on the Guaranteed Obligations shall accrue at the rate or penalty rate, as applicable, stated in the Loan Guarantee Agreement or the Loan Agreement until DOE makes full payment of the defaulted Guaranteed Obligations and, except when such Guaranteed Obligations are funded through the Federal Financing Bank, DOE shall not be required to pay any premiums, defaults, or prepayment penalties; and
</P>
<P>(2) The holder of collateral pledged in respect of the Guaranteed Obligations shall be obligated to take such actions as DOE may reasonably require to provide for the care, preservation, protection, and maintenance of such collateral so as to enable the United States to achieve maximum recovery.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) An Eligible Lender or other Holder may sell, assign or transfer a Guaranteed Obligation to another Eligible Lender that meets the requirements of § 609.9. Such latter Eligible Lender shall be required to assume all servicing, monitoring, and reporting requirements as provided in the Loan Guarantee Agreement. Any transfer of the servicing, monitoring, and reporting functions shall be subject to the prior written approval of DOE.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary, or the Secretary's designee or contractual agent, for the purpose of identifying Holders with the right to receive payment under the Guaranteed Obligations, shall include in the Loan Guarantee Agreement or related documents a procedure for tracking and identifying Holders of Guaranteed Obligations. Any contractual agent approved by the Secretary to perform this function may transfer or assign this responsibility only with the Secretary's prior written approval.
</P>
<P>(e) Each Loan Guarantee Agreement shall require the Borrower to make representations and warranties, agree to covenants, and satisfy conditions precedent to closing and to each disbursement that, in each case, relate to its compliance with the Davis-Bacon Act and the Cargo Preference Act.
</P>
<P>(f) The Applicant, the Borrower, or the Project Sponsor must estimate, calculate, record, and provide to DOE any time DOE requests such information and at the times provided in the Loan Guarantee Agreement all costs incurred in the design, engineering, financing, construction, startup, commissioning, and shakedown of the Eligible Project in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 34428, May 30, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 48710, Oct. 28, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.9" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.9   Lender servicing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When reviewing and evaluating a proposed Eligible Project, all Eligible Lenders (other than the Federal Financing Bank) shall at all times exercise the level of care and diligence that a reasonable and prudent lender would exercise when reviewing, evaluating, and disbursing a loan made by it without a Federal guarantee.
</P>
<P>(b) Loan servicing duties shall be performed by an Eligible Lender, DOE, or another qualified loan servicer approved by DOE. When performing its servicing duties, the loan servicer shall at all times exercise the level of care and diligence that a reasonable and prudent lender would exercise when servicing a loan made without a Federal guarantee, including:
</P>
<P>(1) During the construction period, monitoring the satisfaction of all of the conditions precedent to all loan disbursements, as provided in the Loan Guarantee Agreement, Loan Agreement, or related documents;
</P>
<P>(2) During the operational phase, monitoring and servicing the Guaranteed Obligations and collection of the outstanding principal and accrued interest as well as undertaking to ensure that the collateral package securing the Guaranteed Obligations remains uncompromised; and
</P>
<P>(3) Until the Guaranteed Obligations have been repaid, providing annual or more frequent financial and other reports on the status and condition of the Guaranteed Obligations and the Eligible Project, and promptly notifying DOE if it becomes aware of any problems or irregularities concerning the Eligible Project or the ability of the Borrower to make payment on the Guaranteed Obligations or its other debt obligations.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.10" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.10   Project costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Project Costs of an Eligible Project are those costs, including escalation and contingencies, that are expended or accrued by a Borrower and are necessary, reasonable, customary, and directly related to the design, engineering, financing, construction, startup, commissioning, and shakedown of an Eligible Project.
</P>
<P>(b) Project Costs include:
</P>
<P>(1) Costs of acquisition, lease, or rental of real property, including engineering fees, surveys, title insurance, recording fees, and legal fees incurred in connection with land acquisition, lease or rental, site improvements, site restoration, access roads, and fencing;
</P>
<P>(2) Costs of engineering, architectural, legal and bond fees, and insurance paid in connection with construction of the facility;
</P>
<P>(3) Costs of equipment purchases, including a reasonable reserve of spare parts to the extent required;
</P>
<P>(4) Costs to provide facilities and services related to safety and environmental protection;
</P>
<P>(5) Transaction Costs;
</P>
<P>(6) Costs of necessary and appropriate insurance and bonds of all types including letters of credit and any collateral required therefor;
</P>
<P>(7) Costs of design, engineering, startup, commissioning, and shakedown;
</P>
<P>(8) Costs of obtaining licenses to intellectual property necessary to design, construct, and operate the Eligible Project;
</P>
<P>(9) To the extent required by the Loan Guarantee Agreement and not intended or available for any cost referred to in paragraph (d) of this section, costs of funding any reserve fund, including without limitation, a debt service reserve, a maintenance reserve, and a contingency reserve for cost overruns during construction; provided that proceeds of a Guaranteed Obligation deposited to any reserve fund shall not be removed from such fund except to pay Project Costs, to pay principal of the Guaranteed Obligation, or otherwise to be used as provided in the Loan Guarantee Agreement;
</P>
<P>(10) Capitalized interest necessary to meet market requirements and other carrying costs during construction;
</P>
<P>(11) In DOE's sole discretion, the cost of refinancing outstanding indebtedness that is directly associated with the Eligible Project, including the principal amount of such indebtedness, accrued interest thereon, and any reasonable and customary prepayment premium or breakage costs; provided that DOE determines that the refinancing furthers the purpose of the Eligible Project.
</P>
<P>(12) With respect to Energy Dominance Financing Projects, the cost of remediation of environmental damage associated with the Energy Infrastructure; and
</P>
<P>(13) Other necessary and reasonable costs, including, without limitation, previously acquired real estate, equipment, or other materials, costs of interconnection, and any engineering, construction, make-ready, design, permitting, or other work completed on an existing facility or project;
</P>
<P>(c) Where a Project consists of the financing and installation of a series of distributed energy resources, DOE may deem the eligible Project Costs to consist of the reasonable and documented costs incurred by the end-user of each distributed energy resource in connection with the contractual agreement between the end-user and the Project Sponsor or its agent, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE is able to validate such reasonable and documented costs through standard customer contracts and standard distributed energy resource system attributes; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Borrower institutes a compliance system satisfactory to DOE to ensure that each distributed energy resource supported by a Guarantee complies with any eligibility criteria required by DOE, including with respect to approved customer contracts and approved distributed energy resource systems.
</P>
<P>(d) Project Costs do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Fees and commissions charged to Borrower, including finder's fees, for obtaining Federal or other funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Parent corporation or other affiliated entity's general and administrative expenses, and non-Eligible Project related parent corporation or affiliated entity assessments, including organizational expenses;
</P>
<P>(3) Goodwill, franchise, trade, or brand name costs;
</P>
<P>(4) Dividends and profit sharing to stockholders, employees, and officers;
</P>
<P>(5) Research, development, and demonstration costs of readying an innovative technology for employment in a commercial project;
</P>
<P>(6) Costs that are excessive or are not directly required to carry out the Eligible Project, as determined by DOE;
</P>
<P>(7) Expenses incurred after startup, commissioning, and shakedown of the facility, or, in DOE's discretion, any portion of the facility that has completed startup, commissioning, and shakedown;
</P>
<P>(8) Borrower-paid Credit Subsidy Costs, the Administrative Cost of a Loan Guarantee, and any other fee collected by DOE; and
</P>
<P>(9) Operating costs.
</P>
<P>(e) Costs incurred in connection with an Eligible Project may be subject to such other criteria for inclusion as Project Costs as published by DOE from time to time in guidance on the Title XVII Loan Guarantee Program website pursuant to § 609.19.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 34428, May 30, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 48710, Oct. 28, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.11" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.11   Transaction costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon making a determination to engage independent consultants or outside counsel with respect to an Application, DOE will proceed to evaluate and process such Application only following execution by an Applicant or Project Sponsor, as appropriate, of an agreement satisfactory to DOE to pay the Transaction Costs charged by the independent consultants and outside legal counsel. Each Applicant, Borrower, or Project Sponsor, as applicable, shall be responsible for the payment of Transaction Costs associated with DOE's independent consultants and outside legal counsel in connection with an Application, Conditional Commitment, or Loan Guarantee Agreement, as applicable. Appropriate provisions regarding payment of such Transaction Costs shall also be included in each Term Sheet and Loan Guarantee Agreement or, upon a determination by DOE, in other appropriate agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding payment by Applicant, Borrower, or Project Sponsor, all services rendered by an independent consultant or outside legal counsel to DOE in connection with an Application, Conditional Commitment, or Loan Guarantee Agreement shall be solely for the benefit of DOE (and such other creditors as DOE may agree in writing). DOE may require, in its discretion, the payment of an advance retainer to such independent consultants or outside legal counsel as security for the collection of the fees and expenses charged by the independent consultants and outside legal counsel. In the event an Applicant, Borrower, or Project Sponsor fails to comply with the provisions of such payment agreement, DOE in its discretion, may stop work on or terminate an Application, a Conditional Commitment, or a Loan Guarantee Agreement, or may take such other remedial measures in its discretion as it deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall not be financially liable under any circumstances to any independent consultant or outside counsel for services rendered in connection with an Application, Conditional Commitment, or Loan Guarantee Agreement except to the extent DOE has previously entered into an express written agreement to pay for such services.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.12" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.12   Credit ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where conditions justify, in the sole discretion of the Secretary, DOE may require that an Applicant submit a preliminary credit assessment for the proposed project, reflecting the project without a Guarantee, from a nationally recognized statistical ratings organization.
</P>
<P>(b) Where conditions justify, in the sole discretion of the Secretary, DOE may require that an Applicant provide a credit rating for the proposed project, and subsequently provide updated ratings, from a nationally recognized statistical ratings organization.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.13" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.13   Fees and charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless explicitly authorized by statute, no funds obtained from the Federal Government, or from a loan or other instrument guaranteed by the Federal Government, may be used to pay for the Credit Subsidy Cost, the Facility Fee, the Maintenance Fee, and any other fees charged by or paid to DOE relating to Title XVII or any Guarantee thereunder. An Applicant may, at any time, use non-Federal monies to pay the Credit Subsidy Cost or DOE fees.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may charge Applicants a non-refundable Facility Fee, payable on the closing date for the Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to encourage and supplement private lending activity DOE may collect from Borrowers for deposit in the United States Treasury a non-refundable Risk-Based Charge which, together with the interest rate on the Guaranteed Obligation that LPO determines to be appropriate, will take into account the prevailing rate of interest in the private sector for similar loans and risks. The Risk-Based Charge shall be paid at such times and in such manner as may be determined by DOE, but no less frequently than once each year, commencing with payment of a pro-rated payment on the date the Guarantee is issued. The amount of the Risk-Based Charge will be specified in the Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE may collect a Maintenance Fee as set forth in the Loan Guarantee Agreement. The Maintenance Fee shall accrue from the date of execution of the Loan Guarantee Agreement through the date of payment in full of the related Guaranteed Obligations. If DOE determines to collect a Maintenance Fee, it shall be paid by the Borrower each year (or portion thereof) in advance in the amount specified in the applicable Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) In the event a Borrower or an Eligible Project experiences difficulty relating to technical, financial, or legal matters or other events (<I>e.g.,</I> engineering failure or financial workouts), the Borrower shall be liable as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If such difficulty requires DOE to incur time or expenses beyond those customarily expended to monitor and administer performing loans, DOE may collect an extraordinary expenses fee from the Borrower that will reimburse DOE for such time and expenses, as determined by DOE; and
</P>
<P>(2) For all fees and expenses of DOE's independent consultants and outside counsel, to the extent that such fees and expenses are elected to be paid by DOE notwithstanding the provisions of § 609.11.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.14" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.14   Full faith and credit and incontestability.</HEAD>
<P>The full faith and credit of the United States is pledged to the payment of principal and interest of Guaranteed Obligations pursuant to Guarantees issued in accordance with Title XVII and this part. The issuance by DOE of a Guarantee shall be conclusive evidence that it has been properly obtained; that the underlying loan qualified for such Guarantee; and that, but for fraud or material misrepresentation by the Holder, except when the Holder is the Federal Financing Bank, such Guarantee shall be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable against DOE in accordance with its terms.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.15" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.15   Default, demand, payment, and foreclosure on collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a Borrower defaults in making a required payment of principal or interest on a Guaranteed Obligation and such default has not been cured within the applicable grace period, the Holder may make written demand for payment upon the Secretary in accordance with the terms of the applicable Guarantee. If a Borrower defaults in making a required payment of principal or interest on a Guaranteed Obligation and such default has not been cured within the applicable grace period, the Secretary shall notify the Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the terms of the applicable Guarantee, the Secretary shall make payment within 60 days after receipt of written demand for payment from the Holder, provided that the demand for payment complies in all respects with the terms of the applicable Guarantee. Interest shall accrue to the Holder at the rate stated in the promissory note evidencing the Guaranteed Obligation, without giving effect to the Borrower's default in making a required payment of principal or interest on the applicable Guarantee Obligation or any other default by the Borrower, until the Guaranteed Obligation has been fully paid by DOE. Payment by the Secretary on the applicable Guarantee does not change Borrower's obligations under the promissory note evidencing the Guaranteed Obligation, Loan Guarantee Agreement, Loan Agreement, or related documents, including an obligation to pay default interest.
</P>
<P>(c) Following payment by the Secretary pursuant to the applicable Guarantee, upon demand by DOE, the Holder shall transfer and assign to the Secretary (or his or her designee or agent) the promissory note evidencing the Guaranteed Obligation, all rights and interests of the Holder in the Guaranteed Obligation, and all rights and interests of the Holder in respect of the Guaranteed Obligation, except to the extent that the Secretary determines that such promissory note or any of such rights and interests shall not be transferred and assigned to the Secretary. Such transfer and assignment shall include, without limitation, all of the liens, security, and collateral rights of the Holder (or his or her designee or agent) in respect of the Guaranteed Obligation.
</P>
<P>(d) Following payment by the Secretary pursuant to a Guarantee or other default of a Guaranteed Obligation, the Secretary is authorized to protect and foreclose on the collateral, take action to recover costs incurred by, and all amounts owed to, the United States as a result of the defaulted Guarantee Obligation, and take such other action necessary or appropriate to protect the interests of the United States. In respect of any such authorized actions that involve a judicial proceeding or other judicial action, the Secretary shall act through the Attorney General. The foregoing provisions of this paragraph (d) shall not relieve the Secretary from his or her obligations pursuant to any applicable Intercreditor Agreement. Nothing in this paragraph (d) shall limit the Secretary from exercising any rights or remedies pursuant to the terms of the Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) The cash proceeds received as a result of any foreclosure on the collateral, or other action, shall be distributed in accordance with the Loan Guarantee Agreement (subject to any applicable Intercreditor Agreement).
</P>
<P>(f) The Loan Guarantee Agreement shall provide that cash proceeds received by the Secretary (or his or her designee or agent) as a result of any foreclosure on the collateral or other action shall be applied in the following order of priority:
</P>
<P>(1) Toward the pro rata payment of any costs and expenses (including unpaid fees, fees and expenses of counsel, contractors and agents, and liabilities and advances made or incurred) of the Secretary, the Attorney General, the Holder, a collateral agent, or other responsible person of any of them (solely in their individual capacities as such and not on behalf of or for the benefit of their principals), incurred in connection with any authorized action following payment by the Secretary pursuant to a Guarantee or other default of a Guaranteed Obligation, or as otherwise permitted under the Loan Agreement or Loan Guarantee Agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) To pay all accrued and unpaid fees due and payable to the Secretary, the Attorney General, the Holder, a collateral agent, or other responsible person of any of them on a pro rata basis in respect of the Guaranteed Obligation;
</P>
<P>(3) To pay all accrued and unpaid interest due and payable to the Secretary, the Attorney General, the Holder, a collateral agent, or other responsible person of any of them on a pro rata basis in respect of the Guaranteed Obligation;
</P>
<P>(4) To pay all unpaid principal of the Guaranteed Obligation;
</P>
<P>(5) To pay all other obligations of the Borrower under the Loan Guarantee Agreement, the Loan Agreement, and related documents that are remaining after giving effect to the preceding provisions and are then due and payable; and
</P>
<P>(6) To pay to the Borrower, or its successors and assigns, or as a court of competent jurisdiction may direct, any cash proceeds then remaining following the application of all payment described in paragraphs (f)(1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) No action taken by the Holder or its agent or designee in respect of any collateral will affect the rights of any person, including the Secretary, having an interest in the Guaranteed Obligations or other debt obligations, to pursue, jointly or severally, legal action against the Borrower or other liable persons, for any amounts owing in respect of the Guaranteed Obligation or other applicable debt obligations.
</P>
<P>(h) In the event that the Secretary considers it necessary or desirable to protect or further the interest of the United States in connection with exercise of rights as a lien holder or recovery of deficiencies due under the Guaranteed Obligation, the Secretary may take such action as he determines to be appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(i) Nothing in this part precludes, nor shall any provision of this part be construed to preclude, the Secretary from purchasing any collateral or Holder's or other Person's interest in the Eligible Project upon foreclosure of the collateral.
</P>
<P>(j) Nothing in this part precludes, nor shall any provision of this part be construed to preclude, forbearance by any Holder with the consent of the Secretary for the benefit of the Borrower and the United States.
</P>
<P>(k) The Holder and the Secretary may agree to a formal or informal plan of reorganization in respect of the Borrower, to include a restructuring of the Guaranteed Obligation and other applicable debt of the Borrower on such terms and conditions as the Secretary determines are in the best interest of the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.16" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.16   Preservation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Secretary exercises his or her right under the Loan Guarantee Agreement to require the holder of pledged collateral to take such actions as the Secretary (subject to any applicable Intercreditor Agreement) may reasonably require to provide for the care, preservation, protection, and maintenance of such collateral so as to enable the United States to achieve maximum recovery from the collateral, the Secretary shall, subject to compliance with the Antideficiency Act, 31 U.S.C. 1341 <I>et seq.,</I> reimburse the holder of such collateral for reasonable and appropriate expenses incurred in taking actions required by the Secretary (unless otherwise provided in applicable agreements). Except as provided in § 609.15, no party may waive or relinquish, without the consent of the Secretary, any such collateral to which the United States would be subrogated upon payment under the Loan Guarantee Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event of a default, the Secretary may enter into such contracts as he determines are required or appropriate, taking into account the term of any applicable Intercreditor Agreement, to care for, preserve, protect or maintain collateral pledged in respect of Guaranteed Obligations. The cost of such contracts may be charged to the Borrower.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.17" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.17   Audit and access to records.</HEAD>
<P>Each Loan Guarantee Agreement and related documents shall provide that:
</P>
<P>(a) The Eligible Lender, or DOE in conjunction with the Federal Financing Bank where loans are funded by the Federal Financing Bank or other Holder or other party servicing the Guaranteed Obligations, as applicable, and the Borrower, shall keep such records concerning the Eligible Project as are necessary, including the Application, Term Sheet, Conditional Commitment, Loan Guarantee Agreement, Credit Agreement, mortgage, note, disbursement requests and supporting documentation, financial statements, audit reports of independent accounting firms, lists of all Eligible Project assets and non-Eligible Project assets pledged in respect of the Guaranteed Obligations, all off-take and other revenue producing agreements, documentation for all Eligible Project indebtedness, income tax returns, technology agreements, documentation for all permits and regulatory approvals, and all other documents and records relating to the Borrower or the Eligible Project, as determined by the Secretary, to facilitate an effective audit and performance evaluation of the Eligible Project; and
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary and the Comptroller General, or their duly authorized representatives, shall have access, for the purpose of audit and examination, to any pertinent books, documents, papers, and records of the Borrower, Eligible Lender, or DOE or other Holder or other party servicing the Guaranteed Obligation, as applicable. Such inspection may be made during regular office hours of the Borrower, Eligible Lender, DOE or other Holder, or other party servicing the Eligible Project and the Guaranteed Obligations, as applicable, or at any other time mutually convenient.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.18" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.18   Deviations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the requirements of Title XVII and as otherwise permitted by applicable law, the Secretary may authorize deviations from the requirements of this part upon:
</P>
<P>(1) Either receipt from the Applicant, Borrower, or Project Sponsor, as applicable, of—
</P>
<P>(i) A written request that the Secretary deviate from one or more requirements; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A supporting statement briefly describing one or more justifications for such deviation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A determination by the Secretary in his or her discretion to undertake a deviation;
</P>
<P>(2) A finding by the Secretary that such deviation supports program objectives and the special circumstances stated in the request make such deviation clearly in the best interest of the Government; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the waiver would constitute a substantial change in the financial terms of the Loan Guarantee Agreement and related documents, DOE's consultation with OMB and the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(b) If a deviation under this section results in an increase in the applicable Credit Subsidy Cost, such increase shall be funded either by additional fees paid by the Borrower or on behalf of the Borrower by any third party or, if an appropriation is available, by means of an appropriations act. The Secretary has discretion to determine how the cost of a deviation is funded.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.19" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.14.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.19   Title XVII loan guarantee program guidance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Invitations for the submission of Applications for loan guarantees for Eligible Projects shall be published on DOE's Title XVII Loan Guarantee Program website. The Title XVII Loan Guarantee Program website shall contain guidance for potential Title XVII Applicants and solicit applications for a Guarantee.
</P>
<P>(b) The Title XVII Loan Guarantee Program website must include, at a minimum, the following guidance:
</P>
<P>(1) The dollar amount of loan guarantee authority potentially being made available by DOE for Guarantees under Title XVII;
</P>
<P>(2) The method and further instructions for submission of Applications;
</P>
<P>(3) The name and address of the DOE representative whom a potential Applicant may contact to receive further information;
</P>
<P>(4) The programmatic, technical, financial, and other factors and criteria that DOE will use to evaluate Applications, including but not limited to consideration of the Reasonable Prospect of Repayment, the amount of Equity provided, and the reliance on other Federal assistance;
</P>
<P>(5) The required contents of the Application, which may vary by category of Eligible Project; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other information as DOE may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Using procedures as may be announced by DOE, a potential Applicant may request a meeting with DOE to discuss its potential Application. At its discretion, DOE may meet with a potential Applicant, either in person or electronically, to discuss its potential Application. DOE's responses to questions from potential Applicants and DOE's statements to potential Applicants, including any initial thoughts on the eligibility of the project, are pre-decisional and preliminary in nature. Any such responses and statements are subject in their entirety to any final action by DOE with respect to an Application submitted in accordance with § 609.4.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="611" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 611—ADVANCED TECHNOLOGY VEHICLES MANUFACTURER ASSISTANCE PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 110-140 (42 U.S.C. 17013), Pub. L. 110-329, Pub. L. 111-85, Pub. L. 117-58.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 66731, Nov. 12, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part is issued by the Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to section 136 of the Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007, Public Law 110-140, as amended by section 129 of Consolidated Security, Disaster Assistance, and Continuing Appropriations Act of 2009, Public Law 110-329, section 312 of Energy and Water Development and Related Agencies Appropriations Act of 2010, Public Law 111-85, section 40401(b) of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Public Law 117-58, and section 50142 of the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022, Public Law 117-169. Specifically, section 136(e) directs DOE to promulgate an interim final rule establishing regulations that specify eligibility criteria and that contain other provisions that the Secretary deems necessary to administer this section and any loans made by the Secretary pursuant to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 33202, Apr. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions contained in this section apply to provisions contained in both this subpart and subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted average fuel economy</I> means a harmonic production weighted average of the combined fuel economy of all vehicles in a fleet, which were subject to CAFE.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced technology vehicle</I> means an on-road advanced technology vehicle or a nonroad advanced technology vehicle.


</P>
<P><I>Agreement</I> means the contractual loan arrangement between DOE and a Borrower for a loan made by and through the Federal Financing Bank with the full faith and credit of the United States Government on the principal and interest.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a party that submits a substantially complete application pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means the compilation of the materials required by this part to be submitted to DOE by an Applicant. One Application can include requests for one or more loans and one or more projects. However, an Application covering more than one project must contain complete and separable information with respect to each project.
</P>
<P><I>Automobile</I> is used as that term is defined in 49 CFR part 523.
</P>
<P><I>Borrower</I> means an Applicant that receives a loan under the program under this part.
</P>
<P><I>CAFE</I> means the Corporate Average Fuel Economy program of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, 49 U.S.C. 32901 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Combined fuel economy</I> means the combined city/highway miles per gallon values, as are reported in accordance with section 32904 of title 49, United States Code. If CAFE compliance data is not available, the combined average fuel economy of a vehicle must be demonstrated through the use of a peer-reviewed model.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> or <I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Facility</I> means a manufacturing facility in the United States that produces qualifying advanced technology vehicles, or qualifying components.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Project</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Reequipping, expanding, or establishing a manufacturing facility in the United States to produce qualifying advanced technology vehicles, or qualifying components; or
</P>
<P>(2) Engineering integration performed in the United States for qualifying advanced technology vehicles and qualifying components; or
</P>
<P>(3) Manufacturing, recycling, processing, reprocessing, remediation, or reuse of materials, components, or subcomponents involving critical minerals, critical minerals production, or the supply chain for such materials, as set forth in Executive Order 13953 (“Executive Order Addressing the Threat to the Domestic Supply Chain from Reliance on Critical Minerals from Foreign Adversaries,” dated September 20, 2020), and Executive Order 13817 (“A Federal Strategy to Ensure Secure and Reliable Supplies of Critical Minerals,” dated December 20, 2017), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Engineering integration</I> costs are the costs of engineering tasks relating to—
</P>
<P>(1) Incorporating qualifying components into the design of advanced technology vehicles; and
</P>
<P>(2) Designing tooling and equipment and developing manufacturing processes and material suppliers for production facilities that produce qualifying components or advanced technology vehicles.
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent vehicle</I> means a light-duty vehicle of the same vehicle classification as specified in 10 CFR part 523.
</P>
<P><I>Financially viable</I> means a reasonable prospect that the Applicant will be able to make payments of principal and interest on the loan as and when such payments become due under the terms of the loan documents, and that the Applicant has a net present value that is positive, taking all costs, existing and future, into account.
</P>
<P><I>Grantee</I> means an entity awarded a grant made pursuant to section 136 of the Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Light-duty vehicle</I> means passenger automobiles and light trucks.
</P>
<P><I>Light truck</I> is used as that term is defined in 49 CFR part 523.
</P>
<P><I>Loan Documents</I> mean the Agreement and all other instruments, and all documentation among DOE, the Borrower, and the Federal Financing Bank evidencing the making, disbursing, securing, collecting, or otherwise administering the loan [references to loan documents also include comparable agreements, instruments, and documentation for other financial obligations for which a loan is requested or issued].
</P>
<P><I>Model year</I> is defined as that term is defined in 49 U.S.C. 32901.
</P>
<P><I>Nonroad advanced technology vehicle</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A train or locomotive;
</P>
<P>(2) A maritime vessel;
</P>
<P>(3) An aircraft; and
</P>
<P>(4) Hyperloop technology That, in each case, emit, under any possible operational mode or condition, low or zero exhaust emissions of greenhouse gases.


</P>
<P><I>On-road advanced technology vehicle</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) An ultra efficient vehicle or a light duty vehicle that meets—
</P>
<P>(i) The Bin 5 Tier II emission standard established in regulations issued by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency under section 202(i) of the Clean Air Act (the Act) (42 U.S.C. 7521(i)), as of the date of application, or a lower-numbered Bin emission standard;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any new emission standard in effect for fine particulate matter prescribed by the Administrator under the Act (42 U.S.C. 7401 <I>et seq.</I>), as of the date of application; and
</P>
<P>(iii) At least 125 percent of the harmonic production weighted average combined fuel economy, for vehicles with substantially similar attributes in model year 2005.
</P>
<P>(2) A medium duty vehicle or heavy duty vehicle that exceeds 125 percent of the greenhouse gas emissions and fuel efficiency standards established by the final rule of the Environmental Protection Agency entitled “Greenhouse Gas Emissions and Fuel Efficiency Standards for Medium- and Heavy-Duty Engines and Vehicles—Phase 2” (81 FR 73478 (October 25, 2016)).


</P>
<P><I>Passenger automobile</I> is used as that term is defined in 49 CFR part 523.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying components</I> means components that the DOE determines are:
</P>
<P>(1) Designed for advanced technology vehicles; and
</P>
<P>(2) Installed for the purpose of meeting the performance requirements of advanced technology vehicles; or
</P>
<P>(3) Involving critical minerals, as set forth in Executive Order 13953 (“Executive Order Addressing the Threat to the Domestic Supply Chain from Reliance on Critical Minerals from Foreign Adversaries,” dated September 20, 2020), and Executive Order 13817 (“A Federal Strategy to Ensure Secure and Reliable Supplies of Critical Minerals,” dated December 20, 2017), as amended, as a component of advanced technology vehicles.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the United States Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Security</I> means all property, real or personal, tangible or intangible, required by the provisions of the Loan Documents to secure repayment of any indebtedness of the Borrower under the Loan Documents.
</P>
<P><I>Ultra efficient vehicle</I> means a fully closed compartment vehicle designed to carry at least 2 adult passengers that achieves—
</P>
<P>(1) At least 75 miles per gallon while operating on gasoline or diesel fuel;
</P>
<P>(2) At least 75 miles per gallon equivalent while operating as a hybrid electric-gasoline or electric-diesel vehicle; or
</P>
<P>(3) At least 75 miles per gallon equivalent while operating as a fully electric vehicle.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 3761, Jan. 15, 2021, as amended at 89 FR 33203, Apr. 29, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.3   On-road advanced technology vehicle.</HEAD>
<P>In order to demonstrate that a light duty vehicle is an “on-road advanced technology vehicle”, an automobile manufacturer must provide the following:


</P>
<P>(a) Emissions certification. An automobile manufacturer must certify in writing that the vehicle meets, or will meet, the emissions requirements specified in the definition of “on-road advanced technology vehicle”; and


</P>
<P>(b) Demonstration of fuel economy performance. An automobile manufacturer must demonstrate that the vehicle has a combined average fuel economy of at least 125 percent of the average combined fuel economy for vehicles with substantially similar attributes for model year 2005.
</P>
<P>(1) A combined average fuel economy calculation required under this paragraph for a vehicle that is a dual fueled automobile for the purpose of CAFE is calculated as if the vehicle were not a dual fueled automobile.
</P>
<P>(2) The average combined fuel economy for vehicles with substantially similar attributes is a harmonic production weighted average of the combined average fuel economy of all vehicles with substantially similar attributes in model year 2005, as published by DOE.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an electric drive vehicle with the ability to recharge from an off-board source, an automobile manufacturer must provide DOE with a test procedure and sufficient data to demonstrate that the vehicle meets or exceeds the applicable average combined fuel economy of vehicles with substantially similar attributes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66731, Nov. 12, 2008, as amended at 89 FR 33203, Apr. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.4   Nonroad advanced technology vehicle.</HEAD>
<P>A manufacturer of a nonroad advanced technology vehicle or a manufacturer of a nonroad advanced technology vehicle qualifying component must provide DOE with such information to demonstrate to the satisfaction of DOE that the applicable nonroad advanced technology vehicle emits, under any possible operational mode or condition, low or zero exhaust emissions of greenhouse gases.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 33203, Apr. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Direct Loan Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.100" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.100   Eligible applicant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to be eligible to receive a loan under this part, an applicant
</P>
<P>(1) Must be—
</P>
<P>(i) An on-road advanced technology vehicle manufacturer that, if it is a light duty vehicle manufacturer, can demonstrate an improved fuel economy as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, or otherwise satisfies the applicable standards set forth in the definition of on-road advanced technology vehicle,
</P>
<P>(ii) A manufacturer of a qualifying component, or
</P>
<P>(iii) A nonroad advanced technology vehicle manufacturer; and


</P>
<P>(2) Must be financially viable without receipt of additional Federal funding associated with the proposed eligible project.
</P>
<P>(b) Improved fuel economy. (1) If the applicant is an automobile manufacturer that manufactured in model year 2005, vehicles subject to the CAFE requirements, the applicant must demonstrate that its adjusted average fuel economy for its light-duty vehicle fleet produced in the most recent year for which final CAFE compliance data is available, at the time of application, is greater than or equal to the adjusted average fuel economy of the applicant's fleet for MY 2005, based on the MY 2005 final CAFE compliance data.
</P>
<P>(2) If the applicant is an automobile manufacturer that did not manufacture in model year 2005, vehicles subject to the CAFE requirements, the applicant must demonstrate that the projected combined fuel economy for the relevant the advanced technology vehicle that is the subject of the application is greater than or equal to the industry adjusted average fuel economy for model year 2005 of equivalent vehicles, based on final CAFE compliance data.
</P>
<P>(3) The CAFE values under this paragraph are to be calculated using the CAFE procedures applicable to the model year being evaluated.
</P>
<P>(4) An applicant must provide fuel economy data, at the model level, relied upon to make the demonstration required by this section.
</P>
<P>(5) An applicant that is a manufacturer of a qualifying component under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section does not need to make a showing of improved fuel economy under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining under paragraph (a)(2) of this section whether an applicant is financially viable, the Department will consider a number of factors, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant's debt-to-equity ratio as of the date of the loan application;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant's earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization (EBITDA) for the applicant's most recent fiscal year prior to the date of the loan application;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant's debt to EBITDA ratio as of the date of the loan application;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant's interest coverage ratio (calculated as EBITDA divided by interest expenses) for the applicant's most recent fiscal year prior to the date of the loan application;
</P>
<P>(5) The applicant's fixed charge coverage ratio (calculated as EBITDA plus fixed charges divided by fixed charges plus interest expenses) for the applicant's most recent fiscal year prior to the date of the loan application;
</P>
<P>(6) The applicant's liquidity as of the date of the loan application;
</P>
<P>(7) Statements from applicant's lenders that the applicant is current with all payments due under loans made by those lenders at the time of the loan application; and
</P>
<P>(8) Financial projections demonstrating the applicant's solvency through the period of time that the loan is outstanding.
</P>
<P>(d). For purposes of making a determination under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, additional Federal funding includes any loan, grant, guarantee, insurance, payment, rebate, subsidy, credit, tax benefit, or any other form of direct or indirect assistance from the Federal government, or any agency or instrumentality thereof, other than the proceeds of a loan approved under this Part, that is, or is expected to be made available with respect to, the project for which the loan is sought under this Part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66731, Nov. 12, 2008, as amended at 89 FR 33203, Apr. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.101" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.101   Application.</HEAD>
<P>The information and materials submitted in or in connection with applications will be treated as provided in 10 CFR 600.15 and must be marked as provided in 10 CFR 600.15(b). An application must include, at a minimum, the following information and materials:
</P>
<P>(a) A certification by the applicant that it meets each of the requirements of the program as set forth in statute, the regulations in this part, and any supplemental requirements issued by DOE;
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the nature and scope of the proposed project for which a loan or award is sought under this part, including key milestones and location of the project;
</P>
<P>(c) A detailed explanation of how the proposed project qualifies under applicable law to receive a loan or award under this part, including vehicle simulations using industry standard model (need to add name and location of this open source model) to show projected fuel economy;
</P>
<P>(d) A detailed estimate of the total project costs together with a description of the methodology and assumptions used to produce that estimate;
</P>
<P>(e) A detailed description of the overall financial plan for the proposed project, including all sources and uses of funding, equity, and debt, and the liability of parties associated with the project;
</P>
<P>(f) Applicant's business plan on which the project is based and applicant's financial model presenting project <I>pro forma</I> statements for the proposed term of the obligations including income statements, balance sheets, and cash flows. All such information and data must include assumptions made in their preparation and the range of revenue, operating cost, and credit assumptions considered;
</P>
<P>(g) An analysis of projected market use for any product (vehicle or component) to be produced by or through the project, including relevant data and assumptions justifying the analysis, and copies of any contractual agreements for the sale of these products or assurance of the revenues to be generated from sale of these products;
</P>
<P>(h) Financial statements for the past three years, or less if the applicant has been in operation less than three years, that have been audited by an independent certified public accountant, including all associated notes, as well as interim financial statements and notes for the current fiscal year, of the applicant and parties providing the applicant's financial backing, together with business and financial interests of controlling or commonly controlled organizations or persons, including parent, subsidiary and other affiliated corporations or partners of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(i) A list showing the status of and estimated completion date of applicant's required project-related applications or approvals for Federal, state, and local permits and authorizations to site, construct, and operate the project, a period of 5 years preceding the submission of an application under this Part;
</P>
<P>(j) Information sufficient to enable DOE to comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as required by § 611.106 of this part;
</P>
<P>(k) A listing and description of assets associated, or to be associated, with the project and any other asset that will serve as collateral for the Loan, including appropriate data as to the value of the assets and the useful life of any physical assets. With respect to real property assets listed, an appraisal that is consistent with the “Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice,” promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation, and performed by licensed or certified appraisers, is required;
</P>
<P>(l) An analysis demonstrating that, at the time of the application, the applicant is financially viable without receipt of additional Federal funding associated with the proposed project, and that there is a reasonable prospect that the Applicant will be able to make payments of principal and interest on the loan as and when such payments become due under the terms of the loan documents, and that the applicant has a net present value which is positive, taking all costs, existing and future, into account. This information must include, from publicly traded companies, relevant filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(m) Written assurance that all laborers and mechanics employed by contractors or subcontractors during construction, alteration, or repair that is financed, in whole or in part, by a loan under this Part shall be paid wages at rates not less than those prevailing on similar construction in the locality, as determined by the Secretary of Labor in accordance with 40 U.S.C. sections 3141-3144, 3146, and 3147;
</P>
<P>(n) Completed Form SF-LLL, as required by 10 CFR Part 601; and
</P>
<P>(o) Other information, as determined necessary by DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66731, Nov. 12, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 26583, May 9, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.102" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.102   Eligible project costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eligible costs are:
</P>
<P>(1) Those costs that are reasonably related to the reequipping, expanding, or establishing a manufacturing facility in the United States to produce qualifying advanced technology vehicles or qualifying components;
</P>
<P>(2) Costs of engineering integration performed in the United States for qualifying vehicles or qualifying components;
</P>
<P>(3) Costs for payment with loan proceeds that are incurred, but not yet paid by the borrower, after a substantially complete application has been submitted to DOE; and
</P>
<P>(4) Costs incurred after closing of the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the overall total cost of an Eligible Project, DOE and the applicant may include significant costs already incurred and capitalized by the applicant in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and these costs may be considered by DOE in determining the Borrower's contribution to total project costs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.103" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.103   Application evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility screening.</I> Applications will be reviewed to determine whether the applicant is eligible, the information required under § 611.101 is complete, and the proposed loan complies with applicable statutes and regulations. DOE can at any time reject an application, in whole or in part, that does not meet these requirements. Any additional information submitted to DOE will be treated as provided in 10 CFR 600.15 and must be marked as provided in 10 CFR 600.15(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation criteria.</I> Applications that are determined to be eligible pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to a substantive review by DOE based upon factors that include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The technical merit of the proposed advanced technology vehicles or qualifying components, with greater weight given for factors including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Improved vehicle fuel economy above that required for an advanced technology vehicle;
</P>
<P>(ii) Potential contributions to improved fuel economy of the U.S. light-duty vehicle fleet;
</P>
<P>(iii) Likely reductions in petroleum use by the U.S. light-duty fleet; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Promotion of use of advanced fuel (e.g., E85, ultra-low sulfur diesel).
</P>
<P>(2) Technical Program Factors such as economic development and diversity in technology, company, risk, and geographic location.
</P>
<P>(3) The adequacy of the proposed provisions to protect the Government, including sufficiency of Security, the priority of the lien position in the Security, and the percentage of the project to be financed with the loan.
</P>
<P>(4) In making loans to those manufacturers that have existing facilities, priority will be given to those facilities that are oldest or have been in existence for at least 20 years even if such facilities are idle at the time of application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 66731, Nov. 12, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 26583, May 9, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.104" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.104   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.105" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.105   Agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only an Agreement executed by a duly authorized DOE Contracting Officer can contractually obligate the government to make a loan made by and through the Federal Financing Bank with the full faith and credit of the United States government on the principal and interest.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE is not bound by oral representations made during the Application stage, or during any negotiation process.
</P>
<P>(c) No funds obtained from the Federal Government, or from a loan or other instrument guaranteed by the Federal Government, may be used to pay administrative fees, or other fees charged by or paid to DOE relating to the section 136 loan program.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to the execution by DOE of an Agreement, DOE must ensure that the following requirements and conditions, which must be specified in the Agreement, are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The Borrower is a Eligible Applicant as defined in this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The Agreement is for an Eligible Project as defined in this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The principal amount of the loan is limited to no more than 80 percent of reasonably anticipated total Project Costs;
</P>
<P>(4) Loan funds will be disbursed only to meet immediate cash disbursement needs of the Borrower and not for investment purposes, and any investment earnings obtained in excess of accrued interest expense will be returned to United States Government; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such documents, representations, warrants and covenants as DOE may require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.106" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.106   Environmental requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>In general.</I> Environmental review of the proposed projects under this part will be conducted in accordance with applicable statutes, regulations, and Executive Orders.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant must submit a comprehensive environmental report. The comprehensive environmental report shall consist of the specific reports and related material set forth in paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The regulations of the Council on Environmental Quality implementing NEPA require DOE to provide public notice of the availability of project specific environmental documents such as environmental impact statements, environmental assessments, findings of no significant impact, records of decision etc., to the affected public. See 40 CFR 1506.6(b). The comprehensive environmental report will provide substantial basis for any required environmental impact statement or environmental assessment and findings of no significant impact, pursuant to the procedures set forth in 10 CFR 1021.215. DOE may also make a determination as to whether a categorical exclusion is available with regard to an Application.
</P>
<P>(b) The detail of each specific report must be commensurate with the complexity of the proposal and its potential for environmental impact. Each topic in each specific report shall be addressed or its omission justified, unless the specific report description indicates that the data is not required for that type of project. If material required for one specific report is provided in another specific report or in another exhibit, it may be incorporated by reference. If any specific report topic is required for a particular project but is not provided at the time the application is filed, the comprehensive environmental report shall explain why it is missing and when the applicant anticipates it will be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) As appropriate, each specific report shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Address conditions or resources that might be directly or indirectly affected by the project;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify significant environmental effects expected to occur as a result of the project;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the effects of construction, operation (including maintenance and malfunctions), and termination of the project, as well as cumulative effects resulting from existing or reasonably foreseeable projects;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify measures proposed to enhance the environment or to avoid, mitigate, or compensate for adverse effects of the project; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide a list of publications, reports, and other literature or communications that were cited or relied upon to prepare each report.
</P>
<P>(d) Specific Report 1—Project impact and description. This report must describe the environmental impacts of the project, facilities associated with the project, special construction and operation procedures, construction timetables, future plans for related construction, compliance with regulations and codes, and permits that must be obtained.
</P>
<P>(e) Specific Report 2—Socioeconomics. This report must identify and quantify the impacts of constructing and operating the proposed project on factors affecting towns and counties in the vicinity of the project. The report must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the socioeconomic impact area;
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluate the impact of any substantial immigration of people on governmental facilities and services and plans to reduce the impact on the local infrastructure;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe on-site manpower requirements and payroll during construction and operation, including the number of construction personnel who currently reside within the impact area, would commute daily to the site from outside the impact area, or would relocate temporarily within the impact area;
</P>
<P>(4) Determine whether existing housing within the impact area is sufficient to meet the needs of the additional population;
</P>
<P>(5) Describe the number and types of residences and businesses that would be displaced by the project, procedures to be used to acquire these properties, and types and amounts of relocation assistance payments; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conduct a fiscal impact analysis evaluating incremental local government expenditures in relation to incremental local government revenues that would result from construction of the project. Incremental expenditures include, but are not limited to, school operating costs, road maintenance and repair, public safety, and public utility costs.
</P>
<P>(f) Specific Report 3—Alternatives. This report must describe alternatives to the project and compare the environmental impacts of such alternatives to those of the proposal. The discussion must demonstrate how environmental benefits and costs were weighed against economic benefits and costs, and technological and procedural constraints. The potential for each alternative to meet project deadlines and the environmental consequences of each alternative shall be discussed. The report must discuss the “no action” alternative and the potential for accomplishing the proposed objectives through the use of other means. The report must provide an analysis of the relative environmental benefits and costs for each alternative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.107" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.107   Loan terms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All loans provided under this part shall be due and payable in full at the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(1) the projected life, in years, of the Eligible facility that is built or installed as a result of the Eligible Project carried out using funds from the loan, as determined by the Secretary; or
</P>
<P>(2) Twenty-five (25) years after the date the loan is closed.
</P>
<P>(b) Loans provided under the Part must bear a rate of interest that is equal to the rate determined by the Secretary of the Treasury, taking into consideration current market yields outstanding marketable obligations of the United States of comparable maturity. This rate will be determined separately for each drawdown of the loan.
</P>
<P>(c) A loan provided under this part may be subject to a deferral in repayment of principal for not more than 5 years after the date on which the Eligible facility that is built or installed as a result of the Eligible Project first begins operations, as determined by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The performance of all of the Borrower's obligations under the Loan Documents shall be secured by, and shall have the priority in, such Security as provided for within the terms and conditions of the Loan Documents.
</P>
<P>(2) Accordingly, the rule states that the Secretary must have a first lien or security interest in all property acquired with loan funds. This requirement may be waived only by the Secretary on a non-delegable basis. DOE must also have a lien on any other property of the applicant pledged to secure the loan.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event of default, if recoveries from the property and revenues pledged to the repayment of the loan are insufficient to fully repay all principal and interest on the loan, then the Federal Government will have recourse to the assets and revenues of the Borrower to the same extent as senior unsecured general obligations of the Borrower.
</P>
<P>(e) The Borrower will be required to pay at the time of the closing of the loan a fee equal to 10 basis points of the principal amount of the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.108" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.108   Perfection of liens and preservation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agreement and other documents related thereto shall provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE and the Applicant, in conjunction with the Federal Financing Bank if necessary, will take those actions necessary to perfect and maintain liens, as applicable, on assets which are pledged as collateral for the loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon default by the Borrower, the holder of pledged collateral shall take such actions as DOE may reasonably require to provide for the care, preservation, protection, and maintenance of such collateral so as to enable the United States to achieve maximum recovery from the pledged assets. DOE shall reimburse the holder of collateral for reasonable and appropriate expenses incurred in taking actions required by DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event of a default, DOE may enter into such contracts as the Secretary determines are required to preserve the collateral. The cost of such contracts may be charged to the Borrower.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.109" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.109   Audit and access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Agreement and related documents shall provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE in conjunction with the Federal Financing Bank, as applicable, and the Borrower, shall keep such records concerning the project as are necessary, including the Application, Term Sheet, Conditional Commitment, Agreement, mortgage, note, disbursement requests and supporting documentation, financial statements, audit reports of independent accounting firms, lists of all project assets and non-project assets pledged as security for the loan, all off-take and other revenue producing agreements, documentation for all project indebtedness, income tax returns, technology agreements, documentation for all permits and regulatory approvals and all other documents and records relating to the Eligible Project, as determined by the Secretary, to facilitate an effective audit and performance evaluation of the project; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary and the Comptroller General, or their duly authorized representatives, shall have access, for the purpose of audit and examination, to any pertinent books, documents, papers and records of the Borrower or DOE, as applicable. Such inspection may be made during regular office hours of the Borrower or DOE, as applicable, or at any other time mutually convenient.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary may from time to time audit any or all statements or certificates submitted to the Secretary. The Borrower will make available to the Secretary all books and records and other data available to the Borrower in order to permit the Secretary to carry out such audits. The Borrower should represent that it has within its rights access to all financial and operational records and data relating to the project financed by the loan, and agrees that it will, upon request by the Secretary, exercise such rights in order to make such financial and operational records and data available to the Secretary. In exercising its rights hereunder, the Secretary may utilize employees of other Federal agencies, independent accountants, or other persons.
</P>
<P>(c) Loan funds are being expended efficiently and effectively if documentation submitted and audits conducted under this section demonstrate that the borrower is making appropriate progress toward achieving the purpose for which the loan was originally made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.110" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.110   Assignment or transfer of loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Loan Documents may not be modified, in whole or in part, without the prior written approval of DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon prior written approval by DOE and the Federal Financing Bank, a certification by the assignor that the assignee is an Eligible Applicant as described in § 611.100 of this part, and subject to paragraph (c) of this section and other provisions of this part, a Borrower may assign or transfer its interest in a loan provided under this part, including the loan documents, to a party that qualifies as an Eligible Applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply to transfers which occur by operation of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.111" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.111   Default, demand, payment, and collateral liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that the Borrower has defaulted in the making of required payments of principal or interest, and such default has not been cured within the period of grace provided in the Agreement, DOE may cause the principal amount of the loan, together with accrued interest thereon, and all amounts owed to the United States by Borrower pursuant to the Agreement, to become immediately due and payable by giving the Borrower written notice to such effect.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that the Borrower is in default as a result of a breach of one or more of the terms and conditions of the Agreement, note, mortgage, or other contractual obligations related to the transaction, other than the Borrower's obligation to pay principal or interest on the loan, and DOE determines, in writing, that such a default has materially affected the rights of the parties, the Borrower shall be given the period of grace provided in the Agreement to cure such default. If the default is not cured during the period of grace, DOE may cause the principal amount of the loan, together with accrued interest thereon, and all amounts owed to the United States by Borrower pursuant to the Agreement, to become immediately due and payable by giving the Borrower written notice to such effect.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that the Borrower has defaulted as described in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section and such default is not cured during the grace period provided in the Agreement, DOE shall notify the U.S. Attorney General. DOE, acting through the U.S. Attorney General, may seek to foreclose on the collateral assets and/or take such other legal action as necessary for the protection of the Government.
</P>
<P>(d) If DOE is awarded title to collateral assets pursuant to a foreclosure proceeding, DOE may take action to complete, maintain, operate, or lease the Eligible Facilities, or otherwise dispose of any property acquired pursuant to the Agreement or take any other necessary action which DOE deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to foreclosure and sale of collateral pursuant thereto, the U.S. Attorney General shall take appropriate action in accordance with rights contained in the Agreement to recover costs incurred by the Government as a result of the defaulted loan or other defaulted obligation. Any recovery so received by the U.S. Attorney General on behalf of the Government shall be applied in the following manner: First to the expenses incurred by the U.S. Attorney General and DOE in effecting such recovery; second, to reimbursement of any amounts paid by DOE as a result of the defaulted obligation; third, to any amounts owed to DOE under related principal and interest assistance contracts; and fourth, to any other lawful claims held by the Government on such process. Any sums remaining after full payment of the foregoing shall be available for the benefit of other parties lawfully entitled to claim them.
</P>
<P>(f) In the event that DOE considers it necessary or desirable to protect or further the interest of the United States in connection with the liquidation of collateral or recovery of deficiencies due under the loan, DOE will take such action as may be appropriate under the circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.112" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.112   Termination of obligations.</HEAD>
<P>DOE, the Federal Financing Bank, and the Borrower shall have such rights to terminate the Agreement as are set forth in the loan documents.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Facility/Funding Awards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.200" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.200   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the policies and procedures applicable to the award and administration of grants by DOE for advanced technology vehicle manufacturing facilities as authorized by section 136(b) of the Energy Independence and Security Act (Pub. L. 110-140).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.201" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.201   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by this subpart, the award and administration of grants shall be governed by 10 CFR part 600 (DOE Financial Assistance Rules).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.202" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.202   Advanced Technology Vehicle Manufacturing Facility Award Program.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may issue, under the Advanced Technology Vehicle Manufacturing Facility Award Program, 10 CFR part 611, subpart C, awards for eligible projects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.203" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.203   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>In order to be eligible for an award, an applicant must be either—
</P>
<P>(a) An automobile manufacturer that can demonstrate an improved fuel economy as specified in paragraph (b) of section 611.3, or
</P>
<P>(b) A manufacturer of a qualifying component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.204" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.204   Awards.</HEAD>
<P>Awards issued for eligible projects shall be for an amount of no more than 30 percent of the eligible project costs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.205" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.205   Period of award availability.</HEAD>
<P>An award under section 611.204 shall apply to—
</P>
<P>(a) Facilities and equipment placed in service before December 30, 2020; and
</P>
<P>(b) Engineering integration costs incurred during the period beginning on December 19, 2007 and ending on December 30, 2020.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.206" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.206   Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall, in making awards to those manufacturers that have existing facilities, give priority to those facilities that are oldest or have been in existence for at least 20 years. Such facilities can currently be sitting idle.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.207" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.207   Small automobile and component manufacturers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In this section, the term “covered firm” means a firm that—
</P>
<P>(1) Employs less than 500 individuals; and
</P>
<P>(2) Manufactures automobiles or components of automobiles.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Set Aside</I>—Of the amount of funds that are used to provide awards for each fiscal year under this subpart, not less than 10 percent shall be used to provide awards to covered firms or consortia led by a covered firm.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 611.208-611.209" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.15.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 611.208-611.209   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="612" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 612—RECAPTURE OF CIVIL NUCLEAR CREDITS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7254; 42 U.S.C. 18753.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 871, Jan. 8, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 612.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.16.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements section 40323(g)(2) of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act (Pub. L. 117-58), codified at 42 U.S.C. 18753(g)(2), to set forth the procedure to recapture credits awarded pursuant to the civil nuclear credit program.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.16.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to an owner/operator of a nuclear reactor that is awarded credits pursuant to the civil nuclear credit program.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.16.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Award period</I> means the period beginning with the first day of the award year for which the owner/operator has been awarded credits up to and including the last day of the fourth award year thereafter.
</P>
<P><I>Award year</I> means a 12-month period beginning on the effective date of the award of credits and each anniversary thereof during the award period.
</P>
<P><I>CNC program</I> means the civil nuclear credit program established by the Secretary pursuant to section 40323 of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act (Pub. L. 117-58) codified at 42 U.S.C. 18753.
</P>
<P><I>Credits</I> means the credits awarded to an owner/operator of a nuclear reactor projected to cease operations due to economic factors and certified by the Department as part of the CNC program.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means a nuclear power reactor unit with respect to which an owner/operator has been awarded credits pursuant to the civil nuclear credit program.
</P>
<P><I>Owner/operator</I> means the owner or operator of a nuclear reactor that has been awarded credits pursuant to the civil nuclear credit program.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.16.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.4   Recapture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Credits allocated to an owner/operator shall be subject to recapture—
</P>
<P>(1) If the nuclear reactor terminates operations during the award period, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) At the conclusion of the award period, if the nuclear reactor would not have operated at an annual loss in the absence of the credits, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Department determines that a nuclear reactor has terminated operations during the award period, then the Department will recapture the award of credits for the award year in which the termination of operations occurred and for any remaining award years by rescinding the credits awarded but not paid, and the owner/operator shall have no further rights to any credits. In addition, the value of credits that the Department has previously paid to the owner/operator with respect to a prior award year shall be repaid to the Department by the owner/operator if the Department determines that the nuclear reactor terminated operations as a result of the owner/operator's failure to adhere to prudent industry practice in the operation of the nuclear reactor during the award period.
</P>
<P>(c) Following the conclusion of the award period, the Department will determine whether, for the award period, the nuclear reactor would not have operated at an annual loss in the absence of the credits. The amount subject to recapture following the conclusion of the award period shall be determined in the same manner that the annual adjustment of credits is calculated under the terms of the award of such credits.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.16.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.5   Notice of recapture; request for reconsideration; effectiveness of recapture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of recapture determination.</I> If pursuant to § 612.4, the Department determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) An amount of credits not yet paid should be recaptured; and
</P>
<P>(2) That any credits previously paid to the owner/operator should be recaptured, the Secretary will provide to an owner/operator a written notice of the amount of credits subject to the recapture determination and the value of credits that the Department has previously paid to an owner/operator and that are subject to recapture, if any, with an explanation of such amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for reconsideration.</I> Unless the Department extends the time period, within 30 calendar days of receipt of a notice of recapture provided to an owner/operator under paragraph (a) of this section, an owner/operator may submit a written request to the Department requesting reconsideration of the recapture determination. To request reconsideration of the recapture determination, an owner/operator must submit to the Department a written request that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation of why the owner/operator believes all or some of the credits (and the value of any credits previously paid) should not be subject to recapture; and
</P>
<P>(2) Supporting information and calculations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification of final amount subject to recapture.</I> Unless the Department extends the time period, within 60 days of receipt of an owner/operator's request for reconsideration provided pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the owner/operator will be notified of the Department's decision to affirm, withdraw, or modify the notice of recapture. The notification will include an explanation of the decision, including responses to the owner/operator's supporting reasons and consideration of additional information provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effectiveness of recapture.</I> (1) If the owner/operator has not requested reconsideration as provided in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(i) The credits will be deemed to be recaptured as of the date of the notification provided by the Secretary pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section and the owner/operator will have no further right or claim to those credits; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The owner/operator shall repay to the Department the value of credits that the Department has paid to the owner/operator and that are subject to recapture under § 612.4 within 30 calendar days of the date of notification provided by the Department pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the owner/operator has requested reconsideration as provided in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(i) The credits will be deemed to be recaptured as of the date of the notification provided by the Department pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section and the owner/operator will have no further right or claim to those credits; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The owner/operator shall pay to the Department the value of credits that the Department has previously paid to the owner/operator and that are subject to recapture under § 612.4 within 30 calendar days of the date of notification provided by the Department pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice.</I> Notices issued by the Department under this section shall be made public by the Department, with the exception of any data or supporting documentation constituting confidential business information not subject to disclosure.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.6" NODE="10:5.0.1.3.16.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.6   Petition to the Department's Office of Hearings and Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>In order to exhaust its administrative remedies, an owner/operator who is aggrieved by the Secretary's decision to affirm, withdraw, or modify the notice of recapture as provided in § 612.5(c) may file a petition with the Department's Office of Hearings and Appeals in accordance with 10 CFR 1003.11 not later than thirty days after notification of the Department's decision.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="I" NODE="10:5.0.1.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER I—SALES REGULATION 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="622" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 622—CONTRACTUAL PROVISIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV8 N="§ 622.103" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.17.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.103   Dispute provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, all DOE contracts for the sale of personal property to any organization outside the U.S. Government shall include a Disputes clause which provides for:
</P>
<P>(1) Binding final decisions by the Contracting Officer, subject to appeal;
</P>
<P>(2) Appeal rights pursuant to the Contract Disputes Act of 1978;
</P>
<P>(3) Continuation of performance by the contractor at the direction of the contracting officer pending final resolution of the dispute.
</P>
<P>(b) Exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of this part shall not apply to contracts for sale of electric power by the Power Marketing Administrations;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary may exempt a contract or class of contracts from this requirement upon determination that it would not be in the public interest in an individual contract or class of contracts with a foreign government, or agency thereof, or international organization, or subsidiary body thereof, to include the Disputes clause, as permitted by section 3 of the Contract Disputes Act of 1978.
</P>
<P>(c) The Energy Board of Contract Appeals (EBCA) has cognizance over disputes relating to DOE Sales contracts.
</P>
<P>(d) The Disputes clause in § 624.102-4 shall be used in accordance with this § 622.103.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 644, Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 599 (42 U.S.C. 7254))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 34559, July 2, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="624" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 624—CONTRACT CLAUSES


</HEAD>

<DIV8 N="§ 624.102-4" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.18.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.102-4   Disputes.</HEAD>
<P>The following clause shall be used in accordance with the provisions of § 622.103:
</P>
<HD1>Disputes
</HD1>
<P>(a) This contract is subject to the Contract Disputes Act of 1978 (41 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>). If a dispute arises relating to the contract, the purchaser may submit a claim to the Contracting Officer who shall issue a written decision on the dispute.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claim</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A written request submitted to the Contracting Officer;
</P>
<P>(2) For payment of money, adjustment of contract terms, or other relief;
</P>
<P>(3) Which is in dispute or remains unresolved after a reasonable time for its review and disposition by the Government; and
</P>
<P>(4) For which a Contracting Officer's decision is demanded.
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of disputed requests or amendments to such requests for payment exceeding $50,000, or with any amendment causing the total request in dispute to exceed $50,000, the purchaser shall certify, at the time of submission of a claim, as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I certify that the claim is made in good faith, that the supporting data is accurate and complete to the best of my knowledge and belief, and that the amount requested accurately reflects the contract adjustment for which the Purchaser believes the Government is liable.
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Purchaser's Name)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Title)</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) The Government shall pay the Purchaser interest.
</P>
<P>(1) On the amount found due to the purchaser and unpaid on claims submitted under this clause;
</P>
<P>(2) At the rates fixed by the Secretary of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(3) From the date the amount is due until the Government makes payment.
</P>
<P>(e) The purchaser shall pay the Government interest:
</P>
<P>(1) On the amount found due to the Government and unpaid on claims submitted under this clause;
</P>
<P>(2) At the rates fixed by the Department of Energy for the payment of interest on past due accounts;
</P>
<P>(3) From the date the amount is due until the purchaser makes payment.
</P>
<P>(f) The decision of the Contracting Officer shall be final and conclusive and not subject to review by any forum, tribunal, or Government agency unless an appeal or action is timely commenced within the times specified by the Contract Disputes Act of 1978.
</P>
<P>(g) The purchaser shall comply with any decision of the Contracting Officer and at the direction of the Contracting Officer shall proceed diligently with performance of this contract pending final resolution of any request for relief, claim, appeal, or action related to this contract.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 644, Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 599 (42 U.S.C. 7254))


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="625" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 625—PRICE COMPETITIVE SALE OF STRATEGIC PETROLEUM RESERVE PETROLEUM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 761; 42 U.S.C. 7101; 42 U.S.C. 6201. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 56541, Dec. 21, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 625.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.19.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.1   Application and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part shall apply to all price competitive sales of SPR petroleum by DOE. This section provides the rules for developing standard contract terms and conditions and financial and performance responsibility measures; notifying potential purchasers of those terms, conditions and measures; choosing applicable terms, conditions and measures for each sale of SPR petroleum; and notifying potential purchasers of which terms, conditions and measures will be applicable to particular sales of SPR petroleum.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.19.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>DOE.</I> DOE is the Department of Energy established by Public Law 95-91 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>) and any component thereof including the SPR Office. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of Sale.</I> The Notice of Sale is the document announcing the sale of SPR petroleum, the amount, type and location of the petroleum being sold, the delivery period and the procedures for submitting offers. The Notice of Sale will specify which contractual provisions and financial and performance responsibility measures are applicable to that particular sale of petroleum, and will provide other pertinent information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petroleum.</I> Petroleum means crude oil, residual fuel oil or any refined petroleum product (including any natural gas liquid and any natural gas liquid product) owned or contracted for by DOE and in storage in any permanent SPR facility, or temporarily stored in other storage facilities, or in transit to such facilities (including petroleum under contract but not yet delivered to a loading terminal).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Price Competitive Sale.</I> A price competitive sale of SPR petroleum is one in which contract awards are made to those responsive, responsible persons offering the highest prices; sales conducted pursuant to rules adopted under section 161(e) of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA), Public Law 94-163 (42 U.S.C. 6201 <I>et seq.</I>), are not price competitive sales.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Purchaser.</I> A purchaser is any person or entity (including a Government agency) which enters into a contract with DOE to purchase SPR petroleum.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>SPR.</I> SPR is the Strategic Petroleum Reserve, that program of the Department of Energy established by title I, part B of EPCA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Standard Sales Provisions.</I> The Standard Sales Provisions are a set of terms and conditions of sale, which may contain or describe financial and performance responsibility measures, for petroleum sold from the SPR under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.19.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.3   Standard sales provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents.</I> The Standards Sales Provisions shall contain contract clauses which may be applicable to price competitive sales of SPR petroleum, including terms and conditions of sale, and purchaser financial and performance responsibility measures, or descriptions thereof. At his discretion, the Secretary or his designee may specify in a Notice of Sale which of such terms and conditions, or financial and performance responsibility measures, shall apply to a particular sale of SPR petroleum; and, he may specify any revisions in such terms, conditions and measures, and any additional terms, conditions and measures which shall be applicable to that sale, that are consistent with the SPR Drawdown Plan adopted on December 1, 1982.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance by offerors.</I> All offerors must, as part of their offers for SPR petroleum in response to a Notice of Sale, agree without exception to all contractual provisions and financial and performance responsibility measures which the Notice of Sale makes applicable to the particular sale.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Award of contracts.</I> No contract for the sale of SPR petroleum may be awarded to any offeror who has not unconditionally agreed to all contractual provisions and financial and performance responsibility measures which the Notice of Sale makes applicable to the particular sale.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contract documents.</I> The terms and conditions which the Notice of Sale makes applicable to a particular sale may be incorporated into a contract for the sale of SPR petroleum by reference to the Notice of Sale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.19.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.4   Publication of the Standard Sales Provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Publication.</I> The Standard Sales Provisions shall be published on the U.S. Department of Energy Strategic Petroleum Reserve website (<I>https://www.energy.gov/fe/services/petroleum-reserves/strategic-petroleum-reserve</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revisions of the Standard Sales Provisions.</I> The Standard Sales Provisions shall be reviewed on a continuous basis and republished on the Department of Energy Strategic Petroleum Reserve website. Notification of revisions of the Standard Sales Provisions shall be made in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and sent to existing registered users in the SPR sales system.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification of applicable clauses.</I> The Notice of Sale will specify, by referencing the Department of Energy Strategic Petroleum Reserve website, which contractual terms and conditions and contractor financial and performance responsibility measures contained or described therein are applicable to that particular sale.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 8794, Mar. 12, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.19.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.5   Failure to perform in accordance with SPR Contracts of Sale.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ineligibility.</I> In addition to any remedies available to the Government under the Contract of Sale, in the event that a purchaser fails to perform in accordance with applicable SPR petroleum sale contractual provisions, and such failure is not excused by those provisions, the Headquarters Senior Procurement Official, at his discretion, may make such purchaser ineligible for future awards of SPR petroleum sales contracts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of ineligibility.</I> No purchaser shall be made ineligible for the award of any SPR sales contract prior to notice and opportunity to respond in accordance with the requirements of this subsection.
</P>
<P>(1) Upon the determination that a purchaser is to be considered for ineligibility, the purchaser shall be sent by certified mail return receipt requested, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Notification that the Headquarters Senior Procurement Official is considering making the purchaser ineligible for future awards; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of the SPR sales contract which the purchaser failed to comply with, along with a brief description of the events and circumstances relating to such failure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Advice that the purchaser may submit in writing for consideration by the Headquarters Senior Procurement Official in determining whether or not to impose ineligibility on the purchaser, any information or argument in opposition to the ineligibility; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Advice that such information or argument in opposition to the ineligibility must be submitted within a certain time in order to be considered by the Headquarters Senior Procurement Official, such time to be not less than 21 days.
</P>
<P>(2) After elapse of the time period established under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for receipt of the purchaser's response, the Headquarters Senior Procurement Official, at his discretion, and after consideration of the purchaser's written response, if any, may make the purchaser ineligible for future awards of SPR petroleum sales contracts. Such ineligibility shall continue for the time period determined by the Headquarters Senior Procurement Official, as appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) The purchaser shall be notified of the Headquarters Senior Procurement Official's decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reconsideration.</I> Any purchaser who has been excluded from participating in any SPR sale under paragraph (a) may request that the Headquarters Senior Procurement Offical reconsider the purchaser's ineligibility. The Headquarters Senior Procurement Official, at his discretion, may reinstate any such purchaser to eligibility for future competitive sales. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="626" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 626—PROCEDURES FOR ACQUISITION OF PETROLEUM FOR THE STRATEGIC PETROLEUM RESERVE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 6240(c); 42 U.S.C. 7101, <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 64372, Oct. 25, 2022, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 626.1" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the procedures for acquiring petroleum products for, and deferring contractually scheduled deliveries to, the Strategic Petroleum Reserve. The procedures do not represent actual terms and conditions to be contained in the contracts for the acquisition of SPR petroleum products.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.2" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Backwardation</I> means a market situation in which prices are progressively lower in succeeding delivery months than in earlier months.
</P>
<P><I>Contango</I> means a market situation in which prices are progressively higher in the succeeding delivery months than in earlier months.
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> means the agreement under which DOE acquires SPR petroleum products, consisting of the solicitation, the contract form signed by both parties, the successful offer, and any subsequent modifications, including those granting requests for deferrals.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting Officer</I> means a person with the authority to enter into, administer, and/or terminate contracts and make related determinations and findings, including entering into sales contracts on behalf of the Government. The term includes certain authorized representatives of the Contracting Officer acting within the limits of their authority as delegated by the Contracting Officer.
</P>
<P><I>DEAR</I> means the Department of Energy Acquisition Regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Deferral</I> means a process whereby petroleum products scheduled for delivery to the SPR in a specific contract period is rescheduled for later delivery, outside of that period, and encompasses the future delivery of the originally scheduled quantity plus an in-kind premium.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy and includes any of its subsidiary offices, such as the Office of Petroleum Reserves (OPR) and the Strategic Petroleum Reserve Program Management Office.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange</I> means a process whereby petroleum products owned by or due to the SPR are provided to an entity or requestor in return for petroleum products of comparable quality plus a premium quantity of petroleum products (in barrels)—or another form of premium as permitted by law—delivered to the SPR in the future, or when SPR petroleum products are traded for petroleum products of a different quality preferred by DOE for operational reasons based on the relative values of the quantities traded.
</P>
<P><I>FAR</I> means the Federal Acquisition Regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the United States Government and includes DOE as its representative.
</P>
<P><I>OPR</I> means the Office of Petroleum Reserves within DOE, whose responsibilities include the operation of the Strategic Petroleum Reserve.
</P>
<P><I>Petroleum products</I> means crude oil, residual fuel oil, or any refined product (including any natural gas liquid, and any natural gas liquid product) owned, or contracted for, by DOE and in storage in any permanent SPR facility, or temporarily stored in other storage facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Premium</I> means the additional amount of petroleum product (in barrels)—or another form of payment as permitted by law—that must be delivered to the SPR above the principal amount of petroleum product owed to SPR in the case of an exchange or a deferred contractually scheduled delivery. The premium may include a calculation based on a rate set by DOE and duration of time until the SPR receives the petroleum product.
</P>
<P><I>Requestor</I> is an entity that makes an emergency request under § 626.7(b).
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Solicitation</I> means the written request by DOE for submission of offers or quotations to DOE for the acquisition of petroleum products.
</P>
<P><I>Strategic Petroleum Reserve</I> or <I>SPR</I> means the reserve for the storage of up to 1 billion barrels of petroleum products established by Title I, Part B, of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, 42 U.S.C. 6201 <I>et seq.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.3" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures in this part apply to the acquisition of petroleum products by DOE for the Strategic Petroleum Reserve through purchase or exchange, as well as to deferrals of contractually scheduled deliveries.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.4" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.4   General acquisition strategy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criteria for commencing acquisition.</I> DOE shall consider the following factors prior to commencing acquisition of petroleum products for the SPR:
</P>
<P>(1) The current inventory of the SPR;
</P>
<P>(2) The current level of private inventories;
</P>
<P>(3) Days of net import protection;
</P>
<P>(4) Current price levels for petroleum products and related commodities, the ability to minimize costs and avoid incurring excessive costs in acquisition, and the possible effect on consumer and market prices of any SPR acquisition;
</P>
<P>(5) The outlook for international and domestic production levels;
</P>
<P>(6) Existing or potential disruptions in supply or refining capability;
</P>
<P>(7) The level of market volatility;
</P>
<P>(8) Futures market price differentials for petroleum products and related commodities;
</P>
<P>(9) The need to protect national security; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any other factor the Secretary deems necessary or appropriate to consider.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of rate of acquisition.</I> DOE shall review the appropriate rate of petroleum product acquisition each time an open market acquisition has been suspended for more than three months.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acquisition through other Federal agencies.</I> DOE may enter into arrangements with another Federal agency for that agency to acquire petroleum products for the SPR on behalf of DOE.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.5" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.5   Acquisition procedures—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of acquisition.</I> (1) Except when DOE has determined there is good cause to do otherwise, DOE shall provide advance public notice of its intent to acquire petroleum products for the SPR. The notice of acquisition will, to the extent feasible, include the general terms and details of DOE's petroleum products acquisition and inform the public of DOE's overall fill goals.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice of acquisition will generally include the:
</P>
<P>(i) Manner of acquisition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Time period for solicitations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Quantity of petroleum products sought;
</P>
<P>(iv) Minimum petroleum product quality requirements;
</P>
<P>(v) Time period for delivery;
</P>
<P>(vi) Acceptable delivery locations; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Instructions for the offer process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of acquisition.</I> (1) DOE shall specify the manner of petroleum product acquisition, either purchase or exchange, in the notice of acquisition.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall, to the greatest extent practicable, determine the manner of petroleum product acquisition after considering:
</P>
<P>(i) The availability of appropriated funds;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimization of costs;
</P>
<P>(iii) Minimization of the Nation's vulnerability to a severe energy supply interruption;
</P>
<P>(iv) Minimization of the impact to supply levels and market forces;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the manner of acquisition would encourage competition in the petroleum industry; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Other considerations DOE deems to be relevant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Solicitation.</I> (1) To secure the economic benefit and security of a diversified base of potential suppliers of petroleum products to the SPR, DOE shall maintain a listing, developed through online registration, direct requests to DOE, and outreach to potential suppliers by DOE. Upon the issuance of a solicitation, DOE shall notify potential suppliers via their registered email addresses.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall make the solicitation publicly available on the website of the OPR: <I>www.spr.doe.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing and duration of solicitation.</I> (1) DOE shall determine petroleum products requirements on nominal six-month cycles, and shall review and update these requirements prior to each solicitation cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless termination rights are explicitly waived by DOE, DOE may terminate any solicitations and contracts pertaining to the acquisition or exchange of petroleum products at the convenience of the Government, and in such event shall not be responsible for any costs incurred by suppliers, other than costs for petroleum products delivered to the SPR and for reasonable, customary, and applicable costs incurred by the supplier in the performance of a valid contract for delivery before the effective date of termination of such contract. In no event shall the Government be liable for consequential damages or the entity's lost profits as a result of such termination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Quality.</I> (1) DOE shall define minimum petroleum product quality specifications for the SPR. DOE shall include such specifications in acquisition solicitations, and shall make them available on the website of the OPR: <I>www.spr.doe.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall periodically review the quality specifications to ensure, to the greatest extent practicable, the petroleum product mix in storage matches the demand of the United States refining system.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Quantity.</I> In determining the quantities of petroleum products to be delivered to the SPR, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Take into consideration market conditions and the availability of transportation systems; and
</P>
<P>(2) Seek to avoid adversely affecting other market participants or petroleum product market fundamentals.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Offer and evaluation procedures.</I> (1) Each solicitation shall provide necessary instructions on offer format and submission procedures. The details of the offer, evaluation, and award procedures may vary depending on the method of acquisition.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall use relative values and time differentials to manage acquisition and delivery schedules to reduce acquisition costs.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE shall evaluate offers based on prevailing market prices of specific petroleum products, and shall award contracts on a competitive basis.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether acquisition is by purchase or exchange, DOE shall use a price index to account for fluctuations in absolute and relative market prices at the time of delivery to reduce market risk to all parties throughout the contract term.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Scheduling and delivery.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, DOE shall accept offers for petroleum products delivered to specified SPR storage sites via pipeline or as waterborne cargos delivered to the terminals serving those sites.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, DOE shall generally establish schedules that allow for evenly spaced deliveries of economically sized marine and pipeline shipments within the constraints of SPR site and commercial facilities receipt capabilities.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE shall strive to maximize U.S. flag carrier utilization through the terms of its supply contracts.
</P>
<P>(4) DOE reserves the right to accept offers for other methods of delivery if, in DOE's sole judgment, market conditions and logistical constraints require such other methods.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 64372, Oct. 25, 2022, as amended at 90 FR 20766, May 16, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.6" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.6   Acquiring petroleum products by purchase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For the purchase of petroleum products, DOE shall, through certified contracting officers, conduct petroleum product acquisitions in accordance with the FAR and the DEAR.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acquisition strategy.</I> (1) DOE solicitations:
</P>
<P>(i) May be either continuously open or fixed for a period of time; and
</P>
<P>(ii) May provide either for immediate delivery or for delivery at future dates.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE may alter the acquisition plan to take advantage of differentials in prices for different qualities of petroleum products, based on a consideration of factors, including the availability of storage capacity in the SPR sites, the logistics of changing delivery streams, and the availability of ships, pipelines, and terminals to move and receive the petroleum products.
</P>
<P>(3) Based on the market analysis described in paragraph (d) of this section, DOE may refuse offers or suspend the acquisition process on the basis of Government estimates projecting substantially lower petroleum product prices in the future than those contained in offers. If DOE determines there is a high probability that the cost to the Government can be reduced without significantly affecting national energy security goals, DOE may either contract for delivery at a future date or delay purchases to take advantage of the projected lower future prices. Conversely, DOE may increase the rate of purchases if prices fall below recent price trends or futures markets present a significant contango and prices offer the opportunity to reduce the average cost of petroleum product acquisitions in anticipation of higher future prices.
</P>
<P>(4) Based on the market analysis described in paragraph (d) of this section, DOE may refuse offers, decrease the rate of purchase, or suspend the acquisition process if DOE determines acquisition will add significant upward pressure to prices either regionally or on a world-wide basis. DOE may consider recent price changes, private inventory levels, petroleum product acquisition by other stockpiling entities, the outlook for world petroleum products production, incipient disruptions of supply or refining capability, logistical problems for moving petroleum products, macroeconomic factors, and any other considerations that may be pertinent to the balance of petroleum product supply and demand.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fill requirements determination.</I> DOE shall develop SPR fill requirements for each solicitation based on an assessment of national energy security goals, the availability of storage capacity, and the need for specific grades and quantities of petroleum products.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Market analysis.</I> (1) DOE shall establish a market value for each petroleum product to be acquired based on a market analysis at the time of contract award.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE may consider prices on futures markets, spot markets, recent price movements, current and projected shipping rates, forecasts by the DOE Energy Information Administration, and any other analytic tools available to DOE to determine the most desirable purchase profile.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE may also consider factors including recent price changes, private inventory levels, petroleum product acquisition by other stockpiling entities, the outlook for world petroleum product production, disruptions of supply or refining capability, logistical problems for moving petroleum products, macroeconomic factors, and any other considerations that may be pertinent relevant to the balance of petroleum product supply and demand.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Evaluation of offers.</I> (1) DOE shall evaluate offers using:
</P>
<P>(i) The criteria and requirements stated in the solicitation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The market analysis under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall require financial guarantees from the contracting entity, in the form of a letter of credit or equivalent financial assurance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 64372, Oct. 25, 2022, as amended at 90 FR 20766, May 16, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.7" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.7   Acquiring petroleum products by exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> DOE may, through certified contracting officers, conduct petroleum product acquisitions through the exchange of petroleum products. Exchanges are conducted through emergency requests or by solicitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency requests.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the requirements of § 626.5, the requirements of this subsection shall control all exchanges by emergency request.
</P>
<P>(2) At any point, in the event of an emergency, a requestor may request, in writing, for an exchange of petroleum product from the SPR.
</P>
<P>(3) All requests shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A justification of need that describes:
</P>
<P>(A) The emergency event,
</P>
<P>(B) The emergency event's impact on the requestor, and
</P>
<P>(C) The requestor's inability to acquire petroleum product from an alternative source;
</P>
<P>(ii) The quantity of petroleum product (in barrels) requested;
</P>
<P>(iii) The quality specifications of petroleum product requested; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The anticipated duration of the emergency event.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon receipt of an emergency request, DOE will verify the emergency, evaluate the need, and assess the market to ensure there is no alternative source of petroleum products available to the requester. DOE, in its sole discretion, may approve or disapprove any emergency request.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon approval of an emergency request, DOE may enter into contract negotiations with the requestor.
</P>
<P>(6) Repayment to the SPR for an exchange by emergency request shall be in the form of barrels of petroleum products, or another form of repayment as permitted by law, and shall include the following to be returned to the SPR by the contracted date:
</P>
<P>(i) The principal amount of petroleum products provided to the requestor;
</P>
<P>(ii) A premium; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Costs incurred by DOE in conducting the emergency request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Solicitation for exchange.</I> (1) A solicitation for exchange:
</P>
<P>(i) May be either continuously open or fixed for a period of time;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall advertise the quantity and quality specification of petroleum product available for exchange;
</P>
<P>(iii) May provide either for immediate delivery or for delivery at future dates to a bidding entity;
</P>
<P>(iv) May, in DOE's sole discretion, include a rate table from which offerors may offer dates for repayment; and
</P>
<P>(v) May require financial guarantees from offerors in the form of a letter of credit or equivalent financial assurance to accompany their bids.
</P>
<P>(2) In conducting the bidding and selection process:
</P>
<P>(i) Offerors shall follow the instructions to offerors included in the solicitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE shall evaluate and select bids that best support national energy security goals, the availability of petroleum products and storage capacity, and need for specific grades and quantities of petroleum products; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon selection of a successful bid, DOE shall notify the apparently successful offeror.
</P>
<P>(3) Repayment to the SPR for an exchange by solicitation shall be in the form of barrels of petroleum products or another form of repayment as permitted by law, and may be calculated based on any rate table, if applicable, and shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Principal amount of petroleum product owed to SPR in the case of an exchange or a deferred contractually scheduled delivery;
</P>
<P>(ii) Costs incurred by DOE in conducting the exchange; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A premium for each prospective date for repayment.
</P>
<P>(4) Based on the market analysis described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, DOE may refuse offers, decrease the rate of acquisition, or suspend the exchange process if DOE determines acquisition will add significant upward pressure to prices either regionally or on a worldwide basis. DOE may consider recent price changes, private inventory levels, petroleum product acquisition by other stockpiling entities, the outlook for world petroleum products production, incipient disruptions of supply or refining capability, logistical problems for moving petroleum products, macroeconomic factors, and any other considerations that may be pertinent to the balance of petroleum product supply and demand.
</P>
<P>(5) Market analysis:
</P>
<P>(i) DOE shall establish a market value for each petroleum product to be acquired based on a market analysis at the time of contract award.
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE may consider prices on futures markets, spot markets, recent price movements, current and projected shipping rates, forecasts by the DOE Energy Information Administration, and any other analytic tools available to DOE to determine the most desirable purchase profile.
</P>
<P>(iii) DOE may also consider factors including recent price changes, private inventory levels, petroleum product acquisition by other stockpiling entities, the outlook for world petroleum product production, disruptions of supply or refining capability, logistical problems for moving petroleum products, macroeconomic factors, and any other considerations that may be pertinent relevant to the balance of petroleum product supply and demand.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.8" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.8   Deferrals of contractually scheduled deliveries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) DOE prefers to take deliveries of petroleum products for the SPR at times scheduled under applicable contracts. However, in the event the market is distorted by disruption to supply or other factors, DOE may defer scheduled deliveries or consider deferral requests from awardees.
</P>
<P>(2) An awardee seeking to defer scheduled deliveries of petroleum products to the SPR may submit a deferral request to DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deferral criteria.</I> DOE shall only grant a deferral request for negotiation under paragraph (c) of this section if it determines that DOE can receive a premium for the deferral and, based on DOE's deferral analysis, that at least one of the following conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE can reduce the cost of its petroleum products acquisition per barrel and increase the volume of petroleum products being delivered to the SPR by means of the premium barrels required by the deferral process;
</P>
<P>(2) DOE anticipates private inventories are approaching a point where unscheduled outages may occur;
</P>
<P>(3) There is evidence that refineries are reducing their run rates for lack of feedstock; or
</P>
<P>(4) There is an unanticipated disruption to petroleum product supply.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Negotiating terms.</I> (1) If DOE decides to negotiate a deferral of deliveries, DOE shall estimate the market value of the deferral and establish a strategy for negotiating with suppliers the minimum percentage of the market value to be taken by the Government. During these negotiations, if the deferral request was initiated by DOE, DOE may consider any reasonable, customary, and applicable costs already incurred by the supplier in the performance of a valid contract for delivery. In no event shall such consideration account for any consequential damages or lost profits suffered by the supplier as a result of such deferral.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall only agree to amend the contract if the negotiation results in an agreement to give the Government a fair and reasonable share of the market value.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.9" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.20.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.9   Suspension and pre-drawdown diversion.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Secretary has found that a severe energy supply interruption may be imminent, the Secretary may suspend any previously announced or contracted acquisition of any petroleum product by the SPR or injection of petroleum products into the SPR; or sell any petroleum product acquired for injection into the SPR that has not yet been injected into the SPR.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="627-699" NODE="10:5.0.1.4.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 627-699 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="III" NODE="10:5.0.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER III—DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="700-705" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 700-705 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="706" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 706—SECURITY POLICIES AND PRACTICES RELATING TO LABOR-MANAGEMENT RELATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 161, 68 Stat. 948, as amended; 42 U.S.C. 2201. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 56776, Dec. 30, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set forth Department of Energy, hereinafter “DOE,” security policies and practices in the area of labor-management relations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.2   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The specific policies contained in this part are worked out within the framework of DOE's general objectives for labor-management relations in the DOE program, namely: 
</P>
<P>(a) Wholehearted acceptance by contractors and by labor and its representatives of the moral responsibility inherent in participation in the DOE program; 
</P>
<P>(b) Development of procedures to assure (1) that all participants in the program are loyal to the United States including those whose participation involves the exercise of negotiating and disciplinary authority over bargaining units, and (2) that determination of unit, jurisdiction, and similar questions will not breach security; 
</P>
<P>(c) Continuity of production at vital DOE installations; 
</P>
<P>(d) Consistent with DOE's responsibility under the law, the least possible governmental interference with the efficient management expected from DOE contractors; 
</P>
<P>(e) Minimum interference with the traditional rights and privileges of American labor. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Security Policies and Procedures in National Labor Relations Board Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.10   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is policy of DOE that NLRB cases falling within the scope of the Labor Management Relations Act at the various DOE installations should be conducted in normal fashion whereever possible, on the basis of open hearings, unclassified records and published decisions. This policy does not preclude adoption of special arrangements which may be required for reasons of program security at any stage of the proceedings in particular areas. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.11   Consent elections.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the recommendation of the President's Commission on Labor Relations in the Atomic Energy Installations, it is the policy of DOE to encourage every effort by management and labor at DOE installations to determine bargaining units and representatives by agreement and consent elections in preference to contested proceedings before the National Labor Relations Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.12   Administrative Law Judges.</HEAD>
<P>By agreement with the National Labor Relations Board, a panel of cleared NLRB administrative law judges is maintained to facilitate resolution of questions as to the materiality of classified information in NLRB hearings and to facilitate preparation of an unclassified record. The assignment of individual administrative law judges to DOE cases remains a matter within the discretion of the National Labor Relations Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.13   Clearance of counsel.</HEAD>
<P>It is recognized that clearance of counsel for the parties is sometimes desirable for proper preparation of a case even though the record is to be unclassified. Clearance of counsel makes possible their participation in any closed discussions needed preparatory to making an unclassified record. Each party is responsible for requesting clearance of its counsel well in advance so that clearance requirements will not delay the proceeding. The clearance of temporary special counsel will be terminated on completion of the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.14   DOE's role in proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>If controversies within the scope of the Labor Management Relations Act arise which cannot be adjusted by mutual agreement, and contested proceedings before NLRB result, each party to such proceedings will present his own position and the evidence in support thereof with due regard for existing security rules. DOE will be continuously informed of the progress of such proceedings and will act as may appear desirable (a) to assure the protection of classified information; (b) to assure that material and relevant information is not withheld from the record on grounds of security if such information can be supplied in unclassified form; and (c) to assist in determining appropriate action where a decision may turn on data which can be expressed only in classified form. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.3" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Loyalty of Participants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.20   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>Loyalty to the United States is a paramount factor applicable to all participants in DOE program including those whose participation (although not requiring access to restricted data) involves the exercise of administrative, negotiating and disciplinary authority over bargaining units composed of employees engaged on classified work. Individuals involved in questions of loyalty will be given full opportunity to explore the questions with DOE. DOE will take such further steps as may be appropriate in the circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Contract Negotiation and Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.4.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.30   Clearance of certain local union representatives.</HEAD>
<P>It is recognized that security clearance of certain union representatives may be necessary to assure opportunity for effective representation of employees in collective bargaining relationships with DOE contractors. Accordingly, DOE managers may authorize investigation for “Q” clearance of union officials whose functions as representatives of employees may reasonably be expected to require access to Restricted Data under NLRB and other procedures according to applicable law (LMRA, 1947); to effectively perform their representation functions in the resolution of grievances and in other collective bargaining relationships with contractors; to effectuate the recommendation of the President's Commission on Labor Relations in the Atomic Energy Installations in respect to integration of the union into the plant organization “as to two-way channel of communication and a medium of understanding between management and workers”. 
</P>
<P>(a) In the pre-contract stage of union-management relations, the requirements of the Labor Management Relations Act normally will be the applicable criteria for determining which bargaining representatives, if any, will need access to classified material in the exercise of their functions as employee representatives. 
</P>
<P>(b) After a bargaining relationship has been established between the contractor and the representatives of its employees the nature of this relationship and the procedures followed in it normally will be the controlling criteria for determination of the access to be granted to particular persons in carrying out their functions as employee representatives. For example, many contract grievance procedures designate by title certain union and management officials who are to have definite roles in the resolution of grievances under the procedure. Investigation for “Q” clearance will normally be in order for such officials, both company and union, employee, and non-employee. In addition, persons not so designated may be investigated for clearance where the company and the union advise DOE manager that their established relationships contemplate access for such persons. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.4.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.31   Clearance of conciliators and arbitrators.</HEAD>
<P>Conciliators and arbitrators who are regularly assigned to DOE cases may be processed for “Q” clearance at the discretion of the local DOE manager, either on the manager's initiative or at the request of a contractor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.4.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.32   Security indoctrination of non-employee representatives.</HEAD>
<P>All collective bargaining representatives, company and union, who are to have access to Restricted Data, will be given appropriate security indoctrination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 706.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.2.0.4.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 706.40   Final responsibility of DOE in security matters.</HEAD>
<P>On all matters of security at all Government-owned, privately operated DOE installations, DOE retains absolute and final authority, and neither the security rules nor their administration are matters for collective bargaining between management and labor, insofar as DOE security regulations affect the collective bargaining process, the security policies and regulations will be made known to both parties. To the fullest extent feasible DOE will consult with representatives of management and labor in formulating security rules and regulations that affect the collective bargaining process. 








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="707" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 707—WORKPLACE SUBSTANCE ABUSE PROGRAMS AT DOE SITES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>41 U.S.C. 8102 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 2012, 2013, 2051, 2061, 2165, 2201b, 2201i, and 2201p; 42 U.S.C. 5814 and 5815; 42 U.S.C. 7151, 7251, 7254, and 7256; 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 32656, July 22, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Energy (DOE) promulgates this part in order to protect the environment, maintain public health and safety, and safeguard the national security. This part establishes policies, criteria, and procedures for developing and implementing programs that help to maintain a workplace free from the use of illegal drugs. It applies to DOE contractors and subcontractors performing work at sites owned or controlled by DOE and operated under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and to individuals with unescorted access to the control areas of certain DOE reactors. The procedures include detection of the use of illegal drugs by current or prospective contractor employees in testing designated positions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to the following contracts with DOE, at sites owned or controlled by DOE which are operated under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended:
</P>
<P>(1) Management and operating contracts; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Other contracts or subcontracts with a value of $25,000 or more, and which have been determined by DOE to involve:
</P>
<P>(i) Access to or handling of classified information or special nuclear materials; 
</P>
<P>(ii) High risk of danger to life, the environment, public health and safety, or national security; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Transportation of hazardous materials to or from a DOE site.
</P>
<P>(b) Individuals described in § 707.7 (b) and (c) will be subject to random drug testing; to drug testing as a result of an occurrence, as described in § 707.9; and to drug testing on the basis of reasonable suspicion, as described in § 707.10.
</P>
<P>(c) Applicants for employment in testing designated positions will be tested in accordance with § 707.8. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of DOE to conduct its programs so as to protect the environment, maintain public health and safety, and safeguard the national security. This policy is advanced in this rule by requiring contractors and subcontractors within its scope to adopt procedures consistent with the baseline requirements of this part, and to impose significant sanctions on individuals in testing designated positions or with unescorted access to the control areas of certain DOE reactors, who use or are involved with illegal drugs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P><I>Collection Site Person</I> means a technician or other person trained and qualified to take urine samples and to secure urine samples for later laboratory analysis. 
</P>
<P><I>Confirmed Positive Test</I> means, for drugs, a finding based on a positive initial or screening test result, confirmed by another positive test on the same sample. The confirmatory test must be by the gas chromatography/mass spectrometry method. 
</P>
<P><I>Counseling</I> means assistance provided by qualified professionals to employees, especially, but not limited to those employees whose job performance is, or might be, impaired as a result of illegal drug use or a medical-behavioral problem; such assistance may include short-term counseling and assessment, crisis intervention, referral to outside treatment facilities, and follow-up services to the individual after completion of treatment and return to work. 
</P>
<P><I>Drug Certification</I> means a written assurance signed by an individual with known past illegal drug involvement, as a condition for obtaining or retaining a DOE access authorization, stating that the individual will refrain from using or being involved with illegal drugs while employed in a position requiring DOE access authorization (security clearance). 
</P>
<P><I>Employee Assistance</I> means a program of counseling, referral, and educational services concerning illegal drug use and other medical, mental, emotional, or personal problems of employees, particularly those which adversely affect behavior and job performance. 
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous Material</I> means any material subject to the placarding requirements of 49 CFR 172.504, table 1, and materials presenting a poison-inhalation hazard that must be placarded under the provisions of 49 CFR 172.505. 
</P>
<P><I>Head of DOE Field Element</I> means an individual who is the manager or head of the DOE operations office or field office.
</P>
<P><I>Illegal Drug</I> means a controlled substance, as specified in Schedules I through V of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 811, 812. The term “illegal drugs” does not apply to the use of a controlled substance in accordance with terms of a valid prescription, or other uses authorized by law. 
</P>
<P><I>Management and Operating Contract</I> means an agreement for the operation, maintenance, or support, on behalf of the Government, of a Government-owned or controlled research, development, special production, or testing establishment wholly or principally devoted to one or more major programs of DOE. 
</P>
<P><I>Medical Review Officer</I> (MRO) means a licensed physician, approved by DOE to perform certain functions under this part. The MRO is responsible for receiving laboratory results generated by an employer's drug testing program, has knowledge of illegal drug use and other substance abuse disorders, and has appropriate medical training to interpret and evaluate an individual's positive test result, together with that person's medical history and any other relevant biomedical information. For purposes of this part a physician from the site occupational medical department may be the MRO. 
</P>
<P><I>Occurrence</I> means any event or incident that is a deviation from the planned or expected behavior or course of events in connection with any Department of Energy or Department of Energy-controlled operation, if the deviation has environmental, public health and safety, or national security protection significance. Incidents having such significance include the following, or incidents of a similar nature: 
</P>
<P>(1) Injury or fatality to any person involving actions of a Department of Energy contractor employee. 
</P>
<P>(2) Involvement of nuclear explosives under Department of Energy jurisdiction which results in an explosion, fire, the spread of radioactive material, personal injury or death, or significant damage to property. 
</P>
<P>(3) Accidental release of pollutants which results or could result in a significant effect on the public or environment. 
</P>
<P>(4) Accidental release of radioactive material above regulatory limits. 
</P>
<P><I>Random Testing</I> means the unscheduled, unannounced urine drug testing of randomly selected individuals in testing designated positions, by a process designed to ensure that selections are made in a non-discriminatory manner. 
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable Suspicion</I> means a suspicion based on an articulable belief that an employee uses illegal drugs, drawn from particularized facts and reasonable inferences from those facts, as detailed further in § 707.10. 
</P>
<P><I>Referral</I> means the direction of an individual toward an employee assistance program or to an outside treatment facility by the employee assistance program professional, for assistance with prevention of illegal drug use, treatment, or rehabilitation from illegal drug use or other problems. Referrals to an employee assistance program can be made by the individual (self-referral), by contractor supervisors or managers, or by a bargaining unit representative. 
</P>
<P><I>Rehabilitation</I> means a formal treatment process aimed at the resolution of behavioral-medical problems, including illegal drug use, and resulting in such resolution. 
</P>
<P><I>Special Nuclear Material</I> has the same meaning as in section 11aa of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2014(aa)).
</P>
<P><I>Specimen Chain of Custody Form</I> is a form used to document the security of the specimen from time of collection until receipt by the laboratory. This form, at a minimum, shall include specimen identifying information, date and location of collection, name and signature of collector, name of testing laboratory, and the names and signatures of all individuals who had custody of the specimen from time of collection until the specimen was prepared for shipment to the laboratory.
</P>
<P><I>Testing Designated Position</I> names a position whose incumbents are subject to drug testing under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 32656, July 22, 1992, as amended at 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.5   Submission, approval, and implementation of a baseline workplace substance abuse program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each contractor subject to this part shall develop a written program consistent with the requirements of this part and the guidelines of the Department of Health and Human Services and subsequent amendments to those guidelines (“Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs,” 53 FR 11970, April 11, 1988; hereinafter “HHS Mandatory Guidelines”), and applicable to appropriate DOE sites. Such a program shall be submitted to DOE for review and approval, and shall include at least the following baseline elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibition of the use; possession, sale, distribution, or manufacture of illegal drugs at sites owned or controlled by DOE;
</P>
<P>(2) Plans for instruction of supervisors and employees concerning problems of substance abuse, including illegal drug use, and the availability of assistance through the employee assistance program and referrals to other resources, and the penalties that may be imposed upon employees for drug-related violations occurring on the DOE owned or controlled site; 
</P>
<P>(3) Provision for distribution to all employees engaged in performance of the contract on the DOE owned or controlled site of a statement which sets forth the contractor's policies prohibiting the possession, sale, distribution, or manufacture of illegal drugs at the DOE owned or controlled site. The statement shall include notification to all employees that as a condition of employment under the contract, the employee will:
</P>
<P>(i) Abide by the terms of the statement; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the employer in writing of the employee's conviction under a criminal drug statute for a violation occurring on the DOE owned or controlled site no later than 10 calendar days after such conviction;
</P>
<P>(4) Provision for written notification to the DOE contracting officer within 10 calendar days after receiving notice under paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, from an employee or otherwise receiving actual notice of an employee's conviction of a drug-related offense;
</P>
<P>(5) Provision for imposing one of the following actions, with respect to any employee who is convicted of a drug-related violation occurring in the workplace, within 30 calendar days after receiving such notice of conviction under paragraph (a)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(i) Taking appropriate personnel action against such employee, up to and including termination; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Offering such employee, consistent with the contractor's policies, an opportunity to participate satisfactorily in a drug abuse assistance or rehabilitation program approved for such purposes by a Federal, State, or local health, law enforcement, or other appropriate agency. If the employee does not participate in such a rehabilitation program, the contractor must take appropriate personnel action, up to and including termination, in accordance with the contractor's policies.
</P>
<P>(6) Commitment to make a good faith effort to maintain a workplace free of substance abuse through implementation of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, the following baseline elements must be included in programs developed by contractors that have identified testing designated positions (see § 707.7(b));
</P>
<P>(1) Notification to DOE of the positions subject to drug testing;
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibition of individuals in testing designated positions who are not free from the use of illegal drugs from working in those positions;
</P>
<P>(3) Sanctions for individuals in testing designated positions who violate the prohibitions of paragraphs (a)(1) or (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Provision for:
</P>
<P>(i) Notification, at least 60 days in advance of initiating testing, to those individuals subject to drug testing, unless the contractor is currently conducting a testing program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Urine drug analysis of applicants for testing designated positions before final selection for employment or assignment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Random urine drug analysis for employees in testing designated positions;
</P>
<P>(iv) Urine drug analysis for employees in testing designated positions on the basis of reasonable suspicion, as a result of an occurrence, or as a follow-up to rehabilitation; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Random urine drug analysis and urine drug analysis on the basis of reasonable suspicion or as the result of an occurrence, for any individual with unescorted access to the control areas of certain DOE reactors (see § 707.7(c)).
</P>
<P>(vi) Written notice to the contractor by an employee in a testing designated position of a drug-related arrest or conviction, or receipt of a positive drug test result regarding that employee, as soon as possible but within 10 calendar days of such arrest, conviction, or receipt; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Appropriate action, if any, to be taken regarding an employee who:
</P>
<P>(A) is arrested for or convicted of a drug-related offense; or 
</P>
<P>(B) has a positive drug test result (consistent with § 707.14).
</P>
<P>(5) Provision to employees of the opportunity for rehabilitation, consistent with the contractor's policies, under circumstances as provided in this part (see § 707.14(b));
</P>
<P>(6) Immediate notification to DOE security officials whenever the circumstances in connection with procedures under this part raise a security concern as provided in DOE Orders, rules and regulations; such circumstances including, but are not necessarily limited to, a determination that an individual holding a DOE access authorization has used an illegal drug.
</P>
<P>(c) Each contractor's written policy and procedures under this part shall comply with the requirements of 10 CFR part 710, “Criteria and Procedures for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Matter or Significant Quantities of Special Nuclear Material.”
</P>
<P>(d) Contractors are required to submit all subcontracts they believe to be within the scope of this part to the Head of DOE Field Element for a determination as to whether the subcontract falls within the scope of this part. Subcontractors so determined to be within the scope of this part shall be required to agree to comply with its requirements, as a condition of eligibility for performing the subcontract work. Each subcontractor subject to this part shall submit its plan to the appropriate prime contractor for approval; the contractor shall be responsible for periodically monitoring the implementation of the subcontractor's program for effectiveness and compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(e) In reviewing each proposed workplace substance abuse plan, the Head of DOE Field Element shall decide whether the program meets the applicable baseline requirements established by this part. The responsible Head of DOE Field Element will reject proposed workplace substance abuse plans that are deemed not to meet the baseline requirements. The Head of DOE Field Element shall provide the contractor with a written notification regarding the decision as to the acceptability of the plan. Nothing in this rule is intended to prohibit any contractor subject to this part from implementing workplace substance abuse requirements additional to those of the baseline, including drug testing employees and applicants for employment in any position and testing for any illegal drugs. However, the contractor shall inform Head of DOE Field Element of such additional requirements at least 30 days prior to implementation.
</P>
<P>(f) DOE shall periodically review and evaluate each contractor's program, including the contractor's oversight of the covered subcontractors, to assure effectiveness and compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(g) Contractors or proposers will submit their program to the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element for review within 30 days of notification by the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element that the contract or proposed contract falls within the scope of this part. Workplace substance abuse programs, as provided in this part, shall be implemented within 30 days of approval by the Head of DOE Field Element. The Head of DOE Field Element may grant an extension to the notification or implementation period, as warranted by local conditions. Implementation may require changes to collective bargaining agreements as discussed in § 707.15 of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) To assure consistency of application, The Head of DOE Field Element shall periodically review designated contracts and testing designated positions included in the workplace substance abuse plans approved by The Head of DOE Field Element. The Head of DOE Field Element will also periodically review implementation of programs conducted by prime contractors, to assure consistency of application among prime contracts (and subcontracts where appropriate).
</P>
<P>(i) This part preempts any State or local law, rule, regulation, order, or standard to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(1) compliance with both the State or local requirement and any requirements in this part is not possible; or
</P>
<P>(2) compliance with the State or local requirement is an obstacle to the accomplishments and execution of any requirement in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 32656, July 22, 1992,, as amended at 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.6   Employee assistance, education, and training.</HEAD>
<P>Contractor programs shall include the following or appropriate alternatives:
</P>
<P>(a) Employee assistance programs emphasizing preventive services, education, short-term counseling, coordination and referral to outside agencies, and follow-up. These services shall be available to all contractor on-site employees involved in the DOE contract. The contractor has no obligation to pay the costs of any individual's counseling, treatment, or rehabilitation beyond those services provided by the contractor's employee assistance program, except as provided for in the contractor's benefits programs. DOE undertakes no obligation to pay for any individual's counseling, rehabilitation, or treatment, unless specifically provided for by contract.
</P>
<P>(b) Education and training programs for on-site employees on a periodic basis, which will include, at a minimum, the following subjects:
</P>
<P>(1) For all on-site employees: Health aspects of substance abuse, especially illegal drug use; safety, security, and other workplace-related problems caused by substance abuse, especially illegal drug use; the provisions of this rule; the employer's policy; and available employee assistance services.
</P>
<P>(2) For managers and supervisors:
</P>
<P>(i) The subjects listed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recognition of deteriorating job performance or judgment, or observation of unusual conduct which may be the result of possible illegal drug use;
</P>
<P>(iii) Responsibility to intervene when there is deterioration in performance, or observed unusual conduct, and to offer alternative courses of action that can assist the employee in returning to satisfactory performance, judgment, or conduct, including seeking help from the employee assistance program;
</P>
<P>(iv) Appropriate handling and referral of employees with possible substance abuse problems, especially illegal drug use; and
</P>
<P>(v) Employer policies and practices for giving maximum consideration to the privacy interests of employees and applicants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.7   Random drug testing requirements and identification of testing designated positions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each workplace substance abuse program will provide for random testing for evidence of the use of illegal drugs of employees in testing designated positions identified in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Programs developed under this part for positions identified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section shall provide for random tests at a rate equal to 30 percent of the total number of employees in testing designated positions for each 12-month period. Employees in the positions identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and individuals identified in paragraph (c) of this section will be subject to random testing at a rate equal to 100 percent of the total number of employees or individuals, as applicable, identified, and those identified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (c) may be subject to additional drug tests.
</P>
<P>(b) The testing designated positions subject to random drug testing are:
</P>
<P>(1) Positions determined to be covered by the Human Reliability Program (HRP), codified at 10 CFR part 712. HRP employees will be subject to the drug testing standards of this part and any additional requirements of the HRP rule.
</P>
<P>(2) Positions identified by the contractor which entail duties where failure of an employee adequately to discharge his or her position could significantly harm the environment, public health or safety, or national security, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Pilots;
</P>
<P>(ii) Firefighters;




</P>
<P>(iii) Protective force personnel, exclusive of those covered in paragraph (b)(1) and (c) of this section, in positions involving use of firearms where the duties also require potential contact with, or proximity to, the public at large;


</P>
<P>(iv) Personnel directly engaged in construction, maintenance, or operation of nuclear reactors;


</P>
<P>(v) Personnel directly engaged in production, use, storage, transportation, or disposal of hazardous materials sufficient to cause significant harm to the environment or public health and safety; or


</P>
<P>(vi) All other personnel in positions that require an access authorization (security clearance), other than those identified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (c) of this section.


</P>
<P>(3) Other positions determined by the DOE, after consultation with the contractor, to have the potential to significantly affect the environment, public health and safety, or national security.
</P>
<P>(c) Each contractor shall require random testing of any individual, whether or not an employee, who is allowed unescorted access to the control areas of the following DOE reactors: Advanced Test Reactor (ATR) and High Flux Isotope Reactor (HFIR). A confirmed positive test shall result in such an individual being denied unescorted access. If such an individual is not an employee of the contractor, that individual may be granted unescorted access only after the individual meets the conditions established in § 707.14(d) of this part. If, after restoration of unescorted access, such an individual is determined to have used illegal drugs for a second time, unescorted access shall be denied for a period of not less than three (3) years. Such an individual thereafter shall be granted unescorted access only upon a determination by the Head of DOE Field Element that a grant of unescorted access to the individual presents no unacceptable safety or security risk. If such an individual is an employee, that individual is subject to the other requirements of this part, including appropriate disciplinary measures.
</P>
<P>(d) A position otherwise subject to testing under this part may be exempted from such testing if it is within the scope of another comparable Federal drug testing program, as determined by DOE, after consultation with the contractor, to avoid unnecessary multiple tests.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 32656, July 22, 1992, as amended at 73 FR 3863, Jan. 23, 2008; 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015; 87 FR 49978, Aug. 15, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.8   Applicant drug testing.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant for a testing designated position will be tested for the use of illegal drugs before final selection for employment or assignment to such a position. Provisions of this part do not prohibit contractors from conducting drug testing on applicants for employment in any position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.9   Drug testing as a result of an occurrence.</HEAD>
<P>When there is an occurrence which is required to be reported to DOE by the contractor, under contract provisions incorporating applicable DOE Orders, rules, and regulations, it may be necessary to test individuals in testing designated positions, or individuals with unescorted access to the control areas of the DOE reactors listed in § 707.7(c), for the use of illegal drugs, if such individuals could have caused or contributed to the conditions which caused the occurrence. For an occurrence requiring immediate notification or reporting as required by applicable DOE Orders, rules, and regulations, the contractor will require testing as soon as possible after the occurrence but within 24 hours of the occurrence, unless DOE determines that it is not feasible to do so. For other occurrences requiring notifications to DOE as required by applicable DOE Orders, rules, and regulations, the contractor may require testing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.10   Drug testing for reasonable suspicion of illegal drug use.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) It may be necessary to test any employee in a testing designated position, or individuals with unescorted access to the control areas of the DOE reactors listed in § 707.7(c), for the use of illegal drugs, if the behavior of such an individual creates the basis for reasonable suspicion of the use of illegal drugs. Two or more supervisory or management officials, at least one of whom is in the direct chain of supervision of the employee, or is a physician from the site occupational medical department, must agree that such testing is appropriate. Reasonable suspicion must be based on an articulable belief that an employee uses illegal drugs, drawn from particularized facts and reasonable inferences from those facts.
</P>
<P>(2) Such a belief may be based upon, among other things:
</P>
<P>(i) Observable phenomena, such as direct observation of:
</P>
<P>(A) The use or possession of illegal drugs; or
</P>
<P>(B) The physical symptoms of being under the influence of drugs;
</P>
<P>(ii) A pattern of abnormal conduct or erratic behavior;
</P>
<P>(iii) Arrest for a conviction of a drug related offense, or the identification of the individual as the focus of a criminal investigation into illegal drug possession use, or trafficking;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information that is either provided by a reliable and credible source or is independently corroborated;
</P>
<P>(v) Evidence that an employee has tampered with a drug test; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Temperature of the urine specimen is outside the range of 32-38 degrees centigrade or 90-100 degrees Fahrenheit. 
</P>
<P>(b) The fact that an employee had a confirmed positive test for the use for the use of illegal drugs at some prior time, or has undergone a period of rehabilitation or treatment, will not, in and of itself, be grounds for testing on the basis of reasonable suspicion.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this part relating to the testing for the use of illegal drugs are not intended to prohibit the contractor from pursuing other existing disciplinary procedures or from requiring medical evaluation of any employee exhibiting aberrant or unusual behavior.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 32656, July 22, 1992, as amended at 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.11   Drugs for which testing is performed.</HEAD>
<P>Where testing is performed under this part, at a minimum, contractors will be required to test for the use of the following drugs or classes of drugs: marijuana; cocaine; opiates; phencyclidine; and amphetamines. However, when conducting reasonable suspicion or occurrence testing, the contractor may test for any drug listed in Schedules I or II of the Controlled Substances Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.12   Specimen collection, handling and laboratory analysis for drug testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Procedures for providing urine specimens must allow individual privacy, unless there is reason to believe that a particular individual may alter or substitute the specimen to be provided. Contractors shall utilize a chain of custody procedure for maintaining control and accountability from point of collection to final disposition of specimens, and testing laboratories shall use appropriate cutoff levels in screening specimens to determine whether they are negative or positive for a specific drug, consistent with the HHS Mandatory Guidelines (see § 707.5(a)). The contractor shall ensure that only testing laboratories certified by the Department of Health and Human Services, are utilized. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If the individual refuses to cooperate with the urine collection (e.g., refusal to provide a specimen, or to complete paperwork), then the collection site person shall inform the MRO and shall document the non-cooperation on the specimen chain of custody form. The MRO shall report the failure to cooperate to the appropriate management authority, who shall report to DOE if the individual holds an access authorization. Individuals so failing to cooperate shall be treated in all respects as if they had been tested and had been determined to have used an illegal drug. The contractor may apply additional sanctions consistent with its disciplinary policy. 
</P>
<P>(2) The collection site person shall ascertain that there is a sufficient amount of urine to conduct an initial test, a confirmatory test, and a retest, in accordance with the HHS Mandatory Guidelines. If there is not a sufficient amount of urine, additional urine will be collected in a separate container. The individual may be given reasonable amounts of liquid and a reasonable amount of time in which to provide the specimen required. The individual and the collection site person must keep the specimen in view at all times. In the event that the individual fails to provide a sufficient amount of urine, the amount collected will be noted on the “Urine Sample Custody Document.” In this case, the collection site person will telephone the individual's supervisor who will determine the next appropriate action. This may include deciding to reschedule the individual for testing, to return the individual to his or her work site and initiate disciplinary action, or both. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 32656, July 22, 1992, as amended at 73 FR 3863, Jan. 23, 2008; 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.13   Medical review of results of tests for illegal drug use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All test results shall be submitted for medical review by the MRO. A confirmed positive test for drugs shall consist of an initial test performed by the immunoassay method, with positive results on that initial test confirmed by another test, performed by the gas chromatography/mass spectrometry method (GC/MS). This procedure is described in the HHS Mandatory Guidelines. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Medical Review Officer will consider the medical history of the employee or applicant, as well as any other relevant biomedical information. When there is a confirmed positive test result, the employee or applicant will be given an opportunity to report to the MRO the use of any prescription or over-the-counter medication. If the MRO determines that there is a legitimate medical explanation for a confirmed positive test result, consistent with legal and non-abusive drug use, the MRO will certify that the test results do not meet the conditions for a determination of use of illegal drugs. If no such certification can be made, the MRO will make a determination of use of illegal drugs. Determinations of use of illegal drugs will be made in accordance with the criteria provided in the Medical Review Officer Manual issued by the Department of Health and Human Services. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 32656, July 22, 1992, as amended at 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.14   Action pursuant to a determination of illegal drug use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an applicant for employment has been tested and determined to have used an illegal drug, processing for employment will be terminated and the applicant will be so notified.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) When an employee who is in a testing designated position has been tested and determined to have used an illegal drug, the contractor shall immediately remove that employee from the testing designated position; if such employee also holds, or is an applicant for, an access authorization, then the contractor shall immediately notify DOE security officials for appropriate adjudication. If this is the first determination of use of illegal drugs by that employee (for example, the employee has not previously signed a DOE drug certification, and has not previously tested positive for use of illegal drugs), the employee may be offered a reasonable opportunity for rehabilitation, consistent with the contractor's policies. If rehabilitation is offered, the employee will be placed in a non-testing designated position, which does not require a security clearance, provided there is such an acceptable position in which the individual can be placed during rehabilitation; if there is no acceptable non-testing designated position, the employee will be placed on sick, annual, or other leave status, for a reasonable period sufficient to permit rehabilitation. However, the employee will not be protected from disciplinary action which may result from violations of work rules other than a positive test result for illegal drugs.
</P>
<P>(2) Following a determination by the site occupational medical department, after counseling or rehabilitation, that the employee can safely return to duty, the contractor may offer the employee reinstatement, in the same or a comparable position to the one held prior to the removal, consistent with the contractor's policies and the requirements of 10 CFR part 710. Failure to take the opportunity for rehabilitation, if it has been made available, for the use of illegal drugs, will require significant disciplinary action up to and including removal from employment under the DOE contract, in accordance with the contractor's policies. Any employee who is twice determined to have used illegal drugs shall in all cases be removed from employment under the DOE contract. Also, if an employee who has signed a DOE drug certification violates the terms of the certification, DOE shall conduct a timely review of the circumstances of such violation, and the individual's continued eligibility for a DOE access authorization shall be determined under the provisions of 10 CFR part 710, “Criteria and Procedures for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Matter or Significant Quantities of Special Nuclear Material.”
</P>
<P>(c) An employee who has been removed from a testing designated position because of the use of illegal drugs may not be returned to such position until that employee has:
</P>
<P>(1) Successfully completed counseling or a program of rehabilitation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Undergone a urine drug test with a negative result; and
</P>
<P>(3) Been evaluated by the site occupational medical department, which has determined that the individual is capable of safely returning to duty.
</P>
<P>(d) An individual who is not an employee of a contractor who has been denied unescorted access because of the use of illegal drugs may not have the unescorted access reinstated until that individual has:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided evidence of successful completion of counseling or a program of rehabilitation;
</P>
<P>(2) Undergone a urine drug test with a negative result; and
</P>
<P>(3) Been evaluated by the site occupational medical department, which has determined that the individual is capable of being permitted unescorted access to a reactor control area.
</P>
<P>(e) If a DOE access authorization is involved, DOE must be notified of a contractor's intent to return to a testing designated position an employee removed from such duty for use of illegal drugs. Positions identified in § 707.7(b)(1) of this part will require DOE approval prior to return to a testing designated position.
</P>
<P>(f) An individual who has been notified of a positive test result may request a retest of the same sample at the same or another certified laboratory. The individual shall bear the costs of transportation and/or testing of the specimen. The contractor will inform employees of their right to request a retest under the provisions of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(g) After an employee determined to have used illegal drugs has been returned to duty, the employee shall be subject to unannounced drug testing, at intervals, for a period of 12 months.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 32656, July 22, 1992,, as amended at 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015; 87 FR 49979, Aug. 15, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.15   Collective bargaining.</HEAD>
<P>When establishing drug testing programs, contractors who are parties to collective bargaining agreements will negotiate with employee representatives, as appropriate, under labor relations laws or negotiated agreements. Such negotiation, however, cannot change or alter the requirements of this rule because DOE security requirements themselves are non-negotiable under the security provisions of DOE contracts. Employees covered under collective bargaining agreements will not be subject to the provisions of this rule until those agreements have been modified, as necessary; provided, however, that if one year after commencement of negotiation the parties have failed to reach agreement, an impasse will be determined to have been reached and the contractor will unilaterally implement the requirements of this rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.16   Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Confirmed positive test results shall be provided to the Medical Review Officer and other contractor and DOE officials with a need to know. Any other disclosure may be made only with the written consent of the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors shall maintain maximum confidentiality of records related to illegal drug use, to the extent required by applicable statutes and regulations (including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3, 42 U.S.C. 290ee-3, and 42 CFR part 2). If such records are sought from the contractor for criminal investigations, or to resolve a question or concern relating to the Personnel Assurance Program certification or access authorization under 10 CFR part 710, any applicable procedures in statute or regulation for disclosure of such information shall be followed. Moreover, owing to DOE's express environmental, public health and safety, and national security interests, and the need to exercise proper contractor oversight, DOE must be kept fully apprised of all aspects of the contractor's program, including such information as incidents involving reasonable suspicion, occurrences, and confirmed test results, as well as information concerning test results in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless otherwise approved by DOE, the contractors shall ensure that all laboratory records relating to positive drug test results, including initial test records and chromatographic tracings, shall be retained by the laboratory in such a manner as to allow retrieval of all information pertaining to the individual urine specimens for a minimum period of five years after completion of testing of any given specimen, or longer if so instructed by DOE or by the contractor. In addition, a frozen sample of all positive urine specimens shall be retained by the laboratory for at least six months, or longer if so instructed by DOE.
</P>
<P>(d) The contractor shall maintain as part of its medical records copies of specimen chain of custody forms.
</P>
<P>(e) The specimen chain of custody form will contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Date of collection;
</P>
<P>(2) Tested person's name;
</P>
<P>(3) Tested employee/applicant's social security number or other identification number unique to the individual;
</P>
<P>(4) Specimen number;
</P>
<P>(5) Type of test (random, applicant, occurrence, reasonable suspicion, follow-up, or other);
</P>
<P>(6) Temperature range of specimen;
</P>
<P>(7) Remarks regarding unusual behavior or conditions;
</P>
<P>(8) Collector's signature; and
</P>
<P>(9) Certification signature of specimen provider certifying that specimen identified is in fact the specimen the individual provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.17" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.3.2.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.17   Permissible actions in the event of contractor noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>Actions available to DOE in the event of contractor noncompliance with the provisions of this part or otherwise performing in a manner inconsistent with its approved program include, but are not limited to, suspension or debarment, contract termination, or reduction in fee in accordance with the contract terms.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="708" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 708—DOE CONTRACTOR EMPLOYEE PROTECTION PROGRAM


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201(b), 2201(c), 2201(i), and 2201(p); 42 U.S.C. 5814 and 5815; 42 U.S.C. 7251, 7254, 7255, and 7256; and 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 37757, Aug. 2, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides procedures for processing complaints by employees of DOE contractors alleging retaliation by their employers for disclosure of information concerning danger to public or worker health or safety, substantial violations of law, or gross mismanagement; for participation in Congressional proceedings; or for refusal to participate in dangerous activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Judge</I> means an attorney appointed by the OHA Director to preside over the disposition of a complaint.
</P>
<P><I>Alternative Dispute Resolution</I> means any technique for resolving disputes and managing conflict without resorting to litigation in either an administrative or judicial forum. Alternative Dispute Resolution techniques include, but are not limited to, mediation, facilitation, shuttle diplomacy, partnering, and dispute systems design.
</P>
<P><I>Complainant</I> means an employee who has filed a complaint under 10 CFR part 708.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means a seller of goods or services who is a party to a management and operating contract or other type of contract with DOE, or subcontract to such a contract, to perform work directly related to activities at DOE-owned or -leased facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means a calendar day.
</P>
<P><I>Discovery</I> means a process used to enable the parties to learn about each other's evidence before a hearing takes place, including oral depositions, written interrogatories, requests for admissions, inspection of property, and requests for production of documents.
</P>
<P><I>DOE Official</I> means any officer or employee of DOE whose duties include program management or the investigation or enforcement of any law, rule, or regulation relating to Government contractors or the subject matter of a contract.
</P>
<P><I>EC Director</I> means the Director of the Office of Employee Concerns at DOE Headquarters, or any official to whom the Director delegates his functions under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means a person employed by a contractor, and any person previously employed by a contractor if that person's complaint alleges that employment was terminated for conduct described in § 708.5 of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Field element</I> means a DOE operations office or field office that is responsible for the management, coordination, and administration of operations at a DOE facility.
</P>
<P><I>Head of Field Element</I> means the manager or head of a DOE operations office or field office, or any official to whom those individuals delegate their functions under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Management and operating contract</I> means an agreement under which DOE contracts for the operation, maintenance, or support of a Government-owned or -leased research, development, special production, or testing establishment that is wholly or principally devoted to one or more of the programs of DOE.
</P>
<P><I>OHA Director</I> means the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals, or any official to whom the Director delegates his functions under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means an employee, contractor, or other party named in a proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Retaliation</I> means an action (including intimidation, threats, restraint, coercion, or similar action) taken by a contractor against an employee with respect to employment (<I>e.g.,</I> discharge, demotion, or other negative action with respect to the employee's compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment) that would not have been taken but for the employee's disclosure of information, participation in proceedings, or refusal to participate in activities described in § 708.5 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Throughout this part, the use of a word or term in the singular includes the plural, and the use of the male gender is gender neutral.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.3   Complaints covered.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to a complaint of retaliation filed by an employee of a contractor that performs work on behalf of DOE, directly related to activities at a DOE-owned or -leased site, if the complaint stems from a disclosure, participation, or refusal described in § 708.5 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.4   Complaints not covered.</HEAD>
<P>An employee of a contractor may not file a complaint against his employer under this part if:
</P>
<P>(a) The complaint is based on race, color, religion, sex, age, national origin, or other similar basis; or
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint involves misconduct that the employee, acting without direction from the employer, deliberately caused, or in which the employee knowingly participated; or
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in § 708.15(a), the complaint is based on the same facts for which the employee has chosen to pursue a remedy available under:
</P>
<P>(1) Department of Labor regulations at 29 CFR part 24, “Procedures for the Handling of Discrimination Complaints under Federal Employee Protection Statutes;”
</P>
<P>(2) Federal Acquisition Regulations, 48 CFR part 3, “Federal Acquisition Regulation; Whistleblower Protection for Contractor Employees (Ethics);” or
</P>
<P>(3) State or other applicable law, including final and binding grievance-arbitration, as described in § 708.16 of subpart B; or
</P>
<P>(d) The complaint is based on the same facts in which the employee, in the course of a covered disclosure or participation, improperly disclosed Restricted Data, national security information, or any other classified or sensitive information in violation of any Executive Order, statute, or regulation. This part does not override any provision or requirement of any regulation pertaining to Restricted Data, national security information, or any other classified or sensitive information; or
</P>
<P>(e) The complaint deals with “terms and conditions of employment” within the meaning of the National Labor Relations Act, except as provided in § 708.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.5   Protected conduct.</HEAD>
<P>An employee of a contractor may file a complaint against his employer alleging that he has been subject to retaliation for:
</P>
<P>(a) Disclosing to a DOE official, a member of Congress, any other government official who has responsibility for the oversight of the conduct of operations at a DOE site, the employer, or any higher tier contractor, information that he reasonably believes reveals—
</P>
<P>(1) A substantial violation of a law, rule, or regulation;
</P>
<P>(2) A substantial and specific danger to employees or to public health or safety; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fraud, gross mismanagement, gross waste of funds, or abuse of authority; or
</P>
<P>(b) Participating in a Congressional proceeding or an administrative proceeding conducted under this part; or
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to § 708.7 of this subpart, refusing to participate in an activity, policy, or practice if the employee believed participation would—
</P>
<P>(1) Constitute a violation of a Federal health or safety law; or
</P>
<P>(2) Cause the employee to have a reasonable fear of serious injury to himself, other employees, or members of the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.6   Reasonable fear of serious injury.</HEAD>
<P>Participation in an activity, policy, or practice may cause an employee to have a reasonable fear of serious injury that justifies a refusal to participate if:
</P>
<P>(a) A reasonable person, under the circumstances that confronted the employee, would conclude there is a substantial risk of a serious accident, injury, or impairment of health or safety resulting from participation in the activity, policy, or practice; or
</P>
<P>(b) An employee, because of the nature of his employment responsibilities, does not have the training or skills needed to participate safely in the activity or practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.7   Filing a complaint based on retaliation for refusal to participate.</HEAD>
<P>An employee may file a complaint for retaliation for refusing to participate in an activity, policy, or practice only if:
</P>
<P>(a) Before refusing to participate in the activity, policy, or practice, the employee asked the employer to correct the violation or remove the danger, and the employer refused to take such action; and
</P>
<P>(b) By the 30th day after the refusal to participate, the employee reported the violation or dangerous activity, policy, or practice to a DOE official, a member of Congress, another government official with responsibility for the oversight of the conduct of operations at the DOE site, his employer, or any higher tier contractor, and stated his reasons for refusing to participate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.8   Application to pending cases.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures in this part apply in any complaint proceeding filed with the Head of Field Element or EC Director, as appropriate, on or after the effective date of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.9   How to file complaints or other documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under this part, a complaint or other document is considered filed on the date it is mailed, electronically submitted, or personally delivered to the specified official or office.
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint may be withdrawn at any time at the request of the complainant.
</P>
<P>(c) Absent exceptional circumstances, all submissions to the Office of Hearings and Appeals must be filed electronically in accordance with the instructions set forth on the Office of Hearings and Appeals website, found at <I>https://www.energy.gov/oha/filing-information.</I> The Office of Hearings and Appeals may grant permission to file via mail or facsimile.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.1.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Employee Complaint Resolution Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.11   Filing a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an employee was employed by a contractor whose contract is overseen by a contracting officer located in DOE Headquarters when the alleged retaliation occurred, the employee must file the written complaint with the EC Director.
</P>
<P>(b) If an employee was employed by a contractor at a DOE field facility or site when the alleged retaliation occurred, the employee must file the written complaint with the Head of Field Element at the DOE field element with jurisdiction over the contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.12   No expectation of confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>The identity of an employee who files a complaint under this part appears on the complaint. A copy of the complaint is provided to the employer and the complainant's identity cannot be maintained as confidential.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.13   Requirements for the form and content of a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>A complaint does not need to be in any specific form but must be signed by the employee and contain the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A statement specifically describing
</P>
<P>(1) The alleged retaliation taken against the employee and
</P>
<P>(2) The disclosure, participation, or refusal covered under § 708.5 that the employee believes gave rise to the retaliation;
</P>
<P>(b) A statement that the complainant is not currently pursuing a remedy under State or other applicable law, as described in § 708.16 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(c) A statement that all of the facts that the complainant has included in his complaint are true and correct to the best of his knowledge and belief; and
</P>
<P>(d) An affirmation, as described in § 708.14 of this subpart, that the complainant has exhausted all applicable grievance or arbitration procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.14   Exhaustion of grievance-arbitration procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To show that all applicable grievance-arbitration procedures have been exhausted, the complainant must:
</P>
<P>(1) State that all available opportunities for resolution through an applicable grievance-arbitration procedure have been exhausted, and provide the date on which the grievance-arbitration procedure was terminated and the reasons for termination; or
</P>
<P>(2) State that the complainant filed a grievance under applicable grievance-arbitration procedures, but more than 150 days have passed and a final decision on it has not been issued, and provide the date that the grievance was filed; or
</P>
<P>(3) State that the employer has established no grievance-arbitration procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant does not provide the information specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the complaint may be dismissed for lack of jurisdiction as provided in § 708.18 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.15   Time to file a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complaint must be filed by the 90th day after the date the employee knew, or reasonably should have known, of the alleged retaliation.
</P>
<P>(b) The period for filing a complaint does not include time spent attempting to resolve the dispute through an internal company grievance-arbitration procedure. The time period for filing stops running on the day the internal grievance is filed and begins to run again on the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(1) The day after such dispute resolution efforts end; or
</P>
<P>(2) 150 days after the internal grievance was filed if a final decision on the grievance has not been issued.
</P>
<P>(c) The period for filing a complaint does not include time spent resolving jurisdictional issues related to a complaint the employee files under State or other applicable law. The time period for filing stops running on the date the complaint under State or other applicable law is filed and begins to run again the day after a final decision on the jurisdictional issues is issued.
</P>
<P>(d) If the complaint is not filed during the 90-day period, the Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) will give the complainant an opportunity to show any good reason he may have for not filing within that period, and that official may, in his discretion, accept the complaint for processing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.16   Duplicative actions under State or other law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee may not file a complaint under this part if, with respect to the same facts, he chooses to pursue a remedy under State or other applicable law, including final and binding grievance-arbitration procedures, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The complaint under State or other applicable law is dismissed for lack of jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint was filed under 48 CFR part 3, subpart 3.9 and the Inspector General, after conducting an initial inquiry, determines not to pursue it; or
</P>
<P>(3) The employee has exhausted grievance-arbitration procedures pursuant to § 708.14, and issues related to alleged retaliation for conduct protected under § 708.5 remain.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuing a remedy other than final and binding grievance-arbitration procedures does not prevent an employee from filing a complaint under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee is considered to have filed a complaint under State or other applicable law if he files a complaint, or other pleading, with respect to the same facts in a proceeding established or mandated by State or other applicable law, whether such a complaint is filed before, concurrently with, or after a complaint is filed under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) If an employee files a complaint under State or other applicable law after filing a complaint under this part, the complaint under this regulation will be dismissed under § 708.18(c)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.17" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.17   Notification of complaints and opportunities to respond.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By the 15th day after receiving a complaint, the Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) will provide the employer a copy of the complaint. The employer has 15 days from receipt of the complaint to submit any response it wishes to make regarding the allegations in the complaint. The Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) will provide the complainant with a copy of the employer's response. The complainant has 10 days from receipt of the response to submit any additional comments regarding the complaint or the response. The Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) will provide the employer with a copy of those additional comments.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant is part of a bargaining unit represented for purposes of collective bargaining by a labor organization, the Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) will provide the representative a copy of the complaint by the 15th day after receiving it. The labor organization will be advised that it has 10 days from the receipt of the complaint to submit any comments it wishes to make regarding the allegations in the complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.18" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.18   Dismissal for lack of jurisdiction or other good cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) may dismiss a complaint for lack of jurisdiction or for other good cause after receiving the complaint, either on his own initiative or at the request of a party named in the complaint. Such decisions are generally issued by the 20th day after the receipt of the employer's response, but not before the complainant has submitted comments on the response or his time to do so has elapsed, whichever is soonest.
</P>
<P>(b) The Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) will notify the complainant by certified mail, return receipt requested, if the complaint is dismissed for lack of jurisdiction or other good cause, will give specific reasons for the dismissal and the contact information for the DOE's Alternative Dispute Resolution Office, and will notify other parties of the dismissal.
</P>
<P>(c) Dismissal for lack of jurisdiction or other good cause is appropriate if:
</P>
<P>(1) The complaint is untimely; or
</P>
<P>(2) The facts, as alleged in the complaint, do not present issues for which relief can be granted under this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) The complainant filed a complaint under State or other applicable law with respect to the same facts as alleged in a complaint under this part; or
</P>
<P>(4) The complaint is frivolous or without merit on its face; or
</P>
<P>(5) The issues presented in the complaint have been rendered moot by subsequent events or substantially resolved; or
</P>
<P>(6) The employer has made a formal offer to provide the remedy requested in the complaint or a remedy that DOE considers to be equivalent to what could be provided as a remedy under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.19" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.19   Appealing the dismissal of a complaint by the Head of Field Element or EC Director for lack of jurisdiction or other good cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a complaint is dismissed by the Head of Field Element or EC Director, the administrative process is terminated unless the complainant appeals the dismissal to the OHA Director by the 10th day after receipt of the notice of dismissal as evidenced by a receipt for delivery of certified mail. Decisions not to dismiss may not be appealed.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant appeals a dismissal to the OHA Director, he must send copies of his appeal to the Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) and all parties. The appeal must include a copy of the notice of dismissal, and state the reasons the dismissal was erroneous.
</P>
<P>(c) The OHA Director has all powers necessary to adjudicate the appeal. The OHA Director will issue a decision on the appeal and notify the parties of the decision by the 30th day after it is received. The OHA Director will review findings of fact for clear error and conclusions of law <I>de novo.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) The OHA Director's decision, either upholding the dismissal by the Head of Field Element or EC Director or ordering further processing of the complaint, is the final decision on the appeal, unless a party files a petition for Secretarial review by the 30th day after receiving the appeal decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.2.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.20   Review by the Secretary of Energy of a decision on appeal of a dismissal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By the 30th day after receiving a decision on an appeal under § 708.19 from the OHA Director, any party may file a petition for Secretarial review of a dismissal with the Office of Hearings and Appeals. A decision by the OHA Director to reverse a dismissal may not be the subject of a petition for Secretarial review.
</P>
<P>(b) By the 15th day after filing the petition for Secretarial review, the petitioning party must file a statement setting forth the arguments in support of its position. A copy of the statement must be served on the other parties, who may file a response by the 20th day after receipt of the statement. Any response must also be served on the other parties.
</P>
<P>(c) All submissions permitted under this section must be filed with the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary (or his designee) will reverse or revise an appeal decision by the OHA Director only under extraordinary circumstances. Upon consideration of the petition for Secretarial review, the Secretary will direct the OHA Director to issue an order either upholding the dismissal by the Head of Field Element or EC Director or ordering further processing of the complaint. If the dismissal is upheld, this is a final agency action.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Investigation, Hearing, and Decision Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.21   Referral to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a complaint is not dismissed for lack of jurisdiction or other good cause, the Head of Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) will forward the complaint to the OHA Director by the later of:
</P>
<P>(1) The 25th day after receipt of the employer's response, or
</P>
<P>(2) The 5th day after receipt of an order to continue processing the complaint following an appeal of dismissal.
</P>
<P>(b) The Head of the Field Element or EC Director (as applicable) will notify all parties that the complaint has been referred to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(c) The OHA Director and an Administrative Judge appointed to preside over any aspect of a part 708 proceeding are prohibited, beginning with the complaint's referral to the OHA and until a final agency decision is issued, from initiating or otherwise engaging in <I>ex parte</I> discussions with any party on the merits of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(d) In all proceedings under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) The parties have the right to be represented by a person of their choosing or to proceed without representation. The parties are responsible for producing witnesses on their behalf, including requesting the issuance of subpoenas, if necessary;
</P>
<P>(2) Formal rules of evidence do not apply, but the OHA may use the Federal Rules of Evidence as a guide.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.22   Investigation of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OHA Director will appoint a person to conduct an investigation. The investigator may not participate or advise in any proceedings in the case subsequent to the investigation's completion.
</P>
<P>(b) The investigator will determine the appropriate scope of investigation based on the circumstances of the complaint. The investigator may enter and inspect places and records; make copies of records; interview persons alleged to have been involved in retaliation and other individuals who may have relevant information; take sworn statements; and require the production of any documents or other evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) All parties must cooperate fully with the investigator by making all pertinent evidence available. The contractor must make employees available upon request.
</P>
<P>(d) A person being interviewed in an investigation has the right to be represented by a person of his choosing.
</P>
<P>(e) Parties to the complaint are not entitled to be present at interviews conducted by an investigator.
</P>
<P>(f) If a person other than the complainant requests that his identity be kept confidential, the investigator may grant confidentiality, but must advise such person that confidentiality means that the Office of Hearings and Appeals will not identify the person as a source of information to anyone outside the Office of Hearings and Appeals, except as required by statute or other law, or as determined by the OHA Director to be unavoidable.
</P>
<P>(g) At any point during the investigation, the investigator may request that the OHA Director appoint an Administrative Judge to whom the complaint will be referred for a decision on whether dismissal is appropriate. The investigator will serve the parties with notice of the referral. The investigator will submit a written statement to the Administrative Judge outlining the reasons he believes dismissal may be appropriate and any facts supporting that belief. The Administrative Judge will then decide whether to dismiss the complaint. In making such decision, the Administrative Judge will have access to the entire investigative file. The Administrative Judge's decision, regardless of outcome, will be served on all the parties. A complaint may be dismissed prior to the completion of the investigation for:
</P>
<P>(1) Any reason listed in § 708.18(c), or
</P>
<P>(2) Lack of merit, provided the facts obtained by the investigator indicate there is no genuine dispute of material fact.
</P>
<P>(h) If the Administrative Judge decides to dismiss the complaint, he will issue an initial agency decision that includes the factual and legal bases for the dismissal. The investigator's written statement will be attached to the Administrative Judge's initial agency decision and served on all the parties. No report of investigation will issue for a complaint dismissed by the Administrative Judge following a referral for dismissal by the investigator.
</P>
<P>(i) If the Administrative Judge decides not to dismiss the complaint, he will issue a written statement to that effect which will include the factual and legal basis for his decision. The investigation will then continue. The OHA Director may, at his discretion, appoint a new investigator.
</P>
<P>(j) Dismissals under paragraph (h) of this section may be appealed in accordance with the procedures set forth in §§ 708.32, 708.33, 708.34, and 708.35. Decisions not to dismiss under paragraph (i) of this section may not be appealed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.23   Time to issue a report of investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the complaint is not dismissed prior to the completion of the investigation, the investigator will complete the investigation and issue a report of investigation by the 60th day after the complaint is received by the Office of Hearings and Appeals, unless the OHA Director, for good cause, extends the investigation for no more than 30 days. If a case is referred for dismissal by an investigator, the time to issue the report of investigation stops running on the day of referral and, if the Administrative Judge decides against dismissal, begins to run again on the day after the Administrative Judge's decision issues.
</P>
<P>(b) The investigator will provide copies of the report of investigation to the parties. The investigation will not be reopened after the report of investigation is issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.24   Hearings not required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complainant may withdraw a hearing request after the report of investigation is issued. However, the hearing may be canceled only if all parties agree that they do not want a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) If the hearing is canceled, the Administrative Judge will issue an initial agency decision pursuant to § 708.31 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.25   Appointment of Administrative Judge.</HEAD>
<P>The OHA Director will appoint an Administrative Judge from the Office of Hearings and Appeals to conduct a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.26" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.26   Time and location of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Judge will schedule a hearing to be held by the 90th day after issuance of the report of investigation. Any extension of the hearing date must be approved by the OHA Director.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrative Judge will schedule the hearing for a location near the site where the alleged retaliation occurred or the complainant's place of employment, or at another location that is appropriate considering the circumstances of a particular case. Hearings may be conducted by video teleconference or other remote means, at the Administrative Judge's discretion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.27" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.27   The Administrative Judge may not require that the parties participate in alternative dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrative Judge may recommend, but may not require, that the parties attempt to resolve the complaint through alternative dispute resolution. Within 5 days of appointment, the Administrative Judge will make the contact information for the DOE's Alternative Dispute Resolution Office available to the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.28" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.28   Hearing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all hearings under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Testimony of witnesses is given under oath or affirmation, and witnesses must be advised of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 18 U.S.C. 1621, dealing with the criminal penalties associated with false statements and perjury;
</P>
<P>(2) Witnesses are subject to cross-examination; and
</P>
<P>(3) A court reporter will make a transcript of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrative Judge has all powers necessary to regulate the conduct of proceedings, including the following.
</P>
<P>(1) The Administrative Judge may order discovery at the request of a party, based on a showing that the requested discovery is designed to produce evidence regarding a matter, not privileged, that is relevant to the subject matter of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrative Judge may permit parties to obtain discovery by any appropriate method, including deposition upon oral examination or written questions; written interrogatories; production of documents or things; permission to enter upon land or other property for inspection and other purposes; and requests for admission.
</P>
<P>(3) The Administrative Judge may issue subpoenas for the appearance of witnesses on behalf of either party, or for the production of specific documents or other physical evidence.
</P>
<P>(4) The Administrative Judge may rule on objections to the presentation of evidence; exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious; require the advance submission of documents offered as evidence; dispose of procedural requests; grant extensions of time; determine the format of the hearing; direct that written motions, documents, or briefs be filed with respect to issues raised during the course of the hearing; ask questions of witnesses; direct that documentary evidence be served upon other parties (under protective order if such evidence is deemed confidential); and otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) The Administrative Judge may, at the request of a party or on his own initiative, dismiss a claim, defense, or party. He may also make adverse findings upon the failure of a party or the party's representative to comply with a lawful order of the Administrative Judge, or, without good cause, to attend a hearing. If the Administrative Judge's rulings result in termination of the proceeding prior to the completion of the hearing, the Administrative Judge will issue an initial agency decision pursuant to § 708.31 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(6) The Administrative Judge, upon request of a party, may allow the parties a reasonable time to file pre-hearing briefs or written statements with respect to material issues of fact or law. Any pre-hearing submission must be limited to the issues specified and filed within the time prescribed by the Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(7) The parties are entitled to make closing arguments, but post-hearing submissions are only permitted by direction of the Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(8) Parties allowed to file written submissions must serve copies upon the other parties within the time prescribed by the Administrative Judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.29" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.29   Burdens of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The complainant has the burden of establishing by a preponderance of the evidence that he made a disclosure, participated in a proceeding, or refused to participate, as described under § 708.5, and that such act was a contributing factor in one or more alleged acts of retaliation against the complainant by the contractor. Once the complainant has met this burden, the burden shifts to the contractor to prove by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same action without the complainant's disclosure, participation, or refusal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.30   Timing for issuing an initial agency decision.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrative Judge will issue an initial agency decision on the complaint by the 60th day after the later of:
</P>
<P>(a) The date the Administrative Judge approves the parties' agreement not to hold a hearing;
</P>
<P>(b) The date the Administrative Judge receives the transcript of the hearing; or
</P>
<P>(c) The date the Administrative Judge receives post-hearing submissions permitted under § 708.28(b)(7) of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.31   Procedure for issuing an initial agency decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Judge will serve the initial agency decision on all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) An initial agency decision issued by the Administrative Judge will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, an order, and the factual basis for each finding, whether or not a hearing has been held on the complaint. In making such findings, the Administrative Judge may rely upon, but is not bound by, the report of investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Administrative Judge determines that an act of retaliation has occurred, the initial agency decision will include an order for any form of relief permitted under § 708.36. If the Administrative Judge does not determine that an act of retaliation has occurred, the initial agency decision will state that the complaint is denied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.32   Appealing an initial agency decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By the 15th day after receiving an initial agency decision from the Administrative Judge, any party may file a notice of appeal with the OHA Director requesting review of the initial agency decision.
</P>
<P>(b) A party who appeals an initial agency decision (the appellant) must serve a copy of the notice of appeal on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(c) A party who receives an initial agency decision has not exhausted its administrative remedies until an appeal has been filed with the OHA Director and a decision granting or denying the appeal has been issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.33   Procedure for appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By the 15th day after filing a notice of appeal under § 708.32, the appellant must file a statement identifying the issues that it wishes the OHA Director to review. A copy of the statement must be served on the other parties, who may file a response by the 20th day after receipt of the statement. Any response must also be served on the other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) In considering the appeal, the OHA Director:
</P>
<P>(1) Will possess all powers necessary to adjudicate the appeal.
</P>
<P>(2) Will review findings of fact for clear error and conclusions of law <I>de novo;</I> and
</P>
<P>(3) Will close the record on appeal after receiving the last submission permitted under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.34   Procedure for issuing an appeal decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If there is no appeal of an initial agency decision, and the time for filing an appeal has passed, the initial agency decision becomes the final agency decision.
</P>
<P>(b) If there is an appeal of an initial agency decision, the OHA Director will issue an appeal decision based on the record of proceedings by the 60th day after the record is closed.
</P>
<P>(1) An appeal decision issued by the OHA Director will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, an order, and the factual basis for each finding, whether or not a hearing has been held on the complaint. In making such findings, the OHA Director may rely upon, but is not bound by, the report of investigation and/or the initial agency decision.
</P>
<P>(2) If the OHA Director determines that an act of retaliation has occurred, the appeal decision will include an order for any form of relief permitted under § 708.36.
</P>
<P>(3) If the OHA Director does not determine that the employer has committed an act of retaliation, the appeal decision will deny the complaint.
</P>
<P>(4) If the OHA Director determines that the complaint was properly dismissed, the appeal decision will deny the appeal.
</P>
<P>(5) If the OHA Director determines that a complaint should not have been dismissed, the appeal decision will vacate the initial agency decision and order further processing of the complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) The OHA Director will send an appeal decision to all parties and to the Head of Field Element or EC Director having jurisdiction over the contract under which the complainant was employed when the alleged retaliation occurred.
</P>
<P>(d) The appeal decision issued by the OHA Director—other than an appeal decision ordering further processing of a complaint—is the final agency decision unless a party files a petition for Secretarial review by the 30th day after receiving the appeal decision. A decision by the OHA Director to reverse a dismissal may not be the subject of a petition for Secretarial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.35" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.35   Review by the Secretary of Energy of an appeal decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By the 30th day after receiving an appeal decision from the OHA Director, any party may file a petition for Secretarial review with the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(b) By the 15th day after filing a petition for Secretarial review, the petitioner must file a statement identifying the issues that it wishes the Secretary to consider. A copy of the statement must be served on the other parties, who may file a response by the 20th day after receipt of the statement. Any response must also be served on the other parties.
</P>
<P>(c) All submissions permitted under this section must be filed with the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary (or his designee) will reverse or revise an appeal decision by the OHA Director only under extraordinary circumstances. In the event the Secretary determines that a revision in the appeal decision is appropriate, the Secretary will direct the OHA Director to issue a revised decision which is the final agency action on the complaint. In the event the Secretary determines to reverse an appeal decision dismissing the complaint, the Secretary may, as appropriate, direct the OHA Director to issue a revised decision ordering further processing of the complaint. If no further processing is ordered, the Secretary's decision is the final agency action on the complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.36" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.36   Remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General remedies.</I> If the initial or final agency decision determines that an act of retaliation has occurred, it may order:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinstatement;
</P>
<P>(2) Transfer preference;
</P>
<P>(3) Back pay;
</P>
<P>(4) Reimbursement of the complainant's reasonable costs and expenses, including attorney and expert-witness fees reasonably incurred to prepare for and participate in proceedings leading to the initial or final agency decision; or
</P>
<P>(5) Such other remedies as are deemed necessary to abate the violation and provide the complainant with relief.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interim relief.</I> If an initial agency decision contains a determination that an act of retaliation occurred, the decision may order the employer to provide the complainant with appropriate interim relief (including reinstatement) pending the outcome of any request for review of the decision by the OHA Director. Such interim relief will not include payment of any money.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.37" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.37   Reimbursement of costs and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>If a complaint is denied by a final agency decision, the complainant will not be reimbursed for the costs and expenses incurred in pursuing the complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.38" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.38   Implementation of final agency decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Head of Field Element having jurisdiction over the contract under which the complainant was employed when the alleged retaliation occurred, or EC Director, will implement a final agency decision by forwarding the decision and order to the contractor, or subcontractor, involved.
</P>
<P>(b) An employer's failure or refusal to comply with a final agency decision and order under this regulation may result in a contracting officer's decision to disallow certain costs or terminate the contract for default. In the event of a contracting officer's decision to disallow costs or terminate a contract for default, the contractor may file a claim under the disputes procedures of the contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.39" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.39   The Contract Disputes Act.</HEAD>
<P>A final agency decision and order issued pursuant to this regulation is not considered a claim by the government against a contractor or “a decision by the contracting officer” under sections 6 and 7 of the Contract Disputes Act (41 U.S.C. 605 and 41 U.S.C. 606).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.40   Notice of program requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Employers who are covered by this part must inform their employees about these regulations by posting notices in conspicuous places at the work site. These notices must include the name, address, telephone number, and website or email address of the DOE office where employees can file complaints under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.41" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.41   Referral to another agency.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding the provisions of this part, the Secretary of Energy retains the right to request that a complaint filed under this part be accepted by another Federal agency for investigation and factual determinations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.42" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.42   Extension of deadlines.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of Energy (or the Secretary's designee) may approve the extension of any deadline established by this part, and the OHA Director may approve the extension of any deadline under §§ 708.22 through 708.34 of this subpart (relating to the investigation, hearing, and OHA appeal process). Failure by the DOE to comply with timing requirements does not create a substantive right for any party to overturn a DOE decision on a complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708.43" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.4.3.5.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708.43   Affirmative duty not to retaliate.</HEAD>
<P>DOE contractors will not retaliate against any employee because the employee (or any person acting at the request of the employee) has taken an action listed in § 708.5(a) through (c).






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="709" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 709—COUNTERINTELLIGENCE EVALUATION PROGRAM 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2011, <I>et seq.,</I> 7101, <I>et seq.,</I> 7144b, <I>et seq.,</I> 7383h-1; 50 U.S.C. 2401, <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 57392, Sept. 29, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part:
</P>
<P>(a) Describes the categories of individuals who are subject for counterintelligence evaluation processing;
</P>
<P>(b) Provides guidelines for the counterintelligence evaluation process, including the use of counterintelligence-scope polygraph examinations, and for the use of event-specific polygraph examinations; and
</P>
<P>(c) Provides guidelines for protecting the rights of individual DOE employees and DOE contractor employees subject to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Access authorization</I> means an administrative determination under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, Executive Order 12968, or 10 CFR part 710 that an individual is eligible for access to classified matter or is eligible for access to, or control over, special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse personnel action</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With regard to a DOE employee, the removal, suspension for more than 14 days, reduction in grade or pay, or a furlough of 30 days or less as described in 5 U.S.C. Chapter 75; or
</P>
<P>(2) With regard to a contractor employee, the discharge, discipline, or denial of employment or promotion, or any other discrimination in regard to hire or tenure of employment or any term or condition of employment.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any industrial, educational, commercial, or other entity, assistance recipient, or licensee, including an individual who has executed an agreement with DOE for the purpose of performing under a contract, license, or other agreement, and including any subcontractors of any tier.
</P>
<P><I>Counterintelligence or CI</I> means information gathered and activities conducted to protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations or persons, or international terrorist activities, but not including personnel, physical, document or communications security programs.
</P>
<P><I>Counterintelligence evaluation or CI evaluation</I> means the process, possibly including a counterintelligence scope polygraph examination, used to make recommendations as to whether certain employees should have access to information or materials protected by this part.
</P>
<P><I>Counterintelligence program office</I> means the Office of Counterintelligence in the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence (and any successor office to which that office's duties and authorities may be reassigned).
</P>
<P><I>Counterintelligence-scope or CI-scope polygraph examination</I> means a polygraph examination using questions reasonably calculated to obtain counterintelligence information, including questions relating to espionage, sabotage, terrorism, unauthorized disclosure of classified information, deliberate damage to or malicious misuse of a United States Government information or defense system, and unauthorized contact with foreign nationals.
</P>
<P><I>Covered person</I> means an applicant for employment with DOE or a DOE contractor, a DOE employee, a DOE contractor employee, and an assignee or detailee to DOE from another agency.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy including the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign nexus</I> means specific indications that a covered person is or may be engaged in clandestine or unreported relationships with foreign powers, organizations or persons, or international terrorists; contacts with foreign intelligence services; or other hostile activities directed against DOE facilities, property, personnel, programs or contractors by or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations or persons, or international terrorists.
</P>
<P><I>Human Reliability Program</I> means the program under 10 CFR part 712.
</P>
<P><I>Intelligence</I> means information relating to the capabilities, intentions, or activities of foreign governments or elements thereof, foreign organizations or foreign persons.
</P>
<P><I>Local commuting area</I> means the geographic area that usually constitutes one area for employment purposes. It includes any population center (or two or more neighboring ones) and the surrounding localities in which people live and can reasonably be expected to travel back and forth daily to their usual employment.
</P>
<P><I>Materials</I> means any “nuclear explosive” as defined in 10 CFR 712.3, and any “special nuclear material,” hazardous “source material,” and hazardous “byproduct material” as those terms are defined by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2014).
</P>
<P><I>National security information</I> means information that has been determined pursuant to Executive Order 12958, as amended by Executive Order 13292, or any predecessor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classified status when in documentary form.
</P>
<P><I>NNSA</I> means DOE's National Nuclear Security Administration.
</P>
<P><I>No opinion</I> means an evaluation of a polygraph test by a polygraph examiner in which the polygraph examiner cannot render an opinion.
</P>
<P><I>Polygraph examination</I> means all activities that take place between a Polygraph Examiner and an examinee (person taking the test) during a specific series of interactions, including the pretest interview, the use of the polygraph instrument to collect physiological data from the examinee while presenting a series of tests, the test data analysis phase, and the post-test phase.
</P>
<P><I>Polygraph examination records</I> means all records of the polygraph examination, including the polygraph report, audio-video recording, and the polygraph consent form.
</P>
<P><I>Polygraph instrument</I> means a diagnostic instrument used during a polygraph examination, which is capable of monitoring, recording and/or measuring at a minimum, respiratory, electrodermal, and cardiovascular activity as a response to verbal or visual stimuli.
</P>
<P><I>Polygraph report</I> means a document that may contain identifying data of the examinee, a synopsis of the basis for which the examination was conducted, the relevant questions utilized, and the examiner's conclusion.
</P>
<P><I>Polygraph test</I> means that portion of the polygraph examination during which the polygraph instrument collects physiological data based upon the individual's responses to questions from the examiner.
</P>
<P><I>Program Manager</I> means a DOE official designated by the Secretary or the Head of a DOE Element to make an access determination under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Random</I> means a statistical process whereby eligible employees have an equal probability of selection for a CI evaluation each time the selection process occurs.
</P>
<P><I>Regular and routine</I> means access by individuals without further permission more than two times per calendar quarter.
</P>
<P><I>Relevant questions</I> are those questions used during the polygraph examination that pertain directly to the issues for which the examination is being conducted.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted data</I> means all data concerning the design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons; the production of special nuclear material; or the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but does not include data declassified or removed from the restricted data category pursuant to section 142 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954.
</P>
<P><I>Secret</I> means the security classification that is applied to DOE-generated information or material the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to the national security.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy or the Secretary's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Significant response</I> means an opinion that the analysis of the polygraph charts reveals consistent, significant, timely physiological responses to the relevant questions.
</P>
<P><I>Special Access Program or SAP</I> means a program established under Executive Order 12958 for a specific class of classified information that imposes safeguarding and access requirements that exceed those normally required for information at the same classification level.
</P>
<P><I>Suspend</I> means temporarily to withdraw an employee's access to information or materials protected under § 709.3 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>System Administrator</I> means any individual who has privileged system, data, or software access that permits that individual to exceed the authorization of a normal system user and thereby override, alter, or negate integrity verification and accountability procedures or other automated and/or technical safeguards provided by the systems security assets for normal users.
</P>
<P><I>Top Secret</I> means the security classification that is applied to DOE-generated information or material the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security.
</P>
<P><I>Unresolved issues</I> means an opinion by a CI evaluator that the analysis of the information developed during a CI evaluation remains inconclusive and needs further clarification before a CI access recommendation can be made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.3   Covered persons subject to a CI evaluation and polygraph.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory CI evaluation.</I> Except as provided in § 709.5 of this part with regard to waivers, a CI evaluation, which may include a CI-scope polygraph examination, is required for any covered person in any category under paragraph (b) of this section who will have or has access to classified information or materials protected under this paragraph. Such an evaluation is required for covered persons who are incumbent employees at least once every five years. DOE, in its sole discretion, may require a CI-scope polygraph examination:
</P>
<P>(1) If the CI evaluation reveals foreign nexus issues;
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered person who is an incumbent employee is to be assigned within DOE to activities involving another agency and a polygraph examination is required as a condition of access to the activities by the other agency; or
</P>
<P>(3) If a covered person who is an incumbent employee is proposed to be assigned or detailed to another agency and the receiving agency requests DOE to administer a polygraph examination as a condition of the assignment or detail.
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph (a) of this section applies to covered persons:
</P>
<P>(1) In an intelligence or counterintelligence program office (or with programmatic reporting responsibility to an intelligence or counterintelligence program office) because of access to classified intelligence information, or sources, or methods;
</P>
<P>(2) With access to Sensitive Compartmented Information;
</P>
<P>(3) With access to information that is protected within a non-intelligence Special Access Program (SAP) designated by the Secretary;
</P>
<P>(4) With regular and routine access to Top Secret Restricted Data;
</P>
<P>(5) With regular and routine access to Top Secret National Security Information; and
</P>
<P>(6) Designated, with approval of the Secretary, on the basis of a risk assessment consistent with paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, by a Program Manager for the following DOE offices and programs (and any successors to those offices and programs): The Office of the Secretary; the Human Reliability Program; the National Nuclear Security Administration (including the Office of Emergency Operations); and the Office of Health, Safety and Security.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Random CI evaluation.</I> Except as provided in § 709.5 of this part with regard to waivers, DOE may require a CI evaluation, including a CI-scope polygraph examination, of covered persons who are incumbent employees selected on a random basis from the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All covered persons identified in § 709.3(b);
</P>
<P>(2) All employees in the Office of Independent Oversight (or any successor office) within the Office of Health, Safety and Security because of access to classified information regarding the inspection and assessment of safeguards and security functions, including cyber security, of the DOE;
</P>
<P>(3) All employees in other elements of the Office of Health, Safety and Security (or any successor office) because of their access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(4) All employees in the NNSA Office of Emergency Operations (OEO or any successor office) including DOE field offices or contractors who support OEO because of their access to classified information;
</P>
<P>(5) All employees with regular and routine access to classified information concerning: The design and function of nuclear weapons use control systems, features, and their components (currently designated as Sigma 15); vulnerability of nuclear weapons to deliberate unauthorized nuclear detonation (currently designated as Sigma 14); and improvised nuclear device concepts or designs; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any system administrator with access to a system containing classified information, as identified by the DOE or NNSA Chief Information Officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specific incident polygraph examinations.</I> In response to specific facts or circumstances with potential counterintelligence implications with a defined foreign nexus, the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence (or, in the case of a covered person in NNSA, the Administrator of NNSA, after consideration of the recommendation of the Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence) may require a covered person with access to DOE classified information or materials to consent to and take an event-specific polygraph examination. Except as otherwise determined by the Secretary, on the recommendation of the appropriate Program Manager, if a covered person with access to DOE classified information or materials refuses to consent to or take a polygraph examination under this paragraph, then the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence (or, in the case of a covered person in NNSA, the Administrator of NNSA, after consideration of the recommendation of the Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence) shall direct the denial of access (if any) to classified information and materials protected under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, and shall refer the matter to the Office of Health, Safety and Security for a review of access authorization eligibility under 10 CFR part 710. In addition, in the circumstances described in this paragraph, any covered person with access to DOE classified information or material may request a polygraph examination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Risk assessment.</I> For the purpose of deciding whether to designate or remove employees for mandatory CI evaluations under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, Program Managers may consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Access on a non-regular and non-routine basis to Top Secret Restricted Data or Top Secret National Security Information or the nature and extent of access to other classified information;
</P>
<P>(2) Unescorted or unrestricted access to significant quantities or forms of special nuclear materials; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other factors concerning the employee's responsibilities that are relevant to determining risk of unauthorized disclosure of classified information or materials.
</P>
<P>(f) Based on the risk assessments conducted under paragraph (e) of this section and in consultation with the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence, the Program Manager shall provide recommendations as to positions to be designated or removed under paragraph (b)(6) of this section for approval by the Secretary. Recommendations shall include a summary of the basis for designation or removal of the positions and of the views of the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence as to the recommendations.
</P>
<P>(g) Not less than once every calendar year quarter, the responsible Program Manager must provide a list of all incumbent employees who are covered persons under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section to the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.4   Notification of a CI evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a polygraph examination is scheduled, DOE must notify the covered person, in accordance with § 709.21 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Any job announcement or posting with respect to any position with access to classified information or materials protected under § 709.3(b) and (c) of this part should indicate that DOE may condition the selection of an individual for the position (709.3(b)) or retention in that position (709.3(b) and (c)) upon his or her successful completion of a CI evaluation, including a CI-scope polygraph examination.
</P>
<P>(c) Advance notice will be provided to the affected Program Manager and laboratory/site/facility director of the covered persons who are included in any random examinations that are administered in accordance with provisions at § 709.3(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.5   Waiver of polygraph examination requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Upon a waiver request submitted under paragraph (b) of this section, DOE may waive the CI-scope polygraph examination under § 709.3 of this part for:
</P>
<P>(1) Any covered person based upon certification from another Federal agency that the covered person has successfully completed a full scope or CI-scope polygraph examination administered within the previous five years;
</P>
<P>(2) Any covered person who is being treated for a medical or psychological condition that, based upon consultation with the covered person and appropriate medical personnel, would preclude the covered person from being tested; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any covered person in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of Waiver Requests.</I> A covered person may submit a request for waiver under this section, and the request shall assert the basis for the waiver sought and shall be submitted, in writing, to the Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence, at the following address: U.S. Department of Energy, Attn: Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disposition of Waiver Requests.</I> The Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence, shall issue a written decision on a request for waiver prior to the administration of a polygraph examination. The Director shall obtain the concurrence of the Secretary in his or her decision on a request for waiver under § 709.5(a)(3) and shall obtain the concurrence of the Administrator of NNSA in a decision on a waiver request from an NNSA covered person under § 709.5(a)(1) and § 709.5(a)(2). Notification of approval of a waiver request will contain information regarding the duration of the waiver and any other relevant information. Notification of the denial of a waiver request will state the basis for the denial and state that the covered person may request reconsideration of the denial by the Secretary under § 709.5(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration Rights.</I> If a waiver is denied, the covered person may file with the Secretary a request for reconsideration of the denial within 30 days of receipt of the decision, and the Secretary's decision will be issued prior to the administration of a polygraph examination.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—CI Evaluation Protocols and Protection of National Security</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.10   Scope of a counterintelligence evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>A counterintelligence evaluation consists of a counterintelligence-based review of the covered person's personnel security file and review of other relevant information available to DOE in accordance with applicable guidelines and authorities. As provided in § 709.3(b), DOE also may require a CI-scope polygraph examination. As provided for in § 709.3(c), a CI evaluation, if conducted on a random basis, will include a CI-scope polygraph examination. As set forth in § 709.15(b) and (c) of this part, a counterintelligence evaluation may also include other pertinent measures to address and resolve counterintelligence issues in accordance with Executive Order 12333, the DOE “Procedures for Intelligence Activities,” and other relevant laws, guidelines and authorities, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.11   Topics within the scope of a polygraph examination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may ask questions in a specific incident polygraph examination that are appropriate for a CI-scope examination or that are relevant to the counterintelligence concerns with a defined foreign nexus raised by the specific incident.
</P>
<P>(b) A CI-scope polygraph examination is limited to topics concerning the covered person's involvement in espionage, sabotage, terrorism, unauthorized disclosure of classified information, unauthorized foreign contacts, and deliberate damage to or malicious misuse of a U.S. government information or defense system.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE may not ask questions that:
</P>
<P>(1) Probe a covered person's thoughts or beliefs;
</P>
<P>(2) Concern conduct that has no CI implication with a defined foreign nexus; or
</P>
<P>(3) Concern conduct that has no direct relevance to a CI evaluation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.12   Defining polygraph examination questions.</HEAD>
<P>The examiner determines the exact wording of the polygraph questions based on the examiner's pretest interview of the covered person, the covered person's understanding of the questions, established test question procedures from the Department of Defense Polygraph Institute, and other input from the covered person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.13   Implications of refusal to take a polygraph examination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to § 709.14 of this part, a covered person may refuse to take a polygraph examination pursuant to § 709.3 of this part, and a covered person being examined may terminate the examination at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) If a covered person terminates a polygraph examination prior to the completion of the examination, DOE may treat that termination as a refusal to complete a CI evaluation under § 709.14 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.14   Consequences of a refusal to complete a CI evaluation including a polygraph examination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a covered person is an applicant for employment or assignment or a potential detailee or assignee with regard to an identified position and the covered person refuses to complete a CI evaluation including a polygraph examination required by this part as an initial condition of access, DOE and its contractors must refuse to employ, assign, or detail that covered person with regard to the identified position.
</P>
<P>(b) If a covered person is an incumbent employee in an identified position subject to a CI evaluation including a polygraph examination under § 709.3(b), (c), or (d), and the covered person refuses to complete a CI evaluation, DOE and its contractors must deny that covered person access to classified information and materials protected under § 709.3(b) and (c) and may take other actions consistent with the denial of access, including administrative review of access authorization under 10 CFR part 710. If the covered person is a DOE employee, DOE may reassign or realign the DOE employee's duties, or take other action, consistent with that denial of access and applicable personnel regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) If a DOE employee refuses to take a CI polygraph examination, DOE may not record the fact of that refusal in the employee's personnel file.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.15   Processing counterintelligence evaluation results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the reviews under § 709.10 or a polygraph examination present unresolved foreign nexus issues that raise significant questions about the covered person's access to classified information or materials protected under § 709.3 of this part that justified the counterintelligence evaluation, DOE may undertake a more comprehensive CI evaluation that, in appropriate circumstances, may include evaluation of financial, credit, travel, and other relevant information to resolve any identified issues. Participation by Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence personnel in any such evaluation is subject to Executive Order 12333, the DOE “Procedures for Intelligence Activities,” and other relevant laws, guidelines, and authorities as may be applicable with respect to such matters.
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence, in coordination with NNSA with regard to issues concerning a NNSA covered person, may conduct an in-depth interview with the covered person, may request relevant information from the covered person, and may arrange for the covered person to undergo an additional polygraph examination.
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever information is developed by the Office of Health, Safety and Security indicating counterintelligence issues, the Director of that Office shall notify the Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence.
</P>
<P>(d) If, in carrying out a comprehensive CI evaluation of a covered person under this section, there are significant unresolved issues, not exclusively related to polygraph examination results, indicating counterintelligence issues, then the Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence shall notify the DOE national laboratory director (if applicable), plant manager (if applicable) and program manager(s) for whom the individual works that the covered person is undergoing a CI evaluation pursuant to this part and that the evaluation is not yet complete.
</P>
<P>(e) Utilizing the DOE security criteria in 10 CFR part 710, the Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence, makes a determination whether a covered person completing a CI evaluation has made disclosures that warrant referral, as appropriate, to the Office of Health, Safety and Security or the Manager of the applicable DOE/NNSA Site, Operations Office or Service Center.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.16   Application of Counterintelligence Evaluation Review Boards in reaching conclusions regarding CI evaluations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If the results of a counterintelligence evaluation are not dispositive, the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence may convene a Counterintelligence Evaluation Review Board to obtain the individual views of each member as assistance in resolving counterintelligence issues identified during a counterintelligence evaluation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Composition.</I> A Counterintelligence Evaluation Review Board is chaired by the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence (or his/her designee) and includes representation from the appropriate line Program Managers, lab/site/facility management (if a contractor employee is involved), NNSA, if the unresolved issues involve an NNSA covered person, the DOE Office of Health, Safety and Security and security directors for the DOE or NNSA site or operations office.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Process.</I> When making a final recommendation under § 709.17 of this part, to a Program Manager, the Director of Intelligence and Counterintelligence shall report on the Counterintelligence Evaluation Review Board's views, including any consensus recommendation, or if the members are divided, a summary of majority and dissenting views.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.17" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.2.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.17   Final disposition of CI evaluation findings and recommendations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following completion of a CI evaluation, the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence must recommend, in writing, to the appropriate Program Manager that the covered person's access be approved or retained, or denied or revoked.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Program Manager agrees with the recommendation, the Program Manager notifies the covered person that the covered person's access has been approved or retained, or denied or revoked.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Program Manager disagrees with the recommendation of the Director, Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence, the matter is referred to the Secretary for a final decision.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Program Manager denies or revokes a DOE employee's access, DOE may reassign the employee or realign the employee's duties within the local commuting area or take other actions consistent with the denial of access.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Program Manager revokes the access of a covered person assigned or detailed to DOE, DOE may remove the assignee or detailee from access to the information that justified the CI evaluation and return the assignee or detailee to the agency of origin.
</P>
<P>(f) Covered persons whose access is denied or revoked may request reconsideration by the head of the relevant DOE element.
</P>
<P>(g) For cases involving a question of loyalty to the United States, the Director of the Office of Intelligence and Counterintelligence may refer the matter to the FBI as required by section 145d of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954. For cases indicating that classified information is being, or may have been, disclosed in an unauthorized manner to a foreign power or an agent of a foreign power, DOE is required by 50 U.S.C. 402a(e) to refer the matter to the Federal Bureau of Investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Safeguarding Privacy and Employee Rights</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.21   Requirements for notification of a polygraph examination.</HEAD>
<P>When a polygraph examination is scheduled, the DOE must notify the covered person, in writing, of the date, time, and place of the polygraph examination, the provisions for a medical waiver, and the covered person's right to obtain and consult with legal counsel or to secure another representative prior to the examination. DOE must provide a copy of this part to the covered person. The covered person must receive the notification at least ten days, excluding weekend days and holidays, before the time of the examination except when good cause is shown or when the covered person waives the advance notice provision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.22   Right to counsel or other representation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At the covered person's own expense, a covered person has the right to obtain and consult with legal counsel or another representative. However, the counsel or representative may not be present during the polygraph examination. Except for interpreters and signers, no one other than the covered person and the examiner may be present in the examination room during the polygraph examination.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered person has the right to consult with legal counsel or another representative at any time during an interview conducted in accordance with § 709.15 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.23   Obtaining consent to a polygraph examination.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may not administer a polygraph examination unless DOE:
</P>
<P>(a) Notifies the covered person of the polygraph examination in writing in accordance with § 709.21 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(b) Obtains written consent from the covered person prior to the polygraph examination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.24   Other information provided to a covered person prior to a polygraph examination.</HEAD>
<P>Before administering the polygraph examination, the examiner must:
</P>
<P>(a) Inform the covered person that audio and video recording of each polygraph examination session will be made, and that other observation devices, such as two-way mirrors and observation rooms, also may be employed;
</P>
<P>(b) Explain to the covered person the characteristics and nature of the polygraph instrument and examination;
</P>
<P>(c) Explain to the covered person the physical operation of the instrument and the procedures to be followed during the examination;
</P>
<P>(d) Review with the covered person the relevant questions to be asked during the examination;
</P>
<P>(e) Advise the covered person of the covered person right against self-incrimination; and
</P>
<P>(f) Provide the covered person with a pre-addressed envelope, which may be used to submit a quality assurance questionnaire, comments or complaints concerning the examination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.25   Limits on use of polygraph examination results that reflect “Significant Response” or “No Opinion”.</HEAD>
<P>DOE or its contractors may not:
</P>
<P>(a) Take an adverse personnel action against a covered person or make an adverse access recommendation solely on the basis of a polygraph examination result of “significant response” or “no opinion”; or
</P>
<P>(b) Use a polygraph examination that reflects “significant response” or “no opinion” as a substitute for any other required investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.26" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.26   Protection of confidentiality of CI evaluation records to include polygraph examination records and other pertinent documentation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE owns all CI evaluation records, including polygraph examination records and reports and other evaluation documentation.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE maintains all CI evaluation records, including polygraph examination records and other pertinent documentation acquired in conjunction with a counterintelligence evaluation, in a system of records established under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a).
</P>
<P>(c) DOE must afford the full privacy protection provided by law to information regarding a covered person's refusal to participate in a CI evaluation to include a polygraph examination and the completion of other pertinent documentation.
</P>
<P>(d) With the exception of the polygraph report, all other polygraph examination records are destroyed ninety days after the CI evaluation is completed, provided that a favorable recommendation has been made to grant or continue the access to the position. If a recommendation is made to deny or revoke access to the information or involvement in the activities that justified conducting the CI evaluation, then all of the polygraph examination records are retained until the final resolution of any request for reconsideration by the covered person or the completion of any ongoing investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Polygraph Examination and Examiner Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.31   DOE standards for polygraph examiners and polygraph examinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE adheres to the procedures and standards established by the Department of Defense Polygraph Institute (DODPI). DOE administers only DODPI approved testing formats.
</P>
<P>(b) A polygraph examiner may administer no more than five polygraph examinations in any twenty-four hour period. This does not include those instances in which a covered person voluntarily terminates an examination prior to the actual testing phase.
</P>
<P>(c) The polygraph examiner must be certified to conduct polygraph examinations under this part by the DOE Psychophysiological Detection of Deception/Polygraph Program Quality Control Official.
</P>
<P>(d) To be certified under paragraph (c) of this section, an examiner must have the following minimum qualifications:
</P>
<P>(1) The examiner must be an experienced CI or criminal investigator with extensive additional training in using computerized instrumentation in Psychophysiological Detection of Deception and in psychology, physiology, interviewing, and interrogation.
</P>
<P>(2) The examiner must have a favorably adjudicated single-scope background investigation, complete a CI-scope polygraph examination, and must hold a “Q” access authorization, which is necessary for access to Secret Restricted Data and Top Secret National Security Information. In addition, he or she must have been granted SCI access approval.
</P>
<P>(3) The examiner must receive basic Forensic Psychophysiological Detection of Deception training from the DODPI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.5.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.32   Training requirements for polygraph examiners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Examiners must complete an initial training course of thirteen weeks, or longer, in conformance with the procedures and standards established by DODPI.
</P>
<P>(b) Examiners must undergo annual continuing education for a minimum of forty hours training within the discipline of Forensic Psychophysiological Detection of Deception.
</P>
<P>(c) The following organizations provide acceptable curricula to meet the training requirement of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) American Polygraph Association,
</P>
<P>(2) American Association of Police Polygraphists, and
</P>
<P>(3) Department of Defense Polygraph Institute.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="710" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 710—PROCEDURES FOR DETERMINING ELIGIBILITY FOR ACCESS TO CLASSIFIED MATTER AND SPECIAL NUCLEAR MATERIAL OR ELIGIBILITY TO HOLD A SENSITIVE POSITION




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2165, 2201, 5815, 7101, <I>et seq.,</I> 7383h-l; 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 10865, 3 CFR 1959-1963 comp., p. 398, as amended, 3 CFR Chap. IV; E.O. 13526, 3 CFR 2010 Comp., pp. 298-327 (or successor orders); E.O. 12968, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p. 391; E.O. 13467, 3 CFR 2008 Comp., p. 196.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the procedures for determining the eligibility of individuals described in § 710.2 for access to classified matter or special nuclear material, pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, or for access to national security information in accordance with E.O. 13526 (Classified National Security Information), or eligibility to hold a sensitive position pursuant to E.O. 13467 (Reforming Processes Related to Suitability for Government Employment, Fitness for Contractor Employees, and Eligibility for Access to Classified National Security Information).
</P>
<P>(b) This part implements: E.O. 12968, 60 FR 40245 (August 2, 1995), as amended; E.O. 13526, 75 FR 707 (January 5, 2010) as amended; E.O. 10865, 25 FR 1583 (February 24, 1960), as amended; E.O. 13467, 73 FR 38103 (June 30, 2008) as amended; and the National Security Adjudicative Guidelines, issued as SEAD 4, by the Director of National Intelligence on December 10, 2016, or successor directive.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 59595, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures outlined in this part apply to determinations of eligibility for access authorization or eligibility to hold a sensitive position for:
</P>
<P>(1) Employees (including consultants) of, and applicants for employment with, contractors and agents of the DOE;
</P>
<P>(2) Access permittees of the DOE and their employees (including consultants) and applicants for employment;
</P>
<P>(3) Employees (including consultants) of, and applicants for employment with, the DOE; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other persons designated by the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent the procedures in this part apply to determinations of eligibility for access to classified information or special nuclear material, they shall also apply to determinations of eligibility to hold a sensitive position, except as specifically noted.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 59595, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.4   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of DOE to provide for the security of its programs in a manner consistent with traditional American concepts of justice and fairness. To this end, the Secretary has established procedures that will afford those individuals described in § 710.2 the opportunity for administrative review of questions concerning their eligibility for access authorization or eligibility to hold a sensitive position.
</P>
<P>(b) It is also the policy of DOE that none of the procedures established for determining eligibility for access authorization or eligibility to hold a sensitive position shall be used for an improper purpose, including any attempt to coerce, restrain, threaten, intimidate, or retaliate against individuals for exercising their rights under any statute, regulation or DOE directive. Any DOE officer or employee violating, or causing the violation of this policy, shall be subject to appropriate disciplinary action.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 59595, July 23, 2024] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Access authorization</I> means an administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified matter or is eligible for access to, or control over, special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Judge</I> means a DOE attorney appointed by the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals, pursuant to § 710.25 of this part. An Administrative Judge shall be a U.S. citizen and shall hold a Q access authorization.
</P>
<P><I>Classified matter</I> means the material of thought or expression that is classified pursuant to statute or Executive Order.
</P>
<P><I>Continuous vetting</I> means reviewing the background of an individual described in § 710.2(a)(1) through (4) at any time to determine whether that individual continues to meet applicable requirements for access authorization or a sensitive position.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director, DOE Office of Departmental Personnel Security.
</P>
<P><I>DOE Counsel</I> means a DOE attorney assigned to represent DOE in proceedings under this part. DOE Counsel shall be a U.S. citizen and shall hold a Q access authorization.
</P>
<P><I>Local Director of Security</I> means the individual with primary responsibility for safeguards and security at the Idaho Operations Office; for the Office of Environmental Management (EM), the individual(s) designated in writing by the Senior Advisor, or delegee; for the Office of Science (SC), the individual designated in writing by the Deputy Director for Operations; for Naval Reactors, the individual(s) designated under the authority of the Director, Security Naval Nuclear Propulsion Program; for the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA), the individual(s) designated in writing by the Chief, Defense Nuclear Security; and for DOE Headquarters cases the Director, Office of Headquarters Personnel Security Operations.
</P>
<P><I>Manager</I> means the senior Federal official at the Idaho, Richland (to include the Office of River Protection) Operations Offices; for the Office of Environmental Management, the individual(s) designated in writing by the Senior Advisor, or delegee; for the Office of Science (SC), the individual designated in writing by the Deputy Director for Operations; for Naval Reactors, the individual designated under the authority of the Director, Security Naval Nuclear Propulsion Program; for the NNSA, the individual designated in writing by the NNSA Administrator or Deputy Administrator; and for DOE Headquarters cases, the Director, Office of Headquarters Security Vetting.


</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy, as provided by section 201 of the Department of Energy Organization Act.
</P>
<P><I>Sensitive position</I> means any position within or in support of a department or agency, the occupant of which could bring about, by virtue of the nature of the position, a material adverse effect on the national security, regardless of whether the occupant has access to classified information, and regardless of whether the occupant is an employee, a military service member, or a contractor. Sensitive positions for the purpose of this part only include individuals designated by DOE in non-critical sensitive, critical sensitive or special sensitive positions.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means plutonium, uranium enriched in the isotope 233, or in the isotope 235, and any other material which, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, has been determined to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, not including source material.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 59595, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Eligibility for Access to Classified Matter or Special Nuclear Material</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.6   Cooperation by the individual.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) It is the responsibility of the individual to provide full, frank, and truthful answers to DOE's relevant and material questions, and when requested, to furnish or authorize others to furnish information that the DOE deems pertinent to the individual's eligibility for access authorization. This obligation to cooperate applies when completing security forms, during the course of a personnel security background investigation, reinvestigation or continuous vetting, and at any stage of DOE's processing of the individual's access authorization request, including but not limited to, personnel security consultations, DOE-sponsored mental health evaluations, and other authorized DOE actions under this part. The individual may elect not to cooperate; however, such refusal may prevent DOE from reaching an affirmative finding required for granting or continuing the access authorization. In this event, for incumbents any access authorization then in effect may be administratively withdrawn or, for applicants, further processing may be administratively terminated.


</P>
<P>(2) It is the responsibility of an individual subject to 10 CFR 709.3(d) to consent to and take a polygraph examination required by part 709. A refusal to consent to or take such an examination may prevent DOE from reaching an affirmative finding required for continuing access authorization. In this event, any access authorization then in effect may be administratively withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(b) If the individual believes that the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section have been inappropriately applied, the individual may file a written appeal of the action with the Director within 30 calendar days of the date the individual was notified of the action.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of the written appeal, the Director shall conduct an inquiry as to the circumstances involved in the action and shall, within 30 calendar days of receipt of the written appeal, notify the individual, in writing, of their decision. If the Director determines that the action was inappropriate, the Director shall notify the Manager that access authorization must be reinstated or, for applicants, that the individual must continue to be processed for access authorization. If the Director determines the action was appropriate, the Director shall notify the individual of this fact in writing. The Director's decision is final and not subject to further review or appeal.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 59596, July 23, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.7   Application of the National Security Adjudicative Guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The decision on an access authorization request is a comprehensive, common-sense judgment, made after consideration of all relevant information, favorable and unfavorable, as to whether the granting or continuation of access authorization will not endanger the common defense and security and is clearly consistent with the national interest. Any doubt as to an individual's access authorization eligibility shall be resolved in favor of the national security.
</P>
<P>(b) All such determinations shall be based upon the application of the National Security Adjudicative Guidelines (Adjudicative Guidelines), or any successor national standard issued under authority of the President.
</P>
<P>(c) Each Adjudicative Guideline sets forth a series of concerns that may create a doubt regarding an individual's eligibility for access authorization. In resolving these concerns, all DOE officials involved in the decision-making process shall consider: The nature, extent, and seriousness of the conduct; the circumstances surrounding the conduct, to include knowledgeable participation; the frequency and recency of the conduct; the age and maturity of the individual at the time of the conduct; the voluntariness of participation; the absence or presence of rehabilitation or reformation and other pertinent behavioral changes; the motivation for the conduct; the potential for pressure, coercion, exploitation, or duress; the likelihood of continuation or recurrence; and other relevant and material factors.
</P>
<P>(d) If the investigative results report of an individual or other reliable information tend to establish the validity and significance of one or more areas of concern as set forth in the Adjudicative Guidelines, such information shall be regarded as derogatory and create a question as to the individual's access authorization eligibility. Absent any derogatory information, a favorable determination will be made as to access authorization eligibility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 57107, Dec. 4, 2017; 89 FR 59596, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.8   Action on derogatory information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a question arises as to the individual's access authorization eligibility, the Local Director of Security shall authorize the conduct of a consultation with the individual, or other appropriate actions and, on the basis of the results of such consultation or actions, may authorize the granting of the individual's access authorization. If, in the opinion of the Local Director of Security, the question as to the individual's access authorization eligibility has not been favorably resolved, the Local Director of Security shall submit the matter to the Manager with a recommendation that authority be obtained to process the individual's case under administrative review procedures set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Manager agrees that unresolved derogatory information is present and that appropriate attempts to resolve such derogatory information have been unsuccessful, the Manager shall notify the Director of the proposal to conduct an administrative review proceeding, accompanied by an explanation of the security concerns and a duplicate Personnel Security File. If the Manager believes that the derogatory information has been favorably resolved, the Manager shall direct that access authorization be granted for the individual. The Manager may also direct the Local Director of Security to obtain additional information prior to deciding whether to grant the individual access authorization or to submit a request for authority to conduct an administrative review proceeding. A decision in the matter shall be rendered by the Manager within 10 calendar days of its receipt.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of the Manager's notification, the Director shall review the matter and confer with the Manager on:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution of administrative review proceedings set forth in §§ 710.20 through 710.30;
</P>
<P>(2) The granting of access authorization; or
</P>
<P>(3) Other actions as the Director deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director shall act pursuant to one of these options within 30 calendar days of receipt of the Manager's notification unless an extension is granted by the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023; 89 FR 59596, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.9   Suspension of access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If derogatory information is received, the Local Director of Security shall authorize action(s), to be taken on an expedited basis, to resolve the question pursuant to § 710.8(a). If the question as to the individual's continued access authorization eligibility is not resolved in favor of the individual, the Local Director of Security shall submit the matter to the Manager with the recommendation that the individual's access authorization be suspended pending the final determination resulting from the procedures set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) If the information received is determined to represent an immediate threat to national security or to the safety or security of a DOE facility or employee, or is determined to be so serious in nature that action(s) to resolve the matter as set forth in § 710.8(b) are not practical or advisable, the Local Director of Security shall immediately submit the matter to the Manager with a recommendation that the individual's access authorization be suspended pending the final determination resulting from the procedures set forth in this part. The Manager shall either authorize the immediate suspension of access authorization, or shall direct the Local Director of Security to take action(s) as set forth in § 710.8(b), in an expedited manner, to resolve the matter.
</P>
<P>(c) The Manager shall, within two working days of receipt of the recommendation from the Local Director of Security to suspend the individual's DOE access authorization:
</P>
<P>(1) Approve the suspension of access authorization; or
</P>
<P>(2) Direct the continuation of access authorization, or
</P>
<P>(3) Take or direct other such action(s) as the Manager deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon suspension of an individual's access authorization pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the individual, the individual's employer, any other DOE office or program having an access authorization interest in the individual, and, if known, any other government agency where the individual holds an access authorization, security clearance, or access approval, or to which the DOE has certified the individual's DOE access authorization, shall be notified immediately in writing. The appropriate DOE database for tracking access authorizations and related actions shall also be updated. Notification to the individual shall reflect, in general terms, the reason(s) why the suspension has been affected. Pending final determination of the individual's eligibility for access authorization from the operation of the procedures set forth in this part, the individual shall not be afforded access to classified matter, special nuclear material, or unescorted access to security areas that require the individual to possess a DOE access authorization.
</P>
<P>(e) Written notification to the individual shall include notification that if the individual believes that the action to suspend their access authorization was taken as retaliation against the individual for having made a protected disclosure, as defined in Presidential Policy Directive 19, <I>Protecting Whistleblowers with Access to Classified Information,</I> or any successor directive issued under the authority of the President, the individual may submit a request for review of this matter directly to the DOE Office of the Inspector General. Such a request shall have no impact upon the continued processing of the individual's access authorization eligibility under this part. If the individual receives an adverse final agency determination in response to such request, the individual may submit an appeal of that decision to the Director of National Intelligence, in accordance with the Security Executive Agent Directive 9, Appellate Review of Retaliation Regarding Security Clearances and Access Determinations, or to the Inspector General of the Intelligence Community, in accordance with Intelligence Community Directive 120, Intelligence Community Whistleblower Protection.


</P>
<P>(f) Following the decision to suspend an individual's DOE access authorization pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Manager shall immediately notify the Director in writing of the action and the reason(s) therefor. In addition, the Manager, within 10 calendar days of the date of suspension (unless an extension of time is approved by the Director), shall notify the Director in writing of their proposal to conduct an administrative review proceeding, accompanied by an explanation of its basis and a duplicate Personnel Security File.
</P>
<P>(g) Upon receipt of the Manager's notification, the Director shall review the matter and confer with the Manager on:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution of administrative review procedures set forth in §§ 710.20 through 710.30; or
</P>
<P>(2) The reinstatement of access authorization; or
</P>
<P>(3) Other actions as the Director deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) The Director shall act pursuant to one of these options within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the Manager's notification unless an extension is granted by the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023; 89 FR 59596, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.20   Purpose of administrative review.</HEAD>
<P>These procedures govern the conduct of the administrative review of questions concerning an individual's eligibility for access authorization when it is determined that such questions cannot be favorably resolved by consultation or other action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 59596, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.21   Notice to the individual.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless an extension is authorized in writing by the Director, within 30 calendar days of receipt of authority to institute administrative review procedures, the Manager shall prepare and deliver to the individual a notification letter approved by the local Office of Chief Counsel, or the Office of the General Counsel for Headquarters cases. Where practicable, the letter shall be delivered to the individual in person.
</P>
<P>(b) The letter shall state:
</P>
<P>(1) That reliable information in the possession of DOE has created a substantial doubt concerning the individual's eligibility for access authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) The information which creates a substantial doubt regarding the individual's access authorization eligibility (which shall be as comprehensive and detailed as the national security permits) and why that information creates such doubt.
</P>
<P>(3) That the individual has the option to have the substantial doubt regarding eligibility for access authorization resolved in one of two ways:
</P>
<P>(i) By the Manager, without a hearing, on the basis of the existing information in the case; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By personal appearance before an Administrative Judge (a “hearing”).
</P>
<P>(4) That, if the individual desires a hearing, the individual must, within 20 calendar days of the date of receipt of the notification letter, make a written request for a hearing to the Manager from whom the letter was received.
</P>
<P>(5) That the individual may also file with the Manager the individual's written answer to the reported information which raises the question of the individual's eligibility for access authorization, and that, if the individual requests a hearing without filing a written answer, the request shall be deemed a general denial of all of the reported information.
</P>
<P>(6) That, if the individual so requests, a hearing shall be scheduled before an Administrative Judge, with due regard for the convenience and necessity of the parties or their representatives, for the purpose of affording the individual an opportunity of supporting his eligibility for access authorization. The Administrative Judge shall decide whether the hearing will be conducted via video teleconferencing.
</P>
<P>(7) That, if a hearing is requested, the individual will have the right to appear personally before an Administrative Judge or, at the discretion of the Administrative Judge, via video teleconferencing; to present evidence in their own behalf, through witnesses, or by documents, or both; and, subject to the limitations set forth in § 710.26(g), to be present during the entire hearing and be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel or other representative of the individual's choosing and at the individual's own expense at every stage of the proceedings. Such representative or counsel, if applicable, shall be identified in writing to the Administrative Judge and DOE Counsel and authorized by the individual to receive all correspondence, transcripts and other documents pertaining to the proceedings under this part.
</P>
<P>(8) That the individual's failure to file a timely written request for a hearing before an Administrative Judge in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section, unless time deadlines are extended for good cause, shall be considered as a relinquishment by the individual of the right to a hearing provided in this part, and that in such event a final decision to deny or revoke the individual's access authorization shall be made by the Manager.
</P>
<P>(9) That in any proceedings under this subpart DOE Counsel will participate on behalf of and representing DOE and that any statements made by the individual to DOE Counsel may be used in subsequent proceedings;
</P>
<P>(10) The individual's access authorization status until further notice;
</P>
<P>(11) The name and telephone number of the designated DOE official to contact for any further information desired concerning the proceedings, including an explanation of the individual's rights under the Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act;
</P>
<P>(12) If applicable, that if the individual is currently the subject of criminal charges for a felony offense or an offense punishable by imprisonment of one year or more, the individual must elect either to continue with the Administrative Review process and have the substantial doubt regarding eligibility for access authorization resolved by the Manager or by a hearing, or to withdraw from the Administrative Review process.
</P>
<P>(i) If the individual elects to continue with the Administrative Review process a determination as to the individual's access authorization shall be made by the Manager or by an Administrative Judge via a hearing. The individual will be expected to participate fully in the process. Any refusal to cooperate, answer all questions, or provide requested information may prevent DOE from reaching an affirmative finding required for granting or continuing access authorization.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the individual elects to withdraw from the Administrative Review process, the individual's access authorization shall be administratively withdrawn. Such action shall be taken in accordance with applicable procedures set forth in pertinent Departmental directives. Any future requests for access authorization for the individual must be accompanied by documentary evidence of resolution of the criminal charges.
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual must, within 20 calendar days of receipt of the notification letter, indicate in writing their decision to continue or to withdraw from the Administrative Review process. Such notification must be made to the Manager from whom the notification letter was received.
</P>
<P>(c) The notification letter referenced in paragraph (b) of this section shall also:
</P>
<P>(1) Include a copy of this part and SEAD 4, <I>National Security Adjudicative Guidelines,</I> or successor directive; and
</P>
<P>(2) Indicate that if the individual believes that the action to process the individual under this part was taken as retaliation against the individual for having made a protected disclosure, as defined in Presidential Policy Directive 19, <I>Protecting Whistleblowers with Access to Classified Information,</I> or any successor directive issued under the authority of the President, the individual may submit a request for review of this matter directly to the DOE Office of the Inspector General. Such a request shall have no impact upon the continued processing of the individual's access authorization eligibility under this part. If the individual receives an adverse final agency determination in response to such request, the individual may submit an appeal of that decision to the Director of National Intelligence, in accordance with the SEAD 9, <I>Appellate Review of Retaliation Regarding Security Clearances and Access Determinations,</I> or to the Inspector General of the Intelligence Community, in accordance with <I>Intelligence Community Directive 120,</I> Intelligence Community Whistleblower Protection.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 59596, July 23, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.22   Initial decision process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Manager shall make an initial decision as to the individual's access authorization eligibility based on the existing information in the case if:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual fails to respond to the notification letter by filing a timely written request for a hearing before an Administrative Judge or fails to respond to the notification letter after requesting an extension of time to do so;
</P>
<P>(2) The individual's response to the notification letter does not request a hearing before an Administrative Judge; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Administrative Judge refers the individual's case to the Manager in accordance with § 710.25(e) or § 710.26(b).
</P>
<P>(b) Unless an extension of time is granted by the Director, the Manager's initial decision as to the individual's access authorization eligibility shall be made within 15 calendar days of the date of receipt of the information in paragraph (a) of this section. The Manager shall either grant or deny, or reinstate or revoke, the individual's access authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) A letter reflecting the Manager's initial decision shall be signed by the Manager and delivered to the individual within 15 calendar days of the date of the Manager's decision unless an extension of time is granted by the Director. If the Manager's initial decision is unfavorable to the individual, the individual shall be advised:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the Manager's unfavorable decision and the reason(s) therefor;
</P>
<P>(2) That within 30 calendar days from the date of receipt of the letter, the individual may file a written request for a review of the Manager's initial decision, through the Director, to the DOE Headquarters Appeal Panel (Appeal Panel);
</P>
<P>(3) That the Director may, for good cause shown, at the written request of the individual, extend the time for filing a written request for a review of the case by the Appeal Panel; and
</P>
<P>(4) That if the written request for a review of the Manager's initial decision by the Appeal Panel is not filed within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the Manager's letter, or by the date to which the Director has granted an extension, the Manager's initial decision in the case shall be final and not subject to further review or appeal.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 59596, July 23, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.23   Extensions of time by the manager.</HEAD>
<P>The Manager may, for good cause shown, at the written request of the individual, extend the time for filing a written request for a hearing, and/or the time for filing a written answer to the matters contained in the notification letter. The Manager shall notify the Director, in writing, when such extensions have been approved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.24   Appointment of DOE Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt from the individual of a written request for a hearing, a DOE attorney shall forthwith be assigned by the Manager to act as DOE Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE Counsel is authorized to consult directly with the individual if he/she is not represented by counsel, or with the individual's counsel or other representative if so represented, to clarify issues and reach stipulations with respect to testimony and contents of documents and physical evidence. Such stipulations shall be binding upon the individual and the DOE Counsel for the purposes of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.25   Appointment of Administrative Judge; prehearing conference; commencement of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a request for a hearing, the Manager shall in a timely manner transmit that request to the Office of Hearings and Appeals, and identify the DOE Counsel. The Manager shall at the same time transmit a copy of the notification letter and the individual's response to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of the hearing request from the Manager, the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals, shall appoint, as soon as practicable, an Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(c) Immediately upon appointment, the Administrative Judge shall notify the individual and DOE Counsel of their identity and the address to which all further correspondence should be sent.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrative Judge shall have all powers necessary to regulate the conduct of proceedings under this part, including, but not limited to, establishing a list of persons to receive service of papers, issuing subpoenas for witnesses to attend the hearing or for the production of specific documents or physical evidence, administering oaths and affirmations, ruling upon motions, receiving evidence, regulating the course of the hearing, disposing of procedural requests or similar matters, and taking other actions consistent with the regulations in this part. Requests for subpoenas shall be liberally granted except where the Administrative Judge finds that the issuance of subpoenas would result in evidence or testimony that is repetitious, incompetent, irrelevant, or immaterial to the issues in the case. The Administrative Judge may take sworn testimony, sequester witnesses, and control the dissemination or reproduction of any record or testimony taken pursuant to this part, including correspondence, or other relevant records or physical evidence including, but not limited to, information retained in computerized or other automated systems in possession of the subpoenaed person.
</P>
<P>(e) The Administrative Judge shall determine the day, time, and place for the hearing and shall decide whether the hearing will be conducted via video teleconferencing. In the event the individual fails to appear at the time and place specified, without good cause shown, the record in the case shall be closed and returned to the Manager, who shall then make an initial determination regarding the eligibility of the individual for DOE access authorization in accordance with § 710.22(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(f) At least 7 calendar days prior to the date scheduled for the hearing, the Administrative Judge shall convene a prehearing conference for the purpose of discussing stipulations and exhibits, identifying witnesses, and disposing of other appropriate matters. The conference may be conducted by telephone, video teleconference, or other means as directed by the Administrative Judge.


</P>
<P>(g) Hearings shall commence within 60 calendar days from the date the individual's request for a hearing is received by the Office of Hearings and Appeals. Any extension of the hearing date past 60 calendar days from the date the request for a hearing is received by the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall be decided by the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 59596, July 23, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.26" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.26   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In all hearings conducted under this part, the individual shall have the right to be represented by a person of their own choosing, at the individual's own expense. The individual is responsible for producing witnesses in their own behalf, including requesting the issuance of subpoenas, if necessary, or presenting testimonial, documentary, or physical evidence before the Administrative Judge to support the individual's defense to the derogatory information contained in the notification letter. With the exception of procedural or scheduling matters, the Administrative Judge is prohibited from initiating or otherwise engaging in <I>ex parte</I> discussions about the case during the pendency of proceedings under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless the Administrative Judge finds good cause for deferring issuance of a decision, in the event that the individual unduly delays the hearing, such as by failure to meet deadlines set by the Administrative Judge, the record shall be closed, and an initial decision shall be made by the Manager on the basis of the record in the case per § 710.22(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(c) Hearings shall be open only to DOE Counsel, duly authorized representatives of DOE, the individual and the individual's counsel or other representatives, and such other persons as may be authorized by the Administrative Judge. Unless otherwise ordered by the Administrative Judge, witnesses shall testify in the presence of the individual but not in the presence of other witnesses.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE Counsel shall assist the Administrative Judge in establishing a complete administrative hearing record in the proceeding and bringing out a full and true disclosure of all facts, both favorable and unfavorable, having a bearing on the issues before the Administrative Judge. The individual shall be afforded the opportunity of presenting testimonial, documentary, and physical evidence, including testimony by the individual in the individual's own behalf. All witnesses shall be subject to cross-examination, if possible.


</P>
<P>(e) The Administrative Judge may ask the witnesses any questions which the Administrative Judge deems appropriate to assure the fullest possible disclosure of relevant and material facts.
</P>
<P>(f) During the course of the hearing, the Administrative Judge shall rule on all objections raised.
</P>
<P>(g) In the event it appears during the course of the hearing that classified matter may be disclosed, it shall be the duty of the Administrative Judge to assure that disclosure is not made to persons who are not authorized to receive it, and take other appropriate measures.
</P>
<P>(h) Formal rules of evidence shall not apply, but the Federal Rules of Evidence may be used as a guide for procedures and principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence available. The Administrative Judge shall admit into evidence any matters, either oral or written, which are material, relevant, and competent in determining issues involved, including the testimony of responsible persons concerning the integrity of the individual. In making such determinations, the utmost latitude shall be permitted with respect to relevancy, materiality, and competency. The Administrative Judge may also exclude evidence which is incompetent, immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious. Every reasonable effort shall be made to obtain the best evidence available. Subject to §§ 710.26(l), 710.26(m), 710.26(n) and 710.26(o), hearsay evidence may, at the discretion of the Administrative Judge and for good cause show, be admitted without strict adherence to technical rules of admissibility and shall be accorded such weight as the Administrative Judge deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(i) Testimony of the individual and witnesses shall be given under oath or affirmation. Attention of the individual and each witness shall be directed to 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 18 U.S.C. 1621.
</P>
<P>(j) The Administrative Judge shall endeavor to obtain all the facts that are reasonably available in order to arrive at a decision. If, prior to or during the proceedings, in the opinion of the Administrative Judge, the derogatory information in the notification letter is not sufficient to address all matters into which inquiry should be directed, the Administrative Judge may recommend to the Manager concerned that, in order to give more adequate notice to the individual, the notification letter should be amended. Any amendment shall be made with the concurrence of the local Office of Chief Counsel or the Office of the General Counsel in Headquarters cases. If, in the opinion of the Administrative Judge, the circumstances of such amendment may involve undue hardship to the individual because of limited time to respond to the new derogatory information in the notification letter, an appropriate adjournment shall be granted upon the request of the individual.
</P>
<P>(k) A written or oral statement of a person relating to the characterization in the notification letter of any organization or person other than the individual may be received and considered by the Administrative Judge without affording the individual an opportunity to cross-examine the person making the statement on matters relating to the characterization of such organization or person, provided the individual is given notice that such a statement has been received and may be considered by the Administrative Judge, and is informed of the contents of the statement, provided such notice is not prohibited by paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) Any oral or written statement adverse to the individual relating to a controverted issue may be received and considered by the Administrative Judge without affording an opportunity for cross-examination in either of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) The head of the agency supplying the statement certifies that the person who furnished the information is a confidential informant who has been engaged in obtaining intelligence information for the Government and that disclosure of the informant's identity would be substantially harmful to the national interest;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary or the Secretary's special designee for that particular purpose has preliminarily determined, after considering information furnished by the investigative agency as to the reliability of the person and the accuracy of the statement concerned, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The statement concerned appears to be reliable and material; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure of the Administrative Judge to receive and consider such statement would, in view of the access sought to classified matter or special nuclear material, be substantially harmful to the national security and that the person who furnished the information cannot appear to testify:
</P>
<P>(A) Due to death, severe illness, or similar cause, in which case the identity of the person and the information to be considered shall be made available to the individual, or
</P>
<P>(B) Due to some other specified cause determined by the Secretary to be good and sufficient.
</P>
<P>(m) Whenever procedures under paragraph (l) of this section are used:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual shall be given a summary or description of the information which shall be as comprehensive and detailed as the national interest permits, and
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate consideration shall be accorded to the fact that the individual did not have an opportunity to cross-examine such person(s).
</P>
<P>(n) Records compiled in the regular course of business, or other evidence other than investigative reports obtained by DOE, may be received and considered by the Administrative Judge subject to rebuttal without authenticating witnesses, provided that such information has been furnished to DOE by an investigative agency pursuant to its responsibilities in connection with assisting the Secretary to safeguard classified matter or special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(o) Records compiled in the regular course of business, or other evidence other than investigative reports, relating to a controverted issue which, because they are classified, may not be inspected by the individual, may be received and considered by the Administrative Judge, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary or the Secretary's special designee for that particular purpose has made a preliminary determination that such evidence appears to be material;
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary or the Secretary's special designee for that particular purpose has made a determination that failure to receive and consider such evidence would, in view of the access sought to classified matter or special nuclear material, be substantially harmful to the national security; and
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that national security permits, a summary or description of such evidence is made available to the individual. In every such case, information as to the authenticity and accuracy of such evidence furnished by the investigative agency shall be considered.
</P>
<P>(p) The Administrative Judge may request the Local Director of Security to arrange for additional investigation on any points which are material to the deliberations of the Administrative Judge and which the Administrative Judge believes need further investigation or clarification. In this event, the Administrative Judge shall set forth in writing those issues upon which more evidence is requested, identifying where possible persons or sources from which the evidence should be sought. The Local Director of Security shall make every effort through appropriate sources to obtain additional information upon the matters indicated by the Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(q) A written transcript of the entire hearing shall be made and, except for portions containing classified matter, a copy of such transcript shall be furnished to the individual without cost.
</P>
<P>(r) Whenever information is made a part of the record under the exceptions authorized by paragraphs (l) or (o) of this section, the record shall contain certificates evidencing that the determinations required therein have been made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 59597, July 23, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.27" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.27   Administrative Judge's decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Judge shall carefully consider the entire record of the proceeding and shall render a decision, within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the hearing transcript, as to whether granting or restoring the individual's access authorization would not endanger the common defense and security and would be clearly consistent with the national interest. In resolving a question concerning the eligibility of an individual for access authorization under these procedures, the Administrative Judge shall consider the factors stated in § 710.7(c) to determine whether the findings will be favorable or unfavorable.
</P>
<P>(b) In reaching the findings, the Administrative Judge shall consider the demeanor of the witnesses who have testified at the hearing, the probability or likelihood of the truth of their testimony, their credibility, and the authenticity and accuracy of documentary evidence, or lack of evidence on any material points in issue. If the individual is, or may be, prejudiced by the non-disclosure to the individual of undisclosed information or by lack of opportunity to cross-examine confidential informants, the Administrative Judge shall take that fact into consideration. The possible adverse impact of the loss of the individual's access authorization upon the DOE program in which the individual works shall not be considered by the Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(c) The Administrative Judge shall make specific findings based upon the record as to the validity of each instance of derogatory information contained in the notification letter and the significance which the Administrative Judge attaches to it. These findings shall be supported fully by a statement of reasons which constitute the basis for such findings.
</P>
<P>(d) The Administrative Judge's decision shall be based on the Administrative Judge's findings of fact. If, after considering all of the factors set forth in § 710.7(c) in light of the Adjudicative Guidelines, the Administrative Judge is of the opinion that it will not endanger the common defense and security and will be clearly consistent with the national interest to grant or reinstate access authorization for the individual, the Administrative Judge shall render a favorable decision; otherwise, the Administrative Judge shall render an unfavorable decision. Within 15 calendar days of the Administrative Judge's written decision, the Administrative Judge shall provide copies of the decision and the administrative record to the Manager and the Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 89 FR 59597, July 23, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.28" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.28   Action on the Administrative Judge's decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the decision and the administrative record, unless an extension of time is granted by the Director, the Manager shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the individual in writing of the Administrative Judge's decision;
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the individual in writing of the appeal procedures available to the individual in paragraph (b) of this section if the decision is unfavorable to the individual;
</P>
<P>(3) Advise the individual in writing of the appeal procedures available to the Manager and the Director in paragraph (c) of this section if the decision is favorable to the individual; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the individual and/or their counsel or other representative a copy of the Administrative Judge's decision and the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Administrative Judge's decision is unfavorable to the individual:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual may file with the Director a written request for further review of the decision by the Appeal Panel along with a statement required by paragraph (e) of this section within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the Manager's notice;
</P>
<P>(2) The Director may, for good cause shown, extend the time for filing a request for further review of the decision by the Appeal Panel at the written request of the individual, provided the request for an extension of time is filed by the individual within 30 calendar days of receipt of the Manager's notice;
</P>
<P>(3) The Administrative Judge's decision shall be final and not subject to review or appeal if the individual does not:
</P>
<P>(i) File a written request for a review of the decision by the Appeal Panel or for an extension of time to file a written request for review of the decision by the Appeal Panel in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(ii) File a written request for review of the decision by the Appeal Panel after having been granted an extension of time to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Administrative Judge's decision is favorable to the individual:
</P>
<P>(1) The Manager, with the concurrence of the Director, shall grant or reinstate the individual's access authorization within 30 calendar days of the Administrative Judge's decision becoming final, or
</P>
<P>(2) The Manager or the Director may file a written request with the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security for review of the decision by the Appeal Panel, along with statement required by paragraph (e) of this section, within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the Manager's notice.
</P>
<P>(3) The Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security may, for good cause shown, extend the time for filing a request for review of the decision by the Appeal Panel at the request of the Manager or Director, provided the request for an extension of time is filed by the Manager or Director within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the Manager's notice;
</P>
<P>(4) The Administrative Judge's decision shall constitute final action, and not be subject to review or appeal, if the Manager or Director does not:
</P>
<P>(i) File a written request for review of the decision by the Appeal Panel or for an extension of time to file a written request for review of the decision by the Appeal Panel in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(ii) File a written request for a review of the decision by the Appeal Panel after having been granted an extension of time to do so.
</P>
<P>(d) A copy of any request for review of the individual's case by the Appeal Panel filed by the Manager or the Director shall be provided to the individual by the Manager.
</P>
<P>(e) The party filing a request for review by the Appeal Panel shall include with the request a statement identifying the issues upon which the appeal is based. A copy of the request and statement shall be served on the other party, who may file a response with the Appeal Panel within 20 calendar days of receipt of the statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023; 89 FR 59597, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.29" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.29   Final appeal process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Appeal Panel shall be convened by the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security to review and render a final decision in access authorization eligibility cases referred by the individual, the Manager, or the Director in accordance with §§ 710.22 or 710.28.
</P>
<P>(b) The Appeal Panel shall consist of three members, each of whom shall be a DOE Headquarters employee, a United States citizen, and hold a DOE Q access authorization. The Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security shall serve as a permanent member of the Appeal Panel and as the Appeal Panel Chair. The second member of the Appeal Panel shall be a DOE attorney designated by the General Counsel. The head of the DOE Headquarters element which has cognizance over the individual whose access authorization eligibility is being considered may designate an employee to act as the third member on the Appeal Panel; otherwise, the third member shall be designated by the Chair. Only one member of the Appeal Panel shall be from the security field.
</P>
<P>(c) In filing a written request for a review by the Appeal Panel in accordance with §§ 710.22 and 710.28, the individual, or their counsel or other representative, shall identify the issues upon which the appeal is based. The written request, and any response, shall be made a part of the administrative record. The Director shall provide staff support to the Appeal Panel as requested by the Chair.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 15 calendar days of the receipt of the request for review of a case by the Appeal Panel, the Chair shall arrange for the Appeal Panel members to convene and review the administrative record or provide a copy of the administrative record to the Appeal Panel members for their independent review.
</P>
<P>(e) The Appeal Panel shall consider only that evidence and information in the administrative record at the time of the Manager's or the Administrative Judge's initial decision.
</P>
<P>(f) Within 45 calendar days of receipt of the administrative record, the Appeal Panel shall render a final decision in the case. If a majority of the Appeal Panel members determine that it will not endanger the common defense and security and will be clearly consistent with the national interest, the Chair shall grant or reinstate the individual's access authorization; otherwise, the Chair shall deny or revoke the individual's access authorization. The Appeal Panel's written decision shall be made a part of the administrative record and is not subject to further review or appeal.
</P>
<P>(g) The Chair, through the Director, shall inform the individual in writing, as well as the individual's counsel or other representative, of the Appeal Panel's final decision. A copy of the correspondence shall also be provided to the other panel members and the Manager.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023; 89 FR 59597, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.30   Action by the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever an individual has not been afforded an opportunity to cross-examine witnesses who have furnished information adverse to the individual under the provisions of §§ 710.26(l) or (o), the Secretary may issue a final decision to deny or revoke access authorization for the individual after personally reviewing the administrative record and any additional material provided by the Chair. The Secretary's authority may, in accordance with applicable provisions of Executive Order 12968, be delegated to the Deputy Secretary where the effected individual is a Federal employee. The Secretary's authority, in accordance with applicable provisions of Executive Order 10865, may not be delegated where the effected individual is a contractor employee. This authority may be exercised only when the Secretary determines that the circumstances described in § 710.26(l) or (o) are present, and such determination shall be final and not subject to review or appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Secretary issues a final decision as to an individual's access authorization eligibility, the individual and other concerned parties shall be notified in writing by the Chair of that decision and of the Secretary's findings with respect to each instance of derogatory information contained in the notification letter and each substantial issue identified in the statement in support of the request for review to the extent allowed by the national security.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing contained in these procedures shall be deemed to limit or affect the responsibility and powers of the Secretary to issue subpoenas or to deny or revoke access to classified matter or special nuclear material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.3.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.31   Reconsideration of access eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 710.20 through 710.30, the Manager, Administrative Judge, Appeal Panel, or the Secretary has made a decision granting or reinstating an individual's access authorization, eligibility shall be reconsidered as a new administrative review under the procedures set forth in this part when previously unconsidered derogatory information is identified, or the individual violates a commitment upon which the DOE previously relied to favorably resolve an issue of access authorization eligibility.
</P>
<P>(b) If, pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 710.20 through 710.31, the Manager, Administrative Judge, Appeal Panel, or the Secretary has made a decision denying or revoking the individual's access authorization, eligibility may be reconsidered only when the individual so requests in writing, when there is a bona fide offer of employment requiring access authorization, and when there is either material and relevant new evidence which the individual and the individual's representatives were without fault in failing to present earlier, or convincing evidence of rehabilitation or reformation.
</P>
<P>(1) A request for reconsideration shall be accepted when a minimum of one year has elapsed since the date of the Manager's, Administrative Judge's, Appeal Panel's or Secretary's final decision, or of a previous denial of reconsideration. Requests must be submitted in writing to the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, and must include an affidavit setting forth in detail the new evidence or evidence of rehabilitation or reformation.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security approves the request for reconsideration of an individual's access authorization eligibility, he/she shall so notify the individual, and shall direct the Manager to take appropriate actions to determine whether the individual is eligible for access authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security denies the request for reconsideration of an individual's access authorization eligibility, he/she shall so notify the individual in writing. Such a denial is final and not subject to review or appeal.
</P>
<P>(4) If, pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Manager determines the individual is eligible for access authorization, the Manager shall grant access authorization.
</P>
<P>(5) If, pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Manager determines the individual remains ineligible for access authorization, the Manager shall so notify the Director in writing. If the Director concurs, the Director shall notify the individual in writing. This decision is final and not subject to review or appeal. If the Director does not concur, the Director shall confer with the Manager on further actions.
</P>
<P>(6) Determinations as to eligibility for access authorization pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) or (5) of this section may be based solely upon the mitigation of derogatory information which was relied upon in a final decision to deny or to revoke access authorization. If, pursuant to the procedures set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, previously unconsidered derogatory information is identified, a determination as to eligibility for access authorization must be subject to a new Administrative Review proceeding.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023; 89 FR 59597, July 23, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.32   Terminations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the individual is no longer an applicant for access authorization or no longer requires access authorization, the procedures of this part shall be terminated without a final decision as to the individual's access authorization eligibility, unless a final decision has been rendered prior to the DOE being notified of the change in the individual's pending access authorization status. Where the procedures of this part have been terminated pursuant to this paragraph after an unfavorable initial agency decision as to the individual's access authorization eligibility has been rendered, any subsequent request for access authorization for the individual will be processed as a request for a review of the initial agency decision by the Appeal Panel and a final agency decision will be rendered pursuant to § 710.29, unless a minimum of one year has elapsed since the date of the initial agency decision.
</P>
<P>(b) With regard to applicants (individuals for whom DOE has not yet approved access authorization), DOE may administratively terminate processing an application for access authorization under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) If the applicant is currently the subject of criminal proceedings for a felony offense or an offense that is punishable by a term of imprisonment of one year or longer, or is awaiting or serving a form of probation, suspended or deferred sentencing, or parole. Once all judicial proceedings on the criminal charges have been finally resolved, and the term (if any) of imprisonment, probation, or parole has been completed, DOE processing of a request for access authorization shall resume upon receipt by DOE of a written request therefor, provided that the individual has a bona fide offer of employment requiring access authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) If sufficient information about the individual's background cannot be obtained to meet the investigative scope and extent requirements for the access authorization requested.
</P>
<P>(c) If an individual believes that the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section have been inappropriately applied, a written appeal may be filed with the Director within 30 calendar days of the date the individual was notified of the action. The Director shall act on the written appeal as described in § 710.6(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.33   Time frames.</HEAD>
<P>Statements of time established for processing aspects of a case under this part are the agency's desired time frames in implementing the procedures set forth in this part. However, failure to meet the time frames shall have no impact upon the final disposition of an access authorization by a Manager, Administrative Judge, the Appeal Panel, or the Secretary, and shall confer no procedural or substantive rights upon an individual whose access authorization eligibility is being considered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.6.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.34   Acting officials.</HEAD>
<P>Except for the Secretary, the responsibilities and authorities conferred in this part may be exercised by persons who have been designated in writing as acting for, or in the temporary capacity of, the following DOE positions: The Local Director of Security; the Manager; the Director, or the General Counsel. The responsibilities and authorities of the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security may be exercised by persons in senior security-related positions within the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security who have been designated in writing as acting for, or in the temporary capacity of, the Deputy Director for Security, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, with the approval of the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 71335, Oct. 17, 2016, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="712" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 712—HUMAN RELIABILITY PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2165; 42 U.S.C. 2201; 42 U.S.C. 5814-5815; 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 10450, 3 CFR 1949-1953 Comp., p. 936, as amended; E.O. 10865, 3 CFR 1959-1963 Comp., p. 398, as amended; 3 CFR Chap. IV.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 3223, Jan. 23, 2004, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 712 appear at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Establishment of and Procedures for the Human Reliability Program</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 18200, Apr. 26, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the policies and procedures for a Human Reliability Program (HRP) in the Department of Energy (DOE), including the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA). The HRP is a security and safety reliability program designed to ensure that individuals who occupy positions affording access to certain materials, nuclear explosive devices, facilities, and programs meet the highest standards of reliability and physical and mental suitability. This objective is accomplished under this part through a system of continuous evaluation that identifies individuals whose judgment and reliability may be impaired by physical or mental/personality disorders, alcohol abuse, use of illegal drugs or the abuse of legal drugs or other substances, or any other condition or circumstance that may be of a security or safety concern.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The HRP applies to all applicants for, or current employees of DOE or NNSA or a DOE or NNSA contractor or subcontractor in a position defined or designated under § 712.10 of this subpart as an HRP position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.7.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions are used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Access</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A situation that may provide an individual proximity to or control over Category I special nuclear material (SNM); or
</P>
<P>(2) The proximity to a nuclear explosive and/or Category I SNM that allows the opportunity to divert, steal, tamper with, and/or damage the nuclear explosive or material in spite of any controls that have been established to prevent such unauthorized actions.
</P>
<P><I>Alcohol</I> means the intoxicating agent in beverage alcohol, ethyl alcohol, or other low molecular weight alcohol.
</P>
<P><I>Alcohol abuse</I> means consumption of any beverage, mixture, or preparation, including any medication containing alcohol that results in impaired social or occupational functioning.
</P>
<P><I>Alcohol concentration</I> means the alcohol in a volume of breath expressed in terms of grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath as indicated by a breath test.
</P>
<P><I>Alcohol use disorder</I> means a maladaptive pattern in which a person's intake of alcohol is great enough to damage or adversely affect physical or mental health or personal, social, or occupational function; or when alcohol has become a prerequisite to normal function.


</P>
<P><I>Case chronology</I> means a written recitation of all actions that support a recommendation to revoke an individual's HRP certification under § 712.19.
</P>
<P><I>Certification</I> means the formal action the HRP certifying official takes that permits an individual to perform HRP duties after it is determined that the individual meets the requirements for certification under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means contractors and subcontractors at all tiers and any industrial, educational, commercial, or other entity, grantee, or licensee, including an employee that has executed an agreement with the Federal government for the purpose of performing under a contract, license, or other arrangement.
</P>
<P><I>Designated Physician</I> means a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy who has been nominated by the Site Occupational Medical Director (SOMD) and approved by the Manager or designee, with the concurrence of the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee to provide professional expertise in occupational medicine for the HRP.
</P>
<P><I>Designated Psychologist</I> means a licensed Ph.D., or Psy.D., in clinical psychology who has been nominated by the SOMD and approved by the Manager or designee, with the concurrence of the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee to provide professional expertise in the area of psychological assessment for the HRP.
</P>
<P><I>Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders</I> means the current version of the American Psychiatric Association's manual containing definitions of psychiatric terms and diagnostic criteria of mental disorders.
</P>
<P><I>Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security</I> means the DOE individual with responsibility for policy and quality assurance for DOE occupational medical programs.
</P>
<P><I>Drug abuse</I> means use of an illegal drug or misuse of legal drugs.
</P>
<P><I>Evaluative report</I> means the document that sets forth the bases supporting the revocation of an individual's certification.
</P>
<P><I>Evidential-grade breath alcohol device</I> means a device that conforms to the model standards for an evidential breath-testing device as listed on the Conforming Products List of Evidential Breath Measurement Devices published by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).
</P>
<P><I>Flashback</I> means an involuntary, spontaneous recurrence of some aspect of a hallucinatory experience or perceptual distortion that occurs long after taking the hallucinogen that produced the original effect; also referred to as hallucinogen persisting perception disorder.
</P>
<P><I>Hallucinogen</I> means a drug or substance that produces hallucinations, distortions in perception of sights and sounds, and disturbances in emotion, judgment, and memory.
</P>
<P><I>HRP candidate</I> means an individual being considered for assignment to an HRP position.
</P>
<P><I>HRP-certified individual</I> means an individual who has successfully completed the HRP requirements.
</P>
<P><I>HRP certifying official</I> means the Manager or the Manager's designee who certifies, recertifies, temporarily removes, reviews the circumstances of an individual's removal from an HRP position, and directs reinstatement.
</P>
<P><I>HRP management official</I> means an individual designated by the DOE or a DOE contractor, as appropriate, who has programmatic responsibility for HRP positions.
</P>
<P><I>Illegal drug</I> means a controlled substance, as specified in Schedules I through V of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 811 and 812; the term does not apply to the use of a controlled substance in accordance with the terms of a valid prescription, or other uses authorized by Federal law.
</P>
<P><I>Impaired</I> or <I>impairment</I> means a decrease in functional capacity of a person that is caused by a physical, mental, emotional, substance abuse, or behavioral disorder.
</P>
<P><I>Incident</I> means an unplanned, undesired event that interrupts the completion of an activity and that may include property damage or injury.
</P>
<P><I>Job task analysis</I> means the formal process of defining the requirements of a position and identifying the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to effectively perform the duties of the position.
</P>
<P><I>Manager</I> means the senior Federal line manager at a departmental site or Federal office with HRP-designated positions.
</P>
<P><I>Material access area</I> means a type of Security Area that is authorized to contain a Category I quantity of special nuclear material and that has specifically defined physical barriers, is located within a Protected Area, and is subject to specific access controls.
</P>
<P><I>Medical assessment</I> means an evaluation of an HRP candidate and HRP-certified individual's present health status and health risk factors by means of:
</P>
<P>(1) Medical history review;
</P>
<P>(2) Job task analysis;
</P>
<P>(3) Physical examination;
</P>
<P>(4) Appropriate laboratory tests and measurements; and
</P>
<P>(5) Appropriate psychological and psychiatric evaluations.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear explosive</I> means an assembly of fissionable and/or fusionable materials and main charge high explosive parts or propellants that is capable of producing a nuclear detonation.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear explosive duties</I> means work assignments that allow custody of a nuclear explosive or access to a nuclear explosive device or area.
</P>
<P><I>Occurrence</I> means any event or incident that is a deviation from the planned or expected behavior or course of events in connection with any DOE or DOE-controlled operation if the deviation has environmental, public health and safety, or national security protection significance, including (but not limited to) incidents involving:
</P>
<P>(1) Injury or fatality to any person involving actions of a DOE employee or contractor employee;
</P>
<P>(2) An explosion, fire, spread of radioactive material, personal injury or death, or damage to property that involves nuclear explosives under DOE jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(3) Accidental release of pollutants that results from, or could result in, a significant effect on the public or environment; or
</P>
<P>(4) Accidental release of radioactive material above regulatory limits.
</P>
<P><I>Psychological assessment or test</I> means a scientifically validated instrument designed to detect psychiatric, personality, and behavioral tendencies that would indicate problems with reliability and judgment.
</P>
<P><I>Random alcohol testing</I> means the unscheduled, unannounced alcohol testing of randomly selected employees by a process designed to ensure that selections are made in a nondiscriminatory manner.
</P>
<P><I>Random drug testing</I> means the unscheduled, unannounced drug testing of randomly selected employees by a process designed to ensure that selections are made in a nondiscriminatory manner.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable suspicion</I> means a suspicion based on an articulable belief that an individual uses illegal drugs or is under the influence of alcohol, drawn from reasonable inferences from particular facts, as detailed further in part 707 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>Recertification</I> means the action the HRP certifying official takes annually, not to exceed 12 months, that permits an employee to remain in the HRP and perform HRP duties.
</P>
<P><I>Reinstatement</I> means the action taken after it has been determined that an employee who has been temporarily removed from the HRP meets the certification requirements of this part and can be returned to HRP duties, contingent on the individual completing any and all components of the annual recertification process under § 712.11 and any other specific requirements that must be completed in order to return to full HRP duties.
</P>
<P><I>Reliability</I> means an individual's ability to adhere to security and safety rules and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Restoration</I> means the actions necessary to restore an individual's HRP duties after a final decision has been made by the cognizant Under Secretary or his/her designee to overturn the revocation decision. The restoration of HRP duties is contingent on the individual completing any and all components of the annual recertification process under § 712.11 and any other specific requirements that must be completed in order to return to full HRP duties.
</P>
<P><I>Safety concern</I> means any condition, practice, or violation that causes a reasonable probability of physical harm, property loss, and/or environmental impact.
</P>
<P><I>Security concern</I> means the presence of information regarding an individual that raises a question as to whether HRP certification and recertification would endanger the common defense and security and would be clearly consistent with the national interest.
</P>
<P><I>Semi-structured interview</I> means an interview by a Designated Psychologist, or a psychologist under his or her supervision, who has the latitude to vary the focus and content of the questions depending on the interviewee's responses.
</P>
<P><I>Site Occupational Medical Director (SOMD)</I> means the physician responsible for the overall direction and operation of the occupational medical program at a particular site or program.
</P>
<P><I>Supervisor</I> means the individual who has oversight and organizational responsibility for a person holding an HRP position, and whose duties include evaluating the behavior and performance of the HRP-certified individual.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer</I> means an HRP-certified individual moving from one site to another site.
</P>
<P><I>Unacceptable damage</I> means an incident that could result in a nuclear detonation; high-explosive detonation or deflagration from a nuclear explosive; the diversion, misuse, or removal of Category I special nuclear material; or an interruption of nuclear explosive operations with a significant impact on national security.
</P>
<P><I>Unsafe practice</I> means either a human action departing from prescribed hazard controls or job procedures or practices, or an action causing a person unnecessary exposure to a hazard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 18200, Apr. 26, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.7.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.4   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Department is authorized to grant exemptions from the requirements in § 712.11 of this part as it determines are authorized by law. Exemptions from requirements in this part are allowed only on a case-by-case basis. All requests for an exemption should be submitted in writing from the Manager to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security for coordination, and approval by the cognizant Under Secretary. A request for an exemption shall be approved only if the cognizant Under Secretary determines that the exemption will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and is otherwise consistent with the national interest. The procedures in this section shall not be used to establish stricter recertification standards than those required by § 712.11.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 18200, Apr. 26, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.10   Designation of HRP positions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HRP certification is required for each individual assigned to, or applying for, a position that:
</P>
<P>(1) Affords access to Category I SNM or has responsibility for transportation or protection of Category I quantities of SNM;
</P>
<P>(2) Involves nuclear explosive duties or has responsibility for working with, protecting, or transporting nuclear explosives, nuclear devices, or selected components;
</P>
<P>(3) Affords access to information concerning vulnerabilities in protective systems when transporting nuclear explosives, nuclear devices, selected components, or Category I quantities of SNM; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is not included in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section but affords the potential to significantly impact national security or cause unacceptable damage and is approved pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Manager or the HRP management official may nominate positions for the HRP that are not specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section or that have not previously been designated HRP positions. All such nominations must be submitted to and approved by either the NNSA Administrator, his or her designee, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or the appropriate Lead Program Secretarial Officer, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(c) Before nominating a position for designation as an HRP position, the Manager or the HRP management official must analyze the risks the position poses for the particular operational program. If the analysis shows that more restrictive physical, administrative, or other controls could be implemented that would prevent the position from being designated an HRP position, those controls will be implemented, if practicable.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this part prohibits contractors from establishing stricter employment standards for individuals who are nominated to DOE for certification or recertification in the HRP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 18200, Apr. 26, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.11   General requirements for HRP certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following requirements apply to each individual applying for or in an HRP position:
</P>
<P>(1) A DOE “Q” access authorization;
</P>
<P>(2) Signed releases, acknowledgments, and waivers to participate in the HRP on forms provided by DOE;
</P>
<P>(3) Completion of initial and annual HRP instruction as provided in § 712.17;
</P>
<P>(4) Successful completion of an initial and annual supervisory review, medical assessment, management evaluation, and a DOE personnel security review;
</P>
<P>(5) No use of any hallucinogen in the preceding 5 years and no experience of flashback resulting from the use of any hallucinogen more than 5 years before applying for certification or recertification;
</P>
<P>(6) An initial drug test and random drug tests for the use of illegal drugs at least once each 12 months;
</P>
<P>(7) An initial alcohol test and random alcohol tests at least once each 12 months; and
</P>
<P>(8) For designated positions, identified pursuant to 10 CFR part 709, successful completion of a counterintelligence evaluation, which may include a counterintelligence-scope polygraph examination in accordance with DOE's Polygraph Examination Regulation, 10 CFR part 709, and any subsequent revisions to that regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) Each HRP candidate must be certified in the HRP before being assigned to HRP duties and must be recertified annually, not to exceed 12 months between recertifications.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals in newly identified HRP positions must immediately sign the releases, acknowledgments, and waivers to participate in the HRP and complete initial instruction on the importance of security, safety, reliability, and suitability. If these requirements are not met, the individual must be removed from the HRP position. All remaining HRP requirements listed in paragraph (a) of this section must be completed in an expedited manner.
</P>
<P>(d) Alcohol consumption is prohibited within an eight-hour period preceding scheduled work for individuals performing nuclear explosive duties and for individuals in specific positions designated by either the Manager, the NNSA Administrator, his or her designee, or the appropriate Lead Program Secretarial Officer, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(e) Individuals reporting for unscheduled nuclear explosive duties and those specific positions designated by either the Manager, the NNSA Administrator or his or her designee, or the appropriate Lead Program Secretarial Officer, or his or her designee, will be asked prior to performing any type of work if they have consumed alcohol within the preceding eight-hour period. If they answer “no,” they may perform their assigned duties but still may be tested.
</P>
<P>(f) Any doubt as to an HRP candidate's or HRP certified individual's eligibility for certification shall be resolved against the candidate or individual in favor of national security and/or safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.12   HRP implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The implementation of the HRP is the responsibility of the appropriate Manager or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(b) The HRP Management Official must prepare an HRP implementation plan and submit it to the applicable Manager for review and approval. The implementation plan must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be reviewed and updated every 2 years;
</P>
<P>(2) Include the four annual components of the HRP process: supervisory review, medical assessment, management evaluation (which includes random drug and alcohol testing), and a DOE personnel security determination; and
</P>
<P>(3) Include the HRP instruction and education component described in § 712.17 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The Under Secretary for Nuclear Security, or his/her designee, must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide advice and assistance to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security regarding policies, standards, and guidance for all nuclear explosive duty requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Be responsible for implementation of all nuclear explosive duty safety requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, or designee, is responsible for HRP policy and must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure consistency of the HRP throughout the DOE and NNSA;
</P>
<P>(2) Review and comment on all HRP implementation plans to ensure consistency with policy; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide policies and guidance, including instructional materials, to NNSA and non-NNSA field elements concerning the HRP, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) The Manager must:
</P>
<P>(1) Review and approve the HRP implementation plan for sites/facilities under their cognizance and forward the plan to the Director, Office of Corporate Security Strategy, or designee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the HRP is implemented at the sites/facilities under their cognizance.
</P>
<P>(f) The HRP certifying official must:
</P>
<P>(1) Approve placement, certification, reinstatement, and recertification of individuals into HRP positions; for unresolved temporary removals, follow the process in § 712.19(f);
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that instructional requirements are implemented;
</P>
<P>(3) Immediately notify (for the purpose of limiting access) the appropriate HRP management official of a personnel security action that results in the suspension of access authorization; and
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the supervisory review, medical assessment, and management evaluation, including drug and alcohol testing, are conducted on an annual basis (not to exceed 12 months).
</P>
<P>(g) Individuals assigned to HRP duties must:
</P>
<P>(1) Execute HRP releases, acknowledgments, and waivers to facilitate the collection and dissemination of information, the performance of drug and alcohol testing, and medical examinations;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD immediately of a physical or mental condition requiring medication or treatment;
</P>
<P>(3) Report any observed or reported behavior or condition of another HRP-certified individual that could indicate a reliability concern, including those behaviors and conditions listed in § 712.13(c), to a supervisor, the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, the SOMD, or the HRP management official; and
</P>
<P>(4) Report to a supervisor, the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, the SOMD, or the HRP management official, any behavior or condition, including those listed in § 712.13(c), that may affect his or her ability to perform HRP duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 18200, Apr. 26, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.13   Supervisory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The supervisor must ensure that each HRP candidate and each individual occupying an HRP position but not yet HRP certified executes the appropriate HRP releases, acknowledgments, and waivers. If these documents are not executed:
</P>
<P>(1) The request for HRP certification may not be further processed until these requirements are completed; and
</P>
<P>(2) The individual is immediately removed from the position.
</P>
<P>(b) Each supervisor of HRP-certified personnel must conduct an annual review of each HRP-certified individual during which the supervisor must evaluate information, based on his or her personal knowledge that is relevant to the individual's suitability to perform HRP tasks in a reliable and safe manner.
</P>
<P>(c) The supervisor must report any concerns resulting from his or her review to the appropriate HRP management official. Types of behavior and conditions that would indicate a concern include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Psychological or physical disorders that impair performance of assigned duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct that warrants referral for a criminal investigation or results in arrest or conviction;
</P>
<P>(3) Indications of deceitful or delinquent behavior;
</P>
<P>(4) Attempted or threatened destruction of property or life;
</P>
<P>(5) Suicidal tendencies or attempted suicide;
</P>
<P>(6) Use of illegal drugs or the abuse of legal drugs or other substances;
</P>
<P>(7) Alcohol use disorders;
</P>
<P>(8) Recurring financial irresponsibility;
</P>
<P>(9) Irresponsibility in performing assigned duties;
</P>
<P>(10) Inability to deal with stress, or the appearance of being under unusual stress;
</P>
<P>(11) Failure to comply with work directives, hostility or aggression toward fellow workers or authority, uncontrolled anger, violation of safety or security procedures, or repeated absenteeism;
</P>
<P>(12) Significant behavioral changes, moodiness, depression, or other evidence of loss of emotional control; and
</P>
<P>(13) Any unusual conduct or being subject to any circumstances which tend to show that the individual is not reliable.
</P>
<P>(d) A supervisor must immediately remove an individual from HRP duties:
</P>
<P>(1) When the supervisor has a reasonable belief that the individual is not reliable, based on either a safety or security concern based on one or more of the types of behaviors and conditions identified in § 712.13(c);
</P>
<P>(2) When the individual does not obtain HRP recertification; or
</P>
<P>(3) When requested to do so by the HRP certifying official and/or HRP management official.
</P>
<P>(e) The supervisor must contact the appropriate personnel office for guidance as to any actions that should occur as a result of the immediate removal.
</P>
<P>(f) Immediate removal: If the supervisor immediately removes an HRP-certified individual for any reason specified in this part, he or she must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Require the individual to stop performing HRP duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Take action to ensure the individual is denied both escorted and unescorted access to the material access areas; and
</P>
<P>(3) Notify, within 24 hours, the HRP management official of the immediate removal. The HRP management official shall take actions consistent with § 712.19.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.14   Medical assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The HRP medical assessment is performed to evaluate whether an HRP candidate or an HRP-certified individual:
</P>
<P>(1) Represents a security concern; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has a condition that may prevent the individual from performing HRP duties in a reliable and safe manner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When performed.</I> (1) The medical assessment is performed initially on HRP candidates and individuals occupying HRP positions who have not yet received HRP certification. The medical assessment is performed annually for HRP-certified individuals, or more often as required by the SOMD.
</P>
<P>(2) The Designated Physician and other examiners working under the direction of the Designated Physician also will conduct an evaluation:
</P>
<P>(i) If an HRP-certified individual requests an evaluation (<I>i.e.,</I> self-referral); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If an HRP-certified individual is referred by management for an evaluation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Process.</I> The Designated Physician, under the supervision of the SOMD, is responsible for the medical assessment of HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals. In performing this responsibility, the Designated Physician or the SOMD must integrate the medical evaluations, available testing results, psychological evaluations, any psychiatric evaluations, a review of current legal drug use, and any other relevant information. This information is used to determine if a reliability, safety, or security concern exists and if the individual is medically qualified for his or her assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evaluation.</I> The Designated Physician, with the assistance of the Designated Psychologist, must determine the existence or nature of any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Physical or medical disabilities, such as a lack of visual acuity, defective color vision, impaired hearing, musculoskeletal deformities, and neuromuscular impairment;
</P>
<P>(2) Mental/personality disorders or behavioral problems, including alcohol and other substance use disorders, as described in the <I>Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders;</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Use of illegal drugs or the abuse of legal drugs or other substances, as identified by self-reporting or by medical or psychological evaluation or testing;
</P>
<P>(4) Threat of suicide, homicide, or physical harm; or
</P>
<P>(5) Medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease, endocrine disease, cerebrovascular or other neurologic disease, or the use of drugs for the treatment of conditions that may adversely affect the judgment or ability of an individual to perform assigned duties in a reliable and safe manner.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Job task analysis.</I> Before the initial or annual medical assessment and psychological evaluation, employers must provide, to both the Designated Physician and Designated Psychologist, a job task analysis for each HRP candidate or HRP-certified individual. Medical assessments and psychological evaluations may not be performed if a job task analysis has not been provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Psychological evaluations.</I> Psychological evaluations must be conducted:
</P>
<P>(1) For initial HRP certification. This psychological evaluation consists of a psychological assessment (test), approved by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee, and a semi-structured interview.
</P>
<P>(2) For recertification: This psychological evaluation consists of a semi-structured interview. A psychological assessment (test) may also be conducted as warranted.
</P>
<P>(3) Every third year: The medical assessment for recertification must include a psychological assessment (test) approved by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee. This requirement can be implemented over a 3-year period for individuals who are currently in an HRP position.
</P>
<P>(4) When additional psychological or psychiatric evaluations are required by the SOMD to resolve any concerns.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Return to work after sick leave.</I> HRP-certified individuals who have been on sick leave for five or more consecutive days, or an equivalent time period for those individuals on an alternative work schedule, must report in person to the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD before being allowed to return to normal duties. The Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD must provide a written recommendation to the appropriate HRP supervisor regarding the individual's return to work. An HRP-certified individual also may be required to report to the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD for written recommendation to return to normal duties after any period of sick leave.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Temporary removal or restrictions.</I> The Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD may recommend temporary removal of an individual from an HRP position or restrictions on an individual's work in an HRP position if a medical condition or circumstance develops that affects the individual's ability to perform assigned job duties. The Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD must immediately recommend medical removal or medical restrictions in writing to the appropriate HRP management official. If the HRP management official concurs, he or she will then notify the appropriate HRP certifying official. To reinstate or remove such restrictions, the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD must make written recommendation to the HRP management official. The HRP management official will then notify the appropriate HRP certifying official.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Medical evaluation after rehabilitation.</I> (1) Individuals who request reinstatement in the HRP following rehabilitative treatment for alcohol use disorder, use of illegal drugs, or the abuse of legal drugs or other substances, must undergo an evaluation, as prescribed by the SOMD, to ensure continued rehabilitation and adequate capability to perform their job duties.
</P>
<P>(2) The HRP certifying official may reinstate HRP certification of an individual who successfully completes an SOMD-approved drug or alcohol rehabilitation program. Recertification is based on the SOMD's follow-up evaluation and recommendation. The individual is also subject to unannounced follow-up tests for illegal drugs or alcohol and relevant counseling for 3 years.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Medication and treatment.</I> HRP-certified individuals are required to immediately report to the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD any physical or mental condition requiring medication or treatment. The Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD determines if temporary removal of the individual from HRP duties is recommended and follows the procedures pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 18200, Apr. 26, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.15   Management evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Evaluation components.</I> An evaluation by the HRP management official is required before an individual can be considered for initial certification or recertification in the HRP. This evaluation must be based on a careful review of the results of the supervisory review, medical assessment, and drug and alcohol testing. If a safety or security concern is identified with respect to an HRP-certified individual, the HRP management official must take actions consistent with § 712.19(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Drug testing.</I> All HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals are subject to testing for the use of illegal drugs, as required by this part. Testing must be conducted in accordance with 10 CFR part 707, the workplace substance abuse program for DOE contractor employees, and DOE Order 343.1, “Federal Substantive Abuse Testing Program,” for DOE employees. The program must include an initial drug test, random drug tests at least once every 12 months from the previous test, and tests of HRP-certified individuals if they are involved in an incident, unsafe practice, occurrence, or based on reasonable suspicion. Failure to appear for unannounced testing within 2 hours of notification constitutes a refusal to submit to a test. Sites may establish a shorter time period between notification and testing but may not exceed the two-hour requirement. If an HRP-certified individual refuses to submit to a drug test or, based on a drug test, is determined to use illegal drugs, the supervisor must immediately remove the individual from HRP duties and take actions consistent with § 712.13(f).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alcohol testing.</I> All HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals are subject to testing for the use of alcohol, as required by this part. The alcohol testing program must include, as a minimum, an initial alcohol test prior to performing HRP duties and random alcohol tests at least once every 12 months from the previous test, and tests of HRP-certified individuals if they are involved in an incident, unsafe practice, occurrence, or based on reasonable suspicion. The supervisor who has been informed that an HRP-certified individual's confirmatory breath alcohol test result is at or above an alcohol concentration of 0.02 percent shall send that individual home and not allow that individual to perform HRP duties for 24 hours, and take all appropriate administrative action consistent with § 712.13(f).
</P>
<P>(1) Breath alcohol testing must be conducted by a certified breath alcohol technician and conform to the DOT procedures (49 CFR part 40, Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs, subparts J through N) for use of an evidential-grade breath analysis device approved for 0.02/0.04 cutoff levels, which conforms to the DOT model specifications and the most recent “Conforming Products List” issued by NHTSA.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual required to undergo DOT alcohol testing is subject to the regulations of the DOT. If such an individual's blood alcohol level exceeds DOT standards, the individual's employer may take appropriate disciplinary action.
</P>
<P>(3) The following constitutes a refusal to submit to a test and shall be considered as a positive alcohol concentration test of 0.02 percent, which requires the individual be sent home and not allowed to perform HRP duties for 24 hours:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to appear for unannounced testing within 2 hours of notification (or established shorter time for the specific site);
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure to provide an adequate volume of breath in 2 attempts without a valid medical excuse; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Engaging in conduct that clearly obstructs the testing process, including failure to cooperate with reasonable instructions provided by the testing technician.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Occurrence testing.</I> (1) When an HRP-certified individual is involved in, or associated with, an occurrence requiring immediate reporting to the DOE, the following procedures must be implemented:
</P>
<P>(i) Testing for the use of illegal drugs in accordance with the provisions of the DOE policies implementing Executive Order 12564, and 10 CFR part 707 or DOE Order 3792.3, which establish workplace substance abuse programs for contractor and DOE employees, respectively.
</P>
<P>(ii) Testing for use of alcohol in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Testing must be performed as soon as possible after an occurrence that requires immediate notification or reporting.
</P>
<P>(3) The supervisor must immediately remove an HRP-certified individual from HRP duties if the individual refuses to undergo the testing required by this subsection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Testing for reasonable suspicion.</I> (1) If the behavior of an individual in an HRP position creates the basis for reasonable suspicion of the use of an illegal drug or alcohol, that individual must be tested if two or more supervisory or management officials, at least one of whom is in the direct chain of supervision of the individual or is the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD, agree that such testing is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable suspicion must be based on an articulable belief, drawn from facts and reasonable inferences from those particular facts that an HRP-certified individual is in possession of, or under the influence of, an illegal drug or alcohol. Such a belief may be based on, among other things:
</P>
<P>(i) Observable phenomena, such as direct observation of the use or possession of illegal drugs or alcohol, or the physical symptoms of being under the influence of drugs or alcohol;
</P>
<P>(ii) A pattern of abnormal conduct or erratic behavior;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information provided by a reliable and credible source that is independently corroborated; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Detection of alcohol odor on the breath.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Counterintelligence evaluation.</I> HRP candidates and, when selected, HRP-certified individuals, must submit to and successfully complete a counterintelligence evaluation, which may include a polygraph examination in accordance with 10 CFR part 709, Polygraph Examination Regulations and any subsequent revisions to that regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.16   Security review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A personnel security specialist must review the personnel security file of every HRP candidate and every HRP-certified individual up for certification or recertification.
</P>
<P>(b) If the personnel security file review is favorable, this information must be forwarded to the HRP certifying official and so noted on the certification form. If the review reveals a security concern, or if a security concern is identified during another component of the HRP process, the HRP certifying official must be notified, and the personnel security specialist must evaluate the concern in accordance with 10 CFR part 710. If a final determination is made by DOE personnel security to suspend access authorization, the HRP management official must be notified, the individual shall be temporarily removed from the HRP position, the HRP certifying official notified, and the information noted on the certification form.
</P>
<P>(c) A favorable adjudication of security concerns under 10 CFR part 710 does not require granting or continuing HRP certification. Security concerns can be reviewed and evaluated for purposes of granting or continuing HRP certification even if the concerns have been favorably resolved under part 710.
</P>
<P>(d) Any mental/personality disorder or behavioral issues found in a personnel security file, which could impact an HRP candidate or HRP-certified individual's ability to perform HRP duties, may be provided in writing to the SOMD, Designated Physician, and Designated Psychologist previously identified for receipt of this information. Medical personnel may not share any information obtained from the personnel security file with anyone who is not an HRP certifying official, except as consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(e) If the DOE personnel security review is not completed within the 12-month time period for recertification and the individual's access authorization is not suspended, the HRP certification form shall be forwarded to the HRP certifying official for recertification or temporary removal, pending completion of the personnel security review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.17" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.17   Instructional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) HRP management officials at each DOE site or facility with HRP positions must establish an initial and annual HRP instruction and education program. The program must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) HRP candidates, HRP-certified individuals, supervisors, and managers, and supervisors and managers responsible for HRP positions with the knowledge described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) For all HRP medical personnel, a detailed explanation of HRP duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(b) The following program elements must be included in initial and annual instruction. The elements may be tailored to accommodate group differences and refresher training needs:
</P>
<P>(1) The objectives of the HRP and the role and responsibilities of each individual in the HRP to include recognizing and responding to behavioral change and aberrant or unusual behavior that may result in a risk to national security or nuclear explosive safety; recognizing and reporting safety and/or security concerns, physical, mental, or emotional conditions that could adversely affect the performance of HRP duties or that require treatment by a doctor, physician's assistant or other health care professional; and prescription drug use; and an explanation of return-to-work requirements and continuous evaluation of HRP participants; and
</P>
<P>(2) For those who have nuclear explosive responsibilities, a detailed explanation of duties and safety requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.18" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.18   Transferring HRP certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For HRP certification to be transferred, the individual must currently be certified in the HRP.
</P>
<P>(b) Transferring the HRP certification from one site to another requires the following before the individual is allowed to perform HRP duties at the new site:
</P>
<P>(1) Verify that the individual is currently certified in the HRP and is transferring into a designated HRP position;
</P>
<P>(2) Incorporate the individual into the new site's alcohol and drug-testing program;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that the 12-month time period for HRP requirements that was established at the prior site is not exceeded; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide site-specific instruction.
</P>
<P>(c) Temporary assignment to HRP positions at other sites requires verification that the individual is currently enrolled in the HRP and has completed all site-specific instruction. The individual is required to return to the site that maintains his or her HRP certification for recertification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.19" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.19   Actions related to removal, revocation and/or reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Temporary removal.</I> The HRP management official shall direct the temporary removal of an HRP-certified individual when the management official:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifies, during the course of the management evaluation, a safety or security concern that warrants such removal based on one or more of the types of behaviors and conditions identified in § 712.13(c);
</P>
<P>(2) Receives a supervisor's written notice of the immediate removal of an HRP-certified individual; or
</P>
<P>(3) Receives a recommendation from the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD to medically remove an HRP-certified individual consistent with § 712.14(h).
</P>
<P>(b) The temporary removal of an HRP-certified individual from HRP duties pending a determination of the individual's reliability is an interim, precautionary action and does not constitute a determination that the individual is not fit to perform his or her required duties. Removal is not, in itself, cause for loss of pay, benefits, or other changes in employment status. Immediately upon directing a temporary removal, the HRP management official must notify the supervisor to take appropriate actions consistent with an immediate removal. Within five (5) business days of placing the individual on a temporary removal, the HRP management official must notify the individual in writing that s/he is temporarily removed.
</P>
<P>(c) If temporary removal is based on derogatory information that is a security concern, the HRP management official must notify the HRP certifying official and the applicable DOE personnel security office.
</P>
<P>(d) If temporary removal is based on a medical concern, the HRP management official must obtain a recommendation from the Designated Physician, Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD consistent with § 712.14(h).
</P>
<P>(e) If the HRP management official determines, after conducting an evaluation of the circumstances or information that led to the temporary removal, that an individual who has been temporarily removed continues to meet the requirements for certification, the HRP management official must:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct that the supervisor reinstate the individual and provide written explanation of the reasons and factual bases for the action;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the individual; and
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the HRP certifying official.
</P>
<P>(f) If the HRP management official determines that an individual who has been temporarily removed does not meet the HRP requirements for certification, the HRP management official must prepare a case chronology that explains why the individual does not meet the requirement for certification and forward it to the HRP certifying official. The HRP management official's determination that an individual does not meet certification requirement must be based on one or more of the types of behaviors and conditions identified in § 712.13(c). The HRP certifying official must review the case chronology from the HRP management official and take one of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct that the supervisor reinstate the individual, with any applicable medical restrictions, provide written explanation of the reasons and factual bases for the action, and notify the individual;
</P>
<P>(2) Direct continuation of the temporary removal pending completion of specified actions (e.g., medical assessment, treatment) to resolve the concerns about the individual's reliability; or
</P>
<P>(3) Recommend to the Manager the revocation of the individual's certification and provide the case chronology to the Manager. If the HRP certifying official is the Manager, he or she should take actions consistent with paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The Manager, on receiving the HRP management official's case chronology and the HRP certifying official's recommendation (if any), must take one of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct that the supervisor reinstate the individual, provide written explanation of the reasons and factual bases for the action, and notify the individual;
</P>
<P>(2) Direct revocation of the individual's HRP certification, in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) Direct continuation of the temporary removal pending completion of specified actions (e.g., medical assessment, treatment) to resolve the concerns about the individual's reliability.
</P>
<P>(h) Notification of Manager's initial decision: If the action is revocation, the Manager must direct the HRP management official to prepare an evaluative report. The appropriate DOE or NNSA counsel must review the evaluative report for legal sufficiency. Upon completion of the evaluative report, the Manager must send a letter by certified mail (return receipt requested) or hand deliver it with record of delivery to the individual whose certification is revoked notifying him or her of the reasons for the revocation and the options for review. The evaluative report must be appended to the letter. The Manager may withhold such a report, or portions thereof, to the extent that he or she determines that the report, or portions thereof, may be exempt from access by the employee under the Privacy Act or the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(i) If an individual is directed by the Manager or HRP certifying official to take specified actions to resolve HRP concerns pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) or (g)(3) of this section he or she must be reevaluated after those actions have been completed, and the Manager must direct either:
</P>
<P>(1) Reinstatement of the individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) Revocation of the individual's HRP certification. In the case of revocation, the HRP management official will be directed to prepare an evaluative report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.20   Request for reconsideration or certification review hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual who receives notification of the Manager's decision to revoke his or her HRP certification under § 712.19 may choose one of the following options:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a written request to the Manager for reconsideration of the decision to revoke certification. The request must include the individual's response to the information that gave rise to the concern. The request must be sent by certified mail to the Manager within 20 working days after the individual received notice of the Manager's decision; or
</P>
<P>(2) Submit a written request to the Manager for a certification review hearing. The request for a hearing must be sent by certified mail to the Manager within 20 working days after the individual receives notice of the Manager's decision.
</P>
<P>(b) If an individual requests reconsideration by the Manager but not a certification review hearing, the Manager must, within 20 working days after receipt of the individual's request, send by certified mail (return receipt requested) a final agency decision to the individual.
</P>
<P>(c) If an individual requests a certification review hearing, the Manager must forward the request to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(d) If an individual takes no action within 20 working days after receipt of the Manager's decision, the Manager's decision will become a final agency decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.21   Appointment of DOE counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt from the individual of a written request for a certification review hearing, the Manager shall request appointment of DOE counsel as soon as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE Counsel is authorized to consult directly with the individual if he is not represented by counsel, or with the individual's counsel or representative if so represented, to clarify issues and reach stipulations with respect to testimony and contents of documents and other physical evidence. Such stipulations shall be binding upon the individual and the DOE Counsel for the purposes of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.22   Office of Hearings and Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the hearing request from the Manager, the Director, DOE Office of Hearings and Appeals, shall appoint, as soon as practicable, an Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrative Judge must have a DOE “Q” access authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual who requests a certification review hearing has the right to appear personally before the Administrative Judge; to present evidence in his or her own behalf, through witnesses or by documents, or by both; and to be accompanied and represented at the hearing by counsel or any other person of the individual's choosing and at the individual's own expense.
</P>
<P>(d) An individual must come forward with evidence to demonstrate that the decision to revoke his or her HRP certification was clearly erroneous or that extraordinary circumstances warrant recertification into HRP. Evidence that the individual has rehabilitated or reformed since the time of the Manager's decision will not be considered by the Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE Counsel shall assist the Administrative Judge in establishing a complete administrative hearing record in the proceeding and bringing out a full and true disclosure of all facts, both favorable and unfavorable, having bearing on the issues before the Administrative Judge.
</P>
<P>(f) In conducting the proceedings, the Administrative Judge will:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine the date, time, and location of the hearing, including whether the hearing will be conducted by video teleconference;
</P>
<P>(2) At least 7 calendar days prior to date scheduled for the hearing, convene a prehearing conference for the purpose of discussing stipulations and exhibits, identifying witnesses, and disposing of other appropriate matters. The conference will usually be conducted by telephone;
</P>
<P>(3) Receive all relevant and material information relating to the individual's fitness for HRP duties through witnesses or documentation;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that the individual is permitted to offer information in his or her behalf; to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses and other persons who have made written or oral statements, and to present and examine documentary evidence to the extent permitted by national security;
</P>
<P>(5) Require the testimony of the individual and all witnesses be given under oath or affirmation;
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that a transcript of the certification review proceedings is made; and
</P>
<P>(7) Not engage in ex parte communications with either party.
</P>
<P>(g) The Administrative Judge shall have all powers necessary to regulate the conduct of proceedings, including, but not limited to, establishing a list of persons to receive service of papers, issuing subpoenas for witnesses to attend the hearing or for the production of specific documents or other physical evidence, administering oaths and affirmations, ruling upon motions, receiving evidence, regulating the course of the hearing, disposing of procedural requests or similar matters, and taking other actions consistent with the regulations in this part. Requests for subpoenas shall be granted except where the Administrative Judge finds that the grant of subpoenas would clearly result in evidence or testimony that is repetitious, incompetent, irrelevant, or immaterial to the issues in the case.
</P>
<P>(h) The Administrative Judge may return a case to the HRP Manager for a final agency decision consistent with § 712.20(b) if—
</P>
<P>(1) The individual or his or her attorney fails to heed the instructions of the Administrative Judge;
</P>
<P>(2) The individual fails to appear at the appointed time, date and location for the certification review hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual otherwise fails to cooperate at the hearing phase of the process; or
</P>
<P>(4) The individual withdraws his/her request for a certification review hearing.
</P>
<P>(i) Based on a review of the administrative hearing record, the Administrative Judge shall prepare a decision regarding the individual's eligibility for recertification in the HRP, which shall consist of written findings and a supporting statement of reasons. In making a decision, the Administrative Judge shall ensure that any doubt as to an individual's certification shall be resolved against the individual in favor of national security and/or safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.23   Administrative Judge's decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the hearing transcript by the Administrative Judge or the closing of the record, whichever is later, the Administrative Judge should forward his or her decision to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security. The Administrative Judge's decision must be accompanied by a copy of the record.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the decision and the administrative record, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security should:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the individual and Manager in writing of the Administrative Judge's decision;
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the individual in writing of the appeal procedures available to the individual in paragraph (c) of this section if the decision is unfavorable to the individual;
</P>
<P>(3) Advise the Manager in writing of the appeal procedures available to the Manager in paragraph (c) of this section if the decision is favorable to the individual; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the individual and/or counsel or representative, and the Manager a copy of the Administrative Judge's decision and the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(c) The individual or the Manager may file with the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security a written request for further review of the decision by the cognizant Under Secretary along with a statement required by paragraph (e) of this section within 20 working days of the individual's or Manager's receipt of the Administrative Judge's decision;
</P>
<P>(d) The copy of any request for further review of the individual's case by the cognizant Under Secretary filed by the Manager shall be provided to the individual by the Manager.
</P>
<P>(e) The party filing a request for review of the individual's case by the cognizant Under Secretary shall include with the request a statement identifying the issues on which it wishes the cognizant Under Secretary to focus.
</P>
<P>(f) The Administrative Judge's decision shall be considered final if a written request for review is not filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 18200, Apr. 26, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.24   Final decision by DOE Under Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the written request for review, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security should forward to the cognizant Under Secretary the written request for review, the Administrative Judge's decision, and the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of the written request for review, the Administrative Judge's decision, and the administrative record, the cognizant Under Secretary, in consultation with the DOE General Counsel, will issue a final written decision. The cognizant Under Secretary may delegate this authority. In issuing a final decision, the cognizant Under Secretary shall expressly state that he or she is either revoking or restoring an individual's HRP certification. A copy of this decision must be sent by certified mail (return receipt requested) to the Manager and to the individual.
</P>
<P>(c) The cognizant Under Secretary shall consider only that evidence and information in the administrative record at the time of the Administrative Judge's decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 18200, Apr. 26, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.1.8.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.25   Cooperation by the individual.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the responsibility of the HRP candidate or HRP certified individual to provide full, frank, and truthful answers to relevant and material questions, and when requested, furnish, or authorize others to furnish, information that DOE deems pertinent to reach a decision regarding HRP certification or recertification. This obligation to cooperate applies at any stage, including but not limited to initial certification, recertification, temporary removal, revocation, and/or hearing. The individual or candidate may elect not to cooperate; however, such refusal may prevent DOE from reaching an affirmative finding required for granting or continuing HRP certification. In this event, any HRP certification then in effect may be revoked, or, for HRP candidates, may not be granted.
</P>
<P>(b) An HRP certified individual who receives notification of the Manager's decision to revoke his or her certification due to failure to cooperate may choose one of the following options:
</P>
<P>(1) Take no action; or
</P>
<P>(2) Within 20 working days after the individual received notice of the Manager's revocation decision, submit a written request by certified mail to the Manager for reconsideration. The request must include the individual's response to the information that gave rise to the revocation decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of the request for reconsideration, the Manager shall notify the individual, in writing, within 20 calendar days of receipt of the written appeal, as to whether the action to revoke certification was appropriate. If the Manager determines that the action was inappropriate, he or she shall reverse revocation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Medical Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.30   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes standards and procedures for conducting medical assessments of DOE and DOE contractor individuals in HRP positions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.31   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The standards and procedures set forth in this subpart are necessary for DOE to:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify the presence of any mental/personality disorders, physical, or behavioral characteristics or conditions that present or are likely to present an unacceptable impairment in reliability;
</P>
<P>(b) Facilitate the early diagnosis and treatment of disease or impairment and foster accommodation and rehabilitation;
</P>
<P>(c) Determine what functions an HRP-certified individual may be able to perform and to facilitate the proper placement of individuals; and
</P>
<P>(d) Provide for continuing monitoring of the health status of individuals to facilitate early detection and correction of adverse health effects, trends, or patterns.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.32   Designated Physician.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Designated Physician must be qualified to provide professional expertise in the area of occupational medicine as it relates to the HRP.
</P>
<P>(b) The Designated Physician must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be a graduate of an accredited school of medicine or osteopathy;
</P>
<P>(2) Have a valid, unrestricted state license to practice medicine in the state where HRP medical assessments occur;
</P>
<P>(3) Have met the applicable HRP instruction requirements; and
</P>
<P>(4) Be eligible for the appropriate DOE access authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) The Designated Physician is responsible for the medical assessments of HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals, including determining which components of the medical assessments may be performed by other qualified personnel. Although a portion of the assessment may be performed by another physician, physician's assistant, or nurse practitioner, the Designated Physician remains responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Supervising the evaluation process;
</P>
<P>(2) Interpreting the results of evaluations;
</P>
<P>(3) Documenting medical conditions or issues that may disqualify an individual from the HRP;
</P>
<P>(4) Providing medical assessment information to the Designated Psychologist to assist in determining psychological fitness;
</P>
<P>(5) Determining, in conjunction with DOE if appropriate, the location and date of the next required medical assessment; and
</P>
<P>(6) Signing a recommendation about the medical fitness of an individual for certification or recertification.
</P>
<P>(d) The Designated Physician must immediately report to the SOMD any of the following about himself or herself:
</P>
<P>(1) Initiation of an adverse action by any state medical licensing board or any other professional licensing board;
</P>
<P>(2) Initiation of an adverse action by any Federal regulatory board since the last designation;
</P>
<P>(3) The withdrawal of the privilege to practice by any institution;
</P>
<P>(4) Being named a defendant in any criminal proceedings (felony or misdemeanor) since the last designation;
</P>
<P>(5) Being evaluated or treated for alcohol use disorder or drug dependency or abuse since the last designation; or
</P>
<P>(6) Occurrence, since the last designation, of a physical, mental/personality disorder, or health condition that might affect his or her ability to perform professional duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.33   Designated Psychologist.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Designated Psychologist reports to the SOMD and determines the psychological fitness of an individual to participate in the HRP. The results of this evaluation may be provided only to the Designated Physician or the SOMD.
</P>
<P>(b) The Designated Psychologist must:
</P>
<P>(1) Hold a doctoral degree from a clinical psychology program that includes a one-year clinical internship approved by the American Psychological Association or an equivalent program;
</P>
<P>(2) Have accumulated a minimum of three years postdoctoral clinical experience with a major emphasis in psychological assessment and testing;
</P>
<P>(3) Have a valid, unrestricted state license to practice clinical psychology in the state where HRP medical assessments occur;
</P>
<P>(4) Have met the applicable HRP instruction requirements; and
</P>
<P>(5) Be eligible for the appropriate DOE access authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) The Designated Psychologist is responsible for all psychological evaluations of HRP candidates, HRP-certified individuals, and others as directed by the SOMD. Although a portion of the psychological evaluation may be performed by another psychologist, the Designated Psychologist must:
</P>
<P>(1) Supervise the psychological evaluation process and designate which components may be performed by other qualified personnel;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request of management, assess the psychological fitness of HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals for HRP duties, including specific work settings, and recommend referrals as indicated; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make referrals for psychiatric, psychological, substance abuse, or personal or family problems, and monitor the progress of individuals so referred.
</P>
<P>(d) The Designated Psychologist must immediately report to the SOMD any of the following about himself or herself:
</P>
<P>(1) Initiation of an adverse action by any state medical licensing board or any other professional licensing board;
</P>
<P>(2) Initiation of an adverse action by any Federal regulatory board since the last designation;
</P>
<P>(3) The withdrawal of the privilege to practice by any institution;
</P>
<P>(4) Being named a defendant in any criminal proceeding (felony or misdemeanor) since the last designation;
</P>
<P>(5) Being evaluated or treated for alcohol use disorder or drug dependency or abuse since the last designation; or
</P>
<P>(6) Occurrence since the last designation of a physical, mental/personality disorder, or health condition that might affect his or her ability to perform professional duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.34   Site Occupational Medical Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The SOMD must nominate a physician to serve as the Designated Physician and a clinical psychologist to serve as the Designated Psychologist. The nominations must be sent through the Manager to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee. Each nomination must describe the nominee's relevant training, experience, and licensure, and include a curriculum vitae and a copy of the nominee's current state or district license.
</P>
<P>(b) The SOMD must submit a renomination report biennially through the Manager to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee. This report must be submitted at least 60 days before the second anniversary of the initial designation or of the last redesignation, whichever applies. The report must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement evaluating the performance of the Designated Physician and Designated Psychologist during the previous designation period; and
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the valid, unrestricted state or district license of the Designated Physician and Designated Psychologist.
</P>
<P>(c) The SOMD must submit, annually, to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee through the Manager, a written report summarizing HRP medical activity during the previous year. The SOMD must comply with any DOE directives specifying the form or contents of the annual report.
</P>
<P>(d) The SOMD must investigate any reports of performance issues regarding a Designated Physician or Designated Psychologist, and the SOMD may suspend either official from HRP-related duties. If the SOMD suspends either official, the SOMD must notify the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee and provide supporting documentation and reasons for the action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3223, Jan. 23, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 68731, Nov. 28, 2006; 83 FR 18208, Apr. 26, 2018; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.35" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.35   Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Develop policies, standards, and guidance for the medical aspects of the HRP, including the psychological testing inventory to be used;
</P>
<P>(b) Review the qualifications of Designated Physicians and Designated Psychologists, and concur or nonconcur with their designations by sending a statement to the Manager and an informational copy to the SOMD; and
</P>
<P>(c) Provide technical assistance on medical aspects of the HRP to all DOE elements and DOE contractors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3223, Jan. 23, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 83 FR 18208, Apr. 26, 2018; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.36" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.36   Medical assessment process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Designated Physician, under the supervision of the SOMD, is responsible for the medical assessment of HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals. In carrying out this responsibility, the Designated Physician or the SOMD must integrate the medical evaluations, psychological evaluations, psychiatric evaluations, and any other relevant information to determine an individual's overall medical qualification for assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(b) Employers must provide a job task analysis for those individuals involved in HRP duties to both the Designated Physician and the Designated Psychologist before each medical assessment and psychological evaluation. HRP medical assessments and psychological evaluations may not be performed if a job task analysis has not been provided.
</P>
<P>(c) The medical process by the Designated Physician includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Medical assessments for initial certification, annual recertification, and evaluations for reinstatement following temporary removal from the HRP;
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluations resulting from self-referrals and referrals by management;
</P>
<P>(3) Routine medical contacts and occupational and nonoccupational health counseling sessions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Review of current legal drug use.
</P>
<P>(d) Psychological evaluations must be conducted:
</P>
<P>(1) For initial certification. This psychological evaluation consists of a generally accepted psychological assessment (test) approved by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee and a semi-structured interview.
</P>
<P>(2) For recertification. This psychological evaluation consists of a semi-structured interview, which is conducted annually at the time of the medical examination.
</P>
<P>(3) Every third year. The medical assessment for recertification must include a generally accepted psychological assessment (test) approved by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(4) When the SOMD determines that additional psychological or psychiatric evaluations are required to resolve HRP concerns as listed in § 712.13(c).
</P>
<P>(e) Following absences requiring return-to-work evaluations under applicable DOE directives, the Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD must determine whether a psychological evaluation is necessary.
</P>
<P>(f) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, the Designated Physician must forward the completed medical assessment of an HRP candidate and HRP-certified individual to the SOMD, who must make a recommendation, based on the assessment, to the individual's HRP management official. If the Designated Physician determines that a currently certified individual no longer meets the HRP requirements, the Designated Physician must immediately, orally, inform the HRP management official. A written explanation must follow within 24 hours.
</P>
<P>(g) The Designated Physician, the Designated Psychologist, or the SOMD may make a medical recommendation for return to work and work accommodations for HRP-certified individuals.
</P>
<P>(h) The following documentation is required after treatment of an individual for any disqualifying condition:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the diagnosis, treatment, current status, and prognosis to be furnished by the treatment provider to the Designated Physician;
</P>
<P>(2) The medical opinion of the Designated Physician advising the individual's supervisor whether the individual is able to return to work in either an HRP or non-HRP capacity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any periodic monitoring plan, approved by the Designated Physician or the Designated Psychologist and the SOMD, used to evaluate the reliability of the individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 3223, Jan. 23, 2004, as amended at 71 FR 68731, Nov. 28, 2006; 83 FR 18208, Apr. 26, 2018; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.37" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.37   Evaluation for hallucinogen use.</HEAD>
<P>If DOE determines that an HRP candidate or HRP-certified individual has used any hallucinogen, the individual is not eligible for certification or recertification unless:
</P>
<P>(a) Five years have passed since the last use of the hallucinogen;
</P>
<P>(b) There is no evidence of any flashback within the last five years from the previous hallucinogen use; and
</P>
<P>(c) The individual has a record of acceptable job performance and observed behavior.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.38" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.7.2.9.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.38   Maintenance of medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The medical records of HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals must be maintained in accordance with the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and DOE implementing regulations in 10 CFR part 1008; the Department of Labor's regulations on access to individual exposure and medical records, 29 CFR 1910.1020; and applicable DOE directives. DOE contractors also may be subject to section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act, 29 U.S.C. 793, and its implementing rules, including confidentiality provisions in 41 CFR 60-741.23 (d).
</P>
<P>(b) The psychological record of HRP candidates and HRP-certified individuals is a component of the medical record. The psychological record must:
</P>
<P>(1) Contain any clinical reports, test protocols and data, notes of individual contacts and correspondence, and other information pertaining to an individual's contact with a psychologist;
</P>
<P>(2) Be stored in a secure location in the custody of the Designated Psychologist; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be kept separate from other medical record documents, with access limited to the SOMD and the Designated Physician.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="715" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 715—DEFINITION OF NONRECOURSE PROJECT-FINANCED
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7651o(a)(2)(B); 42 U.S.C. 7254. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 55064, Oct. 24, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 715.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.8.0.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the definition of “nonrecourse project-financed” as that term is used to define “new independent power production facility,” in section 416(a)(2)(B) of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990, 42 U.S.C. 7651o(a)(2)(B). This definition is for purposes of section 416(a)(2)(B) only. It is not intended to alter or impact the tax treatment of any facility or facility owner under the Internal Revenue Code and regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.8.0.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart— 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990, 104 Stat. 2399. 
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means a “new independent power production facility” as that term is used in the Act, 42 U.S.C. 7651o(a)(2). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.8.0.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.3   Definition of “Nonrecourse Project-Financed”.</HEAD>
<P><I>Nonrecourse project-financed</I> means when being financed by any debt, such debt is secured by the assets financed and the revenues received by the facility being financed including, but not limited to, part or all of the revenues received under one or more agreements for the sale of the electric output from the facility, and which neither an electric utility with a retail service territory, nor a public utility as defined by section 201(e) of the Federal Power Act, as amended, 16 U.S.C. 824(e), if any of its facilities are financed with general credit, is obligated to repay in whole or in part. A commitment to contribute equity or the contribution of equity to a facility by an electric utility shall not be considered an obligation of such utility to repay the debt of a facility. The existence of limited guarantees, commitments to pay for cost overruns, indemnity provisions, or other similar undertakings or assurances by the facility's owners or other project participants will not disqualify a facility from being “nonrecourse project-financed” as long as, at the time of the financing for the facility, the borrower is obligated to make repayment of the term debt from the revenues generated by the facility, rather than from other sources of funds. Projects that are 100 percent equity financed are also considered “nonrecourse project-financed” for purposes of section 416(a)(2)(B). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="719" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 719—CONTRACTOR LEGAL MANAGEMENT REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201, 5814, 5815 and 7101, <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401, <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 25809, May 3, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.1   What is the purpose of this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part facilitates management of retained legal counsel and contractor legal costs, including litigation and legal matter costs. It requires the contractor to develop a Legal Management Plan, to document the analysis used to decide when to utilize outside counsel, and to document what law firm or individual attorney will be engaged as outside counsel. This part also requires the contractor to document the terms of the engagement with retained legal counsel. Payment of Department-retained law firm invoices and reimbursement of contractor legal costs under covered contracts are subject to compliance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.2   What are the definitions of terms used in this part?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Alternative dispute resolution</I> includes, but is not limited to, processes such as mediation, neutral evaluation, mini-trials and arbitration.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any person or entity with whom the Department contracts for the acquisition of goods or services.
</P>
<P><I>Covered contracts</I> means those contracts described in § 719.3 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy (DOE), including the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA).
</P>
<P><I>Department Counsel</I> means the attorney in the DOE or NNSA field office, or Headquarters office, designated as the contracting officer's representative and point of contact for a contractor or for Department retained legal counsel, for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the DOE General Counsel for DOE legal matters and the NNSA General Counsel for NNSA legal matters.
</P>
<P><I>Legal costs</I> means, but is not limited to, administrative expenses associated with the provision of legal services by retained legal counsel; the costs of legal services provided by retained legal counsel; the costs of the services, if the services are procured in connection with a legal matter, of accountants, consultants, experts or others retained by the contractor or by retained legal counsel; and any similar costs incurred by retained legal counsel or in connection with the services of retained legal counsel.
</P>
<P><I>Legal Management Plan</I> means a document required by subpart B of this part describing the contractor's practices for managing legal costs and legal matters for which it procures the services of retained legal counsel.
</P>
<P><I>Litigation</I> means a proceeding arising under or related to a contract between the contractor and the Department to which the contractor is a party in a State, tribal, territorial, foreign, or federal court or before an administrative body or an arbitrator.
</P>
<P><I>Retained legal counsel</I> means a licensed attorney working in the private sector who is retained by a contractor or the Department to provide legal services.
</P>
<P><I>Retrospective insurance</I> means any insurance policy under which the premium is not fixed but is subject to adjustments to reimburse the insurance carrier for actual losses incurred or paid (e.g. claims, settlements, damages, and legal costs). Retrospective insurance includes service-type insurance policies as described in 48 CFR 928.370.
</P>
<P><I>Settlement agreement</I> means a written agreement between a contractor and one or more parties pursuant to which one or more parties waives the right to pursue a legal claim in exchange for something of value.
</P>
<P><I>Significant matters</I> means legal matters involving significant issues as determined by Department Counsel and identified to a contractor in writing, and any legal matters where the amount of any legal costs, over the life of the matter, is expected to exceed $100,000.
</P>
<P><I>Staffing and Resource Plan</I> means a statement prepared in accordance with subpart B of this part by retained legal counsel that describes the method for managing a Significant Matter in litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.3   What contracts are covered by this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless excluded under § 719.5, this part covers the following three categories of contracts:
</P>
<P>(1) All management and operating contracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Non-management and operating cost reimbursement contracts exceeding $100,000,000; and
</P>
<P>(3) Non-management and operating contracts exceeding $100,000,000 that include cost reimbursable elements exceeding $10,000,000 (e.g., contracts with both fixed-price and cost-reimbursable line items where the cost-reimbursable line items exceed $10,000,000 or time and materials contracts where the materials portions exceed $10,000,000).
</P>
<P>(b) This part also covers contracts otherwise not covered by paragraph (a) of this section but which contain a clause requiring compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part also covers any contract the Department awards directly to retained legal counsel exceeding $100,000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.4   Are law firms that are retained by contract by the Department covered by this part?</HEAD>
<P>Legal counsel retained under fixed rate or other type of contract or other agreement by the Department to provide legal services must comply with the following if the legal costs over the life of the matter for which counsel has been retained are expected by the Department to exceed $100,000 and retained legal counsel are so notified by the Department:
</P>
<P>(a) Requirements related to Staffing and Resource Plans in subpart B of this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Cost guidelines in subpart E of this part; and
</P>
<P>(c) Engagement letter requirements in subpart C of this part if the retained legal counsel subcontracts legal work valued at $25,000 or more (e.g., a law firm retained by the Department subcontracts with another law firm to provide $26,000 in discovery-related legal work).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.5   What contracts are not covered by this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part does not cover any contract under which the Department is not responsible for directly reimbursing the contractor for legal costs, such as fixed price contracts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.6   Are there any types of legal matters not included in the coverage of this part?</HEAD>
<P>Legal matters not covered by this part include:
</P>
<P>(a) Matters handled by counsel retained by an insurance carrier, except under retrospective insurance in accordance with § 719.45;
</P>
<P>(b) Routine intellectual property law support services; and
</P>
<P>(c) Routine workers and unemployment compensation matters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.7   Is there a procedure for exceptions or deviations from this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests for exceptions or deviations from this part must be made in writing to Department Counsel and approved by the General Counsel. If an alternate procedure is proposed for compliance with an individual requirement in this part, that procedure must be included in the written request by the contractor. The General Counsel or his/her delegee shall provide a written response to such requests; however the response shall not require a justification of the Department's exercise of its discretion.
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel may authorize exceptions or deviations requested under paragraph (a) of this section. The General Counsel may also establish exceptions to this part based on current field office and contractor practices that satisfy the purpose of these requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) Exceptions to this part that are also a deviation from the Department of Energy Acquisition Regulation (DEAR) cost principles (see subpart D of this part) must be approved in accordance with applicable DOE procurement policy. See, e.g., DOE Acquisition Guide chapter 1.1, requiring approval by the Senior Procurement Executive of DOE or NNSA as applicable. In any event, the written request from a contractor for a deviation from a cost principle relating to this part must be submitted to the contracting officer, with a copy provided to Department Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.1.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.8   Does the provision of protected documents from the contractor to the Department constitute a waiver of privilege?</HEAD>
<P>Contractors are required to provide detailed information about third-party claims and litigation to the Department. The Department and its contractors typically share common legal and strategic interests relating to pending or threatened litigation. The common interest between the parties is primarily rooted in the fact that the Department reimburses contractors for allowable costs incurred when litigation is threatened or initiated against contractors. However, other sources of the common interest between the Department and its contractors may include, but are not limited to, an interest in completion of the agency's important mission work and an interest in safe and efficient operation of the Department's facilities. To the extent documents associated with compliance with this part (e.g., Staffing and Resource Plans, invoices, engagement letters, settlement authority requests, and draft pleadings) are protected from disclosure to third parties because the items constitute attorney work product and/or involve attorney client communications, the contractor's provision of these items to the Department does not constitute a waiver of privilege. As long as the Department and the contractor share a common interest in the outcome of legal matters, this mutual legal interest permits the parties to share privileged material without waiving any applicable privilege.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Legal Management Plan, Staffing and Resource Plan and Annual Legal Budget</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.10   Who must submit a Legal Management Plan?</HEAD>
<P>Contractors who are parties to contracts identified under § 719.3(a) and (b) must submit a Legal Management Plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.11   When must a Legal Management Plan be submitted or revised?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors must submit a Legal Management Plan to Department Counsel within 60 days following award of the contract. The deadline for submitting the Legal Management Plan may be extended by Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors must submit a revised Legal Management Plan upon request of Department Counsel within 60 days of receipt of the Department Counsel's request. The request for a revised Legal Management Plan shall include an explanation of the request. The deadline for submitting the Legal Management Plan may be extended by the Department Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.12   What information must be included in the Legal Management Plan?</HEAD>
<P>The Legal Management Plan must include the following items:
</P>
<P>(a) A description of the contractor's in-house counsel resources at the time the Legal Management Plan is submitted, including areas of expertise and an explanation of the types of matters expected to be handled in-house.
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the legal matters that may necessitate engagement of retained legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) A description of the factors the contractor will consider in determining whether to handle a particular matter utilizing retained legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) An outline of the factors the contractor must consider in selecting retained legal counsel, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Cost;
</P>
<P>(2) Past performance of previously retained counsel;
</P>
<P>(3) Particular expertise in a specific area of the law;
</P>
<P>(4) Familiarity with the Department's activity at the particular site and the prevalent issues associated with facility history and current operations;
</P>
<P>(5) Location of retained legal counsel relative to:
</P>
<P>(i) The site involved in the matter,
</P>
<P>(ii) Any forum in which the matter will be processed, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The location where a significant portion of the work will be performed;
</P>
<P>(6) Experience as an advocate in alternative dispute resolution procedures such as mediation;
</P>
<P>(7) Actual or potential conflicts of interest; and
</P>
<P>(8) The means and rate of compensation (e.g., hourly billing, fixed fee, blended fees).
</P>
<P>(e) A description of the system that the contractor will use to review each matter in litigation to determine whether and when alternative dispute resolution is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) A description of the role of in-house counsel in cost management.
</P>
<P>(g) A description of the contractor's process for review and approval of invoices for legal costs.
</P>
<P>(h) A description of the contractor's strategy for interaction with, and supervision of, retained legal counsel.
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the procedures the contractor will employ in order to seek timely approval from Department Counsel to settle any legal matters as required by § 719.34 of this part;
</P>
<P>(j) A description of the contractor's strategy for keeping Department Counsel apprised of all legal matters covered by this part (e.g., regularly scheduled meetings and written communications).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.13   Who at the Department receives and reviews the Legal Management Plan?</HEAD>
<P>Contractors must submit a Legal Management Plan to Department Counsel. If the contractor has not been notified of the assignment of Department Counsel, the contractor must submit the Legal Management Plan to the contracting officer and the DOE Deputy General Counsel for Litigation and Enforcement or the NNSA Deputy General Counsel as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.14   Will the Department notify the contractor concerning the adequacy or inadequacy of the submitted Legal Management Plan?</HEAD>
<P>The Contracting Officer or Department Counsel will notify the contractor of any non-compliance or inadequate information relating to requirements in § 719.12 within 30 days of the contractor's submission of the plan. The contractor must either correct matters identified within 30 days of notification or file a letter with the General Counsel disputing the determination of a deficiency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.15   What are the requirements for a Staffing and Resource Plan?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For significant matters in litigation, the contractor must require retained legal counsel to prepare a Staffing and Resource Plan. The contractor must then forward the Staffing and Resource Plan to Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) Retained legal counsel retained directly by the Department subject to this part must prepare a Staffing and Resource Plan and forward it to Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) A Staffing and Resource Plan must describe the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Major phases likely to be involved in the handling of the matter;
</P>
<P>(2) Timing and sequence of such phases;
</P>
<P>(3) Projected cost for each phase of the representation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Detailed description of resources that the retained legal counsel intends to devote to the representation.
</P>
<P>(d) A Staffing and Resource Plan must include a budget, broken down by phases, including at a minimum the following phases:
</P>
<P>(1) Matter assessment, development and administration;
</P>
<P>(2) Pretrial pleadings and motions;
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery;
</P>
<P>(4) Trial preparation and trial; and
</P>
<P>(5) Appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) The contractor must notify Department Counsel before incurring retained legal counsel costs in excess of costs listed in the budget developed pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.16   When must the Staffing and Resource Plan be submitted?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor or retained legal counsel must submit the Staffing and Resource Plan to Department Counsel within 30 days after the filing of an answer or a dispositive motion in lieu of an answer, 30 days after a determination that the cost is expected to exceed $100,000, or 30 days after notification from Department Counsel that a matter is considered significant, whichever is sooner. The deadline for submitting the Staffing and Resource Plan may be extended by Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) Department Counsel may state objections to the Staffing and Resource Plan within 30 days of receipt of a Staffing and Resource Plan. When an objection is stated, the contractor or retained legal counsel must either revise the Staffing and Resource Plan to satisfy the objection within 30 days or file a letter with the General Counsel disputing the objection.
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors must require retained legal counsel to update Staffing and Resource Plans annually or more frequently if there are significant changes in the matter. The contractor must submit the Staffing and Resource Plan updates to Department Counsel. Similarly, Department retained legal counsel must submit to Department Counsel annual Staffing and Resource Plan updates or more frequent updates if there are significant changes in the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.17" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.2.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.17   Are there any budgetary requirements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors required to submit a Legal Management Plan must also submit an annual legal budget to Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) The annual legal budget must include cost projections for significant matters at a level of detail reflective of the types of billable activities and the stage of each such matter.
</P>
<P>(c) For informational purposes for both the contractor and Department Counsel, the contractor must submit a report to Department Counsel comparing its budgeted and actual legal costs within 30 days of the conclusion of the period covered by each annual legal budget. The Department recognizes, however, that there may be departures from the annual budget beyond the control of the contractor.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Engagement Letter</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.3.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.20   When must an engagement letter be submitted to Department Counsel?</HEAD>
<P>Contractors must submit a copy of an executed engagement letter between it and retained legal counsel to Department Counsel when the retained counsel is expected to provide $25,000 or more in legal services for a particular matter. A copy of the executed engagement letter must be submitted to Department Counsel upon execution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.3.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.21   What are the required elements of an engagement letter?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The engagement letter must require retained legal counsel to assist the contractor in complying with this part and any supplemental guidance distributed under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) At a minimum, the engagement letter must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A process for review and documented approval of all billing by a contractor representative including the timing and scope of billing reviews.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that provision of records to the Government is not intended to constitute a waiver of any applicable legal privilege, protection, or immunity with respect to disclosure of these records to third parties. An exemption for specific records may be obtained where contractors can demonstrate that a particular situation may provide grounds for a waiver.
</P>
<P>(3) A requirement that the contractor, the Department, and the Government Accountability Office have the right, upon request, and at reasonable times and locations to inspect, copy, and audit all records documenting billable fees and costs.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that all records must be retained for a period of six (6) years and three (3) months after the final payment or after final case disposition, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(5) Identification of all attorneys and staff who are assigned to the matter and the rate and basis of their compensation (i.e., hourly rates, fixed fees, contingency arrangement) and a process for obtaining approval of temporary adjustments in staffing levels or identified attorneys.
</P>
<P>(6) An initial assessment of the matter by retained legal counsel, along with a commitment to provide updates as necessary.
</P>
<P>(7) A description of billing procedures, including frequency of billing and billing statement format.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement setting forth an agreement that the retained legal counsel will prepare a Staffing and Resource Plan in accordance with the requirements of § 719.15.
</P>
<P>(9) A statement setting forth an agreement to consider alternative dispute resolution at the earliest possible stage and thereafter as appropriate where litigation is involved.
</P>
<P>(10) A statement setting forth an agreement that retained legal counsel must comply with the cost guidelines in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(11) A statement setting forth an agreement that retained legal counsel will provide a certification concerning the costs submitted for reimbursement. The certification that must be included in bills or invoices submitted by retained legal counsel must appear as follows: “Under penalty of law, [the representative] acknowledges the expectation that the bill will be paid by the contractor and that the contractor will be reimbursed by the Federal Government through the U.S. Department of Energy, and, based on personal knowledge and a good faith belief, certifies that the bill is truthful and accurate, and that the services and charges set forth herein comply with the terms of engagement and the policies set forth in the Department of Energy's regulation and guidance on contractor legal management requirements, and that the costs and charges set forth herein are appropriate and related to the representation of the client.” The certification must be signed and dated by a representative of the retained legal counsel. Invoices must contain all elements (e.g., date of service, description of service, name of attorney, etc.) set forth in the model bill format in Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(12) A statement setting forth agreement to identify and address promptly any professional conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(c) There may be additional requirements for an engagement letter based on the needs of the contractor or the Departmental element requiring the services of the Department retained legal counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Requests From Contractor Counsel To Initiate, Defend, and Settle Legal Matters</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.4.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.30   In what circumstances may the contractor initiate litigation, including appeals from adverse decisions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor must provide written notice to Department Counsel prior to initiating litigation or appealing from adverse decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor may not initiate litigation for which it seeks reimbursement without prior written authorization of Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) The following information must be provided to Department Counsel by the contractor prior to initiating litigation or appealing an adverse decision:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of the proposed parties;
</P>
<P>(2) The nature of the proposed action;
</P>
<P>(3) Relief sought;
</P>
<P>(4) Venue;
</P>
<P>(5) Proposed representation and reason for selection;
</P>
<P>(6) An analysis of the issues and the likelihood of success, and any time limitation associated with the requested approval;
</P>
<P>(7) The estimated costs associated with the proposed action, including whether outside counsel has agreed to a contingent fee arrangement;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether, for any reason, the contractor will assume any part of the costs of the action;
</P>
<P>(9) A description of any attempts to resolve the issues that would be the subject of the litigation, such as through mediation or other means of alternative dispute resolution; and
</P>
<P>(10) A discussion regarding why initiating litigation would prove beneficial to the contractor and to the Department.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.4.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.31   When must the contractor initiate litigation against third parties?</HEAD>
<P>The contractor must initiate litigation, upon the request of the contracting officer, against third parties including proceedings before administrative agencies, in connection with the contract. The contractor shall proceed with such litigation in good faith and as directed from time to time by Department Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.4.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.32   What must the contractor do when it receives notice that it is a party to litigation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor shall give the contracting officer and Department Counsel immediate notice in writing of any legal proceeding, including any proceeding before an administrative agency and any claim which will be handled by a retrospective insurance carrier if costs (including Legal costs, settlements, claims paid, damages, etc.) are likely to be $100,000 or more, filed against the contractor arising out of the performance of the contract and shall provide a copy of all relevant filings and any other documents that may be requested by the contracting officer and/or Department Counsel. The Department Counsel will direct the contractor as to:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the contractor must authorize the Government to defend the action;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the Government will take charge of the action; or
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the Government must receive an assignment of the contractor's rights.
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor shall proceed with such litigation in good faith and as directed from time to time by the Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) If the costs and expenses associated with the legal proceeding against the contractor are potentially allowable under the contract, the contractor shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Authorize Department representatives to collaborate with contractor in-house counsel or Department Counsel-approved outside counsel in settling or defending the legal proceeding; or counsel for any associated insurance carrier in settling or defending the claim if retrospective insurance applies or the amount of liability claimed exceeds the amount of insurance coverage; and
</P>
<P>(2) Authorize Department representatives to settle the legal proceeding or to defend or represent the contractor in and/or to take charge of any litigation, if required by the Department, except where the liability is covered by bond or is insured by an insurance policy other than retrospective insurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.4.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.33   In what circumstances must the contractor seek permission from the Department to enter a settlement agreement?</HEAD>
<P>The contractor must obtain permission from Department Counsel to enter a settlement agreement if the settlement agreement requires contractor payment of $25,000 or more. Obtaining this approval does not represent a determination that the settlement amount and/or the legal costs incurred in connection with the underlying legal matter will be determined to be allowable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.4.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.34   What documentation must the contractor provide to Department Counsel when it seeks permission to enter a settlement agreement?</HEAD>
<P>The contractor must provide a written statement to the Department Counsel that includes the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) The amount of any proposed monetary settlement payment.
</P>
<P>(b) Titles and docket numbers associated with the case(s) for which the contractor is seeking approval to settle;
</P>
<P>(c) The procedural history of the case(s) or issue(s);
</P>
<P>(d) A narrative description of the legal claims or allegations at issue in the matter and any background information that explains events that precipitated the initiation of the matter;
</P>
<P>(e) A description of the history of the settlement discussions;
</P>
<P>(f) A description of the terms of the proposed settlement agreement or requested settlement authority and the rationale for the contractor entering into the proposed agreement;
</P>
<P>(g) If the proposed total monetary settlement amount would be allocated among multiple plaintiffs, a list of the plaintiffs and the amount of money each would receive pursuant to the proposed settlement agreement as well as an explanation as to why the settlement amount is different for any particular plaintiff, if appropriate;
</P>
<P>(h) A description as to why settlement of the matter is in the best interest of the Department; and
</P>
<P>(i) Any additional supporting documents requested by Department Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.35" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.4.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.35   When must the contractor provide a copy of an executed settlement agreement?</HEAD>
<P>A contractor must provide a copy of an executed settlement agreement within seven (7) days of execution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Reimbursement of Costs Subject to This Part</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.40   What effect do the regulations of this part have on cost allowability?</HEAD>
<P>Contractor and retained legal counsel compliance with this part is a prerequisite for allowability of legal costs. However, compliance with this part does not guarantee that legal costs will be determined to be allowable. Only the contracting officer has the authority to determine allowability of costs in accordance with 48 CFR (FAR) part 31 and (DEAR) part 931 and all other applicable contract terms and conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.41" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.41   How does the Department determine whether fees are reasonable?</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether fees or rates charged by retained legal counsel are reasonable, the Department may consider among other things:
</P>
<P>(a) Whether the lowest reasonably achievable fees or rates (including any currently available or negotiable discounts) were obtained from retained legal counsel;
</P>
<P>(b) Whether lower rates from other firms providing comparable services, at appropriate competency and experience levels, were available;
</P>
<P>(c) Whether alternative rate structures such as flat, contingent, and other innovative proposals, were considered; and
</P>
<P>(d) The complexity of the legal matter and the expertise of the law firm in this area.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.42" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.42   What categories of costs are unallowable?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Specific categories of unallowable costs are contained in the cost principles at 48 CFR (FAR) part 31 and 48 CFR (DEAR) part 931 and 48 CFR 970.31. See also 41 U.S.C. 4304.
</P>
<P>(b) Costs that are customarily or already included in billed hourly rates are not separately reimbursable.
</P>
<P>(c) Interest charges that a contractor incurs on any outstanding (unpaid) bills from retained legal counsel are not reimbursable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.43" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.43   What is the treatment of travel costs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Travel and related expenses must at a minimum comply with the restrictions set forth in 48 CFR 31.205-46, or 48 CFR (DEAR) 970.3102-05-46, as appropriate, to be reimbursable.
</P>
<P>(b) Travel time may be allowed at a full hourly rate for the portion of time during which retained legal counsel performs legal work for which it was retained; any remaining travel time shall be reimbursed at 50 percent of the full hourly rate, except that in no event will travel time spent working for other clients be allowable. Also, for long distance travel that could be completed by various methods of transportation, e.g., car, train, or plane, costs charged by retained legal counsel or any agent of retained legal counsel will be considered reasonable only if the individuals charge no more travel time than it would take to utilize the fastest mode of transportation that is cost-effective. For example, if retained legal counsel travels for 10 hours by train when a cost-effective flight that would take two hours to get to the same destination is available, the attorney may charge a maximum of two hours for the time spent traveling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.44" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.44   What categories of costs require advance approval?</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be considered for reimbursement, costs incurred by retained legal counsel for the following require advance written approval from Department Counsel or the submission of subsequent specific justification to Department Counsel when circumstances out of the contractor's control make advance approval unobtainable:
</P>
<P>(1) Computers or general application software, or non-routine computerized databases, if they are specifically created for a particular matter. For costs associated with the creation and use of computerized databases, contractors and retained legal counsel must ensure that the creation and use of computerized databases is necessary and cost-effective. Use of databases originally created by the Department or its contractors for other purposes, but that can be used to assist a contractor or retained legal counsel in connection with a particular matter, should be considered. Contractors and retained legal counsel must ensure that DOE is provided the discretion to obtain unlimited access to and dominion over any computers or general application software, or non-routine computerized databases specifically created for a particular matter;
</P>
<P>(2) Secretarial and support services, word processing, or temporary support personnel;
</P>
<P>(3) Attendance by more than one attorney at a deposition, court hearing or interview;
</P>
<P>(4) Expert witnesses and consultants;
</P>
<P>(5) Trade publications, books, treatises, background materials, and other similar documents;
</P>
<P>(6) Professional or educational seminars and conferences;
</P>
<P>(7) Preparation of bills or time spent responding to questions about bills from either the Department or the contractor;
</P>
<P>(8) Food and beverages when the attorney or consultant is not on travel status and away from the home office;
</P>
<P>(9) Pro hac vice admissions; and
</P>
<P>(10) Time charged for law students' or interns' services.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for fee increases by retained legal counsel, other than those under contract directly with the Department, must be sent in writing to the contractor, who will review the request for reasonableness. If the contractor determines the request is reasonable, the contractor must seek approval for the increase from Department Counsel before it authorizes any increase. Contractors should attempt to lock in rates for partners, associates and paralegals for at least a two year period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.45" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.45   Are there any special procedures or requirements regarding subcontractor and retrospective insurance carrier legal costs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor shall establish a monitoring system for significant matters in litigation which are handled by subcontractors other than retrospective insurance carriers whose contracts provide for the reimbursement of legal costs. The purpose of this monitoring system is to enable the contractor to be regularly informed of the progress of the Significant Matter, to monitor the associated costs and help ensure that they are reasonable, and to report on the progress of the Significant Matter and the associated costs to Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor shall require retrospective insurance carriers and other subcontractors whose contracts provide for the reimbursement of legal costs to request prior permission from the contractor to enter into a settlement agreement with, or make any payments to, claimants or third-parties if:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a subcontractor other than a retrospective insurance carrier, the settlement or payment amount is likely to reach $25,000 or more; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a retrospective insurance carrier, the settlement or payment amount is likely to reach $100,000 or more.
</P>
<P>(c) The contractor shall require the insurance carrier or other subcontractor to submit all documentation described in § 719.34 and to provide the contractor with a copy of the executed settlement agreement within seven days of execution, which the contractor will promptly forward to Department Counsel. The contractor shall not authorize the subcontractor to enter into a settlement agreement or make a payment to a claimant or third-party that is likely to reach or exceed the above-stated threshold amounts without first obtaining the approval of the Department Counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon request from Department Counsel, the Contracting Officer, or other authorized representative of the Department, the contractor shall provide detailed cost information regarding particular legal matters handled by retrospective insurance carriers or other subcontractors whose contracts provide for the reimbursement of legal costs.
</P>
<P>(e) The contractor shall provide reviewed costs and status updates for all significant matters in litigation handled by subcontractors whose contracts provide for the reimbursement of legal costs in accordance with § 719.51. The contractor is not required to provide cost and status updates for matters handled by retrospective insurance carriers except upon the written request of the cognizant Contracting Officer or Department Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.46" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.46   Are costs covered by this part subject to audit?</HEAD>
<P>All costs covered by this part are subject to audit by the Department, its designated representative, or the Government Accountability Office. <I>See</I> § 719.21.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.47" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.5.9.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.47   What happens when more than one contractor is a party to a matter?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If more than one contractor is a party in a particular matter and the issues involved are similar for all the contractors, a single legal counsel designated by the General Counsel must either represent all of the contractors or serve as lead counsel, when the rights of the contractors and the Government can be effectively represented by a single legal counsel, consistent with the standards for professional conduct applicable in the particular matter. Contractors may propose to the General Counsel their preference for the individual or law firm to perform as the lead counsel for a particular matter.
</P>
<P>(b) If a contractor, having been afforded an opportunity to present its views concerning joint or lead representation, does not acquiesce in the designation of one retained legal counsel to represent a number of contractors, or serve as lead counsel, then the legal costs of such contractor are not reimbursable by the Department, unless the contractor demonstrates that it was reasonable for the contractor to incur such expenses.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Department Counsel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.50" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.6.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.50   What authority does Department Counsel have?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Department Counsel will receive written delegated authority from the contracting officer to serve as the contracting officer's representative for legal matters.
</P>
<P>(b) Actions by Department Counsel may not exceed the responsibilities and limitations as delegated by the contracting officer. Delegated contracting officer representative authority shall not be construed to include the authority to execute or modify the contract or resolve any contract dispute arising under the contract. Additional discussion of the authority and limitation of contracting officers can be found at 48 CFR 1.602-1, and contracting officer's representatives at 48 CFR (DEAR) 942.270-1. The clause, Technical Direction, 48 CFR (DEAR) 952.242-70, also discusses the responsibilities and authority of a contracting officer's representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.51" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.6.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.51   What information must be forwarded to the General Counsel's Office concerning contractor submissions to Department Counsel under this part?</HEAD>
<P>Department Counsel must submit through the General Counsel reporting system, the reviewed costs and status updates for all matters involving retained counsel, including but not limited to contractor litigation. The reports are to be received by the 15th day of the month following the end of each quarter of the fiscal year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 719.52" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.6.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 719.52   What types of field actions must be coordinated with the General Counsel?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests from contractors for exceptions or deviations from this part must be submitted to the contracting officer and Department Counsel, and approved by the General Counsel or his/her delegee.
</P>
<P>(b) Requests from contractors for approval to initiate or defend litigation, or to appeal from adverse decisions, where legal issues of first impression, sensitive issues, issues of national significance to the Department or of broad applicability to the Government that might adversely impact its operations are involved must be coordinated by Department Counsel with the General Counsel or his/her delegee.
</P>
<P>(c) Department Counsel must inform the General Counsel of any Significant Matter, as defined in this part, and must coordinate any action involving a Significant Matter with the General Counsel, or his/her delegee, as directed by the General Counsel or his/her delegee.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.9.6.9.4.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 719—Guidance for Legal Resource Management
</HEAD>
<HD1>Management and Administration of Outside Legal Services
</HD1>
<FP-2>1.0 Alternative Dispute Resolution
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.0 Cost Allowability Issues
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.1 Underlying Cause for Incurrence of Costs
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Attachment—Contractor Litigation and Legal Costs, Model Bill Format
</FP-2>
<HD1>Management and Administration of Outside Legal Services
</HD1>
<P>This guidance is intended to assist contractors, contracting officers and retained legal counsel in managing the costs of outside legal services.
</P>
<HD2>1.0 Alternative Dispute Resolution
</HD2>
<P>Contractors are expected to evaluate all matters for appropriate alternative dispute resolution (ADR) at various stages of an issue in dispute, e.g., before a case is filed, during pre-discovery, after initial discovery and during pretrial. This evaluation should be done in coordination with the Department's ADR liaison if one has been established or appointed or Department Counsel if an ADR liaison has not been appointed. Contractors, contractor counsel, and Department Counsel are also encouraged to consult with the Department's Director of the Office of Conflict Prevention and Resolution. The Department anticipates that mediation will be the principal and most common method of alternative dispute resolution. Agreement to arbitrate should generally be consistent with the Administrative Dispute Resolution Act (incorporated in part at 5 U.S.C. 571, et seq.) and Department guidance issued under that Act. When a decision to arbitrate is made, a statement fixing the maximum award amount should be agreed to in advance by the participants.
</P>
<HD2>2.0 Cost Allowability Issues
</HD2>
<P>A determination of cost reasonableness depends on a variety of considerations and circumstances. 48 CFR 31.201-3 establishes that no presumption of reasonableness is attached to the incurrence of costs by a contractor.
</P>
<HD2>2.1 Underlying Cause for Incurrence of Costs
</HD2>
<P>While 10 CFR part 719 provides procedures associated with incurring and monitoring legal costs, the evaluation of the reason for the incurrence of the legal costs, e.g., liability, fault or avoidability, is a separate issue. The reason for the contractor incurring costs may affect the allowability of the contractor's legal costs. In some cases, the final determination of allowability of legal costs cannot be made until a matter is fully resolved. In certain circumstances, contract and cost principle language may permit conditional reimbursement of costs pending the outcome of the legal matter. Whether the Department makes conditional reimbursements or withholds any payment pending the outcome, legal costs ultimately reimbursed by the Department must comply with the applicable cost principles, the terms of the contract, and part 719.
</P>
<HD1>Attachment—Contractor Litigation and Legal Costs, Model Bill Format
</HD1>
<HD2>1. Model Bill Format
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">I—For Fees
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date of service
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description of service
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name or initials of attorney
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Approved rate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Time charged
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount (rate × time)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row">(See Note 1 to this table).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">II—For Disbursements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description of
<br/>disbursement
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row">(See Note 1 to this table).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1—Description of Service:</HED>
<P>All fees must be itemized and described in sufficient detail and specificity to reflect the purpose and nature of the work performed (e.g., subject matter researched or discussed; names of participants of calls/meetings; type of documents reviewed).</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2—Description of Disbursement:</HED>
<P>Description should be in sufficient detail to determine that the disbursement expense was in accordance with all applicable Department policies on reimbursement of contractor legal costs and the terms of engagement between the contractor and the retained legal counsel. The date the expense was incurred or disbursed should be listed rather than the date the expense was processed. The following should be itemized: copy charge (i.e., number of pages times the price per page); fax charges (date, phone number and actual amount); overnight delivery (date and amount); electronic research (date and amount); extraordinary postage (e.g., bulk or certified mail); court reporters; expert witness fees; filing fees; outside copying or binding charges; temporary help (assuming prior approval).</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3—Receipts:</HED>
<P>Receipts for all expenses equal to or above $75 must be attached.</P></NOTE>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="725" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 725—PERMITS FOR ACCESS TO RESTRICTED DATA 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 161 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, 68 Stat. 943, 42 U.S.C. 2201.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 725 appear at 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV7 N="9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.9.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes procedures and standards for the issuance of an Access Permit to any person subject to this part who requires access to Restricted Data applicable to civil uses of atomic energy for use in his business, trade or profession; provides for the amendment, renewal, suspension, termination and revocation of an Access Permit; and specifies the terms and conditions under which the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security will issue the Permit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.9.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to any person within or under the jurisdiction of the United States who desires access to Restricted Data for use in his business, profession or trade. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.9.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Access Permit</I> means a permit, issued by the Administrator authorizing access by the named permittee to Restricted Data applicable to civil uses of atomic energy in accordance with the terms and conditions stated on the permit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919), including any amendments thereto. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Category</I> means a category of Restricted Data designated in appendix A to the regulations in this part. 


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Director of the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security</I> means the DOE official to whom the Secretary assigns the authority to develop policy and technical assistance; safety analysis; and organizational safety and security programs, or the Director's duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Permittee</I> means the holder of a permit issued pursuant to the regulations in this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Person</I> means (1) any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than DOE, any state or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a state, or other entity; and (2) any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Restricted Data</I> means all data concerning (1) design, manufacture or utilization of atomic weapons; (2) the production of special nuclear material; or (3) the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but shall not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Government Confidential Commercial Information</I> means sensitive commercial information not including Restricted Data, generated by the government, the release of which could put the government at a competitive disadvantage in providing enrichment services. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 52 FR 30139, Aug. 13, 1987; 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.9.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.4   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security in writing no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of DOE other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon DOE. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.9.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.5   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>All communications concerning this part should be addressed to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, EHSS-1, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.9.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.6   Categories of available information.</HEAD>
<P>For administrative purposes DOE has categorized Restricted Data which will be made available to permittees in the categories as set forth in appendix A to this part. Top Secret information; information pertaining to the design, manufacture or utilization of atomic weapons; and defense information other than Restricted Data are not included in these categories and will not be made available under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.9.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.7   Specific waivers.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security may, upon application of any interested party, grant such waivers from the requirements of this part as he determines are authorized by law and will not constitute an undue risk to the common defense and security. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.10.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.11   Applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person desiring access to Restricted Data pursuant to this part should submit an application (Form 378), in triplicate, for an access permit to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, EHSS-1, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(b) Where an individual desires access to Restricted Data for use in the performance of his duties as an employee, the application for an access permit must be filed in the name of his employer. 
</P>
<P>(c) Self-employed private consultants, desiring access to Restricted Data, must file the application in their own name for an individual access permit. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each application should contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Name of applicant (unincorporated subsidiaries or divisions of a corporation must apply in the name of the corporation); 
</P>
<P>(2) Address of applicant; 
</P>
<P>(3) Description of business or occupation of applicant; and 
</P>
<P>(4)(i) If applicant is an individual, state citizenship. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If applicant is a partnership, state name, citizenship and address of each partner and the principal location where the partnership does business. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If applicant is a corporation or an unincorporated association, state: 
</P>
<P>(A) The state where it is incorporated or organized and the principal location where it does business; 
</P>
<P>(B) The names, addresses and citizenship of its directors and of its principal officers; 
</P>
<P>(C) Whether it is owned, controlled or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or foreign government, and if so, give details. 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the applicant is acting as agent or representative of another person in filing the application, identify the principal and furnish information required under this subparagraph with respect to such principal; 
</P>
<P>(5) Total number of full-time employees; 
</P>
<P>(6) Classification of Restricted Data (Confidential or Secret) to which access is requested; 
</P>
<P>(7) Potential use of the Restricted Data in the applicant's business, profession or trade. If access to Secret Restricted Data is requested, list the specific categories by number and furnish detailed reasons why such access within the specified categories is needed by the applicant. The need for Secret information should be stated by describing its proposed use in specific research, design, planning, construction, manufacturing, or operating projects; in activities under licenses issued by Nuclear Regulatory Commission; in studies or evaluations planned or under way; or in work or services to be performed for other organizations. In addition, if access to secret restricted data in category C-65, plutonium production, or restricted data in category C-24, isotope separation, is requested, the application should also include sufficient information to satisfy the requirements of § 725.15(b) (2) or (3), as the case may be.” 
</P>
<P>(8) Principal Location(s) at which Restricted Data will be used. 
</P>
<P>(e) Applications should be signed by a person authorized to sign for the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(f) Each application shall contain complete and accurate disclosure with respect to the real party or parties in interest and as to all other matters and things required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.10.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.12   Noneligibility.</HEAD>
<P>The following persons are not eligible to apply for an access permit: 
</P>
<P>(a) Corporations not organized under the laws of the United States or a political subdivision thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any individual who is not a citizen of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any partnership not including among the partners one or more citizens of the United States; or any other unincorporated association not including one or more citizens of the United States among its principal officers. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any organization which is owned, controlled or dominated by the Government of, a citizen of, or an organization organized under the laws of a country or area listed as a Subgroup A country or destination in § 371.3 (15 CFR 371.3) of the Comprehensive Export Schedule of the United States Department of Commerce. 
</P>
<P>(e) Persons subject to the jurisdiction of the United States who are not doing business within the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.10.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.13   Additional information.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security may, at any time after the filing of the original application and before the termination of the permit, require additional information in order to enable the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security to determine whether the permit should be granted or denied or whether it should be modified or revoked. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.10.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.14   Public inspection of applications.</HEAD>
<P>Applications and documents submitted to DOE in connection with applications may be made available for public inspection in accordance with the regulations contained in part 702 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.10.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.15   Requirements for approval of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an access permit authorizing access to confidential restricted data in the categories set forth in appendix A of this part (except C-91 and C-24) will be approved only if the application demonstrates that the applicant has a potential use or application for such data in his business, trade, or profession and has filed a complete application form. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An application for an access permit authorizing access to restricted data in category C-24 or secret restricted data in other categories will be approved only if the applicant has a need for such data in his business, trade, or profession and has filed a complete application form. 
</P>
<P>(2) An application for an access permit authorizing access to Secret Restricted Data in category C-65 Plutonium Production will be approved only if the application demonstrates also that the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is directly engaged in a substantial effort to develop, design, build or operate a chemical processing plant or other facility related to his participation in the peaceful uses of atomic energy for which such production rate and cost data are needed; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is furnishing to a permittee having access to C-65 under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, substantial scientific, engineering or other professional services to be used by said permittee in carrying out the activities for which said permittee received access to category C-65. 
</P>
<P>(3) An application for an access permit authorizing access to Restricted Data in category C-24, isotope separation—subcategory A or B—will be approved only if the application demonstrates also that the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(i) Possesses technical, managerial and financial qualifications demonstrating that the applicant is potentially capable of undertaking or participating significantly in the construction and/or operation of production or manufacturing facilities and offers reasonable assurance of adequacy of resources to carry on, alone or with others, uranium enrichment on a production basis or the large-scale manufacture or assembly of precision equipment systems, or is potentially capable of utilizing centrifuge machines in its business for uranium enrichment or for purposes other than uranium enrichment; and is not subject to foreign ownership, control, or influence; and 
</P>
<P>(A) For subcategory A, desires to determine its interest in participating significantly in a substantial effort to develop, design, build, and operate a uranium enrichment facility or a facility for the manufacture of uranium enrichment equipment. 
</P>
<P>(B) For subcategory B, proposes to (<I>1</I>) participate significantly in, or is directly participating significantly in, a substantial effort to evaluate alternative processes, develop, design, build, and operate a uranium enrichment facility or a facility for the manufacture of uranium enrichment equipment, or (<I>2</I>) utilize centrifuge machines and related equipment in its business for uranium enrichment or for purposes other than uranium enrichment, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is furnishing to a permittee having access to Category C-24 under the paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section substantial scientific, engineering, or other professional services to be used by said permittee in carrying out the activities for which said permittee received access to Category C-24. 
</P>
<P>(4) An application for an access permit authorizing access to Confidential and Secret Restricted Data in C-91, Nuclear Reactors for Rocket Propulsion, will be approved only if the application demonstrates also that the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(i) Possesses qualifications demonstrating that he is capable of making a contribution to research and development in the field of nuclear reactors for rocket propulsion and is directly engaged in or proposes to engage in a substantial research and development program in such field of work; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is engaged in or proposes to engage in a substantial study program in the field of nuclear reactors for rocket propulsion preparatory to the submission of a research and development proposal to DOE; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Is furnishing to a permittee having access under paragraph (b)(4) (i) or (ii) of this section substantial scientific, engineering or other professional services to be used by that permittee in a study or research and development program for which said permittee received access. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 52 FR 30139, Aug. 13, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Permits</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.21   Issuance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon a determination that an application meets the requirements of this regulation, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security will issue to the applicant an access permit on Form DOE 379. 
</P>
<P>(b) An Access Permit is not an access authorization. It does not authorize any individual not having an appropriate DOE access authorization to receive Restricted Data. See § 725.24 and part 1016 of this title. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.22   Scope of permit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All access permits will as a minimum authorize access, subject to the terms and conditions of the access permit to confidential restricted data in all of the categories set forth in appendix A to this part, except C-91 and C-24. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, access permits may authorize access, subject to the terms and conditions of the access permit to such Secret Restricted Data as is included within the particular category or categories specified in the permit. 
</P>
<P>(c) In addition, access permits may authorize access, subject to the terms and conditions of the access permit, to such government confidential commercial information as is included within the particular category or categories specified in the permit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 52 FR 30139, Aug. 13, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.23   Terms and conditions of access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Neither the United States, nor DOE, nor any person acting on behalf of DOE makes any warranty or other representation, expressed or implied, (1) with respect to the accuracy, completeness or usefulness of any information made available pursuant to an access permit, or (2) that the use of any such information may not infringe privately owned rights. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, on behalf of DOE, hereby waives such rights with respect to any invention or discovery as it may have pursuant to section 152 of the Act by reason of such invention or discovery having been made or conceived in the course of, in connection with, or resulting from access to Restricted Data received under the terms of an access permit. (Note provisions of § 725.23(d).) 
</P>
<P>(c) Each permittee shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with all applicable provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and with parts 810 and 1016 of this title and with all other applicable rules, regulations, and orders of DOE, including such rules, regulations, and orders as DOE may adopt or issue to effectuate the policies specified in the act directing DOE to strengthen free competition in private enterprise and avoid the creation or maintenance of a situation inconsistent with the antitrust laws. 
</P>
<P>(2) Be deemed to have waived all claims for damages under section 183 of title 35 U.S. Code by reason of the imposition of any secrecy order on any patent application and all claims for just compensation under section 173 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, with respect to any invention or discovery made or conceived in the course of, in connection with or as a result of access to Restricted Data received under the terms of the access permit; 
</P>
<P>(3) Be deemed to have waived any and all claims against the United States, DOE and all persons acting on behalf of DOE that might arise in connection with the use, by the applicant, of any and all information supplied by them pursuant to the access permit; 
</P>
<P>(4) Obtain and preserve in his files written agreements from all individuals who will have access to Restricted Data under his access permit. The agreement shall be as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In consideration for receiving access to Restricted Data under the access permit issued by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, I hereby agree to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Waive all claims for damages under section 183 of title 35 U.S. Code by reason of the imposition of any secrecy order on any patent application, and all claims for just compensation under section 173 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, with respect to any invention or discovery made or conceived in the course of, in connection with or resulting from access to Restricted Data received under the terms of the access permit issued to (insert the name of the holder of the access permit);
</P>
<P>(b) Waive any and all claims against the United States, DOE, and all persons acting on behalf of DOE that might arise in connection with the use, by me, of any and all information supplied by them pursuant to the access permit issued to (insert the name of the holder of the access permit).</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In case of an access permit authorizing access to restricted data in category C-24, isotope separation, the agreement shall also provide for such requirements as the permittee considers necessary for purposes of fulfilling its obligations under paragraph (d) of this section. 
</FP>
<P>(5) Pay all established charges for personnel access authorizations, DOE consulting services, publication and reproduction of documents, and such other services as DOE may furnish in connection with the access permit. 
</P>
<P>(d) The following terms and conditions are applicable to an access permit authorizing access to restricted data in category C-24, isotope separation irrespective of whether access to DOE's restricted data information is desired: 
</P>
<P>(1) The permittee agrees to grant a nonexclusive license at reasonable royalties to the United States and, at the request of DOE, to domestic and foreign persons, to use in the production or enrichment of special nuclear material any U.S. patent or any U.S. patent application (otherwise in condition for allowance except for a secrecy order thereon) on any invention or discovery made or conceived by the permittee, its employees, or others engaged by the permittee in the course of the permittee's work under the access permit, or as a result of access to data or information made available by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(2) The permittee agrees to grant to the United States, and, at the request of DOE, to domestic and foreign persons, the right at reasonable royalties to use for research, development, or manufacturing programs for the production or enrichment of special nuclear material, any technical information or data, including economic evaluations thereof, of a proprietary nature developed by the permittee, its employees, or others engaged by the permittee in the course of the permittee's work under the access permit or as a result of access to data or information made available by DOE and not covered by a U.S. patent or U.S. patent application referred to in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. If DOE disseminates any such proprietary technical information or data in its possession to any of its contractors for use in any DOE research, development, production, or manufacturing programs, it will do so under contractual provisions pursuant to which the contractor would undertake to use this information only for the work under the pertinent DOE contract. Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions of this subparagraph, the permittee waives any claim against DOE for compensation or otherwise, in connection with any use or dissemination of information or data not specifically identified and claimed by the permittee as proprietary in a written notice to DOE at the time of the furnishing of the information or data to DOE. As used in this subparagraph, the term “technical information or data, including economic evaluations thereof, of a proprietary nature” means information or data which: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is not the property of the Government by virtue of any agreement; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Concerns the details of trade secrets or manufacturing processes which the permittee has protected from us by others; and 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Is specifically identified as proprietary at the time it is made available to DOE. 
</P>
<P>(B) Technical information or data shall not be deemed proprietary in nature whenever substantially the same technical information is available to DOE which has been prepared, developed or furnished as nonproprietary information by another source independently of the proprietary information and data furnished by the permittee. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the amount of reasonable royalties provided for in paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section cannot be agreed upon, the permittee agrees that such amount shall be determined by the Administrator under the provisions of section 157c of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(4) In the event domestic commercial uranium enriching services are provided by persons other than an agency of the United States, the permittee agrees not to require the United States to pay the royalties provided for in paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) The acceptance, exercise, or use of the licenses or rights provided for in paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section shall not prevent the Government, at any time, from contesting their validity, scope or enforceability. 
</P>
<P>(6) The permittee agrees, during the term of the access permit, to make quarterly reports to DOE in writing, in reasonable detail, respecting all technical information or data, including economic evaluations thereof, which the permittee or DOE considers may be of interest to DOE, including reports of patent applications on inventions or discoveries and of technical information and data of a proprietary nature. These reports will cover the results of the permittee's work under the access permit or as a result of data or information made available by DOE. The foregoing provisions of this subparagraph shall be subject to the provisions of paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(7) The permittee agrees to make available to DOE, at all reasonable times during the term of the access permit, for inspection by DOE personnel, or by mutual agreement, others on behalf of DOE, all experimental equipment and technical information or data developed by the permittee, its employees, or others engaged by the permittee, in the course of the permittee's work under the access permit or as a result of data or information made available by DOE. The foregoing provision of this subparagraph shall be subject to the provisions of paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(8) The permittee agrees to pay such reasonable compensation as DOE may elect to charge for the commercial use of its inventions and discoveries including related data and technology and, except for an applicant qualifying for a permit pursuant to § 725.15(b)(3)(ii), agrees to pay $25,000 for an access permit authorizing access to restricted data in subcategory B. 
</P>
<P>(9) Except as may be otherwise authorized by DOE, the permittee agrees not to disseminate to persons not granted access by DOE, restricted data or government confidential commercial information made available to the permittee by DOE or restricted data developed by the permittee, its employees, or others engaged by the permittee in the course of the permittee's work under the access permit or as a result of data or information made available by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(10) The granting of an access permit does not constitute any assurance, direct or implied, that the Nuclear Regulatory Commission will grant the permittee a license for a production facility or any other license. 
</P>
<P>(11) In the event the permittee is engaged by DOE to perform work for DOE in the field of the separation of isotopes, the permittee agrees to undertake such measures as DOE may require for the separation of its activities under the access permit from its work for DOE. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 52 FR 30139, Aug. 13, 1987; 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.24   Administration.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to each permit issued pursuant to the regulations in this part, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security will designate a DOE or National Nuclear Security Administration office which will: 
</P>
<P>(a) Process all personnel access authorizations requested in connection with the permit; 
</P>
<P>(b) Review the procedures submitted by the Applicant, in accordance with part 1016 of this title, for the safeguarding of Restricted Data; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Provide information to the permittee with respect to the sources and locations of Restricted Data available under this permit and to assist the permittee in other matters pertaining to the administration of his permit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.25   Term and renewal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each access permit will be issued for a two year term, unless otherwise stated in the permit. 
</P>
<P>(b) Applications for renewal shall be filed in accordance with § 725.11. Each renewal application must be complete, without reference to previous applications. In any case in which a permittee has filed a properly completed application for renewal more than thirty (30) days prior to the expiration of his existing permit, such existing permit shall not expire until the application for a renewal has been finally acted upon by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.26" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.26   Assignment.</HEAD>
<P>An access permit is nontransferable and nonassignable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.27" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.27   Amendment.</HEAD>
<P>An access permit may be amended from time to time upon application by the permittee. An application for amendment may be filed, in triplicate, in letter form and shall be signed by an individual authorized to sign on behalf of the applicant. The term of an access permit shall not be altered by an amendment thereto. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.28" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.28   Action on application to renew or amend.</HEAD>
<P>In considering an application by a permittee to review or amend his permit, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security will apply the criteria set forth in § 725.15. Failure of an applicant to reply to an DOE request for additional information concerning an application for renewal or amendment within 60 days shall result in a rejection of the application without prejudice to resubmit a properly completed application at a later date. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.29" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.29   Suspension, revocation and termination of permits.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security may revoke or suspend any access permit for any material false statement in the application or in any report submitted to DOE pursuant to the regulations in this part or because of conditions or facts which would have warranted a refusal to grant the permit in the first instance, or for violation of any of the terms and conditions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 or rules, regulations or orders issued pursuant thereto. A permittee should request termination of his permit when he no longer requires Restricted Data for use in his business, trade or profession. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.30   Exceptions and additional requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision in the regulations in this part, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security may deny an application for an access permit or suspend or revoke any access permit, or incorporate additional conditions or requirements in any access permit, upon finding that such denial, revocation or the incorporation of such conditions and limitations is necessary or appropriate in the interest of the common defense and security or is otherwise in the public interest. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 88 FR 41292, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.11.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.31   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>An injunction or other court order may be obtained prohibiting any violation of any provision of the Act or any regulation or order issued thereunder. Any person who willfully violates any provision of the Act or any regulation or order issued thereunder may be guilty of a crime and, upon conviction, may be punished by fine or imprisonment or both, as provided by law. 






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.10.0.12.24.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 725—Categories of Restricted Data Available
</HEAD>
<P>C-24 Isotope separation. This category is divided into subcategories A and B. 
</P>
<P>Subcategory A includes information in summary form concerning the status and potential of the gaseous diffusion and gas centrifuge processes for the separation of uranium isotopes. 
</P>
<P>Subcategory B includes information on the following: 
</P>
<P>a. Any aspect of separating one or more isotopes of uranium from a composition containing a mixture of isotopes of that element by the gas centrifuge or gaseous diffusion processes. 
</P>
<P>b. Design, construction, and operation of any plant, facility or device capable of separating by the gas centrifuge or gaseous diffusion processes one or more isotopes of uranium from a composition containing a mixture of isotopes of that element, including means and methods of transporting materials from one to another device. 
</P>
<P>C-44 Nuclear Technology. This category includes classified technical information concerning nuclear technology. It may contain information on the following: 
</P>
<P>a. Materials, including metals, ceramics, organic and inorganic compounds. Included are such technical areas as the technology and fabrication of fuel elements, corrosion studies, cladding techniques and radiation studies. 
</P>
<P>b. Chemistry, chemical engineering and radiochemistry of all the elements and their compounds. Included are techniques and processes of chemical separations, radioactive waste handling and feed material processing. 
</P>
<P>c. Reactor physics, engineering and technology including theory, design, criticality studies and operation of reactors, reactor systems and reactor components. 
</P>
<P>d. Reserved. 
</P>
<P>e. Lithium isotope separation technology. This subcategory includes classified technical information on the separation of lithium isotopes by using counter-current flows of lithium amalgam and aqueous lithium hydroxide solution in packed columns. Not included is information regarding plant design and operating conditions from which total production rates or design capacity of the lithium isotope separation plant (Colex) in Oak Ridge, Tennessee, can be inferred. In addition to the other requirements of this part, access permits for Restricted Data in this subcategory will be approved, provided the permittee: 
</P>
<P>1. Demonstrates that it is not a corporation or entity owned, controlled or dominated by an alien, a foreign corporation, or a foreign government, and 
</P>
<P>2. Agrees to insertion in his access permit of the terms and conditions: 
</P>
<P>(i) Set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 725.23 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Set forth in paragraph (c) of § 725.23 of this part, amended by deleting the phrase “category C-24, isotope separation,” and inserting in lieu thereof the phrase “subcategory C-44e, lithium isotope separation technology”; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Set forth in paragraph (d) of § 725.23 of this part, amended by: 
</P>
<P>(A) Deleting the phrases “production or enrichment of special nuclear material” and “separation of isotopes” wherever they appear, and inserting in lieu thereof the phrase “separation of isotopes of lithium”; 
</P>
<P>(B) Deleting the phrase “domestic commercial uranium enriching services are provided by,” and inserting in lieu thereof the phrase “domestic lithium isotope separation capacity becomes available to.” 
</P>
<P>This category does not include information which reveals or from which can be calculated actual or planned (as distinguished from design) capacities, production rates and unit costs for the plutonium production program. 
</P>
<P>C-65 Plutonium Production. This category includes information on reactor, fuel element and separations technology which reveals or from which can be calculated actual or planned (as distinguished from design) capacities, production rates and unit costs for the Hanford and Savannah River production facilities. 
</P>
<P>Technology which does not reveal or enable calculation of production rates and unit costs of Hanford or Savannah River production facilities is categorized in C-44 Nuclear Technology. 
</P>
<P>C-90 Nuclear Reactors for Ram-Jet Propulsion. This category includes information on: 
</P>
<P>a. Programs pertaining to the development of nuclear reactors for application to ram-jet propulsion systems including theory and/or design, test philosophy procedures and/or results. 
</P>
<P>b. Fabrication technology and evaluation of performance or characteristics of materials or components for such reactors. 
</P>
<P>c. Controls, control systems and instrumentation relating to the design or technology of such reactors. 
</P>
<P>d. Data pertaining to heat transfer, propellant kinetics or corrosion and erosion of materials under conditions of high temperature, high gas flows or other environmental conditions characteristic of ram-jet propulsion systems. 
</P>
<P>This category does not include information on: 
</P>
<P>a. Design details of weapons systems or nuclear warheads. 
</P>
<P>b. Military operational techniques or characteristics. 
</P>
<P>c. General aspects of nuclear ram-jet missiles, such as payload, aerodynamic characteristics, guidance systems, physical size, gross weight, thrust and information of this kind which is associated with utilization of a nuclear ram-jet propulsion system. 
</P>
<P>C-91 Nuclear Reactors for Rocket Propulsion. This category includes information on: 
</P>
<P>a. Programs pertaining to nuclear reactors for rocket propulsion, i.e., missile propulsion, theory and/design, test philosophy procedures and/or results. 
</P>
<P>b. Design, fabrication technology and evaluation of performance or characteristics of material, components, or subsystems or nuclear rocket reactors. 
</P>
<P>c. Controls, control systems and instrumentation relating to the design or technology of rocket reactor systems. 
</P>
<P>d. Data pertaining to heat transfer, propellant kinetics or corrosion and erosion of rocket reactor system materials under conditions of high temperature, high gas flows, or other environmental conditions characteristic of rocket reactors. 
</P>
<P>This category does not include information on: 
</P>
<P>a. Design details of weapons systems or nuclear warheads. 
</P>
<P>b. Military operational techniques or characteristics. 
</P>
<P>c. General aspects of payload and aerodynamic characteristics. 
</P>
<P>d. Design details and development, information of components and subsystems of the nuclear rocket engine other than that associated with the reactor system. 
</P>
<P>C-92 Systems for Nuclear Auxiliary Power (SNAP). This category includes information on: 
</P>
<P>a. Isotopic SNAP Program, including theory, design, research and development, fabrication, test procedures and results for the device, including power conversion device and the fuels used. 
</P>
<P>b. Reactor SNAP Program, including theory, design, research and development, fabrication, test procedures and results for the reactor, including the directly associated power conversion device when developed by DOE. 
</P>
<P>This category does not include that technical and scientific data developed under the SNAP Advanced Concept Program which should be reported in C-93. 
</P>
<P>C-93 Advanced Concepts for Future Application. 
</P>
<P>C-93a Reactor Experiments. This category includes classified technical information developed in the pursuit of work on new or advanced concepts of reactors or components which DOE considers essential to future growth or for general application to future generations of reactors. Classified information developed in the pursuit of work on the lithium cooled reactor experiment is an example of the type of information to be reported in this category, i.e., information resulting from an experimental reactor project or component development which may have many future applications but which is not currently being pursued to meet the specific needs of an approved requirement for which other information categories have been provided. For example, classified technical information developed in the pursuit of work on Naval, Ram-Jet or Rocket nuclear reactors would not be reported here but under their respective specific categories. This category will include classified technical information on the following: 
</P>
<P>a. Theory, design, and performance, either estimated or actual. 
</P>
<P>b. Design details, composition and performance characteristics of major components (e.g., fuel media, reflectors, moderators, heat exchangers, pressure shells or containment devices, control rods, conversion devices, instrumentation and shielding). 
</P>
<P>c. Material (metals, ceramics and compounds) development, alloying, cladding, corrosion, erosion, radiation studies and fabrication techniques. 
</P>
<P>d. Chemistry, including chemical engineering, processes and techniques. Reactor physics, engineering and criticality studies. 
</P>
<P>C-93b Conversion Devices. This category includes classified technical information developed in the pursuit of studies, designs, research and development, fabrication and operation of any energy conversion device to be used with nuclear energy sources which is not being applied to a specific system development project. 
</P>
<P>C-94 Military Compact Reactor (MCR). This category includes classified technical information on the actual or planned Military Compact Reactor and its components developed in the pursuit of studies, designs, research and development, fabrication, and operation of the reactor system or its components. 
</P>
<P>Examples of the areas of information included are: 
</P>
<P>a. Reactor core physics. 
</P>
<P>b. Fuel elements and fuel element components. 
</P>
<P>c. Moderator and reflector details. 
</P>
<P>d. Data on primary coolant system. 
</P>
<P>e. Radiation shield. 
</P>
<P>f. Controls and instrumentation. 
</P>
<P>This category does not include information on military operational characteristics or techniques. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56778, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 44 FR 37939, June 29, 1979]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="727" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 727—CONSENT FOR ACCESS TO INFORMATION ON DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY COMPUTERS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101, <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 2011, <I>et. seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2425, 2483; E.O. No. 12958, 60 FR 19825, 3 CFR, 1995 Comp., p. 333; and E.O. 12968, 60 FR 40245, 3 CFR, 1995 Comp., p. 391.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 40884, July 19, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 727.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.11.0.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 727.1   What is the purpose and scope of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to establish minimum requirements applicable to each individual granted access to a DOE computer or to information on a DOE computer, including a requirement for written consent to access by an authorized investigative agency to any DOE computer used in the performance of the individual's duties during the term of that individual's employment and for a period of three years thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 727.4 of this part also applies to any person who uses a DOE computer by sending an e-mail message to such a computer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 727.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.11.0.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 727.2   What are the definitions of the terms used in this part?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Authorized investigative agency</I> means an agency authorized by law or regulation to conduct a counterintelligence investigation or investigations of persons who are proposed for access to classified information to ascertain whether such persons satisfy the criteria for obtaining and retaining access to such information.
</P>
<P><I>Computer</I> means desktop computers, portable computers, computer networks (including the DOE network and local area networks at or controlled by DOE organizations), network devices, automated information systems, or other related computer equipment owned by, leased, or operated on behalf of the DOE.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy, including the National Nuclear Security Administration.
</P>
<P><I>DOE computer</I> means any computer owned by, leased, or operated on behalf of the DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means an employee of DOE or a DOE contractor, or any other person who has been granted access to a DOE computer or to information on a DOE computer, and does not include a member of the public who sends an e-mail message to a DOE computer or who obtains information available to the public on DOE Web sites.
</P>
<P><I>User</I> means any person, including any individual or member of the public, who sends information to or receives information from a DOE computer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 727.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.11.0.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 727.3   To whom does this part apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to DOE employees, DOE contractors, DOE contractor and subcontractor employees, and any other individual who has been granted access to a DOE computer or to information on a DOE computer.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 727.4 of this part also applies to any person who uses a DOE computer by sending an e-mail message to such computer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 727.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.11.0.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 727.4   Is there any expectation of privacy applicable to a DOE computer?</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision of law (including any provision of law enacted by the Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986), no user of a DOE computer shall have any expectation of privacy in the use of that DOE computer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 727.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.11.0.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 727.5   What acknowledgment and consent is required for access to information on DOE computers?</HEAD>
<P>An individual may not be granted access to information on a DOE computer unless:
</P>
<P>(a) The individual has acknowledged in writing that the individual has no expectation of privacy in the use of a DOE computer; and
</P>
<P>(b) The individual has consented in writing to permit access by an authorized investigative agency to any DOE computer used during the period of that individual's access to information on a DOE computer and for a period of three years thereafter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 727.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.11.0.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 727.6   What are the obligations of a DOE contractor?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A DOE contractor must ensure that neither its employees nor the employees of any of its subcontractors has access to information on a DOE computer unless the DOE contractor has obtained a written acknowledgment and consent by each contractor or subcontractor employee that complies with the requirements of § 727.5 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A DOE contractor must maintain a file of original written acknowledgments and consents executed by its employees and all subcontractors employees that comply with the requirements of § 727.5 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon demand by the cognizant DOE contracting officer, a DOE contractor must provide an opportunity for a DOE official to inspect the file compiled under this section and to copy any portion of the file.
</P>
<P>(d) If a DOE contractor violates the requirements of this section with regard to a DOE computer with Restricted Data or other classified information, then the DOE contractor may be assessed a civil penalty or a reduction in fee pursuant to section 234B of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2282b).






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="733" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 733—ALLEGATIONS OF RESEARCH MISCONDUCT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201; 7254; 7256; 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 37014, June 28, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 733.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12.0.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 733.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set forth a general statement of policy on the treatment of allegations of research misconduct consistent with Federal Policy on Research Misconduct established by the White House Office of Science and Technology Policy on December 6, 2000 (65 FR 76260-76264).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 733.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12.0.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 733.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to allegations of research misconduct with regard to scientific research conducted under a Department of Energy contract or an agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 733.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12.0.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 733.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms used in this part are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> is defined in 2 CFR 200.22.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy (including the National Nuclear Security Administration).
</P>
<P><I>DOE Element</I> means a major division of DOE, usually headed by a Presidential appointee, which has a delegation of authority to carry out activities by entering into contracts or financial assistance agreements.
</P>
<P><I>Fabrication</I> means making up data or results and recording or reporting them.
</P>
<P><I>Falsification</I> means manipulating research materials, equipment, or processes, or changing or omitting data or results such that the research is not accurately represented in the research record.
</P>
<P><I>Financial assistance agreement</I> means an agreement the primary purpose of which is to provide appropriated funds to stimulate an activity, including but not limited to, grants and cooperative agreements pursuant to 2 CFR part 200 as amended by 2 CFR part 910.
</P>
<P><I>Finding of research misconduct</I> means a determination, based on a preponderance of the evidence, that research misconduct has occurred. Such a finding requires a conclusion that there has been a significant departure from accepted practices of the relevant research community and that it be knowingly, intentionally, or recklessly committed.
</P>
<P><I>Plagiarism</I> means the appropriation of another person's ideas, processes, results, or words without giving appropriate credit.
</P>
<P><I>Research</I> means all basic, applied, and demonstration research in all fields of science, engineering, and mathematics, such as research in economics, education, linguistics, medicine, psychology, social sciences, statistics, and research involving human subjects or animals.
</P>
<P><I>Research misconduct</I> means fabrication, falsification, or plagiarism in proposing, performing, or reviewing research, or in reporting research results, but does not include honest error or differences of opinion.
</P>
<P><I>Research record</I> means the record of all data or results that embody the facts resulting from scientists' inquiries, including, but not limited to, research proposals, laboratory records, both physical and electronic, progress reports, abstracts, theses, oral presentations, internal reports, and journal articles 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 37014, June 28, 2005, as amended at 79 FR 76047, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 733.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12.0.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 733.4   Research misconduct requirements.</HEAD>
<P>DOE intends to apply the research misconduct policy set forth in 65 FR 76260-76264 by including appropriate research misconduct requirements in contracts and financial assistance awards that make contractors and financial recipients primarily responsible for implementing the policy in dealing with allegations of research misconduct in connection with the proposal, performance or review of research for DOE .


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 733.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12.0.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 733.5   Allegations received by DOE.</HEAD>
<P>If DOE receives directly a written allegation of research misconduct with regard to research under a DOE contract or financial assistance agreement, DOE will refer the allegation for processing to the DOE Element responsible for the contract or financial assistance agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 733.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12.0.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 733.6   Consultation with the DOE Office of the Inspector General.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an allegation of research misconduct, the DOE Element shall consult with the DOE Office of the Inspector General which will determine whether that office will elect to investigate the allegation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 733.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12.0.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 733.7   Referral to the contracting officer.</HEAD>
<P>If the DOE Office of the Inspector General declines to investigate an allegation of research misconduct, the DOE Element should forward the allegation to the contracting officer responsible for administration of the contract or financial assistance agreement to which the allegation pertains.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 733.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.12.0.12.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 733.8   Contracting officer procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an allegation of research misconduct by referral under § 733.7, the contracting officer should, by notification of the contractor or financial assistance recipient:
</P>
<P>(a) Require the contractor or the financial assistance recipient to act on the allegation consistent with the Research Misconduct requirements in the contract or financial assistance award to which the allegation pertains; or
</P>
<P>(b) In the event the contractor or the financial assistance recipient is unable to act:
</P>
<P>(1) Designate an appropriate DOE program to conduct an investigation to develop a complete factual record and an examination of such record leading to either a finding of research misconduct and an identification of appropriate remedies or a determination that no further action is warranted; and
</P>
<P>(2) Make the appropriate findings consistent with the Research Misconduct requirements contained in the contract or financial assistance award, in order to act in lieu of the contractor or financial assistance recipient.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="745" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 745—PROTECTION OF HUMAN SUBJECTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 42 U.S.C. 7254; 42 U.S.C. 300v-1(b).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 7269, Jan. 19, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 745.101" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.101   To what does this policy apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as detailed in § 745.104, this policy applies to all research involving human subjects conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by any Federal department or agency that takes appropriate administrative action to make the policy applicable to such research. This includes research conducted by Federal civilian employees or military personnel, except that each department or agency head may adopt such procedural modifications as may be appropriate from an administrative standpoint. It also includes research conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by the Federal Government outside the United States. Institutions that are engaged in research described in this paragraph and institutional review boards (IRBs) reviewing research that is subject to this policy must comply with this policy.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Department or agency heads retain final judgment as to whether a particular activity is covered by this policy and this judgment shall be exercised consistent with the ethical principles of the Belmont Report.
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> The National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research.- Belmont Report. Washington, DC: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. 1979.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Department or agency heads may require that specific research activities or classes of research activities conducted, supported, or otherwise subject to regulation by the Federal department or agency but not otherwise covered by this policy comply with some or all of the requirements of this policy.
</P>
<P>(e) Compliance with this policy requires compliance with pertinent federal laws or regulations that provide additional protections for human subjects.
</P>
<P>(f) This policy does not affect any state or local laws or regulations (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe) that may otherwise be applicable and that provide additional protections for human subjects.
</P>
<P>(g) This policy does not affect any foreign laws or regulations that may otherwise be applicable and that provide additional protections to human subjects of research.
</P>
<P>(h) When research covered by this policy takes place in foreign countries, procedures normally followed in the foreign countries to protect human subjects may differ from those set forth in this policy. In these circumstances, if a department or agency head determines that the procedures prescribed by the institution afford protections that are at least equivalent to those provided in this policy, the department or agency head may approve the substitution of the foreign procedures in lieu of the procedural requirements provided in this policy. Except when otherwise required by statute, Executive Order, or the department or agency head, notices of these actions as they occur will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or will be otherwise published as provided in department or agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) Unless otherwise required by law, department or agency heads may waive the applicability of some or all of the provisions of this policy to specific research activities or classes of research activities otherwise covered by this policy, provided the alternative procedures to be followed are consistent with the principles of the Belmont Report.
<SU>63</SU>
<FTREF/> Except when otherwise required by statute or Executive Order, the department or agency head shall forward advance notices of these actions to the Office for Human Research Protections, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), or any successor office, or to the equivalent office within the appropriate Federal department or agency, and shall also publish them in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or in such other manner as provided in department or agency procedures. The waiver notice must include a statement that identifies the conditions under which the waiver will be applied and a justification as to why the waiver is appropriate for the research, including how the decision is consistent with the principles of the Belmont Report.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>63</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(j) Federal guidance on the requirements of this policy shall be issued only after consultation, for the purpose of harmonization (to the extent appropriate), with other Federal departments and agencies that have adopted this policy, unless such consultation is not feasible.
</P>
<P>(k) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(l) Compliance dates and transition provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Pre-2018 Requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>pre-2018 Requirements</I> means this subpart as published in the 2016 edition of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>2018 Requirements.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>2018 Requirements</I> means the Federal Policy for the Protection of Human Subjects requirements contained in this part. The general compliance date for the 2018 Requirements is January 21, 2019. The compliance date for § 745.114(b) (cooperative research) of the 2018 Requirements is January 20, 2020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Research subject to pre-2018 requirements.</I> The pre-2018 Requirements shall apply to the following research, unless the research is transitioning to comply with the 2018 Requirements in accordance with paragraph (l)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Research initially approved by an IRB under the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which IRB review was waived pursuant to § 745.101(i) of the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which a determination was made that the research was exempt under § 745.101(b) of the pre-2018 Requirements before January 21, 2019.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transitioning research.</I> If, on or after July 19, 2018, an institution planning or engaged in research otherwise covered by paragraph (l)(3) of this section determines that such research instead will transition to comply with the 2018 Requirements, the institution or an IRB must document and date such determination.
</P>
<P>(i) If the determination to transition is documented between July 19, 2018, and January 20, 2019, the research shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Beginning on the date of such documentation through January 20, 2019, comply with the pre-2018 Requirements, except that the research shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Section 745.102(l) of the 2018 Requirements (definition of research) (instead of § 745.102(d) of the pre-2018 Requirements);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Section 745.103(d) of the 2018 Requirements (revised certification requirement that eliminates IRB review of application or proposal) (instead of § 745.103(f) of the pre-2018 Requirements); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Section 745.109(f)(1)(i) and (iii) of the 2018 Requirements (exceptions to mandated continuing review) (instead of § 745.103(b), as related to the requirement for continuing review, and in addition to § 745.109, of the pre-2018 Requirements); and
</P>
<P>(B) Beginning on January 21, 2019, comply with the 2018 Requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the determination to transition is documented on or after January 21, 2019, the research shall, beginning on the date of such documentation, comply with the 2018 Requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Research subject to 2018 Requirements.</I> The 2018 Requirements shall apply to the following research:
</P>
<P>(i) Research initially approved by an IRB on or after January 21, 2019;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which IRB review is waived pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section on or after January 21, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which a determination is made that the research is exempt on or after January 21, 2019.
</P>
<P>(m) Severability: Any provision of this part held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this part and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other dissimilar circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 7269, Jan. 19, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 28511, June 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.102" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.102   Definitions for purposes of this policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification</I> means the official notification by the institution to the supporting Federal department or agency component, in accordance with the requirements of this policy, that a research project or activity involving human subjects has been reviewed and approved by an IRB in accordance with an approved assurance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clinical trial</I> means a research study in which one or more human subjects are prospectively assigned to one or more interventions (which may include placebo or other control) to evaluate the effects of the interventions on biomedical or behavioral health-related outcomes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Department or agency head</I> means the head of any Federal department or agency, for example, the Secretary of HHS, and any other officer or employee of any Federal department or agency to whom the authority provided by these regulations to the department or agency head has been delegated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal department or agency</I> refers to a federal department or agency (the department or agency itself rather than its bureaus, offices or divisions) that takes appropriate administrative action to make this policy applicable to the research involving human subjects it conducts, supports, or otherwise regulates (<I>e.g.,</I> the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, the U.S. Department of Defense, or the Central Intelligence Agency).
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Human subject</I> means a living individual about whom an investigator (whether professional or student) conducting research:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtains information or biospecimens through intervention or interaction with the individual, and uses, studies, or analyzes the information or biospecimens; or (ii) Obtains, uses, studies, analyzes, or generates identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intervention</I> includes both physical procedures by which information or biospecimens are gathered (<I>e.g.,</I> venipuncture) and manipulations of the subject or the subject's environment that are performed for research purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interaction</I> includes communication or interpersonal contact between investigator and subject.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Private information</I> includes information about behavior that occurs in a context in which an individual can reasonably expect that no observation or recording is taking place, and information that has been provided for specific purposes by an individual and that the individual can reasonably expect will not be made public (<I>e.g.,</I> a medical record).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Identifiable private information</I> is private information for which the identity of the subject is or may readily be ascertained by the investigator or associated with the information.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>An identifiable biospecimen</I> is a biospecimen for which the identity of the subject is or may readily be ascertained by the investigator or associated with the biospecimen.
</P>
<P>(7) Federal departments or agencies implementing this policy shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon consultation with appropriate experts (including experts in data matching and re-identification), reexamine the meaning of “identifiable private information,” as defined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, and “identifiable biospecimen,” as defined in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. This reexamination shall take place within 1 year and regularly thereafter (at least every 4 years). This process will be conducted by collaboration among the Federal departments and agencies implementing this policy. If appropriate and permitted by law, such Federal departments and agencies may alter the interpretation of these terms, including through the use of guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon consultation with appropriate experts, assess whether there are analytic technologies or techniques that should be considered by investigators to generate “identifiable private information,” as defined in paragraph (e)(5) of this section, or an “identifiable biospecimen,” as defined in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. This assessment shall take place within 1 year and regularly thereafter (at least every 4 years). This process will be conducted by collaboration among the Federal departments and agencies implementing this policy. Any such technologies or techniques will be included on a list of technologies or techniques that produce identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens. This list will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> after notice and an opportunity for public comment. The Secretary, HHS, shall maintain the list on a publicly accessible Web site.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institution</I> means any public or private entity, or department or agency (including federal, state, and other agencies).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>IRB</I> means an institutional review board established in accord with and for the purposes expressed in this policy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>IRB approval</I> means the determination of the IRB that the research has been reviewed and may be conducted at an institution within the constraints set forth by the IRB and by other institutional and federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Legally authorized representative</I> means an individual or judicial or other body authorized under applicable law to consent on behalf of a prospective subject to the subject's participation in the procedure(s) involved in the research. If there is no applicable law addressing this issue, <I>legally authorized representative</I> means an individual recognized by institutional policy as acceptable for providing consent in the nonresearch context on behalf of the prospective subject to the subject's participation in the procedure(s) involved in the research.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Minimal risk</I> means that the probability and magnitude of harm or discomfort anticipated in the research are not greater in and of themselves than those ordinarily encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine physical or psychological examinations or tests.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Public health authority</I> means an agency or authority of the United States, a state, a territory, a political subdivision of a state or territory, an Indian tribe, or a foreign government, or a person or entity acting under a grant of authority from or contract with such public agency, including the employees or agents of such public agency or its contractors or persons or entities to whom it has granted authority, that is responsible for public health matters as part of its official mandate.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Research</I> means a systematic investigation, including research development, testing, and evaluation, designed to develop or contribute to generalizable knowledge. Activities that meet this definition constitute research for purposes of this policy, whether or not they are conducted or supported under a program that is considered research for other purposes. For example, some demonstration and service programs may include research activities. For purposes of this part, the following activities are deemed not to be research:
</P>
<P>(1) Scholarly and journalistic activities (<I>e.g.,</I> oral history, journalism, biography, literary criticism, legal research, and historical scholarship), including the collection and use of information, that focus directly on the specific individuals about whom the information is collected.
</P>
<P>(2) Public health surveillance activities, including the collection and testing of information or biospecimens, conducted, supported, requested, ordered, required, or authorized by a public health authority. Such activities are limited to those necessary to allow a public health authority to identify, monitor, assess, or investigate potential public health signals, onsets of disease outbreaks, or conditions of public health importance (including trends, signals, risk factors, patterns in diseases, or increases in injuries from using consumer products). Such activities include those associated with providing timely situational awareness and priority setting during the course of an event or crisis that threatens public health (including natural or man-made disasters).
</P>
<P>(3) Collection and analysis of information, biospecimens, or records by or for a criminal justice agency for activities authorized by law or court order solely for criminal justice or criminal investigative purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) Authorized operational activities (as determined by each agency) in support of intelligence, homeland security, defense, or other national security missions.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Written,</I> or <I>in writing,</I> for purposes of this part, refers to writing on a tangible medium (<I>e.g.,</I> paper) or in an electronic format.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.103" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.103   Assuring compliance with this policy—research conducted or supported by any Federal department or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution engaged in research that is covered by this policy, with the exception of research eligible for exemption under § 745.104, and that is conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, shall provide written assurance satisfactory to the department or agency head that it will comply with the requirements of this policy. In lieu of requiring submission of an assurance, individual department or agency heads shall accept the existence of a current assurance, appropriate for the research in question, on file with the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office, and approved for Federal-wide use by that office. When the existence of an HHS-approved assurance is accepted in lieu of requiring submission of an assurance, reports (except certification) required by this policy to be made to department and agency heads shall also be made to the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office. Federal departments and agencies will conduct or support research covered by this policy only if the institution has provided an assurance that it will comply with the requirements of this policy, as provided in this section, and only if the institution has certified to the department or agency head that the research has been reviewed and approved by an IRB (if such certification is required by § 745.103(d)).
</P>
<P>(b) The assurance shall be executed by an individual authorized to act for the institution and to assume on behalf of the institution the obligations imposed by this policy and shall be filed in such form and manner as the department or agency head prescribes.
</P>
<P>(c) The department or agency head may limit the period during which any assurance shall remain effective or otherwise condition or restrict the assurance.
</P>
<P>(d) Certification is required when the research is supported by a Federal department or agency and not otherwise waived under § 745.101(i) or exempted under § 745.104. For such research, institutions shall certify that each proposed research study covered by the assurance and this section has been reviewed and approved by the IRB. Such certification must be submitted as prescribed by the Federal department or agency component supporting the research. Under no condition shall research covered by this section be initiated prior to receipt of the certification that the research has been reviewed and approved by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(e) For nonexempt research involving human subjects covered by this policy (or exempt research for which limited IRB review takes place pursuant to § 745.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), or (d)(7) or (8)) that takes place at an institution in which IRB oversight is conducted by an IRB that is not operated by the institution, the institution and the organization operating the IRB shall document the institution's reliance on the IRB for oversight of the research and the responsibilities that each entity will undertake to ensure compliance with the requirements of this policy (<I>e.g.,</I> in a written agreement between the institution and the IRB, by implementation of an institution-wide policy directive providing the allocation of responsibilities between the institution and an IRB that is not affiliated with the institution, or as set forth in a research protocol).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.104" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.104   Exempt research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise required by law or by department or agency heads, research activities in which the only involvement of human subjects will be in one or more of the categories in paragraph (d) of this section are exempt from the requirements of this policy, except that such activities must comply with the requirements of this section and as specified in each category.
</P>
<P>(b) Use of the exemption categories for research subject to the requirements of subparts B, C, and D: Application of the exemption categories to research subject to the requirements of 45 CFR part 46, subparts B, C, and D, is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subpart B.</I> Each of the exemptions at this section may be applied to research subject to subpart B if the conditions of the exemption are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subpart C.</I> The exemptions at this section do not apply to research subject to subpart C, except for research aimed at involving a broader subject population that only incidentally includes prisoners.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subpart D.</I> The exemptions at paragraphs (d)(1), (4), (5), (6), (7), and (8) of this section may be applied to research subject to subpart D if the conditions of the exemption are met. Paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section only may apply to research subject to subpart D involving educational tests or the observation of public behavior when the investigator(s) do not participate in the activities being observed. Paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section may not be applied to research subject to subpart D.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) Except as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the following categories of human subjects research are exempt from this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Research, conducted in established or commonly accepted educational settings, that specifically involves normal educational practices that are not likely to adversely impact students' opportunity to learn required educational content or the assessment of educators who provide instruction. This includes most research on regular and special education instructional strategies, and research on the effectiveness of or the comparison among instructional techniques, curricula, or classroom management methods.
</P>
<P>(2) Research that only includes interactions involving educational tests (cognitive, diagnostic, aptitude, achievement), survey procedures, interview procedures, or observation of public behavior (including visual or auditory recording) if at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any disclosure of the human subjects' responses outside the research would not reasonably place the subjects at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to the subjects' financial standing, employability, educational advancement, or reputation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects can readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, and an IRB conducts a limited IRB review to make the determination required by § 745.111(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Research involving benign behavioral interventions in conjunction with the collection of information from an adult subject through verbal or written responses (including data entry) or audiovisual recording if the subject prospectively agrees to the intervention and information collection and at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(A) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(B) Any disclosure of the human subjects' responses outside the research would not reasonably place the subjects at risk of criminal or civil liability or be damaging to the subjects' financial standing, employability, educational advancement, or reputation; or
</P>
<P>(C) The information obtained is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects can readily be ascertained, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, and an IRB conducts a limited IRB review to make the determination required by § 745.111(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purpose of this provision, benign behavioral interventions are brief in duration, harmless, painless, not physically invasive, not likely to have a significant adverse lasting impact on the subjects, and the investigator has no reason to think the subjects will find the interventions offensive or embarrassing. Provided all such criteria are met, examples of such benign behavioral interventions would include having the subjects play an online game, having them solve puzzles under various noise conditions, or having them decide how to allocate a nominal amount of received cash between themselves and someone else.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the research involves deceiving the subjects regarding the nature or purposes of the research, this exemption is not applicable unless the subject authorizes the deception through a prospective agreement to participate in research in circumstances in which the subject is informed that he or she will be unaware of or misled regarding the nature or purposes of the research.
</P>
<P>(4) Secondary research for which consent is not required: Secondary research uses of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, if at least one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens are publicly available;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information, which may include information about biospecimens, is recorded by the investigator in such a manner that the identity of the human subjects cannot readily be ascertained directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects, the investigator does not contact the subjects, and the investigator will not re-identify subjects;
</P>
<P>(iii) The research involves only information collection and analysis involving the investigator's use of identifiable health information when that use is regulated under 45 CFR parts 160 and 164, subparts A and E, for the purposes of “health care operations” or “research” as those terms are defined at 45 CFR 164.501 or for “public health activities and purposes” as described under 45 CFR 164.512(b); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The research is conducted by, or on behalf of, a Federal department or agency using government-generated or government-collected information obtained for nonresearch activities, if the research generates identifiable private information that is or will be maintained on information technology that is subject to and in compliance with section 208(b) of the E-Government Act of 2002, 44 U.S.C. 3501 note, if all of the identifiable private information collected, used, or generated as part of the activity will be maintained in systems of records subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and, if applicable, the information used in the research was collected subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) Research and demonstration projects that are conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, or otherwise subject to the approval of department or agency heads (or the approval of the heads of bureaus or other subordinate agencies that have been delegated authority to conduct the research and demonstration projects), and that are designed to study, evaluate, improve, or otherwise examine public benefit or service programs, including procedures for obtaining benefits or services under those programs, possible changes in or alternatives to those programs or procedures, or possible changes in methods or levels of payment for benefits or services under those programs. Such projects include, but are not limited to, internal studies by Federal employees, and studies under contracts or consulting arrangements, cooperative agreements, or grants. Exempt projects also include waivers of otherwise mandatory requirements using authorities such as sections 1115 and 1115A of the Social Security Act, as amended.
</P>
<P>(i) Each Federal department or agency conducting or supporting the research and demonstration projects must establish, on a publicly accessible Federal Web site or in such other manner as the department or agency head may determine, a list of the research and demonstration projects that the Federal department or agency conducts or supports under this provision. The research or demonstration project must be published on this list prior to commencing the research involving human subjects.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) Taste and food quality evaluation and consumer acceptance studies:
</P>
<P>(i) If wholesome foods without additives are consumed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If a food is consumed that contains a food ingredient at or below the level and for a use found to be safe, or agricultural chemical or environmental contaminant at or below the level found to be safe, by the Food and Drug Administration or approved by the Environmental Protection Agency or the Food Safety and Inspection Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
</P>
<P>(7) Storage or maintenance for secondary research for which broad consent is required: Storage or maintenance of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens for potential secondary research use if an IRB conducts a limited IRB review and makes the determinations required by § 745.111(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(8) Secondary research for which broad consent is required: Research involving the use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens for secondary research use, if the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens was obtained in accordance with § 745.116(a)(1) through (4), (a)(6), and (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentation of informed consent or waiver of documentation of consent was obtained in accordance with § 745.117;
</P>
<P>(iii) An IRB conducts a limited IRB review and makes the determination required by § 745.111(a)(7) and makes the determination that the research to be conducted is within the scope of the broad consent referenced in paragraph (d)(8)(i) of this section; and (iv) The investigator does not include returning individual research results to subjects as part of the study plan. This provision does not prevent an investigator from abiding by any legal requirements to return individual research results.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 745.105-745.106" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 745.105-745.106   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.107" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.107   IRB membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each IRB shall have at least five members, with varying backgrounds to promote complete and adequate review of research activities commonly conducted by the institution. The IRB shall be sufficiently qualified through the experience and expertise of its members (professional competence), and the diversity of its members, including race, gender, and cultural backgrounds and sensitivity to such issues as community attitudes, to promote respect for its advice and counsel in safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects. The IRB shall be able to ascertain the acceptability of proposed research in terms of institutional commitments (including policies and resources) and regulations, applicable law, and standards of professional conduct and practice. The IRB shall therefore include persons knowledgeable in these areas. If an IRB regularly reviews research that involves a category of subjects that is vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, consideration shall be given to the inclusion of one or more individuals who are knowledgeable about and experienced in working with these categories of subjects.
</P>
<P>(b) Each IRB shall include at least one member whose primary concerns are in scientific areas and at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas.
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB shall include at least one member who is not otherwise affiliated with the institution and who is not part of the immediate family of a person who is affiliated with the institution.
</P>
<P>(d) No IRB may have a member participate in the IRB's initial or continuing review of any project in which the member has a conflicting interest, except to provide information requested by the IRB.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB may, in its discretion, invite individuals with competence in special areas to assist in the review of issues that require expertise beyond or in addition to that available on the IRB. These individuals may not vote with the IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.108" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.108   IRB functions and operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to fulfill the requirements of this policy each IRB shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have access to meeting space and sufficient staff to support the IRB's review and recordkeeping duties;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare and maintain a current list of the IRB members identified by name; earned degrees; representative capacity; indications of experience such as board certifications or licenses sufficient to describe each member's chief anticipated contributions to IRB deliberations; and any employment or other relationship between each member and the institution, for example, full-time employee, part-time employee, member of governing panel or board, stockholder, paid or unpaid consultant;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and follow written procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting its initial and continuing review of research and for reporting its findings and actions to the investigator and the institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining which projects require review more often than annually and which projects need verification from sources other than the investigators that no material changes have occurred since previous IRB review; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB of proposed changes in a research activity, and for ensuring that investigators will conduct the research activity in accordance with the terms of the IRB approval until any proposed changes have been reviewed and approved by the IRB, except when necessary to eliminate apparent immediate hazards to the subject.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish and follow written procedures for ensuring prompt reporting to the IRB; appropriate institutional officials; the department or agency head; and the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office, or the equivalent office within the appropriate Federal department or agency of
</P>
<P>(i) Any unanticipated problems involving risks to subjects or others or any serious or continuing noncompliance with this policy or the requirements or determinations of the IRB; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any suspension or termination of IRB approval.
</P>
<P>(b) Except when an expedited review procedure is used (as described in § 745.110), an IRB must review proposed research at convened meetings at which a majority of the members of the IRB are present, including at least one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas. In order for the research to be approved, it shall receive the approval of a majority of those members present at the meeting.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.109" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.109   IRB review of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An IRB shall review and have authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove all research activities covered by this policy, including exempt research activities under § 745.104 for which limited IRB review is a condition of exemption (under § 745.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), and (d)(7), and (8)).
</P>
<P>(b) An IRB shall require that information given to subjects (or legally authorized representatives, when appropriate) as part of informed consent is in accordance with § 745.116. The IRB may require that information, in addition to that specifically mentioned in § 745.116, be given to the subjects when in the IRB's judgment the information would meaningfully add to the protection of the rights and welfare of subjects.
</P>
<P>(c) An IRB shall require documentation of informed consent or may waive documentation in accordance with § 745.117.
</P>
<P>(d) An IRB shall notify investigators and the institution in writing of its decision to approve or disapprove the proposed research activity, or of modifications required to secure IRB approval of the research activity. If the IRB decides to disapprove a research activity, it shall include in its written notification a statement of the reasons for its decision and give the investigator an opportunity to respond in person or in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) An IRB shall conduct continuing review of research requiring review by the convened IRB at intervals appropriate to the degree of risk, not less than once per year, except as described in § 745.109(f).
</P>
<P>(f)(1) Unless an IRB determines otherwise, continuing review of research is not required in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Research eligible for expedited review in accordance with § 745.110;
</P>
<P>(ii) Research reviewed by the IRB in accordance with the limited IRB review described in § 745.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), or (d)(7) or (8);
</P>
<P>(iii) Research that has progressed to the point that it involves only one or both of the following, which are part of the IRB-approved study:
</P>
<P>(A) Data analysis, including analysis of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, or
</P>
<P>(B) Accessing follow-up clinical data from procedures that subjects would undergo as part of clinical care.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) An IRB shall have authority to observe or have a third party observe the consent process and the research.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.110" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.110   Expedited review procedures for certain kinds of research involving no more than minimal risk, and for minor changes in approved research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of HHS has established, and published as a Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a list of categories of research that may be reviewed by the IRB through an expedited review procedure. The Secretary will evaluate the list at least every 8 years and amend it, as appropriate, after consultation with other federal departments and agencies and after publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment. A copy of the list is available from the Office for Human Research Protections, HHS, or any successor office.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An IRB may use the expedited review procedure to review the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Some or all of the research appearing on the list described in paragraph (a) of this section, unless the reviewer determines that the study involves more than minimal risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minor changes in previously approved research during the period for which approval is authorized; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Research for which limited IRB review is a condition of exemption under § 745.104(d)(2)(iii), (d)(3)(i)(C), and (d)(7) and (8).
</P>
<P>(2) Under an expedited review procedure, the review may be carried out by the IRB chairperson or by one or more experienced reviewers designated by the chairperson from among members of the IRB. In reviewing the research, the reviewers may exercise all of the authorities of the IRB except that the reviewers may not disapprove the research. A research activity may be disapproved only after review in accordance with the nonexpedited procedure set forth in § 745.108(b).
</P>
<P>(c) Each IRB that uses an expedited review procedure shall adopt a method for keeping all members advised of research proposals that have been approved under the procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) The department or agency head may restrict, suspend, terminate, or choose not to authorize an institution's or IRB's use of the expedited review procedure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.111" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.111   Criteria for IRB approval of research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to approve research covered by this policy the IRB shall determine that all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Risks to subjects are minimized:
</P>
<P>(i) By using procedures that are consistent with sound research design and that do not unnecessarily expose subjects to risk, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever appropriate, by using procedures already being performed on the subjects for diagnostic or treatment purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) Risks to subjects are reasonable in relation to anticipated benefits, if any, to subjects, and the importance of the knowledge that may reasonably be expected to result. In evaluating risks and benefits, the IRB should consider only those risks and benefits that may result from the research (as distinguished from risks and benefits of therapies subjects would receive even if not participating in the research). The IRB should not consider possible long-range effects of applying knowledge gained in the research (<I>e.g.,</I> the possible effects of the research on public policy) as among those research risks that fall within the purview of its responsibility.
</P>
<P>(3) Selection of subjects is equitable. In making this assessment the IRB should take into account the purposes of the research and the setting in which the research will be conducted. The IRB should be particularly cognizant of the special problems of research that involves a category of subjects who are vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons.
</P>
<P>(4) Informed consent will be sought from each prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in accordance with, and to the extent required by, § 745.116.
</P>
<P>(5) Informed consent will be appropriately documented or appropriately waived in accordance with § 745.117.
</P>
<P>(6) When appropriate, the research plan makes adequate provision for monitoring the data collected to ensure the safety of subjects.
</P>
<P>(7) When appropriate, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary of HHS will, after consultation with the Office of Management and Budget's privacy office and other Federal departments and agencies that have adopted this policy, issue guidance to assist IRBs in assessing what provisions are adequate to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) For purposes of conducting the limited IRB review required by § 745.104(d)(7)), the IRB need not make the determinations at paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, and shall make the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(i) Broad consent for storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens is obtained in accordance with the requirements of § 745.116(a)(1)-(4), (a)(6), and (d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Broad consent is appropriately documented or waiver of documentation is appropriate, in accordance with § 745.117; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If there is a change made for research purposes in the way the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens are stored or maintained, there are adequate provisions to protect the privacy of subjects and to maintain the confidentiality of data.
</P>
<P>(b) When some or all of the subjects are likely to be vulnerable to coercion or undue influence, such as children, prisoners, individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, or economically or educationally disadvantaged persons, additional safeguards have been included in the study to protect the rights and welfare of these subjects.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.112" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.112   Review by Institution.</HEAD>
<P>Research covered by this policy that has been approved by an IRB may be subject to further appropriate review and approval or disapproval by officials of the institution. However, those officials may not approve the research if it has not been approved by an IRB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.113" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.113   Suspension or Termination of IRB Approval of Research.</HEAD>
<P>An IRB shall have authority to suspend or terminate approval of research that is not being conducted in accordance with the IRB's requirements or that has been associated with unexpected serious harm to subjects. Any suspension or termination of approval shall include a statement of the reasons for the IRB's action and shall be reported promptly to the investigator, appropriate institutional officials, and the department or agency head.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.114" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.114   Cooperative Research.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Cooperative research projects are those projects covered by this policy that involve more than one institution. In the conduct of cooperative research projects, each institution is responsible for safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects and for complying with this policy.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Any institution located in the United States that is engaged in cooperative research must rely upon approval by a single IRB for that portion of the research that is conducted in the United States. The reviewing IRB will be identified by the Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the research or proposed by the lead institution subject to the acceptance of the Federal department or agency supporting the research.
</P>
<P>(2) The following research is not subject to this provision:
</P>
<P>(i) Cooperative research for which more than single IRB review is required by law (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Research for which any Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the research determines and documents that the use of a single IRB is not appropriate for the particular context.
</P>
<P>(c) For research not subject to paragraph (b) of this section, an institution participating in a cooperative project may enter into a joint review arrangement, rely on the review of another IRB, or make similar arrangements for avoiding duplication of effort.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.115" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.115   IRB Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An institution, or when appropriate an IRB, shall prepare and maintain adequate documentation of IRB activities, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Copies of all research proposals reviewed, scientific evaluations, if any, that accompany the proposals, approved sample consent forms, progress reports submitted by investigators, and reports of injuries to subjects.
</P>
<P>(2) Minutes of IRB meetings, which shall be in sufficient detail to show attendance at the meetings; actions taken by the IRB; the vote on these actions including the number of members voting for, against, and abstaining; the basis for requiring changes in or disapproving research; and a written summary of the discussion of controverted issues and their resolution.
</P>
<P>(3) Records of continuing review activities, including the rationale for conducting continuing review of research that otherwise would not require continuing review as described in § 745.109(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all correspondence between the IRB and the investigators.
</P>
<P>(5) A list of IRB members in the same detail as described in § 745.108(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(6) Written procedures for the IRB in the same detail as described in § 745.108(a)(3) and (4).
</P>
<P>(7) Statements of significant new findings provided to subjects, as required by § 745.116(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(8) The rationale for an expedited reviewer's determination under § 745.110(b)(1)(i) that research appearing on the expedited review list described in § 745.110(a) is more than minimal risk.
</P>
<P>(9) Documentation specifying the responsibilities that an institution and an organization operating an IRB each will undertake to ensure compliance with the requirements of this policy, as described in § 745.103(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The records required by this policy shall be retained for at least 3 years, and records relating to research that is conducted shall be retained for at least 3 years after completion of the research. The institution or IRB may maintain the records in printed form, or electronically. All records shall be accessible for inspection and copying by authorized representatives of the Federal department or agency at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.116" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.116   General Requirements for Informed Consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> General requirements for informed consent, whether written or oral, are set forth in this paragraph and apply to consent obtained in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. Broad consent may be obtained in lieu of informed consent obtained in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section only with respect to the storage, maintenance, and secondary research uses of identifiable private information and identifiable biospecimens. Waiver or alteration of consent in research involving public benefit and service programs conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local officials is described in paragraph (e) of this section. General waiver or alteration of informed consent is described in paragraph (f) of this section. Except as provided elsewhere in this policy:
</P>
<P>(1) Before involving a human subject in research covered by this policy, an investigator shall obtain the legally effective informed consent of the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) An investigator shall seek informed consent only under circumstances that provide the prospective subject or the legally authorized representative sufficient opportunity to discuss and consider whether or not to participate and that minimize the possibility of coercion or undue influence.
</P>
<P>(3) The information that is given to the subject or the legally authorized representative shall be in language understandable to the subject or the legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(4) The prospective subject or the legally authorized representative must be provided with the information that a reasonable person would want to have in order to make an informed decision about whether to participate, and an opportunity to discuss that information.
</P>
<P>(5) Except for broad consent obtained in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Informed consent must begin with a concise and focused presentation of the key information that is most likely to assist a prospective subject or legally authorized representative in understanding the reasons why one might or might not want to participate in the research. This part of the informed consent must be organized and presented in a way that facilitates comprehension.
</P>
<P>(ii) Informed consent as a whole must present information in sufficient detail relating to the research, and must be organized and presented in a way that does not merely provide lists of isolated facts, but rather facilitates the prospective subject's or legally authorized representative's understanding of the reasons why one might or might not want to participate.
</P>
<P>(6) No informed consent may include any exculpatory language through which the subject or the legally authorized representative is made to waive or appear to waive any of the subject's legal rights, or releases or appears to release the investigator, the sponsor, the institution, or its agents from liability for negligence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basic elements of informed consent.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section, in seeking informed consent the following information shall be provided to each subject or the legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the study involves research, an explanation of the purposes of the research and the expected duration of the subject's participation, a description of the procedures to be followed, and identification of any procedures that are experimental;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any reasonably foreseeable risks or discomforts to the subject;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any benefits to the subject or to others that may reasonably be expected from the research;
</P>
<P>(4) A disclosure of appropriate alternative procedures or courses of treatment, if any, that might be advantageous to the subject;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing the extent, if any, to which confidentiality of records identifying the subject will be maintained;
</P>
<P>(6) For research involving more than minimal risk, an explanation as to whether any compensation and an explanation as to whether any medical treatments are available if injury occurs and, if so, what they consist of, or where further information may be obtained;
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to pertinent questions about the research and research subjects' rights, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related injury to the subject;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that participation is voluntary, refusal to participate will involve no penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled, and the subject may discontinue participation at any time without penalty or loss of benefits to which the subject is otherwise entitled; and
</P>
<P>(9) One of the following statements about any research that involves the collection of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that identifiers might be removed from the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens and that, after such removal, the information or biospecimens could be used for future research studies or distributed to another investigator for future research studies without additional informed consent from the subject or the legally authorized representative, if this might be a possibility; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the subject's information or biospecimens collected as part of the research, even if identifiers are removed, will not be used or distributed for future research studies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional elements of informed consent.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section, one or more of the following elements of information, when appropriate, shall also be provided to each subject or the legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the particular treatment or procedure may involve risks to the subject (or to the embryo or fetus, if the subject is or may become pregnant) that are currently unforeseeable;
</P>
<P>(2) Anticipated circumstances under which the subject's participation may be terminated by the investigator without regard to the subject's or the legally authorized representative's consent;
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional costs to the subject that may result from participation in the research;
</P>
<P>(4) The consequences of a subject's decision to withdraw from the research and procedures for orderly termination of participation by the subject;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that significant new findings developed during the course of the research that may relate to the subject's willingness to continue participation will be provided to the subject;
</P>
<P>(6) The approximate number of subjects involved in the study;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that the subject's biospecimens (even if identifiers are removed) may be used for commercial profit and whether the subject will or will not share in this commercial profit;
</P>
<P>(8) A statement regarding whether clinically relevant research results, including individual research results, will be disclosed to subjects, and if so, under what conditions; and
</P>
<P>(9) For research involving biospecimens, whether the research will (if known) or might include whole genome sequencing (<I>i.e.,</I> sequencing of a human germline or somatic specimen with the intent to generate the genome or exome sequence of that specimen).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Elements of broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.</I> Broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens (collected for either research studies other than the proposed research or nonresearch purposes) is permitted as an alternative to the informed consent requirements in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. If the subject or the legally authorized representative is asked to provide broad consent, the following shall be provided to each subject or the subject's legally authorized representative:
</P>
<P>(1) The information required in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(5), and (b)(8) and, when appropriate, (c)(7) and (9) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the types of research that may be conducted with the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens. This description must include sufficient information such that a reasonable person would expect that the broad consent would permit the types of research conducted;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens that might be used in research, whether sharing of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens might occur, and the types of institutions or researchers that might conduct research with the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the period of time that the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens may be stored and maintained (which period of time could be indefinite), and a description of the period of time that the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens may be used for research purposes (which period of time could be indefinite);
</P>
<P>(5) Unless the subject or legally authorized representative will be provided details about specific research studies, a statement that they will not be informed of the details of any specific research studies that might be conducted using the subject's identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, including the purposes of the research, and that they might have chosen not to consent to some of those specific research studies;
</P>
<P>(6) Unless it is known that clinically relevant research results, including individual research results, will be disclosed to the subject in all circumstances, a statement that such results may not be disclosed to the subject; and
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of whom to contact for answers to questions about the subject's rights and about storage and use of the subject's identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, and whom to contact in the event of a research-related harm.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waiver or alteration of consent in research involving public benefit and service programs conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local officials</I>—(1) <I>Waiver.</I> An IRB may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent for research under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. If an individual was asked to provide broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens in accordance with the requirements at paragraph (d) of this section, and refused to consent, an IRB cannot waive consent for the storage, maintenance, or secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alteration.</I> An IRB may approve a consent procedure that omits some, or alters some or all, of the elements of informed consent set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. An IRB may not omit or alter any of the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a broad consent procedure is used, an IRB may not omit or alter any of the elements required under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for waiver and alteration.</I> In order for an IRB to waive or alter consent as described in this subsection, the IRB must find and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The research or demonstration project is to be conducted by or subject to the approval of state or local government officials and is designed to study, evaluate, or otherwise examine:
</P>
<P>(A) Public benefit or service programs;
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for obtaining benefits or services under those programs;
</P>
<P>(C) Possible changes in or alternatives to those programs or procedures; or
</P>
<P>(D) Possible changes in methods or levels of payment for benefits or services under those programs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The research could not practicably be carried out without the waiver or alteration.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>General waiver or alteration of consent</I>—(1) <I>Waiver.</I> An IRB may waive the requirement to obtain informed consent for research under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section. If an individual was asked to provide broad consent for the storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens in accordance with the requirements at paragraph (d) of this section, and refused to consent, an IRB cannot waive consent for the storage, maintenance, or secondary research use of the identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alteration.</I> An IRB may approve a consent procedure that omits some, or alters some or all, of the elements of informed consent set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section provided the IRB satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section. An IRB may not omit or alter any of the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a broad consent procedure is used, an IRB may not omit or alter any of the elements required under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for waiver and alteration.</I> In order for an IRB to waive or alter consent as described in this subsection, the IRB must find and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The research involves no more than minimal risk to the subjects;
</P>
<P>(ii) The research could not practicably be carried out without the requested waiver or alteration;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the research involves using identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens, the research could not practicably be carried out without using such information or biospecimens in an identifiable format;
</P>
<P>(iv) The waiver or alteration will not adversely affect the rights and welfare of the subjects; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whenever appropriate, the subjects or legally authorized representatives will be provided with additional pertinent information after participation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Screening, recruiting, or determining eligibility.</I> An IRB may approve a research proposal in which an investigator will obtain information or biospecimens for the purpose of screening, recruiting, or determining the eligibility of prospective subjects without the informed consent of the prospective subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, if either of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The investigator will obtain information through oral or written communication with the prospective subject or legally authorized representative, or
</P>
<P>(2) The investigator will obtain identifiable private information or identifiable biospecimens by accessing records or stored identifiable biospecimens.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Posting of clinical trial consent form.</I> (1) For each clinical trial conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency, one IRB-approved informed consent form used to enroll subjects must be posted by the awardee or the Federal department or agency component conducting the trial on a publicly available Federal Web site that will be established as a repository for such informed consent forms.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Federal department or agency supporting or conducting the clinical trial determines that certain information should not be made publicly available on a Federal Web site (<I>e.g.</I> confidential commercial information), such Federal department or agency may permit or require redactions to the information posted.
</P>
<P>(3) The informed consent form must be posted on the Federal Web site after the clinical trial is closed to recruitment, and no later than 60 days after the last study visit by any subject, as required by the protocol.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Preemption.</I> The informed consent requirements in this policy are not intended to preempt any applicable Federal, state, or local laws (including tribal laws passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe) that require additional information to be disclosed in order for informed consent to be legally effective.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Emergency medical care.</I> Nothing in this policy is intended to limit the authority of a physician to provide emergency medical care, to the extent the physician is permitted to do so under applicable Federal, state, or local law (including tribal law passed by the official governing body of an American Indian or Alaska Native tribe).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.117" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.117   Documentation of informed consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, informed consent shall be documented by the use of a written informed consent form approved by the IRB and signed (including in an electronic format) by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. A written copy shall be given to the person signing the informed consent form.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the informed consent form may be either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A written informed consent form that meets the requirements of § 745.116. The investigator shall give either the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative adequate opportunity to read the informed consent form before it is signed; alternatively, this form may be read to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(2) A short form written informed consent form stating that the elements of informed consent required by § 745.116 have been presented orally to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, and that the key information required by § 745.116(a)(5)(i) was presented first to the subject, before other information, if any, was provided. The IRB shall approve a written summary of what is to be said to the subject or the legally authorized representative. When this method is used, there shall be a witness to the oral presentation. Only the short form itself is to be signed by the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative. However, the witness shall sign both the short form and a copy of the summary, and the person actually obtaining consent shall sign a copy of the summary. A copy of the summary shall be given to the subject or the subject's legally authorized representative, in addition to a copy of the short form.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An IRB may waive the requirement for the investigator to obtain a signed informed consent form for some or all subjects if it finds any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) That the only record linking the subject and the research would be the informed consent form and the principal risk would be potential harm resulting from a breach of confidentiality. Each subject (or legally authorized representative) will be asked whether the subject wants documentation linking the subject with the research, and the subject's wishes will govern;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and involves no procedures for which written consent is normally required outside of the research context; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the subjects or legally authorized representatives are members of a distinct cultural group or community in which signing forms is not the norm, that the research presents no more than minimal risk of harm to subjects and provided there is an appropriate alternative mechanism for documenting that informed consent was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases in which the documentation requirement is waived, the IRB may require the investigator to provide subjects or legally authorized representatives with a written statement regarding the research.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under Control Number 0990-0260)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.118" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.118   Applications and proposals lacking definite plans for involvement of human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Certain types of applications for grants, cooperative agreements, or contracts are submitted to Federal departments or agencies with the knowledge that subjects may be involved within the period of support, but definite plans would not normally be set forth in the application or proposal. These include activities such as institutional type grants when selection of specific projects is the institution's responsibility; research training grants in which the activities involving subjects remain to be selected; and projects in which human subjects' involvement will depend upon completion of instruments, prior animal studies, or purification of compounds. Except for research waived under § 745.101(i) or exempted under § 745.104, no human subjects may be involved in any project supported by these awards until the project has been reviewed and approved by the IRB, as provided in this policy, and certification submitted, by the institution, to the Federal department or agency component supporting the research.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.119" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.119   Research undertaken without the intention of involving human subjects.</HEAD>
<P>Except for research waived under § 745.101(i) or exempted under § 745.104, in the event research is undertaken without the intention of involving human subjects, but it is later proposed to involve human subjects in the research, the research shall first be reviewed and approved by an IRB, as provided in this policy, a certification submitted by the institution to the Federal department or agency component supporting the research, and final approval given to the proposed change by the Federal department or agency component.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.120" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.120   Evaluation and disposition of applications and proposals for research to be conducted or supported by a Federal department or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The department or agency head will evaluate all applications and proposals involving human subjects submitted to the Federal department or agency through such officers and employees of the Federal department or agency and such experts and consultants as the department or agency head determines to be appropriate. This evaluation will take into consideration the risks to the subjects, the adequacy of protection against these risks, the potential benefits of the research to the subjects and others, and the importance of the knowledge gained or to be gained.
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of this evaluation, the department or agency head may approve or disapprove the application or proposal, or enter into negotiations to develop an approvable one.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.121" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.121   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.122" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.122   Use of Federal funds.</HEAD>
<P>Federal funds administered by a Federal department or agency may not be expended for research involving human subjects unless the requirements of this policy have been satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.123" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.123   Early termination of research support: Evaluation of applications and proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The department or agency head may require that Federal department or agency support for any project be terminated or suspended in the manner prescribed in applicable program requirements, when the department or agency head finds an institution has materially failed to comply with the terms of this policy.
</P>
<P>(b) In making decisions about supporting or approving applications or proposals covered by this policy the department or agency head may take into account, in addition to all other eligibility requirements and program criteria, factors such as whether the applicant has been subject to a termination or suspension under paragraph (a) of this section and whether the applicant or the person or persons who would direct or has/have directed the scientific and technical aspects of an activity has/have, in the judgment of the department or agency head, materially failed to discharge responsibility for the protection of the rights and welfare of human subjects (whether or not the research was subject to federal regulation).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.124" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.13.0.12.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.124   Conditions.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to any research project or any class of research projects the department or agency head of either the conducting or the supporting Federal department or agency may impose additional conditions prior to or at the time of approval when in the judgment of the department or agency head additional conditions are necessary for the protection of human subjects.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="760" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 760—DOMESTIC URANIUM PROGRAM




</HEAD>

<DIV8 N="§ 760.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.14.0.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.1   Uranium leases on lands controlled by DOE. (Domestic Uranium Program Circular No. 760.1, formerly (AEC) Domestic Uranium Program Circular 8, 10 CFR 60.8).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What this section does.</I> This section sets forth regulations governing the issuance of leases to permit the exploration for and mining of deposits containing uranium in public lands withdrawn from entry and location under the general mining laws for use of DOE, and in certain other lands under DOE control. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory authority.</I> The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>) is the authority for this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Who may hold leases.</I> Only parties who are (1) citizens of the United States; (2) associations of such citizens; or (3) corporations organized under the laws of the United States or territories thereof, are eligible lessees under this section. Persons under 21 years of age or employees of DOE are not eligible. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Issuance of leases through competitive bidding.</I> Except under special circumstances as provided in paragraph (u) of this section, each lease will be offered through competitive bidding and, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d), will be issued to the acceptable bidder offering the highest bid. The bid may be on a cash bonus, royalty bonus, or other basis as specified in the invitation to bid. Invitations to bid on some of the lands may be limited to small business concerns as defined by the Small Business Administration, and such invitations may limit the number of leases to be awarded to each bidder. In such cases DOE will accept those bids which, in relation to other bids received pursuant to the invitation, are most advantageous to the Government. Before any lease is awarded, DOE may require high bidders to submit a detailed statement of the facts as to such matters as their experience, organization, and financial resources. DOE reserves the right to reject any and all bids. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Solicitation of bids.</I> Announcements of the availability of invitations to bid for a lease will be publicly posted and published. Copies of such announcements will also be mailed to parties who submit to DOE's Grand Junction, Colorado, Office subsequent to publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of this (DOE) Domestic Uranium Program Circular 760.1, written requests that their names be placed on a mailing list for receipt of such announcements. The invitations containing information for preparation and submission of bids will be available at the Grand Junction Office, and will be mailed only on specific written request, following announcement of their availability. Invitations will specify the land to be leased, the basis on which bids are to be submitted, the amount of the monetary deposit which must be transmitted with the bid, the place and time the bids will be publicly opened, the term, royalty and other payments, performance requirements, and other payments, performance requirements, and other conditions which will become a part of the lease. In addition, data which have been assembled pertaining to the lands to be leased will be available for public inspection at the Grand Junction Office; copies will also be available for purchase. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Bidding requirements; deposits.</I> All bids must be filed at the place and prior to the time set forth in the invitation. Each bid must be sealed and accompanied by a deposit, in the form of a certified check, cashier's check, or bank draft, in an amount as specified in the invitation to bid. Deposits of unsuccessful bidders will be returned. If the bidder is an individual, he must submit with his bid a statement of his citizenship and age. If the bidder is an association (including a partnership), the bid shall be accompanied by a certified copy of the articles of association together with a statement as to the citizenship and age of its members. If the bidder is a corporation, evidence that the officer signing the bid had authority to do so and a statement as to the State of incorporation shall also be submitted. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Awarding of lease.</I> Following public opening of the bids, DOE, subject to the right to reject any and all bids, will determine the successful bidder. In the event the highest acceptable bids are tie bids, a public drawing will be held by DOE to determine the successful bidder. After notice of award and within the time period prescribed in the invitation, the successful bidder shall execute and return to DOE three (3) copies of the lease and shall remit payments due as prescribed in the invitation. Should the successful bidder fail to execute the lease, or make payments as required, in accordance with the terms of the invitation, or fail to otherwise comply with applicable regulations, he may be required to forfeit any payments previously made, and lose any further right or interest in the lease. In such event, DOE may offer the lease to the next highest acceptable bidder, reoffer the lease for bidding, or take such other action as appropriate. If the awarded lease is executed by the bidder through an agent, evidence of authorization must be submitted. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Dating of lease.</I> A lease issued under this section will ordinarily be effective as of the date it is signed on behalf of DOE. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Term of lease.</I> A lease shall be for the period specified in the invitation to bid. When deemed desirable by DOE, the lease will provide that the lease term may be extended at the option of the lessee for a specified period and upon stipulated conditions. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Payments to DOE under lease.</I> Royalty payments shall be specified in the invitation to bid; base royalty, minimum royalty, advance royalty, and rental payments, or a combination thereof may be required. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Title to unshipped ore.</I> DOE, unless it approves otherwise, reserves all right and title to property in and to all ores and other uranium- or vanadium-bearing material not removed from the leased premises within 60 days after expiration or other termination of the lease. Unless DOE approves otherwise, all material mined from the leased premises and not marketed by the lessee shall remain on the leased premises. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Environmental controls.</I> Each lease will contain such provisions as may be deemed necessary by DOE with respect to the lessee's use of the leased lands. DOE may require periodic submission of plans for exploration and mining activities including provisions for control of environmental impact. The lessee will be required to conduct operations so as to minimize adverse environmental effects, to comply with all applicable State and Federal statutes and regulations and to the extent stipulated in the lease agreement, will be held responsible for maintenance or rehabilitation of affected areas in accordance with plans submitted to and approved by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Performance requirements.</I> A lease shall require that exploration, development, and mining activities, as appropriate, be conducted on the leased premises with reasonable diligence, skill, and care as required to achieve and maintain production of uranium ore at rates consistent with good and safe mining practice and with market conditions. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Health and safety requirements.</I> A lease (1) shall require that exploration, development, and mining activities, as appropriate, be conducted on the leased premises with due regard for the health and safety of those involved, and (2) shall include appropriate measures for the control of radiation exposure in the mines. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Lessee's records.</I> Leases shall provide that the lessee keep and make available to DOE such records as DOE deems necessary for the administration of the lease and its leasing program. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Rights of DOE.</I> DOE reserves the right to enter upon the leased property and into all parts of the mine for inspection and other purposes. DOE also reserves the right to grant to other persons easements or rights of way upon, through, or in the leased premises. DOE and the Comptroller General of the United States or any of his duly authorized representatives shall, until the expiration of 3 years after termination or expiration of lease, have access to and the right to examine any directly pertinent books, papers, and records of the lessee involving transactions related to the lease. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Relinquishment of leases.</I> A lease may be surrendered by the lessee upon filing with and approval by DOE of a written application for relinquishment. Approval of the application shall be contingent upon the delivery of the leased premises to DOE in a condition determined to be satisfactory to DOE. The lessee shall continue to be liable for the payment of all royalty and other debts due DOE. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Assignment of leases.</I> Any transfer of a lease or any interest therein or claim thereunder, will not be recognized unless and until approved by DOE in writing. Ordinarily, DOE will not approve any transfer of a lease which involves overriding royalties or deferred payments of any kind to the transferor. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Cancellation.</I> Any lease may be cancelled by DOE whenever the lessee fails to comply with the provisions of the lease. Failure of DOE to exercise its right to cancel shall not be deemed a waiver thereof. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Form of lease.</I> Leases will be issued on forms prescribed by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Noncompetitive leases.</I> Under special circumstances, where DOE believes it to be in the best interest of the Government, DOE at its discretion may award or extend leases on the basis of negotiation. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>DOE decisions.</I> All matters connected with the issuance and administration of leases will be determined by DOE whose decisions shall be final and conclusive. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Definitions.</I> DOE as used in this section means the United States Department of Energy or its duly authorized representative or representatives. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Multiple use of land.</I> Leases issued under this section shall provide that operations under them will be conducted so as not to interfere with the lawful operations of any third party having a lease, permit, easement, or other right or interest in the premises. 
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Compliance with State and Federal regulations.</I> Every lease shall provide that the lessee is required to comply with all applicable State and Federal statutes and regulations. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 66, 161, 68 Stat. 933, 948, as amended; 42 U.S.C. 2096, 2201)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56783, Dec. 30, 1976] 






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="765" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 765—REIMBURSEMENT FOR COSTS OF REMEDIAL ACTION AT ACTIVE URANIUM AND THORIUM PROCESSING SITES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2296a <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.1.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part establish regulatory requirements governing reimbursement for certain costs of remedial action at active uranium or thorium processing sites as specified by Subtitle A of Title X of the Energy Policy Act of 1992. These regulations are authorized by section 1002 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 2296a-1), which requires the Secretary to issue regulations governing the reimbursements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.1.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.2   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes policies, criteria, and procedures governing reimbursement of certain costs of remedial action incurred by licensees at active uranium or thorium processing sites as a result of byproduct material generated as an incident of sales to the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) Costs of remedial action at active uranium or thorium processing sites are borne by persons licensed under section 62 or 81 of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2092, 2111), either by NRC or an Agreement State pursuant to a counterpart to section 62 or 81 of the Atomic Energy Act, under State law, subject to the exceptions and limitations specified in this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Department shall, subject to the provisions specified in this part, reimburse a licensee, of an active uranium or thorium processing site for the portion of the costs of remedial action as are determined by the Department to be attributable to byproduct material generated as an incident of sales to the United States and either incurred by the licensee not later than December 31, 2007, or incurred by the licensee in accordance with a plan for subsequent remedial action approved by the Department. 
</P>
<P>(d) Costs of remedial action are reimbursable under Title X for decontamination, decommissioning, reclamation, and other remedial action, provided that claims for reimbursement are supported by reasonable documentation as specified in subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) Except as authorized by § 765.32, the total amount of reimbursement paid to any licensee of an active uranium processing site shall not exceed $6.25 multiplied by the number of Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material. This total amount shall be adjusted for inflation pursuant to section 765.12. 
</P>
<P>(f) The total amount of reimbursement paid to all active uranium processing site licensees shall not exceed $350 million. This total amount shall be adjusted for inflation by applying the CPI-U, as provided by § 765.12. 
</P>
<P>(g) The total amount of reimbursement paid to the licensee of the active thorium processing site shall not exceed $365 million, as adjusted for inflation by applying the CPI-U as provided by § 765.12. 
</P>
<P>(h) Reimbursement of licensees for costs of remedial action will only be made for costs that are supported by reasonable documentation as required by § 765.20 and claimed for reimbursement by a licensee in accordance with the procedures established by subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P>(i) The $715 million aggregate amount authorized to be appropriated under section 1003(a) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 2296a-2(a)) shall be adjusted for inflation by applying the CPI-U as provided by § 765.12, and shall be provided from the Fund. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32957, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.1.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following terms are defined as follows: 
</P>
<P><I>Active uranium or thorium processing site</I> or <I>active processing site</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any uranium or thorium processing site, including the mill, containing byproduct material for which a license, issued either by NRC or by an Agreement State, for the production at a site of any uranium or thorium derived from ore—
</P>
<P>(i) Was in effect on January 1, 1978; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Was issued or renewed after January 1, 1978; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) For which an application for renewal or issuance was pending on, or after January 1, 1978; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other real property or improvement on such real property that is determined by the Secretary or by an Agreement State to be: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the vicinity of such site; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contaminated with residual byproduct material. 
</P>
<P><I>Agreement State</I> means a State that is or has been a party to a discontinuance agreement with NRC under section 274 of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2021) and thereafter issues licenses and establishes remedial action requirements pursuant to a counterpart to section 62 or 81 of the Atomic Energy Act under state law. 
</P>
<P><I>Atomic Energy Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P><I>Byproduct material</I> means the tailings or wastes produced by the extraction or concentration of uranium or thorium from any ore processed primarily for its source material content. 
</P>
<P><I>Claim for reimbursement</I> means the submission of an application for reimbursement in accordance with the requirements established in subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Costs of remedial action</I> means costs incurred by a licensee prior to or after enactment of UMTRCA to perform decontamination, decommissioning, reclamation, and other remedial action. These costs may include but are not necessarily limited to expenditures for work necessary to comply with applicable requirements to conduct groundwater remediation, treatment or containment of contaminated soil, disposal of process wastes, removal actions, air pollution abatement measures, mill and equipment decommissioning, site monitoring, administrative activities, expenditures required to meet necessary regulatory standards, or other requirements established by NRC, or an Agreement State. Costs of remedial action must be supported by reasonable documentation in accordance with the requirements of subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Decontamination, decommissioning, reclamation, and other remedial action</I> means work performed which is necessary to comply with all applicable requirements of UMTRCA or, where appropriate, with applicable requirements established by an Agreement State. 
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Energy or its authorized agents. 
</P>
<P><I>Dry short tons of byproduct material</I> means the quantity of tailings generated from the extraction and processing of 2,000 pounds of uranium or thorium ore-bearing rock. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal reimbursement ratio</I> means the ratio of Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material to total dry short tons of byproduct material present at an active uranium or thorium processing site on October 24, 1992. The ratio shall be established by comparing Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material to total dry short tons of byproduct material present at the site on October 24, 1992, or by another means of attributing costs of remedial action to byproduct material generated as an incident of sales to the United States which the Department determines is more accurate than a ratio established using dry short tons of byproduct material. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material</I> means dry short tons of byproduct material that was present at an active uranium or thorium processing site on October 24, 1992, and was generated as an incident of uranium or thorium sales to the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Generally accepted accounting principles</I> means those principles established by the Financial Accounting Standards Board which encompass the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. 
</P>
<P><I>Inflation index</I> means the consumer price index for all urban consumers (CPI-U) as published by the Department of Commerce's Bureau of Labor Statistics. 
</P>
<P><I>Licensee</I> means a site owner licensed under section 62 or 81 of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2092, 2111) by NRC, or an Agreement State, for any activity at an active uranium or thorium processing site which results, or has resulted, in the production of byproduct material. 
</P>
<P><I>Maximum reimbursement amount or maximum reimbursement ceiling</I> means the smaller of the following two quantities: 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount obtained by multiplying the total cost of remedial action at the site, as determined in the approved plan for subsequent remedial action, by the Federal reimbursement ratio established for the site; or 
</P>
<P>(2) $6.25, as adjusted for inflation, multiplied by the number of Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material. 
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its predecessor agency. 
</P>
<P><I>Offsite disposal</I> means the disposal, and activities that contribute to the disposal, of byproduct material in a location that is not contiguous to the West Chicago Thorium Mill Site located in West Chicago, Illinois, in accordance with a plan approved by, or other written authorization from, the State of Illinois or NRC provided the activities are consistent with the ultimate removal of byproduct material from the West Chicago Thorium Mill Site. 
</P>
<P><I>Plan for subsequent remedial action</I> means a plan approved by the Department which includes an estimated total cost and schedule for remedial action, and all applicable requirements of remedial action established by NRC or an Agreement State to be performed after December 31, 2007, at an active uranium or thorium processing site. 
</P>
<P><I>Reclamation plan or site reclamation plan</I> means a plan, which has been approved by NRC or an Agreement State, for remedial action at an active processing site that establishes the work necessary to comply with applicable requirements of UMTRCA, or where appropriate with requirements established by an Agreement State. 
</P>
<P><I>Remedial action</I> means decontamination, decommissioning, reclamation, and other remedial action at an active uranium or thorium processing site. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy or her designees. 
</P>
<P><I>Site owner</I> means a person that presently holds, or held in the past, any interest in land, including but not limited to a fee simple absolute, surface or subsurface ownership of mining claims, easements, and a right of access for the purposes of cleanup, or any other legal or equitable interest. 
</P>
<P><I>Tailings</I> means the remaining portion of a metal-bearing ore after some or all of the metal, such as uranium, has been extracted. 
</P>
<P><I>The Fund</I> means the Uranium Enrichment Decontamination and Decommissioning Fund established at the United States Department of Treasury pursuant to section 1801 of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2297g). 
</P>
<P><I>Title X or “the Act”</I> means Subtitle A of Title X of the Energy Policy Act of 1992, Public Law 102-486, 106 Stat. 2776 (42 U.S.C. 2296a-1 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P><I>UMTRCA</I> means the Uranium Mill Tailings Radiation Control Act of 1978, as amended (42 U.S.C. 7901 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means any executive department, commission, or agency, or other establishment in the executive branch of the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P><I>Written Authorization</I> means a written statement from either the NRC or an Agreement State that a licensee has performed in the past, or is authorized to perform in the future, a remedial action that is necessary to comply with the requirements of UMTRCA or, where appropriate, the requirements of an Agreement State. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32957, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reimbursement Criteria</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.2.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.10   Eligibility for reimbursement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any licensee of an active uranium or thorium processing site that has incurred costs of remedial action for the site that are attributable to byproduct material generated as an incident of sales to the United States shall be eligible for reimbursement of these costs, subject to the procedures and limitations specified in this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to reimbursement of costs of remedial action incurred by a licensee, the Department shall make a determination regarding the total quantity of dry short tons of byproduct material, and the quantity of Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material present on October 24, 1992 at the licensee's active processing site. A claim for reimbursement from a site for which a determination is made will be evaluated individually. If a licensee does not concur with the Department's determination regarding the quantity of dry short tons of byproduct material present at the site, the licensee may appeal the Department's determination in accordance with § 765.22 of this part. The Department's determination shall be used to determine that portion of an approved claim for reimbursement submitted by the licensee which shall be reimbursed, unless or until the determination is overturned on appeal. If the outcome of an appeal requires a change in the Department's initial determination, the Department will adjust any payment previously made to the licensee to reflect the change. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.2.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.11   Reimbursable costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Costs for which a licensee may be reimbursed must be for remedial action that a licensee demonstrates is attributable to byproduct material generated as an incident of sales to the United States, as determined by the Department. These costs are equal to the total costs of remedial action at a site multiplied by the Federal reimbursement ratio established for the site. These costs must be incurred in the performance of activities, prior to or after enactment of UMTRCA, and required by a plan, portion thereof, or other written authorization, approved by NRC or by an Agreement State. Costs of remedial action shall be reimbursable only if approved by the Department in accordance with the provisions of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, costs of remedial action incurred by a licensee after December 31, 2007 must be in accordance with a plan for subsequent remedial action approved by the Department as specified in § 765.30. 
</P>
<P>(c) Total reimbursement of costs of remedial action incurred at an active processing site that are otherwise reimbursable pursuant to the provisions of this part shall be limited as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Reimbursement of costs of remedial action to active uranium processing site licensees shall not exceed $6.25, as adjusted for inflation, multiplied by the number of Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material. 
</P>
<P>(2) Aggregate reimbursement of costs of remedial action incurred at all active uranium processing sites shall not exceed $350 million. This aggregate amount shall be adjusted for inflation pursuant to § 765.12; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Reimbursement of costs of remedial action at the active thorium processing site shall be limited to costs incurred for offsite disposal and shall not exceed $365 million. This amount shall be adjusted for inflation pursuant to § 765.12.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding the Title X requirement that byproduct material must be located at an active processing site on October 24, 1992, byproduct material moved from the Edgemont Mill in Edgemont, South Dakota, to a disposal site as a result of remedial action, shall be eligible for reimbursement in accordance with all applicable requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32957, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.2.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.12   Inflation index adjustment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amounts of $6.25 (as specified in § 765.2(e) of this rule) $350 million (as specified in § 765.2(f) of this rule), $365 million (as specified in § 765.2(g) of this rule) and $715 million (as specified in § 765.2(i) of this rule) shall be adjusted for inflation as provided by this section.
</P>
<P>(b) To make adjustments for inflation to the amounts specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the Department shall apply the CPI-U to these amounts annually, beginning in 1994, using the CPI-U as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics within the Department of Commerce for the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department shall adjust annually, using the CPI-U as defined in this part, amounts paid to an active uranium processing site licensee for purposes of comparison with the $6.25 per dry short ton limit on reimbursement as adjusted for inflation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32957, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Submitting and Processing Reimbursement Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.3.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.20   Procedures for submitting reimbursement claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All costs of remedial action for which reimbursement is claimed must be supported by reasonable documentation as specified in this subpart. The Department reserves the right to deny any claim for reimbursement, in whole or in part, that is not submitted in accordance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The licensee shall provide a copy of the approved site reclamation plan or other written authorization from NRC or an Agreement State upon which claims for reimbursement are based, with the initial claim submitted. Any revision or modification made to the plan or other written authorization, which is approved by NRC or an Agreement State, shall be included by the licensee in the next claim submitted to the Department following that revision or modification. This reclamation plan or other written authorization, as modified or revised, shall serve as the basis for the Department's evaluation of all claims for reimbursement submitted by a licensee.
</P>
<P>(c) Each submitted claim shall provide a summary of all costs of remedial action for which reimbursement is claimed. This summary shall identify the costs of remedial action associated with each major activity or requirement established by the site's reclamation plan or other written authorization. In addition, each claim shall provide a summary of the documentation relied upon by the licensee in support of each cost category for which reimbursement is claimed.
</P>
<P>(d) Documentation used to support a reimbursement claim must demonstrate that the costs of remedial action for which reimbursement is claimed were incurred specifically for activities specified in the site's reclamation plan, or otherwise authorized by NRC or an Agreement State. Summary documentation used in support of a claim must be cross-referenced to the relevant page and activity of the licensee's reclamation plan, or other written authorization approved by NRC or an Agreement State.
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation prepared contemporaneous to the time the cost was incurred should be used when available. The documentation should identify the date or time period for which the cost was incurred, the activity for which the cost was incurred, and the reclamation plan provision or other written authorization to which the cost relates. Where available, each claim should be supported by receipts, invoices, pay records, or other documents that substantiate that each specific cost for which reimbursement is claimed was incurred for work that was necessary to comply with UMTRCA or applicable Agreement State requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Documentation not prepared contemporaneous to the time the cost was incurred, or not directly related to activities specified in the reclamation plan or other written authorization, may be used in support of a claim for reimbursement provided that the licensee determines the documentation is the only means available to document costs for which reimbursement is sought.
</P>
<P>(e) The Department may audit, or require the licensee to audit, any documentation used to support a claim on a case-by-case basis and may approve, approve in part, or deny reimbursement of any claim in accordance with the requirements of this part. Documentation relied upon by a licensee in support of a claim for reimbursement shall be made available to the Department and retained by the licensee until 4 years after final payment of a claim is made by the Department.
</P>
<P>(f) Each licensee should utilize generally accepted accounting principles consistently throughout the claim. These accounting principles, underlying assumptions, and any other information necessary for the Department to evaluate the claim shall be set forth in each claim.
</P>
<P>(g) Following each annual appropriation by Congress, the Department will issue a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Notice announcing:
</P>
<P>(1) A claim submission deadline for that fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(2) Availability of funds for reimbursement of costs of remedial action;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the Department anticipates that approved claims for that fiscal year may be subject to prorated payment;
</P>
<P>(4) Any changes in the Federal reimbursement ratio or maximum reimbursement ceiling for any active uranium or thorium processing site;
</P>
<P>(5) Any revision in the per dry short ton limit on reimbursement for all active uranium processing sites; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(h) A licensee shall certify, with respect to any claim submitted by it for reimbursement, that the work was completed as described in an approved reclamation plan or other authorization. In addition, the licensee shall certify that all costs for which reimbursement is claimed, all documentation relied upon in support of its costs, and all statements or representations made in the claim are complete, accurate, and true. The certification shall be signed by an officer or other official of the licensee with knowledge of the contents of the claim and authority to represent the licensee in making the certification. Any knowingly false or frivolous statements or representations may subject the individual to penalties under the False Claims Act, sections 3729 through 3731 of title 31 United States Code, or any other applicable statutory authority; and criminal penalties under sections 286, 287, 1001 and 1002 of title 18, United States Code, or any other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(i) All claims for reimbursement submitted to the Department shall be sent by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested. The Department reserves all rights under applicable law to recover any funds paid to licensees which an audit finds to not meet the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.3.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.21   Procedures for processing reimbursement claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department will conduct a preliminary review of each claim within 60 days after the claim submission deadline announced in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Notice specified in § 765.20(g) to determine the completeness of each claim. Payments from the Fund to active uranium or thorium processing site licensees for approved costs of remedial action will be made simultaneously by the Department within 1 year of the claim submission deadline.
</P>
<P>(b) After completing the preliminary review specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the Department may audit, or require the licensee to audit, any documentation used in support of such claim, request the licensee to provide additional information, or request the licensee to provide other clarification determined by the Department to be necessary to complete its evaluation of the claim. In addition, the Department reserves the right to conduct an inspection of the site to verify any information provided by the licensee in a claim for reimbursement, or in support thereof. Any information requested by the Department, if provided, must be submitted by the claimant within 60 days of receipt of the request unless the Department specifies in writing that additional time is provided.
</P>
<P>(c) At any time during the review of a claim, the Department may request an informal conference with a licensee to obtain further information or clarification on any unresolved issue pertaining to the claim. While the licensee is not required to provide additional clarification requested by the Department, a failure to do so may result in the denial of that portion of the claim for which information is requested.
</P>
<P>(d) Based upon the claim submitted and any additional information received by the Department, including any audit or site inspection if conducted, the Department shall complete a final review of all relevant information prior to making a reimbursement decision. When the Department determines it is not clear that an activity for which reimbursement is claimed was necessary to comply with UMTRCA or where appropriate, with applicable Agreement State requirements, the Department may consult with the appropriate regulatory authorities.
</P>
<P>(e) A written decision regarding the Department's determination to approve, approve in part, or deny a claim will be provided to the licensee within 10 days of completion of the claim review. Within 45 days after the Department's issuance of a written decision to deny the claim due to inadequate documentation, the licensee may request the Department to reconsider its decision if the licensee provides reasonable documentation in accordance with § 765.20. If a licensee chooses not to submit the documentation, the licensee has the right to file a formal appeal to a claim denial in accordance with § 765.22. If a licensee chooses to submit the documentation, the Department will consider whether the documentation results in the Department's reversal of the initial decision to deny the claim and will inform the licensee of the Department's subsequent decision. The licensee may appeal that decision in accordance with § 765.22.
</P>
<P>(f) If the Department determines that insufficient funds are available at any time to provide for complete payment of all outstanding approved claims, reimbursements of approved claims will be made on a prorated basis. A prorated payment of all outstanding approved claims for reimbursement, or any unpaid portion thereof, shall be made on the basis of the total amount of all outstanding approved claims, regardless of when the claims were submitted or approved.
</P>
<P>(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (f) of this section, or any other provisions of this part, any requirement for the payment or obligation of funds by the Department established by this part shall be subject to the availability of appropriated funds, and no provision herein shall be interpreted to require obligation or payment of funds in violation of the Anti-Deficiency Act (31 U.S.C. 1341). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32957, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.3.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.22   Appeals procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any appeal by a licensee of any Department determination subject to the requirements of this part, shall invoke the appeals process specified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall file an appeal of any Department determination subject to the requirements of this part with the Office of Hearings and Appeals, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. Any appeal must be filed within 45 days from the date the licensee received notice, actual or constructive (i.e., publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>), of the Department's determination. Appeals must comply with the procedures set forth in 10 CFR part 1003, subpart C. The decision of the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall be the final decision of the Department. A licensee must file an appeal in order to exhaust its administrative remedies, and the receipt of an appellate decision is a prerequisite to seeking judicial review of any determination made under this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 15017, Mar. 21, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.3.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.23   Annual report.</HEAD>
<P>The Department shall prepare annually a report summarizing pertinent information concerning claims submitted in the previous calendar year, the status of the Department's review of the claims, determinations made regarding the claims, amounts paid for claims approved, and other relevant information concerning this reimbursement program. The report will be available to all interested parties upon written request to the Department's National Nuclear Security Administration Service Center, Office of Technical Services, Environmental Programs Department, P.O. Box 5400, Albuquerque, NM 87185-5400 and will also be available in the Department's Freedom of Information Reading room, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32957, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Additional Reimbursement Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.4.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.30   Reimbursement of costs incurred in accordance with a plan for subsequent remedial action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section establishes procedures governing reimbursements of costs of remedial action incurred in accordance with a plan for subsequent remedial action approved by the Department as provided in this section. Costs otherwise eligible for reimbursement in accordance with the terms of this part and incurred in accordance with the plan shall be reimbursed in accordance with the provisions of subpart D and subpart C. In the event there is an inconsistency between the requirements of subpart D and subpart C, the provisions of subpart D shall govern reimbursement of such costs of remedial action. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee who anticipates incurring costs of remedial action after December 31, 2007 may submit a plan for subsequent remedial action. This plan may be submitted at any time after January 1, 2005, but no later than December 31, 2006. Reimbursement of costs of remedial action incurred after December 31, 2007 shall be subject to the approval of this plan by the Department. This plan shall describe: 
</P>
<P>(1) All applicable requirements established by NRC pursuant to UMTRCA, or where appropriate, by the requirements of an Agreement State, included in a reclamation plan approved by NRC or an Agreement State which have not yet been satisfied in full by the licensee, and 
</P>
<P>(2) The total cost of remedial action required at the site, together with all necessary supporting documentation, segregated into actual costs incurred to date, costs incurred or expected to be incurred prior to December 31, 2007 but not yet approved for reimbursement, and anticipated future costs. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Department shall review the plan for subsequent remedial action to verify conformance with the NRC- or Agreement State-approved reclamation plan or other written authorization, and to determine the reasonableness of anticipated future costs, and shall approve, approve with suggested modifications, or reject the plan. During its review, the Department may request additional information from the licensee to clarify or provide support for any provision or estimate contained in the plan. The Department may also consult with NRC or an Agreement State concerning any provision or estimate contained in the plan. Upon approval, approval with modifications, or rejection of a plan, the Department shall inform and explain to the licensee its decision. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Department rejects a plan for subsequent remedial action submitted by a licensee, the licensee may appeal the Department's rejection or prepare and submit a revised plan. The licensee may continue to submit revised plans for subsequent remedial action until the Department approves a plan, or September 30, 2007, whichever occurs first. A failure by a licensee to receive approval from the Department of a plan prior to December 31, 2007 will preclude that licensee from receiving any reimbursement for costs of remedial action incurred after that date. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Department shall determine, in approving a plan for subsequent remedial action, the maximum reimbursement amount for which the licensee may be eligible. This maximum reimbursement amount shall be the smaller of the following two quantities: 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount obtained by multiplying the total cost of remedial action at the site, as determined in the approved plan for subsequent remedial action, by the Federal reimbursement ratio established for such site; or 
</P>
<P>(2) For the uranium site licensees only, $6.25, as adjusted for inflation, multiplied by the number of Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material. For all licensees, the Department shall subtract from the maximum reimbursement amount any reimbursement already approved to be paid to the licensee. The resulting sum shall be the potential additional reimbursement to which the licensee may be entitled. This resulting sum will be adjusted after the approval of claims for work performed through December 31, 2007, to reflect the actual approved costs of work performed through that date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32957, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.4.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.31   Designation of funds available for subsequent remedial action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department shall authorize reimbursement of costs of remedial action, incurred in accordance with an approved plan for subsequent remedial action and approved by the Department as specified in subpart C to this part, to be made from the Fund. These costs are reimbursable until: 
</P>
<P>(1) This remedial action has been completed, or 
</P>
<P>(2) The licensee has been reimbursed its maximum reimbursement amount as determined by the Department pursuant to paragraph (e) of § 765.30. 
</P>
<P>(b) A licensee shall submit any claim for reimbursement of costs of remedial action incurred pursuant to an approved plan for subsequent remedial action in accordance with the requirements of subpart C of this part. The Department shall approve, approve in part, or deny any claims in accordance with the procedures specified in subpart C of this part. The Department shall authorize the disbursement of funds upon approval of a claim for reimbursement. 
</P>
<P>(c) After all remedial actions have been completed by affected Agreement State or NRC licensees, the Department will issue a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice announcing a termination date beyond which claims for reimbursement will no longer be accepted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32958, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 765.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.15.4.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 765.32   Reimbursement of excess funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No later than December 31, 2008, the Department shall determine if the aggregate amount authorized for appropriation pursuant to section 1003 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 2296a-2), as adjusted for inflation pursuant to § 765.12, exceed as of that date the combined total of all reimbursements which have been paid to licensees under this part, any amounts approved for reimbursement and owed to any licensee, and any anticipated additional reimbursements to be made in accordance with approved plans for subsequent remedial action. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the Department determines that the amount authorized pursuant to section 1003 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 2296a-2), as adjusted for inflation, exceed the combined total of all reimbursements (as indicated in paragraph (a) of this section), the Department may establish procedures for providing additional reimbursement to uranium licensees for costs of remedial action, subject to the availability of appropriated funds. If the amount of available excess funds is insufficient to provide reimbursement of all eligible costs of remedial action, then reimbursement shall be paid on a prorated basis. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each eligible uranium licensee's prorated share will be determined by dividing the total excess funds available by the total number of Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material present at the site where costs of remedial action exceed $6.25 per dry short ton, as adjusted for inflation pursuant to § 765.12. The resulting number will be the maximum cost per dry short ton, over $6.25, that may be reimbursed. Total reimbursement for each licensee that has incurred approved costs of remedial action in excess of $6.25 per dry short ton will be the product of the excess cost per dry short ton multiplied by the number of Federal-related dry short tons of byproduct material at the site or the actual costs incurred and approved by the Department, whichever is less. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any costs of remedial action for which reimbursement is sought from excess funds determined by the Department to be available is subject to all requirements of this part except the per dry short ton limit on reimbursement established by paragraph (d) of § 765.11. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 26726, May 23, 1994, as amended at 68 FR 32957, June 3, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="766" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 766—URANIUM ENRICHMENT DECONTAMINATION AND DECOMMISSIONING FUND; PROCEDURES FOR SPECIAL ASSESSMENT OF DOMESTIC UTILITIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201, 2297g, 2297g-1, 2297g-2, 7254. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 41963, Aug. 15, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.1.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part establish procedures for the Special Assessment of domestic utilities for the Uranium Enrichment Decontamination and Decommissioning Fund pursuant to sections 1801, 1802 and 1803 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. § 2011 <I>et seq.</I>). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.1.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all domestic utilities in the United States that purchased separative work units from the DOE between 1945 and October 23, 1992. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.1.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following terms shall be defined as follows: 
</P>
<P><I>CPI-U</I> means the Consumer Price Index for all-urban consumers published by the Department of Labor. 
</P>
<P><I>Commercial electricity generation</I> means the production of electricity for sale to consumers. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy and its predecessor agencies. 
</P>
<P><I>Domestic utility</I> means any utility in the United States that has purchased SWUs produced by DOE for the purpose of commercial electrical generation during the period beginning in 1945 to October 23, 1992. 
</P>
<P><I>Fund</I> means an account in the U.S. Treasury referred to as the Uranium Enrichment Decontamination and Decommissioning Fund, established by section 1801 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Oak Ridge Operations Office</I> means the Oak Ridge Operations Office of the Department of Energy in Oak Ridge, Tennessee. 
</P>
<P><I>Special Assessment</I> means the Special Assessment levied on domestic utilities for payments into the Fund. 
</P>
<P><I>SWU</I> means a separative work unit, the common measure by which uranium enrichment services are sold. 
</P>
<P><I>TESS</I> means the Toll Enrichment Services System, which is the database that tracks uranium enrichment services transactions of the DOE Oak Ridge Operations Office for the purpose of planning, toll transaction processing, customer invoicing and historical tracking of SWU deliveries. 
</P>
<P><I>Use and burnup charges</I> mean lease charges for the consumption of SWUs and natural uranium. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Special Assessment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.100" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.100   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the procedures for the Special Assessment of domestic utilities for funds to be deposited in the Fund. 


</P>
<P> 
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.101" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.101   Data utilization.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall use the records from the Toll Enrichment Services System (TESS) and other records maintained by the Oak Ridge Operations Office in order to determine the total SWUs purchased from DOE for all purposes. DOE shall use records from TESS, relevant records of domestic utilities, and such other information as DOE deems to be reliable and probative in determining the number of SWUs that were purchased by each domestic utility prior to October 24, 1992. A domestic utility shall be considered to have purchased a SWU from DOE if the SWU was produced by DOE but purchased by the domestic utility from another source. DOE shall consider a purchase to have occurred upon the delivery of a SWU to the domestic utility purchasing the SWU. A domestic utility shall not be considered to have purchased a SWU from DOE if the SWU was purchased by the domestic utility but subsequently sold to another source. 


</P>
<P> 
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.102" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.102   Calculation methodology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of Domestic Utilities' Annual Assessment Ratio to the Fund.</I> Domestic utilities shall be assessed annually for their share of the Fund. The amount of the assessment shall be determined by the ratio of SWUs produced by DOE and purchased by domestic utilities prior to October 24, 1992, to the total number of SWUs produced by DOE for all purposes (including SWUs produced for defense purposes). All calculations will be carried out to the fifth significant digit. This ratio is expressed by the following hypothetical example: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">SWUs purchased by all domestic utilities 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total SWUs produced—all purposes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Special assessment ratio 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12345</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> ÷ </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45678</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.27026</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment for Domestic Utilities.</I> The Annual Special Assessment ratio calculated in paragraph (a) of this section shall be multiplied by $480 million, yielding the total amount of the Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment as of October 1992. In the event that this amount is in excess of $150 million, the Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment shall be capped at $150 million. All calculations will be carried out to the fifth significant digit. The Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment is determined as shown in the following hypothetical example: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total fund
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Annual assessment ratio 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Baseline total annual special assessment 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$480,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.27026</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$129,724,800</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment per Utility.</I> The ratio of the total number of SWUs purchased by an individual domestic utility for commercial electricity generation, to the total number of SWUs purchased by all domestic utilities for commercial electricity generation, multiplied by the Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment calculated in paragraph (b) of this section, determines an individual utility's share of the Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment. All calculations will be carried out to the fifth significant digit. A hypothetical example of such a calculation follows: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Single utility SWUs 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">All utility SWUs 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Utility ratio 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Baseline total annual special assessment 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Individual utility special Assessment 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> ÷ </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12345</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.02430</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$129,724,800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,152,312.64</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of Inflation Adjustment.</I> The Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment billed to domestic utilities shall be adjusted for inflation using the most recently published monthly CPI-U and the CPI-U for October 1992. All calculations will be carried out to the fifth significant digit. A hypothetical example of such a calculation follows: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CPI-U (Mar 93) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CPI-U (Oct 92)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Adjustment multiplier
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> ÷ </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">141.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05783</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Utility special Assessment 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Adjustment multiplier 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Adjusted utility assessment 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$3,152,312.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.05783</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,334,610.88</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.103" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.103   Special Assessment invoices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall issue annually a Special Assessment invoice to each domestic utility. This invoice will specify itemized quantities of enrichment services by reactor. In each Special Assessment invoice, DOE shall require payment, on or before 30 days from the date of each invoice, of that utility's prorated share of the Baseline Total Annual Special Assessment, as adjusted for inflation using the most recently published monthly CPI-U data. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall enclose with the Fiscal Year 1993 Special Assessment invoice a sealed, business confidential, summary SWU transaction statement including: 
</P>
<P>(1) TESS information which documents, by reactor, the basis of the utility's assessment; 
</P>
<P>(2) A list of domestic utilities subject to the Special Assessment; 
</P>
<P>(3) The total number of SWUs purchased from DOE by all domestic utilities for all purposes prior to October 24, 1992. 
</P>
<P>(4) The total number of SWUs purchased from DOE for all purposes prior to October 24, 1992, including SWUs purchased or produced for defense purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Such other information as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) With regard to any fiscal year after Fiscal Year 1993, DOE shall enclose a summary SWU transaction statement with Special Assessment invoices that will include updated information regarding adjustments to Special Assessments resulting from the reconciliation and appeals process under Section 766.104. 
</P>
<P>(d) The date of each Annual Special Assessment invoicing will be set on or about October 1 with payment due 30 calendar days from the date of invoice starting with the Fiscal Year 1995 Special Assessment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.104" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.104   Reconciliation, adjustments and appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A domestic utility requesting an adjustment shall, within 30 days from the date of a Special Assessment invoice, file a notice requesting an adjustment. Such notice shall include an explanation of the basis for the adjustment and any supporting documents, and may include a request for a meeting with DOE to discuss its invoice. If more time is needed to gather probative information, DOE will consider utility requests for up to 90 days additional time, providing that the initial notice requesting an adjustment was timely filed. The notice shall be filed at the address set forth in the Special Assessment invoice, and filing of this notice is complete only upon receipt by DOE. Domestic utilities are considered to have met the filing requirements upon DOE's receipt of the notice requesting an adjustment without regard to DOE's acceptance of supporting documentation. The filing of a notice for an adjustment shall not stay the obligation to pay. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may request additional information from domestic utilities and may acquire data from other sources. 
</P>
<P>(c) After reviewing a notice submitted under paragraph (a) of this section and other relevant information, and after making any necessary adjustment to its records in light of reliable and adequately probative records submitted in connection with the request for adjustment or otherwise obtained by DOE, DOE shall make a written determination granting or denying the requested adjustment. As appropriate, DOE shall modify the application of TESS data for any discrepancies or further transactions raised during the reconciliation process. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any domestic utility that wishes to dispute a written determination under paragraph (c) of this section shall have the right to file an appeal with the Office of Hearings and Appeals, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue S.W., Washington, DC 20585. Except for the Fiscal Year 1993 Special Assessment, any appeal must be filed on or before 30 days from the date of the written determination and should contain information of the type described in 10 CFR part 1003, subpart C. With regard to a written determination under paragraph (c) of this section concerning a Fiscal Year 1993 Special Assessment, a domestic utility must file an appeal on or before 30 days from the effective date of this paragraph or from the date of such written determination, whichever is later. The decision of the Office of Hearings and Appeals shall be the final decision of DOE. Upon completion of the reconciliation process, all records of SWU transactions shall be finalized and shall become the basis of subsequent Special Assessment invoices. These records shall be revised to reflect any decisions from the Office of Hearings and Appeals and any applicable court rulings. 
</P>
<P>(e) Refunds of Special Assessments shall be provided in cases where DOE has determined, as a result of reconciliation, that an overpayment has been made by a domestic utility, and that the domestic utility has no further current obligation to DOE. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 41963, Aug. 15, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 15017, Mar. 21, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.105" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.105   Payment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall specify payment details and instructions in all Special Assessment invoices. Each domestic utility shall make payments to the Fund by wire transfer to the Department of Treasury. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.106" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.106   Late payment fees.</HEAD>
<P>In the case of a late payment by a domestic utility of its Special Assessment, the domestic utility shall pay interest at the per annum rate (365-day basis) established by DOE for general application to monies due DOE and not received by DOE on or before a designated due date. Interest shall accrue beginning the date of the designated payment except that, whenever the due date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or a United States legal holiday, interest shall commence on the next day immediately following which is not a Saturday, Sunday, or United States legal holiday. Late payment provisions for the Special Assessment to the Fund shall be based on the Treasury Current Value of Funds Rate (which is published annually by the Treasury and used in assessing interest charges for outstanding debts on claims owed to the United States Government), plus six (6) percent pro rata on a daily basis. The additional six (6) percent charge shall not go into effect until five (5) business days after payment was originally due. Late payment fees shall be invoiced within two days of receipt of utility payment of the special assessment when delinquency is less than 30 days. For longer periods of delinquency, DOE will submit additional invoices, as appropriate. Late payment fees will be due 30 days from the date of invoice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 766.107" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.16.2.12.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 766.107   Prepayment of future Special Assessments.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall accept prepayment of future Special Assessments upon request by a domestic utility. A domestic utility's liability for the future assessments shall be satisfied to the extent of the prepayments. DOE shall use the pro rata share of prepayments attributable to a given fiscal year plus the Special Assessments collected from utilities who did not prepay for that fiscal year, in order to determine that the total amount of Special Assessments collected from domestic utilities in a given fiscal year does not exceed $150 million, annually adjusted for inflation.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="770" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 770—TRANSFER OF REAL PROPERTY AT DEFENSE NUCLEAR FACILITIES FOR ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>50 U.S.C. 2811.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 10689, Feb. 29, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 770.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.1   What is the purpose of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes how DOE will transfer by sale or lease real property at closed or downsized defense nuclear facilities for economic development. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part also contains the procedures for a person or entity to request indemnification for any claim that results from the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance or pollutant or contaminant as a result of DOE activities at the defense nuclear facility. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 10689, Feb. 29, 2000, as amended at 78 FR 67927, Nov. 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.2   What real property does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may transfer DOE-owned real property by sale or lease at closed or downsized defense nuclear facilities, for the purpose of permitting economic development. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may transfer, by lease only, improvements at defense nuclear facilities on land withdrawn from the public domain, that are unneeded, temporarily underutilized, or underutilized, for the purpose of permitting economic development and for facilitating local reuse or redevelopment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 10689, Feb. 29, 2000, as amended at 78 FR 67927, Nov. 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.3   What general limitations apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing in this part affects or modifies in any way section 120(h) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9620(h)). 
</P>
<P>(b) Individual proposals for transfers of property are subject to NEPA review as implemented by 10 CFR part 1021. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any indemnification agreed to by the DOE is subject to the availability of funds. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.4   What definitions are used in this part?</HEAD>
<P><I>Community Reuse Organization or CRO</I> means a governmental or non-governmental organization that is recognized by DOE and that represents a community adversely affected by DOE work force restructuring at a defense nuclear facility.. 
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> means a request for reimbursement of monetary damages. 
</P>
<P><I>Defense Nuclear Facility</I> means “Department of Energy defense nuclear facility” within the meaning of section 318 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2286g). 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE Field Office</I> means any of DOE's officially established organizations and components located outside the Washington, D.C., metropolitan area. (See Field Office Manager.) 
</P>
<P><I>Economic Development</I> means the use of transferred DOE real property in a way that enhances the production, distribution, or consumption of goods and services in the surrounding region(s) or which furthers reuse or redevelopment, and furthers the public policy objectives of the laws governing the downsizing of DOE's defense nuclear facilities. 
</P>
<P><I>Field Office Manager</I> means the head of the DOE Operations Offices or Field Offices associated with the management and control of defense nuclear facilities. 
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous Substance</I> means a substance within the definition of “hazardous substances” in subchapter I of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) (42 U.S.C. 9601(14)). 
</P>
<P><I>Indemnification</I> means the responsibility for reimbursement of payment for any suit, claim, demand or action, liability, judgment, cost, or other fee arising out of any claim for personal injury or property damage, including business losses consistent with generally accepted accounting practices, which involve the covered real property transfers. Indemnification payments are subject to the availability of appropriated funds. 
</P>
<P><I>Person or Entity</I> means any state, any political subdivision of a state or any individual person that acquires ownership or control of real property at a defense nuclear facility. 
</P>
<P><I>Pollutant or Contaminant</I> means a substance identified within the definition of “pollutant or contaminant” in section 101(33) of CERCLA (42 U.S.C. 9601(33)). 
</P>
<P><I>Real Property</I> means all interest in land, together with the improvements, structures, and fixtures located on the land (usually including prefabricated or movable structures), and associated appurtenances under the control of any federal agency. 
</P>
<P><I>Release</I> means a “release” as defined in subchapter I of CERCLA (42 U.S.C. 9601(22)). 
</P>
<P><I>Underutilized Real Property or Temporarily Underutilized Real Property</I> means the entire property or a portion of the real property (with or without improvements) that is used only at irregular intervals, or which is used by current DOE missions that can be satisfied with only a portion of the real property. Underutilized property is available by lease only.
</P>
<P><I>Unneeded Real Property</I> means any property under DOE control that the Field Office, cognizant program, or the Secretary of Energy have determined, according to applicable procedures, to be no longer needed for the purposes of conducting DOE business.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 10689, Feb. 29, 2000, as amended at 78 FR 67927, Nov. 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.5   How does DOE notify persons and entities that defense nuclear facility real property is available for transfer for economic development?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Field Office Managers annually make available to Community Reuse Organizations, local government, and Tribal nations, and other persons and entities a list of real property at defense nuclear facilities that DOE has identified as appropriate for transfer for economic development. Field Office Managers may use any effective means of publicity to notify potentially-interested persons or entities of the availability of the list. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request, Field Office Managers provide to interested persons and entities relevant information about listed real property, including information about a property's physical condition, environmental, safety and health matters, and any restrictions or terms of transfer. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 10689, Feb. 29, 2000, as amended at 78 FR 67927, Nov. 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.6   May interested persons and entities request that real property at defense nuclear facilities be transferred for economic development?</HEAD>
<P>Any person or entity may request that specific real property be made available for transfer for economic development pursuant to procedures in § 770.7. A person or entity must submit such a request in writing to the Field Office Manager who is responsible for the real property. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.7   What procedures are to be used to transfer real property at defense nuclear facilities for economic development?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposal.</I> The transfer process starts when a potential purchaser or lessee submits to the Field Office Manager a proposal for the transfer of real property that DOE has included on a list of available real property, as provided in § 770.5 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(1) A proposal must include (but is not limited to): 
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the real property proposed to be transferred; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The intended use and duration of use of the real property, including potential users and an indication that these users are interested in participating in the economic development of the property;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the economic development that would be furthered by the transfer (<I>e.g.,</I> jobs to be created or retained, improvements to be made) or what reuse or reutilization would be accomplished by means of a description of the business to be created (direct and indirect economic benefits that will result due to the proposed transfer);
</P>
<P>(iv) Information supporting the economic viability of the proposed development; and
</P>
<P>(v) The consideration offered and any financial requirements. 
</P>
<P>(2) The person or entity should state in the proposal whether it is or is not requesting indemnification against claims based on the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance or pollutant or contaminant resulting from DOE activities. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a proposal for transfer does not contain a statement regarding indemnification, the Field Office Manager will notify the person or entity by letter of the potential availability of indemnification under this part, and will request that the person or entity either modify the proposal to include a request for indemnification or submit a statement that it is not seeking indemnification. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision to transfer real property.</I> After review of the proposal, DOE will notify, by letter, the person or entity that submitted the proposal of DOE's decision whether or not a transfer of the real property by sale or lease is in the best interest of the Government. If DOE determines the transfer is in the Government's best interest, then the Field Office Manger will begin development of a transfer agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Congressional committee notification.</I> DOE may not transfer real property under this part until 30 days have elapsed after the date DOE notifies congressional defense committees of the proposed transfer. The Field Office Manager will notify congressional defense committees through the Secretary of Energy. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 10689, Feb. 29, 2000, as amended at 78 FR 67927, Nov. 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.8   May DOE transfer real property at defense nuclear facilities for economic development at less than fair market value?</HEAD>
<P>DOE generally attempts to obtain fair market value for real property transferred for economic development, but DOE may agree to sell or lease such property for less than fair market value if the statutory transfer authority used imposes no market value restriction, and: 
</P>
<P>(a) The real property requires considerable infrastructure improvements to make it economically viable, or
</P>
<P>(b) A conveyance at less than market value would, in the DOE's judgment, further the public policy objectives of the laws governing the downsizing of defense nuclear facilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.9   What conditions apply to DOE indemnification of claims against a person or entity based on the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance or pollutant or contaminant attributable to DOE?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an agreement for the transfer of real property for economic development contains an indemnification provision, the person or entity requesting indemnification for a particular claim must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the Field Office Manager in writing within two years after such claim accrues under § 770.11 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish the Field Office Manager, or such other DOE official as the Field Office Manager designates, with evidence or proof of the claim; 
</P>
<P>(3) Furnish the Field Office Manager, or such other DOE official as the Field Office Manager designates, with copies of pertinent papers (<I>e.g.,</I> legal documents) received by the person or entity; 
</P>
<P>(4) If requested by DOE, provide access to records and personnel of the person or entity for purposes of defending or settling the claim; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide certification that the person or entity making the claim did not contribute to any such release or threatened release. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will enter into an indemnification agreement if DOE determines that indemnification is essential for the purpose of facilitating reuse or redevelopment. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE may not indemnify any person or entity for a claim if the person or entity contributed to the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance or pollutant or contaminant that is the basis of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE may not indemnify a person or entity for a claim made under an indemnification agreement if the person or entity refuses to allow DOE to settle or defend the claim. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any indemnification provided will apply to any successor, assignee, transferee, lender or lessee of the original entity that acquires ownership or control.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 10689, Feb. 29, 2000, as amended at 78 FR 67927, Nov. 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.10   When must a person or entity, who wishes to contest a DOE denial of request for indemnification of a claim, begin legal action?</HEAD>
<P>If DOE denies the claim, DOE must provide the person or entity with a notice of final denial of the claim by DOE by certified or registered mail. The person or entity must begin legal action within six months after the date of mailing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 770.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.17.0.12.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 770.11   When does a claim “accrue” for purposes of notifying the Field Office Manager under § 770.9(a) of this part?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of § 770.9(a) of this part, a claim “accrues” on the date on which the person asserting the claim knew, or reasonably should have known, that the injury to person or property was caused or contributed to by the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance, pollutant, or contaminant as a result of DOE activities at the defense nuclear facility on which the real property is located.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="780" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 780—PATENT COMPENSATION BOARD REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7151, 7254; 42 U.S.C. 5814, 5815; 42 U.S.C. 2183, 2187, 2223; 35 U.S.C. 183; North American Free Trade Agreement, Article 1709(10), as implemented by the North American Free Trade Agreement Implementing Act, Pub. L. 103-182. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 39581, Aug. 4, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part establish the procedures, terms, and conditions for Patent Compensation Board:
</P>
<P>(a) Proceedings to declare a patent affected with the public interest pursuant to section 153a of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (Pub. L. 83-703; 42 U.S.C. 2183);
</P>
<P>(b) Proceedings to determine a reasonable royalty fee pursuant to section 157 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954;
</P>
<P>(c) Proceedings for the grant of an award pursuant to section 157 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954;
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings to obtain compensation pursuant to section 173 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 and the Invention Secrecy Act (35 U.S.C. 183);
</P>
<FP>And for applications to the Department of Energy (DOE) for a patent license pursuant to sections 153b(2) and 153c of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954.


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (Pub. L. 83-703; 42 U.S.C. 2011).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application</I> means the application filed by an applicant for a patent license, for the determination of a reasonable royalty fee, for an award, or for compensation under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board</I> means the Patent Compensation Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Chairman</I> means the Chairman of the Patent Compensation Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Department,</I> or <I>DOE,</I> or <I>Department of Energy</I> means the Department of Energy, established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91; 42 U.S.C. 7101).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Party</I> means the applicant, patent owner, Department representative, and any person admitted as a party by the Board for any proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Patent Owner</I> means the owner of record in the United States Patent and Trademark Office.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Energy or the delegate of the Secretary of Energy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.3   Jurisdiction of the Patent Compensation Board.</HEAD>
<P>The Patent Compensation Board was established by section 157 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954. It was transferred to the Energy Research and Development Administration pursuant to section 104(d) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5814) and subsequently to the Department of Energy by section 301 of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7151). Under section 157, the Board is given authority to determine reasonable royalty fees or resolve issues involving the grant of awards. In addition, the Board has authority: 
</P>
<P>(a) To hear and make decisions as to compensation under section 173 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 2223) and the Invention Secrecy Act (35 U.S.C. 183); 
</P>
<P>(b) To hear and make decisions as to whether a specific patent is affected with the public interest pursuant to section 153a of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(c) To hear and make decisions as to whether a specific patent license should be granted under sections 153b(2) and 153e of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(d) To give notices, hold hearings and take such other actions as may be necessary under section 153; and 
</P>
<P>(e) To exercise all powers available under the Act and necessary for the performance of these duties, including the issuance of such rules of procedure as may be necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.4   Filing and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All communications regarding proceedings subject to this part should be addressed to: Chairman, Patent Compensation Board, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585. All documents offered for filing shall be accompanied by proof of service upon all parties to the proceeding or their attorneys of record as required by law, rule, or order of the Department. Service on the Department shall be by mail or delivery to: Office of Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(b) Filing by mail will be deemed to be complete as of the time of deposit in the United States mail.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4887, Feb. 1, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.5   Applications—General form, content, and filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application shall be signed by the applicant and shall state the applicant's name and address. If the applicant is a corporation, the application shall be signed by an authorized officer of the corporation, and the application shall indicate the state of incorporation. Where the applicant elects to be represented by counsel, a signed notice to that effect shall be filed with the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application must contain a concise statement of all of the essential facts upon which it is based. No particular form of statement is required. Each application shall be verified by the applicant or by the person having the best knowledge of such facts. In the case of facts stated on information and belief, the source of such information and grounds of belief shall be given.
</P>
<P>(c) Each application must identify any person whose interest the applicant believes may be affected by the proceeding before the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) Three copies of each application shall be filed with the Board. However, only one copy of the accompanying exhibits need be filed.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board will acknowledge the receipt of the application in writing and advise the applicant of the docket number assigned to the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.6   Department participation.</HEAD>
<P>The Department shall be a party to all proceedings under this part, and the Office of the General Counsel will represent the Department's interests before the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.7   Designation of interested persons as parties.</HEAD>
<P>In any proceeding under this part, the Board shall admit as a party any person, upon application of such person or on the Board's own initiative, whose interest may be affected by the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.8   Security.</HEAD>
<P>In any proceeding under this part, the Board shall take such steps as necessary pursuant to chapter 12 of the Act and section 181 of the Act to assure compliance with Department security regulations and the common defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.9   Make-up of the Patent Compensation Board.</HEAD>
<P>The DOE Secretary of Energy, or a person acting in that position, shall appoint a three member panel to serve as the Patent Compensation Board to hear and decide cases falling under the subject matter jurisdiction set forth in § 780.3 of this part. The Secretary of Energy shall further designate one member as the chairman. The Board may be appointed to hear cases on an ad hoc basis, or on other such term of service deemed appropriate by the Secretary. All proceedings shall be conducted pursuant to rules of procedure provided by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4887, Feb. 1, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.10   Decision of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>The decision of the Board in any proceeding under this part shall constitute the final action of the Department on the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.1.12.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.11   Records of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>The records of the Board in cases filed before it, including the pleadings, the transcript, and the final decision, shall be open to public inspection, except to the extent that such records or portions thereof are withheld from disclosure by the Board pursuant to 10 CFR part 1004.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Declaring Patents Affected With the Public Interest Under Section 153a of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.2.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.20   Initiation of proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>When any person in the Department believes that the Department should declare a patent affected with the public interest pursuant to section 153a of the Act, that person shall make such a recommendation to the Under Secretary. If, after consultation with the General Counsel, the Under Secretary agrees with the recommendation, the Under Secretary shall initiate in writing a proceeding under section 153a before the Board. The communication of the Under Secretary to the Board shall identify the patent and state the basis for the proposed declaration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.2.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.21   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The Board will serve upon the patent owner and all other parties a written notice of the Department's proposed action to declare the patent affected with the public interest, and the notice shall identify the patent and state the basis for the proposed declaration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.2.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.22   Opposition, support and request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party may, within thirty (30) days after service of the notice or such other time as may be provided by the terms of the notice, file with the Board a written statement in opposition to or in support of the Department's proposed action. Such statement may also include a request for hearing. The statement shall contain a concise description of the facts, law, or any other relevant matter which the party believes should be reviewed by the Board during its consideration of the proposed declaration. If the request for a hearing is timely received, the Board shall call a hearing and provide notice of the time and place to all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Failure of all parties to oppose the proposed action or to request a hearing within the time specified in the notice shall be deemed an acquiescence to that action and may result in a declaration by the Board that the patent is affected with the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.2.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.23   Hearing and decision.</HEAD>
<P>If a timely request for a hearing is made by any party, the Board will proceed with a hearing and decision. If a hearing is not requested, the Board shall prepare and issue its decision on the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.2.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.24   Criteria for declaring a patent affected with the public interest.</HEAD>
<P>A patent shall be declared to be affected with the public interest pursuant to section 153a of the Act upon the Board's final decision that:
</P>
<P>(a) The invention or discovery covered by the patent is of primary importance in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy; and
</P>
<P>(b) The licensing of such invention or discovery under section 153 of the Act is of primary importance to effectuate the policies and purposes of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Application for a License Pursuant to Section 153b(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.3.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.30   Filing of application.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant for a license pursuant to section 153b(2) of the Act, under a patent which the Department has declared to be affected with the public interest, shall file an application with the Board in accordance with § 780.5. The Board will docket the application and serve notice of the docketing upon all parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.3.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.31   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>Each application shall contain, in addition to the requirements specified in § 780.5, the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The activities in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy to which applicant proposes to apply the patent license;
</P>
<P>(b) The nature and purpose of the applicant's intended use of the patent license;
</P>
<P>(c) The relationship of the invention or discovery to the authorized activities to which it is to be applied, including an estimate of the effect on such activities stemming from the grant or denial of the license;
</P>
<P>(d) Efforts made by the applicant to obtain a patent license from the owner of the patent;
</P>
<P>(e) Terms, if any, on which the owner of the patent proposes to grant the applicant a patent license;
</P>
<P>(f) The terms the applicant proposes for the patent license; and
</P>
<P>(g) A request for either a hearing or a decision on the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.3.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.32   Response and request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any party within thirty (30) days after service of the notice of docketing of the application:
</P>
<P>(a) May file with the Board a response containing a concise statement of the facts or law or any other relevant information which that party believes should be considered by the Board in opposition to or in support of the proposed application; and
</P>
<P>(b) May file a request for a hearing or for a decision on the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.3.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.33   Hearing and decision.</HEAD>
<P>If any party requests a hearing, the Board will proceed with a hearing and decision. If a hearing is not requested, the Board shall on the basis of the record prepare and issue its decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.3.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.34   Criteria for decision to issue a license.</HEAD>
<P>A license shall issue to the applicant to use the invention covered by the patent declared to be affected with the public interest pursuant to subsection 153b(2) of the Act upon a final decision that:
</P>
<P>(a) The activities to which the patent license is proposed to be applied are of primary importance to the applicant's conduct of an activity authorized under the Act; and
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant has made efforts to obtain reasonable commercial terms and conditions and such efforts have not been successful within a reasonable period of time. The requirement to make such efforts may be waived by the Board in the case of a national emergency or other circumstances of extreme urgency or in cases of public non-commercial use. Where this requirement is waived due to national emergency or other circumstances of extreme urgency, the owner of the patent shall be notified as soon as reasonably practicable. Where this requirement is waived for a public non-commercial use, the owner of the patent shall be notified promptly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 39581, Aug. 4, 1981, as amended at 58 FR 68734, Dec. 29, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.35" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.3.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.35   Communication of decision to General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Following a determination to issue a patent license under section 153b(2) of the Act, the Board shall send the decision to the General Counsel and instruct the General Counsel to issue the license on terms deemed equitable by the Department and generally not less fair than those granted by the patentee or by the Department to similar licensees for comparable use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.36" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.3.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.36   Conditions and issuance of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the Board's decision and instruction to issue a patent license, the General Counsel shall issue a license which complies with the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The scope and durations of such use shall be limited to the purpose for which it was authorized; 
</P>
<P>(2) Such use shall be non-exclusive; 
</P>
<P>(3) Such use shall be non-assignable, except with that part of the enterprise or goodwill that enjoys such use; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any such use shall be authorized predominantly for the supply of the U.S. market; and, 
</P>
<P>(5) Authorization for such use shall be liable, subject to adequate protection of the legitimate interests of the persons so authorized, to be terminated if and when the circumstances that led to it cease to exist and are unlikely to recur. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall have the authority to review, on motivated request, the continued existence of these circumstances. The parties will propose and agree on a reasonable royalty fee within a reasonable time as determined by the General Counsel. A reasonable royalty shall provide adequate remuneration for the circumstances of each case, taking into account the economic value of the authorization. If a party does not agree with the terms and conditions of the license as determined by the General Counsel or if a royalty fee cannot be agreed upon within the reasonable time period established by the General Counsel, any party may, within 30 days after the expiration of such time period, initiate a proceeding before the Board, in accordance with subpart E of this part, for a reconsideration of the General Counsel's determination. After the proceeding under subpart E of this part is completed, the General Counsel shall modify the patent license in accordance with the Board's determination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 68734, Dec. 29, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Application for a License Pursuant to Section 153c of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.40   Filing of application.</HEAD>
<P>An application to the Department, pursuant to section 153c of the Act, for the issuance of a license to use the invention or discovery covered by a patent useful in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy shall be filed with the Board in accordance with requirements of § 780.5. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.41" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.41   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the information specified in § 780.5, each application shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The applicant's contention, with supporting data, that the invention or discovery covered by the patent is of primary importance in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy;
</P>
<P>(b) The applicant's contention, with supporting data, that the licensing of such invention or discovery is of primary importance to the conduct of the activities of the applicant, including information concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) The activities in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy to which applicant proposes to apply the license;
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and purpose of the applicant's intended use of the patent license; and
</P>
<P>(3) The relationship of the invention or discovery to the activities to which it is to be applied, including an estimate of the effect of such activities stemming from the grant or denial of the license.
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant's contention, with supporting data, that the activities to which the patent license are proposed to be applied are of primary importance to the furtherance of policies and purposes of the Act;
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant's contention, with supporting data, that such applicant cannot otherwise obtain a patent license from the owner of the patent on terms which are reasonable for the applicant's intended use of the patent, including information concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) Efforts made by applicant to obtain a patent license from the owner of the patent; and
</P>
<P>(2) Terms, if any, on which the owner of the patent proposed to grant applicant a patent license.
</P>
<P>(e) The terms the applicant proposes as reasonable for the patent license; and
</P>
<P>(f) A copy of any license, permit, or lease obtained by the applicant under the procedures outlined in section 153(c) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.42" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.42   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Within thirty (30) days after the filing of the application, the Board will serve on all parties a notice of hearing to be held not later than sixty (60) days after the filing of the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.43" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.43   Response.</HEAD>
<P>Any party may file a response with the Board containing a concise statement of the facts or law or any other relevant information in opposition to or in support of the application which that party believes should be considered by the Board. Such response must be filed by a party within twenty (20) days after being served a copy of the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.44" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.44   Hearing and decision.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with section 153d of the Act, the Board shall hold a hearing and issue a final decision on the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.45" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.45   Criteria for decision to issue a license.</HEAD>
<P>A license shall issue to the applicant to use the invention covered by the patent for the purposes stated in the application upon a final decision that:
</P>
<P>(a) The invention or discovery covered by the patent is of primary importance in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy;
</P>
<P>(b) The licensing of such invention or discovery is of primary importance to the conduct of the activities of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(c) The activities to which the patent license is proposed to be applied by such applicant are of primary importance to the furtherance of policies and purposes of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(d) The applicant has made efforts to obtain reasonable commercial terms and conditions and such efforts have not been successful within a reasonable period of time. The requirement to make such efforts may be waived by the Board in the case of a national emergency or other circumstances of extreme urgency or in cases of public non-commercial use. Where this requirement is waived due to national emergency or other circumstances of extreme urgency, the owner of the patent shall be notified as soon as reasonably practicable. Where this requirement is waived for a public non-commercial use, the owner of the patent shall be notified promptly. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 39581, Aug. 4, 1981, as amended at 58 FR 68734, Dec. 29, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.46" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.46   Communication of decision to General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>When the Board decides to issue a patent license under section 153c of the Act, the Board shall send the decision to the General Counsel and instruct the General Counsel to issue the license on terms deemed equitable by the Department and generally not less fair than those granted by the patentee or by the Department to similar licensees for comparable use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.47" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.4.12.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.47   Conditions and issuance of license.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the Board's decision and instruction to issue a patent license, the General Counsel shall issue a license which complies with the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The scope and durations of such use shall be limited to the purpose for which it was authorized; 
</P>
<P>(2) Such use shall be non-exclusive; 
</P>
<P>(3) Such use shall be non-assignable, except with that part of the enterprise or goodwill that enjoys such use; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any such use shall be authorized predominantly for the supply of the U.S. market; and, 
</P>
<P>(5) Authorization for such use shall be liable, subject to adequate protection of the legitimate interests of the persons so authorized, to be terminated if and when the circumstances that led to it cease to exist and are unlikely to recur. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall have the authority to review, on motivated request, the continued existence of these circumstances. The parties will propose and agree on a reasonable royalty fee within a reasonable time as determined by the General Counsel. A reasonable royalty shall provide adequate remuneration for the circumstances of each case, taking into account the economic value of the authorization. If a party does not agree with the terms and conditions of the license as determined by the General Counsel or if a royalty fee cannot be agreed upon within the reasonable time period established by the General Counsel, any party may, within 30 days after the expiration of such time period, initiate a proceeding before the Board, in accordance with subpart E of this part, for a reconsideration of the General Counsel's determination. After the proceeding under subpart E of this part is completed, the General Counsel shall modify the patent license in accordance with the Board's determination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 39581, Aug. 4, 1981, as amended at 58 FR 68734, Dec. 29, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Application for Royalties and Awards Under Section 157 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 and Compensation Under Section 173 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 and the Invention Secrecy Act (35 U.S.C. 183)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.50" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.5.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.50   Applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any owner or licensee of a patent licensed under section 158 or subsections b or e of section 153 of the Act may file an application with the Board for the determination of a reasonable royalty fee.
</P>
<P>(b) Any owner or licensee of a patent licensed under subsections b or e of section 153 of the Act may file an application with the Board for the modification of any terms and conditions of the license.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who has made an invention or discovery useful in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy, has complied with the provisions of section 151c, but, under the Act, is not entitled to a royalty for such invention or discovery, may file an application for an award.
</P>
<P>(d) Any owner of a patent application that contains restricted data not belonging to the United States which the Department has communicated to any foreign nation may make application for just compensation pursuant to section 173 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) Any patent applicant, whose patent is withheld because of a secrecy order issued at the request of the Department may, beginning at the date the patent applicant is notified that, except for such order, the application is otherwise in condition for allowance, apply for compensation for the damage caused by the secrecy order and/or for the use of the invention by the Government, resulting from any disclosure to the Department required by the Invention Secrecy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.51" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.5.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.51   Form and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each application shall contain a statement of the applicant's interest in the patent, patent application, invention or discovery and identify any other claimants of whom the applicant has knowledge.
</P>
<P>(b) Each application must contain a concise statement of all of the essential facts upon which it is based. No particular form of statement is required, but it will facilitate consideration of the application if the following specific data accompany the application:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an issued patent, a copy of the patent.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a patent application, a copy of the application and of all Patent and Trademark Office actions and responses thereto.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an invention or discovery as to which a report has been filed with the Department pursuant to subsection c of section 151 of the Act, a copy of such report.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of an award, the date relied upon as the date of invention.
</P>
<P>(5) In all cases, a statement of the extent to which the invention or discovery was developed through federally financed research or with other Federal support.
</P>
<P>(6) In all cases, the degree of the utility, novelty, and importance of the invention or discovery.
</P>
<P>(7) In all cases, a statement of the actual use by the Federal Government or others of such invention or discovery, to the extent known to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(8) In all cases, the cost of developing the invention or discovery and acquiring the patent or patent application.
</P>
<P>(9) The royalty fee proposed, the proposed terms and conditions of a license agreement, or the amount sought as compensation or award, as well as the basis used in calculating such fee, compensation or award and whether a lump sum or periodic payments are sought.
</P>
<P>(10) In an application for just compensation pursuant to section 173 of the Act, the ownership of the invention that is the subject matter of the patent application at the time the Department communicated the restricted data shall be set forth, and any restricted data contained in the application shall be specifically identified.
</P>
<P>(11) In an application for compensation under the authority provided in the Invention Secrecy Act (35 U.S.C. 183), for the damage caused by imposition of a secrecy order on a patent application and/or for the use of the invention by the Government, the date of the secrecy order, the date of the notice that the patent application is in condition for allowance, and, if known to the applicant, the date of the first use of the invention by the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.52" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.5.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.52   Notice and hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall, in its discretion, afford the applicable party an opportunity for a hearing for the presentation of relevant evidence. Thirty (30) days notice shall be given of the time and place of such hearing. After expiration of the notice period, the Board shall proceed with a hearing and render its decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 780.53" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.18.5.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 780.53   Criteria for decisions for royalties, awards and compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In deciding a reasonable royalty fee for a patent licensed under section 158 or sections 153b or 153e of the Act, the Board shall consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The economic value of the compulsory license and the Board shall strive to provide adequate remuneration for the circumstances of each case. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any defense, general or special, that a defendant could plead in an action for infringement;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which such patent was developed through federally financed research or with other Federal support;
</P>
<P>(4) The degree of utility, novelty, and importance of the invention or discovery; and
</P>
<P>(5) The cost to the owner of the patent of developing such invention or discovery or of acquiring such patent.
</P>
<P>(b) In deciding whether or not to grant an award, under section 157 of the Act, for the making of an invention or discovery useful in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy, the Board shall take into account the considerations set forth in § 780.53(a) of this part and the actual use of such invention or discovery.
</P>
<P>(c) In deciding whether or not to provide compensation, pursuant to section 173 of the Act, to a person who owns a patent application that contains restricted data not belonging to the United States which the Department has communicated to a foreign nation, the Board shall take into account the considerations set forth in § 780.53(b) of this part and the damage to the applicant resulting from such communication.
</P>
<P>(d) In the course of its review of an application to provide compensation, pursuant to 35 U.S.C. 183, to an applicant whose patent was withheld because of a secrecy order issued at the request of the Department, the Board shall take into account the considerations set forth in § 780.53(b) of this part and:
</P>
<P>(1) The damage sustained by the applicant as a result of the secrecy order; and
</P>
<P>(2) The use of the invention by the Government resulting from the disclosure of such invention to the Department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 39581, Aug. 4, 1981, as amended at 58 FR 68735, Dec. 29, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="781" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 781—DOE PATENT LICENSING REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2186, 42 U.S.C. 2201(g), and 35 U.S.C. 207-209.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 73447, Nov. 4, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.12" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations of this part supplement the U.S. Department of Commerce regulations, entitled LICENSING OF GOVERNMENT OWNED INVENTIONS, at 37 CFR Part 404.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4889, Feb. 1, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.2   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of this regulation to use the patent system to promote the utilization of inventions arising from Department of Energy supported research and development.
</P>
<P>(b) Decisions as to grants or denials of any license application will, in the discretion of the Secretary of Energy, be based on the Department of Energy's view of what is in the best interests of the United States and the general public under the provisions of these regulations. Decisions of the Department of Energy under these regulations may be made on the Secretary of Energy's behalf by the Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property, except where otherwise delegated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4889, Feb. 1, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>All communications concerning the regulations in this part, including applications for licenses, should be addressed or delivered to the General Counsel, Attention: Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4889, Feb. 1, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.13" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Types of Licenses and Conditions for Licensing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 781.51-781.52" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 781.51-781.52   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.53" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.53   Additional licenses.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to any outstanding licenses, nothing in this part shall preclude the Department of Energy from granting additional nonexclusive, or exclusive, or partially exclusive licenses for inventions covered by this part when the Department of Energy determines that to do so would provide for an equitable exchange of patent rights. The following circumstances are examples in which such licenses may be granted:
</P>
<P>(a) In consideration of the settlement of interferences or other administrative proceedings before the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office;
</P>
<P>(b) In consideration of a release of any claims;
</P>
<P>(c) In exchange for or as a part of the consideration for a license under adversely held patents;
</P>
<P>(d) As necessary for meeting obligations of the U.S. under any treaty, international agreement arrangement or cooperation, memorandum of understanding or similar arrangement; or
</P>
<P>(e) In consideration for the settlement or resolution of any proceeding under the Department of Energy Organization Act or other law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4889, Feb. 1, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 781.61-781.64" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.14.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 781.61-781.64   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.65" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.14.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.65   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Standing. The following parties have the right to appeal under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Pursuant to 37 CFR 404.11:
</P>
<P>(i) A person whose application for a license has been denied;
</P>
<P>(ii) A licensee whose license has been modified or terminated, in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(iii) A person who timely filed a written objection in response to the notice required by 37 CFR 404.7(a)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(i) and who can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Federal agency that such person may be damaged by the agency action; or
</P>
<P>(2) A management and operating contractor appealing an agency decision to grant a copyright license to a third party pursuant to the Rights in Data-Technology Transfer clause for DOE management and operating contracts per 48 CFR part 970.
</P>
<P>(b) Notice of Appeal. Appeal under paragraph (a) of this section shall be initiated by filing a Notice of Appeal with the Secretary, ATTN: Deputy General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Procurement (“Deputy General Counsel”), within thirty (30) days from the date of receipt of a written notice by the Department of Energy of an action set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. The Notice of Appeal shall specify the portion of the decision from which the appeal is taken. A statement of fact and argument in the form of a brief in support of the appeal shall be submitted with the Notice of Appeal or within thirty (30) days thereafter.
</P>
<P>(c) Procedure. Appeals under this section shall be conducted pursuant to rules of procedure provided by the Deputy General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) Within sixty (60) days of receiving appellant's brief pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section or such other time period set by the Deputy General Counsel, the Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property shall submit to the Deputy General Counsel a response brief and shall timely serve a copy of the response brief to appellant.
</P>
<P>(e) The Deputy General Counsel shall consider the facts and arguments submitted in appellant's brief submitted under paragraph (b) of this section, as well as those presented by the Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property. An appeal by a licensee under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may include a hearing, upon request of the licensee, to address a dispute over any relevant fact. Such request for a hearing must be received by the Deputy General Counsel within thirty (30) days of appellant's receipt of the response brief.
</P>
<P>(f) The Deputy General Counsel shall issue a written decision, which shall constitute the final action of the Department on the matter.
</P>
<P>(g) The parties may agree to Alternate Dispute Resolution in lieu of an appeal.
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals Arising Under National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) Management and Operating Contracts. For appeals pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section arising under management and operating contracts administered by NNSA for NNSA facilities, the NNSA Deputy General Counsel for Procurement shall be designated as the appeal authority (Deputy General Counsel) pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 4890, Feb. 1, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.66" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.14.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.66   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Special Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.71" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.15.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.71   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 781.81" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.19.0.15.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 781.81   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="782" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 782—CLAIMS FOR PATENT AND COPYRIGHT INFRINGEMENT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Dept. of Energy Organization Act; sec. 651, 91 Stat. 601, 42 U.S.C. 7261; Atomic Energy Act of 1954; sec. 107(d), 88 Stat. 1241, 42 U.S.C. 5817(d); sec. 161(g), 80 Stat. 443, 42 U.S.C. 2201(g); sec. 172, 62 Stat. 933, 42 U.S.C. 2223; Foreign Assistance Act of 1961, sec. 2356, 75 Stat. 440, 22 U.S.C. 2356; Patents, Invention Secrecy Act; sec. 183, 66 Stat. 4, 35 U.S.C. 183; Judiciary and Judical Procedure Act, sec. 1498, 62 Stat. 601, 28 U.S.C. 1498. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 26950, Apr. 22, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this regulation is to set forth policies and procedures for the filing and disposition of claims asserted against the Department of Energy of infringement of privately owned rights in patented inventions or copyrighted works. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.2   Objectives.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a claim of infringement of privately owned rights in patented inventions or copyrighted works is asserted against the Department of Energy, all necessary steps shall be taken to investigate and to settle administratively, to deny, or otherwise to dispose of such claim prior to suit against the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.3   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel or the General Counsel's delegate is authorized to investigate, settle, deny, or otherwise dispose of all claims of patent and copyright infringement pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2201(g), 2223, 5817(d) and 7261; the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961, 22 U.S.C. 2356 (formerly the Mutual Security Acts of 1951 and 1954); the Invention Secrecy Act, 35 U.S.C. 183; and 28 U.S.C. 1498. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.5   Contents of communication initiating claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for claim.</I> A patent or copyright infringement claim for compensation, asserted against the United States as represented by the Department of Energy under any of the applicable statutes cited in § 782.3, must be actually communicated to and received by an agency, organization, office, or field establishment within the Department of Energy. Claims must be in writing and must include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) An allegation of infringement; 
</P>
<P>(2) A request, either expressed or implied, for compensation; 
</P>
<P>(3) A citation of the patents or copyrighted items alleged to be infringed; 
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a patent infringement claim, a sufficiently specific designation to permit identification of the items or processes alleged to infringe the patents, giving the commercial designation if known to the claimant, or, in the case of a copyright infringement claim, the acts alleged to infringe the copyright; 
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a patent infringement claim, a designation of at least one claim of each patent alleged to be infringed or, in the case of a copyright infringement claim, a copy of each work alleged to be infringed; 
</P>
<P>(6) As an alternative to paragraphs (a) (4) and (5) of this section, certification that the claimant has made a bona fide attempt to determine the items or processes which are alleged to infringe the patents, or the acts alleged to infringe the copyrights, but was unable to do so, giving reasons, and stating a reasonable basis for the claimant's belief that the patents or copyrighted items are being infringed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information for patent infringement claims.</I> In addition to the information listed in paragraph (a) of this section the following material and information generally is necessary in the course of processing a claim of patent infringement. Claimants are encouraged to furnish this information at the time of filing a claim to permit rapid processing and resolution of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the asserted patents and identification of all claims of the patents alleged to be infringed. 
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of all procurements known to claimant that involve the accused items or processes, including the identity of the vendors or contractors and the Government acquisition activity or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed identification and description of the accused articles or processes, particularly where the articles or processes relate to components or subcomponents of the item acquired, and an element-by-element comparison of representative claims with the accused articles or processes. If available, the identification and description should include documentation and drawings to illustrate the accused articles or processes in sufficient detail to enable verification that the claims of the asserted patents read on the accused articles or processes.
</P>
<P>(4) Names and addresses of all past and present licensees under the patents and copies of all license agreements and releases involving the patents.
</P>
<P>(5) A brief description of all litigation in which the patents have been or are now involved, and their present status.
</P>
<P>(6) A list of all persons to whom notices of infringement have been sent, including all departments and agencies of the Government, and a statement of the status or ultimate disposition of each.
</P>
<P>(7) A description of Government employment or military service, if any, by the inventors or patent owner.
</P>
<P>(8) A list of all contracts between the Government and inventors, patent owner, or anyone in privity with them that were in effect at the time of conception or actual reduction to practice of the inventions covered by the patents.
</P>
<P>(9) Evidence of title to the asserted patents or other right to make the claim.
</P>
<P>(10) If it is available to claimant, a copy of the Patent Office file of each patent.
</P>
<P>(11) Pertinent prior art of which the claimant has become aware after issuance of the asserted patents.
</P>
<P>In addition to the foregoing, if claimant can provide a statement that the investigation may be limited to the specifically identified accused articles or processes, or to a specific acquisition (e.g. identified contracts), it may speed disposition of the claim.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial for refusal to provide information.</I> In the course of investigating a claim, it may become necessary for the Department of Energy to request information in the control and custody of claimant that is relevant to the disposition of the claim. Failure of the claimant to respond to a request for such information may be sufficient reason alone for denying a claim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.6   Processing of administrative claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing and forwarding of claims.</I> All communications regarding claims should be addressed to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>General Counsel, ATTN: Assistant General Counsel for Patents, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Department of Energy, Washington, DC 20545.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>If any communication relating to a claim or possible claim of patent or copyright infringement is received by an agency, organization, office, or field establishment within the Department of Energy, it should be forwarded to the Assistant General Counsel for Patents.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Disposition and notification.</I> The General Counsel shall investigate and administratively settle, deny, or otherwise dispose of each claim by denial or settlement. When a claim is denied, the Department shall so notify the claimant or his authorized representative and provide the claimant with the reasons for denying the claim. Disclosure of information shall be subject to applicable statutes, regulations, and directives pertaining to security, access to official records, and the rights of others.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.7   Incomplete notice of infringement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a communication alleging patent or copyright infringement is received that does not meet the requirements set forth above in § 782.5, the sender shall be advised in writing by the General Counsel:
</P>
<P>(1) That the claim for infringement has not been satisfactorily presented; and
</P>
<P>(2) Of the elements considered necessary to establish a claim.
</P>
<P>(b) A communication, such as a mere offer of a license, in which an infringement is not alleged in accordance with § 782.5(a) of this part shall not be considered a claim for infringement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 782.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.20.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 782.8   Indirect notice of infringement.</HEAD>
<P>If a patent or copyright owner communicates an allegation of infringement in the performance of a Government contract, grant, or other arrangement to addressees other than those specified in § 782.5(a), such as Department of Energy contractors including contractors operating government-owned facilities, the communication shall not be considered a claim within the meaning of § 782.5 until it meets the requirements of that section. 






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="783" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 783—WAIVER OF PATENT RIGHTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 152, 161, 68 Stat. 944, 948, as amended; (42 U.S.C. 2182, 2201). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 56784, Dec. 30, 1976, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 783.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.21.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.1   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Energy, hereinafter “DOE”, waives its rights under section 152 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (66 Stat. 944) with respect to inventions and discoveries resulting from the use of the following materials and services: 
</P>
<P>(a) Source materials, special nuclear materials, and heavy water distributed by DOE in accordance with the “Schedules of Base Charges for Materials Sold of Leased by DOE for Use in Private Atomic Energy Development and Base Prices Which DOE Will Pay for Certain Products From Private Reactors.” 
</P>
<P>(b) Radioactive and stable isotopes, irradiation services (this waiver does not include inventions or discoveries made by DOE or DOE contractor personnel in the course of or in connection with the performance of an irradiation service), and radioactive material resulting from the performance of an irradiation service sold or distributed by DOE in accordance with the prices and charges established by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Oak Ridge National Laboratory Inventory and Price List of electromagnetically enriched and other stable isotopes. 
</P>
<P>(2) Oak Ridge National Laboratory Catalog and Price List of radioisotopes, special materials, and services. 
</P>
<P>(3) Idaho National Engineering Laboratory Catalog of Price and charges on irradiation services at the materials testing reactor. The waiver does include inventions or discoveries made by sponsor personnel in the course of their use of the Gamma Irradiation Facility at the Idaho National Engineering Laboratory. 
</P>
<P>(4) Argonne National Laboratory schedule of charges for irradiation services at its irradiation facilities. 
</P>
<P>(5) Brookhaven National Laboratory schedule of prices and charges for irradiation services and radioisotopes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 783.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.21.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 783.2   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except with regard to the use of the Gamma facility at the Idaho National Engineering Laboratory, nothing contained in this part shall be deemed to waive any rights in inventions or discoveries where a person or a group of persons acting on behalf of the person requesting the irradiation service works at the DOE facility in connection with the irradiation service. In such event, special arrangements are made. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing contained in this part shall be construed to affect the provisions of any written agreement to which DOE has or may become a party. 








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="784" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 784—PATENT WAIVER REGULATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7151; 42 U.S.C. 5908; 42 U.S.C. 2182; 35 U.S.C. 202 and 210; 42 U.S.C. 7261a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 36614, July 12, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 784.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.1   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part states the policy and establishes the procedures, terms and conditions governing waiver of the Government's rights in inventions made under contracts, grants, agreements, understandings or other arrangements with the Department of Energy (DOE). 
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to all inventions conceived or first actually reduced to practice in the course of or under any contract, grant, agreement, understanding, or other arrangement with or for the benefit of DOE (including any subcontract, subgrant, or subagreement), the patent rights disposition of which is governed by section 152 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, 42 U.S.C. 2182, or section 9 of the Federal Nonnuclear Energy Research and Development Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. 5908. In funding agreements with nonprofit organizations or small business firms, when title or other rights are reserved to the Government under the authority of 35 U.S.C. 202(a), this part will apply to any waiver of such rights. The patent waiver provisions in this part supersede the patent waiver regulations previously included with patent regulations at 41 CFR part 9-9.100. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> means procurement contracts, grants, agreements, understandings and other arrangements (including Cooperative Research and Development Agreements [CRADAs], Work for Others and User Facility agreements, which includes research, development, or demonstration work, and includes any assignment or substitution of the parties, entered into, with, or for the benefit of DOE. 
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means entities performing under contracts as defined above. 
</P>
<P><I>Patent Counsel</I> means the DOE Patent Counsel assisting the contracting activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 6 of Public Law 96-517 (the Bayh-Dole patent and trademark amendments of 1980), as amended, as codified at 35 U.S.C. 200—212, provides that title to inventions conceived or first actually reduced to practice in the course of or under any contract, grant, agreement, understanding, or other arrangement entered into with or for the benefit of the Department of Energy (DOE) vests in the United States, except where 35 U.S.C. 202 provides otherwise for nonprofit organizations or small business firms. However, where title to such inventions vests in the United States, the Secretary of Energy (hereinafter Secretary) or designee may waive all or any part of the rights of the United States, subject to required terms and conditions, with respect to any invention or class of inventions made or which may be made by any person or class of persons in the course of or under any contract of DOE if it is determined that the interests of the United States and the general public will best be served by such waiver. In making such determinations, the Secretary or designee shall have the following objectives: 
</P>
<P>(1) Making the benefits of the energy research, development, and demonstration program widely available to the public in the shortest practicable time; 
</P>
<P>(2) Promoting the commercial utilization of such inventions; 
</P>
<P>(3) Encouraging participation by private persons in DOE's energy research, development, and demonstration programs; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Fostering competition and preventing undue market concentration or the creation or maintenance of other situations inconsistent with the antitrust laws. 
</P>
<P>(b) If it is not possible to attain the objectives in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) immediately and simultaneously for any specific waiver determination, the Secretary or designee will seek to reconcile these objectives in light of the overall purposes of the DOE patent waiver policy, as set forth in section 152 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, 42 U.S.C. 2182, section 9 of the Federal Nonnuclear Energy Research and Development Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. 5908, Public Law 99-661, 42 U.S.C. 7261a, and, where not inconsistent therewith, the Presidential Memorandum to the Heads of Executive Departments and Agencies on Government Patent Policy issued February 18, 1983 and Executive Order No. 12591 issued April 10, 1987. 
</P>
<P>(c) The policy set forth in this section is applicable to all types of contracts as defined in § 784.2 of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.4   Advance waiver.</HEAD>
<P>This section covers inventions that may be conceived or first actually reduced to practice in the course of or under a particular contract. In determining whether an advance waiver will best serve the interests of the United States and the general public, the Secretary or designee (currently the Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property) shall, at a minimum, specifically include as considerations the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) The extent to which the participation of the contractor will expedite the attainment of the purposes of the program; 
</P>
<P>(b) The extent to which a waiver of all or any part of such rights in any or all fields of technology is needed to secure the participation of the particular contractor; 
</P>
<P>(c) The extent to which the work to be performed under the contract is useful in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy; 
</P>
<P>(d) The extent to which the contractor's commercial position may expedite utilization of the research, development, and demonstration results; 
</P>
<P>(e) The extent to which the Government has contributed to the field of technology to be funded under the contract; 
</P>
<P>(f) The purpose and nature of the contract, including the intended use of the results developed thereunder; 
</P>
<P>(g) The extent to which the contractor has made or will make substantial investment of financial resources or technology developed at the contractor's private expense which will directly benefit the work to be performed under the contract; 
</P>
<P>(h) The extent to which the field of technology to be funded under the contract has been developed at the contractor's private expense; 
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which the Government intends to further develop to the point of commercial utilization the results of the contract effort; 
</P>
<P>(j) The extent to which the contract objectives are concerned with the public health, public safety, or public welfare; 
</P>
<P>(k) The likely effect of the waiver on competition and market concentration; 
</P>
<P>(l) In the case of a domestic nonprofit educational institution under an agreement not governed by Chapter 18 of Title 35, United States Code, the extent to which such institution has a technology transfer capability and program approved by the Secretary or designee as being consistent with the applicable policies of this section; 
</P>
<P>(m) The small business status of the contractor under an agreement not governed by Chapter 18 of Title 35, United States Code, and 
</P>
<P>(n) Such other considerations, such as benefit to the U.S. economy, that the Secretary or designee may deem appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.5   Waiver of identified inventions.</HEAD>
<P>This section covers the relinquishing by the Government to the contractor or inventor of title rights in a particular identified subject invention. In determining whether such a waiver of an identified invention will best serve the interests of the United States and the general public, the Secretary or designee shall, at a minimum, specifically include as considerations the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) The extent to which such waiver is a reasonable and necessary incentive to call forth private risk capital for the development and commercialization of the invention; 
</P>
<P>(b) The extent to which the plans, intentions, and ability of the contractor or inventor will obtain expeditious commercialization of such invention; 
</P>
<P>(c) The extent to which the invention is useful in the production or utilization of special nuclear material or atomic energy; 
</P>
<P>(d) The extent to which the Government has contributed to the field of technology of the invention; 
</P>
<P>(e) The purpose and nature of the invention, including the anticipated use thereof; 
</P>
<P>(f) The extent to which the contractor has made or will make substantial investment of financial resources or technology developed at the contractor's private expense which will directly benefit the commercialization of the invention; 
</P>
<P>(g) The extent to which the field of technology of the invention has been developed at the contractor's expense; 
</P>
<P>(h) The extent to which the Government intends to further develop the invention to the point of commercial utilization; 
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which the invention is concerned with the public health, public safety, or public welfare; 
</P>
<P>(j) The likely effect of the waiver on competition and market concentration; 
</P>
<P>(k) In the case of a domestic nonprofit educational institution under an agreement not governed by Chapter 18, Title 35, United States Code, the extent to which such institution has a technology transfer capability and program approved by the Secretary or designee as being consistent with the applicable policies of this section; 
</P>
<P>(l) The small business status of the contractor, under an agreement not governed by Chapter 18 of Title 35, United States Code; and, 
</P>
<P>(m) Such other considerations, such as benefit to the U.S. economy that the Secretary or designee may deem appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.6   National security considerations for waiver of certain sensitive inventions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever, in the course of or under any Government contract or subcontract of the Naval Nuclear Propulsion Program or the nuclear weapons programs or other atomic energy defense activities of the Department of Energy, a contractor makes an invention or discovery to which title vests in the Department of Energy pursuant to statute, the contractor may request waiver of any or all of the Government's property rights. The Secretary of Energy or designee may decide to waive the Government's rights. 
</P>
<P>(b) In making a decision under this section, the Secretary or designee shall consider, in addition to the objectives of DOE waiver policy as specified in § 784.3(a)(1) through (4), and the considerations specified in § 784.4 for advance waivers, and § 784.5 for waiver of identified inventions, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether national security will be compromised; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether sensitive technical information (whether classified or unclassified) under the Naval Nuclear Propulsion Program or the nuclear weapons programs or other atomic energy defense activities of the Department of Energy for which dissemination is controlled under Federal statutes and regulations will be released to unauthorized persons; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether an organizational conflict of interest contemplated by Federal statutes and regulations will result, and 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether waiving such rights will adversely affect the operation of the Naval Nuclear Propulsion Program or the nuclear weapons programs or other atomic energy defense activities of the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(c) A decision under this § 784.6 shall be made within 150 days after the date on which a complete request for waiver, as described by paragraph (d) of this section, has been submitted to the Patent Counsel by the contractor. 
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to the requirements for content which apply generally to all waiver requests under paragraph (a) of this section, a requestor must include a full and detailed statement of facts, to the extent known by or available to the requestor, directed to the considerations set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section, as applicable. To be considered complete, a waiver request must contain sufficient information, in addition to the content requirements under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, to allow the Secretary or designee to make a decision under this section. For advance waiver requests, such information shall include, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) An identification of all of the requestor's contractual arrangements involving the Government (including contracts, subcontracts, grants, or other arrangements) in which the technology involved in the contract was developed or used and any other funding of the technology by the Government, whether direct or indirect, involving any other party, of which the requestor is aware; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the requestor's past, current, and future private investment in and development of the technology which is the subject of the contract. This includes expenditures not reimbursed by the Government on research and development which will directly benefit the work to be performed under the instant contract, the amount and percentage of contract costs to be shared by the requestor, the out-of-pocket costs of facilities or equipment to be made available by the requestor for performance of the contract work which are not charged directly or indirectly to the Government under contract, and the contractor's plans and intentions to further develop and commercialize the technology at private expense; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of competitive technologies or other factors which would ameliorate any anticompetitive effect of granting the waiver. 
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of whether the contract pertains to work that is classified, or sensitive, i.e., unclassified but controlled pursuant to section 148 of the Atomic Energy Action of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2168), or subject to export control under Chapter 17 of the Military Critical Technology List (MCTL) contained in Department of Defense Directive 5230.25 including identification of all principal uses of the subject matter of the contract, whether inside or outside the contractor program, and an indication of whether any such uses involve classified or sensitive technologies. 
</P>
<P>(5) Identification of all DOE and DOD programs and projects in the same general technology as the contract for which the requestor intends to be providing program planning advice or has provided program planning advice within the last three years. 
</P>
<P>(e) For identified invention requests under this section, such requests shall include at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) A brief description of the intentions of the requestor (or its present or intended licensee) to commercialize the invention. This description should include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Estimated expenditures, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Anticipated steps, 
</P>
<P>(iii) The associated time periods to bring the invention to commercialization, and 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that requestor (or its present or intended licensee) has the capability to carry out its stated intentions. 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any continuing Government funding of the development of the invention (including investigation of materials or processes for use therewith), from whatever Government source, whether direct or indirect, and, to the extent known by the requestor, any anticipated future Government funding to further develop the invention. 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of competitive technologies or other factors which would ameliorate any anticompetitive effects of granting the waiver. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement as to whether or not the requestor would be willing to reimburse the Department of Energy for any and all costs and fees incurred by the Department in the preparation and prosecution of the patent applications covering the invention that is the subject of the waiver request. 
</P>
<P>(5) Where applicable, a statement of reasons why the request was not timely filed in accordance with the applicable patent rights clause of the contract, or why a request for an extension of time to file the request was not filed in a timely manner. 
</P>
<P>(6) Identification of whether the invention pertains to work that is classified, or sensitive, i.e., unclassified but controlled pursuant to section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2168), or subject to export control under Chapter 17 of the Military Critical Technology List (MCTL) contained in Department of Defense Directive 5230.25, including identification of all principal uses of the invention inside or outside the contractor program, and an indication of whether any such uses involve classified or sensitive technologies. 
</P>
<P>(7) Identification of all DOE and DOD programs and projects in the same general technology as the invention for which the requestor intends to be providing program planning advice or has provided program planning advice within the last three years. 
</P>
<P>(8) A statement of whether a classification review of the invention disclosure, any resulting patent application(s), and/or any reports and other documents disclosing a substantial portion of the invention, has been made, together with any determinations on the existence of classified or sensitive information in either the invention disclosure, the patent application(s), or reports or other documents disclosing a substantial portion of the invention; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Identification of any and all proposals, work for other activities, or other arrangements submitted by the requestor, DOE, or a third party, of which requestor is aware, which may involve further funding of the work on the invention at either the contractor facility where the invention arose or another facility owned by the Government. 
</P>
<P>(f) Patent Counsel will notify the requestor promptly if the waiver request is found not to be a complete request and, in that event, will provide the requestor with a reasonable period, not to exceed 60 days, to correct any such incompleteness. If requestor does not respond within the allotted time period, the waiver request will be considered to be withdrawn. If requestor responds within the allotted time period, but the submittal is still deemed incomplete or insufficient, the waiver request may be denied. 
</P>
<P>(g) As set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, waiver decisions shall be made within 150 days after the date on which a complete request for waiver of such rights, as specified in this section, has been submitted by the requestor to the DOE Patent Counsel. If the original waiver request does not result in a communication from DOE Patent Counsel indicating that the request is incomplete, the 150-day period for decision commences on the date of receipt of the waiver request. If the original waiver request results in a communication from DOE Patent Counsel indicating that the request is incomplete, the 150-day period for decision commences on the date on which supplementary information is received by Patent Counsel sufficient to make the waiver request complete. For advance waiver requests, if requestor is not notified that the request is incomplete, the 150-day period for decision commences on the date of receipt of the request, or on the date on which negotiation of contract terms is completed, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(h) Failure of DOE to make a patent waiver decision within the prescribed 150-day period shall in no way be construed as a grant of the waiver. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.7   Class waiver.</HEAD>
<P>This section covers relinquishing of patent title rights by the Government to a class of persons or to a class of inventions. The authorization for class waivers is to be found at 42 U.S.C. 5908(c). Class waivers may be appropriate in situations where all members of a particular class would likely qualify for an advance or identified invention waiver. Normally, class waivers are originated by the Department. However, any person with a direct and substantial interest in a DOE program may request a class waiver by forwarding a written request therefor to the Patent Counsel. While no particular format for requesting a class waiver is prescribed, any request for a class waiver and any resulting determination by the Secretary or designee must address the pertinent objectives and considerations set forth in §§ 784.3(a), 784.4, 784.5, and 784.6. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.8   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All requests for waivers shall be in writing. Each request for a waiver other than a class waiver shall include the information set forth in § 784.9. Such requests may be submitted by existing or prospective contractors in the case of requests for an advance waiver and by contractors, including successor contractors at a facility, or employee-inventors in the case of requests for waiver of identified inventions. 
</P>
<P>(b) A request for an advance waiver should be submitted to the Contracting Officer (subcontractors may submit through their prime contractors) at any time prior to execution of the contract or subcontract, or within thirty days thereafter, or within such longer period as may be authorized by Patent Counsel for good cause shown in writing. If the purpose, scope, or cost of the contract is substantially altered by modification or extension after the waiver is granted, a new waiver request will be required. When advance waivers are granted, the provisions of the “Patent Rights—Waiver” clause set forth in § 784.12 shall be used in contracts which are the subject of the waivers, unless modified with the approval of the Patent Counsel to conform to the scope of the waiver granted. (See § 784.12.) Advance waivers may be requested for all inventions which may be conceived or first actually reduced to practice under a DOE contract. An advance waiver may also be requested for an identified invention conceived by the contractor before the contract but which may be first actually reduced to practice under the contract. Such waiver request must include a copy of any patent or patent application covering the identified invention, or if no patent application has been filed, a complete description of the invention. 
</P>
<P>(c) A request for waiver (other than an advance or class waiver) for an identified invention must be submitted to the Patent Counsel at the time the invention is to be reported to DOE or not later than eight months after conception and/or first actual reduction to practice, whichever occurs first in the course of or under the contract, or such longer period as may be authorized by Patent Counsel for good cause shown in writing by the requestor. The time for submitting a waiver request will not normally be extended past the time the invention has been advertised for licensing by DOE. If the Government has already filed a patent application on the invention, the requestor should indicate whether or not it is willing to reimburse the Government for the costs of searching, prosecution, filing and maintenance fees, in the event the waiver is granted. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the request for waiver contains insufficient information, the Patent Counsel may seek additional information from the requestor and from other sources. The Patent Counsel will thoroughly analyze the request in view of each of the objectives and considerations and shall also consider the overall rights obtained by the Government in the patent, copyright, and data clauses of the contract. Where it appears that a waiver of a lesser part of the rights of the United States than requested would be more appropriate in view of the policies set forth, the Patent Counsel should attempt to negotiate a compromise acceptable to both the requestor and DOE. If approval of a waiver is recommended, Patent Counsel shall obtain an indication of agreement by the requestor to the proposed waiver scope, terms and conditions. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Patent Counsel will prepare a Statement of Considerations setting forth the rationale for either approving or denying the waiver request and will forward the Statement to the General Counsel or designee for review thereof. While the Statement need not provide specific findings as to each and every consideration of § 784.4 or § 784.5 of this part, it will cover those that are decisive, and it will explain the basis for the recommended determination. There may be occasions when the application of the various individual considerations of § 784.4 or § 784.5 of this part to a particular case could conflict, and in those instances the conflict will be reconciled giving due regard to the overall policies set forth in 784.3(a) (1) through (4). 
</P>
<P>(f) The Patent Counsel will also obtain comments from the appropriate DOE program organization to assist the Patent Counsel in the waiver determination. Additionally, if any other Federal Government entity has provided funding or will be providing funding, or if a subject invention has been made in whole or in part by an employee of that entity, Patent Counsel shall obtain permission to waive title to the undivided interest in the invention from the cognizant official of that entity. In situations where time does not permit a delay in contract negotiations for the preparation and mailing of a full written statement, field Patent Counsel may submit a recommendation on the waiver orally to the Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property, who upon verbal consultation with the appropriate DOE program organization, shall provide a verbal decision to field Patent Counsel. All oral actions shall be promptly confirmed in writing. In approving waiver determinations, the Secretary or designee shall objectively review all requests for waiver in view of the objectives and considerations set forth in §§ 784.3 through 784.6. If the determination and the rationale therefor is not accurately reflected in the Statement of Considerations which has been submitted for approval, a new Statement of Considerations shall be prepared. 
</P>
<P>(g) In the event that a request for advance waiver is approved after the effective date of the contract, the Patent Counsel shall promptly notify the requestor by letter of the determination and the basis therefor. The letter shall state the scope, terms and conditions of such waiver. If the terms and conditions of an approved advance waiver were not incorporated in the contract when executed, the letter shall inform the requestor that the advance waiver shall be effective as of the effective date of the contract for an advance waiver of inventions identified, i.e., conceived prior to the effective date of the contract, or as of the date the invention is reported with an election by the contractor to retain rights therein, i.e., for an invention conceived or first actually reduced to practice after the effective date of the contract; provided a copy of the letter is signed and returned to the Contracting Officer by the requestor acknowledging the acceptance of the scope, terms and conditions of the advance waiver. After acceptance by the contractor of an advance waiver, the Contracting Officer shall cause a unilateral no-cost modification to be made to the contract incorporating the terms and conditions of the waiver in lieu of previous patent rights provisions. 
</P>
<P>(h) In the event that a waiver request is denied, the requestor may, within thirty days after notification of the denial, request reconsideration. Such a request shall include any additional facts and rationale not previously submitted which support the request. Request for reconsideration shall be submitted and processed in accordance with the procedures for submitting waiver requests set forth in this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.9   Content of waiver requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Forms (OMB No. 1901-0800) for submitting requests for advance and identified invention waivers, indicating the necessary information, may be obtained from the Contracting Officer or Patent Counsel. All requests for advance and identified invention waivers shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The requestor's identification, business address, and, if represented by Counsel, the Counsel's name and address; 
</P>
<P>(2) An identification of the pertinent contract or proposed contract and a copy of the contract Statement of Work or a nonproprietary statement which fully describes the proposed work to be performed; 
</P>
<P>(3) The nature and extent of waiver requested; 
</P>
<P>(4) A full and detailed statement of facts, to the extent known by or available to the requestor, directed to each of the considerations set forth in §§ 784.4 or 784.5 of this part, as applicable, and a statement applying such facts and considerations to the policies set forth in § 784.3 of this part. It is important that this submission be tailored to the unique aspects of each request for waiver, and be as complete as feasible; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The signature of the requestor or authorized representative with the following statement: “The facts set forth in this request for waiver are within the knowledge of the requestor and are submitted with the intention that the Secretary or designee rely on them in reaching the waiver determination.” 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, requests for waiver of identified inventions shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The full names of all inventors; 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of whether a patent application has been filed on the invention, together with a copy of such application if filed or, if not filed, a complete description of the invention; 
</P>
<P>(3) If a patent application has not been filed, any information which may indicate a potential statutory bar to the patenting of the invention under 35 U.S.C. 102 or a statement that no such bar is known to exist; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Where the requestor is the inventor, written authorization from the applicable contractor or subcontractor permitting the inventor to request a waiver. 
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to statutes, DOE regulations, requirements, and restrictions on the treatment of proprietary and classified information; all material submitted in requests for waiver or in support thereof will be made available to the public after a determination on the waiver request has been made, regardless of whether a waiver is granted. Accordingly, requests for waiver should not normally contain information or data that the requestor is not willing to have made public. If proprietary or classified information is needed to make the waiver determination, such information shall be submitted only at the request of Patent Counsel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.10   Record of waiver determinations.</HEAD>
<P>The Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property shall maintain and periodically update a publicly available record of waiver determinations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.11   Bases for granting waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The various factual situations which are appropriate for waivers cannot be categorized precisely because the appropriateness of a waiver will depend upon the manner in which the considerations set forth in §§ 784.4 or 784.5, and 784.6 if applicable, of this part relate to the facts and circumstances surrounding the particular contracting situation or the particular invention, in order to best achieve the objectives set forth in § 784.3 of this part. However, some examples where advance waivers might be appropriate are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Cost-shared contracts; 
</P>
<P>(2) Situations in which DOE is providing increased funding to a specific ongoing privately-sponsored research, development, or demonstration project; 
</P>
<P>(3) Situations such as Work for Others Agreements, User Facility Agreements or CRADAs, involving DOE-approved private use of Government facilities where the waiver requestor is funding a substantial part of the costs; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Situations in which the equities of the contractor are so substantial in relation to that of the Government that the waiver is necessary to obtain the participation of the contractor. 
</P>
<P>(b) Waivers may be granted as to all or any part of the rights of the United States to an invention subject to certain rights retained by the United States as set forth in § 784.12 of this part. The scope of the waiver will depend upon the relationship of the contractual situation or identified invention to considerations set forth in §§ 784.4 or 784.5, and 784.6, if applicable, in order to best achieve the objectives set forth in § 784.3. For example, waivers may be restricted to a particular field of use in which the contractor has substantial equities or a commercial position, or restricted to those uses that are not the primary object of the contract effort. Waivers may also be made effective for a specified duration of time, may be limited to particular geographic locations, may require the contractor to license others at reduced royalties in consideration of the Government's contribution to the research, development, or demonstration effort, or may require return of a portion of the royalties or revenue to the Government. 
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors shall not use their ability to award subcontracts as economic leverage to acquire rights for themselves in the subcontractor inventions, where the subcontractor(s) would prefer to petition for title. A waiver granted to a prime contractor is not normally applicable to inventions of subcontractors. However, in appropriate circumstances, the waiver given to the prime contractor may be made applicable to the waivable inventions of any or all subcontractors, such as where there are pre-existing special research and development arrangements between the prime contractor and subcontractor, or where the prime contractor and subcontractor are partners in a cooperative effort. In addition, in such circumstances, the prime contractor may be permitted to acquire nonexclusive licenses in the subcontractors' inventions when a waiver of the subcontractor inventions is not covered by the prime contractor's waiver. 
</P>
<P>(d) In advance waivers of identified inventions, the invention will be deemed to be a subject invention and the waiver will be considered as being effective as of the effective date of the contract (see § 784.13(a)). This will be true regardless of whether the identified invention had been first actually reduced to practice prior to the time of contracting or would be reduced to practice under the contract or after expiration of the contract. One purpose of advance waivers of identified inventions is to establish the rights of the parties to such inventions when the facts surrounding the first actual reduction to practice prior to or during the contract are or will be difficult to establish. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.12   Terms and conditions of waivers.</HEAD>
<P>The terms and conditions for waivers are set forth in the “Patent Rights—Waiver” clause in this section. A waiver of all foreign and domestic patent rights under a contract authorizes the use of this clause with any additions prescribed by the DOE Acquisition Regulations (48 CFR Chapter 9) or the terms of the waiver. This clause shall not be used in contracts with small business firms or nonprofit organizations subject to 35 U.S.C. 200 <I>et seq.</I> If a waiver of different scope is granted, the clause shall be modified to conform to the scope of the waiver granted. Advance waivers for arrangements other than contracts, grants, and cooperative agreements may use other clause provisions approved by the Assistant General Counsel for Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property, except that all waivers for funding agreements shall be subject to the license of clause paragraph (b) and the provisions of clause paragraphs (i) and (j). The terms and conditions of the clause shall also constitute the basis for confirmatory licenses regarding waivers of identified inventions. For inventions under advance waivers, a duly executed and approved instrument fully confirmatory of all rights to which the Government is entitled is required to be submitted promptly after filing a patent application thereon. If, however, a waiver request is pending, delivery of the confirmatory instrument may be delayed until a determination on the waiver request is made. In the case of a waiver of an identified invention pursuant to a request for greater rights, the confirmatory instrument shall be agreed to or submitted to Patent Counsel before or at the time the waiver is granted. 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Patent Rights—Waiver
</HD1>
<P>Use the clause at 48 CFR 52.227-12 with the following changes: 
</P>
<P>(1) In paragraph (a) “Definitions” add the following definitions: 
</P>
<P><I>Background patent</I> means a domestic patent covering an invention or discovery which is not a Subject Invention and which is owned or controlled by the Contractor at any time through the completion of this contract: 
</P>
<P>(i) Which the Contractor, but not the Government, has the right to license to others without obligation to pay royalties thereon, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Infringement of which cannot reasonably be avoided upon the practice of any specific process, method, machine, manufacture or composition of matter (including relatively minor modifications thereof) which is a subject of the research, development, or demonstration work performed under this contract. 
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> means any contract, grant, agreement, understanding, or other arrangement, which includes research, development, or demonstration work, and includes any assignment or substitution of parties. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE patent waiver regulations</I> means the Department of Energy patent waiver regulations at 10 CFR part 784. 
</P>
<P><I>Patent Counsel</I> means the Department of Energy Patent Counsel assisting the procuring activity. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(2) In paragraph (a) in the definition of “Subject invention” substitute: “course of or” for: “performance of work”. 
</P>
<P>(3) In paragraph (b) “Allocation of principal rights,” add at the beginning of first sentence: 
</P>
<P>“Whereas DOE has granted a waiver of rights to subject inventions to the Contractor,”. 
</P>
<P>(4) In paragraph (c)(1), substitute: 
</P>
<P>“Patent Counsel within six months after conception or first actual reduction to practice, whichever occurs first in the course of or under this contract, but in any event, prior to any sale, public use, or public disclosure of such invention known to the Contractor.” for. 
</P>
<P>“Contractor officer within 2 months after the inventor discloses it in writing to Contractor Personnel responsible for Patent matters * * * earlier.”
</P>
<P>(5) In paragraph (c)(2) add at the end: “The Contractor shall notify the Patent Counsel as to those countries (including the United States) in which the Contractor will retain title not later than 60 days prior to the end of the statutory period.” 
</P>
<P>(6) In paragraph (c)(3) substitute: “but not later than at least 60 days” for “or, if earlier,”
</P>
<P>(7) In paragraph (d) add (d)(5): 
</P>
<P>“(5) If the waiver authorizing the use of this clause is terminated as provided in paragraph (p) of this clause.” 
</P>
<P>(8) In paragraph (e)(1) add: “under paragraph (d) of this clause” after “Government obtains title.” 
</P>
<P>(9) In paragraph (e)(2) substitute “37 CFR part 404 and DOE licensing regulations.” for “the Federal Property Management regulations and agency licensing regulations (if any)”
</P>
<P>(10) In paragraph (f)(5) substitute “the course of or” for “performance of work”. 
</P>
<P>(11) In paragraph (g) substitute paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Unless otherwise directed by the Contracting Officer, the Contractor shall include the clause at 48 CFR 952.227-11, suitably modified to identify the parties, in all subcontracts, regardless of tier, for experimental, developmental, or research work to be performed by a small business firm or nonprofit organization, except where the work of the subcontract is subject to an Exceptional Circumstances Determination by DOE. In all other subcontracts, regardless of tier, for experimental, developmental, demonstration, or research work, the Contractor shall include the patent rights clause at 48 CFR 952.227-13 (suitably modified to identify the parties). 
</P>
<P>(2) The Contractor shall not, as part of the consideration for awarding the subcontract, obtain rights in the subcontractor's subject inventions. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of subcontractors at any tier, Department, the subcontractor, and Contractor agree that the mutual obligations of the parties created by this clause constitute a contract between the subcontractor and the Department with respect to those matters covered by this clause. 
</P>
<P>(12) Substitute the following for paragraph (k): 
</P>
<P>(k) Background Patents 
</P>
<P>(1) The Contractor agrees: 
</P>
<P>(i) to grant to the Government a royalty-free, nonexclusive license under any Background Patent for purposes of practicing a subject of this contract by or for the Government in research, development, and demonstration work only. 
</P>
<P>(ii) that, upon written application by DOE, it will grant to responsible parties for purposes of practicing a subject of this contract, nonexclusive licenses under any Background Patent on terms that are reasonable under the circumstances. If, however, the Contractor believes that exclusive or partially exclusive rights are necessary to achieve expeditious commercial development or utilization, then a request may be made to DOE for DOE approval of such licensing by the Contractor. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (k)(1)(ii), the Contractor shall not be obligated to license any Background Patent if the Contractor demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Secretary or his designee that: 
</P>
<P>(i) a competitive alternative to the subject matter covered by said Background Patent is commercially available from one or more other sources; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) the Contractor or its licensees are supplying the subject matter covered by said Background Patent in sufficient quantity and at reasonable prices to satisfy market needs, or have taken effective steps or within a reasonable time are expected to take effective steps to so supply the subject matter. 
</P>
<P>(13) Add new paragraph (l) Communications as follows: 
</P>
<P>All reports and notifications required by this clause shall be submitted to the Patent Counsel unless otherwise instructed. 
</P>
<P>(14) In paragraph (m) add to end of sentence: “, except with respect to Background Patents, above.”
</P>
<P>(15) In paragraph (n)(4) substitute “conducted in such a manner as” for “subject to appropriate conditions.” 
</P>
<P>(16) In paragraph (o) add at the end of the parenthetical phrase in the heading to the paragraph: “or grants”. 
</P>
<P>(17) In paragraph (o) add paragraph (o)(1)(v) as follows: 
</P>
<P>(v) Convey to the Government, using a DOE-approved form, the title and/or rights of the Government in each subject invention as required by this clause. 
</P>
<P>(18) In paragraph (o), substitute the following for (o)(3): 
</P>
<P>(3) Final payment under this contract shall not be made before the Contractor delivers to the Patent Counsel all disclosures of subject inventions required by paragraph (c)(1) of this clause, an acceptable final report pursuant to paragraph (f)(7)(ii) of this clause, and all past due confirmatory instruments, and the Patent Counsel has issued a patent clearance certification to the Contracting Officer. 
</P>
<P>(19) Add paragraphs (p), (q), (r), and (s) as follows: 
</P>
<P>(p) Waiver Terminations. 
</P>
<P>Any waiver granted to the Contractor authorizing the use of this clause (including any retention of rights pursuant thereto by the Contractor under paragraph (b) of this clause) may be terminated at the discretion of the Secretary or his designee in whole or in part, if the request for waiver by the Contractor is found to contain false material statements or nondisclosure of material facts, and such were specifically relied upon by DOE in reaching the waiver determination. Prior to any such termination, the Contractor will be given written notice stating the extent of such proposed termination and the reasons therefor, and a period of 30 days, or such longer period as the Secretary or his designee shall determine for good cause shown in writing, to show cause why the waiver of rights should not be so terminated. Any waiver termination shall be subject to the Contractor's minimum license as provided in paragraph (e) of this clause. 
</P>
<P>(q) Atomic Energy. 
</P>
<P>No claim for pecuniary award or compensation under the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, shall be asserted by the Contractor or its employees with respect to any invention or discovery made or conceived in the course of or under this contract. 
</P>
<P>(r) Publication. 
</P>
<P>It is recognized that during the course of work under this contract, the Contractor or its employees may from time to time desire to release or publish information regarding scientific or technical developments conceived or first actually reduced to practice in the course of or under this contract. In order that public disclosure of such information will not adversely affect the patent interests of DOE or the Contractor, approval for release of publication shall be secured from Patent Counsel prior to any such release or publication. In appropriate circumstances, and after consultation with the Contractor, Patent Counsel may waive the right of prepublication review. 
</P>
<P>(s) Forfeiture of rights in unreported subject inventions. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Contractor shall forfeit and assign to the Government, at the request of the Secretary of Energy or designee, all rights in any subject invention which the Contractor fails to report to Patent Counsel within six months after the time the Contractor: 
</P>
<P>(i) Files or causes to be filed a United States or foreign patent application thereon; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Submits the final report required by paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this clause, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(2) However, the Contractor shall not forfeit rights in a subject invention if, within the time specified in paragraph (m)(1) of this clause, the Contractor: 
</P>
<P>(i) Prepares a written decision based upon a review of the record that the invention was neither conceived nor first actually reduced to practice in the course of or under the contract and delivers the decision to Patent Counsel, with a copy to the Contracting Officer; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contending that the subject invention is not a subject invention, the Contractor nevertheless discloses the subject invention and all facts pertinent to this contention to the Patent Counsel, with a copy to the Contracting Officer, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishes that the failure to disclose did not result from the Contractor's fault or negligence. 
</P>
<P>(3) Pending written assignment of the patent application and patents on a subject invention determined by the Contracting Officer to be forfeited (such determination to be a Final Decision under the Disputes clause of this contract), the Contractor shall be deemed to hold the invention and the patent applications and patents pertaining thereto in trust for the Government. The forfeiture provision of this paragraph shall be in addition to and shall not supersede any other rights and remedies which the Government may have with respect to subject inventions.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 784.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.22.0.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 784.13   Effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>Waivers shall be effective on the following dates: 
</P>
<P>(a) For advance waivers of identified inventions, i.e., inventions conceived prior to the effective date of the contract, on the effective date of the contract, even though the advance waiver may have been requested after that date; 
</P>
<P>(b) For identified inventions under advance waivers, i.e., inventions conceived or first actually reduced to practice after the effective date of the contract, on the date the invention is reported with the election to retain rights as to that invention; and 
</P>
<P>(c) For waivers of identified inventions (other than under an advance waiver), on the date of the letter from Patent Counsel notifying the requestor that the waiver has been granted. 




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="800" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 800—LOANS FOR BID OR PROPOSAL PREPARATION BY MINORITY BUSINESS ENTERPRISES SEEKING DOE CONTRACTS AND ASSISTANCE
</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="17">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20772, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2e">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31137, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="1">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="1">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="4">This amendment was further delayed until June 4, 2026, at 91 FR 10954, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260603" REFID="1">This amendment was further delayed until Sept. 1, 2026, at 91 FR 33069, June 3, 2026.</XREF>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 211(e) of the Department of Energy (DOE) Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, Title II, as amended by Pub. L. 95-619, Title VI, sec. 641, Nov. 9, 1978, 92 Stat. 3284 (42 U.S.C. 7141).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 44689, Sept. 4, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.001" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.001   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this regulation is to set forth policies and procedures for the award and administration of loans to minority business enterprises. The loans are to assist such enterprises in participating fully in research, development, demonstration and contract activities of the Department of Energy. The loans are to defray a percentage of the cost of obtaining DOE contracts and other agreements, including procurements, cooperative agreements, grants, loans and loan guarantees; of obtaining subcontracts with DOE operating contractors; and of obtaining contracts with first-tier subcontractors of DOE operating contractors in furtherance of the research, development, demonstration or other contract activities of DOE. Issuance of loans under this regulation is limited to the extent funds are provided in advance in appropriation acts. This regulation implements the authority for such loans in section 211(e) of the Department of Energy (DOE) Organization Act, Public Law 95-619, title VI, section 641, November 9, 1978, 92 Stat. 3284 (42 U.S.C.A. 7141).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 17574, Apr. 25, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.002" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.002   Program management.</HEAD>
<P>Program management responsibility for financial assistance awarded under this regulation has been assigned to the Office of Minority Economic Impact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.003" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.003   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this regulation:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the DOE Organization Act, Public Law 95-91, title II, as amended by the National Energy Conservation Policy Act, Public Law 95-619, title VI, section 641.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a minority business enterprise which is seeking a loan under this regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Application Approving Official</I> means the Director of the Office of Minority Economic Impact.
</P>
<P><I>Application Evaluation Panel</I> (also referred to as the <I>Panel</I>) means a team of Federal employees appointed by the Application Approving Official to evaluate loan applications and make approval or disapproval recommendations regarding such applications.
</P>
<P><I>Borrower</I> means an applicant who enters into a loan agreement with DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Contracting Officer</I> means the DOE official warranted and authorized to contractually bind the Department of Energy and execute written agreements that are binding on the Department.
</P>
<P><I>Costs</I> of a bid or proposal means the cost of preparing, submitting and supporting a bid or proposal, whether solicited or not, for a DOE contract or other agreement such as a procurement contract, grant, cooperative agreement, loan or loan guarantee; or a subcontract with a DOE operating contractor; or a contract with a first-tier subcontractor of a DOE operating contractor in furtherance of the research, development, demonstration or other contract activities of DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Default</I> means the actual failure by the borrower to make payment of principal or interest in accordance with the terms and conditions of a loan issued under this regulation, or the failure of the borrower to meet any other requirement specified as a default condition in the loan agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Office of Minority Economic Impact (OMEI).
</P>
<P><I>Loan,</I> in reference to a loan made pursuant to the regulation, means a transaction in which a contractual instrument (“loan agreement”) is executed between the United States, as lender, acting through the Secretary of Energy, and a borrower. The instrument must obligate the United States to provide the borrower with a specified amount(s) of United States funds for a specified period of time and must obligate the borrower to use the moneys to bid for and attempt to obtain contracts and other agreements relating to DOE research, development, demonstration and contract activities, and to repay the moneys at a specified time at an agreed rate of interest. The words ‘loan’, ‘loan agreement’ and ‘transaction’ include (where the context does not require otherwise) the terms and conditions of related documents, such as the borrower's note or bond or other evidence of, or security for, the borrower's indebtedness.
</P>
<P><I>Minority Business Enterprise</I> means a firm including a sole proprietorship, corporation, association, or partnership which is at least 50 percent owned or controlled by a member of a minority or group of members of a minority. For the purpose of this definition, ‘control’ means direct or indirect possession of the power to direct, or cause the direction of, management and policies, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract or otherwise. An individual who is a citizen of the United States and who is a Negro, Puerto Rican, American Indian, Eskimo, Oriental, or Aleut, or is a Spanish speaking individual of Spanish descent, is a member of a “minority” as used in this regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Operating Contractors</I> means contractors under contracts having one of the following purposes, in accordance with the provisions of § 9.50.001(a)(1) of the DOE procurement regulations (title 41 CFR part 9-50):
</P>
<P>(a) DOE prime contracts for the management of Federal Government-owned laboratories, production plants, and research facilities located on Federal Government-owned or Federal Government-leased sites, where the programs being conducted are considered of a long-term, continuing nature; or
</P>
<P>(b) DOE prime contracts for the operation of Federal Government-owned facilities located on contractor-owned or leased sites where the programs being conducted are of a long-term, continuing nature. An example of this category would be those contracts with universities for the operation of Federal Government-owned facilities, for the purpose of conducting long-term basic research programs.
</P>
<P>(c) Other contracts performed on sites owned by the Federal Government when so designated by the appropriate procurement official.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Energy or his delegate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44689, Sept. 4, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 17574, Apr. 25, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.004" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.1.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.004   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>In order to be eligible for a loan, an applicant must be a minority business enterprise as defined in § 800.003.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Loan Solicitation, Application and Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.100" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.100   Solicitation of applications.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary will periodically issue an announcement soliciting applications under this regulation. The announcement will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> synopsized in the <I>Commerce Business Daily,</I> and circulated to minority trade associations and organizations and to the Minority Business Development Agency and Small Business Administration. The announcement will indicate funds availability, eligibility requirements, application instructions, interest rates, maturities and other key loan terms and any applicable restrictions. In such solicitations, DOE shall further indicate that, in the case of applications for loans relating to bids or proposals for contracts with first-tier subcontractors of DOE operating contractors, information necessary to substantiate such applications may be unavailable to DOE from such subcontractors. If the substantiating information is not made available to DOE in a timely manner, the application may be rejected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44689, Sept. 4, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 17574, Apr. 25, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.101" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.101   Application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications for loans shall be filed, one original and three copies with: Department of Energy, Washington, DC 20585, Attention: Announcement No. DE-PS60-MI.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for a loan under this regulation must include the following information. Items described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (7) of this section may be submitted for preliminary review in advance of a specific loan request but must be updated at time of loan request to reflect substantial changes.
</P>
<P>(1) Applicant's name and address, with a description of the kind and size of its business, its business experience and its history as a minority business enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) Financial statements of applicant and its principals, including source of revenue and balance sheets for the current year and, as to applicant, for the two preceding years of applicant's existence as a business entity. The Secretary may require applicant to provide certification by a public accountant, or other certification acceptable to the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any other Federal financial backing (direct loans, guaranteed loans, grants, etc.) applied for or obtained by the applicant within the previous five years, or expected to be applied for.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of applicant's management structure, with list of applicant's key persons with their responsibilities and qualifications.
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a specific loan request this list should include any contractor or consultant whose services are proposed in connection with the bid or proposal for which the loan is sought.
</P>
<P>(5) Affidavit(s) of eligibility (see § 800.004).
</P>
<P>(6) Documentation as to applicant's authority to undertake the activities contemplated by the application. Such documentation shall take substantially the following form:
</P>
<P>(i) If the applicant is a corporation, a copy of the charter or certificate and articles of incorporation, with any amendments, duly certified by the Secretary of State of the State where organized, and a copy of the by-laws. There shall also be included a copy of all minutes, resolutions of stockholders or directors or other representatives of the applicant, properly attested, authorizing the filing of the application.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the applicant is an association, a verified copy of its articles of association, if any, with an attested copy of the resolution of its governing board, if any, authorizing the filing of the application.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the applicant is a business trust, a verified copy of the trust instrument and an attested copy of the resolution or other authority under which the application is made.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the applicant is a joint stock company, a verified copy of the articles of association and of the authorizing resolution.
</P>
<P>(v) If the application is made on behalf of a partnership, a copy of the partnership agreement, if any; if on behalf of a limited partnership, a duly certified copy, also, of the certificate of limited partnership, if such certificate is required to be obtained under state law governing such limited partnership.
</P>
<P>(7) Credit references.
</P>
<P>(8) Information on the award to be sought through the bid or proposal, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Title, and whether in response to a solicitation or unsolicited.
</P>
<P>(ii) Brief description of work to be performed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Sponsoring DOE office, including solicitation number, if any.
</P>
<P>(iv) If an unsolicited proposal is planned, the loan application shall indicate the appropriate DOE program personnel to be consulted as to whether there is potential for the proposal to be supported.
</P>
<P>(v) Schedule for preparation and submission of the bid or proposal.
</P>
<P>(9) Itemized cost estimates (and whether yet incurred).
</P>
<P>(10) The required loan amount, not to exceed 75 percent of total bid or proposal costs, in accordance with § 800.200 on allowable costs.
</P>
<P>(11) Requested loan maturity, in accordance with § 800.202(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(12) How applicant will finance performance of work under a successful bid or proposal.
</P>
<P>(13) Such other information as the Application Approving Official may deem necessary for evaluation in accordance with § 800.103 and for compliance with the provisions of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(14) The application shall be signed by the applicant or on behalf of the applicant by an authorized representative. Verification may be by affidavit of an authorized representative of an applicant; attestation shall be by the authorized officer of an applicant.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Title 18 United States Code, section 1001 provides criminal penalties for fraud and intentional false statements in information submitted in such an application.</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.102" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.102   Review by Application Evaluation Panel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications for loans under this regulation shall be reviewed by an Application Evaluation Panel, which shall be appointed by the Application Approving Official. The Panel shall include, at a minimum, a representative of the Office of Minority Economic Impact, the contracting officer and a representative of the Office of the Controller.
</P>
<P>(b) Panel review shall be conducted pursuant to paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable, to evaluate, to clarify and to develop information contained in the application and such other information as the Application Approving Official or the Panel may request.
</P>
<P>(1) The Panel shall give priority to applications relating to a competitive solicitation, because of time limits on such solicitations. The Panel may defer action a maximum of five days after a solicitation has been announced in the <I>Commerce Business Daily</I> to provide all interested applicants an opportunity to apply.
</P>
<P>(2) Initial screening will be in the order applications are received, but time required to process an application may vary from case to case.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Panel review of specific loan requests.</I> (1) If an application contains a specific loan request, and complies with § 800.101, the Panel shall arrange for risk analysis, independent of any such analysis submitted by or on behalf of the applicant. Risk analysis shall be directed both to the loan request and to applicant's prospective performance of work pursuant to the bid or proposal.
</P>
<P>(2) The Panel shall evaluate the loan request in light of the risk analysis, and shall give its conclusions in writing to the Application Approving Official, with respect to the following and to such other considerations as that official may direct:
</P>
<P>(i) Applicant's eligibility as a minority business enterprise.
</P>
<P>(ii) Compliance with the application requirements of § 800.101.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compliance with § 800.200 on allowable costs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Applicant's financial ability to make the bid or proposal without the loan.
</P>
<P>(v) Applicant's contribution of, or ability to contribute, the 25% minimum share of allowable costs, or more.
</P>
<P>(vi) Applicant's ability to prepare an adequate bid or proposal, if the loan is made.
</P>
<P>(vii) Possibility of award to applicant pursuant to its bid or proposal.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Normally, not more than three loans will be approved for the same competitive award.</P></NOTE>
<P>(viii) Applicant's ability to perform pursuant to the bid or proposal.
</P>
<P>(ix) Likelihood that applicant will repay the requested loan, regardless of success of applicant's bid or proposal.
</P>
<P>(x) Optimal use of available program funds.
</P>
<P>(xi) The Panel's recommendation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Panel review of other applications.</I> If the application was submitted without a specific loan request, the Panel shall review the application in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section with the limited purpose of determining whether the applicant has complied with § 800.101, except as to matters determinable only with respect to a future specific loan request, and shall inform the Application Approving Official in writing as to its determinations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.103" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.103   Review by Application Approving Official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Application Approving Official shall consider the results of the Panel's review under section 102 (c) or (d), and such other information as the Application Approving Official determines to be relevant pursuant to the provisions of this regulation, and shall either approve or disapprove the application, giving it priority in accordance with the provisions of § 800.102(b).
</P>
<P>(b) The Application Approving Official shall authorize a contracting officer to notify the applicant of approval or disapproval.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant whose application has been rejected will be informed, on request, of the reason for rejection. Rejection is not a bar to submission of an appropriately revised application.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Loans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.200" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.3.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.200   Maximum loan; allowable costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A loan under this regulation shall not exceed 75 percent of allowable costs of a bid or proposal to obtain a DOE contract or other agreement (such as a procurement contract, cooperative agreement, grant, loan or loan guarantee), or a subcontract with a DOE operating contractor, or a contract with a first-tier subcontractor of a DOE operating contractor in furtherance of the research, development, demonstration or other contract activities of DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) To be allowable, costs must, in DOE's judgment:
</P>
<P>(1) Be consistent with the bidding cost principles of the Federal Procurement Regulation (41 CFR Ch. 1, 1-15.205-3) and DOE Procurement Regulation (41 CFR Ch. 9, 9-15.205-3); and;
</P>
<P>(2) Be necessary, reasonable and customary for the bid or proposal contemplated by the application; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) Costs which are, in general, allowable, if consistent with paragraph (b) of this section include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Bid bond premiums.
</P>
<P>(2) Financial, accounting, legal, engineering and other professional, consulting or similar fees and service charges.
</P>
<P>(3) Printing and reproduction costs.
</P>
<P>(4) Travel and transportation costs.
</P>
<P>(5) Costs of the loan application under this rule.
</P>
<P>(d) Costs that are not considered as allowable costs include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Fees and commissions charged to the applicant, including finder's fees, for obtaining Federal funds.
</P>
<P>(2) Expenses, which, in DOE's judgment, have primarily an application broader than the specific loan request.
</P>
<P>(3) Costs which, in DOE's judgment, fail to conform to paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44689, Sept. 4, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 17574, Apr. 25, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.201" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.3.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.201   Findings.</HEAD>
<P>A loan shall issue under this regulation only if the Secretary, having reviewed the action of the Application Approving Official, and having considered such other information as the Secretary may deem pertinent, has made all the findings that follow:
</P>
<P>(a) That the applicant is a minority business enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) That the loan will assist the enterprise to participate in the research, development, demonstration or contract activities of the Department of Energy by providing funds needed by applicant for bid or proposal purposes.
</P>
<P>(c) That, by terms of the loan, applicant's use of the funds will be limited to bidding for and obtaining a contract or other agreement with the Department of Energy, a subcontract with a DOE operating contractor, or a contract with a first-tier subcontractor of a DOE operating contractor in furtherance of the research, development, demonstration or other contract activities of DOE.
</P>
<P>(d) That the funds to be loaned will not exceed 75% of applicant's costs in bidding for and obtaining the contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) That the rate of interest on the loan has been determined in consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(f) That there is a reasonable prospect that the applicant will make the bid or proposal which is the purpose of the loan, will perform according to its bid or proposal, and will repay the loan according to the terms thereof, regardless of the success of its bid or proposal.
</P>
<P>(g) That the terms and conditions of the loan are acceptable to the Secretary and comply with this regulation and with section 211(e) of the Department of Energy Organization Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 44689, Sept. 4, 1981, as amended at 48 FR 17574, Apr. 25, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.202" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.3.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.202   Loan terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The loan shall be based upon a loan agreement and the borrower's separate promissory note for the proceeds of the loan, including interest. The agreement and note shall be executed in writing between the borrower and the Secretary. The contracting officer shall execute the loan agreement on behalf of the Secretary. The loan agreement and the promissory note shall provide as follows, either at full length or by incorporation by reference to terms of the other of the two documents.
</P>
<P>(1) The borrower agrees to repay the loan of funds provided by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) The interest rate on the loan is as established in consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury, taking into consideration the current average market yields of outstanding marketable obligations of the United States having maturities comparable to the loan.
</P>
<P>(3) The loan shall be repaid over a maximum period as follows, in equal monthly installments of principal and interest, unless a different frequency of installments is specified by the Secretary:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum repayment 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$0—$5,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 years 3 months.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$5,000—$25,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 years 3 months.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Excess of $25,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 years 3 months.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Maximum repayment period from date of initial disbursement.</P></DIV></DIV>
<FP>Repayment of principal and interest shall begin within 90 days following the initial loan disbursement or such longer period as may be acceptable to the Secretary. Installments shall be applied to accrued interest first and then to repayment of principal. Past due installments shall accrue interest at the quarterly current-value-of-funds-rate specified by the Treasury for overdue accounts. Prepayments may be made at any time without penalty.
</FP>
<P>(4) The borrower shall have appropriate opportunities, as specified in the loan agreement, to cure any default, failure, or breach of any of the covenants, conditions and obligations undertaken by the borrower pursuant to the provisions of the loan agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) Loans of $10,000 or less will be disbursed in a single disbursement. Disbursement of loans larger than $10,000 shall be per schedule and documentation specified by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(6) The loan may be used by the borrower to defray as much as, but no more than, 75 percent of the cost of the bid or proposal within the limitations specified in § 800.200, on allowable costs. Costs incurred by the borrower prior to the effective date of the loan agreement, and allowable under § 800.200, may be credited toward the borrower's share of costs if, in DOE's judgment, they were primarily related to the bid or proposal, but shall not be reimbursed from the loan.
</P>
<P>(7) The borrower shall make periodic reports regarding the bid or proposal.
</P>
<P>(8) The borrower shall maintain good standing under Federal, State and local laws and regulations applicable to the conduct of its business, including current payment of all taxes, fees and other charges and all requisite licenses and other governmental authorization necessary for the continued operation of the business throughout the term of the loan.
</P>
<P>(9) The borrower shall remain a minority business enterprise throughout the term of the loan.
</P>
<P>(10) The borrower shall return funds disbursed, but not required together with accrued interest thereon, to DOE, or to the servicing agent, if applicable, when its bid or proposal is ready for submission. The return of unrequired funds shall be by check separate from any payment of interest or principal, shall be identified by the borrower as a return of unrequired funds, and shall be accompanied by the borrower's certification that so much of the loan as has been disbursed to the borrower and not returned has been, or will be, expended by the borrower for costs allowable under § 800.200.
</P>
<P>(11) Such other provisions as the Secretary deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) The loan agreement shall also provide for loan servicing and monitoring in accordance with § 800.300 and § 800.301, loan limitation in accordance with § 800.302, assignment and transfer in accordance with § 800.303, default in accordance with § 800.304 and appeals in accordance with § 800.307.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary may require, as preconditions to disbursement, that the borrower have specified amounts of working capital (including amounts derived from Federal financial assistance) and maintain specified financial ratios, where in the Secretary's judgment satisfaction of such preconditions is necessary to assure the borrower's ability to make and perform the contract, agreement or subcontract according to the bid or proposal, or is otherwise necessary to protect the interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary may require pledges, personal guarantees and other collateral security, and the maintenance of insurance on the borrower's assets and principals, in amounts and on terms appropriate in the Secretary's judgment, to protect the interests of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.203" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.3.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.203   Loan limits.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall not make a loan in excess of $50,000, or make aggregate loans to the same minority business enterprise, including its affiliates, in any Federal fiscal year in excess of $100,000. In addition, the Secretary shall not increase a loan to an amount which would cause the limits set forth in the previous sentence to be exceeded. Nothing in this regulation shall be interpreted to restrict the Secretary, in making the various determinations provided for in this regulation, from taking into account considerations relating to the Office of Minority Economic Impact loan program as a whole.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.204" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.3.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.204   Deviations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent consistent with the Act, relevant appropriations acts, and other applicable statutes, DOE may deviate on an individual application basis from the requirements of this regulation upon a finding by the Secretary that such deviation is necessary or appropriate in the individual case for the accomplishment of program objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) The contracting officer may, subject to written agreement by other necessary parties, modify or amend the terms and conditions of a loan provided that such modification or amendment shall be consistent with this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Loan Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.300" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.300   Loan servicing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Servicing of a loan under this regulation may be performed by DOE, by another Federal agency, or by a servicing agent (commercial bank, broker, or other financial institution or entity) having the capability, and legally qualified, to service the loan consistently with the requirements of this regulation, which contracts with DOE to act as servicing agent. In determining the capability of a prospective servicing agent, DOE shall give due consideration to the experience of the agent in providing financial services to minority business enterprises.
</P>
<P>(b) If the servicing of the loan is by contract or other agreement, such contract or other agreement shall provide that the loan shall be serviced in accordance with this regulation and with the terms and conditions of the loan, under a standard of performance that a reasonable and prudent lender would require as to its own similar loan. Servicing responsibilities shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Loan disbursements as set forth in the loan agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) Collection of principal and interest payments on a monthly basis.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintenance of records on loan accounts.
</P>
<P>(4) Notification of the Secretary, without delay, as to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) That the initial disbursement or loan drawdown is ready to be made, together with evidence from the borrower that the bid or proposal preparation has begun or is about to begin.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date and amount of each subsequent disbursement under the loan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any nonreceipt of payment within 10 days after the date specified for payment, together with evidence of appropriate notification to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any known failure by the borrower to comply with the terms and conditions of the loan agreement.
</P>
<P>(v) Evidence, if any, that the borrower is likely to default on any condition set forth in the loan agreement or may be unable to make the next scheduled payment of principal or interest.
</P>
<P>(5) Submittal to DOE of periodic (semi-annual or annual) reports on the status and conditions of the loan and of the borrower.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.301" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.301   Monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary shall have the right to audit any and all costs of the bid or proposal for which the loan is sought or made and to exclude or reduce the includible amount of any cost in accordance with § 800.200. Auditors who are employees of the United States Government, who are designated by the Secretary of Energy or by the Comptroller General of the United States, shall have access to, and the right to examine, any directly pertinent documents and records of an applicant or borrower at reasonable times under reasonable circumstances. The servicing agent, if any, shall make information regarding the loan available to the Secretary of Energy and Comptroller General to the extent lawful and within its ability. The Secretary may direct the applicant or borrower to submit to an audit by public accountant or equivalent acceptable to the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.302" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.302   Loan limitation.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may limit the loan by written notice to the borrower to those amounts, if any, already disbursed under the loan, if the Secretary has determined that the borower has failed to comply with a material term or condition set forth in the loan agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.303" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.303   Assignment or transfer of loan.</HEAD>
<P>Assignment or transfer of the loan and obligations thereunder may be made only with the prior written consent of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.304" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.304   Default.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that the borrower fails to perform the terms and conditions of the loan, the borrower shall be in default and the Secretary shall have the right, at the Secretary's option, to accelerate the indebtedness and demand full payment of all principal and interest amounts outstanding under the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) No failure on the part of the Secretary to make demand at any time shall constitute a waiver of the rights held by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon demand by the Secretary, the borrower shall have a period of not more than 30 days from the date of receipt of the Secretary's demand to make payment in full.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that the failure on the part of the borrower to perform the terms and conditions of the loan does not constitute an intentional act, but is brought about as a result of circumstances largely beyond the control of the borrower, or is deemed by, the Secretary to be insubstantial, the Secretary may elect, at the Secretary's option, to defer such performance and/or restructure the repayment required by the loan agreement in any mutually acceptable manner.
</P>
<P>(e) Should the borrower fail to pay after demand as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, and no deferral or restructuring is agreed to by the Secretary as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the Secretary shall undertake collection in accordance with the terms of the loan agreement and the applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.305" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.305   Disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Information received from an applicant by DOE may be available to the public subject to the provision of 5 U.S.C. 552, 18 U.S.C. 1905 and 10 CFR part 1004; provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) Subject to the requirements of law, information such as trade secrets, commercial and financial information, and other information concerning the minority business enterprise that the enterprise submits to DOE in writing, in an application, or at other times throughout the duration of the loan on a privileged or confidential basis, will not be disclosed without prior notice to submitter in accordance with DOE regulations concerning public disclosure of information. Any submitter asserting that the information is privileged or confidential should appropriately identify and mark such information.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon a showing satisfactory to the Secretary that any information or portion thereof obtained under this regulation would, if made public, divulge trade secrets or other proprietary information of the minority business enterprise, the Secretary may not disclose such information.
</P>
<P>(c) This section shall not be construed as authority to withhold information from Congress or from any committee of Congress upon request of the Chairman.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.306" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.306   Noninterference with other laws.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this regulation shall be construed to modify requirements imposed on the borrower by Federal, State and local government agencies in connection with permits, licenses, or other authorizations to conduct or finance its business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 800.307" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.23.4.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 800.307   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>Any dispute concerning questions of fact arising under the loan agreement shall be decided in writing by the contracting officer. The borrower may request the contracting officer to reconsider any such decision, which reconsideration shall be promptly undertaken. If not satisfied with the contracting officer's final decision, the borrower, upon receipt of such written decision, may appeal the decision within 60 days in writing to the Chairman, Financial Assistance Appeals Board (FAAB), Department of Energy, Washington, DC 20585. The Board shall proceed in accordance with the Department of Energy's rules and regulations for such purpose. The decision of the Board with respect to such appeals shall be the final decision of the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="810" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 810—ASSISTANCE TO FOREIGN ATOMIC ENERGY ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 57, 127, 128, 129, 161, 222, 232, and 234 AEA, as amended by the <I>Nuclear Nonproliferation Act of 1978,</I> Pub. L. 95-242, 68 Stat. 932, 948, 950, 958, 92 Stat. 126, 136, 137, 138 (42 U.S.C. 2077, 2156, 2157, 2158, 2201, 2272, 2280, 2282), the <I>Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004,</I> Pub. L. 108-458, 118 Stat. 3768, and sec. 3116 of the <I>John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019,</I> Pub. L. 115-232; Sec. 104 of the <I>Energy Reorganization Act of 1974,</I> Pub. L. 93-438; Sec. 301, <I>Department of Energy Organization Act,</I> Pub. L. 95-91; <I>National Nuclear Security Administration Act,</I> Pub. L. 106-65, 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 9375, Feb. 23, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 810.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part implement section 57 b.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act, which empowers the Secretary, with the concurrence of the Department of State, and after consultation with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, the Department of Commerce, and the Department of Defense, to authorize persons to directly or indirectly engage or participate in the development or production of special nuclear material outside the United States. The purpose of the regulations in this part is to:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify activities that are generally authorized by the Secretary and thus require no other authorization under this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Identify activities that require specific authorization by the Secretary and explain how to request authorization; and
</P>
<P>(c) Specify reporting requirements for authorized activities.
</P>
<P>(d) Specify civil penalties and enforcement proceedings.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 9375, Feb. 23, 2015, as amended at 88 FR 1979, Jan. 12, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Part 810 (this part) applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) All persons subject to the jurisdiction of the United States who directly or indirectly engage or participate in the development or production of any special nuclear material outside the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) The transfer of technology that involves any of the activities listed in paragraph (b) of this section either in the United States or abroad by such persons or by licensees, contractors or subsidiaries under their direction, supervision, responsibility, or control.
</P>
<P>(b) The activities referred to in paragraph (a) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(1) Chemical conversion and purification of uranium and thorium from milling plant concentrates and in all subsequent steps in the nuclear fuel cycle;
</P>
<P>(2) Chemical conversion and purification of plutonium and neptunium;
</P>
<P>(3) Nuclear fuel fabrication, including preparation of fuel elements, fuel assemblies and cladding thereof;
</P>
<P>(4) Uranium isotope separation (uranium enrichment), plutonium isotope separation, and isotope separation of any other elements (including stable isotope separation) when the technology or process can be applied directly or indirectly to uranium or plutonium;
</P>
<P>(5) Nuclear reactor development, production or use of the components within or attached directly to the reactor vessel, the equipment that controls the level of power in the core, and the equipment or components that normally contain or come in direct contact with or control the primary coolant of the reactor core;
</P>
<P>(6) Development, production or use of production accelerator-driven subcritical assembly systems;
</P>
<P>(7) Heavy water production and hydrogen isotope separation when the technology or process has reasonable potential for large-scale separation of deuterium (
<SU>2</SU>H) from protium (
<SU>1</SU>H);
</P>
<P>(8) Reprocessing of irradiated nuclear fuel or targets containing special nuclear material, and post-irradiation examination of fuel elements, fuel assemblies and cladding thereof, if it is part of a reprocessing program; and
</P>
<P>(9) The transfer of technology for the development, production, or use of equipment or material especially designed or prepared for any of the above listed activities. (<I>See</I> Nuclear Regulatory Commission regulations at 10 CFR part 110, Appendices A through K, and O, for an illustrative list of items considered to be especially designed or prepared for certain listed nuclear activities.)
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Exports authorized by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Department of State, or Department of Commerce;
</P>
<P>(2) Transfer of publicly available information, publicly available technology, or the results of fundamental research;
</P>
<P>(3) Uranium and thorium mining and milling (<I>e.g.,</I> production of impure source material concentrates such as uranium yellowcake and all activities prior to that production step);
</P>
<P>(4) Nuclear fusion reactors per se, except for supporting systems involving hydrogen isotope separation technologies within the scope defined in paragraph (b)(7) of this section and § 810.7(c)(3);
</P>
<P>(5) Production or extraction of radiopharmaceutical isotopes when the process does not involve special nuclear material; and
</P>
<P>(6) Transfer of technology to any individual who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States or is a protected individual under the Immigration and Naturalization Act (8 U.S.C. 1324b(a)(3)).
</P>
<P>(d) Persons under U.S. jurisdiction are responsible for their foreign licensees, contractors, or subsidiaries to the extent that the former have control over the activities of the latter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part 810:
</P>
<P><I>Agreement for cooperation</I> means an agreement with another nation or group of nations concluded under sections 123 or 124 of the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Assistance</I> means assistance in such forms as instruction, skills, training, working knowledge, consulting services, or any other assistance as determined by the Secretary. Assistance may involve the transfer of technical data.
</P>
<P><I>Atomic Energy Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Classified information</I> means national security information classified under Executive Order 13526 or any predecessor or superseding order, and Restricted Data classified under the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Cooperative enrichment enterprise</I> means a multi-country or multi-company (where at least two of the companies are incorporated in different countries) joint development or production effort. The term includes a consortium of countries or companies or a multinational corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Country,</I> as well as government, nation, state, and similar entity, shall be read to include Taiwan, consistent with section 4 of the Taiwan Relations Act (22 U.S.C. 3303).
</P>
<P><I>Development</I> means any activity related to all phases before production such as: Design, design research, design analysis, design concepts, assembly and testing of prototypes, pilot production schemes, design data, process of transforming design data into a product, configuration design, integration design, and layouts.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Enrichment</I> means isotope separation of uranium or isotope separation of plutonium, regardless of the type of process or separation mechanism used.
</P>
<P><I>Fissile material</I> means isotopes that readily fission after absorbing a neutron of any energy, either fast or slow. Fissile materials are uranium-235, uranium-233, plutonium-239, and plutonium-241.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign national</I> means an individual who is not a citizen or national of the United States, but excludes U.S. lawful permanent residents and protected individuals under the Immigration and Naturalization Act (8 U.S.C. 1324b(a)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Fundamental research</I> means basic and applied research in science and engineering, the results of which ordinarily are published and shared broadly within the scientific community, as distinguished from proprietary research and from industrial development, design, production, and product utilization, the results of which ordinarily are restricted for proprietary or national security reasons.
</P>
<P><I>General authorization</I> means an authorization granted by the Secretary under section 57 b.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act to provide assistance or technology to foreign atomic energy activities subject to this part and which does not require a request for, or the Secretary's issuance of, a specific authorization.
</P>
<P><I>IAEA</I> means the International Atomic Energy Agency.
</P>
<P><I>NNPA</I> means the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Act of 1978, 22 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>NPT</I> means the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, done on July 1, 1968.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear reactor</I> means an apparatus, other than a nuclear explosive device, designed or used to sustain nuclear fission in a self-sustaining chain reaction.
</P>
<P><I>Operational safety</I> means the capability of a reactor to be operated in a manner that complies with national standards or requirements or widely-accepted international standards and recommendations to prevent uncontrolled or inadvertent criticality, prevent or mitigate uncontrolled release of radioactivity to the environment, monitor and limit staff exposure to radiation and radioactivity, and protect off-site population from exposure to radiation or radioactivity. Operational safety may be enhanced by providing expert advice, equipment, instrumentation, technology, software, services, analyses, procedures, training, or other assistance that improves the capability of the reactor to be operated in compliance with such standards, requirements or recommendations.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Any group, government agency other than DOE, or any State or political entity within a State; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Production</I> means all production phases such as: Construction, production engineering, manufacture, integration, assembly or mounting, inspection, testing, and quality assurance.
</P>
<P><I>Production accelerator</I> means a particle accelerator especially designed, used, or intended for use with a production subcritical assembly.
</P>
<P><I>Production accelerator-driven subcritical assembly system</I> means a system comprised of a production subcritical assembly and a production accelerator and which is especially designed, used, or intended for the production of plutonium or uranium-233. In such a system, the production accelerator target provides a source of neutrons used to effect special nuclear material production in the production subcritical assembly.
</P>
<P><I>Production reactor</I> means a nuclear reactor especially designed or used primarily for the production of plutonium or uranium-233.
</P>
<P><I>Production subcritical assembly</I> means an apparatus that contains source material or special nuclear material to produce a nuclear fission chain reaction that is not self-sustaining and that is especially designed, used, or intended for the production of plutonium or uranium-233.
</P>
<P><I>Publicly available information</I> means information in any form that is generally accessible, without restriction, to the public.
</P>
<P><I>Publicly available technology</I> means technology that is already published or has been prepared for publication; arises during, or results from, fundamental research; or is included in an application filed with the U.S. Patent Office and eligible for foreign filing under 35 U.S.C. 184.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data</I> means all data concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) Design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons;
</P>
<P>(2) The production of special nuclear material; or
</P>
<P>(3) The use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but shall not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142 of the Atomic Energy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Sensitive nuclear technology</I> means any information (including information incorporated in a production or utilization facility or important component part thereof) which is not available to the public (see definition of “publicly available information”) and which is important to the design, construction, fabrication, operation, or maintenance of a uranium enrichment or nuclear fuel reprocessing facility or a facility for the production of heavy water, but shall not include Restricted Data controlled pursuant to chapter 12 of the Atomic Energy Act. The information may take a tangible form such as a model, prototype, blueprint, or operation manual or an intangible form such as assistance.
</P>
<P><I>Source material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium or thorium, other than special nuclear material; or
</P>
<P>(2) Ores that contain by weight 0.05 percent or more of uranium or thorium, or any combination of these materials.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium,
</P>
<P>(2) Uranium-233, or
</P>
<P>(3) Uranium enriched above 0.711 percent by weight in the isotope uranium-235.
</P>
<P><I>Specific authorization</I> means an authorization granted by the Secretary under section 57b.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act, in response to an application filed under this part, to engage in specifically authorized nuclear activities subject to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Technical data</I> means data in such forms as blueprints, plans, diagrams, models, formulae, engineering designs, specifications, manuals, and instructions written or recorded on other media or devices such as disks, tapes, read-only memories, and computational methodologies, algorithms, and computer codes that can directly or indirectly affect the production of special nuclear material.
</P>
<P><I>Technology</I> means assistance or technical data required for the development, production or use of any plant, facility, or especially designed or prepared equipment for the activities described in § 810.2(b).
</P>
<P><I>Use</I> means operation, installation (including on-site installation), maintenance (checking), repair, overhaul, or refurbishing.
</P>
<P><I>United States,</I> when used in a geographical sense, includes Puerto Rico and all territories and possessions of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All communications concerning the regulations in this part should be addressed to: U.S. Department of Energy, Washington, DC 20585. Attention: Senior Policy Advisor, National Nuclear Security Administration/Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control (NPAC), Telephone (202) 586-1007.
</P>
<P>(b) Communications also may be delivered to DOE's headquarters at 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585. All clearly marked proprietary information will be given the maximum protection allowed by law.
</P>
<P>(c) Communications may also be delivered by email to: <I>Part810@nnsa.doe.gov</I>. For “fast track” activities described in §§ 810.6(c)(1) and (c)(2) emails should be sent to: <I>Part810-OperationalSafety@nnsa.doe.gov</I>. Notifications regarding activity in the Ukraine should be delivered by email to: <I>Part810-Ukraine@nnsa.doe.gov</I>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.5   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The advice of the DOE Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control may be requested on whether a proposed activity falls outside the scope of this part, is generally authorized under § 810.6, or requires a specific authorization under § 810.7. However, unless authorized by the Secretary in writing, no interpretation of the regulations in this part other than a written interpretation by the DOE General Counsel is binding upon DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) When advice is requested from the DOE Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control, or a binding, written determination is requested from the DOE General Counsel, a response normally will be made within 30 calendar days and, if this is not feasible, an interim response will explain the reason for the delay.
</P>
<P>(c) The DOE Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control may periodically publish abstracts of general or specific authorizations that may be of general interest, exclusive of proprietary business-confidential data submitted to DOE or other information protected by law from unauthorized disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.6   Generally authorized activities.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary has determined that the following activities are generally authorized, provided that no sensitive nuclear technology or assistance described in § 810.7 is involved:
</P>
<P>(a) Engaging directly or indirectly in the production of special nuclear material at facilities in countries or with entities listed in the Appendix to this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Transfer of technology to a citizen or national of a country other than the United States not listed in the Appendix to this part and working at an NRC-licensed facility, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) The foreign national is lawfully employed by or contracted to work for a U.S. employer in the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign national executes a confidentiality agreement with the U.S. employer to safeguard the technology from unauthorized use or disclosure;
</P>
<P>(3) The foreign national has been granted unescorted access in accordance with NRC regulations at an NRC-licensed facility; and
</P>
<P>(4) The foreign national's U.S. employer authorizing access to the technology complies with the reporting requirements in § 810.12(g).
</P>
<P>(c) Activities at any safeguarded or NRC-licensed facility to:
</P>
<P>(1) Prevent or correct a current or imminent radiological emergency posing a significant danger to the health and safety of the off-site population, which emergency in DOE's assessment cannot be met by other means, provided DOE is notified in writing in advance and does not object within 48 hours of receipt of the advance notification;
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish operational safety information or assistance to existing safeguarded civilian nuclear reactors outside the United States in countries with safeguards agreements with the IAEA or an equivalent voluntary offer, provided DOE is notified in writing and approves the activity in writing within 45 calendar days of the notice. The applicant should provide all the information required under § 810.11 and specific references to the national or international safety standards or requirements for operational safety for nuclear reactors that will be addressed by the assistance; or
</P>
<P>(3) Furnish operational safety information or assistance to existing, proposed, or new-build civilian nuclear facilities in the United States, provided DOE is notified by certified mail return receipt requested and approves the activity in writing within 45 calendar days of the notice. The applicant should provide all the information required under § 810.11.
</P>
<P>(d) Participation in exchange programs approved by the Department of State in consultation with DOE;
</P>
<P>(e) Activities carried out in the course of implementation of the “Agreement between the United States of America and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards in the United States,” done on December 9, 1980;
</P>
<P>(f) Activities carried out by persons who are full-time employees of the IAEA or whose employment by or work for the IAEA is sponsored or approved by the Department of State or DOE; or
</P>
<P>(g) Extraction of Molybdenum-99 for medical use from irradiated targets of enriched uranium, provided that the activity does not also involve purification and recovery of enriched uranium materials, and provided further, that the technology used does not involve significant components relevant for reprocessing spent nuclear reactor fuel (<I>e.g.,</I> high-speed centrifugal contactors, pulsed columns).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.7   Activities requiring specific authorization.</HEAD>
<P>Any person requires a specific authorization by the Secretary before:
</P>
<P>(a) Engaging in any of the activities listed in § 810.2(b) with any foreign country or entity not specified in the Appendix to this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Providing or transferring sensitive nuclear technology to any foreign country or entity; or
</P>
<P>(c) Engaging in or providing technology (including assistance) for any of the following activities with respect to any foreign country or entity (or a citizen or national of that country other than U.S. lawful permanent residents or protected individuals under the Immigration and Naturalization Act (8 U.S.C. 1324b(a)(3)):
</P>
<P>(1) Uranium isotope separation (uranium enrichment), plutonium isotope separation, or isotope separation of any other elements (including stable isotope separation) when the technology or process can be applied directly or indirectly to uranium or plutonium;
</P>
<P>(2) Fabrication of nuclear fuel containing plutonium, including preparation of fuel elements, fuel assemblies, and cladding thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) Heavy water production, and hydrogen isotope separation, when the technology or process has reasonable potential for large-scale separation of deuterium (
<SU>2</SU>H) from protium (
<SU>1</SU>H);
</P>
<P>(4) Development, production or use of a production accelerator-driven subcritical assembly system;
</P>
<P>(5) Development, production or use of a production reactor; or
</P>
<P>(6) Reprocessing of irradiated nuclear fuel or targets containing special nuclear material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.8   Restrictions on general and specific authorization.</HEAD>
<P>A general or specific authorization granted by the Secretary under this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Is limited to activities involving only unclassified information and does not permit furnishing classified information;
</P>
<P>(b) Does not relieve a person from complying with the relevant laws or the regulations of other U.S. Government agencies applicable to exports; and
</P>
<P>(c) Does not authorize a person to engage in any activity when the person knows or has reason to know that the activity is intended to provide assistance in designing, developing, fabricating, or testing a nuclear explosive device.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.9   Grant of specific authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for authorization to engage in activities for which specific authorization is required under § 810.7 should be made to the U.S. Department of Energy, National Nuclear Security Administration, Washington, DC 20585, Attention: Senior Policy Advisor, Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control (NPAC).
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary will approve an application for specific authorization if it is determined, with the concurrence of the Department of State and after consultation with the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Department of Commerce, and Department of Defense, that the activity will not be inimical to the interest of the United States. In making such a determination, the Secretary will take into account the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the United States has an agreement for cooperation in force covering exports to the country or entity involved;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the country is a party to, or has otherwise adhered to, the NPT;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the country is in good standing with its acknowledged nonproliferation commitments;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the country is in full compliance with its obligations under the NPT;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the country has accepted IAEA safeguards obligations on all nuclear materials used for peaceful purposes and has them in force;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether other nonproliferation controls or conditions exist on the proposed activity, including that the recipient is duly authorized by the country to receive and use the technology sought to be transferred;
</P>
<P>(7) Significance of the assistance or transferred technology relative to the existing nuclear capabilities of the country;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the transferred technology is part of an existing cooperative enrichment enterprise or the supply chain of such an enterprise;
</P>
<P>(9) The availability of comparable assistance or technology from other sources; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any other factors that may bear upon the political, economic, competitiveness, or security interests of the United States, including the obligations of the United States under treaties or other international agreements, and the obligations of the country under treaties or other international agreements.
</P>
<P>(c) If the proposed activity involves the export of sensitive nuclear technology, the requirements of sections 127 and 128 of the Atomic Energy Act and of any applicable United States international commitments must also be met. For the export of sensitive nuclear technology, in addition to the factors in paragraph (b) of this section, the Secretary will take into account:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the country has signed, ratified, and is implementing a comprehensive safeguards agreement with the IAEA and has in force an Additional Protocol based on the Model Additional Protocol, or, pending this, in the case of a regional accounting and control arrangement for nuclear materials, is implementing, in cooperation with the IAEA, a safeguards agreement approved by the IAEA Board of Governors prior to the publication of INFCIRC/540 (September 1997); or alternatively whether comprehensive safeguards, including the measures of the Model Additional Protocol, are being applied in the country;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the country has not been identified in a report by the IAEA Secretariat that is under consideration by the IAEA Board of Governors, as being in breach of obligations to comply with the applicable safeguards agreement, nor continues to be the subject of Board of Governors decisions calling upon it to take additional steps to comply with its safeguards obligations or to build confidence in the peaceful nature of its nuclear program, nor as to which the IAEA Secretariat has reported that it is unable to implement the applicable safeguards agreement. This criterion would not apply in cases where the IAEA Board of Governors or the United Nations Security Council subsequently decides that adequate assurances exist as to the peaceful purposes of the country's nuclear program and its compliance with the applicable safeguards agreements. For the purposes of this paragraph, “breach” refers only to serious breaches of proliferation concern;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the country is adhering to the Nuclear Suppliers Group Guidelines and, where applicable, has reported to the Security Council of the United Nations that it is implementing effective export controls as identified by Security Council Resolution 1540; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the country adheres to international safety conventions relating to nuclear or other radioactive materials or facilities.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless otherwise prohibited by U.S. law, the Secretary may grant an application for specific authorization for activities related to the enrichment of source material and special nuclear material, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The U.S. Government has received written nonproliferation assurances from the government of the country;
</P>
<P>(2) That it/they accept(s) the sensitive enrichment equipment and enabling technologies or an operable enrichment facility under conditions that do not permit or enable unauthorized replication of the facilities;
</P>
<P>(3) That the subject enrichment activity will not result in the production of uranium enriched to greater than 20% in the isotope uranium-235; and
</P>
<P>(4) That there are in place appropriate security arrangements to protect the activity from use or transfer inconsistent with the country's national laws.
</P>
<P>(e) Approximately 30 calendar days after the Secretary's grant of a specific authorization, a copy of the Secretary's determination may be provided to any person requesting it at DOE's Public Reading Room, unless the applicant submits information demonstrating that public disclosure will cause substantial harm to its competitive position. This provision does not affect any other authority provided by law for the non-disclosure of information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.10   Revocation, suspension, or modification of authorization.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may revoke, suspend, or modify a general or specific authorization:
</P>
<P>(a) For any material false statement in an application for specific authorization or in any additional information submitted in its support;
</P>
<P>(b) For failing to provide a report or for any material false statement in a report submitted pursuant to § 810.12;
</P>
<P>(c) If any authorization governed by this part is subsequently determined by the Secretary to be inimical to the interest of the United States or otherwise no longer meets the legal criteria for approval; or
</P>
<P>(d) Pursuant to section 129 of the Atomic Energy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.11   Information required in an application for specific authorization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application letter must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and citizenship of the applicant, and complete disclosure of all real parties in interest; if the applicant is a corporation or other legal entity, where it is incorporated or organized; the location of its principal office; and the degree of any control or ownership by any foreign individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution or government agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The country or entity to receive the assistance or technology; the name and location of any facility or project involved; and the name and address of the person for which or whom the activity is to be performed;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the assistance or technology to be provided, including a complete description of the proposed activity, its approximate monetary value, and a detailed description of any specific project to which the activity relates as specified in §§ 810.9(b)(7), (8), and (9); and
</P>
<P>(4) The designation of any information that if publicly disclosed would cause substantial harm to the competitive position of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 810.6(b), an applicant seeking to employ a citizen or national of a country not listed in the Appendix in a position that could result in the transfer of technology subject to § 810.2, or seeking to employ any foreign national in the United States or in a foreign country that could result in the export of assistance or transfer of technology subject to § 810.7 must request a specific authorization. The applicant must provide, with respect to each foreign national to whom access to technology will be granted, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the technology that would be made available to the foreign national;
</P>
<P>(2) The purpose of the proposed transfer, a description of the applicant's technology control program, and any Nuclear Regulatory Commission standards applicable to the employer's grant of access to the technology;
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any confidentiality agreement to safeguard the technology from unauthorized use or disclosure between the applicant and the foreign national;
</P>
<P>(4) Background information about the foreign national, including the individual's citizenship, all countries where the individual has resided for more than six months, the training or educational background of the individual, all work experience, any other known affiliations with persons engaged in activities subject to this part, and any current immigration or visa status in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement signed by the foreign national that he/she will comply with the regulations under this part; will not disclose the applicant's technology without DOE's prior written authorization; and will not, at any time during or after his/her employment with the applicant, use the applicant's technology for any nuclear explosive device, for research on or development of any nuclear explosive device, or in furtherance of any military purpose.
</P>
<P>(c) An applicant for a specific authorization related to the enrichment of fissile material must submit information that demonstrates that the proposed transfer will avoid, so far as practicable, the transfer of enabling design or manufacturing technology associated with such items; and that the applicant will share with the recipient only information required for the regulatory purposes of the recipient country or to ensure the safe installation and operation of a resulting enrichment facility, without divulging enabling technology.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.12   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person who has received a specific authorization shall, within 30 calendar days after beginning the authorized activity, provide to DOE a written report containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and citizenship of the person submitting the report;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, and citizenship of the person for whom or which the activity is being performed;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the activity, the date it began, its location, status, and anticipated date of completion; and
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the DOE letter authorizing the activity.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person carrying out a specifically authorized activity shall inform DOE, in writing within 30 calendar days, of completion of the activity or of its termination before completion.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person granted a specific authorization shall inform DOE, in writing within 30 calendar days, when it is known that the proposed activity will not be undertaken and the granted authorization will not be used.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE may require reports to include such additional information that may be required by applicable U.S. law, regulation, or policy with respect to the specific nuclear activity or country for which specific authorization is required.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person, within 30 calendar days after beginning any generally authorized activity under § 810.6, shall provide to DOE:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and citizenship of the person submitting the report;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, and citizenship of the person for whom or which the activity is being performed;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the activity, the date it began, its location, status, and anticipated date of completion; and
</P>
<P>(4) A written assurance that the applicant has an agreement with the recipient ensuring that any subsequent transfer of materials, equipment, or technology transferred under general authorization under circumstances in which the conditions in § 810.6 would not be met will take place only if the applicant obtains DOE's prior written approval.
</P>
<P>(f) Individuals engaging in generally authorized activities as employees of persons required to report are not themselves required to submit the reports described in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Persons engaging in generally authorized activities under § 810.6(b) are required to notify DOE that a citizen or national of a country not listed in the Appendix to this part has been granted access to information subject to § 810.2 in accordance with Nuclear Regulatory Commission access requirements. The report should contain the information required in § 810.11(b).
</P>
<P>(h) All reports should be sent to: U.S. Department of Energy, National Nuclear Security Administration, Washington, DC 20585, Attention: Senior Policy Advisor, Office of Nonproliferation and Arms Control (NPAC).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.13   Additional information.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may at any time require a person engaging in any generally or specifically authorized activity to submit additional information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.14   Special provisions regarding Ukraine.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-activity notification requirements.</I> Any person beginning any generally authorized activity involving Ukraine shall provide to DOE at least ten days prior to beginning that activity a report containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and citizenship of the person submitting the notification;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, and citizenship of the person for which the activity is to be performed;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the activity, the date it is proposed to begin, its location, status, and anticipated date of completion; and
</P>
<P>(4) A written assurance that the person that is to perform the activity has an agreement with the recipient that any subsequent transfer of technology or information transferred under general authorization will not be transferred to a country that is not listed in the Appendix to this part without the prior written approval of DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Post-activity reporting requirements.</I> Every person completing a generally authorized activity in Ukraine shall provide to DOE within ten days following the original transfer of technology or information written confirmation that such transfer was completed in accordance with the description of the activity provided as required by paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.15   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Atomic Energy Act provides that:
</P>
<P>(1) In accordance with section 232 of the AEA, permanent or temporary injunctions, restraining or other orders may be granted to prevent a violation of any provision of the Atomic Energy Act or any regulation or order issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with section 222 of the AEA, whoever willfully violates, attempts to violate, or conspires to violate any provision of section 57 of the Atomic Energy Act may be fined up to $10,000 or imprisoned up to 10 years, or both. If the offense is committed with intent to injure the United States or to aid any foreign nation, the penalty could be up to life imprisonment or a $20,000 fine, or both.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with Title 18 of the United States Code, section 1001, whoever knowingly and willfully falsifies, conceals, or covers up a material fact or makes or uses false, fictitious or fraudulent statements or representations shall be fined under that title or imprisoned up to five or eight years depending on the crime, or both.
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with section 234 of the AEA, any person who violates any provision of section 57 b. of the AEA, as implemented under this part, shall be subject to a civil penalty, not to exceed $127,973 per violation, such amount to be adjusted annually for inflation pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015. If any violation is a continuing one, each day from the point at which the violating activity began to the point at which the violating activity was suspended shall constitute a separate violation for the purpose of computing the applicable civil penalty. The mere act of suspending an activity does not constitute admission that the activity was a violation and does not waive the rights and processes outlined in paragraphs (c)(4) through (14) of this section or otherwise impact the right of the person to appeal any civil penalty that may be imposed.


</P>
<P>(1) In order to begin a proceeding to impose a civil penalty under this paragraph (c), the Deputy Administrator for Defense Nuclear Nonproliferation or his/her designee, shall notify the person by a written notice of violation sent by registered or certified mail to the last known address of such person, of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date, facts, and nature of each act or omission with which the person is charged;
</P>
<P>(ii) The particular provision or provisions of section 57 b. of the AEA, as implemented under this part, involved in each alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(iii) The penalty which DOE proposes to impose, including an explanation of how the factors at paragraph (c)(5) of this section were considered;
</P>
<P>(iv) The opportunity of the person to submit a written reply within 30 calendar days of receipt of such preliminary notice of violation showing why such penalty should not be imposed; and
</P>
<P>(v) The possibility of collection by civil action upon failure to pay the civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(2) A reply to the notice of violation must:
</P>
<P>(i) State any facts, explanations, and arguments which support a denial of the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate any extenuating circumstances or other reason why a proposed penalty should not be imposed or should be mitigated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Discuss the relevant authorities which support the position asserted;
</P>
<P>(iv) Furnish full and complete answers to any questions set forth in the notice of violation; and
</P>
<P>(v) Include copies of all relevant documents.
</P>
<P>(3) If a person fails to submit a written reply within 30 calendar days of receipt of a notice of violation, the notice of violation, including any penalties therein, constitutes a final decision, and payment of the full amount of the civil penalty assessed in the notice of violation is due 30 calendar days after receipt of the notice of violation. Such failure to submit a reply constitutes a waiver of the rights and processes outlined in paragraphs (c)(4) through (14) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The Deputy Administrator for Defense Nuclear Nonproliferation or his/her designee, at the written request of a person notified of an alleged violation, may extend in writing, for a reasonable period, the time for submitting a reply.
</P>
<P>(5) If a person submits a timely written reply to the notice of violation, the Deputy Administrator for Defense Nuclear Nonproliferation will make a final determination whether the person violated or is continuing to violate a requirement of section 57 b. of the AEA, as implemented under this part. Based on a determination that a person has violated or is continuing to violate a requirement of section 57 b., as implemented under this part, the Deputy Administrator for Defense Nuclear Nonproliferation will issue to that person a final notice of violation that concisely states the violation, the amount of the civil penalty imposed, including an explanation of how the factors in this paragraph were considered, further actions necessary by or available to the person, and that upon failure to timely pay the civil penalty, the penalty may be collected by civil action. The Deputy Administrator for Defense Nuclear Nonproliferation will send such a final notice of violation by registered or certified mail to the last known address of the person. The amount of the civil penalty will be based on:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The violator's ability to pay;
</P>
<P>(iii) The effect of the civil penalty on the person's ability to do business;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any history of prior violations;
</P>
<P>(v) The degree of culpability;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the violator self-disclosed the violation;
</P>
<P>(vii) The economic significance of the violation; and (viii) Such other factors as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(6) Any person who receives a final notice of violation under paragraph (c)(5) of this section may request a hearing concerning the allegations contained in the notice. The person must mail or deliver any written request for a hearing to the Under Secretary for Nuclear Security within 30 calendar days of receipt of the final notice of violation. If the person does not request a hearing within 30 calendar days, the final notice of violation, including any penalties therein, constitutes a final decision, and payment of the full amount of the civil penalty assessed in the final notice of violation is due 45 calendar days after receipt of the final notice of violation.
</P>
<P>(7) Upon receipt from a person of a written request for a hearing, the Under Secretary for Nuclear Security or his/her designee, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Appoint a Hearing Counsel; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Forward the request to the DOE Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA). The OHA Director shall appoint an OHA Administrative Judge to preside at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(8) The Hearing Counsel shall be an attorney employed by DOE, and shall have all powers necessary to represent DOE before the OHA.
</P>
<P>(9) In all hearings under this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(i) The parties have the right to be represented by a person of their choosing, subject to possessing an appropriate information access authorization for the subject matter. The parties are responsible for producing witnesses on their behalf, including requesting the issuance of subpoenas, if necessary;
</P>
<P>(ii) Testimony of witnesses is given under oath or affirmation, and witnesses must be advised of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 18 U.S.C. 1621, dealing with the criminal penalties associated with false statements and perjury;
</P>
<P>(iii) Witnesses are subject to cross-examination;
</P>
<P>(iv) Formal rules of evidence do not apply, but OHA may use the Federal Rules of Evidence as a guide; and
</P>
<P>(v) A court reporter will make a transcript of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(vi) The Administrative Judge has all powers necessary to regulate the conduct of proceedings:
</P>
<P>(vii) The Administrative Judge may order discovery at the request of a party, based on a showing that the requested discovery is designed to produce evidence regarding a matter, not privileged, that is relevant to the subject matter of the complaint;
</P>
<P>(viii) The Administrative Judge may permit parties to obtain discovery by any appropriate method, including deposition upon oral examination or written questions; written interrogatories; production of documents or things; permission to enter upon land or other property for inspection and other purposes; and requests for admission;
</P>
<P>(ix) The Administrative Judge may issue subpoenas for the appearance of witnesses on behalf of either party, or for the production of specific documents or other physical evidence;
</P>
<P>(x) The Administrative Judge may rule on objections to the presentation of evidence; exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious; require the advance submission of documents offered as evidence; dispose of procedural requests; grant extensions of time; determine the format of the hearing; direct that written motions, documents, or briefs be filed with respect to issues raised during the course of the hearing; ask questions of witnesses; direct that documentary evidence be served upon other parties (under protective order if such evidence is deemed confidential); and otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(xi) The Administrative Judge may, at the request of a party or on his or her own initiative, dismiss a claim, defense, or party and make adverse findings upon the failure of a party or the party's representative to comply with a lawful order of the Administrative Judge, or, without good cause, to attend a hearing;
</P>
<P>(xii) The Administrative Judge, upon request of a party, may allow the parties a reasonable time to file pre-hearing briefs or written statements with respect to material issues of fact or law. Any pre-hearing submission must be limited to the issues specified and filed within the time prescribed by the Administrative Judge;
</P>
<P>(xiii) The parties are entitled to make oral closing arguments, but post-hearing submissions are only permitted by direction of the Administrative Judge;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Parties allowed to file written submissions, or documentary evidence must serve copies upon the other parties within the timeframe prescribed by the Administrative Judge;
</P>
<P>(xv) The Administrative Judge is prohibited, beginning with his or her appointment and until a final agency decision is issued, from initiating or otherwise engaging in <I>ex parte</I> (private) discussions with any party on the merits of the complaint;
</P>
<P>(xvi) The Administrative Judge is responsible for determining the date, time, and location of the hearing, including whether the hearing will be conducted via video conference; and
</P>
<P>(xvii) The Administrative Judge shall convene the hearing within 180 days of the OHA's receipt of the request for a hearing, unless the parties agree to an extension of this deadline by mutual written consent, or the Administrative Judge determines that extraordinary circumstances exist that require a delay.
</P>
<P>(10) Hearings shall be open only to Hearing Counsel, duly authorized representatives of DOE, the person and the person's counsel or other representatives, and such other persons as may be authorized by the Administrative Judge. Unless otherwise ordered by the Administrative Judge, witnesses shall testify in the presence of the person but not in the presence of other witnesses.
</P>
<P>(11) The Administrative Judge must use procedures appropriate to safeguard and prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information or any other information protected from public disclosure by law or regulation, with minimum impairment of rights and obligations under this part. The classified or otherwise protected status of any information shall not, however, preclude its being introduced into evidence. The Administrative Judge may issue such orders as may be necessary to consider such evidence in camera including the preparation of a supplemental recommended decision to address issues of law or fact that arise out of that portion of the evidence that is classified or otherwise protected.
</P>
<P>(12) DOE shall have the burden of proving the violation(s) as set forth in the final notice of violation by a preponderance of the evidence. The person to whom the notice of violation is addressed shall have the burden of proving any affirmative defense by a preponderance of the evidence. The amount of the penalty associated with any violation which is upheld shall be adopted by the Administrative Judge unless not supported by the facts, in which event the Administrative Judge will include such information in the Administrative Judge's recommended decisions to the Under Secretary for reconsideration of the amount of the penalty based on the Administrate Judge's resolution of the factual issues.
</P>
<P>(13) Within 180 days of receiving a copy of the hearing transcript, or the closing of the record, whichever is later, the Administrative Judge shall issue a recommended decision. The recommended decision shall contain findings of fact and conclusions regarding all material issues of law, as well as the reasons therefor. If the Administrative Judge determines that a violation has occurred and that a civil penalty is appropriate, the recommended decision shall set forth the amount of the civil penalty based on the factors in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(14) The Administrative Judge shall forward the recommended decision to the Under Secretary for Nuclear Security. The Under Secretary for Nuclear Security shall make a final decision as soon as practicable after completing his/her review. This may include compromising, mitigating, or remitting the penalties in accordance with section 234 a. of the AEA, as amended. DOE shall notify the person of the Under Secretary for Nuclear Security's final decision or other action under this paragraph in writing by certified mail, return receipt requested. The person against whom the civil penalty is assessed by the final decision shall pay the full amount of the civil penalty assessed in the final decision within 30 calendar days unless otherwise determined by the Under Secretary for Nuclear Security.
</P>
<P>(15) If a civil penalty assessed in a final decision is not paid as provided in paragraphs(c)(3), (6), or (14) of this section, as appropriate, the Under Secretary for Nuclear Security may request the Department of Justice to initiate a civil action to collect the penalty imposed under this paragraph in accordance with section 234 c. of the AEA.
</P>
<P>(16) The Under Secretary for Nuclear Security or his/her designee may publish redacted versions of notices of violation and final decisions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 9375, Feb. 23, 2015, as amended at 88 FR 1979, Jan. 12, 2023; 89 FR 1028, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105406, Dec. 27, 2024]
</CITA>
<P> 
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 810.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 810.16   Effective date and savings clause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part are effective March 25, 2015.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for actions that may be taken by DOE pursuant to § 810.10, the regulations in this part do not affect the validity or terms of any specific authorizations granted under regulations in effect before March 25, 2015 or generally authorized activities under those regulations for which the contracts, purchase orders, or licensing arrangements were already in effect. Persons engaging in activities that were generally authorized under regulations in effect before March 25, 2015, but that require specific authorization under the regulations in this part, must request specific authorization by August 24, 2015 and may continue their activities until DOE acts on the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.24.0.16.17.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 810—Generally Authorized Destinations
</HEAD>
<SCOL2>
<LI>Argentina</LI>
<LI>Australia</LI>
<LI>Austria</LI>
<LI>Belgium</LI>
<LI>Brazil</LI>
<LI>Bulgaria</LI>
<LI>Canada</LI>
<LI>Chile (For all activities related to INFCIRC/834 only)</LI>
<LI>Croatia</LI>
<LI>Cyprus</LI>
<LI>Czech Republic</LI>
<LI>Denmark</LI>
<LI>Estonia</LI>
<LI>Finland</LI>
<LI>France</LI>
<LI>Germany</LI>
<LI>Greece</LI>
<LI>Hungary</LI>
<LI>Indonesia</LI>
<LI>International Atomic Energy Agency</LI>
<LI>Ireland</LI>
<LI>Italy</LI>
<LI>Japan</LI>
<LI>Kazakhstan</LI>
<LI>Korea, Republic of</LI>
<LI>Latvia</LI>
<LI>Lithuania</LI>
<LI>Luxembourg</LI>
<LI>Malta</LI>
<LI>Mexico</LI>
<LI>Morocco</LI>
<LI>Netherlands</LI>
<LI>Norway</LI>
<LI>The Philippines</LI>
<LI>Poland</LI>
<LI>Portugal</LI>
<LI>Romania</LI>
<LI>Singapore</LI>
<LI>Slovakia</LI>
<LI>Slovenia</LI>
<LI>South Africa</LI>
<LI>Spain</LI>
<LI>Sweden</LI>
<LI>Switzerland</LI>
<LI>Taiwan</LI>
<LI>Thailand</LI>
<LI>Turkey</LI>
<LI>Ukraine (Refer to § 810.14 for specific information and requirements)</LI>
<LI>United Arab Emirates</LI>
<LI>United Kingdom</LI>
<LI>Vietnam




</LI></SCOL2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 9375, Feb. 23, 2015, as amended at 88 FR 8219, Feb. 8, 2023; 90 FR 52849, Nov. 24, 2025; 91 FR 36073, June 16, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="820" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 820—PROCEDURAL RULES FOR DOE NUCLEAR ACTIVITIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201; 2282(a); 7191; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 50 U.S.C. 2410.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 43692, Aug. 17, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This part sets forth the procedures to govern the conduct of persons involved in DOE nuclear activities and, in particular, to achieve compliance with the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements by all persons subject to those requirements. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Questions not addressed by these rules.</I> Questions that are not addressed in this part shall be resolved at the discretion of the DOE Official. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion.</I> Activities and facilities covered under E.O. 12344, 42 U.S.C. 7158 note, pertaining to Naval nuclear propulsion are excluded from the requirements of subparts D and E of this part regarding interpretations and exemptions related to this part. The Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors or his designee will be responsible for formulating, issuing, and maintaining appropriate records of interpretations and exemptions for these facilities and activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43692, Aug. 17, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following definitions apply to this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> or <I>AEA</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Law Judge</I> means an Administrative Law Judge appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105. 
</P>
<P><I>Consent Agreement</I> means any written document, signed by the Director and a person, containing stipulations or conclusions of fact or law and a remedy acceptable to both the Director and the person. 
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any person under contract (or its subcontractors or suppliers) with the Department of Energy with the responsibility to perform activities or to supply services or products that are subject to DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. 
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Energy or any predecessor agency.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the DOE Official to whom the Secretary has assigned the authority to issue Notices of Violation under subpart B of this part, including the Director of Enforcement, or his designee. With regard to activities and facilities covered under E.O. 12344, 42 U.S.C. 7158 note, pertaining to Naval nuclear propulsion, the Director shall mean the Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors or his designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Docketing Clerk</I> means the Office in DOE with which documents for an enforcement action must be filed and which is responsible for maintaining a record and a public docket for enforcement actions commencing with the filing of a Preliminary Notice of Violation. It is also the Office with which interpretations, exemptions, and any other documents designated by the Secretary shall be filed. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy or any predecessor agency.

 </P>
<P><I>DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements</I> means the set of rules, regulations, orders, and other requirements relating to nuclear safety adopted by DOE to govern the conduct of persons in connection with any DOE nuclear activity and includes any program, plan, or other provision required to implement these rules, regulations, orders, or other requirements. DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 CFR part 830;
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 CFR part 835;
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 CFR 820.11;
</P>
<P>(iv) Compliance Orders issued pursuant to 10 CFR part 820, subpart C; and
</P>
<P>(v) 10 CFR 708.43, to the extent that subject activities concern nuclear safety.
</P>
<P><I>DOE Official</I> means the person, or his designee, in charge of making a decision under this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Enforcement adjudication</I> means the portion of the enforcement process that commences when a respondent requests an on-the-record adjudication of the assessment of a civil penalty and terminates when a Presiding Officer files an initial decision. 
</P>
<P><I>Exemption</I> means the final order that sets forth the relief, waiver, or release, either temporary or permanent, from a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement, as granted by the appropriate Secretarial Officer pursuant to the provisions of subpart E of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Filing</I> means, except as otherwise specifically indicated, the completion of providing a document to the Office of the Docketing Clerk and serving the document on the person to whom the document is addressed. 
</P>
<P><I>Final Notice of Violation</I> means a document issued by the Director in which the Director determines that the respondent has violated or is continuing to violate a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement and includes: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement specifying the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement to which the violation relates; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A concise statement of the basis for the determination; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any remedy, including the amount of any civil penalty; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement explaining the reasoning behind any remedy; and 
</P>
<P>(v) If the Notice assesses a civil penalty, notice of respondent's right: 
</P>
<P>(A) To waive further proceedings and pay the civil penalty; 
</P>
<P>(B) To request an on-the-record adjudication of the assessment of the civil penalty; or 
</P>
<P>(C) To seek judicial review of the assessment of the civil penalty. 
</P>
<P><I>Final Order</I> means an order of the Secretary that represents final agency action and, where appropriate, imposes a remedy with which the recipient of the order must comply. 
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of DOE or his designee. 
</P>
<P><I>Hearing</I> means an on-the-record enforcement adjudication open to the public and conducted under the procedures set forth in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Initial Decision</I> means the decision filed by the Presiding Officer based upon the record of the enforcement adjudication out of which it arises. 
</P>
<P><I>Interpretation</I> means a statement by the General Counsel concerning the meaning or effect of the Act, a Nuclear Statute, or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement which relates to a specific factual situation but may also be a ruling of general applicability where the General Counsel determines such action to be appropriate. 
</P>
<P><I>NNSA</I> means the National Nuclear Security Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear Statute</I> means any statute or provision of a statute that relates to a DOE nuclear activity and for which DOE is responsible. 
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means the Director and the respondent in an enforcement adjudication under this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency, any State or political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity and any legal successor, representative, agent or agency of the foregoing; provided that person does not include the Department or the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission. For purposes of civil penalty assessment, the term also includes affiliated entities, such as a parent corporation. 
</P>
<P><I>Preliminary Notice of Violation</I> means a document issued by the Director in which the Director sets forth the preliminary conclusions that the respondent has violated or is continuing to violate a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement and includes: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement specifying the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement to which the violation relates; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A concise statement of the basis for alleging the violation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any proposed remedy, including the amount of any proposed civil penalty; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement explaining the reasoning behind any proposed remedy. 
</P>
<P><I>Presiding Officer</I> means the Administrative Law Judge designated to be in charge of an enforcement adjudication who shall conduct a fair and impartial hearing, assure that the facts are fully elicited, adjudicate all issues, avoid delay, and shall have authority to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct an adjudicatory hearing under this part; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Rule upon motions, requests, and offers of proof, dispose of procedural requests, and issue all necessary orders; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Exercise the authority set forth in § 820.8; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Admit or exclude evidence; 
</P>
<P>(v) Hear and decide questions of fact, law, or discretion, except for the validity of regulations and interpretations issued by DOE; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Require parties to attend conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues, or the expedition of the proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Draw adverse inferences against a party that fails to comply with his orders; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Do all other acts and take all measures necessary for the maintenance of order and for the efficient, fair and impartial adjudication of issues arising in proceedings governed by these rules. 
</P>
<P><I>Remedy</I> means any action necessary or appropriate to rectify, prevent, or penalize a violation of the Act, a Nuclear Statute, or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements, including the assessment of civil penalties, the requirement of specific actions, or the modification, suspension or recision of a contract. 
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means any person to whom the Director addresses a Notice of Violation. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretarial Officer</I> means an individual who is appointed to a position in the Department by the President of the United States with the advice and consent of the Senate or the head of a departmental element who is primarily responsible for the conduct of an activity under the Act. With regard to activities and facilities covered under E.O. 12344, 42 U.S.C. 7158 note, pertaining to Naval nuclear propulsion, Secretarial Officer means the Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy or his designee. 
</P>
<P>(b) Terms defined in the Act and not defined in these rules are used consistent with the meanings given in the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) As used in this part, words in the singular also include the plural and words in the masculine gender also include the feminine and vice versa, as the case may require. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43692, Aug. 17, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 72 FR 31921, June 8, 2007; 81 FR 94913, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.3   Separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Separation of functions.</I> After a respondent requests an on-the-record adjudication of an assessment of a civil penalty contained in a Final Notice of Violation, no person shall participate in a decision-making function in an enforcement proceeding if he has been, is or will be responsible for an investigative or prosecutorial function related to that proceeding or if he reports to the person responsible for the investigative or prosecutorial function. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Director.</I> The Director shall be responsible for the investigation and prosecution of violations of the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. After the request for an enforcement adjudication, the Director shall not discuss <I>ex parte</I> the merits of the proceeding with a DOE Official or any person likely to advise the DOE Official in the decision of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presiding Officer.</I> A Presiding Officer shall perform no duties inconsistent with his responsibilities as a Presiding Officer, and will not be responsible to or subject to the supervision or direction of any officer or employee engaged in the performance of an investigative or prosecutorial function. The Presiding Officer may not consult any person other than a member of his staff or a special assistant on any fact at issue unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate, except as required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters as authorized by law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.4   Conflict of interest.</HEAD>
<P>A DOE Official may not perform functions provided for in this part regarding any matter in which he has a financial interest or has any relationship that would make it inappropriate for him to act. A DOE Official shall withdraw at any time from any action in which he deems himself disqualified or unable to act for any reason. Any interested person may at any time request the General Counsel to disqualify a DOE Official or request that the General Counsel disqualify himself. In the case of an enforcement adjudication, a motion to disqualify shall be made to the Presiding Officer. The request shall be supported by affidavits setting forth the grounds for disqualification of the DOE Official. A decision shall be made as soon as practicable and information may be requested from any person concerning the matter. If a DOE Official is disqualified or withdraws from the proceeding, a qualified individual who has none of the infirmities listed in this section shall replace him. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.5   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Any document filed with the Docketing Clerk must be served on the addressee of the document and shall not be considered filed until service is complete and unless accompanied by proof of service; provided that the filing with the Docketing Clerk of any document addressed to the DOE Official shall be considered service on the DOE Official. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service in an Enforcement Adjudication.</I> Any document filed in an enforcement adjudication must be served on all other participants in the adjudication. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Who may be served.</I> Any paper required to be served upon a person shall be served upon him or upon the representative designated by him or by law to receive service of papers. When an attorney has entered an appearance on behalf of a person, service must be made upon the attorney of record. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How service may be made.</I> Service may be made by personal delivery, by first class, certified or registered mail or as otherwise authorized or required by the DOE Official. The DOE Official may require service by express mail. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When service is complete.</I> Service upon a person is complete: 
</P>
<P>(1) By personal delivery, on handing the paper to the individual, or leaving it at his office with his clerk or other person in charge or, if there is no one in charge, leaving it in a conspicuous place therein or, if the office is closed or the person to be served has no office, leaving it at his usual place of residence with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing there; 
</P>
<P>(2) By mail, on deposit in the United States mail, properly stamped and addressed; or 
</P>
<P>(3) By any other means authorized or required by the DOE Official. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Proof of service.</I> Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom served and the manner and date of service, shall be shown for each document filed, and may be made by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Written acknowledgement of the person served or his counsel; 
</P>
<P>(2) The certificate of counsel if he has made the service; 
</P>
<P>(3) The affidavit of the person making the service; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any other means authorized or required by the DOE Official. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Deemed service.</I> If a document is deemed filed under this part, then the service requirements shall be deemed satisfied when the document is deemed filed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.6   Computation and extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Computation.</I> In computing any period of time set forth in this part, except as otherwise provided, the day of the event from which the designated period begins to run shall not be included. Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal legal holidays shall be included. When a stated time expires on a Saturday, Sunday or Federal legal holiday, the stated time period shall be extended to include the next business day. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extensions of time.</I> A DOE Official may grant an extension of any time period set forth in this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service by mail.</I> Where a pleading or document is served by mail, five (5) days shall be added to the time allowed by these rules for the filing of a responsive pleading or document. Where a pleading or document is served by express mail, only two (2) days shall be added. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.7   Questions of policy or law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification.</I> There shall be no interlocutory appeal from any ruling order, or action decision of a DOE Official except as permitted by this section. A Presiding Officer in an enforcement adjudication may certify, in his discretion, a question to the Secretary, when the order or ruling involves an important question of law or policy concerning which there is substantial grounds for difference of opinion, and either an immediate decision will materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding, or subsequent review will be inadequate or ineffective. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision.</I> The certified question shall be decided as soon as practicable. If the Secretary determines that the question was improvidently certified, or if he takes no action within thirty days of the certification, the certification is dismissed. The Secretary may decide the question on the basis of the submission made by the Presiding Officer or may request further information from any person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.8   Evidentiary matters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A DOE Official may obtain information or evidence for the full and complete investigation of any matter related to a DOE nuclear activity or for any decision required by this part. A DOE Official may sign, issue and serve subpoenas; administer oaths and affirmations; take sworn testimony; compel attendance of and sequester witnesses; control dissemination of any record of testimony taken pursuant to this section; subpoena and reproduce books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, contracts, agreements, or other relevant records or tangible evidence including, but not limited to, information retained in computerized or other automated systems in possession of the subpoenaed person. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special Report Orders.</I> A DOE Official may issue a Special Report Order (SRO) requiring any person involved in a DOE nuclear activity or otherwise subject to the jurisdiction of DOE to file a special report providing information relating to a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement, the Act, or a Nuclear Statute, including but not limited to written answers to specific questions. The SRO may be in addition to any other reports required by this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extension of Time.</I> The DOE Official who issues a subpoena or SRO pursuant to this section, for good cause shown, may extend the time prescribed for compliance with the subpoena or SRO and negotiate and approve the terms of satisfactory compliance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration.</I> Prior to the time specified for compliance, but in no event more than 10 days after the date of service of the subpoena or SRO, the person upon whom the document was served may request reconsideration of the subpoena or SRO with the DOE Official who issued the document. If the subpoena or SRO is not modified or rescinded within 10 days of the date of the filing of the request, the subpoena or SRO shall be effective as issued and the person upon whom the document was served shall comply with the subpoena or SRO within 20 days of the date of the filing. There is no administrative appeal of a subpoena or SRO. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Service.</I> A subpoena or SRO shall be served in the manner set forth in § 820.5, except that service by mail must be made by registered or certified mail. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fees.</I> (1) A witness subpoenaed by a DOE Official shall be paid the same fees and mileage as paid to a witness in the district courts of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a subpoena is issued at the request of a person other than an officer or agency of the United States, the witness fees and mileage shall be paid by the person who requested the subpoena. However, at the request of the person, the witness fees and mileage shall be paid by the DOE if the person shows: 
</P>
<P>(i) The presence of the subpoenaed witness will materially advance the proceeding; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The person who requested that the subpoena be issued would suffer a serious hardship if required to pay the witness fees and mileage. The DOE Official issuing the subpoena shall make the determination required by this subsection. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Enforcement.</I> If any person upon whom a subpoena or SRO is served pursuant to this section, refuses or fails to comply with any provision of the subpoena or SRO, an action may be commenced in the United States District Court to enforce the subpoena or SRO. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Certification.</I> (1) Documents produced in response to a subpoena shall be accompanied by the sworn certification, under penalty of perjury, of the person to whom the subpoena was directed or his authorized agent that a diligent search has been made for each document responsive to the subpoena, and to the best of his knowledge, information, and belief all such documents responsive to the subpoena are being produced unless withheld on the grounds of privilege pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any information furnished in response to an SRO shall be accompanied by the sworn certification under penalty of perjury of the person to whom it was directed or his authorized agent who actually provides the information that to the best of his knowledge, information and belief a diligent effort has been made to provide all information required by the SRO, and all information furnished is true, complete, and correct unless withheld on grounds of privilege pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) If any document responsive to a subpoena is not produced or any information required by an SRO is not furnished, the certification shall include a statement setting forth every reason for failing to comply with the subpoena or SRO. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Withheld information.</I> If a person to whom a subpoena or SRO is directed withholds any document or information because of a claim of attorney-client or other privilege, the person submitting the certification required by paragraph (h) of this section also shall submit a written list of the documents or the information withheld indicating a description of each document or information, the date of the document, each person shown on the document as having received a copy of the document, each person shown on the document as having prepared or been sent the document, the privilege relied upon as the basis for withholding the document or information, a memorandum of law supporting the claim of privilege, and an identification of the person whose privilege is being asserted. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Statements/testimony.</I> (1) If a person's statement/testimony is taken pursuant to a subpoena, the DOE Official shall determine whether the statement/testimony shall be recorded and the means by which it is recorded. 
</P>
<P>(2) A person whose statement/testimony is recorded may procure a copy of the transcript by making a written request for a copy and paying the appropriate fees. Upon proper identification, any potential witness or his attorney has the right to inspect the official transcript of the witness' own statement or testimony. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Sequestration.</I> The DOE Official may sequester any person who furnishes documents or gives testimony. Unless permitted by the DOE Official, neither a witness nor his attorney shall be present during the examination of any other witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Attorney.</I> (1) Any person whose statement or testimony is taken may be accompanied, represented and advised by his attorney; provided that, if the witness claims a privilege to refuse to answer a question on the grounds of self-incrimination, the witness must assert the privilege personally. 
</P>
<P>(2) The DOE Official shall take all necessary action to regulate the course of testimony and to avoid delay and prevent or restrain contemptuous or obstructionist conduct or contemptuous language. The DOE Official may take actions as the circumstances may warrant in regard to any instances where any attorney refuses to comply with directions or provisions of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.9   Special assistant.</HEAD>
<P>A DOE Official may appoint a person to serve as a special assistant to assist the DOE Official in the conduct of any proceeding under this part. Such appointment may occur at any appropriate time. A special assistant shall be subject to the disqualification provisions in § 820.5. A special assistant may perform those duties assigned by the DOE Official, including but not limited to, serving as technical interrogators, technical advisors and special master. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.10   Office of the docketing clerk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Docket.</I> The Docketing Clerk shall maintain a docket for enforcement actions commencing with the issuance of a Preliminary Notice of Violation, interpretations issued pursuant to subpart D of this part, exemptions issued pursuant to subpart E of this part, and any other matters designated by the Secretary. A docket for an enforcement action shall contain all documents required to be filed in the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public inspection.</I> Subject to the provisions of law restricting the public disclosure of certain information, any person may, during Department business hours, inspect and copy any document filed with the Docketing Clerk. The cost of duplicating documents shall be borne by the person seeking copies of such documents. The DOE Official may waive this cost in appropriate cases. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, after the filing of a Preliminary Notice of Violation, all hearings, conferences, and other meetings in the enforcement process shall be transcribed verbatim. A copy of the transcript shall be filed with the Docketing Clerk promptly. The Docketing Clerk shall serve all participants with notice of the availability of the transcript and shall furnish the participants with a copy of the transcript upon payment of the cost of reproduction, unless a participant can show that the cost is unduly burdensome. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.11   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any information pertaining to a nuclear activity provided to DOE by any person or maintained by any person for inspection by DOE shall be complete and accurate in all material respects. 
</P>
<P>(b) No person involved in a DOE nuclear activity shall conceal or destroy any information concerning a violation of a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement, a Nuclear Statute, or the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.12   Classified, confidential, and controlled information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The DOE Official in charge of a proceeding under this part may utilize any procedures deemed appropriate to safeguard and prevent disclosure of classified, confidential, and controlled information, including Restricted Data and National Security Information, to unauthorized persons, with minimum impairment of rights and obligations under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obligation to protect restricted information.</I> Nothing in this part shall relieve any person from safeguarding classified, confidential, and controlled information, including Restricted Data or National Security Information, in accordance with the applicable provisions of federal statutes and the rules, regulations, and orders of any federal agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.13   Direction to NNSA contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, and pursuant to section 3213 of Pub. L. 106-65, as amended (codified at 50 U.S.C. 2403), the NNSA, rather than the Director, signs, issues and serves the following actions that direct NNSA contractors:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpoenas;
</P>
<P>(2) Orders to compel attendance;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosures of information or documents obtained during an investigation or inspection;
</P>
<P>(4) Preliminary notices of violations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Final notices of violations.
</P>
<P>(b) The NNSA Administrator shall act after consideration of the Director's recommendation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31921, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.1.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.14   Whistleblower protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered acts.</I> An act of retaliation (as defined in 10 CFR 708.2) by a DOE contractor, prohibited by 10 CFR 708.43, that results from a DOE contractor employee's involvement in an activity listed in 10 CFR 708.5(a) through (c) may constitute a violation of a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement if it concerns nuclear safety.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commencement of investigation.</I> The Director may not initiate an investigation or take any other action under this part with respect to an alleged act of retaliation by a DOE contractor until 180 days after an alleged violation of 10 CFR 708.43 occurs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Administrative or judicial proceedings.</I> The Director shall immediately suspend any ongoing activities under this part and suspend any time limits under this part when an administrative or judicial proceeding commences based on the same alleged act of retaliation. While an administrative or judicial proceeding, including appeals, is pending, the Director may not exercise any authority under this part based on an alleged violation of 10 CFR 708.43, including issuing enforcement letters, subpoenas, orders to compel attendance, Consent Orders, Preliminary Notices of Violation, or Final Notices of Violation. Once such a proceeding commences, the Director shall not conduct any activities under this part until sixty days after a final decision of an agency or court finds that a retaliation occurred, or otherwise makes a final disposition of the matter on procedural grounds without explicitly finding that retaliation did not occur.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final decision.</I> For the purposes of this section, a final decision of an agency or court includes any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A final agency decision pursuant to 10 CFR part 708;
</P>
<P>(2) A final decision or order of the Secretary of Labor pursuant to 29 CFR part 24;
</P>
<P>(3) A decision by the Secretary upon a report by the Inspector General;
</P>
<P>(4) A decision by a federal or state court.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Evidentiary record.</I> If a final decision of an agency or court finds that retaliation occurred, the Director may obtain and use information collected as part of those proceedings. The Director has discretion to give appropriate weight to information obtained from these proceedings and to initiate and conduct further investigation if the Director deems necessary, particularly with regard to the relationship between the retaliation and nuclear safety.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Underlying nuclear safety requirements.</I> Notwithstanding the commencement of an administrative or judicial proceeding based on an alleged act of retaliation, this section shall not prevent the Director from taking any action consistent with this part regarding compliance with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements other than 10 CFR 708.43.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94914, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enforcement Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.20   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart establishes the procedures for investigating the nature and extent of violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements, for determining whether a violation of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements has occurred, for imposing an appropriate remedy, and for adjudicating the assessment of a civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basis for civil penalties.</I> DOE may assess civil penalties against any person subject to the provisions of this part who has entered into an agreement of indemnification under 42 U.S.C. 2210(d) (or any subcontractor or supplier thereto), unless exempted from civil penalties as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, on the basis of a violation of a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> With respect to a violation occurring under a contract entered into before August 8, 2005, the following contractors, and subcontractors and suppliers to that prime contract only, are exempt from the assessment of civil penalties under this subpart with respect to the activities specified below:
</P>
<P>(1) The University of Chicago for activities associated with Argonne National Laboratory;
</P>
<P>(2) The University of California for activities associated with Los Alamos National Laboratory, Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory, and Lawrence Berkeley National Laboratory;
</P>
<P>(3) American Telephone and Telegraph Company and its subsidiaries for activities associated with Sandia National Laboratories;
</P>
<P>(4) University Research Association, Inc. for activities associated with FERMI National Laboratory;
</P>
<P>(5) Princeton University for activities associated with Princeton Plasma Physics Laboratory;
</P>
<P>(6) The Associated Universities, Inc. for activities associated with the Brookhaven National Laboratory; and
</P>
<P>(7) Battelle Memorial Institute for activities associated with Pacific Northwest Laboratory.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonprofit educational institutions.</I> With respect to a violation occurring under a contract entered into before August 8, 2005, any educational institution that is considered nonprofit under the United States Internal Revenue Code shall receive automatic remission of any civil penalty assessed under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitation for not-for-profits.</I> With respect to any violation occurring under a contract entered into on or after August 8, 2005, in the case of any not-for-profit contractor, subcontractor, or supplier, the total amount of civil penalties paid under this part may not exceed the total amount of fees paid by DOE to that entity within the U.S. Government fiscal year in which the violation occurs.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Not-for-profit.</I> For purposes of this part, a “not-for-profit” contractor, subcontractor, or supplier is one for which no part of the net earnings of the contractor, subcontractor, or supplier inures to the benefit of any natural person or for-profit artificial person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43692, Aug. 17, 1993, as amended at 74 FR 11843, Mar. 20, 2009; 81 FR 94914, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.21   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may initiate and conduct investigations and inspections relating to the scope, nature and extent of compliance by a person with the Act and the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements and take such action as he deems necessary and appropriate to the conduct of the investigation or inspection, including any action pursuant to § 820.8. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may request the Director to initiate an investigation or inspection pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. A request for an investigation or inspection shall set forth the subject matter or activity to be investigated or inspected as fully as possible and include supporting documentation and information. No particular forms or procedures are required. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who is requested to furnish documentary evidence, information or testimony in an investigation or during an inspection shall be informed, upon written request, of the general purpose of the investigation or inspection. 
</P>
<P>(d) Information or documents that are obtained during any investigation or inspection shall not be disclosed unless the Director directs or authorizes the public disclosure of the investigation. Upon such authorization, the information or documents are a matter of public record and disclosure is not precluded by the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 and 10 CFR part 1004. A request for confidential treatment of information for purposes of the Freedom of Information Act shall not prevent disclosure by the Director if disclosure is determined to be in the public interest and otherwise permitted or required by law. 
</P>
<P>(e) During the course of an investigation or inspection any person may submit at any time any document, statement of facts or memorandum of law for the purpose of explaining the person's position or furnish information which the person considers relevant to a matter or activity under investigation or inspection. 
</P>
<P>(f) If facts disclosed by an investigation or inspection indicate that further action is unnecessary or unwarranted, the investigation may be closed without prejudice to further investigation or inspection by the Director at any time that circumstances so warrant.
</P>
<P>(g) The Director may issue enforcement letters that communicate DOE's expectations with respect to any aspect of the requirements of DOE's Nuclear Safety Requirements, including identification and reporting of issues, corrective actions, and implementation of DOE's Nuclear Safety Requirements, provided that an enforcement letter may not create the basis for any legally enforceable requirement pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(h) The Director may sign, issue and serve subpoenas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43692, Aug. 17, 1993, as amended at 72 FR 31921, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.22   Informal conference.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may convene an informal conference to discuss any situation that might be a violation of the Act or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement, its significance and cause, any correction taken or not taken by the person, any mitigating or aggravating circumstances, and any other useful information. The Director may compel a person to attend the conference. This conference will not normally be open to the public and there shall be no transcript. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.23   Consent order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement policy.</I> DOE encourages settlement of an enforcement proceeding at any time if the settlement is consistent with the objectives of the Act and the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. The Director and a person may confer at any time concerning settlement. These settlement conferences shall not be open to the public and there shall be no transcript. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consent order.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, DOE may at any time resolve any or all issues in an outstanding enforcement proceeding with a Consent Order. A Consent Order must be signed by the Director and the person who is its subject, or a duly authorized representative, must indicate agreement to the terms contained therein and must be filed. A Consent Order need not constitute an admission by any person that the Act or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement has been violated, nor need it constitute a finding by the DOE that such person has violated the Act or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement. A Consent Order shall, however, set forth the relevant facts which form the basis for the Order and what remedy, if any, is imposed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect on enforcement adjudication.</I> If a Consent Order is signed after the commencement of an enforcement adjudication, the adjudication of the issues subject to the Consent Order shall be stayed until the completion of the Secretarial Review Process. If the Consent Order becomes a Final Order, the adjudication shall be terminated or modified as specified in the Order. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Secretarial review.</I> A Consent Order shall become a Final Order 30 days after it is filed unless the Secretary files a rejection of the Consent Order or a Modified Consent Order. A Modified Consent Order shall become a Final Order if the Director and the person who is its subject sign it within 15 days of its filing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.24   Preliminary notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Director has reason to believe a person has violated or is continuing to violate a provision of the Act or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement, he may file a Preliminary Notice of Violation. The Notice and any transmittal documents shall contain sufficient information to fairly apprise the respondent of the facts and circumstances of the alleged violations and the basis of any proposed remedy, and to properly indicate what further actions are necessary by or available to respondent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Within 30 days after the filing of a Preliminary Notice of Violation, the respondent shall file a reply. 
</P>
<P>(c) The reply shall be in writing and signed by the person filing it. The reply shall contain a statement of all relevant facts pertaining to the situation that is the subject of the Notice. The reply shall state any facts, explanations and arguments which support a denial that a violation has occurred as alleged; demonstrate any extenuating circumstances or other reason why the proposed remedy should not be imposed or should be mitigated; and furnish full and complete answers to the questions set forth in the Notice. Copies of all relevant documents shall be submitted with the reply. The reply shall include a discussion of the relevant authorities which support the position asserted, including rulings, regulations, interpretations, and previous decisions issued by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(d) The respondent may terminate an enforcement action if the reply agrees to comply with the proposed remedy and waives any right to contest the Notice or the remedy. If a respondent elects this option, the Preliminary Notice of Violation shall be deemed a Final Order upon the filing of the reply. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.25   Final notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> If, after reviewing the reply submitted by the respondent, the Director determines that a person violated or is continuing to violate a provision of the Act or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement, he may file a Final Notice of Violation. The Final Notice shall concisely state the determined violation, any designated penalty, and further actions necessary by or available to respondent. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of final notice.</I> (1) If a Final Notice of Violation does not contain a civil penalty, it shall be deemed filed as a Final Order 15 days after the Final Notice is filed unless the Secretary files a Final Order which modifies the Final Notice. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a Final Notice of Violation contains a civil penalty, the respondent must file within 30 days after the filing of the Final Notice: 
</P>
<P>(i) A waiver of further proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for an on-the-record adjudication; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A notice of intent to seek judicial review. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of waiver.</I> If a respondent waives further proceedings, the Final Notice of Violation shall be deemed a Final Order enforceable against the respondent. The respondent must pay any civil penalty set forth in the Notice of Violation within 60 days of the filing of waiver unless the Director grants additional time. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of request.</I> If a respondent files a request for an on-the-record adjudication, then an enforcement adjudication commences. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of notice of intent.</I> If a respondent files a Notice of Intent, the Final Notice of Violation shall be deemed a Final Order enforceable against the respondent. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Amendment.</I> The Director may amend the Final Notice of Violation at any time before an action takes place pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. An amendment shall add fifteen days to the time periods under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Withdrawal.</I> The Director may withdraw the Final Notice of Violation, or any part thereof, at any time before an action under paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.26" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.26   Enforcement adjudication.</HEAD>
<P>If a respondent files a request for an on-the-record adjudication, an enforcement adjudication is initiated and the Docketing Clerk shall notify the Secretary who shall appoint an Administrative Law Judge to be the Presiding Officer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.27" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.27   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If a respondent files a request for an on-the-record adjudication pursuant to § 820.25, a written answer to the Final Notice of Violation shall be filed at the same time the request is filed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the answer.</I> The answer shall clearly and directly admit, deny or explain each of the factual allegations contained in the Final Notice of Violation with regard to which respondent has any knowledge, information or belief. Where respondent has no knowledge, information or belief of a particular factual allegation and so states, the allegation is deemed denied. The answer shall also state the circumstance or argument that is alleged to constitute the grounds of defense and the facts that respondent intends to place at issue. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to admit, deny, or explain.</I> Failure of respondent to admit, deny, or explain any material factual allegation contained in the Final Notice of Violation constitutes an admission of the allegation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendment of the answer.</I> The respondent may amend the answer to the Final Notice of Violation upon motion granted by the Presiding Officer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.28" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.28   Prehearing actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Presiding Officer shall establish a schedule for the adjudication and take such other actions as he determines appropriate to conduct the adjudication in a fair and expeditious manner. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conference.</I> The Presiding Officer, at any time before a hearing begins, may direct the parties and their counsel, or other representatives, to appear at a conference before him to consider, as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(1) The settlement of the case; 
</P>
<P>(2) The simplification of issues and stipulation of facts not in dispute; 
</P>
<P>(3) The necessity or desirability of amendments to pleadings; 
</P>
<P>(4) The exchange of exhibits; 
</P>
<P>(5) The limitation of the number of expert or other witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(6) Setting a time and place for the hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Any other matters that may expedite the disposition of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exchange of witness lists and documents.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Presiding Officer, at least five (5) days before any prehearing conference, each party shall make available to all other parties, as appropriate, the names of the expert and other witnesses it intends to call, together with a brief narrative summary of their expected testimony, and copies of all documents and exhibits that each party intends to introduce into evidence. Documents and exhibits shall be marked for identification as ordered by the Presiding Officer. Documents that have not been exchanged and witnesses whose names have not been exchanged shall not be introduced into evidence or allowed to testify without permission of the Presiding Officer. The Presiding Officer shall allow the parties reasonable opportunity to review new evidence. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prehearing conference order.</I> The Presiding Officer shall prepare an order incorporating any action taken at the conference. The summary shall incorporate any written stipulations or agreements of the parties and all rulings and appropriate orders containing directions to the parties. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative to prehearing conference.</I> If a prehearing conference is unnecessary or impracticable, the Presiding Officer, on motion or <I>sua sponte,</I> may direct the parties to make appropriate filings with him to accomplish any of the objectives set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other discovery.</I> (1) Except as provided by paragraph (c) of this section, further discovery under this section shall be permitted only upon determination by the Presiding Officer: 
</P>
<P>(i) That such discovery will not in any way unreasonably delay the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That the information to be obtained is not otherwise obtainable; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) That such information has significant probative value. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Presiding Officer shall order depositions upon oral questions only upon a showing of good cause and upon a finding that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The information sought cannot be obtained by alternative methods; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is substantial reason to believe that relevant and probative evidence may otherwise not be preserved for presentation by a witness at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any party to the proceeding desiring an order to take further discovery shall make a motion therefor. Such a motion shall set forth: 
</P>
<P>(i) The circumstances warranting the taking of the discovery; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The nature of the information expected to be discovered; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposed time and place where it will be taken. If the Presiding Officer determines that the motion should be granted, he shall issue an order for the taking of such discovery together with the conditions and terms thereof. 
</P>
<P>(4) When the information sought to be obtained is within the control of one of the parties, failure to comply with an order issued pursuant to this paragraph may lead to the inference that the information to be discovered would be adverse to the party from whom the information was sought, or the issuance of a default order under 820.38. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.29" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.29   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided by this part or the Presiding Officer, a hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the Federal Rules of Evidence. The Presiding Officer shall have the discretion to admit all evidence that is not irrelevant, immaterial, unduly repetitious, or otherwise unreliable or of little probative value, if he believes the evidence might facilitate the fair and expeditious resolution of the proceeding. But such evidence may be reasonably limited by the Presiding Officer in scope and length in order to permit prompt resolution of the proceeding. In the presentation, admission, disposition, and use of evidence, the Presiding Officer shall preserve the confidentiality of trade secrets and other commercial and financial information, and shall protect classified and unclassified controlled nuclear information, as well as any other information protected from public disclosure pursuant to law or regulation. The confidential, trade secret, or classified or otherwise protected status of any information shall not, however, preclude its being introduced into evidence. The Presiding Officer may make such orders as may be necessary to consider such evidence in camera, including the preparation of a supplemental initial decision to address questions of law, fact, or discretion that arise out of that portion of the evidence that is confidential, includes trade secrets, is classified, or is otherwise protected. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subpoenas.</I> The attendance of witnesses or the production of documentary evidence may be required by subpoena. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> There shall be no direct oral testimony by witnesses, except as permitted by the Presiding Officer. In lieu of oral testimony, the Presiding Officer shall admit into the record as evidence verified written statements of fact or opinion prepared by a witness. The admissibility of the evidence contained in the statement shall be subject to the same rules as if the testimony were produced under oral examination. Before any such statement is read or admitted into evidence, the witness shall have delivered a copy of the statement to the Presiding Officer and the opposing counsel not less than 10 days prior to the date the witness is scheduled to testify. The witness presenting the statement shall swear or affirm that the statement is true and accurate to the best of his knowledge, information, and belief and shall be subject to appropriate oral cross-examination upon the contents thereof provided such cross-examination is not unduly repetitious. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Burden of presentation; burden of persuasion.</I> The Director has the burden of going forward with and of proving that the violation occurred as set forth in the Notice of Violation and that the proposed civil penalty is appropriate. Following the establishment of a <I>prima facie</I> case, respondent shall have the burden of presenting and of going forward with any defense to the allegations set forth in the Notice of Violation. Each matter of controversy shall be determined by the Presiding Officer upon a preponderance of the evidence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.30   Post-hearing filings.</HEAD>
<P>Within fifteen days after the filing of the transcript of the hearing, or within such longer time as may be fixed by the Presiding Officer, any party may file for the consideration of the Presiding Officer, proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and a proposed order, together with briefs in support thereof. Reply briefs may be filed within ten days of the filing of briefs. All filings shall be in writing, shall be served upon all parties, and shall contain adequate references to the record and authorities relied on. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.31   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial Decision.</I> The Presiding Officer shall file an Initial Decision as soon as practicable after the period for filing reply briefs under 820.30 has expired. The Initial Decision shall contain findings of fact, conclusions regarding all material issues of law or discretion, as well as reasons therefor, any remedy and a proposed Final Order. A party may file comments on an Initial Decision within fifteen days of its filing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of civil penalty.</I> If the Presiding Officer determines that a violation has occurred and that a civil penalty is appropriate, the Initial Decision shall set forth the dollar amount of the civil penalty. If the Presiding Officer decides to assess a penalty different in amount from the penalty assessed in the Final Notice of Violation, the Initial Decision shall set forth the specific reasons for the increase or decrease. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.32   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect of Initial Decision.</I> The Initial Decision shall be deemed filed as a Final Order thirty days after the filing of the Initial Decision unless the Secretary files a Final Order that modifies the Initial Decision or the Secretary files a Notice of Review. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of review.</I> If the Secretary files a Notice of Review, he shall file a Final Order as soon as practicable after completing his review. The Secretary may, at his discretion, order additional procedures, remand the matter or modify the remedy, including an increase or decrease in the amount of the civil penalty from the amount recommended to be assessed in the Initial Decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment of a civil penalty.</I> The respondent shall pay the full amount of any civil penalty assessed in the Final Order within thirty (30) days after the Final Order is filed unless otherwise agreed by the parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.33   Default order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Default.</I> The Presiding Officer, upon motion by a party or the filing of a Notice of Intent to issue a Default Order <I>sua sponte,</I> may find a party to be in default if the party fails to comply with the provisions of this part or an order of the Presiding Officer. The alleged defaulting party shall have ten days to answer the motion or the Notice of Intent. No finding of default shall be made against the respondent unless the Director presents sufficient evidence to the Presiding Officer to establish a <I>prima facie</I> case against the respondent. Default by respondent constitutes, for purposes of the pending action only, an admission of all facts alleged in the Final Notice of Violation and a waiver of respondent's rights to an on-the-record adjudication of such factual allegations. Default by the Director shall result in an order to dismiss the Final Notice of Violation with prejudice. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of default order.</I> When the Presiding Officer finds a default has occurred, he shall file a Default Order against the defaulting party. This order shall constitute an Initial Decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of a default order.</I> A Default Order shall include findings of fact showing the grounds for the order, conclusions regarding all material issues of fact, law or discretion, and the remedy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.34   Accelerated decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Presiding Officer, upon motion of any party or <I>sua sponte,</I> may at any time render an Accelerated Decision in favor of the Director or the respondent as to all or any part of the adjudication, without further hearing or upon such limited additional evidence, such as affidavits, as he may require, if no genuine issue of material fact exists and a party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law, as to all or any part of the adjudication. In addition, the Presiding Officer, upon motion of the respondent, may render at any time an Accelerated Decision to dismiss an action without further hearing or upon such limited additional evidence as he requires, on the basis of failure to establish a <I>prima facie</I> case or other grounds that show no right to relief on the part of the Director. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of Accelerated Decision.</I> (1) If an Accelerated Decision is rendered as to all the issues and claims in the adjudication, the decision constitutes an Initial Decision of the Presiding Officer, and shall be filed with the Docketing Clerk. 
</P>
<P>(2) If an Accelerated Decision is rendered on less than all issues or claims in the adjudication, the Presiding Officer shall determine what material facts exist without substantial controversy and what material facts remain controverted in good faith. He shall thereupon file an interlocutory order specifying the facts that appear substantially uncontroverted, and the issues and claims upon which the adjudication will proceed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.35" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.35   <E T="7462">Ex parte</E> discussions.</HEAD>
<P>At no time after a respondent has requested an on-the-record adjudication of the assessment of a civil penalty shall a DOE Official, or any person who is likely to advise a DOE Official in the decision on the case, discuss <I>ex parte</I> the merits of the proceeding with any interested person outside DOE, with any DOE staff member who performs a prosecutorial or investigative function in such proceeding or a factually related proceeding, or with any representative of such person. Any <I>ex parte</I> memorandum or other communication addressed to a DOE Official during the pendency of the proceeding and relating to the merits thereof, by or on behalf of any party shall be regarded as argument made in the proceeding and shall be served upon all other parties. Any oral communication shall be set forth in a written memorandum and served on all other parties. The other parties shall be given an opportunity to reply to such memorandum or communication. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.36" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.36   Filing, form, and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing in an enforcement proceeding.</I> The original and three copies of any document in an enforcement proceeding shall be filed with the Docketing Clerk commencing with the filing of a Preliminary Notice of Violation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of documents in an enforcement proceeding.</I> (1) Except as provided herein, or by order of the DOE Official, there are no specific requirements as to the form of documents filed in an enforcement proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(2) The first page of every document shall contain a caption identifying the respondent and the docket number. 
</P>
<P>(3) The original of any document (other than exhibits) shall be signed by the person filing it or by his counsel or other representative. The signature constitutes a representation by the signer that he has read the pleading, letter or other document, that to the best of his knowledge, information and belief, the statements made therein are true, and that it is not interposed for delay. 
</P>
<P>(4) The initial document filed by any person shall contain his name, address and telephone number. Any changes in this information shall be communicated promptly to the Docketing Clerk and all participants to the proceeding. A person who fails to furnish such information and any changes thereto shall be deemed to have waived his right to notice and service under this part. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Docketing Clerk may refuse to file any document that does not comply with this section. Written notice of such refusal, stating the reasons therefor, shall be promptly given to the person submitting the document. Such person may amend and resubmit any document refused for filing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.37" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.37   Participation in an adjudication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Parties.</I> In an enforcement adjudication, the Director and the respondent shall be the only parties; provided that the Presiding Officer may permit a person to intervene as a party if the person demonstrates it could be liable in the event a civil penalty is assessed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appearances.</I> Any party to an enforcement adjudication may appear in person or by counsel or other representative. A partner may appear on behalf of a partnership and an officer may appear on behalf of a corporation. Persons who appear as counsel or other representative must conform to the standards of conduct and ethics required of practitioners before the courts of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amicus Curiae.</I> Persons not parties to an enforcement adjudication who wish to file briefs may so move. The motion shall identify the interest of the person and shall state the reasons why the proposed amicus brief is desirable. If the motion is granted, the Presiding Officer shall issue an order setting the time for filing such brief. An <I>amicus curiae</I> is eligible to participate in any briefing after his motion is granted, and shall be served with all briefs, reply briefs, motions, and orders relating to issues to be briefed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.38" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.38   Consolidation and severance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> The Presiding Officer may, by motion or <I>sua sponte,</I> consolidate any or all matters at issue in two or more enforcement adjudications under this part where there exists common parties or common questions of fact or law, consolidation would expedite and simplify consideration of the issues, and consolidation would not adversely affect the rights of parties engaged in otherwise separate adjudications. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The Presiding Officer may, by motion or <I>sua sponte,</I> for good cause shown order any enforcement adjudication severed with respect to any or all parties or issues. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.39" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.2.16.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.39   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> All motions in an enforcement adjudication except those made orally, shall be in writing, state the grounds therefor with particularity, set forth the relief or order sought, and be accompanied by any affidavit, certificate, other evidence, or legal memorandum relied upon. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Answer to motions.</I> Except as otherwise specified by a particular provision of this part or by the Presiding Officer, a party shall have the right to file a written answer to the motion of another party within 10 days after the filing of such motion. The answer shall be accompanied by any affidavit, certificate, other evidence, or legal memorandum relied upon. If no answer is filed within the designated period, the party may be deemed to have waived any objection to the granting of the motion. The Presiding Officer may set a shorter or longer time for an answer, or make such other orders concerning the disposition of motions as he deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision.</I> The Presiding Officer shall rule on a motion as soon as practicable after the filing of the answer. The decision of the Presiding Officer on any motion shall not be subject to administrative appeal. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Compliance Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.3.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.40   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides for the issuance of Compliance Orders to prevent, rectify or penalize violations of the Act, a Nuclear Statute, or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement and to require action consistent with the Act, a Nuclear Statute, or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.41" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.3.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.41   Compliance order.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary may issue to any person involved in a DOE nuclear activity a Compliance Order that: 
</P>
<P>(a) Identifies a situation that violates, potentially violates, or otherwise is inconsistent with the Act, a Nuclear Statute, or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement; 
</P>
<P>(b) Mandates a remedy or other action; and, 
</P>
<P>(c) States the reasons for the remedy or other action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.42" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.3.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.42   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>A Compliance Order is a Final Order that constitutes a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement that is effective immediately unless the Order specifies a different effective date. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.43" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.3.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.43   Appeal.</HEAD>
<P>Within fifteen days of the issuance of a Compliance Order, the recipient of the Order may request the Secretary to rescind or modify the Order. A request shall not stay the effectiveness of a Compliance Order unless the Secretary issues an order to that effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.50" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.4.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.50   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides for interpretations of the Act, Nuclear Statutes, and DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. Any written or oral response to any written or oral question which is not provided pursuant to this subpart does not constitute an interpretation and does not provide any basis for action inconsistent with the Act, a Nuclear Statute, or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.51" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.4.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.51   General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel shall be the DOE Official responsible for formulating and issuing any interpretation concerning the Act, a Nuclear Statute or a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.52" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.4.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.52   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel may utilize any procedure which he deems appropriate to comply with his responsibilities under this subpart. All interpretations issued under this subpart must be filed with the Office of the Docketing Clerk which shall maintain a docket for interpretations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exemption Relief</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.60" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.60   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides for exemption relief from provisions of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements at nuclear facilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.61" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.61   Secretarial officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretarial Officer who is primarily responsible for the activity to which a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement relates may grant a temporary or permanent exemption from that requirement as requested by any person subject to its provisions; provided that, the Secretarial Officer responsible for environment, safety and health matters shall exercise this authority with respect to provisions relating to radiological protection of workers, the public and the environment. This authority may not be further delegated. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.62" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.62   Criteria.</HEAD>
<P>The criteria for granting an exemption to a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement are determinations that the exemption: 
</P>
<P>(a) Would be authorized by law; 
</P>
<P>(b) Would not present an undue risk to public health and safety, the environment, or facility workers; 
</P>
<P>(c) Would be consistent with the safe operation of a DOE nuclear facility; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Involves special circumstances, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Application of the requirement in the particular circumstances conflicts with other requirements; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Application of the requirement in the particular circumstances would not serve or is not necessary to achieve its underlying purpose, or would result in resource impacts which are not justified by the safety improvements; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Application of the requirement would result in a situation significantly different than that contemplated when the requirement was adopted, or that is significantly different from that encountered by others similarly situated; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The exemption would result in benefit to human health and safety that compensates for any detriment that may result from the grant of the exemption; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Circumstances exist which would justify temporary relief from application of the requirement while taking good faith action to achieve compliance; or 
</P>
<P>(6) There is present any other material circumstance not considered when the requirement was adopted for which it would be in the public interest to grant an exemption. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.63" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.63   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretarial Officer shall utilize any procedures deemed necessary and appropriate to comply with his responsibilities under this subpart. All exemption decisions must set forth in writing the reasons for granting or denying the exemption, and if granted, the basis for the determination that the criteria in § 820.62 have been met and the terms of the exemption. All exemption decisions must be filed with the Office of the Docketing Clerk which shall maintain a docket for exemption decisions issued pursuant to this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.64" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.64   Terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>An exemption may contain appropriate terms and conditions including, but not limited to, provisions that : 
</P>
<P>(a) Limit its duration; 
</P>
<P>(b) Require alternative action; 
</P>
<P>(c) Require partial compliance; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Establish a schedule for full or partial compliance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.65" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.65   Implementation plan.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement for which there is no regulatory provision for an implementation plan or schedule, an exemption may be granted to establish an implementation plan which reasonably demonstrates that full compliance with the requirement will be achieved within two years of the effective date of the requirement without a determination of special circumstances under § 820.62(d). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.66" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.66   Appeal.</HEAD>
<P>Within fifteen (15) days of the filing of an exemption decision by a Secretarial Officer, the person requesting the exemption may file a Request to Review with the Secretary, or the Secretary may file, <I>sua sponte,</I> a Notice of Review. The Request to Review shall state specifically the respects in which the exemption determination is claimed to be erroneous, the grounds of the request, and the relief requested. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.67" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.5.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.67   Final order.</HEAD>
<P>If no filing is made under § 820.66, an exemption decision becomes a Final Order fifteen (15) days after it is filed by a Secretarial Officer. If filing is made under § 820.66, an exemption decision becomes a Final Order 45 days after it is filed by a Secretarial Officer, unless the Secretary stays the effective date or issues a Final Order that modifies the decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Criminal Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.70" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.6.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.70   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides for the identification of criminal violations of the Act or DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements and the referral of such violations to the Department of Justice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.71" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.6.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.71   Standard.</HEAD>
<P>If a person subject to the Act or the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements has, by act or omission, knowingly and willfully violated, caused to be violated, attempted to violate, or conspired to violate any section of the Act or any applicable DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement, the person shall be subject to criminal sanctions under the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.72" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.6.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.72   Referral to the Attorney General.</HEAD>
<P>If there is reason to believe a criminal violation of the Act or the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements has occurred, DOE may refer the matter to the Attorney General of the United States for investigation or prosecution. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Civil Penalties</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 46184, Sept. 2, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 820.80" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.7.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.80   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (the Act) (Pub. L. 101-410), as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-134, section 31001) and the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Pub. L. 114-74, section 701). 28 U.S.C. 2461 note. As amended, the Act requires each agency head to adjust by regulation each civil monetary penalty provided by law within the jurisdiction of the Federal agency by the inflation adjustment specified in 28 U.S.C. 2461 note. This subpart increases the civil penalty amount specified in 42 U.S.C. 2282a. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 46184, Sept. 2, 1997, as amended at 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 820.81" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.7.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 820.81   Amount of penalty.</HEAD>
<P>Any person subject to a penalty under 42 U.S.C. 2282a shall be subject to a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $262,614 for each such violation. If any violation under 42 U.S.C. 2282a is a continuing one, each day of such violation shall constitute a separate violation for the purpose of computing the applicable civil penalty. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 46184, Sept. 2, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 66033, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96352, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1292, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1029, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105407, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.25.7.16.3.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 820—General Statement of Enforcement Policy
</HEAD>
<HD2>I. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>(a) This policy statement sets forth the general framework through which the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) will seek to ensure compliance with its enforceable nuclear safety regulations and orders (hereafter collectively referred to as DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements) and, in particular, exercise the civil penalty authority provided to DOE in the Price Anderson Amendments Act of 1988, 42 U.S.C. 2282a (PAAA). The policy set forth herein is applicable to violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements by DOE contractors who are indemnified under the Price Anderson Act, 42 U.S.C. 2210(d), and their subcontractors and suppliers (hereafter collectively referred to as DOE contractors). This policy statement is not a regulation and is intended only to provide general guidance to those persons subject to DOE's Nuclear Safety Requirements as specified in the PAAA. It is not intended to establish a “cookbook” approach to the initiation and resolution of situations involving noncompliance with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. Rather, DOE intends to consider the particular facts of each noncompliance situation in determining whether enforcement sanctions are appropriate and, if so, the appropriate magnitude of those sanctions. DOE may well deviate from this policy statement when appropriate in the circumstances of particular cases. This policy statement is not applicable to activities and facilities covered under E.O. 12344, 42 U.S.C. 7158 note, pertaining to Naval nuclear propulsion. 
</P>
<P>(b) Both the Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101, and the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2011, require DOE to protect the public health and safety, as well as the safety of workers at DOE facilities, in conducting its nuclear activities, and grant DOE broad authority to achieve this goal. 
</P>
<P>(c) The DOE goal in the compliance arena is to enhance and protect the radiological health and safety of the public and worker at DOE facilities by fostering a culture among both the DOE line organizations and the contractors that activity seeks to attain and sustain compliance with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. The enforcement program and policy have been developed with the express purpose of achieving safety inquisitiveness and voluntary compliance. DOE will establish effective administrative processes and positive incentives to the contractors for the open and prompt identification and reporting of noncompliances, and the initiation of comprehensive corrective actions to resolve both the noncompliance conditions and the program or process deficiencies that led to noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(d) In the development of the DOE enforcement policy, DOE recognizes that the reasonable exercise of its enforcement authority can help to reduce the likelihood of serious incidents. This can be accomplished by providing greater emphasis on a culture of safety in existing DOE operations, and strong incentives for contractors to identify and correct noncompliance conditions and processes in order to protect human health and the environment. DOE wants to facilitate, encourage, and support contractor initiatives for the prompt identification and correction of problems. These initiatives and activities will be duly considered in exercising enforcement discretion. 
</P>
<P>(e) The PAAA provides DOE with the authority to compromise, modify, or remit civil penalties with or without conditions. In implementing the PAAA, DOE will carefully consider the facts of each case of noncompliance and will exercise appropriate discretion in taking any enforcement action. Part of the function of a sound enforcement program is to assure a proper and continuing level of safety vigilance. The reasonable exercise of enforcement authority will be facilitated by the appropriate application of safety requirements to nuclear facilities and by promoting and coordinating the proper contractor and DOE safety compliance attitude toward those requirements. 
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<HD2>II. Purpose 
</HD2>
<P>The purpose of the DOE enforcement program is to promote and protect the radiological health and safety of the public and workers at DOE facilities by: 
</P>
<P>a. Ensuring compliance by DOE contractors with applicable DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. 
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<P>b. Providing positive incentives for a DOE contractor's: 
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<P>(1) Timely self-identification of nuclear safety deficiencies, 
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<P>(2) Prompt and complete reporting of such deficiencies to DOE, 
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<P>(3) Root cause analyses of nuclear safety deficiencies, 
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<P>(4) Prompt correction of nuclear safety deficiencies in a manner which precludes recurrence, and 
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<P>(5) Identification of modifications in practices or facilities that can improve public or worker radiological health and safety. 
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<P>c. Deterring future violations of DOE requirements by a DOE contractor. 
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<P>d. Encouraging the continuous overall improvement of operations at DOE nuclear facilities. 
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<HD2>III. Statutory Authority 
</HD2>
<P>Section 17 of the PAAA makes most DOE contractors covered by the DOE Price-Anderson indemnification system, and their subcontractors and suppliers, subject to civil penalties for violations of applicable DOE nuclear safety rules, regulations and orders. 42 U.S.C. 2282a. Furthermore, section 18 of the PAAA makes all employees of DOE contractors, and their subcontractors and suppliers, subject to criminal penalties, including monetary penalties and imprisonment, for knowing and willful violations of applicable DOE nuclear safety rules, regulations and orders. 42 U.S.C. 2273(c). Suspected, or alleged, criminal violations are referred to the Department of Justice for appropriate action. 42 U.S.C. 2271. Therefore, DOE's enforcement authority and policy will apply only to civil penalties since decisions on criminal violations are the responsibility of the Department of Justice. However, referral of a case to the Department of Justice does not preclude DOE from taking civil enforcement action in accordance with this policy statement. Such actions will be coordinated with the Department of Justice to the extent practicable. 
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<HD2>IV. Responsibilities 
</HD2>
<P>(a) The Director, as the principal enforcement officer of DOE, has been delegated the authority to:
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<P>(1) Conduct enforcement inspections, investigations, and conferences;
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<P>(2) Issue Notices of Violations and proposed civil penalties, Enforcement Letters, Consent Orders, and subpoenas; and
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<P>(3) Issue orders to compel attendance and disclosure of information or documents obtained during an investigation or inspection.
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<P>(b) The NNSA Administrator, pursuant to section 3212 (b)(9) of Public Law 106-65 (codified at 50 U.S.C. 2402 (b)(9)), as amended, has authority over and responsibility for environment, safety and health operations within NNSA and is authorized to sign, issue and serve the following actions that direct NNSA contractors:
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<P>(1) Subpoenas;
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<P>(2) Orders to compel attendance;
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<P>(3) Disclosure of information or documents obtained during an investigation or inspection;
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<P>(4) Preliminary Notices of Violations; and
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<P>(5) Final Notices of Violations.
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<P>The NNSA Administrator acts after consideration of the Director's recommendation.
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<HD2>V. Procedural Framework 
</HD2>
<P>(a) 10 CFR part 820 sets forth the procedures DOE will use in exercising its enforcement authority, including the issuance of Notices of Violation and the resolution of contested enforcement actions in the event a DOE contractor elects to litigate contested issues before an Administrative Law Judge. 
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<P>(b) Pursuant to 10 CFR 820.22, the Director initiates the civil penalty process by issuing a Preliminary Notice of Violation and Proposed Civil Penalty (PNOV). The DOE contractor is required to respond in writing to the PNOV, either admitting the violation and waiving its right to contest the proposed civil penalty and paying it, admitting the violation but asserting the existence of mitigating circumstances that warrant either the total or partial remission of the civil penalty, or denying that the violation has occurred and providing the basis for its belief that the PNOV is incorrect. After evaluation of the DOE contractor's response, the Director of Enforcement may determine that no violation has occurred, that the violation occurred as alleged in the PNOV but that the proposed civil penalty should be remitted in whole or in part, or that the violation occurred as alleged in the PNOV and that the proposed civil penalty is appropriate notwithstanding the asserted mitigating circumstances. In the latter two instances, the Director will issue a Final Notice of Violation (FNOV) or an FNOV and Proposed Civil Penalty. 
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<P>(c) An opportunity to challenge a proposed civil penalty either before an Administrative Law Judge or in a United States District Court is provided in the PAAA, 42 U.S.C. 2282a(c), and 10 CFR part 820 sets forth the procedures associated with an administrative hearing, should the contractor opt for that method of challenging the proposed civil penalty. A formal administrative enforcement proceeding pursuant to section 554 of the Administrative Procedures Act is not initiated until the DOE contractor against which a civil penalty has been proposed requests an administrative hearing rather than waiving its right to contest the civil penalty and paying it. However, it should be emphasized that DOE encourages the voluntary resolution of a noncompliance situation at any time, either informally prior to the initiation of an administrative proceeding or by consent order after a formal proceeding has begun. 
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<HD2>VI. Severity of Violations 
</HD2>
<P>(a) Violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements have varying degrees of safety significance. Therefore, the relative importance of each violation must be identified as the first step in the enforcement process. Violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements are categorized in three levels of severity to identify their relative safety significance, and Notices of Violation are issued for noncompliance which, when appropriate, propose civil penalties commensurate with the severity level of the violation(s) involved. 
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<P>(b) Severity Level I has been assigned to violations that are the most significant and Severity Level III violations are the least significant. Severity Level I is reserved for violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements which involve actual or high potential for adverse impact on the safety of the public or workers at DOE facilities. Severity level II violations represent a significant lack of attention or carelessness toward responsibilities of DOE contractors for the protection of public or worker safety which could, if uncorrected, potentially lead to an adverse impact on public or worker safety at DOE facilities. Severity Level III violations are less serious but are of more than minor concern: i.e., if left uncorrected, they could lead to a more serious concern. In some cases, violations may be evaluated in the aggregate and a single severity level assigned for a group of violations. 
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<P>(c) Isolated minor violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements will not be the subject of formal enforcement action through the issuance of a Notice of Violation. However, these minor violations will be identified as noncompliances and tracked to assure that appropriate corrective/remedial action is taken to prevent their recurrence, and evaluated to determine if generic or specific problems exist. If circumstances demonstrate that a number of related minor noncompliances have occurred in the same time frame (e.g. all identified during the same assessment), or that related minor noncompliances have recurred despite prior notice to the DOE contractor and sufficient opportunity to correct the problem, DOE may choose in its discretion to consider the noncompliances in the aggregate as a more serious violation warranting a Severity Level III designation, a Notice of Violation and a possible civil penalty. 
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<P>(d) The severity level of a violation will be dependent, in part, on the degree of culpability of the DOE contractor with regard to the violation. Thus, inadvertent or negligent violations will be viewed differently than those in which there is gross negligence, deception or wilfulness. In addition to the significance of the underlying violation and level of culpability involved, DOE will also consider the position, training and experience of the person involved in the violation. Thus, for example, a violation may be deemed to be more significant if a senior manager of an organization is involved rather than a foreman or non-supervisory employee. In this regard, while management involvement, direct or indirect, in a violation may lead to an increase in the severity level of a violation and proposed civil penalty, the lack of such involvement will not constitute grounds to reduce the severity level of a violation or mitigate a civil penalty. Allowance of mitigation in such circumstances could encourage lack of management involvement in DOE contractor activities and a decrease in protection of public and worker health and safety. 
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<P>(e) Other factors which will be considered by DOE in determining the appropriate severity level of a violation are the duration of the violation, the past performance of the DOE contractor in the particular activity area involved, whether the DOE contractor had prior notice of a potential problem, and whether there are multiple examples of the violation in the same time frame rather than an isolated occurrence. The relative weight given to each of these factors in arriving at the appropriate severity level will be dependent on the circumstances of each case. 
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<P>(f) DOE expects contractors to provide full, complete, timely, and accurate information and reports. Accordingly, the severity level of a violation involving either failure to make a required report or notification to the DOE or an untimely report or notification, will be based upon the significance of, and the circumstances surrounding, the matter that should have been reported. A contractor will not normally be cited for a failure to report a condition or event unless the contractor was actually aware, or should have been aware of the condition or event which it failed to report. 
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<HD2>VII. Enforcement Conferences 
</HD2>
<P>(a) Should DOE determine, after completion of all assessment and investigation activities associated with a potential or alleged violation of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements, that there is a reasonable basis to believe that a violation has actually occurred, and the violation may warrant a civil penalty or issuance of an enforcement order, DOE will normally hold an enforcement conference with the DOE contractor involved prior to taking enforcement action. DOE may also elect to hold an enforcement conference for potential violations which would not ordinarily warrant a civil penalty or enforcement order but which could, if repeated, lead to such action. The purpose of the enforcement conference is to assure the accuracy of the facts upon which the preliminary determination to consider enforcement action is based, discuss the potential or alleged violations, their significance and causes, and the nature of and schedule for the DOE contractor's corrective actions, determine whether there are any aggravating or mitigating circumstances, and obtain other information which will help determine the appropriate enforcement action. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE contractors will be informed prior to a meeting when that meeting is considered to be an enforcement conference. Such conferences are informal mechanisms for candid pre-decisional discussions regarding potential or alleged violations and will not normally be open to the public. In circumstances for which immediate enforcement action is necessary in the interest of public or worker health and safety, such action will be taken prior to the enforcement conference, which may still be held after the necessary DOE action has been taken. 
</P>
<HD2>VIII. Enforcement Letter
</HD2>
<P>(a) In cases where DOE has decided not to conduct an investigation or inspection or issue a Preliminary Notice of Violation

(PNOV), DOE may send an Enforcement Letter to the contractor, signed by the Director. Enforcement Letters issued to NNSA contractors will be coordinated with the Principal Deputy Administrator of the NNSA

prior to issuance. The Enforcement Letter is

intended to communicate the basis of the decision not to pursue enforcement action for a noncompliance. The Enforcement Letter is

intended to inform contractors of the desired level of nuclear safety performance. It may be used when DOE concludes the specific noncompliance at issue is not of the level of significance warranted to conduct an investigation or inspection or for issuance of a PNOV. Even where a noncompliance may be significant, the Enforcement Letter recognizes that the contractor's actions may have attenuated the need for enforcement action. The Enforcement Letter will typically recognize how the contractor handled the circumstances surrounding the noncompliance, address additional areas requiring the contractor's attention, and address DOE's expectations for corrective action.
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<P>(b) In general, Enforcement Letters communicate DOE's expectations with respect to any aspect of the requirements contained in the Department's nuclear safety rules, including identification and reporting of issues, corrective actions, and implementation of the contractor's nuclear safety program. DOE might, for example, wish to recognize some action of the contractor that is of particular benefit to nuclear safety performance that is a candidate for emulation by other contractors. On the other hand, DOE may wish to bring a program shortcoming to the attention of the contractor that, but for the lack of nuclear safety significance of the immediate issue, might have resulted in the issuance of a PNOV. An Enforcement Letter is not an enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to many noncompliances, DOE may decide not to send an Enforcement Letter. When DOE decides that a contractor has appropriately corrected a noncompliance or that the significance of the noncompliance is sufficiently low, it may close out its review simply through an annotation in the DOE Noncompliance Tracking System (NTS). A closeout of a noncompliance with or without an Enforcement Letter may only take place after DOE has confirmed that corrective actions have been completed. Closeout of any NNSA contractor noncompliance will be coordinated with NNSA prior to closeout.
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<HD2>IX. Enforcement Actions
</HD2>
<P>a. This section describes the enforcement sanctions available to DOE and specifies the conditions under which each may be used. The basic sanctions are Notices of Violation and civil penalties. In determining whether to impose enforcement sanctions, DOE will consider enforcement actions taken by other Federal or State regulatory bodies having concurrent jurisdiction, e.g., instances which involve NRC licensed entities which are also DOE contractors, and in which the NRC exercises its own enforcement authority.
</P>
<P>b. The nature and extent of the enforcement action is intended to reflect the seriousness of the violation involved. For the vast majority of violations for which DOE assigns severity levels as described previously, a Notice of Violation will be issued, requiring a formal response from the recipient describing the nature of and schedule for corrective actions it intends to take regarding the violation. Administrative actions, such as determination of award fees where DOE contracts provide for such determinations, will be considered separately from any civil penalties that may be imposed under this Enforcement Policy. Likewise, imposition of a civil penalty will be based on the circumstances of each case, unaffected by any award fee determination.
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<HD3>1. Notice of Violation
</HD3>
<P>a. A Notice of Violation (either a Preliminary or Final Notice) is a document setting forth the conclusion of the DOE Office of Nuclear Safety and Environment that one or more violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements has occurred. Such a notice normally requires the recipient to provide a written response which may take one of several positions described in Section V of this policy statement. In the event that the recipient concedes the occurrence of the violation, it is required to describe corrective steps which have been taken and the results achieved; remedial actions which will be taken to prevent recurrence; and the date by which full compliance will be achieved.
</P>
<P>b. DOE will use the Notice of Violation as the standard method for formalizing the existence of a violation and, in appropriate cases as described in this section, the notice of violation will be issued in conjunction with the proposed imposition of a civil penalty. In certain limited instances, as described in this section, DOE may refrain from the issuance of an otherwise appropriate Notice of Violation. However, a Notice of Violation will virtually always be issued for willful violations, if past corrective actions for similar violations have not been sufficient to prevent recurrence and there are no other mitigating circumstances, or if the circumstances otherwise warrant increasing Severity Level III violations to a higher severity level.
</P>
<P>c. DOE contractors are not ordinarily cited for violations resulting from matters not within their control, such as equipment failures that were not avoidable by reasonable quality assurance measures, proper maintenance, or management controls. With regard to the issue of funding, however, DOE does not consider an asserted lack of funding to be a justification for noncompliance with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements.
</P>
<FP>Should a contractor believe that a shortage of funding precludes it from achieving compliance with one or more DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements, it must pursue one of two alternative courses of action. First, it may request, in writing, an exemption from the requirement(s) in question from the appropriate Secretarial Officer (SO), explicitly addressing the criteria for exemptions set forth in 10 CFR 820.62. A justification for continued operation for the period during which the exemption request is being considered should also be submitted. In such a case, the SO must grant or deny the request in writing, explaining the rationale for the decision. Second, if the criteria for approval of an exemption cannot be demonstrated, the contractor, in conjunction with the SO, must take appropriate steps to modify, curtail, suspend or cease the activities which cannot be conducted in compliance with the DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement(s) in question.
</FP>
<P>d. DOE expects the contractors which operate its facilities to have the proper management and supervisory systems in place to assure that all activities at DOE facilities, regardless of who performs them, are carried out in compliance with all DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. Therefore, contractors are normally held responsible for the acts of their employees and subcontractor employees in the conduct of activities at DOE facilities. Accordingly, this policy should not be construed to excuse personnel errors.
</P>
<P>e. Finally, certain contractors are explicitly exempted from the imposition of civil penalties pursuant to the provisions of the PAAA, 42 U.S.C. 2282a(d), for activities conducted at specified facilities. See 10 CFR 820.20(c). In addition, in fairness to non-profit educational institutions, the Department has determined that they should be likewise exempted. See 10 CFR 820.20(d). However, compliance with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements is no less important for these facilities than for other facilities in the DOE complex which work with, store or dispose of radioactive materials. Indeed, the exempted contractors conduct some of the most important nuclear-related research and development activities performed for the Department. Therefore, in order to serve the purposes of this enforcement policy and to emphasize the importance the Department places on compliance with all of its nuclear safety requirements, DOE intends to issue Notices of Violation to the exempted contractors and non-profit educational institutions when appropriate under this policy statement, notwithstanding the statutory and regulatory exemptions from the imposition of civil penalties.


</P>
<HD3>2. Civil Penalty
</HD3>
<P>a. A civil penalty is a monetary penalty that may be imposed for violations of applicable DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements, including Compliance Orders. See 10 CFR 820.20(b). Civil penalties are designed to emphasize the need for lasting remedial action, deter future violations, and underscore the importance of DOE contractor self-identification, reporting and correction of violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements.
</P>
<P>b. Absent mitigating circumstances as described below, or circumstances otherwise warranting the exercise of enforcement discretion by DOE as described in this section, civil penalties will be proposed for Severity Level I and II violations. Civil penalties will be proposed for Severity Level III violations which are similar to previous violations for which the contractor did not take effective corrective action. “Similar” violations are those which could reasonably have been expected to have been prevented by corrective action for the previous violation. DOE normally considers civil penalties only for similar Severity Level III violations that occur over a reasonable period of time to be determined at the discretion of DOE.
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<P>c. DOE will impose different base level civil penalties considering the severity level of the violation(s) by Price-Anderson indemnified contractors. Table 1 shows the daily base civil penalties for the various categories of severity levels. However, as described above in Section IV, the imposition of civil penalties will also take into account the gravity, circumstances, and extent of the violation or violations and, with respect to the violator, any history of prior similar violations and the degree of culpability and knowledge.
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<P>d. Regarding the factor of ability of DOE contractors to pay the civil penalties, it is not DOE's intention that the economic impact of a civil penalty be such that it puts a DOE contractor out of business. Contract termination, rather than civil penalties, is used when the intent is to terminate these activities. The deterrent effect of civil penalties is best served when the amount of such penalties takes this factor into account. However, DOE will evaluate the relationship of affiliated entities to the contractor (such as parent corporations) when it asserts that it cannot pay the proposed penalty.
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<P>e. DOE will review each case involving a proposed civil penalty on its own merits and adjust the base civil penalty values upward or downward appropriately.



 As indicated above, Table 1 identifies the daily base civil penalty values for different severity levels.



 After considering all relevant circumstances, civil penalties may be escalated or mitigated based upon the adjustment factors described below in this section. In no instance will a civil penalty for any one violation exceed the statutory limit, as periodically adjusted for inflation as required by law. However, it should be emphasized that if the DOE contractor is or should have been aware of a violation and has not reported it to DOE and taken corrective action despite an opportunity to do so, each day the condition existed may be considered as a separate violation and, as such, subject to a separate civil penalty. Further, as described in this section, the duration of a violation will be taken into account in determining the appropriate severity level of the base civil penalty.
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<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Severity Level Base Civil Penalties
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Severity level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Base civil penalty amount (percentage of maximum civil penalty per violation per day)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">III</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>3. Adjustment Factors
</HD3>
<P>a. DOE's enforcement program is not an end in itself, but a means to achieve compliance with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements, and civil penalties are not collected to swell the coffers of the United States Treasury, but to emphasize the importance of compliance and to deter future violations. The single most important goal of the DOE enforcement program is to encourage early identification and reporting of nuclear safety deficiencies and violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements by the DOE contractors themselves rather than by DOE, and the prompt correction of any deficiencies and violations so identified. DOE believes that DOE contractors are in the best position to identify and promptly correct noncompliance with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. DOE expects that these contractors should have in place internal compliance programs which will ensure the detection, reporting and prompt correction of nuclear safety-related problems that may constitute, or lead to, violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements before, rather than after, DOE has identified such violations. Thus, DOE contractors will almost always be aware of nuclear safety problems before they are discovered by DOE. Obviously, public and worker health and safety is enhanced if deficiencies are discovered (and promptly corrected) by the DOE contractor, rather than by DOE, which may not otherwise become aware of a deficiency until later on, during the course of an inspection, performance assessment, or following an incident at the facility. Early identification of nuclear safety-related problems by DOE contractors has the added benefit of allowing information which could prevent such problems at other facilities in the DOE complex to be shared with all appropriate DOE contractors.
</P>
<P>b. Pursuant to this enforcement philosophy, DOE will provide substantial incentive for the early self-identification, reporting and prompt correction of problems which constitute, or could lead to, violations of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. Thus, application of the adjustment factors set forth below may result in no civil penalty being assessed for violations that are identified, reported, and promptly and effectively corrected by the DOE contractor.
</P>
<P>c. On the other hand, ineffective programs for problem identification and correction are unacceptable. Thus, for example, where a contractor fails to disclose and promptly correct violations of which it was aware or should have been aware, substantial civil penalties are warranted and may be sought, including the assessment of civil penalties for continuing violations on a per day basis.
</P>
<P>d. Further, in cases involving willfulness, flagrant DOE-identified violations, repeated poor performance in an area of concern, or serious breakdown in management controls, DOE intends to apply its full statutory enforcement authority where such action is warranted.
</P>
<HD3>4. Identification and Reporting
</HD3>
<P>Reduction of up to 50% of the base civil penalty shown in Table 1 may be given when a DOE contractor identifies the violation and promptly reports the violation to the DOE. In weighing this factor, consideration will be given to, among other things, the opportunity available to discover the violation, the ease of discovery and the promptness and completeness of any required report. No consideration will be given to a reduction in penalty if the DOE contractor does not take prompt action to report the problem to DOE upon discovery, or if the immediate actions necessary to restore compliance with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements or place the facility or operation in a safe configuration are not taken.
</P>
<HD3>5. Self-Identification and Tracking Systems
</HD3>
<P>a. DOE strongly encourages contractors to self-identify noncompliances with DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements before the noncompliances lead to a string of similar and potentially more significant events or consequences. When a contractor identifies a noncompliance through its own self-monitoring activity, DOE will normally allow a reduction in the amount of civil penalties, regardless of whether prior opportunities existed for contractors to identify the noncompliance. DOE will normally not allow a reduction in civil penalties for self-identification if significant DOE intervention was required to induce the contractor to report a noncompliance.
</P>
<P>b. Self-identification of a noncompliance is possibly the single most important factor in considering a reduction in the civil penalty amount. Consideration of self-identification is linked to, among other things, whether prior opportunities existed to discover the violation, and if so, the age and number of such opportunities; the extent to which proper contractor controls should have identified or prevented the violation; whether discovery of the violation resulted from a contractor's self-monitoring activity; the extent of DOE involvement in discovering the violation or in prompting the contractor to identify the violation; and the promptness and completeness of any required report. Self-identification is also considered by DOE in deciding whether to pursue an investigation.
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<P>c. DOE has established a voluntary Noncompliance Tracking System (NTS) which allows contractors to elect to report noncompliances. In the guidance document supporting the NTS (DOE-HDBK-1089-95), DOE has established reporting thresholds for reporting items of noncompliance of potentially greater safety significance into the NTS. Contractors may, however, use their own self-tracking systems to track noncompliances below the reporting threshold. This self-tracking is considered to be acceptable self-reporting as long as DOE has access to the contractor's system and the contractor's system notes the item as a noncompliance with a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement. For noncompliances that are below the reportability thresholds, DOE will credit contractor self-tracking as representing self-reporting. If an item is not reported in NTS but only tracked in the contractor's system and DOE subsequently finds the facts and their safety significance have been significantly mischaracterized, DOE will not credit the internal tracking as representing appropriate self-reporting.
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<HD3>6. Self-Disclosing Events
</HD3>
<P>a. DOE expects contractors to demonstrate acceptance of responsibility for safety of the public, workers, and the environment and to proactively identify noncompliance conditions in their programs and processes. In deciding whether to reduce any civil penalty proposed for violations revealed by the occurrence of a self-disclosing event, DOE will consider the ease with which a contractor could have discovered the noncompliance and the prior opportunities that existed to discover the noncompliance. When the occurrence of an event discloses noncompliances that the contractor could have or should have identified before the event, DOE will not generally allow a reduction in civil penalties for self-identification, even if the underlying noncompliances were reported to DOE. If a contractor simply reacts to events that disclose potentially significant consequences or downplays noncompliances which did not result in significant consequences to workers, the public, and the environment, such contractor actions do not lead to the improvement in nuclear safety contemplated by the Act.
</P>
<P>b. The key test is whether the contractor reasonably could have detected any of the underlying noncompliances that contributed to the event. Examples of events that provide opportunities to identify noncompliances include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) prior notifications of potential problems such as those from DOE operational experience publications or vendor equipment deficiency reports;
</P>
<P>(2) normal surveillance, quality assurance assessments, and post-maintenance testing;
</P>
<P>(3) readily observable parameter trends; and
</P>
<P>(4) contractor employee or DOE observations of potential safety problems. Failure to utilize these types of events and activities to address noncompliances may result in higher civil penalty assessments or a DOE decision not to reduce civil penalty amounts.
</P>
<P>c. For example, a critique of the event might find that one of the root causes was a lack of clarity in a Radiation Work Permit (RWP) which led to improper use of anti-contamination clothing and resulting uptake of contamination by the individual. DOE could subsequently conclude that no reduction in civil penalties for self-identification should be allowed since the event itself disclosed the inadequate RWP and the contractor could have, through proper independent assessment or by fostering a questioning attitude by its workers and supervisors, identified the inadequate RWP before the event.
</P>
<P>d. Alternatively, if, following a self-disclosing event, DOE found that the contractor's processes and procedures were adequate and the contractor's personnel generally behaved in a manner consistent with the contractor's processes and procedures, DOE could conclude that the contractor could not have been reasonably expected to find the single procedural noncompliance that led to the event and thus, might allow a reduction in civil penalties.
</P>
<HD3>7. Corrective Action To Prevent Recurrence
</HD3>
<P>The promptness (or lack thereof) and extent to which the DOE contractor takes corrective action, including actions to identify root cause and prevent recurrence, may result in up to a 50% increase or decrease in the base civil penalty shown in Table 1. For example, very extensive corrective action may result in reducing the proposed civil penalty as much as 50% of the base value shown in Table 1. On the other hand, the civil penalty may be increased as much as 50% of the base value if initiation or corrective action is not prompt or if the corrective action is only minimally acceptable. In weighing this factor, consideration will be given to, among other things, the appropriateness, timeliness and degree of initiative associated with the corrective action. The comprehensiveness of the corrective action will also be considered, taking into account factors such as whether the action is focused narrowly to the specific violation or broadly to the general area of concern.
</P>
<HD3>8. DOE's Contribution to a Violation
</HD3>
<P>There may be circumstances in which a violation of a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement results, in part or entirely, from a direction given by DOE personnel to a DOE contractor to either take, or forbear from taking an action at a DOE facility. In such cases, DOE may refrain from issuing an NOV, and may mitigate, either partially or entirely, any proposed civil penalty, provided that the direction upon which the DOE contractor relied is documented in writing, contemporaneously with the direction. It should be emphasized, however, that pursuant to 10 CFR 820.50, no interpretation of a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement is binding upon DOE unless issued in writing by the General Counsel. Further, as discussed in this section of this policy statement, lack of funding by itself will not be considered as a mitigating factor in enforcement actions.
</P>
<HD3>9. Exercise of Discretion
</HD3>
<P>Because DOE wants to encourage and support DOE contractor initiative for prompt self-identification, reporting and correction of problems, DOE may exercise discretion as follows:
</P>
<P>a. In accordance with the previous discussion, DOE may refrain from issuing a civil penalty for a violation which meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The violation is promptly identified and reported to DOE before DOE learns of it.
</P>
<P>(2) The violation is not willful or a violation that could reasonably be expected to have been prevented by the DOE contractor's corrective action for a previous violation.
</P>
<P>(3) The DOE contractor, upon discovery of the violation, has taken or begun to take prompt and appropriate action to correct the violation.
</P>
<P>(4) The DOE contractor has taken, or has agreed to take, remedial action satisfactory to DOE to preclude recurrence of the violation and the underlying conditions which caused it.
</P>
<P>b. DOE may refrain from proposing a civil penalty for a violation involving a past problem, such as in engineering design or installation, that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It was identified by a DOE contractor as a result of a formal effort such as a Safety System Functional Inspection, Design Reconstitution program, or other program that has a defined scope and timetable which is being aggressively implemented and reported;
</P>
<P>(2) Comprehensive corrective action has been taken or is well underway within a reasonable time following identification; and
</P>
<P>(3) It was not likely to be identified by routine contractor efforts such as normal surveillance or quality assurance activities.
</P>
<P>c. DOE will not issue a Notice of Violation for cases in which the violation discovered by the DOE contractor cannot reasonably be linked to the conduct of that contractor in the design, construction or operation of the DOE facility involved, provided that prompt and appropriate action is taken by the DOE contractor upon identification of the past violation to report to DOE and remedy the problem.
</P>
<P>d. DOE may refrain from issuing a Notice of Violation for an item of noncompliance that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It was promptly identified by the DOE nuclear entity;
</P>
<P>(2) It is normally classified at a Severity Level III;
</P>
<P>(3) It was promptly reported to DOE;
</P>
<P>(4) Prompt and appropriate corrective action will be taken, including measures to prevent recurrence; and
</P>
<P>(5) It was not a willful violation or a violation that could reasonably be expected to have been prevented by the DOE contractor's corrective action for a previous violation.
</P>
<P>e. DOE may refrain from issuing a Notice of Violation for an item of noncompliance that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It was an isolated Severity Level III violation identified during a Tiger Team inspection conducted by the Office of Health, Safety and Security during an inspection or integrated performance assessment conducted by the Office of Nuclear Safety and Environment, or during some other DOE assessment activity.
</P>
<P>(2) The identified noncompliance was properly reported by the contractor upon discovery.
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor initiated or completed appropriate assessment and corrective actions within a reasonable period, usually before the termination of the onsite inspection or integrated performance assessment.
</P>
<P>(4) The violation is not willful or one which could reasonably be expected to have been prevented by the DOE contractor's corrective action for a previous violation.
</P>
<P>f. In situations where corrective actions have been completed before termination of an inspection or assessment, a formal response from the contractor is not required and the inspection or integrated performance assessment report serves to document the violation and the corrective action. However, in all instances, the contractor is required to report the noncompliance through established reporting mechanisms so the noncompliance issue and any corrective actions can be properly tracked and monitored.
</P>
<P>g. If DOE initiates an enforcement action for a violation at a Severity Level II or III and, as part of the corrective action for that violation, the DOE contractor identifies other examples of the violation with the same root cause, DOE may refrain from initiating an additional enforcement action. In determining whether to exercise this discretion, DOE will consider whether the DOE contractor acted reasonably and in a timely manner appropriate to the safety significance of the initial violation, the comprehensiveness of the corrective action, whether the matter was reported, and whether the additional violation(s) substantially change the safety significance or character of the concern arising out of the initial violation.
</P>
<P>h. It should be emphasized that the preceding paragraphs are solely intended to be examples indicating when enforcement discretion may be exercised to forego the issuance of a civil penalty or, in some cases, the initiation of any enforcement action at all. However, notwithstanding these examples, a civil penalty may be proposed or Notice of Violation issued when, in DOE's judgment, such action is warranted on the basis of the circumstances of an individual case.
</P>
<HD2>X. Procurement of Products or Services and the Reporting of Defects 
</HD2>
<P>(a) DOE's enforcement policy is also applicable to subcontractors and suppliers to DOE Price-Anderson indemnified contractors. Through procurement contracts with these DOE contractors, subcontractors and suppliers are generally required to have quality assurance programs that meet applicable DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. Suppliers of products or services provided in support of or for use in DOE facilities operated by Price-Anderson indemnified contractors are subject to certain requirements designed to ensure the high quality of the products or services supplied to DOE facilities that could, if deficient, adversely affect public or worker safety. DOE regulations require that DOE be notified whenever a DOE contractor obtains information reasonably indicating that a DOE facility (including its structures, systems and components) which conducts activities subject to the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended or DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements either fails to comply with any provision of the Atomic Energy Act or any applicable DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement, or contains a defect or has been supplied with a product or service which could create or result in a substantial safety hazard. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will conduct audits and assessments of its contractors to determine whether they are ensuring that subcontractors and suppliers are meeting their contractual obligations with regard to quality of products or services that could have an adverse effect on public or worker radiological safety, and ensure that DOE contractors have in place adequate programs to determine whether products or services supplied to them for DOE facilities meet applicable DOE requirements and that substandard products or services are not used by Price-Anderson indemnified contractors at the facilities they operate for DOE. As part of the effort of ensuring that contractual and regulatory requirements are met, DOE may also audit or assess subcontractors and suppliers. These assessments could include examination of the quality assurance programs and their implementation by the subcontractors and suppliers through examination of product quality. 
</P>
<P>(c) When audits or assessments determine that subcontractors or suppliers have failed to comply with applicable DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements or to fulfill contractual commitments designed to ensure the quality of a safety significant product or service, enforcement action will be taken. Notices of Violations and civil penalties will be issued, as appropriate, for DOE contractor failures to ensure that their subcontractors and suppliers provide products and services that meet applicable DOE requirements. Notices of Violations and civil penalties will also be issued to subcontractors and suppliers of DOE contractors which fail to comply with the reporting requirements set forth in any other applicable DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements. 
</P>
<HD2>XI. Inaccurate and Incomplete Information 
</HD2>
<P>(a) A violation of DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements for failure to provide complete and accurate information to DOE, 10 CFR 820.11, can result in the full range of enforcement sanctions, depending upon the circumstances of the particular case and consideration of the factors discussed in this section. Violations involving inaccurate or incomplete information or the failure to provide significant information identified by a DOE contractor normally will be categorized based on the guidance in section VI, “Severity of Violations”. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE recognizes that oral information may in some situations be inherently less reliable than written submittals because of the absence of an opportunity for reflection and management review. However, DOE must be able to rely on oral communications from officials of DOE contractors concerning significant information. In determining whether to take enforcement action for an oral statement, consideration will be given to such factors as 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The degree of knowledge that the communicator should have had regarding the matter in view of his or her position, training, and experience; 
</P>
<P>(b)(2) The opportunity and time available prior to the communication to assure the accuracy or completeness of the information; 
</P>
<P>(b)(3) The degree of intent or negligence, if any, involved; 
</P>
<P>(b)(4) The formality of the communication; 
</P>
<P>(b)(5) The reasonableness of DOE reliance on the information; 
</P>
<P>(b)(6) The importance of the information that was wrong or not provided; and 
</P>
<P>(b)(7) The reasonableness of the explanation for not providing complete and accurate information. 
</P>
<P>(c) Absent gross negligence or willfulness, an incomplete or inaccurate oral statement normally will not be subject to enforcement action unless it involves significant information provided by an official of a DOE contractor. However, enforcement action may be taken for an unintentionally incomplete or inaccurate oral statement provided to DOE by an official of a DOE contractor or others on behalf of the DOE contractor, if a record was made of the oral information and provided to the DOE contractor thereby permitting an opportunity to correct the oral information, such as if a transcript of the communication or meeting summary containing the error was made available to the DOE contractor and was not subsequently corrected in a timely manner. 
</P>
<P>(d) When a DOE contractor has corrected inaccurate or incomplete information, the decision to issue a citation for the initial inaccurate or incomplete information normally will be dependent on the circumstances, including the ease of detection of the error, the timeliness of the correction, whether DOE or the DOE contractor identified the problem with the communication, and whether DOE relied on the information prior to the correction. Generally, if the matter was promptly identified and corrected by the DOE contractor prior to reliance by DOE, or before DOE raised a question about the information, no enforcement action will be taken for the initial inaccurate or incomplete information. On the other hand, if the misinformation is identified after DOE relies on it, or after some question is raised regarding the accuracy of the information, then some enforcement action normally will be taken even if it is in fact corrected. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the initial submission was accurate when made but later turns out to be erroneous because of newly discovered information or advance in technology, a citation normally would not be appropriate if, when the new information became available, the initial submission was corrected. 
</P>
<P>(f) The failure to correct inaccurate or incomplete information that the DOE contractor does not identify as significant normally will not constitute a separate violation. However, the circumstances surrounding the failure to correct may be considered relevant to the determination of enforcement action for the initial inaccurate or incomplete statement. For example, an unintentionally inaccurate or incomplete submission may be treated as a more severe matter if a DOE contractor later determines that the initial submission was in error and does not correct it or if there were clear opportunities to identify the error. 


</P>
<HD2>XII. Secretarial Notification and Consultation 
</HD2>
<P>The Secretary will be provided written notification of all enforcement actions involving proposed civil penalties. The Secretary will be consulted prior to taking action in the following situations: 
</P>
<P>a. Proposals to impose civil penalties in an amount equal to or greater than the statutory limit, as periodically adjusted for inflation as required by law;
</P>
<P>b. Any proposed enforcement action that involves a Severity Level I violation; 
</P>
<P>c. Any action the Director believes warrants the Secretary's involvement; or 
</P>
<P>d. Any proposed enforcement action on which the Secretary asks to be consulted.


</P>
<HD1>XIII. Whistleblower Enforcement Policy
</HD1>
<P>a. DOE contractors may not retaliate against any employee because the employee has taken any actions listed in 10 CFR 708.5(a) through(c), including disclosing information, participating in proceedings, or refusing to participate in certain activities. DOE contractor employees may seek relief for allegations of retaliation through one of several mechanisms, including filing a complaint with DOE pursuant to 10 CFR part 708 (part 708), the Department of Labor (DOL) under sec. 211 of the Energy Reorganization Act (sec. 211), implemented in 29 CFR part 24, or the DOE Inspector General (IG).
</P>
<P>b. An act of retaliation by a DOE contractor, prohibited by 10 CFR 708.43, that results from a DOE contractor employee's involvement in an activity listed in 10 CFR 708.5(a) through (c), may constitute a violation of a DOE Nuclear Safety Requirement under 10 CFR part 820 if it concerns nuclear safety. To avoid the potential for inconsistency with one of the mechanisms available to an aggrieved DOE contractor employee alleging retaliation referenced in section XIII.a, the Director will not take any action under this part with respect to an alleged violation of 10 CFR 708.43 until a request for relief under one of these mechanisms, if any, has been fully adjudicated, including appeals. With respect to an alleged retaliation, the Director will generally only take action that is consistent with the findings of a final decision of an agency or court. If a final decision finds that retaliation occurred, the Department will consider whether that retaliation constitutes a violation of § 708.43, and if so, whether to take action under part 820. If a final decision finds that no retaliation occurred, the Director will generally not take any action under part 820 with respect to the alleged retaliation absent significant new information that was not available in the prior proceeding. If a final decision dismisses a complaint on procedural grounds without explicitly finding that retaliation did not occur, the Director may take further action under part 820 that is not inconsistent with the final decision.
</P>
<P>c. DOE encourages its contractors to cooperate in resolving whistleblower complaints raised by contractor employees in a prompt and equitable manner. Accordingly, in considering what remedy is appropriate for an act of retaliation concerning nuclear safety, the Director will take into account the extent to which a contractor cooperated in proceedings for remedial relief.
</P>
<P>d. In considering what remedy is appropriate for an act of retaliation concerning nuclear safety, the Director will also consider the egregiousness of the particular case including the level of management involved in the alleged retaliation and the specificity of the acts of retaliation.
</P>
<P>e. When the Director undertakes an investigation of an allegation of DOE contractor retaliation against an employee under part 820, the Director will apprise persons interviewed and interested parties that the investigative activity is being taken pursuant to the nuclear safety procedures of part 820 and not pursuant to the procedures of part 708.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 43692, Aug. 17, 1993, as amended at 62 FR 52481, Oct. 8, 1997; 65 FR 15220, Mar. 22, 2000; 71 FR 68732, Nov. 28, 2006; 72 FR 31921, June 8, 2007; 81 FR 41794, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 94914, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="821" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 821—IMPLEMENTING VOLUNTARY AGREEMENTS UNDER THE DEFENSE PRODUCTION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201; 50 U.S.C. 4558; Executive Order 13603; Executive Order 14302.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 41283, Aug. 25, 2025, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 821.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.26.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.1   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Pursuant to section 708 of the Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended (50 U.S.C. 4558), the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate official identified under 50 U.S.C. 4558(c)(2)), as delegated by the President, may consult with representatives of industry, business, financing, agriculture, labor, or other interests, and may approve the making of voluntary agreements and plans of action to help provide for the defense of the United States by developing preparedness programs and expanding productive capacity and supply beyond levels needed to help provide for the national defense.
</P>
<P>(2) Implementation of this part shall conform to the provisions provided under section 708 of the Defense Production Act (DPA) of 1950, as amended (50 U.S.C. 4558).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official).</I>
</P>
<P>(1) As used in this part, Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) is the Secretary of Energy or a Department of Energy official who is delegated with the responsibility of overseeing a voluntary agreement who, pursuant to a delegation or redelegation of the functions given to the President by section 708 of the Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended, proposes or otherwise provides for the development or carrying out of a voluntary agreement and plans of action.
</P>
<P>(2) In the context of energy-related issues, the use of voluntary agreements and plans of action, as authorized by section 708 of the DPA to help provide for the defense of the United States through the development of preparedness programs, is an activity coordinated by the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official), as provided by Executive Order 13603, Section 403 and Executive Order 14302, Section 3.
</P>
<P>(3) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall carry out functions overseeing a voluntary agreement and plan of action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Implementation.</I> This part applies to the development and carrying out under section 708 of the DPA, as amended, of all voluntary agreements and plans of action developed with domestic nuclear energy companies pursuant to the Secretary's authority under Executive Order 13603, Section 403.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rules.</I> The rules in this part void any provision of a voluntary agreement to which they apply, if that provision is contrary to or inconsistent with them. Each voluntary agreement shall be construed as containing every substantive provision that these rules require, whether or not a particular provision is included in the agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commencement of agreements.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) A voluntary agreement or plan of action may not become effective unless and until—
</P>
<P>(i) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) approves the voluntary agreement or plan of action and certifies, in writing, that the agreement or plan is necessary to carry out the purposes of section 708(c)(1) of the DPA and submits a copy of such agreement to the Congress; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Attorney General (after consultation with the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission) finds, in writing, that such purpose may not reasonably be achieved through a voluntary agreement or plan of action having less anticompetitive effects or without any voluntary agreement or plan of action and publishes such finding in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(2) Each voluntary agreement or plan of action that becomes effective under paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall expire 5 years after the date it becomes effective (and at 5-year intervals thereafter, as the case may be), unless (immediately prior to such expiration date) the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) and the Attorney General (after consultation with the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission) make the certification or finding, as the case may be, described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section with respect to such voluntary agreement or plan of action and publish such certification or finding in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> in which case, the voluntary agreement or plan of action may be extended for an additional period of 5 years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Advisory committees.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Pursuant to section 708(d) of the DPA, the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) may establish such advisory committees as deemed to be necessary for developing or carrying out voluntary agreements or plans of action. The Attorney General and the Federal Trade Commission shall have adequate advance notice of any meeting and may have an official representative attend and participate in any such meeting. A full and complete verbatim transcript shall be kept of such advisory committee meetings, and shall be taken and deposited, together with any agreement resulting therefrom, with the Attorney General and the Federal Trade Commission. Such transcript and agreement shall be made available for public inspection and copying subject to the exemptions from disclosure provided under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1), (3), and (4). Such advisory committees shall comply with this part as well as with the requirements and procedures of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended).
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, consistent with section 708(n) of the Defense Production Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. 4558(n)), chapter 10 of Title 5 and any other provision of Federal law relating to advisory committees shall not apply to—
</P>
<P>(i) the consultations referred to in 50 U.S.C. 4558(c)(1); or
</P>
<P>(ii) any activity conducted under a voluntary agreement or plan of action approved pursuant to this section that complies with the requirements of 50 U.S.C. 4558 and this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Plan of action.</I> The term “plan of action” means any of 1 or more documented methods adopted by participants in an existing voluntary agreement to implement that agreement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Antitrust laws.</I> The term “antitrust laws” has the same meaning given in 50 U.S.C. 4558(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Petitions.</I> Interested persons may petition the Secretary of Energy for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of this rule.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.26.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.2   Prerequisites for agreements and plans of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding by the President.</I> Upon a finding by the President that conditions exist which may pose a direct threat to the national defense or its preparedness programs, the Secretary (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) may consult with representatives of industry, business, financing, agriculture, labor, and other interests in order to provide for the making by such persons, with the approval of the Secretary (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official), of voluntary agreements and plans of action to help provide for the national defense.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Secretary and other Senate-confirmed appointees.</I> The Secretary (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) may engage in the activities described in paragraph (a) of this section so long as they:
</P>
<P>(1) Are individuals who are appointed by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, or are holding offices to which they have been appointed by and with the advice and consent of the Senate;
</P>
<P>(2) Consult with the Attorney General and with the Federal Trade Commission not less than ten days before consulting with any persons under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Upon the condition that such individuals obtain the prior approval of the Attorney General, after consultation by the Attorney General with the Federal Trade Commission, to consult under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delegations.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) may further delegate tasks in developing voluntary agreements to an appropriate DOE officer working under the supervision of the Secretary (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official).
</P>
<P>(2) The meetings held to develop the voluntary agreements shall be chaired by an individual as identified in paragraph (b) of this section and 50 U.S.C. 4558(c)(2) or by that person's delegate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.26.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.3   Developing voluntary agreements and plans of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This section establishes the standards and procedures by which voluntary agreements and plans of action may be developed through consultation, pursuant to section 708(c) of the Defense Production Act (DPA) of 1950.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposal to develop an agreement.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) In cases where the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) wishes to develop a voluntary agreement or plan of action after conducting meetings also attended by the Attorney General (or the Attorney General's delegate) and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission (or the Chairman's delegate) to discuss the development of a voluntary agreement or plan of action, the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall submit to the Attorney General a document proposing the agreement. The proposal will include statements as to: The purpose of the agreement or plan of action; the factual basis for making the finding required in section 708(c)(1) of the DPA; the proposed participants in the agreement or plan of action; and any coordination with other Federal agencies accomplished in connection with the proposal.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Attorney General, after consultation with the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission, approves this proposal, the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall then initiate one or more meetings of interested persons to develop the agreement or plan of action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conduct of meetings held to develop the agreement or plan of action.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The parties participating in any voluntary agreement or plan of action shall provide to the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official), the Attorney General, and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission adequate written notice of time, place, and nature of each meeting to develop a voluntary agreement. The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall also publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the time, place, and nature of each meeting at least seven days prior to the meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall chair each meeting held to develop a voluntary agreement. Both the Attorney General and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission, or their delegates, shall attend each of these meetings.
</P>
<P>(3) Any interested person may attend a meeting held to develop a voluntary agreement, unless the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) limits attendance pursuant to § 821.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Any interested person may, as set out in the relevant <E T="04">Federal Register</E> meeting notice, submit written data and views concerning the proposed voluntary agreement, and at the discretion of the Chairman of the meeting, may be given the opportunity for oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintenance of records.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) is responsible for the making of a full and verbatim transcript of each meeting. The Chairman of such meeting shall send this transcript, and any voluntary agreement resulting from the meeting, to the Attorney General, the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission, the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official), and any other party or repository required by law.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall maintain each meeting transcript and voluntary agreement, and make them available for public inspection and copying to the extent required by § 821.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effectiveness of agreements.</I> The following steps must occur before a new voluntary agreement or an extension of an existing agreement may become effective:
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) must approve the agreement and certify in writing that it is necessary to carry out the purposes of section 708(c)(1) of the DPA, submit the agreement and certification to the Attorney General with a request for a written finding, and submit a copy of such agreement or plan to Congress;
</P>
<P>(2) The Attorney General, after consulting with the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission, must issue a written finding that the purposes of section 708(c)(1) of the DPA may not reasonably be achieved through a voluntary agreement having less anti-competitive effects or without any voluntary agreement or plan of action and publishes such finding in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) Each voluntary agreement or plan of action that has become effective shall expire 5 years after the date it becomes effective (and at 5-year intervals thereafter, as the case may be), unless (immediately prior to such expiration date) the Secretary (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) who administers the agreement or plan and the Attorney General (after consultation with the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission) make the certification or finding, as the case may be, described in paragraphs (e)(1) through (2) of this section with respect to such voluntary agreement or plan of action and publishes such certification or finding in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> in which case, the voluntary agreement or plan of action may be extended for an additional period of 5 years.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.26.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.4   Carrying out voluntary agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This section establishes the standards and procedures by which the participants in each approved voluntary agreement shall carry out the agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Participants.</I> The participants in each voluntary agreement shall be reasonably representative of the appropriate industry or segment of that industry.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conduct of meetings held to carry out an agreement.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) when overseeing a voluntary agreement shall initiate, or approve in advance, each meeting of the agreement participants held to discuss problems, determine policies, recommend actions, and make decisions necessary to carry out the agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall provide to the Attorney General and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission, and Congress adequate prior notice of the time, place, and nature of each meeting to carry out a voluntary agreement or plan of action, and a proposed agenda of each meeting. The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> reasonably in advance of each meeting to carry out a voluntary agreement or plan of action in accordance with 50 U.S.C. 4558(h)(8), a notice of the time, place, and nature of the meeting. If the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) has determined, pursuant to § 821.6 of this part, to limit attendance at the meeting, the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) shall publish the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice within ten days of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) Any interested person may attend a meeting held to carry out a voluntary agreement unless the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) has restricted attendance pursuant to § 821.6 of this part. A person attending a meeting under this section may present written data, views, and arguments (with or without opportunity for oral presentation) to any limitations on the manner of presentation that the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) may impose.
</P>
<P>(4) No meeting shall be held to carry out any voluntary agreement unless a Federal employee, other than an individual employed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3109, is in attendance. In addition to the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official), any meeting to carry out a voluntary agreement may be attended by the Attorney General, the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission, the Secretary of Energy, or their delegates.
</P>
<P>(5) Participants in any voluntary agreement or plan of action shall provide the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official), the Attorney General, and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission with adequate prior notice of the time, place, and nature of any meeting to be held to carry out the voluntary agreement or plan of action.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a meeting between a single participant and the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) solely to deliver or exchange information is not subject to the requirements and procedures of this section, provided that a copy of the information is promptly delivered to the Attorney General, the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission, and the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintenance of records.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The participants in any voluntary agreement or plan of action shall maintain for five years all minutes of meetings, transcripts, records, documents, and other data, including any communications among themselves or with any other member of their industry, related to the carrying out of the voluntary agreement or plan of action. The participants shall agree, in writing, to make available to the Attorney General, the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission and the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) for inspection and copying at reasonable times and upon reasonable notice any item that this paragraph (d)(1) requires them to maintain.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person required by § 821.4(d)(1) to maintain records shall indicate specific portions, if any, that such person believes should not be disclosed to the public pursuant to § 821.6 of this part, and the reasons therefor. Any item made available to a Government official named in § 821.4.(d)(1) shall be available from that official for public inspection and copying subject to the limitations set forth in § 821.6 of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.26.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.5   Termination or modifying voluntary agreements.</HEAD>
<P>The Attorney General may terminate or modify a voluntary agreement, in writing, after consultation with the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission and the Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official). The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) may also terminate or modify a voluntary agreement, in writing, after consultation with the Attorney General and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission. Any person who is a party to a voluntary agreement may terminate his participation in the agreement upon written notice to the Secretary of Energy. Effective immediately upon modification or termination of a voluntary agreement or plan of action, any antitrust immunity conferred upon the participants in that voluntary agreement or plan of action by section 708(j) of the Defense Production Act (DPA) of 1950 (50 U.S.C. 4558(j)) shall not apply to any act or omission occurring after the time of such termination or modification.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 821.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.26.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 821.6   Public access to records and meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Interested persons may, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552, inspect or copy any voluntary agreement, minutes of meetings, transcripts, records, or other data maintained pursuant to these rules, subject to the exemptions provided under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1), (3), or (4).
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided by paragraph (c) of this section, interested persons may attend any part of a meeting held to develop or carry out a voluntary agreement pursuant to these rules.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary of Energy (or the appropriate delegated Department of Energy official) may withhold material described in this section from disclosure and restrict attendance at meetings only on the grounds specified in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1), (3), or (4) or 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), as appropriate.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="824" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 824—PROCEDURAL RULES FOR THE ASSESSMENT OF CIVIL PENALTIES FOR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION SECURITY VIOLATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201, 2282b, 7101 <I>et seq.,</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.;</I> 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 3607, Jan. 26, 2005, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 824.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements subsections a., c., and d. of section 234B. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (the Act), 42 U.S.C. 2282b. Subsection a. provides that any person who has entered into a contract or agreement with the Department of Energy, or a subcontract or subagreement thereto, and who violates (or whose employee violates) any applicable rule, regulations in this chapter, or order under the Act relating to the security or safeguarding of Restricted Data or other classified information, shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $187,668 for each violation.  Subsections c. and d. specify certain additional authorities and limitations respecting the assessment of such penalties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3607, Jan. 26, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 66033, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41795, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96352, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1292, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2193, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1029, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105407, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> These regulations apply to any person that has entered into a contract or agreement with DOE, or a subcontract or sub-agreement thereto.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations.</I> DOE may not assess any civil penalty against any entity (including subcontractors and suppliers thereto) specified at subsection d. of section 234A of the Act until the entity enters, after October 5, 1999, into a new contract with DOE or an extension of a current contract with DOE, and the total amount of civil penalties may not exceed the total amount of fees paid by the DOE to that entity in that fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual employees.</I> No civil penalty may be assessed against an individual employee of a contractor or any other entity which enters into an agreement with DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3607, Jan. 26, 2005, as amended at 70 FR 8716, Feb. 23, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the National Nuclear Security Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Classified information</I> means Restricted Data and Formerly Restricted Data protected against unauthorized disclosure pursuant to the Act and National Security Information that has been determined pursuant to Executive Order 12958, as amended March 25, 2003, or any predecessor or successor executive order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and that is marked to indicate its classified status when in documentary form.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy, including the National Nuclear Security Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the DOE Official, or his or her designee, to whom the Secretary has assigned responsibility for enforcement of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any person as defined in section 11.s. of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 2014, and includes any affiliate or parent corporation thereof, who enters into a contract or agreement with DOE, or is a party to a contract or subcontract under a contract or agreement with DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.4   Civil penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who violates a classified information protection requirement of any of the following is subject to a civil penalty under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) 10 CFR part 1016—Safeguarding of Restricted Data;
</P>
<P>(2) 10 CFR part 1045—Nuclear Classification and Declassification; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other DOE regulation or rule (including any DOE order or manual enforceable against the contractor or subcontractor under a contractual provision in that contractor's or subcontractor's contract) related to the safeguarding or security of classified information if the regulation or rule provides that violation of its provisions may result in a civil penalty pursuant to subsection a. of section 234B. of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) If, without violating a classified information protection requirement of any regulation or rule under paragraph (a) of this section, a person by an act or omission causes, or creates a risk of, the loss, compromise or unauthorized disclosure of classified information, the Secretary may issue a compliance order to that person requiring the person to take corrective action and notifying the person that violation of the compliance order is subject to a notice of violation and assessment of a civil penalty. If a person wishes to contest the compliance order, the person must file a notice of appeal with the Secretary within 15 days of receipt of the compliance order.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director may propose imposition of a civil penalty for violation of a requirement of a regulation or rule under paragraph (a) of this section or a compliance order issued under paragraph (b) of this section, not to exceed $187,668 for each violation.




</P>
<P>(d) If any violation is a continuing one, each day of such violation shall constitute a separate violation for the purpose of computing the applicable civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(e) The Director may enter into a settlement, with or without conditions, of an enforcement proceeding at any time if the settlement is consistent with the objectives of DOE's classified information protection requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3607, Jan. 26, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 66033, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41795, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96352, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1292, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66083, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 830, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2194, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1029, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105407, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.5   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may conduct investigations and inspections relating to the scope, nature and extent of compliance by a person with DOE security requirements specified in § 824.4(a) and (b) and take such action as the Director deems necessary and appropriate to the conduct of the investigation or inspection, including signing, issuing and serving subpoenas.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.6   Preliminary notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to begin a proceeding to impose a civil penalty under this part, the Director shall notify the person by a written preliminary notice of violation sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, of:
</P>
<P>(1) The date, facts, and nature of each act or omission constituting the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(2) The particular provision of the regulation, rule or compliance order involved in each alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed remedy for each alleged violation, including the amount of any civil penalty proposed; and,
</P>
<P>(4) The right of the person to submit a written reply to the Director within 30 calendar days of receipt of such preliminary notice of violation.
</P>
<P>(b) A reply to a preliminary notice of violation must contain a statement of all relevant facts pertaining to an alleged violation. The reply must:
</P>
<P>(1) State any facts, explanations and arguments which support a denial of the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrate any extenuating circumstances or other reason why a proposed remedy should not be imposed or should be mitigated;
</P>
<P>(3) Discuss the relevant authorities which support the position asserted, including rulings, regulations, interpretations, and previous decisions issued by DOE;
</P>
<P>(4) Furnish full and complete answers to any questions set forth in the preliminary notice; and
</P>
<P>(5) Include copies of all relevant documents.
</P>
<P>(c) If a person fails to submit a written reply within 30 calendar days of receipt of a preliminary notice of violation:
</P>
<P>(1) The person relinquishes any right to appeal any matter in the preliminary notice; and
</P>
<P>(2) The preliminary notice, including any remedies therein, constitutes a final order.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director, at the request of a person notified of an alleged violation, may extend for a reasonable period the time for submitting a reply or a hearing request letter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.7   Final notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person submits a written reply within 30 calendar days of receipt of a preliminary notice of violation, the Director must make a final determination whether the person violated or is continuing to violate a classified information security requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) Based on a determination by the Director that a person has violated or is continuing to violate a classified information security requirement, the Director may issue to the person a final notice of violation that concisely states the determined violation, the amount of any civil penalty imposed, and further actions necessary by or available to the person. The final notice of violation also must state that the person has the right to submit to the Director, within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the notice, a written request for a hearing under § 824.8 or, in the alternative, to elect the procedures specified in section 234A.c.(3) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 2282a.c.(3).
</P>
<P>(c) The Director must send a final notice of violation by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 30 calendar days of the receipt of a reply.
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section, the effect of final notice shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) If a final notice of violation does not contain a civil penalty, it shall be deemed a final order 15 days after the final notice is issued.
</P>
<P>(2) If a final notice of violation contains a civil penalty, the person must submit to the Director within 30 days after the issuance of the final notice:
</P>
<P>(i) A waiver of further proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for an on-the-record hearing under § 824.8; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A notice of intent to proceed under section 234A.c.(3) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 2282a.(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(e) If a person waives further proceedings, the final notice of violation shall be deemed a final order enforceable against the person. The person must pay the civil penalty set forth in the notice of violation within 60 days of the filing of waiver unless the Director grants additional time.
</P>
<P>(f) If a person files a request for an on-the-record hearing, then the hearing process commences.
</P>
<P>(g) If the person files a notice of intent to proceed under section 234A.c.(3) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 2282a.(c)(3), the Director, by order, shall assess the civil penalty set forth in the Notice of Violation.
</P>
<P>(h) The Director may amend the final notice of violation at any time before the time periods specified in paragraphs (d)(1) or (d)(2) expire. An amendment shall add fifteen days to the time period under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The Director may withdraw the final notice of violation, or any part thereof, at any time before the time periods specified in paragraphs (d)(1) or (d)(2) expire.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.8   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who receives a final notice of violation under § 824.7 may request a hearing concerning the allegations contained in the notice. The person must mail or deliver any written request for a hearing to the Director within 30 calendar days of receipt of the final notice of violation.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt from a person of a written request for a hearing, the Director shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Appoint a Hearing Counsel; and
</P>
<P>(2) Select an administrative law judge appointed under section 3105 of Title 5, U.S.C., to serve as Hearing Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.9   Hearing Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>The Hearing Counsel:
</P>
<P>(a) Represents DOE;
</P>
<P>(b) Consults with the person or the person's counsel prior to the hearing;
</P>
<P>(c) Examines and cross-examines witnesses during the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(d) Enters into a settlement of the enforcement proceeding at any time if settlement is consistent with the objectives of the Act and DOE security requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.10   Hearing Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Hearing Officer:
</P>
<P>(a) Is responsible for the administrative preparations for the hearing;
</P>
<P>(b) Convenes the hearing as soon as is reasonable;
</P>
<P>(c) Administers oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(d) Issues subpoenas, at the request of either party or on the Hearing Officer's motion;
</P>
<P>(e) Rules on offers of proof and receives relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(f) Takes depositions or has depositions taken when the ends of justice would be served;
</P>
<P>(g) Conducts the hearing in a manner which is fair and impartial;
</P>
<P>(h) Holds conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties;
</P>
<P>(i) Disposes of procedural requests or similar matters;
</P>
<P>(j) Requires production of documents; and
</P>
<P>(k) Makes an initial decision under § 824.13.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.11   Rights of the person at the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The person may:
</P>
<P>(a) Testify or present evidence through witnesses or by documents;
</P>
<P>(b) Cross-examine witnesses and rebut records or other physical evidence, except as provided in § 824.12(d);
</P>
<P>(c) Be present during the entire hearing, except as provided in § 824.12(d); and
</P>
<P>(d) Be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel of the person's choosing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.12   Conduct of the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall make a transcript of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the Hearing Officer may receive any oral or documentary evidence, but shall exclude irrelevant, immaterial or unduly repetitious evidence;
</P>
<P>(c) Witnesses shall testify under oath and are subject to cross-examination, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(d) The Hearing Officer must use procedures appropriate to safeguard and prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information or any other information protected from public disclosure by law or regulation, with minimum impairment of rights and obligations under this part. The classified or otherwise protected status of any information shall not, however, preclude its being introduced into evidence. The Hearing Officer may issue such orders as may be necessary to consider such evidence <I>in camera</I> including the preparation of a supplemental initial decision to address issues of law or fact that arise out of that portion of the evidence that is classified or otherwise protected.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE has the burden of going forward with and of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the violation occurred as set forth in the final notice of violation and that the proposed civil penalty is appropriate. The person to whom the final notice of violation has been addressed shall have the burden of presenting and of going forward with any defense to the allegations set forth in the final notice of violation. Each matter of controversy shall be determined by the Hearing Officer upon a preponderance of the evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.13   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Hearing Officer shall issue an initial decision as soon as practicable after the hearing. The initial decision shall contain findings of fact and conclusions regarding all material issues of law, as well as reasons therefor. If the Hearing Officer determines that a violation has occurred and that a civil penalty is appropriate, the initial decision shall set forth the amount of the civil penalty based on:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(2) The violator's ability to pay;
</P>
<P>(3) The effect of the civil penalty on the person's ability to do business;
</P>
<P>(4) Any history of prior violations;
</P>
<P>(5) The degree of culpability; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other matters as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(b) The Hearing Officer shall serve all parties with the initial decision by certified mail, return receipt requested. The initial decision shall include notice that it constitutes a final order of DOE 30 days after the filing of the initial decision unless the Secretary files a Notice of Review. If the Secretary files a notice of Notice of Review, he shall file a final order as soon as practicable after completing his review. The Secretary, at his discretion, may order additional proceedings, remand the matter, or modify the amount of the civil penalty assessed in the initial decision. DOE shall notify the person of the Secretary's action under this paragraph in writing by certified mail, return receipt requested. The person against whom the civil penalty is assessed by the final order shall pay the full amount of the civil penalty assessed in the final order within thirty days (30) unless otherwise agreed by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.14   Special procedures.</HEAD>
<P>A person receiving a final notice of violation under § 824.7 may elect in writing, within 30 days of receipt of such notice, the application of special procedures regarding payment of the penalty set forth in section 234A.c.(3) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 2282a(c)(3). The Director shall promptly assess a civil penalty, by order, after the date of such election. If the civil penalty has not been paid within sixty calendar days after the assessment has been issued, the DOE shall institute an action in the appropriate District Court of the United States for an order affirming the assessment of the civil penalty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.15   Collection of civil penalties.</HEAD>
<P>If any person fails to pay an assessment of a civil penalty after it has become a final order or after the appropriate District Court has entered final judgment for DOE under § 824.14, DOE shall institute an action to recover the amount of such penalty in an appropriate District Court of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 824.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 824.16   Direction to NNSA contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the NNSA Administrator, rather than the Director, signs, issues, serves, or takes the following actions that direct NNSA contractors or subcontractors.
</P>
<P>(1) Subpoenas;
</P>
<P>(2) Orders to compel attendance;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosures of information or documents obtained during an investigation or inspection;
</P>
<P>(4) Preliminary notices of violation; and
</P>
<P>(5) Final notices of violations.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator shall act after consideration of the Director's recommendation. If the Administrator disagrees with the Director's recommendation, and the disagreement cannot be resolved by the two officials, the Director may refer the matter to the Deputy Secretary for resolution.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.27.0.16.17.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 824—General Statement of Enforcement Policy 
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>a. This policy statement sets forth the general framework through which DOE will seek to ensure compliance with its classified information security regulations and rules and classified information security-related compliance orders (hereafter collectively referred to as classified information security requirements).
</P>
<P>The policy set forth herein is applicable to violations of classified information security requirements by DOE contractors and their subcontractors (hereafter collectively referred to as DOE contractors). This policy statement is not a regulation and is intended only to provide general guidance to those persons subject to the classified information security requirements. It is not intended to establish a formulaic approach to the initiation and resolution of situations involving noncompliance with these requirements. Rather, DOE intends to consider the particular facts of each noncompliance situation in determining whether enforcement penalties are appropriate and, if so, the appropriate magnitude of those penalties. DOE reserves the option to deviate from this policy statement when appropriate in the circumstances of particular cases.
</P>
<P>b. Both the Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101, and the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (the Act), 42 U.S.C. 2011, require DOE to protect and provide for the common defense and security of the United States in conducting its nuclear activities, and grant DOE broad authority to achieve this goal.
</P>
<P>c. The DOE goal in the compliance arena is to enhance and protect the common defense and security at DOE facilities by fostering a culture among both DOE line organizations and contractors that actively seeks to attain and sustain compliance with classified information security requirements. The enforcement program and policy have been developed with the express purpose of achieving a culture of active commitment to security and voluntary compliance. DOE will establish effective administrative processes and incentives for contractors to identify and report noncompliances promptly and openly and to initiate comprehensive corrective actions to resolve both the noncompliances themselves and the program or process deficiencies that led to noncompliance.
</P>
<P>d. In the development of the DOE enforcement policy, DOE believes that the reasonable exercise of its enforcement authority can help to reduce the likelihood of serious security incidents. This can be accomplished by providing greater emphasis on a culture of security awareness in existing DOE operations and strong incentives for contractors to identify and correct noncompliance conditions and processes in order to protect classified information of vital significance to this nation. DOE wants to facilitate, encourage, and support contractor initiatives for the prompt identification and correction of problems. These initiatives and activities will be duly considered in exercising enforcement discretion.
</P>
<P>e. Section 234B of the Act provides DOE with the authority to impose civil penalties and also with the authority to compromise, modify, or remit civil penalties with or without conditions. In implementing section 234B, DOE will carefully consider the facts of each case of noncompliance and will exercise appropriate judgment in taking any enforcement action. Part of the function of a sound enforcement program is to assure a proper and continuing level of security vigilance. The reasonable exercise of enforcement authority will be facilitated by the appropriate application of security requirements to nuclear facilities and by promoting and coordinating the proper contractor attitude toward complying with those requirements.
</P>
<HD1>II. Purpose
</HD1>
<P>The purpose of the DOE enforcement program is to promote and protect the common defense and security of the United States by:
</P>
<P>a. Ensuring compliance by DOE contractors with applicable classified information security requirements.
</P>
<P>b. Providing positive incentives for a DOE contractor's:
</P>
<P>(1) Timely self-identification of security deficiencies,
</P>
<P>(2) Prompt and complete reporting of such deficiencies to DOE,
</P>
<P>(3) Root cause analyses of security deficiencies,
</P>
<P>(4) Prompt correction of security deficiencies in a manner which precludes recurrence, and
</P>
<P>(5) Identification of modifications in practices or facilities that can improve security.
</P>
<P>c. Deterring future violations of DOE requirements by a DOE contractor.
</P>
<P>d. Encouraging the continuous overall improvement of operations at DOE facilities.
</P>
<HD1>III. Statutory Authority
</HD1>
<P>Section 234B of the Act subjects contractors, and their subcontractors and suppliers, to civil penalties for violations of DOE regulations, rules and orders regarding the safeguarding and security of Restricted Data and other classified information.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Procedural Framework
</HD1>
<P>a. 10 CFR part 824 sets forth the procedures DOE will use in exercising its enforcement authority, including the issuance of notices of violation and the resolution of contested enforcement actions in the event a DOE contractor elects to adjudicate contested issues before an administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>b. Pursuant to § 824.6, the Director initiates the civil penalty process by issuing a preliminary notice of violation that specifies a proposed civil penalty. The DOE contractor is required to respond in writing to the preliminary notice of violation, either admitting the violation and waiving its right to contest the proposed civil penalty and paying it; admitting the violation, but asserting the existence of mitigating circumstances that warrant either the total or partial remission of the civil penalty; or denying that the violation has occurred and providing the basis for its belief that the preliminary notice of violation is incorrect. After evaluation of the DOE's contractor response, the Director may determine that no violation has occurred; that the violation occurred as alleged in the preliminary notice of violation, but that the proposed civil penalty should be remitted in whole or in part; or that the violation occurred as alleged in the preliminary notice of violation and that the proposed civil penalty is appropriate notwithstanding the asserted mitigating circumstances. In the latter two instances, the Director will issue a final notice of violation or a final notice of violation with proposed civil penalty.
</P>
<P>c. An opportunity to challenge a proposed civil penalty either before an administrative law judge or in a United States District Court is provided in 42 U.S.C. 2282a(c). Part 824 sets forth the procedures associated with an administrative hearing, should the contractor opt for that method of challenging the proposed civil penalty.
</P>
<HD1>V. Severity of Violations
</HD1>
<P>a. Violations of classified information security requirements have varying degrees of security significance. Therefore, the relative importance of each violation must be identified as the first step in the enforcement process. Violations of classified information security requirements are categorized in three levels of severity to identify their relative security significance. Notices of violation are issued for noncompliance and propose civil penalties commensurate with the severity level of the violation(s) involved.
</P>
<P>b. Severity Level I has been assigned to violations that are the most significant and Severity Level III violations are the least significant. Severity Level I is reserved for violations of classified information security requirements which involve actual or high potential for adverse impact on the national security. Severity Level II violations represent a significant lack of attention or carelessness toward responsibilities of DOE contractors for the protection of classified information which could, if uncorrected, potentially lead to an adverse impact on the national security. Severity Level III violations are less serious, but are of more than minor concern: <I>i.e.</I>, if left uncorrected, they could lead to a more serious concern. In some cases, violations may be evaluated in the aggregate and a single severity level assigned for a group of violations.
</P>
<P>c. Isolated minor violations of classified information security requirements will not be the subject of formal enforcement action through the issuance of a notice of violation. However, these minor violations will be identified as noncompliances and tracked to assure that appropriate corrective/remedial action is taken to prevent their recurrence, and evaluated to determine if generic or specific problems exist. If circumstances demonstrate that a number of related minor noncompliances have occurred in the same time frame (<I>e.g.</I>, all identified during the same assessment), or that related minor noncompliances have recurred despite prior notice to the DOE contractor and sufficient opportunity to correct the problem, DOE may choose in its discretion to consider the noncompliances in the aggregate as a more serious violation warranting a Severity Level III designation, a notice of violation and a possible civil penalty.
</P>
<P>d. The severity level of a violation will depend, in part, on the degree of culpability of the DOE contractor with regard to the violation. Thus, inadvertent or negligent violations will be viewed differently from those in which there is gross negligence, deception or willfulness. In addition to the significance of the underlying violation and level of culpability involved, DOE will also consider the position, training and experience of the person involved in the violation. Thus, for example, a violation may be deemed to be more significant if a senior manager of an organization is involved rather than a foreman or non-supervisory employee. In this regard, while management involvement, direct or indirect, in a violation may lead to an increase in the severity level of a violation and proposed civil penalty, the lack of such involvement will not constitute grounds to reduce the severity level of a violation or mitigate a civil penalty. Allowance of mitigation in such circumstances could encourage lack of management involvement in DOE contractor activities and a decrease in protection of classified information.
</P>
<P>e. Other factors which will be considered by DOE in determining the appropriate severity level of a violation are the duration of the violation, the past performance of the DOE contractor in the particular activity area involved, whether the DOE contractor had prior notice of a potential problem, and whether there are multiple examples of the violation in the same time frame rather than an isolated occurrence. The relative weight given to each of these factors in arriving at the appropriate severity level will depend on the circumstances of each case.
</P>
<P>f. DOE expects contractors to provide full, complete, timely, and accurate information and reports. Accordingly, the severity level of a violation involving either failure to make a required report or notification to DOE or an untimely report or notification will be based upon the significance of, and the circumstances surrounding, the matter that should have been reported. A contractor will not normally be cited for a failure to report a condition or event unless the contractor was actually aware or should have been aware of the condition or event which it failed to report.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Enforcement Conferences
</HD1>
<P>a. Should DOE determine, after completion of all assessment and investigation activities associated with a potential or alleged violation of classified information security requirements, that there is a reasonable basis to believe that a violation has actually occurred, and the violation may warrant a civil penalty, DOE will normally hold an enforcement conference with the DOE contractor involved prior to taking enforcement action. DOE may also elect to hold an enforcement conference for potential violations which would not ordinarily warrant a civil penalty but which could, if repeated, lead to such action. The purpose of the enforcement conference is to assure the accuracy of the facts upon which the preliminary determination to consider enforcement action is based, discuss the potential or alleged violations, their significance and causes, and the nature of and schedule for the DOE contractor's corrective actions, determine whether there are any aggravating or mitigating circumstances, and obtain other information which will help determine the appropriate enforcement action.
</P>
<P>b. DOE contractors will be informed prior to a meeting when that meeting is considered to be an enforcement conference. Such conferences are informal mechanisms for candid pre-decisional discussions regarding potential or alleged violations and will not normally be open to the public. In circumstances for which immediate enforcement action is necessary in the interest of the national security, such action will be taken prior to the enforcement conference, which may still be held after the necessary DOE action has been taken.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Enforcement Letter
</HD1>
<P>a. In cases where DOE has decided not to issue a notice of violation, DOE may send an enforcement letter to the contractor signed by the Director. The enforcement letter is intended to communicate the basis of the decision not to pursue further enforcement action for a noncompliance. The enforcement letter is intended to point contractors to the desired level of security performance. It may be used when the Director concludes the specific noncompliance at issue is not of the level of significance warranted for issuance of a notice of violation. The enforcement letter will typically describe how the contractor handled the circumstances surrounding the noncompliance and address additional areas requiring the contractor's attention and DOE's expectations for corrective action. The enforcement letter notifies the contractor that, when verification is received that corrective actions have been implemented, DOE will close the enforcement action. In the case of NNSA contractors or subcontractors, the enforcement letter will take the form of advising the contractor or subcontractor that the Director has consulted with the NNSA Administrator who agrees that further enforcement action should not be pursued if verification is received that corrective actions have been implemented by the contractor or subcontractor.
</P>
<P>b. In many investigations, an enforcement letter may not be required. When DOE decides that a contractor has appropriately corrected a noncompliance or that the significance of the noncompliance is sufficiently low, it may close out an investigation without such enforcement letter. A closeout of a noncompliance with or without an enforcement letter may only take place after the Director has issued a letter confirming that corrective actions have been completed. In the case of NNSA contractors or subcontractors, the Director's letter will take the form of confirming that corrective actions have been completed and advising that the Director has consulted with the NNSA Administrator who agrees that no enforcement action should be pursued.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Enforcement Actions
</HD1>
<P>The nature and extent of the enforcement action is intended to reflect the seriousness of the violation involved. For the vast majority of violations for which DOE assigns severity levels as described previously, a notice of violation will be issued, requiring a formal response from the recipient describing the nature of and schedule for corrective actions it intends to take regarding the violation.
</P>
<HD2>1. Notice of Violation
</HD2>
<P>a. A Notice of Violation (preliminary or final) is a document setting forth the conclusion that one or more violations of classified information security requirements have occurred. Such a notice normally requires the recipient to provide a written response which may take one of several positions described in Section IV of this policy statement. In the event that the recipient concedes the occurrence of the violation, it is required to describe corrective steps which have been taken and the results achieved; remedial actions which will be taken to prevent recurrence; and the date by which full compliance will be achieved.
</P>
<P>b. DOE will use the notice of violation as the standard method for formalizing the existence of a possible violation and the notice of violation will be issued in conjunction with the proposed imposition of a civil penalty. In certain limited instances, as described in this section, DOE may refrain from the issuance of an otherwise appropriate notice of violation. However, a notice of violation normally will be issued for willful violations, for violations where past corrective actions for similar violations have not been sufficient to prevent recurrence and there are no other mitigating circumstances.
</P>
<P>c. DOE contractors are not ordinarily cited for violations resulting from matters not within their control, such as equipment failures that were not avoidable by reasonable quality assurance measures, proper maintenance, or management controls. With regard to the issue of funding, however, DOE does not consider an asserted lack of funding to be a justification for noncompliance with classified information security requirements. Should a contractor believe that a shortage of funding precludes it from achieving compliance with one or more of these requirements, it may request, in writing, an exemption from the requirement(s) in question from the appropriate Secretarial Officer (SO). If no exemption is granted, the contractor, in conjunction with the SO, must take appropriate steps to modify, curtail, suspend or cease the activities which cannot be conducted in compliance with the classified information security requirement(s) in question.
</P>
<P>d. DOE expects the contractors which operate its facilities to have the proper management and supervisory systems in place to assure that all activities at DOE facilities, regardless of who performs them, are carried out in compliance with all classified information security requirements. Therefore, contractors normally will be held responsible for the acts or omissions of their employees and subcontractor employees in the conduct of activities at DOE facilities.
</P>
<HD2>2. Civil Penalty
</HD2>
<P>a. A civil penalty is a monetary penalty that may be imposed for violations of applicable classified information security requirements, including compliance orders. Civil penalties are designed to emphasize the need for lasting remedial action, deter future violations, and underscore the importance of DOE contractor self-identification, reporting and correction of violations.
</P>
<P>b. Absent mitigating circumstances as described below, or circumstances otherwise warranting the exercise of enforcement discretion by DOE as described in this section, civil penalties will be proposed for Severity Level I and II violations. Civil penalties also will be proposed for Severity Level III violations which are similar to previous violations for which the contractor did not take effective corrective action. “Similar” violations are those which could reasonably have been expected to have been prevented by corrective action for the previous violation. DOE normally considers civil penalties only for similar Severity Level III violations that occur over an extended period of time.
</P>
<P>c. DOE will impose different base level civil penalties considering the severity level of the violation(s). Table 1 shows the daily base civil penalties for the various categories of severity levels. However, as described in Section V, the imposition of civil penalties will also take into account the gravity, circumstances, and extent of the violation or violations and, with respect to the violator, any history of prior similar violations and the degree of culpability and knowledge.
</P>
<P>d. Regarding the factor of ability of DOE contractors to pay the civil penalties, it is not DOE's intention that the economic impact of a civil penalty is such that it puts a DOE contractor out of business. Contract termination, rather than civil penalties, is used when the intent is to terminate a contractor's management of a DOE facility. The deterrent effect of civil penalties is best served when the amount of such penalties takes this factor into account. However, DOE will evaluate the relationship of entities affiliated with the contractor (such as parent corporations) when it asserts that it cannot pay the proposed penalty.
</P>
<P>e. DOE will review each case involving a proposed civil penalty on its own merit and adjust the base civil penalty values upward or downward appropriately.

 As indicated in paragraph 2.c of this section, Table 1 identifies the daily base civil penalty values for different severity levels. 

After considering all relevant circumstances, civil penalties may be escalated or mitigated based upon the adjustment factors described below in this section. 

In no instance will a civil penalty for any one violation exceed the statutory limit, as periodically adjusted for inflation as required by law, per violation.

However, it should be noted that if a violation is a continuing one, under the statute, each day the violation continued constitutes a separate violation for purposes of computing the civil penalty. 

Thus, the per violation cap will not shield a DOE contractor that is or should have been aware of an ongoing violation and has not reported it to DOE and taken corrective action despite an opportunity to do so from liability significantly exceeding the limit.

 Further, as described in this section, the duration of a violation will be taken into account in determining the appropriate severity level of the base civil penalty.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Severity level Base Civil Penalties 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Severity level 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Base civil penalty amount (percentage of maximum civil penalty per violation per day) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">III</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3. Adjustment Factors
</HD2>
<P>a. DOE's enforcement program is not an end in itself, but a means to achieve compliance with classified information security requirements, and civil penalties are not assessed for revenue purposes, but rather to emphasize the importance of compliance and to deter future violations. The single most important goal of the DOE enforcement program is to encourage early identification and reporting of security deficiencies and violations of classified information security requirements by the DOE contractors themselves rather than by DOE, and the prompt correction of any deficiencies and violations so identified. With respect to their own practices and those of their subcontractors, DOE believes that DOE contractors are in the best position to identify and promptly correct noncompliance with classified information security requirements. DOE expects that these contractors should have in place internal compliance programs which will ensure the detection, reporting and prompt correction of security-related problems that may constitute, or lead to, violations of classified information security requirements before, rather than after, DOE has identified such violations. Thus, DOE contractors are expected to be aware of and to address security problems before they are discovered by DOE. Obviously, protection of classified information is enhanced if deficiencies are discovered (and promptly corrected) by the DOE contractor, rather than by DOE, which may not otherwise become aware of a deficiency until later on, during the course of an inspection, performance assessment, or following an incident at the facility. Early identification of classified information security-related problems by DOE contractors can also have the added benefit of allowing information which could prevent such problems at other facilities in the DOE complex to be shared with other appropriate DOE contractors.
</P>
<P>b. Pursuant to this enforcement philosophy, DOE will provide substantial incentive for the early self-identification, reporting and prompt correction of problems which constitute, or could lead to, violations of classified information security requirements. Thus, application of the adjustment factors set forth below may result in no civil penalty being assessed for violations that are identified, reported, and promptly and effectively corrected by the DOE contractor.
</P>
<P>c. On the other hand, ineffective programs for problem identification and correction are unacceptable. Thus, for example, where a contractor fails to disclose and promptly correct violations of which it was aware or should have been aware, substantial civil penalties are warranted and may be sought, including the assessment of civil penalties for continuing violations on a per day basis.
</P>
<P>d. Further, in cases involving factors of willfulness, repeated violations, patterns of systematic violations, flagrant DOE-identified violations or serious breakdown in management controls, DOE intends to apply its full statutory enforcement authority where such action is warranted. Based on the degree of such factors, DOE may escalate the amount of civil penalties up to the statutory maximum, as periodically adjusted for inflation as required by law, per violation per day for continuing violations.
</P>
<HD2>4. Identification and Reporting
</HD2>
<P>Reduction of up to 50% of the base civil penalty shown in Table 1 may be given when a DOE contractor identifies the violation and promptly reports the violation to the DOE. In weighing this factor, consideration will be given to, among other things, the opportunity available to discover the violation, the ease of discovery and the promptness and completeness of any required report. No consideration will be given to a reduction in penalty if the DOE contractor does not take prompt action to report the problem to DOE upon discovery, or if the immediate actions necessary to restore compliance with classified information security requirements or place the facility or operation in a safe configuration are not taken.
</P>
<HD2>5. Self-Identification and Tracking Systems
</HD2>
<P>a. DOE strongly encourages contractors to self-identify noncompliances with classified information security requirements before the noncompliances lead to a string of similar and potentially more significant events or consequences. When a contractor identifies a noncompliance through its own self-monitoring activity, DOE will normally allow a reduction in the amount of civil penalties, regardless of whether prior opportunities existed for contractors to identify the noncompliance. DOE normally will not allow a reduction in civil penalties for self-identification if DOE intervention was required to induce the contractor to report a noncompliance.
</P>
<P>b. Self-identification of a noncompliance is possibly the single most important factor in considering a reduction in the civil penalty amount. Consideration of self-identification is linked to, among other things, whether prior opportunities existed to discover the violation, and if so, the age and number of such opportunities; the extent to which proper contractor controls should have identified or prevented the violation; whether discovery of the violation resulted from a contractor's self-monitoring activity; the extent of DOE involvement in discovering the violation or in prompting the contractor to identify the violation; and the promptness and completeness of any required report. Self-identification is also considered by DOE in deciding whether to pursue an investigation.
</P>
<HD2>6. Self-Disclosing Events
</HD2>
<P>a. DOE expects contractors to demonstrate acceptance of responsibility for security of classified information and to pro-actively identify noncompliance conditions in their programs and processes. In deciding whether to reduce any civil penalty proposed for violations revealed by the occurrence of a self-disclosing event (<I>e.g.</I> belated discovery of the disappearance of classified information or material subject to accountability rules), DOE will consider the ease with which a contractor could have discovered the noncompliance, <I>i.e.</I> failure to comply with classified information accountability rules, that contributed to the event and the prior opportunities that existed to discover the noncompliance. When the occurrence of an event discloses noncompliances that the contractor could have or should have identified before the event, DOE will not generally allow a reduction in civil penalties for self-identification. If a contractor simply reacts to events that disclose potentially significant consequences or downplays noncompliances which did not result in significant consequences, such contractor actions do not lead to the improvement in protection of classified information contemplated by the Act.
</P>
<P>b. The key test is whether the contractor reasonably could have detected any of the underlying noncompliances that contributed to the event. Failure to utilize events and activities to address noncompliances may result in higher civil penalty assessments or a DOE decision not to reduce civil penalty amounts.
</P>
<HD2>7. Corrective Action To Prevent Recurrence
</HD2>
<P>The promptness (or lack thereof) and extent to which the DOE contractor takes corrective action, including actions to identify root causes and prevent recurrence, may result in up to a 50% increase or decrease in the base civil penalty shown in Table 1. For example, very extensive corrective action may result in reducing the proposed civil penalty as much as 50% of the base value shown in Table 1. On the other hand, the civil penalty may be increased as much as 50% of the base value if initiation or corrective action is not prompt or if the corrective action is only minimally acceptable. In weighing this factor, consideration will be given to, among other things, the appropriateness, timeliness and degree of initiative associated with the corrective action. The comprehensiveness of the corrective action will also be considered, taking into account factors such as whether the action is focused narrowly to the specific violation or broadly to the general area of concern.
</P>
<HD2>8. DOE's Contribution to a Violation
</HD2>
<P>There may be circumstances in which a violation of a classified information security requirement results, in part or entirely, from a direction given by DOE personnel to a DOE contractor to either take, or forbear from taking an action at a DOE facility. In such cases, DOE may refrain from issuing a notice of violation, and may mitigate, either partially or entirely, any proposed civil penalty, provided that the direction upon which the DOE contractor relied is documented in writing, contemporaneously with the direction. It should be emphasized, however, that no interpretation of a classified information security requirement is binding upon DOE unless issued in writing by the General Counsel. Further, as discussed in this section of this policy statement, lack of funding by itself will not be considered as a mitigating factor in enforcement actions.
</P>
<HD2>9. Exercise of Discretion
</HD2>
<P>Because DOE wants to encourage and support DOE contractor initiative for prompt self-identification, reporting and correction of problems, DOE may exercise discretion as follows:
</P>
<P>a. In accordance with the previous discussion, DOE may refrain from issuing a civil penalty for a violation which meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The violation is promptly identified and reported to DOE before DOE learns of it;
</P>
<P>(2) The violation is not willful or a violation that could reasonably be expected to have been prevented by the DOE contractor's corrective action for a previous violation;
</P>
<P>(3) The DOE contractor, upon discovery of the violation, has taken or begun to take prompt and appropriate action to correct the violation; and
</P>
<P>(4) The DOE contractor has taken, or has agreed to take, remedial action satisfactory to DOE to preclude recurrence of the violation and the underlying conditions which caused it.
</P>
<P>b. DOE may refrain from proposing a civil penalty for a violation involving a past problem that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It was identified by a DOE contractor as a result of a formal effort such as an annual self assessment that has a defined scope and timetable which is being aggressively implemented and reported;
</P>
<P>(2) Comprehensive corrective action has been taken or is well underway within a reasonable time following identification; and
</P>
<P>(3) It was not likely to be identified by routine contractor efforts such as normal surveillance or quality assurance activities.
</P>
<P>c. DOE will not issue a notice of violation for cases in which the violation discovered by the DOE contractor cannot reasonably be linked to the conduct of that contractor, provided that prompt and appropriate action is taken by the DOE contractor upon identification of the past violation to report to DOE and remedy the problem.
</P>
<P>d. DOE may refrain from issuing a notice of violation for an act or omission constituting noncompliance that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It was promptly identified by the contractor;
</P>
<P>(2) It is normally classified at a Severity Level III;
</P>
<P>(3) It was promptly reported to DOE;
</P>
<P>(4) Prompt and appropriate corrective action will be taken, including measures to prevent recurrence; and
</P>
<P>(5) It was not a willful violation or a violation that could reasonably be expected to have been prevented by the DOE contractor's corrective action for a previous violation.
</P>
<P>e. DOE may refrain from issuing a notice of violation for an act or omission constituting noncompliance that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) It was an isolated Severity Level III violation identified during an inspection or evaluation conducted by the Office of Independent Oversight, or a DOE security survey, or during some other DOE assessment activity;
</P>
<P>(2) The identified noncompliance was properly reported by the contractor upon discovery;
</P>
<P>(3) The contractor initiated or completed appropriate assessment and corrective actions within a reasonable period, usually before the termination of the onsite inspection or integrated performance assessment; and
</P>
<P>(4) The violation was not willful or one which could reasonably be expected to have been prevented by the DOE contractor's corrective action for a previous violation.
</P>
<P>f. In situations where corrective actions have been completed before termination of an inspection or assessment, a formal response from the contractor is not required and the inspection or integrated performance assessment report serves to document the violation and the corrective action. However, in all instances, the contractor is required to report the noncompliance through established reporting mechanisms so the noncompliance issue and any corrective actions can be properly tracked and monitored.
</P>
<P>g. If DOE initiates an enforcement action for a violation at a Severity Level II or III and, as part of the corrective action for that violation, the DOE contractor identifies other examples of the violation with the same root cause, DOE may refrain from initiating an additional enforcement action. In determining whether to exercise this discretion, DOE will consider whether the DOE contractor acted reasonably and in a timely manner appropriate to the security significance of the initial violation, the comprehensiveness of the corrective action, whether the matter was reported, and whether the additional violation(s) substantially change the security significance or character of the concern arising out of the initial violation.
</P>
<P>h. The preceding paragraphs are solely intended to be examples indicating when enforcement discretion may be exercised to forego the issuance of a civil penalty or, in some cases, the initiation of any enforcement action at all. However, notwithstanding these examples, a civil penalty may be proposed or notice of violation issued when, in DOE's judgment, such action is warranted on the basis of the circumstances of an individual case.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3607, Jan. 26, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 74 FR 66033, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 19, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41795, June 28, 2016]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="830" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 830—NUCLEAR SAFETY MANAGEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201; 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> and 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.</I>




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 66205, Oct. 19, 2020,  unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 830.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part governs the conduct of DOE contractors, DOE personnel, and other persons conducting activities (including providing items and services) that affect, or may affect, the safety of DOE nuclear facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.2   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(a) Activities that are regulated through a license by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) or a State under an Agreement with the NRC, including activities certified by the NRC under section 1701 of the Atomic Energy Act (Act);
</P>
<P>(b) Activities conducted under the authority of the Director, Naval Nuclear Propulsion, pursuant to Executive Order 12344, as set forth in Public Law 106- 65;
</P>
<P>(c) Transportation activities which are regulated by the Department of Transportation;
</P>
<P>(d) Activities conducted under the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended, and any facility identified under section 202(5) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and
</P>
<P>(e) Activities related to the launch approval and actual launch of nuclear energy systems into space.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative controls</I> means the provisions relating to organization and management, procedures, recordkeeping, assessment, and reporting necessary to ensure safe operation of a facility.
</P>
<P><I>Bases appendix</I> means an appendix that describes the basis of the limits and other requirements in technical safety requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Critical assembly</I> means special nuclear devices designed and used to sustain nuclear reactions, which may be subject to frequent core and lattice configuration change and which frequently may be used as mockups of reactor configurations.
</P>
<P><I>Criticality</I> means the condition in which a nuclear fission chain reaction becomes self-sustaining.
</P>
<P><I>Design features</I> means the design features of a nuclear facility specified in the technical safety requirements that, if altered or modified, would have a significant effect on safe operation.
</P>
<P><I>Document</I> means recorded information that describes, specifies, reports, certifies, requires, or provides data or results.
</P>
<P><I>Documented safety analysis</I> means a documented analysis of the extent to which a nuclear facility can be operated safely with respect to workers, the public, and the environment, including a description of the conditions, safe boundaries, and hazard controls that provide the basis for ensuring safety.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental restoration activities</I> means the process(es) by which contaminated sites and facilities are identified and characterized and by which contamination is contained, treated, or removed and disposed.
</P>
<P><I>Fissionable materials</I> means a nuclide capable of sustaining a neutron-induced chain reaction (<I>e.g.,</I> uranium-233, uranium-235, plutonium-238, plutonium-239, plutonium-241, neptunium-237, americium-241, and curium-244).
</P>
<P><I>Graded approach</I> means the process of ensuring that the level of analysis, documentation, and actions used to comply with a requirement in this part are commensurate with:
</P>
<P>(1) The relative importance to safety, safeguards, and security;
</P>
<P>(2) The magnitude of any hazard involved;
</P>
<P>(3) The life cycle stage of a facility;
</P>
<P>(4) The programmatic mission of a facility;
</P>
<P>(5) The particular characteristics of a facility;
</P>
<P>(6) The relative importance of radiological and nonradiological hazards; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other relevant factor.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard</I> means a source of danger (<I>i.e.,</I> material, energy source, or operation) with the potential to cause illness, injury, or death to a person or damage to a facility or to the environment (without regard to the likelihood or credibility of accident scenarios or consequence mitigation).
</P>
<P><I>Hazard Category 1, 2, and 3 DOE nuclear facilities</I> means nuclear facilities that meet the criteria for their respective hazard category consistent with the provisions of DOE-STD-1027-92, Change Notice 1. Hazard Category 1, 2, and 3 DOE nuclear facilities are required to have safety bases established in accordance with Subpart B of this part. Hazard categories are based on their radioactive material inventories and the potential consequences to the public, workers, and the environment. Hazard Category 1 represents the highest potential consequence and Hazard Category 3 represents the lowest potential consequence of the facilities required to establish safety bases.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard controls</I> means measures to eliminate, limit, or mitigate hazards to workers, the public, or the environment, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Physical, design, structural, and engineering features;
</P>
<P>(2) Safety structures, systems, and components;
</P>
<P>(3) Safety management programs;
</P>
<P>(4) Technical safety requirements; and
</P>
<P>(5) Other controls necessary to provide adequate protection from hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Item</I> is an all-inclusive term used in place of any of the following: Appurtenance, assembly, component, equipment, material, module, part, product, structure, subassembly, subsystem, system, unit, or support systems.
</P>
<P><I>Limiting conditions for operation</I> means the limits that represent the lowest functional capability or performance level of safety structures, systems, and components required for safe operations.
</P>
<P><I>Limiting control settings</I> means the settings on safety systems that control process variables to prevent exceeding a safety limit.
</P>
<P><I>Low-level residual fixed radioactivity</I> means the remaining radioactivity following reasonable efforts to remove radioactive systems, components, and stored materials. The remaining radioactivity is composed of surface contamination that is fixed following chemical cleaning or some similar process; a component of surface contamination that can be picked up by smears; or activated materials within structures. The radioactivity can be characterized as low-level if the smearable radioactivity is less than the values defined for removable contamination by 10 CFR part 835, Appendix D, Surface Contamination Values, and the hazard analysis results show that no credible accident scenario or work practices would release the remaining fixed radioactivity or activation components at levels that would prudently require the use of active safety systems, structures, or components to prevent or mitigate a release of radioactive materials.
</P>
<P><I>Major modification</I> means a modification to a DOE nuclear facility that substantially changes the existing safety basis for the facility.
</P>
<P><I>New Hazard Category 1, 2, and 3 DOE nuclear facility</I> means a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility that is in design or under construction that does not yet have a DOE approved safety basis.
</P>
<P><I>Nonreactor nuclear facility</I> means those facilities, activities or operations that involve, or will involve, radioactive and/or fissionable materials in such form and quantity that a nuclear or a nuclear explosive hazard potentially exists to workers, the public, or the environment, but does not include accelerators and their operations and does not include activities involving only incidental use and generation of radioactive materials or radiation such as check and calibration sources, use of radioactive sources in research and experimental and analytical laboratory activities, electron microscopes, and X-ray machines.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear facility</I> means a reactor or a nonreactor nuclear facility where an activity is conducted for or on behalf of DOE and includes any related area, structure, facility, or activity to the extent necessary to ensure proper implementation of the requirements established by this Part.
</P>
<P><I>Operating limits</I> means those limits required to ensure the safe operation of a nuclear facility, including limiting control settings and limiting conditions for operation.
</P>
<P><I>Preliminary documented safety analysis</I> means documentation prepared in connection with the design and construction of a new Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility or a major modification to an existing Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility that provides a reasonable basis for the preliminary conclusion that the nuclear facility can be operated safely through the consideration of factors such as:
</P>
<P>(1) The nuclear safety design criteria to be satisfied;
</P>
<P>(2) A safety analysis that derives aspects of design that are necessary to satisfy the nuclear safety design criteria; and
</P>
<P>(3) An initial listing of the safety management programs that must be developed to address operational safety considerations.
</P>
<P><I>Process</I> means a series of actions that achieves an end or result.
</P>
<P><I>Quality</I> means the condition achieved when an item, service, or process meets or exceeds the user's requirements and expectations.
</P>
<P><I>Quality assurance</I> means all those actions that provide confidence that quality is achieved.
</P>
<P><I>Quality Assurance Program (QAP)</I> means the overall program or management system established to assign responsibilities and authorities, define policies and requirements, and provide for the performance and assessment of work.
</P>
<P><I>Reactor</I> means any apparatus that is designed or used to sustain nuclear chain reactions in a controlled manner such as research, test, and power reactors, and critical and pulsed assemblies and any assembly that is designed to perform subcritical experiments that could potentially reach criticality; and, unless modified by words such as containment, vessel, or core, refers to the entire facility, including the housing, equipment and associated areas devoted to the operation and maintenance of one or more reactor cores.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means a completed document or other media that provides objective evidence of an item, service, or process.
</P>
<P><I>Safety basis</I> means the documented safety analysis and hazard controls that provide reasonable assurance that a DOE nuclear facility can be operated safely in a manner that adequately protects workers, the public, and the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Safety class structures, systems, and components</I> means the structures, systems, or components, including portions of process systems, whose preventive or mitigative function is necessary to limit radioactive hazardous material exposure to the public, as determined from safety analyses.
</P>
<P><I>Safety evaluation report</I> means the report prepared by DOE to document:
</P>
<P>(1) The sufficiency of the documented safety analysis for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility;
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which a contractor has satisfied the requirements of Subpart B of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) The basis for approval by DOE of the safety basis for the facility, including any conditions for approval.
</P>
<P><I>Safety limits</I> means the limits on process variables associated with those safety class physical barriers, generally passive, that are necessary for the intended facility function and that are required to guard against the uncontrolled release of radioactive materials.
</P>
<P><I>Safety management program</I> means a program designed to ensure a facility is operated in a manner that adequately protects workers, the public, and the environment by covering a topic such as: Quality assurance; maintenance of safety systems; personnel training; conduct of operations; inadvertent criticality protection; emergency preparedness; fire protection; waste management; or radiological protection of workers, the public, and the environment.
</P>
<P><I>Safety management system</I> means an integrated safety management system established consistent with 48 CFR 970.5223-1, <I>Integration of environment, safety, and health into work planning and execution.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Safety significant structures, systems, and components</I> means the structures, systems, and components which are not designated as safety class structures, systems, and components, but whose preventive or mitigative function is a major contributor to defense in depth and/or worker safety as determined from safety analyses.
</P>
<P><I>Safety structures, systems, and components</I> means both safety class structures, systems, and components and safety significant structures, systems, and components.
</P>
<P><I>Service</I> means the performance of work, such as design, manufacturing, construction, fabrication, assembly, decontamination, environmental restoration, waste management, laboratory sample analyses, inspection, nondestructive examination/testing, environmental qualification, equipment qualification, repair, installation, or the like.
</P>
<P><I>Surveillance requirements</I> means requirements relating to test, calibration, or inspection to ensure that the necessary operability and quality of safety structures, systems, and components and their support systems required for safe operations are maintained, that facility operation is within safety limits, and that limiting control settings and limiting conditions for operation are met.
</P>
<P><I>Technical safety requirements (TSRs)</I> means the limits, controls, and related actions that establish the specific parameters and requisite actions for the safe operation of a nuclear facility and include, as appropriate for the work and the hazards identified in the documented safety analysis for the facility: Safety limits, operating limits, surveillance requirements, administrative and management controls, use and application provisions, and design features, as well as a bases appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Unreviewed Safety Question (USQ)</I> means a situation where:
</P>
<P>(1) The probability of the occurrence or the consequences of an accident or the malfunction of equipment important to safety previously evaluated in the documented safety analysis could be increased;
</P>
<P>(2) The possibility of an accident or malfunction of a different type than any evaluated previously in the documented safety analysis could be created; or
</P>
<P>(3) The documented safety analysis may not be bounding or may be otherwise inadequate.
</P>
<P><I>Unreviewed Safety Question process</I> means the mechanism for keeping a safety basis current by reviewing potential unreviewed safety questions, reporting unreviewed safety questions to DOE, and obtaining approval from DOE prior to taking any action that involves an unreviewed safety question.
</P>
<P><I>Use and application provisions</I> means the basic instructions for applying technical safety requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) Terms defined in the Act or in 10 CFR part 820 and not defined in this section of the rule are to be used consistent with the meanings given in the Act or in 10 CFR part 820.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.4   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person may take or cause to be taken any action inconsistent with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A contractor responsible for a nuclear facility must ensure implementation of, and compliance with, the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of this part must be implemented in a manner that provides reasonable assurance of adequate protection of workers, the public, and the environment from adverse consequences, taking into account the work to be performed and the associated hazards.
</P>
<P>(d) If there is no contractor for a DOE nuclear facility, DOE must ensure implementation of, and compliance with, the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.5   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements in this part are DOE Nuclear Safety Requirements and are subject to enforcement by all appropriate means, including the imposition of civil and criminal penalties in accordance with the provisions of 10 CFR part 820.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.6   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>A contractor must maintain complete and accurate records as necessary to substantiate compliance with the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.0.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.7   Graded approach.</HEAD>
<P>Where appropriate, a contractor must use a graded approach to implement the requirements of this part, document the basis of the graded approach used, and submit that documentation to DOE. The graded approach may not be used in implementing the unreviewed safety question (USQ) process or in implementing technical safety requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Quality Assurance Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.120" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.120   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes quality assurance requirements for contractors conducting activities, including providing items or services that affect, or may affect, nuclear safety of DOE nuclear facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.121" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.121   Quality Assurance Program (QAP).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors conducting activities, including providing items or services, that affect, or may affect, the nuclear safety of DOE nuclear facilities must conduct work in accordance with the Quality Assurance criteria in § 830.122.
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor responsible for a DOE nuclear facility must:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a QAP to DOE for approval and regard the QAP as approved 90 days after submittal, unless it is approved or rejected by DOE at an earlier date.
</P>
<P>(2) Modify the QAP as directed by DOE.
</P>
<P>(3) Annually submit any changes to the DOE-approved QAP to DOE for approval. Justify in the submittal why the changes continue to satisfy the quality assurance requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) Conduct work in accordance with the QAP.
</P>
<P>(c) The QAP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe how the quality assurance criteria of § 830.122 are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(2) Integrate the quality assurance criteria with the Safety Management System, or describe how the quality assurance criteria apply to the Safety Management System.
</P>
<P>(3) Use voluntary consensus standards in its development and implementation, where practicable and consistent with contractual and regulatory requirements, and identify the standards used.
</P>
<P>(4) Describe how the contractor responsible for the nuclear facility ensures that subcontractors and suppliers satisfy the criteria of § 830.122.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.122" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.122   Quality assurance criteria.</HEAD>
<P>The QAP must address the following management, performance, and assessment criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Criterion 1—Management/Program.</I> (1) Establish an organizational structure, functional responsibilities, levels of authority, and interfaces for those managing, performing, and assessing the work.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish management processes, including planning, scheduling, and providing resources for the work.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criterion 2—Management/Personnel Training and Qualification.</I> (1) Train and qualify personnel to be capable of performing their assigned work.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide continuing training to personnel to maintain their job proficiency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criterion 3—Management/Quality Improvement.</I> (1) Establish and implement processes to detect and prevent quality problems.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify, control, and correct items, services, and processes that do not meet established requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the causes of problems and work to prevent recurrence as a part of correcting the problem.
</P>
<P>(4) Review item characteristics, process implementation, and other quality-related information to identify items, services, and processes needing improvement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Criterion 4—Management/Documents and Records.</I> (1) Prepare, review, approve, issue, use, and revise documents to prescribe processes, specify requirements, or establish design.
</P>
<P>(2) Specify, prepare, review, approve, and maintain records.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Criterion 5—Performance/Work Processes.</I> (1) Perform work consistent with technical standards, administrative controls, and other hazard controls adopted to meet regulatory or contract requirements, using approved instructions, procedures, or other appropriate means.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify and control items to ensure their proper use.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain items to prevent their damage, loss, or deterioration.
</P>
<P>(4) Calibrate and maintain equipment used for process monitoring or data collection.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Criterion 6—Performance/Design.</I> (1) Design items and processes using sound engineering/scientific principles and appropriate standards.
</P>
<P>(2) Incorporate applicable requirements and design bases in design work and design changes.
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and control design interfaces.
</P>
<P>(4) Verify or validate the adequacy of design products using individuals or groups other than those who performed the work.
</P>
<P>(5) Verify or validate work before approval and implementation of the design.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Criterion 7—Performance/Procurement.</I> (1) Procure items and services that meet established requirements and perform as specified.
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluate and select prospective suppliers on the basis of specified criteria.
</P>
<P>Establish and implement processes to ensure that approved suppliers continue to provide acceptable items and services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Criterion 8—Performance/Inspection and Acceptance Testing.</I> (1) Inspect and test specified items, services, and processes using established acceptance and performance criteria.
</P>
<P>(2) Calibrate and maintain equipment used for inspections and tests.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Criterion 9—Assessment/Management Assessment.</I> Ensure managers assess their management processes and identify and correct problems that hinder the organization from achieving its objectives.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Criterion 10—Assessment/Independent Assessment.</I> (1) Plan and conduct independent assessments to measure item and service quality, to measure the adequacy of work performance, and to promote improvement.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish sufficient authority, and freedom from line management, for the group performing independent assessments.
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure persons who perform independent assessments are technically qualified and knowledgeable in the areas to be assessed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Safety Basis Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.200" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.200   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This Subpart establishes safety basis requirements for Hazard Category 1, 2, and 3 DOE nuclear facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.201" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.201   Performance of work.</HEAD>
<P>A contractor must perform work in accordance with the DOE-approved safety basis for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility and, in particular, with the hazard controls that ensure adequate protection of workers, the public, and the environment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.202" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.202   Safety basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor responsible for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must establish and maintain the safety basis for the facility.
</P>
<P>(b) In establishing the safety basis for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility, the contractor responsible for the facility must:
</P>
<P>(1) Define the scope of the work to be performed;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify and analyze the hazards associated with the work;
</P>
<P>(3) Categorize the facility consistent with DOE-STD-1027-92 (“Hazard Categorization and Accident Analysis Techniques for compliance with DOE Order 5480.23, Nuclear Safety Analysis Reports,” Change Notice 1, September 1997);
</P>
<P>(4) Prepare a documented safety analysis for the facility; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish the hazard controls upon which the contractor will rely to ensure adequate protection of workers, the public, and the environment.
</P>
<P>(c) In maintaining the safety basis for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility, the contractor responsible for the facility must:
</P>
<P>(1) Update the safety basis to keep it current and to reflect changes in the facility, the work and the hazards as they are analyzed in the documented safety analysis;
</P>
<P>(2) Annually provide DOE the current documented safety analysis or a letter stating that there have been no changes in the documented safety analysis since the prior submittal; and
</P>
<P>(3) Incorporate in the safety basis any changes, conditions, or hazard controls directed by DOE.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.203" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.203   Unreviewed safety question process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor responsible for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must establish, implement, and take actions consistent with a DOE-approved USQ procedure that meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor responsible for a new Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must submit for DOE approval a procedure for its USQ process on a schedule that allows DOE approval in a safety evaluation report issued pursuant to § 830. 207(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The contractor responsible for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must implement the DOE-approved USQ procedure in situations where there is a:
</P>
<P>(1) Temporary or permanent change in the facility as described in the existing documented safety analysis;
</P>
<P>(2) Temporary or permanent change in the procedures as described in the existing documented safety analysis;
</P>
<P>(3) Test or experiment not described in the existing documented safety analysis; or
</P>
<P>(4) Potential inadequacy of the documented safety analysis because the analysis potentially may not be bounding or may be otherwise inadequate.
</P>
<P>(d) A contractor responsible for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must obtain DOE approval prior to taking any action determined to involve a USQ.
</P>
<P>(e) The contractor responsible for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must annually provide to DOE a summary of the USQ determinations performed since the prior submittal.
</P>
<P>(f) If a contractor responsible for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility discovers or is made aware of a potential inadequacy of the documented safety analysis, it must:
</P>
<P>(1) Take action, as appropriate, to place or maintain the facility in a safe condition until an evaluation of the safety of the situation is completed;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify DOE of the situation;
</P>
<P>(3) Perform a USQ determination and notify DOE promptly of the results; and
</P>
<P>(4) Submit the evaluation of the safety of the situation to DOE prior to removing any operational restrictions initiated to meet paragraph (f)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.204" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.204   Documented safety analysis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor responsible for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must obtain approval from DOE for the methodology used to prepare the documented safety analysis for the facility unless the contractor uses a methodology set forth in Table 1 of Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The documented safety analysis for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must, as appropriate for the complexities and hazards associated with the facility:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the facility (including the design of safety structures, systems and components) and the work to be performed;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide a systematic identification of both natural and man-made hazards associated with the facility;
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluate normal, abnormal, and accident conditions, including consideration of natural and man-made external events, identification of energy sources or processes that might contribute to the generation or uncontrolled release of radioactive and other hazardous materials, and consideration of the need for analysis of accidents which may be beyond the design basis of the facility;
</P>
<P>(4) Derive the hazard controls necessary to ensure adequate protection of workers, the public, and the environment, demonstrate the adequacy of these controls to eliminate, limit, or mitigate identified hazards, and define the process for maintaining the hazard controls current at all times and controlling their use;
</P>
<P>(5) Define the characteristics of the safety management programs necessary to ensure the safe operation of the facility, including (where applicable) quality assurance, procedures, maintenance, personnel training, conduct of operations, emergency preparedness, fire protection, waste management, and radiation protection; and
</P>
<P>(6) With respect to a nonreactor nuclear facility with fissionable material in a form and amount sufficient to pose a potential for criticality, define a criticality safety program that:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensures that operations with fissionable material remain subcritical under all normal and credible abnormal conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identifies applicable nuclear criticality safety standards; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Describes how the program meets applicable nuclear criticality safety standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.205" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.205   Technical safety requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A contractor responsible for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must:
</P>
<P>(1) Develop technical safety requirements that are derived from the documented safety analysis;
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to use, obtain DOE approval of technical safety requirements and any change to technical safety requirements; and
</P>
<P>(3) Notify DOE of any violation of a technical safety requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) A contractor may take emergency actions that depart from an approved technical safety requirement when no actions consistent with the technical safety requirement are immediately apparent, and when these actions are needed to protect workers, the public or the environment from imminent and significant harm. Such actions must be approved by a certified operator for a reactor or by a person in authority as designated in the technical safety requirements for nonreactor nuclear facilities. The contractor must report the emergency actions to DOE as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(c) A contractor for an environmental restoration activity may follow the provisions of 29 CFR 1910.120 or 29 CFR 1926.65 to develop the appropriate hazard controls (rather than the provisions for technical safety requirements in paragraph (a) of this section), provided the activity involves either:
</P>
<P>(1) Work not done within a permanent structure, or
</P>
<P>(2) The decommissioning of a facility with only low-level residual fixed radioactivity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.206" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.206   Preliminary documented safety analysis.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to construction of a new Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility or a major modification to an existing Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility, the contractor responsible for the design and construction of the new facility or major modification must:
</P>
<P>(a) Prepare a preliminary documented safety analysis for the facility, and
</P>
<P>(b) Obtain DOE approval of:
</P>
<P>(1) The nuclear safety design criteria to be used in preparing the preliminary documented safety analysis unless the contractor uses the design criteria in DOE Order 420.1, <I>Facility Safety,</I> or successor document; and
</P>
<P>(2) The preliminary documented safety analysis before the contractor can procure materials or components or begin construction; provided that DOE may authorize the contractor to perform limited procurement and construction activities without approval of a preliminary documented safety analysis if DOE determines that the activities are not detrimental to public health and safety and are in the best interests of DOE.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 830.207" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 830.207   DOE approval of safety basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to a new Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility or a major modification to an existing Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility, a contractor may not begin operation of the facility or modification prior to the issuance of a safety evaluation report in which DOE approves the safety basis for the facility or modification.
</P>
<P>(b) Pending issuance of a safety evaluation report in which DOE approves an updated or amended safety basis for an existing Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility, the contractor responsible for the facility must continue to perform work in accordance with the DOE-approved safety basis for the facility and maintain the existing safety basis consistent with the requirements of this Subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.28.2.16.9.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B to Part 830—General Statement of Safety Basis Policy
</HEAD>
<HD2>A. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>This appendix describes DOE's expectations for the safety basis requirements of 10 CFR part 830, acceptable methods for implementing these requirements, and criteria DOE will use to evaluate compliance with these requirements. This appendix does not create any new requirements and should be used consistently with DOE's policy that work be conducted safely and efficiently and in a manner that ensures protection of workers, the public, and the environment.
</P>
<HD2>B. Purpose
</HD2>
<P>1. The safety basis requirements of Part 830 require the contractor responsible for a DOE nuclear facility to analyze the facility, the work to be performed, and the associated hazards and to identify the conditions, safe boundaries, and hazard controls necessary to protect workers, the public and the environment from adverse consequences. These analyses and hazard controls constitute the safety basis upon which the contractor and DOE rely to conclude that the facility can be operated safely. Performing work consistent with the safety basis provides reasonable assurance of adequate protection of workers, the public, and the environment.
</P>
<P>2. The safety basis requirements are intended to further the objective of making safety an integral part of how work is performed throughout the DOE complex. Developing a thorough understanding of a nuclear facility, the work to be performed, the associated hazards and the needed hazard controls is essential to integrating safety into management and work at all levels. Performing work in accordance with the safety basis for a nuclear facility is the realization of that objective.
</P>
<HD2>C. Scope
</HD2>
<P>1. A contractor must establish and maintain a safety basis for a Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility because these facilities have the potential for significant radiological consequences. DOE-STD-1027 sets forth the methodology for categorizing a DOE nuclear facility based on the inventory of radioactive materials.
</P>
<P>2. Unlike the quality assurance requirements of Part 830 that apply to all DOE nuclear facilities, the safety basis requirements only apply to Hazard Category 1, 2, and 3 DOE nuclear facilities and do not apply to nuclear facilities below Hazard Category 3.
</P>
<HD2>D. Integrated Safety Management
</HD2>
<P>1. The safety basis requirements are consistent with integrated safety management. DOE expects that, if a contractor complies with the Department of Energy Acquisition Regulation (DEAR) clause on integration of environment, safety, and health into work planning and execution (48 CFR 970.5223-1, <I>Integration of Environment, Safety and Health into Work Planning and Execution</I>) and the DEAR clause on laws, regulations, and DOE directives (48 CFR 970.5204-2, Laws, Regulations and DOE Directives), the contractor will have established the foundation to meet the safety basis requirements.
</P>
<P>2. The processes embedded in a safety management system should lead to a contractor establishing adequate safety bases and safety management programs that will meet the safety basis requirements of this Subpart. Consequently, the DOE expects if a contractor has adequately implemented integrated safety management, few additional requirements will stem from this Subpart and, in such cases, the existing safety basis prepared in accordance with integrated safety management provisions, including existing DOE safety requirements in contracts, should meet the requirements of this Subpart.
</P>
<P>3. DOE does not expect there to be any conflict between contractual requirements and regulatory requirements. In fact, DOE expects that contract provisions will be used to provide more detail on implementation of safety basis requirements such as preparing a documented safety analysis, developing technical safety requirements, and implementing a USQ process.
</P>
<HD2>E. Enforcement of Safety Basis Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. Enforcement of the safety basis requirements will be performance oriented. That is, DOE will focus its enforcement efforts on whether a contractor operates a nuclear facility consistent with the safety basis for the facility and, in particular, whether work is performed in accordance with the safety basis.
</P>
<P>2. As part of the approval process, DOE will review the content and quality of the safety basis documentation. DOE intends to use the approval process to assess the adequacy of a safety basis developed by a contractor to ensure that workers, the public, and the environment are provided reasonable assurance of adequate protection from identified hazards. Once approved by DOE, the safety basis documentation will not be subject to regulatory enforcement actions unless DOE determines that the information which supports the documentation is not complete and accurate in all material respects, as required by 10 CFR 820.11. This is consistent with the DOE enforcement provisions and policy in 10 CFR part 820.
</P>
<P>3. DOE does not intend the adoption of the safety basis requirements to affect the existing quality assurance requirements or the existing obligation of contractors to comply with the quality assurance requirements. In particular, in conjunction with the adoption of the safety basis requirements, DOE revised the language in 10 CFR 830.122(e)(1) to make clear that hazard controls are part of the work processes to which a contractor and other persons must adhere when performing work. This obligation to perform work consistent with hazard controls adopted to meet regulatory or contract requirements existed prior to the adoption of the safety basis requirements and is both consistent with and independent of the safety basis requirements.
</P>
<P>4. A documented safety analysis must address all hazards (that is, both radiological and nonradiological hazards) and the controls necessary to provide adequate protection to the public, workers, and the environment from these hazards. Section 234A of the Atomic Energy Act only authorizes DOE to issue civil penalties for violations of requirements related to nuclear safety. Therefore, DOE will impose civil penalties for violations of the safety basis requirements (including hazard controls) only if they are related to nuclear safety.
</P>
<HD2>F. Documented Safety Analysis
</HD2>
<P>1. A documented safety analysis must demonstrate the extent to which a nuclear facility can be operated safely with respect to workers, the public, and the environment.
</P>
<P>2. DOE expects a contractor to use a graded approach to develop a documented safety analysis and describe how the graded approach was applied. The level of detail, analysis, and documentation will reflect the complexity and hazards associated with a particular facility. Thus, the documented safety analysis for a simple, low hazard facility may be relatively short and qualitative in nature, while the documented safety analysis for a complex, high hazard facility may be quite elaborate and more quantitative. DOE will work with its contractors to ensure a documented safety analysis is appropriate for the facility for which it is being developed.
</P>
<P>3. Because DOE has ultimate responsibility for the safety of its facilities, DOE will review each documented safety analysis:
</P>
<P>(i) As part of the initial submittal;
</P>
<P>(ii) When revisions are submitted as part of a positive USQ determination or major modification;
</P>
<P>(iii) If DOE has reason to believe a portion of the safety basis to be inadequate, or;
</P>
<P>(iv) If DOE has reason to believe a portion of the safety basis has substantially changed. DOE will review the documented safety analysis to determine whether the rigor and detail of the documented safety analysis are appropriate for the complexity and hazards expected at the nuclear facility. In particular, DOE will evaluate the documented safety analysis by considering the extent to which the documented safety analysis:
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfies the provisions of the methodology used to prepare the documented safety analysis and
</P>
<P>(B) Adequately addresses the criteria set forth in 10 CFR 830.204(b). DOE will prepare a Safety Evaluation Report to document the results of its review of the documented safety analysis. A documented safety analysis must contain any conditions or changes required by DOE in the Safety Evaluation Report. Generally, DOE's review of the annual submittal may be limited to ensuring that the results of USQs have been adequately incorporated into the documented safety analysis. If additional changes are proposed by the contractor and included in the annual update that have not been previously approved by DOE or have not been evaluated as a part of the USQ process, DOE must review and approve these changes. DOE has the authority to review the safety basis at any time.
</P>
<P>4. In most cases, the contract will provide the framework for specifying the methodology and schedule for developing a documented safety analysis. Table 1 sets forth acceptable methodologies for preparing a documented safety analysis.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">The contractor responsible for:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">May prepare its document safety analysis by:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) A DOE reactor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Using the method in U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission Regulatory Guide 1.70, Standard Format and Content of Safety Analysis Reports for Nuclear Power Plants, or successor document.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) A DOE nonreactor nuclear facility</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Using the method in DOE-STD-3009, Change Notice No. 1, January 2000, Preparation Guide for U.S. Department of Energy Nonreactor Nuclear Facility Safety Analysis Reports, July 1994, or successor document.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) A DOE nuclear facility with a limited operational life</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Using the method in either:


<br/>(i) DOE-STD-3009-, Change Notice No. 1, January 2000, or successor document, or

<br/>(ii) DOE-STD-3011-94, Guidance for Preparation of DOE 5480.22 (TSR) and DOE 5480.23 (SAR) Implementation Plans, November 1994, or successor document.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) The deactivation or the transition surveillance and maintenance of a DOE nuclear facility</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Using the method in either:


<br/>(i) DOE-STD-3009, Change Notice No. 1, January 2000, or successor document, or

<br/>(ii) DOE-STD-3011-94 or successor document.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) The decommissioning of a DOE nuclear facility</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Using the method in DOE-STD-1120-98, Integration of Environment, Safety, and Health into Facility Disposition Activities, May 1998, or successor document;


<br/>(ii) Using the provisions in 29 CFR 1910.120 (or 29 CFR 1926.65 for construction activities) for developing Safety and Health Programs, Work Plans, Health and Safety Plans, and Emergency Response Plans to address public safety, as well as worker safety; and

<br/>(iii) Deriving hazard controls based on the Safety and Health Programs, the Work Plans, the Health and Safety Plans, and the Emergency Response Plans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) A DOE environmental restoration activity that involves either work not done within a permanent structure or the decommissioning of a facility with only low-level residual fixed radioactivity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Using the method in DOE-STD-1120-98 or successor document, and


<br/>(ii) Using the provisions in 29 CFR 1910.120 (or 29 CFR 1926.65 for construction activities) for developing a Safety and Health Program and a site-specific Health and Safety Plan (including elements for Emergency Response Plans, conduct of operations, training and qualifications, and maintenance management).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) A DOE nuclear explosive facility and the nuclear explosive operations conducted therein</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Developing its documented safety analysis in two pieces:


<br/>(i) A Safety Analysis Report for the nuclear facility that considers the generic nuclear explosive operations and is prepared in accordance with DOE-STD-3009, Change Notice No. 1, January 2000, or successor document, and

<br/>(ii) A Hazard Analysis Report for the specific nuclear explosive operations prepared in accordance with DOE-STD-3016-99, Hazards Analysis Reports for Nuclear Explosive Operations, February 1999, or successor document.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) A DOE Hazard Category 3 nonreactor nuclear facility</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Using the methods in Chapters 2, 3, 4, and 5 of DOE-STD-3009, Change Notice No. 1, January 2000, or successor document to address in a simplified fashion:


<br/>(i) The basic description of the facility/activity and its operations, including safety structures, systems, and components;

<br/>(ii) A qualitative hazards analysis; and

<br/>(iii) The hazard controls (consisting primarily of inventory limits and safety management programs) and their bases.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Transportation activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Preparing a Safety Analysis Report for Packaging in accordance with DOE-O-460.1A, Packaging and Transportation Safety, October 2, 1996, or successor document and


<br/>(ii) Preparing a Transportation Safety Document in accordance with DOE-G-460.1-1, Implementation Guide for Use with DOE O 460.1A, Packaging and Transportation Safety, June 5, 1997, or successor document.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Transportation and onsite transfer of nuclear explosives, nuclear components, Naval nuclear fuel elements, Category I and Category II special nuclear materials, special assemblies, and other materials of national security</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Preparing a Safety Analysis Report for Packaging in accordance with DOE-O-461.1, Packaging and Transportation of Materials of National Security Interest, September 29, 2000, or successor document and


<br/>(ii) Preparing a Transportation Safety Document in accordance with DOE-M-461.1-1, Packaging and Transfer of Materials of National Security Interest Manual, September 29, 2000, or successor document.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>5. Table 1 refers to specific types of nuclear facilities. These references are not intended to constitute an exhaustive list of the specific types of nuclear facilities. Part 830 defines nuclear facility broadly to include a reactor or a nonreactor nuclear facility where an activity is conducted for or on behalf of DOE and includes any related area, structure, facility, or activity to the extent necessary to ensure proper implementation of the requirements established by this part. The only exceptions are those facilities specifically excluded such as accelerators. Table 2 defines the terms referenced in Table 1 that are not defined in 10 CFR 830.3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">For purposes of Table 1:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Means:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Deactivation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The process of placing a facility in a stable and known condition, including the removal of hazardous and radioactive materials.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Decontamination</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The removal or reduction of residual radioactive and hazardous materials by mechanical, chemical, or other techniques to achieve a stated objective or end condition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Decommissioning</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Those actions taking place after deactivation of a nuclear facility to retire it from service and includes surveillance and maintenance, decontamination, and/or dismantlement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Environmental restoration activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The process by which contaminated sites and facilities are identified and characterized and by which existing contamination is contained, or removed and disposed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Generic nuclear explosive operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A characterization that considers the collective attributes (such as special facility system requirements, physical weapon characteristics, or quantities and chemical/physical forms of hazardous materials) for all projected nuclear explosive operations to be conducted at a facility.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Nuclear explosive facility</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A nuclear facility at which nuclear operations and activities involving a nuclear explosive may be conducted.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Nuclear explosive operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any activity involving a nuclear explosive, including activities in which main-charge, high-explosive parts and pits are collocated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Nuclear facility with a limited operational life</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A nuclear facility for which there is a short remaining operational period before ending the facility's mission and initiating deactivation and decommissioning and for which there are no intended additional missions other than cleanup.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Specific nuclear explosive operation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A specific nuclear explosive subjected to the stipulated steps of an individual operation, such as assembly or disassembly.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) Transition surveillance and maintenance activities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Activities conducted when a facility is not operating or during deactivation, decontamination, and decommissioning operations when surveillance and maintenance are the predominant activities being conducted at the facility. These activities are necessary for satisfactory containment of hazardous materials and protection of workers, the public, and the environment. These activities include providing periodic inspections, maintenance of structures, systems, and components, and actions to prevent the alteration of hazardous materials to an unsafe state.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>6. The contractor responsible for the design and construction of a new Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility or a major modification to an existing Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility must prepare a preliminary documented safety analysis. A preliminary documented safety analysis can ensure that substantial costs and time are not wasted in constructing a nuclear facility that will not be acceptable to DOE. If a contractor is required to prepare a preliminary documented safety analysis, the contractor must obtain DOE approval of the preliminary documented safety analysis prior to procuring materials or components or beginning construction. DOE, however, may authorize the contractor to perform limited procurement and construction activities without approval of a preliminary documented safety analysis if DOE determines that the activities are not detrimental to public health and safety and are in the best interests of DOE. DOE Order 420.1, or successor document, sets forth acceptable nuclear safety design criteria for use in preparing a preliminary documented safety analysis. As a general matter, DOE does not expect preliminary documented safety analyses to be needed for activities that do not involve significant construction such as environmental restoration activities, decontamination and decommissioning activities, specific nuclear explosive operations, or transition surveillance and maintenance activities.
</P>
<HD2>G. Hazard Controls
</HD2>
<P>1. Hazard controls are measures to eliminate, limit, or mitigate hazards to workers, the public, or the environment. They include:
</P>
<P>(i) Physical, design, structural, and engineering features;
</P>
<P>(ii) Safety structures, systems, and components;
</P>
<P>(iii) Safety management programs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Technical safety requirements; and
</P>
<P>(v) Other controls necessary to provide adequate protection from hazards.
</P>
<P>2. The types and specific characteristics of the safety management programs necessary for a DOE nuclear facility will be dependent on the complexity and hazards associated with the nuclear facility and the work being performed. In most cases, however, a contractor should consider safety management programs covering topics such as quality assurance, procedures, maintenance, personnel training, conduct of operations, criticality safety, emergency preparedness, fire protection, waste management, and radiation protection. In general, DOE Orders set forth DOE's expectations concerning specific topics. For example, DOE Order 420.1, or successor document provides DOE's expectations with respect to fire protection and criticality safety.
</P>
<P>3. Safety structures, systems, and components require formal definition of minimum acceptable performance in the documented safety analysis. This is accomplished by first defining a safety function, then describing the structure, systems, and components, placing functional requirements on those portions of the structures, systems, and components required for the safety function, and identifying performance criteria that will ensure functional requirements are met. Technical safety requirements are developed to ensure the operability of the safety structures, systems, and components and define actions to be taken if a safety structure, system, or component is not operable.
</P>
<P>4. Technical safety requirements establish limits, controls, and related actions necessary for the safe operation of a nuclear facility. The exact form and contents of technical safety requirements will depend on the circumstances of a particular nuclear facility as defined in the documented safety analysis for the nuclear facility. As appropriate, technical safety requirements may have sections on:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety limits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Operating limits;
</P>
<P>(iii) Surveillance requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Administrative controls;
</P>
<P>(v) Use and application; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Design features.
</P>
<P>It may also have an appendix on the bases for the limits and requirements. DOE Guide 423.1-1B, Implementation Guide for Use in Developing Technical Safety Requirements, or successor document, provides a complete description of what technical safety requirements should contain and how they should be developed and maintained.
</P>
<P>5. DOE will examine and approve the technical safety requirements as part of preparing the safety evaluation report and reviewing updates to the safety basis. As with all hazard controls, technical safety requirements must be kept current and reflect changes in the facility, the work and the hazards as they are analyzed in the documented safety analysis. In addition, DOE expects a contractor to maintain technical safety requirements, and other hazard controls as appropriate, as controlled documents with an authorized users list.
</P>
<P>6. Table 3 sets forth DOE's expectations concerning acceptable technical safety requirements.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">As appropriate for a particular DOE


<br/>nuclear facility, the section of the technical

<br/>safety requirements on:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Will provide information on:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Safety limits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The limits on process variables associated with those safety class physical barriers, generally passive, that are necessary for the intended facility function and that are required to guard against the uncontrolled release of radioactive materials. The safety limit section describes, as precisely as possible, the parameters being limited, states the limit in measurable units (pressure, temperature, flow, etc.), and indicates the applicability of the limit. The safety limit section also describes the actions to be taken in the event that the safety limit is exceeded. These actions should first place the facility in the safe, stable condition attainable, including total shutdown (except where such action might reduce the margin of safety) or should verify that the facility already is safe and stable and will remain so. The technical safety requirement should state that the contractor must obtain DOE authorization to restart the nuclear facility following a violation of a safety limit. The safety limit section also establishes the steps and time limits to correct the out-of-specification condition.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Operating limits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Those limits which are required to ensure the safe operation of a nuclear facility. The operating limits section may include subsections on limiting control settings and limiting conditions for operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) Limiting control settings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The settings on safety systems that control process variables to prevent exceeding a safety limit. The limited control settings section normally contains the settings for automatic alarms and for the automatic or non-automatic initiation of protective actions related to those variables associated with the function of safety class structures, systems, or components if the safety analysis shows that they are relied upon to mitigate or prevent an accident. The limited control settings section also identifies the protective actions to be taken at the specific settings chosen in order to correct a situation automatically or manually such that the related safety limit is not exceeded. Protective actions may include maintaining the variables within the requirements and repairing the automatic device promptly or shutting down the affected part of the process and, if required, the entire facility.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) Limiting conditions for operations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The limits that represent the lowest functional capability or performance level of safety structures, systems, and components required to perform an activity safely. The limiting conditions for operation section describes, as precisely as possible, the lowest functional capability or performance level of equipment required for continued safe operation of the facility. The limiting conditions for operation section also states the action to be taken to address a condition not meeting the limiting conditions for operation section. Normally this simply provides for the adverse condition being corrected in a certain time frame and for further action if this is impossible.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) Surveillance requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Requirements relating to test, calibration, or inspection to assure that the necessary operability and quality of safety structures, systems, and components is maintained; that facility operation is within safety limits; and that limiting control settings and limiting conditions for operation are met. If a required surveillance is not successfully completed, the contractor is expected to assume the systems or components involved are inoperable and take the actions defined by the technical safety requirement until the systems or components can be shown to be operable. If, however, a required surveillance is not performed within its required frequency, the contractor is allowed to perform the surveillance within 24 hours or the original frequency, whichever is smaller, and confirm operability.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) Administrative controls</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Organization and management, procedures, recordkeeping, assessment, and reporting necessary to ensure safe operation of a facility consistent with the technical safety requirement. In general, the administrative controls section addresses (i) the requirements associated with administrative controls (including those for reporting violations of the technical safety requirement); (ii) the staffing requirements for facility positions important to safe conduct of the facility; and (iii) the commitments to the safety management programs identified in the documented safety analysis as necessary components of the safety basis for the facility.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) Use and application provisions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The basic instructions for applying the safety restrictions contained in a technical safety requirement. The use and application section includes definitions of terms, operating modes, logical connectors, completion times, and frequency notations.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) Design features</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Design features of the facility that, if altered or modified, would have a significant effect on safe operation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) Bases appendix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The reasons for the safety limits, operating limits, and associated surveillance requirements in the technical safety requirements. The statements for each limit or requirement shows how the numeric value, the condition, or the surveillance fulfills the purpose derived from the safety documentation. The primary purpose for describing the basis of each limit or requirement is to ensure that any future changes to the limit or requirement is done with full knowledge of the original intent or purpose of the limit or requirement.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>H. Unreviewed Safety Questions
</HD2>
<P>1. The USQ process is an important tool to evaluate whether changes affect the safety basis. A contractor must use the USQ process to ensure that the safety basis for a DOE nuclear facility is not undermined by changes in the facility, the work performed, the associated hazards, or other factors that support the adequacy of the safety basis.
</P>
<P>2. The USQ process permits a contractor to make physical and procedural changes to a nuclear facility and to conduct tests and experiments without prior approval, provided these changes do not cause a USQ. The USQ process provides a contractor with the flexibility needed to conduct day-to-day operations by requiring only those changes and tests with a potential to impact the safety basis (and therefore the safety of the nuclear facility) be approved by DOE. This allows DOE to focus its review on those changes significant to safety. The USQ process helps keep the safety basis current by ensuring appropriate review of and response to situations that might adversely affect the safety basis.
</P>
<P>3. DOE Guide 424.1-1B Chg 2, Implementation Guide for Use in Addressing Unreviewed Safety Question Requirements, or successor document provides DOE's expectations for a USQ process. The contractor must obtain DOE approval of its procedure used to implement the USQ process. The contractor is allowed to make editorial and format changes to its USQ procedure while maintaining DOE approval.
</P>
<HD2>I. Functions and Responsibilities
</HD2>
<P>1. The DOE Management Official for a DOE nuclear facility (that is, the Assistant Secretary, the Assistant Administrator, or the Office Director who is primarily responsible for the management of the facility) has primary responsibility within DOE for ensuring that the safety basis for the facility is adequate and complies with the safety basis requirements of Part 830. The DOE Management Official is responsible for ensuring the timely and proper—
</P>
<P>(i) Review of all safety basis documents submitted to DOE; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Preparation of a safety evaluation report concerning the safety basis for a facility.
</P>
<P>2. DOE will maintain a public list on the internet that provides the status of the safety basis for each Hazard Category 1, 2, or 3 DOE nuclear facility and, to the extent practicable, provides information on how to obtain a copy of the safety basis and related documents for a facility.




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="835" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 835—OCCUPATIONAL RADIATION PROTECTION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201, 7191; 50 U.S.C. 2410.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The rules in this part establish radiation protection standards, limits, and program requirements for protecting individuals from ionizing radiation resulting from the conduct of DOE activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the requirements in this part do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Activities that are regulated through a license by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or a State under an Agreement with the Nuclear Regulatory commission, including activities certified by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission under section 1701 of the Atomic Energy Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Activities conducted under the authority of the Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors, as described in Pub. L. 98-525 and 106-65;
</P>
<P>(3) Activities conducted under the Nuclear Explosives and Weapons Surety Program relating to the prevention of accidental or unauthorized nuclear detonations;
</P>
<P>(4) DOE activities conducted outside the United States on territory under the jurisdiction of a foreign government to the extent governed by occupational radiation protection requirements agreed to between the United States and the cognizant government; 
</P>
<P>(5) Background radiation, radiation doses received as a patient for the purposes of medical diagnosis or therapy, or radiation doses received from participation as a subject in medical research programs; or
</P>
<P>(6) Radioactive material on or within material, equipment, and real property which is approved for release when the radiological conditions of the material, equipment, and real property have been documented to comply with the criteria for release set forth in a DOE authorized limit which has been approved by a Secretarial Officer in consultation with the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security.
</P>
<P>(7) Radioactive material transportation not performed by DOE or a DOE contractor.
</P>
<P>(c) Occupational doses received as a result of excluded activities and radioactive material transportation listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(4) and (b)(7) of this section, shall be included to the extent practicable when determining compliance with the occupational dose limits at §§ 835.202 and 835.207, and with the limits for the embryo/fetus at § 835.206. Occupational doses resulting from authorized emergency exposures and planned special exposures shall not be considered when determining compliance with the dose limits at §§ 835.202 and 835.207.
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements in subparts F and G of this part do not apply to radioactive material transportation by DOE or a DOE contractor conducted:
</P>
<P>(1) Under the continuous observation and control of an individual who is knowledgeable of and implements required exposure control measures, or
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with Department of Transportation regulations or DOE orders that govern such movements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59679, Nov. 4, 1998; 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 72 FR 31922, June 8, 2007; 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accountable sealed radioactive source</I> means a sealed radioactive source having a half-life equal to or greater than 30 days and an isotopic activity equal to or greater than the corresponding value provided in appendix E of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Activity Median Aerodynamic Diameter (AMAD)</I> means a particle size in an aerosol where fifty percent of the activity in the aerosol is associated with particles of aerodynamic diameter greater than the AMAD.
</P>
<P><I>Airborne radioactive material or airborne radioactivity</I> means radioactive material dispersed in the air in the form of dusts, fumes, particulates, mists, vapors, or gases.
</P>
<P><I>Airborne radioactivity area</I> means any area, accessible to individuals, where:
</P>
<P>(1) The concentration of airborne radioactivity, above natural background, exceeds or is likely to exceed the derived air concentration (DAC) values listed in appendix A or appendix C of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) An individual present in the area without respiratory protection could receive an intake exceeding 12 DAC-hours in a week.
</P>
<P><I>ALARA</I> means “As Low As is Reasonably Achievable,” which is the approach to radiation protection to manage and control exposures (both individual and collective) to the work force and to the general public to as low as is reasonable, taking into account social, technical, economic, practical, and public policy considerations. As used in this part, ALARA is not a dose limit but a process which has the objective of attaining doses as far below the applicable limits of this part as is reasonably achievable.
</P>
<P><I>Annual limit on intake (ALI)</I> means the derived limit for the amount of radioactive material taken into the body of an adult worker by inhalation or ingestion in a year. ALI is the smaller value of intake of a given radionuclide in a year by the reference man (ICRP Publication 23) that would result in a committed effective dose of 5 rems (0.05 sieverts (Sv)) (1 rem = 0.01 Sv) or a committed equivalent dose of 50 rems (0.5 Sv) to any individual organ or tissue. ALI values for intake by ingestion and inhalation of selected radionuclides are based on International Commission on Radiological Protection Publication 68, <I>Dose Coefficients for Intakes of Radionuclides by Workers</I>, published July, 1994 (ISBN 0 08 042651 4). This document is available from Elsevier Science Inc., Tarrytown, NY.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized limit</I> means a limit on the concentration of residual radioactive material on the surfaces or within the property that has been derived consistent with DOE directives including the as low as is reasonably achievable (ALARA) process requirements, given the anticipated use of the property and has been authorized by DOE to permit the release of the property from DOE radiological control.
</P>
<P><I>Background</I> means radiation from:
</P>
<P>(1) Naturally occurring radioactive materials which have not been technologically enhanced;
</P>
<P>(2) Cosmic sources;
</P>
<P>(3) Global fallout as it exists in the environment (such as from the testing of nuclear explosive devices);
</P>
<P>(4) Radon and its progeny in concentrations or levels existing in buildings or the environment which have not been elevated as a result of current or prior activities; and
</P>
<P>(5) Consumer products containing nominal amounts of radioactive material or producing nominal amounts of radiation.
</P>
<P><I>Bioassay</I> means the determination of kinds, quantities, or concentrations, and, in some cases, locations of radioactive material in the human body, whether by direct measurement or by analysis and evaluation of radioactive materials excreted or removed from the human body.
</P>
<P><I>Calibration</I> means to adjust and/or determine either:
</P>
<P>(1) The response or reading of an instrument relative to a standard (<I>e.g.</I>, primary, secondary, or tertiary) or to a series of conventionally true values; or
</P>
<P>(2) The strength of a radiation source relative to a standard (<I>e.g.</I>, primary, secondary, or tertiary) or conventionally true value.
</P>
<P><I>Contamination area</I> means any area, accessible to individuals, where removable surface contamination levels exceed or are likely to exceed the removable surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part, but do not exceed 100 times those values.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled area</I> means any area to which access is managed by or for DOE to protect individuals from exposure to radiation and/or radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>Declared pregnant worker</I> means a woman who has voluntarily declared to her employer, in writing, her pregnancy for the purpose of being subject to the occupational dose limits to the embryo/fetus as provided in § 835.206. This declaration may be revoked, in writing, at any time by the declared pregnant worker.
</P>
<P><I>Derived air concentration (DAC)</I> means, for the radionuclides listed in appendix A of this part, the airborne concentration that equals the ALI divided by the volume of air breathed by an average worker for a working year of 2000 hours (assuming a breathing volume of 2400 m
<SU>3</SU>). For the radionuclides listed in appendix C of this part, the air immersion DACs were calculated for a continuous, non-shielded exposure via immersion in a semi-infinite cloud of radioactive material. Except as noted in the footnotes to appendix A of this part, the values are based on dose coefficients from International Commission on Radiological Protection Publication 68, <I>Dose Coefficients for Intakes of Radionuclides by Workers</I>, published July, 1994 (ISBN 0 08 042651 4) and the associated ICRP computer program, <I>The ICRP Database of Dose Coefficients: Workers and Members of the Public</I>, (ISBN 0 08 043 8768). These materials are available from Elsevier Science Inc., Tarrytown, NY.
</P>
<P><I>Derived air concentration-hour (DAC-hour)</I> means the product of the concentration of radioactive material in air (expressed as a fraction or multiple of the DAC for each radionuclide) and the time of exposure to that radionuclide, in hours.
</P>
<P><I>Deterministic effects</I> means effects due to radiation exposure for which the severity varies with the dose and for which a threshold normally exists (<I>e.g.</I>, radiation-induced opacities within the lens of the eye).
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>DOE activity</I> means an activity taken for or by DOE in a DOE operation or facility that has the potential to result in the occupational exposure of an individual to radiation or radioactive material. The activity may be, but is not limited to, design, construction, operation, or decommissioning. To the extent appropriate, the activity may involve a single DOE facility or operation or a combination of facilities and operations, possibly including an entire site or multiple DOE sites.
</P>
<P><I>Entrance or access point</I> means any location through which an individual could gain access to areas controlled for the purpose of radiation protection. This includes entry or exit portals of sufficient size to permit human entry, irrespective of their intended use.
</P>
<P><I>General employee</I> means an individual who is either a DOE or DOE contractor employee; an employee of a subcontractor to a DOE contractor; or an individual who performs work for or in conjunction with DOE or utilizes DOE facilities.
</P>
<P><I>High contamination area</I> means any area, accessible to individuals, where removable surface contamination levels exceed or are likely to exceed 100 times the removable surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part.
</P>
<P><I>High radiation area</I> means any area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving an equivalent dose to the whole body in excess of 0.1 rems (0.001 Sv) in 1 hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means any human being.
</P>
<P><I>Member of the public</I> means an individual who is not a general employee. An individual is not a “member of the public” during any period in which the individual receives an occupational dose.
</P>
<P><I>Minor</I> means an individual less than 18 years of age.
</P>
<P><I>Monitoring</I> means the measurement of radiation levels, airborne radioactivity concentrations, radioactive contamination levels, quantities of radioactive material, or individual doses and the use of the results of these measurements to evaluate radiological hazards or potential and actual doses resulting from exposures to ionizing radiation.
</P>
<P><I>Occupational dose</I> means an individual's ionizing radiation dose (external and internal) as a result of that individual's work assignment. Occupational dose does not include doses received as a medical patient or doses resulting from background radiation or participation as a subject in medical research programs.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency, any State or political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or other entity, and any legal successor, representative, agent or agency of the foregoing; provided that person does not include DOE or the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation</I> means ionizing radiation: alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, X-rays, neutrons, high-speed electrons, high-speed protons, and other particles capable of producing ions. Radiation, as used in this part, does not include non-ionizing radiation, such as radio waves or microwaves, or visible, infrared, or ultraviolet light.
</P>
<P><I>Radiation area</I> means any area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving an equivalent dose to the whole body in excess of 0.005 rem (0.05 mSv) in 1 hour at 30 centimeters from the source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive material area</I> means any area within a controlled area, accessible to individuals, in which items or containers of radioactive material exist and the total activity of radioactive material exceeds the applicable values provided in appendix E of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive material transportation</I> means the movement of radioactive material by aircraft, rail, vessel, or highway vehicle. Radioactive material transportation does not include preparation of material or packagings for transportation, storage of material awaiting transportation, or application of markings and labels required for transportation.
</P>
<P><I>Radiological area</I> means any area within a controlled area defined in this section as a “radiation area,” “high radiation area,” “very high radiation area,” “contamination area,” “high contamination area,” or “airborne radioactivity area.”
</P>
<P><I>Radiological worker</I> means a general employee whose job assignment involves operation of radiation producing devices or working with radioactive materials, or who is likely to be routinely occupationally exposed above 0.1 rem (0.001 Sv) per year total effective dose.
</P>
<P><I>Real property</I> means land and anything permanently affixed to the land such as buildings, fences and those things attached to the buildings, such as light fixtures, plumbing and heating fixtures.
</P>
<P><I>Real-time air monitoring</I> means measurement of the concentrations or quantities of airborne radioactive materials on a continuous basis.
</P>
<P><I>Respiratory protective device</I> means an apparatus, such as a respirator, worn by an individual for the purpose of reducing the individual's intake of airborne radioactive materials.
</P>
<P><I>Sealed radioactive source</I> means a radioactive source manufactured, obtained, or retained for the purpose of utilizing the emitted radiation. The sealed radioactive source consists of a known or estimated quantity of radioactive material contained within a sealed capsule, sealed between layer(s) of non-radioactive material, or firmly fixed to a non-radioactive surface by electroplating or other means intended to prevent leakage or escape of the radioactive material. Sealed radioactive sources do not include reactor fuel elements, nuclear explosive devices, and radioisotope thermoelectric generators.
</P>
<P><I>Source leak test</I> means a test to determine if a sealed radioactive source is leaking radioactive material.
</P>
<P><I>Special tritium compound (STC)</I> means any compound, except for H<E T="52">2</E>O, that contains tritium, either intentionally (<I>e.g.</I>, by synthesis) or inadvertently (<I>e.g.</I>, by contamination mechanisms).
</P>
<P><I>Stochastic effects</I> means malignant and hereditary diseases for which the probability of an effect occurring, rather than its severity, is regarded as a function of dose without a threshold, for radiation protection purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Very high radiation area</I> means any area, accessible to individuals, in which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving an absorbed dose in excess of 500 rads (5 grays) in one hour at 1 meter from a radiation source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates.
</P>
<P><I>Week</I> means a period of seven consecutive days.
</P>
<P><I>Year</I> means the period of time beginning on or near January 1 and ending on or near December 31 of that same year used to determine compliance with the provisions of this part. The starting and ending date of the year used to determine compliance may be changed, provided that the change is made at the beginning of the year and that no day is omitted or duplicated in consecutive years.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in this part to describe various aspects of radiation dose:
</P>
<P><I>Absorbed dose</I> (D) means the average energy imparted by ionizing radiation to the matter in a volume element per unit mass of irradiated material. The absorbed dose is expressed in units of rad (or gray) (1 rad = 0.01 gray).
</P>
<P><I>Committed effective dose</I> (E<E T="52">50</E>) means the sum of the committed equivalent doses to various tissues or organs in the body (H<E T="52">T,50</E>), each multiplied by the appropriate tissue weighting factor (w<E T="52">T</E>)—that is, E<E T="52">50</E> = Σw<E T="52">T</E>H<E T="52">T,50</E> + w<E T="52">Remainder</E>H<E T="52">Remainder,50</E>. Where w<E T="52">Remainder</E> is the tissue weighting factor assigned to the remainder organs and tissues and H<E T="52">Remainder,50</E> is the committed equivalent dose to the remainder organs and tissues. Committed effective dose is expressed in units of rem (or Sv).
</P>
<P><I>Committed equivalent dose</I> (H<E T="52">T,50</E>) means the equivalent dose calculated to be received by a tissue or organ over a 50-year period after the intake of a radionuclide into the body. It does not include contributions from radiation sources external to the body. Committed equivalent dose is expressed in units of rem (or Sv).
</P>
<P><I>Cumulative total effective dose</I> means the sum of all total effective dose values recorded for an individual plus, for occupational exposures received before the implementation date of this amendment, the cumulative total effective dose equivalent (as defined in the November 4, 1998 amendment to this rule) values recorded for an individual, where available, for each year occupational dose was received, beginning January 1, 1989.
</P>
<P><I>Dose</I> is a general term for absorbed dose, equivalent dose, effective dose, committed equivalent dose, committed effective dose, or total effective dose as defined in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Effective dose</I> (E) means the summation of the products of the equivalent dose received by specified tissues or organs of the body (H<E T="52">T</E>) and the appropriate tissue weighting factor (w<E T="52">T</E>)—that is, E = Σw<E T="52">T</E>H<E T="52">T</E>. It includes the dose from radiation sources internal and/or external to the body. For purposes of compliance with this part, equivalent dose to the whole body may be used as effective dose for external exposures. The effective dose is expressed in units of rem (or Sv).
</P>
<P><I>Equivalent dose</I> (H<E T="52">T</E>) means the product of average absorbed dose (D<E T="52">T,R</E>) in rad (or gray) in a tissue or organ (T) and a radiation (R) weighting factor (w<E T="52">R</E>). For external dose, the equivalent dose to the whole body is assessed at a depth of 1 cm in tissue; the equivalent dose to the lens of the eye is assessed at a depth of 0.3 cm in tissue, and the equivalent dose to the extremity and skin is assessed at a depth of 0.007 cm in tissue. Equivalent dose is expressed in units of rem (or Sv).
</P>
<P><I>External dose or exposure</I> means that portion of the equivalent dose received from radiation sources outside the body (<I>i.e.</I>, “external sources”).
</P>
<P><I>Extremity</I> means hands and arms below the elbow or feet and legs below the knee.
</P>
<P><I>Internal dose or exposure</I> means that portion of the equivalent dose received from radioactive material taken into the body (<I>i.e.</I>, “internal sources”).
</P>
<P><I>Radiation weighting factor</I> (w<E T="52">R</E>) means the modifying factor used to calculate the equivalent dose from the average tissue or organ absorbed dose; the absorbed dose (expressed in rad or gray) is multiplied by the appropriate radiation weighting factor. The radiation weighting factors to be used for determining equivalent dose in rem are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Radiation Weighting Factors 
<sup>1</sup>, w<E T="52">R</E> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type and energy range 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radiation
<br/>weighting
<br/>factor 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Photons, electrons and muons, all energies</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neutrons, energy &lt;10 keV 
<sup>2 3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neutrons, energy 10 keV to 100 keV 
<sup>2 3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neutrons, energy &gt;100 keV to 2 MeV 
<sup>2 3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neutrons, energy &gt;2 MeV to 20 MeV 
<sup>2 3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Neutrons, energy &gt;20 MeV 
<sup>2 3</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protons, other than recoil protons, energy &gt;2 MeV</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha particles, fission fragments, heavy nuclei</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All values relate to the radiation incident on the body or, for internal sources, emitted from the source.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> When spectral data are insufficient to identify the energy of the neutrons, a radiation weighting factor of 20 shall be used.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> When spectral data are sufficient to identify the energy of the neutrons, the following equation may be used to determine a neutron radiation weighting factor value:</P></DIV></DIV>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="41" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er08jn07.003.gif"/></MATH>
<P><I>Tissue weighting factor</I> (w<E T="52">T</E>) means the fraction of the overall health risk, resulting from uniform, whole body irradiation, attributable to specific tissue (T). The equivalent dose to tissue, (H<E T="52">T</E>), is multiplied by the appropriate tissue weighting factor to obtain the effective dose (E) contribution from that tissue. The tissue weighting factors are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Tissue Weighting Factors for Various Organs and Tissues 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Organs or tissues, T 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tissue weighting factor, w<E T="52">T</E> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gonads</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Red bone marrow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colon</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lungs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Stomach</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bladder</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Breast</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liver</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Esophagus</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyroid</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bone surfaces</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Remainder 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole body 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> “Remainder” means the following additional tissues and organs and their masses, in grams, following parenthetically: adrenals (14), brain (1400), extrathoracic airways (15), small intestine (640), kidneys (310), muscle (28,000), pancreas (100), spleen (180), thymus (20), and uterus (80). The equivalent dose to the remainder tissues (H<E T="52">remainder</E>), is normally calculated as the mass-weighted mean dose to the preceding ten organs and tissues. In those cases in which the most highly irradiated remainder tissue or organ receives the highest equivalent dose of all the organs, a weighting factor of 0.025 (half of remainder) is applied to that tissue or organ and 0.025 (half of remainder) to the mass-weighted equivalent dose in the rest of the remainder tissues and organs to give the remainder equivalent dose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For the case of uniform external irradiation of the whole body, a tissue weighting factor (w<E T="52">T</E>) equal to 1 may be used in determination of the effective dose.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Total effective dose</I> (TED) means the sum of the effective dose (for external exposures) and the committed effective dose.
</P>
<P><I>Whole body</I> means, for the purposes of external exposure, head, trunk (including male gonads), arms above and including the elbow, or legs above and including the knee.
</P>
<P>(c) Terms defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 or in 10 CFR part 820 and not defined in this part are used consistent with their meanings given in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 or in 10 CFR part 820.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31922, June 8, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 18116, Apr. 21, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.3   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person or DOE personnel shall take or cause to be taken any action inconsistent with the requirements of: 
</P>
<P>(1) This part; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any program, plan, schedule, or other process established by this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to a particular DOE activity, contractor management shall be responsible for compliance with the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where there is no contractor for a DOE activity, DOE shall ensure implementation of and compliance with the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this part shall be construed as limiting actions that may be necessary to protect health and safety. 
</P>
<P>(e) For those activities that are required by §§ 835.102, 835.901(e), 835.1202 (a), and 835.1202(b), the time interval to conduct these activities may be extended by a period not to exceed 30 days to accommodate scheduling needs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.1.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.4   Radiological units.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, the quantities used in the records required by this part shall be clearly indicated in special units of curie, rad, roentgen, or rem, including multiples and subdivisions of these units, or other conventional units, such as, dpm, dpm/100 cm
<SU>2</SU> or mass units. The SI units, becquerel (Bq), gray (Gy), and sievert (Sv), may be provided parenthetically for reference with scientific standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31925, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Management and Administrative Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.101" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.101   Radiation protection programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A DOE activity shall be conducted in compliance with a documented radiation protection program (RPP) as approved by the DOE. 
</P>
<P>(b) The DOE may direct or make modifications to a RPP. 
</P>
<P>(c) The content of each RPP shall be commensurate with the nature of the activities performed and shall include formal plans and measures for applying the as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) process to occupational exposure. 
</P>
<P>(d) The RPP shall specify the existing and/or anticipated operational tasks that are intended to be within the scope of the RPP. Except as provided in § 835.101(h), any task outside the scope of a RPP shall not be initiated until an update of the RPP is approved by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(e) The content of the RPP shall address, but shall not necessarily be limited to, each requirement in this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) The RPP shall include plans, schedules, and other measures for achieving compliance with regulations of this part. Unless otherwise specified in this part, compliance with the amendments to this part published on June 8, 2007 shall be achieved no later than July 9, 2010.
</P>
<P>(g) An update of the RPP shall be submitted to DOE: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever a change or an addition to the RPP is made; 
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the initiation of a task not within the scope of the RPP; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Within 180 days of the effective date of any modifications to this part. 
</P>
<P>(h) Changes, additions, or updates to the RPP may become effective without prior Department approval only if the changes do not decrease the effectiveness of the RPP and the RPP, as changed, continues to meet the requirements of this part. Proposed changes that decrease the effectiveness of the RPP shall not be implemented without submittal to and approval by the Department. 
</P>
<P>(i) An initial RPP or an update shall be considered approved 180 days after its submission unless rejected by DOE at an earlier date. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31925, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.102" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.102   Internal audits.</HEAD>
<P>Internal audits of the radiation protection program, including examination of program content and implementation, shall be conducted through a process that ensures that all functional elements are reviewed no less frequently than every 36 months.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.103" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.103   Education, training and skills.</HEAD>
<P>Individuals responsible for developing and implementing measures necessary for ensuring compliance with the requirements of this part shall have the appropriate education, training, and skills to discharge these responsibilities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.104" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.104   Written procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Written procedures shall be developed and implemented as necessary to ensure compliance with this part, commensurate with the radiological hazards created by the activity and consistent with the education, training, and skills of the individuals exposed to those hazards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Standards for Internal and External Exposure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.201" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.201   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.202" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.202   Occupational dose limits for general employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except for planned special exposures conducted consistent with § 835.204 and emergency exposures authorized in accordance with § 835.1302, the occupational dose received by general employees shall be controlled such that the following limits are not exceeded in a year:
</P>
<P>(1) A total effective dose of 5 rems (0.05 Sv);
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the equivalent dose to the whole body for external exposures and the committed equivalent dose to any organ or tissue other than the skin or the lens of the eye of 50 rems (0.5 Sv);
</P>
<P>(3) An equivalent dose to the lens of the eye of 15 rems (0.15 Sv); and
</P>
<P>(4) The sum of the equivalent dose to the skin or to any extremity for external exposures and the committed equivalent dose to the skin or to any extremity of 50 rems (0.5 Sv).
</P>
<P>(b) All occupational doses received during the current year, except doses resulting from planned special exposures conducted in compliance with § 835.204 and emergency exposures authorized in accordance with § 835.1302, shall be included when demonstrating compliance with §§ 835.202(a) and 835.207.
</P>
<P>(c) Doses from background, therapeutic and diagnostic medical radiation, and participation as a subject in medical research programs shall not be included in dose records or in the assessment of compliance with the occupational dose limits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.203" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.203   Combining internal and external equivalent doses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The total effective dose during a year shall be determined by summing the effective dose from external exposures and the committed effective dose from intakes during the year.
</P>
<P>(b) Determinations of the effective dose shall be made using the radiation and tissue weighting factor values provided in § 835.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.204" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.204   Planned special exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A planned special exposure may be authorized for a radiological worker to receive doses in addition to and accounted for separately from the doses received under the limits specified in § 835.202(a), provided that each of the following conditions is satisfied: 
</P>
<P>(1) The planned special exposure is considered only in an exceptional situation when alternatives that might prevent a radiological worker from exceeding the limits in § 835.202(a) are unavailable or impractical;
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor management (and employer, if the employer is not the contractor) specifically requests the planned special exposure, in writing; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Joint written approval is received from the appropriate DOE Headquarters program office and the Secretarial Officer responsible for environment, safety and health matters.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to requesting an individual to participate in an authorized planned special exposure, the individual's dose from all previous planned special exposures and all doses in excess of the occupational dose limits shall be determined. 
</P>
<P>(c) An individual shall not receive a planned special exposure that, in addition to the doses determined in § 835.204(b), would result in a dose exceeding the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) In a year, the numerical values of the dose limits established at § 835.202(a); and
</P>
<P>(2) Over the individual's lifetime, five times the numerical values of the dose limits established at § 835.202(a).
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to a planned special exposure, written consent shall be obtained from each individual involved. Each such written consent shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The purpose of the planned operations and procedures to be used;
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated doses and associated potential risks and specific radiological conditions and other hazards which might be involved in performing the task; and
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions on the measures to be taken to keep the dose ALARA considering other risks that may be present.
</P>
<P>(e) Records of the conduct of a planned special exposure shall be maintained and a written report submitted within 30 days after the planned special exposure to the approving organizations identified in § 835.204(a)(3). 
</P>
<P>(f) The dose from planned special exposures is not to be considered in controlling future occupational dose of the individual under § 835.202(a), but is to be included in records and reports required under this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.205" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.205   Determination of compliance for non-uniform exposure of the skin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Non-uniform exposures of the skin from X-rays, beta radiation, and/or radioactive material on the skin are to be assessed as specified in this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of demonstrating compliance with § 835.202(a)(4), assessments shall be conducted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Area of skin irradiated is 100 cm</I><E T="53">2</E> <I>or more.</I> The non-uniform equivalent dose received during the year shall be averaged over the 100 cm
<SU>2</SU> of the skin receiving the maximum dose, added to any uniform equivalent dose also received by the skin, and recorded as the equivalent dose to any extremity or skin for the year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Area of skin irradiated is 10 cm</I><E T="53">2</E> <I>or more</I>, <I>but is less than 100 cm</I><E T="53">2</E>. The non-uniform equivalent dose (H) to the irradiated area received during the year shall be added to any uniform equivalent dose also received by the skin and recorded as the equivalent dose to any extremity or skin for the year. H is the equivalent dose averaged over the 1 cm
<SU>2</SU> of skin receiving the maximum absorbed dose, D, reduced by the fraction f, which is the irradiated area in cm
<SU>2</SU> divided by 100 cm
<SU>2</SU> (<I>i.e.</I>, H = fD). In no case shall a value of f less than 0.1 be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Area of skin irradiated is less than 10 cm</I><E T="53">2</E>. The non-uniform equivalent dose shall be averaged over the 1 cm
<SU>2</SU> of skin receiving the maximum dose. This equivalent dose shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be recorded in the individual's occupational exposure history as a special entry; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Not be added to any other equivalent dose to any extremity or skin for the year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.206" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.206   Limits for the embryo/fetus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The equivalent dose limit for the embryo/fetus from the period of conception to birth, as a result of occupational exposure of a declared pregnant worker, is 0.5 rem (0.005 Sv).
</P>
<P>(b) Substantial variation above a uniform exposure rate that would satisfy the limits provided in § 835.206(a) shall be avoided.
</P>
<P>(c) If the equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus is determined to have already exceeded 0.5 rem (0.005 Sv) by the time a worker declares her pregnancy, the declared pregnant worker shall not be assigned to tasks where additional occupational exposure is likely during the remaining gestation period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.207" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.207   Occupational dose limits for minors.</HEAD>
<P>The dose limits for minors occupationally exposed to radiation and/or radioactive materials at a DOE activity are 0.1 rem (0.001 Sv) total effective dose in a year and 10 percent of the occupational dose limits specified at § 835.202(a)(3) and (a)(4).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.208" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.208   Limits for members of the public entering a controlled area.</HEAD>
<P>The total effective dose limit for members of the public exposed to radiation and/or radioactive material during access to a controlled area is 0.1 rem (0.001 Sv) in a year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.209" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.3.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.209   Concentrations of radioactive material in air.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The derived air concentration (DAC) values given in appendices A and C of this part shall be used in the control of occupational exposures to airborne radioactive material. 
</P>
<P>(b) The estimation of internal dose shall be based on bioassay data rather than air concentration values unless bioassay data are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Unavailable; 
</P>
<P>(2) Inadequate; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Internal dose estimates based on air concentration values are demonstrated to be as or more accurate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Monitoring of Individuals and Areas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.401" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.5.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.401   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Monitoring of individuals and areas shall be performed to:
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrate compliance with the regulations in this part; 
</P>
<P>(2) Document radiological conditions;
</P>
<P>(3) Detect changes in radiological conditions; 
</P>
<P>(4) Detect the gradual buildup of radioactive material;
</P>
<P>(5) Verify the effectiveness of engineered and administrative controls in containing radioactive material and reducing radiation exposure; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Identify and control potential sources of individual exposure to radiation and/or radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(b) Instruments and equipment used for monitoring shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) Periodically maintained and calibrated on an established frequency;
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate for the type(s), levels, and energies of the radiation(s) encountered; 
</P>
<P>(3) Appropriate for existing environmental conditions; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Routinely tested for operability. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59682, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.402" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.5.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.402   Individual monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of monitoring individual exposures to external radiation, personnel dosimeters shall be provided to and used by:
</P>
<P>(1) Radiological workers who, under typical conditions, are likely to receive one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An effective dose of 0.1 rem (0.001 Sv) or more in a year;
</P>
<P>(ii) An equivalent dose to the skin or to any extremity of 5 rems (0.05 Sv) or more in a year;
</P>
<P>(iii) An equivalent dose to the lens of the eye of 1.5 rems (0.015 Sv) or more in a year;
</P>
<P>(2) Declared pregnant workers who are likely to receive from external sources an equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus in excess of 10 percent of the applicable limit at § 835.206(a); 
</P>
<P>(3) Occupationally exposed minors likely to receive a dose in excess of 50 percent of the applicable limits at § 835.207 in a year from external sources;
</P>
<P>(4) Members of the public entering a controlled area likely to receive a dose in excess of 50 percent of the limit at § 835.208 in a year from external sources; and
</P>
<P>(5) Individuals entering a high or very high radiation area.
</P>
<P>(b) External dose monitoring programs implemented to demonstrate compliance with § 835.402(a) shall be adequate to demonstrate compliance with the dose limits established in subpart C of this part and shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) Accredited, or excepted from accreditation, in accordance with the DOE Laboratory Accreditation Program for Personnel Dosimetry; or
</P>
<P>(2) Determined by the Secretarial Officer responsible for environment, safety and health matters to have performance substantially equivalent to that of programs accredited under the DOE Laboratory Accreditation Program for Personnel Dosimetry.
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of monitoring individual exposures to internal radiation, internal dosimetry programs (including routine bioassay programs) shall be conducted for:
</P>
<P>(1) Radiological workers who, under typical conditions, are likely to receive a committed effective dose of 0.1 rem (0.001 Sv) or more from all occupational radionuclide intakes in a year;
</P>
<P>(2) Declared pregnant workers likely to receive an intake or intakes resulting in an equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus in excess of 10 percent of the limit stated at § 835.206(a);
</P>
<P>(3) Occupationally exposed minors who are likely to receive a dose in excess of 50 percent of the applicable limit stated at § 835.207 from all radionuclide intakes in a year; or
</P>
<P>(4) Members of the public entering a controlled area likely to receive a dose in excess of 50 percent of the limit stated at § 835.208 from all radionuclide intakes in a year.
</P>
<P>(d) Internal dose monitoring programs implemented to demonstrate compliance with § 835.402(c) shall be adequate to demonstrate compliance with the dose limits established in subpart C of this part and shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) Accredited, or excepted from accreditation, in accordance with the DOE Laboratory Accreditation Program for Radiobioassay; or,
</P>
<P>(2) Determined by the Secretarial Officer responsible for environment, safety and health matters to have performance substantially equivalent to that of programs accredited under the DOE Laboratory Accreditation Program for Radiobioassy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59683, Nov. 4, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.403" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.5.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.403   Air monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Monitoring of airborne radioactivity shall be performed:
</P>
<P>(1) Where an individual is likely to receive an exposure of 40 or more DAC-hours in a year; or
</P>
<P>(2) As necessary to characterize the airborne radioactivity hazard where respiratory protective devices for protection against airborne radionuclides have been prescribed.
</P>
<P>(b) Real-time air monitoring shall be performed as necessary to detect and provide warning of airborne radioactivity concentrations that warrant immediate action to terminate inhalation of airborne radioactive material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59683, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.404" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.5.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.404   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.405" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.5.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.405   Receipt of packages containing radioactive material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If packages containing quantities of radioactive material in excess of a Type A quantity (as defined at 10 CFR 71.4) are expected to be received from radioactive material transportation, arrangements shall be made to either:
</P>
<P>(1) Take possession of the package when the carrier offers it for delivery; or
</P>
<P>(2) Receive notification as soon as practicable after arrival of the package at the carrier's terminal and to take possession of the package expeditiously after receiving such notification.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt from radioactive material transportation, external surfaces of packages known to contain radioactive material shall be monitored if the package:
</P>
<P>(1) Is labeled with a Radioactive White I, Yellow II, or Yellow III label (as specified at 49 CFR 172.403 and 172.436-440); or
</P>
<P>(2) Has been transported as low specific activity material (as defined at 10 CFR 71.4) on an exclusive use vehicle (as defined at 10 CFR 71.4); or
</P>
<P>(3) Has evidence of degradation, such as packages that are crushed, wet, or damaged.
</P>
<P>(c) The monitoring required by paragraph (b) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Measurements of removable contamination levels, unless the package contains only special form (as defined at 10 CFR 71.4) or gaseous radioactive material; and
</P>
<P>(2) Measurements of the radiation levels, if the package contains a Type B quantity (as defined at 10 CFR 71.4) of radioactive material.
</P>
<P>(d) The monitoring required by paragraph (b) of this section shall be completed as soon as practicable following receipt of the package, but not later than 8 hours after the beginning of the working day following receipt of the package.
</P>
<P>(e) Monitoring pursuant to § 835.405(b) is not required for packages transported on a DOE site which have remained under the continuous observation and control of a DOE employee or DOE contractor employee who is knowledgeable of and implements required exposure control measures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59683, Nov. 4, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Entry Control Program</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.501" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.6.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.501   Radiological areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Personnel entry control shall be maintained for each radiological area.
</P>
<P>(b) The degree of control shall be commensurate with existing and potential radiological hazards within the area.
</P>
<P>(c) One or more of the following methods shall be used to ensure control:
</P>
<P>(1) Signs and barricades;
</P>
<P>(2) Control devices on entrances;
</P>
<P>(3) Conspicuous visual and/or audible alarms;
</P>
<P>(4) Locked entrance ways; or
</P>
<P>(5) Administrative controls.
</P>
<P>(d) Written authorizations shall be required to control entry into and perform work within radiological areas. These authorizations shall specify radiation protection measures commensurate with the existing and potential hazards.
</P>
<P>(e) No control(s) shall be installed at any radiological area exit that would prevent rapid evacuation of personnel under emergency conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59684, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.502" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.6.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.502   High and very high radiation areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following measures shall be implemented for each entry into a high radiation area:
</P>
<P>(1) The area shall be monitored as necessary during access to determine the exposure rates to which the individuals are exposed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each individual shall be monitored by a supplemental dosimetry device or other means capable of providing an immediate estimate of the individual's integrated equivalent dose to the whole body during the entry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Physical controls.</I> One or more of the following features shall be used for each entrance or access point to a high radiation area where radiation levels exist such that an individual could exceed an equivalent dose to the whole body of 1 rem (0.01 sievert) in any one hour at 30 centimeters from the source or from any surface that the radiation penetrates:
</P>
<P>(1) A control device that prevents entry to the area when high radiation levels exist or upon entry causes the radiation level to be reduced below that level defining a high radiation area;
</P>
<P>(2) A device that functions automatically to prevent use or operation of the radiation source or field while individuals are in the area;
</P>
<P>(3) A control device that energizes a conspicuous visible or audible alarm signal so that the individual entering the high radiation area and the supervisor of the activity are made aware of the entry;
</P>
<P>(4) Entryways that are locked. During periods when access to the area is required, positive control over each entry is maintained;
</P>
<P>(5) Continuous direct or electronic surveillance that is capable of preventing unauthorized entry;
</P>
<P>(6) A control device that will automatically generate audible and visual alarm signals to alert personnel in the area before use or operation of the radiation source and in sufficient time to permit evacuation of the area or activation of a secondary control device that will prevent use or operation of the source.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Very high radiation areas.</I> In addition to the above requirements, additional measures shall be implemented to ensure individuals are not able to gain unauthorized or inadvertent access to very high radiation areas.
</P>
<P>(d) No control(s) shall be established in a high or very high radiation area that would prevent rapid evacuation of personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59684, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Posting and Labeling</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.601" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.7.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.601   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, postings and labels required by this subpart shall include the standard radiation warning trefoil in black or magenta imposed upon a yellow background.
</P>
<P>(b) Signs required by this subpart shall be clearly and conspicuously posted and may include radiological protection instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) The posting and labeling requirements in this subpart may be modified to reflect the special considerations of DOE activities conducted at private residences or businesses. Such modifications shall provide the same level of protection to individuals as the existing provisions in this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59684, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.602" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.7.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.602   Controlled areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each access point to a controlled area (as defined at § 835.2) shall be posted whenever radiological areas or radioactive material areas exist in the area. Individuals who enter only controlled areas without entering radiological areas or radioactive material areas are not expected to receive a total effective dose of more than 0.1 rem (0.001 sievert) in a year.
</P>
<P>(b) Signs used for this purpose may be selected by the contractor to avoid conflict with local security requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59684, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31926, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.603" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.7.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.603   Radiological areas and radioactive material areas.</HEAD>
<P>Each access point to radiological areas and radioactive material areas (as defined at § 835.2) shall be posted with conspicuous signs bearing the wording provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Radiation area.</I> The words “Caution, Radiation Area” shall be posted at each radiation area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>High radiation area.</I> The words “Caution, High Radiation Area” or “Danger, High Radiation Area” shall be posted at each high radiation area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Very high radiation area.</I> The words “Grave Danger, Very High Radiation Area” shall be posted at each very high radiation area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Airborne radioactivity area.</I> The words “Caution, Airborne Radioactivity Area” or “Danger, Airborne Radioactivity Area” shall be posted at each airborne radioactivity area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contamination area.</I> The words “Caution, Contamination Area” shall be posted at each contamination area.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>High contamination area.</I> The words “Caution, High Contamination Area” or “Danger, High Contamination Area” shall be posted at each high contamination area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Radioactive material area.</I> The words “Caution, Radioactive Material(s)” shall be posted at each radioactive material area.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59684, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.604" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.7.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.604   Exceptions to posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Areas may be excepted from the posting requirements of § 835.603 for periods of less than 8 continuous hours when placed under continuous observation and control of an individual knowledgeable of, and empowered to implement, required access and exposure control measures.
</P>
<P>(b) Areas may be excepted from the radioactive material area posting requirements of § 835.603(g) when:
</P>
<P>(1) Posted in accordance with §§ 835.603(a) through (f); or
</P>
<P>(2) Each item or container of radioactive material is labeled in accordance with this subpart such that individuals entering the area are made aware of the hazard; or
</P>
<P>(3) The radioactive material of concern consists solely of structures or installed components which have been activated (i.e., such as by being exposed to neutron radiation or particles produced by an accelerator).
</P>
<P>(c) Areas containing only packages received from radioactive material transportation labeled and in non-degraded condition need not be posted in accordance with § 835.603 until the packages are monitored in accordance with § 835.405.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59684, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.605" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.7.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.605   Labeling items and containers.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided at § 835.606, each item or container of radioactive material shall bear a durable, clearly visible label bearing the standard radiation warning trefoil and the words “Caution, Radioactive Material” or “Danger, Radioactive Material.” The label shall also provide sufficient information to permit individuals handling, using, or working in the vicinity of the items or containers to take precautions to avoid or control exposures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59684, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.606" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.7.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.606   Exceptions to labeling requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Items and containers may be excepted from the radioactive material labeling requirements of § 835.605 when:
</P>
<P>(1) Used, handled, or stored in areas posted and controlled in accordance with this subpart and sufficient information is provided to permit individuals to take precautions to avoid or control exposures; or
</P>
<P>(2) The quantity of radioactive material is less than one tenth of the values specified in appendix E of this part and less than 0.1 Ci; or
</P>
<P>(3) Packaged, labeled, and marked in accordance with the regulations of the Department of Transportation or DOE Orders governing radioactive material transportation; or
</P>
<P>(4) Inaccessible, or accessible only to individuals authorized to handle or use them, or to work in the vicinity; or
</P>
<P>(5) Installed in manufacturing, process, or other equipment, such as reactor components, piping, and tanks; or
</P>
<P>(6) The radioactive material consists solely of nuclear weapons or their components.
</P>
<P>(b) Radioactive material labels applied to sealed radioactive sources may be excepted from the color specifications of § 835.601(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59684, Nov. 4, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 31927, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.701" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.8.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.701   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records shall be maintained to document compliance with this part and with radiation protection programs required by § 835.101.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise specified in this subpart, records shall be retained until final disposition is authorized by DOE.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.702" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.8.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.702   Individual monitoring records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as authorized by § 835.702(b), records shall be maintained to document doses received by all individuals for whom monitoring was conducted and to document doses received during planned special exposures, unplanned doses exceeding the monitoring thresholds of § 835.402, and authorized emergency exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) Recording of the non-uniform equivalent dose to the skin is not required if the dose is less than 2 percent of the limit specified for the skin at § 835.202(a)(4). Recording of internal dose (committed effective dose or committed equivalent dose) is not required for any monitoring result estimated to correspond to an individual receiving less than 0.01 rem (0.1 mSv) committed effective dose. The bioassay or air monitoring result used to make the estimate shall be maintained in accordance with § 835.703(b) and the unrecorded internal dose estimated for any individual in a year shall not exceed the applicable monitoring threshold at § 835.402(c).
</P>
<P>(c) The records required by this section shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be sufficient to evaluate compliance with subpart C of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Be sufficient to provide dose information necessary to complete reports required by subpart I of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Include the results of monitoring used to assess the following quantities for external dose received during the year:
</P>
<P>(i) The effective dose from external sources of radiation (equivalent dose to the whole body may be used as effective dose for external exposure);
</P>
<P>(ii) The equivalent dose to the lens of the eye;
</P>
<P>(iii) The equivalent dose to the skin; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The equivalent dose to the extremities.
</P>
<P>(4) Include the following information for internal dose resulting from intakes received during the year:
</P>
<P>(i) Committed effective dose;
</P>
<P>(ii) Committed equivalent dose to any organ or tissue of concern; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Identity of radionuclides.
</P>
<P>(5) Include the following quantities for the summation of the external and internal dose:
</P>
<P>(i) Total effective dose in a year;
</P>
<P>(ii) For any organ or tissue assigned an internal dose during the year, the sum of the equivalent dose to the whole body from external exposures and the committed equivalent dose to that organ or tissue; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Cumulative total effective dose.
</P>
<P>(6) Include the equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus of a declared pregnant worker.
</P>
<P>(d) Documentation of all occupational doses received during the current year, except for doses resulting from planned special exposures conducted in compliance with § 835.204 and emergency exposures authorized in accordance with § 835.1302(d), shall be obtained to demonstrate compliance with § 835.202(a). If complete records documenting previous occupational dose during the year cannot be obtained, a written estimate signed by the individual may be accepted to demonstrate compliance.
</P>
<P>(e) For radiological workers whose occupational dose is monitored in accordance with § 835.402, reasonable efforts shall be made to obtain complete records of prior years occupational internal and external doses.
</P>
<P>(f) The records specified in this section that are identified with a specific individual shall be readily available to that individual. 
</P>
<P>(g) Data necessary to allow future verification or reassessment of the recorded doses shall be recorded. 
</P>
<P>(h) All records required by this section shall be transferred to the DOE upon cessation of activities at the site that could cause exposure to individuals. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59685, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31927, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.703" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.8.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.703   Other monitoring records.</HEAD>
<P>The following information shall be documented and maintained: 
</P>
<P>(a) Results of monitoring for radiation and radioactive material as required by subparts E and L of this part, except for monitoring required by § 835.1102(d);
</P>
<P>(b) Results of monitoring used to determine individual occupational dose from external and internal sources;
</P>
<P>(c) Results of monitoring for the release and control of material and equipment as required by § 835.1101; and
</P>
<P>(d) Results of maintenance and calibration performed on instruments and equipment as required by § 835.401(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59685, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.704" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.8.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.704   Administrative records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Training records shall be maintained, as necessary, to demonstrate compliance with §§ 835.901.
</P>
<P>(b) Actions taken to maintain occupational exposures as low as reasonably achievable, including the actions required for this purpose by § 835.101, as well as facility design and control actions required by §§ 835.1001, 835.1002, and 835.1003, shall be documented. 
</P>
<P>(c) Records shall be maintained to document the results of internal audits and other reviews of program content and implementation. 
</P>
<P>(d) Written declarations of pregnancy, including the estimated date of conception, and revocations of declarations of pregnancy shall be maintained.
</P>
<P>(e) Changes in equipment, techniques, and procedures used for monitoring shall be documented.
</P>
<P>(f) Records shall be maintained as necessary to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of §§ 835.1201 and 835.1202 for sealed radioactive source control, inventory, and source leak tests.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59685, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Reports to Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.801" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.9.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.801   Reports to individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Radiation exposure data for individuals monitored in accordance with § 835.402 shall be reported as specified in this section. The information shall include the data required under § 835.702(c). Each notification and report shall be in writing and include: the DOE site or facility name, the name of the individual, and the individual's social security number, employee number, or other unique identification number.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the request from an individual terminating employment, records of exposure shall be provided to that individual as soon as the data are available, but not later than 90 days after termination. A written estimate of the radiation dose received by that employee based on available information shall be provided at the time of termination, if requested. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each DOE- or DOE-contractor-operated site or facility shall, on an annual basis, provide a radiation dose report to each individual monitored during the year at that site or facility in accordance with § 835.402. 
</P>
<P>(d) Detailed information concerning any individual's exposure shall be made available to the individual upon request of that individual, consistent with the provisions of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a). 
</P>
<P>(e) When a DOE contractor is required to report to the Department, pursuant to Departmental requirements for occurrence reporting and processing, any exposure of an individual to radiation and/or radioactive material, or planned special exposure in accordance with § 835.204(e), the contractor shall also provide that individual with a report on his or her exposure data included therein. Such report shall be transmitted at a time not later than the transmittal to the Department. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59685, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Radiation Safety Training</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.901" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.10.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.901   Radiation safety training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each individual shall complete radiation safety training on the topics established at § 835.901(c) commensurate with the hazards in the area and the required controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Before being permitted unescorted access to controlled areas; and
</P>
<P>(2) Before receiving occupational dose during access to controlled areas at a DOE site or facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Each individual shall demonstrate knowledge of the radiation safety training topics established at § 835.901(c), commensurate with the hazards in the area and required controls, by successful completion of an examination and performance demonstrations:
</P>
<P>(1) Before being permitted unescorted access to radiological areas; and
</P>
<P>(2) Before performing unescorted assignments as a radiological worker.
</P>
<P>(c) Radiation safety training shall include the following topics, to the extent appropriate to each individual's prior training, work assignments, and degree of exposure to potential radiological hazards:
</P>
<P>(1) Risks of exposure to radiation and radioactive materials, including prenatal radiation exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) Basic radiological fundamentals and radiation protection concepts;
</P>
<P>(3) Physical design features, administrative controls, limits, policies, procedures, alarms, and other measures implemented at the facility to manage doses and maintain doses ALARA, including both routine and emergency actions;
</P>
<P>(4) Individual rights and responsibilities as related to implementation of the facility radiation protection program;
</P>
<P>(5) Individual responsibilities for implementing ALARA measures required by § 835.101; and
</P>
<P>(6) Individual exposure reports that may be requested in accordance with § 835.801.
</P>
<P>(d) When an escort is used in lieu of training in accordance with paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the escort shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have completed radiation safety training, examinations, and performance demonstrations required for entry to the area and performance of the work; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that all escorted individuals comply with the documented radiation protection program.
</P>
<P>(e) Radiation safety training shall be provided to individuals when there is a significant change to radiation protection policies and procedures that may affect the individual and at intervals not to exceed 24 months. Such training provided for individuals subject to the requirements of § 835.901(b)(1) and (b)(2) shall include successful completion of an examination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59685, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 835.902-835.903" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.10.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 835.902-835.903   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Design and Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1001" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.11.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1001   Design and control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Measures shall be taken to maintain radiation exposure in controlled areas ALARA through engineered and administrative controls. The primary methods used shall be physical design features (e.g., confinement, ventilation, remote handling, and shielding). Administrative controls shall be employed only as supplemental methods to control radiation exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) For specific activities where use of engineered controls is demonstrated to be impractical, administrative controls shall be used to maintain radiation exposures ALARA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59686, Nov. 4, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 31927, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1002" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.11.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1002   Facility design and modifications.</HEAD>
<P>During the design of new facilities or modification of existing facilities, the following objectives shall be adopted: 
</P>
<P>(a) Optimization methods shall be used to assure that occupational exposure is maintained ALARA in developing and justifying facility design and physical controls. 
</P>
<P>(b) The design objective for controlling personnel exposure from external sources of radiation in areas of continuous occupational occupancy (2000 hours per year) shall be to maintain exposure levels below an average of 0.5 millirem (5 µSv) per hour and as far below this average as is reasonably achievable. The design objectives for exposure rates for potential exposure to a radiological worker where occupancy differs from the above shall be ALARA and shall not exceed 20 percent of the applicable standards in § 835.202. 
</P>
<P>(c) Regarding the control of airborne radioactive material, the design objective shall be, under normal conditions, to avoid releases to the workplace atmosphere and in any situation, to control the inhalation of such material by workers to levels that are ALARA; confinement and ventilation shall normally be used. 
</P>
<P>(d) The design or modification of a facility and the selection of materials shall include features that facilitate operations, maintenance, decontamination, and decommissioning. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59686, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31927, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1003" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.11.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1003   Workplace controls.</HEAD>
<P>During routine operations, the combination of engineered and administrative controls shall provide that:
</P>
<P>(a) The anticipated occupational dose to general employees shall not exceed the limits established at § 835.202; and
</P>
<P>(b) The ALARA process is utilized for personnel exposures to ionizing radiation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59686, Nov. 4, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 31927, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Radioactive Contamination Control</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 59686, Nov. 4, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 835.1101" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.12.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1101   Control of material and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, material and equipment in contamination areas, high contamination areas, and airborne radioactivity areas shall not be released to a controlled area if:
</P>
<P>(1) Removable surface contamination levels on accessible surfaces exceed the removable surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) Prior use suggests that the removable surface contamination levels on inaccessible surfaces are likely to exceed the removable surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Material and equipment exceeding the removable surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part may be conditionally released for movement on-site from one radiological area for immediate placement in another radiological area only if appropriate monitoring is performed and appropriate controls for the movement are established and exercised.
</P>
<P>(c) Material and equipment with fixed contamination levels that exceed the total contamination values specified in appendix D of this part may be released for use in controlled areas outside of radiological areas only under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Removable surface contamination levels are below the removable surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The material or equipment is routinely monitored and clearly marked or labeled to alert personnel of the contaminated status.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1102" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.12.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1102   Control of areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appropriate controls shall be maintained and verified which prevent the inadvertent transfer of removable contamination to locations outside of radiological areas under normal operating conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) Any area in which contamination levels exceed the values specified in appendix D of this part shall be controlled in a manner commensurate with the physical and chemical characteristics of the contaminant, the radionuclides present, and the fixed and removable surface contamination levels.
</P>
<P>(c) Areas accessible to individuals where the measured total surface contamination levels exceed, but the removable surface contamination levels are less than, corresponding surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part, shall be controlled as follows when located outside of radiological areas:
</P>
<P>(1) The area shall be routinely monitored to ensure the removable surface contamination level remains below the removable surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The area shall be conspicuously marked to warn individuals of the contaminated status.
</P>
<P>(d) Individuals exiting contamination, high contamination, or airborne radioactivity areas shall be monitored, as appropriate, for the presence of surface contamination.
</P>
<P>(e) Protective clothing shall be required for entry to areas in which removable contamination exists at levels exceeding the removable surface contamination values specified in appendix D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Sealed Radioactive Source Control</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 59686, Nov. 4, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 835.1201" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.13.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1201   Sealed radioactive source control.</HEAD>
<P>Sealed radioactive sources shall be used, handled, and stored in a manner commensurate with the hazards associated with operations involving the sources.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1202" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.13.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1202   Accountable sealed radioactive sources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each accountable sealed radioactive source shall be inventoried at intervals not to exceed six months. This inventory shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish the physical location of each accountable sealed radioactive source;
</P>
<P>(2) Verify the presence and adequacy of associated postings and labels; and
</P>
<P>(3) Establish the adequacy of storage locations, containers, and devices.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for sealed radioactive sources consisting solely of gaseous radioactive material or tritium, each accountable sealed radioactive source shall be subject to a source leak test upon receipt, when damage is suspected, and at intervals not to exceed six months. Source leak tests shall be capable of detecting radioactive material leakage equal to or exceeding 0.005 µCi.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, an accountable sealed radioactive source is not subject to periodic source leak testing if that source has been removed from service. Such sources shall be stored in a controlled location, subject to periodic inventory as required by paragraph (a) of this section, and subject to source leak testing prior to being returned to service.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, an accountable sealed radioactive source is not subject to periodic inventory and source leak testing if that source is located in an area that is unsafe for human entry or otherwise inaccessible.
</P>
<P>(e) An accountable sealed radioactive source found to be leaking radioactive material shall be controlled in a manner that minimizes the spread of radioactive contamination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 59686, Nov. 4, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 31927, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Emergency Exposure Situations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1301" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1301   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A general employee whose occupational dose has exceeded the numerical value of any of the limits specified in § 835.202 as a result of an authorized emergency exposure may be permitted to return to work in radiological areas during the current year providing that all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) Approval is first obtained from the contractor management and the Head of the responsible DOE field organization; 
</P>
<P>(2) The individual receives counseling from radiological protection and medical personnel regarding the consequences of receiving additional occupational exposure during the year; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The affected employee agrees to return to radiological work. 
</P>
<P>(b) All doses exceeding the limits specified in § 835.202 shall be recorded in the affected individual's occupational dose record.
</P>
<P>(c) When the conditions under which a dose was received in excess of the limits specified in § 835.202, except those received in accordance with § 835.204, have been eliminated, operating management shall notify the Head of the responsible DOE field organization.
</P>
<P>(d) Operations which have been suspended as a result of a dose in excess of the limits specified in § 835.202, except those received in accordance with § 835.204, may be resumed only with the approval of DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59687, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31927, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1302" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1302   Emergency exposure situations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The risk of injury to those individuals involved in rescue and recovery operations shall be minimized. 
</P>
<P>(b) Operating management shall weigh actual and potential risks against the benefits to be gained.
</P>
<P>(c) No individual shall be required to perform a rescue action that might involve substantial personal risk.
</P>
<P>(d) Each individual authorized to perform emergency actions likely to result in occupational doses exceeding the values of the limits provided at § 835.202(a) shall be trained in accordance with § 835.901(b) and briefed beforehand on the known or anticipated hazards to which the individual will be subjected.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59687, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1303" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1303   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 835.1304" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 835.1304   Nuclear accident dosimetry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Installations possessing sufficient quantities of fissile material to potentially constitute a critical mass, such that the excessive exposure of individuals to radiation from a nuclear accident is possible, shall provide nuclear accident dosimetry for those individuals. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nuclear accident dosimetry shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A method to conduct initial screening of individuals involved in a nuclear accident to determine whether significant exposures to radiation occurred; 
</P>
<P>(2) Methods and equipment for analysis of biological materials; 
</P>
<P>(3) A system of fixed nuclear accident dosimeter units; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Personal nuclear accident dosimeters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59687, Nov. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.5.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 835—Derived Air Concentrations (DAC) for Controlling Radiation Exposure to Workers at DOE Facilities 
</HEAD>
<P>The data presented in appendix A are to be used for controlling individual internal doses in accordance with § 835.209, identifying the need for air monitoring in accordance with § 835.403, and identifying and posting airborne radioactivity areas in accordance with § 835.603(d).
</P>
<P>The DAC values are given for individual radionuclides. For known mixtures of radionuclides, determine the sum of the ratio of the observed concentration of a particular radionuclide and its corresponding DAC for all radionuclides in the mixture. If this sum exceeds unity (1), then the DAC has been exceeded. For unknown radionuclides, the most restrictive DAC (lowest value) for those isotopes not known to be absent shall be used. For any single radionuclide not listed in appendix A with decay mode other than alpha emission or spontaneous fission and with radioactive half-life greater than two hours, the DAC value shall be 4 E-11 µCi/mL (1 Bq/m
<SU>3</SU>). For any single radionuclide not listed in appendix A that decays by alpha emission or spontaneous fission the DAC value shall be 2 E-13 µCi/mL (8 E-03 Bq/m
<SU>3</SU>).
</P>
<P>The DACs for limiting radiation exposures through inhalation of radionuclides by workers are listed in this appendix. The values are based on either a stochastic (committed effective dose) dose limit of 5 rems (0.05 Sv) or a deterministic (organ or tissue) dose limit of 50 rems (0.5 Sv) per year, whichever is more limiting.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The 15 rems (0.15 Sv) dose limit for the lens of the eye does not appear as a critical organ dose limit.</P></NOTE>
<P>The columns in this appendix contain the following information: (1) Radionuclide; (2) inhaled air DAC for type F (fast), type M (moderate), and type S (slow) materials in units of µCi/mL; (3) inhaled air DAC for type F (fast), type M (moderate), and type S (slow) materials in units of Bq/m
<SU>3</SU>; (4) an indication of whether or not the DAC for each class is controlled by the stochastic (effective dose) or deterministic (organ or tissue) dose. The absorption types (F, M, and S) have been established to describe the absorption type of the materials from the respiratory tract into the blood. The range of half-times for the absorption types correspond to: Type F, 100% at 10 minutes; Type M, 10% at 10 minutes and 90% at 140 days; and Type S 0.1% at 10 minutes and 99.9% at 7000 days. The DACs are listed by radionuclide, in order of increasing atomic mass, and are based on the assumption that the particle size distribution of 5 micrometers AMAD is used. For situations where the particle size distribution is known to differ significantly from 5 micrometers AMAD, appropriate corrections may be made to both the estimated dose to workers and the DACs.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Absorption type 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Absorption type 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Stochastic or organ or tissue 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">µCi/mL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Bq/m 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">(F/M/S)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">M
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">M
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">S
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H-3 (Water) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H-3 (Elemental) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">STCs (Insoluble) 
<sup>4</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">STCs (Soluble)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Be-7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Be-10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-11 (Vapor) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-11 (CO) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-11 (CO<E T="52">2</E>) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-14 (Vapor) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-14 (CO) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-14 (CO<E T="52">2</E>) 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">F-18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Na-22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Na-24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mg-28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Al-26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Si-31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Si-32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P-32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P-33</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">S-35 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">S-35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cl-36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cl-38</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cl-39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-42</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-43</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-44m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ti-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ti-45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V-47</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V-48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V-49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cr-48</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cr-49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cr-51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-51</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-52m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-52</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/E/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-57</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-58m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-58</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-60m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-61</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-62m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-56 (Inorg)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-56 (Carbonyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-57 (Inorg)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-57 (Carbonyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-59 (Inorg)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-59 (Carbonyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-63 (Inorg)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-63 (Carbonyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-65 (Inorg)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-65 (Carbonyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-66 (Inorg)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-66 (Carbonyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cu-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cu-61</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cu-64</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/E/E
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cu-67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-62</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-69m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-71m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-66</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ga-73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-66</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-67</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/E/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-78</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-69</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-71</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-72</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-78</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-70</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-73m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-81m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-74m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-80m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Br-84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-81m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-82m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-80</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-82</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-85m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-87m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-86m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-90m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-91m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-86</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-89 (66 min)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-89 (122 min)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-93m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-95m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-98</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-93m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/ /St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-93m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-94m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-95m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-96m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-96</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-97m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-98</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-99m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-99m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-101m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-102m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-103m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-106m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-104m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-106m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-108m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-110m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-104</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/K/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/K/K
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/K/K
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-115m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-117m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-110 (69 min)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-110 (5 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-112</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-114m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-115m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-116m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-117m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-119m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-110</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-111</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-117m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-119m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-121m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-123m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-128</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-115</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-116m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-116</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-117</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-118m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-119</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-120 (16 min)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-120 (6 d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-124m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-126m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-128 (9 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-128 (10 min)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-130</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-116 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-116</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-123m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-123m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-123 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-125m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-125m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-131m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-131 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-132 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-133m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-133m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-133 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-134 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-120m (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-120m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-120m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-120 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-120 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-121 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-121 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-123 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-123 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-124 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-124 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-125 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-125 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-126 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-126 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-128 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-128 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-128</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-129 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-129 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-130 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-130 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-130</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-131 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-131 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-132m (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-132m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-132m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-132 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-132 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-133 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-133 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-134 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-134 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-135 (Methyl)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-135 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/T/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">T/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-130</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-134m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-135m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-136</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-138</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-128</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-133m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-135m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-131</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-132</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">L/L/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-138</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-140</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-137m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-136</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-138m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-142m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pr-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-136</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-138</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-139m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nd-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-148m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-141m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-142</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-156</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-150 (12 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-150 (34 yr)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-152m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-154</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-156</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-150</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-154</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-156m (24 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-156m (5 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-156</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/E/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-161</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-161</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-162m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-162</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-164m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-164</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-166m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-167</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-161</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-165</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Er-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-162</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-167</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-173</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-162</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-166</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-167</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-178</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/E
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-173</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-174m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-174</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-176m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-176</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-177m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-178m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-178</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-173</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-177m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-178m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-179m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-180m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-182m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-183</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-184</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-173</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/E/E
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-174</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-176</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-178</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-180m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-180</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-182m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-183</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-184</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-186</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-176</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-178</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-187</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-177</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-178</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-182 (64 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-182 (12 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-184m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-184</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-186m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-186</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-187</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-188m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-189</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-180</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-189m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-191m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-184</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-186 (16 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-186 (2 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-187</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-189</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-190m (3 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-190m (1 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-190</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-192m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-192</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-194m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-195m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-195</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-186</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-189</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-191</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-193m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-195m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-197m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/E/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-195</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-198m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-200m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-193m (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-193m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-193m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-193 (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-193 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-194 (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-194 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195m (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195 (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-195 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197m (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197 (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-197 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-199m (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-199m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-199m (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-203 (Org)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-203 (Vapor)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-194m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-195</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-197</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-198m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-195m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-198</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-199</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-202m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-200</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-206</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-210m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-212</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-213</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-214</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Po-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Po-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Po-207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Po-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At-207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">At-211</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rn-220 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rn-222 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fr-222</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fr-223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">St/ /
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-223</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-224</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-224</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-225</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">K/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BS/St/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ET/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-236 (1 E + 05 yr)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-236 (22 h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/ET
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/E/E
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/BS
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/St
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-242m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-244m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-246m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-251</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-252</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-253</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E−01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Es-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Es-251</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 E−07</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Es-253</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Es-254m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Es-254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/BS/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fm-252</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fm-253</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fm-254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E + 02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/ET/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fm-255</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−09</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 E + 01</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fm-257</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Md-257</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 E−08</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E + 03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Md-258</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 E−10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">  -</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">/St/</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>Footnotes for Appendix A
</HD1>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A determination of whether the DACs are controlled by stochastic (St) or deterministic (organ or tissue) dose, or if they both give the same result (E), for each absorption type, is given in this column. The key to the organ notation for deterministic dose is: BS = Bone surface, ET = Extrathoracic, K = Kidney, L = Liver, and T = Thyroid. A blank indicates that no calculations were performed for the absorption type shown.
</P>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The ICRP identifies these materials as soluble or reactive gases and vapors or highly soluble or reactive gases and vapors. For tritiated water, the inhalation DAC values allow for an additional 50% absorption through the skin, as described in ICRP Publication No. 68, Dose Coefficients for Intakes of Radionuclides by Workers. For elemental tritium, the DAC values include a factor that irradiation from gas within the lungs might increase the dose by 20%.
</P>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> A dash indicates no values given for this data category.
</P>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> DAC values derived using hafnium tritide particle and are based on “observed activity” (i.e, only radiation emitted from the particle is considered). DAC values derived using methodology found in Radiological Control Programs for Special Tritium Compounds, DOE-HDBK-1184-2004.
</P>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> These values are appropriate for protection from radon combined with its short-lived decay products and are based on information given in ICRP Publication 65: Protection Against Radon-222 at Home and at Work and in DOE-STD-1121-98: Internal Dosimetry. The values given are for 100% equilibrium concentration conditions of the short-lived radon decay products with the parent. To allow for an actual measured equilibrium concentration or a demonstrated equilibrium concentration, the values given in this table should be multiplied by the ratio (100%/actual %) or (100%/demonstrated %), respectively. Alternatively, the DAC values for Rn-220 and Rn-222 may be replaced by 2.5 working level (WL) and 0.83 WL, respectively, for appropriate limiting of decay product concentrations. A WL is any combination of short-lived radon decay products, in one liter of air without regard to the degree of equilibrium, that will result in the ultimate emission of 1.3 E + 05 MeV of alpha energy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31927, June 8, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.5.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 835 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.5.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 835—Derived Air Concentration (DAC) for Workers From External Exposure During Immersion in a Cloud of Airborne Radioactive Material 
</HEAD>
<P>a. The data presented in appendix C are to be used for controlling occupational exposures in accordance with § 835.209, identifying the need for air monitoring in accordance with § 835.403 and identifying the need for posting of airborne radioactivity areas in accordance with § 835.603(d).
</P>
<P>b. The air immersion DAC values shown in this appendix are based on a stochastic dose limit of 5 rems (0.05 Sv) per year. Four columns of information are presented: (1) Radionuclide; (2) half-life in units of seconds (s), minutes (min), hours (h), days (d), or years (yr); (3) air immersion DAC in units of µCi/mL; and (4) air immersion DAC in units of Bq/m3. The data are listed by radionuclide in order of increasing atomic mass. The air immersion DACs were calculated for a continuous, nonshielded exposure via immersion in a semi-infinite cloud of airborne radioactive material. The DACs listed in this appendix may be modified to allow for submersion in a cloud of finite dimensions.
</P>
<P>c. The DAC values are given for individual radionuclides. For known mixtures of radionuclides, determine the sum of the ratio of the observed concentration of a particular radionuclide and its corresponding DAC for all radionuclides in the mixture. If this sum exceeds unity (1), then the DAC has been exceeded. For unknown radionuclides, the most restrictive DAC (lowest value) for those isotopes not known to be absent shall be used.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Air Immersion DAC
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Half-life
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(µCi/mL)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">(Bq/m
<sup>3</sup>)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-37</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35.02 d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3E + 00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E + 11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-39</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">269 yr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-03</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5E + 07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ar-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.827 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3E-06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-74</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.5 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3E-06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-76</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.8 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-77</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">74.7 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4E-06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35.04 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-81</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1E + 05 yr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7E-04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2E + 07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-83m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.83 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7E-02</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2E + 09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.72 yr</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7E-04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2E + 07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-85m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.48 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E + 06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-87</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">76.3 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4E-06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kr-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.84 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7E + 04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-120</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40.0 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-121</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40.1 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2E-06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8E + 04
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-122</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.1 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3E + 06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.14 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6E-06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">16.8 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-127</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36.406 d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-129m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.89 d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2E-04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7E + 06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-131m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">11.84 d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5E-04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E + 07
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.245 d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5E + 06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-133m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.19 d</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-04</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5E + 06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.11 h</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-135m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15.36 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3E + 05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Xe-138</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14.13 min</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3E-06</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1E + 05</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>For any single radionuclide not listed above with decay mode other than alpha emission or spontaneous fission and with radioactive half-life less than two hours, the DAC value shall be 1 E-06 µCi/mL (7 E+04 Bq/m
<SU>3</SU>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31940, June 8, 2007, as amended at 76 FR 20489, Apr. 13, 2011]; 82 FR 37514, Aug. 11, 2017


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.5.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 835—Surface Contamination Values
</HEAD>
<P>The data presented in appendix D are to be used in identifying the need for posting of contamination and high contamination areas in accordance with § 835.603(e) and (f) and identifying the need for surface contamination monitoring and control in accordance with §§ 835.1101 and 835.1102.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Surface Contamination Values 
<sup>1</sup> in dpm/100 cm 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Radionuclide
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Removable 
<sup>2 4</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total (Fixed + Removable) 
<sup>2 3</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-nat, U-235, U-238, and associated decay products</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>7</sup> 1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>7</sup> 5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transuranics, Ra-226, Ra-228, Th-230, Th-228, Pa-231, Ac-227, I-125, I-129</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-nat, Th-232, Sr-90, Ra-223, Ra-224, U-232, I-126, I-131, I-133</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beta-gamma emitters (nuclides with decay modes other than alpha emission or spontaneous fission) except Sr-90 and others noted above 
<sup>5</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tritium and STCs 
<sup>6</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">See Footnote 6
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The values in this appendix, with the exception noted in footnote 6 below, apply to radioactive contamination deposited on, but not incorporated into the interior or matrix of, the contaminated item. Where surface contamination by both alpha- and beta-gamma-emitting nuclides exists, the limits established for alpha- and beta-gamma-emitting nuclides apply independently.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> As used in this table, dpm (disintegrations per minute) means the rate of emission by radioactive material as determined by correcting the counts per minute observed by an appropriate detector for background, efficiency, and geometric factors associated with the instrumentation.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> The levels may be averaged over one square meter provided the maximum surface activity in any area of 100 cm 
<sup>2</sup> is less than three times the value specified. For purposes of averaging, any square meter of surface shall be considered to be above the surface contamination value if: (1) From measurements of a representative number of sections it is determined that the average contamination level exceeds the applicable value; or (2) it is determined that the sum of the activity of all isolated spots or particles in any 100 cm 
<sup>2</sup> area exceeds three times the applicable value.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The amount of removable radioactive material per 100 cm 
<sup>2</sup> of surface area should be determined by swiping the area with dry filter or soft absorbent paper, applying moderate pressure, and then assessing the amount of radioactive material on the swipe with an appropriate instrument of known efficiency. (Note—The use of dry material may not be appropriate for tritium.) When removable contamination on objects of surface area less than 100 cm 
<sup>2</sup> is determined, the activity per unit area shall be based on the actual area and the entire surface shall be wiped. It is not necessary to use swiping techniques to measure removable contamination levels if direct scan surveys indicate that the total residual surface contamination levels are within the limits for removable contamination.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> This category of radionuclides includes mixed fission products, including the Sr-90 which is present in them. It does not apply to Sr-90 which has been separated from the other fission products or mixtures where the Sr-90 has been enriched.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Tritium contamination may diffuse into the volume or matrix of materials. Evaluation of surface contamination shall consider the extent to which such contamination may migrate to the surface in order to ensure the surface contamination value provided in this appendix is not exceeded. Once this contamination migrates to the surface, it may be removable, not fixed; therefore, a “Total” value does not apply. In certain cases, a “Total” value of 10,000 dpm/100 cm 
<sup>2</sup> may be applicable either to metals, of the types which form insoluble special tritium compounds that have been exposed to tritium; or to bulk materials to which particles of insoluble special tritium compound are fixed to a surface.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> These limits only apply to the alpha emitters within the respective decay series.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 65485, Dec. 14, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 59688, Nov. 4, 1998; 72 FR 31940, June 8, 2007; 74 FR 18116, Apr. 21, 2009]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.29.14.16.5.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 835—Values for Establishing Sealed Radioactive Source Accountability and Radioactive Material Posting and Labeling Requirements 
</HEAD>
<P>The data presented in appendix E are to be used for identifying accountable sealed radioactive sources and radioactive material areas as those terms are defined at § 835.2(a), establishing the need for radioactive material area posting in accordance with § 835.603(g), and establishing the need for radioactive material labeling in accordance with § 835.605.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nuclide 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Activity (µCi) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">H-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5E + 08 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Be-7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Be-10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C-14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Na-22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Al-26</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Si-32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">S-35</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cl-36</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">K-40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-41</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ca-45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sc-46</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ti-44</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">V-49</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 08 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-53</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5E + 07 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mn-54</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-55</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fe-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-57</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-58</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Co-60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-59</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ni-63</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zn-65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ge-68</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.6E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">As-73</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Se-79</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-83</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rb-84</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-85</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-89</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sr-90</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Y-91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-88</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Zr-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-91</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.9E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-91m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-92</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-93m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-94</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nb-95</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mo-93</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-95m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-97</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-97m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-98</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tc-99</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-103</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ru-106</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-101</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-102</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4E+05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rh-102m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0E+05
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pd-107</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-105</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-108m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ag-110m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-109</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-113m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cd-115m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-114m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-113</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-119m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-121m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-123</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sn-126</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-124</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sb-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-121m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-123m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-125m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-127m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Te-129m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-125</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I-129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-134</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-135</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cs-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ba-133</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">La-137</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-139</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-141</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ce-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-143</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-144</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-147</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.7E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pm-148m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-145</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sm-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-149</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1E + 07 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-152</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-154</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eu-155</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.6E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-146</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-148</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-151</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gd-153</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-157</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-158</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tb-160</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dy-159</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 07 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ho-166m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-170</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tm-171</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Yb-169</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-173</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-174</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-174m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lu-177m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.8E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-172</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-175</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-178m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hf-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-179</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ta-182</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-181</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9E + 06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">W-188</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-183</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-184</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.6E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-184m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Re-186m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-185</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Os-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.4E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-192</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-192m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ir-194m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pt-193</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7E + 07 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Au-195</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-194</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hg-203</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tl-204</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-205</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pb-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.2E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-207</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-208</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bi-210m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Po-209</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Po-210</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-226</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ra-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ac-227</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.2E + 00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-228</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-230</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4E + 00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Th-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.3E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pa-231</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-232</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-233</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-234</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.9E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.7E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.1E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-235</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.1E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Np-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.9E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-236</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-237</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-238</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-239</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-240</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.4E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.7E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pu-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9.0E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.2E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-242m</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Am-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.3E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-241</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 05 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-242</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.2E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-243</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.8E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-244</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-245</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-246</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cm-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.4E + 00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-247</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bk-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.7E + 04 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-248</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-249</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-250</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-251</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.3E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-252</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.2E + 00 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cf-254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Es-254</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3E + 01 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Es-255</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.8E + 03 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fm-257</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1E + 02 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Md-258</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.1E + 02</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Any alpha emitting radionuclide not listed in appendix E and mixtures of alpha emitters of unknown composition have a value of 10 µCi.
</P>
<P>With the exception that any type of STC has a value of 10 Ci, any radionuclide other than alpha emitting radionuclides not listed in appendix E and mixtures of beta emitters of unknown composition have a value of 100 µCi.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where there is involved a mixture of radionuclides in known amounts, derive the value for the mixture as follows: determine, for each radionuclide in the mixture, the ratio between the quantity present in the mixture and the value otherwise established for the specific radionuclide when not in the mixture. If the sum of such ratios for all radionuclides in the mixture exceeds unity (1), then the accountability criterion has been exceeded.</P></NOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 31940, June 8, 2007, as amended at 82 FR 37514, Aug. 11, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="840" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 840—EXTRAORDINARY NUCLEAR OCCURRENCES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 161 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 919 (42 U.S.C. 2201); sec. 170 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, Pub. L. 85-256, 71 Stat. 576, as amended by Pub. L. 89-645, 80 Stat. 891 (42 U.S.C. 2210); Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565-613 (42 U.S.C. 7101-7352).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 21473, May 21, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 840.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.30.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 840.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to those DOE contractor activities to which the nuclear hazards indemnity provisions in 41 CFR 9-50.704-6 apply, and to other persons indemnified with respect to such activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> One purpose of this subpart is to set forth the criteria which the DOE proposes to follow in order to determine whether there has been an “extraordinary nuclear occurrence.” The other purpose is to establish the conditions of the waivers of defenses proposed for incorporation in indemnity agreements.
</P>
<P>(1) The system is to come into effect only where the discharge or dispersal constitutes a substantial amount of source, special nuclear or byproduct material, or has caused substantial radiation levels offsite. The various limits in present DOE regulations are not appropriate for direct application in the determination of an “extraordinary nuclear occurrence,” for they were arrived at with other purposes in mind, and those limits have been set at a level which is conservatively arrived at by incorporating a significant safety factor. Thus, a discharge or dispersal which exceeds the limits in DOE regulations, or in DOE orders, although possible cause for concern, is not one which would be expected to cause substantial injury or damage unless it exceeds by some significant multiple the appropriate regulatory limit. Accordingly, in arriving at the values in the criteria to be deemed “substantial” it is more appropriate to adopt values separate from DOE health and safety orders, and, of course the selection of these values will not in any way affect such orders. A substantial discharge, for purposes of the criteria, represents a perturbation of the environment which is clearly above that which could be anticipated from the conduct of normal activities. The criteria are intended solely for the purposes of administration of DOE statutory responsibilities under Pub. L. 89-645, and are not intended to indicate a level of discharge or dispersal at which damage is likely to occur, or even a level at which some type of protective action is indicated. It should be clearly understood that the criteria in no way establish or indicate that there is a specific threshold of exposure at which biological damage from radiation will take place. It cannot be emphasized too frequently that the levels set to be used as criteria for the first part of the determination, that is, the criteria for amounts offsite or radiation levels offsite which are substantial, are not meant to indicate that, because such amounts or levels are determined to be substantial for purposes of administration, they are “substantial” in terms of their propensity for causing injury or damage.
</P>
<P>(2) It is the purpose of the second part of the determination that DOE decide whether there have in fact been or will probably be substantial damages to persons offsite or property offsite. The criteria for substantial damages were formulated, and the numerical values selected, on a wholly different basis from that on which the criteria used for the first part of the determination with respect to substantial discharge were derived. The only interrelation between the values selected for the discharge criteria and the damage criteria is that the discharge values are set so low that it is extremely unlikely the damage criteria could be satisfied unless the discharge values have been exceeded.
</P>
<P>(3) The first part of the test is designed so that DOE can assure itself that something exceptional has occurred; that something untoward and unexpected has in fact taken place and that this event is of sufficient significance to raise the possibility that some damage to persons or property offsite has resulted or may result. If there appears to be no damage, the waivers will not apply because DOE will be unable, under the second part of the test, to make a determination that “substantial damages” have resulted or will probably result. If damages have resulted or will probably result, they could vary from de minimis to serious, and the waivers will not apply until the damages, both actual and probable, are determined to be “substantial” within the second part of the test.
</P>
<P>(4) The presence or absence of an extraordinary nuclear occurrence determination does not concomitantly determine whether or not a particular claimant will recover on his claim. In effect, it is intended primarily to determine whether certain potential obstacles to recovery are to be removed from the route the claimant would ordinarily follow to seek compensation for his injury or damage. If there has not been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence determination, the claimant must proceed (in the absence of settlement) with a tort action subject to whatever issues must be met, and whatever defenses are available to the defendant, under the law applicable in the relevant jurisdiction. If there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence determination, the claimant must still proceed (in the absence of settlement) with a tort action, but the claimant's burden is substantially eased by the elimination of certain issues which may be involved and certain defenses which may be available to the defendant. In either case the defendant may defend with respect to such of the following matters as are in issue in any given claim: the nature of the claimant's alleged damages, the causal relationship between the event and the alleged damages, and the amount of the alleged damages.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 840.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.30.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 840.2   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may initiate, on its own motion, the making of a determination as to whether or not there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. In the event DOE does not so initiate the making of a determination, any affected person, or any person with whom an indemnity agreement is executed may petition DOE for a determination of whether or not there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. If DOE does not have, or does not expect to have, within 7 days after it has received notification of an alleged event, enough information available to make a determination that there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence, DOE will publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> setting forth the date and place of the alleged event and requesting any persons having knowledge thereof to submit their information to DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) When a procedure is initiated under paragraph (a) of this section, the principal staff which will begin immediately to assemble the relevant information and prepare a report on which the DOE can make its determination will consist of the Directors or their designees of the following Divisions or Offices: Office of Nuclear Safety, Office of Operational Safety, Office of Health and Environmental Research, the General Counsel or his designee, and a representative of the program division whose facility or device may be involved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 840.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.30.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 840.3   Determination of extraordinary nuclear occurrence.</HEAD>
<P>If the DOE determines that both of the criteria set forth in § 840.4 and § 840.5 have been met, it will make the determination that there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. If the DOE publishes a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 840.2(a) and does not make a determination within 90 days thereafter that there has been an extraordinary nuclear occurrence, the alleged event will be deemed not to be an extraordinary nuclear occurrence. The time for the making of a determination may be extended by DOE by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 840.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.30.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 840.4   Criterion I—Substantial discharge of radioactive material or substantial radiation levels offsite.</HEAD>
<P>DOE will determine that there has been a substantial discharge or dispersal of radioactive material offsite, or that there have been substantial levels of radiation offsite, when as a result of an event comprised of one or more related happenings, radioactive material is released from its intended place of confinement or radiation levels occur offsite and either of the following findings are also made:
</P>
<P>(a) DOE finds that one or more persons offsite were, could have been, or might be exposed to radiation or to radioactive material, resulting in a dose or in a projected dose in excess of one of the levels in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Total Projected Radiation Doses
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Critical organ
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dose (rems)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Thyroid</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Whole Body</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bone Marrow</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Skin</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other organs or tissues</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Exposures from the following types of sources of radiation shall be included:
</P>
<P>(1) Radiation from sources external to the body;
</P>
<P>(2) Radioactive material that may be taken into the body from its occurrence in air or water; and
</P>
<P>(3) Radioactive material that may be taken into the body from its occurrence in food or on terrestrial surfaces.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE finds that—
</P>
<P>(1) Surface contamination of at least a total of any 100 square meters of offsite property has occurred as the result of a release of radioactive material from a production or utilization facility or device and such contamination is characterized by levels of radiation in excess of one of the values listed in column 1 or column 2 of the following table, or
</P>
<P>(2) Surface contamination of any offsite property has occurred as the result of a release of radioactive material in the course of transportation and such contamination is characterized by levels of radiation in excess of one of the values listed in column 2 of the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Total Surface Contamination Levels 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of emitter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column 1—Offsite property 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column 2—Other offsite property 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha emission from transuranic isotopes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 microcuries per square meter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35 microcuries per square meter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Alpha emission from isotopes other than transuranic isotopes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35 microcuries per square meter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 microcuries per square meter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Beta or gamma emission</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 millirads/hour 1 cm (measured through not more than 7 milligrams per square centimeter of total absorber)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 millirads/hour 1 cm (measured through not more than 7 milligrams per square centimeter of total absorber).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The maximum levels (above background), observed or projected, 8 or more hours after initial deposition.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Contiguous to site, owned or leased by person with whom an indemnity agreement is executed.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 21473, May 21, 1984; 49 FR 24374, June 13, 1984]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 840.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.30.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 840.5   Criterion II—Substantial damages to persons offsite or property offsite.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After DOE has determined that an event has satisfied Criterion I, DOE will determine that the event has resulted or will probably result in substantial damages to persons offsite or property offsite if any of the following findings are made:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE finds that such event has resulted in the death or hospitalization, within 30 days of the event, of five or more people located offsite showing objective clinical evidence of physical injury from exposure to the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of source, special nuclear, or byproduct material; or
</P>
<P>(2) DOE finds that $2,500,000 or more of damage offsite has been or will probably be sustained by any one person, or $5 million or more of such damage in the aggregate has been or will probably be sustained, as the result of such event; or 
</P>
<P>(3) DOE finds that $5,000 or more of damage offsite has been or will probably be sustained by each of 50 or more persons, provided that $1 million or more of such damage in the aggregate has been or will probably be sustained, as the result of such event.
</P>
<P>(b) As used in paragraphs (a) (2) and (3) of this section “damage” shall be that arising out of or resulting from the radioactive, toxic, explosive, or other hazardous properties of source, special nuclear, or byproduct material, and shall be based upon estimates of one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Total cost necessary to put affected property back into use.
</P>
<P>(2) Loss of use of affected property.
</P>
<P>(3) Value of affected property where not practical to restore to use.
</P>
<P>(4) Financial loss resulting from protective actions appropriate to reduce or avoid exposure to radiation or to radioactive materials.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="850" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 850—CHRONIC BERYLLIUM DISEASE PREVENTION PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201(i)(3), (p); 42 U.S.C. 2282c; 29 U.S.C. 668; 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.,</I> E.O. 12196, 3 CFR 1981 comp., at 145 as amended. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 68905, Dec. 8, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part provides for establishment of a chronic beryllium disease prevention program (CBDPP) that supplements and is deemed an integral part of the worker safety and health program under part 851 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE offices responsible for operations or activities that involve present or past exposure, or the potential for exposure, to beryllium at DOE facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) DOE contractors with operations or activities that involve present or past exposure, or the potential for exposure, to beryllium at DOE facilities; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any current DOE employee, DOE contractor employee, or other worker at a DOE facility who is or was exposed or potentially exposed to beryllium at a DOE facility.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Beryllium articles; and
</P>
<P>(2) DOE laboratory operations that meet the definition of laboratory use of hazardous chemicals in 29 CFR 1910.1450, Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemical in Laboratories.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Action level</I> means the level of airborne concentration of beryllium established pursuant to section 850.23 of this part that, if met or exceeded, requires the implementation of worker protection provisions specified in that section.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized person</I> means any person required by work duties to be in a regulated area.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium</I> means elemental beryllium and any insoluble beryllium compound or alloy containing 0.1 percent beryllium or greater that may be released as an airborne particulate.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium activity</I> means an activity taken for, or by, DOE at a DOE facility that can expose workers to airborne beryllium, including but not limited to design, construction, operation, maintenance, or decommissioning, and which may involve one DOE facility or operation or a combination of facilities and operations.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium article</I> means a manufactured item that is formed to a specific shape or design during manufacture, that has end-use functions that depend in whole or in part on its shape or design during end use, and that does not release beryllium or otherwise result in exposure to airborne concentrations of beryllium under normal conditions of use.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium-associated worker</I> means a current worker who is or was exposed or potentially exposed to airborne concentrations of beryllium at a DOE facility, including:
</P>
<P>(1) A beryllium worker;
</P>
<P>(2) A current worker whose work history shows that the worker may have been exposed to airborne concentrations of beryllium at a DOE facility;
</P>
<P>(3) A current worker who exhibits signs or symptoms of beryllium exposure; and
</P>
<P>(4) A current worker who is receiving medical removal protection benefits.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium emergency</I> means any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, container rupture, or failure of control equipment or operations that results in an unexpected and significant release of beryllium at a DOE facility.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium-induced lymphocyte proliferation test</I> (Be-LPT) is an in vitro measure of the beryllium antigen-specific, cell-mediated immune response.
</P>
<P><I>Beryllium worker</I> means a current worker who is regularly employed in a DOE beryllium activity.
</P>
<P><I>Breathing zone</I> is defined as a hemisphere forward of the shoulders, centered on the mouth and nose, with a radius of 6 to 9 inches.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>DOE contractor</I> means any entity under contract with DOE (or its subcontractor) that has responsibility for performing beryllium activities at DOE facilities.
</P>
<P><I>DOE facility</I> means any facility operated by or for DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Head of DOE Field Element</I> means an individual who is the manager or head of the DOE operations office or field office, or any official to whom the Head of DOE Field Element delegates his or her functions under this part.
</P>
<P><I>High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter</I> means a filter capable of trapping and retaining at least 99.97 percent of 0.3 micrometer monodispersed particles.
</P>
<P><I>Immune response</I> refers to the series of cellular events by which the immune system reacts to challenge by an antigen.
</P>
<P><I>Medical removal protection benefits</I> means the employment rights established by section 850.35 of this part for beryllium-associated workers who voluntarily accept temporary or permanent medical removal from beryllium areas following a recommendation by the Site Occupational Medicine Director.
</P>
<P><I>Operational area</I> means an area where workers are routinely in the presence of beryllium as part of their work activity.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated area</I> means an area demarcated by the responsible employer in which the airborne concentration of beryllium exceeds, or can reasonably be expected to exceed, the action level.
</P>
<P><I>Removable contamination</I> means beryllium contamination that can be removed from surfaces by nondestructive means, such as casual contact, wiping, brushing or washing.
</P>
<P><I>Responsible employer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For DOE contractor employees, the DOE contractor office that is directly responsible for the safety and health of DOE contractor employees while performing a beryllium activity or other activity at a DOE facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) For DOE employees, the DOE office that is directly responsible for the safety and health of DOE Federal employees while performing a beryllium activity or other activity at a DOE facility; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any person acting directly or indirectly for such office with respect to terms and conditions of employment of beryllium-associated workers.
</P>
<P><I>Site Occupational Medical Director (SOMD)</I> means the physician responsible for the overall direction and operation of the site occupational medicine program.
</P>
<P><I>Unique identifier</I> means the part of a paired set of labels, used in records that contain confidential information, that does not identify individuals except by using the matching label.
</P>
<P><I>Worker</I> means a person who performs work for or on behalf of DOE, including a DOE employee, an independent contractor, a DOE contractor or subcontractor employee, or any other person who performs work at a DOE facility.
</P>
<P><I>Worker exposure</I> means the exposure of a worker to airborne beryllium that would occur if the worker were not using respiratory protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(b) Terms undefined in this part that are defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 shall have the same meaning as under that Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.1.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.4   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may take appropriate steps pursuant to part 851 of this chapter to enforce compliance by contractors with this part and any DOE-approved CBDPP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.1.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.5   Dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, any worker who is adversely affected by an action taken, or failure to act, under this part may petition the Office of Hearings and Appeals for relief in accordance with 10 CFR part 1003, Subpart G.
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of Hearings and Appeals may not accept a petition from a worker unless the worker requested the responsible employer to correct the violation, and the responsible employer refused or failed to take corrective action within a reasonable time.
</P>
<P>(c) If the dispute relates to a term or condition of employment that is covered by a grievance-arbitration provision in a collective bargaining agreement, the worker must exhaust all applicable grievance-arbitration procedures before filing a petition for relief with the Office of Hearings and Appeals. A worker is deemed to have exhausted all applicable grievance-arbitration procedures if 150 days have passed since the filing of a grievance and a final decision on it has not been issued.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.10   Development and approval of the CBDPP.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation and submission of initial CBDPP to DOE.</I> (1) The responsible employer at a DOE facility must ensure that a CBDPP is prepared for the facility and submitted to the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element before beginning beryllium activities, but no later than April 6, 2000 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) If the CBDPP has separate sections addressing the activities of multiple contractors at the facility, the Head of DOE Field Element will designate a single DOE contractor to review and approve the sections prepared by other contractors, so that a single consolidated CBDPP for the facility is submitted to the Head of DOE Field Element for review and approval.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DOE review and approval.</I> The appropriate Head of DOE Field Element must review and approve the CBDPP.
</P>
<P>(1) The initial CBDPP and any updates are deemed approved 90 days after submission if they are not specifically approved or rejected by DOE earlier.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible employer must furnish a copy of the approved CBDPP, upon request, to the DOE Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or designee, DOE program offices, and affected workers or their designated representatives.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Update.</I> The responsible employer must submit an update of the CBDPP to the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element for review and approval whenever a significant change or significant addition to the CBDPP is made or a change in contractors occurs. The Head of DOE Field Element must review the CBDPP at least annually and, if necessary, require the responsible employer to update the CBDPP.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labor Organizations.</I> If a responsible employer employs or supervises beryllium-associated workers who are represented for collective bargaining by a labor organization, the responsible employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Give the labor organization timely notice of the development and implementation of the CBDPP and any updates thereto; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon timely request, bargain concerning implementation of this part, consistent with the Federal labor laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 68905, Dec. 8, 1999, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.11   General CBDPP requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CBDPP must specify the existing and planned operational tasks that are within the scope of the CBDPP. The CBDPP must augment and, to the extent feasible, be integrated into the existing worker protection programs that cover activities at the facility.
</P>
<P>(b) The detail, scope, and content of the CBDPP must be commensurate with the hazard of the activities performed, but in all cases the CBDPP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Include formal plans and measures for maintaining exposures to beryllium at or below the permissible exposure level prescribed in § 850.22;
</P>
<P>(2) Satisfy each requirement in subpart C of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Contain provisions for:
</P>
<P>(i) Minimizing the number of workers exposed and potentially exposed to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimizing the number of opportunities for workers to be exposed to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(iii) Minimizing the disability and lost work time of workers due to chronic beryllium disease, beryllium sensitization and associated medical care; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Setting specific exposure reduction and minimization goals that are appropriate for the beryllium activities covered by the CBDPP to further reduce exposure below the permissible exposure limit prescribed in § 850.22.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.12   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must manage and control beryllium exposures in all DOE beryllium activities consistent with the approved CBDPP.
</P>
<P>(b) No person employed by DOE or a DOE contractor may take or cause any action inconsistent with the requirements of:
</P>
<P>(1) This part,
</P>
<P>(2) An approved CBDPP, and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other Federal statute or regulation concerning the exposure of workers to beryllium at DOE facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) No task involving potential exposure to airborne beryllium that is outside the scope of the existing CBDPP may be initiated until an update of the CBDPP is approved by the Head of DOE Field Element, except in an unexpected situation and, then, only upon approval of the Head of DOE Field Element.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this part precludes a responsible employer from taking any additional protective action that it determines to be necessary to protect the health and safety of workers.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this part affects the responsibilities of DOE officials under the Federal Employee Occupational Safety and Health Program (29 CFR part 1960) and related DOE directives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.13   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must conduct activities in compliance with its CBDPP.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible employer must achieve compliance with all elements of its CBDPP no later than January 7, 2002.
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to a particular beryllium activity, the contractor in charge of the activity is responsible for complying with this part. If no contractor is responsible for a beryllium activity, DOE must ensure implementation of, and compliance with, this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Specific Program Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.20   Baseline beryllium inventory.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must develop a baseline inventory of the locations of beryllium operations and other locations of potential beryllium contamination, and identify the workers exposed or potentially exposed to beryllium at those locations.
</P>
<P>(b) In conducting the baseline inventory, the responsible employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Review current and historical records;
</P>
<P>(2) Interview workers;
</P>
<P>(3) Document the characteristics and locations of beryllium at the facility; and
</P>
<P>(4) Conduct air, surface, and bulk sampling.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsible employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The baseline beryllium inventory is managed by a qualified individual (e.g., a certified industrial hygienist); and
</P>
<P>(2) The individuals assigned to this task have sufficient knowledge and experience to perform such activities properly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.21   Hazard assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the baseline inventory establishes the presence of beryllium, the responsible employer must conduct a beryllium hazard assessment that includes an analysis of existing conditions, exposure data, medical surveillance trends, and the exposure potential of planned activities. The exposure determinants, characteristics and exposure potential of activities must be prioritized so that the activities with the greatest risks of exposure are evaluated first.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The hazard assessment is managed by a qualified individual (e.g., a certified industrial hygienist); and
</P>
<P>(2) The individuals assigned to this task have sufficient knowledge and experience to perform such activities properly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.22   Permissible exposure limit.</HEAD>
<P>The responsible employer must assure that no worker is exposed to an airborne concentration of beryllium greater than the permissible exposure limit established in 29 CFR 1910.1000, as measured in the worker's breathing zone by personal monitoring, or a more stringent TWA PEL that may be promulgated by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration as a health standard.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.23   Action level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must include in its CBDPP an action level that is no greater than 0.2 µg/m
<SU>3</SU>, calculated as an 8-hour TWA exposure, as measured in the worker's breathing zone by personal monitoring.
</P>
<P>(b) If an airborne concentration of beryllium is at or above the action level, the responsible employer must implement §§ 850.24(c) (periodic monitoring), 850.25 (exposure reduction and minimization), 850.26 (regulated areas), 850.27 (hygiene facilities and practices), 850.28 (respiratory protection), 850.29 (protective clothing and equipment), and 850.38 (warning signs) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.24   Exposure monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The responsible employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Exposure monitoring is managed by a qualified individual (e.g., a certified industrial hygienist); and
</P>
<P>(2) The individuals assigned to this task have sufficient industrial hygiene knowledge and experience to perform such activities properly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial monitoring.</I> The responsible employer must perform initial monitoring in areas that may have airborne beryllium, as shown by the baseline inventory and hazard assessment. The responsible employer must apply statistically-based monitoring strategies to obtain a sufficient number of sample results to adequately characterize exposures, before reducing or terminating monitoring.
</P>
<P>(1) The responsible employer must determine workers' 8-hour TWA exposure levels by conducting personal breathing zone sampling.
</P>
<P>(2) Exposure monitoring results obtained within the 12 months preceding the effective date of this part may be used to satisfy this requirement if the measurements were made as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Periodic exposure monitoring.</I> The responsible employer must conduct periodic monitoring of workers who work in areas where airborne concentrations of beryllium are at or above the action level. The monitoring must be conducted in a manner and at a frequency necessary to represent workers' exposure, as specified in the CBDPP. This periodic exposure monitoring must be performed at least every 3 months (quarterly).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional exposure monitoring.</I> The responsible employer must perform additional monitoring if operations, maintenance or procedures change, or when the responsible employer has any reason to suspect such a change has occurred.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Accuracy of monitoring.</I> The responsible employer must use a method of monitoring and analysis that has an accuracy of not less than plus or minus 25 percent, with a confidence level of 95 percent, for airborne concentrations of beryllium at the action level.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis.</I> The responsible employer must have all samples collected to satisfy the monitoring requirements of this part analyzed in a laboratory accredited for metals by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) or a laboratory that demonstrates quality assurance for metals analysis that is equivalent to AIHA accreditation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notification of monitoring results.</I> (1) The responsible employer must, within 10 working days after receipt of any monitoring results, notify the affected workers of monitoring results in writing. This notification of monitoring results must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Made personally to the affected worker; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Posted in location(s) that is readily accessible to the affected worker, but in a manner that does not identify the individual to other workers.
</P>
<P>(2) If the monitoring results indicate that a worker's exposure is at or above the action level, the responsible employer must include in the notice:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the action level has been met or exceeded; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the corrective action being taken by the responsible employer to reduce the worker's exposure to below the action level, if practicable.
</P>
<P>(3) If the monitoring results indicate that worker exposure is at or above the action level, the responsible employer must also notify DOE and the SOMD of these results within 10 working days after receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.25   Exposure reduction and minimization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must ensure that no worker is exposed above the exposure limit prescribed in § 850.22.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible employer must, in addition:
</P>
<P>(1) Where exposure levels are at or above the action level, establish a formal exposure reduction and minimization program to reduce exposure levels to below the action level, if practicable. This program must be described in the responsible employer's CBDPP and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Annual goals for exposure reduction and minimization;
</P>
<P>(ii) A rationale for and a strategy for meeting the goals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Actions that will be taken to achieve the goals; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A means of tracking progress towards meeting the goals or demonstrating that the goals have been met.
</P>
<P>(2) Where exposure levels are below the action level, implement actions for reducing and minimizing exposures, if practicable. The responsible employer must include in the CBDPP a description of the steps to be taken for exposure reduction and minimization and a rationale for those steps.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsible employer must implement exposure reduction and minimization actions using the conventional hierarchy of industrial hygiene controls (<I>i.e.,</I> engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment in that order).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.26" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.26   Regulated areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If airborne concentrations of beryllium in areas in DOE facilities are measured at or above the action level, the responsible employer must establish regulated areas for those areas.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible employer must demarcate regulated areas from the rest of the workplace in a manner that adequately alerts workers to the boundaries of such areas.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsible employer must limit access to regulated areas to authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsible employer must keep records of all individuals who enter regulated areas. These records must include the name, date, time in and time out, and work activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.27" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.27   Hygiene facilities and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The responsible employer must assure that in areas where workers are exposed to beryllium at or above the action level, without regard to the use of respirators:
</P>
<P>(1) Food or beverage and tobacco products are not used;
</P>
<P>(2) Cosmetics are not applied, except in change rooms or areas and shower facilities required under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Beryllium workers are prevented from exiting areas that contain beryllium with contamination on their bodies or their personal clothing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Change rooms or areas.</I> The responsible employer must provide clean change rooms or areas for beryllium workers who work in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(1) Separate facilities free of beryllium must be provided for beryllium workers to change into, and store, personal clothing, and clean protective clothing and equipment to prevent cross-contamination;
</P>
<P>(2) The change rooms or areas that are used to remove beryllium-contaminated clothing and protective equipment must be maintained under negative pressure or located so as to minimize dispersion of beryllium into clean areas; and
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Showers and handwashing facilities.</I> (1) The responsible employer must provide handwashing and shower facilities for beryllium workers who work in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible employer must assure that beryllium workers who work in regulated areas shower at the end of the work shift.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Lunchroom facilities.</I> (1) The responsible employer must provide lunchroom facilities that are readily accessible to beryllium workers, and ensure that tables for eating are free of beryllium, and that no worker in a lunchroom facility is exposed at any time to beryllium at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible employer must assure that beryllium workers do not enter lunchroom facilities with protective work clothing or equipment unless the surface beryllium has been removed from clothing and equipment by HEPA vacuuming or other method that removes beryllium without dispersing it.
</P>
<P>(e) The change rooms or areas, shower and handwashing facilities, and lunchroom facilities must comply with 29 CFR 1910.141, Sanitation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.28" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.28   Respiratory protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must establish a respiratory protection program that complies with the respiratory protection program requirements of 29 CFR 1910.134, Respiratory Protection.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible employer must provide respirators to, and ensure that they are used by, all workers who:
</P>
<P>(1) Are exposed to an airborne concentration of beryllium at or above the action level, or
</P>
<P>(2) Are performing tasks for which analyses indicate the potential for exposures at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsible employer must include in the respiratory protection program any beryllium-associated worker who requests to use a respirator for protection against airborne beryllium, regardless of measured exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsible employer must select for use by workers:
</P>
<P>(1) Respirators approved by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) if NIOSH-approved respirators exist for a specific DOE task; or
</P>
<P>(2) Respirators that DOE has accepted under the DOE Respiratory Protection Acceptance Program if NIOSH-approved respirators do not exist for specific DOE tasks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.29" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.29   Protective clothing and equipment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must provide protective clothing and equipment to beryllium workers and ensure its appropriate use and maintenance, where dispersible forms of beryllium may contact worker's skin, enter openings in workers' skin, or contact workers' eyes, including where:
</P>
<P>(1) Exposure monitoring has established that airborne concentrations of beryllium are at or above the action level;
</P>
<P>(2) Surface contamination levels measured or presumed prior to initiating work are above the level prescribed in § 850.30;
</P>
<P>(3) Surface contamination levels results obtained to confirm housekeeping efforts are above the level prescribed in § 850.30; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any beryllium-associated worker who requests the use of protective clothing and equipment for protection against airborne beryllium, regardless of measured exposure levels.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible employer must comply with 29 CFR 1910.132, Personal Protective Equipment General Requirements, when workers use personal protective clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsible employer must establish procedures for donning, doffing, handling, and storing protective clothing and equipment that:
</P>
<P>(1) Prevent beryllium workers from exiting areas that contain beryllium with contamination on their bodies or their personal clothing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include beryllium workers exchanging their personal clothing for full-body protective clothing and footwear before they begin work in regulated areas.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsible employer must ensure that no worker removes beryllium-contaminated protective clothing and equipment from areas that contain beryllium, except for workers authorized to launder, clean, maintain, or dispose of the clothing and equipment.
</P>
<P>(e) The responsible employer must prohibit the removal of beryllium from protective clothing and equipment by blowing, shaking, or other means that may disperse beryllium into the air.
</P>
<P>(f) The responsible employer must ensure that protective clothing and equipment is cleaned, laundered, repaired, or replaced as needed to maintain effectiveness. The responsible employer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that beryllium-contaminated protective clothing and equipment, when removed for laundering, cleaning, maintenance, or disposal, is placed in containers that prevent the dispersion of beryllium dust and that are labeled in accordance with § 850.38 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Inform organizations that launder or clean DOE beryllium-contaminated protective clothing or equipment that exposure to beryllium is potentially harmful, and that clothing and equipment should be laundered or cleaned in a manner prescribed by the responsible employer to prevent the release of airborne beryllium.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.30   Housekeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where beryllium is present in operational areas of DOE facilities, the responsible employer must conduct routine surface sampling to determine housekeeping conditions. Surfaces contaminated with beryllium dusts and waste must not exceed a removable contamination level of 3 µg/100 cm
<SU>2</SU> during non-operational periods. This sampling would not include the interior of installed closed systems such as enclosures, glove boxes, chambers, or ventilation systems.
</P>
<P>(b) When cleaning floors and surfaces in areas where beryllium is present at DOE facilities, the responsible employer must clean beryllium-contaminated floors and surfaces using a wet method, vacuuming or other cleaning methods, such as sticky tack cloths, that avoid the production of airborne dust. Compressed air or dry methods must not be used for such cleaning.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsible employer must equip the portable or mobile vacuum units that are used to clean beryllium-contaminated areas with HEPA filters, and change the filters as often as needed to maintain their capture efficiency.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsible employer must ensure that the cleaning equipment that is used to clean beryllium-contaminated surfaces is labeled, controlled, and not used for non-hazardous materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.31   Release criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must clean beryllium-contaminated equipment and other items to the lowest contamination level practicable, but not to exceed the levels established in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, and label the equipment or other items, before releasing them to the general public or a DOE facility for non-beryllium use, or to another facility for work involving beryllium.
</P>
<P>(b) Before releasing beryllium-contaminated equipment or other items to the general public or for use in a non-beryllium area of a DOE facility, the responsible employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The removable contamination level of equipment or item surfaces does not exceed the higher of 0.2 µg/100 cm 
<SU>2</SU> or the concentration level of beryllium in soil at the point or release, whichever is greater;
</P>
<P>(2) The equipment or item is labeled in accordance with § 850.38(b); and
</P>
<P>(3) The release is conditioned on the recipient's commitment to implement controls that will prevent foreseeable beryllium exposure, considering the nature of the equipment or item and its future use and the nature of the beryllium contamination.
</P>
<P>(c) Before releasing beryllium-contaminated equipment or other items to another facility performing work with beryllium, the responsible employer must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The removable contamination level of equipment or item surfaces does not exceed 3 µg/100 cm 
<SU>2</SU>;
</P>
<P>(2) The equipment or item is labeled in accordance with § 850.38(b); and
</P>
<P>(3) The equipment or item is enclosed or placed in sealed, impermeable bags or containers to prevent the release of beryllium dust during handling and transportation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.32   Waste disposal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must control the generation of beryllium-containing waste, and beryllium-contaminated equipment and other items that are disposed of as waste, through the application of waste minimization principles.
</P>
<P>(b) Beryllium-containing waste, and beryllium-contaminated equipment and other items that are disposed of as waste, must be disposed of in sealed, impermeable bags, containers, or enclosures to prevent the release of beryllium dust during handling and transportation. The bags, containers, and enclosures that are used for disposal of beryllium waste must be labeled according to § 850.38.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.33   Beryllium emergencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must comply with 29 CFR 1910.120(l) for handling beryllium emergencies related to decontamination and decommissioning operations.
</P>
<P>(b) The responsible employer must comply with 29 CFR 1910.120(q) for handling beryllium emergencies related to all other operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.34   Medical surveillance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The responsible employer must establish and implement a medical surveillance program for beryllium-associated workers who voluntarily participate in the program.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible employer must designate a Site Occupational Medical Director (SOMD) who is responsible for administering the medical surveillance program.
</P>
<P>(3) The responsible employer must ensure that the medical evaluations and procedures required by this section are performed by, or under the supervision of, a licensed physician who is familiar with the health effects of beryllium.
</P>
<P>(4) The responsible employer must establish, and maintain, a list of beryllium-associated workers who may be eligible for protective measures under this part. The list must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on the hazard assessment, exposure records, and other information regarding the identity of beryllium-associated workers; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjusted at regular intervals based on periodic evaluations of beryllium-associated workers performed under paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(5) The responsible employer must provide the SOMD with the information needed to operate and administer the medical surveillance program, including the:
</P>
<P>(i) List of beryllium-associated workers required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Baseline inventory;
</P>
<P>(iii) Hazard assessment and exposure monitoring data;
</P>
<P>(iv) Identity and nature of activities or operations on the site that are covered under the CBDPP, related duties of beryllium-associated workers; and
</P>
<P>(v) Type of personal protective equipment used.
</P>
<P>(6) The responsible employer must provide the following information to the SOMD and the examining physician:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of this rule and its preamble;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the worker's duties as they pertain to beryllium exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Records of the worker's beryllium exposure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the personal protective and respiratory protective equipment used by the worker in the past, present, or anticipated future use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical evaluations and procedures.</I> The responsible employer must provide, to beryllium-associated workers who voluntarily participate in the medical surveillance program, the medical evaluations and procedures required by this section at no cost and at a time and place that is reasonable and convenient to the worker.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Baseline medical evaluation.</I> The responsible employer must provide a baseline medical evaluation to beryllium-associated workers. This evaluation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed medical and work history with emphasis on past, present, and anticipated future exposure to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(ii) A respiratory symptoms questionnaire;
</P>
<P>(iii) A physical examination with special emphasis on the respiratory system, skin and eyes;
</P>
<P>(iv) A chest radiograph (posterior-anterior, 14 × 17 inches) interpreted by a National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) B-reader of pneumoconiosis or a board-certified radiologist (unless a baseline chest radiograph is already on file);
</P>
<P>(v) Spirometry consisting of forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV1);
</P>
<P>(vi) A Be-LPT; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other tests deemed appropriate by the examining physician for evaluating beryllium-related health effects.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic evaluation.</I> (i) The responsible employer must provide to beryllium workers a medical evaluation annually, and to other beryllium-associated workers a medical evaluation every three years. The periodic medical evaluation must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed medical and work history with emphasis on past, present, and anticipated future exposure to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(B) A respiratory symptoms questionnaire;
</P>
<P>(C) A physical examination with emphasis on the respiratory system;
</P>
<P>(D) A Be-LPT; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any other medical evaluations deemed appropriate by the examining physician for evaluating beryllium-related health effects.
</P>
<P>(ii) The responsible employer must provide to beryllium-associated workers a chest radiograph every five years.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Emergency evaluation.</I> The responsible employer must provide a medical evaluation as soon as possible to any worker who may have been exposed to beryllium because of a beryllium emergency. The medical evaluation must include the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple physician review.</I> The responsible employer must establish a multiple physician review process for beryllium-associated workers that allows for the review of initial medical findings, determinations, or recommendations from any medical evaluation conducted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) If the responsible employer selects the initial physician to conduct any medical examination or consultation provided to a beryllium-associated worker, the worker may designate a second physician to:
</P>
<P>(i) Review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the initial physician; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct such examinations, consultations and laboratory tests, as the second physician deems necessary to facilitate this review.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible employer must promptly notify a beryllium-associated worker in writing of the right to seek a second medical opinion after the initial physician provided by the responsible employer conducts a medical examination or consultation.
</P>
<P>(3) The responsible employer may condition its participation in, and payment for, multiple physician review upon the beryllium-associated worker doing the following within fifteen (15) days after receipt of the notice, or receipt of the initial physician's written opinion, whichever is later:
</P>
<P>(i) Informing the responsible employer in writing that he or she intends to seek a second medical opinion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Initiating steps to make an appointment with a second physician.
</P>
<P>(4) If the findings, determinations, or recommendations of the second physician differ from those of the initial physician, then the responsible employer and the beryllium-associated worker must make efforts to encourage and assist the two physicians to resolve any disagreement.
</P>
<P>(5) If, despite the efforts of the responsible employer and the beryllium-associated worker, the two physicians are unable to resolve their disagreement, then the responsible employer and the worker, through their respective physicians, must designate a third physician to:
</P>
<P>(i) Review any findings, determinations, or recommendations of the other two physicians; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct such examinations, consultations, laboratory tests, and consultations with the other two physicians, as the third physician deems necessary to resolve the disagreement among them.
</P>
<P>(6) The SOMD must act consistently with the findings, determinations, and recommendations of the third physician, unless the SOMD and the beryllium-associated worker reach an agreement that is consistent with the recommendations of at least one of the other two physicians.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternate physician determination.</I> The responsible employer and the beryllium-associated worker or the worker's designated representative may agree upon the use of any alternate form of physician determination in lieu of the multiple physician review process provided by paragraph (c) of this section, so long as the alternative is expeditious and at least as protective of the worker.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Written medical opinion and recommendation.</I> (1) Within two weeks of receipt of results, the SOMD must provide to the responsible employer a written, signed medical opinion for each medical evaluation performed on each beryllium-associated worker. The written opinion must take into account the findings, determinations and recommendations of the other examining physicians who may have examined the beryllium-associated worker. The SOMD's opinion must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The diagnosis of the worker's condition relevant to occupational exposure to beryllium, and any other medical condition that would place the worker at increased risk of material impairment to health from further exposure to beryllium;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommendation for removal of the worker from DOE beryllium activities, or limitation on the worker's activities or duties or use of personal protective equipment, such as a respirator; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the SOMD or examining physician has clearly explained to the worker the results of the medical evaluation, including all tests results and any medical condition related to beryllium exposure that requires further evaluation or treatment.
</P>
<P>(2) The SOMD's written medical opinion must not reveal specific records, findings, and diagnoses that are not related to medical conditions that may be affected by beryllium exposure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Information provided to the beryllium-associated worker.</I> (1) The SOMD must provide each beryllium-associated worker with a written medical opinion containing the results of all medical tests or procedures, an explanation of any abnormal findings, and any recommendation that the worker be referred for additional testing for evidence of CBD, within 10 working days after the SOMD's receipt of the results of the medical tests or procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible employer must, within 30 days after a request by a beryllium-associated worker, provide the worker with the information the responsible employer is required to provide the examining physician under paragraph (a)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reporting.</I> The responsible employer must report on the applicable OSHA reporting form beryllium sensitization, CBD, or any other abnormal condition or disorder of workers caused or aggravated by occupational exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Data analysis.</I> (1) The responsible employer must routinely and systematically analyze medical, job, and exposure data with the aim of identifying individuals or groups of individuals potentially at risk for CBD and working conditions that are contributing to that risk.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsible employer must use the results of these analyses to identify additional workers to whom the responsible employer must provide medical surveillance and to determine the need for additional exposure controls.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.35" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.35   Medical removal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Medical removal protection.</I> The responsible employer must offer a beryllium-associated worker medical removal from exposure to beryllium if the SOMD determines in a written medical opinion that it is medically appropriate to remove the worker from such exposure. The SOMD's determination must be based on one or more positive Be-LPT results, chronic beryllium disease diagnosis, an examining physician's recommendation, or any other signs or symptoms that the SOMD deems medically sufficient to remove a worker.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Temporary removal pending final medical determination.</I> The responsible employer must offer a beryllium-associated worker temporary medical removal from exposure to beryllium on each occasion that the SOMD determines in a written medical opinion that the worker should be temporarily removed from such exposure pending a final medical determination of whether the worker should be removed permanently.
</P>
<P>(i) In this section, “final medical determination” means the outcome of the multiple physician review process or the alternate medical determination process provided for in paragraphs (c) and (d) of § 850.34.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a beryllium-associated worker is temporarily removed from beryllium exposure pursuant to this section, the responsible employer must transfer the worker to a comparable job for which the worker is qualified (or for which the worker can be trained in a short period) and where beryllium exposures are as low as possible, but in no event at or above the action level.
</P>
<P>(iii) The responsible employer must maintain the beryllium-associated worker's total normal earnings, seniority, and other worker rights and benefits as if the worker had not been removed.
</P>
<P>(iv) If there is no such job available, the responsible employer must provide to the beryllium-associated worker the medical removal protection benefits specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, until a job becomes available or for one year, whichever comes first.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permanent medical removal.</I> (i) The responsible employer must offer a beryllium-associated worker permanent medical removal from exposure to beryllium if the SOMD determines in a written medical opinion that the worker should be permanently removed from exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a beryllium-associated worker is removed permanently from beryllium exposure based on the SOMD's recommendation pursuant to this section, the responsible employer must provide the worker the medical removal protection benefits specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Worker consultation before temporary or permanent medical removal.</I> If the SOMD determines that a beryllium-associated worker should be temporarily or permanently removed from exposure to beryllium, the SOMD must:
</P>
<P>(i) Advise the beryllium-associated worker of the determination that medical removal is necessary to protect the worker's health;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the beryllium-associated worker with a copy of this rule and its preamble, and any other information the SOMD deems necessary on the risks of continued exposure to beryllium and the benefits of removal;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide the beryllium-associated worker the opportunity to have any questions concerning medical removal answered; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Obtain the beryllium-associated worker's signature acknowledging that the worker has been advised to accept medical removal from beryllium exposure as provided in this section, and has been provided with the information specified in this paragraph, on the benefits of removal and the risks of continued exposure to beryllium.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Return to work after medical removal.</I> (i) The responsible employer, subject to paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, must not return a beryllium-associated worker who has been permanently removed under this section to the worker's former job status unless the SOMD first determines in a written medical opinion that continued medical removal is no longer necessary to protect the worker's health.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not withstanding paragraph (a)(4) (i) of this section, if, in the SOMD's opinion, continued exposure to beryllium will not pose an increased risk to the beryllium-associated worker's health, and medical removal is an inappropriate remedy in the circumstances, the SOMD must fully discuss these matters with the worker and then, in a written determination, may authorize the responsible employer to return the worker to his or her former job status. Thereafter, the returned beryllium-associated worker must continue to be provided with medical surveillance under § 850.34 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical removal protection benefits.</I> (1) If a beryllium-associated worker has been permanently removed from beryllium exposure pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the responsible employer must provide the beryllium-associated worker:
</P>
<P>(i) The opportunity to transfer to another position which is available, or later becomes available, for which the beryllium-associated worker is qualified (or for which the worker can be trained in a short period) and where beryllium exposures are as low as possible, but in no event at or above the action level; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the beryllium-associated worker cannot be transferred to a comparable job where beryllium exposures are below the action level, a maximum of 2 years of permanent medical removal protection benefits (specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) If required by this section to provide medical removal protection benefits, the responsible employer must maintain the removed worker's total normal earnings, seniority and other worker rights and benefits, as though the worker had not been removed.
</P>
<P>(3) If a removed beryllium-associated worker files a claim for workers' compensation payments for a beryllium-related disability, then the responsible employer must continue to provide medical removal protection benefits pending disposition of the claim. The responsible employer must receive no credit for the workers' compensation payments received by the worker for treatment related expenses.
</P>
<P>(4) The responsible employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to a removed beryllium-associated worker is reduced to the extent that the worker receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal either from a publicly- or employer-funded compensation program, or from employment with another employer made possible by virtue of the worker's removal.
</P>
<P>(5) For the purposes of this section, the requirement that a responsible employer provide medical removal protection benefits is not intended to expand upon, restrict, or change any rights to a specific job classification or position under the terms of an applicable collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) The responsible employer may condition the provision of medical removal protection benefits upon the beryllium-associated worker's participation in medical surveillance provided in accordance with § 850.34 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.36" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.36   Medical consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must provide each beryllium-associated worker with a summary of the medical surveillance program established in § 850.34 at least one week before the first medical evaluation or procedure or at any time requested by the worker. This summary must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The type of data that will be collected in the medical surveillance program;
</P>
<P>(2) How the data will be collected and maintained;
</P>
<P>(3) The purpose for which the data will be used; and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of how confidential data will be protected.
</P>
<P>(b) Responsible employers must also provide each beryllium-associated worker with information on the benefits and risks of the medical tests and examinations available to the worker at least one week prior to any such examination or test, and an opportunity to have the worker's questions answered.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsible employer must have the SOMD obtain a beryllium-associated worker's signature on the informed consent form found in Appendix A to this part, before performing medical evaluations or any tests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.37" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.37   Training and counseling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must develop and implement a beryllium training program and ensure participation for:
</P>
<P>(1) Beryllium-associated workers;
</P>
<P>(2) All other individuals who work at a site where beryllium activities are conducted.
</P>
<P>(b) The training provided for workers identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1200, Hazard Communication;
</P>
<P>(2) Include the contents of the CBDPP; and
</P>
<P>(3) Include potential health risks to beryllium worker family members and others who may come in contact with beryllium on beryllium workers or beryllium workers' personal clothing or other personal items as the result of a beryllium control failure at a DOE facility.
</P>
<P>(c) The training provided for workers identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section must consist of general awareness about beryllium hazards and controls.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsible employer must provide the training required by this section before or at the time of initial assignment and at least every two years thereafter.
</P>
<P>(e) The employer must provide retraining when the employer has reason to believe that a beryllium worker lacks the proficiency, knowledge, or understanding needed to work safely with beryllium, including at least the following situations:
</P>
<P>(1) To address any new beryllium hazards resulting from a change to operations, procedures, or beryllium controls about which the beryllium worker was not previously trained; and
</P>
<P>(2) If a beryllium worker's performance involving beryllium work indicates that the worker has not retained the requisite proficiency.
</P>
<P>(f) The responsible employer must develop and implement a counseling program to assist beryllium-associated workers who are diagnosed by the SOMD to be sensitized to beryllium or to have CBD. This counseling program must include communicating with beryllium-associated workers concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) The medical surveillance program provisions and procedures;
</P>
<P>(2) Medical treatment options;
</P>
<P>(3) Medical, psychological, and career counseling;
</P>
<P>(4) Medical benefits;
</P>
<P>(5) Administrative procedures and workers rights under applicable Workers' Compensation laws and regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) Work practice procedures limiting beryllium-associated worker exposure to beryllium; and
</P>
<P>(7) The risk of continued beryllium exposure after sensitization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.38" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.38   Warning signs and labels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Warning signs.</I> The responsible employer must post warning signs at each access point to a regulated area with the following information: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>BERYLLIUM CAN CAUSE LUNG DAMAGE
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER HAZARD
</FP-1>
<FP-1>AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL ONLY</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Warning labels.</I> (1) The responsible employer must affix warning labels to all containers of beryllium, beryllium compounds, or beryllium-contaminated clothing, equipment, waste, scrap, or debris.
</P>
<P>(2) Warning labels must contain the following information: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>DANGER
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CONTAMINATED WITH BERYLLIUM
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DO NOT REMOVE DUST BY BLOWING OR SHAKING
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CANCER AND LUNG DISEASE HAZARD</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Warning signs and labels must be in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1200, Hazard Communication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.39" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.39   Recordkeeping and use of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must establish and maintain accurate records of all beryllium inventory information, hazard assessments, exposure measurements, exposure controls, and medical surveillance.
</P>
<P>(b) Heads of DOE Departmental Elements must:
</P>
<P>(1) Designate all record series as required under this rule as agency records and, therefore, subject to all applicable agency records management and access laws; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that these record series are retained for a minimum of seventy-five years.
</P>
<P>(c) The responsible employer must convey to DOE or its designee all record series required under this rule if the employer ceases to be involved in the CBDPP.
</P>
<P>(d) The responsible employer must link data on workplace conditions and health outcomes in order to establish a basis for understanding the beryllium health risk.
</P>
<P>(e) The responsible employer must ensure the confidentiality of all work-related records generated under this rule by ensuring that:
</P>
<P>(1) All records that are transmitted to other parties do not contain names, social security numbers or any other variables, or combination of variables, that could be used to identify particular individuals; and
</P>
<P>(2) Individual medical information generated by the CBDPP is:
</P>
<P>(i) Either included as part of the worker's site medical records and maintained by the SOMD, or is maintained by another physician designated by the responsible employer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintained separately from other records; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Used or disclosed by the responsible employer only in conformance with any applicable requirements imposed by the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Privacy Act of 1974, the Freedom of Information Act, and any other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(f) The responsible employer must maintain all records required by this part in current and accessible electronic systems, which include the ability readily to retrieve data in a format that maintains confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(g) The responsible employer must transmit all records generated as required by this rule, in a format that protects the confidentiality of individuals, to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security on request.
</P>
<P>(h) The responsible employer must semi-annually transmit to the Office of Domestic and International Health Studies, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security an electronic registry of beryllium-associated workers that protects confidentiality, and the registry must include, but is not limited to, a unique identifier, date of birth, gender, site, job history, medical screening test results, exposure measurements, and results of referrals for specialized medical evaluations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 68905, Dec. 8, 1999, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 850.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 850.40   Performance feedback.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The responsible employer must conduct periodic analyses and assessments of monitoring activities, hazards, medical surveillance, exposure reduction and minimization, and occurrence reporting data.
</P>
<P>(b) To ensure that information is available to maintain and improve all elements of the CBDPP continuously, the responsible employer must give results of periodic analyses and assessments to the line managers, planners, worker protection staff, workers, medical staff, and labor organizations representing beryllium-associated workers who request such information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.31.3.16.22.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 850—Chronic Beryllium Disease Prevention Program Informed Consent Form
</HEAD>
<P>I, ______________ have carefully read and understand the attached information about the Be-LPT and other medical tests. I have had the opportunity to ask any questions that I may have had concerning these tests.
</P>
<P>I understand that this program is voluntary and I am free to withdraw at any time from all or any part of the medical surveillance program. I understand that the tests are confidential, but not anonymous. I understand that if the results of any test suggest a health problem, the examining physician will discuss the matter with me, whether or not the result is related to my work with beryllium. I understand that my employer will be notified of my diagnosis only if I have a beryllium sensitization or chronic beryllium disease. My employer will not receive the results or diagnoses of any health conditions not related to beryllium exposure.
</P>
<P>I understand that, if the results of one or more of these tests indicate that I have a health problem that is related to beryllium, additional examinations will be recommended. If additional tests indicate I do have a beryllium sensitization or CBD, the Site Occupational Medical Director may recommend that I be removed from working with beryllium. If I agree to be removed, I understand that I may be transferred to another job for which I am qualified (or can be trained for in a short period) and where my beryllium exposures will be as low as possible, but in no case above the action level. I will maintain my total normal earnings, seniority, and other benefits for up to two years if I agree to be permanently removed.
</P>
<P>I understand that if I apply for another job or for insurance, I may be requested to release my medical records to a future employer or an insurance company.
</P>
<P>I understand that my employer will maintain all medical information relative to the tests performed on me in segregated medical files separate from my personnel files, treated as confidential medical records, and used or disclosed only as provided by the Americans with Disability Act, the Privacy Act of 1974, or as required by a court order or under other law.
</P>
<P>I understand that the results of my medical tests for beryllium will be included in the Beryllium Registry maintained by DOE, and that a unique identifier will be used to maintain the confidentiality of my medical information. Personal identifiers will not be included in any reports generated from the DOE Beryllium Registry. I understand that the results of my tests and examinations may be published in reports or presented at meetings, but that I will not be identified.
</P>
<P>I consent to having the following medical evaluations: 
</P>
<FP-1>/ / Physical examination concentrating on my lungs and breathing
</FP-1>
<FP-1>/ / Chest X-ray
</FP-1>
<FP-1>/ / Spirometry (a breathing test)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>/ / Blood test called the beryllium-induced lymphocyte proliferation test or Be-LPT
</FP-1>
<FP-1>/ / Other test(s). Specify:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>Signature of Participant:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date: ____________
</FP>
<P>I have explained and discussed any questions that the employee expressed concerning the Be-LPT, physical examination, and other medical testing as well as the implications of those tests. 
</P>
<FP>Name of Examining Physician:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature of Examining Physician:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Dated: ____________


</FP>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="851" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 851—WORKER SAFETY AND HEALTH PROGRAM 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201(i)(3), (p); 42 U.S.C. 2282c; 42 U.S.C. 5801 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.;</I> 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 851 appear at 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The worker safety and health requirements in this part govern the conduct of contractor activities at DOE sites.
</P>
<P>(b) This part establishes the:
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements for a worker safety and health program that reduces or prevents occupational injuries, illnesses, and accidental losses by providing DOE contractors and their workers with safe and healthful workplaces at DOE sites; and
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for investigating whether a violation of a requirement of this part has occurred, for determining the nature and extent of any such violation, and for imposing an appropriate remedy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.2   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part does not apply to work at a DOE site:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulated by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration; or
</P>
<P>(2) Operated under the authority of the Director, Naval Nuclear Propulsion, pursuant to Executive Order 12344, as set forth in Public Law 98-525, 42 U.S.C. 7158 note.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to radiological hazards or nuclear explosives operations to the extent regulated by 10 CFR Parts 20, 820, 830 or 835.
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to transportation to or from a DOE site. 
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not require compliance with any Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements for beryllium or beryllium compounds except as provided in 10 CFR part 850, “Chronic Beryllium Disease Prevention Program.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 80 FR 69566, Nov. 10, 2015; 88 FR 86815, Dec. 15, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>AEA</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, 42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Affected worker</I> means a worker who would be affected by the granting or denial of a variance, or any authorized representative of the worker, such as a collective bargaining agent.
</P>
<P><I>Closure facility</I> means a facility that is non-operational and is, or is expected to be permanently closed and/or demolished, or title to which is expected to be transferred to another entity for reuse.
</P>
<P><I>Closure facility hazard</I> means a facility-related condition within a closure facility involving deviations from the technical requirements of § 851.23 of this part that would require costly and extensive structural/engineering modifications to be in compliance.
</P>
<P><I>Cognizant Secretarial Officer</I> means, with respect to a particular situation, the Assistant Secretary, Deputy Administrator, Program Office Director, or equivalent DOE official who has primary line management responsibility for a contractor, or any other official to whom the CSO delegates in writing a particular function under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Compliance order</I> means an order issued by the Secretary to a contractor that mandates a remedy, work stoppage, or other action to address a situation that violates, potentially violates, or otherwise is inconsistent with a requirement of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Consent order</I> means any written document, signed by the Enforcement Director and a contractor, containing stipulations or conclusions of fact or law and a remedy acceptable to both DOE and the contractor.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means combination of erection, installation, assembly, demolition, or fabrication activities involved to create a new facility or to alter, add to, rehabilitate, dismantle, or remove an existing facility. It also includes the alteration and repair (including dredging, excavating, and painting) of buildings, structures, or other real property, as well as any construction, demolition, and excavation activities conducted as part of environmental restoration or remediation efforts.
</P>
<P><I>Construction contractor</I> means the lowest tiered contractor with primary responsibility for the execution of all construction work described within a construction procurement or authorization document (<I>e.g.</I>, construction contract, work order).
</P>
<P><I>Construction manager</I> means the individual or firm responsible to DOE for the supervision and administration of a construction project to ensure the construction contractor's compliance with construction project requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Construction project</I> means the full scope of activities required on a construction worksite to fulfill the requirements of the construction procurement or authorization document.
</P>
<P><I>Construction worksite</I> is the area within the limits necessary to perform the work described in the construction procurement or authorization document. It includes the facility being constructed or renovated along with all necessary staging and storage areas as well as adjacent areas subject to project hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any entity, including affiliated entities, such as a parent corporation, under contract with DOE, or a subcontractor at any tier, that has responsibilities for performing work at a DOE site in furtherance of a DOE mission.
</P>
<P><I>Covered workplace</I> means a place at a DOE site where a contractor is responsible for performing work in furtherance of a DOE mission.


</P>
<P><I>Director of the Office of Enforcement (Enforcement Director)</I> means the DOE official designated by the Secretary, or that person's designee, to carry out the enforcement authorities reflected in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Director of the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security (EHSS Director</I>) means the DOE official to whom the Secretary assigns the authority to develop policy and technical assistance; safety analysis; and organizational safety and security programs.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy, including the National Nuclear Security Administration.
</P>
<P><I>DOE Enforcement Officer</I> means a DOE official to whom the Enforcement Director assigns the authority to investigate the nature and extent of compliance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P><I>DOE site</I> means a DOE-owned or -leased area or location or other area or location controlled by DOE where activities and operations are performed at one or more facilities or places by a contractor in furtherance of a DOE mission.
</P>
<P><I>Final notice of violation</I> means a document that determines a contractor has violated or is continuing to violate a requirement of this part and includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement specifying the requirement of this part to which the violation relates;
</P>
<P>(2) A concise statement of the basis for the determination;
</P>
<P>(3) Any remedy, including the amount of any civil penalty; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement explaining the reasoning behind any remedy.
</P>
<P><I>Final Order</I> means an order of DOE that represents final agency action and, if appropriate, imposes a remedy with which the recipient of the order must comply.
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Head of DOE Field Element</I> means an individual who is the manager or head of the DOE operations office or field office.
</P>
<P><I>Interpretative ruling</I> means a statement by the General Counsel concerning the meaning or effect of a requirement of this part which relates to a specific factual situation but may also be a ruling of general applicability if the General Counsel determines such action to be appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>National defense variance</I> means relief from a safety and health standard, or portion thereof, to avoid serious impairment of a national defense mission.
</P>
<P><I>NNSA</I> means the National Nuclear Security Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear explosive</I> means an assembly containing fissionable and/or fusionable materials and main charge high-explosive parts or propellants capable of producing a nuclear detonation (<I>e.g.</I>, a nuclear weapon or test device).
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear explosive operation</I> means any activity involving a nuclear explosive, including activities in which main charge high-explosive parts and pit are collocated.
</P>
<P><I>Occupational medicine provider</I> means the designated site occupational medicine director (SOMD) or the individual providing medical services.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent variance</I> means relief from a safety and health standard, or portion thereof, to contractors who can prove that their methods, conditions, practices, operations, or processes provide workplaces that are as safe and healthful as those that follow the workplace safety and health standard required by this part.
</P>
<P><I>Preliminary notice of violation</I> means a document that sets forth the preliminary conclusions that a contractor has violated or is continuing to violate a requirement of this part and includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement specifying the requirement of this part to which the violation relates;
</P>
<P>(2) A concise statement of the basis for alleging the violation;
</P>
<P>(3) Any remedy, including the amount of any proposed civil penalty; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement explaining the reasoning behind any proposed remedy.
</P>
<P><I>Pressure systems</I> means all pressure vessels, and pressure sources including cryogenics, pneumatic, hydraulic, and vacuum. Vacuum systems should be considered pressure systems due to their potential for catastrophic failure due to backfill pressurization. Associated hardware (<I>e.g.</I>, gauges and regulators), fittings, piping, pumps, and pressure relief devices are also integral parts of the pressure system.
</P>
<P><I>Remedy</I> means any action (including, but not limited to, the assessment of civil penalties, the reduction of fees or other payments under a contract, the requirement of specific actions, or the modification, suspension or rescission of a contract) necessary or appropriate to rectify, prevent, or penalize a violation of a requirement of this part, including a compliance order issued by the Secretary pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Safety and health standard</I> means a standard that addresses a workplace hazard by establishing limits, requiring conditions, or prescribing the adoption or use of one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes, reasonably necessary or appropriate to provide safe and healthful workplaces.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary variance</I> means a short-term relief for a new safety and health standard when the contractor cannot comply with the requirements by the prescribed date because the necessary construction or alteration of the facility cannot be completed in time or when technical personnel, materials, or equipment are temporarily unavailable.
</P>
<P><I>Unauthorized discharge</I> means the discharge of a firearm under circumstances other than: (1) during firearms training with the firearm properly pointed down range (or toward a target), or (2) the intentional firing at hostile parties when deadly force is authorized.
</P>
<P><I>Under Secretary</I> means, with respect to a particular situation, the DOE official who serves as the Under Secretary for Science and Innovation, or Under Secretary for Infrastructure, or the Under Secretary for Nuclear Security/Administrator for National Nuclear Security Administration who has primary line management responsibility for a contractor.
</P>
<P><I>Variance</I> means an exception to compliance with some part of a safety and health standard granted by the Under Secretary to a contractor.
</P>
<P><I>Worker</I> means an employee of a DOE contractor person who performs work in furtherance of a DOE mission at a covered workplace.
</P>
<P><I>Workplace hazard</I> means a physical, chemical, biological, or safety hazard with any potential to cause illness, injury, or death to a person.
</P>
<P>(b) Terms undefined in this part that are defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 must have the same meaning as under that Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 80 FR 5008, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023; 88 FR 86815, Dec. 15, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.4   Compliance order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may issue to any contractor a Compliance Order that:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifies a situation that violates, potentially violates, or otherwise is inconsistent with a requirement of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Mandates a remedy, work stoppage, or other action; and,
</P>
<P>(3) States the reasons for the remedy, work stoppage, or other action.
</P>
<P>(b) A Compliance Order is a final order that is effective immediately unless the Order specifies a different effective date.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 calendar days of the issuance of a Compliance Order, the recipient of the Order may request the Secretary to rescind or modify the Order. A request does not stay the effectiveness of a Compliance Order unless the Secretary issues an order to that effect.
</P>
<P>(d) A copy of the Compliance Order must be prominently posted, once issued, at or near the location where the violation, potential violation, or inconsistency occurred until it is corrected. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.5   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A contractor that is indemnified under section 170d. of the AEA (or any subcontractor or supplier thereto) and that violates (or whose employee violates) any requirement of this part shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to $121,876 for each such violation. If any violation under this subsection is a continuing violation, each day of the violation shall constitute a separate violation for the purpose of computing the civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(b) A contractor that violates any requirement of this part may be subject to a reduction in fees or other payments under a contract with DOE, pursuant to the contract's <I>Conditional Payment of Fee</I> clause, or other contract clause providing for such reductions.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE may not penalize a contractor under both paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section for the same violation of a requirement of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) For contractors listed in subsection d. of section 234A of the AEA, 42 U.S.C. 2282a(d), the total amount of civil penalties under paragraph (a) and contract penalties under paragraph (b) of this section may not exceed the total amount of fees paid by DOE to the contractor in that fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE shall not penalize a contractor under both sections 234A and 234C of the AEA for the same violation.
</P>
<P>(f) DOE enforcement actions through civil penalties under paragraph (a) of this section, start on February 9, 2007. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 66033, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 20, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41795, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96352, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1292, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66084, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 831, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2194, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1029, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105407, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.6   Petitions for generally applicable rulemaking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right to file.</I> Any person may file a petition for generally applicable rulemaking to amend or interpret provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How to file.</I> Any person who wants to file a petition for generally applicable rulemaking pursuant to this section must file by mail or messenger in an envelope addressed to the Office of General Counsel, GC-1, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of rulemaking petitions.</I> A petition under this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be labeled “Petition for Rulemaking Under 10 CFR 851;”
</P>
<P>(2) Describe with particularity the provision of this part to be amended and the text of regulatory language to be added; and
</P>
<P>(3) Explain why, if relevant, DOE should not choose to make policy by precedent through adjudication of petitions for assessment of civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determinations upon rulemaking petitions.</I> After considering the petition and other information DOE deems relevant, DOE may grant the petition and issue an appropriate rulemaking notice, or deny the petition because the rule being sought:
</P>
<P>(1) Would be inconsistent with statutory law;
</P>
<P>(2) Would establish a generally applicable policy in a subject matter area that should be left to case-by-case determinations; or
</P>
<P>(3) For other good cause. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.7   Requests for a binding interpretive ruling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right to file.</I> Any person subject to this part shall have the right to file a request for an interpretive ruling that is binding on DOE with regard to a question as to how the regulations in this part would apply to particular facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How to file.</I> Any person who wants to file a request under this section must file by mail or messenger in an envelope addressed to the Office of General Counsel, GC-1, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of request for interpretive ruling.</I> A request under this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) Be labeled “Request for Interpretive Ruling Under 10 CFR 851;”
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the name, address, telephone number, e-mail address, and any designated representative of the person filing the request;
</P>
<P>(4) State the facts and circumstances relevant to the request;
</P>
<P>(5) Be accompanied by copies of relevant supporting documents if any;
</P>
<P>(6) Specifically identify the pertinent regulations and the related question on which an interpretive ruling is sought; and
</P>
<P>(7) Include explanatory discussion in support of the interpretive ruling being sought.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public comment.</I> DOE may give public notice of any request for an interpretive ruling and provide an opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opportunity to respond to public comment.</I> DOE may provide an opportunity to any person who requests an interpretive ruling to respond to public comments relating to the request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other sources of information.</I> DOE may:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct an investigation of any statement in a request;
</P>
<P>(2) Consider any other source of information in evaluating a request for an interpretive ruling; and
</P>
<P>(3) Rely on previously issued interpretive rulings with addressing the same or a related issue.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Informal conference.</I> DOE may convene an informal conference with the person requesting the interpretive ruling.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Effect of interpretive ruling.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, an interpretive ruling under this section is binding on DOE only with respect to the person who requested the ruling.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reliance on interpretive ruling.</I> If DOE issues an interpretive ruling under this section, then DOE may not subject the person who requested the ruling to an enforcement action for civil penalties for actions reasonably taken in reliance on the ruling, but a person may not act in reliance on an interpretive ruling that is administratively rescinded or modified after opportunity to comment, judicially invalidated, or overruled by statute or regulation.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Denial of requests for an interpretive ruling.</I> DOE may deny a request for an interpretive ruling if DOE determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is insufficient information upon which to base an interpretive ruling;
</P>
<P>(2) The interpretive question posed should be treated in a general notice of proposed rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(3) There is an adequate procedure elsewhere in this part for addressing the interpretive question such as a petition for variance; or
</P>
<P>(4) For other good cause.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Public availability of interpretive rulings.</I> For information of interested members of the public, DOE may file a copy of interpretive rulings on a DOE internet web site. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006; 71 FR 36661, June 28, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 86815, Dec. 15, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.1.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.8   Informal requests for information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may informally request information under this section as to how to comply with the requirements of this part, instead of applying for a binding interpretive ruling under § 851.7. DOE responses to informal requests for information under this section are not binding on DOE and do not preclude enforcement actions under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Inquiries regarding the technical requirements of the standards required by this part must be directed to the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(c) Information regarding the general statement of enforcement policy in the appendix to this part must be directed to the Office of Enterprise Assessments, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5009, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Program Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.10   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With respect to a covered workplace for which a contractor is responsible, the contractor must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide a place of employment that is free from recognized hazards that are causing or have the potential to cause death or serious physical harm to workers; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that work is performed in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(i) All applicable requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The worker safety and health program for that workplace.
</P>
<P>(b) The written worker safety and health program must describe how the contractor complies with the:
</P>
<P>(1) Requirements set forth in subpart C of this part that are applicable to the hazards associated with the contractor's scope of work; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any compliance order issued by the Secretary pursuant to § 851.4. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 80 FR 5009, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.11   Development and approval of worker safety and health program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation and submission of worker safety and health program.</I> By February 26, 2007, contractors must submit to the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element for approval a written worker safety and health program that provides the methods for implementing the requirements of subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) If a contractor is responsible for more than one covered workplace at a DOE site, the contractor must establish and maintain a single worker safety and health program for the covered workplaces for which the contractor is responsible.
</P>
<P>(2) If more than one contractor is responsible for covered workplaces, each contractor must:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish and maintain a worker safety and health program for the workplaces for which the contractor is responsible; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Coordinate with the other contractors responsible for work at the covered workplaces to ensure that there are clear roles, responsibilities and procedures to ensure the safety and health of workers at multi-contractor workplaces.
</P>
<P>(3) The worker safety and health program must describe how the contractor will:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the requirements set forth in subpart C of this part that are applicable to the covered workplace, including the methods for implementing those requirements; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Integrate the requirements set forth in subpart C of this part that are applicable to a covered workplace with other related site-specific worker protection activities and with the integrated safety management system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>DOE evaluation and approval.</I> The Head of DOE Field Element must complete a review and provide written approval of the contractor's worker safety and health program, within 90 days of receiving the document. The worker safety and health program and any updates are deemed approved 90 days after submission if they are not specifically approved or rejected by DOE earlier.
</P>
<P>(1) Beginning May 25, 2007, no work may be performed at a covered workplace unless an approved worker safety and health program is in place for the workplace.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractors must send a copy of the approved program to the EHSS Director.
</P>
<P>(3) Contractors must furnish a copy of the approved worker safety and health program, upon written request, to the affected workers or their designated representatives.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Updates.</I> (1) Contractors must submit an update of the worker safety and health program to the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element, for review and approval whenever a significant change or addition to the program is made, or a change in contractors occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractors must submit annually to DOE either an updated worker safety and health program for approval or a letter stating that no changes are necessary in the currently approved worker safety and health program.
</P>
<P>(3) Contactors must incorporate in the worker safety and health program any changes, conditions, or workplace safety and health standards directed by DOE consistent with the requirements of this part and DEAR 970.5204-2, Laws, Regulations and DOE Directives (December, 2000) and associated contract clauses.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Labor Organizations.</I> If a contractor employs or supervises workers who are represented for collective bargaining by a labor organization, the contractor must:
</P>
<P>(1) Give the labor organization timely notice of the development and implementation of the worker safety and health program and any updates thereto; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon timely request, bargain concerning implementation of this part, consistent with the Federal labor laws. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5009, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.12   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors must implement the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part precludes a contractor from taking any additional protective action that is determined to be necessary to protect the safety and health of workers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.13   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors must achieve compliance with all the requirements of Subpart C of this part, and their approved worker safety and health program no later than May 25, 2007. Contractors may be required to comply contractually with the requirements of this rule before February 9, 2007.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event a contractor has established a written safety and health program, an Integrated Safety Management System (ISMS) description pursuant to the DEAR Clause, or an approved Work Smart Standards (WSS) process before the date of issuance of the final rule, the Contractor may use that program, description, or process as the worker safety and health program required by this part if the appropriate Head of the DOE Field Element approves such use on the basis of written documentation provided by the contractor that identifies the specific portions of the program, description, or process, including any additional requirements or implementation methods to be added to the existing program, description, or process, that satisfy the requirements of this part and that provide a workplace as safe and healthful as would be provided by the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit or otherwise affect contractual obligations of a contractor to comply with contractual requirements that are not inconsistent with the requirements of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Specific Program Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.20   Management responsibilities and worker rights and responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Management responsibilities.</I> Contractors are responsible for the safety and health of their workforce and must ensure that contractor management at a covered workplace:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish written policy, goals, and objectives for the worker safety and health program;
</P>
<P>(2) Use qualified worker safety and health staff (<I>e.g.</I>, a certified industrial hygienist, or safety professional) to direct and manage the program;
</P>
<P>(3) Assign worker safety and health program responsibilities, evaluate personnel performance, and hold personnel accountable for worker safety and health performance;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide mechanisms to involve workers and their elected representatives in the development of the worker safety and health program goals, objectives, and performance measures and in the identification and control of hazards in the workplace;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide workers with access to information relevant to the worker safety and health program;
</P>
<P>(6) Establish procedures for workers to report without reprisal job-related fatalities, injuries, illnesses, incidents, and hazards and make recommendations about appropriate ways to control those hazards;
</P>
<P>(7) Provide for prompt response to such reports and recommendations;
</P>
<P>(8) Provide for regular communication with workers about workplace safety and health matters;
</P>
<P>(9) Establish procedures to permit workers to stop work or decline to perform an assigned task because of a reasonable belief that the task poses an imminent risk of death, serious physical harm, or other serious hazard to workers, in circumstances where the workers believe there is insufficient time to utilize normal hazard reporting and abatement procedures; and
</P>
<P>(10) Inform workers of their rights and responsibility by appropriate means, including posting the DOE-designated Worker Protection Poster in the workplace where it is accessible to all workers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Worker rights and responsibilities.</I> Workers must comply with the requirements of this part, including the worker safety and health program, which are applicable to their own actions and conduct. Workers at a covered workplace have the right, without reprisal, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in activities described in this section on official time;
</P>
<P>(2) Have access to:
</P>
<P>(i) DOE safety and health publications;
</P>
<P>(ii) The worker safety and health program for the covered workplace;
</P>
<P>(iii) The standards, controls, and procedures applicable to the covered workplace;
</P>
<P>(iv) The safety and health poster that informs the worker of relevant rights and responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(v) Limited information on any recordkeeping log (OSHA Form 300). Access is subject to Freedom of Information Act requirements and restrictions; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The DOE Form 5484.3 (the DOE equivalent to OSHA Form 301) that contains the employee's name as the injured or ill worker;
</P>
<P>(3) Be notified when monitoring results indicate the worker was overexposed to hazardous materials;
</P>
<P>(4) Observe monitoring or measuring of hazardous agents and have the results of their own exposure monitoring;
</P>
<P>(5) Have a representative authorized by employees accompany the Enforcement Director or his authorized personnel during the physical inspection of the workplace for the purpose of aiding the inspection. When no authorized employee representative is available, the Enforcement Director or his authorized representative must consult, as appropriate, with employees on matters of worker safety and health;
</P>
<P>(6) Request and receive results of inspections and accident investigations;
</P>
<P>(7) Express concerns related to worker safety and health;
</P>
<P>(8) Decline to perform an assigned task because of a reasonable belief that, under the circumstances, the task poses an imminent risk of death or serious physical harm to the worker coupled with a reasonable belief that there is insufficient time to seek effective redress through normal hazard reporting and abatement procedures; and
</P>
<P>(9) Stop work when the worker discovers employee exposures to imminently dangerous conditions or other serious hazards; provided that any stop work authority must be exercised in a justifiable and responsible manner in accordance with procedures established in the approved worker safety and health program. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.21   Hazard identification and assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors must establish procedures to identify existing and potential workplace hazards and assess the risk of associated workers injury and illness. Procedures must include methods to:
</P>
<P>(1) Assess worker exposure to chemical, physical, biological, or safety workplace hazards through appropriate workplace monitoring;
</P>
<P>(2) Document assessment for chemical, physical, biological, and safety workplace hazards using recognized exposure assessment and testing methodologies and using of accredited and certified laboratories;
</P>
<P>(3) Record observations, testing and monitoring results;
</P>
<P>(4) Analyze designs of new facilities and modifications to existing facilities and equipment for potential workplace hazards;
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluate operations, procedures, and facilities to identify workplace hazards;
</P>
<P>(6) Perform routine job activity-level hazard analyses;
</P>
<P>(7) Review site safety and health experience information; and
</P>
<P>(8) Consider interaction between workplace hazards and other hazards such as radiological hazards.
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors must submit to the Head of DOE Field Element a list of closure facility hazards and the established controls within 90 days after identifying such hazards. The Head of DOE Field Element, with concurrence by the Cognizant Secretarial Officer, has 90 days to accept the closure facility hazard controls or direct additional actions to either:
</P>
<P>(1) Achieve technical compliance; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provide additional controls to protect the workers.
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors must perform the activities identified in paragraph (a) of this section, initially to obtain baseline information and as often thereafter as necessary to ensure compliance with the requirements in this Subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.22   Hazard prevention and abatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors must establish and implement a hazard prevention and abatement process to ensure that all identified and potential hazards are prevented or abated in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(1) For hazards identified either in the facility design or during the development of procedures, controls must be incorporated in the appropriate facility design or procedure.
</P>
<P>(2) For existing hazards identified in the workplace, contractors must:
</P>
<P>(i) Prioritize and implement abatement actions according to the risk to workers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Implement interim protective measures pending final abatement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Protect workers from dangerous safety and health conditions;
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors must select hazard controls based on the following hierarchy:
</P>
<P>(1) Elimination or substitution of the hazards where feasible and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) Engineering controls where feasible and appropriate;
</P>
<P>(3) Work practices and administrative controls that limit worker exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) Personal protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors must address hazards when selecting or purchasing equipment, products, and services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.23   Safety and health standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors must comply with the following safety and health standards that are applicable to the hazards at their covered workplace:
</P>
<P>(1) Title 10 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 850, “Chronic Beryllium Disease Prevention Program.”
</P>
<P>(2) Title 29 CFR, part 1904, “Recording and Reporting Occupational Injuries and Illnesses”, §§ 1904.4 through 1904.11, 1904.29 through 1904.33, and 1904.46.
</P>
<P>(3) Title 29 CFR, part 1910, “Occupational Safety and Health Standards,” excluding 29 CFR 1910.1096, “Ionizing Radiation”; 29 CFR 1910.1000, “Air Contaminants,” Tables Z-1 and Z-2, as they relate to beryllium and beryllium compounds; and 29 CFR 1910.1024, “Beryllium.”
</P>
<P>(4) Title 29 CFR, part 1915, “Occupational Safety and Health Standards for Shipyard Employment,” except for 29 CFR 1915.1024, “Beryllium.”
</P>
<P>(5) Title 29 CFR, Part 1917, “Marine Terminals.”
</P>
<P>(6) Title 29 CFR, Part 1918, “Safety and Health Regulations for Longshoring.”
</P>
<P>(7) Title 29 CFR, part 1926, “Safety and Health Regulations for Construction,” except for 29 CFR 1926.1124, “Beryllium.”
</P>
<P>(8) Title 29 CFR, Part 1928, “Occupational Safety and Health Standards for Agriculture.”
</P>
<P>(9) American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH®), <I>Threshold Limit Values for Chemical Substances and Physical Agents and Biological Exposure Indices,</I> (2016) (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27), excluding the threshold limit values (TLVs®) for beryllium and beryllium compounds, when the ACGIH® TLVs® are lower (more protective) than permissible exposure limits in 29 CFR part 1910 for general industry, 29 CFR part 1915 for shipyards, and/or 29 CFR part 1926 for construction. When the ACGIH® TLVs® are used as exposure limits, contractors must comply with the other provisions of any applicable expanded health standard found in 29 CFR parts 1910, 1915, and 1926.
</P>
<P>(10) American National Standards Institute (ANSI/ASSE) Z88.2, “American National Standard Practices for Respiratory Protection,” (2015) (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27).
</P>
<P>(11) ANSI Z136.1, “Safe Use of Lasers,” (2014) (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27).
</P>
<P>(12) ANSI Z49.1, “Safety in Welding, Cutting and Allied Processes,” sections 4.3 and E4.3 (2012) (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27).
</P>
<P>(13) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70, “National Electrical Code,” (2017) (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27).
</P>
<P>(14) NFPA 70E, “Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace,” (2015) (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27).
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part relieves contractors from the responsibility to comply with any additional safety and health requirements that are necessary to protect the safety and health of workers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 80 FR 69566, Nov. 10, 2015; 82 FR 59954, Dec. 18, 2017; 88 FR 86815, Dec. 15, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.24   Functional areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors must have a structured approach to their worker safety and health program which at a minimum, include provisions for the following applicable functional areas in their worker safety and health program: construction safety; fire protection; firearms safety; explosives safety; pressure safety; electrical safety; industrial hygiene; occupational medicine; biological safety; and motor vehicle safety.
</P>
<P>(b) In implementing the structured approach required by paragraph (a) of this section, contractors must comply with the applicable standards and provisions in appendix A of this part, entitled “Worker Safety and Health Functional Areas.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.25   Training and information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Contractors must develop and implement a worker safety and health training and information program to ensure that all workers exposed or potentially exposed to hazards are provided with the training and information on that hazard in order to perform their duties in a safe and healthful manner.
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) Training and information for new workers, before or at the time of initial assignment to a job involving exposure to a hazard;
</P>
<P>(2) Periodic training as often as necessary to ensure that workers are adequately trained and informed; and
</P>
<P>(3) Additional training when safety and health information or a change in workplace conditions indicates that a new or increased hazard exists.
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors must provide training and information to workers who have worker safety and health program responsibilities that is necessary for them to carry out those responsibilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.26" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.26   Recordkeeping and reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Contractors must:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish and maintain complete and accurate records of all hazard inventory information, hazard assessments, exposure measurements, and exposure controls.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that the work-related injuries and illnesses of its workers and subcontractor workers are recorded and reported accurately and consistent with DOE reporting directives.
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with the applicable occupational injury and illness recordkeeping and reporting workplace safety and health standards in § 851.23 at their site, unless otherwise directed by DOE.
</P>
<P>(4) Not conceal nor destroy any information concerning non-compliance or potential noncompliance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting and investigation.</I> Contractors must:
</P>
<P>(1) Report and investigate accidents, injuries and illness; and
</P>
<P>(2) Analyze related data for trends and lessons learned.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 82 FR 59954, Dec. 18, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.27" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.3.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.27   Materials incorporated by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain material is incorporated by reference into this subpart with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. To enforce any edition other than that specified in this section, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) must publish a document in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and the material must be available to the public. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at DOE and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact DOE: the U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, Office of Worker Safety and Health Policy, Mailstop EHSS-11, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585; (301) 903-1165. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit <I>www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</I> or email: <I>fr.inspection@nara.gov.</I> The material may be obtained from the sources in the following paragraphs of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ACGIH®.</I> American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienist, 1330 Kemper Meadow Drive, Cincinnati, OH 45240. Telephone number: 513-742-2020, or go to: <I>http://www.acgih.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ACGIH<I>®, Threshold Limit Values for Chemical Substances and Physical Agents and Biological Exposure Indices,</I> 2016; IBR approved for § 851.23.
</P>
<P>(2) Reserved.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ANSI.</I> American National Standards Institute, 1899 L Street NW, 11th Floor, Washington, DC 20036. Telephone number: 202-293-8020, or go to: <I>http://www.ansi.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ANSI Z49.1-2012, <I>American National Standard Safety in Welding, Cutting and Allied Processes,</I> sections 4.3 and E4.3, ANSI approved March 9, 2012, IBR approved for § 851.23.
</P>
<P>(2) ANSI/ASSE Z88.2-2015, <I>American National Standard Practices for Respiratory Protection,</I> ANSI approved March 4, 2015, IBR approved for § 851.23.
</P>
<P>(3) ANSI Z136.1-2014, <I>American National Standard for Safe Use of Lasers,</I> ANSI approved December 10, 2013, IBR approved for § 851.23.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASME.</I> American Society of Mechanical Engineers, P.O. Box 2300, Fairfield, NJ 07007. Telephone: 800-843-2763, or got to: <I>http://www.asme.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) ASME Boilers and Pressure Vessel Codes (BPVC) as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) BPVC.I-2015, <I>Section I—Rules for Construction of Power Boilers,</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(ii) BPVC.II.A-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part A—Ferrous Material Specifications (Beginning to SA-450),</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(iii) BPVC.II.A-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part A—Ferrous Material Specifications (SA-451 to End),</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(iv) BPVC.II.B-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part B—Nonferrous Material Specifications,</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(v) BPVC.II.C-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part C—Specification for Welding Rods; Electrodes, and Filler Metals;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(vi) BPVC.II.D.C-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part D—Properties (Customary);</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety
</P>
<P>(vii) BPVC.II.D.M-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part D—Properties (Metric);</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(viii) BPVC.III.A-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Appendices;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(ix) BPVC.III.1.NB-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NB, Class 1 Components;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(x) BPVC.III.1.NC-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NC, Class 2 Components;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xi) BPVC.III.1.ND-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection ND, Class 3 Components;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xii) BPVC.III.1.NE-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NE, Class MC Components;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xiii) BPVC.III.1.NF-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NF, Supports;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xiv) BPVC.III.1.NG-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NG, Core Support Structures;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xv) BPVC.III.1.NH-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NH, Class 1 Components in Elevated Temperature Service;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xvi) BPVC.III.NCA-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility; Components, Subsection NCA, General Requirements for Division 1 and Division 2;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xvii) BPVC.III.2-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division 2, Code for Concrete Containments;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xviii) BPVC.III.3-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division 3, Containments for Transportation and Storage of Spent Nuclear Fuel and High Level Radioactive Material and Waste;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xix)) BPVC.III.5-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division 5, High Temperature Reactors;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xx) BPVC.IV-2015, <I>Section IV, Rules for Construction of Heating Boilers;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxi) BPVC.V-2015, <I>Section V, Nondestructive Examination;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxii) BPVC.VI-2015, <I>Section VI, Recommended Rules for the Care and Operation of Heating Boilers;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxiii) BPVC.VII-2015, <I>Section VII, Recommended Guidelines for the Care of Power Boilers;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxiv) BPVC.VIII.1-2015, <I>Section VIII—Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, Division 1;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxv) BPVC.VIII.2-2015, <I>Section VIII—Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, Division 2, Alternative Rules;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxvi) BPVC.VIII.3-2015, <I>Section VIII—Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, Division 3, Alternative Rules for Construction of High Pressure Vessels;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxvii) BPVC.IX-2015, <I>Section IX—Welding, Brazing and Fusing Qualifications, Qualification Standard for Welding, Brazing, and Fusing Procedures; Welders; Brazers; and Welding, Brazing, and Fusing Operators;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxviii) BPVC.X-2015, <I>Section X, Fiber—Reinforced Plastic Pressure Vessels;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxix) BPVC.XI-2015, <I>Section XI, Rules for Inservice Inspection of Nuclear Power Plant Components;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxx) BPVC.XII-2015, <I>Section XII, Rules for Construction and Continued Service of Transport Tanks;</I> issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(xxxi) BPVC.CC.BPV-2015, <I>Code Cases, Boilers and Pressure Vessels;</I> 2015 edition, issued July 1, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety; and
</P>
<P>(xxxii) BPVC.CC.NC-2015, <I>Code Cases, Nuclear Components;</I> issued July 1, 2015, IBR approved for appendix A, section 4, Pressure Safety.
</P>
<P>(2) ASME B31 codes for pressure piping as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) B31.1-2016, <I>Power Piping, ASME Code for Pressure Piping, B31,</I> issued June 30, 2016; IBR approved for appendix A, Section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(ii) B31.3-2014, <I>Process Piping, ASME Code for Pressure Piping, B31,</I> issued February 27, 2015; IBR approved for appendix A, Section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(iii) B31.4-2016, <I>Pipeline Transportation Systems for Liquids and Slurries, ASME Code for Pressure Piping, B31,</I> issued March 31, 2016; IBR approved for appendix A, Section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(iv) B31.5-2016, <I>Refrigeration Piping and Heat Transfer Components, ASME Code for Pressure Piping, B31,</I> issued June 29, 2016; IBR approved for appendix A, Section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(v) B31.8-2016, <I>Gas Transmission and Distribution Piping Systems,</I> ASME Code for Pressure Piping, B31, issued September 30, 2014; IBR approved for appendix A, Section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(vi) B31.8S-2014, <I>Managing System Integrity of Gas Pipelines, ASME Code for Pressure Piping, B31, Supplement to ASME B31.8,</I> issued September 30, 2014; IBR approved for appendix A, Section 4, Pressure Safety;
</P>
<P>(vii) B31.9-2014, <I>Building Services Piping, ASME Code for Pressure Piping, B31,</I> issued April 28, 2014; IBR approved for appendix A, Section 4, Pressure Safety; and
</P>
<P>(viii) B31G-2012, <I>Manual for Determining the Remaining Strength of Corroded Pipelines, Supplement to ASME B31 Code for Pressure Piping,</I> issued October 24, 2012; IBR approved for appendix A, Section 4, Pressure Safety.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NFPA.</I> The National Fire Protection Association, One Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169. Telephone: 617-984-7423, or go to: <I>http://www.nfpa.org.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) NFPA 70, <I>National Electric Code,</I> (2017), issued August 4, 2016; IBR approved for § 851.23; and
</P>
<P>(2) NFPA 70E, <I>Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace,</I> (2015 edition), issued July 14, 2014; IBR approved for § 851.23.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 59954, Dec. 18, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 86815, Dec. 15, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Variances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.4.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.30   Consideration of variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Variances shall be granted by the Under Secretary after considering the recommendation of the EHSS Director. The authority to grant a variance cannot be delegated.
</P>
<P>(b) The application must satisfy the requirements for applications specified in § 851.31. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5009, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.4.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.31   Variance process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> Contractors desiring a variance from a safety and health standard, or portion thereof, may submit a written application containing the information in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section to the appropriate CSO.
</P>
<P>(1) The CSO may forward the application to the EHSS Director.
</P>
<P>(2) If the CSO does not forward the application to the EHSS Director, the CSO must return the application to the contractor with a written statement explaining why the application was not forwarded.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of an application from a CSO, the EHSS Director must review the application for a variance and make a written recommendation to:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Approve the application with conditions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Deny the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Defective applications.</I> If an application submitted pursuant to § 851.31(a) is determined by the EHSS Director to be incomplete, the EHSS Director may:
</P>
<P>(1) Return the application to the contractor with a written explanation of what information is needed to permit consideration of the application; or
</P>
<P>(2) Request the contractor to provide necessary information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content.</I> All variance applications submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the contractor;
</P>
<P>(2) The address of the DOE site or sites involved;
</P>
<P>(3) A specification of the standard, or portion thereof, from which the contractor seeks a variance;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the steps that the contractor has taken to inform the affected workers of the application, which must include giving a copy thereof to their authorized representative, posting a statement, giving a summary of the application and specifying where a copy may be examined at the place or places where notices to workers are normally posted; and
</P>
<P>(5) A description of how affected workers have been informed of their right to petition the EHSS Director or designee for a conference; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any requests for a conference, as provided in § 851.34.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Types of variances.</I> Contractors may apply for the following types of variances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Temporary variance.</I> Applications for a temporary variance pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted at least 30 days before the effective date of a new safety and health standard and, in addition to the content required by paragraph (c) of this section, must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement by the contractor explaining the contractor is unable to comply with the standard or portion thereof by its effective date and a detailed statement of the factual basis and representations of qualified persons that support the contractor's statement;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the steps the contractor has taken and plans to take, with specific dates if appropriate, to protect workers against the hazard covered by the standard;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of when the contractor expects to be able to comply with the standard and of what steps the contractor has taken and plans to take, with specific dates if appropriate, to come into compliance with the standard;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of the facts the contractor would show to establish that:
</P>
<P>(A) The contractor is unable to comply with the standard by its effective date because of unavailability of professional or technical personnel or materials and equipment needed to come into compliance with the standard or because necessary construction or alteration of facilities cannot be completed by the effective date;
</P>
<P>(B) The contractor is taking all available steps to safeguard the workers against the hazards covered by the standard; and
</P>
<P>(C) The contractor has an effective program for coming into compliance with the standard as quickly as practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permanent variance.</I> An application submitted for a permanent variance pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must, in addition to the content required in paragraph (c) of this section, include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the conditions, practices, means, methods, operations, or processes used or proposed to be used by the contractor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement showing how the conditions, practices, means, methods, operations, or processes used or proposed to be used would provide workers a place of employment which is as safe and healthful as would result from compliance with the standard from which a variance is sought.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>National defense variance.</I> (i) An application submitted for a national defense variance pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must, in addition to the content required in paragraph (c) of this section, include:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement by the contractor showing that the variance sought is necessary to avoid serious impairment of national defense; and
</P>
<P>(B) A statement showing how the conditions, practices, means, methods, operations, or processes used or proposed to be used would provide workers a safe and healthful place of employment in a manner that, to the extent practical taking into account the national defense mission, is consistent with the standard from which a variance is sought.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national defense variance may be granted for a maximum of six months, unless there is a showing that a longer period is essential to carrying out a national defense mission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006; 71 FR 36661, June 28, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5009, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.4.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.32   Action on variance requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for an approval recommendation.</I> (1) If the EHSS Director recommends approval of a variance application, the EHSS Director must forward to the Under Secretary the variance application and the approval recommendation including a discussion of the basis for the recommendation and any terms and conditions proposed for inclusion as part of the approval.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Under Secretary approves a variance, the Under Secretary must notify the EHSS Director who must notify the Office of Enforcement and the CSO who must promptly notify the contractor.
</P>
<P>(3) The notification must include a reference to the safety and health standard or portion thereof that is the subject of the application, a detailed description of the variance, the basis for the approval and any terms and conditions of the approval.
</P>
<P>(4) If the Under Secretary denies a variance, the Under Secretary must notify the EHSS Director who must notify the appropriate CSO who must notify the contractor.
</P>
<P>(5) The notification must include the grounds for denial.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval criteria.</I> A variance may be granted if the variance:
</P>
<P>(1) Is consistent with section 3173 of the NDAA;
</P>
<P>(2) Does not present an undue risk to worker safety and health;
</P>
<P>(3) Is warranted under the circumstances;
</P>
<P>(4) Satisfies the requirements of § 851.31 of this part for the type of variance requested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for a denial recommendation.</I> (1) If the EHSS Director recommends denial of a variance application, the EHSS Director must notify the CSO of the denial recommendation and the grounds for the denial recommendation.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of a denial recommendation, the CSO may:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the contractor that the variance application is denied on the grounds cited by the EHSS Director; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Forward to the Under Secretary the variance application, the denial recommendation, the grounds for the denial recommendation, and any information that supports an action different than that recommended by the EHSS Director.
</P>
<P>(3) If the CSO forwards the application to the Under Secretary, the procedures in paragraphs (a)(2), (3), (4) and (5) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(4) A denial of an application pursuant to this section shall be without prejudice to submitting of another application
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grounds for denial of a variance.</I> A variance may be denied if:
</P>
<P>(1) Enforcement of the violation would be handled as a <I>de minimis</I> violation (defined as a deviation from the requirement of a standard that has no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health, and no enforcement action will be taken);
</P>
<P>(2) When a variance is not necessary for the conditions, practice, means, methods, operations, or processes used or proposed to be used by contractor;
</P>
<P>(3) Contractor does not demonstrate that the approval criteria are met. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5009, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41293, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.4.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.33   Terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>A variance may contain appropriate terms and conditions including, but not limited to, provisions that:
</P>
<P>(a) Limit its duration;
</P>
<P>(b) Require alternative action;
</P>
<P>(c) Require partial compliance; and
</P>
<P>(d) Establish a schedule for full or partial compliance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.4.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.34   Requests for conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within the time allotted by a notice of the filling of an application, any affected contractor or worker may file with the EHSS Director a request for a conference on the application for a variance.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for a conference filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A concise statement explaining how the contractor or worker would be affected by the variance applied for, including relevant facts;
</P>
<P>(2) A specification of any statement or representation in the application which is denied, and a concise summary of the evidence that would be adduced in support of each denial; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other views or arguments on any issue of fact or law presented.
</P>
<P>(c) The EHSS Director, or designee, must respond to a request within fifteen days and, if the request is granted, indicate the time and place of the conference and the DOE participants in the conference. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 68733, Nov. 28, 2006; 80 FR 5009, Jan. 30, 2015; 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Enforcement Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.40   Investigations and inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Enforcement Director may initiate and conduct investigations and inspections relating to the scope, nature, and extent of compliance by a contractor with the requirements of this part and take such action as the Enforcement Director deems necessary and appropriate to the conduct of the investigation or inspection. DOE Enforcement Officers have the right to enter work areas without delay to the extent practicable, to conduct inspections under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors must fully cooperate with the Enforcement Director during all phases of the enforcement process and provide complete and accurate records and documentation as requested by the Enforcement Director during investigation or inspection activities.
</P>
<P>(c) Any worker or worker representative may request that the Enforcement Director initiate an investigation or inspection pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. A request for an investigation or inspection must describe the subject matter or activity to be investigated or inspected as fully as possible and include supporting documentation and information. The worker or worker representative has the right to remain anonymous upon filing a request for an investigation or inspection.
</P>
<P>(d) The Enforcement Director must inform any contractor that is the subject of an investigation or inspection in writing at the initiation of the investigation or inspection and must inform the contractor of the general purpose of the investigation or inspection.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE shall not disclose information or documents that are obtained during any investigation or inspection unless the Enforcement Director directs or authorizes the public disclosure of the investigation. Prior to such authorization, DOE must determine that disclosure is not precluded by the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 and part 1004 of this title. Once disclosed pursuant to the Enforcement Director's authorization, the information or documents are a matter of public record.
</P>
<P>(f) A request for confidential treatment of information for purposes of the Freedom of Information Act does not prevent disclosure by the Enforcement Director if the Enforcement Director determines disclosure to be in the public interest and otherwise permitted or required by law.
</P>
<P>(g) During the course of an investigation or inspection, any contractor may submit any document, statement of facts, or memorandum of law for the purpose of explaining the contractor's position or furnish information which the contractor considers relevant to a matter or activity under investigation or inspection.
</P>
<P>(h) The Enforcement Director may convene an informal conference to discuss any situation that might be a violation of a requirement of this part, its significance and cause, any corrective action taken or not taken by the contractor, any mitigating or aggravating circumstances, and any other information. A conference is not normally open to the public and DOE does not make a transcript of the conference. The Enforcement Director may compel a contractor to attend the conference.
</P>
<P>(i) If facts disclosed by an investigation or inspection indicate that further action is unnecessary or unwarranted, the Enforcement Director may close the investigation without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(j) The Enforcement Director may issue enforcement letters that communicate DOE's expectations with respect to any aspect of the requirements of this part, including identification and reporting of issues, corrective actions, and implementation of the contractor's safety and health program; provided that an enforcement letter may not create the basis for any legally enforceable requirement pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(k) The Enforcement Director may sign, issue and serve subpoenas. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.41" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.41   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE encourages settlement of a proceeding under this subpart at any time if the settlement is consistent with this part. The Enforcement Director and a contractor may confer at any time concerning settlement. A settlement conference is not open to the public and DOE does not make a transcript of the conference.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Enforcement Director may resolve any issues in an outstanding proceeding under this subpart with a consent order.
</P>
<P>(1) The Enforcement Director and the contractor, or a duly authorized representative thereto, must sign the consent order and indicate agreement to the terms contained therein.
</P>
<P>(2) A contractor is not required to admit in a consent order that a requirement of this part has been violated.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE is not required to make a finding in a consent order that a contractor has violated a requirement of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) A consent order must set forth the relevant facts that form the basis for the order and what remedy, if any, is imposed.
</P>
<P>(5) A consent order shall constitute a final order. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.42" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.42   Preliminary notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Based on a determination by the Enforcement Director that there is a reasonable basis to believe a contractor has violated or is continuing to violate a requirement of this part, the Enforcement Director may issue a preliminary notice of violation (PNOV) to the contractor.
</P>
<P>(b) A PNOV must indicate:
</P>
<P>(1) The date, facts, and nature of each act or omission upon which each alleged violation is based;
</P>
<P>(2) The particular requirement involved in each alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed remedy for each alleged violation, including the amount of any civil penalty; and
</P>
<P>(4) The obligation of the contractor to submit a written reply to the Enforcement Director within 30 calendar days of receipt of the PNOV.
</P>
<P>(c) A reply to a PNOV must contain a statement of all relevant facts pertaining to an alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(1) The reply must:
</P>
<P>(i) State any facts, explanations and arguments that support a denial of the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate any extenuating circumstances or other reason why a proposed remedy should not be imposed or should be mitigated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Discuss the relevant authorities that support the position asserted, including rulings, regulations, interpretations, and previous decisions issued by DOE; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Furnish full and complete answers to any questions set forth in the preliminary notice.
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of all relevant documents must be submitted with the reply.
</P>
<P>(d) If a contractor fails to submit a written reply within 30 calendar days of receipt of a PNOV:
</P>
<P>(1) The contractor relinquishes any right to appeal any matter in the preliminary notice; and
</P>
<P>(2) The preliminary notice, including any proposed remedies therein, constitutes a final order.
</P>
<P>(e) A copy of the PNOV must be prominently posted, once final, at or near the location where the violation occurred until the violation is corrected. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.43" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.43   Final notice of violation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a contractor submits a written reply within 30 calendar days of receipt of a preliminary notice of violation (PNOV), that presents a disagreement with any aspect of the PNOV and civil penalty, the Enforcement Director must review the submitted reply and make a final determination whether the contractor violated or is continuing to violate a requirement of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Based on a determination by the Enforcement Director that a contractor has violated or is continuing to violate a requirement of this part, the Enforcement Director may issue to the contractor a final notice of violation that states concisely the determined violation and any remedy, including the amount of any civil penalty imposed on the contractor. The final notice of violation must state that the contractor may petition the Office of Hearings and Appeals for review of the final notice in accordance with 10 CFR part 1003.
</P>
<P>(c) If a contractor fails to submit a petition for review to the Office of Hearings and Appeals within 30 calendar days of receipt of a final notice of violation pursuant to § 851.42:
</P>
<P>(1) The contractor relinquishes any right to appeal any matter in the final notice; and
</P>
<P>(2) The final notice, including any remedies therein, constitutes a final order. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.44" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.44   Administrative appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any contractor that receives a final notice of violation may petition the Office of Hearings and Appeals for review of the final notice in accordance with 10 CFR part 1003, within 30 calendar days from receipt of the final notice.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to exhaust administrative remedies with respect to a final notice of violation, the contractor must petition the Office of Hearings and Appeals for review in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 851.45" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 851.45   Direction to NNSA contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the NNSA Administrator, rather than the Enforcement Director, signs, issues and serves the following actions that direct NNSA contractors:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpoenas;
</P>
<P>(2) Orders to compel attendance;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosures of information or documents obtained during an investigation or inspection;
</P>
<P>(4) Preliminary notices of violations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Final notices of violations.
</P>
<P>(b) The NNSA Administrator shall act after consideration of the Enforcement Director's recommendation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5.16.7.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 851—Worker Safety and Health Functional Areas
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix establishes the mandatory requirements for implementing the applicable functional areas required by § 851.24. 
</P>
<HD1>1. Construction Safety
</HD1>
<P>(a) For each separately definable construction activity (e.g., excavations, foundations, structural steel, roofing) the construction contractor must:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare and have approved by the construction manager an activity hazard analysis prior to commencement of affected work. Such analyses must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify foreseeable hazards and planned protective measures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Address further hazards revealed by supplemental site information (e.g., site characterization data, as-built drawings) provided by the construction manager;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide drawings and/or other documentation of protective measures for which applicable Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards require preparation by a Professional Engineer or other qualified professional, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify competent persons required for workplace inspections of the construction activity, where required by OSHA standards.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure workers are aware of foreseeable hazards and the protective measures described within the activity analysis prior to beginning work on the affected activity.
</P>
<P>(3) Require that workers acknowledge being informed of the hazards and protective measures associated with assigned work activities. Those workers failing to utilize appropriate protective measures must be subject to the construction contractor's disciplinary process.
</P>
<P>(b) During periods of active construction (<I>i.e.,</I> excluding weekends, weather delays, or other periods of work inactivity), the construction contractor must have a designated representative on the construction worksite who is knowledgeable of the project's hazards and has full authority to act on behalf of the construction contractor. The contractor's designated representative must make frequent and regular inspections of the construction worksite to identify and correct any instances of noncompliance with project safety and health requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) Workers must be instructed to report to the construction contractor's designated representative, hazards not previously identified or evaluated. If immediate corrective action is not possible or the hazard falls outside of project scope, the construction contractor must immediately notify affected workers, post appropriate warning signs, implement needed interim control measures, and notify the construction manager of the action taken. The contractor or the designated representative must stop work in the affected area until appropriate protective measures are established.
</P>
<P>(d) The construction contractor must prepare a written construction project safety and health plan to implement the requirements of this section and obtain approval of the plan by the construction manager prior to commencement of any work covered by the plan. In the plan, the contractor must designate the individual(s) responsible for on-site implementation of the plan, specify qualifications for those individuals, and provide a list of those project activities for which subsequent hazard analyses are to be performed. The level of detail within the construction project safety and health plan should be commensurate with the size, complexity and risk level of the construction project. The content of this plan need not duplicate those provisions that were previously submitted and approved as required by § 851.11. 
</P>
<HD1>2. Fire Protection
</HD1>
<P>(a) Contractors must implement a comprehensive fire safety and emergency response program to protect workers commensurate with the nature of the work that is performed. This includes appropriate facility and site-wide fire protection, fire alarm notification and egress features, and access to a fully staffed, trained, and equipped emergency response organization that is capable of responding in a timely and effective manner to site emergencies.
</P>
<P>(b) An acceptable fire protection program must include those fire protection criteria and procedures, analyses, hardware and systems, apparatus and equipment, and personnel that would comprehensively ensure that the objective in paragraph 2(a) of this section is met. This includes meeting applicable building codes and National Fire Protection Association codes and standards. 
</P>
<HD1>3. Explosives Safety
</HD1>
<P>(a) Contractors responsible for the use of explosive materials must establish and implement a comprehensive explosives safety program.
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors must comply with the policy and requirements specified in the appropriate explosives safety technical standard.
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors must determine the applicability of the explosives safety directive requirements to research and development laboratory type operations consistent with the DOE level of protection criteria described in the explosives safety directive. 
</P>
<HD1>4. Pressure Safety
</HD1>
<P>(a) Contractors must establish safety policies and procedures to ensure that pressure systems are designed, fabricated, tested, inspected, maintained, repaired, and operated by trained and qualified personnel in accordance with applicable and sound engineering principles.
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors must ensure that all pressure vessels, boilers, air receivers, and supporting piping systems conform to:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicable American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) boilers and pressure vessel codes (BPVC), including applicable code cases as indicated in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (xxxii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) BPVC.I-2015, <I>Section I—Rules for Construction of Power Boilers</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(ii) BPVC.II.A-2015, <I>Section II-Materials, Part A—Ferrous Material Specifications (Beginning to SA-450)</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(iii) BPVC.II.A-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part A—Ferrous Material Specifications (SA-451 to End)</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(iv) BPVC.II.B-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part B—Nonferrous Material Specifications</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(v) BPVC.II.C-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part C-Specification for Welding Rods; Electrodes, and Filler Metals</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(vi) BPVC.II.D.C-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part D—Properties (Customary)</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(vii) BPVC.II.D.M-2015, <I>Section II—Materials, Part D—Properties (Metric)</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(viii) BPVC.III.A-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Appendices</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(ix) BPVC.III.1.NB-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NB, Class 1 Components</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(x) BPVC.III.1.NC-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NC, Class 2 Components</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xi) BPVC.III.1.ND-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection ND, Class 3 Components</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xii) BPVC.III.1.NE-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NE, Class MC Components</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xiii) BPVC.III.1.NF-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NF, Supports</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xiv) BPVC.III.1.NG-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NG, Core Support Structures</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xv) BPVC.III.1.NH-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division I—Subsection NH, Class 1 Components in Elevated Temperature Service</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xvi) BPVC.III.NCA-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility; Components, Subsection NCA, General Requirements for Division 1 and Division 2</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xvii) BPVC.III.2-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division 2, Code for Concrete Containments</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xviii) BPVC.III.3-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division 3, Containment for Transportation and Storage of Spent Nuclear Fuel and High Level Radioactive Material and Waste</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xix) BPVC.III.5-2015, <I>Section III—Rules for Construction of Nuclear Facility Components, Division 5, High Temperature Reactors</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xx) BPVC.IV-2015, <I>Section IV, Rules for Construction of Heating Boilers</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxi) BPVC.V-2015, <I>Section V, Nondestructive Examination</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxii) BPVC.VI-2015, <I>Section VI, Recommended Rules for the Care and Operation of Heating Boilers</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxiii) BPVC.VII-2015, <I>Section VII, Recommended Guidelines for the Care of Power Boilers</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxiv) BPVC.VIII.1-2015, <I>Section VIII—Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, Division 1</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxv) BPVC.VIII.2-2015, <I>Section VIII—Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, Division 2, Alternative Rules</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxvi) BPVC.VIII.3-2015, <I>Section VIII—Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, Division 3, Alternative Rules for Construction of High Pressure Vessels</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxvii) BPVC.IX-2015, <I>Section IX—Welding, Brazing and Fusing Qualifications, Qualification Standard for Welding, Brazing, and Fusing Procedures; Welders; Brazers; and Welding, Brazing, and Fusing Operators</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxviii) BPVC.X-2015, <I>Section X, Fiber—Reinforced Plastic Pressure Vessels</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxix) BPVC.XI-2015, <I>Section XI, Rules for Inservice Inspection of Nuclear Power Plant Components</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxx) BPVC.XII-2015, <I>Section XII, Rules for Construction and Continued Service of Transport Tanks</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(xxxi) BPVC.CC.BPV-2015, <I>Code Cases, Boilers and Pressure Vessels</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27); and
</P>
<P>(xxxii) BPVC.CC.NC-2015, <I>Code Cases, Nuclear Components</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27).
</P>
<P>(2) The applicable ASME B31 code for pressure piping as indicated in this paragraph; and or as indicated in paragraph (b)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) B31.1-2016, <I>Power Piping</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(ii) B31.3-2014, <I>Process Piping</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(iii) B31.4-2016, <I>Pipeline Transportation Systems for Liquids and Slurries</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(iv) B31.5-2016, <I>Refrigeration Piping and Heat Transfer Components</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(v) B31.8-2016, <I>Gas Transmission and Distribution Piping Systems</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(vi) B31.8S-2014, <I>Managing System Integrity of Gas Pipeline</I>s (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27);
</P>
<P>(vii) B31.9-2014, <I>Building Services Piping</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27); and
</P>
<P>(viii) B31G-2012, <I>Manual for Determining the Remaining Strength of Corroded Pipelines</I> (incorporated by reference, see § 851.27).
</P>
<P>(3) The strictest applicable state and local codes.
</P>
<P>(c) When national consensus codes are not applicable (because of pressure range, vessel geometry, use of special materials, etc.), contractors must implement measures to provide equivalent protection and ensure a level of safety greater than or equal to the level of protection afforded by the ASME or applicable state or local code. Measures must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Design drawings, sketches, and calculations must be reviewed and approved by a qualified independent design professional (<I>i.e.</I>, professional engineer). Documented organizational peer review is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified personnel must be used to perform examinations and inspections of materials, in-process fabrications, non-destructive tests, and acceptance test.
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation, traceability, and accountability must be maintained for each unique pressure vessel or system, including descriptions of design, pressure conditions, testing, inspection, operation, repair, and maintenance. 
</P>
<HD1>5. Firearms Safety
</HD1>
<P>(a) A contractor engaged in DOE activities involving the use of firearms must establish firearms safety policies and procedures for security operations, and training to ensure proper accident prevention controls are in place.
</P>
<P>(1) Written procedures must address firearms safety, engineering and administrative controls, as well as personal protective equipment requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) As a minimum, procedures must be established for:
</P>
<P>(i) Storage, handling, cleaning, inventory, and maintenance of firearms and associated ammunition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Activities such as loading, unloading, and exchanging firearms. These procedures must address use of bullet containment devices and those techniques to be used when no bullet containment device is available;
</P>
<P>(iii) Use and storage of pyrotechnics, explosives, and/or explosive projectiles;
</P>
<P>(iv) Handling misfires, duds, and unauthorized discharges;
</P>
<P>(v) Live fire training, qualification, and evaluation activities;
</P>
<P>(vi) Training and exercises using engagement simulation systems;
</P>
<P>(vii) Medical response at firearms training facilities; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Use of firing ranges by personnel other than DOE or DOE contractor protective forces personnel.
</P>
<P>(b) Contractors must ensure that personnel responsible for the direction and operation of the firearms safety program are professionally qualified and have sufficient time and authority to implement the procedures under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Contractors must ensure that firearms instructors and armorers have been certified by the Safeguards and Security National Training Center to conduct the level of activity provided. Personnel must not be allowed to conduct activities for which they have not been certified.
</P>
<P>(d) Contractors must conduct formal appraisals assessing implementation of procedures, personnel responsibilities, and duty assignments to ensure overall policy objectives and performance criteria are being met by qualified personnel.
</P>
<P>(e) Contractors must implement procedures related to firearms training, live fire range safety, qualification, and evaluation activities, including procedures requiring that:
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel must successfully complete initial firearms safety training before being issued any firearms. Authorization to remain in armed status will continue only if the employee demonstrates the technical and practical knowledge of firearms safety semi-annually;
</P>
<P>(2) Authorized armed personnel must demonstrate through documented limited scope performance tests both technical and practical knowledge of firearms handling and safety on a semi-annual basis;
</P>
<P>(3) All firearms training lesson plans must incorporate safety for all aspects of firearms training task performance standards. The lesson plans must follow the standards set forth by the Safeguards and Security Central Training Academy's standard training programs;
</P>
<P>(4) Firearms safety briefings must immediately precede training, qualifications, and evaluation activities involving live fire and/or engagement simulation systems;
</P>
<P>(5) A safety analysis approved by the Head of DOE Field Element must be developed for the facilities and operation of each live fire range prior to implementation of any new training, qualification, or evaluation activity. Results of these analyses must be incorporated into procedures, lesson plans, exercise plans, and limited scope performance tests;
</P>
<P>(6) Firing range safety procedures must be conspicuously posted at all range facilities; and
</P>
<P>(7) Live fire ranges, approved by the Head of DOE Field Element, must be properly sited to protect personnel on the range, as well as personnel and property not associated with the range.
</P>
<P>(f) Contractors must ensure that the transportation, handling, placarding, and storage of munitions conform to the applicable DOE requirements. 
</P>
<HD1>6. Industrial Hygiene
</HD1>
<P>Contractors must implement a comprehensive industrial hygiene program that includes at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(a) Initial or baseline surveys and periodic resurveys and/or exposure monitoring as appropriate of all work areas or operations to identify and evaluate potential worker health risks;
</P>
<P>(b) Coordination with planning and design personnel to anticipate and control health hazards that proposed facilities and operations would introduce;
</P>
<P>(c) Coordination with cognizant occupational medical, environmental, health physics, and work planning professionals;
</P>
<P>(d) Policies and procedures to mitigate the risk from identified and potential occupational carcinogens;
</P>
<P>(e) Professionally and technically qualified industrial hygienists to manage and implement the industrial hygiene program; and
</P>
<P>(f) Use of respiratory protection equipment tested under the DOE Respirator Acceptance Program for Supplied-Air Suits when the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health-approved respiratory protection does not exist for DOE tasks that require such equipment. For security operations military type masks for respiratory protection by security personnel is acceptable.


</P>
<HD1>7. Biological Safety
</HD1>
<P>(a) Contractors must establish and implement a biological safety program that:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes an Institutional Biosafety Committee (IBC) or equivalent. The IBC must:
</P>
<P>(i) Review any work with biological etiologic agents for compliance with applicable Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), National Institutes of Health (NIH), World Health Organization (WHO), United States Department of Agriculture Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (USDA/APHIS), and other international, Federal, State, and local guidelines and assess the containment level, facilities, procedures, practices, and training and expertise of personnel; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Review the site's security, safeguards, and emergency management plans and procedures to ensure they adequately consider work involving biological etiologic agents.
</P>
<P>(2) Maintains an inventory and status of biological etiologic agents, and provide to the responsible field and area office, through the laboratory IBC (or its equivalent), an annual status report describing the status and inventory of biological etiologic agents and the biological safety program.
</P>
<P>(3) Provides for submission to the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element, for review and concurrence before transmittal to the Federal Select Agent Program, each Laboratory Registration/Select Agent Program registration application package (APHIS/CDC Form 1, Application for Registration for Possession, Use, and Transfer of Select Agents and Toxins) requesting registration of (or amendment to a previously approved registration) a laboratory facility for the purpose of possessing, using, or transferring biological select agents and/or toxins.
</P>
<P>(4) Provides for submission to the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element, a copy of each APHIS/CDC Form 2, Request to Transfer Select Agents and Toxins, upon initial submission of APHIS/CDC Form 2 to a vendor or other supplier requesting or ordering a biological select agent or toxin for transfer, receipt, and handling in the registered facility; and submission to the appropriate Head of DOE Field Element the completed copy of the APHIS/CDC Form 2, documenting final disposition and/or destruction of the select agent or toxin, within 10 days of completion of the APHIS/CDC Form 2.
</P>
<P>(5) Confirms that the site safeguards and security plans and emergency management programs address biological etiologic agents, with particular emphasis on biological select agents.
</P>
<P>(6) Establishes an immunization policy for personnel working with biological etiologic agents based on the evaluation of risk and benefit of immunization.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<HD1>8. Occupational Medicine
</HD1>
<P>(a) Contractors must establish and provide comprehensive occupational medicine services to workers employed at a covered work place who:
</P>
<P>(1) Work on a DOE site for more than 30 days in a 12-month period; or
</P>
<P>(2) Are enrolled for any length of time in a medical or exposure monitoring program required by this rule and/or any other applicable Federal, State or local regulation, or other obligation.
</P>
<P>(b) The occupational medicine services must be under the direction of a graduate of a school of medicine or osteopathy who is licensed for the practice of medicine in the state in which the site is located.
</P>
<P>(c) Occupational medical physicians, occupational health nurses, physician's assistants, nurse practitioners, psychologists, employee assistance counselors, and other occupational health personnel providing occupational medicine services must be licensed, registered, or certified as required by Federal or State law where employed.
</P>
<P>(d) Contractors must provide the occupational medicine providers access to hazard information by promoting its communication, coordination, and sharing among operating and environment, safety, and health protection organizations.
</P>
<P>(1) Contractors must provide the occupational medicine providers with access to information on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Current information about actual or potential work-related site hazards (chemical, radiological, physical, biological, or ergonomic);
</P>
<P>(ii) Employee job-task and hazard analysis information, including essential job functions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Actual or potential work-site exposures of each employee; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Personnel actions resulting in a change of job functions, hazards or exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractors must notify the occupational medicine providers when an employee has been absent because of an injury or illness for more than 5 consecutive workdays (or an equivalent time period for those individuals on an alternative work schedule);
</P>
<P>(3) Contractors must provide the occupational medicine provider information on, and the opportunity to participate in, worker safety and health team meetings and committees;
</P>
<P>(4) Contractors must provide occupational medicine providers access to the workplace for evaluation of job conditions and issues relating to workers' health.
</P>
<P>(e) A designated occupational medicine provider must:
</P>
<P>(1) Plan and implement the occupation medicine services; and
</P>
<P>(2) Participate in worker protection teams to build and maintain necessary partnerships among workers, their representatives, managers, and safety and health protection specialists in establishing and maintaining a safe and healthful workplace.
</P>
<P>(f) A record, containing any medical, health history, exposure history, and demographic data collected for the occupational medicine purposes, must be developed and maintained for each employee for whom medical services are provided. All occupational medical records must be maintained in accordance with Executive Order 13335, Incentives for the Use of Health Information Technology.
</P>
<P>(1) Employee medical, psychological, and employee assistance program (EAP) records must be kept confidential, protected from unauthorized access, and stored under conditions that ensure their long-term preservation. Psychological records must be maintained separately from medical records and in the custody the designated psychologist in accordance with 10 CFR 712.38(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) Access to these records must be provided in accordance with DOE regulations implementing the Privacy Act and the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act.
</P>
<P>(g) The occupational medicine services provider must determine the content of the worker health evaluations, which must be conducted under the direction of a licensed physician, in accordance with current sound and acceptable medical practices and all pertinent statutory and regulatory requirements, such as the Americans with Disabilities Act.
</P>
<P>(1) Workers must be informed of the purpose and nature of the medical evaluations and tests offered by the occupational medicine provider.
</P>
<P>(i) The purpose, nature and results of evaluations and tests must be clearly communicated verbally and in writing to each worker provided testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The communication must be documented in the worker's medical record; and
</P>
<P>(2) The following health evaluations must be conducted when determined necessary by the occupational medicine provider for the purpose of providing initial and continuing assessment of employee fitness for duty.
</P>
<P>(i) At the time of employment entrance or transfer to a job with new functions and hazards, a medical placement evaluation of the individual's general health and physical and psychological capacity to perform work will establish a baseline record of physical condition and assure fitness for duty.
</P>
<P>(ii) Periodic, hazard-based medical monitoring or qualification-based fitness for duty evaluations required by regulations and standards, or as recommended by the occupational medicine services provider, will be provided on the frequency required.
</P>
<P>(iii) Diagnostic examinations will evaluate employee's injuries and illnesses to determine work-relatedness, the applicability of medical restrictions, and referral for definitive care, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) After a work-related injury or illness or an absence due to any injury or illness lasting 5 or more consecutive workdays (or an equivalent time period for those individuals on an alternative work schedule), a return to work evaluation will determine the individual's physical and psychological capacity to perform work and return to duty.
</P>
<P>(v) At the time of separation from employment, individuals shall be offered a general health evaluation to establish a record of physical condition.
</P>
<P>(h) The occupational medicine provider must monitor ill and injured workers to facilitate their rehabilitation and safe return to work and to minimize lost time and its associated costs.
</P>
<P>(1) The occupational medicine provider must place an individual under medical restrictions when health evaluations indicate that the worker should not perform certain job tasks. The occupational medicine provider must notify the worker and contractor management when employee work restrictions are imposed or removed.
</P>
<P>(i) Occupational medicine provider physician and medical staff must, on a timely basis, communicate results of health evaluations to management and safety and health protection specialists to facilitate the mitigation of worksite hazards.
</P>
<P>(j) The occupational medicine provider must include measures to identify and manage the principal preventable causes of premature morbidity and mortality affecting worker health and productivity.
</P>
<P>(1) The contractor must include programs to prevent and manage these causes of morbidity when evaluations demonstrate their cost effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractors must make available to the occupational medicine provider appropriate access to information from health, disability, and other insurance plans (de-identified as necessary) in order to facilitate this process.
</P>
<P>(k) The occupational medicine services provider must review and approve the medical and behavioral aspects of employee counseling and health promotional programs, including the following types:
</P>
<P>(1) Contractor-sponsored or contractor-supported EAPs;
</P>
<P>(2) Contractor-sponsored or contractor-supported alcohol and other substance abuse rehabilitation programs; and
</P>
<P>(3) Contractor-sponsored or contractor-supported wellness programs.
</P>
<P>(4) The occupational medicine services provider must review the medical aspects of immunization programs, blood-borne pathogens programs, and bio-hazardous waste programs to evaluate their conformance to applicable guidelines.
</P>
<P>(5) The occupational medicine services provider must develop and periodically review medical emergency response procedures included in site emergency and disaster preparedness plans. The medical emergency responses must be integrated with nearby community emergency and disaster plans. 
</P>
<HD1>9. Motor Vehicle Safety
</HD1>
<P>(a) Contractors must implement a motor vehicle safety program to protect the safety and health of all drivers and passengers in Government-owned or -leased motor vehicles and powered industrial equipment (<I>i.e.</I>, fork trucks, tractors, platform lift trucks, and other similar specialized equipment powered by an electric motor or an internal combustion engine).
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor must tailor the motor vehicle safety program to the individual DOE site or facility, based on an analysis of the needs of that particular site or facility.
</P>
<P>(c) The motor vehicle safety program must address, as applicable to the contractor's operations:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimum licensing requirements (including appropriate testing and medical qualification) for personnel operating motor vehicles and powered industrial equipment;
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements for the use of seat belts and provision of other safety devices;
</P>
<P>(3) Training for specialty vehicle operators;
</P>
<P>(4) Requirements for motor vehicle maintenance and inspection;
</P>
<P>(5) Uniform traffic and pedestrian control devices and road signs;
</P>
<P>(6) On-site speed limits and other traffic rules;
</P>
<P>(7) Awareness campaigns and incentive programs to encourage safe driving; and
</P>
<P>(8) Enforcement provisions. 
</P>
<HD1>10. Electrical Safety
</HD1>
<P>Contractors must implement a comprehensive electrical safety program appropriate for the activities at their site. This program must meet the applicable electrical safety codes and standards referenced in § 851.23. 
</P>
<HD1>11. Nanotechnology Safety—Reserved
</HD1>
<P>The Department has chosen to reserve this section since policy and procedures for nanotechnology safety are currently being developed. Once these policies and procedures have been approved, the rule will be amended to include them through a rulemaking consistent with the Administrative Procedure Act.
</P>
<HD1>12. Workplace Violence Prevention—Reserved
</HD1>
<P>The Department has chosen to reserve this section since the policy and procedures for workplace violence prevention are currently being developed. Once these policies and procedures have been approved, the rule will be amended to include them through a rulemaking consistent with the Administrative Procedure Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006; 71 FR 36661, June 28, 2006; 80 FR 69566, Nov. 10, 2015; 82 FR 59956, Dec. 18, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.32.5.16.7.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 851—General Statement of Enforcement Policy
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>(a) This policy statement sets forth the general framework through which the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) will seek to ensure compliance with its worker safety and health regulations, and, in particular, exercise the civil penalty authority provided to DOE in section 3173 of Public Law 107-314, Bob Stump National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2003 (December 2, 2002) (“NDAA”), amending the Atomic Energy Act (AEA) to add section 234C. The policy set forth herein is applicable to violations of safety and health regulations in this part by DOE contractors, including DOE contractors who are indemnified under the Price-Anderson Act, 42 U.S.C. 2210(d), and their subcontractors and suppliers (hereafter collectively referred to as DOE contractors). This policy statement is not a regulation and is intended only to provide general guidance to those persons subject to the regulations in this part. It is not intended to establish a “cookbook” approach to the initiation and resolution of situations involving noncompliance with the regulations in this part. Rather, DOE intends to consider the particular facts of each noncompliance in determining whether enforcement sanctions are appropriate and, if so, the appropriate magnitude of those sanctions. DOE may well deviate from this policy statement when appropriate in the circumstances of particular cases. This policy statement is not applicable to activities and facilities covered under E.O. 12344, 42 U.S.C. 7158 note, pertaining to Naval Nuclear Propulsion, or otherwise excluded from the scope of the rule.
</P>
<P>(b) The DOE goal in the compliance arena is to enhance and protect the safety and health of workers at DOE facilities by fostering a culture among both the DOE line organizations and the contractors that actively seeks to attain and sustain compliance with the regulations in this part. The enforcement program and policy have been developed with the express purpose of achieving safety inquisitiveness and voluntary compliance. DOE will establish effective administrative processes and positive incentives to the contractors for the open and prompt identification and reporting of noncompliances, performance of effective root cause analysis, and initiation of comprehensive corrective actions to resolve both noncompliance conditions and program or process deficiencies that led to noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(c) In the development of the DOE enforcement policy, DOE recognizes that the reasonable exercise of its enforcement authority can help to reduce the likelihood of serious incidents. This can be accomplished by placing greater emphasis on a culture of safety in existing DOE operations, and strong incentives for contractors to identify and correct noncompliance conditions and processes in order to protect human health and the environment. DOE wants to facilitate, encourage, and support contractor initiatives for the prompt identification and correction of noncompliances. DOE will give due consideration to such initiatives and activities in exercising its enforcement discretion.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE may modify or remit civil penalties in a manner consistent with the adjustment factors set forth in this policy with or without conditions. DOE will carefully consider the facts of each case of noncompliance and will exercise appropriate discretion in taking any enforcement action. Part of the function of a sound enforcement program is to assure a proper and continuing level of safety vigilance. The reasonable exercise of enforcement authority will be facilitated by the appropriate application of safety requirements to DOE facilities and by promoting and coordinating the proper contractor and DOE safety compliance attitude toward those requirements. 
</P>
<HD1>II. Purpose
</HD1>
<P>The purpose of the DOE enforcement program is to promote and protect the safety and health of workers at DOE facilities by:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensuring compliance by DOE contractors with the regulations in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Providing positive incentives for DOE contractors based on:
</P>
<P>(1) Timely self-identification of worker safety noncompliances;
</P>
<P>(2) Prompt and complete reporting of such noncompliances to DOE;
</P>
<P>(3) Prompt correction of safety noncompliances in a manner that precludes recurrence; and
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of modifications in practices or facilities that can improve worker safety and health.
</P>
<P>(c) Deterring future violations of DOE requirements by a DOE contractor.
</P>
<P>(d) Encouraging the continuous overall improvement of operations at DOE facilities. 
</P>
<HD1>III. Statutory Authority
</HD1>
<P>The Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101-7385o, the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (ERA), 42 U.S.C. 5801-5911, and the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, (AEA) 42 U.S.C. 2011, require DOE to protect the public safety and health, as well as the safety and health of workers at DOE facilities, in conducting its activities, and grant DOE broad authority to achieve this goal. Section 234C of the AEA makes DOE contractors (and their subcontractors and suppliers thereto) covered by the DOE Price-Anderson indemnification system, subject to civil penalties for violations of the worker safety and health requirements promulgated in this part. 42 U.S.C. 2282c. 
</P>
<HD1>IV. Responsibilities
</HD1>
<P>(a) The Enforcement Director, as the principal enforcement officer of the DOE, has been delegated the authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct enforcement inspections, investigations, and conferences;
</P>
<P>(2) Issue Notices of Violations and proposed civil penalties, Enforcement Letters, Consent Orders, and subpoenas; and
</P>
<P>(3) Issue orders to compel attendance and disclosure of information or documents obtained during an investigation or inspection. The Secretary issues Compliance Orders.
</P>
<P>(b) The NNSA Administrator, rather than the Enforcement Director, signs, issues and serves the following actions that direct NNSA contractors:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpoenas;
</P>
<P>(2) Orders to compel attendance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Determines to disclose information or documents obtained during an investigation or inspection, PNOVs, Notices of Violations, and Final Notices of Violations. The NNSA Administrator acts after consideration of the Enforcement Director's recommendation. 
</P>
<HD1>V. Procedural Framework
</HD1>
<P>(a) Title 10 CFR part 851 sets forth the procedures DOE will use in exercising its enforcement authority, including the issuance of Notices of Violation and the resolution of an administrative appeal in the event a DOE contractor elects to petition the Office of Hearings and Appeals for review.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to 10 CFR part 851 subpart E, the Enforcement Director initiates the enforcement process by initiating and conducting investigations and inspections and issuing a Preliminary Notice of Violation (PNOV) with or without a proposed civil penalty. The DOE contractor is required to respond in writing to the PNOV within 30 days, either: (1) Admitting the violation and waiving its right to contest the proposed civil penalty and paying it; (2) admitting the violation but asserting the existence of mitigating circumstances that warrant either the total or partial remission of the civil penalty; or (3) denying that the violation has occurred and providing the basis for its belief that the PNOV is incorrect. After evaluation of the DOE contractor's response, the Enforcement Director may determine: (1) That no violation has occurred; (2) that the violation occurred as alleged in the PNOV but that the proposed civil penalty should be remitted in whole or in part; or (3) that the violation occurred as alleged in the PNOV and that the proposed civil penalty is appropriate, notwithstanding the asserted mitigating circumstances. In the latter two instances, the Enforcement Director will issue a Final Notice of Violation (FNOV) or an FNOV and proposed civil penalty.
</P>
<P>(c) An opportunity to challenge an FNOV is provided in administrative appeal provisions. See 10 CFR 851.44. Any contractor that receives an FNOV may petition the Office of Hearings and Appeals for review of the final notice in accordance with 10 CFR part 1003, within 30 calendar days from receipt of the final notice. An administrative appeal proceeding is not initiated until the DOE contractor against which an FNOV has been issued requests an administrative hearing rather than waiving its right to contest the FNOV and proposed civil penalty, if any, and paying the civil penalty. However, it should be emphasized that DOE encourages the voluntary resolution of a noncompliance situation at any time, either informally prior to the initiation of the enforcement process or by consent order before or after any formal proceeding has begun. 
</P>
<HD1>VI. Severity of Violations
</HD1>
<P>(a) Violations of the worker safety and health requirements in this part have varying degrees of safety and health significance. Therefore, the relative safety and health risk of each violation must be identified as the first step in the enforcement process. Violations of the worker safety and health requirements are categorized in two levels of severity to identify their relative seriousness. Notices of Violation issued for noncompliance when appropriate, propose civil penalties commensurate with the severity level of the violations involved.
</P>
<P>(b) To assess the potential safety and health impact of a particular violation, DOE will categorize the potential severity of violations of worker safety and health requirements as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A Severity Level I violation is a serious violation. A serious violation shall be deemed to exist in a place of employment if there is a potential that death or serious physical harm could result from a condition which exists, or from one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes which have been adopted or are in use, in such place of employment. A Severity Level I violation would be subject to a base civil penalty of up to 100% of the maximum base civil penalty of $121,876.
</P>
<P>(2) A Severity Level II violation is an other-than-serious violation. An other-than-serious violation occurs where the most serious injury or illness that would potentially result from a hazardous condition cannot reasonably be predicted to cause death or serious physical harm to employees but does have a direct relationship to their safety and health. 

A Severity Level II violation would be subject to a base civil penalty up to 50% of the maximum base civil penalty ($60,938).


</P>
<P>(c) De minimis violations, defined as a deviation from the requirement of a standard that has no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health, will not be the subject of formal enforcement action through the issuance of a Notice of Violation. 
</P>
<HD1>VII. Enforcement Conferences
</HD1>
<P>(a) The purpose of the enforcement conference is to:
</P>
<P>(1) Assure the accuracy of the facts upon which the preliminary determination to consider enforcement action is based;
</P>
<P>(2) Discuss the potential or alleged violations, their significance and causes, and the nature of and schedule for the DOE contractor's corrective actions;
</P>
<P>(3) Determine whether there are any aggravating or mitigating circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(4) Obtain other information which will help determine whether enforcement action is appropriate and, if so, the extent of that enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(b) All enforcement conferences are convened at the discretion of the Enforcement Director.
</P>
<P>(c) The PNOV will normally be issued promptly, before the opportunity for an enforcement conference, following the inspection/investigation. In some cases an enforcement conference may be conducted onsite at the conclusion of an inspection/investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) The contractor may request an enforcement conference if they believe additional information pertinent to the enforcement action could best be conveyed through a meeting.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE contractors will be informed prior to a meeting when that meeting is considered to be an enforcement conference. Such conferences are informal mechanisms for candid discussions regarding potential or alleged violations and will not normally be open to the public. In circumstances for which immediate enforcement action is necessary in the interest of worker safety and health, such action will be taken prior to the enforcement conference, which may still be held after the necessary DOE action has been taken. 
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Enforcement Letter
</HD1>
<P>(a) In cases where DOE has decided not to conduct an investigation or inspection or issue a Preliminary Notice of Violation (PNOV), DOE may send an Enforcement Letter, signed by the Enforcement Director to the contractor. The Enforcement Letter is intended to communicate the basis of the decision not to pursue enforcement action for a noncompliance. The Enforcement Letter is intended to direct contractors to the desired level of worker safety and health performance. It may be used when DOE concludes that the specific noncompliance at issue is not of the level of significance warranted to conduct an investigation or inspection or for issuance of a PNOV. Even where a noncompliance may be significant, the Enforcement Letter may recognize that the contractor's actions may have attenuated the need for enforcement action. The Enforcement Letter will typically recognize how the contractor handled the circumstances surrounding the noncompliance, address additional areas requiring the contractor's attention, and address DOE's expectations for corrective action.
</P>
<P>(b) In general, Enforcement Letters communicate DOE's expectations with respect to any aspect of the requirements of this part, including identification and reporting of issues, corrective actions, and implementation of the contractor's safety and health program. DOE might, for example, wish to recognize some action of the contractor that is of particular benefit to worker safety and health that is a candidate for emulation by other contractors. On the other hand, DOE may wish to bring a program shortcoming to the attention of the contractor that, but for the lack of worker safety and health significance of the immediate issue, might have resulted in the issuance of a PNOV. An Enforcement Letter is not an enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to many noncompliances, an Enforcement Letter may not be required. When DOE decides that a contractor has appropriately corrected a noncompliance or that the significance of the noncompliance is sufficiently low, it may close out its review simply through an annotation in the DOE Noncompliance Tracking System (NTS). A closeout of a noncompliance with or without an Enforcement Letter may only take place after DOE has confirmed that corrective actions have been completed. 


</P>
<HD1>IX. Enforcement Actions
</HD1>
<P>(a) This section describes the enforcement sanctions available to DOE and specifies the conditions under which each may be used. The basic sanctions are Notices of Violation and civil penalties.
</P>
<P>(b) The nature and extent of the enforcement action is intended to reflect the seriousness of the violation. For the vast majority of violations for which DOE assigns severity levels as described previously, a Notice of Violation will be issued, requiring a formal response from the recipient describing the nature of and schedule for corrective actions it intends to take regarding the violation. 
</P>
<HD2>1. Notice of Violation
</HD2>
<P>(a) A Notice of Violation (either a Preliminary or Final Notice) is a document setting forth the conclusion of DOE and the basis to support the conclusion, that one or more violations of the worker safety and health requirements have occurred. Such a notice normally requires the recipient to provide a written response which may take one of several positions described in section V of this policy statement. In the event that the recipient concedes the occurrence of the violation, it is required to describe corrective steps which have been taken and the results achieved; remedial actions which will be taken to prevent recurrence; and the date by which full compliance will be achieved.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will use the Notice of Violation as the standard method for formalizing the existence of a violation and, in appropriate cases as described in this section, the Notice of Violation will be issued in conjunction with the proposed imposition of a civil penalty. In certain limited instances, as described in this section, DOE may refrain from the issuance of an otherwise appropriate Notice of Violation. However, a Notice of Violation will virtually always be issued for willful violations, or if past corrective actions for similar violations have not been sufficient to prevent recurrence and there are no other mitigating circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE contractors are not ordinarily cited for violations resulting from matters not within their control, such as equipment failures that were not avoidable by reasonable quality assurance measures, proper maintenance, or management controls. With regard to the issue of funding, however, DOE does not consider an asserted lack of funding to be a justification for noncompliance with the worker safety and health requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE expects its contractors to have the proper management and supervisory systems in place to assure that all activities at covered workplaces, regardless of who performs them, are carried out in compliance with all the worker safety and health requirements. Therefore, contractors are normally held responsible for the acts of their employees and subcontractor employees in the conduct of activities at covered workplaces. Accordingly, this policy should not be construed to excuse personnel errors.
</P>
<P>(e) The limitations on remedies under section 234C will be implemented as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE may assess civil penalties of up to $121,876 per violation per day on contractors (and their subcontractors and suppliers) that are indemnified by the Price-Anderson Act, 42 U.S.C. 2210(d). <I>See</I> 10 CFR 851.5(a).




</P>
<P>(2) DOE may seek contract fee reductions through the contract's <I>Conditional Payment of Fee</I> Clause in the Department of Energy Acquisition Regulation (DEAR). <I>See</I> 10 CFR 851.4(b); 48 CFR parts 923, 952, 970. Policies for contract fee reductions are not established by this policy statement. The Enforcement Director and appropriate contracting officers will coordinate their efforts in compliance with the statute. <I>See</I> 10 CFR 851.5(b).
</P>
<P>(3) For the same violation of a worker safety and health requirement in this part, DOE may pursue either civil penalties (for indemnified contractors and their subcontractors and suppliers) or a contract fee reduction, but not both. <I>See</I> 10 CFR 851.5(c).
</P>
<P>(4) A ceiling applies to civil penalties assessed on certain contractors specifically listed in 170d. of the Atomic Energy Act, 42 U.S.C. 2282a(d), for activities conducted at specified facilities. For these contractors, the total amount of civil penalties and contract penalties in a fiscal year may not exceed the total amount of fees paid by DOE to that entity in that fiscal year. <I>See</I> 10 CFR 851.5(d). 
</P>
<HD2>2. Civil Penalty
</HD2>
<P>(a) A civil penalty is a monetary penalty that may be imposed for violations of requirements of this part. <I>See</I> 10 CFR 851.5(a). Civil penalties are designed to emphasize the need for lasting remedial action, deter future violations, and underscore the importance of DOE contractor self-identification, reporting, and correction of violations of the worker safety and health requirements in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Absent mitigating circumstances as described below, or circumstances otherwise warranting the exercise of enforcement discretion by DOE as described in this section, civil penalties will be proposed for Severity Level I and II violations.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE will impose different base level penalties considering the severity level of the violation. Table A-1 shows the daily base civil penalties for the various categories of severity levels. However, as described below in section IX, paragraph b.3, the imposition of civil penalties will also take into account the gravity, circumstances, and extent of the violation or violations and, with respect to the violator, any history of prior similar violations and the degree of culpability and knowledge.
</P>
<P>(d) Enforcement personnel will use risk-based criteria to assist the Enforcement Director in determining appropriate civil penalties for violations found during investigations and inspections.
</P>
<P>(e) Regarding the factor of ability of DOE contractors to pay the civil penalties, it is not DOE's intention that the economic impact of a civil penalty be such that it puts a DOE contractor out of business. Contract termination, rather than civil penalties, is used when the intent is to terminate these activities. The deterrent effect of civil penalties is best served when the amount of such penalties takes this factor into account. However, DOE will evaluate the relationship of affiliated entities to the contractor (such as parent corporations) when the contractor asserts that it cannot pay the proposed penalty.
</P>
<P>(f) DOE will review each case on its own merits and adjust the base civil penalty values upward or downward. As indicated below, Table A-1 identifies the daily base civil penalty values for different severity levels. After considering all relevant circumstances, civil penalties may be adjusted up or down based on the mitigating or aggravating factors described later in this section. In no instance will a civil penalty for any one violation exceed the statutory limit, as periodically adjusted for inflation as required by law, per day. 

 In cases where the DOE contractor had knowledge of a violation and has not reported it to DOE and taken corrective action despite an opportunity to do so, DOE will consider utilizing its per day civil penalty authority. Further, as described in this section, the duration of a violation will be taken into account in adjusting the base civil penalty. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-1—Severity Level Base Civil Penalties 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Severity level 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Base civil penalty amount (Percentage of maximum per violation per day) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">I</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">II</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>3. Adjustment Factors
</HD2>
<P>(a) DOE may reduce a penalty based on mitigating circumstances or increase a penalty based on aggravating circumstances. DOE's enforcement program is not an end in itself, but a means to achieve compliance with the worker safety and health requirements in this part. Civil penalties are intended to emphasize the importance of compliance and to deter future violations. The single most important goal of the DOE enforcement program is to encourage early identification and reporting of violations of the worker safety and health requirements in this part by the DOE contractors themselves rather than by DOE, and the prompt correction of any violations so identified. DOE believes that DOE contractors are in the best position to identify and promptly correct noncompliance with the worker safety and health requirements in this part. DOE expects that these contractors should have in place internal compliance programs which will ensure the detection, reporting, and prompt correction of conditions that may constitute, or lead to, violations of the worker safety and health requirements in this part, before, rather than after, DOE has identified such violations. Thus, DOE contractors should almost always be aware of worker safety and health noncompliances before they are discovered by DOE. Obviously, worker safety and health is enhanced if noncompliances are discovered (and promptly corrected) by the DOE contractor, rather than by DOE, which may not otherwise become aware of a noncompliance until later, during the course of an inspection, performance assessment, or following an incident at the facility. Early identification of worker safety and health-related noncompliances by DOE contractors has the added benefit of allowing information that could prevent such noncompliances at other facilities in the DOE complex to be shared with other appropriate DOE contractors.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to this enforcement philosophy, DOE will provide substantial incentive for the early self-identification, reporting, and prompt correction of conditions which constitute, or could lead to, violations of the worker safety and health requirements. Thus, the civil penalty may be reduced for violations that are identified, reported, and promptly and effectively corrected by the DOE contractor.
</P>
<P>(c) On the other hand, ineffective programs for problem identification and correction are aggravating circumstances and may increase the penalty amount. Thus, for example, where a contractor fails to disclose and promptly correct violations of which it was aware or should have been aware, substantial civil penalties are warranted and may be sought, including the assessment of civil penalties for continuing violations on a per day basis.
</P>
<P>(d) Further, in cases involving factors of willfulness, repeated violations, death, serious injury, patterns of systemic violations, DOE-identified flagrant violations, repeated poor performance in an area of concern, or serious breakdown in management controls, DOE intends to apply its full statutory enforcement authority where such action is warranted.
</P>
<P>(e) Additionally, adjustment to the amount of civil penalty will be dependent, in part, on the degree of culpability of the DOE contractor with regard to the violation. Thus, inadvertent violations will be viewed differently from those in which there is gross negligence, deception, or willfulness. In addition to the severity of the underlying violation and level of culpability involved, DOE will also consider the position, training and experience of those involved in the violation. Thus, for example, a violation may be deemed to be more significant if a senior manager of an organization is involved rather than a foreman or non-supervisory employee.
</P>
<P>(f) Other factors that will be considered in determining the civil penalty amount are the duration of the violation (how long the condition has presented a potential exposure to workers), the extent of the condition (number of instances of the violation), the frequency of the exposure (how often workers are exposed), the proximity of the workers to the exposure, and the past history of similar violations.
</P>
<P>(g) DOE expects contractors to provide full, complete, timely, and accurate information and reports. Accordingly, the penalty amount for a violation involving either a failure to make a required report or notification to the DOE or an untimely report or notification, will be based upon the circumstances surrounding the matter that should have been reported. A contractor will not normally be cited for a failure to report a condition or event unless the contractor was aware or should have been aware of the condition or event that it failed to report. 
</P>
<HD2>4. Identification and Reporting
</HD2>
<P>Reduction of up to 50% of the base civil penalty shown in Table A-1 may be given when a DOE contractor identifies the violation and promptly reports the violation to the DOE. Consideration will be given to, among other things, the opportunity available to discover the violation, the ease of discovery and the promptness and completeness of any required report. No consideration will be given to a reduction in penalty if the DOE contractor does not take prompt action to report the problem to DOE upon discovery, or if the immediate actions necessary to restore compliance with the worker safety and health requirements are not taken. 
</P>
<HD2>5. Self-Identification and Tracking Systems
</HD2>
<P>(a) DOE strongly encourages contractors to self-identify noncompliances with the worker safety and health requirements before the noncompliances lead to a string of similar and potentially more significant events or consequences. When a contractor identifies a noncompliance, DOE will normally allow a reduction in the amount of civil penalties, unless prior opportunities existed for contractors to identify the noncompliance. DOE will normally not allow a reduction in civil penalties for self-identification if significant DOE intervention was required to induce the contractor to report a noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(b) Self-identification of a noncompliance is possibly the single most important factor in considering a reduction in the civil penalty amount. Consideration of self-identification is linked to, among other things, whether prior opportunities existed to discover the violation, and if so, the age and number of such opportunities; the extent to which proper contractor controls should have identified or prevented the violation; whether discovery of the violation resulted from a contractor's self-monitoring activity; the extent of DOE involvement in discovering the violation or in prompting the contractor to identify the violation; and the promptness and completeness of any required report. Self-identification is also considered by DOE in deciding whether to pursue an investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE will use the voluntary Noncompliance Tracking System (NTS) which allows contractors to elect to report noncompliances. In the guidance document supporting the NTS, DOE will establish reporting thresholds for reporting noncompliances of potentially greater worker safety and health significance into the NTS. Contractors are expected, however, to use their own self-tracking systems to track noncompliances below the reporting threshold. This self-tracking is considered to be acceptable self-reporting as long as DOE has access to the contractor's system and the contractor's system notes the item as a noncompliance with a DOE safety and health requirement. For noncompliances that are below the NTS reportability thresholds, DOE will credit contractor self-tracking as representing self-reporting. If an item is not reported in NTS but only tracked in the contractor's system and DOE subsequently determines that the noncompliance was significantly mischaracterized, DOE will not credit the internal tracking as representing appropriate self-reporting. 
</P>
<HD2>6. Self-Disclosing Events
</HD2>
<P>(a) DOE expects contractors to demonstrate acceptance of responsibility for worker safety and health by proactively identifying noncompliances. When the occurrence of an event discloses noncompliances that the contractor could have or should have identified before the event, DOE will not generally reduce civil penalties for self-identification, even if the underlying noncompliances were reported to DOE. In deciding whether to reduce any civil penalty proposed for violations revealed by the occurrence of a self-disclosing event, DOE will consider the ease with which a contractor could have discovered the noncompliance and the prior opportunities that existed to discover the noncompliance. If a contractor simply reacts to events that disclose potentially significant consequences or downplays noncompliances which did not result in significant consequences to worker safety and health, such contractor actions do not constitute the type of proactive behavior necessary to prevent significant events from occurring and thereby to improve worker safety and health.
</P>
<P>(b) The key test is whether the contractor reasonably could have detected any of the underlying noncompliances that contributed to the event. Examples of events that provide opportunities to identify noncompliances include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Prior notifications of potential problems such as those from DOE operational experience publications or vendor equipment deficiency reports;
</P>
<P>(2) Normal surveillance, quality assurance performance assessments, and post-maintenance testing;
</P>
<P>(3) Readily observable parameter trends; and
</P>
<P>(4) Contractor employee or DOE observations of potential worker safety and health problems.
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to utilize these types of events and activities to address noncompliances may result in higher civil penalty assessments or a DOE decision not to reduce civil penalty amounts.
</P>
<P>(d) Alternatively, if, following a self-disclosing event, DOE finds that the contractor's processes and procedures were adequate and the contractor's personnel generally behaved in a manner consistent with the contractor's processes and procedures, DOE could conclude that the contractor could not have been reasonably expected to find the single noncompliance that led to the event and thus, might allow a reduction in civil penalties. 
</P>
<HD2>7. Corrective Action To Prevent Recurrence
</HD2>
<P>The promptness (or lack thereof) and extent to which the DOE contractor takes corrective action, including actions to identify root cause and prevent recurrence, may result in an increase or decrease in the base civil penalty shown in Table A-1. For example, appropriate corrective action may result in DOE's reducing the proposed civil penalty up to 50% from the base value shown in Table A-1. On the other hand, the civil penalty may be increased if initiation of corrective action is not prompt or if the corrective action is only minimally acceptable. In weighing this factor, consideration will be given to, among other things, the appropriateness, timeliness and degree of initiative associated with the corrective action. The comprehensiveness of the corrective action will also be considered, taking into account factors such as whether the action is focused narrowly to the specific violation or broadly to the general area of concern. 
</P>
<HD2>8. DOE's Contribution to a Violation
</HD2>
<P>There may be circumstances in which a violation of a DOE worker safety and health requirement results, in part or entirely, from a direction given by DOE personnel to a DOE contractor to either take or forbear from taking an action at a DOE facility. In such cases, DOE may refrain from issuing an NOV, or may mitigate, either partially or entirely, any proposed civil penalty, provided that the direction upon which the DOE contractor relied is documented in writing, contemporaneously with the direction. It should be emphasized, however, that pursuant to 10 CFR 851.7, interpretative ruling of a requirement of this part must be issued in accordance with the provisions of 851.7 to be binding. Further, as discussed above in this policy statement, lack of funding by itself will not be considered as a mitigating factor in enforcement actions. 
</P>
<HD2>9. Exercise of Discretion
</HD2>
<P>Because DOE wants to encourage and support DOE contractor initiative for prompt self-identification, reporting and correction of noncompliances, DOE may exercise discretion as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) In accordance with the previous discussion, DOE may refrain from issuing a civil penalty for a violation that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The violation is promptly identified and reported to DOE before DOE learns of it or the violation is identified by a DOE independent assessment, inspection or other formal program effort.
</P>
<P>(2) The violation is not willful or is not a violation that could reasonably be expected to have been prevented by the DOE contractor's corrective action for a previous violation.
</P>
<P>(3) The DOE contractor, upon discovery of the violation, has taken or begun to take prompt and appropriate action to correct the violation.
</P>
<P>(4) The DOE contractor has taken, or has agreed to take, remedial action satisfactory to DOE to preclude recurrence of the violation and the underlying conditions that caused it.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will not issue a Notice of Violation for cases in which the violation discovered by the DOE contractor cannot reasonably be linked to the conduct of that contractor in the design, construction or operation of the DOE facility involved, provided that prompt and appropriate action is taken by the DOE contractor upon identification of the past violation to report to DOE and remedy the problem.
</P>
<P>(c) In situations where corrective actions have been completed before termination of an inspection or assessment, a formal response from the contractor is not required and the inspection report serves to document the violation and the corrective action. However, in all instances, the contractor is required to report the noncompliance through established reporting mechanisms so the noncompliance and any corrective actions can be properly tracked and monitored.
</P>
<P>(d) If DOE initiates an enforcement action for a violation, and as part of the corrective action for that violation, the DOE contractor identifies other examples of the violation with the same root cause, DOE may refrain from initiating an additional enforcement action. In determining whether to exercise this discretion, DOE will consider whether the DOE contractor acted reasonably and in a timely manner appropriate to the severity of the initial violation, the comprehensiveness of the corrective action, whether the matter was reported, and whether the additional violation(s) substantially change the significance or character of the concern arising out of the initial violation.
</P>
<P>(e) The preceding paragraphs are examples indicating when enforcement discretion may be exercised to forego the issuance of a civil penalty or, in some cases, the initiation of any enforcement action at all. However, notwithstanding these examples, a civil penalty may be proposed or Notice of Violation issued when, in DOE's judgment, such action is warranted. 
</P>
<HD1>X. Inaccurate and Incomplete Information
</HD1>
<P>(a) A violation of the worker safety and health requirements to provide complete and accurate information to DOE, 10 CFR 851.40, can result in the full range of enforcement sanctions, depending upon the circumstances of the particular case and consideration of the factors discussed in this section. Violations involving inaccurate or incomplete information or the failure to provide significant information identified by a DOE contractor normally will be categorized based on the guidance in section IX, “Enforcement Actions.”
</P>
<P>(b) DOE recognizes that oral information may in some situations be inherently less reliable than written submittals because of the absence of an opportunity for reflection and management review. However, DOE must be able to rely on oral communications from officials of DOE contractors concerning significant information. In determining whether to take enforcement action for an oral statement, consideration will be given to such factors as:
</P>
<P>(1) The degree of knowledge that the communicator should have had regarding the matter in view of his or her position, training, and experience;
</P>
<P>(2) The opportunity and time available prior to the communication to assure the accuracy or completeness of the information;
</P>
<P>(3) The degree of intent or negligence, if any, involved;
</P>
<P>(4) The formality of the communication;
</P>
<P>(5) The reasonableness of DOE reliance on the information;
</P>
<P>(6) The importance of the information that was wrong or not provided; and
</P>
<P>(7) The reasonableness of the explanation for not providing complete and accurate information.
</P>
<P>(c) Absent gross negligence or willfulness, an incomplete or inaccurate oral statement normally will not be subject to enforcement action unless it involves significant information provided by an official of a DOE contractor. However, enforcement action may be taken for an unintentionally incomplete or inaccurate oral statement provided to DOE by an official of a DOE contractor or others on behalf of the DOE contractor, if a record was made of the oral information and provided to the DOE contractor thereby permitting an opportunity to correct the oral information, such as if a transcript of the communication or meeting summary containing the error was made available to the DOE contractor and was not subsequently corrected in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(d) When a DOE contractor has corrected inaccurate or incomplete information, the decision to issue a citation for the initial inaccurate or incomplete information normally will be dependent on the circumstances, including the ease of detection of the error, the timeliness of the correction, whether DOE or the DOE contractor identified the problem with the communication, and whether DOE relied on the information prior to the correction. Generally, if the matter was promptly identified and corrected by the DOE contractor prior to reliance by DOE, or before DOE raised a question about the information, no enforcement action will be taken for the initial inaccurate or incomplete information. On the other hand, if the misinformation is identified after DOE relies on it, or after some question is raised regarding the accuracy of the information, then some enforcement action normally will be taken even if it is in fact corrected.
</P>
<P>(e) If the initial submission was accurate when made but later turns out to be erroneous because of newly discovered information or advances in technology, a citation normally would not be appropriate if, when the new information became available, the initial submission was promptly corrected.
</P>
<P>(f) The failure to correct inaccurate or incomplete information that the DOE contractor does not identify as significant normally will not constitute a separate violation. However, the circumstances surrounding the failure to correct may be considered relevant to the determination of enforcement action for the initial inaccurate or incomplete statement. For example, an unintentionally inaccurate or incomplete submission may be treated as a more severe matter if a DOE contractor later determines that the initial submission was in error and does not promptly correct it or if there were clear opportunities to identify the error.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 6931, Feb. 9, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 66033, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 20, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41795, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96352, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1292, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66084, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 831, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2956, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1064, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2194, Jan. 13, 2023; 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023; 89 FR 1029, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105407, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="860" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 860—TRESPASSING ON DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY PROPERTY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 161, 68 Stat. 948, sec. 229, 70 Stat. 1070; (42 U.S.C. 2201; 2278a); sec. 104, 88 Stat. 1237, sec. 105, 88 Stat. 1238 (42 U.S.C. 5814, 5815); sec. 5, Pub. L. 100-185, 101 Stat. 1279 (18 U.S.C. 3559); sec. 6, Pub. L. 100-185, 101 Stat. 1280 (18 U.S.C. 3571); sec. 7041, Pub. L. 100-690, 102 Stat. 4899 (18 U.S.C. 3559). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 47985, Sept. 14, 1993, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 860.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are issued for the protection and security of facilities, installations and real property subject to the jurisdiction or administration, or in the custody of, the Department of Energy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to all facilities, installations and real property subject to the jurisdiction or administration of the Department of Energy or in its custody which have been posted with a notice of the prohibitions and penalties set forth in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.3   Trespass.</HEAD>
<P>Unauthorized entry upon any facility, installation or real property subject to this part is prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.4   Unauthorized introduction of weapons or dangerous materials.</HEAD>
<P>Unauthorized carrying, transporting, or otherwise introducing or causing to be introduced any dangerous weapon, explosive, or other dangerous instrument or material likely to produce substantial injury or damage to persons or property, into or upon any facility, installation or real property subject to this part, is prohibited. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.5   Violations and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whoever willfully violates either § 860.3 or § 860.4 shall, upon conviction, be guilty of an infraction punishable by a fine of not more than $5,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whoever willfully violates either § 860.3 or § 860.4 with respect to any facility, installation or real property enclosed by a fence, wall, floor, roof, or other structural barrier shall upon conviction, be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor punishable by a fine not to exceed $100,000 or imprisonment for not more than one year, or both. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.6   Posting.</HEAD>
<P>Notices stating the pertinent prohibitions of §§ 860.3 and 860.4 and penalties of § 860.5 will be conspicuously posted at all entrances of each designated facility, installation or parcel of real property and at such intervals along the perimeter as will provide reasonable assurance of notice to persons about to enter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33.0.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.7   Effective date of prohibition on designated locations.</HEAD>
<P>The prohibitions in §§ 860.3 and 860.4 shall take effect as to any facility, installation or real property on publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the notice designating the facility, installation or real property and posting in accordance with § 860.6. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 860.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.33.0.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 860.8   Applicability of other laws.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to affect the applicability of the provisions of State or other Federal laws.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="861" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 861—CONTROL OF TRAFFIC AT NEVADA TEST SITE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>41 FR 56788, Dec. 30, 1976, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 861.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are designed to facilitate the control of traffic at the Nevada Test Site. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all persons who use the streets of the Nevada Test Site. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nevada Test Site</I> means DOE's Nevada Test Site located in Nye County, Nev. A perimeter description is attached as Appendix A to this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nevada Test Site Traffic Regulations</I> means the traffic directives promulgated by the Manager of the Nevada Site Office pursuant to § 861.4.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Person</I> means every natural person, firm, trust partnership, association or corporation. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Street</I> means the entire width between the boundary lines of every way when any part thereof is open to the use of those admitted to the Nevada Test Site for purposes of vehicular travel. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Traffic</I> means pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, and other conveyances, either singly or together, while using any roadway for purposes of travel. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Vehicle</I> means every device in, upon or by which any person or property is or may be transported or drawn upon a roadway, excepting devices moved by human power or used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56788, Dec. 30, 1976, as amended at 71 FR 68734, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.4   Use of site streets.</HEAD>
<P>All persons using the streets of the Nevada Test Site shall do so in a careful and safe manner. 
</P>
<P>(a) The Nevada Test Site Traffic Regulations supplement this section by identifying the specific traffic requirements relating to such matters as: 
</P>
<P>(1) Enforcement and obedience to Traffic Regulations, including the authority of police officers and traffic regulations, and responsibility to report accidents. 
</P>
<P>(2) Traffic signs, signals, and markings, including required compliance with traffic lanes and traffic control devices, and prohibitions on display of unauthorized traffic signs, signals, or marking or interference with authorized traffic control devices. 
</P>
<P>(3) Speeding or driving under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs, including prohibitions on reckless driving, and promulgation of maximum permissible speeds. 
</P>
<P>(4) Turning movements, including required position and method of turning at intersections, limitations on turning around, and obedience to turning markers and no-turn signs. 
</P>
<P>(5) Stopping and yielding, including obedience to stop and yield signs, requirements, when entering stop or yield intersections, emerging from alleys, driveways, or buildings, operation of vehicles on approach of authorized emergency vehicles and stops when traffic is obstructed. 
</P>
<P>(6) Pedestrians' rights and duties, including pedestrian's right-of-way in crosswalks, when a pedestrian must yield, required use or right half of crosswalks and requirements concerning walking along roadways and prohibited pedestrian crossings. 
</P>
<P>(7) Parking, stopping, and standing, specifying when parking, stopping, and standing are prohibited, including special provisions applicable to buses, requirements that parking not obstruct traffic and be close to curb, and concerning lamps on parked vehicles. 
</P>
<P>(8) Privileges of drivers of authorized emergency vehicles, including exemptions from parking and standing, stopping, speeding and turning limitations,
</P>
<FP>under specified circumstances and within specified limitations. 
</FP>
<P>(9) Miscellaneous driving rules, including requirements for convoys, and limitations on backing, opening and closing vehicle doors, following fire apparatus, crossing a fire hose, driving through a safety zone, through convoys, on sidewalks or shoulders of roadways, boarding or alighting from vehicles, passing a bus on the right, and unlawful riding. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Nevada Test Site Traffic Regulations, when posted and distributed as specified in § 861.6, shall have the same force and effect as if made a part hereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.5   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Any person doing any act forbidden or failing to do any act required by the Nevada Test Site Traffic Regulations shall, upon conviction, be punishable by a fine of not more than $50 or imprisonment for not more than 30 days, or both. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.6   Posting and distribution.</HEAD>
<P>Notices including the provisions of the Nevada Test Site Traffic Regulations will be conspicuously posted at the Nevada Test Site. Such other distribution of the Nevada Test Site Regulations will be made by the Manager as will provide reasonable assurance of notice to persons subject to the regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 861.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34.0.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 861.7   Applicability of other laws.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to affect the applicability of the provisions of State laws or of other Federal laws. 








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.34.0.16.8.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 861—Perimeter Description of DOE's Nevada Test Site
</HEAD>
<P>The Nevada Test Site, containing approximately 858,764 acres located in Nye County, Nev., is described as follows: 
</P>
<FP-1>Beginning at the northwesterly corner of the tract of land hereinafter described, said corner being at latitude 37°20′45″, longitude 116°34′20″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence easterly approximately 6.73 miles, to a point at latitude 37°20′45″ longitude 116°27′00″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence northeasterly approximately 4.94 miles to a point at latitude 37°23′07″, longitude 116°22′30″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence easterly approximately 4.81 miles to a point at latitude 37°23′07″, longitude 116°17′15″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence southeasterly approximately 6.77 miles to a point at latitude 37°19′47″, longitude 116°11′10″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence southerly approximately 5.27 miles to a point at latitude 37°15′12.043″, longitude 116°11′10″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence easterly approximately 14.21 miles to a point at latitude 37°15′07.268″, longitude 115°55′42.268″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence southerly approximately 39.52 miles to a point at latitude 36°40′43.752″, longitude 115°55′37.687″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence westerly approximately 2.87 miles to a point at latitude 36°40′40.227″, longitude 115°58′43.956″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence southerly approximately 5.23 miles to a point at latitude 36°36′07.317″, longitude 115°58′41.227″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence southwesterly along a perimeter distance approximately 5.82 miles to a point at latitude 36°34′39.754″, longitude 116°04′11.167″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence northerly approximately 3.20 miles to a point at latitude 36°37′26.804″, longitude 116°04′11.355″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence northwesterly approximately 5.16 miles to a point at latitude 36°40′28.854″, longitude 116°08′17.749″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence westerly approximately 8.63 miles to a point at latitude 36°40′23.246″, longitude 116°17′37.466″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence southerly approximately 0.19 mile to a point at latitude 36°40′13.330″, longitude 116°17′37.461″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence westerly approximately 8.49 miles to a point at latitude 36°40′13.666″, longitude 116°26′47.915″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence northerly approximately 32.87 miles to a point at latitude 37°08′50″, longitude 116°26′44.125″; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Thence northwesterly approximately 15.37 miles to a point at latitude 37°20′45″, longitude 116°34′20″, the point of beginning herein. 
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 56788, Dec. 30, 1978, as amended at 44 FR 37939, June 29, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="862" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 862—RESTRICTIONS ON AIRCRAFT LANDING AND AIR DELIVERY AT DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY NUCLEAR SITES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201(b), 2201(i) and 2278(a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 29838, Aug. 12, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 862.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.35.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set forth Department of Energy, hereinafter “DOE”, security policy regarding aircraft and air delivery on nuclear sites under the jurisdiction of DOE pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.35.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all persons or aircraft entering or otherwise within or above areas within the boundaries of lands or waters subject to the jursidiction, administration, or in the custody of the DOE at sites designated by DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) This part is not applicable to:
</P>
<P>(1) Aircraft operating pursuant to official business of the Federal Government; 
</P>
<P>(2) Aircraft over-flying or in the process of landing pursuant to official business of a state or local law enforcement authority with prior notification to DOE; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Aircraft in the process of landing on a DOE site due to circumstances beyond the control of the operator and with prior notification to DOE, if possible.
</P>
<P>(c) Aircraft in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section are within the scope of this part upon landing at a DOE designated site.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.35.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Air delivery.</I> Delivering or retrieving a person or object by airborne means, including but not limited to, aircraft.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aircraft.</I> A manned a unmanned device or any portion thereof, that is commonly used or intended to be used for flight in the air, including powerless flight. Such devices include but are not limited to any parachute, hovercraft, helicopter, glider, airplane or lighter than air vehicle.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Boundary.</I> A delineation on a map of Federal interest in land or water utilized by DOE pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended:
</P>
<P>(1) Authorized by Congress, or
</P>
<P>(2) Published pursuant to law in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or
</P>
<P>(3) Filed or recorded with a State or political subdivision in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Designated site.</I> An area of land or water identified in accordance with § 862.7 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Downed aircraft.</I> An aircraft that is on a designated site due to emergency landing or for any other reason. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Manager of Operations.</I> The manager of a DOE field office, the Manager of the Pittsburgh Naval Reactors Office, the Manager of the Schnectady Naval Reactors Office and, for designated sites administered directly by DOE Headquarters, the Chief Health, Safety and Security Officer. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 29838, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 71 FR 68734, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.35.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.4   Prohibitions and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following activities are prohibited by his part: 
</P>
<P>(1) Operation or use of aircraft on lands or waters of designated sites. 
</P>
<P>(2) Air delivery to or from designated sites. 
</P>
<P>(3) Removal or movement of downed aircraft, or participation in the removal or movement of downed aircraft, from or on a designated site unless prior authorization is obtained pursuant to § 862.5 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to remove a downed aircraft from a designated site in accordance with an order issued by the cognizant DOE Manager of Operations under § 862.5 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(5) Violation of Federal Aviation Administration regulations regarding minimum altitudes and prohibited flight maneuvers over a designated site. 
</P>
<P>(b) A person willfully engaging in activities prohibited by this part may be subject to the imposition of criminal penalties set forth in sections 223 and 229 of the Atomic Energy Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2273 and 2278(a)). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.35.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.5   Procedures for removal of downed aircraft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An aircraft on or brought on to a designated site, except as provided in § 862.2 (b)(1), shall not be moved within or removed from such areas except as provided for in this section. All such aircraft are subject to full inspection by DOE security personnel upon landing upon order of the Manager of Operations or his designee. Any attempt to depart or remove the aircraft from a designated site without clearance obtained pursuant to this section, may be assumed to be indicative of hostile intent by security forces at such sites. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The cognizant DOE Manager of Operations for a designated site may, on his own initiative, issue a written order to the owner or operator of a downed aircraft to require the removal of that aircraft from the site within 20 days of this notice. Such an order shall specify: 
</P>
<P>(i) The date upon which removal operations must be completed; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The times and means of access to and from the downed aircraft to be removed; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The manner of removal; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) An estimate of the cost of removal to DOE for which the owner or operator will be held liable if removal is accomplished by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(2) The owner or operator of the downed aircraft may file a written petition, supported by affidavits, to the cognizant Manager of Operations requesting that the order be modified or set aside. The petition may be granted by the Manager of Operations for good cause shown, upon a finding that it is clearly consistent with the national security, public safety, and federal property interests. Such petition must be filed at least 10 days prior to the date upon which removal is to be initiated, as specified in the order. The written decision of the Manager of Operations shall be a final agency action. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The owner of a downed aircraft may petition the cognizant Manager of Operations of permission to move or remove the downed aircraft from or within a designated site. The petition must provide assurances that the owner will fully compensate DOE for all costs incurred or damages experienced as a result of landing or removal through a contact for services. The Manager of Operations may, for good cause shown, waive part or all of the compensation which might otherwise be due DOE. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Manager of Operations may deny such petition in whole or part and prohibit removal of a downed aircraft upon finding that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The removal of a downed aircraft would create an unacceptable safety or security risk; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The removal of a downed aircraft would result in excessive resource loss of property damage or an unacceptable disruption of federal activities; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The removal of downed aircraft is impracticable or impossible;
</P>
<P>(iv) The owner has failed to provide adequate assurances that all costs incurred or damages experienced by DOE due to landing or removal of aircraft will be fully paid immediately upon removal by the owner under a contract for services;
</P>
<P>(v) An inspection of the aircraft has not been conducted by DOE security personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event that such petition is granted in whole or part, the cognizant Manager of Operations may issue an order, as set forth in (b)(1) (i) through (iv) of this section. In the event that a petition is denied in whole or part, the Manager of Operations shall issue a written decision which shall set forth the reasons for such denial.
</P>
<P>(d) Failure to comply with an order issued by the Manager of Operations pursuant to this section is basis for DOE to consider the downed aircraft to be abandoned property. DOE may take whatever measures it deems necessary when it determines that downed aircraft is abandoned property.
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the Manager of Operations may move or remove a downed aircraft from such an area upon oral or written notification to the owner or operator of such aircraft upon a finding that national security or operational requirements necessitate expedited movement or removal. The owner or operator may be held jointly and separately liable for all expenses incurred by DOE in the movement or removal of such aircraft. Such expenses shall be deemed to be incurred through an implied contract at law for services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.35.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.6   Voluntary minimum altitude.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to complying with all applicable FAA prohibitions or restrictions, aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the terrain of a designated site. Applicable FAA prohibitions or restrictions take precedence over this voluntary minimum altitude.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 862.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.35.0.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 862.7   Designation of sites.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall designate sites covered by this part as deemed necessary, consistent with the national security and public safety, through notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) This part shall be effective as to any facility, installation, or real property on publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the notice designating the site.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon designation of a site, the cognizant Manager of Operations may inform the public of such designation through press release or posting of notice at airfields in the vicinity of the designated site.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="871" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 871—AIR TRANSPORTATION OF PLUTONIUM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 94-187, 88 Stat. 1077, 1078 (42 U.S.C. 2391 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Reorganization Act, Pub. L. 93-438, 88 Stat. 1233 (42 U.S.C. 5801 <I>et seq.</I>); secs. 2, 3, 91, 123, and 161 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 48332, Sept. 23, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 871.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.36.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 871.1   National security exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following DOE air shipments of plutonium are considered as being made for the purposes of national security within the meaning of section 502(2) of Public Law 94-187: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shipments made in support of the development, production, testing, sampling, maintenance, repair, modification, or retirement of atomic weapons or devices; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shipments made pursuant to international agreements for cooperation for mutual defense purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Shipments necessary to respond to an emergency situation involving a possible threat to the national security. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Deputy Administrator for Defense Programs may authorize air shipments falling within paragraph (a)(1) of this section, on a case-by-case basis: <I>Provided</I>, That the Deputy Administrator for Defense Programs determines that such shipment is required to be made by aircraft either because:
</P>
<P>(1) The delay resulting from using ground transportation methods would have serious adverse impact upon a national security requirement; 
</P>
<P>(2) Safeguards or safety considerations dictate the use of air transportation; 
</P>
<P>(3) The nature of the item to be shipped necessitates the use of air transportation in order to avoid possible damage which may be expected from other available transportation environments; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The nature of the item being shipped necessitates rapid shipment by air in order to preserve the chemical, physical, or isotopic properties of the item.
</P>
<FP>The Deputy Administrator for Defense Programs may also authorize air shipments falling within paragraph (a)(2) of this section in all cases since the inherent time delays of surface transportation for such shipments are considered unacceptable. The Deputy Administrator for Defense Programs may also authorize air shipments falling within paragraph (a)(3) of this section in cases where failure to make shipments by air could jeopardize the national security of the United States. 
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 48332, Sept. 23, 1977, as amended at 71 FR 68734, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 871.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.36.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 871.2   Public health and safety exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The Deputy Administrator for Defense Programs may authorize, on a case-by-case basis, DOE air shipments of plutonium where the Deputy Administrator determines that rapid shipment by air is required to respond to an emergency situation involving possible loss of life, serious personal injuries, considerable property damage, or other significant threat to the public health and safety. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 48332, Sept. 23, 1977, as amended at 71 FR 68734, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 871.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.36.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 871.3   Records.</HEAD>
<P>Determinations made by the Deputy Administrator for Defense Programs pursuant to these rules shall be matters of record. Such authorizations shall be reported to the Administrator of the National Nuclear Security Administration within twenty-four hours after authorization is granted. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 48332, Sept. 23, 1977, as amended at 71 FR 68734, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 871.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.36.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 871.4   Limitation on redelegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The authority delegated in this part may not be redelegated without the prior approval of the Administrator of the National Nuclear Security Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 48332, Sept. 23, 1977, as amended at 71 FR 68734, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="900" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 900—COORDINATION OF FEDERAL AUTHORIZATIONS FOR ELECTRIC TRANSMISSION FACILITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>16 U.S.C. 824p(h).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 35367, May 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 900.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 216(h) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824p(h)), the Department of Energy (DOE) establishes the Coordinated Interagency Transmission Authorizations and Permits Program (CITAP Program) under this part to coordinate the review and processes related to Federal authorizations necessary to site a proposed electric transmission facility. Pursuant to section 216(h)(4)(A), this part establishes the mechanism by which DOE will set prompt and binding intermediate milestones and ultimate deadlines for the processes related to deciding whether to issue such authorizations. In addition, as the lead agency and in collaboration with any National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) joint lead agency and in consultation with the relevant Federal entities, as applicable, DOE will prepare a single environmental review document, which will be designed to serve the needs of all relevant Federal agencies and inform all Federal authorization decisions on the proposed electric transmission project.
</P>
<P>(b) This part provides a process for the timely submission of information needed for Federal decisions related to authorizations for siting proposed electric transmission projects. This part seeks to ensure that these projects are developed consistent with the nation's environmental laws, including laws that address endangered and threatened species, critical habitats, and cultural and historic properties. This part provides a framework, called the Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process, by which DOE will coordinate submission of materials necessary for Federal authorizations and related environmental reviews required under Federal law to site proposed electric transmission facilities, and integrates the IIP Process into the CITAP Program.
</P>
<P>(c) This part describes the timing and procedures for the IIP Process, which should be initiated prior to a project proponent's submission of any application for a required Federal authorization. The IIP Process provides for timely and focused pre-application meetings with relevant Federal and non-Federal entities. In addition, the IIP Process facilitates early identification of potential siting constraints and opportunities. The IIP Process promotes thorough and consistent stakeholder engagement by a project proponent. At the close-out of each IIP Process, DOE will establish the schedule for all Federal reviews and authorizations required to site a proposed electric transmission facility, in coordination with the relevant Federal entities.
</P>
<P>(d) This part improves the Federal permitting process by facilitating the early submission, compilation, and documentation of information needed for coordinated review by relevant Federal entities under the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I>). This part also facilitates expeditious action on necessary Federal authorizations by ensuring that relevant Federal entities coordinate their consideration of those applications and by providing non-Federal entities the opportunity to coordinate their non-Federal permitting and environmental reviews with the reviews of the relevant Federal entities.
</P>
<P>(e) This part facilitates improved and earlier coordination of and consultation between relevant Federal entities, relevant non-Federal entities, and others pursuant to section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act (54 U.S.C. 306108) (NHPA) and its implementing regulations found at 36 CFR part 800. Under this part, DOE may determine it has an undertaking with the potential to affect historic properties and may, at that time, authorize a project proponent, as a CITAP applicant, to initiate section 106 consultation for the undertaking consistent with 36 CFR 800.2(c)(4). Prior to that determination, this part requires project proponents to gather initial information and make recommendations relevant to the section 106 process to the extent possible. This part also establishes DOE as lead for the section 106 process, consistent with DOE's role as lead or joint lead agency for purposes of NEPA, in order to maximize opportunities for coordination between the NEPA and section 106 processes. Federal entities remain responsible for government-to-government consultation with Indian Tribes (and government-to-sovereign consultation in the context of Native Hawaiian relations) and for any findings and determinations required by and reserved to Federal agencies in 36 CFR part 800.
</P>
<P>(f) This part applies only to qualifying projects as defined by § 900.2.
</P>
<P>(g) Participation in the IIP Process does not alter any requirements to obtain necessary Federal authorizations for proposed electric transmission projects. Nor does this part alter any responsibilities of the relevant Federal entities for environmental review or consultation under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(h) The Director may waive any requirement imposed on a project proponent under this part if, in the Director's discretion, the Director determines that the requirement is unnecessary, duplicative, or impracticable under the circumstances relevant to the proposed electric transmission project. Where the principal project developer is itself a Federal entity that would be otherwise expected to prepare an environmental review document for the project, the Director shall consider modifications to the requirements under this part as may be necessary under the circumstances.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Analysis area</I> means a geographical area established for a resource report at the IIP Process initial meeting and modified at the IIP Process review meeting, if applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Authorization</I> means any license, permit, approval, finding, determination, or other administrative decision required under Federal, Tribal, State, or local law to site a proposed electric transmission facility, including special use authorization, certifications, opinions, or other approvals.
</P>
<P><I>Communities of Interest</I> means the following communities that could be affected by a proposed electric transmission project: disadvantaged communities; rural communities; Tribal communities; indigenous communities; geographically proximate communities; communities with environmental justice concerns; and energy communities.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the DOE Grid Deployment Office, that person's delegate, or another DOE official designated to perform the functions of this part by the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Federal authorization</I> means any authorization required under Federal law.
</P>
<P><I>Federal entity</I> means any Federal agency or department.
</P>
<P><I>Indian Tribe</I> has the same meaning as provided by 25 U.S.C. 5304(e).
</P>
<P><I>Mitigation approach</I> means an approach that applies a conceptual plan to identify appropriate measures to avoid, minimize, or compensate for potential impacts to resources from a proposed electric transmission project, consistent with 40 CFR 1508.1(s) or any successor regulation. A mitigation approach identifies the needs and baseline conditions of targeted resources, potential impacts from the proposed project, cumulative impacts of past and reasonably foreseeable future disturbances to those resources, and future disturbance trends, then uses this information to identify priorities for measures across the relevant area. Such an approach includes full consideration of the conditions of additionality (meaning that the benefits of a compensatory mitigation measure improve upon the baseline conditions in a manner that is demonstrably new and would not have occurred without the mitigation measure) and durability (meaning that the effectiveness of a mitigation measure is sustained for the duration of the associated direct and indirect impacts).
</P>
<P><I>MOU signatory agency</I> means a Federal entity that has entered into the currently effective memorandum of understanding (MOU) under section 216(h)(7)(B)(i) of the Federal Power Act, such as the interagency MOU executed in May 2023, titled “Memorandum of Understanding among the U.S. Department of Agriculture, Department of Commerce, Department of Defense, Department of Energy, the Environmental Protection Agency, the Council on Environmental Quality, the Federal Permitting Improvement Steering Council, Department of the Interior, and the Office of Management and Budget Regarding Facilitating Federal Authorizations for Electric Transmission Facilities.”
</P>
<P><I>NEPA joint lead agency</I> means the Federal entity designated under § 900.11.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Federal entity</I> means an Indian Tribe, multi-State governmental entity, State agency, or local government agency.
</P>
<P><I>Participating agencies</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department of Agriculture (USDA);
</P>
<P>(2) The Department of Commerce;
</P>
<P>(3) The Department of Defense (DOD);
</P>
<P>(4) The Department of Energy;
</P>
<P>(5) The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA);
</P>
<P>(6) The Council on Environmental Quality;
</P>
<P>(7) The Office of Management and Budget;
</P>
<P>(8) The Department of the Interior (DOI);
</P>
<P>(9) The Federal Permitting Improvement Steering Council (FPISC);
</P>
<P>(10) Other agencies and offices as the Secretary of Energy may from time to time invite to participate; and
</P>
<P>(11) The following independent agencies, to the extent consistent with their statutory authority and obligations, and determined by the chair or executive director of each agency, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Advisory Council on Historic Preservation.
</P>
<P><I>Potentially affected landowner</I> means an owner of a real property interest that is potentially affected directly (<I>e.g.,</I> crossed or used) or indirectly (<I>e.g.,</I> changed in use) by a project right-of-way, potential route, or proposed ancillary or access site, as identified in § 900.6.
</P>
<P><I>Project area</I> means the area located between the two end points of the proposed electric transmission facility containing the study corridors selected by the project proponent for in-depth consideration for the proposed project and the immediate surroundings of the end points of the proposed facility. The project area does not necessarily coincide with “permit area,” “area of potential effect,” “action area,” or other terms specific to a certain type of regulatory review.
</P>
<P><I>Project proponent</I> means a person or entity who initiates the IIP Process in anticipation of seeking a Federal authorization for a proposed electric transmission project.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying project</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A proposed electric transmission line and its attendant facilities:
</P>
<P>(i) That will either be a high-voltage (230 kV or above) line or a regionally or nationally significant line, as determined by DOE based upon relevant factors, including but not limited to, reduction in congestion costs for generating and delivering energy, mitigation of weather and variable generation uncertainty, and enhanced diversity of supply;
</P>
<P>(ii) Which is expected to be used, in whole or in part, for the transmission of electric energy in interstate or international commerce for sale at wholesale;
</P>
<P>(iii) Which is expected to require preparation of an environmental impact statement (EIS) pursuant to NEPA to inform an agency decision on a Federal authorization;
</P>
<P>(iv) Which is not proposed for authorization under section 8(p) of the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act (43 U.S.C. 1337(p));
</P>
<P>(v) Which is not seeking a construction or modification permit from FERC pursuant to section 216(b) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824p(b)); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Which will not be wholly located within the Electric Reliability Council of Texas interconnection; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other proposed electric transmission facility that is approved by the Director under the process set out in § 900.3.
</P>
<P><I>Relevant Federal entity</I> means a Federal entity with jurisdictional interests that may have an effect on a proposed electric transmission project, that is responsible for issuing a Federal authorization for the proposed project, that has relevant expertise with respect to environmental and other issues pertinent to or potentially affected by the proposed project, or that provides funding for the proposed project. The term includes participating agencies. The term includes a Federal entity with either permitting or non-permitting authority; for example, those entities with which consultation or review must be completed before a project may commence, such as DOD for an examination of military test, training, or operational impacts.
</P>
<P><I>Relevant non-Federal entity</I> means a non-Federal entity with relevant expertise or jurisdiction within the project area, that is responsible for issuing an authorization for the proposed electric transmission project, that has relevant expertise with respect to environmental and other issues pertinent to or potentially affected by the proposed project, or that provides funding for the proposed project. The term includes an entity with either permitting or non-permitting authority, such as an Indian Tribe, Native Hawaiian Organization, or State or Tribal Historic Preservation Office with whom consultation must be completed in accordance with section 106 of the NHPA prior to approval of a permit, right-of-way, or other authorization required for a Federal authorization.
</P>
<P><I>Route</I> means an area along a linear path within which a proposed electric transmission facility could be sited that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Wide enough to allow minor adjustments in the alignment of the proposed facility to avoid sensitive features or to accommodate potential engineering constraints; and
</P>
<P>(2) Narrow enough to allow detailed study.
</P>
<P><I>Stakeholder</I> means any relevant non-Federal entity, interested non-governmental organization, potentially affected landowner, or other interested person or organization.
</P>
<P><I>Study corridor</I> means a contiguous area (not to exceed one mile in width) within the project area where potential routes or route segments may be considered for further study. A study corridor does not necessarily coincide with “permit area,” “area of potential effect,” “action area,” or other defined terms of art that are specific to types of regulatory review.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.3   Applicability to other projects.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following the procedures set out in this section, the Director may determine that a proposed electric transmission facility that does not meet the description of a <I>qualifying project</I> under paragraph (1) of the definition in § 900.2 is a <I>qualifying project</I> under paragraph (2) of the definition.
</P>
<P>(b) A requestor seeking DOE assistance under this part for a proposed electric transmission facility that does not meet the description of a <I>qualifying project</I> under paragraph (1) of the definition in § 900.2 must file a request for coordination with the Director. The request must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal name of the requester; its principal place of business; and the name, title, and mailing address of the person or persons to whom communications concerning the request for coordination are to be addressed;
</P>
<P>(2) A concise description of the proposed facility sufficient to explain its scope and purpose;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of anticipated relevant Federal entities involved in the proposed facility; and
</P>
<P>(4) A list of anticipated relevant non-Federal entities involved in the proposed facility, including any agency serial or docket numbers for pending applications.
</P>
<P>(c) Not later than 30 calendar days after the date that the Director receives a request under this section, the Director, in consultation with the relevant Federal entities, will determine if the proposed electric transmission facility is a qualifying project under this part and will notify the project proponent in writing of one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If accepted, that the proposed facility is a qualifying project and the project proponent must submit an initiation request as set forth under § 900.5; or
</P>
<P>(2) If not accepted, that the proposed facility is not a qualifying project, a justification of that determination, and an indication that the project proponent must follow the procedures of each relevant Federal entity that has jurisdiction over the proposed facility without DOE performing a coordinating function.
</P>
<P>(d) In making the determination whether a proposed electric transmission facility is a qualifying project, the Director may consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the proposed facility would benefit from CITAP Program coordination;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the proposed facility would result in reduced congestion costs for generating and delivering energy;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the proposed facility would result in mitigation of weather and variable generation uncertainty;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the proposed facility would result in an enhanced diversity of supply; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other relevant factors, as determined by the Director.
</P>
<P>(e) For a proposed facility that is seeking a construction or modification permit pursuant to section 216(b) of the Federal Power Act, DOE may only consider a request for assistance under this section if the request under paragraph (b) of this section is consistent with Delegation Order No. S1-DEL-FERC-2006 or any similar, subsequent delegation that the Secretary may order.
</P>
<P>(f) At the discretion of the MOU signatory agencies, this section may be applied to a proposed electric transmission facility proposed for authorization under section 8(p) of the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act, if the proposed authorization is independent of any generation project.
</P>
<P>(g) This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) A proposed electric transmission facility proposed to be authorized under section 8(p) of the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act in conjunction with a generation project; or
</P>
<P>(2) A proposed electric transmission facility wholly located within the Electric Reliability Council of Texas interconnection.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.4   Purpose and scope of IIP Process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process is intended for a project proponent who has identified potential study corridors or potential routes and the proposed locations of any intermediate substations for a proposed electric transmission project. To the extent possible, the project proponent should use the following criteria to identify potential study corridors and potential routes:
</P>
<P>(1) Potential environmental, visual, historic, cultural, economic, social, or health effects or harm based on the proposed project or proposed siting, and anticipated constraints (for instance, pole height and corridor width based on line capacity to improve safety and resiliency of the project);
</P>
<P>(2) Potential cultural resources, sacred sites, and historic properties that may be eligible for or listed in the National Register of Historic Places;
</P>
<P>(3) Areas under (or potentially under) special protection by State or Federal statute and areas subject to a Federal entity or non-Federal entity decision that could potentially increase the time needed for project evaluation and siting a transmission line route. Such areas may include, but are not limited to, properties or sites that may be of traditional religious or cultural importance to Indian Tribes, National Scenic and Historic Trails, National Landscape Conservation System units managed by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM), Land and Water Conservation Fund lands, National Wildlife Refuges, national monuments, National Historic Landmarks, units of the National Park System, national marine sanctuaries, and marine national monuments;
</P>
<P>(4) Opportunities to site potential routes through designated corridors, previously disturbed lands, and lands with existing infrastructure as a means of potentially reducing impacts and known conflicts as well as the time needed for affected Federal land managers to evaluate an application for a Federal authorization if the route is sited through such areas (<I>e.g.,</I> colocation with existing infrastructure or location on previously disturbed lands, in energy corridors designated by the Department of the Interior or the Department of Agriculture under section 503 of the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (Pub. L. 94-579) or section 368 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (Pub. L. 109-58), existing rights-of-way, National Interest Electric Transmission Corridors designated under Federal Power Act section 216(a), or utility corridors identified in a land management plan);
</P>
<P>(5) Potential constraints caused by impacts on military test, training, and operational missions, including impacts on installations, ranges, and airspace;
</P>
<P>(6) Potential constraints caused by impacts on the United States' aviation system;
</P>
<P>(7) Potential constraints caused by impacts to navigable waters of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(8) Potential avoidance, minimization, offsetting, and compensatory (onsite and offsite) measures, developed through a mitigation approach to reduce or offset the potential impact of the proposed project to resources requiring mitigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Participation in the IIP Process is a prerequisite for the coordination provided by DOE between relevant Federal entities, relevant non-Federal entities, and the project proponent.
</P>
<P>(c) The IIP Process ensures early interaction between the project proponents, relevant Federal entities, and relevant non-Federal entities to enhance early understanding by those entities. Through the IIP Process, the project proponent will provide relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities with a clear description of the proposed electric transmission project, the project proponent's siting process, and the environmental and community setting being considered by the project proponent for siting the proposed electric transmission facility; and will coordinate with relevant Federal entities to develop resource reports that will serve as inputs, as appropriate, into the relevant Federal analyses and facilitate early identification of project issues.
</P>
<P>(d) The IIP Process is an iterative process anchored by three meetings: the initial meeting, review meeting, and close-out meeting. These meetings, defined in §§ 900.5, 900.8 and 900.9, are milestones in the process and do not preclude any additional meetings or communications between the project proponent and the relevant Federal entities. The iterative nature of the process is provided for in procedures for evaluating the completeness of submitted materials and the suitability of materials for the relevant Federal entities' decision-making before each milestone.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE, in exercising its responsibilities under this part, will communicate regularly with FERC, electric reliability organizations and electric transmission organizations approved by FERC, relevant Federal entities, and project proponents. DOE will use information technologies to provide opportunities for relevant Federal entities to participate remotely.
</P>
<P>(f) DOE, in exercising its responsibilities under this part, will to the maximum extent practicable and consistent with Federal law, coordinate the IIP Process with any relevant non-Federal entities. DOE will use information technologies to provide opportunities and reduce burdens for relevant non-Federal entities to participate remotely.
</P>
<P>(g) The Director may at any time require the project proponent to provide additional information necessary to resolve issues raised by the IIP Process.
</P>
<P>(h) Pursuant to 10 CFR 1004.11, any person submitting information during the IIP Process that the person believes to be confidential and exempt by law from public disclosure should submit two well-marked copies, one marked “confidential” that includes all the information believed to be confidential, and one marked “non-confidential” with the information believed to be confidential deleted or redacted. DOE will make its own determination about the confidential status of the information and treat it according to its determination, in accordance with applicable law. The project proponent must request confidential treatment for all material filed with DOE containing non-public location, character, and ownership information about cultural resources.
</P>
<P>(i) Pursuant to 10 CFR 1004.13, any person submitting information during the IIP Process that the person believes might contain Critical Electric Infrastructure Information (CEII) should submit a request for CEII designation of information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.5   Initiation of IIP Process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initiation request.</I> A project proponent shall submit an initiation request to DOE. The project proponent may decide when to submit the initiation request. The initiation request must include, based on best available information:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the proposed electric transmission project, as described by paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Associated maps, geospatial information, and studies (provided in electronic format), as described by paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) A project participation plan, as described by paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) A statement regarding the proposed project's status pursuant to Title 41 of the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act (FAST-41) (42 U.S.C. 4370m-2(b)(2)), as described by paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Summary of the proposed project.</I> The summary of the proposed electric transmission project may not exceed 10 single-spaced pages unless the project proponent requests a waiver of the page limit, including a rationale for the waiver, and DOE grants the waiver. The summary must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The project proponent's legal name and principal place of business;
</P>
<P>(ii) The project proponent's contact information and designated point(s) of contact;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the project proponent is an individual, partnership, corporation, or other entity and, if applicable, the State laws under which the project proponent is organized or authorized; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the project proponent resides or has its principal office outside the United States, documentation related to designation by irrevocable power of attorney of an agent residing within the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the project proponent's interests and objectives;
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent available, copies of or links to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any regional electric transmission planning documents, regional reliability studies, regional congestion or other related studies that relate to the proposed project or the need for the proposed project; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any relevant interconnection requests;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of potential study corridors and routes identified by the project proponent and a brief description of the evaluation criteria and methods used by the project proponent to identify and develop those corridors and routes;
</P>
<P>(5) A brief description of the proposed project, including end points, voltage, ownership, intermediate substations if applicable, and, to the extent known, any information about constraints or flexibility with respect to the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(6) Identification of any environmental and engineering firms and sub-contractors under contract to develop the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(7) The project proponent's proposed schedule for filing necessary Federal and State applications, construction start date, and planned in-service date, assuming receipt of all necessary authorizations; and
</P>
<P>(8) A list of anticipated relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities, including contact information for each Federal agency, State agency, Indian Tribe, or multi-State entity that is responsible for or has a role in issuing an authorization or environmental review for the proposed project.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maps, geospatial information, and studies.</I> The initiation request must include maps, geospatial information, and studies in support of the information provided in the summary of the proposed project under paragraph (b) of this section. Maps must be of sufficient detail to identify the study corridors and potential routes. Project proponents must provide the maps, information, and studies as electronic data files that may be readily accessed by relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities. The maps, information, and studies described in this paragraph (c) must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Location maps and plot plans to scale showing all major components, including a description of zoning and site availability for any permanent facilities; cultural resource location information in these materials should be submitted in accordance with § 900.4(h);
</P>
<P>(2) A map of the project area showing potential study corridors and potential routes;
</P>
<P>(3) Existing data or studies relevant to the summary of the proposed project; and
</P>
<P>(4) Citations identifying sources, data, and analyses used to develop the summary of the proposed project.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Project participation plan.</I> The project participation plan, which may not exceed 10, single-spaced pages, summarizes the outreach that the project proponent conducted prior to submission of the initiation request, and describes the project proponent's planned outreach to communities of interest going forward. A supplemental appendix may be submitted to provide sufficient detail in addition to the narrative elements. The project participation plan must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of prior outreach to communities of interest and stakeholders including:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of what work already has been done, including stakeholder and community outreach and public engagement, as well as any entities and organizations interested in the proposed electric transmission project;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of environmental, engineering, public affairs, other contractors or consultants employed by the proponent to facilitate public outreach;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of any materials provided to the public, such as environmental surveys or studies;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the communities of interest identified and the process by which they were identified;
</P>
<P>(v) A general description of the real property interests that would be impacted by the proposed project and the rights that the owners of those property interests would have under State law; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A summary of comments received during these previous engagement activities, issues identified by stakeholders, communities of interest (including various resource issues, differing project alternative study corridors or routes, and revisions to routes), and responses provided to commenters, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(2) A public engagement plan, which must:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the project proponent's outreach plan and status of those activities, including planned future activities corresponding to each of the items or issues identified in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section, specifying the planned dates or frequency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the manner in which the project proponent will reach out to communities of interest about potential mitigation of concerns;
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe planned outreach activities during the permitting process, including efforts to identify, and engage, individuals with limited English proficiency and linguistically isolated communities, and provide accommodations for individuals with accessibility needs; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Discuss the specific tools and actions used by the project proponent to facilitate public communications and public information, including whether the project proponent will have a readily accessible, easily identifiable, single point of contact.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FAST-41 statement.</I> The FAST-41 statement required under paragraph (a) of this section must specify the status of the proposed electric transmission project pursuant to FAST-41 at the time of submission of the initiation request. The statement must either:
</P>
<P>(1) State that the project proponent has sought FAST-41 coverage pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 4370m-2(a)(1); and state whether the Executive Director of the FPISC has created an entry on the Permitting Dashboard for the project as a covered project pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 4370m-2(b)(2)(A); or
</P>
<P>(2) State that the project proponent elected not to apply to be a FAST-41 covered project at this time.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Initiation request determination.</I> Not later than 20 calendar days after the date that DOE receives an initiation request, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the initiation request meets the requirements of this section and, if not previously determined under § 900.3, whether the proposed electric transmission facility is a qualifying project;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities and provide each with an electronic copy of the initiation request; and
</P>
<P>(3) Give notice to the project proponent and relevant Federal and non-Federal entities of DOE's determinations under paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Deficiencies.</I> If DOE determines under paragraph (f)(1) of this section that the initiation request does not meet the requirements of this section, DOE must provide the reasons for that finding and a description of how the project proponent may, if applicable, address any deficiencies in the initiation request so that DOE may reconsider its determination. If DOE determines under paragraph (f)(1) of this section that the proposed electric transmission facility is not a qualifying project, DOE must provide a justification for the determination and the project proponent may file a request for coordination with the Director as provided in § 900.3. A project to site a proposed electric transmission facility that is not a qualifying project is not eligible for participation in the IIP Process.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Initial meeting.</I> If a project proponent submits a valid initiation request, DOE, in consultation with the identified relevant Federal entities, shall convene the IIP Process initial meeting with the project proponent and all relevant Federal entities notified by DOE under paragraph (f) of this section as soon as practicable and no later than 15 calendar days after the date that DOE provides notice under paragraph (f) that the initiation request meets the requirements of this section. DOE shall also invite relevant non-Federal entities to participate in the initial meeting. During the initial meeting:
</P>
<P>(1) DOE and the relevant Federal entities shall discuss with the project proponent the IIP Process, Federal authorization process, related environmental reviews, any arrangements for the project proponent to contribute funds to DOE to cover costs incurred by DOE and the relevant Federal entities in the IIP Process (in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 7278), any requirements for entering into cost recovery agreements, and paying for third-party contractors under DOE's supervision, where applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) DOE will identify any Federal applications that must be submitted during the IIP Process, to enable relevant Federal entities to begin work on the review process, and those applications that will be submitted after the IIP Process. All application submittal timelines will be accounted for in the project-specific schedule described in § 900.7;
</P>
<P>(3) DOE will establish all analysis areas necessary for the completion of resource reports required under § 900.6;
</P>
<P>(4) The project proponent shall describe the proposed electric transmission project and the contents of the initiation request;
</P>
<P>(5) DOE and the relevant Federal entities, along with any relevant non-Federal entities who choose to participate, will review the information provided by the project proponent and publicly available information, discuss the study corridors and potential routes identified by the project proponent, discuss the evaluation criteria and methods used to identify those corridors and routes and, to the extent possible and based on agency expertise and experience, identify any additional criteria for adding or modifying potential routes and study corridors;
</P>
<P>(6) DOE and the relevant Federal entities will discuss, based on available information provided by the project proponent, any surveys and studies that may be required for potential routes and completion of the resource reports, including biological (including threatened and endangered species or avian, aquatic, and terrestrial species and aquatic habitats of concern), visual, cultural, economic, social, health, and historic surveys and studies.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Feedback to project proponent.</I> Feedback provided to the project proponent under paragraph (h) of this section does not constitute a commitment by any relevant Federal entity to approve or deny a Federal authorization request, nor does the IIP Process limit agency discretion regarding NEPA review.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Draft initial meeting summary.</I> Not later than 10 calendar days after the initial meeting, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare a draft initial meeting summary that includes a summary of the meeting discussion, a description of key issues and information gaps identified during the meeting, and any requests for more information from relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Convey the draft summary to the project proponent, relevant Federal entities, and any relevant non-Federal entities that participated in the meeting.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Corrections.</I> The project proponent and entities that received the draft initial meeting summary under paragraph (j) of this section will have 10 calendar days following receipt of the draft initial meeting summary to review the draft and provide corrections to DOE.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Final summary.</I> Not later than 10 calendar days following the close of the 10-day review period under paragraph (k) of this section, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare a final initial meeting summary by incorporating received corrections, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) Add the final summary to the consolidated administrative docket described by § 900.10; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide an electronic copy of the summary to all relevant Federal entities, relevant non-Federal entities, and the project proponent.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.6   Project proponent resource reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preparation and submission.</I> The project proponent shall prepare and submit to DOE the 13 project proponent resource reports described in this section. The project proponent may submit the resource reports at any time before requesting a review meeting under § 900.8 and shall, at the direction of DOE, revise resource reports in response to comments received from relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities during the Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> Each resource report must include concise descriptions, based on the best available scientific and commercial information, of the known existing environment and major site conditions. The detail of each resource report must be commensurate with the complexity of the proposal and its potential for environmental impacts. Each topic in each resource report must be addressed or its omission justified. If any resource report topic is not addressed at the time the applicable resource report is filed or its omission is not addressed, the report must explain why the topic is missing. If material required for one resource report is provided in another resource report or in another exhibit, it may be incorporated by reference. If outside material is reasonably available for review and comment, a resource report may incorporate that material by reference by including a citation to the material and a brief summary of the material. Consistent with §§ 900.1(h) and 900.4(g), the Director may modify the requirements of this section to reflect differences in onshore and offshore environments and uses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for IIP Process progression.</I> Failure of the project proponent to provide at least the required initial or revised content will prevent progress through the IIP Process to the IIP Process review or close-out meetings, unless the Director determines that the project proponent has provided an acceptable reason for the item's absence and an acceptable timeline for filing it. Failure to file within the accepted timeline will prevent further progress in the IIP Process.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General requirements.</I> As appropriate, each resource report shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Address conditions or resources that might be directly or indirectly affected by the proposed electric transmission project;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify environmental effects expected to occur as a result of the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the potential effects of construction, operation (including maintenance and malfunctions), and termination of the proposed project, as well as potential cumulative effects resulting from existing or reasonably foreseeable projects;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify measures proposed to enhance the environment or to avoid, minimize, or compensate for potential adverse effects of the proposed project; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide a list of publications, reports, and other literature or communications, including agency communications, that were cited or relied upon to prepare each report.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal responsibility.</I> The resource reports prepared by the project proponent under this section do not supplant the requirements under existing environmental laws related to the information required for Federal authorization or consultation processes. The relevant Federal entities shall independently evaluate the information submitted and shall be responsible for the accuracy, scope, and contents of all Federal authorization decision documents and related environmental reviews.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Resource Report 1—General project description.</I> This report should describe all expected facilities associated with the project, special construction and operation procedures, construction timetables, future plans for related construction, and permits, authorizations, and consultations that are expected to be required for proposed project. Resource Report 1 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe and provide location maps of all facilities to be constructed, modified, abandoned, replaced, or removed, including facilities related to construction and operational support activities and areas such as maintenance bases, staging areas, communications towers, power lines, and new access roads (roads to be built or modified), as well as any existing infrastructure proposed to be used for the project (<I>e.g.,</I> connections to existing substations and transmission, and existing access roads);
</P>
<P>(2) Describe specific generation resources that are known or reasonably foreseen to be developed or interconnected as a result of the proposed electric transmission project, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify facilities constructed by other entities that are related to the proposed project (<I>e.g.,</I> fiber optic cables) and where those facilities would be located;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the following information for each facility described under paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the facility, including, as appropriate, ownership, land requirements, megawatt size, construction status, and an update of the latest status of Federal, State, and local permits and approvals; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Current topographic maps showing the location of the facility;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide any communications with the appropriate State Historic Preservation Offices (SHPOs) and Tribal Historic Preservation Offices (THPOs) regarding cultural and historic resources in the project area;
</P>
<P>(6) To the extent known, identify the permits, authorizations, and consultations that are expected to be required for proposed project, including consultation under section 106 of the NHPA, consultation under section 7 of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-205, as amended, 16 U.S.C. 1531 <I>et seq.</I>), consistency determinations under the Coastal Zone Management Act (CZMA), and permits under the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251 <I>et seq.</I>) (CWA);
</P>
<P>(7) Describe any developments in obtaining authorizations and permits or completing required consultations for the proposed project and identify environmental mitigation requirements specified in any permit or proposed in any permit application to the extent not specified elsewhere in this resource report or another resource report;
</P>
<P>(8) If the project includes abandonment of certain facilities, rights-of-way, or easements, identify and describe the following:
</P>
<P>(i) facilities, rights-of-way, or easements that the project proponent plans to abandon;
</P>
<P>(ii) how the facilities, rights-of-way, or easements would be abandoned;
</P>
<P>(iii) how the abandoned facilities, rights-of-way, and easements would be restored;
</P>
<P>(iv) the owner of the facilities, rights-of-way, or easement after abandonment;
</P>
<P>(v) the party responsible for the abandoned facilities, rights-of-way, or easement;
</P>
<P>(vi) whether landowners were or are expected to be given the opportunity to request that the abandoned facilities on their property, including foundations and below ground components, be removed; and
</P>
<P>(vii) landowners whose preferences regarding abandoned facility removal the project proponent does not intend to honor and reasons why the project proponent does not intend to honor those preferences;
</P>
<P>(9) Provide construction timetables and describe, by milepost, proposed construction and restoration methods to be used in areas of rugged topography, residential areas, active croplands, sites where the proposed project would be located parallel to and under roads, and sites where explosives may be used;
</P>
<P>(10) Describe estimated workforce requirements for the proposed project, including the number of construction spreads, average workforce requirements for each construction spread, estimated duration of construction from initial clearing to final restoration, and number of personnel to be hired to operate the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(11) Describe reasonably foreseeable plans for future expansion of facilities related to the project, including additional land requirements and the compatibility of those plans with the current proposal;
</P>
<P>(12) Provide the names and mailing addresses of all potentially affected landowners identified by the project proponent, identify which potentially affected landowners have been notified by the project proponent, and describe the methodology used to identify potentially affected landowners;
</P>
<P>(13) Summarize the proposed mitigation approach anticipated by the project proponent to reduce the potential impacts of the proposed project to resources warranting or requiring mitigation; and
</P>
<P>(14) Describe how the proposed project will reduce capacity constraints and congestion on the transmission system, meet unmet demand, or connect generation resources (including the expected type of generation, if known) to load, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Resource Report 2—Water use and quality.</I> This report should describe water resources that may be impacted by the proposed project, describe the potential impacts on these resources, and describe the measures taken to avoid and minimize adverse effects to such water resources, where appropriate. Resource Report 2 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify surface water resources, including perennial waterbodies, intermittent streams, ephemeral waterbodies, municipal water supply or watershed areas, specially designated surface water protection areas and sensitive waterbodies, floodplains, and wetlands, that would be crossed by a potential route;
</P>
<P>(2) For each surface water resource that would be crossed by a potential route, identify the approximate width of the crossing, State water quality classifications, any known potential pollutants present in the water or sediments, and any downstream potable water intake sources within the applicable analysis area;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe typical staging area requirements at surface water resource crossings and identify and describe each potential surface water crossing where staging areas are likely to be more extensive and could require a mitigation approach to address potential impacts to the water resource;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide two copies of floodplain and National Wetland Inventory (NWI) maps or, if not available, appropriate State wetland maps clearly showing the study corridors or potential routes and mileposts;
</P>
<P>(5) For each wetland crossing, identify the milepost of the crossing, the wetland classification specified by the USFWS, and the length of the crossing, and describe, by milepost, wetland crossings as determined by field delineations using the current Federal methodology;
</P>
<P>(6) For each floodplain crossing, identify the mileposts, acres of floodplains affected, flood elevation, and basis for determining that elevation;
</P>
<P>(7) Describe and provide data supporting the expected impact of the proposed project on surface and groundwater resources;
</P>
<P>(8) Describe and provide data supporting proposed avoidance and minimization measures as well as protection or enhancement measures that would reduce the potential for adverse impacts to surface and groundwater resources, and discuss any potential compensation expected to be provided for remaining unavoidable impacts to water resources due to the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(9) Identify the location of known public and private groundwater supply wells or springs within the applicable analysis area;
</P>
<P>(10) Identify locations of EPA or State-designated principal-source aquifers and wellhead protection areas crossed by a potential route;
</P>
<P>(11) Discuss the results of any coordination with relevant Federal entities or non-Federal entities related to CWA permitting and include any written correspondence that resulted from the coordination; and
</P>
<P>(12) Indicate whether the project proponent expects that a water quality certification (under section 401 of the CWA) will be required for any potential routes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Resource Report 3—Fish, wildlife, and vegetation.</I> This report should identify and describe potential impacts to aquatic and terrestrial habitats, wildlife, and plants from the proposed project and discuss potential avoidance, minimization, or compensation measures, and enhancement or protection measures to reduce adverse impacts to these resources. Resource Report 3 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe aquatic habitats that occur in the applicable analysis area, including commercial and recreational warmwater, coldwater, and saltwater fisheries and associated significant habitats such as spawning or rearing areas, estuaries, and other essential fish habitats;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe terrestrial habitats that occur in the project area, including wetlands, typical wildlife habitats, and rare, unique, or otherwise significant habitats;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify fish, wildlife, and plants that may be affected by the proposed project, including species that have commercial, recreational, or aesthetic value and that may be affected by the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe and provide the acreage of vegetation cover types that would be affected by the proposed project, including unique ecosystems or communities such as remnant prairie or old-growth forest, or significant individual plants, such as old-growth specimen trees;
</P>
<P>(5) Describe the impact of the proposed project on aquatic and terrestrial habitats, including potential loss and fragmentation;
</P>
<P>(6) Describe the potential impact of the proposed project on Federally listed, candidate, or proposed endangered or threatened species, State, Tribal, and local species of concern, and those species' habitats, including the possibility of a major alteration to ecosystems or biodiversity;
</P>
<P>(7) Describe the potential impact of maintenance, clearing, and treatment of the applicable analysis area on fish, wildlife, and plant life;
</P>
<P>(8) Identify all Federally listed, candidate, or proposed endangered or threatened species that may be affected by the proposed project and proposed or designated critical habitats that potentially occur in the applicable analysis area;
</P>
<P>(9) Identify all State, Tribal, and local species of concern that may be affected by the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(10) Identify all known and potential bald and golden eagle nesting and roosting sites, migratory bird flyways, and any sites important to migratory bird breeding, feeding, and sheltering within the applicable analysis areas. These identifications should coincide with the USFWS's most current range and location maps at the time this resource report is submitted;
</P>
<P>(11) Discuss the results of any discussions conducted by the proponent to date with relevant Federal entities or relevant non-Federal entities related to fish, wildlife, and vegetation resources, and include any written correspondence that resulted from the discussions;
</P>
<P>(12) Include the results of any appropriate surveys that have already been conducted, as well as plans and protocols for future surveys. If potentially suitable habitat is present, species-specific surveys may be required;
</P>
<P>(13) If present, identify all Federally designated essential fish habitat (EFH) that occurs in the applicable analysis area and provide:
</P>
<P>(i) Information on all EFH, as identified by the pertinent Federal fishery management plans, which may be adversely affected by potential routes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of discussions with National Marine Fisheries Service; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any resulting EFH assessments that were evaluated, and EFH Conservation Recommendations that were provided by the National Marine Fisheries Service;
</P>
<P>(14) Describe potential avoidance, minimization, or compensation measures, and enhancement or protection measures to address adverse effects described in paragraphs (h)(5), (6), and (7) of this section;
</P>
<P>(15) Describe anticipated site-specific mitigation approaches for fisheries, wildlife (including migration corridors and seasonal areas of use), grazing, and plant life;
</P>
<P>(16) Describe proposed measures to avoid and minimize incidental take of Federally listed and candidate species and species of concern, including eagles and migratory birds; and
</P>
<P>(17) Include copies of any correspondence not otherwise provided pursuant to this paragraph (h) containing recommendations from appropriate Federal, State, and local fish and wildlife agencies to avoid or limit impact on wildlife, fish, fisheries, habitats, and plants, and the project proponent's response to those recommendations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Resource Report 4—Cultural resources.</I> This report should describe the location of known cultural and historic resources, previous surveys and listings of cultural and historic resources, the potential effects that construction, operation, and maintenance of the proposed project will have on those resources, and initial recommendations for avoidance and minimization measures to address potential effects to those resources. The information provided in Resource Report 4 will contribute to the satisfaction of DOE's and relevant Federal entities' obligations under section 106 of the NHPA.
</P>
<P>(1) Resource Report 4 must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of known cultural and historic resources in the applicable analysis area including but not limited to those listed or eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places, such as properties of religious and cultural significance to Indian Tribes, and any material remains of past human life or activities that are of an archeological interest;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of potential effects that construction, operation, and maintenance of the proposed project will have on resources identified in paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation of the project proponent's initial communications and engagement, including preliminary outreach and coordination, with Indian Tribes, indigenous peoples, THPOs, SHPOs, communities of interest, and other entities having knowledge of, interest regarding, or an understanding about the resources identified in paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section and any written comments from SHPOs, THPOs, other Tribal historic preservation offices or governments, or others, as appropriate and available;
</P>
<P>(iv) Recommended avoidance and minimization measures to address potential effects of the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(v) Any relevant existing surveys or listings of cultural and historic resources in the affected environment; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Recommendations for any additional surveys needed; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A description, by milepost, of any area that has not been surveyed due to a denial of access by landowners.
</P>
<P>(2) The project proponent must update this report with the results of any additional surveys that the project proponent chooses to undertake, as identified in in paragraph (i)(1)(vi) of this section, after the initial submission of this report.
</P>
<P>(3) The project proponent must request confidential treatment for all material filed with DOE containing non-public location, character, and ownership information about cultural resources in accordance with § 900.4(h).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Resource Report 5—Socioeconomics.</I> This report should identify and quantify the impacts of constructing and operating the proposed project on the demographics and economics of communities in the applicable analysis area, including minority and underrepresented communities. Resource Report 5 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the socioeconomic resources that may be affected in the applicable analysis area;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the positive and adverse socioeconomic impacts of the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluate the impact of any substantial migration of people into the applicable analysis area on governmental facilities and services and describe plans to reduce the impact on the local infrastructure;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe on-site labor requirements during construction and operation, including projections of the number of construction personnel who currently reside within the applicable analysis area, who would commute daily to the site from outside the analysis area, or who would relocate temporarily within the analysis area;
</P>
<P>(5) Determine whether existing affordable housing within the applicable analysis area is sufficient to meet the needs of the additional population; and
</P>
<P>(6) Describe the number and types of residences and businesses that would be displaced by the proposed project, procedures to be used to acquire these properties, and types and amounts of relocation assistance payments.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Resource Report 6—Tribal interests.</I> This report must identify the Indian Tribes and indigenous communities that may be affected by the construction, operation, and maintenance of the project facilities, including those Indian Tribes and indigenous communities that may attach religious and cultural significance to cultural resources within the project area. In developing this report, the project proponent should consider both Indian Tribes with contemporary presence in the project area and Indian Tribes with historic connections to the area. To the extent Indian Tribes and indigenous communities are willing to communicate and share resource information, this report must discuss the potential impacts of project construction, operation, and maintenance on Indian Tribes and Tribal interests. This discussion must include impacts to sacred sites and Treaty rights, impacts related to enumerated resources and areas identified in the resource reports listed in this section (for instance, water rights, access to property, wildlife and ecological resources, etc.), and set forth available information on any additional, relevant traditional cultural and religious resources that could be affected by the proposed electric transmission project that are not already addressed. This resource report should acknowledge existing relationships between adjacent and underlying Federal land management agencies and the Indian Tribes. In developing this report, the project proponent should engage the Federal land manager early to leverage existing relationships. Specific site or property locations, the disclosure of which may create a risk of harm, theft, or destruction of archaeological or Native American cultural resources and information which would violate any Federal law, including section 9 of the Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-95, as amended) (16 U.S.C. 470hh) and section 304 of the NHPA (54 U.S.C. 307103), should be submitted consistent with § 900.4(h). The project proponent must request confidential treatment for all material filed with DOE containing non-public location, character, and ownership information about Tribal resources in accordance with § 900.4(h).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Resource Report 7—Communities of Interest.</I> This report must summarize best available information about the presence of communities of interest. The resource report must identify and describe the potential impacts of constructing, operating, and maintaining the proposed electric transmission project on communities of interest; and describe any proposed mitigation approaches for such impacts or community concerns. The report must include a discussion of any disproportionate and/or adverse human health or environmental impacts to communities of interest.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Resource Report 8—Geological resources and hazards.</I> This report should describe geological resources that might be directly or indirectly affected by the proposed electric transmission project and methods to reduce those effects. The report should also describe geological hazards that could place project facilities at risk and methods proposed to mitigate those risks. Resource Report 8 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe geological resources in the applicable analysis area that are currently or potentially exploitable, if relevant;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify, by milepost, existing and potential geological hazards and areas of nonroutine geotechnical concern in the applicable analysis area, such as high seismicity areas, active faults, and areas susceptible to soil liquefaction; planned, active, and abandoned mines; karst terrain (including significant caves protected under the Federal Cave Resources Protection Act (Pub. L. 100-691, as amended) (16 U.S.C. 4301 <I>et seq.</I>)); and areas of potential ground failure, such as subsidence, slumping, and land sliding;
</P>
<P>(3) Discuss the risks posed to the proposed project from each hazard or area of nonroutine geotechnical concern identified in paragraph (m)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe how the proposed project would be located or designed to avoid or minimize adverse effects to geological resources and reduce risk to project facilities, including geotechnical investigations and monitoring that would be conducted before, during, and after construction;
</P>
<P>(5) Discuss the potential for blasting to affect structures and the measures to be taken to remedy such effects; and
</P>
<P>(6) Specify methods to be used to prevent project-induced contamination from mines or from mine tailings along the right-of-way and discuss whether the proposed project would hinder mine reclamation or expansion efforts.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Resource Report 9—Soil resources.</I> This report should describe the soils that could be crossed by the proposed electric transmission project, the potential effect on those soils, and the proposed mitigation approach for those effects. Resource Report 9 must:
</P>
<P>(1) List, by milepost, the soil associations that would be crossed by each potential route and describe the erosion potential, fertility, and drainage characteristics of each association;
</P>
<P>(2) For the applicable analysis area:
</P>
<P>(i) List the soil series within the area and the percentage of the area comprised of each series;
</P>
<P>(ii) List the percentage of each series which would be permanently disturbed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the characteristics of each soil series; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Indicate which soil units are classified as prime or unique farmland by the USDA, Natural Resources Conservation Service;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify potential impacts from: soil erosion due to water, wind, or loss of vegetation; soil compaction and damage to soil structure resulting from movement of construction vehicles; wet soils and soils with poor drainage that are especially prone to structural damage; damage to drainage tile systems due to movement of construction vehicles and trenching activities; and interference with the operation of agricultural equipment due to the probability of large stones or blasted rock occurring on or near the surface as a result of construction;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify, by milepost, cropland and residential areas where loss of soil fertility due to trenching and backfilling could occur; and
</P>
<P>(5) Describe the proposed mitigation approach to reduce the potential for adverse impact to soils or agricultural productivity.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Resource Report 10—Land use, recreation, and aesthetics.</I> This report should describe the existing uses of land that may be impacted by the proposed project, and changes to those land uses and impacts to inhabitants and users that would occur if the proposed electric transmission project is approved. Resource Report 10 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the width and acreage requirements of all construction and permanent rights-of-way required for project construction, operation, and maintenance;
</P>
<P>(2) List existing rights-of-way that would be co-located with or adjacent to the proposed rights-of-way (including temporary construction lines), and any required utility coordination, permits, and fees that would be associated as a result;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify, preferably by diagrams, existing rights-of-way that are expected to be used for any portion of the construction or operational right-of-way, the overlap, and how much additional width is expected to be required;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify the total amount of land to be purchased or leased for each project facility, the amount of land that would be disturbed for construction, operation, and maintenance of the facility, and the use of the remaining land not required for project operation and maintenance, if any;
</P>
<P>(5) Identify the size of typical staging areas and expanded work areas, such as those at railroad, road, and waterbody crossings, and the size and location of all construction materials storage yards and access roads;
</P>
<P>(6) Identify, by milepost, the existing use of:
</P>
<P>(i) Lands crossed by or adjacent to each project facility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Lands on which a project facility is expected to be located;
</P>
<P>(7) Describe:
</P>
<P>(i) Planned development within the applicable analysis area that is either included in a master plan or on file with the local planning board or the county;
</P>
<P>(ii) The time frame (if available) for such development; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Proposed coordination to minimize impacts on land use due to such development;
</P>
<P>(8) Identify areas within applicable analysis areas that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are owned or controlled by Federal, State or local agencies, or private preservation groups;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are directly affected by the proposed project or any project facilities or operational sites; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Have special designations not otherwise mentioned in other resource reports.
</P>
<P>(iv) Examples of such specially designated areas under this provision may include but are not limited to sugar maple stands, orchards and nurseries, landfills, hazardous waste sites, nature preserves, conservation or agricultural lands subject to conservation or agricultural easements or restrictions, game management areas, remnant prairie, old-growth forest, national or State forests, parks, designated natural, recreational or scenic areas, registered natural landmarks, and areas managed by Federal entities under existing land use plans as Visual Resource Management Class I or Class II areas;
</P>
<P>(9) Identify Indian Tribes and indigenous communities that may be affected by the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(10) Describe Tribal and indigenous community resources lands, interests, and established treaty rights that may be affected by the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(11) Identify properties within the project area which may hold cultural or religious significance for Indian Tribes and indigenous communities, regardless of whether the property is on or off of any Federally recognized Indian reservation;
</P>
<P>(12) Identify resources within the applicable analysis area that are included in, or are designated for study for inclusion in, if available: the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System (16 U.S.C. 1271), the National Wildlife Refuge System (16 U.S.C. 668dd), the National Wilderness Preservation System (16 U.S.C. 1131), the National Trails System (16 U.S.C. 1241-1251), the National Park System (54 U.S.C. 100101-120104), National Historic Landmarks (NHLs), National Natural Landmarks (NNLs), Land and Water Conservation Fund (LWCF) acquired Federal lands, LWCF State Assistance Program sites and the Federal Lands to Parks (FLP) program lands, or a wilderness area designated under the Wilderness Act (16 U.S.C. 1131-1136); or the National Marine Sanctuary System, including national marine sanctuaries (16 U.S.C. 1431-1445c-1.) and Marine National Monuments as designated under authority by the Antiquities Act (54 U.S.C. 320301-320303) or by Congress; National Forests and Grasslands (16 U.S.C. 1609 <I>et seq</I>); and lands in easement programs managed by the Natural Resource Conservation Service or the U.S. Forest Service (16 U.S.C. 3865, <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(13) Indicate whether the project proponent will need to submit a CZMA Federal consistency certification to State coastal management program(s) for the project, as required by NOAA's Federal consistency regulations at 15 CFR part 930, subpart D;
</P>
<P>(14) Describe the impacts the proposed project will have on:
</P>
<P>(i) Present uses of land in the applicable analysis area, including commercial uses, mineral resource uses, and recreational uses,
</P>
<P>(ii) Public health and safety;
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal, State, and Tribal scientific survey, research, and observation activities;
</P>
<P>(iv) Sensitive resources and critical habitats;
</P>
<P>(v) The aesthetic value of the land and its features; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Federal, State or Tribal access limitations.
</P>
<P>(15) Describe any temporary or permanent restrictions on land use that would result from the proposed project.
</P>
<P>(16) Describe the proposed mitigation approach intended to address impacts described in paragraphs (o)(12) and (13) of this section, as well as protection and enhancement of existing land use;
</P>
<P>(17) Provide a proposed operations and maintenance plan for vegetation management, including management of noxious and invasive species;
</P>
<P>(18) Describe the visual characteristics of the lands and waters affected by the proposed project. Components of this description include a description of how permanent project facilities will impact the visual character of proposed project right-of-way and surrounding vicinity, and measures proposed to lessen these impacts. Project proponents are encouraged to supplement the text description with visual aids;
</P>
<P>(19) Identify, by milepost, all residences and buildings near the proposed electric transmission facility construction right-of-way, and identify the distance of the residence or building from the edge of the right-of-way and provide survey drawings or alignment sheets to illustrate the location of the proposed facility in relation to the buildings;
</P>
<P>(20) List all dwellings and related structures, commercial structures, industrial structures, places of worship, hospitals, nursing homes, schools, or other structures normally inhabited by humans or intended to be inhabited by humans on a regular basis within the applicable analysis area and provide a general description of each habitable structure and its distance from the centerline of the proposed project. In cities, towns, or rural subdivisions, houses can be identified in groups, and the report must provide the number of habitable structures in each group and list the distance from the centerline to the closest habitable structure in the group;
</P>
<P>(21) List all known commercial AM radio transmitters located within the applicable analysis area and all known FM radio transmitters, microwave relay stations, or other similar electronic installations located within the analysis area; provide a general description of each installation and its distance from the centerline of the proposed project; and locate all installations on a routing map; and
</P>
<P>(22) List all known private airstrips within the applicable analysis area and all airports registered with the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) with at least one runway more than 3,200 feet in length that are located within the analysis area. Indicate whether any transmission structures will exceed a 100:1 horizontal slope (one foot in height for each 100 feet in distance) from the closest point of the closest runway. List all airports registered with the FAA having no runway more than 3,200 feet in length that are located within the analysis area. Indicate whether any transmission structures will exceed a 50:1 horizontal slope from the closest point of the closest runway. List all heliports located within the analysis area. Indicate whether any transmission structures will exceed a 25:1 horizontal slope from the closest point of the closest landing and takeoff area of the heliport. Provide a general description of each private airstrip, registered airport, and registered heliport, and state the distance of each from the centerline of the proposed transmission line. Locate all airstrips, airports, and heliports on a routing map.
</P>
<P>(23) Information made available under paragraphs (o)(9), (10), and (11) must be submitted consistent with § 900.4(h), including information regarding specific site or property locations, the disclosure of which will create a risk of harm, theft, or destruction of archaeological or Native American cultural resources and information which would violate any Federal law, including section 9 of the Archaeological Resources Protection Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-95, as amended) (16 U.S.C. 470hh) and section 304 of the NHPA (54 U.S.C. 307103).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Resource Report 11—Air quality and noise effects.</I> This report should identify the effects of the proposed electric transmission project on the existing air quality and noise environment and describe proposed measures to mitigate the effects. Resource Report 11 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the existing air quality in the applicable analysis area, indicate if any project facilities are located within a designated nonattainment or maintenance area under the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7401 <I>et seq.</I>), and provide the distance from the project facilities to any Class I area in the project area;
</P>
<P>(2) Estimate emissions from the proposed project and the corresponding impacts on air quality and the environment;
</P>
<P>(i) Estimate the reasonably foreseeable emissions, including greenhouse gas emissions, from construction, operation, and maintenance of the project facilities (such as emissions from tailpipes, equipment, fugitive dust, open burning, and substations) expressed in tons per year; include supporting calculations, emissions factors, fuel consumption rates, and annual hours of operation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Estimate the reasonably foreseeable change in greenhouse gas emissions from the existing, proposed, and reasonably foreseeable generation resources identified in Resource Report 1 (see paragraph (f) of this section) that may connect to the proposed project or interconnect as a result of the proposed project, if any, as well as any other modeled air emissions impacts;
</P>
<P>(iii) For each designated nonattainment or maintenance area, provide a comparison of the emissions from construction, operation, and maintenance of the proposed project with the applicable General Conformity thresholds (40 CFR part 93);
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify the corresponding impacts on communities and the environment in the applicable analysis area from the estimated emissions;
</P>
<P>(v) Describe any proposed mitigation measures to control emissions identified under this section; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Estimate the reasonably foreseeable effect of the proposed project on indirect emissions;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe existing noise levels at noise-sensitive areas in the applicable analysis area, such as schools, hospitals, residences, and any areas covered by relevant State or local noise ordinances;
</P>
<P>(i) Report existing noise levels as the a-weighted decibel (dBA) Leq (day), Leq (night), and Ldn (day-night sound level) and include the basis for the data or estimates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include a plot plan that identifies the locations and duration of noise measurements, the time of day, weather conditions, wind speed and direction, engine load, and other noise sources present during each measurement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify any noise regulations that may be applicable to the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(4) Estimate the impact of the proposed project on the noise environment;
</P>
<P>(i) Provide a quantitative estimate of the impact of transmission line operation on noise levels at the edge of the proposed right-of-way, including corona, insulator, and Aeolian noise; and provide a quantitative estimate of the impact of operation of proposed substations and appurtenant project facilities on noise levels at nearby noise-sensitive areas, including discrete tones;
</P>
<P>(A) Include step-by-step supporting calculations or identify the computer program used to model the noise levels, the input and raw output data and all assumptions made when running the model, far-field sound level data for maximum facility operation (either from the manufacturer or from far-field sound level data measured from similar project facilities in service elsewhere) and the source of the data;
</P>
<P>(B) Include sound pressure levels for project facilities, dynamic insertion loss for structures, and sound attenuation from the project facilities to the edge of the right-of-way or to nearby noise-sensitive areas (as applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the impact of proposed construction activities, including any nighttime construction, on the noise environment; estimate the impact of any horizontal directional drilling, pile driving, or blasting on noise levels at nearby noise-sensitive areas and include supporting assumptions and calculations;
</P>
<P>(5) Based on noise estimates, indicate whether the proposed project will comply with applicable noise regulations and whether noise attributable to any proposed substation or appurtenant facility will exceed permissible levels at any pre-existing noise-sensitive area;
</P>
<P>(6) Based on noise estimates, determine whether any wildlife-specific noise thresholds may have an impact on the proposed project, such as those thresholds specific to avian species that may be relevant in significant wildlife areas, if appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(7) Describe measures, and manufacturer's specifications for equipment, proposed to mitigate noise effects and impacts to air quality, including emission control systems, installation of filters, mufflers, or insulation of piping and buildings, and orientation of equipment away from noise-sensitive areas.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Resource Report 12—Alternatives.</I> This report should describe the range of study corridors that were considered as alternatives during the planning, identification, and design of the proposed electric transmission project and compare the environmental impacts of such corridors and the routes contained in those corridors. This analysis may inform the relevant Federal entities' subsequent analysis of their alternatives during the NEPA process. Resource Report 12 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify all study corridors and routes contained within those corridors. The report must identify the location of the corridors on maps of sufficient scale to depict their location and relationship to the proposed project, and the relationship of the proposed electric transmission facility to existing rights-of-way;
</P>
<P>(2) Discuss the “no action” alternative and the potential for accomplishing the proponent's proposed objectives using alternative means;
</P>
<P>(3) Discuss design and construction methods considered by the project proponent;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify all the alternative study corridors and routes the project proponent considered in the initial screening for the proposed project but did not recommend for further study and the reasons why the proponent chose not to examine such alternatives.
</P>
<P>(5) For alternative study corridors and routes recommended for more in-depth consideration, the report must:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the potential impacts to cultural and historic resources for each alternative;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the environmental characteristics of each alternative, provide comparative tables showing the differences in environmental characteristics for the alternatives, and include an analysis of the potential relative environmental impacts for each alternative;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide an explanation of the costs to construct, operate, and maintain each alternative, the potential for each alternative to meet project deadlines, and technological and procedural constraints in developing the alternatives; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrate whether and how environmental benefits and costs were weighed against economic benefits and costs to the public.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Resource Report 13—Reliability, resilience, and safety.</I> This report should describe the impacts that would result from a failure of the proposed electric transmission facility, the measures, procedures, and features that would reduce the risk of failure, and measures in place to reduce impacts and protect the public if a failure did occur. Resource Report 13 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Discuss events that could result in a failure of the proposed facility, including accidents, intentional destructive acts, and natural catastrophes (accounting for the likelihood of relevant natural catastrophes resulting from climate change);
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the reasonably foreseeable impacts that would result from a failure of the proposed electric transmission facility, including hazards to the public, environmental impacts, and service interruptions;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the operational measures, procedures, and design features of the proposed project that would reduce the risk of facility failure;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe measures proposed to protect the public from failure of the proposed facility (including coordination with local agencies);
</P>
<P>(5) Discuss contingency plans for maintaining service or reducing downtime;
</P>
<P>(6) Describe measures used to exclude the public from hazardous areas, measures used to minimize problems arising from malfunctions and accidents (with estimates of probability of occurrence), and identify standard procedures for protecting services and public safety during maintenance and breakdowns; and
</P>
<P>(7) Describe improvements to reliability likely to result from the proposed project.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.7   Standard and project-specific schedules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall publish, and update from time to time, a standard schedule that identifies the steps generally needed to complete decisions on all Federal environmental reviews and authorizations for a proposed electric transmission project. The standard schedule will include recommended timing for each step so as to allow final decisions on all Federal authorizations within two years of the publication of a notice of intent to prepare an environmental review document under § 900.9 or as soon as practicable thereafter, considering the requirements of relevant Federal laws, and the need for robust analysis of proposed project impacts, early and meaningful consultation with potentially affected Indian Tribes and engagement with stakeholders and communities of interest.
</P>
<P>(b) During the Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process, DOE, in coordination with any NEPA joint lead agency and relevant Federal entities, shall prepare a project-specific schedule that is informed by the standard schedule prepared under paragraph (a) of this section and that establishes prompt and binding intermediate milestones and ultimate deadlines for the review of, and Federal authorization decisions relating to, a proposed electric transmission project, accounting for relevant statutory requirements, the potential route, reasonable alternative potential routes, if any, the need to assess and address any impacts to military testing, training, and operations, and other factors particular to the specific proposed project, including the need for early and meaningful consultation with potentially affected Indian Tribes and engagement with stakeholders and communities of interest. DOE may revise the project-specific schedule as needed to satisfy applicable statutory requirements, allow for engagement with stakeholders and communities of interest, and account for delays caused by the actions or inactions of the project proponent.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.8   IIP Process review meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process review meeting is required for each proposed electric transmission project utilizing the IIP Process and may only be held after the project proponent submits a review meeting request to DOE. The project proponent may submit the request at any time following submission of the initial resource reports required under § 900.6. The review meeting request must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary table of changes made to the proposed project since the IIP Process initial meeting, including potential environmental and community benefits from improved siting or design;
</P>
<P>(2) Maps of potential routes and study corridors, including the proposed line, substations, and other infrastructure, as applicable, with at least as much detail as required for the initiation request described by § 900.5 and as modified in response to early stakeholder input and outreach and feedback from relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities;
</P>
<P>(3) If known, a schedule for completing any upcoming field resource surveys, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(4) A conceptual plan for implementation and monitoring of proposed mitigation measures to avoid, minimize, or compensate for effects of the proposed project, consistent with 40 CFR 1508.1(s) or any successor regulation. This may include compensatory mitigation measures (offsite and onsite);
</P>
<P>(5) An updated public engagement plan described in § 900.5(d)(2), reflecting actions undertaken since the project proponent submitted the initiation request and input received from relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities;
</P>
<P>(6) A listing of:
</P>
<P>(i) The dates on which the project proponent filed applications or requests for Federal authorizations and the dates on which the project proponent filed revisions to previously filed applications or requests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Estimated dates for filing remaining applications or requests for Federal authorization;
</P>
<P>(7) Estimated dates that the project proponent will file requests for authorizations and consultations with relevant non-Federal entities; and
</P>
<P>(8) A proposed duration for each Federal land use authorization expected to be required for the proposed project, commensurate with the anticipated use of the proposed electric transmission facility.
</P>
<P>(b) Not later than 10 calendar days after the date that DOE receives the review meeting request, DOE shall provide relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities with materials included in the request and the initial resource reports submitted under § 900.6 via electronic means.
</P>
<P>(c) Not later than 60 calendar days after the date that DOE receives the review meeting request, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the meeting request meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and whether the initial resource reports are sufficiently detailed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Give notice to the project proponent and relevant Federal and non-Federal entities of DOE's determinations under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If DOE determines under paragraph (c)(1) of this section that the meeting request does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section or that the initial resource reports are not sufficiently detailed, DOE must provide the reasons for that finding and a description of how the project proponent may address any deficiencies in the meeting request or resource reports so that DOE may reconsider its determination.
</P>
<P>(e) Not later than 15 calendar days after the date that DOE provides notice to the project proponent under paragraph (c) of this section that the review meeting request and initial resource reports have been accepted, DOE shall convene the review meeting with the project proponent and the relevant Federal entities. All relevant non-Federal entities participating in the IIP Process shall also be invited.
</P>
<P>(f) During the IIP Process review meeting:
</P>
<P>(1) The relevant Federal entities shall discuss, and modify if needed, the analysis areas used in the initial resource reports;
</P>
<P>(2) Relevant Federal entities shall identify any remaining issues of concern, known information gaps or data needs, and potential issues or conflicts that could impact the time it will take the relevant Federal entities to process applications for Federal authorizations for the proposed electric transmission project;
</P>
<P>(3) Relevant non-Federal entities may identify remaining issues of concern, information needs, and potential issues or conflicts for the project;
</P>
<P>(4) The participants shall discuss the project proponent's updates to the siting process to date, including stakeholder outreach activities, resultant stakeholder input, and project proponent response to stakeholder input;
</P>
<P>(5) Led by DOE, all relevant Federal entities shall discuss statutory and regulatory standards that must be met to make decisions for Federal authorizations required for the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(6) Led by DOE, all relevant Federal entities shall describe the process for, and estimated time to complete, required Federal authorizations and, where possible, the anticipated cost (<I>e.g.,</I> processing and monitoring fees and land use fees);
</P>
<P>(7) Led by DOE, all relevant Federal entities shall describe their expectations for complete applications for Federal authorizations for the proposed project;
</P>
<P>(8) Led by DOE, all relevant Federal entities shall identify necessary updates to the initial resource reports that must be made before conclusion of the IIP Process, or, as necessary, following conclusion of the IIP Process; and
</P>
<P>(9) DOE shall present the proposed project-specific schedule developed under § 900.7.
</P>
<P>(g) Not later than 10 calendar days after the review meeting, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare a draft review meeting summary that includes a summary of the meeting discussion, a description of key issues and information gaps identified during the meeting, and any requests for more information from relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Convey the draft summary to the project proponent, relevant Federal entities, and any non-Federal entities that participated in the meeting.
</P>
<P>(h) The project proponent and entities that received the draft review meeting summary under paragraph (g) of this section will have 10 calendar days following receipt of the draft to review the draft and provide corrections to DOE.
</P>
<P>(i) Not later than 10 calendar days following the close of the 10-day review period under paragraph (h) of this section, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare a final review meeting summary incorporating received corrections, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) Add the final summary to the consolidated administrative docket described by § 900.10; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide an electronic copy of the summary to the relevant Federal entities, relevant non-Federal entities, and the project proponent.
</P>
<P>(j) Not later than 10 calendar days following the close of the 10-day review period under paragraph (h) of this section, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) determine whether the project proponent has developed the scope of its proposed project and alternatives sufficiently for DOE to determine that there exists an undertaking for purposes of section 106 of the NHPA; and
</P>
<P>(2) if the scope is sufficiently developed, initiate consultation with SHPOs, THPOs, and others consistent with 36 CFR 800.2(c)(4), which may include authorizing a project proponent, as a CITAP applicant, to initiate section 106 consultation and providing appropriate notifications.
</P>
<P>(k) After the review meeting and before the IIP Process close-out meeting described by § 900.9 the project proponent shall revise resource reports submitted under § 900.6 based on feedback from relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities received during the review meeting and based on any updated surveys conducted since the initial meeting.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.9   IIP Process close-out meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process close-out meeting concludes the IIP Process for a proposed electric transmission project and may only be held after the project proponent submits a close-out meeting request to DOE. The project proponent may submit the request at any time following the submission of the updated resource reports as required under § 900.8. The close-out meeting request shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary table of changes made to the proposed project during the IIP Process, including potential environmental and community benefits from improved siting or design;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of all changes made to the proposed project since the review meeting, including a summary of changes made to the updated resource reports in response to the concerns raised during the review meeting;
</P>
<P>(3) A final public engagement plan, as described in § 900.5(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for Federal authorizations for the proposed project; and
</P>
<P>(5) An updated estimated timeline of filing requests for all other authorizations and consultations with non-Federal entities.
</P>
<P>(b) Not later than 10 calendar days after the date that DOE receives the close-out meeting request, DOE shall provide relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities with materials included in the request and any updated resource reports submitted under § 900.6 via electronic means.
</P>
<P>(c) Not later than 60 calendar days after the date that DOE receives the close-out meeting request, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the meeting request meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and whether the updated resource reports are sufficiently detailed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Give notice to the project proponent and relevant Federal and non-Federal entities of DOE's determinations under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) If DOE determines that the meeting request does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section or that the updated resource reports are not sufficiently detailed, DOE must provide the reasons for that finding and a description of how the project proponent may address any deficiencies in the meeting request or resource reports so that DOE may reconsider its determination.
</P>
<P>(e) Not later than 15 calendar days after the date that DOE provides notice to the project proponent under paragraph (c) of this section that the close-out meeting request and updated resource reports have been accepted, DOE shall convene the close-out meeting with the project proponent and all relevant Federal entities. All relevant non-Federal entities participating in the IIP Process shall also be invited.
</P>
<P>(f) The IIP Process close-out meeting concludes the IIP Process. During the close-out meeting:
</P>
<P>(1) The participants shall discuss the project proponent's updates to the siting process to date, including stakeholder outreach activities, resultant stakeholder input, and project proponent response to stakeholder input; and
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall present the final project-specific schedule.
</P>
<P>(g) Not later than 10 calendar days after the close-out meeting, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare a draft close-out meeting summary; and
</P>
<P>(2) Convey the draft summary to the project proponent, relevant Federal entities, and any non-Federal entities that participated in the meeting.
</P>
<P>(h) The project proponent and entities that received the draft close-out meeting summary under paragraph (g) of this section will have 10 calendar days following receipt of the draft to review the draft and provide corrections to DOE.
</P>
<P>(i) Not later than 10 calendar days following the close of the 10-day review period under paragraph (h) of this section, DOE shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare a final close-out meeting summary by incorporating received corrections, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) Add the final summary to the consolidated administrative docket described by § 900.10;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide an electronic copy of the summary to all relevant Federal entities, relevant non-Federal entities, and the project proponent; and
</P>
<P>(4) In the event that the proposed project is not identified as a covered project pursuant to § 900.5(e), notify the FPISC Executive Director that the proposed project ought to be included on the FPISC Dashboard as a transparency project.
</P>
<P>(j) DOE and any NEPA joint lead agency shall issue a Notice of Intent to prepare an environmental review document for the proposed project within 90 days of the later of the IIP Process close-out meeting or the receipt of a complete application for a Federal authorization for which NEPA review will be required, as consistent with the final project-specific schedule.
</P>
<P>(k) DOE shall issue, for each Federal land use authorization for a proposed electric transmission facility, a preliminary duration determination commensurate with the anticipated use of the proposed facility.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.10   Consolidated administrative docket.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall maintain a consolidated docket of:
</P>
<P>(1) All information that DOE distributes to or receives from the project proponent, relevant Federal entities, and relevant non-Federal entities related to the Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The IIP initiation request, review meeting request, and close-out meeting request required by §§ 900.5, 900.8, and 900.9;
</P>
<P>(ii) The IIP Process final meeting summaries required by §§ 900.5, 900.8 and 900.9;
</P>
<P>(iii) The IIP Process final resource reports developed under § 900.6;
</P>
<P>(iv) The final project-specific schedule developed under §§ 900.7 and 900.8;
</P>
<P>(v) Other documents submitted by the project proponent as part of the IIP Process or provided to the project proponent as part of the IIP Process, including but not limited to maps, publicly available data, and other supporting documentation; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Communications between any relevant Federal or non-Federal entity and the project proponent regarding the IIP Process; and
</P>
<P>(2) All information assembled and used by relevant Federal entities as the basis for Federal authorizations and related reviews following completion of the IIP Process.
</P>
<P>(b) Federal entities should include DOE in all communications with the project proponent related to the IIP Process for the proposed electric transmission project.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall make the consolidated docket available, as appropriate, to the NEPA joint lead agency selected under § 900.11; any relevant Federal or non-Federal entity responsible for issuing an authorization for the proposed project; and any consulting parties per section 106 of the NHPA, consistent with 36 CFR part 800. DOE shall exclude or redact privileged documents, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) Where necessary and appropriate, DOE may require a project proponent to contract with a qualified record-management consultant to compile a contemporaneous docket on behalf of all participating agencies. Any such contractor shall operate at the direction of DOE, and DOE shall retain responsibility and authority over the content of the docket.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon request, any member of the public will be provided materials included in the docket, excluding any materials protected as CEII or otherwise required or allowed to be withheld under the Freedom of Information Act.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.11   NEPA lead agency and selection of NEPA joint lead agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For a proposed electric transmission project that is accepted for the Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process under § 900.5, DOE shall serve as the NEPA lead agency to prepare an environmental review document to serve the needs of all relevant Federal entities. A NEPA joint lead agency to prepare the environmental review document may also be designated pursuant to this section, no later than by the IIP Process review meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) The NEPA joint lead agency, if any, shall be the Federal entity with the most significant interest in the management of Federal lands or waters that would be traversed or affected by the proposed project. DOE shall make this determination in consultation with all Federal entities that manage Federal lands or waters traversed or affected by the proposed project. For a proposed project that would traverse lands managed by both the USDA and the DOI, DOE will request that USDA and DOI determine the appropriate NEPA joint lead agency, if any.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.12   Environmental review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the Integrated Interagency Pre-Application (IIP) Process close-out meeting, and after receipt of a relevant application for a Federal authorization or permit in accordance with the final project-specific schedule, DOE and any NEPA joint lead agency selected under § 900.11 shall prepare an environmental review document for the proposed electric transmission project designed to serve the needs of all relevant Federal entities.
</P>
<P>(b) When preparing the environmental review document, DOE and any NEPA joint lead agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Consider the materials developed throughout the IIP Process; and
</P>
<P>(2) Consult with relevant Federal entities and relevant non-Federal entities.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE, in consultation with any NEPA joint lead agency, is expected to be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying, contracting with, directing, supervising, and arranging for the payment of contractors, as appropriate, to draft the environmental review document; and
</P>
<P>(2) Publishing the environmental review document and any related documents.
</P>
<P>(d) Each Federal entity or non-Federal entity that is responsible for issuing a separate Federal authorization for the proposed project shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify all information and analysis needed to make the authorization decision; and
</P>
<P>(2) Identify all alternatives that need to be included, including a preferred alternative, with respect to the authorization.
</P>
<P>(e) DOE and any NEPA joint lead agency, in consultation with relevant Federal entities, shall identify the full scope of alternatives for analysis, including the no action alternative.
</P>
<P>(f) To the maximum extent permitted under law, relevant Federal entities shall use the environmental review document as the basis for all Federal authorization decisions on the proposed project. DOE and the relevant Federal entities shall issue, except where inappropriate or inefficient, a joint decision document, which will include the determination by the Secretary of a duration for each land use authorization issued on the proposed project.
</P>
<P>(g) For all proposed projects, DOE shall serve as lead agency for consultation under the Endangered Species Act (50 CFR 402.07) and section 106 of the NHPA (36 CFR 800.2(a)(2)) unless the relevant Federal entities designate otherwise. DOE shall coordinate these consultation processes with the Federal agency with the most significant interest in the management of Federal lands or waters that would be traversed or affected by the proposed project or the designated lead agency.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 900.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.37.0.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 900.13   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part are separate and severable from one another. Should a court hold any provision(s) to be stayed or invalid, such action shall not affect any other provision of this part and the remaining provisions shall remain in effect.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="903" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 903—POWER AND TRANSMISSION RATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 301(b), 302(a), and 644 of Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); sec. 5 of the Flood Control Act of 1944 (16 U.S.C. 825s); the Reclamation Act of 1902 (43 U.S.C. 372 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended and supplemented by subsequent enactments, particularly sec. 9(c) of the Reclamation Project Act of 1939 (43 U.S.C. 485h(c)); and the Acts specifically applicable to individual projects or power systems.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 37837, Sept. 18, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Procedures for Public Participation in Power and Transmission Rate Adjustments and Extensions for the Alaska, Southeastern, Southwestern, and Western Area Power Administrations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.1   Purpose and scope; application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided herein, these regulations establish procedures for the development of power and transmission rates by the Administrators of the Alaska, Southeastern, Southwestern, and Western Area Power Administrations; for the providing of opportunities for interested members of the public to participate in the development of such rates; for the confirmation, approval, and placement in effect on an interim basis by the Secretary or his or her designee of such rates; and for the submission of such rates to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission with or without prior interim approval. These regulations supplement Delegation Order No. 0204-108 of the Secretary of Energy, which was published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and became effective on December 14, 1983 (48 FR 55664), with respect to the activities of the Secretary or his or her designee and the Administrators.
</P>
<P>(b) These procedures shall apply to all power and transmission rate adjustment proceedings for the Power Marketing Administrations (PMAs) which are commenced after these regulations become effective or were in process on the effective date of these regulations, but for which the FERC had not issued any substantive orders on or before December 14, 1983. These procedures supersede “Procedures for Public Participation in Power and Transmission Rate Adjustments and Extensions for the Alaska, Southeastern, Southwestern, and Western Area Power Administrations” published in 45 FR 86983 (December 31, 1980) and amended at 46 FR 6864 (January 22, 1981) and 46 FR 25427 (May 7, 1981).
</P>
<P>(c) Except to the extent deemed appropriate by the Administrator in accordance with applicable law, these procedures do not apply to rates for short term sales of capacity, energy, or transmission service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 37837, Sept. 18, 1985; 50 FR 48075, Nov. 21, 1985; 84 FR 5349, Feb. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used herein—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrator</I> means the Administrator of the PMA whose rate is involved in the rate adjustment, or anyone acting in such capacity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy, including the PMAs but excluding the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FERC</I> means the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Major rate adjustment</I> means a rate adjustment other than a minor rate adjustment. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Minor rate adjustment</I> means a rate adjustment which (1) will produce less than 1 percent change in the annual revenues of the power system or (2) is for a power system which has either annual sales normally less than 100 million kilowatt hours or an installed capacity of less than 20,000 kilowatts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice</I> means the statement which informs customers and the general public of Proposed Rates or proposed rate extensions, opportunities for consultation and comment, and public forums. The Notice shall be by and effective on the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Whenever a time period is provided, the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> shall determine the commencement of the time period, unless otherwise provided in the Notice. The Notice shall include the name, address, and telephone number of the person to contact if participation or further information is sought.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Power Marketing Administration</I> or <I>PMA</I> means the Alaska Power Administration, Southeastern Power Administration, Southwestern Power Administration, or Western Area Power Administration.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Power system</I> means a powerplant or a group of powerplants and related facilities, including transmission facilities, or a transmission system, that the PMA treats as one unit for the purposes of establishing rates and demonstrating repayment.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Proposed Rate</I> means a rate revision or a rate for a new service which is under consideration by the Department on which public comment is invited.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Provisional Rate</I> means a rate which has been confirmed, approved, and placed in effect on an interim basis by the Secretary or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Rate</I> means the monetary charge or the formula for computing such a charge for any electric service provided by the PMA, including but not limited to charges for capacity (or demand), energy, or transmission service; however, it does not include leasing fees, service facility charges, or other types of facility use charges. A rate may be set forth in a rate schedule or in a contract.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Rate adjustment</I> means a change in an existing rate or rates, or the establishment of a rate or rates for a new service. It does not include a change in rate schedule provisions or in contract terms, other than changes in the price per unit of service, nor does it include changes in the monetary charge pursuant to a formula stated in a rate schedule or a contract. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Rate schedule</I> means a document identified as a “rate schedule,” “schedule of rates,” or “schedule rate” which designates the rate or rates applicable to a class of service specified therein and may contain other terms and conditions relating to the service.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the United States Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Short term sales</I> means sales that last for no longer than one year.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Substitute Rate</I> means a rate which has been developed in place of the rate that was disapproved by the FERC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 37837, Sept. 18, 1985; 50 FR 48075, Nov. 21, 1985; 84 FR 5350, Feb. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.11   Advance announcement of rate adjustment.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrator may announce that the development of rates for a new service or revised rates for an existing service is under consideration. The announcement shall contain pertinent information relevant to the rate adjustment. The announcement may be through direct contact with customers, at public meetings, by press release, by newspaper advertisement, and/or by <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication. Written comments relevant to rate policy and design and to the rate adjustment process may be submitted by interested parties in response to the announcement. Any comments received shall be considered in the development of Proposed Rates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.13   Notice of proposed rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrator shall give Notice that Proposed Rates have been prepared and are under consideration. The Notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The Proposed Rates;
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of the need for and derivation of the Proposed Rates;
</P>
<P>(3) The locations at which data, studies, reports, or other documents used in developing the Proposed Rates are available for inspection and/or copying;
</P>
<P>(4) The dates, times, and locations of any initially scheduled public forums; and
</P>
<P>(5) Address to which written comments relative to the Proposed Rates and requests to be informed of FERC actions concerning the rates may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon request, customers of the power system and other interested persons will be provided with copies of the principal documents used in developing the Proposed Rates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.14   Consultation and comment period.</HEAD>
<P>All interested persons will have the opportunity to consult with and obtain information from the PMA, to examine backup data, and to make suggestions for modification of the Proposed Rates for a period ending (a) 90 days in the case of major rate adjustments, or 30 days in the case of minor rate adjustments, after the Notice of Proposed Rates is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> except that such periods may be shortened for good cause shown; (b) 15 days after any answer which may be provided pursuant to § 903.15(b) hereof; (c) 15 days after the close of the last public forum; or (d) such other time as the Administrator may designate; whichever is later. At anytime during this period, interested persons may submit written comments to the PMA regarding the Proposed Rates. The Administrator may also provide additional time for the submission of written rebuttal comments. All written comments shall be available at a designated location for inspection, and copies also will be furnished on request for which the Administrator may assess a fee. Prior to the action described in § 903.21, the Administrator may, by appropriate announcement postpone any procedural date or make other procedural changes for good cause shown at the request of any party or on the Administrator's own motion. The Administrator shall maintain, and distribute on request, a list of interested persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.15   Public information forums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) One or more public information forums shall be held for major rate adjustments, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section, and may be held for minor adjustments, to explain, and to answer questions concerning, the Proposed Rates and the basis of and justification for proposing such rates. The number, dates, and locations of such forums will be determined by the Administrator in accordance with the anticipated or demonstrated interest in the Proposed Rates. Notice shall be given in advance of such forums. A public information forum may be combined with a public comment forum held in accordance with § 903.16.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator shall appoint a forum chairperson. Questions raised at the forum concerning the Proposed Rates and the studies shall be answered by PMA representatives at the forum, at a subsequent forum, or in writing at least 15 days before the end of the consultation and comment period. However, questions that involve voluminous data contained in the PMA records may be answered by providing an opportunity for consultation and for a review of the records at the PMA offices. As a minimum, the proceedings of the forum held at the principal location shall be transcribed. Copies of all documents introduced, and of questions and written answers shall be available at a designated location for inspection and copies will be furnished by the Administrator on request, for which a fee may be assessed. Copies of the transcript may be obtained from the transcribing service.
</P>
<P>(c) No public information forum need be held for major rate adjustments if, after the Administrator has given Notice of a scheduled forum, no person indicates in writing by a prescribed date an intent to appear at such public forum.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.16   Public comment forums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) One or more public comment forums shall be held for major rate adjustments, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section, and may be held for minor rate adjustments, to provide interested persons an opportunity for oral presentation of views, data, and arguments regarding the Proposed Rates. The number, dates, and locations of such forums will be determined by the Administrator in accordance with the anticipated or demonstrated interest in the Proposed Rates. Notice shall be given at least 30 days in advance of the first public comment forum at each location and shall include the purpose, date, time, place, and other information relative to the forum, as well as the locations where pertinent documents are available for examination and/or copying.
</P>
<P>(b) The Administrator shall designate a forum chairperson. At the forum, PMA representatives may question those persons making oral statements and comments. The chairperson shall have discretion to establish the sequence of, and the time limits for, oral presentations and to determine if the comments are relevant and noncumulative. Forum proceedings shall be transcribed. Copies of all documents introduced shall be available at a designated location for inspection, and copies shall be furnished on request for which the Administrator may assess a fee. Copies of the transcript may be obtained from the transcribing service.
</P>
<P>(c) No public comment forum need be held for major rate adjustments if, after the Administrator has given notice of a scheduled forum, no person indicates in writing by a prescribed date an intent to appear at such public forum.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.17" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.17   Informal public meetings for minor rate adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>In lieu of public information or comment forums in conjunction with a minor rate adjustment, informal public meetings may be held if deemed appropriate by the Administrator. Such informal meetings will not require a Notice or a transcription.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.18" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.18   Revision of proposed rates.</HEAD>
<P>During or after the consultation and comment period and review of the oral and written comments on the Proposed Rates, the Administrator may revise the Proposed Rates. If the Administrator determines that further public comment should be invited, the Administrator shall afford interested persons an appropriate period to submit further written comments to the PMA regarding the revised Proposed Rates. The Administrator may convene one or more additional public information and/or public comment forums. The Administrator shall give Notice of any such additional forums.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.21   Completion of rate development; provisional rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following completion of the consultation and comment period and review of any oral and written comments on the Proposed Rates, the Administrator may: (1) Withdraw the proposal; (2) develop rates which in the Administrator's and the Secretary's or his or her designee's judgment should be confirmed, approved, and placed into effect on an interim basis (Provisional Rates); or (3) develop rates which in the Administrator's judgment should be confirmed, approved, and placed into effect by the FERC on a final basis without being placed into effect on an interim basis. A statement shall be prepared and made available to the public setting forth the principal factors on which the Secretary's or his or her designee's or the Administrator's decision was based. The statement shall include an explanation responding to the major comments, criticisms, and alternatives offered during the comment period. The Administrator shall certify that the rates are consistent with applicable law and that they are the lowest possible rates to customers consistent with sound business principles. The rates shall be submitted promptly to the FERC for confirmation and approval on a final basis.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary or his or her designee shall set the effective date for Provisional Rates. The effective date shall be at least 30 days after the Secretary's or his or her designee's decision except that the effective date may be sooner when appropriate to meet a contract deadline, to avoid financial difficulties, to provide a rate for a new service, or to make a minor rate adjustment.
</P>
<P>(c) The effective date may be adjusted by the Administrator to coincide with the beginning of the next billing period following the effective date set by the Secretary or his or her designee for the Provisional Rates.
</P>
<P>(d) Provisional Rates shall remain in effect on an interim basis until: (1) They are confirmed and approved on a final basis by the FERC; (2) they are disapproved and the rates last previously confirmed and approved on a final basis become effective; (3) they are disapproved and higher Substitute Rates are confirmed and approved on a final basis and placed in effect by the FERC; (4) they are disapproved and lower Substitute Rates are confirmed and approved on a final basis by the FERC; or (5) they are superseded by other Provisional Rates placed in effect by the Secretary or his or her designee, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 37837, Sept. 18, 1985, as amended at 84 FR 5350, Feb. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.22   Final rate approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any rate submitted to the FERC for confirmation and approval on a final basis shall be accompanied with such supporting data, studies, and documents as the FERC may require, and also with the transcripts of forums, written answers to questions, written comments, the Administrator's certification, and the statement of principal factors leading to the decision. The FERC shall also be furnished a listing of those customers and other participants in the rate proceeding who have requested they be informed of FERC action concerning the rates.
</P>
<P>(b) If the FERC confirms and approves Provisional Rates on a final basis, such confirmation and approval shall be effective as of the date such rates were placed in effect by the Secretary or his or her designee, as such date may have been adjusted by the Administrator. If the FERC confirms and approves on a final basis rates submitted by the Administrator without interim approval, such confirmation and approval shall be effective on a date set by the FERC.
</P>
<P>(c) If the FERC disapproves Provisional Rates or other submitted rates, the Administrator shall develop Substitute Rates which take into consideration the reasons given by the FERC for its disapproval. If, in the Administrator's judgment, public comment should be invited upon proposed Substitute Rates, the Administrator may provide for a public consultation and comment period before submitting the Substitute Rates. Whether or not such public consultation and comment periods are provided, the Administrator will, upon request, provide customers of the power system and other interested persons with copies of the principal documents used in the development of the Substitute Rates. Within 120 days of the date of FERC disapproval of submitted rates, including Substitute Rates, or such additional time periods as the FERC may provide, the Administrator will submit the Substitute Rates to the FERC. A statement explaining the Administrator's decision shall accompany the submission.
</P>
<P>(d) A Provisional Rate that is disapproved by the FERC shall remain in effect until higher or lower rates are confirmed and approved by the FERC on a final basis or are superseded by other rates placed into effect by the Secretary or his or her designee on an interim basis: Provided, That if the Administrator does not file a Substitute Rate within 120 days of the disapproval or such greater time as the FERC may provide, and if the rate has been disapproved because the FERC determined that it would result in total revenues in excess of those required by law, the rate last previously confirmed and approved on a final basis will become effective on a date and for a period determined by the FERC and revenues collected in excess of such rate during such period will be refunded in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) If a Substitute Rate confirmed and approved on a final basis by the FERC is higher than the provisional rate which was disapproved, the Substitute Rate shall become effective on a subsequent date set by the FERC, unless a subsequent Provisional Rate even higher than the Substitute Rate has been put into effect. FERC confirmation and approval of the higher Substitute Rate shall constitute final confirmation and approval of the lower disapproved Provisional Rate during the interim period that it was in effect.
</P>
<P>(f) If a Substitute Rate confirmed and approved by the FERC on a final basis is lower than the disapproved provisional rate, such lower rate shall be effective as of the date the higher disapproved rate was placed in effect.
</P>
<P>(g) Any overpayment shall be refunded with interest unless the FERC determines that the administrative cost of a refund would exceed the amount to be refunded, in which case no refund will be required. The interest rate applicable to any refund will be determined by the FERC.
</P>
<P>(h) A rate confirmed and approved by the FERC on a final basis shall remain in effect for such period or periods as the FERC may provide or until a different rate is confirmed, approved and placed in effect on an interim or final basis: <I>Provided,</I> That the Secretary or his or her designee may extend a rate on an interim basis beyond the period specified by the FERC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 37837, Sept. 18, 1985, as amended at 84 FR 5350, Feb. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 903.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.38.1.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 903.23   Rate extensions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following regulations shall apply to the extension of rates which were previously confirmed and approved by the FERC or the Federal Power Commission, or established by the Secretary of the Interior, and for which no adjustment is comtemplated:
</P>
<P>(1) The Administrator shall give Notice of the proposed extension at least 30 days before the expiration of the prior confirmation and approval, except that such period may be shortened for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrator may allow for consultation and comment, as provided in these procedures, for such period as the Administrator may provide. One or more public information and comment forums may be held, as provided in these procedures, at such times and locations and with such advance Notice as the Administrator may provide.
</P>
<P>(3) Following notice of the proposed extension and the conclusion of any consultation and comment period, the Secretary or his or her designee may extend the rates on an interim basis.
</P>
<P>(b) Provisional Rates and other existing rates may be extended on a temporary basis by the Secretary or his or her designee without advance notice or comment pending further action pursuant to these regulations or by the FERC. The Secretary or his or her designee shall publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of such extension and shall promptly advise the FERC of the extension. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 37837, Sept. 18, 1985, as amended at 84 FR 5350, Feb. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="904" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 904—GENERAL REGULATIONS FOR THE CHARGES FOR THE SALE OF POWER FROM THE BOULDER CANYON PROJECT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Reclamation Act of 1902 (32 Stat. 388); Boulder Canyon Project Act of 1928 (43 U.S.C. 617 <I>et seq.</I>); Boulder Canyon Project Adjustment Act of 1940 (43 U.S.C. 618 <I>et seq.</I>); Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Colorado River Storage Project Act of 1956 (43 U.S.C. 620 <I>et seq.</I>); Colorado River Basin Project Act of 1968 (43 U.S.C. 1501 <I>et seq.</I>); and Hoover Power Plant Act of 1984 (98 Stat. 1333 (43 U.S.C. 619 <I>et seq.</I>)).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 43154, Nov. 28, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Power Marketing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of Energy, acting by and through the Administrator of the Western Area Power Administration (Administrator), is authorized and directed to promulgate charges for the sale of power generated at the Boulder Canyon Project powerplant, and also to promulgate such general regulations as the Secretary finds necessary and appropriate in accordance with the power marketing authorities in the Reclamation Act of 1902 (32 Stat. 388) and all acts amendatory thereof and supplementary thereto, and the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with the Boulder Canyon Project Act of 1928 (43 U.S.C. 617 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended and supplemented (Project Act); the Boulder Canyon Project Adjustment Act of 1940 (43 U.S.C. 618 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended and supplemented (Adjustment Act); the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); and the Hoover Power Plant Act of 1984 (98 Stat. 1333 (43 U.S.C. 619 <I>et seq.</I>)) (Hoover Power Plant Act); the Western Area Power Administration (Western) promulgates these General Regulations for the Charges for the Sale of Power From the Boulder Canyon Project (General Regulations) defining the methodology to be used in the computation of the charges for the sale of power from the Boulder Canyon Project. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>These General Regulations are effective June 1, 1987, and shall apply as the basis for computation of all charges applicable to any sale of power from the Boulder Canyon Project after May 31, 1987. “General Regulations for Power Generation, Operation, Maintenance, and Replacement at the Boulder Canyon Project, Arizona/Nevada” are the subject of a separate rulemaking of the Department of the Interior under 43 CFR part 431. The “General Regulations for Generation and Sale of Power in Accordance with the Boulder Canyon Project Adjustment Act” (1941 General Regulations) dated May 20, 1941, and the “General Regulations for Lease of Power” dated April 25, 1930, terminate May 31, 1987. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms wherever used herein shall have the following meanings: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Billing Period</I> shall mean the service period beginning on the first day and extending through the last day of any calendar month. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Boulder City Area Projects</I> shall mean the Boulder Canyon Project, the Parker-Davis Project, and the United States entitlement in the Navajo Generating Station (a feature of the Central Arizona Project). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capacity</I> shall mean the aggregate of contingent capacity specified in section 105(a)(1)(A) and the contingent capacity specified in section 105(A)(1)(B) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Central Arizona Project</I> shall mean those works as described in section 1521(a) of the Colorado River Basin Project Act of 1968 (43 U.S.C. 1501 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Colorado River Dam Fund</I> or <I>Fund</I> shall mean that special fund established by section 2 of the Project Act and which is to be used only for the purposes specified in the Project Act, the Adjustment Act, the Colorado River Basin Project Act of 1968, and the Hoover Power Plant Act. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contract</I> shall mean any contract for the sale of Boulder Canyon Project capacity and energy for delivery after May 31, 1987, between Western and any contractor. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contractor</I> shall mean the entities entering into contracts with Western for electric service pursuant to the Hoover Power Plant Act. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Excess Capacity</I> shall mean capacity which is in excess of the lesser of: (1) Capacity that Hoover Powerplant is capable of generating with all units in service at a net effective head of 498 feet, or (2) 1,951,000 kW. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Excess Energy</I> shall mean energy obligated from the Project pursuant to section 105(a)(1)(C) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619). 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Firm Energy</I> shall mean energy obligated from the Project pursuant to section 105(a)(1)(A) and section 105(a)(1)(B) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Overruns</I> shall mean the use of capacity or energy, without the approval of Western, in amounts greater than Western's contract delivery obligation in effect for each type of service provided for in the Contract. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Project</I> or <I>Boulder Canyon Project</I> shall mean all works authorized by the Project Act, the Hoover Power Plant Act, and any future additions authorized by Congress, to be constructed and owned by the United States, but exclusive of the main canal and appurtenances authorized by the Project Act, now known as the All-American Canal. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Replacements</I> shall mean such work, materials, equipment, or facilities as determined by the United States to be necessary to keep the Project in good operating condition, but shall not include (except where used in conjunction with the word “emergency” or the phrase “however necessitated”) work, materials, equipment, or facilities made necessary by any act of God, or of the public enemy, or by any major catastrophe. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Uprating Program</I> shall mean the program authorized by section 101(a) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619(a)) for increasing the capacity of existing generating equipment and appurtenances at the Hoover Powerplant, as generally described in the report of the Department of the Interior, Bureau of Reclamation, entitled “Hoover Powerplant Uprating, Special Report,” issued in May 1980, as supplemented in the report entitled, “January 1985 Supplement (revised September 1985) to Hoover Powerplant Uprating, Special Report-May 1980.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.4   Marketing responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Capacity and energy available from the Project will be marketed by Western under terms of the Conformed General Consolidated Power Marketing Criteria or Regulations for Boulder City Area Projects (Conformed Criteria) published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (49 FR 50582) on December 28, 1984. Western shall dispose of capacity and energy from the Project in accordance with section 105(a)(1) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619(a)(1)), these General Regulations, and the Contracts between the Contractors and Western. 
</P>
<P>(b) Procedures for the scheduling and delivery of capacity and energy shall be provided for in the Contracts between the Contractors and Western. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.5   Revenue requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Western shall collect all electric service revenues from the Project in accordance with applicable statutes and regulations and deposit such revenues into the Colorado River Dam Fund. All receipts from the Project shall be available for payment of the costs and financial obligations associated with the Project. The Secretary of the Interior is responsible for the administration of the Colorado River Dam Fund. 
</P>
<P>(b) The electric service revenue of the Project shall be collected through a charge, computed to be sufficient, together with other net revenues from the Project, to recover the following costs and financial obligations associated with the Project over the appropriate repayment periods set out in paragraph (c) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Annual costs of operation and maintenance; 
</P>
<P>(2) Annual interest on unpaid investments in accordance with appropriate statutory authorities; 
</P>
<P>(3) Annual repayment of funds, and all reasonable costs incurred in obtaining such funds, advanced by non-Federal Contractors to the Secretary of the Interior for the Uprating Program;
</P>
<P>(4) The annual payment of $300,000 to each of the States of Arizona and Nevada provided for in section 618(c) of the Adjustment Act and section 1543(c)(2) of the Colorado River Basin Project Act (43 U.S.C. 1501 <I>et seq.</I>) (Basin Act), as amended or supplemented; 
</P>
<P>(5) Capital costs of investments and Replacements, including amounts readvanced from the United States Treasury (Treasury); 
</P>
<P>(6) Repayment to the Treasury of the advances to the Colorado River Dam Fund for the Project made prior to May 31, 1987, for which payment was deferred because of a deficiency in firm energy generation due to a shortage of available water, as provided for in article 14(a) of the 1941 General Regulations and section 8 of the Boulder City Act of 1958 (72 Stat. 1726), as shown on the books of accounts of Reclamation as of May 31, 1987; 
</P>
<P>(7) Repayment to the Treasury of the first $25,000,000 of advances made to the Colorado River Dam Fund deemed to be allocated to flood control by section 617a(b) of the Project Act as provided by section 618f of the Adjustment Act; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other financial obligations of the Project imposed in accordance with law. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Project repayment period shall extend to the final year allowed under applicable cost recovery criteria. The revenue for the costs and financial obligations set out in paragraph (b) of this section shall be collected over the following repayment periods: 
</P>
<P>(1) The repayment period for advances made to the Colorado River Dam Fund from funds advanced to the Secretary of the Interior by non-Federal entities for the Uprating Program and associated work shall be the period commencing with the first day of the month following completion of each segment of the Uprating Program, or June 1, 1987, whichever is later, and ending September 30, 2017; 
</P>
<P>(2) The repayment period for the payments to the Treasury of the advances to the Colorado River Dam Fund for the Project which were payable prior to May 31, 1987, but which were deferred pursuant to article 14(a) of the 1941 General Regulations and section 8 of the Boulder City Act of 1958, shall be the power contract period beginning June 1, 1987, and ending September 30, 2017. Such repayment period is based on a 50-year repayment period beginning June 1, 1937, adjusted for the periods the initial payments were deferred; 
</P>
<P>(3) The repayment period for the payment to the Treasury of the first $25,000,000 of advances made to the Colorado River Dam Fund deemed to be allocated to flood control by section 617a(b) of the Project Act and deferred by section 618(f) of the Adjustment Act shall be the 50-year period beginning June 1, 1987; 
</P>
<P>(4) The repayment period for advances to the Colorado River Dam Fund for the Project made on or after June 1, 1937, and prior to June 1, 1987, shall be the 50-year period beginning June 1 immediately following the year of operation in which the funds were advanced; 
</P>
<P>(5) The repayment period for investments, other than for the visitor facilities authorized by section 101(a) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619(a)), made from Federal appropriations on or after June 1, 1987, shall be a 50-year period beginning with the first day of the fiscal year following the fiscal year the investment is placed in service; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The repayment period for the visitor facilities authorized by section 101(a) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619(a)) shall be the 50-year period beginning June 1, 1987, or when substantially completed, as determined by the Secretary of the Interior, if later. 
</P>
<P>(d) Annual costs for operation and maintenance and payments to States as set out in paragraph (b) of this section shall be collected as long as revenues accrue from the operation of the Project. 
</P>
<P>(e) Surplus revenues will also be collected for transfer from the Colorado River Dam Fund for contribution to the Lower Colorado River Basin Development Fund pursuant to section 1543(c)(2) of the Basin Act as amended by the Hoover Power Plant Act to provide revenue for the purposes of sections 1543(f) and 1543(g) of the Basin Act. 
</P>
<P>(f) All annual costs will be calculated based on a Federal fiscal year. To accommodate the transition from the pre-1987 operating year of June 1 to May 31 to a fiscal year, there will be a 4-month transition period beginning June 1, 1987, and ending September 30, 1987. 
</P>
<P>(g) If integrated operation of the Boulder Canyon Project with other Boulder City Area Projects and other Federal projects on the Colorado River, as provided in § 904.9 of these General Regulations, confers a direct power benefit upon such other Boulder City Area Projects and such other Federal projects, or if a direct power benefit is conferred by other Boulder City Area Projects or other Federal projects on the Colorado River upon the Boulder Canyon Project, Western shall equitably apportion such benefits and appropriate charges among the Boulder Canyon Project, other Boulder City Area Projects, and other Federal projects on the Colorado River. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.6   Charge for capacity and firm energy.</HEAD>
<P>The charge for Capacity and Firm Energy from the Project shall be composed of two separate charges; a charge to provide for the basic revenue requirements, as identified in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of § 904.5 of these General Regulations (Base Charge), and a charge to provide the surplus revenue for the Lower Colorado River Basin Development Fund contribution, as identified in paragraph (e) of § 904.5 of these General Regulations (Lower Basin Development Fund Contribution Charge). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.7   Base charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Base Charge shall be developed by the Administrator and promulgated in accordance with appropriate DOE regulations. The Base Charge shall be composed of a capacity component and an energy component. 
</P>
<P>(b) The capacity component of the Base Charge shall be a dollar per kilowattmonth amount determined by (1) multiplying the estimated average annual revenue requirement developed pursuant to paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of § 904.5 of these General Regulations by 50 percent, and (2) dividing the results of that multiplication by the estimated average annual kW rating of the Project, and (3) dividing the quotient by 12. The total estimated kW rating will be based on the powerplant output capability with all units in service at 498 feet of net effective head or 1,951,000 kW, whichever is less. The capacity component of the Base Charge shall be applied each billing period to each kW of rated output to which each Contractor is entitled by Contract. Adjustments to the application of the capacity component shall be made during outages which cause significant reductions in capacity as provided by the Contract.
</P>
<P>(c) The energy component of the Base Charge shall be a mills per kWh amount determined by (1) multiplying the estimated average annual revenue requirements developed pursuant to paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of § 904.5 of these General Regulations by 50 percent and (2) dividing the results of that multiplication by the average annual kWh estimated to be available from the Project. The energy component of the Base Charge shall be applied to each kWh made available to each Contractor, as provided for by Contract, except for the energy purchased by Western, at the request of a Contractor, to meet that Contractor's deficiency in Firm Energy pursuant to section 105(a)(2) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619(a)(2)) and section F of the Conformed Criteria, and that Contractor's Uprating Program credit carry forward, as provided by Contract. 
</P>
<P>(d) Application of the Base Charge to capacity and energy overruns will be provided for by Contract. The capacity component and the energy component of the Base Charge shall be applied each billing period for each Contractor. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Base Charge shall be reviewed annually. The Base Charge shall be adjusted either upward or downward, when necessary and administratively feasible, to assure sufficient revenues to effect payment of all costs and financial obligations associated with the Project pursuant to paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of § 904.5 of these General Regulations. The Administrator shall provide all Contractors an opportunity to comment on any proposed adjustment to the Base Charge pursuant to the DOE's power rate adjustment procedures then in effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.8   Lower basin development fund contribution charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Lower Basin Development Fund Contribution Charge will be developed by the Administrator of Western on the basis that the equivalent of 4
<FR>1/2</FR> mills or 2
<FR>1/2</FR> mills per kWh, as appropriate, required to be included in the rates charged to purchasers pursuant to section 1543(c)(2) of the Basin Act, as amended by the Hoover Power Plant Act, shall be collected from the energy sales of the Project. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Lower Basin Development Fund Contribution Charge shall be applied to each kWh made available to each Contractor, as provided for by Contract, except for the energy purchased by Western at the request of a Contractor to meet: 
</P>
<P>(1) That Contractor's deficiency in Firm Energy, pursuant to section 105(a)(2) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619(a)(2)) and section F of the Conformed Criteria; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That Contractor's Uprating Program credit carry forward as provided by Contract. A 4
<FR>1/2</FR> mills per kWh charge shall be applied to each kWh made available to an Arizona Contractor, and a 2
<FR>1/2</FR> mills per kWh charge shall be applied to each kWh made available to a California or Nevada Contractor; provided, that after the repayment period of the Central Arizona Project, a 2
<FR>1/2</FR> mills per kWh charge shall be applied to each kWh made available to the Arizona, California, and Nevada Contractors. The Lower Basin Development Fund Contribution Charge shall be applied to energy overruns. The Lower Basin Development Fund Contribution Charge shall be applied each billing period for each Contractor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.9   Excess capacity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Uprating Program results in Excess Capacity, Western shall be entitled to such Excess Capacity to integrate the operation of the Boulder City Area Projects and other Federal Projects on the Colorado River. Specific criteria for the use of Excess Capacity by Western will be provided by Contract. All Excess Capacity not required by Western for the purposes specified by Contract will be available to all Contractors at no additional cost on a pro rata basis based on the ratio of each Contractor's Capacity allocation to the total Capacity allocation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Credits for benefits resulting from project integration shall be determined by Western and such benefits shall be apportioned in accordance with paragraph (9) of § 904.5 of these General Regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.10   Excess energy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If excess Energy is determined by the United States to be available, it shall be made available to the Contractors, in accordance with the priority entitlement of section 105(a)(1)(C) of the Hoover Power Plant Act (43 U.S.C. 619(a)(1)(c)). After the annual first- and second-priority entitlement to excess energy has been obligated for delivery, Western will make available one-third of the third-priority excess energy to the Arizona Power Authority, one-third to the Colorado River Commission of Nevada, and one-third to the California Contractors. 
</P>
<P>(b) Western will make available third-priority excess energy to the California Contractors based on the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>F = 
<FR>1/2</FR> (A/B + C/D) (E); Where: 
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>A = Contractor's allocated Capacity 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B = Total California allocated Capacity 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C = Contractor's allocated Firm Energy 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>D = Total California allocated Firm Energy 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E = Third-priority Excess Energy available to California 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>F = Contractor's third-priority Excess Energy</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The charge for all Excess Energy shall be the charge for Boulder Canyon Project Firm Energy existing at the time the Excess Energy is made available to the Contractor, including the appropriate Lower Basin Development Fund Contribution Charge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.11   Lay off of energy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any Contractor determines that it is temporarily unable to utilize Firm Energy or Excess Energy, Western will, at the Contractor's request, attempt to lay off the Firm Energy or Excess Energy the Contractor declares to be available for lay off, pursuant to the provisions for lay off of energy specified in the Contract.
</P>
<P>(b) If Western is unable to lay off such energy, or if the Contractor fails to request Western to attempt to lay off the energy, the Contractor will be billed for the Firm Energy or Excess Energy that was available to the Contractor but could not be delivered to the Contractor or sold to another customer. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that Western must lay off the Firm Energy or Excess Energy at a rate lower than the effective Firm Energy rate, the Contractor will be billed for the difference between the amount that Western would have received at the then existing Firm Energy rate, including the appropriate Lower Basin Development Fund Contribution Charge, and the amount actually received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.12   Payments to contractors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Funds advanced to the Secretary of the Interior for the Uprating Program and costs reasonably incurred by the Contractor in advancing such funds, as approved by Western, shall be returned to the Contractor advancing the funds during the Contract period through credits on that Contractor's power bills. Appropriate credits will be developed and applied pursuant to terms and conditions agreed to by contract or agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) All other obligations of the United States to return funds to a Contractor shall be repaid to such Contractor through credits on power bills, with or without interest, pursuant to terms and conditions agreed to by contract or agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.13   Disputes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All actions by the Secretary of Energy, acting by and through the Administrator of Western, shall be binding unless or until reversed or modified in accordance with provisions contained herein.
</P>
<P>(b) Any disputes or disagreements as to interpretation or performance of the provisions of these General Regulations under the responsibility of Western shall first be presented to and decided by the Administrator. The Administrator shall be deemed to have denied the Contractor's contention or claim if it is not acted upon within ninety (90) days of its having been presented.
</P>
<P>(c) The decision of the Administrator shall be final unless, within thirty (30) days from the date of such decision, a written request for arbitration is received by the Administrator. The Administrator shall have ninety (90) days from the date of receipt of a request for arbitration either to concur in or deny in writing the request for such arbitration. Failure by the Administrator to take any action within the ninety (90) day period shall be deemed a denial of the request for arbitration. In the event of a denial of a request for arbitration, the decision of the Administrator shall become final. Upon a decision becoming final, the disputing Contractor's remedy lies with the appropriate Federal court. Any claim that a final decision of the Administrator violates any right accorded the Contractor under the Project Act, the Adjustment Act, or Title I of the Hoover Power Plant Act is barred unless suit asserting such claim is filed in a Federal court of competent jurisdiction within one (1) year after final refusal by the Administrator to correct the action complained of, in accordance with section 105(h) of the Hoover Power Plant Act.
</P>
<P>(d) When a timely request for arbitration is received by the Administrator and the Administrator concurs in writing, the disputing Contractor and the Administrator shall, within thirty (30) days after receipt of notice of such concurrence, each name one arbitrator to the panel of arbitrators which will decide the dispute. All arbitrators shall be skilled and experienced in the field pertaining to the dispute. In the event there is more than one disputing Contractor, the disputing Contractors shall collectively name one arbitrator to the panel of arbitrators. In the event of their failure collectively to name such an arbitrator within fifteen (15) days after their first meeting, that arbitrator shall be named as provided in the Commercial Arbitration Rules of the American Arbitration Association. The two arbitrators thus selected shall name a third arbitrator within thirty (30) days of their first meeting. In the event of their failure to so name such third arbitrator, that arbitrator shall be named as provided in the Commercial Arbitration Rules of the American Arbitration Association. The third arbitrator shall act as chairperson of the panel. The arbitration shall be governed by the Commercial Arbitration Rules of the American Arbitration Association. The arbitration shall be limited to the issue submitted. The panel of arbitrators shall not rewrite, change, or amend these General Regulations or the Contracts of any of the parties to the dispute. The panel of arbitrators shall render a final decision in this dispute within sixty (60) days after the date of the naming of the third arbitrator. A decision of any two of the three arbitrators named to the panel shall be final and binding on all parties involved in the dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 904.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.39.1.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 904.14   Future regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Western may from time to time promulgate such additional or amendatory regulations as deemed necessary for the administration of the Project in accordance with applicable law; <I>Provided,</I> That no right under any Contract shall be impaired or obligation thereunder be extended thereby.
</P>
<P>(b) Any modification, extension, or waiver of any provision of these General Regulations granted for the benefit of any one or more Contractors shall not be denied to any other Contractor.
</P>
<P>(c) Western reserves the right to terminate, modify, or extend these regulations, either partially or in their entirety, to the extent permitted by law or existing contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="905" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 905—ENERGY PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT PROGRAM 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7152, 7191; 42 U.S.C. 7275-7276c.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 54174, Oct. 20, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 16795, Mar. 30, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 905.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.1   What are the purposes of the Energy Planning and Management Program?</HEAD>
<P>The purposes of the Energy Planning and Management Program (EPAMP) are to meet the objectives of Section 114 of the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (EPAct) and to extend long-term firm power resource commitments while supporting customer integrated resource planning (IRP); demand-side management (DSM), including energy efficiency, conservation, and load management; and the use of renewable energy. Subpart B, Integrated Resource Planning, allows customers of the Western Area Power Administration (Western) to meet the objectives of section 114 of EPAct through integrated resource planning or by other means, such as attaining a minimum level of investment in energy efficiency and/or renewable energy, collecting a charge to support defined public benefits, or complying with a mandated energy efficiency and/or renewable energy reporting requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.2   What are the key definitions of this part?</HEAD>
<P><I>Administrator</I> means Western's Administrator. 
</P>
<P><I>Customer</I> means any entity that purchases firm capacity, with or without energy, from Western under a long-term firm power contract. The term also includes a member-based association (MBA) and its distribution or user members that receive direct benefit from Western's power, regardless of which holds the contract with Western. 
</P>
<P><I>Energy efficiency and/or renewable energy (EE/RE) report</I> means the report documenting energy efficiency and/or renewable energy activities imposed by a State, Tribal, or the Federal Government upon a State, Tribal, or Federal end-use customer within its jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P><I>Integrated resource planning</I> means a planning process for new energy resources that evaluates the full range of alternatives, including new generating capacity, power purchases, energy conservation and efficiency, cogeneration and district heating and cooling applications, and renewable energy resources, to provide adequate and reliable service to a customer's electric consumers. 
</P>
<P><I>Integrated resource planning cooperative (IRP cooperative)</I> means a group of Western's customers and/or their distribution or user members with geographic, resource supply, or other similarities that have joined together, with Western's approval, to complete an IRP. 
</P>
<P><I>Member-based association (MBA)</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An entity composed of member utilities or user members, or 
</P>
<P>(2) An entity that acts as an agent for, or subcontracts with, but does not assume power supply responsibility for its principals or subcontractors, who are its members. 
</P>
<P><I>Minimum investment report</I> means the report documenting a mandatory minimum level of financial or resource investment in demand-side management (DSM) initiatives, including energy efficiency and load management, and/or renewable energy activities, such as investment of a set minimum percentage of the utility's gross revenues in renewable energy, which is imposed by State, Tribal, or Federal law upon a customer under its jurisdiction. For the purposes of this part, the minimum investment report includes reports about public benefits charges, as well. 
</P>
<P><I>Public benefits charge</I> means a mandatory financial charge imposed by State, Tribal, or Federal law upon a customer under its jurisdiction to support one or more of the following: energy efficiency, conservation, or demand-side management; renewable energy; efficiency or alternative energy-related research and development; low-income energy assistance; and/or other similar programs defined by applicable State, Tribal, or Federal law. This term is also known as a public goods or system benefit charge in the utility industry. 
</P>
<P><I>Region</I> means a Western regional office or management center, and the geographic territory served by that regional office or management center: the Desert Southwest Customer Service Region, the Rocky Mountain Customer Service Region, the Sierra Nevada Customer Service Region, the Upper Great Plains Customer Service Region, or the Colorado River Storage Project Management Center. 
</P>
<P><I>Renewable energy</I> means any source of electricity that is self-renewing, including plant-based biomass, waste-based biomass, geothermal, hydropower, ocean thermal, solar (active and passive), and wind. 
</P>
<P><I>Small customer</I> means a utility customer with total annual sales and usage of 25 gigawatthours (GWh) or less, as averaged over the previous 5 years, which is not a member of a joint-action agency or generation and transmission cooperative with power supply responsibility; or any end-use customer. 
</P>
<P><I>Western</I> means the Western Area Power Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Integrated Resource Planning</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 16796, Mar. 30, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 905.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.10   Who must comply with the integrated resource planning and reporting regulations in this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Integrated resource plans (IRP) and alternatives.</I> Each Western customer must address its power resource needs in an IRP prepared and submitted to Western as described in this subpart. Alternatively, Western customers may submit a small customer plan, minimum investment report or EE/RE report as provided in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rural Utility Service and state utility commission reports.</I> For customers subject to IRP filings or other electrical resource use reports from the Rural Utilities Service or a state utility commission, nothing in this part requires a customer to take any action inconsistent with those requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.11   What must an IRP include?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Integrated resource planning is a planning process for new energy resources that evaluates the full range of alternatives, including new generating capacity, power purchases, energy conservation and efficiency, cogeneration and district heating and cooling applications, and renewable energy resources, to provide adequate and reliable service to a customer's electric consumers. An IRP supports customer-developed goals and schedules. The plan must take into account necessary features for system operation, such as diversity, reliability, dispatchability, and other risk factors; must take into account the ability to verify energy savings achieved through energy efficiency and the projected durability of such savings measured over time; and must treat demand and supply resources on a consistent and integrated basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>IRP criteria.</I> IRPs must consider electrical energy resource needs and may consider, at the customer's option, water, natural gas, and other energy resources. Each IRP submitted to Western must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identification of resource options.</I> Identification and comparison of resource options is an assessment and comparison of existing and future supply-and demand-side resource options available to a customer based upon its size, type, resource needs, geographic area, and competitive situation. Resource options evaluated by the specific customer must be identified. The options evaluated should relate to the resource situation unique to each Western customer as determined by profile data (such as service area, geographical characteristics, customer mix, historical loads, projected growth, existing system data, rates, and financial information) and load forecasts. Specific details of the customer's resource comparison need not be provided in the IRP itself. They must, however, be made available to Western upon request. 
</P>
<P>(i) Supply-side options include, but are not limited to, purchased power contracts and conventional and renewable generation options. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Demand-side options alter the customer's use pattern to provide for an improved combination of energy services to the customer and the ultimate consumer. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Considerations that may be used to develop potential options include cost, market potential, consumer preferences, environmental impacts, demand or energy impacts, implementation issues, revenue impacts, and commercial availability. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The IRP discussion of resource options must describe the options chosen by the customer, clearly demonstrating that decisions were based on a reasonable analysis of the options. The IRP may strike a balance among the applicable resource evaluation factors. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Action plan.</I> IRPs must include an action plan describing specific actions the customer will take to implement its IRP. 
</P>
<P>(i) The IRP must state the time period that the action plan covers, and the action plan must be updated and resubmitted to Western when this time period expires. The customer may submit a revised action plan with the annual IRP progress report discussed in § 905.14. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For those customers not experiencing or anticipating load growth, the action plan requirement for the IRP may be satisfied by a discussion of current actions and procedures in place to periodically reevaluate the possible future need for new resources. The action plan must include a summary of: 
</P>
<P>(A) Actions the customer expects to take in accomplishing the goals identified in the IRP; 
</P>
<P>(B) Milestones to evaluate accomplishment of those actions during implementation; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Estimated energy and capacity benefits for each action planned. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Environmental effects.</I> To the extent practical, the customer must minimize adverse environmental effects of new resource acquisitions and document these efforts in the IRP. Customers are neither precluded from nor required to include a quantitative analysis of environmental externalities as part of the IRP process. IRPs must include a qualitative analysis of environmental effects in summary format. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public participation.</I> The customer must provide ample opportunity for full public participation in preparing and developing an IRP (or any IRP revision or amendment). The IRP must include a brief description of public involvement activities, including how the customer gathered information from the public, identified public concerns, shared information with the public, and responded to public comments. Customers must make additional documentation identifying or supporting the full public process available to Western upon request. 
</P>
<P>(i) As part of the public participation process for an MBA, the governing body of an MBA must approve the IRP in accordance with the MBA's by-laws, confirming that all requirements have been met. To indicate approval in the case of an individual IRP submitted by an entity with a board of directors or city council, a responsible official must sign the IRP submitted to Western or the customer must document passage of an approval resolution by the appropriate governing body included or referred to in the IRP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For Western customers that do not purchase electricity for resale, such as some State, Tribal, and Federal agencies, the customer can satisfy the public participation requirement by having a top management official with resource acquisition responsibility review and concur on the IRP. The customer must note this concurrence in the IRP. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Load forecasting.</I> An IRP must include a statement that the customer conducted load forecasting. Load forecasting should include data that reflects the size, type, resource conditions, and demographic nature of the customer using an accepted load forecasting method, including but not limited to the time series, end-use, and econometric methods. The customer must make the load forecasting data available to Western upon request. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Measurement strategies.</I> The IRP must include a brief description of measurement strategies for options identified in the IRP to determine whether the IRP's objectives are being met. These validation methods must include identification of the baseline from which a customer will measure the benefits of its IRP implementation. A reasonable balance may be struck between the cost of data collection and the benefits resulting from obtaining exact information. Customers must make performance validation and evaluation data available to Western upon request. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IRP criteria for certain customers not qualifying for “small customer” status.</I> Customers with limited economic, managerial, and resource capability and total annual sales and usage of 25 gigawatthours (GWh) or less who are members of joint-action agencies and generation and transmission cooperatives with power supply responsibility are eligible for the criteria specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) Each IRP submitted by a customer under paragraph (c) of this section must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Consider all reasonable opportunities to meet future energy service requirements using DSM techniques, renewable energy resources, and other programs; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Minimize, to the extent practical, adverse environmental effects. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each IRP submitted by a customer under paragraph (c) of this section must include, in summary form: 
</P>
<P>(i) Customer name, address, phone number, email and Website if applicable, and contact person; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Customer type; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Current energy and demand profiles, and data on total annual energy sales and usage for the past 5 years, which Western will use to verify that customers qualify for these criteria; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Future energy services projections; 
</P>
<P>(v) How items in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section were considered; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Actions to be implemented over the customer's planning timeframe.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 16795, Mar. 30, 2000, as amended at 73 FR 35062, June 20, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.12   How must IRPs be submitted?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Number of IRPs submitted.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, one IRP is required per customer, regardless of the number of long-term firm power contracts between the customer and Western. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of submitting IRPs.</I> Customers must submit IRPs to Western under one of the following options: 
</P>
<P>(1) Customers may submit IRPs individually. 
</P>
<P>(2) MBAs may submit IRPs for each of their members or submit one IRP on behalf of all or some of their members. An IRP submitted by an MBA must specify the responsibilities and participation levels of individual members and the MBA. Any member of an MBA may submit an individual IRP to Western instead of being included in an MBA IRP. 
</P>
<P>(3) Customers may submit IRPs as regional/IRP cooperatives when previously approved by Western. Western encourages customers to prepare “regional” IRPs. Regional IRPs are voluntary and participants need not be members of an MBA or a Western customer. Regional/IRP cooperatives may also submit small customer plans, minimum investment reports, and EE/RE reports on behalf of eligible IRP cooperative members.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternatives to submitting individual IRPs.</I> Customers with Western approval to submit small customer plans, minimum investment or EE/RE reports may substitute the applicable plan or report instead of an IRP. Each customer that intends to seek approval for IRP cooperative, small customer, minimum investment report or EE/RE report status must provide advance written notification to Western. A new customer must provide this notification to the Western Regional Manager of the Region in which the customer is located within 30 days from the time it becomes a customer. Any customer may resubmit an IRP or notify Western of its plan to change its compliance method at any time so long as there is no period of noncompliance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 16795, Mar. 30, 2000, as amended at 73 FR 35062, June 20, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.13   When must IRPs be submitted?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submitting the initial IRP.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, customers that have not previously had an IRP approved by Western must submit the initial IRP to the appropriate Regional Manager no later than 1 year after May 1, 2000, or after becoming a customer, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Updates and amendments to IRPs.</I> Customers must submit updated IRPs to the appropriate Regional Manager every 5 years after Western's approval of the initial IRP. Customers that complied with Western's IRP regulations in effect before May 1, 2000 must maintain their submission and resubmission schedules previously in effect. Customers may submit amendments and revisions to IRPs at any time. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IRP cooperatives.</I> Customers with geographic, resource supply, and other similarities may join together and request, in writing, Western's approval to become an IRP cooperative. Western will respond to IRP cooperative status requests within 30 days of receiving a request. If Western disapproves a request for IRP cooperative status, the requesting participants must maintain their currently applicable integrated resource or small customer plans, or submit the initial IRPs no later than 1 year after the date of the disapproval letter. Western's approval of IRP cooperative status will not be based on any potential participant's contractual status with Western. Each IRP cooperative must submit an IRP for its participants within 18 months after Western approves IRP cooperative status.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.14   Does Western require annual IRP progress reports?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, customers must submit IRP progress reports each year within 30 days of the anniversary date of the approval of the currently applicable IRP. The reports must describe the customer's accomplishments achieved under the action plan, including projected goals and implementation schedules, and energy and capacity benefits and renewable energy developments achieved as compared to those anticipated. Western prefers measured values, but will accept reasonable estimates if measurement is infeasible or not cost-effective. Instead of a separate progress report, the customer may use any other annual report that the customer submits to Western or another entity, at the customer's discretion, if that report contains all required data for the previous full year and is submitted within 30 days of the approval anniversary date of the currently applicable IRP. With Western's approval, customers may submit reports outside of the 30-day anniversary date window. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.15   What are the requirements for the small customer plan alternative?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requesting small customer status.</I> Small customers may submit a request to prepare a small customer plan instead of an IRP. Requests for small customer status from electric utilities must include data on total annual energy sales and usage for the 5 years prior to the request. Western will average this data to determine overall annual energy sales and usage so that uncontrollable events, such as extreme weather, do not distort levelized energy sales and usage. Requests from end-use customers must only document that the customer does not purchase electricity for resale. Western will respond to small customer status requests within 30 days of receiving the request. If Western disapproves a request, the customer must maintain its currently applicable IRP, or submit the initial IRP no later than 1 year after the date of the disapproval letter. Alternatively, the customer may submit a request for minimum investment report or EE/RE report status, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Small customer plan contents.</I> Small customer plans must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Consider all reasonable opportunities to meet future energy service requirements using demand-side management techniques, renewable energy resources, and other programs that provide retail consumers with electricity at reasonable cost; 
</P>
<P>(2) Minimize, to the extent practical, adverse environmental effects; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Present in summary form the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) Customer name, address, phone number, email and Website if applicable, and contact person; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Type of customer; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Current energy and demand profiles and data on total annual energy sales and usage for the previous 5 years for utility customers, or current energy and demand use for end-use customers; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Future energy services projections; 
</P>
<P>(v) How items in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section were considered; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Actions to be implemented over the customer's planning timeframe. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to submit small customer plans.</I> Small customers must submit the first small customer plan to the appropriate Western Regional Manager within 1 year after Western approves the request for small customer status. Small customers must submit, in writing, a small customer plan every 5 years. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintaining small customer status.</I> (1) Every year on the anniversary of Western's approval of the plan, small customers must submit a letter to Western verifying that either their annual energy sales and usage is 25 GWh or less averaged over the previous 5 years, or they continue to be end-use customers. The letter must also identify their achievements against targeted action plans, as well as the revised summary of actions if the previous summary of actions has expired. 
</P>
<P>(2) Western will use the letter for overall program evaluation and comparison with the customer's plan, and for verification of continued small customer status. Customers may submit annual update letters outside of the anniversary date if previously agreed to by Western so long as the letter contains all required data for the previous full year. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Losing eligibility for small customer status.</I> (1) A customer ceases to be a small customer if it: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is a utility customer and exceeds total annual energy sales and usage of 25 GWh, as averaged over the previous 5 years; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is no longer an end-use customer. 
</P>
<P>(2) Western will work with a customer that loses small customer status to develop an appropriate schedule for submitting an IRP or other report required under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.16   What are the requirements for the minimum investment report alternative?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request to submit the minimum investment report.</I> Customers may submit a request to prepare a minimum investment report instead of an IRP. Minimum investment reports may be submitted by MBAs on behalf of the MBA or its members, and by IRP cooperatives on behalf of its participants. Requests to submit minimum investment reports must include data on: 
</P>
<P>(1) The source of the minimum investment requirement (number, title, date, and jurisdiction of law); 
</P>
<P>(2) The initial, annual, and other reporting requirement(s) of the mandate, if any; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The mandated minimum level of investment or public benefits charge for DSM and/or renewable energy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum investment requirement.</I> The minimum investment must be either: 
</P>
<P>(1) A mandatory set percentage of customer gross revenues or other specific minimum investment in DSM and/or renewable energy mandated by a State, Tribal, or Federal Government with jurisdictional authority; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A required public benefits charge, including charges to be collected for and spent on DSM; renewable energy; efficiency and alternative energy-related research and development; low-income energy assistance; and any other applicable public benefits category, mandated by a State, Tribal, or Federal Government with jurisdictional authority. Participation in a public benefits program requires either a mandatory set percentage of customer gross revenues or other specific charges to be applied toward the programs as determined by the applicable State, Tribal, or Federal authority. The revenues from the public benefits charge may be expended directly by the customer, or by another entity on behalf of the customer as determined by the applicable State, Tribal, or Federal authority. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multi-state entities.</I> For those customers with service territories lying in more than one State or Tribal jurisdiction, and where at least one of the States or Tribal jurisdictions has a mandated minimum investment requirement, to meet this alternative customers must use the highest requirement from the State or Tribe within the customer's service territory and additionally apply it to all members in those States or Tribal jurisdictions in which there is no requirement. Alternatively, if each State or Tribe has a requirement, customers may satisfy Western's requirement by reporting on compliance with each applicable minimum investment requirement. Western will work with multi-state entities to ensure the most effective, and least burdensome, compliance mechanism. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Western's response to minimum investment report requests.</I> Western will respond to requests to accept minimum investment reports within 30 days of receiving the request. If Western disapproves a request to allow use of the minimum investment report, the customer must maintain its currently applicable IRP or small customer plan, or submit its initial IRP no later than 1 year after the date of the disapproval letter. Alternatively, the customer may submit a request for small customer plan or EE/RE report status, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Minimum investment report contents.</I> Reports documenting compliance with a minimum level of investment in DSM and/or renewable energy must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Customer name, address, phone number, email and Website if applicable, and contact person; 
</P>
<P>(2) Authority or requirement to undertake a minimum investment, including the source of the minimum investment requirement (number, title, date, and jurisdiction of law or regulation); and 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the minimum investment, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Minimum percentage or other minimum requirement for DSM and/or renewable energy, including any charges to be collected for and spent on DSM, renewable energy, efficiency or alternative energy-related research and development, low-income energy assistance, and any other applicable public benefits categories; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Actual or estimated energy and/or capacity savings resulting from minimum investments in DSM, if known; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Actual or estimated energy and/or capacity resulting from minimum investments in renewable energy, if known; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the DSM and/or renewable energy activities to be undertaken over the next 2 years as a result of the requirement for minimum investment, if known. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Minimum investment report approval.</I> Western will approve the minimum investment report when it meets the requirements in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>When to submit the minimum investment report.</I> The customer must submit the first minimum investment report to the appropriate Western Regional Manager within 1 year after Western approves the request to accept the minimum investment report. Customers choosing this option must maintain IRP or small customer plan compliance with Western's IRP regulations in effect before May 1, 2000, including submitting annual progress reports or update letters, until submitting the first minimum investment report, to ensure there is no gap in complying with section 114 of EPAct. Customers must submit, in writing, a minimum investment report every 5 years. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Maintaining minimum investment reports.</I> (1) Every year on the anniversary of Western's approval of the first minimum investment report, customers choosing this option must submit a letter to Western verifying that they remain in compliance with the minimum investment requirement. The letter must also contain summary information identifying annual energy and capacity savings associated with minimum investments in DSM, if known, and energy and capacity associated with minimum investments in renewable energy, if known. The letter must also include a revised description of customer DSM and/or renewable energy activities if the description from the minimum investment report has changed or expired. 
</P>
<P>(2) Western will use the letter for overall program evaluation and to ensure customers remain in compliance. Customers may submit letters outside of the anniversary date if previously agreed to by Western, and if the letter contains all required data for the previous full year. Instead of a separate letter, a customer choosing this option may submit the State, Tribal, or Federal required annual report documenting the minimum investment and associated DSM and/or renewable energy savings and/or use, if known. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loss of eligibility to submit the minimum investment report.</I> (1) A customer ceases to be eligible to submit a minimum investment report if: 
</P>
<P>(i) A State, Tribal, or Federal mandate no longer applies to the customer, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The customer does not comply with the minimum level of investment in applicable State, Tribal, or Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(2) Western will work with a customer no longer eligible to submit a minimum investment report to develop an appropriate schedule to submit an IRP or other plan or report required under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.17" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.17   What are the requirements for the energy efficiency and/or renewable energy report (EE/RE report) alternative?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests to submit an EE/RE report.</I> End-use customers may submit a request to prepare an EE/RE report instead of an IRP. Requests to submit EE/RE reports must include data on: 
</P>
<P>(1) The source of the EE/RE reporting requirement (number, title, date, and jurisdiction of law or regulation); 
</P>
<P>(2) The initial, annual, and other reporting requirement(s) of the report; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A summary outline of the EE/RE report's required data or components, including any requirements for documenting customer energy efficiency and renewable energy activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>EE/RE report requirement.</I> The EE/RE report is based on a mandate by a State, Tribal, or Federal Government to implement energy efficiency and/or renewable energy activities within a specified timeframe, for which there is also an associated reporting requirement. The EE/RE report may include only electrical resource use and energy efficiency and/or renewable energy activities, or may additionally include other resource information, such as water and natural gas data. At a minimum, the EE/RE report must annually document energy efficiency and/or renewable energy activities undertaken by the end-use customer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Western's response to EE/RE report requests.</I> Western will respond to requests to accept EE/RE reports within 30 days of receiving the request. If Western disapproves a request to allow use of the EE/RE report, the customer must maintain its currently applicable IRP or small customer plan, or submit its initial IRP no later than 1 year after the date of the disapproval letter. Alternatively, the customer may submit a request for small customer plan or minimum investment report, as appropriate, within 30 days after the date of the disapproval letter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>EE/RE report contents.</I> EE/RE reports must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Customer name, address, phone number, email and Website if applicable, and contact person; 
</P>
<P>(2) Authority or requirement to complete the EE/RE report, including the source of the requirement (number, title, date, and jurisdiction of law); and
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the customer's required energy efficiency and/or renewable energy activities, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Level of investment or expenditure in energy efficiency and/or renewable energy, and quantifiable energy savings or use goals, if defined by the EE/RE reporting requirement; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Annual actual or estimated energy and/or capacity savings, if any, associated with energy efficiency and resulting from the EE/RE reporting requirement; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Actual or estimated energy and/or capacity, if any, associated with renewable energy and resulting from the EE/RE reporting requirement; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the energy efficiency and/or renewable energy activities to be undertaken over the next 2 years as a result of the EE/RE reporting requirement. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>EE/RE report approval.</I> Western will approve the EE/RE report when the report meets the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>When to submit the EE/RE report.</I> The customer must submit the first EE/RE report to the appropriate Western Regional Manager within 1 year after Western approves the request to accept the EE/RE report. Customers choosing this option must maintain IRP or small customer plan compliance with Western's IRP regulations in effect before May 1, 2000, including submitting annual progress reports or update letters, until submitting the first EE/RE report to ensure there is no gap in complying with section 114 of EPAct. Customers must submit, in writing, an EE/RE report every 5 years. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maintaining EE/RE reports.</I> (1) Every year on the anniversary of Western's approval of the first EE/RE report, customers choosing this option must submit an annual EE/RE letter to Western. The letter must contain summary information identifying customer annual energy and capacity savings associated with energy efficiency, if any, and annual customer energy and capacity associated with renewable energy, if any. The letter must also verify that the customer remains in compliance with the EE/RE reporting requirement. Additionally, the letter must include a revised description of customer DSM and/or renewable energy activities if the description from the EE/RE report has changed or expired. If this information is contained in an EE/RE report sent to another authority, the customer may submit that report instead of a separate letter. 
</P>
<P>(2) Customers may submit annual EE/RE letters outside of the anniversary date if previously agreed to by Western if the letter contains all required data for the previous full year. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Loss of eligibility to submit the EE/RE report.</I> (1) A customer ceases to be eligible to submit a EE/RE report if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The EE/RE reporting requirement no longer applies to the customer, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The customer does not comply with the EE/RE reporting requirements in applicable State, Tribal, or Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(2) Western will work with a customer no longer eligible to submit an EE/RE report to develop an appropriate schedule to submit a small customer plan or other plan or report required under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.18" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.18   What are the criteria for Western's approval of submittals?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval criteria.</I> Western will approve all plans and reports based upon: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the plan or report satisfactorily addresses the criteria in the regulations in this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The reasonableness of the plan or report given the size, type, resource needs, geographic area, and competitive situation of the customer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of resource choices.</I> Western will review resource choices using section 114 of EPAct and this subpart. Western will disapprove plans and reports if Western deems that they do not meet the reasonableness criteria in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or the provisions of section 114 of EPAct. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accepting plans and reports under other initiatives.</I> If a customer or group of customers implements integrated resource planning under a program responding to other Federal, Tribal, or State initiatives, Western will accept and approve the plan or report as long as it substantially complies with the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Water-based plans and reports.</I> In evaluating a plan or report, Western will consider water planning, efficiency improvements, and conservation in the same manner it considers energy planning and efficiencies. Customers that provide water utility services and customers that service irrigation load as part of their overall load may include water conservation activities in their plans or reports. To the extent practical, customers should convert reported water savings to energy values.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.19" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.19   How are plans and reports reviewed and approved?</HEAD>
<P>Western will review all plans and reports submitted under this subpart and notify the submitting entity of the plan's or report's acceptability within 120 days after receiving it. If a plan or report submittal is insufficient, Western will provide a notice of deficiencies to the entity that submitted the plan or report. Western, working together with the entity, will determine the time allowable for resubmitting the plan or report. However, the time allowed for resubmittal will not be greater than 9 months after the disapproval date, unless otherwise provided by applicable contract language. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.20   When are customers in noncompliance with the regulations in this subpart, and how does Western ensure compliance?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Good faith effort to comply.</I> If it appears that a customer's activities may be inconsistent with the applicable IRP, small customer plan, minimum investment report or EE/RE report, Western will notify the customer and offer the customer 30 days to provide evidence of its good faith effort to comply. If the customer does not correct the specified deficiency or submit such evidence, or if Western finds, after receiving information from the customer, that a good faith effort has not been made, Western will impose a penalty. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Penalties for noncompliance.</I> Western will impose a penalty on long-term firm power customers for failing to submit or resubmit an acceptable IRP and action plan, small customer plan, minimum investment report or EE/RE report as required by this subpart. Western will also impose a penalty when the customer's activities are not consistent with the applicable plan or report unless Western finds that a good faith effort has been made to comply with the approved plan or report. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written notification of penalty.</I> Western will provide written notice of a penalty to the customer, and to the MBA or IRP cooperative when applicable. The notice will specify the reasons for the penalty. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Penalty options.</I> (1) Beginning with the first full billing period following the notice specified in paragraph (c) of this section, Western will impose a surcharge of 10 percent of the monthly power charges until the deficiency specified in the notice is cured, or until 12 months pass. However, Western will not immediately impose a penalty if the customer or its MBA or IRP cooperative requests reconsideration by filing a written appeal under § 905.21. 
</P>
<P>(2) The surcharge increases to 20 percent for the second 12 months and to 30 percent per year thereafter until the deficiency is cured. 
</P>
<P>(3) After the first 12 months of the surcharge and instead of imposing any further surcharge, Western may impose a penalty that would reduce the resource delivered under a customer's long-term firm power contract(s) by 10 percent. Western may impose this resource reduction either: 
</P>
<P>(i) When it appears to be more effective to ensure customer compliance, or
</P>
<P>(ii) When such reduction may be more cost-effective for Western. 
</P>
<P>(4) The penalty provisions in existing contracts will continue to be in effect and administered and enforced according to applicable contract provisions. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Assessing and ceasing penalties.</I> Western will assess the surcharge on the total charges for all power obtained by a customer from Western and will not be limited to surcharges on only firm power sales. When a customer resolves the deficiencies, Western will cease imposing the penalty, beginning with the first full billing period after compliance is achieved. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Penalties on MBAs and IRP cooperatives.</I> In situations involving a plan or report submitted by an MBA on behalf of its members where a single member does not comply, Western will impose a penalty upon the MBA on a pro rata basis in proportion to that member's share of the total MBA's power received from Western. In situations involving noncompliance by a participant of an IRP cooperative, Western will impose any applicable penalty directly upon that participant if it has a firm power contract with Western. If the IRP cooperative participant does not have a firm power contract with Western, then Western will impose a penalty upon the participant's MBA on a pro rata basis in proportion to that participant's share of the total MBA's power received from Western.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.21   What is the administrative appeal process?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing written appeals with Western.</I> If a customer disagrees with Western's decision on the acceptability of its IRP, small customer plan, minimum investment report or EE/RE report submittal, its compliance with an approved plan or report, or any other compliance issue, the customer may request reconsideration by filing a written appeal with the appropriate Regional Manager. Customers may submit appeals any time such disagreements occur and should be specific as to the nature of the issue, the reasons for the disagreement, and any other pertinent facts the customer believes should be brought to Western's attention. The Regional Manager will respond within 45 days of receiving the appeal. If resolution is not achieved at the Regional Office level, the customer may appeal to the Administrator, who will respond within 30 days of receiving the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative dispute resolution.</I> Upon request, Western will agree to use mutually agreeable alternative dispute resolution procedures, to the extent allowed by law, to resolve issues or disputes relating to compliance with the regulations in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Penalties during appeal.</I> Western will not impose a penalty while an appeal process is pending. However, if the appeal is unsuccessful for the customer, Western will impose the penalty retroactively from the date the penalty would have been assessed if an appeal had not been filed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Meeting other requirements during appeal process.</I> A written appeal or use of alternative dispute resolution procedures does not suspend other reporting and compliance requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.22   How does Western periodically evaluate customer actions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Periodic review of customer actions.</I> Western will periodically evaluate customer actions to determine whether they are consistent with the approved IRP or minimum investment report. Small customer plans and EE/RE reports are not subject to this periodic review. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reviewing representative samples of plans and reports.</I> Western will periodically review a representative sample of IRPs and minimum investment reports, and the customer's implementation of the applicable plan or report from each of Western's Regions. The samples will reflect the diverse characteristics and circumstances of the customers that purchase power from Western. These reviews will be in addition to, and separate and apart from, the review of initial and updated IRPs and minimum investment reports to ensure compliance with this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope of periodic reviews.</I> Periodic reviews may consist of any combination of review of the customer's annual IRP progress reports, minimum investment letters, telephone interviews, or on-site visits. Western will document these periodic reviews and may report on the results of the reviews in Western's annual report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.23   What are the opportunities for using the Freedom of Information Act to request plan and report data?</HEAD>
<P>IRPs, small customer plans, minimum investment reports and EE/RE reports and associated data submitted to Western are subject to the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and may be made available to the public upon request. IRPs must be posted on a customer's publicly available Web site or on Western's Web site. Customers posting their IRPs on their own Web site must notify Western of this decision when they submit their IRP. A hotlink on Western's Web site to IRPs posted on customer Web sites gives interested parties ready access to those IRPs. Western will post on its Web site the IRPs of customers that do not post on their own Web sites. Prior to posting, Western will provide the customer the opportunity to submit its views on whether information contained in the IRP is exempt from the FOIA's mandatory public disclosure requirements. Customers may request confidential treatment of all or part of a submitted document consistent with FOIA exemptions. Western will determine whether particular information is exempt from public access. Western will not disclose to the public information it has determined to be exempt, recognizing that certain competition-related customer information may be proprietary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 35062, June 20, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.2.16.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.24   Will Western conduct reviews of this program?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, Western may periodically initiate a public process to review the regulations in this subpart to determine whether they should be revised to reflect changes in technology, needs, or other developments.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Power Marketing Initiative</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.30   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Power Marketing Initiative (PMI) provides a framework for marketing Western's long-term firm hydroelectric resources. For covered projects, Western will make a major portion of the resources currently under contract available to existing long-term firm power customers for a period of time beyond the expiration date of their current contracts. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Western projects covered by this subpart are the Pick-Sloan Missouri Basin Program—Eastern Division and the Loveland Area Projects (LAP). The PMI applies to covered projects to the extent it is consistent with other contractual and legal rights, and subject to any applicable project-specific environmental requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.31   Term.</HEAD>
<P>Western will extend resource commitments for 20 years from the date existing contracts expire to existing customers with long-term firm power contracts from projects identified in section 905.30(b). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.32   Resource extensions and resource pool size.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Western will extend a project-specific percentage of the marketable resource, determined to be available at the time future resource extensions begin, to existing customers with long-term firm power contracts. The remaining unextended power will be used to establish project-specific resource pools. An initial level of 96 percent of the marketable resource will be extended for the Pick-Sloan Missouri Basin Program—Eastern Division and the Loveland Area Projects. 
</P>
<P>(b) At two 5-year intervals after the effective date of the extension to existing customers, Western shall create a project-specific resource pool increment of up to an additional 1 percent of the long-term marketable resource under contract at the time. The size of the additional resource pool increment shall be determined by Western based on consideration of the actual fair-share needs of eligible new customers and other appropriate purposes. 
</P>
<P>(c) The initial pool percentages shall be applied to the marketable resource determined to be available at the time future resource extensions begin. Subsequent percentages shall be applied to the resource under contract at the time. 
</P>
<P>(d) The additional resource pool increments shall be established by pro rata withdrawals, on 2 years' notice, from then-existing customers. Withdrawals could be mitigated or delayed if good water conditions exist. 
</P>
<P>(e) Once the extensions for existing customers and allocations to new customers from the resource pool have been made, additional power resources may become available for various reasons. Any additional available resources will be used as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) If power is reserved for new customers but not allocated, or resources are offered but not placed under contract, this power will be offered on a pro rata basis to customers that contributed to the resource pool through application of the extension formula in § 905.33. 
</P>
<P>(2) If power resources become available as a result of the enhancement of existing generation, project-use load efficiency upgrades, the development of new resources, or resources turned back to Western, Western may elect to use this power to reduce the need to acquire firming resources, retain the power for operational flexibility, sell these resources on a short-term basis, or allocate the power. 
</P>
<P>(3) If resources become available due to imposition of penalties pursuant to § 905.17, Western may make such resources available within the marketing area to existing customers that are in compliance with subpart B, subject to withdrawal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.33   Extension formula.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amount of power to be extended to an existing customer shall be determined according to this formula:
</P>
<P>Customer Contract Rate of Delivery (CROD) today/total project CROD under contract today × project-specific percentage × marketable resource determined to be available at the time future resource extensions begin = CROD extended. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where contract rates of delivery vary by season, the formula shall be used on a seasonal basis to determine the extended power resource. A similar pro rata approach shall be used for energy extensions. 
</P>
<P>(c) Determination of the amount of resource available after existing contracts expire, if significantly different from existing resource commitments, shall take place only after an appropriate public process. 
</P>
<P>(d) The formula set forth in paragraph (a) of this section also should be used to determine the amounts of firm power subject to withdrawal at 5-year intervals after the effective date of the extension to existing customers, except that the percentage used would be up to 1 percent for each of the two withdrawal opportunities, and the formula would use the customer CROD, project CROD and the resource under contract at the time. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.34   Adjustment provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Western reserves the right to adjust marketable resources committed to all customers with long-term firm power contracts only as required to respond to changes in hydrology and river operations, except as otherwise expressly provided in these regulations. Under contracts that extend resources under this PMI, existing customers shall be given at least 5 years' notice before adjustments are made. New customers may receive less notice. The earliest that any notice under this section shall become effective is the date that existing contractual commitments expire. Any adjustment shall only take place after an appropriate public process. Withdrawals to serve project use and other purposes provided for by contract shall continue to take place based on existing contract/marketing criteria principles. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.35" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.35   New customer eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Allocations to new customers from the project-specific resource pools established under § 905.32 shall be determined through separate public processes in each project's marketing area. New customers receiving an allocation must execute a long-term firm power contract to receive the allocated power and are required to comply with the IRP requirements in this part. Contracts with new customers shall expire on the same date as firm power contracts with all other customers of a project. 
</P>
<P>(b) To be eligible for an allocation, a potential new customer must be a preference entity, as defined in Reclamation law, within the currently established marketing area for a project. 
</P>
<P>(c) Entities that desire to purchase power from Western for resale to consumers, including municipalities, cooperatives, public utility districts and public power districts, must have utility status. Native American tribes are not subject to this requirement. Utility status means that the entity has responsibility to meet load growth, has a distribution system, and is ready, willing, and able to purchase power from Western on a wholesale basis for resale to retail consumers. To be eligible to apply for power available from a project's initial resource pool, those entities that desire to purchase Western power for resale to consumers must have attained utility status by December 31, 1996, for the Pick-Sloan Missouri Basin Program—Eastern Division, and by September 30, 2000, for the Loveland Area Projects. To be eligible to apply for power from subsequent resource pool increments, these entities must have attained utility status no later than 3 years prior to availability of the incremental addition to the resource pool. Deadlines for attaining utility status for other projects will be established at a later date. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.36" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.36   Marketing criteria.</HEAD>
<P>Western shall retain applicable provisions of existing marketing criteria for projects where resource commitments are extended beyond the current expiration date of long-term firm power sales contracts. Western must retain important marketing plan provisions such as classes of service, marketing area, and points of delivery, to the extent that these provisions are consistent with the PMI. The PMI, eligibility and allocation criteria for potential new customers, retained or amended provisions of existing marketing criteria, the project-specific resource definition, and the size of a project-specific resource pool shall constitute the future marketing plan for each project. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.37" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.3.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.37   Process.</HEAD>
<P>Modified contractual language shall be required to place resource extensions under contract. Resource extensions and allocations to new customers from the initial resource pool will take effect when existing contracts expire. These dates are December 31, 2000, for the Pick-Sloan Missouri Basin Program—Eastern Division and September 30, 2004, for the Loveland Area Projects. For the Pick-Sloan Missouri Basin Program—Eastern Division, Western will offer contracts to existing customers for resource extensions no sooner than the effective date of the final regulations. For the Loveland Area Projects, existing contracts provide for potential adjustments to marketable resources in 1999. No contracts will be offered to existing customers for post-2004 Loveland Area Projects resources until the analysis of potential resource adjustments in 1999 has been completed and any adjustments are implemented. Existing power sales contracts require that this analysis be completed by 1996. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Energy Services</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.4.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.40   Technical assistance.</HEAD>
<P>Western shall establish a program that provides technical assistance to customers to conduct integrated resource planning, implement applicable IRPs and small customer plans, and otherwise comply with the requirements of these regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Final Principles of Integrated Resource Planning for Western Resource Acquisition</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 56481, Sept. 22, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 905.50" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.5.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.50   Resource acquisition principles.</HEAD>
<P>Western's resource acquisition activities will be determined by project-specific power marketing plans, hydropower production capability, and the application of the following principles of IRP:
</P>
<P>(a) Western will consider a full range of resource options, both supply-side and demand-side, as well as renewable resource options.
</P>
<P>(b) On a project-by-project basis, Western, through a public process involving interested stakeholders will develop criteria to be used in evaluating power resource alternatives.
</P>
<P>(c) Evaluation criteria will address cost, environmental impact, dependability, dispatchability, risk, diversity, and the ability to verify demand-side alternatives. Evaluation criteria will be reviewed as the need for resources changes or when long-term commitments to purchase power expire.
</P>
<P>(d) Evaluation criteria will be consistent with Western's power marketing policy, which states that Federal power is to be marketed in such a manner as to encourage the most widespread use thereof at the lowest possible rates to consumers consistent with sound business principles. The policy, found in Delegation Order No. 00-037.00A, is derived from statutes authorizing the sale of power from both Department of the Army and Department of the Interior hydroelectric projects. These statutes include section 5 of the Flood Control Act of 1944, 16 U.S.C. 825(s) and section 9(c) of the Reclamation Project Act of 1939.
</P>
<P>(e) Resource acquisition planning will be consistent with power marketing plans and associated contractual obligations.
</P>
<P>(f) Resource acquisition decisions will be documented and made available to Western's power customers and the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 905.51" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.40.5.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 905.51   Transmission planning principles.</HEAD>
<P>Western's transmission planning is conducted to assess the capability of the Federal transmission system to provide adequate and reliable electric service to its customers and the interconnected power grid. These planning efforts occur as part of its participation in regional and sub-regional planning entities as well as Western's Open Access Transmission Tariff.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="950" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 950—STANDBY SUPPORT FOR CERTAIN NUCLEAR PLANT DELAYS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2201, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.,</I> and 42 U.S.C. 16014 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 46325, Aug. 11, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.1.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to facilitate the construction and full power operation of new advanced nuclear facilities by providing risk insurance for certain delays attributed to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission regulatory process or to litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.1.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.2   Scope and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policies and procedures for the award and administration of Standby Support Contracts between the Department and sponsors of new advanced nuclear facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.1.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Energy Policy Act of 2005.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced nuclear facility</I> means any nuclear facility the reactor design for which is approved after December 31, 1993, by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (and such design or a substantially similar design of comparable capacity was not approved on or before that date).
</P>
<P><I>Available indemnification</I> means $500 million with respect to the initial two reactors and $250 million with respect to the subsequent four reactors.
</P>
<P><I>Claims administrator</I> means the official in the Department of Energy responsible for the administration of the Standby Support Contracts, including the responsibility to approve or disapprove claims submitted by a sponsor for payment of covered costs under the Standby Support Contract.
</P>
<P><I>Combined license</I> means a combined construction and operating license (COL) for an advanced nuclear facility issued by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Commencement of construction</I> means the point in time when a sponsor initiates the pouring of safety-related concrete for the reactor building.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC).
</P>
<P><I>Conditional Agreement</I> means a contractual agreement between the Department and a sponsor under which the Department will execute a Standby Support Contract with the sponsor if and only if the sponsor is one of the first six sponsors to satisfy the conditions precedent to execution of a Standby Support Contract, and if funding and other applicable contractual, statutory and regulatory requirements are satisfied.
</P>
<P><I>Construction</I> means the construction activities related to the advanced nuclear facility encompassed in the time period after commencement of construction and before the initiation of fuel load for the advanced nuclear facility.
</P>
<P><I>Covered cost</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Principal or interest on any debt obligation financing an advanced nuclear facility (but excluding charges due to a borrower's failure to meet a debt obligation unrelated to the delay); and
</P>
<P>(2) Incremental costs that are incurred as a result of covered delay.
</P>
<P><I>Covered delay</I> means a delay in the attainment of full power operation of an advanced nuclear facility caused by a covered event, as defined by this section.
</P>
<P><I>Covered event</I> means an event that may result in a covered delay due to:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the Commission to comply with schedules for review and approval of inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria established under the combined license;
</P>
<P>(2) The conduct of pre-operational hearings by the Commission for the advanced nuclear facility; or
</P>
<P>(3) Litigation that delays the commencement of full power operations of the advanced nuclear facility.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Full power operation</I> means the point at which the sponsor first synchronizes the advanced nuclear facility to the electrical grid.
</P>
<P><I>Grant account</I> means the account established by the Secretary that receives appropriations or non-Federal funds in an amount sufficient to cover the amount of incremental costs for which indemnification is available under a Standby Support Contract.
</P>
<P><I>Incremental costs</I> means the incremental difference between:
</P>
<P>(1) The fair market price of power purchased to meet the contractual supply agreements that would have been met by the advanced nuclear facility but for a covered delay; and
</P>
<P>(2) The contractual price of power from the advanced nuclear facility subject to the delay.
</P>
<P><I>Initial two reactors</I> means the first two reactors covered by Standby Support Contracts that receive a combined license and commence construction.
</P>
<P><I>Litigation</I> means adjudication in Federal, State, local or tribal courts, including appeals of Commission decisions related to the combined license process to such courts, but excluding administrative litigation that occurs at the Commission related to the combined license process.
</P>
<P><I>Loan cost</I> means the net present value of the estimated cash flows of:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments by the government to cover defaults and delinquencies, interest subsidies, or other payments; and
</P>
<P>(2) Payments to the government including origination and other fees, penalties and recoveries, as outlined under the Federal Credit Reform Act of 1990.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-operational hearing</I> means any Commission hearing that is provided for in 10 CFR part 52, after issuance of the combined license.
</P>
<P><I>Program account</I> means the account established by the Secretary that receives appropriations or loan guarantee fees in an amount sufficient to cover the loan costs.
</P>
<P><I>Program administrator</I> means the Department official authorized by the Secretary to represent the Department in the administration and management of the Standby Support Program, including negotiating with and entering into a Conditional Agreement or a Standby Support Contract with a sponsor.
</P>
<P><I>Related party</I> means the sponsor's parent company, a subsidiary of the sponsor, or a subsidiary of the parent company of the sponsor.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy or a designee.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person whose application for a combined license for an advanced nuclear facility has been docketed by the Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Standby Support Contract</I> means the contract that, when entered into by a sponsor and the Program Administrator pursuant to section 638 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 after satisfaction of the conditions in § 950.12 and any other applicable contractual, statutory and regulatory requirements, establishes the obligation of the Department to compensate covered costs in the event of a covered delay subject to the terms and conditions specified in the Standby Support Contract.
</P>
<P><I>Standby Support Program</I> means the program established by section 638 of the Act as administered by the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Subsequent four reactors</I> means the next four reactors covered by Standby Support Contracts, after the initial two reactors, which receive a combined license and commence construction.
</P>
<P><I>System-level construction schedule</I> means an electronic critical path method schedule identifying the dates and durations of plant systems installation (but excluding details of components or parts installation), sequences and interrelationships, and milestone dates from commencement of construction through full power operation, using software acceptable to the Department.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standby Support Contract Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.2.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.10   Conditional agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The Department and a sponsor may enter into a Conditional Agreement. The Department will enter into a Standby Support Contract with the first six sponsors to satisfy the specified conditions precedent for a Standby Support Contract if and only if all funding and other contractual, statutory and regulatory requirements have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility.</I> A sponsor is eligible to enter into a Conditional Agreement with the Program Administrator after the sponsor has submitted to the Department the following information but before the sponsor receives approval of the combined license application from the Commission:
</P>
<P>(1) An electronic copy of the combined license application docketed by the Commission pursuant to 10 CFR part 52, and if applicable, an electronic copy of the design certification or early site permit, or environmental report referenced or included with the sponsor's combined license application;
</P>
<P>(2) A summary schedule identifying the projected dates of construction, testing, and full power operation;
</P>
<P>(3) A detailed business plan that includes intended financing for the project including the credit structure and all sources and uses of funds for the project, the most recent private credit rating or other similar credit analysis for project related covered financing, and the projected cash flows for all debt obligations of the advanced nuclear facility which would be covered under the Standby Support Contract;
</P>
<P>(4) The sponsor's estimate of the amount and timing of the Standby Support payments for debt service under covered delays; and
</P>
<P>(5) The estimated dollar amount to be allocated to the sponsor's covered costs for principal or interest on the debt obligation of the advanced nuclear facility and for incremental costs, including whether these amounts would be different if the advanced nuclear facility is one of the initial two reactors or one of the subsequent four reactors.
</P>
<P>(c) The Program Administrator shall enter into a Conditional Agreement with a sponsor upon a determination by the Department that the sponsor is eligible for a Conditional Agreement, the information provided by the sponsor under paragraph (b) of this section is accurate and complete, and the Conditional Agreement is consistent with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 71 FR 46325, Aug. 11, 2006, § 950.10 was revised. Paragraph (b) of this section contains information collection and recordkeeping requirements and will not become effective until approval has been given by the Office of Management and Budget.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.2.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.11   Terms and conditions of the Conditional Agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each Conditional Agreement shall include a provision specifying that the Program Administrator and the sponsor will enter into a Standby Support Contract provided that the sponsor is one of the first six sponsors to fulfill the conditions precedent specified in § 950.12, subject to certain funding requirements and limitations specified in § 950.12 and any other applicable contractual, statutory and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocation of Coverage.</I> Each Conditional Agreement shall include a provision specifying the amount of coverage to be allocated under the Standby Support Contract to cover principal or interest costs and to cover incremental costs, including a provision on whether the allocation shall be different if the advanced nuclear facility is one of the initial two reactors or one of the subsequent four reactors, subject to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. A sponsor may elect to allocate 100 percent of the coverage to either the Program Account or the Grant Account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Funding.</I> Each Conditional Agreement shall contain a provision that the Program Account or Grant Account shall be funded in advance of execution of the Standby Support Contract and in the following manner, subject to the conditions of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. Under no circumstances will the amount of the coverage for payments of principal or interest under a Standby Support Contract exceed 80 percent of the total of the financing guaranteed under that Contract.
</P>
<P>(1) The Program Account shall receive funds appropriated to the Department, loan guarantee fees, or a combination of appropriated funds and loan guarantee fees that are in an amount equal to the loan costs associated with the amount of principal or interest covered by the available indemnification. Loan costs may not be paid from the proceeds of debt guaranteed or funded by the Federal government. The parties shall specify in the Conditional Agreement the anticipated amount or anticipated percentage of the total funding in the Program Account to be contributed by appropriated funds to the Department, by the sponsor, by a non-federal source, or by a combination of these funding sources. Covered costs paid through the Program Account are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) The Grant Account shall receive funds appropriated to the Department, funds from a sponsor, funds from a non-Federal source, or a combination of appropriated funds and funds from the sponsor or other non-Federal source, in an amount equal to the incremental costs. The parties shall specify in the Conditional Agreement the anticipated amount or anticipated percentage of the total funding in the Grant Account to be contributed by appropriated funds to the Department, by the sponsor, by a non-Federal source, or by a combination of these funding sources.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconciliation.</I> Each Conditional Agreement shall include a provision that the sponsor shall provide no later than ninety (90) days prior to execution of a Standby Support Contract sufficient information for the Program Administrator to recalculate the loan costs and the incremental costs associated with the advanced nuclear facility, taking into account whether the sponsor's advanced nuclear facility is one of the initial two reactors or the subsequent four reactors.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations.</I> Each Conditional Agreement shall contain a provision that limits the Department's contribution of Federal funding to the Program Account or the Grant Account to only those amounts, if any, that are appropriated to the Department in advance of the Standby Support Contract for the purpose of funding the Program Account or Grant Account. In the event the amount of appropriated funds to the Department for deposit in the Program Account or Grant Account is not sufficient to result in an amount equal to the full amount of the loan costs or incremental costs resulting from the allocation of coverage under the Conditional Agreement pursuant to 950.11(b), the sponsor shall no later than sixty (60) days prior to execution of the Standby Support Contract:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify the Department that it shall not execute a Standby Support Contract; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the Department that it shall provide the anticipated contributions to the Program Account or Grant Account as specified in the Conditional Agreement pursuant to 950.11(c)(1). The sponsor shall have the option to provide additional funds to the Program Account or Grant Account up to the amount equal to the full amount of loan costs or incremental costs. In the event the sponsor does not provide sufficient additional funds to fund the Program Account or the Grant Account in an amount equal to the full amount of loan costs or incremental costs, then the amounts of coverage available under the Standby Support Contract shall be reduced to reflect the amounts deposited in the Program Account or Grant Account. If the sponsor elects less than the full amount of coverage available under the law, then the sponsor shall not have recourse against, and the Department is not liable for, any claims for an amount of covered costs in excess of that reduced amount of coverage or the amount deposited in the Grant Account upon execution of the Standby Support Contract, notwithstanding any other provision of law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Termination of Conditional Agreements.</I> Each Conditional Agreement shall include a provision that the Conditional Agreement remains in effect until such time as:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor enters into a Standby Support Contract with the Program Administrator;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor has commenced construction on an advanced nuclear facility and has not entered into a Standby Support Contract with the Program Administrator within thirty (30) days after commencement of construction;
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor notifies the Program Administrator in writing that it wishes to terminate the Conditional Agreement, thereby extinguishing any rights or obligations it may have under the Conditional Agreement;
</P>
<P>(4) The Program Administrator has entered into Standby Support Contracts that cover three different reactor designs, and the Conditional Agreement is for an advanced nuclear facility of a different reactor design than those covered under existing Standby Support Contracts; or
</P>
<P>(5) The Program Administrator has entered into six Standby Support Contracts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.2.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.12   Standby Support Contract Conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conditions Precedent.</I> If Program Administrator has not entered into six Standby Support Contracts, the Program Administrator shall enter into a Standby Support Contract with the sponsor, consistent with applicable statutes and regulations and subject to the conditions set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, upon a determination by the Department that all the conditions precedent to a Standby Support Contract have been fulfilled, including that the sponsor has:
</P>
<P>(1) A Conditional Agreement with the Department, consistent with this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) A combined license issued by the Commission;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation that it possesses all Federal, State, or local permits required by law to commence construction;
</P>
<P>(4) Documentation that it has commenced construction of the advanced nuclear facility;
</P>
<P>(5) Documented coverage of insurance required for the project by the Commission and lenders;
</P>
<P>(6) Paid any required fees into the Program Account and the Grant Account, as set forth in the Conditional Agreement and paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) Provided to the Program Administrator, no later than ninety (90) days prior to execution of the contract, the sponsor's detailed schedule for completing the inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria in the combined license and informing the Commission that the acceptance criteria have been met; and the sponsor's proposed schedule for review of such inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria by the Commission, consistent with § 950.14(a) of this part and which the Department will evaluate and approve; and
</P>
<P>(8) Provided to the Program Administrator, no later than ninety (90) days prior to execution of the contract, a detailed systems-level construction schedule that includes a schedule identifying projected dates of construction, testing and full power operation of the advanced nuclear facility.
</P>
<P>(9) Provided to the Program Administrator, no later than ninety (90) days prior to the execution of the contract, a detailed and up-to-date plan of financing for the project including the credit structure and all sources and uses of funds for the project, and the projected cash flows for all debt obligations of the advanced nuclear facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Funding.</I> No later than thirty (30) days prior to execution of the contract, and consistent with section 638(b)(2)(C), funds in amounts determined pursuant to § 950.11(e) have been made available and shall be deposited in the Program Account or the Grant Account respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> The Department shall not enter into a Standby Support Contract, if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Program Account.</I> The contract provides coverage of principal or interest costs for which the loan costs exceed the amount of funds deposited in the Program Account; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Grant Account.</I> The contract provides coverage of incremental costs that exceed the amount of funds deposited in the Grant Account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cancellation by Abandonment.</I> (1) If the Program Administrator cancels a Standby Support Contract for abandonment pursuant to 950.13(f)(1), the Program Administrator may re-execute a Standby Support Contract with a sponsor other than a sponsor or that sponsor's assignee with whom the Department had a cancelled contract, provided that such replacement Standby Support Contract is executed in accordance with the terms and conditions set forth in this part, and shall be deemed to be one of the subsequent four reactors under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Not more than two Standby Support Contracts may be re-executed in situations involving abandonment and cancellation by the Program Administrator.
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 71 FR 46325, Aug. 11, 2006, § 950.12 was revised. Paragraph (a) of this section contains information collection and recordkeeping requirements and will not become effective until approval has been given by the Office of Management and Budget.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.2.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.13   Standby Support Contract: General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision setting forth an agreement between the parties in which the Department shall provide compensation for covered costs incurred by a sponsor for covered events that result in a covered delay of full power operation of an advanced nuclear facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered facility.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision of coverage only for an advanced nuclear facility which is not a federal entity. Each Standby Support Contract shall also include a provision to specify the advanced nuclear facility to be covered, along with the reactor design, and the location of the advanced nuclear facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sponsor contribution.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision to specify the amount that a sponsor has contributed to funding each type of account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maximum compensation.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision to specify that the Program Administrator shall not pay compensation under the contract:
</P>
<P>(1) In an aggregate amount that exceeds the amount of coverage up to $500 million each for the initial two reactors or up to $250 million each for the subsequent four reactors;
</P>
<P>(2) In an amount for principal or interest costs for which the loan costs exceed the amount deposited in the Program Account; and
</P>
<P>(3) In an amount for incremental costs that exceed the amount deposited in the Grant Account.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Term.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision to specify the date at which the contract commences as well as the term of the contract. The contract shall enter into force on the date it has been signed by both the sponsor and the Program Administrator. Subject to the cancellation provisions set forth in paragraph (f) of this section, the contract shall terminate when all claims have been paid up to the full amounts to be covered under the Standby Support Contract, or all disputes involving claims under the contract have been resolved in accordance with subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cancellation provisions.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall provide for cancellation in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) If the sponsor abandons construction, and the abandonment is not caused by a covered event or force majeure, the Program Administrator may cancel the Standby Support Contract by giving written notice thereof to the sponsor and the parties have no further rights or obligations under the contract.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sponsor does not require continuing coverage under the contract, the sponsor may cancel the Standby Support Contract by giving written notice thereof to the Program Administrator and the parties have no further rights or obligations under the contract.
</P>
<P>(3) For such other cause as agreed to by the parties.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Termination by sponsor.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision that prohibits a sponsor or any related party from executing another Standby Support Contract, if the sponsor elects to terminate its original existing Standby Support Contract, unless the sponsor has cancelled or terminated construction of the reactor covered by its original existing Standby Support Contract.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Assignment.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision on assignment of a sponsor's rights and obligations under the contract and assignment of payment of covered costs. The Program Administrator shall permit the assignment of payment of covered costs with prior written notice to the Department. The Program Administrator shall permit assignment of rights and obligations under the contract with the Department's prior approval. The sponsor may not assign its rights and obligations under the contract without the prior written approval of the Program Administrator and any attempt to do so is null and void.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Claims administration.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision to specify a mechanism for administering claims pursuant to the procedures set forth in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> Consistent with the Administrative Dispute Resolution Act, each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision to specify a mechanism for resolving disputes pursuant to the procedures set forth in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Re-estimation.</I> Consistent with the Federal Credit Reform Act (FCRA) of 1990, the sponsor shall provide all needed documentation as required in § 950.12 to allow the Department to annually re-estimate the loan cost needed in the financing account as that term is used in 2 U.S.C. 661a(7) and funded by the Program Account. “The sponsor is neither responsible for any increase in loan costs, nor entitled to recoup fees for any decrease in loan costs, resulting from the re-estimation conducted pursuant to FCRA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.2.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.14   Standby Support Contract: Covered events, exclusions, covered delay and covered cost provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered events.</I> Subject to the exclusions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision setting forth the type of events that are covered events under the contract. The type of events shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The Commission's failure to review the sponsor's inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria in accordance with the Commission's rules, guidance, audit procedures, or formal opinions, in the case where the Commission has in place any rules, guidance, audit procedures or formal opinions setting schedules for its review of inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria under a combined license or the sponsor's combined license;
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission's failure to review the sponsor's inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria on the schedule for such review proposed by the sponsor, subject to the Department's review and approval of such schedule, including review of any informal guidance or opinion of the Commission that has been provided to the sponsor or the Department, in the case where the Commission has not provided any rules, guidance, audit procedures or formal Commission opinions setting schedules for review of inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria under a combined license, or under the sponsor's combined license;
</P>
<P>(3) The conduct of pre-operational Commission hearings, that are provided for in 10 CFR part 52, after issuance of the combined license; and
</P>
<P>(4) Litigation in State, Federal, local, or tribal courts, including appeals of Commission decisions related to an application for a combined license to such courts., and excluding administrative litigation that occurs at the Commission related to the combined license.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision setting forth the exclusions from covered costs under the contract, and for which any associated delay in the attainment of full power operations is not a covered delay. The exclusions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the sponsor to take any action required by law, regulation, or ordinance, including but not limited to the following types of events:
</P>
<P>(i) The sponsor's failure to comply with environmental laws or regulations such as those related to pollution abatement or human health and the environment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The sponsor's re-performance of any inspections, tests, analyses or re-demonstration that acceptance criteria have been met due to Commission non-acceptance of the sponsor's submitted results of inspections, tests, analyses, and demonstration of acceptance criteria;
</P>
<P>(iii) Delays attributable to the sponsor's actions to redress any deficiencies in inspections, tests, analyses or acceptance criteria as a result of a Commission disapproval of fuel loading; or
</P>
<P>(2) Events within the control of the sponsor, including but not limited to delays attributable to the following types of events:
</P>
<P>(i) Project planning and construction problems;
</P>
<P>(ii) Labor-management disputes;
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor's failure to perform inspections, tests, analyses and to demonstrate acceptance criteria are met or failure to inform the Commission of the successful completion of inspections, tests, analyses and demonstration of meeting acceptance criteria in accordance with its schedule; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The lack of adequate funding for construction and testing of the advanced nuclear facility.
</P>
<P>(3) Normal business risks, including but not limited to the following types of events:
</P>
<P>(i) Delays attributable to force majeure events such as a strike or the failure of power or other utility services supplied to the location, or natural events such as severe weather, earthquake, landslide, mudslide, volcanic eruption, other earth movement, or flood;
</P>
<P>(ii) Government action meaning the seizure or destruction of property by order of governmental authority;
</P>
<P>(iii) War or military action;
</P>
<P>(iv) Acts or decisions, including the failure to act or decide, of any government body (excluding those acts or decisions or failure to act or decide by the Commission that are covered events);
</P>
<P>(v) Supplier or subcontractor delays in performance;
</P>
<P>(vi) Litigation, whether initiated by the sponsor or another party, that is not a covered event under paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Failure to timely obtain regulatory permits or approvals that are not covered events under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered delay.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision for the payment of covered costs, in accordance with the procedures in subpart C of this part for the payment of covered costs, if a covered event(s) is determined to be the cause of delay in attainment of full power operation, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) Under Standby Support Contracts for the subsequent four reactors, covered delay may occur only after the initial 180-day period of delay, and
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor has used due diligence to mitigate, shorten, and end, the covered delay and associated costs covered by the Standby Support Contract.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Covered costs.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall include a provision to specify the type of costs for which the Department shall provide payment to a sponsor for covered delay in accordance with the procedures set forth in subparts C and D of this part. The types of costs shall be limited to either or both, dependent upon the terms of the contract:
</P>
<P>(1) The principal or interest on which the loan costs for the Program Account was calculated; and
</P>
<P>(2) The incremental costs on which funding for the Grant Account was calculated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>ITAAC Schedule.</I> Each Standby Support Contract shall provide for adjustments to the ITAAC review schedule when the parties deem necessary, in the case where the Commission has not provided any rules, guidance, audit procedures or formal Commission opinions setting schedules for review of inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria under a combined license, upon review and approval by the Department and the sponsor. Adjustments to the ITAAC review schedule must be in writing, expressly approved by the Department and the sponsor, and remain in effective for determining covered events unless and until a subsequently issued ITAAC review schedule is approved by the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Claims Administration Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.20   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The parties shall include provisions in the Standby Support Contract to specify the procedures and conditions set forth in this subpart for the submission of claims and the payment of covered costs under the Standby Support Contract. A sponsor is required to establish that there is a covered event, a covered delay and a covered cost; the Department is required to establish an exclusion in accordance with § 950.14(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.21   Notification of covered event.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A sponsor shall submit in writing to the Claims Administrator a notification that a covered event has occurred that has delayed the schedule for construction or testing and that may cause covered delay. The sponsor shall submit the notification to the Claims Administrator no later than thirty (30) days of the end of the covered event and contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description and explanation of the covered event, including supporting documentation of the event;
</P>
<P>(2) The duration of the delay in the schedule for construction, testing and full power operation, and the schedule for inspections, tests, analyses and acceptance criteria, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor's projection of the duration of covered delay;
</P>
<P>(4) A revised schedule for construction, testing and full power operation, including the dates of system level construction or testing that had been conducted prior to the event; and
</P>
<P>(5) A revised inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria schedule, if applicable, including the dates of Commission review of inspections, tests, analyses, and acceptance criteria that had been conducted prior to the event.
</P>
<P>(b) An authorized representative of the sponsor shall sign the notification of a covered event, certify the notification is made in good faith and the covered event is not an exclusion as specified in § 950.14(b), and represent that the supporting information is accurate and complete to the sponsor's knowledge and belief.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.22" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.22   Covered event determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Completeness review.</I> Upon notification of a covered event from the sponsor, the Claims Administrator shall review the notification for completeness within thirty (30) days of receipt. If the notification is not complete, the Claims Administrator shall return the notification within thirty (30) days of receipt and specify the incomplete information for submission by the sponsor to the Claims Administrator in time for a determination by the Claims Administrator in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered Event Determination.</I> The Claims Administrator shall review the notification and supporting information to determine whether there is agreement by the Claims Administrator with the sponsor's representation of the event as a covered event (Covered Event Determination) based on a review of the contract conditions for covered events and exclusions.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Claims Administrator believes the event is an exclusion as set forth in § 950.14(b), the Claims Administrator shall request within 30 days of receipt of the notification of a covered event information in the sponsor's possession that is relevant to the exclusion. The sponsor shall provide the requested information to the Administrator within 20 days of receipt of the Administrator's request.
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor's failure to provide the requested information in a complete or timely manner constitutes a basis for the Claims Administrator to disagree with the sponsor's covered event notification as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, and to deny a claim for covered costs related to the exclusion as provided in § 950.24 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> The Claims Administrator shall notify the sponsor within sixty (60) days of receipt of the notification whether the Administrator agrees with the sponsor's representation, disagrees with the representation, requires further information, or is an exclusion. If the sponsor disagrees with the Covered Event Determination, the parties shall resolve the dispute in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.23" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.23   Claims process for payment of covered costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No more than 120 days of when a sponsor was scheduled to attain full power operation and expects it will incur covered costs, the sponsor may make a claim upon the Department for the payment of its covered costs under the Standby Support Contract. The sponsor shall file a Certification of Covered Costs and thereafter such Supplementary Certifications of Covered Costs as may be necessary to receive payment under the Standby Support Contract for covered costs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification of Covered Costs.</I> The Certification of Covered Costs shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A Claim Report, including the information specified in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) A certification by the sponsor that:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered costs listed on the Claim Report filed pursuant to this section are losses to be incurred by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(ii) The claims for the covered costs were processed in accordance with appropriate business practices and the procedures specified in this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor has used due diligence to mitigate, shorten, and end, the covered delay and associated costs covered by the Standby Support Contract.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claim Report.</I> For purposes of this part, a “Claim Report” is a report of information about a sponsor's underlying claims that, in the aggregate, constitute the sponsor's covered costs. The Claim Report shall include, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Detailed information substantiating the duration of the covered delay;
</P>
<P>(2) Detailed information about the covered costs associated with covered delay, including as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of payment for principal or interest during the covered delay, including the relevant dates of payment, amounts of payment and any other information deemed relevant by the Department, and the name of the holder of the debt, if the debt obligation is held by a Federal agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The underlying payment during the covered delay related to the incremental cost of purchasing power to meet contractual agreements, including any documentation deemed relevant by the Department to calculate the fair market price of power.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supplementary Certification of Covered Cost.</I> If the total amount of the covered costs due to a sponsor under the Standby Support Contract has not been determined at the time the Certification of Covered Costs has been filed, the sponsor shall file monthly, or on a schedule otherwise determined by the Claims Administrator, Supplementary Certifications of Covered Costs updating the amount of the covered costs owed to the sponsor. Supplementary Certifications of Covered Costs shall include a Claim Report and a certification as described in this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supplementary information.</I> In addition to the information required in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the Claims Administrator may request such additional supporting documentation as required to ascertain the allowable covered costs sustained by a sponsor.
</P>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 71 FR 46325, Aug. 11, 2006, § 950.23 was revised. This section contains information collection and recordkeeping requirements and will not become effective until approval has been given by the Office of Management and Budget.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.24" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.24   Claims determination for covered costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No later than thirty (30) days from the sponsor's submission of a Certification of Covered Costs, the Claims Administrator shall issue a Claim Determination identifying those claimed costs deemed to be allowable based on an evaluation of:
</P>
<P>(1) The duration of covered delay, taking into account contributory or concurrent delays resulting from exclusions from coverage as established by the Claims Administrator in accordance with § 950.22;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered costs associated with covered delay, including an assessment of the sponsor's due diligence in mitigating or ending covered costs, as set forth in § 950.23;
</P>
<P>(3) Any adjustments to the covered costs, as set forth in § 950.26; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other information as necessary and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) The Claim Determination shall state the Claims Administrator's determination that the claim shall be paid in full, paid in an adjusted amount as deemed allowable by the Claims Administrator, or rejected in full.
</P>
<P>(c) Should the Claims Administrator conclude that the sponsor has not supplied the required information in the Certification of Covered Costs or any supporting documentation sufficient to allow reasonable verification of the duration of the covered delay or covered costs, the Claims Administrator shall so inform the sponsor and specify the nature of additional documentation requested, in time for the sponsor to supply supplemental documentation and for the Claims Administrator to issue the Claim Determination.
</P>
<P>(d) Should the Claims Administrator find that any claimed covered costs are not allowable or otherwise should be considered excluded costs under the Standby Support Contract, the Claims Administrator shall identify such costs and state the reason(s) for that decision in writing. A determination by the Claims Administrator that an event is an exclusion or that the sponsor has not provided complete or timely information relevant to the exclusion as specified in § 950.22 shall provide a basis for the Claims Administrator to find covered costs are not allowable. If the parties cannot agree on the covered costs, they shall resolve the dispute in accordance with the requirements in subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.25" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.25   Calculation of covered costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Claims Administrator shall calculate the allowable amount of the covered costs claimed in the Certification of Covered Costs as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Costs covered through Program Account.</I> The principal or interest on any debt obligation financing the advanced nuclear facility for the duration of covered delay to the extent the debt obligation was included in the calculation of the loan cost; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs covered by Grant Account.</I> The incremental costs calculated for the duration of the covered delay. In calculating the incremental cost of power, the Claims Administrator shall consider:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fair Market Price.</I> The fair market price may be determined by the lower of the two options: The actual cost of the short-term supply contract for replacement power, purchased by the sponsor, during the period of delay, or for each day of replacement power by its day-ahead weighted average index price in $/MWh at the hub geographically nearest to the advanced nuclear facility as posted on the previous day by the Intercontinental Exchange (ICE) or an alternate electronic marketplace deemed reliable by the Department. The daily MWh assumed to be covered is no more than its nameplate capacity multiplied by 24 hours; multiplied by the capacity-weighted U.S. average capacity factor in the previous calendar year, including in the calculation any and all commercial nuclear power units that operated in the United States for any part of the previous calendar year; and multiplied by the average of the ratios of the net generation to the grid for calculating payments to the Nuclear Waste Fund to the nameplate capacity for each nuclear unit included. In addition, the Claims Administrator may consider “fair market price” from other published indices or prices at regional trading hubs and bilateral contracts for similar delivered firm power products and the costs incurred, including acquisition costs, to move the power to the contract-specified point of delivery, as well as the provisions of the covered contract regarding replacement power costs for delivery default; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contractual price of power.</I> The contractual price of power shall be determined as the daily weighted average price in equivalent $/MWh under a contractual supply agreement(s) for delivery of firm power that the sponsor entered into prior to any covered event. The daily MWh assumed to be covered is no more than the advanced nuclear facility's nameplate capacity multiplied by 24 hours; multiplied by the capacity-weighted U.S. average capacity factor in the previous calendar year, including in the calculation any and all commercial nuclear power units that operated in the United States for any part of the previous calendar year; and multiplied by the average of the ratios of the net generation to the grid for calculating payments to the Nuclear Waste Fund to the nameplate capacity for each nuclear unit included.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.26" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.26   Adjustments to claim for payment of covered costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Aggregate amount of covered costs.</I> The sponsor's aggregate amount of covered costs shall be reduced by any amounts that are determined to be either excluded or not covered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of Department share of covered costs.</I> The Department share of covered costs shall be adjusted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>No excess recoveries.</I> The share of covered costs paid by the Department to a sponsor shall not be greater than the limitations set forth in § 950.27(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reduction of amount payable.</I> The share of covered costs paid by the Department shall be reduced by the appropriate amount consistent with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Excluded claims.</I> The Department shall ensure that no payment shall be made for costs resulting from events that are not covered under the contract as specified in § 950.14; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sponsor due diligence.</I> Each sponsor shall ensure and demonstrate that it uses due diligence to mitigate, shorten, and to end the covered delay and associated costs covered by the Standby Support Contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.27" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.27   Conditions for payment of covered costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Department shall pay the covered costs associated with a Standby Support Contract in accordance with the Claim Determination issued by the Claims Administrator under § 950.24 or the Final Claim Determination under § 950.34, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) Neither the sponsor's claim for covered costs nor any other document submitted to support the underlying claim is fraudulent, collusive, made in bad faith, dishonest or otherwise designed to circumvent the purposes of the Act and regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) The losses submitted for payment are within the scope of coverage issued by the Department under the terms and conditions of the Standby Support Contract as specified in subpart B of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) The procedures specified in this subpart have been followed and all conditions for payment have been met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjustments to Payments.</I> In the event of fraud or miscalculation, the Department may subsequently adjust, including an adjustment obligating the sponsor to repay any payment made under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Suspension of payment for covered costs.</I> If the Department paid or is paying covered costs under paragraph (a) of this section, and subsequently makes a determination that a sponsor has failed to meet any of the requirements for payment specified in paragraph (a) of this section for a particular covered cost, the Department may suspend payment of covered costs pending investigation and audit of the sponsor's covered costs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amount payable.</I> The Department's share of compensation for the initial two reactors is 100 percent of the covered costs of covered delay but not more than the coverage in the contract or $500 million per contract, whichever is less; and for the subsequent four reactors, not more than 50 percent of the covered costs of the covered delay but not more than the coverage in the contract or $250 million per contract, whichever is less. The Department's share of compensation for the subsequent four reactors is further limited in that the payment is for covered costs of a covered delay that occurs after the initial 180-day period of covered delay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.28" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.3.16.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.28   Payment of covered costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Department shall pay to a sponsor covered costs in accordance with this subpart and the terms of the Standby Support Contract. Payment shall be made in such installments and on such conditions as the Department determines appropriate. Any overpayments by the Department of the covered costs shall be offset from future payments to the sponsor or returned by the sponsor to the Department within forty-five (45) days. If there is a dispute, then the Department shall pay the undisputed costs and defer payment of the disputed portion upon resolution of the dispute in accordance with the procedures in subpart D of this part. If the covered costs include principal or interest owed on a loan made or guaranteed by a Federal agency, the Department shall instead pay that Federal agency the covered costs, rather than the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of Payment.</I> The sponsor may receive payment of covered costs when:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department has approved payment of the covered cost as specified in this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor has incurred and is obligated to pay the costs for which payment is requested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment process.</I> The covered costs shall be paid to the sponsor designated on the Certification of Covered Costs required by § 950.23, or to the sponsor's assignee as permitted by § 950.13(h). A sponsor that requests payment of the covered costs must receive payment through electronic funds transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Dispute Resolution Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.30" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.30   General.</HEAD>
<P>The parties, i.e., the sponsor and the Department, shall include provisions in the Standby Support Contract that specify the procedures set forth in this subpart for the resolution of disputes under a Standby Support Contract. Sections 950.31 and 950.32 address disputes involving covered events; §§ 950.33 and 950.34 address disputes involving covered costs; and §§ 950.36 and 950.37 address disputes involving other contract matters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.31" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.31   Covered event dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a sponsor disagrees with the Covered Event Determination rendered in accordance with § 950.22 and cannot resolve the dispute informally with the Claims Administrator, then the disagreement is subject to resolution as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A sponsor shall, within thirty (30) days of receipt of the Covered Event Determination, deliver to the Claims Administrator written notice of a sponsor's rebuttal which sets forth reasons for its disagreement, including any expert opinion obtained by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(2) After submission of the sponsor's rebuttal to the Claims Administrator, the parties shall have fifteen (15) days during which time they must informally and in good faith participate in mediation to attempt to resolve the disagreement before instituting the process under paragraph (b) of this section. If the parties reach agreement through mediation, the agreement shall constitute a Final Determination on Covered Events.
</P>
<P>(3) The parties shall jointly select the mediator(s). The parties shall share equally the cost of the mediation.
</P>
<P>(b) If the parties cannot resolve the disagreement through mediation under the timeframe established under paragraph (a)(2) of this section and the sponsor elects to continue pursuing the claim, the sponsor shall within ten (10) days submit any remaining issues in controversy to the Civilian Board of Contract Appeals (Civilian Board) or its successor, for resolution by an Administrative Judge of the Civilian Board utilizing the Civilian Board's Summary Binding Decision procedure. The parties shall abide by the procedures of the Civilian Board for Summary Binding Decision. The parties agree that the decision of the Civilian Board constitutes a Final Determination on Covered Events.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.32" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.32   Final determination on covered events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the parties reach a Final Determination on Covered Events through mediation, or Summary Binding Decision as set forth in this subpart, the Final Determination on Covered Events is a final settlement of the issue, made by the sponsor and the Program Administrator. The sponsor, and the Department, may rely on, and neither may challenge, the Final Determination on Covered Events in any future Certification of Covered Costs related to the covered event that was the subject of that Initial Determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The parties agree that no appeal shall be taken or further review sought, and that the Final Determination on Covered Events is final, conclusive, non-appealable and may not be set aside, except for fraud.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.33" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4.16.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.33   Covered costs dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a sponsor disagrees with the Claim Determination rendered in accordance with § 950.24 and cannot resolve the dispute informally with the Claims Administrator, then the parties agree that any dispute must be resolved as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A sponsor shall, within thirty (30) days of receipt of the Claim Determination, deliver to the Claims Administrator in writing notice of and reasons for its disagreement (Sponsor's Rebuttal), including any expert opinion obtained by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(2) After submission of the sponsor's rebuttal to the Claims Administrator, the parties have fifteen (15) days to informally and in good faith participate in mediation to resolve the disagreement before instituting the process under paragraph (b) of this section. If the parties reach agreement through mediation, the agreement shall constitute a Final Claim Determination.
</P>
<P>(3) The parties shall jointly select the mediator(s). The parties shall share equally the cost of the mediator(s).
</P>
<P>(b) If the parties cannot resolve the disagreement through mediation under the timeframe established under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, any remaining issues in controversy shall be submitted by the sponsor within ten (10) days to the Civilian Board or its successor, for resolution by an Administrative Judge of the Civilian Board utilizing the Board's Summary Binding Decision procedure. The parties shall abide by the procedures of the Civilian Board for Summary Binding Decision. The parties agree that the decision of the Civilian Board shall constitute a Final Claim Determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.34" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4.16.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.34   Final claim determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the parties reach a Final Claim Determination through mediation, or Summary Binding Decision as set forth in this subpart, the Final Claim Determination is a final settlement of the issue, made by the sponsor and the Program Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) The parties agree that no appeal shall be taken or further review sought and that the Final Claim Determination is final, conclusive, non-appealable, and may not be set aside, except for fraud.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.35" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4.16.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.35   Payment of final claim determination.</HEAD>
<P>Once a Final Claim Determination is reached by the methods set forth in this subpart, the parties intend that such a Final Claim Determination shall constitute a final settlement of the claim and the sponsor may immediately present to the Department a Final Claim Determination for payment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.36" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4.16.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.36   Other contract matters in dispute.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the parties disagree over terms or conditions of the Standby Support Contract other than disagreements related to covered events or covered costs, then the parties shall engage in informal dispute resolution as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The parties shall engage in good faith efforts to resolve the dispute after written notification by one party to the other that there is a contract matter in dispute.
</P>
<P>(2) If the parties cannot reach a resolution of the matter in disagreement within thirty (30) days of the written notification of the matter in dispute, then the parties shall have fifteen (15) days during which time they must informally and in good faith participate in mediation to attempt to resolve the disagreement before instituting the process under paragraph (b) of this section. If the parties reach agreement through mediation, the agreement shall constitute a Final Agreement on the matter in dispute.
</P>
<P>(3) The parties shall jointly select the mediator(s). The parties shall share equally the cost of the mediation.
</P>
<P>(b) If the parties cannot resolve the disagreement through mediation under the timeframe established in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and either party elects to continue pursuing the disagreement, that party shall within ten (10) days submit any remaining issues in controversy to the Civilian Board or its successor, for resolution by an Administrative Judge of the Civilian Board utilizing the Civilian Board's Summary Binding Decision procedure. The parties shall abide by the procedures of the Civilian Board for Summary Binding Decision. The parties shall agree that the decision of the Civilian Board constitutes a Final Decision on the matter in dispute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.37" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.4.16.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.37   Final agreement or final decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the parties reach a Final Agreement on a contract matter in dispute through mediation, or a Final Decision on a contract matter in dispute through a Summary Binding Decision as set forth in this subpart, the Final Agreement or Final Decision is a final settlement of the contract matter in dispute, made by the sponsor and the Program Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) The parties agree that no appeal shall be taken or further review sought, and that the Final Agreement or Final Decision is final, conclusive, non-appealable and may not be set aside, except for fraud.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Audit and Investigations and Other Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.40" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.5.16.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.40   General.</HEAD>
<P>The parties shall include a provision in the Standby Support Contract that specifies the procedures in this subpart for the monitoring, auditing and disclosure of information under a Standby Support Contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.41" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.5.16.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.41   Monitoring/Auditing.</HEAD>
<P>The Department has the right to audit any and all costs associated with the Standby Support Contracts. Auditors who are employees of the United States government, who are designated by the Secretary of Energy or by the Comptroller General of the United States, shall have access to, and the right to examine, at the sponsor's site or elsewhere, any pertinent documents and records of a sponsor at reasonable times under reasonable circumstances. The Secretary may direct the sponsor to submit to an audit by a public accountant or equivalent acceptable to the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 950.42" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.41.5.16.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 950.42   Disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Information received from a sponsor by the Department may be available to the public subject to the provision of 5 U.S.C. 552, 18 U.S.C. 1905 and 10 CFR part 1004; provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) Subject to the requirements of law, information such as trade secrets, commercial and financial information that a sponsor submits to the Department in writing shall not be disclosed without prior notice to the sponsor in accordance with Department regulations concerning the public disclosure of information. Any submitter asserting that the information is privileged or confidential should appropriately identify and mark such information.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon a showing satisfactory to the Program Administrator that any information or portion thereof obtained under this regulation would, if made public, divulge trade secrets or other proprietary information, the Department may not disclose such information.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="955" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 955 [RESERVED]




</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="960" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 960—GENERAL GUIDELINES FOR THE PRELIMINARY SCREENING OF POTENTIAL SITES FOR A NUCLEAR WASTE REPOSITORY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.,</I> 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.,</I> 42 U.S.C. 10101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 47752, Dec. 6, 1984, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.1.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>These guidelines were developed in accordance with the requirements of Section 112(a) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 for use by the Secretary of Energy in evaluating the suitability of sites. The guidelines will be used for suitability evaluations and determinations made pursuant to Section 112(b). The guidelines set forth in this part are intended to complement the requirements set forth in the Act, 10 CFR part 60, and 40 CFR part 191. The DOE recognizes NRC jurisdiction for the resolution of differences between the guidelines and 10 CFR part 60. The guidelines have received the concurrence of the NRC. The DOE contemplates revising the guidelines from time to time, as permitted by the Act, to take into account revisions made to the above regulations and to otherwise update the guidelines as necessary. The DOE will submit the revisions to the NRC and obtain its concurrence before issuance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47752, Dec. 6, 1984, as amended at 66 FR 57334, Nov. 14, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.1.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Accessible environment</I> means the atmosphere, the land surface, surface water, oceans, and the portion of the lithosphere that is outside the controlled area.
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, as amended. 
</P>
<P><I>Active fault</I> means a fault along which there is recurrent movement, which is usually indicated by small, periodic displacements or seismic activity. 
</P>
<P><I>Affected area</I> means either the area of socioeconomic impact or the area of environmental impact, each of which will vary in size among potential repository sites. 
</P>
<P><I>Affected Indian tribe</I> means any Indian tribe (1) within whose reservation boundaries a repository for radioactive waste is proposed to be located or (2) whose federally defined possessory or usage rights to other lands outside the reservation's boundaries arising out of congressionally ratified treaties may be substantially and adversely affected by the locating of such a facility: <I>Provided,</I> That the Secretary of the Interior finds, upon the petition of the appropriate governmental officials of the tribe, that such effects are both substantial and adverse to the tribe. 
</P>
<P><I>Affected State</I> means any State that (1) has been notified by the DOE in accordance with Section 116(a) of the Act as containing a potentially acceptable site; (2) contains a candidate site for site characterization or repository development; or (3) contains a site selected for repository development. 
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means the act of making a finding of compliance or noncompliance with the qualifying or disqualifying conditions specified in the guidelines of subparts C and D of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Aquifer</I> means a formation, a group of formations, or a part of a formation that contains sufficient saturated permeable material to yield significant quantities of water to wells and springs. 
</P>
<P><I>Barrier</I> means any material or structure that prevents or substantially delays the movement of water or radionuclides. 
</P>
<P><I>Candidate site</I> means an area, within a geohydrologic setting, that is recommended by the Secretary of Energy under section 112 of the Act for site characterization, approved by the President under section 112 of the Act for characterization, or undergoing site characterization under section 113 of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Closure</I> means final backfilling of the remaining open operational areas of the underground facility and boreholes after the termination of waste emplacement, culminating in the sealing of shafts. 
</P>
<P><I>Confining unit</I> means a body of impermeable or distinctly less permeable material stratigraphically adjacent to one or more aquifers. 
</P>
<P><I>Containment</I> means the confinement of radioactive waste within a designated boundary. 
</P>
<P><I>Controlled area</I> means a surface location, to be marked by suitable monuments, extending horizontally no more than 10 kilometers in any direction from the outer boundary of the underground facility, and the underlying subsurface, which area has been committed to use as a geologic repository and from which incompatible activities would be prohibited before and after permanent closure. 
</P>
<P><I>Cumulative releases of radionuclides</I> means the total number of curies of radionuclides entering the accessible environment in any 10,000-year period, normalized on the basis of radiotoxicity in accordance with 40 CFR part 191. The peak cumulative release of radionuclides refers to the 10,000-year period during which any such release attains its maximum predicted value.
</P>
<P><I>Decommissioning</I> means the permanent removal from service of surface facilities and components neceessary for preclosure operations only, after repository closure, in accordance with regulatory requirements and environmental policies. 
</P>
<P><I>Determination</I> means a decision by the Secretary that a site is suitable for site characterization for the selection of a repository, consistent with applications of the guidelines of subparts C and D of this part in accordance with the provisions set forth in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Disposal</I> means the emplacement in a repository of high-level radioactive waste, spent nuclear fuel, or other highly radioactive material with no foreseeable intent of recovery, whether or not such emplacement permits the recovery of such waste, and the isolation of such waste from the accessible environment. 
</P>
<P><I>Disqualifying condition</I> means a condition that, if present at a site, would eliminate that site from further consideration.
</P>
<P><I>Disturbed zone</I> means that portion of the controlled area, excluding shafts, whose physical or chemical properties are predicted to change as a result of underground facility construction or heat generated by the emplaced radioactive waste such that the resultant change of properties could have a significant effect on the preformance of the geologic repository.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Effective porosity</I> means the amount of interconnected pore space and fracture openings available for the transmission of fluids, expressed as the ratio of the volume of interconnected pores and openings to the volume of rock.
</P>
<P><I>Engineered-barrier system</I> means the manmade components of a disposal system designed to prevent the release of radionuclides from the underground facility or into the geohydrologic setting. Such term includes the radioactive-waste form, radioactive-waste canisters, materials placed over and around such canisters, any other components of the waste package, and barriers used to seal penetrations in and into the underground facility.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental assessment</I> means the document required by section 112(b)(1)(E) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental impact statement</I> means the document required by section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969. Sections 114(a) and 114(f) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 include certain limitations on the National Environmental Policy Act requirements as they apply to the preparation of an environmental impact statement for the development of a repository at a characterized site.
</P>
<P><I>EPA</I> means the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation</I> means the act of carefully examining the characteristics of a site in relation to the requirements of the qualifying or disqualifying conditions specified in the guidelines of subparts C and D. Evaluation includes the consideration of favorable and potentially adverse conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Excepted</I> means assumed to be probable or certain on the basis of existing evidence and in the absence of significant evidence to the contrary.
</P>
<P><I>Expected repository performance</I> means the manner in which the repository is predicted to function, consideration those conditions, processes, and events that are likely to prevail or may occur during the time period of interest.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means any structure, system, or system component, including engineered barriers, created by the DOE to meet repository-performance or functional objectives.
</P>
<P><I>Fault</I> means a fracture or a zone of fractures along which there has been displacement of the side relative to one another parallel to the fracture or zone of fractures.
</P>
<P><I>Faulting</I> means the process of fracturing and displacement that produces a fault.
</P>
<P><I>Favorable condition</I> means a condition that, though not necessary to qualify a site, is presumed, if present, to enhance confidence that the qualifying condition of a particular guideline can be met.
</P>
<P><I>Finding</I> means a conclusion that is reached after evaluation.
</P>
<P><I>Geohydrologic setting</I> means the system of geohydrologic units that is located within a given geologic setting.
</P>
<P><I>Geohydrologic system</I> means the geohydrologic units within a geologic setting, including any recharge, discharge, interconnections between units, and any natural or man-induced processes or events that could affect ground-water flow within or among those units.
</P>
<P><I>Geohydrologic unit</I> means an aquifer, a confining unit, or a combination of aquifers and confining units comprising a framework for a reasonably distinct geohydrologic system.
</P>
<P><I>Geologic repository</I> means a system, requiring licensing by the NRC, that is intended to be used, or may be used, for the disposal of radioactive waste in excavated geologic media. A geologic repository includes (1) the geologic-repository operations area and (2) the portion of the geologic setting that provides isolation of the radioactive waste and is located within the controlled area.
</P>
<P><I>Geologic-repository operations area</I> means a radioactive-waste facility that is part of the geologic repository, including both surface and subsurface areas and facilities where waste-handling activities are conducted.
</P>
<P><I>Geologic setting</I> means the geologic, hydrologic, and geochemical systems of the region in which a geologic-repository operations area is or may be located.
</P>
<P><I>Geomorphic processes</I> means geologic processes that are responsible for the general configuration of the Earth's surface, including the development of present landforms and their relationships to underlying structures, and are responsible for the geologic changes recorded by these surface features.
</P>
<P><I>Ground water</I> means all subsurface water as distinct from surface water.
</P>
<P><I>Ground-water flux</I> means the rate of ground-water flow per unit area of porous or fractured media measured perpendicular to the direction of flow.
</P>
<P><I>Ground-water sources</I> means aquifers that have been or could be economically and technologically developed as sources of water in the foreseeable future.
</P>
<P><I>Ground-water travel time</I> means the time required for a unit volume of ground water to travel between two locations. The travel time is the length of the flow path divided by the velocity, where velocity is the average ground-water flux passing through the cross-sectional area of the geologic medium through which flow occurs, perpendicular to the flow direction, divided by the effective porosity along the flow path. If discrete segments of the flow path have different hydrologic properties, the total travel time will be the sum of the travel times for each discrete segment.
</P>
<P><I>Guideline</I> means a statement of policy or procedure that may include, when appropriate, qualifying, disqualifying, favorable, or potentially adverse conditions as specified in the “guidelines.”
</P>
<P><I>Guidelines</I> means part 960 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations—General Guidelines for the Recommendation of Sites for Nuclear Waste Repositories.
</P>
<P><I>High-level radioactive waste</I> means (1) the highly radioactive material resulting from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuel, including liquid waste produced directly in reprocessing and any solid material derived from such liquid waste that contains fission products in sufficient concentrations and (2) other highly radioactive material that the NRC, consistent with existing law, determines by rule requires permanent isolation.
</P>
<P><I>Highly populated area</I> means any incoporated place (recognized by the decennial reports of the U.S. Bureau of the Census) of 2,500 or more persons, or any census designated place (as defined and delineated by the Bureau) of 2,500 or more persons, unless it can be demonstrated that any such place has a lower population density than the mean value for the continental United States. Counties or county equivalents, whether incorporated or not, are specifically excluded form the definition of “place” as used herein.
</P>
<P><I>Host rock</I> means the geologic medium in which the waste is emplaced, specifically the geologic materials that directly encompass and are in close proximity to the underground facility.
</P>
<P><I>Hydraulic conductivity</I> means the volume of water that will move through a medium in a unit of time under a unit hydraulic gradient through a unit area measured perpendicular to the direction of flow.
</P>
<P><I>Hydraulic gradient</I> means a change in the static pressure of ground water, expressed in terms of the height of water above a datum, per unit of distance in a given direction.
</P>
<P><I>Hydrologic process</I> means any hydrologic phenomenon that exhibits a continuous change in time, whether slow or rapid.
</P>
<P><I>Hydrologic properties</I> means those properties of a rock that govern the entrance of water and the capacity to hold, transmit, and deliver water, such as porosity, effective porosity, specific retention, permeability, and the directions of maximum and minimum permeabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Igneous activity</I> means the emplacement (intrusion) of molten rock material (magma) into material in the Earth's crust or the expulsion (extrusion) of such material onto the Earth's surface or into its atmosphere or surface water.
</P>
<P><I>Isolation</I> means inhibiting the transport of radioactive material so that the amounts and concentrations of this material entering the accessible environment will be kept within prescribed limits.
</P>
<P><I>Likely</I> means processing or displaying the qualities, characteristics, or attributes that provide a reasonable basis for confidence that what is expected indeed exists or will occur.
</P>
<P><I>Lithosphere</I> means the solid part of the Earth, including any ground water contained within it.
</P>
<P><I>Member of the public</I> means any individual who is not engaged in operations involving the management, storage, and disposal of radioactive waste. A worker so engaged is a member of the public except when on duty at the geologic-repository operations area.
</P>
<P><I>Mitigation</I> means: (1) Avoiding the impact altogether by not taking a certain action or parts of an action; (2) minimizing impacts by limiting the degree or magnitude of the action and its implementation; (3) rectifying the impact by repairing, rehabilitating, or restoring the affected environment; (4) reducing or eliminating the impact over time by preservation and maintenance operations during the life of the action; or (5) compensating for the impact by replacing or providing substitute resources or environments.
</P>
<P><I>Model</I> means a conceptual description and the associated mathematical representation of a system, subsystem, component, or condition that is used to predict changes from a baseline state as a function of internal and/or external stimuli and as a function of time and space.
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P><I>Perched ground water</I> means unconfined ground water separated from an underlying body of ground water by an unsaturated zone. Its water table is a perched water table. Perched ground water is held up by a perching bed whose permeability is so low that water percolating downward through it is not able to bring water in the underlying unsaturated zone above atmospheric pressure.
</P>
<P><I>Performance assessment</I> means any analysis that predicts the behavior of a system or system component under a given set of constant and/or transient conditions. Performance assessments will include estimates of the effects of uncertainties in data and modeling.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent closure</I> is synonymous with “closure.”
</P>
<P><I>Postclosure</I> means the period of time after the closure of the geologic repository.
</P>
<P><I>Potentially acceptable site</I> means any site at which, after geologic studies and field mapping but before detailed geologic data gathering, the DOE undertakes preliminary drilling and geophysical testing for the definition of site location.
</P>
<P><I>Potentially adverse condition</I> means a condition that is presumed to detract from expected system performance, but further evaluation, additional data, or the identification of compensating or mitigating factors may indicate that its effect on the expected system performance is acceptable.
</P>
<P><I>Preclosure</I> means the period of time before and during the closure of the geologic repository.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-waste-emplacement</I> means before the authorization of repository construction by the NRC.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying condition</I> means a condition that must be satisfied for a site to be considered acceptable with respect to a specific guideline.
</P>
<P><I>Quaternary Period</I> means the second period of the Cenozoic Era, following the Tertiary, beginning 2 to 3 million years ago and extending to the present.
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive waste</I> or “waste” means high-level radioactive waste and other radioactive materials, including spent nuclear fuel, that are received for emplacement in a geologic repository.
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive-waste facility</I> means a facility subject to the licensing and related regulatory authority of the NRC pursuant to Sections 202(3) and 202(4) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 1244).
</P>
<P><I>Radionuclide retardation</I> means the process or processes that cause the time required for a given radionuclide to move between two locations to be greater than the ground-water travel time, because of physical and chemical interactions between the radionuclide and the geohydrologic unit through which the radionuclide travels.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonably available technology</I> means technology which exists and has been demonstrated or for which the results of any requisite development, demonstration, or confirmatory testing efforts before application will be available within the required time period.
</P>
<P><I>Repository</I> is synonymous with “geologic repository.”
</P>
<P><I>Repository closure</I> is synonymous with “closure.”
</P>
<P><I>Repository construction</I> means all excavation and mining activities associated with the construction of shafts, shaft stations, rooms, and necessary openings in the underground facility, preparatory to radioactive-waste emplacement, as well as the construction of necessary surface facilities, but excluding site-characterization activities.
</P>
<P><I>Repository operation</I> means all of the functions at the site leading to and involving radioactive-waste emplacement in the underground facility, including receiving, transportation, handling, emplacement, and, if necessary, retrieval.
</P>
<P><I>Repository support facilities</I> means all permanent facilities constructed in support of site-characterization activities and repository construction, operation, and closure activities, including surface structures, utility lines, roads, railroads, and similar facilities, but excluding the underground facility.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted area</I> means any area access to which is controlled by the DOE for purposes of protecting individuals from exposure to radiation and radioactive materials before repository closure, but not including any areas used as residential quarters, although a separate room or rooms in a residential building may be set apart as a restricted area.
</P>
<P><I>Retrieval</I> means the act of intentionally removing radioactive waste before repository closure from the underground location at which the waste had been previously emplaced for disposal.
</P>
<P><I>Saturated zone</I> means that part of the Earth's crust beneath the water table in which all voids, large and small, are ideally filled with water under pressure greater than atmospheric.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Site</I> means a potentially acceptable site or a candidate site, as appropriate, until such time as the controlled area has been established, at which time the site and the controlled area are the same.
</P>
<P><I>Site characterization</I> means activities, whether in the laboratory or in the field, undertaken to establish the geologic conditions and the ranges of the parameters of a candidate site relevant to the location of a repository, including borings, surface excavations, excavations of exploratory shafts, limited subsurface lateral excavations and borings, and in situ testing needed to evaluate the suitability of a candidate site for the location of a repository, but not including preliminary borings and geophysical testing needed to assess whether site characterization should be undertaken.
</P>
<P><I>Siting</I> means the collection of exploration, testing, evaluation, and decision-making activities associated with the process of site screening, site nomination, site recommendation, and site approval for characterization or repository development.
</P>
<P><I>Source term</I> means the kinds and amounts of radionuclides that make up the source of a potential release of radioactivity.
</P>
<P><I>Spent nuclear fuel</I> means fuel that has been withdrawn from a nuclear reactor following irradiation, the constituent elements of which have not been separated by reprocessing.
</P>
<P><I>Surface facilities</I> means repository support facilities within the restricted area.
</P>
<P><I>Surface water</I> means any waters on the surface of the Earth, including fresh and salt water, ice, and snow.
</P>
<P><I>System</I> means the geologic setting at the site, the waste package, and the repository, all acting together to contain and isolate the waste.
</P>
<P><I>System performance</I> means the complete behavior of a repository system in response to the conditions, processes, and events that may affect it.
</P>
<P><I>Tectonic</I> means of, or pertaining to, the forces involved in, or the resulting structures or features of, <I>tectonics.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Tectonics</I> means the branch of geology dealing with the broad architecture of the outer part of the Earth, that is, the regional assembling of structural or deformational features and the study of their mutual relations, origin, and historical evolution.
</P>
<P><I>To the extent practicable</I> means the degree to which an intended course of action is capable of being effected in a manner that is reasonable and feasible within a framework of constraints.
</P>
<P><I>Underground facility</I> means the underground structure and the rock required for support, including mined openings and backfill materials, but excluding shafts, boreholes, and their seals.
</P>
<P><I>Unsaturated zone</I> means the zone between the land surface and the water table. Generally, water in this zone is under less than atmospheric pressure, and some of the voids may contain air or other gases at atmospheric pressure. Beneath flooded areas or in perched water bodies, the water pressure locally may be greater than atmospheric.
</P>
<P><I>Waste form</I> means the radioactive waste materials and any encapsulating or stabilizing matrix.
</P>
<P><I>Waste package</I> means the waste form and any containers, shielding, packing, and other sorbent materials immediately surrounding an individual waste container.
</P>
<P><I>Water table</I> means that surface in a body of ground water at which the water pressure is atmospheric. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47752, Dec. 6, 1984, as amended at 66 FR 57334, Nov. 14, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Implementation Guidelines</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3   Implementation guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>The guidelines of this subpart establish the procedure and basis for applying the postclosure and the preclosure guidelines of subparts C and D, respectively, to evaluations of the suitability of sites. As may be appropriate during the siting process, this procedure requires consideration of a variety of geohydrologic settings and rock types, regionality, and environmental impacts and consultation with affected States, affected Indian tribes, and Federal agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47752, Dec. 6, 1984, as amended at 66 FR 57334, Nov. 14, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1   Siting provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The siting provisions establish the framework for the implementation of the siting process specified in § 960.3-2. Sections 960.3-1-1 and 960.3-1-2 require that consideration be given to sites situated in different geohydrologic settings and different types of host rock, respectively. These diversity guidelines are intended to balance the process of site selection by requiring consideration of a variety of geologic conditions and media, and thereby enhance confidence in the technical suitability of sites selected for the development of repositories. As required by the Act, § 960.3-1-3 specifies consideration of a regional distribution of repositories after recommendation of a site for development of the first repository. Section 960.3-1-4 describes the evidence that is required to support siting decisions. Section 960.3-1-5 establishes the basis for site evaluations against the postclosure and the preclosure guidelines of subparts C and D during the various phases of the siting process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1-1   Diversity of geohydrologic settings.</HEAD>
<P>Consideration shall be given to a variety of geohydrologic settings in which sites for the development of repositories may be located. To the extent practicable, sites recommended as candidate sites for characterization shall be located in different geohydrologic settings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1-2   Diversity of rock types.</HEAD>
<P>Consideration shall be given to a variety of geologic media in which sites for the development of repositories may be located. To the extent practicable, and with due consideration of candidate sites characterized previously or approved for such characterization if the circumstances apply, sites recommended as candidate sites for characterization shall have different types of host rock.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1-3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1-3   Regionality.</HEAD>
<P>In making site recommendations for repository development after the site for the first repository has been recommended, the Secretary shall give due consideration to the need for, and the advantages of, a regional distribution in the siting of subsequent repositories. Such consideration shall take into account the proximity of sites to locations at which waste is generated or temporarily stored and at which other repositories have been or are being developed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1-4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1-4   Evidence for siting decisions.</HEAD>
<P>The siting process involves a sequence of four decisions: The identification of potentially acceptable sites; the nomination of sites as suitable for characterization; the recommendation of sites as candidate sites for site characterization; and after the completion of site characterization and nongeologic data gathering, the recommendation of a candidate site for the development of a repository. Each of these decisions will be supported by the evidence specified below.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1-4-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1-4-1   Site identification as potentially acceptable.</HEAD>
<P>The evidence for the identification of a potentially acceptable site shall be the types of information specified in appendix IV of this part. Such evidence will be relatively general and less detailed than that required for the nomination of a site as suitable for characterization. Because the gathering of detailed geologic data will not take place until after the recommendation of a site for characterization, the levels of information may be relatively greater for the evaluation of those guidelines in subparts C and D that pertain to surface-identifiable factors for such site. The sources of information shall include the literature in the public domain and the private sector, when available, and will be supplemented in some instances by surface investigations and conceptual engineering design studies conducted by the DOE. Geologic surface investigations may include the mapping of identifiable rock masses, fracture and joint characteristics, and fault zones. Other surface investigations will consider the aquatic and terrestrial ecology; water rights and uses; topography; potential offsite hazards; natural resource concentrations; national or State protected resources; existing transportation systems; meteorology and climatology; population densities, centers, and distributions; and general socioeconomic characteristics.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1-4-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1-4-2   Site nomination for characterization.</HEAD>
<P>The evidence required to support the nomination of a site as suitable for characterization shall include the types of information specified in appendix IV of this part and shall be contained or referenced in the environmental assessments to be prepared in accordance with the requirements of the Act. The source of this information shall include the literature and related studies in the public domain and the private sector, when available, and various meteorological, environmental, socioeconomic, and transportation studies conducted by the DOE in the affected area; exploratory boreholes in the region of such site, including lithologic logging and hydrologic and geophysical testing of such boreholes, laboratory testing of core samples for the evaluation of geochemical and engineering rock properties, and chemical analyses of water samples from such boreholes; surface investigations, including geologic mapping and geophysical surveys, and compilations of satellite imagery data; in situ or laboratory testing of similar rock types under expected repository conditions; evaluations of natural and man-made analogs of the repository and its subsystems, such as geothermally active areas, underground excavations, and case histories of socioeconomic cycles in areas that have experienced intermittent large-scale construction and industrial activities; and extrapolations of regional data to estimate site-specific characteristics and conditions. The exact types and amounts of information to be collected within the above categories, including such details as the specific types of hydrologic tests, combinations of geophysical tests, or number of exploratory boreholes, are dependent on the site-specific needs for the application of the guidelines of subparts C and D, in accordance with the provisions of this subpart and the application requirements set forth in appendix III of this part. The evidence shall also include those technical evaluations that use the information specified above and that provide additional bases for evaluating the ability of a site to meet the qualifying conditions of the guidelines of subparts C and D. In developing the above-mentioned bases for evaluation, as may be necessary, assumptions that approximate the characteristics or conditions considered to exist at a site, or expected to exist or occur in the future, may be used. These assumptions will be realistic but conservative enough to underestimate the potential for a site to meet the qualifying condition of a guideline; that is, the use of such assumptions should not lead to an exaggeration of the ability of a site to meet the qualifying condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1-4-3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1-4-3   Site recommendation for characterization.</HEAD>
<P>The evidence required to support the recommendation of a site as a candidate site for characterization shall consist of the evaluations and data contained or referenced in the environmental assessment for such site, unless the Secretary certifies that such information, in the absence of additional preliminary borings or excavations, will not be adequate to satisfy applicable requirements of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-1-5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-1-5   Basis for site evaluations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Evaluations of individual sites and comparisons between and among sites shall be based on the postclosure and preclosure guidelines specified in subparts C and D of this part, respectively. Except for screening for potentially acceptable sites as specified in § 960.3-2-1, such evaluations shall place primary significance on the postclosure guidelines and secondary significance on the preclosure guidelines, with each set of guidelines considered collectively for such purposes. Both the postclosure and the preclosure guidelines consist of a system guideline or guidelines and corresponding groups of technical guidelines. 
</P>
<P>(b) The postclosure guidelines of subpart C of this part contain eight technical guidelines in one group. The preclosure guidelines of subpart D of this part contain eleven technical guidelines separated into three groups that represent, in decreasing order of importance, preclosure radiological safety; environment, socioeconomics, and transportation; and ease and cost of siting, construction, operation, and closure. 
</P>
<P>(c) The relative significance of any technical guideline to its corresponding system guideline is site specific. Therefore, for each technical guideline, an evaluation of compliance with the qualifying condition shall be made in the context of the collection of system elements and the evidence related to that guideline, considering on balance the favorable conditions and the potentially adverse conditions identified at a site. Similarly, for each system guideline, such evaluation shall be made in the context of the group of technical guidelines and the evidence related to that system guideline. 
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of recommending sites for development as repositories, such evidence shall include analyses of expected repository performance to assess the likelihood of demonstrating compliance with 40 CFR part 191 and 10 CFR part 60, in accordance with § 960.4-1. A site shall be disqualified at any time during the siting process if the evidence supports a finding by the DOE that a disqualifying condition exists or the qualifying condition of any system or technical guideline cannot be met. 
</P>
<P>(e) Comparisons between and among sites shall be based on the system guidelines, to the extent practicable and in accordance with the levels of relative significance specified above for the postclosure and the preclosure guidelines. Such comparisons are intended to allow comparative evaluations of sites in terms of the capabilities of the natural barriers for waste isolation and to identify innate deficiencies that could jeopardize compliance with such requirements. If the evidence for the sites is not adequate to substantiate such comparisons, then the comparisons shall be based on the groups of technical guidelines under the postclosure and the preclosure guidelines, considering the levels of relative significance appropriate to the postclosure and the preclosure guidelines and the order of importance appropriate to the subordinate groups within the preclosure guidelines. Comparative site evaluations shall place primary importance on the natural barriers of the site. In such evaluations for the postclosure guidelines of subpart C of this part, engineered barriers shall be considered only to the extent necessary to obtain realistic source terms for comparative site evaluations based on the sensitivity of the natural barriers to such realistic engineered barriers. For a better understanding of the potential effects of engineered barriers on the overall performance of the repository system, these comparative evaluations shall consider a range of levels in the performance of the engineered barriers. That range of performance levels shall vary by at least a factor of 10 above and below the engineered-barrier performance requirements set forth in 10 CFR 60.113, and the range considered shall be identical for all sites compared. The comparisons shall assume equivalent engineered barrier performance for all sites compared and shall be structured so that engineered barriers are not relied upon to compensate for deficiencies in the geologic media. Furthermore, engineered barriers shall not be used to compensate for an inadequate site; mask the innate deficiencies of a site; disguise the strengths and weaknesses of a site and the overall system; and mask differences between sites when they are compared. Releases of different radionuclides shall be combined by the methods specified in appendix A of 40 CFR part 191. 
</P>
<P>(f) The comparisons specified in paragraph (e) of this section shall consist of two comparative evaluations that predict radionuclide releases for 100,000 years after repository closure and shall be conducted as follows. First, the sites shall be compared by means of evaluations that emphasize the performance of the natural barriers at the site. Second, the sites shall be compared by means of evaluations that emphasize the performance of the total repository system. These second evaluations shall consider the expected performance of the repository system; be based on the expected performance of waste packages and waste forms, in compliance with the requirements of 10 CFR 60.113, and on the expected hydrological and geochemical conditions at each site; and take credit for the expected performance of all other engineered components of the repository system. The comparison of isolation capability shall be one of the significant considerations in the recommendation of sites for the development of repositories. The first of the two comparative evaluations specified in the paragraph (e) of this section shall take precedence unless the second comparative evaluation would lead to substantially different recommendations. In the latter case, the two comparative evaluations shall receive comparable consideration. Sites with predicted isolation capabilities that differ by less than a factor of 10, with similar uncertainties, may be assumed to provide equivalent isolation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 57334, Nov. 14, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2   Siting process.</HEAD>
<P>The siting process begins with site screening for the identification of potentially acceptable sites. This process was completed for purposes of the first repository before the enactment of the Act, and the identification of such sites was made after enactment in accordance with the provisions of section 116(a) of the Act. The screening process for the identification of potentially acceptable sites for the second and subsequent repositories shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements specified in § 960.3-2-1 of this subpart. The nomination of any site as suitable for characterization shall follow the process specified in § 960.3-2-2, and such nomination shall be accompanied by an environmental assessment as specified in section 112(b)(1)(E) of the Act. The recommendation of sites as candidate sites for characterization shall be accomplished in accordance with the requirements specified in § 960.3-2-3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47752, Dec. 6, 1984, as amended at 66 FR 57335, Nov. 14, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2-1   Site screening for potentially acceptable sites.</HEAD>
<P>To identify potentially acceptable sites for the development of other than the first repository, the process shall begin with site-screening activities that consider large land masses that contain rock formations of suitable depth, thickness, and lateral extent and have structural, hydrologic, and tectonic features favorable for waste containment and isolation. Within those large land masses, subsequent site-screening activities shall focus on successively smaller and increasingly more suitable land units. This process shall be developed in consultation with the States that contain land units under consideration. It shall be implemented in a sequence of steps that first applies the applicable disqualifying conditions to eliminate land units on the basis of the evidence specified in § 960.3-1-4-1 and in accordance with the application requirements set forth in appendix III of this part. After the disqualifying conditions have been applied, the favorable and potentially adverse conditions, as identified for each remaining land unit, shall be evaluated. The presence of favorable conditions shall favor a given land unit, while the presence of potentially adverse conditions shall penalize that land unit. Recognizing that favorable conditions and potentially adverse conditions for different technical guidelines can exist in the same land unit, the DOE shall seek to evaluate the composite favorability of each land unit. Land units that, in the aggregrate, exhibit potentially adverse conditions shall be deferred in favor of land units that exhibit favorable conditions. The siting provisions that require diversity of geohydrologic settings and rock types and consideration of regionality, as specified in §§ 960.3-1-1, 960.3-1-2, and 960.3-1-3, respectively, may be used to discriminate between land units and to establish the range of options in site screening. To identify a site as potentially acceptable, the evidence shall support a finding that the site is not disqualified in accordance with the application requirements set forth in appendix III of this part and shall support the decision by the DOE to proceed the continued investigation of the site on the basis of the favorable and potentially adverse conditions identified to date. In continuation of the screening process after such identification and before site nomination, the DOE may defer from further consideration land units or potentially acceptable sites or portions thereof on the basis of additional information or by the application of the siting provisions for diversity of geohydrologic settings, diversity of rock types, and regionality (§§ 960.3-1-1, 960.3-1-2, and 960.3-1-3, respectively). The deferral of potentially acceptable sites will be described in the environmental assessments that accompany the nomination of at least five sites as suitable for characterization. In order to identify potentially acceptable sites for the second and subsequent repositories, the Secretary shall <I>first</I> identify the State within which the site is located in a decision-basis document that describes the process and the considerations that led to the identification of such site and that has been issued previously in draft for review and comment by such State. <I>Second,</I> when such document is final, the Secretary shall notify the Governor and the legislature of that State and the tribal council of any affected Indian tribe of the potentially acceptable site.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2-2   Nomination of sites as suitable for characterization.</HEAD>
<P>From the sites identified as potentially acceptable, the Secretary shall nominate at least five sites determined suitable for site characterization for the selection of each repository site. For the second repository, at least three of the sites shall not have been nominated previously. Any site nominated as suitable for characterization for the first repository, but not recommended as a candidate site for characterization, may not be nominated as suitable for characterization for the second repository. The nomination of a site as suitable for characterization shall be accompanied by an environmental assessment as specified in section 112(b)(1)(E) of the Act. Such nomination shall be based on evaluations in accordance with the guidelines of this part, and the bases and relevant details of those evaluations and of the decision processes involved therein shall be contained in the environmental assessment for the site in the manner specified in this subpart. The evidence required to support such evaluations and siting decisions is specified in § 960.3-1-4-2.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2-2-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2-2-1   Evaluation of all potentially acceptable sites.</HEAD>
<P><I>First,</I> in considering sites for nomination, each of the potentially acceptable sites shall be evaluated on the basis of the disqualifying conditions specified in the technical guidelines of subparts C and D, in accordance with the application requirements set forth in appendix III of this part. This evaluation shall support a finding by the DOE that such sites is not disqualified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2-2-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2-2-2   Selection of sites within geohydrologic settings.</HEAD>
<P><I>Second,</I> the siting provision requiring diversity of geohydrologic settings, as specified in § 960.3-1-1, shall be applied to group all potentially acceptable sites according to their geohydrologic settings. <I>Third,</I> for those geohydrologic settings that contain more than one potentially acceptable site, the preferred site shall be selected on the basis of a comparative evaluation of all potentially acceptable sites in that setting. This evaluation shall consider the distinguishing characteristics displayed by the potentially acceptable sites within the setting and the related guidelines from subparts C and D. That is, the appropriate guidelines shall be selected primarily on the basis of the kinds of evidence among sites for which distinguishing characteristics can be identified. Such comparative evaluation shall be made on the basis of the qualifying conditions for those guidelines, considering, on balance, the favorable conditions and potentially adverse conditions identified at each site. Due consideration shall also be given to the siting provisions specifying the basis for site evaluations in § 960.3-1-5, to the extent practicable, and diversity of rock types in § 960.3-1-2, if the circumstances so apply. If less than five geohydrologic settings are available for consideration, the above process shall be used to select two or more preferred sites from those settings that contain more than one potentially acceptable site, as required to obtain the number of sites to be nominated as suitable for characterization. For purposes of the second and subsequent repositories, due consideration shall also be given to the siting provision for regionality as specified in § 960.3-1-3. <I>Fourth,</I> each preferred site within a geohydrologic setting shall be evaluated as to whether such site is suitable for the development of a repository under the qualifying condition of each guideline specified in subparts C and D that does not require site characterization as a prerequisite for the application of such guideline. The guidelines considered appropriate to this evaluation have been selected on the basis of their exclusion under the definition of site characterization as specified in § 960.2. Although the final application of these guidelines, in accordance with the provisions set forth in appendix III of this part, does not require geologic data from site-characterization activities, such application will require additional data beyond those specified in appendix IV of this part, which will be obtained concurrently with site characterization. Such guidelines include those specified in § 960.4-2-8-2 (Site Ownership and Control) of subpart C; §§ 960.5-1(a)(1) and 960.5-1(a)(2) of subpart D (preclosure system guidelines for radiological safety and environmental quality, socioeconomics, and transportation); and §§ 960.5-2-1 through 960.5-2-7 of subpart D (Population Density and Distribution, Site Ownership and Control, Meteorology, Offsite Installations and Operations, Environmental Quality, Socioeconomic Impacts, and Transportation). This evaluation shall consider on balance those favorable conditions and potentially adverse conditions identified as such at a preferred site in relation to the qualifying condition of each such guideline. For each such guideline, this evaluation shall focus on the suitability of the site for the development of a repository by considering the activities from the start of site characterization through decommissioning and shall support a finding by the DOE in accordance with the application requirements set forth in appendix III of this part. <I>Fifth,</I> each preferred site within a geohydrologic setting shall be evaluated as to whether such site is suitable for site characterization under the qualifying conditions of those guidelines specified in subparts C and D that require characterization (i.e., subsurface geologic, hydrologic, and geochemical data gathering). Such guidelines include those specified in § 960.4-1(a) (postclosure system guideline); §§ 960.4-2-1 through 960.4-2-8-1 of subpart C (Geohydrology, Geochemistry, Rock Characteristics, Climatic Changes, Erosion, Dissolution, Tectonics, Human Interference, and Natural Resources); § 960.5-1(a)(3) (preclosure system guideline for ease and cost of siting, construction, operation, and closure); and § 960.5-2-8 through 960.5-2-11 of subpart D (Surface Characteristics, Rock Characteristics, Hydrology, and Tectonics). This evaluation shall consider on balance the favorable conditions and potentially adverse conditions identified as such at a preferred site in relation to the qualifying condition of each such guideline. For each such guideline, this evaluation shall focus on the suitability of the site for characterization and shall support a finding by the DOE in accordance with the application requirements set forth in appendix III of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2-2-3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2-2-3   Comparative evaluation of all sites proposed for nomination.</HEAD>
<P><I>Sixth,</I> for those potentially acceptable sites to be proposed for nomination, as determined by the process specified in § 960.3-2-2-2, a reasonable comparative evaluation of each such site with all other such sites shall be made. For each site and for each guideline specified in subparts C and D, the DOE shall summarize the evaluations and findings specified under § 960.3-2-2-1 and under the fourth and fifth provisions of § 960.3-2-2-2. Each such summary shall allow comparisons to be made among sites on this basis of each guideline. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2-2-4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2-2-4   The environmental assessment.</HEAD>
<P>To document the process specified above, and in compliance with section 112(b)(1)(E) of the Act, an environmental assessment shall be prepared for each site proposed for nomination as suitable for characterization. Each such environmental assessment shall describe the decision process by which such site was proposed for nomination as described in the preceding six steps and shall contain or reference the evidence that supports such process according to the requirements of § 960.3-1-4-2 and appendix IV of this part. As specified in the Act, each environmental assessment shall include an evaluation of the effects of the site-characterization activities at the site on public health and safety and the environment; a discussion of alternative activities related to site characterization that may be taken to avoid such impact; and an assessment of the regional and local impacts of locating a repository at the site. The draft environmental assessment for each site proposed for nomination as suitable for characterization shall be made available by the DOE for public comment after the Secretary has notified the Governor and legislature of the State in which the site is located, and the governing body of the affected Indian tribe where such site is located, of such impending availability. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2-2-5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2-2-5   Formal site nomination.</HEAD>
<P>After the final environmental assessments have been prepared, the Secretary shall nominate at least five sites that he determines suitable for site characterization for the selection of a repository site, and, in so doing, he shall cause to have published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice specifying the sites so nominated and announcing the availability of the final environmental assessments for such sites. This determination by the Secretary shall be based on the final environmental assessments for such sites, including, in particular, consideration of the available evidence, evaluations, and the resultant findings for the guidelines of subparts C and D so specified under the fourth and fifth provisions of § 960.3-2-2-2. Before nominating a site, the Secretary shall notify the Governor and legislature of the State in which the site is located, and the governing body of the affected Indian tribe where such site is located, of such nomination and the basis for such nomination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-2-3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-2-3   Recommendation of sites for characterization.</HEAD>
<P>After the nomination of at least five sites as suitable for site characterization for the selection of the first repository, the Secretary shall recommend in writing to the President not less than three candidate sites for such characterization. The recommendation decision shall be based on the available geophysical, geologic, geochemical, and hydrologic data; other information; associated evaluations and findings reported in the environmental assessments accompanying the nominations; and the considerations specified below, unless the Secretary certifies that such available data will not be adequate to satisfy applicable requirements of the Act in the absence of further preliminary borings or excavations. On the basis of the evidence and in accordance with the siting provision specifying the basis for site evaluations in § 960.3-1-5, the sites nominated as suitable for characterization shall be considered as to their order of preference as candidate sites for characterization. Subsequently, the siting provisions specifying diversity of geohydrologic settings, diversity of rock types, and, after the first repository, consideration of regionality in §§ 960.3-1-1, 960.3-1-2, and 960.3-1-3, respectively, shall be considered to determine a final order of preference for the characterization of such sites. Considering this order of preference together with the available siting alternatives specified in the Act, the sites recommended as candidate sites for characterization shall offer, on balance, the most advantageous combination of characteristics and conditions for the successful development of repositories at such sites. The process for the recommendation of sites as candidate sites for characterization for the selection of any subsequent repository shall be the same as that specified above for the first repository. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-3   Consultation.</HEAD>
<P>The DOE shall provide to designated officials of the affected States and to the governing bodies of any affected Indian tribe timely and complete information regarding determinations or plans made with respect to the siting, site characterization, design, development, construction, operation, closure, decommissioning, licensing, or regulation of a repository. Written responses to written requests for information from the designated officials of affected States or affected Indian tribes will be provided within 30 days after receipt of the written requests. In performing any study of an area for the purpose of determining the suitability of such area for the development of a repository, the DOE shall consult and cooperate with the Governor and the legislature of an affected State and the governing body of an affected Indian tribe in an effort to resolve concerns regarding public health and safety, environmental impacts, socioeconomic impacts, and technical aspects of the siting process. After notifying affected States and affected Indian tribes that potentially acceptable sites have been identified, or that a site has been approved for characterization, the DOE shall seek to enter into binding written agreements with such affected States or affected Indian tribes in accordance with the requirements of the Act. The DOE shall also consult, as appropriate, with other Federal agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.3-4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.2.19.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.3-4   Environmental impacts.</HEAD>
<P>Environmental impacts shall be considered by the DOE throughout the site characterization, site selection, and repository development process. The DOE shall mitigate significant adverse environmental impacts, to the extent practicable, during site characterization and repository construction, operation, closure, and decommissioning. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Postclosure Guidelines</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4   Postclosure guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>The guidelines in this subpart specify the factors to be considered in evaluating and comparing sites on the basis of expected repository performance after closure. The postclosure guidelines are separated into a system guideline and eight technical guidelines. The system guideline establishes waste containment and isolation requirements that are based on NRC and EPA regulations. These requirements must be met by the repository system, which contains natural barriers and engineered barriers. The engineered barriers will be designed to complement the natural barriers, which provide the primary means for waste isolation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-1   System guideline.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying Condition.</I> The geologic setting at the site shall allow for the physical separation of radioactive waste from the accessible environment after closure in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 191, subpart B, as implemented by the provisions of 10 CFR part 60. The geologic setting at the site will allow for the use of engineered barriers to ensure compliance with the requirements of 40 CFR part 191 and 10 CFR part 60 (see appendix I of this part).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2   Technical guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>The technical guidelines in this subpart set forth qualifying, favorable, potentially adverse, and, in five guidelines, disqualifying conditions on the characteristics, processes, and events that may influence the performance of a repository system after closure. The favorable conditions and the potentially adverse conditions under each guideline are <I>not</I> listed in any assumed order of importance. Potentially adverse conditions will be considered if they affect waste isolation within the controlled area even though such conditions may occur outside the controlled area. The technical guidelines that follow establish conditions that shall be considered in determining compliance with the qualifying condition of the postclosure system guideline. For each technical guideline, an evaluation of qualification or disqualification shall be made in accordance with the requirements specified in subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-1   Geohydrology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The present and expected geohydrologic setting of a site shall be compatible with waste containment and isolation. The geohydrologic setting, considering the characteristics of and the processes operating within the geologic setting, shall permit compliance with (1) the requirements specified in § 960.4-1 for radionuclide releases to the accessible environment and (2) the requirements specified in 10 CFR 60.113 for radionuclide releases from the engineered-barrier system using reasonably available technology.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) Site conditions such that the pre-waste-emplacement ground-water travel time along any path of likely radionuclide travel from the disturbed zone to the accessible environment would be more than 10,000 years.
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and rates of hydrologic processes operating within the geologic setting during the Quaternary Period would, if continued into the future, not affect or would favorably affect the ability of the geologic repository to isolate the waste during the next 100,000 years.
</P>
<P>(3) Sites that have stratigraphic, structural, and hydrologic features such that the geohydrologic system can be readily characterized and modeled with reasonable certainty.
</P>
<P>(4) For disposal in the saturated zone, at least one of the following pre-waste-emplacement conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(i) A host rock and immediately surrounding geohydrologic units with low hydraulic conductivities.
</P>
<P>(ii) A downward or predominantly horizontal hydraulic gradient in the host rock and in the immediately surrounding geohydrologic units.
</P>
<P>(iii) A low hydraulic gradient in and between the host rock and the immediately surrounding geohydrologic units.
</P>
<P>(iv) High effective porosity together with low hydraulic conductivity in rock units along paths of likely radionuclide travel between the host rock and the accessible environment.
</P>
<P>(5) For disposal in the unsaturated zone, at least one of the following pre-waste-emplacement conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(i) A low and nearly constant degree of saturation in the host rock and in the immediately surrounding geohydrologic units.
</P>
<P>(ii) A water table sufficiently below the underground facility such that the fully saturated voids continuous with the water table do not encounter the host rock.
</P>
<P>(iii) A geohydrologic unit above the host rock that would divert the downward infiltration of water beyond the limits of the emplaced waste.
</P>
<P>(iv) A host rock that provides for free drainage.
</P>
<P>(v) A climatic regime in which the average annual historical precipitation is a small fraction of the average annual potential evapotranspiration.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The DOE will, in accordance with the general principles set forth in § 960.1 of these regulations, revise the guidelines as necessary, to ensure consistency with the final NRC regulations on the unsaturated zone, which were published as a proposed rule on February 16, 1984, in 49 FR 5934.</P></NOTE>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Expected changes in geohydrologic conditions—such as changes in the hydraulic gradient, the hydraulic conductivity, the effective porosity, and the ground-water flux through the host rock and the surrounding geohydrologic units—sufficient to significantly increase the transport of radionuclides to the accessible environment as compared with pre-waste-emplacement conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) The presence of ground-water sources, suitable for crop irrigation or human consumption without treatment, along ground-water flow paths from the host rock to the accessible environment.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence in the geologic setting of stratigraphic or structural features—such as dikes, sills, faults, shear zones, folds, dissolution effects, or brine pockets—if their presence could significantly contribute to the difficulty of characterizing or modeling the geohydrologic system.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying condition.</I> A site shall be disqualified if the pre-waste-emplacement ground-water travel time from the disturbed zone to the accessible environment is expected to be less than 1,000 years along any pathway of likely and significant radionuclide travel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-2   Geochemistry.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The present and expected geochemical characteristics of a site shall be compatible with waste containment and isolation. Considering the likely chemical interactions among radionuclides, the host rock, and the ground water, the characteristics of and the processes operating within the geologic setting shall permit compliance with (1) the requirements specified in § 960.4-1 for radionuclide releases to the accessible environment and (2) the requirements specified in 10 CFR 60.113 for radionuclide releases from the engineered-barrier system using reasonably available technology.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) The nature and rates of the geochemical processes operating within the geologic setting during the Quaternary Period would, if continued into the future, not affect or would favorably affect the ability of the geologic repository to isolate the waste during the next 100,000 years.
</P>
<P>(2) Geochemical conditions that promote the precipitation, diffusion into the rock matrix, or sorption of radionuclides; inhibit the formation of particulates, colloids, inorganic complexes, or organic complexes that increase the mobility of radionuclides; or inhibit the transport of radionuclides by particulates, colloids, or complexes.
</P>
<P>(3) Mineral assemblages that, when subjected to expected repository conditions, would remain unaltered or would alter to mineral assemblages with equal or increased capability to retard radionuclide transport.
</P>
<P>(4) A combination of expected geochemical conditions and a volumetric flow rate of water in the host rock that would allow less than 0.001 percent per year of the total radionuclide inventory in the repository at 1,000 years to be dissolved.
</P>
<P>(5) Any combination of geochemical and physical retardation processes that would decrease the predicted peak cumulative releases of radionuclides to the accessible environment by a factor of 10 as compared to those predicted on the basis of ground-water travel time without such retardation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Ground-water conditions in the host rock that could affect the solubility or the chemical reactivity of the engineered-barrier system to the extent that the expected repository performance could be compromised.
</P>
<P>(2) Geochemical processes or conditions that could reduce the sorption of radionuclides or degrade the rock strength.
</P>
<P>(3) Pre-waste-emplacement ground-water conditions in the host rock that are chemically oxidizing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-3   Rock characteristics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The present and expected characteristics of the host rock and surrounding units shall be capable of accommodating the thermal, chemical, mechanical, and radiation stresses expected to be induced by repository construction, operation, and closure and by expected interactions among the waste, host rock, ground water, and engineered components. The characteristics of and the processes operating within the geologic setting shall permit compliance with (1) the requirements specified in § 960.4-1 for radionuclide releases to the accessible environment and (2) the requirements set forth in 10 CFR 60.113 for radionuclide releases from the engineered-barrier system using reasonably available technology.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable Conditions.</I> (1) A host rock that is sufficiently thick and laterally extensive to allow significant flexibility in selecting the depth, configuration, and location of the underground facility to ensure isolation.
</P>
<P>(2) A host rock with a high thermal conductivity, a low coefficient of thermal expansion, or sufficient ductility to seal fractures induced by repository construction, operation, or closure or by interactions among the waste, host rock, ground water, and engineered components.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Rock conditions that could require engineering measures beyond reasonably available technology for the construction, operation, and closure of the repository, if such measures are necessary to ensure waste containment or isolation.
</P>
<P>(2) Potential for such phenomena as thermally induced fractures, the hydration or dehydration of mineral components, brine migration, or other physical, chemical, or radiation-related phenomena that could be expected to affect waste containment or isolation.
</P>
<P>(3) A combination of geologic structure, geochemical and thermal properties, and hydrologic conditions in the host rock and surrounding units such that the heat generated by the waste could significantly decrease the isolation provided by the host rock as compared with pre-waste-emplacement conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-4   Climatic changes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located where future climatic conditions will not be likely to lead to radionuclide releases greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.4-1. In predicting the likely future climatic conditions at a site, the DOE will consider the global, regional, and site climatic patterns during the Quaternary Period, considering the geomorphic evidence of the climatic conditions in the geologic setting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) A surface-water system such that expected climatic cycles over the next 100,000 years would not adversely affect waste isolation.
</P>
<P>(2) A geologic setting in which climatic changes have had little effect on the hydrologic system throughout the Quaternary Period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Evidence that the water table could rise sufficiently over the next 10,000 years to saturate the underground facility in a previously unsaturated host rock.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that climatic changes over the next 10,000 years could cause perturbations in the hydraulic gradient, the hydraulic conductivity, the effective porosity, or the ground-water flux through the host rock and the surrounding geohydrologic units, sufficient to significantly increase the transport of radionuclides to the accessible environment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-5   Erosion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall allow the underground facility to be placed at a depth such that erosional processes acting upon the surface will not be likely to lead to radionuclide releases greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.4-1. In predicting the likelihood of potentially disruptive erosional processes, the DOE will consider the climatic, tectonic, and geomorphic evidence of rates and patterns of erosion in the geologic setting during the Quaternary Period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) Site conditions that permit the emplacement of waste at a depth of at least 300 meters below the directly overlying ground surface.
</P>
<P>(2) A geologic setting where the nature and rates of the erosional processes that have been operating during the Quaternary Period are predicted to have less than one chance in 10,000 over the next 10,000 years of leading to releases of radionuclides to the accessible environment.
</P>
<P>(3) Site conditions such that waste exhumation would not be expected to occur during the first one million years after repository closure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) A geologic setting that shows evidence of extreme erosion during the Quaternary Period.
</P>
<P>(2) A geologic setting where the nature and rates of geomorphic processes that have been operating during the Quaternary Period could, during the first 10,000 years after closure, adversely affect the ability of the geologic repository to isolate the waste.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying condition.</I> The site shall be <I>disqualified</I> if site conditions do not allow all portions of the underground facility to be situated at least 200 meters below the directly overlying ground surface.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-6   Dissolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that any subsurface rock dissolution will not be likely to lead to radionuclide releases greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.4-1. In predicting the likelihood of dissolution within the geologic setting at a site, the DOE will consider the evidence of dissolution within that setting during the Quaternary Period, including the locations and characteristics of dissolution fronts or other dissolution features, if identified. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable condition.</I> No evidence that the host rock within the site was subject to significant dissolution during the Quaternary Period. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse condition.</I> Evidence of dissolution within the geologic setting—such as breccia pipes, dissolution cavities, significant volumetric reduction of the host rock or surrounding strata, or any structural collapse—such that a hydraulic interconnection leading to a loss of waste isolation could occur. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying condition.</I> The site shall be <I>disqualified</I> if it is likely that, during the first 10,000 years after closure, active dissolution, as predicted on the basis of the geologic record, would result in a loss of waste isolation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-7   Tectonics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located in a geologic setting where future tectonic processes or events will not be likely to lead to radionuclide releases greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.4-1. In predicting the likelihood of potentially disruptive tectonic processes or events, the DOE will consider the structural, stratigraphic, geophysical, and seismic evidence for the nature and rates of tectonic processes and events in the geologic setting during the Quaternary Period. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable condition.</I> The nature and rates of igneous activity and tectonic processes (such as uplift, subsidence, faulting, or folding), if any, operating within the geologic setting during the Quaternary Period would, if continued into the future, have less than one chance in 10,000 over the first 10,000 years after closure of leading to releases of radionuclides to the accessible environment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Evidence of active folding, faulting, diapirism, uplift, subsidence, or other tectonic processes or igneous activity within the geologic setting during the Quaternary Period. 
</P>
<P>(2) Historical earthquakes within the geologic setting of such magnitude and intensity that, if they recurred, could affect waste containment or isolation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Indications, based on correlations of earthquakes with tectonic processes and features, that either the frequency of occurrence or the magnitude of earthquakes within the geologic setting may increase. 
</P>
<P>(4) More-frequent occurrences of earthquakes or earthquakes of higher magnitude than are representative of the region in which the geologic setting is located. 
</P>
<P>(5) Potential for natural phenomena such as landslides, subsidence, or volcanic activity of such magnitudes that they could create large-scale surface-water impoundments that could change the regional ground-water flow system. 
</P>
<P>(6) Potential for tectonic deformations—such as uplift, subsidence, folding, or faulting—that could adversely affect the regional ground-water flow system. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying condition.</I> A site shall be disqualified if, based on the geologic record during the Quaternary Period, the nature and rates of fault movement or other ground motion are expected to be such that a loss of waste isolation is likely to occur. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-8   Human interference.</HEAD>
<P>The site shall be located such that activities by future generations at or near the site will not be likely to affect waste containment and isolation. In assessing the likelihood of such activities, the DOE will consider the estimated effectiveness of the permanent markers and records required by 10 CFR part 60, taking into account site-specific factors, as stated in §§ 960.4-2-8-1 and 960.4-2-8-2, that could compromise their continued effectiveness. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-8-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-8-1   Natural resources.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> This site shall be located such that—considering permanent markers and records and reasonable projections of value, scarcity, and technology—the natural resources, including ground water suitable for crop irrigation or human consumption without treatment, present at or near the site will not be likely to give rise to interference activities that would lead to radionuclide releases greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.4-1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) No known natural resources that have or are projected to have in the foreseeable future a value great enough to be considered a commercially extractable resource.
</P>
<P>(2) Ground water with 10,000 parts per million or more of total dissolved solids along any path of likely radionuclide travel from the host rock to the accessible environment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Indications that the site contains naturally occurring materials, whether or not actually identified in such form that (i) economic extraction is potentially feasible during the foreseeable future or (ii) such materials have a greater gross value, net value, or commercial potential than the average for other areas of similar size that are representative of, and located in, the geologic setting.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence of subsurface mining or extraction for resources within the site if it could affect waste containment or isolation.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence of drilling within the site for any purpose other than repository-site evaluation to a depth sufficient to affect waste containment and isolation.
</P>
<P>(4) Evidence of a significant concentration of any naturally occurring material that is not widely available from other sources.
</P>
<P>(5) Potential for foreseeable human activities—such as ground-water withdrawal, extensive irrigation, subsurface injection of fluids, underground pumped storage, military activities, or the construction of large-scale surface-water impoundments—that could adversely change portions of the ground-water flow system important to waste isolation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying conditions.</I> A site shall be disqualified if—
</P>
<P>(1) Previous exploration, mining, or extraction activities for resources of commercial importance at the site have created significant pathways between the projected underground facility and the accessible environment; or
</P>
<P>(2) Ongoing or likely future activities to recover presently valuable natural mineral resources outside the controlled area would be expected to lead to an inadvertent loss of waste isolation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.4-2-8-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.3.19.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.4-2-8-2   Site ownership and control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located on land for which the DOE can obtain, in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR part 60, ownership, surface and subsurface rights, and control of access that are required in order that potential surface and subsurface activities as the site will not be likely to lead to radionuclide releases greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.4-1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable condition.</I> Present ownership and control of land and all surface and subsurface rights by the DOE.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse condition.</I> Projected land-ownership conflicts that cannot be successfully resolved through voluntary purchase-sell agreements, nondisputed agency-to-agency transfers of title, or Federal condemnation proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Preclosure Guidelines</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.19.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5   Preclosure guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>The guidelines in this subpart specify the factors to be considered in evaluating and comparing sites on the basis of expected repository performance before closure. The preclosure guidelines are separated into three system guidelines and eleven technical guidelines.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.19.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-1   System guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying conditions</I>—(1) <I>Preclosure radiological safety.</I> Any projected radiological exposures of the general public and any projected releases of radioactive materials to restricted and unrestricted areas during repository operation and closure shall meet the applicable safety requirements set forth in 10 CFR part 20, 10 CFR part 60, and 40 CFR 191, subpart A (see appendix II of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Environment, socioeconomics, and transportation.</I> During repository siting, construction, operation, closure, and decommissioning the public and the environment shall be adequately protected from the hazards posed by the disposal of radioactive waste.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ease and cost of siting, construction, operation, and closure.</I> Repository siting, construction, operation, and closure shall be demonstrated to be technically feasible on the basis of reasonably available technology, and the associated costs shall be demonstrated to be reasonable relative to other available and comparable siting options.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.19.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2   Technical guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>The technical guidelines in this subpart set forth qualifying, favorable, potentially adverse, and, in seven guidelines, disqualifying conditions for the characteristics, processes, and events that influence the suitability of a site relative to the preclosure system guidelines. These conditions are separated into three main groups: Preclosure radiological safety; environment, socioeconomics, and transportation; and ease and cost of siting, construction, operation, and closure. The first group includes conditions on population density and distribution, site ownership and control, meteorology, and offsite installations and operations. The second group includes conditions related to environmental quality and socioeconomic impacts in areas potentially affected by a repository and to the transportation of waste to a repository site. The third group includes conditions on the surface characteristics of the site, the characteristics of the host rock and surrounding strata, hydrology, and tectonics. The individual technical guidelines within each group, as well as the favorable conditions and the potentially adverse conditions under each guideline, are not listed in any assumed order of importance. The technical guidelines that follow establish conditions that shall be considered in determining compliance with the qualifying conditions of the preclosure system guidelines. For each technical guideline, an evaluation of qualification or disqualification shall be made in accordance with the requirements specified in subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preclosure Radiological Safety</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.19.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-1   Population density and distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that, during repository operation and closure, (1) the expected average radiation dose to members of the public within any highly populated area will not be likely to exceed a small fraction of the limits allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(1), and (2) the expected radiation dose to any member of the public in an unrestricted area will not be likely to exceed the limit allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) A low population density in the general region of the site.
</P>
<P>(2) Remoteness of site from highly populated areas.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) High residential, seasonal, or daytime population density within the projected site boundaries.
</P>
<P>(2) Proximity of the site to highly populated areas, or to areas having at least 1,000 individuals in an area 1 mile by 1 mile as defined by the most recent decennial count of the U.S. census.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying conditions.</I> A site shall be <I>disqualified</I> if—
</P>
<P>(1) Any surface facility of a repository would be located in a highly populated area; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any surface facility of a repository would be located adjacent to an area 1 mile by 1 mile having a population of not less than 1,000 individuals as enumerated by the most recent U.S. census; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The DOE could not develop an emergency preparedness program which meets the requirements specified in DOE Order 5500.3 (Reactor and Non-Reactor Facility Emergency Planning, Preparedness, and Response Program for Department of Energy Operations) and related guides or, when issued by the NRC, in 10 CFR part 60, subpart I, “Emergency Planning Criteria.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.19.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-2   Site ownership and control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located on land for which the DOE can obtain, in accordance with the requirements of 10 CFR 60.121, ownership, surface and subsurface rights, and control of access that are required in order that surface and subsurface activities during repository operation and closure will not be likely to lead to radionuclide releases to an unrestricted area greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable condition.</I> Present ownership and control of land and all surface and subsurface mineral and water rights by the DOE. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse condition.</I> Projected land-ownership conflicts that cannot be successfully resolved through voluntary purchase-sell agreements, nondisputed agency-to-agency transfers of title, or Federal condemnation proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.19.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-3   Meteorology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that expected meteorological conditions during repository operation and closure will not be likely to lead to radionuclide releases to an unrestricted area greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable condition.</I> Prevailing meteorological conditions such that any radioactive releases to the atmosphere during repository operation and closure would be effectively dispersed, thereby reducing significantly the likelihood of unacceptable exposure to any member of the public in the vicinity of the repository.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Prevailing meteorological conditions such that radioactive emissions from repository operation of closure could be preferentially transported toward localities in the vicinity of the repository with higher population densities than are the average for the region.
</P>
<P>(2) History of extreme weather phenomena—such as hurricanes, tornadoes, severe floods, or severe and frequent winter storms—that could significantly affect repository operation or closure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.19.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-4   Offsite installations and operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that present projected effects from nearby industrial, transportation, and military installations and operations, including atomic energy defense activities, (1) will not significantly affect repository siting, construction, operation, closure, or decommissioning or can be accommodated by engineering measures and (2), when considered together with emissions from repository operation and closure, will not be likely to lead to radionuclide releases to an unrestricted area greater than those allowable under the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable condition.</I> Absence of contributing radioactive releases from other nuclear installations and operations that must be considered under the requirements of 40 CFR 191, subpart A.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) The presence of nearby potentially hazardous installations or operations that could adversely affect repository operation or closure.
</P>
<P>(2) Presence of other nuclear installations and operations, subject to the requirements of 40 CFR part 190 or 40 CFR part 191, subpart A, with actual or projected releases near the maximum value permissible under those standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying condition.</I> A site shall be disqualified if atomic energy defense activities in proximity to the site are expected to conflict irreconcilably with repository siting, construction, operation, closure, or decommissioning.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Environment, Socioeconomics, and Transportation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.20.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-5   Environmental quality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that (1) the quality of the environment in the affected area during this and future generations will be adequately protected during repository siting, construction, operation, closure, and decommissioning, and projected environmental impacts in the affected area can be mitigated to an acceptable degree, taking into account programmatic, technical, social, economic, and environmental factors; and (2) the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(2) can be met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) Projected ability to meet, within time constraints, all Federal, State, and local procedural and substantive environmental requirements applicable to the site and the activities proposed to take place thereon.
</P>
<P>(2) Potential significant adverse environmental impacts to present and future generations can be mitigated to an insignificant level through the application of reasonable measures, taking into account programmatic, technical, social, economic, and environmental factors.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Projected major conflict with applicable Federal, State, or local environmental requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Projected significant adverse environmental impacts that cannot be avoided or mitigated.
</P>
<P>(3) Proximity to, or projected significant adverse environmental impacts of the repository or its support facilities on, a component of the National Park System, the National Wildlife Refuge System, the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System, the National Wilderness Preservation System, or National Forest Land.
</P>
<P>(4) Proximity to, and projected significant adverse environmental impacts of the repository or its support facilities on, a significant State or regional protected resource area, such as a State park, a wildlife area, or a historical area.
</P>
<P>(5) Proximity to, and projected significant adverse environmental impacts of the repository and its support facilities on, a significant Native American resource, such as a major Indian religious site, or other sites of unique cultural interest.
</P>
<P>(6) Presence of critical habitats for threatened or endangered species that may be compromised by the repository or its support facilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying conditions.</I> Any of the following conditions shall <I>disqualify</I> a site:
</P>
<P>(1) During repository siting, construction, operation, closure, or decommissioning the quality of the environment in the affected area could not be adequately protected or projected environmental impacts in the affected area could not be mitigated to an acceptable degree, taking into account programmatic, technical, social, economic, and environmental factors.
</P>
<P>(2) Any part of the restricted area or repository support facilities would be located within the boundaries of a component of the National Park System, the National Wildlife Refuge System, the National Wilderness Preservation System, or the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System.
</P>
<P>(3) The presence of the restricted area or the repository support facilities would conflict irreconcilably with the previously designated resource-preservation use of a component of the National Park System, the National Wildlife Refuge System, the National Wilderness Preservation System, the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System, or National Forest Lands, or any comparably significant State protected resource that was dedicated to resource preservation at the time of the enactment of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-6" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.20.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-6   Socioeconomic impacts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that (1) any significant adverse social and/or economic impacts induced in communities and surrounding regions by repository siting, construction, operation, closure, and decommissioning can be offset by reasonable mitigation or compensation, as determined by a process of analysis, planning, and consultation among the DOE, affected State and local government jurisdictions, and affected Indian tribes; and (2) the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(2) can be met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) Ability of an affected area to absorb the project-related population changes without significant disruptions of community services and without significant impacts on housing supply and demand.
</P>
<P>(2) Availability of an adequate labor force in the affected area.
</P>
<P>(3) Projected net increases in employment and business sales, improved community services, and increased government revenues in the affected area.
</P>
<P>(4) No projected substantial disruption of primary sectors of the economy of the affected area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Potential for significant repository-related impacts on community services, housing supply and demand, and the finances of State and local government agencies in the affected area.
</P>
<P>(2) Lack of an adequate labor force in the affected area.
</P>
<P>(3) Need for repository-related purchase or acquisition of water rights, if such rights could have significant adverse impacts on the present or future development of the affected area.
</P>
<P>(4) Potential for major disruptions of primary sectors of the economy of the affected area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying condition.</I> A site shall be disqualified if repository construction, operation, or closure would significantly degrade the quality, or significantly reduce the quantity, of water from major sources of offsite supplies presently suitable for human consumption or crop irrigation and such impacts cannot be compensated for, or mitigated by, reasonable measures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-7" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.20.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-7   Transportation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that (1) the access routes constructed from existing local highways and railroads to the site (i) will not conflict irreconcilably with the previously designated use of any resource listed in § 960.5-2-5(d) (2) and (3); (ii) can be designed and constructed using reasonably available technology; (iii) will not require transportation system components to meet performance standards more stringent than those specified in the applicable DOT and NRC regulations, nor require the development of new packaging containment technology; (iv) will allow transportation operations to be conducted without causing an unacceptable risk to the public or unacceptable environmental impacts, taking into account programmatic, technical, social, economic, and environmental factors; and (2) the requirements of § 960.5-1(a)(2) can be met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) Availability of access routes from local existing highways and railroads to the site which have any of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) Such routes are relatively short and economical to construct as compared to access routes for other comparable siting options.
</P>
<P>(ii) Federal condemnation is not required to acquire rights-of-way for the access routes.
</P>
<P>(iii) Cuts, fills, tunnels, or bridges are not required.
</P>
<P>(iv) Such routes are free of sharp curves or steep grades and are not likely to be affected by landslides or rock slides.
</P>
<P>(v) Such routes bypass local cities and towns.
</P>
<P>(2) Proximity to local highways and railroads that provide access to regional highways and railroads and are adequate to serve the repository without significant upgrading or reconstruction.
</P>
<P>(3) Proximity to regional highways, mainline railroads, or inland waterways that provide access to the national transportation system.
</P>
<P>(4) Availability of a regional railroad system with a minimum number of interchange points at which train crew and equipment changes would be required.
</P>
<P>(5) Total projected life-cycle cost and risk for transportation of all wastes designated for the repository site which are significantly lower than those for comparable siting options, considering locations of present and potential sources of waste, interim storage facilities, and other repositories.
</P>
<P>(6) Availability of regional and local carriers—truck, rail, and water—which have the capability and are willing to handle waste shipments to the repository.
</P>
<P>(7) Absence of legal impediment with regard to compliance with Federal regulations for the transportation of waste in or through the affected State and adjoining States.
</P>
<P>(8) Plans, procedures, and capabilities for response to radioactive waste transportation accidents in the affected State that are completed or being developed.
</P>
<P>(9) A regional meteorological history indicating that significant transportation disruptions would not be routine seasonal occurrences.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) Access routes to existing local highways and railroads that are expensive to construct relative to comparable siting options.
</P>
<P>(2) Terrain between the site and existing local highways and railroads such that steep grades, sharp switchbacks, rivers, lakes, landslides, rock slides, or potential sources of hazard to incoming waste shipments will be encountered along access routes to the site.
</P>
<P>(3) Existing local highways and railroads that could require significant reconstruction or upgrading to provide adequate routes to the regional and national transportation system.
</P>
<P>(4) Any local condition that could cause the transportation-related costs, environmental impacts, or risk to public health and safety from waste transportation operations to be significantly greater than those projected for other comparable siting options.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Ease and Cost of Siting, Construction, Operation, and Closure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-8" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.21.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-8   Surface characteristics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that, considering the surface characteristics and conditions of the site and surrounding area, including surface-water systems and the terrain, the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(3) can be met during repository siting, construction, operation, and closure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) Generally flat terrain.
</P>
<P>(2) Generally well-drained terrain.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse condition.</I> Surface characteristics that could lead to the flooding of surface or underground facilities by the occupancy and modification of flood plains, the failure of existing or planned man-made surface-water impoundments, or the failure of engineered components of the repository. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-9" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.21.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-9   Rock characteristics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that (1) the thickness and lateral extent and the characteristics and composition of the host rock will be suitable for accommodation of the underground facility; (2) repository construction, operation, and closure will not cause undue hazard to personnel; and (3) the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(3) can be met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) A host rock that is sufficiently thick and laterally extensive to allow significant flexibility in selecting the depth, configuration, and location of the underground facility.
</P>
<P>(2) A host rock with characteristics that would require minimal or no artificial support for underground openings to ensure safe repository construction, operation, and closure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse conditions.</I> (1) A host rock that is suitable for repository construction, operation, and closure, but is so thin or laterally restricted that little flexibility is available for selecting the depth, configuration, or location of an underground facility.
</P>
<P>(2) In situ characteristics and conditions that could require engineering measures beyond reasonably available technology in the construction of the shafts and underground facility.
</P>
<P>(3) Geomechanical properties that could necessitate extensive maintenance of the underground openings during repository operation and closure. 
</P>
<P>(4) Potential for such phenomena as thermally induced fracturing, the hydration and dehydration of mineral components, or other physical, chemical, or radiation-related phenomena that could lead to safety hazards or difficulty in retrieval during repository operation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Existing faults, shear zones, pressurized brine pockets, dissolution effects, or other stratigraphic or structural features that could compromise the safety of repository personnel because of water inflow or construction problems. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying condition.</I> The site shall be <I>disqualified</I> if the rock characteristics are such that the activities associated with repository construction, operation, or closure are predicted to cause significant risk to the health and safety of personnel, taking into account mitigating measures that use reasonably available technology. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.21.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-10   Hydrology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying condition.</I> The site shall be located such that the geohydrologic setting of the site will (1) be compatible with the activities required for repository construction, operation, and closure; (2) not compromise the intended functions of the shaft liners and seals; and (3) permit the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(3) to be met. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable conditions.</I> (1) Absence of aquifers between the host rock and the land surface. 
</P>
<P>(2) Absence of surface-water systems that could potentially cause flooding of the repository. 
</P>
<P>(3) Availability of the water required for repository construction, operation, and closure. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially adverse condition.</I> Ground-water conditions that could require complex engineering measures that are beyond reasonably available technology for repository construction, operation, and closure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying condition.</I> A site shall be disqualified if, based on expected ground-water conditions, it is likely that engineering measures that are beyond reasonably available technology will be required for exploratory-shaft construction or for repository construction, operation, or closure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 960.5-2-11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.21.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 960.5-2-11   Tectonics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying Conditions.</I> The site shall be located in a geologic setting in which any projected effects of expected tectonic phenomena or igneous activity on repository construction, operation, or closure will be such that the requirements specified in § 960.5-1(a)(3) can be met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Favorable Condition.</I> The nature and rates of faulting, if any, within the geologic setting are such that the magnitude and intensity of the associated seismicity are significantly less than those generally allowable for the construction and operation of nuclear facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potentially Adverse Conditions.</I> (1) Evidence of active faulting within the geologic setting.
</P>
<P>(2) Historical earthquakes or past man-induced seismicity that, if either were to recur, could produce ground motion at the site in excess of reasonable design limits.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence, based on correlations of earthquakes with tectonic processes and features, (e.g., faults) within the geologic setting, that the magnitude of earthquakes at the site during repository construction, operation, and closure may be larger then predicted from historical seismicity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disqualifying Condition.</I> A site shall be disqualified if, based on the expected nature and rates of fault movement or other ground motion, it is likely that engineering measures that are beyond reasonably available technology will be required for exploratory-shaft construction or for repository construction, operation, or closure.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.22.15.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 960—NRC and EPA Requirements for Postclosure Repository Performance
</HEAD>
<P>Under proposed 40 CFR part 191, subpart B—<I>Environmental Standards for Disposal,</I> § 191.13, “Containment Requirements”, specifies that for 10,000 years after disposal (a) releases of radioactive materials to the accessible environment that are estimated to have more than one chance in 100 of occurring over a 10,000 year period (“reasonably foreseeable releases”) shall be projected to be less than the quantities permitted by Table 2 of that regulation's appendix; and (b) for “very unlikely releases” (i.e., those estimated to have between one chance in 100 and one chance in 10,000 of occurring over a 10,000 year period), the limits specified in Table 2 would be multiplied by 10. The basis for Table 2 is an upper limit on long term risks of 1,000 health effects over 10,000 years for a repository containing wastes generated from 100,000 metric tons of heavy metal of reactor fuel. For releases involving more than one radionuclide, the allowed release for each radionuclide is reduced to the fraction of its limit that insures that the overall limit on harm is not exceeded. Additionally, to provide confidence needed for compliance with the containment requirements specified above, § 191.14, “Assurance Requirements”, specifies the disposal of radioactive waste in accordance with seven requirements, relating to prompt disposal of waste; selection and design of disposal systems to keep releases to the accessible environment as small as reasonably achievable; engineered and natural barriers; nonreliance on active institutional controls after closure; passive controls after closure; natural resource areas; and design of disposal systems to allow future recovery of wastes.
</P>
<P>The guidelines will be revised as necessary after the adoption of final regulations by the EPA.
</P>
<P>The implementation of 40 CFR part 191, subpart B is required by 10 CFR 60.112. 10 CFR 60.113 establishes minimum conditions to be met for engineered components and ground-water flow; specifically: (1) Containment of radioactive waste within the waste packages will be substantially complete for a period to be determined by the NRC taking into account the factors specified in 10 CFR 60.113(b) provided that such period shall be not less than 300 years nor more than 1,000 years after permanent closure of the geologic repository; (2) the release rate of any radionuclide from the engineered barrier system following the containment period shall not exceed one part in 100,000 per year of the inventory of that radionuclide calculated to be present at 1,000 years following permanent closure, or such other fraction of the inventory as may be approved or specified by the NRC, provided that this requirement does not apply to any radionuclide which is released at a rate less than 0.1% of the calculated total release rate limit. The calculated total release rate limit shall be taken to be one part in 100,000 per year of the inventory of radioactive waste originally emplaced in the underground facility that remains after 1,000 years of radioactive decay; and (3) the geologic repository shall be located so that pre-waste-emplacement ground-water travel time along the fastest path of likely radionuclide travel from the disturbed zone to the accessible environment shall be at least 1,000 years or such other travel time as may be approved or specified by the NRC.
</P>
<P>The guidelines will be revised as necessary to ensure consistency with 10 CFR part 60.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix II" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.22.15.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix II to Part 960—NRC and EPA Requirements for Preclosure Repository Performance
</HEAD>
<P>Under proposed 40 CFR part 191, subpart A—<I>Environmental Standards for Management and Storage,</I> Section 191.03, “Standards for Normal Operations”, specifies: (1) That operations should be conducted so as to reduce exposure to members of the public to the extent reasonably achievable, taking into account technical, social, and economic considerations; and (2) that, except for variances permitted for unusual operations under Section 191.04 as an upper limit, normal operations shall be conducted in such a manner as to provide reasonable assurance that the combined annual dose equivalent to any member of the public due to: (i) operations covered by 40 CFR part 190, (ii) planned discharges of radioactive material to the general environment from operations covered by this subpart, and (iii) direct radiation from these operations; shall not exceed 25 millirems to the whole body, 75 millirems to the thyroid, or 25 millirems to any other organ.
</P>
<P>The guidelines will be revised as necessary after the adoption of final regulations by the EPA.
</P>
<P>The implementation of 40 CFR part 191, subpart A and 10 CFR part 20 is required by 10 CFR 60.111. 10 CFR 60.111 also specifies requirements for waste retrieval, if necessary, including considerations of design, backfilling, and schedule. 10 CFR part 20 establishes (a) exposure limits for operating personnel and (b) permissible concentrations of radionuclides in uncontrolled areas for air and water. The latter are generally less restrictive than 40 CFR 191, subpart A, but may be limiting under certain conditions (i.e., if used as a maximum for short durations rather than annual averages).
</P>
<P>The guidelines will be revised as necessary to ensure consistency with 10 CFR part 60.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix III" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.22.15.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix III to Part 960—Application of the System and Technical Guidelines During the Siting Process
</HEAD>
<P>1. This appendix presents a table that specifies how the guidelines of subparts C and D are to be applied at certain decision points of the siting process. The decision points, as referenced in the table, are defined as follows: 
</P>
<P>“Potentially acceptable” means the decision point at which a site is identified as potentially acceptable.
</P>
<P>“Nomination and recommendation” means the decision point at which a site is nominated as suitable for characterization or recommended as a candidate site for characterization. 
</P>
<P>2. The findings resulting from the application of a disqualifying condition for any particular guideline at a given decision point are denoted in the table by the numeral 1 or 2. The numerals 1 and 2 signify the types of findings that are required and are defined as follows: 
</P>
<P>“1” means <I>either</I> of the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) The evidence does <I>not</I> support a finding that the site is disqualified.
</P>
<FP>   <I>or</I>
</FP>
<P>(b) The evidence supports a finding that the site is disqualified. 
</P>
<P>“2” means <I>either</I> of the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) The evidence supports a finding that the site is <I>not</I> disqualified on the basis of that evidence and is <I>not</I> likely to be disqualified.
</P>
<FP>   <I>or</I>
</FP>
<P>(b) The evidence supports a finding that the site is disqualified or is likely to be disqualified. 
</P>
<P>3. The findings resulting from the application of a qualifying condition for any particular guideline at a given decision point are denoted in the table by the numeral 3 or 4. The numerals 3 and 4 signify the types of findings that are required and are defined as follows: 
</P>
<P>“3” means <I>either</I> of the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) The evidence does <I>not</I> support a finding that the site is <I>not</I> likely to meet the qualifying condition.
</P>
<FP>   <I>or</I>
</FP>
<P>(b) The evidence supports a finding that the site is <I>not</I> likely to meet the qualifying condition, and therefore the site is disqualified. 
</P>
<P>4. If performance assessments are used to substantiate any of the above findings, those assessments shall include estimates of the effects of uncertainties in data and modeling. 
</P>
<P>5. For both the disqualifying and qualifying conditions of any guideline, a higher finding (e.g., a “2” finding rather than “1”) shall be made if there is sufficient evidence to support such a finding. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Findings Resulting From the Application of the Qualifying and Disqualifying Conditions of the Technical Guidelines at Major Siting Decisions 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Section 960 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Guideline 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Condition 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Siting decision 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Potentially
<br/>acceptable 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nomination and recommendation 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-1(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-1(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geohydrology</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-1(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-2(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geochemistry</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-3(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rock Characteristics</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-4(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Climatic Changes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-5(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Erosion</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-5(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-6(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dissolution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-6(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-7(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tectonics</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-7(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-8-1(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Natural Resources</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-8-1(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-8-1(d)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-2-8-2(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Site Ownership and Control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-1(a)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-1(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-1(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-1(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Population Density and Distribution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-1(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-1(d)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-1(d)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-2(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Site Ownership and Control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-3(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Meteorology</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-4(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Offsite Installations and Operations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-4(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-5(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Environmental Quality</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-5(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-5(d)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-5(d)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-6(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Socioeconomic Impacts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-6(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-7(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Transportation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-8(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Surface Characteristics</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-9(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rock Characteristics</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-9(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-10(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hydrology</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-10(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-11(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tectonics</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5-2-11(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">......do</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Disqualifying</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 47752, Dec. 6, 1984, as amended at 66 FR 57335, Nov. 14, 2001]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix IV" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.43.4.22.15.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix IV to Part 960—Types of Information for the Nomination of Sites as Suitable for Characterization
</HEAD>
<P>The types of information specified below are those that the DOE expects will be included in the evidence used for evaluations and applications of the guidelines of subparts C and D at the time of nomination of a site as suitable for characterization. The types of information listed under each guideline are considered to be the most significant for the evaluation of that guideline. However, the types of information listed under any particular guideline will be used, as necessary, for the evaluation of any other guideline. As stated in § 960.3-1-4-2, the DOE will use technically conservative assumptions or extrapolations of regional data, where necessary, to supplement this information. The information specified below will be supplemented with conceptual models, as appropriate, and analyses of uncertainties in the data. 
</P>
<P>Before site-characterization studies and related nongeologic data gathering activities, the evidence is not expected to provide precise information, but, rather, to provide a reasonable basis for assessing the merits or shortcomings of the site against the guidelines of subparts C and D. Consequently, the types of information described below should be interpreted so as to accommodate differences among sites and differences in the information acquired before detailed studies. 
</P>
<P>The specific information required for the guideline applications set forth in appendix III of this part is expected to differ from site to site because of site-specific factors, both with regard to favorable and potentially adverse conditions and with regard to the sources and reliability of the information. The types of information specified in this appendix will be used except where the findings set forth in appendix III of this part can be arrived at by reasonable alternative means or the information is not required for the particular site. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-1 Geohydrology. 
</HD2>
<P>Description of the geohydrologic setting of the site, in context with its geologic setting, in order to estimate the pre-waste-emplacement ground-water flow conditions. The types of information to support this description should include— 
</P>
<P>• Location and estimated hydraulic properties of aquifers, confining units, and aquitards. 
</P>
<P>• Potential areas and modes of recharge and discharge for aquifers. 
</P>
<P>• Regional potentiometric surfaces of aquifers. 
</P>
<P>• Likely flow paths from the repository to locations in the expected accessible environment, as based on regional data. 
</P>
<P>• Preliminary estimates of ground-water travel times along the likely flow paths from the repository to locations in the expected accessible environment. 
</P>
<P>• Current use of principal aquifers and State or local management plans for such use. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-2 Geochemistry. 
</HD2>
<P>Description of the geochemical and hydrochemical conditions of the host rock, of the surrounding geohydrologic units, and along likely ground-water paths to locations in the expected accessible environment, in order to estimate the potential for the migration of radionuclides. The types of information to support this description should include— 
</P>
<P>• Petrology of the rocks. 
</P>
<P>• Mineralogy of the rocks and general characteristics of fracture fillings. 
</P>
<P>• Geochemical and mechanical stability of the minerals under expected repository conditions. 
</P>
<P>• General characteristics of the ground-water chemistry (e.g., reducing/oxidizing conditions and the principal ions that may affect the waste package or radionuclide behavior). 
</P>
<P>• Geochemical properties of minerals as related to radionuclide transport. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-3 Rock characteristics. 
</HD2>
<P>Description of the geologic and geomechanical characteristics of the site, in context with the geologic setting, in order to estimate the capability of the host rock and surrounding rock units to accommodate the thermal, mechanical, chemical, and radiation stresses expected to be induced by repository construction, operation, and closure and by expected interactions among the waste, host rock, ground-water, and engineered components of the repository system. The types of information to support this description should include— 
</P>
<P>• Approximate geology and stratigraphy of the site, including the depth, thickness, and lateral extent of the host rock and surrounding rock units. 
</P>
<P>• Approximate structural framework of the rock units and any major discontinuities identified from core samples. 
</P>
<P>• Approximate thermal, mechanical, and thermomechanical properties of the rocks, with consideration of the effects of time, stress, temperature, dimensional scale, and any major identified structural discontinuities. 
</P>
<P>• Estimates of the magnitude and direction of in situ stress and of temperature in the host rock and surrounding rock units.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-4 Climatic changes.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the climatic conditions of the site region, in context with global and regional patterns of climatic changes during the Quaternary Period, in order to project likely future changes in climate such that potential impacts on the repository can be estimated. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Expected climatic conditions and cycles, based on extrapolation of climates during the Quaternary Period.
</P>
<P>• Geomorphology of the site region and evidence of changes due to climatic changes.
</P>
<P>• Estimated effects of expected climatic cycles on the surface-water and the ground-water systems.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-5 Erosion.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the structure, stratigraphy, and geomorphology of the site, in context with the geologic setting, in order to estimate the depth of waste emplacement and the likelihood for erosional processes to uncover the waste in less than one million years. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Depth, thickness, and lateral extent of the host rock and the overlying rock units.
</P>
<P>• Lithology of the stratigraphic units above the host rock.
</P>
<P>• Nature and rates of geomorphic processes during the Quaternary Period.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-6 Dissolution.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the stratigraphy, structure, hydrology, and geochemistry of the site, in context with the geologic setting, to delineate the approximate limits of subsurface rock dissolution, if any. This description should include such information as the following:
</P>
<P>• The stratigraphy of the site, including rock units largely comprised of water-soluble minerals.
</P>
<P>• The approximate extent and configuration of features indicative of dissolution within the geologic setting.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-7 Tectonics.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the tectonic setting of the site, in context with its geologic setting, in order to project the tectonic stability of the site over the next 10,000 years and to identify tectonic features and processes that could be reasonably expected to have a potentially adverse effect on the performance of the repository. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• The tectonic history and framework of the geologic setting and the site.
</P>
<P>• Quaternary faults in the geologic setting, including their length, displacement, and any information regarding the age of latest movement.
</P>
<P>• Active tectonic processes, such as uplift, diapirism, tilting, subsidence, faulting, and volcanism.
</P>
<P>• Estimate of the geothermal gradient.
</P>
<P>• Estimate of the regional in situ stress field.
</P>
<P>• The historical seismicity of the geologic setting.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-8 Human interference.
</HD2>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-8-1 Natural resources.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the mineral and energy resources of the site, in order to project whether past or future exploration and recovery could have a potentially adverse effect on the performance of the repository. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Known occurrences of energy and mineral resources, including ground water.
</P>
<P>• Estimates of the present and projected value of these resources compared with resources contained in other areas of similar size in the geologic setting.
</P>
<P>• Past and present drilling and mining operations in the vicinity of the site.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.4-2-8-2 Site ownership and control.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the ownership of land for the geologic-repository operations area and the controlled area, in order to evaluate whether the DOE can obtain ownership of, and control access to, the site. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Present land ownership.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-1 Population density and distribution.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the population density and distribution of the site region, in order to identify highly populated areas and the nearest 1 mile by 1 mile area having a population greater than 1,000 persons. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• The most-recent U.S. census, including population composition, distribution, and density.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-2 Site ownership and control.
</HD2>
<P>Description of current ownership of land, including surface and subsurface mineral and water rights, in order to evaluate whether the DOE can obtain control of land within the projected restricted area. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Present land ownership.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-3 Meteorology.
</HD2>
<P>The meteorological setting, as determined from the closest recording station, in order to project meteorological conditions during repository operation and closure and their potential effects on the transport of airborne emissions. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Wind and atmospheric-dispersion characteristics.
</P>
<P>• Precipitation characteristics.
</P>
<P>• Extreme weather phenomena.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-4 Offsite installations and operations.
</HD2>
<P>Description of offsite installations and operations in the vicinity of the site in order to estimate their projected effects on repository construction, operation, or closure. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Location and nature of nearby industrial, transportation, and military installations and operations, including atomic energy defense activities.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-5 Environmental quality.
</HD2>
<P>Description of environmental conditions in order to estimate potential impacts on public health and welfare and on environmental quality. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Applicable Federal, State, and local procedural and substantive environmental requirements.
</P>
<P>• Existing air quality and trends.
</P>
<P>• Existing surface-water and ground-water quality and quantity.
</P>
<P>• Existing land resources and uses.
</P>
<P>• Existing terrestrial and aquatic vegetation and wildlife.
</P>
<P>• Location of any identified critical habitats for threatened or endangered species.
</P>
<P>• Existing aesthetic characteristics.
</P>
<P>• Location of components of the National Park System, the National Wildlife Refuge System, the National Wild and Scenic Rivers System, the National Wilderness Preservation System, or National Forest Land.
</P>
<P>• Location of significant State or regional protected resource areas, such as State parks, wildlife areas, or historical areas.
</P>
<P>• Location of significant Native American resources such as major Indian religious sites, or other sites of unique cultural interest.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-6 Socioeconomic impacts.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the socioeconomic conditions of the site, including population density and distribution, economics, community services and facilities, social conditions, and fiscal and government structure, in order to estimate the impacts that might result from site characterization and from the development of a repository at that site. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Population composition, density, and distribution.
</P>
<P>• Economic base and economic activity, including major sectors of local economy.
</P>
<P>• Employment distribution and trends by economic sector.
</P>
<P>• Resource usage.
</P>
<P>• Community services and infrastructure, including trends in use and current capacity utilization.
</P>
<P>• Housing supply and demand.
</P>
<P>• Life style and indicators of the quality of life.
</P>
<P>• Existing social problems.
</P>
<P>• Sources of, and trends in, local government expenditures and revenues.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-7 Transportation.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the transportation facilities in the vicinity of the site in order to evaluate existing or required access routes or improvements. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Estimates of the overall cost and risk of transporting waste to the site.
</P>
<P>• Description of the road and rail network between the site and the nearest Interstate highways and major rail lines; also, description of the waterway system, if any.
</P>
<P>• Analyses of the adequacy of the existing regional transportation network to handle waste shipments; the movement of supplies for repository construction, operation, and closure; removal of nonradioactive waste from the site; and the transportation of the labor force.
</P>
<P>• Improvements anticipated to be required in the transportation network and their feasibility, cost, and environmental impacts.
</P>
<P>• Compatibility of the required transportation network improvements with the local and regional transportation and land-use plans.
</P>
<P>• Analysis of weather impacts on transportation.
</P>
<P>• Analysis of emergency response requirements and capabilities related to transportation.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-8 Surface characteristics.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the surface characteristics of the site, in order to evaluate whether repository construction, operation, and closure are feasible on the basis of site characteristics that influence those activities. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Topography of the site.
</P>
<P>• Existing and planned surface bodies of water.
</P>
<P>• Definition of areas of landslides and other potentially unstable slopes, poorly drained material, or materials of low bearing strength or of high liquefaction potential.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-9 Rock characteristics.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the geologic and geomechanical characteristics of the site, in context with the geologic setting, in order to project the capability of the host rock and the surrounding rock units to provide the space required for the underground facility and safe underground openings during repository construction, operation, and closure. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Depth, thickness, and lateral extent of the host rock.
</P>
<P>• Stratigraphic and structural features within the host rock and adjacent rock units.
</P>
<P>• Thermal, mechanical, and thermomechanical properties and constructibility characteristics of the rocks, with consideration of the effects of time, stress, temperature, dimensional scale, and any major identified structural discontinuities.
</P>
<P>• Fluid inclusions and gas content in the host rock.
</P>
<P>• Estimates of the magnitude and direction of in situ stress and of temperature in the host rock.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-10 Hydrology.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the hydrology of the site, in context with its geologic setting, in order to project compatibility with repository construction, operation, and closure. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Surface-water systems, including recharge and runoff characteristics, and potential for flooding of the repository.
</P>
<P>• Nature and location of aquifers, confining units, and aquitards.
</P>
<P>• Potentiometric surfaces of aquifers.
</P>
<P>• Hydraulic properties of geohydrologic units.
</P>
<HD2>Section 960.5-2-11 Tectonics.
</HD2>
<P>Description of the tectonic setting of the site, in context with the regional setting, in order to estimate any expected effects of tectonic activity on repository construction, operation, or closure. The types of information to support this description should include—
</P>
<P>• Quaternary faults.
</P>
<P>• Active tectonic processes.
</P>
<P>• Preliminary estimates of expected ground motion caused by the maximum potential earthquake within the geologic setting. 


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="961" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 961—STANDARD CONTRACT FOR DISPOSAL OF SPENT NUCLEAR FUEL AND/OR HIGH-LEVEL RADIOACTIVE WASTE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 644, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 599 (42 U.S.C. 7254) and sec. 302, Pub. L. 97-425, 96 Stat. 2257 (42 U.S.C. 10222).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 16599, Apr. 18, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 961.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44.1.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 961.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the contractual terms and conditions under which the Department of Energy (DOE) will make available nuclear waste disposal services to the owners and generators of spent nuclear fuel (SNF) and high-level radioactive waste (HLW) as provided in section 302 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-425). Under the contract set forth in § 961.11 of this part, DOE will take title to, transport, and dispose of spent nuclear fuel and/or high-level radioactive waste delivered to DOE by those owners or generators of such fuel or waste who execute the contract. In addition, the contract will specify the fees owners and generators of SNF and/or HLW will pay for these services. All receipts, proceeds, and revenues realized by DOE under the contract will be deposited in the Nuclear Waste Fund, an account established by the Act in the U.S. Treasury. This fund will pay for DOE's radioactive waste disposal activities, the full costs of which will be borne by the owners and generators under contract with DOE for disposal services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 961.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44.1.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 961.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the Secretary of Energy or his designee and any person who owns or generates spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste, of domestic origin, generated in a civilian nuclear power reactor. If executed in a timely manner, the contract contained in this part will commit DOE to accept title to, transport, and dispose of such spent fuel and waste. In exchange for these services, the owners or generators of such fuel or waste shall pay fees specified in the contract which are intended to recover fully the costs of the disposal services to be furnished by DOE. The contract must be signed by June 30, 1983, or by the date on which such owner or generator commences generation of, or takes title to, such spent fuel or waste, whichever occurs later.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 961.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44.1.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 961.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, Public Law 97-425, 96 Stat. 2201 <I>et seq.,</I> 42 U.S.C. 10101 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> means the agreement set forth in § 961.11 of this part and any duly executed amendment or modification thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Generator</I> means any person who is licensed by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission to use a utilization or production facility under the authority of section 103 or 104 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2133, 2134). 
</P>
<P><I>Owner</I> means any person who has title to spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste.
</P>
<P><I>Purchaser</I> means any person, other than a Federal agency, who is licensed by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission to use a utilization or production facility under the authority of sections 103 or 104 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2133, 2134) or who has title to spent nuclear fuel or high level radioactive waste and who has executed a contract with DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy of his designee.
</P>
<FP>Other definitions relating to the subject matter of this rule are set forth in Article II of the contract which is contained in § 961.11, Text of the contract, of this part. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 961.4" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44.1.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 961.4   Deviations.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for authority to deviate from this part shall be submitted in writing to the Contracting Officer, who shall forward the request for approval to the Senior Procurement Official, Headquarters. Each request for deviation shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A statement of the deviation desired, including identification of the specific paragraph number(s) of the contract;
</P>
<P>(b) A description of the intended effect of the deviation;
</P>
<P>(c) The reason why the deviation is considered necessary or would be in the best interests of the Government;
</P>
<P>(d) The name of the owner or generator seeking the deviation and nuclear power reactor(s) affected;
</P>
<P>(e) A statement as to whether the deviation has been requested previously and, if so, circumstances of the previous request;
</P>
<P>(f) A statement of the period of time for which the deviation is needed; and
</P>
<P>(g) Any pertinent background information will contribute to a full understanding of the desired deviation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 961.5" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44.1.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 961.5   Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Federal agencies or departments requiring DOE's disposal services for SNF and/or HLW will be accommodated by a suitable interagency agreement reflecting, as appropriate, the terms and conditions set forth in the contract in § 961.11; <I>Provided, however,</I> that the fees to be paid by Federal agencies will be equivalent to the fees that would be paid under the contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standard Contract for Disposal of Spent Nuclear Fuel and/or High-Level Radioactive Waste</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 961.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.44.2.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 961.11   Text of the contract.</HEAD>
<P>The text of the standard contract for disposal of spent nuclear fuel and/or high/level radioactive waste follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>U.S. Department of Energy Contract No. ____
</HD1>
<HD2>Contract for Disposal of Spent Nuclear Fuel and/or High-Level Radioactive Waste
</HD2>
<P>THIS CONTRACT, entered into this ______________ day of ____________ 19____, by and between the UNITED STATES OF AMERICA (hereinafter referred to as the “Government”), represented by the UNITED STATES DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY (hereafter referred to as “DOE”) and ____________, (hereinafter referred to as the “Purchaser”), a corporation organized and existing under the laws of the State of ____________ [add as applicable: “acting on behalf of itself and ______.”].
</P>
<P>Witnesseth that:
</P>
<P>Whereas, the DOE has the responsibility for the disposal of spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste of domestic origin from civilian nuclear power reactors in order to protect the public health and safety, and the environment; and
</P>
<P>Whereas, the DOE has the responsibility, following commencement of operation of a repository, to take title to the spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste involved as expeditiously as practicable upon the request of the generator or owner of such waste or spent nuclear fuel; and
</P>
<P>Whereas, all costs associated with the preparation, transportation, and the disposal of spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste from civilian nuclear power reactors shall be borne by the owners and generators of such fuel and waste; and
</P>
<P>Whereas, the DOE is required to collect a full cost recovery fee from owners and generators delivering to the DOE such spent nuclear fuel and/or high level radioactive waste; and
</P>
<P>Whereas, the DOE is authorized to enter into contracts for the permanent disposal of spent nuclear fuel and/or high-level radioactive waste of domestic origin in DOE facilities; and
</P>
<P>Whereas, the Purchaser desires to obtain disposal services from DOE; and
</P>
<P>Whereas, DOE is obligated and willing to provide such disposal services, under the terms and conditions hereinafter set forth; and
</P>
<P>Whereas, this contract is made and entered into under the authority of the DOE Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>) and the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-425, 42 U.S.C. 10101 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<P>Now, therefore, the parties hereto do hereby agree as follows:
</P>
<HD1>Article I—Definitions
</HD1>
<P>As used throughout this contract, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
</P>
<P>1. The term <I>assigned three-month period</I> means the period that each Purchaser will be assigned by DOE, giving due consideration to the Purchaser's assignment preference, for purposes of reporting kilowatt hours generated by the Purchaser's nuclear power reactor and for establishing fees due and payable to DOE.
</P>
<P>2. The term <I>cask</I> means a container for shipping spent nuclear fuel and/or high-level radioactive waste which meets all applicable regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>3. The term <I>civilian nuclear power reactor</I> means a civilian nuclear powerplant required to be licensed under sections 103 or 104(b) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2133, 2134(b)).
</P>
<P>4. The term <I>Commission</I> means the United states Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P>5. The term <I>contract</I> means this agreement and any duly executed amendment or modification thereto.
</P>
<P>6. The term <I>Contracting Officer</I> means the person executing this contract on behalf of the Government, and any other officer or civilian employee who is a properly disignated Contracting Officer of the DOE; and the term includes, except as otherwise provided in this contract, the authorized representative of a Contracting Officer acting within the limits of his authority.
</P>
<P>7. The term <I>delivery</I> means the transfer of custody, f.o.b. carrier, of spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste from Purchaser to DOE at the Purchaser's civilian nuclear power reactor or such other domestic site as may be designated by the Purchaser and approved by DOE.
</P>
<P>8. The term <I>disposal</I> means the emplacement in a repository of high-level radioactive waste, spent nuclear fuel, or other highly radioactive waste with no foreseeable intent of recovery, whether or not such emplacement permits recovery of such waste.
</P>
<P>9. The term <I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy or any duly authorized representative thereof, including the Contracting Officer.
</P>
<P>10. The term <I>DOE facility</I> means a facility operated by or on behalf of DOE for the purpose of disposing of spent nuclear fuel and/or high-level radioactive waste, or such other facility(ies) to which spent nuclear fuel and/or high-level radioactive waste may be shipped by DOE prior to its transportation to a disposal facility.
</P>
<P>11. The term <I>full cost recovery,</I> means the recoupment by DOE, through Purchaser fees and any interest earned, of all direct costs, indirect costs, and all allocable overhead, consistent with generally accepted accounting principles consistently applied, of providing disposal services and conducting activities authorized by the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-425). As used herein, the term <I>cost</I> includes the application of Nuclear Waste Fund moneys for those uses expressly set forth in section 302 (d) and (e) of the said Act and all other uses specified in the Act.
</P>
<P>12. The term <I>high-level radioactive waste</I> (HLW) means—
</P>
<P>(a) the highly radioactive material resulting from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuel, including liquid waste produced directly in reprocessing and any solid material derived from such liquid waste that contains fission products in sufficient concentrations; and 
</P>
<P>(b) other highly radioactive material that the Commission, consistent with existing law, determines by rule requires permanent isolation. 
</P>
<P>13. The term <I>electricity (kilowatt hours) generated and sold</I> means gross electrical output produced by a civilian nuclear power reactor measured at the output terminals of the turbine generator minus the normal onsite nuclear station service loads during the time electricity is being generated multiplied by the total energy adjustment factor. For purposes of this provision, the following definition shall apply: 
</P>
<P>a. The term <I>Total Energy Adjustment Factor (TEAF)</I> means the sum of individual owners' weighted energy adjustment factors. 
</P>
<P>b. The term <I>Weighted Energy Adjustment Factor (WEAF)</I> means the product of an owner's energy adjustment factor times the owner's share of the plant. 
</P>
<P>c. The term <I>Owner's Energy Adjustment Factor (OEAF)</I> means the sum of the individual owner's adjustment for sales to ultimate consumers and adjustment for sales for resale. 
</P>
<P>d. The term <I>Owner's Share of the plant (OS)</I> means the owner's fraction of metered electricity sales, the owner's fraction of plant ownership, or the sponsor company's fixed entitlement percentage of the plant's output. This definition includes joint owners of generating companies or participants in a generation and transmission cooperative. 
</P>
<P>e. The term <I>Adjustment for Sales to ultimate Consumer (ASC)</I> means the owner's fraction of sales to the ultimate consumer multiplied by the owner's sales to ultimate consumer adjustment factor. 
</P>
<P>f. The term <I>Fraction of Sales to ultimate Consumer (FSC)</I> means the owner's fractional quantity of electricity sold to the ultimate consumer relative to the total of electricity sales (sales to ultimate consumers plus the sales for resale).
</P>
<P>g. The term <I>Sales to ultimate Consumer Adjustment Factor (SCAF)</I> means one minus the quotient of all electricity lost or otherwise not sold for each owner divided by the total electricity available for disposition to ultimate consumers. Electricity lost or otherwise not sold includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) Energy furnished without charge; 
</P>
<P>(2) Energy used by the company; 
</P>
<P>(3) Transmission losses; 
</P>
<P>(4) Distribution losses; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Other unaccounted losses as reported to the Federal Government “Annual Report of Major Electric Utilities, Licensees and Others,” Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) Form No.1; Rural Electrification Administration (REA) Forms 7 and 11 if appropriate; or the “Annual Electric Utility Report,” Energy Information Administration (EIA) Form EIA-861. 
</P>
<P>h. The term <I>Total Electricity Available for Disposition to Ultimate Consumers</I> means the reporting year's total of all of a utility's electricity supply which is available for disposition, expressed in kilowatt hours, and is equal to the sum of the energy sources minus the electricity sold for resale by the utility. 
</P>
<P>i. The term <I>Adjustment for Sales for Resale (ASR)</I> means the owner's fraction of sales for resale multiplied by the national average adjustment factor.
</P>
<P>j. The term <I>Fraction of Sales for Resale (FSR)</I> means the owner's fractional quantity of electricity sold for resale by the utility relative to the total of electricity sales. 
</P>
<P>k. The term <I>National Average Adjustment Factor (NAF)</I> means the ratio of the national total of electricity sold to the national total of electricity available for disposition, based on the most recent 3 years of national data provided to the Federal Government, and will be set by the Contracting Officer. This term will be evaluated annually and revised in increments of .005. 
</P>
<P>l. Pumped storage losses. If the proportion of nuclear generated electricity consumed by a pumped-storage hydro facility can be measured or estimated and if the electricity losses associated with pumped storage facilities can be documented (e.g. based on routine and uniform records of district power data on contributions from different electricity sources), a prorated nuclear share shall be allowed as an offset to gross electricity generation reported on the annex A of appendix G, NWPA-830G form. Specific methodologies for calculating these offsets must be approved by the Contracting Officer in advance. 
</P>
<P>Instructions to annex A of appendix G, NWPA-830G provide the necessary information to calculate the energy adjustment factors. 
</P>
<P>14. The term <I>metric tons uranium</I> means that measure of weight, equivalent to 2,204.6 pounds of uranium and other fissile and fertile material that are loaded into a reactor core as fresh fuel.
</P>
<P>15. The term <I>Purchaser's site</I> means the location of Purchaser's civilian nuclear power reactor or such other location as the Purchaser may designate.
</P>
<P>16. The term <I>quarterly Treasury rate</I> means the current value of funds rate as specified by the Treasury Fiscal Requirements Manual, Volume 1, Part 6, section 8020.20. This rate is published quarterly in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> prior to the beginning of the affected quarter. 
</P>
<P>17. The term <I>shipping lot</I> means a specified quantity of spent nuclear fuel or high-level radioactive waste designated by Purchaser for delivery to DOE beginning on a specified date.
</P>
<P>18. The term <I>spent nuclear fuel</I> (SNF) means fuel that has been withdrawn from a nuclear reactor following irradiation, the consistituent elements of which have not been separated by reprocessing.
</P>
<P>19. The term <I>spent nuclear fuel and high-level radioactive waste of domestic origin</I> means irradiated fuel material used, and radioactive wastes resulting from such use, in nuclear power reactors located only in the United States.
</P>
<P>20. The term <I>year</I> means the period which begins on October 1 and ends on September 30.
</P>
<HD1>Article II—Scope
</HD1>
<P>This contract applies to the delivery by Purchaser to DOE of SNF and/or HLW of domestic origin from civilian nuclear power reactors, acceptance of title by DOE to such SNF and/or HLW, subsequent transportation, and disposal of such SNF and/or HLW and, with respect to such material, establishes the fees to be paid by the Purchaser for the services to be rendered hereunder by DOE. The SNF and/or HLW shall be specified in a delivery commitment schedule as provided in Article V below. The services to be provided by DOE under this contract shall begin, after commencement of facility operations, not later than January 31, 1998 and shall continue until such time as all SNF and/or HLW from the civilian nuclear power reactors specified in appendix A, annexed hereto and made a part hereof, has been disposed of. 
</P>
<HD1>Article III—Term
</HD1>
<P>The term of this contract shall be from the date of execution until such time as DOE has accepted, transported from the Purchaser's site(s) and disposed of all SNF and/or HLW of domestic origin from the civilian nuclear power reactor(s) specified in appendix A.
</P>
<HD1>Article IV—Responsibilities of the Parties
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Purchaser's Responsibilities
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Discharge Information.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) On an annual basis, commencing October 1, 1983, the Purchaser shall provide DOE with information on actual discharges to date and projected discharges for the next ten (10) years in the form and content set forth in appendix B, annexed hereto and made a part hereof. The information to be provided will include estimates and projections and will not be Purchaser's firm commitment with respect to discharges or deliveries. 
</P>
<P>(b) No later than October 1, 1983, the Purchaser shall provide DOE with specific information on: 
</P>
<P>(1) Total spent nuclear fuel inventory as of April 7, 1983; 
</P>
<P>(2) Total number of fuel assemblies removed from the particular reactor core prior to 12:00 a.m. April 7, 1983 for which there are plans for reinsertion in the core, indicating the current planned dates for reinsertion in the core. Estimates of the burned and unburned portion of each individual assembly are to be provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that the Purchaser fails to provide the annual forecast in the form and content required by DOE, DOE may, in its sole discretion, require a rescheduling of any delivery commitment schedule then in effect. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preparation for Transportation.</I> 
</P>
<P>(a) The Purchaser shall arrange for, and provide, all preparation, packaging, required inspections, and loading activities necessary for the transportation of SNF and/or HLW to the DOE facility. The Purchaser shall notify DOE of such activities sixty (60) days prior to the commencement of such activities. The preparatory activities by the Purchaser shall be made in accordance with all applicable laws and regulations relating to the Purchaser's responsibilities hereunder. DOE may designate a representative to observe the preparatory activities conducted by the Purchaser at the Purchaser's site, and the Purchaser shall afford access to such representative. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise agreed to by DOE, the Purchaser shall advise DOE, in writing as specified in appendix F, annexed hereto and made a part hereof, as to the description of the material in each shipping lot sixty (60) days prior to scheduled DOE transportation of that shipping lot. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Purchaser shall be responsible for incidental maintenance, protection and preservation of any and all shipping casks furnished to the Purchaser by DOE for the performance of this contract. The Purchaser shall be liable for any loss of or damage to such DOE-furnished property, and for expenses incidental to such loss or damage while such casks are in the possession and control of the Purchaser except as otherwise provided for hereunder. Routine cask maintenance, such as scheduled overhauls, shall not be the responsibility of the Purchaser. 
</P>
<HD2>B. DOE Responsibilities 
</HD2>
<P>1. DOE shall accept title to all SNF and/or HLW, of domestic origin, generated by the civilian nuclear power reactor(s) specified in appendix A, provide subsequent transportation for such material to the DOE facility, and dispose of such material in accordance with the terms of this contract. 
</P>
<P>2. DOE shall arrange for, and provide, a cask(s) and all necessary transportation of the SNF and/or HLW from the Purchaser's site to the DOE facility. Such cask(s) shall be furnished sufficiently in advance to accommodate scheduled deliveries. Such cask(s) shall be suitable for use at the Purchaser's site, meet applicable regulatory requirements, and be accompanied by pertinent information including, but not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Written procedures for cask handling and loading, including specifications on Purchaser-furnished cannisters for containment of failed fuel; 
</P>
<P>(b) Training for Purchaser's personnel in cask handling and loading, as may be necessary; 
</P>
<P>(c) Technical information, special tools, equipment, lifting trunnions, spare parts and consumables needed to use and perform incidental maintenance on the cask(s); and 
</P>
<P>(d) Sufficient documentation on the equipment supplied by DOE. 
</P>
<P>3. DOE may fulfill any of its obligations, or take any action, under this contract either directly or through contractors. 
</P>
<P>4. DOE shall annually provide to the Purchaser pertinent information on the waste disposal program including information on cost projections, project plans and progress reports.
</P>
<P>5. (a) Beginning on April 1, 1991, DOE shall issue an annual acceptance priority ranking for receipt of SNF and/or HLW at the DOE repository. This priority ranking shall be based on the age of SNF and/or HLW as calculated from the date of discharge of such material from the civilian nuclear power reactor. The oldest fuel or waste will have the highest priority for acceptance, except as provided in paragraphs B and D of Article V and paragraph B.3 of Article VI hereof.
</P>
<P>(b) Beginning not later than July 1, 1987, DOE shall issue an annual capacity report for planning purposes. This report shall set forth the projected annual receiving capacity for the DOE facility(ies) and the annual acceptance ranking relating to DOE contracts for the disposal of SNF and/or HLW including, to the extent available, capacity information for ten (10) years following the projected commencement of operation of the initial DOE facility.
</P>
<HD1>Article V—Delivery of SNF and/or HLW
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Description of SNF and HLW
</HD2>
<P>The Purchaser shall deliver to DOE and DOE shall, as provided in this contract, accept the SNF and/or HLW which is described in accordance with Article VI.A. of this contract, for disposal thereof.
</P>
<HD2>B. Delivery Commitment Schedule
</HD2>
<P>1. Delivery commitment schedule(s), in the form set forth in appendix C annexed hereto and made a part hereof, for delivery of SNF and/or HLW shall be furnished to DOE by Purchaser. After DOE has issued its proposed acceptance priority ranking, as described in paragraph B.5 of Article IV hereof, beginning January 1, 1992 the Purchaser shall submit to DOE the delivery commitment schedule(s) which shall identify all SNF and/or HLW the Purchaser wishes to deliver to DOE beginning sixty-three (63) months thereafter. DOE shall approve or disapprove such schedules within three (3) months after receipt. In the event of disapproval, DOE shall advise the Purchaser in writing of the reasons for such disapproval and request a revised schedule from the Purchaser, to be submitted to DOE within thirty (30) days after receipt of DOE's notice of disapproval.
</P>
<P>2. DOE shall approve or disapprove such revised schedule(s) within sixty (60) days after receipt. In the event of disapproval, DOE shall advise the Purchaser in writing of the reasons for such disapproval and shall submit its proposed schedule(s). If these are not acceptable to the Purchaser, the parties shall promptly seek to negotiate mutually acceptable schedule(s). Purchaser shall have the right to adjust the quantities of SNF and/or HLW plus or minus (±) twenty percent (20%), and the delivery schedule up to two (2) months, until the submission of the final delivery schedule.
</P>
<HD2>C. Final Delivery Schedule
</HD2>
<P>Final delivery schedule(s), in the form set forth in appendix D, annexed hereto and made a part hereof, for delivery of SNF and/or HLW covered by an approved delivery commitment schedule(s) shall be furnished to DOE by Purchaser. The Purchaser shall submit to DOE final delivery schedules not less than twelve (12) months prior to the delivery date specified therein. DOE shall approve or disapprove a final delivery schedule within forty-five (45) days after receipt. In the event of disapproval, DOE shall advise the Purchaser in writing of the reasons for such disapproval and shall request a revised schedule from the Purchaser, to be submitted to DOE within thirty (30) days after receipt of DOE's notice of disapproval. DOE shall approve or disapprove such revised schedule(s) within sixty (60) days after receipt. In the event of disapproval, DOE shall advise the Purchaser in writing of the reasons for such disapproval and shall submit its proposed schedule(s). If these are not acceptable to the Purchaser, the parties shall promptly seek to negotiate mutually acceptable schedule(s).
</P>
<HD2>D. Emergency Deliveries
</HD2>
<P>Emergency deliveries of SNF and/or HLW may be accepted by DOE before the date provided in the delivery commitment schedule upon prior written approval by DOE.
</P>
<HD2>E. Exchanges
</HD2>
<P>Purchaser shall have the right to determine which SNF and/or HLW is delivered to DOE; <I>provided, however,</I> that Purchaser shall comply with the requirements of this contract. Purchaser shall have the right to exchange approved delivery commitment schedules with parties to other contracts with DOE for disposal of SNF and/or HLW; <I>provided, however,</I> that DOE shall, in advance, have the right to approve or disapprove, in its sole discretion, any such exchanges. Not less than six (6) months prior to the delivery date specified in the Purchaser's approved delivery commitment schedule, the Purchaser shall submit to DOE an exchange request, which states the priority rankings of both the Purchaser hereunder and any other Purchaser with whom the exchange of approved delivery commitment schedules is proposed. DOE shall approve or disapprove the proposed exchange within thirty (30) days after receipt. In the event of disapproval, DOE shall advise the Purchaser in writing of the reasons for such disapproval. 
</P>
<HD1>Article VI—Criteria for Disposal 
</HD1>
<HD2>A. General Requirements 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Criteria.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this contract, DOE shall accept hereunder only such SNF and/or HLW which meets the General Specifications for such fuel and waste as set forth in appendix E, annexed hereto and made a part hereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) Purchaser shall accurately classify SNF and/or HLW prior to delivery in accordance with paragraphs B and D of appendix E. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedures.</I> 
</P>
<P>(a) Purchaser shall provide to DOE a detailed description of the SNF and/or HLW to be delivered hereunder in the form and content as set forth in appendix F, annexed hereto and made a part hereof. Purchaser shall promptly advise DOE of nay changes in said SNF and/or HLW as soon as they become known to the purchaser. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE's obligation for disposing of SNF under this contract also extends to other than standard fuel; however, for any SNF which has been designated by the Purchaser as other than standard fuel, as that term is defined in appendix E, the Purchaser shall obtain delivery and procedure confirmation from DOE prior to delivery. DOE shall advise Purchaser within sixty (60) days after receipt of such confirmation request as to the technical feasibility of disposing of such fuel on the currently agreed to schedule and any schedule adjustment for such services. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Acceptance Procedures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Acceptance Priority Ranking.</I> 
</P>
<P>Delivery commitment schedules for SNF and/or HLW may require the disposal or more material than the annual capacity of the DOE disposal facility (or facilities) can accommodate. The following acceptance priority ranking will be utilized:
</P>
<P>(a) Except as may be provided for in subparagraph (b) below and Article V.D. of this contract, acceptance priority shall be based upon the age of the SNF and/or HLW as calculated from the date of discharge of such material from the civilian nuclear power reactor. DOE will first accept from Purchaser the oldest SNF and/or HLW for disposal in the DOE facility, except as otherwise provided for in paragraphs B and D of Article V. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the age of the SNF and/or HLW, priority may be accorded any SNF and/or HLW removed from a civilian nuclear power reactor that has reached the end of its useful life or has been shut down permanently for whatever reason. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Verification of SNF and/or HLW.</I> 
</P>
<P>During cask loading and prior to acceptance by DOE for transportation to the DOE facility, the SNF and/or HLW description of the shipping lot shall be subject to verification by DOE. To the extent the SNF and/or HLW is consistent with the description submitted and approved, in accordance with appendices E and F, DOE agrees to accept such SNF and/or HLW for disposal when DOE has verified the SNF and/or HLW description, determined the material is properly loaded, packaged, marked, labeled and ready for transportation, and has taken custody, as evidenced in writing, of the material at the Purchaser's site, f.o.b. carrier. A properly executed off-site radioactive shipment record describing cask contents must be prepared by the Purchaser along with a signed certification which states: “This is to certify that the above-named materials are properly described, classified, packaged, marked and labeled and are in proper condition for transfer according to the applicable regulations of the U. S. Department of Transportation.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Improperly described SNF and/or HLW.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Prior to Acceptance—</I> If SNF and/or HLW is determined by DOE to be improperly described prior to acceptance by DOE at the Purchaser's site, DOE shall promptly notify the Purchaser in writing of such determination. DOE reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to refuse to accept such SNF and/or HLW until the SNF and/or HLW has been properly described. The Purchaser shall not transfer such SNF and/or HLW to DOE unless DOE agrees to accept such SNF and/or HLW under such other arrangements as may be agreed to, in writing, by the parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>After Acceptance—</I> If subsequent to its acceptance DOE finds that such SNF and/or HLW is improperly described, DOE shall promptly notify the Purchaser, in writing, of such finding. In the event of such notification, Purchaser shall provide DOE with a proper designation within thirty (30) days. In the event of a failure by the Purchaser to provide such proper designation, DOE may hold in abeyance any and all deliveries scheduled hereunder.
</P>
<HD1>Article VII—Title
</HD1>
<P>Title to all SNF and/or HLW accepted by DOE for disposal shall pass to DOE at the Purchaser's site as provided for in Article VI hereof. DOE shall be solely repsonsible for control of all material upon passage of title. DOE shall have the right to dispose as it sees fit of any SNF and/or HLW to which it has taken title. The Purchaser shall have no claim against DOE or the Government with respect to such SNF or HLW nor shall DOE or the Government be obligated to compensate the Purchaser for such material.
</P>
<HD1>Article VIII—Fees and Terms of Payment
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Fees 
</HD2>
<P>1. Effective April 7, 1983, Purchaser shall be charged a fee in the amount of 1.0 mill per kilowatt hour (1M/kWh) electricity generated and sold. 
</P>
<P>2. For SNF, or solidified high-level radioactive waste derived from SNF, which fuel was used to generate electricity in a civilian nuclear power reactor prior to April 7, 1983, a one-time fee will be assessed by applying industry-wide average dollar per kilogram charges to four (4) distinct ranges of fuel burnup so that the integrated cost across all discharged (i.e. spent) fuel is equivalent to an industry-wide average charge of 1.0 mill per kilowatt-hour. For purposes of this contract, discharged nuclear fuel is that fuel removed from the reactor core with no plans for reinsertion. In the event that any such fuel withdrawn with plans for reinsertion is not reinserted, then the applicable fee for such fuel shall be calculated as set forth in this paragraph 2. The categories of spent nuclear fuel burnup and the fee schedule are listed below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_description">[In 1982 dollars]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Nuclear spent fuel burnup range 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Dollars per kilogram
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0 to 5,000 MWDT/MTU</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$80.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5,000 to 10,000 MWDT/MTU</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,000 to 20,000 MWDT/MTU</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">162.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 20,000 MWDT/MTU</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>This fee shall not be subject to adjustment, and the payment thereof by the Purchaser shall be made to DOE as specified in paragraph B of this Article VIII.
</P>
<P>3. For in-core fuel as of April 7, 1983, that portion of the fuel burned through April 6, 1983 shall be subject to the one-time fee as calculated in accordance with the following methodology: [a] determine the total weight in kilograms of unranium loaded initially in the particular core; [b] determine the total megawatt-days (thermal) which have been generated by all of the fuel assemblies in the said core as of 12:00 A.M. April 7, 1983; [c] divide the megawatt-days (thermal) generated in the said core by the total metric tons of initially loaded uranium in that core and multiply the quotient by the conversion factor 0.0078 to obtain a value in dollars per kilogram; and [d] multiply the dollars per kilogram value by the kilograms determined in [a] above to derive the dollar charge for the one-time fee to be paid for the specified in-core fuel as of 12:00 A.M. April 7, 1983. For purposes of this contract, in-core fuel is that fuel in the reactor core as of the date specified, plus any fuel removed from the reactor with plans for reinsertion. That portion of such fuel unburned as of 12:00 A.M. April 7, 1983 shall be subject to the 1.0 mill per kilowatt-hour charge. 
</P>
<P>4. DOE will annually review the adequacy of the fees and adjust the 1M/KWH fee, if necessary, in order to assure full cost recovery by the Government. Any proposed adjustment to the said fee will be transmitted to Congress and shall be effective after a period of ninety (90) days of continuous session has elapsed following receipt of such transmittal unless either House of Congress adopts a resolution disapproving the proposed adjustment. Any adjustment to the 1M/KWH fee under paragraph A.1. of this Article VIII shall be prospective.
</P>
<HD2>B. Payment 
</HD2>
<P>1. For electricity generated and sold by the Purchaser's civilian nuclear power reactor(s) on or after April 7, 1983, fees shall be paid quarterly by the Purchaser and must be received by DOE not later than the close of the last business day of the month following the end of each assigned 3-month period. The first payment shall be due on July 31, 1983, for the period April 7, 1983, to June 30, 1983. (Add as applicable: A one-time adjustment period payment shall be due on __________, for the period __________ to __________.) The assigned 3-month period, for purposes of payment and reporting of electricity generated and sold shall begin __________. 
</P>
<P>2. For SNF discharged prior to April 7, 1983, and for in-core burned fuel as of 12:00 A.M. April 7, 1983, the Purchaser shall, within two (2) years of contract execution, select one of the following fee payment options:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Option 1—</I> The Purchaser's financial obligation for said fuel shall be prorated evenly over forty (40) quarters and will consist of the fee plus interest on the outstanding fee balance. The interest from April 7, 1983, to date of the first payment is to be calculated based upon the 13-week Treasury bill rate, as reported on the first such issuance following April 7, 1983, and compounded quarterly thereafter by the 13-week Treasury bill rates as reported on the first such issuance of each succeeding assigned three-month period. Beginning with the first payment, interest is to be calculated on Purchaser's financial obligation plus accrued interest, at the ten-year Treasury note rate in effect on the date of the first payment. In no event shall the end of the forty (40) quarters extend beyond the first scheduled delivery date as reflected in the DOE-approved delivery commitment schedule. All payments shall be made concurrently with the assigned three month period payments. At any time prior to the end of the forty (40) quarters, Purchaser may, without penalty, make a full or partial lump sum payment at any of the assigned three month period payment dates. Subsequent quarterly payments will be appropriately reduced to reflect the reduction in the remaining balance in the fee due and payable. The remaining financial obligation, if any, will be subject to interest at the same ten-year Treasury note rate over the remainder of the ten year period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Option 2—</I> The Purchaser's financial obligation shall be paid in the form of a single payment anytime prior to the first delivery, as reflected in the DOE approved delivery commitment schedule, and shall consist of the fee plus interest on the outstanding fee balance. Interest is to be calculated from April 7, 1983, to the date of the payment based upon the 13-week Treasury bill rate, as reported on the first such issuance following April 7, 1983, and compounded quarterly thereafter by the 13-week Treasury bill rates as reported on the first such issuance of each succeeding assigned three-month period until payment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Option 3—</I> The Purchaser's financial obligation shall be paid prior to June 30, 1985, or prior to two (2) years after contract execution, whichever comes later, in the form of a single payment and shall consist of all outstanding fees for SNF and in-core fuel burned prior to April 7, 1983. Under this option, no interest shall be due to DOE from April 7, 1983, to the date of full payment on the outstanding fee balance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Method of Payment:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) Payments shall be made by wire transfer, in accordance with instructions specified by DOE in appendix G, annexed hereto and made a part hereof, and must be received within the time periods specified in paragraph B.1. of this Article VIII.
</P>
<P>(b) The Purchaser will complete a Standard Remittance Advice, as set forth in appendix G, for each assigned three month period payment, and mail it postmarked no later than the last business day of the month following each assigned three month period to Department of Energy, Office of Controller, Cash Management Division, Box 500, Room D-208, Germantown, Maryland 20874.
</P>
<P>4. Any fees not paid on a timely basis or underpaid because of miscalculation will be subject to interest as specified in paragraph C of this Article VIII.
</P>
<HD2>C. Interest on Late Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. DOE will notify the Purchaser of amounts due only when unpaid or underpaid by the dates specified in paragraph B above. Interest will be levied according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>Interest = Unpaid balance due to DOE for assigned three month period × Quarterly Treasury rate plus six percent (6%) × Number of months late including month of payment (fractions rounded up to whole months) ÷ 12
</FP-2>
<P>2. Interest is payable at any time prior to the due date for the subsequent assigned three month period fee payment. Nonpayment by the end of the subsequent assigned three month period will result in compounding of interest due. Purchaser shall complete a Standard Remittance Advice of interest payments.
</P>
<P>3. Following the assessment of a late fee by DOE, payments will be applied against accrued interest first and the principal thereafter.
</P>
<HD2>D. Effect of Payment
</HD2>
<P>Upon payment of all applicable fees, interest and penalties on upaid or underpaid amounts, the Purchaser shall have no further financial obligation to DOE for the disposal of the accepted SNF and/or HLW.
</P>
<HD2>E. Audit
</HD2>
<P>1. The DOE or its representative shall have the right to perform any audits or inspections necessary to determine whether Purchaser is paying the correct amount under the fee schedule and interest provisions set forth in paragraphs A, B and C above.
</P>
<P>2. Nothing in this contract shall be deemed to preclude an audit by the General Accounting Office of any transaction under this contract.
</P>
<P>3. The Purchaser shall furnish DOE with such records, reports and data as may be necessary for the determination of quantities delivered hereunder and for final settlement of amounts due under this contract and shall retain and make available to DOE and its authorized representative examination at all reasonable times such records, reports and data for a period of three (3) years from the completion of delivery of all material under this contract.
</P>
<HD1>Article IX—Delays
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Unavoidable Delays by Purchaser or DOE
</HD2>
<P>Neither the Government nor the Purchaser shall be liable under this contract for damages caused by failure to perform its obligations hereunder, if such failure arises out of causes beyond the control and without the fault or negligence of the party failing to perform. In the event circumstances beyond the reasonable control of the Purchaser or DOE—such as acts of God, or of the public enemy, acts of Government in either its sovereign or contractual capacity, fires, floods, epidemics, quarantine restrictions, strikes, freight embargoes and unusually severe weather—cause delay in scheduled delivery, acceptance or transport of SNF and/or HLW, the party experiencing the delay will notify the other party as soon as possible after such delay is ascertained and the parties will readjust their schedules, as appropriate, to accommodate such delay.
</P>
<HD2>B. Avoidable Delays by Purchaser or DOE
</HD2>
<P>In the event of any delay in the delivery, acceptance or transport of SNF and/or HLW to or by DOE caused by circumstances within the reasonable control of either the Purchaser or DOE or their respective contractors or suppliers, the charges and schedules specified by this contract will be equitably adjusted to reflect any estimated additional costs incurred by the party not responsible for or contributing to the delay.
</P>
<HD1>Article X—Suspension
</HD1>
<P>A. In addition to any other rights DOE may have hereunder, DOE reserves the right, at no cost to the Government, to suspend this contract or any portion thereof upon written notice to the Purchaser within ninety (90) days of the Purchaser's failure to perform its obligations hereunder, and the Purchaser's failure to take corrective action within thirty (30) days after written notice of such failure to perform as provided above, unless such failure shall arise from causes beyond the control and without the fault or negligence of the Purchaser, its contractors or agents. However, the Purchaser's obligation to pay fees required hereunder shall continue unaffected by any suspension. Any such suspension shall be rescinded if and when DOE determines that Purchaser has completed corrective action.
</P>
<P>B. The DOE reserves the right to suspend any scheduled deliveries in the event that a national emergency requires that priority be given to Government programs to the exclusion of the work under this contract. In the event of such a suspension by the Government, the DOE shall refund that portion of payments representing services not delivered as determined by the Contracting Officer to be an equitable adjustment. Any disagreement arising from the refund payment, if any, shall be resolved as provided in the clause of this contract, entitled “DISPUTES.” 
</P>
<HD1>Article XI—Remedies
</HD1>
<P>Nothing in this contract shall be construed to preclude either party from asserting its rights and remedies under the contract or at law.
</P>
<HD1>Article XII—Notices
</HD1>
<P>All notices and communications between the parties under this contract (except notices published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>) shall be in writing and shall be sent to the following addressees:
</P>
<FP-DASH>To DOE: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>To the Purchaser:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>However, the parties may change the addresses or addressees for such notices or communications without formal modification to this contract; <I>provided, however,</I> that notice of such changes shall be given by registered mail. 
</P>
<HD1>Article XIII—Representation Concerning Nuclear Hazards Indemnity
</HD1>
<P>A. DOE represents that it will include in its contract(s) for the operation of any DOE facility an indemnity agreement based upon Section 170(d) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, a copy of which agreement shall be furnished to the Purchaser; that under said agreement, DOE shall have agreed to indemnify the contractor and other persons indemnified against claims for public liability (as defined in said Act) arising out of or in connection with contractual activities; that the indemnity shall apply to covered nuclear incidents which (1) take place at a contract location; or (2) arise out of or in the course of transportation of source, special nuclear or by-product material to or from a contract location. The obligation of DOE to indemnify shall be subject to the conditions stated in the indemnity agreement. 
</P>
<P>B. The provisions of this Article XIII shall continue beyond the term of this contract.
</P>
<HD1>Article XIV—Assignment
</HD1>
<P>The rights and duties of the Purchaser may be assignable with transfer of title to the SNF and/or HLW involved; <I>provided, however,</I> that notice of any such transfer shall be made to DOE within ninety (90) days of transfer. 
</P>
<HD1>Article XV—Amendments
</HD1>
<P>The provisions of this contract has been developed in the light of uncertainties necessarily attendant upon long-term contracts. Accordingly, at the request of either DOE or Purchaser, the parties will negotiate and, to the extent mutually agreed, amend this contract as the parties may deem to be necessary or proper to reflect their respective interests; <I>provided, however,</I> that any such amendment shall be consistent with the DOE final rule published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on April 18, 1983 entitled, “Standard Contract for Disposal or SNF and/or HLW”, as the same may be amended from time to time.
</P>
<HD1>Article XVI—Disputes
</HD1>
<P>A. Except as otherwise provided in this contract, any dispute concerning a question of fact arising under this contract which is not disposed of by agreement shall be decided by the Contracting Officer, who shall reduce his decision to writing and mail or otherwise furnish a copy thereof to the Purchaser. The decision of the Contracting Officer shall be final and conclusive unless within ninety (90) days from the date of receipt of such copy, the Purchaser mails or otherwise furnishes to the Contracting Officer a written appeal addressed to the DOE Board of Contract Appeals (Board). The decision of the Board shall be final and conclusive unless determined by a court of competent jursidiction to have been fraudulent, or capricious, or arbitrary, or so grossly erroneous as necessarily to imply bad faith or not supported by substantial evidence. In connection with any appeal proceeding under this clause, the Purchaser shall proceed diligently with the performance of the contract and in accordance with the Contracting Officer's decision. 
</P>
<P>B. For Purchaser claims of more than $50,000, the Purchaser shall submit with the claim a certification that the claim is made in good faith; the supporting data are accurate and complete to the best of the Purchaser's knowledge and belief; and the amount requested accurately reflects the contract adjustment for which the Purchaser believes the Government is liable. The certification shall be executed by the Purchaser if an individual. When the Purchaser is not an individual, the certification shall be executed by a senior company official in charge at the Purchaser's plant or location involved, or by an officer or general partner of the Purchaser having overall responsibility for the conduct of the Purchaser's affairs. 
</P>
<P>C. For Purchaser claims of $50,000 or less, the Contracting Officer must render a decision within sixty (60) days. For Purchaser claims in excess of $50,000, the Contracting Officer must decide the claim within sixty (60) days or notify the Purchaser of the date when the decision will be made. 
</P>
<P>D. This “Disputes” clause does not preclude consideration of law questions in connection with decisions provided for in paragraph A above; <I>provided, however,</I> that nothing in this contract shall be construed as making final the decision of any administrative official, representative, or board on a question of law. 
</P>
<HD1>Article XVII—Officials Not To Benefit 
</HD1>
<P>No member of or delegate to Congress or resident commissioner shall be admitted to any share or part of this contract, or to any benefit that may arise therefrom, but this provision shall not be construed to extend to this contract if made with a corporation for its general benefit. 
</P>
<HD1>Article XVIII—Covenant Against Contingent Fees 
</HD1>
<P>The Purchaser warrants that no person or selling agency has been employed or retained to solicit or secure this contract upon an agreement or understanding for a commission, percentage, brokerage, or contingent fee, excepting bona fide employees or bona fide established commercial or selling agencies maintained by the Purchaser for the purpose of securing business. For breach or violation of this warranty, the Government shall have the right to annul this contract without liability or in its discretion to increase the contract price or consideration, or otherwise recover, the full amount of such commission, brokerage, or contingent fee. 
</P>
<HD1>Article XIX—Examination of Records 
</HD1>
<P>The Purchaser agrees that the Comptroller General of the United States or any of his duly authorized representatives shall have access to and the right to examine any directly pertinent books, documents, papers and records of the Purchaser involving transactions related to this contract until the expiration of three years after final payment under this contract. 
</P>
<HD1>Article XX—Permits 
</HD1>
<P>The Government and the Purchaser shall procure all necessary permits or licenses (including any special nuclear material licenses) and comply with all applicable laws and regulations of the United States, States and municipalities necessary to execute their respective responsibilities and obligations under this contract. 
</P>
<HD1>Article XXI—Rights in Technical Data 
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Definitions. 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Technical data</I> means recorded information regardless of form or characteristic, of a specific or technical nature. It may, for example, document research, experimental, developmental, or demonstration, or engineering work, or be usable or used to define a design or process, or to procure, produce, support, maintain or operate material. The data may be graphic or pictorial delineations in media such as drawings or photographs, text in specifications or related performance or design-type documents or computer software (including computer programs, computer software data bases, and computer software documentation). Examples of technical data include research and engineering data, engineering drawings and associated lists, specifications, standards, process sheets, manuals, technical reports, catalog item identification, and related information. Technical data as used herein do not include financial reports, cost analyses, and other information incidental to contract administration. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Proprietary data</I> means technical data which embody trade secrets developed at private expense, such as design procedures or techniques, chemical composition of materials, or manufacturing methods, processes, or treatments, including minor modifications thereof, provided that such data: 
</P>
<P>(a) Are not generally known or available from other sources without obligation concerning their confidentiality; 
</P>
<P>(b) Have not been made available by the owner to others without obligation concerning its confidentiality; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Are not already available to the Government without obligation concerning their confidentiality.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Contract data</I> means technical data first produced in the performance of the contract, technical data which are specified to be delivered under the contract, or technical data actually delivered in connection with the contract.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Unlimited rights</I> means rights to use, duplicate, or disclose technical data, in whole or in part, in any manner and for any purpose whatsoever, and to permit others to do so.
</P>
<HD2>B. Allocation of Rights.
</HD2>
<P>1. The Government shall have:
</P>
<P>(a) Unlimited rights in contract data except as otherwise provided below with respect to proprietary data properly marked as authorized by this clause;
</P>
<P>(b) The right to remove, cancel, correct or ignore any marking not authorized by the terms of this contract on any technical data furnished hereunder, if in response to a written inquiry by DOE concerning the proprietary nature of the markings, the Purchaser fails to respond thereto within 60 days or fails to substantiate the proprietary nature of the markings. In either case, DOE will notify the Purchaser of the action taken;
</P>
<P>(c) No rights under this contract in any technical data which are not contract data.
</P>
<P>2. Subject to the foregoing provisions of this rights in technical data clause, the Purchaser shall have the right to mark proprietary data it furnishes under the contract with the following legend and no other, the terms of which shall be binding on the Government:
</P>
<HD1>Limited Rights Legend
</HD1>
<P>This “proprietary data,” furnished under “Contract No. ____” with the U.S. Department of Energy may be duplicated and used by the Government with the express limitations that the “proprietary data” may not be disclosed outside the Government or be used for purposes of manufacture without prior permission of the Purchaser, except that further disclosure or use may be made solely for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(a) This “proprietary data” may be disclosed for evaluation purposes under the restriction that the “proprietary data” be retained in confidence and not be further disclosed;
</P>
<P>(b) This “proprietary data” may be disclosed to contractors participating in the Government's program of which this contract is a part, for information or use in connection with the work performed under their contracts and under the restriction that the “proprietary data” be retained in confidence and not be further disclosed; or
</P>
<P>(c) This “proprietary data” may be used by the Government or others on its behalf for emergency work under the restriction that the “proprietary data” be retained in confidence and not be further disclosed. This legend shall be marked on any reproduction of this data in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>3. In the event that proprietary data of a third party, with respect to which the Purchaser is subject to restrictions on use or disclosure, is furnished with the Limited Rights Legend above, Purchaser shall secure the agreement of such third party to the rights of the Government as set forth in the Limited Rights Legend. DOE shall upon request furnish the names of those contractors to which proprietary data has been disclosed.
</P>
<HD1>Article XXII—Entire Contract
</HD1>
<P>A. This contract, which consists of Articles I through XXII and appendices A through G, annexed hereto and made a part hereof, contains the entire agreement between the parties with respect to the subject matter hereof. Any representation, promise, or condition not incorporated in this contract shall not be binding on either party. No course of dealing or usage of trade or course of performance shall be relevant to explain or supplement any provision contained in this contract.
</P>
<P>B. Nothing in this contract is intended to affect in any way the contractual obligation of any other persons with whom the Purchaser may have contracted with respect to assuming some or all disposal costs or to accept title to SNF and/or HLW.
</P>
<HD2>C. Appendices
</HD2>
<FP-1>A. Nuclear Power Reactor(s) or Other Facilities Covered
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B. Discharge Information (Ten Year; Annual)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C. Delivery Commitment Schedule
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D. Final Delivery Schedule
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E. General Specifications
</FP-1>
<FP-1>F. Detailed Description of Purchaser's Fuel
</FP-1>
<FP-1>G. Standard Remittance Advice For Payment of Fees
</FP-1>
<P>In witness whereof, the parties hereto have executed this contract as of the day and year first above written.
</P>
<FP>United States of America 
</FP>
<FP>United States Department of Energy 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP> (Contracting Officer)
</FP>
<FP>Witnesses as to Execution on Behalf of Purchaser 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>(Name) 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Address) 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Name) 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Address) 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Purchaser's Company Name) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title:
</FP-DASH>
<P>I, (<I>Name</I>), certify that I am the (<I>Title</I>) of the corporation named as Purchaser herein; that (<I>Name</I>) who signed this document on behalf of the Purchaser was then (<I>Title</I>) of said corporation; that said document was duly signed for and on behalf of said corporation by authority of its governing body and is within the scope of its corporate powers. 
</P>
<P>In Witness Whereof, I have hereunto affixed my hand and the seal of said corporation this ____ day of ____, 1983 
</P>
<P>(Corporate Seal) 
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Signature) 
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Appendix A 
</HD1>
<HD2>Nuclear Power Reactor(s) or Other Facilities Covered 
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Contract Number/Date ____/____
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Reactor/Facility Name 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Location: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Street 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County/State ________/ 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Zip Code 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Capacity (MWE)__Gross 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Reactor Type: 
</FP>
<P>BWR □
</P>
<P>PWR □
</P>
<FP-DASH>Other (Identify) 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Facility Description 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of Commencement of Operation 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(actual or estimated) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>NRC License #: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>By Purchaser: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Signature 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date 
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Appendix B 
</HD1>
<HD2>Ten Year Discharge Forecast
</HD2>
<P>To be used for DOE planning purposes only and does not represent a firm commitment by Purchaser. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Contract Number/Date ________/ 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Reactor/Facility Name 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Location: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Street 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County/State ________/
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Zip Code 
</FP>
<FP>Type: BWR □
</FP>
<FP>   PWR □
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Other (Identify) 
</FP-DASH>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">7
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">9
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">10
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">10 yr total 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Discharge date—mo/yr (or refueling shut down date)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Metric tons: 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—initial 
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">—discharged
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Number of assemblies discharged (per cycle)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>By Purchaser: 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Signature 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date 
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Appendix B (Enclosure 1)
</HD1>
<HD2>Actual Discharges
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Contract Number/Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Reactor/Facility Name
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Location:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Street
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County/State
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Zip Code
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Type:
</FP>
<P>BWR □
</P>
<P>PWR □
</P>
<FP-DASH>Other (Identify)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Refueling Shutdown Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Metric Tons Uranium (Initial/Discharged);
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Initial
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Discharged
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Number of Assemblies Discharged:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Any false, fictitious or fraudulent statement may be punishable by fine or imprisonment (U.S. Code, Title 18, Section 1001).
</P>
<FP>By Purchaser:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Signature
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Appendix C
</HD1>
<HD2>Delivery Commitment Schedule
</HD2>
<P>This delivery commitment schedule shall be submitted by Purchaser to DOE as specified in Article V.B. of this contract.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Contract Number/Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Reactor/Facility Name
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Location:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Street
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County/State
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Zip Code
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Type Cask Required:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Shipping Lot Number 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Assigned by DOE)
</FP>
<FP>Proposed Shipping Mode:
</FP>
<P>Truck □
</P>
<P>Rail □
</P>
<P>Barge □
</P>
<FP-DASH>DOE Assigned Delivery Commitment Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Range of Discharge Date(s) (Earliest to Latest)
</FP>
<FP>Mo____ Day____ Yr____ to Mo____ Day____ Yr____
</FP>
<FP>Metric Tons Uranium:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>(Initial)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Discharged)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Number of Assemblies:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>BWR
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>PWR
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Other
</FP-DASH>
<P>Unless otherwise agreed to in writing by DOE, the Purchaser shall furnish herewith to DOE suitable proof of ownership of the SNF and/or HLW to be delivered hereunder. The Purchaser shall notify DOE in writing at the earliest practicable date of any change in said ownership.
</P>
<P>Any false, fictitious or fraudulent statement may be punishable by fine or imprisonment (U.S. Code, Title 18, Section 1001).
</P>
<FP>By Purchaser:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Signature
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Approved by DOE:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Technical Representative
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Contracting Officer
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Appendix D
</HD1>
<HD2>Final Delivery Schedule
</HD2>
<FP>(To be submitted to DOE by Purchaser for each designated Purchaser Delivery site not later than twelve (12) months prior to estimated date of first delivery)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Contract Number/Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Reactor/Facility Name
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Location:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Street
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County/State
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Zip Code
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Type(s) cask(s) required: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>No. Assembilies per cask
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Shipping Lot Number 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Shipping Mode: 
</FP>
<FP>(Assigned by DOE) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Truck
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Rail 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Barge
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Metric Tons Uranium: 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>(Initial) 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Discharged)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Range of Discharge Date(s) (Earliest to Latest)
</FP>
<FP>(From approved commitment schedule)
</FP>
<FP>Mo____ Day____ Yr____ to Mo____ Day____ Yr____
</FP>
<FP>Number of Assemblies:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>BWR
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>PWR
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Other
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Purchaser's Delivery First Estimate
</FP>
<FP>Mo____ Day____ Yr____ last Mo____ Day____ Mo____
</FP>
<P>Unless otherwise agreed to in writing by DOE, the Purchaser shall furnish herewith to DOE suitable proof of ownership of the SNF and/or HLW to be delivered hereunder. The Purchaser shall notify DOE in writing at the earliest practicable date of any change in said ownership.
</P>
<P>To confirm acceptability of delivery date(s):
</P>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser Contact 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Phone 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>DOE Contact 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Phone 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title
</FP-DASH>
<P>Any false, fictitious or fraudulent statement may be punishable by fine or imprisonment (U.S. Code, Title 18, Section 1001).
</P>
<FP>By Purchaser:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Signature
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Approved by DOE:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Technical Representative
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Contracting Officer
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Appendix E
</HD1>
<HD2>General Specifications
</HD2>
<HD2>A. Fuel Category Identification
</HD2>
<P>1. Categories—Purchaser shall use reasonable efforts, utilizing technology equivalent to and consistent with the commercial practice, to properly classify Spent Nuclear Fuel (SNF) prior to delivery to DOE, as follows:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Standard Fuel</I> means SNF that meets all the General Specifications therefor set forth in paragraph B below.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Nonstandard Fuel</I> means SNF that does not meet one or more of the General Specifications set forth in subparagraphs 1 through 5 of paragraph B below, and which is classified as Nonstandard Fuel Classes NS-1 through NS-5, pursuant to paragraph B below.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Failed Fuel</I> means SNF that meets the specifications set forth in subparagraphs 1 through 3 of paragraph B below, and which is classified as Failed Fuel Class F-1 through F-3 pursuant to subparagraph 6 of paragraph B below.
</P>
<P>d. Fuel may have “Failed Fuel” and/or several “Nonstandard Fuel” classifications
</P>
<HD2>B. Fuel Description and Subclassification—General Specifications 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Maximum Nominal Physical Dimensions.</I> 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Boiling water reactor (BWR) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pressurized water reactor (PWR)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Overall Length</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14 feet, 11 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14 feet, 10 inches.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Active Fuel Length</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 feet, 6 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 feet, 0 inches.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross Section 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 inches × 6 inches</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 inches × 9 inches.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The cross section of the fuel assembly shall not include the channel. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> Fuel that does not meet these specifications shall be classified as Nonstandard Fuel—Class NS-1.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>Nonfuel Components.</I> Nonfuel components including, but not limited to, control spiders, burnable poison rod assemblies, control rod elements, thimble plugs, fission chambers, and primary and secondary neutron sources, that are contained within the fuel assembly, or BWR channels that are an integral part of the fuel assembly, which do not require special handling, may be included as part of the spent nuclear fuel delivered for disposal pursuant to this contract.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Fuel that does not meet these specifications shall be classified as Nonstandard Fuel—Class NS-2.</P></NOTE>
<P>3. <I>Cooling.</I> The minimum cooling time for fuel is five (5) years.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Fuel that does not meet this specification shall be classified as Nonstandard Fuel—Class NS-3.</P></NOTE>
<P>4. <I>Non-LWR Fuel.</I> Fuel from other than LWR power facilities shall be classified as Nonstandard Fuel—Class NS-4. Such fuel may be unique and require special handling, storage, and disposal facilities.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Consolidated Fuel Rods.</I> Fuel which has been disassembled and stored with the fuel rods in a consolidated manner shall be classified as Nonstandard Fuel Class NS-5.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Failed Fuel.</I> 
</P>
<P>a. Visual Inspection.
</P>
<P>Assemblies shall be visually inspected for evidence of structural deformity or damage to cladding or spacers which may require special handling. Assemblies which [i] are structurally deformed or have damaged cladding to the extent that special handling may be required or [ii] for any reason cannot be handled with normal fuel handling equipment shall be classified as Failed Fuel—Class F-1.
</P>
<P>b. Previously Encapsulated Assemblies.
</P>
<P>Assemblies encapsulated by Purchaser prior to classification hereunder shall be classified as Failed Fuel—Class F-3. Purchaser shall advise DOE of the reason for the prior encapsulation of assemblies in sufficient detail so that DOE may plan for appropriate subsequent handling.
</P>
<P>c. Regulatory Requirements.
</P>
<P>Spent fuel assemblies shall be packaged and placed in casks so that all applicable regulatory requirements are met.
</P>
<HD2>C. Summary of Fuel Classifications
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Standard Fuel:</I>
</P>
<P>a. Class S-1: PWR
</P>
<P>b. Class S-2: BWR
</P>
<P>2. <I>Nonstandard Fuel:</I>
</P>
<P>a. Class NS-1: Physical Dimensions
</P>
<P>b. Class NS-2: Non Fuel Components
</P>
<P>c. Class NS-3: Short Cooled
</P>
<P>d. Class NS-4: Non-LWR
</P>
<P>e. Class NS-5: Consolidated Fuel Rods.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Failed Fuel:</I>
</P>
<P>a. Class F-1: Visual Failure or Damage
</P>
<P>b. Class F-2: Radioactive “Leakage”
</P>
<P>c. Class F-3: Encapsulated
</P>
<HD2>D. High-Level Radioactive Waste
</HD2>
<P>The DOE shall accept high-level radioactive waste. Detailed acceptance criteria and general specifications for such waste will be issued by the DOE no later than the date on which DOE submits its license application to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission for the first disposal facility.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix F
</HD1>
<HD2>Detailed Description of Purchaser's Fuel
</HD2>
<P>This information shall be provided by Purchaser for each distinct fuel type within a Shipping Lot not later than sixty (60) days prior to the schedule transportation date.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>Contract Number/Date ____/________
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>Reactor/Facility Name__
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>I. Drawings included in generic dossier: ________
</P>
<FP1-2>1. Fuel Assembly DWG# ____
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2. Upper &amp; Lower end fittings DWG# ____
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Dossier Number: ____
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>DOE Shipping Lot #: ____
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2># Assemblies Described:
</FP1-2>
<FP>  ______BWR
</FP>
<FP>  ______PWR
</FP>
<FP>  ______Other
</FP>
<P>II. <I>Design Material Descriptions.</I>
</P>
<FP><I>Fuel Element:</I>
</FP>
<FP1-2>1. Element type ____ (rod, plate, etc.)
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2. Total length) ____/(in.)
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3. Active length ____ (in.)
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>4. Cladding material ____ (Zr, s.s., etc.)
</FP1-2>
<FP><I>Assembly Description:</I>
</FP>
<FP1-2>1. Number of Elements ____
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2. Overall dimensions (length ____ (cross section) ____ (in.)
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3. Overall weight ____
</FP1-2>
<P>III. Describe any distortions, cladding damage or other damage to the spent fuel, or nonfuel components within this Shipping Lot which will require special handling procedures. (Attach additional pages if needed.)
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>IV. Assembly Number ____
</P>
<P>Shipping Lot #____
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Irradiation history cycle No.
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Startup date (mo/day/yr)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Shutdown date (mo/day/yr)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Cumulative fuel exposure (mwd/mtu)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Avg. reactor power (mwth)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row">5. Total heat output/assembly in watts, using an approved calculational method: ________ as of Date ________</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Any false, fictitious or fradulent statement may be punishable by fine or imprisonment (U.S. Code, Title 18, Section 1001).
</P>
<P>By Purchaser:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Signature
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date 
</FP-DASH>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.035.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.036.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.037.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.038.gif"/>
<HD1>Annex B to Appendix G
</HD1>
<HD2>Standard Remittance of Advice (RA) for Payment of Fees
</HD2>
<P>This Annex should be completed only for SNF burned before midnight between April 6/7, 1983.
</P>
<P>I. <I>Identification</I>
</P>
<P>A. Purchaser:____________
</P>
<P>B. Unit identification (Only one unit may be covered in each report.)
</P>
<FP-DASH>1. Reactor/Facility Name: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>2. Location:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>3. Type:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>4. Capacity:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>5. Date of Commencement of Operations: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>6. NRC License No.:
</FP-DASH>
<P>II. <I>Fee Calculation</I>
</P>
<P>A. <I>Discharged nuclear fuel</I> 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Burnup 
<sup>1</sup> (MWDT/MTU)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0−</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000−</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">up
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Initial loading (KgU) (with indicated burnup)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Fee rate ($/KgU)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">142.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">162.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">184.00
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Fee ($)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Total fee (4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>B. Nuclear fuel in the reactor core as of midnight of 6/7 April 1983.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assembly identification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Initial loading (KgU)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Burnup 
<sup>1</sup> as of midnight 6/7 April 1983 (MWDT/MTU)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fee
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 1.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 2.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 3.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 4.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 5.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 6.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 7.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 8.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> 9.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Please provide (as an attachment) a clear reference to the methodology used to derive the burnup figures (computer codes, etc.) and a clear reference to all data used in the derivation of those figures.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>C. Total fee.</P></EXTRACT>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1091-0260)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 16599, Apr. 18, 1983; 48 FR 23160, May 24, 1983, as amended at 52 FR 35359, Sept. 18, 1987; 56 FR 67659, Dec. 31, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="962" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 962—BYPRODUCT MATERIAL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>The Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5801 <I>et seq.</I>); Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>); Nuclear Waste Policy Act (Pub. L. 97-425, 96 Stat. 2201). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>52 FR 15940, May 1, 1987, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 962.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.45.0.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 962.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies only to radioactive waste substances which are owned or produced by the Department of Energy at facilities owned or operated by or for the Department of Energy under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq</I>). This part does not apply to substances which are not owned or produced by the Department of Energy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 962.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.45.0.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 962.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to clarify the meaning of the term “byproduct material” under section 11e(1) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2014(e)(1)) for use only in determining the Department of Energy's obligations under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.</I>) with regard to radioactive waste substances owned or produced by the Department of Energy pursuant to the exercise of its responsibilities under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954. This part does not affect materials defined as byproduct material under section 11e(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2014(e)(2)). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 962.3" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.45.0.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 962.3   Byproduct material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this part, the term <I>byproduct material</I> means any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in or made radioactive by exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or utilizing special nuclear material. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of determining the applicability of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (42 U.S.C. 6901 <I>et seq.</I>) to any radioactive waste substance owned or produced by the Department of Energy pursuant to the exercise of its atomic energy research, development, testing and production responsibilities under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>), the words “any radioactive material,” as used in paragraph (a) of this section, refer only to the actual radionuclides dispersed or suspended in the waste substance. The nonradioactive hazardous component of the waste substance will be subject to regulation under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="963" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 963—YUCCA MOUNTAIN SITE SUITABILITY GUIDELINES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 10101, <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 57336, Nov. 14, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.1" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.1.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to establish DOE methods and criteria for determining the suitability of the Yucca Mountain site for the location of a geologic repository. DOE will use these methods and criteria in analyzing the data from the site characterization activities required under section 113 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not address other information that must be considered and submitted to the President, and made available to the public, by the Secretary under section 114 of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act if the Yucca Mountain site is recommended for development as a geologic repository. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.2" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.1.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Applicable radiation protection standard</I> means (1) For the preclosure period, the preclosure numerical radiation dose limits in 10 CFR 63.111(a) and (b) and 63.204; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For the postclosure period, the postclosure numerical radiation dose limits in 10 CFR 63.311 and 63.321 and radionuclide concentration limits in 10 CFR 63.331. 
</P>
<P><I>Barrier</I> means any material, structure or feature that prevents or substantially reduces the rate of movement of water or radionuclides from the Yucca Mountain repository to the accessible environment, or prevents the release or substantially reduces the release rate of radionuclides from the waste. For example, a barrier may be a geologic feature, an engineered structure, a canister, a waste form with physical and chemical characteristics that significantly decrease the mobility of radionuclides, or a material placed over and around the waste, provided that the material substantially delays movement of water or radionuclides. 
</P>
<P><I>Cladding</I> is the metallic outer sheath of a fuel rod element; it is generally made of a corrosion resistant zirconium alloy or stainless steel, and is intended to isolate the fuel from the external environment. 
</P>
<P><I>Closure</I> means the final closing of the remaining open operational areas of the underground facility and boreholes after termination of waste emplacement, culminating in the sealing of shafts and ramps, except those openings that may be designed for ventilation or monitoring. 
</P>
<P><I>Colloid</I> means any fine-grained material in suspension, or any such material that can be easily suspended. 
</P>
<P><I>Criteria</I> means the characterizing traits relevant to assessing the performance of a geologic repository, as defined by this section, at the Yucca Mountain site. 
</P>
<P><I>Design</I> means a description of the engineered structures, systems, components and equipment of a geologic repository at Yucca Mountain that includes the engineered barrier system. 
</P>
<P><I>Design bases</I> means that information that identifies the specific functions to be performed by a structure, system, or component of a facility and the specific values or ranges of values chosen for controlling parameters as reference bounds for design. These values may be constraints derived from generally accepted “state-of-the-art” practices for achieving functional goals or requirements derived from analysis (based on calculation or experiments) of the effects of a postulated event under which a structure, system, or component must meet its functional goals. The values for controlling parameters for external events include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Estimates of severe natural events to be used for deriving design bases that will be based on consideration of historical data on the associated parameters, physical data, or analysis of upper limits of the physical processes involved; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Estimates of severe external human-induced events to be used for deriving design bases, that will be based on analysis of human activity in the region, taking into account the site characteristics and the risks associated with the event. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy, or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Engineered barrier system</I> means the waste packages, including engineered components and systems other than the waste package (e.g., drip shields), and the underground facility. 
</P>
<P><I>Event sequence</I> means a series of actions and/or occurrences within the natural and engineered components of a geologic repository operations area that could potentially lead to exposure of individuals to radiation. An event sequence includes one or more initiating events and associated combinations of repository system component failures, including those produced by the action or inaction of operating personnel. Those event sequences that are expected to occur one or more times before permanent closure of the geologic repository operations area are referred to as Category 1 event sequences. Other event sequences that have at least one chance in 10,000 of occurring before permanent closure are referred to as Category 2 event sequences. 
</P>
<P><I>Geologic repository</I> means a system that is intended to be used for, or may be used for, the disposal of radioactive wastes in excavated geologic media. A geologic repository includes the engineered barrier system and the portion of the geologic setting that provides isolation of the radioactive waste. 
</P>
<P><I>Geologic repository operations area</I> means a high-level radioactive waste facility that is part of a geologic repository, including both surface and subsurface areas, where waste handling activities are conducted. 
</P>
<P><I>Geologic setting</I> means geologic, hydrologic, and geochemical system of the region in which a geologic repository is or may be located. 
</P>
<P><I>High-level radioactive waste</I> means 
</P>
<P>(1) The highly radioactive material resulting from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuel, including liquid waste produced directly in reprocessing and any solid material derived from such liquid waste that contains fission products in sufficient concentration; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Other highly radioactive material that the Commission, consistent with existing law, determines by rule requires permanent isolation. 
</P>
<P><I>Human intrusion</I> means breaching of any portion of the Yucca Mountain disposal system within the repository footprint by any human activity. 
</P>
<P><I>Infiltration</I> means the flow of a fluid into a solid substance through pores or small openings; specifically, the movement of water into soil and fractured or porous rock. 
</P>
<P><I>Initiating event</I> means a natural or human induced event that causes an event sequence. 
</P>
<P><I>Near-field</I> means the region where the adjacent natural geohydrologic system has been significantly impacted by the excavation of the repository and the emplacement of the waste. 
</P>
<P><I>NRC</I> means the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission or its duly authorized representatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Perched water</I> means ground water of limited lateral extent separated from an underlying body of ground water by an unsaturated zone. 
</P>
<P><I>Preclosure</I> means the period of time before and during closure of the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P><I>Preclosure safety evaluation</I> means a preliminary assessment of the adequacy of repository support facilities to prevent or mitigate the effects of postulated initiating events and event sequences and their consequences (including fire, radiation, criticality, and chemical hazards), and the site, structures, systems, components, equipment, and operator actions that would be relied on for safety. 
</P>
<P><I>Postclosure</I> means the period of time after the closure of the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P><I>Radioactive waste or waste</I> means high-level radioactive waste and other radioactive materials, including spent nuclear fuel, that are received for emplacement in the geologic repository. 
</P>
<P><I>Reasonably maximally exposed individual</I> means the hypothetical person meeting the criteria specified at 10 CFR 63.312. 
</P>
<P><I>Reference biosphere</I> means the description of the environment, inhabited by the reasonably maximally exposed individual. The reference biosphere comprises the set of specific biotic and abiotic characteristics of the environment, including, but not limited to, climate, topography, soils, flora, fauna, and human activities. 
</P>
<P><I>Seepage</I> means the inflow of ground water moving in fractures or pore spaces of permeable rock to an open space in the rock such as an excavated drift. 
</P>
<P><I>Sensitivity study</I> means an analytic or numerical technique for examining the effects on model outcomes, such as radionuclide releases, of varying specified parameters, such as the infiltration rate due to precipitation. 
</P>
<P><I>Site characterization</I> means activities, whether in the laboratory or in the field, undertaken to establish the geologic conditions and the ranges of the parameters of a candidate site relevant to the location of a repository, including borings, surface excavations, excavations of exploratory shafts, limited subsurface lateral excavations and borings, and in situ testing needed to evaluate the suitability of a candidate site for the location of a repository, but not including preliminary borings and geophysical testing needed to assess whether site characterization should be undertaken. 
</P>
<P><I>Surface facilities</I> means all permanent facilities within the restricted area constructed in support of site characterization activities and repository construction, operation, and closure activities, including surface structures, utility lines, roads, railroads, and similar facilities, but excluding the underground facility. 
</P>
<P><I>System performance</I> means the complete behavior of a geologic repository system at Yucca Mountain in response to the features, events, and processes that may affect it. 
</P>
<P><I>Total system performance assessment</I> means a probabilistic analysis that is used to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the features, events and processes (except human intrusion) that might affect the Yucca Mountain disposal system and their probabilities of occurring during 10,000 years after disposal; 
</P>
<P>(2) Examine the effects of those features, events, processes, and sequences of events and processes (except human intrusion) on the performance of the Yucca Mountain disposal system; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Estimate the dose incurred by the reasonably maximally exposed individual, including associated uncertainties, as a result of releases caused by all significant features, events, processes, and sequences of events and processes, weighted by their probability of occurrence. 
</P>
<P><I>Underground facility</I> means the underground structure, backfill materials, if any, and openings that penetrate the underground structure (e.g., ramps, shafts and boreholes, including their seals). 
</P>
<P><I>Waste form</I> means the radioactive waste materials and any encapsulating or stabilizing matrix. 
</P>
<P><I>Waste package</I> means the waste form and any containers, shielding, packing, and other absorbent materials immediately surrounding an individual waste container. 
</P>
<P><I>Yucca Mountain disposal system</I> means the combination of underground engineered and natural barriers within the controlled area that prevents or substantially reduces releases from the waste. 
</P>
<P><I>Yucca Mountain site</I> means the candidate site in the State of Nevada recommended by the Secretary to the President under section 112(b)(1)(B) of the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (NWPA) (42 U.S.C. 1032(b)(1)(B)) on May 27, 1986. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Site Suitability Determination, Methods, and Criteria</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.10" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.10   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The scope of this subpart includes the following for both the preclosure and postclosure periods: 
</P>
<P>(1) The bases for the suitability determination for the Yucca Mountain site as a location for a geologic repository; 
</P>
<P>(2) The suitability evaluation methods for applying the site suitability criteria to a geologic repository at the Yucca Mountain site; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The site suitability criteria that DOE will apply in accordance with section 113(b)(1)(A)(iv) of the NWPA. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will seek NRC concurrence on any future revisions to this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.11" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.11   Suitability determination.</HEAD>
<P>DOE will evaluate whether the Yucca Mountain site is suitable for the location of a geologic repository on the basis of the preclosure and postclosure determinations described in §§ 963.12 and 963.15. If DOE's evaluation of the Yucca Mountain site for the location of a geologic repository under §§ 963.12 and 963.15 shows that the geologic repository is likely to meet the applicable radiation protection standards for the preclosure and postclosure periods, then DOE may determine that the site is a suitable location for the development of such a repository. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.12" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.12   Preclosure suitability determination.</HEAD>
<P>DOE will apply the method and criteria described in §§ 963.13 and 963.14 to evaluate the suitability of the Yucca Mountain site for the preclosure period. If DOE finds that the results of the preclosure safety evaluation conducted under § 963.13 show that the Yucca Mountain site is likely to meet the applicable radiation protection standard, DOE may determine the site suitable for the preclosure period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.13" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.13   Preclosure suitability evaluation method.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE will evaluate preclosure suitability using a preclosure safety evaluation method. DOE will evaluate the performance of the geologic repository at the Yucca Mountain site using the method described in paragraph (b) of this section and the criteria in § 963.14. DOE will consider the performance of the system in terms of the criteria to evaluate whether the geologic repository is likely to comply with the applicable radiation protection standard. 
</P>
<P>(b) The preclosure safety evaluation method, using preliminary engineering specifications, will assess the adequacy of the repository facilities to perform their intended functions and prevent or mitigate the effects of postulated Category 1 and 2 event sequences. The preclosure safety evaluation will consider: 
</P>
<P>(1) A preliminary description of the site characteristics, the surface facilities and the underground operating facilities; 
</P>
<P>(2) A preliminary description of the design bases for the operating facilities and a preliminary description of any associated limits on operation; 
</P>
<P>(3) A preliminary description of potential hazards, event sequences, and their consequences; and 
</P>
<P>(4) A preliminary description of the structures, systems, components, equipment, and operator actions intended to mitigate or prevent accidents. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.14" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.14   Preclosure suitability criteria.</HEAD>
<P>DOE will evaluate preclosure suitability using the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(a) Ability to contain radioactive material and to limit releases of radioactive materials; 
</P>
<P>(b) Ability to implement control and emergency systems to limit exposure to radiation; 
</P>
<P>(c) Ability to maintain a system and components that perform their intended safety functions; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Ability to preserve the option to retrieve wastes during the preclosure period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.15" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.15   Postclosure suitability determination.</HEAD>
<P>DOE will apply the method and criteria described in §§ 963.16 and 963.17 to evaluate the suitability of the Yucca Mountain site for the postclosure period. If DOE finds that the results of the total system performance assessments conducted under § 963.16 show that the Yucca Mountain site is likely to meet the applicable radiation protection standard, DOE may determine the site suitable for the postclosure period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.16" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.16   Postclosure suitability evaluation method.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE will evaluate postclosure suitability using the total system performance assessment method. DOE will conduct a total system performance assessment to evaluate the ability of the geologic repository to meet the applicable radiation protection standard under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE will conduct a total system performance assessment to evaluate the ability of the Yucca Mountain disposal system to limit radiological doses and radionuclide concentrations in the case where there is no human intrusion into the repository. DOE will model the performance of the Yucca Mountain disposal system using the method described in paragraph (b) of this section and the criteria in § 963.17. DOE will consider the performance of the system in terms of the criteria to evaluate whether the Yucca Mountain disposal system is likely to comply with the applicable radiation protection standard. 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE will conduct a separate total system performance assessment to evaluate the ability of the Yucca Mountain disposal system to limit radiological doses in the case where there is a human intrusion as specified by 10 CFR 63.322. DOE will model the performance of the Yucca Mountain disposal system using the method described in paragraph (b) of this section and the criteria in § 963.17. If required by applicable NRC regulations regarding a human intrusion standard, § 63.321, DOE will consider the performance of the system in terms of the criteria to evaluate whether the Yucca Mountain disposal system is likely to comply with the applicable radiation protection standard. 
</P>
<P>(b) In conducting a total system performance assessment under this section, DOE will: 
</P>
<P>(1) Include data related to the suitability criteria in § 963.17; 
</P>
<P>(2) Account for uncertainties and variabilities in parameter values and provide the technical basis for parameter ranges, probability distributions, and bounding values; 
</P>
<P>(3) Consider alternative models of features and processes that are consistent with available data and current scientific understanding, and evaluate the effects that alternative models would have on the estimated performance of the Yucca Mountain disposal system ; 
</P>
<P>(4) Consider only events that have at least one chance in 10,000 of occurring over 10,000 years; 
</P>
<P>(5) Provide the technical basis for either inclusion or exclusion of specific features, events, and processes of the geologic setting, including appropriate details as to magnitude and timing regarding any exclusions that would significantly change the dose to the reasonably maximally exposed individual; 
</P>
<P>(6) Provide the technical basis for either inclusion or exclusion of degradation, deterioration, or alteration processes of engineered barriers, including those processes that would adversely affect natural barriers, (such as degradation of concrete liners affecting the pH of ground water or precipitation of minerals due to heat changing hydrologic processes), including appropriate details as to magnitude and timing regarding any exclusions that would significantly change the dose to the reasonably maximally exposed individual; 
</P>
<P>(7) Provide the technical basis for models used in the total system performance assessment such as comparisons made with outputs of detailed process-level models and/or empirical observations (for example, laboratory testing, field investigations, and natural analogs); 
</P>
<P>(8) Identify natural features of the geologic setting and design features of the engineered barrier system important to isolating radioactive waste; 
</P>
<P>(9) Describe the capability of the natural and engineered barriers important to isolating radioactive waste, taking into account uncertainties in characterizing and modeling such barriers; 
</P>
<P>(10) Provide the technical basis for the description of the capability of the natural and engineered barriers important to isolating radioactive waste; 
</P>
<P>(11) Use the reference biosphere and reasonably maximally exposed individual assumptions specified in applicable NRC regulations; and 
</P>
<P>(12) Conduct appropriate sensitivity studies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 963.17" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.46.2.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 963.17   Postclosure suitability criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE will evaluate the postclosure suitability of a geologic repository at the Yucca Mountain site through suitability criteria that reflect both the processes and the models used to simulate those processes that are important to the total system performance of the geologic repository. The applicable criteria are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Site characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Geologic properties of the site—for example, stratigraphy, rock type and physical properties, and structural characteristics; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hydrologic properties of the site—for example, porosity, permeability,moisture content, saturation, and potentiometric characteristics; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Geophysical properties of the site—for example, densities, velocities and water contents, as measured or deduced from geophysical logs; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Geochemical properties of the site—for example, precipitation, dissolution characteristics, and sorption properties of mineral and rock surfaces. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unsaturated zone flow characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Climate—for example, precipitation and postulated future climatic conditions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Infiltration—for example, precipitation entering the mountain in excess of water returned to the atmosphere by evaporation and plant transpiration; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Unsaturated zone flux—for example, water movement through the pore spaces, or flowing along fractures or through perched water zones above the repository; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Seepage—for example, water dripping into the underground repository openings from the surrounding rock. 
</P>
<P>(3) Near field environment characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Thermal hydrology—for example, effects of heat from the waste on water flow through the site, and the temperature and humidity at the engineered barriers. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Near field geochemical environment—for example, the chemical reactions and products resulting from water contacting the waste and the engineered barrier materials. 
</P>
<P>(4) Engineered barrier system degradation characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Engineered barrier system component performance—for example, drip shields, backfill, coatings, or chemical modifications, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Waste package degradation—for example, the corrosion of the waste package materials within the near-field environment. 
</P>
<P>(5) Waste form degradation characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Cladding degradation—for example, corrosion or break-down of the cladding on the spent fuel pellets; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Waste form dissolution—for example, the ability of individual radionuclides to dissolve in water penetrating breached waste packages. 
</P>
<P>(6) Engineered barrier system degradation, flow, and transport characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Colloid formation and stability—for example, the formation of colloidal particles and the ability of radionuclides to adhere to these particles as they may migrate through the remaining barriers; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Engineered barrier transport—for example, the movement of radionuclides dissolved in water or adhering to colloidal particles to be transported through the remaining engineered barriers and in the underlying unsaturated zone. 
</P>
<P>(7) Unsaturated zone flow and transport characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Unsaturated zone transport—for example, the movement of water with dissolved radionuclides or colloidal particles through the unsaturated zone underlying the repository, including retardation mechanisms such as sorption on rock or mineral surfaces; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Thermal hydrology—for example, effects of heat from the waste on water flow through the site. 
</P>
<P>(8) Saturated zone flow and transport characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Saturated zone transport—for example, the movement of water with dissolved radionuclides or colloidal particles through the saturated zone underlying and beyond the repository, including retardation mechanisms such as sorption on rock or mineral surfaces; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Dilution—for example, diffusion of radionuclides into pore spaces, dispersion of radionuclides along flow paths, and mixing with non-contaminated ground water. 
</P>
<P>(9) Biosphere characteristics, which include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Reference biosphere and reasonably maximally exposed individual—for example, biosphere water pathways, location and behavior of reasonably maximally exposed individual; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Biosphere transport and uptake—for example, the consumption of ground or surface waters through direct extraction or agriculture, including mixing with non-contaminated waters and exposure to contaminated agricultural products. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will evaluate the postclosure suitability of the Yucca Mountain disposal system using criteria that consider disruptive processes and events important to the total system performance of the geologic repository. The applicable criteria related to disruptive processes and events include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Volcanism—for example, the probability and potential consequences of a volcanic eruption intersecting the repository; 
</P>
<P>(2) Seismic events—for example, the probability and potential consequences of an earthquake on the underground facilities or hydrologic system; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Nuclear criticality—for example, the probability and potential consequences of a self-sustaining nuclear reaction as a result of chemical or physical processes affecting the waste either in or after release from breached waste packages.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="964-999" NODE="10:5.0.2.5.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 964-999 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="X" NODE="10:5.0.3" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER X—DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY (GENERAL PROVISIONS)</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1002" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1002—OFFICIAL SEAL AND DISTINGUISHING FLAG 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7264. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>43 FR 20782, May 15, 1978, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to describe the official seal and distinguishing flag of the Department of Energy, and to prescribe rules for their custody and use. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>DOE</I> means all organizational units of the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Embossing seal</I> means a display of the form and content of the official seal made on a die so that the seal can be embossed on paper or other medium. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Official seal</I> means the original(s) of the seal showing the exact form, content, and colors therof. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Replica</I> means a copy of the official seal displaying the identical form, content, and colors thereof. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reproduction</I> means a copy of the official seal displaying the form and content thereof, reproduced in only one color. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.3   Custody of official seal and distinguishing flags.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary or his designee shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Have custody of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The official seal and prototypes thereof, and masters, molds, dies, and all other means of producing replicas, reproductions, and embossing seals; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Production, inventory and loan records relating to items specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Have custody of distinguishing flags, and be responsible for production, inventory, and loan records thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Official Seal</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.2.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.11   Description of official seal.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Energy hereby prescribes as its official seal, of which judicial notice shall be taken pursuant to section 654 of the Department of Energy Organization Act of 1977, 42 U.S.C. 7264, the imprint illustrated below and described as follows: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.039.gif"/>
<P>(a)(1) The official seal includes a green shield bisected by a gold-colored lightning bolt, on which is emblazoned a gold-colored symbolic sun, atom, oil derrick, windmill, and dynamo. It is crested by the white head of an eagle, atop a white rope. Both appear on a blue field surrounded by concentric circles in which the name of the agency, in gold, appears on a green background. Detailing is in black. 
</P>
<P>(2) The colors used in the configuration are dark green, dark blue, gold, black, and white. 
</P>
<P>(3) The eagle represents the care in planning and the purposefulness of efforts required to respond to the Nation's increasing demands for energy. The sun, atom, oil derrick, windmill, and dynamo serve as representative technologies whose enhanced development can help meet these demands. The rope represents the cohesiveness in the development of the technologies and their link to our future capabilities. The lightning bolt represents the power of the natural forces from which energy is derived and the Nation's challenge in harnessing the forces. 
</P>
<P>(4) The color scheme is derived from nature, symbolizing both the source of energy and the support of man's existence. The blue field represents air and water, green represents mineral resources and the earth itself, and gold represents the creation of energy in the release of natural forces. By invoking this symbolism, the color scheme represents the Nation's commitment to meet its energy needs in a manner consistent with the preservation of the natural environment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.2.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.12   Use of replicas, reproductions, and embossing seals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary and his designees are authorized to affix replicas, reproductions, and embossing seals to appropriate documents, certifications, and other material for all purposes as authorized by this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Replicas may be used only for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Display in or adjacent to DOE facilities, in Department auditoriums, presentation rooms, hearing rooms, lobbies, and public document rooms. 
</P>
<P>(2) Offices of senior officials. 
</P>
<P>(3) Official DOE distinguishing flags, adopted and utilized pursuant to subpart C. 
</P>
<P>(4) Official awards, certificates, medals, and plaques. 
</P>
<P>(5) Motion picture film, video tape and other audiovisual media prepared by or for DOE and attributed thereto. 
</P>
<P>(6) Official prestige publications which represent the achievements or mission of DOE. 
</P>
<P>(7) Non-DOE facilities in connection with events and displays sponsored by DOE, and public appearances of the Secretary or other designated senior DOE Officials. 
</P>
<P>(8) For other such purposes as determined by the Director of the Office of Administrative Services. 
</P>
<P>(c) Reproductions may be used only on: 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE letterhead stationery. 
</P>
<P>(2) Official DOE identification cards and security credentials. 
</P>
<P>(3) Business cards for DOE employees. 
</P>
<P>(4) Official DOE signs. 
</P>
<P>(5) Official publications or graphics issued by and attributed to DOE, or joint statements of DOE with one or more Federal agencies, State or local governments, or foreign governments. 
</P>
<P>(6) Official awards, certificates, and medals. 
</P>
<P>(7) Motion picture film, video tape, and other audiovisual media prepared by or for DOE and attributed thereto. 
</P>
<P>(8) For other such purposes as determined by the Director of the Office of Administrative Services. 
</P>
<P>(d) Embossing seals may be used only on: 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE legal documents, including interagency or intergovernmental agreements, agreements with States, foreign patent applications, and similar documents. 
</P>
<P>(2) For other such purposes as determined by the General Counsel or the Director of Administration. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any person who uses the official seal, replicas, reproductions, or embossing seals in a manner inconsistent with this part shall be subject to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 1017, providing penalties for the wrongful use of an official seal, and to other provisions of law as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(f) The official seal is being registered with the World Intellectual Property Organization through the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Distinguishing Flag</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.21" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.3.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.21   Description of distinguishing flag.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The base or field of the flag shall be white, and a replica of the official seal shall appear on both sides thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The indoor flag shall be of rayon banner, measure 4′4″ on hoist by 5′6″ on the fly, exclusive of heading and hems, and be fringed on three edges with yellow rayon fringe, 2
<FR>1/2</FR>″ wide. 
</P>
<P>(2) The outdoor flag shall be of heavy weight nylon, and measure either 3′ on the hoist by 5′ on the fly or 5′ on the hoist by 8′ on the fly, exclusive of heading and hems. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each flag shall be manufactured in accordance with U.S. Department of Defense Military Specification Mil-F-2692. The official seal shall be screen printed on both sides, and on each side, the lettering shall read from left to right. Headings shall be Type II in accordance with the Institute of Heraldry Drawing No. 5-1-45E. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.22" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.3.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.22   Use of distinguishing flag.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE distinguishing flags may be used only: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the offices of the Secretarial officers, Chairman of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, and heads of field locations designated below:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Power Administrations. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Offices. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Operations Offices. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Certain Field Offices and other locations as designated by the Director of Administration.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) At official DOE ceremonies. 
</P>
<P>(3) In Department auditoriums, official presentation rooms, hearing rooms, lobbies, public document rooms, and in non-DOE facilities in connection with events or displays sponsored by DOE, and public appearances of DOE officials. 
</P>
<P>(4) On or in front of DOE installation buildings. 
</P>
<P>(5) Other such purposes as determined by the Director of Administration. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Unauthorized Uses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.31" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.1.4.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.31   Unauthorized uses of the seal and flag.</HEAD>
<P>The official seal and distinguishing flag shall not be used except as authorized by the Director of Administration in connection with: 
</P>
<P>(a) Contractor-operated facilities. 
</P>
<P>(b) Souvenir or novelty items. 
</P>
<P>(c) Toys or commercial gifts or premiums. 
</P>
<P>(d) Letterhead design, except on official Departmental stationery. 
</P>
<P>(e) Matchbook covers, calendars, and similar items. 
</P>
<P>(f) Civilian clothing or equipment. 
</P>
<P>(g) Any article which may disparage the seal or flag or reflect unfavorably upon DOE. 
</P>
<P>(h) Any manner which implies Departmental endorsement of commercial products or services, or of the user's policies or activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1003" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1003—OFFICE OF HEARINGS AND APPEALS PROCEDURAL REGULATIONS</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 761 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 58008, Oct. 30, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1003.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the procedures to be utilized in certain proceedings before the Office of Hearings and Appeals of the Department of Energy, where comprehensive procedures are not to be found in another part of DOE's regulations. These procedures provide standard rules of practice in a variety of informal adjudications when jurisdiction is vested in the Office of Hearings and Appeals, including requests for adjustments from DOE rules, regulations, and orders under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 7194 as well as other requests for relief with respect to final dispositions of DOE. Any or all of the procedures contained in this part may be adopted by reference in another DOE program, statute, rule, regulation, guidance, or DOE delegation of authority that invokes the adjudicatory authority of the Office of Hearings and Appeals. These rules do not apply to proceedings governed by a federal statute or DOE regulation that contains comprehensive procedures specifically applicable to proceedings conducted under the authority of that regulation. (<I>e.g.</I>, 10 CFR part 708—DOE Contractor Employee Protection Program; 10 CFR part 710—Procedures for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Matter or Special Nuclear Material; 10 CFR part 1004—Freedom of Information Act (FOIA); 10 CFR part 712—Human Reliability Program.)
</P>
<P>(b) Wherever another DOE program, statute, rule, regulation, guidance, or DOE delegation of authority references or adopts by reference the procedures set forth in a subpart contained in a previous iteration of this part, regardless of the subpart referenced, the procedures set forth in this part shall be deemed to apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Action</I> means an affirmative act by DOE that carries the force of law.
</P>
<P><I>Aggrieved,</I> with respect to a person, means adversely affected by an action of the DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Alternative Dispute Resolution</I> means any technique for resolving disputes and managing conflict without resorting to litigation in either an administrative or judicial forum. Alternative Dispute Resolution techniques include, but are not limited to, mediation, facilitation, and shuttle diplomacy.
</P>
<P><I>Decision and Order</I> means the OHA's final decision on a petition brought under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals or duly authorized delegate.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy, created by the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>), and the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA).
</P>
<P><I>Duly authorized representative</I> means a person who has been designated to appear before the Office of Hearings and Appeals in connection with a proceeding on behalf of a person interested in or aggrieved by an action of the DOE. Such appearance may consist of the submission of a written document, a personal appearance, verbal communication, or any other participation in the proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Federal legal holiday</I> means any calendar day designated as a federal holiday by federal statute or Executive order.
</P>
<P><I>Final disposition of DOE</I> means a DOE rule, order, or other action in any matter other than:
</P>
<P>(i) A rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(ii) An internal DOE order or directive issued by the Secretary of Energy or his delegate in the management and administration of departmental elements and functions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any decision or order issued under 41 U.S.C. 4712 or under part 708, part 710, part 712, or part 1004 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>OHA</I> means the Office of Hearings and Appeals of the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means a non-party entity that submits a comment, briefing, or other filing in a proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means the petitioner and any adverse entity, which may include the DOE, which assumes the role of defendant or respondent in the proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, firm, estate, trust, sole proprietorship, partnership, association, company, joint-venture, corporation, governmental unit or instrumentality thereof, or a charitable, educational or other institution, and includes any officer, director, owner or duly authorized representative thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Petition</I> means a written submission to the OHA requesting that the OHA grant the petitioner relief.
</P>
<P><I>Petitioner</I> means any person filing a petition with the OHA.
</P>
<P><I>Proceeding</I> means the process and activity, and any part thereof, instituted by the OHA—either on its own initiative or in response to a petition submitted by a person—that may lead to an action by the OHA.
</P>
<P><I>Verified email address</I> means an email address that is publicly published or available upon request, or, if no such address exists, an email address through which the sender has communicated with the recipient in the previous 12 months.
</P>
<P>(b) Throughout this part the use of a word or term in the singular includes the plural, and the use of the male pronoun is gender neutral.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.3   Appearance before the OHA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An interested person may make an appearance, including a personal appearance at the discretion of the OHA, and participate in any proceeding described in this part on his own behalf or by a duly authorized representative. Any document filed by a duly authorized representative must contain a statement by such person certifying that he is a duly authorized representative.
</P>
<P>(b) The OHA may deny, temporarily or permanently, in whole or in part, the privilege of participating in proceedings, including oral presentation, to any individual who is found by the OHA—
</P>
<P>(1) To have made false or misleading statements, either orally or in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) To have filed false or materially altered documents, affidavits or other writings;
</P>
<P>(3) To lack the specific authority to represent the party or participant; or
</P>
<P>(4) To have engaged in or to be engaged in conduct that substantially disrupts a proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.4   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Days.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, in computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by these regulations or by an order of the OHA, the day of the act, event, or default from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday, in which event the period runs until the end of the following day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or a federal legal holiday. Documents received after 5 p.m., Eastern Time, are deemed filed on the following regular business day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hours.</I> If the period of time prescribed in an order issued by the OHA is stated in hours rather than days, the period of time begins to run upon actual notice of such order, whether by oral or written communication, to the person directly affected, and will run without interruption, unless otherwise provided in the order, or unless the order is stayed, modified, suspended, or rescinded. When a written order is transmitted by oral communication, the written order must be served as soon thereafter as is feasible.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional time after service by mail.</I> Whenever a person is required to perform an act, to cease and desist therefrom, or to initiate a proceeding under this part within a prescribed period of time after issuance to such person of an order, notice or other document and the order, notice, or other document is served solely by mail, 3 days will be added to the prescribed period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.5   Extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>When a document is required to be filed within a prescribed time, an extension of time to file may be granted by the OHA upon good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.6   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All documents required to be served under this part must be served personally, by first class United States mail, or by verified email address, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) Service upon a person's duly authorized representative constitutes service upon that person.
</P>
<P>(c) Official United States Postal Service receipts from certified mailing and email delivery receipts constitute evidence of service.
</P>
<P>(d) The OHA may, at its discretion, allow for alternate forms of service when it determines that such would be advisable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.7   General filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> The provisions of this section apply to all documents required or permitted to be filed with the OHA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signing.</I> Any document that is required to be signed, must be signed by the person filing the document. Any document filed by a duly authorized representative must contain a statement by such person certifying that he is a duly authorized representative. The signature by the filer constitutes a certificate by the signer that the signer has read the document and that to the best of the signer's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the document is well grounded in fact, warranted under existing law, and submitted in good faith and not for any improper purpose such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay. If a document is signed in violation of this section, the OHA may impose the sanctions specified in § 1003.3 and other sanctions determined to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Labeling.</I> A petition must be clearly labeled according to the nature of the action involved both on the petition itself and, where applicable, in the subject line of the email in which the petition is transmitted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Obligation to supply information.</I> A person who files a petition is under a continuing obligation during the proceeding to provide the OHA with any new or newly discovered information that is relevant to that proceeding. Such information includes, but is not limited to, information regarding any other submission that is subsequently filed by that person with any DOE office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>The same or related matters.</I> A person who files a petition with the OHA must state whether, to the best knowledge of that person, the same or related action as that which is the subject of the petition has been or presently is being considered or investigated by any other DOE office, other federal agency, department, or instrumentality; or by a state or municipal agency or court; or by any law enforcement agency, including, but not limited to, a consideration or investigation in connection with any proceeding described in this part. In addition, the person must state whether contact has been made by the person or one acting on his behalf with any person who is employed by the DOE with regard to the same or a related issue, act, or transaction arising out of the same factual situation; the name of the person contacted; whether the contact was oral or in writing; the nature and substance of the contact; and the date or dates of the contact.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for confidential treatment.</I> (1) If any person filing a document with the OHA claims that some or all of the information contained in the document is exempt from the mandatory public disclosure requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), is information referred to in 18 U.S.C. 1905, or is otherwise exempt by law from public disclosure, and if such person requests the OHA not to disclose such information, such person must file together with the document a copy of the document from which the information for which confidential treatment is being sought has been deleted. The person must indicate in the original document that it is confidential or contains confidential information and must file a statement specifying the justification for non-disclosure of the information for which confidential treatment is claimed. For example, if the person states that the information comes within the exception codified at 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) for trade secrets and commercial or financial information, such person shall include a statement specifying why such information is privileged or confidential. If the person filing a document does not submit a copy of the document with the confidential information deleted, the OHA may assume that there is no objection to public disclosure of the document in its entirety.
</P>
<P>(2) The OHA will make a determination regarding any claim of confidentiality under criteria specified in 10 CFR 1004.11. Notice of the decision by the OHA to deny such claim, in whole or in part, and an opportunity to respond will be given to a person claiming confidentiality of information no less than five days prior to its public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Submitting multiple petitions.</I> Each petition to the OHA must be submitted as a separate document, even if the petitions deal with the same or a related action or are submitted in connection with the same proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.8   Effective date of orders.</HEAD>
<P>Any order issued under this part is effective as against all persons having actual or constructive notice thereof upon issuance, in accordance with its terms, unless and until it is stayed or suspended. An order is deemed to be issued on the date, as specified in the order, on which it is signed by the Director, unless the order provides otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.9   Method of submission of petitions, documents, and other materials.</HEAD>
<P>Absent exceptional circumstances, all submissions to the OHA, as provided in this part or otherwise, must be filed electronically in accordance with the instructions set forth on the OHA website, found at <I>https://www.energy.gov/oha/filing-information.</I> The OHA may grant permission to file via mail or facsimile. Any submissions made in hard copy will not be returned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.10   Public reference room.</HEAD>
<P>The OHA maintains an electronic public reference room at <I>https://www.energy.gov/oha/decision-summaries.</I> The following information is included:
</P>
<P>(a) A list of all persons who have filed a petition and a digest of each petition;
</P>
<P>(b) Each Decision and Order, with confidential information deleted, issued in response to a petition; and
</P>
<P>(c) Any other information in the possession of the OHA which is required by statute to be made available for public inspection and copying, and any other information that the OHA determines should be made available to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.11   Filing a petition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> Any person may file a petition under this part who is aggrieved by a final disposition of DOE or who is so authorized by a program, statute, rule, regulation, guidance, or DOE delegation of authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of petition.</I> The person seeking relief under this part must file a petition. The general filing requirements in § 1003.7 apply in addition to the requirements stated in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Elements of a petition.</I> Petitions to the OHA must include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) A full and complete statement of all relief requested from the OHA;
</P>
<P>(2) A citation to the statute, regulation, delegation, or other authority pursuant to which the OHA has jurisdiction to consider the petition;
</P>
<P>(3) A full and complete statement of all relevant facts pertaining to the action that is the subject of the petition and to the OHA relief sought;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the factual and legal justification for the relief requested in the petition;
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of all documents, including, but not limited to, contracts, financial records, communications, plans, analyses, and diagrams related to the petitioner's eligibility for the relief requested in the petition; and,
</P>
<P>(6) A motion for stay, if a stay is sought by the petitioner. The OHA may grant a motion for stay filed after the petition only upon a showing of good cause.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service certification.</I> The petitioner must submit to the OHA a certification that the petitioner has served the notice required pursuant to § 1003.12 of this part. The OHA must receive the certification within 15 days of the date on which the OHA received the petition. The OHA may grant an extension of time only upon a showing of good cause. The certification must include the names, addresses, telephone numbers, and email addresses of all potentially aggrieved persons or a statement that such information, in whole or in part, is not reasonably ascertainable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Where to file.</I> A petition must be filed with the OHA in the manner specified in § 1003.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.12   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The petitioner must serve a copy of the petition and any subsequent amendments or other documents relating to the petition, or a copy from which confidential information has been deleted in accordance with § 1003.7(f), to each person who is reasonably ascertainable by the petitioner as a person who would be aggrieved by the OHA relief sought. The copy of the petition must be accompanied by a statement that the person may submit comments regarding the petition to the OHA within 10 days. The OHA may, in its discretion, extend the comment period. The petitioner must file a service certification with the OHA, in accordance with § 1003.11(d), stating that the requirements of this paragraph have been complied with and must include the names, addresses, and verified email addresses of each person to whom a copy of the petition was sent. The OHA may require the petitioner to provide additional or alternative notice, may identify additional persons on whom an applicant must serve notice, or may determine that notice should be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, if the petitioner determines that compliance with paragraph (a) of this section would be impracticable, the petitioner must:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with regard to those persons whom it is reasonable and practicable to notify; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include with the certification a description of the persons or class or classes of persons to whom notice was not sent, as well as a brief explanation of why notice to each person or class of person was impracticable.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person submitting written comments to the OHA regarding a petition filed under this part must serve a copy of the comments, or a copy from which confidential information has been deleted in accordance with § 1003.7(f), to the petitioner. The person must certify to the OHA that he has complied with the requirements of this paragraph. The OHA may notify other persons participating in the proceeding of such comments and provide an opportunity for such persons to respond.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.14" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.14   Evaluation of petitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OHA will acknowledge receipt of all petitions filed pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The OHA may request information of a petitioner, including, but not limited to, financial documents, responses to interrogatories, copies of communications, and such other information the OHA determines may inform its evaluation of the petition.
</P>
<P>(1) The OHA will provide a petitioner with a period of time within which to provide any information requested by the OHA pursuant to this paragraph and instructions on how to deliver the information to the OHA.
</P>
<P>(2) The OHA may extend the period of time for a petitioner to provide information requested by the OHA upon a showing of good cause by the petitioner. Such extensions will generally be for a period of no more than 30 days, and in no case will the OHA grant an extension that would result in the undue delay of its evaluation of a petition.
</P>
<P>(c) In evaluating a petition, the OHA may consider relevant information from any source, including information received from a third party, provided that the petitioner is afforded an opportunity to respond to all third-party submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) The OHA will complete its evaluation of a petition within 180 days of receipt of the petition. However, the Director may extend the period for the OHA's review for good cause, the reasoning for which must be set forth in the order extending the review period.
</P>
<P>(e) In its evaluations, the OHA will use as a guide, but will not be bound by, the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure and Federal Rules of Evidence.
</P>
<P>(f) The Director has all of the judicial powers necessary to conduct the proceeding, including, but not limited to, grants or denials of motions and entry of interlocutory orders.
</P>
<P>(g) The OHA may conduct a hearing with regard to the petition if, in its discretion, it considers that such hearing will materially advance the proceeding. In deciding whether to conduct a hearing, the OHA may consider various factors, including, but not limited to, the number of persons potentially aggrieved by a petition, the extent to which witness testimony will assist the OHA in developing a complete factual record, and the estimated costs of conducting a hearing at a venue reasonably convenient to all parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.15" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.15   Subpoenas, information requests, oaths, witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with the provisions of this section and as otherwise authorized by law, the Director may sign, issue, and serve subpoenas; administer oaths and affirmations; take sworn testimony; compel attendance of and sequester witnesses; control dissemination of any record of testimony taken pursuant to this section; and subpoena and reproduce books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, contracts, agreements, or other relevant records or tangible evidence including, but not limited to, information retained in computerized or other automated systems in the possession of the subpoenaed person.
</P>
<P>(b) The OHA may issue an information request requiring any person subject to the jurisdiction of the OHA to file a report providing information relating to the OHA proceeding, including, but not limited to, written answers to specific questions. The information request may be in addition to any other reports required.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, for good cause shown, may extend the time prescribed for compliance with the subpoena or information request and determine the terms of satisfactory compliance.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to the time specified for compliance, but within 10 days after the date of service of the subpoena or information request, the person upon whom the document was served may file a request for review of the subpoena or information request with the Director. The Director then will provide notice of receipt to the person requesting review, may extend the time prescribed for compliance with the subpoena or information request, and may determine the terms of satisfactory compliance.
</P>
<P>(e) If the subpoena or information request is not modified or rescinded within 10 days of the date of the Director's notice of receipt:
</P>
<P>(1) The subpoena or information request will be effective as issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) The person upon whom the document was served must comply with the subpoena or information request within 20 days of the date of the Director's notice of receipt, unless otherwise notified in writing by the Director.
</P>
<P>(f) A subpoena or information request must be served upon a person named in the document.
</P>
<P>(g) If any person upon whom a subpoena or information request is served pursuant to this section refuses or fails to comply with any provision of the subpoena or information request, a proceeding may be commenced in the appropriate United States District Court to enforce the subpoena or information request.
</P>
<P>(h) Documents produced in response to a subpoena must be accompanied by the sworn certification, under penalty of perjury, of the person to whom the subpoena was directed or his authorized agent that:
</P>
<P>(1) A diligent search has been made for each document responsive to the subpoena; and
</P>
<P>(2) To the best of his knowledge, information, and belief each document responsive to the subpoena is being produced.
</P>
<P>(i) Any information furnished in response to an information request must be accompanied by the sworn certification, under penalty of perjury, of the person to whom it was directed or his authorized agent who actually provides the information that:
</P>
<P>(1) A diligent effort has been made to provide all information required by the information request; and
</P>
<P>(2) All information furnished is true, complete, and correct.
</P>
<P>(j) If any document responsive to a subpoena is not produced or any information required by an information request is not furnished, the certification must include a statement setting forth every reason for failing to comply with the subpoena or information request. If a person to whom a subpoena or information request is directed withholds any document or information because of a claim of attorney-client or other privilege, the person submitting the certification required by paragraph (h) or (i) of this section must also submit a written list of the documents or the information withheld indicating a description of each document or piece of information, the date of the document, each person shown on the document as having received a copy of the document, each person shown on the document as having prepared or been sent the document, the privilege relied upon as the basis for withholding the document or information, and an identification of the person whose privilege is being asserted.
</P>
<P>(k) If testimony is taken pursuant to a subpoena, the Director will determine whether the testimony will be recorded and the means by which the testimony is recorded.
</P>
<P>(l) A witness whose testimony is recorded may procure a copy of his testimony by making a written request for a copy and paying the appropriate fees.
</P>
<P>(m) The Director may sequester any person subpoenaed to furnish documents or give testimony. Unless permitted by the Director, neither a witness nor his attorney is permitted to be present during the examination of any other witnesses.
</P>
<P>(n) The Director may require testimony to be given under oath, regardless of the form of the testimony. The oath or affirmation will direct the witness's attention to 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 18 U.S.C. 1621.
</P>
<P>(o) The Director may require submissions to the OHA to be accompanied by an oath or affirmation attesting to the truth and accuracy of the submission. The oath or affirmation will direct the submitter's attention to 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 18 U.S.C. 1621.
</P>
<P>(p) A witness whose testimony is taken may be accompanied, represented and advised by his attorney as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon the initiative of the attorney or witness, the attorney may advise his client, in confidence, with respect to the question asked his client, and if the witness refuses to answer any question, the witness or his attorney is required to briefly state the legal grounds for such refusal; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the witness claims a privilege to refuse to answer a question on the grounds of self-incrimination, the witness must assert the privilege personally.
</P>
<P>(q) The Director will take all necessary steps to regulate the course of testimony and to avoid delay and prevent or restrain contemptuous or obstructionist conduct or language. The OHA may take steps as the circumstances warrant in regard to any instances where any person or attorney refuses to comply with directions or provisions of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.16" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.16   Dismissal of petitions.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may issue a Decision and Order dismissing a petition at any time during the course of a proceeding. The Decision and Order shall state whether the dismissal is with prejudice or without prejudice. A Decision and order Dismissing a petition may be the subject of a motion for reconsideration in accordance with § 1003.19 of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Dismissal with prejudice.</I> The dismissal of a petition with prejudice by the OHA terminates the OHA's review of the petition and bars the petitioner from submitting any future petition concerning the same, or substantially the same, issues as those in the petition. The OHA may dismiss a petition with prejudice if:
</P>
<P>(1) The OHA lacks jurisdiction to consider the petition;
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner has already received a Decision and Order from the Director in response to a previously filed petition that addresses the same issue;
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner provides a false statement under oath or files a false instrument with the OHA, as determined by the OHA;
</P>
<P>(4) The petitioner refuses to comply with an order issued by the OHA;
</P>
<P>(5) The petition is untimely;
</P>
<P>(6) The issues raised in the petition are moot;
</P>
<P>(7) The petitioner repeatedly fails to comply with procedural requirements; or,
</P>
<P>(8) The same or a substantially similar petition was previously dismissed by the OHA without prejudice, and the same basis for dismissal without prejudice exists upon refiling by the same petitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dismissal without prejudice.</I> The dismissal of a petition without prejudice by the OHA terminates the OHA's review of the petition but does not bar the petitioner from resubmitting the petition provided that the facts or circumstances leading to the dismissal have been resolved. In dismissing a petition without prejudice, the OHA may order that the petitioner may not resubmit the petition, or a substantially similar petition, for a period of time not to exceed 180 days. The OHA may dismiss a petition without prejudice if:
</P>
<P>(1) The petitioner fails to include any of the required elements of a petition set forth in § 1003.11 of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The petitioner fails to provide notice as required by § 1003.12 of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner fails to timely provide documents or information at the request of the OHA pursuant to § 1003.14 or § 1003.15 of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) The petition fails to state a claim upon which the OHA can grant relief; or
</P>
<P>(5) The OHA determines that there is insufficient information upon which to base a decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.17" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.17   Standard of review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OHA will grant a petition that seeks an adjustment from a DOE rule, regulation or order under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 7194 only if it determines that doing so will alleviate or prevent serious hardship, gross inequity or unfair distribution of burdens.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided by program, statute, rule, regulation, or DOE delegation of authority, the OHA will grant any other petition filed under this part upon a showing that the DOE acted arbitrarily, capriciously, or in violation of a law, rule, regulation, or delegation with respect to the final disposition of DOE that is the subject of the petition.
</P>
<P>(c) Petitions shall be decided in a manner that is, to the extent possible, consistent with the disposition of previous petitions of the same kind.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.18" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.18   Decision and Order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon consideration of the petition and other relevant information received or obtained during the proceeding, the OHA will issue a Decision and Order granting or denying the petition and ordering relief as appropriate. The OHA will serve the Decision and Order on the parties to the proceeding and make it available to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) The Decision and Order will set forth its legal basis and the relevant facts, state whether it is a final agency action of the DOE, and state what further review, if any, is available.
</P>
<P>(c) There is no administrative appeal of a Decision and Order, except as provided by federal statute.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.19" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.2.0.22.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.19   Reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>A participant in the proceeding may submit to the OHA a motion for reconsideration of a Decision and Order. The motion for reconsideration must be filed by the 20th day after the OHA makes the Decision and Order available to the public. The motion must include a statement of the grounds on which the movant believes reconsideration is warranted. Such grounds may include, but are not limited to, procedural, legal, or factual errors in the Decision and Order. A motion for reconsideration may be granted if the Director determines the Decision and Order contains an error that materially impacted the outcome of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1004" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1004—FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT (FOIA)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 16 U.S.C. 824o-1.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1004.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the regulations of the Department of Energy (DOE) that implement Freedom of Information (FOIA) 5 U.S.C. 552, Public Law 89-487, as amended by Public Law 93-502, 88 Stat. 1561, by Public Law 94-409, 90 Stat. 1241, by Public Law 99-570, 100 Stat. 3207-49, by Public Law 104-231, 110 Stat. 3048, by Public Law 110-175, 121 Stat. 2524, Public Law 111-83 § 564, 123 Stat. 2142, 2184, and by Public Law 114-185, 130 Stat. 538. The regulations of this part provide information concerning the procedures by which records may be requested from all DOE offices, excluding the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC). Records of DOE made available pursuant to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552 shall be furnished to members of the public as prescribed by this part. Persons seeking information or records of DOE may find it helpful to consult with a DOE FOIA Officer before invoking the formal procedures set out below. To the extent permitted by other laws, DOE will make records available which it is authorized to withhold under 5 U.S.C. 552 whenever it determines that such disclosure is in the public interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94918, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal Authority</I> means the Office of Hearings and Appeals. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorizing or Denying Official</I> means that DOE officer having custody of or responsibility for records requested under 5 U.S.C. 552. In DOE Headquarters, the term refers to The Freedom of Information Act Officer and officials who report directly to either the Office of the Secretary or a Secretarial Officer as defined. In the field offices, the term refers to the head of a field location identified in paragraph (h) of this section and the heads of field offices to which they provide administrative support and have delegated this authority. In the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA), the term refers to the official appointed at such location as identified in paragraph (h)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>‘Commercial use’ request</I> refers to a request from or on behalf of one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. In determining whether a requester properly belongs in this category, agencies must determine how the requester will use the documents requested. Moreover, where DOE has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which a requester will put the records sought, or where that use is not evident from the request itself, the DOE will seek additional clarification before assigning the request to a specific category. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Department</I> or <I>Department of Energy (DOE)</I> means all organizational entities which are a part of the executive department created by Title II of the DOE Organization Act, Pub L. 95-91. This specifically excludes the FERC. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures which the DOE actually incurs in searching for and duplicating (and in the case of commercial requesters, reviewing) documents to respond to a FOIA request. Direct costs include, for example, the salary of the employee performing the work (the basic rate of pay for the employee plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating duplicating machinery. Not included in direct costs are overhead expenses such as costs of space, and heating or lighting the facility in which the records are stored. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duplication</I> refers to the process of making a copy of a document necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Such copies can take the form of, but are not limited to, paper copy, microform, audiovisual materials, or machine readable documentation (e.g., magnetic tape or disk). The copy provided must be in a form that can be reasonably used by requesters. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Educational institution</I> refers to a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education, which operates a program or programs of scholarly research. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officer</I> means the person designated to administer the Freedom of Information Act at the following DOE offices:
</P>
<P>(1) Bonneville Power Administration, P.O. Box 3621CHI-7, Portland, OR 97208-3621.
</P>
<P>(2) Carlsbad Field Office, P.O. Box 3090, Carlsbad, NM 88221.
</P>
<P>(3) Chicago Office, 9800 S. Cass Avenue, Argonne, IL 60439.
</P>
<P>(4) Environmental Management Consolidated Business Center, 250 East 5th Street, Suite 500, Cincinnati, OH 45202.
</P>
<P>(5) Golden Field Office, 15013 Denver West Parkway, Mail Stop RSF DOE Golden, CO 80401.
</P>
<P>(6) Headquarters, Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(7) Idaho Operations Office, 1955 Fremont Avenue, MS 1203, Idaho Falls, ID 83401.
</P>
<P>(8) National Nuclear Security Administration Albuquerque Complex, P.O. Box 5400, Albuquerque, NM 87185.
</P>
<P>(9) National Energy Technology Laboratory, 626 Cochrans Mill Road, P.O. Box 10940, Pittsburgh, PA 15236-0940.
</P>
<P>(10) Naval Reactors Laboratory Field Office, P.O. Box 109, West Mifflin, PA 15122-0109.
</P>
<P>(11) Oak Ridge Office, P.O. Box 2001, Oak Ridge, TN 37831.
</P>
<P>(12) Office of Naval Reactors, Headquarters, 1240 Isaac Hull Avenue SE., Washington Navy Yard, DC 20376-0822.
</P>
<P>(13) Office of Scientific and Technical Information, P.O. Box 62, Oak Ridge, TN 37830.
</P>
<P>(14) Richland Operations Office, P.O. Box 550, Mail Stop A7-75, Richland, WA 99352.
</P>
<P>(15) Savannah River Operations Office, P.O. Box A, Aiken, SC 29801.
</P>
<P>(16) Southeastern Power Administration, 1166 Athens Tech Road, Elberton, GA 30635-6711.
</P>
<P>(17) Southwestern Power Administration, One West Third, S1200, Tulsa, OK 74103.
</P>
<P>(18) Strategic Petroleum Reserve Project Management Office, 900 Commerce Road East-MS FE-455, New Orleans, LA 70123.
</P>
<P>(19) Western Area Power Administration, 12155 W. Alameda Parkway, P.O. Box 281213, Lakewood, CO 80228-8213.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel provided for in section 202(e) of the DOE Organization Act, or any DOE attorney designated by the General Counsel as having responsibility for counseling the Department on Freedom of Information Act matters. In the NNSA, the term refers to the NNSA General Counsel, or any attorney designated by the NNSA General Counsel for counseling the NNSA on Freedom of Information Act matters, as provided for in section 3217 of the National Nuclear Security Administration Act, 50 U.S.C. 2407, Pub. L. 106-65. The NNSA General Counsel is not a Secretarial Officer.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Headquarters</I> means all DOE facilities functioning within the Washington metropolitan area except the Office of Naval Reactors.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Non-commercial scientific institution</I> refers to an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis as that term is referenced in § 1004.2(c), and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Office</I> means any administrative or operating unit of the DOE, including those in field offices.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Representative of the news media</I> refers to any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news-media entities are television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase by or subscription by or free distribution to the general public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example, the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media shall be considered to be news-media entities. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news-media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; DOE may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Review</I> refers to the process of examining documents located in response to a commercial use request (see paragraph (c) of this section) to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted to be withheld. It also includes processing any documents for disclosure, <I>e.g.,</I> doing all that is necessary to excise them and otherwise prepare them for release. Review does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Search</I> includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents. The DOE will search for material in the most efficient and least expensive manner in order to minimize cost for both DOE and the requester. For example, DOE will not engage in line-by-line search when merely duplicating an entire document would prove the less expensive and quicker method of complying with a request. “Search” will be distinguished, moreover, from “review” of material in order to determine whether the material is exempt from disclosure. Searches may be done manually or by computer using existing programming.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Secretarial Officer</I> means the Under Secretary; Under Secretary for Science; Administrator, Energy Information Administration; Administrator, National Nuclear Security Administration; Assistant Secretary for Congressional and Intergovernmental Affairs; Assistant Secretary for Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy; Assistant Secretary for Environmental Management; Assistant Secretary for Fossil Energy; Assistant Secretary for Policy and International Affairs; Assistant Secretary for Nuclear Energy; Chief Financial Officer; Chief Health, Safety and Security Officer; Chief Human Capital Officer; Chief Information Officer; Director, Advanced Research Projects Agency—Energy,Director, Office of Indian Energy Policy and Programs, and Director, Loan Programs Office, Director, Office of Economic Impact and Diversity; Director, Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability; Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals; Director, Office of Legacy Management; Director, Office of Management; Director, Office of Public Affairs; Director, Office of Science; General Counsel; Inspector General; and Senior Intelligence Officer.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Statute specifically providing for setting the level of fees for particular types of records,</I> at 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(vi), means any statute that specifically requires a government agency, such as the Government Printing Office (GPO) or the National Technical Information Service (NTIS), to set the level of fees for particular types of records, in order to:
</P>
<P>(1) Serve both the general public and private sector organizations by conveniently making available government information;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that groups and individuals pay the cost of publications and other services which are for their special use so that these costs are not borne by the general taxpaying public;
</P>
<P>(3) Operate an information dissemination activity on a self-sustaining basis to the maximum extent possible; or
</P>
<P>(4) Return revenue to the Treasury for defraying, wholly or in part, appropriated funds used to pay the cost of disseminating government information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 68734, Nov. 28, 2006; 79 FR 22857, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94919, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.3   Public inspection in an electronic format and policy on contractor records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE will maintain, for public inspection in an electronic format, the materials which are required by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) to be made available for public inspection and copying. An electronic public reading room can be accessed via <I>www.energy.gov</I> and <I>nnsa.energy.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contractor records.</I> (1) When a contract with DOE provides that any records acquired or generated by the contractor in its performance of the contract shall be the property of the Government, DOE will make available to the public such records that are in the possession of the Government or the contractor, unless the records are exempt from public disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, records owned by the Government under contract that contain information or technical data having commercial value as defined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section or information for which the contractor claims a privilege recognized under Federal or State law shall be made available only when they are in the possession of the Government and not otherwise exempt under 5 U.S.C. 552(b).
</P>
<P>(3) The policies stated in this paragraph: 
</P>
<P>(i) Do not affect or alter contractors' obligations to provide to DOE upon request any records that DOE owns under contract, or DOE's rights under contract to obtain any contractor records and to determine their disposition, including public dissemination; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Will be applied by DOE to maximize public disclosure of records that pertain to concerns about the environment, public health or safety, or employee grievances. 
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, “technical data and information having commercial value” means technical data and related commercial or financial information which is generated or acquired by a contractor and possessed by that contractor, and whose disclosure the contractor certifies to DOE would cause competitive harm to the commercial value or use of the information or data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 63884, Dec. 12, 1994; 79 FR 22858, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94919, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.4   Elements of a request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Addressed to the FOIA Officer.</I> A request for a record of DOE which is not available for public inspection in an electronic format, as described in § 1004.3, shall be: Addressed to the Headquarters or appropriate field FOIA Officer at DOE at a location listed in § 1004.2(h), and both the envelope and the letter shall be clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Request;” or submitted via facsimile or electronically, on an appropriate agency Web site. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a request will be considered to be received by DOE for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6) and the 20-day response period will start upon actual receipt by the appropriate FOIA Officer, or not later than ten days after receipt by a designated FOIA Officer at any location in § 1004.2(h). Requests delivered after regular business hours are considered received on the next regular business day.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request must be in writing and for reasonably described records.</I> A request for access to records must be submitted in writing and must reasonably describe the records requested to enable DOE personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. Where possible, specific information regarding dates, titles, file designations, and other information which may help identify the records should be supplied by the requester, including the names and titles of any DOE officers or employees who have been contacted regarding the request prior to the submission of a written request. If the request relates to a matter in pending litigation, the court and its location should be identified to aid in locating the documents. If the records are known to be in a particular office of the DOE, the request should identify that office. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Categorical requests.</I> (1) Must meet reasonably described records requirement. A request for all records falling within a reasonably specific and well-defined category shall be regarded as conforming to the statutory requirement that records be reasonably described if DOE personnel can reasonably determine which particular records are sought in the request. The request must enable the DOE to identify and locate the records sought by a process that is not unreasonably burdensome or disruptive of DOE operations. The FOIA Officer may take into consideration problems of search which are associated with the files of an individual office within the Department and determine that a request is not one for reasonably described documents as it pertains to that office. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assistance in reformulating a non-conforming request.</I> If a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the DOE response will specify the reasons why the request failed to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section and will invite the requester to confer with knowledgeable DOE personnel in an attempt to restate the request or reduce the request to manageable proportions by reformulation or by agreeing on an orderly procedure for the production of the records. If DOE responds that additional information is needed from the requester to render records reasonably described, any reformulated request submitted by the requester will be treated as an initial request for purposes of calculating the time for DOE response.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonexistent records.</I> (1) 5 U.S.C. 552 does not require the compilation or creation of a record for the purpose of satisfying a request for records. 
</P>
<P>(2) 5 U.S.C. 552 does not require the DOE to honor a request for a record not yet in existence, even where such a document may be expected to come into existence at a later time. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a requested record is known to have been destroyed or otherwise disposed of, or if no such record is known to exist, the requester will be so notified. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Assurance of willingness to pay fees.</I> A request shall include (1) an assurance to pay whatever fees will be assessed in accordance with § 1004.9, (2) an assurance to pay those fees not exceeding some specified dollar amount, or (3) a request for a waiver or reduction of fees. No request will be deemed to have been received until the DOE has received some valid assurance of willingness to bear fees anticipated to be associated with the processing of the request or a specific request of a waiver or reduction of fees. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requests for records or information of other agencies.</I> Some of the records in the files of the DOE have been obtained from other Federal agencies or contain information obtained from other Federal agencies. 
</P>
<P>(1) Where a document originated in another Federal agency, the Authorizing Official will refer the request to the originating agency and so inform the requester, unless the originator agrees to direct release by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for DOE records containing information received from another agency, or records prepared jointly by DOE and other agencies, will be treated as requests for DOE records except that the Authorizing Official will coordinate with the appropriate official of the other agency. The notice of determination to the requester, in the event part or all of the record is recommended for denial by the other agency, will cite the other agency Denying Official as well as the appropriate DOE Denying Official if a denial by DOE is also involved. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 79 FR 22858, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94919, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.5   Processing requests for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FOIA Officers will be responsible for processing requests for records submitted pursuant to this part. Upon receiving such a request, the FOIA Officer will, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, ascertain which Authorizing Official has responsibility for, custody of, or concern with the records requested. The FOIA Officer will review the request, consulting with the Authorizing Official where appropriate, to determine its compliance with § 1004.4. Where a request complies with § 1004.4, the FOIA Officer will acknowledge receipt of the request to the requester and forward the request to the Authorizing Official for action.
</P>
<P>(b) The Authorizing Official will promptly identify and review the records encompassed by the request. The Authorizing Official or FOIA Officer will prepare a written response—
</P>
<P>(1) Granting the request;
</P>
<P>(2) Denying the request;
</P>
<P>(3) Granting/denying it in part;
</P>
<P>(4) Replying with a response stating that the request has been referred to another agency under § 1004.4(f) or § 1004.6(e); or
</P>
<P>(5) Informing the requester that responsive records cannot be located or do not exist. The written response shall also notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the DOE FOIA Public Liaison(s) or the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a request involves records that are in the custody of or are the concern of more than one Authorizing Official, the FOIA Officer will identify all concerned Authorizing Officials that can reasonably be expected to have custody of the requested records. Upon identification of the appropriate Authorizing Officials, the FOIA Officer will forward them a copy of the request and a request for action. The Authorizing Officials will prepare a DOE response to the requester consistent with paragraph (b) of this section. The response will identify the Authorizing Official having responsibility for the determination to release or deny records.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for processing requests.</I> (1) Action pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section will be taken within 20 days of a request for DOE records being received (“received” is defined in § 1004.4(a)), except that,
</P>
<P>(i) One request can be made to the requester for information and the DOE can toll the 20-day response period while it waits for the requester's response;
</P>
<P>(ii) If necessary to clarify with the requester issues regarding fee assessment and the DOE can toll the 20-day response period; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If unusual circumstances require an extension of time before a decision on a request can be reached and the person requesting records is promptly informed in writing by the Authorizing Official or FOIA Officer of the reasons for such extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched, then the Authorizing Official or FOIA Officer may take an extension not to exceed ten days. In cases where the Authorizing Official determines that unusual circumstances exist, the requester shall be notified in writing of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the DOE FOIA Public Liaison(s) or the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section and § 1004.8(d), the term “unusual circumstances” may include but is not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the offices processing the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The need to search for, collect and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are responsive to a single request; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or among two or more components of the Department having substantial subject matter interest therein.
</P>
<P>(3) The requester must be promptly notified in writing of the extension, the reasons for the extension, and the date on which a determination is expected to be made.
</P>
<P>(4) If no determination has been made at the end of the 20-day period, or the last extension thereof, the requester may deem his administrative remedies to have been exhausted, giving rise to a right of review in a district court of the United States as specified in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). When no determination can be made within the applicable time limit, the responsible Authorizing Official or FOIA Officer will nevertheless continue to process the request. If DOE is unable to provide a response within the statutory period, the Authorizing Official or FOIA Officer will inform the requester of the reason for the delay; the date on which a determination may be expected to be made; and the requester's right to seek remedy through the courts, but will ask the requester to forego such action until a determination is made.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in this part shall preclude the Authorizing Official or FOIA Officer and a requester from agreeing to an extension of time for the initial determination on a request. Any such agreement will be confirmed in writing and will clearly specify the total time agreed upon.
</P>
<P>(6) Expedited processing. Generally, the DOE will respond to requests in the order of receipt. Requests will be processed out of order and processed as soon as practicable when it is determined, based upon information supplied by the requester or otherwise known to the DOE, that a compelling need exists to provide the records in an expeditious manner. The FOIA states that a compelling need exists when failure to obtain records expeditiously could reasonably be expected to pose a threat to the life or physical safety of an individual or, when a request is submitted by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information and there is an urgency to inform the public about actual or alleged Federal Government activity.
</P>
<P>(7) A determination to grant or deny a request for expedited processing will be made by the appropriate FOIA Officer within ten days after receipt of the request. The requester will be notified of the determination and informed that any denial may be appealed within 90 calendar days to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 79 FR 22858, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94920, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.6   Requests for classified records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All requests for classified records will be subject to the provisions of this part with the special qualifications noted below.
</P>
<P>(b) All requests for records made in accordance with this part, except those requests for access to classified records which are made specifically pursuant to the mandatory review provisions of Executive Order 13526 and § 1045 or any successor thereto, may be automatically considered a FOIA Act request.
</P>
<P>(c) Concurrence of the Director of Classification is required on all responses involving the denial of classified information. The Director of Classification will be informed of the request by either the FOIA Officer or the Authorizing Official to whom the action is assigned, and will advise the office originating the records, or having responsibility for the records, and consult with such office or offices prior to making a determination under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The written notice of a determination to deny records, or portions of records, which contain both classified material and other exempt material, will be concurred in by the Director of Classification who will be the Denying Official for the classified portion of such records in accordance with §§ 1004.5(c) and 1004.7(b)(2). If other DOE officials or appropriate officials of other agencies are responsible for denying any portion of the record, their names and titles or positions will be listed in the notice of denial in accordance with §§ 1004.5(c) and 1004.7(b)(2) and it will be clearly indicated what portion or portions they were responsible for denying.
</P>
<P>(e) Requests for DOE records containing classified information received from another agency, and requests for classified documents originating in another agency, will be coordinated with or referred to the other agency consistent with the provisions of § 1004.4(f). Coordination or referral of information or documents subject to this section will be effected by the Director of Classification (in consultation with the Authorizing Official) with the appropriate official of the other agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 79 FR 22858, Apr. 25, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.7   Responses by authorizing officials: Form and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of grant.</I> Records requested pursuant to § 1004.4 will be made available promptly, when they are identified and determined to be nonexempt under this Regulation, the FOIA, and where the applicable fees are $15 or less or where it has been determined that the payment of applicable fees should be waived. Where the applicable fees exceed $15, the records may be made available before all charges are paid. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of denial.</I> A reply denying a request for a record will be in writing. It will be signed by a FOIA Officer or the Denying Official pursuant to § 1004.5 (b) or (c) and will include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reason for denial.</I> A statement of the reason for denial, containing a reference to the specific exemption under the FOIA authorizing the withholding of the record and a brief explanation of how the exemption applies to the record withheld, and a statement of why a discretionary release is not appropriate. The amount of information deleted and the applicable exemption will be indicated on the released portion of the record, unless the indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Persons responsible for denial.</I> A statement setting forth the name and the title or position of each Denying Official and identifying the portion of the denial for which each Denying Official is responsible. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Segregation of nonexempt material.</I> A statement or notation addressing the issue of whether there is any segregable nonexempt material in the documents or portions thereof identified as being denied. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Adequacy of search.</I> Although a determination that no such record is known to exist is not a denial, the requester will be informed that a challenge may be made to the adequacy of the search by appealing within 90 calendar days to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Administrative appeal.</I> A statement that the determination to deny documents made within the statutory time period may be appealed within 90 calendar days to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 79 FR 22858, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94920, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.8   Appeal of initial denials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal to Office of Hearings and Appeals.</I> When the Authorizing or Denying Official or FOIA Officer has denied a request for records in whole or in part or has responded that there are no documents responsive to the request consistent with § 1004.4(d), or when the FOIA Officer has denied a request for expedited processing consistent with § 1004.5(d) or for waiver of fees consistent with § 1004.9, the requester may, within 90 calendar days of its receipt, appeal the determination to the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elements of appeal.</I> The appeal must be in writing, addressed to the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals, Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-1615 and both the envelope and letter must be clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.” The appeal may be delivered by U.S Mail, commercial delivery service, or by electronic mail to <I>OHA.Filings@hq.doe.gov.</I> The appeal must contain a concise statement of the grounds upon which it is brought and a description of the relief sought. It should also include a discussion of all relevant authorities, including, but not limited to, DOE (and predecessor agencies) rulings, regulations, interpretations and decisions on appeals, and any judicial determinations being relied upon to support the appeal. A copy of the letter containing the determination which is being appealed must be submitted with the appeal. The appeal should also provide a telephone number, electronic mail address, or other means for communicating with the requester during business hours.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Receipt of appeal.</I> An appeal will be considered to be received for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6) upon receipt by the Appeal Authority. Documents delivered after the regular business hours of the Office of Hearings and Appeals are considered received on the next regular business day.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Action within 20 days.</I> (1) The Appeal Authority will act upon the appeal within 20 days of its receipt, except that if unusual circumstances (as defined in § 1004.5(d)(2)) require an extension of time before a decision on a request can be reached, the Appeal Authority may extend the time for final action for an additional ten days less the number of days of any statutory extension which may have been taken by the Authorizing Official during the period of initial determination.
</P>
<P>(2) The requester must be promptly notified in writing of the extension, setting forth the reasons for the extension, and the date on which a determination is expected to be issued. Notification will be sent by electronic mail, when possible, or by letter.
</P>
<P>(3) If no determination on the appeal has been issued at the end of the 20-day period or the last extension thereof, the requester may consider his administrative remedies to be exhausted and seek a review in a district court of the United States as specified in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). When no determination can be issued within the applicable time limit, the appeal will nevertheless continue to be processed; on expiration of the time limit the requester will be informed of the reason for the delay, of the date on which a determination may be expected to be issued, and of his right to seek judicial review in the United States district court in the district in which he resides or has his principal place of business, the district in which the records are situated, or the District of Columbia. The requester may be asked to forego judicial review until determination of the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this part will preclude the Appeal Authority and a requester from agreeing to an extension of time for the decision on an appeal. Any such agreement will be confirmed in writing by the Appeal Authority and will clearly specify the total time agreed upon for the appeal decision. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form of action on appeal.</I> The Appeal Authority's action on an appeal will be in writing and will set forth the reason for the decision. It will also contain a statement that it constitutes final agency action on the request and that judicial review will be available either in the district in which the requester resides or has a principal place of business, the district in which the records are situated, or in the District of Columbia. Documents determined by the Appeal Authority to be documents subject to release will be made promptly available to the requester upon payment of any applicable fees.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Classified records and records covered by section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act.</I> The Secretary of Energy or his or her designee will make the final determination concerning appeals involving the denial of requests for classified information or the denial of requests for information falling within the scope of section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2168).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appeal of the denial of expedited processing.</I> Any appeal of the determination to deny a request for expedited processing will be acted on expeditiously.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 79 FR 22858, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94920, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.9   Fees for providing records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees to be charged.</I> DOE may charge fees that recoup the full allowable direct costs incurred. DOE will use the most efficient and least costly methods to comply with requests for documents made under FOIA. DOE may contract with private sector services to locate, reproduce and disseminate records in response to FOIA requests when that is the most efficient and least costly method. When doing so, however, DOE will ensure that the ultimate cost to the requester is no greater than it would be if DOE itself had performed these tasks. In no case will DOE contract out responsibilities which FOIA provides that only the agency may discharge, such as determining the applicability of an exemption, or determining whether to waive or reduce fees, which are determinations by Authorizing Officials or FOIA Officers. Where DOE can identify documents that are responsive to a request and are maintained for public distribution by other agencies such as the National Technical Information Service and the Government Publishing Office, the FOIA Officer will inform requesters of the procedures to obtain records from those sources.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Manual searches for records.</I> Whenever feasible, the DOE will charge for manual searches for records at the salary rate(s) (i.e. basic pay plus 16 percent) of the employee(s) making the search.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Computer searches for records.</I> DOE will charge at the actual direct cost of providing the service.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review of records.</I> The DOE will charge requesters who are seeking documents for commercial use for time spent reviewing records to determine whether they are exempt from mandatory disclosure. Charges will be assessed only for the initial review (i.e., the review undertaken the first time the DOE analyzes the applicability of a specific exemption to a particular record or portion of a record. The DOE will not charge for review at the administrative appeal level of an exemption already applied. However, records or portions of records withheld in full under an exemption which is subsequently determined not to apply may be reviewed again to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered. The costs for such a subsequent review would be properly assessable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Duplication of records.</I> The DOE will make a per-page charge for paper copy reproduction of documents. At present, the charge for paper to paper copies will be ten cents per page and the charge for microform to paper copies will be ten cents per page. For computer generated copies, such as tapes or printouts, the DOE will charge the actual cost, including operator time, for production of the tape or printout. For other methods of reproduction or duplication, we will charge the actual direct costs of producing the document(s).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other charges.</I> It shall be noted that complying with requests for special services such as those listed below is entirely at the discretion of this agency. Neither the FOIA nor its fee structure cover these kinds of services. The DOE will recover the full direct costs of providing services such as those enumerated below to the extent that we elect to provide them:
</P>
<P>(i) Certifying that records are true copies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Sending records by special methods such as express mail, etc.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Restrictions on assessing fees.</I> (i) With the exception of requesters seeking documents for a commercial use pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(iv), DOE will provide the first 100 pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time without charge. Moreover, DOE will not charge fees to any requester, including commercial use requesters, if the cost of collecting the fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself. These provisions work together, so that except for commercial use requesters, DOE will not begin to assess fees until after the Department has provided the free search and reproduction. For example, if a request involves two hours and ten minutes of search time and results in 105 pages of documents, DOE will charge for only ten minutes of search time and only five pages of reproduction. If this cost is equal to or less than $15.00, the amount DOE incurs to process a fee collection, no charges would be assessed. For purposes of these restrictions on assessment of fees, the word “pages” refers to paper copies of a standard agency size which will be normally be “8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11” or “11 × 14.” Thus, requesters would not be entitled to 100 microfiche or 100 computer disks, for example. A microfiche containing the equivalent of 100 pages or 100 pages of computer printout, however, might meet the terms of the restriction. Similarly, the term “search time” is based on a <I>manual or electronic search.</I> To apply this term, DOE will calculate the hourly rates of the subject matter expert and/or FOIA analysts conducting the search plus 16 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) When unusual or exceptional circumstances do not apply and time limits specified in FOIA are not met, DOE will not charge any search fees, or duplication fees for educational and non-commercial scientific institution requesters and requesters who are representatives of the news media.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(6)(iv) of this section, DOE will not assess any search fees (or in the case of a requester who is an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research; or a representative of the news media, duplication fees) under this paragraph (a)(6)(iii) if DOE has failed to comply with any time limit under § 1004.5(d).
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) If DOE has determined that unusual circumstances apply (as the term is defined in § 1004.5(d)(2)) and DOE provided a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with § 1004.5(d)(1)(iii), a failure described in paragraph (a)(6)(iii) of this section is excused for an additional 10 days. If DOE fails to comply with the extended time limit, DOE may not assess any search fees (or in the case of a requester described under paragraph (a)(6)(iii) of this section, duplication fees).
</P>
<P>(B) If DOE has determined that unusual circumstances (as that term is defined in § 1004.5(d)(2)) apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, DOE may charge search fees (or in the case of a requester described under paragraph (a)(6)(iii) of this section, duplication fees) if DOE has provided a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with § 1004.5(d)(1)(iii) and DOE has discussed with the requester via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P>(C) If a court has determined that unusual circumstances exist (as that term is defined in § 1004.5(d)(2)), a failure described in paragraph (a)(6)(iv) of this of this section shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notification of charges.</I> If the DOE determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed under this section may amount to more than $25.00, the requester will be informed of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has previously indicated a willingness to pay the amount estimated by the agency. In cases where a requester has been notified that actual or estimated fees may amount to more than $25.00, the request will be deemed not to have been received until the requester has agreed to pay the anticipated total fee. A notice to a requester pursuant to this paragraph will offer the opportunity to confer with DOE personnel in order to reformulate the request to meet his or her needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Waiving or reducing fees.</I> DOE will furnish documents without charge or at reduced charges if disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and disclosure is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. This fee waiver standard thus sets forth two basic requirements, both of which must be satisfied before fees will be waived or reduced. First it must be established that disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government. Second, it must be established that disclosure of the information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. When these requirements are satisfied, based upon information supplied by a requester or otherwise made known to DOE, the waiver or reduction of a FOIA fee will be granted. In determining when fees should be waived or reduced the appropriate FOIA Officer should address the following two criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) That disclosure of the information “is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government.” Factors to be considered in applying this criteria include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) The subject of the request: Whether the subject of the requested records concerns “the operations or activities of the government”;
</P>
<P>(B) The informative value of the information to be disclosed: Whether the disclosure is “likely to contribute” to an understanding of government operations or activities;
</P>
<P>(C) The contribution to an understanding by the general public of the subject likely to result from disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(D) The significance of the contribution to public understanding: Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute “significantly” to public understanding of government operations or activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) If disclosure of the information “is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.” Factors to be considered in applying this criteria include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) The existence and magnitude of a commercial interest: Whether the requester has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure; and, if so
</P>
<P>(B) The primary interest in disclosure: Whether the magnitude of the identified commercial interest of the requester is sufficiently large, in comparison with the public interest in disclosure, that disclosure is “primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees to be charged—categories of requesters.</I> There are four categories of FOIA requesters: Commercial use requesters; educational and non-commercial scientific institutions; representatives of the news media; and all other requesters. The FOIA Officers will make determinations regarding categories of requesters as defined at § 1004.2. The Headquarters FOIA Officers will assist field FOIA Officers in categorizing requesters, and will resolve conflicting categorizations. FOIA prescribes specific levels of fees for each of these categories:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use requesters.</I> When DOE receives a request for documents which appears to be for commercial use, charges will be assessed to recover the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought. Commercial use requesters are not entitled to two hours of free search time nor 100 free pages of reproduction of documents. DOE will recover the cost of searching for and reviewing records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational and non-commercial scientific institution requesters.</I> The DOE will provide documents to requesters in this category for the cost of reproduction only, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. To be eligible for inclusion in this category, requesters must show that the request is being made as authorized by and under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use, but are sought in furtherance of scholarly (if the request is from an educational institution) or scientific (if the request is from a non-commercial scientific institution) research.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requesters who are representatives of the news media.</I> The DOE will provide documents to requesters in this category for the cost of reproduction only, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. To be eligible for inclusion in this category, a requester must meet the criteria in § 1004.2(m), and his or her request must not be made for a commercial use. With respect to this class of requesters, a request for records supporting the news dissemination function of the requester will not be considered to be a request for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>All other requesters.</I> The DOE will charge requesters who do not fall into any of the above categories fees which recover the full reasonable direct cost of searching for and reproducing records that are responsive to the request, except that the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first two hours of search time will be furnished without charge. Moreover, requests from individuals for records about themselves filed in DOE systems of records will continue to be processed under the fee provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Charging interest—notice and rate.</I> Interest will be charged to those requesters who fail to pay fees. DOE will begin to assess interest charges on the amount billed on the 31st calendar day following the day on which the billing was sent to the requester. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in section 3717 of Title 31 U.S.C. and will accrue from the date of the billing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Charges for unsuccessful search.</I> DOE may assess charges for time spent searching even if the search fails to identify responsive records or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure. If DOE estimates that search charges are likely to exceed $25, it will notify the requester of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has indicated in advance his willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. Such a notice will offer the requester the opportunity to confer with agency personnel in order to reformulate the request to reduce the cost of the request.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> A requester may not file multiple requests each seeking portions of a document or documents, solely to avoid payment of fees. When the DOE reasonably believes that a requester or, a group of requesters acting in concert, is attempting to break a request down into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, the DOE will aggregate any such requests and charge the appropriate fees. The DOE may consider the time period in which the requests have been made in its determination to aggregate the related requests. In no case will DOE aggregate multiple requests on unrelated subjects from one requester.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Advance payments.</I> Requesters are not required to make an advance payment (i.e., payment before action is commenced or continued on a request) unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The DOE estimates or determines that allowable charges that a requester may be required to pay are likely to exceed $250.00. In such cases, the DOE will notify the requester of the likely cost and obtain a satisfactory assurance of full payment where the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees, or require an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case of requesters with no history of payment.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A requester has previously failed to pay a fee in a timely fashion (<I>i.e.,</I> within 30 calendar days of the date of the billing). DOE will require the requester to pay the full amount delinquent plus any applicable interest as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, or demonstrate that he or she has, in fact, paid the delinquent fee; and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated current fee before we begin to process a new request or a pending request from that requester.
</P>
<P>(B) When DOE acts under paragraphs (b)(8) (i) or (ii) of this section, the administrative time limits prescribed in section (a)(6) of FOIA (<I>i.e.,</I> 20 days from receipt of initial requests and 20 days from receipt of appeals from initial denials, plus permissible extensions of these time limits) will begin only after DOE has received fee payments described.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365).</I> The DOE will use the authorities of the Debt Collection Act, including disclosure to consumer reporting agencies and the use of collection agencies, where appropriate, to encourage payment of fees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 79 FR 22858, 22859, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94921, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.10   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) 5 U.S.C. 552 exempts from all of its publication and disclosure requirements nine categories of records which are described in paragraph (b) of that section. These categories include such matters as national defense and foreign policy information; investigatory records; internal procedures and communications; materials exempted from disclosure by other statutes; confidential, commercial, and financial information; and matters involving personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(b) Specifically, the exemptions in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) will be applied consistent with § 1004.1 of these regulations to matters that are:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of the national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order;
</P>
<P>(2) Related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of an agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552(b)), provided that such statute-
</P>
<P>(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld; for example Restricted Data and Formerly Restricted Data under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>) are covered by this exemption; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If enacted after the date of enactment of the OPEN FOIA Act of 2009, specifically cites to Exemption 3 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(5) Inter-agency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the agency, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested;
</P>
<P>(6) Personnel and medical files and similar files the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(7) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records or information (i) could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings, (ii) would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication, (iii) could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, (iv) could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution which furnished information on a confidential basis, and, in the case of a record or information compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, information furnished by a confidential source, (v) would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law, or (vi) could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual;
</P>
<P>(8) Contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or
</P>
<P>(9) Geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall withhold information under this section only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The agency reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure is prohibited by law. DOE shall consider whether partial disclosure of information is possible whenever the agency determines that a full disclosure of a requested record is not possible and take reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release nonexempt information. Nothing in this paragraph requires disclosure of information that is otherwise prohibited from disclosure by law, or otherwise exempted from disclosure by paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 79 FR 22859, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94922, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.11   Handling information of a private business, foreign government, or an international organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever a document submitted to DOE contains information which may be exempt from public disclosure, it will be handled in accordance with the procedures in this section. While DOE is responsible for making the final determination with regard to the disclosure or nondisclosure of information contained in requested documents, DOE will consider the submitter's views (as that term is defined in this section) in making its determination. Nothing in this section will preclude the submission of a submitter's views at the time of the submission of the document to which the views relate, or at any other time.
</P>
<P>(b) When the DOE may determine, in the course of responding to a FOIA request, not to release information submitted to the DOE (as described in paragraph (a) of this section, and contained in a requested document) without seeking any or further submitter's views, no notice will be given the submitter. 
</P>
<P>(c) When the DOE, in the course of responding to a FOIA request, cannot make the determination described in paragraph (b) of this section without having for consideration the submitter's views, the submitter shall be promptly notified and provided an opportunity to submit his views on whether information contained in the requested document (1) is exempt from the mandatory public disclosure requirements of the FOIA Act, (2) contains information referred to in 18 U.S.C. 1905, or (3) is otherwise exempt by law from public disclosure. The DOE will make its own determinations as to whether any information is exempt from disclosure. Notice of a determination by the DOE that a claim of exemption made pursuant to this paragraph is being denied will be given to a person making such a claim no less than seven (7) calendar days prior to intended public disclosure of the information in question. For purposes of this section, notice is deemed to be given when mailed to the submitter at the submitter's last known address. 
</P>
<P>(d) When the DOE, in the course of responding to a FOIA request, cannot make the determination described in paragraph (b) of this section and, without recourse to paragraph (c) of this section, previously has received the submitter's views, the DOE will consider such submitter's views and will not be required to obtain additional submitter's views under the procedure described in paragraph (c) of this section. The DOE will make its own determination with regard to any claim that information be exempted from disclosure. Notice of the DOE's determination to deny a claim of exemption made pursuant to this paragraph will be given to a person making such a claim no less than seven (7) calendar days prior to its intended public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, DOE offices may require a person submitting documents containing information that may be exempt by law from mandatory disclosure to (1) submit copies of each document from which information claimed to be confidential has been deleted or (2) require that the submitter's views be otherwise made known at the time of the submission. Notice of a determination by the DOE that a claim of exemption is being denied will be given to a person making such a claim no less than seven (7) calendar days prior to intended public disclosure of the information in question. For purposes of this section, notice is deemed to be given when mailed to the submitter at the submitter's last known address. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Criteria for determining the applicability of 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).</I> Subject to subsequent decisions of the Appeal Authority, criteria to be applied in determining whether information is exempt from mandatory disclosure pursuant to Exemption 4 of the Freedom of Information Act include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the information has been held in confidence by the person to whom it pertains; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the information is of a type customarily held in confidence by the person to whom it pertains and whether there is a reasonable basis therefore; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the information was transmitted to and received by the Department in confidence; 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the information is available in public sources; 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether disclosure of the information is likely to impair the Government's ability to obtain similar information in the future; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Whether disclosure of the information is likely to cause substantial harm to the competitive position of the person from whom the information was obtained. 
</P>
<P>(g) When DOE, in the course of responding to a Freedom of Information Act request, determines that information exempt from the mandatory public disclosure requirements of the Freedom of Information Act is to be released in accordance with § 1004.1, DOE will notify the submitter of the intended discretionary release no less than seven (7) calendar days prior to the intended public disclosure of the information in question.
</P>
<P>(h) As used in this section, the term <I>submitter's views</I> means, with regard to a document submitted to the DOE, an item-by-item indication, with accompanying explanation, addressing whether the submitter considers the information contained in the document to be exempt from the mandatory public disclosure requirements of the Freedom of Information Act, to be information referred to in 18 U.S.C. 1905, or to be otherwise exempt by law from mandatory public disclosure. The accompanying explanation shall specify the justification for nondisclosure of any information under consideration. If the submitter states that the information comes within the exemption in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) for trade secrets and commercial or financial information, the submitter shall include a statement specifying why such information is privileged or confidential and, where appropriate, shall address the criteria in paragraph (f) of this section excluding paragraph (f)(5). In all cases, the submitter shall address the question of whether or not discretionary disclosure would be in the public interest. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 15661, May 3, 1988, as amended at 79 FR 22858, 22859, Apr. 25, 2014; 81 FR 94922, Dec. 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.12   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise noted, in computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this part, the day of the event from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included; the last day of the period so computed is to be included; and Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays are excepted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.3.0.22.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.13   Critical electric infrastructure information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing Procedures and guidance.</I> Information regarding critical electric infrastructure information (CEII) filing procedures and further guidance for submitters and requesters is available on the website of the United States Department of Energy's Office of Electricity at <I>https://www.energy.gov/oe/office-electricity.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This part sets forth the regulations of the Department of Energy (DOE) that implement section 215A(d) of the Federal Power Act (FPA), codified at 16 U.S.C. 824o-1(d). The regulations in this part set forth the DOE procedures for the designation, sharing, and protection of CEII. This section applies to anyone who provides CEII to DOE or who receives CEII from DOE, including DOE employees, DOE contractors, and agents of DOE or of other Federal agencies, as well as individuals or organizations providing CEII or submitting a request for CEII designation to DOE or who have requested or have been permitted access to CEII by DOE.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Bulk-Power System</I> means the facilities and control systems necessary for operating an interconnected electric energy transmission network (and any portion thereof), and electric energy from generation facilities needed to maintain transmission system reliability. The term does not include facilities used in the local distribution of electric energy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confidential Business Information</I> means commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner and that is provided to the government as part of a claimed CEII submission.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Critical Electric Infrastructure</I> means a system or asset of the bulk-power system, whether physical or virtual, the incapacity or destruction of which would negatively affect national security, economic security, public health or safety, or any combination of such matters.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Critical Electric Infrastructure Information (CEII)</I> is defined at FPA section 215(a)(3), with designation criteria codified at 18 CFR 388.113(c). CEII means information related to critical electric infrastructure, or proposed critical electrical infrastructure, generated by or provided to FERC or another Federal agency, other than classified national security information, that is designated as CEII by FERC or the Secretary pursuant to section 215A(d) of the FPA. Such term includes information that qualifies as critical energy infrastructure information under FERC's regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>CEII Coordinator</I> means the Assistant Secretary or Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary of the DOE Office of Electricity, who shall coordinate and oversee the implementation of DOE's program for CEII-designation authority under section 215A of the FPA, assist all DOE Offices with respect to requests for CEII designation in determining whether particular information fits within the definition of CEII, and manage DOE's protection, storage, and sharing of CEII materials and oversight of the development of CEII international sharing protocols. The CEII Coordinator may delegate the daily implementation of the CEII Coordinator function as described in this rule, in whole or in part, to an appropriate DOE Office of Electricity official, to an Assistant Secretary in DOE, and to the Administrator of the Bonneville Power Administration, the Energy Information Administration, the Southeastern Power Administration, the Southwestern Power Administration, or the Western Area Power Administration (“Coordinator's designee”).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Department</I> means the United States Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Department of Energy (DOE)</I> means all organizational entities that are part of the Executive Department created by Title II of the DOE Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>). For purposes of this Part, the definition of DOE specifically excludes the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, which has promulgated its own CEII procedures at 18 CFR 388.113.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>DOE Office</I> means any administrative or operating unit of DOE with authority at or above the level of Assistant Secretary, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary, or Administrator.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority to designate information as CEII.</I> The Secretary has the authority to designate information as CEII, in accordance with FPA section 215A. The Secretary may delegate the authority to designate information as CEII to any DOE Office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Coordination among DOE Office designators.</I> The DOE CEII Coordinator shall be the primary point of contact for the submission of all requests for designation of information as CEII by DOE, as well as for requests made to DOE by organizations or individuals for information that may be protected, in whole or in part, as CEII.
</P>
<P>(1) The CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Receive and review all incoming requests for CEII as defined in paragraph (c) of this section and in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Make initial determinations as to whether particular information fits within the definition of CEII found in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Assist any DOE Offices with delegated CEII designation authority to make determinations as to whether a particular requester's need for and ability and willingness to protect CEII warrants limited disclosure of the information to the requester;
</P>
<P>(iv) Establish reasonable conditions for considering requests for release of CEII-designated material in accordance with paragraphs (g)(5) and (6) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) Make the Department's final determination regarding a request by any non-federal entity (organization or individual) for CEII-designated materials, in consultation with the appropriate DOE Office(s);
</P>
<P>(vi) Notify a CEII submitter of a request for such information by a non-federal entity;
</P>
<P>(vii) Convene a conference call between an affected DOE Office and a CEII submitter to discuss concerns related to a non-federal entity requesting release of CEII within no more than five (5) business days after the CEII submitter is notified of the request, providing the CEII submitter with a copy of the request prior to the conference call; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Perform oversight of the DOE CEII program and establish guidance for the treatment, handling, and storage of all CEII materials in the Department in accordance with paragraph (g)(6) of this section, including those related to CEII international sharing protocols.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE Offices with delegated authority to designate CEII in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, as well as any CEII Coordinator designee(s), will meet regularly, at the discretion of the CEII Coordinator, but not less than once per year, to ensure coordinated implementation of DOE's CEII designation authority.
</P>
<P>(3) DOE, at the discretion of the CEII Coordinator, shall meet with representatives from the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission semi-annually (or more often, as necessary) to ensure that both agencies are applying CEII designation criteria consistently and to share best practices.
</P>
<P>(4) DOE, at the discretion of the CEII Coordinator, shall meet at least once per year with representatives from the Department of Commerce including the National Telecommunications and Information Administration, the Department of Homeland Security, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, and other Federal agencies, as needed, to ensure shared understanding and consistent communication among Federal agencies that collect, maintain, and potentially release information that DOE may consider designating as CEII as defined in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>CEII FOIA Exemption.</I> All information designated by DOE as CEII is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3) and shall not be made available by any Federal, state, political subdivision, or tribal authority pursuant to any Federal, State, political subdivision, or tribal law requiring public disclosure of information or records pursuant to section 215A(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Criteria and procedures for designating CEII</I>—(1) <I>Criteria.</I> The CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee shall apply the definition of CEII as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, consistent with FPA section 215A(a)(3), and with designation criteria codified at 18 CFR 388.113(c), to information sought by DOE and to information submitted to DOE with a request for designation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requesting CEII designation of information submitted to DOE.</I> Any person or entity requesting that information submitted to DOE be designated as CEII must submit such request to the DOE CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee according to the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) The submitter must clearly label the cover page and pages or portions of the information for which CEII treatment is requested in bold, capital lettering, indicating that it contains CEII, as appropriate, and marked “CEII—CRITICAL ELECTRIC INFRASTRUCTURE INFORMATION—DO NOT RELEASE.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The submitter must clearly label the cover page and pages or portions of information that it considers Confidential Business Information in bold, capital lettering, indicating that it contains Confidential Business Information, as appropriate, and marked “CONFIDENTIAL BUSINESS INFORMATION—DO NOT RELEASE.” If combined with a CEII label, the information should be marked “CEII—CRITICAL ELECTRIC INFRASTRUCTURE INFORMATION and CONFIDENTIAL BUSINESS INFORMATION—DO NOT RELEASE.”
</P>
<P>(iii) The submitter must also clearly indicate the DOE Office(s) from which the CEII designation is being requested in bold, capital lettering on the cover page.
</P>
<P>(iv) The submitter must also segregate those portions of the information that contain CEII (or information that reasonably could be expected to lead to the disclosure of the CEII) wherever feasible.
</P>
<P>(v) The submitter must also label and segregate information that it classifies as Confidential Business Information under the definition at paragraph (c)(2) of this section with the mark “CONFIDENTIAL BUSINESS INFORMATION—DO NOT RELEASE.” Under separate cover, the submitter may, but is not required to, submit a written justification of why the labeled information meets the definition at paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) The submitter must submit a public version of the information where information designated CEII and information for which CEII designation is requested is redacted or otherwise protected through extraction from the non-CEII to the DOE CEII Coordinator and the Coordinator's designee in an appropriate DOE Office, where feasible. If the entirety of submitted information is CEII, the submitter must indicate that, but no separate public version is required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requesting CEII designation for information generated by DOE.</I> Any DOE employees, DOE contractors, or agents of DOE requesting that information generated by the Department be designated as CEII must submit such request to the DOE CEII Coordinator or the Coordinator's designee in an appropriate DOE Office according to the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) The submitter must clearly label the cover page and pages or portions of the information for which CEII treatment is requested in bold, capital lettering, indicating that it contains CEII, as appropriate, and marked “CEII—CRITICAL ELECTRIC INFRASTRUCTURE INFORMATION—DO NOT RELEASE.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The submitter must also segregate those portions of the information that contain CEII (or information that reasonably could be expected to lead to the disclosure of the CEII) wherever feasible.
</P>
<P>(iii) The submitter must submit a public version of the information where information designated CEII and information for which CEII designation is requested is redacted or otherwise protected through extraction from non-CEII.
</P>
<P>(iv) CEII designation for information generated by DOE, to include all organizational entities that are a part of the Executive Department created by Title II of the DOE Organization Act, may be executed at any time, regardless of when such information was generated, where feasible.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Treatment of Submitted Information.</I> (i) Upon receiving a request for CEII designation of information submitted to DOE, the DOE CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee shall review the submission made in accordance with paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information for which CEII treatment is requested will be maintained by the CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee in DOE's files as non-public unless and until DOE completes its determination that the information is not entitled to CEII treatment. This approach does not mean that DOE has made a determination regarding CEII designation, and should under no circumstances be construed as such. DOE will endeavor to make a determination as soon as practicable. The Department retains the right to make determinations about any request for CEII designation at any time, including the removal of a previously granted CEII designation. At such time that a determination is made that information does not meet the CEII criteria, DOE will follow the procedures for return of information not designated as CEII outlined in paragraph (g)(6)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a requester seeks information for which CEII status has been requested but not designated, or when DOE itself is considering release of such information, DOE will render a decision on designation before responding to the requester or releasing such information. Subsequently, the release of information will be treated in accordance with the procedures established for CEII-designated material, or the return of information not designated as CEII.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Evaluation of CEII designation criteria to inform CEII designation determination.</I> (i) The DOE CEII Coordinator, or a Coordinator's designee, will execute the Department's evaluation as to whether the submitted information or portions of the information meets the definition of CEII, as described at paragraph (c)(2) of this section, with the appropriate DOE Office with delegated CEII designation authority. The DOE Office will designate submitted information as soon as practicable and will inform submitters of the designation date if requested at the time of submission.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>CEII Determination.</I> (i) <I>DOE CEII Coordinator makes CEII designation determination.</I> The Secretary or delegated DOE Office will make a determination regarding CEII designation after considering the information against the criteria for CEII designation. The DOE CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee shall promptly communicate the decision of the Secretary or delegated DOE Office to the submitter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Review of determination.</I> DOE reserves the right to review at any time information designated by DOE as CEII to determine whether the information is properly designated. The designation of information as CEII, or the removal of such designation, must be reviewed when:
</P>
<P>(A) A FOIA request is submitted for the information under § 1004.10; or
</P>
<P>(B) A request is made for reconsideration of the designation or removal of the designation under paragraph (i)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Return of Information not designated as CEII.</I> Because the submitter voluntarily provided the information to DOE, at the request of the submitter, DOE will return or destroy information for which CEII designation was requested but not granted, and will attempt to remove all copies of such information from DOE files, both physical and electronic. DOE shall return or destroy non-CEII consistent with the Federal Records Act, and DOE handling of agency records in accordance with DOE Order O.243.1A, Records Management Program, and related requirements and responsibilities for implementing and maintaining an efficient and economic records management program in accordance with law and regulatory requirements. DOE shall not remove electronic files in the ordinary course of business. If a submitter is required to provide information and DOE denies CEII designation, the submitter may file a request for review under the procedures.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Protection of CEII</I>—(i) <I>Marking of CEII.</I> All information designated by DOE as CEII, whether submitted to or generated by DOE, shall be clearly labeled as such, and shall include the date on which the information was designated as CEII. For information that meets the definition of CEII but cannot be physically labeled, such as electronic information, the information shall be—
</P>
<P>(A) Electronically marked with the words “CEII—CRITICAL ELECTRIC INFRASTRUCTURE INFORMATION—DO NOT RELEASE” in the electronic file name; or
</P>
<P>(B) Transmitted under a Non-Disclosure Agreement or other agreements or arrangements, such as those identified in paragraph (j)(3) of this section, to an electronic system where such information is stored in a secure electronic environment that identifies the stored information as CEII.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Protection and Exemption from Disclosure.</I> All information designated by DOE as CEII is exempt from FOIA and shall not be made available as provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Secure Storage.</I> DOE will store information for which CEII treatment is requested in a secure place in a manner that would prevent unauthorized access (<I>e.g.</I> locked room or file cabinet). Information submitted to DOE in electronic format shall be stored in a secure electronic environment that identifies the stored information as CEII.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Protection of Confidential Business Information</I>—<I>Exemption Determination.</I> DOE will evaluate information claimed as Confidential Business Information if, and at such time as, a valid FOIA request is submitted and the information is otherwise responsive to the request. DOE will conduct the evaluation pursuant to procedures set forth in this part. In its evaluation, DOE will consult any supplementary justification provided by the submitter as described at paragraph (f)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Duration of designation.</I> Designation of information as CEII shall be a five-year period, unless removed or re-designated.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Expiration of designation.</I> (i) The Secretary or delegated DOE Office will determine the duration of designation at the time of designation.
</P>
<P>(ii) A submitter may re-apply for CEII designation no earlier than one year prior to the date of expiration of the initial designation or re-designation in accordance with the application procedures in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary, the DOE CEII Coordinator, or a Coordinator's designee may initiate CEII designation at any time prior to the date of expiration of the initial designation or re-designation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal of designation.</I> The designation of information as CEII may be removed at any time, by the Secretary or the DOE CEII Coordinator in consultation with the DOE Office to which the Secretary has delegated the authority, in whole or in part, upon determination that the unauthorized disclosure of such information could no longer be used to impair the security or reliability of the bulk-power system or distribution facilities or any other form of energy infrastructure. If the CEII designation is to be removed, the submitter and the DOE Office that produced or maintains the CEII will receive electronic notice stating that the CEII designation will be removed at least nine (9) business days before disclosure. In such notice, the DOE CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee will provide the submitter and the DOE Office that produced or maintains the CEII an opportunity (at least nine (9) business days) in which to comment in writing prior to the removal of the designation. The final determination will briefly explain DOE's determination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment of information no longer designated as CEII.</I> If a FOIA request is received for information for which CEII designation has expired or has been removed, DOE will work with the submitter to review whether the information is subject to other FOIA exemptions. DOE will destroy non-CEII consistent with the Federal Records Act, and DOE handling of agency records in accordance with DOE Order O.243.1A, Records Management Program, and related requirements and responsibilities for implementing and maintaining an efficient and economic records management program in accordance with law and regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Review or requests for reconsideration of designation</I>—(1) <I>Request for Reconsideration.</I> (i) Any person who has submitted information and requested such information to be designated as CEII may request reconsideration of a DOE decision not to designate that information as CEII, or to remove an existing CEII designation, on grounds that the information does not meet the required CEII criteria. Within ten (10) business days of notification by DOE of its CEII decision, the person must file a request for reconsideration. The request must be sent to the DOE CEII Coordinator and Coordinator's designee through a secure electronic submission or by mail according to the instructions at 10 CFR 205.12. The request must also be sent to the DOE Office that made the decision at issue and to DOE's Office of General Counsel in Washington, DC, according to the instructions at 10 CFR 205.12. A statement in support of the request for reconsideration must be submitted within twenty (20) business days of the date of the determination. The request and the supporting statement will be considered submitted upon receipt by the Office of the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person who has received a decision denying a request for the release of CEII, in whole or in part, or a decision denying a request to change the designation of CEII, may request reconsideration of that decision. A statement in support of the request for reconsideration must be submitted to the DOE Office of the General Counsel within twenty (20) business days of the date of the determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Secretary or the DOE Office that made the decision at issue will make a determination, in coordination with the DOE CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee, with respect to any request for reconsideration within twenty (20) business days after the receipt of the request and will notify the person submitting the request of the determination and the availability of judicial review.
</P>
<P>(iv) Before seeking judicial review in Federal District Court under section 215A(d)(11) of the FPA, a person who received a determination from DOE concerning a CEII designation must first request reconsideration of that determination.
</P>
<P>(v) A request for reconsideration triggers a stay of the underlying decision, except in instances where voluntary sharing of the disputed information is necessary for law enforcement purposes, to ensure reliable operation or maintenance of electric or energy infrastructure, to maintain infrastructure security, to address potential threats, or to address an urgent need to disseminate the information quickly due to an emergency or other unforeseen circumstance.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Sharing of CEII</I>—(1) <I>Federal Entities.</I> An employee of a Federal entity acting within the scope of his or her Federal employment may obtain CEII directly from DOE without following the procedures outlined in paragraph (k) of this section. DOE will evaluate requests by Federal entities for CEII on a programmatic, fact-specific basis. DOE may share CEII with affected agencies for those agencies to carry out their specific jurisdictional responsibilities, but it may impose additional restrictions on how the information may be used and maintained. To obtain access to CEII, an authorized agency employee must sign an acknowledgement and agreement that states the agency will protect the CEII in the same manner as the Department and will refer any requests for the information to the Department. Notice of each such request also must be given to the CEII Coordinator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-federal Entities.</I> The Secretary or the CEII Coordinator shall make a final determination whether to share CEII materials requested by non-federal entities that are within the categories specified in section 215A(d)(2)(D) of the FPA. A request by such a non-federal entity shall not be entertained unless the requesting non-federal entity demonstrates that the release of information is in the national security interest and it has entered into a Non-Disclosure Agreement with DOE that ensures, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Use of the information only for authorized purposes and by authorized recipients and under the conditions prescribed by the Secretary or CEII Coordinator;
</P>
<P>(ii) Protection of the information in a secure manner to prevent unauthorized access;
</P>
<P>(iii) Destruction or return of the information after the intended purposes of receiving the information have been fulfilled;
</P>
<P>(iv) Prevention of viewing or access by individuals or organizations that have been prohibited or restricted by the United States or the Department from viewing or accessing CEII;
</P>
<P>(v) Compliance with the provisions of the Non-Disclosure Agreement, subject to DOE audit;
</P>
<P>(vi) No further sharing of the information without DOE's permission; and
</P>
<P>(vii) CEII provided pursuant to the agreement is not subject to release under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3), and shall not be made available by any Federal, state, political subdivision, or tribal authority pursuant to any Federal, State, political subdivision, or tribal law requiring public disclosure of information or records pursuant to sections 215A(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Federal Power Act.
</P>
<P>(viii) The Non-Disclosure Agreement must state that the agreement applies to all subsequent releases of CEII during the calendar year in which the DOE and the non-federal entity enter into the agreement. As a result, the non-federal entity will not be required to file a Non-Disclosure Agreement with subsequent requests during the calendar year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Security and Reliability Coordination.</I> In accordance with section 215A(d)(2)(D) of the FPA, DOE may, taking into account standards of the Electric Reliability Organization, facilitate voluntary sharing of CEII with, between, and by Federal, State, political subdivision, and tribal authorities; the Electric Reliability Organization; regional entities; information sharing and analysis centers or information sharing and analysis organizations; reliability coordinators; balancing authorities; owners, operators, and users of critical electric infrastructure in the United States; and other entities determined appropriate. All entities receiving CEII must execute either a Non-Disclosure Agreement or an Acknowledgement and Agreement or participate in an Electric Reliability Organization or Regional Entity information sharing program that ensures the protection of CEII. A copy of each agreement or program will be maintained by the DOE Office with a copy to the CEII Coordinator or the Coordinator's designee. If DOE facilitates voluntary sharing of CEII under this subsection, DOE may impose additional restrictions on how the information may be used and maintained.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>International Sharing Protocols.</I> The Secretary may delegate authority to DOE Offices to develop, after consultation with Canadian and Mexican authorities, protocols for the voluntary sharing of CEII with Canadian and Mexican authorities and owners, operators, and users of the bulk-power system outside the United States. The DOE CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee would provide assistance and advice to DOE Offices in the development of the international sharing protocols.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice for Sharing of CEII not Generated by DOE.</I> The DOE CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee will provide electronic notice to the CEII submitter no less than ten (10) business days before DOE releases CEII submitted to and not generated by DOE, except in instances where voluntary sharing is necessary for law enforcement purposes, to ensure reliable operation or maintenance of electric or energy infrastructure, to maintain infrastructure security, or to address potential threats; where there is an urgent need to quickly disseminate the information; or where prior notice is not practicable due to an emergency or other unforeseen circumstance. If prior notice is not given, DOE will provide notice as soon as practicable. The DOE CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee will convene a phone call within five (5) business days of electronic notice with the CEII submitter to discuss concerns about the proposed release of CEII-designated materials to the requester. DOE will make the final determination as to whether to share CEII not generated by DOE.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Procedures for requesting CEII.</I> DOE shall consider requests for CEII on a case-by-case basis. Any person requesting CEII must include the following material with the request:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Contact Information.</I> Provide your name, title and employer, work address, work phone number, and work email. If you are requesting the information on behalf of a person or entity other than yourself, you must also list that person's or entity's work contact information, including name, title, address, phone number, and email.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Explanation of Need.</I> Provide a detailed statement explaining the particular need for and intended use of the information. This statement must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which a particular function is dependent upon access to the information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Why the function cannot be achieved or performed without access to the information;
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of whether other information is available to the requester that could facilitate the same objective;
</P>
<P>(iv) How long the information will be needed;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether or not the information is needed to participate in a specific proceeding (with that proceeding identified); and
</P>
<P>(vi) An explanation of whether the information is needed expeditiously.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Signed Non-Disclosure Acknowledgement/Agreement.</I> Provide an executed Non-Disclosure Acknowledgement (if the requester is a Federal entity) or an executed Non-Disclosure Agreement (if the requester is not a Federal entity) requiring adherence to limitations on the use and disclosure of the information requested.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>DOE evaluation.</I> Upon receiving a request for CEII, the CEII Coordinator shall contact the DOE Office or Federal agency that created or maintains the CEII. In consultation with the DOE Office, the CEII Coordinator shall carefully consider the statement of need provided by the requester and determine if the need for CEII and the protection afforded to the CEII should result in sharing CEII for the limited purpose identified in the request. If the CEII Coordinator or Coordinator's designee denies the request, the requestor may seek reconsideration, as provided in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Disclosure</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure by submitter of information.</I> If the submitter of information deliberately discloses to the public information that has received a CEII designation, then the Department reserves the right to remove its CEII designation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disciplinary Action for Unauthorized Disclosure.</I> DOE employees or contractors who knowingly or willfully disclose CEII in an unauthorized manner will be subject to appropriate sanctions, including disciplinary action under DOE or DOE Office personnel rules or referral to the DOE Inspector General. Any action by a Federal or non-federal Entity who knowingly or willfully falsifies, conceals, or covers up by any trick, scheme, or device a material fact; makes any materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or representation; or makes or uses any false writing or document knowing the same to contain any materially false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or entry to obtain CEII may also constitute a violation of other applicable laws and is potentially punishable by fine and imprisonment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Whistleblower protection.</I> In accordance with the Whistleblower Protection Enhancement Act of 2012 (Pub. L. 112-199, 126 Stat. 1465), the provisions of this rule are consistent with and do not supersede, conflict with, or otherwise alter the employee obligations, rights, or liabilities created by existing statute relating to:
</P>
<P>(i) Classified information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Communications to Congress;
</P>
<P>(iii) The reporting to an Inspector General of a violation of any law, rule, or regulation, or mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an abuse of authority, or a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other whistleblower protection. The definitions, requirements, obligations, rights, sanctions, and liabilities created by controlling statutory provisions are not affected by this rule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 14768, Mar. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1005" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1005—INTERGOVERNMENTAL REVIEW OF DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY PROGRAMS AND ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E. O. 12372, July 14, 1982, 47 FR 30959, as amended April 8, 1983, 48 FR 15887; sec. 401 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968, as amended (31 U.S.C. 6506).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 29182, June 24, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1005.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.1   What is the purpose of these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations in this part implement Executive Order 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs,” issued July 14, 1982 and amended on April 8, 1983. These regulations also implement applicable provisions of section 401 of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968.
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations are intended to foster an intergovernmental partership and a strengthened Federalism by relying on state processes and on state, areawide, regional and local coordination for review of proposed federal financial assistance and direct federal development.
</P>
<P>(c) These regulations are intended to aid the internal management of the Department, and are not intended to create any right or benefit enforceable at law by a party against the Department or its officers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.2   What definitions apply to these regulations?</HEAD>
<P><I>Department</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Order</I> means Executive Order 12372, issued July 14, 1982, and amended April 8, 1983 and titled “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs.”
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Energy or an official or employee of the Department acting for the Secretary under a delegation of authority.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any of the 50 states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, American Samoa, the U.S. Virgin Islands, or the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.3   What programs and activities of the Department are subject to these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary publishes in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a list of the Department's program and activities that are subject to the order and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise stated in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> listing identified in paragraph (a) of this section, these regulations do not apply to the Department's financial assistance transactions with other than governmental entities.
</P>
<P>(c) The Bonneville Power Administration shall satisfy the requirements of these regulations by compliance with the consultation requirements of the Pacific Northwest Electric Power Planning and Conservation Act, Public Law 96-501.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.4   What are the Secretary's general responsibilities under the Order?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary provides opportunities for consultation by elected officials of those state and local governments that would provide the nonfederal funds, for, or that would be directly affected by, proposed federal financial assistance from, or direct federal development by, the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) If a state adopts a process under the Order to review and coordinate proposed federal financial assistance and direct federal development, the Secretary, to the extent permitted by law:
</P>
<P>(1) Uses the state process to determine official views of state and local elected officials;
</P>
<P>(2) Communicates with state and local elected officials as early in a program planning cycle as is reasonably feasible to explain specific plans and actions;
</P>
<P>(3) Make efforts to accommodate state and local elected official's concerns with proposed federal financial assistance and direct federal development that are communicated through the state process;
</P>
<P>(4) Allows the states to simplify and consolidate existing federally required state plan submissions;
</P>
<P>(5) Where state planning and budgeting systems are sufficient and where permitted by law, encourages the substitution of State plans for federally required state plans;
</P>
<P>(6) Seeks the coordination of views of affected state and local elected officials in one state with those of another state when proposed federal financial assistance or direct federal development has an impact on interstate metropolitan urban centers or other interstate areas; and
</P>
<P>(7) Supports state and local governments by discouraging the reauthorization or creation of any planning organization which is federally-funded, which has a limited purpose, and which is not adequately representative of, or accountable to, state or local elected officials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.5   What is the Secretary's obligation with respect to Federal interagency coordination?</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, to the extent practicable, consults with and seeks advice from all other substantially affected federal departments and agencies in an effort to assure full coordination between such agencies and the Department regarding programs and activities covered under these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.6   What procedures apply to the selection of programs and activities under these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A state may select any program or activity published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with § 1005.3 of this part for intergovernmental review under these regulations. Each state, before selecting programs and activities, shall consult with local elected officials. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each state that adopts a process shall notify the Secretary of the Department's programs and activities selected for that process. 
</P>
<P>(c) A state may notify the Administrator of changes in its selections at any time. For each change, the state shall submit to the Secretary an assurance that the state has consulted with local elected officials regarding the change. The Department may establish deadlines by which states are required to inform the Secretary of changes in their program selections.
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary uses a state's process as soon as feasible, depending on individual programs and activities, after the Secretary is notified of its selections.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.7   How does the Secretary communicate with state and local officials concerning the Department's programs and activities?</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary provides notice to directly affected state, areawide, regional, and local entities in a state of proposed Federal financial assistance or direct Federal development if:
</P>
<P>(1) The state has not adopted a process under the Order; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The assistance or development involves a program or activity not selected for the state process. This notice may be made by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or other appropriate means, which the Department in its discretion deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.8   How does the Secretary provide states an opportunity to comment on proposed Federal financial assistance and direct Federal development?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in unusual circumstances, the Secretary gives state processes or directly affected State, areawide, regional and local officials and entities—
</P>
<P>(1) At least 30 days from the date established by the Secretary to comment on proposed Federal financial assistance in the form of noncompeting continuation awards; and 
</P>
<P>(2) At least 60 days from the date established by the Secretary to comment on proposed direct Federal development or Federal financial assistance other than noncompeting continuation awards.
</P>
<P>(b) This section also applies to comments in cases in which the review, coordination, and communication with the Department have been delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.9   How does the Secretary receive and respond to comments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary follows the procedures in § 1005.10 if:
</P>
<P>(1) A state office or official is designated to act as a single point of contact between a state process and all federal agencies, and 
</P>
<P>(2) That office or official transmits a state process recommendation for a program selected under § 1005.6.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The single point of contact is not obligated to transmit comments from state, areawide, regional or local officials and entities where there is no state process recommendation. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a state process recommendation is transmitted by a single point of contact, all comments from, state, areawide, regional, and local officials and entities that differ from it must also be transmitted.
</P>
<P>(c) If a state has not established a process, or is unable to submit a state process recommendation, state, areawide, regional and local officials and entities may submit comments either to the applicant or to the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) If a program or activity is not selected for a state process, state, areawide, regional and local officials and entities may submit comments either to the applicant or to the Department. In addition, if a state process recommendation for a nonselected program or activity is transmitted to the Department by the single point of contact, the Secretary follows the procedures of § 1005.10 of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) The Secretary considers comments which do not constitute a state process recommendation submitted under these regulations and for which the Secretary is not required to apply the procedures of § 1005.10 of this part, when such comments are provided by a single point of contact, by the applicant, or directly to the Department by a commenting party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.10   How does the Secretary make efforts to accommodate intergovernmental concerns?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a state process provides a state process recommendation to the Department through its single point of contact, the Secretary either:
</P>
<P>(1) Accepts the recommendation;
</P>
<P>(2) Reaches a mutually agreeable solution with the state process; or
</P>
<P>(3) Provides the single point of contact with such written explanation of the decision, as the Secretary in his or her discretion deems appropriate. The Secretary may also supplement the written explanation by providing the explanation to the single point of contact by telephone, other telecommunication, or other means.
</P>
<P>(b) In any explanation under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Secretary informs the single point of contact that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department will not implement its decision for at least ten days after the single point of contact receives the explanation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary has reviewed the decision and determined that, because of unusual circumstances, the waiting period of at least ten days is not feasible.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of computing the waiting period under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a single point of contact is presumed to have received written notification 5 days after the date of mailing of such notification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.11   What are the Secretary's obligations in interstate situations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary is responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying proposed federal financial assistance and direct federal development that have an impact on interstate areas; 
</P>
<P>(2) Notifying appropriate officials and entities in states which have adopted a process and which select the Department's program or activity;
</P>
<P>(3) Making efforts to identify and notify the affected state, areawide, regional, and local officials and entities in those states that have not adopted a process under the Order or do not select the Department's program or activity;
</P>
<P>(4) Responding pursuant to § 1005.10 of this part if the Secretary receives a recommendation from a designated areawide agency transmitted by a single point of contact, in cases in which the review, coordination, and communication with the Department have been delegated.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary uses the procedures in § 1005.10 if a state process provides a state process recommendation to the Department through a single point of contact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.12   How may a state simplify, consolidate, or substitute federally required state plans?</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Simplify</I> means that a state may develop its own format, choose its own submission date, and select the planning period for a state plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consolidate</I> means that a state may meet statutory and regulatory requirements by combining two or more plans into one document and that the state can select the format, submission date, and planning period for the consolidated plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substitute</I> means that a state may use a plan or other document that it has developed for its own purposes to meet Federal requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) If not inconsistent with law, a state may decide to try to simplify consolidate, or substitute federally required state plans without prior approval by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary reviews each state plan that a state has simplified, consolidated, or substituted and accepts the plan only if its contents meet federal requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.4.0.22.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.13   May the Secretary waive any provision of these regulations?</HEAD>
<P>In an emergency, the Secretary may waive any provision of these regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1008" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1008—RECORDS MAINTAINED ON INDIVIDUALS (PRIVACY ACT)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.;</I> 5 U.S.C. 552; 5 U.S.C. 552a; 42 U.S.C. 7254; and 5 U.S.C. 301. Section 1008.22(c) also issued under 42 U.S.C. 405 note.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 61577, Sept. 16, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.1.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes the procedures to implement the Privacy Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-579, 5 U.S.C. 552a) within the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to all systems of records, as defined in § 1008.2(m), maintained by DOE.
</P>
<P>(c) This part applies to all divisions within the DOE, and to the personnel records of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC), which are maintained by DOE on behalf of FERC. These regulations do not apply to other systems of records maintained by FERC. These regulations also apply to DOE contractors and their employees to the extent required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(m).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.1.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Department</I> or <I>Department of Energy (DOE)</I> means all organizational entities which are a part of the executive department created by title II of the Department of Energy Organization Act, Public Law 95-91, except the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals</I> means the Director or his delegate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DOE locations</I> means each of the following DOE components:
</P>
<P>(1) Bonneville Power Administration, P.O. Box 3621-KDP-7, Portland, OR 97232.
</P>
<P>(2) Carlsbad Field Office, P.O. Box 3090, Carlsbad, NM 88221.
</P>
<P>(3) Chicago Office, 9800 S. Cass Avenue, Argonne, IL 60439.
</P>
<P>(4) Environmental Management Consolidated Business Center, 250 East 5th Street, Suite 500, Cincinnati, OH 45202.
</P>
<P>(5) Golden Field Office, 1617 Cole Boulevard, Golden, CO 80401.
</P>
<P>(6) Headquarters, Department of Energy, Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(7) Idaho Operations Office, 1955 Fremont Avenue, MS 1203, Idaho Falls, ID 83401.
</P>
<P>(8) National Nuclear Security Administration Service Center, P.O. Box 5400, Albuquerque, NM 87185-5400.
</P>
<P>(9) National Nuclear Security Administration Nevada Site Office, P.O. Box 98518, Las Vegas, NV 89193-3521.
</P>
<P>(10) National Energy Technology Laboratory, 3610 Collins Ferry Road, Morgantown, WV 26507-0800.
</P>
<P>(11) Oak Ridge Office, P.O. Box 2001, Oak Ridge, TN 37831.
</P>
<P>(12) Office of Scientific and Technical Information, 175 S. Oak Ridge Turnpike, P.O. Box 62, Oak Ridge, TN 37830.
</P>
<P>(13) Pacific Northwest Site Office, P.O. Box 350, Mail Stop K8-50, Richland, WA 99352.
</P>
<P>(14) Pittsburgh Naval Reactors, P.O. Box 109, West Mifflin, PA 15122-0109.
</P>
<P>(15) Richland Operations Office, P.O. Box 550, Mail Stop A7-75, Richland, WA 99352.
</P>
<P>(16) Savannah River Operations Office, P.O. Box A, Aiken, SC 29801.
</P>
<P>(17) Schenectady Naval Reactors, P.O. Box 1069, Schenectady, NY 12301.
</P>
<P>(18) Southeastern Power Administration, 1166 Athens Tech Road, Elberton, GA 30635-6711.
</P>
<P>(19) Southwestern Power Administration, One West Third, S1200, Tulsa, OK 74103.
</P>
<P>(20) Strategic Petroleum Reserve Project Management Office, 900 Commerce Road East-MS FE-455, New Orleans, LA 70123.
</P>
<P>(21) Western Area Power Administration, 12155 W. Alameda Parkway, P.O. Box 281213, Lakewood, CO 80228-8213.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel provided for in section 202(b) of the Department of Energy Organization Act, or any DOE attorney designated by the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Headquarters</I> means all DOE facilities functioning within the Washington, DC metropolitan area.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence, but does not include proprietorships, businesses, or corporations. Where appropriate, the term <I>individual</I> also includes a duly authorized representative of an individual.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maintain</I> means maintain, collect, use, or disseminate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Privacy Act Officer</I> means the person designated by the Director, Office of Administration, as responsible for administering the DOE's program for implementing the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974 at the DOE locations listed at § 1008.2(c). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by or for the DOE including, but not limited, to education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history, and that contains that individual's name, or other identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particulars assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or photograph. See subsection (a)(4) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected. See subsection (a)(7) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Statistical record</I> means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by 13 U.S.C. 8. See subsection (a)(6) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>System Manager</I> means the DOE official who is responsible for a system of records as designated in the system notice of that system of records published by DOE. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under DOE control from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particulars assigned to the individual. See subsection (a)(5) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Act</I> means the Privacy Act of 1974, Public Law 93-579; references to subsections of the Act mean subsections of section 3 of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 61577, Sept. 16, 1980, as amended at 71 FR 68735, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.1.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.3   Employee standards of conduct with regard to privacy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Headquarters DOE Privacy Act Officer shall assure that DOE personnel are advised of the provisions of the Privacy Act, including the criminal penalties and civil liabilities provided therein, (subsections (g) and (i) of the Act), and that DOE personnel are made aware of their responsibilities: to protect the security of personal information to assure its accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness; to avoid unauthorized disclosure; and to insure that no system of records concerning individuals, no matter how insignificant or specialized, is maintained without public notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE personnel shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Collect or maintain no information of a personal nature about individuals unless relevant and necessary to achieve a purpose or carry out a responsibility of the DOE as required by statute or by Executive Order. See subsection (e)(1) of the Act and § 1008.18(a). 
</P>
<P>(2) Collect information, wherever possible, directly from the individual to whom it pertains. See subsection (e)(2) of the Act and § 1009.19(a). 
</P>
<P>(3) Inform individuals from whom information is collected of the authority for collection, the principal purposes for which the information will be used, the routine uses that will be made of the information, and the effects of not furnishing the information. See subsection (e)(3) of the Act and § 1008.19(b). 
</P>
<P>(4) Collect, maintain, use or disseminate no information concerning an individual's rights guaranteed by the First Amendment, unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) The individual has volunteered such; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The information is expressly authorized by statute to be collected, maintained, used or disseminated; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The activities involved are pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity. See subsection (e)(7) of the Act and § 1008.18(b). 
</P>
<P>(5) Advise their supervisors of the existence or proposal of any system of records which retrieves information about individuals by the individual's name or other identifying number, symbol, or identifying particulars assigned to the individual. 
</P>
<P>(6) Maintain an accounting, in the prescribed form, of all disclosures of information other than those to officers or employees who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties and those required under the Freedom of Information Act. See subsection (c) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(7) Disclose no records other than to DOE personnel without the advance written consent of the individual, except as authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) including routine uses published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(8) Maintain and process information concerning individuals with care to insure that no inadvertent disclosure of the information is made. See subsection (e)(10) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(9) Inform the proper DOE authorities of any information maintained in a DOE system of records which is not authorized by the Privacy Act of 1974. 
</P>
<P>(c) Heads of Headquarters Divisions and Offices and heads of the other DOE locations shall review annually the systems of records subject to their responsibility to insure compliance with the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.1.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.4   Procedures for identifying the individual making a request for access to or amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a request for information about or for access to or correction of a record pertaining to an individual and contained in a system of records has been made pursuant to § 1008.6, valid identification of the individual making the request shall be required before information will be given, access granted or a correction considered, to insure that information is given, corrected, or records disclosed or corrected only at the request of the proper person. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, an individual making a request may establish his identity by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Including with his request, if submitted by mail, a photocopy of two identifying documents bearing his name and signature, one of which shall bear his current home or business address and date of birth; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Appearing at the appropriate DOE location during the regular business hours and presenting either of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) One identifying document bearing the individual's photograph and signature, such as a driver's license or passport; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Two identifying documents bearing the individual's name and signature, one of which shall bear the individual's current home or business address and date of birth; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Providing such other proof of identity as the Privacy Act Officer deems satisfactory in the circumstances of a particular request. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the Privacy Act Officer or the appropriate System Manager determines that the information in a record is so sensitive that unauthorized access could cause harm or embarrassment to the individual whose record in involved, or if the individual making the request is unable to produce satisfactory evidence of identity under paragraph (b) or (d) of this section, the individual making the request may be required to submit a notarized statement attesting to his identity and his understanding of the criminal penalties provided under section 1001 of title 18 of the United States Code for making false statements to a Government agency and under subsection (i)(3) of the Act for obtaining records under false pretenses. Copies of these statutory provisions and forms of such notarized statements may be obtained upon request from the Privacy Act Officer, Headquarters, Department of Energy, Washington, DC. 
</P>
<P>(d) When an individual acting as the parent of a minor or the legal guardian of the person to whom a record pertains makes a request pursuant to § 1008.6 of this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) Such an individual shall establish his personal identity in the same manner required in either paragraph (b) or (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, such an individual shall establish his identity in the representative capacity of parent or legal guardian. In the case of the parent of a minor, the proof of identity shall be a certified or authenticated copy of the minor's birth certificate. In the case of the legal guardian of a person who has been declared incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction, the proof of identity shall be a certified or authenticated copy of the order from a court of competent jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(3) A parent or legal guardian may act only for a living individual, not for a decedent. Requests for the records of decedents will be handled under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.1.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.5   Effect of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall not rely on any exemption contained in the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) to withhold from the individual to whom it pertains, any record which is otherwise accessible to such individual under this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall rely on subsection (b) of the Privacy Act to withhold information from a person other than the person to whom the record pertains only when the information is also exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where a request for access to records is submitted pursuant to both the FOIA and the Privacy Act, the DOE shall, to the maximum extent possible, process the request under the provisions of this part, including the time limits of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requests for Access or Amendment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.6   Procedures for Privacy Act requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any individual may—
</P>
<P>(1) Ask the DOE whether a system of records maintained by the DOE contains records about him or her; 
</P>
<P>(2) Request access to information pertaining to him or her that is maintained in a DOE system of records; 
</P>
<P>(3) Request that information about him or her in a DOE system of records be amended or corrected. Requests for correction or amendment may include inquiries concerning: 
</P>
<P>(i) Whether such information is relevant or necessary to accomplish a purpose that DOE is required to accomplish by statute or Executive Order; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the information is to be used by the DOE in making a determination about the individual, whether the information is as accurate, relevant, timely, or complete as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness in the determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests submitted pursuant to this section shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing and signed by the individual making the request; 
</P>
<P>(2) State that the request is a “Privacy Act Access” or “Privacy Act Amendment” request; 
</P>
<P>(3) Include the identification information required by § 1008.4; 
</P>
<P>(4) Specify, if possible, the title and identifying number of the system of records as listed in DOE's published notices of system of records; 
</P>
<P>(5) Provide if possible any additional information to aid DOE in responding to the request, for example, a description of the records sought; 
</P>
<P>(6) Indicate, as appropriate, the time, place, and form of access sought. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any request not addressed and marked as specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be forwarded immediately to the appropriate Privacy Act Officer. An improperly addressed request will not be deemed to have been received for purposes of measuring time periods pursuant to §§ 1008.7 and 1008.10 until actual receipt by the appropriate Privacy Act Officer. The individual making the request shall be notified that the request was improperly addressed and the date when the request was received by the Privacy Act Officer. 
</P>
<P>(d) Assistance in preparing an access request pursuant to this section may be obtained from any DOE Privacy Act Officer at the locations listed at § 1008.2(e). 
</P>
<P>(e) An individual shall not be required to state a reason or otherwise justify his request for information or access to a record pertaining to him/her that is contained in a system of records. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.7   Processing of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Receipt of a request made in accordance with § 1008.6 shall be promptly acknowledged by the Privacy Act Officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each request shall be acted upon promptly. Every effort will be made to respond within ten working days of the date of receipt by the System Manager or designee. If a response cannot be made within ten working days, the appropriate Privacy Act Officer shall send an interim response providing information on the status of the request, including an estimate of the time within which action is expected to be taken on the request and asking for any further information as may be necessary to respond to the request. Action will be completed as soon as possible, but not later than 20 working days after receipt of the original specific inquiry. In unusual circumstances and for good cause, the appropriate Privacy Act Officer may decide that action cannot be completed within the initial 20 working days. In such case, the appropriate Privacy Act Officer will advise the individual of the reason for the delay and the date (not to exceed an additional 20 working days) by which action can be expected to be completed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>unusual circumstances</I> as used in this section includes situations where a search for requested records from inactive storage is necessary; cases where a voluminous amount of data is involved; instances where information on other individuals must be separated or expunged from the particular record; and cases where consultation with other agencies which have substantial interest in the response to the request is necessary. 
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receiving a request, the Privacy Act Officer shall ascertain which System Manager or Managers of the DOE have primary responsibility for, custody of, or concern with the system or systems of records subject to the request and shall forward the request to such System Manager or Managers. The System Manager or Managers shall promptly identify and, in consultation with the General Counsel, review the records encompassed by the request. 
</P>
<P>(e) Where the request is for access to or information about records, after reviewing the material the System Manager or Managers concerned shall transmit to the Privacy Act Officer the requested material. The transmission to the Privacy Act Officer shall include any recommendation that the request be granted or wholly or partially denied and shall set forth any exemption categories supporting denials. Any denial recommendation must be concurred in by the appropriate General Counsel. 
</P>
<P>(f) Where the request is for correction or amendment of records, after reviewing the material the System Manager or Managers shall transmit a recommended decision to the Privacy Act Officer. Any recommendation that the request be granted or wholly or partially denied shall cite the exemption relied on and set forth the policy considerations supporting a denial. Any recommendation of denial must be concurred in by General Counsel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.8   Action in response to a request for access: disclosure of requested information to subject individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Consistent with the recommendation of the System Manager and the concurrence of the appropriate General Counsel, the Privacy Act Officer shall provide to the requesting individual the information about or access to a record or information pertaining to the individual contained in a system of records, unless the request is being denied in accordance with § 1008.9 of this part. The Privacy Act Officer shall notify the individual of such determination and provide the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether there is information or a record pertaining to him that is contained in a system of records; 
</P>
<P>(2) The methods of access as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) The place at which the record or information may be inspected; 
</P>
<P>(4) The earliest date on which the record or information may be inspected and the period of time that the record or information will remain available for inspection. In no event shall the earliest date be later than thirty calendar days from the date of notification. 
</P>
<P>(5) An indication that copies of the records are enclosed, or the estimated date by which a copy of the record could be mailed and the estimate of fees that would be charged to provide other than the first copy of the record, pursuant to § 1008.13. 
</P>
<P>(6) The fact that the individual, if he wishes, may be accompanied by another person during the in-person review of the record or information, provided that the individual shall first furnish to the Privacy Act Officer a written statement authorizing disclosure of that individual's record in the accompanying person's presence; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Any additional requirements that must be satisfied in order to provide information about or to grant access to the requested record or information. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following methods of access to records or information pertaining to an individual and contained in a system of records may be available to that individual depending on the circumstances of a particular request:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the record may be enclosed with the initial response in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Inspection in person may be arranged during the regular business hours of the DOE in the office specified by the Privacy Act Officer;
</P>
<P>(3) Transfer of records to a Federal facility more convenient to the individual may be arranged, but only if the Privacy Act Officer determines that a suitable facility is available, that the individual's access can be properly supervised at that facility, and that transmittal of the records or information to that facility will not unduly interfere with operations of the DOE or involve unreasonable costs, in terms of money or manpower; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The requested number of copies in addition to the initial copy may be mailed at the request of the individual, subject to payment of the fees prescribed in § 1008.13.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Privacy Act Officer believes, based upon a recommendation of the System Manager and the agency's medical officer, that disclosure of medical and/or psychological information directly to an individual could have an adverse effect upon that individual, the individual may be asked:
</P>
<P>(1) To designate in writing a physician or mental health professional to whom he would like the records to be disclosed; or
</P>
<P>(2) To submit a signed statement by his physician or a mental health professional indicating that, in his view, disclosure of the requested records or information directly to the individual will not have an adverse effect upon the individual. If the individual refuses to designate a physician or mental health professional, or to submit a signed statement from his physician or mental health professional as provided in paragraphs (c) (1) and (2) of this section, the request will be considered denied, and the appeal rights provided in § 1008.11 will be available to the individual.
</P>
<P>(d) The Privacy Act Officer shall supply such other information and assistance at the time of an individual's review of his record as is necessary to make the record intelligible to the individual.
</P>
<P>(e) The DOE will, as required by subsection (d)(1), assure an individual's right “to review his or her record and have a copy made of all or any portion thereof in a form comprehensible to him.” However, original records will be made available to individuals only under the supervision of the Privacy Act Officer or his designee. Individuals will be provided at their request with a copy, but not the original, of records pertaining to them.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.9   Action in response to a request for access: initial denial of access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A request by an individual for information about or access to a record or information pertaining to that individual that is contained in a system of records may be denied only upon a determination by the appropriate System Manager, with the concurrence of the appropriate General Counsel, that:
</P>
<P>(1) The record is subject to an exemption under § 1008.12;
</P>
<P>(2) The record is information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(3) The individual has unreasonably failed to comply with the procedural requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Privacy Act Officer shall give written notice of the denial of a request of information about or access to records or information pertaining to the individual and contained in a system of records. Such written notice shall be sent by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested and shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The System Manager's name and title;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons for the denial, including citation to the appropriate sections of the Privacy Act and this part; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Notification of the individual's right to appeal the denial pursuant to § 1008.11 and to administrative and judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(B), as limited by 552a(g)(5).
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Require the furnishing of information or records that are not retrieved by the name or by some other identifying number, symbol or identifying particular of the individual making the request;
</P>
<P>(2) Prevent a System Manager from waiving any exemption authorizing the denial of records, in accordance with § 1008.12. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.10   Action in response to a request for correction or amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Privacy Act Officer must respond in writing to the requester for amendment of a record within 10 working days of receipt. This response shall inform the requester of the decision whenever possible. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the decision cannot be reached within 10 working days, the requester shall be informed of the reason for delay and the date (within 20 working days) it is expected that the decision will be made. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Privacy Act Officer, consistent with the recommendation of the System Manager or Managers, as concurred in by the appropriate General Counsel, if appropriate, shall do one of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Instruct the System Manager to make the requested correction or amendment; and advise the individual in writing of such action, providing either a copy of the corrected or amended record, or a statement as to the means whereby the correction or amendment was accomplished in cases where a copy cannot be provided (for example, erasure of information from a record maintained only in an electronic data bank); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the individual in writing that his request is denied in whole or in part. Such denial shall be sent by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, and shall provide the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) The System Manager's name and title; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for the denial; including citation to the appropriate sections of the Act and this part; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Notification of the individual's right to appeal the denial pursuant to § 1008.11 and to administrative and judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(B), as limited by 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(5). 
</P>
<P>(iv) Notification of the right of the individual to submit a statement of disagreement consistent with § 1008.11(g). 
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever an individual's record is amended pursuant to a request by that individual, the Privacy Act Officer or the System Manager, as appropriate, shall notify all persons and agencies to which the amended portion of the record had been disclosed prior to its amendment, if an accounting of such disclosure was required by the Act. The notification shall request a recipient agency maintaining the record to acknowledge receipt of the notification, to correct or amend the record and to apprise an agency or person to which it had disclosed the record of the substance of the amendment. 
</P>
<P>(e) The following criteria will be taken into account by the DOE in reviewing a request for amendment: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sufficiency of the evidence submitted by the individual; 
</P>
<P>(2) The factual accuracy of the information; 
</P>
<P>(3) The relevance and necessity of the information in relation to the purpose for which it was collected; 
</P>
<P>(4) If such information is used in making any determination about the individual, whether the information is as accurate, relevant, timely, and complete as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in such determination; 
</P>
<P>(5) The degree of possibility that denial of the request could unfairly result in a determination adverse to the individual; 
</P>
<P>(6) The nature of the record sought to be corrected or amended; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The propriety and feasibility of complying with the specific means of amendment requested by the individual. 
</P>
<P>(f) The DOE will not undertake to gather evidence for the individual, but does reserve the right to verify the evidence that the individual submits. 
</P>
<P>(g) Amendment of a record requested by an individual may be denied upon a determination that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The individual has failed to establish, by a preponderance of the evidence, the propriety of the amendment in relation to the criteria stated in paragraph (c) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) The record sought to be amended was compiled in a terminated judicial, quasi-judicial or quasi-legislative proceeding to which the individual was a party or participant; 
</P>
<P>(3) The record sought to be amended is the subject of a pending judicial, quasi-judicial or quasi-legislative proceeding to which the individual is a party or participant; 
</P>
<P>(4) The amendment would violate a duly enacted statute or promulgated regulation; 
</P>
<P>(5) The individual has unreasonably failed to comply with the procedural requirements of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(6) The record has been properly exempted from the provisions of subsection (d) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(h) Nothing in this section shall restrict the DOE from granting in part or denying in part a request for amendment of records. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 61577, Sept. 16, 1980; 46 FR 31637, June 17, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.11   Appeals of denials of requests pursuant to § 1008.6.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any individual may appeal the denial of a request made by him for information about or for access to or correction or amendment of records. An appeal shall be filed within 30 calendar days after receipt of the denial. When an appeal is filed by mail, the postmark is conclusive as to timeliness. The appeal shall be in writing and must be signed by the individual. The words “PRIVACY ACT APPEAL” should appear in capital letters on the envelope and the letter. Appeals of denials relating to records maintained in government-wide systems of records reported by the OPM, shall be filed, as appropriate, with the Assistant Director for Agency Compliance and Evaluation, Office of Personnel Management (OPM), 1900 E Street, NW., Washington, DC 20415. All other appeals relating to DOE records shall be directed to the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA), Department of Energy, Headquarters, Washington, DC. 
</P>
<P>(b) An appeal not addressed and marked as specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be forwarded immediately to the Assistant Director for Agency Compliance and Evaluation, OPM, or the Director, OHA, as appropriate. An appeal that is not properly addressed by an individual shall not be deemed to have been received for purposes of time periods in this section until actual receipt of the appeal by the Assistant Director, OPM, or the Director, OHA. In each instance when an appeal so forwarded is received, the individual filing the appeal shall be notified that the appeal was improperly addressed and the date when the appeal was received by the Assistant Director, OPM, or the Director, OHA. 
</P>
<P>(c) The appeal shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the original request for access or for amendment; 
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the initial denial; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the reasons why the initial denial is believed to be in error. 
</P>
<P>(d) The records or record to which the individual was denied access, or which was requested to be corrected or amended, will be supplied to the appropriate appeal authority by the Privacy Act Officer who issued the initial denial. While such records normally will comprise the entire record on appeal, the appeal authority may seek such additional information as is necessary to assure that the final determination is fair and equitable. 
</P>
<P>(e) No personal appearance or hearing on appeal will be allowed. 
</P>
<P>(f) The appropriate appeal authority for DOE records shall act upon the appeal and issue a final determination in writing no later than 20 working days from the date on which the appeal is received. However, the appeal authority may extend the ten-day period upon a determination that a fair and equitable review cannot be made within that period. In such cases the individual shall be advised in writing of the reason for the extension and of the estimated date by which a final determination will be issued. The final determination shall be issued not later than the 30th working day after receipt of the appeal unless unusual circumstances, as defined in § 1008.7, are present, whereupon an additional 30 days may be extended. 
</P>
<P>(g) If an appeal of a denial of access is granted, a copy of the determination shall be transmitted promptly to the individual, the Privacy Act Officer and the appropriate System Manager. Upon receipt of the determination, the Privacy Act Officer promptly shall take action consistent with § 1008.8. 
</P>
<P>(h) If an appeal of a denial of correction or amendment is granted, the final determination shall identify the specific corrections or amendments to be made. A copy of the determination shall be transmitted promptly to the individual, the Privacy Act Officer and the appropriate System Manager. Upon receipt of the determination, the Privacy Act Officer promptly shall take steps to insure that the actions set forth in § 1008.10 (a) and (b) are taken. 
</P>
<P>(i) If the appeal of a denial of access is denied, the final determination shall state the reasons for the denial and shall be transmitted promptly to the individual, the Privacy Act Officer and the appropriate System Manager. The determination shall also include a statement identifying the right of the individual to administrative and judicial review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(B) as limited by 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(5). 
</P>
<P>(j) If the appeal of a denial of correction or amendment is denied, the final determination shall state the reasons for the denial and shall be transmitted promptly to the individual, the Privacy Act Officer and the appropriate System Manager. 
</P>
<P>(1) The determination also shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Notice of the right of the individual to file with the Privacy Act Officer a concise, signed statement of reasons for disagreeing with the final determination, receipt of which statement will be acknowledged by the Privacy Act Officer. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An indication that any disagreement statement filed by the individual will be noted and appended to the disputed record and that a copy of the statement will be provided by the Privacy Act Officer or the System Manager, as appropriate, to persons and agencies to which the record is disclosed subsequent to the date of receipt of such statement; 
</P>
<P>(iii) An indication that the DOE shall append to any disagreement statement filed by the individual a copy of the final determination or a summary thereof, which determination or summary also will be provided to persons and agencies to which the disagreement statement is disclosed; and, 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of the right of the individual to administrative and judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(B), as limited by 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(5). 
</P>
<P>(2) Although a copy of the final determination or a summary thereof will be treated as part of the individual's record for purposes of disclosure in instances where the individual has filed a disagreement statement, it will not be subject to correction or amendment by the individual. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where an individual files a statement of disagreement consistent with paragraph (j)(1) of this section, the Privacy Act Officer shall take steps to insure that the actions provided in paragraphs (j)(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) of this section are taken. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.12   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2) allows the exemption of any system of records within the DOE from any part of section 552a except subsections (b), (c)(1) and (2), (e)(4)(A) through (F) (e)(6), (7), (9), (10), and (11), and (i) of the Act if the system of records is maintained by a DOE component which performs as its principal function any activity pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws, including police efforts to prevent, control, or reduce crime or to apprehend criminals, and which consists of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Information compiled for the purpose of identifying individual criminal offenders and alleged offenders; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information compiled for the purpose of a criminal investigation, including reports of informants and investigators, and associated with an identifiable individual; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Reports identifiable to an individual compiled at any stage of the process of enforcement of the criminal laws from arrest or indictment through release from supervision. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability of general exemptions to DOE systems of records</I>—(i) <I>Investigative Files of the Inspector General (DOE-54).</I> This system of records is being exempted pursuant to subsection (j)(2) of the Act in order to aid the Office of the Inspector General in the performance of its law enforcement function. The system is exempted from subsections (c)(3) and (4); (d)(1)-(4); (e)(1)-(3); (4)(G), (H), and (I); (5) and (8); and (g) of the Act. The system is exempt from these provisions for the following reasons: notifying an individual at the individual's request of the existence of records in an investigative file pertaining to such individual, or granting access to an investigative file could (A) interfere with investigative and enforcement proceedings and with co-defendants' right to a fair trial; (B) disclose the identity of confidential sources and reveal confidential information supplied by these sources; and (C) disclose investigative techniques and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Law Enforcement Investigative Records (DOE-84).</I> This system of records is being exempted pursuant to subsection (j)(2) of the Act to enable the Office of Counterintelligence to carry out its duties and responsibilities as they pertain to its law enforcement function. The system is exempted from subsections (c)(3) and (4), (d), (e) (1), (2), and (3), (e)(4) (G) and (H), (e)(8), (f), and (g) of the Act. The system is exempt from these provisions for the following reasons: Notifying an individual at the individual's request of the existence of records in an investigative file pertaining to such individual, or granting access to an investigative file could interfere with investigative and enforcement proceedings and with co-defendants' right to a fair trial; disclose the identity of confidential sources and reveal confidential information supplied by these sources; and disclose investigative techniques and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific exemptions.</I> Subsection (k) of the Privacy Act establishes seven categories of systems of records which may be exempted from subsections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (7) of the Act. The Department has exempted systems of records under four of these provisions, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Classified material.</I> (i) Subsection (k)(1) permits exemption of systems of records that are specifically authorized under criteria established under statute or Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such statute or Executive Order. Restricted Data and Formerly Restricted Data under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, are included in this exemption. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The DOE systems of records listed below have been exempted under subsection (k)(1) to the extent they contain classified information, in order to prevent serious damage to the national defense or foreign policy that could arise from providing individuals access to classified information. Systems exempted under subsection (k)(1) are: 
</P>
<P>(A) Alien Visits and Participation (DOE-52). 
</P>
<P>(B) Clearance Board Cases (DOE-46). 
</P>
<P>(C) Security Correspondence Files (DOE-49). 
</P>
<P>(D) Foreign Travel Records (DOE-27) 
</P>
<P>(E) Legal Files (Claims, Litigations, Criminal Violation, Patents, and other Legal Files) (DOE-41). 
</P>
<P>(F) Personnel Security Clearance Files (DOE-43). 
</P>
<P>(G) Personnel Security Clearance Index (Automated) (DOE-42). 
</P>
<P>(H) Special Access Authorization for Categories of Classified Information (DOE-44). 
</P>
<P>(I) Administrative and Analytical Records and Reports (DOE-81). 
</P>
<P>(J) Law Enforcement Investigative Records (DOE-84).
</P>
<P>(K) Employee Concerns Program Records (DOE-3) 
</P>
<P>(L) Whistleblower Investigation, Hearing and Appeal Records (DOE-7) 
</P>
<P>(M) Intelligence Related Access Authorization (DOE-15)
</P>
<P>(N) Research, Technology, and Economic Security Due Diligence Review Records (DOE-85).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes.</I> (i) Subsection (k)(2) permits the exemption of investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes: <I>Provided, however,</I> That if any individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law, or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such material, such material shall be provided to such individual, except to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The DOE systems of records listed below have been exempted under subsection (k)(2) in order to prevent subjects of investigation from frustrating the investigatory process through access to records about themselves or as a result of learning the identities of confidential informants; to prevent disclosure of investigative techniques; to maintain the ability to obtain necessary information; and thereby to insure the proper functioning and integrity of law enforcement activities. Systems of records exempted under subsection (k)(2) are: 
</P>
<P>(A) Alien Visits and Participation (DOE-52). 
</P>
<P>(B) Clearance Board Cases (DOE-46). 
</P>
<P>(C) Security Correspondence Files (DOE-49). 
</P>
<P>(D) Foreign Travel Records (DOE-27). 
</P>
<P>(E) Legal Files (Claims, Litigation, Criminal Violations, Patents, and other Legal Files) (DOE-41). 
</P>
<P>(F) Personnel Security Clearance Files (DOE-43). 
</P>
<P>(G) Personnel Security Clearance Index (Automated) (DOE-42). 
</P>
<P>(H) Special Access Authorization for Categories of Classified Information (DOE-44). 
</P>
<P>(I) DOE Personnel and General Employment Records (DOE-1) (only personnel investigative records concerning current and former DOE employees and applicants for employment by DOE). 
</P>
<P>(J) Investigative Files of the Inspector General (DOE-54) (only investigative records concerning past and present DOE employees). 
</P>
<P>(K) Administrative and Analytical Records and Reports (DOE-81). 
</P>
<P>(L) Law Enforcement Investigative Records (DOE-84).
</P>
<P>(M) Allegation-Based Inspections Files of the Office of Inspector General (DOE-83).
</P>
<P>(N) Employee Concerns Program Records (DOE-3). 
</P>
<P>(O) Whistleblower Investigation, Hearing and Appeal Records (DOE-7). 
</P>
<P>(P) Intelligence Related Access Authorization (DOE-15). 
</P>
<P>(Q) Nondiscrimination in Federally Assisted Program Files (DOE-42).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investigatory material compiled for determining suitability for Federal employment.</I> (i) Subsection (k)(5) permits exemption of systems of records that contain investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualification for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The DOE systems of records listed below have been exempted under subsection (k)(5) to the extent they contain the kinds of records described in subsection (k)(5) in order to maintain DOE's ability to obtain candid information on candidates for employment, contracts, or access to classified information and to fulfill commitments made to sources to protect the confidentiality of information, and thereby to facilitate proper selection or continuation of the best applicants or persons for a given position or contract. Systems exempted under subsection (k)(5) are: 
</P>
<P>(A) DOE Personnel and General Employment Records (DOE-1); 
</P>
<P>(B) Personnel Security Clearance Files (DOE-43); 
</P>
<P>(C) Investigative Files of the Inspector General (DOE-54); 
</P>
<P>(D) Alien Visits and Participation (DOE-52); 
</P>
<P>(E) Clearance Board Cases (DOE-46); 
</P>
<P>(F) Security Correspondence Files (DOE-49);
</P>
<P>(G) Foreign Travel Records (DOE-27);
</P>
<P>(H) Legal Files (Claims, Litigation, Criminal Violations, Patents, and other Legal Files) (DOE-41); 
</P>
<P>(I) Personnel Security Clearance Index (Automated) (DOE-42);
</P>
<P>(J) Special Access Authorization for Categories of Classified Information (DOE-44);
</P>
<P>(K) DOE Personnel: Supervisor-Maintained Personnel Records (DOE-2);
</P>
<P>(L) Applications for DOE Employment (DOE-4);
</P>
<P>(M) Administrative and Analytical Records and Reports (DOE-81); 
</P>
<P>(N) Law Enforcement Investigative Records (DOE-84).
</P>
<P>(O) Allegation-Based Inspections Files of the Office of Inspector General (DOE-83).
</P>
<P>(P) Employee Concerns Program Records (DOE-3) 
</P>
<P>(Q) Whistleblower Investigation, Hearing and Appeal Records (DOE-7) 
</P>
<P>(R) Intelligence Related Access Authorization (DOE-15) 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Testing or examination material.</I> (i) Subsection (k)(6) permits exemption of systems of records that include testing or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service, the disclosure of which would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing of examination process.
</P>
<P>(ii) The DOE systems of records listed below have been exempted to the extent they contain testing or examination material in order to protect the integrity of the personnel testing and evaluation process and to avoid providing individuals with unfair advantage, by premature or unfair disclosure of testing or rating information. Systems exempted under subsection (k)(6) are: 
</P>
<P>(A) (DOE-2) DOE Personnel: Supervisor-Maintained Personnel Records.
</P>
<P>(B) (DOE-4) Applications for DOE Employment.
</P>
<P>(C) (DOE-1) DOE Personnel and General Employment Records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of exemptions to particular requests.</I> (1) The Privacy Act Officer, consistent with the recommendation of the System Manager and with concurrence of the appropriate General Counsel, may make available records which the DOE is authorized to withhold under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to records containing material or information that would reveal the identity of a source who was given an assurance of confidentiality, a determination to make records available pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be made only if the source consents to the release of such information to the individual, or if it is determined that the material or information is not adverse or detrimental to the individual, or for good cause shown. The exercise of discretion with respect to waiver of the exemption shall be final.
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to making a determination to deny access to a record in a system of records covered by exemption (k)(1) for classified material (see paragraph (b)(1) of this section), the System Manager shall consult with the Director, Division of Classification, to verify the current classification status of the information in the requested record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 61577, Sept. 16, 1980, as amended at 60 FR 35836, July 12, 1995; 62 FR 67519, Dec. 24, 1997; 67 FR 4171, Jan. 29, 2002; 89 FR 101854, Dec. 17, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.13   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The only fees to be charged to or collected from an individual under the provisions of this part are for copying records at the request of the individual. The fee charged shall be consistent with the fee schedule set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) No fees shall be charged or collected for the following: Search for and retrieval of records; review of records; copying by the DOE incident to granting access; copying at the initiative of the DOE without a request from the individual; copying when the aggregate of fees for copying is $25 or less; time spent providing copies; transportation of records and personnel; and first class postage.
</P>
<P>(2) It is the policy of the DOE to provide an individual with one copy of each record corrected or amended pursuant to request without charge.
</P>
<P>(3) As required by the Office of Personnel Management in its published regulations implementing the Act, the DOE will charge no fee for a single copy of a personnel record covered by that Commission's Government-wide published notice of systems of records.
</P>
<P>(b) The schedule of fees is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) $.10 per copy of each page.
</P>
<P>(2) For other forms of copying and other forms of materials (e.g., cassettes, computer materials), the direct cost of the materials, personnel, and equipment shall be charged, but only with prior specific approval of the person making the request, when such charges would be in excess of $25.
</P>
<P>(c) The Privacy Act Officer may, upon application by an individual, furnish any records without charge or at a reduced rate, if the Privacy Act Officer determines that such waiver or reduction of fees is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) Payment shall be made by check or money order payable to the United States Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(e) Advance payment of all or part of the fees may be required at the discretion of the Privacy Act Officer. Unless the individual requesting the copies specifically states that he is willing to pay whatever fees are assessed for meeting the request or, alternatively, specifies an amount in excess of $25 that he is willing to pay and which in fact covers the anticipated fees for meeting the request, a request that is expected to involve assessed fees in excess of $25 shall not be deemed to have been received, for purposes of the time periods specified in §§ 1008.7 and 1008.10 until the individual making the request is notified of the anticipated cost, agrees to bear it, and makes any advance deposit required. Such notification shall be made by the Privacy Act Officer as promptly as possible after receipt of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.14" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.14   Requests under false pretenses.</HEAD>
<P>Subsection (i)(3) of the Act provides that any person who knowingly and willingly requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from an agency under false pretenses shall be quilty of a misdeamenaor and fined not more than $5,000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.15" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.2.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.15   Civil remedies.</HEAD>
<P>Subsection (g) of the Act provides that an individual may bring suit against the DOE for a violation of the Privacy Act, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) If the DOE refuses to grant a request for access to an individual's records, the court may order the DOE to provide the individual with access to his or her records and award reasonable litigation costs and attorney's fees. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the DOE refuses to amend a record or fails to review an amendment request as required by subsection (d)(3) of the Act, the court may order the DOE to make the amendment and award reasonable litigation costs and attorney's fees. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the DOE makes an adverse determination based on a record which is not maintained in an accurate, timely, relevant, and complete manner, the individual may be awarded actual damages of at least $1,000. In order to prevail, the individual must show that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The DOE's action was willful and intentional; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The adverse determination was based on the faulty record. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the DOE fails to comply with any other provision of the Privacy Act or agency rule promulgated under the Act, in such a way as to have an adverse effect on the individual, the court may award actual damages of at least $1,000. In order to prevail, the individual must show that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The DOE's action was willful and intentional; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The agency's action had an adverse effort on the individual; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The adverse effect was causally related to the DOE's action. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Disclosure to Third Parties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.16" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.3.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.16   Prohibition against disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 1008.17, the DOE shall not disclose any record which is contained in a system of records, by any means of communication, to any agency or to any person other than the individual who is the subject of the record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.17" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.3.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.17   Conditions of disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding the prohibition contained in § 1008.16, the DOE may disclose records covered by this part (1) to the individual to whom the record pertains or to an agency or (2) to a person other than the individual where he has given his prior written consent to the disclosure or has made a written request for such disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the prohibition contained in § 1008.16 the DOE may also disclose records covered by this part whenever the disclosure is: 
</P>
<P>(1) To officers and employees of the DOE who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties; 
</P>
<P>(2) Required under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552); 
</P>
<P>(3) For a routine use (as defined in § 1008.2) which is described in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice for the system of records which the disclosure is to be made; 
</P>
<P>(4) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of title 13 of the United States Code; 
</P>
<P>(5) To a recipient who has provided the agency with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable; 
</P>
<P>(6) To the National Archives of the United States as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Administrator of General Services or his designee to determine whether the record has such value; 
</P>
<P>(7) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the DOE specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought; 
</P>
<P>(8) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if upon such disclosure notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual; 
</P>
<P>(9) To either House of Congress, or to any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction; 
</P>
<P>(10) To the Comptroller General, or any of his authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office; 
</P>
<P>(11) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the prohibition contained in § 1008.16 of this part, the DOE may also disclose records covered by this part when disseminating a corrected or amended record or notation of a disagreement statement as required by subsection (c)(4) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.18" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.3.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.18   Accounting for disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each disclosure of information contained in a system of records under his control, except disclosures to authorized officers and employees of DOE and disclosures required by the Freedom of Information Act, the appropriate System Manager shall keep an accurate accounting of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The date, nature, and purposes of each disclosure of a record made to any person or to another agency; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the person or agency to which the disclosure was made. 
</P>
<P>(b) The accounting shall be retained for at least five years or the life of the record, whichever is longer, after the disclosure for which the accounting is made. 
</P>
<P>(c) The accounting described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be made available to the individual named in the record upon written request to the Privacy Act Officer at the appropriate DOE location listed at § 1008.2(c) of this part. However, the accounting shall not be revealed with respect to disclosures made under § 1008.17(b)(7) of this part, pertaining to law enforcement activity; or with respect to disclosures involving system of records for which DOE had claimed an exemption from certain requirements of the Act, as provided in § 1008.12 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever an amendment or correction of a record or a notation of dispute concerning the accuracy of records is made by the DOE in accordance with §§ 1008.10(a)(2)(iv) and 1008.11(g) of this part, DOE shall inform any person or other agency to whom the record was previously disclosed if an accounting of the disclosure was made pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, unless the disclosure was made pursuant to § 1008.17(b)(7) of this part; or the disclosure involved a system of records of which DOE has claimed an exemption from certain requirements of the Act, as provided in § 1008.12 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) The System Manager shall make reasonable efforts to serve notice on an individual when any record containing information about such individual in a DOE system of records is disclosed to any person under compulsory legal process when such process becomes a matter of public record. 
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to disclosing any record about an individual to any person other than an agency, unless the disclosure is pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, the System Manager shall make reasonable efforts to assure that each record is accurate, complete, timely, and relevant for DOE's purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.19" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.3.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.19   Criminal penalties—improper disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Subsection (i)(1) of the Act provides that a Federal employee who willfully discloses information subject to the Privacy Act in violation of the Act or rules promulgated under it shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Maintenance and Establishment of Systems of Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.20" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.4.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.20   Content of systems of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DOE will maintain in its records only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose DOE is required to accomplish by statute or by Executive Order of the President, unless an exemption to this requirement has been claimed by DOE, as provided in § 1008.12 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The DOE will maintain no record describing how any individual exercises rights guaranteed by the First Amendment unless expressly authorized by statute or by the individual about whom the record is maintained or unless it is pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity. 
</P>
<P>(c) The DOE will maintain all records that are used by it to make any determination about any individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in such determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.21" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.4.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.21   Collection of information by DOE about an individual for a system of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DOE will collect information, to the greatest extent practicable, directly from the subject individual when the use of the information may result in adverse determinations about an individual's rights, benefits and privileges under Federal programs, unless an exemption from the Act to this requirement has been claimed by DOE as provided in § 1008.12
</P>
<P>(b) Unless an exemption from the Act has been claimed by DOE under subsection (j)(2), as provided in § 1008.12, DOE shall inform each individual whom it asks to supply information, on the form or other means by which it uses to collect the information, or on a separate form that can be retained by the individual, of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The authority (whether granted by statute or by Executive Order of the President) that authorizes the solicitation of the information and whether the provision of such information is mandatory or voluntary;
</P>
<P>(2) The principal purpose or purposes for which the information is intended to be used;
</P>
<P>(3) The routine uses that may be made of the information, as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to the requirements of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(4) The effect on the individual, if any, of not providing all or any part of the requested information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.22" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.4.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.22   Use and collection of Social Security numbers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The System Manager of each system of records which utilizes Social Security numbers as a method of identification without statutory authorization or authorization by regulation adopted prior to January 1, 1975, shall revise the system to avoid future collection and use of the Social Security numbers.
</P>
<P>(b) Heads of Headquarters Divisions and Offices and heads of the other DOE locations shall insure that employees authorized to collect information from individuals are advised that individuals may not be required to furnish Social Security numbers without statutory authorization, and that individuals who are requested to provide Social Security numbers voluntarily must be advised that furnishing the number is not required and that no penalty or denial of benefits will flow from the refusal to provide it.
</P>
<P>(c) Pursuant to the Social Security Number Fraud and Prevention Act (Pub. L. 115-59; 42 U.S.C. 405 note), Heads of Headquarters Divisions and Offices and heads of other DOE locations may not include a full Social Security number on a form or document transmitted by physical mail unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The form or document belongs to a category of forms and documents listed on the Department's “Unredacted SSN Mailed Documents Listing” (USMDL) as published on the Department's website; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Senior Agency Official for Privacy (SAOP) provides a one-time waiver for the form or document as provided by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The Heads of Headquarters Divisions and Offices and heads of other DOE locations who have a compelling business need to include a full Social Security number on a form or document that is transmitted by physical mail and which do not belong to a category of form or document listed on the USMDL may request a conditional, one-time Secretarial waiver as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The requesting Head of Departmental Element must prepare a memorandum for submission to the SAOP that:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the document that requires transmission via physical mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Explains with specificity the reasons why a full Social Security number is required to be transmitted via physical mail on the document;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides with specificity details on why the Social Security number cannot be a partial Social Security number; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Includes any other justification to support the Element's request, including any legal requirement that necessitates the Department sending a full Social Security number through physical mail for business or mission purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) The Departmental Element must send the completed memorandum to the Chief Privacy Officer (CPO) for review.
</P>
<P>(3) The CPO will review the request and forward its recommendation to the SAOP.
</P>
<P>(4) The SAOP will review and approve or reject the Departmental Element's request.
</P>
<P>(5) If the request is approved, the SAOP will issue a memorandum in response to the Head of the Departmental Element authorizing the conditional, one-time transmission of the document.
</P>
<P>(e) Under circumstances where the transmitting Departmental Element anticipates a regular and frequent transmission through physical mail of a particular form or document containing Social Security numbers not already listed on the USDML, the Head of the Departmental Element may request that a new category relevant to the form or document be added to the USMDL in accordance with the procedures in paragraphs (e)(1) through (5) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The requesting Departmental Element must prepare a memorandum for submission to the SAOP that:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the document that requires transmission via physical mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Explains with specificity the reasons why a full Social Security number is required to be transmitted via physical mail on the form or document;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides with specificity details on why the Social Security number cannot be a partial Social Security number; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Includes any other justification to support the Element's request, including any legal requirement that necessitates the Department sending a full Social Security number through physical mail for business or mission purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) The Head of the Departmental Element must send the completed memorandum to the CPO for review.
</P>
<P>(3) The CPO will review the request and forward its recommendation to the SAOP.
</P>
<P>(4) The SAOP will review and approve or reject the Element's request.
</P>
<P>(5) If the request is approved, the SAOP will issue a memorandum in response to the requestor stating the SAOP's determination and DOE will update the USDML and publish the updated USDML on the Department's website.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 61577, Sept. 16, 1980, as amended at 89 FR 43736, May 20, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.23" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.4.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.23   Public notice of systems of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DOE shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at least annually a notice of the existence and character of each of its systems of records, which notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and location of the system;
</P>
<P>(2) The categories of individuals on whom records are maintained in the system;
</P>
<P>(3) The categories of records maintained in the system;
</P>
<P>(4) Each routine use of the records contained in the system, including the categories of users and the purpose of such use, subject to paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(5) The policies and practices of the DOE regarding storage, retrievability, access controls, retention, and disposal of the records;
</P>
<P>(6) The title and business address of the DOE official who is responsible for the system of records;
</P>
<P>(7) The DOE procedures whereby an individual can be notified at his request if the system of records contains a record pertaining to him;
</P>
<P>(8) The DOE procedures whereby an individual can be notified at his request about how he can gain access to any record pertaining to him contained in the system or records, and how he can contest its content; and
</P>
<P>(9) The categories of source of records in the systems.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, the notice of systems of records shall not necessarily include the information in paragraphs (a) (7) through (9) of this section if DOE has claimed a general or specific exemption from the requirements of the Act, as provided in § 1008.12.
</P>
<P>(c) Copies of the notices as printed in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> shall be available at the DOE locations listed at § 1008.2(c). Requests by mail for copies of such notices should be sent to Privacy Act Officer, Headquarters, U.S. Department of Energy, Washington, DC. 20585. The first copy will be furnished free of charge. For each additional copy, the costs of printing and handling may be charged.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of any new routine use or intended routine use of a record in the system of records, at least 30 calendar days prior to the implementation of any new routine use of a record in a system of records, or at least 30 calendar days prior to publication of the annual notice of such routine uses, as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, an opportunity for interested persons to submit written comments consisting of data, views, or arguments regarding such use to DOE, shall be provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.24" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.5.4.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.24   Criminal penalties—failure to publish a system notice.</HEAD>
<P>Subsection (i)(2) of the Act provides that an agency officer or employee who willfully maintains a system of records without publishing a system notice as required by subsection (e)(4) of the Act shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1009" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1009—GENERAL POLICY FOR PRICING AND CHARGING FOR MATERIALS AND SERVICES SOLD BY DOE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 644 of the Dept. of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7254); Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>) “User Fee Statute”, 31 U.S.C. 483a, 42 U.S.C. 2111, 2112 and 2201.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 70430, Oct. 24, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1009.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.6.0.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes Department of Energy policy for establishing prices and charges for Department materials and services sold to organizations and persons outside the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to all elements of the Department except the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.6.0.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this regulation:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Allocable cost</I> means a cost allocable to a particular cost objective (i.e., a specific function, project, process, or organization) if the costs incurred are chargeable or assignable to such cost objectives in accordance with the relative benefits received or other equitable relationships. Subject to the foregoing, a cost is allocable if: 
</P>
<P>(1) It is incurred solely for materials or services sold; 
</P>
<P>(2) It benefits both the customer and the Department in proportions that can be approximated through use of reasonable methods, or 
</P>
<P>(3) It is necessary to the overall operation of the Department and is deemed to be assignable in part to materials or services sold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Byproduct material</I> means any radioactive material (except special nuclear material) yielded in or made radioactive by exposure to the radiation incident to the process of producing or utilizing special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charges</I> means an accumulation of job related costs for materials and services sold by the Department.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>commercial price</I> means the price that a willing buyer is currently paying or would pay a willing seller for materials and services in the market.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Direct cost</I> is any cost which can be identified specifically with a particular final cost objective.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Full cost</I> includes all direct costs and all allocable costs of producing the material or providing the service consistent with generally accepted accounting principles. Direct costs and allocable costs may include, but are not limited to, the following cost elements:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct labor.
</P>
<P>(2) Personnel fringe benefits.
</P>
<P>(3) Direct materials.
</P>
<P>(4) Other direct costs.
</P>
<P>(5) Processing materials and chemicals.
</P>
<P>(6) Power and other utilities.
</P>
<P>(7) Maintenance.
</P>
<P>(8) Indirect cost, i.e., common costs which cannot be directly assigned to specific cost objectives and are therefore allocated to cost objectives in a systematic cost allocation process.
</P>
<P>(9) Depreciation which includes depreciation costs that are directly associated with facilities and equipment utilized, and allocated depreciation costs for support and general facilities and equipment.
</P>
<P>(10) Added factor includes general and administrative costs and other support costs that are incurred for the benefit of the Department, an organizational unit or a material or service as a whole.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prices</I> means the monetary amounts generally established and published for recurring sales of the same materials and services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Source material</I> means uranium or thorium.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Special nuclear material</I> means plutonium, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, or any materials artificially enriched by any of the foregoing. Special Nuclear Material does not include source material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.6.0.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Department's price or charge for materials and services sold to persons and organizations outside the Federal Government shall be the Government's full cost for those materials and services, unless otherwise provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Exceptions from the Department pricing and charging policy may be authorized in accordance with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Prices and charges for byproduct material sold pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2111 and 2112 <I>et seq.</I> shall be either the full cost recovery price or the commercial price, whichever is higher, except that lower prices and charges may be established by the Department if it is determined that such lower prices and charges (i) will provide reasonable compensation to the Government for such material, (ii) will not discourage the use of or the development of sources of supply independent of the DOE of such material, and (iii) will encourage research and development. In individual cases, if (ii) and (iii) cannot be equally accommodated, greater weight will be given to encouragement of research and development.
</P>
<P>(2) Prices and charges for materials and services sold pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2201 shall be either the full cost recovery price or the commercial price, whichever is higher, except that lower prices and charges may be established by the Department if it is determined that such lower prices and charges will provide reasonable compensation to the Government and will not discourage the development of sources of supply independent of the DOE of such material.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.6.0.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.4   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>This part shall not apply when the amount to be priced or charged is otherwise provided for by statute, Executive Order, or regulations. This part does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Fees, penalties and fines established by the Economic Regulatory Administration of DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) Power marketing and related activities of the Alaska Power Administration, the Bonneville Power Administration, the Southeastern Power Administration, the Southwestern Power Administration, and the Western Power Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) Crude oil, natural gas and other petroleum products and services by or from the Naval Petroleum and Oil Shale Reserves.
</P>
<P>(d) Uranium enriching services, source material, and special nuclear material.
</P>
<P>(e) Requests for information under the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(f) Energy data and information provided by the Energy Information Administration.
</P>
<P>(g) Crude oil and related materials and services from the Strategic Petroleum Reserve.
</P>
<P>(h) The disposal of excess and surplus property.
</P>
<P>(i) Access permits for uranium enrichment technology issued in accordance with 10 CFR part 725.
</P>
<P>(j) Materials and services provided pursuant to a cooperative agreement, research assistance contract or grant, or made available to a DOE contractor in connection with a contract, the primary purpose of which is to procure materials or services for DOE.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.6.0.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.5   Supersessions.</HEAD>
<P>Prices which appear in <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Notices previously published by the Department, or its predecessor agencies, for materials and services covered by this rule are hereby superseded.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.6.0.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.6   Dissemination of prices and charges.</HEAD>
<P>Current prices and charges for specific materials and services are available from the DOE laboratory or office providing the material or service, or from the responsible program office. If this office cannot be determined, inquiries regarding the appropriate contact office should be addressed to the Office, of Finance and Accounting, Product Accounting and Pricing Branch, Mail Station 4A-139, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585. 






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1010" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1010—CONDUCT OF EMPLOYEES AND FORMER EMPLOYEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 303, 7301; 5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act); 5 U.S.C. App. (Inspector General Act of 1978); E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306; 5 CFR 2635.105; 18 U.S.C. 207, 208.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 35088, July 5, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Conduct of Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.101" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.1.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.101   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to employees of the Department of Energy (DOE), excluding employees of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35088, July 5, 1996, as amended at 75 FR 75376, Dec. 3, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.102" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.1.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.102   Cross-references to employee ethical conduct standards, financial disclosure regulations, and other conduct rules.</HEAD>
<P>Employees of DOE are subject to the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch at 5 CFR part 2635, the DOE regulation at 5 CFR part 3301 which supplements the executive branch-wide standards, the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634, the executive branch-wide financial interests regulations at 5 CFR part 2640, and the executive branch-wide employee responsibilities and conduct regulation at 5 CFR part 735. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 35088, July 5, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 30111, June 3, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.103" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.1.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.103   Reporting wrongdoing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Employees shall, in fulfilling the obligation of 5 CFR 2635.101(b)(11), report fraud, waste, abuse, and corruption in DOE programs, including on the part of DOE employees, contractors, subcontractors, grantees, or other recipients of DOE financial assistance, to the Office of Inspector General or other appropriate Federal authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) All alleged violations of the ethical restrictions described in section 1010.102 that are reported in accordance with (a) of this section to an appropriate authority within the Department shall in turn be referred by that authority to the designated agency ethics official or his delegatee, or the Inspector General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.104" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.1.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.104   Cooperation with the Inspector General.</HEAD>
<P>Employees shall respond to questions truthfully under oath when required, whether orally or in writing, and must provide documents and other materials concerning matters of official interest. An employee is not required to respond to such official inquiries if answers or testimony may subject the employee to criminal prosecution. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Exemption of Scientific and Technological Information Communications From Post-Employment Restrictions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 75376, Dec. 3, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1010.201" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.2.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.201   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth criteria for the types of communications on scientific or technological matters permitted under 18 U.S.C. 207(j)(5) by defining the term “scientific or technological information.” This subpart also establishes the procedures for receiving and approving requests from former employees of the executive branch to make such communications to DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart applies to any former employee of the executive branch subject to the post-employment conflict of interest restrictions in 18 U.S.C. 207(a), (c), and (d), who wishes to communicate with DOE under the exemption in 18 U.S.C. 207(j)(5) for the purpose of furnishing scientific or technological information to DOE offices or officials.
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart does not apply to a former DOE employee's testimony as an expert in an adversarial proceeding in which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.202" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.2.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency designee</I> means an individual serving in a position in DOE requiring appointment by the President of the United States with the advice and consent of the Senate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorized communication</I> means any transmission of scientific or technological information to any DOE office or official that is approved by DOE under § 1010.203 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DOE</I> means the U.S. Department of Energy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scientific or technological information</I> means: Information of a scientific or technological character, such as technical or engineering information relating to the natural sciences. The exception does not extend to information associated with a nontechnical discipline such as law, economics, or political science.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Incidental references or remarks.</I> Provided the former employee's communication primarily conveys information of a scientific or technological character, the entirety of the communication will be deemed made solely for the purpose of furnishing such information notwithstanding an incidental reference or remark:
</P>
<P>(1) Unrelated to the matter to which the post-employment restriction applies;
</P>
<P>(2) Concerning feasibility, risk, cost, speed of implementation, or other considerations when necessary to appreciate the practical significance of the basic scientific or technological information provided; or
</P>
<P>(3) Intended to facilitate the furnishing of scientific or technological information, such as those references or remarks necessary to determine the kind and form of information required or the adequacy of information already supplied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.203" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.7.2.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.203   Procedures for review and approval of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any former employee of the executive branch subject to the constraints of the post-employment restrictions of 18 U.S.C. 207(a), (c), and (d) who wishes to communicate scientific or technological information to DOE must contact the DOE office with which the former employee wishes to communicate and request authorization to make such communication. This request must be in writing and address, in detail, information regarding each of the factors set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(6) and (c)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) In consultation with the Designated Agency Ethics Official (DAEO), the agency designee in the office with cognizance over the matter must advise the former employee in writing whether the proposed communication is an authorized communication. This authority cannot be delegated, except to another individual serving in a position in DOE requiring appointment by the President of the United States with the advice and consent of the Senate.
</P>
<P>(c) In deciding whether a proposed communication is an authorized communication, the agency designee receiving the request and the DAEO must consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the former employee has relevant scientific or technical qualifications;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the former employee has qualifications that are otherwise unavailable to both the former employee's current employer and DOE;
</P>
<P>(3) The nature of the scientific or technological information to be conveyed;
</P>
<P>(4) The former employee's position prior to termination;
</P>
<P>(5) The extent of the former employee's involvement in the matter at issue during his or her employment, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The former employee's involvement in the same particular matter involving specific parties;
</P>
<P>(ii) The time elapsed since the former employee's participation in such matter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The offices within the Federal department or agency involved in the matter both during the former employee's period of employment in the executive branch and at the time the request is being made;
</P>
<P>(6) The existence of pending or anticipated matters before the Federal government from which the former employee or his or her current employer may financially benefit, including contract modifications, grant applications, and proposals; and
</P>
<P>(7) Whether DOE's interests would be served by allowing the proposed communication; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any other relevant information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1013" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1013—ADMINISTRATIVE FALSE CLAIMS AND PROCEDURES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3801-3812; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 44385, Nov. 3, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1013.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.1   Basis and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This part implements the Administrative False Claims Act of 2023, Public Law 118-159, div. E, title LII, section5203(j), 138 Stat. 2440-43 (Dec. 23, 2024), codified at 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812. 31 U.S.C. 3809 of the statute requires each authority head to promulgate regulations necessary to implement the provisions of the statute.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part (1) establishes administrative procedures for imposing civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit, or present, or cause to be made, submitted, or presented, false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to authorities or to their agents, and (2) specifies the hearing and appeal rights of persons subject to allegations of liability for such penalties and assessments.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44385, Nov. 3, 1988, as amended at 91 FR 42828, July 13, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>ALJ</I> means an Admininstrative Law Judge in the authority appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105 or detailed to the authority pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3344.
</P>
<P><I>Authority</I> means the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Authority head</I> means the Secretary or the Under Secretary of the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit</I> means, in the context of “statement,” anything of value, including but not limited to any advantage, preference, privilege, license, permit, favorable decision, ruling, status, or loan guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> means any request, demand, or submission—
</P>
<P>(a) Made to the authority for property, services, or money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits);
</P>
<P>(b) Made to a recipient of property, services, or money from the authority or to a party to a contract with the authority—
</P>
<P>(1) For property or services if the United States—
</P>
<P>(i) Provided such property or services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided any portion of the funds for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Will reimburse such recipient or party for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(2) For the payment of money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits) if the United States—
</P>
<P>(i) Provided any portion of the money requested or demanded; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Will reimburse such recipient or party for any portion of the money paid on such request or demand; or
</P>
<P>(c) Made to the authority which has the effect of concealing or improperly avoiding or decreasing an obligation to pay or transmit property, services, or money to the authority.
</P>
<P><I>Complaint</I> means the administrative complaint served by the reviewing official on the defendant under § 1013.7 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Defendant</I> means any person alleged in a complaint under § 1013.7 of this part to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 1013.3 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person.
</P>
<P><I>Initial decision</I> means the written decision of the ALJ required by § 1013.10 or § 1013.37 of this part, and includes a revised initial decision issued following a remand or a motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P><I>Investigating official</I> means the Inspector General of the Department of Energy or an officer or employee of the Inspector General designated by the Inspector General and serving in a position for which the rate of basic pay is not less than the minimum rate of basic pay for grade GS-16 under the General Schedule.
</P>
<P><I>Knows or has reason to know,</I> means that a person, with respect to a claim or statement—
</P>
<P>(a) Has actual knowledge that the claim or statement is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(b) Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement; or
</P>
<P>(c) Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement.
</P>
<P><I>Makes,</I> wherever it appears, shall include the terms presents, submits, and causes to be made, presented, or submitted. As the context requires, <I>making</I> or <I>made,</I> shall likewise include the corresponding forms of such terms.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means having a natural tendency to influence, or be capable of influencing, the payment or receipt of money or property.
</P>
<P><I>Obligation</I> means an established duty, whether or not fixed, arising from an express or implied contractual, grantor-grantee, or licensor-licensee relationship, from a fee-based or similar relationship, from statute or regulation, or from the retention of any overpayment.


</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or private organization, and includes the plural of that term.
</P>
<P><I>Representative</I> means an attorney, who is a member in good standing of the bar of any State, Territory, or possession of the United States or of the District of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and designated by a party in writing.
</P>
<P><I>Reviewing official</I> means the General Counsel of the Department or his designee who is—
</P>
<P>(a) Not subject to supervision by, or required to report to, the investigating official;
</P>
<P>(b) Not employed in the organizational unit of the authority in which the investigating official is employed; and
</P>
<P>(c) Serving in a position for which the rate of basic pay is not less than the minimum rate of basic pay for grade GS-16 under the General Schedule.
</P>
<P><I>Statement</I> means any representation, certification, affirmation, document, record, or accounting or bookkeeping entry made—
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to a claim or to obtain the approval or payment of a claim (including relating to eligibility to make a claim); or
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to (including relating to eligibility for)—
</P>
<P>(1) A contract with, or a bid or proposal for a contract with; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A grant, loan, or benefit from, the authority, or any State, political subdivision of a State, or other party, if the United States Government provides any poztion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit, or if the Government will reimburse such State, political subdivision, or party for any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44385, Nov. 3, 1988, as amended at 91 FR 42828, July 13, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.3   Basis for civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any person who makes a claim that the person knows or has reason to know—
</P>
<P>(i) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes or is supported by any written statement which asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes or is supported by any written statement that—
</P>
<P>(A) Omits a material fact;
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of such omission; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is a statement in which the person making such statement has a duty to include such material fact; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Is for payment for the provision of property or services which the person has not provided as claimed, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $14,308 for each such claim.




</P>
<P>(iv) Is for payment for the provision of property or services which the person has not provided as claimed, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to:
</P>
<P>(A) A civil penalty of not more than $14,308 for each such claim. And
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, such person shall also be subject to an assessment, in lieu of damages sustained by the United States because of such claim, of not more than twice the amount of such claim, or the portion of such claim, which is determined under this part to be a violation of the preceding sentence.


</P>
<P>(2) Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim.
</P>
<P>(3) A claim shall be considered made to the authority, recipient, or party when such claim is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of such authority, recipient, or party.
</P>
<P>(4) Each claim for property, services, or money is subject to a civil penalty regardless of whether such property, services, or money is actually delivered or paid.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) If the Government has made any payment (including transferred property or provided services) on a claim, a person subject to a civil penalty under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall also be subject to an assessment of not more than twice the amount of such claim or that portion thereof that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. Such assessment shall be in lieu of damages sustained by the Government because of such claim. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section, an assessment shall not be made if payment by the Government has not been made on such claim.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a claim described in § 1013.2(c), an assessment shall not be made in an amount more than double the value of the property, services, or money that was wrongfully withheld from the authority.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any person who makes a written statement that—
</P>
<P>(i) The person knows or has reason to know—
</P>
<P>(A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent because it omits a material fact that the person making the statement has a duty to include in such statement, and


</P>
<P>(ii) Contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $14,308 for each such statement.




</P>
<P>(2) Each written representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement shall be considered made to the authority when such statement is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any State or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of such authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application for certain benefits.</I> (1) In the case of any claim or statement made by any individual relating to any of the benefits listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section received by such individual, such individual may be held liable for penalties and assessments under this section only if such claim or statement is made by such individual in making application for such benefits with respect to such individual's eligibility to receive such benefits.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, the term “benefits” means benefits under part A of the Energy Conservation in Existing Buildings Act of 1976, which are intended for the personal use of the individual who receives the benefits or for a member of the individual's family.
</P>
<P>(d) No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to establish liability under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim or statement under this section, each such person may be held liable for a civil penalty under this section.
</P>
<P>(f) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim under this section on which the Government has made payment (including transferred property or provided services), an assessment may be imposed against any such person or jointly and severally against any combination of such persons.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44385, Nov. 3, 1988, as amended at 62 FR 46184, Sept. 2, 1997; 74 FR 66033, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 20, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41795, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96353, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1293, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66084, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 831, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2957, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1065, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2194, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1029, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105407, Dec. 27, 2024; 91 FR 42848, July 13, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.4   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an investigating official concludes that a subpoena pursuant to the authority conferred by 31 U.S.C. 3804(a) is warranted—
</P>
<P>(1) The subpoena so issued shall notify the person to whom it is addressed of the authority under which the subpoena is issued and shall identify the records or documents sought;
</P>
<P>(2) The investigating official may designate a person to act on his or her behalf to receive the documents sought; and
</P>
<P>(3) The person receiving such subpoena shall be required to tender to the investigating official or the person designated to receive the documents a certification that the documents sought have been produced, or that such documents are not available and the reasons therefor, or that such documents, suitably identified, have been withheld based upon the assertion of an identified privilege.
</P>
<P>(b) If the investigating official concludes that an action under the Administrative False Claims Act of 2023 may be warranted, the investigating official shall submit a report containing the findings and conclusions of such investigation to the reviewing official.


</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall preclude or limit an investigating official's discretion to refer allegations directly to the Department of Justice for suit under the False Claims Act or other civil relief, or to preclude or limit such official's discretion to defer or postpone a report or referral to the reviewing official to avoid interference with a criminal investigation or prosecution.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section modifies any responsibility of an investigating official to report violations of criminal law to the Attorney General.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44385, Nov. 3, 1988, as amended at 91 FR 42849, July 13, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.5   Review by the reviewing official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, based on the report of the investigating official under § 1013.4(b) of this part, the reviewing official determines that there is adequate evidence to believe that a person is liable under § 1013.3 of this part, the reviewing official shall transmit to the Attorney General a written notice of the reviewing official's intention to issue a complaint under § 1013.7 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reviewing official's reasons for issuing a complaint;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement specifying the evidence that supports the allegations of liability;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the claims or statements upon which the allegations of liability are based;
</P>
<P>(4) An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of § 1013.3 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claims or statements known by the reviewing official or the investigating official; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.6   Prerequisites for issuing a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The reviewing official may issue a complaint under § 1013.7 of this part only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in a written statement described in 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of allegations of liability under § 1013.3(a) of this part with respect to a claim, the reviewing official determines that, with respect to such claim or a group of related claims submitted at the same time such claim is submitted (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section), the amount of money or the value of property or services demanded or requested in violation of § 1013.3(a) of this part does not exceed $1,000,000 .
</P>
<P>(3) The maximum amount in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be adjusted for inflation in the same manner and to the same extent as civil monetary penalties under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act (28 U.S.C. 2461 note).




</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, a related group of claims submitted at the same time shall include only those claims arising from the same transaction (<I>e.g.,</I> grant, loan, application, or contract) that are submitted simultaneously as part of a single request, demand, or submission.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the reviewing official's authority to join in a single complaint against a person claims that are unrelated or were not submitted simultaneously, regardless of the amount of money, or the value of property or services, demanded or requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44385, Nov. 3, 1988, as amended at 91 FR 42849, July 13, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.7   Complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On or after the date the Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), the reviewing official may serve a complaint on the defendant, as provided in § 1013.8 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint shall state—
</P>
<P>(1) The allegations of liability against the defendant, including the statutory basis for liability, an identification of the claims or statements that are the basis for the alleged liability, and the reasons why liability allegedly arises from such claims or statements;
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum amount of penalties and assessments for which the defendant may be held liable;
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions for filing an answer to request a hearing, including a specific statement of the defendant's right to request a hearing by filing an answer and to be represented by a representative; and
</P>
<P>(4) That failure to file an answer within 30 days of service of the complaint will result in the imposition of the maximum amount of penalties and assessments without right to appeal, as provided in § 1013.10 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) At the same time the reviewing official serves the complaint, he or she shall serve the defendant with a copy of these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.8   Service of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of a complaint must be made by certified or registered mail or by delivery in any manner authorized by Rule 4(d) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. Service is complete upon receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom the complaint was served, and the manner and date of service, may be made by—
</P>
<P>(1) Affidavit of the individual serving the complaint by delivery;
</P>
<P>(2) A United States Postal Service return receipt card acknowledging receipt; or
</P>
<P>(3) Written acknowledgment of receipt by the defendant or his or her representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.9   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The defendant may request a hearing by filing an answer with the reviewing official within 30 days of service of the complaint. An answer shall be deemed to be a request for hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) In the answer, the defendant—
</P>
<P>(1) Shall admit or deny each of the allegations of liability made in the complaint;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall state any defense on which the defendant intends to rely;
</P>
<P>(3) May state any reasons why the defendant contends that the penalties and assessments should be less than the statutory maximum; and
</P>
<P>(4) Shall state the name, address, and telephone number of the person authorized by the defendant to act as defendant's representative, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant is unable to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section within the time provided, the defendant may, before the expiration of 30 days from service of the complaint, file with the reviewing official a general answer denying liability and requesting a hearing, and a request for an extension of time within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. The reviewing offical shall file promptly with the ALJ the complaint, the general answer denying liability, and the request for an extension of time as provided in § 1013.11 of this part. For good cause shown, the ALJ may grant the defendant up to 30 additional days within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.10   Default upon failure to file an answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the defendant does not file an answer within the time prescribed in § 1013.9(a) of this part, the reviewing official may refer the complaint to the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the referral of the complaint, the ALJ shall promptly serve on defendant in the manner prescribed in § 1013.8 of this part, a notice that an initial decision shall be issued under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall assume the facts alleged in the complaint to be true, and, if such facts establish liability under § 1013.3 of this part, the ALJ shall issue an initial decision imposing the maximum amount of penalties and assessments allowed under the statute.
</P>
<P>(d) Except as otherwise provided in this section, by failing to file a timely answer, the defendant waives any right to further review of the penalties and assessments imposed under paragraph (c) of this section, and the initial decision shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after it is issued.
</P>
<P>(e) If, before such an initial decision becomes final, the defendant files a motion with the ALJ seeking to reopen on the grounds that extraordinary circumstances prevented the defendant from filing an answer, the initial decision shall be stayed pending the ALJ's decision on the motion.
</P>
<P>(f) If, on such motion, the defendant can demonstrate extraordinary circumstances excusing the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ shall withdraw the initial decision in paragraph (c) of this section, if such a decision has been issued, and shall grant the defendant an opportunity to answer the complaint.
</P>
<P>(g) A decision of the ALJ denying a defendant's motion under paragraph (e) of this section is not subject to reconsideration under § 1013.38 of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) The defendant may appeal to the authority head the decision denying a motion to reopen by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head within 15 days after the ALJ denies the motion. The timely filing of a notice of appeal shall stay the initial decision until the authority head decides the issue.
</P>
<P>(i) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head, the ALJ shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head.
</P>
<P>(j) The authority head shall decide expeditiously whether extraordinary circumstances excuse the defendant's failure to file a timely answer based solely on the record before the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(k) If the authority head decides that extraordinary circumstances excused the defendant's failure to file a timely answer, the authority head shall remand the case to the ALJ with instructions to grant the defendant an opportunity to answer.
</P>
<P>(l) If the authority head decides that the defendant's failure to file a timely answer is not excused, the authority head shall reinstate the initial decision of the ALJ, which shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after the authority head issues such decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.11   Referral of complaint and answer to the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an answer, the reviewing official shall file the complaint and answer with the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.12   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the ALJ receives the complaint and answer, the ALJ shall promptly serve a notice of hearing upon the defendant in the manner prescribed by § 1013.8 of this part. At the same time, the ALJ shall send a copy of such notice to the representative for the Government.
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice shall include—
</P>
<P>(1) The tentative time, date, and place, and the nature of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law to be asserted;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the procedures for the conduct of the hearing;
</P>
<P>(5) The name, address, and telephone number of the representative of the Government and of the defendant, if any; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other matters as the ALJ deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.13   Parties to the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties to the hearing shall be the defendant and the authority.
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3730(c)(5), a private plaintiff under the False Claims Act may participate in these proceedings to the extent authorized by the provisions of that Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.14" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.14   Separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigating official, the reviewing official, and any employee or agent of the authority who takes part in investigating, preparing, or presenting a particular case may not, in such case or a factually related case—
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in the hearing as the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(2) Participate or advise in the initial decision or the review of the initial decision by the authority head, except as a witness or a representative in public proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(3) Make the collection of penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ shall not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision or direction of, the investigating official or the reviewing official.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the representative for the Government may be employed anywhere in the authority, including in the offices of either the investigating official or the reviewing official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.15" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.15   <E T="7462">Ex parte</E> contacts.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) shall communicate in any way with the ALJ on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.16" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.16   Disqualification of reviewing official or ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A reviewing official or ALJ in a particular case may disqualify himself or herself at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) A party may file with the ALJ a motion for disqualification of a reviewing official or an ALJ. Such motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit alleging personal bias or other reason for disqualification.
</P>
<P>(c) Such motion and affidavit shall be filed promptly upon the party's discovery of reasons requiring disqualification, or such objections shall be deemed waived.
</P>
<P>(d) Such affidavit shall state specific facts that support the party's belief that personal basis or other reason for disqualification exists and the time and circumstances of the party's discovery of such facts. It shall be accompanied by a certificate of the representative of record that it is made in good faith.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon the filing of such a motion and affidavit, the ALJ shall proceed no further in the case until he or she resolves the matter of disqualification in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) If the ALJ determines that a reviewing official is disqualified, the ALJ shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice.
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ disqualifies himself or herself, the case shall be reassigned promptly to another ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) If the ALJ denies a motion to disqualify, the authority head may determine the matter only as part of his or her review or the initial decision upon appeal, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.17" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.17   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise limited by this part, all parties may—
</P>
<P>(a) Be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative;
</P>
<P>(b) Participate in any conference held by the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct discovery;
</P>
<P>(d) Agree to stipulations of fact or law, which shall be made part of the record;
</P>
<P>(e) Present evidence relevant to the issues at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(f) Present and cross-examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(g) Present oral arguments at the hearing as permitted by the ALJ; and
</P>
<P>(h) Submit written briefs and proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.18" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.18   Authority of the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made.
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ has the authority to—
</P>
<P>(1) Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(3) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(5) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents at depositions or at hearings;
</P>
<P>(6) Rule on motions and other procedural matters;
</P>
<P>(7) Regulate the scope and timing of discovery;
</P>
<P>(8) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties;
</P>
<P>(9) Examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(10) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence;
</P>
<P>(11) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts; decide cases, in whole or in part, by summary judgment where there is no disputed issue of material fact;
</P>
<P>(12) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing on motions in person or by telephone; and
</P>
<P>(13) Exercise such other authority as is necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the ALJ under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ does not have the authority to find Federal statutes or regulations invalid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.19" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.19   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may schedule prehearing conferences as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the motion of any party, the ALJ shall schedule at least one prehearing conference at a reasonable time in advance of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ may use prehearing conferences to discuss the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amendments to the pleadings, including the need for a more definite statement;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations and admissions of fact or as to the contents and authenticity of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether a party chooses to waive appearance at an oral hearing and to submit only documentary evidence (subject to the objection of other parties) and written argument;
</P>
<P>(6) Limitation of the number of witnesses);
</P>
<P>(7) Scheduling dates for the exchange of witness lists and of proposed exhibits;
</P>
<P>(8) Discovery;
</P>
<P>(9) The time, date, and place for the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(10) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the fair and just disposition of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may issue an order containing all matters agreed upon by the parties or ordered by the ALJ at a prehearing conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.20" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.20   Disclosure of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant may review any relevant and material documents, transcripts, records, and other materials that relate to the allegations set out in the complaint and upon which the findings and conclusions of the investigating official under § 1013.4(b) are based, unless such documents are subject to a privilege under Federal law. Upon payment of fees for duplication, the defendant may obtain copies of such documents.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant also may obtain a copy of all exculpatory information in the possession of the reviewing official or investigating official relating to the allegations in the complaint, even if it is contained in a document that would otherwise be privileged. If the document would otherwise be privileged, only that portion containing exculpatory information must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(c) The notice sent to the Attorney General from the reviewing official as described in § 1013.5 of the part is not discoverable under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) The defendant may file a motion to compel disclosure of the documents subject to the provisions of this section. Such a motion may only be filed with the ALJ following the filing of an answer pursuant to § 1013.9 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.21" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.21   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following types of discovery are authorized:
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for production of documents for inspection and copying;
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for admissions of the authenticity of any relevant document or of the truth of any relevant fact;
</P>
<P>(3) Written interrogatories; and
</P>
<P>(4) Depositions.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section and §§ 1013.22 and 1013.23 of this part, the term “documents” includes information, documents, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data and documentary evidence. Nothing contained herein shall be interpreted to require the creation of a document.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless mutually agreed to by the parties, discovery is available only as ordered by the ALJ. The ALJ shall regulate the timing of discovery.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions for discovery.</I> (1) A party seeking discovery may file a motion with the ALJ. Such a motion shall be accompanied by a copy of the requested discovery, or in the case of depositions, a summary of the scope of the proposed deposition.
</P>
<P>(2) Within ten days of service, a party may file an opposition to the motion and/or a motion for protective order as provided in § 1013.24 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ may grant a motion for discovery only if he or she finds that the discovery sought—
</P>
<P>(i) Is necessary for the expeditious, fair, and reasonable consideration of the issues;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not unduly costly or burdensome;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will not unduly delay the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not seek privileged information.
</P>
<P>(4) The burden of showing that discovery should be allowed is on the party seeking discovery.
</P>
<P>(5) The ALJ may grant discovery subject to a protective order under § 1013.24 of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depositions.</I> (1) If a motion for deposition is granted, the ALJ shall issue a subpoena for the deponent, which may require the deponent to produce documents. The subpoena shall specify the time, date, and place at which the deposition will be held. 
</P>
<P>(2) The party seeking to depose shall serve the subpoena in the manner prescribed in § 1013.8 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The deponent may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena or a motion for a protective order within ten days of service.
</P>
<P>(4) The party seeking to depose shall provide for the taking of a verbatim transcript of the deposition, which it shall make available to all other parties for inspection and copying. 
</P>
<P>(f) Each party shall bear its own costs of discovery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.22" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.22   Exchange of witness lists, statements and exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 15 days before the hearing or at such other time as may be ordered by the ALJ, the parties shall exchange witness lists, copies of prior statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including copies of any written statements that the party intends to offer in lieu of live testimony in accordance with § 1013.33(b) of this part. At the time the above documents are exchanged, any party that intends to rely on the transcript of deposition testimony in lieu of live testimony at the hearing, if permitted by the ALJ, shall provide each party with a copy of the specific pages of the transcript it intends to introduce into evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) If a party objects, the ALJ shall not admit into evidence the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list or any exhibit not provided to the opposing party as provided above unless the ALJ finds good cause for the failure or that there is no prejudice to the objecting party.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless another party objects within the time set by the ALJ, documents exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed to be authentic for the purpose of admissibility at the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.23" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.23   Subpoenas for attendance at hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party wishing to procure the appearance and testimony of any individual at the hearing may request that the ALJ issue a subpoena.
</P>
<P>(b) A subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of an individual may also require the individual to produce documents at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) A party seeking a subpoena shall file a written request therefor not less than 15 days before the date fixed for the hearing unless otherwise allowed by the ALJ for good cause shown. Such request shall specify any documents to be produced and shall designate the witnesses and describe the address and location thereof with sufficient particularity to permit such witnesses to be found.
</P>
<P>(d) The subpoena shall specify the time, date, and place at which the witness is to appear and any documents the witness is to produce.
</P>
<P>(e) The party seeking the subpoena shall serve it in the manner prescribed in § 1013.8 of this part. A subpoena on a party or upon an individual under the control of a party may be served by first class mail.
</P>
<P>(f) A party or the individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena within ten days after service or on or before the time specified in the subpoena for compliance if it is less than ten days after service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.24" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.24   Protective order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party or a prospective witness or deponent may file a motion for a protective order with respect to discovery sought by an opposing party or with respect to the hearing, seeking to limit the availability or disclosure of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) In issuing a protective order, the ALJ may make any order which justice requires to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense, including one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) That the discovery not be had;
</P>
<P>(2) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place;
</P>
<P>(3) That the discovery may be had only through a method of discovery other than that requested;
</P>
<P>(4) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters;
</P>
<P>(5) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(6) That the contents of discovery or evidence be sealed;
</P>
<P>(7) That a deposition after being sealed be opened only by order of the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(8) That a trade secret or other confidential research, development, commercial information, or facts pertaining to any criminal investigation, proceeding, or other administrative investigation not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or 
</P>
<P>(9) That the parties simultaneously file specified documents or information enclosed in sealed envelopes to be opened as directed by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.25" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.25   Witness fees.</HEAD>
<P>The party requesting a subpoena shall pay the cost of the fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage shall accompany the subpoena when served, except that when a subpoena is issued on behalf of the authority, a check for witness fees and mileage need not accompany the subpoena.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.26" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.26   Form, filing and service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> (1) Documents filed with the ALJ shall include an original and two copies.
</P>
<P>(2) Every pleading and paper filed in the proceeding shall contain a caption setting forth the title of the action, the case number assigned by the ALJ, and a designation of the paper (<I>e.g.,</I> motion to quash subpoena).
</P>
<P>(3) Every pleading and paper shall be signed by, and shall contain the address and telephone number of the party or the person on whose behalf the paper was filed, or his or her representative.
</P>
<P>(4) Papers are considered filed when they are mailed. Date of mailing may be established by a certificate from the party or its representative or by proof that the document was sent by certified or registered mail.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> A party filing a document with the ALJ shall, at the time of filing, serve a copy of such document on every other party. Service upon any party of any document other than those required to be served as prescribed in § 1013.8 of this part shall be made by delivering a copy or by placing a copy of the document in the United States mail, postage prepaid, and addressed to the party's last known address. When a party is represented by a representative, service shall be made upon such representative in lieu of the actual party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate by the individual serving the document by personal delivery or by mail, setting forth the manner of service, shall be proof of service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.27" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.27   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time under this part or in an order issued thereunder, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default, and includes the last day of the period, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed by the Federal government, in which event it includes the next business day.
</P>
<P>(b) When the period of time allowed is less than seven days, intermediate Saturday, Sundays, and legal holidays observed by the Federal government shall be excluded from the computation.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a document has been served or issued by placing it in the mail, an additional five days will be added to the time permitted for any response.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.28" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.28   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application to the ALJ for an order or ruling shall be by motion. Motions shall state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged, and shall be filed with the ALJ and served on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions shall be in writing. The ALJ may require that oral motions be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 days after a written motion is served, or such other time as may be fixed by the ALJ, any party may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses thereto has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ shall make a reasonable effort to dispose of all outstanding motions prior to the beginning of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.29" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.29   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may sanction a person, including any party or representative, for—
</P>
<P>(1) Failing to comply with an order, rule, or procedure governing the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Failing to prosecute or defend an action; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Engaging in other misconduct that interferes with the speedy, orderly, or fair conduct of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Any such sanction, including but not limited to those listed in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, shall reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct.
</P>
<P>(c) When a party fails to comply with an order, including an order for taking a deposition, the production of evidence within the party's control, or a request for admission, the ALJ may—
</P>
<P>(1) Draw an inference in favor of the requesting party with regard to the information sought;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of requests for admission, deem each matter of which an admission is requested to be admitted;
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibit the party failing to comply with such order from introducing evidence concerning, or otherwise relying upon, testimony relating to the information sought; and
</P>
<P>(4) Strike any part of the pleadings or other submissions of the party failing to comply with such request.
</P>
<P>(d) If a party fails to prosecute or defend an action under this part commenced by service of a notice of hearing, the ALJ may dismiss the action or may issue an initial decision imposing penalties and assessments.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may refuse to consider any motion, request, response, brief or other document which is not filed in a timely fashion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.30" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.30   The hearing and burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall conduct a hearing on the record in order to determine whether the defendant is liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 1013.3 of this part, and, if so, the appropriate amount of any such civil penalty or assessment considering any aggravating or mitigating factors.
</P>
<P>(b) The authority shall prove defendant's liability and any aggravating factors by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The defendant shall prove any affirmative defenses and any mitigating factors by a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.31" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.31   Determining the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining an appropriate amount of civil penalties and assessments, the ALJ and the authority head, upon appeal, should evaluate any circumstances that mitigate or aggravate the violation and should articulate in their opinions the reasons that support the penalties and assessments they impose. Because of the intangible costs of fraud, the expense of investigating such conduct, and the need to deter others who might be similarly tempted, ordinarily double damages and a significant civil penalty should be imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) Although not exhaustive, the following factors are among those that may influence the ALJ and the authority head in determining the amount of penalties and assessments to impose with respect to the misconduct (<I>i.e.,</I> the false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statement) charged in the complaint:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements;
</P>
<P>(2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made;
</P>
<P>(3) The degree of the defendant's culpability with respect to the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed;
</P>
<P>(5) The value of the Government's actual loss as a result of the misconduct, including foreseeable consequential damages and the costs of investigation;
</P>
<P>(6) The relationship of the amount imposed as civil penalties to the amount of the Government's loss;
</P>
<P>(7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon national defense, public health or safety, or public confidence in the management of Government programs and operations, including particularly the impact on the intended beneficiaries of such programs;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the defendant has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the defendant attempted to conceal the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(10) The degree to which the defendant has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it;
</P>
<P>(11) Where the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the defendant, the extent to which the defendant's practices fostered or attempted to preclude such misconduct;
</P>
<P>(12) Whether the defendant cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the defendant assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers;
</P>
<P>(14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the defendant's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the defendant's prior participation in the program or in similar transactions;
</P>
<P>(15) Whether the defendant has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the Government of the United States or of a State, directly or indirectly; and
</P>
<P>(16) The need to deter the defendant and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the ALJ or the authority head from considering any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the offense for which penalties and assessments are imposed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.32" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.32   Location of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing may be held—
</P>
<P>(1) In any judicial district of the United States in which the defendant resides or transacts business;
</P>
<P>(2) In any judicial district of the United States in which the claim or statement in issue was made; or
</P>
<P>(3) In such other place as may be agreed upon by the defendant and the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(b) Each party shall have the opportunity to present argument with respect to the location of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing shall be held at the place and at the time ordered by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.33" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.33   Witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, testimony at the hearing shall be given orally by witnesses under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(b) At the discretion of the ALJ, testimony may be admitted in the form of a written statement or deposition. Any such written statement must be provided to all other parties along with the last known address of such witness, in a manner which allows sufficient time for other parties to subpoena such witness for cross-examination at the hearing. Prior written statements of witnesses proposed to testify at the hearing and deposition transcripts shall be exchanged as provided in § 1013.22(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to (1) make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth, (2) avoid needless consumption of time, and (3) protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ shall permit the parties to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(e) At the discretion of the ALJ, a witness may be cross-examined on matters relevant to the proceeding without regard to the scope of his or her direct examination. To the extent permitted by the ALJ, cross-examination on matters outside the scope of direct examination shall be conducted in the manner of direct examination and may proceed by leading questions only if the witness is a hostile witness, an adverse party, or a witness identified with an adverse party.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon motion of any party, the ALJ shall order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of other witnesses. This rule does not authorize exclusion of—
</P>
<P>(1) A party who is an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a party that is not an individual, an officer or employee of the party appearing for the entity <I>pro se</I> or designated by the party's representative; or
</P>
<P>(3) An individual whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of its case, including an individual employed by the Government engaged in assisting the representative for the Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.34" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.34   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall determine the admissibility of evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in this part, the ALJ shall not be bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the ALJ may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence where appropriate, <I>e.g.,</I> to exclude unreliable evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall exclude irrelevant and immaterial evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by considerations of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.
</P>
<P>(e) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if it is privileged under Federal law.
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence concerning offers of compromise or settlement shall be inadmissible to the extent provided in Rule 408 of the Federal Rules of Evidence.
</P>
<P>(g) The ALJ shall permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence.
</P>
<P>(h) All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by all parties, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 1013.24 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.35" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.35   The record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing will be recorded and transcribed. Transcripts may be obtained following the hearing from the ALJ at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of duplication.
</P>
<P>(b) The transcript of testimony, exhibits and other evidence admitted at the hearing, and all papers and requests filed in the proceeding constitute the record for the decision by the ALJ and the authority head.
</P>
<P>(c) The record may be inspected and copied (upon payment of a reasonable fee) by anyone, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 1013.24 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.36" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.36   Post-hearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may require the parties to file post-hearing briefs. In any event, any party may file a post-hearing brief. The ALJ shall fix the time for filing such briefs, not to exceed 60 days from the date the parties receive the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ may permit the parties to file reply briefs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.37" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.37   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ shall issue an initial decision based only on the record, which shall contain findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the amount of any penalties and assessments imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) The findings of fact shall include a finding on each of the following issues:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the claims or statements identified in the complaint, or any portions thereof, violate § 1013.3 of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person is liable for penalties or assessments, the appropriate amount of any such penalties or assessments considering any mitigating or aggravating factors that he or she finds in the case, such as those described in § 1013.31 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ shall promptly serve the initial decision on all parties within 90 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs (if permitted) has expired. The ALJ shall at the same time serve all parties with a statement describing the right of any defendant determined to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment to file a motion for reconsideration with the ALJ or a notice of appeal with the authority head. If the ALJ fails to meet the deadline contained in this paragraph, he or she shall notify the parties of the reason for the delay and shall set a new deadline.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the initial decision of the ALJ is timely appealed to the authority head, or a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision is timely filed, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued by the ALJ.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.38" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.38   Reconsideration of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, any party may file a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision within 20 days of receipt of the initial decision. If service was made by mail, receipt will be presumed to be five days from the date of mailing in the absence of contrary proof.
</P>
<P>(b) Every such motion must set forth the matters claimed to have been erroneously decided and the nature of the alleged errors. Such motion shall be accompanied by a supporting brief.
</P>
<P>(c) Responses to such motions shall be allowed only upon request of the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(d) No party may file a motion for reconsideration of an initial decision that has been revised in response to a previous motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may dispose of a motion for reconsideration by denying it or by issuing a revised initial decision.
</P>
<P>(f) If the ALJ denies a motion for reconsideration, the initial decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion, unless the initial decision is timely appealed to the authority head in accordance with § 1013.39.
</P>
<P>(g) If the ALJ issues a revised initial decision, that decision shall constitute the final decision of the authority head and shall be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued, unless it is timely appealed to the authority head in accordance with § 1013.39 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.39" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.39   Appeal to authority head.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any defendant who has filed a timely answer and who is determined in an initial decision to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment may appeal such decision to the authority head by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A notice of appeal may be filed at any time within 30 days after the ALJ issues an initial decision. However, if any party files a motion for reconsideration under § 1013.38 of this part, consideration of the appeal shall be stayed automatically pending resolution of the motion for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) If a motion for reconsideration is timely filed, a notice of appeal may be filed within 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion or issues a revised initial decision, whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(3) The authority head may extend the initial 30-day period for an additional 30 days if the defendant files with the authority head a request for an extension within the initial 30-day period and shows good cause.
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head and the time for filing motions for reconsideration under § 1013.38 of this part has expired, the ALJ shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head.
</P>
<P>(d) A notice of appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief specifying exceptions to the initial decision and reasons supporting the exceptions.
</P>
<P>(e) The representative for the Government may file a brief in opposition to exceptions within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief.
</P>
<P>(f) There is no right to appear personally before the authority head.
</P>
<P>(g) There is no right to appeal any interlocutory ruling by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(h) In reviewing the initial decision, the authority head shall not consider any objection that was not raised before the ALJ unless a demonstration is made of extraordinary circumstances causing the failure to raise the objection.
</P>
<P>(i) If any party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the authority head that additional evidence not presented at such hearing is material and that there were reasonable grounds for the failure to present such evidence at such hearing, the authority head shall remand the matter to the ALJ for consideration of such additional evidence.
</P>
<P>(j) The authority head may affirm, reduce, reverse, compromise, remand, or settle any penalty or assessment determined by the ALJ in any initial decision.
</P>
<P>(k) The authority head shall promptly serve each party to the appeal with a copy of the decision of the authority head and a statement describing the right of any person determined to be liable for a penalty or an assessment to seek judicial review.
</P>
<P>(l) Unless a petition for review is filed as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3805 after a defendant has exhausted all administrative remedies under this part and within 60 days after the date on which the authority head serves the defendant with a copy of the authority head's decision, a determination that a defendant is liable under § 1013.3 of this part is final and is not subject to judicial review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.40" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.40   Stays ordered by the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>If at any time the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General transmits to the authority head a written finding that continuation of the administrative process described in this part with respect to a claim or statement may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to such claim or statement, the authority head shall stay the process immediately. The authority head may order the process resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.41" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.41   Stay pending appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An initial decision is stayed automatically pending disposition of a motion for reconsideration or of an appeal to the authority head.
</P>
<P>(b) No administrative stay is available following a final decision of the authority head.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.42" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.42   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3805 of title 31, United States Code, authorizes judicial review by an appropriate United States District Court of a final decision of the authority head imposing penalties or assessments under this part and specifies the procedures for such review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.43" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.43   Collection of civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 3806 and 3808(b) of title 31, United States Code, authorizes actions for collection of civil penalties and assessments imposed under this part and specify the procedures for such actions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.44" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.44   Right to administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of any penalty or assessment which has become final, or for which a judgment has been entered under § 1013.42 or § 1013.43 of this part, or any amount agreed upon in a compromise or settlement under § 1013.46 of this part, may be collected by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, except that an administrative offset may not be made under this subsection against a refund of an overpayment of Federal taxes, then or later owing by the United States to the defendant. 
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.45" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.45   Deposit in Treasury of United States.</HEAD>
<P>All amounts collected pursuant to this part shall be deposited in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3806(g).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 42849, July 13, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.46" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.46   Compromise or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Parties may make offers of compromise or settlement at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The reviewing official has the exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the reviewing official is permitted to issue a complaint and before the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision.
</P>
<P>(2) A reviewing official shall notify the Attorney General in writing not later than 30 days before entering into any agreement to compromise or settle a case under this part and before the date on which the reviewing official is permitted to refer allegations of liability to the ALJ under 31 U.S.C. 3803(b).
</P>
<P>(c) The authority head has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part at any time after the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision, except during the pendency of any review under § 1013.42 of this part or during the pendency of any action to collect penalties and assessments under § 1013.43 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Attorney General has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this part during the pendency of any review under § 1013.42 of this part or of any action to recover penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806. 
</P>
<P>(e) The investigating official may recommend settlement terms to the reviewing official, the authority head, or the Attorney General, as appropriate. The reviewing official may recommend settlement terms to the authority head, or the Attorney General, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(f) Any compromise or settlement must be in writing. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44385, Nov. 3, 1988, as amended at 91 FR 42849, July 13, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.47" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.8.0.22.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.47   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice to the person alleged to be liable with respect to a claim or statement shall be mailed or delivered in accordance with § 1013.8 of this part not later than the later of—
</P>
<P>(1) 6 years after the date on which the violation of § 1013.3 is committed; or
</P>
<P>(2) 3 years after the date on which facts material to the action are known or reasonably should have been known by the authority head, but in no event more than 10 years after the date on which the violation is committed.
</P>
<P>(b) If the defendant fails to file a timely answer, service of notice under § 1013.10(b) of this part shall be deemed a notice of a hearing for purposes of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The statute of limitations may be extended by agreement of the parties. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 44385, Nov. 3, 1988, as amended at 91 FR 42849, July 13, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1014" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1014—ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS UNDER FEDERAL TORT CLAIMS ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 1(a), 80 Stat. 306, (28 U.S.C. 2672); 28 CFR part 14; sec. 644, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 599, (42 U.S.C. 7254). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 7768, Feb. 4, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1014.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.1   Scope of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These regulations shall apply only to claims asserted under the Federal Tort Claims Act, as amended, accruing on or after January 18, 1967, for money damages against the United States for injury to, or loss of, property or personal injury or death caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of any employee of the Department of Energy (DOE) while acting within the scope of office or employment. 
</P>
<P>(b) The terms <I>DOE, Department,</I> and <I>Department of Energy</I> as used in this part mean the agency established by the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91), 42 U.S.C. 7101, <I>et seq.,</I> including the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, but do not include any contractor of the Department. 
</P>
<P>(c) The regulations in this part supplement the Attorney General's regulations in part 14 of chapter 1 of title 28 CFR as amended. Those regulations, including subsequent amendments thereto, and the regulations in this part apply to the consideration by DOE of administrative claims under the Federal Tort Claims Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.2   Administrative claim; when presented; appropriate office.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of these regulations, a claim shall be deemed to have been presented when DOE receives, at a place designated in paragraph (b) of this section, an executed Standard Form 95 or other written notification of an incident, accompanied by a claim for money damages in a definite amount for injury to or loss of property, personal injury, or death, that is alleged to have occurred by reason of the incident. A claim that should have been presented to DOE but which was mistakenly addressed to or filed with another Federal agency, shall be deemed to be presented to DOE on the date the claim is received by DOE. A claim mistakenly addressed to or filed with DOE shall be transferred to the appropriate Federal agency, if ascertainable, or returned to the claimant. 
</P>
<P>(b) Claims should be mailed in envelopes marked “Attention Office of General Counsel.” Claims shall be mailed or delivered to the DOE installation or office employing the person or persons whose acts or omissions are alleged to have caused the loss, damage, or injury, unless the claimant does not know that address. If the proper address is unknown, claims may be mailed or delivered to: The General Counsel, U.S. Department of Energy, Washington, DC 20585. Forms may be obtained from the same places. 
</P>
<P>(c) A claim may be amended by the claimant at any time before final DOE action or before the exercise of the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a). Amendments shall be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or a duly authorized agent or legal representative. If an amendment to a pending claim is filed in time, the DOE shall have 6 months to decide the claim as amended. The claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) shall not accrue until 6 months after the filing of an amendment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.3   Administrative claim; who may file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim for injury to or loss of property may be presented by the owner of the property interest that is the subject of the claim or the owner's duly authorized agent or legal representative. 
</P>
<P>(b) A claim for personal injury may be presented by the injured person or the claimant's duly authorized agent or legal representative. 
</P>
<P>(c) A claim based on death may be presented by the executor or administrator of the decedent's estate or by any other person legally entitled to assert such a claim under the applicable State law. 
</P>
<P>(d) A claim for a loss that was wholly compensated by an insurer with the rights of a subrogee may be presented by the insurer. A claim for loss that was partially compensated by an insurer with the rights of a subrogee may be presented by the insurer or the insured individually, as their respective interests appear, or jointly. Whenever an insurer presents a claim asserting the rights of a subrogee, it shall present with its claim appropriate evidence that it has the rights of a subrogee. 
</P>
<P>(e) A claim presented by an agent or legal representative shall be presented in the name of the claimant, be signed by the agent or legal representative, show the title or legal capacity of the person signing, and be accompanied by evidence of authority to present a claim on behalf of the claimant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.4   Administrative claims; evidence and information to be submitted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Death.</I> In support of a claim based on death, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information: 
</P>
<P>(1) An authenticated death certificate or other competent evidence showing the cause of death, the date of death, and the age of the decedent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Decedent's employment or occupation at time of death, including monthly or yearly salary or earnings (if any), and the duration of last employment or occupation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Full names, addresses, birth dates, kinship, and marital status of the decedent's survivors, including identification of those survivors who were dependent for support upon the decedent at the time of death. 
</P>
<P>(4) The degree of support afforded by the decedent to each survivor dependent upon decedent for support at the time of death. 
</P>
<P>(5) Decedent's general physical and mental condition before death. 
</P>
<P>(6) Itemized bills for medical and burial expenses incurred by reason of the incident causing death, or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses. 
</P>
<P>(7) If damages for pain and suffering prior to death are claimed, a physican's detailed statement specifying the injuries suffered, the duration of pain and suffering, any drugs administered for pain, and the decedent's physical condition between injury and death. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other evidence or information that may have a bearing on either the responsibility of the United States for the death or the amount of damages claimed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury.</I> In support of a claim for personal injury, including pain and suffering, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A written report by the attending physician or dentist setting forth the nature and extent of the injury, the nature and extent of treatment, any degree of temporary or permanent disability, the prognosis, the period of hospitalization, and any diminished earning capacity. In addition, the claimant may be required to submit to a physical or mental examination by a physician employed by the DOE or another Federal agency. A copy of the physician's report shall be made available to the claimant upon the claimant's written request, provided that the claimant has, upon request, made or agrees to make available to the DOE any physician's reports previously or thereafter made of the physical or mental condition which is the subject matter of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) Itemized bills for medical, dental, and hospital expenses incurred, or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the prognosis reveals that future treatment will be needed, a statement of the expected expenses of such treatment. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a claim is made for loss of time from employment, a written statement from the claimant's employer showing actual time lost from employment, whether the claimant is a full-time or part-time employee, and the wages or salary actually lost. 
</P>
<P>(5) If a claim is made for loss of income and the claimant is self-employed, documentary evidence showing the amounts of earnings actually lost. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any other evidence or information that may bear on either the responsibility of the United States for the personal injury or the damages claimed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Property damage.</I> In support of a claim for injury to or loss of property, real or personal, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Proof of ownership of the property interest that is the subject of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed statement of the amount claimed with respect to each item of property. 
</P>
<P>(3) An itemized receipt of payment for necessary repairs or itemized written estimates of the cost of such repairs. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement listing date of purchase, purchase price, and salvage value, where repair is not economical. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other evidence or information that may bear on either the responsibility of the United States for the injury to or loss of property or the damages claimed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.5   Authority to adjust, determine, compromise, and settle.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel, the Deputy General Counsel, the Deputy General Counsel for Legal Services, the Assistant General Counsel for Legal Counsel, and any employees of the Department designated by the General Counsel to receive and act on tort claims at Headquarters and field locations are authorized to act on claims. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.6   Limitation on authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An award, compromise, or settlement of a claim in excess of $25,000 shall be made only with the prior written approval of the Attorney General or his or her designee. For the purposes of this paragraph, a principal claim and any derivative or subrogated claim shall be treated as a single claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) An administrative claim may be adjusted, determined, compromised, or settled only after the Department of Justice has been consulted if, in the opinion of the General Counsel or designee: 
</P>
<P>(1) A new precedent may be involved; 
</P>
<P>(2) A question of policy may be involved; 
</P>
<P>(3) The United States may be entitled to indemnity or contribution from a third party and the DOE is unable to adjust the third party claim; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The compromise of a particular claim, as a practical matter, may control the disposition of a related claim in which the amount to be paid may exceed $25,000. 
</P>
<P>(c) An administrative claim may be adjusted, determined, compromised, or settled only after consultation with the Department of Justice when the DOE is aware that the United States or an employee, agent, or cost-type contractor of the United States is involved in litagation based on a claim arising out of the same incident or transaction. 
</P>
<P>(d) The authority of DOE subordinate claims officials to make awards, compromises, and settlements of over $10,000 is subject to the approval of the General Counsel, the Deputy General Counsel, or the Deputy General Counsel for Legal Services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.7   Referral to Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When Department of Justice approval or consultation is required under § 1014.6, the referral or request shall be transmitted to the Department of Justice by the General Counsel or designee. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a designee of the General Counsel is processing a claim requiring consultation with, or approval of, either the DOE General Counsel or the Department of Justice, the referral or request shall be sent to the General Counsel in writing and shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(1) A short and concise statement of the facts and of the reasons for the referral or request, 
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of relevant portions of the claim file, and 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of recommendations or views. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.8   Investigation and examination.</HEAD>
<P>The DOE may investigate, or may request any other Federal agency to investigate, a claim and may conduct, or request another Federal agency to conduct, a physical examination of a claimant and provide a report of the physical examination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.9   Final denial of claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Final denial of an administrative claim shall be in writing and sent to the claimant, or the claimant's attorney or legal representative by certified or registered mail. The notification of final denial may include a statement of the reasons for the denial and shall include a statement that, if the claimant is dissatisfied with the Department's action, the claimant may file suit in an appropriate U.S. District Court not more than 6 months after the notification is mailed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before the commencement of suit and before the 6-month period provided in 28 U.S.C. 2401(b) expires, a claimant, or the claimant's duly authorized agent, or legal representative, may file a written request with the DOE General Counsel for reconsideration of a final denial of a claim. Upon the timely filing of a request for reconsideration the DOE shall have 6 months from the date of filing to decide the claim, and the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) shall not accrue until 6 months after the request for reconsideration is filed. Final DOE action on a request for reconsideration shall be made in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.10   Action on approved claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Payment of any approved claim shall not be made unless the claimant executes (1) a Standard Form 1145, (2) a claims settlement agreement, or (3) a Standard Form 95, as appropriate consistent with applicable rules of the Department of Justice, Department of the Treasury, and the General Accounting Office. When a claimant is represented by an attorney, the voucher for payment shall designate both the claimant and the attorney as payees, and the check shall be delivered to the attorney, whose address shall appear on the voucher. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the claimant or the claimant's agent or legal representative accepts any award, compromise, or settlement made pursuant to the provisions of section 2672 or 2677 of title 28, United States Code, that acceptance shall be final and conclusive on the claimant, the claimant's agent or legal representative, and any other person on whose behalf or for whose benefit the claim has been presented. The acceptance shall constitute a complete release of any claim against the United States and against any employee of the Government whose act or omission gave rise to the claim, by reason of the same subject matter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.9.0.22.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.11   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>A person who files a false claim or makes a false or fraudulent statement in a claim against the United States may be liable to a fine of not more than $10,000 or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both (18 U.S.C. 1001), and, in addtion, to a forfeiture of $2,000 and a penalty of double the loss or damage sustained by the United States (31 U.S.C 231). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1015" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1015—COLLECTION OF CLAIMS OWED THE UNITED STATES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3701, 3711, 3716, 3717, 3718, and 3720B; 42 U.S.C. 2201 and 7101, <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 48533, Aug. 14, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.100" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.100   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes the scope of the standards set forth in this part. This subpart corresponds to 31 CFR part 900 in the Department of the Treasury (Treasury) Federal Claims Collection Standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.101" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.101   Prescription of standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of the Treasury and the Attorney General of the United States issued regulations in 31 CFR parts 900-904, under the authority contained in 31 U.S.C. 3711(d)(2). Those regulations prescribe standards for Federal agency use in the administrative collection, offset, compromise, and the suspension or termination of collection activity for civil claims for money, funds, or property, as defined by 31 U.S.C. 3701(b), unless specific Federal agency statutes or regulations apply to such activities or, as provided for by Title 11 of the United States Code, when the claims involve bankruptcy. The regulations in 31 CFR parts 900-904 also prescribe standards for referring debts to the Department of Justice (DOJ) for litigation. Additional guidance is contained in the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Circular A-129 (Revised), “Policies for Federal Credit Programs and Non-Tax Receivables,” the Treasury's “Managing Federal Receivables,” and other publications concerning debt collection and debt management. These publications are available from the Department of Energy (DOE) Office of Financial Policy, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585. 
</P>
<P>(b) Additional rules governing centralized administrative offset and the transfer of delinquent debt to Treasury or Treasury-designated debt collection centers for collection (cross-servicing) under the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (DCIA), Public Law 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321, 1358 (April 26, 1996), are set forth in separate regulations issued by Treasury. Rules governing the use of certain debt collection tools created under the DCIA, such as administrative wage garnishment, also are set forth in separate regulations issued by Treasury. See generally, 31 CFR part 285.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE is not limited to the remedies contained in this part and may use any other authorized remedies, including alternative dispute resolution and arbitration, to collect civil claims, to the extent that such remedies are not inconsistent with the Federal Claims Collection Act, as amended, Public Law 89-508, 80 Stat. 308 (July 19, 1966), the Debt Collection Act of 1982, Public Law 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749 (October 25, 1982), the DCIA or other relevant law. The regulations in this part do not impair DOE's common law rights to collect debts. 
</P>
<P>(d) Standards and policies regarding the classification of debt for accounting purposes (for example, write-off of uncollectible debt) are contained in OMB's Circular A-129 (Revised), “Policies for Federal Credit Programs and Non-Tax Receivables.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.102" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.102   Definitions and construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of the standards in this part, the terms “claim” and “debt” are synonymous and interchangeable. They refer to an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by an agency official to be due the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency. For the purposes of administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, the terms “claim” and “debt” include an amount of money, funds, or property owed by a person to a State (including past-due support being enforced by a State), the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P>(b) A debt is “delinquent” if it has not been paid by the date specified in DOE's initial written demand for payment or applicable agreement or instrument (including a post-delinquency payment agreement), unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made. 
</P>
<P>(c) In this part, words in the plural form shall include the singular and vice versa, and words signifying the masculine gender shall include the feminine and vice versa. The terms “includes” and “including” do not exclude matters not listed but do include matters that are in the same general class. 
</P>
<P>(d) Recoupment is a special method for adjusting debts arising under the same transaction or occurrence. For example, obligations arising under the same contract generally are subject to recoupment. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term “Department of Energy” or “DOE” includes the National Nuclear Security Administration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.103" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.103   Antitrust, fraud, tax, interagency, transportation account audit, acquisition contract, and financial assistance instrument claims excluded.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The standards in this part relating to compromise, suspension, and termination of collection activity do not apply to any debt based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws or to any debt involving fraud, the presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any party having an interest in the claim. Only the DOJ has the authority to compromise, suspend, or terminate collection activity on such claims. The standards in this part relating to the administrative collection of claims do apply, but only to the extent authorized by the DOJ in a particular case. Upon identification of a claim based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws or any claim involving fraud, the presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any party having an interest in the claim, DOE will promptly refer the case to the DOJ for action. At its discretion, the DOJ may return the claim to DOE for further handling in accordance with the standards in this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Part 1015 does not apply to tax debts. 
</P>
<P>(c) Part 1015 does not apply to claims between Federal agencies. Federal agencies should attempt to resolve interagency claims by negotiation in accordance with Executive Order 12146 (3 CFR, 1980 Comp., pp. 409-412). 
</P>
<P>(d) Part 1015 does not apply to claims arising from the audit of transportation accounts pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3726 which shall be determined, collected, compromised, terminated, or settled in accordance with regulations published under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3726 (<I>see</I> 41 CFR parts 101-141, administered by the Director, Office of Transportation Audits, General Services Administration) and are otherwise excepted from these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Part 1015 does not apply to claims arising out of acquisition contracts, subcontracts, and purchase orders which are subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulations System, including the Federal Acquisition Regulation, 48 CFR subpart 32.6, and the Department of Energy Acquisition Regulation, 48 CFR subpart 932.6, and which shall be determined or settled in accordance with those regulations; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Part 1015 does not apply to claims arising out of financial assistance instruments (<I>e.g.,</I> grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts under cooperative agreements) and loans and loan guarantees, which shall be determined or settled in accordance with 10 CFR 600.26 and 10 CFR 600.112(f). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.104" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.104   Compromise, waiver, or disposition under other statutes not precluded.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part precludes DOE from disposing of any claim under statutes and implementing regulations other than subchapter II of chapter 37 of Title 31 of the United States Code (Claims of the United States Government) and the standards in this part. In such cases, the specifically applicable laws and regulations will generally take precedence over this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.105" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.105   Form of payment.</HEAD>
<P>Claims may be paid in the form of money or, when a contractual basis exists, the Government may demand the return of specific property or the performance of specific services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.106" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.106   Subdivision of claims not authorized.</HEAD>
<P>Debts may not be subdivided to avoid the monetary ceiling established by 31 U.S.C. 3711(a)(2). A debtor's liability arising from a particular transaction or contract shall be considered a single debt in determining whether the debt is one of less than $100,000 (excluding interest, penalties, and administrative costs) or such higher amount as the Attorney General shall from time to time prescribe for purposes of compromise or suspension or termination of collection activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.107" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.107   Required administrative proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>DOE is not required to omit, foreclose, or duplicate administrative proceedings required by contract or other laws or regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.108" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.1.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.108   No private rights created.</HEAD>
<P>The standards in this part do not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by a party against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or any other person, nor shall the failure of DOE, Treasury, the DOJ or other agency to comply with any of the provisions of this part be available to any debtor as a defense. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standards for the Administrative Collection of Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.200" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.200   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The subpart sets forth the standards for administrative collection of claims under this part. This subpart corresponds to 31 CFR part 901 of the Treasury Federal Claims Collection Standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.201" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.201   Aggressive agency collection activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Heads of DOE Headquarters Elements and Field Elements or their designees must promptly notify the appropriate DOE finance office of claims arising from their operations. A claim will be recorded and controlled by the responsible finance office upon receipt of documentation from a competent authority establishing the amount due. 
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with 31 CFR Chapter IX parts 900-904 and this part, DOE will aggressively collect all debts arising out of activities. Collection activities shall be undertaken promptly with follow-up action taken as necessary. 
</P>
<P>(c) Debts referred or transferred to Treasury, or Treasury-designated debt collection centers under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3711(g), shall be serviced, collected, or compromised, or the collection action will be suspended or terminated, in accordance with the statutory requirements and authorities applicable to the collection of such debts. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE will cooperate with other agencies in its debt collection activities. 
</P>
<P>(e) DOE will refer debts to Treasury as soon as due process requirements are complete, and should refer such debts no later than 180 days after the debt has become delinquent. On behalf of DOE, Treasury will take appropriate action to collect or compromise the referred debt, or to suspend or terminate collection action thereon, in accordance with the statutory and regulatory requirements and authorities applicable to the debt and action. Appropriate action to collect a debt may include referral to another debt collection center, a private collection contractor, or the DOJ for litigation. (See 31 CFR 285.12, Transfer of Debts to Treasury for Collection.) This requirement does not apply to any debt that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is in litigation or foreclosure; 
</P>
<P>(2) Will be disposed of under an approved asset sale program; 
</P>
<P>(3) Has been referred to a private collection contractor for a period of time acceptable to Treasury; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Will be collected under internal offset procedures within three years after the debt first became delinquent. 
</P>
<P>(f) Treasury is authorized to charge a fee for services rendered regarding referred or transferred debts. DOE will add the fee to the debt as an administrative cost (see § 1015.212(c)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.202" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.202   Demand for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Written demand as described in paragraph (b) of this section will be made promptly upon a debtor of the United States in terms that inform the debtor of the consequences of failing to cooperate with DOE to resolve the debt. Generally, one demand letter issued 30 days after the initial notice, bill, or written demand should suffice. When necessary to protect the Government's interest (for example, to prevent the running of a statute of limitations), written demand may be preceded by other appropriate actions under this Part, including immediate referral for litigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Demand letters will inform the debtor of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The basis for the indebtedness and the rights, if any, the debtor may have to seek review within DOE; 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicable standards for imposing any interest, penalties, or administrative costs; 
</P>
<P>(3) The date by which payment should be made to avoid late charges (<I>i.e.,</I> interest, penalties, and administrative costs) and enforced collection, which generally should not be more than 30 days from the date that the demand letter is mailed or hand-delivered; 
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address, and phone number of a contact person or office within DOE; 
</P>
<P>(5) DOE's intent to refer unpaid debts to Treasury for collection; 
</P>
<P>(6) DOE's intent to authorize Treasury to add fees for services rendered as an administrative fee; 
</P>
<P>(7) DOE's intent to authorize Treasury to utilize collection tools such as credit bureau reporting, private collection agencies, administrative wage garnishment, Federal salary offset, tax refund offset, administrative offset, litigation, and other tools, as appropriate, to collect the debt; 
</P>
<P>(8) DOE's willingness to discuss alternative methods of payment; 
</P>
<P>(9) The debtor's entitlement to consideration of a waiver, depending on applicable statutory authority; and 
</P>
<P>(10) DOE's intent to suspend or revoke licenses, permits, or privileges for any inexcusable or willful failure of a debtor to pay such a debt in accordance with DOE regulations or governing procedures. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE will seek to ensure that demand letters are mailed or hand-delivered on the same day that they are dated. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE will seek to respond promptly to communications from debtors, within 30 days whenever feasible, and will advise debtors who dispute debts to furnish available evidence to support their contentions. 
</P>
<P>(e) Prior to the initiation of the demand process or at any time during or after completion of the demand process, if DOE determines to pursue, or is required to pursue, offset, the procedures applicable to offset should be followed (see § 1015.203 of this subpart). The availability of funds or money for debt satisfaction by offset and DOE's determination to pursue collection by offset shall release DOE from the necessity of further compliance with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to referring a debt for litigation, DOE should advise each person determined to be liable for the debt that, unless the debt can be collected administratively, litigation may be initiated. This notification should comply with Executive Order 12988 (3 CFR, 1996 Comp, pp. 157-163) and should be given as part of a demand letter under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) When DOE learns that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, before proceeding with further collection action, DOE should immediately seek legal advice from appropriate legal counsel concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code on any pending or contemplated collection activities. Unless counsel determines that the automatic stay imposed at the time of filing pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 362 has been lifted or is no longer in effect, in most cases collection activity against the debtor should stop immediately. 
</P>
<P>(1) After seeking legal advice, a proof of claim should be filed in most cases with the bankruptcy court or the Trustee. DOE will refer to the provisions of 11 U.S.C. 106 relating to the consequences on sovereign immunity of filing a proof of claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) If DOE is a secured creditor, it may seek relief from the automatic stay regarding its security, subject to the provisions and requirements of 11 U.S.C. 362. 
</P>
<P>(3) Offset is stayed in most cases by the automatic stay. However, DOE will seek legal advice from counsel to determine whether its payments to the debtor and payments of other agencies available for offset may be frozen until relief from the automatic stay can be obtained from the bankruptcy court. DOE also will seek legal advice from counsel to determine whether recoupment is available. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.203" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.203   Collection by administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) The term “administrative offset” has the meaning provided in 31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(1). 
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Debts arising under the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301, <I>et. seq.</I>) except as provided in 42 U.S.C. 404; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Payments made under the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301, <I>et. seq.</I>) except as provided for in 31 U.S.C. 3716(c) (see 31 CFR 285.4, Federal Benefit Offset); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Debts arising under, or payments made under, the Internal Revenue Code (see 31 CFR 285.2, Tax Refund Offset) or the tariff laws of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Offsets against Federal salaries to the extent these standards are inconsistent with regulations published to implement such offsets under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3716 (see 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, and 31 CFR 285.7, Federal Salary Offset); 
</P>
<P>(v) Offsets under 31 U.S.C. 3728 against a judgment obtained by a debtor against the United States; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Offsets or recoupments under common law, state law, or Federal statutes specifically prohibiting offsets or recoupments of particular types of debts; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Offsets in the course of judicial proceedings, including bankruptcy. 
</P>
<P>(3) Unless otherwise provided for by contract or law, debts or payments that are not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under the common law or other applicable statutory authority. 
</P>
<P>(4) Unless otherwise provided by law, administrative offset of payments under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 3716 to collect a debt may not be conducted more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials of the Government who were charged with the responsibility to discover and collect such debts. This limitation does not apply to debts reduced to a judgment. 
</P>
<P>(5) In bankruptcy cases, DOE will seek legal advice from appropriate legal counsel concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code, particularly 11 U.S.C. 106, 362, and 553, on pending or contemplated collections by offset. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory centralized administrative offset.</I> (1) As described in § 1015.201(e), under the DCIA, DOE is required to refer all debts over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for purposes of debt collection (<I>i.e.,</I> cross-servicing). Administrative offset is one type of collection tool used by Treasury to collect debts referred under 31 CFR 285.12. Thus, by transferring debts to Treasury, DOE will satisfy the requirement to notify Treasury of debts for the purposes of administrative offset and duplicate referrals are not required. A debt, which is not transferred to Treasury for purposes of debt collection, however, may be subject to the DCIA requirement of notification to Treasury for purposes of administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(2) The names and taxpayer identifying numbers (TINs) of debtors who owe debts referred to Treasury as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be compared to the names and TINs on payments to be made by Federal disbursing officials. Federal disbursing officials include disbursing officials of Treasury, the Department of Defense, the United States Postal Service, other Government corporations, and disbursing officials of the United States designated by the Secretary of the Treasury. When the name and TIN of a debtor match the name and TIN of a payee and all other requirements for offset have been met, the payment will be offset to satisfy the debt. 
</P>
<P>(3) Treasury will notify the debtor/payee in writing that an offset has occurred to satisfy, in part or in full, a past due, legally enforceable delinquent debt. The notice shall include a description of the type and amount of the payment from which the offset was taken, the amount of offset that was taken, the identity of DOE as the creditor agency requesting the offset, and a contact point within DOE who will respond to questions regarding the offset. 
</P>
<P>(4) As required in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4), DOE will refer a delinquent debt to Treasury for administrative offset, only after the debtor: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has been sent written notice of the type and amount of the debt, the intention of DOE to use administrative offset to collect the debt, and an explanation of the debtor's rights under 31 U.S.C. 3716; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been given: 
</P>
<P>(A) The opportunity to inspect and copy DOE records related to the debt; 
</P>
<P>(B) The opportunity for a review within DOE of the determination of indebtedness; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The opportunity to make a written agreement to repay the debt. 
</P>
<P>(iii) DOE may omit the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(4) of this section when: 
</P>
<P>(A) The offset is in the nature of a recoupment; 
</P>
<P>(B) The debt arises under a contract as set forth in <I>Cecile Industries, Inc.</I> v. <I>Cheney,</I> 995 F.2d 1052 (Fed. Cir. 1993) (notice and other procedural protections set forth in 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) do not supplant or restrict established procedures for contractual offsets accommodated by the Contracts Disputes Act); or 
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of non-centralized administrative offsets conducted under paragraph (c) of this section, DOE first learns of the existence of the amount owed by the debtor when there is insufficient time before payment would be made to the debtor/payee to allow for prior notice and an opportunity for review. When prior notice and an opportunity for review are omitted, DOE shall give the debtor such notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practicable and shall promptly refund any money ultimately found not to have been owed to the Government. 
</P>
<P>(iv) When DOE previously has given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt (see § 1015.202), DOE need not duplicate such notice and review opportunities before administrative offset may be initiated. 
</P>
<P>(5) When DOE refers delinquent debts to Treasury, DOE must certify, in a form acceptable to Treasury, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The debt(s) is (are) past due and legally enforceable; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) DOE has complied with all due process requirements under 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) and DOE regulations. 
</P>
<P>(6) Payments that are prohibited by law from being offset are exempt from centralized administrative offset. Treasury may exempt classes of DOE payments from centralized offset upon the written request of the Secretary of DOE. 
</P>
<P>(7) In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716(f), Treasury may waive the provisions of the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 concerning matching agreements and post-match notification and verification (5 U.S.C. 552a(o) and (p)) for centralized administrative offset upon receipt of a certification from DOE that the due process requirements enumerated in 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) have been met. The certification of a debt in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section will satisfy this requirement. If such a waiver is granted, only the Data Integrity Board of Treasury is required to oversee any matching activities, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716(g). This waiver authority does not apply to offsets conducted under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-centralized administrative offset.</I> (1) Generally, non-centralized administrative offsets are ad hoc case-by-case offsets that DOE conducts, at DOE's discretion, internally or in cooperation with the agency certifying or authorizing payments to the debtor. Unless otherwise prohibited by law, when centralized administrative offset is not available or appropriate, past due, legally enforceable non-tax delinquent debts may be collected through non-centralized administrative offset. In these cases, DOE may make a request directly to a payment-authorizing agency to offset a payment due a debtor to collect a delinquent debt. For example, it may be appropriate for DOE to request that the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) offset a Federal employee's lump sum payment upon leaving Government service to satisfy an unpaid advance. 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE shall comply with offset requests by creditor agencies to collect debts owed to the United States, unless the offset would not be in the best interest of the United States with respect to the program of DOE, or would otherwise be contrary to law. Appropriate use will be made of the cooperative efforts of other agencies in effecting collection by administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(3) When collecting multiple debts by non-centralized administrative offset, DOE generally will apply the recovered amounts to those debts in accordance with the best interests of the United States, as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, particularly the applicable statute of limitations. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests to OPM to offset a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payments under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund.</I> Upon providing OPM written certification that a debtor has been afforded the procedures provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, DOE may request OPM to offset a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payments under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (Fund) in accordance with regulations codified at 5 CFR 831.1801-831.1808. Upon receipt of such a request, OPM will identify and “flag” a debtor's account in anticipation of the time when the debtor requests, or becomes eligible to receive, payments from the Fund. This will satisfy any requirement that offset be initiated prior to the expiration of the time limitations referenced in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review requirements.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, whenever DOE is required to afford a debtor a review within the agency, DOE shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and DOE determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although DOE will carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not require an oral hearing with respect to debt collection systems in which a determination of indebtedness rarely involves issues of credibility or veracity and DOE has determined that review of the written record is ordinarily an adequate means to correct prior mistakes. 
</P>
<P>(4) In those cases when an oral hearing is not required by this section, DOE will accord the debtor a “paper hearing,” that is, a determination of the request for reconsideration based upon a review of the written record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.204" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.204   Reporting debts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may disclose delinquent debts to consumer reporting agencies in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(e), the DCIA, the revised Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR parts 900-904) published November 22, 2000, and other applicable authorities. DOE will ensure that all of the rights and protections afforded to the debtor under 31 U.S.C. 3711(e) have been fulfilled. Additional guidance is contained in Treasury's “Guide to the Federal Credit Bureau Program,” revised October 2001. 
</P>
<P>(b) As described in § 1015.201(e), under the DCIA (31 U.S.C. 3711(g)), DOE is required to transfer all debts over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for purposes of debt collection (<I>i.e.,</I> cross-servicing). As part of its regular debt collection procedures, Treasury will report debts it is collecting to the appropriate designated credit reporting agencies on behalf of DOE. A debt not transferred to Treasury for purposes of debt collection, however, may be subject to the DCIA requirement to report all non-tax delinquent consumer debts to credit reporting agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.205" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.205   Credit reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In order to aid DOE in making appropriate determinations as to the collection and compromise of claims; the collection of interest, penalties, and administrative costs; and the likelihood of collecting the claim, DOE may institute a credit investigation of the debtor at any time following receipt of knowledge of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) As described in § 1015.201(e), under the DCIA (31 U.S.C. 3711(g)), DOE is required to transfer all debts over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for purposes of debt collection (<I>i.e.,</I> cross-servicing). As part of its regular debt collection procedures, Treasury may also institute a credit investigation of the debtor on behalf of DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.206" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.206   Contracting with private collection contractors and with entities that locate and recover unclaimed assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may contract with private collection contractors in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3718(d), the DCIA, the revised Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR parts 900-904) published November 22, 2000, and other applicable authorities. 
</P>
<P>(b) As described in § 1015.201(e), under the DCIA, DOE is required to transfer all debts over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for purposes of debt collection (<I>i.e.,</I> cross-servicing) under 31 U.S.C. 3711(g). As part of its regular debt collection procedures, Treasury may refer delinquent debts to private collection contractors on behalf of DOE. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE may enter into contracts for locating and recovering assets of the United States, such as unclaimed assets. DOE must establish procedures acceptable to Treasury before entering into contracts to recover assets of the United States held by a state government or a financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE may enter into contracts for debtor asset and income search reports. In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3718(d), such contracts may provide that the fee a contractor charges DOE for such services may be payable from the amounts recovered, unless otherwise prohibited by statute. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.207" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.207   Suspension or revocation of eligibility for loans and loan guaranties, licenses, permits, or privileges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless waived by the Secretary of DOE or his designee, DOE may not extend financial assistance in the form of a loan, loan guarantee, or loan insurance to any person who DOE knows to be delinquent on a non-tax debt owed to a Federal agency. This prohibition does not apply to disaster loans. The authority to waive the application of this section may be delegated to the Chief Financial Officer and redelegated only to the Deputy Chief Financial Officer of DOE. DOE may extend credit after the delinquency has been resolved. See 31 CFR 285.13 (Barring Delinquent Debtors From Obtaining Federal Loans or Loan Insurance or Guarantees). 
</P>
<P>(b) In non-bankruptcy cases, DOE offices seeking the collection of statutory penalties, forfeitures, or other types of claims should consider the suspension or revocation of licenses, permits, or other privileges for any inexcusable or willful failure of a debtor to pay such a debt in accordance with DOE's regulations or governing procedures. The debtor should be advised in DOE's written demand for payment of DOE's ability to suspend or revoke licenses, permits, or privileges. Any DOE office making, guaranteeing, insuring, acquiring, or participating in loans should consider suspending or disqualifying any lender, contractor, or broker from doing further business with DOE or engaging in programs sponsored by DOE if such lender, contractor, or broker fails to pay its debts to the Government within a reasonable time or if such lender, contractor, or broker has been suspended, debarred, or disqualified from participation in a program or activity by another Federal agency. The failure of any surety to honor its obligations in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 9305 should be reported to Treasury. Treasury will forward to all interested agencies notification that a surety's certificate of authority to do business with the Government has been revoked by Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(c) The suspension or revocation of licenses, permits, or privileges also should extend to Federal programs or activities that are administered by the states on behalf of the Federal Government, to the extent that they affect the Federal Government's ability to collect money or funds owed by debtors. Therefore, states that manage Federal activities, pursuant to approval from DOE, should ensure that appropriate steps are taken to safeguard against issuing licenses, permits, or privileges to debtors who fail to pay their debts to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(d) In bankruptcy cases, before advising the debtor of DOE's intention to suspend or revoke licenses, permits, or privileges, DOE will seek legal advice from counsel concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code, particularly 11 U.S.C. 362 and 525, which may restrict such action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.208" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.208   Administrative wage garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may use administrative wage garnishment to collect money from a debtor's disposable pay to satisfy delinquent debt in accordance with section 31001(o) of the DCIA, codified at 31 U.S.C. 3720D. Treasury has issued regulations implementing the administrative wage garnishment provisions contained in the DCIA, at 31 CFR 285.11. DOE has adopted these regulations in their entirety. 
</P>
<P>(b) As described in § 1015.201(e) of this part, under the DCIA (31 U.S.C. 3711(g)), DOE is required to transfer all debts over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for purposes of debt collection (<I>i.e.,</I> cross-servicing). As part of its regular debt collection procedures, Treasury may use administrative wage garnishment on behalf of DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.209" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.209   Tax refund offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may authorize the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to offset a tax refund to satisfy delinquent debt in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3720A, Reduction of Tax Refund by Amount of Debt. Treasury has issued regulations implementing the tax refund offset as part of Treasury's mandatory centralized offset at 31 CFR 285.2, Offset of Tax Refund to Collect Past-Due, Legally Enforceable Non-tax Debt. DOE has adopted 31 U.S.C. 3720A and 31 CFR 285.2 in their entirety. The due process requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720A are contained in §§ 1015.203(b)(4), and 1015.203(e) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) As described in § 1015.201(e) of this part, under the DCIA (31 U.S.C. 3711(g)), DOE is required to transfer all debts over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for purposes of debt collection (<I>i.e.,</I> cross-servicing). As part of its regular debt collection procedures, Treasury may use tax refund offset on behalf of DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.210" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.210   Liquidation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may liquidate security or collateral through the exercise of a power of sale in the security instrument or a nonjudicial foreclosure, and apply the proceeds to the applicable debt(s), if the debtor fails to pay the debt(s) within a reasonable time after demand and if such action is in the best interest of the United States. Collection from other sources, including liquidation of security or collateral, is not a prerequisite to requiring payment by a surety, insurer, or guarantor unless such action is expressly required by statute or contract. 
</P>
<P>(b) When DOE learns that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, DOE will seek legal advice from counsel concerning the impact of the Bankruptcy Code, including, but not limited to, 11 U.S.C. 362, to determine the applicability of the automatic stay and the procedures for obtaining relief from such stay prior to proceeding under paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.211" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.211   Collection in installments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever feasible, DOE shall collect the total amount of a debt in one lump sum. If a debtor is financially unable to pay a debt in one lump sum, DOE may accept payment in regular installments. DOE will obtain a current financial statement showing the debtor's assets, liabilities, income, and expenses from debtors who represent that they are unable to pay in one lump sum, and independently verify such representations whenever possible. DOE may also obtain credit reports or other financial information to assess installment requests. DOE may use its own financial information form or a DOJ form, such as the Financial Statement of Debtor (OBD-500) (see § 1015.302(g) of this part). When DOE agrees to accept payments in regular installments, it will obtain a legally enforceable, written agreement from the debtor that specifies all of the terms of the arrangement and that contains a provision accelerating the debt in the event of default. 
</P>
<P>(b) The size and frequency of installment payments should bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the debtor's ability to pay. If possible, the installment payments should be sufficient in size and frequency to liquidate the debt in three years or less. 
</P>
<P>(c) Security for deferred payments should be obtained in appropriate cases. DOE may accept installment payments notwithstanding the refusal of the debtor to execute a written agreement or to give security, at DOE's option. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.212" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.212   Interest, penalties and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section, DOE shall charge interest, penalties and administrative costs on debts owed to the United States pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717. DOE shall mail or hand-deliver a written notice to the debtor, at the debtor's most recent address available to DOE, explaining DOE's requirements concerning these charges except where these requirements are included in a contractual or repayment agreement. These charges shall continue to accrue until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved through compromise, termination, or waiver of the charges. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall charge interest on debts owed the United States as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Interest shall accrue from the date of delinquency, or as otherwise provided by law. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise established in a contract, repayment agreement, or by statute, the rate of interest charged shall be the rate established annually by Treasury in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717. Pursuant to 31 U.S.C 3717, DOE may charge a higher rate of interest if it reasonably determines that a higher rate is necessary to protect the rights of the United States. DOE will document the reason(s) for its determination that the higher rate is necessary. 
</P>
<P>(3) The rate of interest, as initially charged, shall remain fixed for the duration of the indebtedness. When a debtor defaults on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, DOE may require payment of interest at a new rate that reflects the current value of funds to the Treasury at the time the new agreement is executed. Interest shall not be compounded, that is, interest shall not be charged on interest, penalties, or administrative costs required by this section. If, however, a debtor defaults on a previous repayment agreement, charges that accrued but were not collected under the defaulted agreement shall be added to the principal under the new repayment agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall assess administrative costs incurred for processing and handling delinquent debts. The calculation of administrative costs should be based on actual costs incurred or upon estimated costs as determined by the assessing office. 
</P>
<P>(d) Unless otherwise established in a contract, repayment agreement, or by statute, DOE shall charge a penalty, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717(e)(2), not to exceed six percent a year on the amount due on a debt that is delinquent for more than 90 days. This charge shall accrue from the date of delinquency. 
</P>
<P>(e) DOE may increase an “administrative debt” by the cost of living adjustment in lieu of charging interest and penalties under this section. “Administrative debt” includes, but is not limited to, a debt based on fines, penalties, and overpayments, but does not include a debt based on the extension of Government credit, such as those arising from loans and loan guaranties. The cost of living adjustment is the percentage by which the Consumer Price Index for the month of June of the calendar year preceding the adjustment exceeds the Consumer Price Index for the month of June of the calendar year in which the debt was determined or last adjusted. Increases to administrative debts shall be computed annually. DOE will use this alternative only when there is a legitimate reason to do so, such as when calculating interest and penalties on a debt would be extremely difficult because of the age of the debt. 
</P>
<P>(f) When a debt is paid in partial or installment payments, amounts received by DOE shall be applied first to outstanding penalties, second to administrative costs, third to interest, and last to principal. 
</P>
<P>(g) DOE shall waive the collection of interest and administrative costs imposed pursuant to this section on the portion of the debt that is paid within 30 days after the date on which interest began to accrue. DOE may extend this 30-day period on a case-by-case basis. In addition, DOE may waive interest, penalties, and administrative costs charged under this section, in whole or in part, without regard to the amount of the debt, either under the criteria set forth in these standards for the compromise of debts, or if DOE determines that collection of these charges is against equity and good conscience or is not in the best interest of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(h) When a debtor requests a waiver or review of the debt, DOE will continue to accrue interest, penalties, and administrative costs during the period collection activity is suspended. Upon completion of DOE's review, interest, penalties, and administrative costs related to the portion of the debt found to be without merit will be waived. 
</P>
<P>(i) DOE is authorized to impose interest and related charges on debts not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717, in accordance with the common law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.213" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.213   Analysis of costs.</HEAD>
<P>DOE will prepare periodic comparisons of costs incurred and amounts collected. Data on costs and corresponding recovery rates for debts of different types and in various dollar ranges will be used to compare the cost effectiveness of alternative collection techniques, establish guidelines with respect to points at which costs of further collection efforts are likely to exceed recoveries, assist in evaluating offers in compromise, and establish minimum debt amounts below which collection efforts need not be taken. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.214" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.214   Use and disclosure of mailing addresses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When attempting to locate a debtor in order to collect or compromise a debt under §§ 1015.100-105 of this part or other authority, DOE may send a request to Treasury to obtain a debtor's mailing address from the records of the IRS. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE may use mailing addresses obtained under paragraph (a) of this section to enforce collection of a delinquent debt and may disclose such mailing addresses to other agencies and to collection agencies for collection purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.215" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.215   Federal salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may authorize Treasury to offset a Federal salary to satisfy delinquent debt in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 5514, Installment Deduction for Indebtedness to the United States; 5 CFR 550.1101 through 550.1108, Collection by Offset from Indebted Government Employees; 31 CFR parts 900-904, the revised Federal Claims Collection Standards; and 31 CFR 285.7, Salary Offset. DOE shall ensure that all of the rights and protections afforded to the debtor under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 CFR 901.3 have been fulfilled. Claims due from Federal employees will be collected in accordance with DOE Order 2200.2B, Collection from Current and Former Employees for Indebtedness to the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) As described in § 1015.201(e), under the DCIA (31 U.S.C. 3711(g)), DOE is required to refer all debts over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for purposes of debt collection (<I>i.e.,</I> cross-servicing). As part of its regular debt collection procedures, Treasury may use Federal salary offset on behalf of DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.216" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.2.22.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.216   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The preceding sections of this part, to the extent they reflect remedies or procedures prescribed by the Debt Collection Act of 1982 and the DCIA, such as administrative offset, use of credit bureaus, contracting for collection agencies, and interest and related charges, do not apply to debts arising under, or payments made under, the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (26 U.S.C. 1, <I>et seq.</I>); the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301, <I>et seq.</I>) except to the extent provided under 42 U.S.C. 404 and 31 U.S.C. 3716(c); or the tariff laws of the United States. These remedies and procedures, however, may be authorized with respect to debts that are exempt from the Debt Collection Act of 1982 and the DCIA, to the extent that they are authorized under some other statute or the common law. 
</P>
<P>(b) This section should not be construed as prohibiting the use of these authorities or requirements when collecting debts owed by persons employed by agencies administering the laws cited in paragraph (a) of this section unless the debt arose under those laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Standards for the Compromise of Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.300" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.300   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the standards for the compromise of claims under this part. This subpart corresponds to 31 CFR part 902 of the Treasury Federal Claims Collection Standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.301" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.301   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The standards set forth in this subpart apply to the compromise of debts pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3711. DOE's Chief Financial Officer or designee or Heads of Field Elements or designees in field locations may exercise such compromise authority for debts arising out of activities of, or referred or transferred for collection services to, DOE when the amount of the debt then due, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, does not exceed $100,000 or any higher amount authorized by the Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise provided by law, when the principal balance of a debt, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, exceeds $100,000 or any higher amount authorized by the Attorney General, the authority to accept the compromise rests with the DOJ. DOE will evaluate the compromise offer, using the factors set forth in this part. If an offer to compromise any debt in excess of $100,000 is acceptable to DOE, DOE shall refer the debt to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in the DOJ using a Claims Collection Litigation Report (CCLR). DOE may obtain the CCLR from the DOJ's National Central Intake Facility. The referral shall include appropriate financial information and a recommendation for the acceptance of the compromise offer. DOJ approval is not required if DOE rejects a compromise offer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.302" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.302   Bases for compromise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may compromise a debt if the Government cannot collect the full amount because: 
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor is unable to pay the full amount in a reasonable time, as verified through credit reports or other financial information; 
</P>
<P>(2) The Government is unable to collect the debt in full within a reasonable time by enforced collection proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(3) The cost of collecting the debt does not justify the enforced collection of the full amount; or 
</P>
<P>(4) There is significant doubt concerning the Government's ability to prove its case in court. 
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the debtor's inability to pay, DOE should consider relevant factors such as the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Age and health of the debtor; 
</P>
<P>(2) Present and potential income; 
</P>
<P>(3) Inheritance prospects; 
</P>
<P>(4) The possibility that assets have been concealed or improperly transferred by the debtor; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The availability of assets or income that may be realized by enforced collection proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE will verify the debtor's claim of inability to pay by using a credit report and other financial information as provided in paragraph (g) of this section. DOE will consider the applicable exemptions available to the debtor under state and Federal law in determining the Government's ability to enforce collection. DOE may also consider uncertainty as to the price that collateral or other property will bring at a forced sale in determining the Government's ability to enforce collection. A compromise effected under this section should be for an amount that bears a reasonable relation to the amount that can be recovered by enforced collection procedures, with regard to the exemptions available to the debtor and the time that collection will take. 
</P>
<P>(d) If there is significant doubt concerning the Government's ability to prove its case in court for the full amount claimed, either because of the legal issues involved or because of a bona fide dispute as to the facts, then the amount accepted in compromise of such cases should fairly reflect the probabilities of successful prosecution to judgment, with due regard given to the availability of witnesses and other evidentiary support for the Government's claim. In determining the litigative risks involved, DOE will consider the probable amount of court costs and attorney fees pursuant to the Equal Access to Justice Act, 28 U.S.C. 2412, that may be imposed against the Government if it is unsuccessful in litigation. 
</P>
<P>(e) DOE may compromise a debt if the cost of collecting the debt does not justify the enforced collection of the full amount. The amount accepted in compromise in such cases may reflect an appropriate discount for the administrative and litigative costs of collection, with consideration given to the time it will take to effect collection. Collection costs may be a substantial factor in the settlement of small debts. In determining whether the cost of collecting justifies enforced collection of the full amount, DOE should consider whether continued collection of the debt, regardless of cost, is necessary to further an enforcement principle, such as the Government's willingness to pursue aggressively defaulting and uncooperative debtors. 
</P>
<P>(f) DOE generally will not accept compromises payable in installments. This is not an advantageous form of compromise in terms of time and administrative expense. If, however, payment of a compromise in installments is necessary, DOE will obtain a legally enforceable, written agreement providing that, in the event of default, the full original principal balance of the debt prior to compromise, less sums paid thereon, is reinstated. Whenever possible, DOE also will obtain security for repayment in the manner set forth in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) To assess the merits of a compromise offer based in whole or in part on the debtor's inability to pay the full amount of a debt within a reasonable time, DOE will, if feasible, obtain a current financial statement from the debtor, executed under penalty of perjury, showing the debtor's assets, liabilities, income, and expenses. DOE also may obtain credit reports or other financial information to assess compromise offers. DOE may use its own financial information form or may request suitable forms from the DOJ or the local United States Attorney's Office. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.303" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.303   Enforcement policy.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to this part, DOE may compromise statutory penalties, forfeitures, or claims established as an aid to enforcement and to compel compliance, if DOE's enforcement policy in terms of deterrence and securing compliance, present and future, will be adequately served by DOE's acceptance of the sum to be agreed upon. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.304" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.304   Joint and several liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When two or more debtors are jointly and severally liable, DOE will pursue collection activity against all debtors, as appropriate. DOE will not attempt to allocate the burden of payment between the debtors, but will proceed to liquidate the indebtedness as quickly as possible. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will seek to ensure that a compromise agreement with one debtor does not release DOE's claim against the remaining debtors. The amount of a compromise with one debtor shall not be considered a precedent or binding in determining the amount that will be required from other debtors jointly and severally liable on the claim. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.305" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.305   Further review of compromise offers.</HEAD>
<P>If DOE is uncertain whether to accept a firm, written, substantive compromise offer on a debt that is within DOE's delegated compromise authority, it may refer the offer to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in the DOJ, using a CCLR accompanied by supporting data and particulars concerning the debt. The DOJ may act upon such an offer or return it to DOE with instructions or advice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.306" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.306   Consideration of tax consequences to the Government.</HEAD>
<P>In negotiating a compromise, DOE will consider the tax consequences to the Government. In particular, DOE will consider requiring a waiver of tax-loss-carry-forward and tax-loss-carry-back rights of the debtor. For information on discharge of indebtedness reporting requirements see § 1015.405 of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.307" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.3.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.307   Mutual releases of the debtor and the Government.</HEAD>
<P>In all appropriate instances, a compromise that is accepted by DOE will be implemented by means of a mutual release, in which the debtor is released from further non-tax liability on the compromised debt in consideration of payment in full of the compromise amount and the Government and its officials, past and present, are released and discharged from any and all claims and causes of action arising from the same transaction that the debtor may have. In the event a mutual release is not executed when a debt is compromised, unless prohibited by law, the debtor is still deemed to have waived any and all claims and causes of action against the Government and its officials related to the transaction giving rise to the compromised debt. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Standards for Suspending or Terminating Collection Activity</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.400" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.4.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.400   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The subpart sets forth the standards for terminating collection activity. This subpart corresponds to 31 CFR part 903 of the Treasury Federal Claims Collection Standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.401" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.4.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.401   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The standards set forth in this subpart apply to the suspension or termination of collection activity pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3711 on debts that do not exceed $100,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, after deducting the amount of partial payments or collections, if any. Prior to referring a debt to the DOJ for litigation, DOE may suspend or terminate collection under this part with respect to debts arising out of activities of, or referred to, DOE. 
</P>
<P>(b) If, after deducting the amount of any partial payments or collections, the principal amount of a debt exceeds $100,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, the authority to suspend or terminate rests solely with the DOJ. If DOE believes that suspension or termination of any debt in excess of $100,000 may be appropriate, DOE shall refer the debt to the Civil Division or other appropriate litigating division in the DOJ, using the CCLR. The referral should specify the reasons for DOE's recommendation. If, prior to referral to the DOJ, DOE determines that a debt is plainly erroneous or clearly without legal merit, DOE may terminate collection activity regardless of the amount involved without obtaining DOJ concurrence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.402" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.4.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.402   Suspension of collection activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may suspend collection activity on a debt when: 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE cannot locate the debtor; 
</P>
<P>(2) The debtor's financial condition is expected to improve; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor has requested a waiver or review of the debt. 
</P>
<P>(b) Based on the current financial condition of the debtor, DOE may suspend collection activity on a debt when the debtor's future prospects justify retention of the debt for periodic review and collection activity and: 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicable statute of limitations has not expired; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Future collection can be effected by administrative offset, notwithstanding the expiration of the applicable statute of limitations for litigation of claims, with due regard to the 10-year limitation for administrative offset prescribed by 31 U.S.C. 3716(e)(1); or 
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor agrees to pay interest on the amount of the debt on which collection will be suspended, and such suspension is likely to enhance the debtor's ability to pay the full amount of the principal of the debt with interest at a later date. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) DOE shall suspend collection activity during the time required for consideration of the debtor's request for waiver or administrative review of the debt if the statute under which the request is sought prohibits DOE from collecting the debt during that time. As indicated in § 1015.212(h), DOE will continue to accrue interest, penalties, and administrative costs during the period collection activity is suspended. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the statute under which the request is sought does not prohibit collection activity pending consideration of the request, DOE may use discretion, on a case-by-case basis, to suspend collection. Further, DOE ordinarily will suspend collection action upon a request for waiver or review if DOE is prohibited by statute or regulation from issuing a refund of amounts collected prior to DOE's consideration of the debtor's request. However, DOE will not suspend collection when DOE determines that the request for waiver or review is frivolous or was made primarily to delay collection. 
</P>
<P>(d) When DOE learns that a bankruptcy petition has been filed with respect to a debtor, in most cases the collection activity on a debt must be suspended, pursuant to the provisions of 11 U.S.C. 362, 1201, and 1301, unless DOE can clearly establish that the automatic stay has been lifted or is no longer in effect. DOE will seek legal advice immediately from counsel and, if legally permitted, take the necessary legal steps to ensure that no funds or money is paid by DOE to the debtor until relief from the automatic stay is obtained. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.403" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.4.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.403   Termination of collection activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may terminate collection activity when: 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE is unable to collect any substantial amount through its own efforts or through the efforts of others; 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE is unable to locate the debtor; 
</P>
<P>(3) Costs of collection are anticipated to exceed the amount recoverable; 
</P>
<P>(4) The debt is legally without merit, or enforcement of the debt is barred by any applicable statute of limitations; 
</P>
<P>(5) The debt cannot be substantiated; or 
</P>
<P>(6) The debt against the debtor has been discharged in bankruptcy. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before terminating collection activity, DOE will have pursued all appropriate means of collection and determined, based upon the results of the collection activity, that the debt is uncollectible. Termination of collection activity ceases active collection of the debt. The termination of collection activity does not preclude DOE from retaining a record of the account for purposes of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Selling the debt, if Treasury determines that such sale is in the best interests of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuing collection at a subsequent date in the event there is a change in the debtor's status or a new collection tool becomes available; 
</P>
<P>(3) Offsetting against future income or assets not available at the time of termination of collection activity; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Screening future applicants for prior indebtedness. 
</P>
<P>(c) Generally, DOE shall terminate collection activity on a debt that has been discharged in bankruptcy, regardless of the amount. DOE may continue collection activity, however, subject to the provisions of the Bankruptcy Code, for any payments provided under a plan of reorganization. Offset and recoupment rights may survive the discharge of the debtor in bankruptcy and, under some circumstances, claims also may survive the discharge. For example, if DOE is a known creditor of a debtor, its claims may survive a discharge if DOE did not receive formal notice of the proceedings. DOE will seek legal advice from counsel if it believes it has claims or offsets that may survive the discharge of a debtor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.404" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.4.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.404   Exception to termination.</HEAD>
<P>When a significant enforcement policy is involved, or recovery of a judgment is a prerequisite to the imposition of administrative sanctions, DOE may refer debts for litigation even though termination of collection activity may otherwise be appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.405" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.4.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.405   Discharge of indebtedness; reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before discharging a delinquent debt (also referred to as a close out of the debt), DOE shall take all appropriate steps to collect the debt in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g), including, as applicable, administrative offset, tax refund offset, Federal salary offset, referral to Treasury, Treasury-designated debt collection centers or private collection contractors, credit bureau reporting, wage garnishment, litigation, and foreclosure. Discharge of indebtedness is distinct from termination or suspension of collection activity under § 1015.400 of this part and is governed by the Internal Revenue Code. When collection action on a debt is suspended or terminated, the debt remains delinquent and further collection action may be pursued at a later date in accordance with the standards set forth in this subpart. When DOE discharges a debt in full or in part, further collection action is prohibited. Therefore, DOE will make the determination that collection action is no longer warranted before discharging a debt. Before discharging a debt, DOE must terminate debt collection action. 
</P>
<P>(b) 31 U.S.C. 3711(i) requires DOE to sell a delinquent non-tax debt upon termination of collection action if Treasury determines such a sale is in the best interests of the United States. Since the discharge of a debt precludes any further collection action (including the sale of a delinquent debt), DOE may not discharge a debt until the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3711(i) have been met. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon discharge of an indebtedness, DOE must report the discharge to the IRS in accordance with the requirements of 26 U.S.C. 6050P and 26 CFR 1.6050P-1. DOE may request Treasury or Treasury-designated debt collection centers to file such a discharge report to the IRS on DOE's behalf. 
</P>
<P>(d) When discharging a debt, DOE must request that litigation counsel release any liens of record securing the debt. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Referrals to the Department of Justice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.500" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.5.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.500   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the standards for referrals to the Department of Justice. This subpart corresponds to 31 CFR part 904 of the Treasury Federal Claims Collection Standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.501" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.5.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.501   Referrals to the Department of Justice and the Department of the Treasury's Cross-Servicing Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may authorize Treasury to refer a delinquent debt to the DOJ for litigation in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g), the DCIA, the revised Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR parts 900-904), and other applicable authorities. DOE shall ensure that all of the rights and protections afforded to the debtor under 31 U.S.C. 3711(e) have been fulfilled. 
</P>
<P>(b) As described in § 1015.201(e), under the DCIA (31 U.S.C. 3711(g)), DOE is required to transfer all debts over 180 days delinquent to Treasury for purposes of debt collection (<I>i.e.,</I> cross-servicing). As part of its regular debt collection procedures, Treasury will refer debts to the DOJ for litigation on behalf of DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.502" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.5.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.502   Prompt referral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a debt is not referred to the DOJ through Treasury's cross-servicing program, DOE shall promptly refer to the DOJ for litigation debts on which aggressive collection activity has been taken in accordance with § 1015.200 of this part and that cannot be compromised, or on which collection activity cannot be suspended or terminated, in accordance with §§ 1015.300 and 1015.400 of this part. DOE may refer those debts arising out of activities of DOE. Debts for which the principal amount is over $1,000,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest and penalties, shall be referred to the Civil Division or other division responsible for litigating such debts at the DOJ, Washington, DC. Debts for which the principal amount is $1,000,000, or less, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest or penalties, shall be referred to the DOJ's Nationwide Central Intake Facility as required by the CCLR instructions. Claims will be referred as early as possible, consistent with aggressive agency collection activity and the observance of the standards contained in the Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR parts 900-904), and, in any event, well within the period for initiating timely lawsuits against the debtors. DOE shall make every effort to refer delinquent debts to the DOJ for litigation within one year of the date such debts last became delinquent. In the case of guaranteed or insured loans, DOE will make every effort to refer these delinquent debts to the DOJ for litigation within one year from the date the loan was presented to DOE for payment or re-insurance. 
</P>
<P>(b) The DOJ has exclusive jurisdiction over the debts referred to it pursuant to this section. DOE shall refrain from having any contact with the debtor and shall direct all debtor inquiries concerning the claim to the DOJ. DOE shall notify the DOJ immediately of any payments credited by DOE to the debtor's account after referral of a debt or claim under this section. The DOJ shall notify DOE, in a timely manner, of any payments it receives from the debtor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.503" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.5.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.503   Claims Collection Litigation Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless excepted by the DOJ, DOE shall complete the CCLR (see § 1015.301 of this part), accompanied by a signed Certificate of Indebtedness, to refer all administratively uncollectible claims to the DOJ for litigation. DOE shall complete all of the sections of the CCLR appropriate to each claim as required by the CCLR instructions and furnish such other information as may be required in specific cases. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall indicate clearly on the CCLR the actions it wishes the DOJ to take with respect to the referred claim. The CCLR permits DOE to indicate specifically any of a number of litigative activities which the DOJ may pursue, including enforced collection, judgment lien only, renew judgment lien only, renew judgment lien and enforce collection, program enforcement, foreclosure only, and foreclosure and deficiency judgment.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE also shall use the CCLR to refer claims to the DOJ to obtain the DOJ's approval of any proposals to compromise the claims or to suspend or terminate DOE collection activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.504" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.5.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.504   Preservation of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>DOE will take care to preserve all files and records that may be needed by the DOJ to prove its claims in court. DOE ordinarily will include certified copies of the documents that form the basis for the claim in the packages referring its claims to the DOJ for litigation. DOE shall provide originals of such documents immediately upon request by the DOJ. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.505" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.10.5.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.505   Minimum amount of referrals to the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE shall not refer for litigation claims of less than $2,500, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, or such other amount as the Attorney General shall from time to time prescribe. The DOJ promptly shall notify DOE if the Attorney General changes this minimum amount. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall not refer claims of less than the minimum amount unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) Litigation to collect such smaller claims is important to ensure compliance with DOE's policies or programs; 
</P>
<P>(2) The claim is being referred solely for the purpose of securing a judgment against the debtor, which will be filed as a lien against the debtor's property pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 3201 and returned to DOE for enforcement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The debtor has the clear ability to pay the claim and the Government effectively can enforce payment, with due regard for the exemptions available to the debtor under state and Federal law and the judicial remedies available to the Government. 
</P>
<P>(4) DOE will consult with the Financial Litigation Staff of the Executive Office for United States Attorneys in the DOJ prior to referring claims valued at less than the minimum amount.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1016" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1016—SAFEGUARDING OF RESTRICTED DATA BY ACCESS PERMITTEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 161i of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, 68 Stat. 948 (42 U.S.C. 2201).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="22" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part establish requirements for the safeguarding of Secret and Confidential Restricted Data received or developed under an access permit. This part does not apply to Top Secret information since no such information may be forwarded to an access permittee within the scope of this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to all persons who may require access to Retricted Data used, processed, stored, reproduced, transmitted, or handled in connection with an access permit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Access authorization.</I> An administrative determination by DOE that an individual who is either a DOE employee, applicant for employment, consultant, assignee, other Federal department or agency employee (or other persons who may be designated by the Secretary of Energy), or a DOE contractor or subcontractor employee, or an access permittee is eligible for access to Restricted Data. Access authorizations granted by DOE are designated as “Q,” “Q(X),” “L,” or “L(X).”
</P>
<P>(1) “Q” access authorizations are based upon single scope background investigations as set forth in applicable DOE and national-level directives. They permit an individual who has “need to know” access to Top Secret, Secret and Confidential Restricted Data, Formerly Restricted Data, National Security Information, or special nuclear material in Category I or II quantities as required in the performance of duties, subject to additional determination that permitting this access will not endanger the common defense or national security of the United States. There may be additional requirements for access to specific types of RD information.
</P>
<P>(2) “Q(X)” access authorizations are based upon the same level of investigation required for a Q access authorization. When “Q” access authorizations are granted to access permittees they are identified as “Q(X)” access authorizations and, as need-to-know applies, authorize access only to the type of Secret Restricted Data as specified in the permit and consistent with appendix A, 10 CFR part 725, “Categories of Restricted Data Available.”
</P>
<P>(3) “L” access authorizations are based upon a Tier III (formerly National Agency Check with Local Agency Checks and Credit Checks (NACLC)/Access National Agency Check with Inquiries (ANACI)) background investigation as set forth in applicable national-level directives. They permit an individual who has “need to know” access to Confidential Restricted Data, Secret and Confidential Formerly Restricted Data, or Secret and Confidential National Security Information, required in the performance of duties, provided such information is not designated “CRYPTO” (classified cryptographic information), “COMSEC” (communications security), or intelligence information and subject to additional determination that permitting this access will not endanger the common defense or national security of the United States. There may be additional requirements for access to specific types of RD information.
</P>
<P>(4) “L(X)” access authorizations are based upon the same level of investigation required for an “L” access authorization. When “L” access authorizations are granted to access permittees, they are identified as “L(X)” access authorizations and, as need to know applies, authorize access only to the type of Confidential Restricted Data as specified in the permit and consistent with appendix A, 10 CFR part 725, “Categories of Restricted Data Available.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act.</I> The Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 919) as amended.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classified mail address.</I> A mail address established for each access permittee and approved by the DOE to be used when sending Restricted Data to the permittee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Classified matter.</I> Anything in physical form (including, but not limited to documents and material) that contains or reveals classified information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Combination lock.</I> A built-in combination lock on a security container which is of tempered steel alloy hard plate, at least 
<FR>1/4</FR>″ in thickness and Rockwell hardness of C-63 to C-65, of sufficient size and so located as to sufficiently impede access to the locking mechanism by drilling of the lock or container.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>DOE.</I> The United States Department of Energy or its duly authorized representatives.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Formerly Restricted Data.</I> Classified information jointly determined by the DOE and the Department of Defense to be related primarily to the military utilization of atomic weapons and removed by the DOE from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142(d) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Infraction.</I> An act or omission involving failure to comply with DOE safeguards and security orders, directives, or approvals and may include a violation of law.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Intrusion detection system.</I> A security system consisting of sensors capable of detecting one or more types of phenomena, signal media, annunciators, energy sources, alarm assessment systems, and alarm reporting elements including alarm communications and information display equipment.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>National Security.</I> The national defense and foreign relations of the United States.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>National Security Information.</I> Information that has been determined pursuant to Executive Order 13526, as amended “Classified National Security Information” or any predecessor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classified status when in documentary form.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>“Need to know.”</I> A determination by persons having responsibility for classified information or matter, that a proposed recipient's access to such classified information or matter is necessary in the performance of official, contractual, or access permit duties of employment under cognizance of the DOE.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Permittee.</I> The holder of an Access Permit issued pursuant to the regulations set forth in 10 CFR part 725, “Permits For Access to Restricted Data.”
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Person.</I> Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than DOE, any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, or other entity; and any legal successor, representative, agency, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Protective personnel.</I> Guards or watchmen or other persons designated responsibility for the protection of classified matter.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Restricted Data.</I> All data concerning design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons; the production of special nuclear material; or the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, but shall not include data declassified or removed from the Restricted Data category pursuant to section 142 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Security area.</I> A physically defined space containing classified matter and subject to physical protection and personnel access controls. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Security clearance.</I> See access authorization.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Security facility.</I> Any facility, including an access permittee, which has been approved by the DOE for using, processing, storing, reproducing, transmitting, or handling classified matter.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Security facility approval.</I> A determination by the DOE that a facility, including an access permittee, is eligible to use, process, store, reproduce, transmit, or handle classified matter.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Security Plan.</I> A written plan by the access permittee, and submitted to the DOE for approval, which outlines the permittee's proposed security procedures and controls for the protection of Restricted Data and which includes a floor plan of the area in which the classified matter is to be used, processed, stored, reproduced, transmitted, or handled.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Security survey.</I> An onsite examination by a DOE representative of all devices, equipment, and procedures employed at a security facility to safeguard classified matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983, as amended at 71 FR 68735, Nov. 28, 2006; 82 FR 41505, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.4   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>Communications concerning rulemaking, <I>i.e.,</I> petition to change this part, should be addressed to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, EHSS-1/Forrestal Building, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585. All other communications concerning the regulations in this part should be addressed to the cognizant DOE or National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41505, Sept. 1, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.5   Submission of procedures by access permit holder.</HEAD>
<P>No access permit holder shall have access to Restricted Data until he has submitted to the DOE a written statement of his procedures for the safeguarding of Restricted Data and for the security education of his employees, and DOE shall have determined and informed the permittee that his procedures for the safeguarding of Restricted Data are in compliance with the regulations in this part and that his procedures for the security education of his employees, who will have access to Restricted Data, are informed about and understand the regulations in this part. These procedures must ensure that employees with access to Restricted Data are informed about and understand who is authorized or required to classify and declassify RD and FRD information and classified matter as well as how documents containing RD or FRD are marked (see 10 CFR part 1045) and safeguarded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.6   Specific waivers.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may, upon application of any interested party, grant such waivers from the requirements of this part as it determines are authorized by law and will not constitute an undue risk to the common defense and security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.7   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically authorized by the Secretary of Energy in writing, no interpretation of the meaning of the regulations in this part by any officer or employee of DOE other than a written interpretation by the General Counsel will be recognized to be binding upon DOE.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Physical Security</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.8   Request for security facility approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An access permittee who has a need to use, process, store, reproduce, transmit, or handle Restricted Data at any location in connection with its permit shall promptly request a DOE security facility approval.
</P>
<P>(b) The request shall include the following information: The name and address of the permittee; the extent and scope of the classified activity and the highest classification of Restricted Data to be received; a written statement in the form of a security plan which outlines the permittee's proposed security procedures and controls for the protection of Restricted Data, including a floor plan of the areas(s) in which the classified matter is to be used, processed, stored, reproduced, transmitted, and handled.
</P>
<P>(c) The DOE will promptly inform the permittee of the acceptability of the request for further processing and will notify the permittee of its decision in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.9   Processing security facility approval.</HEAD>
<P>Following receipt of an acceptable request for security facility approval, the DOE will perform an initial security survey of the permittee's facility to determine that granting a security facility approval would be consistent with the national security. If DOE makes such a determination, security facility approval will be granted. If not, security facility approval will be withheld pending compliance with the security survey recommendations or until a waiver is granted pursuant to § 1016.6.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.10   Granting, denial, or suspension of security facility approval.</HEAD>
<P>Notification of the DOE's granting, denial, or suspension of security facility approval will be furnished the permittee in writing, or orally with written confirmation. This information may also be furnished to representatives of the DOE, DOE contractors, or other Federal agencies having a need to transmit Restricted Data to the permittee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.11   Cancellation of requests for security facility approval.</HEAD>
<P>When a request for security facility approval is to be withdrawn or cancelled, the cognizant DOE Office will be notified by the requester immediately by telephone and confirmed in writing so that processing of this approval may be terminated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.12   Termination of security facility approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Security facility approval will be terminated when:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no longer a need to use, process, store, reproduce, transmit, or handle Restricted Data at the facility; or
</P>
<P>(2) The DOE makes a determination that continued security facility approval is not in the interest of common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(b) The permittee will be notified in writing of a determination to terminate facility approval, and the procedures outlined in § 1016.27 will apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.13   Protection of Restricted Data in storage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons who possess Restricted Data pursuant to an Access Permit shall store the Restricted Data classified matter when not in use in a locked storage container or DOE-approved vault to which only persons with appropriate access authorization and a need to know the information contained have access. Storage containers used for storing classified matter must conform to U.S. General Services Administration (GSA) standards and specifications.
</P>
<P>(b) Each permittee shall change the combination on locks of his safekeeping equipment whenever such equipment is placed in use, whenever an individual knowing the combination no longer requires access to the repository as a result of change in duties or position in the permittee's organization, or termination of employment with the permittee or whenever the combination has been subjected to compromise, and in any event at least once a year. Permittees shall classify records of combinations no lower than the highest classification of the classified matter authorized for storage in the safekeeping equipment concerned.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.14" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.14   Protection of Restricted Data while in use.</HEAD>
<P>While in use, classified matter containing Restricted Data shall be under the direct control of a person with the appropriate access authorization and need to know. Unauthorized access to the Restricted Data shall be precluded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.15" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.15   Establishment of security areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When, because of their nature or size, it is impracticable to safeguard classified matter containing Restricted Data in accordance with the provisions of §§ 1016.13 and 1016.14, a security area to protect such classified matter shall be established.
</P>
<P>(b) The following controls shall apply to security areas:
</P>
<P>(1) Security areas shall be separated from adjacent areas by a physical barrier designed to prevent entrance into such areas, and access to the Restricted Data within the areas, by unauthorized individuals.
</P>
<P>(2) During working hours, admittance shall be controlled by an appropriately cleared individual posted at each unlocked entrance.
</P>
<P>(3) During nonworking hours, admittance shall be controlled by protective personnel on patrol, with protective personnel posted at unlocked entrances, or by such intrusion detection system as DOE approves.
</P>
<P>(4) Each individual authorized to enter a security area shall be issued a distinctive badge or pass when the number of employees assigned to the area exceeds thirty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.16" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.16   Special handling of classified material.</HEAD>
<P>When the Restricted Data contained in material is not ascertainable by observation or examination at the place where the material is located and when the material is not readily removable because of size, weight, radioactivity, or similar factors, DOE may authorize the permittee to provide such lesser protection than is otherwise required by §§ 1016.21 to 1016.23 inclusive, as DOE determines to be commensurate with the difficulty of removing the material.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983. Redesignated at 82 FR 41506, Sept. 1, 2017


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.17" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.23.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.17   Protective personnel.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever armed protective personnel are required in accordance with § 1016.15, such protective personnel shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Possess a “Q” or “L” access authorization or “Q(X)” or “L(X)” access authorization if the Restricted Data being protected is classified Confidential, or a “Q” access authorization or “Q(X)” access authorization if the Restricted Data being protected is classified Secret.
</P>
<P>(b) Be armed with sidearms of 9mm or greater.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41507, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Control of Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.18" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.18   Access to Restricted Data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as DOE may authorize, no person subject to the regulations in this part shall permit any individual to have access to Restricted Data in his possession unless the individual has an appropriate access authorization granted by DOE, or has been certified by DOD or NASA through DOE; and
</P>
<P>(1) The individual is authorized by an Access Permit to receive Restricted Data in the categories involved and the permittee determines that such access is required in the course of his duties; or
</P>
<P>(2) The individual needs such access in connection with such duties as a DOE employee or DOE contractor employee, or as certified by DOD or NASA.
</P>
<P>(b) Inquiries concerning the access authorization status of individuals, the scope of Access Permits, or the nature of contracts should be addressed to the cognizant DOE or NNSA office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41507, Sept. 1,2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.19" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.19   Review, classification and marking of classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Classification.</I> Restricted Data generated or possessed by an Access Permit holder must be appropriately classified and marked in accordance with 10 CFR part 1045. CG-DAR-2, “Guide to the Declassified Areas of Nuclear Energy Research U 08/98,” will be furnished each permittee. In the event a permittee originates classified information which falls within the definition of Restricted Data or information for which the permittee is not positive that the information is outside of that definition and CG-DAR-2 does not provide positive classification guidance for such information, the permittee shall designate the information as Confidential, Restricted Data and request classification guidance from the DOE through the Classification Officer at the cognizant DOE or NNSA office. If the DOE Classification Officer does not have authority to provide the guidance, he will refer the request to the Director, Office of Classification, EHSS-60/Germantown Building, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-1290.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Challenges.</I> If a person receives a document or other classified matter which, in his opinion, is not properly classified, or omits the appropriate classification markings, he is encouraged to challenge the classification and there shall be no retribution for submitting a challenge. Challenges shall be submitted in accordance with 10 CFR part 1045.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Classification markings.</I> Restricted Data generated or possessed by an individual approved for access must be appropriately identified and marked in accordance with 10 CFR part 1045, Nuclear Classification and Declassification. Questions and requests for additional direction or guidance regarding the marking of classified matter may be submitted to the Director, Office of Classification, EHSS-60/Germantown Building, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-1290.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41507, Sept. 1, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.20" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.20   External transmission of Restricted Data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restrictions.</I> (1) Restricted Data shall be transmitted only to persons who possess appropriate access authorization, need to know, and are otherwise eligible for access under the requirements of § 1016.18.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, such classified matter containing Restricted Data shall be transmitted only to persons who possess approved facilities for their physical security consistent with this part. Any person subject to the regulations in this part who transmits such Restricted Data containing Restricted Data shall be deemed to have fulfilled his obligations under this paragraph (a)(2) by securing a written certification from the prospective recipient that such recipient possesses facilities for its physical security consistent with this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Restricted Data shall not be exported from the United States without prior authorization from DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preparation of documents.</I> Documents containing Restricted Data shall be prepared for transmission outside an individual installation in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) They shall be enclosed in two sealed, opaque envelopes or wrappers.
</P>
<P>(2) The inner envelope or wrapper shall be addressed in the ordinary manner and sealed with tape, the appropriate classification shall be marked on both sides of the envelope, and any additional marking required by 10 CFR part 1045 shall be applied.
</P>
<P>(3) The outer envelope or wrapper shall be addressed in the ordinary manner. No classification, additional marking, or other notation shall be affixed which indicates that the document enclosed therein contains classified information or Restricted Data.
</P>
<P>(4) A receipt which identifies the document, the date of transfer, the recipient, and the person transferring the document shall accompany the document and shall be signed by the recipient and returned to the sender whenever the custody of a document containing Secret Restricted Data is transferred.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preparation of other classified matter.</I> Classified matter, other than documents, containing Restricted Data shall be prepared for shipment outside an individual installation in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The classified matter shall be so packaged that the classified characteristics will not be revealed.
</P>
<P>(2) A receipt which identifies the classified matter, the date of shipment, the recipient, and the person transferring the classified matter shall accompany the classified matter, and the recipient shall sign such receipt whenever the custody of classified matter containing Secret Restricted Data is transferred.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of transportation.</I> (1) Secret classified matter shall be transported only by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By messenger-courier system specifically created for that purpose and approved for use by DOE.
</P>
<P>(ii) Registered mail.
</P>
<P>(iii) By protective services provided by United States air or surface commercial carriers under such conditions as may be preserved by the DOE.
</P>
<P>(iv) Individuals possessing appropriate DOE access authorization who have been given written authority by their employers.
</P>
<P>(2) Confidential classified matter may be transported by one of the methods set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section or by U.S. first class, express, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Telecommunication of classified information.</I> There shall be no telecommunication of Restricted Data unless the secure telecommunication system has been approved by the DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41507, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.21" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.21   Accountability for Secret Restricted Data.</HEAD>
<P>Each permittee possessing classified matter (including classified matter in electronic format) containing Secret Restricted Data shall establish accountability procedures and shall maintain logs to document access to and record comprehensive disposition information for all such classified matter that has been in his custody at any time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41507, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.22" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.22   Authority to reproduce Restricted Data.</HEAD>
<P>Secret Restricted Data will not be reproduced without the written permission of the originator, his successor, or high authority. Confidential Restricted Data may be reproduced to the minimum extent necessary consistent with efficient operation without the necessity for permission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983. Redesiganted at 82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.23" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.23   Changes in classification.</HEAD>
<P>Classified matter containing Restricted Data shall not be downgraded or declassified except as authorized by DOE and in accordance with 10 CFR part 1045.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.24" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.24   Destruction of classified matter containing Restricted Data.</HEAD>
<P>Documents containing Restricted Data may be destroyed by burning, pulping, or another method that assures complete destruction of the information which they contain. Restricted Data contained in classified matter, other than documents, may be destroyed only by a method that assures complete obliteration, removal, or destruction of the Restricted Data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.25" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.25   Storage, use, processing, transmission and destruction of classified information on computers, computer networks, electronic devices/media and mobile devices.</HEAD>
<P>Storage, use, processing, and transmission of Restricted Data on computers, computer networks, electronic devices/media and mobile devices must be approved by DOE. DOE-approved methods must be used when destroying classified information that is in electronic format.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.26" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.26   Suspension or revocation of access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where the access authorization of an individual subject to the regulations in this part is suspended or revoked in accordance with the procedures set forth in 10 CFR part 710, such individual shall, upon due notice from DOE of such suspension or revocation and demand by DOE, deliver to DOE any and all Restricted Data in his possession for safekeeping and such further disposition as DOE determines to be just and proper. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983. Redesignated at 82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.27" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.27   Termination, suspension, or revocation of security facility approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with § 1016.12, if the need to use, process, store, reproduce, transmit, or handle classified matter no longer exists, the security facility approval will be terminated. The permittee may deliver all Restricted Data to the DOE or to a person authorized to receive them; or the permittee may destroy all such Restricted Data. In either case, the facility must submit a certification of non-possession of Restricted Data to the DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) In any instance where security facility approval has been suspended or revoked based on a determination of the DOE that further possession of classified matter by the permittee would endanger the common defense and national security, the permittee shall, upon notice from the DOE, immediately deliver all Restricted Data to the DOE along with a certificate of non-possession of Restricted Data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.28" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.28   Termination of employment or change of duties.</HEAD>
<P>Each permittee shall furnish promptly to DOE written notification of the termination of employment of each individual who possesses an access authorization under his Permit or whose duties are changed so that access to Restricted Data is no longer needed. Upon such notification, DOE may: 
</P>
<P>(a) Terminate the individual's access authorization, or 
</P>
<P>(b) Transfer the individual's access authorization to the new employer of the individual to allow continued access to Restricted Data where authorized, pursuant to DOE regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983. Redesignated at 82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.29" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.29   Continued applicability of the regulations in this part.</HEAD>
<P>The expiration, suspension, revocation, or other termination of a security clearance or access authorization or security facility approval shall not relieve any person from compliance with the regulations in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983. Redesignated at 82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.30" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.30   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each permittee shall immediately report to the DOE office administering the permit any alleged or suspected violation of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Espionage Act, or other Federal statutes related to Restricted Data. Additionally, the permittee shall report any infractions, losses, compromises, or possible compromise of Restricted Data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983. Redesignated at 82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.31" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.31   Inspections.</HEAD>
<P>The DOE shall make such inspections and surveys of the premises, activities, records, and procedures of any person subject to the regulations in this part as DOE deems necessary to effectuate the purposes of the Act, Executive Order 13526, and DOE orders and procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.32" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.11.0.24.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.32   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>An injunction or other court order may be obtained prohibiting any violation of any provision of the Act or any regulation or order issued thereunder. Any person who willfully violates, attempts to violate, or conspires to violate any provision of the Act or any regulation or order issued thereunder, including the provisions of this part, may be guilty of a crime and upon conviction may be punished by fine or imprisonment, or both, as provided by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 36432, Aug. 10, 1983. Redesignated at 82 FR 41508, Sept. 1, 2017]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1017" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1017—IDENTIFICATION AND PROTECTION OF UNCLASSIFIED CONTROLLED NUCLEAR INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED> Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 2168; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 32641, June 10, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Overview</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2168) which prohibits the unauthorized dissemination of certain unclassified Government information. This information identified by the term “Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information” (UCNI) consists of certain design and security information concerning nuclear facilities, nuclear materials, and nuclear weapons.
</P>
<P>(b) This part:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides for the review of information prior to its designation as UCNI;
</P>
<P>(2) Describes how information is determined to be UCNI;
</P>
<P>(3) Establishes minimum physical protection standards for documents and material containing UCNI;
</P>
<P>(4) Specifies who may have access to UCNI; and,
</P>
<P>(5) Establishes a procedure for the imposition of penalties on persons who violate section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act or any regulation or order of the Secretary issued under section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act, including this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to information controlled under 10 U.S.C. 128 by the Department of Defense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to any person who is or was authorized access to UCNI, requires authorized access to UCNI, or attempts to gain or gains unauthorized access to UCNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The Department of Energy (DOE) strives to make information publicly available to the fullest extent possible. Therefore, this part must be interpreted and implemented to apply the minimum restrictions needed to protect the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security consistent with the requirement in section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act to prohibit the unauthorized dissemination of UCNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Atomic Energy Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Atomic energy defense programs</I> means Government activities, equipment, and facilities that are capable of:
</P>
<P>(1) Developing, producing, testing, sampling, maintaining, repairing, modifying, assembling or disassembling, using, transporting, or retiring nuclear weapons or components of nuclear weapons; or
</P>
<P>(2) Producing, using, or transporting nuclear material that could be used in nuclear weapons or military-related utilization facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Authorized Individual</I> means a person who has routine access to UCNI under § 1017.20.
</P>
<P><I>Component</I> means any operational, experimental, or research-related part, subsection, design, or material used in the manufacture or utilization of a nuclear weapon, nuclear explosive device, or nuclear weapon test assembly.
</P>
<P><I>Denying Official</I> means a DOE official designated under 10 CFR 1004.2(b) who is authorized to deny a request for unclassified information that is exempt from release when requested under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the DOE Official, or his or her designee, to whom the Secretary has assigned responsibility for enforcement of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Document</I> means the physical medium on or in which information is recorded, regardless of its physical form or characteristics.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the United States Department of Energy, including the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA).
</P>
<P><I>Essential technology-related information</I> means technical information whose unauthorized dissemination could significantly increase the likelihood of the illegal production of a nuclear weapon.
</P>
<P><I>Exploitable security-related information</I> means information whose unauthorized dissemination could significantly increase the likelihood of the theft, diversion, or sabotage of nuclear material, equipment, or facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the Executive Branch of the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Government information</I> means any fact or concept, regardless of its physical form or characteristics, that is owned by, produced by or for, or otherwise controlled by the United States Government, including such facts or concepts that are provided by the Government to any person, including persons who are not employees of the Government.
</P>
<P><I>Guidance</I> means detailed written instructions that describe decisions made by the Secretary or his/her designee issued under Subpart B of these regulations concerning what specific information is UCNI.
</P>
<P><I>Illegal production</I> means the production or manufacture of a nuclear weapon in violation of either domestic (e.g., the Atomic Energy Act) or international (e.g., the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons) law.
</P>
<P><I>In transit</I> means the physical movement of a nuclear weapon, a component of a nuclear weapon containing nuclear material, or nuclear material from one part to another part of a facility or from one facility to another facility. An item is considered “in transit” until it has been relinquished to the custody of the authorized recipient and is in storage at its ultimate destination. An item in temporary storage pending shipment to its ultimate destination is “in transit.”
</P>
<P><I>Limited access</I> means access to specific UCNI granted by the cognizant DOE Program Secretarial Officer or a Deputy or Associate Administrator of the NNSA to an individual not eligible for routine access (see § 1017.21).
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means a product (<I>e.g.</I>, a part or a machine) or substance (e.g., a compound or an alloy), regardless of its physical form or characteristics.
</P>
<P><I>Need to know</I> means a determination made by an Authorized Individual that a person requires access to specific UCNI to perform official duties or other Government-authorized activities.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear material</I> means special nuclear material, byproduct material, or source material as defined by sections 11.aa., 11.e., and 11.z., respectively, of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2014 aa., e., and z), or any other material used in the production, testing, utilization, or assembly of nuclear weapons or components of nuclear weapons that the Secretary determines to be nuclear material under § 1017.9(a).
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear weapon</I> means atomic weapon as defined in section 11.d. of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2014 d).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any person as defined in section 11.s. of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2014 s) or any affiliate or parent corporation thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Production facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any equipment or device capable of producing special nuclear material in such quantity as to be of significance to the common defense and security or in such manner as to affect the health and safety of the public; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any important component part especially designed for such equipment or device.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this part, equipment and devices described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition include only:
</P>
<P>(i) Government uranium isotope enrichment equipment or devices and any other uranium isotope enrichment equipment or devices that use related technology provided by the Government; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Government plutonium production reactors, isotope enrichment equipment or devices, and separation and purification equipment or devices and other such equipment or devices that use related technology provided by the Government.
</P>
<P><I>Reviewing Official</I> means an individual authorized under § 1017.14(a) to make a determination, based on guidance, that a document or material contains UCNI.
</P>
<P><I>Routine access</I> means access to UCNI granted by an Authorized Individual to an individual eligible to receive UCNI under § 1017.20 in order to perform official duties or other Government-authorized activities.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear material</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Plutonium, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which DOE or the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, pursuant to the provisions of section 51 of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2071), determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, but does not include source material.
</P>
<P><I>Unauthorized dissemination</I> means the intentional or negligent transfer of UCNI to any person other than an Authorized Individual or a person granted limited access to UCNI under § 1017.21.
</P>
<P><I>Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information or UCNI</I> means certain unclassified Government information concerning nuclear facilities, materials, weapons, and components whose dissemination is controlled under section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Utilization facility</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any equipment or device, or any important component part especially designed for such equipment or device, except for a nuclear weapon, that is capable of making use of special nuclear material in such quantity as to be of significance to the common defense and security or in such manner as to affect the health and safety of the public. For the purposes of this part, such equipment or devices include only Government equipment or devices that use special nuclear material in the research, development, production, or testing of nuclear weapons, nuclear weapon components, or nuclear material capable of being used in nuclear weapons; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any equipment or device, or any important component part especially designed for such equipment or device, except for a nuclear weapon, that is peculiarly adapted for making use of nuclear energy in such quantity as to be of significance to the common defense and security or in such manner as to affect the health and safety of the public. For the purposes of this part, such equipment or devices include only:
</P>
<P>(i) Naval propulsion reactors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Military reactors and power sources that use special nuclear material;
</P>
<P>(iii) Tritium production reactors; and,
</P>
<P>(iv) Government research reactors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.1.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.5   Requesting a deviation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may request a deviation, or condition that diverges from the norm and that is categorized as:
</P>
<P>(1) A variance (i.e., an approved condition that technically varies from a requirement in these regulations);
</P>
<P>(2) A waiver (i.e., an approved nonstandard condition that deviates from a requirement in these regulations and which, if uncompensated, would create a potential or real vulnerability); or
</P>
<P>(3) An exception (i.e., an approved deviation from a requirement in these regulations for which DOE accepts the risk of a safeguards and security vulnerability) according to the degree of risk involved.
</P>
<P>(b) In writing, the person must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the specific requirement for which the deviation is being requested;
</P>
<P>(2) Explain why the deviation is needed; and,
</P>
<P>(3) If appropriate, describe the alternate or equivalent means for meeting the requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE employees must submit such requests according to internal directives. DOE contractors must submit such requests according to directives incorporated into their contracts. Other individuals must submit such requests to the Office of Classification, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585-1290. The Office of Classification's decision must be made within 30 days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 32641, June 10, 2008, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Initially Determining What Information Is Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.6   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary, or his or her designee, determines whether information is UCNI. These determinations are incorporated into guidance that each Reviewing Official and Denying Official consults in his or her review of a document or material to decide whether the document or material contains UCNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.7   Criteria.</HEAD>
<P>To be identified as UCNI, the information must meet each of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) The information must be Government information as defined in § 1017.4;
</P>
<P>(b) The information must concern atomic energy defense programs as defined in § 1017.4;
</P>
<P>(c) The information must fall within the scope of at least one of the three subject areas eligible to be UCNI in § 1017.8;
</P>
<P>(d) The information must meet the adverse effect test described in § 1017.10; and
</P>
<P>(e) The information must not be exempt from being UCNI under § 1017.11.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.8   Subject areas eligible to be Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information.</HEAD>
<P>To be eligible for identification as UCNI, information must concern at least one of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(a) The design of production or utilization facilities as defined in this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Security measures (including security plans, procedures, and equipment) for the physical protection of production or utilization facilities or nuclear material, regardless of its physical state or form, contained in these facilities or in transit; or
</P>
<P>(c) The design, manufacture, or utilization of nuclear weapons or components that were once classified as Restricted Data, as defined in section 11y. of the Atomic Energy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.9   Nuclear material determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary may determine that a material other than special nuclear material, byproduct material, or source material as defined by the Atomic Energy Act is included within the scope of the term “nuclear material” if it meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The material is used in the production, testing, utilization, or assembly of nuclear weapons or components of nuclear weapons; and
</P>
<P>(2) Unauthorized acquisition of the material could reasonably be expected to result in a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security because the specific material:
</P>
<P>(i) Could be used as a hazardous radioactive environmental contaminant; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Could be of significant assistance in the illegal production of a nuclear weapon.
</P>
<P>(b) Designation of a material as a nuclear material under paragraph (a) of this section does not make all information about the material UCNI. Specific information about the material must still meet each of the criteria in § 1017.7 prior to its being identified and controlled as UCNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.10   Adverse effect test.</HEAD>
<P>In order for information to be identified as UCNI, it must be determined that the unauthorized dissemination of the information under review could reasonably be expected to result in a significant adverse effect on the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security by significantly increasing the likelihood of:
</P>
<P>(a) Illegal production of a nuclear weapon; or
</P>
<P>(b) Theft, diversion, or sabotage of nuclear material, equipment, or facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.11   Information exempt from being Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information.</HEAD>
<P>Information exempt from this part includes:
</P>
<P>(a) Information protected from disclosure under section 147 of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2167) that is identified as Safeguards Information and controlled by the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission;
</P>
<P>(b) Basic scientific information (i.e., information resulting from research directed toward increasing fundamental scientific knowledge or understanding rather than any practical application of that knowledge);
</P>
<P>(c) Radiation exposure data and all other personal health information; and,
</P>
<P>(d) Information concerning the transportation of low level radioactive waste.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.12   Prohibitions on identifying Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information.</HEAD>
<P>Information, documents, and material must not be identified as being or containing UCNI in order to:
</P>
<P>(a) Conceal violations of law, inefficiency, or administrative error;
</P>
<P>(b) Prevent embarrassment to a person or organization;
</P>
<P>(c) Restrain competition; or,
</P>
<P>(d) Prevent or delay the release of any information that does not properly qualify as UCNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.2.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.13   Report concerning determinations.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of Classification or successor office shall issue a report by the end of each quarter that identifies any new information that has been determined for the first time to be UCNI during the previous quarter, explains how each such determination meets the criteria in § 1017.7, and explains why each such determination protects from disclosure only the minimum amount of information necessary to protect the health and safety of the public or the common defense and security. A copy of the report may be obtained by writing to the Office of Classification, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20585-1290.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 32641, June 10, 2008, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Review of a Document or Material for Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.14" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.14   Designated officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reviewing Official</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> A Reviewing Official with cognizance over the information contained in a document or material is authorized to determine whether the document or material contains UCNI based on applicable guidance. A Reviewing Official marks or authorizes the marking of the document or material as specified in § 1017.16.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request for designation.</I> Procedures for requesting that a DOE Federal or contractor employee be designated as a Reviewing Official are contained in Departmental directives issued by the Secretary. DOE may also designate other Government agency employees, contractors, or other individuals granted routine access under § 1017.20 as Reviewing Officials.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Designation.</I> Prior to being designated as a Reviewing Official, each employee must receive training approved by DOE that covers the requirements in these regulations and be tested on his or her proficiency in using applicable UCNI guidance. Upon successful completion of the training and test, he or she is designated as a Reviewing Official only while serving in his or her current position for a maximum of 3 years. The employee does not automatically retain the authority when he or she leaves his or her current position. The employee cannot delegate this authority to anyone else, and the authority may not be assumed by another employee acting in the employee's position. At the end of 3 years, if the position still requires the authority, the employee must be retested and redesignated by DOE as a Reviewing Official.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individuals approved to use DOE or joint DOE classification guidance</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> Other Government agency employees who are approved by DOE or another Government agency to use classification guidance developed by DOE or jointly by DOE and another Government agency may also be approved to review documents for UCNI and to make UCNI determinations. This authority is limited to the UCNI subject areas contained in the specific classification guidance that the individual has been approved to use.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Designation.</I> Individuals must be designated this authority in writing by the appropriate DOE or other Government agency official with cognizance over the specific DOE or joint DOE classification guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denying Official</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> A DOE Denying Official for unclassified information with cognizance over the information contained in a document is authorized to deny a request made under statute (e.g., the FOIA, the Privacy Act) or the mandatory review provisions of Executive Order 12958, as amended, “Classified National Security Information,” and its successor orders, for all or any portion of the document that contains UCNI. The Denying Official bases his or her denial on applicable guidance, ensuring that the Reviewing Official who determined that the document contains UCNI correctly interpreted and applied the guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Designation.</I> Information on the designation of DOE Denying Officials is contained in 10 CFR Part 1004, <I>Freedom of Information</I> (see definition of the term “Authorizing or Denying Official” in § 1004.2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.15" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.15   Review process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reviewing documents for UCNI.</I> Anyone who originates or possesses a document that he or she thinks may contain UCNI must send the document to a Reviewing Official for a determination before it is finalized, sent outside of his or her organization, or filed. If the originator or possessor must send the document outside of his or her organization for the review, he or she must mark the front of the document with “Protect as UCNI Pending Review” and must transmit the document in accordance with the requirements in § 1017.27. The Reviewing Official must first determine whether the document is widely disseminated in the public domain, which means that the document under review is publicly available from a Government technical information service or depository library, for example, or that it can be found in a public library or an open literature source, or it can be accessed on the Internet using readily available search methods.
</P>
<P>(1) If the document is determined to be widely disseminated in the public domain, it cannot be controlled as UCNI. The Reviewing Official returns the document to the person who sent it to the Reviewing Official and informs him or her why the document cannot be controlled as UCNI. This does not preclude control of the same information as UCNI if it is contained in another document that is not widely disseminated.
</P>
<P>(2) If the document is not determined to be widely disseminated in the public domain, the Reviewing Official evaluates the information in the document using guidance to determine whether the document contains UCNI. If the Reviewing Official determines that the document does contain UCNI, the Reviewing Official marks or authorizes the marking of the document as specified in § 1017.16. If the Reviewing Official determines that the document does not contain UCNI, the Reviewing Official returns the document to the person who sent it and informs him or her that the document does not contain UCNI. For documentation purposes, the Reviewing Official may mark or authorize the marking of the document as specified in § 1017.17(b).
</P>
<P>(3) If no applicable guidance exists, but the Reviewing Official thinks the information should be identified as UCNI, then the Reviewing Official must send the document to the appropriate official identified in applicable DOE directives issued by the Secretary or his or her designee. The Reviewing Official should also include a written recommendation as to why the information should be identified as UCNI.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review exemption for documents in files.</I> Any document that was permanently filed prior to May 22, 1985, is not required to be reviewed for UCNI while in the files or when retrieved from the files for reference, inventory, or similar purposes as long as the document will be returned to the files and is not accessible by individuals who are not Authorized Individuals for the UCNI contained in the document. However, when a document that is likely to contain UCNI is removed from the files for dissemination within or outside of the immediate organization, it must be reviewed by a Reviewing Official with cognizance over the information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reviewing material for UCNI.</I> Anyone who produces or possesses material that he or she thinks may contain or reveal UCNI must consult with a Reviewing Official for a determination. If the Reviewing Official determines that the material does contain or reveal UCNI, the Reviewing Official marks or authorizes the marking of the material as specified in § 1017.16(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.16" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.16   Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information markings on documents or material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marking documents.</I> If a Reviewing Official determines that a document contains UCNI, the Reviewing Official must mark or authorize the marking of the document as described in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Front marking.</I> The following marking must appear on the front of the document:
</P>
<HD3>Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information Not for Public Dissemination
</HD3>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Unauthorized dissemination subject to civil and criminal sanctions under section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2168).
</FP-1>
<FP>Reviewing Official:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name/Organization)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Guidance Used:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Page marking.</I> The marking “Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information” must be placed on the bottom of the front of the document and on the bottom of each interior page of the document that contains text or if more convenient, on the bottom of only those interior pages that contain UCNI. The page marking must also be placed on the back of the last page. If space limitations do not allow for use of the full page marking, the acronym “UCNI” may be used as the page marking.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Classified documents.</I> UCNI front and page markings are not applied to a classified document that also contains UCNI. If a classified document is portion marked, the acronym “UCNI” is used to indicate those unclassified portions that contain UCNI.
</P>
<P>(4) Obsolete “May Contain UCNI” marking. The “May Contain UCNI” marking is no longer used. Any document marked with the “May Contain UCNI” marking is considered to contain UCNI and must be protected accordingly until a Reviewing Official or Denying Official determines otherwise. The obsolete “May Contain UCNI” marking reads as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Not for Public Dissemination May contain Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information subject to section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2168). Approval by the Department of Energy prior to release is required.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Marking material.</I> If possible, material containing or revealing UCNI must be marked as described in § 1017.16(a)(1). If space limitations do not allow for use of the full marking in § 1017.16(a)(1), the acronym “UCNI” may be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.17" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.3.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.17   Determining that a document or material no longer contains or does not contain Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Document or material no longer contains UCNI.</I> A Reviewing Official with cognizance over the information in a document or material marked as containing UCNI may determine that the document or material no longer contains UCNI. A Denying Official may also determine that such a document or material no longer contains UCNI. The official making this determination must base it on applicable guidance and must ensure that any UCNI markings are crossed out (for documents) or removed (for material). The official marks or authorizes the marking of the document (or the material, if space allows) as follows:
</P>
<HD3>Does Not Contain Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information
</HD3>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Reviewing/Denying Official:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name and organization)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Document or material does not contain UCNI.</I> A Reviewing Official with cognizance over the information in a document or material may confirm that an unmarked document or material does not contain UCNI based on applicable guidance. No UCNI markings are required in this case; however, for documentation purposes, the Reviewing Official may mark or may authorize the marking of the document or material with the same marking used in § 1017.17(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.18" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.3.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.18   Joint documents or material.</HEAD>
<P>If a document or material marked as containing UCNI is under consideration for decontrol and falls under the cognizance of another DOE organization or other Government agency, the Reviewing Official or Denying Official must coordinate the decontrol review with that DOE organization or other Government agency. Any disagreement concerning the control or decontrol of any document or material that contains UCNI that was originated by or for DOE or another Government agency is resolved by the Secretary or his or her designee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Access to Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.19" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.4.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.19   Access limitations.</HEAD>
<P>A person may only have access to UCNI if he or she has been granted routine access by an Authorized Individual (see § 1017.20) or limited access by the DOE Program Secretarial Officer or NNSA Deputy or Associate Administrator with cognizance over the UCNI (see § 1017.21). The Secretary, or his or her designee, may impose additional administrative controls concerning the granting of routine or limited access to UCNI to a person who is not a U.S. citizen.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.20" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.4.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.20   Routine access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorized Individual.</I> The Reviewing Official who determines that a document or material contains UCNI is the initial Authorized Individual for that document or material. An Authorized Individual, for UCNI in his or her possession or control, may determine that another person is an Authorized Individual who may be granted access to the UCNI, subject to limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, and who may further disseminate the UCNI under the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for routine access.</I> To be eligible for routine access to UCNI, the person must have a need to know the UCNI in order to perform official duties or other Government-authorized activities and must be:
</P>
<P>(1) A U.S. citizen who is:
</P>
<P>(i) An employee of any branch of the Federal Government, including the U.S. Armed Forces;
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee or representative of a State, local, or Indian tribal government;
</P>
<P>(iii) A member of an emergency response organization;
</P>
<P>(iv) An employee of a Government contractor or a consultant, including those contractors or consultants who need access to bid on a Government contract;
</P>
<P>(v) A member of Congress or a staff member of a congressional committee or of an individual member of Congress;
</P>
<P>(vi) A Governor of a State, his or her designated representative, or a State government official;
</P>
<P>(vii) A member of a DOE advisory committee; or,
</P>
<P>(viii) A member of an entity that has entered into a formal agreement with the Government, such as a Cooperative Research and Development Agreement or similar arrangement; or,
</P>
<P>(2) A person who is not a U.S. citizen but who is:
</P>
<P>(i) A Federal Government employee or a member of the U.S. Armed Forces;
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee of a Federal Government contractor or subcontractor;
</P>
<P>(iii) A Federal Government consultant;
</P>
<P>(iv) A member of a DOE advisory committee;
</P>
<P>(v) A member of an entity that has entered into a formal agreement with the Government, such as a Cooperative Research and Development Agreement or similar arrangement;
</P>
<P>(vi) An employee or representative of a State, local, or Indian tribal government; or,
</P>
<P>(vii) A member of an emergency response organization when responding to an emergency; or,
</P>
<P>(3) A person who is not a U.S. citizen but who needs to know the UCNI in conjunction with an activity approved by the DOE Program Secretarial Officer or NNSA Deputy or Associate Administrator with cognizance over the UCNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.21" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.4.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.21   Limited access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person who is not eligible for routine access to specific UCNI under § 1017.20 may request limited access to such UCNI by sending a written request to the DOE Program Secretarial Officer or NNSA Deputy or Associate Administrator with cognizance over the information. The written request must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, current residence or business address, birthplace, birth date, and country of citizenship of the person submitting the request;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the specific UCNI for which limited access is being requested;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the purpose for which the UCNI is needed; and,
</P>
<P>(4) Certification by the requester that he or she:
</P>
<P>(i) Understands and will follow these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Understands that he or she is subject to the civil and criminal penalties under Subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The decision whether to grant the request for limited access is based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The sensitivity of the UCNI for which limited access is being requested;
</P>
<P>(2) The approving official's evaluation of the likelihood that the requester will disseminate the UCNI to unauthorized individuals; and,
</P>
<P>(3) The approving official's evaluation of the likelihood that the requester will use the UCNI for illegal purposes.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 days of receipt of the request for limited access, the appropriate DOE Program Secretarial Officer or NNSA Deputy or Associate Administrator must notify the requester if limited access is granted or denied, or if the determination cannot be made within 30 days, of the date when the determination will be made.
</P>
<P>(d) A person granted limited access to specific UCNI is not an Authorized Individual and may not further disseminate the UCNI to anyone.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Physical Protection Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.22" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.5.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.22   Notification of protection requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Authorized Individual who grants routine access to specific UCNI under § 1017.20 to a person who is not an employee or contractor of the DOE must notify the person receiving the UCNI of protection requirements described in this subpart and any limitations on further dissemination.
</P>
<P>(b) A DOE Program Secretarial Officer or NNSA Deputy or Associate Administrator who grants limited access to specific UCNI under § 1017.21 must notify the person receiving the UCNI of protection requirements described in this subpart and any limitations on further dissemination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.23" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.5.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.23   Protection in use.</HEAD>
<P>An Authorized Individual or a person granted limited access to UCNI under § 1017.21 must maintain physical control over any document or material marked as containing UCNI that is in use to prevent unauthorized access to it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.24" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.5.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.24   Storage.</HEAD>
<P>A document or material marked as containing UCNI must be stored to preclude unauthorized disclosure. When not in use, documents or material containing UCNI must be stored in locked receptacles (e.g., file cabinet, desk drawer), or if in secured areas or facilities, in a manner that would prevent inadvertent access by an unauthorized individual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.25" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.5.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.25   Reproduction.</HEAD>
<P>A document marked as containing UCNI may be reproduced without the permission of the originator to the minimum extent necessary consistent with the need to carry out official duties, provided the reproduced document is marked and protected in the same manner as the original document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.26" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.5.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.26   Destruction.</HEAD>
<P>A document marked as containing UCNI must be destroyed, at a minimum, by using a cross-cut shredder that produces particles no larger than 1/4-inch wide and 2 inches long. Other comparable destruction methods may be used. Material containing or revealing UCNI must be destroyed according to agency directives.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.27" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.5.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.27   Transmission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Physically transmitting UCNI documents or material.</I> (1) A document or material marked as containing UCNI may be transmitted by:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. First Class, Express, Certified, or Registered mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any means approved for transmission of classified documents or material;
</P>
<P>(iii) An Authorized Individual or person granted limited access under § 1017.21 as long as physical control of the package is maintained; or,
</P>
<P>(iv) Internal mail services.
</P>
<P>(2) The document or material must be packaged to conceal the presence of the UCNI from someone who is not authorized access. A single, opaque envelope or wrapping is sufficient for this purpose. The address of the recipient and the sender must be indicated on the outside of the envelope or wrapping along with the words “TO BE OPENED BY ADDRESSEE ONLY.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transmitting UCNI documents over telecommunications circuits.</I> Encryption algorithms that comply with all applicable Federal laws, regulations, and standards for the protection of unclassified controlled information must be used when transmitting UCNI over a telecommunications circuit (including the telephone, facsimile, radio, e-mail, Internet).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.28" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.5.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.28   Processing on Automated Information Systems (AIS).</HEAD>
<P>UCNI may be processed or produced on any AIS that complies with the guidance in OMB Circular No. A-130, Revised, Transmittal No. 4, Appendix III, “Security of Federal Automated Information Resources,” or is certified for classified information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.29" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.6.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.29   Civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulations.</I> Any person who violates a UCNI security requirement of any of the following is subject to a civil penalty under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) 10 CFR Part 1017—Identification and Protection of Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other DOE regulation related to the safeguarding or security of UCNI if the regulation provides that violation of its provisions may result in a civil penalty pursuant to section 148 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance order.</I> If, without violating a requirement of any regulation issued under section 148, a person by an act or omission causes, or creates a risk of, the loss, compromise or unauthorized disclosure of UCNI, the Secretary may issue a compliance order to that person requiring the person to take corrective action and notifying the person that violation of the compliance order is subject to a notice of violation and assessment of a civil penalty. If a person wishes to contest the compliance order, the person must file a notice of appeal with the Secretary within 15 days of receipt of the compliance order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amount of penalty.</I> The Director may propose imposition of a civil penalty for violation of a requirement of a regulation under paragraph (a) of this section or a compliance order issued under paragraph (b) of this section, not to exceed $337,966 for each violation.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Settlements.</I> The Director may enter into a settlement, with or without conditions, of an enforcement proceeding at any time if the settlement is consistent with the objectives of DOE's UCNI protection requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement conference.</I> The Director may convene an informal conference to discuss any situation that might be a violation of the Act, its significance and cause, any correction taken or not taken by the person, any mitigating or aggravating circumstances, and any other useful information. The Director may compel a person to attend the conference. This conference will not normally be open to the public and there shall be no transcript.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investigations.</I> The Director may conduct investigations and inspections relating to the scope, nature and extent of compliance by a person with DOE security requirements specified in these regulations and take such action as the Director deems necessary and appropriate to the conduct of the investigation or inspection, including signing, issuing and serving subpoenas.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Preliminary notice of violation.</I> (1) In order to begin a proceeding to impose a civil penalty under this part, the Director shall notify the person by a written preliminary notice of violation sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date, facts, and nature of each act or omission constituting the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The particular provision of the regulation or compliance order involved in each alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposed remedy for each alleged violation, including the amount of any civil penalty proposed;
</P>
<P>(iv) The right of the person to submit a written reply to the Director within 30 calendar days of receipt of such preliminary notice of violation; and,
</P>
<P>(v) The fact that upon failure of the person to pay any civil penalty imposed, the penalty may be collected by civil action.
</P>
<P>(2) A reply to a preliminary notice of violation must contain a statement of all relevant facts pertaining to an alleged violation. The reply must:
</P>
<P>(i) State any facts, explanations, and arguments that support a denial of the alleged violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate any extenuating circumstances or other reason why a proposed remedy should not be imposed or should be mitigated;
</P>
<P>(iii) Discuss the relevant authorities that support the position asserted, including rulings, regulations, interpretations, and previous decisions issued by DOE;
</P>
<P>(iv) Furnish full and complete answers to any questions set forth in the preliminary notice; and
</P>
<P>(v) Include copies of all relevant documents.
</P>
<P>(3) If a person fails to submit a written reply within 30 calendar days of receipt of a preliminary notice of violation:
</P>
<P>(i) The person relinquishes any right to appeal any matter in the preliminary notice; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The preliminary notice, including any remedies therein, constitutes a final order.
</P>
<P>(4) The Director, at the request of a person notified of an alleged violation, may extend for a reasonable period the time for submitting a reply or a hearing request letter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Final notice of violation.</I> (1) If a person submits a written reply within 30 calendar days of receipt of a preliminary notice of violation, the Director must make a final determination whether the person violated or is continuing to violate an UCNI security requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) Based on a determination by the Director that a person has violated or is continuing to violate an UCNI security requirement, the Director may issue to the person a final notice of violation that concisely states the determined violation, the amount of any civil penalty imposed, and further actions necessary by or available to the person. The final notice of violation also must state that the person has the right to submit to the Director, within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the notice, a written request for a hearing under paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director must send a final notice of violation by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 30 calendar days of the receipt of a reply.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to paragraphs (h)(7) and (h)(8) of this section, the effect of final notice shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) If a final notice of violation does not contain a civil penalty, it shall be deemed a final order 15 days after the final notice is issued.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a final notice of violation contains a civil penalty, the person must submit to the Director within 30 days after the issuance of the final notice:
</P>
<P>(A) A waiver of further proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(B) A request for an on-the-record hearing under paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a person waives further proceedings, the final notice of violation shall be deemed a final order enforceable against the person. The person must pay the civil penalty set forth in the notice of violation within 60 days of the filing of waiver unless the Director grants additional time.
</P>
<P>(6) If a person files a request for an on-the-record hearing, then the hearing process commences.
</P>
<P>(7) The Director may amend the final notice of violation at any time before the time periods specified in paragraphs (h)(4)(i) or (h)(4)(ii) of this section expire. An amendment shall add 15 days to the time period under paragraph (h)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) The Director may withdraw the final notice of violation, or any part thereof, at any time before the time periods specified in paragraphs (h)(4)(i) or (h)(4)(ii) of this section expire.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Hearing.</I> (1) Any person who receives a final notice of violation under paragraph (h) of this section may request a hearing concerning the allegations contained in the notice. The person must mail or deliver any written request for a hearing to the Director within 30 calendar days of receipt of the final notice of violation.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt from a person of a written request for a hearing, the Director shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Appoint a Hearing Counsel; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Select an administrative law judge appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105, to serve as Hearing Officer.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hearing Counsel.</I> The Hearing Counsel:
</P>
<P>(1) Represents DOE;
</P>
<P>(2) Consults with the person or the person's counsel prior to the hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) Examines and cross-examines witnesses during the hearing; and
</P>
<P>(4) Enters into a settlement of the enforcement proceeding at any time if settlement is consistent with the objectives of the Act and DOE security requirements.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Hearing Officer.</I> The Hearing Officer:
</P>
<P>(1) Is responsible for the administrative preparations for the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) Convenes the hearing as soon as is reasonable;
</P>
<P>(3) Administers oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(4) Issues subpoenas, at the request of either party or on the Hearing Officer's motion;
</P>
<P>(5) Rules on offers of proof and receives relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(6) Takes depositions or has depositions taken when the ends of justice would be served;
</P>
<P>(7) Conducts the hearing in a manner which is fair and impartial;
</P>
<P>(8) Holds conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties;
</P>
<P>(9) Disposes of procedural requests or similar matters;
</P>
<P>(10) Requires production of documents; and,
</P>
<P>(11) Makes an initial decision under paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Rights of the person at the hearing.</I> The person may:
</P>
<P>(1) Testify or present evidence through witnesses or by documents;
</P>
<P>(2) Cross-examine witnesses and rebut records or other physical evidence, except as provided in paragraph (m)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Be present during the entire hearing, except as provided in paragraph (m)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel of the person's choosing.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Conduct of the hearing.</I> (1) DOE shall make a transcript of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (m)(4) of this section, the Hearing Officer may receive any oral or documentary evidence, but shall exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses shall testify under oath and are subject to cross-examination, except as provided in paragraph (m)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The Hearing Officer must use procedures appropriate to safeguard and prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information, UCNI, or any other information protected from public disclosure by law or regulation, with minimum impairment of rights and obligations under this part. The UCNI status shall not, however, preclude information from being introduced into evidence. The Hearing Officer may issue such orders as may be necessary to consider such evidence <I>in camera</I> including the preparation of a supplemental initial decision to address issues of law or fact that arise out of that portion of the evidence that is protected.
</P>
<P>(5) DOE has the burden of going forward with and of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the violation occurred as set forth in the final notice of violation and that the proposed civil penalty is appropriate. The person to whom the final notice of violation has been addressed shall have the burden of presenting and of going forward with any defense to the allegations set forth in the final notice of violation. Each matter of controversy shall be determined by the Hearing Officer upon a preponderance of the evidence.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Initial decision.</I> (1) The Hearing Officer shall issue an initial decision as soon as practicable after the hearing. The initial decision shall contain findings of fact and conclusions regarding all material issues of law, as well as reasons therefor. If the Hearing Officer determines that a violation has occurred and that a civil penalty is appropriate, the initial decision shall set forth the amount of the civil penalty based on:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation or violations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The violator's ability to pay;
</P>
<P>(iii) The effect of the civil penalty on the person's ability to do business;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any history of prior violations;
</P>
<P>(v) The degree of culpability; and,
</P>
<P>(vi) Such other matters as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(2) The Hearing Officer shall serve all parties with the initial decision by certified mail, return receipt requested. The initial decision shall include notice that it constitutes a final order of DOE 30 days after the filing of the initial decision unless the Secretary files a Notice of Review. If the Secretary files a Notice of Review, he shall file a final order as soon as practicable after completing his review. The Secretary, at his discretion, may order additional proceedings, remand the matter, or modify the amount of the civil penalty assessed in the initial decision. DOE shall notify the person of the Secretary's action under this paragraph in writing by certified mail, return receipt requested. The person against whom the civil penalty is assessed by the final order shall pay the full amount of the civil penalty assessed in the final order within 30 days unless otherwise agreed by the Director.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Collection of penalty.</I> (1) The Secretary may request the Attorney General to institute a civil action to collect a penalty imposed under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Attorney General has the exclusive power to uphold, compromise or mitigate, or remit any civil penalty imposed by the Secretary under this section and referred to the Attorney General for collection.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Direction to NNSA.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the NNSA Administrator, rather than the Director, signs, issues, serves, or takes the following actions that direct NNSA employees, contractors, subcontractors, or employees of such NNSA contractors or subcontractors:
</P>
<P>(i) Subpoenas;
</P>
<P>(ii) Orders to compel attendance;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosures of information or documents obtained during an investigation or inspection;
</P>
<P>(iv) Preliminary notices of violation; and,
</P>
<P>(v) Final notice of violations.
</P>
<P>(2) The Administrator shall act after consideration of the Director's recommendation. If the Administrator disagrees with the Director's recommendation, and the disagreement cannot be resolved by the two officials, the Director may refer the matter to the Deputy Secretary for resolution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 32641, June 10, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 66033, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 20, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41796, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96353, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1293, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66084, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 831, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2957, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1065, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2194, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1029, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105407, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1017.30" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.12.6.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1017.30   Criminal penalty.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who violates section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act or any regulation or order of the Secretary issued under section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act, including these regulations, may be subject to a criminal penalty under section 223 of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2273). In such case, the Secretary shall refer the matter to the Attorney General for investigation and possible prosecution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 32641, June 10, 2008, as amended at 81 FR 41796, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96353, Dec. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1021" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1021—NATIONAL ENVIRONMENTAL POLICY ACT IMPLEMENTING PROCEDURES




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.</I>




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 29682, July 3, 2025, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1021.100" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.13.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1021.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish certain procedures that the Department of Energy (DOE) shall use to comply with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)), as amended. This part applies to all Departmental Elements.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1021.101" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.13.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1021.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in these implementing procedures, terms have the meanings provided in NEPA section 111, 42 U.S.C. 4336e. In addition:
</P>
<P><I>CERCLA-excluded petroleum and natural gas products</I> means petroleum, including crude oil or any fraction thereof, that is not otherwise specifically listed or designated as a hazardous substance under section 101(14) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) (42 U.S.C. 9601.101(14)) and natural gas, natural gas liquids, liquefied natural gas, or synthetic gas usable for fuel or of pipeline quality (or mixtures of natural gas and such synthetic gas).
</P>
<P><I>Contaminant</I> means a substance identified within the definition of contaminant in section 101(33) of CERCLA (42 U.S.C. 9601.101(33)).
</P>
<P><I>Hazardous substance</I> means a substance identified within the definition of hazardous substances in section 101(14) of CERCLA (42 U.S.C. 9601.101(14)). Radionuclides are hazardous substances through their listing under section 112 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7412) (40 CFR part 61, subpart H).
</P>
<P><I>Pollutant</I> means a substance identified within the definition of pollutant in section 101(33) of CERCLA (42 U.S.C. 9601.101(33)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1021.102" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.13.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1021.102   Application of categorical exclusions (categories of actions that normally do not require EAs or EISs).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The actions listed in appendices A and B to this part are categories of actions that DOE has determined do not normally have a significant effect on the human environment (categorical exclusions).
</P>
<P>(b) To find that a proposal is excluded pursuant to a categorical exclusion, DOE shall determine the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposal fits within a category of actions that is listed in appendix B to this part;
</P>
<P>(2) There are no extraordinary circumstances related to the proposal that may affect the significance of the environmental effects of the proposal. Extraordinary circumstances are unique situations presented by specific proposals, including, but not limited to, scientific controversy about the environmental effects of the proposal; uncertain effects or effects involving unique or unknown risks; and unresolved conflicts concerning alternative uses of available resources; and
</P>
<P>(c) All categorical exclusions may be applied by any organizational element of the Department of Energy. The sectional divisions in appendix B to this part are solely for purposes of organization of that appendix and are not intended to be limiting.
</P>
<P>(d) A category of actions includes activities foreseeably necessary to proposals encompassed within the category of actions (such as award of implementing grants and contracts, site preparation, purchase and installation of equipment, and associated transportation activities).
</P>
<P>(e) Categorical exclusion determinations for actions listed in appendix B shall be documented and made available to the public by posting online, generally within two weeks of the determination, unless additional time is needed in order to review and protect classified information, “confidential business information,” or other information that DOE would not disclose pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552). Posted categorical exclusion determinations shall not disclose classified information, “confidential business information,” or other information that DOE would not disclose pursuant to FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) Proposed recurring activities to be undertaken during a specified time period, such as routine maintenance activities for a year, may be addressed in a single categorical exclusion determination after considering the potential aggregated impacts.
</P>
<P>(g) The following clarifications are provided to assist in the appropriate application of categorical exclusions that employ the terms or phrases:
</P>
<P>(1) “Previously disturbed or developed” refers to land that has been changed such that its functioning ecological processes have been and remain altered by human activity. The phrase encompasses areas that have been transformed from natural cover to non-native species or a managed state, including, but not limited to, utility and electric power transmission corridors and rights-of-way, and other areas where active utilities and currently used roads are readily available.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE considers terms such as “small” and “small-scale” in the context of the particular proposal, including its proposed location. In assessing whether a proposed action is small, in addition to the actual magnitude of the proposal, DOE considers factors such as industry norms, the relationship of the proposed action to similar types of development in the vicinity of the proposed action, and expected outputs of emissions or waste. When considering the physical size of a proposed facility, for example, DOE would review the surrounding land uses, the scale of the proposed facility relative to existing development, and the capacity of existing roads and other infrastructure to support the proposed action.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1021.103" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.13.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1021.103   Emergency actions.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may take an action without observing all provisions of DOE's NEPA implementing procedures in emergency situations that demand immediate action. DOE shall consult with CEQ as soon as possible regarding alternative arrangements for emergency actions having significant environmental impacts. DOE shall document, including publishing a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> emergency actions covered by this paragraph within 30-days after such action occurs; this documentation shall identify any adverse impacts from the actions taken, further mitigation necessary, and any NEPA documents that may be required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.13.0.25.5.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1021—Administrative and Routine Actions Excepted From NEPA Review
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>A1 Routine DOE business actions
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A2 Clarifying or administrative contract actions
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A3 Certain actions by Office of Hearings and Appeals
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A4 Interpretations and rulings for existing regulations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A5 Interpretive rulemakings with no change in environmental effect
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A6 Procedural rulemakings
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A7 [Reserved]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A8 Awards of certain contracts
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A9 Information gathering, analysis, and dissemination
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A10 Reports and recommendations on non-DOE legislation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A11 Technical advice and assistance to organizations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A12 Emergency preparedness planning
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A13 Procedural documents
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A14 Approval of technical exchange arrangements
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A15 International agreements for energy research and development
</FP-2>
<HD1>A1 Routine DOE Business Actions
</HD1>
<P>Routine actions necessary to support the normal conduct of DOE business limited to administrative, financial, and personnel actions.
</P>
<HD1>A2 Clarifying or Administrative Contract Actions
</HD1>
<P>Contract interpretations, amendments, and modifications that are clarifying or administrative in nature.
</P>
<HD1>A3 Certain Actions by Office of Hearings and Appeals
</HD1>
<P>Adjustments, exceptions, exemptions, appeals and stays, modifications, or rescissions of orders issued by the Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<HD1>A4 Interpretations and Rulings for Existing Regulations
</HD1>
<P>Interpretations and rulings with respect to existing regulations, or modifications or rescissions of such interpretations and rulings.
</P>
<HD1>A5 Interpretive Rulemakings With No Change in Environmental Effect
</HD1>
<P>Rulemakings interpreting or amending an existing rule or regulation that does not change the environmental effect of the rule or regulation being amended.
</P>
<HD1>A6 Procedural Rulemakings
</HD1>
<P>Rulemakings that are strictly procedural, including, but not limited to, rulemaking (under 48 CFR chapter 9) establishing procedures for technical and pricing proposals and establishing contract clauses and contracting practices for the purchase of goods and services, and rulemaking (under 10 CFR part 600) establishing application and review procedures for, and administration, audit, and closeout of, grants and cooperative agreements.
</P>
<HD1>A7 [Reserved]
</HD1>
<HD1>A8 Awards of Certain Contracts
</HD1>
<P>Awards of contracts for technical support services, management and operation of a government-owned facility, and personal services.
</P>
<HD1>A9 Information Gathering, Analysis, and Dissemination
</HD1>
<P>Information gathering (including, but not limited to, literature surveys, inventories, site visits, and audits), data analysis (including, but not limited to, computer modeling), document preparation (including, but not limited to, conceptual design, feasibility studies, and analytical energy supply and demand studies), and information dissemination (including, but not limited to, document publication and distribution, and classroom training and informational programs), but not including site characterization or environmental monitoring. (See also B3.1 of appendix B to this part.)
</P>
<HD1>A10 Reports and Recommendations on Non-DOE Legislation
</HD1>
<P>Reports and recommendations on legislation or rulemaking that are not proposed by DOE.
</P>
<HD1>A11 Technical Advice and Assistance to Organizations
</HD1>
<P>Technical advice and planning assistance to international, national, state, and local organizations.
</P>
<HD1>A12 Emergency Preparedness Planning
</HD1>
<P>Emergency preparedness planning activities, including, but not limited to, the designation of onsite evacuation routes.
</P>
<HD1>A13 Procedural Documents
</HD1>
<P>Administrative, organizational, or procedural Policies, Orders, Notices, Manuals, and Guides.
</P>
<HD1>A14 Approval of Technical Exchange Arrangements
</HD1>
<P>Approval of technical exchange arrangements for information, data, or personnel with other countries or international organizations (including, but not limited to, assistance in identifying and analyzing another country's energy resources, needs and options).
</P>
<HD1>A15 International Agreements for Energy Research and Development
</HD1>
<P>Approval of DOE participation in international “umbrella” agreements for cooperation in energy research and development activities that would not commit the U.S. to any specific projects or activities.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.13.0.25.5.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1021—Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Specific Agency Actions
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>B. Conditions That Are Integral Elements of the Categories of Actions in Appendix B
</FP-2>
<HD1>B1. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Facility Operation
</HD1>
<FP-2>B1.1 Changing rates and prices
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.2 Training exercises and simulations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.3 Routine maintenance
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.4 Air conditioning systems for existing equipment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.5 Existing steam plants and cooling water systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.6 Tanks and equipment to control runoff and spills
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.7 Electronic equipment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.8 Screened water intake and outflow structures
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.9 Airway safety markings and painting
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.10 Onsite storage of activated material
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.11 Fencing
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.12 Detonation or burning of explosives or propellants after testing
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.13 Pathways, short access roads, and rail lines
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.14 Refueling of nuclear reactors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.15 Support buildings
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.16 Asbestos removal
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.17 Polychlorinated biphenyl removal
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.18 Water supply wells
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.19 Microwave, meteorological, and radio towers
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.20 Protection of cultural resources, fish and wildlife habitat
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.21 Noise abatement
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.22 Relocation of buildings
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.23 Demolition and disposal of buildings
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.24 Property transfers
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.25 Real property transfers for cultural resources protection, habitat preservation, and wildlife management
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.26 Small water treatment facilities


</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.27 Disconnection of utilities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.28 Placing a facility in an environmentally safe condition
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.29 Disposal facilities for construction and demolition waste
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.30 Transfer actions
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.31 Installation or relocation of machinery and equipment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.32 Traffic flow adjustments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.33 Stormwater runoff control
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.34 Lead-based paint containment, removal, and disposal
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.35 Drop-off, collection, and transfer facilities for recyclable materials
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B1.36 Determinations of excess real property
</FP-2>
<HD1>B2. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Safety and Health
</HD1>
<FP-2>B2.1 Workplace enhancements
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B2.2 Building and equipment instrumentation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B2.3 Personnel safety and health equipment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B2.4 Equipment qualification
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B2.5 Facility safety and environmental improvements
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B2.6 Recovery of radioactive sealed sources
</FP-2>
<HD1>B3. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Site Characterization, Monitoring, and General Research
</HD1>
<FP-2>B3.1 Site characterization and environmental monitoring
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.2 Aviation activities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.3 Research related to conservation of fish, wildlife, and cultural resources
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.4 Transport packaging tests for radioactive or hazardous material
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.5 Tank car tests
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.6 Small-scale research and development, laboratory operations, and pilot projects
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.7 New terrestrial infill exploratory and experimental wells
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.8 Outdoor terrestrial ecological and environmental research
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.9 Projects to reduce emissions and waste generation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.10 Particle accelerators
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.11 Outdoor tests and experiments on materials and equipment components
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.12 Microbiological and biomedical facilities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.13 Magnetic fusion experiments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.14 Small-scale educational facilities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.15 Small-scale indoor research and development projects using nanoscale materials
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B3.16 Research activities in aquatic environments
</FP-2>
<HD1>B4. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Electric Power and Transmission
</HD1>
<FP-2>B4.1 Contracts, policies, and marketing and allocation plans for electric power
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.2 Export of electric energy
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.3 Electric power marketing rate changes
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.4 Power marketing services and activities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.5 Temporary adjustments to river operations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.6 Additions and modifications to transmission facilities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.7 Fiber optic cable
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.8 Electricity transmission agreements
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.9 Multiple use of powerline rights-of-way
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.10 Removal of electric transmission facilities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.11 Electric power substations and interconnection facilities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.12 Construction of powerlines
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.13 Upgrading and rebuilding existing powerlines
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B4.14 Construction and operation of electrochemical-battery or flywheel energy storage systems
</FP-2>
<HD1>B5. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Conservation, Fossil, and Renewable Energy Activities
</HD1>
<FP-2>B5.1 Actions to conserve energy or water
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.2 Modifications to pumps and piping
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.3 Modification or abandonment of wells
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.4 Repair or replacement of pipelines
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.5 Short pipeline segments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.6 Oil spill cleanup
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.7 Export of natural gas and associated transportation by marine vessel
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.8 [Reserved]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.9 Temporary exemptions for electric powerplants
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.10 Certain permanent exemptions for existing electric powerplants
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.11 Permanent exemptions allowing mixed natural gas and petroleum
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.12 Workover of existing wells
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.13 Experimental wells for injection of small quantities of carbon dioxide
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.14 Combined heat and power or cogeneration systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.15 Small-scale renewable energy research and development and pilot projects
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.16 Solar photovoltaic systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.17 Solar thermal systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.18 Wind turbines
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.19 Ground source heat pumps
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.20 Biomass power plants
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.21 Methane gas recovery and utilization systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.22 Alternative fuel vehicle fueling stations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.23 Electric vehicle charging stations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.24 Drop-in hydroelectric systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B5.25 Small-scale renewable energy research and development and pilot projects in aquatic environments
</FP-2>
<HD1>B6. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Environmental Restoration and Waste Management Activities
</HD1>
<FP-2>B6.1 Cleanup actions
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.2 Waste collection, treatment, stabilization, and containment facilities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.3 Improvements to environmental control systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.4 Facilities for storing packaged hazardous waste for 90 days or less
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.5 Facilities for characterizing and sorting packaged waste and overpacking waste
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.6 Modification of facilities for storing, packaging, and repacking waste
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.7 [Reserved]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.8 Modifications for waste minimization and reuse of materials
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.9 Measures to reduce migration of contaminated groundwater
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B6.10 Upgraded or replacement waste storage facilities
</FP-2>
<HD1>B7. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to International Activities
</HD1>
<FP-2>B7.1 Emergency measures under the International Energy Program
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B7.2 Import and export of special nuclear or isotopic materials
</FP-2>
<HD1>B. Conditions That Are Integral Elements of the Categories of Actions in Appendix B
</HD1>
<P>The categories of actions listed below include the following conditions as integral elements of the categories of actions. To fit within the categories of actions listed below, a proposal must be one that would not:
</P>
<P>(1) Threaten a violation of applicable statutory, regulatory, or permit requirements for environment, safety, and health, or similar requirements of DOE or Executive Orders;
</P>
<P>(2) Require siting and construction or major expansion of waste storage, disposal, recovery, or treatment facilities (including incinerators), but the proposal may include categorically excluded waste storage, disposal, recovery, or treatment actions or facilities;
</P>
<P>(3) Disturb hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, or CERCLA-excluded petroleum and natural gas products that preexist in the environment such that there would be uncontrolled or unpermitted releases;
</P>
<P>(4) Have the potential to cause significant impacts on environmentally sensitive resources. An environmentally sensitive resource is typically a resource that has been identified as needing protection through Executive Order, statute, or regulation by Federal, state, or local government, or a Federally recognized Indian tribe. An action may be categorically excluded if, although sensitive resources are present, the action would not have the potential to cause significant impacts on those resources (such as construction of a building with its foundation well above a sole-source aquifer or upland surface soil removal on a site that has wetlands). Environmentally sensitive resources include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Property (such as sites, buildings, structures, and objects) of historic, archeological, or architectural significance designated by a Federal, state, or local government, Federally recognized Indian tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization, or property determined to be eligible for listing on the National Register of Historic Places;
</P>
<P>(ii) Federally-listed threatened or endangered species or their habitat (including critical habitat) or Federally-proposed or candidate species or their habitat (Endangered Species Act); state-listed or state-proposed endangered or threatened species or their habitat; Federally-protected marine mammals and Essential Fish Habitat (Marine Mammal Protection Act; Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act); and otherwise Federally-protected species (such as the Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act or the Migratory Bird Treaty Act);
</P>
<P>(iii) Floodplains and wetlands (as defined in 10 CFR 1022.4, “Compliance with Floodplain and Wetland Environmental Review Requirements: Definitions,” or its successor);
</P>
<P>(iv) Areas having a special designation such as Federally- and state-designated wilderness areas, national parks, national monuments, national natural landmarks, wild and scenic rivers, state and Federal wildlife refuges, scenic areas (such as National Scenic and Historic Trails or National Scenic Areas), and marine sanctuaries;
</P>
<P>(v) Prime or unique farmland, or other farmland of statewide or local importance, as defined at 7 CFR 658.2(a), “Farmland Protection Policy Act: Definitions,” or its successor;
</P>
<P>(vi) Special sources of water (such as sole-source aquifers, wellhead protection areas, and other water sources that are vital in a region); and
</P>
<P>(vii) Tundra, coral reefs, or rain forests; or
</P>
<P>(5) Involve genetically engineered organisms, synthetic biology, governmentally designated noxious weeds, or invasive species, unless the proposed activity would be contained or confined in a manner designed and operated to prevent unauthorized release into the environment and conducted in accordance with applicable requirements, such as those of the Department of Agriculture, the Environmental Protection Agency, and the National Institutes of Health.
</P>
<HD1>B1. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Facility Operation
</HD1>
<HD2>B1.1 Changing Rates and Prices
</HD2>
<P>Changing rates for services or prices for products marketed by parts of DOE other than Power Marketing Administrations, and approval of rate or price changes for non-DOE entities, that are consistent with the change in the implicit price deflator for the Gross Domestic Product published by the Department of Commerce, during the period since the last rate or price change.
</P>
<HD2>B1.2 Training Exercises and Simulations
</HD2>
<P>Training exercises and simulations (including, but not limited to, firing-range training, small-scale and short-duration force-on-force exercises, emergency response training, fire fighter and rescue training, and decontamination and spill cleanup training) conducted under appropriately controlled conditions and in accordance with applicable requirements.
</P>
<HD2>B1.3 Routine Maintenance
</HD2>
<P>Routine maintenance activities and custodial services for buildings, structures, rights-of-way, infrastructures (including, but not limited to, pathways, roads, and railroads), vehicles and equipment, and localized vegetation and pest control, during which operations may be suspended and resumed, provided that the activities would be conducted in a manner in accordance with applicable requirements. Custodial services are activities to preserve facility appearance, working conditions, and sanitation (such as cleaning, window washing, lawn mowing, trash collection, painting, and snow removal). Routine maintenance activities, corrective (that is, repair), preventive, and predictive, are required to maintain and preserve buildings, structures, infrastructures, and equipment in a condition suitable for a facility to be used for its designated purpose. Such maintenance may occur as a result of severe weather (such as hurricanes, floods, and tornados), wildfires, and other such events. Routine maintenance may result in replacement to the extent that replacement is in-kind and is not a substantial upgrade or improvement. In-kind replacement includes installation of new components to replace outmoded components, provided that the replacement does not result in a significant change in the expected useful life, design capacity, or function of the facility. Routine maintenance does not include replacement of a major component that significantly extends the originally intended useful life of a facility (for example, it does not include the replacement of a reactor vessel near the end of its useful life). Routine maintenance activities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Repair or replacement of facility equipment, such as lathes, mills, pumps, and presses;
</P>
<P>(b) Door and window repair or replacement;
</P>
<P>(c) Wall, ceiling, or floor repair or replacement;
</P>
<P>(d) Reroofing;
</P>
<P>(e) Plumbing, electrical utility, lighting, and telephone service repair or replacement;
</P>
<P>(f) Routine replacement of high-efficiency particulate air filters;
</P>
<P>(g) Inspection and/or treatment of currently installed utility poles;
</P>
<P>(h) Repair of road embankments;
</P>
<P>(i) Repair or replacement of fire protection sprinkler systems;
</P>
<P>(j) Road and parking area resurfacing, including construction of temporary access to facilitate resurfacing, and scraping and grading of unpaved surfaces;
</P>
<P>(k) Erosion control and soil stabilization measures (such as reseeding, gabions, grading, and revegetation);


</P>
<P>(l) Surveillance and maintenance of surplus facilities in accordance with DOE Order 435.1, “Radioactive Waste Management,” or its successor;
</P>
<P>(m) Repair and maintenance of transmission facilities, such as replacement of conductors of the same nominal voltage, poles, circuit breakers, transformers, capacitors, crossarms, insulators, and downed powerlines, in accordance, where appropriate, with 40 CFR part 761 (Polychlorinated Biphenyls Manufacturing, Processing, Distribution in Commerce, and Use Prohibitions) or its successor;
</P>
<P>(n) Routine testing and calibration of facility components, subsystems, or portable equipment (such as control valves, in-core monitoring devices, transformers, capacitors, monitoring wells, lysimeters, weather stations, and flumes);
</P>
<P>(o) Routine decontamination of the surfaces of equipment, rooms, hot cells, or other interior surfaces of buildings (by such activities as wiping with rags, using strippable latex, and minor vacuuming), and removal of contaminated intact equipment and other material (not including spent nuclear fuel or special nuclear material in nuclear reactors); and
</P>
<P>(p) Removal of debris.
</P>
<HD2>B1.4 Air Conditioning Systems for Existing Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Installation or modification of air conditioning systems required for temperature control for operation of existing equipment.
</P>
<HD2>B1.5 Existing Steam Plants and Cooling Water Systems
</HD2>
<P>Minor improvements to existing steam plants and cooling water systems (including, but not limited to, modifications of existing cooling towers and ponds), provided that the improvements would not: (1) Create new sources of water or involve new receiving waters; (2) have the potential to significantly alter water withdrawal rates; (3) exceed the permitted temperature of discharged water; or (4) increase introductions of, or involve new introductions of, hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, or CERCLA-excluded petroleum and natural gas products.
</P>
<HD2>B1.6 Tanks and Equipment To Control Runoff and Spills
</HD2>
<P>Installation or modification of retention tanks or small (normally under one acre) basins and associated piping and pumps for existing operations to control runoff or spills (such as under 40 CFR part 112). Modifications include, but are not limited to, installing liners or covers. (See also B1.33 of this appendix.)
</P>
<HD2>B1.7 Electronic Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Acquisition, installation, operation, modification, and removal of electricity transmission control and monitoring devices for grid demand and response, communication systems, data processing equipment, and similar electronic equipment.
</P>
<HD2>B1.8 Screened Water Intake and Outflow Structures
</HD2>
<P>Modifications to screened water intake and outflow structures such that intake velocities and volumes and water effluent quality and volumes are consistent with existing permit limits.
</P>
<HD2>B1.9 Airway Safety Markings and Painting
</HD2>
<P>Placement of airway safety markings on, painting of, and repair and in-kind replacement of lighting on powerlines and antenna structures, wind turbines, and similar structures in accordance with applicable requirements (such as Federal Aviation Administration standards).
</P>
<HD2>B1.10 Onsite Storage of Activated Material
</HD2>
<P>Routine, onsite storage at an existing facility of activated equipment and material (including, but not limited to, lead) used at that facility, to allow reuse after decay of radioisotopes with short half-lives.
</P>
<HD2>B1.11 Fencing
</HD2>
<P>Installation of fencing, including, but not limited to border marking, that would not have the potential to significantly impede wildlife population movement (including migration) or surface water flow.
</P>
<HD2>B1.12 Detonation or Burning of Explosives or Propellants After Testing
</HD2>
<P>Outdoor detonation or burning of explosives or propellants that failed (duds), were damaged (such as by fracturing), or were otherwise not consumed in testing. Outdoor detonation or burning would be in areas designated and routinely used for those purposes under existing applicable permits issued by Federal, state, and local authorities (such as a permit for a RCRA miscellaneous unit (40 CFR part 264, subpart X)).
</P>
<HD2>B1.13 Pathways, Short Access Roads, and Rail Lines
</HD2>
<P>Construction, acquisition, and relocation, consistent with applicable right-of-way conditions and approved land use or transportation improvement plans, of pedestrian walkways and trails, bicycle paths, small outdoor fitness areas, and short access roads and rail lines (such as branch and spur lines).
</P>
<HD2>B1.14 Refueling of Nuclear Reactors
</HD2>
<P>Refueling of operating nuclear reactors, during which operations may be suspended and then resumed.
</P>
<HD2>B1.15 Support Buildings
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction or modification, and operation of support buildings and support structures (including, but not limited to, trailers and prefabricated and modular buildings) within or contiguous to an already developed area (where active utilities and currently used roads are readily accessible). Covered support buildings and structures include, but are not limited to, those for office purposes; parking; cafeteria services; education and training; visitor reception; computer and data processing services; health services or recreation activities; routine maintenance activities; storage of supplies and equipment for administrative services and routine maintenance activities; security (such as security posts); fire protection; small-scale fabrication (such as machine shop activities), assembly, and testing of non- nuclear equipment or components; and similar support purposes, but exclude facilities for nuclear weapons activities and waste storage activities, such as activities covered in B1.10, B1.29, B1.35, B2.6, B6.2, B6.4, B6.5, B6.6, and B6.10 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD2>B1.16 Asbestos Removal
</HD2>
<P>Removal of asbestos-containing materials from buildings in accordance with applicable requirements (such as 40 CFR part 61, “National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants”; 40 CFR part 763, “Asbestos”; 29 CFR part 1910, subpart I, “Personal Protective Equipment”; and 29 CFR part 1926, “Safety and Health Regulations for Construction”; and appropriate state and local requirements, including certification of removal contractors and technicians).
</P>
<HD2>B1.17 Polychlorinated Biphenyl Removal
</HD2>
<P>Removal of polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB)-containing items (including, but not limited to, transformers and capacitors), PCB-containing oils flushed from transformers, PCB-flushing solutions, and PCB- containing spill materials from buildings or other aboveground locations in accordance with applicable requirements (such as 40 CFR part 761).
</P>
<HD2>B1.18 Water Supply Wells
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, and operation of additional water supply wells (or replacement wells) within an existing well field, or modification of an existing water supply well to restore production, provided that there would be no drawdown other than in the immediate vicinity of the pumping well, and the covered actions would not have the potential to cause significant long-term decline of the water table, and would not have the potential to cause significant degradation of the aquifer from the new or replacement well.
</P>
<HD2>B1.19 Microwave, Meteorological, And Radio Towers
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, operation, and removal of microwave, radio communication, and meteorological towers and associated facilities, provided that the towers and associated facilities would not be in a governmentally designated scenic area (see B(4)(iv) of this appendix) unless otherwise authorized by the appropriate governmental entity.
</P>
<HD2>B1.20 Protection of Cultural Resources, Fish and Wildlife Habitat
</HD2>
<P>Small-scale activities undertaken to protect cultural resources (such as fencing, labeling, and flagging) or to protect, restore, or improve fish and wildlife habitat, fish passage facilities (such as fish ladders and minor diversion channels), or fisheries. Such activities would be conducted in accordance with an existing natural or cultural resource plan, if any.
</P>
<HD2>B1.21 Noise Abatement
</HD2>
<P>Noise abatement measures (including, but not limited to, construction of noise barriers and installation of noise control materials).
</P>
<HD2>B1.22 Relocation of Buildings
</HD2>
<P>Relocation of buildings (including, but not limited to, trailers and prefabricated buildings) to an already developed area (where active utilities and currently used roads are readily accessible).
</P>
<HD2>B1.23 Demolition and Disposal of Buildings
</HD2>
<P>Demolition and subsequent disposal of buildings, equipment, and support structures (including, but not limited to, smoke stacks and parking lot surfaces), provided that there would be no potential for release of substances at a level, or in a form, that could pose a threat to public health or the environment.
</P>
<HD2>B1.24 Property Transfers
</HD2>
<P>Transfer, lease, disposition, or acquisition of interests in personal property (including, but not limited to, equipment and materials) or real property (including, but not limited to, permanent structures and land), provided that under reasonably foreseeable uses (1) there would be no potential for release of substances at a level, or in a form, that could pose a threat to public health or the environment and (2) the covered actions would not have the potential to cause a significant change in impacts from before the transfer, lease, disposition, or acquisition of interests.
</P>
<HD2>B1.25 Real Property Transfers for Cultural Resources Protection, Habitat Preservation, and Wildlife Management
</HD2>
<P>Transfer, lease, disposition, or acquisition of interests in land and associated buildings for cultural resources protection, habitat preservation, or fish and wildlife management, provided that there would be no potential for release of substances at a level, or in a form, that could pose a threat to public health or the environment.
</P>
<HD2>B1.26 Small Water Treatment Facilities


</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, expansion, modification, replacement, operation, and decommissioning of small (total capacity less than approximately 250,000 gallons per day) wastewater and surface water treatment facilities whose liquid discharges are externally regulated, and small potable water and sewage treatment facilities.
</P>
<HD2>B1.27 Disconnection of Utilities
</HD2>
<P>Activities that are required for the disconnection of utility services (including, but not limited to, water, steam, telecommunications, and electrical power) after it has been determined that the continued operation of these systems is not needed for safety.
</P>
<HD2>B1.28 Placing a Facility in an Environmentally Safe Condition
</HD2>
<P>Minor activities that are required to place a facility in an environmentally safe condition where there is no proposed use for the facility. These activities would include, but are not limited to, reducing surface contamination, and removing materials, equipment or waste (such as final defueling of a reactor, where there are adequate existing facilities for the treatment, storage, or disposal of the materials, equipment or waste). These activities would not include conditioning, treatment, or processing of spent nuclear fuel, high-level waste, or special nuclear materials.
</P>
<HD2>B1.29 Disposal Facilities for Construction and Demolition Waste
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, expansion, modification, operation, and decommissioning of small (less than approximately 10 acres) solid waste disposal facilities for construction and demolition waste, in accordance with applicable requirements (such as 40 CFR part 257, “Criteria for Classification of Solid Waste Disposal Facilities and Practices,” and 40 CFR part 61, “National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants”) that would not release substances at a level, or in a form, that could pose a threat to public health or the environment.
</P>
<HD2>B1.30 Transfer Actions
</HD2>
<P>Transfer actions, in which the predominant activity is transportation, provided that (1) the receipt and storage capacity and management capability for the amount and type of materials, equipment, or waste to be moved already exists at the receiving site and (2) all necessary facilities and operations at the receiving site are already permitted, licensed, or approved, as appropriate. Such transfers are not regularly scheduled as part of ongoing routine operations.
</P>
<HD2>B1.31 Installation or Relocation of Machinery and Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Installation or relocation and operation of machinery and equipment (including, but not limited to, laboratory equipment, electronic hardware, manufacturing machinery, maintenance equipment, and health and safety equipment), provided that uses of the installed or relocated items are consistent with the general missions of the receiving structure. Covered actions include modifications to an existing building, within or contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area, that are necessary for equipment installation and relocation. Such modifications would not appreciably increase the footprint or height of the existing building or have the potential to cause significant changes to the type and magnitude of environmental impacts.
</P>
<HD2>B1.32 Traffic Flow Adjustments
</HD2>
<P>Traffic flow adjustments to existing roads (including, but not limited to, stop sign or traffic light installation, adjusting direction of traffic flow, and adding turning lanes), and road adjustments (including, but not limited to, widening and realignment) that are within an existing right-of-way and consistent with approved land use or transportation improvement plans.
</P>
<HD2>B1.33 Stormwater Runoff Control
</HD2>
<P>Design, construction, and operation of control practices to reduce stormwater runoff and maintain natural hydrology. Activities include, but are not limited to, those that reduce impervious surfaces (such as vegetative practices and use of porous pavements), best management practices (such as silt fences, straw wattles, and fiber rolls), and use of green infrastructure or other low impact development practices (such as cisterns and green roofs).
</P>
<HD2>B1.34 Lead-Based Paint Containment, Removal, and Disposal
</HD2>
<P>Containment, removal, and disposal of lead-based paint in accordance with applicable requirements (such as provisions relating to the certification of removal contractors and technicians at 40 CFR part 745, “Lead-Based Paint Poisoning Prevention In Certain Residential Structures”).
</P>
<HD2>B1.35 Drop-Off, Collection, and Transfer Facilities for Recyclable Materials
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, and operation of recycling or compostable material drop-off, collection, and transfer stations on or contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area and in an area where such a facility would be consistent with existing zoning requirements. The stations would have appropriate facilities and procedures established in accordance with applicable requirements for the handling of recyclable or compostable materials and household hazardous waste (such as paint and pesticides). Except as specified above, the collection of hazardous waste for disposal and the processing of recyclable or compostable materials are not included in this category of actions.
</P>
<HD2>B1.36 Determinations of Excess Real Property
</HD2>
<P>Determinations that real property is excess to the needs of DOE and, in the case of acquired real property, the subsequent reporting of such determinations to the General Services Administration or, in the case of lands withdrawn or otherwise reserved from the public domain, the subsequent filing of a notice of intent to relinquish with the Bureau of Land Management, Department of the Interior. Covered actions would not include disposal of real property.
</P>
<HD1>B2. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Safety and Health
</HD1>
<HD2>B2.1 Workplace Enhancements
</HD2>
<P>Modifications within or contiguous to an existing structure, in a previously disturbed or developed area, to enhance workplace habitability (including, but not limited to, installation or improvements to lighting, radiation shielding, or heating/ventilating/air conditioning and its instrumentation, and noise reduction).
</P>
<HD2>B2.2 Building and Equipment Instrumentation
</HD2>
<P>Installation of, or improvements to, building and equipment instrumentation (including, but not limited to, remote control panels, remote monitoring capability, alarm and surveillance systems, control systems to provide automatic shutdown, fire detection and protection systems, water consumption monitors and flow control systems, announcement and emergency warning systems, criticality and radiation monitors and alarms, and safeguards and security equipment).
</P>
<HD2>B2.3 Personnel Safety and Health Equipment
</HD2>
<P>Installation of, or improvements to, equipment for personnel safety and health (including, but not limited to, eye washes, safety showers, radiation monitoring devices, fumehoods, and associated collection and exhaust systems), provided that the covered actions would not have the potential to cause a significant increase in emissions.
</P>
<HD2>B2.4 Equipment Qualification
</HD2>
<P>Activities undertaken to (1) qualify equipment for use or improve systems reliability or (2) augment information on safety-related system components. These activities include, but are not limited to, transportation container qualification testing, crane and lift-gear certification or recertification testing, high efficiency particulate air filter testing and certification, stress tests (such as “burn-in” testing of electrical components and leak testing), and calibration of sensors or diagnostic equipment.
</P>
<HD2>B2.5 Facility Safety and Environmental Improvements
</HD2>
<P>Safety and environmental improvements of a facility (including, but not limited to, replacement and upgrade of facility components) that do not result in a significant change in the expected useful life, design capacity, or function of the facility and during which operations may be suspended and then resumed. Improvements include, but are not limited to, replacement/upgrade of control valves, in-core monitoring devices, facility air filtration systems, or substation transformers or capacitors; addition of structural bracing to meet earthquake standards and/or sustain high wind loading; and replacement of aboveground or belowground tanks and related piping, provided that there is no evidence of leakage, based on testing in accordance with applicable requirements (such as 40 CFR part 265, “Interim Status Standards for Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities” and 40 CFR part 280, “Technical Standards and Corrective Action Requirements for Owners and Operators of Underground Storage Tanks”). These actions do not include rebuilding or modifying substantial portions of a facility (such as replacing a reactor vessel).
</P>
<HD2>B2.6 Recovery of Radioactive Sealed Sources
</HD2>
<P>Recovery of radioactive sealed sources and sealed source-containing devices from domestic or foreign locations provided that (1) the recovered items are transported and stored in compliant containers, and (2) the receiving site has sufficient existing storage capacity and all required licenses, permits, and approvals.
</P>
<HD1>B3. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Site Characterization, Monitoring, and General Research
</HD1>
<HD2>B3.1 Site Characterization and Environmental Monitoring
</HD2>
<P>Site characterization and environmental monitoring (including, but not limited to, siting, construction, modification, operation, and dismantlement and removal or otherwise proper closure (such as of a well) of characterization and monitoring devices, and siting, construction, and associated operation of a small-scale laboratory building or renovation of a room in an existing building for sample analysis). Such activities would be designed in conformance with applicable requirements and use best management practices to limit the potential effects of any resultant ground disturbance. Covered activities include, but are not limited to, site characterization and environmental monitoring under CERCLA and RCRA. (This category of actions excludes activities in aquatic environments. See B3.16 of this appendix for such activities.) Specific activities include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Geological, geophysical (such as gravity, magnetic, electrical, seismic, radar, and temperature gradient), geochemical, and engineering surveys and mapping, and the establishment of survey marks. Seismic techniques would not include large-scale reflection or refraction testing;
</P>
<P>(b) Installation and operation of field instruments (such as stream-gauging stations or flow-measuring devices, telemetry systems, geochemical monitoring tools, and geophysical exploration tools);


</P>
<P>(c) Drilling of wells for sampling or monitoring of groundwater or the vadose (unsaturated) zone, well logging, and installation of water-level recording devices in wells;
</P>
<P>(d) Aquifer and underground reservoir response testing;
</P>
<P>(e) Installation and operation of ambient air monitoring equipment;
</P>
<P>(f) Sampling and characterization of water, soil, rock, or contaminants (such as drilling using truck- or mobile- scale equipment, and modification, use, and plugging of boreholes);
</P>
<P>(g) Sampling and characterization of water effluents, air emissions, or solid waste streams;
</P>
<P>(h) Installation and operation of meteorological towers and associated activities (such as assessment of potential wind energy resources);
</P>
<P>(i) Sampling of flora or fauna; and
</P>
<P>(j) Archeological, historic, and cultural resource identification in compliance with 36 CFR part 800 and 43 CFR part 7.
</P>
<HD2>B3.2 Aviation Activities
</HD2>
<P>Aviation activities for survey, monitoring, or security purposes that comply with Federal Aviation Administration regulations.
</P>
<HD2>B3.3 Research Related to Conservation of Fish, Wildlife, and Cultural Resources
</HD2>
<P>Field and laboratory research, inventory, and information collection activities that are directly related to the conservation of fish and wildlife resources or to the protection of cultural resources, provided that such activities would not have the potential to cause significant impacts on fish and wildlife habitat or populations or to cultural resources.
</P>
<HD2>B3.4 Transport Packaging Tests for Radioactive or Hazardous Material
</HD2>
<P>Drop, puncture, water-immersion, thermal, and fire tests of transport packaging for radioactive or hazardous materials to certify that designs meet the applicable requirements (such as 49 CFR 173.411 and 173.412 and 10 CFR 71.73).
</P>
<HD2>B3.5 Tank Car Tests
</HD2>
<P>Tank car tests under 49 CFR part 179 (including, but not limited to, tests of safety relief devices, pressure regulators, and thermal protection systems).
</P>
<HD2>B3.6 Small-Scale Research and Development, Laboratory Operations, and Pilot Projects
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, operation, and decommissioning of facilities for small-scale research and development projects; conventional laboratory operations (such as preparation of chemical standards and sample analysis); and small-scale pilot projects (generally less than 2 years) frequently conducted to verify a concept before demonstration actions, provided that construction or modification would be within or contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area (where active utilities and currently used roads are readily accessible). Not included in this category are demonstration actions, meaning actions that are undertaken at a scale to show whether a technology would be viable on a larger scale and suitable for commercial deployment.
</P>
<HD2>B3.7 New Terrestrial Infill Exploratory and Experimental Wells
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, and operation of new terrestrial infill exploratory and experimental (test) wells, for either extraction or injection use, in a locally characterized geological formation in a field that contains existing operating wells, properly abandoned wells, or unminable coal seams containing natural gas, provided that the site characterization has verified a low potential for seismicity, subsidence, and contamination of freshwater aquifers, and the actions are otherwise consistent with applicable best practices and DOE protocols, including those that protect against uncontrolled releases of harmful materials. Such wells may include those for brine, carbon dioxide, coalbed methane, gas hydrate, geothermal, natural gas, and oil. Uses for carbon sequestration wells include, but are not limited to, the study of saline formations, enhanced oil recovery, and enhanced coalbed methane extraction.
</P>
<HD2>B3.8 Outdoor Terrestrial Ecological and Environmental Research
</HD2>
<P>Outdoor terrestrial ecological and environmental research in a small area (generally less than 5 acres), including, but not limited to, siting, construction, and operation of a small-scale laboratory building or renovation of a room in an existing building for associated analysis. Such activities would be designed in conformance with applicable requirements and use best management practices to limit the potential effects of any resultant ground disturbance.
</P>
<HD2>B3.9 Projects To Reduce Emissions and Waste Generation
</HD2>
<P>Projects to reduce emissions and waste generation at existing fossil or alternative fuel combustion or utilization facilities, provided that these projects would not have the potential to cause a significant increase in the quantity or rate of air emissions. For this category of actions, “fuel” includes, but is not limited to, coal, oil, natural gas, hydrogen, syngas, and biomass; but “fuel” does not include nuclear fuel. Covered actions include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Test treatment of the throughput product (solid, liquid, or gas) generated at an existing and fully operational fuel combustion or utilization facility;
</P>
<P>(b) Addition or replacement of equipment for reduction or control of sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, or other regulated substances that requires only minor modification to the existing structures at an existing fuel combustion or utilization facility, for which the existing use remains essentially unchanged;
</P>
<P>(c) Addition or replacement of equipment for reduction or control of sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, or other regulated substances that involves no permanent change in the quantity or quality of fuel burned or used and involves no permanent change in the capacity factor of the fuel combustion or utilization facility; and
</P>
<P>(d) Addition or modification of equipment for capture and control of carbon dioxide or other regulated substances, provided that adequate infrastructure is in place to manage such substances.
</P>
<HD2>B3.10 Particle Accelerators
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, operation, and decommissioning of particle accelerators, including electron beam accelerators, with primary beam energy less than approximately 100 million electron volts (MeV) and average beam power less than approximately 250 kilowatts (kW), and associated beamlines, storage rings, colliders, and detectors, for research and medical purposes (such as proton therapy), and isotope production, within or contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area (where active utilities and currently used roads are readily accessible), or internal modification of any accelerator facility regardless of energy, that does not increase primary beam energy or current. In cases where the beam energy exceeds 100 MeV, the average beam power must be less than 250 kW, so as not to exceed an average current of 2.5 milliamperes (mA).
</P>
<HD2>B3.11 Outdoor Tests and Experiments on Materials and Equipment Components
</HD2>
<P>Outdoor tests and experiments for the development, quality assurance, or reliability of materials and equipment (including, but not limited to, weapon system components) under controlled conditions. Covered actions include, but are not limited to, burn tests (such as tests of electric cable fire resistance or the combustion characteristics of fuels), impact tests (such as pneumatic ejector tests using earthen embankments or concrete slabs designated and routinely used for that purpose), or drop, puncture, water-immersion, or thermal tests. Covered actions would not involve source, special nuclear, or byproduct materials, except encapsulated sources manufactured to applicable standards that contain source, special nuclear, or byproduct materials may be used for nondestructive actions such as detector/sensor development and testing and first responder field training.
</P>
<HD2>B3.12 Microbiological and Biomedical Facilities
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, operation, and decommissioning of microbiological and biomedical diagnostic, treatment and research facilities (excluding Biosafety Level-3 and Biosafety Level-4), in accordance with applicable requirements and best practices (such as Biosafety in Microbiological and Biomedical Laboratories, 5th Edition, Dec. 2009, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services) including, but not limited to, laboratories, treatment areas, offices, and storage areas, within or contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area (where active utilities and currently used roads are readily accessible). Operation may include the purchase, installation, and operation of biomedical equipment (such as commercially available cyclotrons that are used to generate radioisotopes and radiopharmaceuticals, and commercially available biomedical imaging and spectroscopy instrumentation).
</P>
<HD2>B3.13 Magnetic Fusion Experiments
</HD2>
<P>Performing magnetic fusion experiments that do not use tritium as fuel, within existing facilities (including, but not limited to, necessary modifications).
</P>
<HD2>B3.14 Small-Scale Educational Facilities
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, operation, and decommissioning of small-scale educational facilities (including, but not limited to, conventional teaching laboratories, libraries, classroom facilities, auditoriums, museums, visitor centers, exhibits, and associated offices) within or contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area (where active utilities and currently used roads are readily accessible). Operation may include, but is not limited to, purchase, installation, and operation of equipment (such as audio/visual and laboratory equipment) commensurate with the educational purpose of the facility.
</P>
<HD2>B3.15 Small-Scale Indoor Research and Development Projects Using Nanoscale Materials
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, operation, and decommissioning of facilities for indoor small-scale research and development projects and small-scale pilot projects using nanoscale materials in accordance with applicable requirements (such as engineering, worker safety, procedural, and administrative regulations) necessary to ensure the containment of any hazardous materials. Construction and modification activities would be within or contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area (where active utilities and currently used roads are readily accessible).
</P>
<HD2>B3.16 Research Activities in Aquatic Environments
</HD2>
<P>Small-scale, temporary surveying, site characterization, and research activities in aquatic environments, limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Acquisition of rights-of-way, easements, and temporary use permits;
</P>
<P>(b) Installation, operation, and removal of passive scientific measurement devices, including, but not limited to, antennae, tide gauges, flow testing equipment for existing wells, weighted hydrophones, salinity measurement devices, and water quality measurement devices;
</P>
<P>(c) Natural resource inventories, data and sample collection, environmental monitoring, and basic and applied research, excluding
</P>
<P>(1) large-scale vibratory coring techniques and
</P>
<P>(2) seismic activities other than passive techniques; and
</P>
<P>(d) Surveying and mapping.


</P>
<P>These activities would be conducted in accordance with, where applicable, an approved spill prevention, control, and response plan and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices. None of the activities listed above would occur within the boundary of an established marine sanctuary or wildlife refuge, a governmentally proposed marine sanctuary or wildlife refuge, or a governmentally recognized area of high biological sensitivity, unless authorized by the agency responsible for such refuge, sanctuary, or area (or after consultation with the responsible agency, if no authorization is required). If the proposed activities would occur outside such refuge, sanctuary, or area and if the activities would have the potential to cause impacts within such refuge, sanctuary, or area, then the responsible agency shall be consulted in order to determine whether authorization is required and whether such activities would have the potential to cause significant impacts on such refuge, sanctuary, or area. Areas of high biological sensitivity include, but are not limited to, areas of known ecological importance, whale and marine mammal mating and calving/pupping areas, and fish and invertebrate spawning and nursery areas recognized as being limited or unique and vulnerable to perturbation; these areas can occur in bays, estuaries, near shore, and far offshore, and may vary seasonally. No permanent facilities or devices would be constructed or installed. Covered actions do not include drilling of resource exploration or extraction wells.
</P>
<HD1>B4. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Electrical Power and Transmission
</HD1>
<HD2>B4.1 Contracts, Policies, and Marketing and Allocation Plans for Electric Power
</HD2>
<P>Establishment and implementation of contracts, policies, and marketing and allocation plans related to electric power acquisition that involve only the use of the existing transmission system and existing generation resources operating within their normal operating limits.
</P>
<HD2>B4.2 Export of Electric Energy
</HD2>
<P>Export of electric energy as provided by Section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act over existing transmission systems or using transmission system changes that are themselves categorically excluded.
</P>
<HD2>B4.3 Electric Power Marketing Rate Changes
</HD2>
<P>Rate changes for electric power, power transmission, and other products or services provided by a Power Marketing Administration that are based on a change in revenue requirements if the operations of generation projects would remain within normal operating limits.
</P>
<HD2>B4.4 Power Marketing Services and Activities
</HD2>
<P>Power marketing services and power management activities (including, but not limited to, storage, load shaping and balancing, seasonal exchanges, and other similar activities), provided that the operations of generating projects would remain within normal operating limits. (<I>See</I> B4.14 of this appendix for energy storage systems.)
</P>
<HD2>B4.5 Temporary Adjustments to River Operations
</HD2>
<P>Temporary adjustments to river operations to accommodate day-to-day river fluctuations, power demand changes, fish and wildlife conservation program requirements, and other external events, provided that the adjustments would occur within the existing operating constraints of the particular hydrosystem operation.
</P>
<HD2>B4.6 Additions and Modifications to Transmission Facilities
</HD2>
<P>Additions or modifications to electric power transmission facilities within a previously disturbed or developed facility area. Covered activities include, but are not limited to, switchyard rock grounding upgrades, secondary containment projects, paving projects, seismic upgrading, tower modifications, load shaping projects (such as reducing energy use during periods of peak demand), changing insulators, and replacement of poles, circuit breakers, conductors, transformers, and crossarms. (See B4.14 of this appendix for energy storage systems.)
</P>
<HD2>B4.7 Fiber Optic Cable
</HD2>
<P>Adding fiber optic cables to transmission facilities or burying fiber optic cable in existing powerline or pipeline rights-of-way. Covered actions may include associated vaults and pulling and tensioning sites outside of rights-of- way in nearby previously disturbed or developed areas.
</P>
<HD2>B4.8 Electricity Transmission Agreements
</HD2>
<P>New electricity transmission agreements, and modifications to existing transmission arrangements, to use a transmission facility of one system to transfer power of and for another system, provided that no new generation projects would be involved and no physical changes in the transmission system would be made beyond the previously disturbed or developed facility area.
</P>
<HD2>B4.9 Multiple Use of Powerline Rights-of-Way
</HD2>
<P>Granting or denying requests for multiple uses of a transmission facility's rights-of-way (including, but not limited to, grazing permits and crossing agreements for electric lines, water lines, natural gas pipelines, communications cables, roads, and drainage culverts).
</P>
<HD2>B4.10 Removal of Electric Transmission Facilities
</HD2>
<P>Deactivation, dismantling, and removal of electric transmission facilities (including, but not limited to, electric powerlines, substations, and switching stations) and abandonment and restoration of rights-of-way (including, but not limited to, associated access roads).
</P>
<HD2>B4.11 Electric Power Substations and Interconnection Facilities
</HD2>
<P>Construction or modification of electric power substations or interconnection facilities (including, but not limited to, switching stations and support facilities).
</P>
<HD2>B4.12 Construction of Powerlines
</HD2>
<P>Construction of electric powerlines approximately 10 miles in length or less, or approximately 20 miles in length or less within previously disturbed or developed powerline or pipeline rights-of-way.
</P>
<HD2>B4.13 Upgrading and Rebuilding Existing Powerlines
</HD2>
<P>Upgrading or rebuilding existing electric powerlines, which may involve relocations of small segments of the powerlines within an existing powerline right-of-way or within otherwise previously disturbed or developed lands (as discussed at 10 CFR 1021.102(g)(1)). Upgrading or rebuilding existing electric powerlines also may involve widening an existing powerline right-of-way to meet current electrical standards if the widening remains within previously disturbed or developed lands and only extends into a small area beyond such lands as needed to comply with applicable electrical standards. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements, including the integral elements listed at the start of appendix B of this part; and would incorporate appropriate design and construction standards, control technologies, and best management practices. This categorical exclusion does not apply to underwater powerlines. As used in this categorical exclusion, “small” has the meaning discussed at 10 CFR 1021.102(g)(2).
</P>
<HD2>B4.14 Construction and Operation of Electrochemical-Battery or Flywheel Energy Storage Systems
</HD2>
<P>Construction, operation, upgrade, or decommissioning of an electrochemical-battery or flywheel energy storage system within a previously disturbed or developed area or within a small (as discussed at 10 CFR 1021.102(g)(2)) area contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and the integral elements listed at the start of appendix B of this part, and would incorporate appropriate safety standards (including the current National Fire Protection Association 855, Standard for the Installation of Stationary Energy Storage Systems), design and construction standards, control technologies, and best management practices.
</P>
<HD1>B5. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Conservation, Fossil, and Renewable Energy Activities
</HD1>
<HD2>B5.1 Actions To Conserve Energy or Water
</HD2>
<P>(a) Actions to conserve energy or water, demonstrate potential energy or water conservation, and promote energy efficiency that would not have the potential to cause significant changes in the indoor or outdoor concentrations of potentially harmful substances. These actions may involve financial and technical assistance to individuals (such as builders, owners, consultants, manufacturers, and designers), organizations (such as utilities), and governments (such as state, local, and tribal). Covered actions include, but are not limited to weatherization (such as insulation and replacing windows and doors); programmed lowering of thermostat settings; placement of timers on hot water heaters; installation or replacement of energy efficient lighting, low-flow plumbing fixtures (such as faucets, toilets, and showerheads), heating, ventilation, and air conditioning systems, and appliances; installation of drip- irrigation systems; improvements in generator efficiency and appliance efficiency ratings; efficiency improvements for vehicles and transportation (such as fleet changeout); transportation management systems (such as traffic signal control systems, car navigation, speed cameras, and automatic plate number recognition); development of energy-efficient manufacturing, industrial, or building practices; and small-scale energy efficiency and conservation research and development and small-scale pilot projects. Covered actions include building renovations or new structures, provided that they occur in a previously disturbed or developed area. Covered actions could involve commercial, residential, agricultural, academic, institutional, or industrial sectors. Covered actions do not include rulemakings, standard- settings, or proposed DOE legislation, except for those actions listed in B5.1(b) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(b) Covered actions include rulemakings that establish energy conservation standards for consumer products and industrial equipment, provided that the actions would not:
</P>
<P>(1) Have the potential to cause a significant change in manufacturing infrastructure (such as construction of new manufacturing plants with considerable associated ground disturbance);
</P>
<P>(2) involve significant unresolved conflicts concerning alternative uses of available resources (such as rare or limited raw materials);


</P>
<P>(3) have the potential to result in a significant increase in the disposal of materials posing significant risks to human health and the environment (such as RCRA hazardous wastes); or
</P>
<P>(4) have the potential to cause a significant increase in energy consumption in a state or region.
</P>
<HD2>B5.2 Modifications to Pumps and Piping
</HD2>
<P>Modifications to existing pump and piping configurations (including, but not limited to, manifolds, metering systems, and other instrumentation on such configurations conveying materials such as air, brine, carbon dioxide, geothermal system fluids, hydrogen gas, natural gas, nitrogen gas, oil, produced water, steam, and water). Covered modifications would not have the potential to cause significant changes to design process flow rates or permitted air emissions.
</P>
<HD2>B5.3 Modification or Abandonment of Wells
</HD2>
<P>Modification (but not expansion) or plugging and abandonment of wells, provided that site characterization has verified a low potential for seismicity, subsidence, and contamination of freshwater aquifers, and the actions are otherwise consistent with best practices and DOE protocols, including those that protect against uncontrolled releases of harmful materials. Such wells may include, but are not limited to, storage and injection wells for brine, carbon dioxide, coalbed methane, gas hydrate, geothermal, natural gas, and oil. Covered modifications would not be part of site closure.
</P>
<HD2>B5.4 Repair or Replacement of Pipelines
</HD2>
<P>Repair, replacement, upgrading, rebuilding, or minor relocation of pipelines within existing rights-of- way, provided that the actions are in accordance with applicable requirements (such as Army Corps of Engineers permits under section 404 of the Clean Water Act). Pipelines may convey materials including, but not limited to, air, brine, carbon dioxide, geothermal system fluids, hydrogen gas, natural gas, nitrogen gas, oil, produced water, steam, and water.
</P>
<HD2>B5.5 Short Pipeline Segments
</HD2>
<P>Construction and subsequent operation of short (generally less than 20 miles in length) pipeline segments conveying materials (such as air, brine, carbon dioxide, geothermal system fluids, hydrogen gas, natural gas, nitrogen gas, oil, produced water, steam, and water) between existing source facilities and existing receiving facilities (such as facilities for use, reuse, transportation, storage, and refining), provided that the pipeline segments are within previously disturbed or developed rights-of-way.
</P>
<HD2>B5.6 Oil Spill Cleanup
</HD2>
<P>Removal of oil and contaminated materials recovered in oil spill cleanup operations and disposal of these materials in accordance with applicable requirements (such as the National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan).
</P>
<HD2>B5.7 Export of Natural Gas and Associated Transportation by Marine Vessel
</HD2>
<P>Approvals or disapprovals of new authorizations or amendments of existing authorizations to export natural gas under section 3 of the Natural Gas Act and any associated transportation of natural gas by marine vessel.
</P>
<HD2>B5.8 [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>B5.9 Temporary Exemptions for Electric Powerplants
</HD2>
<P>Grants or denials of temporary exemptions under the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, as amended, for electric powerplants.
</P>
<HD2>B5.10 Certain Permanent Exemptions for Existing Electric Powerplants
</HD2>
<P>For existing electric powerplants, grants or denials of permanent exemptions under the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, as amended, other than exemptions under section 312(c) relating to cogeneration and section 312(b) relating to certain state or local requirements.
</P>
<HD2>B5.11 Permanent Exemptions Allowing Mixed Natural Gas and Petroleum
</HD2>
<P>For new electric powerplants, grants or denials of permanent exemptions from the prohibitions of Title II of the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978, as amended, to permit the use of certain fuel mixtures containing natural gas or petroleum.
</P>
<HD2>B5.12 Workover of Existing Wells
</HD2>
<P>Workover (operations to restore production, such as deepening, plugging back, pulling and resetting lines, and squeeze cementing) of existing wells (including, but not limited to, activities associated with brine, carbon dioxide, coalbed methane, gas hydrate, geothermal, natural gas, and oil) to restore functionality, provided that workover operations are restricted to the existing wellpad and do not involve any new site preparation or earthwork that would have the potential to cause significant impacts on nearby habitat; that site characterization has verified a low potential for seismicity, subsidence, and contamination of freshwater aquifers; and the actions are otherwise consistent with best practices and DOE protocols, including those that protect against uncontrolled releases of harmful materials.
</P>
<HD2>B5.13 Experimental Wells for Injection of Small Quantities of Carbon Dioxide
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, operation, plugging, and abandonment of experimental wells for the injection of small quantities of carbon dioxide (and other incidentally co-captured gases) in locally characterized, geologically secure storage formations at or near existing carbon dioxide sources to determine the suitability of the formations for large-scale sequestration, provided that (1) The characterization has verified a low potential for seismicity, subsidence, and contamination of freshwater aquifers; (2) the wells are otherwise in accordance with applicable requirements, best practices, and DOE protocols, including those that protect against uncontrolled releases of harmful materials; and (3) the wells and associated drilling activities are sufficiently remote so that they would not have the potential to cause significant impacts related to noise and other vibrations. Wells may be used for enhanced oil or natural gas recovery or for secure storage of carbon dioxide in saline formations or other secure formations. Over the duration of a project, the wells would be used to inject, in aggregate, less than 500,000 tons of carbon dioxide into the geologic formation. Covered actions exclude activities in aquatic environments. (See B3.16 of this appendix for activities in aquatic environments.)
</P>
<HD2>B5.14 Combined Heat and Power or Cogeneration Systems
</HD2>
<P>Conversion to, replacement of, or modification of combined heat and power or cogeneration systems (the sequential or simultaneous production of multiple forms of energy, such as thermal and electrical energy, in a single integrated system) at existing facilities, provided that the conversion, replacement, or modification would not have the potential to cause a significant increase in the quantity or rate of air emissions and would not have the potential to cause significant impacts to water resources.
</P>
<HD2>B5.15 Small-Scale Renewable Energy Research and Development and Pilot Projects
</HD2>
<P>Small-scale renewable energy research and development projects and small-scale pilot projects, provided that the projects are located within a previously disturbed or developed area. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.
</P>
<HD2>B5.16 Solar Photovoltaic Systems
</HD2>
<P>(a) The installation, modification, operation, or decommissioning of commercially available solar photovoltaic systems:
</P>
<P>(1) Located on a building or other structure (such as rooftop, parking lot or facility, or mounted to signage, lighting, gates, or fences); or
</P>
<P>(2) Located within a previously disturbed or developed area.
</P>
<P>(b) Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and the integral elements listed at the start of appendix B of this part, and would be consistent with applicable plans for the management of wildlife and habitat, including plans to maintain habitat connectivity, and incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.
</P>
<HD2>B5.17 Solar Thermal Systems
</HD2>
<P>The installation, modification, operation, and removal of commercially available small-scale solar thermal systems (including, but not limited to, solar hot water systems) located on or contiguous to a building, and if located on land, generally comprising less than 10 acres within a previously disturbed or developed area. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.
</P>
<HD2>B5.18 Wind Turbines
</HD2>
<P>The installation, modification, operation, and removal of a small number (generally not more than 2) of commercially available wind turbines, with a total height generally less than 200 feet (measured from the ground to the maximum height of blade rotation) that (1) Are located within a previously disturbed or developed area; (2) are located more than 10 nautical miles (about 11.5 miles) from an airport or aviation navigation aid; (3) are located more than 1.5 nautical miles (about 1.7 miles) from National Weather Service or Federal Aviation Administration Doppler weather radar; (4) would not have the potential to cause significant impacts on bird or bat populations; and (5) are sited or designed such that the project would not have the potential to cause significant impacts to persons (such as from shadow flicker and other visual effects, and noise). Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices. Covered actions include only those related to wind turbines to be installed on land.
</P>
<HD2>B5.19 Ground Source Heat Pumps
</HD2>
<P>The installation, modification, operation, and removal of commercially available small-scale ground source heat pumps to support operations in single facilities (such as a school or community center) or contiguous facilities (such as an office complex) (1) Only where (a) major associated activities (such as drilling and discharge) are regulated, and (b) appropriate leakage and contaminant control measures would be in place (including for cross- contamination between aquifers); (2) that would not have the potential to cause significant changes in subsurface temperature; and (3) would be located within a previously disturbed or developed area. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.
</P>
<HD2>B5.20 Biomass Power Plants
</HD2>
<P>The installation, modification, operation, and removal of small-scale biomass power plants (generally less than 10 megawatts), using commercially available technology (1) Intended primarily to support operations in single facilities (such as a school and community center) or contiguous facilities (such as an office complex); (2) that would not affect the air quality attainment status of the area and would not have the potential to cause a significant increase in the quantity or rate of air emissions and would not have the potential to cause significant impacts to water resources; and (3) would be located within a previously disturbed or developed area. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.
</P>
<HD2>B5.21 Methane Gas Recovery and Utilization Systems
</HD2>
<P>The installation, modification, operation, and removal of commercially available methane gas recovery and utilization systems installed within a previously disturbed or developed area on or contiguous to an existing landfill or wastewater treatment plant that would not have the potential to cause a significant increase in the quantity or rate of air emissions. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.


</P>
<HD2>B5.22 Alternative Fuel Vehicle Fueling Stations
</HD2>
<P>The installation, modification, operation, and removal of alternative fuel vehicle fueling stations (such as for compressed natural gas, hydrogen, ethanol and other commercially available biofuels) on the site of a current or former fueling station, or within a previously disturbed or developed area within the boundaries of a facility managed by the owners of a vehicle fleet. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.
</P>
<HD2>B5.23 Electric Vehicle Charging Stations
</HD2>
<P>The installation, modification, operation, and removal of electric vehicle charging stations, using commercially available technology, within a previously disturbed or developed area. Covered actions are limited to areas where access and parking are in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.
</P>
<HD2>B5.24 Drop-In Hydroelectric Systems
</HD2>
<P>The installation, modification, operation, and removal of commercially available small-scale, drop-in, run-of-the-river hydroelectric systems that would (1) Involve no water storage or water diversion from the stream or river channel where the system is installed and (2) not have the potential to cause significant impacts on water quality, temperature, flow, or volume. Covered systems would be located up-gradient of an existing anadromous fish barrier that is not planned for removal and where fish passage retrofit is not planned and where there would not be the potential for significant impacts to threatened or endangered species or other species of concern (as identified in B(4)(ii) of this appendix). Covered actions would involve no major construction or modification of stream or river channels, and the hydroelectric systems would be placed and secured in the channel without the use of heavy equipment. Covered actions would be in accordance with applicable requirements (such as local land use and zoning requirements) in the proposed project area and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices.
</P>
<HD2>B5.25 Small-Scale Renewable Energy Research and Development and Pilot Projects in Aquatic Environments
</HD2>
<P>Small-scale renewable energy research and development projects and small-scale pilot projects located in aquatic environments. Activities would be in accordance with, where applicable, an approved spill prevention, control, and response plan, and would incorporate appropriate control technologies and best management practices. Covered actions would not occur (1) Within areas of hazardous natural bottom conditions or (2) within the boundary of an established marine sanctuary or wildlife refuge, a governmentally proposed marine sanctuary or wildlife refuge, or a governmentally recognized area of high biological sensitivity, unless authorized by the agency responsible for such refuge, sanctuary, or area (or after consultation with the responsible agency, if no authorization is required). If the proposed activities would occur outside such refuge, sanctuary, or area and if the activities would have the potential to cause impacts within such refuge, sanctuary, or area, then the responsible agency shall be consulted in order to determine whether authorization is required and whether such activities would have the potential to cause significant impacts on such refuge, sanctuary, or area. Areas of high biological sensitivity include, but are not limited to, areas of known ecological importance, whale and marine mammal mating and calving/pupping areas, and fish and invertebrate spawning and nursery areas recognized as being limited or unique and vulnerable to perturbation; these areas can occur in bays, estuaries, near shore, and far offshore, and may vary seasonally. No permanent facilities or devices would be constructed or installed. Covered actions do not include drilling of resource exploration or extraction wells, use of large-scale vibratory coring techniques, or seismic activities other than passive techniques.
</P>
<HD1>B6. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to Environmental Restoration and Waste Management Activities
</HD1>
<HD2>B6.1 Cleanup Actions
</HD2>
<P>Small-scale, short-term cleanup actions, under RCRA, Atomic Energy Act, or other authorities, less than approximately 10 million dollars in cost (in 2011 dollars), to reduce risk to human health or the environment from the release or threat of release of a hazardous substance other than high-level radioactive waste and spent nuclear fuel, including treatment (such as incineration, encapsulation, physical or chemical separation, and compaction), recovery, storage, or disposal of wastes at existing facilities currently handling the type of waste involved in the action. These actions include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Excavation or consolidation of contaminated soils or materials from drainage channels, retention basins, ponds, and spill areas that are not receiving contaminated surface water or wastewater, if surface water or groundwater would not collect and if such actions would reduce the spread of, or direct contact with, the contamination;
</P>
<P>(b) Removal of bulk containers (such as drums and barrels) that contain or may contain hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, CERCLA-excluded petroleum or natural gas products, or hazardous wastes (designated in 40 CFR part 261 or applicable state requirements), if such actions would reduce the likelihood of spillage, leakage, fire, explosion, or exposure to humans, animals, or the food chain;
</P>
<P>(c) Removal of an underground storage tank including its associated piping and underlying containment systems in accordance with applicable requirements (such as RCRA, subtitle I; 40 CFR part 265, subpart J; and 40 CFR part 280, subparts F and G) if such action would reduce the likelihood of spillage, leakage, or the spread of, or direct contact with, contamination;
</P>
<P>(d) Repair or replacement of leaking containers;
</P>
<P>(e) Capping or other containment of contaminated soils or sludges if the capping or containment would not unduly limit future groundwater remediation and if needed to reduce migration of hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, or CERCLA-excluded petroleum and natural gas products into soil, groundwater, surface water, or air;
</P>
<P>(f) Drainage or closing of man-made surface impoundments if needed to maintain the integrity of the structures;
</P>
<P>(g) Confinement or perimeter protection using dikes, trenches, ditches, or diversions, or installing underground barriers, if needed to reduce the spread of, or direct contact with, the contamination;
</P>
<P>(h) Stabilization, but not expansion, of berms, dikes, impoundments, or caps if needed to maintain integrity of the structures;
</P>
<P>(i) Drainage controls (such as run-off or run-on diversion) if needed to reduce offsite migration of hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, or CERCLA-excluded petroleum or natural gas products or to prevent precipitation or run-off from other sources from entering the release area from other areas;
</P>
<P>(j) Segregation of wastes that may react with one another or form a mixture that could result in adverse environmental impacts;
</P>
<P>(k) Use of chemicals and other materials to neutralize the pH of wastes;
</P>
<P>(l) Use of chemicals and other materials to retard the spread of the release or to mitigate its effects if the use of such chemicals would reduce the spread of, or direct contact with, the contamination;
</P>
<P>(m) Installation and operation of gas ventilation systems in soil to remove methane or petroleum vapors without any toxic or radioactive co-contaminants if appropriate filtration or gas treatment is in place;
</P>
<P>(n) Installation of fences, warning signs, or other security or site control precautions if humans or animals have access to the release; and
</P>
<P>(o) Provision of an alternative water supply that would not create new water sources if necessary immediately to reduce exposure to contaminated household or industrial use water and continuing until such time as local authorities can satisfy the need for a permanent remedy.
</P>
<HD2>B6.2 Waste Collection, Treatment, Stabilization, and Containment Facilities
</HD2>
<P>The siting, construction, and operation of temporary (generally less than 2 years) pilot-scale waste collection and treatment facilities, and pilot-scale (generally less than 1 acre) waste stabilization and containment facilities (including siting, construction, and operation of a small-scale laboratory building or renovation of a room in an existing building for sample analysis), provided that the action (1) Supports remedial investigations/feasibility studies under CERCLA, or similar studies under RCRA (such as RCRA facility investigations/corrective measure studies) or other authorities and (2) would not unduly limit the choice of reasonable remedial alternatives (such as by permanently altering substantial site area or by committing large amounts of funds relative to the scope of the remedial alternatives).
</P>
<HD2>B6.3 Improvements to Environmental Control Systems
</HD2>
<P>Improvements to environmental monitoring and control systems of an existing building or structure (such as changes to scrubbers in air quality control systems or ion-exchange devices and other filtration processes in water treatment systems), provided that during subsequent operations (1) Any substance collected by the environmental control systems would be recycled, released, or disposed of within existing permitted facilities and (2) there are applicable statutory or regulatory requirements or permit conditions for disposal, release, or recycling of any hazardous substance or CERCLA-excluded petroleum or natural gas products that are collected or released in increased quantity or that were not previously collected or released.
</P>
<HD2>B6.4 Facilities for Storing Packaged Hazardous Waste for 90 Days or Less
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, expansion, operation, and decommissioning of an onsite facility for storing packaged hazardous waste (as designated in 40 CFR part 261) for 90 days or less or for longer periods as provided in 40 CFR 262.34(d), (e), or (f) (such as accumulation or satellite areas).
</P>
<HD2>B6.5 Facilities for Characterizing and Sorting Packaged Waste and Overpacking Waste
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, expansion, operation, and decommissioning of an onsite facility for characterizing and sorting previously packaged waste or for overpacking waste, other than high-level radioactive waste, provided that operations do not involve unpacking waste. These actions do not include waste storage (covered under B6.4, B6.6, B6.10 of this appendix) or the handling of spent nuclear fuel.
</P>
<HD2>B6.6 Modification of Facilities for Storing, Packaging, and Repacking Waste
</HD2>
<P>Modification (excluding increases in capacity) of an existing structure used for storing, packaging, or repacking waste other than high-level radioactive waste or spent nuclear fuel, to handle the same class of waste as currently handled at that structure.
</P>
<HD2>B6.7 [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>B6.8 Modifications for Waste Minimization and Reuse of Materials
</HD2>
<P>Minor operational changes at an existing facility to minimize waste generation and for reuse of materials. These changes include, but are not limited to, adding filtration and recycle piping to allow reuse of machining oil, setting up a sorting area to improve process efficiency, and segregating two waste streams previously mingled and assigning new identification codes to the two resulting wastes.
</P>
<HD2>B6.9 Measures To Reduce Migration of Contaminated Groundwater
</HD2>
<P>Small-scale temporary measures to reduce migration of contaminated groundwater, including the siting, construction, operation, and decommissioning of necessary facilities. These measures include, but are not limited to, pumping, treating, storing, and reinjecting water, by mobile units or facilities that are built and then removed at the end of the action.
</P>
<HD2>B6.10 Upgraded or Replacement Waste Storage Facilities
</HD2>
<P>Siting, construction, modification, expansion, operation, and decommissioning of a small upgraded or replacement facility (less than approximately 50,000 square feet in area) within or contiguous to a previously disturbed or developed area (where active utilities and currently used roads are readily accessible) for storage of waste that is already at the site at the time the storage capacity is to be provided. These actions do not include the storage of high-level radioactive waste, spent nuclear fuel or any waste that requires special precautions to prevent nuclear criticality. (See also B6.4, B6.5, B6.6 of this appendix.)
</P>
<HD1>B7. Categorical Exclusions Applicable to International Activities
</HD1>
<HD2>B7.1 Emergency Measures Under the International Energy Program
</HD2>
<P>Planning and implementation of emergency measures pursuant to the International Energy Program.
</P>
<HD2>B7.2 Import and Export of Special Nuclear or Isotopic Materials
</HD2>
<P>Approval of import or export of small quantities of special nuclear materials or isotopic materials in accordance with applicable requirements (such as the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Act of 1978 and the “Procedures Established Pursuant to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Act of 1978” (43 FR 25326, June 9, 1978)).






</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1022" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1022—COMPLIANCE WITH FLOODPLAIN AND WETLAND ENVIRONMENTAL REVIEW REQUIREMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.;</I> E.O. 11988, 42 FR 26951, 3 CFR, 1977 Comp., p. 117; E.O. 11990, 42 FR 26961, 3 CFR, 1977 Comp., p. 121; E.O. 12372, 47 FR 30959, 3 CFR, 1982 Comp., p. 197.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 51432, Aug. 27, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.1   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Executive Order (E.O.) 11988—Floodplain Management (May 24, 1977) directs each Federal agency to issue or amend existing regulations and procedures to ensure that the potential effects of any action it may take in a floodplain are evaluated and that its planning programs and budget requests reflect consideration of flood hazards and floodplain management. Guidance for implementation of the E.O. is provided in the floodplain management guidelines of the U.S. Water Resources Council (40 FR 6030; February 10, 1978) and in “A Unified National Program for Floodplain Management” prepared by the Federal Interagency Floodplain Management Taskforce (Federal Emergency Management Agency, FEMA 248, June 1994). E.O. 11990—Protection of Wetlands (May 24, 1977) directs all Federal agencies to issue or amend existing procedures to ensure consideration of wetlands protection in decisionmaking and to ensure the evaluation of the potential impacts of any new construction proposed in a wetland. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is the intent of the E.O.s that Federal agencies implement both the floodplain and the wetland provisions through existing procedures such as those established to implement the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I>). In those instances where the impacts of the proposed action are not significant enough to require the preparation of an EIS under section 102(2)(C) of NEPA, alternative floodplain or wetland evaluation procedures are to be established. As stated in the E.O.s, Federal agencies are to avoid direct or indirect support of development in a floodplain or new construction in a wetland wherever there is a practicable alternative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes policy and procedures for discharging the Department of Energy's (DOE's) responsibilities under E.O. 11988 and E.O. 11990, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) DOE policy regarding the consideration of floodplain and wetland factors in DOE planning and decisionmaking; and 
</P>
<P>(2) DOE procedures for identifying proposed actions located in a floodplain or wetland, providing opportunity for early public review of such proposed actions, preparing floodplain or wetland assessments, and issuing statements of findings for actions in a floodplain. 
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent possible, DOE shall accommodate the requirements of E.O. 11988 and E.O. 11990 through applicable DOE NEPA procedures or, when appropriate, the environmental review process under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) (42 U.S.C. 9601 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.3   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>DOE shall exercise leadership and take action to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Incorporate floodplain management goals and wetland protection considerations into its planning, regulatory, and decisionmaking processes, and shall to the extent practicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) Reduce the risk of flood loss; 
</P>
<P>(2) Minimize the impact of floods on human safety, health, and welfare; 
</P>
<P>(3) Restore and preserve natural and beneficial values served by floodplains; 
</P>
<P>(4) Require the construction of DOE structures and facilities to be, at a minimum, in accordance with FEMA National Flood Insurance Program building standards; 
</P>
<P>(5) Promote public awareness of flood hazards by providing conspicuous delineations of past and probable flood heights on DOE property that has suffered flood damage or is in an identified floodplain and that is used by the general public; 
</P>
<P>(6) Inform parties during transactions guaranteed, approved, regulated, or insured by DOE of the hazards associated with locating facilities and structures in a floodplain; 
</P>
<P>(7) Minimize the destruction, loss, or degradation of wetlands; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Preserve and enhance the natural and beneficial values of wetlands. 
</P>
<P>(b) Undertake a careful evaluation of the potential effects of any proposed floodplain or wetland action. 
</P>
<P>(c) Avoid to the extent possible the long- and short-term adverse impacts associated with the destruction of wetlands and the occupancy and modification of floodplains and wetlands, and avoid direct and indirect support of development in a floodplain or new construction in a wetland wherever there is a practicable alternative. 
</P>
<P>(d) Identify, evaluate, and as appropriate, implement alternative actions that may avoid or mitigate adverse floodplain or wetland impacts. 
</P>
<P>(e) Provide opportunity for early public review of any plans or proposals for floodplain or wetland actions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.4   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Action</I> means any DOE activity necessary to carry out its responsibilities for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Acquiring, managing, and disposing of Federal lands and facilities; 
</P>
<P>(2) Providing DOE-undertaken, -financed, or -assisted construction and improvements; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Conducting activities and programs affecting land use, including but not limited to water- and related land-resources planning, regulating, and licensing activities. 
</P>
<P><I>Base floodplain</I> means the 100-year floodplain, that is, a floodplain with a 1.0 percent chance of flooding in any given year. 
</P>
<P><I>Critical action</I> means any DOE action for which even a slight chance of flooding would be too great. Such actions may include, but are not limited to, the storage of highly volatile, toxic, or water reactive materials. 
</P>
<P><I>Critical action floodplain</I> means, at a minimum, the 500-year floodplain, that is, a floodplain with a 0.2 percent chance of flooding in any given year. When another requirement directing evaluation of a less frequent flood event also is applicable to the proposed action, a flood less frequent than the 500-year flood may be appropriate for determining the floodplain for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Effects of national concern</I> means those effects that because of the high quality or function of the affected resource or because of the wide geographic range of effects could create concern beyond the locale or region of the proposed action. 
</P>
<P><I>Environmental assessment</I> (EA) means a document prepared in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR 1501.4(b), 40 CFR 1508.9, 10 CFR 1021.320, and 10 CFR 1021.321. 
</P>
<P><I>Environmental impact statement</I> (EIS) means a document prepared in accordance with the requirements of section 102(2)(C) of NEPA and its implementing regulations at 40 CFR Parts 1500-1508 and 10 CFR Part 1021. 
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means any human-made or -placed item other than a structure. 
</P>
<P><I>FEMA</I> means the Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security. 
</P>
<P><I>Finding of no significant impact</I> means a document prepared in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR 1508.13 and 10 CFR 1021.322. 
</P>
<P><I>Flood or flooding</I> means a temporary condition of partial or complete inundation of normally dry land areas from the overflow of inland or tidal waters, or the unusual and rapid accumulation or runoff of surface waters from any source. 
</P>
<P><I>Floodplain</I> means the lowlands adjoining inland and coastal waters and relatively flat areas and floodprone areas of offshore islands. 
</P>
<P><I>Floodplain action</I> means any DOE action that takes place in a floodplain, including any DOE action in a wetland that is also within the floodplain, subject to the exclusions specified at § 1022.5(c) and (d) of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Floodplain and wetland values means</I> the qualities of or functions served by floodplains and wetlands that can include, but are not limited to, living values (<I>e.g.,</I> conservation of existing flora and fauna including their long-term productivity, preservation of diversity and stability of species and habitats), cultural resource values (<I>e.g.,</I> archeological and historic sites), cultivated resource values (<I>e.g.,</I> agriculture, aquaculture, forestry), aesthetic values (<I>e.g.,</I> natural beauty), and other values related to uses in the public interest (<I>e.g.,</I> open space, scientific study, outdoor education, recreation). 
</P>
<P><I>Floodplain or wetland assessment</I> means an evaluation consisting of a description of a proposed action, a discussion of its potential effects on the floodplain or wetland, and consideration of alternatives. 
</P>
<P><I>Floodplain statement of findings</I> means a brief document issued pursuant to § 1022.14 of this part that describes the results of a floodplain assessment. 
</P>
<P><I>High-hazard areas</I> means those portions of riverine and coastal floodplains nearest the source of flooding that are frequently flooded and where the likelihood of flood losses and adverse impacts on the natural and beneficial values served by floodplains is greatest. 
</P>
<P><I>Minimize</I> means to reduce to the smallest degree practicable. 
</P>
<P><I>New construction,</I> for the purpose of compliance with E.O. 11990 and this part, means the building of any structures or facilities, draining, dredging, channelizing, filling, diking, impounding, and related activities. 
</P>
<P><I>Notice of proposed floodplain action and notice of proposed wetland action</I> mean a brief notice that describes a proposed floodplain or wetland action, respectively, and its location and that affords the opportunity for public review. 
</P>
<P><I>Practicable</I> means capable of being accomplished within existing constraints, depending on the situation and including consideration of many factors, such as the existing environment, cost, technology, and implementation time. 
</P>
<P><I>Preserve</I> means to prevent modification to the natural floodplain or wetland environment or to maintain it as closely as possible to its natural state. 
</P>
<P><I>Restore</I> means to reestablish a setting or environment in which the natural functions of the floodplain or wetland can again operate. 
</P>
<P><I>Structure</I> means a walled or roofed building, including mobile homes and gas or liquid storage tanks. 
</P>
<P><I>Wetland</I> means an area that is inundated or saturated by surface or groundwater at a frequency and duration sufficient to support, and that under normal circumstances does support, a prevalence of vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions, including swamps, marshes, bogs, and similar areas. 
</P>
<P><I>Wetland action</I> means any DOE action related to new construction that takes place in a wetland not located in a floodplain, subject to the exclusions specified at § 1022.5(c) and (d) of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.1.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.5   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all organizational units of DOE, including the National Nuclear Security Administration, except that it shall not apply to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to all proposed floodplain or wetland actions, including those sponsored jointly with other agencies. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to the issuance by DOE of permits, licenses, or allocations to private parties for activities involving a wetland that are located on non-Federal property. 
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to paragraph (e) of this section, subpart B of this part does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Routine maintenance of existing facilities and structures on DOE property in a floodplain or wetland. Maintenance is routine when it is needed to maintain and preserve the facility or structure for its designated purpose (<I>e.g.,</I> activities such as reroofing, plumbing repair, door and window replacement); 
</P>
<P>(2) Site characterization, environmental monitoring, or environmental research activities (<I>e.g.,</I> sampling and surveying water and air quality, flora and fauna abundance, and soil properties) in a floodplain or wetland, unless these activities would involve building any structure; involve draining, dredging, channelizing, filling, diking, impounding, or related activities; or result in long-term change to the ecosystem; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Minor modification (<I>e.g.,</I> upgrading lighting, heating, ventilation, and air conditioning systems; installing or improving alarm and surveillance systems; and adding environmental monitoring or control systems) of an existing facility or structure in a floodplain or wetland to improve safety or environmental conditions unless the modification would result in a significant change in the expected useful life of the facility or structure, or involve building any structure or involve draining, dredging, channelizing, filling, diking, impounding, or related activities. 
</P>
<P>(e) Although the actions listed in paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2), and (d)(3) of this section normally have very small or no adverse impact on a floodplain or wetland, where unusual circumstances indicate the possibility of adverse impact on a floodplain or wetland, DOE shall determine the need for a floodplain or wetland assessment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.1.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.6   Public inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>Inquiries regarding DOE's floodplain and wetland environmental review requirements may be directed to the Office of NEPA Policy and Compliance, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585-0119, 202-586-4600, or a message may be left at 1-800-472-2756, toll free. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Floodplain and Wetland Reviews</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.11   Floodplain or wetland determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Concurrent with its review of a proposed action to determine appropriate NEPA or CERCLA process requirements, DOE shall determine the applicability of the floodplain management and wetland protection requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE shall determine whether a proposed action would be located within a base or critical action floodplain consistent with the most authoritative information available relative to site conditions from the following sources, as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(1) Flood Insurance Rate Maps or Flood Hazard Boundary Maps prepared by FEMA; 
</P>
<P>(2) Information from a land-administering agency (<I>e.g.,</I> Bureau of Land Management) or from other government agencies with floodplain-determination expertise (<I>e.g.,</I> U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Natural Resources Conservation Service); 
</P>
<P>(3) Information contained in safety basis documents as defined at 10 CFR part 830; and 
</P>
<P>(4) DOE environmental documents, <I>e.g.,</I> NEPA and CERCLA documents. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE shall determine whether a proposed action would be located within a wetland consistent with the most authoritative information available relative to site conditions from the following sources, as appropriate: 
</P>
<P>(1) U.S. Army Corps of Engineers “Wetlands Delineation Manual,” Wetlands Research Program Technical Report Y-87-1, January 1987, or successor document; 
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service National Wetlands Inventory or other government-sponsored wetland or land-use inventories; 
</P>
<P>(3) U.S. Department of Agriculture Natural Resources Conservation Service Local Identification Maps; 
</P>
<P>(4) U.S. Geological Survey Topographic Maps; and 
</P>
<P>(5) DOE environmental documents, <I>e.g.,</I> NEPA and CERCLA documents. 
</P>
<P>(d) Pursuant to § 1022.5 of this part and paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, DOE shall prepare: 
</P>
<P>(1) A floodplain assessment for any proposed floodplain action in the base floodplain or for any proposed floodplain action that is a critical action located in the critical action floodplain; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A wetland assessment for any proposed wetland action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.12   Notice of proposed action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For a proposed floodplain or wetland action for which an EIS is required, DOE shall use applicable NEPA procedures to provide the opportunity for early public review of the proposed action. A notice of intent to prepare the EIS may be used to satisfy the requirement for DOE to publish a notice of proposed floodplain or wetland action. 
</P>
<P>(b) For a proposed floodplain or wetland action for which no EIS is required, DOE shall take appropriate steps to send a notice of proposed floodplain or wetland action to appropriate government agencies (<I>e.g.,</I> FEMA regional offices, host and affected States, and tribal and local governments) and to persons or groups known to be interested in or potentially affected by the proposed floodplain or wetland action. DOE also shall distribute the notice in the area where the proposed action is to be located (<I>e.g.,</I> by publication in local newspapers, through public service announcements, by posting on- and off-site). In addition, for a proposed floodplain or wetland action that may result in effects of national concern to the floodplain or wetland or both, DOE shall publish the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.13   Floodplain or wetland assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A floodplain or wetland assessment shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Project Description.</I> This section shall describe the proposed action and shall include a map showing its location with respect to the floodplain and/or wetland. For actions located in a floodplain, the nature and extent of the flood hazard shall be described, including the nature and extent of hazards associated with any high-hazard areas. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Floodplain or Wetland Impacts.</I> This section shall discuss the positive and negative, direct and indirect, and long- and short-term effects of the proposed action on the floodplain and/or wetland. This section shall include impacts on the natural and beneficial floodplain and wetland values (§ 1022.4) appropriate to the location under evaluation. In addition, the effects of a proposed floodplain action on lives and property shall be evaluated. For an action proposed in a wetland, the effects on the survival, quality, and function of the wetland shall be evaluated. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternatives.</I> DOE shall consider alternatives to the proposed action that avoid adverse impacts and incompatible development in the floodplain and/or wetland, including alternate sites, alternate actions, and no action. DOE shall evaluate measures that mitigate the adverse effects of actions in a floodplain and/or wetland including, but not limited to, minimum grading requirements, runoff controls, design and construction constraints, and protection of ecologically-sensitive areas. 
</P>
<P>(b) For proposed floodplain or wetland actions for which an EA or EIS is required, DOE shall prepare the floodplain or wetland assessment concurrent with and included in the appropriate NEPA document. 
</P>
<P>(c) For floodplain or wetland actions for which neither an EA nor an EIS is prepared, DOE shall prepare the floodplain or wetland assessment separately or incorporate it when appropriate into another environmental review process (<I>e.g.,</I> CERCLA). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.14" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.14   Findings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If DOE finds that no practicable alternative to locating or conducting the action in the floodplain or wetland is available, then before taking action DOE shall design or modify its action in order to minimize potential harm to or within the floodplain or wetland, consistent with the policies set forth in E.O. 11988 and E.O. 11990. 
</P>
<P>(b) For actions that will be located in a floodplain, DOE shall issue a floodplain statement of findings, normally not to exceed three pages, that contains: 
</P>
<P>(1) A brief description of the proposed action, including a location map; 
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation indicating why the action is proposed to be located in the floodplain; 
</P>
<P>(3) A list of alternatives considered; 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement indicating whether the action conforms to applicable floodplain protection standards; and 
</P>
<P>(5) A brief description of steps to be taken to minimize potential harm to or within the floodplain. 
</P>
<P>(c) For floodplain actions that require preparation of an EA or EIS, DOE may incorporate the floodplain statement of findings into the finding of no significant impact or final EIS, as appropriate, or issue such statement separately. 
</P>
<P>(d) DOE shall send copies of the floodplain statement of findings to appropriate government agencies (<I>e.g.,</I> FEMA regional offices, host and affected states, and tribal and local governments) and to others who submitted comments on the proposed floodplain action. 
</P>
<P>(e) For proposed floodplain actions that may result in effects of national concern, DOE shall publish the floodplain statement of findings in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> describing the location of the action and stating where a map is available.
</P>
<P>(f) For floodplain actions subject to E.O. 12372—Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs (July 14, 1982), DOE also shall send the floodplain statement of findings to the State in accordance with 10 CFR part 1005—Intergovernmental Review of Department of Energy Programs and Activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.15" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.15   Timing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For a proposed floodplain action, DOE shall allow 15 days for public comment following issuance of a notice of proposed floodplain action. After the close of the public comment period and before issuing a floodplain statement of findings, DOE shall reevaluate the practicability of alternatives to the proposed floodplain action and the mitigating measures, taking into account all substantive comments received. After issuing a floodplain statement of findings, DOE shall endeavor to allow at least 15 days of public review before implementing a proposed floodplain action. If a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice is required, the 15-day period begins on the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) For a proposed wetland action, DOE shall allow 15 days for public comment following issuance of a notice of proposed wetland action. After the close of the public comment period, DOE shall reevaluate the practicability of alternatives to the proposed wetland action and the mitigating measures, taking into account all substantive comments received, before implementing a proposed wetland action. If a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice is required, the 15-day period begins on the date of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.16" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.16   Variances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Emergency actions.</I> DOE may take actions without observing all provisions of this part in emergency situations that demand immediate action. To the extent practicable prior to taking an emergency action (or as soon as possible after taking such an action) DOE shall document the emergency actions in accordance with NEPA procedures at 10 CFR 1021.343(a) or CERCLA procedures in order to identify any adverse impacts from the actions taken and any further necessary mitigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> If statutory deadlines or overriding considerations of program or project expense or effectiveness exist, DOE may waive the minimum time periods in § 1022.15 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation.</I> To the extent practicable prior to taking an action pursuant to paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section (or as soon as possible after taking such an action) the cognizant DOE program or project manager shall consult with the Office of NEPA Policy and Compliance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.17" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.17   Follow-up.</HEAD>
<P>For those DOE actions taken in a floodplain or wetland, DOE shall verify that the implementation of the selected alternative, particularly with regard to any adopted mitigation measures, is proceeding as described in the floodplain or wetland assessment and the floodplain statement of findings. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Other Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.21" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.21   Property management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If property in a floodplain or wetland is proposed for license, easement, lease, transfer, or disposal to non-Federal public or private parties, DOE shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify those uses that are restricted under applicable floodplain or wetland regulations and attach other appropriate restrictions to the uses of the property; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Withhold the property from conveyance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before completing any transaction that DOE guarantees, approves, regulates, or insures that is related to an area located in a floodplain, DOE shall inform any private party participating in the transaction of the hazards associated with locating facilities or structures in the floodplain. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.22" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.22   Requests for authorizations or appropriations.</HEAD>
<P>It is DOE policy to indicate in any requests for new authorizations or appropriations transmitted to the Office of Management and Budget, if a proposed action is located in a floodplain or wetland and whether the proposed action is in accord with the requirements of E.O. 11988 and E.O. 11990 and this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.23" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.23   Applicant responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may require applicants for any use of real property (<I>e.g.,</I> license, easement, lease, transfer, or disposal), permits, certificates, loans, grants, contract awards, allocations, or other forms of assistance or other entitlement related to activities in a floodplain or wetland to provide information necessary for DOE to comply with this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.24" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.14.3.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.24   Interagency cooperation.</HEAD>
<P>If DOE and one or more agencies are directly involved in a proposed floodplain or wetland action, in accordance with DOE's NEPA or CERCLA procedures, DOE shall consult with such other agencies to determine if a floodplain or wetland assessment is required by subpart B of this part, identify the appropriate lead or joint agency responsibilities, identify the applicable regulations, and establish procedures for interagency coordination during the environmental review process.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1039" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1039—UNIFORM RELOCATION ASSISTANCE AND REAL PROPERTY ACQUISITION FOR FEDERAL AND FEDERALLY ASSISTED PROGRAMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 213, Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, Pub. L. 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894 (42 U.S.C. 4601) as amended by the Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987, Title IV of Pub. L. 100-17, 101 Stat. 246-256 (42 U.S.C. 4601 note). 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1039.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.15.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1039.1   Uniform relocation assistance and real property acquisition.</HEAD>
<P>Regulations and procedures for complying with the Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-646, 84 Stat. 1894, 42 U.S.C. 4601), as amended by the Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987 (Title IV of Pub. L. 100-17, 101 Stat. 246-255, 42 U.S.C. 4601 note) are set forth in 49 CFR part 24.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 48017, Dec. 17, 1987; 54 FR 8912, 8913, Mar. 2, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1040" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1040—NONDISCRIMINATION IN FEDERALLY ASSISTED PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>20 U.S.C. 1681-1686; 29 U.S.C. 794; 42 U.S.C. 2000d to 2000d-7, 3601-3631, 5891, 6101-6107, 7101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="20">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20782, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to implement Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Pub. L. 88-352; section 16 of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, as amended, Pub. L. 93-275; section 401 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-438; Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended, Pub. L. 92-318, Pub. L. 93-568 and Pub. L. 94-482; section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, Pub. L. 93-112; the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, Pub. L. 94-135; Title VIII of the Civil Rights Act of 1968, Pub. L. 90-284; and civil rights provisions of statutes administered pursuant to authority under the DOE Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, so no person shall, on the ground of race, color, national origin, sex (when covered by section 16 and section 401), handicap, or age, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, be subjected to discrimination under, or be denied employment, where a primary purpose of the Federal financial assistance is to provide employment or when the delivery of services is affected by the recipient's employment practices (under section 504, all grantee and subgrantee employment practices are covered regardless of the purpose of the program), in connection with any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Energy (after this referred to as DOE or the Department). Employment coverage may be broader in scope when section 16, section 401, or Title IX are applicable. 
</P>
<P>(b) DOE regulations on enforcement of nondiscrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by DOE are in part 1041 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) DOE regulations on enforcement of nondiscrimination on the basis of sex, under Title IX of the Education Act Amendments of 1972, as amended, are in part 1042 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 66 FR 4630, Jan. 18, 2001; 68 FR 51346, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.2   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application of this part is to any program or activity for which Federal financial assistance is authorized under laws administered by DOE. Types of Federal financial assistance to which this part applies are listed in Appendix A of this part. appendix A is to be revised from time to time by notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> This part applies to money paid, property transferred, or other Federal financial assistance including cooperative agreements extended, by way of grant, loan, or contract by DOE, or grants awarded in the performance of a contract with DOE by an authorized contractor or subcontractor, the terms of which require compliance with this part. If any statutes implemented by this part are otherwise applicable, the failure to list a type of Federal financial assistance in appendix A does not mean that a program or activity is not covered by this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Contracts of insurance or guaranty; 
</P>
<P>(2) Employment practices under any program or activity except as provided in §§ 1040.12, 1040.14, 1040.41, 1040.47 and 1040.66; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Procurement contracts under title 41 CFR part 1 or part 9. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51346, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.3   Definitions—General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Academic institution</I> includes any school, academy, college, university, institute, or other association, organization, or agency conducting or administering any aid, benefit, service, project, or facility designed to educate or train individuals. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means a person appointed by the reviewing authority to preside over a hearing held under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency</I> or <I>Federal agency</I> refers to any Federal department or agency which extends Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicant for assistance</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by a Department official or by a primary recipient as a condition to becoming eligible for Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Assistant Attorney General</I> refers to the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Director, FAPD</I> refers to the Director, Federally Assisted Programs Division, Office of Equal Opportunity, DOE. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Compliance Review</I> means an analysis of a recipient's selected employment practices or delivery of services for adherence to provisions of any of the subparts of this part. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy (DOE). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FERC</I> means the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, DOE. 
</P>
<P>(j) Where designation of persons by race, color, or national origin is required, the following designations are to be used: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Black,</I> not of Hispanic origin. A person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hispanic.</I> A person of Mexican, Puerto Rican, Cuban, Central or South American or other Spanish Culture or origin, regardless of race. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Asian or Pacific Islander.</I> A person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian Subcontinent, or the Pacific Islands. This includes, for example, China, India, Japan, Korea, the Philippine Islands, Hawaiian Islands, and Samoa. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>American Indian or Alaskan Native.</I> A person having origins in any of the original peoples of North America and who maintains cultural identification through tribal affiliation or community recognition. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>White, not of Hispanic origin.</I> A person having origins in any of the original peoples of Europe, North Africa, or the Middle East.
</P>
<FP>Additional subcategories based on national origin or primary language spoken may be used where appropriate on either a national or a regional basis. Paragraphs (j) (1) through (5), inclusive, set forth in this section are in conformity with Directive No. 15 of the Office of Federal Statistical Policy and Standards. To the extent that these designations are modified, paragraphs (j) (1) through (5), inclusive, set forth in this section are to be interpreted to conform with those modifications. 
</FP>
<P>(k) <I>Director</I> means the Director, Office of Equal Opportunity, DOE. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Disposition</I> means any treatment, handling, decision, sentencing, confinement, or other proscription of conduct. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Employment practices,</I> see individual section headings. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, or other real or personal property or interest in such property, and the provision of facilities includes the construction, expansion, renovation, remodeling, alteration, or acquisition of facilities. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Federal financial assistance</I> includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) Grants and loans of Federal funds, 
</P>
<P>(2) The grant or donation of Federal property and interest in property, 
</P>
<P>(3) The detail of or provision of services by Federal personnel, 
</P>
<P>(4) The sale and lease of, and the permission to use (on other than a casual or transient basis), Federal property or any interest in such property, the furnishing of services without consideration or at a nominal consideration, or at a consideration which is reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient, or in recognition of the public interest to be served by the sale, lease, or furnishing of services to the recipient, and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any Federal agreement, arrangement, or other contract which has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>General Counsel</I> mean the Office of the General Counsel Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Government organization</I> means the political subdivision for a prescribed geographical area. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Investigations</I> include fact-finding efforts and attempts to secure voluntary resolution of complaints. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Noncompliance</I> means the failure of a recipient or subrecipient to comply with any subpart of this part. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Primary recipient</I> means any person, group, organization, state, or local unit of government which is authorized or required to extend Federal financial assistance to another recipient. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Program or activity</I> and <I>program</I> mean all of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (u)(1) through (4) of this section, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A college, university, or other postsecondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A local educational agency (as defined in 20 U.S.C. 7801), system of vocational education, or other school system;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship—
</P>
<P>(A) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(B) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other entity which is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraph (u)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Responsible Departmental or DOE Official</I> means the official of the Department of Energy that has been assigned the principal responsibility for administration of the law extending Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Reviewing authority</I> means the component of the Department delegated authority by the Secretary to appoint, and to review the decisions of, administrative law judges in cases arising under this part. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Department of Energy. 
</P>
<P>(y) The term <I>United States</I> includes the states of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Island, American Samoa, Guam, Wake Island, the Canal Zone, and all other territories and possessions of the United States, and the term <I>State</I> includes any one of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Headquarters</I> means DOE offices located in Washington, D.C. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51346, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.4   Assurances required and preaward review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assurances.</I> An applicant for Federal financial assistance to which this part applies shall submit an assurance on a form specified by the Director that the program or activity will be operated in compliance with applicable subparts. Such assurances are to include provisions which give the United States a right to seek judicial enforcement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended in the form of real property or to provide real property or structure on the property, the assurance obligates the recipient or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used for the purpose for which Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide personal property, the assurance obligates the recipient for the period during which it retains ownership or possession of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases, the assurance obligates the recipient to all terms and conditions contained in the certificate of assurance for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covenants.</I> Where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of real property, structures, improvements on or interests in the property, or in the case where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of a transfer of real property or interest in the property from the Department: 
</P>
<P>(1) The instrument effecting or recording this transfer is to contain a covenant running with the land to assure nondiscrimination for the period during which the real property is used for a purpose for which the Federal financial assistance is extended or for another purpose involving the provision of similar services or benefits; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Where no transfer of property is involved or imposed with Federal financial assistance, the recipient shall agree to include the covenant described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in the instrument effecting or recording any subsequent transfer of the property. 
</P>
<P>(3) Where Federal financial assistance is provided in the form of real property or interest in the property from the Department, the covenant is to also include a condition coupled with a right to be reserved by the Department to revert title to the property in the event of a material breach of the covenant. If a transferee of real property manages to mortgage or otherwise encumber the real property as security for financing construction of new or improvement of existing facilities on the property for the purpose for which the property was transferred, the Director may, upon request of the transferee and, if necessary to accomplish such financing and upon such conditions, as he or she deems appropriate, agree to forbear the exercise of the right to revert title for so long as the lien of the mortgage or other encumbrance remains effective. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assurances from government agencies.</I> In the case of any application from any department, agency or office of any State or local government for Federal financial assistance for any specified purpose, the assurance required by this section is to extend to any other department, agency, or office of the same governmental unit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Assurance from academic and other institutions.</I> (1) In the case of any application for Federal financial assistance for any purpose to an academic institution, the assurance required by this section is to extend to admission practices and to all other practices relating to the treatment of students. 
</P>
<P>(2) The assurance required with respect to an academic institution, detention or correctional facility, or any other institution or facility, insofar as the assurance relates to the institution's practices with respect to admission or other treatment of individuals as students, patients, wards, inmates, persons subject to control, or clients of the institution or facility or to the opportunity to participate in the provision of services, disposition, treatment, or benefits to such individuals, shall be applicable to the entire institution or facility. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuing Federal financial assistance.</I> Any State or State agency applying for continuing Federal financial assistance subject to this part shall, as a condition for the extension of such assistance: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide a statement that the program or activity is (or, in the case of a new program or activity, will be) conducted in compliance with applicable subparts; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for such methods of administration as are found by the Director or a designee to give reasonable assurance that the primary recipient and all other recipients of Federal financial assistance under such program will comply with this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Assistance for construction.</I> Where the assistance is sought for the construction of a facility, or a part of a facility, the assurance is to extend to the entire facility. If a facility to be constructed is part of a larger system, the assurance is to extend to the larger system. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pre-award review.</I> Prior to and as a condition of approval, all applications for Federal financial assistance are to be reviewed by the appropriate Civil Rights Department official who is to make a written determination of the applicant's compliance with this part. The basis for such a determination is to be the submission of the assurance of compliance as specified in paragraph (a) and a review of data to be submitted by the applicant as specified by the Director. For purposes of this subsection, the appropriate departmental official at headquarters level is the Director, FAPD, Office of Equal Opportunity, and at the regional level it is to be the Civil Rights Officer delegated by the Director as having review authority for determining compliance with requirements of this part. Where a determination of compliance cannot be made from this data, DOE may require the applicant to submit necessary additional information and may take other steps necessary to make the determination of compliance. Such other steps may include, for example, communicating with local government officials or protected class organizations and field reviews. Any agreement to achieve voluntary compliance as a result of a preaward review shall be in writing. In the case of Title VI, the Director will notify the Assistant Attorney General of instances of probable noncompliance determined as the result of application reviews. The opportunity for a hearing as provided under § 1040.113 is applicable to this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51346, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.5   Designation of responsible employee.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="22">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> Each recipient shall designate at least one employee to coordinate its efforts to carry outs its responsibilities under this part. The recipient shall publish the name, office address and telephone number of the employee or employees appointed under this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient shall display prominently, in reasonable numbers and places, posters which state that the recipient operates a program or activity subject to the nondiscrimination provisions of applicable subparts, summarize those requirements, note availability of information regarding this part from the recipient and DOE, and explain briefly the procedures for filing a complaint. Information on requirements of this part, complaint procedures and the rights of beneficiaries are to be included in handbooks, manuals, pamphlets, and other materials which are ordinarily distributed to the public to describe the federally assisted programs or activities and the requirements for participation by recipients and beneficiaries. To the extent that recipients are required by law or regulation to publish or broadcast information in the news media, the recipient shall insure that such publications and broadcasts state that the program or activity in question is an equal opportunity program or activity or otherwise indicate that discrimination in the program is prohibited by Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where a significant number or proportion of the population eligible to be served or likely to be directly affected by a federally assisted program or activity requires service or information in a language other than English in order to be informed of or to participate in the program, the recipient shall take reasonable steps, considering the scope of the program and size and concentration of such population, to provide information in appropriate languages (including braille) to such persons. This requirement applies to written material of the type which is ordinarily distributed to the public. The Department may require a recipient to take additional steps to carry out the intent of this subsection. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51346, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1.35.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.6   Notice.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="23">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) A recipient shall take appropriate, initial and continuing steps to notify participants, beneficiaries, applicants and employees, including those with impaired vision or hearing, and unions or professional organizations holding collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient that it does not discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex (where sec. 16 or sec. 401 apply), handicap, or age. The notification is to state, where appropriate, that the recipient does not discriminate in admission or access to, and treatment of, or employment in its programs or activities and inform employees of their rights under this part. The notification is to include an identification of the responsible employee designated under § 1040.5. A recipient shall make the initial notification required by this paragraph within 90 days of the effective date of this part. Methods of initial and continuing notification may include the posting of notices, publication in newspapers and magazines, placement of notices in recipients' publications, and distribution of memoranda or other written communications. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a recipient publishes or uses recruitment materials or publications containing general information that it makes available to participants, beneficiaries, applicants, or employees, it shall include in those materials or publications a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section. A recipient may meet the requirement of this paragraph either by including appropriate inserts in existing materials and publications or by revising and reprinting the materials and publications. 
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of § 1040.5(c) to provide information in appropriate languages (including braille), apply to this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51346, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1.35.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.7   Remedial and affirmative action and self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> If the Director finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, handicap, or age in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, the recipient shall take remedial action as the Director considers necessary to overcome the effects of the discrimination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative action.</I> In the absence of a finding of discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, sex, handicap, or age in any program or activity, a recipient may continue to encourage participation by all persons regardless of race, color, national origin, sex, handicap, or age.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> Each recipient shall, within one year of the effective date of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever possible, evaluate, with the assistance of interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Modify any policies and practices which do not or may not meet the requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Take appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of discrimination which resulted or may have resulted from adherence to these questionable policies and practices.
</P>
<P>(d) Availability of self-evaluation and related materials. Recipient shall maintain on file, for at least three years following its completion, the evaluation required under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall provide to the Director, upon request, a description of any modifications made under paragraph (c)(2) of this section and of any remedial steps taken under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51346, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.1.35.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.8   Effect of employment opportunity.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="24">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was delayed until Mar. 9, 2026 at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Due to limited opportunities in the past, certain protected groups may be underrepresented in some occupations or professions. A recipient's obligation to comply with this part is not alleviated by use of statistical information which reflects limited opportunities in those occupations or professions. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964; Section 16 of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, as Amended; and Section 401 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.2.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.11   Purpose and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this subpart is to implement title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (title VI) and the pertinent regulations of DOE so that no person in the United States shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance of the type subject to title VI. This subpart also implements section 16 of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, as amended (section 16) and section 401 of the Energy Reorganization of 1974 (section 401) so that no person shall be excluded on the ground of sex from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance subject to section 16 or 401. The coverage of employment practices is explained in § 1040.14.
</P>
<P>(b) The application of this subpart is to delivery of services by and the covered employment practices of recipients and subrecipients administering or participating in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance under laws administered by DOE covered by title VI. In addition to services and employment practices, this subpart applies to any activities of recipients or subrecipients receiving Federal financial assistance subject to section 16 and section 401.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.2.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="21">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Covered employment</I> means employment practices covered by title VI, section 16 and section 401.
</P>
<P>(1) Under title VI, such practices are those which:
</P>
<P>(i) Exist in a program where a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is to provide employment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Cause discrimination on the basis of race, color, or national origin with respect to beneficiaries or potential beneficiaries of the assisted program.
</P>
<P>(2) Under section 16 and section 401, such practices include, but are not limited to, employment practices covered by title VI when alleging discrimination on the basis of sex. All employment practices of a recipient or subrecipient of Federal financial assistance subject to section 16 and section 401 are covered employment practices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Title VI</I> refers to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, 42 U.S.C. 2000d <I>et seq.</I> which prohibits discrimination on the ground of race, color or national origin in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance. The definitions set forth in § 1040.3 of subpart A to the extent not inconsistent with this subpart, are applicable to and incorporated into this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.2.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.13   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="25">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person in the United States shall be excluded on the ground of race, color, national origin, or sex (when covered by section 16 or section 401), from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be otherwise subjected to discrimination under any program to which this subpart applies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific discriminatory action prohibited.</I> A recipient to which this subpart applies may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, on the ground of race, color, national origin or sex (when covered by section 16 or section 401): 
</P>
<P>(1) Deny any individual any disposition, service, financial aid, or benefit provided under the program; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide any disposition, service, financial aid, or benefit to an individual which is different, or is provided in a different manner, from that provided to others under the program; 
</P>
<P>(3) Subject an individual to segregation or separate treatment in any matter related to his/her receipt of any disposition, service, financial aid, or benefit under the program; 
</P>
<P>(4) Restrict an individual in any way in the enjoyment of any advantage or privilege enjoyed by others receiving any disposition, service, financial aid, or benefit under the program; 
</P>
<P>(5) Treat an individual differently from others in determining whether such individual satisfies any admission, enrollment, quota, eligibility, membership, or other requirement or condition which individuals must meet in order to be provided any disposition, service, financial aid, function or benefit provided under the program; 
</P>
<P>(6) Deny an individual an opportunity to participate in the program through the provision of services or otherwise afford such individual an opportunity to do so which is different from that afforded others under the program (including the opportunity to participate in the program as an employee but only to the extent set forth in § 1040.14 of this subpart); or 
</P>
<P>(7) Deny a person the opportunity to participate as a member of a planning or advisory body which is an integral part of the program. 
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient, in determining the type of Federal financial assistance (i.e., disposition, services, financial aid, benefits, or facilities) which will be provided under any program, or the class of individuals to whom, or the situations in which the assistance will be provided, may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration which have the effect of subjecting individuals to discrimination because of their race, color, national origin, or sex (when covered by section 16 and section 401) or have the effect of defeating or substantially impairing accomplishment of the objectives of the program with respect to individuals of a particular race, color, national origin, or sex (when covered by section 16 or section 401). 
</P>
<P>(d) In determining the site or location of facilities, a recipient or applicant may not make selections with the purpose or effect of excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination because of race, color, national origin, or sex (when covered by section 16 or 401) or with the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of title VI or this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(e) For the purpose of this section, the disposition, services, financial aid, or benefits provided under a program receiving Federal financial assistance include all portions of the recipient's program or activity, including facilities, equipment, or property provided with the aid of Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(f) The enumeration of specific forms of prohibited discrimination in this paragraph and in § 1040.14 of this subpart does not limit the generality of the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions.</I> Exclusion from benefits for protected groups. An individual is not to be considered subjected to discrimination by reason of his/her exclusion from benefits limited to individuals of a particular race, color, national origin or sex different from his/hers when the exclusion is provided for or required by Federal law, for example, Federal financial assistance provided exclusively to serve on-reservation Indians. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.14" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.2.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.14   Covered employment.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="26">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Employment practices.</I> (1) Whenever a primary objective of the Federal financial assistance to a program to which this subpart applies is to provide employment, a recipient of the assistance may not (directly or through contractual or other arrangements) subject any individual to discrimination on the grounds of race, color, national origin, or sex (when covered by section 16 and section 401) in its employment practices under the program (including recruitment or recruitment advertising, employment, layoff, or termination, upgrading, demotion or transfer, training, participation in upward mobility projects, rates of pay or other forms of compensation, and use of facilities). This prohibition also applies to programs where the primary objective of the Federal financial assistance is: 
</P>
<P>(i) To assist individuals through employment to meet expenses incident to the commencement or continuation of their education or training; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To provide work experience which contributes to the education or training of the individuals involved; 
</P>
<P>(iii) To reduce the unemployment of individuals or to help them through employment to meet subsistence needs; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) To provide employment to individuals who, because of handicaps, cannot be readily absorbed in the competitive labor market. The requirements applicable to construction under any such program are to be those specified in or under part III of Executive Order 11246, as amended, or any Executive Order which supersedes it. 
</P>
<P>(2) In regard to Federal financial assistance which does not have provision of employment as a primary objective, the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section apply to the employment practices of the recipient if discrimination on the ground of race, color, national origin, or sex (when covered by section 16 or section 401) in such employment practices tends to exclude persons from participation in, deny them the benefits of, or subject them to discrimination under the program receiving Federal financial assistance. In any such case, the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section apply to the extent necessary to assure equality of opportunity to and nondiscriminatory treatment of beneficiaries. 
</P>
<P>(3) Paragraph (a)(1) also applies to covered employment as defined in § 1040.12(a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(b) Enforcement of title VI compliance with respect to covered employment practices is not to be superseded by State or local merit systems relating to the employment practices of the same recipient. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Handicap—Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as Amended</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="35" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.35" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.61" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.35.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.61   Purpose and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this subpart is to implement sec. 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, which is designed to eliminate discrimination on the basis of handicap in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart applies to each recipient or subrecipient of Federal financial assistance from DOE and to each program or activity that receives assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.62" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.35.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.62   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Executive Order</I> means Executive Order 11914, titled “Nondiscrimination With Respect to the Handicapped in Federally Assisted Programs” issued on April 28, 1976. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Section 504</I> means sec. 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Pub. L. 93-112, as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974, Pub. L. 93-516, 29 U.S.C. 794. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Handicapped person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment which substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P>(d) As used in paragraph (c) of this section, the phrase: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive, digestive, genito-urinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness and drug addiction and alcoholism, when current use of drugs and/or alcohol is not detrimental to or interferes with the employee's performance, nor constitutes a direct threat to property or safety of others. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> means functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but that is treated by a recipient as constituting such a limitation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraphs (d)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section, but is treated by a recipient as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to employment, a handicapped person who, with reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of the job in question; 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to public preschool, elementary, secondary, or adult education services, a handicapped person: 
</P>
<P>(i) Of an age during which non-handicapped persons are provided such services; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Of any age during which it is mandatory under state law to provide such services to handicapped persons; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) To whom a state is required to provide a free appropriate public education under sec. 612 of the Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975, Pub. L. 94-142. 
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to postsecondary and vocational education services, a handicapped person who meets the academic and technical standards requisite to admission or participation in the recipient's education program or activity; and 
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to other services, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for the receipt of such services. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Handicap</I> means condition or characteristic that renders a person a handicapped person as defined in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Historic properties</I> means those architecturally, historically or culturally significant properties listed in or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or such properties designated under a statute of the appropriate State or local governmental body. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Building alterations</I> means those changes to the existing conditions and equipment of a building which do not involve any structural changes, but which typically improve and upgrade a building, such as alterations to stairways, doors, toilets, elevators, and site improvements. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Structural changes</I> means those changes which alter the structure of a historic building including, but not limited to, its bearing walls and all types of post and beam systems in wood, steel, iron or concrete.
</P>
<FP>The definitions set forth in § 1040.3 of this part, to the extent not inconsistent with this subpart, are made applicable to and incorporated into this subpart. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.63" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.35.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.63   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance from DOE. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discriminatory actions prohibited.</I> (1) A recipient, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit or service; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified handicapped person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified handicapped person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped persons or to any class of handicapped persons than is provided to others unless the action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(v) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against a qualified handicapped person by providing significant assistance to an agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of handicap in providing any aid, benefit, or services to beneficiaries of the recipient's program or activity; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit or service. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, aids, benefits, and services, to be equally effective, are not required to produce the identical result or level of achievement for handicapped and nonhandicapped persons, but must afford handicapped persons equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement in the most integrated setting appropriate to the person's needs. 
</P>
<P>(3) Despite the existence of permissible separate or different aid, benefits, or services, a recipient may not deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in aid, benefits, or services that are not separate or different. 
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Have the effect of subjecting qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing accomplishment of the objectives of the recipient's program or activity with respect to handicapped persons; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Perpetuate the discrimination of another recipient if both recipients are subject to common administrative control or are agencies of the same state. 
</P>
<P>(5) In determining the site of a facility, an applicant for assistance or a recipient may not make selections that—
</P>
<P>(i) Have the effect of excluding handicapped persons from, denying them the benefits of, or otherwise subjecting them to discrimination under any program or activity that receives Federal financial assistance from DOE; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Have the purpose or effect of defeating or substantially impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the program or activity with respect to handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(6) As used in this section, the aid, benefit, or service provided under a program or activity receiving from Federal financial assistance includes any aid, benefit, or service provided in or through a facility that has been constructed, expanded, altered, leased or rented, or otherwise acquired, in whole or in part, with Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aid, benefits, or services limited by Federal law.</I> The exclusion of non-handicapped persons from aid, benefits, or services limited by Federal statute or Executive order to handicapped persons or the exclusion of a specific class of handicapped persons from aid, benefits, or services limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of handicapped persons is not prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) Recipients shall take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with their applicants, employees and handicapped persons participating in federally assisted programs or activities or receiving aids, benefits or services, are available to persons with impaired vision and hearing. 
</P>
<P>(e) The enumeration of specific forms of prohibited discrimination in this paragraph does not limit the generality of the prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.64" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.35.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.64   Effect of State or local law or other requirements and effect of employment opportunities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The obligation to comply with this subpart is not obviated or alleviated by the existence of any State or local law or other requirement that, on the basis of handicap, imposes prohibitions or limits upon the eligibility of qualified handicapped persons to receive services or to practice any occupation or profession. 
</P>
<P>(b) The obligation to comply with this part is not obviated or alleviated because employment opportunities in any occupation or profession are or may be more limited for handicapped persons than for non-handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of other regulations.</I> All regulations, orders, or similar directions issued by any officer of DOE which impose requirements designed to prohibit discrimination against individuals on the grounds of race, color, national origin, sex, age or handicap under any program or activity to which this part applies, and which authorize the suspension, termination or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance for failure to comply with these requirements, are superseded to the extent that discrimination is prohibited by this part. Nothing in this part is to relieve any person of the obligation assumed or imposed under any superseded regulation, order, instruction, or similar direction prior to the effective date of this part. Nothing in this part is to supersede the effective date of this part. Nothing in this part is to supersede Executive Orders 10925, 11114, 11063, 11246, and regulations issued under these authorities, or supersede any other regulations or instructions which prohibit discrimination on the ground of race, color, national origin, sex, age, or handicap in any program or activity to which this part does not apply. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.65" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.35.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.65   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The procedural provisions applicable to Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 are adopted and incorporated in this section by reference. These procedures may be found in subparts G and H of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="36" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.36" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Employment Practices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.66" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.36.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.66   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination employment under any program or activity to which this subpart applies. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall make all decisions concerning employment under any program or activity to which this part applies in a manner which ensures that discrimination on the basis of handicap does not occur and may not limit, segregate, or classify applicants or employees in any way that adversely affects their opportunities or status because of handicap. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient may not participate in a contractual or other relationship that has the effect of subjecting qualified handicapped applicants or employees to discrimination prohibited by this subpart. The relationships referred to in this paragraph include relationships with employment and referral agencies, labor unions, organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient, and organizations providing training and apprenticeships. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific activities.</I> The provisions of this subpart apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment, advertising, and processing of applications for employment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, right of return from layoff, and rehiring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation and changes in compensation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, job classifications, organizational structures, position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists; 
</P>
<P>(5) Leaves of absence, sick or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(6) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether administered by the recipient or not; 
</P>
<P>(7) Selection and provision of financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities, and selection for leaves of absence to pursue training; 
</P>
<P>(8) Employer sponsored activities, including those that are social or recreational; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment. 
</P>
<P>(c) A recipient's obligation to comply with this subpart is not affected by any inconsistent term of any collective bargaining agreement to which it is a party. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.67" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.36.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.67   Reasonable accommodation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of an otherwise qualified handicapped applicant or employee unless the recipient can demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of its program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) Reasonable accommodation may include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Making facilities used by employees readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Job restructuring, part-time or modified work schedules, acquisition or modification of equipment or devices, the provision of readers or interpreters, and other similar actions. 
</P>
<P>(c) In determining, under paragraph (a) of this section, whether an accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of a recipient's program or activity, factors to be considered include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The overall size of the recipient's program or activity with respect to number of employees, number and type of facilities, and size of budget; 
</P>
<P>(2) The type of the recipient's operation, including the composition and structure of the recipient's workforce; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The nature and cost of the accommodation needed. 
</P>
<P>(d) A recipient may not deny any employment opportunity to a qualified handicapped employee or applicant if the basis for the denial is the need to make reasonable accommodation to the physical or mental limitations of the employee or applicant. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.68" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.36.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.68   Employment criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient may not use any employment test or other selection criterion that screens out or tends to screen out handicapped persons unless the test score or other selection criterion, as used by the recipient, is shown to be job-related for the position in question. 
</P>
<P>(b) A recipient shall select and administer tests concerning employment to best ensure that, when administered to an applicant or employee who has a handicap that impairs sensory, manual, or speaking skills, the test results accurately reflect the applicant's or employee's job skills, aptitude or other factors the test purports to measure except where those skills are the factors that the test purports to measure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.69" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.36.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.69   Preemployment inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a recipient may not conduct a pre-employment medical examination or may not make pre-employment inquiry of an applicant as to whether the applicant is a handicapped person or as to the nature or severity of a handicap. A recipient may, however, make pre-employment inquiry into an applicant's ability to perform job-related functions. 
</P>
<P>(b) When a recipient is taking remedial action to correct the effects of past discrimination, under § 1040.7 of this part, or is taking voluntary action to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in its federally assisted program or activity under § 1040.7 of subpart A of this part, or when a recipient is taking affirmative action under Sec. 503 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, the recipient may invite applicants for employment to indicate whether, and to what extent, they are handicapped <I>Provided that:</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) The recipient states clearly on any written questionnaire used for this purpose or makes clear orally, if no written questionnaire is used, that the information requested is intended for use solely in connection with its remedial action obligations or its voluntary or affirmative action efforts; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The recipient states clearly that the information is requested on a voluntary basis, that it will be kept confidential as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, that refusal to provide it will not subject the applicant or employee to any adverse treatment, and that it will be used only in accordance with this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section is to prohibit a recipient from conditioning an offer of employment on the results of a medical examination conducted prior to the employee's entrance on duty provided that all entering employees are subjected to the examination regardless of handicap or absence of handicap and results of the examination are used only in accordance with the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) Information obtained in accordance with this section concerning the medical condition or history of the applicant is to be collected and maintained on separate forms that are to be accorded confidentiality as medical records, except that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Supervisors and managers may be informed regarding restrictions on the work or duties of handicapped persons and regarding necessary accommodations; 
</P>
<P>(2) First aid and safety personnel may be informed, where appropriate, if the condition might require emergency treatment; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Government officials investigating compliance with Sec. 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, shall be provided relevant information upon request. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="37" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.37" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Accessibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.71" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.37.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.71   Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>No handicapped person shall, because a recipient's facilities are inaccessible to or unuseable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity that receives or benefits from Federal financial assistance from DOE. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.72" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.37.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.72   Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="27">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Accessibility.</I> A recipient shall operate any program or activity to which this subpart applies so that when each part is viewed in its entirety it is readily accessible and usable by handicapped persons. This paragraph does not require a recipient to make each of its existing facilities or every part of a facility accessible to and useable by handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> A recipient may comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of classes or other services to accessible buildings, assignment of aids to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of health, welfare, or other social services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities in conformance with the requirements of § 1040.73 or any other methods that result in making its program or activity accessible to handicapped persons. A recipient is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with paragraph (a) of this section. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient shall give priority to those methods that serve handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period.</I> A recipient shall comply with the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section within 60 days of the effective date of this subpart except that where structural changes in facilities are necessary, the changes are to be made as expeditiously as possible, but in no event later than three years after the effective date of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities are necessary to meet the requirement of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient shall develop, within 6 months of the effective date of this subpart, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete the changes. The plan is to be developed with the assistance of interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, and the plan is to meet with the approval of the Director, Federally Assisted Programs Division, Office of Equal Opportunity, DOE. A copy of the transition plan is to be made available for public inspection. At a minimum, the plan is to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the recipient's facilities that limit the accessibility to and usability by handicapped persons of its program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve full accessibility under § 1040.72(a) and, if the time period or the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the person responsible for implementation of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice.</I> The recipient shall adopt and implement procedures to ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information concerning the existence and location of services, activities, and facilities that are accessible to, and useable by, handicapped persons. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.73" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.37.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.73   New construction.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="30">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20786, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2i">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250911" REFID="1">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 10, 2025, at 90 FR 43907, Sept. 11, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="3">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56968, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="5">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10954, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1a">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39850, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Design and construction.</I> Each facility or part of a facility constructed by, on behalf of, or for the use of a recipient is to be designed and constructed in a manner that the facility or part of the facility is readily accessible to, and useable by, handicapped persons, if the construction was commenced after the effective date of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alteration.</I> Each facility or part of a facility which is altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of a recipient after the effective date of this subpart in a manner that affects or could affect the usability of the facility or part of the facility is, to the maximum extent feasible, to be altered in a manner that the altered portion of the facility is readily accessible to and useable by handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conformance with Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards.</I> (1) Effective as of January 18, 1991, design, construction, or alteration of buildings in conformance with sections 3-8 of the Uniform Federal Accessibility Standards (USAF) (appendix A to 41 CFR subpart 101-19.6) shall be deemed to comply with the requirements of this section with respect to those buildings. Departures from particular technical and scoping requirements of UFAS by the use of other methods are permitted where substantially equivalent or greater access to and usability of the building is provided.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, section 4.1.6(1)(g) of UFAS shall be interpreted to exempt from the requirements of UFAS only mechanical rooms and other spaces that, because of their intended use, will not require accessibility to the public or beneficiaries or result in the employment or residence therein of persons with physical handicaps.
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not require recipients to make building alterations that have little likelihood of being accomplished without removing or altering a load-bearing structural member.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 55 FR 52138, 52140, Dec. 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.74" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.4.37.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.74   Accessibility in historic properties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Methods to accomplish accessibility.</I> Recipients shall operate each program or activity involving historic properties so that when each part is viewed in its entirety it is readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The recipient shall exhaust subsection (b)(1) (methods to accomplish accessibility without building alterations or structural changes) before proceeding to subsection (b)(2) (methods to accomplish program accessibility resulting in building alterations). The recipient shall exhaust subsection (b)(2) (methods to accomplish accessibility resulting in building alterations) before proceeding to subsection (b)(3) (methods to accomplish accessibility resulting in structural changes). 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Methods to accomplish accessibility without building alterations or structural changes.</I> The recipient shall investigate compliance methods which do not alter the historic character or architectural integrity of the property and shall utilize such methods unless such methods are ineffective in achieving accessibility. Such methods may include, but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Reassigning aid, benefits, or services to accessible locations within the facility. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigning persons to aid handicapped persons into or through an otherwise inaccessible facility. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Delivering aid, benefits, or services at alternative accessible sites operated by or available for such use by the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Adopting other innovative methods which make aid, benefits, or services accessible to the handicapped. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Methods to accomplish accessibility resulting in building alterations.</I> The recipient shall determine that accessibility cannot feasibly be accomplished by Methods to Accomplish Accessibility without Building Alterations or Structural Changes, subsection (b)(1) prior to utilizing building alteration as a method of accomplishing program accessibility. Alterations must comply with the accessibility standards adopted in these regulations. Building alterations shall be undertaken so as not to alter or destroy historically, architecturally, or culturally significant elements or features. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Methods to accomplish accessibility resulting in structural changes.</I> The recipient shall determine that accessibility cannot feasibly be accomplished by Methods to Accomplish Accessibility without Building Alterations or Structural Changes, subsection (b)(2) before considering structural changes as a method of accomplishing program accessibility. Structural changes must comply with the accessibility standards adopted in these regulations. Structural changes shall be undertaken so as not to alter or destroy historically, architecturally or culturally significant elements or features. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modification or waiver of accessibility standards.</I> The applicability of the accessibility standards set forth in these regulations may be modified or waived on a case-by-case basis, upon application to the Director, FAPD, where the recipient can demonstrate that, because of the nature of the activity, the provision of access would be infeasible or would substantially impair the historic, architectural or cultural integrity of the historic property.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, Pub. L. 89-665, 80 Stat 915, 16 U.S.C. 470; 11593, 3 CFR 1971 Comp., p. 154; 36 CFR part 800)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 40515, June 13, 1980, as amended at 68 FR 51347, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Age—Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as Amended</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6101 <I>et seq.</I>); 45 CFR part 90.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="38" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.38" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.81" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.38.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.81   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these regulations is to implement the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as Amended, which prohibits discrimination on the basis of age in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance. In accordance with the Age Discrimination Act, federally assisted programs or activities and recipients of Federal funds may continue to use age distinctions and factors other than age which meet the requirements of the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.82" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.38.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.82   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These regulations apply to each program or activity which receives Federal financial assistance provided by DOE.
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations do not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) An age distinction contained in that part of a Federal, State, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body which:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides any benefits or assistance to persons based on age; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes criteria for participation in age-related terms; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Describes intended beneficiaries or target groups in age-related terms.
</P>
<P>(2) Any employment practice of any employer, employment agency, labor organization, or any labor-management joint apprenticeship training program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.83" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.38.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.83   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 as amended title III of Pub. L. 94-135, 42 U.S.C. 6101 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action</I> means any act, activity, policy, rule, standard or method of administration; or the use of any policy, rule, standard, or method of administration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Age</I> means how old a person is or the number of years from the date of a person's birth.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Age distinction</I> means any action using age or an age-related term (for example, “18 or over”).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Age-related term</I> means a word or words which necessarily imply a particular age or range of ages (for example, “children”, “adult”, “older persons”, but not “student”).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Days</I> mean calendar days.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Discrimination</I> means unlawful treatment based on age.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>FERC</I> means the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Field Civil Rights Officer</I> means the official in each DOE field office with responsibility for administering DOE's Civil Rights Program related to nondiscrimination in Federally assisted programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Recipient</I> means any State or its political subdivision, instrumentality of a State or its political subdivision, any public or private agency, institution, organization, or other entity, or any person to which Federal financial assistance is extended, directly or through another recipient. Recipient includes any successor, assignee, or transferee, but excludes an individual who is the ultimate beneficiary of the assistance.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary, Department of Energy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="39" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Standards for Determining Age Discrimination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.84" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.39.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.84   Rules against age discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>The rules stated in this section are limited by the exceptions contained in § 1040.86 and of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> No person in the United States shall, on the basis of age, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under, any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific rules.</I> A recipient may not, in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements use age distinctions or take any other actions which have the effect, on the basis of age, of:
</P>
<P>(1) Excluding individuals from, denying them the benefits of, or subjecting them to discrimination under, a program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance; or
</P>
<P>(2) Denying or limiting individuals in their opportunity to participate in any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) The specific forms of age discrimination listed in paragraph (b) of this section do not necessarily constitute a complete list.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.85" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.39.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.85   Definitions of “Normal Operation” and “Statutory Objective”.</HEAD>
<P>For purpose of §§ 1040.86 and 1040.87, the terms <I>normal operation</I> and <I>statutory objective</I> shall have the following meanings:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Normal operation</I> means the operation of a program or activity without significant changes that would impair its ability to meet its objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory objective</I> means any purpose of a program or activity expressly stated in any Federal, State, or local statute or ordinance adopted by an elected, general purpose legislative body.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.86" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.39.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.86   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination. Normal operation or statutory objective of any program or activity.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action, otherwise prohibited by § 1040.84, if the action reasonably takes into account age as a factor necessary to the normal operation or the achievement of any statutory objective of a program or activity. An action reasonably takes into account age as a factor necessary to the normal operation of a program or activity if:
</P>
<P>(a) Age is used as a measure or approximation of one or more other characteristics;
</P>
<P>(b) The other characteristic(s) must be measured or approximated in order for the normal operation of the program or activity to continue or to achieve any statutory objective of the program or activity;
</P>
<P>(c) The other characteristic(s) can be reasonably measured or approximated by the use of age; and
</P>
<P>(d) The other characteristic(s) are impractical to measure directly on an individual basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.87" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.39.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.87   Exceptions to the rules against age discrimination. Reasonable factors other than age.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient is permitted to take an action otherwise prohibited by § 1040.84 which is based on a factor other than age, even though that action may have a disproportionate effect on persons of different ages. An action may be based on a factor other than age only if the factor bears a direct and substantial relationship to the normal operation of the program or activity or to the achievement of a statutory objective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.88" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.39.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.88   Remedial and affirmative action by recipients.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a recipient is found to have discriminated on the basis of age, the recipient shall take such remedial action as the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, considers necessary to overcome the effects of the discrimination.
</P>
<P>(b) Even in the absence of a finding of discrimination, a recipient may take affirmative action to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation in the recipient's program or activity on the basis of age.
</P>
<P>(c) If a recipient operating a program or activity which serves the elderly or children, in addition to persons of other ages, provides special benefits to the elderly or to children, the provision of those benefits shall be presumed to be voluntary affirmative action provided that it does not have the effect of excluding otherwise eligible persons from participation in the program or activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.39.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The burden of proving that an age distinction or other action falls within the exceptions outlined in §§ 1040.86 and 1040.87 is on the recipient of Federal financial assistance.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Responsibilities of DOE Recipients</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.40.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-1   General responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Each DOE recipient has primary responsibility to ensure that its programs or activities are in compliance with the Act and these regulations. A recipient also has responsibility to maintain records, provide information, and afford access to its records to DOE, to the extent required to determine whether it is in compliance with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.40.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-2   Notice to subrecipients.</HEAD>
<P>Where a recipient awards Federal financial assistance from DOE to its subrecipients, the recipient shall provide the subrecipients written notice of their obligations under these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.40.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-3   Information requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Each recipient shall: (a) Upon request make available to DOE information necessary to determine whether the recipient is complying with the Act and these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) Permit reasonable access by DOE, upon request, to the books, records, accounts, and other recipient facilities and sources of information to the extent necessary to determine whether the recipient is in compliance with the Act and these regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Investigation, Conciliation and Enforcement Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-4   Compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may conduct preaward and postaward compliance reviews of recipients as prescribed in this part or use other similar procedures that will permit it to investigate and correct violations of the Act and these regulations. DOE may conduct these reviews even in the absence of a complaint against a recipient. The review may be as comprehensive as necessary to determine whether a violation of these regulations has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) If a compliance review indicates a violation of the Act or these regulations, DOE will attempt to achieve voluntary compliance with the Act. If voluntary compliance cannot be achieved, DOE will arrange for enforcement as described in § 1040.89-10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-5   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person, individually or as a member of a class or on behalf of others, may file a written complaint with DOE alleging discrimination prohibited by the Act or these regulations. A complainant must file a complaint within 180 days from the date he/she first had knowledge of the alleged act of discrimination. For good cause shown, however, the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, may extend the time limit for filing a complaint. Complaints may be submitted to Field Civil Rights Officers located in DOE's field offices or to the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, D.C. 20585.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, will attempt to facilitate the filing of complaints wherever possible, including taking the following measures: 
</P>
<P>(1) Accepting as a sufficient complaint any written statement which identifies the parties involved and the date the complainant first had knowledge of the alleged violation, describes generally the action or practice complained of, and is signed by the complainant.
</P>
<P>(2) Freely permitting a complainant to add information to the complaint to meet the requirements of a sufficient complaint. 
</P>
<P>(3) Widely disseminating information regarding the obligations of recipients under the Act and these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(4) Notifying the complainant and the recipient of their rights and obligations under the complaint procedure, including the right to have a representative at all stages of the complaint procedure.
</P>
<P>(5) Notifying the complainant and the recipient (or their representatives) of their right to contact DOE for information and assistance regarding the complaint resolution process.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, will refer any complaint outside the jurisdiction of DOE to the proper Federal department or agency and will also notify the complainant and the recipient of the referral. The notification will contain an explanation for the referral and the name, telephone number, and address of the Federal department or agency office having jurisdiction over the matter complained.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-6   Mediation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Referral of complaints for mediation.</I> DOE will refer to the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, in accordance with 45 CFR 90.43(c)(3), all complaints that:
</P>
<P>(1) Fall within the jurisdiction of the Act and these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) Contain all information necessary for further processing.
</P>
<P>(b) Both the complainant and the recipient shall participate in the mediation process to the extent necessary to reach an agreement or make an informed judgment that an agreement is not possible. There must be at least one meeting with the mediator before the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, will accept a judgment that an agreement is not possible. However, the recipient and the complainant need not meet with the mediator at the same time.
</P>
<P>(c) If the complainant and the recipient reach an agreement, the mediator shall prepare a written statement of the agreement and have the complainant and the recipient sign it. The mediator shall send a copy of the agreement to the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, DOE. DOE will take no further action on the complaint unless the complainant or the recipient fails to comply with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE will use the mediation process for a maximum of 60 days after referring a complaint to mediation. Mediation ends if:
</P>
<P>(1) 60 days elapse from the time the mediation agency receives the complaint; or
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the end of the 60 day mediation period, an agreement is reached; or
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to the end of that 60 day mediation period, the mediator determines that an agreement cannot be reached.
</P>
<P>(e) The mediator shall return unresolved complaints to the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, DOE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-7   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Informal Investigation.</I> (1) The Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, will review complaints that are unresolved after mediation or are reopened because of a violation of a mediation agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of this review, Field Civil Rights Officers will use informal fact finding methods, including joint or separate discussions with the complainant and recipient, to establish the facts and, if possible, settle the complaint on terms that are mutually agreeable to the parties.
</P>
<P>(3) If the complaint is resolved during the informal investigation, DOE will put the agreement in writing and have it signed by the parties and the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity.
</P>
<P>(4) The settlement shall not affect the operation of any other enforcement effort of DOE, including compliance reviews and investigation of other complaints which may involve the recipient.
</P>
<P>(5) The settlement is not a finding of discrimination against a recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Formal Investigation.</I> If Field Civil Rights Officers cannot resolve the complaint through informal inquiry, the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, will assign an Investigator to conduct a formal investigation of the complaint. If the investigation indicates a violation of the Act or these regulations, DOE will attempt to obtain voluntary compliance. If DOE cannot obtain voluntary compliance, it will begin enforcement as described in § 1040.89-10 and 10 CFR part 1040, subpart H, § 1040.111.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-8   Prohibition against intimidation or retaliation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may not engage in acts of intimidation or retaliation against any person who:
</P>
<P>(a) Attempts to assert a right protected by the Act or these regulations; or
</P>
<P>(b) Cooperates in any mediation, investigation, hearing, or other part of DOE's investigation, conciliation, and enforcement process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-9   Compliance procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE may enforce the Act and these regulations through procedures precribed in subpart H of DOE regulation 10 CFR part 1040—Nondiscrimination in Federally Assisted Programs or Activities, which calls for—
</P>
<P>(1) Termination of a recipient's Federal financial assistance from DOE for a program activity in which the recipient has violated the Act or these regulations. The determination of the recipient's violation may be made only after a recipient has had an opportunity for a hearing on the record before the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC). Therefore, cases which are settled in mediation, or prior to a hearing, will not involve termination of a recipient's Federal financial assistance from DOE under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other means authorized by law including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Referral to the Department of Justice for proceedings to enforce any rights of the United States or obligations of the recipient created by the Act or these regulations, or under the terms of the Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Use of any requirement of, or referral to, any Federal, State, or local government agency that will have the effect of correcting a violation of the Act of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE will limit any termination under § 1040.89-9(a)(1) to the particular recipient and particular program or activity DOE finds in violation of these regulations. DOE will not base any part of a termination on a finding with respect to any program or activity of the recipient which does not receive Federal financial assistance from DOE.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE will take no action under paragraph (a) until:
</P>
<P>(1) The Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, has advised the recipient of its failure to comply with the Act, these regulations, or the terms of the Federal financial assistance and has determined that voluntary compliance cannot be obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) Thirty (30) days have elapsed after the Secretary or the Secretary's designee has sent a written report of the circumstances and grounds of the action to the committees of the Congress having legislative jurisdiction over the program or activity involved. The Secretary will file a report whenever any action is taken under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) DOE also may defer granting new Federal financial assistance to a recipient when a hearing under § 1040.89-10 is initiated.
</P>
<P>(1) New Federal financial assistance from DOE includes all assistance for which DOE requires an application or approval, including renewal or continuation of existing activities, or authorization of new activities during the deferral period. New Federal financial assistance from DOE does not include increases in funding as a result of changes, computation of formula awards, or assistance awarded prior to the beginning of a hearing under § 1040.89-10.
</P>
<P>(2) DOE will not defer new assistance until the recipient has received a notice of an opportunity for a hearing under § 1040.89-10. DOE will not continue a deferral for more than 60 days unless a hearing has begun within that time or the time for beginning the hearing has been extended by mutual consent of the recipient and FERC. DOE will not continue a deferral for more than 30 days after the close of the hearing, unless the hearing resulted in a finding against the recipient. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-10   Hearings, decisions, post-termination proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>DOE procedural provisions applicable to title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 apply to DOE enforcement of these regulations. They are 10 CFR subpart H §§ 1040.121 through 1040.124.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-11   Remedial action by recipients.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, finds a recipient has discriminated on the basis of age, the recipient shall take such remedial action as the Director, OEO, may require to end the discrminatory practice or policy and/or to overcome the effects of the discrimination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-12   Alternate funds disbursal procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When DOE withholds funds from a recipient under these regulations, the Secretary or designee may disburse the withheld funds directly to an alternate recipient(s), any public or private organization or agency, or State or political subdivision of the State.
</P>
<P>(b) The Secretary or designee will require any alternate recipient to demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(1) The ability to comply with these regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ability to achieve the goals of the Federal statute authorizing the Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.89-13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.41.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.89-13   Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complainant may file a civil action following the exhaustion of administrative remedies under the Act. Administrative remedies are exhausted if:
</P>
<P>(1) One hundred eighty (180) days have elapsed since the complainant filed the complaint and DOE has made no findings with regard to the complainant; or
</P>
<P>(2) DOE issues any findings in favor of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) If DOE fails to make a finding within 180 days or issues a finding in favor of the recipient, the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity, will:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly advise the complainant of this fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the complainant of his or her right to bring a civil action for injunctive relief; and
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the complainant:
</P>
<P>(i) That the complainant may bring a civil action only in a United States District Court for the district in which the recipient is located or transacts business;
</P>
<P>(ii) That a complainant prevailing in a civil action has the right to be awarded the costs of the action, including reasonable attorney fees, but that the complainant must demand these costs in the complaint;
</P>
<P>(iii) That, before commencing the action, the complainant shall give 30 days notice, by registered mail, to the Secretary of DOE, the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services, the Attorney General of the United States, and the recipient;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the notice must state: the alleged violation of the Act and these regulations; the relief requested; the court in which the complainant is bringing the action; and whether or not attorney fees are demanded in the event the complainant prevails; and
</P>
<P>(v) That the complainant may not bring an action if the same alleged violation of the Act by the same recipient is the subject of a pending action in any court of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]





</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.5.42.23.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart E of Part 1040—DOE Federally Assisted Programs Containing Age Distinctions

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Statute, Name, Public Law, and U.S. Code
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Section and age distinction
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Use of age/age related team
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Popular name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">CFDA No.
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conditions benefits or assistance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Establishes criteria for participation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Describes beneficiaries or target groups
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Energy Conservation and Production Act, Title IV, Part A; Public Law 94-385, 42 U.S.C. 6861-6870</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Section 413(a). The Administrator shall develop and conduct, in accordance with the purpose and provisions of this part, a weatherization program. In developing and conducting such program, the Administrator may, in accordance with this part and regulations promulgated under this part, make grants (1) to States, and (2) in accordance with the provisions of subsection (d), to Indian tribal organizations to serve Native Americans. Such grants shall be made for the purpose of providing financial assistance with regard to projects designed to provide for the weatherization of dwelling units, particularly those where elderly or handicapped low-income persons reside, in which the head of the household is a low-income person</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Weatherization Assistance Program for Low-Income Persons</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">81.042
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interagency Agreement between the United States Department of Energy and the United States Department of Labor, Interagency Agreement No. 99-9-1656-07-11; Authority: Comprehensive Employment and Training Act of 1978 (CETA) (Pub. L. 95-524, October 27, 1978; 92 Stat. 1909; 29 U.S.C. 801), the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended (Pub. L. 93-438, October 11, 1974; 88 Stat. 1233), and the Department of Energy Organization Act (DOE Act) (Pub. L. 95-91, August 4, 1977); 91 Stat. 565; 42 U.S.C. 7101)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interagency Agreement, Section 1, Purpose: “The purpose of this agreement is to provide for a transfer of funds from the Department of Labor, Employment and Training Administration (ETA), Office of Youth Programs (OYP) to the Department of Energy, Directorate of Administration (AD), Office of Industrial Relations (OIR), to fund the Summer Science Student Program (SSSP). The SSSP will grant monies from DOL through DOE/OIR to DOE contractors to fund 480 participant slots for economically disadvantaged youths in an integrated program of career motivation and basic academic skill enrichment. The program is designed to motivate economically disadvantaged and academically talented youths to continue their education and to pursue energy-related careers upon graduation from high school</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summer Science Student Program</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Executive Office of the President, Office of Science and Technology Policy, Memorandum, Subject: Research Apprenticeships for Minority High Schoolers, dated October 23, 1979</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quotation from October 23, 1979 memorandum, paragraph 2, “The objectives are to stimulate broader interest in the minority communities in careers in science and engineering and to establish individual working relationships of high school students with active researchers who may become helpful mentors when students need advice on college and careers and need letters of recommendation”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summer Research Apprenticeship Program</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 8089, Feb. 27, 1985, as amended at 68 FR 51348, Aug. 26, 2003]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Nondiscrimination Under Title VIII of the Civil Rights Act of 1968, as Amended [Reserved]</HEAD>

<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="27a">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Program Monitoring</HEAD>

<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="28">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>

<DIV8 N="§ 1040.101" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.7.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.101   Compliance reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director shall periodically conduct compliance reviews of selected recipients of DOE Federal financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall seek to review those recipients which have the most serious equal opportunity problems which cause the greatest disparity in delivery of services on a nondiscriminatory basis. Selection for review is to be made on the basis of the following criteria, among others:
</P>
<P>(1) The relative disparity between the percentage of minorities, women, or handicapped persons, in the relevant labor market, and the percentage of minorities, women, or handicapped persons, employed by the recipient if employment practices are covered by this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The percentage of individuals covered by the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, minorities, women and handicapped persons in the population receiving program benefits.
</P>
<P>(3) The number and nature of discrimination complaints filed against a recipient with DOE or other Federal agencies;
</P>
<P>(4) The scope of the problems revealed by an investigation commenced on the basis of a complaint filed with DOE against a recipient; and
</P>
<P>(5) The amount of assistance provided to the recipient.
</P>
<P>(c) After selection of a recipient for review, the Director Federally Assisted Programs Division or the Director's designee, shall inform the recipient of the selection. The notice shall be in writing and posted thirty days prior to the scheduled review. The letter will ordinarily request data pertinent to the review and advise the recipient of:
</P>
<P>(1) The practices to be reviewed;
</P>
<P>(2) The programs or activities affected by the review;
</P>
<P>(3) The opportunity to make, at any time prior to receipt of DOE's finding, a written submission responding to DOE which explains, validates, or otherwise addresses the practices under review; and
</P>
<P>(4) The schedule under which the review will be conducted and a determination of compliance or noncompliance made.
</P>
<P>(d) Within 90 days of arriving on-site to conduct the review, the Director, FAPD, shall advise the recipient, in writing, of:
</P>
<P>(1) Preliminary findings; 
</P>
<P>(2) Where appropriate, recommendations for achieving voluntary compliance; and
</P>
<P>(3) The opportunity to request DOE to engage in voluntary compliance negotiations prior to the Director's final determination of compliance or noncompliance. The Director or the Director's designee shall notify the Assistant Attorney General at the same time the recipient is notified of any matter where recommendations for achieving voluntary compliance are made. 
</P>
<P>(e) If, within 45 days of the recipient's notification under paragraph (d) of this section, the Director's (FAPD) recommendations for compliance are not met, or voluntary compliance is not secured, or the preliminary findings are not shown to be false, the matter will be forwarded to the Director for a determination of compliance or noncompliance. The determination is to be made no later than 60 days after the recipient has been notified of the preliminary findings. If the Director makes a determination of noncompliance, the Department shall institute actions specified in subparts G and H. 
</P>
<P>(f) Where the Director makes a formal determination of noncompliance, the recipient and the Assistant Attorney General shall be immediately advised, in writing, of the determination and of the fact that the recipient has an additional 10 days in which to come into voluntary compliance. If voluntary compliance has not been achieved within the 10 days, the Director shall institute proceedings under subpart H. 
</P>
<P>(g) All agreements to come into voluntary compliance shall be in writing and signed by the Director and an official who has authority to legally bind the recipient. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.102" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.7.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.102   Compliance information.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="29">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Cooperation and assistance.</I> Each responsible Departmental official shall, to the fullest extent practicable, seek the cooperation of recipients in obtaining compliance with this part and shall provide assistance and guidance to recipients to help them comply voluntarily with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance reports.</I> Each recipient shall keep reports and submit to the responsible Department official or his/her designee, timely, complete, and accurate compliance reports at the times, in such form, and containing information as the responsible Department official or the designee may determine to be necessary to enable him/her to ascertain whether the recipient has complied or is complying with this part. In general, recipients should have available for DOE data on program participants, identified by race, color, national origin, sex, age and handicap status. In the case of any program under which a primary recipient extends Federal financial assistance to any other recipient or subcontracts with any other person or group, such other recipient shall also submit compliance reports to the primary recipient which will enable the primary recipient to carry out its obligations under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to sources of information.</I> Each recipient shall permit access by the responsible Department official or his/her designee during normal business hours to books, records, personnel records, accounts, other sources of information, and its facilities, which are pertinent to ascertain compliance with this part. The requirement for access to sources of information shall be contained in the certificate of assurance and agreed to by the recipient as a condition to award. Whenever any information required of a recipient is in the exclusive possession of any other agency, institution, or person and that agency, institution, or person fails or refuses to furnish that information, the recipient shall certify this in its report and set forth the efforts which it has made to obtain the information. The sub-recipient in such case shall be subject to proceedings described under subpart H of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information to beneficiaries and participants.</I> Each recipient shall make available to participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons information regarding the provisions of this section and its applicability to the program under which the recipient receives Federal financial assistance. Information is to be made available to beneficiaries, participants, and other interested persons in a manner which the responsible Department officials find necessary to inform such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by this part and the statutes to which this part applies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.103" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.7.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.103   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.104" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.7.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.104   Complaint investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, FAPD, shall investigate complaints of discrimination that allege a violation of—
</P>
<P>(1) Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Sec. 16 of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, as amended, or Sec. 401 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; 
</P>
<P>(2) Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(3) Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended; 
</P>
<P>(4) Age Discrimination Act of 1975, as amended, (reserved in this part); 
</P>
<P>(5) Title VIII of the Civil Rights Act of 1968, as amended, (reserved in this part); 
</P>
<P>(6) This part; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Civil rights provisions of statutes administered pursuant to the DOE Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91. 
</P>
<P>(b) No complaint will be investigated if it is received by an appropriate Departmental official more than 180 days after the date of the alleged discrimination, unless the time for filing is extended by the Director, FAPD, for good cause shown. Where a complaint is accepted for investigation, the Director, FAPD, will initiate a DOE investigation. The Director, FAPD, who is responsible for the investigation, shall notify the complainant, in writing, if the complaint has been accepted or rejected. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, FAPD, or his/her designee shall conduct investigations of complaints as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Within 35 days of receipt of a complaint, the Director, FAPD, shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) determine whether DOE has jurisdiction under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If jurisdiction is not found, wherever possible, refer the complaint to the Federal agency with such jurisdiction and advise the complainant;
</P>
<P>(iii) If jurisdiction is found, notify the recipient alleged to be discriminating of receipt of the complaint; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Initiate the investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) The investigation will ordinarily be initiated by a letter requesting data pertinent to the complaint and advising the recipient of:
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the complaint and, with the written consent of the complainant, the identity of the complainant. The identity of the complainant may be revealed by the Director, FAPD, OEO, without the complainant's written consent if the Director, FAPD, OEO, determines that such action is necessary for resolution of the complaint;
</P>
<P>(ii) The program or activities affected by the complaint;
</P>
<P>(iii) The opportunity to make, at any time prior to receipt of DOE's findings, a documentary submission responding to, rebutting, or denying the allegations made in the complaint; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The schedule under which the complaint will be investigated and a determination of compliance made.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 90 days of initiating the investigation, the Director, FAPD, shall advise the recipient, in writing of:
</P>
<P>(i) Preliminary findings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where appropriate, recommendations for achieving voluntary compliance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The opportunity to request DOE to engage in voluntary compliance negotiations prior to the Director's final determination of compliance or noncompliance. The Director or the Director's designee shall notify the Assistant Attorney General and the recipient of any matter where recommendations for achieving voluntary compliance are made.
</P>
<P>(4) If, within 45 days of the recipient's notification under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the Director's (FAPD) recommendations for compliance are not met, or voluntary compliance is not secured, or the preliminary findings are not shown to be false, the matter will be forwarded to the Director, OEO, for a determination of compliance or noncompliance. The determination is to be made no later than 60 days after the recipient has been notified of the preliminary findings. If the Director makes a determination of noncompliance, the Department shall institute actions specified in subpart H.
</P>
<P>(5) Where the Director makes a formal determination of noncompliance, the recipient and the Assistant Attorney General shall be immediately advised, in writing, of the determination and of the fact that the recipient has an additional 10 days in which to come into voluntary compliance. If voluntary compliance has not been achieved within the 10 days, the Director shall institute proceedings under subpart H. All agreements to come into voluntary compliance shall be in writing and signed by the Director, OEO, and an official who has authority to legally bind the recipient. The complainant shall also be notified of any action taken including the closing of the complaint or achievement of voluntary compliance.
</P>
<P>(6) If the complainant or party other than the Attorney General has filed suit in Federal or State court alleging the same discrimination alleged in a complaint to DOE, and if during DOE's investigation, the trial of that suit would be in progress, DOE will consult with the Assistant Attorney General and court records to determine the need to continue or suspend the investigation and will monitor the litigation through the court docket and contacts with the complainant. Upon receipt of notice that the court has made a finding of discrimination against a recipient that would constitute a violation of this part, the DOE may institute administrative proceedings as specified in subpart H after DOE has advised the recipient, in writing, of an opportunity to request voluntary compliance under this section. All agreements to come into voluntary compliance shall be in writing and signed by the Director and an official who has authority to legally bind the recipient.
</P>
<P>(7) The time limits listed in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(6) of this section shall be appropriately adjusted where DOE requests another Federal agency to act on the complaint. DOE is to monitor the progress of the matter through liaison with the other agency. Where the request to act does not result in timely resolution of the matter, DOE is to institute appropriate proceedings as required by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Intimidatory or retaliatory acts prohibited.</I> No recipient or other person shall intimidate, threaten, coerce, or discriminate against any individual for the purpose of interfering with any right or privilege secured by the laws implemented in this part or because the complainant has made a complaint, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this subpart. The identity of complainants is to be kept confidential except as determined by the Director, FAPD, to be necessary to carry out the purpose of this subpart, including investigations, hearings, or judicial proceedings arising thereunder. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Enforcement</HEAD>

<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="28">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20783, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2h">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31140, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43539, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="2">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56967, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="6">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1b">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>

<DIV7 N="42" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Means of Effecting Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.111" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.42.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.111   Means available.</HEAD>
<P>If there appears to be a failure or threatened failure to comply with any of the provisions of this part, and if the noncompliance or threatened noncompliance cannot be corrected by voluntary means, compliance with this part may be effected by the suspension, termination of, or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance, or by any other means authorized by law. Such other means may include, but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Referral to the Department of Justice with a recommendation that appropriate proceedings be brought to enforce any rights of the United States under any law including the Civil Rights Act of 1964, other statutes to which this part applies, or any assurance or other contractual undertaking; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Any applicable proceeding under State or local law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.112" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.42.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.112   Noncompliance with assurances.</HEAD>
<P>If an applicant fails or refuses to furnish an assurance required under § 1040.4 of subpart A of this part, or otherwise fails or refuses to comply with a requirement imposed by this part, such as § 1040.102(c), subpart G of this part, action to refuse Federal financial assistance shall be taken in accordance with procedures of § 1040.114 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.113" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.42.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.113   Deferral.</HEAD>
<P>DOE may defer action on pending applications for assistance in such a case during pendency of administrative proceedings under § 1040.114 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.114" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.42.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.114   Termination of or refusal to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>No order suspending, terminating, or refusing to grant or continue Federal financial assistance is to become effective until: 
</P>
<P>(a) Informational notice of the proposed order is given to the Executive Assistant to the Secretary, if the action is contemplated against a State or local government; 
</P>
<P>(b) The Director has advised the applicant or recipient of his/her failure to comply and has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means. (It will be determined by the Director that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means if it has not been secured within the time periods specifically set forth by this part.) 
</P>
<P>(c) There has been an express finding on the record, after opportunity for hearing, of a failure by the applicant or recipient to comply with the requirement imposed by or under this part: 
</P>
<P>(d) The FERC has notified the Secretary of its finding of noncompliance; and 
</P>
<P>(e) The expiration of 30 days after the Secretary or a designee has filed with the committee of the House of Representatives and the committee of the Senate having legislative jurisdiction over the program involved, a full written report of the circumstances and the grounds for such action. Any action to suspend, terminate, or to refuse to grant or to continue Federal financial assistance is to be limited to the particular political entity or part of that entity or other applicant or recipient to whom the finding has been made and shall be limited in its effect to the particular program or part of the program in which the noncompliance has been found. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.115" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.42.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.115   Other means authorized by law.</HEAD>
<P>No action to effect compliance by any other means authorized by law is to be taken until—
</P>
<P>(a) The Director has determined that compliance cannot be secured by voluntary means; 
</P>
<P>(b) The recipient or other person has been notified by the Director, in writing, that it has been found in formal noncompliance and that it has 10 days before formal enforcement proceedings begin in which to enter into a written voluntary compliance agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) The expiration of at least ten (10) days from the mailing of the notice to the recipient or other person. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="43" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.43" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Opportunity for Hearing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.121" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.43.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.121   Notice of opportunity for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever an opportunity for hearing is required by § 1040.113, the Director, OEO, or his/her designee shall serve on the applicant or recipient, by registered, certified mail, or return receipt requested, a notice of opportunity for hearing which will: 
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the applicant or recipient of the action proposed to be taken and of his/her right within twenty (20) days of the date of the notice of opportunity for hearing, or another period which may be specified in the notice, to request a hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Set forth the alleged item or items of noncompliance with this part; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the issues; 
</P>
<P>(4) State that compliance with this part may be effected by an order providing for the termination of or refusal to grant or to continue assistance, as appropriate, under the program involved; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Provide that the applicant or recipient may file a written answer with the Director, OEO, to the notice of opportunity for hearing under oath or affirmation within twenty (20) days of its date, or another period which may be specified in the notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant or recipient may file an answer, and waive or fail to request a hearing, without waiving the requirement for findings of fact and conclusions of law or the right to seek review by the FERC in accordance with the provisions established by the FERC. At the time an answer is filed, the applicant or recipient may also submit written information or argument for the record if he/she does not request a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) An answer or stipulation may consent to the entry of an order in substantially the form set forth in the notice of opportunity for hearing. The order may be entered by the General Counsel or his/her designee. The consent of the applicant or recipient to the entry of an order shall constitute a waiver by him/her of a right to: 
</P>
<P>(1) A hearing under Sec. 902 of title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, Section 602 of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Section 16, Section 401 and § 1040.113; 
</P>
<P>(2) Findings of fact and conclusions of law; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Seek review by the FERC. 
</P>
<P>(d) The failure of an applicant or recipient to file an answer within the period prescribed or, if the applicant or recipient requests a hearing, his failure to appear at the hearing shall constitute a waiver by him/her of a right to: 
</P>
<P>(1) A hearing under Section 902 of title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, Section 602 of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Section 16, Section 401, and § 1040.113; 
</P>
<P>(2) Conclusions of law; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Seek review by the FERC.
</P>
<FP>In the event of such a waiver, the Secretary or a designee may find the facts on the basis of the record available and enter an order in substantially the form set forth in the notice of opportunity for hearing. 
</FP>
<P>(e) An order entered in accordance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this section shall constitute the final decision of DOE unless the FERC, within forty-five (45) days after entry of the order, issues a subsequent decision which shall then constitute the final decision of DOE. 
</P>
<P>(f) A copy of an order entered by the FERC official shall be mailed to the applicant or recipient and to the complainant, if any. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.122" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.43.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.122   Request for hearing or review.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever an applicant or recipient requests a hearing or review in accordance with § 1040.121(a)(1) or (b), the DOE General Counsel or his/her designee shall submit such request along with other appropriate documents to the FERC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.123" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.43.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.123   Consolidated or joint hearings.</HEAD>
<P>In cases in which the same or related facts are asserted to constitute noncompliance with this part with respect to two or more programs to which this part applies or noncompliance with this part and the regulations of one or more other Federal departments or agencies issued to implement the requirements of the laws cited in this part, the Secretary or a designee, in coordination with FERC may, by agreement with other departments or agencies, where applicable, provide for the conduct of consolidated or joint hearings and for the application to such hearings of rules of procedure not inconsistent with this part. Final decision in such cases, insofar as programs subject to this part are concerned, shall be made in accordance with procedures established by the FERC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.124" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.43.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.124   Responsibility of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.</HEAD>
<P>The FERC has authority under section 402(b) of the DOE Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, to promulgate regulations regarding the conduct of hearings to deny or terminate Federal financial assistance. Rules for conduct of hearings will be published by the FERC and will be placed in title 18 CFR. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="44" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.44" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Judicial Review</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1040.131" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.44.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1040.131   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Final DOE actions taken under this part to withhold or terminate Federal financial assistance are subject to judicial review under the following laws: 
</P>
<P>(a) Title VI—Section 603 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964; 
</P>
<P>(b) Title IX—Section 903 of the Education Amendments of 1972; 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 16, Section 401, Section 504—Pub. L. 89-554, 5 U.S.C. 702; 
</P>
<P>(d) Section 419 and Section 420 of the Energy Conservation and Production Act of 1976, as amended. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.16.8.45.11.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1040—Federal Financial Assistance of the Department of Energy to Which This Part Applies
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Access permits.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 161(i), Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2011-13, 2201; and Title I Section 104(c) of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1237; 42 U.S.C. 5814; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Motion pictures film libraries.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Public Law 83-703, Sections 3 and 141(b), (68 Stat. 919), 42 U.S.C. 2013 and 2161; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, Public Law 93-438, Title I, Sections 103 and 107, (88 Stat. 1240), 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, Public Law 95-91, Title I, Section 102, and Title III, Section 301, (19 Stat. 565), 42 U.S.C. 7101; the National Energy Extension Service Act, Title V, Public Law 95-39, (91 Stat. 191), 42 U.S.C. 7001. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Granting of patent licenses.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Sections 156 and 161(g); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C. 2186 and 2201; Federal Nonnuclear Energy Research and Development Act of 1974; Section 9(f)(g)(h); Public Law 93-577; 88 Stat. 1887; 42 U.S.C. 5908(f)(g)(h); Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>University Laboratory Cooperative Program.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 31 (a) and (b); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Facility training institutes, short courses, and workshops on energy and environmental subjects.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 31 (a) and (b); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reactor sharing and fuel assistance.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 31 (a) and (b), Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438, 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Traineeships for graduate students in energy related fields.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Sections 31 (a) (b); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-458; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Public Law 93-409, Section 12(a); Public Law 94-163, Section 337; Public Law 93-577, Section 4(d); Public Law 93-275, Section 5; Public Law 95-39, Title V, Section 502(7); Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Energy related laboratory equipment grants.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 31 (a) and (b); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Information services exhibits, public speakers publications, reference and analysis.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 3 and 141b; Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2013 and 2161; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Payments in lieu of property taxes.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 168; Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2208; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act; 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Radiological emergency assistance.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.;</I> and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Nuclear industry seminars.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 141(b); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2161, and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438, 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>13. <I>Work experience.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 3, Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2013; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act; 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>14. <I>Citizens: Workshops.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Public Law 83-703, Section 3 and 141(b), 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2013 and 2161; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438, Title I, Section 103 and 107, 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817, Department of Energy Organization Act, Public Law 95-91, Title I, Section 102, and Title III, Section 301, 91 Stat. 565; 42 U.S.C. 7101; the National Energy Extension Service Act, Title V, Public Law 95-39, 91 Stat. 191; 42 U.S.C. 7001. 
</P>
<P>15. <I>Research and development in energy conservation.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 31; Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>16. <I>Energy related inventions.</I> Section 14 of the Federal Non-Nuclear Energy Research and Development Act of 1974; Public Law 93-577; 68 Stat. 1894; 42 U.S.C. 5913; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>17. <I>Research and development fission, fossil, solar, geothermal, electric and storage systems, magnetic fusion.</I> Amendments to the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974 and the Atomic Energy Act of 1954; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>18. <I>Energy Information Administration Clearinghouse (EIAC).</I> Department of Energy Organization Act, Section 205; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>19. <I>National Energy Information Center (NEIC).</I> Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, as amended, Section 20(a)(4); Public Law 93-175; 15 U.S.C. 779; Department of Energy Organization Act, Section 301; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>20. <I>Grants for Offices of Consumer Services.</I> Title II, Section 205 of the Energy Conservation and Production Act, Public Law 94-385; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>21. <I>State Energy Conservation Program.</I> Title III, Sections 361-366, Part C of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Public Law 94-163; 42 U.S.C. 6321-6326; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>22. <I>Weatherization Assistance Program for low income persons.</I> Title IV, Part A of the Energy Conservation and Production Act, Public Law 94-385; 42 U.S.C. 6861-6870; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>23. <I>Supplemental State Energy Conservation Program.</I> Title IV, Section 432(a), Part B of the Energy Conservation and Production Act of 1976, Public Law 94-385; 42 U.S.C. 6801 <I>et seq.;</I> Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>24. <I>Public education in energy.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Sections 31(a) and 31(b); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-458; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Public Law 93-409, Section 12(a); Public Law 94-163, Section 337; Public Law 93-577, Section 4(d); Public Law 93-275, Section 5; Public Law 95-39, Title V, Section 502(7); Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>25. <I>Special studies and projects in energy education and training.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Sections 31(a) and 31(b); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-458; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Public Law 93-409, Section 12(a); Public Law 93-163, Section 337; Public Law 93-577, Section 4(d); Public Law 93-275, Section 5; Public Law 95-39, Title V, Section 502(7). 
</P>
<P>26. <I>Research and development in biomedical and environmental sciences.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 31; Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>27. <I>Preface (Pre-Freshman and Cooperative Education for Minorities In Engineering).</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Sections 31(a) and 31(b); Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107 of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-458; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act, Public Law 95-91, Sections 102 and 203; Public Law 93-409, Section 12(a); Public Law 94-163, Section 337; Public Law 93-577, Section 4(d); Public Law 93-275, Section 5; Public Law 95-39, Title V, Section 502(7). 
</P>
<P>28. <I>Materials allocation.</I> Section 104, Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA), Section 101(c) Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended (DPA), 50 U.S.C. 2071(c), Section 7, Executive Order 11912, April 13, 1976. Defense Mobilization Order No. 13, September 22, 1976, 41 FR 43720; Department of Commerce, Bureau of Domestic Commerce, Delegation 4, 41 FR 52331, MA Regulations 10 CFR 216; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>29. <I>Basic energy sciences, high energy and nuclear physics, and advanced technology and assessment projects.</I> Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, Section 31; Public Law 83-703; 68 Stat. 919; 42 U.S.C. 2051; and Title I, Section 107, of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974; Public Law 93-438; 88 Stat. 1240; 42 U.S.C. 5817; Department of Energy Organization Act; 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 
</P>
<P>30. <I>Energy Extension Service.</I> National Energy Extension Service Act; Title V, Public Law 95-39; Department of Energy Organization Act, 42 U.S.C. 7101; Public Law 95-91. 


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1041" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1041—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 4574, Feb. 5, 1986, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 52 FR 1902, Jan. 16, 1987.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1041.101" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part effectuates section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.102" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.103" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Handicapped person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one of more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addition and alcholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in subparagraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified handicapped person</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other program or activity, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 1041.140.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), and the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 4574, Feb. 5, 1986; 51 FR 7543, Mar. 5, 1986. Redesignated at 52 FR 1902, Jan. 16, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1041.104-1041.109" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1041.104-1041.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.110" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.110   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, by April 9, 1987, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written).
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, until three years following the completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspections:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified, and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.111" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1041.112-1041.129" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1041.112-1041.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.130" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualfied handicapped person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified handicapped person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped persons or to any class of handicapped persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude handicapped persons from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap. 
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to handicapped persons or the exclusion of a specific class of handicapped persons from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of handicapped persons is not prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified handicapped persons. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1041.131-1041.139" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1041.131-1041.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.140" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1041.141-1041.148" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1041.141-1041.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.149" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.149   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 1041.150, no qualified handicapped person shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.150" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.150   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by handicapped persons; or
</P>
<P>(2) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1041.150(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The agency is nor required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section by June 6, 1986, except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made by April 7, 1989, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, by October 7, 1986, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to handicapped persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 4574, Feb. 5, 1986; 51 FR 7543, Mar. 5, 1986. Redesignated at 52 FR 1902, Jan. 16, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.151" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.151   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1041.152-1041.159" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1041.152-1041.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.160" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public. 
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford a handicapped person an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the handicapped person. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1041.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1041.161-1041.169" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1041.161-1041.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.170" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Manager of Federally Assisted Programs shall be responsible for coordinating implementing of this section. Complaints may be sent to Director of Equal Opportunity, U.S. Department of Energy, Room 4B-112, 1000 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-2218.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), is not readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found;
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 1041.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency. 
</P>
<P>(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 4574, Feb. 5, 1986. Redesignated and amended at 52 FR 1902, Jan. 16, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1041.171-1041.999" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.17.0.45.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1041.171-1041.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1042" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1042—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF SEX IN EDUCATION PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES RECEIVING FEDERAL FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688; 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.;</I> and 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 4630, Jan. 18, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.100" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.100   Purpose and effective date.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these Title IX regulations is to effectuate Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (except sections 904 and 906 of those Amendments) (20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688), which is designed to eliminate (with certain exceptions) discrimination on the basis of sex in any education program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance, whether or not such program or activity is offered or sponsored by an educational institution as defined in these Title IX regulations. The effective date of these Title IX regulations is February 20, 2001. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.105" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in these Title IX regulations, the term: 
</P>
<P><I>Administratively separate unit</I> means a school, department, or college of an educational institution (other than a local educational agency) admission to which is independent of admission to any other component of such institution. 
</P>
<P><I>Admission</I> means selection for part-time, full-time, special, associate, transfer, exchange, or any other enrollment, membership, or matriculation in or at an education program or activity operated by a recipient. 
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means one who submits an application, request, or plan required to be approved by an official of the Department of Energy, or by a recipient, as a condition to becoming a recipient of Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P><I>Designated agency official</I> means the Director, Office of Civil Rights and Diversity or any official to whom the Director's functions under this part are relegated. 
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means a local educational agency (LEA) as defined by 20 U.S.C. 8801(18), a preschool, a private elementary or secondary school, or an applicant or recipient that is an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education, as defined in this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial assistance</I> means any of the following, when authorized or extended under a law administered by the Federal agency that awards such assistance: 
</P>
<P>(1) A grant or loan of Federal financial assistance, including funds made available for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, construction, renovation, restoration, or repair of a building or facility or any portion thereof; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Scholarships, loans, grants, wages, or other funds extended to any entity for payment to or on behalf of students admitted to that entity, or extended directly to such students for payment to that entity. 
</P>
<P>(2) A grant of Federal real or personal property or any interest therein, including surplus property, and the proceeds of the sale or transfer of such property, if the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not, upon such sale or transfer, properly accounted for to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of the services of Federal personnel. 
</P>
<P>(4) Sale or lease of Federal property or any interest therein at nominal consideration, or at consideration reduced for the purpose of assisting the recipient or in recognition of public interest to be served thereby, or permission to use Federal property or any interest therein without consideration. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other contract, agreement, or arrangement that has as one of its purposes the provision of assistance to any education program or activity, except a contract of insurance or guaranty. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of graduate higher education</I> means an institution that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Offers academic study beyond the bachelor of arts or bachelor of science degree, whether or not leading to a certificate of any higher degree in the liberal arts and sciences; 
</P>
<P>(2) Awards any degree in a professional field beyond the first professional degree (regardless of whether the first professional degree in such field is awarded by an institution of undergraduate higher education or professional education); or 
</P>
<P>(3) Awards no degree and offers no further academic study, but operates ordinarily for the purpose of facilitating research by persons who have received the highest graduate degree in any field of study. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of professional education</I> means an institution (except any institution of undergraduate higher education) that offers a program of academic study that leads to a first professional degree in a field for which there is a national specialized accrediting agency recognized by the Secretary of Education. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of undergraduate higher education</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An institution offering at least two but less than four years of college-level study beyond the high school level, leading to a diploma or an associate degree, or wholly or principally creditable toward a baccalaureate degree; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An institution offering academic study leading to a baccalaureate degree; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or body that certifies credentials or offers degrees, but that may or may not offer academic study. 
</P>
<P><I>Institution of vocational education</I> means a school or institution (except an institution of professional or graduate or undergraduate higher education) that has as its primary purpose preparation of students to pursue a technical, skilled, or semiskilled occupation or trade, or to pursue study in a technical field, whether or not the school or institution offers certificates, diplomas, or degrees and whether or not it offers full-time study. 
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means any State or political subdivision thereof, or any instrumentality of a State or political subdivision thereof, any public or private agency, institution, or organization, or other entity, or any person, to whom Federal financial assistance is extended directly or through another recipient and that operates an education program or activity that receives such assistance, including any subunit, successor, assignee, or transferee thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Student</I> means a person who has gained admission. 
</P>
<P><I>Title IX</I> means Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, Public Law 92-318, 86 Stat. 235, 373 (codified as amended at 20 U.S.C. 1681-1688) (except sections 904 and 906 thereof), as amended by section 3 of Public Law 93-568, 88 Stat. 1855, by section 412 of the Education Amendments of 1976, Public Law 94-482, 90 Stat. 2234, and by Section 3 of Public Law 100-259, 102 Stat. 28, 28-29 (20 U.S.C. 1681, 1682, 1683, 1685, 1686, 1687, 1688). 
</P>
<P><I>Title IX regulations</I> means the provisions set forth in this 10 CFR Part 1042. 
</P>
<P><I>Transition plan</I> means a plan subject to the approval of the Secretary of Education pursuant to section 901(a)(2) of the Education Amendments of 1972, 20 U.S.C. 1681(a)(2), under which an educational institution operates in making the transition from being an educational institution that admits only students of one sex to being one that admits students of both sexes without discrimination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.110" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.110   Remedial and affirmative action and self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20250516" REFID="32">Link to an amendment published at 90 FR 20791, May 16, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250714" REFID="2k">This amendment was delayed until Sept. 12, 2025, at 90 FR 31141, July 14, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250910" REFID="4">This amendment was further delayed until Nov. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 43540, Sept. 10, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20250922" REFID="2a">The effective date of this amendment was corrected to read Dec. 9, 2025, at 90 FR 45317, Sept. 22, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20251209" REFID="4">This amendment was further delayed until Mar. 9, 2026, at 90 FR 56968, Dec. 9, 2025.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260306" REFID="7">This amendment was further delayed until July 6, 2026, at 91 FR 10955, Mar. 6, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260701" REFID="1c">This amendment was further delayed until Dec. 28, 2026, at 91 FR 39851, July 1, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Remedial action.</I> If the designated agency official finds that a recipient has discriminated against persons on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, such recipient shall take such remedial action as the designated agency official deems necessary to overcome the effects of such discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative action.</I> In the absence of a finding of discrimination on the basis of sex in an education program or activity, a recipient may take affirmative action consistent with law to overcome the effects of conditions that resulted in limited participation therein by persons of a particular sex. Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be interpreted to alter any affirmative action obligations that a recipient may have under Executive Order 11246, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339; as amended by Executive Order 11375, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684; as amended by Executive Order 11478, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 803; as amended by Executive Order 12086, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 230; as amended by Executive Order 12107, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 264. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Self-evaluation.</I> Each recipient education institution shall, within one year of February 20, 2001: 
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate, in terms of the requirements of these Title IX regulations, its current policies and practices and the effects thereof concerning admission of students, treatment of students, and employment of both academic and non-academic personnel working in connection with the recipient's education program or activity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Modify any of these policies and practices that do not or may not meet the requirements of these Title IX regulations; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Take appropriate remedial steps to eliminate the effects of any discrimination that resulted or may have resulted from adherence to these policies and practices. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of self-evaluation and related materials.</I> Recipients shall maintain on file for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall provide to the designated agency official upon request, a description of any modifications made pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section and of any remedial steps taken pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.115" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.115   Assurance required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Either at the application stage or the award stage, the Department of Energy must ensure that applications for Federal financial assistance or awards of Federal financial assistance contain, be accompanied by, or be covered by a specifically identified assurance from the applicant or recipient, satisfactory to the designated agency official, that each education program or activity operated by the applicant or recipient and to which these Title IX regulations apply will be operated in compliance with these Title IX regulations. An assurance of compliance with these Title IX regulations shall not be satisfactory to the designated agency official if the applicant or recipient to whom such assurance applies fails to commit itself to take whatever remedial action is necessary in accordance with § 1042.110(a) to eliminate existing discrimination on the basis of sex or to eliminate the effects of past discrimination whether occurring prior to or subsequent to the submission to the designated agency official of such assurance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> (1) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide real property or structures thereon, such assurance shall obligate the recipient or, in the case of a subsequent transfer, the transferee, for the period during which the real property or structures are used to provide an education program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Federal financial assistance extended to provide personal property, such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which it retains ownership or possession of the property.
</P>
<P>(3) In all other cases such assurance shall obligate the recipient for the period during which Federal financial assistance is extended. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form.</I> (1) The assurances required by paragraph (a) of this section, which may be included as part of a document that addresses other assurances or obligations, shall include that the applicant or recipient will comply with all applicable Federal statutes relating to nondiscrimination. These include but are not limited to: Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, as amended (20 U.S.C. 1681-1683, 1685-1688). 
</P>
<P>(2) The designated agency official will specify the extent to which such assurances will be required of the applicant's or recipient's subgrantees, contractors, subcontractors, transferees, or successors in interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.120" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.120   Transfers of property.</HEAD>
<P>If a recipient sells or otherwise transfers property financed in whole or in part with Federal financial assistance to a transferee that operates any education program or activity, and the Federal share of the fair market value of the property is not upon such sale or transfer properly accounted for to the Federal Government, both the transferor and the transferee shall be deemed to be recipients, subject to the provisions of §§ 1042.205 through 1042.235(a). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.125" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.125   Effect of other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effect of other Federal provisions.</I> The obligations imposed by these Title IX regulations are independent of, and do not alter, obligations not to discriminate on the basis of sex imposed by Executive Order 11246, 3 CFR, 1964-1965 Comp., p. 339; as amended by Executive Order 11375, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 684; as amended by Executive Order 11478, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 803; as amended by Executive Order 12087, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 230; as amended by Executive Order 12107, 3 CFR, 1978 Comp., p. 264; sections 704 and 855 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 295m, 298b-2); Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>); the Equal Pay Act of 1963 (29 U.S.C. 206); and any other Act of Congress or Federal regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of State or local law or other requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated by any State or local law or other requirement that would render any applicant or student ineligible, or limit the eligibility of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, to practice any occupation or profession. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of rules or regulations of private organizations.</I> The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated by any rule or regulation of any organization, club, athletic or other league, or association that would render any applicant or student ineligible to participate or limit the eligibility or participation of any applicant or student, on the basis of sex, in any education program or activity operated by a recipient and that receives Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.130" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.130   Effect of employment opportunities.</HEAD>
<P>The obligation to comply with these Title IX regulations is not obviated or alleviated because employment opportunities in any occupation or profession are or may be more limited for members of one sex than for members of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.135" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.135   Designation of responsible employee and adoption of grievance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of responsible employee.</I> Each recipient shall designate at least one employee to coordinate its efforts to comply with and carryout its responsibilities under these Title IX regulations, including any investigation of any complaint communicated to such recipient alleging its noncompliance with these Title IX regulations or alleging any actions that would be prohibited by these Title IX regulations. The recipient shall notify all its students and employees of the name, office address, and telephone number of the employee or employees appointed pursuant to this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complaint procedure of recipient.</I> A recipient shall adopt and publish grievance procedures providing for prompt and equitable resolution of student and employee complaints alleging any action that would be prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.140" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.1.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.140   Dissemination of policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of policy.</I> (1) Each recipient shall implement specific and continuing steps to notify applicants for admission and employment, students and parents of elementary and secondary school students, employees, sources of referral of applicants for admission and employment, and all unions or professional organizations holding collective bargaining or professional agreements with the recipient, that it does not discriminate on the basis of sex in the educational programs or activities that it operates, and that it is required by Title IX and these Title IX regulations not to discriminate in such a manner. Such notification shall contain such information, and be made in such manner, as the designated agency official finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by Title IX and these Title IX regulations, but shall state at least that the requirement not to discriminate in education programs or activities extends to employment therein, and to admission thereto unless §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 do not apply to the recipient, and that inquiries concerning the application of Title IX and these Title IX regulations to such recipient may be referred to the employee designated pursuant to § 1042.135, or to the designated agency official. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each recipient shall make the initial notification required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section within 90 days of February 20, 2001 or of the date these Title IX regulations first apply to such recipient, whichever comes later, which notification shall include publication in: 
</P>
<P>(i) Newspapers and magazines operated by such recipient or by student, alumnae, or alumni groups for or in connection with such recipient; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Memoranda or other written communications distributed to every student and employee of such recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publications.</I> (1) Each recipient shall prominently include a statement of the policy described in paragraph (a) of this section in each announcement, bulletin, catalog, or application form that it makes available to any person of a type, described in paragraph (a) of this section, or which is otherwise used in connection with the recruitment of students or employees. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not use or distribute a publication of the type described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that suggests, by text or illustration, that such recipient treats applicants, students, or employees differently on the basis of sex except as such treatment is permitted by these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distribution.</I> Each recipient shall distribute without discrimination on the basis of sex each publication described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and shall apprise each of its admission and employment recruitment representatives of the policy of nondiscrimination described in paragraph (a) of this section, and shall require such representatives to adhere to such policy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.200" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.200   Application.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in §§ 1042.205 through 1042.235(a), these Title IX regulations apply to every recipient and to each education program or activity operated by such recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.205" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.205   Educational institutions and other entities controlled by religious organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to any operation of an educational institution or other entity that is controlled by a religious organization to the extent that application of these Title IX regulations would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption claims.</I> An educational institution or other entity that wishes to claim the exemption set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall do so by submitting in writing to the designated agency official a statement by the highest-ranking official of the institution, identifying the provisions of these Title IX regulations that conflict with a specific tenet of the religious organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.210" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.210   Military and merchant marine educational institutions.</HEAD>
<P>These Title IX regulations do not apply to an educational institution whose primary purpose is the training of individuals for a military service of the United States or for the merchant marine. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.215" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.215   Membership practices of certain organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Social fraternities and sororities.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of social fraternities and sororities that are exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), the active membership of which consists primarily of students in attendance at institutions of higher education. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>YMCA, YWCA, Girl Scouts, Boy Scouts, and Camp Fire Girls.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of the Young Men's Christian Association (YMCA), the Young Women's Christian Association (YWCA), the Girl Scouts, the Boy Scouts, and Camp Fire Girls. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voluntary youth service organizations.</I> These Title IX regulations do not apply to the membership practices of a voluntary youth service organization that is exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 26 U.S.C. 501(a), and the membership of which has been traditionally limited to members of one sex and principally to persons of less than nineteen years of age. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.220" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.220   Admissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Admissions to educational institutions prior to June 24, 1973, are not covered by these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administratively separate units.</I> For the purposes only of this section, §§ 1042.225 and 1042.230, and §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310, each administratively separate unit shall be deemed to be an educational institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply to each recipient. A recipient to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Educational institutions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section as to recipients that are educational institutions, §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply only to institutions of vocational education, professional education, graduate higher education, and public institutions of undergraduate higher education. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public institutions of undergraduate higher education.</I> §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 do not apply to any public institution of undergraduate higher education that traditionally and continually from its establishment has had a policy of admitting students of only one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.225" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.225   Educational institutions eligible to submit transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> This section applies to each educational institution to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Admitted students of only one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1972; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Admitted students of only one sex as regular students as of June 23, 1965, but thereafter admitted, as regular students, students of the sex not admitted prior to June 23, 1965. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provision for transition plans.</I> An educational institution to which this section applies shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in admission or recruitment in violation of §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.230" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.230   Transition plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of plans.</I> An institution to which § 1042.225 applies and that is composed of more than one administratively separate unit may submit either a single transition plan applicable to all such units, or a separate transition plan applicable to each such unit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of plans.</I> In order to be approved by the Secretary of Education, a transition plan shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) State the name, address, and Federal Interagency Committee on Education Code of the educational institution submitting such plan, the administratively separate units to which the plan is applicable, and the name, address, and telephone number of the person to whom questions concerning the plan may be addressed. The person who submits the plan shall be the chief administrator or president of the institution, or another individual legally authorized to bind the institution to all actions set forth in the plan. 
</P>
<P>(2) State whether the educational institution or administratively separate unit admits students of both sexes as regular students and, if so, when it began to do so. 
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe with respect to the educational institution or administratively separate unit any obstacles to admitting students without discrimination on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(4) Describe in detail the steps necessary to eliminate as soon as practicable each obstacle so identified and indicate the schedule for taking these steps and the individual directly responsible for their implementation. 
</P>
<P>(5) Include estimates of the number of students, by sex, expected to apply for, be admitted to, and enter each class during the period covered by the plan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> No policy or practice of a recipient to which § 1042.225 applies shall result in treatment of applicants to or students of such recipient in violation of §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 unless such treatment is necessitated by an obstacle identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and a schedule for eliminating that obstacle has been provided as required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of past exclusion.</I> To overcome the effects of past exclusion of students on the basis of sex, each educational institution to which § 1042.225 applies shall include in its transition plan, and shall implement, specific steps designed to encourage individuals of the previously excluded sex to apply for admission to such institution. Such steps shall include instituting recruitment programs that emphasize the institution's commitment to enrolling students of the sex previously excluded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.235" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.2.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.235   Statutory amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section, which applies to all provisions of these Title IX regulations, addresses statutory amendments to Title IX. 
</P>
<P>(b) These Title IX regulations shall not apply to or preclude: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any program or activity of the American Legion undertaken in connection with the organization or operation of any Boys State conference, Boys Nation conference, Girls State conference, or Girls Nation conference; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any program or activity of a secondary school or educational institution specifically for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The promotion of any Boys State conference, Boys Nation conference, Girls State conference, or Girls Nation conference; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The selection of students to attend any such conference; 
</P>
<P>(3) Father-son or mother-daughter activities at an educational institution or in an education program or activity, but if such activities are provided for students of one sex, opportunities for reasonably comparable activities shall be provided to students of the other sex; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any scholarship or other financial assistance awarded by an institution of higher education to an individual because such individual has received such award in a single-sex pageant based upon a combination of factors related to the individual's personal appearance, poise, and talent. The pageant, however, must comply with other nondiscrimination provisions of Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Program or activity</I> or <I>program</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) All of the operations of any entity described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section, any part of which is extended Federal financial assistance: 
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A department, agency, special purpose district, or other instrumentality of a State or of a local government; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The entity of such State or local government that distributes such assistance and each such department or agency (and each other State or local government entity) to which the assistance is extended, in the case of assistance to a State or local government; 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A college, university, or other post-secondary institution, or a public system of higher education; or 
</P>
<P>(B) A local educational agency (as defined in section 8801 of title 20), system of vocational education, or other school system; 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) An entire corporation, partnership, or other private organization, or an entire sole proprietorship— 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If assistance is extended to such corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship as a whole; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which is principally engaged in the business of providing education, health care, housing, social services, or parks and recreation; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The entire plant or other comparable, geographically separate facility to which Federal financial assistance is extended, in the case of any other corporation, partnership, private organization, or sole proprietorship; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other entity that is established by two or more of the entities described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) <I>Program or activity</I> does not include any operation of an entity that is controlled by a religious organization if the application of 20 U.S.C. 1681 to such operation would not be consistent with the religious tenets of such organization. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For example, all of the operations of a college, university, or other post-secondary institution, including but not limited to traditional educational operations, faculty and student housing, campus shuttle bus service, campus restaurants, the bookstore, and other commercial activities are part of a “program or activity” subject to these Title IX regulations if the college, university, or other institution receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be construed to require or prohibit any person, or public or private entity, to provide or pay for any benefit or service, including the use of facilities, related to an abortion. Medical procedures, benefits, services, and the use of facilities, necessary to save the life of a pregnant woman or to address complications related to an abortion are not subject to this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit a penalty to be imposed on any person or individual because such person or individual is seeking or has received any benefit or service related to a legal abortion. Accordingly, subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, no person shall be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, employment, or other educational program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance because such individual has sought or received, or is seeking, a legal abortion, or any benefit or service related to a legal abortion. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Admission and Recruitment Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.300" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.3.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.300   Admission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be denied admission, or be subjected to discrimination in admission, by any recipient to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply, except as provided in §§ 1042.225 and 1042.230. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> (1) In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply shall not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Give preference to one person over another on the basis of sex, by ranking applicants separately on such basis, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Apply numerical limitations upon the number or proportion of persons of either sex who may be admitted; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise treat one individual differently from another on the basis of sex. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for admission that has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless the use of such test or criterion is shown to predict validly success in the education program or activity in question and alternative tests or criteria that do not have such a disproportionately adverse effect are shown to be unavailable. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibitions relating to marital or parental status.</I> In determining whether a person satisfies any policy or criterion for admission, or in making any offer of admission, a recipient to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shall not apply any rule concerning the actual or potential parental, family, or marital status of a student or applicant that treats persons differently on the basis of sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not discriminate against or exclude any person on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, or establish or follow any rule or practice that so discriminates or excludes; 
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to § 1042.235(d), shall treat disabilities related to pregnancy, childbirth, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability or physical condition; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Shall not make pre-admission inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for admission, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” A recipient may make pre-admission inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for admission, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.305" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.3.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.305   Preference in admission.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply shall not give preference to applicants for admission, on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or other school or entity that admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preference has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.310" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.3.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.310   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment.</I> A recipient to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and admission of students. A recipient may be required to undertake additional recruitment efforts for one sex as remedial action pursuant to § 1042.110(a), and may choose to undertake such efforts as affirmative action pursuant to § 1042.110(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment at certain institutions.</I> A recipient to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 apply shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at educational institutions, schools, or entities that admit as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.400" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.400   Education programs or activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in these Title IX regulations, no person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any academic, extracurricular, research, occupational training, or other education program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. Sections 1042.400 through 1042.455 do not apply to actions of a recipient in connection with admission of its students to an education program or activity of a recipient to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 do not apply, or an entity, not a recipient, to which §§ 1042.300 through 1042.310 would not apply if the entity were a recipient. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific prohibitions.</I> Except as provided in §§ 1042.400 through 1042.455, in providing any aid, benefit, or service to a student, a recipient shall not, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(1) Treat one person differently from another in determining whether such person satisfies any requirement or condition for the provision of such aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide different aid, benefits, or services or provide aid, benefits, or services in a different manner; 
</P>
<P>(3) Deny any person any such aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(4) Subject any person to separate or different rules of behavior, sanctions, or other treatment; 
</P>
<P>(5) Apply any rule concerning the domicile or residence of a student or applicant, including eligibility for in-state fees and tuition; 
</P>
<P>(6) Aid or perpetuate discrimination against any person by providing significant assistance to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of sex in providing any aid, benefit, or service to students or employees; 
</P>
<P>(7) Otherwise limit any person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assistance administered by a recipient educational institution to study at a foreign institution.</I> A recipient educational institution may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other awards established by foreign or domestic wills, trusts, or similar legal instruments, or by acts of foreign governments and restricted to members of one sex, that are designed to provide opportunities to study abroad, and that are awarded to students who are already matriculating at or who are graduates of the recipient institution; <I>Provided,</I> that a recipient educational institution that administers or assists in the administration of such scholarships, fellowships, or other awards that are restricted to members of one sex provides, or otherwise makes available, reasonable opportunities for similar studies for members of the other sex. Such opportunities may be derived from either domestic or foreign sources. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aids, benefits or services not provided by recipient.</I> (1) This paragraph (d) applies to any recipient that requires participation by any applicant, student, or employee in any education program or activity not operated wholly by such recipient, or that facilitates, permits, or considers such participation as part of or equivalent to an education program or activity operated by such recipient, including participation in educational consortia and cooperative employment and student-teaching assignments. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such recipient: 
</P>
<P>(i) Shall develop and implement a procedure designed to assure itself that the operator or sponsor of such other education program or activity takes no action affecting any applicant, student, or employee of such recipient that these Title IX regulations would prohibit such recipient from taking; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall not facilitate, require, permit, or consider such participation if such action occurs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.405" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.405   Housing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, apply different rules or regulations, impose different fees or requirements, or offer different services or benefits related to housing, except as provided in this section (including housing provided only to married students).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Housing provided by recipient.</I> (1) A recipient may provide separate housing on the basis of sex.
</P>
<P>(2) Housing provided by a recipient to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, shall be as a whole:
</P>
<P>(i) Proportionate in quantity to the number of students of that sex applying for such housing; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Comparable in quality and cost to the student.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other housing.</I> (1) A recipient shall not, on the basis of sex, administer different policies or practices concerning occupancy by its students of housing other than that provided by such recipient.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A recipient which, through solicitation, listing, approval of housing, or otherwise, assists any agency, organization, or person in making housing available to any of its students, shall take such reasonable action as may be necessary to assure itself that such housing as is provided to students of one sex, when compared to that provided to students of the other sex, is as a whole:
</P>
<P>(A) Proportionate in quantity; and
</P>
<P>(B) Comparable in quality and cost to the student.
</P>
<P>(ii) A recipient may render such assistance to any agency, organization, or person that provides all or part of such housing to students of only one sex.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.410" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.410   Comparable facilities.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may provide separate toilet, locker room, and shower facilities on the basis of sex, but such facilities provided for students of one sex shall be comparable to such facilities provided for students of the other sex.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.415" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.415   Access to course offerings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A recipient shall not provide any course or otherwise carry out any of its education program or activity separately on the basis of sex, or require or refuse participation therein by any of its students on such basis, including health, physical education, industrial, business, vocational, technical, home economics, music, and adult education courses.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) With respect to classes and activities in physical education at the elementary school level, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from February 20, 2001. With respect to physical education classes and activities at the secondary and post-secondary levels, the recipient shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from February 20, 2001.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not prohibit grouping of students in physical education classes and activities by ability as assessed by objective standards of individual performance developed and applied without regard to sex.
</P>
<P>(3) This section does not prohibit separation of students by sex within physical education classes or activities during participation in wrestling, boxing, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball, and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact.
</P>
<P>(4) Where use of a single standard of measuring skill or progress in a physical education class has an adverse effect on members of one sex, the recipient shall use appropriate standards that do not have such effect.
</P>
<P>(5) Portions of classes in elementary and secondary schools, or portions of education programs or activities, that deal exclusively with human sexuality may be conducted in separate sessions for boys and girls.
</P>
<P>(6) Recipients may make requirements based on vocal range or quality that may result in a chorus or choruses of one or predominantly one sex.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.420" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.420   Access to schools operated by LEAs.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient that is a local educational agency shall not, on the basis of sex, exclude any person from admission to:
</P>
<P>(a) Any institution of vocational education operated by such recipient; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Any other school or educational unit operated by such recipient, unless such recipient otherwise makes available to such person, pursuant to the same policies and criteria of admission, courses, services, and facilities comparable to each course, service, and facility offered in or through such schools.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.425" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.425   Counseling and use of appraisal and counseling materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Counseling.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against any person on the basis of sex in the counseling or guidance of students or applicants for admission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of appraisal and counseling materials.</I> A recipient that uses testing or other materials for appraising or counseling students shall not use different materials for students on the basis of their sex or use materials that permit or require different treatment of students on such basis unless such different materials cover the same occupations and interest areas and the use of such different materials is shown to be essential to eliminate sex bias. Recipients shall develop and use internal procedures for ensuring that such materials do not discriminate on the basis of sex. Where the use of a counseling test or other instrument results in a substantially disproportionate number of members of one sex in any particular course of study or classification, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination in the instrument or its application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disproportion in classes.</I> Where a recipient finds that a particular class contains a substantially disproportionate number of individuals of one sex, the recipient shall take such action as is necessary to assure itself that such disproportion is not the result of discrimination on the basis of sex in counseling or appraisal materials or by counselors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.430" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.430   Financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, in providing financial assistance to any of its students, a recipient shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) On the basis of sex, provide different amounts or types of such assistance, limit eligibility for such assistance that is of any particular type or source, apply different criteria, or otherwise discriminate;
</P>
<P>(2) Through solicitation, listing, approval, provision of facilities, or other services, assist any foundation, trust, agency, organization, or person that provides assistance to any of such recipient's students in a manner that discriminates on the basis of sex; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Apply any rule or assist in application of any rule concerning eligibility for such assistance that treats persons of one sex differently from persons of the other sex with regard to marital or parental status.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial aid established by certain legal instruments.</I> (1) A recipient may administer or assist in the administration of scholarships, fellowships, or other forms of financial assistance established pursuant to domestic or foreign wills, trusts, bequests, or similar legal instruments or by acts of a foreign government that require that awards be made to members of a particular sex specified therein; <I>Provided,</I> that the overall effect of the award of such sex-restricted scholarships, fellowships, and other forms of financial assistance does not discriminate on the basis of sex.
</P>
<P>(2) To ensure nondiscriminatory awards of assistance as required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, recipients shall develop and use procedures under which:
</P>
<P>(i) Students are selected for award of financial assistance on the basis of nondiscriminatory criteria and not on the basis of availability of funds restricted to members of a particular sex;
</P>
<P>(ii) An appropriate sex-restricted scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance is allocated to each student selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) No student is denied the award for which he or she was selected under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section because of the absence of a scholarship, fellowship, or other form of financial assistance designated for a member of that student's sex.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Athletic scholarships.</I> (1) To the extent that a recipient awards athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid, it must provide reasonable opportunities for such awards for members of each sex in proportion to the number of students of each sex participating in interscholastic or intercollegiate athletics.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may provide separate athletic scholarships or grants-in-aid for members of each sex as part of separate athletic teams for members of each sex to the extent consistent with this paragraph (c) and § 1042.450.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.435" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.435   Employment assistance to students.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assistance by recipient in making available outside employment.</I> A recipient that assists any agency, organization, or person in making employment available to any of its students:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall assure itself that such employment is made available without discrimination on the basis of sex; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Shall not render such services to any agency, organization, or person that discriminates on the basis of sex in its employment practices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employment of students by recipients.</I> A recipient that employs any of its students shall not do so in a manner that violates §§ 1042.500 through 1042.550.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.440" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.440   Health and insurance benefits and services.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to § 1042.235(d), in providing a medical, hospital, accident, or life insurance benefit, service, policy, or plan to any of its students, a recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex, or provide such benefit, service, policy, or plan in a manner that would violate §§ 1042.500 through 1042.550 if it were provided to employees of the recipient. This section shall not prohibit a recipient from providing any benefit or service that may be used by a different proportion of students of one sex than of the other, including family planning services. However, any recipient that provides full coverage health service shall provide gynecological care.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.445" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.445   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Status generally.</I> A recipient shall not apply any rule concerning a student's actual or potential parental, family, or marital status that treats students differently on the basis of sex.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy and related conditions.</I> (1) A recipient shall not discriminate against any student, or exclude any student from its education program or activity, including any class or extracurricular activity, on the basis of such student's pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom, unless the student requests voluntarily to participate in a separate portion of the program or activity of the recipient.
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient may require such a student to obtain the certification of a physician that the student is physically and emotionally able to continue participation as long as such a certification is required of all students for other physical or emotional conditions requiring the attention of a physician.
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient that operates a portion of its education program or activity separately for pregnant students, admittance to which is completely voluntary on the part of the student as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall ensure that the separate portion is comparable to that offered to non-pregnant students.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to § 1042.235(d), a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy and recovery therefrom in the same manner and under the same policies as any other temporary disability with respect to any medical or hospital benefit, service, plan, or policy that such recipient administers, operates, offers, or participates in with respect to students admitted to the recipient's educational program or activity.
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a recipient that does not maintain a leave policy for its students, or in the case of a student who does not otherwise qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence for as long a period of time as is deemed medically necessary by the student's physician, at the conclusion of which the student shall be reinstated to the status that she held when the leave began.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.450" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.450   Athletics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, be treated differently from another person, or otherwise be discriminated against in any interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics offered by a recipient, and no recipient shall provide any such athletics separately on such basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separate teams.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a recipient may operate or sponsor separate teams for members of each sex where selection for such teams is based upon competitive skill or the activity involved is a contact sport. However, where a recipient operates or sponsors a team in a particular sport for members of one sex but operates or sponsors no such team for members of the other sex, and athletic opportunities for members of that sex have previously been limited, members of the excluded sex must be allowed to try out for the team offered unless the sport involved is a contact sport. For the purposes of these Title IX regulations, contact sports include boxing, wrestling, rugby, ice hockey, football, basketball, and other sports the purpose or major activity of which involves bodily contact.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equal opportunity.</I> (1) A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics shall provide equal athletic opportunity for members of both sexes. In determining whether equal opportunities are available, the designated agency official will consider, among other factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the selection of sports and levels of competition effectively accommodate the interests and abilities of members of both sexes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The provision of equipment and supplies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Scheduling of games and practice time;
</P>
<P>(iv) Travel and per diem allowance;
</P>
<P>(v) Opportunity to receive coaching and academic tutoring;
</P>
<P>(vi) Assignment and compensation of coaches and tutors;
</P>
<P>(vii) Provision of locker rooms, practice, and competitive facilities;
</P>
<P>(viii) Provision of medical and training facilities and services;
</P>
<P>(ix) Provision of housing and dining facilities and services;
</P>
<P>(x) Publicity.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unequal aggregate expenditures for members of each sex or unequal expenditures for male and female teams if a recipient operates or sponsors separate teams will not constitute noncompliance with this section, but the designated agency official may consider the failure to provide necessary funds for teams for one sex in assessing equality of opportunity for members of each sex.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustment period.</I> A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics at the elementary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than one year from February 20, 2001. A recipient that operates or sponsors interscholastic, intercollegiate, club, or intramural athletics at the secondary or post-secondary school level shall comply fully with this section as expeditiously as possible but in no event later than three years from February 20, 2001. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.455" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.4.45.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.455   Textbooks and curricular material.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in these Title IX regulations shall be interpreted as requiring or prohibiting or abridging in any way the use of particular textbooks or curricular materials. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Discrimination on the Basis of Sex in Employment in Education Programs or Activities Prohibited</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.500" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.500   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) No person shall, on the basis of sex, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination in employment, or recruitment, consideration, or selection therefor, whether full-time or part-time, under any education program or activity operated by a recipient that receives Federal financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(2) A recipient shall make all employment decisions in any education program or activity operated by such recipient in a nondiscriminatory manner and shall not limit, segregate, or classify applicants or employees in any way that could adversely affect any applicant's or employee's employment opportunities or status because of sex. 
</P>
<P>(3) A recipient shall not enter into any contractual or other relationship which directly or indirectly has the effect of subjecting employees or students to discrimination prohibited by §§ 1042.500 through 1042.550, including relationships with employment and referral agencies, with labor unions, and with organizations providing or administering fringe benefits to employees of the recipient. 
</P>
<P>(4) A recipient shall not grant preferences to applicants for employment on the basis of attendance at any educational institution or entity that admits as students only or predominantly members of one sex, if the giving of such preferences has the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of these Title IX regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> The provisions of §§ 1042.500 through 1042.550 apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Recruitment, advertising, and the process of application for employment; 
</P>
<P>(2) Hiring, upgrading, promotion, consideration for and award of tenure, demotion, transfer, layoff, termination, application of nepotism policies, right of return from layoff, and rehiring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Rates of pay or any other form of compensation, and changes in compensation; 
</P>
<P>(4) Job assignments, classifications, and structure, including position descriptions, lines of progression, and seniority lists; 
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of any collective bargaining agreement; 
</P>
<P>(6) Granting and return from leaves of absence, leave for pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, leave for persons of either sex to care for children or dependents, or any other leave; 
</P>
<P>(7) Fringe benefits available by virtue of employment, whether or not administered by the recipient; 
</P>
<P>(8) Selection and financial support for training, including apprenticeship, professional meetings, conferences, and other related activities, selection for tuition assistance, selection for sabbaticals and leaves of absence to pursue training; 
</P>
<P>(9) Employer-sponsored activities, including social or recreational programs; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Any other term, condition, or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.505" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.505   Employment criteria.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not administer or operate any test or other criterion for any employment opportunity that has a disproportionately adverse effect on persons on the basis of sex unless: 
</P>
<P>(a) Use of such test or other criterion is shown to predict validly successful performance in the position in question; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Alternative tests or criteria for such purpose, which do not have such disproportionately adverse effect, are shown to be unavailable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.510" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.510   Recruitment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Nondiscriminatory recruitment and hiring.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate on the basis of sex in the recruitment and hiring of employees. Where a recipient has been found to be presently discriminating on the basis of sex in the recruitment or hiring of employees, or has been found to have so discriminated in the past, the recipient shall recruit members of the sex so discriminated against so as to overcome the effects of such past or present discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recruitment patterns.</I> A recipient shall not recruit primarily or exclusively at entities that furnish as applicants only or predominantly members of one sex if such actions have the effect of discriminating on the basis of sex in violation of §§ 1042.500 through 1042.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.515" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.515   Compensation.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not make or enforce any policy or practice that, on the basis of sex: 
</P>
<P>(a) Makes distinctions in rates of pay or other compensation; 
</P>
<P>(b) Results in the payment of wages to employees of one sex at a rate less than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for equal work on jobs the performance of which requires equal skill, effort, and responsibility, and that are performed under similar working conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.520" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.520   Job classification and structure.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(a) Classify a job as being for males or for females; 
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority lists, career ladders, or tenure systems based on sex; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain or establish separate lines of progression, seniority systems, career ladders, or tenure systems for similar jobs, position descriptions, or job requirements that classify persons on the basis of sex, unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the positions in question as set forth in § 1042.550. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.525" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.525   Fringe benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>“Fringe benefits” defined.</I> For purposes of these Title IX regulations, <I>fringe benefits</I> means: Any medical, hospital, accident, life insurance, or retirement benefit, service, policy or plan, any profit-sharing or bonus plan, leave, and any other benefit or service of employment not subject to the provision of § 1042.515.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibitions.</I> A recipient shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Discriminate on the basis of sex with regard to making fringe benefits available to employees or make fringe benefits available to spouses, families, or dependents of employees differently upon the basis of the employee's sex; 
</P>
<P>(2) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a fringe benefit plan that does not provide for equal periodic benefits for members of each sex and for equal contributions to the plan by such recipient for members of each sex; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Administer, operate, offer, or participate in a pension or retirement plan that establishes different optional or compulsory retirement ages based on sex or that otherwise discriminates in benefits on the basis of sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.530" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.530   Marital or parental status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A recipient shall not apply any policy or take any employment action: 
</P>
<P>(1) Concerning the potential marital, parental, or family status of an employee or applicant for employment that treats persons differently on the basis of sex; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Which is based upon whether an employee or applicant for employment is the head of household or principal wage earner in such employee's or applicant's family unit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pregnancy.</I> A recipient shall not discriminate against or exclude from employment any employee or applicant for employment on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, or recovery therefrom. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pregnancy as a temporary disability.</I> Subject to § 1042.235(d), a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, recovery therefrom, and any temporary disability resulting therefrom as any other temporary disability for all job-related purposes, including commencement, duration, and extensions of leave, payment of disability income, accrual of seniority and any other benefit or service, and reinstatement, and under any fringe benefit offered to employees by virtue of employment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pregnancy leave.</I> In the case of a recipient that does not maintain a leave policy for its employees, or in the case of an employee with insufficient leave or accrued employment time to qualify for leave under such a policy, a recipient shall treat pregnancy, childbirth, false pregnancy, termination of pregnancy, and recovery therefrom as a justification for a leave of absence without pay for a reasonable period of time, at the conclusion of which the employee shall be reinstated to the status that she held when the leave began or to a comparable position, without decrease in rate of compensation or loss of promotional opportunities, or any other right or privilege of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.535" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.535   Effect of state or local law or other requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibitory requirements.</I> The obligation to comply with §§ 1042.500 through 1042.550 is not obviated or alleviated by the existence of any State or local law or other requirement that imposes prohibitions or limits upon employment of members of one sex that are not imposed upon members of the other sex. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Benefits.</I> A recipient that provides any compensation, service, or benefit to members of one sex pursuant to a State or local law or other requirement shall provide the same compensation, service, or benefit to members of the other sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.540" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.540   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient shall not in any advertising related to employment indicate preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on sex unless sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for the particular job in question. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.545" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.545   Pre-employment inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marital status.</I> A recipient shall not make pre-employment inquiry as to the marital status of an applicant for employment, including whether such applicant is “Miss” or “Mrs.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sex.</I> A recipient may make pre-employment inquiry as to the sex of an applicant for employment, but only if such inquiry is made equally of such applicants of both sexes and if the results of such inquiry are not used in connection with discrimination prohibited by these Title IX regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.550" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.5.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.550   Sex as a bona fide occupational qualification.</HEAD>
<P>A recipient may take action otherwise prohibited by §§ 1042.500 through 1042.550 provided it is shown that sex is a bona fide occupational qualification for that action, such that consideration of sex with regard to such action is essential to successful operation of the employment function concerned. A recipient shall not take action pursuant to this section that is based upon alleged comparative employment characteristics or stereotyped characterizations of one or the other sex, or upon preference based on sex of the recipient, employees, students, or other persons, but nothing contained in this section shall prevent a recipient from considering an employee's sex in relation to employment in a locker room or toilet facility used only by members of one sex. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Other Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.600" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.6.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.600   Covered programs.</HEAD>
<P>The financial assistance programs to which this part applies are listed in Appendix A to 10 CFR part 1040. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1042.605" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.18.6.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1042.605   Enforcement procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The investigative, compliance, and enforcement procedural provisions of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d) are hereby adopted and applied to these Title IX regulations. These procedures may be found at 10 CFR part 1040, subparts G and H.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1044" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1044—SECURITY REQUIREMENTS FOR PROTECTED DISCLOSURES UNDER SECTION 3164 OF THE NATIONAL DEFENSE AUTHORIZATION ACT FOR FISCAL YEAR 2000 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.,</I> 7239, and 50 U.S.C. 2401 <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 4642, Jan. 18, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1044.01" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.01   What are the purpose and scope of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part prescribes the security requirements for making protected disclosures of classified or unclassified controlled nuclear information under the whistleblower protection provisions of section 3164 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2000. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> The security requirements for making protected disclosures in this part are independent of, and not subject to any limitations that may be provided in, the Whistleblower Protection Act of 1989 (Public Law 101-12) or any other law that may provide protection for disclosures of information by employees of DOE or of a DOE contractor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 54645, Oct. 30, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.02" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.02   Who must follow the requirements contained in this part?</HEAD>
<P>The requirements apply to you if you are: 
</P>
<P>(a) An employee of DOE, including the National Nuclear Security Administration, or one of its contractors; 
</P>
<P>(b) Engaged in DOE defense activities; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Wish to make a protected disclosure as described in § 1044.04 of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.03" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.03   What definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart: 
</P>
<P><I>Atomic Energy Act</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Classified information</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Information classified as Restricted Data or Formerly Restricted Data under the Atomic Energy Act; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Information that has been determined pursuant to Executive Order 12958 or prior Executive Orders to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classification status when in document form (also referred to as “National Security Information” in 10 CFR Part 1045 or “defense information” in the Atomic Energy Act). 
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any industrial, educational, commercial or other entity, grantee or licensee at any tier, including an individual, that has executed an agreement with the Federal Government for the purpose of performing under a contract, license or other agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Defense activities</I> means activities of DOE engaged in support of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The production, testing, sampling, maintenance, repair, modification, assembly, disassembly, utilization, transportation, or retirement of nuclear weapons or components of nuclear weapons; 
</P>
<P>(2) The production, utilization, or transportation of nuclear material for military applications; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The safeguarding of activities, equipment, or facilities which support the production of nuclear weapons or nuclear material for nuclear weapons. 
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy, including the National Nuclear Security Administration. 
</P>
<P><I>Unclassified controlled nuclear information</I> means unclassified government information prohibited from unauthorized dissemination under section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act and DOE implementing regulations in 10 CFR part 1017. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.04" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.04   What is a protected disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>A protected disclosure is: 
</P>
<P>(a) A disclosure of classified or unclassified controlled nuclear information that you reasonably believe provides direct and specific evidence of—
</P>
<P>(1) A violation of law or Federal regulation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Gross mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, or an abuse of authority; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A false statement to Congress on pursuant to an issue of material fact; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Protected pursuant to the procedures in this part, including the security procedures referenced in § 1044.11; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Revealed only to a person or organization described in § 1044.06. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.05" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.05   What is the effect of a disclosure qualifying as a “protected disclosure”?</HEAD>
<P>If a DOE or DOE contractor employee follows the procedures of this part when making a disclosure of classified or unclassified controlled nuclear information, then the employer (DOE or DOE contractor as applicable) may not discharge, demote, or otherwise discriminate against the employee as a reprisal for making the disclosure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.06" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.06   Who may receive a protected disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>The following persons or organizations may receive a protected disclosure: 
</P>
<P>(a) A member of a committee of Congress having primary responsibility for oversight of the department, agency, or element of the Government to which the disclosed information relates; 
</P>
<P>(b) An employee of Congress who is a staff member of such a committee and has an appropriate security access authorization for the information being disclosed; 
</P>
<P>(c) The Inspector General of the Department of Energy; 
</P>
<P>(d) The Federal Bureau of Investigation; or 
</P>
<P>(e) Any other element of the Government designated by the Secretary of Energy as authorized to receive the information being disclosed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.07" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.07   How can you find out if a particular person is authorized to receive a protected disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>You must contact the Department of Energy Inspector General for help in determining whether a particular person is authorized to receive the classified or unclassified controlled nuclear information you wish to disclose. The Inspector General will contact the Office of Personnel Security as necessary to determine the security access authorization of the person to receive the protected disclosure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 4642, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 68736, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.08" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.08   Do you have to submit the documents for classification review before you give them to someone?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, you must submit each document with a classification or control marking and any unmarked document generated in a classified or controlled subject area to the Inspector General. The Inspector General forwards each document to the Office of Classification for a determination as to whether the information in the document is properly classified, controlled, or may be released to the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 4642, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 68736, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.09" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.09   What do you do if you plan to disclose classified or unclassified controlled nuclear information orally rather than by providing copies of documents?</HEAD>
<P>You must describe in detail to the Inspector General what information you wish to disclose. The Inspector General may require that the information to be disclosed be put in writing in order to ensure the Inspector General obtains and provides accurate advice. The Inspector General will consult with the Office of Classification who will provide you with advice, through the Inspector General, as to whether the information is classified or controlled and any steps needed to protect the information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 4642, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 68736, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.10   Will your identity be protected?</HEAD>
<P>Yes, both the Inspector General and the Office of Classification must protect, consistent with legal requirements, your identity and any information about your disclosure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 4642, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 68736, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.11   How do you protect the information that you want to disclose?</HEAD>
<P>To protect classified information and unclassified controlled nuclear information you plan to disclose, you must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Only disclose the information to personnel who possess the appropriate clearance and need-to-know for the information disclosed as required in 10 CFR part 710, after verifying any special authorizations or accesses, such as Sensitive Compartmented Information, Special Access Program, and Weapon Data information; 
</P>
<P>(b) Use only equipment (such as computers or typewriters) that is approved for classified processing for the generation of classified documents; 
</P>
<P>(c) Mark documents as required by 10 CFR part 1045 (classified information), 10 CFR Part 1017 (unclassified controlled nuclear information), or as required by the Office of Classification. 
</P>
<P>(d) Use only approved copiers to reproduce documents; 
</P>
<P>(e) Store classified documents in facilities approved by the U.S. Government for the storage of classified material; 
</P>
<P>(f) Use only approved destruction devices to destroy classified documents; 
</P>
<P>(g) Use only appropriate secure means, such as secure facsimile or secure telephone, to provide classified information orally or electronically when transmitting or communicating that information (e.g. the applicable classified mailing address); and 
</P>
<P>(h) Follow any additional specific instructions from the Office of Health, Safety and Security on how to protect the information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 4642, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 68736, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1044.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.19.0.45.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1044.12   What procedures can you invoke if you believe you have been discharged, demoted, or otherwise discriminated against as a reprisal for making a protected disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>If you believe you have been discriminated against as a reprisal for making a protected disclosure, you may submit a complaint to the Director of the Office of Hearings and Appeals, HG-1/L'Enfant Plaza Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-1615, or you may send your complaint to the Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals, by facsimile to FAX number (202) 287-1415. In your complaint, you should give your reasons for believing that you have been discriminated against as a reprisal for making a protected disclosure, and include any information you think is relevant to your complaint. The Office of Hearings and Appeals will conduct an investigation of your complaint unless the Director determines your complaint is frivolous. The Director will notify you in writing if your complaint is found to be frivolous. If an investigation is conducted, the Director will submit a report of the investigation to you, to the employer named in your complaint, and to the Secretary of Energy, or the Secretary's designee. The Secretary, or the Secretary's designee, will take appropriate action, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 7239(k), to abate any discriminatory actions taken as reprisal for making a protected disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 4642, Jan. 18, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 68736, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1045" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1045—NUCLEAR CLASSIFICATION AND DECLASSIFICATION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2011; E.O. 13526, 75 FR 705, 3 CFR 2010 Comp., pp. 298-327.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED/><PSPACE>Editorial Note:</PSPACE><P>Nomenclature changes to part 1045 appear at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023, and 88 FR 82238, Nov. 24, 2023.
</P></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.1.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.5   What is the purpose of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements sections 141, 142, and 146 of the Atomic Energy Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>) (AEA) and describes the procedures to be used by the public in questioning or appealing DOE decisions regarding the classification of NSI under E.O. 13526, and 32 CFR part 2001, <I>Classified National Security Information.</I> This part is divided into six subparts:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A—“Introduction” specifies to whom these rules apply, describes how to submit comments or suggestions concerning the policies and procedures in this part, describes how to request an exemption from or an equivalency to a provision in this part; outlines sanctions imposed for violating the policies and procedures in this part; defines key terms; and lists acronyms used in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B—“Program Management of Restricted Data (RD), Formerly Restricted Data (RD), and Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information (TFNI) Classification Programs” specifies responsibilities of officials in DOE and other agencies in the role of identifying RD, transclassifying RD to FRD or to TFNI, and returning FRD or TFNI to RD; discusses the systematic declassification review of information/matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI; and describes the “no comment” policy.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C—“Determining if Information is RD, FRD, or TFNI” describes how information is initially classified as RD, transclassified as FRD or TFNI, or declassified; lists criteria for evaluating whether RD, FRD, or TFNI should be classified or declassified; describes the prohibitions against classifying information as RD, FRD, or TFNI; lists areas of information that are presumed to be RD or unclassified; specifies how privately generated information may be classified as RD; defines the classification levels; describes how to submit proposals for RD, FRD, and TFNI; describes how to challenge the classification or declassification of RD, FRD, or TFNI; and describes the issuance of classification guides to promulgate classification and declassification determinations.
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart D—“Classifying and Declassifying Matter Containing RD, FRD, or TFNI” describes who has the authority to classify and declassify matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI; the appointment and training of these individuals; discusses the use of classified addendums; describes classification by association or compilation; specifies who must review matter that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI intended for public release; describes what to do if an RD Derivative Classifier or a person trained to classify matter containing TFNI cannot locate classification guidance to make a determination; describes the classification and declassification marking requirements; and states the prohibition against the automatic declassification of matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(5) Subpart E—“Government-wide Procedures for Handling Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and Mandatory Declassification Review (MDR) Requests for Matter Marked as or Potentially Containing RD, FRD, or TFNI” describes how agencies process FOIA or MDR requests and appeals for matter marked as or potentially containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(6) Subpart F—“DOE Procedures for MDR Requests” describes how DOE FOIA and MDR requests and appeals for matter marked as or potentially containing NSI, RD, FRD, or TFNI are submitted and processed.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.1.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.10   To whom does this part apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subparts A, B, C, and D apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) Any person or agency with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI;
</P>
<P>(2) Any person or agency who generates information that has the potential to be RD, FRD, or TFNI; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any person or agency who generates matter that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart E applies to government agencies who receive Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) or Mandatory Declassification Review (MDR) requests for matter that is marked as or potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart F applies to DOE and to any person submitting a Mandatory Declassification Review request for DOE matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.15" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.1.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.15   What is the process for submitting a question or a comment on any of the policies and procedures contained in this part?</HEAD>
<P>Any person who has a question or a comment on DOE's classification and declassification policies and procedures under this part may submit the question or comment in writing to the Director, Office of Classification, EHSS-60/Germantown Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. The correspondence should contain the question or comment, include applicable background information and/or citations, as appropriate, and must provide an address for the response. The Director will make every effort to respond within 60 days. Under no circumstance will anyone be subject to retribution for asking a question or making a comment regarding DOE's classification and declassification policies and procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.20" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.1.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.20   How does an agency request an exemption or equivalency to meet a provision in this part?</HEAD>
<P>The agency must submit a request for an exemption or an equivalency to the procedural provisions under this part in writing to the Director, Office of Classification, EHSS-60/Germantown Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. The request must provide all relevant facts, to include any applicable citations, describing the procedure and why the exemption or equivalency is required. If the request is for an equivalency, it must include a proposed alternate procedure to meet the intent of the procedure for which the equivalency is being requested.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.25" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.1.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.25   What actions can be taken against a person who violates the requirements in this part?</HEAD>
<P>Any knowing, willful, or negligent action contrary to the requirements of this part that results in the misclassification of information is subject to appropriate sanctions. Such sanctions may range from administrative sanctions (<I>e.g.,</I> reprimand, suspension, termination) to civil or criminal penalties, depending on the nature and severity of the action as determined by the appropriate authority in accordance with applicable laws. Other violations of the policies and procedures in this part may be grounds for administrative sanctions as determined by an appropriate authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.30" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.1.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.30   What definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means any “executive agency” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105; any “Military Department” as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; and any other entity within the executive branch that has access to RD, FRD, or TFNI information or matter.
</P>
<P><I>Associate RD Management Official (ARDMO)</I> means a person appointed in accordance with agency policy to assist the RD Management Official (RDMO) with managing the implementation of this part within that agency.


</P>
<P><I>Atomic Energy Act (AEA)</I> means the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Automatic Declassification</I> means the declassification of NSI based on a specific date, event, or timeframe, in accordance with E.O. 13526, or prior or successor orders.
</P>
<P><I>Classification</I> means the act or process by which information or matter is determined to require protection as RD, FRD, or TFNI, under the AEA or as NSI under E.O. 13526 or prior or successor orders.
</P>
<P><I>Classification category</I> identifies whether information is classified by statute or E.O. The classification categories are: RD, FRD, TFNI (classified by the AEA), and NSI (classified by E.O.).
</P>
<P><I>Classification guidance</I> means any instruction or source approved by an appropriate authority that prescribes the classification of specific information (<I>e.g.,</I> classification guide, classification bulletins, portion-marked source documents).
</P>
<P><I>Classification guide</I> means a written record of detailed instructions, approved by an appropriate authority, that explicitly identifies whether specific information is classified, usually concerning a system, plan, project, or program. If classified, the level and category of classification assigned to such information is specified. For NSI, the classification duration is also specified.
</P>
<P><I>Classified information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Information determined to be RD, FRD, or TFNI under the AEA and this part, or
</P>
<P>(2) Information that has been determined pursuant to E.O. 13526 or any predecessor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classification status when in documentary form.
</P>
<P><I>Classification level</I> means one of the three following designators for RD, FRD, and TFNI:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Top Secret (TS)</I> is applied to RD, FRD, or TFNI that is vital to the national security and the unauthorized disclosure of which could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security that the appropriate official is able to identify or describe.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secret (S)</I> is applied to RD, FRD, or TFNI, the unauthorized disclosure of which could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security that the appropriate official is able to identify or describe.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Confidential (C)</I> is applied to RD, FRD, or TFNI the unauthorized disclosure of which could reasonably be expected to cause undue risk to the common defense and security that the appropriate official is able to identify or describe.
</P>
<P><I>Classified matter</I> means anything in physical or electronic form that contains or reveals classified information.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any industrial, educational, commercial, or other entity, grantee, or licensee at all tiers, including a person that has executed an agreement with the Federal Government for the purpose of performing under a contract, license, or other agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Declassification</I> means a determination by an appropriate authority that:
</P>
<P>(1) Information no longer warrants protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of the national security; or
</P>
<P>(2) Matter no longer contains or reveals classified information.
</P>
<P><I>DOE</I> means the Department of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Director, Office of Classification,</I> means DOE's Director, Office of Classification.
</P>
<P><I>Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security</I> means DOE's Director for Environment, Health, Safety and Security or any person to whom the Director's duties are delegated.
</P>
<P><I>Downgrading</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A decision by DOE that information classified as RD or TFNI is classified at a lower level than currently identified in a DOE or joint classification guide;
</P>
<P>(2) A joint decision by DOE and the Department of Defense (DoD) that FRD is classified at a lower level than currently identified in a DOE or joint classification guide; or
</P>
<P>(3) A decision by an RD Derivative Classifier (or in the case of TFNI, a person trained to derivatively classify TFNI) based on classification guides and bulletins that matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI is classified at a lower level than currently marked.
</P>
<P>(4) A decision, based on a DOE or joint classification guide, by an authorized person that matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI is classified at a less sensitive category (<I>e.g.,</I> RD to FRD, RD to NSI) than currently marked.
</P>
<P><I>Formerly Restricted Data (FRD)</I> means classified information removed from the RD category under the AEA (section 142(d)), after DOE and DoD jointly determine it is related primarily to the military utilization of nuclear weapons and that the information can be adequately protected in a manner similar to NSI.
</P>
<P><I>Government</I> means the executive branch of the Federal Government of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Government information</I> means information that is owned by, produced by or for, or is under the control of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P><I>Information</I> means facts, data, or knowledge, as opposed to the medium in which it is contained.
</P>
<P><I>Initial determination</I> means the process used by the Director, Office of Classification, to determine if new information is RD. New information that falls under the definition of RD is presumed classified as RD until the Director, Office of Classification makes the initial determination as to its classification status.
</P>
<P><I>Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel (ISCAP)</I> means a Panel established and administered pursuant to E.O. 13526 and prior or successor E.O.s to perform functions specified in the order with respect to NSI.
</P>
<P><I>Matter</I> means any combination of physical documents, electronic instances of information or data (including email) at rest or in transit, or information or data presentation or representation regardless of physical form or characteristics.
</P>
<P><I>National security</I> means the national defense or foreign relations of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>National Security Information (NSI)</I> means information that has been determined pursuant to E.O. 13526 or prior or successor E.O.s to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classification status.
</P>
<P><I>Nuclear weapon</I> means atomic weapon.
</P>
<P><I>Originating activity,</I> for the purpose of RD, FRD, or TFNI, means any development of specific matter (<I>e.g.,</I> report, guide) within an organization, working group, or between persons, including coordination of a product for classification review.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, trust, estate, public or private institution, group, Government agency other than the Commission, any State or any political subdivision of, or any political entity within a State, any foreign government or nation or any political subdivision of any such government or nation, or other entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any legal successor, representative, agent, or agency of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Portion marking</I> means the application of certain classification markings to reasonably segregable sections of matter (<I>e.g.,</I> paragraphs, phrases, sentences). This also includes any markings required by national policy to control portions of unclassified information.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted Data (RD)</I> means all data concerning the design, manufacture, or utilization of atomic weapons; the production of special nuclear material; or the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, except for data declassified or removed from the RD category pursuant to section 142 of the AEA.
</P>
<P><I>RD Derivative Classifier</I> means a person specifically trained and, when required, designated to derivatively classify matter containing RD or FRD in areas in which they have programmatic expertise.
</P>
<P><I>RD Management Official (RDMO)</I> means a person appointed by an agency to be responsible for managing the implementation of this part within the agency.
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P><I>Source document</I> means existing classified, portion-marked matter that contains classified information that is incorporated, paraphrased, restated, or generated in new form into new matter.
</P>
<P><I>Special nuclear materials</I> means special nuclear material as defined in the AEA.
</P>
<P><I>Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information (TFNI)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Information concerning the nuclear energy programs of other nations (including subnational groups) that is removed from the RD category under the AEA (section 142(e)) after DOE and the Director of National Intelligence (DNI) jointly determine that the information is necessary to carry out intelligence-related activities under the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, and that the information can be adequately protected in a manner similar to NSI. TFNI includes information removed from the RD category by past agreements between DOE and the Director of Central Intelligence or past and future agreements with the DNI.
</P>
<P>(2) TFNI does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) RD or FRD concerning United Kingdom (U.K.) or Canadian programs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any U.S. RD or FRD, including that which the U.S. has transmitted to other nations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any evaluation of foreign information based on the use of U.S. RD or FRD unless also specifically transclassified to TFNI or any evaluation that could reveal such data concerning the U.S., U.K., or Canadian programs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Classified atomic energy information received from a foreign government pursuant to an agreement imposing security measures equivalent for those in effect for RD; or
</P>
<P>(v) Classified information on the Tripartite Gas Centrifuge and its successor programs, including data on the gas centrifuge work of each of the participants.
</P>
<P><I>TFNI guideline</I> means a policy document that describes information which meets the TFNI criteria for various collection assets.
</P>
<P><I>Upgrading</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A decision by DOE that information classified as RD or TFNI is classified at a higher level than currently identified in a DOE or joint classification guide;
</P>
<P>(2) A joint decision by DOE and DoD that FRD is classified at a higher level than currently identified in a DOE or joint classification guide; or
</P>
<P>(3) A decision by an RD Derivative Classifier, (or in the case of TFNI, a person trained to classify TFNI) based on classification guidance, that matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI is classified at a higher level or category than currently marked. This includes correcting the classification level or category of matter that was never marked as well as matter erroneously marked as unclassified.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.35" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.1.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.35   What acronyms are commonly used in this part?</HEAD>
<P>The following acronyms are commonly used throughout this part:
</P>
<FP-1>AEA—The Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ARDMO—Associate RD Management Official
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C—Confidential
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CD—Compact Disk
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CFR—Code of Federal Regulations
</FP-1>
<FP-1>CUI—Controlled Unclassified Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DCI—Director of Central Intelligence
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DNI—Director of National Intelligence
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DoD—Department of Defense
</FP-1>
<FP-1>DOE—Department of Energy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E.O.—Executive order
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FOIA—Freedom of Information Act
</FP-1>
<FP-1>FRD—Formerly Restricted Data
</FP-1>
<FP-1>IC—Intelligence Community
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ICD—Intelligence Community Directive
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ICPG—Intelligence Community Policy Guidance
</FP-1>
<FP-1>ISCAP—Interagency Security Classification Appeals Panel
</FP-1>
<FP-1>MDR—Mandatory Declassification Review
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NNSA—National Nuclear Security Administration
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NRC—Nuclear Regulatory Commission
</FP-1>
<FP-1>NSI—National Security Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pub. L.—Public Law
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RD—Restricted Data
</FP-1>
<FP-1>RDMO—RD Management Official
</FP-1>
<FP-1>S—Secret
</FP-1>
<FP-1>TFNI—Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information
</FP-1>
<FP-1>U.K.—United Kingdom


</FP-1>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Management of Restricted Data (RD), Formerly Restricted Data (FRD), and Transclassified Foreign Nuclear Information (TFNI) Classification Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.40" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.2.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.40   Is there an official in each agency with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI who manages the agency's RD, FRD, or TFNI program to ensure the requirements in this part are met?</HEAD>
<P>Yes. The head of each agency with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI:
</P>
<P>(a) Must appoint at least one Federal official to serve as an RDMO who ensures the proper implementation of this part within his or her agency and serves as the primary point of contact for coordination with the Director, Office of Classification, for classification and declassification issues involving RD, FRD, and TFNI. Within DoD, a minimum of at least one RDMO must be appointed in each military department.
</P>
<P>(b) May appoint or authorize the RDMO to appoint one or more Associate RDMOs if there is more than one organization that has access to RD, FRD, or TFNI. In such cases, the RDMO is the lead official and the primary point of contact with the Director, Office of Classification.
</P>
<P>(c) Must ensure contact information for each RDMO and ARDMO is sent to the Director, Office of Classification, within 30 days of the appointment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.45" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.2.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.45   What are the responsibilities of DOE officials and personnel, and the officials and personnel of other agencies, under this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary or Deputy Secretary of Energy must determine in writing whether information privately generated by persons in the United States but not under a Government contract is classified as RD. This responsibility cannot be delegated.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security:
</P>
<P>(1) Determines if RD and TFNI may be published without undue risk to the common defense and security and declassified;
</P>
<P>(2) Jointly with DoD, determines which information in the RD category relating primarily to the military utilization of nuclear weapons may be transclassified to the FRD category;
</P>
<P>(3) Jointly with DoD, determines which information in the FRD category may be removed from that category and returned to the RD category and notifies all appropriate agencies as necessary of the change;
</P>
<P>(4) Jointly with DoD, declassifies FRD and RD relating primarily to the military utilization of nuclear weapons that may be published without undue risk to the common defense and security;
</P>
<P>(5) Jointly with the DNI, determines which information in the RD category concerning nuclear energy programs of foreign governments may be transclassified to the TFNI category to carry out the provisions of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended;
</P>
<P>(6) Jointly with the DNI, determines which information in the TFNI category may be removed from that category and returned to the RD category and notifies all appropriate agencies as necessary of the change;
</P>
<P>(7) Considers declassification proposals received from the public or other agencies or their contractors concerning RD, FRD, and TFNI, and coordinates responses with the appropriate agencies;
</P>
<P>(8) Makes the final appeal determination concerning the denial of any RD, FRD, or TFNI contained in matter requested under statute or Executive Order; and
</P>
<P>(9) Makes the final appeal determination for any formal classification challenges for RD, DOE FRD, and TFNI.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Office of Classification:
</P>
<P>(1) Issues the Government-wide requirements for the classification and declassification of RD, FRD, and TFNI in accordance with the AEA and this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Grants exemptions and equivalencies to provisions of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Develops and interprets policies to implement RD, FRD, and TFNI classification programs in coordination with DoD for FRD, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(4) Determines whether nuclear-related information is RD;
</P>
<P>(5) Determines if new information in a previously declassified subject area warrants classification as RD based on the criteria in § 1045.70, except where the information has been widely disseminated in the open literature;
</P>
<P>(6) Assigns a classification level to RD and TFNI, and, jointly with DoD, to FRD, that reflects the sensitivity of the information to the national security;
</P>
<P>(7) Serves as the Denying Official for RD, DOE FRD, and TFNI portions of records requested under statute or Executive Order;
</P>
<P>(8) Establishes a system for processing, tracking, and recording formal classification challenges and declassification proposals made by persons with access to RD, FRD, and TFNI;
</P>
<P>(9) Considers challenges to RD, FRD, and TFNI, coordinates challenges with other agencies, as appropriate, and makes the initial determination pertaining to the challenge of a classification determination concerning RD, DOE FRD, or TFNI;
</P>
<P>(10) Delegates the authority to declassify matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI to qualified individuals in other Government agencies;
</P>
<P>(11) Develops and distributes classification guides to promulgate classification and declassification determinations for RD, FRD, and TFNI, and jointly develops classification guides and TFNI guidelines with DoD, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC), the National Aeronautics and Space Administration, and other agencies in the RD, FRD, or TFNI categories or subject areas for which DOE and the agencies share responsibility;
</P>
<P>(12) Reviews classification guides that contain RD and jointly reviews classification guides that contain FRD topics with the appropriate DoD authority (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or successor instructions) that are developed by other agencies;
</P>
<P>(13) Reviews TFNI guidelines and classification guides containing TFNI topics developed by other agencies;
</P>
<P>(14) Assists agencies with the implementation of RD, FRD, and TFNI classification programs to comply with this part;
</P>
<P>(15) In consultation with the agency RDMO, determines when to conduct on-site reviews of agency programs established under this part to evaluate the agency's implementation of the requirements;
</P>
<P>(16) Coordinates on-site reviews of the Intelligence Community (IC) with the DNI;
</P>
<P>(17) Reviews agency implementing policies;
</P>
<P>(18) Develops training materials related to implementing this part and provides these materials to RDMOs and other appropriate persons;
</P>
<P>(19) Reviews any RD-, FRD-, or TFNI-related training material submitted by other agencies to ensure consistency with current policies;
</P>
<P>(20) Periodically hosts a meeting of RDMOs to disseminate information or address issues; and
</P>
<P>(21) Responds to questions and considers comments received from any person, including the public, concerning RD, FRD, and TFNI classification and declassification policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) DoD jointly with DOE:
</P>
<P>(1) Determines which information in the RD category relating primarily to the military utilization of nuclear weapons may be transclassified to the FRD category;
</P>
<P>(2) Determines which information in the FRD category may be removed from that category and returned to the RD category;
</P>
<P>(3) Assigns a classification level to FRD that reflects the sensitivity of the information to the national security;
</P>
<P>(4) Prepares classification guides for FRD; and
</P>
<P>(5) Declassifies FRD and RD relating primarily to the military utilization of nuclear weapons that may be published without undue risk to the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(6) Considers challenges to FRD, and coordinates challenges with other agencies, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) The DNI jointly with DOE:
</P>
<P>(1) Determines which information in the RD category concerning nuclear energy programs of foreign governments may be transclassified to the TFNI category to carry out the provisions of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended;
</P>
<P>(2) Determines which information in the TFNI category may be removed from that category and returned to the RD category; and
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinates IC Directives (ICD) and IC Policy Guidance (ICPG) concerning RD, FRD, and TFNI to ensure policies are consistent;
</P>
<P>(f) NRC:
</P>
<P>(1) Jointly with DOE, develops classification guides for programs over which both agencies have cognizance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ensures the review and proper classification of matter containing RD by RD Derivative Classifiers that is generated by NRC or by its licensed or regulated facilities and activities.
</P>
<P>(g) Heads of Agencies with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that matter containing RD, FRD, and TFNI is reviewed by a person with appropriate authority and properly classified.
</P>
<P>(2) Must appoint at least one RDMO to manage the implementation of this part within the agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure implementing directives for this part are developed, submitted to DOE for review prior to issuance, to ensure consistency with this part, and promulgated;
</P>
<P>(4) Should periodically review holdings containing RD, FRD, or TFNI that are likely to have a high degree of public interest and a likelihood of declassification. If any matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI is identified for declassification, ensure coordination for the declassification of matter marked as RD, FRD, or TFNI with DOE or DoD, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(5) Develop and promulgate procedures for persons with access to RD or FRD to submit classification challenges and declassification proposals for guide topics that are RD or FRD or for matter containing RD or FRD. If the agency possesses TFNI, develops and promulgates procedures for persons with access to TFNI to submit classification challenges and declassification proposals for guide topics that are TFNI or matter containing TFNI;
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure joint classification guides for programs over which DOE and the agency have cognizance are developed;
</P>
<P>(7) Ensure that any classification guides the agency develops or revises that contain RD or FRD, topics are coordinated with the Director, Office of Classification prior to issuance, to ensure consistency with DOE and DoD guidance;
</P>
<P>(8) Ensure that any TFNI guidelines or classification guides containing TFNI topics the agency develops or revises are reviewed by the Director, Office of Classification, prior to issuance for consistency with policies developed by DOE and current transclassification agreements;
</P>
<P>(9) Ensure that agency classification guides containing RD, FRD, or TFNI topics are reviewed for consistency with current DOE classification guides at least once every 5 years and that appropriate revisions are made, if necessary;
</P>
<P>(10) Ensure that NSI records of permanent historical value are reviewed as required under the “Special Historical Records Review Plan (Supplement)” established under Public Law 105-261 and 106-65 or subsequent statutes;
</P>
<P>(11) Ensure that each RDMO and Federal RD Derivative Classifier whose duties involve the classification of a significant amount of matter containing RD or FRD have his or her personnel performance evaluated with respect to such classification activities; and
</P>
<P>(12) Ensure that contracting officers are notified of any contracts that have access to or generate matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI, and that the requirements of this part are incorporated into those contracts.
</P>
<P>(13) Ensure DOE classification guides, classification bulletins and matter containing DOE classification guide topics that is not itself classified is safeguarded and its dissemination is limited to persons with a need to know.
</P>
<P>(h) Agency RDMOs:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that procedures for training and designating ARDMOs and RD Derivative Classifiers within the agency are established;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that persons with access to RD, FRD, and TFNI are trained in accordance with § 1045.120;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that RD Derivative Classifiers are designated and trained in accordance with §§ 1045.115 and 1045.120, respectively;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that persons who derivatively classify matter containing TFNI are trained in accordance with § 1045.120;
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure that RD Derivative Classifiers and persons who derivatively classify TFNI have access to any classification guides needed;
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that a periodic review of a sample of the agency's RD, FRD, and TFNI derivative classification determinations is conducted that evaluates that each determination was made by appropriately trained and (when required) designated employees acting within his or her authority, that the determination is accurate, and that the markings are applied correctly;
</P>
<P>(7) In consultation with the Director, Office of Classification determine when to conduct on-site reviews of their agency program established under this part to evaluate the agency's implementation of the requirements; and
</P>
<P>(8) Cooperate with and provide information as necessary to the Director, Office of Classification, to fulfill their responsibilities under this part.
</P>
<P>(i) RD Derivative Classifiers:
</P>
<P>(1) Must receive training prescribed by § 1045.120;
</P>
<P>(2) Must use approved DOE or joint classification guides, in the subject areas in which they have programmatic expertise, or an applicable portion-marked source document as the basis for derivative decisions to classify or upgrade matter containing RD or FRD; and
</P>
<P>(3) Must use DOE classification guides and bulletins, joint DOE-agency classification guides, or agency classification guides containing RD or FRD topics that have been coordinated with DOE as the basis to downgrade the level of matter containing RD or FRD. Source documents must not be used as a basis to downgrade matter containing RD or FRD;
</P>
<P>(4) Must not downgrade the category of matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI (<I>e.g.,</I> RD to NSI, FRD to NSI), unless granted this authority by DOE for RD or TFNI or by DOE or DoD for FRD;
</P>
<P>(5) Must not declassify matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI unless delegated this authority by DOE for RD or TFNI, or by DOE or DoD for FRD; and
</P>
<P>(6) Can remove the RD, FRD, and TFNI portions from a portion-marked source document in accordance with § 1045.150.
</P>
<P>(j) Persons who derivatively classify matter containing TFNI:
</P>
<P>(1) Must receive training prescribed by § 1045.120;
</P>
<P>(2) Must use approved TFNI guidelines, DOE or joint classification guides in the subject areas in which they have programmatic expertise, or an applicable portion-marked source document as the basis for derivative decisions to classify or upgrade matter containing TFNI; and
</P>
<P>(3) Must not declassify or downgrade the category of matter containing TFNI unless delegated this authority by DOE.
</P>
<P>(k) Persons with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI:
</P>
<P>(1) Must be trained in accordance with § 1045.120;
</P>
<P>(2) Must submit matter that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI to a person with the appropriate authority for review in accordance with § 1045.125;
</P>
<P>(3) Must submit matter that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI to a person with the appropriate authority for declassification or public release.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.50" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.2.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.55" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.2.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.55   When are RD, FRD, and TFNI considered for declassification?</HEAD>
<P>RD, FRD, and TFNI information and matter are considered for declassification during several processes.
</P>
<P>(a) DOE reviews all classification guides containing RD, FRD, or TFNI topics at least once every 5 years to determine if information identified as RD, FRD, or TFNI still meets the criteria for classification under § 1045.70. If RD, FRD, and TFNI information contained in a classification guide does not meet the standards for classification, the information is declassified.
</P>
<P>(b) TFNI is no longer TFNI when comparable U.S. RD is declassified.
</P>
<P>(c) Agencies with holdings containing RD, FRD, or TFNI should periodically review holdings that are likely to have a high degree of public interest and a likelihood of declassification. If any matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI is identified for declassification, agencies must coordinate the declassification of matter marked as RD, FRD, or TFNI with DOE or DoD, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) RD, FRD, or TFNI information or matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI in particular areas of public interest may be considered for declassification if sufficient interest is demonstrated. Proposals for the systematic review of given collections or subject areas must be addressed to the Director, Office of Classification, EHSS-60/Germantown Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(e) During the FOIA and MDR request process, agencies must refer any responsive matter that is marked as or potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI to DOE or DoD, as provided under Subpart F. During this process, the information may be reviewed to determine it still meets the standards for classification.
</P>
<P>(f) The public and persons with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI may submit a declassification proposal for RD, FRD, or TFNI under § 1045.105.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.60" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.2.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.60   Does an unauthorized public release of RD, FRD, or TFNI result in its declassification?</HEAD>
<P>The unauthorized disclosure of RD, FRD, or TFNI does not automatically result in its declassification. However, if a disclosure is sufficiently authoritative or credible, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security will examine the possibility of declassifying the information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.65" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.2.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.65   What are the responsibilities of a person with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI, if they see information in the open literature that they think is RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI, must not confirm or expand upon the classification status or technical accuracy of information in the open literature that is RD, FRD, or TFNI or suspected to be RD, FRD, or TFNI. Commenting on such information can cause greater damage to national security by confirming its location, classified nature, or technical accuracy.
</P>
<P>(b) Because the open literature may contain information that is still classified as RD, FRD, or TFNI, a person who has access to RD, FRD, or TFNI who incorporates information from the open literature that is potentially classified as RD, FRD, or TFNI into matter must ensure the matter is reviewed as required under § 1045.125 to ensure the information incorporated is not classified.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Determining if Information is RD, FRD, or TFNI</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.70" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.70   How is information initially determined to be RD?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For new information to be classified as RD it must fall under the definition of RD that states such information concerns: The design, manufacture, or utilization of nuclear weapons; the production of special nuclear material; or the use of special nuclear material in the production of energy, and the unauthorized release of the information must reasonably be expected to cause undue risk to the common defense and security.
</P>
<P>(b) This initial determination is made by the Director, Office of Classification after:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensuring the information is not prohibited from being classified under § 1045.75;
</P>
<P>(2) Considering whether the information falls within the classification or declassification presumptions in § 1045.80; and
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluating the criteria in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the information is so widely known or readily apparent to knowledgeable observers that its classification would cast doubt on the credibility of classification programs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether publication of the information would assist in the development of countermeasures or otherwise jeopardize any U.S. weapon or weapon system;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the information would hinder U.S. nonproliferation efforts by significantly assisting potential adversaries to develop or improve a nuclear weapon capability, produce nuclear weapons materials, or make other military use of nuclear energy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether information would assist terrorists to develop a nuclear weapon, produce nuclear materials, or use special nuclear material in a terrorist attack;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether publication of the information would have a detrimental effect on U.S. foreign relations;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether publication of the information would benefit the public welfare, taking into account the importance of the information to public discussion and education and potential contribution to economic growth; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether publication of the information would benefit the operation of any Government program by reducing operating costs or improving public acceptance.
</P>
<P>(c) In consideration of the analysis of the criteria of this section, if there is significant doubt about the need to classify the information, then the Director cannot make an initial determination to classify the information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.75" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.75   Are there prohibitions against information being classified, remaining classified, or prevented from being declassified as RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Yes. Information must not be classified or remain classified as RD, FRD, or TFNI to accomplish the purposes described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section. Persons must also not prevent information from being declassified as RD, FRD, or TFNI for the purposes described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Conceal violations of law, inefficiency, or administrative error;
</P>
<P>(c) Prevent embarrassment to a person, organization, or agency;
</P>
<P>(d) Restrain competition;
</P>
<P>(e) Prevent or delay the release of information that does not require protection for the national security or nonproliferation reasons;
</P>
<P>(f) Unduly restrict dissemination by assigning an improper classification level; or
</P>
<P>(g) Prevent or delay the release of information bearing solely on the physical environment or public or worker health and safety.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.80" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.80   What are the classification and declassification presumptions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director, Office of Classification and the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security consider the presumptions in paragraph (b)(1) of this section before applying the criteria in § 1045.70. These presumptions concern information in certain but not all nuclear-related areas that may generally be presumed to be RD or are generally unclassified. The term “generally” here means that as a rule, but not necessarily in every case, the information in the identified area is presumed classified or not classified as indicated. Inclusion of specific existing information in one of the presumption categories does not mean that new information in a category is or is not classified, but only that arguments to differ from the presumed classification status of the information should use the appropriate presumption as a starting point.
</P>
<P>(b) Information in the following areas is presumed to be RD:
</P>
<P>(1) Detailed designs, specifications, and functional descriptions of nuclear explosives, whether in the active stockpile or retired;
</P>
<P>(2) Material properties under conditions achieved in nuclear explosions that are principally useful only for design and analysis of nuclear weapons;
</P>
<P>(3) Vulnerabilities of U.S. nuclear weapons to sabotage, countermeasures, or unauthorized use;
</P>
<P>(4) Nuclear weapons logistics and operational performance information (<I>e.g.,</I> specific weapon deployments, yields, capabilities) related to military utilization of those weapons required by DoD;
</P>
<P>(5) Details of the critical steps or components in nuclear material production processes; and
</P>
<P>(6) Features of military nuclear reactors, especially naval nuclear propulsion reactors, that are not common to or required for civilian power reactors.
</P>
<P>(c) Information in the following areas is presumed to be unclassified:
</P>
<P>(1) Basic science: Mathematics, chemistry, theoretical and experimental physics, engineering, materials science, biology, and medicine;
</P>
<P>(2) Magnetic confinement fusion technology;
</P>
<P>(3) Civilian power reactors, including nuclear fuel cycle information but excluding technologies for uranium enrichment;
</P>
<P>(4) Source materials (defined as uranium and thorium and ores containing them);
</P>
<P>(5) Fact of use of safety features (<I>e.g.,</I> insensitive high explosives, fire resistant pits) to lower the risks and reduce the consequences of nuclear weapon accidents;
</P>
<P>(6) Generic nuclear weapons effects;
</P>
<P>(7) Physical and chemical properties of uranium and plutonium, most of their alloys and compounds, under standard temperature and pressure conditions;
</P>
<P>(8) Nuclear fuel reprocessing technology and reactor products not revealing classified production rates or inventories;
</P>
<P>(9) The fact, time, location, and yield range (<I>e.g.,</I> “less than 20 kilotons” or “20-150 kilotons”) of U.S. nuclear tests;
</P>
<P>(10) General descriptions of nuclear material production processes and theory of operation;
</P>
<P>(11) DOE special nuclear material aggregate inventories and production rates not revealing the size of or details concerning the nuclear weapons stockpile;
</P>
<P>(12) Types of waste products resulting from all DOE weapon and material production operations;
</P>
<P>(13) Any information solely relating to the public and worker health and safety or to environmental quality; and
</P>
<P>(14) The simple association or simple presence of any material (<I>i.e.,</I> element, compound, isotope, alloy, etc.) at a specified DOE site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 82238, Nov. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.85" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.85   How is information determined to be FRD or TFNI and can FRD or TFNI be returned to the RD category?</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible to become FRD or TFNI, information must first be classified as RD in accordance with the AEA and this part. FRD and TFNI are removed from and may be returned to the RD category under section 142 of the AEA. The process by which information is removed from the RD category and placed into the FRD or TFNI category or returned to the RD category is called transclassification and involves the following decisions:
</P>
<P>(1) For information to be transclassified from RD to the FRD category, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security and the appropriate official within DoD (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions) must jointly determine that the information relates primarily to the military utilization of nuclear weapons and can be adequately protected in a manner similar to NSI.
</P>
<P>(2) For information to be transclassified from RD to the TFNI category, the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security and the DNI must jointly determine that information concerning a foreign nuclear energy program that falls under the RD definition must be removed from the RD category in order to carry out the provisions of the National Security Act of 1947, as amended, and can be adequately protected in a manner similar to NSI.
</P>
<P>(b) The process to return FRD and TFNI to the RD category is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) FRD may be returned to the RD category if the DOE and DoD jointly determine that the programmatic requirements that caused the information to be removed from the RD category no longer apply, the information would be more appropriately protected as RD and returning the information to the RD category is in the interest of national security. DOE jointly with DoD must notify all appropriate agencies of the change.
</P>
<P>(2) TFNI may be returned to the RD category if the DOE and the DNI jointly determine that the programmatic requirements that caused the information to be removed from the RD category no longer apply, the information would be more appropriately protected as RD and returning the information to the RD category is in the interest of national security. DOE jointly with the DNI must notify all appropriate agencies of the change.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.90" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.90   Can information generated by private entities that is not owned by, produced by, or controlled by the U.S. Government be classified as RD?</HEAD>
<P>Yes. Under the AEA, DOE may classify information that is privately generated (<I>e.g.,</I> not under a Government contract) as RD. This may only be done in writing by the Secretary or Deputy Secretary. This responsibility cannot be delegated. Once such a determination is made, DOE must notify the public through the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> This notice is not required to reveal any details about the determination and must protect the national security as well as the interests of the private party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.95" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.95   What are the criteria used to assign levels to RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Director, Office of Classification, makes the initial determination that information is RD, he or she determines the appropriate level of the information based on the damage that would occur if there was an unauthorized disclosure of the information. The Director, Office of Classification, also determines the level for TFNI, and, jointly with the appropriate DoD official (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or successor instructions) determines the level for FRD information.
</P>
<P>(b) The three classification levels of RD, FRD, and TFNI are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Top Secret.</I> Top Secret is applied to information that is vital to the national security the unauthorized disclosure of which could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security that the appropriate official is able to identify or describe.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secret.</I> Secret is applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security that the appropriate official is able to identify or describe.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Confidential.</I> Confidential is applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which could reasonably be expected to cause undue risk to the common defense and security that the appropriate official is able to identify or describe.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.100" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.100   How are RD, FRD, and TFNI declassified?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section addresses the declassification of information, not derivatively classified matter. See Subpart D for requirements for the declassification of matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(b) RD and TFNI are declassified by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security by evaluating the criteria in § 1045.70. FRD requires the evaluation of the same criteria and a joint decision by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security and the appropriate DoD official (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41294, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.105" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.105   What is the method to request the declassification of RD, FRD or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person believes RD, FRD, or TFNI should not be classified, he or she may submit a declassification proposal. Proposals must be submitted in writing and must include a description of the information concerned and may include a reason for the request. If submitted by a person with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI, the request must be submitted through secure means. The proposal is processed as follows:
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security considers declassification proposals from the public and Government agencies and their contractors for the declassification of RD, FRD, and TFNI on an ongoing basis. For FRD, the Director, Office of Classification, will coordinate the declassification proposal with the appropriate DoD official (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions).
</P>
<P>(c) Declassification proposals may be sent to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, EHSS-1/Forrestal Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. For FRD, the proposal may be sent to the Director, Office of Classification, or the appropriate DoD official (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions). DOE and DoD must coordinate with one another concerning declassification proposals for FRD.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.110" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.3.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.110   How are challenges to the classification and declassification of RD, FRD, or TFNI submitted and processed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person with access to RD, FRD, or TFNI who believes that RD, FRD, or TFNI is improperly classified is encouraged and expected to challenge the classification. The challenge may be to information RD, FRD, or TFNI (<I>e.g.,</I> a guide topic) or the classification status of matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(b) Challenges are submitted in accordance with agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) Each agency must establish procedures for a person to challenge the classification status of RD, FRD, or TFNI if they believe that the classification status is improper. These procedures must:
</P>
<P>(1) Advise the person of their right to submit a challenge directly to the Director, Office of Classification, EHSS-60/Germantown Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, at any time.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that under no circumstances is an employee subject to retribution for challenging the classification status of RD, FRD, or TFNI;
</P>
<P>(3) Require the agency that initially receives the challenge to provide an initial response within 60 days to the person submitting the challenge.
</P>
<P>(4) Require the agency to advise the person of their appeal rights. If the employee is not satisfied with the agency response or the agency has not responded to the challenge within 180 days, the challenge involving RD, FRD, or TFNI may be appealed to the Director, Office of Classification.
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of FRD and RD related primarily to the military utilization of nuclear weapons, the Director, Office of Classification, coordinates with the appropriate DoD official (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions).
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of TFNI, the Director, Office of Classification, coordinates with DNI.
</P>
<P>(5) If the response to the initial appeal and its justification for classification does not satisfy the person making the challenge, a further appeal may be made to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, EHSS-1/Forrestal Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(d) Agency responses to RD or TFNI challenges are limited to interpreting the application of guidance to derivatively classify matter. Except for DoD, agency responses to FRD are limited to interpreting the application of guidance to derivatively classify matter. An agency may coordinate challenges regarding interpreting guidance for RD or TFNI with DOE, and may coordinate challenges regarding interpreting guidance for FRD with DOE or DoD.
</P>
<P>(e) Agencies must forward challenges that require decisions other than interpreting the application of guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> challenges to guide topics) to the Director, Office of Classification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Classifying and Declassifying Matter Containing RD, FRD, or TFNI</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.115" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.115   Who is authorized to derivatively classify matter that contains RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Specific authority and/or training is required to derivatively classify matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI. These derivative classification decisions must be based on a classification guide, a classification bulletin, or a portion-marked source document and must only be made in the RD Derivative Classifier's subject areas of expertise. In cases where guidance does not exist, for RD the Director, Office of Classification must make an initial determination that information is RD or that the matter contains RD, and for FRD DOE and DoD must jointly determine that the information is FRD or the matter contains FRD. No other agency or agency personnel has the authority to make an initial determination regarding RD or FRD. See § 1045.135 for the process for requesting a determination in cases where guidance does not exist.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person who derivatively classifies matter containing RD or FRD must be an RD Derivative Classifier.
</P>
<P>(c) Except for DoD military and DoD Federal civilian employees, each RD Derivative Classifier must be designated by name or position in writing in accordance with agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) An agency contractor employee may be an RD Derivative Classifier. All contractor employees, including DoD contractors, must be designated by name or position as such in writing in accordance with agency procedures.
</P>
<P>(e) Once a person is an RD Derivative Classifier for an agency, he or she may classify matter containing RD or FRD in those subject areas in which they have programmatic expertise for any agency, provided the other agency or agencies accept the existing authority.
</P>
<P>(f) No specific designation as an RD Derivative Classifier is required to classify matter containing TFNI. Any person who has received training required by § 1045.120 may classify matter containing TFNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.120" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.120   What training is required for persons who have access to or who derivatively classify matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to being authorized access to RD and FRD, a person must receive training that explains:
</P>
<P>(1) What information is potentially RD and FRD;
</P>
<P>(2) Matter that potentially contains RD or FRD must be reviewed by an RD Derivative Classifier to determine whether it contains RD or FRD;
</P>
<P>(3) DOE must review matter that potentially contains RD or TFNI for public release and DOE or DoD must review matter that potentially contains FRD for public release;
</P>
<P>(4) RD Derivative Classification authority is required to classify or upgrade matter containing RD or FRD, or to downgrade the level of matter containing RD or FRD;
</P>
<P>(5) Only a person trained in accordance with this section, may classify matter containing TFNI;
</P>
<P>(6) Matter containing RD, FRD, and TFNI is not automatically declassified and only DOE authorized persons may downgrade the category or declassify matter marked as containing RD; only DOE or DoD authorized persons may downgrade the category or declassify matter marked as containing FRD;
</P>
<P>(7) How to submit a challenge if they believe RD, FRD, or TFNI information (<I>e.g.,</I> a guide topic) or matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI is not properly classified; and
</P>
<P>(8) Access requirements for matter marked as containing RD or FRD.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person with access to RD and FRD must also receive periodic refresher briefings covering these same topics.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the training in paragraph (a) of this section, prior to derivatively classifying matter containing RD, or FRD and every 2 years thereafter, each RD Derivative Classifier must also receive training that explains:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of classification guides, classification bulletins, and portion-marked source documents to classify matter containing RD and FRD;
</P>
<P>(2) What to do if applicable classification guidance is not available;
</P>
<P>(3) Limitations on an RD Derivative Classifier's authority to remove RD or FRD portions from matter; and
</P>
<P>(4) Marking requirements for matter containing RD and FRD.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to having access to TFNI, and periodically thereafter, each person must receive the following training (which may be combined with the training required for access to RD or FRD):
</P>
<P>(1) What information is potentially TFNI;
</P>
<P>(2) Only a person with appropriate training may determine if matter contains TFNI;
</P>
<P>(3) Marking requirements for matter containing TFNI;
</P>
<P>(4) Matter containing TFNI is not automatically declassified and only DOE authorized persons may downgrade the category or declassify matter marked as containing TFNI; and
</P>
<P>(5) How to submit a challenge if they believe TFNI information (<I>e.g.,</I> a guide topic) or matter containing TFNI is not properly classified.
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to the training in § 1045.120(d), prior to derivatively classifying matter containing TFNI and every 2 years thereafter, each person who derivatively classifies matter containing TFNI must also receive training that explains:
</P>
<P>(1) The markings applied to matter containing TFNI;
</P>
<P>(2) Limitations on their authority to remove TFNI portions from matter;
</P>
<P>(3) Only DOE authorized persons may determine that classified matter no longer contains TFNI;
</P>
<P>(4) Only DOE authorized persons may declassify matter marked as containing TFNI; and
</P>
<P>(5) DOE must review matter that potentially contains TFNI for public release.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.125" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.125   What is the process for reviewing and derivatively classifying matter that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protecting and marking matter that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI prior to review.</I> Prior to the review of matter to determine if it contains RD, FRD, or TFNI, the matter must be protected at the overall potential highest level and category and marked as a working paper in accordance with § 1045.140.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Matter that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI that is intended for public release.</I> Any person who generates or possesses matter that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI that is intended for public release must ensure that it is reviewed by the Director, Office of Classification, or a DOE official granted the authority by delegation, regulation, or DOE directive, prior to release. FRD may also be reviewed by the appropriate DoD official as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Matter that potentially contains RD or FRD information that is not intended for public release.</I> Matter that potentially contains RD or FRD that is not intended for public release must be reviewed by an RD Derivative Classifier.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Matter that potentially contains TFNI that is not intended for public release.</I> Matter that potentially contains TFNI that is not intended for public release must be reviewed by a person who has been trained in accordance with § 1045.120(e).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Matter that incorporates information from the open literature that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI.</I> Because the open literature may contain information that is still classified as RD, FRD, or TFNI, matter that incorporates information from the open literature that is potentially RD, FRD, or TFNI must be reviewed as required under this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Matter being reviewed under E.O. 13526 or successor orders.</I> If, when reviewing matter under the automatic or systematic review provisions of E.O. 13526 or successor orders, the person finds matter potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI that it is not correctly marked:
</P>
<P>(1) An RD Classifier may review the matter to determine if it contains RD or FRD. If the matter is determined to contain RD or FRD, the matter must be appropriately marked and is exempt from automatic declassification.
</P>
<P>(2) A person trained to classify TFNI may review the matter to determine if it contains TFNI. If the matter is determined to contain TFNI, the matter must be appropriately marked and is exempt from automatic declassification.
</P>
<P>(3) If an authorized person is unable to make a determination for RD, FRD, or TFNI, the matter must be referred to DOE. Matter containing FRD may also be referred to DoD. The matter may not be automatically declassified until DOE or DoD makes a determination as to its classification status.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.130" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.130   How does an authorized person derivatively classify matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Derivative classification of RD or FRD.</I> For RD or FRD, an RD Derivative Classifier makes the derivative classification determination using:
</P>
<P>(1) A DOE classification guide or bulletin, a joint DOE-agency classification guide, an agency guide with RD/FRD topics that is within his or her programmatic area of expertise; or
</P>
<P>(2) An applicable portion-marked source document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Derivative classification of TFNI.</I> For TFNI, a person who is trained to derivatively classify matter containing TFNI makes the determination using:
</P>
<P>(1) Approved TFNI guidelines;
</P>
<P>(2) A DOE classification guide or bulletin, a joint DOE-agency classification guide, an agency guide with RD, FRD, or TFNI topics within his or her programmatic area of expertise; or
</P>
<P>(3) An applicable portion-marked source document.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Association and compilation.</I> (1) <I>RD, FRD, or TFNI classification based on association.</I> If two or more different, unclassified facts when combined in a specific way result in a classified statement, or if two or more different classified facts or unclassified and classified facts when combined in a specific way result in a higher classification level or more restrictive category, then an RD Derivative Classifier may classify or upgrade the matter based on the association. If the matter is to be portion marked, then each portion of the associated information must be marked at the level and category of the association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>RD, FRD, or TFNI classification based on compilation.</I> A large number of often similar unclassified pieces of information or a large number of often similar RD, FRD, or TFNI pieces of information by selection, arrangement, or completeness in matter may add sufficient value to merit classification or to merit classification at a higher level. If there is a classification guide topic that applies to the compilation, an RD Derivative Classifier may classify the information by compilation. In the absence of a classification guide topic that applies, for RD or TFNI, the Director, Office of Classification, may make the determination to classify or upgrade the matter based on compilation. For FRD, the Director, Office of Classification, or any appropriate DoD official (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions) may classify or upgrade the matter based on compilation. Matter that is classified as RD, FRD, or TFNI based on compilation is never portion marked.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of a classified addendum.</I> When it is important to maximize the amount of information available to the public or to simplify matter handling procedures, the RD, FRD, or TFNI should be segregated into a classified addendum.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.135" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.135   Can a person make an RD, FRD, or TFNI classification determination if applicable classification guidance is not available?</HEAD>
<P>(a) No. If an RD Derivative Classifier or a person trained to classify matter containing TFNI is unable to locate a classification guide or classification bulletin that applies to the nuclear-related information within his or her programmatic expertise and does not have an applicable portion-marked source document to use for derivative classification, then he or she must contact the RDMO or an ARDMO for assistance. The RDMO/ARDMO may be aware of other classification guidance that could apply to the information.
</P>
<P>(b) If no guidance is identified, the RDMO must forward the matter to the Director, Office of Classification, for a determination. Within 30 days, the Director, Office of Classification must:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether the information is already classified as RD, FRD, or TFNI under current classification guidance and, if so, provide such guidance to the RDMO who forwarded the matter.
</P>
<P>(2) If the information is not already classified as RD, FRD, or TFNI, the procedures for initially classifying information as RD, FRD, or TFNI under § 1045.70 must be followed. The Director, Office of Classification, must notify the RDMO of the results of the initial classification determination within 90 days of receiving the matter. Initial determinations must be incorporated into classified guides, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Pending a determination, the matter under review must be protected at a minimum as Secret RD, Secret FRD, or Secret TFNI, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.140" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.140   How is matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI marked?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Matter determined to contain RD, FRD, or TFNI.</I> Matter determined to contain RD, FRD, or TFNI must be clearly marked to convey to the holder of that matter that it contains such information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Marking matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI in the IC.</I> Matter generated by/for the IC containing RD, FRD, or TFNI must be marked in accordance with the requirements in this part as described in ICD 710 or successor directives, and the corresponding implementation directives and policy guidance issued or approved by the DNI concerning marking matter containing RD, FRD, and TFNI.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Working papers containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.</I> Prior to the determination that matter contains RD, FRD, or TFNI, it must be marked and protected as a working paper. Matter that has not been reviewed that potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI, or is expected to be revised prior to the preparation of a finished product that contains RD, FRD, or TFNI, must be dated when created or last changed, marked with the highest potential level and category of information (and caveats, when applicable) on the bottom and top of each page, and must be protected at the highest potential level and category of the information contained in the matter. The matter must also be marked “Draft” or “Working Paper” on the front cover. The RD/FRD admonishment is not required. RD Derivative Classifier authority is not required to mark working papers containing RD or FRD. However, working papers containing RD or FRD must be reviewed by an RD Derivative Classifier, and working papers containing TFNI must be reviewed by a person trained to mark matter containing TFNI, and the matter must be marked as a final document when it is:
</P>
<P>(1) Released outside the originating activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Retained more than 180 days from the date of origin or the date of the last change; or
</P>
<P>(3) Filed permanently.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>RD and FRD markings.</I> An RD Derivative Classifier applies or authorizes the application of the following markings on matter determined to contain RD or FRD:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Front page.</I> The front page of matter containing RD or FRD must have the page/banner markings at the top and bottom, the RD or FRD admonishment, subject/title marking, and the classification authority block.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Front page/banner markings.</I> The top and bottom of the front page must clearly indicate the overall classification level of the matter. The classification category may also be included. No other markings are required in the page/banner marking.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Admonishments.</I> (A) If the matter contains RD or RD and FRD, use the following admonishment:
</P>
<HD3>RESTRICTED DATA
</HD3>
<P>This document contains RESTRICTED DATA as defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended. Unauthorized disclosure subject to administrative and criminal sanctions.
</P>
<P>(B) If the document contains FRD and no RD, use the following admonishment:
</P>
<HD3>FORMERLY RESTRICTED DATA
</HD3>
<P>Unauthorized disclosure subject to administrative and criminal sanctions. Handle as RESTRICTED DATA in foreign dissemination. Section 144b, Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Subject/title marking.</I> The classification level and category of the text of the subject or title (<I>e.g.,</I> U, SRD, CFRD, S//RD, C//FRD) must be marked immediately preceding the text of the subject or title.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Classification authority block.</I> The classification authority block for matter containing RD or FRD must identify the RD Derivative Classifier who classified the matter and the classification guidance used to classify the matter.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Identity of the RD Derivative Classifier.</I> The RD Derivative Classifier must be identified by name and position or title, and, if not otherwise evident, the agency and office of origin must be identified. An RD Derivative Classifier may also be identified by a unique identifier. For example:
</P>
<P>Classified By: <I>Jane Doe, Nuclear Analyst, DOE, CTI-61</I>
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Identity of classification guidance.</I> (<I>1</I>) If a classification guide is used to classify the matter, the “Derived From” line must include the short title of the guide, the issue date of the guide, the issuing agency and, when available, office of origin. For example:
</P>
<P>Derived From: <I>CG-ABC-1, 10/16/2014, DOE OC</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a source document is used to classify the matter, it must be identified, including the office of origin and the date of the source document. If more than one classification guide or source document is used, the words “Multiple Sources” may be included. In the case of multiple sources, a source list identifying each guide or source document must be included with all copies of the matter.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Declassification instructions.</I> Matter containing RD or FRD are never automatically declassified and must either omit the “Declassify On” line, or indicate that the matter is exempt from automatic declassification (Not Applicable or N/A for RD/FRD, as appropriate).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interior page/banner marking.</I> Each interior page of matter containing RD or FRD must be clearly marked at the top and bottom with the overall classification level and category of the matter or the overall classification level and category of the page, whichever is preferred. The abbreviations “RD” and “FRD” may be used in conjunction with the matter classification (<I>e.g.,</I> SECRET//RD, CONFIDENTIAL//FRD).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Back cover or back page marking.</I> The outside of the back cover or back page must be marked with the overall level of information in the matter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Portion marking.</I> Other than the required subject/title marking, portion marking is permitted, but not required, for matter containing RD or FRD. Each agency that generates matter containing RD or FRD determines the policy for portion marking matter generated within the agency. If matter containing RD or FRD is portion marked, each portion containing RD or FRD must be marked with the level and category of the information in the portion (<I>e.g.,</I> SRD, CFRD, S//RD, C//FRD).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>TFNI markings.</I> If matter contains RD or FRD commingled with TFNI, the RD or FRD markings take precedence. If matter contains TFNI and no RD or FRD, a person who is trained to classify matter containing TFNI applies or authorizes the application markings on matter determined to contain TFNI in accordance with 32 CFR part 2001.22, or successor regulations, and with this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Front page.</I> If the matter contains TFNI and no RD or FRD, no admonishment is required on the front page, but the top and bottom of the front page must be clearly marked with the overall classification level and the TFNI label (<I>e.g.,</I> SECRET//TFNI).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subject/title marking.</I> The classification level and category of the subject or title must be marked immediately preceding the text of the subject or title.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portion marking.</I> Matter containing TFNI and no RD or FRD must be portion marked. Each portion containing TFNI must be marked immediately preceding the portion to which it applies with the level and category of the information in the portion (<I>e.g.,</I> S//TFNI).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Classification authority block.</I> The classifier and guidance used to classify matter containing TFNI must be identified as described in § 1045.40(d)(1)(iv)(A) and (B). In addition, the “Declassify On” line must be annotated with the statement: “Not Applicable [or N/A] to TFNI portions.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Interior pages.</I> If the matter contains TFNI and no RD or FRD, the top and bottom of each interior page must be clearly marked with the overall classification level and the TFNI label (<I>e.g.,</I> SECRET//TFNI) or the overall classification level for each page with the TFNI label included on only those pages that contain TFNI, whichever is preferred.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Back cover or back page marking.</I> If the matter contains TFNI and no RD or FRD, the top and bottom of the outside of the back cover or back page must be clearly marked with the overall classification level of information in the matter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Commingled matter—NSI.</I> Matter that contains a mixture of RD, FRD, or TFNI and NSI, and is portion marked, must also comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Declassification instructions.</I> If the matter is not portion marked, then no declassification instructions are included. If the matter is portion marked, declassification instructions for each portion must be included in a source list. See this paragraph (f)(2) and E.O. 13526 or successor orders for instructions on annotating the source list.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Source list.</I> The source list must include declassification instructions for all NSI sources used to classify the NSI portions. The declassification instructions for sources that are used to classify the RD, FRD, or TFNI portions must state “Not applicable [or N/A] to RD/FRD/TFNI (as appropriate).” The source list must not appear on the front page of the matter, unless the matter is a single page. If the matter is a single page, the source list may appear at the bottom of the page, and must be clearly separate from the classification authority block.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Commingled matter—CUI.</I> (1) If matter containing RD and/or FRD and CUI is not portion marked, CUI markings are not required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicable CUI Decontrol instructions.</I> (i) If the matter contains RD or FRD and is not portion marked, then CUI decontrol instructions must not be included.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the matter is portion marked and decontrol instructions are applied, the decontrol instructions for the CUI portions must not be on the front page. Where they appear, they must be clearly labeled as decontrol instructions for CUI.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the matter contains TFNI, and decontrol instructions are applied, the decontrol instructions for the CUI portions must not be on the front page. Where they appear they must be clearly labeled as decontrol instructions for CUI.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Marking special format matter.</I> Standard RD, FRD, or TFNI markings must be applied to matter in special formats (<I>e.g.,</I> photographs, flash memory drives, compact discs, audio or video tapes) to the extent practicable. Regardless of the precise markings in such cases, any special format matter that contains RD, FRD, or TFNI must be marked so that both a person in physical possession of the matter and a person with access to the information in or on the matter are aware that it contains RD, FRD, or TFNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.145" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.145   Who must review output from a classified IT system that is marked as RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>If the output is a final product that has been reviewed by a person with appropriate authority, and is properly marked, or is a working paper that is properly marked, no additional review is required. Otherwise, the output must be reviewed in accordance with § 1045.30.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.150" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.150   Can anyone remove the RD, FRD, or TFNI portions and markings to produce an NSI or unclassified version of the matter?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Removal of RD, FRD, or TFNI portions from matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.</I> Specific authority is required to remove RD, FRD, or TFNI portions from matter. The authority required depends on whether the matter is intended for public release, the category of information in the matter, and whether the matter is portion marked.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>If the resulting or new matter is intended for public release.</I> An RD Derivative Classifier or a person trained to classify matter containing TFNI does not have the authority to remove the RD, FRD, or TFNI portions or markings for matter intended for public release. The matter must be submitted in accordance with § 1045.125 to the appropriate agency who will review the matter and remove the RD, FRD, or TFNI portions and markings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>If the resulting matter is not intended for public release.</I> (1) An RD Derivative Classifier may remove the portions marked as containing RD or FRD and remove the RD or FRD markings.
</P>
<P>(2) A person trained in accordance with § 1045.120(e) may remove the portions containing TFNI and the TFNI markings.
</P>
<P>(3) In all cases under § 1045.150(b) this may be done only if the matter is originated by the authorized person's agency and the matter is portion marked, and the resulting matter is reviewed to ensure it does not contain RD, FRD, or TFNI by a person authorized to review the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.155" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.155   How is matter marked as containing RD, FRD, or TFNI declassified?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Declassification of matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.</I> RD, FRD, and TFNI are never automatically declassified. No date or event for automatic declassification ever applies to RD, FRD, or TFNI, even when commingled with NSI. It takes positive action by an authorized person to declassify matter potentially containing or marked as containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to declassify matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI.</I> Only authorized persons within DOE may declassify matter marked as RD or TFNI and only authorized persons within DOE or DoD may declassify matter marked as FRD. Only these same persons may identify the portions of classified matter that contain RD, FRD, or TFNI that must be redacted prior to public release.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Declassification of matter containing RD or TFNI.</I> Except as allowed under paragraph (b) of this section, only designated persons in DOE may declassify matter marked as containing RD or TFNI or identify the RD or TFNI portions of matter that must be removed from the matter prior to public release. Such determinations must be based on classification guides.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Declassification of matter containing FRD.</I> Except as allowed under paragraph (b) of this section, only designated persons in DOE or appropriate persons in DoD (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions) may declassify matter marked as containing FRD or determine the FRD portions of matter that must be removed prior to public release. Such determinations must be based on classification guides.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Delegation of declassification authority.</I> The Director, Office of Classification, may delegate declassification authority for matter containing RD and TFNI to other agencies Federal and contractor personnel. The Director, Office of Classification, or an appropriate person in DoD (as specified in DoD Instruction 5210.02 or subsequent instructions) may delegate declassification authority for matter containing FRD to qualified Federal or contractor personnel in other agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.160" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.160   When the RD, FRD, or TFNI is removed from matter, what action must be taken if the matter still contains NSI?</HEAD>
<P>When an appropriate authority removes the RD, FRD, or TFNI from matter and it still contains NSI, the matter must be marked following E.O. 13526 and 32 CFR part 2001 or successor orders and regulations, including portion marking if the matter was not previously portion marked, and the classification authority block of the matter must be changed to contain declassification instructions for the NSI. This does not apply to matter produced as part of the coordination process for declassification or public release reviews.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.165" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.4.45.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.165   Once matter marked as RD, FRD, or TFNI is declassified, how is it marked?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Matter that is determined to no longer contain RD, FRD, or TFNI and also does not or no longer contains NSI must be clearly marked to convey to the holder of that matter that the matter is declassified;
</P>
<P>(b) The front page must identify the person authorizing the declassification by name and position or title, if not otherwise evident, agency, and office of origin; or with a unique identifier; the classification guide that served as the basis for the declassification by short title, date, agency and, when available, the office of origin; and the declassification date. For example:
</P>
<P>(1) Declassified by: <I>Jane Doe, Nuclear Analyst, DOE, CTI-61</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Derived from: <I>CG-ABC-1, 10/16/2014, DOE OC</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Declassified on: <I>20201009</I>
</P>
<P>(c) The person authorizing the declassification must line through but not obliterate the classification markings and apply or authorize the application of the appropriate markings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Government-Wide Procedures for Handling Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and Mandatory Declassification Review (MDR) Requests for Matter Marked as or Potentially Containing RD, FRD, or TFNI</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.170" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.5.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.170   What is the purpose of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains requirements that apply when Federal agencies other than DOE receive FOIA or MDR requests for matter that is marked as or potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI. RD, FRD, and TFNI are classified under the Atomic Energy Act and are not subject to the provisions governing MDR requests under E.O. 13526 or successor orders. To ensure RD, FRD, and TFNI are considered and appropriately reviewed when requested under a FOIA or MDR request, this section describes the process Federal agencies must follow for FOIA and MDR requests for matter that is marked as or potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.175" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.5.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.175   How must agencies process FOIA and MDR requests for matter that is marked as or potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) When an agency receives a FOIA or MDR request for which any responsive matter is marked as or potentially contains RD, FRD, or TFNI, the agency must forward the matter to the appropriate agency as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Forward any matter marked as or potentially containing RD or TFNI to the Director, Office of Classification or a DOE official granted authority by delegation, regulation, or DOE directive.
</P>
<P>(2) Forward any matter originated by DOE and marked as or potentially containing FRD to either the Director, Office of Classification or a DOE official granted authority by delegation, regulation, or DOE directive. Forward any matter originated by DoD and marked as or potentially containing FRD to the appropriate DoD program (as specified in DoD Manual 5400.07, DoD Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Program, subsequent manuals, or other applicable manuals). Matter not originated by DOE or DoD may be submitted to either agency as provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE and DoD must coordinate the review of matter marked as or potentially containing RD and FRD, when appropriate. DOE and the DNI must coordinate the review of matter marked as or potentially containing TFNI, when appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) DOE, DoD, or the DNI may refuse to confirm or deny the existence or nonexistence of the requested matter whenever the fact of its existence or nonexistence is itself classified as RD, FRD, or TFNI.
</P>
<P>(d) If the information contained in the requested matter has been reviewed for declassification within the past 2 years, another review need not be conducted, but instead the agency may inform the requester of this fact and of the results of the prior review decision.
</P>
<P>(e) When paragraph (c) or (d) of this section do not apply, and the information requested under an MDR is not exempt under § 1045.195, the appropriate DOE or DoD authority must conduct a line-by-line review of matter forwarded under paragraph (a) of this section; identify the information that is classified under current classification guidance as RD, FRD, or TFNI; and respond to the agency that forwarded the matter. The response to the agency who forwarded the request must identify the RD, FRD, or TFNI that is exempt from public release; provide the FOIA exemption or appropriate MDR notation for the RD, FRD, or TFNI withheld; identify the Denying Official for the RD, FRD, or TFNI withheld; and explain the applicable appeal procedures for a FOIA request identified in 10 CFR 1004.8 or for an MDR request identified in § 1045.180.
</P>
<P>(1) The Denying Officials are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The Denying Official for matter containing RD or TFNI is the Director, Office of Classification.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Denying Official for matter containing FRD is the Director, Office of Classification, or the appropriate DoD Component's Initial Denying Authority (as specified in applicable DoD manuals).
</P>
<P>(iii) The Denying Official for Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information is the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) Deputy Director, Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon receipt of the response from DOE or DOD, the agency processing the initial request must inform the requester of the results of the review; provide the name of the Denying Official identified for any RD, FRD, or TFNI withheld; and advise the requester of his or her appeal rights concerning the RD, FRD, or TFNI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.180" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.5.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.180   What is the procedure if an agency receives an appeal to a FOIA or MDR concerning the denial of RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an agency receives a FOIA appeal for RD, FRD, or TFNI denied by DOE within 90 days of receipt of the denial and as required under 10 CFR 1004.8, the appeal must be submitted to the DOE Director, Office of Hearings and Appeals. If an agency receives a FOIA appeal for FRD denied by DoD, it must be submitted to DoD in accordance with applicable DoD FOIA regulations or instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) Appeals of an MDR response when DOE denied RD, FRD, or TFNI may be submitted to the agency that replied to the initial MDR request or directly to DOE.
</P>
<P>(1) When an MDR appeal concerning DOE-withheld RD, FRD, or TFNI is sent to the agency that replied to the initial MDR request, the appeal must be received by the agency who replied to the initial request within 60 days of receipt of the denial and contain the information required under § 1045.210(b). The agency must forward the appeal to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security at the following address Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, EHSS-1/Forrestal Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<P>(2) When sent directly to DOE, an MDR appeal must be received by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security within 60 days of the denial and contain the information required under § 1045.210(b).
</P>
<P>(3) MDR appeals received by DOE are processed consistent with § 1045.220.
</P>
<P>(c) If an agency receives an MDR appeal for FRD withheld by DoD, the agency must submit the appeal to the appropriate DoD Component as identified in applicable DoD manuals.
</P>
<P>(d) MDR Final Appeal: The classification and declassification of RD, FRD, and TFNI is governed by the AEA and this part and is not subject to E.O. 13526 or successor orders. Therefore, MDR appeal decisions by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, for RD, FRD, and TFNI and MDR appeal decisions by the appropriate DoD Component appellate authority for FRD are final agency decisions and are not subject to review by ISCAP. However, if matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI also contains NSI, the NSI portions may be appealed to the ISCAP. Prior to submission to ISCAP, the RD, FRD, or TFNI portions must be deleted.
</P>
<P>(e) The FOIA and MDR appeal authorities for RD, FRD, or TFNI are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The appeal authority for RD and TFNI is the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security.
</P>
<P>(2) The appeal authority for FRD is the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or the appropriate DoD Component appellate authority.
</P>
<P>(3) The appeal authority for Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information is the NNSA Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors.
</P>
<P>(f) Declassification proposals resulting from appeal reviews: The appeal review of RD, FRD, and TFNI withheld from a requester is based on current classification guidance. However, as part of the appeal review, the withheld information must be reviewed to determine if it may be a candidate for possible declassification. If declassification of the information appears to be appropriate, then a declassification proposal must be initiated, and the requester must be advised that additional information will be available if the declassification proposal is approved.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023; 88 FR 82238, Nov. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—DOE-Specific Procedures for MDR Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.185" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.185   What is the purpose of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes the process for MDR requests submitted for DOE matter classified under E.O. 13526 or successor orders, and the Atomic Energy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.190" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.190   How does the public submit an MDR for DOE classified matter?</HEAD>
<P>(a) DOE matter marked as containing NSI, RD, FRD, or TFNI is subject to review for declassification by DOE if the request for a declassification review describes the matter containing the information with sufficient specificity to enable DOE to locate it with a reasonable amount of effort.
</P>
<P>(b) The request must be sent to the Director, Office of Classification, EHSS-60/Germantown Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.195" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.195   Is any matter exempt from MDR requests?</HEAD>
<P>(a) MDR requests are not accepted for:
</P>
<P>(1) Matter containing RD technical engineering, blueprints, and design regarding nuclear weapons, if they contain no NSI.
</P>
<P>(2) Matter required to be submitted for prepublication review or other administrative process pursuant to an approved nondisclosure agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) Matter that is the subject of pending litigation; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any matter contained within an operational file exempted from search and review, publication, and disclosure under the FOIA in accordance with law.
</P>
<P>(b) Current Presidential records as described in section 3.5(b) of E.O. 13526 or successor orders that are in the custody of DOE are exempt from release in response to an MDR request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.200" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.200   Is there a cost for an MDR review?</HEAD>
<P>Yes. The fees, including waivers, reductions, and categorizations, are the same for an MDR as for providing records under the FOIA as defined in 10 CFR 1004.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.205" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.205   How does DOE conduct an MDR review?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If DOE has reviewed the information contained in the requested matter for declassification within the past 2 years, DOE need not conduct another review. DOE may instead inform the requester of this fact and of the prior review decision, as well as advise the requester of his or her appeal rights as provided in § 1045.210.
</P>
<P>(b) DOE performs an MDR as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Conducts a line-by-line review of the matter;
</P>
<P>(2) Coordinates the review with appropriate programs and agencies, as necessary;
</P>
<P>(3) Identifies and withholds any information that meets the standards for classification;
</P>
<P>(4) Declassifies any NSI that no longer meets the standards for classification under E.O. 13526 or successor orders and any RD, FRD, or TFNI that no longer meets the standards for classification under this part;
</P>
<P>(5) If the matter also contains unclassified information that is potentially exempt from release under the FOIA, the matter is further processed to ensure unclassified information that is exempt from public release is identified and that the appropriate officials responsible for denying any unclassified portion of the matter are provided and listed with the notice of denial.
</P>
<P>(6) Upon completion of the review, releases the matter to the requester unless withholding is authorized by law. If NSI, RD, FRD, or TFNI, is withheld, the response must advise the requester of his or her appeal rights under § 1045.210.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.210" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.210   How does a person submit an appeal if DOE withholds classified information in an MDR response?</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Director, Office of Classification, denies NSI, RD, FRD, or TFNI, or the NNSA Deputy Director, Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors, denies Naval Nuclear Propulsion information, in matter requested under an MDR, the requester may appeal the determination to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security. The appeal must be received within 60 days of the receipt of the denial.
</P>
<P>(b) The appeal must be in writing and submitted to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, EHSS-1/Forrestal Building, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. The appeal:
</P>
<P>(1) Must contain a concise statement of grounds upon which it is brought, and a description of the relief sought.
</P>
<P>(2) Must include a copy of the letter containing the determination being appealed.
</P>
<P>(3) Should include a discussion of all relevant authorities that include but are not limited to DOE (and predecessor agencies) rulings, regulations, interpretations, and decisions on appeals, as well as any judicial determinations being relied upon to support the appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023; 88 FR 82238, Nov. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.215" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.215   How does DOE process an MDR appeal for DOE matter containing NSI?</HEAD>
<P>An appeal for NSI requested under the provisions of E.O. 13526 or successor orders is processed as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security must act upon the appeal within 60 working days of its receipt. If no determination on the appeal has been issued at the end of this 60-day period, the requester may consider his or her administrative remedies to be exhausted and may seek a review by the ISCAP. When no determination can be issued within the applicable time limit, the appeal must nevertheless continue to be processed. On expiration of the time limit, DOE must inform the requester of the reason for the delay, of the date on which a determination may be expected to be issued, and of the requester's right to seek further review by the ISCAP. Nothing in this subpart precludes the appeal authority and the requester from agreeing to an extension of time for the decision on an appeal. The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security must confirm any such agreement in writing and clearly specify the total time agreed upon for the appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security's action on an appeal must be in writing and set forth the reason for the decision. DOE may refuse to confirm or deny the existence or nonexistence of requested information whenever the fact of its existence or nonexistence is itself classified under E.O. 13526 or successor orders.
</P>
<P>(c) The requester has the right to appeal a final DOE decision, or a failure to provide a determination on an appeal within the allotted time, to the ISCAP for those appeals dealing with NSI. In cases where NSI documents also contain RD, FRD, or TFNI, the portions of the document containing RD, FRD, or TFNI must be deleted prior to forwarding the NSI and unclassified portions to the ISCAP for review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 82238, Nov. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.220" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.220   How does DOE process an MDR appeal for matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Final appeals for DOE matter containing RD, FRD, or TFNI are submitted to the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security. The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security will coordinate appeals concerning Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information with the NNSA Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors.
</P>
<P>(b) The classification and declassification of RD, FRD, and TFNI is governed by the AEA and this part and is not subject to E.O. 13526 or successor orders. Therefore, appeal decisions concerning RD, FRD, or TFNI by the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security, or the NNSA Deputy Administrator for Naval Reactors are not subject to review by ISCAP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 66007, Dec. 21, 2018, as amended at 88 FR 82238, Nov. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1045.225" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.20.6.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1045.225   Are DOE responses to MDR requests available to the public?</HEAD>
<P>Yes. Once the classified and unclassified information exempt from public release is redacted, DOE responses to MDR requests, as well as FOIA requests for matter containing classified information, are posted on DOE's OpenNet System at: <I>https://www.osti.gov/opennet/.</I>






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1046" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1046—MEDICAL, PHYSICAL READINESS, TRAINING, AND ACCESS AUTHORIZATION STANDARDS FOR PROTECTIVE FORCE PERSONNEL
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2011, <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 7101, <I>et seq.;</I> 50 U.S.C. 2401, <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 55184, Sept. 10, 2013, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1046 appear at 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.1.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the medical, physical readiness, training and performance standards for contractor protective force (PF) personnel who provide security services at Department of Energy (DOE or Department) facilities including the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA). DOE and NNSA may choose to incorporate elements of these standards into Federal protective force programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.1.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to DOE, including NNSA, contractor employees and applicants for contractor protective force positions at government-owned or government leased facilities, regardless of whether the facility is privately operated. This part provides for the establishment of physical security programs based on uniform standards for medical, physical performance, training, and access authorizations for PF personnel providing physical security services to the Department.
</P>
<P>(b) Use of a single, suitably qualified individual is encouraged when it is operationally, fiscally, or otherwise appropriate to perform multiple roles as required in this part (e.g., Designated Physician and Physical Protection Medical Director (PPMD)). Similarly, when appropriate medical, psychological, or other examinations, evaluations, testing, or reports required by other DOE regulations can be used to satisfy the requirements of multiple parts of this title, nothing in this part is intended to require duplicative examinations, evaluations, testing, or reports as long as the requirements of this part are met.
</P>
<P>(c) The Department is authorized to grant such exemptions from the requirements of this part as it determines are authorized by law. Exemptions may not be granted from the requirement to meet any essential function of a position notwithstanding that reasonable accommodation must be granted as required by this part and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA), as amended by the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendment Act of 2009 (ADAAA), and its implementing regulations. Exemptions from requirements other than the medical certification standards are allowed only on a case-by-case basis for a specific requirement covered under this part. The Department must document that the exemption will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and is otherwise in the public interest. Consistent with the exemption process specified by DOE, exemptions must be made from this part in consultation with the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security (EHSS-1) and approved by the Secretary, Deputy Secretary, or for the National Nuclear Security Administration, the Administrator. Granting of equivalencies is not authorized. Nothing in this part shall prohibit NNSA from enhancing the requirements set forth in § 1046.16, SPO Physical Readiness Qualification Standards and Procedures, as necessary to further the interests of national security.
</P>
<P>(d) Requests for technical clarification of the requirements of this part by organizations or individuals affected by its requirements must be made in writing through the appropriate program or staff offices of the Department. Such requests must be coordinated with EHSS or its successor organization. EHSS-1 is responsible for providing a written response to such requests. Requests for interpretations of the requirements of this part may be made to the General Counsel. The General Counsel is responsible for providing responses to such requests.
</P>
<P>(e) This part is effective March 10, 2014. Requirements of this rule that cannot be implemented by March 10, 2014 due to contractual conflicts or within existing resources must be documented by the officially designated federal security authority (ODFSA) and submitted to the relevant program officers: the Under Secretary; the Under Secretary for Science and Innovation or the Under Secretary for Nuclear Security, NNSA; and the Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security. The documentation must include timelines and resources needed to fully implement this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55184, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 57082, Sept. 22, 2015; 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.1.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Active shooter</I> means an individual actively engaged in the unauthorized killing or attempting to kill a person or persons in a confined and populated area.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced Readiness Standard</I> (ARS) means a qualification standard that includes the requirements of the Fixed Post Readiness Standard (FPRS), but also requires the completion of a one mile run with a maximum qualifying time of 8 minutes 30 seconds, a 40-yard dash from the prone position in 8.0 seconds or less, and any other measure of physical readiness necessary to perform site-specific essential functions as prescribed by site management and approved by the respective program office. This standard applies to SPOs who staff security posts that normally require extensive tactical movement on foot or are assigned Special Response Team duties.
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a person who has applied for and been conditionally offered a position as a Security Officer (SO) or a Security Police Officer (SPO), but who has not yet begun the active SO or SPO duties for which the person has applied.
</P>
<P><I>Basic Readiness Standard</I> (BRS) means a qualification standard that includes the requirements of the FPRS, but also requires the completion of a one-half mile run with a maximum qualifying time of 4 minutes, 40 seconds, a 40-yard dash from the prone position in 8.5 seconds or less, and any other measure of physical readiness necessary to perform site-specific essential functions as prescribed by site management and approved by the respective program office. This standard applies to SPOs with mobile defensive duties in support of facility protection strategies.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Medical Officer</I> means a Federal employee who is a doctor of medicine (MD) or doctor of osteopathic medicine (DO) who is licensed without restriction and qualified in the full range of occupational medicine services employed by the Department's health, safety, and security programs. This individual provides technical support for these programs and must be identified in writing.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means a contractor for the Department and includes subcontractors at all tiers.
</P>
<P><I>Corrective device</I> means a device, such as eyeglasses or hearing aid, necessary to enable an examinee to meet medical qualification standards and have been determined to be a reasonable accommodation compatible with the performance of the essential functions of the position. The contractor responsible for the performance of the examinee must determine that the use of the device is compatible with all actions associated with emergency and protective equipment without creating a hardship for the contractor. The Designated Physician and PPMD must determine that the reasonable accommodation is consistent with the medical certification standards without creating a direct threat to the individual or to others.
</P>
<P><I>Designated Physician</I> means an MD or DO, licensed without restriction in the state of practice, who has been approved by the PPMD. EHSS-1 must be consulted regarding an individual's suitability prior to appointment as a Designated Physician.
</P>
<P><I>Direct threat</I> means a significant risk of substantial harm to the health or safety of the individual or others. The risk must be based on an assessment of the individual's present ability to perform safely the essential functions of the job, and it must be determined that the risk cannot be eliminated or reduced by reasonable accommodation.
</P>
<P><I>DOE facility</I> means any facility required by DOE to employ PF personnel and used by DOE, including NNSA, and its contractors for the performance of work under DOE jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency conditions</I> are those conditions that could arise at a DOE facility as a result of a breach of security (e.g., sabotage or terrorism), accident (e.g., fire or explosion), or naturally occurring event (e.g., storm or earthquake) and threaten the security or integrity of DOE facilities, assets, personnel, the environment or the general public. For the purposes of this rule, emergency conditions include PF drills and exercises relating to search, rescue, crowd control, fire suppression and special operations, including response to the scene of the incident, and all applicable PF functions performed at the scene.
</P>
<P><I>Essential functions of the job</I> are the fundamental job duties of PF members as set out in § 1046.11.
</P>
<P><I>Field element</I> means the management and staff elements of DOE, including NNSA, with delegated responsibility for oversight and program management of major facilities, programs, and site operations.
</P>
<P><I>Final review</I> means the process for an individual disqualified from medical certification to have a second and ultimate review of the individual's case conducted by the DOE Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P><I>Fixed Post Readiness Standard</I> (FPRS) means a standard that requires an SPO to demonstrate the ability to assume and maintain the variety of cover positions associated with effective use of firearms at entry portals and similar static environments to include prone, standing, kneeling, and barricade positions; to use site-specific intermediate force weapons and weaponless self-defense techniques; to effect arrest of suspects and place them under restraint, e.g., with handcuffs or other temporary restraint devices; and any other measure of physical readiness necessary to perform site-specific essential functions as prescribed by site management and approved by the respective program office.
</P>
<P><I>Independent Physician</I> means a physician who possesses an MD or DO degree, is licensed without restriction and board certified, and has experience in a relevant field of medicine. The Independent Physician must not have served as the requestor's personal physician in any capacity or have been previously involved in the requestor's case on behalf of the Department or a Department contractor.
</P>
<P><I>Independent review</I> means the process through which a medically disqualified individual may appeal to have an independent review of the individual's case conducted by an Independent Physician.
</P>
<P><I>Job analysis (JA)</I> is a systematic method used to obtain a detailed listing of the tasks of a specific job. JAs must be derived from criteria determined and published by the DOE National Training Center or identified and documented through a site-specific Mission Essential Task List (METL)-based process based on a set of Departmental Nuclear Security Enterprise-wide standards. A METL-based process that identifies and formally documents duties, tasks, and sub-tasks to be trained is commensurate with the process to develop JAs.
</P>
<P><I>Medical approval</I> means a determination by a Designated Physician that an individual is medically cleared to attempt the physical readiness standard qualification test and perform SO or SPO duties.
</P>
<P><I>Medical certification</I> means a determination by a Designated Physician approved by the PPMD that an individual is medically qualified for a particular category of PF positions, including the performance of the essential functions of an SO or SPO, and the required ongoing physical readiness training.
</P>
<P><I>Medical certification disqualification</I> means a determination by a Designated Physician and approved by the PPMD that an individual, with or without reasonable accommodation, is unable to perform the essential functions of an SO or SPO job position, including the required physical readiness training, without creating a direct threat to that individual or others.
</P>
<P><I>Medical evaluation</I> means the analysis of information generated by medical examinations and psychological evaluations and assessments of an individual to determine medical certification.
</P>
<P><I>Medical examination</I> means an examination performed or directed by the Designated Physician that incorporates the components described in § 1046.13.
</P>
<P><I>Mission Essential Task List (METL)</I> means a list of common tasks required for PF assignments based on site-specific protection plans to defend against adversary capabilities as defined by DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Officially Designated Federal Security Authority (ODFSA)</I> means the Departmental Federal authority at the Field or Headquarters (HQ) Element with the primary and delegated responsibility for oversight of a site PF. Also may be referred to as the Department or Federal cognizant security authority.
</P>
<P><I>Pertinent negative</I> means the absence of a sign or symptom that helps substantiate or identify a patient's condition.
</P>
<P><I>Physical Protection Medical Director</I> (PPMD) means the physician programmatically responsible for the overall direction and operation of the site medical program supporting the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Primary weapon</I> as used in this part means any weapon individually assigned or available at the majority of posts/patrols to which the SPO may be assigned.
</P>
<P><I>Protective Force (PF) personnel</I> means Special Response Team members, SPOs, and SOs employed to protect Department security interests.
</P>
<P><I>Qualification</I> means the documented determination that an individual meets the applicable medical, physical, and as appropriate, firearms training standards, and possesses the knowledge, skills, abilities and access authorizations required for a particular SO or SPO position.
</P>
<P><I>Randomly selected</I> means any process approved by the ODFSA, which ensures each member of the SPO population has an equal chance to be chosen every time the selection process is used.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable accommodation</I> means an accommodation consistent with the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendment Act (ADAAA) that is documented in writing.
</P>
<P><I>Re-qualification date</I> means the date of expiration of current qualification at which demonstration of knowledge, skills and/or abilities is required to maintain specific job status.
</P>
<P><I>Security interests</I> include any Department asset, resource or property which requires protection from malevolent acts and/or unpermitted access. These interests may include (but are not limited to) Department and contractor personnel; sensitive technology; classified matter; nuclear weapons, components, and assemblies; special nuclear material (SNM) as defined by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (as amended) and the Department; other nuclear materials; secure communications centers; sensitive compartmented information facilities; automated data processing centers or facilities storing and transmitting classified information; vital equipment; or other Department property.
</P>
<P><I>Security Officer</I> (SO) means an unarmed uniformed PF member who has no Departmental arrest or detention authority, used to support SPOs and/or to perform duties (e.g., administrative, access control, facility patrol, escort, assessment and reporting of alarms) where an armed presence is not required.
</P>
<P><I>Security Police Officer</I> (SPO) means a uniformed PF member who is authorized under section 161(k) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, section 661 of the DOE Organization Act, or other statutory authority, to carry firearms and to make arrests without warrant for specifically enumerated offenses and who is employed for, and charged with, the protection of Department security interests.
</P>
<P><I>Semi-structured interview</I> means, for the purpose of this part, an interview by a Psychologist who meets standards established by DOE and who has the latitude to vary the focus and content of the questions depending upon the interviewee's responses.
</P>
<P><I>Special Response Team,</I> commonly referred to as SRT, means a PF special operations unit comprised of SPOs whose primary mission is to resolve incidents that require activities and force options that exceed the capability of existing physical security systems (e.g., performance of recapture/recovery operations and augmentation of denial missions).
</P>
<P><I>Special Response Team</I> (SRT) <I>Member</I> means SPOs who meet the ARS, with additional training and qualification requirements as necessary, and who are assigned to an SRT that trains and responds as a team to perform recapture and recovery and to augment denial missions, e.g., those missions that require adversaries be denied proximity to the protected property.
</P>
<P><I>Weapons proficiency demonstration</I> means a process based on a predetermined, objective set of criteria approved by the respective program office in consultation with EHSS-1 that results in a grade (e.g., pass/fail). The process must ensure that an individual (or team, for crew-served weapons) demonstrates the ability to perform all weapons-handling and operational manipulations necessary to load, operate, and discharge a weapon system accurately and safely (to include clearing/returning to safe mode the weapons system at the conclusion of firing), without the necessity for scoring targets during the course of fire. Proficiency courses of fire must include tactically-relevant time constraints. Demonstrations of proficiency are allowed with the actual weapon and assigned duty load, with alternate loads (e.g., frangible or dye-marking rounds), or with authorized weapons system simulators, as defined in this section. Proficiency courses of fire must be tactically relevant.
</P>
<P><I>Weapons qualification</I> is a formal test of weapons proficiency that includes, in addition to all specified elements of proficiency demonstration, the achievement of a prescribed qualification score according to a Departmentally-approved course of fire. Weapons qualification courses of fire must be constrained by time.
</P>
<P><I>Weapons system simulator</I> means a device that closely simulates all major aspects of employing the corresponding actual firearm/weapons system, without firing live ammunition. The simulator should permit all weapons-handling and operational actions required by the actual weapon, and should allow the use of sight settings similar to the corresponding actual weapon with assigned duty loads. Additionally, when weapons or weapons system simulators are used for qualification testing of protective force officers, the operation of the simulated weapon must closely approximate all weapons handling and operational manipulation actions required by the actual weapon. The simulation system must precisely register on-target hits and misses with accuracy comparable to the actual weapon at the same shooting distances. The weight, balance, and sighting systems should closely replicate those of the corresponding actual weapon with assigned duty loads, and noise signatures and felt recoil should be simulated to the extent technically feasible.
</P>
<P><I>Work hardening</I> is discussed by the Department of Labor in their Division of Federal Employees' Compensation Procedure Manual, 2-813-12 (available at <I>http://www.dol.gov/owcp/dfec/procedure-manual.htm</I>), as a physical therapy program which will facilitate return-to-work. Work hardening is also known as an Occupational Rehabilitation Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55184, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 57082, Sept. 22, 2015; 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.1.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.4   Physical Protection Medical Director (PPMD).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The PPMD is the contractor physician programmatically responsible for the overall direction and operation of site medical programs supporting the PF requirements of this part. The PPMD is responsible for the programmatic oversight of all site Designated Physicians, including those who may operate physically separate clinics. Appropriate contractual arrangements must ensure that the PPMD's authority applies to all site contractors.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Nomination.</I> The name of each PPMD candidate must be submitted by the contractor to the ODFSA who in turn must consult with EHSS-1 prior to approving the PPMD. For NNSA, PPMD nominations must be made to the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety. At the time of initial nomination for the PPMD designation the nominee shall submit, through the nominee's employer and the ODFSA, the following documents or copies thereof, translated into English if written in another language:
</P>
<P>(i) Applicable diplomas;
</P>
<P>(ii) Certificate of any postgraduate professional training (e.g., internship, residency, fellowship);
</P>
<P>(iii) Current medical license in the state in which duties will be performed;
</P>
<P>(iv) Certification of good standing by all medical licensing bodies from which the applicant has held medical licenses, as well as documentation of any restrictions or limitations to practice medicine, past or present (such documentation may be obtained in written form or electronically). The nominee may be requested to instruct the licensing body to send such certifications to EHSS-1 and as applicable to the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety. Under no circumstances will such certifications of good standing be accepted directly from the applicant. Additionally, notice of certification by any additional American specialty board, if applicable, and/or current curriculum vitae may be requested; and
</P>
<P>(v) A curriculum vitae, if requested, must include a discussion of any gaps in employment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Updates.</I> If determined necessary at any time and requested by EHSS-1, the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety, the ODFSA, or the PPMD's employer, updated information as identified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (v) of this section must be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other roles and responsibilities.</I> Nothing in this part is intended to preclude the PPMD from fulfilling similar or related roles under other parts or this title, including providing occupational medical services under 10 CFR part 851, “Worker Safety and Health Program.” Additionally, the PPMD may fulfill the role of Designated Physician. The PPMD's employer must notify EHSS-1, and if appropriate the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety, through the ODFSA if the PPMD will also be fulfilling the role of the Designated Physician.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualifications.</I> The PPMD shall possess an MD or DO degree; be board certified or board eligible in occupational medicine; be a professionally qualified physician in good standing in the professional community, to include all medical licensing bodies from which the applicant has held medical licenses; demonstrate past professional performance and personal conduct suitable for a position of responsibility and trust; read, write, speak, and understand the English language proficiently; and possess an unrestricted license to practice medicine in the state in which the designation is sought, or meet the medical licensing requirements of the applicable military or Federal service to which the applicant belongs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nominations.</I> Except as provided in § 1046.5(c), prior to approval of a Designated Physician by the PPMD's employer, the PPMD must nominate in writing, through the local ODFSA, to EHSS-1, one or more nominees for Designated Physician positions. For NNSA, Designated Physician nominations must be made through the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety.
</P>
<P>(1) Each nomination must describe the relevant training and experience of the nominee.
</P>
<P>(2) Each nominee must be professionally qualified in good standing in the professional community, to include all medical licensing bodies from which the applicant has held medical licenses; demonstrate past professional performance and personal conduct suitable for a position of responsibility and trust; read, write, speak, and understand the English language proficiently; and possess the applicable unrestricted license to practice in the state in which the designation is sought or meet the medical licensing requirements of the applicable military or Federal service to which the applicant belongs.
</P>
<P>(3) To be nominated, a Designated Physician shall possess an MD or DO degree and be board certified or board eligible in occupational medicine.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation.</I> At the time of initial nomination, the nominee shall submit to the PPMD the following documents or copies thereof, translated into English if written in another language:
</P>
<P>(1) Applicable diplomas;
</P>
<P>(2) Certificate of any postgraduate professional training (e.g., internship, residency, fellowship);
</P>
<P>(3) Current medical license in the state in which duties will be performed; and
</P>
<P>(4) Certification of good standing by all medical licensing bodies from which the applicant has held medical licenses, as well as documentation of any restrictions or limitations to practice medicine, past or present (such documentation may be obtained in written form or electronically). The PPMD may request the nominee to instruct the licensing body to send such certifications to the PPMD. Under no circumstances will such certifications of good standing be accepted directly from the applicant. Additionally, the PPMD may request notice of certification by any additional American specialty board, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(5) A current curriculum vitae may be requested. The curriculum vitae, if requested, must include a discussion of any gaps in employment.
</P>
<P>(6) If determined necessary by the PPMD, updated information, as identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (5) of this section, may be requested at any time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Self reporting.</I> (1) Each incumbent individual covered under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section must agree to self-report the following information as a condition of the designation. PPMDs must report to their employer, who must forward the information to EHSS-1 or as appropriate to the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety through the ODFSA. Additionally, Designated Physicians must report to the PPMD the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any change in status or initiation or taking of an adverse action, past or present, by any state medical licensing board or any other professional licensing board against the licenses of the individual (these may be provided in written or electronic form). The incumbent or nominee may be required to request the licensing body to provide such information to the ODFSA or PDMD, as appropriate. Under no circumstances will such information be accepted directly from the incumbent or nominee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Initiation of an adverse action by any Federal or state regulatory board;
</P>
<P>(iii) Being named a defendant in any criminal proceedings (felony or misdemeanor);
</P>
<P>(iv) Being named in a civil suit alleging professional malpractice;
</P>
<P>(v) Being evaluated or treated for alcohol use disorder or drug dependency or abuse; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Occurrence of a physical disorder, a mental disorder, or any other health condition that might affect the physician's ability to perform professional duties.
</P>
<P>(2) All information in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section must be submitted to DOE for consideration and possible action and may result in rejection or termination of the applicable designation. Failure to provide such information may also result in the rejection or termination of the applicable designation. For NNSA contractors, in consultation with EHSS-1, the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety will make the final decision on the appropriate action in light of the information received.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual activity report.</I> The PPMD must review the current credentials of each Designated Physician annually and make a recommendation to the employer to either retain or replace each incumbent. EHSS-1 and as appropriate, the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety must be notified by the employer through the appropriate field element of any changes.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retention or replacement.</I> For DOE, the PPMD's supervisor of record must send an annual letter to EHSS-1 reporting on the current credentials of the PPMD recommending retention or replacement. Immediate notification must be made to the EHSS-1 if a PPMD is relieved of duties or replaced. For NNSA, the PPMD's supervisor of record must send an annual letter to the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety with a courtesy copy to EHSS-1 reporting on the current credentials of the PPMD recommending retention or replacement. For NNSA, immediate notification must be made to the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety with a courtesy copy to the EHSS-1 if a PPMD is relieved of duties or replaced.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Medical activity summary.</I> The PPMD must submit an annual letter summarizing the medical activity during the previous year conducted under this part to EHSS-1 or designee through the manager of the Field Element. For NNSA the summary must be sent to the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety with a courtesy copy to EHSS-1. The PPMD must comply with applicable DOE requirements specifying report content.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55184, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 57082, Sept. 22, 2015; 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.1.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.5   Designated Physician.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities.</I> Designated Physicians are responsible for the conduct of medical examinations, evaluations, and medical certification of SOs and SPOs. Additionally, Designated Physicians are responsible for the supervision of physician extenders (e.g., physician's assistants, certified occupational health nurses, or nurse practitioners), as required by applicable state or local law. The Designated Physician must:
</P>
<P>(1) Annually determine whether to approve an individual's participation in programmed physical readiness training programs required under this rule and determine the individual's ability to perform the physical readiness and PF qualification tests without undue risk. Medical approval must be obtained within thirty days prior to the individual's beginning such training or attempting the qualifying tests;
</P>
<P>(2) With the assistance of a psychologist or psychiatrist meeting standards established by DOE, determine:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual's medical capability, with or without reasonable accommodation, to perform the essential functions of PF job duties without creating a direct threat to the individual or others; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether to certify that the individual meets the applicable medical and physical readiness standards as set forth herein for their position.
</P>
<P>(3) Determine whether any portion of any medical examination may be performed by other qualified personnel, such as another physician or physician extenders;
</P>
<P>(4) Be responsible for case management, including supervising, interpreting, and documenting PF personnel medical conditions; and
</P>
<P>(5) Be familiar with the required essential functions of the job duties for PF personnel, as set forth in § 1046.11, and the physical readiness requirements as identified in § 1046.16.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nominations.</I> The requirements of § 1046.4(b) and (c) must be followed by the individuals nominated for Designated Physician positions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approval in lieu of nomination.</I> Designated Physicians approved under the provisions of 10 CFR part 712, “Human Reliability Program,” will also satisfy the requirement for nomination to, and approval by, DOE/NNSA under this part. The employer must notify EHSS-1 through the ODFSA if the physician will be fulfilling the role of Designated Physician for this part in addition to fulfilling a role for another part (e.g., 10 CFR part 712). For NNSA the notification must be sent to the NNSA organization responsible for occupational health and safety with a courtesy copy to EHSS-1.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Self reporting.</I> The self-reporting requirements of § 1046.4(d) must be followed by incumbent Designated Physicians.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55184, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 57083, Sept. 22, 2015; 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Protective Force (PF) Personnel</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.11" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.11   Essential functions of PF positions.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part is intended to preclude emergency use of any available protective force personnel by an on-scene commander to successfully resolve a national security emergency.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Essential functions.</I> The essential functions described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section and other site-specific essential functions must be communicated in writing by the manager of the Field Element to the PPMD and the Designated Physician. The Designated Physician is required to ensure applicant and incumbent PF members are aware that these essential physical and mental functions in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section and other site-specific essential functions, as appropriate, and the medical certification standards provided in section 1046.13 if this part are the elements against which the initial and annual evaluations for PF personnel will be conducted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SO essential functions.</I> (1) The control of voluntary motor functions, strength, range of motion, neuromuscular coordination, stamina, and dexterity needed to meet physical demands associated with routine and emergency situations of the job;
</P>
<P>(2) The ability to maintain the mental alertness necessary to perform all essential functions without posing a direct threat to self or others; and
</P>
<P>(3) The ability to understand and share essential, accurate communication by written, spoken, audible, visible, or other signals while using required protective equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional SO essential functions.</I> SOs may be required to support SPOs and assist in the routine physical protection of DOE facilities, personnel, classified information, and property, as warranted by DOE facility operations, staff security posts used in controlling access to DOE facilities, conduct routine foot and vehicular patrols, escort visitors, check rooms and facilities, assess and report alarms, and perform basic first aid. Therefore, all SOs must also be able to:
</P>
<P>(1) Understand and implement departmental and site policies and procedures governing post and patrol operations and access control systems;
</P>
<P>(2) Understand and implement departmental and site policies and procedures governing the SO's role in site protection;
</P>
<P>(3) Understand and implement inspection techniques for persons, packages and vehicles, as well as detect and identify prohibited articles and site-specific security interests;
</P>
<P>(4) Work in locations where assistance may not be available;
</P>
<P>(5) Spend extensive time outside exposed to the elements and working in wet, icy, hot, or muddy areas;
</P>
<P>(6) Make frequent transitions from hot to cold, cold to hot, dry to humid, and from humid to dry atmospheres;
</P>
<P>(7) Walk, climb stairs and ladders, and stand for prolonged periods of time;
</P>
<P>(8) Safely operate motor vehicles when their use is required by local missions and duty assignments;
</P>
<P>(9) Use clear and audible speech and radio communications in other than quiet environments;
</P>
<P>(10) Read and understand policies, procedures, posted notices, and badges;
</P>
<P>(11) Rely on the senses of smell, sight, hearing and touch to: detect the odor of products of combustion and of tracer and marker gases to detect prohibited articles; inspect persons, packages and vehicles; and in general determine the nature of emergencies; maintain personal safety; and report the nature of emergencies;
</P>
<P>(12) Employ weaponless self-defense; and
</P>
<P>(13) Be fitted with and use respirators other than self-contained breathing apparatus when the use of such equipment is required by local assignment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FPRS SPO essential functions.</I> FPRS SPO personnel may be assigned only to fixed posts where there is no planned requirement for response away from that post. In addition to the SO essential functions listed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, FPRS SPOs must be able to:
</P>
<P>(1) Apply basic tactics (to include use of intermediate force weapons) necessary to engage and neutralize armed adversaries and determine probable capabilities and motivations of potential adversaries;
</P>
<P>(2) Use site-specific hand tools and weapons required for the performance of duties;
</P>
<P>(3) While armed and authorized to use deadly force, perform complex tasks, make life or death and other critical decisions, and take appropriate actions under confusing, stressful conditions including potentially life-threatening environments throughout the duration of emergency situations, e.g., active shooter scenarios;
</P>
<P>(4) Perform physically demanding work under adverse weather and temperature conditions (extreme heat and extreme cold) on slippery or hazardous surfaces with the prolonged use of protective equipment and garments such as respirators, air supply hoods, or bullet-resistant garments, as required by site protection strategies;
</P>
<P>(5) Be fitted for and properly utilize personal duty equipment;
</P>
<P>(6) Work for long periods of time in conditions requiring sustained physical activity and intense concentration in environments of high noise, poor visibility, limited mobility, at heights, and in enclosed or confined spaces;
</P>
<P>(7) Accommodate to changing work and meal schedules or to a delay in meals without potential or actual incapacity; and
</P>
<P>(8) Have no known significant abnormal intolerance to chemical, mechanical (e.g., heat, light or water), and other physical agent exposures to the skin that may be encountered during routine and emergency duties, as specified at the site.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>BRS SPO essential functions.</I> In addition to the FPRS SPO essential functions listed above, BRS SPOs must be able to:
</P>
<P>(1) Read placards and street signs while driving or to see and respond to imminently hazardous situations in both daylight and reduced light conditions;
</P>
<P>(2) Be capable of operating armored vehicles with an expectation of employing the capabilities of the vehicle;
</P>
<P>(3) Staff security posts which normally require movement on foot, by vehicle, watercraft, or aircraft in response to alarms and any breach of security; and to support site protection strategies;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide interdiction, interruption, neutralization, and support the recapture, pursuit and/or recovery of a DOE asset/site/facility/location;
</P>
<P>(5) Make rapid transitions from rest to near maximal exertion without warm-up; and
</P>
<P>(6) Otherwise act as needed to protect Department sites, personnel, classified information, and nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons components, and SNM, to apprehend suspects, and to participate in the armed defense of a Department site against a violent assault by adversaries.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>ARS SPO essential functions.</I> The essential functions of an ARS SPO include those of a BRS SPO. Security posts which normally, or are expected to, require extensive tactical movement on foot must be staffed by ARS SPOs. In addition, an ARS SPO must be able to support the pursuit/recovery of a Department security interest.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>SRT member essential functions.</I> The essential functions of an SRT member include those of an ARS SPO. The primary role of SRTs is the recapture, pursuit, and/or recovery of Department security interests. In addition, an SRT member must be trained to resolve incidents that require activities and force options that exceed the capabilities of other site PF members, as determined by site-specific analysis. An SRT SPO also must:
</P>
<P>(1) Successfully complete a Departmental advanced tactical qualification course designed to provide the minimum level of skills and knowledge needed to completely perform all tasks associated with SRT job responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(2) Have knowledge and skills to provide additional protection capability as demanded by the particular targets, threats, and vulnerabilities existing at their assigned Departmental facility;
</P>
<P>(3) Be able to operate special weapons, tactical vehicles, and other equipment necessary to protect a particular facility or to effectively engage an adversary with advanced capabilities; and
</P>
<P>(4) Possess the ability to act successfully as a member of an aggressive and readily mobile response team as dictated by site-specific vulnerability assessments, using force options and tactical response team techniques necessary for recapture and recovery operations directed against an adversary and to support site-specific protection strategies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.12" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.12   Medical, physical readiness, and training requirements for PF personnel.</HEAD>
<P>Department PF personnel must be individuals who:
</P>
<P>(a) Are medically certified by the PPMD pursuant to the procedures set out in § 1046.13 to perform all of the applicable essential functions of the job, as set forth in § 1046.11;
</P>
<P>(b) Meet the physical readiness qualification standards set forth in § 1046.16; and
</P>
<P>(c) Are determined to be qualified as having the knowledge, skills, abilities and completed the requirements of a formal training program as set out in § 1046.16.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.13" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.13   Medical certification standards and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>PF medical certification standards.</I> All applicant and incumbent PF personnel must satisfy the applicable Medical Certification Standards set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements of the medical evaluation to determine medical certification.</I> (1) The medical evaluation must be made by the Designated Physician without delegation (e.g., to a physician's assistant or nurse practitioner).
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluations of incumbent security police officers must include a medical history, the results of the examination, and a formal written determination.
</P>
<P>(3) A site standard form approved by EHSS-1 must be used, and pertinent negatives must be documented on the form.
</P>
<P>(4) The Medical Certification Standards are the minimum medical standards to be used in determining whether applicants and incumbent PF personnel can effectively perform, with or without reasonable accommodation, all essential functions of normal and emergency duties without imposing an undue hardship on the employer or posing a direct threat to the PF member or others, the facility, or the general public. All reasonable accommodations as defined in this part must be approved in writing by the PF contractor with a determination that the use of the device is compatible with all actions associated with emergency and protective equipment without creating a hardship for the contractor. The Designated Physician and PPMD must determine that the reasonable accommodation is consistent with the medical standard without creating a direct threat to the individual or to others.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General medical standards for PF personnel.</I> The examinee must possess the mental, sensorial, and motor skills to perform, safely and efficiently, all applicable essential job functions described in § 1046.11 and those designated in the current job analysis submitted by PF management to the Designated Physician/PPMD. Specific qualifications for SOs and SPOs are set forth in paragraphs (d) and (e), respectively, of this section. Reasonable accommodations shall be provided pursuant to the requirements of the ADAAA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specific medical standards for SOs</I>—(1) <I>Head, face, neck, and scalp.</I> Configuration suitable for fitting and effective use of personal protective equipment when the use of such equipment is required by assigned normal or emergency job duties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sense of smell.</I> Ability to detect the odor of combustion products and of tracer or marker gases.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Speech.</I> Capacity for clear and audible speech as required for effective communications of the job.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing.</I> Hearing loss with or without aids not to exceed 30 decibels (db) average at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hertz (Hz), with no loss greater than 40 db at any one of these frequencies and the ability to localize sounds with a difference of not more than 15 db average loss between the two ears. If hearing aids are necessary, suitable testing procedures shall be used to ensure auditory acuity equivalent to the above requirement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Vision.</I> Near and distant visual acuity, with or without correction, of at least 20/25 in one eye and no worse than 20/40 in the other eye.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Color vision.</I> Ability to distinguish red, green, and yellow. Acceptable measures of color discrimination include the Ishihara; Hardy, Rand, &amp; Rittler; and Dvorine pseudoisochromatic plates (PIP) when administered and scored according to the manufacturer's instructions. Tinted lenses such as the X-Chrom contact lenses or tinted spectacle lenses effectively alter the standard illumination required for all color vision tests, thereby invalidating the results and are not permitted during color vision testing.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Cardiorespiratory.</I> Capacity to use a respirator other than self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) when required by local assignment.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Nutritional/metabolic.</I> Ability to accommodate to changing work and meal schedules without potential or actual incapacity. Status adequate to meet the stresses and demands of assigned normal and emergency job duties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Specific medical standards for SPOs.</I> In addition to the criteria identified in § 1046.16(f), the following standards must be applied.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Head, face, neck and scalp.</I> Configuration suitable for fitting and effective use of personal protective equipment when the use of such equipment is required by assigned normal or emergency job duties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sense of Smell.</I> The ability to detect the odor of combustion products and of tracer or marker gases.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Speech.</I> Capacity for clear and audible speech as required for effective communications on the job.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing.</I> Hearing loss without aids not to exceed 30 db average at 500, 1000, 2000 Hz, with no loss greater than 40 db at any of these frequencies and the ability to localize sounds with a difference of not more than 15 db average loss between the two ears. Hearing loss beyond indicated level would interfere with ability to function and respond to commands in emergency situations. Use of a hearing aid is allowed for one ear only with the remaining ear qualifying for no more than an average of 30 db loss at frequencies of 500, 1000 and 2000 Hz. If a hearing aid is necessary, suitable testing procedures must be used to assure auditory acuity equivalent to the above requirement for the difference between two ears.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Vision.</I> (i) Near and distant vision. Near and distant visual acuity sufficient to effectively perform emergency-related essential functions:
</P>
<P>(A) With or without correction, vision of 20/25 or better in the better eye and 20/40 or better in the other eye.
</P>
<P>(B) If uncorrected, distant vision in the better eye is at least 20/25, and if the SPO wears corrective lenses, the SPO must carry an extra pair of corrective lenses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Color vision.</I> Ability to distinguish red, green, and yellow. Acceptable measures of color discrimination include the Ishihara; Hardy, Rand, &amp; Rittler; and Dvorine pseudoisochromatic plates (PIP) when administered and scored according to the manufacturer's instructions. Tinted lenses such as the X-Chrom contact lenses or tinted spectacle lenses effectively alter the standard illumination required for all color vision tests, thereby invalidating the results and are not permitted during color vision testing.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Field of vision.</I> Field of vision in the horizontal meridian at least a total of 140 degrees, contributed to by at least 70 degrees from each eye.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Depth perception.</I> Ability to judge the distance of objects and the spatial relationship of objects at different distances.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cardiorespiratory.</I> (i) <I>Respiratory.</I> Capacity and reserve to perform physical exertion in emergencies at least equal to the demands of the job assignment. This must be measured by annual pulmonary function test, with no less than a 90 percent predicted forced vital capacity and forced expiratory volume. There must be no diagnosis of respiratory impairment requiring ongoing use of medications such as bronchodilators or beta agonists. A full review and approval by the PPMD is required whenever there is a past history of sleep apnea (with an established index of suspicion), with or without treatment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cardiovascular.</I> (A) Capacity for tolerating physical exertion during emergencies. The results of the two semiannual assessments as identified in § 1046.16(b)(4) must be considered. Normal configuration and function, normal resting pulse, regular pulse without arrhythmia, full symmetrical pulses in extremities, and normotensive, with tolerance for rapid postural changes on rapid change from lying to standing position. The use of hypertensive medications is acceptable if there are no side effects present that would preclude adequate functions as herein specified.
</P>
<P>(B) If an examination reveals significant evidence of cardiovascular abnormality or significantly increased risk for coronary artery disease (CAD) as determined by the examining physician (e.g., by using the Framingham Point System), an evaluation by a specialist in internal medicine or cardiology may be required and evaluated by the Designated Physician. An electrocardiogram is required at entry, at age 40, and annually thereafter, which must be free from significant abnormality. If such abnormalities are detected, then a stress electrocardiogram with non-ischemic results must be provided, or the individual must be referred to a cardiologist for a fitness for duty examination. A stress electrocardiogram must be performed every other year beginning at age 50 with the results reviewed by the Designated Physician.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Neurological, mental, and emotional.</I> Absence of central and peripheral nervous system conditions that could adversely affect ability to perform normal and emergency duties or to handle firearms safely. A test for peripheral neuropathy at fingers and toes is required annually. Absence of neurotic or psychotic conditions which would adversely affect the ability to handle firearms safely or to act safely and efficiently under normal and emergency conditions. Psychologists and psychiatrists identified to conduct evaluations, assessments, testing, and/or diagnoses associated with medical qualifications of this part must meet standards established by DOE.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Musculoskeletal.</I> Absence of conditions that could reasonably be expected to interfere with the safe and effective performance of essential physical activities such as running, walking, crawling, climbing stairs, and standing for prolonged periods of time. All major joint range of motion limits must have no significant impairments in the performance of essential functions. This includes full range of motion to include overhead reaching and squatting. No history of spine surgery, a documented diagnosis of herniated disc, or mechanical back pain that has not been certified to have normal functional recovery with no activity limitations precluding the ability to perform SPO essential functions.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Skin.</I> Have no known significant abnormal intolerance to chemical, mechanical, and other physical agent exposures to the skin that may be encountered during routine and emergency duties, as specified at the site. Capability to tolerate use of personal protective covering and decontamination procedures when required by assigned job duties. Facial hair cannot be allowed to interfere with respirator fitting, and any such growth or a skin condition which could preclude respirator fit is not acceptable and must be documented.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Endocrine/nutritional/metabolic.</I> Ability to accommodate to changing work and meal schedules without potential or actual incapacity. Status adequate to meet the stresses and demands of assigned normal and emergency job duties. A full evaluation and approval of reasonable accommodation by the PPMD is required for hiring and retention when metabolic syndrome is identified and/or when diabetes is controlled by other than diet.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional medical or physical tests.</I> For those facilities where it is necessary to determine the medical qualification of SPOs or SPO applicants to perform special assignment duties which might require exposure to unusually high levels of stress or physical exertion, Field Elements may develop more stringent medical qualification requirements or additional medical or physical tests, in collaboration with the PPMD, as necessary for such determinations. All such additional qualification requirements must be coordinated with the Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security prior to application.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Medical examination procedures and requirements.</I> (1) The medical examinations required for certification must be performed at the following intervals:
</P>
<P>(i) Applicants for PF member positions must undergo a comprehensive medical examination, as specified herein. The Director, Office of Environment, Health, Safety and Security or designee, the Chief, Defense Nuclear Security in the case of NNSA, and/or the PPMD may require additional evaluations.
</P>
<P>(ii) After initial certification, each SO must be medically examined and recertified at least every two years or more often if the PPMD so requires. This initial certification date becomes the SO's anniversary date. Medical certification remains valid through 30 days beyond the anniversary date or for the period indicated by the PPMD if less than twenty-four months.
</P>
<P>(iii) After initial certification, each SPO must be medically examined and recertified every twelve months or more often (pursuant to § 1046.14 or otherwise if the PPMD so requires). This initial certification date becomes the SPO's anniversary date. Medical certification remains valid through 30 days from the anniversary date or for the time indicated by the PPMD if less than twelve months.
</P>
<P>(2) The medical examination must include a review of the essential functions of the job to which the individual is assigned. Medical examinations of SPO and SO applicants and incumbents must include the following evaluations to determine whether the individual meets the Medical Certification Standards for the applicable position:
</P>
<P>(i) An up to date medical and occupational history, complete physical examination, vision testing, audiometry, and spirometry. In addition, laboratory testing must be performed, including a complete blood count (CBC), basic blood chemistry, a fasting blood glucose, and a fasting lipid panel (the examination and testing is to identify baseline abnormalities, as well as trends); and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A psychologist or, as appropriate, a psychiatrist who meets standards established by DOE must be used to fulfill the requirements of this part. A personal, semi-structured interview at the time of the pre-placement medical evaluation and during the biennial (for SOs) or annual (for SPOs) examination must be conducted by a psychologist or, as appropriate, a psychiatrist. At the pre-placement medical examination and every third year for SPOs and every fourth year for SOs thereafter, a Minnesota Multi-Phasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) (available only to appropriate medical professionals at, e.g., <I>http://psychcorp.pearsonassessments.com</I>) or its revised form must be administered in order to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Establish a baseline psychological profile;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Monitor for the development of abnormalities; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Qualify and quantify abnormalities.
</P>
<P>(B) The information gathered from paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section, together with the results of the semi-structured interview of this paragraph, psychiatric evaluations (if required), and reviews of job performance may indicate disqualifying medical or psychological conditions. Additional generally-accepted psychological testing may be performed as required to substantiate findings of the MMPI. If medically indicated and approved by the PPMD, an additional evaluation by a psychiatrist who meets standards established by DOE may be conducted. Additional or more frequent psychological evaluations as determined by the psychologist, psychiatrist, Designated Physician, or the PPMD may be required. Unless otherwise indicated, a psychological evaluation performed in accordance with the other DOE requirements (e.g., pursuant to 10 CFR part 712) may satisfy the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(C) The Designated Physician may request any additional medical examination, test, consultation or evaluation deemed necessary to evaluate a candidate or an incumbent SO's or SPO's ability to perform essential job duties or for incumbents, the need for temporary work restrictions.
</P>
<P>(3) When an examinee needs the use of corrective devices, such as eyeglasses or hearing aids, to enable the examinee to successfully meet medical qualification requirements, the contractor responsible for the examinee's performance must make a determination that the use of any such device is compatible with all required emergency and protective equipment that the examinee may be required to wear or use while performing assigned job duties. The Designated Physician and the PPMD must determine that the reasonable accommodation is consistent with the medical standard and will not result in a direct threat to the individual or to others. This determination must be made before such corrective devices may be used by the examinee to meet the medical, physical readiness, or training requirements for a particular position.
</P>
<P>(4) Contractor management must provide reasonable accommodations to a qualified individual by taking reasonable steps to modify required emergency and protective equipment to be compatible with corrective devices or by providing equally effective, alternate equipment, if available.
</P>
<P>(5) The Designated Physician must discuss the results of the medical and physical readiness examinations with the individual. The results of the medical examinations also must be communicated in writing to PF management and to the individual and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the certification status of the individual, including any essential functions for which the individual is not qualified, with or without reasonable accommodations, and an assessment of whether the individual would present a direct threat to self or others in the position at issue;
</P>
<P>(ii) If another medical appointment is required, the date of the next medical appointment; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Recommended remedial programs or other measures that may restore the individual's ability to perform the essential functions or may negate the direct threat concern, if the individual is not approved for physical training, testing, or the relevant position.
</P>
<P>(6) The PF contractor must offer a health status exit review for all employees leaving PF service. If the employee desires the review, it must be conducted by the PPMD or Designated Physician. The review, which may be conducted in conjunction with the requirements of other parts, must include all of the medical standards for the PF position being vacated. The reason(s) for any health status exit review not being performed must be documented (e.g., employee declined to have the review conducted).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55184, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 57083, Sept. 22, 2015; 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.14" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.14   Medical certification disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Removal.</I> An incumbent SO or SPO is disqualified from medical certification by the PPMD if one or more of the medical certification standards contained in § 1046.13 are not met. An incumbent SO or SPO temporarily or permanently disqualified from medical certification by the PPMD must be removed from those protective force duties by the employer when the employer is notified by the PPMD of such a determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medical removal protection.</I> The employer of a disqualified SPO must offer the SPO medical removal protection if the PPMD determines in a written medical opinion that the disqualifying condition occurred as a result of site-approved training for or attempting to meet a physical readiness standard qualification, or site-approved training for security and emergency response (e.g., participating in force-on-force exercises for training, inspection, or validation purposes). The PPMD's determination must be based on an examining physician's recommendation or any other signs or symptoms that the Designated Physician deems medically sufficient to medically disqualify an SPO. The employee pay benefits specified in this section for combined temporary and permanent medical removal shall not be provided for more than one year from the date of the initial PPMD written determination regarding the same basis for disqualification.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Temporary removal pending final medical determination.</I> (i) The employer of a disqualified SPO must offer the SPO temporary medical removal from PF duties on each occasion that the PPMD determines in a written medical opinion that the worker should be temporarily removed from such duties pending a final medical determination of whether the SPO should be removed permanently, if appropriate. “Final medical determination” means the outcome of the Independent Review provided for in § 1046.15(c) or, if one is held, the Final Review provided for in § 1046.15(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) If an SPO is temporarily removed from PF duties pursuant to this section, the SPO's employer must not remove the employee from the payroll unless available alternative duties for which the worker is qualified or can be trained in a short period of time are refused or performed unsatisfactorily.
</P>
<P>(iii) While the SPO remains on the payroll pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, the SPO's employer must maintain the SPO's total base pay (overtime not included), seniority, and other site-specific worker rights and benefits (e.g., corporate benefit package and collective bargaining agreement benefits) as if the worker had not been removed. Funds reimbursable by the DOE which are provided to a SPO under medical removal protection must be reduced dollar for dollar for any other PF related pay or monetary benefit for associated lost earnings, including those negotiated through collective bargaining and from workers compensation. Medical removal protection in conjunction with these other benefits must not exceed the SPO's total base pay.
</P>
<P>(iv) If there are no suitable alternative duties available as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the SPO's employer must provide to the SPO the medical removal protection benefits specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section until alternative duties become available, the SPO has recovered, or one year has elapsed from the date of the PPMD's determination that the SPO should be temporarily removed from duties, whichever comes first. During this period the SPO may be placed on administrative leave when alternative duties are not available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permanent medical removal resulting from injuries.</I> (i) If the PPMD determines in a written medical opinion that the worker should be permanently removed from PF duties as a result of injuries sustained while engaging in required physical readiness activities (i.e., site approved training for or attempting to meet a physical readiness standard qualification or site approved training for security or emergency response), employer Human Resources policies, disability insurance, and/or collective bargaining agreements will dictate employment status and compensation beyond the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an SPO has been permanently removed from duty pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the SPO's employer must provide the SPO the opportunity to transfer to another available position, or one which later becomes available, for which the SPO is qualified (or for which the SPO can be trained in a short period), subject to collective bargaining agreements, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Worker consultation before temporary or permanent medical removal.</I> If the PPMD determines that an SPO should be temporarily or permanently removed from PF duties, the PPMD must:
</P>
<P>(i) Advise the SPO of the determination that medical removal is necessary to protect the SPO's health and well-being or prevent the SPO from being a hazard to self or others;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the SPO the opportunity to have any medical questions concerning medical removal answered; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtain the SPO's signature or document that the SPO has been advised on the provisions of medical removal as provided in this section and the risks of continued participation in physically demanding positions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Return to work after medical removal.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, the SPO's employer must not return an SPO, who has been granted medical removal protection under this section, to the SPO's former job status.
</P>
<P>(ii) If, in the PPMD's opinion, continued participation in PF duties will not pose an increased risk to the SPO's health and well-being or an increased risk (beyond those normally associated with SPO duties) of the SPO being a direct threat to self or others, the PPMD must fully discuss these matters with the SPO and then, in a written determination, may authorize the SPO's employer to return the SPO to former job status. Within one year from the PPMD's original decision to remove the individual from SPO status and subject to the SPO's ability to meet all other position related requirements (e.g., weapons qualifications, physical readiness standard, human reliability program, and refresher training), the employer must return the SPO to duty status given PPMD authorization to return to work. For durations beyond one year from the original decision given PPMD authorization to return to work, return to SPO status will be at the employer's discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Medical removal protection benefits.</I> (1) If required by this section to provide medical removal protection benefits, the SPO's employer must maintain for not more than one year, as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section, the removed worker's total base pay, and seniority, as though the SPO had not been removed. The total base pay provision in this section must be reduced by any compensation for lost earnings provided by any other benefit or those negotiated through collective bargaining for both temporary and permanent removal protection as provided by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a removed SPO files a claim for workers' compensation payments for a physical disability, then the SPO's employer must continue to provide medical removal protection benefits until disposition of the claim, recovery of the claimant, or one year from the date the removal protection began, whichever comes first. If workers' compensation benefits are provided retroactively then the SPO must reimburse the employer to the extent the SPO is compensated for lost earnings for the same period that the medical removal protection benefits are received for both temporary and permanent removal protection as provided by this section. Expenses for medical/rehabilitation treatments related to the basis for medical removal protection are not covered under this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The SPO's employer's obligation to provide medical removal protection benefits to an SPO is reduced to the extent that the worker receives compensation for earnings lost during the period of removal either from a publicly or site employer-funded compensation program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Collective bargaining agreements.</I> For the purposes of this section, the requirement that the SPO's employer provide medical removal protection benefits is not intended to expand upon, restrict, or change any rights to a specific job classification or position under the terms of an applicable existing collective bargaining agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.15" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.15   Review of medical certification disqualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Temporary medical and physical conditions.</I> Should the PPMD determine that an individual is disqualified from medical certification because of a temporary medical or physical condition which results in the individual not being able to perform any of the essential functions of the job classification, the employer may assign the individual to alternate, limited duty, if available, until the individual is again medically certified by the PPMD. However, this limited duty may only include assignment to duties in a job classification where all essential functions for that job classification can be safely and efficiently performed. Medical certification is required to remain in armed status. A temporary medical certification disqualification may not exceed a period of twelve months regardless of whether medical removal protection is authorized. Before the end of the twelve-month period, the PPMD must determine whether the individual is permanently disqualified from medical certification because of a continuing medical or physical condition which results in the individual not being able to perform all essential functions of the job classification. The individual may request an Independent Review of the disqualification at any time the twelve-month period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permanent medical and physical conditions.</I> If the PPMD determines that an individual is disqualified from medical certification because of a permanent medical or physical condition which results in the individual not being able to perform all essential functions of the job classification, and the individual requests an Independent Review, the employer may assign the individual to alternate, limited duty, if available. This limited duty may include assignment to duties in any job classification where all essential functions can be safely and efficiently performed. Subject to the one year limit as identified in § 1046.14, assignment to alternate, limited duty, may remain in effect until an Independent Review determination, and if applicable, the Final Review determination by the DOE Office of Hearings and Appeals.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent review.</I> An individual PF member disqualified from medical certification, temporarily or permanently, by the PPMD may request an Independent Review of the case. The individual initiating such a review must submit the request for an Independent Review in writing to EHSS-1 within ten working days of the date of notification (date of written correspondence) of disqualification. A copy of the request must be sent to the individual's employer and to the local ODFSA: for DOE HQ sites, to the Director, Office of Security Operations; for NNSA sites, to the cognizant NNSA Security Director; and for any other DOE sites, to the cognizant DOE Security Director.
</P>
<P>(1) EHSS-1, in coordination with the respective PPMD, must provide for the Independent Review. The Independent Review must be conducted within sixty calendar days of the receipt of the request for an Independent Review. The Independent Review must include a complete review of the record of the case.
</P>
<P>(2) The disqualified individual may select a representative during the Independent Review process. The individual or representative may provide additional evidence relating solely to the medical or physical readiness of the individual. The individual must execute a consent document authorizing the release of relevant medical information to EHSS-1.
</P>
<P>(3) The disqualified individual must provide a copy of the request for Independent Review and the signed consent document for the release of medical information to the respective PPMD and the individual's employer within ten working days of the submission of the request to EHSS-1.
</P>
<P>(4) Within ten working days of receipt of a copy of the request for an Independent Review, the disqualified individual's employer must provide EHSS-1 with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the job analysis (JA)/mission essential task list (METL) available to the respective Designated Physician at the time of the individual's medical evaluation;
</P>
<P>(ii) A listing of the essential functions for the individual's PF job classification; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any additional information relating to the medical or physical readiness of the requestor that EHSS-1 may request.
</P>
<P>(5) EHSS-1 must provide the information in paragraph (c)(4) of this section to the Independent Physician for use in the independent review.
</P>
<P>(6) A medical examination of the disqualified individual must be conducted by an Independent Physician approved by EHSS-1. The Independent Physician must not have served as the requestor's personal physician in any capacity or have been previously involved in the requestor's case on behalf of the Department or a Department contractor. The Independent Review must confirm or disagree with the medical certification disqualification and must consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The validity of the stated physical requirements and essential function(s) for the applicable job classification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The PPMD's medical determination of the individual's inability to perform essential functions or to undertake training or the physical readiness qualification test without undue medical risk to the health and safety of the individual;
</P>
<P>(iii) The completeness of the medical information available to the PPMD; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If applicable, the determination by the PPMD that the performance of the individual poses a direct threat to self or others.
</P>
<P>(7) The results of the Independent Physician's medical examination of the individual must be provided to EHSS-1 for review. EHSS-1 must then recommend a final determination confirming or reversing the medical certification disqualification. The recommendation of EHSS-1 must be forwarded to the applicable local ODFSA (for DOE HQ sites, the Director, Office of Security Operations; for NNSA sites, the cognizant local NNSA Security Director; and for any other DOE sites, the cognizant local DOE Security Director) and the respective PPMD. This individual will either adopt or reject the recommendation of EHSS-1.
</P>
<P>(8) EHSS-1 must provide the results of the Independent Review and the final determination regarding the individual's medical disqualification to the requestor, the respective PPMD, the respective local ODFSA, and the requestor's employer.
</P>
<P>(9) If the Independent Review determination confirms the individual is disqualified from medical certification, the individual must be removed from the PF job classification by the individual's employer. If the Independent Review disagrees with the medical certification disqualification, the individual must be reinstated to the PF job classification by the individual's employer, subject to successful completion of any required qualifications or training requirements that were due during the temporary disqualification, and subject to subsequent annual medical examinations and the ability to meet applicable physical readiness requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final review.</I> An individual receiving an unfavorable Independent Review Determination may request a Final Review of the Independent Review Determination by the Office of Hearings and Appeals. The individual must submit a request for a Final Review to the Office of Hearings and Appeals, in writing, within 30 days of receiving an unfavorable determination, and notify EHSS-1 of the request for appeal. In the request for a Final Review, the individual must state with specificity the basis for disagreement with the Independent Review confirming the medical certification disqualification. EHSS-1 must transmit the complete record in the case to the Office of Hearings and Appeals within five business days of receiving notice from the individual that the SPO has filed an appeal of the Independent Review Determination. The Office of Hearings and Appeals may request additional information, if necessary, to clarify any issue on appeal. Within 45 days of the closing of the record, the Office of Hearings and Appeals must issue a Decision and Order setting forth its findings on appeal and its conclusions based on the record before it. Upon receipt of an unfavorable Final Review decision by the Office of Hearings and Appeals, the individual must be permanently removed from that PF job classification, SO or SPO (FPRS, BRS, ARS, or SRT member) by the employer. However, nothing in the Final Review decision shall prevent the employee from being allowed to qualify for a less strenuous physical readiness job classification given the availability of said position, subject to successful completion of any other required qualifications or training requirements. Upon receipt of a favorable Final Review decision from the Office of Hearings and Appeals, the individual must be reinstated to the PF job classification by the employer, subject to successful completion of any required qualifications or training requirements due during the temporary disqualification, and future ability to be medically certified for the PF job classification and to meet applicable physical readiness standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55184, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 57083, Sept. 22, 2015; 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.16" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.16   SPO physical readiness qualification standards and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Employers must ensure SPOs have access to their applicable physical readiness standard and the provisions of this part. Employers must also inform SPOs of their rights associated with the physical readiness requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) All SPO applicants must satisfy the applicable physical readiness standard for their assigned position and must physically demonstrate the physical training and knowledge, skills, and abilities set out in paragraph (g) of this section, as required for their assigned position before beginning active duty in that position.
</P>
<P>(2) All incumbent SPOs must re-qualify every year according to their applicable readiness standard, pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1), (f), or (g) of this section. Re-qualification must occur no earlier than 30 days prior to and no later than 30 days following the SPOs anniversary date. The actual date of re-qualification does not affect the anniversary date under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) All qualification and re-qualification activities must be conducted under the supervision of personnel knowledgeable of DOE physical readiness program requirements as approved by the local ODFSA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Physical readiness training program.</I> SPOs must maintain physical readiness standards on a continuing basis. Each SPO must engage in a year-round physical readiness training program consistent with paragraph (c)(2) and (3) of this section to:
</P>
<P>(1) Achieve and maintain the cardio-respiratory and musculoskeletal fitness necessary to safely perform, without posing a direct threat to self or others, all essential functions of normal and emergency PF duties at any time; and
</P>
<P>(2) Enable the individual SPO to pass (on an annual basis) the applicable SPO physical readiness standard without any undue risk of physical injury.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training program requirements.</I> (1) The training program must include the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) Activities with appropriate durations specific to the physical readiness standard, which appropriately address aerobic, agility, flexibility, and strength conditioning.
</P>
<P>(ii) Instruction on techniques and exercises designed to ensure SPOs can safely rise quickly from the prone position, and if required by qualification standard, transition into a run.
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate warm-up and cool down activities designed by exercise physiologists to support injury free workouts and physical readiness testing.
</P>
<P>(2) An SPO physical readiness training and maintenance program must be developed by the employing organization in consultation with the PPMD and the local ODFSA.
</P>
<P>(3) After initial training and qualification, each SPO must participate in the physical readiness training and maintenance program on a continuing basis. The physical readiness maintenance program must be based on assessment of the individual SPO's physical readiness levels and be tailored to the individual SPO's physical readiness maintenance requirements and improvement needs. Whether training is conducted on or off site, the SPO's participation must be documented.
</P>
<P>(4) Assessments of an SPO's level of physical readiness must be conducted at least semiannually by personnel knowledgeable of DOE requirements. The results of the assessments must be provided to the Designated Physician. The assessments must include recognized assessment standard values for aerobic capacity (e.g., American College of Sports Medicine [<I>http://www.acsm.org/</I>], Cooper Fitness Institute [<I>http://www.cooperinstitute.org/</I>], or Rockport Walk Protocol [available online from a variety of Web sites]). Though not a qualification, the assessment report must include an evaluation of the SPO's level of physical readiness and provide recommendations for maintenance requirements and improvement needs, if any. Ability to summon appropriate medical emergency response with the capability of responding within a reasonable time must be available at the assessment site. An individual trained in cardio-pulmonary resuscitation and automatic external defibrillator equipment must be present.
</P>
<P>(5) No additional training or time extension to meet the standards is permitted except for unusual circumstances based on a temporary medical or physical condition as certified by the PPMD that causes the SPO to be unable to satisfy the physical readiness standards within the required time period without suffering undue physical harm. An SPO who fails to re-qualify must be removed from armed SPO status and must participate in a remedial physical readiness training program, as specified in paragraphs (g)(8) and (9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) An SPO may be required to demonstrate the ability to meet the applicable physical readiness qualification standard during a Headquarters or field audit/inspection/survey or other similar activity, as directed by the local ODFSA. Failure to meet the physical readiness standard must be treated as if the SPO failed the first attempt during routine qualification, and the procedures of paragraphs (g)(5) and (8) of this section apply. An SPO who fails to demonstrate the standard must be removed from armed status.
</P>
<P>(7) Employees must notify the employer when the requirements of the training program cannot be successfully completed on a recurring basis (e.g., exercises cannot be completed and/or completed within time limits several times in a row due to injury and/or conditioning issues).
</P>
<P>(8) When a physical readiness deficiency is first identified, the employer must provide the SPO access to remedial training or, based upon PPMD evaluation validating the medical need, to a work hardening or rehabilitation program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Physical readiness standards for SPOs.</I> Any failure, at any time, by an SPO to physically demonstrate ability to meet the required physical readiness standard, must result in temporary removal from being authorized to perform the functions of that standard. The physical readiness standards for SPOs are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fixed Post Readiness Standard (FPRS).</I> This qualification standard applies to all SPOs. Regardless of an SPO's physical readiness category, the FPRS must be physically demonstrated every year by all SPOs.
</P>
<P>(i) The standard requires sufficient agility and range of motion to: Assume, maintain, and recover from the variety of cover positions associated with effective use of firearms at entry portals and similar static environments to include prone, standing, kneeling, and barricade positions; use site-specific deadly and intermediate force weapons and employ weaponless self-defense techniques; effect arrests of suspects and place them under restraint, e.g., with handcuffs or other physical restraint devices; and meet any other measure of physical readiness necessary to perform site-specific essential functions as prescribed by site management and approved by the respective program office.
</P>
<P>(ii) A stand-alone qualification test which requires the demonstration of all of the required elements (both general and site-specific, if applicable) must be developed and maintained by each site and approved by the ODFSA. This qualification test can be used for annual qualification, or sites may choose to document an SPO's ability to meet specific elements of the standard during annual refresher training sessions and/or during weapons qualification activities. All elements of this standard must be demonstrated annually in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(iii) The results must be provided to the Designated Physician prior to the annual medical examination. Inability to physically demonstrate the FPRS requirements must result in temporary loss of SPO status. Remedial training must be provided pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (g)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Basic Readiness Standard (BRS).</I> In addition to demonstrating the FPRS requirements as stated in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the BRS qualification consists of a one-half mile run with a maximum qualifying time of 4 minutes 40 seconds and a 40-yard dash from the prone position in 8.5 seconds or less, and any other site-specific measure of physical readiness necessary to perform essential functions as prescribed by site management and approved by the respective program office. The running elements and other site-specific measures of the BRS must be demonstrated on the same day.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Advanced Readiness Standard (ARS).</I> In addition to demonstrating the FPRS requirements as stated in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the ARS qualification consists of a one mile run with a maximum qualifying time of 8 minutes 30 seconds, and a 40-yard dash from the prone position in 8.0 seconds or less, and any other site-specific measure of physical readiness necessary to perform site-specific essential functions as prescribed by site management and approved by the respective program office. The running elements and other site-specific measures of the ARS must be demonstrated on the same day.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Revisions to Physical Readiness Standards.</I> The Department may revise the physical readiness standards or establish new standards consistent with the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Evaluation and documentation for BRS and ARS SPOs.</I> Two distinct determinations must be made by the Designated Physician for BRS and ARS SPOs. First, a medical examination that meets the requirements of § 1046.13(g) must be conducted. A written determination must be made whether the SPO is medically certified for SPO duties without being a danger to self or others. This includes being able to attempt to physically demonstrate the applicable physical readiness standard. Given a favorable medical clearance determination, the second determination assesses the SPO's physical readiness capability by comparing the SPO's current examination results, medical history, normative data, past qualifying times, and the results of physical assessments. The Designated Physician's evaluation and documentation that an incumbent BRS or ARS SPO has reasonable expectation of meeting the appropriate physical readiness standard is deemed to have met the annual physical readiness qualification requirement without having to take the appropriate BRS or ARS test unless the SPO is randomly selected pursuant to paragraph (f)(7) of this section. Physician extenders (e.g., physician's assistants, certified occupational health nurses, or nurse practitioners) and exercise physiologists may perform appropriate elements of the physical examination and the physical assessments required in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. However, both the medical clearance determination and the formal physical readiness capability evaluation must be made by the Designated Physician without delegation. A site standard form must be used, and pertinent negatives must be documented on the form. The following procedures apply regarding the Designated Physician's evaluation and documentation that an incumbent BRS or ARS SPO has a reasonable expectation of meeting the appropriate physical readiness standard.
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluation of BRS and ARS SPOs must include consideration of past medical history and normative data when available for individuals deemed to be physically capable. The following criteria must be evaluated: Cardiac function to include resting pulse rate and pulse recovery after exertion; neuromuscular function to include assessments of strength, range/freedom of motion, and movement without pain. While they are not required to be used or intended to be the sole determining criterion, for Designated Physicians using metabolic equivalents (METS) data the following values may be included in the overall process to determine if an individual SPO has a reasonable expectation of being able to physically demonstrate the appropriate physical readiness standard.
</P>
<P>(i) For BRS SPOs a METS value of seven or greater would be a positive indicator of sufficient aerobic capacity to successfully demonstrate the half mile run associated with the BRS.
</P>
<P>(ii) For ARS SPOs a METS value of 12 or greater would be a positive indicator of sufficient aerobic capacity to successfully demonstrate the mile run associated with the ARS.
</P>
<P>(2) The designated physician may medically certify the BRS or ARS SPO for SPO duties and document that the SPO has a reasonable expectation of meeting the appropriate physical readiness standard. In this case, the SPO is deemed to have met the annual physical readiness qualification requirement without having to take the appropriate BRS or ARS test, unless the SPO is randomly selected pursuant to paragraph (f)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The designated physician may indicate the BRS or ARS SPO meets medical standards for SPO duties, but also indicate that the SPO does not appear to have the physical capability to pass the appropriate physical readiness test. In this case, the file must be immediately forwarded to the PPMD for review.
</P>
<P>(4) If the PPMD concurs with the Designated Physician that the SPO does not have a reasonable expectation of being able to meet the readiness standard, the SPO may request to attempt to demonstrate the appropriate physical readiness test, which must be accomplished successfully within 30 days of the date of the medical certification for the SPO to remain in status. If the SPO chooses not to attempt to demonstrate the readiness standard, then the SPO must be removed immediately from duties associated with that physical readiness standard. Should the SPO fail to meet the standard, the retesting process described below in paragraph (g) of this section must be followed. Ultimate return to duties associated with that standard would require following the new hire process of medical clearance for SPO duties and then physically demonstrating the readiness standard which had not been met.
</P>
<P>(5) Should the PPMD determine that the SPO does appear to have a reasonable expectation of meeting the appropriate physical readiness standard, the SPO is deemed to have met the annual qualification requirement for the appropriate physical readiness standard.
</P>
<P>(6) The Designated Physician may find that the SPO cannot be medically certified for SPO duties. In this case, the SPO must be removed from armed status with appropriate PPMD review and medical intervention recommendations.
</P>
<P>(7) Each year, 10 percent of the BRS and ARS SPO populations (supervisors included) at each site must be randomly selected by the employer and physically tested pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. At the beginning of the testing year as established by each site, the site must ensure that a sufficient number of individuals and alternates are selected in one drawing to ensure that the 10 percent testing requirement can be achieved even though some SPOs selected may not receive a reasonable expectation determination for the Designated Physician as identified in paragraph (f)(2) of this section. Once 10 percent of the SPOs successfully demonstrating the standard has been achieved, the remaining alternates are not required to be physically tested unless they do not receive a reasonable expectation determination. The identity of an individual as a selectee for testing shall be kept confidential by the employer in a manner that ensures this information does not become known to the selected individual, the PPMD, and the Designated Physician until after the individual SPO has been deemed to have a reasonable expectation of meeting the appropriate physical readiness standard pursuant to paragraphs (f)(2) or (5) of this section. The selected individuals must successfully complete the applicable physical readiness standard to retain SPO status. During a given year's testing, at least 90 percent of those tested in each physical readiness category must meet the requirements.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Should the passing percentage of those randomly selected and attempting to physically demonstrate the standard in a particular physical readiness category at a particular site drop below 90 percent (on the first attempt) then all SPOs in that category at that site must be tested on their ability to physically demonstrate the standard. The following parameters apply.
</P>
<P>(A) All percentages are based upon first attempts.
</P>
<P>(B) The total population of SPOs (supervisors included) in that physical readiness category at the beginning of that testing year at that site must be used to determine the percentage thresholds.
</P>
<P>(C) The 100 percent testing of SPOs in that category must commence immediately upon the failure that renders achievement of a 90 percent success rate mathematically impossible for that readiness category during that testing year. The date of this failure will establish the anniversary date of the new testing year.
</P>
<P>(D) An insufficient number of randomly selected individuals and alternates available to constitute the 10 percent selection criterion represents a failure to achieve the 90 percent threshold. Identification of additional randomly selected individuals for that testing year is not authorized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The 100 percent testing described in paragraph (f)(8)(i) of this section must continue for a minimum of 365 days. With a 95 percent successful demonstration rate of the standard over the year, 10 percent testing may return at the beginning of the new testing year.
</P>
<P>(iii) Should 95 percent successful demonstration not be achieved in the 365 days of 100 percent testing, the 100 percent testing described in paragraph (f)(8)(i) of this section must continue for the next 365 days under the conditions specified in paragraphs (f)(8)(i)(A) through (D) of this section. This process must be repeated until 95 percent successful demonstration is achieved.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Physical testing for BRS and ARS SPOs.</I> The following procedures apply to an individual physically demonstrating the physical readiness standards for applicants and incumbent SPOs.
</P>
<P>(1) Incumbent BRS and ARS SPOs randomly selected for physical testing pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section in any given year shall physically meet the applicable physical readiness standard within 30 days of their anniversary date.
</P>
<P>(2) Incumbent SPOs shall physically meet the applicable physical readiness standard prior to their assignment to duties which require a more stringent standard.
</P>
<P>(3) All newly hired SPOs must physically meet the most stringent standard required at the site.
</P>
<P>(4) SPOs returning after an absence from protective force duties which encompasses their anniversary date must physically meet at least the standard they were required to meet when they left SPO duties, should such a position requiring that standard be available.
</P>
<P>(5) Each applicant and incumbent SPO must be medically approved by the Designated Physician within thirty days prior to initial participation in any physical readiness training program and prior to attempting the applicable standard to determine whether the individual can undertake the standard without undue medical risk to the health and safety of the individual. Incumbents also must have successfully completed a physical readiness assessment within thirty days prior to their annual physical examination by the Designated Physician.
</P>
<P>(6) Incumbent SPOs must qualify on the applicable standard annually by physically passing the required test if they have not received a reasonable expectation determination as described in paragraph (f) of this section. The testing protocol shall include mandated participation by the SPO being tested in pre-test warm-up and post-test cool-down activities as described in paragraph (c) of this section. The responsible person in charge of the qualification activity must inform the SPO that the attempt will be for qualification. Once this has been communicated by the person in charge, the attempt will constitute a qualification attempt. Ability to summon appropriate medical emergency response with the capability of responding within a reasonable time must be available at the testing site. An individual trained in cardio pulmonary resuscitation and automatic external defibrillator equipment must be present.
</P>
<P>(7) Physical readiness re-qualification for randomly selected incumbent SPOs must occur not more than 30 days from the anniversary date. Failure to qualify within 30 days past the anniversary date must result in removal from SPO status for that physical readiness category. Not more than five attempts may be allowed during the 30-day period. All attempts must be made within 30 days of the medical approval required in paragraph (g)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) Remedial training program: If an SPO fails all attempts pursuant to paragraph (g)(7) of this section for reasons other than injury or illness, the PF contractor must offer the SPO the opportunity to participate in a supervised physical readiness remedial training program developed by an exercise physiologist.
</P>
<P>(i) Supervision of the physical readiness remedial training program may be accomplished by direct observation of the SPO during the training program by personnel knowledgeable of Department physical readiness program requirements, or by these personnel monitoring the SPO's progress on a weekly basis.
</P>
<P>(ii) The remedial training program must be based upon an assessment of the SPO's individual physical readiness deficiencies and improvement needs which precluded the SPO from successfully completing the applicable physical readiness standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The remedial training program must not exceed a period of 30 days.
</P>
<P>(9) Re-testing of incumbent SPOs after completion of remedial training program.
</P>
<P>(i) Once an SPO has begun a remedial training program, it must be completed before the SPO may attempt the applicable standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon completion of the remedial training the ARS/BRS SPO must be offered an assessment using the same process that is used for the required semiannual assessment as required in paragraph (c)(4) of this section. Any deficiencies and improvement needs must be identified to the SPO.
</P>
<P>(iii) The SPO has seven days from the completion date of the remedial training program to meet the applicable physical readiness qualification standard. Only one attempt during this seven-day period may be made unless circumstances beyond the testing organization or participant's control (e.g., severe weather, equipment failure, or injury as determined by the employer) interrupt the attempt. When the attempt is interrupted, the employer may reschedule it within seven days.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the SPO meets the standard on the attempt specified in paragraph (f)(9)(iii) of this section, the original anniversary qualification date remains the same.
</P>
<P>(v) Failure to meet the standard must result in the SPO being permanently removed from duties requiring ability to meet that physical readiness standard.
</P>
<P>(vi) If an SPO requires remedial training during three consecutive annual qualification periods, then a fourth remediation shall not be offered for subsequent failures to achieve the physical readiness standard. The SPO must be permanently removed from duties requiring ability to meet that physical readiness standard.
</P>
<P>(10) The physical readiness standards set forth in this part may not be waived or exempted. Additional time, not to exceed six months, may be granted on a case-by-case basis for those individuals who, because of a temporary medical condition or physical injury certified by the Designated Physician, are unable to satisfy the physical readiness standards within the required period without suffering injury. Additional time totaling more than one year may not be granted. When additional time is granted:
</P>
<P>(i) The granting of such time does not eliminate the requirement for the incumbent SPO to be removed from that SPO physical readiness standard status during the time extension.
</P>
<P>(ii) When additional time is granted because of an inability to qualify without a certified medical condition or injury, the PF member is not entitled to temporary removal protection benefits. Granting additional time due to deconditioning is not authorized.
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon completion of the additional time period and requisite physical readiness training, as applicable, the incumbent SPO must be assessed using the same process that is used for the semiannual assessment as required in paragraph (c)(4) of this section if the results indicate the SPO is ready to take the test. The test must be taken within 30 days of medical clearance as described in § 1046.13(g).
</P>
<P>(iv) For a duration exceeding three months, the SPO's original anniversary qualification date may be revised at the discretion of the employer to reflect the most recent date that the SPO qualified under the applicable standard, which will become the new anniversary qualification date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.17" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.17   Training standards and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Department contractors responsible for the management of PF personnel must establish training programs and procedures for PF members to develop and maintain the knowledge, skills and abilities required to perform assigned tasks. The site-specific qualification and training programs must be based upon criteria approved by the ODFSA.
</P>
<P>(b) Department contractors responsible for training PF personnel must prepare and annually review mission essential tasks from which a JA or mission essential task list (METL) is developed. The JAs or METLs must be prepared detailing the required actions or functions for each specific PF job assignment. When a generic Department JA or METL does not exist for a site-specific PF assignment (e.g., dog handler, investigator, flight crew, pilot, etc.) the site must develop a site-specific JA or METL. The JA or METL must be used as the basis for local site-specific training programs.
</P>
<P>(c) The Designated Physician must approve in advance the participation by individuals in training and examinations of training prior to an individual's beginning employment as a PF member and annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(d) The formal PF training program must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be based on identified essential functions and job tasks, with identified levels of knowledge, skills and abilities needed to perform the tasks required by a specific position;
</P>
<P>(2) Be aimed at achieving at least a well-defined, minimum level of competency required to perform each essential function and task acceptably, with or without reasonable accommodations;
</P>
<P>(3) Employ standardized instructional guidelines, based on approved curricula, with clear performance objectives as the basis for instruction;
</P>
<P>(4) Include valid performance-based testing to determine and certify job readiness;
</P>
<P>(5) Be documented so that individual and overall training status is easily accessible. Individual training records and certifications must be retained for at least one year after termination of the employee from employment as a member of the PF;
</P>
<P>(6) Incorporate the initial and maintenance training and training exercise requirements expressly set forth in this part and as otherwise required by DOE;
</P>
<P>(7) Be reviewed and revised, as applicable, by PF management on an annual basis; and
</P>
<P>(8) Be reviewed and approved by the local ODFSA on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>SOs</I>—(1) <I>SO initial training requirements.</I> (i) Prior to initial assignment to duty, unless they previously have been employed as an SPO at the same DOE facility, each SO must successfully complete a basic SO training course, approved by the local ODFSA, designed to provide the knowledge, skills, and ability needed to competently perform all essential functions and tasks associated with SO job responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) The essential functions and minimum competency levels must be determined by a site-specific JA or METL. The essential functions and minimum competency levels must include, but are not limited to, the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform the essential functions set forth in this part; task areas as specified by DOE; and any other site-specific task areas that will ensure the SO's ability to perform all aspects of the assigned position under normal and emergency conditions without posing a direct threat to the SO or to others.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SO maintenance training.</I> Each SO must successfully complete an annual course of maintenance training to maintain the minimum level of competency required for the successful performance of tasks and essential functions associated with SO job responsibilities. The type and intensity of training must be based on a site-specific JA or METL. Failure to achieve a minimum level of competency must result in the SO's placement in a remedial training program. The remedial training program must be tailored to provide the SO with the necessary training to afford a reasonable opportunity to meet the level of competency required by the job analysis. Failure to demonstrate competency at the completion of the remedial program must result in loss of SO status.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SO knowledge, skills, and abilities.</I> Each SO must possess the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to protect Department security interests from the theft, sabotage, and other acts that may harm national security, the facility, its employees, or the health and safety of the public. The requirements for each SO to demonstrate proficiency in, and familiarity with, the knowledge, skills, and abilities and the responsibilities necessary to perform the essential functions of the job must be based on the JA or METL.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>SPOs</I>—(1<I>) SPO initial training requirements.</I> Prior to initial assignment to duty, in addition to meeting SO training requirements described above in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, each SPO must successfully complete the approved Department basic SPO training course. SPOs who are rehired at the same DOE facility or who have worked as an SPO at another DOE facility are not required to retake the basic training course as determined by a site-specific assessment of the individual. In addition to the basic SPO training course, SPO initial training must include successful completion of site-specific training objectives derived from a site-specific JA or METL, task areas as specified by DOE, and any other site-specific task areas that will ensure the SPO's ability to perform all aspects of the assigned position under normal and emergency conditions without posing a direct threat to the SPO or to others.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SPO maintenance training.</I> In addition to meeting the SO maintenance training requirements described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, each SPO must successfully complete an annual course of maintenance training to maintain the minimum level of competency required for the successful performance of essential functions and tasks associated with SPO job responsibilities. The type and intensity of training must be determined by a site-specific JA or METL. Failure to achieve a minimum level of competency must result in the SPO being placed in a remedial training program. The remedial training program must be tailored to provide the SPO with necessary training to afford a reasonable opportunity to meet the level of competency required by the JA or METL within clearly established time frames. Failure to demonstrate competency at the completion of the remedial program must result in loss of SPO status.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SPO knowledge, skills and abilities.</I> In addition to meeting the SO knowledge, skills and ability requirements described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, the requirements for each SPO to demonstrate proficiency in, and familiarity with, the responsibilities identified in the applicable JA or METL and proficiency in the individual and collective knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform the essential functions and the job tasks must be based on their applicable JA or METL.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>SRT Members.</I> In addition to satisfying the initial and maintenance training requirements for SPOs and meeting the SPO knowledge, skill, and ability requirements, SRT members must meet the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>SRT initial training requirements.</I> Prior to initial assignment to duty, each SRT-qualified SPO must successfully complete the current Department-approved SRT basic qualification course designed to provide at least the minimum level of knowledge, skills, and ability needed to competently perform all the identified essential functions of the job and tasks associated with SRT job responsibilities. SPOs who have previously successfully completed the SRT basic qualification course to work at another DOE facility do not have to retake the SRT basic qualification as determined by a site-specific assessment of the individual. After completion of the SRT basic qualification course, the SRT-qualified SPO must participate in a site-specific training program designed to provide the minimum level of knowledge and skills needed to competently perform all the identified essential functions of the job and tasks associated with site-specific SRT job responsibilities. The site-specific essential functions and minimum levels of competency must be based on a site-specific JA or METL, task areas as specified by DOE, and any other site-specific task areas that will ensure the SRT-qualified SPO's ability to perform all aspects of the assigned position under normal and emergency conditions without posing a direct threat to the SPO or to others.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SRT maintenance training.</I> After assignment to duties as a member of an SRT, an SRT-qualified SPO must receive maintenance training annually on each area required by a site-specific JA or METL. The annual maintenance training program must be completed over two or more sessions appropriately spaced throughout the year. Failure to achieve a minimum level of competency must result in the SRT-qualified SPO being placed in a remedial training program or removal from SRT qualification status, as determined by contractor management. The remedial training program must be tailored to provide the SRT-qualified SPO with necessary training to afford a reasonable opportunity to meet the level of competency required by the JA or METL. Failure to demonstrate competency at the completion of the remedial program must result in loss of SRT-qualification status.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SRT knowledge, skills, and abilities.</I> The requirements for each SRT-qualified SPO to demonstrate proficiency in, and familiarity with, the responsibilities identified in the applicable JA or METL and proficiency in the individual and collective knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform the job tasks must include, but are not limited to, those identified for SPOs and based on their applicable JA or METL.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Specialized requirements.</I> PF personnel who are assigned specialized PF responsibilities outside the scope of normal duties must successfully complete the appropriate basic and maintenance training, as required by DOE and other applicable governing regulating authorities (e.g., Federal Aviation Administration). This training must enable the individual to achieve and maintain at least the minimum level of knowledge, skills, ability needed to competently perform the tasks associated with the specialized job responsibilities, as well as maintain mandated certification, when applicable. Such personnel may include, but are not limited to, flight crews, instructors, armorers, central alarm system operators, crisis negotiators, investigators, canine handlers, and law enforcement specialists. The assignment of such specialists and scope of such duties must be based on site-specific needs and approved by the local ODFSA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Supervisors</I>—(1) <I>Supervisor training requirements.</I> Prior to initial assignment to supervisory duty, each PF supervisor must successfully complete a supervisor training program designed to provide at least the minimum level of knowledge, skills, ability needed to competently perform all essential functions of the job and tasks associated with supervisory job responsibilities. Appropriate annual refresher training must be provided. The essential functions and minimum levels of competency must be based on a site-specific JA or METL and must include the essential functions and task areas identified for the level of PF personnel to be supervised. Armed supervisors of SPOs must be trained and qualified as SPOs. SPO supervisors must meet applicable medical and physical readiness qualification and certification standards for assigned response duties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supervisor knowledge, skills, and abilities.</I> Each PF supervisor must possess the skills necessary to effectively direct the actions of assigned personnel. Each supervisor must demonstrate proficiency in, and familiarity with, the responsibilities identified in the applicable JA or METL and proficiency in the skills and abilities necessary to perform those jobs.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>PF training exercises.</I> Exercises of various types must be included in the training and performance testing process for the purposes of achieving and maintaining skills and assessing individual, leader and collective competency levels. The types and frequency of training exercises must be determined by the training needs analysis conducted as part of the training program, and approved by the local ODFSA. These exercises must be planned and conducted to provide site-specific training to the PF in the prevention of the successful completion of potential adversarial acts as specified by DOE.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Firearms qualification standards.</I> (1) No person may be authorized to carry a firearm as an SPO until the responsible local ODFSA is assured that the individual who is to be armed with individually issued/primary weapons is qualified in accordance with firearms standards or that, in the case of post-specific crew-served and special weapons, a determination of proficiency and ability to operate the weapon safely has been made.
</P>
<P>(2) As a minimum, each SPO must meet the applicable firearms qualification or proficiency standards every six months under daylight and reduced lighting conditions. Requalification or proficiency demonstration must occur no earlier than 30 days prior to, and no later than 30 days after, six months from the previous qualification. In the case of individually assigned/primary weapons, if the SPO does not re-qualify during the re-qualification period, the individual's authority to be armed and to make arrests must be suspended following the unsuccessful qualification attempts as provided in paragraph (k)(11) of this section. For post-specific and crew-served weapons, if the SPO does not demonstrate proficiency during the re-qualification period, the individual's eligibility for assignment to posts having those post-specific or crew-served weapons must be suspended until such time as proficiency can be demonstrated. To facilitate training programs, employers may adjust qualification and proficiency demonstration schedules as long as the maximum durations as noted in this section are not exceeded.
</P>
<P>(3) PF personnel must maintain firearms proficiency on a continuing basis. Therefore, an SPO may be required to demonstrate an ability to meet the applicable firearms qualification or proficiency standard(s) during a Headquarters or field audit, survey, inspection, or other situation directed by the local ODFSA. Failure to meet the standard must be treated as if the individual failed the first attempt during routine semiannual qualification or proficiency demonstration. See paragraph (k)(10) of this section. In the event the SPO fails both attempts, the requirements of paragraphs (k)(11) through (14) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(4) Each SPO must qualify with primary/individually-issued weapons required by duty assignment (to include: specialty weapons, long gun and/or handgun, if so armed). Qualification is the semiannual act of achieving a set score while demonstrating the ability to load, operate, and discharge a firearm or weapon system accurately and safely (to include clearing the weapon at the conclusion of firing) according to a Departmentally-approved course of fire. At least one of the two semiannual qualifications must be accomplished with the same type of firearm or weapon system and ammunition equivalent in trajectory and recoil as that authorized for duty use. All qualification courses must: be constrained by time, identify the maximum amount of available ammunition, and include minimum scoring percentages required to qualify.
</P>
<P>(5) For the purposes of this part, weapons system simulator means a device that closely simulates all major aspects of employing the corresponding actual firearm/weapons system, without firing live ammunition. The simulator should permit all weapons-handling and operational actions required by the actual weapon, and should allow the use of sight settings similar to the corresponding actual weapon with assigned duty loads. Additionally, when weapons or weapons system simulators are used for qualification testing of protective force officers, the operation of the simulated weapon must closely approximate all weapons handling and operational manipulation actions required by the actual weapon. The simulation system must precisely register on-target hits and misses with accuracy comparable to the actual weapon at the same shooting distances. The weight, balance, and sighting systems should closely replicate those of the corresponding actual weapon with assigned duty loads, and noise signatures and felt recoil should be simulated to the extent technically feasible.
</P>
<P>(6) SPOs assigned to posts which require the operation of post-specific specialized or crew-served weapons must be trained and must demonstrate proficiency in the safe use of such weapons in a tactical environment. These proficiency courses must provide for the demonstration of skills required to support the site security plan. Ammunition equivalent in both trajectory and recoil to that used for duty must be used during an initial demonstration of proficiency. A weapons proficiency demonstration means a process based on a predetermined, objective set of criteria approved by the respective program office in consultation with EHSS-1 that results in a grade (e.g., pass/fail). The process must ensure that an individual (or team, for crew-served weapons) demonstrates the ability to perform all weapons-handling and operational manipulations necessary to load, operate, and discharge a weapon system accurately and safely (to include clearing/returning to safe mode the weapon system at the conclusion of firing), without the necessity for scoring targets during the course of fire. Proficiency courses of fire must include tactically-relevant time constraints. Demonstrations of proficiency are allowed with the actual weapon and assigned duty load, with alternate loads (e.g., frangible or dye-marking rounds), or with authorized weapons system simulators, as defined in this section. Proficiency courses of fire must be tactically relevant.
</P>
<P>(7) Weapon system simulators may be used for training, familiarization, and semiannual proficiency verifications (e.g., engaging moving vehicles and/or aircraft). Demonstrations of proficiency must include all weapons-handling and operational manipulations necessary to load, operate, and discharge a weapon system accurately and safely (to include clearing the weapon at the conclusion of firing) according to a Departmentally-approved course of proficiency demonstration. Weapon demonstrations of proficiency are allowed with the same type of firearm or weapon system and ammunition equivalent in trajectory and recoil as that authorized for duty use, or with firearms simulators that have the features and capabilities as described in paragraph (k)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) Each SPO must be given a presentation on the basic principles of weapons safety prior to any range activity. This does not require that a weapons safety presentation be given for each course of fire, but does require that, prior to the start of range training or qualification for a given period (e.g., initial qualification, semiannual qualification, training, familiarization, proficiency testing, or range practice), each SPO must be given a range and weapon safety presentation.
</P>
<P>(9) Standardized Departmentally-approved firearm/weapon qualification courses must be used for qualification. Site-specific conditions and deployment of specialized firearms/weapons may justify requirements for developing and implementing supplementary special training and proficiency courses. Proficiency courses or demonstrations must be constrained by time limits. Where standardized Department firearms/weapons courses do not exist for a weapons system that is required to address site-specific concerns, both daylight and reduced lighting site-specific qualification or proficiency courses (as applicable) must be developed. After approval by the local ODFSA, the developed courses must be submitted to the respective program office for review and approval.
</P>
<P>(10) When qualification or demonstration of proficiency is prescribed, SPOs must be allowed two attempts to qualify with assigned firearms/weapons semiannually. A designated firearms instructor or other person in charge of the range must ensure the shooter understands that the attempt will be for qualification. Once this has been communicated by the firearms instructor or person in charge, the attempt must constitute an attempt to qualify or demonstrate proficiency. The SPO must qualify or demonstrate proficiency during one of these attempts.
</P>
<P>(11) Upon suspension of an SPO's authority to carry firearms, in order to return to status, the SPO must enter a standardized, remedial firearms/weapons training program developed by the respective site PF contractor firearms training staff. The remedial training program must be a combination of basic weapon manipulation skills, firearms safety, and an additional segment of time individually designed to provide the SPO with the necessary individual training to afford a reasonable opportunity to meet the firearms/weapons qualification or proficiency standards by addressing specific areas of performance.
</P>
<P>(12) When qualification is required following the completion of the remedial training course, any SPO who fails to qualify after two subsequent attempts must lose SPO status and the authority to carry firearms/weapons and to make arrests. When weapons-specific safety or proficiency cannot be demonstrated, the SPO must not be assigned to posts that require the operation of that weapon until such safety or proficiency standards can be met.
</P>
<P>(13) Any SPO who requires remedial training on three consecutive semiannual qualification periods with the same type of firearm/weapon (caliber, make, and model, but not necessarily the exact same weapon) must be removed from duties that require the issuance of that weapon. If the weapon is considered a primary duty weapon; e.g., rifle or handgun, the officer must be removed from SPO status based on recurring inability to maintain qualification status. If an SPO requires remedial training for the same firearm during three consecutive semiannual qualification periods, then a fourth remediation shall not be offered for subsequent failures to achieve that firearms qualification standard. The employer may reinstate an individual removed from SPO status if the individual can demonstrate the ability to pass the current Department qualification course for that firearm. Prior to being given the opportunity to obtain reinstatement, the SPO must provide the employer written validation from a certified firearms instructor that the SPO has demonstrated the ability to meet applicable DOE standards. All such training and validation expenses are solely the responsibility of the SPO. If reinstatement under these circumstances occurs, the employer must provide all other training for returning protective force members according to the requirements of this part and as otherwise specified by DOE.
</P>
<P>(14) An appropriate Department record must be maintained for each SPO who qualifies or who attempts to qualify or to demonstrate proficiency. Records must be retained for one year after separation of a PF member from SPO duties, unless a longer retention period is specified by other requirements. A supervisor or a training officer must be designated, in writing, as the individual authorized to certify the validity of the scores.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55184, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 57083, Sept. 22, 2015; 88 FR 41295, June 26, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.18" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.18   Access authorization.</HEAD>
<P>PF personnel must have the access authorization for the highest level of classified matter to which they have access or SNM which they protect. The specific level of access authorization required for each duty assignment must be determined by the site security organization and approved by the local ODFSA. At sites where access authorizations are not required, SPOs must have at least a background investigation based upon a national agency check with local agency and credit check with maximum duration between reinvestigations not to exceed 10 years. This background investigation must be favorably adjudicated by the applicable Departmental field element. Those SPOs who have access to Category I or Category II quantities of SNM as defined by DOE or with access to credible roll-up potential to Category I according to site-specific determination must have and maintain a DOE “Q” access authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.19" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.19   Medical and fitness for duty status reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) SPOs and SOs must report immediately to their supervisor that they have a known or suspected change in health status that might impair their capacity for duty. To protect their medical confidentiality, they are required only to identify that they need to see the Designated Physician. SOs and SPOs must provide to the Designated Physician detailed information on any known or suspected change in health status that might impair their capacity for duty or the safe and effective performance of assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(b) SPOs and SOs must report to their supervisor and the Designated Physician for a determination of fitness for duty when prescription medication is started or a dosage is changed, to ensure that such medication or change in dosage does not alter the individual's ability to perform any of the essential functions of the job. SPOs and SOs must report to their supervisor and the Designated Physician for a determination of fitness for duty within 24 hours, and prior to assuming duty, after any medication capable of affecting the mind, emotions, and behavior is started, to ensure that such medication does not alter the individual's ability to perform any of the essential functions of the job. Where a written reasonable accommodation determination already has been made, any additional change to an SO's or SPO's health status affecting that accommodation must be reported to their supervisor and the Designated Physician for a determination of fitness for duty.
</P>
<P>(c) Supervisory personnel must document and report to the Designated Physician any observed physical, behavioral, or health changes or deterioration in work performance in SPOs and SOs under their supervision.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) PF contractor management must inform the Designated Physician of all anticipated job transfers or recategorizations including:
</P>
<P>(i) From SO to FPRS, BRS, ARS, or SRT Member;
</P>
<P>(ii) From FPRS, to BRS, ARS or SRT Member;
</P>
<P>(iii) From BRS to ARS or SRT Member;
</P>
<P>(iv) From ARS to SRT Member;
</P>
<P>(v) From SRT Member to ARS, BRS, FPRS or SO;
</P>
<P>(vi) From ARS to BRS, FPRS, or SO;
</P>
<P>(vii) From BRS to FPRS or SO;
</P>
<P>(viii) From FPRS to SO; and
</P>
<P>(ix) From PF to other assignments.
</P>
<P>(2) For downward re-categorizations in paragraphs (d)(1)(v) through (ix) of this section, the anticipated transfer notification must include appropriate additional information such as the apparent inability of the employee to perform essential functions, meet physical readiness standards, or to serve without posing a direct threat to self or others.
</P>
<P>(e) The Designated Physician must notify the PPMD to ensure appropriate medical review can be made regarding any recommended or required changes to the PF member's status.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1046.20" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.21.2.45.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1046.20   Medical records maintenance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Designated Physician must maintain all medical information for each employee or applicant as a confidential medical record, with the exception of the psychological record. The psychological record is part of the medical record but must be stored separately, in a secure location in the custody of the evaluating psychologist. These records must be kept in accordance with the appropriate DOE Privacy Act System of Records, available at <I>http://energy.gov/sites/prod/files/maprod/documents/FinalPASORNCompilation.1.8.09.pdf.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part is intended to preclude access to these records according to the requirements of other parts of this or other titles. Medical records maintained under this section may not be released except as permitted or required by law.
</P>
<P>(c) Medical records must be retained according to the appropriate DOE Administrative Records Schedule, available at: <I>http://energy.gov/sites/prod/files/cioprod/documents/ADM_1%281%29.pdf</I> (paragraph 21.1)
</P>
<P>(d) When an individual has been examined by a Designated Physician, all available history and test results must be maintained by the Designated Physician under the supervision of the PPMD in the medical record, regardless of whether:
</P>
<P>(1) The individual completes the examination;
</P>
<P>(2) It is determined that the individual cannot engage in physical training or testing and cannot perform the essential functions of the job; or
</P>
<P>(3) It is determined that the individual poses a direct threat to self or others.
</P>
<P>(e) The Designated Physician must provide written work restrictions to the affected SPO/SO and PF management. PF management must develop, approve, implement, and operate according to site-specific plans based upon the PF contractor's operational and contract structure to ensure confidentiality of PF medical information. This plan must permit access only to those with a need to know specific information, and must identify those individuals by organizational position or responsibility. The plan must adhere to all applicable laws and regulations, including but not limited to the Privacy Act of 1974, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993, and the ADA, as amended by the ADAAA.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1047" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1047—LIMITED ARREST AUTHORITY AND USE OF FORCE BY PROTECTIVE FORCE OFFICERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 2201, Pub. L. 83-703, 68 Stat. 919 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>); Department of Energy Organization Act, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 565 (42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 30929, July 31, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="45" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22.0.45" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1047.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22.0.45.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1047.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set forth Department of Energy (hereinafter “DOE”) policy and procedures on the exercise of arrest authority and use of force by protective force personnel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1047.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22.0.45.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1047.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to DOE and DOE contractor protective force personnel armed pursuant to section 161.k. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 <I>et seq.</I>) to protect nuclear weapons, special nuclear material, clasified matter, nuclear facilities, and related property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1047.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22.0.45.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1047.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means section 161.k. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 2201.k.).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Arrest</I> means any act, including taking, seizing or detaining of a person, that indicates an intention to take a person into custody and that subjects the person to the control of the person making the arrest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Citizen's Arrest</I> means that type of arrest which can be made by citizens in general and which is defined in the statutory and case law of each state.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contractor</I> means contractors and subcontractors at all tiers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>LLEA</I> means local law enforcement agencies: city, county; and state.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Offender</I> means the person to be arrested.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Protective Force Officer</I> means any person authorized by DOE to carry firearms under section 161.k. of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Special Nuclear Material</I> (SNM) means: (1) Plutonium, uranium enriched in the isotope 233 or in the isotope 235, and any other material which DOE, pursuant to the provisions of Section 51 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, determines to be special nuclear material, but does not include source material; or (2) any material artificially enriched by any of the foregoing, but does not include source material. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1047.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22.0.45.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1047.4   Arrest authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the Act, the authority of a DOE protective force officer to arrest without warrant is limited to the performance of official duties and should be exercised only in the enforcement of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The following laws only if property of the United States which is in the custody of the DOE or its contractors is involved: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Felonies:</I> (A) Arson—18 U.S.C. 81—(only applicable to “special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States” as defined by 18 U.S.C. 7). 
</P>
<P>(B) Building or property within special maritime and territorial jurisdiction—18 U.S.C. 1363—(only applicable to “special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of United States” as defined by 18 U.S.C. 7). 
</P>
<P>(C) Civil disorder—18 U.S.C. 231. 
</P>
<P>(D) Communication lines, stations or systems—18 U.S.C. 1362. 
</P>
<P>(E) Concealment, removal or mutilation generally—18 U.S.C. 2071. 
</P>
<P>(F) Conspiracy—18 U.S.C. 371—(violation of this section is a felony if the offense which is the object of the conspiracy is a felony). 
</P>
<P>(G) Destruction of motor vehicles or motor vehicle facilities—18 U.S.C. 33. 
</P>
<P>(H) Explosives—18 U.S.C. 844(f). 
</P>
<P>(I) Government property or contracts—18 U.S.C. 1361—(violation of section is a felony if property damage exceeds $100). 
</P>
<P>(J) Military, naval or official passes—18 U.S.C. 499—(pertains to forging or altering official passes). 
</P>
<P>(K) Personal property of the United States—18 U.S.C. 2112. 
</P>
<P>(L) Public money, property, or records—18 U.S.C. 641—(violation of section is a felony if the property value exceeds $100). 
</P>
<P>(M) Sabotage—18 U.S.C. 2151, 2153-2156. 
</P>
<P>(N) Violation under Physical Security Convention—18 U.S.C. 831. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Misdemeanors:</I> (A) Conspiracy—18 U.S.C. 371—(violation of section is a misdemeanor if the offense which is the object of the conspiracy is a misdemeanor). 
</P>
<P>(B) Explosives—18 U.S.C. 844(g). 
</P>
<P>(C) Government property or contracts—18 U.S.C. 1361—(violation of section is a misdemeanor if the property damage does not exceed $100). 
</P>
<P>(D) Official badges, identification cards, other insignia—18 U.S.C. 701—(pertains to the manufacture, sale, and possession of official insignia). 
</P>
<P>(E) Public money, property or records—18 U.S.C. 641—(violation of section is a misdemeanor if the property value does not exceed $100).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Assaulting, resisting, or impeding certain officers or employees—18 U.S.C. 111.</I> Both the felony and misdemeanor level offenses may only be enforced by protective force officers that are federal employees.
</P>
<P>(2) The following criminal provisions of the Atomic Energy Act: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Felonies:</I> (A) Section 222. Violation of Specific Sections—42 U.S.C. 2272. 
</P>
<P>(B) Section 223. Violation of Sections Generally. 42 U.S.C. 2273. 
</P>
<P>(C) Section 224. Communication of Restricted Data—42 U.S.C. 2274. 
</P>
<P>(D) Section 225. Receipt of Restricted Data—42 U.S.C. 2275. 
</P>
<P>(E) Section 226. Tampering with Restricted Data—42 U.S.C. 2276. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Misdemeanors:</I> (A) Section 227. Disclosure of Restricted Data—42 U.S.C. 2277. 
</P>
<P>(B) Section 229. Trespass Upon Commission (DOE) Installations—42 U.S.C. 2278. 
</P>
<P>(C) Section 230. Photographing, etc., of Commission (DOE) Installations—42 U.S.C. 2278.b. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Felony Arrests.</I> A protective force officer is authorized to make an arrest for any felony listed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i) of this section if the offense is committed in the presence of the protective force officer or if he or she has reasonable grounds to believe that the individual to be arrested has committed or is committing the felony.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Misdemeanor Arrest.</I> A protective force officer is authorized to make an arrest for any misdemeanor listed in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) or (a)(2)(ii) of this section if the offense is committed in the presence of the protective force officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other Authority.</I> The Act does not provide authority to arrest for violations of state criminal statutes or for violations of federal criminal statutes other than those listed in paragraph (a) of this section. Therefore, arrests for violations of such other criminal statutes shall be made by other peace officers (e.g., U.S. Marshals or Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) agents for federal offenses; LLEA officers for state or local offenses) unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The protective force officer can make a citizen's arrest for the criminal offense under the law of the state,
</P>
<P>(2) The protective force officer is an authorized state peace officer or otherwise deputized by the particular state to make arrests for state criminal offenses, or
</P>
<P>(3) The protective force officer has been deputized by the U.S. Marshals Service or other federal law enforcement agency to make arrests for the criminal offense.
</P>
<P>(e) In those locations which are within the “special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States,” as defined in 18 U.S.C. 7, the Assimilative Crimes Act (18 U.S.C. 13) adopts the law of the state for any crime under state law not specifically prohibited by Federal statute and provides for federal enforcement of that state law. The local DOE Office of Chief Counsel, in coordination with contractor legal counsel, as appropriate, shall provide guidance in this matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 30929, July 31, 1985, as amended at 80 FR 23692, Apr. 29, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1047.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22.0.45.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1047.5   Exercise of arrest authority—general guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In making an arrest, the protective force officer should announce his or her authority (e.g., “Security Officer”) and that the person is under arrest prior to taking the person into custody. If the circumstances are such that making such announcements would be useless or dangerous to the officer or others, the protective force officer may dispense with these announcements.
</P>
<P>(b) The protective force officer at the time and place of arrest may search any arrested person for weapons and criminal evidence and the area into which the arrested person might reach for a weapon or to destroy evidence. Guidance on the proper conduct and limitations in scope of search and seizure of evidence shall be obtained from the local DOE Office of Chief Counsel, in coordination with contractor legal counsel, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) After the arrest is effected, the arrested person shall be advised of his or her constitutional right against self-incrimination (Miranda warnings). If the circumstances are such that making such advisement is dangerous to the officer or others, this requirement may be postponed until the immediate danger has passed.
</P>
<P>(d) Custody of the person arrested should be transferred to other federal law enforcement personnel (i.e., U.S. Marshals or FBI agents) or to LLEA personnel, as appropriate, as soon as practicable. The arrested person should not be questioned or required to sign written statements unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Questioning is necessary for security or safety reasons (e.g., questioning to locate a bomb), or
</P>
<P>(2) Questioning is authorized by other federal law enforcement personnel or LLEA officers responsible for investigating the crime.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1047.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22.0.45.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1047.6   Use of physical force when making an arrest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a protective force officer has the right to make an arrest as discussed above, the protective force officer may use only that physical force which is reasonable and necessary to apprehend and arrest the offender; to prevent the escape of the offender; or to defend himself or herself or a third person from what the protective force officer believes to be the use or threat of imminent use of physical force by the offender. It should be noted that verbal abuse alone by the offender cannot be the basis under any circumstances for use of physical force by a protective force officer.
</P>
<P>(b) Protective force officers shall consult the local DOE Office of Chief Counsel and contractor legal counsel, as appropriate, for additional guidance on use of physical force in making arrests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1047.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.22.0.45.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1047.7   Use of deadly force.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Deadly force means that force which a reasonable person would consider likely to cause death or serious bodily harm. Its use may be justified only under conditions of extreme necessity, when all lesser means have failed or cannot reasonably be employed. A protective force officer is authorized to use deadly force only when one or more of the following circumstances exists:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Self-Defense.</I> When deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to protect a protective force officer who reasonably believes himself or herself to be in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Serious offenses against persons.</I> When deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the commission of a serious offense against a person(s) in circumstances presenting an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm (e.g. sabotage of an occupied facility by explosives).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nuclear weapons or nuclear explosive devices.</I> When deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the theft, sabotage, or unauthorized control of a nuclear weapon or nuclear explosive device.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special nuclear material.</I> When deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the theft, sabotage, or unauthorized control of special nuclear material from an area of a fixed site or from a shipment where Category II or greater quantities are known or reasonably believed to be present.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Apprehension.</I> When deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary to apprehend or prevent the escape of a person reasonably believed to: (i) have committed an offense of the nature specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of this section; or (ii) be escaping by use of a weapon or explosive or who otherwise indicates that he or she poses a significant threat of death or serious bodily harm to the protective force officer or others unless apprehended without delay.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> These offenses are considered by the Department of Energy to pose a significant threat of death or serious bodily harm.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Additional Considerations Involving Firearms.</I> If it becomes necessary to use a firearm, the following precautions shall be observed:
</P>
<P>(1) A warning, e.g. an order to halt, shall be given, if feasible, before a shot is fired.
</P>
<P>(2) Warning shots shall not be fired. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1048" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1048—TRESPASSING ON STRATEGIC PETROLEUM RESERVE FACILITIES AND OTHER PROPERTY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 662, Pub. L. No. 100-531, 102 Stat. 2652 (42 U.S.C. 7270b); section 6, Pub. L. No. 100-185, 101 Stat. 1280 (18 U.S.C. 3571(b)(5).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 1910, Jan. 17, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1048.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.23.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1048.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are issued for the protection and security of: (a) The Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR), its storage or related facilities, and real property subject to the jurisdiction or administration, or in the custody of DOE under part B, title I of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, <I>as amended</I> (42 U.S.C. 6231-6247) (EPCA); and (b) persons upon the SPR or other property subject to DOE jurisdiction under part B, title I of the EPCA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1048.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.23.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1048.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to entry into or upon all SPR storage or related facilities, and real property subject to DOE jurisdiction or administration, or in its custody under part B, title I of the EPCA, which have been posted with a notice of the prohibitions and penalties contained in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1048.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.23.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1048.3   Unauthorized entry.</HEAD>
<P>Unauthorized entry into or upon an SPR facility or real property subject to this part, without authorization, is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1048.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.23.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1048.4   Unauthorized introduction of weapons or dangerous materials.</HEAD>
<P>Unauthorized carrying, transporting, introducing or causing to be introduced into or upon an SPR facility or real property subject to this part, of a dangerous weapon, explosive or other dangerous material likely to produce substantial injury or damage to persons or property, is prohibited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1048.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.23.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1048.5   Violations.</HEAD>
<P>Willful unauthorized entry, or willful unauthorized introduction of weapons or dangerous materials into or upon real property subject to this part, constitutes a violation of these regulations. Violation of these regulations is a misdemeanor, and a person convicted of violating these regulations is subject to the maximum fine permitted by law, imprisonment for not more than one year, or both.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1048.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.23.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1048.6   Posting.</HEAD>
<P>Notices stating the pertinent prohibitions of §§ 1048.3 and 1048.4 and the penalties of § 1048.5 will be conspicuously posted at all entrances of each facility or parcel of real property subject to the regulations in this part, and at such intervals along the perimeters thereof as will provide reasonable assurance of notice to persons about to enter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1048.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.23.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1048.7   Applicability of other laws.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to affect the applicability of the provisions of State law or of any other Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 1910, Jan. 17, 1991. Redesignated at 56 FR 48096, Sept. 24, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1049" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1049—LIMITED ARREST AUTHORITY AND USE OF FORCE BY PROTECTIVE FORCE OFFICERS OF THE STRATEGIC PETROLEUM RESERVE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 58492, Nov. 20, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1049.1" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of these guidelines is to set forth internal Department of Energy (DOE) security policies and procedures regarding the exercise of arrest authority and the use of force by DOE employees and DOE contractor and subcontractor employees while discharging their official duties pursuant to section 661 of the Department of Energy Organization Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.2" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>These guidelines apply to the exercise of arrest authority and the use of force, as authorized by section 661 of the Department of Energy Organization Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.,</I> by employees of DOE and employees of DOE's SPR security contractor and subcontractor. These policies and procedures apply with respect to the protection of:
</P>
<P>(a) The SPR and its storage or related facilities; and
</P>
<P>(b) Persons upon the SPR or its storage or related facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.3" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means sections 661 of the Department of Energy Organization Act, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 7270a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Arrest</I> means an act resulting in the restriction of a person's movement, other than a brief consensual detention for purposes of questioning about a person's identity and requesting identification, accomplished by means of force or show of authority under circumstances that would lead a reasonable person to believe that he was not free to leave the presence of the officer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contractor</I> means a contractor or subcontractor at any tier.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deadly force</I> means that force which a reasonable person would consider likely to cause death or serious bodily harm.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protective Force Officer</I> means a person designated by DOE to carry firearms pursuant to section 661 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>SPR</I> means the Strategic Petroleum Reserve, its storage or related facilities, and real property subject to the jurisdiction or administration, or in the custody of the Department of Energy under part B of title I of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (42 U.S.C. 6231-6247).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Suspect</I> means a person who is subject to arrest by a Protective Force Officer as provided in these guidelines.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.4" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.4   Arrest authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the Act, the authority of a DOE Protective Force Officer to arrest without warrant is to be exercised only in the performance of official duties of protecting the SPR and persons within or upon the SPR.
</P>
<P>(b) A Protective Force Officer is authorized to make an arrest for a felony committed in violation of laws of the United States, or for a misdemeanor committed in violation of laws of the United States if the offense is committed in the officer's presence.
</P>
<P>(c) A Protective Force Officer also is authorized to make an arrest for a felony committed in violation of laws of the United States if the Officer has reasonably grounds to believe that the felony has been committed, or that the suspect is committing the felony, and is in the immediate area of the felony or is fleeing the immediate area of the felony. “Reasonable grounds to believe” means that the facts and circumstances within the knowledge of the Protective Force Officer at the moment of arrest, and of which the Protective Force Officer has reasonably trustworthy information, would be sufficient to cause a prudent person to believe that the suspect had committed or was committing a felony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.5" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.5   Exercise of arrest authority—General guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In making an arrest, and before taking a person into custody, the Protective Force Officer should:
</P>
<P>(1) Announce the Protective Force Officer's authority (<I>e.g.,</I> by identifying himself as an SPR Protective Force Officer); 
</P>
<P>(2) State that the suspect is under arrest; and
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the suspect of the crime for which the suspect is being arrested. If the circumstances are such that making these announcements would be useless or dangerous to the Officer or to another person, the Protective Force Officer may dispense with these announcements.
</P>
<P>(b) At the time and place of arrest, the Protective Force Officer may search the person arrested for weapons and criminal evidence, and may search the area into which the person arrested might reach to obtain a weapon to destroy evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) After the arrest is effected, the person arrested shall be advised of his constitutional right against self-incrimination (“<I>Miranda</I> warnings”). If the circumstances are such that immediately advising the person arrested of this right would result in imminent danger to the Officer or other persons, the Protective Force Officer may postpone this requirement. The person arrested shall be advised of this right as soon as practicable after the imminent danger has passed. 
</P>
<P>(d) As soon as practicable after the arrest is effected, custody of the person arrested should be transferred to other Federal law enforcement personnel (<I>e.g.,</I> U.S. Marshals or FBI agents) or to local law enforcement personnel, as appropriate, in order to ensure that the person is brought before a magistrate without unnecessary delay. 
</P>
<P>(e) Ordinarily, the person arrested shall not be questioned or required to sign written statements unless such questioning is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Necessary to establish the identity of the person arrested and the purpose for which such person is within or upon the SPR; 
</P>
<P>(2) Necessary to avert an immediate threat to security or safety (<I>e.g.,</I> to locate a bomb); or 
</P>
<P>(3) Authorized by other Federal law enforcement personnel or local law enforcement personnel responsible for investigating the alleged crime. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.6" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.6   Exercise of arrest authority—Use of non-deadly force.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a Protective Force Officer is authorized to make an arrest as provided in the Act, the Protective Force Officer may use only that degree of non-deadly force that is reasonable and necessary to apprehend and arrest the suspect in order to prevent escape or to defend the Protective Force Officer or other persons from what the Officer reasonably believes to be the use or threat of imminent use of non-deadly force by the suspect. Verbal abuse by the suspect, in itself, is not a basis for the use of non-deadly force by a Protective Force Officer under any circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(b) Protective Force Officers should consult the local DOE Office of Chief Counsel and contractor legal counsel for additional guidance on the use of non-deadly force in the exercise of arrest authority, as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.7" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.7   Exercise of arrest authority—Use of deadly force.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The use of deadly force is authorized only under exigent circumstances where the Protective Force Officer reasonably believes that such force is necessary to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Protect himself from an imminent threat of death or from serious bodily harm; 
</P>
<P>(2) Protect any person or persons in or upon the SPR from an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm. 
</P>
<P>(b) If circumstances require the use of a firearm by a Protective Force Officer, the Officer shall give a verbal warning (<I>e.g.,</I> an order to halt), if feasible. A Protective Force Officer shall not fire warning shots under any circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.8" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.8   Training of SPR Protective Force Officers and qualification to carry firearms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Protective Force Officers shall successfully complete training required by applicable Department of Energy orders prior to receiving authorization to carry firearms. The Chief Health, Safety and Security Officer shall approve the course. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to initial assignment to duty, Protective Force Officers shall successfully complete a basic qualification training course which equips them with at least the minimum level of competence to perform tasks associated with their responsibilities. The basic course shall include the following subject areas:
</P>
<P>(1) Legal authority, including use of deadly force and exercise of limited arrest authority; 
</P>
<P>(2) Security operations, including policies and procedures; 
</P>
<P>(3) Security tactics, including tactics for Protective Force Officers acting alone or as a group; 
</P>
<P>(4) Use of firearms, including firearms safety and proficiency with all types of weapons expected to be used; 
</P>
<P>(5) Use of non-deadly weapons, weapon-less self-defense, and physical conditioning; 
</P>
<P>(6) Use of vehicles, including vehicle safety in routine and emergency situations; 
</P>
<P>(7) Safety, first aid, and elementary firefighting procedures; 
</P>
<P>(8) Operating in such a manner as to preserve SPR sites and facilities; 
</P>
<P>(9) Communications, including methods and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(c) After completing training, and receiving the appropriate security clearance, Protective Force Officers shall be authorized to carry firearms and exercise limited arrest authority. Protective Force Officers shall receive an identification card, which must be carried whenever on duty and whenever armed.
</P>
<P>(d) On an annual basis, each Protective Force Officer must successfully complete training sufficient to maintain at least the minimum level of competency required for the successful performance of all assigned tasks identified for Protective Force Officers. 
</P>
<P>(e) Protective Force Officers shall be qualified in the use of firearms by demonstrating proficiency in the use of firearms on a semiannual basis prior to receiving authorization to carry firearms. Protective Force Officers shall demonstrate proficiency in the use of all types of weapons expected to be used while on duty under both day and night conditions. In demonstrating firearms proficiency, Protective Force Officers shall use firearms of the same type and barrel length as firearms used by Protective Force Officers while on duty, and the same type of ammunition as that used by Protective Force Officers on duty. Before a Protective Force Officer is qualified in the use of firearms, the Officer shall complete a review of the basic principles of firearms safety. 
</P>
<P>(f) Protective Force Officers shall be allowed two attempts to qualify in the use of firearms. Protective Force Officers shall qualify in the use of firearms within six months of failing to qualify. If an Officer fails to qualify, the Officer shall complete a remedial firearms training program. A Protective Force Officer who fails to qualify in the use of firearms after completion of a remedial program, and after two further attempts to qualify shall not be authorized to carry firearms or to exercise limited arrest authority. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 58492, Nov. 20, 1991, as amended at 71 FR 68738, Nov. 28, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.9" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.9   Firearms and firearms incidents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Protective Force Officers shall receive firearms of a type suitable to adequately protect persons and property within or upon the SPR. Firearms and ammunition shall be secured, inventoried, and maintained in accordance with applicable Department of Energy orders, when not in use. 
</P>
<P>(b) The authority of a Protective Force Officer to carry firearms and to exercise limited arrest authority shall be suspended if the Officer participates in an incident involving the use of firearms. In such circumstances, the Officer shall be assigned to other duties, pending completion of an investigation. 
</P>
<P>(c) Incidents involving the discharge of firearms shall be reported to the Department of Energy Headquarters Emergency Operations Center immediately, and to the SPR Project Management Office Security Division within 24 hours. The Strategic Petroleum Reserve Project Manager shall appoint a committee to investigate the incident. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1049.10" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.24.0.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1049.10   Disclaimer.</HEAD>
<P>These guidelines are set forth solely for the purpose of internal Department of Energy guidance. These guidelines do not, and are not intended to, and may not be relied upon to, create any substantive or procedural rights enforceable at law by any party in any matter, civil or criminal. These guidelines do not place any limitations on otherwise lawful activities of Protective Force Officers or the Department of Energy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1050" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1050—FOREIGN GIFTS AND DECORATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>The Constitution of the United States, Article I, Section 9; 5 U.S.C. 7342; 22 U.S.C. 2694; 42 U.S.C. 7254 and 7262; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 53972, Aug. 13, 1980, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.101" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.1.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.101   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations implement the provisions of the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act (5 U.S.C. 7342), which establishes policies and procedures pertaining to the acceptance, use, and disposition of gifts or decorations from foreign governments. If an employee of Department of Energy (DOE) meets the requirements of these regulations, he or she is deemed to be in compliance with the DOE Conduct of Employees regulations, 10 CFR part 1010.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.102" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.1.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.102   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>These regulations apply to all DOE employees, including special Government employees, and civilian and military personnel of other Government agencies regularly detailed to DOE, and to spouses and dependents of such personnel. These regulations apply to all employees of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) to the extent the Commission by rule makes these regulations applicable to FERC employees. These regulations do not apply to gifts and bequests accepted by the Department as authorized by section 652 of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7262), except as set forth in § 1050.202(d) of this part. These regulations do not apply to assistance from a foreign government for participation by DOE employees in foreign cultural exchange programs pursuant to the Mutual Educational and Cultural Exchange Act (22 U.S.C. 2458a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.103" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.1.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employee</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) An employee of DOE or FERC as defined by 5 U.S.C. 2105 (employees of DOE contractors are specifically excluded);
</P>
<P>(2) A special Government employee as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202(a), and an expert or consultant who is under contract to the DOE pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3109, including, in the case of an organization performing services under such section, any individual involved in the performance of such services;
</P>
<P>(3) A member of a Uniformed Service or an employee of another Government agency assigned or detailed to the DOE or FERC;
</P>
<P>(4) The spouse of an individual described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section (unless such individual and his or her spouse are legally separated) or a dependent (within the meaning of section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954) of such an individual, other than a spouse or dependent who is an employee under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign government</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any unit of foreign governmental authority, including any foreign national, State, local, or municipal government; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any international or multinational organization whose membership is composed of any unit of foreign government described in paragraph (b)(1); and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any agent or representative of any such unit or such organization, while acting as such. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Gift</I> means a tangible or intangible present (other than a decoration) tendered by, or received from, a foreign government. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decoration</I> means an order, device, medal, badge, insignia, emblem, or award tendered by, or received from, a foreign government. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Minimal value</I> means that value as defined in regulations prescribed by the Administrator of General Services, in consultation with the Secretary of State, to reflect changes in the consumer price index for the immediately preceding 3-year period in accordance with the definition of “minimal value” as set forth in the Federal Property Management Regulations of title 41 of the Code of Federal Regulations as applied to the Utilization, Donation, and Disposal of Foreign Gifts and Decorations. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>The Act</I> means the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act, 5 U.S.C. 7342. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appropriate General Counsel</I> means either the DOE General Counsel when the employee involved is an employee of that portion of the DOE which excludes FERC, or the FERC General Counsel when the employee involved is an employee of FERC. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 53972, Aug. 13, 1980, as amended at 59 FR 44896, Aug. 31, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.104" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.1.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.104   Responsibilities and authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of Administration shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Assure that all employees are given access to or a copy of the Act and these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain liaison with the Department of State and prepare Departmental reports to the Department of State consistent with the Act and these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide advice and assistance on implementation of the act and these regulations, in coordination with the Assistant Secretary for International Affairs (IA) and the appropriate General Counsel; 
</P>
<P>(4) Collect and maintain for public inspection all employee statements submitted pursuant to these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(5) Arrange for independent appraisal of the value of gifts or decorations, upon the request of the General Services Administration or the Inspector General (or other appropriate DOE official); and 
</P>
<P>(6) Accept and maintain custody and make all determinations regarding the use and disposition of all gifts and decorations accepted by employees on behalf of the United States, in coordination with IA, the appropriate General Counsel, and, for gifts to the Secretary, Deputy Secretary or Under Secretary, the appropriate official in the Office of the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistant Secretary for International Affairs (IA) shall assist the Directorate of Administration, where appropriate, in making determinations concerning the effects of the proposed acceptance, use, or disposition of a foreign gift or decoration on the foreign relations of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(c) The appropriate General Counsel shall assist the Directorate of Administration in matters relating to the interpretation and application of the Act, and these and any related regulations, and shall provide counseling and interpretation regarding the Act, and these and any related regulations, to employees. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Inspector General shall investigate suspected violations of these regulations pursuant to § 1050.303 below. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Guidelines for Acceptance of Foreign Gifts or Decorations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.201" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.2.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.201   Policy against accepting foreign gifts or decorations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Constitution of the United States, Article I, section 9, clause 8, provides that “* * * no Person holding any Office of Profit or Trust under * * * [the United States], shall, without the consent of the Congress, accept of any present, Emolument, Office, or Title, of any kind whatever, from any * * * foreign State.” In the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act the Congress consented to the acceptance by Federal employees of gifts and decorations with certain constraints and under certain procedures. Acceptance of any gift or decoration not consistent with this Act, the Department of Energy Organization Act, or the regulations in this part is prohibited. 
</P>
<P>(b) No employee shall request or otherwise encourage the tender of a gift or decoration from a foreign government. No employee shall accept a gift or decoration from a foreign government except as provided in §§ 1050.202 or 1050.203 of this part and in accordance with the additional procedures set forth in §§ 1050.204 and 1050.301 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.202" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.2.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.202   Allowable acceptance of gifts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee may accept and retain gifts from foreign governments where the gift is tendered or received as a souvenir or mark of courtesy, and is of minimal value. Initial responsibility for determining the value of a gift lies with the employee. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the prior approval requirements described in § 1050.204(a) of this part, an employee may accept gifts of more than minimal value, tendered as a souvenir or mark of courtesy, where it appears that refusal of the gift would likely cause offense or embarrassment or otherwise adversely affect the foreign relations of the United States. Otherwise, an employee, when offered a gift of more than minimal value from a foreign government, other than a gift designated in paragraph (c) of this section, should advise the donor that acceptance of such gifts by the employee is contrary to the policy of the United States. If a gift described in this paragraph is accepted by an employee and not immediately returned thereby, it shall be deemed to have been accepted on behalf of the United States. Upon acceptance it becomes the property of the United States. Within 60 days after acceptance by the employee, the gift shall be deposited with the Directorate of Administration for disposal or official Departmental use as determined by the Directorate of Administration, in accordance with § 1050.302 of this part, and an appropriate statement shall be filed by the employee in accordance with § 1050.301(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to the prior approval requirements described in § 1050.204(a) of this part, an employee may accept and retain gifts of more than minimal value: 
</P>
<P>(1) Where the gift is in the nature of an educational scholarship. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the gift is in the form of medical treatment.
</P>
<FP>An employee accepting a gift pursuant to this paragraph shall file an appropriate statement in accordance with § 1050.301(a) of this part. 
</FP>
<P>(d) An employee may accept gifts (whether or not of minimal value) of travel or expenses for travel (such as transportation, food, lodging, or entertainment) taking place entirely outside of the United States where the provision of such travel or expenses is in accordance with diplomatic custom or treaty and where the Head of the employee's Office grants prior written approval. A spouse or dependent may accept gifts of travel or travel expenses when accompanying the employee, provided this is done with the prior written approval of the Head of the employee's Office. The Head of the employee's Office shall consult with the appropriate General Counsel in connection with granting approval under this paragraph. Travel or expenses for travel may not be accepted merely for the personal benefit, pleasure, enjoyment, or financial enrichment of the individual involved. An appropriate statement shall be filed in accordance with § 1050.301(b) of this part. When <I>any portion</I> of the travel (such as the origination or termination of a flight) is within the United States, it may not be paid for by a foreign government, except as set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) Pursuant to section 652 of the DOE Organization Act, an employee may accept gifts from the International Atomic Energy Agency or other energy-related international organizations (e.g., the Nuclear Energy Agency and the International Energy Agency) covering transportation expenses to or from a foreign country in connection with scientific or technical assistance projects of such agencies for which the Department of Energy has lead U.S. Government agency responsibility. Such gifts may be accepted only with the prior written approval of the Head of the employee's Office, who is hereby delegated authority to accept such gifts in accordance with section 652.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.203" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.2.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.203   Acceptance of decorations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee may accept, retain and wear a decoration tendered by a foreign government in recognition of active field service in time of combat operations or awarded for other outstanding or unusually meritorious performance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Acceptance of a decoration in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section shall be reviewed and approved by the Directorate of Administration in accordance with § 1050.204 of this part. Otherwise, it will be deemed to have been accepted on behalf of the United States, shall become the property of the United States, and shall be deposited, within 60 days of acceptance, with the Directorate of Administration for disposal or official Departmental use as determined by the Directorate of Administration in accordance with § 1050.302 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.204" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.2.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.204   Advance approval for acceptance of gifts or decorations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an employee is advised that a gift of more than minimal value as described in § 1050.202 (b) or (c) is to be tendered to him or her, the employee shall, if time permits, request the written advice of the Directorate of Administration regarding the appropriateness of accepting or refusing the gift. A request for approval shall be submitted to the Directorate of Administration in writing, stating the nature of the gift and the reasons for which it is being tendered. The Directorate of Administration shall consult with Assistant Secretary for International Affairs and the appropriate General Counsel in connection with advising the employee. If such advice cannot be obtained and refusal of the gift would likely cause offense or embarrassment or otherwise adversely effect the foreign relations of the United States, the gift may be accepted, but the Directorate of Administration shall be informed as soon as possible. In either event, the employee shall proceed as provided in §§ 1050.202 and 1050.301 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where an employee is notified of the intent of a foreign government to award him a decoration for outstanding or unusually meritorious service, approval required under § 1050.203 should be obtained prior to acceptance of the award. A request for approval shall be submitted to the Directorate of Administration in writing, stating the nature of the decoration and the reasons for which it is being awarded. The Directorate of Administration shall consult with the Assistant Secretary for International Affairs and the appropriate General Counsel. If time does not permit the employee to obtain approval for the award of the decoration before its receipt, the employee may accept it, but shall seek such approval immediately thereafter. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.301" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.3.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.301   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days of accepting a gift of more than minimal value, other than gifts of travel or travel expenses, which are covered in paragraph (b) of this section, an employee shall, in addition to depositing a tangible gift (e.g. wearing apparel, liquor, etc.) with the Directorate of Administration in accordance with § 1050.202 of this part, file with the Directorate of Administration a statement concerning the gift containing the information identified on the sample form set forth in appendix I. The form set forth in appendix I must also be filed if the aggregate value of gifts accepted by the recipient from all sources over any period of one year exceeds $250. 
</P>
<P>(b) Within 30 days after accepting travel or travel expenses in accordance with § 1050.202 of this part, an employee shall file with the Directorate of Administration a statement concerning the travel containing the information identified on the sample form set forth in appendix II. Such a statement need not be filed, however, if the travel is in accordance with specific travel arrangements made by the Department in cooperation with the foreign government. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Directorate of Administration shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain the statements filed pursuant to these regulations and make them available for public inspection and copying during regular business hours; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Not later than January 31 of each year compile and transmit to the Department of State for publication by the Department of State in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a list of all statements filed pursuant to these regulations during the preceding calendar year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.302" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.3.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.302   Use or disposal of gifts and decorations accepted on behalf of the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Directorate of Administration shall accept and maintain custody of all tangible gifts and decorations accepted by employees on behalf of the United States pending their final disposition. 
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever possible, the gift or decoration shall be returned to the original donor. The Directorate of Administration shall examine the circumstances surrounding its donation, and, in consultation with the Assistant Secretary for International Affairs, assess whether any adverse effect upon the United States foreign relations might result from return of the gift or decoration to the donor. The appropriate officials of the Department of State shall be consulted if the question of an adverse effect arises. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Directorate of Administration may determine that the gift or decoration may be retained for the official use of the Department, if it can be properly displayed in an area at Headquarters or at a field facility accessible to employees or members of the public or if it is otherwise usable in carrying out the mission of the Department. The Assistant Secretary for International Affairs shall be consulted to determine whether failure to accept the gift or decoration for the official use of the Department will have an adverse effect on the foreign relations of the United States. In no case shall a gift or decoration be accepted for the official use of the Department when the enjoyment and beneficial use of the gift will accrue primarily to the benefit of the donee or any other individual employee. Gifts or decorations that are retained for the official use of the Department shall be handled in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section when their official use is ended. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a gift or decoration is not retained for official use of the Department, or if its official use has ended, the Directorate of Administration shall, within 30 days after its deposit or after its official use has ended—
</P>
<P>(1) Report the gift or decoration to the General Services Administration (GSA) for transfer, donation, or other disposal in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act of 1949 and the Federal Property Management Regulations at 41 CFR part 101-49, or 
</P>
<P>(2) If the gift or decoration is in cash, currency, or monies (except those with possible historic or numismatic value), or is a noncash monetary gift such as a check, money order, bonds, shares of stock, or other negotiable instrument, forward it to the Finance and Accounting Office for deposit with the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Directorate of Administration shall retain custody of gifts and decorations not returned to the donor or retained for the official use of the Department until GSA directs it concerning their disposition. At the request of GSA, the Directorate of Administration shall arrange for appraisal of specific gifts and decorations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.303" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.3.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.303   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee who violates the provisions of the Act or these regulations may be subject to disciplinary action or civil penalty action as set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Suspected violations of the Act or these regulations shall be reported promptly to the appropriate General Counsel and the Inspector General. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Inspector General will be responsible for taking the following actions: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the results of an investigation by the Inspector General do not provide any support for a determination that a violation of the Act or these regulations has occurred, then no further action shall be taken. 
</P>
<P>(2) If it is determined that the employee knowingly and through actions within his own control has done any of the following, the matter shall be referred to the Attorney General for appropriate action: 
</P>
<P>(i) Solicited or accepted a gift from a foreign government in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of the Act and these regulations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) As the approved recipient of travel expenses failed to follow the procedures set forth in the Act and these regulations; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Failed to deposit or report a gift as required by the Act and these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(3) If it is determined that the employee failed to deposit a tangible gift with the Directorate of Administration within 60 days, or to account properly for acceptance of travel expenses, or to comply with the requirements of these regulations relating to the disposal of gifts and decorations retained for official use, but that the criteria of knowledge and control specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section for referral to the Attorney General have not been met, then the matter shall be referred by the Inspector General to appropriate Departmental officials for administrative action. 
</P>
<P>(d) As set forth in section 7342(h) of title 5, United States Code, the Attorney General may bring a civil action in any district court of the United States against any employee who knowingly solicits or accepts a gift from a foreign government not consented to by the Act, or who fails to deposit or report such gift as required by the Act. The court in which such action is brought may assess a civil penalty against such employee in any amount not to exceed the retail value of the gift improperly solicited or received plus $25,622.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 53972, Aug. 13, 1980, as amended at 62 FR 46184, Sept. 2, 1997; 74 FR 66034, Dec. 14, 2009; 79 FR 20, Jan. 2, 2014; 81 FR 41796, June 28, 2016; 81 FR 96353, Dec. 30, 2016; 83 FR 1293, Jan. 11, 2018; 83 FR 66084, Dec. 26, 2018; 85 FR 831, Jan. 8, 2020; 86 FR 2957, Jan. 14, 2021; 87 FR 1065, Jan. 10, 2022; 88 FR 2194, Jan. 13, 2023; 89 FR 1029, Jan. 9, 2024; 89 FR 105408, Dec. 27, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Gifts to Foreign Individuals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1050.401" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.4.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1050.401   Prohibition against use of appropriated funds.</HEAD>
<P>No appropriated funds other than funds from the “Emergencies in the Diplomatic and Consular Service” account of the Department of State may be used to purchase any tangible gift of more than minimal value for any foreign individual unless such gift has been approved by the Congress.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 44896, Aug. 31, 1994]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.4.46.2.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 1050—DOE Form 3735.2—Foreign Gifts Statement

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.040.gif"/>
<HD1>Statement Concerning Gifts Received From a Foreign Government
</HD1>
<FP-2>Item 1. This statement is to be filed pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act (5 U.S.C. 7342, as amended by Pub. L. 95-105, August 17, 1977) and DOE implementing regulations at 10 CFR part 1050. These provisions apply to foreign gifts tendered to or accepted by Federal employees <I>and</I> their spouses and dependents. The name of the employee should always be indicated in item 1; if the employee is the recipient of the gift then items 5 and 6 should be marked N/A-not applicable; if the recipient is a spouse or dependent, then the appropriate information should be included in items 5 and 6.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 2. Self explanatory.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Items 3 and 4. The Office or Division and the position of the employee should be indicated here regardless of whether the recipient is the employee or a spouse or dependent.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Items 5 and 6. See above, Item 1.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 7. Self explanatory.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 8. Self explanatory.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 9. Indicate the retail value in the United States at the time of acceptance. If there is any uncertainty as to the value of the gift, it is the recipient's responsibility to make a reasonable effort to determine value. If the value is $100 or under, and if the aggregate value of the gifts accepted by the recipient from all sources over any period of one year does not exceed $250, then the gift may be retained by the recipient and this Statement need not be submitted.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 10. Identify in this item whether or not approval to accept the gift was sought or given in advance in accordance with § 1050.204 of the DOE regulations. Also identify those circumstances supporting a determination that refusal of the gift would likely cause offense or embarrassment or otherwise adversely affect the foreign relations of the United States.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Items 11 and 12. Self explanatory.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 13. Though there is no assurance that the item will be sold or if it is sold that it will be feasible for the recipient to participate in the sale, GSA regulations provide for participation by the recipient where feasible.



</FP-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix II" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.25.4.46.2.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix II to Part 1050—DOE Form 3735.3—Foreign Travel Statement

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec01oc91.041.gif"/>
<HD1>Statement Concerning Acceptance of Travel or Travel Expenses From a Foreign Government
</HD1>
<FP-2>Item 1. This statement is to be filed pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act (5 U.S.C. 7342, as amended by Pub. L. 95-105, August 17, 1977) and DOE implementing regulations at 10 CFR part 1050. These provisions apply to travel or travel expenses for travel <I>entirely outside</I> of the United States 
<SU>1</SU> tendered to or accepted by Federal employees and their spouses and dependents. The name of the employee should always be indicated in item 1; if the employee is the recipient of the travel or travel expenses, then items 5 and 6 should be marked N/A-not applicable; if the recipient is a spouse or dependent, then the appropriate information should be included in items 5 and 6.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 2. Self explanatory.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Items 3 and 4. The Office or Division of the employee should be indicated here regardless of whether the recipient is the employee or a spouse or dependent.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Items 5 and 6. See above, Item 1.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 7a. Indicate the location and mode of transportation and approximate value in U.S. dollars, if possible. Attach itinerary if available.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 7b. Indicate nature and location of travel expenses provided and approximate value in U.S. dollars, if possible. Attach itinerary if available.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 8. Indicate dates of travel.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 9. Self explanatory.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 10. Travel and travel expenses may be accepted in accordance with DOE regulations where the travel is official agency business. Spouses and dependents may accept such travel and expenses only when accompanying the employee. Item 10 therefore should be completed to identify the <I>employee's</I> official business whether the recipient is an employee or a spouse or dependent.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Item 11. Identify in this item any treaty or diplomatic custom that related to acceptance of the travel or expenses, and any circumstances indicating that acceptance would be consistent with the interests of the U.S. Also provide information regarding any prior approval of the acceptance.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Items 12, 13a, and 13b. Self explanatory. 
</FP-2>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Congress has consented in Pub. L. 95-105 only to acceptance of travel or travel expenses that is <I>entirely outside</I> of the United States. Travel, <I>any portion</I> of which (such as the origination or termination of a flight) is within the United States, may not be paid for by a foreign government. All such travel must be handled within applicable DOE Travel Regulations and Standards of Conduct Regulations.




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1060" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1060—PAYMENT OF TRAVEL EXPENSES OF PERSONS WHO ARE NOT GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 644, Pub. L. 95-91, 91 Stat. 599 (42 U.S.C. 7254).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>46 FR 35631, July 10, 1981, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1060.101" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.26.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1060.101   Persons who may be paid.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Payment may not be authorized or approved for transportation, lodging, subsistence, or other travel expenses from DOE funds to, or on behalf of, a person who is not a Government employee unless such payment is made—
</P>
<P>(1) Pursuant to an invitation received by that person from the Department to confer with a DOE employee on matters essential to the advancement of DOE programs or objectives and (i) in the case of a person invited to confer at the post of duty of the conferring DOE employee, a designated official has approved and stated the reasons for the invitation in writing, or (ii) in the case of a person invited to confer at a place other than the post duty of the conferring DOE employee, a principal departmental official has approved and stated the reasons for the invitation in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to an invitation for an interview to a prospective employee of the Department who is an applicant for (i) a position in the Department classified at GS-16 or above of the General Schedule or the rate of basic pay for which is fixed, other than under the General Schedule, at a rate equal to or greater than the minimum rate of basic pay fixed for GS-16, (ii) a position for which a determination has been made that there is a manpower shortage pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5723, or (iii) a DOE position for which the Department has the exclusive duties of recruitment and selection;
</P>
<P>(3) In accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1821 or other applicable law, to a person who is subpoenaed by the Department to appear and testify or to appear and to produce documents at a designated place;
</P>
<P>(4) To a person who serves as a travel attendant for a handicapped individual who is authorized to travel at DOE expense and who cannot travel alone because of the handicap; or
</P>
<P>(5) Pursuant to a written determination of a principal departmental officer that it is in the interest of the Government to provide such payment, where the Counselor has determined in writing that the payment is authorized under 5 U.S.C. ch. 57 or other statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(b) The authority of a designated official or a principal departmental officer, as the case may be, to provide approval of an invitation to travel under paragraph (a)(1) and of a principal departmental officer to determine that payment of travel expenses is in the interest of the Government under paragraph (a)(5) of this section may not be delegated.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 30 days of providing written approval of an invitation under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, a designated official who is an Administrator of a power administration or the head of a Field Organization shall transmit a copy of the written approval to the principal departmental officer to whom the official or the official's organization reports.
</P>
<P>(d) Payment of travel expenses may not be made pursuant to an invitation to travel under paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(5) unless the written approval and statement of reasons required by paragraph (a)(1), or the written determinations required by paragraph (a)(5) of this section, are made before the travel to be authorized by the invitation takes place.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this section shall be interpreted to prohibit payment for travel expenses that are reimbursable or allowable by the Department under the terms of a DOE contract or assistance award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1060.201" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.26.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1060.201   Relatives, contractors, and assistance award recipients.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, a DOE employee may not authorize or approve, require another person to authorize or approve, or advocate the authorization or approval of, payment from DOE funds of travel expenses of a person who is not a Government employee and who is (a) the DOE employee's relative (except in the case of payment under § 1060.101(a)(4)), or (b) in the case of payment under § 1060.101(a)(1), a DOE contractor or a DOE assistance award recipient or the employee of a DOE contractor or a DOE assistance award recipient unless the travel expenses are incurred with respect to matters outside the scope of the contract or assistance award, as the case may be. (See also § 1060.101(e).)


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1060.301" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.26.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1060.301   Government employees.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be interpreted as being applicable to authorization or approval of payment of travel expenses of Government employees, including DOE employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1060.401" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.26.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1060.401   Applicability of internal DOE rules.</HEAD>
<P>Payment of travel expenses under § 1060.101(a) (1) through (5) shall be subject to other Department rules relating to authorization of travel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1060.501" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.26.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1060.501   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Counselor</I> means the General Counsel of the Department or the General Counsel of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission or their delegates, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designated official</I> means (1) a principal departmental officer, (2) an individual who is appointed to a position in the Department by the President of the United States with the advice and consent of the Senate, (3) the Administrator of a power administration, or (4) the head of a Field Organization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>DOE</I> or <I>Department</I> means the Department of Energy established by the Department of Energy Organization Act, section 201, Pub. L. 95-91 (42 U.S.C. 7131).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) An employee as defined by 5 U.S.C. 2105;
</P>
<P>(2) A special Government employee as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202(a);
</P>
<P>(3) A member of a Uniformed Service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Handicapped individual</I> means a person who has a physical or mental disability or health impairment, and includes an individual who is temporarily incapacitated because of illness or injury.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Principal departmental officer</I> means the Secretary, Deputy Secretary, or Under Secretary, or, in the case of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, the Chairman or Executive Director of the Commission.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Relative</I> means, with respect to a DOE employee, an individual who is related to the employee, by blood, marriage, or operation of law, as father, mother, son, daughter, brother, sister, uncle, aunt, great aunt, great uncle, first cousin, nephew, niece, husband, wife, grandchild, grandparent, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, stepfather, stepmother, stepson, stepdaughter, stepbrother, stepsister, half brother, or half sister, and shall also include the grandparent of an employee's spouse, an employee's fiance or fiancee, or any person residing in the employee's household. 














</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1061-1099" NODE="10:5.0.3.5.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1061-1099 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XIII" NODE="10:5.0.4" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XIII—NUCLEAR WASTE TECHNICAL REVIEW BOARD</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1300-1302" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1300-1302 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1303" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1303—PUBLIC INFORMATION AND REQUESTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 5 U.S.C. 552 as amended, Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR 1988 Comp., p. 235)
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 47080, Aug. 12, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1303.101" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policies and procedures of the U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board (Board) regarding public access to documents under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552. The provisions in the Act shall take precedence over any part of the Board's regulations in conflict with the Act. This part gives the procedures the public may use to inspect and obtain copies of Board records under the FOIA, including administrative procedures which must be exhausted before a request invokes the jurisdiction of an appropriate United States District Court for the Board's failure to respond to a proper request within the statutory time limits, for a denial of Board records or challenges to the adequacy of a search, or for denial of fee waiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.102" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For words used in this part, unless the context varies otherwise, singular includes the plural, plural includes the singular, present tense includes the future tense, and words of one gender include the other gender.
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Agency records—include materials that are in the control of the Board and associated with Board business, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Materials produced by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) Materials produced a consultant for the Board.
</P>
<P>(iii) Materials distributed by presenters at a Board meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) All references to records, include both the entire record, or any part of the record.
</P>
<P>(b) Board—The U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board.
</P>
<P>(c) Chairman—The Chairman of the Board as designated by the President.
</P>
<P>(d) Designated FOIA Officer—The person named by the Board to administer the Board's activities in regard do the regulations in this part. The FOIA Officer also shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board officer having custody of, or responsibility for, agency records in the possession of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board officer having responsibility for authorizing or denying production of records from requests filed under the Freedom of Information Act.
</P>
<P>(e) Executive Director—The chief operating officer of the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) Member—An individual appointed to serve on the Board by the President of the United States.
</P>
<P>(g) Days—Standard working days, excluding weekends and federal holidays.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.103" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.103   Public reading area.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A public reading area is available at the Board office located at 2300 Clarendon Blvd., Suite 1300, Arlington, Virginia 22201. To use the reading area, contact the Director of Administration by:
</P>
<P>(1) Letter to the address in this paragraph (a):
</P>
<P>(2) Telephone: 703-235-4473;
</P>
<P>(3) A request to the Board's Web site at <I>http://www.nwtrb.gov</I>; or
</P>
<P>(4) Fax: 703-532-4495.
</P>
<P>(b) Documents also may be requested through the Board's Web site or by letter or fax. Please ensure that the records sought are clearly described. Materials produced by the Board are in the public domain unless otherwise noted.
</P>
<P>(c) Many Board records are available electronically at the Board's Web site (<I>http://www.nwtrb.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) Records of the Board available for inspection and copying include:
</P>
<P>(1) The rules and regulations of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of policy adopted by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) Board reports to the U.S. Congress and the U.S. Secretary of Energy.
</P>
<P>(4) Board correspondence with Congress and the Department of Energy (DOE).
</P>
<P>(5) Transcripts of Board meetings.
</P>
<P>(6) Biographical information about current Board members.
</P>
<P>(7) Copies of records released in response to FOIA requests.
</P>
<P>(e) The cost of copying information available in the Board office shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of § 1303.108.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.104" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.104   Board records exempt from public disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>5 U.S.C. 552 provides that the requirements of the FOIA do not apply to matters that are:
</P>
<P>(a) Specifically authorized under the criteria established by an executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and in fact are properly classified pursuant to such an executive order.
</P>
<P>(b) Related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) Specifically exempted from disclosure by another federal statute, provided that such statute:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires that records be withheld from the public in such a manner that leaves no discretion on the issue; or
</P>
<P>(2) Establishes criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld.
</P>
<P>(d) Trade secrets, and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(e) Interagency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) Personnel, medical, or similar files that disclosing would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(g) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes. Buy only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records or information:
</P>
<P>(1) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings:
</P>
<P>(2) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(3) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(4) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of any confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority, or any private institution which furnished information on a confidential basis, and in the case of a record or information compiled by a criminal law enforcement agency in the course of a criminal investigation or by an agency conducting a lawful security intelligence investigation, information furnished by a confidential source;
</P>
<P>(5) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(6) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual.
</P>
<P>(h) Contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports, prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(i) Geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.105" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.105   Requests for Board records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A written FOIA request must be submitted. You may:
</P>
<P>(1) Write: NWTRB Designated FOIA Officer, 2300 Clarendon Boulevard, Suite 1300, Arlington, VA 22201;
</P>
<P>(2) Send an e-mail request to <I>foia@nwtrb.gov</I> and specify that this is a FOIA request in the subject line; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fax: 703-235-4495.
</P>
<P>(b) When making a request for records about a person, Privacy Act regulations also may apply. Please check the regulations for additional requirements before submitting a request. When making a request for records about someone other than yourself, you must include either:
</P>
<P>(1) Written authorization signed by the person permitting you to see the records; or
</P>
<P>(2) Proof that the individual is deceased (e.g., a death certificate or an obituary).
</P>
<P>(c) A request will be considered received for purposes of § 1303.107 on the date that it is received by the Board's FOIA office. For prompt handling, write “Freedom of Information Act Request” on the letter and envelope or in the subject line of the Web request or fax.
</P>
<P>(d) Each request must clearly describe the desired records in sufficient detail to enable Board personnel to locate them with reasonable effort. Response to requests may be delayed if the records are not clearly described.
</P>
<P>(e) Whenever possible, requests should include specific information about each record sought, such as date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject.
</P>
<P>(f) If the FOIA Officer determines that the request does not clearly describe the records sought, he or she will either advise you of the additional needed to locate the record or otherwise state why the request is insufficient. The requestor will then be given the opportunity to provide additional information or to modify their request.
</P>
<P>(g) Submitting a FOIA request shall be considered a commitment by the requestor to pay all applicable fees required under § 1303.108 unless the requestor seeks a waiver of fees. When making a request, you may specify a willingness to pay fees up to a specific amount.
</P>
<P>(h) The FOIA does not require the Board to:
</P>
<P>(1) Compile or create records solely for the purpose of satisfying a request for records.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide records not yet in existence, even if such records may be expected to come into existence at some time in the future.
</P>
<P>(3) Restore records destroyed or otherwise disposed of, except that the FOIA Officer must notify the requestor that the records have been destroyed or otherwise disposed of.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.106" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.106   Responsibility, form, and content of responses.</HEAD>
<P>The Board's Executive Director of his/her designated FOIA Officer is authorized to grant or deny any request for a record and determine appropriate fees. When determining which records are responsive to a request, the Board will include only records in its possession as of the date of the search.
</P>
<P>(a) If no records are responsive to the request, the FOIA Officer will notify the requestor in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) When a FOIA Officer denies a request in whole or in part he/she will notify the requestor in writing. The response will be signed by the FOIA Officer and will include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person making the denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including the FOIA exemption(s) that the FOIA Officer has relied on the denying the request; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that the denial may be appealed under § 1303.114 and a description of the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultations and referrals.</I> When a request for a record not produced by the Board is received, the Board shall refer the requestor to the issuing agency in writing. The Board may hold records that contain or refer to non-public information obtained from other federal agencies (co-mingled records). If those co-mingled records are requested, the Board shall determine whether the portion of those records produced by the Board can be released. Before any portion of a co-mingled record is released, the Board shall redact the non-public information obtained from other federal agencies. The Board shall inform the requestor of the reason for the redaction and shall refer the requestor to the issuing agency in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of referral.</I> When the Board refers all or part of a request to another agency, it shall give the requestor the address of the agency contact and the section(s) referred.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing of responses to requests sent to other agencies.</I> The Board shall provide, within the FOIA deadline, responses only to those parts of the request not referred. Requests will be referred to other agencies and the requestor notified as soon as it is determined that a referral is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Agreements on consultations and referrals.</I> The Board may make agreements with other agencies to eliminate the need for consultations or referrals for particular types of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.107" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.107   Timing of responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Board shall normally respond to requests in the order of their receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgement of requests.</I> On receipt of a request, the Board shall send an acknowledgment letter or an e-mail confirming the requestor's agreement to pay fees under § 1303.108 and providing a request number for further reference.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Granting requests.</I> The Board shall have 20 business days from when a request is received to determine whether to grant or deny it. Once the Board determines whether it can grant a request entirely or in part, it shall notify the requestor in writing. The Board shall advise the requestor of any fees to be charged under § 1303.108 and shall disclose records promptly on payment of the fees. Records disclosed in part shall be marked or annotated to show the amount of information deleted unless doing so would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption. The location of the information deleted also shall be indicated on the record when technically feasible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unusual circumstances:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) If the statutory time limits for processing a request cannot be met because of “usual circumstances” as defined in the FOIA, the Board shall promptly notify the requestor in writing, explaining the circumstances and giving the date by which the request can be completed or if the Board cannot complete the request. If the extension is for more than 10 working days, the Board shall provide the requestor with an opportunity either to:
</P>
<P>(i) Modify the request so that it can be processed within the time limits; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Arrange an alternative time period for processing the original request.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board believes that multiple requests submitted by a requestor or by requestors acting in concert constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances, and if the requests involve clearly related matters, they may be aggregated. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expedited processing:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Requests and appeals shall be taken out of order and given expedited processing whenever it is determined that they involve:
</P>
<P>(i) Circumstances that could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged activity if made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for expedited processing may be made either at the time of the initial request or at a later time.
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for expedited processing must include a statement explaining in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing. For example, a requestor under § 1303.108 must demonstrate that their professional activity involves news reporting or otherwise disseminating information to the public, although this need not be their sole occupation. A requestor also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about government activity involved in the request, beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of a request for expedited processing, the Board shall decide whether to grant the request and notify the requestor of its decision. If a request for expedited treatment is granted, the request shall be processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, an appeal of that decision shall be acted on expeditiously.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.108" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.108   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Board shall charge for processing requests the FOIA in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, except where fees are limited under § 1303.109 or where a waiver or reduction of fees is granted under § 1303.111. Fees must be paid before the copies of records are sent. Fees may be paid by check or money order payable to the Treasury of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) Definitions for this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial use request—A request from, or on behalf of, a person who seeks information for a purpose that furthers their commercial, trade, or profit interests including furthering those interests through litigation. The Board shall try to determine the use to which a record will be put. When the Board believes that a request is for commercial use either because of the nature of the request or because the Board has cause to doubt the stated use, the Board shall ask the requestor for clarification.
</P>
<P>(2) Direct costs—Expenses that the Board incurs in searching for, duplicating, and, for some requests, reviewing records in response to a FOIA. Direct costs include the full salary of the employee performing the work and the cost of duplication of the records. Overhead expenses, such as the costs of space, heating, and lighting, are not included.
</P>
<P>(3) Duplication—Making a copy of a record or the information in the record, to respond to a FOIA. Copies can be in paper, microform, electronic, or other format. The Board shall honor a requestor's preference for format if the record is readily reproducible in that format at a reasonable cost.
</P>
<P>(4) Educational institution—A public or private school, an undergraduate, graduate, professional or vocational school, that has a program of scholarly research. For a request to be in this category, a requestor must show that the request is authorized by and made under the auspices of the qualifying institution and that the records will be used for scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(5) Noncommercial scientific institution—An institution that is not operated on a commercial basis, as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and is operated solely for conducting scientific research that does not promote any particular product or industry. For a request to be in this category, the requestor must show that the request is authorized by and made under the auspices of the qualifying institution and that the records will be used to further scientific research.
</P>
<P>(6) Representative of the news media—Any person actively reporting for an entity that provides news to the public. The term “news” means information about current events or of current interest to the public. Examples include: Television and radio stations broadcasting to the public; and publishers of periodicals who make their news products available to the general public. For freelance journalists to be regarded as working for a news organization, they must demonstrate a sold basis for expecting publication through that organization. The Board may use a publication contract or past publication records to make their determination. The requestor must not be seeking records for a commercial use; however, a request solely supporting the news-dissemination function is not considered a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(7) Review—Examining a record to determine whether any part of its is exempt from disclosure, and processing a record for disclosure. Review costs are recoverable even if a record is to disclosed. Review time includes time spent considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a business submitter under paragraph (c)(3) of this section but does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(8) Search—The process of looking for and retrieving records, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and reasonable efforts to locate and retrieve information from records maintained in electronic form. The Board shall ensure that searches are done in the most efficient and least expensive way that is reasonably possible.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees.</I> In responding to FOIA requests, the Board shall charge the following fees unless a waiver or a reduction of fees has been granted under § 1303.111:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Search</I> (i) Search fees shall be charged for all requests subject to the limitations of § 1303.109. The Board may charge for time spent searching even if no responsive record is located, or if the record(s) located are withheld as exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each quarter hour spent by clerical personnel in searching for and retrieving a requested record, the fee will be $5. If a search and retrieval requires the use of professional personnel the fee will be $8 for each quarter hour. If the time of managerial personnel is required, the fee will be $10 for each quarter hour.
</P>
<P>(iii) For computer searches of records, requestors will be charged the direct costs of conducting the search, although certain requestors (see § 1303.109(a)) will be charged no search fee and certain other requestors (see § 1303.109(b)) will be entitled to two hours of manual search time without charge. Direct costs include the cost of operating a computer for the search time for requested records and the operator salary for the search.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duplication.</I> Duplication fees for paper copies of a record will be 10 cents per page for black and white and 20 cents per page for color. For all other forms of duplication, the Board shall charge the direct costs of producing the copy. All charges are subject to the limitations of § 1303.109 and § 1303.111.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> When a commercial use request is made, review fees shall be charged as stated in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. These fees apply only to the initial record review, when the Board determines whether an exemption applies to a particular record. Charges shall not be imposed for review at the administrative appeal level if an exemption is applied. However, records withheld under an exemption that is subsequently determined not to apply may be reviewed again to determine whether any other exemption not previously considered applies. The cost of that review shall be charged. All review fees shall be charged at the same rates as those charged in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.109" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.109   Restrictions on charging fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When determining search or review fees:
</P>
<P>(1) No search or review fee shall be charged for requests by educational institutions, noncommercial scientific institutions, and representatives of the news media.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board shall provide without charge, to all but commercial users.
</P>
<P>(i) The first 100 pages of black and white duplication (or the cost equivalent); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The first two hours of search by a clerical staff member (or the cost equivalent).
</P>
<P>(3) When the total fee for a request will be $14.00 or less for any request, no fee shall be charged.
</P>
<P>(b) The Provisions of paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section work together. All requestors seeking records for a non-commercial use shall not be charged unless the total cost for the request exceeds by more than $14.00, the cost of a two hour clerical search, plus the cost of duplication over the 100 page exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.110" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.110   Notice of anticipated fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Board shall advise the requetor in writing of any applicable fees. If only a part of the fee can be estimated readily, the Board shall advise the requestor that this may be only a part of the total fee. After the requestor has been sent a fee estimate, the request shall not be considered received until the requestor makes a firm commitment to pay the anticipated total fee. Any such agreement must be made by the requestor in writing and must be received within 60 days of the Board's notice. If the requestor does not provide a firm commitment to pay the anticipated fee within 60 days of the notice, the request shall be closed. The requestor may be given an opportunity to work with the Board to change the requests and lower the cost.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charges for other services.</I> When the Board chooses as a matter of administrative discretion to provide a special service, such as certifying that records are true copies or sending them by other than ordinary mail, the Board shall pay the costs of providing the service unless previous arrangements have been made with the requestor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charging interest.</I> The Board may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing. Interest charges shall be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and shall accrue from the date of the billing until payment is received by the Board. The Board shall follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> If the Board reasonably believes that a requestor or a group of requestors acting together is trying to divide a request into a series of smaller requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the Board may aggregate the requests and charge accordingly. The Board shall assume that multiple requests of the same type made within a 30-day period have been made in order to avoid fees. If requests are separated by a longer period, the Board shall aggregate them only if there is a solid basis for determining that aggregation is warranted. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters shall not be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advance payments.</I> Where a requestor has previously failed to pay promptly a properly charged FOIA fee to the Board or another agency, the Board shall require proof that full payment has been made to that agency before it begins to process that requestor's FOIA. The Board shall also require advance payment of the full amount of the anticipated fee. When advance payment is required, the request is not considered received until payment has been made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.111" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.111   Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records shall be furnished without charge or at a reduced charge if the Board determined that:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosure is in the public interest and the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the activities of the government; and
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requestor.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether the first requirement is met, the Board shall consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Subject: Do the requested records concern identifiable activities of the federal government?
</P>
<P>(2) Informative value: Will the disclosure contribute to an understanding of government activities? Do records contain information on activities “likely to contribute” to an increased public understanding? If the information or similar information is already in the public domain, the record(s) would not increase the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(3) Would the disclosure contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requestor? A requestor's expertise in the subject and intention to convey information to the public shall be considered. Being a valid representative of the news media shall satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(4) Is the disclosure likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of government activities? The level of understanding after the disclosure versus that before the disclosure must be enhanced to a significant extent. However, the Board shall not make value judgments about whether information contributing to public understanding of government activities is important enough to release.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining whether the second requirement is met, the Board shall consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The existence and extent of the commercial interest: Would a commercial interest be substantially furthered by the disclosure? The Board shall consider the commercial interest (see paragraph (a)(2) of this section) of either the requestor or of any person on whose behalf they may be acting that would be furthered by the disclosure. During the administrative process, requestors shall be given an opportunity to provide additional information about this concern.
</P>
<P>(2) The primary interest for disclosure: Whether the commercial interest of the requestor is sufficiently large in comparison to the public interest, that disclosure is “primarily in the commercial interest of the requestor.” A fee waiver is justified if the public interest standard under paragraph (b) of this section is satisfied and if that public interest is greater than any commercial interest. The Board shall presume that when news media requestors satisfy this standard, primarily the public interest is served.
</P>
<P>(d) If only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver shall be granted only for those records.
</P>
<P>(e) Requests for a waiver or a reduction of fees must address the factors listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section only as they apply to each request. The Board also shall consider their administrative resources when responding to requests and may negotiate with the requestor to find the best way to optimize their resources in responding to the request when deciding whether to grant waivers or reductions of fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.112" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.112   Denials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When denying a request in any respect, the Board shall notify the requestor of that determination in writing. The types of denials include:
</P>
<P>(1) Denials of requests, consisting of a determination:
</P>
<P>(i) To withhold any requested record in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(ii) That a requested record does not exist or cannot be located;
</P>
<P>(iii) That a record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought;
</P>
<P>(iv) That what has been requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; and
</P>
<P>(v) That the material requested is not a Board record (e.g., material produced by another agency or organization).
</P>
<P>(2) A determination on any disputed fee matter, including a denial of a request for a fee waiver.
</P>
<P>(3) A denial of a request for expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(b) The denial letter shall be signed by the Director of Administration, the Deputy Director, or their designee, and shall include all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title of the person responsible for the denial.
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reason(s) for the denial, including any FOIA exemptions applied in denying the request.
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of records withheld, in number of pages or in some other reasonable form of estimation. This estimate does not need to be provided if it would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed under § 1303.114 and a description of the requirements of § 1303.114.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.113" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.113   Business information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Business information obtained by the Board from a submitter shall be disclosed under the FOIA only under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Business information—commercial or financial records obtained by the Board that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).
</P>
<P>(2) Submitter—any person or entity from which the Board obtains business records, either directly or indirectly. The term includes, but is not limited to, corporations, and state, local, tribal, and foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designation of business information.</I> Submitters of business information shall designate any part of the record considered to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA by appropriately marking the material. This may be done either at the time the record is submitted or at a reasonable time thereafter. This designation lasts for 10 years after submittal unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to submitters.</I> The Board shall provide a business submitter with prompt written notice of any FOIA request or appeal that seeks its business information under paragraph (e) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, to give the submitter an opportunity to object to that disclosure under paragraph (f) of this section. The notice shall either describe the records requested or include copies of the records.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Required notice.</I> Notice shall be given to a submitter when:
</P>
<P>(1) The submitter has designated that the information is considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Board has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Objecting to disclosure.</I> A submitter shall have 30 days to respond to the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section. If a submitter has an objection to disclosure, they are required to submit a detailed written statement including:
</P>
<P>(i) All grounds for withholding any of the information under any exemption of the FOIA, and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of Exemption 4, the reason why the information is a trade secret, commercial, or financial information that is privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(2) If a submitter fails to respond to the notice in paragraph (d) of the section within 30 days, the Board shall assume that the submitter has no objection to disclosure. The Board shall not consider information not received by the Board until after a disclosure decision has been made. Information provided by a submitter under this paragraph might itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> The Board shall consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose the business records. Whenever the Board decides to disclose business records over the objection of a submitter, it shall give the submitter written notice, that will include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reason(s) the submitter's objections were not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the business records to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date at a reasonable time subsequent to the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exceptions to notice requirements.</I> The notice requirements in paragraphs (d) and (g) of this section shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board determines that the information should not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been published legally or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by another statute or by a regulation issued in accordance with Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR, 1988 Comp., p. 235); or
</P>
<P>(4) The objection made by the submitter under paragraph (f) of this section appears frivolous. In such a case, the Board shall promptly notify the submitter of its decision using the guidelines in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> When a requestor files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of business information, the Board shall promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Corresponding notice to requestors.</I> When the Board provides a submitter with either notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure under paragraph (d) of this section or with its intent to disclose requested information under paragraph (g) of this section, the Board also shall notify the requestor(s). When a submitter files a lawsuit seeking to prevent the disclosure of business information, the Board shall notify the requestor(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.114" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.114   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Appeals of adverse determinations.</I> If you are dissatisfied with the Board's response to your request, you may appeal to the Board's Executive Director:
</P>
<P>(i) By mail to: U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board, 2300 Clarendon Boulevard, Suite 1300, Arlington, VA 22201;
</P>
<P>(ii) By e-mail to: <I>foia@nwtrb.gov</I> specifying that this is a FOIA request in the subject line; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By fax to: 703-235-4495.
</P>
<P>(2) The appeal must be in writing and must be received within 30 days of the date of the Board's response. The appeal letter, e-mail, or fax may include as much or as little related information as you wish, as long is it clearly identifies the Board determination that you are appealing, including the assigned request number, if known. For prompt handling, please mark your appeal “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responses to appeals.</I> Requestors shall be notified in writing of the decision on the appeal. A decision affirming an adverse determination shall include a statement of the reason(s) for the affirmation, including any FOIA exemption(s) applied, and shall include the FOIA provisions for court review of the decision. If the adverse determination is reversed or modified on appeal, the request shall be reprocessed in accordance with that appeal decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When appeal is required.</I> If a review by a court or any adverse determination is desired, the determination must first be appealed under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial of appeal.</I> An adverse determination by the Executive Director shall be the final action of the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unacceptable appeals.</I> An appeal will not be acted on if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.115" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.115   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this part, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized by title 44 of the United States Code or the National Archives and Records Administration's General Records Schedule 14. Records will not be disposed of while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1303.116" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.2.0.46.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1303.116   Other rights and services.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to entitle any person, as a right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1304" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1304—PRIVACY ACT OF 1974
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a(f).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 8879, Feb. 28, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1304.101" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.101   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policies and procedures of the U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board (Board) regarding access to systems of records maintained by the Board under the Privacy Act of 1974, Public Law 93-579, 5 U.S.C. 552a. The provisions in the Act shall take precedence over any part of the Board's regulations in conflict with the Act. These regulations establish procedures by which an individual may exercise the rights granted by the Privacy Act to determine whether a Board system contains a record pertaining to him or her; to gain access to such records; and to request correction or amendment of such records. These regulations also set identification requirements and prescribe fees to be charged for copying records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.102" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The terms used in these regulations are defined in the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. In addition, as used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means any executive department, military department, government corporation, or other establishment in this executive branch of the Federal Government, including the Executive Office of the President or any independent regulatory agency;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individual</I> means any citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintain</I> means to collect, use, store, or disseminate records as well as any combination of these recordkeeping functions. The term also includes exercise of control over, and therefore responsibility and accountability for, systems of records;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the Board and contains the individual's name or other identifying information, such as a number or symbol assigned to the individual or his or her fingerprint, voice print, or photograph. The term includes, but is not limited to, information regarding an individual's education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>System of records</I> means a group of records under the control of the Board from which information is retrievable by use of the name of the individual or by some number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of a record for a purpose that is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected;
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Designated Privacy Act Officer</I> means the person named by the board to administer the Board's activities in regard to the regulations in this part. The Privacy Act Officer also shall be the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board officer having custody of, or responsibility for, agency records in the possession of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board officer having responsibility for authorizing or denying production of records from requests filed under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Executive Director</I> means the chief operating officer of the Board;
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Member</I> means an individual appointed to serve on the Board by the President of the United States;
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Days</I> means standard working days, excluding weekends and federal holidays; and
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Act</I> refers to the Privacy Act of 1974.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.103" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.103   Privacy Act inquiries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests regarding the contents of record systems.</I> Any person wanting to know whether the Board's systems of records contains a record pertaining to him or her may file a request in person or in writing, via the internet, or by telephone.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests in persons</I> may be submitted at the Board's headquarters located at 2300 Clarendon Blvd., Suite 1300; Arlington, VA. Requests should be marked “Privacy Act Request” on each page of the request and on the front of the envelope and directed to the Privacy Act Officer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests in writing</I> may be sent to: Privacy Act Officer, U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board, 2300 Clarendon Blvd., Suite 1300, Arlington, VA 22201. “Privacy Act Request” should be written on the envelope and each page of the request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests via the internet</I> may be made on the Board's Web site at <I>www.nwtrb.gov,</I> using the “Contact NWTRB” icon on the bottom of the Home page. The words “Privacy Act” should appear on the subject line.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Telephone requests</I> may be made by calling the Board's Privacy Act Officer at 703-235-4473.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.104" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.104   Privacy Act records maintained by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall maintain only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required by statute or by Executive Order of the President. In addition, the Board shall maintain all records that are used in making determinations about any individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as is reasonably necessary to ensure fairness to that individual in the making of any determination about him or her. However, the Board shall not be required to update retired records.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall not maintain any record about any individual with respect to or describing how such individual exercises rights guaranteed by the First Amendment of the Constitution of the United States, unless expressly authorized by statute or by the subject individual, or unless pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.105" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.105   Requests for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All requests for records should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Full name, address, and telephone number of requester.
</P>
<P>(2) The system of records containing the desired information.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other information that the requester believes would help locate the record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests in writing.</I> A person may request access to his or her own records in writing by addressing a letter to: Privacy Act Officer; U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board; 2300 Clarendon Blvd., Suite 1300; Arlington, VA 22201.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests via the internet.</I> Internet requests should be transmitted through the Board's Web site at <I>www.nwtrb.gov,</I> using the “Contact NWTRB” icon on the bottom of the main page. The words “Privacy Act” should appear on the subject line.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests in person.</I> Any person may examine and request copies of his or her own records on the Board's premises. The requester should contact the Board's offices at least one week before the desired appointment date. This request may be made to the Privacy Act Officer in writing, via the Internet, or by calling 703-235-4473.
</P>
<P>(e) Before viewing the records, proof of identification, must be provided. The identification should be a valid copy of one of the following:
</P>
<P>A government ID,
</P>
<P>A driver's license,
</P>
<P>A passport, or
</P>
<P>Other current identification that contains both an address and a picture of the requester.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.106" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.106   Processing of requests.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a request for information, the Privacy Act Officer will ascertain:
</P>
<P>Whether the records identified by the requester exist, and
</P>
<P>Whether they are subject to any exemption under § 1304.115. If the records exist and are not subject to exemption, the Privacy Officer will provide the information.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Requests in writing, including those sent by e-mail, via the Web site, or by Fax.</I> Within five working days of receiving the requests the Privacy Act Officer will acknowledge its receipt and will advise the requester of any additional information that may be needed. Within 15 working days of receiving the request, the Privacy Act Officer will send the requested information or will explain to the requester why additional time is needed for a response.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests in person or by telephone.</I> Within 15 days of the initial request, the Privacy Act Officer will contact the requestor and arrange an appointment at a mutually agreeable time when the records can be examined. The requester may be accompanied by one person. The requestor should inform the Privacy Act Officer that a second individual will be present and must sign a statement authorizing disclosure of the records to that person. The statement will be kept with the requester's records. At the appointment, the requester will be asked to present identification as stated in § 1304.105.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Excluded information.</I> If a request is received for information compiled in reasonable anticipation of litigation, the Privacy Officer will inform the requester that the information is not subject to release under the Privacy Act (<I>see</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(5)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.107" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.107   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>A fee will not be charged for searching, reviewing, or making corrections to records. A fee for copying will be assessed at the same rate established for Freedom of Information Act requests. Duplication fees for paper copies of a record will be 10 cents per page for black and white and 20 cents per page for color. For all other forms of duplication, the Board will charge the direct costs of producing the copy. However, the first 100 pages of black-and-white copying or its equivalent will be free of charge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.108" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.108   Appealing denials of access.</HEAD>
<P>If access to records is denied by the Privacy Act Officer, the requester may file an appeal in writing. The appeal should be directed to Executive Director; U.S. Technical Review Board; 2300 Clarendon Blvd., Suite 1300; Arlington, VA 22201. The appeal letter must:
</P>
<P>Specify the denied records that are still sought; and
</P>
<P>State why denial by the Privacy Act Officer is erroneous.
</P>
<P>The Executive Director or his or her designee will respond to such appeals within 20 working days of the receipt of the appeal letter in the Board offices. The appeal determination will explain the basis of the decision to deny or grant the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.109" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.109   Requests for correction of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Correction requests.</I> Any person is entitled to request correction of his or her record(s) covered under the Act. The request must be made in writing and should be addressed to Privacy Act Officer; U.S. Nuclear Waste Technical Review Board; 2300 Clarendon Blvd., Suite 1300; Arlington, VA 22201. The letter should clearly identify the corrections desired. In most circumstances, an edited copy of the record will be acceptable for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial response.</I> Receipt of a correction request will be acknowledged by the Privacy Act Officer in writing within 5 working days. The Privacy Act Officer will endeavor to provide a letter to the requester within 20 working days stating whether the request for correction has been granted or denied. If the Privacy Act Officer denies any part of the correction request, the reasons for the denial will be provided to the requester.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.110" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.110   Disclosure of records to third parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board will not disclose any record that is contained in a system of records to any person or agency, except with a written request by or with the prior written consent of the individual whose record is requested, unless disclosure of the record is:
</P>
<P>(1) Required by an employee or agent of the Board in the performance of his/her official duties.
</P>
<P>(2) Required under the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). Records required to be made available by the Freedom of Information Act will be released in response to a request in accordance with the Board's regulations published at 10 CFR part 1303.
</P>
<P>(3) For a routine use as published in the annual notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(4) To the Census Bureau for planning or carrying out a census, survey, or related activities pursuant to the provisions of Title 13 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(5) To a recipient who has provided the Board with adequate advance written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record and that the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable.
</P>
<P>(6) To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record that has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States, or his or her designee, to determine whether the record has such value.
</P>
<P>(7) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity, if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the Board for such records specifying the particular part desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought. The Board also may disclose such a record to a law enforcement agency on its own initiative in situations in which criminal conduct is suspected, provided that such disclosure has been established as a routine use, or in situations in which the misconduct is directly related to the purpose for which the record is maintained.
</P>
<P>(8) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if, upon such disclosure, notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual.
</P>
<P>(9) To either House of Congress, or, to the extent of matters within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress, or subcommittee of any such joint committee.
</P>
<P>(10) To the Comptroller General, or any of his or her authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of official duties of the Government Accountability Office.
</P>
<P>(11) Pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction. In the event that any record is disclosed under such compulsory legal process, the Board shall make reasonable efforts to notify the subject individual after the process becomes a matter of public record.
</P>
<P>(12) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(e).
</P>
<P>(b) Before disseminating any record about any individual to any person other than a Board employee, the Board shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the records are, or at the time they were collected were, accurate, complete, timely, and relevant. This paragraph (b) does not apply to disseminations made pursuant to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and paragraph (a)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.111" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.111   Maintaining records of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall maintain a log containing the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure of a record to any person or agency. Such accounting also shall contain the name and address of the person or agency to whom or to which each disclosure was made. This log will not include disclosures made to Board employees or agents in the course of their official duties or pursuant to the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall retain the accounting of each disclosure for at least five years after the accounting is made or for the life of the record that was disclosed, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board shall make the accounting of disclosures of a record pertaining to an individual available to that individual at his or her request. Such a request should be made in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1304.105. This paragraph (c) does not apply to disclosures made for law enforcement purposes under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7) and § 1304.110(a)(7).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.112" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.112   Notification of systems of Privacy Act records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public notice.</I> On November 22, 1996, the Board published a notice of its systems of records in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (Vol. 61, Number 227, pages 59472-69473). It is updating and republishing the notice in this issue of the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Board periodically reviews its systems of records and will publish information about any significant additions or changes to those systems. Information about systems of records maintained by other agencies that are in the temporary custody of the Board will not be published. In addition, the Office of the Federal Register biennially compiles and publishes all systems of records maintained by all federal agencies, including the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) At least 30 days before publishing additions or changes to the Board's systems of records, the Board will publish a notice of intent to amend, providing the public with an opportunity to comment on the proposed amendments to its systems of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.113" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.113   Privacy Act training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall ensure that all persons involved in the design, development, operation, or maintenance of any Board systems are informed of all requirements necessary to protect the privacy of individuals. The Board shall ensure that all employees having access to records receive adequate training in their protection and that records have adequate and proper storage with sufficient security to ensure their privacy.
</P>
<P>(b) All employees shall be informed of the civil remedies provided under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1) and other implications of the Privacy Act and of the fact that the Board may be subject to civil remedies for failure to comply with the provisions of the Privacy Act and the regulations in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.114" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.114   Responsibility for maintaining adequate safeguards.</HEAD>
<P>The Board has the responsibility for maintaining adequate technical, physical, and security safeguards to prevent unauthorized disclosure or destruction of manual and automatic record systems. These security safeguards shall apply to all systems in which identified personal data are processed or maintained, including all reports and output from such systems that contain identifiable personal information. Such safeguards must be sufficient to prevent negligent, accidental, or unintentional disclosure, modification, or destruction of any personal records or data; must minimize; to the extent practicable, the risk that skilled technicians or knowledgeable persons could improperly obtain access to modify or destroy such records or data; and shall further ensure against such casual entry by unskilled persons without official reasons for access to such records or data.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Manual systems.</I> (1) Records contained in a system of records as defined in this part may be used, held, or stored only where facilities are adequate to prevent unauthorized access by persons within or outside the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) Access to and use of a system of records shall be permitted only to persons whose duties require such access to the information for routine uses or for such other uses as may be provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Other than for access by employees or agents of the Board, access to records within a system of records shall be permitted only to the individual to whom the record pertains or upon his or her written request.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board shall ensure that all persons whose duties require access to and use of records contained in a system of records are adequately trained to protect the security and privacy of such records.
</P>
<P>(5) The disposal and destruction of identifiable personal data records shall be done by shredding and in accordance with rules promulgated by the Archivist of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automated systems.</I> (1) Identifiable personal information may be processed, stored, or maintained by automated data systems only where facilities or conditions are adequate to prevent unauthorized access to such systems in any form.
</P>
<P>(2) Access to and use of identifiable personal data associated with automated data systems shall be limited to those persons whose duties require such access. Proper control of personal data in any form associated with automated data systems shall be maintained at all times, including maintenance of accountability records showing disposition of input and output documents.
</P>
<P>(3) All persons whose duties require access to processing and maintenance of identifiable personal data and automated systems shall be adequately trained in the security and privacy of personal data.
</P>
<P>(4) The disposal and disposition of identifiable personal data and automated systems shall be done by shredding, burning, or, in the case of electronic records, by degaussing or by overwriting with the appropriate security software, in accordance with regulations of the Archivist of the United States or other appropriate authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.115" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.115   Systems of records covered by exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The Board currently has no exempt systems of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1304.116" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.3.0.46.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1304.116   Mailing lists.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall not sell or rent an individual's name and/or address unless such action is specifically authorized by law. This section shall not be construed to require the withholding of names and addresses otherwise permitted to be made public.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1305-1399" NODE="10:5.0.4.5.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1305-1399 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XVII" NODE="10:5.0.5" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVII—DEFENSE NUCLEAR FACILITIES SAFETY BOARD</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1700-1702" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1700-1702 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1703" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1703—PUBLIC INFORMATION AND REQUESTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 552; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 42 U.S.C. 2286b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 21261, May 8, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1703.101" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the Board's regulations implementing the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.102" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Agency record</I> is a record in the possession and control of the Board that is associated with Board business. Agency records do not include records such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Publicly available books, periodicals, or other publications that are owned or copyrighted by non-federal sources;
</P>
<P>(2) Records solely in the possession and control of Board contractors;
</P>
<P>(3) Personal records in the possession of Board personnel that have not been circulated, were not required by the Board to be created or retained, and may be retained or discarded at the author's sole discretion. In determining whether such records are agency records the Board shall consider whether, and to what extent, the records were used in agency business;
</P>
<P>(4) Records of a personal nature that are not associated with any Board business; or
</P>
<P>(5) Non-substantive information in the calendar or schedule books of the Chairman or Members, uncirculated except for typing or recording purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board.
</P>
<P><I>Chairperson</I> means the Chairperson of the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Administrative Officer</I> means the chief administrative officer of the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Designated FOIA Officer</I> serves as the Chief FOIA Officer and is the person designated by the Board's to administer the Board's activities pursuant to the regulations in this part. The Designated FOIA Officer shall also be the Board officer having custody or responsibility for agency records in the possession of the Board and shall be the Board officer responsible for authorizing or denying production of records upon requests filed pursuant to § 1703.105.


</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the chief legal officer of the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Member</I> means a Member of the Board.
</P>
<P>In determining the meaning of any provision of this part, unless the context indicates otherwise: the singular includes the plural; the plural includes the singular; the present tense includes the future tense; and words of one gender include the other gender.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 21261, May 8, 1991, as amended at 91 FR 10307, Mar. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.103" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.103   Requests for agency records available through the electronic reading room.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The DNFSB will maintain an electronic reading room on its public Web site at <I>https://www.dnfsb.gov</I>/<I>foia-reading-room</I>. Records may be obtained by accessing and downloading them from the electronic reading room. The electronic reading room is intended to provide easy accessibility to a substantial collection of the agency's records. The agency considers the records available through its electronic reading room to have been placed in the public domain.
</P>
<P>(b) The public records of the agency that are available in the electronic reading room or through links from the electronic reading room include:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board's rules and regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of policy adopted by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) Board recommendations; the Secretary of Energy's response, any final decision, and implementation plans regarding Board recommendations; and interested person's comments, data, views, or arguments to the Board concerning its recommendations and the Secretary of Energy's response and final decision;
</P>
<P>(4) Transcripts of public hearings and any Board correspondence related thereto;
</P>
<P>(5) Recordings or transcripts of Board meetings that were closed under 10 CFR part 1704, where the Board subsequently determines under 10 CFR 1704.9 that the recordings or transcripts may be made publicly available;
</P>
<P>(6) Board orders, decisions, notices, and other actions in a public hearing;
</P>
<P>(7) Board correspondence, except that which is exempt from mandatory public disclosure under 10 CFR 1704.4.
</P>
<P>(8) Copies of the filings, certifications, pleadings, records, briefs, orders, judgments, decrees, and mandates in court proceedings to which the Board is a party and the correspondence with the courts or clerks of court;
</P>
<P>(9) Those of the Board's Administrative Directives that affect members of the public;
</P>
<P>(10) Index of the documents identified in this section, but not including drafts thereof; and
</P>
<P>(11) Annual reports to Congress in which the Board's operations during a past fiscal year are described.
</P>
<P>(12) Copies of records released pursuant to FOIA requests, along with an index to these records. The format will generally be the same as the format of the released records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 21261, May 8, 1991, as amended at 62 FR 66815, Dec. 22, 1997; 82 FR 30723, July 3, 2017; 91 FR 10307, Mar. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.104" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.104   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.105" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.105   Requests for board records not available through the public reading room (FOIA requests).</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the request of any person, the Board shall make available for public inspection and copying any reasonably described agency record in the possession and control of the Board, but not available through the Public Reading Room, subject to the provisions of this part. If a member of the public files a request with the Board under the FOIA for records that the Board determines are available through the Public Reading Room, the Board will treat the request under the simplified procedures of § 1703.103.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A person may request access to Board records that are not available through the Public Reading Room by using the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(i) The request must be in writing and must describe the records requested to enable Board personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. Where possible, specific information regarding dates, titles, file designations, and other information which may help identify the records should be supplied by the requester, including the names and titles of any Board personnel who have been contacted regarding the request prior to the submission of the written request.
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for all records falling within a reasonably specific and well-defined category shall be regarded as conforming to the statutory requirement that records be reasonably described. The request must enable the Board to identify and locate the records by a process that is not unreasonably burdensome or disruptive of Board operations.
</P>
<P>(2) The request should be addressed to the Designated FOIA Officer and clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Request.” The address for such requests is: Designated FOIA Officer, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue NW, Suite 700, Washington, DC 20004, by email at <I>FOIA@dnfsb.gov,</I> or the government-wide <I>FOIA.gov</I> portal. For purposes of calculating the time for response to the request under § 1703.108, the request shall not be deemed to have been received until it is in the possession of the Designated FOIA Officer or his designee.


</P>
<P>(3) The request must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement by the requester of a willingness to pay the fee applicable under § 1703.107(b), or to pay that fee not to exceed a specific amount, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for waiver or reduction of fees.
</P>
<P>(4) No request shall be deemed to have been received until the Board has:
</P>
<P>(i) Received a statement of willingness to pay, as indicated in § 1703.105(b)(3)(i), or
</P>
<P>(ii) Received and approved a request for waiver or reduction of fees. However, the FOIA request shall be deemed to have been received if the request for waiver or reduction of fees includes a statement of willingness to pay the fee anticipated to be incurred in processing the request under this section, or to pay that fee not to exceed a specific amount, should the request for fee waiver or reduction be denied.
</P>
<P>(c) with respect to records in the files of the Board that have been obtained from other federal agencies:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the record originated in another federal agency, the Designated FOIA Officer shall refer the request to that agency and so inform the requester, unless the originating agency agrees to direct release by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for Board records containing information received from another agency, or records prepared jointly by the Board and other agencies, shall be treated as requests for Board records. The Designated FOIA Officer shall, however, coordinate with the appropriate official of the other agency. The notice of determination to the requester, in the event part or all of the record is recommended for denial by the other agency, shall cite the other agency Denying Official as well as the Designated FOIA Officer if a denial by the Board is also involved.
</P>
<P>(d) If a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Board response shall specify the reasons why the request failed to meet those requirements and shall offer the requester the opportunity to confer with knowledgeable Board personnel in an attempt to restate the request. If additional information is needed from the requester to render records reasonably described, any restated request submitted by the requester shall be treated as an initial request for purposes of calculating the time for response under § 1703.108.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Expedited processing.</I> A person may request expedited processing of an FOIA request when a compelling need for the requested records has been shown. “Compelling need” means:
</P>
<P>(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if the request is made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The records pertain to an immediate source of risk to the public health and safety or worker safety at a defense nuclear facility under the Board's jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester seeking expedited processing should so indicate in the initial request, and should state all facts supporting the need to obtain the requested records rapidly. The requester must also state that these facts are true and correct to the best of the requester's knowledge and belief.
</P>
<P>(3) When a request for expedited processing is received, the Board will respond within ten calendar days from the date of receipt of the request, stating whether or not the request has been granted. If the request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision will be acted upon expeditiously.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 21261, May 8, 1991, as amended at 62 FR 66815, Dec. 22, 1997; 91 FR 10307, Mar. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.106" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.106   Requests for waiver or reduction of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall collect fees for record requests made under § 1703.105, as provided in § 1703.107(b), unless a requester submits a request in writing for a waiver or reduction of fees. The Designated FOIA Officer shall make a determination on a fee waiver or reduction request within five working days of the request coming into his possession. No determination shall be made that a fee waiver or reduction request should be denied, until the Designated FOIA Officer has consulted with the General Counsel's Office. If the determination is made that the written request for a waiver or reduction of fees does not meet the requirements of this section, the Designated FOIA Officer shall inform the requester that the request for waiver or reduction of fees is being denied and set forth his appeal rights under § 1703.109.
</P>
<P>(b) A person requesting the board to waive or reduce search, review, or duplication fees shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the purpose for which the requester intends to use the requested information;
</P>
<P>(2) Explain the extent to which the requester will extract and analyze the substantive content of the agency record;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the nature of the specific activity or research in which the agency records will be used and the specific qualifications the requester possesses to utilize information for the intended use in such a way that it will contribute to public understanding;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the likely impact of disclosure of the requested records on the public's understanding of the subject as compared to the level of understanding of the subject existing prior to disclosure;
</P>
<P>(5) Describe the size and nature of the public to whose understanding a contribution will be made;
</P>
<P>(6) Describe the intended means of dissemination to the general public;
</P>
<P>(7) Indicate if public access to information will be provided free of charge or provided for an access or publication fee; and
</P>
<P>(8) Describe any commercial or private interest the requester or any other party has in the agency records sought.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board shall waive or reduce fees, without further specific information from the requester if, from information provided with the request for agency records made under § 1703.105, it can determine that disclosure of the information in the agency records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) In making a determination regarding a request for a waiver or reduction of fees, the Board shall consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the subject of the requested agency records concerns the operations or activities of the Government;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether disclosure of the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of Government operations or activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether, and the extent to which, the requester has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the disclosure of the requested agency records; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the magnitude of the identified commercial interest of the requester is sufficiently large, in comparison with the public interest in disclosure, that disclosure is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.107" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.107   Fees for record requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Fees for records available through the Public Reading Room.
</P>
<P>(1) With the exception of copies of transcripts of Board public hearings addressed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the fees charged shall be limited to costs of duplication of the requested records. The Board shall either duplicate the requested records or have them duplicated by a commercial contractor. If the Board duplicates the records, it shall not charge the requester for the associated labor costs. A schedule of fees for this duplication service shall be prescribed in accordance with paragraph (b)(6) of this section. A person may obtain a copy of the schedule of fees in person or by mail from the Public Reading Room. There shall be no charge for responses consisting of ten or fewer pages.
</P>
<P>(2) Transcripts of Board public hearings are made by private contractors. Interested persons may obtain copies of public hearing transcripts from the contractor at prices set in the contract, or through the duplication service noted in paragraph (a) of this section, if the particular contract so permits. Copies of the contracts shall be available for public inspection in the Public Reading Room.
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for certification of copies of official Board records must be accompanied by a fee of $5.00 per document. Inquiries and orders may be made to the Public Reading Room in person or by mail.
</P>
<P>(b) Fees for records not available through the Public Reading Room (FOIA requests).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Commercial use</I> request means a request from or on behalf of one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers commercial, trade, or profit interests as these phrases are commonly known or have been interpreted by the courts in the context of the FOIA; 
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> mean those expenditures which DNFSB incurs in search, review, and duplication, as applicable to different categories of requesters, to respond to requests under § 1703.105. Direct costs include, for example, the hourly salary and projected benefits costs of agency personnel who search for, review, or duplicate records in response to a request. Overhead expenses such as cost of space, and heating or lighting the facility in which DNFSB records are stored are not included in direct costs.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> refers to any school that operates a program of scholarly research. It includes students who make a request in furtherance of their coursework or other school-sponsored activity.


</P>
<P><I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> refers to an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry;
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media</I> refers to any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term <I>news</I> means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large, and publishers of periodicals (but only in those instances when the periodicals can qualify as disseminations of “news”) who make their products available for purchase or subscription by the general public. These examples are not intended to be all-inclusive. Moreover, as traditional methods of news delivery evolve (<I>e.g.,</I> electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media may be included in this category. A “freelance” journalist may be regarded as working for a news organization if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that organization, even though the journalist is not actually employed by the news organization. A publication contract would be the clearest proof, but the Board may also look to the past publication record of a requester in making this determination.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees.</I> (i) If documents are requested for commercial use, DNFSB shall charge the hourly salary and projected benefits costs of agency personnel who search for and review records in response to a request, and for the costs of duplication as set out in subsection (b)(6) of this section.


</P>
<P>(ii) If documents are not sought for commercial use and the request is made by an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research, or a representative of the news media, DNFSB's charges shall be limited to the direct costs of duplication as set out in subsection (b)(6) of this section. There shall be no charge for the first 100 pages of duplication.


</P>
<P>(iii) For a request not described in paragraphs (b)(2) (i) or (ii) of this section, DNFSB shall charge the hourly salary and projected benefits costs of the agency's personnel who search for records in response to a request and the direct costs of duplication as set out in subsection (b)(6) of this section. There shall be no charge for document review time, and the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first two hours of search time will be provided without charge.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Board will not assess any search fees if has failed to meet its deadlines in § 1703.108 or duplication fees from requesters described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(v) The Board, or its designee, may establish minimum fees below which no charges will be collected, if it determines that the costs of routine collection and processing of the fees are likely to equal or exceed the amount of the fees. If total fees determined by the Board for a FOIA request would be less than the appropriate threshold, the Board shall not charge the requesters.
</P>
<P>(vi) Payment of fees must be by check or money order made payable to the U.S. Treasury.
</P>
<P>(vii) Requesters may not file multiple requests at the same time, each seeking portions of a document or documents, solely in order to avoid payment of fees. When the Board reasonably believes that a requester, or a group of requesters acting in concert, is attempting to break a request down into a series of requests for the purpose of evading assessment of fees, the Board may aggregate any such requests and charge the requester accordingly. The Board shall not, however, aggregate multiple requests on unrelated subjects from a requester.
</P>
<P>(viii) Whenever the Board estimates that duplication or search costs are likely to exceed $25, it shall notify the requester of the estimated costs, unless the requester has indicated in advance his willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. Such a notice shall offer the requester an opportunity to confer with the Board personnel with the object of reformulating the request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(ix) If the Board has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply, and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Board may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, may charge duplication fees if the following steps are taken. The Board must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, the Board may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(x) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees for unsuccessful search.</I> The Board may assess charges for time spent searching, even if it fails to locate the records, or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Advance payments.</I> (i) If the Board estimates or determines that allowable charges that a requester may be required to pay are likely to exceed $250, the Board shall notify such requester of the estimated cost and either require satisfactory assurance of full payment where the requester has a history of prompt payment of fees, or require advance payment of the charges if a requester has no payment history.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged in a timely fashion, the Board shall require the requester to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the Board will begin to process a new request or a pending request from that requester.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the Board requires advance payment under this paragraph, the administrative time limits prescribed in § 1703.108(b) will begin only after the Board has received the fee payments.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Debt collection.</I> The Board itself may endeavor to collect unpaid FOIA fees, or may refer unpaid FOIA invoices to the General Services Administration, or other federal agency performing financial management services for the Board, for collection.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Schedule of Fees.</I> To the extent authorized by these regulations, DNFSB is authorized to seek the following fees to recover costs incurred in responding to FOIA requests:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Document search charges</I>—(A) <I>Manual:</I> Salary rate(s) (basic hourly pay plus 16%) of personnel performing records search or review.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Electronic:</I> Salary rate(s) (basic hourly pay plus 16%) of personnel performing search or review.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Document Review Charges:</I> Salary rate(s) (basic hourly pay plus 16%) of personnel performing search or review.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Commercial requests.</I> DNFSB will charge requesters who seek records for commercial purposes for the cost of reviewing them to determine whether they are exempt from mandatory disclosure. The agency will assess these charges only when the records are first analyzed to determine the applicability of a specific exemption to a record or portion thereof. DNFSB will not charge for the review of an exemption previously applied at the administrative review level. If a record or portion thereof was withheld in full under an exemption that is subsequently found inapplicable, it may be reviewed again to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered. DNFSB may charge for the cost of such review.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Copying charges.</I> (<I>1</I>) <I>Paper:</I> $.05 per page, if done in-house, or generally available commercial rate, approximately $0.10 per page.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Electronic media:</I> Direct cost, including operator time (basic hourly pay plus 16%).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Audio and video cassette:</I> Actual commercial rates.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Duplication of CD or DVD:</I> Direct cost, including operator time (basic hourly pay plus 16%).
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Large documents, e.g., maps or diagrams:</I> Actual commercial rates.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 21261, May 8, 1991, as amended at 62 FR 66816, Dec. 22, 1997; 82 FR 30723, July 3, 2017; 89 FR 73260, Sept. 10, 2024; 91 FR 10307, Mar. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.108" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.108   Processing of FOIA requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where a request complies with § 1703.105 as to specificity and statement of willingness to pay or request for fee waiver or reduction, the Designated FOIA Officer shall acknowledge receipt of the request and commence processing of the request. The Designated FOIA Officer shall prepare a written response:
</P>
<P>(1) Granting the request,
</P>
<P>(2) Denying the request,
</P>
<P>(3) Granting or denying it in part,
</P>
<P>(4) Stating that the request has been referred to another agency under § 1703.105, or 
</P>
<P>(5) Informing the requester that responsive records cannot be located or do not exist. 
</P>
<P>(b) Action pursuant to this section to provide access to requested records shall be taken within twenty working days. This time period may be extended up to ten additional working days, in unusual circumstances, by written notice to the requester. If the Board will be unable to satisfy the request in this additional period of time, the requester will be so notified and given the opportunity to—
</P>
<P>(1) Limit the scope of the request so that it can be processed within the time limit, or
</P>
<P>(2) Arrange with the Designated FOIA Officer an alternative time frame for processing the original request or a modified request.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board ordinarily will respond to requests according to their order of receipt. In instances involving misdirected requests, the response time will commence on the date that the request is first received by any Board office.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board will designate a specific track for requests that are granted expedited processing, in accordance with the standards set forth in § 1703.105(e). The Board may also designate additional processing tracks that distinguish between simple and more complex requests based on the estimated amount of work or time needed to process the request. Among the factors the Board may consider are the number of pages involved in processing the request and the need for consultations or referrals. The Board shall advise requesters of the track into which their request falls and, when appropriate, shall offer the requesters an opportunity to narrow their request so that it can be placed in a different processing track.
</P>
<P>(e) For the purposes of satisfying unusual circumstances under the FOIA, the Board may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. The Board shall not aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of this section and § 1703.109, the term <I>unusual circumstances</I> may include but is not limited to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the Board's Washington, DC offices: 
</P>
<P>(2) The need to search for, collect and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which may be responsive to a single request; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency pursuant to § 1703.105(d). 
</P>
<P>(g) If no determination has been made at the end of the ten day period, or the last extension thereof, the requester may deem his administrative remedies to have been exhausted, giving rise to a right of review in a district court of the United States as specified in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). When no determination can be made within the applicable time limit, the Board will nevertheless continue to process the request. If the Board is unable to provide a response within the statutory period, the Designated FOIA Officer shall inform the requester of the reason for the delay; the date on which a determination may be expected to be made; and that the requester can seek remedy through the courts but shall ask the requester to forgo such action until a determination is made. The Board must also alert requesters to the availability of the Office of Government Information Services to provide dispute resolution services.

 
</P>
<P>(h) Nothing in this part shall preclude the Designated FOIA Officer and a requester from agreeing to an extension of time for the initial determination on a request. Any such agreement shall be confirmed in writing and shall clearly specify the total time agreed upon. 
</P>
<P>(i) The procedure for appeal of denial of a request for Board records is set forth in § 1703.109.
</P>
<P>(j) The denial of a request shall be signed by the Designated FOIA Officer and shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption applied by the Board in denying the request;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of any records or information withheld, such as the number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation, although such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed and a description of the requirements under § 1703.109; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement notifying the requester of the assistance available from the FOIA Public Liaison, and the dispute resolution services offered by the Office of Government Information Services. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 21261, May 8, 1991, as amended at 62 FR 66816, Dec. 22, 1997; 91 FR 10308, Mar. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.109" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.109   Procedure for appeal of denial of requests for board records and denial of requests for fee waiver or reduction.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A person whose request for access to records in whole or in part may appeal that determination to the General Counsel within 90 days of the determination. A person denied a fee waiver or reduction may appeal that determination to the General Counsel within 90 days. The person may also seek assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison of the agency. Appeals filed pursuant to this section must be in writing, directed to the General Counsel at the address indicated in § 1703.105(b)(2), and clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.” Such an appeal received by the Board not addressed and marked as indicated in this paragraph will be so addressed and marked by Board personnel as soon as it is properly identified and then will be forwarded to the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(2) The General Counsel shall make a determination with respect to any appeal within 20 working days after the receipt of such appeal. If, on appeal, the denial of the request for records or fee reduction is in whole or in part upheld, the General Counsel shall notify the person making such request of the provisions for judicial review of that determination.
</P>
<P>(3) The requestor may request that the FOIA Public Liaison refer the denial to be reviewed through dispute resolution services or may request the Office of Government Information Services within the National Archives and Records Administration to review the denial.
</P>
<P>(b) In unusual circumstances, as defined in § 1703.108(f), the time limits prescribed for deciding an appeal pursuant to this section may be extended by up to ten working days, by the General Counsel, who will send written notice to the requester setting forth the reasons for such extension and the expected determination date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 21261, May 8, 1991, as amended at 82 FR 30723, July 3, 2017; 91 FR 10308, Mar. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.110" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.110   Requests for classified records.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may at any time be in possession of classified records and Unclassified Controlled Nuclear Information (UCNI) received from the Department of Energy or other federal agencies. The Board shall refer requests under § 1703.105 for such records or information to the Department of Energy or other originating agency without making an independent determination as to the releasability of such documents. The Board shall refer requests for classified records in a manner consistent with Executive Order 12356, “National Security Information,” 3 CFR, 1982 Comp., p. 166, or any superseding Executive Order. The Board shall refer requests for UCNI in a manner consistent with 42 U.S.C. 2168 and the Department of Energy's implementing regulations in 10 CFR part 1017 or any successor regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.111" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.111   Privileged or confidential information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Any person submitting a document to the Board may request privileged treatment by claiming that some or all of the information contained in the document is exempt from the mandatory public disclosure requirements of FOIA and should otherwise be withheld from public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> A person claiming that information is privileged or confidential under paragraph (a) of this section must file:
</P>
<P>(1) An application, accompanied by an affidavit, requesting privileged or confidential treatment for some or all of the information in a document, and stating the justification for nondisclosure of the information;
</P>
<P>(2) The original document, boldly indicating on the front page “Contains Privileged or Confidential Information—Do Not Release” and identifying within the document the information for which the privileged or confidential treatment is sought;
</P>
<P>(3) Three copies of the redacted document (<I>i.e.,</I> without the information for which privileged or confidential treatment is sought) and with a statement indicating that information has been removed for privileged or confidential treatment; and
</P>
<P>(4) The name, title, address, telephone number, and email address of the person or persons to be contacted regarding the request for privileged or confidential treatment of documents submitted to the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of privilege claim.</I> (1) The Designated FOIA Officer shall place documents for which privileged or confidential treatment is sought in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section in a nonpublic file, while the request for privileged or confidential treatment is pending. By placing documents in a nonpublic file, the Board is not making a determination on any claim for privilege or confidentiality. The Board retains the right to make determinations with regard to any claim of privilege or confidentiality, and the discretion to release information as necessary to carry out its responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) The Designated FOIA Officer shall place the request for privileged or confidential treatment described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and a copy of the redacted document described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section in a public file while the request for privileged treatment is pending.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of request and opportunity to comment.</I> When a FOIA requester seeks a document for which privilege or confidentiality is claimed, the Designated FOIA Officer shall so notify the person who submitted the document and give that person an opportunity (at least five days) in which to comment in writing on the request. A copy of this notice shall be sent to the FOIA requester.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification before release.</I> Notice of a decision by the Designated FOIA Officer to deny a claim of privilege or confidentiality, in whole or in part, shall be given to any person claiming that information is privileged or confidential no less than five days before public disclosure. The decision shall be made only after consultation with the General Counsel's Office. The notice shall briefly explain why the person's objections to disclosure were not sustained. A copy of this notice shall be sent to the FOIA requester.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notification of suit in Federal courts.</I> When a FOIA requester brings suit to compel disclosure of privileged or confidential information, the Board shall notify the person who submitted documents containing such confidential information of the suit.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 10308, Mar. 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1703.112" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.2.0.46.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1703.112   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>In computing any period of time under this part, the day of the Board's action is not included. The last day of the period is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday or legal holiday, in which case the period runs until the end of the next working day. Whenever a person has the right or is required to take some action within a prescribed period after notification by the Board and the notification is made by mail, five days shall be added to the prescribed period. Only two days shall be added when a notification is made by express mail.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1704" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1704—RULES IMPLEMENTING THE GOVERNMENT IN THE SUNSHINE ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552b; 42 U.S.C. 2286, 2286b(c), (k).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 9609, Mar. 7, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1704.1" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b). These procedures apply to meetings, as defined herein, of the Members of the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board (Board). The Board may waive the provisions set forth in this part to the extent authorized by law. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for all documents other than the transcripts, recordings, and minutes described in § 1704.8 shall be governed by Board regulations pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.2" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Chairman</I> and <I>Vice Chairman</I> mean those Members designated by the President to serve in said positions, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 2286(c). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board</I> means the Board established under the National Defense Authorization Act, Fiscal Year 1989. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General Counsel</I> means the Board's principal legal officer, or an attorney serving as Acting General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Meeting</I> means the deliberations of three or more Members where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Board business. A meeting does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Notation voting or similar consideration of business for the purpose of recording of votes, whether by circulation of material to the Members individually in writing or by a polling of the Members individually by telephone. 
</P>
<P>(2) Action by three or more Members to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Open or to close a meeting or to release or to withhold information pursuant to § 1704.5; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Set an agenda for a proposed meeting(s); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Call a meeting on less than seven days' notice as permitted by § 1704.6(b); or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Change the subject matter or the determination to open or to close a publicly announced meeting under § 1704.7(b). 
</P>
<P>(3) A session attended by three or more Members for which the purpose is to have the Board's staff or expert consultants to the Board brief or otherwise provide information to the Board concerning any matters within the purview of the Board under its authorizing statute, provided that the Board does not engage in deliberations that determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Board business on such matters.
</P>
<P>(4) A session attended by three or more Members for which the purpose is to have the Department of Energy (including its contractors) or other persons or organizations brief or otherwise provide information to the Board concerning any matters within the purview of the Board under its authorizing statute, provided that the Board does not engage in deliberations that determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Board business on such matters. 
</P>
<P>(5) A gathering of Members for the purpose of holding informal preliminary discussions or exchange of views which do not effectively predetermine official action. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Member</I> means an individual duly appointed and confirmed to the collegial body, known as “the Board.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.3" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.3   Open meetings requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any meetings of the Board, as defined in § 1704.2, shall be conducted in accordance with this part. Except as provided in § 1704.4, the Board's meetings, or portions thereof, shall be open to public observation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel or his designee will attend and monitor briefings described in § 1704.2(d) (3)-(4) and informal preliminary discussions described in § 1704.2(d)(5) to assure that those gatherings do not proceed to the point of becoming deliberations and “meetings” within the meaning of the Sunshine Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The General Counsel or his designee will inform the Board Members if developing discussions at a briefing or gathering should be deferred until a notice of an open or closed meeting can be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and a meeting conducted pursuant to the Sunshine Act and these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.4" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.4   Grounds on which meetings may be closed or information may be withheld.</HEAD>
<P>Except in a case where the Board finds that the public interest requires otherwise, a meeting may be closed and information pertinent to such meeting otherwise required by §§ 1704.5, 1704.6, and 1704.7 to be disclosed to the public may be withheld if the Board properly determines that such meeting or portion thereof or the disclosure of such information is likely to:
</P>
<P>(a) Disclose matters that are:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy; and
</P>
<P>(2) In fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order. In making the determination that this exemption applies, the Board shall rely upon the classification assigned to a document by the Department of Energy or other originating agency;
</P>
<P>(b) Relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Board;
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552): <I>Provided,</I> That such statute:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;
</P>
<P>(2) This exemption applies to Board meetings, or portions of meetings, involving deliberations regarding recommendations which, under 42 U.S.C. 2286d(b) and (h)(3), may not be made publicly available until after they have been received by the Secretary of Energy or the President, respectively; Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board.
</P>
<P>(d) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(e) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person;
</P>
<P>(f) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(g) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which, if written, would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would;
</P>
<P>(1) Interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(2) Deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication; 
</P>
<P>(3) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source;
</P>
<P>(5) Disclose investigative techniques and procedures; or
</P>
<P>(6) Endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel;
</P>
<P>(h) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed action of the Board, except that this subsection shall not apply in any instance where the Board has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Board is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final action on such proposal;
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically concern the Board's issuance of a subpoena, or the Board's participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition by the Board of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures in 5 U.S.C. 554 or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing; or
</P>
<P>(j) Disclose other information for which the Government in the Sunshine Act provides an exemption to the open meeting requirements of that Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 9609, Mar. 7, 1991, as amended at 79 FR 42181, July 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.5" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.5   Procedures for closing meetings, or withholding information, and requests by affected persons to close a meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A majority of all Members may vote to close a meeting or withhold information pertaining to that meeting. A separate vote shall be taken with respect to any action under § 1704.4. A majority of the Board may act by taking a single vote with respect to a series of meetings, a portion or portions of which are proposed to be closed to the public, or with respect to any information concerning such series of meetings, so long as each meeting in such series involves the same particular subject matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in such series. Each Member's vote under this paragraph shall be recorded and proxies are not permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person whose interest may be directly affected if a portion of a meeting is open may request the Board to close that portion on any of the grounds referred to in § 1704.4 (e), (f), or (g). Requests, with reasons in support thereof, should be submitted to the General Counsel, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue, NW., suite 700, Washington, DC 20004. On motion of any Member, the Board shall determine by recorded vote whether to grant the request.
</P>
<P>(c) Within one working day of any vote taken pursuant to this section, the Board shall make available a written copy of such vote reflecting the vote of each Member on the question, and if a portion of a meeting is to be closed to the public a full written explanation of its action closing the meeting and a list of all persons expected to attend and their affiliation.
</P>
<P>(d) For every closed meeting, the General Counsel of the Board shall publicly certify that, in his or her opinion, the meeting may be closed to the public and shall state each relevant exemption provision. If the General Counsel invokes the exemption for classified or sensitive unclassified information under § 1704.4(a), he shall rely upon the classification or designation assigned to the document containing such information by the Department of Energy or other originating agency. A copy of such certification, together with a statement setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, shall be retained by the Board as part of the transcript, recording, or minutes required by § 1704.8.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.6" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.6   Procedures for public announcement of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each meeting, the Board shall make public announcement, at least one week before the meeting, of the:
</P>
<P>(1) Time of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(2) Place of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(3) Subject matter of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the meeting is to be open or closed; and
</P>
<P>(5) The name and business telephone number of the official designated by the Board to respond to requests for information about the meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) The one week advance notice required by paragraph (a) of this section may be reduced only if:
</P>
<P>(1) A majority of all Members determines by recorded vote that Board business requires that such meeting be scheduled in less than seven days; and
</P>
<P>(2) The public announcement required by paragraph (a) of this section is made at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(c) Immediately following each public announcement required by this section, or by § 1704.7, the Board shall submit a notice of public announcement for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.7" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.7   Changes following public announcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The time or place of a meeting may be changed following the public announcement only if the Board publicly announces such change at the earliest practicable time. Members need not approve such change.
</P>
<P>(b) The subject matter of a meeting or the determination of the Board to open or to close a meeting, or a portion thereof, to the public may be changed following public announcement if:
</P>
<P>(1) A majority of all Members determines by recorded vote that Board business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Board publicly announces such change and the vote of each Member thereon at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(c) The deletion of any subject matter announced for a meeting is not a change requiring the approval of the Board under paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.8" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.8   Transcripts, recordings, or minutes of closed meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Along with the General Counsel's certification and presiding officer's statement referred to in § 1704.5(d), the Board shall maintain a complete transcript or electronic recording adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting, or a portion thereof, closed to the public. The Board may maintain a set of minutes in lieu of such transcript or recording for meetings closed pursuant to § 1704.4(i). Such minutes shall fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and shall provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any rollcall vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.9" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.9   Availability and retention of transcripts, recordings, and minutes, and applicable fees.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall make promptly available to the public in the Public Reading Room the transcript, electronic recording, or minutes of the discussion of any item on the agenda or of any testimony received at a closed meeting, except for such item, or items, of discussion or testimony as determined by the Board to contain matters which may be withheld under the exemptive provisions of § 1704.4. Copies of the nonexempt portions of the transcript or minutes, or transcription of such recordings disclosing the identity of each speaker, shall be furnished to any person at the actual cost of transcription or duplication. If at some later time the Board determines that there is no further justification for withholding a portion of a transcript, electronic recording, or minutes or other item of information from the public which has previously been withheld, such portion or information shall be made publicly available. The Board shall maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes, or a complete electronic recording of each meeting, or a portion thereof, closed to the public for at least two years after such meeting, or until one year after the conclusion of any Board proceeding with respect to which the meeting, or a portion thereof, was held, whichever occurs later.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.10" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.10   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>If any provision of this part or the application of such provision to any person or circumstances, is held invalid, the remainder of this part or the application of such provision to persons or circumstances other than those as to which it is held invalid, shall not be affected thereby.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1704.11" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.3.0.46.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1704.11   Nonpublic collaborative discussions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Notwithstanding the other requirements of this part, a quorum of Members may hold a meeting that is not open to public observation to discuss official business of the Board if—
</P>
<P>(1) No formal or informal vote or other official action is taken at the meeting;
</P>
<P>(2) Each individual present at the meeting is a Member or an employee of the Board;
</P>
<P>(3) At least one Member from each political party is present at the meeting, unless all Members are of the same political party at the time of the meeting; and
</P>
<P>(4) The general counsel of the Board, or a designee of the general counsel, is present at the meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of nonpublic collaborative discussions.</I> (1) Except as provided by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, not later than two business days after the conclusion of a meeting described in subsection (a), the Board shall make available to the public, in a place easily accessible to the public—
</P>
<P>(i) A list of the individuals present at the meeting; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary of the matters, including key issues, discussed at the meeting, except for any matter the Board properly determines may be withheld from the public under § 1704.4.
</P>
<P>(2) Information about matters withheld from the public. If the Board properly determines under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section that a matter may be withheld from the public under § 1704.4, the Board shall include in the summary required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) as much general information as possible with respect to the matter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 48296, Aug. 30, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1705" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1705—PRIVACY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a(f).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 47144, Sept. 18, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1705.01" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.01   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the Board's regulations implementing the Privacy Act of 1974, Public Law 93-579, 5 U.S.C. 552a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.02" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.02   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms used in these regulations are defined in the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(a): <I>agency, individual, maintain, record, system of records, statistical record,</I> and <I>routine use.</I> The Board's use of these terms conforms with the statutory definitions. References in this part to “the Act” refer to the Privacy Act of 1974.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.03" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.03   Systems of records notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public notice.</I> The Board has published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> its systems of records. The Office of the Federal Register biennially compiles and publishes all systems of records maintained by all Federal agencies, including the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests regarding record systems.</I> Any person who wishes to know whether a system of records contains a record pertaining to him or her may file a request in person or in writing. Written requests should be directed to: Privacy Act Officer, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue, NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC 20004. Telephone requests should be made by calling the Board at 202-208-6400, and asking to speak to the Privacy Act Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.04" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.04   Requests by persons for access to their own records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests in writing.</I> A person may request access to his or her own records in writing by addressing a letter to: Privacy Act Officer, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue, NW., suite 700, Washington, DC 20004. The request should contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Full name, address, and telephone number of requester,
</P>
<P>(2) Proof of identification, which should be a copy of one of the following: Valid driver's license, valid passport, or other current identification which contains both an address and picture of the requester,
</P>
<P>(3) The system of records in which the desired information is contained, and 
</P>
<P>(4) At the requester's option, authorization for copying expenses (see § 1705.10 below).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests in person.</I> Any person may examine his or her own records on the Board's premises. To do so, the person should call the Board's offices at 202-208-6400 and ask to speak to the Privacy Act Officer. This call should be made at least two weeks prior to the time the requester would like to see the records. During this call, the requester should be prepared to provide the same information as that listed in paragraph (a) of this section, except for proof of identification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.05" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.05   Processing of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests in writing.</I> The Privacy Act Officer will acknowledge receipt of the request within five working days of its receipt in the Board's offices. The acknowledgment will advise the requester if any additional information is needed to process the request. Within fifteen working days of receipt of the request, the Privacy Act Officer will provide the requested information or will explain to the requester why additional time is needed for response.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests in person.</I> Following the initial call from the requester, the Privacy Act Officer will determine (1) whether the records identified by the requester exist, and (2) whether they are subject to any exemption under § 1705.11 below. If the records exist and are not subject to exemption, the Privacy Act Officer will call the requester and arrange an appointment at a mutually agreeable time when the records can be examined. The requester may be accompanied by one person of his or her own choosing, and should state during this call whether or not a second individual will be present at the appointment. At the appointment, the requester will be asked to present identification as stated in § 1705.04(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Excluded information.</I> If a request is received for information compiled in reasonable anticipation of litigation, the Privacy Act Officer will inform the requester that this information is not subject to release under the Privacy Act (<I>see</I> 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(5)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.06" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.06   Appeals from access denials.</HEAD>
<P>When access to records has been denied by the Privacy Act Officer, the requester may file an appeal in writing. This appeal should be directed to The Chairman, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue NW., suite 700, Washington, DC 20004. The appeal letter must (a) specify those denied records which are still sought, and (b) state why the denial by the Privacy Act Officer is erroneous. The Chairman or his designee will respond to such appeals within twenty working days after the appeal letter has been received in the Board's offices. The appeal determination will explain the basis for continuing to deny access to any requested records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.07" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.07   Requests for correction of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Correction requests.</I> Any person is entitled to request correction of a record pertaining to him or her. This request must be made in writing and should be addressed to Privacy Act Officer, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue, NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC 20004. The letter should clearly identify the corrections desired. An edited copy of the record will usually be acceptable for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial response.</I> Receipt of a correction request will be acknowledged by the Privacy Act Officer in writing within five working days of receipt of the request. The Privacy Act Officer will endeavor to provide a letter to the requester within thirty working days stating whether or not the request for correction has been granted or denied. If the Privacy Act Officer decides to deny any portion of the correction request, the reasons for the denial will be provided to the requester.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.08" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.08   Appeals from correction denials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When amendment of records has been denied by the Privacy Act Officer, the requester may file an appeal in writing. This appeal should be directed to The Chairman, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue, NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC 20004. The appeal letter must (1) specify the records subject to the appeal, and (2) state why the denial of amendment by the Privacy Act Officer is erroneous. The Chairman or his designee will respond to such appeals within thirty working days (subject to extension by the Chairman for good cause) after the appeal letter has been received in the Board's offices.
</P>
<P>(b) The appeal determination, if adverse to the requester in any respect, will: (1) Explain the basis for denying amendment of the specified records, (2) inform the requester that he or she may file a concise statement setting forth reasons for disagreeing with the Chairman's determination, and (3) inform the requester of his or her right to pursue a judicial remedy under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(A).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.09" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.09   Disclosure of records to third parties.</HEAD>
<P>Records subject to the Privacy Act that are requested by any person other than the individual to whom they pertain will not be made available except in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(a) Their release is required under the Freedom of Information Act in accordance with the Board's FOIA regulations, 10 CFR part 1703; 
</P>
<P>(b) Prior consent for disclosure is obtained in writing from the individual to whom the records pertain; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Release is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) (1) or (3) through (11).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.10" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.10   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>A fee will not be charged for search or review of requested records, or for correction of records. When a request is made for copies of records, a copying fee will be charged at the same rate established for FOIA requests. <I>See</I> 10 CFR 1703.107. However, the first 100 pages of copying will be free of charge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1705.11" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.4.0.46.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1705.11   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k), the Board has determined that system of records DNFSB-3, “Drug Testing Program Records,” is partially exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), (I), and (f). The exemption pertains to portions of these records which would identify persons supplying information on drug abuse by Board employees or contractors.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1706" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1706—ORGANIZATIONAL AND CONSULTANT CONFLICTS OF INTERESTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2286b(c).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 44652, Sept. 29, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1706.1" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.1   Scope; statement of policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This part sets forth the guidelines, requirements, and procedures the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board will follow in determining whether a contractor or offeror has an organizational or consultant conflict of interest (OCI) and in avoiding, neutralizing, or mitigating OCIs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy.</I> It is the policy of the Board to identify and then avoid or mitigate organizational and consultant conflicts of interest. Normally, the Board will not award contracts to offerors who have OCIs and will terminate contracts where OCIs are identified following contract award. In exceptional circumstances, the Board reserves the right to waive conflicts of interest if it determines that such action is in the best interests of the Government, pursuant to § 1706.8, and to take such mitigating measures as it deems appropriate pursuant to such section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.2" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Advisory or assistance services</I> means services acquired by contract to advise or assist the Board, whether with respect to its internal functions or its oversight of defense nuclear facilities, or otherwise to support or improve policy development or decisionmaking by the Board, or management or administration of the Board, or to support or improve the operation of the Board's management systems. Such services may take the form of the provision of information, advice, reports, opinions, alternatives, conclusions, recommendations, training, direct assistance, or performance of site visits, technical reviews, investigation of health and safety practices or other appropriate services.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliates</I> means associated business concerns or individuals if, directly or indirectly, either one controls or can control the other or a third party controls or can control both.
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means, as the context requires, the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, its Chairman, or any other officer of the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board to whom the appropriate delegation has been made under 42 U.S.C. 2286(c)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Contract</I> means any contract, agreement, or other arrangement with the Board, except as provided in § 1706.3.
</P>
<P><I>Contractor</I> means any person, firm, unincorporated association, joint venture, co-sponsor, partnership, corporation, or other entity, or any group of one or more of the foregoing, which is a party to a contract with the Board, and the affiliates and successors in interest of such party. The term “contractor” also includes the chief executive and directors of a party to a contract with the Board, the key personnel of such party identified in the contract, and current or proposed consultants or subcontractors to such party. The term “contractor” shall also include consultants engaged directly by the Board through the use of a contract.
</P>
<P><I>Defense nuclear facility</I> means any United States Department of Energy (DOE) defense nuclear facility, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 2286g, subject to the Board's oversight.
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation activities</I> means activities that involve evaluation of some aspect of defense nuclear facilities.
</P>
<P><I>Mitigating</I> means, with respect to an organizational or consultant conflict of interest, reducing or counteracting the effects of such a conflict of interest on the Board, but without eliminating or avoiding the conflict of interest.
</P>
<P><I>National Laboratories</I> means laboratories operated by educational institutions or business entities under management and operating contracts with DOE.
</P>
<P><I>Offeror</I> means any person, firm, unincorporated association, joint venture, partnership, corporation, or other entity, or any group of one or more of the foregoing, submitting a bid or proposal to the Board, solicited, unsolicited or otherwise invited by the Board, to obtain a contract, and the affiliates and successors in interest of such a bidder or proposer. The term “offeror” also includes the chief executive and directors of such a bidder or proposer, the key personnel of a bidder or proposer identified in the bid or proposal, and proposed consultants or subcontractors to such bidder or proposer.
</P>
<P><I>Organizational or consultant conflict of interest</I> means that, because of other past, present, or future planned activities or relationships, an offeror or contractor is unable, or potentially unable, to render impartial assistance or advice to the Board, or the objectivity of such offeror or contractor in performing contract work for the Board is or might be otherwise impaired, or such offeror or contractor has or would have an unfair competitive advantage. The term “organizational or consultant conflict of interest” shall include, but not be limited to, actions or situations that would preclude the award or extension of a contract under, or would be prohibited by, § 1706.5.
</P>
<P><I>Potential organizational or consultant conflict of interest</I> means a factual situation that indicates or suggests that an actual organizational or consultant conflict of interest may exist or arise from award of a proposed contract or from continuation of an existing contract. The term is used to signify those situations that merit conflicts review prior to contract award or that must be reported to the contracting officer for conflicts review if they arise during contract performance.
</P>
<P><I>Research</I> means any scientific, engineering, or other technical work involving theoretical analysis, exploration, or experimentation.
</P>
<P><I>Subcontractor</I> means any subcontractor of any tier which performs work under a prime contract with the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Task order contract</I> means a Board contract that contains a broad scope of work but does not authorize the contractor to perform specific tasks within that broad scope until the contracting officer issues task orders.
</P>
<P><I>Unfair competitive advantage</I> means an advantage obtained by an offeror or contractor to the Board by virtue of the relationship of the offeror or contractor with the Board or access to information not available to other offerors or contractors, and recognized in appropriate legal precedent as unfair.
</P>
<P>In determining the meaning of any provision of this part, unless the context indicates otherwise, the singular includes the plural; the plural includes the singular; the present tense includes the future tense; and words of one gender include the other gender.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.3" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I> This part applies to contractors and offerors only, except as otherwise herein provided. This part shall be incorporated by reference and made a part of all Board contracts in excess of the small purchases threshold, except as provided in the last sentence of this § 1706.3(a). In addition, if determined appropriate by the contracting officer for the Board, this part may be incorporated by reference and made a part of Board contracts below the small purchases threshold, except as provided in the last sentence of this § 1706.3(a). This part does not apply to the acquisition of services, including, without limitation, consulting services, through the personnel appointment process or to Board agreements with other federal government agencies, but shall apply to Board agreements with the management and operating contractors (and subcontractors and consultants thereto) of the National Laboratories.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subcontractors and consultants.</I> The requirements of this part shall also apply to subcontractors and consultants proposed for, or working on, a Board contract, in each case where the amount of the subcontract or consultant agreement under which such subcontractor or consultant is or will be working is expected to exceed $10,000, and in each other case where the contracting officer for the Board deems it appropriate to make the requirements of this part applicable to a subcontractor or consultant proposed for, or working on, a Board contract. The certificates or disclosures submitted by offerors or contractors pursuant to this part shall include certificates or disclosures from all subcontractors and consultants to contractor or offerors in those cases where this part applies by its terms to such subcontractors or consultants or has been applied to such persons by the contracting officer. Contractors and offerors shall assure that contract clauses giving effect to this § 1706.3(b), satisfactory to the contracting officer, are included in subcontracts and consultant agreements of any tier involving performance of work under a prime contract covered by this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44652, Sept. 29, 1992; 58 FR 13684, Mar. 12, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.4" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.4   Head of the contracting activity.</HEAD>
<P>The head of the contracting activity for the Board shall be the General Manager.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.5" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.5   General rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Award of Contracts.</I> Contracts shall generally not be awarded to an offeror:
</P>
<P>(1) For any services where the award would result in the offeror evaluating products or services it has provided to the Board, is then providing to the Board, or is then offering to provide for the Board;
</P>
<P>(2) For evaluation activities or research related to the Board's oversight of defense nuclear facilities, where the award would result in the offeror evaluating products or services it has provided, is then providing, or is then offering to provide to DOE or to contractors or subcontractors for defense nuclear facilities; or
</P>
<P>(3) For any other services (the acquisition of which is otherwise covered by this part), where the Board has determined, pursuant to § 1706.7, that an actual or potential OCI exists and cannot be avoided, and the Board does not waive that OCI. Paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this section also apply when award would result in evaluation of products or services of another entity where the offeror has been, is, or would be substantially involved in the development of the product or performance of the service, or has other substantial involvement regarding the product or services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subsequent related contracts.</I> (1) A Board contractor under a Board contract shall normally be ineligible to participate in Board contracts or subcontracts that stem directly from the contractor's performance of work under a previous Board contract, where the Board determines that an OCI would exist because:
</P>
<P>(i) The expectation of receiving the subsequent contract is likely to diminish the contractor's capacity to give impartial assistance and advice, or otherwise result in a biased work product; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An offeror on the subsequent contract would have an unfair competitive advantage by virtue of having performed the first contract.
</P>
<P>(2) If a contractor under a Board contract prepares a complete or essentially complete statement of work or specifications in the performance of a contract, the contractor shall be ineligible to perform or participate in the initial contractual effort that is based on such statement of work or specifications. The contractor shall not incorporate its products or services in such statement of work or specifications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>National Laboratory personnel.</I> The Board may engage personnel of the National Laboratories who have expertise needed by the Board in the performance of its oversight responsibilities, provided that prior to each such engagement, the Board determines either:
</P>
<P>(1) That the nature of work performed by such personnel for DOE does not pose actual or potential OCIs with respect to the particular work covered by the Board contract; or
</P>
<P>(2) That such engagement is in the Government's best interests and that a waiver should be granted pursuant to § 1706.8. In all cases involving National Laboratory personnel, notice of the circumstances of the contract, stating the rationale for use of the personnel, shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Work for others.</I> During the term of any Board contract, the contractor may not enter into consulting or other contractual arrangements with other persons or entities, the result of which could give rise to an OCI with respect to the work being performed under the contract. The prime contractor shall ensure that all of its employees, subcontractors, and consultants under the contract abide by this paragraph. If the contractor has reason to believe that any proposed arrangement with other persons or entities may involve an actual or potential OCI, it shall promptly inform the Board in writing of all pertinent facts regarding such proposed arrangement. In the case of task order contracts, this paragraph applies, subject to § 1706.7(c), only to specific ongoing tasks that the contracting officer authorizes the contractor to perform.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contractor protection of Board information that is not publicly available.</I> If the contractor in the performance of a Board contract obtains access to information, such as Board plans, policies, reports, studies, or financial plans, or internal data protected by the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), proprietary information, or any other data which has not been released to the public, the contractor shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Use such information for any private purpose until the information has been released or is otherwise made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(2) Compete for work for the Board based on such information for a period of six months after either the contract has been completed or such information has been released or otherwise made available to the public, whichever occurs first, or submit an unsolicited proposal to the Government based on such information until one year after such information is released or otherwise made available to the public, unless a waiver permitting such action has been granted pursuant to § 1706.8; or
</P>
<P>(3) Release the information without prior written approval of the contracting officer, unless such information has previously been released or otherwise made available to the public by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44652, Sept. 29, 1992; 58 FR 13684, Mar. 12, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.6" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.6   Solicitation provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advisory or assistance services.</I> There shall be included in all formal Board solicitations for advisory or assistance services where the contract amount is expected to exceed $25,000 (or the then applicable small purchases threshold), a provision requiring a certificate representing whether award of the contract to the offeror would present actual or potential OCIs. Apparent successful offerors will be required to submit such certificates, but the Board may also require such a certificate to be submitted in other circumstances, such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the contracting officer has identified certain offerors who have passed an initial screening and has determined that it is appropriate to request the identified offerors to file the certificate in order to expedite the award process; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of modifications for additional effort under Board contracts, except those issued under the “changes” clause. If a certificate has been previously submitted with regard to the contract being modified, only an updating of such statement shall be required for a contract modification.
</P>
<FP>In addition, if determined appropriate by the contracting officer for the Board, such certificates may be required in connection with any other contracts subject to this part or in which this part has been incorporated by reference.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Marketing consultant services.</I> There shall further be included in all Board solicitations, except sealed bids, where the contract amount is expected to exceed $200,000, a provision requiring an organizational conflicts of interest certificate from any marketing consultants engaged by an offeror in support of the preparation or submission of an offer for a Board contract by that offeror.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44652, Sept. 29, 1992; 58 FR 13684, Mar. 12, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.7" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.7   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-award disclosure and resolution of OCIs.</I> If a certificate under § 1706.6 indicates, or the Board otherwise learns, that actual or potential OCIs could be, or would appear to be, created by contract award to a particular offeror, the Board shall afford the affected offeror an opportunity to provide in writing all relevant facts bearing on the certificate. If the Board thereafter determines that an actual or potential OCI exists, one of the following actions shall ultimately be taken:
</P>
<P>(1) Disqualify the offeror;
</P>
<P>(2) Include in the contract appropriate terms and conditions which avoid the conflict, in which case no waiver is required; or
</P>
<P>(3) Make a finding that it is in the best interests of the Government to seek award of the contract under the waiver provisions of § 1706.8, and, where reasonably possible, include contract terms and conditions or take other measures which mitigate such conflicts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Post-award disclosure and resolution of OCIs.</I> (1) If, after contract award, the contractor discovers actual or potential OCIs with respect to the contract, it shall make an immediate and full disclosure in writing to the contracting officer. This statement shall include a description of the action that the contractor has taken or proposes to avoid or mitigate such conflicts.
</P>
<P>(2) If a disclosure under this section indicates, or the Board otherwise learns, that actual or potential OCIs exist, the Board may afford the contractor an opportunity to provide all relevant facts bearing upon the problem. If at any time the Board determines that an actual or potential OCI exists, one of the following actions shall ultimately be taken:
</P>
<P>(i) Terminate the contract, or, in the case of a task order contract, terminate the particular task;
</P>
<P>(ii) Insist on appropriate contract terms and conditions which avoid the OCIs, in which case no waiver is required; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Make a finding that it is in the best interests of the Government to permit the contractor to continue to perform the contract (or task) under the waiver provisions of § 1706.8, and, where reasonably possible, insist on appropriate contract terms and conditions or take other measures which mitigate the OCIs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Task order contracts.</I> (1) Because a task order contract generally entails a broad scope of work, apparent successful offerors shall be required to identify in their certificates filed in accordance with § 1706.6 any actual or potential OCIs that come within the full scope of the contract. The Board may decline to award a task order contract to an offeror based upon such information or it may decline to approve performance of a particular task by the contractor if an actual or potential OCI is subsequently identified with respect to that particular task. The Board may also take the other actions identified in § 1706.7(a) to avoid or mitigate such conflicts.
</P>
<P>(2) Contractors performing task order contracts for the Board shall disclose to the contracting officer any new work for others they propose to undertake that may present an actual or potential OCI with regard to the performance of any work under the full scope of the Board contract. Such disclosure shall be made at least 15 days prior to the submission of a bid or proposal for the new work. The disclosure shall include the statement of work and any other information necessary to describe fully the proposed work and contemplated relationship.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Board has issued a task order or a letter request for proposal under the contract with a contractor who has disclosed to the contracting officer that it proposes to undertake new work for persons other than the Board as described in § 1706.7(c)(2), for services in the same technical area and/or at the same defense nuclear facility that is the subject of the proposed new work (including overlap based upon generic work performed for others by the contractor), the Board shall inform the contractor that entering into a contract for the new work may result in termination by the Board of the task order contract, if the Board determines that such work would give rise to an OCI and the Board does not grant a waiver.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decisions on OCIs.</I> The contracting officer shall make recommendations to the General manager regarding disqualification or actions to be taken by the Board to avoid or mitigate any actual or potential OCI.
</P>
<P>(1) The General Manager shall have the authority to approve, modify, or disapprove such recommendations regarding avoidance of an actual or potential OCI. If an offeror or contractor disagrees with the actions approved by the General Manager and requests review of the action, the Chairman shall make the decision on the actions to be taken by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) Any recommended action respecting the best interests of the Government and mitigation measures to be taken with respect to an actual or potential OCI must be approved by the Chairman in conjunction with the decision to grant a waiver pursuant to § 1706.8, and any recommended action to terminate a contract or a particular task on account of an actual or potential OCI must be approved by the Chairman.
</P>
<P>(3) Decisions on OCIs by the General Manager or the Chairman shall be made with the advice of the Office of the General Counsel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44652, Sept. 29, 1992; 58 FR 13684, Mar. 12, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.8" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.8   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Waiver of OCIs.</I> The need for a waiver of any OCI in connection with the award or continuation of specific contracts may be identified either by the contracting officer for the Board or other Board employee or by a written request filed by an offeror or contractor with the contracting officer. The request may be combined with the certificate or disclosure required under §§ 1706.6 or 1706.7, or with additional statements filed under § 1706.7 regarding matters raised in the certificate or disclosure. The contracting officer shall review all of the relevant facts brought to his attention and shall bring the matter to the General Manager, who shall make a written recommendation to the Chairman of the Board regarding whether a waiver should be granted for a contract award or for continuation of an existing contract.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for Waiver of OCIs.</I> (1) The Chairman is authorized to waive any OCI (and the corresponding provision of § 1706.5 where applicable) upon a determination that awarding or extending the particular contract, or not terminating the particular contract, would be in the best interests of the Government. Issuance of a waiver shall ordinarily be limited to those situations in which:
</P>
<P>(i) The work to be performed under contract is vital to the Board program;
</P>
<P>(ii) The work cannot be satisfactorily performed except by a contractor or offeror whose interests give rise to a question of OCI; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Contractual and/or technical review and supervision methods can be employed by the Board to mitigate the conflict.
</P>
<P>(2) The Chairman is also authorized to waive any OCI (and the corresponding provision of § 1706.5 where applicable), without regard to the foregoing factors, if the Chairman determines, notwithstanding the existence of the OCI, that it is in best interests of the Government to award or extend the particular contract, or not to terminate it, without compliance with § 1706.8(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver of Rules or Procedures.</I> The Chairman is also authorized to waive any rules or procedures contained in this part upon a determination that application of the rules or procedures in a particular situation would not be in the best interests of the Government. Any request for such a waiver must be in writing and shall describe the basis for the waiver.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Office of General Counsel.</I> Waivers of OCIs or of any rule or procedure contained in this part shall be made after consultation with the Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal Register.</I> Except as otherwise provided in § 1706.8(c), notice of each waiver granted under this section shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> with an explanation of the basis for the waiver. In the discretion of the Board, notices of instances of avoidance of OCIs may also be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.9" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.9   Examples.</HEAD>
<P>The examples in this section illustrate situations in which questions concerning OCIs may arise. The examples are not all inclusive, but are intended to provide offerors and contractors with guidance on how this subpart will be applied. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Circumstances</I>—(1) <I>Facts.</I> A Board contractor for technical assistance in the review of a safety aspect of a particular defense nuclear facility proposes to use the services of an expert who also serves on an oversight committee for a contractor of other defense nuclear facilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guidance.</I> Assuming the work of the oversight committee has no direct or indirect relationship with the work at the facility that is the subject of the Board's contract, there would not be an OCI associated with the use of this expert in the performance of the Board contract.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Circumstances</I>—(1) <I>Facts.</I> A Board contractor studying the potential for a chemical explosion in waste tanks at a defense nuclear facility advises the Board that it has been offered a contract with DOE to study the chemical composition of the waste in the same tanks. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guidance.</I> The contractor would be advised that accepting the DOE contract would result in termination of its performance under its contract with the Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Circumstances</I>—(1) <I>Facts.</I> The Board issues a task order under an existing contract for the evaluation of the adequacy of fire protection systems at a defense nuclear facility. The contractor then advises the Board that it is considering making an offer on a solicitation by DOE to evaluate the same matter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guidance.</I> The contractor would be advised that entering into a contract with DOE on that solicitation could result in the contract with the Board being terminated. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Circumstances</I>—(1) <I>Facts.</I> A firm responding to a formal Board solicitation for technical assistance provides information regarding a contract it currently has with DOE. The effort under the DOE contract is for technical assistance work at DOE facilities not subject to Board oversight and outside its jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guidance.</I> The Board would analyze the work being performed for DOE to ensure no potential or actual conflict of interest would be created through award of the Board contract. Should the Board determine that no potential or actual conflict of interest exists, the contractor would be eligible for award. If the Board determines that a potential or actual conflict of interest would arise through a contract award, it may disqualify the firm or, if the Board determines that such action is in the best interests of the Government, the Board may waive the conflict or the rules and procedures and proceed with the award.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Circumstances</I>—(1) <I>Facts.</I> The Board discovers that a firm competing for a contract has a number of existing agreements with DOE in technical areas which are unrelated to the Board's oversight authority. While these contracts may not represent a potential or actual conflict of interest regarding the substance of the technical effort, their total value constitutes a significant portion of the firm's gross revenues. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guidance.</I> A conflict of interest may exist due to the firm's substantial pecuniary dependence upon DOE. Consequently, the Board may question the likelihood that the contractor would provide unbiased opinions, conclusions, and work products because of this extensive financial relationship. The Board will review and consider the extent of the firm's financial dependence on DOE, the nature of the proposed Board contract, the need by the Board for the services and expertise to be provided by the firm and the availability of such services and expertise elsewhere, and whether the likelihood of the firm's providing objective technical evaluations and opinions to the Board could be influenced in view of its DOE relationship. Based on this analysis, the Board may either determine that there is no conflict and make the award, waive the conflict if one is identified and establish procedures to mitigate it where possible, or disqualify the offeror. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Circumstances</I>—(1) <I>Facts.</I> The Board discovers that a firm competing for a contract has a substantial business relationship in technical areas unrelated to the Board's oversight authority with a contractor operating a defense nuclear facility under a DOE contract. Similar to the situation described in paragraph (e) of this section, the total value of the contracts with the DOE contractor constitutes more than half of the firm's gross revenues, even though those contracts do not represent a potential or actual conflict of interest regarding any of the particular matters to be covered by the contract with the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guidance.</I> The firm's substantial financial and business dependence upon the DOE contractor may give rise to a conflict of interest, in that the likelihood of the firm's rendering impartial, objective assistance or advice to the Board may be impaired by its extensive financial relationship with the DOE contractor. In this situation, the Board will review and consider the nature of the proposed Board contract, the need by the Board for the services and expertise to be provided by the firm and the availability of such services and expertise elsewhere. The Board will also review and consider the extent of the firm's financial dependence on the DOE contractor and whether the firm would be impartial and objective in providing technical evaluation and opinions to the Board, especially on matters in which the DOE contractor is involved, notwithstanding the relationship with the DOE contractor. Based on this analysis, the Board may determine that there is no actual conflict of interest and make the award. Alternatively, if the Board identifies a conflict that cannot be avoided, the Board may determine to waive the conflict in the best interests of the United States, with or without the establishment of procedures to mitigate the conflict, or it may disqualify the offeror. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44652, Sept. 29, 1992; 58 FR 13684, Mar. 12, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.10" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.10   Remedies.</HEAD>
<P>The refusal to provide the certificate, or upon request of the contracting officer the additional written statement, required by §§ 1706.6 and 1706.7 in connection with an award shall result in disqualification of the offeror for that award. The nondisclosure or misrepresentation of any relevant information may also result in the disqualification of the offeror for that award. If such nondisclosure or misrepresentation by an offeror or contractor is discovered or occurs after award, or in the event of breach of any of the restrictions contained in this part, the Board may terminate the contract for convenience or default, and the offeror or contractor may also be disqualified by the Board from consideration for subsequent Board contracts and be subject to such other remedial actions as provided by law or the contract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44652, Sept. 29, 1992; 58 FR 13684, Mar. 12, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1706.11" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.5.0.46.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1706.11   Organizational conflicts of interest certificate—Advisory or assistance services.</HEAD>
<P>As prescribed in or permitted by § 1706.6(a), insert the following provision in Board solicitations:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Organizational and Consultant Conflicts of Interest Certificate—Advisory and Assistance Services (Oct. 1990)
</HD1>
<P>(a) An organizational or consultant conflict of interest means that because of other activities or relationships with other persons, a person is unable or potentially unable to render impartial assistance or advice to the Government, or the person's objectivity in performing the contract work is or might be otherwise impaired, or a person has an unfair competitive advantage.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to comply with the Office of Federal Procurement Policy Letter 89-1, Conflict of Interest Policies Applicable to Consultants, the offeror shall provide the certificate described in paragraph (c) of this provision.
</P>
<P>(c) The certificate must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of the agency and the number of the solicitation in question.
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, telephone number, and federal taxpayer identification number of the offeror.
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the nature of the services rendered by or to be rendered on the instant contract.
</P>
<P>(4) The name, address, and telephone number of the client or clients, a description of the services rendered to the previous client(s), and the name of a responsible officer or employee of the offeror who is knowledgeable about the services rendered to each client, if, in the 12* 
<FTREF/>months preceding the date of the certification, services were rendered to the Government or any other client (including a foreign government or person) respecting the same subject matter as the instant solicitation, or directly relating to such subject matter. The agency and contract number under which the services were rendered must also be included, if applicable.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>* If approved by the head of the contracting activity, this period may be increased up to 36 months.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) A statement that the person who signs the certificate has made inquiry and that, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, no actual or potential conflict of interest or unfair competitive advantage exists with respect to the advisory or assistance services to be provided in connection with the instant contract, or that any actual or potential conflict of interest or unfair competitive advantage that does or may exist with respect to the contract in question has been communicated in writing to the contracting officer or his or her representative; and
</P>
<P>(6) The signature, name, employer's name, address, and telephone number of the person who signed the certificate.
</P>
<P>(d) Persons required to certify but who fail to do so may be determined to be nonresponsible. Misrepresentation of any fact may result in suspension or debarment, as well as penalties associated with false certifications or such other provisions provided for by law or regulation.</P></EXTRACT>
<HD3>(End of provision)


</HD3>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1707" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1707—TESTIMONY BY DNFSB EMPLOYEES AND PRODUCTION OF OFFICIAL RECORDS IN LEGAL PROCEEDINGS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2286b(c); 44 U.S.C. 3101-3107, 3301-3303a, 3308-3314. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 66715, Dec. 27, 2001, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.101" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.1.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.101   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part sets forth policies and procedures you must follow when you submit a demand or request to an employee of the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board (DNFSB) to produce official records and information, or provide testimony relating to official information, in connection with a legal proceeding. You must comply with these requirements when you request the release or disclosure of official records and information. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board intends these provisions to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Promote economy and efficiency in its programs and operations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Minimize the possibility of involving DNFSB in controversial issues not related to our functions; 
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain DNFSB's impartiality among private litigants where DNFSB is not a named party; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Protect sensitive, confidential information and the deliberative processes of DNFSB. 
</P>
<P>(c) In providing for these requirements, DNFSB does not waive the sovereign immunity of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) This part provides guidance for the internal operations of DNFSB. It does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, that a party may rely upon in any legal proceeding against the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.102" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.1.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.102   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to demands and requests to employees for factual, opinion, or expert testimony relating to official information, or for production of official records or information, in legal proceedings in which the United States or the DNFSB is not a named party. However, it does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(a) Demands upon or requests for a DNFSB employee to testify as to facts or events that are unrelated to his or her official duties or that are unrelated to the functions of DNFSB; 
</P>
<P>(b) Demands upon or requests for a former DNFSB employee to testify as to matters in which the former employee was not directly or materially involved while at the DNFSB; 
</P>
<P>(c) Requests for the release of records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Congressional demands and requests for testimony or records. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 66715, Dec. 27, 2001, as amended at 87 FR 22437, Apr. 15, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.103" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.1.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>DNFSB</I> means the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board. 
</P>
<P><I>DNFSB</I> employee or employee means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any current or former officer or employee of DNFSB; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any contractor or contractor employee working on behalf of the DNFSB or who has performed services for DNFSB; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any individual who is serving or has served in any advisory capacity to DNFSB, whether formal or informal. 
</P>
<P>(4) Provided, that this definition does not include persons who are no longer employed by DNFSB and who are retained or hired as expert witnesses or who agree to testify about general matters, matters available to the public, or matters with which they had no specific involvement or responsibility during their employment with DNFSB. 
</P>
<P><I>Demand</I> means a subpoena, or an order or other demand of a court or other competent authority, for the production, disclosure, or release of records or for the appearance and testimony of a DNFSB employee that is issued in a legal proceeding. 
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of DNFSB or a person to whom the General Counsel has delegated authority under this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Legal proceeding</I> means any matter before a court of law, administrative board or tribunal, commission, administrative law judge, hearing officer, or other body that conducts a legal or administrative proceeding. Legal proceeding includes all phases of litigation. 
</P>
<P><I>Records or official records and information mean:</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) All documents and materials which are DNFSB agency records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552; 
</P>
<P>(2) All other documents and materials contained in DNFSB files; and 
</P>
<P>(3) All other information or materials acquired by a DNFSB employee in the performance of his or her official duties or because of his or her official status. 
</P>
<P><I>Request</I> means any formal or informal request, by whatever method, for the production of records and information or for testimony which has not been demanded by a court or other competent authority. 
</P>
<P><I>Testimony</I> means any written or oral statements, including but not limited to depositions, answers to interrogatories, affidavits, declarations, interviews, and statements made by an individual in connection with a legal proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requests for Testimony and Production of Documents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.201" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.201   General prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>No employee may produce official records and information or provide any testimony relating to official information in response to a demand or request without the prior, written approval of the General Counsel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.202" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.202   Factors DNFSB will consider.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel, in his or her sole discretion, may grant an employee permission to testify on matters relating to official information, or produce official records and information, in response to a demand or request. Among the relevant factors that the General Counsel may consider in making this decision are whether: 
</P>
<P>(a) The purposes of this part are met; 
</P>
<P>(b) Allowing such testimony or production of records would be necessary to prevent a miscarriage of justice; 
</P>
<P>(c) DNFSB has an interest in the decision that may be rendered in the legal proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(d) Allowing such testimony or production of records would assist or hinder DNFSB in performing its statutory duties or use DNFSB resources where responding to the request will interfere with the ability of DNFSB employees to do their work; 
</P>
<P>(e) Allowing such testimony or production of records would be in the best interest of DNFSB or the United States; 
</P>
<P>(f) The records or testimony can be obtained from other sources; 
</P>
<P>(g) The demand or request is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand or request arose; 
</P>
<P>(h) Disclosure would violate a statute, executive order or regulation; 
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure would reveal confidential, sensitive, or privileged information, trade secrets or similar, confidential commercial or financial information, or otherwise protected information, or would otherwise be inappropriate for release; 
</P>
<P>(j) Disclosure would impede or interfere with an ongoing law enforcement investigation or proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(k) Disclosure would compromise constitutional rights; 
</P>
<P>(l) Disclosure would result in DNFSB appearing to favor one litigant over another; 
</P>
<P>(m) Disclosure relates to documents that were produced by another agency; 
</P>
<P>(n) A substantial Government interest is implicated; 
</P>
<P>(o) The demand or request is within the authority of the party making it; and 
</P>
<P>(p) The demand or request is sufficiently specific to be answered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.203" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.203   Filing requirements for demands or requests for documents or testimony.</HEAD>
<P>You must comply with the following requirements whenever you issue demands or requests to a DNFSB employee for official records, information, or testimony. 
</P>
<P>(a) Your request must be in writing and must be submitted to the General Counsel. If you serve a subpoena on DNFSB or a DNFSB employee before submitting a written request and receiving a final determination, DNFSB will oppose the subpoena on grounds that your request was not submitted in accordance with this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) Your written request must contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The caption of the legal proceeding, docket number, and name and address of the court or other authority involved; 
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the complaint or equivalent document setting forth the assertions in the case and any other pleading or document necessary to show relevance of the testimony, records, or information you seek from the DNFSB; 
</P>
<P>(3) A list of categories of records sought, a detailed description of how the information sought is relevant to the issues in the legal proceeding, and a specific description of the substance of the testimony or records sought; 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement as to how the need for the information outweighs the need to maintain any confidentiality of the information and outweighs the burden on DNFSB to produce the records or provide testimony; 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement indicating that the information sought is not available from another source, from other persons or entities, or from the testimony of someone other than a DNFSB employee, such as a retained expert; 
</P>
<P>(6) If testimony is requested, the intended use of the testimony, a general summary of the desired testimony, and a showing that no document could be provided and used in lieu of testimony; 
</P>
<P>(7) A description of all prior decisions, orders, or pending motions in the case that bear upon the relevance of the requested records or testimony; 
</P>
<P>(8) The name, address, and telephone number of counsel to each party in the case; and 
</P>
<P>(9) An estimate of the amount of time that the requester and other parties will require with each DNFSB employee for time spent by the employee to prepare for testimony, in travel, and for attendance in the legal proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board reserves the right to require additional information to complete your request where appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) Your request should be submitted at least 45 days before the date that records or testimony is required. Requests submitted in less than 45 days before records or testimony is required must be accompanied by a written explanation stating the reasons for the late request and the reasons for expedited processing. 
</P>
<P>(e) Failure to cooperate in good faith to enable the General Counsel to make an informed decision may serve as the basis for a determination not to comply with your request. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.204" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.204   Service of subpoenas or requests.</HEAD>
<P>Subpoenas or requests for official records or information or testimony must be served on the General Counsel, Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board, 625 Indiana Avenue, NW., Suite 700, Washington, DC 20004-2901. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.205" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.205   Processing demands or requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After service of a demand or request to testify, the General Counsel will review the demand or request and, in accordance with the provisions of this subpart, determine whether, or under what conditions, to authorize the employee to testify on matters relating to official information and/or produce official records and information. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board will process requests in the order in which they are received. Absent exigent or unusual circumstances, DNFSB will respond within 45 days from the date that we receive it. The time for response will depend upon the scope of the request. 
</P>
<P>(c) The General Counsel may grant a waiver of any procedure described by this subpart where a waiver is considered necessary to promote a significant interest of the DNFSB or the United States or for other good cause. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.206" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.206   Final determination.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel makes the final determination on demands and requests to employees for production of official records and information or testimony. All final determinations are within the sole discretion of the General Counsel. The General Counsel will notify the requester and the court or other authority of the final determination, the reasons for the grant or denial of the demand or request, and any conditions that the General Counsel may impose on the release of records or information, or on the testimony of a DNFSB employee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.207" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.207   Restrictions that apply to testimony.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the testimony of DNFSB employees including, for example, limiting the areas of testimony or requiring the requester and other parties to the legal proceeding to agree that the transcript of the testimony will be kept under seal or will only be used or made available in the particular legal proceeding for which testimony was requested. The General Counsel may also require a copy of the transcript of testimony at the requester's expense. 
</P>
<P>(b) The DNFSB may offer the employee's written declaration in lieu of testimony. 
</P>
<P>(c) If authorized to testify pursuant to this part, an employee may testify as to facts within his or her personal knowledge, but, unless specifically authorized to do so by the General Counsel, the employee shall not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose classified, privileged, or otherwise protected information; 
</P>
<P>(2) Testify as an expert or opinion witness with regard to any matter arising out of the employee's official duties or the functions of DNFSB unless testimony is being given on behalf of the United States (see also 5 CFR 2635.805 for current employees). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.208" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.208   Restrictions that apply to released records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the release of official records and information, including the requirement that parties to the proceeding obtain a protective order or execute a confidentiality agreement to limit access and any further disclosure. The terms of the protective order or of a confidentiality agreement must be acceptable to the General Counsel. In cases where protective orders or confidentiality agreements have already been executed, DNFSB may condition the release of official records and information on an amendment to the existing protective order or confidentiality agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the General Counsel so determines, original DNFSB records may be presented for examination in response to a demand or request, but they are not to be presented as evidence or otherwise used in a manner by which they could lose their identity as official DNFSB records, nor are they to be marked or altered. In lieu of the original records, certified copies will be presented for evidentiary purposes (see 28 U.S.C. 1733). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.209" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.209   Procedure when a decision is not made prior to the time a response is required.</HEAD>
<P>If a response to a demand or request is required before the General Counsel can make the determination referred to in § 1707.201, the General Counsel, when necessary, will provide the court or other competent authority with a copy of this part, inform the court or other competent authority that the demand or request is being reviewed, and seek a stay of the demand or request pending a final determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.210" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.2.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.210   Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.</HEAD>
<P>If the court or other competent authority fails to stay the demand, the employee upon whom the demand is made, unless otherwise advised by the General Counsel, will appear at the stated time and place, produce a copy of this part, state that the employee has been advised by counsel not to provide the requested testimony or produce documents, and respectfully decline to comply with the demand, citing <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951). A written response may be offered to a request, or to a demand, if permitted by the court or other competent authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Schedule of Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.301" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.3.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.301   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Generally. The General Counsel may condition the production of records or appearance for testimony upon advance payment of a reasonable estimate of the costs to DNFSB. 
</P>
<P>(b) Fees for records. Fees for producing records will include fees for searching, reviewing, and duplicating records, costs of attorney time spent in reviewing the demand or request, and expenses generated by materials and equipment used to search for, produce, and copy the responsive information. Costs for employee time will be calculated on the basis of the hourly pay of the employee (including all pay, allowance, and benefits). Fees for duplication will be the same as those charged by DNFSB in its Freedom of Information Act fee regulations at 10 CFR part 1703. 
</P>
<P>(c) Witness fees. Fees for attendance by a witness will include fees, expenses, and allowances prescribed by the court's rules. If no such fees are prescribed, witness fees will be determined based upon the rule of the Federal district court closest to the location where the witness will appear. Such fees will include cost of time spent by the witness to prepare for testimony, in travel, and for attendance in the legal proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(d) Payment of fees. You must pay witness fees for current DNFSB employees and any records certification fees by submitting to the General Counsel a check or money order for the appropriate amount made payable to the Treasury of the United States. In the case of testimony by former DNFSB employees, you must pay applicable fees directly to the former employee in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1821 or other applicable statutes. 
</P>
<P>(e) Certification (authentication) of copies of records. The Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board may certify that records are true copies in order to facilitate their use as evidence. If you seek certification, you must request certified copies from DNFSB at least 45 days before the date they will be needed. The request should be sent to the General Counsel. You will be charged a certification fee of $15.00 for each document certified. 
</P>
<P>(f) Waiver or reduction of fees. The General Counsel, in his or her sole discretion, may, upon a showing of reasonable cause, waive or reduce any fees in connection with the testimony, production, or certification of records. 
</P>
<P>(g) De minimis fees. Fees will not be assessed if the total charge would be $10.00 or less. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1707.401" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.6.4.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1707.401   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee who discloses official records or information or gives testimony relating to official information, except as expressly authorized by DNFSB or as ordered by a Federal court after DNFSB has had the opportunity to be heard, may face the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641 and other applicable laws. Additionally, former DNFSB employees are subject to the restrictions and penalties of 18 U.S.C. 207 and 216. 
</P>
<P>(b) A current DNFSB employee who testifies or produces official records and information in violation of this part shall be subject to disciplinary action.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1708" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1708—PROCEDURES FOR SAFETY INVESTIGATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>42 U.S.C. 2286b(c); 42 U.S.C. 2286a(b)(2); 44 U.S.C. 3101-3107, 3301-3303a, 3308-3314.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 71010, Dec. 1, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1708.100" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.100   Authority to conduct safety investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board (Board) is an independent federal agency in the executive branch of the United States Government.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board's enabling legislation authorizes it to conduct safety investigations pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2286a(b)(2)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.101" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.101   Scope and purpose of safety investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall investigate any event or practice at a Department of Energy defense nuclear facility which the Board determines has adversely affected, or may adversely affect, public health and safety.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of any Board investigation shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) To determine whether the Secretary of Energy is adequately implementing standards (including all applicable Department of Energy orders, regulations, and requirements) at Department of Energy defense nuclear facilities;
</P>
<P>(2) To ascertain information concerning the circumstances of such event or practice and its implications for such standards;
</P>
<P>(3) To determine whether such event or practice is related to other events or practices at other Department of Energy defense nuclear facilities; and
</P>
<P>(4) To provide to the Secretary of Energy such recommendations for changes in such standards or the implementation of such standards (including Department of Energy orders, regulations, and requirements) and such recommendations relating to data or research needs as may be prudent or necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.102" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.102   Types of safety investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board may initiate a preliminary safety inquiry or order a formal safety investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) A preliminary safety inquiry means any inquiry conducted by the Board or its staff, other than a formal investigation. Where it appears from a preliminary safety inquiry that a formal safety investigation is appropriate, the Board's staff will so recommend to the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) A formal safety investigation is instituted by an Order of Safety Investigation issued either after a recorded notational vote of Board Members or after convening a meeting in accordance with the Government in the Sunshine Act and voting in open or closed session, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(d) Orders of Safety Investigations will outline the basis for the investigation, the matters to be investigated, the Investigating Officer(s) designated to conduct the investigation, and their authority.
</P>
<P>(e) The Office of the General Counsel shall have primary responsibility for conducting and leading a formal safety investigation. The Investigating Officer(s) shall report to the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) Following a notational vote and in accordance with the Government in the Sunshine Act, the Board or an individual Board Member authorized by the Board may hold such closed or open hearings and sit and act at such times and places, and require the attendance and testimony of such witnesses and the production of such evidence as the Board or an authorized member may find advisable, or exercise any other applicable authority as provided in the Board's enabling legislation. Each Board Member shall have full access to all information relating to the matter under investigation, including attendance at closed hearings.
</P>
<P>(g) Subpoenas in formal safety investigation hearings may be issued by the Chairman only after a notational vote of the Board. The Chairman may designate another Board Member to issue a subpoena. Subpoenas shall be served by any person designated by the Chairman, or otherwise as provided by law.
</P>
<P>(h) A determination of a decision or action authorized to the Board by these procedures shall only be made after a notational vote of the Board with each Board Member having one vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.103" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.103   Request to conduct safety investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may request that the Board perform a preliminary safety inquiry or conduct a formal safety investigation concerning a matter within the Board's jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(b) Actions the Board may take regarding safety investigation requests are discretionary.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board will offer to protect the identity of a person requesting a safety investigation to the maximum extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(d) Board safety investigations are wholly administrative and investigatory in nature and do not involve a determination of criminal culpability, adjudication of rights and duties, or other quasi-judicial determinations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.104" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.104   Confidentiality of safety investigations and privileged safety information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Information obtained during the course of a preliminary safety inquiry or a formal safety investigation may be treated as confidential, safety privileged, and non-public by the Board and its staff, to the extent permissible under existing law. The information subject to this protection includes but is not limited to: Identity of witnesses; recordings; statements; testimony; transcripts; emails; all documents, whether or not obtained pursuant to Board subpoena; any conclusions based on privileged safety information; any deliberations or recommendations as to policies to be pursued; and all other related investigative proceedings and activities.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall have the discretion to assert the safety privilege when safety information, determined by the Board as protected from release, is sought by any private or public governmental entity or by parties to litigation who attempt to compel its release.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section voids or otherwise displaces the Board's legal obligations with respect to the Freedom of Information Act, the Government in the Sunshine Act, or any procedures or requirements contained in the Board's regulations issued pursuant to those Acts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.105" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.105   Promise of confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Investigating Officer(s) may give a promise of confidentiality to any individual who provides evidence for a safety inquiry or investigation to encourage frank communication.
</P>
<P>(b) A promise of confidentiality must be explicit.
</P>
<P>(c) A promise of confidentiality must be documented in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) A promise of confidentiality may be given only as needed to ensure forthright cooperation of a witness and may not be given on a blanket basis to all witnesses.
</P>
<P>(e) A promise of confidentiality must inform the witness that it applies only to information given to the Investigating Officer(s) and not to the same information if given to others.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.106" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.106   Limitation on participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A safety investigation under this rule is not a judicial or adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) No person or entity has standing to intervene or participate as a matter of right in any safety investigation under this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.107" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.107   Powers of persons conducting formal safety investigations.</HEAD>
<P>The Investigating Officer(s) appointed by the Board may take informal or formal statements, interview witnesses, take testimony, request production of documents, recommend issuance of subpoenas, recommend taking of testimony in a closed forum, recommend administration of oaths, and otherwise perform any lawful act authorized under the Board's enabling legislation in connection with any safety investigation ordered by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.108" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.108   Cooperation: Ready access to facilities, personnel, and information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 2286c(a) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, requires the Department of Energy to fully cooperate with the Board and provide the Board with ready access to such facilities, personnel, and information as the Board considers necessary, including ready access in connection with a safety investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Each contractor operating a Department of Energy defense nuclear facility under a contract awarded by the Secretary is also required, to the extent provided in such contract or otherwise with the contractor's consent, to fully cooperate with the Board and provide the Board with ready access to such facilities, personnel, and information of the contractor as the Board considers necessary in connection with a safety investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board may make a written request to persons or entities relevant to the safety investigation to preserve pertinent information, documents, and evidence, including electronically stored information, in order to preclude alteration or destruction of that information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.109" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.109   Rights of witnesses in safety investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is compelled to appear in person to provide testimony or produce documents in connection with a safety investigation is entitled to be accompanied, represented, and advised by an attorney. Subpoenas in safety investigations shall issue only under signature of the Chairman or any Member of the Board designated by the Chairman. Attendance and testimony shall be before the Board or a Member authorized by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) If an executive branch agency employee witness is represented by counsel from that same agency, counsel shall identify who counsel represents to determine whether counsel represents multiple interests in the safety investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) Counsel for a witness may advise the witness with respect to any question asked where it is claimed that the testimony sought from the witness is outside the scope of the safety investigation, or that the witness is privileged to refuse to answer a question or to produce other evidence. For these permissible objections, the witness or counsel may object on the record to the question and may state briefly and precisely the grounds therefore. If the witness refuses to answer a question, then counsel may briefly state on the record that counsel has advised the witness not to answer the question and the legal grounds for such refusal. The witness and his or her counsel shall not otherwise object to or refuse to answer any question, and they shall not otherwise interrupt any oral examination.
</P>
<P>(d) When it is claimed that the witness has a privilege to refuse to answer a question on the grounds of self-incrimination, the witness must assert the privilege personally.
</P>
<P>(e) Any objections made during the course of examination will be treated as continuing objections and preserved throughout the further course of testimony without the necessity for repeating them as to any similar line of inquiry.
</P>
<P>(f) Counsel for a witness may not interrupt the examination by making any unnecessary objections or statements on the record.
</P>
<P>(g) Following completion of the examination of a witness, such witness may make a statement on the record, and that person's counsel may, on the record, question the witness to enable the witness to clarify any of the witness's answers or to offer other evidence.
</P>
<P>(h) The Board or any Member authorized by the Board shall take all measures necessary to regulate the course of an investigative proceeding to avoid delay and prevent or restrain obstructionist or contumacious conduct or contemptuous language.
</P>
<P>(i) If the Board or any Member authorized by the Board finds that counsel for a witness, or other representative, has refused to comply with his or her directions, or has engaged in obstructionism or contumacy, the Board or Member authorized by the Board may thereupon take action as the circumstances may warrant.
</P>
<P>(j) Witnesses appearing voluntarily do not have a right to have counsel present during questioning, although the Board or Member authorized by the Board, in consultation with the Office of the General Counsel, may permit a witness appearing on a voluntary basis to be accompanied by an attorney or non-attorney representative.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.110" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.110   Multiple interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If counsel representing a witness appears in connection with a safety investigation, counsel shall state on the record all other persons or entities counsel represents in that investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) When counsel does represent more than one person or entity in a safety investigation, counsel shall inform the Investigating Officer(s) and each client of counsel's possible conflict of interest in representing that client.
</P>
<P>(c) When an Investigating Officer(s), or the Board, as the case may be, in consultation with the Board's General Counsel, has concrete evidence that the presence of an attorney representing multiple interests would obstruct or impede the safety investigation, the Investigating Officer(s) or the Board may prohibit that attorney from being present during testimony.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board shall issue a written statement of the reasons supporting a decision to exclude counsel under this section within five working days following exclusion. The Board shall also delay the safety investigation for a reasonable period of time to permit retention of new counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.111" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.111   Sequestration of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Witnesses shall be sequestered during interviews, or during the taking of testimony, unless otherwise permitted by the Investigating Officer(s) or by the Board, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(b) No witness, or counsel accompanying any such witness, shall be permitted to be present during the examination of any other witness called in such proceeding, unless permitted by the Investigating Officer(s) or the Board, as the case may be.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.112" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.112   Appearance and practice before the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Counsel appearing before the Board or the Investigating Officer(s) must conform to the standards of ethical conduct required of practitioners before the Courts of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board may suspend or deny, temporarily or permanently, the privilege of appearing or practicing before the Board in any way to a person who is found:
</P>
<P>(1) Not to possess the requisite qualifications to represent others; or
</P>
<P>(2) To have engaged in unethical or improper professional conduct; or
</P>
<P>(3) To have engaged in obstructionism or contumacy before the Board; or
</P>
<P>(4) To be otherwise not qualified.
</P>
<P>(c) Obstructionist or contumacious conduct in an investigation before the Board or the Investigating Officer(s) will be grounds for exclusion of any person from such safety investigation proceedings and for summary suspension for the duration of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(d) At the time of the finding the Board shall issue a verbal or written statement of the reasons supporting a decision to suspend or exclude counsel for obstructionism or contumacy.
</P>
<P>(e) A witness may have a reasonable amount of time to retain replacement counsel if original counsel is suspended or excluded.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.113" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.113   Right to submit statements.</HEAD>
<P>At any time during the course of an investigation, any person may submit documents, statements of facts, or memoranda of law for the purpose of explanation or further development of the facts and circumstances relevant to the safety matter under investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.114" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.114   Official transcripts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Official transcripts of witness testimony, whether or not compelled by subpoena to appear before a Board safety investigation, shall be recorded either by an official reporter or by any other person or means designated by the Investigating Officer(s) or the Board's General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) Such witness, after completing the compelled testimony, may file a request with the Board's General Counsel to procure a copy of the official transcript of that witness's testimony. The General Counsel shall rule on the request, and may deny for good cause.
</P>
<P>(c) Good cause for denying a witness's request to procure a transcript may include, but shall not be limited to, the protection of a trade secret, non-disclosure of confidential or proprietary business information, security-sensitive operational or vulnerability information, safety privileged information, or the integrity of Board investigations.
</P>
<P>(d) Whether or not a request is made, the witness and his or her attorney shall have the right to inspect the official transcript of the witness's own testimony, in the presence of the Investigating Officer(s) or his designee, for purposes of conducting errata review.
</P>
<P>(e) Transcripts of testimony are otherwise considered confidential and privileged safety information, and in no case shall a copy or any reproduction of such transcript be released to any other person or entity, except as provided in paragraph (b) above or as required under the Freedom of Information Act or the Government in the Sunshine Act, or any procedures or requirements contained in Board regulations issued pursuant to those Acts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.115" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.115   Final report of safety investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board will complete a final report of the safety investigation fully setting forth the Board's findings and conclusions.
</P>
<P>(b) The final report of the safety investigation is confidential and protected by the safety privilege, and is therefore not releasable.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board, in its discretion, may sanitize the final report of the safety investigation by redacting confidential and safety privileged information so that the report is put in a publically releasable format.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section voids or otherwise displaces the Board's legal obligations with respect to compliance with the Freedom of Information Act, the Government in the Sunshine Act, or any procedures or requirements contained in the Board's regulations issued pursuant to those Acts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1708.116" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.7.0.46.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1708.116   Procedure after safety investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a formal safety investigation results in a finding that an event or practice has adversely affected, or may adversely affect, public health and safety, the Board may take any appropriate action authorized to it under its enabling statute, including, but not limited to, making a formal recommendation to the Secretary of Energy, convening a hearing, or establishing a reporting requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) If a safety investigation yields information relating to violations of federal criminal law involving government officers and employees, the Board shall expeditiously refer the matter to the Department of Justice for disposition.
</P>
<P>(c) If in the course of a safety investigation, a safety issue or concern is found to be outside the Board's jurisdiction, that safety issue or concern shall be referred to the appropriate entity with jurisdiction for disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) Statements made in connection with testimony provided to the Board in an investigation are subject to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 1001.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1709" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1709—DEBT COLLECTION PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 3716(b); 31 U.S.C. 3711(d)(2); 31 CFR parts 900 through 904.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 44032, July 11, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1709.101" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.8.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1709.101   Cross-reference to executive branch-wide debt collection regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board adopts the regulations at 31 CFR parts 900 through 904 governing the administrative collection, offset, compromise, and the suspension or termination of collection activity for debts or civil claims for money, funds or property owed to the United States government as defined by 31 U.S.C. 3701(b).








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1710" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1710—FEDERAL EMPLOYEE SALARY OFFSET PROCEDURES FOR THE COLLECTION OF A DEBT OWED TO THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR part 550 subpart K.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 64354, Sept. 19, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.101" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.1.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part provides procedures for the collection by administrative offset of a federal employee's salary without his/her consent to satisfy certain debts owed to the federal government. This part applies to all federal employees who owe debts to the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board (Board) and to current employees of the Board who owe debts to other federal agencies. This part does not apply when the employee consents to recovery from his/her current pay account.
</P>
<P>(b) These procedures do not apply to debts or claims arising under:
</P>
<P>(1) The Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, 26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The tariff laws of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any case where a collection of a debt is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute.
</P>
<P>(c) These procedures do not preclude the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection action where appropriate under the standards implementing the revised Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS), 31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.,</I> 31 CFR chapter IX, parts 900 through 904.
</P>
<P>(d) This part does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of an overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584 or in any way questioning the amount or validity of the debt by submitting a subsequent claim to the Board. This part does not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver pursuant to other statutory provisions applicable to the particular debt being collected.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board is not limited to collection remedies contained in the revised FCCS. The FCCS is not intended to impair common law remedies.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.103" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.1.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Administrative charges</I> are those amounts assessed by the Board to cover the costs of processing and handling delinquent debts due the government.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding money payable by the United States Government to, or held by the government for, a person to satisfy a debt the person owes the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means any agency of the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the federal government, including government corporations.
</P>
<P><I>Centralized salary offset computer matching</I> describes the computerized process used to match delinquent debt records with federal salary payment records when the purpose of the match is to identify federal employees who owe debts to the federal government.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means the agency to which the debt is owed, including a debt collection center when acting on behalf of a creditor agency in matters pertaining to the collection of a debt.
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> and <I>claim</I> are used synonymously to refer to an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by an agency official to be owed to the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another federal agency. For the purposes of administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, the terms “debt” and “claim” include an amount of money, funds, or property owed by a person to a state (including past-due support being enforced by a state), the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P><I>Debt collection center</I> means the Department of the Treasury or other government agency or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury, with authority to collect debts on behalf of creditor agencies.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent debt record</I> refers to the information about a debt that an agency submits to Treasury when the agency refers the debt for collection by offset in accordance with the provision of 31 U.S.C. 3716.
</P>
<P><I>Disbursing official</I> means an official who has authority to disburse federal salary payments pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3321 or another law.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, or in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay remaining after the deduction of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any amount required by law to be withheld;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts properly withheld for federal, state, or local income tax purposes;
</P>
<P>(3) Amounts deducted as health insurance premiums;
</P>
<P>(4) Amounts deducted as normal retirement contributions, not including amounts deducted for supplementary coverage; and
</P>
<P>(5) Amounts deducted as normal life insurance premiums, not including amounts deducted for supplementary coverage.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> is any individual employed by any agency of the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the federal government, including government corporations.
</P>
<P><I>FCCS</I> means the Federal Claims Collection Standards jointly published by the Department of the Treasury and the Department of Justice at 31 CFR parts 900 through 904.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing official</I> means an individual responsible for conducting any hearing with respect to the existence or amount of a debt claimed or the repayment schedule if not established by written agreement between the employee and the Board, and who renders a decision on the basis of this hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Paying agency</I> means the agency that employs the individual who owes the debt and authorizes the payment of his/her current pay.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his or her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Treasury</I> means the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to an agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584, 5 U.S.C. 8346(b), or any other law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.105" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.1.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.105   Application.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part are to be followed when:
</P>
<P>(a) The Board is owed a debt by an individual currently employed by another federal agency;
</P>
<P>(b) The Board is owed a debt by an individual who is a current employee of the Board; or
</P>
<P>(c) The Board employs an individual who owes a debt to another federal agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Notice, Hearing, and Salary Offset Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.107" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.107   Notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Deductions under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 shall not be made unless the creditor agency provides the employee with written notice that he/she owes a debt to the Federal government a minimum of 30 calendar days before salary offset is initiated. When the Board is the creditor agency, this notice of intent to offset an employee's salary shall be hand-delivered at work, or sent by registered mail, return receipt requested, to the employee's most current address that is available to the Board. The written notice will contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the debt is owed and an explanation of its origin, nature, and amount;
</P>
<P>(2) The creditor agency's intention to collect the debt by deducting from the employee's current disposable pay account until the debt and all accumulated interest are paid in full;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount and frequency of the intended deduction (stated as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of pay, not to exceed 15 percent of disposable pay) and the intention to continue the deduction until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of interest, penalties, and administrative charges, including a statement that these charges will be assessed unless excused in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards at 31 CFR parts 900 through 904;
</P>
<P>(5) The employee's right to inspect and copy government records pertaining to the debt or, if the employee or his or her representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive a copy of these records;
</P>
<P>(6) If not previously provided, the opportunity (under terms agreeable to the Board) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or to enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset (31 CFR 901.2) (the agreement must be in writing, signed by the employee and the Board, and documented in the Board's files);
</P>
<P>(7) The employee's right to a hearing conducted by an official arranged for by the Board (an administrative law judge, or alternatively, a hearing official not under the control of the head of the agency) if a petition is filed as prescribed in § 1710.109;
</P>
<P>(8) The methods and time period for petitioning for hearings;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that the timely filing of a petition for a hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;
</P>
<P>(10) A statement that a final decision on the hearing will be issued not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(11) A statement that any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, sections 3729-3731 of title 31, United States Code, or any other applicable statutory authority; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Criminal penalties under sections 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 of title 18, United States Code or any other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(12) A statement of other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and
</P>
<P>(13) Unless there are contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, a statement that amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) Entitlement to hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) An employee who has received a notice under paragraph (a) that his or her debt will be collected by means of salary offset may request a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt.
</P>
<P>(2) If a hearing is given, the employee is entitled to receive a written decision from the official holding the hearing on the following issues:
</P>
<P>(i) the determination of the creditor agency concerning the existence or amount of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The repayment schedule, if it was not established by written agreement between the employee and the creditor agency.”
</P>
<P>(c) Exceptions to entitlement to notice, hearing, written responses, and final decisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Any adjustment to pay arising out of any employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less;
</P>
<P>(2) A routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is made to correct an overpayment of pay attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment, and, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.109" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.109   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for hearing.</I> An employee shall file a petition for a hearing in accordance with the instructions outlined in the creditor agency's notice of salary offset.
</P>
<P>(1) If the Board is the creditor agency, a hearing may be requested by filing a written petition stating why the employee disputes the existence or amount of the debt or the repayment schedule if it was not established by written agreement between the employee and the Board. The employee shall sign the petition and fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, which the employee believes support his or her position. The petition for a hearing must be received no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after receipt of the notice of offset unless the employee can show that the delay in meeting the deadline date was because of circumstances beyond his or her control or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless he or she was otherwise aware of it).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to submit timely request for hearing.</I> If the employee fails to submit a request for hearing within the time period described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the employee will have waived the right to a hearing, and salary offset may be initiated. The Board, however, shall accept a late request for hearing if the employee can show that the late request was the result of circumstances beyond the employee's control or because of a failure to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing official.</I> The Board must obtain the services of a hearing official who is not under the supervision or control of the Board. The Board may contact the Chief Financial Officer to request a hearing official.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> After the employee requests a hearing, the designated hearing official shall inform the employee of the form of the hearing to be provided. For oral hearings, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing. For paper hearings, the notice shall notify the employee of the date by which he or she should submit written arguments to the designated hearing official. The hearing official shall give the employee reasonable time to submit documentation in support of the employee's position. The hearing official shall schedule a new hearing date if requested by both parties. The hearing official shall give both parties reasonable notice of the time and place of a rescheduled hearing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oral hearing.</I> The hearing official will conduct an oral hearing if he or she determines that the matter cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone (for example, when an issue of credibility or veracity is involved). The hearing need not take the form of an evidentiary hearing, but may be conducted in a manner determined by the hearing official, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Informal conferences with the hearing official, in which the employee and agency representative will be given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;
</P>
<P>(2) Informal meetings with an interview of the employee by the hearing official; or
</P>
<P>(3) Formal written submissions, with an opportunity for oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Paper hearing.</I> If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she will make the determination based upon a review of the available written record, including any documentation submitted by the employee in support of his or her position.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Failure to appear or submit documentary evidence.</I> In the absence of good cause shown (for example, excused illness), if the employee fails to appear at an oral hearing or fails to submit documentary evidence as required for a paper hearing, the employee will have waived the right to a hearing, and salary offset may be initiated. Further, the employee will have been deemed to admit the existence and amount of the debt as described in the notice of intent to offset. If the Board's representative fails to appear at an oral hearing, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled and will make his or her determination based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentary evidence submitted by both parties.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The Board will have the initial burden to prove the existence and amount of the debt. Thereafter, if the employee disputes the existence or amount of the debt, the employee must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that no debt exists or that the amount of the debt is incorrect. In addition, the employee may present evidence that the proposed terms of the repayment schedule are unlawful, would cause a financial hardship to the employee, or that collection of the debt may not be pursued due to operation of law.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing provided by this part. Witnesses will testify under oath or affirmation in oral hearings.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Date of decision.</I> The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision, based upon documentary evidence and information developed at the hearing, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for hearing was received by the Board. If the employee requests a delay in the proceedings, the deadline for the decision may be postponed by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed. When a decision is not timely rendered, the Board shall waive penalties applied to the debt for the period beginning with the date the decision is due and ending on the date the decision is issued. The written decision must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the facts presented to demonstrate the nature and origin of the alleged debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's analysis, findings, and conclusions;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount and validity of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(4) The repayment schedule, where appropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.111" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.111   Procedures for salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of disposable pay.</I> The Board will determine an employee's disposable pay (as defined in § 1710.103) and will implement salary offset as described in paragraph (c) of this section, or when requested by another agency, as described in § 1710.113(c). If the debtor is not employed by the Board, the Board will request the agency employing the debtor to determine the amount of the employee's disposable pay and implement salary offset upon request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When salary offset begins.</I> Deductions will begin within three official pay periods following receipt of the creditor agency's request for offset.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amount of salary offset.</I> The amount to be offset from each salary payment will be up to 15 percent of a debtor's disposable pay, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the disposable pay, such debt generally will be collected in one lump sum payment;
</P>
<P>(2) Installment deductions will be made over a period of no greater than the anticipated period of employment. An installment deduction will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. An installment deduction may be less than 15 percent of disposable pay if the creditor agency has determined that smaller deductions are appropriate based on the employee's ability to pay.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final salary payment.</I> After the employee has separated either voluntarily or involuntarily from the payment agency, the p]ayment agency may make a lump sum deduction exceeding 15 percent of disposable pay from any final salary or other payments pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 in order to satisfy the debt.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Multiple debts.</I> In instances where two or more creditor agencies are seeking salary offset, or where two or more debts are owed to a single creditor agency, the Board's finance office may, at its discretion, determine whether one or more debts should be offset simultaneously within the 15 percent limitation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Precedence of debts owed to the Board.</I> For Board employees, debts owed to the Board generally take precedence over debts owed to other agencies. In the event that a debt to the Board is certified while an employee is subject to a salary offset to repay another agency, the Board's finance office may decide whether to have that debt repaid in full before collecting its claim or whether changes should be made in the salary deduction being sent to the other agency. If debts owed to the Board can be collected in one pay period, the finance office may suspend the salary offset to the other agency for that pay period in order to liquidate the Board debt.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Order of debt collection.</I> When an employee owes two or more debts, the best interests of the government shall be the primary consideration in determining the order of debt collection. The Board's finance office, in making this determination, will be guided primarily by the statute of limitations that affects the collection of the debt(s).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.113" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.113   Coordinating salary offset with other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibility of the Board as the creditor agency.</I> The Chairperson or his or her designee shall coordinate debt collections with other agencies and shall, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) Arrange for a hearing or special review upon proper petitioning by a federal employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Prescribe, upon consultation with the General Counsel, such additional practices and procedures as may be necessary to carry out the intent of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) The designated salary offset coordinator will be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensuring that each notice of intent to offset is consistent with the requirements of §§ 1710.107 and 1710.111 of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensuring that each certification of debt that is sent to a paying agency is consistent with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtaining hearing officials; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensuring that hearings are properly scheduled.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requesting recovery from current paying agency.</I> Upon completion of the procedures established in these regulations and pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5514, the Board must:
</P>
<P>(1) Certify, in writing, to the paying agency that the employee owes the debt, the amount and basis of the debt, the date on which payment(s) is due, the date the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, and that the Board's regulations implementing 5 U.S.C. 5514 have been approved by the Office of Personnel Management;
</P>
<P>(2) Advise the paying agency of the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment and the number and commencing date of the installments (if a date other than the next officially established pay period is required);
</P>
<P>(3) Advise the paying agency of the action(s) taken under 5 U.S.C. 5514(b) and give the date(s) action(s) were taken (unless the employee has consented to the salary offset in writing or signed a statement acknowledging receipt of the required procedures and the written consent or statement is forwarded to the paying agency);
</P>
<P>(4) Submit a debt claim certification containing the information specified in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), and (3) of this section and an installment agreement (or other instruction on the payment schedule), if applicable, to the paying agency; and
</P>
<P>(5) Submit the debt claim to the paying agency for collection if the employee is in the process of separating, and has not received a final salary check, or other final payment(s) from the paying agency. The Board must submit a properly certified claim to the agency responsible for making such payments before the collection can be made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Separated employee.</I> If the employee is already separated and all payments due from his or her former paying agency have been paid, the Board may request, unless otherwise prohibited, that money due and payable to the employee from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (5 CFR 831.1801 <I>et seq.</I> or 5 CFR 845.401 <I>et seq.</I>), or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the debt (31 U.S.C. 3716 and the FCCS).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee transfer.</I> When an employee transfers from one paying agency to another paying agency, the Board is not required to repeat the due process procedures described in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this subpart to resume the collection. The Board will submit a properly certified claim to the new paying agency and will subsequently review the debt to verify that the collection is continued by the new paying agency.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.115" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.115   Notice of salary offset from another agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Complete claim.</I> When the Board receives a certified claim from a creditor agency, deductions should be scheduled to begin at the next officially established pay interval. The Board's finance office will provide the employee with a notice that contains:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the Board has received a certified debt claim from the creditor agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of the debt claim;
</P>
<P>(3) The date salary offset deductions will begin;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of such deductions; and
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of the notice received from the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of Claim.</I> The Board's finance office will provide a copy of the notice to the creditor agency and advise the creditor agency of the dollar amount to be offset and the pay period when the offset will begin.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incomplete claim.</I> When the Board receives an incomplete certification of debt from a creditor agency, it must return the debt claim with notice that procedures under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 10 CFR 1710.113 must be followed and a properly certified debt claim received before action will be taken to collect from the employee's current pay account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review.</I> The Board will not review the merits of the creditor agency's determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employees who transfer from one paying agency to another.</I> If, after the creditor agency has submitted the debt claim to the Board, the employee transfers from the Board to a different paying agency before the debt is collected in full, the Board will certify the total amount collected on the debt. One copy of the certification will be furnished to the employee and one copy to the creditor agency, along with notice of the employee's transfer.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.117" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2.46.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.117   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board will refund promptly any amounts deducted to satisfy debts owed to the United States when the debt is waived, found not owed to the United States, or when directed by an administrative or judicial order.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required or permitted by law or contract, refunds under this section may not bear interest.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.119" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2.46.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.119   Non-waiver of rights.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment of all or any part of a debt collected under these regulations will not be construed as a waiver of any rights that the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutes or contracts to the contrary.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1710.121" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.9.2.46.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1710.121   Interest, penalties, and administrative charges.</HEAD>
<P>Charges may be assessed for interest, penalties, and administrative charges in accordance with the FCCS, 31 CFR 901.9.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1711-1799" NODE="10:5.0.5.5.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1711-1799 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XVIII" NODE="10:5.0.6" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVIII—NORTHEAST INTERSTATE LOW-LEVEL RADIOACTIVE WASTE COMMISSION</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1800" NODE="10:5.0.6.5.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1800—DECLARATION OF PARTY STATE ELIGIBILITY FOR NORTHEAST INTERSTATE LOW-LEVEL RADIOACTIVE WASTE COMPACT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 227, Art. IV(i)(7), Art. VII(e), Pub. L. 99-240, 99 Stat. 1842, 1914, 1921-1922. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 30835, May 15, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1800.10" NODE="10:5.0.6.5.1.0.46.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.10   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to Articles IV.i.(1), (7), (15), and VII.e. of the Northeast Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact (enacted by the “Omnibus Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact Consent Act of 1985,” Public Law 99-240, 99 Stat. 1842, Title I) (the “Compact”), the Northeast Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Commission (the “Commission”) establishes through this part the conditions that it deems necessary and appropriate to be met by a state requesting eligibility to become a party state to this Compact. The Commission shall apply these conditions to evaluate the petition of any state seeking to be eligible to become a party state pursuant to Article VII of the Compact. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.11" NODE="10:5.0.6.5.1.0.46.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.11   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions contained in Article II of the Compact and Article I.B. of the Commission's By Laws shall apply throughout this part. For the purposes of this part, additional terms are defined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>By Laws</I> refers to the Commission's By Laws as adopted and amended by the Commission pursuant to Article IV.c. and Article IV.i.(7) of the Compact, most recently amended on December 10, 1998, and dated July 1999; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, business enterprise or other legal entity, either public or private, and expressly includes states; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nuclear power station</I> means any facility holding a license from the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission under 10 CFR Part 50. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Existing party states</I> means Connecticut and New Jersey collectively. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.12" NODE="10:5.0.6.5.1.0.46.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.12   Procedures for declaring a state eligible for membership in the Compact.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any state seeking to become an eligible state under the Compact shall submit to the Chairman of the Commission six copies of a petition to become an eligible state. The petition shall discuss each of the conditions specified in § 1800.13 and shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Affirm that the petitioning state fully satisfies each condition; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Explain why the petitioning state does not or cannot fully satisfy any particular condition. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a petition from any state seeking to become an eligible state under the Compact, the Commission shall publish a notice in accordance with Article I.F.1. of the By Laws and shall initiate an adjudicatory proceeding to act on the petition. Any person may submit written comments on a petition, and all such comments must be received by the Commission within 30 days of notice that a petition has been submitted. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Commission shall evaluate the petition against the conditions for declaration of an eligible state specified in § 1800.13. As part of the proceeding to evaluate a petition to become an eligible state, the Commission may, in its discretion, conduct a hearing pursuant to Article IV.i.(6) of the Compact and Article V.F.1. of the Commission's By-Laws. For good cause shown, the Commission may issue an order shortening the notice period for hearings provided in Article I.F.1. of the By Laws to a period of not less than ten days. 
</P>
<P>(d) After review of the petition and after any hearing, if held, the Commission shall issue an order accepting or rejecting the petition or accepting the petition with conditions. If the Commission accepts the petition without conditions, the petitioning state shall be declared an eligible state and shall become a new party state upon passage of the Compact by its state legislature, repeal of all statutes or statutory provisions that pose unreasonable impediments to the capability of the state to satisfy the conditions for eligibility (as determined by the Commission) and payment of (or arrangement to pay) the fee specified in Article IV.j.(1). If the Commission accepts the petition with conditions, the petitioning state may become an eligible state by satisfying all of the conditions in the Commission's order and providing an amended petition incorporating its compliance with all of the conditions in this subpart and in the Commission's order. The Commission will consider the amended petition as part of the original adjudicatory proceeding and will issue a new order accepting or rejecting the amended petition. 
</P>
<P>(e) A state that submits a petition for declaration as an eligible state that is rejected by the Commission may submit a new petition at any time. The Commission will consider the new petition without reference to the prior petition but may use evidence obtained in any prior proceeding to evaluate the new petition. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Commission's consideration of a petition for declaration of an eligible state shall be governed by the Compact, the Commission's By Laws, and this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.13" NODE="10:5.0.6.5.1.0.46.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.13   Conditions for becoming an eligible party state.</HEAD>
<P>The Commission shall evaluate a petition to become an eligible party state on the basis of the following conditions and criteria: 
</P>
<P>(a) To be eligible for Compact membership, a state must agree that it will be the voluntary host state upon admission to the Compact and will continue to be the voluntary host state for a least that period of time until all currently licensed nuclear power stations within the region have been fully decommissioned and their licenses (including any licenses for storage of spent nuclear fuel under 10 CFR Part 72) have been terminated. 
</P>
<P>(b) To be eligible for Compact membership, a state must agree that, so long as the petitioning state remains within the Compact, it will be the sole host state. 
</P>
<P>(c) To be eligible for Compact membership, a state must warrant the availability of a regional disposal facility that will accommodate 800,000 cubic feet of waste from generators located within the borders of the existing party states. 
</P>
<P>(d) To be eligible for Compact membership, a state must agree to establish a uniform fee schedule for waste disposal at the regional disposal facility that shall apply to all generators within the region. That uniform fee schedule, including all surcharges (except new surcharges imposed pursuant to Article V.f.3. of the Compact), shall not exceed the average fees that generators within the existing party states paid for disposal at the Barnwell, South Carolina, facility at the end of calendar year 1999, adjusted annually based on an acceptable inflation index. 
</P>
<P>(e) To be eligible for Compact membership, a state must agree with the existing states that regional generators shall be permitted to process or dispose of waste at sites outside the Compact boundaries based solely on the judgment and discretion of each regional generator. 
</P>
<P>(f) To be eligible for Compact membership, a state must agree with the existing states that the Commission may authorize importation of waste from non-regional generators for the purpose of disposal only if the host state approves and such importation does not jeopardize the warranted availability of 800,000 cubic feet of disposal capacity for waste produced by generators within the existing party states. A new party state must agree that regional generators shall not pay higher fees than non-regional generators and that all books and records related to the establishment or collection of fees shall be available for Commission review. 
</P>
<P>(g) To be eligible for Compact membership, in addition to the express limitations on non-host state and Commission liability provided in the Compact, a state must agree to indemnify the Commission or the existing party states for any damages incurred solely because of the new state's membership in the Compact and for any damages associated with any injury to persons or property during the institutional control period as a result of the radioactive waste and waste management operations of any regional facility. The petitioning state must agree that this indemnification obligation will survive the termination of the petitioning state's membership in the Compact. 
</P>
<P>(h) To be eligible for Compact membership, a state must agree that any incentive payments made by the existing party states as an inducement for a state to join the Compact will be returned to the existing party states, with interest, on a pro rata basis if, for any reason, the regional disposal facility ceases to be available to generators in the existing party states for a period of more than six months (other than periods that have been expressly approved and authorized by the Commission) or is unavailable for disposal of 800,000 cubic feet of waste from generators within the borders of the existing states. In the event of such unavailability, the new party state must agree to return the incentive payments based on the following schedule: 
</P>
<P>(1) 75% of the incentive payment if the regional facility becomes unavailable prior to January 1, 2002; 
</P>
<P>(2) 50% of the incentive payment if the regional facility becomes unavailable on or after January 1, 2002, and prior to January 1, 2004; 
</P>
<P>(3) 30% of the incentive payment if the regional facility becomes unavailable on or after January 1, 2004, and prior to January 1, 2006; 
</P>
<P>(4) 20% of the incentive payment if the regional facility becomes unavailable on or after January 1, 2006, and prior to January 1, 2009; 
</P>
<P>(5) 10% of the incentive payment if the regional facility becomes unavailable on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to the time when all currently licensed nuclear power stations within the region have been fully decommissioned and their licenses (including any licenses for storage of spent nuclear fuel under 10 CFR Part 72) have been terminated. 
</P>
<P>(i) To be eligible for Compact membership, a state must agree with the existing states that once a new party state has been admitted to membership in the Compact pursuant to the rules in this part, declaration of any other state as an eligible party state will require the unanimous consent of all members of the Commission. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1800.14" NODE="10:5.0.6.5.1.0.46.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1800.14   Modification to and enforcement of the rules in this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Because of the importance of the conditions for declaration of an eligible state under the Compact, the rules in this part may only be modified, amended, or rescinded after a public hearing held pursuant to Article IV.i.(6) of the Compact and Article V.F.1. of the Commission's By Laws and by a unanimous vote of all members of the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any party state may enforce the rules in this part by bringing an action against or on behalf of the Commission in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia pursuant to Article IV.n. of the Compact. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, for any reason, any portion of the rules in this part shall be declared invalid or unenforceable, the remainder of the rules in this part shall remain in full force and effect.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1801-1899" NODE="10:5.0.6.5.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1801-1899 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
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</TEXT>
</DLPSTEXTCLASS>
